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Title 12: Banks and Banking</TITLE>
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12</IDNO>

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<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 1, 2026 
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="1" NODE="12:1" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 1</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter i</E>—Comptroller of the Currency, Department of the Treasury 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="I" NODE="12:1.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER I—COMPTROLLER OF THE CURRENCY, DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1—INVESTMENT SECURITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24 (Seventh), and 93a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 63982, Dec. 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), and 12 U.S.C. 93a. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose</I> This part prescribes standards under which national banks may purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold securities, consistent with the authority contained in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and safe and sound banking practices. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> The standards set forth in this part apply to national banks and Federal branches of foreign banks. Further, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 335, State banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System are subject to the same limitations and conditions that apply to national banks in connection with purchasing, selling, dealing in, and underwriting securities and stock. In addition to activities authorized under this part, foreign branches of national banks are authorized to conduct international activities and invest in securities pursuant to 12 CFR part 211. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The OCC may determine, on a case-by-case basis, that a national bank may acquire an investment security other than an investment security of a type set forth in this part, provided the OCC determines that the bank's investment is consistent with 12 U.S.C. section 24 (Seventh) and with safe and sound banking practices. The OCC will consider all relevant factors, including the risk characteristics of the particular investment in comparison with the risk characteristics of investments that the OCC has previously authorized, and the bank's ability effectively to manage such risks. The OCC may impose limits or conditions in connection with approval of an investment security under this subsection. Investment securities that the OCC determines are permissible in accordance with this paragraph constitute eligible investments for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63982, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22235, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital and surplus</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying community banking organizations that have elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, as reported in the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(2) For all other banks:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank's tier 1 and tier 2 capital calculated under the OCC's risk-based capital standards set forth in part 3 of this chapter, as applicable (or comparable capital guidelines of the appropriate Federal banking agency), as reported in the bank's Call Report; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of a bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the bank's tier 2 capital, for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, as reported in the bank's Call Report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General obligation of a State or political subdivision</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An obligation supported by the full faith and credit of an obligor possessing general powers of taxation, including property taxation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation payable from a special fund or by an obligor not possessing general powers of taxation, when an obligor possessing general powers of taxation, including property taxation, has unconditionally promised to make payments into the fund or otherwise provide funds to cover all required payments on the obligation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment company</I> means an investment company, including a mutual fund, registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-8. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investment grade</I> means the issuer of a security has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Investment security</I> means a marketable debt obligation that is investment grade and not predominately speculative in nature.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Marketable</I> means that the security:
</P>
<P>(1) Is registered under the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Is a municipal revenue bond exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Is offered and sold pursuant to Securities and Exchange Commission Rule 144A, 17 CFR 230.144A, and investment grade; or
</P>
<P>(4) Can be sold with reasonable promptness at a price that corresponds reasonably to its fair value. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Municipal bonds</I> means obligations of a State or political subdivision other than general obligations, and includes limited obligation bonds, revenue bonds, and obligations that satisfy the requirements of section 142(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 issued by or on behalf of any State or political subdivision of a State, including any municipal corporate instrumentality of 1 or more States, or any public agency or authority of any State or political subdivision of a State. 
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Political subdivision</I> means a county, city, town, or other municipal corporation, a public authority, and generally any publicly-owned entity that is an instrumentality of a State or of a municipal corporation. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Type I security</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Obligations of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Obligations issued, insured, or guaranteed by a department or an agency of the United States Government, if the obligation, insurance, or guarantee commits the full faith and credit of the United States for the repayment of the obligation; 
</P>
<P>(3) Obligations issued by a department or agency of the United States, or an agency or political subdivision of a State of the United States, that represent an interest in a loan or a pool of loans made to third parties, if the full faith and credit of the United States has been validly pledged for the full and timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the loans in the event of non-payment by the third party obligor(s); 
</P>
<P>(4) General obligations of a State of the United States or any political subdivision thereof; and municipal bonds if the national bank is well capitalized as defined in 12 CFR 6.4; 
</P>
<P>(5) Obligations authorized under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) as permissible for a national bank to deal in, underwrite, purchase, and sell for the bank's own account, including qualified Canadian government obligations; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Other securities the OCC determines to be eligible as Type I securities under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Type II security</I> means an investment security that represents: 
</P>
<P>(1) Obligations issued by a State, or a political subdivision or agency of a State, for housing, university, or dormitory purposes that would not satisfy the definition of Type I securities pursuant to paragraph (j) of § 1.2;
</P>
<P>(2) Obligations of international and multilateral development banks and organizations listed in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh); 
</P>
<P>(3) Other obligations listed in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) as permissible for a bank to deal in, underwrite, purchase, and sell for the bank's own account, subject to a limitation per obligor of 10 percent of the bank's capital and surplus; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other securities the OCC determines to be eligible as Type II securities under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh). 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Type III security</I> means an investment security that does not qualify as a Type I, II, IV, or V security. Examples of Type III securities include corporate bonds and municipal bonds that do not satisfy the definition of Type I securities pursuant to paragraph (j) of § 1.2 or the definition of Type II securities pursuant to paragraph (k) of § 1.2. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Type IV security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A small business-related security as defined in section 3(a)(53)(A) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(53)(A), that is fully secured by interests in a pool of loans to numerous obligors.
</P>
<P>(2) A commercial mortgage-related security that is offered or sold pursuant to section 4(5) of the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77d(5), that is investment grade, or a commercial mortgage-related security as described in section 3(a)(41) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41), that represents ownership of a promissory note or certificate of interest or participation that is directly secured by a first lien on one or more parcels of real estate upon which one or more commercial structures are located and that is fully secured by interests in a pool of loans to numerous obligors.
</P>
<P>(3) A residential mortgage-related security that is offered and sold pursuant to section 4(5) of the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77d(5), that is investment grade, or a residential mortgage-related security as described in section 3(a)(41) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41)) that does not otherwise qualify as a Type I security.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Type V security</I> means a security that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Investment grade;
</P>
<P>(2) Marketable;
</P>
<P>(3) Not a Type IV security; and
</P>
<P>(4) Fully secured by interests in a pool of loans to numerous obligors and in which a national bank could invest directly. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63982, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34791, July 2, 2001; 77 FR 35257, June 13, 2012; 79 FR 11309, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 4237, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61792, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69297, Dec. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.3   Limitations on dealing in, underwriting, and purchase and sale of securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Type I securities.</I> A national bank may deal in, underwrite, purchase, and sell Type I securities for its own account. The amount of Type I securities that the bank may deal in, underwrite, purchase, and sell is not limited to a specified percentage of the bank's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Type II securities.</I> A national bank may deal in, underwrite, purchase, and sell Type II securities for its own account, provided the aggregate par value of Type II securities issued by any one obligor held by the bank does not exceed 10 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. In applying this limitation, a national bank shall take account of Type II securities that the bank is legally committed to purchase or to sell in addition to the bank's existing holdings. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Type III securities.</I> A national bank may purchase and sell Type III securities for its own account, provided the aggregate par value of Type III securities issued by any one obligor held by the bank does not exceed 10 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. In applying this limitation, a national bank shall take account of Type III securities that the bank is legally committed to purchase or to sell in addition to the bank's existing holdings. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Type II and III securities; other investment securities limitations.</I> A national bank may not hold Type II and III securities issued by any one obligor with an aggregate par value exceeding 10 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. However, if the proceeds of each issue are to be used to acquire and lease real estate and related facilities to economically and legally separate industrial tenants, and if each issue is payable solely from and secured by a first lien on the revenues to be derived from rentals paid by the lessee under net noncancellable leases, the bank may apply the 10 percent investment limitation separately to each issue of a single obligor. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Type IV securities.</I> A national bank may purchase and sell Type IV securities for its own account. The amount of the Type IV securities that a bank may purchase and sell is not limited to a specified percentage of the bank's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Type V securities.</I> A national bank may purchase and sell Type V securities for its own account provided that the aggregate par value of Type V securities issued by any one issuer held by the bank does not exceed 25 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. In applying this limitation, a national bank shall take account of Type V securities that the bank is legally committed to purchase or to sell in addition to the bank's existing holdings. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Securitization.</I> A national bank may securitize and sell assets that it holds, as a part of its banking business. The amount of securitized loans and obligations that a bank may sell is not limited to a specified percentage of the bank's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pooled investments</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A national bank may purchase and sell for its own account investment company shares provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The portfolio of the investment company consists exclusively of assets that the national bank may purchase and sell for its own account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's holdings of investment company shares do not exceed the limitations in § 1.4(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other issuers.</I> The OCC may determine that a national bank may invest in an entity that is exempt from registration as an investment company under section 3(c)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, provided that the portfolio of the entity consists exclusively of assets that a national bank may purchase and sell for its own account.
</P>
<P>(3) Investments made under this paragraph (h) must comply with § 1.5 of this part, conform with applicable published OCC precedent, and must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Marketable and investment grade, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfy the requirements of § 1.3(i).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Securities held based on estimates of obligor's performance.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 1.2(d) and (e), a national bank may treat a debt security as an investment security for purposes of this part if the security is marketable and the bank concludes, on the basis of estimates that the bank reasonably believes are reliable, that the obligor will be able to satisfy its obligations under that security. 
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate par value of securities treated as investment securities under paragraph (i)(1) of this section may not exceed 5 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63982, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60098, Nov. 4, 1999; 73 FR 22235, Apr. 24, 2008; 77 FR 35257, June 13, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.4   Calculation of limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation date.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and this part, a bank shall determine its investment limitations as of the most recent of the following dates: 
</P>
<P>(1) The last day of the preceding calendar quarter; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which there is a change in the bank's capital category for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1831o and 12 CFR 6.3. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> (1) A bank's investment limit calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be effective on the earlier of the following dates: 
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) is submitted; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income is required to be submitted. 
</P>
<P>(2) A bank's investment limit calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section will be effective on the date that the limit is to be calculated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority of OCC to require more frequent calculations.</I> If the OCC determines for safety and soundness reasons that a bank should calculate its investment limits more frequently than required by paragraph (a) of this section, the OCC may provide written notice to the bank directing the bank to calculate its investment limitations at a more frequent interval. The bank shall thereafter calculate its investment limits at that interval until further notice. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of Type III and Type V securities holdings</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In calculating the amount of its investment in Type III or Type V securities issued by any one obligor, a bank shall aggregate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Obligations issued by obligors that are related directly or indirectly through common control; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities that are credit enhanced by the same entity. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aggregation by type.</I> The aggregation requirement in paragraph (d)(1) of this section applies separately to the Type III and Type V securities held by a bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limit on investment company holdings</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In calculating the amount of its investment in investment company shares under this part, a bank shall use reasonable efforts to calculate and combine its pro rata share of a particular security in the portfolio of each investment company with the bank's direct holdings of that security. The bank's direct holdings of the particular security and the bank's pro rata interest in the same security in the investment company's portfolio may not, in the aggregate, exceed the investment limitation that would apply to that security. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternate limit for diversified investment companies.</I> A national bank may elect not to combine its pro rata interest in a particular security in an investment company with the bank's direct holdings of that security if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The investment company's holdings of the securities of any one issuer do not exceed 5 percent of its total portfolio; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's total holdings of the investment company's shares do not exceed the most stringent investment limitation that would apply to any of the securities in the company's portfolio if those securities were purchased directly by the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.5   Safe and sound banking practices; credit information required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank shall adhere to safe and sound banking practices and the specific requirements of this part in conducting the activities described in § 1.3. The bank shall consider, as appropriate, the interest rate, credit, liquidity, price, foreign exchange, transaction, compliance, and strategic risks presented by a proposed activity, and the particular activities undertaken by the bank must be appropriate for that bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) In conducting these activities, the bank shall determine that there is adequate evidence that an obligor possesses resources sufficient to provide for all required payments on its obligations, or, in the case of securities deemed to be investment securities on the basis of reliable estimates of an obligor's performance, that the bank reasonably believes that the obligor will be able to satisfy the obligation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each bank shall maintain records available for examination purposes adequate to demonstrate that it meets the requirements of this part. The bank may store the information in any manner that can be readily retrieved and reproduced in a readable form. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63982, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at  91 FR 18292, Apr. 10, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.6   Convertible securities.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may not purchase securities convertible into stock at the option of the issuer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.7   Securities held in satisfaction of debts previously contracted; holding period; disposal; accounting treatment; non-speculative purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securities held in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</I> The restrictions and limitations of this part, other than those set forth in paragraphs (b),(c), and (d) of this section, do not apply to securities acquired: 
</P>
<P>(1) Through foreclosure on collateral; 
</P>
<P>(2) In good faith by way of compromise of a doubtful claim; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To avoid loss in connection with a debt previously contracted. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Holding period.</I> A national bank holding securities pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may do so for a period not to exceed five years from the date that ownership of the securities was originally transferred to the bank. The OCC may extend the holding period for up to an additional five years if a bank provides a clearly convincing demonstration as to why an additional holding period is needed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting treatment.</I> A bank shall account for securities held pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-speculative purpose.</I> A bank may not hold securities pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for speculative purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.8   Nonconforming investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank's investment in securities that no longer conform to this part but conformed when made will not be deemed in violation but instead will be treated as nonconforming if the reason why the investment no longer conforms to this part is because: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's capital declines; 
</P>
<P>(2) Issuers, obligors, or credit-enhancers merge; 
</P>
<P>(3) Issuers become related directly or indirectly through common control; 
</P>
<P>(4) The investment securities rules change; 
</P>
<P>(5) The security no longer qualifies as an investment security; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Other events identified by the OCC occur. 
</P>
<P>(b) A bank shall exercise reasonable efforts to bring an investment that is nonconforming as a result of events described in paragraph (a) of this section into conformity with this part unless to do so would be inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.100   Indirect general obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation issued by an obligor not possessing general powers of taxation.</I> Pursuant to § 1.2(b), an obligation issued by an obligor not possessing general powers of taxation qualifies as a general obligation of a State or political subdivision for the purposes of 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), if a party possessing general powers of taxation unconditionally promises to make sufficient funds available for all required payments in connection with the obligation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indirect commitment of full faith and credit.</I> The indirect commitment of the full faith and credit of a State or political subdivision (that possesses general powers of taxation) in support of an obligation may be demonstrated by any of the following methods, alone or in combination, when the State or political subdivision pledges its full faith and credit in support of the obligation. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lease/rental agreement.</I> The lease agreement must be valid and binding on the State or the political subdivision, and the State or political subdivision must unconditionally promise to pay rentals that, together with any other available funds, are sufficient for the timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation. These lease/rental agreement may, for instance, provide support for obligations financing the acquisition or operation of public projects in the areas of education, medical care, transportation, recreation, public buildings, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service/purchase agreement.</I> The agreement must be valid and binding on the State or the political subdivision, and the State or political subdivision must unconditionally promise in the agreement to make payments for services or resources provided through or by the issuer of the obligation. These payments, together with any other available funds, must be sufficient for the timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation. An agreement to purchase municipal sewer, water, waste disposal, or electric services may, for instance, provide support for obligations financing the construction or acquisition of facilities supplying those services. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refillable debt service reserve fund.</I> The reserve fund must at least equal the amount necessary to meet the annual payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation as required by applicable law. The maintenance of a refillable reserve fund may be provided, for instance, by statutory direction for an appropriation, or by statutory automatic apportionment and payment from the State funds of amounts necessary to restore the fund to the required level. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other grants or support.</I> A statutory provision or agreement must unconditionally commit the State or the political subdivision to provide funds which, together with other available funds, are sufficient for the timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation. Those funds may, for instance, be supplied in the form of annual grants or may be advanced whenever the other available revenues are not sufficient for the payment of principal and interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.110" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.110   Taxing powers of a State or political subdivision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An obligation is considered supported by the full faith and credit of a State or political subdivision possessing general powers of taxation when the promise or other commitment of the State or the political subdivision will produce funds, which (together with any other funds available for the purpose) will be sufficient to provide for all required payments on the obligation. In order to evaluate whether a commitment of a State or political subdivision is likely to generate sufficient funds, a bank shall consider the impact of any possible limitations regarding the State's or political subdivision's taxing powers, as well as the availability of funds in view of the projected revenues and expenditures. Quantitative restrictions on the general powers of taxation of the State or political subdivision do not necessarily mean that an obligation is not supported by the full faith and credit of the State or political subdivision. In such case, the bank shall determine the eligibility of obligations by reviewing, on a case-by-case basis, whether tax revenues available under the limited taxing powers are sufficient for the full and timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation. The bank shall use current and reasonable financial projections in calculating the availability of the revenues. An obligation expressly or implicitly dependent upon voter or legislative authorization of appropriations may be considered supported by the full faith and credit of a State or political subdivision if the bank determines, on the basis of past actions by the voters or legislative body in similar situations involving similar types of projects, that it is reasonably probable that the obligor will obtain all necessary appropriations. 
</P>
<P>(b) An obligation supported exclusively by excise taxes or license fees is not a general obligation for the purposes of 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh). Nevertheless, an obligation that is primarily payable from a fund consisting of excise taxes or other pledged revenues qualifies as a “general obligation,” if, in the event of a deficiency of those revenues, the obligation is also supported by the general revenues of a State or a political subdivision possessing general powers of taxation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.120" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.120   Prerefunded or escrowed bonds and obligations secured by Type I securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An obligation qualifies as a Type I security if it is secured by an escrow fund consisting of obligations of the United States or general obligations of a State or a political subdivision, and the escrowed obligations produce interest earnings sufficient for the full and timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the interest earnings from the escrowed Type I securities alone are not sufficient to guarantee the full repayment of an obligation, a promise of a State or a political subdivision possessing general powers of taxation to maintain a reserve fund for the timely payment of interest on, and principal of, the obligation may further support a guarantee of the full repayment of an obligation. 
</P>
<P>(c) An obligation issued to refund an indirect general obligation may be supported in a number of ways that, in combination, are sufficient at all times to support the obligation with the full faith and credit of the United States or a State or a political subdivision possessing general powers of taxation. During the period following its issuance, the proceeds of the refunding obligation may be invested in U.S. obligations or municipal general obligations that will produce sufficient interest income for payment of principal and interest. Upon the retirement of the outstanding indirect general obligation bonds, the same indirect commitment, such as a lease agreement or a reserve fund, that supported the prior issue, may support the refunding obligation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.1.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1.130   Type II securities; guidelines for obligations issued for university and housing purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investment quality.</I> An obligation issued for housing, university, or dormitory purposes is a Type II security only if it: 
</P>
<P>(1) Qualifies as an investment security, as defined in § 1.2(e); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is issued for the appropriate purpose and by a qualifying issuer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation issued for university purposes.</I> (1) An obligation issued by a State or political subdivision or agency of a State or political subdivision for the purpose of financing the construction or improvement of facilities at or used by a university or a degree-granting college-level institution, or financing loans for studies at such institutions, qualifies as a Type II security. Facilities financed in this manner may include student buildings, classrooms, university utility buildings, cafeterias, stadiums, and university parking lots. 
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation that finances the construction or improvement of facilities used by a hospital may be eligible as a Type II security, if the hospital is a department or a division of a university, or otherwise provides a nexus with university purposes, such as an affiliation agreement between the university and the hospital, faculty positions of the hospital staff, and training of medical students, interns, residents, and nurses (<I>e.g.,</I> a “teaching hospital”). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation issued for housing purposes.</I> An obligation issued for housing purposes may qualify as a Type II security if the security otherwise meets the criteria for a Type II security. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 2—SALES OF CREDIT LIFE INSURANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), 93a, and 1818(n). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 51781, Oct. 4, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 2.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> A national bank may provide credit life insurance to loan customers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to set forth the principles and standards that apply to a national bank's provision of credit life insurance and the limitations that apply to the receipt of income from those sales by certain individuals and entities associated with the bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to the provision of credit life insurance by any national bank employee, officer, director, or principal shareholder, and certain entities in which such persons own an interest of more than ten percent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means a national banking association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit life insurance</I> means credit life, health, and accident insurance, sometimes referred to as credit life and disability insurance, and mortgage life and disability insurance. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Owning an interest</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership through a spouse or minor child; 
</P>
<P>(2) Ownership through a broker, nominee, or other agent; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Ownership through any corporation, partnership, association, joint venture, or proprietorship, that is controlled by the director, officer, employee, or principal shareholder of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Officer, director, employee, or principal shareholder</I> includes the spouse and minor children of an officer, director, employee, or principal shareholder. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Principal shareholder</I> means any shareholder who directly or indirectly owns or controls an interest of more than ten percent of the bank's outstanding voting securities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 51781, Oct. 4, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22235, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.3   Distribution of credit life insurance income.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Distribution of credit life insurance income by a national bank must be consistent with the requirements and principles of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is an unsafe and unsound practice for any director, officer, employee, or principal shareholder of a national bank (including any entity in which this person owns an interest of more than ten percent), who is involved in the sale of credit life insurance to loan customers of the national bank, to take advantage of that business opportunity for personal profit. Recommendations to customers to buy insurance should be based on the benefits of the policy, not the commissions received from the sale. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in §§ 2.4 and 2.5(b), and paragraph (d) of this section, a director, officer, employee, or principal shareholder of a national bank, or an entity in which such person owns an interest of more than ten percent, may not retain commissions or other income from the sale of credit life insurance in connection with any loan made by that bank, and income from credit life insurance sales to loan customers must be credited to the income accounts of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) The requirements of paragraph (c) of this section do not apply to a director, officer, employee, or principal shareholder if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The person is employed by a third party that has contracted with the bank on an arm's-length basis to sell financial products on bank premises; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The person is not involved in the bank's credit decision process. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.4   Bonus and incentive plans.</HEAD>
<P>A bank employee or officer may participate in a bonus or incentive plan based on the sale of credit life insurance if payments to the employee or officer in any one year do not exceed the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(a) Five percent of the recipient's annual salary; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Five percent of the average salary of all loan officers participating in the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 2.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.2.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 2.5   Bank compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing contained in this part prohibits a bank employee, officer, director, or principal shareholder who holds an insurance agent's license from agreeing to compensate the bank for the use of its premises, employees, or good will. However, the employee, officer, director, or principal shareholder shall turn over to the bank as compensation all income received from the sale of the credit life insurance to the bank's loan customers. 
</P>
<P>(b) Income derived from credit life insurance sales to loan customers may be credited to an affiliate operating under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, 12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> or to a trust for the benefit of all shareholders, provided that the bank receives reasonable compensation in recognition of the role played by its personnel, premises, and good will in credit life insurance sales. Reasonable compensation generally means an amount equivalent to at least 20 percent of the affiliate's net income attributable to the bank's credit life insurance sales.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 3—CAPITAL ADEQUACY STANDARDS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 1462, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1818, 1828(n), 1828 note, 1831n note, 1835, 3907, 3909, 5371, 5371 note, 5412(b)(2)(B), and Pub. L. 116-136, 134 Stat. 281.












</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 10216, Mar. 14, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.1.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.1   Purpose, applicability, reservations of authority, and timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards for national banks and Federal savings associations. This part does not apply to Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks. This part includes methodologies for calculating minimum capital requirements, public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements, and transition provisions for the application of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the OCC to take action under other provisions of law, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> Subject to the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its minimum capital requirements and meet the overall capital adequacy standards in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its regulatory capital in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) Each national bank or Federal savings association must use the methodologies in subpart D of this part (and subpart F of this part for a market risk national bank or Federal savings association) to calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must use the methodologies in subpart E (and subpart F of this part for a market risk national bank or Federal savings association) to calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures.</I> (i) Except for an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that is making public disclosures pursuant to the requirements in subpart E of this part, each national bank or Federal savings association with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more must make the public disclosures described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each market risk national bank or Federal savings association must make the public disclosures described in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must make the public disclosures described in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Additional capital in the aggregate.</I> The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under this part if the OCC determines that the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital requirements under this part are not commensurate with the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit, market, operational, or other risks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital elements.</I> (i) If the OCC determines that a particular common equity tier 1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to exclude all or a portion of such element from common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, the OCC may find that a capital element may be included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 3.20(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amounts.</I> If the OCC determines that the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under this part by the national bank or Federal savings association for one or more exposures is not commensurate with the risks associated with those exposures, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to the exposure(s) or to deduct the amount of the exposure(s) from its regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total leverage.</I> If the OCC determines that the total leverage exposure, or the amount reflected in the national bank's or Federal savings association's reported average total consolidated assets, for an on- or off-balance sheet exposure calculated by a national bank or Federal savings association under § 3.10 is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to adjust this exposure amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the leverage ratio calculations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consolidation of certain exposures.</I> The OCC may determine that the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet is not commensurate with the risk of the exposure and the relationship of the national bank or Federal savings association to the entity. Upon making this determination, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the balance sheet of the national bank or Federal savings association for purposes of determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirements and calculating the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital ratios accordingly. The OCC will look to the substance of, and risk associated with, the transaction, as well as other relevant factors the OCC deems appropriate in determining whether to require such treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any deduction or limitation required under this part, the OCC may require a different deduction or limitation, provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response procedures.</I> In making a determination under this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner as the notice and response procedures in § 3.404.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Timing.</I> (1) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that is not a savings and loan holding company must:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart E and, if applicable, subpart F of this part and, beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D and, if applicable, subpart F of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) Beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B, and C of this part, provided, however, that such national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) From January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, maintain a minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4 percent, a minimum tier 1 capital ratio of 5.5 percent, a minimum total capital ratio of 8 percent, and a minimum leverage ratio of 4 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) From January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2017, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 3.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association or a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D, and if applicable, subpart F of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B and C of this part, provided, however, that from January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2017, a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 3.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning on January 1, 2016, and subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, a national bank or Federal savings association is subject to limitations on distributions and discretionary bonus payments with respect to its capital conservation buffer and any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, in accordance with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) No national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches bank or advanced approaches savings association is subject to this part 3 until January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(5) A national bank or Federal savings association that changes from one category of national bank or Federal savings association to another of such categories must comply with the requirements of its category in this part, including applicable transition provisions of the requirements in this part, no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the national bank's or Federal savings association's category.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57740, Sept. 26, 2014; 84 FR 35248, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 56374, Oct. 22, 2019; 84 FR 59263, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.1.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 3.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted allowances for credit losses (AACL)</I> means, with respect to a national bank or Federal savings association that has adopted CECL, valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings for expected credit losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost and a lessor's net investment in leases that have been established to reduce the amortized cost basis of the assets to amounts expected to be collected as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, adjusted allowances for credit losses include allowances for expected credit losses on off-balance sheet credit exposures not accounted for as insurance as determined in accordance with GAAP. Adjusted allowances for credit losses exclude “allocated transfer risk reserves” and allowances created that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that is described in § 3.100(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit-risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a market risk national bank or Federal savings association only, advanced market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Excess eligible credit reserves not included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced market risk-weighted assets</I> means the advanced measure for market risk calculated under § 3.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> with respect to a company, means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the company.
</P>
<P><I>Allocated transfer risk reserves</I> means reserves that have been established in accordance with section 905(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act, against certain assets whose value U.S. supervisory authorities have found to be significantly impaired by protracted transfer risk problems.
</P>
<P><I>Allowances for loan and lease losses (ALLL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses on loans, lease financing receivables or other extensions of credit as determined in accordance with GAAP. ALLL excludes “allocated transfer risk reserves.” For purposes of this part, ALLL includes allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with off-balance sheet credit exposures as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program</I> means a program established primarily for the purpose of issuing commercial paper that is investment grade and backed by underlying exposures held in a bankruptcy-remote special purpose entity (SPE).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program sponsor</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(2) Approves the sellers permitted to participate in an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(3) Approves the exposures to be purchased by an ABCP program; or
</P>
<P>(4) Administers the ABCP program by monitoring the underlying exposures, underwriting or otherwise arranging for the placement of debt or other obligations issued by the program, compiling monthly reports, or ensuring compliance with the program documents and with the program's credit and investment policy.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> means a bank holding company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bank Holding Company Act</I> means the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, with respect to an entity or asset, that the entity or asset would be excluded from an insolvent entity's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Basis derivative contract</I> means a non-foreign-exchange derivative contract (<I>i.e.,</I> the contract is denominated in a single currency) in which the cash flows of the derivative contract depend on the difference between two risk factors that are attributable solely to one of the following derivative asset classes: Interest rate, credit, equity, or commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, the value of the asset on the balance sheet of the national bank or Federal savings association as determined in accordance with GAAP. For all assets other than available-for-sale debt securities or purchased credit deteriorated assets, the carrying value is not reduced by any associated credit loss allowance that is determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Category II national bank or Federal savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a Category II banking organization, as defined pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent quarters, total consolidated assets is based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition, a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category II national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form; or
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Category III national bank or Federal savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a Category III banking organization, as defined pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (3)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least one of the following in paragraphs (3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each calculated as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters, or if the depository institution has not filed each applicable reporting form for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or quarters, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure equal to $75 billion or more. Off-balance sheet exposure is a depository institution's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition, a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category III national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(A) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is a national bank's or Federal savings association's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the national bank or Federal savings association, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>CFTC</I> means the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating national bank or Federal savings association or servicer to call securitization exposures before their stated maturity or call date.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared transaction</I> means an exposure associated with an outstanding derivative contract or repo-style transaction that a national bank or Federal savings association or clearing member has entered into with a central counterparty (that is, a transaction that a central counterparty has accepted).
</P>
<P>(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction between a CCP and a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member of the CCP where the national bank or Federal savings association enters into the transaction with the CCP for the national bank's or Federal savings association's own account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction between a CCP and a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member of the CCP where the national bank or Federal savings association is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client and the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 3.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 3.3(a) are met; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 3.3(a)(2) and (3). 
</P>
<P>(2) The exposure of a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member to its clearing member client is not a cleared transaction where the national bank or Federal savings association is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the national bank or Federal savings association provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For the standardized approach treatment of these exposures, see § 3.34(e) (OTC derivative contracts) or § 3.37(c) (repo-style transactions). For the advanced approaches treatment of these exposures, see §§ 3.132(c)(8) and (d) (OTC derivative contracts) or §§ 3.132(b) and 3.132(d) (repo-style transactions) and for calculation of the margin period of risk, see §§ 3.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) (OTC derivative contracts) and 3.132(d)(5)(iii)(A) (repo-style transactions).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Clearing member</I> means a member of, or direct participant in, a CCP that is entitled to enter into transactions with the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member client</I> means a party to a cleared transaction associated with a CCP in which a clearing member acts either as a financial intermediary with respect to the party or guarantees the performance of the party to the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Client-facing derivative transaction</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction where the national bank or Federal savings association is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) or where the national bank or Federal savings association provides a guarantee on the performance of a client on a transaction between the client and a QCCP.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral agreement</I> means a legal contract that specifies the time when, and circumstances under which, a counterparty is required to pledge collateral to a national bank or Federal savings association for a single financial contract or for all financial contracts in a netting set and confers upon the national bank or Federal savings association a perfected, first-priority security interest (notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent), or the legal equivalent thereof, in the collateral posted by the counterparty under the agreement. This security interest must provide the national bank or Federal savings association with a right to close-out the financial positions and liquidate the collateral upon an event of default of, or failure to perform by, the counterparty under the collateral agreement. A contract would not satisfy this requirement if the national bank's or Federal savings association's exercise of rights under the agreement may be stayed or avoided:
</P>
<P>(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The OCC expects to evaluate jointly with the Board and FDIC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382 of this title 12, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial end-user</I> means an entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Is not an entity described in section 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a “financial entity” for purposes of section 2(h)(7) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)); or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not an entity described in section 3C(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Qualifies for the exemption in section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(4) Qualifies for an exemption in section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) by virtue of section 3C(g)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates a national bank or Federal savings association to extend credit or to purchase assets.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity derivative contract</I> means a commodity-linked swap, purchased commodity-linked option, forward commodity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to commodities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 3.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest</I> means the common equity tier 1 capital of a depository institution or foreign bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A consolidated subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not owned by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> A person or company <I>controls</I> a company if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidates the company for financial reporting purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Core capital</I> means tier 1 capital, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Corporate exposure</I> means an exposure to a company that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to a GSE;
</P>
<P>(3) A residential mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) A pre-sold construction loan;
</P>
<P>(5) A statutory multifamily mortgage;
</P>
<P>(6) A high volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure;
</P>
<P>(7) A cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(8) A default fund contribution;
</P>
<P>(9) A securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(10) An equity exposure; or
</P>
<P>(11) An unsettled transaction.
</P>
<P>(12) A policy loan;
</P>
<P>(13) A separate account; or
</P>
<P>(14) A Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P><I>Country risk classification (CRC)</I> with respect to a sovereign, means the most recent consensus CRC published by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) as of December 31st of the prior calendar year that provides a view of the likelihood that the sovereign will service its external debt.
</P>
<P><I>Covered debt instrument</I> means an unsecured debt instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Issued by a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 217.2, and that is an eligible debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.61, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible debt security issued by the global systemically important BHC; or
</P>
<P>(2) Issued by a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, and that is an eligible Covered IHC debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible Covered IHC debt security issued by the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(3) Issued by a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2 other than a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 217.2; or issued by a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization that is not a global systemically important BHC, other than a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161; and where
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is eligible for use to comply with an applicable law or regulation requiring the issuance of a minimum amount of instruments to absorb losses or recapitalize the issuer or any of its subsidiaries in connection with a resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of the issuer or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; for purposes of this paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition, if the issuer may be subject to a special resolution regime, in its jurisdiction of incorporation or organization, that addresses the failure or potential failure of a financial company and any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument, then an instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition if that instrument is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument ahead of or proportionally with any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provided that, for purposes of this definition, <I>covered debt instrument</I> does not include a debt instrument that qualifies as tier 2 capital pursuant to 12 CFR 3.20(d) or that is otherwise treated as regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the issuer.
</P>
<P><I>Covered savings and loan holding company</I> means a top-tier savings and loan holding company other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(A) of HOLA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO)</I> means an on-balance sheet asset that, in form or in substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing representations and warranties</I> means representations and warranties that are made or assumed in connection with a transfer of underlying exposures (including loan servicing assets) and that obligate a national bank or Federal savings association to protect another party from losses arising from the credit risk of the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties include provisions to protect a party from losses resulting from the default or nonperformance of the counterparties of the underlying exposures or from an insufficiency in the value of the collateral backing the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50 percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
</P>
<P>(2) Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a GSE, provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Warranties that permit the return of underlying exposures in instances of misrepresentation, fraud, or incomplete documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk mitigant</I> means collateral, a credit derivative, or a guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-risk-weighted assets</I> means 1.06 multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets as calculated under § 3.131;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 3.142; and
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under § 3.151.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL)</I> means the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure</I> means, with respect to a netting set, the larger of zero or the fair value of a transaction or portfolio of transactions within the netting set that would be lost upon default of the counterparty, assuming no recovery on the value of the transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure methodology</I> means the method of calculating the exposure amount for over-the-counter derivative contracts in § 3.34(b).
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a financial institution that has legal custody of collateral provided to a CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Custody bank</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company that is a custodial banking organization under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Default fund contribution</I> means the funds contributed or commitments made by a clearing member to a CCP's mutualized loss sharing arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> means a payment made to an executive officer of a national bank or Federal savings association, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the executive officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount paid is determined by the national bank or Federal savings association without prior promise to, or agreement with, the executive officer; and
</P>
<P>(3) The executive officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when a national bank or Federal savings association, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A common equity tier 1 or additional tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when a national bank or Federal savings association, within the same quarter when the repurchase or redemption is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(4) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any tier 2 capital instrument if the national bank or Federal savings association has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any similar transaction that the OCC determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376).
</P>
<P><I>Early amortization provision</I> means a provision in the documentation governing a securitization that, when triggered, causes investors in the securitization exposures to be repaid before the original stated maturity of the securitization exposures, unless the provision:
</P>
<P>(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating national bank or Federal savings association (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
</P>
<P><I>Effective notional amount</I> means for an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the lesser of the contractual notional amount of the credit risk mitigant and the exposure amount (or EAD for purposes of subpart E of this part) of the hedged exposure, multiplied by the percentage coverage of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facility</I> means a liquidity facility supporting ABCP, in form or in substance, that is subject to an asset quality test at the time of draw that precludes funding against assets that are 90 days or more past due or in default. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a liquidity facility is an eligible ABCP liquidity facility if the assets or exposures funded under the liquidity facility that do not meet the eligibility requirements are guaranteed by a sovereign that qualifies for a 20 percent risk weight or lower.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible clean-up call</I> means a clean-up call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating national bank or Federal savings association or servicer;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a synthetic securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative in the form of a credit default swap, n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, total return swap, or any other form of credit derivative approved by the OCC, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the national bank or Federal savings association records net payments received on the swap as net income, the national bank or Federal savings association records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit reserves</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a national bank or Federal savings association that has not adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including the ALLL associated with such exposures, but excluding allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904 and other specific reserves created against recognized losses; and
</P>
<P>(2) For a national bank or Federal savings association that has adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings to cover expected credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including AACL associated with such exposures. Eligible credit reserves exclude allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, allowances that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities, and other specific reserves created against recognized losses.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantee</I> means a guarantee that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is written;
</P>
<P>(2) Is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Unconditional; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
</P>
<P>(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment;
</P>
<P>(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(9) Is not provided by an affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, unless the affiliate is an insured depository institution, foreign bank, securities broker or dealer, or insurance company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not control the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on depository institutions, U.S. securities broker-dealers, or U.S. insurance companies (as the case may be); and
</P>
<P>(10) For purposes of §§ 3.141 through 3.145 and subpart D of this part, is provided by an eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
</P>
<P>(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible margin loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral is marked-to-fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(iii)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This requirement is met where all transactions under the agreement are (i) executed under U.S. law and (ii) constitute “securities contracts” under section 555 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555), qualified financial contracts under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or netting contracts between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The OCC expects to evaluate jointly with the Board and FDIC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382, of this title 12, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of § 3.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible servicer cash advance facility</I> means a servicer cash advance facility in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement of advances, except that a servicer may be obligated to make non-reimbursable advances for a particular underlying exposure if any such advance is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer's right to reimbursement is senior in right of payment to all other claims on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3) The servicer has no legal obligation to, and does not make advances to the securitization if the servicer concludes the advances are unlikely to be repaid.
</P>
<P><I>Employee stock ownership plan</I> has the same meaning as in 29 CFR 2550.407d-6.
</P>
<P><I>Equity derivative contract</I> means an equity-linked swap, purchased equity-linked option, forward equity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to equities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Equity exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the national bank or Federal savings association under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate derivative contract</I> means a cross-currency interest rate swap, forward foreign-exchange contract, currency option purchased, or any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded covered debt instrument</I> means an investment in a covered debt instrument held by a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held in connection with market making-related activities permitted under 12 CFR 44.4, provided that a direct exposure or an indirect exposure to a covered debt instrument is held for 30 business days or less; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been designated as an excluded covered debt instrument by the national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, pursuant to 12 CFR 3.22(c)(5)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of the following positions: President, chief executive officer, executive chairman, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief investment officer, chief legal officer, chief lending officer, chief risk officer, or head of a major business line, and other staff that the board of directors of the national bank or Federal savings association deems to have equivalent responsibility.
</P>
<P><I>Expected credit loss (ECL)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor or segment of non-defaulted retail exposures that is carried at fair value with gains and losses flowing through earnings or that is classified as held-for-sale and is carried at the lower of cost or fair value with losses flowing through earnings, zero.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors or segments of non-defaulted retail exposures, the product of the probability of default (PD) times the loss given default (LGD) times the exposure at default (EAD) for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, the national bank's or Federal savings association's impairment estimate for allowance purposes for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) Total ECL is the sum of expected credit losses for all wholesale and retail exposures other than exposures for which the national bank or Federal savings association has applied the double default treatment in § 3.135.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security, if the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 3.22(b)(2)); an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the national bank or Federal savings association determines the exposure amount under § 3.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For a security (that is not a securitization exposure, equity exposure, or preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP) classified as available-for-sale or held-to-maturity if the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 3.22(b)(2)), the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) For available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP if the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 3.22(b)(2)), the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the national bank's or Federal savings association's regulatory capital components.
</P>
<P>(4) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the national bank or Federal savings association calculates the exposure amount under § 3.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 3.33.
</P>
<P>(5) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount determined under § 3.34.
</P>
<P>(6) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 3.35.
</P>
<P>(7) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the bank calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 3.37, the exposure amount determined under § 3.37.
</P>
<P>(8) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 3.42.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4401).
</P>
<P><I>Federal savings association</I> means an insured Federal savings association or an insured Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933.
</P>
<P><I>Fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account</I> means, for purposes of § 3.10(c)(2)(x), an account administered by a custody bank for which the custody bank provides fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping services, as authorized by applicable Federal or state law.
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) In the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash on deposit with the national bank or Federal savings association (including cash held for the national bank or Federal savings association by a third-party custodian or trustee);
</P>
<P>(ii) Gold bullion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which the national bank and Federal savings association has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any priority security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP).
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company; savings and loan holding company; nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act; depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act; national association, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution; insurance company; securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act; broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act; futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) or (2) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Of which the national bank or Federal savings association owns:
</P>
<P>(A) An investment in GAAP equity instruments of the company with an adjusted carrying value or exposure amount equal to or greater than $10 million; or
</P>
<P>(B) More than 10 percent of the company's issued and outstanding common shares (or similar equity interest), and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is predominantly engaged in the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Lending money, securities or other financial instruments, including servicing loans;
</P>
<P>(B) Insuring, guaranteeing, indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, or death, or issuing annuities;
</P>
<P>(C) Underwriting, dealing in, making a market in, or investing as principal in securities or other financial instruments; or
</P>
<P>(D) Asset management activities (not including investment or financial advisory activities).
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this definition, a company is “predominantly engaged” in an activity or activities if:
</P>
<P>(i) 85 percent or more of the total consolidated annual gross revenues (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) of the company is either of the two most recent calendar years were derived, directly or indirectly, by the company on a consolidated basis from the activities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated total assets (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) as of the end of either of the two most recent calendar years were related to the activities.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other company that the OCC may determine is a financial institution based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operation to those of the entities included in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this part, “financial institution” does not include the following entities:
</P>
<P>(i) GSEs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805;
</P>
<P>(iv) Entities registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Entities to the extent that the national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in such entities would qualify as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>First-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure secured by a first lien.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means a foreign bank as defined in § 211.2 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2) (other than a depository institution).
</P>
<P><I>Forward agreement</I> means a legally binding contractual obligation to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date, not including commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Gain-on-sale</I> means an increase in the equity capital of a national bank or Federal savings association (as reported on [Schedule RC of the Call Report or Schedule HC of the FR Y-9C]) resulting from a traditional securitization (other than an increase in equity capital resulting from the national bank's or Federal savings association's receipt of cash in connection with the securitization or reporting of a mortgage servicing asset on [Schedule RC of the Call Report or Schedule HC of the FRY-9C]).
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity (PSE).
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise</I> (GSE) means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or other similar financial instrument (other than a credit derivative) that allows one party (beneficiary) to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures (reference exposure) to another party (protection provider).
</P>
<P><I>High volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A credit facility secured by land or improved real property that, prior to being reclassified by the depository institution as a non-HVCRE exposure pursuant to paragraph (6) of this definition—
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily finances, has financed, or refinances the acquisition, development, or construction of real property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the purpose of providing financing to acquire, develop, or improve such real property into income-producing real property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is dependent upon future income or sales proceeds from, or refinancing of, such real property for the repayment of such credit facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility financing—
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, development, or construction of properties that are—
</P>
<P>(A) One- to four-family residential properties. Credit facilities that do not finance the construction of one- to four-family residential structures, but instead solely finance improvements such as the laying of sewers, water pipes, and similar improvements to land, do not qualify for the one- to four-family residential properties exclusion;
</P>
<P>(B) Real property that would qualify as an investment in community development; or
</P>
<P>(C) Agricultural land;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or refinance of existing income-producing real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Improvements to existing income-producing improved real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial real property projects in which—
</P>
<P>(A) The loan-to-value ratio is less than or equal to the applicable maximum supervisory loan-to-value ratio as determined by the OCC;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower has contributed capital of at least 15 percent of the real property's appraised, `as completed' value to the project in the form of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unencumbered readily marketable assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Paid development expenses out-of-pocket; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Contributed real property or improvements; and
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower contributed the minimum amount of capital described under paragraph (2)(iv)(B) of this definition before the national bank or Federal savings association advances funds (other than the advance of a nominal sum made in order to secure the national bank's or Federal savings association's lien against the real property) under the credit facility, and such minimum amount of capital contributed by the borrower is contractually required to remain in the project until the HVCRE exposure has been reclassified by the national bank or Federal savings association as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An HVCRE exposure does not include any loan made prior to January 1, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(4) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility reclassified as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(5) Value of contributed real property: For the purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition, the value of any real property contributed by a borrower as a capital contribution shall be the appraised value of the property as determined under standards prescribed pursuant to section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3339), in connection with the extension of the credit facility or loan to such borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Reclassification as a non-HVCRE exposure: For purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition and with respect to a credit facility and a national bank or Federal savings association, a national bank or Federal savings association may reclassify an HVCRE exposure as a non-HVCRE exposure upon—
</P>
<P>(i) The substantial completion of the development or construction of the real property being financed by the credit facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash flow being generated by the real property being sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this definition, a national bank or Federal savings association is not required to reclassify a credit facility that was originated on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to April 1, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Home country</I> means the country where an entity is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established.
</P>
<P><I>Independent collateral</I> means financial collateral, other than variation margin, that is subject to a collateral agreement, or in which a national bank and Federal savings association has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any prior security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP), and the amount of which does not change directly in response to the value of the derivative contract or contracts that the financial collateral secures.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect exposure</I> means an exposure that arises from the national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in an investment fund which holds an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument, or an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, indirect exposure also includes an investment in an investment fund that holds a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance underwriting company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381) that engages in insurance underwriting activities.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate derivative contract</I> means a single-currency interest rate swap, basis swap, forward rate agreement, purchased interest rate option, when-issued securities, or any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>International Lending Supervision Act</I> means the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Investing bank</I> means, with respect to a securitization, a national bank or Federal savings association that assumes the credit risk of a securitization exposure (other than an originating national bank or Federal savings association of the securitization). In the typical synthetic securitization, the investing national bank or Federal savings association sells credit protection on a pool of underlying exposures to the originating national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Investment fund</I> means a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all or substantially all of the assets of the company are financial assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) That has no material liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means that the entity to which the national bank or Federal savings association is exposed through a loan or security, or the reference entity with respect to a credit derivative, has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. Such an entity or reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in a covered debt instrument</I> means a national bank's or Federal savings association's net long position calculated in accordance with § 3.22(h) in a covered debt instrument, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to the debt instrument, excluding any underwriting positions held by the national bank or Federal savings association for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 3.22(h) in an instrument that is recognized as capital for regulatory purposes by the primary supervisor of an unconsolidated regulated financial institution or is an instrument that is part of the GAAP equity of an unconsolidated unregulated financial institution, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to capital instruments, excluding underwriting positions held by the national bank or Federal savings association for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 3.22(h) in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own common stock instrument, own additional tier 1 capital instrument or own tier 2 capital instrument, including direct, indirect, or synthetic exposures to such capital instruments. An investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument includes any contractual obligation to purchase such capital instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Junior-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure that is not a first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Main index</I> means the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the national bank or Federal savings association can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that the equities represented in the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk national bank or Federal savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that is described in § 3.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Minimum transfer amount</I> means the smallest amount of variation margin that may be transferred between counterparties to a netting set pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Money market fund</I> means an investment fund that is subject to 17 CFR 270.2a-7 or any foreign equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets (MSAs)</I> means the contractual rights owned by a national bank or Federal savings association to service for a fee mortgage loans that are owned by others.
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank (MDB)</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the OCC determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>National Bank Act</I> means the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 24).
</P>
<P><I>Net independent collateral amount</I> means the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 3.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a national bank or Federal savings association less the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 3.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the national bank or Federal savings association to the counterparty, excluding such amounts held in a bankruptcy remote manner or posted to a QCCP and held in conformance with the operational requirements in § 3.3.
</P>
<P><I>Netting set</I> means a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. For derivative contracts, netting set also includes a single derivative contract between a national bank or Federal savings association and a single counterparty. For purposes of the internal model methodology under § 3.132(d), netting set also includes a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement and does not include a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) That is not subject to such a master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where the national bank or Federal savings association has identified specific wrong-way risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association owns 10 percent or less of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>N</I><E T="51">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative that provides credit protection only for the n<E T="51">th</E>-defaulting reference exposure in a group of reference exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Operating entity</I> means a company established to conduct business with clients with the intention of earning a profit in its own right.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> with respect to an off-balance sheet commitment means the length of time between the date a commitment is issued and:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the national bank or Federal savings association can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
</P>
<P><I>Originating national bank or Federal savings association,</I> with respect to a securitization, means a national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly originated or securitized the underlying exposures included in the securitization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Serves as an ABCP program sponsor to the securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction. An OTC derivative includes a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Between a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member and a counterparty where the national bank or Federal savings association is acting as a financial intermediary and enters into a cleared transaction with a CCP that offsets the transaction with the counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member provides a CCP a guarantee on the performance of the counterparty to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Performance standby letter of credit (or performance bond)</I> means an irrevocable obligation of a national bank or Federal savings association to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) fails to perform on any contractual nonfinancial or commercial obligation. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things, subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-sold construction loan</I> means any one-to-four family residential construction loan to a builder that meets the requirements of section 618(a)(1) or (2) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 1831n note) and the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, meaning that the national bank or Federal savings association has obtained sufficient documentation that the buyer of the home has a legally binding written sales contract and has a firm written commitment for permanent financing of the home upon completion;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser is an individual(s) that intends to occupy the residence and is not a partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or any other entity (including an entity acting as a sole proprietorship) that is purchasing one or more of the residences for speculative purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The purchaser has entered into a legally binding written sales contract for the residence;
</P>
<P>(4) The purchaser has not terminated the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) The purchaser has made a substantial earnest money deposit of no less than 3 percent of the sales price, which is subject to forfeiture if the purchaser terminates the sales contract; provided that, the earnest money deposit shall not be subject to forfeiture by reason of breach or termination of the sales contract on the part of the builder;
</P>
<P>(6) The earnest money deposit must be held in escrow by the national bank or Federal savings association or an independent party in a fiduciary capacity, and the escrow agreement must provide that in an event of default arising from the cancellation of the sales contract by the purchaser of the residence, the escrow funds shall be used to defray any cost incurred by the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(7) The builder must incur at least the first 10 percent of the direct costs of construction of the residence (that is, actual costs of the land, labor, and material) before any drawdown is made under the loan;
</P>
<P>(8) The loan may not exceed 80 percent of the sales price of the presold residence; and
</P>
<P>(9) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Protection amount (P)</I> means, with respect to an exposure hedged by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative, reduced to reflect any currency mismatch, maturity mismatch, or lack of restructuring coverage (as provided in § 3.36 or § 3.134, as appropriate).
</P>
<P><I>Publicly-traded</I> means traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central bank</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) The central bank of any member country of the OECD, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Sovereign exposures to the member country would receive a zero percent risk-weight under § 3.32; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sovereign debt of the member country is not in default or has not been in default during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central counterparty (QCCP)</I> means a central counterparty that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU) under Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association demonstrates to the satisfaction of the OCC that the central counterparty:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in sound financial condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is subject to supervision by the Board, the CFTC, or the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC), or, if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, is subject to effective oversight by a national supervisory authority in its home country; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Meets or exceeds the risk-management standards for central counterparties set forth in regulations established by the Board, the CFTC, or the SEC under Title VII or Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act; or if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, meets or exceeds similar risk-management standards established under the law of its home country that are consistent with international standards for central counterparty risk management as established by the relevant standard setting body of the Bank of International Settlements; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Provides the national bank or Federal savings association with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the national bank or Federal savings association is required to obtain under §§ 3.35(d)(3) and 3.133(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes available to the OCC and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by the OCC to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under §§ 3.35 and 3.133.
</P>
<P>(3) Exception. A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 3.3(f).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The OCC expects to evaluate jointly with the Board and FDIC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382, of this title 12, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial institution</I> means a financial institution subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on the following U.S. financial institutions: Depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board, designated financial market utilities, securities broker-dealers, credit unions, or insurance companies.
</P>
<P><I>Repo-style transaction</I> means a repurchase or reverse repurchase transaction, or a securities borrowing or securities lending transaction, including a transaction in which the national bank or Federal savings association acts as agent for a customer and indemnifies the customer against loss, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or a netting contract between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The OCC expects to evaluate jointly with the Board and FDIC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, and part 382, of this title 12, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either overnight or unconditionally cancelable at any time by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Executed under an agreement that provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of counterparty default; and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction for purposes of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of § 3.3(e) of this part with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> means a securitization which has more than one underlying exposure and in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization;
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) An exposure to an asset-backed commercial paper program is not a resecuritization exposure if either:
</P>
<P>(i) The program-wide credit enhancement does not meet the definition of a resecuritization exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity sponsoring the program fully supports the commercial paper through the provision of liquidity so that the commercial paper holders effectively are exposed to the default risk of the sponsor instead of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, equity exposure, statutory multifamily mortgage, or presold construction loan):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) That is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With an original and outstanding amount of $1 million or less that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on residential property that is not one-to-four family; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating capital requirements under subpart E of this part, managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics and not on an individual-exposure basis.
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78).
</P>
<P><I>Securitization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization), or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization special purpose entity (securitization SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of holding underlying exposures of a securitization, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the underlying exposures held by the entity from the credit risk of the seller of the underlying exposures to the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Separate account</I> means a legally segregated pool of assets owned and held by an insurance company and maintained separately from the insurance company's general account assets for the benefit of an individual contract holder. To be a separate account:
</P>
<P>(1) The account must be legally recognized as a separate account under applicable law;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets in the account must be insulated from general liabilities of the insurance company under applicable law in the event of the insurance company's insolvency;
</P>
<P>(3) The insurance company must invest the funds within the account as directed by the contract holder in designated investment alternatives or in accordance with specific investment objectives or policies; and
</P>
<P>(4) All investment gains and losses, net of contract fees and assessments, must be passed through to the contract holder, provided that the contract may specify conditions under which there may be a minimum guarantee but must not include contract terms that limit the maximum investment return available to the policyholder.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance facility</I> means a facility under which the servicer of the underlying exposures of a securitization may advance cash to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments to investors in the securitization, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association owns more than 10 percent of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Act</I> means the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632).
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Investment Act</I> means the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign default</I> means noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal and interest timely and fully, arrearages, or restructuring.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
</P>
<P><I>Specific wrong-way risk</I> means wrong-way risk that arises when either:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty and issuer of the collateral supporting the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty and the reference asset of the transaction, are affiliates or are the same entity.
</P>
<P><I>Speculative grade</I> means the reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments in the near term, but is vulnerable to adverse economic conditions, such that should economic conditions deteriorate, the reference entity would present an elevated default risk.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized market risk-weighted assets</I> means the standardized measure for market risk calculated under § 3.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 3.31;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and default fund contributions as calculated under § 3.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 3.38;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 3.42;
</P>
<P>(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under §§ 3.52 and 3.53; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For a market risk national bank or Federal savings association only, standardized market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, that is not included in tier 2 capital and any amount of “allocated transfer risk reserves.
</P>
<P><I>Statutory multifamily mortgage</I> means a loan secured by a multifamily residential property that meets the requirements under section 618(b)(1) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991, and that meets the following criteria: 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The types of loans that qualify as loans secured by multifamily residential properties are listed in the instructions for preparation of the Call Report.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards;
</P>
<P>(2) The principal amount of the loan at origination does not exceed 80 percent of the value of the property (or 75 percent of the value of the property if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) where the value of the property is the lower of the acquisition cost of the property or the appraised (or, if appropriate, evaluated) value of the property;
</P>
<P>(3) All principal and interest payments on the loan must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan, or in the case where an existing owner is refinancing a loan on the property, all principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan;
</P>
<P>(4) Amortization of principal and interest on the loan must occur over a period of not more than 30 years and the minimum original maturity for repayment of principal must not be less than 7 years;
</P>
<P>(5) Annual net operating income (before making any payment on the loan) generated by the property securing the loan during its most recent fiscal year must not be less than 120 percent of the loan's current annual debt service (or 115 percent of current annual debt service if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) or, in the case of a cooperative or other not-for-profit housing project, the property must generate sufficient cash flow to provide comparable protection to the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(6) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Sub-speculative grade</I> means the reference entity depends on favorable economic conditions to meet its financial commitments, such that should such economic conditions deteriorate the reference entity likely would default on its financial commitments.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company, a company controlled by that company.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic exposure</I> means an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in the national bank or Federal savings association's own capital instrument or to the value of an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, synthetic exposure includes an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual retail exposure);
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
</P>
<P><I>Tangible capital means</I> the amount of core capital (tier 1 capital), as calculated in accordance with subpart B of this part, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 minority interest</I> means the tier 1 capital of a consolidated subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association that is not owned by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> is defined in § 3.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital minority interest</I> means the total capital of a consolidated subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association that is not owned by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> is defined in § 3.10(c)(2) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Traditional securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company defined in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24(Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The OCC may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The OCC may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in 12 CFR 9.18 (national banks), 12 CFR 151.40 (Federal saving associations);
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a financial institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 3.22; or
</P>
<P>(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means all securitization exposures associated with a securitization that have the same seniority level.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means with respect to a commitment, that a national bank or Federal savings association may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Underlying exposures</I> means one or more exposures that have been securitized in a securitization transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Unregulated financial institution</I> means, for purposes of § 3.131, a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, including any financial institution that would meet the definition of “financial institution” under this section but for the ownership interest thresholds set forth in paragraph (4)(i) of that definition.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more exposures could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means financial collateral that is subject to a collateral agreement provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of the first party's obligations under one or more transactions between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such financial collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin agreement</I> means an agreement to collect or post variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 3.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a national bank or Federal savings association less the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 3.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the national bank or Federal savings association to the counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin threshold</I> means the amount of credit exposure of a national bank or Federal savings association to its counterparty that, if exceeded, would require the counterparty to post variation margin to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Volatility derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract in which the payoff of the derivative contract explicitly depends on a measure of the volatility of an underlying risk factor to the derivative contract.
</P>
<P><I>Wrong-way risk</I> means the risk that arises when an exposure to a particular counterparty is positively correlated with the probability of default of such counterparty itself.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 44123, July 30, 2014; 79 FR 57740, Sept. 26, 2014; 79 FR 78293, Dec. 30, 2014; 80 FR 41415, July 15, 2015; 82 FR 56661, Nov. 29, 2017; 84 FR 4237, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35248, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59263, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61792, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 68031, Dec. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4400, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 4577, Jan. 27, 2020; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020; 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020; 86 FR 724, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.1.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.3   Operational requirements for counterparty credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subparts D and E of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleared transaction.</I> In order to recognize certain exposures as cleared transactions pursuant to paragraphs (1)(ii), (iii) or (iv) of the definition of “cleared transaction” in § 3.2, the exposures must meet the applicable requirements set forth in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the national bank or Federal savings association from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients. Omnibus accounts established under 17 CFR parts 190 and 300 satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible margin loan.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan as defined in § 3.2, a national bank or Federal savings association must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of eligible margin loan in § 3.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement as defined in § 3.101, a national bank or Federal savings association must obtain a written legal opinion verifying the validity and enforceability of the agreement under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions if the counterparty fails to perform upon an event of default, including upon receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 3.2, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 3.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repo-style transaction.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction as defined in § 3.2, a national bank or Federal savings association must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of repo-style transaction in § 3.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure of a QCCP to satisfy the rule's requirements.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association determines that a CCP ceases to be a QCCP due to the failure of the CCP to satisfy one or more of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP in § 3.2, the national bank or Federal savings association may continue to treat the CCP as a QCCP for up to three months following the determination. If the CCP fails to remedy the relevant deficiency within three months after the initial determination, or the CCP fails to satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP continuously for a three-month period after remedying the relevant deficiency, a national bank or Federal savings association may not treat the CCP as a QCCP for the purposes of this part until after the national bank or Federal savings association has determined that the CCP has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP for three continuous months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.4-3.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.1.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.4-3.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Ratio Requirements and Buffers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.2.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.10   Minimum capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum capital requirements.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must maintain the following minimum capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A total capital ratio of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) A leverage ratio of 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) For advanced approaches national banks or Federal savings associations or, for Category III OCC-regulated institutions, a supplementary leverage ratio of 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(vi) For Federal savings associations, a tangible capital ratio of 1.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 3.12), that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 3.12), is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standardized capital ratio calculations.</I> Other than as provided in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital ratio is the ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Leverage ratio.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage ratio is the ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital to the national bank's or Federal savings association's average total consolidated assets as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report minus amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 3.22(a), (c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Federal savings association tangible capital ratio.</I> A Federal savings association's tangible capital ratio is the ratio of the Federal savings association's core capital (tier 1 capital) to average total assets as calculated under this subpart B. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(5), the term “total assets” means “total assets” as defined in part 6, subpart A of this chapter, subject to subpart G of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplementary leverage ratio.</I> (1) A Category III national bank or Federal savings association or advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must determine its supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with this paragraph, beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the national bank or Federal savings association is identified as a Category III national bank or Federal savings association. An advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's or a Category III national bank's or Federal savings association's supplementary leverage ratio is the ratio of its tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, the latter of which is calculated as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the on-balance sheet assets calculated as of each day of the reporting quarter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The mean of the off-balance sheet exposures calculated as of the last day of each of the most recent three months, minus the applicable deductions under § 3.22(a), (c), and (d).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, <I>total leverage exposure</I> means the sum of the items described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section for a clearing member national bank and Federal savings association and paragraph (c)(2)(x) of this section for a custody bank:
</P>
<P>(i) The balance sheet carrying value of all of the national bank or Federal savings association's on-balance sheet assets, <I>plus</I> the value of securities sold under a repurchase transaction or a securities lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP, <I>less</I> amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 3.22(a), (c), and (d), and <I>less</I> the value of securities received in security-for-security repo-style transactions, where the national bank or Federal savings association acts as a securities lender and includes the securities received in its on-balance sheet assets but has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received, and, for a national bank or Federal savings association that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 3.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, <I>less</I> the fair value of any derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For a national bank or Federal savings association that uses the current exposure methodology under § 3.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the potential future credit exposure (PFE) for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the national bank or Federal savings association, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), to which the national bank or Federal savings association is a counterparty as determined under § 3.34, but without regard to § 3.34(c), provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 3.34, but without regard to § 3.34(c), provided that it does not adjust the net-to-gross ratio (NGR); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association that chooses to exclude the PFE of credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) must do so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a national bank or Federal savings association that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under section § 3.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the PFE for each netting set to which the national bank or Federal savings association is a counterparty (including cleared transactions except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the national bank or Federal savings association, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), as determined under § 3.132(c)(7), in which the term C in § 3.132(c)(7)(i) equals zero, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>), a national bank or Federal savings association may set the value of the term C in § 3.132(c)(7)(i) equal to the amount of collateral posted by a clearing member client of the national bank or Federal savings association in connection with the client-facing derivative transactions within the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 3.132(c), provided that it does so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) For a national bank or Federal savings association that uses the current exposure methodology under § 3.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the amount of cash collateral that is received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has offset the mark-to-fair value of the derivative asset, or cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has reduced the national bank or Federal savings association's on-balance sheet assets, unless such cash collateral is all or part of variation margin that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The variation margin is used to reduce the current credit exposure of the derivative contract, calculated as described in § 3.34(b), and not the PFE; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For the purpose of the calculation of the NGR described in § 3.34(b)(2)(ii)(B), variation margin described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section may not reduce the net current credit exposure or the gross current credit exposure; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a national bank or Federal savings association that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 3.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the replacement cost of each derivative contract or single product netting set of derivative contracts to which the national bank or Federal savings association is a counterparty, calculated according to the following formula, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4:
</P>
<FP><I>Replacement Cost</I> = max{<I>V</I>−<I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> + <I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E><I>;</I>0}
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<P><I>V</I> equals the fair value for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the national bank or Federal savings association, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP);
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> equals the amount of cash collateral received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral received from the clearing member client; and
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E> equals the amount of cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has not offset the fair value of the derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral posted to the clearing member client;</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, where multiple netting sets are subject to a single variation margin agreement, a national bank or Federal savings association must apply the formula for replacement cost provided in § 3.132(c)(10)(i), in which the term C<E T="52">MA</E> may only include cash collateral that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>), a national bank or Federal savings association must treat a derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index if the national bank or Federal savings association elected to treat the derivative contract as multiple derivative contracts under § 3.132(c)(5)(vi);
</P>
<P>(C) For derivative contracts that are not cleared through a QCCP, the cash collateral received by the recipient counterparty is not segregated (by law, regulation, or an agreement with the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) Variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on the mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract;
</P>
<P>(E) The variation margin transferred under the derivative contract or the governing rules of the CCP or QCCP for a cleared transaction is the full amount that is necessary to fully extinguish the net current credit exposure to the counterparty of the derivative contracts, subject to the threshold and minimum transfer amounts applicable to the counterparty under the terms of the derivative contract or the governing rules for a cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(F) The variation margin is in the form of cash in the same currency as the currency of settlement set forth in the derivative contract, provided that for the purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(F), currency of settlement means any currency for settlement specified in the governing qualifying master netting agreement and the credit support annex to the qualifying master netting agreement, or in the governing rules for a cleared transaction; and
</P>
<P>(G) The derivative contract and the variation margin are governed by a qualifying master netting agreement between the legal entities that are the counterparties to the derivative contract or by the governing rules for a cleared transaction, and the qualifying master netting agreement or the governing rules for a cleared transaction must explicitly stipulate that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided under the contract if a credit event involving either counterparty occurs;
</P>
<P>(iv) The effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the derivative contract) of a credit derivative, or other similar instrument, through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the amount of any reduction in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative if the reduction is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative or other similar instrument, provided that the remaining maturity of the purchased credit derivative is equal to or greater than the remaining maturity of the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection and that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references a single exposure, the reference exposure of the purchased credit derivative is to the same legal entity and ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is junior to, the reference exposure of the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references multiple exposures, the reference exposures of the purchased credit derivative are to the same legal entities and rank <I>pari passu</I> with the reference exposures of the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection, and the level of seniority of the purchased credit derivative ranks <I>pari passu</I> to the level of seniority of the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a national bank or Federal savings association has reduced the effective notional amount of a credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must also reduce the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative used to offset the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection, by the amount of any increase in the mark-to-fair value of the purchased credit derivative that is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Where the national bank or Federal savings association purchases credit protection through a total return swap and records the net payments received on a credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection in net income, but does not record offsetting deterioration in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection in net income (either through reductions in fair value or by additions to reserves), the national bank or Federal savings association may not use the purchased credit protection to offset the effective notional principal amount of the related credit derivative through which the national bank or Federal savings association provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(v) Where a national bank or Federal savings association acting as a principal has more than one repo-style transaction with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from a counterparty under reverse repurchase transactions by the gross value of payables under repurchase transactions due to the same counterparty, the gross value of receivables associated with the repo-style transactions <I>less</I> any on-balance sheet receivables amount associated with these repo-style transactions included under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, unless the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The offsetting transactions have the same explicit final settlement date under their governing agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) The right to offset the amount owed to the counterparty with the amount owed by the counterparty is legally enforceable in the normal course of business and in the event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under the governing agreements, the counterparties intend to settle net, settle simultaneously, or settle according to a process that is the functional equivalent of net settlement, (that is, the cash flows of the transactions are equivalent, in effect, to a single net amount on the settlement date), where both transactions are settled through the same settlement system, the settlement arrangements are supported by cash or intraday credit facilities intended to ensure that settlement of both transactions will occur by the end of the business day, and the settlement of the underlying securities does not interfere with the net cash settlement;
</P>
<P>(vi) The counterparty credit risk of a repo-style transaction, including where the national bank or Federal savings association acts as an agent for a repo-style transaction and indemnifies the customer with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty in an amount limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the transaction is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) for transactions with a counterparty must be calculated on a transaction by transaction basis, such that each transaction <I>i</I> is treated as its own netting set, in accordance with the following formula, where E<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or provided as collateral to the counterparty, and C<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or received as collateral from the counterparty:
</P>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">i</E>* = max {0, [E<E T="52">i</E> − C<E T="52">i</E>]}; and
</FP-1>
<P>(B) If the transaction is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) must be calculated as the greater of zero and the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase or provided as collateral to a counterparty for all transactions included in the qualifying master netting agreement (ΣE<E T="52">i</E>), <I>less</I> the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the national bank or Federal savings association borrowed, purchased subject to resale or received as collateral from the counterparty for those transactions (ΣC<E T="52">i</E>), in accordance with the following formula:
</P>
<FP-1>E* = max {0, [ΣE<E T="52">i</E> − ΣC<E T="52">i</E>]}
</FP-1>
<P>(vii) If a national bank or Federal savings association acting as an agent for a repo-style transaction provides a guarantee to a customer of the security or cash its customer has lent or borrowed with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty and the guarantee is not limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, the amount of the guarantee that is greater than the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the value of the collateral the borrower has provided;
</P>
<P>(viii) The credit equivalent amount of all off-balance sheet exposures of the national bank or Federal savings association, excluding repo-style transactions, repurchase or reverse repurchase or securities borrowing or lending transactions that qualify for sales treatment under GAAP, and derivative transactions, determined using the applicable credit conversion factor under § 3.33(b), provided, however, that the minimum credit conversion factor that may be assigned to an off-balance sheet exposure under this paragraph is 10 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member:
</P>
<P>(A) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association that guarantees the performance of a clearing member client with respect to a cleared transaction must treat its exposure to the clearing member client as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association that guarantees the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client must treat its exposure to the CCP as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association that does not guarantee the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client may exclude its exposure to the CCP for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member may exclude from its total leverage exposure the effective notional principal amount of credit protection sold through a credit derivative contract, or other similar instrument, that it clears on behalf of a clearing member client through a CCP as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(ix)(A) through (C) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may exclude from its total leverage exposure a clearing member's exposure to a clearing member client for a derivative contract, if the clearing member client and the clearing member are affiliates and consolidated for financial reporting purposes on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(x) A custodial bank shall exclude from its total leverage exposure the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of funds that the custody bank has on deposit at a qualifying central bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds that the custody bank's clients have on deposit at the custody bank that are linked to fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping accounts. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(x), a deposit account is linked to a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account if the deposit account is provided to a client that maintains a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account with the custody bank, and the deposit account is used to facilitate the administration of the fiduciary or custody and safekeeping account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advanced approaches capital ratio calculations.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d) must determine its regulatory capital ratios as described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets. A national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital is the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital after being adjusted as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from its total capital any allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, included in its tier 2 capital in accordance with § 3.20(d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must add to its total capital any eligible credit reserves that exceed the national bank's or Federal savings association's total expected credit losses to the extent that the excess reserve amount does not exceed 0.6 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Federal savings association tangible capital ratio.</I> A Federal savings association's tangible capital ratio is the ratio of the Federal savings association's core capital (tier 1 capital) to average total assets as calculated under this subpart B. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(4), the term “total assets” means “total assets” as defined in part 6, subpart A of this chapter, subject to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, a national bank or Federal savings association must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the national bank or Federal savings association is exposed. The supervisory evaluation of a national bank's or Federal savings association's capital adequacy is based on an individual assessment of numerous factors, including those listed at this section (national banks), 12 CFR 167.3(c) (Federal savings associations).
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57740, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41415, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35248, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59264, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61792, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4401, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 4577, Jan. 27, 2020; 85 FR 57959, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 725, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.2.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.11   Capital conservation buffer and countercyclical capital buffer amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of a national bank or Federal savings association is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank's or Federal savings association's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the Call Report, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the Call Report, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a national bank or Federal savings association can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. For a national bank or Federal savings association that is not a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15), the maximum payout ratio is based on the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 3.11. For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15), the maximum payout ratio is determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum payout amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's maximum payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum payout ratio.


</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Private sector credit exposure.</I> Private sector credit exposure means an exposure to a company or an individual that is not an exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, the International Monetary Fund, a MDB, a PSE, or a GSE.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Leverage buffer standard.</I> For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15), the leverage buffer standard is equal to the lesser of 1.0 percent or, if applicable, 50 percent of the most recent method 1 surcharge (expressed as a percentage) that the global systemically important BHC that controls the national bank or Federal savings association was required to calculate pursuant to § 217.403(b), subject to the effective date provisions of § 217.403(d).








</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of capital conservation buffer.</I>(i) The capital conservation buffer for a national bank or Federal savings association is equal to the lowest of the following ratios, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:


</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital ratio minus the national bank or Federal savings association 's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 3.10;
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital ratio minus the national bank or Federal savings association's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 3.10; and
</P>
<P>(C) The national bank or Federal savings association's total capital ratio minus the national bank or Federal savings association's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 3.10; or








</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A)-(C) of this section, if the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio is less than or equal to the national bank's or Federal savings association's minimum common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio requirement under § 3.10, respectively, the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association, with a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of its applicable countercyclical capital buffer, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and, if applicable, a leverage buffer greater than its leverage buffer standard is not subject to a maximum payout amount under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative eligible retained income.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the national bank's or Federal savings association's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative;
</P>
<P>(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent as of the end of the previous calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, leverage buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, was less than its leverage buffer standard.






</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Prior approval.</I> Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the OCC may permit a national bank or Federal savings association to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the national bank or Federal savings association, if the OCC determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association. In making such a determination, the OCC will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.11—Calculation of Maximum Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Other limitations on distributions.</I> Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a national bank or Federal savings association under subparts H and I of this part; 12 CFR 5.46, 12 CFR part 5, subpart E; 12 CFR part 6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, and a Category III national bank or Federal savings association, must calculate a countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of capital conservation buffer.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount is an extension of the capital conservation buffer as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, and a Category III national bank or Federal savings association, has a countercyclical capital buffer amount determined by calculating the weighted average of the countercyclical capital buffer amounts established for the national jurisdictions where the national bank's or Federal savings association's private sector credit exposures are located, as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Weighting.</I> The weight assigned to a jurisdiction's countercyclical capital buffer amount is calculated by dividing the total risk-weighted assets for the national bank's or Federal savings association's private sector credit exposures located in the jurisdiction by the total risk-weighted assets for all of the national bank's or Federal savings association's private sector credit exposures. The methodology a national bank or Federal savings association uses for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of this paragraph (b) must be the methodology that determines its risk-based capital ratios under § 3.10. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the risk-weighted asset amount for a private sector credit exposure that is a covered position under subpart F of this part is its specific risk add-on as determined under § 3.210 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Location.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(B) and (b)(1)(iv)(C) of this section, the location of a private sector credit exposure is the national jurisdiction where the borrower is located (that is, where it is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established or, if the borrower is an individual, where the borrower resides).
</P>
<P>(B) If, in accordance with subparts D or E of this part, the national bank or Federal savings association has assigned to a private sector credit exposure a risk weight associated with a protection provider on a guarantee or credit derivative, the location of the exposure is the national jurisdiction where the protection provider is located.
</P>
<P>(C) The location of a securitization exposure is the location of the underlying exposures, or, if the underlying exposures are located in more than one national jurisdiction, the national jurisdiction where the underlying exposures with the largest aggregate unpaid principal balance are located. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the location of an underlying exposure shall be the location of the borrower, determined consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States</I>—(i) <I>Initial countercyclical capital buffer amount with respect to credit exposures in the United States.</I> The initial countercyclical capital buffer amount in the United States is zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustment of the countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The OCC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States in accordance with applicable law.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The OCC expects that any adjustment will be based on a determination made jointly by the Board, OCC, and FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Range of countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The OCC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States between zero percent and 2.5 percent of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adjustment determination.</I> The OCC will base its decision to adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount under this section on a range of macroeconomic, financial, and supervisory information indicating an increase in systemic risk including, but not limited to, the ratio of credit to gross domestic product, a variety of asset prices, other factors indicative of relative credit and liquidity expansion or contraction, funding spreads, credit condition surveys, indices based on credit default swap spreads, options implied volatility, and measures of systemic risk.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Effective date of adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(A) <I>Increase adjustment.</I> A determination by the OCC under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to increase the countercyclical capital buffer amount will be effective 12 months from the date of announcement, unless the OCC establishes an earlier effective date and includes a statement articulating the reasons for the earlier effective date.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Decrease adjustment.</I> A determination by the OCC to decrease the established countercyclical capital buffer amount under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section will be effective on the day following announcement of the final determination or the earliest date permissible under applicable law or regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Twelve month sunset.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount will return to zero percent 12 months after the effective date that the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount is announced, unless the OCC announces a decision to maintain the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount or adjust it again before the expiration of the 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for foreign jurisdictions.</I> The OCC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for private sector credit exposures to reflect decisions made by foreign jurisdictions consistent with due process requirements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of maximum payout ratio for a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15)</I>—(1) <I>Maximum Payout Ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio of a national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15) is the lowest of the payout ratios determined by its capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in table 1 to § 3.11 and leverage buffer as set forth in table 2 to this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Leverage buffer.</I> (i) The leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15) has a leverage buffer that is equal to the national bank's or Federal savings association's supplementary leverage ratio minus 3 percent, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, if the supplementary leverage ratio of the national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a U.S. top-tier bank holding company that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the company's most recent Consolidated Financial Statement for Bank Holding Companies (Form FR Y-9C) or more than $10 trillion in assets under custody as reported on the company's most recent Banking Organization Systemic Risk Report (Form FR Y-15) is less than or equal to 3 percent, the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 3.11—Calculation of Maximum Payout
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Leverage buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 100 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 25 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35249, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15915, Mar. 20, 2020; 90 FR 55287, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.2.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.12   Community bank leverage ratio framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community bank leverage ratio framework.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, a qualifying community banking organization that has made an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 3.10, the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 6.4(b)(1) of this chapter, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject, if it has a leverage ratio greater than 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a qualifying community banking organization means a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association and that satisfies all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a leverage ratio of greater than 8 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has total consolidated assets of less than $10 billion, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has off-balance sheet exposures of 25 percent or less of its total consolidated assets as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter, calculated as the sum of the notional amounts of the exposures listed in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (I) of this section, divided by total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The unused portion of commitments (except for unconditionally cancellable commitments);
</P>
<P>(B) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods;
</P>
<P>(C) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(D) Sold credit protection through
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Credit derivatives;
</P>
<P>(E) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties;
</P>
<P>(F) Securities lent and borrowed, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(G) Financial standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(H) Forward agreements that are not derivative contracts; and
</P>
<P>(I) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has total trading assets plus trading liabilities, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report of 5 percent or less of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A qualifying community banking organization may elect to use the community bank leverage ratio framework if it makes an opt-in election under this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a qualifying community banking organization makes an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable reporting requirements of its Call Report.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) A qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework may opt out of the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable risk-based and leverage ratio reporting requirements necessary to demonstrate compliance with § 3.10(a)(1) in its Call Report or by otherwise providing this information to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(B) A qualifying community banking organization that opts out of the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section must comply with § 3.10(a)(1) immediately.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the leverage ratio.</I> A qualifying community banking organization's leverage ratio is calculated in accordance with § 3.10(b)(4), except that a qualifying community banking organization is not required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make adjustments and deductions from tier 2 capital for purposes of § 3.22(c); or
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate and deduct from tier 1 capital an amount resulting from insufficient tier 2 capital under § 3.22(f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment when ceasing to meet the qualifying community banking organization requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(5) through (7) of this section, if a national bank or Federal savings association ceases to meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization, the national bank or Federal savings association has a period of four reporting periods under its Call Report (grace period) either to satisfy the requirements to be a qualifying community banking organization or to comply with § 3.10(a)(1) and report the required capital measures under § 3.10(a)(1) on its Call Report.




</P>
<P>(2) The grace period begins as of the end of the calendar quarter in which the national bank or Federal savings association ceases to satisfy the criteria to be a qualifying community banking organization provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The grace period ends on the last day of the fourth consecutive calendar quarter following the beginning of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(3) During the grace period, the national bank or Federal savings association continues to be treated as a qualifying community banking organization for the purpose of this part and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section unless the national bank or Federal savings association has opted out of using the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) During the grace period, the qualifying community banking organization continues to be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 3.10(a)(1), the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 6.4(b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this chapter, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject, and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that no longer meets the definition of a qualifying community banking organization as a result of a merger or acquisition has no grace period and immediately ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization. Such a national bank or Federal savings association must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 3.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 3.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that has a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less does not have a grace period and must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 3.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 3.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it reports a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that has spent eight or more of the previous twenty quarters within the grace period may not use the grace period in the current quarter. If the national bank or Federal savings association does not meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization in the current quarter, the national bank or Federal savings association must immediately comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 3.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 3.10(a)(1).






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 61792, Nov. 13, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 77359, Dec. 2, 2020; 91 FR 22988, Apr. 29, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.13-3.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.2.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.13-3.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definition of Capital</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.3.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.20   Capital components and eligibility criteria for regulatory capital instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital components.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's regulatory capital components are:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Additional tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital.</I> Common equity tier 1 capital is the sum of the common equity tier 1 capital elements in this paragraph (b), minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 3.22. The common equity tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any common stock instruments (plus any related surplus) issued by the national bank or Federal savings association, net of treasury stock, and any capital instruments issued by mutual banking organizations, that meet all the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the national bank or Federal savings association, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the national bank or Federal savings association that is proportional with the holder's share of the national bank's or Federal savings association's issued capital after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can only be redeemed via discretionary repurchases with the prior approval of the OCC, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association did not create at issuance of the instrument through any action or communication an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation;
</P>
<P>(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the national bank's or Federal savings association's net income or retained earnings and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument.
</P>
<P>(vi) The national bank or Federal savings association has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends and making any other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dividend payments and any other distributions on the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the national bank or Federal savings association have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur equally, proportionately, and simultaneously with the holders of all other common stock instruments before any losses are borne by holders of claims on the national bank or Federal savings association with greater priority in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ix) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(x) The national bank or Federal savings association, or an entity that the national bank or Federal savings association controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the national bank or Federal savings association or of an affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument has been issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) The instrument is reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) Retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(3) Accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI) as reported under GAAP.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> § 3.22 for specific adjustments related to AOCI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Any common equity tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 3.21.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding the criteria for common stock instruments referenced above, a national bank's or Federal savings association's common stock issued and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(iii), paragraph (b)(1)(iv) or paragraph (b)(1)(xi) of this section, provided that any repurchase of the stock is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of a national bank or Federal savings association that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by a national bank or Federal savings association to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criterion in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional tier 1 capital.</I> Additional tier 1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and any related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 3.22. Additional tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus any related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors, general creditors, and subordinated debt holders of the national bank or Federal savings association in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the national bank or Federal savings association or of an affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem; and
</P>
<P>(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the national bank or Federal savings association only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in additional tier 1 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association must receive prior approval from the OCC to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the national bank or Federal savings association must either: Replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c); 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that following redemption, the national bank or Federal savings association will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing additional tier 1 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from the OCC.
</P>
<P>(vii) The national bank or Federal savings association has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the national bank or Federal savings association except in relation to any distributions to holders of common stock or instruments that are pari passu with the instrument.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the national bank's or Federal savings association's net income or retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(xi) The national bank or Federal savings association, or an entity that the national bank or Federal savings association controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the national bank or Federal savings association, such as provisions that require the national bank or Federal savings association to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified time frame.
</P>
<P>(xiii) If the instrument is not issued directly by the national bank or Federal savings association or by a subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the national bank or Federal savings association, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the national bank or Federal savings association or to the national bank's or Federal savings association's top-tier holding company in a form which meets or exceeds all of the other criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>De minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity can be disregarded for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(xiv) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date upon which the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this part as set forth in § 3.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the national bank or Federal savings association enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 3.21, that is not included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any and all instruments that qualified as tier 1 capital under the OCC's general risk-based capital rules under appendix A to this part (national banks), 12 CFR part 167 (Federal savings associations) as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any preferred stock instruments issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments referenced above:
</P>
<P>(i) An instrument issued by a national bank or Federal savings association and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that any repurchase is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of a national bank or Federal savings association that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by a national bank or Federal savings association to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(v) or paragraph (c)(1)(xi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this § 3.20(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tier 2 Capital.</I> Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus, minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 3.22. Tier 2 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors and general creditors of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the national bank or Federal savings association or of an affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least five years. At the beginning of each of the last five years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than one year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the national bank or Federal savings association to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the national bank or Federal savings association only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association must receive the prior approval of the OCC to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the national bank or Federal savings association must either: Replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that following redemption, the national bank or Federal savings association would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A national bank or Federal savings association may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(viii) The national bank or Federal savings association, or an entity that the national bank or Federal savings association controls, has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the instrument is not issued directly by the national bank or Federal savings association or by a subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the national bank or Federal savings association, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the national bank or Federal savings association or the national bank's or Federal savings association's top-tier holding company in a form that meets or exceeds all the other criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under this section.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> A national bank or Federal savings association may disregard <I>de minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase requires the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(xi) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date on which the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this part under § 3.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the national bank or Federal savings association enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Total capital minority interest, subject to the limitations set forth in § 3.21, that is not included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3) ALLL or AACL, as applicable, up to 1.25 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's standardized total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the ALLL or AACL, as applicable (and excluding in the case of a market risk national bank or Federal savings association, its standardized market risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Any instrument that qualified as tier 2 capital under the OCC's general risk-based capital rules under appendix A to this part, 12 CFR part 167 as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010,
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any debt instruments issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) For a national bank or Federal savings association that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of § 3.22), 45 percent of pretax net unrealized gains on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments referenced above, an instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 or tier 2 capital prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>OCC approval of a capital element.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must receive OCC prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element:
</P>
<P>(i) Was included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital prior to May 19, 2010 in accordance with the OCC's risk-based capital rules that were effective as of that date and the underlying instrument may continue to be included under the criteria set forth in this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element the OCC determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When considering whether a national bank or Federal savings association may include a regulatory capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the OCC will consult with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and Federal Reserve Board.
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the OCC will make its decision publicly available, including a brief description of the material terms of the regulatory capital element and the rationale for the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35249, July 22, 2019; 86 FR 15080, Mar. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.3.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.21   Minority interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 3.20, a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (a) if a consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the national bank or Federal savings association.</I> The amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest that a national bank or Federal savings association may include in common equity tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all common equity tier 1 capital elements of the national bank or Federal savings association (not including the common equity tier 1 minority interest itself), less any common equity tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 3.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the national bank or Federal savings association.</I> The amount of tier 1 minority interest that a national bank or Federal savings association may include in tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all tier 1 capital elements of the national bank or Federal savings association (not including the tier 1 minority interest itself), less any tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 3.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the national bank or Federal savings association.</I> The amount of total capital minority interest that a national bank or Federal savings association may include in total capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all total capital elements of the national bank or Federal savings association (not including the total capital minority interest itself), less any total capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 3.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 3.20, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (b) if:
</P>
<P>(i) A consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each relevant regulatory capital ratio of the consolidated subsidiary, the ratio exceeds the sum of the subsidiary's minimum regulatory capital requirements plus its capital conservation buffer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Difference in capital adequacy standards at the subsidiary level.</I> For purposes of the minority interest calculations in this section, if the consolidated subsidiary issuing the capital is not subject to capital adequacy standards similar to those of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the capital adequacy standards of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association apply to the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the national bank or Federal savings association.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may include in common equity tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The common equity tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's common equity tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, multiplied by the difference between the common equity tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of common equity tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The common equity tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the amount of tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may include in tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association multiplied by the difference between the tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the national bank or Federal savings association.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the amount of total capital minority interest the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may include in total capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total capital minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's total capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association multiplied by the difference between the total capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of total capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35249, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.3.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.22   Regulatory capital adjustments and deductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital deductions from common equity tier 1 capital.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements the items set forth in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, goodwill that is embedded in the valuation of a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock (and that is reflected in the consolidated financial statements of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association), in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets, other than MSAs, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, held by a depository institution holding company. With the prior approval of the OCC, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the depository institution holding company has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in that fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an insured depository institution, no deduction is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight any portion of the defined benefit pension fund asset that is not deducted under paragraphs (a)(5)(i) or (a)(5)(ii) of this section as if the national bank or Federal savings association directly holds a proportional ownership share of each exposure in the defined benefit pension fund.
</P>
<P>(6) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d), the amount of expected credit loss that exceeds its eligible credit reserves; and
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to a financial subsidiary, the aggregate amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in its financial subsidiaries (as defined in [12 CFR 5.39 (OCC); 12 CFR 208.77 (Board))]. A national bank or Federal savings association must not consolidate the assets and liabilities of a financial subsidiary with those of the parent bank, and no other deduction is required under paragraph (c) of this section for investments in the capital instruments of financial subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) A Federal savings association must deduct the aggregate amount of its outstanding investments (both equity and debt) in, and extensions of credit to, subsidiaries that are not includable subsidiaries as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section and may not consolidate the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary with those of the Federal savings association. Any such deductions shall be deducted from assets and common equity tier 1 except as provided in paragraphs (a)(8)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Federal savings association has any investments (both debt and equity) in, or extensions or credit to, one or more subsidiaries engaged in any activity that would not fall within the scope of activities in which includable subsidiaries as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section may engage, it must deduct such investments and extensions of credit from assets and, thus, common equity tier 1 in accordance with paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a Federal savings association holds a subsidiary (either directly or through a subsidiary) that is itself a domestic depository institution, the OCC may, in its sole discretion upon determining that the amount of common equity tier 1 that would be required would be higher if the assets and liabilities of such subsidiary were consolidated with those of the parent Federal savings association than the amount that would be required if the parent Federal savings association's investment were deducted pursuant to paragraphs (a)(8)(i) and (ii) of this section, consolidate the assets and liabilities of that subsidiary with those of the parent Federal savings association in calculating the capital adequacy of the parent Federal savings association, regardless of whether the subsidiary would otherwise be an includable subsidiary as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this section, the term includable subsidiary means a subsidiary of a Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is engaged solely in activities not impermissible for a national bank;
</P>
<P>(B) Is engaged in activities not permissible for a national bank, but only if acting solely as agent for its customers and such agency position is clearly documented in the Federal savings association's files;
</P>
<P>(C) Is engaged solely in mortgage-banking activities;
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) Is itself an insured depository institution or a company the sole investment of which is an insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Was acquired by the parent Federal savings association prior to May 1, 1989; or
</P>
<P>(E) Was a subsidiary of any Federal savings association existing as a Federal savings association on August 9, 1989:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That was chartered prior to October 15, 1982, as a savings bank or a cooperative bank under state law; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That acquired its principal assets from an association that was chartered prior to October 15, 1982, as a savings bank or a cooperative bank under state law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the sum of common equity tier 1 capital elements pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Such adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital must be made net of the associated deferred tax effects.
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must make the adjustments required under § 3.22(b)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, and a national bank or Federal savings association that has not made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must deduct any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges included in AOCI that relate to the hedging of items that are not recognized at fair value on the balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct any net gain and add any net loss related to changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own credit risk. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct the difference between its credit spread premium and the risk-free rate for derivatives that are liabilities as part of this adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>AOCI opt-out election.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may make a one-time election to opt out of the requirement to include all components of AOCI (with the exception of accumulated net gains and losses on cash flow hedges related to items that are not fair-valued on the balance sheet) in common equity tier 1 capital (AOCI opt-out election). A national bank or Federal savings association that makes an AOCI opt-out election in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2) must adjust common equity tier 1 capital as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale securities;
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(C) Subtract any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges;
</P>
<P>(D) Subtract any amounts recorded in AOCI attributed to defined benefit postretirement plans resulting from the initial and subsequent application of the relevant GAAP standards that pertain to such plans (excluding, at the national bank's or Federal savings association's option, the portion relating to pension assets deducted under paragraph (a)(5) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(E) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on held-to-maturity securities that are included in AOCI.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must make its AOCI opt-out election in the Call Report:
</P>
<P>(A) If the national bank or Federal savings association is a Category III national bank or Federal savings association, during the first reporting period after the national bank or Federal savings association meets the definition of a Category III national bank or Federal savings association in § 3.2; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the national bank or Federal savings association is not a Category III national bank or Federal savings association, during the first reporting period after the national bank or Federal savings association is required to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 3.1(f).
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, each of its subsidiary banking organizations that is subject to regulatory capital requirements issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> must elect the same option as the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> These rules include the regulatory capital requirements set forth at 12 CFR part 3 (OCC); 12 CFR part 225 (Board); 12 CFR part 325, and 12 CFR part 390 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) With prior notice to the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association resulting from a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction and that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may change its AOCI opt-out election in its Call Report filed for the first reporting period after the date required for such national bank or Federal savings association to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 3.1(f) if:
</P>
<P>(A) Other than as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction involved the acquisition or purchase of all or substantially all of either the assets or voting stock of another banking organization that is subject to regulatory capital requirements issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> These rules include the regulatory capital requirements set forth at 12 CFR part 3 (OCC); 12 CFR part 225 (Board); 12 CFR part 325, and 12 CFR part 390 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Prior to the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, only one of the banking organizations involved in the transaction made an AOCI opt-out election under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association may, with the prior approval of the OCC, change its AOCI opt-out election under this paragraph (b) in the case of a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction that meets the requirements set forth at paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, but does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A). In making such a determination, the OCC may consider the terms of the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, as well as the extent of any changes to the risk profile, complexity, and scope of operations of the national bank or Federal savings association resulting from the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions from regulatory capital related to investments in capital instruments or covered debt instruments</I> 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>—(1) <I>Investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instruments.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instruments, as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate amounts deducted under paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section after it calculates the amount of ALLL or AACL, as applicable, includable in tier 2 capital under § 3.20(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own common stock instruments from its common equity tier 1 capital elements to the extent such instruments are not excluded from regulatory capital under § 3.20(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own additional tier 1 capital instruments from its additional tier 1 capital elements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own tier 2 capital instruments from its tier 2 capital elements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corresponding deduction approach.</I> For purposes of subpart C of this part, the corresponding deduction approach is the methodology used for the deductions from regulatory capital related to reciprocal cross holdings (as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section), investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association (as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section), non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association (as described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section), and non-common stock significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association (as described in paragraph (c)(6) of this section). Under the corresponding deduction approach, a national bank or Federal savings association must make deductions from the component of capital for which the underlying instrument would qualify if it were issued by the national bank or Federal savings association itself, as described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. If the national bank or Federal savings association does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction, the shortfall must be deducted according to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock or represents the most subordinated claim in a liquidation of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution and is senior in liquidation only to common shareholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a regulated financial institution and the instrument does not meet the criteria for common equity tier 1, additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments under § 3.20, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock included in GAAP equity or represents the most subordinated claim in liquidation of the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is included in GAAP equity, subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution, and senior in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding only to common shareholders;
</P>
<P>(C) A tier 2 capital instrument if it is not included in GAAP equity but considered regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(D) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, a tier 2 capital instrument if it is a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an investment is in the form of a non-qualifying capital instrument (as defined in § 3.300(c)), the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 1 capital prior to May 19, 2010; or
</P>
<P>(B) A tier 2 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 2 capital (but not includable in tier 1 capital) prior to May 19, 2010.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reciprocal cross holdings in the capital of financial institutions.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in the capital of other financial institutions that it holds reciprocally with another financial institution, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct an investment in any covered debt instrument that the institution holds reciprocally with another financial institution, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital or covered debt instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct its investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 3.2) that exceed 25 percent of the sum of the national bank or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution pursuant to this paragraph (c) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> With the prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct a non-significant investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the OCC.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> Any non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution that is not required to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(4) or otherwise under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subparts D, E, or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) <I>Non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> (i) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct its non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 3.2) that, in the aggregate and together with any investment in a covered debt instrument (as defined in § 3.2) issued by a financial institution in which the national bank or Federal savings association does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institution (as defined in § 3.2), exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments) by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this paragraph are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the OCC, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, is not required to deduct from capital a non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(5) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> For any calculation under this paragraph (c)(5)(i), an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may exclude the amount of an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraph (c)(5)(iii) or (iv) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> With the prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, an advanced approaches a national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct a non-significant investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the OCC.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> Any non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or any investment in a covered debt instrument that is not required to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(4) or otherwise under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subpart D, E, or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, the amount to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(5) from a specific capital component is equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution and, if applicable, any investments in a covered debt instrument subject to deduction under this paragraph (c)(5), exceeding the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments, multiplied by
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio of the advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution (in the form of such capital component) to the national bank's or Federal savings association's total non-significant investments in unconsolidated financial institutions, with an investment in a covered debt instrument being treated as tier 2 capital for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that is not a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, may exclude from the deduction the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's gross long position, in accordance with § 3.22(h)(2), in investments in covered debt instruments issued by financial institutions in which the national bank or Federal savings association does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institutions up to an amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, may designate any investment in a covered debt instrument as an excluded covered debt instrument, as defined in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(B) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, but no longer qualifies as an excluded covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section the amount of its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a direct or indirect investment in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, and has been held for more than thirty business days.
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, of its aggregate investment in excluded covered debt instruments that exceeds 5 percent of the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions that are not in the form of common stock.</I> If an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association has a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from capital any such investment issued by the unconsolidated financial institution that is held by the national bank or Federal savings association other than an investment in the form of common stock, as well as any investment in a covered debt instrument issued by the unconsolidated financial institution, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct the significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(6) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> With prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct an investment in a covered debt instrument under this paragraph (c)(5) or otherwise under this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the OCC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>MSAs and certain DTAs subject to common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(1).
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(1) that, individually, exceeds 25 percent of the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 25 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the national bank or Federal savings association and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. A national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 3.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the national bank or Federal savings association could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. A national bank or Federal savings association that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. A national bank or Federal savings association may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(2) that, individually, exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
</P>
<P>(A) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 3.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the national bank or Federal savings association could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock subject to the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold may be reduced by any goodwill embedded in the valuation of such investments deducted by the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to this paragraph (d)(2) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> With the prior written approval of the OCC, for the period of time stipulated by the OCC, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution in distress in the form of common stock pursuant to this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the OCC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section that are not deducted as a result of the application of the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold, and that, in aggregate, exceed 17.65 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital elements, minus adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, minus the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section (the 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold). Any goodwill that has been deducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section can be excluded from the significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to this section must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the 10 and 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Netting of DTLs against assets subject to deduction.</I> (1) Except as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, netting of DTLs against assets that are subject to deduction under this section is permitted, but not required, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the threshold deduction in paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, may be offset by DTLs (that have not been netted against assets subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section) subject to the conditions set forth in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(i) Only the DTAs and DTLs that relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and that are eligible for offsetting by that authority may be offset for purposes of this deduction.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of DTLs that the national bank or Federal savings association nets against DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and against DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, must be allocated in proportion to the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs) and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs), respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) A national bank or Federal savings association may offset DTLs embedded in the carrying value of a leveraged lease portfolio acquired in a business combination that are not recognized under GAAP against DTAs that are subject to paragraph (d) of this section in accordance with this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(5) A national bank or Federal savings association must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period. A national bank or Federal savings association may change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction under this section only after obtaining the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insufficient amounts of a specific regulatory capital component to effect deductions.</I> Under the corresponding deduction approach, if a national bank or Federal savings association does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the full amount of any deduction from capital required under paragraph (d) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must deduct the shortfall amount from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital. Any investment by an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association in a covered debt instrument must be treated as an investment in the tier 2 capital for purposes of this paragraph. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 3.12) that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to § 3.12 is not required to deduct any shortfall of tier 2 capital from its additional tier 1 capital or common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must exclude from standardized total risk-weighted assets and, as applicable, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets any item that is required to be deducted from regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Net long position</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of calculating the amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, and investment in a covered debt instrument under this section, the institution's net long position is the gross long position in the underlying instrument determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, as adjusted to recognize any short position by the national bank or Federal savings association in the same instrument subject to paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gross long position.</I> A gross long position is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity exposure that is held directly by the national bank or Federal savings association, the adjusted carrying value of the exposure as that term is defined in § 3.51(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) For an exposure that is held directly and that is not an equity exposure or a securitization exposure, the exposure amount as that term is defined in § 3.2;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each indirect exposure, the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of its investment in an investment fund or, alternatively:
</P>
<P>(A) A national bank or Federal savings association may, with the prior approval of the OCC, use a conservative estimate of the amount of its indirect investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instruments, its indirect investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or its indirect investment in a covered debt instrument held through a position in an index, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) A national bank or Federal savings association may calculate the gross long position for an indirect exposure to the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital the capital in an unconsolidated financial institution, or a covered debt instrument by multiplying the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of its investment in the investment fund by either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The highest stated investment limit (in percent) for an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instruments, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable, as stated in the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract defining permissible investments of the investment fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The investment fund's actual holdings (in percent) of the investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instruments, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a synthetic exposure, the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's loss on the exposure if the reference capital instrument or covered debt instrument were to have a value of zero.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustments to reflect a short position.</I> In order to adjust the gross long position to recognize a short position in the same instrument under paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The maturity of the short position must match the maturity of the long position, or the short position must have a residual maturity of at least one year (maturity requirement); or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a position that is a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report, if the national bank or Federal savings association has a contractual right or obligation to sell the long position at a specific point in time and the counterparty to the contract has an obligation to purchase the long position if the national bank or Federal savings association exercises its right to sell, this point in time may be treated as the maturity of the long position such that the maturity of the long position and short position are deemed to match for purposes of the maturity requirement, even if the maturity of the short position is less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For an investment in a national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution under paragraphs (c)(4) through (6) and (d) of this section (as applicable), and an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraphs (c)(1), (5), and (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association may only net a short position against a long position in an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the short position involves no counterparty credit risk;
</P>
<P>(B) A gross long position in an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument due to a position in an index may be netted against a short position in the same index;
</P>
<P>(C) Long and short positions in the same index without maturity dates are considered to have matching maturities; and
</P>
<P>(D) A short position in an index that is hedging a long cash or synthetic position in an investment in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument can be decomposed to provide recognition of the hedge. More specifically, the portion of the index that is composed of the same underlying instrument that is being hedged may be used to offset the long position if both the long position being hedged and the short position in the index are reported as a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) on the national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report, and the hedge is deemed effective by the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal control processes, which have not been found to be inadequate by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41415, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35250, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61793, Nov. 13, 2019; 86 FR 728, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.23-3.29" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.3.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.23-3.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Risk-Weighted Assets—Standardized Approach</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for all national banks or Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a market risk national bank or Federal savings association must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, OTC derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets For General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.31   Mechanics for calculating risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General risk-weighting requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must apply risk weights to its exposures as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount of each on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, financial standby letter of credit, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 3.38;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 3.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) A default fund contribution subject to § 3.35;
</P>
<P>(iv) A securitization exposure subject to §§ 3.41 through 3.45; or
</P>
<P>(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 3.51 through 3.53.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.32   General risk weights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sovereign exposures</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to the U.S. government.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a zero percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) An exposure to the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency; and
</P>
<P>(B) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or other exposure, that is insured or otherwise unconditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a zero percent risk weight to a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other sovereign exposures.</I> In accordance with Table 1 to § 3.32, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight to a sovereign exposure based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign or the sovereign's OECD membership status if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.32—Risk Weights for Sovereign Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Certain sovereign exposures.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign to a sovereign exposure a risk weight that is lower than the applicable risk weight in Table 1 to § 3.32 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure is denominated in the sovereign's currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that the home country supervisor allows national banks or Federal savings associations under its jurisdiction to assign to the same exposures to the sovereign.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to a non-OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(5) and (a)(6) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 0 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign that is a member of the OECD if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sovereign default.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a sovereign exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs).</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to GSEs.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a GSE other than an equity exposure or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a depository institution or credit union that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, except as otherwise provided under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign banks.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided under paragraphs (d)(2)(iii), (d)(2)(v), and (d)(3) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank, in accordance with Table 2 to § 3.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the foreign bank's home country or the OECD membership status of the foreign bank's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the foreign bank's home country.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 3.32—Risk Weights for Exposures to Foreign Banks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk-weight to an exposure that is a self-liquidating, trade-related contingent item that arises from the movement of goods and that has a maturity of three months or less to a foreign bank whose home country has a CRC of 0, 1, 2, or 3, or is an OECD member with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC, with the exception of self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, and that have a maturity of three months or less, which may be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(v) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a financial institution if the exposure may be included in that financial institution's capital unless the exposure is:
</P>
<P>(i) An equity exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) A significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to § 3.22(d)(2)(i)(c);
</P>
<P>(iii) Deducted from regulatory capital under § 3.22; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject to a 150 percent risk weight under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) or Table 2 of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposures to public sector entities (PSEs)</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. PSEs.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign PSEs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 3 to § 3.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 4 to § 3.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country; or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 or 4 to § 3.32 to an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(i) The PSE's home country supervisor allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower risk weight to such exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Table 1 to § 3.32.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 3.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE General Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 3.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE Revenue Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to PSEs from an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to PSEs whose home country is not an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a PSE whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a PSE exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in a PSE's home country or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the PSE's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate exposures.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all its corporate exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the national bank or Federal savings association posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 3.35(b)(3)(i)(A) and a 4 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the national bank or Federal savings association posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 3.35(b)(3)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the national bank or Federal savings association posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 3.35(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential mortgage exposures.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is secured by a property that is either owner-occupied or rented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, including standards relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not restructured or modified.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to junior-lien residential mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this paragraph (g), if a national bank or Federal savings association holds the first-lien and junior-lien(s) residential mortgage exposures, and no other party holds an intervening lien, the national bank or Federal savings association must combine the exposures and treat them as a single first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) A loan modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program is not modified or restructured for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pre-sold construction loans.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statutory multifamily mortgages.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a statutory multifamily mortgage.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>High-volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an HVCRE exposure.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Past due exposures.</I> Except for an exposure to a sovereign entity or a residential mortgage exposure or a policy loan, if an exposure is 90 days or more past due or on nonaccrual:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 150 percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is unsecured;
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 3.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section; and
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a risk weight to the collateralized portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 3.37 if the collateral meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other assets.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a zero percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of the national bank or Federal savings association or in transit; to gold bullion held in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own vaults or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities; and to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 20 percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(4) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 250 percent risk weight to the portion of each of the following items to the extent it is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to § 3.22(d):
</P>
<P>(i) MSAs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(5) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all assets not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 3.22.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign an asset that is not included in one of the categories provided in this section to the risk weight category applicable under the capital rules applicable to bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies at 12 CFR part 217, provided that all of the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association is not authorized to hold the asset under applicable law other than debt previously contracted or similar authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risks associated with the asset are substantially similar to the risks of assets that are otherwise assigned to a risk weight category of less than 100 percent under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35254, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4402, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020; 85 FR 57959, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.33   Off-balance sheet exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a national bank or Federal savings association commits to provide a commitment, the national bank or Federal savings association may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a national bank or Federal savings association provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the national bank or Federal savings association is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Where a national bank or Federal savings association provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit-enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit conversion factors</I>—(1) <I>Zero percent CCF.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must apply a zero percent CCF to the unused portion of a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent CCF.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 20 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of one year or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of one year or less.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>50 percent CCF.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 50 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of more than one year that are not unconditionally cancelable by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>100 percent CCF.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 100 percent CCF to the amount of the following off-balance-sheet items and other similar transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the national bank or Federal savings association has sold subject to repurchase);
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the national bank or Federal savings association has lent under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the national bank or Federal savings association has posted as collateral under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Forward agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.34   Derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure amount for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>National bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must use the current exposure methodology (CEM) described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts, unless the national bank or Federal savings association makes the election provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may elect to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) in § 3.132(c) by notifying the OCC, rather than calculating the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using CEM. A national bank or Federal savings association that elects under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) to calculate the exposure amount for its OTC derivative contracts under SA-CCR must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 3.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts, rather than applying § 3.35. A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and, if a national bank or Federal savings association has elected to use SA-CCR under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii), the national bank or Federal savings association may change its election only with prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using SA-CCR in § 3.132(c) for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 3.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current exposure methodology exposure amount</I>—(1) <I>Single OTC derivative contract.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for a single OTC derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's current credit exposure and potential future credit exposure (PFE) on the OTC derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current credit exposure.</I> The current credit exposure for a single OTC derivative contract is the greater of the fair value of the OTC derivative contract or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PFE.</I> (A) The PFE for a single OTC derivative contract, including an OTC derivative contract with a negative fair value, is calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the OTC derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of calculating either the PFE under this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or the gross PFE under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for exchange rate contracts and other similar contracts in which the notional principal amount is equivalent to the cash flows, notional principal amount is the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.
</P>
<P>(C) For an OTC derivative contract that does not fall within one of the specified categories in Table 1 to this section, the PFE must be calculated using the appropriate “other” conversion factor.
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association must use an OTC derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
</P>
<P>(E) The PFE of the protection provider of a credit derivative is capped at the net present value of the amount of unpaid premiums.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.34—Conversion Factor Matrix for Derivative Contracts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign
<br/>exchange
<br/>rate and gold
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit
<br/>(investment
<br/>grade
<br/>reference
<br/>asset) 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit
<br/>(non-
<br/>investment-
<br/>grade
<br/>reference
<br/>asset)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precious
<br/>metals
<br/>(except gold)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than one year and less than or equal to five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For a derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the derivative contract.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For an OTC derivative contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the fair value of the contract is zero, the remaining maturity equals the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate derivative contract with a remaining maturity of greater than one year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.005.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association must use the column labeled “Credit (investment-grade reference asset)” for a credit derivative whose reference asset is an outstanding unsecured long-term debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade. A national bank or Federal savings association must use the column labeled “Credit (non-investment-grade reference asset)” for all other credit derivatives.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the net current credit exposure and the adjusted sum of the PFE amounts for all OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net current credit exposure.</I> The net current credit exposure is the greater of the net sum of all positive and negative fair values of the individual OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted sum of the PFE amounts.</I> The adjusted sum of the PFE amounts, Anet, is calculated as Anet = (0.4 × Agross) + (0.6 × NGR × Agross), where:
</P>
<P>(A) Agross = the gross PFE (that is, the sum of the PFE amounts as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section for each individual derivative contract subject to the qualifying master netting agreement); and
</P>
<P>(B) Net-to-gross Ratio (NGR) = the ratio of the net current credit exposure to the gross current credit exposure. In calculating the NGR, the gross current credit exposure equals the sum of the positive current credit exposures (as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) of all individual derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC derivative contract or multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) by using the simple approach in § 3.37(b).
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the simple approach, a national bank or Federal savings association using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures such a contract or netting set if the financial collateral is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement by applying a risk weight to the uncollateralized portion of the exposure, after adjusting the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section using the collateral haircut approach in § 3.37(c). The national bank or Federal savings association must substitute the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for ΣE in the equation in § 3.37(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk for credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection purchasers.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 3.36 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this subpart provided that the national bank or Federal savings association does so consistently for all such credit derivatives. The national bank or Federal savings association must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection providers.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that is the protection provider under a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as an exposure to the underlying reference asset. The national bank or Federal savings association is not required to compute a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this subpart, provided that this treatment is applied consistently for all such credit derivatives. The national bank or Federal savings association must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (d)(2) apply to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes unless the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the national bank or Federal savings association must compute a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterparty credit risk for equity derivatives.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 3.51 through 3.53 (unless the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the national bank or Federal savings association must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section if the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank or Federal savings association risk weights the contract under the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 3.52, the national bank or Federal savings association may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of the equity derivative contract, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, a national bank or Federal savings association using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure amount.</I> The exposure amount of a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section for a client-facing derivative transaction or netting set of client-facing derivative transactions equals the exposure amount calculated according to paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section multiplied by the scaling factor of the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the national bank or Federal savings association determines that a longer period is appropriate, the national bank or Federal savings association must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for a longer holding period as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.012.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where H = the holding period greater than or equal to five days.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>Additionally, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to set a longer holding period if the OCC determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 4402, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.35   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternate requirements.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association or a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association and that has elected to use SA-CCR under § 3.34(a)(1) must apply § 3.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions rather than this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client national banks or Federal savings associations</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the methodology used to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 3.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodologies under § 3.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the national bank or Federal savings association to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; or
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent if the requirements of § 3.35(b)(3)(A) are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirements in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with the requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member national banks or Federal savings associations</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract, calculated using the methodology to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 3.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for repo-style transactions calculated using methodologies under § 3.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weight.</I> (i) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a CCP where the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 3.3(a), and the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the CCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association that is held by a custodian in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the national bank or Federal savings association or the OCC, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to non-qualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the OCC, based on factors such as size, structure and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section (Method 1), multiplied by 1,250 percent or in paragraphs (d)(3)(iv) of this section (Method 2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method 1.</I> The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (K<E T="52">CCP</E>) equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.058.gif"/>
<P>(A) EBRM<E T="52">i</E> = the exposure amount for each transaction cleared through the QCCP by clearing member i, calculated in accordance with § 3.34 for OTC derivative contracts and § 3.37(c)(2) for repo-style transactions, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of this section, in calculating the exposure amount the national bank or Federal savings association may replace the formula provided in § 3.34(a)(2)(ii) with the following: Anet = (0.15 × Agross) + (0.85 × NGR × Agross); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For option derivative contracts that are cleared transactions, the PFE described in § 3.34(a)(1)(ii) must be adjusted by multiplying the notional principal amount of the derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to § 3.34 and the absolute value of the option's delta, that is, the ratio of the change in the value of the derivative contract to the corresponding change in the price of the underlying asset.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions, when applying § 3.37(c)(2), the national bank or Federal savings association must use the methodology in § 3.37(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(B) VM<E T="52">i</E> = any collateral posted by clearing member i to the QCCP that it is entitled to receive from the QCCP, but has not yet received, and any collateral that the QCCP has actually received from clearing member i;
</P>
<P>(C) IM<E T="52">i</E> = the collateral posted as initial margin by clearing member i to the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(D) DF<E T="52">i</E> = the funded portion of clearing member i's default fund contribution that will be applied to reduce the QCCP's loss upon a default by clearing member i;
</P>
<P>(E) RW = 20 percent, except when the OCC has determined that a higher risk weight is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members; and
</P>
<P>(F) Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, a national bank or Federal savings association must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d), unless the national bank or Federal savings association determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by funded commitments, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.016.gif"/>
<P>Subscripts 1 and 2 denote the clearing members with the two largest A<E T="52">Net</E> values. For purposes of this paragraph (d), for derivatives A<E T="52">Net</E> is defined in § 3.34(a)(2)(ii) and for repo-style transactions, A<E T="52">Net</E> means the exposure amount as defined in § 3.37(c)(2)<E T="03"/> using the methodology in § 3.37(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(B) N = the number of clearing members in the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(C) DF<E T="52">CCP</E> = the QCCP's own funds and other financial resources that would be used to cover its losses before clearing members' default fund contributions are used to cover losses;
</P>
<P>(D) DF<E T="52">CM</E> = funded default fund contributions from all clearing members and any other clearing member contributed financial resources that are available to absorb mutualized QCCP losses;
</P>
<P>(E) DF = DF<E T="52">CCP</E> + DF<E T="52">CM</E> (that is, the total funded default fund contribution);
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.017.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DF<E T="52">i</E> = the national bank's or Federal savings association's unfunded commitment to the default fund;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DF<E T="52">CM</E> = the total of all clearing members' unfunded commitment to the default fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) For a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by unfunded commitments and is unable to calculate K<E T="52">CM</E> using the methodology described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.018.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(<I>1</I>) IM<E T="52">i</E> = the national bank's or Federal savings association's initial margin posted to the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) IM<E T="52">CM</E> = the total of initial margin posted to the QCCP; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Method 2.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for its default fund contribution to a QCCP, RWA<E T="52">DF</E>, equals:
</P>
<FP-2>RWA<E T="52">DF</E> = Min {12.5 * DF; 0.18 * TE}
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(A) TE = the national bank's or Federal savings association's trade exposure amount to the QCCP, calculated according to section 35(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(B) DF = the funded portion of the national bank's or Federal savings association's default fund contribution to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions is the sum of a clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted assets for all of its default fund contributions to all CCPs of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a clearing member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35255, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4404, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.36   Guarantees and credit derivatives: substitution treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative by substituting the risk weight associated with the protection provider for the risk weight assigned to an exposure, as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the national bank or Federal savings association and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 3.41 through 3.45.
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is subordinated to, the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution approach</I>—(1) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, a national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure by substituting the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider under this subpart D for the risk weight assigned to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the national bank or Federal savings association (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the national bank or Federal savings association (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the national bank or Federal savings association to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: Pm = E × (t − 0.25) / (T − 0.25), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</P>
<P>(ii) E = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</P>
<P>(iii) t = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) T = the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment for credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: Pr = Pm × 0.60, where:
</P>
<P>(1) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(2) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch, if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) If a national bank or Federal savings association recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: Pc = Pr × (1−H<E T="52">FX</E>), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pc = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to eight percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period. A national bank or Federal savings association qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for the use of its own-estimates haircuts in § 3.37(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the national bank or Federal savings association revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every 10 business days using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.021.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35255, July 22, 2019]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.13.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.37   Collateralized transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To recognize the risk-mitigating effects of financial collateral, a national bank or Federal savings association may use:
</P>
<P>(i) The simple approach in paragraph (b) of this section for any exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral haircut approach in paragraph (c) of this section for repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association may use any approach described in this section that is valid for a particular type of exposure or transaction; however, it must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The simple approach</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures any exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every six months; and
</P>
<P>(C) The collateral (other than gold) and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk weight substitution.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral (that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) based on the risk weight assigned to the collateral under this subpart D. For repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, and securities lending and borrowing transactions, the collateral is the instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the risk weight assigned to the collateralized portion of the exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight applicable to the exposure under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to the 20 percent risk-weight floor and other requirements.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a 10 percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 3.32.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a zero percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
</P>
<P>(B) The financial collateral is an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 3.32, and the national bank or Federal savings association has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or single-product netting set of such transactions, and of any collateral that secures a repo-style transaction that is included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part by using the collateral haircut approach in this section. A national bank or Federal savings association may use the standard supervisory haircuts in paragraph (c)(3) of this section or, with prior written approval of the OCC, its own estimates of haircuts according to paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure amount equation.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or a single-product netting set of such transactions by setting the exposure amount equal to max {0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + Σ(Es × Hs) + Σ(Efx × Hfx)]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) For eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions and netting sets thereof, ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set)); and
</P>
<P>(B) For collateralized derivative contracts and netting sets thereof, ΣE equals the exposure amount of the OTC derivative contract (or netting set) calculated under § 3.34(b)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(iii) Es equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in the instrument or gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(iv) Hs equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in Es;
</P>
<P>(v) Efx equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Hfx equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in Efx and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the haircuts for market price volatility (Hs) provided in Table 1 to § 3.37, as adjusted in certain circumstances in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.37—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization
<br/>exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 3.32
<br/>(in percent) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 3.32
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 3.37 are based on a 10 business-day holding period. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For currency mismatches, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (Hfx) of 8.0 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances under paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a national bank or Federal savings association may multiply the standard supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). For client-facing derivative transactions, if a larger scaling factor is applied under § 3.34(f), the same factor must be used to adjust the supervisory haircuts.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 3.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set. A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.022.gif"/>
<P>(A) T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</P>
<P>(B) H<E T="52">S</E> equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</P>
<P>(C) T<E T="52">S</E> equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.
</P>
<P>(v) If the instrument a national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the national bank or Federal savings association must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate haircuts (Hs and Hfx) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates:
</P>
<P>(i) To receive OCC approval to use its own internal estimates, a national bank or Federal savings association must satisfy the following minimum standards:
</P>
<P>(A) A national bank or Federal savings association must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction and client-facing derivative transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan and a derivative contract other than a client-facing derivative transaction is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (c)(4)(i)(C) of this section applies. When a national bank or Federal savings association calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.023.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the national bank or Federal savings association to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E>.
</P>
<P>(C) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 3.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(E) A national bank or Federal savings association must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the national bank's or Federal savings association's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior approval of the OCC for, and notify the OCC if the national bank or Federal savings association makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Nothing in this section prevents the OCC from requiring a national bank or Federal savings association to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(G) A national bank or Federal savings association must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the national bank or Federal savings association must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(C) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(D) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(v) A national bank's or Federal savings association's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4404, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57959, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Unsettled Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.14.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.38   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive current exposure of a national bank or Federal savings association for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the national bank or Federal savings association to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 3.34).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system or central counterparty, the OCC may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the national bank's or Federal savings association's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The national bank or Federal savings association must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the national bank or Federal savings association by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 3.38.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.38—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business
<br/>days after
<br/>contractual
<br/>settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to
<br/>be applied to
<br/>positive current exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the national bank or Federal savings association has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The national bank or Federal savings association must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the national bank or Federal savings association has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the national bank or Federal savings association has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the national bank or Federal savings association as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank or Federal savings association has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after counterparty delivery was due, the national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.39-3.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.14.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.39-3.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.41   Operational requirements for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each condition in this section is satisfied. A national bank or Federal savings association that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization. A national bank or Federal savings association that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, a national bank or Federal savings association may recognize for risk-based capital purposes the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each condition in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. A national bank or Federal savings association that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. A national bank or Federal savings association that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 3.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 3.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the national bank or Federal savings association to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the national bank's or Federal savings association's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the national bank or Federal savings association in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the national bank or Federal savings association after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 3.42(h), if a national bank or Federal savings association is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must assign the securitization exposure a risk weight of 1,250 percent. The national bank's or Federal savings association's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the exposure in relation to its capital.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average LTV ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.42   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization risk weight approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section or in § 3.41:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of a CEIO that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with §§ 3.43(a) through 3.43(d) and subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section. Alternatively, a national bank or Federal savings association that is not subject to subpart F of this part may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the gross-up approach in accordance with § 3.43(e), provided, however, that such national bank or Federal savings association must apply either the SSFA or the gross-up approach consistently across all of its securitization exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the national bank or Federal savings association cannot, or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach to the exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 3.44.
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a national bank or Federal savings association in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a national bank or Federal savings association may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amount for securitization exposures that the national bank or Federal savings association risk weights under §§ 3.41(c), 3.42(a)(1), and 3.43, 3.44, or § 3.45, and paragraphs (e) through (j) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure</I>—(1) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure (excluding an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security where the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 3.22(b)(2), a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction) is equal to the carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures held by a national bank or Federal savings association that has made an AOCI opt-out election.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security held by a national bank or Federal savings association that has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 3.22(b)(2) is the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees), less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Off-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative), or an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the national bank or Federal savings association could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets).
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA does not apply by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA applies by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and derivative contracts.</I> The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the exposure amount of the transaction as calculated under § 3.34 or § 3.37, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage to the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when a national bank or Federal savings association provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the national bank or Federal savings association may apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implicit support.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association provides support to a securitization in excess of the national bank's or Federal savings association's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the national bank or Federal savings association of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) For a national bank or Federal savings association that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the national bank or Federal savings association may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this subpart, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with retained contractual exposure.</I> (1) Regardless of any other provision of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only its contractual exposure to the small-business obligations if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the national bank's or Federal savings association's reasonably estimated liability under the contractual obligation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The small-business obligations are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 et seq.).
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association is well capitalized, as defined in 12 CFR 6.4. For purposes of determining whether a national bank or Federal savings association is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (h), the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations under this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of contractual exposure retained by a national bank or Federal savings association on transfers of small-business obligations receiving the capital treatment specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If a national bank or Federal savings association ceases to be well capitalized under 12 CFR 6.4 or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the capital treatment under paragraph (h)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with retained contractual exposure that occurred during the time that the national bank or Federal savings association was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of the national bank or Federal savings association must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section for purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining whether a national bank or Federal savings association is adequately capitalized, undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized under the OCC's prompt corrective action regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reclassifying a well-capitalized national bank or Federal savings association to adequately capitalized and requiring an adequately capitalized national bank or Federal savings association to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the national bank or Federal savings association were in the next lower prompt-corrective-action category.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a risk weight using the SSFA in § 3.43 to an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (i). A national bank or Federal savings association must determine its exposure in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association that does not use the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 3.36(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the national bank or Federal savings association synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 3.34 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 3.36(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) A national bank or Federal savings association that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 3.36(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank or Federal savings association also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If a national bank or Federal savings association satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the national bank or Federal savings association had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the n<E T="51">th</E> smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 3.34 for a n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 3.36(b).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than n</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative) provided by a national bank or Federal savings association that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases a guarantee or OTC credit derivative (other than an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 3.45 as a credit risk mitigant (including via collateral recognized under § 3.37) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 3.31, in accordance with 34(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a national bank or Federal savings association cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 3.45, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 3.34.
</P>
<P>(A) If the national bank or Federal savings association purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(B) If the national bank or Federal savings association purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to section § 3.42, including § 3.42(a)(4) for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.43   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) and the gross-up approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, a national bank or Federal savings association must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A national bank or Federal savings association that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, a national bank or Federal savings association must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation: 
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08). 
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned; 
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on: 
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default. 
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 3.42(i) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the national bank or Federal savings association to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. 
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in section 42(i) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. 
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.024.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Gross-up approach</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is not subject to subpart F of this part may apply the gross-up approach set forth in this section instead of the SSFA to determine the risk weight of its securitization exposures, provided that it applies the gross-up approach to all of its securitization exposures, except as otherwise provided for certain securitization exposures in §§ 3.44 and 3.45.
</P>
<P>(2) To use the gross-up approach, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the following four inputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Pro rata share, which is the par value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure as a percent of the par value of the tranche in which the securitization exposure resides;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enhanced amount, which is the par value of tranches that are more senior to the tranche in which the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization resides;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposure amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure calculated under § 3.42(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk weight, which is the weighted-average risk weight of underlying exposures of the securitization as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit equivalent amount.</I> The credit equivalent amount of a securitization exposure under this section equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pro rata share multiplied by the enhanced amount, each calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> To calculate risk-weighted assets for a securitization exposure under the gross-up approach, a national bank or Federal savings association must apply the risk weight required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section to the credit equivalent amount calculated in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.44   Securitization exposures to which the SSFA and gross-up approach do not apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to all securitization exposures to which the national bank or Federal savings association does not apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach under § 3.43, except as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facilities.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility by multiplying the exposure amount by the highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures covered by the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>A securitization exposure in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program</I>—(1) <I>Risk weighting.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of a securitization exposure that is in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section by multiplying the exposure amount by the higher of the following risk weights:
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures of the ABCP program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The exposure is not an eligible ABCP liquidity facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exposure must be economically in a second loss position or better, and the first loss position must provide significant credit protection to the second loss position;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exposure qualifies as investment grade; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association holding the exposure must not retain or provide protection to the first loss position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.45   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An originating national bank or Federal savings association that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 3.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 3.36 or § 3.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An investing national bank or Federal savings association that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 3.36 or § 3.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mismatches.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 3.36(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the national bank or Federal savings association must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.46-3.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.15.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.46-3.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.16.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.51   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to an investment fund, a national bank or Federal savings association must use the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) provided in 3.52. A national bank or Federal savings association must use the look-through approaches provided in § 3.53 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 3.2) as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 3.53.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy; or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of §§ 3.51 through 3.53, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure (other than an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 3.22(b)(2)), the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the national bank or Federal savings association has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 3.22(b)(2), the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the national bank's or Federal savings association's regulatory capital components;
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of one year or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over one year receive a CF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.52" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.16.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.52   Simple risk-weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, a national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the national bank's or Federal savings association's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined under this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the national bank's or Federal savings association's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined under § 3.53.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, an MDB, and any other entity whose credit exposures receive a zero percent risk weight under § 3.32 may be assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a PSE, Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) must be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The equity exposures set forth in this paragraph (b)(3) must be assigned a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act, excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 3.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a national bank or Federal savings association does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the national bank or Federal savings association may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures qualify for a 100 percent risk weight under this paragraph (b), a national bank or Federal savings association first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 3.22(d)(2) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) must be assigned a 300 percent risk weight. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7)) of this section that is not publicly traded must be assigned a 400 percent risk weight. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm must be assigned a 600 percent risk weight, provided that the investment firm: 
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the national bank or Federal savings association acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the national bank or Federal savings association will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. A national bank or Federal savings association must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E as set forth in this paragraph (c). 
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals 0. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.027.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then E equals zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.53" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.16.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.53   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure under § 3.52(b)(3)(i), a national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach described in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alterative modified look-through approach described paragraph (d) of this section, provided, however, that the minimum risk weight that may be assigned to an equity exposure under this section is 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 3.52(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the national bank or Federal savings association does not use the full look-through approach, the national bank or Federal savings association must use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 3.52(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart as if the proportional ownership share of the adjusted carrying value of each exposure were held directly by the national bank or Federal savings association) may set the risk-weighted asset amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under the simple modified look-through approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar agreement that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under the alternative modified look-through approach, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories under this subpart based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure type multiplied by the applicable risk weight under this subpart. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest applicable risk weight under this subpart and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest applicable risk weight under this subpart until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must use the highest applicable risk weight. A national bank or Federal savings association may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.54-3.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.16.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.54-3.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.61" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.17.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3.61 through 3.63 of this subpart establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements described in subpart B of this part for a national bank or Federal savings association with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent year-end Call Report that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association making public disclosures pursuant to § 3.172. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has not received approval from the OCC to exit parallel run pursuant to § 3.121(d) is subject to the disclosure requirements described in §§ 3.62 and 3.63. A national bank or Federal savings association with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent year-end Call Report that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association making public disclosures subject to § 3.172 must comply with § 3.62 unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to the disclosure requirements of § 3.62 or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. For purposes of this section, total consolidated assets are determined based on the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets in the four most recent quarters as reported on the Call Report or the average of the national bank or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets in the most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report if the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed such a report for each of the most recent four quarters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.62" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.17.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.62   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.61 must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 3.63. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. The national bank's or Federal savings association's management may provide all of the disclosures required by §§ 3.61 through 3.63 in one place on the national bank's or Federal savings association's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.61 must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the national bank or Federal savings association must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If a national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.61 concludes that specific commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would be exempt from disclosure by the OCC under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), then the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.63" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.17.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.63   Disclosures by national banks or Federal savings associations described in § 3.61.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 3.62, a national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.61 must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 10 of this section. The national bank or Federal savings association must make these disclosures publicly available for each of the last three years (that is, twelve quarters) or such shorter period beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or Federal savings association must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, tier 1 and total capital ratios, including the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Regulatory capital ratios during any transition periods, including a description of all the regulatory capital elements and all regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator and denominator of each capital ratio during any transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements as they relate to its balance sheet in any audited consolidated financial statements.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.63—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart D of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities 
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) That are fully consolidated;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 3.63—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common stock and related surplus;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retained earnings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Common equity minority interest;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) AOCI; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 3.63—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) A summary discussion of the national bank's or Federal savings association's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Risk-weighted assets for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to sovereign entities;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to certain supranational entities and MDBs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Exposures to PSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Corporate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Statutory multifamily mortgages and pre-sold construction loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) HVCRE exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9) Past due loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10) Other assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11) Cleared transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12) Default fund contributions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(13) Unsettled transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(14) Securitization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(15) Equity exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Standardized market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Total standardized risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 3.63—Capital Conservation Buffer
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer as described under § 3.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose the eligible retained income of the national bank or Federal savings association, as described under § 3.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer framework described under § 3.11, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 10, the national bank or Federal savings association must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including: Strategies and processes; the structure and organization of the relevant risk management function; the scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 3.63 
<sup>1</sup>—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 6), including the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes);
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Description of the methodology that the national bank or Federal savings association uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Discussion of the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP, without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, national banks or Federal savings associations could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the national bank's or Federal savings association's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity delineation (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may consist of individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. A national bank or Federal savings association might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the national bank's or Federal savings association's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 3.63—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk-Related Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The methodology used to assign credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The primary types of collateral taken; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The impact of the amount of collateral the national bank or Federal savings association would have to provide given a deterioration in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own creditworthiness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association also must disclose the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection and the distribution of current credit exposure by exposure type.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the national bank's or Federal savings association's own credit portfolio and in its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering both the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 3.63—Credit Risk Mitigation 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the national bank or Federal savings association;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations with respect to credit risk mitigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed credit risk portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by eligible financial collateral, and after the application of haircuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives and the risk-weighted asset amount associated with that exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, a national bank or Federal savings association must provide the disclosures in Table 7 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, national banks or Federal savings associations are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives that are treated, for the purposes of this subpart, as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures and included within those relating to securitization (Table 8).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 3.63—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to a securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association 's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the national bank or Federal savings association to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the national bank or Federal savings association in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the national bank's or Federal savings association 's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The national bank's or Federal savings association's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the national bank or Federal savings association follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the national bank or Federal savings association, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The national bank or Federal savings association must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off-balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the national bank or Federal savings association manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the national bank or Federal savings association has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the national bank or Federal savings association sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Summary of the national bank's or Federal savings association's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart D of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the national bank or Federal savings association to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) An explanation of significant changes to any quantitative information since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The total outstanding exposures securitized by the national bank or Federal savings association in securitizations that meet the operational criteria provided in § 3.41 (categorized into traditional and synthetic securitizations), by exposure type, separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the bank acts only as sponsor.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) For exposures securitized by the national bank or Federal savings association in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 3.41:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired/past due categorized by exposure type; 
<sup>5</sup> and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the national bank or Federal savings association during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> SSFA); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j) Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k) Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The national bank or Federal savings association should describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description should be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the national bank or Federal savings association is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles may include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Such affiliated entities may include, for example, money market funds, to be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, to be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the national bank or Federal savings association, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the national bank or Federal savings association from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception. National banks and Federal savings associations are required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of interest-only strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the national bank or Federal savings association with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 3.63—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to equity risk for equities not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those taken under other objectives including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting techniques and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Value disclosed on the balance sheet of investments, as well as the fair value of those investments; for securities that are publicly traded, a comparison to publicly-quoted share values where the share price is materially different from fair value.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is: (1) Publicly traded; and
<br/>(2) Non publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses).
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses).
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding regulatory capital requirements.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized on the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either on the balance sheet or through earnings.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 3.63—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) A Category III national bank or Federal savings association that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 3.172(d) is subject to the supplementary leverage ratio disclosure requirement at § 3.173(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) A Category III national bank or Federal savings association that is required to calculate a countercyclical capital buffer pursuant to § 3.11 is subject to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to § 3.173, “Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers,” and not to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to this section, “Capital Conservation Buffer.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35256, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.64-3.99" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.4.17.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.64-3.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Risk-Weighted Assets—Internal Ratings-Based and Advanced Measurement Approaches</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.100   Purpose, applicability, and principle of conservatism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart E establishes:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum qualifying criteria for national banks or Federal savings associations using institution-specific internal risk measurement and management processes for calculating risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Methodologies for such national banks or Federal savings associations to calculate their total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart applies to a national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as identified pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a Category II national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is a subsidiary of a depository institution that uses the advanced approaches pursuant to this subpart (OCC), 12 CFR part 217, subpart E (Board), or 12 CFR part 324 (FDIC), to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that uses the advanced approaches pursuant to subpart E of 12 CFR part 217 to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(v) Elects to use this subpart to calculate its risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) A market risk national bank or Federal savings association must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, over-the-counter derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principle of conservatism.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association may choose not to apply a provision of this subpart to one or more exposures provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association can demonstrate on an ongoing basis to the satisfaction of the OCC that not applying the provision would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association appropriately manages the risk of each such exposure;
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association notifies the OCC in writing prior to applying this principle to each such exposure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The exposures to which the national bank or Federal savings association applies this principle are not, in the aggregate, material to the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41415, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms that are set forth in § 3.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced internal ratings-based (IRB) systems</I> means an advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk rating and segmentation system; risk parameter quantification system; data management and maintenance system; and control, oversight, and validation system for credit risk of wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced systems</I> means an advanced approaches national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced IRB systems, operational risk management processes, operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and, to the extent used by the national bank or Federal savings association, the internal models methodology, advanced CVA approach, double default excessive correlation detection process, and internal models approach (IMA) for equity exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of a national bank's or Federal savings association's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmarking</I> means the comparison of a national bank's or Federal savings association's internal estimates with relevant internal and external data or with estimates based on other estimation techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Bond option contract</I> means a bond option, bond future, or any other instrument linked to a bond that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Business environment and internal control factors</I> means the indicators of a national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk profile that reflect a current and forward-looking assessment of the national bank's or Federal savings association's underlying business risk factors and internal control environment.
</P>
<P><I>Credit default swap</I> (CDS) means a financial contract executed under standard industry documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit valuation adjustment</I> (CVA) means the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Default</I>—For the purposes of calculating capital requirements under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail.</I> (i) A retail exposure of a national bank or Federal savings association is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure is 180 days past due, in the case of a residential mortgage exposure or revolving exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure is 120 days past due, in the case of retail exposures that are not residential mortgage exposures or revolving exposures; or
</P>
<P>(C) The national bank or Federal savings association has taken a full or partial charge-off, write-down of principal, or material negative fair value adjustment of principal on the exposure for credit-related reasons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, for a retail exposure held by a non-U.S. subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to an internal ratings-based approach to capital adequacy consistent with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's “International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A Revised Framework” in a non-U.S. jurisdiction, the national bank or Federal savings association may elect to use the definition of default that is used in that jurisdiction, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association has obtained prior approval from the OCC to use the definition of default in that jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A retail exposure in default remains in default until the national bank or Federal savings association has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale.</I> (i) A national bank's or Federal savings association's wholesale obligor is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association determines that the obligor is unlikely to pay its credit obligations to the national bank or Federal savings association in full, without recourse by the national bank or Federal savings association to actions such as realizing collateral (if held); or
</P>
<P>(B) The obligor is past due more than 90 days on any material credit obligation(s) to the national bank or Federal savings association.
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> Overdrafts are past due once the obligor has breached an advised limit or been advised of a limit smaller than the current outstanding balance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An obligor in default remains in default until the national bank or Federal savings association has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on all exposures of the national bank or Federal savings association to the obligor (other than exposures that have been fully written-down or charged-off).
</P>
<P><I>Dependence</I> means a measure of the association among operational losses across and within units of measure.
</P>
<P><I>Economic downturn conditions</I> means, with respect to an exposure held by the national bank or Federal savings association, those conditions in which the aggregate default rates for that exposure's wholesale or retail exposure subcategory (or subdivision of such subcategory selected by the national bank or Federal savings association) in the exposure's national jurisdiction (or subdivision of such jurisdiction selected by the national bank or Federal savings association) are significantly higher than average.
</P>
<P><I>Effective maturity (M)</I> of a wholesale exposure means:
</P>
<P>(1) For wholesale exposures other than repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts described in paragraph (2) or (3) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) The weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the expected contractual cash flows from the exposure, using the undiscounted amounts of the cash flows as weights; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The nominal remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement for which the national bank or Federal savings association does not apply the internal models approach in section 132(d), the weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the individual transactions subject to the qualifying master netting agreement, with the weight of each individual transaction set equal to the notional amount of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts for which the national bank or Federal savings association applies the internal models approach in § 3.132(d), the value determined in § 3.132(d)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible double default guarantor,</I> with respect to a guarantee or credit derivative obtained by a national bank or Federal savings association, means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S.-based entities.</I> A depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a securities broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act, if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-U.S.-based entities.</I> A foreign bank, or a non-U.S.-based securities firm if the national bank or Federal savings association demonstrates that the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions, or securities broker-dealers) if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible operational risk offsets</I> means amounts, not to exceed expected operational loss, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are generated by internal business practices to absorb highly predictable and reasonably stable operational losses, including reserves calculated consistent with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are available to cover expected operational losses with a high degree of certainty over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposure</I> means a purchased wholesale exposure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association or securitization SPE purchased from an unaffiliated seller and did not directly or indirectly originate;
</P>
<P>(2) Was generated on an arm's-length basis between the seller and the obligor (intercompany accounts receivable and receivables subject to contra-accounts between firms that buy and sell to each other do not satisfy this criterion);
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the national bank or Federal savings association or securitization SPE with a claim on all proceeds from the exposure or a pro rata interest in the proceeds from the exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Has an M of less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(5) When consolidated by obligor, does not represent a concentrated exposure relative to the portfolio of purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected exposure (EE)</I> means the expected value of the probability distribution of non-negative credit risk exposures to a counterparty at any specified future date before the maturity date of the longest term transaction in the netting set. Any negative fair values in the probability distribution of fair values to a counterparty at a specified future date are set to zero to convert the probability distribution of fair values to the probability distribution of credit risk exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected operational loss (EOL)</I> means the expected value of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk quantification system using a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Expected positive exposure (EPE)</I> means the weighted average over time of expected (non-negative) exposures to a counterparty where the weights are the proportion of the time interval that an individual expected exposure represents. When calculating risk-based capital requirements, the average is taken over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure at default (EAD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the national bank or Federal savings association determines EAD under § 3.132, a cleared transaction, or default fund contribution), EAD means the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure or segment less any allocated transfer risk reserve for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the national bank or Federal savings association determines EAD under § 3.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the national bank's or Federal savings association's best estimate of net additions to the outstanding amount owed the national bank or Federal savings association, including estimated future additional draws of principal and accrued but unpaid interest and fees, that are likely to occur over a one-year horizon assuming the wholesale exposure or the retail exposures in the segment were to go into default. This estimate of net additions must reflect what would be expected during economic downturn conditions. For the purposes of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) Trade-related letters of credit are short-term, self-liquidating instruments that are used to finance the movement of goods and are collateralized by the underlying goods.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingencies relate to a particular transaction and include, among other things, performance bonds and performance-based letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction, or eligible margin loan for which the national bank or Federal savings association determines EAD under § 3.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of anything other than a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the notional amount of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) EAD for OTC derivative contracts is calculated as described in § 3.132. A national bank or Federal savings association also may determine EAD for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans as described in § 3.132.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure category</I> means any of the wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure categories.
</P>
<P><I>External operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to a national bank or Federal savings association, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at organizations other than the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>IMM exposure</I> means a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative for which a national bank or Federal savings association calculates its EAD using the internal models methodology of § 3.132(d).
</P>
<P><I>Internal operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to a national bank or Federal savings association, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Loss given default (LGD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the national bank or Federal savings association would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the national bank or Federal savings association to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the national bank or Federal savings association would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the national bank or Federal savings association to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of retail exposures, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the national bank or Federal savings association would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the national bank or Federal savings association would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The economic loss on an exposure in the event of default is all material credit-related losses on the exposure (including accrued but unpaid interest or fees, losses on the sale of collateral, direct workout costs, and an appropriate allocation of indirect workout costs). Where positive or negative cash flows on a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or a defaulted retail exposure (including proceeds from the sale of collateral, workout costs, additional extensions of credit to facilitate repayment of the exposure, and draw-downs of unused credit lines) occur after the date of default, the economic loss must reflect the net present value of cash flows as of the default date using a discount rate appropriate to the risk of the defaulted exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Obligor</I> means the legal entity or natural person contractually obligated on a wholesale exposure, except that a national bank or Federal savings association may treat the following exposures as having separate obligors:
</P>
<P>(1) Exposures to the same legal entity or natural person denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An income-producing real estate exposure for which all or substantially all of the repayment of the exposure is reliant on the cash flows of the real estate serving as collateral for the exposure; the national bank or Federal savings association, in economic substance, does not have recourse to the borrower beyond the real estate collateral; and no cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place other than clauses obtained solely out of an abundance of caution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A wholesale exposure authorized under section 364 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 364) to a legal entity or natural person who is a debtor-in-possession for purposes of Chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss</I> means a loss (excluding insurance or tax effects) resulting from an operational loss event. Operational loss includes all expenses associated with an operational loss event except for opportunity costs, forgone revenue, and costs related to risk management and control enhancements implemented to prevent future operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss event</I> means an event that results in loss and is associated with any of the following seven operational loss event type categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act involving at least one internal party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent regulations, the law, or company policy excluding diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(2) External fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act by a third party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent the law. Retail credit card losses arising from non-contractual, third-party-initiated fraud (for example, identity theft) are external fraud operational losses. All other third-party-initiated credit losses are to be treated as credit risk losses.
</P>
<P>(3) Employment practices and workplace safety, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act inconsistent with employment, health, or safety laws or agreements, payment of personal injury claims, or payment arising from diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(4) Clients, products, and business practices, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the nature or design of a product or from an unintentional or negligent failure to meet a professional obligation to specific clients (including fiduciary and suitability requirements).
</P>
<P>(5) Damage to physical assets, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the loss of or damage to physical assets from natural disaster or other events.
</P>
<P>(6) Business disruption and system failures, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from disruption of business or system failures.
</P>
<P>(7) Execution, delivery, and process management, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from failed transaction processing or process management or losses arising from relations with trade counterparties and vendors.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk exposure</I> means the 99.9th percentile of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk quantification system over a one-year horizon (and not incorporating eligible operational risk offsets or qualifying operational risk mitigants).
</P>
<P><I>Other retail exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, an equity exposure, a residential mortgage exposure, a pre-sold construction loan, a qualifying revolving exposure, or the residual value portion of a lease exposure) that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and is either:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to an individual for non-business purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to an individual or company for business purposes if the national bank's or Federal savings association's consolidated business credit exposure to the individual or company is $1 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Probability of default (PD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor, the national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the rating grade assigned by the national bank or Federal savings association to the obligor, capturing the average default experience for obligors in the rating grade over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the rating grade.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of non-defaulted retail exposures, the national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the exposures in the segment, capturing the average default experience for exposures in the segment over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, 100 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement</I> means a qualifying master netting agreement that provides for termination and close-out netting across multiple types of financial transactions or qualifying master netting agreements in the event of a counterparty's default, provided that the underlying financial transactions are OTC derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions. In order to treat an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of § 3.3(c) of this part with respect to that agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying revolving exposure (QRE)</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) to an individual that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is revolving (that is, the amount outstanding fluctuates, determined largely by a borrower's decision to borrow and repay up to a pre-established maximum amount, except for an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month);
</P>
<P>(2) Is unsecured and unconditionally cancelable by the national bank or Federal savings association to the fullest extent permitted by Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Has a maximum contractual exposure amount (drawn plus undrawn) of up to $100,000; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a product with an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month, the total outstanding amount does not in practice exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(4) A segment of exposures that contains one or more exposures that fails to meet paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition must be treated as a segment of other retail exposures for the 24 month period following the month in which the total outstanding amount of one or more exposures individually exceeds $100,000.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure, a qualifying revolving exposure, or an other retail exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure subcategory</I> means the residential mortgage exposure, qualifying revolving exposure, or other retail exposure subcategory.
</P>
<P><I>Risk parameter</I> means a variable used in determining risk-based capital requirements for wholesale and retail exposures, specifically probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), exposure at default (EAD), or effective maturity (M).
</P>
<P><I>Scenario analysis</I> means a systematic process of obtaining expert opinions from business managers and risk management experts to derive reasoned assessments of the likelihood and loss impact of plausible high-severity operational losses. Scenario analysis may include the well-reasoned evaluation and use of external operational loss event data, adjusted as appropriate to ensure relevance to a national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk profile and control structure.
</P>
<P><I>Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets</I> means the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures that are not IMM exposures, cleared transactions, or default fund contributions to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for assets not defined by an exposure category;
</P>
<P>(4) Risk-weighted assets for non-material portfolios of exposures;
</P>
<P>(5) Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures (as determined in § 3.132(d));
</P>
<P>(6) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions (as determined in § 3.133); and
</P>
<P>(7) Risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions (as determined in § 3.136).
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected operational loss (UOL)</I> means the difference between the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure and the national bank's or Federal savings association's expected operational loss.
</P>
<P><I>Unit of measure</I> means the level (for example, organizational unit or operational loss event type) at which the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk quantification system generates a separate distribution of potential operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure</I> means a credit exposure to a company, natural person, sovereign, or governmental entity (other than a securitization exposure, retail exposure, pre-sold construction loan, or equity exposure).
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure subcategory</I> means the HVCRE or non-HVCRE wholesale exposure subcategory.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Qualification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.121" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.121   Qualification process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that is described in § 3.100(b)(1)(i) through (iv) must adopt a written implementation plan no later than six months after the date the national bank or Federal savings association meets a criterion in that section. The implementation plan must incorporate an explicit start date no later than 36 months after the date the national bank or Federal savings association meets at least one criterion under § 3.100(b)(1)(i) through (iv). The OCC may extend the start date.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that elects to be subject to this appendix under § 3.100(b)(1)(v) must adopt a written implementation plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation plan.</I> (1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's implementation plan must address in detail how the national bank or Federal savings association complies, or plans to comply, with the qualification requirements in § 3.122. The national bank or Federal savings association also must maintain a comprehensive and sound planning and governance process to oversee the implementation efforts described in the plan. At a minimum, the plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comprehensively address the qualification requirements in § 3.122 for the national bank or Federal savings association and each consolidated subsidiary (U.S. and foreign-based) of the national bank or Federal savings association with respect to all portfolios and exposures of the national bank or Federal savings association and each of its consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Justify and support any proposed temporary or permanent exclusion of business lines, portfolios, or exposures from the application of the advanced approaches in this subpart (which business lines, portfolios, and exposures must be, in the aggregate, immaterial to the national bank or Federal savings association);
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the national bank's or Federal savings association's self-assessment of:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank's or Federal savings association's current status in meeting the qualification requirements in § 3.122; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consistency of the national bank's or Federal savings association's current practices with the OCC's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Based on the national bank's or Federal savings association's self-assessment, identify and describe the areas in which the national bank or Federal savings association proposes to undertake additional work to comply with the qualification requirements in § 3.122 or to improve the consistency of the national bank's or Federal savings association's current practices with the OCC's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements (gap analysis);
</P>
<P>(v) Describe what specific actions the national bank or Federal savings association will take to address the areas identified in the gap analysis required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify objective, measurable milestones, including delivery dates and a date when the national bank's or Federal savings association's implementation of the methodologies described in this subpart will be fully operational;
</P>
<P>(vii) Describe resources that have been budgeted and are available to implement the plan; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Receive approval of the national bank's or Federal savings association's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must submit the implementation plan, together with a copy of the minutes of the board of directors' approval, to the OCC at least 60 days before the national bank or Federal savings association proposes to begin its parallel run, unless the OCC waives prior notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parallel run.</I> Before determining its risk-weighted assets under this subpart and following adoption of the implementation plan, the national bank or Federal savings association must conduct a satisfactory parallel run. A satisfactory parallel run is a period of no less than four consecutive calendar quarters during which the national bank or Federal savings association complies with the qualification requirements in § 3.122 to the satisfaction of the OCC. During the parallel run, the national bank or Federal savings association must report to the OCC on a calendar quarterly basis its risk-based capital ratios determined in accordance with § 3.10(b)(1) through (3) and § 3.10(d)(1) through (3). During this period, the national bank's or Federal savings association's minimum risk-based capital ratios are determined as set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval to calculate risk-based capital requirements under this subpart.</I> The OCC will notify the national bank or Federal savings association of the date that the national bank or Federal savings association must begin to use this subpart for purposes of § 3.10 if the OCC determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association fully complies with all the qualification requirements in § 3.122;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association has conducted a satisfactory parallel run under paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association has an adequate process to ensure ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in § 3.122.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 731, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.122" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.122   Qualification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process and systems requirements.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The systems and processes used by a national bank or Federal savings association for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart must be consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk management processes and management information reporting systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Each national bank or Federal savings association must have an appropriate infrastructure with risk measurement and management processes that meet the qualification requirements of this section and are appropriate given the national bank's or Federal savings association's size and level of complexity. Regardless of whether the systems and models that generate the risk parameters necessary for calculating a national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirements are located at any affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, the national bank or Federal savings association itself must ensure that the risk parameters and reference data used to determine its risk-based capital requirements are representative of long run experience with respect to its own credit risk and operational risk exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk rating and segmentation systems for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1)(i) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal risk rating and segmentation system that accurately, reliably, and meaningfully differentiates among degrees of credit risk for the national bank's or Federal savings association's wholesale and retail exposures. When assigning an internal risk rating, a national bank or Federal savings association may consider a third-party assessment of credit risk, provided that the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk rating assignment does not rely solely on the external assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a national bank or Federal savings association uses multiple rating or segmentation systems, the national bank's or Federal savings association's rationale for assigning an obligor or exposure to a particular system must be documented and applied in a manner that best reflects the obligor's or exposure's level of risk. A national bank or Federal savings association must not inappropriately allocate obligors or exposures across systems to minimize regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In assigning ratings to wholesale obligors and exposures, including loss severity ratings grades to wholesale exposures, and assigning retail exposures to retail segments, a national bank or Federal savings association must use all relevant and material information and ensure that the information is current.
</P>
<P>(iv) When assigning an obligor to a PD rating or retail exposure to a PD segment, a national bank or Federal savings association must assess the obligor or retail borrower's ability and willingness to contractually perform, taking a conservative view of projected information.
</P>
<P>(2) For wholesale exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each obligor to a single rating grade (reflecting the obligor's likelihood of default). A national bank or Federal savings association may elect, however, not to assign to a rating grade an obligor to whom the national bank or Federal savings association extends credit based solely on the financial strength of a guarantor, provided that all of the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposures to the obligor are fully covered by eligible guarantees, the national bank or Federal savings association applies the PD substitution approach in § 3.134(c)(1) to all exposures to that obligor, and the national bank or Federal savings association immediately assigns the obligor to a rating grade if a guarantee can no longer be recognized under this part. The national bank's or Federal savings association's wholesale obligor rating system must have at least seven discrete rating grades for non-defaulted obligors and at least one rating grade for defaulted obligors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the national bank or Federal savings association has chosen to directly assign LGD estimates to each wholesale exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each wholesale exposure to a loss severity rating grade (reflecting the national bank's or Federal savings association's estimate of the LGD of the exposure). A national bank or Federal savings association employing loss severity rating grades must have a sufficiently granular loss severity grading system to avoid grouping together exposures with widely ranging LGDs.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an effective process to obtain and update in a timely manner relevant and material information on obligor and exposure characteristics that affect PD, LGD and EAD.
</P>
<P>(3) For retail exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal system that groups retail exposures into the appropriate retail exposure subcategory and groups the retail exposures in each retail exposure subcategory into separate segments with homogeneous risk characteristics that provide a meaningful differentiation of risk. The national bank's or Federal savings association's system must identify and group in separate segments by subcategories exposures identified in § 3.131(c)(2)(ii) and (iii).
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal system that captures all relevant exposure risk characteristics, including borrower credit score, product and collateral types, as well as exposure delinquencies, and must consider cross-collateral provisions, where present.
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association must review and, if appropriate, update assignments of individual retail exposures to segments and the loss characteristics and delinquency status of each identified risk segment. These reviews must occur whenever the national bank or Federal savings association receives new material information, but generally no less frequently than quarterly, and, in all cases, at least annually.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk rating policy for wholesale exposures must describe the national bank's or Federal savings association's rating philosophy (that is, must describe how wholesale obligor rating assignments are affected by the national bank's or Federal savings association's choice of the range of economic, business, and industry conditions that are considered in the obligor rating process).
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk rating system for wholesale exposures must provide for the review and update (as appropriate) of each obligor rating and (if applicable) each loss severity rating whenever the national bank or Federal savings association obtains relevant and material information on the obligor or exposure that affects PD, LGD and EAD, but no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantification of risk parameters for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1) The national bank or Federal savings association must have a comprehensive risk parameter quantification process that produces accurate, timely, and reliable estimates of the risk parameters on a consistent basis for the national bank's or Federal savings association's wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank's or Federal savings association's estimates of PD, LGD, and EAD must incorporate all relevant, material, and available data that is reflective of the national bank's or Federal savings association's actual wholesale and retail exposures and of sufficient quality to support the determination of risk-based capital requirements for the exposures. In particular, the population of exposures in the data used for estimation purposes, the lending standards in use when the data were generated, and other relevant characteristics, should closely match or be comparable to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposures and standards. In addition, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that its estimates are representative of long run experience, including periods of economic downturn conditions, whether internal or external data are used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into account any changes in lending practice or the process for pursuing recoveries over the observation period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reflect technical advances, new data, and other information as they become available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that the data used to estimate risk parameters support the accuracy and robustness of those estimates; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate that its estimation technique performs well in out-of-sample tests whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank's or Federal savings association's risk parameter quantification process must produce appropriately conservative risk parameter estimates where the national bank or Federal savings association has limited relevant data, and any adjustments that are part of the quantification process must not result in a pattern of bias toward lower risk parameter estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank's or Federal savings association's risk parameter estimation process should not rely on the possibility of U.S. government financial assistance, except for the financial assistance that the U.S. government has a legally binding commitment to provide.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to demonstrate which variables have been found to be statistically significant with regard to EAD. The national bank's or Federal savings association's EAD estimates must reflect its specific policies and strategies with regard to account management, including account monitoring and payment processing, and its ability and willingness to prevent further drawdowns in circumstances short of payment default. The national bank or Federal savings association must have adequate systems and procedures in place to monitor current outstanding amounts against committed lines, and changes in outstanding amounts per obligor and obligor rating grade and per retail segment. The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to monitor outstanding amounts on a daily basis.
</P>
<P>(6) At a minimum, PD estimates for wholesale obligors and retail segments must be based on at least five years of default data. LGD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of loss severity data, and LGD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of loss severity data. EAD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of exposure amount data, and EAD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of exposure amount data. If the national bank or Federal savings association has relevant and material reference data that span a longer period of time than the minimum time periods specified above, the national bank or Federal savings association must incorporate such data in its estimates, provided that it does not place undue weight on periods of favorable or benign economic conditions relative to periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Default, loss severity, and exposure amount data must include periods of economic downturn conditions, or the national bank or Federal savings association must adjust its estimates of risk parameters to compensate for the lack of data from periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(8) The national bank's or Federal savings association's PD, LGD, and EAD estimates must be based on the definition of default in § 3.101.
</P>
<P>(9) If a national bank or Federal savings association uses internal data obtained prior to becoming subject to this subpart E or external data to arrive at PD, LGD, or EAD estimates, the national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate to the OCC that the national bank or Federal savings association has made appropriate adjustments if necessary to be consistent with the definition of default in § 3.101. Internal data obtained after the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this subpart E must be consistent with the definition of default in § 3.101.
</P>
<P>(10) The national bank or Federal savings association must review and update (as appropriate) its risk parameters and its risk parameter quantification process at least annually.
</P>
<P>(11) The national bank or Federal savings association must, at least annually, conduct a comprehensive review and analysis of reference data to determine relevance of the reference data to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposures, quality of reference data to support PD, LGD, and EAD estimates, and consistency of reference data to the definition of default in § 3.101.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk model.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior written approval of the OCC under § 3.132 to use the internal models methodology for counterparty credit risk and the advanced CVA approach for the CVA capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Double default treatment.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior written approval of the OCC under § 3.135 to use the double default treatment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equity exposures model.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior written approval of the OCC under § 3.153 to use the internal models approach for equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Operational risk.</I> (1) Operational risk management processes. A national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have an operational risk management function that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is independent of business line management; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is responsible for designing, implementing, and overseeing the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and related processes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have and document a process (which must capture business environment and internal control factors affecting the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk profile) to identify, measure, monitor, and control operational risk in the national bank's or Federal savings association's products, activities, processes, and systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report operational risk exposures, operational loss events, and other relevant operational risk information to business unit management, senior management, and the board of directors (or a designated committee of the board).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operational risk data and assessment systems.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must have operational risk data and assessment systems that capture operational risks to which the national bank or Federal savings association is exposed. The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk data and assessment systems must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be structured in a manner consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's current business activities, risk profile, technological processes, and risk management processes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Include credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable processes that incorporate the following elements on an ongoing basis:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Internal operational loss event data.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a systematic process for capturing and using internal operational loss event data in its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk data and assessment systems must include a historical observation period of at least five years for internal operational loss event data (or such shorter period approved by the OCC to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to map its internal operational loss event data into the seven operational loss event type categories.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The national bank or Federal savings association may refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts if the national bank or Federal savings association can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that the thresholds are reasonable, do not exclude important internal operational loss event data, and permit the national bank or Federal savings association to capture substantially all the dollar value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational losses.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>External operational loss event data.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating external operational loss event data into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Scenario analysis.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating scenario analysis into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Business environment and internal control factors.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must incorporate business environment and internal control factors into its operational risk data and assessment systems. The national bank or Federal savings association must also periodically compare the results of its prior business environment and internal control factor assessments against its actual operational losses incurred in the intervening period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operational risk quantification systems.</I> (i) The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk quantification systems:
</P>
<P>(A) Must generate estimates of the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure using its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Must employ a unit of measure that is appropriate for the national bank's or Federal savings association's range of business activities and the variety of operational loss events to which it is exposed, and that does not combine business activities or operational loss events with demonstrably different risk profiles within the same loss distribution;
</P>
<P>(C) Must include a credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable approach for weighting each of the four elements, described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, that a national bank or Federal savings association is required to incorporate into its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(D) May use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure if the national bank or Federal savings association can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that its process for estimating dependence is sound, robust to a variety of scenarios, and implemented with integrity, and allows for uncertainty surrounding the estimates. If the national bank or Federal savings association has not made such a demonstration, it must sum operational risk exposure estimates across units of measure to calculate its total operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(E) Must be reviewed and updated (as appropriate) whenever the national bank or Federal savings association becomes aware of information that may have a material effect on the national bank's or Federal savings association's estimate of operational risk exposure, but the review and update must occur no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) With the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may generate an estimate of its operational risk exposure using an alternative approach to that specified in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section. A national bank or Federal savings association proposing to use such an alternative operational risk quantification system must submit a proposal to the OCC. In determining whether to approve a national bank's or Federal savings association's proposal to use an alternative operational risk quantification system, the OCC will consider the following principles:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of the alternative operational risk quantification system will be allowed only on an exception basis, considering the size, complexity, and risk profile of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate that its estimate of its operational risk exposure generated under the alternative operational risk quantification system is appropriate and can be supported empirically; and
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must not use an allocation of operational risk capital requirements that includes entities other than depository institutions or the benefits of diversification across entities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Data management and maintenance.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must have data management and maintenance systems that adequately support all aspects of its advanced systems and the timely and accurate reporting of risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must retain data using an electronic format that allows timely retrieval of data for analysis, validation, reporting, and disclosure purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must retain sufficient data elements related to key risk drivers to permit adequate monitoring, validation, and refinement of its advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's senior management must ensure that all components of the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced systems function effectively and comply with the qualification requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually review the effectiveness of, and approve, the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must have an effective system of controls and oversight that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the integrity, reliability, and accuracy of the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes adequate governance and project management processes.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must validate, on an ongoing basis, its advanced systems. The national bank's or Federal savings association's validation process must be independent of the advanced systems' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the advanced systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal audit function or equivalent function that is independent of business-line management that at least annually:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviews the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced systems and associated operations, including the operations of its credit function and estimations of PD, LGD, and EAD;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents and reports its findings to the national bank's or Federal savings association's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(6) The national bank or Federal savings association must periodically stress test its advanced systems. The stress testing must include a consideration of how economic cycles, especially downturns, affect risk-based capital requirements (including migration across rating grades and segments and the credit risk mitigation benefits of double default treatment).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Documentation.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must adequately document all material aspects of its advanced systems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41415, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.123" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.123   Ongoing qualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes to advanced systems.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must meet all the qualification requirements in § 3.122 on an ongoing basis. A national bank or Federal savings association must notify the OCC when the national bank or Federal savings association makes any change to an advanced system that would result in a material change in the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced approaches total risk-weighted asset amount for an exposure type or when the national bank or Federal savings association makes any significant change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with qualification requirements.</I> (1) If the OCC determines that a national bank or Federal savings association that uses this subpart and that has conducted a satisfactory parallel run fails to comply with the qualification requirements in § 3.122, the OCC will notify the national bank or Federal savings association in writing of the national bank's or Federal savings association's failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must establish and submit a plan satisfactory to the OCC to return to compliance with the qualification requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, if the OCC determines that the national bank's or Federal savings association's advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit, market, operational, or other risks, the OCC may require such a national bank or Federal savings association to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with any modifications provided by the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.124" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.124   Merger and acquisition transitional arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies without advanced systems.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association merges with or acquires a company that does not calculate its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the national bank or Federal savings association may use subpart D of this part to determine the risk-weighted asset amounts for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the merger or acquisition consummates. The OCC may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the national bank or Federal savings association must submit to the OCC an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the acquired company. During the period in which subpart D of this part applies to the merged or acquired company, any ALLL or AACL, as applicable, net of allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the acquiring national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 2 capital up to 1.25 percent of the acquired company's risk-weighted assets. All general allowances of the merged or acquired company must be excluded from the national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible credit reserves. In addition, the risk-weighted assets of the merged or acquired company are not included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit-risk-weighted assets but are included in total risk-weighted assets. If a national bank or Federal savings association relies on this paragraph (a), the national bank or Federal savings association must disclose publicly the amounts of risk-weighted assets and qualifying capital calculated under this subpart for the acquiring national bank or Federal savings association and under subpart D of this part for the acquired company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies with advanced systems.</I> (1) If a national bank or Federal savings association merges with or acquires a company that calculates its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the national bank or Federal savings association may use the acquired company's advanced systems to determine total risk-weighted assets for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the acquisition or merger consummates. The OCC may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the national bank or Federal savings association must submit to the OCC an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the merged or acquired company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquiring national bank or Federal savings association is not subject to the advanced approaches in this subpart at the time of acquisition or merger, during the period when subpart D of this part applies to the acquiring national bank or Federal savings association, the ALLL or AACL, as applicable associated with the exposures of the merged or acquired company may not be directly included in tier 2 capital. Rather, any excess eligible credit reserves associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 2 capital up to 0.6 percent of the credit-risk-weighted assets associated with those exposures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.125-3.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.18.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.125-3.130   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.131" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.131   Mechanics for calculating total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its total wholesale and retail risk-weighted asset amount in four distinct phases:
</P>
<P>(1) Phase 1—categorization of exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Phase 2—assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and segmentation of retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Phase 3—assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) Phase 4—calculation of risk-weighted asset amounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phase 1—Categorization.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must determine which of its exposures are wholesale exposures, retail exposures, securitization exposures, or equity exposures. The national bank or Federal savings association must categorize each retail exposure as a residential mortgage exposure, a QRE, or an other retail exposure. The national bank or Federal savings association must identify which wholesale exposures are HVCRE exposures, sovereign exposures, OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, eligible purchased wholesale exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions to which § 3.136 applies, and eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives that are used as credit risk mitigants. The national bank or Federal savings association must identify any on-balance sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, equity, or securitization exposure, as well as any non-material portfolio of exposures described in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Phase 2—Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and retail exposures to segments</I>—(1) <I>Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades.</I> (i) The national bank or Federal savings association must assign each obligor of a wholesale exposure to a single obligor rating grade and must assign each wholesale exposure to which it does not directly assign an LGD estimate to a loss severity rating grade.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must identify which of its wholesale obligors are in default.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Segmentation of retail exposures.</I> (i) The national bank or Federal savings association must group the retail exposures in each retail subcategory into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must identify which of its retail exposures are in default. The national bank or Federal savings association must segment defaulted retail exposures separately from non-defaulted retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the national bank or Federal savings association determines the EAD for eligible margin loans using the approach in § 3.132(b), the national bank or Federal savings association must identify which of its retail exposures are eligible margin loans for which the national bank or Federal savings association uses this EAD approach and must segment such eligible margin loans separately from other retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may group its eligible purchased wholesale exposures into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics. A national bank or Federal savings association must use the wholesale exposure formula in Table 1 of this section to determine the risk-based capital requirement for each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Phase 3—Assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures</I>—(1) <I>Quantification process.</I> Subject to the limitations in this paragraph (d), the national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Associate a PD with each wholesale obligor rating grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Associate an LGD with each wholesale loss severity rating grade or assign an LGD to each wholesale exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assign an EAD and M to each wholesale exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assign a PD, LGD, and EAD to each segment of retail exposures. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Floor on PD assignment.</I> The PD for each wholesale obligor or retail segment may not be less than 0.03 percent, except for exposures to or directly and unconditionally guaranteed by a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Commission, the European Central Bank, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or a multilateral development bank, to which the national bank or Federal savings association assigns a rating grade associated with a PD of less than 0.03 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floor on LGD estimation.</I> The LGD for each segment of residential mortgage exposures may not be less than 10 percent, except for segments of residential mortgage exposures for which all or substantially all of the principal of each exposure is either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign entity; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Guaranteed by a contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a PD, LGD, EAD, and M to each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures. If the national bank or Federal savings association can estimate ECL (but not PD or LGD) for a segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the LGD of the segment equals 100 percent and that the PD of the segment equals ECL divided by EAD. The estimated ECL must be calculated for the exposures without regard to any assumption of recourse or guarantees from the seller or other parties. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Credit risk mitigation: credit derivatives, guarantees, and collateral.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may take into account the risk reducing effects of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives in support of a wholesale exposure by applying the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment to the exposure as provided in § 3.134 or, if applicable, applying double default treatment to the exposure as provided in § 3.135. A national bank or Federal savings association may decide separately for each wholesale exposure that qualifies for the double default treatment under § 3.135 whether to apply the double default treatment or to use the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment without recognizing double default effects. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association may take into account the risk reducing effects of guarantees and credit derivatives in support of retail exposures in a segment when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In doing so, a national bank or Federal savings association must consider all relevant available information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of a wholesale exposure when quantifying the LGD of the exposure, and may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of retail exposures when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In order to do so, a national bank or Federal savings association must have established internal requirements for collateral management, legal certainty, and risk management processes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>EAD for OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its EAD for an OTC derivative contract as provided in § 3.132 (c) and (d). A national bank or Federal savings association may take into account the risk-reducing effects of financial collateral in support of a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan and of any collateral in support of a repo-style transaction that is included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part through an adjustment to EAD as provided in § 3.132(b) and (d). A national bank or Federal savings association that takes collateral into account through such an adjustment to EAD under § 3.132 may not reflect such collateral in LGD. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Effective maturity.</I> An exposure's M must be no greater than five years and no less than one year, except that an exposure's M must be no less than one day if the exposure is a trade related letter of credit, or if the exposure has an original maturity of less than one year and is not part of a national bank's or Federal savings association's ongoing financing of the obligor. An exposure is not part of a national bank's or Federal savings association's ongoing financing of the obligor if the national bank or Federal savings association: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a legal and practical ability not to renew or roll over the exposure in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes an independent credit decision at the inception of the exposure and at every renewal or roll over; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has no substantial commercial incentive to continue its credit relationship with the obligor in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>EAD for exposures to certain central counterparties.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may attribute an EAD of zero to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange, and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Phase 4—Calculation of risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>Non-defaulted exposures.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the dollar risk-based capital requirement for each of its wholesale exposures to a non-defaulted obligor (except for eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives that hedge another wholesale exposure, IMM exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions, and exposures to which the national bank or Federal savings association applies the double default treatment in § 3.135) and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures by inserting the assigned risk parameters for the wholesale obligor and exposure or retail segment into the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 and multiplying the output of the formula (K) by the EAD of the exposure or segment. Alternatively, a national bank or Federal savings association may apply a 300 percent risk weight to the EAD of an eligible margin loan if the national bank or Federal savings association is not able to meet the OCC's requirements for estimation of PD and LGD for the margin loan. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.029.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor and segment of non-defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and in § 3.135(e) equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures</I>—(i) <I>Not covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals 0.08 multiplied by the EAD of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and each segment of defaulted retail exposures covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.016, and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.08.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section plus the dollar risk-based capital requirements each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and for each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments.
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assets not included in a defined exposure category.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a risk-weighted asset amount of zero to cash owned and held in all offices of the national bank or Federal savings association or in transit and for gold bullion held in the national bank's or Federal savings association's own vaults, or held in another national bank's or Federal savings association's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to 20 percent of the carrying value of cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to 50 percent of the carrying value to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to a 100 percent of the carrying value of the pre-sold construction loan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The risk-weighted asset amount for the residual value of a retail lease exposure equals such residual value.
</P>
<P>(v) The risk-weighted asset amount for DTAs arising from temporary differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could realize through net operating loss carrybacks equals the carrying value, netted in accordance with § 3.22.
</P>
<P>(vi) The risk-weighted asset amount for MSAs, DTAs arising from temporary timing differences that the national bank or Federal savings association could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, and significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted pursuant to § 3.22(d) equals the amount not subject to deduction multiplied by 250 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) The risk-weighted asset amount for any other on-balance-sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, IMM, or equity exposure, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution and is not subject to deduction under § 3.22(a), (c), or (d) equals the carrying value of the asset.
</P>
<P>(viii) The risk-weighted asset amount for a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)) equals zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-material portfolios of exposures.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount of a portfolio of exposures for which the national bank or Federal savings association has demonstrated to the OCC's satisfaction that the portfolio (when combined with all other portfolios of exposures that the national bank or Federal savings association seeks to treat under this paragraph (e)) is not material to the national bank or Federal savings association is the sum of the carrying values of on-balance sheet exposures plus the notional amounts of off-balance sheet exposures in the portfolio. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4), the notional amount of an OTC derivative contract that is not a credit derivative is the EAD of the derivative as calculated in § 3.132.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41416, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.132" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.132   Counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methodologies for collateral recognition.</I> (1) Instead of an LGD estimation methodology, a national bank or Federal savings association may use the following methodologies to recognize the benefits of financial collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized OTC derivative contracts and single product netting sets of such transactions, and to recognize the benefits of any collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions that are included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The internal models methodology set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For single product netting sets of repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans, the simple VaR methodology set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association may use any combination of the three methodologies for collateral recognition; however, it must use the same methodology for transactions in the same category.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the methodology in paragraph (c) of this section, or with prior written approval of the OCC, the internal model methodology in paragraph (d) of this section, to calculate EAD for an OTC derivative contract or a set of OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. To estimate EAD for qualifying cross-product master netting agreements, a national bank or Federal savings association may only use the internal models methodology in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A national bank or Federal savings association must also use the methodology in paragraph (e) of this section to calculate the risk-weighted asset amounts for CVA for OTC derivatives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EAD for eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or single-product netting set of such transactions by factoring the collateral into its LGD estimates for the exposure. Alternatively, a national bank or Federal savings association may estimate an unsecured LGD for the exposure, as well as for any repo-style transaction that is included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part, and determine the EAD of the exposure using:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) For netting sets only, the simple VaR methodology described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(i) <I>EAD equation.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may determine EAD for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or netting set by setting EAD equal to max 
</P>
<FP-2>{0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + Σ(E<E T="52">s</E> × H<E T="52">s</E>) + Σ(E<E T="52">fx</E> × H<E T="52">fx</E>)]}, 
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(A) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(B) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(C) E<E T="52">s</E> equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in a given instrument or in gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) H<E T="52">s</E> equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in E<E T="52">s</E>;
</P>
<P>(E) E<E T="52">fx</E> equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(F) H<E T="52">fx</E> equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in E<E T="52">fx</E> and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (A) Under the standard supervisory haircuts approach:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the haircuts for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 3.132, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.132—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on: 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 3.32 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 3.32
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 3.132 are based on a 10 business-day holding period. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For currency mismatches, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a national bank or Federal savings association may multiply the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the national bank or Federal savings association determines that a longer holding period is appropriate for client-facing derivative transactions, then it must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for the longer holding period pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days (for eligible margin loans) or five business days (for repo-style transactions), using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>) apply. If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when a national bank or Federal savings association is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 3.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, a national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted longer than the holding period, then the national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a minimum holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days for collateral associated with derivative contracts (five business days for client-facing derivative contracts) using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) apply. For collateral associated with a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section, for collateral associated with a derivative contract in a netting set under which more than two margin disputes that lasted longer than the holding period occurred during the previous two quarters, the minimum holding period is twice the amount provided under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward, pursuant to the adjustments provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section, using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.013.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">S</E> equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">S</E> equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the instrument a national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the national bank or Federal savings association must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (H<E T="52">S</E>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E> and H<E T="52">fx</E>) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates. 
</P>
<P>(A) To receive OCC approval to use its own internal estimates, a national bank or Federal savings association must satisfy the following minimum quantitative standards: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section applies. When a national bank or Federal savings association calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.031.gif"/>
<P>(<I>i</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans; 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the national bank or Federal savings association to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E>
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when a national bank or Federal savings association is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 3.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the national bank's or Federal savings association's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior approval of the OCC for, and notify the OCC if the national bank or Federal savings association makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Nothing in this section prevents the OCC from requiring a national bank or Federal savings association to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the national bank or Federal savings association must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(D) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(E) A national bank's or Federal savings association's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Simple VaR methodology.</I> With the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may estimate EAD for a netting set using a VaR model that meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. In such event, the national bank or Federal savings association must set EAD equal to max {0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + PFE]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the netting set);
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the netting set); and
</P>
<P>(iii) PFE (potential future exposure) equals the national bank's or Federal savings association's empirically based best estimate of the 99th percentile, one-tailed confidence interval for an increase in the value of (ΣE − ΣC) over a five-business-day holding period for repo-style transactions, or over a ten-business-day holding period for eligible margin loans except for netting sets for which paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section applies using a minimum one-year historical observation period of price data representing the instruments that the national bank or Federal savings association has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. The national bank or Federal savings association must validate its VaR model by establishing and maintaining a rigorous and regular backtesting regime.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a twenty-business-day holding period for the following quarter (except when a national bank or Federal savings association is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 3.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, a national bank or Federal savings association must use a twenty-business-day holding period. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the national bank or Federal savings association must set its PFE for that netting set equal to an estimate over a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>EAD for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Options for determining EAD.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the EAD for a derivative contract using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) under paragraph (c)(5) of this section or using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. If a national bank or Federal savings association elects to use SA-CCR for one or more derivative contracts, the exposure amount determined under SA-CCR is the EAD for the derivative contract or derivative contracts. A national bank or Federal savings association must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and may change its election only with prior approval of the OCC. A national bank or Federal savings association may reduce the EAD calculated according to paragraph (c)(5) of this section by the credit valuation adjustment that the national bank or Federal savings association has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), the credit valuation adjustment does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>End date</I> means the last date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references another instrument, by the underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Start date</I> means the first date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references the value of another instrument, by underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hedging set</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to interest rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same reference currency;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to exchange rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same currency pair;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to credit derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to equity derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(E) With respect to a commodity derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of the following commodity categories: Energy, metal, agricultural, or other commodities;
</P>
<P>(F) With respect to basis derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same pair of risk factors and are denominated in the same currency; or
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to volatility derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, separated according to the requirements under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) If the risk of a derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, the OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to include the derivative contract in each appropriate hedging set under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit derivatives.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 3.134 or § 3.135 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to calculate a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section so long as the national bank or Federal savings association does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is the protection provider in a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as a wholesale exposure to the reference obligor and is not required to calculate a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this section, so long as it does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes all or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes (unless the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equity derivatives.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 3.151-3.155 (unless the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part). In addition, if the national bank or Federal savings association is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part, and under certain other circumstances described in § 3.155, the national bank or Federal savings association must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure amount.</I> (i) The exposure amount of a netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c) of this section, is equal to 1.4 multiplied by the sum of the replacement cost of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the variation margin agreement is not required to post variation margin, is equal to the lesser of the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and the exposure amount of the netting set calculated as if the netting set were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set that consists of only sold options in which the premiums have been fully paid by the counterparty to the options and where the options are not subject to a variation margin agreement is zero.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set in which the counterparty is a commercial end-user is equal to the sum of replacement cost, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a national bank or Federal savings association may elect, at the netting set level, to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, if the derivative contract is subject to a requirement that the counterparties make daily cash payments to each other to account for changes in the fair value of the derivative contract and to reduce the net position of the contract to zero. If a national bank or Federal savings association makes an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) for one derivative contract, it must treat all other derivative contracts within the same netting set that are eligible for an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) as derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(vi) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a national bank or Federal savings association may elect to treat a credit derivative contract, equity derivative contract, or commodity derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Replacement cost of a netting set</I>—(i) <I>Netting set subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the variation margin threshold and the minimum transfer amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set less the net independent collateral amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(C) Zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Netting sets not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set that is not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin to the national bank or Federal savings association is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(B) Zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Potential future exposure of a netting set.</I> The potential future exposure of a netting set is the product of the PFE multiplier and the aggregated amount.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>PFE multiplier.</I> The PFE multiplier is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.014.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I> is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I> is the aggregated amount of the netting set.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregated amount.</I> The aggregated amount is the sum of all hedging set amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, within a netting set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 3.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 3.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging set amount</I>—(i) <I>Interest rate derivative contracts.</I> To calculate the hedging set amount of an interest rate derivative contract hedging set, a national bank or Federal savings association may use either of the formulas provided in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Formula 1 is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.015.gif"/>
<P>(B) Formula 2 is as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Hedging set amount</I> = |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="53">IR</E>|

+ |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">2</E><E T="53">IR</E>| + |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">3</E><E T="53">IR</E>|.
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of less than one year from the present date<I>;</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">2</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of one to five years from the present date; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">3</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of more than five years from the present date.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exchange rate derivative contracts.</I> For an exchange rate derivative contract hedging set, the hedging set amount equals the absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Credit derivative contracts and equity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a credit derivative contract hedging set or equity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.016.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each reference entity within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of reference entities within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Ref</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference entity <I>k</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I><E T="54">k</E> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Commodity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a commodity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.017.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each commodity type within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of commodity types within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Type</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference commodity type <I>k</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Basis derivative contracts and volatility derivative contracts.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a separate hedging set amount for each basis derivative contract hedging set and each volatility derivative contract hedging set. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate such hedging set amounts using one of the formulas under paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section that corresponds to the primary risk factor of the hedging set being calculated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Adjusted derivative contract amount</I>—(i) <I>Summary.</I> To calculate the adjusted derivative contract amount of a derivative contract, a national bank or Federal savings association must determine the adjusted notional amount of derivative contract, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(ii) of this section, and multiply the adjusted notional amount by each of the supervisory delta adjustment, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iii) of this section, the maturity factor, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, and the applicable supervisory factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted notional amount.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount equals the product of the notional amount of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation, and the supervisory duration, as calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.011.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>S is the number of business days from the present day until the start date of the derivative contract, or zero if the start date has already passed; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E is the number of business days from the present day until the end date of the derivative contract.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or credit derivative contract that is a variable notional swap, the notional amount is equal to the time-weighted average of the contractual notional amounts of such a swap over the remaining life of the swap; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract that is a leveraged swap, in which the notional amount of all legs of the derivative contract are divided by a factor and all rates of the derivative contract are multiplied by the same factor, the notional amount is equal to the notional amount of an equivalent unleveraged swap.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an exchange rate derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the notional amount of the non-U.S. denominated currency leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation. If both legs of the exchange rate derivative contract are denominated in currencies other than U.S. dollars, the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract is the largest leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, for an exchange rate derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the national bank or Federal savings association must set the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract equal to the notional amount of the derivative contract multiplied by the number of exchanges of principal under the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the product of the fair value of one unit of the reference instrument underlying the derivative contract and the number of such units referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, when calculating the adjusted notional amount for an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract that is a volatility derivative contract, the national bank or Federal savings association must replace the unit price with the underlying volatility referenced by the volatility derivative contract and replace the number of units with the notional amount of the volatility derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Supervisory delta adjustments.</I> (A) For a derivative contract that is not an option contract or collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is 1 if the fair value of the derivative contract increases when the value of the primary risk factor increases and −1 if the fair value of the derivative contract decreases when the value of the primary risk factor increases.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is an option contract, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formulas, as applicable:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.019.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formulas in Table 2 to this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Φ is the standard normal cumulative distribution function;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) P equals the current fair value of the instrument or risk factor, as applicable, underlying the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) K equals the strike price of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) T equals the number of business days until the latest contractual exercise date of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) λ equals zero for all derivative contracts except interest rate options for the currencies where interest rates have negative values. The same value of λ must be used for all interest rate options that are denominated in the same currency. To determine the value of λ for a given currency, a national bank or Federal savings association must find the lowest value L of P and K of all interest rate options in a given currency that the national bank or Federal savings association has with all counterparties. Then, λ is set according to this formula: λ = <I>max</I>{−<I>L</I> + 0.1%, 0}; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) σ equals the supervisory option volatility, as provided in Table 3 to of this section.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is a collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.020.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formula in paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A is the attachment point, which equals the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n−1) notional amounts of the underlying exposures are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) D is the detachment point, which equals one minus the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are senior to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The resulting amount is designated with a positive sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was purchased by the national bank or Federal savings association and is designated with a negative sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was sold by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maturity factor.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.021.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Where MPOR refers to the period from the most recent exchange of collateral covering a netting set of derivative contracts with a defaulting counterparty until the derivative contracts are closed out and the resulting market risk is re-hedged.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For a derivative contract that is not a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than ten business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a derivative contract that is a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than five business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, or a netting set that contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, MPOR cannot be less than twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, for a netting set subject to more than two outstanding disputes over margin that lasted longer than the MPOR over the previous two quarters, the applicable floor is twice the amount provided in paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is not subject to a variation margin agreement, or derivative contracts under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.022.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Where M equals the greater of 10 business days and the remaining maturity of the contract, as measured in business days.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, if a national bank or Federal savings association has elected pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the derivative contract as subject to a variation margin agreement with maturity factor as determined according to (c)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, and daily settlement does not change the end date of the period referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derivative contract as multiple effective derivative contracts.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must separate a derivative contract into separate derivative contracts, according to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(A) For an option where the counterparty pays a predetermined amount if the value of the underlying asset is above or below the strike price and nothing otherwise (binary option), the option must be treated as two separate options. For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B) of this section, a binary option with strike K must be represented as the combination of one bought European option and one sold European option of the same type as the original option (put or call) with the strikes set equal to 0.95 * K and 1.05 * K so that the payoff of the binary option is reproduced exactly outside the region between the two strikes. The absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts of the bought and sold options is capped at the payoff amount of the binary option.
</P>
<P>(B) For a derivative contract that can be represented as a combination of standard option payoffs (such as collar, butterfly spread, calendar spread, straddle, and strangle), a national bank or Federal savings association must treat each standard option component as a separate derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C) For a derivative contract that includes multiple-payment options, (such as interest rate caps and floors), a national bank or Federal savings association may represent each payment option as a combination of effective single-payment options (such as interest rate caplets and floorlets).
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association may not decompose linear derivative contracts (such as swaps) into components.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(6) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association shall assign a single replacement cost to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Replacement Cost = max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E> <I>max</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E>; 0} − <I>max</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E>; 0}; 0} + <I>max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E> <I>min</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E>; 0} − <I>min</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E>; 0}; 0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>NS</I> is each netting set subject to the variation margin agreement <I>MA</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E> is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set <I>NS</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E> is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting sets subject to the single variation margin agreement.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association shall assign a single potential future exposure to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin equal to the sum of the potential future exposure of each such netting set, each calculated according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section as if such nettings sets were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> To calculate replacement cost for either a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, the calculation for replacement cost is provided under paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section, except that the variation margin threshold equals the sum of the variation margin thresholds of all variation margin agreements within the netting set and the minimum transfer amount equals the sum of the minimum transfer amounts of all the variation margin agreements within the netting set.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> (A) To calculate potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the derivative contract must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, a national bank or Federal savings association must divide the netting set into sub-netting sets (as described in paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B) of this section) and calculate the aggregated amount for each sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for the netting set is calculated as the sum of the aggregated amounts for the sub-netting sets. The multiplier is calculated for the entire netting set.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(A) of this section, the netting set must be divided into sub-netting sets as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are not subject to a variation margin agreement or that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are subject to variation margin agreements in which the counterparty must post variation margin and that share the same value of the MPOR form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is subject to a variation margin agreement, using the MPOR value shared by the derivative contracts within the netting set.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 3.132—Supervisory Option Volatility, Supervisory Correlation Parameters, and Supervisory Factors for Derivative Contracts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>option
<br/>volatility
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>correlation
<br/>factor
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>factor <E T="0731">1</E>
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exchange rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electricity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The applicable supervisory factor for basis derivative contract hedging sets is equal to one-half of the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3, and the applicable supervisory factor for volatility derivative contract hedging sets is equal to 5 times the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Internal models methodology.</I> (1)(i) With prior written approval from the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may use the internal models methodology in this paragraph (d) to determine EAD for counterparty credit risk for derivative contracts (collateralized or uncollateralized) and single-product netting sets thereof, for eligible margin loans and single-product netting sets thereof, and for repo-style transactions and single-product netting sets thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that uses the internal models methodology for a particular transaction type (derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions) must use the internal models methodology for all transactions of that transaction type. A national bank or Federal savings association may choose to use the internal models methodology for one or two of these three types of exposures and not the other types.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association may also use the internal models methodology for derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions subject to a qualifying cross-product netting agreement if:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association effectively integrates the risk mitigating effects of cross-product netting into its risk management and other information technology systems; and
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association obtains the prior written approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank or Federal savings association that uses the internal models methodology for a transaction type must receive approval from the OCC to cease using the methodology for that transaction type or to make a material change to its internal model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted assets using IMM.</I> Under the IMM, a national bank or Federal savings association uses an internal model to estimate the expected exposure (EE) for a netting set and then calculates EAD based on that EE. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate two EEs and two EADs (one stressed and one unstressed) for each netting set as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on the most recent data meeting the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on a historical period that includes a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the national bank's or Federal savings association's counterparties according to paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association must use its internal model's probability distribution for changes in the fair value of a netting set that are attributable to changes in market variables to determine EE; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Under the internal models methodology, EAD = Max (0, α × effective EPE − CVA), or, subject to the prior written approval of OCC as provided in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, a more conservative measure of EAD.
</P>
<P>(A) CVA equals the credit valuation adjustment that the national bank or Federal savings association has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any OTC derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (d), CVA does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.033.gif"/>
<P>(C) α = 1.4 except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, or when the OCC has determined that the national bank or Federal savings association must set α higher based on the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific characteristics of counterparty credit risk or model performance.
</P>
<P>(v) A national bank or Federal savings association may include financial collateral currently posted by the counterparty as collateral (but may not include other forms of collateral) when calculating EE.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a national bank or Federal savings association hedges some or all of the counterparty credit risk associated with a netting set using an eligible credit derivative, the national bank or Federal savings association may take the reduction in exposure to the counterparty into account when estimating EE. If the national bank or Federal savings association recognizes this reduction in exposure to the counterparty in its estimate of EE, it must also use its internal model to estimate a separate EAD for the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the protection provider of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prior approval relating to EAD calculation.</I> To obtain OCC approval to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based, the national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that it has been using for at least one year an internal model that broadly meets the following minimum standards, with which the national bank or Federal savings association must maintain compliance:
</P>
<P>(i) The model must have the systems capability to estimate the expected exposure to the counterparty on a daily basis (but is not expected to estimate or report expected exposure on a daily basis);
</P>
<P>(ii) The model must estimate expected exposure at enough future dates to reflect accurately all the future cash flows of contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(iii) The model must account for the possible non-normality of the exposure distribution, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association must measure, monitor, and control current counterparty exposure and the exposure to the counterparty over the whole life of all contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(v) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to measure and manage current exposures gross and net of collateral held, where appropriate. The national bank or Federal savings association must estimate expected exposures for OTC derivative contracts both with and without the effect of collateral agreements;
</P>
<P>(vi) The national bank or Federal savings association must have procedures to identify, monitor, and control wrong-way risk throughout the life of an exposure. The procedures must include stress testing and scenario analysis;
</P>
<P>(vii) The model must use current market data to compute current exposures. The national bank or Federal savings association must estimate model parameters using historical data from the most recent three-year period and update the data quarterly or more frequently if market conditions warrant. The national bank or Federal savings association should consider using model parameters based on forward-looking measures, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(viii) When estimating model parameters based on a stress period, the national bank or Federal savings association must use at least three years of historical data that include a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the national bank's or Federal savings association's counterparties. The national bank or Federal savings association must review the data set and update the data as necessary, particularly for any material changes in its counterparties. The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate, at least quarterly, and maintain documentation of such demonstration, that the stress period coincides with increased CDS or other credit spreads of the national bank's or Federal savings association's counterparties. The national bank or Federal savings association must have procedures to evaluate the effectiveness of its stress calibration that include a process for using benchmark portfolios that are vulnerable to the same risk factors as the national bank's or Federal savings association's portfolio. The OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(ix) A national bank or Federal savings association must subject its internal model to an initial validation and annual model review process. The model review should consider whether the inputs and risk factors, as well as the model outputs, are appropriate. As part of the model review process, the national bank or Federal savings association must have a backtesting program for its model that includes a process by which unacceptable model performance will be determined and remedied;
</P>
<P>(x) A national bank or Federal savings association must have policies for the measurement, management and control of collateral and margin amounts; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A national bank or Federal savings association must have a comprehensive stress testing program that captures all credit exposures to counterparties, and incorporates stress testing of principal market risk factors and creditworthiness of counterparties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculating the maturity of exposures.</I> (i) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is greater than one year, the national bank or Federal savings association must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to the lower of five years or M(EPE), where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.034.gif"/>
<P>(ii) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is one year or less, the national bank or Federal savings association must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to one year, except as provided in § 3.131(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternatively, a national bank or Federal savings association that uses an internal model to calculate a one-sided credit valuation adjustment may use the effective credit duration estimated by the model as M(EPE) in place of the formula in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effects of collateral agreements on EAD.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when exposure to the counterparty increases, but may not capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when counterparty credit quality deteriorates. Two methods are available to capture the effect of a collateral agreement, as set forth in paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) With prior written approval from the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may include the effect of a collateral agreement within its internal model used to calculate EAD. The national bank or Federal savings association may set EAD equal to the expected exposure at the end of the margin period of risk. The margin period of risk means, with respect to a netting set subject to a collateral agreement, the time period from the most recent exchange of collateral with a counterparty until the next required exchange of collateral, plus the period of time required to sell and realize the proceeds of the least liquid collateral that can be delivered under the terms of the collateral agreement and, where applicable, the period of time required to re-hedge the resulting market risk upon the default of the counterparty. The minimum margin period of risk is set according to paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As an alternative to paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that can model EPE without collateral agreements but cannot achieve the higher level of modeling sophistication to model EPE with collateral agreements can set effective EPE for a collateralized netting set equal to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An add-on that reflects the potential increase in exposure of the netting set over the margin period of risk, plus the larger of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The current exposure of the netting set reflecting all collateral held or posted by the national bank or Federal savings association excluding any collateral called or in dispute; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The largest net exposure including all collateral held or posted under the margin agreement that would not trigger a collateral call. For purposes of this section, the add-on is computed as the expected increase in the netting set's exposure over the margin period of risk (set in accordance with paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(B) Effective EPE without a collateral agreement plus any collateral the national bank or Federal savings association posts to the counterparty that exceeds the required margin amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this part, including paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, the margin period of risk for a netting set subject to a collateral agreement is:
</P>
<P>(A) Five business days for repo-style transactions subject to daily remargining and daily marking-to-market, and ten business days for other transactions when liquid financial collateral is posted under a daily margin maintenance requirement, or
</P>
<P>(B) Twenty business days if the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during the previous quarter (except if the national bank or Federal savings association is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 3.133) or contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or any derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the margin period of risk, then the national bank or Federal savings association must use a margin period of risk for that netting set that is at least two times the minimum margin period of risk for that netting set. If the periodicity of the receipt of collateral is N-days, the minimum margin period of risk is the minimum margin period of risk under this paragraph (d) plus N minus 1. This period should be extended to cover any impediments to prompt re-hedging of any market risk.
</P>
<P>(C) Five business days for an OTC derivative contract or netting set of OTC derivative contracts where the national bank or Federal savings association is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the national bank or Federal savings association provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client. A national bank or Federal savings association must use a longer holding period if the national bank or Federal savings association determines that a longer period is appropriate. Additionally, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to set a longer holding period if the OCC determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Own estimate of alpha.</I> With prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on EPE (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2. For purposes of this calculation, economic capital is the unexpected losses for all counterparty credit risks measured at a 99.9 percent confidence level over a one-year horizon. To receive approval, the national bank or Federal savings association must meet the following minimum standards to the satisfaction of the OCC:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank's or Federal savings association's own estimate of alpha must capture in the numerator the effects of:
</P>
<P>(A) The material sources of stochastic dependency of distributions of fair values of transactions or portfolios of transactions across counterparties;
</P>
<P>(B) Volatilities and correlations of market risk factors used in the joint simulation, which must be related to the credit risk factor used in the simulation to reflect potential increases in volatility or correlation in an economic downturn, where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(C) The granularity of exposures (that is, the effect of a concentration in the proportion of each counterparty's exposure that is driven by a particular risk factor).
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must assess the potential model uncertainty in its estimates of alpha.
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the numerator and denominator of alpha in a consistent fashion with respect to modeling methodology, parameter specifications, and portfolio composition.
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association must review and adjust as appropriate its estimates of the numerator and denominator of alpha on at least a quarterly basis and more frequently when the composition of the portfolio varies over time.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Risk-based capital requirements for transactions with specific wrong-way risk.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine if a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, bond option, or equity derivative contract or purchased credit derivative to which the national bank or Federal savings association applies the internal models methodology under this paragraph (d) has specific wrong-way risk. If a transaction has specific wrong-way risk, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the transaction as its own netting set and exclude it from the model described in § 3.132(d)(2) and instead calculate the risk-based capital requirement for the transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity derivative contract, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum amount the national bank or Federal savings association could lose on the equity derivative.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a purchased credit derivative by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the reference asset of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a bond option, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The smaller of the notional amount of the underlying reference asset and the maximum potential loss under the bond option contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The EAD of the transaction determined according to the EAD equation in § 3.132(b)(2), substituting the estimated value of the collateral assuming a default of the counterparty for the value of the collateral in Σ<I>c</I> of the equation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk.</I> The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk is the sum of a national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for purchased credit derivatives that are not bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section, a national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for equity derivatives with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section, a national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iii) of this section, and a national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iv) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures.</I> (i) The national bank or Federal savings association must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the unstressed capital requirement for each netting set. A national bank or Federal savings association that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(3) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the unstressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must insert the assigned risk parameters for each wholesale obligor and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the stressed capital requirement for each netting set. A national bank or Federal savings association that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(6) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the stressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">stressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's dollar risk-based capital requirement under the internal models methodology equals the larger of K<E T="52">unstressed</E> and K<E T="52">stressed</E>. A national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted assets amount for IMM exposures is equal to the capital requirement multiplied by 12.5, plus risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk in paragraph (d)(8) of this section and those in paragraph (d)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other measures of counterparty exposure.</I> (i) With prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may set EAD equal to a measure of counterparty credit risk exposure, such as peak EAD, that is more conservative than an alpha of 1.4 times the larger of EPE<E T="52">unstressed</E> and EPE<E T="52">stressed</E> for every counterparty whose EAD will be measured under the alternative measure of counterparty exposure. The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate the conservatism of the measure of counterparty credit risk exposure used for EAD. With respect to paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For material portfolios of new OTC derivative products, the national bank or Federal savings association may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section for a period not to exceed 180 days.
</P>
<P>(B) For immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the national bank or Federal savings association generally may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To calculate risk-weighted assets for purposes of the approach in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 3.131, multiply the output of the formula by the EAD for the exposure as specified above, and multiply by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to its OTC derivative contracts, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a CVA risk-weighted asset amount for its portfolio of OTC derivative transactions that are subject to the CVA capital requirement using the simple CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section or, with prior written approval of the OCC, the advanced CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. A national bank or Federal savings association that receives prior OCC approval to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach must continue to use that approach for that class of counterparties until it notifies the OCC in writing that the national bank or Federal savings association expects to begin calculating its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach. Such notice must include an explanation of the national bank's or Federal savings association's rationale and the date upon which the national bank or Federal savings association will begin to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market risk national banks or Federal savings associations.</I> Notwithstanding the prior approval requirement in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, a market risk national bank or Federal savings association may calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the advanced CVA approach if the national bank or Federal savings association has OCC approval to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine EAD for OTC derivative contracts using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine its specific risk add-on for debt positions issued by the counterparty using a specific risk model described in § 3.207(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recognition of hedges.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize a single name CDS, single name contingent CDS, any other equivalent hedging instrument that references the counterparty directly, and index credit default swaps (CDS<E T="52">ind</E>) as a CVA hedge under paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section or paragraph (e)(6) of this section, provided that the position is managed as a CVA hedge in accordance with the national bank's or Federal savings association's hedging policies.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association shall not recognize as a CVA hedge any tranched or n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total CVA risk-weighted assets.</I> Total CVA risk-weighted assets is the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, calculated for a national bank's or Federal savings association's entire portfolio of OTC derivative counterparties that are subject to the CVA capital requirement, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simple CVA approach.</I> (i) Under the simple CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.035.gif"/>
<P>(A) <I>w</I><E T="54">i</E> = the weight applicable to counterparty <I>i</I> under Table 4 to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> = the EAD-weighted average of the effective maturity of each netting set with counterparty <I>i</I> (where each netting set's effective maturity can be no less than one year.)
</P>
<P>(C) <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> = the sum of the EAD for all netting sets of OTC derivative contracts with counterparty <I>i</I> calculated using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk methodology described in paragraph (c) of this section or the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. When the national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD under paragraph (c) of this section, such EAD may be adjusted for purposes of calculating <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> by multiplying EAD by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>), where “exp” is the exponential function. When the national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD under paragraph (d) of this section, <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> equals <I>EAD</I><E T="54">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E> = the notional weighted average maturity of the hedge instrument.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> = the sum of the notional amounts of any purchased single name CDS referencing counterparty <I>i</I> that is used to hedge CVA risk to counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>M</I><E T="52">ind</E> = the maturity of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> or the notional weighted average maturity of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk of counterparty <I>i.</I>
</P>
<P>(G) <I>B</I><E T="54">ind</E> = the notional amount of one or more CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk for counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>)
</P>
<P>(H) <I>w</I><E T="54">ind</E> = the weight applicable to the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> based on the average weight of the underlying reference names that comprise the index under Table 4 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association may treat the notional amount of the index attributable to a counterparty as a single name hedge of counterparty <I>i</I> (<I>B</I><E T="54">i</E>,) when calculating K<E T="52">CVA</E>, and subtract the notional amount of <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> from the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind.</E> A national bank or Federal savings association must treat the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge with the notional amount reduced by <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> as a CVA hedge.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 3.132—Assignment of Counterparty Weight
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Internal PD
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight <E T="03">w</E><E T="54">i</E>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.070-0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.15-0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.40-2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;2.00-6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Advanced CVA approach.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may use the VaR model that it uses to determine specific risk under § 3.207(b) or another VaR model that meets the quantitative requirements of §§ 3.205(b) and 3.207(b)(1) to calculate its CVA capital requirement for a counterparty by modeling the impact of changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, together with any recognized CVA hedges, on the CVA for the counterparties, subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The VaR model must incorporate only changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, not changes in other risk factors. The VaR model does not need to capture jump-to-default risk;
</P>
<P>(B) A national bank or Federal savings association that qualifies to use the advanced CVA approach must include in that approach any immaterial OTC derivative portfolios for which it uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk methodology in paragraph (c) of this section according to paragraph (e)(6)(viii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must have the systems capability to calculate the CVA capital requirement for a counterparty on a daily basis (but is not required to calculate the CVA capital requirement on a daily basis).
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the advanced CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formulas:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.037.gif"/>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<P>(A) <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> = the time of the <I>i</I>-th revaluation time bucket starting from <I>t</I><E T="54">0</E> = 0.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>t</I><E T="54">T</E> = the longest contractual maturity across the OTC derivative contracts with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>s</I><E T="54">i</E> = the CDS spread for the counterparty at tenor <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> used to calculate the CVA for the counterparty. If a CDS spread is not available, the national bank or Federal savings association must use a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry and region of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>LGD</I><E T="54">MKT</E> = the loss given default of the counterparty based on the spread of a publicly traded debt instrument of the counterparty, or, where a publicly traded debt instrument spread is not available, a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty. Where no market information and no reliable proxy based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty are available to determine LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, a national bank or Federal savings association may use a conservative estimate when determining LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, subject to approval by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> = the sum of the expected exposures for all netting sets with the counterparty at revaluation time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, calculated according to paragraphs (e)(6)(iv)(A) and (e)(6)(v)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>D</I><E T="54">i</E> = the risk-free discount factor at time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, where <I>D</I><E T="54">0</E> = 1.
</P>
<P>(G) Exp is the exponential function.
</P>
<P>(H) The subscript j refers either to a stressed or an unstressed calibration as described in paragraphs (e)(6)(iv) and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (e)(6)(ii) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must use the formulas in paragraphs (e)(6)(iii)(A) or (e)(6)(iii)(B) of this section to calculate credit spread sensitivities if its VaR model is not based on full repricing.
</P>
<P>(A) If the VaR model is based on credit spread sensitivities for specific tenors, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate each credit spread sensitivity according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.039.gif"/>
<P>(iv) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Unstressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> calculated using the calibration of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section, except as provided in § 3.132(e)(6)(vi), and
</P>
<P>(B) Use the historical observation period required under § 3.205(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Stressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> calculated using the stress calibration in paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section except as provided in paragraph (e)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Calibrate VaR model inputs to historical data from the most severe twelve-month stress period contained within the three-year stress period used to calculate <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E>. The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Stressed</E> measure.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a national bank or Federal savings association captures the effect of a collateral agreement on EAD using the method described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> using the method in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section and keep that EE constant with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set, and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<P>(vii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(6) of this section, the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR model must capture the basis between the spreads of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> that is used as the hedging instrument and the hedged counterparty exposure over various time periods, including benign and stressed environments. If the VaR model does not capture that basis, the national bank or Federal savings association must reflect only 50 percent of the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge in the VaR model.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a national bank or Federal savings association uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section to calculate the EAD for any immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the national bank or Federal savings association must use that EAD as a constant EE in the formula for the calculation of CVA with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41417, July 15, 2015; 85 FR 4405, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57959, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 731, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.133" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.133   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client national banks or Federal savings associations</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a national bank or Federal savings association that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 3.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 3.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodology set forth in § 3.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 3.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the national bank or Federal savings association to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any loss to the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent, if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member national bank or Federal savings association</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 3.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 3.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated under § 3.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 3.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP according to subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP where the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 3.3(a), and the clearing member national bank or Federal savings association is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the QCCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member national bank or Federal savings association that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the national bank or Federal savings association or the OCC, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to nonqualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the OCC, based on factors such as size, structure, and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital requirement for default fund contributions to a QCCP.</I> A clearing member national bank's or Federal savings association's capital requirement for its default fund contribution to a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CM</E>) is equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.012.gif"/>
<P>(5) <I>Hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP.</I> Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, a national bank or Federal savings association must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d)(5), unless the national bank or Federal savings association determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP. The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E>), as determined by the national bank or Federal savings association, is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E> = Σ<E T="54">CM</E><E T="0364">i</E><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> * 1.6 <I>percent</I>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CM</I><E T="54">i</E> is each clearing member of the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member of the QCCP, as determined under paragraph (d)(6) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member.</I> (i) The EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member is equal to the sum of the EAD for derivative contracts determined under paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section and the EAD for repo-style transactions determined under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any derivative contracts between the QCCP and the clearing member that are cleared transactions and any guarantees that the clearing member has provided to the QCCP with respect to performance of a clearing member client on a derivative contract, the EAD is equal to the exposure amount of the QCCP to the clearing member for all such derivative contracts and guarantees of derivative contracts calculated under SA-CCR in § 3.132(c) (or, with respect to a QCCP located outside the United States, under a substantially identical methodology in effect in the jurisdiction) using a value of 10 business days for purposes of § 3.132(c)(9)(iv); less the value of all collateral held by the QCCP posted by the clearing member or a client of the clearing member in connection with a derivative contract for which the clearing member has provided a guarantee to the QCCP and the amount of the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to any repo-style transactions between the QCCP and a clearing member that are cleared transactions, EAD is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> = max{<I>EBRM</I><E T="54">i</E>−<I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E>−<I>DF</I><E T="54">i</E>; 0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>EBRM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member for all repo-style transactions between the QCCP and the clearing member, as determined under § 3.132(b)(2) and without recognition of the initial margin collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions or the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member institution to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<P><I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the initial margin collateral posted by each clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions; and
</P>
<P><I>DF</I><E T="54">i</E> is the prefunded default fund contribution of each clearing member to the QCCP that is not already deducted in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) EAD must be calculated separately for each clearing member's sub-client accounts and sub-house account (<I>i.e.,</I> for the clearing member's proprietary activities). If the clearing member's collateral and its client's collateral are held in the same default fund contribution account, then the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the client-related transactions within the account and the EAD of the house-related transactions within the account. For purposes of determining such EADs, the independent collateral of the clearing member and its client must be allocated in proportion to the respective total amount of independent collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(v) If any account or sub-account contains both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the derivative contracts within the account and the EAD of the repo-style transactions within the account. If independent collateral is held for an account containing both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, then such collateral must be allocated to the derivative contracts and repo-style transactions in proportion to the respective product specific exposure amounts, calculated, excluding the effects of collateral, according to § 3.132(b) for repo-style transactions and to § 3.132(c)(5) for derivative contracts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding any other provision of paragraph (d) of this section, with the prior approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 3.35(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41417, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4411, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57960, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.134" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.134   Guarantees and credit derivatives: PD substitution and LGD adjustment approaches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section applies to wholesale exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the national bank or Federal savings association and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) Wholesale exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) are securitization exposures subject to §§ 3.141 through 3.145.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association may elect to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covering an exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section by using the PD substitution approach or the LGD adjustment approach in paragraph (c) of this section or, if the transaction qualifies, using the double default treatment in § 3.135. A national bank's or Federal savings association's PD and LGD for the hedged exposure may not be lower than the PD and LGD floors described in § 3.131(d)(2) and (d)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged wholesale exposures described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the same risk parameters for calculating ECL as it uses for calculating the risk-based capital requirement for the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> (that is, equally) with or is junior to the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are exposures to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to assure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligor fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk parameters for hedged exposures</I>—(1) <I>PD substitution approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, a national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure by substituting the PD associated with the rating grade of the protection provider for the PD associated with the rating grade of the obligor in the risk-based capital formula applicable to the guarantee or credit derivative in Table 1 of § 3.131 and using the appropriate LGD as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section. If the national bank or Federal savings association determines that full substitution of the protection provider's PD leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the national bank or Federal savings association may substitute a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and P of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure under § 3.131, where PD is the protection provider's PD, LGD is determined under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and EAD is P. If the national bank or Federal savings association determines that full substitution leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the national bank or Federal savings association may use a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 3.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P.
</P>
<P>(C) The treatment in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section is applicable when the credit risk of a wholesale exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis or when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>LGD of hedged exposures.</I> The LGD of a hedged exposure under the PD substitution approach is equal to: 
</P>
<P>(A) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the national bank or Federal savings association with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the national bank or Federal savings association with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>LGD adjustment approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure is the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The risk-based capital requirement for the exposure as calculated under § 3.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the protection provider as calculated under § 3.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative. 
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure would be the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure as calculated under § 3.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative and EAD set equal to P; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the guarantor as calculated under § 3.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD set equal to P. 
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 3.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>M of hedged exposures.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the M of the hedged exposure is the same as the M of the exposure if it were unhedged. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining its risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant. 
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s). 
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligor is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the national bank or Federal savings association (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the national bank or Federal savings association (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the national bank or Federal savings association to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> For example, where there is a step-up in cost in conjunction with a call feature or where the effective cost of protection increases over time even if credit quality remains the same or improves, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant will be the remaining time to the first call.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months. 
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">m</E> = E × (t − 0.25)/(T − 0.25),
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch; 
</P>
<P>(ii) E = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant; 
</P>
<P>(iii) t = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) T = the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">r</E> = P<E T="52">m</E> × 0.60,
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(1) P<E T="52">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and 
</P>
<P>(2) P<E T="52">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant adjusted for maturity mismatch (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch.</I> (1) If a national bank or Federal savings association recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">c</E> = P<E T="52">r x</E> (1 − H<E T="52">FX</E>), 
</FP-2>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">c</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); 
</P>
<P>(ii) P<E T="52">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to 8 percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period and daily marking-to-market and remargining. A national bank or Federal savings association qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The own-estimates haircuts in § 3.132(b)(2)(iii); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The simple VaR methodology in § 3.132(b)(3); or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology in § 3.132(d). 
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the national bank or Federal savings association revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every ten business days using the square root of time formula provided in § 3.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 4405, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.135" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.135   Guarantees and credit derivatives: double default treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility and operational criteria for double default treatment.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of a guarantee or credit derivative covering an exposure described in § 3.134(a)(1) by applying the double default treatment in this section if all the following criteria are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The hedged exposure is fully covered or covered on a pro rata basis by: 
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible guarantee issued by an eligible double default guarantor; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible credit derivative that meets the requirements of § 3.134(b)(2) and that is issued by an eligible double default guarantor. 
</P>
<P>(2) The guarantee or credit derivative is: 
</P>
<P>(i) An uncollateralized guarantee or uncollateralized credit derivative (for example, a credit default swap) that provides protection with respect to a single reference obligor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative (subject to the requirements of § 3.142(m).
</P>
<P>(3) The hedged exposure is a wholesale exposure (other than a sovereign exposure).
</P>
<P>(4) The obligor of the hedged exposure is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible double default guarantor or an affiliate of an eligible double default guarantor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate of the guarantor.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association does not recognize any credit risk mitigation benefits of the guarantee or credit derivative for the hedged exposure other than through application of the double default treatment as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The national bank or Federal savings association has implemented a process (which has received the prior, written approval of the OCC) to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of the hedged exposure and the protection provider. If excessive correlation is present, the national bank or Federal savings association may not use the double default treatment for the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is at least equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association may determine its risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize double default treatment on the protected portion of the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) For the protected exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must set EAD equal to P and calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For the unprotected exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must set EAD equal to the EAD of the original exposure minus P and then calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in § 3.131.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mismatches.</I> For any hedged exposure to which a national bank or Federal savings association applies double default treatment under this part, the national bank or Federal savings association must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 3.134(d), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The double default dollar risk-based capital requirement.</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure to which a national bank or Federal savings association has applied double default treatment is K<E T="52">DD</E> multiplied by the EAD of the exposure. K<E T="52">DD</E> is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">DD</E> = K<E T="52">o</E> × (0.15 + 160 × PD<E T="52">g</E>),
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.048.gif"/>
<P>(2) PD<E T="52">g</E> = PD of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(3) PD<E T="52">o</E> = PD of the obligor of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) LGD<E T="52">g</E> =
</P>
<P>(i) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the national bank or Federal savings association with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the national bank or Federal savings association with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; and
</P>
<P>(5) ρ<E T="52">os</E> (asset value correlation of the obligor) is calculated according to the appropriate formula for (R) provided in Table 1 in § 3.131, with PD equal to PD<E T="52">o</E>.
</P>
<P>(6) b (maturity adjustment coefficient) is calculated according to the formula for b provided in Table 1 in § 3.131, with PD equal to the lesser of PD<E T="52">o</E> and PD<E T="52">g</E>; and
</P>
<P>(7) M (maturity) is the effective maturity of the guarantee or credit derivative, which may not be less than one year or greater than five years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.136" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.136   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) The positive current exposure of a national bank or Federal savings association for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the national bank or Federal savings association to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are subject to daily marking-to-market and daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions (which are addressed in §§ 3.131 and 132);
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts (which are addressed in §§ 3. 131 and 132); or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts and addressed in §§ 3.131 and 132).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a central counterparty, the OCC may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the national bank's or Federal savings association's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The national bank or Federal savings association must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the national bank or Federal savings association by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 3.136.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.136—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business days after contractual settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to be applied to positive
<br/>current
<br/>exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the national bank or Federal savings association has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The national bank or Federal savings association must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the national bank or Federal savings association has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the national bank or Federal savings association has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the national bank or Federal savings association as a wholesale exposure.
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association may use a 45 percent LGD for the transaction rather than estimating LGD for the transaction provided the national bank or Federal savings association uses the 45 percent LGD for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association may use a 100 percent risk weight for the transaction provided the national bank or Federal savings association uses this risk weight for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank or Federal savings association has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after the counterparty delivery was due, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41417, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.137-3.140" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.19.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.137-3.140   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.141" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.141   Operational criteria for recognizing the transfer of risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (a) is satisfied. A national bank or Federal savings association that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any securitization exposures it retains in connection with the securitization. A national bank or Federal savings association that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, a national bank or Federal savings association may recognize for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. A national bank or Federal savings association that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. A national bank or Federal savings association that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must hold risk-based capital under this subpart against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all of the requirements of an eligible guarantee in § 3.2 except for paragraph (3) of the definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all of the requirements of an eligible credit derivative except for paragraph (3) of the definition of eligible guarantee in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the national bank or Federal savings association to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the national bank's or Federal savings association's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the national bank or Federal savings association in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the national bank or Federal savings association after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 3.142(k), if a national bank or Federal savings association is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the securitization exposure. The national bank's or Federal savings association's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the position in relation to regulatory capital according to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under this section for each securitization exposure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.142" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.142   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hierarchy of approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section and in § 3.141: 
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute after tax gain-on-sale; 
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the supervisory formula approach in § 3.143 to the exposure if the national bank or Federal savings association and the exposure qualify for the supervisory formula approach according to § 3.143(a); 
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach, the national bank or Federal savings association may apply the simplified supervisory formula approach under § 3.144; 
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 3.143, and the national bank or Federal savings association does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 3.144, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure; and 
</P>
<P>(5) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a national bank or Federal savings association in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a national bank or Federal savings association may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (e) of this section rather than apply the hierarchy of approaches described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures is equal to the sum of its risk-weighted assets calculated using §§ 3.141 through 146. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may calculate any deduction from common equity tier 1 capital for a securitization exposure net of any DTLs associated with the securitization exposure. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maximum risk-based capital requirement.</I> Except as provided in § 3.141(c), unless one or more underlying exposures does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure, the total risk-based capital requirement for all securitization exposures held by a single national bank or Federal savings association associated with a single securitization (excluding any risk-based capital requirements that relate to the national bank's or Federal savings association's gain-on-sale or CEIOs associated with the securitization) may not exceed the sum of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's total risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart as if the national bank or Federal savings association directly held the underlying exposures; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total ECL of the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure.</I> (1) The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction is the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (m) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative), repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance-sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the national bank or Federal savings association could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets). 
</P>
<P>(3) The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the EAD of the exposure as calculated in § 3.132 or § 3.133. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage of the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when a national bank or Federal savings association provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the national bank or Federal savings association may assign to the overlapping securitization exposure the applicable risk-based capital treatment under this subpart that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Securitizations of non-IRB exposures.</I> Except as provided in § 3.141(c), if a national bank or Federal savings association has a securitization exposure where any underlying exposure is not a wholesale exposure, retail exposure, securitization exposure, or equity exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute gain-on-sale, if the national bank or Federal savings association is an originating national bank or Federal savings association; 
</P>
<P>(2) May apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 3.144 to the exposure, if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) Must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 3.143, and the national bank or Federal savings association does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 3.144 to the exposure. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Implicit support.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association provides support to a securitization in excess of the national bank's or Federal savings association's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support): 
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must disclose publicly: 
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulatory capital impact to the national bank or Federal savings association of providing such implicit support. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a national bank or Federal savings association that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the national bank or Federal savings association may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this part, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with recourse.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subpart E, a national bank or Federal savings association that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only the contractual amount of retained recourse if all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is a sale under GAAP. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the national bank's or Federal savings association's reasonably estimated liability under the recourse arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The loans and leases are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 <I>et seq.</I>); and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association is well-capitalized, as defined in 12 CFR 6.4. For purposes of determining whether a national bank or Federal savings association is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (k), the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of recourse retained by a national bank or Federal savings association on transfers of small-business obligations subject to paragraph (k)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If a national bank or Federal savings association ceases to be well capitalized or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, the preferential capital treatment specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with recourse that occurred during the time that the national bank or Federal savings association was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of a national bank or Federal savings association must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine a risk weight using the supervisory formula approach (SFA) pursuant to § 3.143 or the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) pursuant to § 3.144 for an n<E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (l). In the case of credit protection sold, a national bank or Federal savings association must determine its exposure in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative using the SFA or the SSFA, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA to calculate the risk weight for its exposure in an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the credit enhancement level (L) input to the SFA formula. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) risk-weighted asset amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of the SFA, parameter D must be set to equal L plus the thickness of tranche T input to the SFA formula.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association that does not use the SFA or the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its exposure in an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 3.134(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart for the underlying exposures as if the national bank or Federal savings association synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the lowest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 3.132 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 3.134(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) A national bank or Federal savings association that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 3.134(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank or Federal savings association also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If a national bank or Federal savings association satisfies the requirements of paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the bank had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the n<E T="51">th</E> smallest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 3.132 for a n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 3.134(b).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than n</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative) provided by a national bank or Federal savings association that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases an OTC credit derivative (other than an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 3.145 as a credit risk mitigant (including via recognized collateral) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 3.131 in accordance with § 3.132(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a national bank or Federal savings association cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 3.145, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 3.132(c).
</P>
<P>(A) If the national bank or Federal savings association purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk weight for the exposure according § 3.131.
</P>
<P>(B) If the national bank or Federal savings association purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this section, including paragraph (a)(5) of this section for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.143" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.143   Supervisory formula approach (SFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must use the SFA to determine its risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure if the national bank or Federal savings association can calculate on an ongoing basis each of the SFA parameters in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mechanics.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure equals its SFA risk-based capital requirement as calculated under paragraph (c) and (d) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The SFA risk-based capital requirement.</I> (1) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than or equal to L + T, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement equals the exposure amount.
</P>
<P>(2) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is less than or equal to L, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · T (where F is 0.016 for all securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T]−S[L].
</P>
<P>(3) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than L and less than L + T, the national bank or Federal savings association must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to an amount equal to UE · TP (K<E T="52">IRB</E>−L), and the exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · (T−(K<E T="52">IRB</E>−L)) (where F is 0.016 for all other securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T]−S[K<E T="52">IRB</E>].
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The supervisory formula:</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.049.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>SFA parameters.</I> For purposes of the calculations in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount of the underlying exposures (UE).</I> UE is the EAD of any underlying exposures that are wholesale and retail exposures (including the amount of any funded spread accounts, cash collateral accounts, and other similar funded credit enhancements) plus the amount of any underlying exposures that are securitization exposures (as defined in § 3.142(e)) plus the adjusted carrying value of any underlying exposures that are equity exposures (as defined in § 3.151(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tranche percentage (TP</I>). TP is the ratio of the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure to the amount of the tranche that contains the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital requirement on underlying exposures (K</I><E T="54">IRB</E><I>).</I> (i) K<E T="52">IRB</E> is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the risk-based capital requirements for the underlying exposures plus the expected credit losses of the underlying exposures (as determined under this subpart E as if the underlying exposures were directly held by the national bank or Federal savings association); to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) The calculation of K<E T="52">IRB</E> must reflect the effects of any credit risk mitigant applied to the underlying exposures (either to an individual underlying exposure, to a group of underlying exposures, or to all of the underlying exposures).
</P>
<P>(iii) All assets related to the securitization are treated as underlying exposures, including assets in a reserve account (such as a cash collateral account).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit enhancement level (L).</I> (i) L is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of all securitization exposures subordinated to the tranche that contains the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must determine L before considering the effects of any tranche-specific credit enhancements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any gain-on-sale or CEIO associated with the securitization may not be included in L.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any reserve account funded by accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the tranche that contains the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure may be included in the numerator and denominator of L to the extent cash has accumulated in the account. Unfunded reserve accounts (that is, reserve accounts that are to be funded from future cash flows from the underlying exposures) may not be included in the calculation of L.
</P>
<P>(v) In some cases, the purchase price of receivables will reflect a discount that provides credit enhancement (for example, first loss protection) for all or certain tranches of the securitization. When this arises, L should be calculated inclusive of this discount if the discount provides credit enhancement for the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Thickness of tranche (T).</I> T is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the tranche that contains the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(ii) UE.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effective number of exposures (N).</I> (i) Unless the national bank or Federal savings association elects to use the formula provided in paragraph (f) of this section,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.050.gif"/>
<FP>where EAD<E T="52">i</E> represents the EAD associated with the ith instrument in the underlying exposures.
</FP>
<P>(ii) Multiple exposures to one obligor must be treated as a single underlying exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a resecuritization, the national bank or Federal savings association must treat each underlying exposure as a single underlying exposure and must not look through to the originally securitized underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exposure-weighted average loss given default (EWALGD).</I> EWALGD is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.051.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where LGD<E T="52">i</E> represents the average LGD associated with all exposures to the ith obligor. In the case of a resecuritization, an LGD of 100 percent must be assumed for the underlying exposures that are themselves securitization exposures.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified method for computing N and EWALGD.</I> (1) If all underlying exposures of a securitization are retail exposures, a national bank or Federal savings association may apply the SFA using the following simplifications:
</P>
<P>(i) h = 0; and
</P>
<P>(ii) v = 0.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the conditions in §§ 3.143(f)(3) and (f)(4), a national bank or Federal savings association may employ a simplified method for calculating N and EWALGD.
</P>
<P>(3) If C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, a national bank or Federal savings association may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, and may set N equal to the following amount:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.052.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(i) C<E T="52">m</E> is the ratio of the sum of the amounts of the `m' largest underlying exposures to UE; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The level of m is to be selected by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(4) Alternatively, if only C<E T="52">1</E> is available and C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, the national bank or Federal savings association may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure and may set N = 1/C<E T="52">1</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.144" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.144   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, a national bank or Federal savings association must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A national bank or Federal savings association that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, a national bank or Federal savings association must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D of this part. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in section 142(l) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the national bank or Federal savings association to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in section 142(l) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.053.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.145" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.145   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An originating national bank or Federal savings association that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its securitization exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria in § 3.141 may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section. An investing national bank or Federal savings association that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collateral</I>—(1) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize financial collateral in determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure (other than a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, or an OTC derivative contract for which the national bank or Federal savings association has reflected collateral in its determination of exposure amount under § 3.132) as follows. The national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for the collateralized securitization exposure is equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as calculated under the SSFA in § 3.144 or under the SFA in § 3.143 multiplied by the ratio of adjusted exposure amount (SE*) to original exposure amount (SE), 
</P>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(i) SE* = max {0, [SE−C × (1−H<E T="52">s</E>−H<E T="52">fx</E>)]};
</P>
<P>(ii) SE = the amount of the securitization exposure calculated under § 3.142(e);
</P>
<P>(iii) C = the current fair value of the collateral;
</P>
<P>(iv) H<E T="52">s</E> = the haircut appropriate to the collateral type; and
</P>
<P>(v) H<E T="52">fx</E> = the haircut appropriate for any currency mismatch between the collateral and the exposure.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.054.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> Unless a national bank or Federal savings association qualifies for use of and uses own-estimates haircuts in paragraph (b)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the collateral type haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 3.132 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must use a currency mismatch haircut (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent if the exposure and the collateral are denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the supervisory haircuts obtained in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 6.5 (which equals 2.549510); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank or Federal savings association must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than 65 business days where and as appropriate to take into account the illiquidity of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may calculate haircuts using its own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility, subject to § 3.132(b)(2)(iii). The minimum holding period (T<E T="52">M</E>) for securitization exposures is 65 business days.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Limitations on recognition.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may only recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ECL for securitization exposures.</I> When a national bank or Federal savings association recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must also:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate ECL for the protected portion of the exposure using the same risk parameters that it uses for calculating the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Add the exposure's ECL to the national bank's or Federal savings association's total ECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative equals or exceeds the amount of the securitization exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 3.131), using the national bank's or Federal savings association's PD for the guarantor, the national bank's or Federal savings association's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the amount of the securitization exposure (as determined in § 3.142(e)).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative is less than the amount of the securitization exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covered portion.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 3.131), using the national bank's or Federal savings association's PD for the guarantor, the national bank's or Federal savings association's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the protection amount of the credit risk mitigant; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Uncovered portion.</I> (<I>1</I>) 1.0 minus the ratio of the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative to the amount of the securitization exposure); multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure without the credit risk mitigant (as determined in §§ 3.142 through 146).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mismatches.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 3.134(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure and any more senior securitization exposure that benefits from the hedge. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the national bank or Federal savings association must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all the hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.146-3.150" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.20.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.146-3.150   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.151" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.151   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to investment funds, a national bank or Federal savings association may apply either the Simple Risk Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 3.152 or, if it qualifies to do so, the Internal Models Approach (IMA) in § 3.153. A national bank or Federal savings association must use the look-through approaches provided in § 3.154 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 3.2), as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 3.154.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy, or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of § 3.151(b)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the national bank's or Federal savings association's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) for a given small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For unfunded equity commitments that are unconditional, the effective notional principal amount is the notional amount of the commitment. For unfunded equity commitments that are conditional, the effective notional principal amount is the national bank's or Federal savings association's best estimate of the amount that would be funded under economic downturn conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.152" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.152   Simple risk weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, a national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the national bank's or Federal savings association's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined in this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the national bank's or Federal savings association's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined in § 3.154.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an entity whose credit exposures are exempt from the 0.03 percent PD floor in § 3.131(d)(2) is assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) is assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The following equity exposures are assigned a 100 percent risk weight:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act, excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the OCC's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 3.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a national bank or Federal savings association does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the national bank or Federal savings association may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures qualifies for a 100 percent risk weight under this section, a national bank or Federal savings association first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 3.22(b)(4) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) is assigned a 300 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section) that is not publicly traded is assigned a 400 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm that:
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the OCC's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 3.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage is assigned a 600 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the national bank or Federal savings association acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the national bank or Federal savings association will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. A national bank or Federal savings association must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals zero. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.055.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then the value of E is zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.153" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.153   Internal models approach (IMA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may calculate its risk-weighted asset amount for equity exposures using the IMA by modeling publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section) or by modeling only publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying criteria.</I> To qualify to use the IMA to calculate risk-weighted assets for equity exposures, a national bank or Federal savings association must receive prior written approval from the OCC. To receive such approval, the national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate to the OCC's satisfaction that the national bank or Federal savings association meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must have one or more models that:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess the potential decline in value of its modeled equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are commensurate with the size, complexity, and composition of the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequately capture both general market risk and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's model must produce an estimate of potential losses for its modeled equity exposures that is no less than the estimate of potential losses produced by a VaR methodology employing a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval of the distribution of quarterly returns for a benchmark portfolio of equity exposures comparable to the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures using a long-term sample period.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of risk factors and exposures in the sample and the data period used for quantification in the national bank's or Federal savings association's model and benchmarking exercise must be sufficient to provide confidence in the accuracy and robustness of the national bank's or Federal savings association's estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank's or Federal savings association's model and benchmarking process must incorporate data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures, and must include data from at least one equity market cycle containing adverse market movements relevant to the risk profile of the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures. In addition, the national bank's or Federal savings association's benchmarking exercise must be based on daily market prices for the benchmark portfolio. If the national bank's or Federal savings association's model uses a scenario methodology, the national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate that the model produces a conservative estimate of potential losses on the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures over a relevant long-term market cycle. If the national bank or Federal savings association employs risk factor models, the national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate through empirical analysis the appropriateness of the risk factors used.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to demonstrate, using theoretical arguments and empirical evidence, that any proxies used in the modeling process are comparable to the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures and that the national bank or Federal savings association has made appropriate adjustments for differences. The national bank or Federal savings association must derive any proxies for its modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio using historical market data that are relevant to the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio (or, where not, must use appropriately adjusted data), and such proxies must be robust estimates of the risk of the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for a national bank or Federal savings association using the IMA for publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association models publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures, the national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 3.152) and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 3.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) generated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund;
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs; and
</P>
<P>(C) 300 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures that are not publicly traded, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for a national bank or Federal savings association using the IMA only for publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association models only publicly traded equity exposures, the national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under §§ 3.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 3.152), each equity exposure that qualifies for a 400 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(5) or a 600 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(6) (as determined under § 3.152), and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 3.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) generated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the national bank's or Federal savings association's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 3.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.154" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.154   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 3.152(b)(3)(i), a national bank or Federal savings association must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alternative modified look-through approach in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 3.152(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the national bank or Federal savings association does not use the full look-through approach, the national bank or Federal savings association may use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 3.152(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart E of this part as if the proportional ownership share of each exposure were held directly by the national bank or Federal savings association) may either:
</P>
<P>(1) Set the risk-weighted asset amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's proportional ownership share of the fund; or
</P>
<P>(2) Include the national bank's or Federal savings association's proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the fund in the national bank's or Federal savings association's IMA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight assigned according to subpart D of this part that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under its prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories assigned according to subpart D of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the national bank's or Federal savings association's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure class multiplied by the applicable risk weight. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest risk weight under subpart D of this part, and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest risk weight under subpart D of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the national bank or Federal savings association must use the highest applicable risk weight. A national bank or Federal savings association may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.155" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.155   Equity derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the IMA, in addition to holding risk-based capital against an equity derivative contract under this part, a national bank or Federal savings association must hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk in the equity derivative contract by also treating the equity derivative contract as a wholesale exposure and computing a supplemental risk-weighted asset amount for the contract under § 3.132.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the SRWA, a national bank or Federal savings association may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of equity derivative contracts, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, a national bank or Federal savings association using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.156-3.160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.21.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.156-3.160   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Operational Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.161" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.22.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.161   Qualification requirements for incorporation of operational risk mitigants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualification to use operational risk mitigants.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may adjust its estimate of operational risk exposure to reflect qualifying operational risk mitigants if:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk quantification system is able to generate an estimate of the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure (which does not incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants) and an estimate of the national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure adjusted to incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants; and
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's methodology for incorporating the effects of insurance, if the national bank or Federal savings association uses insurance as an operational risk mitigant, captures through appropriate discounts to the amount of risk mitigation:
</P>
<P>(i) The residual term of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancellation terms of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) The policy's timeliness of payment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The uncertainty of payment by the provider of the policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mismatches in coverage between the policy and the hedged operational loss event.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying operational risk mitigants.</I> Qualifying operational risk mitigants are:
</P>
<P>(1) Insurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by an unaffiliated company that the national bank or Federal savings association deems to have strong capacity to meet its claims payment obligations and the obligor rating category to which the national bank or Federal savings association assigns the company is assigned a PD equal to or less than 10 basis points;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an initial term of at least one year and a residual term of more than 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a minimum notice period for cancellation by the provider of 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no exclusions or limitations based upon regulatory action or for the receiver or liquidator of a failed depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explicitly mapped to a potential operational loss event;
</P>
<P>(2) Operational risk mitigants other than insurance for which the OCC has given prior written approval. In evaluating an operational risk mitigant other than insurance, the OCC will consider whether the operational risk mitigant covers potential operational losses in a manner equivalent to holding total capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.162" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.22.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.162   Mechanics of risk-weighted asset calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a national bank or Federal savings association does not qualify to use or does not have qualifying operational risk mitigants, the national bank's or Federal savings association's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is its operational risk exposure minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(b) If a national bank or Federal savings association qualifies to use operational risk mitigants and has qualifying operational risk mitigants, the national bank's or Federal savings association's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure adjusted for qualifying operational risk mitigants minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any); or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.8 multiplied by the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank's or Federal savings association's operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(c) The national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for operational risk equals the national bank's or Federal savings association's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk determined under sections 162(a) or (b) multiplied by 12.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.163-3.170" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.22.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.163-3.170   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.171" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.23.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.171   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>§§ 3.171 through 3.173 establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements of a national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.172" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.23.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.172   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to section 121(d) of subpart E of this part must publicly disclose each quarter its total and tier 1 risk-based capital ratios and their components as calculated under this subpart (that is, common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, total qualifying capital, and total risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to section 121(d) of subpart E of this part must comply with paragraph (c) of this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A national bank or Federal savings association described in paragraph (b) of this section must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 3.173. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes to these are disclosed in the interim. Management may provide all of the disclosures required by this subpart in one place on the national bank's or Federal savings association's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association described in paragraph (b) of this section must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the national bank or Federal savings association must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) If a national bank or Federal savings association described in paragraph (b) of this section believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to disclose those specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A national bank or Federal savings association that meets any of the criteria in § 3.100(b)(1) before January 1, 2015, must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part, beginning with the first quarter in 2015. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the national bank or Federal savings association has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d).
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that meets any of the criteria in § 3.100(b)(1) on or after January 1, 2015, or a Category III national bank or Federal savings association must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the national bank or Federal savings association becomes an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association or a Category III national bank or Federal savings association. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the national bank or Federal savings association has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57743, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41417, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.173" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.23.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.173   Disclosures by certain advanced approaches national banks or Federal savings associations and Category III national banks or Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.172(b) must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 3.173.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association and a Category III national bank or Federal savings association that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 3.172(d) must make the disclosures required under Table 13 to this section unless the national bank or Federal savings association is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 3.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2014, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the national bank or Federal savings association has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d). The disclosures described in Table 13 to § 3.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2015, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to the disclosure of the supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to §§ 3.172(d) and 3.173(a)(2).


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.173—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart E of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) That are fully consolidated;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Such entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 3.173—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common stock and related surplus;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retained earnings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Common equity minority interest;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) AOCI (net of tax) and other reserves; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the national bank or Federal savings association has elected to phase in recognition of the transitional amounts as defined in § 3.301.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital, tier 1 capital, and total capital without including the transitional amounts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 3.173—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A summary discussion of the national bank's or Federal savings association's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for credit risk from:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Wholesale exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Qualifying revolving exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Other retail exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Securitization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Equity exposures:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Equity exposures subject to the simple risk weight approach; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) Equity exposures subject to the internal models approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardized market risk-weighted assets and advanced market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Standardized approach for specific risk; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Internal models approach for specific risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for operational risk.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the transition provisions described in § 3.301:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the full adoption of CECL:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 3.173—Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The national bank or Federal savings association must publicly disclose the geographic breakdown of its private sector credit exposures used in the calculation of the countercyclical capital buffer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer as described under § 3.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose the buffer retained income of the national bank or Federal savings association, as described under § 3.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer framework described under § 3.11 of subpart B, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 12 to § 3.173, the national bank or Federal savings association must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Strategies and processes;
</P>
<P>(2) The structure and organization of the relevant risk management function;
</P>
<P>(3) The scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; and
</P>
<P>(4) Policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 
<sup>1</sup> to § 3.173—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 7 to § 3.173), including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Description of the methodology that the entity uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Discussion of the national bank's or Federal savings association's credit risk management policy
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP,
<sup>2</sup> without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, national banks or Federal savings associations could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic 
<sup>3</sup> distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the entity's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity breakdown (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 to § 3.173 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210-20 as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may comprise individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. A national bank or Federal savings association might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the company's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.


</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 3.173—Credit Risk: Disclosures for Portfolios Subject to IRB Risk-Based Capital Formulas
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explanation and review of the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Structure of internal rating systems and if the national bank or Federal savings association considers external ratings, the relation between internal and external ratings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Use of risk parameter estimates other than for regulatory capital purposes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Process for managing and recognizing credit risk mitigation (see Table 8 to § 3.173); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Control mechanisms for the rating system, including discussion of independence, accountability, and rating systems review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the internal ratings process, provided separately for the following:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Wholesale category;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retail subcategories;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Qualifying revolving exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) Other retail exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each category and subcategory above the description should include:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) The types of exposure included in the category/subcategories; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(B) The definitions, methods and data for estimation and validation of PD, LGD, and EAD, including assumptions employed in the derivation of these variables.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: risk assessment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For wholesale exposures, present the following information across a sufficient number of PD grades (including default) to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk: 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Total EAD; 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Exposure-weighted average LGD (percentage);
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) Exposure-weighted average risk weight; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iv) Amount of undrawn commitments and exposure-weighted average EAD including average drawdowns prior to default for wholesale exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each retail subcategory, present the disclosures outlined above across a sufficient number of segments to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: historical results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actual losses in the preceding period for each category and subcategory and how this differs from past experience. A discussion of the factors that impacted the loss experience in the preceding period—for example, has the national bank or Federal savings association experienced higher than average default rates, loss rates or EADs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The national bank's or Federal savings association's estimates compared against actual outcomes over a longer period.
<sup>4</sup> At a minimum, this should include information on estimates of losses against actual losses in the wholesale category and each retail subcategory over a period sufficient to allow for a meaningful assessment of the performance of the internal rating processes for each category/subcategory.
<sup>5</sup> Where appropriate, the national bank or Federal savings association should further decompose this to provide analysis of PD, LGD, and EAD outcomes against estimates provided in the quantitative risk assessment disclosures above.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This disclosure item does not require a detailed description of the model in full—it should provide the reader with a broad overview of the model approach, describing definitions of the variables and methods for estimating and validating those variables set out in the quantitative risk disclosures below. This should be done for each of the four category/subcategories. The national bank or Federal savings association must disclose any significant differences in approach to estimating these variables within each category/subcategories.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The PD, LGD and EAD disclosures in Table 6 (c) to § 3.173 should reflect the effects of collateral, qualifying master netting agreements, eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives as defined under this part. Disclosure of each PD grade should include the exposure-weighted average PD for each grade. Where a national bank or Federal savings association aggregates PD grades for the purposes of disclosure, this should be a representative breakdown of the distribution of PD grades used for regulatory capital purposes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Outstanding loans and EAD on undrawn commitments can be presented on a combined basis for these disclosures.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> These disclosures are a way of further informing the reader about the reliability of the information provided in the “quantitative disclosures: Risk assessment” over the long run. The disclosures are requirements from year-end 2010; in the meantime, early adoption is encouraged. The phased implementation is to allow a national bank or Federal savings association sufficient time to build up a longer run of data that will make these disclosures meaningful.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> This disclosure item is not intended to be prescriptive about the period used for this assessment. Upon implementation, it is expected that a national bank or Federal savings association would provide these disclosures for as long a set of data as possible—for example, if a national bank or Federal savings association has 10 years of data, it might choose to disclose the average default rates for each PD grade over that 10-year period. Annual amounts need not be disclosed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association must provide this further decomposition where it will allow users greater insight into the reliability of the estimates provided in the “quantitative disclosures: Risk assessment.” In particular, it must provide this information where there are material differences between its estimates of PD, LGD or EAD compared to actual outcomes over the long run. The national bank or Federal savings association must also provide explanations for such differences.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 3.173—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk of OTC Derivative Contracts, Repo-Style Transactions, and Eligible Margin Loans
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Discussion of methodology used to assign economic capital and credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Discussion of the primary types of collateral taken;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Discussion of policies with respect to wrong-way risk exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Discussion of the impact of the amount of collateral the national bank or Federal savings association would have to provide if the national bank or Federal savings association were to receive a credit rating downgrade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, netting benefits, netted current credit exposure, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> Also report measures for EAD used for regulatory capital for these transactions, the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection, and, for national banks or Federal savings associations not using the internal models methodology in § 3.132(d) , the distribution of current credit exposure by types of credit exposure.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the national bank's or Federal savings association's own credit portfolio and for its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The estimate of alpha if the national bank or Federal savings association has received supervisory approval to estimate alpha.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements, without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 To § 3.173—Credit Risk Mitigation 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for, and an indication of the extent to which the national bank or Federal savings association uses, on- or off-balance sheet netting;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the national bank or Federal savings association;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations within the mitigation taken.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure (after, where applicable, on- or off-balance sheet netting) that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, a national bank or Federal savings association must provide the disclosures in Table 8 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, national banks or Federal savings associations are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives and other credit mitigation that are treated for the purposes of this subpart as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures (in Table 8 to § 3.173) and included within those relating to securitization (in Table 9 to § 3.173).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 3.173—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the national bank or Federal savings association to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (e.g. liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the national bank or Federal savings association in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The national bank's or Federal savings association's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the national bank or Federal savings association follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the national bank or Federal savings association, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The national bank or Federal savings association must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off- balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the national bank or Federal savings association manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the national bank or Federal savings association has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the national bank or Federal savings association sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of the national bank's or Federal savings association's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
<br/>(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions and inputs applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions and inputs from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart E of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the national bank or Federal savings association to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An explanation of significant changes to any of the quantitative information set forth below since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total outstanding exposures securitized 
<sup>4</sup> by the national bank or Federal savings association in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 3.141 (categorized into traditional/synthetic), by underlying exposure type 
<sup>5</sup> separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the bank acts only as sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For exposures securitized by the national bank or Federal savings association in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 3.141:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired 
<sup>6</sup>/past due categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the national bank or Federal savings association during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (e.g. SA, SFA, or SSFA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital: And
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by asset type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The national bank or Federal savings association must describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description must be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the national bank or Federal savings association is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles would include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> For example, money market mutual funds should be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, should be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the bank, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the bank's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the bank from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association is required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> A national bank or Federal savings association must include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the bank's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of I/O strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the bank with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 3.173—Operational Risk
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the AMA, including a discussion of relevant internal and external factors considered in the national bank's or Federal savings association's measurement approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A description of the use of insurance for the purpose of mitigating operational risk.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to § 3.173—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to the equity risk of equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those held for other objectives, including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting methodology and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying value on the balance sheet of equity investments, as well as the fair value of those investments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Publicly traded; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Non-publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 and/or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding total capital requirements.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized in the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either in the balance sheet or through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> This disclosure must include a breakdown of equities that are subject to the 0 percent, 20 percent, 100 percent, 300 percent, 400 percent, and 600 percent risk weights, as applicable. </P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to § 3.173—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 3.172(b), a national bank or Federal savings association described in § 3.172(d) must make the disclosures described in Table 13 to § 3.173; provided, however, the disclosures required under this paragraph are required without regard to whether the national bank or Federal savings association has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d). The national bank or Federal savings association must make these disclosures publicly available beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to § 3.173—Supplementary Leverage Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Dollar amounts in thousands
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tril
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thou
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 1: Summary comparison of accounting assets and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 Total consolidated assets as reported in published financial statements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 Adjustment for investments in banking, financial, insurance or commercial entities that are consolidated for accounting purposes but outside the scope of regulatory consolidation
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Adjustment for fiduciary assets recognized on balance sheet but excluded from total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Adjustment for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Adjustment for repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Adjustment for off-balance sheet exposures (that is, conversion to credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet exposures)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 Other adjustments
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 Total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 2: Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">On-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 On-balance sheet assets (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 LESS: Amounts deducted from tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Total on-balance sheet exposures (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions) (sum of lines 1 and 2)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Derivative exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Current exposure for derivative exposures (that is, net of cash variation margin)


</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Add-on amounts for potential future exposure (PFE) for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Gross-up for cash collateral posted if deducted from the on-balance sheet assets, except for cash variation margin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 LESS: Deductions of receivable assets for cash variation margin posted in derivative transactions, if included in on-balance sheet assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 LESS: Exempted CCP leg of client-cleared transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 Effective notional principal amount of sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 LESS: Effective notional principal amount offsets and PFE adjustments for sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Total derivative exposures (sum of lines 4 to 10)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Repo-style transactions</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 On-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions, except include the gross value of receivables for reverse repurchase transactions. Exclude from this item the value of securities received in a security-for-security repo-style transaction where the securities lender has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received. Include in this item the value of securities that qualified for sales treatment that must be reversed
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 LESS: Reduction of the gross value of receivables in reverse repurchase transactions by cash payables in repurchase transactions under netting agreements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 Counterparty credit risk for all repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 Exposure for repo-style transactions where a banking organization acts as an agent
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 Total exposures for repo-style transactions (sum of lines 12 to 15)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Other off-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 Off-balance sheet exposures at gross notional amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 LESS: Adjustments for conversion to credit equivalent amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19 Off-balance sheet exposures (sum of lines 17 and 18)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Capital and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 Tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 Total leverage exposure (sum of lines 3, 11, 16 and 19)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22 Supplementary leverage ratio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">(in percent)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P> 

</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57743, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41418, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4238, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59265, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 4413, Jan. 24, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.174-3.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.5.23.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.174-3.200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Risk-Weighted Assets—Market Risk</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.201" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.201   Purpose, applicability, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart F establishes risk-based capital requirements for national banks or Federal savings associations with significant exposure to market risk, provides methods for these national banks or Federal savings associations to calculate their standardized measure for market risk and, if applicable, advanced measure for market risk, and establishes public disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart F applies to any national bank or Federal savings association with aggregate trading assets and trading liabilities (as reported in the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent quarterly [regulatory report]), equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent or more of quarter-end total assets as reported on the most recent quarterly [Call Report or FR Y-9C]; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $1 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may apply this subpart to any national bank or Federal savings association if the OCC deems it necessary or appropriate because of the level of market risk of the national bank or Federal savings association or to ensure safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may exclude a national bank or Federal savings association that meets the criteria of paragraph (b)(1) of this section from application of this subpart if the OCC determines that the exclusion is appropriate based on the level of market risk of the national bank or Federal savings association and is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> (1) The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under this subpart if the OCC determines that the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under this subpart is not commensurate with the market risk of the national bank's or Federal savings association's covered positions. In making determinations under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures generally in the same manner as the notice and response procedures set forth in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC determines that the risk-based capital requirement calculated under this subpart by the national bank or Federal savings association for one or more covered positions or portfolios of covered positions is not commensurate with the risks associated with those positions or portfolios, the OCC may require the national bank or Federal savings association to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to the positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may also require a national bank or Federal savings association to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under this subpart, or under subpart D or subpart E of this part, as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the OCC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.202" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms set forth in § 3.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 3.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of a national bank's or Federal savings association's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. For purposes of this subpart, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in the price of a commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate debt position</I> means a debt position that is an exposure to a company that is not a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank, a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, a public sector entity, a GSE, or a securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Correlation trading position</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A securitization position for which all or substantially all of the value of the underlying exposures is based on the credit quality of a single company for which a two-way market exists, or on commonly traded indices based on such exposures for which a two-way market exists on the indices; or
</P>
<P>(2) A position that is not a securitization position and that hedges a position described in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(3) A correlation trading position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A resecuritization position;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative of a securitization position that does not provide a pro rata share in the proceeds of a securitization tranche; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A securitization position for which the underlying assets or reference exposures are retail exposures, residential mortgage exposures, or commercial mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Covered position</I> means the following positions:
</P>
<P>(1) A trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet),
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> as reported on Call Report, that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the lender.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The position is a trading position or hedges another covered position; 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> A position that hedges a trading position must be within the scope of the bank's hedging strategy as described in paragraph (a)(2) of section 203 of this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The position is free of any restrictive covenants on its tradability or the national bank or Federal savings association is able to hedge the material risk elements of the position in a two-way market;
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign exchange or commodity position, regardless of whether the position is a trading asset or trading liability (excluding any structural foreign currency positions that the national bank or Federal savings association chooses to exclude with prior supervisory approval); and
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, a covered position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intangible asset, including any servicing asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any hedge of a trading position that the OCC determines to be outside the scope of the national bank's or Federal savings association's hedging strategy required in paragraph (a)(2) of § 3.203;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any position that, in form or substance, acts as a liquidity facility that provides support to asset-backed commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(iv) A credit derivative the national bank or Federal savings association recognizes as a guarantee for risk-weighted asset amount calculation purposes under subpart D or subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Any position that is recognized as a credit valuation adjustment hedge under § 3.132(e)(5) or § 3.132(e)(6), except as provided in § 3.132(e)(6)(vii);
</P>
<P>(vi) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an investment company as defined in and registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), provided that all the underlying equities held by the investment company are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraph (3)(vi) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any position a national bank or Federal savings association holds with the intent to securitize; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Any direct real estate holding.
</P>
<P><I>Debt position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in interest rates or credit spreads.
</P>
<P><I>Default by a sovereign entity</I> has the same meaning as the term sovereign default under § 3.2.
</P>
<P><I>Equity position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in equity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Event risk</I> means the risk of loss on equity or hybrid equity positions as a result of a financial event, such as the announcement or occurrence of a company merger, acquisition, spin-off, or dissolution.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in foreign exchange rates.
</P>
<P><I>General market risk</I> means the risk of loss that could result from broad market movements, such as changes in the general level of interest rates, credit spreads, equity prices, foreign exchange rates, or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Hedge</I> means a position or positions that offset all, or substantially all, of one or more material risk factors of another position.
</P>
<P><I>Idiosyncratic risk</I> means the risk of loss in the value of a position that arises from changes in risk factors unique to that position.
</P>
<P><I>Incremental risk</I> means the default risk and credit migration risk of a position. Default risk means the risk of loss on a position that could result from the failure of an obligor to make timely payments of principal or interest on its debt obligation, and the risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar proceeding. Credit migration risk means the price risk that arises from significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the position.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from movements in market prices.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches that reflect different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) For non-synthetic securitizations, the underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24(Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The OCC may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The OCC may deem an exposure to a transaction that meets the definition of a securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in [12 CFR 208.34 (Board), 12 CFR 9.18 (OCC)]);
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a securitization (including a resecuritization); or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign debt position</I> means a direct exposure to a sovereign entity.
</P>
<P><I>Specific risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from factors other than broad market movements and includes event risk, default risk, and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P><I>Structural position in a foreign currency</I> means a position that is not a trading position and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Subordinated debt, equity, or minority interest in a consolidated subsidiary that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Capital assigned to foreign branches that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(3) A position related to an unconsolidated subsidiary or another item that is denominated in a foreign currency and that is deducted from the national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 or tier 2 capital; or
</P>
<P>(4) A position designed to hedge a national bank's or Federal savings association's capital ratios or earnings against the effect on paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition of adverse exchange rate movements.
</P>
<P><I>Term repo-style transaction</I> means a repo-style transaction that has an original maturity in excess of one business day.
</P>
<P><I>Trading position</I> means a position that is held by the national bank or Federal savings association for the purpose of short-term resale or with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements, or to lock in arbitrage profits.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more positions could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4405, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.203" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.203   Requirements for application of this subpart F.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Trading positions</I>—(1) <I>Identification of trading positions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must have clearly defined policies and procedures for determining which of its trading assets and trading liabilities are trading positions and which of its trading positions are correlation trading positions. These policies and procedures must take into account:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which a position, or a hedge of its material risks, can be marked-to-market daily by reference to a two-way market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Possible impairments to the liquidity of a position or its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading and hedging strategies.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must have clearly defined trading and hedging strategies for its trading positions that are approved by senior management of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(i) The trading strategy must articulate the expected holding period of, and the market risk associated with, each portfolio of trading positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hedging strategy must articulate for each portfolio of trading positions the level of market risk the national bank or Federal savings association is willing to accept and must detail the instruments, techniques, and strategies the national bank or Federal savings association will use to hedge the risk of the portfolio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management of covered positions</I>—(1) <I>Active management.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must have clearly defined policies and procedures for actively managing all covered positions. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must require:
</P>
<P>(i) Marking positions to market or to model on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Daily assessment of the national bank's or Federal savings association's ability to hedge position and portfolio risks, and of the extent of market liquidity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishment and daily monitoring of limits on positions by a risk control unit independent of the trading business unit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Daily monitoring by senior management of information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) At least annual reassessment of established limits on positions by senior management; and
</P>
<P>(vi) At least annual assessments by qualified personnel of the quality of market inputs to the valuation process, the soundness of key assumptions, the reliability of parameter estimation in pricing models, and the stability and accuracy of model calibration under alternative market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valuation of covered positions.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a process for prudent valuation of its covered positions that includes policies and procedures on the valuation of positions, marking positions to market or to model, independent price verification, and valuation adjustments or reserves. The valuation process must consider, as appropriate, unearned credit spreads, close-out costs, early termination costs, investing and funding costs, liquidity, and model risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for internal models.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior written approval of the OCC before using any internal model to calculate its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must meet all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis. The national bank or Federal savings association must promptly notify the OCC when:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association plans to extend the use of a model that the OCC has approved under this subpart to an additional business line or product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association makes any change to an internal model approved by the OCC under this subpart that would result in a material change in the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk-weighted asset amount for a portfolio of covered positions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association makes any material change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may rescind its approval of the use of any internal model (in whole or in part) or of the determination of the approach under § 3.209(a)(2)(ii) for a national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled correlation trading positions and determine an appropriate capital requirement for the covered positions to which the model would apply, if the OCC determines that the model no longer complies with this subpart or fails to reflect accurately the risks of the national bank's or Federal savings association's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its internal models in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance those models as appropriate to ensure that they continue to meet the OCC's standards for model approval and employ risk measurement methodologies that are most appropriate for the national bank's or Federal savings association's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must incorporate its internal models into its risk management process and integrate the internal models used for calculating its VaR-based measure into its daily risk management process.
</P>
<P>(6) The level of sophistication of a national bank's or Federal savings association's internal models must be commensurate with the complexity and amount of its covered positions. A national bank's or Federal savings association's internal models may use any of the generally accepted approaches, including but not limited to variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, to measure market risk.
</P>
<P>(7) The national bank's or Federal savings association's internal models must properly measure all the material risks in the covered positions to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>(8) The national bank's or Federal savings association's internal models must conservatively assess the risks arising from less liquid positions and positions with limited price transparency under realistic market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(9) The national bank or Federal savings association must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal models to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(10) If a national bank or Federal savings association uses internal models to measure specific risk, the internal models must also satisfy the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of § 3.207.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The national bank or Federal savings association must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must validate its internal models initially and on an ongoing basis. The national bank's or Federal savings association's validation process must be independent of the internal models' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the internal models;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and the comparison of the national bank's or Federal savings association's model outputs with relevant internal and external data sources or estimation techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting. For internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure, this process must include a comparison of the changes in the national bank's or Federal savings association's portfolio value that would have occurred were end-of-day positions to remain unchanged (therefore, excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with VaR-based measures during a sample period not used in model development.
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association must stress test the market risk of its covered positions at a frequency appropriate to each portfolio, and in no case less frequently than quarterly. The stress tests must take into account concentration risk (including but not limited to concentrations in single issuers, industries, sectors, or markets), illiquidity under stressed market conditions, and risks arising from the national bank's or Federal savings association's trading activities that may not be adequately captured in its internal models.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the national bank's or Federal savings association's market risk measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and independent risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the national bank's or Federal savings association's measures for market risk under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the national bank's or Federal savings association's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal assessment of capital adequacy.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its market risk. The assessment must take into account risks that may not be captured fully in the VaR-based measure, including concentration and liquidity risk under stressed market conditions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must adequately document all material aspects of its internal models, management and valuation of covered positions, control, oversight, validation and review processes and results, and internal assessment of capital adequacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.204" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.204   Measure for market risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its standardized measure for market risk by following the steps described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association also must calculate an advanced measure for market risk by following the steps in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measure for market risk.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the standardized measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures all as defined under this paragraph (a)(2), (except, that the national bank or Federal savings association may not use the SFA in section 210(b)(2)(vii)(B) of this subpart for purposes of this calculation)[, plus any additional capital requirement established by the OCC]. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notifications from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d) also must calculate the advanced measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures as defined under this paragraph (a)(2) [, plus any additional capital requirement established by the OCC].
</P>
<P>(i) <I>VaR-based capital requirement.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The previous day's VaR-based measure as calculated under § 3.205; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the daily VaR-based measures as calculated under § 3.205 for each of the preceding 60 business days multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stressed VaR-based capital requirement.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's stressed VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent stressed VaR-based measure as calculated under § 3.206; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the stressed VaR-based measures as calculated under § 3.206 for each of the preceding 12 weeks multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific risk add-ons.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk add-ons equal any specific risk add-ons that are required under § 3.207 and are calculated in accordance with § 3.210.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Incremental risk capital requirement.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's incremental risk capital requirement equals any incremental risk capital requirement as calculated under section 208 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's comprehensive risk capital requirement equals any comprehensive risk capital requirement as calculated under section 209 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Capital requirement for de minimis exposures.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The absolute value of the fair value of those <I>de minimis</I> exposures that are not captured in the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure or under paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) With the prior written approval of the OCC, the capital requirement for any <I>de minimis</I> exposures using alternative techniques that appropriately measure the market risk associated with those exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Backtesting.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must compare each of its most recent 250 business days' trading losses (excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with the corresponding daily VaR-based measures calibrated to a one-day holding period and at a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level. A national bank or Federal savings association must begin backtesting as required by this paragraph (b) no later than one year after the later of January 1, 2014 and the date on which the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this subpart. In the interim, consistent with safety and soundness principles, a national bank or Federal savings association subject to this subpart as of January 1, 2014 should continue to follow backtesting procedures in accordance with the OCC's supervisory expectations.
</P>
<P>(1) Once each quarter, the national bank or Federal savings association must identify the number of exceptions (that is, the number of business days for which the actual daily net trading loss, if any, exceeds the corresponding daily VaR-based measure) that have occurred over the preceding 250 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must use the multiplication factor in Table 1 to § 3.204 that corresponds to the number of exceptions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to determine its VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and to determine its stressed VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section until it obtains the next quarter's backtesting results, unless the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that a different adjustment or other action is appropriate.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.204—Multiplication Factors Based on Results of Backtesting
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of exceptions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multiplication factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 or fewer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.205" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.205   VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must use one or more internal models to calculate daily a VaR-based measure of the general market risk of all covered positions. The daily VaR-based measure also may reflect the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk for one or more portfolios of debt and equity positions, if the internal models meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of § 3.207. The daily VaR-based measure must also reflect the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk for any portfolio of correlation trading positions that is modeled under § 3.209. A national bank or Federal savings association may elect to include term repo-style transactions in its VaR-based measure, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association includes all such term repo-style transactions consistently over time.
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's internal models for calculating its VaR-based measure must use risk factors sufficient to measure the market risk inherent in all covered positions. The market risk categories must include, as appropriate, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk. For material positions in the major currencies and markets, modeling techniques must incorporate enough segments of the yield curve—in no case less than six—to capture differences in volatility and less than perfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure may incorporate empirical correlations within and across risk categories, provided the national bank or Federal savings association validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for measuring correlations. If the VaR-based measure does not incorporate empirical correlations across risk categories, the national bank or Federal savings association must add the separate measures from its internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure for the appropriate market risk categories (interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange rate risk, and/or commodity price risk) to determine its aggregate VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) The VaR-based measure must include the risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of options positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the fair value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors. A national bank or Federal savings association with a large or complex options portfolio must measure the volatility of options positions or positions with embedded optionality by different maturities and/or strike prices, where material.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to justify to the satisfaction of the OCC the omission of any risk factors from the calculation of its VaR-based measure that the national bank or Federal savings association uses in its pricing models.
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC the appropriateness of any proxies used to capture the risks of the national bank's or Federal savings association's actual positions for which such proxies are used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for VaR-based measure.</I> (1) The VaR-based measure must be calculated on a daily basis using a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level, and a holding period equivalent to a 10-business-day movement in underlying risk factors, such as rates, spreads, and prices. To calculate VaR-based measures using a 10-business-day holding period, the national bank or Federal savings association may calculate 10-business-day measures directly or may convert VaR-based measures using holding periods other than 10 business days to the equivalent of a 10-business-day holding period. A national bank or Federal savings association that converts its VaR-based measure in such a manner must be able to justify the reasonableness of its approach to the satisfaction of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure must be based on a historical observation period of at least one year. Data used to determine the VaR-based measure must be relevant to the national bank's or Federal savings association's actual exposures and of sufficient quality to support the calculation of risk-based capital requirements. The national bank or Federal savings association must update data sets at least monthly or more frequently as changes in market conditions or portfolio composition warrant. For a national bank or Federal savings association that uses a weighting scheme or other method for the historical observation period, the national bank or Federal savings association must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Use an effective observation period of at least one year in which the average time lag of the observations is at least six months; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate to the OCC that its weighting scheme is more effective than a weighting scheme with an average time lag of at least six months representing the volatility of the national bank's or Federal savings association's trading portfolio over a full business cycle. A national bank or Federal savings association using this option must update its data more frequently than monthly and in a manner appropriate for the type of weighting scheme.
</P>
<P>(c) A national bank or Federal savings association must divide its portfolio into a number of significant subportfolios approved by the OCC for subportfolio backtesting purposes. These subportfolios must be sufficient to allow the national bank or Federal savings association and the OCC to assess the adequacy of the VaR model at the risk factor level; the OCC will evaluate the appropriateness of these subportfolios relative to the value and composition of the national bank's or Federal savings association's covered positions. The national bank or Federal savings association must retain and make available to the OCC the following information for each subportfolio for each business day over the previous two years (500 business days), with no more than a 60-day lag:
</P>
<P>(1) A daily VaR-based measure for the subportfolio calibrated to a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level;
</P>
<P>(2) The daily profit or loss for the subportfolio (that is, the net change in price of the positions held in the portfolio at the end of the previous business day); and
</P>
<P>(3) The p-value of the profit or loss on each day (that is, the probability of observing a profit that is less than, or a loss that is greater than, the amount reported for purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section based on the model used to calculate the VaR-based measure described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.206" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.206   Stressed VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> At least weekly, a national bank or Federal savings association must use the same internal model(s) used to calculate its VaR-based measure to calculate a stressed VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for stressed VaR-based measure.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a stressed VaR-based measure for its covered positions using the same model(s) used to calculate the VaR-based measure, subject to the same confidence level and holding period applicable to the VaR-based measure under § 3.205, but with model inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the national bank's or Federal savings association's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) The stressed VaR-based measure must be calculated at least weekly and be no less than the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the national bank's or Federal savings association's stressed VaR-based measure under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The national bank or Federal savings association must obtain the prior approval of the OCC for, and notify the OCC if the national bank or Federal savings association makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures. The policies and procedures must address:
</P>
<P>(i) How the national bank or Federal savings association links the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure to the composition and directional bias of its current portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's process for selecting, reviewing, and updating the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure and for monitoring the appropriateness of the period to the national bank's or Federal savings association's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section prevents the OCC from requiring a national bank or Federal savings association to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.207" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.207   Specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must use one of the methods in this section to measure the specific risk for each of its debt, equity, and securitization positions with specific risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modeled specific risk.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may use models to measure the specific risk of covered positions as provided in paragraph (a) of section 205 of this subpart (therefore, excluding securitization positions that are not modeled under section 209 of this subpart). A national bank or Federal savings association must use models to measure the specific risk of correlation trading positions that are modeled under § 3.209.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements for specific risk modeling.</I> (i) If a national bank or Federal savings association uses internal models to measure the specific risk of a portfolio, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(A) Explain the historical price variation in the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(B) Be responsive to changes in market conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) Be robust to an adverse environment, including signaling rising risk in an adverse environment; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture all material components of specific risk for the debt and equity positions in the portfolio. Specifically, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Capture event risk and idiosyncratic risk; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Capture and demonstrate sensitivity to material differences between positions that are similar but not identical and to changes in portfolio composition and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a national bank or Federal savings association calculates an incremental risk measure for a portfolio of debt or equity positions under section 208 of this subpart, the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to capture default and credit migration risks in its internal models used to measure the specific risk of those portfolios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific risk fully modeled for one or more portfolios.</I> If the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure captures all material aspects of specific risk for one or more of its portfolios of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the national bank or Federal savings association has no specific risk add-on for those portfolios for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of § 3.204.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific risk not modeled.</I> (1) If the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk for a portfolio of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a specific-risk add-on for the portfolio under the standardized measurement method as described in § 3.210.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a specific risk add-on under the standardized measurement method as described in § 3.210 for all of its securitization positions that are not modeled under § 3.209.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.208" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.208   Incremental risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that measures the specific risk of a portfolio of debt positions under § 3.207(b) using internal models must calculate at least weekly an incremental risk measure for that portfolio according to the requirements in this section. The incremental risk measure is the national bank's or Federal savings association's measure of potential losses due to incremental risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions. With the prior approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may choose to include portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model, provided that it consistently includes such equity positions in a manner that is consistent with how the national bank or Federal savings association internally measures and manages the incremental risk of such positions at the portfolio level. If equity positions are included in the model, for modeling purposes default is considered to have occurred upon the default of any debt of the issuer of the equity position. A national bank or Federal savings association may not include correlation trading positions or securitization positions in its incremental risk measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for incremental risk modeling.</I> For purposes of calculating the incremental risk measure, the incremental risk model must:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure incremental risk over a one-year time horizon and at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(i) A constant level of risk assumption means that the national bank or Federal savings association rebalances, or rolls over, its trading positions at the beginning of each liquidity horizon over the one-year horizon in a manner that maintains the national bank's or Federal savings association's initial risk level. The national bank or Federal savings association must determine the frequency of rebalancing in a manner consistent with the liquidity horizons of the positions in the portfolio. The liquidity horizon of a position or set of positions is the time required for a national bank or Federal savings association to reduce its exposure to, or hedge all of its material risks of, the position(s) in a stressed market. The liquidity horizon for a position or set of positions may not be less than the shorter of three months or the contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<P>(ii) A constant position assumption means that the national bank or Federal savings association maintains the same set of positions throughout the one-year horizon. If a national bank or Federal savings association uses this assumption, it must do so consistently across all portfolios.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank's or Federal savings association's selection of a constant position or a constant risk assumption must be consistent between the national bank's or Federal savings association's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in section 209 of this subpart, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank's or Federal savings association's treatment of liquidity horizons must be consistent between the national bank's or Federal savings association's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in section 209, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Recognize the impact of correlations between default and migration events among obligors.
</P>
<P>(3) Reflect the effect of issuer and market concentrations, as well as concentrations that can arise within and across product classes during stressed conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Reflect netting only of long and short positions that reference the same financial instrument.
</P>
<P>(5) Reflect any material mismatch between a position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(6) Recognize the effect that liquidity horizons have on dynamic hedging strategies. In such cases, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Capture in the incremental risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies.
</P>
<P>(7) Reflect the nonlinear impact of options and other positions with material nonlinear behavior with respect to default and migration changes.
</P>
<P>(8) Maintain consistency with the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal risk management methodologies for identifying, measuring, and managing risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of incremental risk capital requirement.</I> The incremental risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the incremental risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent incremental risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.209" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.209   Comprehensive risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) Subject to the prior approval of the OCC, a national bank or Federal savings association may use the method in this section to measure comprehensive risk, that is, all price risk, for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that measures the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions using internal models must calculate at least weekly a comprehensive risk measure that captures all price risk according to the requirements of this section. The comprehensive risk measure is either:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) A surcharge for the national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled correlation trading positions equal to the total specific risk add-on for such positions as calculated under section 210 of this subpart multiplied by 8.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With approval of the OCC and provided the national bank or Federal savings association has met the requirements of this section for a period of at least one year and can demonstrate the effectiveness of the model through the results of ongoing model validation efforts including robust benchmarking, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank's or Federal savings association's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The total specific risk add-on that would apply to the bank's modeled correlation trading positions as calculated under section 210 of this subpart multiplied by 8.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for modeling all price risk.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association uses an internal model to measure the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions:
</P>
<P>(1) The internal model must measure comprehensive risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(2) The model must capture all material price risk, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The risks associated with the contractual structure of cash flows of the position, its issuer, and its underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit spread risk, including nonlinear price risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) The volatility of implied correlations, including nonlinear price risks such as the cross-effect between spreads and correlations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Basis risk;
</P>
<P>(v) Recovery rate volatility as it relates to the propensity for recovery rates to affect tranche prices; and
</P>
<P>(vi) To the extent the comprehensive risk measure incorporates the benefits of dynamic hedging, the static nature of the hedge over the liquidity horizon must be recognized. In such cases, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(C) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture in the comprehensive risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies;
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association must use market data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the national bank's or Federal savings association's correlation trading positions in order to ensure that the national bank or Federal savings association fully captures the material risks of the correlation trading positions in its comprehensive risk measure in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must be able to demonstrate that its model is an appropriate representation of comprehensive risk in light of the historical price variation of its correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for stress testing.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must at least weekly apply specific, supervisory stress scenarios to its portfolio of correlation trading positions that capture changes in:
</P>
<P>(i) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recovery rates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit spreads;
</P>
<P>(iv) Correlations of underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(v) Correlations of a correlation trading position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other requirements.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must retain and make available to the OCC the results of the supervisory stress testing, including comparisons with the capital requirements generated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association must report to the OCC promptly any instances where the stress tests indicate any material deficiencies in the comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> The comprehensive risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the comprehensive risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent comprehensive risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.210   Standardized measurement method for specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a total specific risk add-on for each portfolio of debt and equity positions for which the national bank's or Federal savings association's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk and for all securitization positions that are not modeled under § 3.209. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate each specific risk add-on in accordance with the requirements of this section. Notwithstanding any other definition or requirement in this subpart, a position that would have qualified as a debt position or an equity position but for the fact that it qualifies as a correlation trading position under paragraph (2) of the definition of correlation trading position in § 3.202, shall be considered a debt position or an equity position, respectively, for purposes of this section 210 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents sold credit protection is capped at the notional amount of the credit derivative contract. The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents purchased credit protection is capped at the current fair value of the transaction plus the absolute value of the present value of all remaining payments to the protection seller under the transaction. This sum is equal to the value of the protection leg of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with linear payoffs, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or index portfolio, except for a securitization position for which the national bank or Federal savings association directly calculates a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section. A swap must be included as an effective notional position in the underlying instrument or portfolio, with the receiving side treated as a long position and the paying side treated as a short position. For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with nonlinear payoffs, a national bank or Federal savings association must risk weight the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or portfolio multiplied by the derivative's delta.
</P>
<P>(3) For debt, equity, or securitization positions, a national bank or Federal savings association may net long and short positions (including derivatives) in identical issues or identical indices. A national bank or Federal savings association may also net positions in depositary receipts against an opposite position in an identical equity in different markets, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association includes the costs of conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) A set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge has a specific risk add-on of zero if:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt or securitization position is fully hedged by a total return swap (or similar instrument where there is a matching of swap payments and changes in fair value of the debt or securitization position);
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the swap and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the swap and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the swap and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in cases where a total return swap references a portfolio of positions with different maturity dates, the total return swap maturity date must match the maturity date of the underlying asset in that portfolio that has the latest maturity date.
</P>
<P>(5) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of paragraph (a)(4) of this section is equal to 20.0 percent of the capital requirement for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on when:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit risk of the position is fully hedged by a credit default swap or similar instrument;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in the case where the credit derivative hedge has a standard maturity date:
</P>
<P>(A) The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is within 30 business days of the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or
</P>
<P>(B) For purchased credit protection, the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is later than the maturity date of the debt or securitization position, but is no later than the standard maturity date for that instrument that immediately follows the maturity date of the debt or securitization position. The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge may not exceed the maturity date of the debt or securitization position by more than 90 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(6) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of either paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section, but in which all or substantially all of the price risk has been hedged, is equal to the specific risk add-on for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debt and securitization positions.</I> (1) The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of debt or securitization positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons for individual debt or securitization positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on for individual debt or securitization positions, a national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short debt or securitization position in the portfolio by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of this section, the appropriate specific risk-weighting factors include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sovereign debt positions.</I> (A) In accordance with Table 1 to § 3.210, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, or if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign, based on whether the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subpart, sovereign debt positions that are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States are treated as having a CRC of 0.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Sovereign Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Specific risk-weighting factor 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may assign to a sovereign debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the applicable specific risk-weighting factor in Table 1 to § 3.210 if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The position is denominated in the sovereign entity's currency;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The national bank or Federal savings association has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The sovereign entity allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign the lower specific risk-weighting factor to the same exposures to the sovereign entity.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position immediately upon determination a default has occurred; or if a default has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(D) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certain supranational entity and multilateral development bank debt positions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>GSE debt positions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 1.6 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a GSE. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Depository institution, foreign bank, and credit union debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution, a foreign bank, or a credit union, in accordance with Table 2 to § 3.210, based on the CRC that corresponds to that entity's home country or the OECD membership status of that entity's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the entity's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 3.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Depository Institution, Foreign Bank, and Credit Union Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution or a foreign bank that is includable in the depository institution's or foreign bank's regulatory capital and that is not subject to deduction as a reciprocal holding under § 3.22.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determination that a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred or if a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PSE debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v)(B) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a PSE in accordance with Tables 3 and 4 to § 3.210 depending on the position's categorization as a general obligation or revenue obligation based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, as set forth in Tables 3 and 4 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A national bank or Federal savings association may assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 and 4 of this section to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The PSE's home country allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor to such position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The specific risk-weighting factor is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Tables 3 and 4 of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a PSE debt position immediately upon determination that a default by the PSE's home country has occurred or if a default by the PSE's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 3.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for PSE General Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">General obligation specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 3.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for PSE Revenue Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Revenue obligation specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-1 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 2-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) <I>Corporate debt positions.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a corporate debt position in accordance with the investment grade methodology in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Investment grade methodology.</I> (<I>1</I>) For corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that have issued and outstanding publicly traded instruments, a national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor based on the category and remaining contractual maturity of the position, in accordance with Table 5 to § 3.210. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>), the national bank or Federal savings association must determine whether the position is in the investment grade or not investment grade category.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 3.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Corporate Debt Positions Under the Investment Grade Methodology
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining contractual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specific risk-weighting factor
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor for corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that do not have publicly traded instruments outstanding.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> (<I>1</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of at least 8.0 percent to an interest-only mortgage-backed security that is not a securitization position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association shall not assign a corporate debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the specific risk-weighting factor that corresponds to the CRC of the issuer's home country, if applicable, in table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Securitization positions.</I> (A) General requirements. (<I>1</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a securitization position using either the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section (and § 3.211) or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a specific risk add-on for a securitization position in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section if the national bank or Federal savings association and the securitization position each qualifies to use the SFA in § 3.143. A national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association with a securitization position that does not qualify for the SFA under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section may assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the securitization position using the SSFA in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association must treat a short securitization position as if it is a long securitization position solely for calculation purposes when using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>SFA.</I> To calculate the specific risk add-on for a securitization position using the SFA, a national bank or Federal savings association that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must set the specific risk add-on for the position equal to the risk-based capital requirement as calculated under § 3.143.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with § 3.211.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must determine a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section, or assign a specific risk-weighting factor using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(D), regardless of whether the national bank or Federal savings association is a net protection buyer or net protection seller. A national bank or Federal savings association must determine its position in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of determining the specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the specific risk-weighting factor for an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its position as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's position to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific add-on for its position in an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the credit enhancement level (L) input to the SFA formula in section 143 of this subpart. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's position. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the national bank's or Federal savings association's position.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's position in the n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific risk add-on for its position in an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative, parameter D must be set to equal the L input plus the thickness of tranche T input to the SFA formula in § 3.143 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A national bank or Federal savings association that does not use the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to determine a specific risk-add on, or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to determine a specific risk-weighting factor for its position in an n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Modeled correlation trading positions.</I> For purposes of calculating the comprehensive risk measure for modeled correlation trading positions under either paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (a)(2)(ii) of § 3.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk add-ons for each net long correlation trading position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk add-ons for each net short correlation trading position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-modeled securitization positions.</I> For securitization positions that are not correlation trading positions and for securitizations that are correlation trading positions not modeled under § 3.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk add-ons for each net long securitization position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's specific risk add-ons for each net short securitization position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equity positions.</I> The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of equity positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons of the individual equity positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on of individual equity positions, a national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as determined under this paragraph (e):
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent. For equity positions that are index contracts comprising a well-diversified portfolio of equity instruments, the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short position is multiplied by a specific risk-weighting factor of 2.0 percent.
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> A portfolio is well-diversified if it contains a large number of individual equity positions, with no single position representing a substantial portion of the portfolio's total fair value.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) For equity positions arising from the following futures-related arbitrage strategies, a national bank or Federal savings association may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to one side (long or short) of each position with the opposite side exempt from an additional capital requirement:
</P>
<P>(i) Long and short positions in exactly the same index at different dates or in different market centers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Long and short positions in index contracts at the same date in different, but similar indices.
</P>
<P>(3) For futures contracts on main indices that are matched by offsetting positions in a basket of stocks comprising the index, a national bank or Federal savings association may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to the futures and stock basket positions (long and short), provided that such trades are deliberately entered into and separately controlled, and that the basket of stocks is comprised of stocks representing at least 90.0 percent of the capitalization of the index. A main index refers to the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the national bank or Federal savings association can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that the equities represented in the index have liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads comparable to equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization positions.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization position that would materially affect the performance of the position by conducting and documenting the analysis set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. The national bank's or Federal savings association's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization position and the materiality of the position in relation to capital.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding for each securitization position by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization position prior to acquiring the position and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring position, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the position, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization positions, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for each securitization position.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4405, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.211" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.211   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, a national bank or Federal savings association must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A national bank or Federal savings association that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position using the SSFA, a national bank or Federal savings association must have accurate information on the five inputs to the SSFA calculation described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the position. Except as provided in § 3.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the position of the national bank or Federal savings association to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the position that contains the national bank's or Federal savings association's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the position would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 3.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization positions that are <I>pari passu</I> with the position (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization positions that are not resecuritization positions and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a position as described in this paragraph (c) and paragraph (d) of this section. The specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a securitization position, or portion of a position, as appropriate, is the larger of the specific risk-weighting factor determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a specific risk-weighting factor of 1.6 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization position is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the position must be assigned a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization position is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the specific risk-weighting factor is a weighted-average of 1.00 and K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated under paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For the purpose of this calculation:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight assigned to 1.00 equals
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.057.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.212" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.212   Market risk disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must comply with this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or a depository institution that is subject to these requirements or of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. A national bank or Federal savings association must make timely public disclosures each calendar quarter. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reporting amounts are no longer reflective of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be provided as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter may be disclosed annually, provided any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. If a national bank or Federal savings association believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public certain information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the national bank or Federal savings association is not required to disclose these specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed. The national bank's or Federal savings association's management may provide all of the disclosures required by this section in one place on the national bank's or Federal savings association's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure policy.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses the national bank's or Federal savings association's approach for determining its market risk disclosures. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management must ensure that appropriate verification of the disclosures takes place and that effective internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures are maintained. One or more senior officers of the national bank or Federal savings association must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart, and the board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> (1) For each material portfolio of covered positions, the national bank or Federal savings association must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The high, low, and mean VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(ii) The high, low, and mean stressed VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the stressed VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iii) The high, low, and mean incremental risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the incremental risk capital requirement at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iv) The high, low, and mean comprehensive risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the comprehensive risk capital requirement at period-end, with the period-end requirement broken down into appropriate risk classifications (for example, default risk, migration risk, correlation risk);
</P>
<P>(v) Separate measures for interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk used to calculate the VaR-based measure; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A comparison of VaR-based estimates with actual gains or losses experienced by the national bank or Federal savings association, with an analysis of important outliers.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the national bank or Federal savings association must disclose publicly the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate amount of on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet securitization positions by exposure type; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate amount of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> For each material portfolio of covered positions, the national bank or Federal savings association must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, or more frequently in the event of material changes for each portfolio:
</P>
<P>(1) The composition of material portfolios of covered positions;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's valuation policies, procedures, and methodologies for covered positions including, for securitization positions, the methods and key assumptions used for valuing such positions, any significant changes since the last reporting period, and the impact of such change;
</P>
<P>(3) The characteristics of the internal models used for purposes of this subpart. For the incremental risk capital requirement and the comprehensive risk capital requirement, this must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The approach used by the national bank or Federal savings association to determine liquidity horizons;
</P>
<P>(ii) The methodologies used to achieve a capital assessment that is consistent with the required soundness standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific approaches used in the validation of these models;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the approaches used for validating and evaluating the accuracy of internal models and modeling processes for purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) For each market risk category (that is, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk), a description of the stress tests applied to the positions subject to the factor;
</P>
<P>(6) The results of the comparison of the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal estimates for purposes of this subpart with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development;
</P>
<P>(7) The soundness standard on which the national bank's or Federal savings association's internal capital adequacy assessment under this subpart is based, including a description of the methodologies used to achieve a capital adequacy assessment that is consistent with the soundness standard;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the national bank's or Federal savings association's processes for monitoring changes in the credit and market risk of securitization positions, including how those processes differ for resecuritization positions; and
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the national bank's or Federal savings association's policy governing the use of credit risk mitigation to mitigate the risks of securitization and resecuritization positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 3.213-3.299" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.6.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 3.213-3.299   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Transition Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.300" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.300   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation and countercyclical capital buffer.</I> (1) From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2015, a national bank or Federal savings association is not subject to limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 3.11 of subpart B of this part notwithstanding the amount of its capital conservation buffer or any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2018 a national bank's or Federal savings association's maximum payout ratio shall be determined as set forth in Table 1 to § 3.300.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 3.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition
<br/>period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio (as a percentage of eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.469 percent (plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent (plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.156 percent (plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.156 percent (plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.25 percent (plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent (plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.875 percent (plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent (plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 1.406 percent (plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.406 percent (plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.469 percent (plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent (plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying capital instruments.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1)-(3) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Depository institutions.</I> (i) Beginning on January 1, 2014, a depository institution that is an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association, and beginning on January 1, 2015, all other depository institutions, may include in regulatory capital debt or equity instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010 that do not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in § 3.20 but that were included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital respectively as of September 12, 2010 (non-qualifying capital instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010) up to the percentage of the outstanding principal amount of such non-qualifying capital instruments as of January 1, 2014 in accordance with Table 9 to § 3.300.
</P>
<P>(ii) Table 9 to § 3.300 applies separately to tier 1 and tier 2 non-qualifying capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of non-qualifying capital instruments that cannot be included in additional tier 1 capital under this section may be included in tier 2 capital without limitation, provided that the instruments meet the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under § 3.20(d).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 3.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period (calendar year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of non-qualifying capital instruments includable in additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2019</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2020</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2021</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2022 and thereafter</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prompt corrective action.</I> For purposes of 12 CFR part 6, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its capital measures and tangible equity ratio in accordance with the transition provisions in this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may apply the treatment under §§ 3.21 and 3.22(c)(2), (5), (6), and (d)(2) applicable to an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association during the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2020. During the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, a national bank or Federal savings association that makes such an election must deduct 80 percent of the amount otherwise required to be deducted under § 3.22(d)(2) and must apply a 100 percent risk weight to assets not deducted under § 3.22(d)(2). In addition, during the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, a national bank or Federal savings association that makes such an election must include in its regulatory capital 20 percent of any minority interest that exceeds the amount of minority interest includable in regulatory capital under § 3.21 as it applies to an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association. A national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must apply the treatment under §§ 3.21 and 3.22 applicable to a national bank or Federal savings association that is not an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association beginning April 1, 2020, and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>SA-CCR.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may use CEM rather than SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 3.34(a) and 3.132(c) until January 1, 2022. An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must provide prior notice to the OCC if it decides to begin using SA-CCR before January 1, 2022. On January 1, 2022, and thereafter, an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association must use SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 3.34(a), 3.132(c), and 3.133(d). Once an advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association has begun to use SA-CCR, the advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association may not change to use CEM.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Default fund contributions.</I> Prior to January 1, 2022, a national bank or Federal savings association that calculates the exposure amounts of its derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk in § 3.132(c) may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP under either method 1 under § 3.35(d)(3)(i) or method 2 under § 3.35(d)(3)(ii), rather than under § 3.133(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62157, 62273, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 55315, Nov. 21, 2017; 84 FR 35258, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 61807, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4414, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.301" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.301   Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL) transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CECL transition provision.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings organization may elect to use a CECL transition provision pursuant to this section only if the national bank or Federal savings association records a reduction in retained earnings due to the adoption of CECL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that elects to use the CECL transition provision must elect to use the CECL transition provision in the first Call Report that includes CECL filed by the national bank or Federal savings association after it adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association that does not elect to use the CECL transition provision as of the first Call Report that includes CECL filed as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not elect to use the CECL transition provision in subsequent reporting periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transition period</I> means the three-year period beginning the first day of the fiscal year in which a national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL and reflects CECL in its first Call Report filed after that date; or, for the 2020 CECL transition provision under paragraph (d) of this section, the five-year period beginning on the earlier of the date a national bank or Federal savings association was required to adopt CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP (as in effect January 1, 2020), or the first day of the fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year in which the national bank or Federal savings association files regulatory reports that include CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CECL transitional amount</I> means the difference, net of any DTAs, in the amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's retained earnings as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL from the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's retained earnings as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the national bank's or Federal savings association's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DTA transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL from the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the national bank's or Federal savings association's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>AACL transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL and the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's ALLL as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the national bank's or Federal savings association's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligible credit reserves transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible credit reserves as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL from the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible credit reserves as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the national bank's or Federal savings association's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the three-year CECL transition provision.</I> (1) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an advanced approaches or Category III national bank or Federal savings association must make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition provision, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>2020 CECL transition provision.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that adopts CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP as of the first day of a fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year may elect to use the transitional amounts and modified transitional amounts in paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to adjust its calculation of regulatory capital ratios during each quarter of the transition period in which a national bank or Federal savings association uses CECL for purposes of its Call Report. A national bank or Federal savings association may use the transition provision in this paragraph (d) if it has a positive modified CECL transitional amount during any quarter ending in 2020, and makes the election in the Call Report filed for the same quarter. A national bank or Federal savings association that does not calculate a positive modified CECL transitional amount in any quarter is not required to apply the adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios in paragraph (d)(2) of this section in that quarter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modified CECL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Modified AACL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the national bank or Federal savings association adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of 2020 CECL transition provision.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase retained earnings by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(B) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one-hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(C) Decrease amounts of AACL by one-hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by one hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(D) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches or Category III national bank or Federal savings association that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one-hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible credit reserves shortfall.</I> An advanced approaches national bank or Federal savings association that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the OCC pursuant to § 3.121(d), and whose amount of expected credit loss exceeded its eligible credit reserves immediately prior to the adoption of CECL, and that has an increase in common equity tier 1 capital as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which it adopts CECL after including the first year portion of the CECL transitional amount (or modified CECL transitional amount) must decrease its CECL transitional amount (or modified CECL transitional amount) used in paragraph (c) of this section by the full amount of its DTA transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Business combinations.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, for purposes of this paragraph (f), in the event of a business combination involving a national bank or Federal savings association where one or both of the national banks or Federal savings associations have elected the treatment described in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) If the acquirer national bank or Federal savings association (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, the acquirer national bank or Federal savings association must continue to use the transitional amounts (unaffected by the business combination) that it calculated as of the date that it adopted CECL through the end of its transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquired insured depository institution (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, any transitional amount of the acquired insured depository institution does not transfer to the resulting national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 61586, Sept. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.302" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.302   Exposures related the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, a national bank or federal savings association may exclude exposures acquired pursuant to a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, announced by the Board on March 18, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable. For the purpose of this provision, a national bank's or federal savings association's liability under the facility must be reduced by the purchase price of the assets acquired with funds advanced from the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16236, Mar. 23, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.303" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.303   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.304" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.304   Temporary exclusions from total leverage exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, and notwithstanding any other requirement in this part, a national bank or Federal savings association, when calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter for purposes of determining the national bank's or Federal savings association's total leverage exposure under § 3.10(d), may exclude the balance sheet carrying value of the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. Treasury securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Funds on deposit at a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in period.</I> Before applying the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must first notify the OCC before July 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of relief.</I> When calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter, the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section applies from the beginning of the reporting quarter in which the national bank or Federal savings association filed an opt-in notice through the termination date specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of exclusions.</I> This section shall cease to be effective after the reporting period that ends March 31, 2021.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Custody bank.</I> A custody bank must reduce the amount in § 3.10(c)(2)(x)(A) (to no less than zero) by any amount excluded under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure.</I> Notwithstanding Table 13 to § 3.173, a national bank or Federal savings association that is required to make the disclosures pursuant to § 3.173 must exclude the items excluded pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section from Table 13 to § 3.173.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>OCC approval for distributions.</I> During the calendar quarter beginning on July 1, 2020, and until March 31, 2021, no national bank or Federal savings association that has opted in to the relief provided under paragraph (a) of this section may make a distribution, or create an obligation to make such a distribution, without prior OCC approval. When reviewing a request under this paragraph (g), the OCC will consider all relevant factors, including whether the distribution would be contrary to the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association; the nature, purpose, and extent of the request; and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 32988, June 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 731, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.305" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.7.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.305   Exposures related to the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, a national bank or Federal savings association may exclude exposures pledged as collateral for a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility, announced by the Federal Reserve Board on April 7, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable. For the purpose of this section, a national bank's or Federal savings association's liability under the facility must be reduced by the principal amount of the loans pledged as collateral for funds advanced under the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Establishment of Minimum Capital Ratios for an Individual Bank or Individual Federal Savings Association</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62269, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.401" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.401   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures specified in this subpart are applicable to a proceeding to establish required minimum capital ratios that would otherwise be applicable to a national bank or Federal savings association under subpart B of this part. The OCC is authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1464(s)(2) and 3907(a)(2) to establish such minimum capital requirements for a national bank or Federal savings association as the OCC, in its discretion, deems appropriate in light of the particular circumstances at that national bank or Federal savings association. Proceedings under this subpart also may be initiated to require a national bank or Federal savings association having capital ratios above those set forth in subpart B of this part, or other legal authority to continue to maintain those higher ratios.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.402" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.402   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may require higher minimum capital ratios for an individual national bank or Federal savings association in view of its circumstances. For example, higher capital ratios may be appropriate for:
</P>
<P>(a) A newly chartered national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or Federal savings association receiving special supervisory attention;
</P>
<P>(c) A national bank or Federal savings association that has, or is expected to have, losses resulting in capital inadequacy;
</P>
<P>(d) A national bank or Federal savings association with significant exposure due to the risks from concentrations of credit, certain risks arising from nontraditional activities, or management's overall inability to monitor and control financial and operating risks presented by concentrations of credit and nontraditional activities;
</P>
<P>(e) A national bank or Federal savings association with significant exposure to declines in the economic value of its capital due to changes in interest rates;
</P>
<P>(f) A national bank or Federal savings association with significant exposure due to fiduciary or operational risk;
</P>
<P>(g) A national bank or Federal savings association exposed to a high degree of asset depreciation, or a low level of liquid assets in relation to short term liabilities;
</P>
<P>(h) A national bank or Federal savings association exposed to a high volume of, or particularly severe, problem loans;
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that is growing rapidly, either internally or through acquisitions; or
</P>
<P>(j) A national bank or Federal savings association that may be adversely affected by the activities or condition of its holding company, affiliate(s), or other persons or institutions, including chain banking organizations, with which it has significant business relationships.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.403" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.403   Standards for determination of appropriate individual minimum capital ratios.</HEAD>
<P>The appropriate minimum capital ratios for an individual national bank or Federal savings association cannot be determined solely through the application of a rigid mathematical formula or wholly objective criteria. The decision is necessarily based in part on subjective judgment grounded in agency expertise. The factors to be considered in the determination will vary in each case and may include, for example:
</P>
<P>(a) The conditions or circumstances leading to the OCC's determination that higher minimum capital ratios are appropriate or necessary for the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(b) The exigency of those circumstances or potential problems;
</P>
<P>(c) The overall condition, management strength, and future prospects of the national bank or Federal savings association and, if applicable, its holding company and/or affiliate(s);
</P>
<P>(d) The national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity, capital, risk asset and other ratios compared to the ratios of its peer group; and
</P>
<P>(e) The views of the national bank's or Federal savings association's directors and senior management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.404" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.404   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> When the OCC determines that minimum capital ratios above those set forth in subpart B of this part or other legal authority are necessary or appropriate for a particular national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC will notify the national bank or Federal savings association in writing of the proposed minimum capital ratios and the date by which they should be reached (if applicable) and will provide an explanation of why the ratios proposed are considered necessary or appropriate for the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response.</I> (1) The national bank or Federal savings association may respond to any or all of the items in the notice. The response should include any matters which the national bank or Federal savings association would have the OCC consider in deciding whether individual minimum capital ratios should be established for the national bank or Federal savings association, what those capital ratios should be, and, if applicable, when they should be achieved. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated OCC official within 30 days after the date on which the national bank or Federal savings association received the notice. The OCC may shorten the time period when, in the opinion of the OCC, the condition of the national bank or Federal savings association so requires, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association is informed promptly of the new time period, or with the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association. In its discretion, the OCC may extend the time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the OCC shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed minimum capital ratios or the deadline for their achievement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> After the close of the national bank's or Federal savings association's response period, the OCC will decide, based on a review of the national bank's or Federal savings association's response and other information concerning the national bank or Federal savings association, whether individual minimum capital ratios should be established for the national bank or Federal savings association and, if so, the ratios and the date the requirements will become effective. The national bank or Federal savings association will be notified of the decision in writing. The notice will include an explanation of the decision, except for a decision not to establish individual minimum capital requirements for the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of plan.</I> The decision may require the national bank or Federal savings association to develop and submit to the OCC, within a time period specified, an acceptable plan to reach the minimum capital ratios established for the national bank or Federal savings association by the date required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change in circumstances.</I> If, after the OCC's decision in paragraph (c) of this section, there is a change in the circumstances affecting the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital adequacy or its ability to reach the required minimum capital ratios by the specified date, the national bank or Federal savings association may propose to the OCC, or the OCC may propose to the national bank or Federal savings association, a change in the minimum capital ratios for the national bank or Federal savings association, the date when the minimums must be achieved, or the national bank's or Federal savings association's plan (if applicable). The OCC may decline to consider proposals that are not based on a significant change in circumstances or are repetitive or frivolous. Pending a decision on reconsideration, the OCC's original decision and any plan required under that decision shall continue in full force and effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.405" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.8.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.405   Relation to other actions.</HEAD>
<P>In lieu of, or in addition to, the procedures in this subpart, the required minimum capital ratios for a national bank or Federal savings association may be established or revised through a written agreement or cease and desist proceedings under 12 U.S.C. 1818 (b) or (c) (12 CFR part 19) or as a condition for approval of an application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62269, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Enforcement</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62269, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.501" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.9.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.501   Remedies.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank or Federal savings association that does not have or maintain the minimum capital ratios applicable to it, whether required in subpart B of this part, in a decision pursuant to subpart H of this part, in a written agreement or temporary or final order under 12 U.S.C. 1818 (b) or (c), or in a condition for approval of an application, or a national bank or Federal savings association that has failed to submit or comply with an acceptable plan to attain those ratios, will be subject to such administrative action or sanctions as the OCC considers appropriate. These sanctions may include the issuance of a Directive pursuant to subpart J of this part or other enforcement action, assessment of civil money penalties, and/or the denial, conditioning, or revocation of applications. A national bank's or Federal savings association's failure to achieve or maintain minimum capital ratios in subpart B of this part may also be the basis for an action by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation to terminate Federal deposit insurance. See 12 CFR part 308, subpart F.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Issuance of a Directive</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62269, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.601" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.601   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is applicable to proceedings by the OCC to issue a directive under 12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2) or 12 U.S.C. 1464(s), as appropriate. A directive is an order issued to a national bank or Federal savings association that does not have or maintain capital at or above the minimum ratios set forth in subpart B of this part, or established for the national bank or Federal savings association under subpart H of this part, by a written agreement under 12 U.S.C. 1818(b), or as a condition for approval of an application. A directive may order the national bank or Federal savings association to:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve the minimum capital ratios applicable to it by a specified date;
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to a previously submitted plan to achieve the applicable capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(3) Submit and adhere to a plan acceptable to the OCC describing the means and time schedule by which the national bank or Federal savings association shall achieve the applicable capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(4) Take other action, such as reduction of assets or the rate of growth of assets, or restrictions on the payment of dividends, to achieve the applicable capital ratios; or
</P>
<P>(5) A combination of any of these or similar actions.
</P>
<P>(b) A directive issued under this rule, including a plan submitted under a directive, is enforceable under the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(i) in the same manner and to the same extent as an effective and outstanding cease and desist order issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b) that has become final. Violation of a directive may result in assessment of civil money penalties in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3909(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62269, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.602" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.602   Notice of intent to issue a directive.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC will notify a national bank or Federal savings association in writing of its intention to issue a directive. The notice will state:
</P>
<P>(a) Reasons for issuance of the directive; and
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed contents of the directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.603" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.603   Response to notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank or Federal savings association may respond to the notice by stating why a directive should not be issued and/or by proposing alternative contents for the directive. The response should include any matters which the national bank or Federal savings association would have the OCC consider in deciding whether to issue a directive and/or what the contents of the directive should be. The response may include a plan for achieving the minimum capital ratios applicable to the national bank or Federal savings association. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated OCC official within 30 days after the date on which the national bank or Federal savings association received the notice. The OCC may shorten the 30-day time period:
</P>
<P>(1) When, in the opinion of the OCC, the condition of the national bank or Federal savings association so requires, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association shall be informed promptly of the new time period;
</P>
<P>(2) With the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) When the national bank or Federal savings association already has advised the OCC that it cannot or will not achieve its applicable minimum capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(b) In its discretion, the OCC may extend the time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the OCC shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.604" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.604   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>After the closing date of the national bank's or Federal savings association's response period, or receipt of the national bank's or Federal savings association's response, if earlier, the OCC will consider the national bank's or Federal savings association's response, and may seek additional information or clarification of the response. Thereafter, the OCC will determine whether or not to issue a directive, and if one is to be issued, whether it should be as originally proposed or in modified form.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.605" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.605   Issuance of a directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A directive will be served by delivery to the national bank or Federal savings association. It will include or be accompanied by a statement of reasons for its issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) A directive is effective immediately upon its receipt by the national bank or Federal savings association, or upon such later date as may be specified therein, and shall remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, or terminated by the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.606" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.606   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>Upon a change in circumstances, a national bank or Federal savings association may request the OCC to reconsider the terms of its directive or may propose changes in the plan to achieve the national bank's or Federal savings association's applicable minimum capital ratios. The OCC also may take such action on its own motion. The OCC may decline to consider requests or proposals that are not based on a significant change in circumstances or are repetitive or frivolous. Pending a decision on reconsideration, the directive and plan shall continue in full force and effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 3.607" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.10.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.607   Relation to other administrative actions.</HEAD>
<P>A directive may be issued in addition to, or in lieu of, any other action authorized by law, including cease and desist proceedings, civil money penalties, or the conditioning or denial of applications. The OCC also may, in its discretion, take any action authorized by law, in lieu of a directive, in response to a national bank's or Federal savings association's failure to achieve or maintain the applicable minimum capital ratios.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Interpretations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62272, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 3.701" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.3.11.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 3.701   Capital and surplus.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining statutory limits that are based on the amount of a national bank's <I>capital</I> and/or <I>surplus,</I> the provisions of this section are to be used, rather than the definitions of capital contained in subparts A through J of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Capital.</I> The term <I>capital</I> as used in provisions of law relating to the capital of national banks shall include the amount of common stock outstanding and unimpaired plus the amount of perpetual preferred stock outstanding and unimpaired.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital Stock.</I> The term <I>capital stock</I> as used in provisions of law relating to the capital stock of national banks, other than 12 U.S.C. 101, 177, and 178 shall have the same meaning as the term <I>capital</I> set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Surplus.</I> The term <I>surplus</I> as used in provisions of law relating to the surplus of national banks means the sum of paragraphs (c)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Capital surplus; undivided profits; reserves for contingencies and other capital reserves (excluding accrued dividends on perpetual and limited life preferred stock); net worth certificates issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1823(i); minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries; and allowances for loan and lease losses; minus intangible assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Mortgage servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Mandatory convertible debt to the extent of 20 percent of the sum of paragraphs (a) and (c) (1) and (2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Other mandatory convertible debt, limited life preferred stock and subordinated notes and debentures to the extent set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unimpaired surplus fund.</I> The term <I>unimpaired surplus fund</I> as used in provisions of law relating to the unimpaired surplus fund of national banks shall have the same meaning as the term <I>surplus</I> set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Allowance for loan and lease losses</I> means the balance of the valuation reserve on December 31, 1968, plus additions to the reserve charged to operations since that date, less losses charged against the allowance net of recoveries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital surplus</I> means the total of those accounts reflecting:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts paid in in excess of the par or stated value of capital stock;
</P>
<P>(ii) Amounts contributed to the national bank other than for capital stock;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amounts transferred from undivided profits pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 60; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other amounts transferred from undivided profits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intangible assets</I> means those purchased assets that are to be reported as intangible assets in accordance with the <I>Instructions—Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income</I> (Call Report).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited life preferred stock</I> means preferred stock which has a maturity or which may be redeemed at the option of the holder.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mandatory convertible debt</I> means subordinated debt instruments which unqualifiedly require the issuer to exchange either common or perpetual preferred stock for such instruments by a date at or before the maturity of the instrument. The maturity of these instruments must be 12 years or less. In addition, the instrument must meet the requirements of paragraphs (f)(1)(i) through (v) of this section for subordinated notes and debentures or other requirements published by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Minority interest in consolidated subsidiaries</I> means the portion of equity capital accounts of all consolidated subsidiaries of the national bank that is allocated to minority shareholders of such subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Mortgage servicing assets</I> means the national bank-owned rights to service for a fee mortgage loans that are owned by others.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Perpetual preferred stock</I> means preferred stock that does not have a stated maturity date and cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirements and restrictions: Limited life preferred stock, mandatory convertible debt, and other subordinated debt</I>—(1) <I>Requirements.</I> Issues of limited life preferred stock and subordinated notes and debentures (except mandatory convertible debt) shall have original weighted average maturities of at least five years to be included in the definition of <I>surplus.</I> In addition, a subordinated note or debenture must also:
</P>
<P>(i) Be subordinated to the claims of depositors;
</P>
<P>(ii) State on the instrument that it is not a deposit and is not insured by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be unsecured;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be ineligible as collateral for a loan by the issuing national bank;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide that once any scheduled payments of principal begin, all scheduled payments shall be made at least annually and the amount repaid in each year shall be no less than in the prior year; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide that no prepayment (including payment pursuant to an acceleration clause or redemption prior to maturity) shall be made without prior OCC approval unless the national bank remains an eligible bank, as defined in 12 CFR 5.3, after the prepayment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions.</I> The total amount of mandatory convertible debt not included in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, limited life preferred stock, and subordinated notes and debentures considered as surplus is limited to 50 percent of the sum of paragraphs (a) and (c) (1), (2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The OCC expressly reserves the authority to waive the requirements and restrictions set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section, in order to allow the inclusion of other limited life preferred stock, mandatory convertible notes and subordinated notes and debentures in the capital base of any national bank for capital adequacy purposes or for purposes of determining statutory limits. The OCC further expressly reserves the authority to impose more stringent conditions than those set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section to exclude any component of tier 1 or tier 2 capital, in whole or in part, as part of a national bank's capital and surplus for any purpose.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transitional rules.</I> (1) Equity commitment notes approved by the OCC as capital and issued prior to April 15, 1985, may continue to be included in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. All other instruments approved by the OCC as capital and issued prior to April 15, 1985, are to be included in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets (other than mortgage servicing assets) purchased prior to April 15, 1985, and accounted for in accordance with OCC instructions, may continue to be included as surplus up to 25 percent of the sum of paragraphs (a) and (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62272, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 80434, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 4—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS, AVAILABILITY AND RELEASE OF INFORMATION, CONTRACTING OUTREACH PROGRAM, POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTIONS FOR SENIOR EXAMINERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 161, 481, 482, 484(a), 1442, 1462a, 1463, 1464 1817(a), 1818, 1820, 1821, 1831m, 1831p-1, 1831o, 1833e, 1867, 1951 <I>et seq.,</I> 2601 <I>et seq.,</I> 2801 <I>et seq.,</I> 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3401 <I>et seq.,</I> 5321, 5412, 5414; 15 U.S.C. 77uu(b), 78q(c)(3); 18 U.S.C. 641, 1905, 1906; 29 U.S.C. 1204; 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2), 9701; 42 U.S.C. 3601; 44 U.S.C. 3506, 3510; E.O. 12600 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Organization and Functions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the organization and functions of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), and provides the OCC's principal addresses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.2   Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC is charged with assuring the safety and soundness of, and compliance with laws and regulations, fair access to financial services, and fair treatment of customers by, the institutions and other persons subject to its jurisdiction. The OCC examines, supervises, and regulates national banks, Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks, and Federal savings associations to carry out this mission. The OCC also issues rules and regulations applicable to state savings associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.3   Comptroller of the Currency.</HEAD>
<P>The Comptroller of the Currency (Comptroller), as head of the OCC, is responsible for all OCC programs and functions. The Comptroller is appointed by the President, by and with the advice and consent of the Senate, for a term of five years. The Comptroller serves as a member of the board of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a member of the Financial Stability Oversight Council, a member of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, and a member of the board of the Neighborhood Reinvestment Corporation. The Comptroller is advised and assisted by OCC staff, who perform the duties and functions that the Comptroller directs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.4   Washington office and web site.</HEAD>
<P>The Washington office of the OCC is the main office and headquarters of the OCC. The Washington office directs OCC policy, oversees OCC operations, and is responsible for the direct supervision of certain national banks and Federal savings associations, including the largest national banks and the largest Federal savings associations (through the Large Bank Supervision Department); other national banks and Federal savings associations requiring special supervision; and Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks (through the Large Bank Supervision Department). The Washington office is located at 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. The OCC's Web site is at <I>http://www.occ.gov.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.5   Other OCC supervisory offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Midsize Bank Supervision (MBS).</I> Midsize Bank Supervision is responsible for supervising midsize national banks and Federal savings associations that present unique supervisory challenges based on size, complexity, and/or product line. MBS is headquartered in Chicago, IL and located at 425 South Financial Place, Suite 1700, Chicago, IL 60605.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>District offices.</I> Each district office of the OCC is responsible for the direct supervision of the national banks and Federal savings associations in its district, with the exception of the national banks and Federal savings associations supervised by the Washington office pursuant to § 4.4 of this part or Midsize Bank Supervision pursuant to § 4.5(a). The four district offices cover the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands. The geographical composition of each district follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">District
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Office location
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Geographical composition
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Northeastern District</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 340 Madison Avenue, 5th Floor, New York, NY 10173-0002</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, northeast Kentucky, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, North Carolina, Pennsylvania, Puerto Rico, Rhode Island, South Carolina, Vermont, the Virgin Islands, Virginia, and West Virginia.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Central District</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, One Financial Place, Suite 2700, 440 South LaSalle Street, Chicago, IL 60605</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Illinois, Indiana, central and southern Kentucky, Michigan, northern and eastern Minnesota, eastern Missouri, North Dakota, Ohio, and Wisconsin.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Southern District</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 500 North Akard Street, Suite 1600, Dallas, TX 75201</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Louisiana, Mississippi, Oklahoma, Tennessee, and Texas.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Western District</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 1225 17th Street, Suite 300, Denver, CO 80202</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, California, Colorado, Guam, Hawaii, Idaho, Iowa, Kansas, southwestern Minnesota, western Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Mexico, Northern Mariana Islands, Oregon, South Dakota, Utah, Washington, and Wyoming.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Field offices and other supervisory offices.</I> Field offices and other supervisory offices support the bank and savings association supervision responsibilities of the district offices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 83726, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.6   Frequency of examination of national banks and Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The OCC examines national banks and Federal savings associations pursuant to authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 481 (with respect to national banks) and 1463(a)(1) and 1464 (with respect to Federal savings associations) and the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1820(d) (with respect to national banks and Federal savings associations). The OCC is required to conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of every national bank and Federal savings association at least once during each 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>18-month rule for certain small institutions.</I> The OCC may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of a national bank or a Federal savings association at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank or Federal savings association has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(2) The bank or Federal savings association is well capitalized as defined in part 6 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) At the most recent examination;
</P>
<P>(i) The bank or Federal savings association was assigned a rating of 1 or 2 for management as part of the bank's or association's rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or Federal savings association was assigned a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System;
</P>
<P>(4) The bank or Federal savings association currently is not subject to a formal enforcement proceeding or order by the FDIC, OCC, OTS or the Federal Reserve System; and
</P>
<P>(5) No person acquired control of the bank or Federal savings association during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope, on-site examination would have been required but for this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> This section does not limit the authority of the OCC to examine any national bank or Federal savings association as frequently as the agency deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) Through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the 18-month rule described in paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC may determine the total assets of a national bank or Federal savings association by reference to the total assets of the national bank or Federal savings association as reported by the national bank or Federal savings association in its Call Report as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 10068, Feb. 29, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77359, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.7   Frequency of examination of Federal agencies and branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The OCC examines Federal agencies and Federal branches (as these entities are defined in § 28.11 (g) and (h), respectively, of this chapter) pursuant to the authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 3105(c)(1)(C). Except as noted in paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC will conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of every Federal branch and agency at least once during each 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>18-month rule for certain small institutions</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory standards.</I> The OCC may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the Federal branch or agency:
</P>
<P>(i) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has received a composite ROCA supervisory rating (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination;
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the requirements of either paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) or (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The foreign bank's most recently reported capital adequacy position consists of, or is equivalent to, common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios that satisfy the definition of “well capitalized” set forth at 12 CFR 6.4, respectively, on a consolidated basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) The branch or agency has maintained on a daily basis, over the past three quarters, eligible assets in an amount not less than 108 percent of the preceding quarter's average third party liabilities (determined consistent with applicable federal and state law), and sufficient liquidity is currently available to meet its obligations to third parties;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not subject to a formal enforcement action or order by the Federal Reserve Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(v) Has not experienced a change in control during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope, on-site examination would have been required but for this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discretionary standards.</I> In determining whether a Federal branch or agency that meets the standards of paragraph (b)(1) of this section should not be eligible for an 18-month examination cycle pursuant to this paragraph (b), the OCC may consider additional factors, including whether:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the individual components of the ROCA rating of the Federal branch or agency is rated “3” or worse;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of any off-site supervision indicate a deterioration in the condition of the Federal branch or agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) The size, relative importance, and role of a particular office when reviewed in the context of the foreign bank's entire U.S. operations otherwise necessitate an annual examination; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The condition of the foreign bank gives rise to such a need.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section limits the authority of the OCC to examine any Federal branch or agency as frequently as the OCC deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) Through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the 18-month rule described in paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC may determine total assets of a Federal branch or agency by reference to the total assets of the Federal branch or agency as reported by the Federal branch or agency as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 10068, Feb. 29, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77359, Dec. 2, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.1.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.8   Service of process upon the OCC or the Comptroller.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section apply to service of process upon the OCC, the Comptroller acting in their official capacity, officers (officials who are not employees of the OCC, such as an administrative law judge (ALJ) or employees of the OCC who are sued in their official capacity), and officers or employees of the OCC who are sued in an individual capacity for an act or omission occurring in connection with duties performed on the behalf of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Actions in Federal courts.</I> Service of process for actions in Federal courts should be made upon the OCC, the Comptroller, or officers or employees of the OCC under the procedures set forth in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure governing the service of process upon the United States and its agencies, corporations, officers, or employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Actions in State courts.</I> Service of process for actions in State courts should be made upon the OCC, the Comptroller, or officers or employees of the OCC by sending copies of the summons and complaint by registered or certified mail, same day courier service, or overnight delivery service to the Chief Counsel, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. In these actions, parties also are encouraged to provide copies of the summons and complaint to the appropriate United States Attorney in accordance with the procedures set forth in Rule 4(i) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receipt of summons or complaint.</I> Only the Washington, DC headquarters office of the OCC is authorized to accept service of a summons or complaint. The OCC, the Comptroller, and officers or employees of the OCC must be served with a copy of the summons or complaint at the Washington, DC headquarters office in accordance with paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service of process upon a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.</I> The OCC is not an agent for service of process upon a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank. Parties seeking to serve a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank must serve the summons or complaint upon the institution in accordance with the laws and procedures for the court in which the action has been filed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Availability of Information Under the Freedom of Information Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.11   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets forth the standards, policies, and procedures that the OCC applies in administering the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552) to facilitate the OCC's interaction with the banking and savings association industries and the public. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart describes the information that the FOIA requires the OCC to disclose to the public (§ 4.12), and the three methods by which the OCC discloses that information under the FOIA (§§ 4.13, 4.14, and 4.15). 
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart also sets forth predisclosure notice procedures that the OCC follows, in accordance with Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235), when the OCC receives a request under § 4.15 for disclosure of records that arguably are exempt from disclosure as confidential commercial information (§ 4.16). Finally, this subpart describes the fees that the OCC assesses for the services it renders in providing information under the FOIA (§ 4.17). 
</P>
<P>(3) This subpart does not apply to a request for records pursuant to the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a). A person requesting records from the OCC pursuant to the Privacy Act should refer to 31 CFR part 1, subpart C, and appendix J of subpart C. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011; 81 FR 94244, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.12   Information available under the FOIA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided by the FOIA, OCC and Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) records are available to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions from availability.</I> The following records, or portions thereof, are exempt from disclosure under the FOIA: 
</P>
<P>(1) A record that is specifically authorized, under criteria established by an Executive order, to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and that is properly classified pursuant to that Executive order; 
</P>
<P>(2) A record relating solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency; 
</P>
<P>(3) A record specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552b), provided that the statute requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; establishes particular criteria for withholding, or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; and, if enacted after the date of enactment of the OPEN FOIA Act of 2009, specifically cites to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) A record that is privileged or contains trade secrets, or commercial or financial information, furnished in confidence, that relates to the business, personal, or financial affairs of any person (see § 4.16 for notice requirements regarding disclosure of confidential commercial information); 
</P>
<P>(5) An intra-agency or interagency memorandum or letter not routinely available by law to a private party in litigation, including memoranda, reports, and other documents prepared by OCC employees, and records of deliberations and discussions at meetings of OCC employees, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested;
</P>
<P>(6) A personnel, medical, or similar record, including a financial record, or any portion thereof, where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) A record or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the OCC reasonably believes that producing the record or information may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deprive a person of the right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any private institution that furnished information on a confidential basis; 
</P>
<P>(v) Disclose information furnished by a confidential source, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure reasonably could be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Endanger the life or physical safety of any individual; 
</P>
<P>(8) A record contained in or related to an examination, operating, or condition report prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the OCC or any other agency responsible for regulating or supervising financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(9) A record containing or relating to geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discretionary disclosure of exempt records.</I> Even if a record is exempt under paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC may elect, on a case-by-case basis, not to apply the exemption to the requested record. The OCC's election not to apply an exemption to a requested record has no precedential significance as to the application or nonapplication of the exemption to any other requested record, regardless of who requests the record or when the OCC receives the request. The OCC will provide predisclosure notice to submitters of confidential commercial information in accordance with § 4.16. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Segregability.</I> If the OCC determines that full disclosure of a requested record is not possible, the OCC considers whether partial disclosure of information is possible and takes reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information. The OCC will note the location and extent of any deletion, and identify the FOIA exemption under which material has been deleted, on the released portion of the material, unless doing so would harm an interest protected by the exemption under paragraph (b) of this section pursuant to which the deletion was made. Where technically feasible, the amount of information redacted and the exemption pursuant to which the redaction was made will be indicated at the site(s) of the deletion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 17850, Apr. 8, 2010; 76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011; 81 FR 94244, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.13   Publication in the Federal Register.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC publishes certain documents in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Proposed and final rules; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Certain notices and policy statements of concern to the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.14   Public inspection in an electronic format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available information.</I> Subject to the exemptions listed in § 4.12(b), the OCC makes the following information available for public inspection in an electronic format:
</P>
<P>(1) Any final order, agreement, or other enforceable document issued in the adjudication of an OCC enforcement case, including a final order published pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(u);
</P>
<P>(2) Any final opinion issued in the adjudication of an OCC enforcement case;
</P>
<P>(3) Any statement of general policy or interpretation of general applicability not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(4) Any administrative staff manual or instruction to staff that may affect a member of the public as such;
</P>
<P>(5) A current index identifying the information referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section issued, adopted, or promulgated after July 4, 1967;
</P>
<P>(6) A list of available OCC publications;
</P>
<P>(7) A list of forms available from the OCC, and specific forms and instructions; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Some forms and instructions that national banks and Federal savings associations use are not available from the OCC. The OCC will provide information on where persons may obtain these forms and instructions upon request.</P></FTNT>
<P>(8) Any public Community Reinvestment Act performance evaluation;
</P>
<P>(9) Any public securities-related filing required under part 11 or 16 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(10) Any public comment letter regarding a proposed rule;
</P>
<P>(11) Any records, regardless of form or format, that have been released to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC determines that, because of the nature of their subject matter, the records are or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The records have been requested three or more times;
</P>
<P>(12) Reference materials or a guide for requesting records or information from the OCC, including an index of all major OCC information systems, a description of major information and record locator systems maintained by the OCC, and a handbook for obtaining various types and categories of public information from the OCC pursuant to FOIA and chapter 35 of title 44;
</P>
<P>(13) The public file (as defined in 12 CFR 5.9) with respect to a pending application described in part 5 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(14) Any OTS information similar to that listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(13) of this section, to the extent this information is in the possession of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redaction of identifying details.</I> To the extent necessary to prevent an invasion of personal privacy, the OCC may redact identifying details from any information described in paragraph (a) of this section before making the information available for public inspection in an electronic format. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Addresses.</I> The information described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (14) of this section is available from the Chief FOIA Officer, Communications Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. The information described in paragraph (a)(13) of this section in the case of both national banks and Federal savings associations is available from the Licensing Manager at the appropriate district office at the address listed in § 4.5(a), or in the case of national banks and Federal savings associations supervised by the Large Bank Supervision Department, from the Large Bank Licensing Expert, Licensing Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 81 FR 94244, Dec. 23, 2016; 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.15   How to request records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available information.</I> Subject to the exemptions described in § 4.12(b), any OCC record is available to any person upon specific request in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to submit request or appeal</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a person requesting a record or filing an administrative appeal must submit the request or appeal:
</P>
<P>(i) Through the OCC's FOIA Web portal at <I>https://foia-pal.occ.gov/palMain.aspx;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Through the consolidated online request portal maintained by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(m)(1); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Under this section to the Chief FOIA Officer, Communications Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Records at the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</I> A person requesting any of the following records, other than blank forms (see § 4.14(a)(7)), must submit the request to the FDIC, Legal Division, FOIA/PA Group, 550-17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, or fax to (703) 562-2797:
</P>
<P>(A) Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (FFIEC 031, 032, 033, 034); 
</P>
<P>(B) Annual Report of Trust Assets (FFIEC 001); 
</P>
<P>(C) Uniform Bank Performance Report; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Special Report. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Records of another agency.</I> When the OCC receives a request for records in its possession that another Federal agency either generated or provided to the OCC, the OCC promptly informs the requester and immediately forwards the request to that agency for processing in accordance with that agency's regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for records</I>—(1) <I>Contact information and what the request for records must include.</I> A person requesting records under this section must state, in writing: 
</P>
<P>(i) The requester's full name, address, telephone number and, at the requester's option, electronic mail address. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable description of the records sought (including sufficient detail to enable OCC employees who are familiar with the subject matter of the request to locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement agreeing to pay all fees that the OCC assesses under § 4.17; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of how the requester intends to use the records, if a requester seeks placement in a lower fee category (i.e., a fee category other than “commercial use requester”) under § 4.17; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the requester prefers the OCC to deliver a copy of the records or to allow the requester to inspect the records at the appropriate OCC office. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial determination.</I> The Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate initially determines whether to grant a request for OCC records and notifies the requester, in accordance with the time limits set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, of the determination and the reasons therefore and of the right to seek assistance from the OCC's FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If request is granted.</I> If the OCC grants a request for records, in whole or in part, the OCC promptly discloses the records in one of two ways, depending on the requester's stated preference: 
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC may deliver a copy of the records to the requester. If the OCC delivers a copy of the records to the requester, the OCC duplicates the records at reasonable and proper times that do not interfere with their use by the OCC or preclude other persons from making inspections; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may allow the requester to inspect the records at reasonable and proper times that do not interfere with their use by the OCC or preclude other persons from making inspections. If the OCC allows the requester to inspect the records, the OCC may place a reasonable limit on the number of records that a person may inspect during a day. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>If request is denied.</I> If the OCC denies a request for records, in whole or in part, the OCC will notify the requester in writing. The notification is dated and contains a brief statement of the reasons for the denial, sets forth the name and title or position of the official making the decision, advises the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the OCC's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services, and advises the requester of the right to appeal to the Comptroller of the Currency in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Administrative appeal of a denial</I>—(1) <I>Procedure.</I> A requester must submit an administrative appeal of denial of a request for records in writing within 90 days after the date of the initial determination. The appeal must include the circumstances and arguments supporting disclosure of the requested records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appellate determination.</I> The Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate determines whether to grant an appeal of a denial of a request for OCC records. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>If appeal is granted.</I> If the OCC grants an appeal, in whole or in part, the OCC treats the request as if it were originally granted, in whole or in part, by the OCC in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>If appeal is denied.</I> If the OCC denies an appeal, in whole or in part, the OCC notifies the requester in writing. The notification contains a brief statement of the reasons for the denial, sets forth the name and title or position of the official making the decision, and advises the requester of the right to judicial review of the denial under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Judicial review</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> If the OCC denies an appeal pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section, or if the OCC fails to make a determination within the time limits specified in paragraph (f) of this section, the requester may commence an action to compel disclosure of records, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B), in the United States district court in: 
</P>
<P>(i) The district where the requester resides; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The district where the requester's principal place of business is located; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The district where the records are located; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service of process.</I> In commencing an action described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the requester, in addition to complying with the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. appendix) for service upon the United States or agencies thereof, must serve process on the Chief Counsel or the Chief Counsel's delegate at the following location: Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street, SW., Washington, DC 20219. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time limits for responding to FOIA requests.</I> (1) The OCC makes an initial determination to grant or deny a request for records within 20 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and holidays) after the date of receipt of the request, as described in paragraph (g) of this section, except as stated in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appeal.</I> The OCC makes a determination to grant or deny an administrative appeal within 20 business days after the date of receipt of the appeal, as described in paragraph (g) of this section, except as stated in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of time.</I> The time limits set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section may be extended as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In unusual circumstances.</I> The OCC may extend the time limits in unusual circumstances for a maximum of 10 business days. If the OCC extends the time limits, the OCC provides written notice to the person making the request or appeal, containing the reason for the extension and the date on which the OCC expects to make a determination. Unusual circumstances exist when the OCC requires additional time to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other buildings that are separate from the office processing the request or appeal; 
</P>
<P>(B) Search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of requested records; 
</P>
<P>(C) Consult with another agency that has a substantial interest in the determination of the request; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Allow two or more components of the OCC that have substantial interest in the determination of the request to consult with each other; 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>By agreement.</I> A requester may agree to extend the time limits for any amount of time; 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>By judicial action.</I> If a requester commences an action pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section for failure to comply with the time limits set forth in this paragraph (f), a court with jurisdiction may, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C), allow the OCC additional time to complete the review of the records requested, or
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Tolling of time limits.</I> (A) The OCC may toll the 20-day time period to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Make one request for additional information from the requester; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Clarify the applicability or amount of any fees, if necessary, with the requester.
</P>
<P>(B) The tolling period ends upon the OCC's receipt of requested information from the requester or resolution of the fee issue. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requests that require more than a 10-day extension to process.</I> If the OCC determines unusual circumstances apply to a request for records, and the OCC determines it cannot respond to the request within the 10-day extension set forth in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, the OCC will:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the requester that the request cannot be processed within the time limit set forth in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request so that it may be processed within that 10-day period or to arrange with the OCC an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Make available the FOIA Public Liaison, who shall assist in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notify the requester of the right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Date of receipt of request or appeal.</I> The date of receipt of a request for records or an appeal is the date that Disclosure Services, Communications Division receives a request that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section, except as provided in § 4.17(d). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dispute resolution services.</I> Requesters with concerns about the handling of their FOIA requests may contact the FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services for dispute resolution services.
</P>
<P>(1) To apply for dispute resolution assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison, requesters should submit a written request to the FOIA Public Liaison, Communications Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
</P>
<P>(2) For dispute resolution services through the Office of Government Services, requesters should contact the Office of Government Services as set forth at 36 CFR 1250.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 17850, Apr. 8, 2010; 76 FR 43562, July 21, 2011; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 81 FR 94245, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.16   Predisclosure notice for confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means records that arguably contain material exempt from release under Exemption 4 of the FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4); § 4.12(b)(4)), because disclosure reasonably could cause substantial competitive harm to the submitter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity that provides confidential commercial information to the OCC. This term includes corporations, State governments, foreign governments, and banks and their employees, officers, directors, and principal shareholders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to submitter</I>—(1) <I>When provided.</I> In accordance with Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235), when the OCC receives a request under § 4.15(c) or, where appropriate, an appeal under § 4.15(d) for disclosure of confidential commercial information, the OCC provides a submitter with prompt written notice of the receipt of that request (except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to confidential commercial information submitted to the OCC or to the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, the predecessor of the OTS, prior to January 1, 1988, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The records are less than 10 years old and the submitter designated the information as confidential commercial information; 
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC reasonably believes that disclosure of the information may cause substantial competitive harm to the submitter; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The information is subject to a prior express commitment of confidentiality from the OCC or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, the predecessor of the OTS; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to confidential commercial information submitted to the OCC or to the OTS (or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, its predecessor agency) on or after January 1, 1988, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The submitter in good faith designated the information as confidential commercial information; 
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC or the OTS (or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, its predecessor agency) designated the class of information to which the requested information belongs as confidential commercial information; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The OCC reasonably believes that disclosure of the information may cause substantial competitive harm to the submitter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The OCC generally does not provide notice under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the OCC determines that: 
</P>
<P>(i) It will not disclose the information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information already has been disclosed officially to the public; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC is required by law (other than 5 U.S.C. 552) to disclose the information; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC or the OTS (or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, its predecessor agency) acquired the information in the course of a lawful investigation of a possible violation of criminal law; 
</P>
<P>(v) The submitter had an opportunity to designate the requested information as confidential commercial information at the time of submission of the information or a reasonable time thereafter and did not do so, unless the OCC has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the information would result in competitive harm; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) The OCC determines that the submitter's designation under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section is frivolous; in such case, however, the OCC will provide the submitter with written notice of any final administrative determination to disclose the information at least 10 business days prior to the date that the OCC intends to disclose the information. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of notice.</I> The OCC either describes in the notice the exact nature of the confidential commercial information requested or includes with the notice copies of the records or portions of records containing that information. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expiration of notice period.</I> The OCC provides notice under this paragraph (b) with respect to information that the submitter designated under paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section only for a period of 10 years after the date of the submitter's designation, unless the submitter requests and justifies to the OCC's satisfaction a specific notice period of greater duration. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certification of confidentiality.</I> If possible, the submitter should support the claim of confidentiality with a statement or certification that the requested information is confidential commercial information that the submitter has not disclosed to the public. This statement should be prepared by an officer or authorized representative if the submitter is a corporation or other entity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to requester.</I> If the OCC provides notice to a submitter under paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC notifies the person requesting confidential commercial information (requester) that it has provided notice to the submitter. The OCC also advises the requester that if there is a delay in its decision whether to grant or deny access to the information sought, the delay may be considered a denial of access to the information, and that the requester may proceed with an administrative appeal or seek judicial review. However, the requester may agree to a voluntary extension of time to allow the OCC to review the submitter's objection to disclosure (see § 4.15(f)(3)(ii)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> Within 10 days after receiving notice under paragraph (b) of this section, the submitter may provide the OCC with a detailed statement of objection to disclosure of the information. That statement must specify the grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the FOIA. Any statement that the submitter provides under this paragraph (d) may be subject to disclosure under the FOIA. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> The OCC considers carefully a submitter's objection and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose the requested information. If the OCC decides to disclose information over the objection of the submitter, the OCC provides to the submitter, with a copy to the requester, a written notice that includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the OCC's reasons for not sustaining the submitter's objections to disclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed; 
</P>
<P>(3) The anticipated disclosure date, which is not less than 10 business days after the OCC mails the written notice required under this paragraph (e); and 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the submitter must notify the OCC immediately if the submitter intends to seek injunctive relief. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of requester's lawsuit.</I> Whenever the OCC receives service of process indicating that a requester has brought suit seeking to compel the OCC to disclose information covered by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the OCC promptly notifies the submitter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 43561, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.17   FOIA request fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Actual costs</I> means those expenditures that the OCC incurs in providing services (including searching for, reviewing, and duplicating records) in response to a request for records under § 4.15. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Search</I> means the process of locating a record in response to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within a record. The OCC may perform a search manually or by electronic means. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining a record located in response to a request to determine which portions of that record should be released. It also includes processing a record for disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of copying a record in response to a request. A copy may take the form of a paper copy, microform, audiovisual materials, or machine readable material (e.g., magnetic tape or disk), among others. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Commercial use requester</I> means a person who seeks records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Educational institution requester</I> means a person who seeks records on behalf of a public or private educational institution, including a preschool, an elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education that operates a program of scholarly research. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution requester</I> means a person who is not a “commercial use requester,” as that term is defined in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, and who seeks records on behalf of an institution operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Requester who is a representative of the news media</I> means any person who, or entity that, gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news media entity if the person can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by that entity. A publication contract is one example of a basis for expecting publication that ordinarily would satisfy this standard. The OCC also may consider the past publication record of the requester in determining whether she or he qualifies as a “representative of the news media.” 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The hourly and per page rate that the OCC generally charges requesters is set forth in the “Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees” (Notice) described in 12 CFR 8.8. Any interested person may request a copy of the Notice from the OCC by mail or may obtain a copy at the location described in § 4.14(c). The OCC may contract with a commercial service to search for, duplicate, or disseminate records, provided that the OCC determines that the fee assessed upon a requester is no greater than if the OCC performed the tasks itself. The OCC does not contract out responsibilities that the FOIA provides that the OCC alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption or whether to waive or reduce a fee. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fee categories.</I> The OCC assesses a fee based on the fee category in which the OCC places the requester. If the request states how the requester intends to use the requested records (see § 4.15(c)(1)(iv)), the OCC may place the requester in a lower fee category; otherwise, the OCC categorizes the requester as a “commercial use requester.” If the OCC reasonably doubts the requester's stated intended use, or if that use is not clear from the request, the OCC may place the requester in the “commercial use” category or may seek additional clarification. The fee categories are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial use requesters.</I> The OCC assesses a fee for a requester in this category for the actual cost of search, review, and duplication. A requester in this category does not receive any free search, review, or duplication services. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Educational institution requesters, noncommercial scientific institution requesters, and requesters who are representatives of the news media.</I> The OCC assesses a fee for a requester in this category for the actual cost of duplication. A requester in this category receives 100 free pages. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>All other requesters.</I> The OCC assesses a fee for a requester who does not fit into either of the above categories for the actual cost of search and duplication. A requester in this category receives 100 free pages and two hours of free search time. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special services.</I> The OCC may, in its discretion, accommodate a request for special services. The OCC may recover the actual cost of providing any special services. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Waiving or reducing a fee.</I> The OCC may waive or reduce a fee under this section whenever, in its opinion, disclosure of records is in the public interest because the disclosure: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fee for unsuccessful search.</I> The OCC may assess a fee for time spent searching for records, even if the OCC does not locate the records requested. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>No fee if the time limit passes and the OCC has not responded to the request.</I> The OCC will not assess search or duplication fees, as applicable, if it fails to respond to a requester's FOIA request within the time limits specified under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6) and 12 CFR 4.15(f), except as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unusual circumstances</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> If the OCC has determined that unusual circumstances (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and § 4.15(f)(3)(i)) apply and the OCC provides timely written notice to the requester in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), the OCC may assess search or duplication fees, as applicable, for an additional 10 days. If the OCC fails to comply with the extended time limit, the OCC will not assess any search or duplication fees, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Voluminous Requests.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A) of this section, if the OCC has determined that unusual circumstances (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and § 4.15(f)(3)(i)) apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the OCC may assess search or duplication fees, as appropriate, if the OCC provides a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and discusses with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or makes not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>In exceptional circumstances.</I> If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances (as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(C)) apply to the processing of a request, the OCC may assess search or duplication fees, as applicable, for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of fees</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The OCC generally assesses a fee when it delivers the records in response to the request, if any. A requester must send payment within 30 calendar days of the billing date to the Financial Management, Accounts Receivable, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fee likely to exceed $25.</I> If the OCC estimates that a fee is likely to exceed $25, the OCC notifies the requester of the estimated fee, unless the requester has indicated in advance a willingness to pay a fee as high as the estimated fee. If so notified by the OCC, the requester may confer with OCC employees to revise the request to reflect a lower fee. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fee likely to exceed $250.</I> If the OCC estimates that a fee is likely to exceed $250, the OCC notifies the requester of the estimated fee. In this circumstance, the OCC may require, as a condition to processing the request, that the requester: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide satisfactory assurance of full payment, if the requester has a history of prompt payment; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay the estimated fee in full, if the requester does not have a history of prompt payment. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to pay a fee.</I> If the requester fails to pay a fee within 30 days of the date of the billing, the OCC may require, as a condition to processing any further request, that the requester pay any unpaid fee, plus interest (as provided in paragraph (c)(5) of this section), and any estimated fee in full for that further request. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Interest on unpaid fee.</I> The OCC may assess interest charges on an unpaid fee beginning on the 31st day following the billing date. The OCC charges interest at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tolling of time limits.</I> Under the circumstances described in paragraphs (c) (2), (3), and (4) of this section, the time limits set forth in § 4.15(f) (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 business days from the receipt of a request for records and 20 business days from the receipt of an administrative appeal, plus any permissible extension) begin only after the OCC receives a revised request under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, an assurance of payment under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, or the required payments under paragraph (c)(3)(i) or (c)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> When the OCC reasonably believes that a requester or group of requesters is attempting to break a request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of a fee, the OCC may aggregate the requests and assess a fee accordingly. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 75 FR 17850, Apr. 8, 2010; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 81 FR 94245, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.2.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.18   How to track a FOIA request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tracking number</I>—(1) <I>Internet requests.</I> The OCC will issue a tracking number to all FOIA requesters automatically upon receipt of the request (as described in § 4.15(g)) by the OCC's Communications Division via the OCC's Freedom of Information Request Portal, <I>https://foia-pal.occ.gov/palMain.aspx.</I> The tracking number will be sent via electronic mail to the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>If a requester does not have Internet access.</I> The OCC will issue a tracking number to FOIA requesters without Internet access within 5 days of the receipt of the request (as described in § 4.15(g)) in the OCC's Communications Division. The OCC will mail the tracking number to the requester's physical address, as provided in the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Status of request.</I> FOIA requesters may track the progress of their requests via the OCC's Freedom of Information Request Portal, <I>https://foia-pal.occ.gov/palMain.aspx.</I> Requesters without Internet access may continue to contact the Chief FOIA Officer, Communications Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, at (202) 649-6700 to check the status of their FOIA request(s).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43562, July 21, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015; 81 FR 94246, Dec. 23, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Release of Non-Public OCC Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.31   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purposes of this subpart are to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Afford an orderly mechanism for the OCC to process expeditiously requests for non-public OCC information; to address the release of non-public OCC information without a request; and, when appropriate, for the OCC to assert evidentiary privileges in litigation;
</P>
<P>(2) Recognize the public's interest in obtaining access to relevant and necessary information and the countervailing public interest of maintaining the effectiveness of the OCC supervisory process and appropriate confidentiality of OCC supervisory information; 
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the OCC's information is used in a manner that supports the public interest and the interests of the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that OCC resources are used in the most efficient manner consistent with the OCC's statutory mission; 
</P>
<P>(5) Minimize burden on national banks, Federal savings associations, the public, and the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(6) Limit the expenditure of government resources for private purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Maintain the OCC's impartiality among private litigants. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart applies to requests for, and dissemination of, non-public OCC information, including requests for records or testimony arising out of civil lawsuits and administrative proceedings to which the OCC is not a party and the release of non-public OCC information without a specific request. Lawsuits and administrative proceedings to which the OCC is not a party include proceedings in which a Federal agency is a party in opposition to the private requester.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A request for a record or testimony in a proceeding in which the OCC is a party; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for a record that is required to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), as described in § 4.12. 
</P>
<P>(3) A request for a record or testimony made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, a government agency of the United States or a foreign government, a state agency with authority to investigate violations of criminal law, or a state bank or state savings association regulatory agency is governed solely by § 4.37(c). 
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of §§ 4.35(a)(1), 4.36(a) and 4.37(c) of this part, the OCC's decision to disclose records or testimony involving a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) filed pursuant to the regulations implementing 12 U.S.C. 5318(g), or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, is governed by 12 CFR 21.11(k).
</P>
<P>(5) This subpart does not apply to requests for non-public information filed with the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) before July 21, 2011. These requests are subject to the rules of the OTS in effect on July 20, 2011.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998; 64 FR 29216, June 1, 1999; 75 FR 75576, Dec. 3, 2010; 76 FR 43562, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.32   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complete request</I> means a request containing sufficient information to allow the OCC to make an informed decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-public OCC information.</I> Non-public OCC information: 
</P>
<P>(1) Means information that the OCC is not required to release under the FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552) or that the OCC has not yet published or made available pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(u) and includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) A record created or obtained:
</P>
<P>(A) By the OCC in connection with the OCC's performance of its responsibilities, such as a record concerning supervision, licensing, regulation, and examination of a national bank, a Federal savings association, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or an affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(B) By the OTS in connection with the OTS's performance of its responsibilities, such as a record concerning supervision, licensing, regulation, and examination of a Federal savings association, a savings and loan holding company, or an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) A record compiled by the OCC or the OTS in connection with either agency's enforcement responsibilities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A report of examination, supervisory correspondence, an investigatory file compiled by the OCC or OTS in connection with an investigation, and any internal agency memorandum, whether the information is in the possession of the OCC or some other individual or entity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Confidential OCC information obtained by a third party or otherwise incorporated in the records of a third party, including another government agency; 
</P>
<P>(v) Testimony from, or an interview with, a current or former OCC employee, officer, or agent or a former OTS employee, officer, or agent concerning information acquired by that person in the course of his or her performance of official duties with the OCC or OTS or due to that person's official status at the OCC or OTS; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Confidential information relating to operating and no longer operating national banks, Federal savings associations, and savings and loan holding companies as well as their subsidiaries and their affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(2) Is the property of the Comptroller. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relevant</I> means could contribute substantially to the resolution of one or more specifically identified issues in the case. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Show a compelling need</I> means, in support of a request for testimony, demonstrate with as much detail as is necessary under the circumstances, that the requested information is relevant and that the relevant material contained in the testimony is not available from any other source. Sources, without limitation, include the books and records of other persons or entities and non-public OCC records that have been, or might be, released. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supervised entity</I> includes a national bank or Federal savings association, a subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association, or a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank licensed by the OCC as defined under 12 CFR 28.11(g) and (h), or any other entity supervised by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Testimony</I> means an interview or sworn testimony on the record. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998; 64 FR 29216, June 1, 1999; 75 FR 75576, Dec. 3, 2010; 76 FR 43562, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.33   Requirements for a request of records or testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally</I>—(1) <I>Form of request.</I> A person seeking non-public OCC information must submit a request in writing to the OCC. The requester must explain, in as detailed a description as is necessary under the circumstances, the bases for the request and how the requested non-public OCC information relates to the issues in the lawsuit or matter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited request.</I> A requester seeking a response in less than 60 days must explain why the request was not submitted earlier and why the OCC should expedite the request. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request arising from adversarial matters.</I> Where the requested information is to be used in connection with an adversarial matter: 
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC generally will require that the lawsuit or administrative action has been filed before it will consider the request; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The request must include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the complaint or other pleading setting forth the assertions in the case; 
</P>
<P>(B) The caption and docket number of the case; 
</P>
<P>(C) The name, address, and phone number of counsel to each party in the case; and 
</P>
<P>(D) A description of any prior judicial decisions or pending motions in the case that may bear on the asserted relevance of the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The request must also: 
</P>
<P>(A) Show that the information is relevant to the purpose for which it is sought; 
</P>
<P>(B) Show that other evidence reasonably suited to the requester's needs is not available from any other source; 
</P>
<P>(C) Show that the need for the information outweighs the public interest considerations in maintaining the confidentiality of the OCC information and outweighs the burden on the OCC to produce the information; 
</P>
<P>(D) Explain how the issues in the case and the status of the case warrant that the OCC allow disclosure; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Identify any other issue that may bear on the question of waiver of privilege by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for records.</I> If the request is for a record, the requester must adequately describe the record or records sought by type and date. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for testimony</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> A requester seeking testimony: 
</P>
<P>(i) Must show a compelling need for the requested information; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Should request OCC testimony with sufficient time to obtain the testimony in deposition form. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trial or hearing testimony.</I> A requester seeking testimony at a trial or hearing must show that a deposition would not suffice. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.34   Where to submit a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>A request for non-public OCC information.</I> A person requesting information under this subpart, requesting authentication of a record under § 4.39(d), or submitting a notification of the issuance of a subpoena or compulsory process under § 4.37, shall send the request or notification to: Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, 400 7th Street, SW., Washington, DC 20219, Attention: Director, Litigation Division. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined requests for non-public and other OCC information.</I> A person requesting public OCC information and non-public OCC information under this subpart may submit a combined request for both to the address in paragraph (a) of this section. If a requester decides to submit a combined request under this section, the OCC will process the combined request under this subpart and not under subpart B of this part (FOIA). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request by government agencies.</I> A request made pursuant to § 4.37(c) must be submitted: 
</P>
<P>(1) In a civil action, to the Director of the OCC's Litigation Division at the Washington office; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In a criminal action, to the appropriate district counsel or the Director of the OCC's Enforcement Division at the Washington office. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 29216, June 1, 1999; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.35   Consideration of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>OCC discretion.</I> The OCC decides whether to release non-public OCC information based on its weighing of all appropriate factors including the requestor's fulfilling of the requirements enumerated in § 4.33. Each decision is at the sole discretion of the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate and is a final agency decision. OCC action on a request for non-public OCC information exhausts administrative remedies for discovery of the information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bases for denial.</I> The OCC may deny a request for non-public OCC information for reasons that include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The requester was unsuccessful in showing that the information is relevant to the pending matter; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester seeks testimony and the requestor did not show a compelling need for the information; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The request arises from an adversarial matter and other evidence reasonably suited to the requester's need is available from another source; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A lawsuit or administrative action has not yet been filed and the request was made in connection with potential litigation; 
</P>
<P>(v) The production of the information would be contrary to the public interest or unduly burdensome to the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(vi) When prohibited by law. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> A requester must submit a complete request. The OCC may require the requester to provide additional information to complete a request. Consistent with the purposes stated in § 4.31, the OCC may inquire into the circumstances of any case underlying the request and rely on sources of information other than the requester, including other parties. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Time required by the OCC to respond.</I> The OCC generally will process requests in the order in which they are received. The OCC will notify the requester in writing of the final decision. Absent exigent or unusual circumstances, the OCC will respond to a request within 60 days from the date that the OCC receives a request that it deems a complete request. Consistent with § 4.33(a)(2), the OCC weighs a request to respond to provide information in less than 60 days against the unfairness to other requesters whose pending requests may be delayed and the burden imposed on the OCC by the expedited processing. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice to subject national banks and Federal savings associations.</I> Following receipt of a request for non-public OCC information, the OCC generally notifies the national bank or Federal savings association that is the subject of the requested information, unless the OCC, in its discretion, determines that to do so would advantage or prejudice any of the parties in the matter at issue. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testimony.</I> (1) The OCC generally will not authorize a current OCC employee to provide expert or opinion evidence for a private party. 
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may restrict the scope of any authorized testimony and may act to ensure that the scope of testimony given by the OCC employee adheres to the scope authorized by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(3) Once a request for testimony has been submitted, and before the requested testimony occurs, a party to the relevant case, who did not join in the request and who wishes to question the witness beyond the scope of testimony sought by the request, shall timely submit the party's own request for OCC information pursuant to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(4) The OCC may offer the requester the employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Release of non-public OCC information by others.</I> In appropriate cases, the OCC may respond to a request for information by authorizing a party to the case who is in possession of non-public OCC information to release the information to the requester. An OCC authorization to release records does not preclude the party in possession from asserting its own privilege, arguing that the records are not relevant, or asserting any other argument for which it has standing to protect the records from release. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, 75 FR 75576, Dec. 3, 2010; 76 FR 43563, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.36   Disclosure of non-public OCC information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary disclosure of non-public OCC information.</I> The OCC may make non-public OCC information available to a supervised entity and to other persons, that in the sole discretion of the Comptroller may be necessary or appropriate, without a request for records or testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>OCC policy.</I> It is the OCC's policy regarding non-public OCC information that such information is confidential and privileged. Accordingly, the OCC will not normally disclose this information to third parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions and limitations.</I> The OCC may impose any conditions or limitations on disclosures under this section, including the restrictions on dissemination contained in § 4.38, that it determines are necessary to effect the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unauthorized disclosures prohibited.</I> All non-public OCC information remains the property of the OCC. No supervised entity, government agency, person, or other party to whom the information is made available, or any officer, director, employee, or agent thereof, may disclose non-public OCC information without the prior written permission of the OCC, except in published statistical material that does not disclose, either directly or when used in conjunction with other publicly available information, the affairs of any individual, corporation, or other entity. Except as authorized by the OCC, no person obtaining access to non-public OCC information under this section may make a copy of the information and no person may remove non-public OCC information from the premises of the institution, agency, or other party in authorized possession of the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 29216, June 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.37   Persons and entities with access to OCC information; prohibition on dissemination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Current and former OCC employees or agents; former OTS employees or agents</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Except as authorized by this subpart or otherwise by the OCC, no current or former OCC employee or agent or former OTS employee or agent, may, in any manner, disclose or permit the disclosure of any non-public OCC information to anyone other than an employee or agent of the Comptroller for use in the performance of OCC duties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duty of person served.</I> Any current or former OCC employee or agent or former OTS employee or agent, subpoenaed or otherwise requested to provide information covered by this subpart must immediately notify the OCC as provided in this paragraph. The OCC may intervene, attempt to have the compulsory process withdrawn, and register appropriate objections when a current or former OCC employee or agent or former OTS employee or agent, receives a subpoena and the subpoena requires the current or former employee or agent to appear or produce OCC information. If necessary, the current or former employee or agent must appear as required and respectfully decline to produce the information sought, citing this subpart as authority and United States ex rel. Touhy v. Ragen, 340 U.S. 462 (1951). The current or former OCC employee or agent or former OTS employee or agent, must immediately notify the OCC if subpoenaed or otherwise asked for non-public OCC information:
</P>
<P>(i) In a civil action, by notifying the Director of the OCC's Litigation Division at the Washington office; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In a criminal action, by notifying the appropriate district counsel for current and former district employees or agents; or the Director of the OCC's Enforcement Division at the Washington office, for current and former Washington employees or agents and former OTS employees or agents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-OCC employees or entities</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> (i) Without OCC approval, no person, national bank, Federal savings association, or other entity, including one in lawful possession of non-public OCC information under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, may disclose information covered by this subpart in any manner, except: 
</P>
<P>(A) After the requester has sought the information from the OCC pursuant to the procedures set forth in this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(B) As ordered by a Federal court in a judicial proceeding in which the OCC has had the opportunity to appear and oppose discovery. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who discloses or uses non-public OCC information except as expressly permitted by the Comptroller of the Currency or as ordered by a Federal court, under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for national banks and Federal savings associations.</I> When necessary or appropriate for business purposes, a national bank, Federal savings association, or holding company, or any director, officer, or employee thereof, may disclose non-public OCC information, including information contained in, or related to, OCC reports of examination, to a person or organization officially connected with the bank or Federal savings association as officer, director, employee, attorney, auditor, or independent auditor. A national bank, Federal savings association, or holding company or a director, officer, or employee thereof, may also release non-public OCC information to a consultant under this paragraph if the consultant is under a written contract to provide services to the bank or Federal savings association and the consultant has a written agreement with the bank or Federal savings association in which the consultant:
</P>
<P>(i) States its awareness of, and agreement to abide by, the prohibition on the dissemination of non-public OCC information contained in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Agrees not to use the non-public OCC information for any purpose other than as provided under its contract to provide services to the bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duty of person or entity served.</I> Any person, national bank, Federal savings association, or other entity served with a request, subpoena, order, motion to compel, or other judicial or administrative process to provide non-public OCC information shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately notify the Director of the OCC's Litigation Division at the Washington, DC office and inform the Director of all relevant facts, including the documents and information requested, so that the OCC may intervene in the judicial or administrative action if appropriate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the requester of the substance of these rules and, in particular, of the obligation to follow the request procedures in §§ 4.33 and 4.34; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) At the appropriate time, inform the court or tribunal that issued the process of the substance of these rules. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Actions of the OCC following notice of service.</I> Following receipt of notice pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the OCC may direct the requester to comply with §§ 4.33 and 4.34, intervene in the judicial or administrative action, attempt to have the compulsory process withdrawn, or register other appropriate objections. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Return of records.</I> The OCC may require any person in possession of OCC records to return the records to the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure to government agencies.</I> When not prohibited by law, the Comptroller may make available to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and, in the Comptroller's sole discretion, to certain other government agencies of the United States and foreign governments, state agencies with authority to investigate violations of criminal law, and state bank and state savings association regulatory agencies, a copy of a report of examination, testimony, or other non-public OCC information for their use, when necessary, in the performance of their official duties. All non-public OCC information made available pursuant to this paragraph is OCC property, and the OCC may condition its use on appropriate confidentiality protections, including the mechanisms identified in § 4.38. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Intention of OCC not to waive rights.</I> The possession by any of the entities or individuals described in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section of non-public OCC information does not constitute a waiver by the OCC of its right to control, or impose limitations on, the subsequent use and dissemination of the information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995. Redesignated and amended at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998; 64 FR 29217, June 1, 1999; 75 FR 75576, Dec. 3, 2010; 76 FR 43563, July 21, 2011; 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.38   Restrictions on dissemination of released information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> The OCC may condition a decision to release non-public OCC information on entry of a protective order by the court or administrative tribunal presiding in the particular case or, in non-adversarial matters, on a written agreement of confidentiality. In a case in which a protective order has already been entered, the OCC may condition approval for release of non-public OCC information upon the inclusion of additional or amended provisions in the protective order. The OCC may authorize a party who obtained records for use in one case to provide them to another party in another case. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testimony.</I> The OCC may condition its authorization of deposition testimony on an agreement of the parties to appropriate limitations, such as an agreement to keep the transcript of the testimony under seal or to make the transcript available only to the parties, the court, and the jury. Upon request or on its own initiative, the OCC may allow use of a transcript in other litigation. The OCC may require the requester, at the requester's expense, to furnish the OCC with a copy of the transcript. The OCC employee whose deposition was transcribed does not waive his or her right to review the transcript and to note errors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995. Redesignated at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.39   Notification of parties and procedures for sharing and using OCC records in litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility of litigants to notify parties of a request for testimony.</I> Upon submitting a request to the OCC for the testimony of an OCC employee or former OCC or OTS employee, the requester shall notify all other parties to the case that a request has been submitted. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility of litigants to share released records.</I> The requester shall promptly notify other parties to a case of the release of non-public OCC information obtained pursuant to this subpart, and, upon entry of a protective order, shall provide copies of OCC information, including OCC information obtained pursuant to § 4.15, to the other parties. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retrieval and destruction of released records.</I> At the conclusion of an action: 
</P>
<P>(1) The requester shall retrieve any non-public OCC information from the court's file as soon as the court no longer requires the information; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each party shall destroy the non-public OCC information covered by the protective order; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Each party shall certify to the OCC that the non-public OCC information covered by the protective order has been destroyed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authentication for use as evidence.</I> Upon request, the OCC authenticates released records to facilitate their use as evidence. Requesters who require authenticated records or certificates of nonexistence of records should, as early as possible, request certificates from the OCC's Litigation Division pursuant to § 4.34(a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995. Redesignated at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998; 76 FR 43563, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.40   Fees for services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees for records search, copying, and certification.</I> The requester shall pay a fee to the OCC, or to a commercial copier under contract to the OCC, for any records search, copying, or certification in accordance with the standards specified in § 4.17. The OCC may require a requester to remit payment prior to providing the requested information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Witness fees and mileage.</I> A person whose request for testimony of a current OCC employee is approved shall, upon completion of the testimonial appearance, tender promptly to the OCC payment for the witness fees and mileage. The litigant shall compute these amounts in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821. A litigant whose request for testimony of a former OCC employee is approved shall tender promptly to the witness any witness fees or mileage due in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995. Redesignated at 63 FR 62929, Nov. 10, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.3.24.11.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 4—Model Stipulation for Protective Order and Model Protective Order 
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Model Stipulation 
</HD1>
<HD1>CASE CAPTION 
</HD1>
<HD2>Model Stipulation for Protective Order 
</HD2>
<P>Whereas, counsel for ______ have applied to the Comptroller of the Currency (hereinafter “Comptroller”) pursuant to 12 CFR part 4, Subpart C, for permission to have made available, in connection with the captioned action, certain records; and 
</P>
<P>Whereas, such records are deemed by the Comptroller to be confidential and privileged, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 481, 1463(a)(1), 1464(a)(1) and 1464(d)(1)(B)(i); 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8); 18 U.S.C. 641, 1906; and 12 CFR 4.12, and part 4, Subpart C; and 
</P>
<P>Whereas, following consideration by the Comptroller of the application of the above described party, the Comptroller has determined that the particular circumstances of the captioned action warrant making certain possibly relevant records as denoted in appendix “A” to this Stipulation [records to be specified by type and date] available to the parties in this action, provided that appropriate protection of their confidentiality can be secured; 
</P>
<P>Therefore, it is hereby stipulated by and between the parties hereto, through their respective attorneys that they will be bound by the following protective order which may be entered by the Court without further notice. 
</P>
<P>Dated this ______ day of _______, 19__.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Attorney for Plaintiff
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Attorney for Defendant 
</FP>
<HD1>II. Model Protective Order 
</HD1>
<HD1>CASE CAPTION 
</HD1>
<HD2>Model Protective Order 
</HD2>
<P>Whereas, counsel for ______ have applied to the Comptroller of the Currency (hereinafter Comptroller”) pursuant to 12 CFR part 4, Subpart C, for permission to have made available, in connection with the captioned action, certain records; and 
</P>
<P>Whereas, such records are deemed by the Comptroller to be confidential and privileged, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 481, 1463(a)(1), 1464(a)(1) and 1464(d)(1)(B)(i); 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8); 18 U.S.C. 641, 1906; and 12 CFR 4.12, and part 4, Subpart C; 
</P>
<P>Whereas, following consideration by the Comptroller of the application of the above described party, the Comptroller has determined that the particular circumstances of the captioned action warrant making certain possibly relevant records available to the parties in this action, provided that appropriate protection of their confidentiality can be secured; 
</P>
<P>Now, Therefore, it is Ordered That: 
</P>
<P>1. The records, as denoted in appendix “A” to the Stipulation for this Protective Order, upon being furnished [or released for use] by the Comptroller, shall be disclosed only to the parties to this action, their counsel, and the court [and the jury]. 
</P>
<P>2. The parties to this action and their counsel shall keep such records and any information contained in such records confidential and shall in no way divulge the same to any person or entity, except to such experts, consultants and non-party witnesses to whom the records and their contents shall be disclosed, solely for the purpose of properly preparing for and trying the action. 
</P>
<P>3. No person to whom information and records covered by this Order are disclosed shall make any copies or otherwise use such information or records or their contents for any purpose whatsoever, except in connection with this action. 
</P>
<P>4. Any party or other person who wishes to use the information or records or their contents in any other action shall make a separate application to the Comptroller pursuant to 12 CFR part 4, Subpart C. 
</P>
<P>5. Should any records covered by this Order be filed with the Court or utilized as exhibits at depositions in the captioned action, or should information or records or their contents covered by this Order be disclosed in the transcripts of depositions or the trial in the captioned action, such records, exhibits and transcripts shall be filed in sealed envelopes or other sealed containers marked with the title of this action, identifying each document and article therein and bearing a statement substantially in the following form: 
</P>
<HD1>CONFIDENTIAL 
</HD1>
<P>Pursuant to the Order of the Court dated ______ this envelope containing the above-identified papers filed by (the name of the party) is not to be opened nor the contents thereof displayed or revealed except to the parties to this action or their counsel or by further Order of the Court. 
</P>
<P>6. FOR JURY TRIAL: Any party offering any of the records into evidence shall offer only those pages, or portions thereof, that are relevant and material to the issues to be decided in the action and shall block out any portion of any page that contains information not relevant or material. Furthermore, the name of any person or entity contained on any page of the records who is not a party to this action, or whose name is not otherwise relevant or material to the action, shall be blocked out prior to the admission of such page into evidence. Any disagreement regarding what portion of any page that should be blocked out in this manner shall be resolved by the Court <I>in camera,</I> and the Court shall decide its admissibility into evidence. 
</P>
<P>7. At the conclusion of this action, all parties shall certify to the Comptroller that the records covered by this Order have been destroyed. Furthermore, counsel for ______, pursuant to 12 CFR 4.39(c), shall retrieve any records covered by this Order that may have been filed with the Court. 
</P>
<P>So Ordered:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Judge 
</FP>
<P>Date
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 29217, June 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Minority- , Women- , and Individuals With Disabilities-Owned Business Contracting Outreach Program; Contracting for Goods and Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.61" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.61   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, Sec. 1216(c), Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, 529 (12 U.S.C. 1833e(c)) and consistent with the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.</I>), this subpart establishes the OCC Minority- , Women- , and Individuals with Disabilities-Owned Business Contracting Outreach Program (Outreach Program). The Outreach Program is intended to ensure that firms owned and operated by minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities have the opportunity to participate, to the maximum extent possible, in all contracting activities of the OCC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.62" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.62   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minority- and/or women-owned (small and large) businesses and entities owned by minorities and women (MWOB)</I> means firms at least 51 percent unconditionally-owned by one or more members of a minority group or by one or more women who are citizens of the United States. In the case of publicly-owned companies, at least 51 percent of each class of voting stock must be unconditionally-owned by one or more members of a minority group or by one or more women who are citizens of the United States. In the case of a partnership, at least 51 percent of the partnership interest must be unconditionally-owned by one or more members of a minority group or by one or more women who are citizens of the United States. Additionally, for the foregoing cases, the management and daily business operations must be controlled by one or more such individuals. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minority</I> means any African American, Native American (<I>i.e.,</I> American Indian, Eskimo, Aleut and Native Hawaiian), Hispanic American, Asian-Pacific American, or Subcontinent-Asian American. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual with disabilities-owned (small and large) businesses and entities owned by individuals with disabilities (IDOB)</I> means firms at least 51 percent unconditionally-owned by one or more members who are individuals with disabilities and citizens of the United States. In the case of publicly-owned companies, at least 51 percent of each class of voting stock must be unconditionally-owned by one or more members who are individuals with disabilities and who are citizens of the United States. In the case of a partnership, at least 51 percent of the partnership interest must be unconditionally-owned by one or more members who are individuals with disabilities and citizens of the United States. Additionally, for the foregoing cases, the management and daily business operations must be controlled by one or more such individuals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual with disabilities</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of such person's major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. For purposes of this part, it does not include an individual who is currently engaging in the illegal use of drugs nor an individual who has a currently contagious disease or infection and who, by reason of such disease or infection, would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety of other individuals or who, by reason of the currently contagious disease or infection, is unable to perform the duties of the job as defined by the IDOB. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unconditional ownership</I> means ownership that is not subject to conditions or similar arrangements which cause the benefits of the Outreach Program to accrue to persons other than the participating MWOB or IDOB. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.63" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.63   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC's policy is to ensure that MWOBs and IDOBs have the opportunity to participate, to the maximum extent possible, in contracts awarded by the OCC. The OCC awards contracts consistent with the principles of full and open competition and best value acquisition, and with the concept of contracting for agency needs at the lowest practicable cost. The OCC ensures that MWOBs and IDOBs have the opportunity to participate fully in all contracting activities that the OCC enters into for goods and services, whether generated by the headquarters office in Washington, DC, or any other office of the OCC. Contracting opportunities may include small purchase awards, contracts above the small purchase threshold, and delivery orders issued against other governmental agency contracts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.64" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.64   Promotion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The OCC, under the direction of the Deputy Comptroller for Resource Management, engages in promotion and outreach activities designed to identify MWOBs and IDOBs capable of providing goods and services needed by the OCC, to facilitate interaction between the OCC and the MWOBs and IDOBs community, and to indicate the OCC's commitment to doing business with that community. The Outreach Program is designed to facilitate OCC's participation in business promotion events sponsored by other government agencies and attended by minorities, women and individuals with disabilities. Once the OCC has identified a prospective participant, it will assist the minority- or women-owned business or individual with disabilities-owned business in understanding the OCC's needs and contracting process. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outreach activities.</I> OCC's Outreach Program includes the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtaining various lists and directories of MWOBs and IDOBs maintained by government agencies; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contacting appropriate firms for participation in the OCC's Outreach Program; 
</P>
<P>(3) Participating in business promotion events comprised of or attended by MWOBs and IDOBs to explain OCC contracting opportunities and to obtain names of potential MWOBs and IDOBs; 
</P>
<P>(4) Ensuring that the OCC contracting staff understands and actively promotes this Outreach Program; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Registering MWOBs and IDOBs in the Department of the Treasury's database to facilitate their participation in the competitive procurement process for OCC contracts. This database is used by OCC procurement staff to identify firms to be solicited for OCC procurements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.65" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.65   Certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Objective.</I> To preserve the integrity and foster the Outreach Program's objectives, each prospective MWOB or IDOB must demonstrate that it meets the ownership and control requirements for participation in the Outreach Program. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>MWOB.</I> A prospective MWOB may demonstrate its eligibility for participation in the Outreach Program by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting a valid MWOB certification received from another government agency whose definition of MWOB is substantially similar to that specified in § 4.62(a); 
</P>
<P>(2) Self-certifying MWOB ownership status by filing with the OCC a completed and signed certification form as prescribed by the Federal Acquisition Regulation, 48 CFR 53.301-129; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Submitting a valid MWOB certification received from the Small Business Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>IDOB.</I> A prospective IDOB may demonstrate its eligibility for participation in the Outreach Program by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitting a valid IDOB certification received from another government agency whose definition of IDOB is substantially similar to that specified in § 4.62(c); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Self-certifying IDOB ownership status by filing with the OCC a completed and signed certification as prescribed in the Federal Acquisition Regulation, 48 CFR 53.301-129, and adding an additional certifying statement to read as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I certify that I am an individual with disabilities as defined in 12 CFR 4.62(d), and that my firm, (Name of Firm) qualifies as an individual with disabilities-owned business as defined in 12 CFR 4.62(c).</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.66" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.4.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.66   Oversight and monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>The Deputy Comptroller for Resource Management shall appoint an Outreach Program Manager, who shall appoint an Outreach Program Specialist. The Outreach Program Manager is primarily responsible for program advocacy, oversight and monitoring. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—One-Year Restrictions on Post-Employment Activities of Senior Examiners</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 69637, Nov. 17, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.72" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.72   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes those OCC examiners who are subject to the post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) and implements those restrictions for officers and employees of the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.73" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.73   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> means any company that controls a bank (as provided in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P><I>Consultant.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a consultant for a national bank, savings association, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or other company shall include only an individual who works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, such bank, savings association, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or other company.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> has the meaning given in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)) or in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), as applicable under the circumstances. For purposes of this subpart, a foreign bank shall be deemed to control any branch or agency of the foreign bank.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)). For purposes of this subpart, a depository institution includes an uninsured branch or agency of a foreign bank, if such branch or agency is located in any State.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means any foreign bank or company described in section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)).
</P>
<P><I>National bank</I> means a national banking association or a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P><I>Savings association</I> has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means any company that controls a savings association or any other company that is a savings and loan holding company (as provided in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a)).
</P>
<P><I>Senior examiner.</I> For purposes of this subpart, an officer or employee of the OCC is considered to be the “senior examiner” for a particular national bank or savings association if—
</P>
<P>(1) The officer or employee has been authorized by the OCC to conduct examinations on behalf of the OCC;
</P>
<P>(2) The officer or employee has been assigned continuing, broad, and lead responsibility for examining the national bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(3) The officer's or employee's responsibilities for examining the national bank or savings association—
</P>
<P>(i) Represent a substantial portion of the officer's or employee's assigned responsibilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the officer or employee to interact routinely with officers or employees of the national bank or savings association, or its affiliates.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69637, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 43563, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.74" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.74   One-year post-employment restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>An officer or employee of the OCC who serves as the senior examiner of a national bank or savings association for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the OCC may not, within one year after leaving the employment of the OCC, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from the national bank, savings association, or any company (including a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company) that controls the national bank or savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43564, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.75" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.75   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>The post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) and § 4.74 do not apply to any officer or employee of the OCC, or any former officer or employee of the OCC, if the Comptroller of the Currency certifies, in writing and on a case-by-case basis, that granting the individual a waiver of the restrictions would not affect the integrity of the OCC's supervisory program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43564, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.76" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.5.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.76   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties under section 10(k) of FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)).</I> If a senior examiner of a national bank or savings association, after leaving the employment of the OCC, accepts compensation as an employee, officer, director, or consultant from that bank, savings association, or any company (including a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company) that controls that bank or savings association in violation of § 4.74, then the examiner shall, in accordance with section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)), be subject to one of the following penalties—
</P>
<P>(1) An order—
</P>
<P>(i) Removing the individual from office or prohibiting the individual from further participation in the affairs of the relevant national bank, savings association, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or other company that controls such institution for a period of up to five years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibiting the individual from participating in the affairs of any insured depository institution for a period of up to five years; or
</P>
<P>(2) A civil monetary penalty of not more than $250,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement by appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> Violations of § 4.74 shall be administered or enforced by the appropriate Federal banking agency for the depository institution or depository institution holding company that provided compensation to the former senior examiner. For purposes of this paragraph, the appropriate Federal banking agency for a company that is not a depository institution or depository institution holding company shall be the Federal banking agency that formerly employed the senior examiner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of prohibition orders.</I> Any senior examiner who is subject to an order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall, as required by 12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)(B), be subject to paragraphs (6) and (7) of section 8(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(6)-(7)) in the same manner and to the same extent as a person subject to an order issued under section 8(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The procedures applicable to actions under paragraph (a) of this section are provided in section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)) and in 12 CFR part 19.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Remedies not exclusive.</I> The OCC may seek both of the penalties described in paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, a senior examiner who accepts compensation as described in § 4.74 may be subject to other administrative, civil or criminal remedies or penalties as provided in law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57322, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 43564, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Use of Supervisory Guidance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9260, Feb. 12, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.81" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.6.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.81   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This subpart reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this subpart) (Statement).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.82" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.6.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.82   Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance.</HEAD>
<P>The Statement describes the official policy of the OCC with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 4.83" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.6.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.83   Rule of construction.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart does not alter the legal status of guidelines authorized by statute, including but not limited to, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, to create binding legal obligations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.6.24.4.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart F of Part 4—Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD1>
<P>The OCC is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the OCC's approach to supervisory guidance.
</P>
<HD2>Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
</HD2>
<P>(1) The OCC issues various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, bulletins, policy statements, questions and answers, and frequently asked questions, to its supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law.
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the OCC does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the OCC's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the OCC's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the OCC generally considers consistent with safety-and-soundness standards or other applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to the industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> Government agencies issue regulations that generally have the force and effect of law. Such regulations generally take effect only after the agency proposes the regulation to the public and responds to comments on the Proposal in a final rulemaking document.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD2>
<P>(2) The OCC is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the OCC intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The OCC will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
</P>
<P>(ii) Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention), a supervised financial institution for, and the OCC will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of safe and sound conduct, appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices, and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations, financial conditions, or other matters that could have a negative effect on the safety and soundness of the financial institution, could cause consumer harm, or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC has at times sought, and may continue to seek, public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the OCC to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
</P>
<P>(v) The OCC will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
</P>
<P>(vi) The OCC will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourage supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.








</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Enforcement and Supervision Standards</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 18292, Apr. 10, 2026, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 4.91" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.4.7.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 4.91   Prohibition on use of reputation risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC will not criticize, formally or informally, or take adverse action against an institution on the basis of reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC will not require, instruct, or encourage an institution, or any employee of an institution, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Refrain from contracting or doing business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk;
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate a contract or discontinue doing business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Sign a contract or initiate doing business with a third-party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk; or
</P>
<P>(4) Modify the terms or conditions under which it contracts or does business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(c) The OCC will not require, instruct, or encourage an institution, or any employee of an institution, to terminate a contract with, discontinue doing business with, sign a contract with, initiate doing business with, modify the terms under which it will do business with a person or entity, or take any action or refrain from taking any action on the basis of the person's or entity's political, social, cultural, or religious views or beliefs, constitutionally protected speech, or solely on the basis of the person's or entity's involvement in politically disfavored but lawful business activities perceived to present reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(d) The prohibitions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section only apply to actions taken on the bases described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, and the prohibition in paragraph (c) of this section shall not apply with respect to persons, entities, or jurisdictions sanctioned by the Office of Foreign Assets Control.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section shall restrict the OCC's authority to implement, administer, and enforce the provisions of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(f) The OCC will not take any supervisory action or other adverse action against an institution, a group of institutions, or the institution-affiliated parties of any institution that is designed to punish or discourage an individual or group from engaging in any lawful political, social, cultural, or religious activities, constitutionally protected speech, or, for political reasons, lawful business activities that the OCC or any of its personnel disagree with or disfavor.
</P>
<P>(g) The following definitions apply in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse action</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any negative feedback delivered by or on behalf of the OCC to the supervised institution, including in a report of examination or a formal or informal enforcement action;
</P>
<P>(ii) A downgrade, or contribution to a downgrade, of any supervisory rating, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or any comparable rating system);
</P>
<P>(B) Any rating under the Uniform Interagency Consumer Compliance Rating System;
</P>
<P>(C) Any rating under the Uniform Rating System for Information Technology; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any rating under any other rating system;
</P>
<P>(iii) A denial of a licensing application;
</P>
<P>(iv) Inclusion of a condition on any licensing application or other approval;
</P>
<P>(v) Imposition of additional approval requirements;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other heightened requirements on an activity or change;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any adjustment of the institution's capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any action that negatively impacts the institution, or an institution-affiliated party, or treats the institution differently than similarly situated peers.
</P>
<P><I>Doing business with</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank providing any product or service, including account services;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank contracting with a third party for the third party to provide a product or service;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank providing discounted or free products or services to customers or third parties, including charitable activities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The bank entering into, maintaining, modifying, or terminating an employment relationship; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other similar business activity that involves a bank client or a third party.
</P>
<P><I>Institution</I> means an entity for which the OCC makes or will make supervisory or licensing determinations either solely or jointly.
</P>
<P><I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means the same as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P><I>Reputation risk</I> means any risk, regardless of how the risk is labeled by the institution or regulators, that an action or activity, or combination of actions or activities, or lack of actions or activities, of an institution could negatively impact public perception of the institution for reasons not clearly and directly related to the financial or operational condition of the institution.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 5—RULES, POLICIES, AND PROCEDURES FOR CORPORATE ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24a, 35, 93a, 214a, 215, 215a, 215a-1, 215a-2, 215a-3, 215c, 371d, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1817(j), 1831i, 1831u, 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3907, and 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 60363, Nov. 27, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.0.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes rules, policies and procedures of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) for corporate activities and transactions involving national banks and Federal savings associations. It contains information on rules of general and specific applicability, where and how to file, and requirements and policies applicable to filings. This part also establishes the corporate filing procedures for Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Rules of General Applicability</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 5.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.2   Rules of general applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The rules in this subpart apply to all sections in this part unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The OCC may adopt materially different procedures for a particular filing, or class of filings as it deems necessary, for example, in exceptional circumstances or for unusual transactions, after providing notice of the change to the filer and to any other party that the OCC determines should receive notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller's Licensing Manual.</I> The “Comptroller's Licensing Manual” provides additional filing guidance, including policies and procedures. This Manual and sample forms are available at <I>www.occ.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic filing.</I> The OCC encourages electronic filing for all filings. The Comptroller's Licensing Manual describes the OCC's electronic filing procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80434, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means a submission requesting OCC approval to engage in various corporate activities and transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the meaning set forth in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate OCC licensing office</I> means the OCC office that is responsible for processing applications or notices to engage in various corporate activities or transactions, as described at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate OCC supervisory office</I> means the OCC office that is responsible for the supervision of a national bank or Federal savings association, as described in subpart A of 12 CFR part 4.
</P>
<P><I>Capital and surplus</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying community banking organizations that have elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, as reported in the national bank's or Federal savings association's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(2) For all other national banks and Federal savings associations:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank's or Federal savings association's tier 1 and tier 2 capital calculated under the OCC's risk-based capital standards set forth in part 3 of this chapter, as applicable, as reported in the Call Report, respectively; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of the national bank's or Federal savings association's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the institution's tier 2 capital, for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition, as reported in the Call Report.


</P>
<P><I>Covered community bank</I> or <I>covered community savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has less than $30 billion in total assets, as reported in the national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report, and is not an affiliate of a depository institution or foreign bank with $30 billion or more in total assets, as reported in the depository institution's Call Report or the foreign bank's equivalent to a Call Report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is well capitalized as defined in § 5.3; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, a consent order, or a formal written agreement, that requires action to improve the financial condition of the national bank or Federal savings association unless otherwise informed in writing by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, the term “affiliate” means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the depository institution or foreign bank, as control is defined in § 5.50(d)(4).




</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible bank or eligible savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is well capitalized under § 5.3;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (CAMELS);
</P>
<P>(3) Has a Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), 12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> rating of “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory,” if applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) Has a consumer compliance rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Interagency Consumer Compliance Rating System; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, formal written agreement, or Prompt Corrective Action directive (<I>see</I> 12 CFR part 6, subpart B) or, if subject to any such order, agreement, or directive, is informed in writing by the OCC that the bank or savings association may be treated as an “eligible bank or eligible savings association” for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible depository institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a national bank, a State bank or a Federal or State savings association that meets the criteria for an “eligible bank or eligible savings association” under § 5.3 and is FDIC-insured; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a Federal savings association, a State or national bank or a State savings association that meets the criteria for an “eligible bank or eligible savings association” under § 5.3 and is FDIC-insured.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Filer</I> means a person or entity that submits a notice or application to the OCC under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Filing</I> means an application or notice submitted to the OCC under this part.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>MSA</I> means metropolitan statistical area as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Nonconforming assets and nonconforming activities</I> mean assets or activities, respectively, that are impermissible for national banks or Federal savings associations to hold or conduct, as applicable, or, if permissible, are held or conducted in a manner that exceeds limits applicable to national banks or Federal savings associations, as applicable. Assets include investments in subsidiaries or other entities.
</P>
<P><I>Notice,</I> in general, means a submission notifying the OCC that a national bank or Federal savings association intends to engage in or has commenced certain corporate activities or transactions. The specific meaning of <I>notice</I> depends on the context of the rule in which it is used and may provide the OCC with authority to disapprove the notice or may be informational requiring no official OCC action.
</P>
<P><I>OTS</I> means the former Office of Thrift Supervision.
</P>
<P><I>Previously approved activity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a national bank, any activity approved in published OCC precedent for a national bank, an operating subsidiary of a national bank, or a non-controlling investment of a national bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a Federal savings association, any activity approved in published OCC or OTS precedent for a Federal savings association, an operating subsidiary of a Federal savings association, or a pass-through investment of a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Principal city</I> means an area designated as a “principal city” by the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Short-distance relocation</I> means moving the premises of a branch or main office of a national bank or a branch or home office of a Federal savings association within a:
</P>
<P>(1) One thousand foot-radius of the site if the branch, main office, or home office is located within a principal city of an MSA;
</P>
<P>(2) One-mile radius of the site if the branch, main office, or home office is not located within a principal city, but is located within an MSA; or
</P>
<P>(3) Two-mile radius of the site if the branch, main office, or home office is not located within an MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Well capitalized</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a national bank or Federal savings association, the capital level described in 12 CFR 6.4(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a Federal branch or agency, the capital level described in 12 CFR 4.7(b)(1)(iii); or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of another depository institution, the capital level designated as “well capitalized” by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Well managed</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the OCC, the national bank or Federal savings association has received a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System in connection with its most recent examination, and at least a rating of 2 for management, if such a rating is given; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a national bank or Federal savings association that has not been examined by the OCC, the existence and use of managerial resources that the OCC determines are satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless determined otherwise in writing by the OCC, the Federal branch or agency has received a composite ROCA supervisory rating (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination, and at least a rating of 2 for risk management, if such a rating is given; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Federal branch or agency that has not been examined by the OCC, the existence and use of managerial resources that the OCC determines are satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of another depository institution:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the institution has received a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating under an equivalent rating system) in connection with the most recent examination or subsequent review of the depository institution and, at least a rating of 2 for management, if such a rating is given; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of another depository institution that has not been examined by its appropriate Federal banking agency, the existence and use of managerial resources that the appropriate Federal banking agency determines are satisfactory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 80434, Dec. 11, 2020, as amended at 91 FR 10497, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.4   Filing required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> A depository institution must file an application or notice with the OCC to engage in corporate activities and transactions as described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of forms.</I> Forms and instructions for filing are available at <I>www.occ.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other agency's applications or filings.</I> At the request of the filer, the OCC may accept an application or other filing submitted to another Federal agency that covers the proposed action or transaction and contains substantially the same information as required by the OCC. The OCC also may require the filer to submit supplemental information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where to file.</I> A filer should address a filing or other submission under this part to the appropriate OCC licensing office or appropriate OCC supervisory office, unless the OCC advises a filer otherwise. Relevant addresses are listed on <I>www.occ.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incorporation of other material.</I> A filer may incorporate any material contained in any other application or filing filed with the OCC or other Federal agency by reference, provided that the material is attached to the application and is current and responsive to the information requested by the OCC. The filing must clearly indicate that the information is so incorporated and include a cross-reference to the information incorporated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prefiling meeting.</I> Before submitting a filing to the OCC, a potential filer is encouraged to contact the appropriate OCC licensing office to determine the need for a prefiling meeting. The OCC decides whether to require a prefiling meeting on a case-by-case basis. Submission of a draft business plan or other relevant information before any prefiling meeting may expedite the filing review process. A potential filer considering a novel, complex, or unique proposal is encouraged to contact the appropriate OCC licensing office to schedule a prefiling meeting early in the development of its proposal for the early identification and consideration of policy issues. Information on model business plans can be found in the Comptroller's Licensing Manual.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Certification.</I> A filer must certify that any filing or supporting material submitted to the OCC contains no material misrepresentations or omissions. The OCC may review and verify any information filed in connection with a notice or an application. Any person responsible for any material misrepresentation or omission in a filing or supporting materials may be subject to enforcement action and other penalties, including criminal penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80435, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.5   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure.</I> A filer must submit the appropriate filing fee, if any, in connection with its filing. Filing fees must be paid by check payable to the OCC or by other means acceptable to the OCC. Additional information on filing fees, including where to file, can be found in the Comptroller's Licensing Manual. The OCC generally does not refund the filing fees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee schedule.</I> The OCC publishes a fee schedule in the “Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees,” as described in 12 CFR 8.8.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.7   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The OCC may examine or investigate and evaluate facts related to a filing to the extent necessary to reach an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fingerprints.</I> For certain filings, the OCC collects fingerprints for submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history background check.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees.</I> As described in 12 CFR 8.6, the OCC may assess fees for investigations or examinations conducted under paragraph (a) of this section. The OCC publishes a fee schedule in the “Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees,” as described in 12 CFR 8.8.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.8   Public notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A filer must publish a public notice of its filing in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the filer proposes to engage in business, on the date of filing, or as soon as practicable before or after the date of filing. This notice must be published in the English language but if the OCC determines that the primary language of a significant number of adult residents of the community is a language other than English, the OCC may require that an additional notice(s) simultaneously be published in the community in the appropriate language(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the public notice.</I> The public notice must state that a filing is being made, the date of the filing, the name and address of the filer, the subject matter of the filing (including the name of the institution that is the subject of the filing), that the public may submit comments to the appropriate OCC licensing office, the address of the appropriate OCC licensing office where comments should be sent, the closing date of the public comment period (if known at the time of publication of the notice), that the public portion of the filing is available on request, that the public may find information about the filing (including the closing date of the comment period) in the OCC's Weekly Bulletin available at <I>www.occ.gov</I>, and any other information that the OCC requires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confirmation of public notice.</I> Promptly following publication, the filer must mail or otherwise deliver to the appropriate OCC licensing office a statement containing the date of publication, the name and address of the newspaper that published the public notice, a copy of the public notice, and any other information that the OCC requires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple transactions.</I> The OCC may consider more than one transaction, or a series of transactions, to be a single filing for purposes of the publication requirements of this section. When filing a single public notice for multiple transactions, the filer must explain in the notice how the transactions are related.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint public notices accepted.</I> Upon the request of a filer, for a transaction subject to a public notice requirement of both the OCC and another Federal agency, the OCC may accept publication of a single joint notice containing the information required by both the OCC and the other Federal agency, provided that the notice states that comments must be submitted to both the OCC and, if applicable, the other Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public notice by the OCC.</I> In addition to the foregoing, the OCC may require or give public notice and request comment on any filing and in any manner the OCC determines appropriate for the particular filing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>New public notice.</I> At the OCC's discretion, a filer may be required to publish a new public notice if:
</P>
<P>(1) The filer submits either a revised filing or new or additional information related to a filing;
</P>
<P>(2) A major issue of law or change in circumstance arises after a filing; or
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC determines that a new public notice is appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8103, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.9   Public availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The OCC provides a copy of the public file to any person who requests it. A requestor should submit a written request for the public file concerning a pending filing to the appropriate OCC licensing office. A requestor should submit a written request for the public file concerning a decided or closed filing to the OCC's Freedom of Information Act Officer, Communications Division, at the address listed on <I>www.occ.gov</I>. The OCC may impose a fee in accordance with 12 CFR 4.17 and at the rate the OCC publishes in the “Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees,” described in 12 CFR 8.8.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public file.</I> A public file consists of the portions of the filing, supporting data, supplementary information, and information submitted by interested persons, to the extent that those documents have not been afforded confidential treatment. Filers and other interested persons may request that confidential treatment be afforded information submitted to the OCC pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment.</I> The filer or an interested person submitting information may request that specific information be treated as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (<I>see</I> 12 CFR 4.12(b)). A submitter should draft its request for confidential treatment narrowly to extend only to those portions of a document it considers confidential. If a submitter requests confidential treatment for information that the OCC does not consider to be confidential, the OCC may include that information in the public file after providing notice to the submitter. Moreover, at its own initiative, the OCC may determine that certain information should be treated as confidential and withhold that information from the public file. A person requesting information withheld from the public file should submit the request to the OCC's Freedom of Information Act Officer, Communications Division, under the procedures described in 12 CFR part 4, subpart B. That request may be subject to the predisclosure notice procedures of 12 CFR 4.16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.10   Comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of comments.</I> During the comment period, any person may submit written comments on a filing to the appropriate OCC licensing office.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comment period</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless otherwise stated, the comment period is 30 days after publication of the public notice required by § 5.8(a). If a new public notice is required under § 5.8(g), the OCC may require a new comment period of up to 30 days after publication of the new public notice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension.</I> The OCC may extend a comment period if:
</P>
<P>(i) The filer fails to file all required publicly available information on a timely basis to permit review by interested persons or makes a request for confidential treatment not granted by the OCC that delays the public availability of that information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person requesting an extension of time satisfactorily demonstrates to the OCC that additional time is necessary to develop factual information that the OCC determines is necessary to consider the filing; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC determines that other extenuating circumstances exist.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filer response.</I> The OCC may give the filer an opportunity to respond to comments received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.11   Hearings and other meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing requests.</I> Prior to the end of the comment period, any person may submit to the appropriate OCC office a written request for a hearing on a filing. The request must describe the nature of the issues or facts to be presented and the reasons why written submissions would be insufficient to make an adequate presentation of those issues or facts to the OCC. A person requesting a hearing must simultaneously submit a copy of the request to the filer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on a hearing request.</I> The OCC may grant or deny a request for a hearing and may limit the issues to those it deems relevant or material. The OCC generally grants a hearing request only if the OCC determines that written submissions would be insufficient or that a hearing would otherwise benefit the decision-making process. The OCC also may order a hearing if it concludes that a hearing would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of a hearing request.</I> If the OCC denies a hearing request, it will notify the person requesting the hearing of the reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>OCC procedures prior to the hearing</I>—(1) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> The OCC issues a Notice of Hearing if it grants a request for a hearing or orders a hearing because it is in the public interest. The OCC sends a copy of the Notice of Hearing to the filer, to the person requesting the hearing, and anyone else requesting a copy. The Notice of Hearing states the subject and date of the filing, the time and place of the hearing, and the issues to be addressed. The OCC may limit the issues considered at a hearing to those it determines are relevant or material.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The OCC appoints a presiding officer to conduct the hearing. The presiding officer is responsible for all procedural questions not governed by this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Participation in the hearing.</I> Any person who wishes to appear (participant) must notify the appropriate OCC licensing office of their intent to participate in the hearing within 10 days from the date the OCC issues the Notice of Hearing. At least five days before the hearing, each participant must submit to the appropriate OCC licensing office, the filer, and any other person the OCC requires, the names of witnesses and one copy of each exhibit the participant intends to present.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hearing transcripts.</I> The OCC arranges for a hearing transcript. The person requesting the hearing may be required to bear the cost of one copy of the transcript for their use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conduct of the hearing</I>—(1) <I>Presentations.</I> Subject to the rulings of the presiding officer, the filer and participants may make opening statements and present witnesses, material, and data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information submitted.</I> A person presenting documentary material must furnish one copy to the OCC and one copy to the filer and each participant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Laws not applicable to hearings.</I> The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. appendix), the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. Rule 1 <I>et seq.</I>), and the OCC's Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 19) do not apply to hearings under this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Closing the hearing record.</I> At the filer's or participant's request, the OCC may keep the hearing record open for up to 14 days following the OCC's receipt of the transcript. The OCC resumes processing the filing after the record closes.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other meetings</I>—(1) <I>Public meetings.</I> The OCC may arrange for a public meeting in connection with a filing, either upon receipt during the comment period of a written request for such a meeting or upon the OCC's own initiative, if the OCC finds that written submissions are insufficient to address facts or issues raised in the filing or otherwise determines that a meeting will benefit the decision-making process. Public meetings will be arranged and presided over by a presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Private meetings.</I> The OCC may arrange a meeting with a filer or other interested parties to clarify and narrow the issues and to facilitate the resolution of the issues.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issues at meetings.</I> The OCC may limit the issues considered at a meeting to those it determines are relevant or material.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Meeting format.</I> The OCC may conduct a meeting in the format that it determines is appropriate, including a telephone conference, a face-to-face meeting, or a more formal meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.12   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing the period of days, the OCC does not include the day of the act or event (<I>e.g.,</I> the date a filing is received by the OCC) from which the period begins to run. When the last day of a time period is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the time period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.1.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.13   Decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The OCC may approve, conditionally approve, or deny a filing after appropriate review and consideration of the record. In reviewing a filing, the OCC may consider the activities, resources, or condition of an affiliate of the filer that may reasonably reflect on or affect the filer. It also may consider information available from any source, including any comments submitted by interested parties or views expressed by interested parties at meetings with the OCC.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conditional approval.</I> The OCC may impose conditions on any approval, including to address a significant supervisory, CRA (if applicable), or compliance concern, if the OCC determines that the conditions are necessary or appropriate to ensure that approval is consistent with relevant statutory and regulatory standards and OCC policies thereunder and safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> The OCC grants qualifying national banks and Federal savings associations expedited review within a specified time after filing or commencement of the public comment period for certain filings.
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC may extend the expedited review period or remove a filing from expedited review procedures if it concludes that the filing, or an adverse comment regarding the filing, presents a significant supervisory, CRA (if applicable), or compliance concern or raises a significant legal or policy issue requiring additional OCC review. The OCC will provide the filer with a written explanation if it decides not to process an application from a qualifying national bank or Federal savings association under expedited review pursuant to this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adverse comments that the OCC determines do not raise a significant supervisory, CRA (if applicable), or compliance concern or a significant legal or policy issue; are frivolous, non-substantive, or filed primarily as a means of delaying action on the filing; or raise a CRA concern that has been satisfactorily resolved do not affect the OCC's decision under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), the OCC considers a concern to be significant if the facts are previously unknown to the OCC and, if proven accurate, would support denying, or imposing a condition on the approval of, the filing. The OCC considers a comment to be non-substantive if it is a generalized opinion that a filing should or should not be approved or a conclusory statement, lacking factual or analytical support. The OCC considers a CRA concern to have been satisfactorily resolved if the OCC previously reviewed (<I>e.g.,</I> in an examination, other supervisory activity, or a prior filing made by the current filer) a concern presenting substantially the same issue in substantially the same assessment area during substantially the same time, and the OCC determines that the concern would not warrant denial or imposition of a condition on approval of the application.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a bank or savings association makes a filing for any activity or transaction that is dependent upon the approval of another filing under this part, or if requests for approval for more than one activity or transaction are combined in a single filing under applicable sections of this part, none of the subject filings may be deemed approved upon expiration of the applicable time periods, unless all of the filings are subject to expedited review procedures and the longest of the time periods expires without the OCC issuing a decision or notifying the bank or savings association that the filings are not eligible for expedited review under the standards in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Denial.</I> The OCC may deny a filing if:
</P>
<P>(1) A significant supervisory, CRA (if applicable), or compliance concern exists with respect to the filer;
</P>
<P>(2) Approval of the filing is inconsistent with applicable law, regulation, or OCC policy thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(3) The filer fails to provide information requested by the OCC that is necessary for the OCC to make an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required information and abandonment of filing.</I> A filing must contain information required by the applicable section set forth in this part. To the extent necessary to evaluate an application, the OCC may require a filer to provide additional information. The OCC may deem a filing abandoned if information required or requested by the OCC in connection with the filing is not furnished within the time period specified by the OCC. The OCC may return an application without a decision if it finds the filing to be materially deficient. A filing is materially deficient if it lacks sufficient information for the OCC to make a determination under the applicable statutory or regulatory criteria.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of final disposition.</I> The OCC notifies the filer, and any person who makes a written request, of the final disposition of a filing, including confirmation of an expedited review under this part. If the OCC denies a filing, the OCC notifies the filer in writing of the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Publication of decision.</I> The OCC will issue a public decision when a decision represents a new or changed policy or presents issues of general interest to the public or the banking industry. In rendering its decisions, the OCC may elect not to disclose information that the OCC deems to be private or confidential.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal.</I> A filer may file an appeal of an OCC decision in writing with the Deputy Comptroller for Licensing or with the Ombudsman at the address listed on <I>www.occ.gov</I>. In the event that the Deputy Comptroller for Licensing was the deciding official of the matter appealed, or was involved personally and substantially in the matter, the appeal may be referred instead to the Chief Counsel or the Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension of time.</I> When the OCC approves or conditionally approves a filing, the OCC generally gives the filer a specified period of time to commence that new or expanded activity. The OCC does not generally grant an extension of the time specified to commence a new or expanded corporate activity approved under this part, unless the OCC determines that the delay is beyond the filer's control.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Nullifying a decision.</I> The OCC may nullify any decision on a filing either prior to or after consummation of the transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC discovers a material misrepresentation or omission in any information provided to the OCC in the filing or supporting materials;
</P>
<P>(2) The decision is contrary to law, regulation, or OCC policy thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(3) The decision was granted due to clerical or administrative error, or a material mistake of law or fact.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modifying, Suspending, or Rescinding a Decision.</I> The OCC may modify, suspend, or rescind a decision on a filing if a material change in the information or circumstance on which the OCC relied occurs prior to the date of the consummation of the transaction to which the decision pertains.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28414, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80436, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initial Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.20   Organizing a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 21, 22, 24(Seventh), 26, 27, 92a, 93a, 1814(b), 1816, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 2903, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> Any person desiring to establish a national bank or a Federal savings association must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval. An existing national bank or Federal savings association desiring to change the purpose of its charter must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures and requirements governing OCC review and approval of an application to establish a national bank or a Federal stock or mutual savings association, including a national bank or a Federal savings association with a special purpose. Information regarding an application to establish an interim national bank or an interim Federal savings association solely to facilitate a business combination is set forth in § 5.33. This section also describes the requirements for an existing national bank or Federal savings association to change the purpose of its charter and refers such institutions to § 5.53 for the procedures to follow.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bankers' bank</I> means a bank owned exclusively (except to the extent directors' qualifying shares are required by law) by other depository institutions or depository institution holding companies (as that term is defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813), the activities of which are limited by its articles of association exclusively to providing services to or for other depository institutions, their holding companies, and the officers, directors, and employees of such institutions and companies, and to providing correspondent banking services at the request of other depository institutions or their holding companies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Control</I> means with respect to an application to establish a national bank, control as used in section 2(a)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and with respect to an application to establish a Federal savings association, control as used in section 10(a)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final approval</I> means the OCC action issuing a charter and authorizing a national bank or Federal savings association to open for business.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Holding company</I> means any company that controls or proposes to control a national bank or a Federal savings association whether or not the company is a bank holding company under section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(1), or a savings and loan holding company under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Lead depository institution</I> means the largest depository institution controlled by a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company based on a comparison of the average total assets controlled by each depository institution as reported in its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income required to be filed for the immediately preceding four calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Institution</I> means either a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Organizer</I> means a member of the organizing group.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Organizing group</I> means five or more natural persons acting on their own behalf, or serving as representatives of a sponsoring holding company, who apply to the OCC for a national bank or Federal savings association charter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Preliminary approval</I> means a decision by the OCC permitting an organizing group to go forward with the organization of the proposed national bank or Federal savings association. A preliminary approval generally is subject to certain conditions that a filer must satisfy before the OCC will grant final approval.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Principal shareholder</I> means a person who directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more persons or companies, or together with members of their immediate family, will own, control, or hold 10 percent or more of the voting stock of the proposed national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) The OCC charters a national bank under the authority of the National Bank Act of 1864, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I> The bank may be a special purpose bank that limits its activities to the operations of a trust company and activities related thereto or to any other activities within the business of banking. A special purpose bank that conducts activities other than the operations of a trust company and activities related thereto must conduct at least one of the following three core banking functions: Receiving deposits; paying checks; or lending money. The name of a proposed national bank must include the word “national.”








</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC charters a Federal savings association under the authority of section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464, which in an application to establish a Federal savings association requires the OCC to consider:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the filers are persons of good character and responsibility;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether a necessity exists for the association in the community to be served;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether there is a reasonable probability of the association's usefulness and success; and
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the association can be established without undue injury to properly conducted existing local savings associations and home financing institutions.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining whether to approve an application to establish a national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC verifies that the proposed national bank or Federal savings association has complied with the following requirements. A national bank or a Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) File either articles of association (for a national bank), or a charter and by-laws (for a Federal savings association) with the OCC;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of an application to establish a national bank, file an organization certificate containing specified information with the OCC;
</P>
<P>(C) Ensure that all capital stock is paid in, or in the case of a Federal mutual savings association, ensure that at least a minimum amount of capital is paid in; and
</P>
<P>(D) Have at least five elected directors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community Reinvestment Act.</I> Twelve CFR part 25 requires the OCC to take into account a proposed insured national bank's or Federal savings association's description of how it will meet its CRA objectives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance.</I> Preliminary approval for an application to establish a Federal savings association will be conditioned on the savings association applying for and receiving approval for deposit insurance from the FDIC. Final approval for an application to establish a Federal savings association will not be issued until receipt by the OCC of written confirmation by the FDIC that the accounts of the Federal savings association will be insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Policy</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In determining whether to approve an application to establish a national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC is guided by the following principles:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintaining a safe and sound banking system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Encouraging a national bank or Federal savings association to provide fair access to financial services by helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community;
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Promoting fair treatment of customers including efficiency and better service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Policy considerations.</I> (i) In evaluating an application to establish a national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC considers whether the proposed institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Has organizers who are familiar with national banking laws and regulations or Federal savings association laws and regulations, respectively;
</P>
<P>(B) Has competent management, including a board of directors, with ability and experience relevant to the types of services to be provided;
</P>
<P>(C) Has capital that is sufficient to support the projected volume and type of business;
</P>
<P>(D) Can reasonably be expected to achieve and maintain profitability;
</P>
<P>(E) Will be operated in a safe and sound manner; and
</P>
<P>(F) Does not have a title that misrepresents the nature of the institution or the services it offers.
</P>
<P>(ii) In evaluating an application to establish a Federal savings association, the OCC considers whether the proposed Federal savings association will be operated as a qualified thrift lender under section 10(m) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m).
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC may also consider additional factors listed in section 6 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1816, including the risk to the Federal deposit insurance fund, and whether the proposed institution's corporate powers are consistent with the purposes of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the National Bank Act, and the Home Owners' Loan Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>OCC evaluation.</I> The OCC evaluates a proposed institution's organizing group and its business plan or operating plan together. The OCC's judgment concerning one may affect the evaluation of the other. An organizing group and its business plan or operating plan must be stronger in markets where economic conditions are marginal or competition is intense.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Organizing group</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Strong organizing groups generally include diverse business and financial interests and community involvement. An organizing group must have the experience, competence, willingness, and ability to be active in directing the proposed institution's affairs in a safe and sound manner. The institution's initial board of directors generally is comprised of many, if not all, of the organizers. The business plan or operating plan and other information supplied in the application must demonstrate an organizing group's collective ability to establish and operate a successful national bank or Federal savings association in the economic and competitive conditions of the market to be served. Each organizer should be knowledgeable about the business plan or operating plan. A poor business plan or operating plan reflects adversely on the organizing group's ability, and the OCC generally denies applications with poor business plans or operating plans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Management selection.</I> The initial board of directors must select competent senior executive officers before the OCC grants final approval. Early selection of executive officers, especially the chief executive officer, contributes favorably to the preparation and review of a business plan or operating plan that is accurate, complete, and appropriate for the type of national bank or Federal savings association proposed and its market, and reflects favorably upon an application. As a condition of the charter approval, the OCC retains the right to object to and preclude the hiring of any officer, or the appointment or election of any director, for a two-year period from the date the institution commences business, or longer as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial resources.</I> (i) Each organizer must have a history of responsibility, personal honesty, and integrity. Personal wealth is not a prerequisite to become an organizer or director of a national bank or Federal savings association. However, directors' stock purchases, or, in the case of a Federal mutual savings association, capital contributions, individually and in the aggregate, should reflect a financial commitment to the success of the institution that is reasonable in relation to their individual and collective financial strength. A director should not have to depend on institution dividends, fees, or other compensation to satisfy financial obligations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Because directors are often the primary source of additional capital for an institution not affiliated with a holding company, it is desirable that the proposed directors of the national bank or Federal savings association, as a group, be able to supply or have a realistic plan to enable the institution to obtain capital when needed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any financial or other business arrangement, direct or indirect, between the organizing group or other insiders and the proposed national bank or Federal savings association must be on nonpreferential terms.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Organizational expenses.</I> (i) Organizers are expected to contribute time and expertise to the organization of the national bank or Federal savings association. Organizers should not bill excessive charges to the institution for professional and consulting services or unduly rely upon these fees as a source of income.
</P>
<P>(ii) A proposed national bank or Federal savings association may not pay any fee that is contingent upon an OCC decision. Such action generally is grounds for denial of the application or nullification or rescission of a preliminary approval. Organizational expenses for denied applications are the sole responsibility of the organizing group.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sponsor's experience and support.</I> A sponsor must be financially able to support the new institution's operations and to provide or locate capital when needed. The OCC primarily considers the financial and managerial resources of the sponsor and the sponsor's record of performance, rather than the financial and managerial resources of the organizing group, if an organizing group is sponsored by:
</P>
<P>(i) An existing holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Individuals currently affiliated with other depository institutions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Individuals who, in the OCC's view, are otherwise collectively experienced in banking and have demonstrated the ability to work together effectively.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Business plan or Operating plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) Organizers of a proposed national bank or Federal savings association must submit a business plan or operating plan that adequately addresses the statutory and policy considerations set forth in paragraphs (e) and (f)(2) of this section. In the case of a proposed Federal savings association the plan must also specifically address meeting qualified thrift lender requirements. The plan must reflect sound banking principles and demonstrate realistic assessments of risk in light of economic and competitive conditions in the market to be served.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may offset deficiencies in one factor by strengths in one or more other factors. However, deficiencies in some factors, such as unrealistic earnings prospects, may have a negative influence on the evaluation of other factors, such as capital adequacy, or may be serious enough by themselves to result in denial. The OCC considers inadequacies in a business plan or operating plan to reflect negatively on the organizing group's ability to operate a successful institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Earnings prospects.</I> The organizing group must submit <I>pro forma</I> balance sheets and income statements as part of the business plan or operating plan. The OCC reviews all projections for reasonableness of assumptions and consistency with the business plan or operating plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Management.</I> (i) The organizing group must include in the business plan or operating plan information sufficient to permit the OCC to evaluate the overall management ability of the organizing group. If the organizing group has limited banking experience or community involvement, the senior executive officers must be able to compensate for such deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) The organizing group may not hire an officer or elect or appoint a director if the OCC objects to that person at any time prior to the date the institution commences business.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital.</I> A proposed bank or Federal savings association must have sufficient initial capital, net of any organizational expenses that will be charged to the institution's capital after it begins operations, to support the institution's projected volume and type of business.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community service.</I> (i) The business plan or operating plan must indicate the organizing group's knowledge of and plans for serving the community. The organizing group must evaluate the banking needs of the community, including its consumer, business, nonprofit, and government sectors. The business plan or operating plan must demonstrate how the proposed national bank or Federal savings association responds to those needs consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution. The provisions of this paragraph may not apply to an application to organize an institution for a special purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of its business plan or operating plan, the organizing group must submit a statement that demonstrates its plans to achieve CRA objectives.
</P>
<P>(iii) Because community support is important to the long-term success of a national bank or Federal savings association, the organizing group must include plans for attracting and maintaining community support.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safety and soundness.</I> The business plan or operating plan must demonstrate that the organizing group (and the sponsoring company, if any), is aware of, and understands, applicable depository institution laws and regulations, and safe and sound banking operations and practices. The OCC will deny an application that does not meet these safety and soundness requirements.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fiduciary powers.</I> The business plan or operating plan must indicate if the proposed institution intends to exercise fiduciary powers. The information required by § 5.26 must be filed with the charter application. A separate application is not required.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Prefiling meeting.</I> The OCC normally requires a prefiling meeting with the organizers of a proposed national bank or Federal savings association before the organizers file an application. Organizers should be familiar with the OCC's chartering policy and procedural requirements in the Comptroller's Licensing Manual before the prefiling meeting. The prefiling meeting normally is held in the district office where the application will be filed but may be held at another location at the request of the filer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business plan or operating plan.</I> An organizing group must file a business plan or operating plan that addresses the subjects discussed in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biographical and financial reports</I>. (i) Each proposed organizer, director, executive officer, or principal shareholder must submit to the appropriate OCC licensing office:
</P>
<P>(A) The information prescribed in the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov;</I> and
</P>
<P>(B) Legible fingerprints.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may require additional information about any proposed organizer, director, executive officer, or principal shareholder, if appropriate. The OCC may waive any of the information requirements of this paragraph if the OCC determines that it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contact person.</I> The organizing group must designate a contact person to represent the organizing group in all contacts with the OCC. The contact person must be an organizer and proposed director of the new national bank or Federal savings association, except a representative of the sponsor or sponsors may serve as contact person if an application is sponsored by an existing holding company, individuals currently affiliated with other depository institutions, or individuals who, in the OCC's view, are otherwise collectively experienced in banking and have demonstrated the ability to work together effectively.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Decision notification.</I> The OCC notifies the contact person and other relevant parties in writing of its decision on an application.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Activities.</I> (i) Before the OCC grants final approval, a proposed national bank or Federal savings association must be established as a legal entity. A national bank becomes a legal entity after it has filed its organization certificate and articles of association with the OCC as required by law. A Federal savings association becomes a legal entity after it has filed its proposed charter and bylaws with the OCC. A proposed national bank may offer and sell securities prior to OCC preliminary approval of the proposed national bank's charter application, provided that the proposed national bank has filed articles of association, an organization certificate, and a completed charter application and the bank complies with paragraph (i)(6)(iii) of this section. A proposed Federal stock savings association may offer and sell securities prior to OCC preliminary approval of the proposed Federal stock savings association's charter application, provided that the proposed Federal stock savings association has filed a proposed charter, bylaws, and a completed charter application and the Federal stock savings association complies with paragraph (i)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) After the OCC grants preliminary approval, the organizing group must elect a board of directors, take steps necessary to organize the proposed national bank or Federal savings association and prepare it for commencing business.
</P>
<P>(B) A proposed national bank may not conduct the business of banking until the OCC grants final approval and issues a charter. A proposed Federal savings association may not commence business until the OCC grants final approval and issues a charter, which must be in the form provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) For all capital obtained through a public offering a proposed national bank or Federal savings association must use an offering circular that complies with the OCC's securities offering regulations, 12 CFR part 16, as applicable. All securities of a particular class in the initial offering must be sold at the same price.
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank or Federal savings association in organization must raise its capital before it commences business. Preliminary approval expires if the proposed national bank or Federal savings association does not raise the required capital within 12 months from the date the OCC grants preliminary approval. Preliminary approval expires if the proposed national bank or Federal savings association does not commence business within 18 months from the date of preliminary approval, unless the OCC grants an extension. If preliminary approval expires, all cash collected on subscriptions must be returned.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application to establish a full-service national bank or Federal savings association that is sponsored by a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company whose lead depository institution is an eligible bank, eligible savings association, covered community bank, or covered community savings association is deemed preliminarily approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the public comment period or the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC, whichever is later, unless the OCC:
</P>
<P>(1) Notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2); or
</P>
<P>(2) Notifies the filer prior to that date that the OCC has determined that the proposed bank will offer banking services that are materially different than those offered by the lead depository institution.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>National bankers' banks</I>—(1) <I>Activities and customers.</I> In addition to the other requirements of this section, when an organizing group seeks to organize a national bankers' bank, the organizing group must list in the application the anticipated activities and customers or clients of the proposed national bankers' bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of requirements.</I> At the organizing group's request, the OCC may waive requirements that are applicable to national banks in general if those requirements are inappropriate for a national bankers' bank and would impede its ability to provide desired services to its market. A filer must submit a request for a waiver with the application and must support the request with adequate justification and legal analysis. A national bankers' bank that is already in operation may also request a waiver. The OCC cannot waive statutory provisions that specifically apply to national bankers' banks pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 27(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investments.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may invest up to 10 percent of its capital and surplus in a bankers' bank and may own five percent or less of any class of a bankers' bank's voting securities.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Special purpose institutions</I>—

(1) <I>In general.</I> A filer for a national bank or Federal savings association charter that will limit its activities to the operations of a trust company and activities related thereto, credit card operations, or another special purpose must adhere to established charter procedures with modifications appropriate for the circumstances as determined by the OCC. A filer for a national bank or Federal savings association charter that will have a community development focus must also adhere to established charter procedures with modifications appropriate for the circumstances as determined by the OCC. A national bank that seeks to invest in a bank or savings association with a community development focus must comply with applicable requirements of 12 CFR part 24. A Federal savings association that seeks to invest in a bank or savings association with a community development focus must comply with § 160.36 or any other applicable requirements.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in charter purpose.</I> An existing national bank or Federal savings association whose activities are limited to a special purpose that desires to change to another special purpose, to add another special purpose, or to no longer be limited to a special purpose charter must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval under § 5.53. An existing national bank or Federal savings association whose activities are not limited that desires to limit its activities and become a special purpose institution must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval under § 5.53.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28418, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8103, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80437, Dec. 11, 2020; 85 FR 80437, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 9982, Mar. 2, 2026; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.21   Federal mutual savings association charter and bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 2901 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A Federal mutual savings association must file an application, notice, or other filing as prescribed by this section when adopting or amending its charter or bylaws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures and requirements governing charters and bylaws for Federal mutual savings associations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, §§ 5.8 through 5.11 do not apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charter form.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, a Federal mutual savings association must have a charter in the following form. A charter for a Federal mutual savings bank must substitute the term “savings bank” for “association.” The term “trustee” may be substituted for the term “director.” Associations adopting this charter with existing borrower members must grandfather those borrower members who were members as of the date of issuance of the new charter by the OCC. Such borrowers will have one vote for the period of time such borrowings are in existence.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Federal Mutual Charter
</HD3>
<P><I>Section 1. Corporate title.</I> The full corporate title of the Federal savings association is ___.
</P>
<P><I>Section 2. Office.</I> The home office is located in ___ [city, state].
</P>
<P><I>Section 3. Duration.</I> The duration of the association is perpetual.
</P>
<P><I>Section 4. Purpose and powers.</I> The purpose of the association is to pursue any or all of the lawful objectives of a Federal mutual savings association chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act and to exercise all the express, implied, and incidental powers conferred thereby and by all acts amendatory thereof and supplemental thereto, subject to the Constitution and laws of the United States as they are now in effect, or as they may hereafter be amended, and subject to all lawful and applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”).
</P>
<P><I>Section 5. Capital.</I> The association may raise capital by accepting payments on savings and demand accounts and by any other means authorized by the OCC.
</P>
<P><I>Section 6. Members.</I> All holders of the association's savings, demand, or other authorized accounts are members of the association. In the consideration of all questions requiring action by the members of the association, each holder of an account is permitted to cast one vote for each $100, or fraction thereof, of the withdrawal value of the member's account. No member, however, may cast more than 1,000 votes. All accounts are nonassessable.
</P>
<P><I>Section 7. Directors.</I> The association is under the direction of a board of directors. The authorized number of directors may not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen persons, as fixed in the association's bylaws, except that the number of directors may be decreased to a number less than five or increased to a number greater than fifteen with the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P><I>Section 8. Capital, surplus, and distribution of earnings.</I> The association will maintain for the purpose of meeting losses the amount of capital required by section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act and by regulations of the OCC. The association will distribute net earnings on its accounts on such basis and in accordance with such terms and conditions as may from time to time be authorized by the OCC: <I>Provided,</I> That the association may establish minimum-balance requirements for accounts to be eligible for distribution of earnings. All holders of accounts of the association will be entitled to equal distribution of assets, <I>pro rata</I> to the value of their accounts, in the event of voluntary or involuntary liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the association. Moreover, in any such event, or in any other situation in which the priority of such accounts is in controversy, all such accounts will, to the extent of their withdrawal value, be debts of the association having the same priority as the claims of general creditors of the association not having priority (other than any priority arising or resulting from consensual subordination) over other general creditors of the association.
</P>
<P><I>Section 9. Amendment of charter.</I> Adoption of any preapproved charter amendment will be effective after such preapproved amendment has been approved by the members at a legal meeting. Any other amendment, addition, change, or repeal of this charter must be approved by the OCC prior to approval by the members at a legal meeting, and will be effective upon filing with the OCC in accordance with regulatory procedures.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>President or Chief Executive Officer of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Deputy Comptroller for Licensing
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Comptroller of the Currency
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Charter amendments.</I> In order to adopt a charter amendment, a Federal mutual savings association must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors approval.</I> The board of directors of the association must adopt a resolution proposing the charter amendment that states the text of such amendment;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of filing</I>—(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a Federal mutual savings association must file the proposed charter amendment with, and obtain the prior approval of, the OCC.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Expedited review.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the charter amendment will be deemed approved as of the 30th day after filing, unless the OCC notifies the filer that the amendment is denied or that the amendment contains procedures of the type described in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section and is not eligible for expedited review, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amendments exempted from expedited review.</I> Expedited review is not available for a charter amendment that would render more difficult or discourage a merger, proxy contest, the assumption of control by a mutual account holder of the association, or the removal of incumbent management; or involve a significant issue of law or policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice requirement.</I> No application under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is required if the text of the amendment is contained within paragraphs (e) or (g) of this section. In such case, the Federal mutual savings association must submit a notice with the charter amendment to the OCC within 30 days after adoption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effectiveness.</I> A charter amendment is effective after approval by the OCC, if required pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section, and adoption by the association, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Optional charter amendments.</I> The following charter amendments are subject to the notice requirement in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section if adopted without change:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Purpose and powers.</I> Add a second paragraph to section 4, as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Section 4. Purpose and powers.</I> * * * The association has the express power: (i) To act as fiscal agent of the United States when designated for that purpose by the Secretary of the Treasury, under such regulations as the Secretary may prescribe, to perform all such reasonable duties as fiscal agent of the United States as may be required, and to act as agent for any other instrumentality of the United States when designated for that purpose by any such instrumentality; (ii) To sue and be sued, complain and defend in any court of law or equity; (iii) To have a corporate seal, affixed by imprint, facsimile or otherwise; (iv) To appoint officers and agents as its business requires and allow them suitable compensation; (v) To adopt bylaws not inconsistent with the Constitution or laws of the United States and rules and regulations adopted thereunder and under this Charter; (vi) To raise unlimited capital by accepting payments on savings, demand, or other accounts, as are authorized by rules and regulations made by the OCC, and the holders of all such accounts or other accounts as will, to such extent as may be provided by such rules and regulations, be members of the association and will have such voting rights and such other rights as are thereby provided; (vii) To issue notes, bonds, debentures, or other obligations, or securities, provided by or under any provision of Federal statute as from time to time is in effect; (viii) To provide for redemption of insured accounts; (ix) To borrow money without limitation and pledge and otherwise encumber any of its assets to secure its debts; (x) To lend and otherwise invest its funds as authorized by statute and the rules and regulations of the OCC; (xi) To wind up and dissolve, merge, consolidate, convert, or reorganize; (xii) To purchase, hold, and convey real estate and personalty consistent with its objects, purposes, and powers; (xiii) To mortgage or lease any real estate and personalty and take such property by gift, devise, or bequest; and (xiv) To exercise all powers conferred by law. In addition to the foregoing powers expressly enumerated, this association has the power to do all things reasonably incident to the accomplishment of its express objects and the performance of its express powers.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Title change.</I> A Federal mutual savings association that complies with § 5.42 may amend its charter by substituting a new corporate title in section 1.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home office.</I> A Federal mutual savings association may amend its charter by substituting a new home office in section 2, if it has complied with applicable requirements of § 5.40.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maximum number of votes.</I> A Federal mutual savings association may amend its charter by substituting any number of votes per member between 1 and 1000 in section 6.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reissuance of charter.</I> A Federal mutual savings association that has amended its charter may apply to have its charter, including the amendments, reissued by the OCC. Such request for reissuance should be filed at the appropriate OCC licensing office and contain signatures required under paragraph (e) of this section, together with such supporting documents as may be needed to demonstrate that the amendments were properly adopted.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of chartering documents.</I> A Federal mutual savings association must make available a true copy of its charter and bylaws and all amendments thereto to accountholders at all times in each office of the savings association, and must upon request deliver to any accountholders a copy of such charter and bylaws or amendments thereto.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Bylaws for Federal mutual savings associations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A Federal mutual savings association must operate under bylaws that contain provisions that comply with all requirements specified by the OCC in this paragraph and that are not otherwise inconsistent with the provisions of this paragraph; the association's charter; and all other applicable laws, rules, and regulations <I>provided that,</I> a bylaw provision inconsistent with the provisions of this paragraph may be adopted with the approval of the OCC. Bylaws may be adopted, amended or repealed by a majority of the votes cast by the members at a legal meeting or a majority of the association's board of directors. The bylaws for a Federal mutual savings bank must substitute the term “savings bank” for “association”. The term “trustee” may be substituted for the term “director”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The following requirements are applicable to Federal mutual savings associations:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual meetings of members.</I> (A) An association must provide for and conduct an annual meeting of its members for the election of directors and at which any other business of the association may be conducted. Such meeting must be held at any convenient place the board of directors may designate, and at a date and time within 150 days after the end of the association's fiscal year. The association's bylaws may provide for telephonic or electronic participation of members at an annual meeting. Members participating in an annual meeting telephonically or electronically will be deemed present in person for purposes of the quorum requirement in paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) At each annual meeting, the officers must make a full report of the financial condition of the association and of its progress for the preceding year and must outline a program for the succeeding year.
</P>
<P>(C) If the association's bylaws provide for telephonic or electronic participation in member meetings, the association must follow the procedures for telephonic or electronic participation of the State corporate governance provisions it is permitted to elect pursuant to paragraph (j)(3)(ii) of this section, if those State corporate governance provisions include telephonic or electronic participation procedures; the Delaware General Corporation Law, Del. Code Ann. Tit. 8 (1991, as amended 1994, and as amended thereafter) (with “member” substituting for “stockholder”); or the Model Business Corporation Act (with “member” substituting for “shareholder”), provided, however, that such procedures are not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes and regulations and safety and soundness. The association must indicate the use of these procedures in its bylaws.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special meetings of members.</I> Procedures for calling any special meeting of the members and for conducting such a meeting must be set forth in the bylaws. The board of directors of the association or the holders of 10 percent or more of the voting capital must be entitled to call a special meeting. The association's bylaws may provide for telephonic or electronic participation of members at a special meeting pursuant to the procedures specified in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(C) of this section. Members participating in a special meeting telephonically or electronically will be deemed present in person for purposes of the quorum requirement in paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph, “voting capital” means FDIC-insured deposits as of the voting record date.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of meeting of members.</I> Notice specifying the date, time, and place of the annual or any special meeting and adequately describing any business to be conducted must be published for two successive weeks immediately prior to the week in which such meeting will convene in a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county in which the principal place of business of the association is located, or mailed postage prepaid at least 15 days and not more than 45 days prior to the date on which such meeting will convene to each of its members of record. A similar notice must be posted in a conspicuous place in each of the offices of the association during the 14 days immediately preceding the date on which such meeting will convene. The bylaws may permit a member to waive in writing any right to receive personal delivery of the notice. When any meeting is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjournment and reconvening of the meeting must be given as in the case of the original meeting.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fixing of record date.</I> The bylaws must provide for the fixing of a record date and a method for determining from the books of the association the members entitled to vote. Such date may not be more than 60 days nor fewer than 10 days prior to the date on which the action, requiring such determination of members, is to be taken. The same determination must apply to any adjourned meeting.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Member quorum.</I> Any number of members present and voting, represented in person or by proxy, at a regular or special meeting of the members constitutes a quorum. A majority of all votes cast at any meeting of the members determines any question, unless otherwise required by regulation. At any adjourned meeting, any business may be transacted that might have been transacted at the meeting as originally called. Members present at a duly constituted meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Voting by proxy.</I> Procedures must be established for voting at any annual or special meeting of the members by proxy pursuant to the rules and regulations of the OCC. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the member. All proxies with a term greater than eleven months or solicited at the expense of the association must run to the board of directors as a whole, or to a committee appointed by a majority of such board.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Communications between members.</I> Provisions relating to communications between members must be consistent with § 144.8 of this chapter. No member, however, may have the right to inspect or copy any portion of any books or records of a Federal mutual savings association containing:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of depositors in or borrowers from such association;
</P>
<P>(B) Their addresses;
</P>
<P>(C) Individual deposit or loan balances or records; or
</P>
<P>(D) Any data from which such information could be reasonably constructed.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Number of directors, membership.</I> The bylaws must set forth a specific number of directors, not a range. The number of directors may not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen, unless a higher or lower number has been authorized by the OTS prior to July 21, 2011 or by the OCC. Each director of the association must be a member of the association. Directors may be elected for periods of one to three years and until their successors are elected and qualified, but if a staggered board is chosen, provision must be made for the election of approximately one-third or one-half of the board each year, as appropriate. State-chartered savings banks converting to Federal savings banks may include alternative provisions for the election and term of office of directors so long as such provisions are authorized by the OCC, and provide for compliance with the standard provisions of this paragraph no later than six years after the conversion to a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Meetings of the board.</I> The board of directors determines the place, frequency, time, procedure for notice, which must be at least 24 hours unless waived by the directors, and waiver of notice for all regular and special meetings. The board also may permit telephonic or electronic participation at meetings. The bylaws may provide for action to be taken without a meeting if unanimous written consent is obtained for such action. A majority of the authorized directors constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business. The act of a majority of the directors present at any meeting at which there is a quorum will be the act of the board.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Officers, employees and agents.</I> (A) The bylaws must contain provisions regarding the officers of the association, their functions, duties, and powers. The officers of the association must consist of a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller, each of whom must be elected annually by the board of directors. Such other officers and assistant officers and agents as may be deemed necessary may be elected or appointed by the board of directors or chosen in such other manner as may be prescribed in the bylaws. Any two or more offices may be held by the same person, except the offices of president and secretary.
</P>
<P>(B) Any officer may be removed by the board of directors with or without cause, but such removal, other than for cause, must be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the person so removed. Termination for cause, for purposes of this section and § 5.22, includes termination because of the person's personal dishonesty; incompetence; willful misconduct; breach of fiduciary duty involving personal profit; intentional failure to perform stated duties; willful violation of any law, rule, or regulation (other than traffic violations or similar offenses) or final cease and desist order; or material breach of any provision of an employment contract.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Vacancies, resignation or removal of directors.</I> In the event of a vacancy on the board, the board of directors may, by its affirmative vote, fill such vacancy, even if the remaining directors constitute less than a quorum. A director elected to fill a vacancy may serve only until the next election of directors by the members. The bylaws must set out the procedure for the resignation of a director. Directors may be removed only for cause, as defined in paragraph (j)(2)(x)(B) of this section, by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Powers of the board.</I> The board of directors has the power to exercise any and all of the powers of the association not expressly reserved by the charter to the members.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Nominations for directors.</I> The bylaws must provide that nominations for directors may be made at the annual meeting by any member and must be voted upon, except, however, the bylaws may require that nominations by a member must be submitted to the secretary and then prominently posted in the principal place of business at least 10 days prior to the date of the annual meeting. However, if such provision is made for prior submission of nominations by a member, then the bylaws must provide for a nominating committee, which, except in the case of a nominee substituted as a result of death or other incapacity, must submit nominations to the secretary and have such nominations similarly posted at least 15 days prior to the date of the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>New business.</I> The bylaws must provide procedures for the introduction of new business at the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Amendment.</I> Bylaws may include any provision for their amendment that would be consistent with applicable law, rules, and regulations and adequately addresses its subject and purpose.
</P>
<P>(A) Amendments will be effective:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) After approval by a majority vote of the authorized board, or by a majority of the vote cast by the members of the association at a legal meeting; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) After receipt of any applicable regulatory approval.
</P>
<P>(B) When an association fails to meet its quorum requirement, solely due to vacancies on the board, the bylaws may be amended by an affirmative vote of a majority of the sitting board.
</P>
<P>(xvi) <I>Miscellaneous.</I> The bylaws also may address any other subjects necessary or appropriate for effective operation of the association.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of filing</I>—(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (j)(3)(ii) or (j)(3)(iii) of this section, a Federal mutual savings association must file the proposed bylaw amendment with, and obtain the prior approval of, the OCC.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Expedited review.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the bylaw amendment will be deemed approved as of the 30th day after filing, unless the OCC notifies the filer that the bylaw amendment is denied or that the amendment contains procedures of the type described in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B) of this section and is not eligible for expedited review, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amendments not subject to expedited review.</I> A bylaw amendment is not subject to expedited review if it would render more difficult or discourage a merger, proxy contest, the assumption of control by a mutual account holder of the association, or the removal of incumbent management; involve a significant issue of law or policy, including indemnification, conflicts of interest, and limitations on director or officer liability; or be inconsistent with the requirements of this paragraph or with applicable laws, rules, regulations, or the association's charter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Corporate governance election and notice requirement.</I> A Federal mutual association may elect to follow the corporate governance provisions of the laws of any State in which the home office or any branch of the association is located, provided that such provisions are not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes, regulations, and safety and soundness, and such provisions are not of the type described in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B) of this section. If this election is selected, a Federal mutual association must designate in its bylaws the provision or provisions from the body of law selected for its corporate governance provisions, and must submit a notice containing a copy of such bylaws, within 30 days after adoption. The notice must indicate, where not obvious, why the bylaw provisions meet the requirements stated in paragraph (j)(3)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No filing required.</I> No filing is required for purposes of paragraph (j)(3) of this section if a bylaw amendment adopts the language of the OCC's model or optional bylaws without change.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effectiveness.</I> A bylaw amendment is effective after approval by the OCC, if required, and adoption by the association, provided that the association follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of subsequent charter or bylaw change.</I> Notwithstanding any subsequent change to its charter or bylaws, the authority of a Federal mutual savings association to engage in any transaction is determined only by the association's charter or bylaws then in effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28421, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8103, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 31948, May 28, 2020; 85 FR 80437, Dec. 11, 2020; 85 FR 83726, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.22   Federal stock savings association charter and bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 2901 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A Federal stock savings association must file an application, notice, or other filing as prescribed by this section when adopting or amending its charter or bylaws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures and requirements governing charters and bylaws for Federal stock savings associations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, §§ 5.8 through 5.11 do not apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charter form.</I> The charter of a Federal stock association must be in the following form, except as provided in this section. An association that has converted from the mutual form pursuant to part 192 of this chapter must include in its charter a section establishing a liquidation account as required by § 192.485 of this chapter. A charter for a Federal stock savings bank must substitute the term “savings bank” for “association.” Charters may also include any preapproved optional provision contained in this section.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Federal Stock Charter
</HD3>
<P><I>Section 1. Corporate title.</I> The full corporate title of the association is __.
</P>
<P><I>Section 2. Office.</I> The home office is located in __ [city, state].
</P>
<P><I>Section 3. Duration.</I> The duration of the association is perpetual.
</P>
<P><I>Section 4. Purpose and powers.</I> The purpose of the association is to pursue any or all of the lawful objectives of a Federal savings association chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act and to exercise all of the express, implied, and incidental powers conferred thereby and by all acts amendatory thereof and supplemental thereto, subject to the Constitution and laws of the United States as they are now in effect, or as they may hereafter be amended, and subject to all lawful and applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”).
</P>
<P><I>Section 5. Capital stock.</I> The total number of shares of all classes of the capital stock that the association has the authority to issue is ____, all of which is common stock of par [or if no par is specified then shares have a stated] value of ____per share. The shares may be issued from time to time as authorized by the board of directors without the approval of its shareholders, except as otherwise provided in this Section 5 or to the extent that such approval is required by governing law, rule, or regulation. The consideration for the issuance of the shares must be paid in full before their issuance and may not be less than the par [or stated] value. Neither promissory notes nor future services may constitute payment or part payment for the issuance of shares of the association. The consideration for the shares must be cash, tangible or intangible property (to the extent direct investment in such property would be permitted to the association), labor, or services actually performed for the association, or any combination of the foregoing. In the absence of actual fraud in the transaction, the value of such property, labor, or services, as determined by the board of directors of the association, is conclusive. Upon payment of such consideration, such shares are deemed to be fully paid and nonassessable. In the case of a stock dividend, that part of the retained earnings of the association that is transferred to common stock or paid-in capital accounts upon the issuance of shares as a stock dividend is deemed to be the consideration for their issuance.
</P>
<P>Except for shares issued in the initial organization of the association or in connection with the conversion of the association from the mutual to stock form of capitalization, no shares of capital stock (including shares issuable upon conversion, exchange, or exercise of other securities) may be issued, directly or indirectly, to officers, directors, or controlling persons of the association other than as part of a general public offering or as qualifying shares to a director, unless the issuance or the plan under which they would be issued has been approved by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting. The holders of the common stock exclusively possess all voting power. Each holder of shares of common stock is entitled to one vote for each share held by such holder, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter provides that there will be no such cumulative voting. Subject to any provision for a liquidation account, in the event of any liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the association, the holders of the common stock will be entitled, after payment or provision for payment of all debts and liabilities of the association, to receive the remaining assets of the association available for distribution, in cash or in kind. Each share of common stock must have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of common stock.
</P>
<P><I>Section 6. Preemptive rights.</I> Holders of the capital stock of the association are not entitled to preemptive rights with respect to any shares of the association which may be issued.
</P>
<P><I>Section 7. Directors.</I> The association will be under the direction of a board of directors. The authorized number of directors, as stated in the association's bylaws, may not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen except when a greater or lesser number is approved by the OCC.
</P>
<P><I>Section 8. Amendment of charter.</I> Except as provided in Section 5, no amendment, addition, alteration, change or repeal of this charter may be made, unless such is proposed by the board of directors of the association, approved by the shareholders by a majority of the votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting, unless a higher vote is otherwise required, and approved or preapproved by the OCC.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>President or Chief Executive Officer of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Deputy Comptroller for Licensing
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Comptroller of the Currency
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Charter amendments.</I> In order to adopt a charter amendment, a Federal stock savings association must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors approval.</I> The board of directors of the association must adopt a resolution proposing the charter amendment that states the text of such amendment;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of filing</I>—(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a Federal stock savings association must file the proposed charter amendment with, and obtain the prior approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Expedited review.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the charter amendment will be deemed approved as of the 30th day after filing, unless the OCC notifies the filer that the amendment is denied or that the amendment contains procedures of the type described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(B) of this section and is not subject to expedited review, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amendments exempted from expedited review.</I> Expedited review is not available for a charter amendment that would render more difficult or discourage a merger, tender offer, or proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a block of the association's stock, the removal of incumbent management, or involve a significant issue of law or policy.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice requirement.</I> No application under paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section is required if the amendment is contained within paragraphs (e) or (g) of this section. In such case, the Federal stock savings association must submit a notice with the charter amendment to the OCC within 30 days after adoption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effectiveness.</I> A charter amendment is effective after approval by the OCC, if required, and adoption by the association, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter in adopting the amendments.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Optional charter amendments.</I> The following charter amendments are subject to the notice requirement in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section if adopted without change:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Title change.</I> A Federal stock association that complies with § 5.42 of this chapter may amend its charter by substituting a new corporate title in section 1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Home office.</I> A Federal savings association may amend its charter by substituting a new home office in section 2, if it has complied with applicable requirements of § 5.40.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Number of shares of stock and par value.</I> A Federal stock association may amend Section 5 of its charter to change the number of authorized shares of stock, the number of shares within each class of stock, and the par or stated value of such shares.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital stock.</I> A Federal stock association may amend its charter by revising Section 5 to read as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Section 5. Capital stock.</I> The total number of shares of all classes of capital stock that the association has the authority to issue is ____, of which ____is common stock of par [or if no par value is specified the stated] value of ____per share and of which [list the number of each class of preferred and the par or if no par value is specified the stated value per share of each such class]. The shares may be issued from time to time as authorized by the board of directors without further approval of shareholders, except as otherwise provided in this Section 5 or to the extent that such approval is required by governing law, rule, or regulation. The consideration for the issuance of the shares must be paid in full before their issuance and may not be less than the par [or stated] value. Neither promissory notes nor future services may constitute payment or part payment for the issuance of shares of the association. The consideration for the shares must be cash, tangible or intangible property (to the extent direct investment in such property would be permitted), labor, or services actually performed for the association, or any combination of the foregoing. In the absence of actual fraud in the transaction, the value of such property, labor, or services, as determined by the board of directors of the association, will be conclusive. Upon payment of such consideration, such shares will be deemed to be fully paid and nonassessable. In the case of a stock dividend, that part of the retained earnings of the association that is transferred to common stock or paid-in capital accounts upon the issuance of shares as a stock dividend will be deemed to be the consideration for their issuance.
</P>
<P>Except for shares issued in the initial organization of the association or in connection with the conversion of the association from the mutual to the stock form of capitalization, no shares of capital stock (including shares issuable upon conversion, exchange, or exercise of other securities) may be issued, directly or indirectly, to officers, directors, or controlling persons of the association other than as part of a general public offering or as qualifying shares to a director, unless their issuance or the plan under which they would be issued has been approved by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting.
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections hereto) entitles the holders of any class of a series of capital stock to vote as a separate class or series or to more than one vote per share, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter otherwise provides that there will be no such cumulative voting: <I>Provided,</I> That this restriction on voting separately by class or series does not apply:
</P>
<P>i. To any provision which would authorize the holders of preferred stock, voting as a class or series, to elect some members of the board of directors, less than a majority thereof, in the event of default in the payment of dividends on any class or series of preferred stock;
</P>
<P>ii. To any provision that would require the holders of preferred stock, voting as a class or series, to approve the merger or consolidation of the association with another corporation or the sale, lease, or conveyance (other than by mortgage or pledge) of properties or business in exchange for securities of a corporation other than the association if the preferred stock is exchanged for securities of such other corporation: <I>Provided,</I> That no provision may require such approval for transactions undertaken with the assistance or pursuant to the direction of the OCC or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>iii. To any amendment which would adversely change the specific terms of any class or series of capital stock as set forth in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections hereto), including any amendment which would create or enlarge any class or series ranking prior thereto in rights and preferences. An amendment which increases the number of authorized shares of any class or series of capital stock, or substitutes the surviving association in a merger or consolidation for the association, is not considered to be such an adverse change.
</P>
<P>A description of the different classes and series (if any) of the association's capital stock and a statement of the designations, and the relative rights, preferences, and limitations of the shares of each class of and series (if any) of capital stock are as follows:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Common stock.</I> Except as provided in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections thereto) the holders of the common stock exclusively possess all voting power. Each holder of shares of the common stock is entitled to one vote for each share held by each holder, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter otherwise provides that there will be no such cumulative voting.
</P>
<P>Whenever there has been paid, or declared and set aside for payment, to the holders of the outstanding shares of any class of stock having preference over the common stock as to the payment of dividends, the full amount of dividends and of sinking fund, retirement fund, or other retirement payments, if any, to which such holders are respectively entitled in preference to the common stock, then dividends may be paid on the common stock and on any class or series of stock entitled to participate therewith as to dividends out of any assets legally available for the payment of dividends.
</P>
<P>In the event of any liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the association, the holders of the common stock (and the holders of any class or series of stock entitled to participate with the common stock in the distribution of assets) will be entitled to receive, in cash or in kind, the assets of the association available for distribution remaining after: (i) Payment or provision for payment of the association's debts and liabilities; (ii) distributions or provision for distributions in settlement of its liquidation account; and (iii) distributions or provision for distributions to holders of any class or series of stock having preference over the common stock in the liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the association. Each share of common stock will have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of common stock.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preferred stock.</I> The association may provide in supplementary sections to its charter for one or more classes of preferred stock, which must be separately identified. The shares of any class may be divided into and issued in series, with each series separately designated so as to distinguish the shares thereof from the shares of all other series and classes. The terms of each series must be set forth in a supplementary section to the charter. All shares of the same class must be identical except as to the following relative rights and preferences, as to which there may be variations between different series:
</P>
<P>a. The distinctive serial designation and the number of shares constituting such series;
</P>
<P>b. The dividend rate or the amount of dividends to be paid on the shares of such series, whether dividends are cumulative and, if so, from which date(s), the payment date(s) for dividends, and the participating or other special rights, if any, with respect to dividends;
</P>
<P>c. The voting powers, full or limited, if any, of shares of such series;
</P>
<P>d. Whether the shares of such series are redeemable and, if so, the price(s) at which, and the terms and conditions on which, such shares may be redeemed;
</P>
<P>e. The amount(s) payable upon the shares of such series in the event of voluntary or involuntary liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the association;
</P>
<P>f. Whether the shares of such series are entitled to the benefit of a sinking or retirement fund to be applied to the purchase or redemption of such shares, and if so entitled, the amount of such fund and the manner of its application, including the price(s) at which such shares may be redeemed or purchased through the application of such fund;
</P>
<P>g. Whether the shares of such series are convertible into, or exchangeable for, shares of any other class or classes of stock of the association and, if so, the conversion price(s) or the rate(s) of exchange, and the adjustments thereof, if any, at which such conversion or exchange may be made, and any other terms and conditions of such conversion or exchange.
</P>
<P>h. The price or other consideration for which the shares of such series are issued; and
</P>
<P>i. Whether the shares of such series which are redeemed or converted have the status of authorized but unissued shares of serial preferred stock and whether such shares may be reissued as shares of the same or any other series of serial preferred stock.
</P>
<P>Each share of each series of serial preferred stock must have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of the same series.
</P>
<P>The board of directors has authority to divide, by the adoption of supplementary charter sections, any authorized class of preferred stock into series, and, within the limitations set forth in this section and the remainder of this charter, fix and determine the relative rights and preferences of the shares of any series so established.
</P>
<P>Prior to the issuance of any preferred shares of a series established by a supplementary charter section adopted by the board of directors, the association must file with the OCC a dated copy of that supplementary section of this charter established and designating the series and fixing and determining the relative rights and preferences thereof.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Limitations on subsequent issuances.</I> A Federal stock association may amend its charter to require shareholder approval of the issuance or reservation of common stock or securities convertible into common stock under circumstances which would require shareholder approval under the rules of the New York Stock Exchange if the shares were then listed on the New York Stock Exchange.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cumulative voting.</I> A Federal stock association may amend its charter by substituting the following sentence for the second sentence in the third paragraph of Section 5: “Each holder of shares of common stock will be entitled to one vote for each share held by such holder and there will be no right to cumulate votes in an election of directors.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Anti-takeover provisions following mutual to stock conversion.</I> Notwithstanding the law of the State in which the association is located, a Federal stock association may amend its charter by renumbering existing sections as appropriate and adding a new section 8 as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Section 8. Certain Provisions Applicable for Five Years.</I> Notwithstanding anything contained in the Association's charter or bylaws to the contrary, for a period of [specify number of years up to five] years from the date of completion of the conversion of the Association from mutual to stock form, the following provisions will apply:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Beneficial Ownership Limitation.</I> No person may directly or indirectly offer to acquire or acquire the beneficial ownership of more than 10 percent of any class of an equity security of the association. This limitation does not apply to a transaction in which the association forms a holding company without change in the respective beneficial ownership interests of its stockholders other than pursuant to the exercise of any dissenter and appraisal rights, the purchase of shares by underwriters in connection with a public offering, or the purchase of less than 25 percent of a class of stock by a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan as defined in 12 CFR 192.25.
</P>
<P>In the event shares are acquired in violation of this section 8, all shares beneficially owned by any person in excess of 10 percent will be considered “excess shares” and will not be counted as shares entitled to vote and may not be voted by any person or counted as voting shares in connection with any matters submitted to the stockholders for a vote.
</P>
<P>For purposes of this section 8, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>1. The term “person” includes an individual, a group acting in concert, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization or similar company, a syndicate or any other group formed for the purpose of acquiring, holding or disposing of the equity securities of the association.
</P>
<P>2. The term “offer” includes every offer to buy or otherwise acquire, solicitation of an offer to sell, tender offer for, or request or invitation for tenders of, a security or interest in a security for value.
</P>
<P>3. The term “acquire” includes every type of acquisition, whether effected by purchase, exchange, operation of law or otherwise.
</P>
<P>4. The term “acting in concert” means (a) knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control whether or not pursuant to an express agreement, or (b) a combination or pooling of voting or other interests in the securities of an issuer for a common purpose pursuant to any contract, understanding, relationship, agreement or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Cumulative Voting Limitation.</I> Stockholders may not cumulate their votes for election of directors.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Call for Special Meetings.</I> Special meetings of stockholders relating to changes in control of the association or amendments to its charter may be called only upon direction of the board of directors.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Anti-takeover provisions.</I> The OCC may grant approval to a charter amendment not listed in paragraph (g) of this section regarding the acquisition by any person or persons of its equity securities provided that the association files as part of its application pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section an opinion, acceptable to the OCC, of counsel independent from the association that the proposed charter provision would be permitted to be adopted by a corporation chartered by the State in which the principal office of the association is located. Any such provision must be consistent with applicable statutes, regulations, and OCC policies. Further, any such provision that would have the effect of rendering more difficult a change in control of the association and would require for any corporate action (other than the removal of directors) the affirmative vote of a larger percentage of shareholders than is required by this part, may not be effective unless adopted by a percentage of shareholder vote at least equal to the highest percentage that would be required to take any action under such provision.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reissuance of charter.</I> A Federal stock association that has amended its charter may apply to have its charter, including the amendments, reissued by the OCC. Such requests for reissuance should be filed with the appropriate OCC licensing office, and contain signatures required in the form “Federal Stock Charter” in paragraph (e) of this section, together with such supporting documents as needed to demonstrate that the amendments were properly adopted.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Bylaws for Federal stock savings associations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Bylaws may be adopted, amended or repealed by either a majority of the votes cast by the shareholders at a legal meeting or a majority of the board of directors. A bylaw provision inconsistent with paragraph (k), (l), (m) or (n) of this section may be adopted only with the approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of filing</I>—(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (j)(2)(ii) or (j)(2)(iii) of this section, a Federal stock savings association must file the proposed bylaw amendment with, and obtain the prior approval of, the OCC.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Expedited review.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the bylaw amendment will be deemed approved as of the 30th day after filing, unless the OCC notifies the filer that the application is denied or that the amendment contains procedures of the type described in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(B) of this section and is not eligible for expedited review, provided the association follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Amendments exempted from expedited review.</I> Expedited review is not available for a bylaw amendment that would:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Render more difficult or discourage a merger, tender offer, or proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a large block of the association's stock, or the removal of incumbent management; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Be inconsistent with paragraphs (k) through (n) of this section, with applicable laws, rules, regulations or the association's charter or involve a significant issue of law or policy, including indemnification, conflicts of interest, and limitations on director or officer liability.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Corporate governance election and notice requirement.</I> A Federal stock association may elect to follow the corporate governance provisions of: The laws of any State in which the home office or any branch of the association is located; the laws of any State in which a holding company of the association is incorporated or chartered; Delaware General Corporation law; or the Model Business Corporation Act, provided that such provisions may be elected to the extent not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes and regulations and safety and soundness, and such provisions are not of the type described in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(B) of this section. If this election is selected, a Federal stock association must designate in its bylaws the provision or provisions from the body or bodies of law selected for its corporate governance provisions, and must file a notice containing a copy of such bylaws, within 30 days after adoption. The notice must indicate, where not obvious, why the bylaw provisions meet the requirements stated in paragraph (j)(2)(i)(B) of this section. A Federal stock savings association that has elected to follow the corporate governance provisions of the law of the State in which its holding company is incorporated may continue to use those provisions even if the association is no longer controlled by that holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No filing required.</I> No filing is required for purposes of paragraph (j)(2) of this section if a bylaw amendment adopts the language of the OCC's model or optional bylaws without change.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effectiveness.</I> A bylaw amendment is effective after approval by the OCC, if required, and adoption by the association, provided that the association follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting the amendment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of subsequent charter or bylaw change.</I> Notwithstanding any subsequent change to its charter or bylaws, the authority of a Federal savings association to engage in any transaction is determined only by the association's charter or bylaws then in effect.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Shareholders of Federal stock savings associations</I>—(1) <I>Shareholder meetings</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A meeting of the shareholders of the association for the election of directors and for the transaction of any other business of the association must be held annually within 150 days after the end of the association's fiscal year. Unless otherwise provided in the association's charter, special meetings of the shareholders may be called by the board of directors or on the request of the holders of 10 percent or more of the shares entitled to vote at the meeting, or by such other persons as may be specified in the bylaws of the association.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location of shareholder meetings</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> All annual and special meetings of shareholders of the association may be held at any convenient place the board of directors may designate. The association's bylaws may provide for the telephonic or electronic participation of shareholders in these meetings. Shareholders participating in an annual or special meeting telephonically or electronically will be deemed present in person for purposes of the quorum requirement in paragraph (k)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Procedures for telephonic or electronic participation.</I> If the association's bylaws provide for telephonic or electronic participation in shareholder meetings, the association must elect to follow corporate governance provisions for these meetings pursuant to paragraph (j)(2)(ii) of this section that include procedures for telephonic or electronic participation in shareholder meetings. The association must indicate the use of these elected procedures in its bylaws.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of shareholder meetings.</I> Written notice stating the place, day, and hour of the meeting and the purpose or purposes for which the meeting is called must be delivered not fewer than 20 nor more than 50 days before the date of the meeting, either personally or by mail, by or at the direction of the chair of the board, the president, the secretary, or the directors, or other persons calling the meeting, to each shareholder of record entitled to vote at such meeting. If mailed, such notice will be deemed to be delivered when deposited in the mail, addressed to the shareholder at the address appearing on the stock transfer books or records of the association as of the record date prescribed in paragraph (k)(3) of this section, with postage thereon prepaid. When any shareholders' meeting, either annual or special, is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjourned meeting must be given as in the case of an original meeting. Notwithstanding anything in this section, however, a Federal stock association that is wholly owned is not subject to the shareholder notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixing of record date.</I> For the purpose of determining shareholders entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of shareholders or any adjournment thereof, or shareholders entitled to receive payment of any dividend, or in order to make a determination of shareholders for any other proper purpose, the board of directors must fix in advance a date as the record date for any such determination of shareholders. Such date in any case may not be more than 60 days and, in case of a meeting of shareholders, not less than 10 days prior to the date on which the particular action, requiring such determination of shareholders, is to be taken. When a determination of shareholders entitled to vote at any meeting of shareholders has been made as provided in this section, such determination will apply to any adjournment thereof.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Voting lists.</I> (i) At least 20 days before each meeting of the shareholders, the officer or agent having charge of the stock transfer books for the shares of the association must make a complete list of the stockholders of record entitled to vote at such meeting, or any adjournments thereof, arranged in alphabetical order, with the address and the number of shares held by each. This list of shareholders must be kept on file at the home office of the association and is subject to inspection by any shareholder of record or the stockholder's agent during the entire time of the meeting. The original stock transfer book will constitute <I>prima facie</I> evidence of the stockholders entitled to examine such list or transfer books or to vote at any meeting of stockholders. Notwithstanding anything in this section, however, a Federal stock association that is wholly owned is not subject to the voting list requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of making the shareholders list available for inspection by any shareholders as provided in paragraph (k)(4)(i) of this section, the board of directors may perform such acts as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of Rule 14a-7 of the General Rules and Regulations under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (17 CFR 240.14a-7) as may be duly requested in writing, with respect to any matter which may be properly considered at a meeting of shareholders, by any shareholder who is entitled to vote on such matter and who must defray the reasonable expenses to be incurred by the association in performance of the act or acts required.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shareholder quorum.</I> A majority of the outstanding shares of the association entitled to vote, represented in person or by proxy, constitutes a quorum at a meeting of shareholders. The shareholders present at a duly organized meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment, notwithstanding the withdrawal of enough shareholders to leave less than a quorum. If a quorum is present, the affirmative vote of the majority of the shares represented at the meeting and entitled to vote on the subject matter will be the act of the stockholders, unless the vote of a greater number of stockholders voting together or voting by classes is required by law or the charter. Directors, however, are elected by a plurality of the votes cast at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Shareholder voting</I>—(i) <I>Proxies.</I> Unless otherwise provided in the association's charter, at all meetings of shareholders, a shareholder may vote in person or by proxy executed in writing by the shareholder or by a duly authorized attorney in fact. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the shareholder. Proxies solicited on behalf of the management must be voted as directed by the shareholder or, in the absence of such direction, as determined by a majority of the board of directors. No proxy maybe valid more than eleven months from the date of its execution except for a proxy coupled with an interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Shares controlled by association.</I> Neither treasury shares of its own stock held by the association nor shares held by another corporation, if a majority of the shares entitled to vote for the election of directors of such other corporation are held by the association, may be voted at any meeting or counted in determining the total number of outstanding shares at any given time for purposes of any meeting.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Nominations and new business submitted by shareholders.</I> Nominations for directors and new business submitted by shareholders must be voted upon at the annual meeting if such nominations or new business are submitted in writing and delivered to the secretary of the association at least five days prior to the date of the annual meeting. Ballots bearing the names of all the persons nominated must be provided for use at the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Informal action by stockholders.</I> If the bylaws of the association so provide, any action required to be taken at a meeting of the stockholders, or any other action that may be taken at a meeting of the stockholders, may be taken without a meeting if consent in writing has been given by all the stockholders entitled to vote with respect to the subject matter.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Board of directors</I>—(1) <I>General powers and duties.</I> The business and affairs of the association must be under the direction of its board of directors. Directors need not be stockholders unless the bylaws so require.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Number and term.</I> The bylaws must set forth a specific number of directors, not a range. The number of directors may not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen, unless a higher or lower number has been authorized by the OTS prior to July 21, 2011 or the OCC. Directors must be elected for a term of one to three years and until their successors are elected and qualified. If a staggered board is chosen, the directors must be divided into two or three classes as nearly equal in number as possible and one class must be elected by ballot annually.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regular meetings.</I> The board of directors determines the place, frequency, time and procedure for notice of regular meetings. The bylaws may provide for telephonic or electronic participation at these meetings.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quorum.</I> A majority of the number of directors constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting of the board of directors. The act of the majority of the directors present at a meeting at which a quorum is present will be the act of the board of directors, unless a greater number is prescribed by regulation of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Vacancies.</I> Any vacancy occurring in the board of directors may be filled by the affirmative vote of a majority of the remaining directors even with less than a quorum of the board of directors. A director elected to fill a vacancy may serve only until the next election of directors by the shareholders. Any directorship to be filled by reason of an increase in the number of directors may be filled by election by the board of directors for a term of office continuing only until the next election of directors by the shareholders.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Removal or resignation of directors.</I> (i) At a meeting of shareholders called expressly for that purpose, any director may be removed only for cause, as termination for cause is defined in § 5.21(j)(2)(x)(B), by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors. Associations may provide for procedures regarding resignations in the bylaws.
</P>
<P>(ii) If less than the entire board is to be removed, no one of the directors may be removed if the votes cast against the removal would be sufficient to elect a director if then cumulatively voted at an election of the class of directors of which such director is a part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whenever the holders of the shares of any class are entitled to elect one or more directors by the provisions of the charter or supplemental sections thereto, the provisions of this section apply, in respect to the removal of a director or directors so elected, to the vote of the holders of the outstanding shares of that class and not to the vote of the outstanding shares as a whole.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Executive and other committees.</I> The board of directors, by resolution adopted by a majority of the full board, may designate from among its members an executive committee and one or more other committees. No committee may have the authority of the board of directors with reference to: The declaration of dividends; the amendment of the charter or bylaws of the association; recommending to the stockholders a plan of merger, consolidation, or conversion; the sale, lease, or other disposition of all, or substantially all, of the property and assets of the association otherwise than in the usual and regular course of its business; a voluntary dissolution of the association; a revocation of any of the foregoing; or the approval of a transaction in which any member of the executive committee, directly or indirectly, has any material beneficial interest. The designation of any committee and the delegation of authority thereto does not operate to relieve the board of directors, or any director, of any responsibility imposed by law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notice of special meetings.</I> Written notice of at least 24 hours regarding any special meeting of the board of directors or of any committee designated thereby must be given to each director in accordance with the bylaws, although such notice may be waived by the director. The attendance of a director at a meeting constitutes a waiver of notice of such meeting, except where a director attends a meeting for the express purpose of objecting to the transaction of any business because the meeting is not lawfully called or convened. Neither the business to be transacted at, nor the purpose of, any meeting need be specified in the notice or waiver of notice of such meeting. The bylaws may provide for telephonic or electronic participation at a special meeting.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Action without a meeting.</I> Any action required or permitted to be taken by the board of directors at a meeting may be taken without a meeting if a consent in writing, setting forth the actions so taken, is signed by all of the directors.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Presumption of assent.</I> A director of the association who is present at a meeting of the board of directors at which action on any association matter is taken is presumed to have assented to the action taken unless their dissent or abstention is entered in the minutes of the meeting or unless a written dissent to such action is filed with the person acting as the secretary of the meeting before the adjournment thereof or is forwarded by registered mail to the secretary of the association within five days after the date on which a copy of the minutes of the meeting is received. Such right to dissent does not apply to a director who voted in favor of such action.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Age limitation on directors.</I> A Federal association may provide a bylaw on age limitation for directors. Bylaws on age limitations must comply with all Federal laws, rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Officers</I>—(1) <I>Positions.</I> The officers of the association must consist of a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller, each of whom must be elected by the board of directors. The board of directors may also designate the chair of the board as an officer. The offices of the secretary and treasurer or comptroller may be held by the same person and the vice president may also be either the secretary or the treasurer or comptroller. The board of directors may designate one or more vice presidents as executive vice president or senior vice president.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal.</I> Any officer may be removed by the board of directors whenever in its judgment the best interests of the association will be served thereby; but such removal, other than for cause, as termination for cause is defined in § 5.21(j)(2)(x)(B), will be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the person so removed. </P>
<P>(3) <I>Age limitation on officers.</I> A Federal association may provide a bylaw on age limitation for officers. Bylaws on age limitations must comply with all Federal laws, rules, and regulations.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Certificates for shares and their transfer</I>—(1) <I>Certificates for shares.</I> Certificates representing shares of capital stock of the association must be in such form as determined by the board of directors and approved by the OCC. The name and address of the person to whom the shares are issued, with the number of shares and date of issue, must be entered on the stock transfer books of the association. All certificates surrendered to the association for transfer must be cancelled and no new certificate may be issued until the former certificate for a like number of shares has been surrendered and cancelled, except that in the case of a lost or destroyed certificate a new certificate may be issued upon such terms and indemnity to the association as the board of directors may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfer of shares.</I> Transfer of shares of capital stock of the association may be made only on its stock transfer books. Authority for such transfer may be given only by the holder of record or by a legal representative, who must furnish proper evidence of such authority, or by an attorney authorized by a duly executed power of attorney and filed with the association. The transfer may be made only on surrender for cancellation of the certificate for the shares. The person in whose name shares of capital stock stand on the books of the association is deemed by the association to be the owner for all purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28425, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8103, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 31948, May 28, 2020; 85 FR 80440, Dec. 11, 2020; 85 FR 83726, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.23   Conversion to become a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 35, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 2903, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section describes procedures and standards governing OCC review and approval of an application by a mutual depository institution to convert to a Federal mutual savings association or an application by a stock depository institution to convert to a Federal stock savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) As used in this section, depository institution means any commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union chartered in the United States and having its principal office located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A depository institution that is mutual in form (“mutual depository institution”) must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval to convert to a Federal mutual savings association. A stock depository institution must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval to convert to a Federal stock savings association. At the time of conversion, the filer must have deposits insured by the FDIC. An institution that is not already insured by the FDIC must apply to the FDIC, and obtain FDIC approval, for deposit insurance before converting.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conversion of a mutual depository institution or a stock depository institution to a Federal savings association</I>—(1) <I>Policy.</I> Consistent with the OCC's chartering policy, it is OCC policy to allow conversion to a Federal savings association charter by another financial institution that can operate safely and soundly as a Federal savings association in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies. This includes consideration of the factors set out in section 5(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(e). The converting financial institution must obtain all necessary regulatory and shareholder or member approvals. The OCC may deny an application by any mutual depository institution or stock depository institution to convert to a Federal mutual savings association charter or Federal stock association charter, respectively, on the basis of the standards for denial set forth in § 5.13(b) or when conversion would permit the filer to escape supervisory action by its current regulators.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures</I>—(i) <I>Prefiling communications.</I> The filer should consult with the appropriate OCC licensing office prior to filing if it anticipates that its application will raise unusual or complex issues. If a prefiling meeting is appropriate, it will normally be held in the OCC licensing office where the application will be filed, but may be held at another location at the request of the filer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application.</I> A mutual depository institution or a stock depository institution must submit its application to convert to a Federal mutual savings association or Federal stock depository association, respectively, to the appropriate OCC licensing office and must send a copy of the application to its current appropriate Federal banking agency. The application must:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify each branch that the resulting financial institution expects to operate after conversion;
</P>
<P>(B) Include the institution's most recent audited financial statements (if any);
</P>
<P>(C) Include the latest report of condition and report of income (the most recent daily statement of condition will suffice if the institution does not file these reports);
</P>
<P>(D) Unless otherwise advised by the OCC in a prefiling communication, include an opinion of counsel that, in the case of State-chartered institutions, the conversion is not in contravention of applicable State law, or in the case of Federally-chartered institutions, the conversion is not in contravention of applicable Federal law;
</P>
<P>(E) State whether the institution wishes to exercise fiduciary powers after the conversion;
</P>
<P>(F) Identify all subsidiaries, service corporation investments, bank service company investments, and other equity investments that will be retained following the conversion, and provide the information and analysis of the subsidiaries' activities and the service corporation investments and other equity investments that would be required if the converting mutual institution or stock institution were a Federal mutual savings association or Federal stock savings association, respectively, establishing each subsidiary or making each service corporation or other equity investment pursuant to § 5.35, § 5.38, § 5.58, or § 5.59, or other applicable law and regulation;
</P>
<P>(G) Identify any nonconforming assets (including nonconforming subsidiaries) and nonconforming activities that the institution engages in and describe the plans to retain or divest those assets and activities;
</P>
<P>(H) Include a business plan if the converting institution has been operating for less than three years, plans to make significant changes to its business after the conversion, or at the request of the OCC;
</P>
<P>(I) Include a list of all outstanding conditions or other requirements imposed by the institution's current appropriate Federal banking agency and, if applicable, current State bank supervisor or State attorney-general in any cease and desist order, written agreement, other formal enforcement order, memorandum of understanding, approval of any application, notice or request, commitment letter, board resolution, or in any other manner, including the converting institution's analysis whether any such actions prohibit conversion under 12 U.S.C. 35, and the converting institution's plans regarding adhering to such conditions and requirements after conversion; 
</P>
<P>(J) If the converting institution does not meet the qualified thrift lender test of 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m), include a plan to achieve compliance within a reasonable period of time and a request for an exception from the OCC;
</P>
<P>(K) Include a list of directors and senior executive officers, as defined in § 5.51, of the converting institution; and
</P>
<P>(L) Include a list of individuals, directors, and shareholders who directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with one or more persons or companies, or together with members of their immediate family, do or will own, control, or hold 10 percent or more of the institution's voting stock.
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC may permit a Federal savings association to retain nonconforming assets of a converting institution for the time period prescribed by the OCC following a conversion, subject to conditions and an OCC determination of the carrying value of the retained assets consistent with the requirements of section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)) relating to loans and investments. The OCC may permit a Federal savings association to continue nonconforming activities of a converting institution for the time period prescribed by the OCC following a conversion, subject to conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC may require directors and senior executive officers of the converting institution to submit the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov,</I> and legible fingerprints.
</P>
<P>(v) Approval for an institution to convert to a Federal savings association expires if the conversion has not occurred within six months of the OCC's approval of the application, unless the OCC grants an extension of time.
</P>
<P>(vi) When the OCC determines that the filer has satisfied all statutory and regulatory requirements and any other conditions, the OCC issues a charter. The charter provides that the institution is authorized to begin conducting business as a Federal mutual savings association or a Federal stock savings association as of a specified date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible bank or covered community bank to convert to a Federal savings association charter is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conversion of a mutual depository institution to a Federal mutual savings association—supplemental rules.</I> In addition to the rules and procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, a filer converting from a mutual depository institution to a Federal mutual savings association must comply with the following: After a Federal charter is issued to a converting institution, the association's members must after due notice, or upon a valid adjournment of a previous legal meeting, hold a meeting to elect directors and take care of all other actions necessary to fully effectuate the conversion and operate the association in accordance with law and these rules and regulations. Immediately thereafter, the board of directors must meet, elect officers, and transact any other appropriate business.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conversion of a national bank to a Federal stock savings association—supplemental rules</I>—(1) <I>Additional procedures.</I> A national bank may convert to a Federal stock savings association. In addition to the rules and procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, a national bank that desires to convert to a Federal stock savings association must follow the requirements and procedures set forth in 12 U.S.C. 214a as if it were converting to a State bank and include in its application information demonstrating compliance with the applicable requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination and change of status.</I> The appropriate OCC licensing office provides instructions to the converting national bank for terminating its status as a national bank and beginning its status as a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Continuation of business and entity.</I> The existence of the converting institution continues in the resulting Federal savings association. The resulting Federal savings association is considered the same business and entity as the converting institution, although as to rights, powers, and duties, the resulting Federal savings association is a Federal savings association. Any and all of the assets and other property (whether real, personal, mixed, tangible or intangible, including choses in action, rights, and credits) of the converting institution become assets and property of the resulting Federal savings association when the conversion occurs. Similarly, any and all of the obligations and debts of and claims against the converting institution become obligations and debts of and claims against the Federal savings association when the conversion occurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28430, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80445, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.24   Conversion to become a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 35, 93a, 214a, 214b, 214c, and 2903.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A State bank, a stock State savings association, or a Federal stock savings association must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval to convert to a national bank charter. A Federal mutual savings association that plans to convert to a national bank must first convert to a Federal stock savings association under 12 CFR part 192.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section describes procedures and standards governing OCC review and approval of an application by a State bank, a stock State savings association, or a Federal stock savings association to convert to a national bank charter.
</P>
<P>(2) As used in this section, <I>State bank</I> includes a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Policy.</I> Consistent with the OCC's chartering policy, it is OCC policy to allow conversion to a national bank charter by another financial institution that can operate safely and soundly as a national bank in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies. A converting financial institution also must obtain all necessary regulatory and shareholder approvals. The OCC may deny an application by any State bank, stock State savings association, and any Federal stock savings association to convert to a national bank charter on the basis of the standards for denial set forth in § 5.13(b), or when conversion would permit the filer to escape supervisory action by its current regulators.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Prefiling communications.</I> The filer should consult with the appropriate OCC licensing office prior to filing if it anticipates that its application will raise unusual or complex issues. If a prefiling meeting is appropriate, it will normally be held at the OCC licensing office where the application will be filed, but may be held at another location at the request of the filer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> A State bank, a Stock state savings association, or a Federal stock savings association must submit its application to convert to a national bank to the appropriate OCC licensing office and send a copy to its current appropriate Federal banking agency. The application must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify each branch that the resulting bank expects to operate after conversion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include the institution's most recent audited financial statements (if any);
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the latest report of condition and report of income (the most recent daily statement of condition will suffice if the institution does not file these reports);
</P>
<P>(iv) Unless otherwise advised by the OCC in a prefiling communication, include an opinion of counsel that, in the case of a State bank, the conversion is not in contravention of applicable State law, or in the case of a Federal stock savings association, the conversion is not in contravention of applicable Federal law;
</P>
<P>(v) State whether the institution wishes to exercise fiduciary powers after the conversion;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify all subsidiaries, bank service company investments, and other equity investments that will be retained following the conversion, and provide the information and analysis of the subsidiaries' activities, the bank service company investments, and the other equity investments that would be required if the converting bank or savings association were a national bank establishing each subsidiary or making each bank service company investment or other equity investment pursuant to § 5.34, § 5.35, § 5.36, § 5.39, 12 CFR part 1, or other applicable law and regulation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Identify any nonconforming assets (including nonconforming subsidiaries) and nonconforming activities that the institution engages in and describe the plans to retain or divest those assets and activities;
</P>
<P>(viii) Include a business plan if the converting institution has been operating for fewer than three years, plans to make significant changes to its business after the conversion, or at the request of the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(ix) List all outstanding conditions or other requirements imposed by the institution's current appropriate Federal banking agency and, if applicable, current State bank supervisor or State attorney-general in any cease and desist order, written agreement, other formal enforcement order, memorandum of understanding, approval of any application, notice or request, commitment letter, board resolution, or in any other manner, including the converting institution's analysis whether the conversion is prohibited under 12 U.S.C. 35, and State the institution's plans regarding adhering to such conditions or requirements after conversion;
</P>
<P>(x) Include a list of directors and senior executive officers, as defined in § 5.51, of the converting institution; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Include a list of individuals, directors, and shareholders who directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with one or more persons or companies, or together with members of their immediate family, do or will own, control, or hold 10 percent or more of the institution's voting stock.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may permit a national bank to retain nonconforming assets of a State bank or stock State savings association, subject to conditions and an OCC determination of the carrying value of the retained assets, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 35. The OCC may permit a national bank to continue nonconforming activities of a State bank or stock State savings association, or to retain the nonconforming assets or nonconforming activities of a Federal stock savings association, for a reasonable period of time following a conversion, subject to conditions imposed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(4) The OCC may require directors and senior executive officers of the converting institution to submit the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov,</I> and legible fingerprints.
</P>
<P>(5) Approval for an institution to convert to a national bank expires if the conversion has not occurred within six months of the OCC's approval of the application, unless the OCC grants an extension of time.
</P>
<P>(6) When the OCC determines that the filer has satisfied all statutory and regulatory requirements, including those set forth in 12 U.S.C. 35, and any other conditions, the OCC issues a charter certificate. The certificate provides that the institution is authorized to begin conducting business as a national bank as of a specified date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conversion of a Federal stock savings association to a national bank—supplemental rules</I>—(1) <I>Additional information.</I> A Federal stock savings association may convert to a national bank. In addition to the rules and procedures set forth in paragraph (e) of this section, a Federal stock savings association that desires to convert to a national bank must include in its application information demonstrating compliance with applicable laws regarding the permissibility, requirements, and procedures for conversions, including any applicable stockholder or account holder approval requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination and change of status.</I> The appropriate OCC licensing office provides instructions to the converting Federal stock savings association for terminating its status as a Federal stock savings association and beginning its status as a national bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible savings association or covered community savings association to convert to a national bank charter is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuation of business and corporate entity.</I> The corporate existence of the converting institution continues in the resulting national bank. The resulting national bank is considered the same business and corporate entity as the converting institution, although as to rights, powers, and duties, the resulting national bank is a national bank. Any and all of the assets and other property (whether real, personal, mixed, tangible or intangible, including choses in action, rights, and credits) of the converting institution become assets and property of the resulting national bank when the conversion occurs. Similarly, any and all of the obligations and debts of and claims against the converting institution become obligations and debts of and claims against the national bank when the conversion occurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28432, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80446, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.25   Conversion from a national bank or Federal savings association to a State bank or State savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 214a, 214b, 214c, 214d, 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirement.</I> A national bank must give notice to the OCC before converting to a State bank (including a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a)) or a State savings association. A Federal savings association must give notice to the OCC before converting to a State savings association or a State bank. A Federal mutual savings association that plans to convert to a stock State bank must first convert to a Federal stock savings association under 12 CFR part 192.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures for a national bank seeking to convert to a State bank or a State savings association or for a Federal savings association seeking to convert to a State savings association or a State bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>National banks.</I> A national bank may convert to a State bank (including a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a)) or a State savings association in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 214a and 214c, without prior OCC approval, subject to compliance with 12 U.S.C. 214d. Termination of a national bank's status as a national bank occurs upon the bank's completion of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a, and upon the OCC's receipt of the bank's national bank charter in connection with the consummation of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association may convert to a State savings association or to a State bank, without prior OCC approval, subject to compliance with 12 U.S.C. 1464(i)(6). Termination of a Federal savings association's status as a Federal savings association occurs upon receipt of the Federal savings association's charter in connection with the consummation of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of intent.</I> (i) A national bank that desires to convert to a State bank (including a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a)) or State savings association, or a Federal savings association that desires to convert to a State savings association or a State bank,must submit a notice of intent to convert to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The national bank or Federal savings association must file this notice with the OCC at the time it files a conversion application with the appropriate State authority or the prospective appropriate Federal banking agency. The national bank or Federal savings association also must transmit a copy of the conversion application to the prospective appropriate Federal banking agency if it has not already done so.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the conversion application; and
</P>
<P>(B) An analysis demonstrating that the conversion is in compliance with laws of the applicable jurisdictions regarding the permissibility, requirements, and procedures for conversions, including any applicable stockholder or account holder approval requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consultation.</I> The OCC may consult with the appropriate State authorities or the prospective appropriate Federal banking agency regarding the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Termination of status.</I> After receipt of the notice, the appropriate OCC licensing office provides instructions to the national bank or Federal savings association for terminating its status as a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.5 through 5.8 and 5.10 through 5.13 do not apply to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28433, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80446, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.2.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.26   Fiduciary powers of national banks and Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 92a, 1462a, 1463, 1464(n), and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must submit an application and obtain prior approval from, or in certain circumstances file a notice with, the OCC in order to exercise fiduciary powers. No approval or notice is required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Where two or more national banks consolidate or merge, and any of the national banks has, prior to the consolidation or merger, received OCC approval to exercise fiduciary powers and that approval is in force at the time of the consolidation or merger, the resulting national bank may exercise fiduciary powers in the same manner and to the same extent as the national bank to which approval was originally granted;
</P>
<P>(2) Where two or more Federal savings associations consolidate or merge, and any of the Federal savings associations has, prior to the consolidation or merger, received approval from the OCC or the OTS to exercise fiduciary powers and that approval is in force at the time of the consolidation or merger, the resulting Federal savings association may exercise fiduciary powers in the same manner and to the same extent as the Federal savings association to which approval was originally granted;
</P>
<P>(3) Where a national bank with prior OCC approval to exercise fiduciary powers is the resulting bank in a merger or consolidation with a State bank, State savings association, or Federal savings association and the national bank will exercise fiduciary powers in the same manner and to the same extent to which approval was originally granted; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where a Federal savings association with prior approval from the OCC or the OTS to exercise fiduciary powers is the resulting savings association in a merger or consolidation with a State bank, State savings association, or national bank and the Federal savings association will exercise fiduciary powers in the same manner and to the same extent to which approval was originally granted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the procedures governing OCC review and approval of an application, and in certain cases the filing of a notice, by a national bank or Federal savings association to exercise fiduciary powers. Fiduciary activities of national banks are subject to the provisions of 12 CFR part 9. Fiduciary activities of Federal savings associations are subject to the provisions of 12 CFR part 150.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Policy.</I> The exercise of fiduciary powers is primarily a management decision of the national bank or Federal savings association. The OCC generally permits a national bank or Federal savings association to exercise fiduciary powers if the bank or savings association is operating in a satisfactory manner, the proposed activities comply with applicable statutes and regulations, and the bank or savings association retains qualified fiduciary management.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The following institutions must obtain approval from the OCC in order to exercise fiduciary powers:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association without fiduciary powers:
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank without fiduciary powers that desires to exercise fiduciary powers as the resulting bank after merging with a State bank, State savings association, or Federal savings association with fiduciary powers or a Federal savings association without fiduciary powers that desires to exercise fiduciary powers as the resulting savings association after merging with a State bank, State savings association or national bank with fiduciary powers;
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank that results from the conversion of a State bank or a State or Federal savings association that was exercising fiduciary powers prior to the conversion or a Federal savings association that results from a conversion of a State or national bank or a State savings association that was exercising fiduciary powers prior to the conversion; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A national bank or Federal savings association that has received approval from the OCC to exercise limited fiduciary powers that desires to exercise full fiduciary powers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that desires to exercise fiduciary powers must submit to the OCC an application requesting approval. The application must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement requesting full or limited powers (specifying which powers);
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the capital and surplus of the national bank or Federal savings association is not less than the capital and surplus required by State law of State banks, trust companies, and other corporations exercising comparable fiduciary powers;
</P>
<P>(C) Sufficient biographical information on proposed senior trust management personnel, as identified by the OCC, to enable the OCC to assess their qualifications, including, if requested by the OCC, legible fingerprints and the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(D) A description of the locations where the national bank or Federal savings association will conduct fiduciary activities;
</P>
<P>(E) If requested by the OCC, an opinion of counsel that the proposed activities do not violate applicable Federal or State law, including citations to applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other information necessary to enable the OCC to sufficiently assess the factors described in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If approval to exercise fiduciary powers is desired in connection with any other transaction subject to an application under this part, the filer covered under paragraph (e)(1)(ii), (e)(1)(iii), or (e)(1)(iv) of this section may include a request for approval of fiduciary powers, including the information required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, as part of its other application. The OCC does not require a separate application requesting approval to exercise fiduciary powers under these circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iii) When reviewing any application filed under this section, the OCC considers factors such as the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial condition of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(B) The adequacy of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital and surplus and whether it is sufficient under the circumstances and not less than the capital and surplus required by State law or State banks, trust companies, and other corporations exercising comparable fiduciary powers;
</P>
<P>(C) The character and ability of proposed trust management, including qualifications, experience, and competency. The OCC must approve any trust management change the bank or savings association makes prior to commencing trust activities;
</P>
<P>(D) The adequacy of the proposed business plan, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(E) The needs of the community to be served; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other factors or circumstances that the OCC considers proper.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible bank, eligible savings association, covered community bank, or covered community savings association to exercise fiduciary powers is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the application is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the bank or savings association prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permit.</I> Approval of an application under this section constitutes a permit under 12 U.S.C. 92a for national banks and 12 U.S.C. 1464(n) for Federal savings associations to conduct the fiduciary powers requested in the application.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice required.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that has ceased to conduct previously approved fiduciary powers for 18 consecutive months must provide the OCC with a notice describing the nature and manner of the activities proposed to be conducted and containing the information required by paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section 60 days prior to commencing any fiduciary activity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notice of fiduciary activities in additional States.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(6)(iii) through (iv) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association with existing OCC approval to exercise fiduciary powers must provide written notice to the OCC no later than 10 days after it begins to engage in any of the activities specified in § 9.7(d) of this chapter in a State in addition to the State or States described in the application for fiduciary powers that the OCC has approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) A notice submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section must identify the new State or States involved, identify the fiduciary activities to be conducted, and describe the extent to which the activities differ materially from the fiduciary activities the national bank or Federal savings association previously conducted.
</P>
<P>(iii) No notice under paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section is required if the national bank or Federal savings association provides the information required by paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section through other means, such as a merger application.
</P>
<P>(iv) No notice is required if the national bank or Federal savings association is conducting only activities ancillary to its fiduciary business through a trust representative office or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a national bank or Federal savings association does not commence fiduciary activities within 18 months from the date of approval, unless the OCC grants an extension of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28433, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80446, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Expansion of Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.30   Establishment, acquisition, and relocation of a branch of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1-42 and 2901-2907.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval in order to establish or relocate a branch.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This section describes the procedures and standards governing OCC review and approval of an application by a national bank to establish a new branch or to relocate a branch.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch established through a conversion or business combination.</I> The standards of this section governing review and approval of applications by the OCC and, as applicable, 12 U.S.C. 36(b), but not the application procedures set forth in this section, apply to branches acquired or retained in a conversion approved under § 5.24 or a business combination approved under § 5.33. A branch acquired or retained in a conversion or business combination is subject to the application procedures set forth in § 5.24 or § 5.33.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Branch</I> includes any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business established by a national bank in the United States or its territories at which deposits are received, checks paid, or money lent.
</P>
<P>(i) A branch established by a national bank includes a seasonal agency described in 12 U.S.C. 36(c), a mobile facility, a temporary facility, or an intermittent facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) A facility otherwise described in this paragraph (d)(1) is not a branch if:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank establishing the facility does not permit members of the public to have physical access to the facility for purposes of making deposits, paying checks, or borrowing money (<I>e.g.,</I> an office established by the bank that receives deposits only through the mail); or
</P>
<P>(B) It is located at the site of, or is an extension of, an approved main office or branch office of the national bank. The OCC determines whether a facility is an extension of an existing main office or branch office on a case-by-case basis. For this purpose, the OCC will consider a drive-in or pedestrian facility located within 500 feet of a public entrance to an existing main office or branch office to be an extension of the existing main office or branch office, provided the functions performed at the drive-in or pedestrian facility are limited to functions that are ordinarily performed at a teller window.
</P>
<P>(iii) A branch does not include a remote service unit (RSU) as described in 12 CFR 7.1027. This encompasses RSUs that are automated teller machines (ATMs), including interactive ATMs. A branch also does not include a loan production office, a deposit production office, a trust office, an administrative office, a data processing office, or any other office that does not engage in at least one of the activities in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Home State</I> means the State in which the national bank's main office is located.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intermittent branch</I> means a branch that is operated by a national bank for one or more limited periods of time to provide branch banking services at a specified recurring event, on the grounds or premises where the event is held or at a fixed site adjacent to the grounds or premises where the event is held, and exclusively during the occurrence of the event. Examples of an intermittent branch include the operation of a branch on the campus of, or at a fixed site adjacent to the campus of, a specific college during school registration periods; or the operation of a branch during a State fair on State fairgrounds or at a fixed site adjacent to the fairgrounds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Messenger service</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 7.1012.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mobile branch</I> is a branch of a national bank, other than a messenger service branch, that does not have a single, permanent site, and includes a vehicle that travels to various public locations to enable customers to conduct their banking business. A mobile branch may provide services at various regularly scheduled locations or it may be open at irregular times and locations such as at county fairs, sporting events, or school registration periods. A mobile branch may be stationed continuously at a single location within the geographic area it is approved to serve for a period of up to four months. A branch license is needed for each mobile unit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Temporary branch</I> means a branch of a national bank that is located at a fixed site and which, from the time of its opening, is scheduled to, and will, permanently close no later than a certain date (not longer than one year after the branch is first opened) specified in the branch application and the public notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Policy.</I> In determining whether to approve an application to establish or relocate a branch, the OCC is guided by the following principles:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining a safe and sound banking system;
</P>
<P>(2) Encouraging a national bank to provide fair access to financial services by helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Promoting fair treatment of customers including efficiency and better service.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) or (f)(3) of this section, each national bank proposing to establish a branch must submit to the appropriate OCC licensing office a separate application for each proposed branch.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Messenger services.</I> A national bank may request approval, through a single application, for multiple messenger services to serve the same general geographic area. (<I>See</I> 12 CFR 7.1012). Unless otherwise required by law, the bank need not list the specific locations to be served.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Jointly established branches.</I> If a national bank proposes to establish a branch jointly with one or more national banks or other depository institutions, only one of the national banks must submit a branch application. The national bank submitting the application may act as agent for all national banks in the group of depository institutions proposing to share the branch. The application must include the name and main office address of each national bank in the group.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Intermittent branches.</I> Prior to operating an intermittent branch, a national bank must file a branch application and publish notice in accordance with § 5.8, both of which must identify the event at which the branch will be operated; designate a location for operation of the branch which must be on the grounds or premises at which the event is held or on a fixed site adjacent to those grounds or premises; and specify the approximate time period during which the event will be held and during which the branch will operate, including whether operation of the branch will be on an annual or otherwise recurring basis. If the branch is approved, then the bank need not obtain approval each time it seeks to operate the branch in accordance with the original application and approval.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Authorization.</I> The OCC authorizes operation of the branch when all requirements and conditions for opening are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application submitted by an eligible bank or covered community bank to establish or relocate a branch is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the applicable public comment period or the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC (or in the case of a short-distance relocation the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC), whichever is later, unless the OCC notifies the bank prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2). An application to establish or relocate more than one branch is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the last public comment period.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interstate branches.</I> A national bank that seeks to establish and operate a <I>de novo</I> branch in any State other than the bank's home State or a State in which the bank already has a branch must satisfy the standards and requirements of 12 U.S.C. 36(g).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> (1) A national bank filing an application for a mobile branch or messenger service branch must publish a public notice, as described in § 5.8, in the communities in which the bank proposes to engage in business.
</P>
<P>(2) The comment period on an application to engage in a short-distance relocation is 15 days.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may waive or reduce the public notice and comment period, as appropriate, with respect to an application to establish a branch to restore banking services to a community affected by a disaster or to temporarily replace banking facilities where, because of an emergency, the bank cannot provide services or must curtail banking services.
</P>
<P>(4) The OCC may waive or reduce the public notice and comment period, as appropriate, for an application by a national bank with a CRA rating of Satisfactory or better to establish a temporary branch which, if it were established by a State bank to operate in the manner proposed, would be permissible under State law without State approval.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a branch has not commenced business within 18 months after the date of approval unless the OCC grants an extension.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Branch closings.</I> A national bank must comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831r-1 with respect to procedures for branch closings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28435, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80447, Dec. 11, 2020; 85 FR 83726, Dec. 22, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.31   Establishment, acquisition, and relocation of a branch and establishment of an agency office of a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 2901-2907, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A Federal savings association must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval in order to establish or relocate a branch or to establish an agency office or conduct additional activities at an agency office, if required under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This section describes the procedures and standards governing OCC review and approval of an application by a Federal savings association to establish a new branch or to relocate a branch and the circumstances in which a Federal savings association may establish or relocate a branch without application to the OCC. It also describes the authority of a Federal savings association to establish an agency office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch established through a conversion or business combination.</I> The standards of this section governing review and approval of applications by the OCC, but not the application procedures set forth in this section, apply to branches acquired or retained in a conversion approved under § 5.23 or a business combination approved under § 5.33. A branch acquired or retained in a conversion or business combination is subject to the application procedures set forth in § 5.23 or § 5.33.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Branching by savings associations in the District of Columbia.</I> This section also implements section 5(m) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(m), addressing branching by savings associations in the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) A <I>branch</I> of a Federal savings association for purposes of this section is a branch office as defined in 12 CFR 145.92(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Home State</I> means the State in which the Federal savings association's home office is located.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Policy.</I> In determining whether to approve an application to establish or relocate a branch, the OCC is guided by the following principles:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining a safe and sound banking system;
</P>
<P>(2) Encouraging a Federal savings association to provide fair access to financial services by helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensuring compliance with laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(4) Promoting fair treatment of customers including efficiency and better service.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application requirements.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, each Federal savings association proposing to establish or relocate a branch must submit to the appropriate OCC licensing office a separate application for each proposed branch.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Authorization.</I> The OCC authorizes operation of the branch when all requirements and conditions for opening are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Expedited review.</I> If an application to establish or relocate a branch is required of an eligible savings association or covered community savings association, the application is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the applicable public comment period or the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC, whichever is later, unless the OCC notifies the savings association prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2). An application to establish or relocate more than one branch is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the last public comment period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, a Federal savings association is not required to submit an application and receive OCC approval under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Drive-in or pedestrian offices.</I> A Federal savings association may establish a drive-in or pedestrian office that is located within 500 feet of a public entrance to its existing home or branch office, provided the functions performed at the office are limited to functions that are ordinarily performed at a teller window.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Short-distance relocation.</I> A Federal savings association may change the permanent location of an existing branch office to a site that is within the market area and short-distance location area.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Highly rated Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association that is an eligible savings association or covered community savings association may change the permanent location of, or establish a new, branch office if it meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) It published a public notice under § 5.8 of its intent to change the location of the branch office or establish a new branch office. The public notice must be published at least 35 days before the proposed action establishment or relocation. If the notice is published more than 12 months before the proposed action, the publication is invalid.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Federal savings association intends to change the location of an existing branch office, it must post a notice of its intent in a prominent location in the existing office to be relocated. This notice must be posted for 30 days from the date of publication of the initial public notice described in paragraph (f)(2)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) No person files a comment opposing the proposed action within 30 days after the date of the publication of the public notice; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A person files a comment opposing the proposed action and the OCC determines that the comment raises issues that are not relevant to the approval standards for an application for a branch or that OCC action in response to the comment is not required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of branch opening.</I> If a Federal savings association is not required to file an application to establish or relocate a branch pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(iii) of this section, the Federal savings association must file a notice with the OCC with the date the branch was established or relocated and the address of the branch within 10 days after the opening of the branch.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> (1) The OCC may waive or reduce the public notice and comment period, as appropriate, with respect to an application to establish a branch to restore banking services to a community affected by a disaster or to temporarily replace banking facilities where, because of an emergency, the savings association cannot provide services or must curtail banking services.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may waive or reduce the public notice and comment period, as appropriate, for an application by a Federal savings association with a CRA rating of Satisfactory or better to establish a temporary branch which, if it were established by a State bank to operate in the manner proposed, would be permissible under State law without State approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a branch has not commenced business within 18 months after the date of approval unless the OCC grants an extension.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch closings.</I> A Federal savings association must comply with the applicable requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831r-1 with respect to procedures for branch closings.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Section 5(m) of the Home Owners' Loan Act.</I> (1) Under section 5(m)(1) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(m)(1)), no savings association may establish or move any branch in the District of Columbia or move its principal office in the District of Columbia without the OCC's prior written approval.
</P>
<P>(2) Any Federal savings association that must obtain approval of the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 1464(m)(1) must follow the application procedures of this section. Any State savings association that must obtain approval of the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 1464(m)(1) must follow the application procedures of this section as if it were a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1464(m)(1), a branch in the District of Columbia includes any location at which accounts are opened, payments are received, or withdrawals are made. This includes an Automated Teller Machine that performs one or more of these functions.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Agency offices</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A Federal savings association may establish or maintain an agency office to engage in one or more of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing, originating, or approving loans and contracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Managing or selling real estate owned by the Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conducting fiduciary activities or activities ancillary to the association's fiduciary business in compliance with § 5.26(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional services</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A Federal savings association may request, and the OCC may approve, any service not listed in paragraph (k)(1) of this section, except for payment on savings accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application required.</I> A Federal savings association desiring to engage in such additional services must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to filings under this paragraph (k)(2). However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records.</I> A Federal savings association must maintain records of all business it transacts at an agency office. It must maintain these records at the agency office, and must transmit copies to a home or branch office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28436, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80447, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.32   Expedited procedures for certain reorganizations of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a and 215a-2. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section prescribes the procedures for OCC review and approval of a national bank's reorganization to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that will, upon consummation of such reorganization, become a bank holding company. For purposes of this section, a “bank holding company” means any company that owns or controls a national bank, or will own or control one as a result of the reorganization. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank must submit an application to, and obtain approval from, the OCC prior to participating in a reorganization described in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An application filed in accordance with this section is deemed approved on the 30th day after the OCC receives the application, unless the OCC notifies the bank otherwise. Approval is subject to the condition that the bank provide the OCC with 60 days' prior notice of any significant deviation from the bank's business plan or any significant deviation from the proposed changes to the bank's business plan described in the bank's plan of reorganization. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reorganization plan.</I> The application must include a reorganization plan that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Specifies the manner in which the reorganization will be carried out; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is approved by a majority of the entire board of directors of the national bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Specifies: 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount and type of consideration that the bank holding company will provide to the shareholders of the reorganizing bank for their shares of stock of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(B) The date as of which the rights of each shareholder to participate in that exchange will be determined; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The manner in which the exchange will be carried out; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Is submitted to the shareholders of the reorganizing bank at a meeting to be held at the call of the directors in accordance with the procedures prescribed in connection with a merger of a national bank under section 3 of the National Bank Consolidation and Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 215a(a)(2); and 
</P>
<P>(v) Describes any changes to the bank's business plan resulting from the reorganization. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial and managerial resources and future prospects.</I> In reviewing an application under this section, the OCC will consider the impact of the proposed affiliation on the financial and managerial resources and future prospects of the national bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rights of dissenting shareholders.</I> Any shareholder of a bank who has voted against an approved reorganization at the meeting referred to in paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section, or who has given notice of dissent in writing to the presiding officer at or prior to that meeting, is entitled to receive the value of their shares by providing a written request to the bank within 30 days after the consummation of the reorganization, as provided by section 3 of the National Bank Consolidation and Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 215a(b) and (c), for the merger of a national bank. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Approval under the Bank Holding Company Act.</I> This section does not affect the applicability of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. Filers must indicate in their application the status of any application required to be filed with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a national bank has not completed the reorganization within one year of the date of approval. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Adequacy of disclosure.</I> (1) A filer must inform shareholders of all material aspects of a reorganization and comply with applicable requirements of the Federal securities laws, including the OCC's securities regulations at 12 CFR part 11. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any filer not subject to the registration provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 must submit the proxy materials or information statements it uses in connection with the reorganization to the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than when the materials are sent to the shareholders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70129, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended at 80 FR 28437, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 80447, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.33   Business combinations involving a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), 93a, 181, 214a, 214b, 215, 215a, 215a-1, 215a-3, 215b, 215c, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1828(c), 1831u, 2903, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the provisions governing business combinations and the standards for:
</P>
<P>(1) OCC review and approval of an application by a national bank or a Federal savings association for a business combination resulting in a national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Requirements of notices and other procedures for national banks and Federal savings associations involved in other combinations in which a national bank or Federal savings association is not the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> As prescribed by this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval for a business combination when the resulting institution is a national bank or Federal savings association. As prescribed by this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must give notice to the OCC prior to engaging in any other combination where the resulting institution will not be a national bank or Federal savings association.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> A national bank must submit an application and obtain prior OCC approval for any merger between the national bank and one or more of its nonbank affiliates.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Other combinations, as defined in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, do not require an application under this section. However, some may require an application under § 5.53.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank</I> means any national bank or any State bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business combination</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any merger or consolidation between a national bank or a Federal savings association and one or more depository institutions or State trust companies, in which the resulting institution is a national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Federal savings association, any merger or consolidation with a credit union in which the resulting institution is a Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a national bank, any merger between a national bank and one or more of its nonbank affiliates;
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquisition by a national bank or a Federal savings association of all, or substantially all, of the assets of another depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(v) The assumption by a national bank or a Federal savings association of any deposit liabilities of another insured depository institution or any deposit accounts or other liabilities of a credit union or any other institution that will become deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business reorganization</I> means either:
</P>
<P>(i) A business combination between eligible banks and eligible savings associations, or between an eligible bank or an eligible savings association and an eligible depository institution, that are controlled by the same holding company or that will be controlled by the same holding company prior to the combination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A business combination between an eligible bank or an eligible savings association and an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association chartered in a transaction in which a person or group of persons exchanges its shares of the eligible bank or eligible savings association for shares of a newly formed holding company and receives after the transaction substantially the same proportional share interest in the holding company as it held in the eligible bank or eligible savings association (except for changes in interests resulting from the exercise of dissenters' rights), and the reorganization involves no other transactions involving the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Company</I> means a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, business trust, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(5) For business combinations under paragraphs (g)(4) and (5) of this section, a company or shareholder is deemed to <I>control</I> another company if:
</P>
<P>(i) Such company or shareholder, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such company or shareholder controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors or trustees of the other company. No company is deemed to own or control another company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit union</I> means a financial institution subject to examination by the National Credit Union Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Home State</I> means, with respect to a national bank, the State in which the main office of the national bank is located and, with respect to a State bank, the State by which the bank is chartered.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Interim national bank or interim Federal savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a business combination.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Nonbank affiliate</I> of a national bank means any company (other than a bank or Federal savings association) that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the national bank.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other combination</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any merger or consolidation between a national bank or a Federal savings association and one or more depository institutions or State trust companies, in which the resulting institution is not a national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Federal stock savings association, any merger or consolidation with a credit union in which the resulting institution is a credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) The transfer by a national bank or a Federal savings association of any deposit liabilities to another insured depository institution, a credit union or any other institution; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquisition by a national bank or a Federal savings association of all, or substantially all, of the assets, or the assumption of all or substantially all of the liabilities, of any company other than a depository institution.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Savings association</I> and <I>State savings association</I> have the meaning set forth in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>State trust company</I> means a trust company organized under State law that is not engaged in the business of receiving deposits, other than trust funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Policy and related filing requirements</I>—(1) <I>Factors</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When the OCC evaluates any application for a business combination, the OCC considers the following factors:
</P>
<P>(A) The capital level of any resulting national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(B) The conformity of the transaction to applicable law, regulation, and supervisory policies;
</P>
<P>(C) The purpose of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(D) The impact of the transaction on safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(E) The effect of the transaction on the national bank's or Federal savings association's shareholders (or members in the case of a mutual savings association), depositors, other creditors, and customers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bank Merger Act.</I> When the OCC evaluates an application for a business combination under the Bank Merger Act, the OCC also considers the following factors:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Competition.</I> (<I>1</I>) The OCC considers the effect of a proposed business combination on competition. The filer must provide a competitive analysis of the transaction, including a definition of the relevant geographic market or markets. A filer may refer to the Comptroller's Licensing Manual for procedures to expedite its competitive analysis.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC will deny an application for a business combination if the combination would result in a monopoly or would be in furtherance of any combination or conspiracy to monopolize or attempt to monopolize the business of banking in any part of the United States. The OCC also will deny any proposed business combination whose effect in any section of the United States may be substantially to lessen competition, or tend to create a monopoly, or which in any other manner would be in restraint of trade, unless the probable effects of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community clearly outweigh the anticompetitive effects of the transaction. For purposes of weighing against anticompetitive effects, a business combination may have favorable effects in meeting the convenience and needs of the community if the depository institution being acquired has limited long-term prospects, or if the resulting national bank or Federal savings association will provide significantly improved, additional, or less costly services to the community.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Financial and managerial resources and future prospects.</I> The OCC considers the financial and managerial resources and future prospects of the existing or proposed institutions.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Convenience and needs of community.</I> The OCC considers the probable effects of the business combination on the convenience and needs of the community served. The filer must describe these effects in its application, including any planned office closings or reductions in services following the business combination and the likely impact on the community. The OCC also considers additional relevant factors, including the resulting national bank's or Federal savings association's ability and plans to provide expanded or less costly services to the community.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Money laundering.</I> The OCC considers the effectiveness of any insured depository institution involved in the business combination in combating money laundering activities, including in overseas branches.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Financial stability.</I> The OCC considers the risk to the stability of the United States banking and financial system.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Deposit concentration limit.</I> The OCC will not approve a transaction that would violate the deposit concentration limit in 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(13) for interstate merger transactions, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(13)(C)(i).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Community Reinvestment Act</I>—(A) <I>In General.</I> The OCC takes into account the filer's Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) record of performance in considering an application for a business combination. The OCC's conclusion of whether the CRA performance is or is not consistent with approval of an application is considered in conjunction with the other factors of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Interstate mergers under 12 U.S.C. 1831u.</I> The OCC considers the CRA record of performance of the filer and its resulting bank affiliates and the filer's record of compliance with applicable State community reinvestment laws when required by 12 U.S.C. 1831u(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>CRA Sunshine.</I> A filer must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Disclose whether it has entered into and disclosed a covered agreement, as defined in 12 CFR 35.2, in accordance with 12 CFR 35.6 and 35.7; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide summaries of, or documents relating to, all substantive discussions with respect to the development of the content of a covered agreement disclosed in (e)(1)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) that include the names of participants, dates, and synopsis of the discussions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Interstate mergers under 12 U.S.C. 1831u.</I> The OCC considers the standards and requirements contained in 12 U.S.C. 1831u for interstate merger transactions between insured banks, when applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquisition and retention of branches.</I> A filer must disclose the location of any branch it will acquire and retain in a business combination, including approved but unopened branches. The OCC considers the acquisition and retention of a branch under the standards set out in § 5.30 or § 5.31, as applicable, but it does not require a separate application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsidiaries.</I> (i) A filer must identify any subsidiary, financial subsidiary investment, bank service company investment, service corporation investment, or other equity investment to be acquired in a business combination and state the activities of each subsidiary or other company in which the filer would be acquiring an investment. The OCC does not require a separate application or notice under §§ 5.34, 5.35, 5.36, 5.38, 5.39, 5.58, and 5.59.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank filer proposing to acquire, through a business combination, a subsidiary, financial subsidiary investment, bank service company investment, service corporation investment, or other equity investment of any entity other than a national bank must provide the same information and analysis of the subsidiary's activities, or of the investment, that would be required if the filer were establishing the subsidiary, or making such investment, pursuant to §§ 5.34, 5.35, 5.36, or 5.39.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal savings association filer proposing to acquire, through a business combination, a subsidiary, bank service company investment, service corporation investment, or other equity investment of any entity other than a Federal savings association must provide the same information and analysis of the subsidiary's activities, or of the investment, that would be required if the filer were establishing the subsidiary, or making such investment, pursuant to §§ 5.35, 5.38, 5.58, or 5.59.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Interim national bank or interim Federal savings association</I>—(i) <I>Application.</I> A filer for a business combination that plans to use an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association to accomplish the transaction must file an application to organize an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association as part of the application for the related business combination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional approval.</I> The OCC grants conditional preliminary approval to form an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association when it acknowledges receipt of the application for the related business combination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corporate status.</I> An interim national bank or interim Federal savings association becomes a legal entity and may enter into legally valid agreements when it has filed, and the OCC has accepted, the interim national bank's duly executed articles of association and organization certificate or the Federal savings association's charter and bylaws. OCC acceptance occurs:
</P>
<P>(A) On the date the OCC advises the interim national bank that its articles of association and organization certificate are acceptable or advises the interim Federal savings association that its charter and bylaws are acceptable; or
</P>
<P>(B) On the date the interim national bank files articles of association and an organization certificate that conform to the form for those documents provided by the OCC in the Comptroller's Licensing Manual or the date the interim Federal savings association files a charter and bylaws that conform to the requirements set out in this part 5.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other corporate procedures.</I> A filer should consult the Comptroller's Licensing Manual to determine what other information is necessary to complete the chartering of the interim national bank as a national bank or the interim Federal savings association as a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nonconforming assets.</I> (i) A filer must identify any nonconforming activities and assets, including nonconforming subsidiaries, of other institutions involved in the business combination that will not be disposed of or discontinued prior to consummation of the transaction. The OCC generally requires a national bank or Federal savings association to divest or conform nonconforming assets, or discontinue nonconforming activities, within a reasonable time following the business combination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any resulting Federal savings association must conform to the requirements of sections 5(c) and 10(m) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c) and 1467a(m)) within the time period prescribed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fiduciary powers.</I> (i) A filer must state whether the resulting national bank or Federal savings association intends to exercise fiduciary powers pursuant to § 5.26(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a filer intends to exercise fiduciary powers after the combination and requires OCC approval for such powers, the filer must include the information required under § 5.26(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval of a business combination, and conditional approval to form an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association, if applicable, expires if the business combination is not consummated within six months after the date of OCC approval, unless the OCC grants an extension of time.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Adequacy of disclosure.</I> (i) A filer must inform shareholders of all material aspects of a business combination and must comply with any applicable requirements of the Federal securities laws and securities regulations of the OCC. Accordingly, a filer must ensure that all proxy and information statements prepared in connection with a business combination do not contain any untrue or misleading statement of a material fact, or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made, in the light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association filer with one or more classes of securities subject to the registration provisions of section 12(b) or (g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(b) or 78<I>l</I>(g), must file preliminary proxy material or information statements for review with the Director, Bank Advisory, OCC, Washington, DC 20219. Any other filer must submit the proxy materials or information statements it uses in connection with the combination to the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than when the materials are sent to the shareholders.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability</I>—(1) <I>National bank or Federal savings association filer</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10 and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Statutory notice.</I> If an application is subject to the Bank Merger Act or to another statute that requires notice to the public, a national bank or Federal savings association filer must follow the public notice requirements contained in 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(3) or the other statute and §§ 5.8(b) through 5.8(e), 5.10, and 5.11.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interim national bank or interim Federal savings association.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to an application to organize an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply. The OCC treats an application to organize an interim national bank or interim Federal savings association as part of the related application to engage in a business combination and does not require a separate public notice and public comment process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State bank, or State savings association, State trust company, or credit union as resulting institution.</I> Sections 5.7 through 5.13 do not apply to transactions covered by paragraphs (g)(7) through (g)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Provisions governing consolidations and mergers with different types of entities</I>—(1) <I>Consolidations and mergers under 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a of a national bank with other national banks and State banks as defined in 12 U.S.C. 215b(1) resulting in a national bank.</I> A national bank entering into a consolidation or merger authorized pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a, respectively, is subject to the approval procedures and requirements with respect to treatment of dissenting shareholders set forth in those provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interstate consolidations and mergers under 12 U.S.C. 215a-1 resulting in a national bank.</I> (i) With the approval of the OCC, an insured national bank may consolidate or merge with an insured out-of-State bank, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1831u(g)(8), with the national bank as the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures set out in paragraph (h) of this section, the resulting national bank entering into the consolidation or merger must comply with the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks under paragraph (h)(1)(i), any national bank that will not be the resulting bank in a consolidation or merger pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 215a-1 must comply with the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Corporate existence.</I> The corporate existence of each bank participating in a consolidation or merger continues in the resulting national bank, and all the rights, franchises, property, appointments, liabilities, and other interests of the participating bank are transferred to the resulting national bank, as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 215(b), (e), and (f) or 12 U.S.C. 215a(a), (e), and (f), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consolidations and mergers of a national bank with Federal savings associations under 12 U.S.C. 215c resulting in a national bank.</I> (i) With the approval of the OCC, any national bank and any Federal savings association may consolidate or merge with a national bank as the resulting institution by complying with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(A) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures set out in paragraph (h) of this section, a national bank entering into the consolidation or merger must follow the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a, respectively, as if the Federal savings association were a national bank.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) A Federal savings association entering into the consolidation or merger must comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section and follow the procedures set out in paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (g)(3), a combination in which a national bank acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the liabilities, of a Federal savings association will be treated as a consolidation for the Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Unless the national bank has elected to follow the procedures set out in paragraph (h) of this section, national bank shareholders who dissent from a plan to consolidate may receive in cash the value of their national bank shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 215 as if the Federal savings association were a national bank.
</P>
<P>(B) Unless the Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State savings associations pursuant to paragraph (o)(1)(i)(A) of this section, Federal savings association shareholders who dissent from a plan to consolidate or merge may receive in cash the value of their Federal savings association shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a as if the Federal savings association were a national bank.
</P>
<P>(C) Unless the national bank or Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks or State savings associations, respectively, pursuant to paragraph (h)(1)(i) or (o)(1)(i)(A) of this section, respectively, the OCC will conduct an appraisal or reappraisal of the value of a national bank or Federal savings association held by dissenting shareholders in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 215 or 215a, as applicable, except that the costs and expenses of any appraisal or reappraisal may be apportioned and assessed by the Comptroller as he or she may deem equitable against all or some of the parties. In making this determination the Comptroller will consider whether any party has acted arbitrarily or not in good faith in respect to the rights provided by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) The consolidation or merger agreement must address the effect upon, and the terms of the assumption of, any liquidation account of any participating institution by the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mergers of a national bank with its nonbank affiliates under 12 U.S.C. 215a-3 resulting in a national bank.</I> (i) With the approval of the OCC, a national bank may merge with one or more of its nonbank affiliates, with the national bank as the resulting institution, in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph, provided that the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized allows the nonbank affiliate to engage in such mergers. If the national bank is an insured bank, the transaction is also subject to approval by the FDIC under the Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures set out in paragraph (h) of this section, a national bank entering into the merger must follow the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 215a as if the nonbank affiliate were a State bank, except as otherwise provided herein.
</P>
<P>(iii) A nonbank affiliate entering into the merger must follow the procedures for such mergers set out in the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized.
</P>
<P>(iv) The rights of dissenting shareholders and appraisal of dissenters' shares of stock in the nonbank affiliate entering into the merger must be determined in the manner prescribed by the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized.
</P>
<P>(v) The corporate existence of each institution participating in the merger continues in the resulting national bank, and all the rights, franchises, property, appointments, liabilities, and other interests of the participating institutions are transferred to the resulting national bank, as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 215a(a), (e), and (f) in the same manner and to the same extent as in a merger between a national bank and a State bank under 12 U.S.C. 215a(a), as if the nonbank affiliate were a State bank.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mergers of an uninsured national bank with its nonbank affiliates under 12 U.S.C. 215a-3 resulting in a nonbank affiliate.</I> (i) With the approval of the OCC, a national bank that is not an insured bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(h) may merge with one or more of its nonbank affiliates, with the nonbank affiliate as the resulting entity, in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph, provided that the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized allows the nonbank affiliate to engage in such mergers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks under paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section, a national bank entering into the merger must follow the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 214a, as if the nonbank affiliate were a State bank, except as otherwise provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A nonbank affiliate entering into the merger must follow the procedures for such mergers set out in the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) National bank shareholders who dissent from an approved plan to merge may receive in cash the value of their national bank shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a as if the nonbank affiliate were a State bank. The OCC may conduct an appraisal or reappraisal of dissenters' shares of stock in a national bank involved in the merger if all parties agree that the determination is final and binding on each party and agree on how the total expenses of the OCC in making the appraisal will be divided among the parties and paid to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(B) The rights of dissenting shareholders and appraisal of dissenters' shares of stock in the nonbank affiliate involved in the merger must be determined in the manner prescribed by the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the nonbank affiliate is organized.
</P>
<P>(v) The corporate existence of each entity participating in the merger continues in the resulting nonbank affiliate, and all the rights, franchises, property, appointments, liabilities, and other interests of the participating national bank are transferred to the resulting nonbank affiliate as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 214b, in the same manner and to the same extent as in a merger between a national bank and a State bank under 12 U.S.C. 214a, as if the nonbank affiliate were a State bank.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Consolidations and mergers of a Federal savings association with other Federal savings associations, national banks, State banks, State savings banks, State savings associations, State trust companies, or credit unions resulting in a Federal savings association.</I> (i) With the approval of the OCC, a Federal savings association may consolidate or merge with another Federal savings association, a national bank, a State bank, a State savings association, a State trust company, or a credit union with the Federal savings association as the resulting institution by complying with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) The filer Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section and follow the procedures set out in paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (g)(6), a combination in which a Federal savings association acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the liabilities, of another other participating institution will be treated as a consolidation for the acquiring Federal savings association and as a consolidation by a Federal savings association whose assets are acquired, if any.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Unless it has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks under paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section, a national bank entering into a merger or consolidation with a Federal savings association when the resulting institution will be a Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a and 12 U.S.C. 214c as if the Federal savings association were a State bank. However, for these purposes the references in 12 U.S.C. 214c to “law of the State in which such national banking association is located” and “any State authority” mean “laws and regulations governing Federal savings associations” and “Office of the Comptroller of the Currency” respectively.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unless the national bank has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks under paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section, national bank shareholders who dissent from a plan to merge or consolidate may receive in cash the value of their national bank shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a as if the Federal savings association were a State bank. The OCC will conduct an appraisal or reappraisal of the value of the national bank shares held by dissenting shareholders in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 214a, except that the costs and expenses of any appraisal or reappraisal may be apportioned and assessed by the Comptroller as he or she may deem equitable against all or some of the parties. In making this determination the Comptroller will consider whether any party has acted arbitrarily or not in good faith in respect to the rights provided by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) A Federal savings association entering into a merger or consolidation with another Federal savings association when the resulting institution will be the other Federal savings association must comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section and the procedures of paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unless the Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State savings associations under paragraph (o)(1)(i)(A), Federal savings association shareholders who dissent from a plan to merge or consolidate may receive in cash the value of their Federal savings association shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a as if the other Federal savings association were a State bank. The OCC will conduct an appraisal or reappraisal of the value of the Federal savings association shares held by dissenting shareholders in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 214a, except that the costs and expenses of any appraisal or reappraisal may be apportioned and assessed by the Comptroller as he or she may deem equitable against all or some of the parties. In making this determination the Comptroller will consider whether any party has acted arbitrarily or not in good faith in respect to the rights provided by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Unless the Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State savings associations under paragraph (o)(1)(i)(A), the plan of merger or consolidation must provide the manner of disposing of the shares of the resulting Federal savings association not taken by the dissenting shareholders of the Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) A State bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union entering into a consolidation or merger with a Federal savings association when the resulting institution will be a Federal savings association must follow the procedures for such consolidations or mergers set out in the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the State bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union is organized.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The rights of dissenting shareholders and appraisal of dissenters' shares of stock in the State bank, State savings association, or State trust company, entering into the consolidation or merger will be determined in the manner prescribed by the law of the State or other jurisdiction under which the State bank, State savings association, or State trust company is organized.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consolidation or merger agreement must address the effect upon, and the terms of the assumption of, any liquidation account of any participating institution by the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consolidations and mergers under 12 U.S.C. 214a of a national bank with State banks resulting in a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a)</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Prior OCC approval is not required for the merger or consolidation of a national bank with a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a). Termination of a national bank's existence and status as a national banking association is automatic, and its charter cancelled, upon completion of the statutory and regulatory requirements for engaging in the consolidation or merger and consummation of the consolidation or merger.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedures.</I> A national bank desiring to merge or consolidate with a State bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 214(a) when the resulting institution will be a State bank must comply with the requirements and follow the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 214a and 214c and must provide notice to the OCC under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dissenters' rights and appraisal procedures.</I> National bank shareholders who dissent from a plan to merge or consolidate may receive in cash the value of their national bank shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a. The OCC conducts an appraisal or reappraisal of the value of the national bank shares held by dissenting shareholders as provided for in 12 U.S.C. 214a.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Liquidation account.</I> The consolidation or merger agreement must address the effect upon, and the terms of the assumption of, any liquidation account of any participating institution by the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Interstate consolidations and mergers between an insured national bank and insured State banks resulting in a State bank</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Prior OCC approval is not required for the merger or consolidation of an insured national bank with an insured out-of-State State bank, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1831u(g)(8), with the State bank as the resulting institution, that has been approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency for the State bank. Termination of a national bank's existence and status as a national banking association is automatic, and its charter cancelled, upon completion of the statutory and regulatory requirements for engaging in the consolidation or merger and consummation of the consolidation or merger.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedures.</I> Unless it has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State banks under paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section, the national bank entering into the consolidation or merger must comply with the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 214a, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice.</I> The national bank must provide a notice to the OCC under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Consolidations and mergers of a Federal savings association with State banks, State savings banks, State savings associations, State trust companies, or credit unions resulting in a State bank, State savings bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union</I>—(i) <I>Policy.</I> Prior OCC approval is not required for the merger or consolidation of a Federal savings association with a State bank, State savings bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union when the resulting institution will be a State institution or credit union. Termination of a national bank's or Federal savings association's existence and status as a national banking association or Federal savings association is automatic, and its charter cancelled, upon completion of the statutory and regulatory requirements for engaging in the consolidation or merger and consummation of the consolidation or merger.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedures.</I> (A) A Federal savings association desiring to merge or consolidate with a State bank, State savings bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union when the resulting institution will be a State institution or credit union must comply with the requirements of paragraph (n) of this section and the procedures of paragraph (o) of this section and must provide notice to the OCC under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (g)(9), a combination in which a State bank, State savings bank, State savings association, State trust company, or credit union acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the liabilities, of a Federal savings association must be treated as a consolidation by the Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dissenters' rights and appraisal procedures.</I> (A) Unless the Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State savings associations under paragraph (o)(1)(i)(A), Federal savings association shareholders who dissent from a plan to merge or consolidate may receive in cash the value of their Federal savings association shares if they comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 214a as if the Federal savings association were a national bank. The OCC conducts an appraisal or reappraisal of the value of the Federal savings association shares held by dissenting shareholders only if all parties agree that the determination will be final and binding. The parties also must agree on how the total expenses of the OCC in making the appraisal will be divided among the parties and paid to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(B) Unless the Federal savings association has elected to follow the procedures applicable to State savings associations under paragraph (o)(1)(i)(A), the plan of merger or consolidation must provide the manner of disposing of the shares of the resulting State institution not taken by the dissenting shareholders of the Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Liquidation account.</I> The consolidation or merger agreement must address the effect upon, and the terms of the assumption of, any liquidation account of any participating institution by the resulting institution.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Procedural requirements for national bank combinations</I>—(1) <I>Permissible elections.</I> A national bank participating in a combination pursuant to paragraph (g)(2), (g)(3), (g)(4), (g)(5), (g)(6), or (g)(8) of this section may elect to follow with respect to the combination:
</P>
<P>(i) The procedures applicable to a State bank chartered by the State where the national bank's main office is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (p) of this section, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules of Construction.</I> For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Any references to a State agency in the applicable State procedures should be read as referring to the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise specified in Federal law, all filings required by the applicable State procedures must be made to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Expedited review for business reorganizations and streamlined applications.</I> A filing that qualifies as a business reorganization as defined in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, or a filing that qualifies as a streamlined application as described in paragraph (j) of this section, is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the comment period, unless the OCC notifies the filer that the filing is not eligible for expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2). An application under this paragraph must contain all necessary information for the OCC to determine if it qualifies as a business reorganization or streamlined application.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Streamlined applications.</I> (1) A filer may qualify for a streamlined business combination application in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) At least one party to the transaction is an eligible bank or eligible savings association, and all other parties to the transaction are eligible banks, eligible savings associations, or eligible depository institutions, the resulting national bank or resulting Federal savings association will be well capitalized immediately following consummation of the transaction, and the total assets of the target institution are no more than 50 percent of the total assets of the acquiring bank or Federal savings association, as reported in each institution's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquiring bank or Federal savings association is an eligible bank or eligible savings association, the target bank or savings association is not an eligible bank, eligible savings association, or an eligible depository institution, the resulting national bank or resulting Federal savings association will be well capitalized immediately following consummation of the transaction, and the filers in a prefiling communication request and obtain approval from the appropriate OCC licensing office to use the streamlined application;
</P>
<P>(iii) The acquiring bank or Federal savings association is an eligible bank or eligible savings association, the target bank or savings association is not an eligible bank, eligible savings association, or an eligible depository institution, the resulting bank or resulting Federal savings association will be well capitalized immediately following consummation of the transaction, and the total assets acquired do not exceed 10 percent of the total assets of the acquiring national bank or acquiring Federal savings association, as reported in each institution's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the application; 
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a transaction under paragraph (g)(4) of this section, the acquiring bank is an eligible bank, the resulting national bank will be well capitalized immediately following consummation of the transaction, the filers in a prefiling communication request and obtain approval from the appropriate OCC licensing office to use the streamlined application, and the total assets acquired do not exceed 10 percent of the total assets of the acquiring national bank, as reported in the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the application; or
</P>
<P>(v) The acquiring national bank or Federal savings association is a covered community bank or covered community savings association and the transaction would result in a national bank or Federal savings association with less than $30 billion in total assets.








</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (j)(1) of this section, a filer does not qualify for a streamlined business combination application if the transaction is part of a conversion under part 192 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) When a business combination qualifies for a streamlined application, the filer should consult the Comptroller's Licensing Manual to determine the abbreviated application information required by the OCC. The OCC encourages prefiling communications between the filers and the appropriate OCC licensing office before filing under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Exit notice to OCC</I>—(1) <I>Notice required.</I> As provided in paragraphs (g)(7)(ii), (g)(8)(iii), and (g)(9)(ii) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association engaging in a consolidation or merger in which it is not the filer and the resulting institution must file a notice rather than an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office advising of its intention.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must submit the notice at the time the application to merge or consolidate is filed with the responsible agency under the Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c), or if there is no such filing then no later than 30 days prior to the effective date of the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A short description of the material features of the transaction, the identity of the acquiring institution, the identity of the State or Federal regulator to whom the application was made, and the date of the application; or
</P>
<P>(B) A copy of a filing made with another Federal or State regulatory agency seeking approval from that agency for the transaction under the Bank Merger Act or other applicable statute;
</P>
<P>(ii) The planned consummation date for the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information to demonstrate compliance by the national bank or Federal savings association with applicable requirements to engage in the transactions (<I>e.g.,</I> board approval or shareholder or accountholder requirements); and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the national bank or Federal savings association submitting the notice maintains a liquidation account established pursuant to part 192 of this chapter, the notice must state that the resulting institution will assume such liquidation account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Termination of status.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must advise the OCC when the transaction is about to be consummated. Termination of a national bank's or Federal savings association's existence and status as a national banking association or Federal savings association is automatic, and its charter cancelled, upon completion of the statutory and regulatory requirements and consummation of the consolidation or merger. When the national bank or Federal savings association files the notice under paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the OCC provides instructions to the national bank or Federal savings association for terminating its status as a national bank or Federal savings association, including surrendering its charter to the OCC immediately after consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Expiration.</I> If the action contemplated by the notice is not completed within six months after the OCC's receipt of the notice, a new notice must be submitted to the OCC, unless the OCC grants an extension of time.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Mergers and consolidations; transfer of assets and liabilities to the resulting institution.</I> (1) In any consolidation or merger in which the resulting institution is a national bank or Federal savings association, on the effective date of the merger or consolidation, all assets and property (real, personal and mixed, tangible and intangible, choses in action, rights, and credits) then owned by each participating institution or which would inure to any of them, immediately by operation of law and without any conveyance, transfer, or further action, become the property of the resulting national bank or Federal savings association. The resulting national bank or Federal savings association is deemed to be a continuation of the entity of each participating institution, and will succeed to such rights and obligations of each participating institution and the duties and liabilities connected therewith.
</P>
<P>(2) The authority in paragraph (l)(1) of this section is in addition to any authority granted by applicable statutes for specific transactions and is subject to the National Bank Act, the Home Owners' Loan Act, and other applicable statutes.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Certification of combination; effective date.</I> (1) When a national bank or Federal savings association is the filer and will be the resulting entity in a consolidation or merger, after receiving approval from the OCC, it must complete any remaining steps needed to complete the transaction, provide the OCC with a certification that all other required regulatory or shareholder approvals have been obtained, and inform the OCC of the planned consummation date.
</P>
<P>(2) When the transaction is consummated, the filer must notify the OCC of the consummation date. The OCC will issue a letter certifying that the combination was effective on the date specified in the filer's notice.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Authority for and certain limits on business combinations and other transactions by Federal savings associations.</I> (1) Federal savings associations may enter into business combinations only in accordance with this section, the Bank Merger Act, and sections 5(d)(3)(A) and 10(s) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(3)(A) and 1467a(s)).
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal savings association may consolidate or merge with another depository institution, a State trust company or a credit union, may engage in another business combination listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section, or may engage in any other combination listed in paragraph (d)(10), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The combination is in compliance with, and receives all approvals required under, any applicable statutes and regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any resulting Federal savings association meets the requirements for insurance of accounts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A consolidation or merger involving a mutual savings association or the transfer of all or substantially all of the deposits of a mutual savings association must result in a mutually held depository institution that is insured by the FDIC, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is approved under part 192 governing mutual to stock conversions;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction involves a mutual holding company reorganization under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o) or a similar transaction under State law; or
</P>
<P>(C) The transaction is part of a voluntary liquidation for which the OCC has provided non-objection under § 5.48.
</P>
<P>(3) Where the resulting institution is a Federal mutual savings association, the OCC may approve a temporary increase in the number of directors of the resulting institution provided that the association submits a plan for bringing the board of directors into compliance with the requirements of § 5.21(e) within a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The Federal savings associations described in paragraph (n)(4)(ii) of this section below must provide affected accountholders with a notice of a proposed account transfer and an option of retaining the account in the transferring Federal savings association. The notice must allow affected accountholders at least 30 days to consider whether to retain their accounts in the transferring Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following savings associations must provide the notices:
</P>
<P>(A) A Federal mutual savings association transferring account liabilities to an institution the accounts of which are not insured by the Deposit Insurance Fund or the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any Federal mutual savings association transferring account liabilities to a stock form depository institution.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Procedural requirements for Federal savings association approval of combinations</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Permissible elections.</I> A Federal savings association participating in a combination may elect to follow the applicable procedures with respect to the combination:
</P>
<P>(A) The procedures applicable to a State savings association chartered by the State where the Federal savings association's home office is located: or
</P>
<P>(B) The standard procedures provided in paragraph (o)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rules of Construction.</I> For purposes of paragraph (o)(1)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Any references to a State agency in the applicable State procedures should be read as referring to the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(B) Unless otherwise specified in Federal law, all filings required by the applicable State procedures must be made to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard procedures</I>—(i) <I>Board approval.</I> Before a Federal savings association files a notice or application for any consolidation or merger, the combination and combination agreement must be approved by majority vote of the entire board of each constituent Federal savings association in the case of Federal stock savings associations or a two-thirds vote of the entire board of each constituent Federal savings association in the case of Federal mutual savings associations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Shareholder vote</I>—(A) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (o)(2)(ii), an affirmative vote of two-thirds of the outstanding voting stock of any constituent Federal stock savings association is required for approval of a consolidation or merger. If any class of shares is entitled to vote as a class pursuant to § 5.22(g)(4), an affirmative vote of a majority of the shares of each voting class and two-thirds of the total voting shares is required. The required vote must be taken at a meeting of the savings association.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>General exception.</I> Stockholders of the resulting Federal stock savings association need not authorize a consolidation or merger if the transaction meets the requirements of paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Exceptions for certain combinations involving an interim association.</I> Stockholders of a Federal stock savings association need not authorize by a two-thirds affirmative vote consolidations or mergers involving an interim Federal savings association or interim State savings association when the resulting Federal stock savings association is acquired pursuant to the regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System at 12 CFR 238.15(e) (relating to the creation of a savings and loan holding company by a savings association). In those cases, an affirmative vote of 50 percent of the shares of the outstanding voting stock of the Federal stock savings association plus one affirmative vote is required. If any class of shares is entitled to vote as a class pursuant to the charter provisions in § 5.22(g)(4), an affirmative vote of 50 percent of the shares of each voting class plus one affirmative vote is required. The required votes must be taken at a meeting of the association.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Change of name or home office.</I> If the name of the resulting Federal savings association or the location of the home office of the resulting Federal savings association will change as a result of the business combination, the resulting Federal savings association must amend its charter accordingly.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mutual member vote.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the OCC may require that a consolidation, merger or other business combination be submitted to the voting members of any mutual savings association participating in the proposed transaction at duly called meetings and that the transaction, to be effective, must be approved by such voting members.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Exception to voting requirements.</I> Shareholders of a resulting national bank or Federal stock savings association need not authorize a consolidation or merger if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction does not involve an interim bank or an interim savings association; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction involves an interim bank or an interim savings association and the existing shareholders of the national bank or Federal stock savings association will directly hold the shares of the resulting national bank or Federal stock savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's articles of association or the Federal stock savings association's charter, as applicable, is not changed;
</P>
<P>(3) Each share of stock outstanding immediately prior to the effective date of the consolidation or merger is to be an identical outstanding share or a treasury share of the resulting national bank or Federal stock savings association after such effective date; and
</P>
<P>(4) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) No shares of voting stock of the resulting national bank or Federal stock savings association and no securities convertible into such stock are to be issued or delivered under the plan of combination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The authorized unissued shares or the treasury shares of voting stock of the resulting national bank or Federal stock savings association to be issued or delivered under the plan of merger or consolidation, plus those initially issuable upon conversion of any securities to be issued or delivered under such plan, do not exceed 20 percent of the total shares of voting stock of such national bank or Federal stock savings association outstanding immediately prior to the effective date of the consolidation or merger.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 80448, Dec. 11, 2020; 86 FR 1255, Jan. 8, 2021, as amended at 89 FR 78218, Sept. 25, 2024; 90 FR 20564, May 15, 2025; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.34   Operating subsidiaries of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), 24a, 25b, 93a, 3102(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank must file an application or notice as prescribed in this section to acquire or establish an operating subsidiary, or to commence a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth authorized activities and application or notice procedures for national banks engaging in activities through an operating subsidiary. The procedures in this section do not apply to financial subsidiaries authorized under § 5.39. Unless provided otherwise, this section applies to a Federal branch or agency that acquires, establishes, or maintains any subsidiary that a national bank is authorized to acquire or establish under this section in the same manner and to the same extent as if the Federal branch or agency were a national bank, except that the ownership interest required in paragraphs (e)(2) and (f)(2)(i)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section applies to the parent foreign bank of the Federal branch or agency and not to the Federal branch or agency. The OCC may, at any time, limit a national bank's investment in an operating subsidiary or may limit or refuse to permit any activities in an operating subsidiary for supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>authorized product</I> means a product that would be defined as insurance under section 302(c) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6712) that, as of January 1, 1999, the OCC had determined in writing that national banks may provide as principal or national banks were in fact lawfully providing the product as principal, and as of that date no court of relevant jurisdiction had, by final judgment, overturned a determination by the OCC that national banks may provide the product as principal. An authorized product does not include title insurance, or an annuity contract the income of which is subject to treatment under section 72 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 72).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standards and requirements</I>—(1) <I>Authorized activities.</I> (i) A national bank may conduct in an operating subsidiary activities that are permissible for a national bank to engage in directly either as part of, or incidental to, the business of banking, as determined by the OCC, or otherwise under other statutory authority, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Providing authorized products as principal; and
</P>
<P>(B) Providing title insurance as principal if the national bank or subsidiary thereof was actively and lawfully underwriting title insurance before November 12, 1999, and no affiliate of the national bank (other than a subsidiary) provides insurance as principal. A subsidiary may not provide title insurance as principal if the State had in effect before November 12, 1999, a law which prohibits any person from underwriting title insurance with respect to real property in that State.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to OCC authorization, before it begins business an operating subsidiary also must comply with other laws applicable to it and its proposed business, including applicable licensing or registration requirements, if any, such as registration requirements under securities laws.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualifying subsidiaries.</I> (i) An operating subsidiary in which a national bank may invest includes a corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or similar entity if:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary, and no other person or entity has the ability to exercise effective control or influence over the management or operations of the subsidiary to an extent equal to or greater than that of the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(B) The parent bank owns and controls more than 50 percent of the voting (or similar type of controlling) interest of the operating subsidiary, or the parent bank otherwise controls the operating subsidiary and no other party controls a percentage of the voting (or similar type of controlling) interest of the operating subsidiary greater than the bank's interest; and
</P>
<P>(C) The operating subsidiary is consolidated with the bank under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) However, the following entities are not operating subsidiaries subject to this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A subsidiary in which the bank's investment is made pursuant to specific authorization in a statute or OCC regulation (<I>e.g.,</I> a bank service company under 12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.,</I> a financial subsidiary under section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a), or a community development corporation subsidiary under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh) and 12 CFR part 24;
</P>
<P>(B) A subsidiary in which the bank has acquired, in good faith, shares through foreclosure on collateral, by way of compromise of a doubtful claim, or to avoid a loss in connection with a debt previously contracted; and
</P>
<P>(C) A trust formed for purposes of securitizing assets held by the bank as part of its banking business.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section,
</P>
<P>(A) A national bank must have reasonable policies and procedures to preserve the limited liability of the bank and its operating subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) OCC regulations may not be construed as requiring a national bank and its operating subsidiaries to operate as a single entity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination and supervision.</I> An operating subsidiary conducts activities authorized under this section pursuant to the same authorization, terms and conditions that apply to the conduct of such activities by its parent national bank, unless otherwise specifically provided by statute, regulation, or published OCC policy, including sections 1044 and 1045 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 25b) with respect to the application of State law. If the OCC determines that the operating subsidiary is operating in violation of law, regulation, or written condition, or in an unsafe or unsound manner or otherwise threatens the safety or soundness of the bank, the OCC will direct the bank or operating subsidiary to take appropriate remedial action, which may include requiring the bank to divest or liquidate the operating subsidiary, or discontinue specified activities. OCC authority under this paragraph is subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consolidation of figures</I>—(i) <I>National banks.</I> Pertinent book figures of the parent national bank and its operating subsidiary will be combined for the purpose of applying statutory or regulatory limitations when combination is needed to effect the intent of the statute or regulation, <I>e.g.,</I> for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 56, 59, 60, 84, and 371d.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Federal branches or agencies.</I> Transactions conducted by all of a foreign bank's Federal branches and agencies and State branches and agencies, and their operating subsidiaries, will be combined for the purpose of applying any limitation or restriction as provided in 12 CFR 28.14.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application required.</I> (i) Except for an operating subsidiary that qualifies for the notice procedures in paragraph (f)(2) of this section or is exempt from application or notice requirements under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, a national bank must first submit an application to, and receive prior approval from, the OCC to establish or acquire an operating subsidiary or to perform a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The application must explain, as appropriate, how the bank “controls” the enterprise, describing in full detail structural arrangements where control is based on factors other than bank ownership of more than 50 percent of the voting interest of the subsidiary and the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by holding voting interests sufficient to select the number of directors needed to control the subsidiary's board and to select and terminate senior management. In the case of a limited partnership or limited liability company that does not qualify for the notice procedures set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the bank must provide a statement explaining why it is not eligible. The application also must include a complete description of the bank's investment in the subsidiary, the proposed activities of the subsidiary, the organizational structure and management of the subsidiary, the relations between the bank and the subsidiary, and other information necessary to adequately describe the proposal. To the extent that the application relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the bank must describe the type of insurance activity in which the company is engaged and has present plans to conduct. The bank must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable. The application must state whether the operating subsidiary will conduct any activity at a location other than the main office or a previously approved branch of the bank. The OCC may require a filer to submit a legal analysis if the proposal is novel, unusually complex, or raises substantial unresolved legal issues. In these cases, the OCC encourages filers to have a prefiling meeting with the OCC. Any bank receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the subsidiary will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice process only for certain qualifying filings.</I> (i) Except for an operating subsidiary that is exempt from application or notice procedures under paragraph (f)(6) of this section, a national bank that is a covered community bank or is both well capitalized and well managed may establish or acquire an operating subsidiary, or perform a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary, by providing the appropriate OCC licensing office written notice prior to, or within 10 days after, acquiring or establishing the subsidiary, or commencing the new activity, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is listed in paragraph (f)(5) of this section or, except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the activity is substantively the same as a previously approved activity and the activity will be conducted in accordance with the same terms and conditions applicable to the previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(B) The entity is a corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or trust; and
</P>
<P>(C) The bank or an operating subsidiary thereof:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary and no other person or entity has the ability to exercise effective control or influence over the management or operations of the subsidiary to an extent equal to or greater than that of the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof. The ability to control the management and operations means:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a corporation, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof holds voting interests sufficient to select the number of directors needed to control the subsidiary's board and to select and terminate senior management;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited partnership, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by controlling the selection and termination of senior management;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited liability company, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by controlling the selection and termination of senior management; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a trust, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to replace the trustee at will;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Holds more than 50 percent of the voting, or equivalent, interests in the subsidiary and:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited partnership, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole general partner of the limited partnership, provided that under the partnership agreement, limited partners have no authority to bind the partnership by virtue solely of their status as limited partners;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited liability company, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole managing member of the limited liability company, provided that under the limited liability company agreement, other limited liability company members have no authority to bind the limited liability company by virtue solely of their status as members; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a trust, the bank or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole beneficial owner of the trust; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is required to consolidate its financial statements with those of the subsidiary under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank must file an application under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if a State has or will charter or license the proposed operating subsidiary as a bank, trust company, or savings association.
</P>
<P>(iii) The written notice must include a complete description of the bank's investment in the subsidiary and of the activity conducted and a representation and undertaking that the activity will be conducted in accordance with OCC policies contained in guidance issued by the OCC regarding the activity. To the extent that the notice relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the bank must describe the type of insurance activity in which the company is engaged and has present plans to conduct. The bank also must list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable. Any bank receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the subsidiary will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>OCC review and approval.</I> The OCC reviews a national bank's application to determine whether the proposed activities are legally permissible under Federal banking laws and to ensure that the proposal is consistent with safe and sound banking practices and OCC policy and does not endanger the safety or soundness of the parent national bank. As part of this process, the OCC may request additional information and analysis from the filer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Activities eligible for notice.</I> The following activities qualify for the notice procedures in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, provided the activity is conducted pursuant to the same terms and conditions as would be applicable if the activity were conducted directly by a national bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Holding and managing assets acquired by the parent bank or its operating subsidiaries, including investment assets and property acquired by the bank through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing services to or for the bank or its affiliates, including accounting, auditing, appraising, advertising and public relations, and financial advice and consulting;
</P>
<P>(iii) Making loans or other extensions of credit, and selling money orders, savings bonds, and travelers checks;
</P>
<P>(iv) Purchasing, selling, servicing, or warehousing loans or other extensions of credit, or interests therein;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing courier services between financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing management consulting, operational advice, and services for other financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(vii) Providing check guaranty, verification and payment services;
</P>
<P>(viii) Providing data processing, data warehousing and data transmission products, services, and related activities and facilities, including associated equipment and technology, for the bank or its affiliates;
</P>
<P>(ix) Acting as investment adviser (including an adviser with investment discretion) or financial adviser or counselor to governmental entities or instrumentalities, businesses, or individuals, including advising registered investment companies and mortgage or real estate investment trusts, furnishing economic forecasts or other economic information, providing investment advice related to futures and options on futures, and providing consumer financial counseling;
</P>
<P>(x) Providing tax planning and preparation services;
</P>
<P>(xi) Providing financial and transactional advice and assistance, including advice and assistance for customers in structuring, arranging, and executing mergers and acquisitions, divestitures, joint ventures, leveraged buyouts, swaps, foreign exchange, derivative transactions, coin and bullion, and capital restructurings;
</P>
<P>(xii) Underwriting and reinsuring credit related insurance to the extent permitted under section 302 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6712);
</P>
<P>(xiii) Leasing of personal property and acting as an agent or adviser in leases for others;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Providing securities brokerage or acting as a futures commission merchant, and providing related credit and other related services;
</P>
<P>(xv) Underwriting and dealing, including making a market, in bank permissible securities and purchasing and selling as principal, asset backed obligations;
</P>
<P>(xvi) Acting as an insurance agent or broker, including title insurance to the extent permitted under section 303 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6713);
</P>
<P>(xvii) Reinsuring mortgage insurance on loans originated, purchased, or serviced by the bank, its subsidiaries, or its affiliates, provided that if the subsidiary enters into a quota share agreement, the subsidiary assumes less than 50 percent of the aggregate insured risk covered by the quota share agreement. A “quota share agreement” is an agreement under which the reinsurer is liable to the primary insurance underwriter for an agreed upon percentage of every claim arising out of the covered book of business ceded by the primary insurance underwriter to the reinsurer;
</P>
<P>(xviii) Acting as a finder pursuant to 12 CFR 7.1002 to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> the OCC's monthly publication “Interpretations and Actions.” Beginning with the May 1996 issue, electronic versions of “Interpretations and Actions” are available at <I>www.occ.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(xix) Offering correspondent services to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks;
</P>
<P>(xx) Acting as agent or broker in the sale of fixed or variable annuities;
</P>
<P>(xxi) Offering debt cancellation or debt suspension agreements;
</P>
<P>(xxii) Providing real estate settlement, closing, escrow, and related services; and real estate appraisal services for the subsidiary, parent bank, or other financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(xxiii) Acting as a transfer or fiscal agent;
</P>
<P>(xxiv) Acting as a digital certification authority to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks, subject to the terms and conditions contained in that precedent;
</P>
<P>(xxv) Providing or selling public transportation tickets, event and attraction tickets, gift certificates, prepaid phone cards, promotional and advertising material, postage stamps, and Electronic Benefits Transfer (EBT) script, and similar media, to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks, subject to the terms and conditions contained in that precedent;
</P>
<P>(xxvi) Providing data processing, and data transmission services, facilities (including equipment, technology, and personnel), databases, advice and access to such services, facilities, databases and advice, for the parent bank and for others, pursuant to 12 CFR 7.5006 to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks;
</P>
<P>(xxvii) Providing bill presentment, billing, collection, and claims-processing services;
</P>
<P>(xxviii) Providing safekeeping for personal information or valuable confidential trade or business information, such as encryption keys, to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for national banks;
</P>
<P>(xxix) Providing payroll processing;
</P>
<P>(xxx) Providing branch management services;
</P>
<P>(xxxi) Providing merchant processing services except when the activity involves the use of third parties to solicit or underwrite merchants; and
</P>
<P>(xxxii) Performing administrative tasks involved in benefits administration.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>No application or notice required.</I> A national bank may acquire or establish an operating subsidiary, or perform a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary, without filing an application or providing notice to the OCC, if the bank is a covered community bank or is both well managed and well capitalized and the:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities of the new subsidiary are limited to those activities previously reported by the bank in connection with the establishment or acquisition of a prior operating subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities in which the new subsidiary will engage continue to be legally permissible for the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities of the new subsidiary will be conducted in accordance with any conditions imposed by the OCC in approving the conduct of these activities for any prior operating subsidiary of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The standards set forth in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(B) and (C) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fiduciary powers.</I> (i) If an operating subsidiary proposes to accept fiduciary appointments for which fiduciary powers are required, such as acting as trustee or executor, then the national bank must have fiduciary powers under 12 U.S.C. 92a and the subsidiary also must have its own fiduciary powers under the law applicable to the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the subsidiary is a registered investment adviser, if an operating subsidiary proposes to exercise investment discretion on behalf of customers or provide investment advice for a fee, the national bank must have prior OCC approval to exercise fiduciary powers pursuant to § 5.26 and 12 CFR part 9.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if the national bank has not established or acquired the operating subsidiary or commenced the new activity in an existing operating subsidiary within 12 months after the date of the approval, unless the OCC shortens or extends the time period.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grandfathered operating subsidiaries.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements for a qualifying operating subsidiary in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and unless otherwise notified by the OCC with respect to a particular operating subsidiary, an entity that a national bank lawfully acquired or established as an operating subsidiary before April 24, 2008 may continue to operate as a national bank operating subsidiary under this section, provided that the bank and the operating subsidiary were, and continue to be, conducting authorized activities in compliance with the standards and requirements applicable when the bank established or acquired the operating subsidiary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28444, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80455, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.35   Bank service company investments by a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1861-1867, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> Except where otherwise provided, a national bank or Federal savings association must submit a notice and obtain prior OCC approval to invest in the equity of a bank service company or to perform new activities in an existing bank service company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures and requirements regarding OCC review and approval of a notice by a national bank or Federal savings association to invest in the equity of a bank service company. The OCC may, at any time, limit a national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in a bank service company or may limit or refuse to permit any activities in any bank service company for which a national bank or Federal savings association is the principal investor for supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Bank service company</I> means a corporation or limited liability company organized to provide services authorized by the Bank Service Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.,</I> all of whose capital stock is owned by one or more insured depository institutions in the case of a corporation, or all of the members of which are one or more insured depository institutions in the case of a limited liability company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limited liability company</I> means any company, partnership, trust, or similar business entity organized under the law of a State (as defined in section 3(a)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3)) which provides that a member or manager of such company is not personally liable for a debt, obligation, or liability of the company solely by reason of being, or acting as, a member or manager of such company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Depository institution</I> for purposes of this section, means, except when such term appears in connection with the term 'insured depository institution', an insured bank (as defined in section 3(h) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(h)), a savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)), a financial institution subject to examination by the appropriate Federal banking agency or the National Credit Union Administration Board, or a financial institution the accounts or deposits of which are insured or guaranteed under State law and are eligible to be insured by the FDIC or the National Credit Union Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Insured depository institution,</I> for purposes of this section, has the same meaning as in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Invest</I> includes making any advance of funds to a bank service company, whether by the purchase of stock, the making of a loan, or otherwise, except a payment for rent earned, goods sold and delivered, or services rendered before the payment was made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Principal investor</I> means the insured depository institution that has the largest amount invested in the equity of a bank service company. In any case where two or more insured depository institutions have equal amounts invested and no other insured depository institution has a larger amount invested, the bank service company must designate one of those insured depository institutions as its principal investor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standards and requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may invest in a bank service company that conducts activities described in paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section and activities (other than taking deposits) permissible for the national bank or Federal savings association and other insured depository institution shareholders or members of the bank service company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>OCC notice and approval required.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(3) and (f)(4) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that intends to invest in the equity of a bank service company, or to perform new activities in an existing bank service company, must submit a notice to and receive prior approval from the OCC. The notice must include the information required by paragraph (g) of this section. The OCC approves or denies a proposed investment within 60 days after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the bank prior to that date that the filing presents a significant supervisory or compliance concern, or raises a significant legal or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review for certain activities.</I> (i) A notice to invest in the equity of a bank service company, or to perform new activities in an existing bank service company, that meets the requirements of this paragraph is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the notice is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing is not eligible for expedited review or the expedited review process is extended. Any bank or savings association making an investment pursuant to this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the bank service company will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with the published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A notice is eligible for expedited review if all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association is a covered community bank or covered community savings association or is both well capitalized and well managed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The bank service company engages only in activities that are permissible for the bank service company under 12 U.S.C. 1864 and that are listed in § 5.34(f)(5) or § 5.38(f)(5), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investments requiring no approval or notice.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association does not need to submit a notice or obtain OCC approval to invest in a bank service company, or to perform a new activity in an existing bank service company, if the bank service company will provide only the following services only for depository institutions: Check and deposit posting and sorting; computation and posting of interest and other credits and charges; preparation and mailing of checks, statements, notices, and similar items; or any other clerical, bookkeeping, accounting, statistical, or similar functions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Federal Reserve approval.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association also may, with the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Federal Reserve Board), invest in the equity of a bank service company that provides any other service (except deposit taking) that the Federal Reserve Board has determined, by regulation, to be permissible for a bank holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to a request for approval to invest in a bank service company. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all provisions of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Required information.</I> A notice required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and location of the bank service company;
</P>
<P>(2) A complete description of the activities the bank service company will conduct and a representation and undertaking that the activities will be conducted in accordance with OCC guidance. To the extent the notice relates to the initial affiliation of the national bank or Federal savings association with a company engaged in insurance activities, the national bank or Federal savings association should describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in and has present plans to conduct. The national bank or Federal savings association also must list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of the national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in the bank service company and information demonstrating that the national bank or Federal savings association will comply with the investment limitations of paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Information demonstrating that the bank service company will perform only those services that each insured depository institution shareholder or member is authorized to perform under applicable Federal or State law and will perform such services only at locations in a State in which each such shareholder or member is authorized to perform such services unless performing services that are authorized by the Federal Reserve Board under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1865(b).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Examination and supervision.</I> Each bank service company in which a national bank or Federal savings association is the principal investor is subject to examination and supervision by the OCC in the same manner and to the same extent as that national bank or Federal savings association. OCC authority under this paragraph is subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Investment limitations.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must comply with the investment limitations specified in 12 U.S.C. 1862.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28448, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80458, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.36   Other equity investments by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 93a, and 3101 <I>et seq</I>. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> National banks are permitted to make various types of equity investments pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) and other statutes. These investments are in addition to those subject to §§ 5.34, 5.35, 5.37, and 5.39. This section describes the procedure governing the filing of the application or notice that the OCC requires in connection with certain of these investments. Other permissible equity investments may be reviewed on a case-by-case basis by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enterprise</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, trust, or similar business entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-controlling investment</I> means an equity investment made pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) that is not governed by procedures prescribed by another OCC rule. A <I>non-controlling investment</I> does not include a national bank holding interests in a trust formed for the purposes of securitizing assets held by the bank as part of its banking business or for the purposes of holding multiple legal titles of motor vehicles or equipment in conjunction with lease financing transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure.</I> (1) A national bank must provide the appropriate OCC licensing office with written notice within ten days after making an equity investment in the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) An agricultural credit corporation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A savings association eligible to be acquired under section 13 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other equity investment that may be authorized by statute after February 12, 1990, if not covered by other applicable OCC regulation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The written notice required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include a description, and the amount, of the bank's investment. 
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC reserves the right to require additional information as necessary. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-controlling investments; notice procedure.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section, a national bank may make a non-controlling investment, directly or through its operating subsidiary, in an enterprise that engages in an activity described in § 5.34(f)(5) or in an activity that is substantively the same as a previously approved activity by filing a written notice. The bank must file this written notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than 10 days after making the investment. The written notice must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the structure of the investment and the activity or activities conducted by the enterprise in which the bank is investing. To the extent the notice relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the bank should describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in and has present plans to conduct. The bank must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable; 
</P>
<P>(2) State:
</P>
<P>(i) Which paragraphs of § 5.34(f)(5) describe the activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the activity is substantively the same as a previously approved activity:
</P>
<P>(A) How the activity is substantively the same as a previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(B) The citation to the applicable precedent; and
</P>
<P>(C) That the activity will be conducted in accordance with the same terms and conditions applicable to the previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Certify that the bank is a covered community bank or is both well capitalized and well managed at the time of the investment;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe how the bank has the ability to prevent the enterprise from engaging in activities that are not set forth in § 5.34(f)(5) or not contained in published OCC precedent for previously approved activities, or how the bank otherwise has the ability to withdraw its investment;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe how the investment is convenient and useful to the bank in carrying out its business and not a mere passive investment unrelated to the bank's banking business; 
</P>
<P>(6) Certify that the bank's loss exposure is limited as a legal matter and that the bank does not have unlimited liability for the obligations of the enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(7) Certify that the enterprise in which the bank is investing agrees to be subject to OCC supervision and examination, subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Non-controlling investment; application procedure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank must file an application and obtain prior approval before making or acquiring, either directly or through an operating subsidiary, a non-controlling investment in an enterprise if the non-controlling investment does not qualify for the notice procedure set forth in paragraph (e) of this section because the bank is unable to make the representation required by paragraph (e)(2) or the certifications required by paragraphs (e)(3) or (e)(7) of this section. The application must include the information required in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section and, if possible, the information required by paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(7) of this section. If the bank is unable to make the representation set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the bank's application must explain why the activity in which the enterprise engages is a permissible activity for a national bank and why the filer should be permitted to hold a non-controlling investment in an enterprise engaged in that activity. A bank may not make a non-controlling investment if it is unable to make the representations and certifications specified in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application submitted by a national bank is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 10th day after the application is received by the OCC if:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank makes the representation required by paragraph (e)(2) and the certification required by paragraph (e)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The book value of the national bank's non-controlling investment for which the application is being submitted is no more than 1% of the bank's capital and surplus;
</P>
<P>(iii) No more than 50% of the enterprise is owned or controlled by banks or savings associations subject to examination by an appropriate Federal banking agency or credit unions insured by the National Credit Union Association; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC has not notified the national bank that the application has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Non-controlling investment; no application or notice required.</I> A national bank may make or acquire, either directly or through an operating subsidiary, a non-controlling investment in an enterprise without an application or notice to the OCC, if the:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities of the enterprise are limited to those activities previously reported by the bank in connection with the making or acquiring of a non-controlling investment;
</P>
<P>(2) Activities of the enterprise continue to be legally permissible for a national bank;
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's non-controlling investment will be made in accordance with any conditions imposed by the OCC in approving any prior non-controlling investment in an enterprise conducting these same activities; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank is able to make the representations and certifications specified in paragraphs (e)(3) through (e)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-controlling investments in entities holding assets in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</I> Certain non-controlling investments may be eligible for expedited treatment where the bank's investment is in an entity holding assets in satisfaction of debts previously contracted or the bank acquires shares of a company in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice required.</I> A national bank that is a covered community bank or is both well capitalized and well managed may acquire a non-controlling investment, directly or through its operating subsidiary, in an enterprise that engages in the activities of holding and managing assets acquired by the parent bank through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted, by filing a written notice in accordance with this paragraph (h)(1). The activities of the enterprise must be conducted pursuant to the same terms and conditions as would be applicable if the activity were conducted directly by a national bank. The bank must file the written notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than 10 days after making the non-controlling investment. This notice must include a complete description of the bank's investment in the enterprise and the activities conducted, a description of how the bank plans to divest the non-controlling investment or the underlying assets within applicable statutory time frames, and a representation and undertaking that the bank will conduct the activities in accordance with OCC policies contained in guidance issued by the OCC regarding the activities. Any national bank receiving approval under this paragraph (h)(1) is deemed to have agreed that the enterprise will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No notice or application required.</I> A national bank is not required to file a notice or application under this § 5.36 if it acquires a non-controlling investment in shares of a company through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-controlling investments by Federal branches.</I> A Federal branch that is well capitalized and well managed may make a non-controlling investment in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section in the same manner and subject to the same conditions and requirements as a national bank, and subject to any additional requirements that may apply under 12 CFR 28.10(c).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 60363, Nov. 27, 1996, as amended at 65 FR 12913, Mar. 10, 2000; 65 FR 41560, July 6, 2000; 68 FR 70698, Dec. 19, 2003; 73 FR 22239, Apr. 24, 2008; 79 FR 11310, Feb. 28, 2014; 80 FR 28449, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 80458, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.37   Investment in national bank or Federal savings association premises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 29, 93a, 371d, 1464(c)(2), 1464(c)(4)(B), 1828(m), and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section addresses a national bank's or Federal savings association's investment in banking premises and other premises-related investments, loans, or indebtedness. This section also sets forth the quantitative investment limitations and procedures governing the OCC's review and approval of an application by a national bank or Federal savings association to invest in these premises.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Banking premises</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Premises that are owned and occupied (or to be occupied, if under construction) by a national bank or Federal savings association, its respective branches, or its consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Capitalized leases and leasehold improvements, vaults, and fixed machinery and equipment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Remodeling costs to existing premises;
</P>
<P>(iv) Real estate acquired and intended, in good faith, for use in future expansion; or
</P>
<P>(v) Parking facilities that are used by customers or employees of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital stock</I> means, for national banks and Federal stock savings associations, the amount of common stock outstanding and unimpaired plus the amount of perpetual preferred stock outstanding and unimpaired. With respect to Federal mutual savings associations, “capital stock” should be read to mean the amount of the association's retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Premises application</I>—(i) <I>When required.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must submit an application to the appropriate OCC supervisory office to invest in banking premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation, partnership, or similar entity (<I>e.g.,</I> a limited liability company) holding the premises of the national bank or Federal savings association, or to make loans to or upon the security of the stock of such corporation, if the aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the indebtedness incurred by any such corporation that is an affiliate of the national bank or Federal savings association, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 221a or 12 U.S.C. 1462, respectively, will exceed the amount of the capital stock of the national bank or Federal savings association, or, in the case of a Federal mutual savings association the amount of retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of premises application.</I> The application must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the national bank's or Federal savings association's present investment in banking premises;
</P>
<P>(B) The investment in banking premises that the national bank or Federal savings association intends to make, and the business reason for making the investment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount by which the national bank's or Federal savings association's aggregate investment will exceed the amount of the national bank's or Federal stock savings association's capital stock, or, in the case of a Federal mutual savings association, the amount of retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval of premises application.</I> An application from a national bank or Federal savings association to invest in banking premises or in certain banking premises-related investments, loans or indebtedness, as described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, is deemed approved as of the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association prior to that date that the filing presents a significant supervisory or compliance concern, or raises a significant legal or policy issue. An approval for a specified amount under this section remains valid up to that amount until the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Premises notice process</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that is rated 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (CAMELS) may make an aggregate investment in banking premises up to 150 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital and surplus without the OCC's prior approval, provided that the national bank or Federal savings association is well capitalized and will continue to be well capitalized after the investment or loan is made. However, the national bank or Federal savings association must notify the appropriate OCC supervisory office in writing of the investment within 30 days after the investment or loan is made. The written notice must include a description of the national bank's or Federal savings association's investment or loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> If a Federal savings association that would otherwise be eligible for the premises notice process described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section proposes to establish or acquire a subsidiary to make an investment in banking premises, or if investing in banking premises would be a new activity for such a subsidiary, the Federal savings association would not be eligible for the premises notice process and would be required to comply with the provisions of § 5.59 in the case of a service corporation, or § 5.38 in the case of an operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Service corporation.</I> A Federal savings association that invests in banking premises through a service corporation is not subject to the premises application and premises notice requirements of paragraph (d) of this section; however, it must include this investment when calculating the quantitative limitations in paragraph (d) of this section, and must comply with § 5.59.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28449, May 18, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61794, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69297, Dec. 18, 2019; 85 FR 80459, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.38   Operating subsidiaries of a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1465, 1828, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> When required by section 18(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(m)), a Federal savings association must file an application as prescribed in this section to acquire or establish an operating subsidiary, or to commence a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth authorized activities and application procedures for Federal savings associations engaging in activities through an operating subsidiary. The OCC may, at any time, limit a Federal savings association's investment in an operating subsidiary or may limit or refuse to permit any activities in an operating subsidiary for supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standards and requirements</I>—(1) <I>Authorized activities.</I> (i) A Federal savings association may conduct in an operating subsidiary activities that are permissible for a Federal savings association to engage in directly.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition to OCC authorization, before it begins business an operating subsidiary also must comply with other laws applicable to it and its proposed business, including applicable licensing or registration requirements, if any, such as registration requirements under securities laws.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualifying subsidiaries.</I> (i) An operating subsidiary in which a Federal savings association may invest includes a corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership, or similar entity if:
</P>
<P>(A) The savings association has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary, and no other person or entity has the ability to exercise effective control or influence over the management or operations of the subsidiary to an extent equal to or greater than that of the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(B) The parent savings association owns and controls more than 50 percent of the voting (or similar type of controlling) interest of the operating subsidiary, or the parent savings association otherwise controls the operating subsidiary and no other party controls a percentage of the voting (or similar type of controlling) interest of the operating subsidiary greater than the savings association's interest; and
</P>
<P>(C) The operating subsidiary is consolidated with the savings association under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to the requirements in this section, a Federal savings association may hold another insured depository institution as an operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(iii) However, the following entities are not operating subsidiaries subject to this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A subsidiary in which the savings association's investment is made pursuant to specific authorization in a statute or OCC regulation (<I>e.g.,</I> a service corporation under 12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(4) or a bank service company under 12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(B) A subsidiary in which the savings association has acquired, in good faith, shares through foreclosure on collateral, by way of compromise of a doubtful claim, or to avoid a loss in connection with a debt previously contracted; and
</P>
<P>(C) A trust formed for purpose of securitizing assets held by the savings association as part of its business.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A Federal savings association must have reasonable policies and procedures to preserve the limited liability of the savings association and its operating subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) OCC regulations may not be construed as requiring a Federal savings association and its operating subsidiaries to operate as a single entity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination and supervision.</I> An operating subsidiary conducts activities authorized under this section pursuant to the same authorization, terms and conditions that apply to the conduct of such activities by its parent Federal savings association, unless otherwise specifically provided by statute, regulation, or published OCC policy, including sections 1045 and 1046 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 25b and 1465) with respect to the application of State law. If the OCC determines that the operating subsidiary is operating in violation of law, regulation, or written condition, or in an unsafe or unsound manner or otherwise threatens the safety or soundness of the savings association, the OCC will direct the savings association or operating subsidiary to take appropriate remedial action, which may include requiring the savings association to divest or liquidate the operating subsidiary, or discontinue specified activities. OCC authority under this paragraph is subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consolidation of figures.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section, pertinent book figures of the parent Federal savings association and its operating subsidiary must be combined for the purpose of applying statutory or regulatory limitations when combination is needed to effect the intent of the statute or regulation, <I>e.g.,</I> for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1464(c) and 1464(u).
</P>
<P>(ii) Consolidation for purposes of calculating portfolio assets and qualified thrift investments is subject to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m)(5).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application required.</I> (i) A Federal savings association must first submit an application to, and receive prior approval from, the OCC to establish or acquire an operating subsidiary, or to perform a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The application must explain, as appropriate, how the savings association “controls” the enterprise, describing in full detail structural arrangements where control is based on factors other than savings association ownership of more than 50 percent of the voting interest of the subsidiary and the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by holding voting interests sufficient to select the number of directors needed to control the subsidiary's board and to select and terminate senior management. In the case of a limited partnership or limited liability company that does not qualify for the expedited review procedure set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the savings association must provide a statement explaining why it is not eligible. The application also must include a complete description of the savings association's investment in the subsidiary, the proposed activities of the subsidiary, the organizational structure and management of the subsidiary, the relations between the savings association and the subsidiary, and other information necessary to adequately describe the proposal. To the extent that the application relates to the initial affiliation of the savings association with a company engaged in insurance activities, the savings association must describe the type of insurance activity in which the company is engaged and has present plans to conduct. The savings association must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable. The application must state whether the operating subsidiary will conduct any activity at a location other than the home office or a previously approved branch of the savings association. The OCC may require a filer to submit a legal analysis if the proposal is novel, unusually complex, or raises substantial unresolved legal issues. In these cases, the OCC encourages filers to have a prefiling meeting with the OCC. Any savings association receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the subsidiary will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> (i) An application to establish or acquire an operating subsidiary, or to perform a new activity in an existing operating subsidiary, that meets the requirements of this paragraph is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended under § 5.13(a)(2). Any savings association receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the subsidiary will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) An application is eligible for expedited review if all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The savings association is a covered community savings association or is both well capitalized and well managed;
</P>
<P>(B) The activity is listed in paragraph (f)(5) this section or is substantively the same as a previously approved activity and the activity will be conducted in accordance with the same terms and conditions applicable to the previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(C) The entity is a corporation, limited liability company, limited partnership or trust; and
</P>
<P>(D) The savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary and no other person or entity has the ability to exercise effective control or influence over the management or operations of the subsidiary to an extent equal to or greater than that of the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof. The ability to control the management and operations means:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a corporation, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof holds voting interests sufficient to select the number of directors needed to control the subsidiary's board and to select and terminate senior management;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited partnership, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by controlling the selection and termination of senior management;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited liability company, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to control the management and operations of the subsidiary by controlling the selection and termination of senior management; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a trust, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof has the ability to replace the trustee at will;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Holds more than 50 percent of the voting, or equivalent, interests in the subsidiary, and:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited partnership, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole general partner of the limited partnership, provided that under the partnership agreement, limited partners have no authority to bind the partnership by virtue solely of their status as limited partners;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a limited liability company, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole managing member of the limited liability company, provided that under the limited liability company agreement, other limited liability company members have no authority to bind the limited liability company by virtue solely of their status as members; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) In the case of a subsidiary that is a trust, the savings association or an operating subsidiary thereof is the sole beneficial owner of the trust; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is required to consolidate its financial statements with those of the subsidiary under GAAP. A filer proposing to qualify for expedited review must include in the application all necessary information showing the application meets the requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>OCC review and approval.</I> The OCC reviews a Federal savings association's application to determine whether the proposed activities are legally permissible under Federal savings association law and to ensure that the proposal is consistent with safe and sound banking practices and OCC policy and does not endanger the safety or soundness of the parent Federal savings association. As part of this process, the OCC may request additional information and analysis from the filer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Activities eligible for expedited review.</I> The following activities qualify for the expedited review procedures in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, provided the activity is conducted pursuant to the same terms and conditions as would be applicable if the activity were conducted directly by a Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) Holding and managing assets acquired by the parent savings association or its operating subsidiaries, including investment assets and property acquired by the savings association through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing services to or for the savings association or its affiliates, including accounting, auditing, appraising, advertising and public relations, and financial advice and consulting;
</P>
<P>(iii) Making loans or other extensions of credit, and selling money orders and travelers checks;
</P>
<P>(iv) Purchasing, selling, servicing, or warehousing loans or other extensions of credit, or interests therein;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing management consulting, operational advice, and services for other financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing check payment services;
</P>
<P>(vii) Acting as investment adviser (including an adviser with investment discretion) or financial adviser or counselor to governmental entities or instrumentalities, businesses, or individuals, including advising registered investment companies and mortgage or real estate investment trusts;
</P>
<P>(viii) Providing financial and transactional advice and assistance, including advice and assistance for customers in structuring, arranging, and executing mergers and acquisitions, divestitures, joint ventures, leveraged buyouts, swaps, foreign exchange, derivative transactions, coin and bullion, and capital restructurings;
</P>
<P>(ix) Underwriting and reinsuring credit life and disability insurance;
</P>
<P>(x) Leasing of personal property;
</P>
<P>(xi) Providing securities brokerage;
</P>
<P>(xii) Underwriting and dealing, including making a market, in savings association permissible securities and purchasing and selling as principal, asset backed obligations;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Acting as an insurance agent or broker for credit life, disability, and unemployment insurance; single property interest insurance; and title insurance;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Offering correspondent services to the extent permitted by published OCC precedent for Federal savings associations;
</P>
<P>(xv) Acting as agent or broker in the sale of fixed annuities;
</P>
<P>(xvi) Offering debt cancellation or debt suspension agreements;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Providing escrow services;
</P>
<P>(xviii) Acting as a transfer agent; and
</P>
<P>(xix) Providing or selling postage stamps.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Redesignation.</I> A Federal savings association that proposes to redesignate a service corporation as an operating subsidiary must submit a notification to the OCC at least 30 days prior to the redesignation date. The notification must include a description of how the redesignated service corporation meets all of the requirements of this section to be an operating subsidiary, a resolution of the savings association's board of directors approving the redesignation, and the proposed effective date of the redesignation. The savings association may effect the redesignation on the proposed date unless the OCC notifies the savings association otherwise prior to that date. The OCC may require an application if the redesignation presents policy, supervisory, or legal issues.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fiduciary powers.</I> (i) If an operating subsidiary proposes to accept fiduciary appointments for which fiduciary powers are required, such as acting as trustee or executor, then the Federal savings association must have fiduciary powers under section 5(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(n), and the subsidiary also must have its own fiduciary powers under the law applicable to the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the subsidiary is a registered investment adviser, if an operating subsidiary proposes to exercise investment discretion on behalf of customers or provide investment advice for a fee, the Federal savings association must have prior OCC approval to exercise fiduciary powers pursuant to § 5.26 (or a predecessor provision) and 12 CFR part 150.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if the Federal savings association has not established or acquired the operating subsidiary, or commenced the new activity in an existing operating subsidiary within 12 months after the date of the approval, unless the OCC shortens or extends the time period.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grandfathered operating subsidiaries.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements for a qualifying operating subsidiary in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and unless otherwise notified by the OCC with respect to a particular operating subsidiary, an entity that a Federal savings association lawfully acquired or established as an operating subsidiary before May 18, 2015, may continue to operate as a Federal savings association operating subsidiary under this section, provided that the savings association and the operating subsidiary were, and continue to be, conducting authorized activities in compliance with the standards and requirements applicable when the savings association established or acquired the operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Issuances of securities by operating subsidiaries.</I> An operating subsidiary may not state or imply that the securities it issues are covered by Federal deposit insurance. An operating subsidiary may not issue any security the payment, maturity, or redemption of which may be accelerated upon the condition that the controlling Federal savings association is insolvent or has been placed into receivership. For as long as any securities are outstanding, the controlling Federal savings association must maintain all records generated through each securities issuance in the ordinary course of business, including but not limited to a copy of the prospectus, offering circular, or similar document concerning such issuance, and make such records available for examination by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28450, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80459, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.3.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.39   Financial subsidiaries of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 24a and 93a.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval requirements.</I> A national bank must file an application as prescribed in this section prior to acquiring a financial subsidiary or engaging in activities authorized pursuant to section 5136A(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(a)(2)(A)(i)) through a financial subsidiary. When a financial subsidiary proposes to conduct a new activity permitted under § 5.34, the bank must follow the procedures in § 5.34(f) instead of paragraph (i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth authorized activities, approval procedures, and, where applicable, conditions for national banks engaging in activities through a financial subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this § 5.39: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning set forth in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841), except that the term “affiliate” for purposes of paragraph (h)(5) of this section has the meaning set forth in sections 23A or 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1), as implemented by Regulation W, 12 CFR part 223, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Company</I> has the meaning set forth in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841), and includes a limited liability company (LLC). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Control</I> has the meaning set forth in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligible debt</I> means unsecured long-term debt that is: 
</P>
<P>(i) Not supported by any form of credit enhancement, including a guaranty or standby letter of credit; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not held in whole or in any significant part by any affiliate, officer, director, principal shareholder, or employee of the bank or any other person acting on behalf of or with funds from the bank or an affiliate of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financial subsidiary</I> means any company that is controlled by one or more insured depository institutions, other than a subsidiary that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Engages solely in activities that national banks may engage in directly and that are conducted subject to the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of these activities by national banks; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank is specifically authorized to control by the express terms of a Federal statute (other than section 5136A of the Revised Statutes), and not by implication or interpretation, such as by section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601-604a), section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611-631), or the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.</I>) 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the meaning set forth in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Long term debt</I> means any debt obligation with an initial maturity of 360 days or more. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the meaning set forth in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841). 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Tangible equity</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 6.2. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authorized activities.</I> A financial subsidiary may engage only in the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Activities that are financial in nature and activities incidental to a financial activity, authorized pursuant to 5136A(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(a)(2)(A)(i)) (to the extent not otherwise permitted under paragraph (e)(2) of this section), including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding money or securities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Engaging as agent or broker in any State for purposes of insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, death, defects in title, or providing annuities as agent or broker; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing financial, investment, or economic advisory services, including advising an investment company as defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Issuing or selling instruments representing interests in pools of assets permissible for a bank to hold directly; 
</P>
<P>(v) Underwriting, dealing in, or making a market in securities; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Engaging in any activity that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has determined, by order or regulation in effect on November 12, 1999, to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto (subject to the same terms and conditions contained in the order or regulation, unless the order or regulation is modified by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System); 
</P>
<P>(vii) Engaging, in the United States, in any activity that a bank holding company may engage in outside the United States and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has determined, under regulations prescribed or interpretations issued pursuant to section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) as in effect on November 11, 1999, to be usual in connection with the transaction of banking or other financial operations abroad; and 
</P>
<P>(viii) Activities that the Secretary of the Treasury in consultation with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, as provided in section 5136A of the Revised Statutes, determines to be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Activities that may be conducted by an operating subsidiary pursuant to § 5.34. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Impermissible activities.</I> A financial subsidiary may not engage as principal in the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability or death, or defects in title (except to the extent permitted under sections 302 or 303(c) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, (15 U.S.C. 6712 or 15 U.S.C. 6713)) or providing or issuing annuities the income of which is subject to tax treatment under section 72 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 72); 
</P>
<P>(2) Real estate development or real estate investment, unless otherwise expressly authorized by law; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Activities authorized for bank holding companies by section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) or (I)), except activities authorized under section 4(k)(4)(H) that may be permitted in accordance with section 122 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1843 note). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Qualifications.</I> A national bank may, directly or indirectly, control a financial subsidiary or hold an interest in a financial subsidiary only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank and each depository institution affiliate of the national bank are well capitalized and well managed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate consolidated total assets of all financial subsidiaries of the national bank do not exceed the lesser of 45 percent of the consolidated total assets of the parent bank or $50 billion (or such greater amount as is determined according to an indexing mechanism jointly established by regulation by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System); and 
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank is one of the 100 largest insured banks, determined on the basis of the bank's consolidated total assets at the end of the calendar year, the bank has not fewer than one issue of outstanding debt that meets such standards of creditworthiness or other criteria as the Secretary of the Treasury and the Federal Reserve Board may jointly establish pursuant to Section 5136A of title LXII of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a).
</P>
<P>(4) Paragraph (g)(3) of this section does not apply if the financial subsidiary is engaged solely in activities in an agency capacity. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Safeguards.</I> The following safeguards apply to a national bank that establishes or maintains a financial subsidiary: 
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of determining regulatory capital the national bank may not consolidate the assets and liabilities of a financial subsidiary with those of the bank and must deduct the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in its financial subsidiaries from regulatory capital as provided by § 3.22(a)(7) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Any published financial statement of the national bank must, in addition to providing information prepared in accordance withGAAP, separately present financial information for the bank in the manner provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank must have reasonable policies and procedures to preserve the separate corporate identity and limited liability of the bank and the financial subsidiaries of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank must have procedures for identifying and managing financial and operational risks within the bank and the financial subsidiary that adequately protect the national bank from such risks; 
</P>
<P>(5) Except for a subsidiary of a bank that is considered a financial subsidiary under paragraph (d)(5) of this section solely because the subsidiary engages in the sale of insurance as agent or broker in a manner that is not permitted for national banks, sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1), as implemented by Regulation W, 12 CFR part 223, apply to transactions involving a financial subsidiary in the following manner: 
</P>
<P>(i) A financial subsidiary is deemed to be an affiliate of the bank and is not deemed to be a subsidiary of the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(iii) A bank's purchase of or investment in a security issued by a financial subsidiary of the bank must be valued at the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The total amount of consideration given (including liabilities assumed) by the bank, reduced to reflect amortization of the security to the extent consistent with GAAP, or
</P>
<P>(B) The carrying value of the security (adjusted so as not to reflect the bank's <I>pro rata</I> portion of any earnings retained or losses incurred by the financial subsidiary after the bank's acquisition of the security).
</P>
<P>(iv) Any purchase of, or investment in, the securities of a financial subsidiary of a bank by an affiliate of the bank will be considered to be a purchase of or investment in such securities by the bank;
</P>
<P>(v) Any extension of credit to a financial subsidiary of a bank by an affiliate of the bank is treated as an extension of credit by the bank to the financial subsidiary if the extension of credit is treated as capital of the financial subsidiary under any Federal or State law, regulation, or interpretation applicable to the subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other extension of credit by an affiliate of a bank to a financial subsidiary of the bank may be considered an extension of credit by the bank to the financial subsidiary if the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System determines that such treatment is necessary or appropriate to prevent evasions of the Federal Reserve Act and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act. 
</P>
<P>(6) A financial subsidiary is deemed a subsidiary of a bank holding company and not a subsidiary of the bank for purposes of the anti-tying prohibitions set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1971 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures to engage in activities through a financial subsidiary.</I> A national bank that intends, directly or indirectly, to acquire control of, or hold an interest in, a financial subsidiary, or to commence a new activity in an existing financial subsidiary, must obtain OCC approval through the procedures set forth in paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certification with subsequent application.</I> (i) At any time, a national bank may file a “Financial Subsidiary Certification” with the appropriate OCC licensing office listing the bank's depository institution affiliates and certifying that the bank and each of those affiliates is well capitalized and well managed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Thereafter, at such time as the bank seeks OCC approval to acquire control of, or hold an interest in, a new financial subsidiary, or commence a new activity authorized under section 5136A(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(a)(2)(A)(i)) in an existing subsidiary, the bank may file an application with the appropriate OCC licensing office at the time of acquiring control of, or holding an interest in, a financial subsidiary, or commencing such activity in an existing subsidiary. The application must be labeled “Financial Subsidiary Application” and must:
</P>
<P>(A) State that the bank's Certification remains valid;
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the activity or activities conducted by the financial subsidiary. To the extent the application relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the bank should describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in and has present plans to conduct. The bank must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) Cite the specific authority permitting the activity to be conducted by the financial subsidiary. (Where the authority relied on is an agency order or interpretation under section 4(c)(8) or 4(c)(13), respectively, of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8) or (c)(13)), a copy of the order or interpretation should be attached);
</P>
<P>(D) Certify that the bank will be well capitalized after making adjustments required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Demonstrate the aggregate consolidated total assets of all financial subsidiaries of the national bank do not exceed the lesser of 45 percent of the bank's consolidated total assets or $50 billion (or the increased level established by the indexing mechanism); and
</P>
<P>(F) If applicable, certify that the bank meets the eligible debt requirement in paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combined certification and application.</I> A national bank may file a combined certification and application with the appropriate OCC licensing office at least five business days prior to acquiring control of, or holding an interest in, a financial subsidiary, or commencing a new activity authorized pursuant to section 5136A(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(a)(2)(A)(i)) in an existing subsidiary. The written application must be labeled “Financial Subsidiary Certification and Application” and must:
</P>
<P>(i) List the bank's depository institution affiliates and certify that the bank and each depository institution affiliate of the bank is well capitalized and well managed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the activity or activities to be conducted in the financial subsidiary. To the extent the application relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the bank should describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in and has present plans to conduct. The bank must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Cite the specific authority permitting the activity to be conducted by the financial subsidiary. (Where the authority relied on is an agency order or interpretation under section 4(c)(8) or 4(c)(13), respectively, of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8) or (c)(13)), a copy of the order or interpretation should be attached);
</P>
<P>(iv) Certify that the bank will remain well capitalized after making the adjustments required by paragraph (h)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate the aggregate consolidated total assets of all financial subsidiaries of the national bank do not exceed the lesser of 45% of the bank's consolidated total assets or $50 billion (or the increased level established by the indexing mechanism); and
</P>
<P>(vi) If applicable, certify that the bank meets the eligible debt requirement in paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval.</I> An application is deemed approved upon filing the information required by paragraphs (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this section within the time frames provided therein.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13 do not apply to activities authorized under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community Reinvestment Act (CRA).</I> A national bank may not apply under this paragraph (i) to commence a new activity authorized under section 5136A(a)(2)(A)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(a)(2)(A)(i)), or directly or indirectly acquire control of a company engaged in any such activity, if the bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates received a CRA rating of less than “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” on its most recent CRA examination prior to when the bank would file an application under this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Failure to continue to meet certain qualification requirements</I>—(1) <I>Qualifications and safeguards.</I> A national bank, or, as applicable, its affiliated depository institutions, must continue to satisfy the qualification requirements set forth in paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section and the safeguards in paragraphs (h)(1), (2), (3) and (4) of this section following its acquisition of control of, or an interest in, a financial subsidiary. A national bank that fails to continue to satisfy these requirements will be subject to the following procedures and requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC will give notice to the national bank and, in the case of an affiliated depository institution to that depository institution's appropriate Federal banking agency, promptly upon determining that the national bank, or, as applicable, its affiliated depository institution, does not continue to meet the requirements in paragraph (g)(1) or (2) of this section or the safeguards in paragraph (h)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section. The bank is deemed to have received such notice three business days after mailing of the letter by the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not later than 45 days after receipt of the notice under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section, or any additional time as the OCC may permit, the national bank must execute an agreement with the OCC to comply with the requirements in paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) and (h)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC may impose limitations on the conduct or activities of the national bank or any subsidiary of the national bank as the OCC determines appropriate under the circumstances and consistent with the purposes of section 5136A of the Revised Statutes; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC may require a national bank to divest control of a financial subsidiary if the national bank does not correct the conditions giving rise to the notice within 180 days after receipt of the notice provided under paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible debt requirement.</I> A national bank that does not continue to meet the qualification requirement set forth in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, applicable where the bank's financial subsidiary is engaged in activities other than solely in an agency capacity, may not directly or through a subsidiary, purchase or acquire any additional equity capital of any such financial subsidiary until the bank meets the requirement in paragraph (g)(3) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (j)(2), the term “equity capital” includes, in addition to any equity investment, any debt instrument issued by the financial subsidiary if the instrument qualifies as capital of the subsidiary under Federal or State law, regulation, or interpretation applicable to the subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Examination and supervision.</I> A financial subsidiary is subject to examination and supervision by the OCC, subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 12914, Mar. 10, 2000, as amended at 73 FR 22240, Apr. 24, 2008; 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012; 78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013; 79 FR 11310, Feb. 28, 2014; 80 FR 28452, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 80461, Dec. 11, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Other Changes in Activities and Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.40   Change in location of a main office of a national bank or home office of a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 30, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1828, 2901-2907, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes OCC procedures and approval standards for an application or a notice by a national bank to change the location of its main office or by a Federal savings association to change the location of its home office.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> A national bank or Federal savings association must follow the procedures described in paragraph (c) of this section to relocate its main office or home office, as applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> A national bank's main office is the place identified in the bank's original organization certificate under 12 U.S.C. 22 or the subsequent location to which the main office has been changed under this § 5.40, 12 U.S.C. 30(b), or other applicable law, as reflected in the national bank's amended articles of association. A Federal savings association's home office is the office identified as such in the savings association's original charter or the subsequent location to which the home office has been changed under this § 5.40, or other applicable law, as reflected in the savings association's amended charter. These terms are functionally the same but are used in our regulations in order to be consistent with the relevant statutes that govern national banks and Federal savings associations, respectively.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Licensing requirements and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Main office or home office relocation to an authorized branch location within city, town, or village limits.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may change the location of its main office or home office, as applicable, to an authorized branch location (approved or existing branch site) within the limits of the same city, town, or village. The national bank or Federal savings association must give prior notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office before the relocation. The notice must include the new address of the main office or home office, as applicable, and the effective date of the relocation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>To any other location</I>—(i) <I>National banks.</I> A national bank must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office and obtain prior OCC approval to relocate its main office to any other location in the city, town, or village in which the main office of the bank is located other than an authorized branch location or to any other location within 30 miles of the limits of such city, town, or village. If relocating the main office outside the limits of its city, town, or village, a national bank must also obtain the approval of shareholders owning two-thirds of the voting stock of the bank and must amend its articles of association.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office and obtain prior OCC approval to relocate its home office to any location other than an authorized branch location within the city, town, or village in which the home office of the savings association is located. If relocating the home office outside the limits of its city, town, or village, a Federal savings association must obtain any shareholder or member approval required under its charter for such relocation and must amend its charter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Establishment of a branch at site of former main office or home office.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association desiring to establish a branch at its former main office or home office location, as applicable, must follow the provisions of § 5.30 or § 5.31, respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expedited review.</I> A main office or home office relocation application submitted by an eligible bank, eligible savings association, covered community bank, or covered community savings association under paragraph (c)(2) of this section is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the public comment period or the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC (or in the case of a short-distance relocation the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC), whichever is later, unless the OCC notifies the bank or savings association prior to that time that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review period is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> (i) Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to a main office or home office relocation to an authorized branch location within the limits of the city, town, or village as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. However, if the OCC concludes that the notice under paragraph (c)(1) of this section presents a significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issue, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) The comment period on any application filed under paragraph (c)(2) of this section to engage in a short-distance relocation of a main office or home office is 15 days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if the national bank or Federal savings association has not opened its main office or home office, as applicable, at the relocated site within 18 months of the date of approval, unless the OCC grants an extension.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28452, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80462, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.42   Corporate title of a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 21a, 30, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 2901 <I>et. seq.</I> and, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the method by which a national bank or Federal savings association may change its corporate title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association may change its corporate title provided that the new title complies with applicable laws, including 18 U.S.C. 709, regarding false advertising and the misuse of names to indicate a Federal agency, and any applicable OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) For a national bank, the new title must include the word “national.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice process.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must promptly notify the appropriate OCC licensing office if it changes its corporate title. The notice must contain the old and new titles and the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amendment to articles of association.</I> A national bank whose corporate title is specified in its articles of association must amend its articles, in accordance with the procedures of 12 U.S.C. 21a, to change its title.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amendment to charter.</I> A Federal savings association must amend its charter in accordance with § 5.21 or § 5.22, as applicable, to change its title.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13 do not apply to a national bank or Federal savings association's change of corporate title. However, if the OCC concludes that the notice presents a significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issue, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28453, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80462, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.43   National bank director residency and citizenship waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 72 and 93a.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the procedures for the OCC to waive the residency and citizenship requirements for national bank directors set forth at 12 U.S.C. 72.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Residency.</I> A national bank may request a waiver of the residency requirement for any number of directors by filing a written application with the OCC. The OCC may grant a waiver on an individual basis or for any number of director positions. The waiver is valid until the OCC revokes it in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, or, if granted on an individual basis, until the individual no longer serves on the board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Citizenship.</I> A national bank may request a waiver of the citizenship requirements for individuals who comprise up to a minority of the total number of directors by filing a written application with the OCC. The OCC may grant a waiver on an individual basis. A citizenship waiver is valid until the individual no longer serves on the board or the OCC revokes the waiver in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biographical and Financial Reports.</I> (i) Each subject of a citizenship waiver application must submit to the appropriate OCC licensing office the information prescribed in the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may require additional information about any subject of a citizenship waiver application, including legible fingerprints, if appropriate. The OCC may waive any of the information requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(i) if the OCC determines that doing so is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revocation of waiver</I>—(1) <I>Procedure.</I> The OCC may revoke a residency or citizenship waiver. Before revocation, the OCC will provide written notice to the national bank and affected director(s) of its intention to revoke a residency or citizenship waiver and the basis for its intention. The bank and affected director(s) may respond in writing to the OCC within 10 calendar days, unless the OCC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of relevant circumstances. The OCC will consider the written responses of the bank and affected director(s), if any, prior to deciding whether or not to revoke a residency or citizenship waiver. The OCC will notify the national bank and the director of the OCC's decision to revoke a residency or citizenship waiver in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date.</I> The OCC's decision to revoke a residency or citizenship waiver is effective:
</P>
<P>(i) If the director or national bank, or both, appeals pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, upon the director's receipt of the decision of the Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official, to uphold the initial decision to revoke the residency or citizenship waiver; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If neither the director nor national bank appeals pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, upon the expiration of the period to appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeal.</I> (1) A director or national bank, or both, may seek review by appealing the OCC's decision to revoke a residency or citizenship waiver to the Comptroller, or an authorized delegate, within 15 days of the receipt of the OCC's written decision to revoke. The director or national bank, or both, may appeal on the grounds that the reasons for revocation are contrary to fact or arbitrary and capricious. The appellant must submit all documents and written arguments that the appellant wishes to be considered in support of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, or an authorized delegate, may designate an appellate official who was not previously involved in the decision leading to the appeal at issue. The Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official considers all information submitted with the original application for the residency or citizenship waiver, the material before the OCC official who made the initial decision, and any information submitted by the appellant at the time of appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) The Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official will independently determine whether the reasons given for the initial decision to revoke are contrary to fact or arbitrary and capricious. If they determine either to be the case, the Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official may reverse the initial decision to revoke the waiver.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon completion of the review, the Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official will notify the appellant in writing of the decision. If the initial decision is upheld, the decision to revoke the waiver is effective pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prior waivers.</I> Any waiver granted by the OCC before January 11, 2021 remains in effect unless revoked pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section or, for a waiver granted to an individual, until the individual no longer serves on the board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 80462, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.45   Increases in permanent capital of a Federal stock savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1831o and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> Generally a Federal stock savings association is not required to apply for an increase in capital unless the method of increase itself requires a filing (such as issuance of a new class of stock). However, in certain circumstances, a Federal stock savings association is required to submit an application and obtain OCC approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes procedures and standards relating to a transaction resulting in an increase in a Federal stock savings association's permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to increases in a Federal stock savings association's permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital plan</I> means a plan describing the manner and schedule by which a Federal stock savings association will attain specified capital levels or ratios and a capital restoration plan filed with the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 1831o and 12 CFR 6.5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital stock</I> means the total amount of common stock and preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital surplus</I> means the total of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount paid in on capital stock in excess of the par or stated value;
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct capital contributions representing the amounts paid in to the Federal stock savings association other than for capital stock;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount transferred from retained net income; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount transferred from retained net income reflecting stock dividends.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanent capital</I> means the sum of capital stock and capital surplus.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Retained net income</I> means the net income of a specified period less the amount of all dividends and other capital distributions declared in that period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Policy.</I> In determining whether to approve a proposed increase in a Federal stock savings association's permanent capital, the OCC considers whether the change is:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with law, regulation, and OCC policy thereunder;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides an adequate capital structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) If appropriate, complies with the Federal stock savings association's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>When prior approval is required.</I> A Federal stock savings association must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office and obtain prior OCC approval to increase its permanent capital if the Federal stock savings association is:
</P>
<P>(i) Required to receive OCC approval pursuant to letter, order, directive, written agreement or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(ii) Selling common or preferred stock for consideration other than cash; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Receiving a material noncash contribution to capital surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of application.</I> The application must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the type and amount of the proposed change in permanent capital and explain the reason for the change;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a material noncash contribution to capital, provide a description of the method of valuing the contribution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) State if the Federal stock savings association is subject to a capital plan with the OCC and how the proposed change would conform to a capital plan or if a capital plan is otherwise required in connection with the proposed change in permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible savings association or covered community savings association is deemed approved by the OCC 15 days after the date the OCC receives the application, unless the OCC notifies the savings association prior to that date that the application is not eligible for expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of increase.</I> (i) If prior approval is required pursuant to this paragraph (g), after a Federal stock savings association completes an increase in capital it must submit a notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The notice must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount, including the par value of the stock, and effective date of the increase;
</P>
<P>(B) A certification that the funds have been paid in, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the Federal stock savings association has complied with all laws, regulations and conditions imposed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a Federal stock savings association has not completed its change in permanent capital within one year of the date of approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Offers and sales of stock.</I> A Federal stock savings association must comply with the Securities Offering Disclosure Rules in 12 CFR part 16 for offers and sales of common and preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shareholder approval.</I> A Federal stock savings association must obtain the necessary shareholder approval required by statute for any change in its permanent capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28453, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80463, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.46" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.46   Changes in permanent capital of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 21a, 51a, 51b, 51b-1, 52, 56, 57, 59, 60, and 93a.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank must submit an application and obtain OCC approval to decrease its permanent capital. Generally, a national bank need only submit a notice to increase its permanent capital, although, in certain circumstances, a national bank may be required to submit an application and obtain OCC approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes procedures and standards relating to a transaction resulting in a change in a national bank's permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to changes in a national bank's permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital plan</I> means a plan describing the manner and schedule by which a national bank will attain specified capital levels or ratios and a capital restoration plan filed with the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 1831o and 12 CFR 6.5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital stock</I> means the total amount of common stock and preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital surplus</I> means the total of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount paid in on capital stock in excess of the par or stated value;
</P>
<P>(ii) Direct capital contributions representing the amounts paid in to the national bank other than for capital stock;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount transferred from undivided profits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount transferred from undivided profits reflecting stock dividends.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanent capital</I> means the sum of capital stock and capital surplus.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Policy.</I> In determining whether to approve a proposed change to a national bank's permanent capital, the OCC considers whether the change is:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with law, regulation, and OCC policy thereunder;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides an adequate capital structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) If appropriate, complies with the bank's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Increases in permanent capital</I>—(1) <I>Approval</I>—(i) <I>Prior approval not required.</I> If a national bank is not required to file an application and obtain prior approval under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, the bank need not submit an application. It must submit the notice of capital increase under paragraph (i)(3) of this section. The increase in capital is deemed approved by the OCC as of the date the increase was made, once the bank has filed the notice of capital increase and the OCC certifies the increase, as provided in paragraph (i)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prior approval required.</I> In addition to a notice of capital increase under paragraph (i)(3) of this section, a national bank must submit an application under paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this section and obtain prior OCC approval to increase its permanent capital if the bank is:
</P>
<P>(A) Required to receive OCC approval pursuant to letter, order, directive, written agreement, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(B) Selling common or preferred stock for consideration other than cash; or
</P>
<P>(C) Receiving a material noncash contribution to capital surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preferred stock.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, in the case of a sale of preferred stock, the national bank must also submit provisions in the articles of association concerning preferred stock dividends, voting and conversion rights, retirement of the stock, and rights to exercise control over management to the appropriate OCC licensing office prior to the sale of the preferred stock. The provisions will be deemed approved by the OCC within 15 days of its receipt, unless the OCC notifies the filer otherwise, including a statement of the reason for the delay.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Decreases in permanent capital.</I> A national bank must submit an application and obtain prior approval under paragraph (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this section for any reduction of its permanent capital. A national bank may request approval for a reduction in capital for multiple quarters. The request need only specify a total dollar amount for the requested period and need not specify amounts for each quarter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Prior approval.</I> A national bank proposing to make a change in its permanent capital that requires prior OCC approval under paragraphs (g) or (h) of this section must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The application must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the type and amount of the proposed change in permanent capital and explain the reason for the change;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a reduction in capital, provide a schedule detailing the present and proposed capital structure;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a material noncash contribution to capital, provide a description of the method of valuing the contribution; and
</P>
<P>(iv) State if the bank is subject to a capital plan with the OCC and how the proposed change would conform to a capital plan or if a capital plan is otherwise required in connection with the proposed change in permanent capital.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible bank or covered community bank is deemed approved by the OCC 15 days after the date the OCC receives the application described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section, unless the OCC notifies the bank prior to that date that the application has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2). An eligible bank or covered community bank seeking to decrease its capital may request OCC approval for up to four consecutive quarters. The request need only specify a total dollar amount for the four-quarter period and need not specify amounts for each quarter. An eligible bank may decrease its capital pursuant to such a plan only if the bank maintains its eligible bank status before and after each decrease in its capital. A covered community bank may decrease its capital pursuant to such a plan only if it maintains its covered community bank status before and after each decrease in its capital.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of increase.</I> (i) After a bank completes an increase in capital it must submit a notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The notice must be acknowledged before a notary public by the bank's president, vice president, or cashier and contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the transaction, unless already provided pursuant to paragraph (i)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The amount, including the par value of the stock, and effective date of the increase;
</P>
<P>(C) A certification that the funds have been paid in, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) A certified copy of the amendment to the articles of association, if required; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that the bank has complied with all laws, regulations and conditions imposed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(ii) After it receives the notice of capital increase, the OCC issues a certification specifying the amount of the increase and the effective date (<I>i.e.,</I> the date on which the increase occurred). In the case of a capital increase for which prior approval was not required pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(i), the increase is deemed certified by the OCC seven days after receipt of the notice if the OCC has not issued a certification prior to that date.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of decrease.</I> A national bank that decreases its capital in accordance with paragraphs (i)(1) or (i)(2) of this section must notify the appropriate OCC licensing office following the completion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a national bank has not completed its change in permanent capital within one year of the date of approval, unless the OCC specifies a longer period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exception for accounting adjustments.</I> (i) Changes to the permanent capital accounts that result solely from application of GAAP are not subject to the prior approval or notice requirements in paragraph (i)(1), (3), or (4) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after the end of the quarter in which the adjustment occurred, a bank must notify the OCC if the accounting adjustment resulted in an increase or decrease to permanent capital in an amount greater than 5% of the bank's total permanent capital prior to the adjustments; or, if the bank is subject to a letter, order, directive, written agreement, or otherwise related to changes in permanent capital. The notification must include the amount and description of the adjustment, including the applicable provision of GAAP.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Offers and sales of stock.</I> A national bank must comply with the Securities Offering Disclosure Rules in 12 CFR part 16 for offers and sales of common and preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Shareholder approval.</I> A national bank must obtain the necessary shareholder approval required by statute for any change in its permanent capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28454, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80463, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.47" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.47   Subordinated debt issued by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 1831o, and 3907.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the requirements applicable to all subordinated debt issued by national banks and the procedures for OCC review and approval of a national bank's application to issue or prepay subordinated debt and a notice to include subordinated debt in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan</I> means a plan describing the means and schedule by which a national bank will attain specified capital levels or ratios, including a capital restoration plan filed with the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 1831o and 12 CFR 6.5.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> means the stated maturity of the subordinated debt note. If the subordinated debt note does not have a stated maturity, then original maturity means the earliest possible date the subordinated debt note may be redeemed, repurchased, prepaid, terminated, or otherwise retired by the national bank pursuant to the terms of the subordinated debt note.
</P>
<P><I>Payment on subordinated debt</I> means principal and interest, and premium, if any.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated debt document</I> means any document pertaining to an issuance of subordinated debt, and any renewal, extension, amendment, modification, or replacement thereof, including the subordinated debt note and any global note, pricing supplement, note agreement, trust indenture, paying agent agreement, or underwriting agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> has the same meaning as set forth in 12 CFR 3.20(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for issuance of subordinated debt.</I> A national bank issuing subordinated debt must satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum terms.</I> The terms of any subordinated debt note issued by a national bank must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a minimum original maturity of at least five years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be a deposit and not insured by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be subordinated to the claims of depositors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be unsecured, which would include prohibiting the establishment of any legally enforceable fund earmarked for payment of the subordinated debt note through:
</P>
<P>(A) A sinking fund; or
</P>
<P>(B) A compensating balance or any other funds or assets subject to a legal right of offset, as defined by applicable State law;
</P>
<P>(v) Be ineligible as collateral for a loan by the issuing national bank;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide that once any scheduled payments of principal begin, all scheduled payments must be made at least annually and the amount repaid in each year may be no less than in the prior year; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Provide that, where applicable, no payment (including payment pursuant to an acceleration clause, redemption prior to maturity, repurchase, or exercising a call option) may be made without prior OCC approval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corporate authority.</I> A subordinated debt document must not include any provision or covenant that unduly restricts or otherwise acts to unduly limit the authority of a national bank or interferes with the OCC's supervision of the national bank. Specifically, this would include a provision or covenant that:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains a certain minimum amount in its capital accounts or other metric, such as minimum capital assets, liquidity, or loan ratios;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unreasonably restricts a national bank's ability to raise additional capital through the issuance of additional subordinated debt or other regulatory capital instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for default and acceleration of the subordinated debt as the result of a change in control, if such change in control results from the OCC's exercise of its statutory authority to require a national bank to sell stock in that national bank, enter into a merger or consolidation, or be acquired by a bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Requires the prior approval of a purchaser or holder of the subordinated debt note in the case of a voluntary merger by a national bank where the resulting institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Assumes the due and punctual performance of all conditions of the subordinated debt note and agreement; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is not in default of the various covenants of the subordinated debt; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provides for default and acceleration of the subordinated debt as the result of a default by a subsidiary (including a limited liability company) of the national bank, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) There is a separate agreement between the subsidiary and the purchaser of the national bank's subordinated debt note; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such agreement has been reviewed and approved by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> (i) A national bank must disclose clearly on the face of any subordinated debt note the following language in all capital letters:
</P>
<P>(A) THIS OBLIGATION IS NOT A DEPOSIT AND IS NOT INSURED BY THE FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION; and
</P>
<P>(B) THIS OBLIGATION IS SUBORDINATED TO CLAIMS OF DEPOSITORS AND GENERAL CREDITORS, IS UNSECURED, AND IS INELIGIBLE AS COLLATERAL FOR A LOAN BY [INSERT NAME OF ISSUING NATIONAL BANK].
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank must disclose clearly and accurately in the subordinated debt note:
</P>
<P>(A) The order and level of subordination, and in addition to being subordinated to the claims of depositors, provide that, at a minimum, the subordinated debt note is subordinate and junior in its right of payment to the obligations of all creditors, including both secured and unsecured or general creditors, except those specifically designated as ranking on a parity with, or subordinated to, the subordinated debt note;
</P>
<P>(B) A general description of the OCC's regulatory authority with respect to a national bank in danger of insolvency that includes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) With respect to insolvency, that the FDIC, acting as receiver, has authority to transfer a national bank's obligation under the subordinated debt note and to supersede or void any default, acceleration, or subordination that may have occurred;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a national bank that is “undercapitalized” as defined by applicable law fails to satisfactorily implement a required capital restoration plan, the national bank may be subject to all the additional restrictions and requirements applicable to a “significantly undercapitalized” institution, as defined by applicable law, including being required to sell shares in the national bank, being acquired by a depository institution holding company, or being merged or consolidated with another depository institution, and this authority supersedes and voids any defaults that may have occurred; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If a national bank is “critically undercapitalized,” as defined by applicable law, the national bank is prohibited from making principal or interest payments on the subordinated debt note without prior regulatory approval; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the OCC's authority under 12 CFR 3.11 to limit distributions, including interest payments on any tier 2 capital instrument if the national bank has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default, if applicable to the subordinated debt issuance.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the obligation may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the national bank enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank must comply with the Securities Offering Disclosure Rules in 12 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional requirements to qualify as tier 2 capital.</I> In order to qualify as tier 2 capital, a national bank's subordinated debt must meet the requirements in 12 CFR 3.20(d).




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Process and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Issuance of subordinated debt</I>—(i) <I>Approval</I>—(A) <I>Eligible bank.</I> An eligible bank is required to receive prior approval from the OCC to issue any subordinated debt, in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank will not continue to be an eligible bank after the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC has previously notified the national bank that prior approval is required; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prior approval is required by law.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Covered community bank.</I> A covered community bank is required to receive prior approval from the OCC to issue any subordinated debt, in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank will not continue to be well capitalized after the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC has previously notified the national bank that prior approval is required; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prior approval is required by law.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>National bank not an eligible bank or covered community bank.</I> A national bank that is not an eligible bank or covered community bank must receive prior OCC approval to issue any subordinated debt, in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to include subordinated debt in tier 2 capital.</I> A national bank that intends to include subordinated debt in tier 2 capital must submit an application to the OCC for approval, in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, before or within ten days after issuing the subordinated debt. Where a national bank's application to issue subordinated debt has been deemed to be approved, in accordance with paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, and the national bank does not contemporaneously receive approval from the OCC to include the subordinated debt as tier 2 capital, the national bank must submit an application for approval to include subordinated debt in tier 2 capital, pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, after issuance of the subordinated debt. A national bank may not include subordinated debt in tier 2 capital unless the national bank has filed the application with the OCC and received approval from the OCC that the subordinated debt issued by the national bank qualifies as tier 2 capital.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepayment of subordinated debt</I>—(i) <I>Subordinated debt not included in tier 2 capital</I>—(A) <I>Eligible bank.</I> An eligible bank is required to receive prior approval from the OCC to prepay any subordinated debt that is not included in tier 2 capital (including acceleration, repurchase, redemption prior to maturity, and exercising a call option), in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank will not be an eligible bank after the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC has previously notified the national bank that prior approval is required;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prior approval is required by law; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The amount of the proposed prepayment is equal to or greater than one percent of the national bank's total capital, as defined in 12 CFR 3.2.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Covered community bank.</I> A covered community bank is required to receive prior approval from the OCC to prepay any subordinated debt that is not included in tier 2 capital (including acceleration, repurchase, redemption prior to maturity, and exercising a call option), in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank will not continue to be well capitalized after the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC has previously notified the national bank that prior approval is required;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prior approval is required by law; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The amount of the proposed prepayment is equal to or greater than one percent of the national bank's total capital, as defined in 12 CFR 3.2.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>National bank not an eligible bank or covered community bank.</I> A national bank that is not an eligible bank or covered community bank must receive prior OCC approval to prepay any subordinated debt that is not included in tier 2 capital (including acceleration, repurchase, redemption prior to maturity, and exercising a call option), in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section.




</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subordinated debt included in tier 2 capital.</I> All national banks must receive prior OCC approval to prepay subordinated debt included in tier 2 capital, in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Material changes to existing subordinated debt documents.</I> A national bank must receive prior approval from the OCC in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section prior to making a material change to an existing subordinated debt document if the bank would have been required to receive OCC approval to issue the security under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section or to include it in tier 2 capital under paragraph (h) of this section.




</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prior approval procedure</I>—(1) <I>Application</I>—(i) <I>Issuance of subordinated debt.</I> A national bank required to obtain OCC approval before issuing subordinated debt must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The application must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the terms and amount of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of whether the national bank is subject to a capital plan or required to file a capital plan with the OCC and, if so, how the proposed change conforms to the capital plan;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the proposed subordinated note and any other subordinated debt documents; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the subordinated debt issue complies with all applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prepayment of subordinated debt.</I> A national bank required to obtain OCC approval before prepaying subordinated debt, pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section, must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The application must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the terms and amount of the proposed prepayment;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of whether the national bank is subject to a capital plan or required to file a capital plan with the OCC and, if so, how the proposed change conforms to the capital plan;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the subordinated debt note the national bank is proposing to prepay and any other subordinated debt documents; and
</P>
<P>(D) Either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement explaining why the national bank believes that following the proposed prepayment the national bank would continue to hold an amount of capital commensurate with its risk; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A description of the replacement capital instrument that meets the criteria for tier 1 or tier 2 capital under 12 CFR 3.20, including the amount of such instrument, and the time frame for issuance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Material changes to existing subordinated debt.</I> A national bank required to obtain OCC approval before making a material change to an existing subordinated debt document, pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) of this section, must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The application must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of all proposed changes;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of whether the national bank is subject to a capital plan or required to file a capital plan with the OCC and, if so, how the proposed change conforms to the capital plan;
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the revised subordinated debt documents reflecting all proposed changes; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the proposed changes to the subordinated debt documents complies with all applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Additional information.</I> The OCC reserves the right to request additional relevant information, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The application is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the national bank prior to that date that the filing presents a significant supervisory or compliance concern or raises a significant legal or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prepayment.</I> Notwithstanding this paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, if the application for prior approval is for prepayment, the national bank must receive affirmative approval from the OCC. If the OCC requires the national bank to replace the subordinated debt, the national bank must receive affirmative approval that the replacement capital instrument meets the criteria for tier 1 or tier 2 capital under 12 CFR 3.20 and must issue the replacement instrument prior to prepaying the subordinated debt, or immediately thereafter.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A national bank may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Tier 2 capital.</I> Following notification to the OCC pursuant to paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section that the national bank has issued the subordinated debt, the OCC will notify the national bank whether the subordinated debt qualifies as tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval expires if a national bank does not complete the sale of the subordinated debt within one year of approval.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Application procedure for inclusion in tier 2 capital.</I> (1) A national bank must submit an application to the appropriate OCC licensing office in writing before or within ten days after issuing subordinated debt that it intends to include in tier 2 capital. A national bank may not include such subordinated debt in tier 2 capital unless the national bank has received approval from the OCC that the subordinated debt qualifies as tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the issuance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount or projected amount and date or projected date of receipt of funds;
</P>
<P>(iii) The interest rate or expected calculation method for the interest rate;
</P>
<P>(iv) Copies of the final subordinated debt documents; and
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the issuance complies with all applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to transactions governed by this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Subordinated debt issued under the Emergency Capital Investment Program.</I> A provision or covenant included in a subordinated debt document does not unduly restrict or otherwise act to unduly limit the authority of a national bank or interfere with the OCC's supervision of the national bank, for purposes of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if the provision or covenant is included pursuant to requirements imposed by the U.S. Department of the Treasury and the subordinated debt is issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 75421, Dec. 18, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 28455, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 80464, Dec. 11, 2020; 86 FR 15080, Mar. 22, 2021; 91 FR 10498, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.48" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.48   Voluntary liquidation of a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 181, 182, 1463, 1464, and 5412(b)(1)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A national bank or a Federal savings association considering going into voluntary liquidation must provide preliminary notice to the OCC. The bank or savings association must also file a notice with the OCC once a liquidation plan is definite. The bank or savings association may not begin liquidation unless the OCC has notified it that the OCC does not object to the liquidation plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to a voluntary liquidation. However, if the OCC concludes that the notice presents significant or novel policy, supervisory or legal issues, the OCC may determine that any or all parts of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standards</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In reviewing a proposed liquidation plan, the OCC will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose of the liquidation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Its impact on the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Its impact on the bank's or savings association's depositors, other creditors, and customers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National banks.</I> For national banks, the OCC also will review liquidation plans for compliance with 12 U.S.C. 181 and 182.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Federal mutual savings associations.</I> For Federal mutual savings associations, the OCC also will assess the advisability of, and alternatives to, liquidation and the effect of liquidation on all concerned.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Preliminary notice of voluntary liquidation.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is considering going into voluntary liquidation must provide preliminary notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submission of liquidation plan and nonobjection.</I> (i) After a national bank or Federal savings association provides preliminary notice under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, if the bank or savings association plans to proceed with liquidation, it must submit a voluntary liquidation plan to the OCC. A liquidation plan may be effected in whole or part through purchase and assumption transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association must receive the OCC's non-objection to the liquidation plan before beginning the liquidation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice upon commencing liquidation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When the board of directors and the shareholders of a solvent national bank or Federal savings association, or in the case of a Federal mutual savings association, the board of directors and the members, have voted to voluntarily liquidate, the bank or savings association must:
</P>
<P>(A) File a notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office; and
</P>
<P>(B) provide notice to depositors, other known creditors, and known claimants of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>National banks.</I> A vote to liquidate a national bank must comply with 12 U.S.C. 181. In addition, a national bank must publish notice in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 182.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association must publish public notice if so directed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Report of condition.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidating agent or committee must submit a report to the appropriate OCC licensing office at the start of liquidation showing the bank's or savings association's balance sheet as of the start of liquidation. The liquidating national bank or Federal savings association must submit reports of the condition of its commercial, trust, and other departments to the appropriate OCC licensing office by filing the quarterly Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Reports).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Report of progress.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidating agent or committee must submit a “Report of Progress of Liquidation” annually to the appropriate OCC licensing office until the liquidation is complete.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Final report.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidating agent or committee must submit a final report at the conclusion of liquidation showing that all creditors have been satisfied, remaining assets have been distributed to shareholders, resolutions to dissolve the bank or savings association have been adopted, and the bank or savings association has been dissolved. The national bank or Federal savings association also must return its charter certificate to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expedited liquidations in connection with acquisitions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> When an acquiring depository institution in a business combination purchases all the assets, and assumes all the liabilities, including all contingent liabilities, of a target national bank or Federal savings association, the target national bank or Federal savings association may be dissolved immediately after the combination. However, if any liabilities will remain in the target national bank or Federal savings association, then the standard liquidation procedures apply. This paragraph (f) does not apply to dissolutions of Federal mutual savings associations, which are subject to the standard liquidation procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedure.</I> After its board of directors and shareholders have voted to liquidate and the national bank or Federal savings association has notified the appropriate OCC licensing office of its plans, the bank or savings association may surrender its charter and dissolve immediately, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquiring depository institution certifies to the OCC that it has purchased all the assets and assumed all the liabilities, including all contingent liabilities, of the national bank or Federal savings association in liquidation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquiring depository institution and the national bank or Federal savings association in liquidation have published notice that the bank or savings association will dissolve after the purchase and assumption to the acquiror. This notice must be included in the notice and publication for the purchase and assumption required under the Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28455, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80465, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.50   Change in control of a national bank or Federal savings association; reporting of stock loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 1817(j), and 1831aa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> Any person seeking to acquire control of a national bank or Federal savings association must provide 60 days prior written notice of a change in control to the OCC, except where otherwise provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This section describes the procedures and standards governing OCC review of notices for a change in control of a national bank or Federal savings association and reports of stock loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The following transactions are not subject to the requirements of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition of additional shares of a national bank or Federal savings association by a person who:
</P>
<P>(A) Has, continuously since March 9, 1979, (or since that institution commenced business, if later) held power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting securities of that bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(B) Under paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, would be presumed to have controlled that bank or Federal savings association continuously since March 9, 1979, if the transaction will not result in that person's direct or indirect ownership or power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the national bank or Federal savings association; or, in other cases, where the OCC determines that the person has controlled the bank or savings association continuously since March 9, 1979;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the OCC otherwise provides in writing, the acquisition of additional shares of a national bank or Federal savings association by a person who has lawfully acquired and maintained continuous control of the bank or Federal savings association under paragraph (f) of this section after complying with the procedures and filing the notice required by this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction subject to approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1842, section 18(c) of Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c), or section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any transaction described in section 2(a)(5) or 3(a) (A) or (B) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5) and 1842(a) (A) and (B), by a person described in those provisions;
</P>
<P>(v) A customary one-time proxy solicitation or receipt of <I>pro rata</I> stock dividends; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The acquisition of shares of a foreign bank that has a Federally licensed branch in the United States. This exemption does not extend to the reports and information required under paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prior notice exemption.</I> The following transactions are not subject to the prior notice requirements of this section but are otherwise subject to this section, including filing a notice and paying the appropriate filing fee, within 90 calendar days after the transaction occurs:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition of control as a result of acquisition of voting shares of a national bank or Federal savings association through testate or intestate succession;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition of control as a result of acquisition of voting shares of a national bank or Federal savings association as a bona fide gift;
</P>
<P>(iii) The acquisition of voting shares of a national bank or Federal savings association resulting from a redemption of voting securities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquisition of control of a national bank or Federal savings association as a result of actions by third parties (including the sale of securities) that are not within the control of the acquiror; and
</P>
<P>(v) The acquisition of control as a result of the acquisition of voting shares of a national bank or Federal savings association in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>(A) “Good faith” means that a person must either make, renew, or acquire a loan secured by voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association in advance of any knowledge of a default or of the substantial likelihood that a default is forthcoming. A person who purchases a previously defaulted loan, or a loan for which there is a substantial likelihood of default, secured by voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association may not rely on this paragraph (c)(3)(v) to foreclose on that loan, seize or purchase the underlying collateral, and acquire control of the national bank or Federal savings association without complying with the prior notice requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) To ensure compliance with this section, the acquiror of a defaulted loan secured by a controlling amount of a national bank's or a Federal savings association's voting securities must file a notice prior to the time the loan is acquired unless the acquiror can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the OCC that the voting securities are not the anticipated source of repayment for the loan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acquire</I> when used in connection with the acquisition of stock of a national bank or Federal savings association means obtaining ownership, control, power to vote, or sole power of disposition of stock, directly or indirectly or through one or more transactions or subsidiaries, through purchase, assignment, transfer, pledge, exchange, succession, or other disposition of voting stock, including:
</P>
<P>(i) An increase in percentage ownership resulting from a redemption, repurchase, reverse stock split or a similar transaction involving other securities of the same class, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition of stock by a group of persons and/or companies acting in concert, which is deemed to occur upon formation of such group.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acting in concert</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control whether or not pursuant to an express agreement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A combination or pooling of voting or other interests in the securities of an issuer for a common purpose pursuant to any contract, understanding, relationship, agreement, or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, unincorporated organization, joint-stock company or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Control</I> means the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies of a national bank or Federal savings association or to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Controlling shareholder</I> means any person who directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more persons or companies, or together with members of their immediate family, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 10 percent or more of the voting stock of a company or controls in any manner the election or appointment of a majority of the company's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(6) Depository institution means a depository institution as defined in section 3(c)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or a Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Immediate family</I> includes a person's spouse, father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, children, stepchildren, grandparent, grandchildren, father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, and the spouse of any of the forgoing.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Management official</I> means any president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, vice president, director, partner, or trustee, or any other person who performs or has a representative or nominee performing similar policymaking functions, including executive officers of principal business units or divisions or subsidiaries who perform policymaking functions, for a national bank, savings association, or a company, whether or not incorporated.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Notice</I> means a filing by a person in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Person</I> means an individual or a corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity, and includes voting trusts and voting agreements and any group of persons acting in concert.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Similar organization</I> for purposes of paragraph (d)(3) of this section means a combination of parties with the potential for or practical likelihood of continuing rather than temporary existence, where the parties thereto have knowingly and voluntarily associated for a common purpose pursuant to identifiable and binding relationships which govern the parties with respect to either:
</P>
<P>(i) The transferability and voting of any stock or other indicia of participation in another entity, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Achievement of a common or shared objective, such as to collectively manage or control another entity.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Stock</I> means common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Voting securities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Shares of stock, if the shares or interests, by statute, charter, or in any manner, allow the holder to vote for or select directors (or persons exercising similar functions) of the issuing national bank or Federal savings association, or to vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of the issuing national bank or Federal savings association. However, preferred stock or similar interests are not voting securities if:
</P>
<P>(A) Any voting rights associated with the shares or interests are limited solely to voting rights customarily provided by statute regarding matters that would significantly affect the rights or preference of the security or other interest. This includes the issuance of additional amounts of classes of senior securities, the modification of the terms of the security or interest, the dissolution of the issuing national bank, or the payment of dividends by the issuing national bank or Federal savings association when preferred dividends are in arrears;
</P>
<P>(B) The shares or interests are a passive investment or financing device and do not otherwise provide the holder with control over the issuing national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(C) The shares or interests do not allow the holder by statute, charter, or in any manner, to select or to vote for the selection of directors (or persons exercising similar functions) of the issuing national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities, other instruments, or similar interests that are immediately convertible, at the option of the owner or holder thereof, into voting securities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Policy</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The OCC seeks to enhance and maintain public confidence in the banking system by preventing a change in control of a national bank or Federal savings association that could have serious adverse effects on a national bank's or Federal savings association's financial stability or management resources, the interests of the bank's or Federal savings association's customers, the Deposit Insurance Fund, or competition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquisitions subject to the Bank Holding Company Act.</I> (i) If corporations, partnerships, certain trusts, associations, and similar organizations, that are not already bank holding companies, are not required to secure prior Federal Reserve Board approval to acquire control of a bank under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1842, other than indirectly through the acquisition of shares of a bank holding company, they are subject to the notice requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain transactions, including foreclosures by depository institutions and other institutional lenders, fiduciary acquisitions by depository institutions, and increases of majority holdings by bank holding companies, are described in sections 2(a)(5)(D) and 3(a) (A) and (B) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5)(D) and 12 U.S.C. 1842(a) (A) and (B), but do not require the Federal Reserve Board's prior approval. For purposes of this section, they are considered subject to section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1842, and do not require either a prior or subsequent notice to the OCC under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessing financial condition.</I> In assessing the financial condition of the acquiring person, the OCC weighs any debt servicing requirements in light of the acquiring person's overall financial strength; the institution's earnings performance, asset condition, capital adequacy, and future prospects; and the likelihood of the acquiring party making unreasonable demands on the resources of the institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8(a), 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13(a) through (f) do not apply to filings under this section. When complying with § 5.8(b) no address is required for a notice filed by one or more individuals under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Who must file.</I> (i) Any person seeking to acquire the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies, or to vote 25 percent or more of a class of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association, must file a notice with the OCC 60 days prior to the proposed acquisition, unless the acquisition is exempt under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following persons are presumed to be acting in concert for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A company and any controlling shareholder, partner, trustee or management official of such company if both the company and the person own stock in the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(B) A person and the members of the person's immediate family;
</P>
<P>(C) Companies under common control;
</P>
<P>(D) Persons that have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under section 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n, and the rules thereunder promulgated by the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(E) A person or company will be presumed to be acting in concert with any trust for which such person or company serves as trustee, except that a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan as defined in 12 CFR 192.25 is not be presumed to be acting in concert with its trustee or person acting in a similar fiduciary capacity solely for the purposes of determining whether to combine the holdings of a plan and its trustee or fiduciary; and
</P>
<P>(F) Persons that are parties to any agreement, contract, understanding, relationship, or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise, regarding the acquisition, voting or transfer of control of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association, other than through a revocable proxy in connection with a proxy solicitation for the purposes of conducting business at a regular or special meeting of the institution, if the proxy terminates within a reasonable period after the meeting.
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC presumes, unless rebutted, that an acquisition or other disposition of voting securities through which any person proposes to acquire ownership of, or the power to vote, 10 percent or more of a class of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association is an acquisition by a person of the power to direct the bank's or savings association's management or policies if:
</P>
<P>(A) The securities to be acquired or voted are subject to the registration requirements of section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>; or
</P>
<P>(B) Immediately after the transaction no other person will own or have the power to vote a greater proportion of that class of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC will consider a rebuttal of the presumption of control where the person or company intends to have no more than one representative on the board of directors of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(v) The presumption of control may not be rebutted if the total equity investment by the person or company in the national bank or Federal savings association, including 15 percent or more of any class of voting securities, equals or exceeds one third of the total equity of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(vi) Other transactions resulting in a person's control of less than 25 percent of a class of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association are not deemed by the OCC to result in control for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) If two or more persons, not acting in concert, each propose to acquire simultaneously equal percentages of 10 percent or more of a class of a national bank's or Federal savings association's voting securities, and either the acquisitions are of a class of securities subject to the registration requirements of section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78l, or immediately after the transaction no other shareholder of the national bank or Federal savings association would own or have the power to vote a greater percentage of the class, each of the acquiring persons must either file a notice or rebut the presumption of control.
</P>
<P>(viii) An acquiring person may seek to rebut a presumption established in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section by presenting relevant information in writing to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The OCC will respond in writing to any person that seeks to rebut the presumption of control or the presumption of concerted action. No rebuttal filing is effective unless the OCC indicates in writing that the information submitted has been found to be sufficient to rebut the presumption of control.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filings.</I> (i) The OCC does not accept a notice of a change in control unless it is technically complete, <I>i.e.,</I> the information provided is responsive to every item listed in the notice form and is accompanied by the appropriate fee.
</P>
<P>(A) The notice must contain the information required under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)(A), and the information prescribed in the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report. This form is available at <I>www.occ.gov</I>. The OCC may waive any of the informational requirements of the notice if the OCC determines that it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(B) When the acquiring person is an individual, or group of individuals acting in concert, the requirement to provide personal financial data may be satisfied with a current statement of assets and liabilities and an income summary, together with a statement of any material changes since the date of the statement or summary. However, the OCC may require additional information, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC has 60 days from the date it declares the notice to be technically complete to review the notice.
</P>
<P>(A) When the OCC declares a notice technically complete, the appropriate OCC licensing office sends a letter of acknowledgment to the filer indicating the technically complete date.
</P>
<P>(B) As set forth in paragraph (g) of this section, the filer must publish an announcement within 10 days of filing the notice with the OCC. The publication of the announcement triggers a 20-day public comment period. The OCC may waive or shorten the public comment period if an emergency exists. The OCC also may shorten the comment period for other good cause. The OCC may act on a proposed change in control prior to the expiration of the public comment period if the OCC makes a written determination that an emergency exists.
</P>
<P>(C) A filer must notify the OCC immediately of any material changes in a notice submitted to the OCC, including changes in financial or other conditions that may affect the OCC's decision on the filing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within the 60-day period, the OCC may inform the filer that the acquisition has been disapproved, has not been disapproved, or that the OCC will extend the 60-day review period for up to an additional 30 days. The period or the OCC's review of a notice may be further extended not to exceed two additional times for not more than 45 days each time if:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC determines that any acquiring party has not furnished all the information required under this part;
</P>
<P>(B) In the OCC's judgment, any material information submitted is substantially inaccurate;
</P>
<P>(C) The OCC has been unable to complete an investigation of each acquirer because of any delay caused by, or the inadequate cooperation of, such acquirer; or
</P>
<P>(D) The OCC determines that additional time is needed to investigate and determine that no acquiring party has a record of failing to comply with the requirements of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditional actions.</I> The OCC may impose conditions on its action not to disapprove a notice to assure satisfaction of the relevant statutory criteria for non-objection to a notice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disapproval.</I> The OCC may disapprove a notice if it finds that any of the following factors exist:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed acquisition of control would result in a monopoly or would be in furtherance of any combination or conspiracy to monopolize or to attempt to monopolize the business of banking in any part of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The effect of the proposed acquisition of control in any section of the country may be substantially to lessen competition or to tend to create a monopoly or the proposed acquisition of control would in any other manner be in restraint of trade, and the anticompetitive effects of the proposed acquisition of control are not clearly outweighed in the public interest by the probable effect of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community to be served;
</P>
<P>(iii) Either the financial condition of any acquiring person or the future prospects of the institution is such as might jeopardize the financial stability of the bank or Federal savings association or prejudice the interests of the depositors of the bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iv) The competence, experience, or integrity of any acquiring person, or of any of the proposed management personnel, indicates that it would not be in the interest of the depositors of the bank or Federal savings association, or in the interest of the public, to permit that person to control the bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(v) An acquiring person neglects, fails, or refuses to furnish the OCC all the information it requires; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The OCC determines that the proposed transaction would result in an adverse effect on the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notification of disapproval</I>—(i) <I>Written notice by OCC.</I> If the OCC disapproves a notice, it will notify the filer in writing within three days after the decision. The OCC's written disapproval will contain a statement of the basis for disapproval and indicate that the filer may request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hearing Request.</I> The filer may request a hearing by the OCC within 10 days of receipt of disapproval, pursuant to the procedures in 12 CFR part 19, subpart H. Following final agency action under 12 CFR part 19, further review by the courts is available. (<I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(5)).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Failure to request a hearing.</I> If a filer fails to request a hearing with a timely request, the notice of disapproval constitutes a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Announcement.</I> The filer must publish an announcement in a newspaper of general circulation in the community where the affected national bank or Federal savings association is located within 10 days of filing. The OCC may authorize a delayed announcement if an immediate announcement would not be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(i) In addition to the information required by § 5.8(b), the announcement must include the name of the national bank or Federal savings association named in the notice and the comment period (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 days from the date of the announcement). The announcement also must state that the public portion of the notice is available upon request.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this paragraph (g), if the OCC determines in writing that an emergency exists and that the announcement requirements of this paragraph (g) would seriously threaten the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association to be acquired, including situations where the OCC must act immediately in order to prevent the probable failure of a national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC may waive or shorten the publication requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Release of information.</I> (i) Upon the request of any person, the OCC releases the information provided in the public portion of the notice and makes it available for public inspection and copying as soon as possible after a notice has been filed. In certain circumstances the OCC may determine that the release of the information would not be in the public interest. In addition, the OCC makes the date that the notice is filed, the disposition of the notice and the date thereof, and the consummation date of the transaction, if applicable, publicly available in the OCC's “Weekly Bulletin.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC handles requests for the non-public portion of the notice as requests under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> After the consummation of the change in control, the national bank or Federal savings association must notify the OCC in writing of any changes or replacements of its chief executive officer or of any director occurring during the 12-month period beginning on the date of consummation. This notice must be filed within 10 days of such change or replacement and must include a statement of the past and current business and professional affiliations of the new chief executive officers or directors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reporting of stock loans</I>—(1) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) Any foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, must file a consolidated report with the appropriate OCC supervisory office of the national bank or Federal savings association if the foreign bank or any affiliate thereof, has credit outstanding to any person or group of persons that, in the aggregate, is secured, directly or indirectly, by 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the same national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, must also file a copy of the report with its appropriate OCC supervisory office if that office is different from the national bank's or Federal savings association's appropriate OCC supervisory office. If the foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, is not supervised by the OCC, it must file a copy of the report filed with the OCC with its appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any shares of the national bank or Federal savings association held by the foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, as principal must be included in the calculation of the number of shares in which the foreign bank or any affiliate thereof has a security interest for purposes of paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (i):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foreign bank and affiliate</I> have the same meanings as in section 1 of the International Banking Act of 1978, 12 U.S.C. 3101.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit outstanding</I> includes any loan or extension of credit; the issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit, including an endorsement or standby letter of credit; and any other type of transaction that extends credit or financing to a person or group of persons.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Group of persons</I> includes any number of persons that a foreign bank, or an affiliate thereof, has reason to believe:
</P>
<P>(A) Are acting together, in concert, or with one another to acquire or control shares of the same insured national bank or Federal savings association, including an acquisition of shares of the same national bank or Federal savings association at approximately the same time under substantially the same terms; or
</P>
<P>(B) Have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under 15 U.S.C. 78m regarding ownership of the shares of the same depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> Compliance with paragraph (i)(1) of this section is not required if:
</P>
<P>(i) The person or group of persons referred to in paragraph (i)(1) of this section has disclosed the amount borrowed and the security interest therein to the appropriate OCC licensing office in connection with a notice filed under this section or any other application filed with the appropriate OCC licensing office as a substitute for a notice under this section, such as for a national bank or Federal savings association charter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction involves a person or group of persons that has been the owner or owners of record of the stock for a period of one year or more or, if the transaction involves stock issued by a newly chartered bank or Federal savings association, before the bank's or Federal savings association's opening.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Report requirements.</I> (i) The consolidated report must indicate the number and percentage of shares securing each applicable extension of credit, the identity of the borrower, and the number of shares held as principal by the foreign bank and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign bank and all affiliates thereof must file the consolidated report in writing within 30 days of the date on which the foreign bank or affiliate thereof first believes that the security for any outstanding credit consists of 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other reporting requirements.</I> A foreign bank or any affiliate thereof, supervised by the OCC and required to report credit outstanding secured by the shares of a depository institution to another Federal banking agency also must file a copy of the report with its appropriate OCC supervisory office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28456, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80465, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.51   Changes in directors and senior executive officers of a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1831i, 3102(b), and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the circumstances when a national bank or a Federal savings association must notify the OCC of a change in its directors and senior executive officers, and the OCC's authority to disapprove those notices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Director</I> means an individual who serves on the board of directors of a national bank or a Federal savings association, except:
</P>
<P>(i) A director of a foreign bank that operates a Federal branch; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory director who does not have the authority to vote on matters before the board of directors or any committee of the board of directors and provides solely general policy advice to the board of directors or any committee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank chartered under 12 U.S.C. 1464.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National bank</I> includes a Federal branch for purposes of this section only.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Senior executive officer</I> means the president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief lending officer, chief investment officer, chief risk officer, and any other individual the OCC identifies in writing to the national bank or Federal savings association who exercises significant influence over, or participates in, major policy making decisions of the national bank or Federal savings association without regard to title, salary, or compensation. The term also includes employees of entities retained by a national bank or Federal savings association to perform such functions in lieu of directly hiring the individuals, and, with respect to a Federal branch operated by a foreign bank, the individual functioning as the chief managing official of the Federal branch.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Technically complete notice</I> means a notice that provides all the information requested in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, including complete explanations where material issues arise regarding the competence, experience, character, or integrity of proposed directors or senior executive officers, and any additional information that the OCC may request following a determination that the notice was not technically complete.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Technically complete notice date</I> means the date on which the OCC has received a technically complete notice.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Troubled condition</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that
</P>
<P>(i) Has a composite rating of 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (CAMELS);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject to a cease and desist order, a consent order, or a formal written agreement, that requires action to improve the financial condition of the national bank or Federal savings association unless otherwise informed in writing by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is informed in writing by the OCC that, based on information pertaining to such national bank or Federal savings association, it has been designated in “troubled condition” for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prior notice.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must provide written notice to the OCC at least 90 calendar days before adding or replacing any member of its board of directors, employing any individual as a senior executive officer of the national bank or Federal savings association, or changing the responsibilities of any senior executive officer so that the individual would assume a different senior executive officer position, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association is not in compliance with minimum capital requirements, as prescribed in 12 CFR part 3 or is otherwise in troubled condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC determines, in writing, in connection with the review by the agency of the plan required under section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), or otherwise, that such prior notice is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Filing notice.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must file a notice with its appropriate supervisory office. When a national bank or Federal savings association files a notice, the individual to whom the filing pertains must attest to the validity of the information pertaining to that individual. The 90-day review period begins on the technically complete notice date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of notice.</I> (i) The notice must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The information required under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)(A), and the information prescribed in the Interagency Notice of Change in Director or Senior Executive Officer, the biographical and certification portions of the Interagency Biographical and Financial Report (“IBFR”), and unless otherwise determined by the OCC in writing, the financial portion of the IBFR. These forms are available from the OCC;
</P>
<P>(B) Legible fingerprints of the individual, except that fingerprints are not required for any individual who, within the three years immediately preceding the initial submission date of the notice currently under review, has been the subject of a notice filed with the OCC or the OTS pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1831i, or this section, and has previously submitted fingerprints; and
</P>
<P>(C) Such other information required by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Modification of content requirements.</I> The OCC may require or accept other information in place of the content requirements in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requests for additional information.</I> (i) Following receipt of a technically complete notice, the OCC may request additional information. Such request must be in writing, must explain why the information is needed, and must specify a time period during which the information must be provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the national bank or Federal savings association cannot provide the information requested by the OCC within the time specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association may request in writing that the OCC suspend processing of the notice. The OCC will advise the national bank or Federal savings association in writing whether the suspension request is granted and, if granted, the length of the suspension.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the national bank or Federal savings association fails to provide the requested information within the time specified in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section, the OCC may deem the filing abandoned under § 5.13(c) or may review the notice based on the information provided.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> The OCC may disapprove an individual proposed as a member of the board of directors or as a senior executive officer if the OCC determines on the basis of the individual's competence, experience, character, or integrity that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the national bank or Federal savings association or the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the national bank or Federal savings association. The OCC must send a written notice of disapproval to both the national bank or Federal savings association and the individual stating the basis for disapproval.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice of intent not to disapprove.</I> An individual proposed as a member of the board of directors or as a senior executive officer may begin service before the expiration of the review period if the OCC notifies the individual and the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that the OCC does not disapprove the proposed director or senior executive officer and all other applicable legal requirements are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Waiver of prior notice</I>—(i) <I>Waiver request.</I> (A) A national bank or Federal savings association may send a letter to the appropriate supervisory office requesting a waiver of the prior notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC may grant the waiver if it issues a written finding that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Delay could adversely affect the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Delay would not be in the public interest; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Other extraordinary circumstances justify waiver of prior notice.
</P>
<P>(C) The OCC will determine the length of the waiver on a case-by-case basis. All waivers that the OCC grants under this paragraph (e)(6) are subject to the condition that the national bank or Federal savings association must file a technically complete notice under this section within the time period specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(D) Subject to paragraph (e)(6)(i)(C) of this section, the proposed individual may assume the position on an interim basis until the earliest of the following events:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The individual and the national bank or the Federal savings association receive a notice of intent not to disapprove, at which time the individual may assume the position on a permanent basis, provided all other applicable legal requirements are satisfied;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The individual and the national bank or the Federal savings association receive a notice of disapproval within 90 calendar days after the submission of a technically complete notice. In this event the individual must immediately resign from the position upon receipt of the notice of disapproval and may assume the position on a permanent basis only if the notice of disapproval is reversed on appeal and all other applicable legal requirements are satisfied; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The OCC does not act within 90 calendar days after the submission of a technically complete notice. In this event, the individual may assume the position on a permanent basis 91 calendar days after the submission of a technically complete notice.
</P>
<P>(E) If the technically complete notice is not filed within the time period specified in the waiver, the proposed individual must immediately resign their position. Thereafter, the individual may assume the position only after a technically complete notice has been filed, all other applicable requirements are satisfied, and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The national bank or the Federal savings association receives a notice of intent not to disapprove;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The review period expires; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A notice of disapproval has been overturned on appeal as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) Notwithstanding the grant of a waiver, the OCC has authority to issue a notice of disapproval within 30 days of the expiration of such waiver.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Automatic waiver.</I> An individual who has been elected to the board of directors of a national bank or Federal savings association may serve as a director on an interim basis before a notice has been filed under this section, provided the individual was not nominated by management, and the national bank or Federal savings association submits a notice under this section not later than seven days after the individual has been notified of the election. The individual may serve on an interim basis until the occurrence of the earliest of the events described in paragraphs (e)(6)(i)(D)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Commencement of service.</I> An individual proposed as a member of the board of directors or as a senior executive officer who satisfies all other applicable legal requirements may assume the office on a permanent basis:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the expiration of the review period, only if the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that the OCC does not disapprove the proposed director or senior executive officer pursuant to paragraph (e)(5) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Following the expiration of the review period, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC issues a written notice of disapproval during the review period; or
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association does not provide additional information within the time period required by the OCC pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section and the OCC deems the notice to be abandoned pursuant to § 5.13(c).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13(a) through (f) do not apply to a notice for a change in directors and senior executive officers, except that § 5.13(c) will apply to the extent provided for in paragraphs (e)(3)(iii) and (e)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeal.</I> (1) If the national bank or Federal savings association, the proposed individual, or both, disagree with a disapproval, they may seek review by appealing the disapproval to the Comptroller, or an authorized delegate, within 15 days of the receipt of the notice of disapproval. The national bank or Federal savings association or the individual may appeal on the grounds that the reasons for disapproval are contrary to fact or insufficient to justify disapproval. The appellant must submit all documents and written arguments that the appellant wishes to be considered in support of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, or an authorized delegate, may designate an appellate official who was not previously involved in the decision leading to the appeal at issue. The Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official considers all information submitted with the original notice, the material before the OCC official who made the initial decision, and any information submitted by the appellant at the time of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) The Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official will independently determine whether the reasons given for the disapproval are contrary to fact or insufficient to justify the disapproval. If either is determined to be the case, the Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official may reverse the disapproval.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon completion of the review, the Comptroller, an authorized delegate, or the appellate official will notify the appellant in writing of the decision. If the original decision is reversed, the individual may assume the position in the national bank or Federal savings association for which he or she was proposed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28460, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80466, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.52" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.52   Change of address of a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464 and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section describes the obligation of a national bank or a Federal savings association to notify the OCC of any change in its address.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice process.</I> (1) Any national bank with a change in the address of its main office or in its post office box or a Federal savings association with a change in the address of its home office or post office box must send a written notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office.
</P>
<P>(2) No notice is required if the change in address results from a transaction approved under this part or if notice has been provided pursuant to § 5.40(c)(1) with respect to the relocation of a main office or home office to a branch location in the same city, town or village.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, and 5.13 do not apply to changes in a national bank's or Federal savings association's address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28462, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80466, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.53" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.53   Substantial asset change by a national bank or Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 1818, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section requires a national bank or a Federal savings association to obtain the approval of the OCC for a substantial asset change.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provide in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, <I>substantial asset change</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The sale or other disposition of all, or substantially all, of the national bank's or Federal savings association's assets in a transaction or a series of transactions;
</P>
<P>(ii) After having sold or disposed of all, or substantially all, of its assets, subsequent purchases or other acquisitions or other expansions of the national bank's or Federal savings association's operations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other purchases, acquisitions or other expansions of operations that are part of a plan to increase the size of the national bank or Federal savings association by more than 25 percent in a one year period; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other material increase or decrease in the size of the national bank or Federal savings association or a material alteration in the composition of the types of assets or liabilities of the national bank or Federal savings association (including the entry or exit of business lines), on a case-by-case basis, as determined by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any change in the purpose of the charter of the national bank or Federal savings association as described in § 5.20(l)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The term “substantial asset change” does not include, and this section does not apply, to a change in composition of all, or substantially all, of a bank's or savings association's assets:
</P>
<P>(i) That the bank or savings association undertakes in response to direction from the OCC (<I>e.g.,</I> in an enforcement action pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818);
</P>
<P>(ii) That is part of a voluntary liquidation under § 5.48, if the bank or savings association in liquidation has obtained the OCC's non-objection to its plan of liquidation under § 5.48 and has stipulated in its notice of liquidation to the OCC that its liquidation will be completed, the bank or savings association dissolved and its charter returned to the OCC within one year of the date it filed the notice of liquidation, unless the OCC extends the time period;
</P>
<P>(iii) That occurs as a result of a bank's or savings association's ordinary and ongoing business of originating and securitizing loans; or
</P>
<P>(iv) That are subject to OCC approval under another application to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Consultation.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association considering a transaction or series of transactions that may constitute a material change under paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section must consult with the appropriate OCC supervisory office for a determination whether the OCC will require an application under this section. In determining whether to require an application, the OCC considers the size and nature of the transaction and the condition of the institutions involved.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must file an application and obtain the prior written approval of the OCC before engaging in a substantial asset change.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Factors</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> (A) In determining whether to approve an application filed under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the OCC considers the following factors:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The capital level of any resulting national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The conformity of the transaction to applicable law, regulation, and supervisory policies;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The purpose of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The impact of the transaction on safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The effect of the transaction on the national bank or Federal savings association's shareholders, depositors, other creditors, and customers.
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC may deny the application if the transaction would have a negative effect in any of these respects.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional factors.</I> The OCC's review of any substantial asset change that involves the purchase or other acquisition or other expansions of the bank's or savings association's operations or that involves a change in the purpose of the bank's or association's charter, as described in § 5.20(l)(2), will include, in addition to the foregoing factors, the factors governing the organization of a bank or savings association under § 5.20.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply with respect to applications filed pursuant to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all of the provisions of §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28462, May 18, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80466, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.55" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.55   Capital distributions by Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1831o, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A Federal savings association must file an application before making a capital distribution, as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all capital distributions by a Federal savings association and sets forth the procedures and standards relating to a capital distribution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Affiliate</I> means an affiliate, as defined under regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System regarding transactions with affiliates, 12 CFR part 223 (Regulation W).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A distribution of cash or other property to owners of a Federal savings association made on account of their ownership, but excludes:
</P>
<P>(A) Any dividend consisting only of the shares of the savings association or rights to purchase the shares; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the savings association is a Federal mutual savings association, any payment that the savings association is required to make under the terms of a deposit instrument and any other amount paid on deposits that the OCC determines is not a distribution for the purposes of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association's payment to repurchase, redeem, retire or otherwise acquire any of its shares or other ownership interests; any payment to repurchase, redeem, retire, or otherwise acquire debt instruments included in its total capital under 12 CFR part 3; and any extension of credit to finance an affiliate's acquisition of the savings association's shares or interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any direct or indirect payment of cash or other property to owners or affiliates made in connection with a corporate restructuring. This includes the Federal savings association's payment of cash or property to shareholders of another association or to shareholders of its holding company to acquire ownership in that association, other than by a distribution of shares;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other distribution charged against a Federal savings association's capital accounts if the savings association would not be well capitalized, as set forth in 12 CFR 6.4, following the distribution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any transaction that the OCC determines, by order or regulation, to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in section 10(a)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Net income</I> means a Federal savings association's net income computed in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Retained net income</I> means a Federal savings association's net income for a specified period less total capital distributions declared in that period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Shares</I> means common and preferred stock, and any options, warrants, or other rights for the acquisition of such stock. The term “share” also includes convertible securities upon their conversion into common or preferred stock. The term does not include convertible debt securities prior to their conversion into common or preferred stock or other securities that are not equity securities at the time of a capital distribution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application required.</I> A Federal savings association must file an application with the OCC before making a capital distribution if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal savings association is:
</P>
<P>(A) Not an eligible savings association or covered community savings association; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is an eligible savings association or covered community savings association but would not continue to be well capitalized following the distribution;




</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount of all of the Federal savings association's capital distributions (including the proposed capital distribution) for the applicable calendar year exceeds its net income for that year to date plus retained net income for the preceding two years. If the capital distribution is from retained earnings, the aggregate limitation in this paragraph may be calculated in accordance with § 5.64(c)(2), substituting “capital distributions” for “dividends” in that section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal savings association's proposed capital distribution would reduce the amount of or retire any part of its common or preferred stock or retire any part of debt instruments such as notes or debentures included in capital under 12 CFR part 3 (other than regular payments required under a debt instrument approved under § 5.56);
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal savings association's proposed capital distribution is payable in property other than cash;
</P>
<P>(v) The Federal savings association is directly or indirectly controlled by a mutual savings and loan holding company or by a company that is not a savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The Federal savings association's proposed capital distribution would violate a prohibition contained in any applicable statute, regulation, or agreement between the Federal savings association and the OCC or the OTS, or violate a condition imposed on the Federal savings association in an application or notice approved by the OCC or the OTS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No application required.</I> A Federal savings association may make a capital distribution without filing an application with the OCC if it does not meet the filing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Informational copy of Federal Reserve System notice required.</I> If the Federal savings association is a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company that is filing a notice with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) for a dividend solely under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(f) and not also under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)(11), and no application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section is required, then the savings association must provide an informational copy to the OCC of the notice filed with the Board, at the same time the notice is filed with the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application format</I>—(1) <I>Contents.</I> The application must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be in narrative form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include all relevant information concerning the proposed capital distribution, including the amount, timing, and type of distribution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate compliance with paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Schedules.</I> The application may include a schedule proposing capital distributions over a specified period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined filings.</I> A Federal savings association may combine the application required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section with any other notice or application, if the capital distribution is a part of, or is proposed in connection with, another transaction requiring a notice or application under this chapter. If submitting a combined filing, the Federal savings association must state that the related notice or application is intended to serve as an application under this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> When a Federal savings association is required to file an application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, it must file the application at least 30 days before the proposed declaration of dividend or approval of the proposed capital distribution by its board of directors. Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, the OCC is deemed to have approved an application from an eligible savings association or covered community savings association upon the expiration of 30 days after the filing date of the application unless, before the expiration of that time period, the OCC notifies the Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional information is required to supplement the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The application has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under 5.13(a)(2); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The application is denied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applications not subject to expedited review.</I> An application is not subject to expedited review if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal savings association is not an eligible savings association or covered community savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount of all of the Federal savings association's capital distributions (including the proposed capital distribution) for the applicable calendar year exceeds its net income for that year to date plus retained net income for the preceding two years;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal savings association would not be at least adequately capitalized, as set forth in 12 CFR 6.4, following the distribution; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal savings association's proposed capital distribution would violate a prohibition contained in any applicable statute, regulation, or agreement between the savings association and the OCC or the OTS, or violate a condition imposed on the savings association in an application or notice approved by the OCC or the OTS.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>OCC filing office</I>—(i) <I>Appropriate licensing office.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3)(ii) of this section, a Federal savings association that is required to file an application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section or an informational copy of a notice under paragraph (e)(3) of this section must submit the application or notice to the appropriate OCC licensing office.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appropriate supervisory office.</I> A Federal savings association that is required to file an application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section for capital distributions involving solely a cash dividend from retained earnings or involving a cash dividend from retained earnings and a concurrent cash distribution from permanent capital must submit the application to the appropriate OCC supervisory office.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>OCC review of capital distributions.</I> After review of an application submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC may deny the application in whole or in part, if it makes any of the following determinations:
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal savings association will be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized as set forth in 12 CFR 6.4, as applicable, following the capital distribution. If so, the OCC will determine if the capital distribution is permitted under 12 U.S.C. 1831o(d)(1)(B).
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed capital distribution raises safety or soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed capital distribution violates a prohibition contained in any statute, regulation, agreement between the Federal savings association and the OCC or the OTS, or a condition imposed on the Federal savings association in an application or notice approved by the OCC or the OTS. 
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may approve the application in whole or in part. Notwithstanding paragraph (h)(1)(iii) of this section, the OCC may waive any waivable prohibition or condition to permit a distribution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to capital distributions made by Federal savings associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28463, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80466, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10499, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.56" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.56   Inclusion of subordinated debt securities and mandatorily redeemable preferred stock as Federal savings association supplementary (tier 2) capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions.</I> (1) A Federal savings association must comply with this section in order to include subordinated debt securities or mandatorily redeemable preferred stock (“covered securities”) in tier 2 capital under 12 CFR 3.20(d) and to prepay covered securities included in tier 2 capital. A savings association that does not include covered securities in tier 2 capital is not required to comply with this section. Covered securities not included in tier 2 capital are subject to the requirements of § 163.80 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, mandatorily redeemable preferred stock means mandatorily redeemable preferred stock that was issued before July 23, 1985 or issued pursuant to regulations and memoranda of the Federal Home Loan Bank Board and approved in writing by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation for inclusion as regulatory capital before or after issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application procedures</I>—(1) <I>Application to include covered securities in tier 2 capital</I>—(i) <I>Application required.</I> A Federal savings association must file an application seeking the OCC's approval of the inclusion of covered securities in tier 2 capital. The savings association may file its application before or after it issues covered securities, but may not include covered securities in tier 2 capital until the OCC approves the application and the securities are issued.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Expedited review.</I> The OCC is deemed to have approved an application from an eligible savings association or covered community savings association to include covered securities in tier 2 capital upon the expiration of 30 days after the filing date of the application unless, before the expiration of that time period, the OCC notifies the Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(A) Additional information is required to supplement the application;
</P>
<P>(B) The application has been removed from expedited review or the expedited review process is extended under § 5.13(a)(2); or
</P>
<P>(C) The OCC denies the application.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Securities offering rules.</I> A Federal savings association also must comply with the securities offering rules at 12 CFR part 16 by filing an offering circular for a proposed issuance of covered securities, unless the offering qualifies for an exemption under that part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application required to prepay covered securities included in tier 2 capital</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A Federal savings association must file an application to, and receive prior approval from, the OCC before prepaying covered securities included in tier 2 capital. The application must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement explaining why the Federal savings association believes that following the proposed prepayment the savings association would continue to hold an amount of capital commensurate with its risk; or
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the replacement capital instrument that meets the criteria for tier 1 or tier 2 capital under 12 CFR 3.20, including the amount of such instrument and the time frame for issuance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Replacement covered security.</I> If the OCC conditions approval of prepayment on a requirement that a Federal savings association must replace the covered security with a covered security of an equivalent amount that satisfies the requirements for tier 1 or tier 2 capital, the savings association must file an application to issue the replacement covered security and must receive prior OCC approval.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements.</I> A covered security issued under this section must satisfy the requirements for tier 2 capital in 12 CFR 3.20(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Securities requirements for inclusion in tier 2 capital.</I> To be included in tier 2 capital, covered securities must satisfy the requirements in 12 CFR 3.20(d). In addition, such covered securities must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form.</I> (i) Each certificate evidencing a covered security must:
</P>
<P>(A) Bear the following legend on its face, in bold type: “This security is <I>not</I> a savings account or deposit and it is <I>not</I> insured by the United States or any agency or fund of the United States;”
</P>
<P>(B) State that the security is subordinated on liquidation, as to principal, interest, and premium, to all claims against the savings association that have the same priority as savings accounts or a higher priority;
</P>
<P>(C) State that the security is not secured by the savings association's assets or the assets of any affiliate of the savings association. An affiliate means any person or company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the savings association;
</P>
<P>(D) State that the security is not eligible collateral for a loan by the savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) State the prohibition on the payment of dividends or interest at 12 U.S.C. 1828(b) and, in the case of subordinated debt securities, state the prohibition on the payment of principal and interest at 12 U.S.C. 1831o(h), 12 CFR 3.11, and any other relevant restrictions;
</P>
<P>(F) For subordinated debt securities, state or refer to a document stating the terms under which the savings association may prepay the obligation; 
</P>
<P>(G) Where applicable, state or refer to a document stating that the savings association must obtain OCC's prior approval before the acceleration of payment of principal or interest on subordinated debt securities, redemption of subordinated debt securities prior to maturity, repurchase of subordinated debt securities, or exercising a call option in connection with a subordinated debt security; and
</P>
<P>(H) State that the security may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the savings association enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association must include such additional statements as the OCC may prescribe for certificates, purchase agreements, indentures, and other related documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indenture.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, a Federal savings association must use an indenture for subordinated debt securities. If the aggregate amount of subordinated debt securities publicly offered (excluding sales in a non-public offering as defined in 12 CFR 16.7) and sold in any consecutive 12-month or 36-month period exceeds $5,000,000 or $10,000,000 respectively (or such lesser amount that the Securities and Exchange Commission may establish by rule or regulation under 15 U.S.C. 77ddd), the indenture must provide for the appointment of a trustee other than the savings association or an affiliate of the savings association (as defined in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(C) of this section) and for collective enforcement of the security holders' rights and remedies.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association is not required to use an indenture if the subordinated debt securities are sold only to accredited investors, as that term is defined in 15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(15). A savings association must have an indenture that meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section in place before any debt securities for which an exemption from the indenture requirement is claimed, are transferred to any non-accredited investor. If a savings association relies on this exemption from the indenture requirement, it must place a legend on the debt securities indicating that an indenture must be in place before the debt securities are transferred to any non-accredited investor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review by the OCC.</I> (1) In reviewing applications under this section, the OCC will consider whether:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuance of the covered securities is authorized under applicable laws and regulations and is consistent with the savings association's charter and bylaws;
</P>
<P>(ii) The savings association is at least adequately capitalized under 12 CFR 6.4 and meets the regulatory capital requirements at 12 CFR 3.10;
</P>
<P>(iii) The savings association is or will be able to service the covered securities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered securities are consistent with the requirements of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The covered securities and related transactions sufficiently transfer risk from the Deposit Insurance Fund; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The OCC has no objection to the issuance based on the savings association's overall policies, condition, and operations.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC's approval is conditioned upon no material changes to the information disclosed in the application submitted to the OCC. The OCC may impose such additional requirements or conditions as it may deem necessary to protect purchasers, the savings association, the OCC, or the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendments.</I> If a Federal savings association amends the covered securities or related documents following the completion of the OCC's review, it must obtain the OCC's approval under this section before it may include the amended securities in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Sale of covered securities.</I> The Federal savings association must complete the sale of covered securities within one year after the OCC's approval under this section. A savings association may request an extension of the offering period by filing a written request with the OCC. The savings association must demonstrate good cause for the extension and file the request at least 30 days before the expiration of the offering period or any extension of the offering period.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Issuance of a replacement regulatory capital instrument in connection with prepaying a covered security.</I> The OCC may require a Federal savings association seeking prior approval to prepay a covered security included in tier 2 capital to issue a replacement covered security of an equivalent amount that qualifies as tier 1 or tier 2 capital under 12 CFR 3.20. If the OCC imposes such a requirement, the savings association must complete the sale of such covered security prior to, or immediately after, the prepayment.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> A Federal savings association may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) <I>Reports.</I> A Federal savings association must file the following information with the OCC within 30 days after the savings association completes the sale of covered securities includable as tier 2 capital. If the savings association filed its application following the completion of the sale, it must submit this information with its application:
</P>
<P>(1) A written report indicating the number of purchasers, the total dollar amount of securities sold, the net proceeds received by the savings association from the issuance, and the amount of covered securities, net of all expenses, to be included as tier 2 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Three copies of an executed form of the securities and a copy of any related documents governing the issuance or administration of the securities; and
</P>
<P>(3) A certification by the appropriate executive officer indicating that the savings association complied with all applicable laws and regulations in connection with the offering, issuance, and sale of the securities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28464, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80467, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10499, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.58" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.58   Pass-through investments by a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1828, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Federal savings associations are permitted to make various types of equity investments pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464 and other statutes, including pass-through investments authorized under 12 CFR 160.32(a). These investments are in addition to those subject to §§ 5.35, 5.37, 5.38, and 5.59. This section describes the procedure governing the filing of the application or notice that the OCC requires in connection with certain of these investments. The OCC may review other permissible equity investments on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> A Federal savings association must file a notice or application as prescribed in this section to make a pass-through investment authorized under 12 CFR 160.32(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enterprise</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, trust, or similar business entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pass-through investment</I> means an investment authorized under 12 CFR 160.32(a). A <I>pass-through investment</I> does not include a Federal savings association holding interests in a trust formed for the purposes of securitizing assets held by the savings association as part of its business or for the purposes of holding multiple legal titles of motor vehicles or equipment in conjunction with lease financing transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pass-through investments; notice procedure.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f) through (i) of this section, a Federal savings association may make a pass-through investment, directly or through its operating subsidiary, in an enterprise that engages in an activity described in § 5.38(f)(5) or in an activity that is substantively the same as a previously approved activity by filing a written notice. The Federal savings association must file this written notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than 10 days after making the investment. The written notice must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the structure of the investment and the activity or activities conducted by the enterprise in which the Federal savings association is investing. To the extent the notice relates to the initial affiliation of the Federal savings association with a company engaged in insurance activities, the savings association should describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in and has present plans to conduct. The Federal savings association must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the company holds a resident license or charter, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) State:
</P>
<P>(i) Which paragraphs of § 5.38(f)(5) describe the activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the activity is substantively the same as a previously approved activity:
</P>
<P>(A) How, the activity is substantively the same as a previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(B) The citation to the applicable precedent; and
</P>
<P>(C) That the activity will be conducted in accordance with the same terms and conditions applicable to the previously approved activity;
</P>
<P>(3) Certify that the Federal savings association is a covered community savings association or is both well capitalized and well managed at the time of the investment;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe how the Federal savings association has the ability to prevent the enterprise from engaging in an activity that is not set forth in § 5.38(f)(5) or not contained in published OCC (including published former OTS) precedent for previously approved activities, or how the savings association otherwise has the ability to withdraw its investment;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe how the investment is convenient and useful to the Federal savings association in carrying out its business and not a mere passive investment unrelated to the savings association's banking business;
</P>
<P>(6) Certify that the Federal savings association's loss exposure is limited as a legal matter and that the savings association does not have unlimited liability for the obligations of the enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(7) Certify that the enterprise in which the Federal savings association is investing agrees to be subject to OCC supervision and examination, subject to the limitations and requirements of section 45 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831v) and section 115 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1820a).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Pass-through investments; application procedure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A Federal savings association must file an application and obtain prior approval before making or acquiring, either directly or through an operating subsidiary, a pass-through investment in an enterprise if the pass-through investment does not qualify for the notice procedure set forth in paragraph (e) of this section because the savings association is unable to make the representation required by paragraph (e)(2) or the certification required by paragraphs (e)(3) or (e)(7) of this section. The application must include the information required in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section and, if possible, paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(7) of this section. If the Federal savings association is unable to make the representation set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the savings association's application must explain why the activity in which the enterprise engages is a permissible activity for a Federal savings association and why the filer should be permitted to hold a pass-through investment in an enterprise engaged in that activity. A Federal savings association may not make a pass-through investment if it is unable to make the representations and certifications specified in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application submitted by a Federal savings association is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 10th day after the application is received by the OCC if:
</P>
<P>(A) The Federal savings association makes the representation required by paragraph (e)(2) and the certification required by paragraph (e)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The book value of the Federal savings association's pass-through investment for which the application is being submitted is no more than 1% of the savings association's capital and surplus;
</P>
<P>(C) No more than 50% of the enterprise is owned or controlled by banks or savings associations subject to examination by an appropriate Federal banking agency or credit unions insured by the National Credit Union Association; and
</P>
<P>(D) The OCC has not notified the Federal savings association that the application has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review process is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investments requiring a filing under 12 U.S.C. 1828(m).</I> Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, if an enterprise in which a Federal savings association proposes to invest would be a subsidiary of the Federal savings association for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1828(m) and the enterprise would not be an operating subsidiary or a service corporation, the Federal savings association must file an application with the OCC under paragraph (f)(3) of this section at least 30 days prior to making the investment and obtain prior approval from the OCC before making the investment. The application must include the information required in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section and, if possible, paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(3), and (e)(7) of this section. If the Federal savings association is unable to make the representation set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the savings association's application must explain why the activity in which the enterprise engages is a permissible activity for a Federal savings association and why the filer should be permitted to hold a pass-through investment in an enterprise engaged in that activity. A Federal savings association may not make a pass-through investment if it is unable to make the representations and certifications specified in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(4) through (e)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Pass-through investments; no application or notice required.</I> A Federal savings association may make or acquire, either directly or through an operating subsidiary, a pass-through investment in an enterprise, without an application or notice to the OCC, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The activities of the enterprise are limited to those activities previously reported by the savings association in connection with the making or acquiring of a pass-through investment;
</P>
<P>(2) The activities in the enterprise continue to be legally permissible for a Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(3) The savings association's pass-through investment will be made in accordance with any conditions imposed by the OCC or OTS in approving any prior pass-through investment conducting these activities;
</P>
<P>(4) The savings association is able to make the representations and certifications specified in paragraphs (e)(3) through (e)(7) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) The enterprise will not be a subsidiary for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1828(m).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pass-through investments in enterprises holding assets in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</I> Certain pass-through investments may be eligible for expedited treatment where the Federal savings association's investment is in an enterprise holding assets in satisfaction of debts previously contracted or the savings association acquires shares of a company in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice required.</I> A Federal savings association that is a covered community savings association or is both well capitalized and well managed may acquire a pass-through investment, directly or through its operating subsidiary, in an enterprise that engages in the activities of holding and managing assets acquired by the parent savings association through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted, by filing a written notice in accordance with this paragraph (h)(1). The activities of the enterprise must be conducted pursuant to the same terms and conditions as would be applicable if the activity were conducted directly by a Federal savings association. The Federal savings association must file the written notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office no later than 10 days after making the pass-through investment. This notice must include a complete description of the Federal savings association's investment in the enterprise and the activities conducted, a description of how the savings association plans to divest the pass-through investment or the underlying assets within applicable statutory time frames, and a representation and undertaking that the savings association will conduct the activities in accordance with OCC policies contained in guidance issued by the OCC regarding the activities. Any Federal savings association receiving approval under this paragraph (h)(1) is deemed to have agreed that the enterprise will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No notice or application required.</I> A Federal savings association is not required to file a notice or application under this § 5.58 if it acquires a non-controlling investment in shares of a company through foreclosure or otherwise in good faith to compromise a doubtful claim, or in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Additional exception to filing requirement.</I> A Federal savings association may make a pass-through investment without filing a notice or application to the OCC if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investment is in an investment company the portfolio of which consists exclusively of assets that the Federal savings association may hold directly;
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal savings association is not investing more than 10 percent of its total capital (or, in the case of a Federal savings association that is a qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, 10 percent of its tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter) in one company;
</P>
<P>(3) The book value of the Federal savings association's aggregate pass-through investments does not exceed 25 percent of its total capital (or, in the case of a Federal savings association that is a qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, 25 percent of its tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter) after making the investment;
</P>
<P>(4) The investment would not give Federal savings association direct or indirect control of the company; and
</P>
<P>(5) The Federal savings association's liability is limited to the amount of its investment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exceptions to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28466, May 18, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 61794, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69297, Dec. 18, 2019; 85 FR 80468, Dec. 11, 2020; 86 FR 1255, Jan. 8, 2021; 91 FR 10499, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.59" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.4.24.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.59   Service corporations of Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464(c)(4)(B), 1828, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Licensing requirements.</I> When required by section 18(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(m)), a Federal savings association must file an application as prescribed in this section to:
</P>
<P>(1) Acquire or establish a service corporation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Commence a new activity in an existing service corporation subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the OCC's requirements regarding service corporations of Federal savings associations, and sets forth procedures governing OCC review and approval of filings by Federal savings associations to establish or acquire service corporations and filings by Federal savings associations to conduct new activities in existing service corporation subsidiaries, pursuant to the authority provided in section 5(c)(4)(B) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(4)(B).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Control</I> has the meaning set forth at 12 U.S.C. 1841 and the Federal Reserve Board's regulations thereunder, at 12 CFR part 225.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>GAAP-consolidated subsidiary</I> means a service corporation in which a Federal savings association has a direct or indirect ownership interest and whose assets are consolidated with those of the savings association for purposes of reporting under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ownership interest</I> means any equity interest in a business organization, including stock, limited or general partnership interests, or shares in a limited liability company.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Service corporation</I> means any entity that satisfies all of the requirements for service corporations in 12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(4)(B) and this part, and that is designated by the investing Federal savings association as a service corporation pursuant to this section. A service corporation may be a first-tier service corporation of a Federal savings association or may be a lower-tier service corporation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Service corporation subsidiary</I> means a service corporation of a Federal savings association that is controlled by that savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standards and requirements</I>—(1) <I>Ownership.</I> Only Federal or State-chartered savings associations with home offices in the State where the relevant Federal savings association has its home office may have an ownership interest in a first-tier service corporation. A Federal savings association need not have any minimum percentage ownership interest or have control of a service corporation in order to designate an entity as a service corporation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic restrictions.</I> A first-tier service corporation must be organized under the laws of the State where the relevant Federal savings association's home office is located.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authorized activities.</I> A service corporation may engage in any of the designated permissible service corporation activities listed in paragraph (f) of this section, subject to any applicable filing requirement under paragraph (h) of this section. In addition, a Federal savings association may request OCC approval for a service corporation to engage in any other activity reasonably related to the activities of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investment limitations.</I> A Federal savings association's investment in service corporations is subject to the limitations set forth in paragraph (g) of this section. The assets of a Federal savings association's service corporations are not subject to the investment limitations applicable to the savings association under section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(c).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Form of organization.</I> A service corporation may be organized as a corporation, or may be organized in any other organizational form that provides the same protections as the corporate form of organization, including limited liability.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Qualified thrift lender test.</I> In accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m)(5), a Federal savings association may determine whether to consolidate the assets of a particular service corporation for purposes of calculating qualified thrift investments. If a service corporation's assets are not consolidated with the assets of the Federal savings association for that purpose, the savings association's investment in the service corporation will be considered in calculating the savings association's qualified thrift investments.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Supervisory, legal or safety or soundness considerations.</I> (i) Each service corporation must be well managed and operate safely and soundly. In addition, each service corporation must pursue financial policies that are safe and consistent with the purposes of savings associations. Each service corporation must maintain sufficient liquidity to ensure its safe and sound operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may, at any time, limit a Federal savings association's investment in a service corporation, or limit or refuse to permit any activity of a service corporation, for supervisory, legal, or safety or soundness reasons.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Separate corporate identity.</I> Federal savings associations and service corporations thereof must be operated in a manner that demonstrates to the public that each maintains a separate corporate existence. Each must operate so that:
</P>
<P>(i) Their respective business transactions, accounts, and records are not intermingled;
</P>
<P>(ii) Each observes the formalities of their separate corporate procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Each is held out to the public as a separate enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Unless the parent Federal savings association has guaranteed a loan to the service corporation, all borrowings by the service corporation indicate that the savings association is not liable.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Issuances of securities by service corporations.</I> A service corporation must not state or imply that the securities it issues are covered by Federal deposit insurance. A service corporation subsidiary must not issue any security the payment, maturity, or redemption of which may be accelerated upon the condition that the controlling Federal savings association is insolvent or has been placed into receivership. For as long as any securities are outstanding, the controlling Federal savings association must maintain all records generated through each securities issuance in the ordinary course of business, including but not limited to a copy of the prospectus, offering circular, or similar document concerning such issuance, and make such records available for examination by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Certain pre-existing non-controlling investments.</I> A Federal savings association that made a non-controlling investment in a service corporation before May 18, 2015, but did not submit a filing under 12 U.S.C. 1828(m) with respect to such service corporation investment, is not required to file a service corporation application with respect to such investment pursuant to paragraph (b), provided that the Federal savings association does not acquire additional stock or similar interests in the service corporation, and the service corporation does not engage in any activities in which it was not engaged as of May 18, 2015.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authorized service corporation activities.</I> Subject to the prior filing requirements set forth in paragraph (h) of this section and the provisions of paragraph (e)(3) of this section, a service corporation may engage in the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Any activity that all Federal savings associations may conduct directly.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business and professional services.</I> Service corporations may engage in the following activities only when such activities are limited to financial documents or financial clients or are generally finance-related:
</P>
<P>(i) Accounting or internal audit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Advertising, market research and other marketing;
</P>
<P>(iii) Clerical;
</P>
<P>(iv) Consulting;
</P>
<P>(v) Courier;
</P>
<P>(vi) Data processing;
</P>
<P>(vii) Data storage facilities operation and related services;
</P>
<P>(viii) Office supplies, furniture, and equipment purchasing and distribution;
</P>
<P>(ix) Personnel benefit program development or administration;
</P>
<P>(x) Printing and selling forms that require Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) encoding;
</P>
<P>(xi) Relocation of personnel;
</P>
<P>(xii) Research studies and surveys;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Software development and systems integration; and
</P>
<P>(xiv) Remote service unit operation, leasing, ownership or establishment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit-related activities.</I> (i) Abstracting;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquiring and leasing personal property;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appraising;
</P>
<P>(iv) Collection agency;
</P>
<P>(v) Credit analysis;
</P>
<P>(vi) Check or credit card guaranty and verification;
</P>
<P>(vii) Escrow agent or trustee (under deeds of trust, including executing and delivery of conveyances, reconveyances and transfers of title); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Loan inspection.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consumer services.</I> (i) Financial advice or consulting;
</P>
<P>(ii) Foreign currency exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) Home ownership counseling;
</P>
<P>(iv) Income tax return preparation;
</P>
<P>(v) Postal services;
</P>
<P>(vi) Stored value instrument sales;
</P>
<P>(vii) Welfare benefit distribution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Check printing and related services; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Remote service unit operation, leasing, ownership, or establishment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Real estate related services.</I> (i) Acquiring real estate for prompt development or subdivision, for construction of improvements, for resale or leasing to others for such construction, or for use as manufactured home sites, in accordance with a prudent program of property development;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquiring improved real estate or manufactured homes to be held for rental or resale, for remodeling, renovating or demolishing and rebuilding for resale or rental, or to be used for offices and related facilities of a stockholder of the service corporation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintaining and managing real estate; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Real estate brokerage for property owned by a savings association that owns capital stock of the service corporation, or a lower-tier service corporation in which the service corporation invests.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Securities activities, liquidity management, and coins.</I> (i) Execution of transactions in securities on an agency or riskless principal basis solely upon the order and for the account of customers or the provision of investment advice. The service corporation must register with the Securities and Exchange Commission and State securities regulators, as required by applicable Federal and State law and regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquidity management;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issuing notes, bonds, debentures, or other obligations or securities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Purchase or sale of coins issued by the U.S. Treasury.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Investments.</I> (i) Tax-exempt bonds used to finance residential real property for family units;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tax-exempt obligations of public housing agencies used to finance housing projects with rental assistance subsidies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small business investment companies and new markets venture capital companies licensed by the U.S. Small Business Administration;
</P>
<P>(iv) Rural business investment companies licensed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture; and
</P>
<P>(v) Investing in savings accounts of an investing thrift.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Community development investments.</I> Community and economic development or public welfare investments that are permissible under part 24 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Charitable activities.</I> Establishing or acquiring a corporation that is recognized by the Internal Revenue Service as organized for charitable purposes under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and making a reasonable contribution to capitalize it, <I>provided</I> that the corporation engages exclusively in activities designed to promote the well-being of communities in which the owners of the service corporation operate.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Activities conducted as agent.</I> Activities conducted on behalf of a customer on other than an “as principal” basis.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Incidental activities.</I> Activities reasonably incident to those listed in paragraphs (f)(1) through (f)(10) of this section if the service corporation engages in those activities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Limitations on investments in service corporations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Under the authority of section 5(c)(4)(B) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(4)(B)), a Federal savings association may invest up to 3 percent of its assets in the capital stock, obligations, and other securities of service corporations. Any investment that would cause a Federal savings association's investment in service corporations, in the aggregate, to exceed 2 percent of assets, or made while the savings association's investments in service corporations exceeds 2 percent of assets, must serve primarily community, inner city, or community and economic development or public welfare purposes consistent with 12 CFR part 24. A Federal savings association must designate the investments serving those purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans.</I> In addition to the amounts that a Federal savings association may invest under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to the extent that a Federal savings association has authority under other provisions of section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)), this part 5, and 12 CFR part 160, and available capacity within any applicable investment limits, a Federal savings association may make loans to any service corporation subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Loans to service corporations other than a GAAP-consolidated subsidiary are subject to the lending limits in part 32 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may limit the amount of loans to any service corporation where safety and soundness considerations warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), the terms “loans” and “obligations” include all loans and other debt instruments (except accounts payable incurred in the ordinary course of business and paid within 60 days) and all guarantees or take-out commitments of such loans or debt instruments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>GAAP-consolidated subsidiaries.</I> Both debt and equity investments in service corporations that are GAAP-consolidated subsidiaries are considered investments in subsidiaries for purposes of 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Filing requirements</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> (i) When required by section 18(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(m)), a Federal savings association must file an application at least 30 days before:
</P>
<P>(A) Acquiring or establishing a service corporation; or
</P>
<P>(B) Commencing a new activity in an existing service corporation subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) The application must include a complete description of the savings association's investment in the service corporation, the proposed activities of the service corporation, the organizational structure and management of the service corporation, the relations between the savings association and the service corporation, and other information necessary to adequately describe the proposal. If the service corporation proposes to engage in insurance activities, the savings association must describe the type of insurance activity in which the service corporation proposes to engage. The savings association must also list for each State the lines of business for which the company holds, or will hold, an insurance license, indicating the State where the service corporation holds a resident license or charter, as applicable. The OCC may require a filer to submit a legal analysis if the proposal is novel, unusually complex, or raises substantial unresolved legal issues. In these cases, the OCC encourages filers to have a prefiling meeting with the OCC. Any savings association receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the service corporation will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review.</I> (i) An application to establish or acquire a service corporation, or to perform a new activity in an existing service corporation subsidiary, that meets the requirements of this paragraph is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the filing is received by the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the filer prior to that date that the filing has been removed from expedited review, or the expedited review period is extended, under § 5.13(a)(2). Any savings association receiving approval under this paragraph is deemed to have agreed that the service corporation will conduct the activity in a manner consistent with published OCC guidance.
</P>
<P>(ii) An application is eligible for expedited review if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The savings association is a covered community savings association or is both well capitalized and well managed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The service corporation engages only in one or more of the preapproved activities listed in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>OCC review and approval.</I> The OCC reviews a Federal savings association's application to determine whether the proposal is legally permissible and to ensure that the proposal is consistent with the requirements of this section, safe and sound banking practices and OCC policy and does not endanger the safety or soundness of the parent Federal savings association. As part of this process, the OCC may request additional information and analysis from the filer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Redesignation.</I> A Federal savings association that proposes to redesignate an operating subsidiary as a service corporation must submit a notification to the OCC at least 30 days prior to the redesignation date. The notification must include a description of how the redesignated entity will meet all of the requirements of this section, a resolution of the savings association's board of directors approving the redesignation, and the proposed effective date of the redesignation. The savings association may effect the redesignation on the proposed date unless the OCC notifies the savings association otherwise prior to that date. The OCC may require an application if the redesignation presents policy, supervisory, or legal issues.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exception to rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10 and 5.11 do not apply to this section. However, if the OCC concludes that an application presents significant or novel policy, supervisory, or legal issues, the OCC may determine that some or all provisions in §§ 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 apply.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exercise of salvage powers through service corporations.</I> (1) In accordance with this section, a Federal savings association may exercise its salvage power to make a contribution or a loan (including a guarantee of a loan made by any other person) to a service corporation (“salvage investment”) that exceeds the maximum amount otherwise permitted under law or regulation. A Federal savings association must notify the appropriate supervisory office at least 30 days before making such a salvage investment. The notification must demonstrate:
</P>
<P>(i) The salvage investment protects the savings association's interest in the service corporation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The salvage investment is consistent with safety and soundness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The savings association considered alternatives to the salvage investment and determined that such alternatives would not adequately satisfy paragraphs (i)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC notifies the Federal savings association within 30 days of the filing of the notification that the notification presents supervisory concerns, or raises significant issues of law or policy, the Federal savings association must apply for and receive the OCC's prior written approval before making the salvage investment.
</P>
<P>(3) If a service corporation is a GAAP-consolidated subsidiary, the salvage investment will be considered an investment in a subsidiary for purposes of 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Failure to comply with the requirements applicable to service corporations.</I> If a service corporation fails to meet any of the requirements of this section, the Federal savings association must notify the appropriate OCC licensing office. Unless the Federal savings association is otherwise advised by the OCC, if the service corporation cannot comply with the requirements of this section within 90 days of failing to meet such requirements, or otherwise resolve such failure to comply with this section, the Federal savings association must promptly dispose of its investment in the service corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28467, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 80469, Dec. 11, 2020; 91 FR 10499, Mar. 4, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Payment of Dividends by National Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.60   Authority, scope, and exceptions to rules of general applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 56, 60, and 93a. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Except as otherwise provided, the restrictions in this subpart apply to the declaration and payment of all dividends by a national bank, including dividends paid in property. However, the provisions contained in § 5.64 do not apply to dividends paid in stock of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to the rules of general applicability.</I> Sections 5.8, 5.10, and 5.11 do not apply to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.61" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.61   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of subpart E, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Capital stock, capital surplus,</I> and <I>permanent capital</I> have the same meaning as set forth in § 5.46. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retained net income</I> means the net income of a specified period less the total amount of all dividends declared in that period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.62" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.62   Date of declaration of dividend.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank must use the date a dividend is declared for the purposes of determining compliance with this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 60363, Nov. 27, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 80469, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.63" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.63   Capital limitation under 12 U.S.C. 56.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General limitation.</I> Except as provided by 12 U.S.C. 59 and § 5.46, a national bank may not withdraw, or permit to be withdrawn, either in the form of a dividend or otherwise, any portion of its permanent capital. Further, a national bank may not declare a dividend in excess of undivided profits. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preferred stock.</I> The provisions of 12 U.S.C. 56 do not apply to dividends on preferred stock. However, if the undivided profits of the national bank are not sufficient to cover a proposed dividend on preferred stock, the proposed dividend constitutes a reduction in capital subject to 12 U.S.C. 59 and § 5.46. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.64" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.64   Earnings limitation under 12 U.S.C. 60.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section, the term “current year” means the calendar year in which a national bank declared, or proposes to declare, a dividend. The term “current year minus one” means the year immediately preceding the current year. The term “current year minus two” means the year that is two years prior to the current year. The term “current year minus three” means the year that is three years prior to the current year. The term “current year minus four” means the year that is four years prior to the current year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dividends from undivided profits.</I> Subject to 12 U.S.C. 56 and this subpart, the directors of a national bank may declare and pay dividends of so much of the undivided profits as they judge to be expedient.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Earnings limitations under 12 U.S.C. 60</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 60, unless approved by the OCC in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a national bank may not declare a dividend if the total amount of all dividends (common and preferred), including the proposed dividend, declared by the national bank in any current year exceeds the total of the national bank's net income for the current year to date, combined with its retained net income of current year minus one and current year minus two, less the sum of any transfers required by the OCC and any transfers required to be made to a fund for the retirement of any preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excess dividends in prior periods.</I> (i) If in current year minus one or current year minus two the bank declared dividends in excess of that year's net income, the excess does not reduce retained net income for the three-year period specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provided that the amount of excess dividends can be offset by retained net income in current year minus three or current year minus four. If the bank declared dividends in excess of net income in current year minus one, the excess is offset by retained net income in current year minus three and then by retained net income in current year minus two. If the bank declared dividends in excess of net income in current year minus two, the excess is first offset by retained net income in current year minus four and then by retained net income in current year minus three.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank's retained net income in current year minus three and current year minus four was insufficient to offset the full amount of the excess dividends declared, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, then the amount that is not offset will reduce the retained net income available to pay dividends in the current year.
</P>
<P>(iii) The calculation in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section applies only to retained net loss that results from dividends declared in excess of a single year's net income and does not apply to other types of current earnings deficits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prior approval required.</I> A national bank may declare a dividend in excess of the amount described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, provided that the dividend is approved by the OCC. A national bank must submit a request for prior approval of a dividend under 12 U.S.C. 60 to the appropriate OCC supervisory office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22241, Apr. 24, 2008, as amended at 80 FR 28470, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 80469, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.65" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.65   Restrictions on undercapitalized institutions.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision in this subpart, a national bank may not declare or pay any dividend if, after making the dividend, the national bank would be “undercapitalized” as defined in 12 CFR part 6. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.66" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.66   Dividends payable in property other than cash.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to cash dividends, directors of a national bank may declare dividends payable in property, with the approval of the OCC. A national bank must submit a request for prior approval of a noncash dividend to the appropriate OCC licensing office. The dividend is equivalent to a cash dividend in an amount equal to the actual current value of the property, regardless of whether the book value is higher or lower under GAAP. Before the dividend is declared, the bank should show the difference between actual value and book value on the books of the national bank as a gain or loss, as applicable, and the dividend should then be declared in the amount of the actual current value of the property being distributed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 80469, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.67" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.5.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.67   Fractional shares.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank issuing additional stock may adopt arrangements to preclude the issuance of fractional shares. The bank may remit the cash equivalent of the fraction not being issued to those to whom fractional shares would otherwise be issued. The cash equivalent is based on the market value of the stock, if there is an established and active market in the national bank's stock. In the absence of such a market, the cash equivalent is based on a reliable and disinterested determination as to the fair market value of the stock if such stock is available. The bank may propose an alternate method in the application for the stock issuance filed with the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 80470, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Federal Branches and Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 5.70" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.5.6.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 5.70   Federal branches and agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a and 3101 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart describes the filing requirements for corporate activities and transactions involving Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks. Substantive rules and policies for specific applications are contained in 12 CFR part 28. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(1) To <I>establish</I> a Federal branch or agency means to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Open and conduct business through an initial or additional Federal branch or agency; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquire directly, through merger, consolidation, or similar transaction with another foreign bank, the operations of a Federal branch or agency that is open and conducting business; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Acquire a Federal branch or agency through the acquisition of a foreign bank subsidiary that will cease to operate in the same corporate form following the acquisition; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Convert a State branch or State agency operated by a foreign bank, or a commercial lending company controlled by a foreign bank, into a Federal branch or agency; 
</P>
<P>(v) Relocate a Federal branch or agency within a State or from one State to another; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Convert a Federal agency or a limited Federal branch into a Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal branch</I> includes a limited Federal branch unless otherwise provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise provided in 12 CFR part 28, a Federal branch or agency must comply with the applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applications.</I> A foreign bank must submit an application and obtain prior approval from the OCC before it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establishes a Federal branch or agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Exercises fiduciary powers at a Federal branch. A foreign bank may submit an application to exercise fiduciary powers at the time of filing an application for a Federal branch license or at any subsequent date. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Biographical and Financial Reports.</I> The OCC may require any senior executive officer of a Federal branch or agency submitting a filing to submit an Interagency Biographical and Financial Report, available at <I>www.occ.gov,</I> and legible fingerprints.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 60363, Nov. 27, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70698, Dec. 19, 2003; 85 FR 80470, Dec. 11, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 6—PROMPT CORRECTIVE ACTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 1831o, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Capital Categories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.1   Authority, purpose, scope, other supervisory authority, disclosure of capital categories, and transition procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) pursuant to section 38 (section 38) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized. The principal purpose of this subpart is to define, for insured national banks and insured Federal savings associations, the capital measures and capital levels, and for insured Federal branches, comparable asset-based measures and levels, that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. This part 6 also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart implements the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act as they apply to insured national banks, insured Federal branches, and insured Federal savings associations. Certain of these provisions also apply to officers, directors, and employees of these insured institutions. Other provisions apply to any company that controls an insured national bank, insured Federal branch, or insured Federal savings association and to the affiliates of an insured national bank, insured Federal branch, or insured Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other supervisory authority.</I> Neither section 38 nor this part in any way limits the authority of the OCC under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices, deficient capital levels, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this part may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the OCC, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure of capital categories.</I> The assignment of an insured national bank, insured Federal branch, or insured Federal savings association under this subpart within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38. Unless permitted by the OCC or otherwise required by law, no national bank or Federal savings association may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart or that the OCC or any other Federal banking agency has assigned the national bank or Federal savings association to a particular capital category.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transition procedures.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> On January 1, 2015 and thereafter, the calculation of the definitions of common equity tier 1 capital, the common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, the leverage ratio, the supplementary leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, total assets, total leverage exposure, the total risk-based capital ratio, and total risk-weighted assets under this subpart is subject to the timing provisions at 12 CFR § 3.1(f) and the transitions at 12 CFR part 3, subpart G.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 56374, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, except as modified in this section or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in section 38 and section 3 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches national bank or advanced approaches Federal savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to subpart E of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> means common equity tier 1 capital, as defined in accordance with the OCC's definition in subpart A of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> (1) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning assigned to it in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841), and the term controlled shall be construed consistently with the term control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusion for fiduciary ownership.</I> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity. Shares shall not be deemed to have been acquired in a fiduciary capacity if the acquiring insured depository institution or company has sole discretionary authority to exercise voting rights with respect thereto.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion for debts previously contracted.</I> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, until two years after the date of acquisition. The two-year period may be extended at the discretion of the appropriate Federal banking agency for up to three one-year periods.
</P>
<P><I>Controlling person</I> means any person having control of an insured depository institution and any company controlled by that person.
</P>
<P><I>Federal savings association</I> means an insured Federal savings association or an insured Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933.
</P>
<P><I>Leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Management fee</I> means any payment of money or provision of any other thing of value to a company or individual for the provision of management services or advice to the national bank or Federal savings association or related overhead expenses, including payments related to supervisory, executive, managerial, or policymaking functions, other than compensation to an individual in the individual's capacity as an officer or employee of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P><I>National bank</I> means all insured national banks and all insured Federal branches, except where otherwise provided in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Supplementary leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Tangible equity</I> means the amount of tier 1 capital, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the amount of tier 1 capital as defined in subpart B of part 3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> means quarterly average total assets as reported in a national bank's or Federal savings association's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report), minus any deductions as provided in § 3.22(a), (c), and (d) of this chapter. The OCC reserves the right to require a national bank or Federal savings association to compute and maintain its capital ratios on the basis of actual, rather than average, total assets when computing tangible equity.
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> means the total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Total risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of total capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with subpart B of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Total risk-weighted assets</I> means standardized total risk-weighted assets, and for an advanced approaches national bank or advanced approaches Federal savings association also includes advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, as defined in subpart B of part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 56374, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.3   Notice of capital category.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date of determination of capital category.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this part as of the date the national bank or Federal savings association is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of capital category.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall be deemed to have been notified of its capital levels and its capital category as of the most recent date:
</P>
<P>(1) A Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report) is required to be filed with the OCC;
</P>
<P>(2) A final report of examination is delivered to the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice is provided by the OCC to the national bank or Federal savings association of its capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this part or that the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital category has changed pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, or § 6.4(e) and subpart M of part 19 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments to reported capital levels and capital category</I>—(1) <I>Notice of adjustment by national bank or Federal savings association.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall provide the OCC with written notice that an adjustment to the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital category may have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event has occurred that would cause the national bank or Federal savings association to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the national bank or Federal savings association for purposes of section 38 and this part on the basis of the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent Call Report or report of examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination to change capital category.</I> After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the OCC shall determine whether to change the capital category of the national bank or Federal savings association and shall notify the national bank or Federal savings association of the OCC's determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.4   Capital measures and capital categories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital measures.</I> (1) For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this part, the relevant capital measures shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the total risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches national bank or Federal Savings association, or a Category III OCC-regulated institution, the supplementary leverage ratio; and






</P>
<P>(2) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 3.12 of this chapter), that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 3.12 of this chapter), the leverage ratio calculated in accordance with § 3.12(b) of this chapter is used to determine the well capitalized capital category under paragraph (b)(1)(i) (A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital categories.</I> For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this part, a national bank or Federal savings association shall be deemed to be:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Well capitalized if:
</P>
<P>(A) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The national bank or Federal savings association has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(B) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The national bank or Federal savings association has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(C) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The national bank or Federal savings association has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.5 percent or greater;


</P>
<P>(D) Leverage Measure: The national bank or Federal savings association has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and






</P>
<P>(E) The national bank or Federal savings association is not subject to any written agreement, order or capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the OCC pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907), the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(t)(6)(A)(ii)), or section 38 of the FDI Act, or any regulation thereunder, to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifying community banking organization: A qualifying community banking organization, as defined under § 3.12 of this chapter, that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under § 3.12 of this chapter, shall be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category in paragraph (b)(1)(i) (A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adequately capitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.5 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association has a leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches or Category III national bank or advanced approaches or Category III Federal savings association, the national bank or Federal savings association has a supplementary leverage ratio of 3.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(v) The national bank or Federal savings association does not meet the definition of a “well capitalized” national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Undercapitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 8.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.5 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The national bank or Federal savings association has a leverage ratio of less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches or Category III national bank or advanced approaches or Category III Federal savings association, on January 1, 2018, and thereafter, the national bank or Federal savings association has a supplementary leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Significantly undercapitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the national bank or Federal savings association has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 3.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Ratio: the national bank or Federal savings association has a leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Critically undercapitalized</I> if the national bank or Federal savings association has a ratio of tangible equity to total assets that is equal to or less than 2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital categories for insured Federal branches.</I> For purposes of the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act and this part, an insured Federal branch shall be deemed to be:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well capitalized</I> if the insured Federal branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets required under 12 CFR 347.209; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.210 at 108 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not received written notification from:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC to increase its capital equivalency deposit pursuant to § 28.15 of this chapter, or to comply with asset maintenance requirements pursuant to § 28.20 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC to pledge additional assets pursuant to 12 CFR 347.209 or to maintain a higher ratio of eligible assets pursuant to 12 CFR 347.210.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adequately capitalized</I> if the insured Federal branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.209;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.210 at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not meet the definition of a well capitalized insured Federal branch.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Undercapitalized</I> if the insured Federal branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to maintain the pledge of assets required under 12 CFR 347.209; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.210 at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Significantly undercapitalized</I> if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.210 at 104 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured Federal branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Critically undercapitalized</I> if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under 12 CFR 347.210 at 102 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured Federal branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than capital.</I> The OCC may reclassify a well capitalized national bank or Federal savings association as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately capitalized or an undercapitalized national bank or Federal savings association to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the national bank or Federal savings association were in the next lower capital category (except that the OCC may not reclassify a significantly undercapitalized national bank or Federal savings association as critically undercapitalized) (each of these actions are hereinafter referred to generally as reclassifications) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> The OCC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to subpart M of part 19 of this chapter, that the national bank or Federal savings association is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> The OCC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to subpart M of part 19 of this chapter, that in the most recent examination of the national bank or Federal savings association, the national bank or Federal savings association received, and has not corrected a less-than-satisfactory rating for any of the categories of asset quality, management, earnings, or liquidity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 24539, May 1, 2014; 84 FR 61794, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 10968, Feb. 26, 2020; 85 FR 32989, June 1, 2020; 88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023; 90 FR 55288, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.5   Capital restoration plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall file a written capital restoration plan with the OCC within 45 days of the date that the national bank or Federal savings association receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the national bank or Federal savings association is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized national bank or Federal savings association that has been required, pursuant to § 6.4 and subpart M of part 19 of this chapter to comply with supervisory actions as if the national bank or Federal savings association were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional capital restoration plans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under section 38 and this subpart is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution pursuant to § 6.4 and subpart M of part 19 of this chapter unless the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. A national bank or Federal savings association that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan shall file the plan in writing with the OCC within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that the plan must be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan shall be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the Call Report, unless the OCC instructs otherwise. The capital restoration plan shall include all of the information required to be filed under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act. A national bank or Federal savings association that is required to submit a capital restoration plan as the result of a reclassification of the national bank or Federal savings association, pursuant to § 6.4 and subpart M of part 19 of this chapter shall include a description of the steps the national bank or Federal savings association will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. No plan shall be accepted unless it includes any performance guarantee described in section 38(e)(2)(C) of that Act by each company that controls the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of capital restoration plans.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this subpart, the OCC shall provide written notice to the national bank or Federal savings association of whether the plan has been approved. The OCC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disapproval of capital restoration plan.</I> If a capital restoration plan is not approved by the OCC, the national bank or Federal savings association shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the OCC. Upon receiving notice that its capital restoration plan has not been approved, any undercapitalized national bank or Federal savings association (as defined in § 6.4) shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this part applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions. These provisions shall be applicable until such time as a new or revised capital restoration plan submitted by the national bank or Federal savings association has been approved by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to submit a capital restoration plan.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is undercapitalized (as defined in § 6.4) and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section shall, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this part applicable to significantly undercapitalized national banks or Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to implement a capital restoration plan.</I> Any undercapitalized national bank or Federal savings association that fails, in any material respect, to implement a capital restoration plan shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this part applicable to significantly undercapitalized national banks or Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Amendment of capital restoration plan.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that has submitted an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the OCC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the national bank or Federal savings association shall implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice to FDIC.</I> Within 45 days of the effective date of OCC approval of a capital restoration plan, or any amendment to a capital restoration plan, the OCC shall provide a copy of the plan or amendment to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Performance guarantee by companies that control a national bank or Federal savings association</I>—(1) <I>Limitation on liability</I>—(i) <I>Amount limitation.</I> The aggregate liability under the guarantee provided under section 38 and this subpart for all companies that control a specific national bank or Federal savings association that is required to submit a capital restoration plan under this subpart shall be limited to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to 5.0 percent of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total assets at the time the national bank or Federal savings association was notified or deemed to have notice that the national bank or Federal savings association was undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(B) The amount necessary to restore the relevant capital measures of the national bank or Federal savings association to the levels required for the national bank or Federal savings association to be classified as adequately capitalized, as those capital measures and levels are defined at the time that the national bank or Federal savings association initially fails to comply with a capital restoration plan under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limit on duration.</I> The guarantee and limit of liability under section 38 and this subpart shall expire after the OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association that it has remained adequately capitalized for each of four consecutive calendar quarters. The expiration or fulfillment by a company of a guarantee of a capital restoration plan shall not limit the liability of the company under any guarantee required or provided in connection with any capital restoration plan filed by the same national bank or Federal savings association after expiration of the first guarantee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Collection on guarantee.</I> Each company that controls a given national bank or Federal savings association shall be jointly and severally liable for the guarantee for such national bank or Federal savings association as required under section 38 and this subpart, and the OCC may require payment of the full amount of that guarantee from any or all of the companies issuing the guarantee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to provide guarantee.</I> In the event that a national bank or Federal savings association that is controlled by any company submits a capital restoration plan that does not contain the guarantee required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act, the national bank or Federal savings association shall, upon submission of the plan, be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this part that are applicable to national banks or Federal savings associations that have not submitted an acceptable capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to perform guarantee.</I> Failure by any company that controls a national bank or Federal savings association to perform fully its guarantee of any capital plan shall constitute a material failure to implement the plan for purposes of section 38(f) of the FDI Act. Upon such failure, the national bank or Federal savings association shall be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this part that are applicable to national banks or Federal savings associations that have failed in a material respect to implement a capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Enforcement of capital restoration plan.</I> The failure of a national bank or Federal savings association to implement, in any material respect, a capital restoration plan required under section 38 and this section shall subject the national bank or Federal savings association to the assessment of civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.1.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.6   Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions</I>—(1) <I>Provisions applicable to all national banks and Federal savings associations.</I> All national banks and Federal savings associations are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of distributions and management fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized national banks or Federal savings associations.</I> Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 6.3, that the national bank or Federal savings association is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, the national bank or Federal savings association shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Restricting payment of distributions and management fees (section 38(d));
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring that the OCC monitor the condition of the national bank or Federal savings association (section 38(e)(1));
</P>
<P>(iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2));
</P>
<P>(iv) Restricting the growth of the national bank's or Federal savings association's assets (section 38(e)(3)); and
</P>
<P>(v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 38(e)(4)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized national banks or Federal savings associations.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in this subpart, that the national bank or Federal savings association is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the national bank or Federal savings association is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because it has failed to submit or implement, in any material respect, an acceptable capital restoration plan, the national bank or Federal savings association shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized national banks or Federal savings associations.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 6.3, that the national bank or Federal savings association is critically undercapitalized, the national bank or Federal savings association shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Restricting the activities of the national bank or Federal savings association (section 38 (h)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Restricting payments on subordinated debt of the national bank or Federal savings association (section 38 (h)(2)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions.</I> In taking any action under section 38 that is within the OCC's discretion to take in connection with a national bank or Federal savings association that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized; an officer or director of such national bank or Federal savings association; or a company that controls such national bank or Federal savings association, the OCC shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under subpart B of this part and subpart N of part 19 of this chapter, unless otherwise provided in section 38 of the FDI Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 62275, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Directives To Take Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.20   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to insured national banks, insured Federal branches, Federal savings associations, and senior executive officers and directors of national banks and Federal savings associations that are subject to the provisions of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 38) and subpart A of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.21   Notice of intent to issue a directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue a directive</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The OCC shall provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized national bank or Federal savings association prior written notice of the OCC's intention to issue a directive requiring such national bank, Federal savings association, or company to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the OCC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). The national bank or Federal savings association shall have such time to respond to a proposed directive as provided under § 6.22.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final directive.</I> If the OCC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act, the OCC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue a directive requiring a national bank or Federal savings association immediately to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the OCC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). A national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to such an immediately effective directive may submit a written appeal of the directive to the OCC. Such an appeal must be received by the OCC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the directive, unless the OCC permits a longer period. The OCC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the directive shall remain in effect unless the OCC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the directive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to issue a directive shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the national bank's or Federal savings association's capital measures and capital levels;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions or affirmative actions that the OCC proposes to impose or require;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of such affirmative actions; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the national bank or Federal savings association subject to the directive may file with the OCC a written response to the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.22   Response to notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time for response.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue a directive within the time period set by the OCC. The date shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the OCC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the national bank or Federal savings association or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation why the action proposed by the OCC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 38;
</P>
<P>(2) Any recommended modification of the proposed directive; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the national bank or Federal savings association regarding the proposed directive.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a national bank or Federal savings association to file with the OCC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed directive shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the directive.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.23   Decision and issuance of a prompt corrective action directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>OCC consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the OCC may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and so notify the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the national bank or Federal savings association, or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.24   Request for modification or rescission of directive.</HEAD>
<P>Any national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to a directive under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the OCC reconsider the terms of the directive, and may propose that the directive be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the directive shall continue in place while such request is pending before the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 6.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.6.2.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 6.25   Enforcement of directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a national bank or Federal savings association fails to comply with a directive issued under section 38, the OCC may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative remedies.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the OCC may assess a civil money penalty against any national bank or Federal savings association that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under section 38 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the OCC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 38 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 7—ACTIVITIES AND OPERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 25b, 29, 71, 71a, 92, 92a, 93, 93a, 95(b)(1), 371, 371d, 481, 484, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1465, 1818, 1828, 3102(b), and 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—National Bank and Federal Savings Association Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1000" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1000   Activities that are part of, or incidental to, the business of banking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section identifies the criteria that the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) uses to determine whether an activity is authorized as part of, or incidental to, the business of banking under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) or other statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions and conditions on activities.</I> The OCC may determine that activities are permissible under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) or other statutory authority only if they are subject to standards or conditions designed to provide that the activities function as intended and are conducted safely and soundly, in accordance with other applicable statutes, regulations, or supervisory policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Activities that are part of the business of banking.</I> (1) An activity is permissible for national banks as part of the business of banking if the activity is authorized under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) or other statutory authority. In determining whether an activity that is not specifically included in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) or other statutory authority is part of the business of banking, the OCC considers the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the activity is the functional equivalent to, or a logical outgrowth of, a recognized banking activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the activity strengthens the bank by benefiting its customers or its business;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the activity involves risks similar in nature to those already assumed by banks; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the activity is authorized for State-chartered banks.
</P>
<P>(2) The weight accorded each factor set out in paragraph (c)(1) of this section depends on the facts and circumstances of each case.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Activities that are incidental to the business of banking.</I> (1) An activity is authorized for a national bank as incidental to the business of banking if it is convenient or useful to an activity that is specifically authorized for national banks or to an activity that is otherwise part of the business of banking. In determining whether an activity is convenient or useful to such activities, the OCC considers the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the activity facilitates the production or delivery of a bank's products or services, enhances the bank's ability to sell or market its products or services, or improves the effectiveness or efficiency of the bank's operations, in light of risks presented, innovations, strategies, techniques and new technologies for producing and delivering financial products and services; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the activity enables the bank to use capacity acquired for its banking operations or otherwise avoid economic loss or waste.
</P>
<P>(2) The weight accorded each factor set out in paragraph (d)(1) of this section depends on the facts and circumstances of each case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83726, Dec. 22, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1001" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1001   National bank acting as general insurance agent.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 92, a national bank may act as an agent for any fire, life, or other insurance company in any place the population of which does not exceed 5,000 inhabitants. This section is applicable to any office of a national bank when the office is located in a community having a population of less than 5,000, even though the principal office of such bank is located in a community whose population exceeds 5,000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 35374, June 10, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1002" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1002   National bank and Federal savings association acting as finder.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A finder may identify potential parties, make inquiries as to interest, introduce or arrange contacts or meetings of interested parties, act as an intermediary between interested parties, and otherwise bring parties together for a transaction that the parties themselves negotiate and consummate. It is part of the business of banking under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) for a national bank to act as a finder. A Federal savings association may act as a finder to the extent those activities are incidental to the powers expressly authorized by the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible finder activities</I>—(1) <I>National banks.</I> The following list provides examples of permissible finder activities for national banks. This list is illustrative and not exclusive; the OCC may determine that other activities are permissible pursuant to a national bank's authority to act as a finder:
</P>
<P>(i) Communicating information about providers of products and services, and proposed offering prices and terms to potential markets for these products and services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicating to the seller an offer to purchase or a request for information, including forwarding completed applications, application fees, and requests for information to third-party providers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Arranging for third-party providers to offer reduced rates to those customers referred by the national bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing administrative, clerical, and record keeping functions related to the national bank's finder activity, including retaining copies of documents, instructing and assisting individuals in the completion of documents, scheduling sales calls on behalf of sellers, and conducting market research to identify potential new customers for retailers;
</P>
<P>(v) Conveying between interested parties expressions of interest, bids, offers, orders, and confirmations relating to a transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) Conveying other types of information between potential buyers, sellers, and other interested parties;
</P>
<P>(vii) Establishing rules of general applicability governing the use and operation of the finder service, including rules that:
</P>
<P>(A) Govern the submission of bids and offers by buyers, sellers, and other interested parties that use the finder service and the circumstances under which the finder service will pair bids and offers submitted by buyers, sellers, and other interested parties; and
</P>
<P>(B) Govern the manner in which buyers, sellers, and other interested parties may bind themselves to the terms of a specific transaction; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Acting as an electronic finder pursuant to § 7.5002(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> The following list provides examples of finder activities that are permissible for Federal savings associations. This list is illustrative and not exclusive; the OCC may determine that other activities are permissible pursuant to a Federal savings association's incidental powers:
</P>
<P>(i) Referring customers to a third party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing services and products to customers indirectly through a third-party discount program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> The authority to act as a finder does not enable a national bank or a Federal savings association to engage in brokerage activities that have not been found to be permissible for national banks or Federal savings associations, respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisement and fee.</I> Unless otherwise prohibited by Federal law, a national bank or Federal savings association may advertise the availability of, and accept a fee for, the services provided pursuant to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83727, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1003" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1003   Money lent by a national bank at banking offices or at facilities other than banking offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of what constitutes a branch within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j) and 12 CFR 5.30, “money” is deemed to be “lent” only at the place, if any, where the borrower in-person receives loan proceeds directly from national bank funds: 
</P>
<P>(1) From the lending national bank or its operating subsidiary; or 
</P>
<P>(2) At a facility that is established by the lending national bank or its operating subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt of national bank funds representing loan proceeds.</I> Loan proceeds directly from national bank funds may be received by a borrower in person at a place that is not the national bank's main office and is not licensed as a branch without violating 12 U.S.C. 36, 12 U.S.C. 81 and 12 CFR 5.30, provided that a third party is used to deliver the funds and the place is not established by the lending national bank or its operating subsidiary. A third party includes a person who satisfies the requirements of § 7.1012(c)(2), or one who customarily delivers loan proceeds directly from national bank funds under accepted industry practice, such as an attorney or escrow agent at a real estate closing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Services on equivalent terms to those offered customers of unrelated banks.</I> An operating subsidiary owned by a national bank may distribute loan proceeds from its own funds or bank funds directly to the borrower in person at offices the operating subsidiary has established without violating 12 U.S.C. 36, 12 U.S.C. 81 and 12 CFR 5.30 provided that the operating subsidiary provides similar services on substantially similar terms and conditions to customers of unaffiliated entities including unaffiliated banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83727, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1004" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1004   Establishment of a loan production office by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or its operating subsidiary may engage in loan production activities at a site other than the main office or a branch of the bank. A national bank or its operating subsidiary may solicit loan customers, market loan products, assist persons in completing application forms and related documents to obtain a loan, originate and approve loans, make credit decisions regarding a loan application, and offer other lending-related services such as loan information and applications at a loan production office without violating 12 U.S.C. 36 and 12 U.S.C. 81, provided that “money” is not deemed to be “lent” at that site within the meaning of § 7.1003 and the site does not accept deposits or pay withdrawals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Services of other persons.</I> A national bank may use the services of, and compensate, persons not employed by the bank in its loan production activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83727, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1005" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1005   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1006" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1006   Loan agreement providing for a national bank or Federal savings association share in profits, income, or earnings or for stock warrants.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank or Federal savings association may take as consideration for a loan a share in the profit, income, or earnings from a business enterprise of a borrower. A national bank or Federal savings association also may take as consideration for a loan a stock warrant issued by a business enterprise of a borrower, provided that the bank or savings association does not exercise the warrant. The share or stock warrant may be taken in addition to, or in lieu of, interest. The borrower's obligation to repay principal, however, may not be conditioned upon the value of the profit, income, or earnings of the business enterprise or upon the value of the warrant received. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83728, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1007" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1007   National Bank Acceptances.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank is not limited in the character of acceptances it may make in financing credit transactions. Bankers' acceptances may be used for such purpose, since the making of acceptances is an essential part of banking authorized by 12 U.S.C. 24. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1008" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1008   Preparation by a national bank of income tax returns for customers or public.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may assist its customers in preparing their tax returns, either gratuitously or for a fee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1009" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1009   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1010" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1010   Postal services by national banks and Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may provide postal services and receive income from those services. The services performed are those permitted under applicable rules of the United States Postal Service and may include meter stamping of letters and packages and the sale of related insurance. The national bank or Federal savings association may advertise, develop, and extend the services to attract customers to the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Postal regulations.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association providing postal services must do so in accordance with the rules and regulations of the United States Postal Service. The national bank or Federal savings association must keep the books and records of the postal services separate from those of other banking operations. Under 39 U.S.C. 404 and regulations issued under that statute (<I>see</I> 39 CFR chapter I), the United States Postal Service may inspect the books and records pertaining to the postal services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83728, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1011" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1011   National bank acting as payroll issuer.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may disburse to an employee of a customer payroll funds deposited with the bank by that customer. The bank may disburse those funds by direct payment to the employee, by crediting an account in the employee's name at the disbursing bank, or by forwarding funds to another institution in which an employee maintains an account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1012" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1012   Establishment, operation, or use of a messenger service by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, a “messenger service” means any service, such as a courier service or armored car service, used by a national bank and its customers to pick up from, and deliver to, specific customers at locations such as their homes or offices, items relating to transactions between the bank and those customers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pick-up and delivery of items constituting nonbranching activities.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), a national bank may establish and operate a messenger service, or use, with its customers, a third party messenger service. The bank may use the messenger service to transport items relevant to the bank's transactions with its customers without regard to the branching limitations set forth in 12 U.S.C. 36, provided the service does not engage in branching functions within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j). In establishing or using such a facility, the national bank may establish terms, conditions, and limitations consistent with this section and appropriate to assure compliance with safe and sound banking practices. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pick-up and delivery of items constituting branching functions by a messenger service established by a third party.</I> (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), a national bank and its customers may use a messenger service to pick up from and deliver to customers items that relate to branching functions within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36, provided the messenger service is established and operated by a third party. In using such a facility, a national bank may establish terms, conditions, and limitations, consistent with this section and appropriate to assure compliance with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC reviews whether a messenger service is established by a third party on a case-by-case basis, considering all of the circumstances. However, a messenger service is clearly established by a third party if:
</P>
<P>(i) A party other than the national bank owns or rents the messenger service and its facilities and employs the persons who provide the service;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The messenger service retains the discretion to determine in its own business judgment which customers and geographic areas it will serve; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the messenger service and the bank are under common ownership or control, the messenger service actually provides its services to the general public, including other depository institutions, and retains the discretion to determine in its own business judgment which customers and geographic areas it will serve;
</P>
<P>(iii) The messenger service maintains ultimate responsibility for scheduling, movement, and routing;
</P>
<P>(iv) The messenger service does not operate under the name of the bank, and the bank and the messenger service do not advertise, or otherwise represent, that the bank itself is providing the service, although the bank may advertise that its customers may use one or more third party messenger services to transact business with the bank;
</P>
<P>(v) The messenger service assumes responsibility for the items during transit and for maintaining adequate insurance covering thefts, employee fidelity, and other in-transit losses; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The messenger service acts as the agent for the customer when the items are in transit. The bank deems items intended for deposit to be deposited when credited to the customer's account at the bank's main office, one of its branches, or another permissible facility, such as a back-office facility that is not a branch. The bank deems items representing withdrawals to be paid when the items are given to the messenger service.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank may defray all or part of the costs incurred by a customer in transporting items through a messenger service. Payment of those costs may only cover expenses associated with each transaction involving the customer and the messenger service. The national bank may impose terms, conditions, and limitations that it deems appropriate with respect to the payment of such costs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pickup and delivery of items pertaining to branching activities where the messenger service is established by the national bank.</I> A national bank may establish and operate a messenger service to transport items relevant to the bank's transactions with its customers if such transactions constitute one or more branching functions within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j), provided the bank receives approval to establish a branch pursuant to 12 CFR 5.30. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60098, Nov. 4, 1999; 85 FR 83728, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1014" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1014   Sale of money orders at nonbanking outlets by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may designate bonded agents to sell the bank's money orders at nonbanking outlets. The responsibility of both the bank and its agent should be defined in a written agreement setting forth the duties of both parties and providing for remuneration of the agent. The bank's agents need not report on sales and transmit funds from the nonbanking outlets more frequently than at the end of the third business day following receipt of the funds. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1015" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1015   National bank and Federal savings association investments in small business investment companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>National banks.</I> A national bank may invest in a small business investment company (SBIC) or in any entity established solely to invest in SBICs, including purchasing the stock of a SBIC, subject to appropriate capital limitations (<I>see e.g.,</I> 15 U.S.C. 682(b)), and may receive the benefits of such stock ownership (<I>e.g.,</I> stock dividends). The receipt and retention of a dividend by a national bank from a SBIC in the form of stock of a corporate borrower of the SBIC is not a purchase of stock within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> Federal savings associations may invest in a SBIC or in any entity established solely to invest in SBICs as provided in 12 CFR 160.30.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying SBIC.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may invest in a SBIC that is either:
</P>
<P>(1) Already organized and has obtained a license from the Small Business Administration; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the process of being organized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>SBIC wind-down.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may retain an interest in a SBIC that has voluntarily surrendered its license to operate as a SBIC in accordance with 13 CFR 107.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph (d), means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such voluntary surrender.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83728, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1016" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1016   Independent undertakings issued by a national bank or Federal savings association to pay against documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may issue and commit to issue letters of credit and other independent undertakings within the scope of applicable laws or rules of practice recognized by law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Under such independent undertakings, the national bank's or Federal savings association's obligation to honor depends upon the presentation of specified documents and not upon nondocumentary conditions or resolution of questions of fact or law at issue between the applicant and the beneficiary. A national bank or Federal savings association also may confirm or otherwise undertake to honor or purchase specified documents upon their presentation under another person's independent undertaking within the scope of such laws or rules.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Examples of such laws or rules of practice include: The applicable version of Article 5 of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) (1962, as amended 1990) or revised Article 5 of the UCC (as amended 1995); the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits (International Chamber of Commerce (ICC) Publication No. 600 or any applicable prior version); the Supplements to UCP 500 &amp; 600 for Electronic Presentation (eUCP v. 1.0, 1.1, &amp; 2.0) (Supplements to the Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Credits for Electronic Presentation); International Standby Practices (ISP98) (ICC Publication No. 590); the United Nations Convention on Independent Guarantees and Stand-by Letters of Credit (adopted by the U.N. General Assembly in 1995 and signed by the U.S. in 1997); and the Uniform Rules for Bank-to-Bank Reimbursements Under Documentary Credits (ICC Publication No. 725).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Safety and soundness considerations</I>—(1) <I>Terms.</I> As a matter of safe and sound banking practice, national banks and Federal savings associations that issue independent undertakings should not be exposed to undue risk. At a minimum, national banks and Federal savings associations should consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The independent character of the undertaking should be apparent from its terms (such as terms that subject it to laws or rules providing for its independent character); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The undertaking should be limited in amount; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The undertaking should: 
</P>
<P>(A) Be limited in duration; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Permit the national bank or Federal savings association to terminate the undertaking either on a periodic basis (consistent with the bank's or savings association's ability to make any necessary credit assessments) or at will upon either notice or payment to the beneficiary; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Entitle the national bank or Federal savings association to cash collateral from the applicant on demand (with a right to accelerate the applicant's obligations, as appropriate); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank or Federal savings association either should be fully collateralized or have a post-honor right of reimbursement from the applicant or from another issuer of an independent undertaking. Alternatively, if the national bank's or Federal savings association's undertaking is to purchase documents of title, securities, or other valuable documents, the bank or savings association should obtain a first priority right to realize on the documents if the bank or savings association is not otherwise to be reimbursed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional considerations in special circumstances.</I> Certain undertakings require particular protections against credit, operational, and market risk: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the event that the undertaking is to honor by delivery of an item of value other than money, the national bank or Federal savings association should ensure that market fluctuations that affect the value of the item will not cause the bank or savings association to assume undue market risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the undertaking provides for automatic renewal, the terms for renewal should be consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's ability to make any necessary credit assessments prior to renewal;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the event that a national bank or Federal savings association issues an undertaking for its own account, the underlying transaction for which it is issued must be within the bank's or savings association's authority and comply with any safety and soundness requirements applicable to that transaction. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operational expertise.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association should possess operational expertise that is commensurate with the sophistication of its independent undertaking activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association must accurately reflect the bank's or savings association's undertakings in its records, including any acceptance or deferred payment or other absolute obligation arising out of its contingent undertaking. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> An independent undertaking within the meaning of this section is not subject to the provisions of § 7.1017. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60099, Nov. 4, 1999; 68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003; 73 FR 22241, Apr. 24, 2008; 85 FR 83728, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1017" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1017   National bank as guarantor or surety on indemnity bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank may lend its credit, bind itself as a surety to indemnify another, or otherwise become a guarantor (including, pursuant to 12 CFR 28.4, guaranteeing the deposits and other liabilities of its Edge corporations and Agreement corporations and of its corporate instrumentalities in foreign countries), if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank has a substantial interest in the performance of the transaction involved (for example, a bank, as fiduciary, has a sufficient interest in the faithful performance by a cofiduciary of its duties to act as surety on the bond of such cofiduciary); or 
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is for the benefit of a customer and the bank obtains from the customer a segregated deposit that is sufficient in amount to cover the bank's total potential liability. A segregated deposit under this section includes collateral: 
</P>
<P>(i) In which the bank has perfected its security interest (for example, if the collateral is a printed security, the bank must have obtained physical control of the security, and, if the collateral is a book entry security, the bank must have properly recorded its security interest); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) That has a market value, at the close of each business day, equal to the bank's total potential liability and is composed of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Cash; 
</P>
<P>(B) Obligations of the United States or its agencies; 
</P>
<P>(C) Obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Notes, drafts, or bills of exchange or bankers' acceptances that are eligible for rediscount or purchase by a Federal Reserve Bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) That has a market value, at the close of each business day, equal to 110 percent of the bank's total potential liability and is composed of obligations of a State or political subdivision of a State. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank may guarantee obligations of a customer, subsidiary or affiliate that are financial in character, provided the amount of the bank's financial obligation is reasonably ascertainable and otherwise consistent with applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60099, Nov. 4, 1999; 73 FR 22241, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1018" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1018   National bank automatic payment plan accounts.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may, for the benefit and convenience of its savings depositors, adopt an automatic payment plan under which a savings account will earn dividends at the current rate paid on regular savings accounts. The depositor, upon reaching a previously designated age, receives his or her accumulated savings and earned interest in installments of equal amounts over a specified period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1020" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1020   Purchase of open accounts by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The purchase of open accounts is a part of the business of banking and within the power of a national bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Export transactions.</I> A national bank may purchase open accounts in connection with export transactions; the accounts should be protected by insurance such as that provided by the Foreign Credit Insurance Association and the Export-Import Bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1021" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1021   Financial literacy programs not branches of national banks.</HEAD>
<P>A financial literacy program is a program the principal purpose of which is to be educational for members of the community. The premises of, or a facility used by, a school or other organization at which a national bank participates in a financial literacy program is not a branch for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 36 provided the bank does not establish and operate the premises or facility. The OCC considers establishment and operation in this context on a case by case basis, considering the facts and circumstances. However, the premises or facility is not a branch of the national bank if the safe harbor test in § 7.1012(c)(2) applicable to messenger services established by third parties is satisfied. The factor discussed in § 7.1012(c)(2)(i) can be met if bank employee participation in the financial literacy program consists of managing the program or conducting or engaging in financial education activities provided the school or other organization retains control over the program and over the premises or facilities at which the program is held.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83729, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1022" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1022   National banks' authority to buy and sell exchange, coin, and bullion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In this section, <I>industrial or commercial metal</I> means metal (including an alloy) in a physical form primarily suited to industrial or commercial use, for example, copper cathodes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of authorization.</I> Section 24(Seventh) of the National Bank Act authorizes national banks to buy and sell exchange, coin, and bullion. Industrial or commercial metal is not exchange, coin, and bullion within the meaning of this authorization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Buying and selling metal as part of or incidental to the business of banking.</I> Section 24(Seventh) authorizes national banks to engage in activities that are part of, or incidental to, the business of banking. Buying and selling industrial or commercial metal for the purpose of dealing or investing in that metal is not part of or incidental to the business of banking pursuant to section 24(Seventh). Accordingly, national banks may not acquire industrial or commercial metal for purposes of dealing or investing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other authorities not affected.</I> This section may not be construed to preclude a national bank from acquiring or selling metal in connection with its incidental authority to foreclose on loan collateral, compromise doubtful claims, or avoid loss in connection with a debt previously contracted. This section also may not be construed to preclude a national bank from buying and selling physical metal to hedge a derivative for which that metal is the reference asset so long as the amount of the physical metal used for hedging purposes is nominal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonconforming holdings.</I> National banks that hold industrial or commercial metal as a result of dealing or investing in that metal must dispose of such metal as soon as practicable, but not later than one year from April 1, 2018. The OCC may grant up to four separate one-year extensions to dispose of industrial or commercial metal if a national bank makes a good faith effort to dispose of the metal and retention of the metal for an additional year is not inconsistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 96360, Dec. 30, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 83729, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1023" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1023   Federal savings associations, prohibition on industrial or commercial metal dealing or investing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In this section, <I>industrial or commercial metal</I> means metal (including an alloy) in a physical form primarily suited to industrial or commercial use, for example, copper cathodes.
</P>
<P>(b) Federal savings associations may not deal or invest in industrial or commercial metal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other authorities not affected.</I> This section may not be construed to preclude a Federal savings association from acquiring or selling metal in connection with its authority to foreclose on loan collateral, compromise doubtful claims, or avoid loss in connection with a debt previously contracted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonconforming holdings.</I> Federal savings associations that hold industrial or commercial metal as a result of dealing or investing in that metal must dispose of such metal as soon as practicable, but not later than one year from April 1, 2018. The OCC may grant up to four separate one-year extensions to dispose of industrial or commercial metal if a Federal savings association makes a good faith effort to dispose of the metal and retention of the metal for an additional year is not inconsistent with safe and sound operation of the association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 96360, Dec. 30, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 83729, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1024" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1024   National bank or Federal savings association ownership of property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investment in real estate necessary for the transaction of business</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may invest in real estate that is necessary for the transaction of its business.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type of real estate.</I> Real estate investments permissible under this section include:
</P>
<P>(i) Premises that are owned and occupied (or to be occupied, if under construction) by the national bank or Federal savings association, or its respective branches or consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Real estate acquired and intended, in good faith, for use in future expansion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Parking facilities that are used by customers or employees of the national bank or Federal savings association, or its respective branches or consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iv) Residential property for the use of officers or employees of the national bank or Federal savings association who are:
</P>
<P>(A) Located in remote areas where suitable housing at a reasonable price is not readily available; or
</P>
<P>(B) Temporarily assigned to a foreign country, including foreign nationals temporarily assigned to the United States; and
</P>
<P>(v) Property for the use of national bank or Federal savings association officers, employees, or customers, or for the temporary lodging of such persons in areas where suitable commercial lodging is not readily available, provided that the purchase and operation of the property qualifies as a deductible business expense for Federal tax purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permissible means of holding.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association may acquire and hold real estate under this paragraph (a) by any reasonable and prudent means, including ownership in fee, a leasehold estate, or in an interest in a cooperative. The national bank or Federal savings association may hold this real estate directly or through one or more subsidiaries. The national bank or Federal savings association may organize a banking premises subsidiary as a corporation, partnership, or similar entity (<I>e.g.,</I> a limited liability company).
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association also may acquire and hold banking premises through a service corporation in accordance with 12 CFR 5.59.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fixed assets.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may own fixed assets necessary for the transaction of its business, such as fixtures, furniture, and data processing equipment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment in banking premises</I>—(1) <I>Investment limitation.</I> Twelve CFR 5.37(d)(1)(i) and (d)(3)(i) provide quantitative investment limitations that govern when OCC approval is required for a national bank or Federal savings association to invest in banking premises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Premises approval.</I> (i) A national bank or Federal savings association must seek approval from the OCC in accordance with 12 CFR 5.37(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association that invests in banking premises through a service corporation must comply with the quantitative limitations in 12 CFR 5.37(d) and, to the extent applicable, 12 CFR 5.59.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Option to purchase.</I> An unexercised option to purchase banking premises or stock in a corporation holding banking premises is not an investment in banking premises. However, a national bank or Federal savings association seeking to exercise such an option must comply with the requirements in 12 CFR 5.37(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Future national bank or Federal savings association expansion.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association normally should use real estate acquired for future national bank or Federal savings association expansion within five years. After holding such real estate for one year, the national bank or Federal savings association must state, by resolution of its board of directors or an appropriately authorized bank or savings association official or subcommittee of the board, definite plans for its use. The resolution or other official action must be available for inspection by OCC examiners.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transition.</I> If, on May 18, 2015, a Federal savings association holds an investment in real estate, fixed assets, banking premises, or other real property that complies with the legal requirements in effect prior to May 18, 2015, but would violate any provision of this section or § 5.37, the savings association may continue to hold such investment in accordance with the prior legal requirements. However, a Federal savings association that holds such an investment may not modify, expand or improve this investment, except for routine maintenance, without the prior approval of the appropriate OCC supervisory office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28470, May 18, 2015. Redesignated and amended at 85 FR 83726, 83729, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1025" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1025   Tax equity finance transactions by national banks and Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tax equity finance transactions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may engage in a tax equity finance transaction pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) and 1464 only if the transaction is the functional equivalent of a loan, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, and the transaction satisfies applicable conditions in paragraph (d) of this section. The authority to engage in tax equity finance transactions under this section is pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) and 1464 lending authority and is separate from, and does not limit, other investment authorities available to national banks and Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appropriate OCC supervisory office</I> means the OCC office that is responsible for the supervision of a national bank or Federal savings association, as described in subpart A of 12 CFR part 4;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital and surplus</I> has the same meaning that this term has in 12 CFR 32.2.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tax equity finance transaction</I> means a transaction in which a national bank or Federal savings association provides equity financing to fund a project or projects that generate tax credits or other tax benefits and the use of an equity-based structure allows the transfer of those credits and other tax benefits to the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Functional equivalent of a loan.</I> A tax equity finance transaction is the functional equivalent of a loan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The structure of the transaction is necessary for making the tax credits or other tax benefits available to the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is of limited tenure and is not indefinite, including retaining a limited investment interest that is required by law to obtain continuing tax benefits or needed to obtain the expected rate of return;
</P>
<P>(3) The tax benefits and other payments received by the national bank or Federal savings association from the transaction repay the investment and provide the expected rate of return at the time of underwriting;
</P>
<P>(4) Consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association does not rely on appreciation of value in the project or property rights underlying the project for repayment;
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association uses underwriting and credit approval criteria and standards that are substantially equivalent to the underwriting and credit approval criteria and standards used for a traditional commercial loan;
</P>
<P>(6) The national bank or Federal savings association is a passive investor in the transaction and is unable to direct the affairs of the project company; and
</P>
<P>(7) The national bank or Federal savings association appropriately accounts for the transaction initially and on an ongoing basis and has documented contemporaneously its accounting assessment and conclusion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions on tax equity finance transactions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may engage in tax equity finance transactions only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association cannot control the sale of energy, if any, from the project;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association limits the total dollar amount of tax equity finance transactions undertaken pursuant to this section to no more than five percent of its capital and surplus, unless the OCC determines, by written approval of a written request by the national bank or Federal savings association to exceed the five percent limit, that a higher aggregate limit will not pose an unreasonable risk to the national bank or Federal savings association and that the tax equity finance transactions in the national bank's or Federal savings association's portfolio will not be conducted in an unsafe or unsound manner; provided, however, that in no case may a national bank or Federal savings association's total dollar amount of tax equity finance transactions undertaken pursuant to this section exceed 15 percent of its capital and surplus;
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association has provided written notification to the appropriate OCC supervisory office, prior to engaging in each tax equity finance transaction that includes its evaluation of the risks posed by the transaction;
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association can identify, measure, monitor, and control the associated risks of its tax equity finance transaction activities individually and as a whole on an ongoing basis to ensure that such activities are conducted in a safe and sound manner; and
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association obtains a legal opinion or has other good faith, reasoned bases for making a determination that tax credits or other tax benefits are available before engaging in a tax equity finance transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicable legal requirements.</I> The transaction is subject to the substantive legal requirements of a loan, including the lending limits prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 84 and 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as appropriate, as implemented by 12 CFR part 32, and if the active investor or project sponsor of the transaction is an affiliate of the bank, to the restrictions on transactions with affiliates prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1, as implemented by 12 CFR part 223.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83729, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1026" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1026   National bank and Federal savings association payment system memberships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> National banks and Federal savings associations may become members of payment systems, subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appropriate OCC supervisory office</I> means the OCC office that is responsible for the supervision of a national bank or Federal savings association, as described in subpart A of 12 CFR part 4;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Member</I> includes a national bank or Federal savings association designated as a “member,” or “participant,” or other similar role by a payment system, including by a payment system that requires the national bank or Federal savings association to share in operational losses or maintain a reserve with the payment system to offset potential liability for operational losses. This definition includes indirect members only if they agree to be bound by the rules of the payment system and the rules of the payment system indicate indirect members are covered;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Open-ended liability</I> refers to liability for operational losses that is not capped under the rules of the payment system and includes indemnifications of third parties provided as a condition of membership in the payment system;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operational loss</I> means a charge resulting from sources other than defaults by other members of the payment system. Examples of operational losses include losses that are due to: Employee misconduct, fraud, misjudgment, or human error; management failure; information systems failures; disruptions from internal or external events that result in the degradation or failure of services provided by the payment system; security breaches or cybersecurity events; or payment or settlement delays, constrained liquidity, contagious disruptions, and resulting litigation; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment system</I> means “financial market utility” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5462(6), wherever operating, and includes both retail and wholesale payment systems. Payment system does not include a derivatives clearing organization registered under the Commodity Exchange Act, a clearing agency registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or foreign organization that would be considered a derivatives clearing organization or clearing agency were it operating in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice requirements</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice required.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must provide written notice to its appropriate OCC supervisory office at least 30 days prior to joining a payment system that exposes it to open-ended liability.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>After-the-fact notice.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must provide written notice to its appropriate OCC supervisory office within 30 days of joining a payment system that does not expose it to open-ended liability.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must include representations that the national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) Has complied with the safety and soundness review requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Will comply with the safety and soundness review and notification requirements in paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment system with limits on liability or no liability.</I> A notice filed under paragraph (c)(2) of this section also must include a representation that either:
</P>
<P>(i) The rules of the payment system do not impose liability for operational losses on members; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's liability for operational losses is limited by the rules of the payment system to specific and appropriate limits that do not exceed the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The legal lending limit under 12 CFR part 32; or
</P>
<P>(B) The limit set for the bank or savings association by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Safety and soundness procedures.</I> (1) Prior to joining a payment system, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and evaluate the risks posed by membership in the payment system, taking into account whether the liability of the bank or savings association is limited; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that it can measure, monitor, and control the risks identified pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) After joining a payment system, a national bank or Federal savings association must manage the risks of the payment system on an ongoing basis. This ongoing risk management must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and evaluate the risks posed by membership in the payment system, taking into account whether the liability of the bank or savings association is limited; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Measure, monitor, and control the risks identified pursuant to paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank or Federal savings association identifies risks during the ongoing risk management required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section that raise safety and soundness concerns, such as a material change to the bank's or savings association's liability or indemnification responsibilities, the national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the appropriate OCC supervisory office as soon as the safety and soundness concern is identified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Take appropriate actions to remediate the risk.
</P>
<P>(4) A national bank or Federal savings association that believes its open-ended liability is otherwise limited (<I>e.g.,</I> by negotiated agreements or laws of an appropriate jurisdiction) may consider its liability to be limited for purposes of the reviews required by paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to joining the payment system, the bank or savings association obtains a written legal opinion that:
</P>
<P>(A) Describes how the payment system allocates liability for operational losses; and
</P>
<P>(B) Concludes the potential liability for operational losses for the national bank or Federal savings association is in fact limited to specific and appropriate limits that do not exceed the lower of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The legal lending limit under 12 CFR part 32; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The limit set for the bank or savings association by the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There are no material changes to the liability or indemnification requirements applicable to the bank or savings association since the issuance of the written legal opinion.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safety and soundness considerations.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association should evaluate, at a minimum, the following payment system characteristics when conducting an analysis required by paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Does the processing occur on a real-time gross settlement basis or provide reasonable assurance (<I>e.g.,</I> prefunding, etc.) that members will meet settlement obligations?
</P>
<P>(ii) How does the payment system's rules limit its liability to members?
</P>
<P>(iii) Does the payment system have insurance coverage and/or self-insurance arrangements to cover operational losses?
</P>
<P>(iv) Do the payment system's rules provide an unambiguous pro-rata loss allocation methodology under its indemnity provisions and does the methodology provide members the opportunity to reduce or eliminate liability exposure by decreasing or ceasing use of the payment system?
</P>
<P>(v) Do the payment system's rules provide for unambiguous membership withdrawal procedures that do not require the prior approval of the system?
</P>
<P>(vi) Does the payment system have appropriate admission and continuing participation requirements for system participants? Such requirements should address, among other things:
</P>
<P>(A) The participants' access to sufficient financial resources to meet obligations arising from participation;
</P>
<P>(B) The adequacy of participants' operational capacities to meet obligations arising from participation; and
</P>
<P>(C) The adequacy of the participants' own risk management processes.
</P>
<P>(vii) Does the payment system have processes and controls in place to verify and monitor on an ongoing basis the compliance of each participant with admission and participation requirements?
</P>
<P>(viii) Does the payment system have written policies and procedures for addressing participant failures to meet ongoing participation requirements?
</P>
<P>(ix) Are the payment system's rules relating to the system's emergency authorities unambiguous and may they be amended or otherwise altered without prior notification to all members and an opportunity to withdraw?
</P>
<P>(x) Is the payment system governed by uniform, comprehensive and clear legal standards in its operating jurisdiction that address payment and/or settlement activities?
</P>
<P>(xi) Is the payment system subject to and in compliance (or observance) with the Committee on Payment and Settlement Systems and the Technical Committee of the International Organization of Securities Commissions (CPSS—IOSCO) Principles for Financial Market Infrastructures?
</P>
<P>(xii) Is the payment system designated as a systemically important financial market utility (SIFMU) by the Financial Stability Oversight Counsel (FSOC) or is it the international or foreign equivalent?
</P>
<P>(xiii) Does the payment system provide members with information relevant to governance, risk management practices, and operations in a timely manner and with sufficient transparency and particularity for the bank to ascertain with reasonable certainty the bank's level of risk exposure to the system?
</P>
<P>(xiv) Is the payment system operated by or subject to oversight of a central bank or regulatory authority?
</P>
<P>(xv) Is the payment system legally organized as a not-for-profit enterprise or is it owned and operated by a government entity?
</P>
<P>(xvi) Does the payment system have appropriate systems and controls for communicating to members in a timely manner about material events that relate to or could result in potential operational losses, <I>e.g.</I> fraud, system failures, natural disasters, etc.?
</P>
<P>(xvii) Has the payment system ever exercised its authority under indemnification provisions?
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association should consider, at a minimum, the following characteristics of its risk management program when conducting an analysis required by paragraph (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Does the bank or savings association have appropriate board supervision and managerial and staff expertise?
</P>
<P>(ii) Does the bank or savings association have comprehensive policies and operating procedures with respect to its risk identification, measurement and management information systems that are routinely reviewed?
</P>
<P>(iii) Does the bank or savings association have effective risk controls and processes to oversee and ensure the continuing effectiveness of the risk management process? The program should include a formal process for approval of payment system memberships as well as ongoing monitoring and measurement of activity against predetermined risk limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Does the bank or savings association's membership evaluation process include assessments and analyses of:
</P>
<P>(A) The credit quality of the entity;
</P>
<P>(B) The entity's risk management practices;
</P>
<P>(C) Settlement and default procedures of the entity;
</P>
<P>(D) Any default or loss-sharing precedents and any other applicable limits or restrictions of the entity;
</P>
<P>(E) Key risks associated with joining the entity; and
</P>
<P>(F) The incremental effect of additional memberships in aggregate exposure to payment system risk?
</P>
<P>(v) Does the bank or savings association's risk management program include policies and procedures that identify and estimate the level of potential operational risks, at both inception of membership and on an on-going basis?
</P>
<P>(vi) Does the bank or savings association have auditing procedures to ensure the integrity of risk measurement, control and reporting systems?
</P>
<P>(vii) Does the program include mechanisms to monitor, estimate, and maintain control over the bank or savings association's potential liabilities for operational losses on an ongoing basis. This should include:
</P>
<P>(A) Limits and other controls with respect to each identified risk factor;
</P>
<P>(B) Reports generated throughout the processes that accurately present the nature and level(s) of risk taken and demonstrate compliance with approved polices and limits; and
</P>
<P>(C) Identification of the business unit and/or individuals responsible for measuring and monitoring risk exposures, as well as those individuals responsible for monitoring compliance with policies and risk exposure limits.
</P>
<P>(viii) Does a bank or savings association with memberships in multiple payment systems have the ability to monitor and report aggregate risk exposures and measurement against risk limits both at the sponsoring business line level and the total exposure organizationally?
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83730, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1027" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1027   Establishment and operation of a remote service unit by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>A remote service unit (RSU) is an automated or unstaffed facility, operated by a customer of a bank with at most delimited assistance from bank personnel, that conducts banking functions such as receiving deposits, paying withdrawals, or lending money. A national bank may establish and operate an RSU pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh). An RSU includes an automated teller machine, automated loan machine, automated device for receiving deposits, personal computer, telephone, other similar electronic devices, and drop boxes. An RSU may be equipped with a telephone or tele-video device that allows contact with bank personnel. An RSU is not a “branch” within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j), and is not subject to State geographic or operational restrictions or licensing laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83731, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1028" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1028   Establishment and operation of a deposit production office by a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or its operating subsidiary may engage in deposit production activities at a site other than the main office or a branch of the bank. A national bank or its operating subsidiary may solicit deposits, provide information about deposit products, and assist persons in completing application forms and related documents to open a deposit account at a deposit production office (DPO). A DPO is not a branch within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j) and 12 CFR 5.30(d)(1) so long as it does not receive deposits, pay withdrawals, or make loans. All deposit and withdrawal transactions of a bank customer using a DPO must be performed by the customer, either in person at the main office or a branch office of the bank, or by mail, electronic transfer, or a similar method of transfer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Services of other persons.</I> A national bank may use the services of, and compensate, persons not employed by the bank in its deposit production activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83732, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1029" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1029   Combination of national bank loan production office, deposit production office, and remote service unit.</HEAD>
<P>A location at which a national bank operates a loan production office (LPO), a deposit production office (DPO), and a remote service unit (RSU) is not a “branch” within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 36(j) by virtue of that combination. Since an LPO, DPO, or RSU is not, individually, a branch under 12 U.S.C. 36(j), any combination of these facilities at one location does not create a branch. The RSU at such a combined location must be primarily operated by the customer with at most delimited assistance from bank personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83732, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.1030" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.1.24.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.1030   Permissible derivatives activities for national banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This section is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh). A national bank may only engage in derivatives transactions in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Customer-driven</I> means a transaction is entered into for a customer's valid and independent business purpose (and a customer-driven transaction does not include a transaction the principal purpose of which is to deliver to a national bank assets that the national bank could not invest in directly);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Perfectly-matched</I> means two back-to-back derivatives transactions that offset risk with respect to all economic terms (<I>e.g.,</I> amount, maturity, duration, and underlying);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portfolio-hedged</I> means a portfolio of derivatives transactions that are hedged based on net unmatched positions or exposures in the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Physical hedging</I> or <I>physically-hedged</I> means holding title to or acquiring ownership of an asset (for example, by warehouse receipt or book-entry) solely to manage the risks arising out of permissible customer-driven derivatives transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Physical settlement</I> or <I>physically-settled</I> means accepting title to or acquiring ownership of an asset;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transitory title transfer</I> means accepting and immediately relinquishing title to an asset; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Underlying</I> means the reference asset, rate, obligation, or index on which the payment obligation(s) between counterparties to a derivative transaction is based.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>In general.</I> A national bank may engage in the following derivatives transactions after notice in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) Derivatives transactions with payments based on underlyings a national bank is permitted to purchase directly as an investment;
</P>
<P>(2) Derivatives transactions with any underlying to hedge the risks arising from bank-permissible activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Derivatives transactions as a financial intermediary with any underlying that are customer-driven, cash-settled, and either perfectly-matched or portfolio-hedged;
</P>
<P>(4) Derivatives transactions as a financial intermediary with any underlying that are customer-driven, physically-settled by transitory title transfer, and either perfectly-matched or portfolio-hedged; and
</P>
<P>(5) Derivatives transactions as a financial intermediary with any underlying that are customer-driven, physically-hedged, and either portfolio-hedged or hedged on a transaction-by-transaction basis, and provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank does not take physical delivery of any commodity by receipt of physical quantities of the commodity on bank premises; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Physical hedging activities meet the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice procedure.</I> (1) A national bank must provide notice to its Examiner-in-Charge prior to engaging in any of the following with respect to derivatives transactions with payments based on underlyings that a national bank is not permitted to purchase directly as an investment:
</P>
<P>(i) Engaging in derivatives hedging activities pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Expanding the bank's derivatives hedging activities pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section to include a new category of underlying for derivatives transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Engaging in customer-driven financial intermediation derivatives activities pursuant to paragraph (c)(3), (4), or (5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Expanding the bank's customer-driven financial intermediation derivatives activities pursuant to paragraph (c)(3), (4), or (5) of this section to include any new category of underlyings.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be submitted in writing at least 30 days before the national bank commences the activity and include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the proposed activity, including the relevant underlyings;
</P>
<P>(ii) The anticipated start date of the activity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed description of the bank's risk management system (policies, processes, personnel, and control systems) for identifying, measuring, monitoring, and controlling the risks of the activity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional requirements for physical hedging activities.</I> (1) A national bank engaging in physical hedging activities pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section must hold the underlying solely to hedge risks arising from derivatives transactions originated by customers for the customers' valid and independent business purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The physical hedging activities must offer a cost-effective means to hedge risks arising from permissible banking activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank must not take anticipatory or maintain residual positions in the underlying except as necessary for the orderly establishment or unwinding of a hedging position.
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank must not acquire equity securities for hedging purposes that constitute more than 5 percent of a class of voting securities of any issuer.
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to physical hedging involving commodities:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank's physical position in a particular physical commodity (including, as applicable, delivery point, purity, grade, chemical composition, weight, and size) must not be more than 5 percent of the gross notional value of the bank's derivatives that are in that particular physical commodity and allow for physical settlement within 30 days. Title to commodities acquired and immediately sold by a transitory title transfer does not count against the 5 percent limit;
</P>
<P>(ii) The physical position must more effectively reduce risk than a cash-settled hedge referencing the same commodity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The physical position hedges a physically-settled customer-driven commodity derivative transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safe and sound banking practices.</I> A national bank must adhere to safe and sound banking practices in conducting the activities described in this section. The bank must have a risk management system (policies, processes, personnel, and control system) that effectively manages (identifies, measures, monitors, and controls) these activities' interest rate, credit, liquidity, price, operational, compliance, and strategic risks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83732, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Corporate Practices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2000" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2000   National bank corporate governance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The corporate governance provisions in a national bank's articles of association and bylaws and the bank's conduct of its corporate governance affairs must comply with applicable Federal banking statutes and regulations and safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other sources of guidance.</I> To the extent not inconsistent with applicable Federal banking statutes or regulations, or bank safety and soundness, a national bank may elect to follow the corporate governance provisions of the law of any State in which the main office or any branch of the bank is located, the law of any State in which a holding company of the bank is incorporated, the Delaware General Corporation Law, Del. Code Ann. tit. 8 (1991, as amended 1994, and as amended thereafter), or the Model Business Corporation Act (1984, as amended 1994, and as amended thereafter). A national bank must designate in its bylaws the body of law selected for its corporate governance provisions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Continued use of former holding company State.</I> A national bank that has elected to follow the corporate governance provisions of the law of the State in which its holding company is incorporated may continue to use those provisions even if the bank is no longer controlled by that holding company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for OCC staff position.</I> A national bank may request the views of OCC staff on the permissibility of a national bank's adoption of a particular State corporate governance provision. Requests must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the national bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Citation to the State statutes or regulations involved;
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion as to whether a similarly situated State bank is subject to or may adopt the corporate governance provision;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of all Federal banking statutes or regulations that are on the same subject as, or otherwise have a bearing on, the subject of the proposed State corporate governance provision; and
</P>
<P>(5) An analysis of how the proposed practice is not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes or regulations and is not inconsistent with bank safety and soundness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 80 FR 28471, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 83733, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2001" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2001   National bank adoption of anti-takeover provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 7.2000(b), a national bank may adopt anti-takeover provisions included in State corporate governance law if the provisions are not inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations and not inconsistent with bank safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State anti-takeover provisions that are not inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations.</I> State anti-takeover provisions that are not inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Restrictions on business combinations with interested shareholders.</I> State provisions that prohibit, or that permit the corporation to prohibit in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, the corporation from engaging in a business combination with an interested shareholder or any related entity for a specified period of time from the date on which the shareholder first becomes an interested shareholder, subject to certain exceptions such as board approval. An interested shareholder is one that owns an amount of stock specified in the State provision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Poison pill.</I> State provisions that provide, or that permit the corporation to provide in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, that all the shareholders, other than the hostile acquiror, have the right to purchase additional stock at a substantial discount upon the occurrence of a triggering event.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requiring all shareholder actions to be taken at a meeting.</I> State provisions that provide, or that permit the corporation to provide in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, that all actions to be taken by shareholders must occur at a meeting and that shareholders may not take action by written consent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on shareholders' authority to call special meetings.</I> State provisions that provide, or that permit the corporation to provide in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Only the board of directors, and not the shareholders, have the right to call special meetings of the shareholders; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If shareholders have the right to call special meetings, a high percentage of shareholders is needed to call the meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shareholder removal of a director only for cause.</I> State provisions that provide, or that permit the corporation to provide in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, that shareholders may remove a director only for cause, and not both for cause and without cause.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State anti-takeover provisions that are inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations.</I> The following State anti-takeover provisions are inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Supermajority voting requirements.</I> State provisions that require, or that permit the corporation to require in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document, a supermajority of the shareholders to approve specified matters are inconsistent when applied to matters for which Federal banking statutes or regulations specify the required level of shareholder approval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions on a shareholder's right to vote all the shares it owns.</I> State provisions that prohibit, or that permit the corporation in its certificate of incorporation or other governing document to prohibit, a person from voting shares acquired that increase their percentage of ownership of the company's stock above a certain level are inconsistent when applied to shareholder votes governed by 12 U.S.C. 61.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bank safety and soundness</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, any State corporate governance provision, including anti-takeover provisions, that would render more difficult or discourage an injection of capital by purchase of bank stock, a merger, the acquisition of the bank, a tender offer, a proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a large block of the bank's stock, or the removal of the incumbent board of directors or management is inconsistent with bank safety and soundness if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank is less than adequately capitalized (as defined in 12 CFR part 6);
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank is in troubled condition (as defined in 12 CFR 5.51(c)(7));
</P>
<P>(iii) Grounds for the appointment of a receiver under 12 U.S.C. 191, as determined by the OCC, are present; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The bank is otherwise in less than satisfactory condition, as determined by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Anti-takeover provisions are not inconsistent with bank safety and soundness if, at the time the bank adopts the provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank is not subject to any of the conditions in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank includes, in its articles of association or its bylaws, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, a limitation that would make the provisions ineffective if:
</P>
<P>(A) The conditions in paragraph (d)(1) of this section exist; or
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC otherwise directs the bank not to follow the provision for supervisory reasons.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Case-by-case review</I>—(1) <I>OCC determination.</I> Based on the substance of the provision or the individual circumstances of a national bank, the OCC may determine that a State anti-takeover provision, as proposed or adopted by a bank, is:
</P>
<P>(i) Inconsistent with Federal banking statutes or regulations, notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Inconsistent with bank safety and soundness other than as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review.</I> The OCC may initiate a review, or a bank may request OCC review pursuant to § 7.2000(d), of a State anti-takeover provision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Method of adoption for anti-takeover provisions</I>—(1) <I>Board and shareholder approval.</I> A national bank must follow the provisions for approval by the board of directors and approval of shareholders for the adoption of an anti-takeover provision in the State corporate governance law it has elected to follow. However, if the provision is included in the bank's articles of association, the bank's shareholders must approve the amendment of the articles pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 21a, even if the State law does not require approval by the shareholders.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documentation.</I> If the State corporate governance law requires the anti-takeover provision to be in the company's articles of incorporation, certificate of incorporation, or similar document, the national bank must include the provision in its articles of association. If the State corporate governance law does not require the provision to be in the company's articles of incorporation, certificate of incorporation, or similar document, but allows it to be in the bylaws, then the national bank must include the provision in either its articles of association or in its bylaws, provided, however, that if the State corporate governance law requires shareholder approval for changes to the corporation's bylaws, then the national bank must include the provision in its articles of association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83733, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2002" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2002   National bank director or attorney as proxy.</HEAD>
<P>Any person or group of persons, except the national bank's officers, clerks, tellers, or bookkeepers, may be designated to act as proxy for shareholder voting. The national bank's directors or attorneys may act as proxy for shareholder voting if they are not also employed as an officer, clerk, teller or bookkeeper of the bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83734, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2003" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2003   National bank shareholder meetings; Board of directors meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of shareholders' meetings.</I> A national bank must mail shareholders notice of the time, place, and purpose of all shareholders' meetings at least 10 days prior to the meeting by first class mail, unless the OCC determines that an emergency circumstance exists. Where a national bank is a wholly-owned subsidiary, the sole shareholder is permitted to waive notice of the shareholder's meeting. The articles of association, bylaws, or law applicable to a national bank may require a longer period of notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual meeting for election of directors.</I> When the day fixed for the regular annual meeting of the shareholders falls on a legal holiday in the State in which the bank is located, the shareholders' meeting must be held, and the directors elected, on the next following banking day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Virtual participation at shareholder meetings</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank may provide for telephonic or electronic participation at shareholder meetings.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> A national bank must follow the procedures for telephonic or electronic participation in a shareholder meeting of the corporate governance provisions it has elected to follow pursuant to § 7.2000(b), if those elected provisions include telephonic or electronic participation procedures; the Delaware General Corporation Law, Del. Code Ann. Tit. 8 (1991, as amended 1994, and as amended thereafter); or the Model Business Corporation Act, provided, however, that such procedures are not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes and regulations and safety and soundness. The national bank must indicate the use of these procedures in its bylaws.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Virtual participation at board of directors meetings.</I> A national bank may provide for telephonic or electronic participation at a meeting of its board of directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83734, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2004" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2004   Honorary national bank directors or advisory boards.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may appoint honorary or advisory members of a board of directors to act in advisory capacities without voting power or power of final decision in matters concerning the business of the bank. Any listing of honorary or advisory directors must distinguish between them and the bank's board of directors or indicate their advisory status. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2005" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2005   Ownership of stock necessary to qualify as director of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank director must own a qualifying equity interest in a national bank or a company that has control of a national bank. The director must own the qualifying equity interest in his or her own right and meet a certain minimum threshold ownership. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying equity interest</I>—(1) <I>Minimum required equity interest.</I> For purposes of this section, a qualifying equity interest includes common or preferred stock of the bank or of a company that controls the bank that has not less than an aggregate par value of $1,000, an aggregate shareholders' equity of $1,000, or an aggregate fair market value of $1,000. 
</P>
<P>(i) The value of the common or preferred stock held by a national bank director is valued as of the date purchased or the date on which the individual became a director, whichever value is greater. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a company that owns more than one national bank, a director may use his or her equity interest in the controlling company to satisfy, in whole or in part, the equity interest requirement for any or all of the controlled national banks. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon request, the OCC may consider whether other interests in a company controlling a national bank constitute an interest equivalent to $1,000 par value of national bank stock. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint ownership and tenancy in common.</I> Shares held jointly or as a tenant in common are qualifying shares held by a director in his or her own right only to the extent of the aggregate value of the shares which the director would be entitled to receive on dissolution of the joint tenancy or tenancy in common. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Shares in a living trust.</I> Shares deposited by a person in a living trust (inter vivos trust) as to which the person is a trustee and retains an absolute power of revocation are shares owned by the person in his or her own right. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other arrangements</I>—(i) <I>Shares held through retirement plans and similar arrangements.</I> A director may hold his or her qualifying interest through a profit-sharing plan, individual retirement account, retirement plan, or similar arrangement, if the director retains beneficial ownership and legal control over the shares.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Shares held subject to buyback agreements.</I> A director may acquire and hold his or her qualifying interest pursuant to a stock repurchase or buyback agreement with a transferring shareholder under which the director purchases the qualifying shares subject to an agreement that the transferring shareholder will repurchase the shares when, for any reason, the director ceases to serve in that capacity. The agreement may give the transferring shareholder a right of first refusal to repurchase the qualifying shares if the director seeks to transfer ownership of the shares to a third person.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Assignment of right to dividends or distributions.</I> A director may assign the right to receive all dividends or distributions on his or her qualifying shares to another, including a transferring shareholder, if the director retains beneficial ownership and legal control over the shares.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Execution of proxy.</I> A director may execute a revocable or irrevocable proxy authorizing another, including a transferring shareholder, to vote his or her qualifying shares, provided the director retains beneficial ownership and legal control over the shares.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying ownership.</I> The following are not shares held by a director in his or her own right: 
</P>
<P>(1) Shares pledged by the holder to secure a loan. However, all or part of the funds used to purchase the required qualifying equity interest may be borrowed from any party, including the bank or its affiliates; 
</P>
<P>(2) Shares purchased subject to an absolute option vested in the seller to repurchase the shares within a specified period; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Shares deposited in a voting trust where the depositor surrenders: 
</P>
<P>(i) Legal ownership (depositor ceases to be registered owner of the stock); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Power to vote the stock or to direct how it must be voted; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Power to transfer legal title to the stock. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60099, Nov. 4, 1999; 85 FR 83734, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2006" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2006   Cumulative voting in election of national bank directors.</HEAD>
<P>When electing national bank directors, a shareholder must have as many votes as the number of directors to be elected multiplied by the number of the shareholder's shares. If permitted by the national bank's articles of association, the shareholder may cast all these votes for one candidate or distribute the votes among as many candidates as the shareholder chooses. If, after the first ballot, subsequent ballots are necessary to elect directors, a shareholder may not vote shares that he or she has already fully cumulated and voted in favor of a successful candidate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22241, Apr. 24, 2008; 85 FR 83734, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2007" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2007   Filling vacancies and increasing board of directors of a national bank other than by shareholder action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Increasing board of directors.</I> If authorized by the national bank's articles of association, between shareholder meetings a majority of the board of directors may increase the number of the bank's directors within the limits specified in 12 U.S.C. 71a. The board of directors may increase the number of directors only by up to two directors, when the number of directors last elected by shareholders was 15 or fewer, and by up to four directors, when the number of directors last elected by shareholders was 16 or more.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vacancies.</I> If a vacancy occurs on the national bank's board of directors, including a vacancy resulting from an increase in the number of directors, the vacancy may be filled by the shareholders, a majority of the board of directors remaining in office, or, if the directors remaining in office constitute fewer than a quorum, by an affirmative vote of a majority of all the directors remaining in office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2008" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2008   Oath of national bank directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administration of the oath.</I> The oath of directors must be administered by:
</P>
<P>(1) A notary public, including one who is a director but not an officer of the national bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any person, including one who is a director but not an officer of the national bank, having an official seal and authorized by the State to administer oaths.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Execution of the oath.</I> Each national bank director must execute either a joint or individual oath at the first meeting of the board of directors that the director attends after the director is appointed or elected. A national bank director must take another oath upon re-election, notwithstanding uninterrupted service. Appropriate sample oaths may be found in the Charter Booklet of the Comptroller's Licensing Manual available at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing and recordkeeping.</I> A national bank must file the original executed oaths of directors with the appropriate OCC licensing office, as defined in 12 CFR 5.3, and retain a copy in the bank's records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60099, Nov. 4, 1999; 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 80470, Dec. 11, 2020; 85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2009" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2009   Quorum of a national bank board of directors; proxies not permissible.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank must provide in its articles of association or bylaws that for the transaction of business, a quorum of the board of directors is at least a majority of the entire board then in office. A national bank director may not vote by proxy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2010" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2010   National bank directors' responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>The business and affairs of a national bank must be managed by or under the direction of the board of directors. The board of directors should refer to OCC published guidance for additional information regarding responsibilities of directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2011" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2011   National bank compensation plans.</HEAD>
<P>Consistent with safe and sound banking practices and the compensation provisions of 12 CFR part 30, a national bank may adopt compensation plans, including, among others, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bonus and profit-sharing plans.</I> A national bank may adopt a bonus or profit-sharing plan designed to ensure adequate remuneration of bank officers and employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pension plans.</I> A national bank may provide employee pension plans and make reasonable contributions to the cost of the pension plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee stock option and stock purchase plans.</I> A national bank may provide employee stock option and stock purchase plans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2012" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2012   President as director of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 76, the person serving as, or in the function of, president of a national bank, regardless of title, must be a member of the board of directors. A director other than the person serving as, or in the function of, president may be elected chairman of the board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2013" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2013   Fidelity bonds covering national bank officers and employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adequate coverage.</I> All officers and employees of a national bank or Federal savings association must have adequate fidelity bond coverage. The failure of directors to require bonds with adequate sureties and in sufficient amount may make the directors liable for any losses that the bank or savings association sustains because of the absence of such bonds. Directors should not serve as sureties on such bonds. Directors should consider whether agents who have access to assets of the bank or savings association should also have fidelity bond coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors.</I> The board of directors of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a committee thereof, must determine the amount of such coverage, premised upon a consideration of factors, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal auditing safeguards employed;
</P>
<P>(2) Number of employees;
</P>
<P>(3) Amount of deposit liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(4) Amount of cash and securities normally held by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2014" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2014   Indemnification of national bank and Federal savings association institution-affiliated parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Indemnification under State law.</I> Subject to the limitations of paragraph (b) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may indemnify an institution-affiliated party for damages and expenses, including the advancement of expenses and legal fees, in accordance with the law of the State the bank or savings association has designated for its corporate governance pursuant to § 7.2000(b) (for national banks), 12 CFR 5.21(j)(3)(ii) (for Federal mutual savings associations), or 12 CFR 5.22(j)(2)(ii) (for Federal stock savings associations), provided such payments are consistent with safe and sound banking practices. The term “institution-affiliated party” has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 1813(u).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative proceedings or civil actions initiated by Federal banking agencies.</I> With respect to an administrative proceeding or civil action initiated by any Federal banking agency, a national bank or Federal savings association may only make or agree to make indemnification payments to an institution-affiliated party that are reasonable and consistent with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1828(k) and 12 CFR chapter III.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written agreement required for advancement.</I> Before advancing funds to an institutional-affiliated party under this section, a national bank or Federal savings association must obtain a written agreement that the institution-affiliated party will reimburse the bank or savings association, as appropriate, for any portion of that indemnification that the institution-affiliated party is ultimately found not to be entitled to under 12 U.S.C. 1828(k) and 12 CFR chapter III, except to the extent that the bank's or savings association's expenses have been reimbursed by an insurance policy or fidelity bond.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance premiums.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may provide for the payment of reasonable premiums for insurance covering the expenses, legal fees, and liability of institution-affiliated parties to the extent that the expenses, fees, or liability could be indemnified under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2015" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2015   National bank cashier.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank's bylaws, board of directors, or a duly designated officer may assign some or all of the duties previously performed by the bank's cashier to its president, chief executive officer, or any other officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2016" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2016   Restricting transfer of national bank stock and record dates; stock certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restricting transfer of stock and record dates</I>—(1) <I>Conditions for stock transfer.</I> Under 12 U.S.C. 52, a national bank may impose conditions upon the transfer of its stock reasonably calculated to simplify the work of the bank with respect to stock transfers, voting at shareholders' meetings, and related matters and to protect it against fraudulent transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Record dates.</I> A national bank may close its stock records for a reasonable period to ascertain shareholders for voting purposes. The board of directors may fix a record date for determining the shareholders entitled to notice of, and to vote at, any meeting of shareholders. The record date should be in reasonable proximity to the date that notice is given to the shareholders of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank stock certificates.</I> (1) A national bank may prescribe the manner in which its stock must be transferred in its bylaws or articles of association. A bank issuing stock in certificated form must comply with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 52, including as to:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and location of the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the holder of record of the stock represented thereby;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and class of shares which the certificate represents;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the bank issues more than one class of stock, the respective rights, preferences, privileges, voting rights, powers, restrictions, limitations, and qualifications of each class of stock issued (unless incorporated by reference to the articles of association);
</P>
<P>(v) Signatures of the president and cashier of the bank, or such other officers as the bylaws of the bank provide; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The seal of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section may be met through the use of electronic means or by facsimile.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83735, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2019" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2019   Loans secured by a national bank's own shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted agreements, relating to bank shares.</I> A national bank may require a borrower holding shares of the bank to execute agreements:
</P>
<P>(1) Not to pledge, give away, transfer, or otherwise assign such shares;
</P>
<P>(2) To pledge such shares at the request of the bank when necessary to prevent loss; and
</P>
<P>(3) To leave such shares in the bank's custody.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of capital notes and debentures.</I> A national bank may not make loans secured by a pledge of the bank's own capital notes and debentures. Such notes and debentures must be subordinated to the claims of depositors and other creditors of the issuing bank, and are, therefore, capital instruments within the purview of 12 U.S.C. 83.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2021" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2021   National bank preemptive rights.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank in its articles of association must grant or deny preemptive rights to the bank's shareholders. Any amendment to a national bank's articles of association which modifies such preemptive rights must be approved by a vote of the holders of two-thirds of the bank's outstanding voting shares. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2022" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2022   National bank voting trusts.</HEAD>
<P>The shareholders of a national bank may establish a voting trust under the applicable law of a State selected by the participants and designated in the trust agreement, provided the implementation of the trust is consistent with safe and sound banking practices. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 83736, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2023" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2023   National bank reverse stock splits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to engage in reverse stock splits.</I> A national bank may engage in a reverse stock split if the transaction serves a legitimate corporate purpose and provides adequate dissenting shareholders' rights.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Legitimate corporate purpose.</I> Examples of legitimate corporate purposes include a reverse stock split to:
</P>
<P>(1) Reduce the number of shareholders in order to qualify as a Subchapter S corporation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reduce costs associated with shareholder communications and meetings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 60099, Nov. 4, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2024" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2024   Staggered terms for national bank directors and size of bank board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staggered terms.</I> Any national bank may adopt bylaws that provide for staggering the terms of its directors. National banks must provide the OCC with copies of any bylaws so amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum term.</I> Any national bank director may hold office for a term that does not exceed three years. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Number of directors.</I> A national bank's board of directors must consist of no fewer than 5 and no more than 25 members. A national bank may, after notice to the OCC, increase the size of its board of directors above the 25 member limit. A national bank seeking to increase the number of its directors must notify the OCC any time the proposed size would exceed 25 directors. The bank's notice must specify the reason(s) for the increase in the size of the board of directors beyond the statutory limit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended at 85 FR 83736, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.2025" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.2.24.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.2025   Capital stock-related activities of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank must obtain the necessary shareholder approval required by 12 U.S.C. 51a, 57, or 59 for any change in its permanent capital. An increase or decrease in the amount of a national bank's common or preferred stock is a change in permanent capital subject to the notice and approval requirements of 12 CFR 5.46 and applicable law. A national bank may obtain the required shareholder approval of changes in permanent capital, as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of previously approved and authorized common stock.</I> In compliance with 12 U.S.C. 57, a national bank may issue common stock up to an amount previously approved and authorized in the national bank's articles of association by holders of two-thirds of the national bank's shares without obtaining additional shareholder approval for each subsequent issuance within the authorized amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance, repurchase, and redemption of preferred stock pursuant to certain procedures.</I> Subject to the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 51a and 59, a national bank may adopt procedures to authorize the board of directors to issue, determine the terms of, repurchase, and redeem one or more series of preferred stock, if permitted by the corporate governance provisions adopted by the bank under § 7.2000. To satisfy the shareholder approval requirements of 12 U.S.C. 51a and 59, the adoption of such procedures must be approved by shareholders in advance through an amendment to the national bank's articles of association. Any amendment to a national bank's articles of association that authorizes both the issuance and the repurchase and redemption of shares must be approved by holders of two-thirds of the national bank's shares.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Share repurchase programs.</I> Subject to the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 59, a national bank may establish a program for the repurchase, from time to time, of the national bank's common or preferred stock, if permitted by the corporate governance provisions adopted by the bank under § 7.2000. To satisfy the shareholder approval requirement of 12 U.S.C. 59, the repurchase program must be approved in advance by the holders of two-thirds of the national bank's shares, including through an amendment to the national bank's articles of association that authorizes the board of directors to repurchase the national bank's common or preferred stock from time to time under board-determined parameters that can limit the frequency, type, aggregate limit, or purchase price of repurchases.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preferred Stock Features.</I> A national bank's preferred stock may be cumulative or non-cumulative and may or may not have voting rights on one or more series.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83736, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—National Bank and Federal Savings Association Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3000" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.3.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3000   National bank and Federal savings association operating hours and closings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operating hours.</I> The board of directors of a national bank or Federal savings association, or an equivalent person or committee of a Federal branch or agency, should review its hours of operations for customers and, independently of any other bank, savings association, or Federal branch or agency, take appropriate action to establish a schedule of operating hours for customers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency closings declared by the Comptroller.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 95(b)(1) and 1463(a)(1)(A), the Comptroller of the Currency (Comptroller), may declare any day a legal holiday if emergency conditions exist. That day is a legal holiday for national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches or agencies in the affected geographic area (<I>i.e.,</I> throughout the United States, in a State, or in part of a State), and national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches and agencies may temporarily limit or suspend operations at their affected offices, unless the Comptroller by written order directs otherwise. Emergency conditions may be caused by acts of nature or of man and may include natural and other disasters, public health or safety emergencies, civil and municipal emergencies, and cyber threats or other unauthorized intrusions (<I>e.g.,</I> severe flooding, a pandemic, terrorism, a cyber-attack on bank systems, or a power emergency declared by a local power company or government requesting that businesses in the affected area close). The Comptroller may issue a proclamation authorizing the emergency closing in anticipation of the emergency condition, at the time of the emergency condition, or soon thereafter. In the absence of a Comptroller declaration of a bank holiday, a national bank, Federal savings associations, or Federal branch or agency may choose to temporarily close offices in response to an emergency condition. The national bank, Federal savings associations, or Federal branch or agency should notify the OCC of such temporary closure as soon as feasible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Emergency and ceremonial closings declared by a State or State official.</I> In the event a State or a legally authorized State official declares any day to be a legal holiday for emergency or ceremonial reasons in that State or part of the State, that same day is a legal holiday for national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches or agencies or their offices in the affected geographic area. National banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches or agencies or their affected offices may close their affected offices or remain open on such a State-designated holiday, unless the Comptroller by written order directs otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Liability.</I> A national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency should assure that all liabilities or other obligations under the applicable law due to its closing are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definition.</I> For the purpose of this subpart, the term “State” means any of the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, or any other territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83736, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.3001" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.3.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.3001   Sharing national bank or Federal association space and employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sharing space.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with § 7.1024, lease excess space on national bank or Federal savings association premises to one or more other businesses (including other financial institutions);
</P>
<P>(2) Share space jointly held with one or more other businesses; or
</P>
<P>(3) Offer its services in space owned by or leased to other businesses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sharing employees.</I> When sharing space with other businesses as described in paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may provide, under one or more written agreements between the national bank or Federal savings association, the other businesses, and their employees, that:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or Federal savings association employee may act as agent for the other business; or
</P>
<P>(2) An employee of the other business may act as agent for the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory conditions.</I> When a national bank or Federal savings association engages in arrangements of the types listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The other business is conspicuously, accurately, and separately identified;
</P>
<P>(2) Shared employees clearly and fully disclose the nature of their agency relationship to customers of the national bank or Federal savings association and of the other businesses so that customers will know the identity of the national bank, Federal savings association, or other business that is providing the product or service;
</P>
<P>(3) The arrangement does not constitute a joint venture or partnership with the other business under applicable State law;
</P>
<P>(4) All aspects of the relationship between the national bank or Federal savings association and the other business are conducted at arm's length, unless a special arrangement is warranted because the other business is a subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(5) Security issues arising from the activities of the other business on the premises are addressed;
</P>
<P>(6) The activities of the other business do not adversely affect the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(7) The shared employees or the entity for which they perform services are duly licensed or meet qualification requirements of applicable statutes and regulations pertaining to agents or employees of such other business; and
</P>
<P>(8) The assets and records of the parties are segregated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other legal requirements.</I> When entering into arrangements of the types described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and in conducting operations pursuant to those arrangements, a national bank or Federal savings association must ensure that each arrangement complies with all applicable laws and regulations. If the arrangement involves an affiliate or a shareholder, director, officer or employee of the national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must ensure compliance with all applicable statutory and regulatory provisions governing national bank or Federal savings association transactions with these persons or entities;
</P>
<P>(2) The parties must comply with all applicable fiduciary duties; and
</P>
<P>(3) The parties, if they are in competition with each other, must consider limitations, if any, imposed by applicable antitrust laws.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transition.</I> If, on May 18, 2015, a Federal savings association shares space or employees with another business under an agreement that complies with the legal requirements that were in effect prior to May 18, 2015, but which would violate any provision of this section, the Federal savings association may continue sharing under the existing agreement but it may not amend, renew, or extend the agreement without prior approval of the appropriate OCC supervisory office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28471, May 18, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 83737, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Preemption</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4000" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4000   Visitorial powers with respect to national banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) Under 12 U.S.C. 484, only the OCC or an authorized representative of the OCC may exercise visitorial powers with respect to national banks. State officials may not exercise visitorial powers with respect to national banks, such as conducting examinations, inspecting or requiring the production of books or records of national banks, or prosecuting enforcement actions, except in limited circumstances authorized by federal law. However, production of a bank's records (other than non-public OCC information under 12 CFR part 4, subpart C) may be required under normal judicial procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, visitorial powers include:
</P>
<P>(i) Examination of a bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspection of a bank's books and records;
</P>
<P>(iii) Regulation and supervision of activities authorized or permitted pursuant to federal banking law; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Enforcing compliance with any applicable Federal or state laws concerning those activities, including through investigations that seek to ascertain compliance through production of non-public information by the bank, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless otherwise provided by Federal law, the OCC has exclusive visitorial authority with respect to the content and conduct of activities authorized for national banks under Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion.</I> In accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Cuomo</I> v. <I>Clearing House Assn., L. L. C.,</I> 129 S. Ct. 2710 (2009), an action against a national bank in a court of appropriate jurisdiction brought by a state attorney general (or other chief law enforcement officer) to enforce an applicable law against a national bank and to seek relief as authorized by such law is not an exercise of visitorial powers under 12 U.S.C. 484.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to the general rule.</I> Under 12 U.S.C. 484, the OCC's exclusive visitorial powers are subject to the following exceptions: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exceptions authorized by Federal law.</I> National banks are subject to such visitorial powers as are provided by Federal law. Examples of laws vesting visitorial power in other governmental entities include laws authorizing state or other Federal officials to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Inspect the list of shareholders, provided that the official is authorized to assess taxes under state authority (12 U.S.C. 62; this section also authorizes inspection of the shareholder list by shareholders and creditors of a national bank); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Review, at reasonable times and upon reasonable notice to a bank, the bank's records solely to ensure compliance with applicable state unclaimed property or escheat laws upon reasonable cause to believe that the bank has failed to comply with those laws (12 U.S.C. 484(b)); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Verify payroll records for unemployment compensation purposes (26 U.S.C. 3305(c)); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Ascertain the correctness of Federal tax returns (26 U.S.C. 7602); 
</P>
<P>(v) Enforce the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 211); and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Functionally regulate certain activities, as provided under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, Pub. L. 106-102, 113 Stat. 1338 (Nov. 12, 1999). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for courts of justice.</I> National banks are subject to such visitorial powers as are vested in the courts of justice. This exception pertains to the powers inherent in the judiciary. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for Congress.</I> National banks are subject to such visitorial powers as shall be, or have been, exercised or directed by Congress or by either House thereof or by any committee of Congress or of either House duly authorized. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report of examination.</I> The report of examination made by an OCC examiner is designated solely for use in the supervision of the bank. The bank's copy of the report is the property of the OCC and is loaned to the bank and any holding company thereof solely for its confidential use. The bank's directors, in keeping with their responsibilities both to depositors and to shareholders, should thoroughly review the report. The report may be made available to other persons only in accordance with the rules on disclosure in 12 CFR part 4.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 60100, Nov. 4, 1999; 69 FR 1904, Jan. 13, 2004; 76 FR 43565, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4001" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4001   Charging interest by national banks at rates permitted competing institutions; charging interest to corporate borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The term “interest” as used in 12 U.S.C. 85 includes any payment compensating a creditor or prospective creditor for an extension of credit, making available of a line of credit, or any default or breach by a borrower of a condition upon which credit was extended. It includes, among other things, the following fees connected with credit extension or availability: numerical periodic rates, late fees, creditor-imposed not sufficient funds (NSF) fees charged when a borrower tenders payment on a debt with a check drawn on insufficient funds, overlimit fees, annual fees, cash advance fees, and membership fees. It does not ordinarily include appraisal fees, premiums and commissions attributable to insurance guaranteeing repayment of any extension of credit, finders' fees, fees for document preparation or notarization, or fees incurred to obtain credit reports. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> A national bank located in a state may charge interest at the maximum rate permitted to any state-chartered or licensed lending institution by the law of that state. If state law permits different interest charges on specified classes of loans, a national bank making such loans is subject only to the provisions of state law relating to that class of loans that are material to the determination of the permitted interest. For example, a national bank may lawfully charge the highest rate permitted to be charged by a state-licensed small loan company, without being so licensed, but subject to state law limitations on the size of loans made by small loan companies. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect on state definitions of interest.</I> The Federal definition of the term “interest” in paragraph (a) of this section does not change how interest is defined by the individual states (nor how the state definition of interest is used) solely for purposes of state law. For example, if late fees are not “interest” under state law where a national bank is located but state law permits its most favored lender to charge late fees, then a national bank located in that state may charge late fees to its intrastate customers. The national bank may also charge late fees to its interstate customers because the fees are interest under the Federal definition of interest and an allowable charge under state law where the national bank is located. However, the late fees would not be treated as interest for purposes of evaluating compliance with state usury limitations because state law excludes late fees when calculating the maximum interest that lending institutions may charge under those limitations. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Usury.</I> A national bank located in a state the law of which denies the defense of usury to a corporate borrower may charge a corporate borrower any rate of interest agreed upon by a corporate borrower. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transferred loans.</I> Interest on a loan that is permissible under 12 U.S.C. 85 shall not be affected by the sale, assignment, or other transfer of the loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34791, July 2, 2001; 85 FR 33536, June 2, 2020]
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4002" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4002   National bank non-interest charges and fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Charge</I> means to directly or indirectly, through intermediaries, partners, payment networks, interchanges, or other third parties, assess, collect, impose, levy, receive, reserve, take, or otherwise obtain, including through a fee sharing or similar economic relationship.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to impose charges and fees.</I> A national bank may charge non-interest charges and fees, including deposit account service charges and interchange fees from credit and debit card operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Considerations.</I> (1) Business decisions regarding non-interest charges and fees permitted under this section should be arrived at by each national bank on a competitive basis and not on the basis of any agreement, arrangement, undertaking, understanding, or discussion with other banks or their officers.
</P>
<P>(2) Decisions regarding charging non-interest charges and fees, including their amounts, the method of calculating them, whether to enter into business relationships or lines of business, and whether they are set by or in consultation with third parties, are business decisions to be made by each national bank, in its discretion, according to sound banking judgment and safe and sound banking principles. A national bank establishes non-interest charges and fees in accordance with safe and sound banking principles if it employs a decision-making process through which it considers the following factors, among others:
</P>
<P>(i) The cost incurred by the national bank in providing the service;
</P>
<P>(ii) The deterrence of misuse by customers of banking services;
</P>
<P>(iii) The enhancement of the competitive position of the national bank in accordance with its business plan and marketing strategy;
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of third parties to provide or facilitate the provision of a product or service; and
</P>
<P>(v) The maintenance of the safety and soundness of the national bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interest.</I> Charges and fees that are “interest” within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 85 are governed by § 7.4001 and not by this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State law.</I> The OCC applies preemption principles derived from the United States Constitution, as interpreted through judicial precedent, when determining whether State laws apply that purport to limit or prohibit charges and fees described in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>National bank as fiduciary.</I> This section does not apply to charges imposed by a national bank in its capacity as a fiduciary, which are governed by 12 CFR part 9.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 34791, July 2, 2001, as amended at 91 FR 22995, Apr. 29, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4006" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4006   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4007" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4007   Deposit-taking by national banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of national banks.</I> A national bank may receive deposits and engage in any activity incidental to receiving deposits, including issuing evidence of accounts, subject to such terms, conditions, and limitations prescribed by the Comptroller of the Currency and any other applicable Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of state law.</I> A national bank may exercise its deposit-taking powers without regard to state law limitations concerning: 
</P>
<P>(1) Abandoned and dormant accounts;
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> This does not apply to state laws of the type upheld by the United States Supreme Court in <I>Anderson Nat'l Bank</I> v. <I>Luckett,</I> 321 U.S. 233 (1944), which obligate a national bank to “pay [deposits] to the persons entitled to demand payment according to the law of the state where it does business.” <I>Id.</I> at 248-249.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Checking accounts; 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure requirements; 
</P>
<P>(4) Funds availability; 
</P>
<P>(5) Savings account orders of withdrawal; 
</P>
<P>(6) State licensing or registration requirements (except for purposes of service of process); and 
</P>
<P>(7) Special purpose savings services; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> State laws purporting to regulate national bank fees and charges are addressed in 12 CFR 7.4002.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>State laws that are not preempted.</I> State laws on the following subjects are not inconsistent with the deposit-taking powers of national banks and apply to national banks to the extent consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996): 
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts; 
</P>
<P>(2) Torts; 
</P>
<P>(3) Criminal law; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> But see the distinction drawn by the Supreme Court in <I>Easton</I> v. <I>Iowa,</I> 188 U.S. 220, 238 (1903), where the Court stated that “[u]ndoubtedly a state has the legitimate power to define and punish crimes by general laws applicable to all persons within its jurisdiction * * *. But it is without lawful power to make such special laws applicable to banks organized and operating under the laws of the United States.” <I>Id.</I> at 239 (holding that Federal law governing the operations of national banks preempted a state criminal law prohibiting insolvent banks from accepting deposits).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Rights to collect debts; 
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisition and transfer of property; 
</P>
<P>(6) Taxation; 
</P>
<P>(7) Zoning; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other law that the OCC determines to be applicable to national banks in accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996), or that is made applicable by Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 1916, Jan. 13, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 43565, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4008" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4008   Lending by national banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of national banks.</I> A national bank may make, sell, purchase, participate in, or otherwise deal in loans and interests in loans that are not secured by liens on, or interests in, real estate, subject to such terms, conditions, and limitations prescribed by the Comptroller of the Currency and any other applicable Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for loans.</I> A national bank shall not make a consumer loan subject to this § 7.4008 based predominantly on the bank's realization of the foreclosure or liquidation value of the borrower's collateral, without regard to the borrower's ability to repay the loan according to its terms. A bank may use any reasonable method to determine a borrower's ability to repay, including, for example, the borrower's current and expected income, current and expected cash flows, net worth, other relevant financial resources, current financial obligations, employment status, credit history, or other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unfair and deceptive practices.</I> A national bank shall not engage in unfair or deceptive practices within the meaning of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 45(a)(1), and regulations promulgated thereunder in connection with loans made under this § 7.4008. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability of state law.</I> A national bank may make non-real estate loans without regard to state law limitations concerning: 
</P>
<P>(1) Licensing, registration (except for purposes of service of process), filings, or reports by creditors; 
</P>
<P>(2) The ability of a creditor to require or obtain insurance for collateral or other credit enhancements or risk mitigants, in furtherance of safe and sound banking practices; 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan-to-value ratios; 
</P>
<P>(4) The terms of credit, including the schedule for repayment of principal and interest, amortization of loans, balance, payments due, minimum payments, or term to maturity of the loan, including the circumstances under which a loan may be called due and payable upon the passage of time or a specified event external to the loan; 
</P>
<P>(5) Escrow accounts, impound accounts, and similar accounts; 
</P>
<P>(6) Security property, including leaseholds; 
</P>
<P>(7) Access to, and use of, credit reports; 
</P>
<P>(8) Disclosure and advertising, including laws requiring specific statements, information, or other content to be included in credit application forms, credit solicitations, billing statements, credit contracts, or other credit-related documents; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disbursements and repayments; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Rates of interest on loans. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The limitations on charges that comprise rates of interest on loans by national banks are determined under Federal law. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 85; 12 CFR 7.4001. State laws purporting to regulate national bank fees and charges that do not constitute interest are addressed in 12 CFR 7.4002.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) <I>State laws that are not preempted.</I> State laws on the following subjects are not inconsistent with the non-real estate lending powers of national banks and apply to national banks to the extent consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.,</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996): 
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts; 
</P>
<P>(2) Torts; 
</P>
<P>(3) Criminal law;
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See <I>supra</I> note 5 regarding the distinction drawn by the Supreme Court in <I>Easton</I> v. <I>Iowa,</I> 188 U.S. 220, 238 (1903).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Rights to collect debts; 
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisition and transfer of property; 
</P>
<P>(6) Taxation; 
</P>
<P>(7) Zoning; and 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other law that the OCC determines to be applicable to national banks in accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.,</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996) or that is made applicable by Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 1916, Jan. 13, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 43565, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4009" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4009   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.4010" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.4.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.4010   Applicability of state law and visitorial powers to Federal savings associations and subsidiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 1046 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 25b), Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries shall be subject to the same laws and legal standards, including regulations of the OCC, as are applicable to national banks and their subsidiaries, regarding the preemption of state law.
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with section 1047 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1465), the provisions of section 5136C(i) of the Revised Statutes regarding visitorial powers apply to Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries to the same extent and in the same manner as if they were national banks or national bank subsidiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43566, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—National Bank Electronic Activities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 35004, May 17, 2002, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 7.5000" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5000   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to a national bank's use of technology to deliver services and products consistent with safety and soundness. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5001" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5001   Electronic activities that are incidental to the business of banking.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the electronic activities specifically permitted in § 7.5004 (sale of excess electronic capacity and by-products) and § 7.5006 (incidental non-financial data processing), the OCC has determined that the following electronic activities are incidental to the business of banking, pursuant to § 7.1000. This list of activities is illustrative and not exclusive; the OCC may determine that other activities are permissible pursuant to this authority.
</P>
<P>(a) Website development where incidental to other banking services;
</P>
<P>(b) Internet access and email provided on a non-profit basis as a promotional activity;
</P>
<P>(c) Advisory and consulting services on electronic activities where the services are incidental to customer use of electronic banking services; and
</P>
<P>(d) Sale of equipment that is convenient or useful to customer's use of related electronic banking services, such as specialized terminals for scanning checks that will be deposited electronically by wholesale customers of banks under the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act, Public Law 108-100 (12 U.S.C. 5001-5018) (the Check 21 Act).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 83737, Dec. 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5002" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5002   Furnishing of products and services by electronic means and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of electronic means and facilities.</I> A national bank may perform, provide, or deliver through electronic means and facilities any activity, function, product, or service that it is otherwise authorized to perform, provide, or deliver, subject to § 7.5001(b) and applicable OCC guidance. The following list provides examples of permissible activities under this authority. This list is illustrative and not exclusive; the OCC may determine that other activities are permissible pursuant to this authority. 
</P>
<P>(1) Acting as an electronic finder by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing, registering, and hosting commercially enabled web sites in the name of sellers; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing hyperlinks between the bank's site and a third-party site, including acting as a “virtual mall” by providing a collection of links to web sites of third-party vendors, organized by-product type and made available to bank customers; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hosting an electronic marketplace on the bank's Internet web site by providing links to the web sites of third-party buyers or sellers through the use of hypertext or other similar means; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Hosting on the bank's servers the Internet web site of: 
</P>
<P>(A) A buyer or seller that provides information concerning the hosted party and the products or services offered or sought and allows the submission of interest, bids, offers, orders and confirmations relating to such products or services; or 
</P>
<P>(B) A governmental entity that provides information concerning the services or benefits made available by the governmental entity, assists persons in completing applications to receive such services or benefits and permits persons to transmit their applications for such services or benefits; 
</P>
<P>(v) Operating an Internet web site that permits numerous buyers and sellers to exchange information concerning the products and services that they are willing to purchase or sell, locate potential counter-parties for transactions, aggregate orders for goods or services with those made by other parties, and enter into transactions between themselves; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Operating a telephone call center that provides permissible finder services; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Providing electronic communications services relating to all aspects of transactions between buyers and sellers; 
</P>
<P>(2) Providing electronic bill presentment services; 
</P>
<P>(3) Offering electronic stored value systems; 
</P>
<P>(4) Safekeeping for personal information or valuable confidential trade or business information, such as encryption keys; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Issuing electronic letters of credit within the scope of 12 CFR 7.1016.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of guidance and requirements not affected.</I> When a national bank performs, provides, or delivers through electronic means and facilities an activity, function, product, or service that it is otherwise authorized to perform, provide, or deliver, the electronic activity is not exempt from the regulatory requirements and supervisory guidance that the OCC would apply if the activity were conducted by non-electronic means or facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State laws.</I> As a general rule, and except as provided by Federal law, State law is not applicable to a national bank's conduct of an authorized activity through electronic means or facilities if the State law, as applied to the activity, would be preempted pursuant to traditional principles of Federal preemption derived from the Supremacy Clause of the U.S. Constitution and applicable judicial precedent. Accordingly, State laws that stand as an obstacle to the ability of national banks to exercise uniformly their Federally authorized powers through electronic means or facilities, are not applicable to national banks. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22242, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5003" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5003   Composite authority to engage in electronic activities.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise prohibited by Federal law, a national bank may engage in an electronic activity that is comprised of several component activities if each of the component activities is itself part of or incidental to the business of banking or is otherwise permissible under Federal law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5004" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5004   Sale of excess electronic capacity and by-products.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank may, in order to optimize the use of the bank's resources or avoid economic loss or waste, market and sell to third parties electronic capacities legitimately acquired or developed by the bank for its banking business. 
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to acquired equipment or facilities, legitimate excess electronic capacity that may be sold to others can arise in a variety of situations, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Due to the characteristics of the desired equipment or facilities available in the market, the capacity of the most practical optimal equipment or facilities available to meet the bank's requirements exceeds its present needs; 
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition and retention of additional capacity, beyond present needs, reasonably may be necessary for planned future expansion or to meet the expected future banking needs during the useful life of the equipment; 
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements for capacity fluctuate because a bank engages in batch processing of banking transactions or because a bank must have capacity to meet peak period demand with the result that the bank has periods when its capacity is underutilized; and 
</P>
<P>(4) After the initial acquisition of capacity thought to be fully needed for banking operations, the bank experiences either a decline in level of the banking operations or an increase in the efficiency of the banking operations using that capacity. 
</P>
<P>(c) Types of electronic capacity in equipment or facilities that banks may have legitimately acquired and that may be sold to third parties if excess to the bank's needs for banking purposes include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Data processing services; 
</P>
<P>(2) Production and distribution of non-financial software; 
</P>
<P>(3) Providing periodic back-up call answering services; 
</P>
<P>(4) Providing full Internet access; 
</P>
<P>(5) Providing electronic security system support services; 
</P>
<P>(6) Providing long line communications services; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Electronic imaging and storage. 
</P>
<P>(d) A national bank may sell to third parties electronic by-products legitimately acquired or developed by the bank for its banking business. Examples of electronic by-products that banks may have legitimately acquired that may be sold to third parties if excess to the bank's needs include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Software acquired (not merely licensed) or developed by the bank for banking purposes or to support its banking business; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Electronic databases, records, or media (such as electronic images) developed by the bank for or during the performance of its permissible data processing activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5005" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5005   National bank acting as digital certification authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is part of the business of banking under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) for a national bank to act as a certificate authority and to issue digital certificates verifying the identity of persons associated with a particular public/private key pair. As part of this service, the bank may also maintain a listing or repository of public keys. 
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank may issue digital certificates verifying attributes in addition to identity of persons associated with a particular public/private key pair where the attribute is one for which verification is part of or incidental to the business of banking. For example, national banks may issue digital certificates verifying certain financial attributes of a customer as of the current or a previous date, such as account balance as of a particular date, lines of credit as of a particular date, past financial performance of the customer, and verification of customer relationship with the bank as of a particular date. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a national bank issues a digital certificate relating to financial capacity under this section, the bank shall include in that certificate an express disclaimer stating that the bank does not thereby promise or represent that funds will be available or will be advanced for any particular transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5006" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5006   Data processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible activities.</I> It is part of the business of banking under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) for a national bank to provide data processing, and data transmission services, facilities (including equipment, technology, and personnel), data bases, advice and access to such services, facilities, data bases and advice, for itself and for others, where the data is banking, financial, or economic data, and other types of data if the derivative or resultant product is banking, financial, or economic data. For this purpose, economic data includes anything of value in banking and financial decisions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other data.</I> A national bank also may perform the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section for itself and others with respect to additional types of data to the extent convenient or useful to provide the data processing services described in paragraph (a), including where reasonably necessary to conduct those activities on a competitive basis. The total revenue attributable to the bank's data processing activities under this section must be derived predominantly from processing the activities described in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Software for performance of authorized banking functions.</I> A national bank may produce, market, or sell software that performs services or functions that the bank could perform directly, as part of the business of banking.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4862, Feb. 9, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22242, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5007" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5007   Correspondent services.</HEAD>
<P>It is part of the business of banking for a national bank to offer as a correspondent service to any of its affiliates or to other financial institutions any service it may perform for itself. The following list provides examples of electronic activities that banks may offer correspondents under this authority. This list is illustrative and not exclusive; the OCC may determine that other activities are permissible pursuant to this authority. 
</P>
<P>(a) The provision of computer networking packages and related hardware; 
</P>
<P>(b) Data processing services; 
</P>
<P>(c) The sale of software that performs data processing functions; 
</P>
<P>(d) The development, operation, management, and marketing of products and processing services for transactions conducted at electronic terminal devices; 
</P>
<P>(e) Item processing services and related software; 
</P>
<P>(f) Document control and record keeping through the use of electronic imaging technology; 
</P>
<P>(g) The provision of Internet merchant hosting services for resale to merchant customers; 
</P>
<P>(h) The provision of communication support services through electronic means; and 
</P>
<P>(i) Digital certification authority services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5008" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5008   Location of a national bank conducting electronic activities.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank shall not be considered located in a State solely because it physically maintains technology, such as a server or automated loan center, in that state, or because the bank's products or services are accessed through electronic means by customers located in the state. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5009" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5009   Location under 12 U.S.C. 85 of national banks operating exclusively through the Internet.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 85, the main office of a national bank that operates exclusively through the Internet is the office identified by the bank under 12 U.S.C. 22(Second) or as relocated under 12 U.S.C. 30 or other appropriate authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 7.5010" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.7.5.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 7.5010   Shared electronic space.</HEAD>
<P>National banks that share electronic space, including a co-branded web site, with a bank subsidiary, affiliate, or another third-party must take reasonable steps to clearly, conspicuously, and understandably distinguish between products and services offered by the bank and those offered by the bank's subsidiary, affiliate, or the third-party.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 8—ASSESSMENT OF FEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 16, 93a, 481, 482, 1467, 1831c, 1867, 3102, 3108, and 5412(b)(2)(B); and 15 U.S.C. 78c and 78<I>l.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 20065, Apr. 4, 1979, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 8.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8.0.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.1   Scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>The assessments contained in this part are made pursuant to the authority contained in 12 U.S.C. 16, 93a, 481, 482, 1467, 1831c, 1867, 3102, and 3108; and 15 U.S.C. 78c and 78<I>l.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43566, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8.0.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.2   Semiannual assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each national bank and each Federal savings association shall pay to the OCC a semiannual assessment fee, due by March 31 and September 30 of each year, for the six-month period beginning on January 1 and July 1 before each payment date. The OCC will calculate the amount due under this section and provide a notice of assessments to each national bank and each Federal savings association no later than 7 business days prior to collection on March 31 and September 30 of each year. In setting assessments, the OCC may take into account the nature and scope of the activities of a national bank or Federal savings association, the amount and type of assets that the entity holds, the financial and managerial condition of the entity, and any other factor the OCC determines is appropriate, as provided by 12 U.S.C. 16. The semiannual assessment will be calculated as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)</E>


</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">If the national bank's or Federal savings association's total assets (consolidated domestic and foreign subsidiaries) are:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">The semiannual assessment is:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Over— 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">But not over— 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">This amount—base amount 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Plus marginal rates 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Of excess over— 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Column A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column B</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Column E 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Million 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(dollars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(dollars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(dollars)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(dollars)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">250,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">X11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Y10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">250,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(1) Every national bank and every Federal savings association falls into one of the asset-size brackets denoted by Columns A and B. A national bank's or Federal savings association's semiannual assessment is composed of two parts. The first part is the calculation of a base amount of the assessment, which is computed on the assets of the national bank or Federal savings association up to the lower endpoint (Column A) of the bracket in which it falls. This base amount of the assessment is calculated by the OCC in Column C.
</P>
<P>(2) The second part is the calculation of assessments due on the remaining assets of the national bank or Federal savings association in excess of Column E. The excess is assessed at the marginal rate shown in Column D.
</P>
<P>(3) The total semiannual assessment is the amount in Column C, plus the amount of the national bank's or Federal savings association's assets in excess of Column E times the marginal rate in Column D:
</P>
<FP-2>Assessments = C + [(Assets − E) × D].
</FP-2>
<P>(4) Each year, the OCC may index the marginal rates in Column D to adjust for the percent change in the level of prices, as measured by changes in the Gross Domestic Product Implicit Price Deflator (GDPIPD) for each June-to-June period. The OCC may at its discretion adjust marginal rates by amounts other than the percentage change in the GDPIPD. The OCC will also adjust the amounts in Column C to reflect any change made to the marginal rate.
</P>
<P>(5)(i) The specific marginal rates and complete assessment schedule will be published in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments,” provided for at § 8.8. Each semiannual assessment is based upon the total assets shown in the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent “Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income” (Call Report) preceding the payment date. Each national bank or Federal savings association subject to the jurisdiction of the OCC on the date of the second or fourth quarterly Call Report as appropriate, required by the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 161 and 12 U.S.C. 1464(v), is subject to the full assessment for the next six-month period. National banks and Federal savings associations that are no longer subject to the jurisdiction of the OCC as of the date of the first or third quarterly Call Report, as appropriate, will receive a refund of assessments for the second three months of the semiannual assessment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the OCC may reduce the semiannual assessment for each non-lead national bank or non-lead Federal savings association by a percentage that it will specify in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” described in § 8.8.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(6):
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Lead national bank</I> or <I>lead Federal savings association</I> means the largest national bank or Federal savings association controlled by a company, based on a comparison of the total assets held by each national bank or Federal savings association controlled by that company as reported in each national bank's or Federal savings association's Call Report filed for the quarter immediately preceding the payment of a semiannual assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Non-lead national bank</I> or <I>non-lead Federal savings association</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that is not the lead national bank or lead Federal savings association controlled by a company that controls two or more national banks or Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Control</I> and <I>company</I> with respect to national banks have the same meanings as these terms have in sections 2(a)(2) and 2(b), respectively, of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2) and (b)).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Control</I> and <I>company</I> with respect to Federal savings associations have the same meanings as these terms have in section 10(a) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Each Federal branch and each Federal agency shall pay to the OCC a semiannual assessment fee, due by March 31 and September 30 of each year, for the six-month period beginning on January 1 and July 1 before each payment date. The OCC will calculate the amount due under this section and provide a notice of assessments to each Federal branch and agency no later than 7 business days prior to March 31 and September 30 of each year.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of the semiannual assessment paid by each Federal branch and Federal agency shall be computed at the same rate as provided in the Table in 12 CFR 8.2(a); however, only the total domestic assets of the Federal branch or agency shall be subject to assessment.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Each semiannual assessment of each Federal branch and each agency is based upon the total assets shown in the Federal branch's or agency's Call Report most recently preceding the payment date. Each Federal branch or agency subject to the jurisdiction of the OCC on the date of the second and fourth Call Reports is subject to the full assessment for the next six-month period. Federal branches and agencies that are no longer subject to the jurisdiction of the OCC as of the date of the first or third quarterly Call Report, as appropriate, will receive a refund of assessments for the second three months of the semiannual assessment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the OCC may reduce the semiannual assessment for each non-lead Federal branch and agency by an amount that it will specify in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” described in § 8.8.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4):
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Lead Federal branch or agency</I> means the largest Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank, based on a comparison of the total assets held by each Federal branch or agency of that foreign bank as reported in each Federal branch's or agency's Call Report filed for the quarter immediately preceding the payment of a semiannual assessment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Non-lead Federal branch or agency</I> means a Federal branch or agency that is not the lead Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank that controls two or more Federal branches or agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional assessment for independent credit card national banks and independent credit card Federal savings associations</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> In addition to the assessment calculated according to paragraph (a) of this section, each independent credit card national bank and independent credit card Federal savings association will pay an assessment based on receivables attributable to credit card accounts owned by the national bank or Federal savings association. This assessment will be computed by adding to its asset-based assessment an additional amount determined by its level of receivables attributable. The dollar amount of the additional assessment will be published in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments,” described at § 8.8.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independent credit card national banks and independent credit card Federal savings associations affiliated with full-service national banks or Federal savings associations.</I> The OCC will assess an independent credit card national bank and an independent credit card Federal savings association in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, notwithstanding that the national bank or Federal savings association is affiliated with a full-service national bank or full-service Federal savings association, if the OCC concludes that the affiliation is intended to evade this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Affiliate,</I> with respect to national banks, has the same meaning as this term has in 12 U.S.C. 221a(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliate,</I> with respect to Federal savings associations, has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1462(9).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Engaged primarily in card operations</I> means a bank described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(F)) or a national bank or a Federal savings association whose ratio of total gross receivables attributable to the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet assets exceeds 50%.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Full-service national bank</I> is a national bank that generates more than 50% of its interest and non-interest income from activities other than credit card operations or trust activities and is authorized according to its charter to engage in all types of permissible banking activities.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Full-service Federal savings association</I> is a Federal savings association that generates more than 50% of its interest and non-interest income from activities other than credit card operations or trust activities and is authorized according to its charter to engage in all types of activities permissible for Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Independent credit card national bank</I> is a national bank that engages primarily in credit card operations and is not affiliated with a full-service national bank.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Independent credit card Federal savings association</I> is a Federal savings association that engages primarily in credit card operations and is not affiliated with a full-service Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Receivables attributable</I> is the total amount of outstanding balances due on credit card accounts owned by an independent credit card national bank or an independent credit card Federal savings association (the receivables attributable to those accounts) on the last day of the assessment period, minus receivables retained on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet as of that day.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reports of receivables attributable.</I> Independent credit card national banks and independent credit card Federal savings associations will report receivables attributable data to the OCC semiannually at a time specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Surcharge based on the condition of the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency.</I> Subject to any limit that the OCC prescribes in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments,” the OCC shall apply a surcharge to the semiannual assessment computed in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. This surcharge will be determined by multiplying the semiannual assessment computed in accordance with paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section by—
</P>
<P>(1) 1.5, in the case of any national bank or Federal savings association that receives a composite rating of 3 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS) and any Federal branch or agency that receives a composite rating of 3 under the ROCA rating system (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) at its most recent examination prior to December 31 or June 30, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(2) 2.0, in the case of any national bank or Federal savings association that receives a composite UFIRS rating of 4 or 5 and any Federal branch or agency that receives a composite rating of 4 or 5 under the ROCA rating system at its most recent examination prior to December 31 or June 30, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43566, July 21, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 38772, July 9, 2014; 84 FR 43478, Aug. 21, 2019; 85 FR 37734, June 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8.0.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.6   Fees for special examinations and investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees.</I> The OCC may assess a fee for:
</P>
<P>(1) Examining the fiduciary activities of national banks, Federal branches of foreign banks, and Federal savings associations and related entities;
</P>
<P>(2) Conducting special examinations and investigations of national banks, Federal branches or agencies of foreign banks, and Federal savings associations;
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting special examinations and investigations of an entity with respect to its performance of activities described in section 7(c) of the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1867(c)) if the OCC determines that assessment of the fee is warranted with regard to a particular national bank, Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank, or Federal savings association because of the high risk or unusual nature of the activities performed; the significance to the national bank's, Federal branch's or agency's, or Federal saving association's operations and income of the activities performed; or the extent to which the national bank, Federal branch or agency, or Federal savings association has sufficient systems, controls, and personnel to adequately monitor, measure, and control risks arising from such activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Conducting special examinations and investigations of affiliates of national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches or agencies of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(5) Conducting examinations and investigations made pursuant to 12 CFR part 5, Rules, Policies, and Procedures for Corporate Activities; and
</P>
<P>(6) Conducting examinations of depository-institution permissible activities of nondepository institution subsidiaries of depository institution holding companies pursuant to section 605(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1831c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments.</I> The OCC publishes the fee schedule for fiduciary activities, special examinations and investigations, examinations of affiliates and examinations related to corporate activities in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” described in § 8.8.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional assessments on trust national banks and trust Federal savings associations</I>—(1) <I>Independent trust national banks and independent trust Federal savings associations.</I> The assessment of independent trust national banks and independent trust Federal savings associations will include a fiduciary and related asset component, in addition to the assessment calculated according to § 8.2 of this part, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Minimum fee.</I> All independent trust national banks and independent trust Federal savings associations will pay a minimum fee, to be provided in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional amount for independent trust national banks and independent trust Federal savings associations with fiduciary and related assets in excess of $1 billion.</I> Independent trust national banks and independent trust Federal savings associations with fiduciary and related assets in excess of $1 billion will pay an amount that exceeds the minimum fee. The amount to be paid will be calculated by multiplying the amount of fiduciary and related assets by a rate or rates provided by the OCC in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Surcharge based on the condition of the independent trust national bank or of the independent trust Federal savings association.</I> Subject to any limit that the OCC prescribes in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments,” the OCC shall adjust the semiannual assessment computed in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section by multiplying that figure by 1.5 for each independent trust national bank and independent trust Federal savings association that receives a composite UFIRS rating of 3 at its most recent examination prior to December 31 or June 30, as appropriate, and by 2.0 for each independent trust national bank and independent trust Federal savings association that receives a composite UFIRS rating of 4 or 5 at such examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trust national banks affiliated with full-service national banks and trust Federal savings associations affiliated with full-service Federal savings associations.</I> The OCC will assess a trust national bank and a trust Federal savings association in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, notwithstanding that the national bank is affiliated with a full-service national bank, or that the Federal savings association is affiliated with a full-service Federal savings association, if the OCC concludes that the affiliation is intended to evade the assessment regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Affiliate,</I> with respect to a national bank, has the same meaning as this term has in 12 U.S.C. 221a(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliate,</I> with respect to Federal savings associations, has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1462(9).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Full-service national bank</I> is a national bank that generates more than 50% of its interest and non-interest income from activities other than credit card operations or trust activities and is authorized according to its charter to engage in all types of permissible banking activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Full-service Federal savings association</I> is a Federal savings association that generates more than 50% of its interest and non-interest income from activities other than credit card operations or trust activities and is authorized according to its charter to engage in all types of activities permissible for Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Independent trust national bank</I> is a national bank that has trust powers, does not primarily offer full-service banking, and is not affiliated with a full-service national bank;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Independent trust Federal savings association</I> is a Federal savings association that has trust powers, does not primarily offer full-service banking, and is not affiliated with a full-service Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Fiduciary and related assets</I> are those assets reported on Schedule RC-T of FFIEC Forms 031 and 041, Line 10 (columns A and B) and Line 11 (column B), any successor form issued by the FFIEC, and any other fiduciary and related assets defined in the “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments.” 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43568, July 21, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 43568, July 7, 2011; 82 FR 8104, Jan. 23, 2017; 84 FR 43479, Aug. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8.0.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.7   Payment of interest on delinquent assessments and examination and investigation fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each national bank, Federal savings association, Federal branch, and Federal agency shall pay to the OCC interest on its delinquent payments of semiannual assessments. In addition, each institution subject to a special examination or investigation fee shall pay to the OCC interest on its delinquent payments of special examination and investigation fees. Semiannual assessment payments will be considered delinquent if they are received after the time for payment specified in § 8.2. Special examination and investigation fees will be considered delinquent if not received by the OCC within 30 calendar days of the invoice date.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that an institution believes that the notice of assessments or special examination and investigation fees contains an error or miscalculation, the institution may provide the OCC with a written request for a revised notice and a refund of any overpayments. Any such request for a revised notice and refund must be made after timely payment of the semiannual assessment under the dates specified in § 8.2 or timely payment of the special examination and investigation fee within 30 calendar days of the invoice date.
</P>
<P>(1) Within 30 calendar days of receipt of such request, the OCC shall either—
</P>
<P>(i) Refund the amount of the overpayment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide notice of its unwillingness to accept the request for a revised notice of assessments. In the latter instance, the OCC and the entity claiming the overpayment shall thereafter attempt to reach agreement on the amount, if any, to be refunded; the OCC shall refund this amount within 30 calendar days of such agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC shall be considered delinquent if it fails to return an overpayment in accordance with the time limitations specified in this paragraph (b). The OCC shall pay interest on any such delinquent payments.
</P>
<P>(c) Interest on delinquent payments, as described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, will be assessed beginning the first calendar day on which payment is considered delinquent, and on each calendar day thereafter up to and including the day payment is received. Interest will be simple interest, calculated for each day payment is delinquent by multiplying the daily equivalent of the applicable interest rate by the amount delinquent. The rate of interest will be the United States Treasury Department's current value of funds rate (the “TFRM rate”); that rate is issued under the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual and is published quarterly in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The interest rates applicable to a delinquent payment will be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For delinquent days occurring from January 1 to March 31, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published the preceding December for the first quarter of the ensuing year.
</P>
<P>(2) For delinquent days occurring from April 1 to June 30, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published the preceding March for the second quarter of that year. 
</P>
<P>(3) For delinquent days occurring from July 1 to September 30, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published the preceding June for the third quarter of that year.
</P>
<P>(4) For delinquent days occurring from October 1 to December 31, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published the preceding September for the fourth quarter of that year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 30599, July 1, 1983. Redesignated and amended at 49 FR 50605, Dec. 31, 1984; 70 FR 69643, Nov. 17, 2005; 76 FR 43568, July 21, 2011; 84 FR 43479, Aug. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 8.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.8.0.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 8.8   Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency fees and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>December notice of fees.</I> A “Notice of Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” (Notice of Fees) shall be published no later than the first business day in December of each year for fees to be charged by the OCC during the upcoming year. These fees will be effective January 1 of that upcoming year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interim and amended notice of fees.</I> The OCC may issue a “Notice of Interim Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” or a “Notice of Amended Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Fees and Assessments” from time to time throughout the year as necessary. Interim or amended notices will be effective 30 days after issuance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 38772, July 9, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 43479, Aug. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 9—FIDUCIARY ACTIVITIES OF NATIONAL BANKS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), 92a, and 93a; 15 U.S.C. 78q, 78q-1, and 78w. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) issues this part pursuant to its authority under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), 92a, and 93a, and 15 U.S.C. 78q, 78q-1, and 78w. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to set forth the standards that apply to the fiduciary activities of national banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all national banks that act in a fiduciary capacity, as defined in § 9.2(e). This part also applies to all Federal branches of foreign banks to the same extent as it applies to national banks. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 221a(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable law</I> means the law of a state or other jurisdiction governing a national bank's fiduciary relationships, any applicable Federal law governing those relationships, the terms of the instrument governing a fiduciary relationship, or any court order pertaining to the relationship. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Custodian under a uniform gifts to minors act</I> means a fiduciary relationship established pursuant to a state law substantially similar to the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act or the Uniform Transfers to Minors Act as published by the American Law Institute. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fiduciary account</I> means an account administered by a national bank acting in a fiduciary capacity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fiduciary capacity</I> means: trustee, executor, administrator, registrar of stocks and bonds, transfer agent, guardian, assignee, receiver, or custodian under a uniform gifts to minors act; investment adviser, if the bank receives a fee for its investment advice; any capacity in which the bank possesses investment discretion on behalf of another; or any other similar capacity that the OCC authorizes pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 92a. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fiduciary officers and employees</I> means all officers and employees of a national bank to whom the board of directors or its designee has assigned functions involving the exercise of the bank's fiduciary powers. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fiduciary powers</I> means the authority the OCC permits a national bank to exercise pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 92a.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Guardian</I> means the guardian or conservator, by whatever name used by state law, of the estate of a minor, an incompetent person, an absent person, or a person over whose estate a court has taken jurisdiction, other than under bankruptcy or insolvency laws. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Investment discretion</I> means, with respect to an account, the sole or shared authority (whether or not that authority is exercised) to determine what securities or other assets to purchase or sell on behalf of the account. A bank that delegates its authority over investments and a bank that receives delegated authority over investments are both deemed to have investment discretion. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Trust office</I> means an office of a national bank, other than a main office or a branch, at which the bank engages in one or more of the activities specified in § 9.7(d). Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 36(j), a trust office is not a “branch” for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 36, unless it is also an office at which deposits are received, or checks paid, or money lent. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Trust representative office</I> means an office of a national bank, other than a main office, branch, or trust office, at which the bank performs activities ancillary to its fiduciary business, but does not engage in any of the activities specified in § 9.7(d). Examples of ancillary activities include advertising, marketing, and soliciting for fiduciary business; contacting existing or potential customers, answering questions, and providing information about matters related to their accounts; acting as a liaison between the trust office and the customer (<I>e.g.,</I> forwarding requests for distribution or changes in investment objectives, or forwarding forms and funds received from the customer); inspecting or maintaining custody of fiduciary assets or holding title to real property. This list is illustrative and not comprehensive. Other activities may also be “ancillary activities” for the purposes of this definition. Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 36(j), a trust representative office is not a “branch” for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 36, unless it is also an office at which deposits are received, or checks paid, or money lent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34797, July 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.3   Approval requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank may not exercise fiduciary powers unless it obtains prior approval from the OCC to the extent required under 12 CFR 5.26. 
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank that has obtained the OCC s approval to exercise fiduciary powers is not required to obtain the OCC s prior approval to engage in any of the activities specified in § 9.7(d) in a new state or to conduct, in a new state, activities that are ancillary to its fiduciary business. Instead, the national bank must follow the notice procedures prescribed by 12 CFR 5.26(e). 
</P>
<P>(c) A person seeking approval to organize a special-purpose national bank limited to fiduciary powers shall file an application with the OCC pursuant to 12 CFR 5.20.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34798, July 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.4   Administration of fiduciary powers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the board of directors.</I> A national bank's fiduciary activities shall be managed by or under the direction of its board of directors. In discharging its responsibilities, the board may assign any function related to the exercise of fiduciary powers to any director, officer, employee, or committee thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of other personnel.</I> The national bank may use any qualified personnel and facilities of the bank or its affiliates to perform services related to the exercise of its fiduciary powers, and any department of the bank or its affiliates may use fiduciary officers, employees, and facilities to perform services unrelated to the exercise of fiduciary powers, to the extent not prohibited by applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency agreements.</I> Pursuant to a written agreement, a national bank exercising fiduciary powers may perform services related to the exercise of fiduciary powers for another bank or other entity, and may purchase services related to the exercise of fiduciary powers from another bank or other entity. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bond requirement.</I> A national bank shall ensure that all fiduciary officers and employees are adequately bonded. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.5   Policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank exercising fiduciary powers shall adopt and follow written policies and procedures adequate to maintain its fiduciary activities in compliance with applicable law. Among other relevant matters, the policies and procedures should address, where appropriate, the bank's: 
</P>
<P>(a) Brokerage placement practices; 
</P>
<P>(b) Methods for ensuring that fiduciary officers and employees do not use material inside information in connection with any decision or recommendation to purchase or sell any security; 
</P>
<P>(c) Methods for preventing self-dealing and conflicts of interest; 
</P>
<P>(d) Selection and retention of legal counsel who is readily available to advise the bank and its fiduciary officers and employees on fiduciary matters; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Investment of funds held as fiduciary, including short-term investments and the treatment of fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.6   Review of fiduciary accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-acceptance review.</I> Before accepting a fiduciary account, a national bank shall review the prospective account to determine whether it can properly administer the account. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial post-acceptance review.</I> Upon the acceptance of a fiduciary account for which a national bank has investment discretion, the bank shall conduct a prompt review of all assets of the account to evaluate whether they are appropriate for the account. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual review.</I> At least once during every calendar year, a bank shall conduct a review of all assets of each fiduciary account for which the bank has investment discretion to evaluate whether they are appropriate, individually and collectively, for the account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.7   Multi-state fiduciary operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acting in a fiduciary capacity in more than one state.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 92a and this section, a national bank may act in a fiduciary capacity in any state. If a national bank acts, or proposes to act, in a fiduciary capacity in a particular state, the bank may act in the following specific capacities: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the eight fiduciary capacities expressly listed in 12 U.S.C. 92a(a), unless the state prohibits its own state banks, trust companies, and other corporations that compete with national banks in that state from acting in that capacity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other fiduciary capacity the state permits for its own state banks, trust companies, or other corporations that compete with national banks in that state. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Serving customers in other states.</I> While acting in a fiduciary capacity in one state, a national bank may market its fiduciary services to, and act as fiduciary for, customers located in any state, and it may act as fiduciary for relationships that include property located in other states. The bank may use a trust representative office for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offices in more than one state.</I> A national bank with fiduciary powers may establish trust offices or trust representative offices in any state. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination of the state referred to in 12 U.S.C. 92a.</I> For each fiduciary relationship, the state referred to in section 92a is the state in which the bank acts in a fiduciary capacity for that relationship. A national bank acts in a fiduciary capacity in the state in which it accepts the fiduciary appointment, executes the documents that create the fiduciary relationship, and makes discretionary decisions regarding the investment or distribution of fiduciary assets. If these activities take place in more than one state, then the state in which the bank acts in a fiduciary capacity for section 92a purposes is the state that the bank designates from among those states. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application of state law</I>—(1) <I>State laws used in section 92a.</I> The state laws that apply to a national bank's fiduciary activities by virtue of 12 U.S.C. 92a are the laws of the state in which the bank acts in a fiduciary capacity. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other state laws.</I> Except for the state laws made applicable to national banks by virtue of 12 U.S.C. 92a, state laws limiting or establishing preconditions on the exercise of fiduciary powers are not applicable to national banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 34798, July 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.8   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Documentation of accounts.</I> A national bank shall adequately document the establishment and termination of each fiduciary account and shall maintain adequate records for all fiduciary accounts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of records.</I> A national bank shall retain records described in paragraph (a) of this section for a period of three years from the later of the termination of the account or the termination of any litigation relating to the account. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separation of records.</I> A national bank shall ensure that records described in paragraph (a) of this section are separate and distinct from other records of the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.9   Audit of fiduciary activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual audit.</I> At least once during each calendar year, a national bank shall arrange for a suitable audit (by internal or external auditors) of all significant fiduciary activities, under the direction of its fiduciary audit committee, unless the bank adopts a continuous audit system in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. The bank shall note the results of the audit (including significant actions taken as a result of the audit) in the minutes of the board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuous audit.</I> In lieu of performing annual audits under paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank may adopt a continuous audit system under which the bank arranges for a discrete audit (by internal or external auditors) of each significant fiduciary activity (<I>i.e.,</I> on an activity-by-activity basis), under the direction of its fiduciary audit committee, at an interval commensurate with the nature and risk of that activity. Thus, certain fiduciary activities may receive audits at intervals greater or less than one year, as appropriate. A bank that adopts a continuous audit system shall note the results of all discrete audits performed since the last audit report (including significant actions taken as a result of the audits) in the minutes of the board of directors at least once during each calendar year . 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fiduciary audit committee.</I> A national bank's fiduciary audit committee must consist of a committee of the bank's directors or an audit committee of an affiliate of the bank. However, in either case, the committee: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must not include any officers of the bank or an affiliate who participate significantly in the administration of the bank's fiduciary activities; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Must consist of a majority of members who are not also members of any committee to which the board of directors has delegated power to manage and control the fiduciary activities of the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.10   Fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> With respect to a fiduciary account for which a national bank has investment discretion or discretion over distributions, the bank may not allow funds awaiting investment or distribution to remain uninvested and undistributed any longer than is reasonable for the proper management of the account and consistent with applicable law. With respect to a fiduciary account for which a national bank has investment discretion, the bank shall obtain for funds awaiting investment or distribution a rate of return that is consistent with applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-deposits</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank may deposit funds of a fiduciary account that are awaiting investment or distribution in the commercial, savings, or another department of the bank, unless prohibited by applicable law. To the extent that the funds are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the bank shall set aside collateral as security, under the control of appropriate fiduciary officers and employees, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The market value of the collateral set aside must at all times equal or exceed the amount of the uninsured fiduciary funds. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acceptable collateral.</I> A national bank may satisfy the collateral requirement of paragraph (b)(1) of this section with any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Direct obligations of the United States, or other obligations fully guaranteed by the United States as to principal and interest; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities that qualify as eligible for investment by national banks pursuant to 12 CFR part 1; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Readily marketable securities of the classes in which state banks, trust companies, or other corporations exercising fiduciary powers are permitted to invest fiduciary funds under applicable state law; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Surety bonds, to the extent they provide adequate security, unless prohibited by applicable law; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other assets that qualify under applicable state law as appropriate security for deposits of fiduciary funds. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate deposits.</I> A national bank, acting in its fiduciary capacity, may deposit funds of a fiduciary account that are awaiting investment or distribution with an affiliated insured depository institution, unless prohibited by applicable law. A national bank may set aside collateral as security for a deposit by or with an affiliate of fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution, unless prohibited by applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.11   Investment of fiduciary funds.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank shall invest funds of a fiduciary account in a manner consistent with applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.12   Self-dealing and conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investments for fiduciary accounts</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless authorized by applicable law, a national bank may not invest funds of a fiduciary account for which a national bank has investment discretion in the stock or obligations of, or in assets acquired from: the bank or any of its directors, officers, or employees; affiliates of the bank or any of their directors, officers, or employees; or individuals or organizations with whom there exists an interest that might affect the exercise of the best judgment of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional securities investments.</I> If retention of stock or obligations of the bank or its affiliates in a fiduciary account is consistent with applicable law, the bank may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Exercise rights to purchase additional stock (or securities convertible into additional stock) when offered pro rata to stockholders; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchase fractional shares to complement fractional shares acquired through the exercise of rights or the receipt of a stock dividend resulting in fractional share holdings. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans, sales, or other transfers from fiduciary accounts</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank may not lend, sell, or otherwise transfer assets of a fiduciary account for which a national bank has investment discretion to the bank or any of its directors, officers, or employees, or to affiliates of the bank or any of their directors, officers, or employees, or to individuals or organizations with whom there exists an interest that might affect the exercise of the best judgment of the bank, unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is authorized by applicable law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Legal counsel advises the bank in writing that the bank has incurred, in its fiduciary capacity, a contingent or potential liability, in which case the bank, upon the sale or transfer of assets, shall reimburse the fiduciary account in cash at the greater of book or market value of the assets; 
</P>
<P>(iii) As provided in § 9.18(b)(8)(iii) for defaulted investments; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Required in writing by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans of funds held as trustee.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a national bank may not lend to any of its directors, officers, or employees any funds held in trust, except with respect to employee benefit plans in accordance with the exemptions found in section 408 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1108). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans to fiduciary accounts.</I> A national bank may make a loan to a fiduciary account and may hold a security interest in assets of the account if the transaction is fair to the account and is not prohibited by applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sales between fiduciary accounts.</I> A national bank may sell assets between any of its fiduciary accounts if the transaction is fair to both accounts and is not prohibited by applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loans between fiduciary accounts.</I> A national bank may make a loan between any of its fiduciary accounts if the transaction is fair to both accounts and is not prohibited by applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.13   Custody of fiduciary assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Control of fiduciary assets.</I> A national bank shall place assets of fiduciary accounts in the joint custody or control of not fewer than two of the fiduciary officers or employees designated for that purpose by the board of directors. A national bank may maintain the investments of a fiduciary account off-premises, if consistent with applicable law and if the bank maintains adequate safeguards and controls. A bank that is deemed a fiduciary based solely on its capacity as investment advisor, as that capacity is defined in § 9.101(a), and has no other fiduciary capacity as enumerated in § 9.2(e) is not required to serve as custodian when offering those fiduciary services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separation of fiduciary assets.</I> A national bank shall keep the assets of fiduciary accounts separate from the assets of the bank. A national bank shall keep the assets of each fiduciary account separate from all other accounts or shall identify the investments as the property of a particular account, except as provided in § 9.18. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.14   Deposit of securities with state authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If state law requires corporations acting in a fiduciary capacity to deposit securities with state authorities for the protection of private or court trusts, then before a national bank acts as a private or court-appointed trustee in that state, it shall make a similar deposit with state authorities. If the state authorities refuse to accept the deposit, the bank shall deposit the securities with the Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Home Loan Bank of the district in which the national bank is located, to be held for the protection of private or court trusts to the same extent as if the securities had been deposited with state authorities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acting in a fiduciary capacity in more than one state.</I> If a national bank acts in a fiduciary capacity in more than one state, the bank may compute the amount of securities that are required to be deposited for each state on the basis of the amount of assets for which the bank is acting in a fiduciary capacity at offices located in that state. If state law requires a deposit of securities on a basis other than assets (<I>e.g.,</I> a requirement to deposit a fixed amount or an amount equal to a percentage of capital), the bank may compute the amount of deposit required in that state on a pro-rated basis, according to the proportion of fiduciary assets for which the bank is acting in a fiduciary capacity at offices located in that state.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34798, July 2, 2001; 82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.15   Fiduciary compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compensation of bank.</I> If the amount of a national bank's compensation for acting in a fiduciary capacity is not set or governed by applicable law, the bank may charge a reasonable fee for its services. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation of co-fiduciary officers and employees.</I> A national bank may not permit any officer or employee to retain any compensation for acting as a co-fiduciary with the bank in the administration of a fiduciary account, except with the specific approval of the bank's board of directors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.16   Receivership or voluntary liquidation of bank.</HEAD>
<P>If the OCC appoints a receiver for an uninsured national bank, or if a national bank places itself in voluntary liquidation, the receiver or liquidating agent shall promptly close or transfer to a substitute fiduciary all fiduciary accounts, in accordance with OCC instructions and the orders of the court having jurisdiction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.17   Surrender or revocation of fiduciary powers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Surrender.</I> In accordance with 12 U.S.C. 92a(j), a national bank seeking to surrender its fiduciary powers shall file with the OCC a certified copy of the resolution of its board of directors evidencing that intent. If, after appropriate investigation, the OCC is satisfied that the bank has been discharged from all fiduciary duties, the OCC will provide written notice that the bank is no longer authorized to exercise fiduciary powers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revocation.</I> If the OCC determines that a national bank has unlawfully or unsoundly exercised, or has failed for a period of five consecutive years to exercise its fiduciary powers, the Comptroller may, in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 92a(k), revoke the bank's fiduciary powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.18   Collective investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Where consistent with applicable law, a national bank may invest assets that it holds as fiduciary in the following collective investment funds: 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In determining whether investing fiduciary assets in a collective investment fund is proper, the bank may consider the fund as a whole and, for example, shall not be prohibited from making that investment because any particular asset is nonincome producing.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) A fund maintained by the bank, or by one or more affiliated banks, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of money contributed to the fund by the bank, or by one or more affiliated banks, in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under a uniform gifts to minors act. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A fund established pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1) that includes money contributed by entities that are affiliates under 12 U.S.C. 221a(b), but are not members of the same affiliated group, as defined at 26 U.S.C. 1504, may fail to qualify for tax-exempt status under the Internal Revenue Code. <I>See</I> 26 U.S.C. 584.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) A fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or other trusts that are exempt from Federal income tax. 
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank may invest assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus, or other trusts exempt from Federal income tax and that the bank holds in its capacity as trustee in a collective investment fund established under paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank may invest assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus, or other employee benefit trusts exempt from Federal income tax and that the bank holds in any capacity (including agent), in a collective investment fund established under this paragraph (a)(2) if the fund itself qualifies for exemption from Federal income tax. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> A national bank administering a collective investment fund authorized under paragraph (a) of this section shall comply with the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written plan.</I> The bank shall establish and maintain each collective investment fund in accordance with a written plan (Plan) approved by a resolution of the bank's board of directors or by a committee authorized by the board. The bank shall make a copy of the Plan available either for public inspection at its main office during all banking hours or on its Web site and shall provide a written or electronic copy of the Plan to any person who requests it. The Plan must contain appropriate provisions, not inconsistent with this part, regarding the manner in which the bank will operate the fund, including provisions relating to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Investment powers and policies with respect to the fund; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Allocation of income, profits, and losses; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Fees and expenses that will be charged to the fund and to participating accounts; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Terms and conditions governing the admission and withdrawal of participating accounts; 
</P>
<P>(v) Audits of participating accounts; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Basis and method of valuing assets in the fund; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Expected frequency for income distribution to participating accounts; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Minimum frequency for valuation of fund assets; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Amount of time following a valuation date during which the valuation must be made; 
</P>
<P>(x) Bases upon which the bank may terminate the fund; and 
</P>
<P>(xi) Any other matters necessary to define clearly the rights of participating accounts. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fund management.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund shall have exclusive management thereof, except as a prudent person might delegate responsibilities to others. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> If a fund, the assets of which consist solely of Individual Retirement Accounts, Keogh Accounts, or other employee benefit accounts that are exempt from taxation, is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), the fund will not be deemed in violation of this paragraph (b)(2) as a result of its compliance with section 10(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-10(c)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Proportionate interests.</I> Each participating account in a collective investment fund must have a proportionate interest in all the fund's assets. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Valuation</I>—(i) <I>Frequency of valuation.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund shall determine the value of the fund's readily marketable assets at least once every three months. A bank shall determine the value of the fund's assets that are not readily marketable at least once a year. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General method of valuation.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section, a bank shall value each fund asset at mark-to-market value as of the date set for valuation, unless the bank cannot readily ascertain mark-to-market value, in which case the bank shall use a fair value determined in good faith.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Short-term investment funds (STIFs) method of valuation.</I> A bank may value a STIF's assets on a cost basis, rather than mark-to-market value as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, for purposes of admissions and withdrawals, if the Plan includes appropriate provisions, consistent with this part, requiring the STIF to:
</P>
<P>(A) Operate with a stable net asset value of $1.00 per participating interest as a primary fund objective;
</P>
<P>(B) Maintain a dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity of 60 days or less and a dollar-weighted average portfolio life maturity of 120 days or less as determined in the same manner as is required by the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to Rule 2a-7 for money market mutual funds (17 CFR 270.2a-7);
</P>
<P>(C) Accrue on a straight-line or amortized basis the difference between the cost and anticipated principal receipt on maturity;
</P>
<P>(D) Hold the STIF's assets until maturity under usual circumstances;
</P>
<P>(E) Adopt portfolio and issuer qualitative standards and concentration restrictions;
</P>
<P>(F) Adopt liquidity standards that include provisions to address contingency funding needs;
</P>
<P>(G) Adopt shadow pricing procedures that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Require the bank to calculate the extent of difference, if any, of the mark-to-market net asset value per participating interest using available market quotations (or an appropriate substitute that reflects current market conditions) from the STIF's amortized cost price per participating interest, at least on a calendar week basis and more frequently as determined by the bank when market conditions warrant; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Require the bank, in the event the difference calculated pursuant to this subparagraph exceeds $0.005 per participating interest, to take action to reduce dilution of participating interests or other unfair results to participating accounts in the STIF;
</P>
<P>(H) Adopt procedures for stress testing the STIF's ability to maintain a stable net asset value per participating interest that shall provide for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The periodic stress testing, at least on a calendar month basis and at such intervals as an independent risk manager or a committee responsible for the STIF's oversight that consists of members independent from the STIF's investment management determines appropriate and reasonable in light of current market conditions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Stress testing based upon hypothetical events that include, but are not limited to, a change in short-term interest rates, an increase in participant account withdrawals, a downgrade of or default on portfolio securities, and the widening or narrowing of spreads between yields on an appropriate benchmark the STIF has selected for overnight interest rates and commercial paper and other types of securities held by the STIF;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A stress testing report on the results of such testing to be provided to the independent risk manager or the committee responsible for the STIF's oversight that consists of members independent from the STIF's investment management that shall include: the date(s) on which the testing was performed; the magnitude of each hypothetical event that would cause the difference between the STIF's mark-to-market net asset value calculated using available market quotations (or appropriate substitutes which reflect current market conditions) and its net asset value per participating interest calculated using amortized cost to exceed $0.005; and an assessment by the bank of the STIF's ability to withstand the events (and concurrent occurrences of those events) that are reasonably likely to occur within the following year; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Reporting adverse stress testing results to the bank's senior risk management that is independent from the STIF's investment management.
</P>
<P>(I) Adopt procedures that require a bank to disclose to STIF participants and to the OCC's Asset Management Group, Credit &amp; Market Risk Division, within five business days after each calendar month-end, the fund's total assets under management (securities and other assets including cash, minus liabilities); the fund's mark-to-market and amortized cost net asset values both with and without capital support agreements; the dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity; the dollar-weighted average portfolio life maturity of the STIF as of the last business day of the prior calendar month; and for each security held by the STIF as of the last business day of the prior calendar month:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The category of investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Committee on Uniform Securities Identification Procedures (CUSIP) number or other standard identifier;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The principal amount;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The maturity date for purposes of calculating dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The final legal maturity date (taking into account any maturity date extensions that may be effected at the option of the issuer) if different from the maturity date for purposes of calculating dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The coupon or yield; and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The amortized cost value;
</P>
<P>(J) Adopt procedures that require a bank that administers a STIF to notify the OCC's Asset Management Group, Credit &amp; Market Risk Division, prior to or within one business day thereafter of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any difference exceeding $0.0025 between the net asset value and the mark-to-market value of a STIF participating interest as calculated using the method set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(G)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) When a STIF has re-priced its net asset value below $0.995 per participating interest;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any withdrawal distribution-in-kind of the STIF's participating interests or segregation of portfolio participants;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Any delays or suspensions in honoring STIF participating interest withdrawal requests;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any decision to formally approve the liquidation, segregation of assets or portfolios, or some other liquidation of the STIF; or
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) In those situations when a bank, its affiliate, or any other entity provides a STIF financial support, including a cash infusion, a credit extension, a purchase of a defaulted or illiquid asset, or any other form of financial support in order to maintain a stable net asset value per participating interest;
</P>
<P>(K) Adopt procedures that in the event a STIF has re-priced its net asset value below $0.995 per participating interest, the bank administering the STIF shall calculate, admit, and withdraw the STIF's participating interests at a price based on the mark-to-market net asset value; and
</P>
<P>(L) Adopt procedures that, in the event a bank suspends or limits withdrawals and initiates liquidation of the STIF as a result of redemptions, require the bank to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Determine that the extent of the difference between the STIF's amortized cost per participating interest and its mark-to-market net asset value per participating interest may result in material dilution of participating interests or other unfair results to participating accounts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Formally approve the liquidation of the STIF; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Facilitate the fair and orderly liquidation of the STIF to the benefit of all STIF participants. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, during periods of market stress negatively affecting, on a temporary basis, the ability of banks to operate STIFs in compliance with the requirements of the paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC may issue an administrative order specifying, for purposes of paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(B) of this section, temporary revisions to the length of the dollar-weighted average portfolio maturity requirement, the length of dollar-weighted average portfolio life maturity, and the manner of determining such limits;
</P>
<P>(B) A bank seeking to comply with paragraph (b)(4)(iii)(B) will be deemed to be in compliance with that paragraph's requirements by complying with the limits or other revisions, and any applicable conditions, described in the administrative order; and
</P>
<P>(C) The OCC will publish the administrative order on <I>www.occ.gov</I> and through other methods, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Admission and withdrawal of accounts</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund shall admit an account to or withdraw an account from the fund only on the basis of the valuation described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prior request or notice.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may admit an account to or withdraw an account from a collective investment fund only if the bank has approved a request for or a notice of intention of taking that action on or before the valuation date on which the admission or withdrawal is based. No requests or notices may be canceled or countermanded after the valuation date. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prior notice period for withdrawals from funds with assets not readily marketable.</I> (A) A bank administering a collective investment fund described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that is invested primarily in real estate or other assets that are not readily marketable may require a prior notice period, not to exceed one year, for withdrawals.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank that requires a prior notice period for withdrawals must withdraw an account from the fund within the prior notice period or, if permissible under the fund's written plan, within one year after the date on which notice was required, except as described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank may withdraw an account from the fund up to one year after the withdrawal period described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, with the OCC's approval, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fund's written plan, including its notice and withdrawal policy, authorizes an extended withdrawal period and is fully disclosed to fund participants;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's board of directors, or a committee authorized by the board of directors, determines that, due to unanticipated and severe market conditions for specific assets held by the fund, an extended withdrawal period is necessary in order to preserve the value of the fund's assets for the benefit of fund participants;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The bank's board of directors, or a committee authorized by the board of directors, determines that the extended withdrawal period is consistent with 12 CFR part 9 and applicable law;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The bank's board of directors, or a committee authorized by the board of directors, represents that the bank will act upon any withdrawal request as soon as practicable and consistent with its fiduciary duties; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any other condition imposed by the OCC, if the OCC determines that the condition is necessary or appropriate to protect the interests of fund participants.
</P>
<P>(D) Upon request by a bank, the OCC may approve an extension beyond the one-year extension period described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(C) of this section if the OCC determines that the bank has made a good faith effort to satisfy withdrawal requests and the bank has been unable to satisfy such requests without causing harm to participants due to ongoing severe market conditions. The bank must also continue to satisfy the conditions described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(C) of this section. Extensions under this paragraph must be requested and approved annually, for a maximum of two years after the initial one-year extension period.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Method of distributions.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund shall make distributions to accounts withdrawing from the fund in cash, ratably in kind, a combination of cash and ratably in kind, or in any other manner consistent with applicable law in the state in which the bank maintains the fund. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Segregation of investments.</I> If an investment is withdrawn in kind from a collective investment fund for the benefit of all participants in the fund at the time of the withdrawal but the investment is not distributed ratably in kind, the bank shall segregate and administer it for the benefit ratably of all participants in the collective investment fund at the time of withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Audits and financial reports</I>—(i) <I>Annual audit.</I> At least once during each 12-month period, a bank administering a collective investment fund shall arrange for an audit of the collective investment fund by auditors responsible only to the board of directors of the bank. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> If a fund, the assets of which consist solely of Individual Retirement Accounts, Keogh Accounts, or other employee benefit accounts that are exempt from taxation, is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), the fund will not be deemed in violation of this paragraph (b)(6)(i) as a result of its compliance with section 10(c) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-10(c)), if the bank has access to the audit reports of the fund.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Financial report.</I> At least once during each 12-month period, a bank administering a collective investment fund shall prepare a financial report of the fund based on the audit required by paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section. The report must disclose the fund's fees and expenses in a manner consistent with applicable law in the state in which the bank maintains the fund. This report must contain a list of investments in the fund showing the cost and current market value of each investment, and a statement covering the period after the previous report showing the following (organized by type of investment): 
</P>
<P>(A) A summary of purchases (with costs); 
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of sales (with profit or loss and any other investment changes); 
</P>
<P>(C) Income and disbursements; and 
</P>
<P>(D) An appropriate notation of any investments in default. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitation on representations.</I> A bank may include in the financial report a description of the fund's value on previous dates, as well as its income and disbursements during previous accounting periods. A bank may not publish in the financial report any predictions or representations as to future performance. In addition, with respect to funds described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bank may not publish the performance of individual funds other than those administered by the bank or its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Availability of the report.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund shall provide a copy of the financial report, or shall provide notice that a copy of the report is available upon request without charge, to each person who ordinarily would receive a regular periodic accounting with respect to each participating account. The bank may provide a copy of the financial report to prospective customers. In addition, the bank shall provide a copy of the report upon request to any person for a reasonable charge. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Advertising restriction.</I> A bank may not advertise or publicize any fund authorized under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except in connection with the advertisement of the general fiduciary services of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Self-dealing and conflicts of interest.</I> A national bank administering a collective investment fund must comply with the following (in addition to § 9.12): 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank interests.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may not have an interest in that fund other than in its fiduciary capacity. If, because of a creditor relationship or otherwise, the bank acquires an interest in a participating account, the participating account must be withdrawn on the next withdrawal date. However, a bank may invest assets that it holds as fiduciary for its own employees in a collective investment fund. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Loans to participating accounts.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may not make any loan on the security of a participant's interest in the fund. An unsecured advance to a fiduciary account participating in the fund until the time of the next valuation date does not constitute the acquisition of an interest in a participating account by the bank. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Purchase of defaulted investments.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may purchase for its own account any defaulted investment held by the fund (in lieu of segregating the investment in accordance with paragraph (b)(5)(v) of this section) if, in the judgment of the bank, the cost of segregating the investment is excessive in light of the market value of the investment. If a bank elects to purchase a defaulted investment, it shall do so at the greater of market value or the sum of cost and accrued unpaid interest. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Management fees.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may charge a reasonable fund management fee only if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The fee is permitted under applicable law (and complies with fee disclosure requirements, if any) in the state in which the bank maintains the fund; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the fee does not exceed an amount commensurate with the value of legitimate services of tangible benefit to the participating fiduciary accounts that would not have been provided to the accounts were they not invested in the fund. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Expenses.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may charge reasonable expenses incurred in operating the collective investment fund, to the extent not prohibited by applicable law in the state in which the bank maintains the fund. However, a bank shall absorb the expenses of establishing or reorganizing a collective investment fund. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Prohibition against certificates.</I> A bank administering a collective investment fund may not issue any certificate or other document representing a direct or indirect interest in the fund, except to provide a withdrawing account with an interest in a segregated investment. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Good faith mistakes.</I> The OCC will not deem a bank's mistake made in good faith and in the exercise of due care in connection with the administration of a collective investment fund to be a violation of this part if, promptly after the discovery of the mistake, the bank takes whatever action is practicable under the circumstances to remedy the mistake. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other collective investments.</I> In addition to the collective investment funds authorized under paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank may collectively invest assets that it holds as fiduciary, to the extent not prohibited by applicable law, as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Single loans or obligations.</I> In the following loans or obligations, if the bank's only interest in the loans or obligations is its capacity as fiduciary: 
</P>
<P>(i) A single real estate loan, a direct obligation of the United States, or an obligation fully guaranteed by the United States, or a single fixed amount security, obligation, or other property, either real, personal, or mixed, of a single issuer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A variable amount note of a borrower of prime credit, if the bank uses the note solely for investment of funds held in its fiduciary accounts. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mini-funds.</I> In a fund maintained by the bank for the collective investment of cash balances received or held by a bank in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under a uniform gifts to minors act, that the bank considers too small to be invested separately to advantage. The total assets in the fund must not exceed $1,500,000 and the number of participating accounts must not exceed 100. The OCC shall adjust this $1,500,000 threshold amount on January 1 of every year by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1, rounded to the nearest $100 increment, and make this adjusted amount available to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Trust funds of corporations and closely-related settlors.</I> In any investment specifically authorized by the instrument creating the fiduciary account or a court order, in the case of trusts created by a corporation, including its affiliates and subsidiaries, or by several individual settlors who are closely related. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other authorized funds.</I> In any collective investment authorized by applicable law, such as investments pursuant to a state pre-need funeral statute. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special exemption funds.</I> In any other manner described by the bank in a written plan approved by the OCC. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> In order to obtain a special exemption, a bank shall submit to the OCC a written plan that sets forth: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Any institution that must comply with this section in order to receive favorable tax treatment under 26 U.S.C. 584 (namely, any corporate fiduciary) may seek OCC approval of special exemption funds in accordance with this paragraph (c)(5).</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The reason that the proposed fund requires a special exemption; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of the proposed fund that are inconsistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The provisions of paragraph (b) of this section for which the bank seeks an exemption; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The manner in which the proposed fund addresses the rights and interests of participating accounts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68554, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003; 77 FR 61237, Oct. 9, 2012; 82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 16892, Mar. 25, 2020; 85 FR 49232, Aug. 13, 2020; 86 FR 28241, May 26, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.20   Transfer agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Registration.</I> An application for registration under Section 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 of a transfer agent for which the OCC is the appropriate regulatory agency, as defined in section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, shall be filed with the OCC on FFIEC Form TA-1, in accordance with the instructions contained therein. Registration shall become effective 30 days after the date an application on Form TA-1 is filed unless the OCC accelerates, denies, or postpones such registration in accordance with section 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amendments to registration.</I> Within 60 days following the date on which any information reported on Form TA-1 becomes inaccurate, misleading, or incomplete, the registrant shall file an amendment on FFIEC Form TA-1 correcting the inaccurate, misleading, or incomplete information. The filing of an amendment to an application for registration as a transfer agent under this section, which registration has not become effective, shall postpone the effective date of the registration for 30 days following the date on which the amendment is filed unless the OCC accelerates, denies, or postpones the registration in accordance with Section 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Withdrawal from registration.</I> Any registered national bank transfer agent that ceases to engage in activities that require registration under Section 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 may file a written notice of withdrawal from registration with the OCC. Deregistration shall be effective 60 days after filing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reports.</I> Every registration or amendment filed under this section shall constitute a report or application within the meaning of Sections 17, 17A(c), and 32(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational and reporting requirements.</I> The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to Section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 prescribing operational and reporting requirements for transfer agents apply to the domestic activities of registered national bank transfer agents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22242, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.25.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.100   Acting as indenture trustee and creditor.</HEAD>
<P>With respect to a debt securities issuance, a national bank may act both as indenture trustee and as creditor until 90 days after default, if the bank maintains adequate controls to manage the potential conflicts of interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 9.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.9.0.25.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 9.101   Providing investment advice for a fee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The term “fiduciary capacity” at § 9.2(e) is defined to include “investment adviser, if the bank receives a fee for its investment advice.” In other words, if a bank is providing investment advice for a fee, then it is acting in a fiduciary capacity. For purposes of that definition, “investment adviser” generally means a national bank that provides advice or recommendations concerning the purchase or sale of specific securities, such as a national bank engaged in portfolio advisory and management activities (including acting as investment adviser to a mutual fund). Additionally, the qualifying phrase “if the bank receives a fee for its investment advice” excludes those activities in which the investment advice is merely incidental to other services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific activities</I>—(1) <I>Full-service brokerage.</I> Engaging in full-service brokerage may entail providing investment advice for a fee, depending upon the commission structure and specific facts. Full-service brokerage involves investment advice for a fee if a non-bank broker engaged in that activity is considered an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities not involving investment advice for a fee.</I> The following activities generally do not entail providing investment advice for a fee:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial advisory and counseling activities, including strategic planning of a financial nature, merger and acquisition advisory services, advisory and structuring services related to project finance transactions, and providing market economic information to customers in general;
</P>
<P>(ii) Client-directed investment activities (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank has no investment discretion) where investment advice and research may be made available to the client, but the fee does not depend on the provision of investment advice;
</P>
<P>(iii) Investment advisory activities incidental to acting as a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Real estate management services provided to other financial institutions;
</P>
<P>(v) Real estate consulting services, including acting as a finder in locating, analyzing, and making recommendations regarding the purchase of property, and making recommendations concerning the sale of property;
</P>
<P>(vi) Advisory activities concerning bridge loans;
</P>
<P>(vii) Advisory activities for homeowners' associations;
</P>
<P>(viii) Advisory activities concerning tax planning and structuring; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Investment advisory activities authorized by the OCC under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) as incidental to the business of banking.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 6473, Feb. 9, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 10—MUNICIPAL SECURITIES DEALERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464(c), 1818, and 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5) and 78q-78w.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 29094, May 28, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 10.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.10.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any national bank or Federal savings association and separately identifiable department or division of a national bank or Federal savings association (collectively, a national bank or Federal savings association) that acts as a municipal securities dealer, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(30) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30)); and
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is associated or will be associated with a national bank or Federal savings association in the capacity of a municipal securities principal or a municipal securities representative, as those terms are defined in Rule G-3 of the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB). MSRB rules may be obtained at <I>www.msrb.org.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29094, May 28, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 22242, Apr. 24, 2008; 82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 10.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.10.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 10.2   Filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank or Federal savings association shall use Form MSD-4 (Uniform Application for Municipal Securities Principal or Municipal Securities Representative Associated with a Bank Municipal Securities Dealer) for obtaining the information required by MSRB Rule G-7(b) from a person identified in § 10.1(b). A national bank or Federal savings association receiving a completed MSD-4 form from a person identified in § 10.1(b) must submit this form to the OCC before permitting the person to be associated with it as a municipal securities principal or a municipal securities representative.
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or Federal savings association shall submit Form MSD-5 (Uniform Termination Notice for Municipal Securities Principal or Municipal Securities Representative Associated with a Bank Municipal Securities Dealer) to the OCC within 30 days of terminating a person's association with the national bank or Federal savings association as a municipal securities principal or municipal securities representative.
</P>
<P>(c) Forms MSD-4 and MSD-5, with instructions, may be obtained at <I>http://www.banknet.gov/</I>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 29094, May 28, 1998, as amended at 63 FR 71343, Dec. 24, 1998; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 11—SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT DISCLOSURE RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464 and 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78j-1(m), 78m, 78n, 78p, 78w, 78l, 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 46084, Oct. 7, 1992; 57 FR 54499, Nov. 19, 1992, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 11.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.11.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) is vested with the powers, functions, and duties otherwise vested in the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to administer and enforce the provisions of sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78j-1(m), 78l, 78m, 78n(a), 78n(c), 78n(d), 78n(f), and 78p), and sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), as amended (15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265), for national banks and Federal savings associations with one or more classes of securities subject to the registration provisions of sections 12(b) and (g) of the Exchange Act (registered national banks or registered Federal savings associations). Further, the OCC has general rulemaking authority under 12 U.S.C. 93a, 1462a, 1463, and 1464, to promulgate rules and regulations concerning the activities of national banks and Federal savings associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.11.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.2   Reporting requirements for registered national banks and Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing, disclosure and other requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a national bank or Federal savings association whose securities are subject to registration pursuant to section 12(b) or section 12(g) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78l(b) and (g)) shall comply with the rules, regulations, and forms adopted by the SEC pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78j-1(m), 78l, 78m, 78n(a), (c), (d) and (f), and 78p); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (codified at 15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>References to the Securities Exchange Commission, SEC, or Commission.</I> Any references to the “Securities and Exchange Commission,” the “SEC,” or the “Commission” in the rules, regulations and forms described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with respect to securities issued by registered national banks or registered Federal savings associations shall be deemed to refer to the OCC unless the context otherwise requires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>References to registration requirements.</I> For national banks and Federal savings associations, any references to registration requirements under the Securities Act of 1933 and its accompanying rules in the rules, regulations, and forms described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section mean the registration requirements in 12 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emerging growth company eligibility</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that meets the criteria to qualify as an emerging growth company under section 3(a)(80) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(80)) shall be eligible for treatment as an emerging growth company for purposes of any rule, regulation or form described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt-in right.</I> With respect to an exemption provided to a national bank or Federal savings association that is an emerging growth company under this part, the bank or savings association may choose to forgo such exemption and instead comply with the requirements that apply to a bank or savings association that is not an emerging growth company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that otherwise meets the definition of emerging growth company in section 3(a)(80) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(80)) shall not be considered an emerging growth company for purposes of this part if:
</P>
<P>(i) The first sale of its common equity securities pursuant to an effective registration statement or offering circular occurred on or before December 8, 2011; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It has reached the last day of its fiscal year following the fifth anniversary of the date of the first sale of its common equity securities pursuant to an effective registration statement or offering circular.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8105, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.11.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.3   Filing requirements and inspection of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirements</I>—(1)(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, all papers required to be filed with the OCC pursuant to the Exchange Act or regulations thereunder shall be submitted to the OCC's Law Department of the OCC electronically at <I>http://www.banknet.gov/.</I> Documents may be signed electronically using the signature provision in SEC Rule 12b-11 (17 CFR 240.12b-11).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electronic filing exception.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association experiences unanticipated technical difficulties preventing the timely preparation and submission of an electronic filing, other than the filings described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the bank may, upon notice to the OCC's Law Department, file the subject filing in paper format no later than one business day after the date on which the filing was to be made. Paper filings should be submitted to the OCC's Law Department, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency at the address provided at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>

 </P>
<P>(2) <I>Statements filed pursuant to section 16(a) of the 1934 Act.</I> Statements required under section 16(a) of the 1934 Act shall be filed electronically, as directed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Date of filing</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The date of filing is the date the OCC receives the filing, provided the person, bank, or savings association submitting the filing has complied with all applicable requirements. An electronic filing that is submitted on a business day by direct transmission commencing on or before 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, would be deemed received by the OCC on the same business day. An electronic filing that is submitted by direct transmission commencing after 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, or on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, would be deemed received by the OCC on the next business day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Beneficial ownership filings.</I> An electronic filing of a statement required under section 16(a) of the 1934 Act that is submitted by direct transmission on or before 10 p.m. Eastern Standard Time or Eastern Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, shall be deemed filed on the same business day.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Adjustment of filing date.</I> If an electronic filer in good faith attempts to file a document pursuant to this part in a timely manner but the filing is delayed due to technical difficulties beyond the electronic filer's control, the electronic filer may request that the OCC adjust the filing date of such document. The OCC may grant the request if it appears that such adjustment is appropriate and consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of registration statements, definitive proxy solicitation materials, reports, and annual reports to shareholders required by this part (exclusive of exhibits) are available from the Disclosure Officer, Communications Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, at the address listed on <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57332, Nov. 15, 1995, as amended at 68 FR 54984, Sept. 22, 2003; 70 FR 46404, Aug. 10, 2005; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 42640, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 11.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.11.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 11.4   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC may require filing fees to accompany certain filings made under this part before it will accept the filing. The OCC provides an applicable fee schedule for such filings in the “Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees” described in 12 CFR 8.8. 
</P>
<P>(b) Fees must be paid by check payable to the Comptroller of the Currency or by other means acceptable to the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 46084, Oct. 7, 1992; 57 FR 54499, Nov. 19, 1992, as amended at 60 FR 57332, Nov. 15, 1995; 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 12—RECORDKEEPING AND CONFIRMATION REQUIREMENTS FOR SECURITIES TRANSACTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 24, 92a, and 93a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 12.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24, 92a, and 93a. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes rules, policies, and procedures applicable to recordkeeping and confirmation requirements for certain securities transactions effected by national banks for customers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Any security transaction effected for a customer by a national bank is subject to this part, except as provided by paragraph (c)(2) of this section. This part applies to a national bank effecting transactions in government securities. This part also applies to municipal securities transactions by a national bank that is not registered as a “municipal securities dealer” with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). <I>See</I> 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30) and 78o-4. This part, as well as 12 CFR part 9, applies to securities transactions effected by a national bank as fiduciary. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Small number of transactions.</I> The requirements of §§ 12.3(a)(2) through (4) and 12.7(a)(1) through (3) do not apply to a national bank having an average of fewer than 200 securities transactions per year for customers over the prior three calendar year period. The calculation of this average does not include transactions in government securities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Government securities.</I> The recordkeeping requirements of § 12.3 do not apply to national banks effecting fewer than 500 government securities brokerage transactions per year. This exception does not apply to government securities dealer transactions by national banks. <I>See</I> 17 CFR 404.4(a). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Municipal securities.</I> This part does not apply to transactions in municipal securities conducted by a national bank registered with the SEC as a “municipal securities dealer” as defined in title 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30). See 15 U.S.C. 78o-4. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Foreign branches.</I> This part does not apply to securities transactions conducted by a foreign branch of a national bank. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Transactions effected by registered broker/dealers.</I> This part does not apply to securities transactions effected by a broker or dealer registered with the SEC where the SEC-registered broker or dealer directly provides the customer a confirmation; including, transactions effected by a national bank employee when acting as an employee of an SEC-registered broker/dealer. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, every national bank conducting securities transactions for customers shall maintain effective systems of records and controls regarding their customer securities transactions to ensure safe and sound operations. The systems maintained must clearly and accurately reflect appropriate information and provide an adequate basis for an audit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Asset-backed security</I> means a security that is primarily serviced by the cashflows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collective investment fund</I> means any fund established pursuant to 12 CFR 9.18. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Completion of the transaction</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a customer who purchases a security through or from a national bank, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the time when the customer pays the bank any part of the purchase price, or, if payment is made by a bookkeeping entry, the time when the bank makes the bookkeeping entry for any part of the purchase price; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a customer who purchases a security through or from a national bank and who makes payment for the security prior to the time when payment is requested or notification is given that payment is due, the time when the bank delivers the security to or into the account of the customer; 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a customer who sells a security through or to a national bank, except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, if the security is not in the custody of the bank at the time of sale, the time when the security is delivered to the bank, and if the security is in the custody of the bank at the time of sale, the time when the bank transfers the security from the account of the customer; 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a customer who sells a security through or to a national bank and who delivers the security to the bank prior to the time when delivery is requested or notification is given that delivery is due, the time when the bank makes payment to or into the account of the customer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Crossing of buy and sell orders</I> means a security transaction in which the same bank acts as agent for both the buyer and the seller. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Customer</I> means any person or account, including any agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account for which a national bank makes or participates in making the purchase or sale of securities, but does not include a broker, dealer, bank acting as a broker or dealer, bank acting as the fiduciary of an account, bank as trustee acting as shareholder of record for the purchase or sale of securities, or issuer of securities that are the subject of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debt security</I> means any security, such as a bond, debenture, note, or any other similar instrument that evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or a similar security) and fractional or participation interests in one or more of any of the foregoing. This definition does not include securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Government security</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest and which is designated by the Secretary of the Treasury for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors; 
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by any corporation whose securities are designated, by statute specifically naming the corporation, to constitute exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the SEC; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security described in paragraph (g)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege: 
</P>
<P>(i) That is traded on one or more national securities exchanges; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) For which quotations are disseminated through an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Investment discretion</I> means that, with respect to an account, a bank directly or indirectly: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is authorized to determine what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Makes decisions as to what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account even though some other person may have responsibility for these investment decisions. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Municipal security</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision; 
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is an industrial development bond.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Periodic plan</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A written authorization for a national bank to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities, in a specific amount (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and setting forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them. These plans include dividend reinvestment plans, automatic investment plans, and employee stock purchase plans. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any prearranged, automatic transfer or “sweep” of funds from a deposit account to purchase a security, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security with the funds being transferred into a deposit account (including cash management sweep services). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Security:</I> (1) Means any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, and any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), or, in general, any instrument commonly known as a “security”; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing; 
</P>
<P>(2) Does not mean currency; any note, draft, bill of exchange, or banker's acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof, the maturity of which is likewise limited; a deposit or share account in a Federal or State chartered depository institution; a loan participation; a letter of credit or other form of bank indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business; units of a collective investment fund; interests in a variable amount note in accordance with 12 CFR 9.18; U.S. Savings Bonds; or any other instrument the OCC determines does not constitute a security for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.3   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A national bank effecting securities transactions for customers shall maintain the following records for at least three years: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chronological records.</I> An itemized daily record of each purchase and sale of securities maintained in chronological order, and including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Account or customer name for which each transaction was effected; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the securities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Unit and aggregate purchase or sale price; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Trade date; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Name or other designation of the broker/dealer or other person from whom the securities were purchased or to whom the securities were sold; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account records.</I> Account records for each customer, reflecting: 
</P>
<P>(i) Purchases and sales of securities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Receipts and deliveries of securities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Receipts and disbursements of cash; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Other debits and credits pertaining to transactions in securities; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Memorandum order.</I> A separate memorandum (order ticket) of each order to purchase or sell securities (whether executed or canceled), including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Account or customer name for which the transaction was effected; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Type of order (market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Time the trader or other bank employee responsible for effecting the transaction received the order; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Time the trader placed the order with the broker/dealer, or if there was no broker/dealer, time the order was executed or canceled; 
</P>
<P>(v) Price at which the order was executed; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Name of the broker/dealer utilized; 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record of broker/dealers.</I> A record of all broker/dealers selected by the bank to effect securities transactions and the amount of commissions paid or allocated to each broker during the calendar year; and 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notifications.</I> A copy of the written notification required by §§ 12.4 and 12.5. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of maintenance.</I> The records required by this section must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. Record maintenance may include the use of automated or electronic records provided the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in a hard copy. A national bank may contract with a third-party service provider to maintain the records, provided that the bank maintains effective oversight of the third-party service provider to ensure the records meet the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.4   Content and time of notification.</HEAD>
<P>Unless a national bank elects to provide notification by one of the means specified in § 12.5, a national bank effecting a securities transaction for a customer shall give or send to the customer either of the following types of notifications at or before completion of the transaction or, if the bank uses a registered broker/dealer's confirmation, within one business day from the bank's receipt of the registered broker/dealer's confirmation: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Written notification.</I> A written notification disclosing: 
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) Name of the customer; 
</P>
<P>(3) Capacity in which the bank acts (i.e., as agent for the customer, as agent for both the customer and some other person, as principal for its own account, or in any other capacity); 
</P>
<P>(4) Date and time of execution, or a statement that the bank will furnish the time of execution within a reasonable time upon written request of the customer, and the identity, price, and number of shares or units (or principal amount in the case of debt securities) of the security purchased or sold by the customer; 
</P>
<P>(5) Amount of any remuneration that the customer has provided or is to provide any broker/dealer, directly or indirectly, in connection with the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(6)(i) Amount of any remuneration that the bank has received or will receive from the customer, and the source and amount of any other remuneration that the bank has received or will receive in connection with the transaction; unless: 
</P>
<P>(A) The bank and its customer have determined remuneration pursuant to a written agreement; or 
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of government securities and municipal securities, the bank received the remuneration in other than an agency transaction. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank elects not to disclose the source and amount of remuneration it has or will receive from a party other than the customer pursuant to paragraph (a)(6)(i) of this section, the written notification must disclose whether the bank has received or will receive remuneration from a party other than the customer, and that the bank will furnish within a reasonable time the source and amount of this remuneration upon written request of the customer. This election is not available, however, if, with respect to a purchase, the bank was participating in a distribution of that security; or, with respect to a sale, the bank was participating in a tender offer for that security; 
</P>
<P>(7) Name of the registered broker/dealer utilized; or where there is no registered broker/dealer, the name of the person from whom the security was purchased or to whom the security was sold, or a statement that the bank will furnish this information within a reasonable time upon written request from the customer; 
</P>
<P>(8) In the case of any transaction in a debt security subject to redemption before maturity, a statement to the effect that the debt security may be redeemed in whole or in part before maturity, that the redemption could affect the yield represented and that additional information is available upon request; 
</P>
<P>(9) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected exclusively on the basis of a dollar price: 
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar price at which the transaction was effected; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The yield to maturity calculated from the dollar price, unless the transaction is for a debt security that either: 
</P>
<P>(A) Has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer thereof, with a variable interest payable thereon; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that continuously are subject to prepayment; 
</P>
<P>(10) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected on the basis of yield: 
</P>
<P>(i) The yield at which the transaction was effected, including the percentage amount and its characterization (e.g., current yield, yield to maturity, or yield to call) and if effected at yield to call, the type of call, the call date, and call price; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The dollar price calculated from the yield at which the transaction was effected; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) If effected on a basis other than yield to maturity and the yield to maturity is lower than the represented yield, the yield to maturity as well as the represented yield, unless the transaction is for a debt security that either: 
</P>
<P>(A) Has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer thereof, with a variable interest rate payable thereon; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that continuously are subject to prepayment; 
</P>
<P>(11) In the case of a transaction in a debt security that is an asset-backed security, which represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that continuously are subject to prepayment, a statement indicating that the actual yield of the asset-backed security may vary according to the rate at which the underlying receivables or other financial assets are prepaid and a statement that information concerning the factors that affect yield (including at a minimum estimated yield, weighted average life, and the prepayment assumptions underlying yield) will be furnished upon written request of the customer; and 
</P>
<P>(12) In the case of a transaction in a debt security, other than a government security, that the security is unrated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, if that is the case; or 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Copy of the registered broker/dealer's confirmation.</I> A copy of the confirmation of a registered broker/dealer relating to the securities transaction, which the bank may direct the registered broker/dealer to send directly to the customer; and, if the customer or any other source will provide remuneration to the bank in connection with the transaction and a written agreement between the bank and the customer does not determine the remuneration, a statement of the source and amount of any remuneration that the customer or any other source is to provide the bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8106, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.5   Notification by agreement; alternative forms and times of notification.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may elect to use the following notification procedures as an alternative to complying with § 12.4: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notification by agreement.</I> A national bank effecting a securities transaction for an account in which the bank does not exercise investment discretion shall give or send written notification at the time and in the form agreed to in writing by the bank and customer, provided that the agreement makes clear the customer's right to receive the written notification pursuant to § 12.4 (a) or (b) at no additional cost to the customer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Trust transactions.</I> A national bank effecting a securities transaction for an account in which the bank exercises investment discretion other than in an agency capacity shall give or send written notification within a reasonable time if a person having the power to terminate the account, or, if there is no such person, any person holding a vested beneficial interest in the account, requests written notification pursuant to § 12.4 (a) or (b). Otherwise, notification is not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency transactions.</I> (1) A national bank effecting a securities transaction for an account in which the bank exercises investment discretion in an agency capacity shall give or send, not less than once every three months, an itemized statement to each customer that specifies the funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank at the end of the period and all debits, credits and transactions in the customer's account during the period. 
</P>
<P>(2) If requested by the customer, the bank shall give or send written notification to the customer pursuant to § 12.4 (a) or (b) within a reasonable time. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collective investment fund transactions.</I> A national bank effecting a securities transaction for a collective investment fund shall follow 12 CFR 9.18. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic plan transactions.</I> (1) A national bank effecting a securities transaction for a periodic plan (except for a cash management sweep service) shall give or send to its customer not less than once every three months, a written statement showing: 
</P>
<P>(i) The customer's funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) All service charges and commissions paid by the customer in connection with the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) All other debits and credits of the customer's account involved in the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank effecting a securities transaction for a cash management sweep service or other periodic plan as defined in § 12.2(j)(2) shall give or send its customer a written statement, in the same form as under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, for each month in which a purchase or sale of a security takes place in a deposit account and not less than once every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account, subject to any other applicable laws and regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) Upon written request of the customer, the bank shall give or send the information described in § 12.4 (a) or (b), except that the bank need not provide to the customer any information relating to remuneration paid in connection with the transaction when the remuneration is paid by a source other than the customer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.6   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may charge a reasonable fee for providing notification pursuant to § 12.5(b), (c), and (e). A national bank may not charge a fee for providing notification pursuant to § 12.4 or § 12.5 (a) and (d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.7   Securities trading policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies and procedures; reports of securities trading.</I> A national bank effecting securities transactions for customers shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assign responsibility for supervision of all officers or employees who: 
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit orders to or place orders with registered broker/dealers; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Execute transactions in securities for customers; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Process orders for notification or settlement purposes, or perform other back office functions with respect to securities transactions effected for customers. Policies and procedures for personnel described in this paragraph (a)(1)(iii) must provide for supervision and reporting lines that are separate from supervision and reporting lines for personnel described in paragraphs (a)(1) (i) and (ii) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the fair and equitable allocation of securities and prices to accounts when the bank receives orders for the same security at approximately the same time and places the orders for execution either individually or in combination; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for the crossing of buy and sell orders on a fair and equitable basis to the parties to the transaction, where permissible under applicable law; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Require bank officers and employees to report to the bank, within the deadline specified in SEC rule 17j-1 (17 CFR 270.17j-1) for quarterly transaction reports, all personal transactions in securities made by them or on their behalf in which they have a beneficial interest, if the officers and employees: 
</P>
<P>(i) Make investment recommendations or decisions for the accounts of customers; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Participate in the determination of the recommendations or decisions; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In connection with their duties, obtain information concerning which securities are purchased, sold, or recommended for purchase or sale by the bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required information.</I> The report required under paragraph (a)(4) of this section must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The date of the transaction, the title and number of shares, and the principal amount of each security involved; 
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the transaction (i.e. purchase, sale, or other type of acquisition or disposition); 
</P>
<P>(3) The price at which the transaction was effected; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The name of the registered broker, registered dealer, or bank with or through whom the transaction was effected. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Report not required.</I> This section does not require a bank officer or employee to report transactions if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The officer or employee has no direct or indirect influence or control over the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is in mutual fund shares; 
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is in government securities; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The transactions involve an aggregate amount of purchases and sales per officer or employee of $10,000 or less during the calendar quarter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional reporting requirement.</I> A national bank that acts as an investment adviser to an investment company is subject to the requirements of SEC Rule 17j-1 (17 CFR 270.17j-1) issued under the Investment Company Act of 1940. SEC Rule 17j-1 requires an “access person” of the investment adviser to report certain personal securities transactions to the investment adviser for review by the Securities and Exchange Commission. “Access person” includes directors, officers, and certain employees of the investment adviser. The reporting requirement under paragraph (a)(4) of this section is a separate requirement from any applicable requirements under SEC Rule 17j-1. However, an “access person” required to file a report with a national bank pursuant to SEC Rule 17j-1 need not file a separate report under paragraph (a)(4) of this section if the required information is the same. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008; 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.8   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may file a written request with the OCC for waiver of one or more of the requirements set forth in §§ 12.2 through 12.7, either in whole or in part. The OCC may grant a waiver from the requirements of this part to any national bank, or any class of national banks, with regard to a specific transaction or a specific class of transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 12.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.12.0.26.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 12.9   Settlement of securities transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All contracts effected or entered into by a national bank for the purchase or sale of a security (other than an exempted security as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(12), government security, municipal security, commercial paper, bankers' acceptances, or commercial bills) shall provide for completion of the transaction within the number of business days in the standard settlement cycle followed by registered broker dealers in the United States, unless otherwise agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction. The number of business days in the standard settlement cycle shall be determined by reference to paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1, 17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section do not apply to contracts: 
</P>
<P>(1) For the purchase or sale of limited partnership interests that are not listed on an exchange or for which quotations are not disseminated through an automated quotation system of a registered securities association; 
</P>
<P>(2) For the purchase or sale of securities that the SEC may from time to time, taking into account then existing market practices, exempt by order from the requirements of paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1, 17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a), either unconditionally or on specified terms and conditions, if the SEC determines that an exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors. 
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to contracts for the sale for cash of securities that are priced after 4:30 p.m. Eastern time on the date the securities are priced and that are sold by an issuer to an underwriter pursuant to a firm commitment underwritten offering registered under the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.,</I> or sold to an initial purchaser by a national bank participating in the offering. A national bank shall not effect or enter into a contract for the purchase or sale of the securities that provides for payment of funds and delivery of securities later than the fourth business day after the date of the contract unless otherwise expressly agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, the parties to a contract are deemed to have expressly agreed to an alternate date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction for a contract for the sale for cash of securities pursuant to a firm commitment offering if the managing underwriter and the issuer have agreed to the date for all securities sold pursuant to the offering and the parties to the contract have not expressly agreed to another date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 63965, Dec. 2, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017; 83 FR 26349, June 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 13—GOVERNMENT SECURITIES SALES PRACTICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> and 93a; 15 U.S.C. 78o-5. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 13283, Mar. 19, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 13.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to national banks that have filed notice as, or are required to file notice as, government securities brokers or dealers pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank that is a government securities broker or dealer</I> means a national bank that has filed notice, or is required to file notice, as a government securities broker or dealer pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Customer</I> does not include a broker or dealer or a government securities broker or dealer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government security</I> has the same meaning as this term has in section 3(a)(42) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(42)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-institutional customer</I> means any customer other than: 
</P>
<P>(1) A bank, savings association, insurance company, or registered investment company; 
</P>
<P>(2) An investment adviser registered under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity (whether a natural person, corporation, partnership, trust, or otherwise) with total assets of at least $50 million. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.3   Business conduct.</HEAD>
<P>A bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall observe high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of its business as a government securities broker or dealer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.4   Recommendations to customers.</HEAD>
<P>In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of a government security, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and as to the customer's financial situation and needs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.5   Customer information.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the execution of a transaction recommended to a non-institutional customer, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall make reasonable efforts to obtain information concerning: 
</P>
<P>(a) The customer's financial status; 
</P>
<P>(b) The customer's tax status; 
</P>
<P>(c) The customer's investment objectives; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Such other information used or considered to be reasonable by the bank in making recommendations to the customer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 13.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.13.0.26.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 13.100   Obligations concerning institutional customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the OCC is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the OCC believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC's suitability rule (§ 13.4) is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks' responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and financial situation and needs. 
</P>
<P>(d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 13.4. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The interpretation in this section does not address the obligation related to suitability that requires that a bank have “* * * a ‘reasonable basis’ to believe that the recommendation could be suitable for at least some customers.” <I>In the Matter of the Application of F.J. Kaufman and Company of Virginia and Frederick J. Kaufman, Jr.,</I> 50 SEC 164 (1989).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank's suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the OCC has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 13.4. These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations. 
</P>
<P>(f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank's recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank's customer-specific obligations under § 13.4 would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision. 
</P>
<P>(g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer's investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank's obligations under § 13.4 for a particular customer are fulfilled. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Where a customer has delegated decision-making authority to an agent, such as an investment advisor or a bank trust department, the interpretation in this section shall be applied to the agent. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 in paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer's capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments;
</P>
<P>(2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer's ability to understand the economic features of the security involved;
</P>
<P>(4) The customer's ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and
</P>
<P>(5) The complexity of the security or securities involved.
</P>
<P>(i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer.
</P>
<P>Relevant considerations could include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank's recommendations; 
</P>
<P>(3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives. 
</P>
<P>(j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction. 
</P>
<P>(k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the OCC will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 14—CONSUMER PROTECTION IN SALES OF INSURANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 92, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1818, 1831x, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 14.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> This part establishes consumer protections in connection with retail sales practices, solicitations, advertising, or offers of any insurance product or annuity to a consumer by:
</P>
<P>(1) Any national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person that is engaged in such activities at an office of the national bank or Federal savings association, or on behalf of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application to operating subsidiaries.</I> For purposes of § 5.34(e)(3) of this chapter for national banks and § 5.38(e)(3) of this chapter for Federal savings associations, an operating subsidiary is subject to this part only to the extent that it sells, solicits, advertises, or offers insurance products or annuities at an office of a national bank or Federal savings association, or on behalf of a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28398, May 16, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 28472, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means a company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means a national bank or a Federal branch, or agency of a foreign bank as defined in section 1 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101, <I>et seq.</I>) 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, business trust, association or similar organization, or any other trust (unless by its terms the trust must terminate within twenty-five years or not later than twenty-one years and ten months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust). It does not include any corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States or by any State, or a qualified family partnership, as defined in section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual who purchases, applies to purchase, or is solicited to purchase from a covered person insurance products or annuities primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> of a company has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(5)). 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Covered person</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other person only when the person sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity to a consumer at an office of the bank or Federal savings association or on behalf of a bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, activities on behalf of a bank or Federal savings association include activities where a person, whether at an office of the bank or Federal savings association or at another location sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity and at least one of the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person represents to a consumer that the sale, solicitation, advertisement, or offer of any insurance product or annuity is by or on behalf of the bank or Federal savings association; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or Federal savings association refers a consumer to a seller of insurance products or annuities and the bank or Federal savings association has a contractual arrangement to receive commissions or fees derived from a sale of an insurance product or annuity resulting from that referral; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents evidencing the sale, solicitation, advertising, or offer of an insurance product or annuity identify or refer to the bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Domestic violence</I> means the occurrence of one or more of the following acts by a current or former family member, household member, intimate partner, or caretaker: 
</P>
<P>(1) Attempting to cause or causing or threatening another person physical harm, severe emotional distress, psychological trauma, rape, or sexual assault; 
</P>
<P>(2) Engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts toward another person, including following the person without proper authority, under circumstances that place the person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or physical harm; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subjecting another person to false imprisonment; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Attempting to cause or causing damage to property so as to intimidate or attempt to control the behavior of another person. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic media</I> includes any means for transmitting messages electronically between a covered person and a consumer in a format that allows visual text to be displayed on equipment, for example, a personal computer monitor. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Office</I> means the premises of a bank or Federal savings association where retail deposits are accepted from the public. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Federal savings association means</I> a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(4)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 28398, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.30   Prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Anticoercion and antitying rules.</I> A covered person may not engage in any practice that would lead a consumer to believe that an extension of credit, in violation of section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972) or section 5(q) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(q)), is conditional upon either:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank, Federal savings association, or any of their affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) An agreement by the consumer not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on misrepresentations generally.</I> A covered person may not engage in any practice or use any advertisement at any office of, or on behalf of, the bank, Federal savings association, or a subsidiary of the bank or Federal savings association that could mislead any person or otherwise cause a reasonable person to reach an erroneous belief with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) The fact that an insurance product or annuity sold or offered for sale by a covered person or any subsidiary of the bank or Federal savings association is not backed by the Federal government, the bank, or the Federal savings association, or the fact that the insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC);
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves investment risk, the fact that there is an investment risk, including the potential that principal may be lost and that the product may decline in value; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a bank, Federal savings association, or subsidiary of the bank or Federal savings association at which insurance products or annuities are sold or offered for sale, the fact that:
</P>
<P>(i) The approval of an extension of credit to a consumer by the bank, Federal savings association, or subsidiary may not be conditioned on the purchase of an insurance product or annuity by the consumer from the bank, Federal savings association, or a subsidiary of the bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer is free to purchase the insurance product or annuity from another source. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on domestic violence discrimination.</I> A covered person may not sell or offer for sale, as principal, agent, or broker, any life or health insurance product if the status of the applicant or insured as a victim of domestic violence or as a provider of services to victims of domestic violence is considered as a criterion in any decision with regard to insurance underwriting, pricing, renewal, or scope of coverage of such product, or with regard to the payment of insurance claims on such product, except as required or expressly permitted under State law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 28398, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.40   What a covered person must disclose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Insurance disclosures.</I> In connection with the initial purchase of an insurance product or annuity by a consumer from a covered person, a covered person must disclose to the consumer, except to the extent the disclosure would not be accurate, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance product or annuity is not a deposit or other obligation of, or guaranteed by, the bank, Federal savings association, or an affiliate of the bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) The insurance product or annuity is not insured by the FDIC or any other agency of the United States, the bank, Federal savings association, or (if applicable) an affiliate of the bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves an investment risk, there is investment risk associated with the product, including the possible loss of value. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit disclosure.</I> In the case of an application for credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold, a covered person must disclose that the bank or Federal savings association may not condition an extension of credit on either:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank, Federal savings association, or any of their affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's agreement not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing and method of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be provided orally and in writing before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer. The disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made orally and in writing at the time the consumer applies for an extension of credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for transactions by mail.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by mail, a covered person is not required to make the oral disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section. If a covered person takes an application for credit by mail, the covered person is not required to make the oral disclosure required by paragraph (b). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for transactions by telephone.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by telephone, a covered person may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section by mail within 3 business days beginning on the first business day after the sale, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). If a covered person takes an application for credit by telephone, the covered person may provide the written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section by mail, provided the covered person mails it to the consumer within three days beginning the first business day after the application is taken, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic form of disclosures.</I> (i) Subject to the requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)), a covered person may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) and (b) of this section through electronic media instead of on paper, if the consumer affirmatively consents to receiving the disclosures electronically and if the disclosures are provided in a format that the consumer may retain or obtain later, for example, by printing or storing electronically (such as by downloading). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosures required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section that are provided by electronic media are not required to be provided orally. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosures must be readily understandable.</I> The disclosures provided shall be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. For instance, a covered person may use the following disclosures in visual media, such as television broadcasting, ATM screens, billboards, signs, posters and written advertisements and promotional materials, as appropriate and consistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>• NOT A DEPOSIT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT FDIC-INSURED 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT INSURED BY ANY FEDERAL GOVERNMENT AGENCY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT GUARANTEED BY THE [BANK] [FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATION] 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• MAY GO DOWN IN VALUE</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>Disclosures must be meaningful.</I> (i) A covered person must provide the disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in a meaningful form. Examples of the types of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures; 
</P>
<P>(B) A typeface and type size that are easy to read; 
</P>
<P>(C) Wide margins and ample line spacing; 
</P>
<P>(D) Boldface or italics for key words; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Distinctive type style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered person has not provided the disclosures in a meaningful form if the covered person merely states to the consumer that the required disclosures are available in printed material, but does not provide the printed material when required and does not orally disclose the information to the consumer when required. 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to those disclosures made through electronic media for which paper or oral disclosures are not required, the disclosures are not meaningfully provided if the consumer may bypass the visual text of the disclosures before purchasing an insurance product or annuity. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consumer acknowledgment.</I> A covered person must obtain from the consumer, at the time a consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, or at the time of the initial purchase by the consumer of an insurance product or annuity, a written acknowledgment by the consumer that the consumer received the disclosures. A covered person may permit a consumer to acknowledge receipt of the disclosures electronically or in paper form. If the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section are provided in connection with a transaction that is conducted by telephone, a covered person must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain an oral acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures and maintain sufficient documentation to show that the acknowledgment was given; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Make reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisements and other promotional material for insurance products or annuities.</I> The disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section are required in advertisements and promotional material for insurance products or annuities unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 28398, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.50   Where insurance activities may take place.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A bank or Federal savings association must, to the extent practicable, keep the area where the bank or Federal savings association conducts transactions involving insurance products or annuities physically segregated from areas where retail deposits are routinely accepted from the general public, identify the areas where insurance product or annuity sales activities occur, and clearly delineate and distinguish those areas from the areas where the bank's or Federal savings association's retail deposit-taking activities occur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referrals.</I> Any person who accepts deposits from the public in an area where such transactions are routinely conducted in the bank or Federal savings association may refer a consumer who seeks to purchase an insurance product or annuity to a qualified person who sells that product only if the person making the referral receives no more than a one-time, nominal fee of a fixed dollar amount for each referral that does not depend on whether the referral results in a transaction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 14.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 14.60   Qualification and licensing requirements for insurance sales personnel.</HEAD>
<P>A bank or Federal savings association may not permit any person to sell or offer for sale any insurance product or annuity in any part of its office or on its behalf, unless the person is at all times appropriately qualified and licensed under applicable State insurance licensing standards with regard to the specific products being sold or recommended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 75839, Dec. 4, 2000, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.14.0.27.7.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 14—Consumer Grievance Process
</HEAD>
<P>Any consumer who believes that any bank, Federal savings association, or any other person selling, soliciting, advertising, or offering insurance products or annuities to the consumer at an office of the bank or Federal savings association, or on behalf of the bank or Federal savings association, has violated the requirements of this part should contact the Customer Assistance Group, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, (800) 613-6743, P.O. Box 53570, Houston, TX 77052, or <I>www.helpwithmybank.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 27483, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 15—XXX</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="5">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="6">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 16—SECURITIES OFFERING DISCLOSURE RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 16.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the rulemaking authority of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) for national banks in 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> and 93a, and for Federal savings associations in 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets forth rules governing the offer and sale of securities issued by a national bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to offers and sales of national bank or Federal savings association securities by issuers, underwriters, and dealers. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accredited investor</I> means the same as in SEC Rule 501(a) (17 CFR 230.501(a)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dealer</I> means the same as in section 2(a)(12) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(12)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means the same as in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal savings association</I> means an existing Federal savings association chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1464 <I>et seq.</I>) or a Federal savings association in organization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment grade</I> means the issuer of a security has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Issuer</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association that issues or proposes to issue any security. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>National bank</I> means an existing national bank, a national bank in organization, or a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nonconvertible debt</I> means a general obligation of the national bank or Federal savings association, whether senior or subordinated, that is not convertible into any class of common or preferred stock or any derivative thereof. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> means the same as in section 2(a)(2) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(2)) and includes a national bank and a Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Prospectus</I> means an offering document that includes the information required by section 10(a) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77j(a)). 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Registration statement</I> means a filing that includes the prospectus and other information required by section 7 of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77g). 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Sale, sell, offer to sell, offer for sale,</I> and <I>offer</I> mean the same as in section 2(a)(3) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(3)). 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission. When used in the rules, regulations, or forms of the SEC referred to in this part, the term “SEC” shall be deemed to refer to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Securities Act</I> means the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Security</I> means the same as in section 2(a)(1) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(1)). 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Underwriter</I> means the same as in section 2(a)(11) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(11)). SEC Rules 137, 140, 141, 142, and 144 (17 CFR 230.137, 230.140, 230.141, 230.142, and 230.144) (which apply to section 2(a)(11) of the Securities Act) apply to this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008; 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012; 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.3   Registration statement and prospectus requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall offer or sell, directly or indirectly, any national bank or Federal savings association issued security unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) A registration statement for the security meeting the requirements of § 16.15 of this part has been filed with and declared effective by the OCC pursuant to this part, and the offer or sale is accompanied or preceded by a prospectus that has been filed with and declared effective by the OCC as a part of that registration statement; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption is available under § 16.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, securities of a national bank or Federal savings association may be offered through the use of a preliminary prospectus before a registration statement and prospectus for the securities have been declared effective by the OCC if: 
</P>
<P>(1) A registration statement including the preliminary prospectus has been filed with the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(2) The preliminary prospectus contains the information required by § 16.15 of this part except for the omission of information with respect to the offering price, underwriting discounts or commissions, discounts or commissions to dealers, amount of proceeds, conversion rates, call prices, or other matters dependent upon the offering price; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the prospectus as declared effective containing the information specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is furnished to each purchaser prior to or simultaneously with the sale of the security. 
</P>
<P>(c) SEC Rule 174 (17 CFR 230.174—Delivery of prospectus by dealers; Exemptions under section 4(a)(3) of the Act) applies to transactions by dealers in national bank and Federal savings association issued securities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.4   Communications not deemed an offer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC will not deem the following communications to be an offer under § 16.3 of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to the filing of a registration statement, any notice of a proposed offering that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 135 (17 CFR 230.135); 
</P>
<P>(2) Subsequent to the filing of a registration statement, any notice, circular, advertisement, letter, or other communication published or transmitted to any person that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 134 (17 CFR 230.134); 
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent to the filing of a registration statement, any oral offer of securities covered by that registration statement; 
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent to the filing of a registration statement, any summary prospectus that is filed as a part of that registration statement and satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 431 (17 CFR 230.431); 
</P>
<P>(5) Subsequent to the effective date of a registration statement, any written communication if it is proved that each recipient of the communication simultaneously or previously received a written prospectus meeting the requirements of section 10(a) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77j(a)) and § 16.15 of this part that was filed with and declared effective by the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(6) A notice of a proposed unregistered offering that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 135c (17 CFR 230.135c); and 
</P>
<P>(7) A communication that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 138 or 139 (17 CFR 230.138 or 230.139). 
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC may request that communications not deemed an offer under paragraph (a) of this section be submitted to the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(c) The OCC may prohibit the publication or distribution of any communication not deemed an offer under paragraph (a) of this section if necessary to protect the investing public. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The registration statement and prospectus requirements of § 16.3 do not apply to an offer or sale of national bank or Federal savings association securities:
</P>
<P>(a) If the securities are exempt from registration under section 3 of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77c), but only by reason of an exemption other than section 3(a)(2) (exemption for bank securities), section 3(a)(5) (exemption for savings association securities), section 3(a)(11) (exemption for intrastate offerings), and section 3(a)(12) (exemption for bank holding company formation) of the Securities Act.
</P>
<P>(b) In a transaction exempt from registration under section 4 of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77d). SEC Rules 152 and 152a (17 CFR 230.152 and 230.152a) (which apply to sections 4(a)(2) and 4(a)(1) of the Securities Act) apply to this part;
</P>
<P>(c) In a transaction that satisfies the requirements of § 16.7 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(d) In a transaction that satisfies the requirements of § 16.8 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(e) In a transaction that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 144, 144A, or 236 (17 CFR 230.144, 230.144A, or 230.236);
</P>
<P>(f) In a transaction that satisfies the requirements of SEC Rule 701 (17 CFR 230.701);
</P>
<P>(g) In a transaction that is an offer or sale occurring outside the United States under SEC Regulation S (17 CFR part 230, Regulation S—Rules Governing Offers and Sales Made Outside the United States Without Registration Under the Securities Act of 1933); or
</P>
<P>(h) In a transaction that satisfies the requirements of § 16.9 of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994; 59 FR 67153, Dec. 29, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008; 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.6   Sales of nonconvertible debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC will deem offers or sales of national bank or Federal savings association issued nonconvertible debt to be in compliance with §§ 16.3 and 16.15(a) and (b) of this part if all of the following requirements are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association issuing the debt has securities registered under the Exchange Act or is a subsidiary of a holding company that has securities registered under the Exchange Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The debt is offered and sold only to accredited investors; 
</P>
<P>(3) The debt is sold in minimum denominations of $250,000 and each note or debenture, if issued in certificate form, is legended to provide that it cannot be exchanged for notes or debentures of the national bank or Federal savings association in smaller denominations; 
</P>
<P>(4) The debt is investment grade.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to or simultaneously with the sale of the debt, each purchaser receives an offering document that contains a description of the terms of the debt, the use of proceeds, and method of distribution, and incorporates the national bank's or Federal savings association's latest Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report) and the national bank's, Federal savings association's, or the holding company's Forms 10-K, 10-Q, and 8-K (17 CFR part 249) filed under the Exchange Act; and
</P>
<P>(6) The offering document and any amendments are filed with the OCC no later than the fifth business day after they are first used. 
</P>
<P>(b) Offers or sales of nonconvertible debt issued by a federal branch or agency of a foreign bank need not need comply with the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the federal branch or agency provides the OCC the information specified in SEC Rule 12g3-2(b) (17 CFR 240.12g3-2(b)) and provides purchasers the information specified in SEC Rule 144A(d)(4)(i) (17 CFR 230.144A(d)(4)(i)). A federal branch or agency that provides the OCC the information specified in SEC Rule 12g3-2(b) need not incorporate that information by reference into the offering document provided to purchasers pursuant to paragraph (a)(5) of this section. However, the federal branch or agency must make that information available to the potential purchasers upon request. The OCC will make the information available for public inspection. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008; 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012; 82 FR 8107, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.7   Nonpublic offerings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC will deem offers and sales of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities that meet all of the following requirements to be exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements of § 16.3 pursuant to § 16.5(c) of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) All the securities are offered and sold in a transaction that satisfies the requirements of SEC Regulation D (17 CFR part 230, Regulation D—Rules Governing the Limited Offer and Sale of Securities Without Registration Under the Securities Act of 1933); and
</P>
<P>(2) Each purchaser who is not an accredited investor either alone or with its purchaser representative(s) has the knowledge and experience in financial and business matters that it is capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment, or the issuer reasonably believes immediately prior to making any sale that the purchaser comes within this description. 
</P>
<P>(b) All subsequent sales of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities subject to the limitations on resale of SEC Regulation D (17 CFR part 230, Regulation D—Rules Governing the Limited Offer and Sale of Securities Without Registration Under the Securities Act of 1933) must be made pursuant to SEC Rule 144 (17 CFR 230.144), SEC Rule 144A (17 CFR 230.144A), another exemption from registration under the Securities Act referenced in § 16.5 of this part, or in accordance with the registration and prospectus requirements of § 16.3 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) No offer or sale of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities shall be made in reliance on SEC Regulation D (17 CFR part 230, Regulation D—Rules Governing the Limited Offer and Sale of Securities Without Registration Under the Securities Act of 1933) without compliance with paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008; 82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.8   Small issues.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC will deem offers and sales of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities that satisfy the requirements of SEC Regulation A (17 CFR part 230, Regulation A—Conditional Small Issues Exemption) to be exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements of § 16.3 pursuant to § 16.5(d) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) A filer should consult the SEC's Securities Act Industry Guide 3—Statistical Disclosure by Bank Holding Companies (17 CFR 229.801(c) and 231) and requirement 7 (Loans) of Rule 9-03 of SEC Regulation S-X (17 CFR 230.9-03) for guidance on appropriate disclosures when preparing offering documents to be filed with the OCC pursuant to Regulation A. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.9   Securities offered and sold in holding company dissolution.</HEAD>
<P>Offers and sales of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities in connection with the dissolution of the holding company of the national bank or Federal savings association are exempt from the registration and prospectus requirements of § 16.3 pursuant to § 16.5(h), provided all of the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(a) The offer and sale of national bank or Federal savings association issued securities occurs solely as part of a dissolution in which the security holders exchange their shares of stock in a holding company that had no significant assets other than securities of the bank or savings association, for bank or savings association stock;
</P>
<P>(b) The security holders receive, after the dissolution, substantially the same proportional share interests in the national bank or Federal savings association as they held in the holding company;
</P>
<P>(c) The rights and interests of the security holders in the national bank or Federal savings association are substantially the same as those in the holding company prior to the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(d) The national bank or Federal savings association has substantially the same assets and liabilities as the holding company had on a consolidated basis prior to the transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22243, Apr. 24, 2008, as amended at 82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.10   Sales of securities at an office of a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>Sales of securities of a Federal savings association or its affiliates at an office of a Federal savings association may be made only in accordance with the provisions of 12 CFR 163.76. For the purpose of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 161.4.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.15   Form and content.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registration statement filed pursuant to this part must be on the form for registration (17 CFR part 239) that the national bank or Federal savings association would be eligible to use were it required to register the securities under the Securities Act and must meet the requirements of the SEC regulations referred to in the applicable form for registration. A filer should consult the SEC's Securities Act Industry Guide 3—Statistical Disclosure by Bank Holding Companies (17 CFR 229.801(c) and 231) for guidance on appropriate disclosures when preparing registration statements. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any registration statement or amendment filed pursuant to this part must comply with the requirements of SEC Regulation C (17 CFR part 230, Regulation C—Registration), except to the extent those requirements conflict with specific requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the information expressly required to be included in the registration statement by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the registration statement must include any additional material information that is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the registration statement for securities issued by a national bank or Federal savings association that is not in compliance with the regulatory capital requirements set forth in 12 CFR part 3, as applicable must be on the Form S-1 (17 CFR part 239) registration statement under the Securities Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association in organization pursuant to § 5.20 of this chapter shall not be required to include audited financial statements as part of its registration statement for the offer and sale of its securities, or as part of its offering statement for the offer and sale of its securities pursuant to 12 CFR 16.8, unless the OCC determines that factors particular to the proposal indicate that inclusion of such statements would be in the interest of investors or would further the safe and sound operation of a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 73 FR 12010, Mar. 6, 2008; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 42641, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.16   Effectiveness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Registration statements and amendments filed with the OCC pursuant to this part will become effective in accordance with sections 8(a) and (c) of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77h(a) and (c)) and SEC Regulation C (17 CFR part 230, Regulation C—Registration). 
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC will deem registration statements and amendments that become effective pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section to be declared effective. If the OCC deems a registration statement to be declared effective, the OCC will also deem the prospectus that was filed as a part of that registration statement to be declared effective. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.17   Filing requirements and inspection of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, all registration statements, offering documents, amendments, notices, or other documents must be filed with the OCC's Law Department electronically at <I>http://www.banknet.gov/.</I> Documents may be signed electronically using the signature provision in SEC Rule 402 (17 CFR 230.402).
</P>
<P>(b) All registration statements, offering documents, amendments, notices, or other documents relating to a national bank or Federal savings association in organization must be filed with the appropriate district office of the OCC at <I>http://www.banknet.gov/.</I> All registration statements, offering documents, amendments, notices, or other documents relating to a mutual to stock conversion pursuant to 12 CFR part 192 must be filed with the appropriate OCC licensing office at <I>http://www.banknet.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) Where this part refers to a section of the Securities Act or the Exchange Act or an SEC rule that requires the filing of a notice or other document with the SEC, that notice or other document must be filed with the OCC.
</P>
<P>(d) Provided the person filing the document has complied with all requirements regarding the filing, including the submission of any fee required under § 16.33, the date of filing of the document is the date the OCC receives the filing. An electronic filing that is submitted on a business day by direct transmission commencing on or before 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, would be deemed received by the OCC on the same business day. An electronic filing that is submitted by direct transmission commencing after 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, or on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, would be deemed received by the OCC on the next business day. If an electronic filer in good faith attempts to file a document with the OCC in a timely manner but the filing is delayed due to technical difficulties beyond the electronic filer's control, the electronic filer may request that the OCC adjust the filing date of such document. The OCC may grant the request if it appears that such adjustment is appropriate and consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (d) of this section, any registration statement or any post-effective amendment thereto filed pursuant to SEC Rule 462(b) (17 CFR 230.462(b)) shall be deemed received by the OCC on the same business day if its submission commenced on or before 10 p.m. Eastern Standard Time or Eastern Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, and on the next business day if its submission commenced after 10 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is currently in effect, or any time on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(f) If a national bank or Federal savings association experiences unanticipated technical difficulties preventing the timely preparation and submission of an electronic filing, the bank or savings association may, upon notice to the OCC's Law Department or district office, as appropriate, file the subject filing in paper format no later than one business day after the date on which the filing was to be made. Paper filings should be submitted to the OCC's Law Department or appropriate district office, at the address provided at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) Any filing of amendments or revisions must include two copies, one of which must be marked to indicate clearly and precisely, by underlining or in some other appropriate manner, the changes made.
</P>
<P>(h) The OCC will make available for public inspection copies of the registration statements, offering documents, amendments, exhibits, notices or reports filed pursuant to this part at the address identified in § 4.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8108, Jan. 23, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 42641, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.18   Use of prospectus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall use a prospectus or amendment declared effective by the OCC more than nine months after the effective date unless the information contained in the prospectus or amendment is as of a date not more than 16 months prior to the date of use. 
</P>
<P>(b) If any event arises, or change in fact occurs, after the effective date and that event or change in fact, individually or in the aggregate, results in the prospectus containing any untrue statement of material fact, or omitting to state a material fact necessary in order to make statements made in the prospectus not misleading under the circumstances, then no person shall use the prospectus that has been declared effective under this part until an amendment reflecting the event or change has been filed with and declared effective by the OCC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.19   Withdrawal or abandonment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any registration statement, amendment, or exhibit may be withdrawn prior to the effective date. A withdrawal must be signed and state the grounds upon which it is made. The OCC will not remove any withdrawn document from its files, but will mark the document <I>Withdrawn upon the request of the registrant on (date).</I> 
</P>
<P>(b) When a registration statement or amendment has been on file with the OCC for a period of nine months and has not become effective, the OCC may, in its discretion, determine whether the filing has been abandoned. Before determining that a filing has been abandoned, the OCC will notify the filer that the filing is out of date and must either be amended to comply with the applicable requirements of this part or be withdrawn within 30 days after the date of notice. When a filing is abandoned, the OCC will not remove the filing from its files but will mark the filing <I>Declared abandoned by the OCC on (date).</I> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.30   Request for interpretive advice or no-objection letter.</HEAD>
<P>Any person requesting interpretive advice or a no-objection letter from the OCC with respect to any provision of this part shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) File a copy of the request, including any supporting attachments, with the OCC's Law Department at the address provided at <I>www.occ.gov</I>;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify or describe the provisions of this part to which the request relates, the participants in the proposed transaction, and the reasons for the request; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Include with the request a legal opinion as to each legal issue raised and an accounting opinion as to each accounting issue raised. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 42641, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.31   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may require that any funds received in connection with an offer or sale of securities be held in an independent escrow account at an unrelated insured depository institution when the use of an escrow account is in the best interests of shareholders. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.32   Fraudulent transactions and unsafe or unsound practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person in the offer or sale of national bank or Federal savings association securities shall directly or indirectly: 
</P>
<P>(1) Employ any device, scheme or artifice to defraud; 
</P>
<P>(2) Make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made, in light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in any act, practice, or course of business which operates as a fraud or deceit upon any person, in connection with the purchase or sale of any security of a national bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this section limits the applicability of section 17 of the Securities Act (15 U.S.C. 77q) or section 10(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78j) or Rule 10b-5 promulgated thereunder (17 CFR 240.10b-5). 
</P>
<P>(c) Any violation of this section also constitutes an unsafe or unsound practice under 12 U.S.C. 1818. 
</P>
<P>(d) SEC Rule 175 (17 CFR 230.175—Liability for certain statements by issuers) applies to this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 54798, Nov. 2, 1994, as amended at 82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 16.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.16.0.27.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 16.33   Filing fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC may require filing fees to accompany certain filings made under this part before it will accept those filings. The OCC provides an applicable fee schedule in the <I>Notice of Comptroller of the Currency Fees</I> published pursuant to § 8.8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Filing fees must be paid by check payable to the Comptroller of the Currency or by other means acceptable to the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 19—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 93, 93a, 161, 164, 481, 504, 1462a, 1463(a), 1464; 1467(d), 1467a(r), 1817(j), 1818, 1820, 1831m, 1831o, 1832, 1884, 1972, 3102, 3108, 3110, 3349, 3909, 4717, and 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78<I>l,</I> 78o-4, 78o-5, 78q-1, 78s, 78u, 78u-2, 78u-3, 78w, and 1639e; 28 U.S.C. 2461; 31 U.S.C. 330 and 5321; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89842, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 19.0" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.0   Applicability date.</HEAD>
<P>Subparts A through D and H, I, J, L, M, N, P, and Q of this part apply to adjudicatory proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024. The Rules of Practice and Procedure for national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches and agencies that were in effect prior to April 1, 2024, set forth in appendix A to this part, continue to apply to adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024, unless the parties otherwise stipulate that the rules in this part, effective April 1, 2024, apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the OCC is the appropriate agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the OCC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any provision of law referenced in 12 U.S.C. 93, or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93;
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 22 and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Amendments of 1970, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(4) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 or any regulation or order issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(7) Section 5211 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 161), pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 164;
</P>
<P>(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or any written agreement executed by the OCC or the former Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS), the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the OCC or the former OTS in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices, breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided in this section, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464(d), (s), and (v);
</P>
<P>(14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
</P>
<P>(15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(r);
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the post-employment restrictions imposed by section 10(k); and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules (see § 19.3(j)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.2   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge (ALJ)</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller</I> means the Comptroller of the Currency or a person delegated to perform the functions of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Comptroller's or ALJ's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Comptroller or the ALJ, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Electronic signature</I> means electronically affixing the equivalent of a signature to an electronic document filed or transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the OCC in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the Comptroller with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution</I> includes any national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the OCC in the subparts of this part excluding this subpart.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>OFIA</I> means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the OCC, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board of Governors”), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), and the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Party</I> means the OCC and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (h) this section.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the OCC.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in this subpart that are common to the OCC, the Board of Governors, the FDIC, and the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Violation</I> means any violation as that term is defined in section 3(v) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(v)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.4   Authority of the Comptroller.</HEAD>
<P>The Comptroller may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.5   Authority of the administrative law judge (ALJ).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 5. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> protective orders, and other orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 19.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Comptroller has the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Comptroller a recommended decision as provided in this part;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse oneself by motion made by a party or on the ALJ's own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of an ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.6   Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the OCC or an ALJ</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the OCC if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on the individual's own behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I>—(i) Any individual acting on the individual's own behalf or as counsel on behalf of a party, including the OCC, must file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party; and
</P>
<P>(B) A written acknowledgement that the individual has reviewed and will comply with the Uniform Rules and Local Rules in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that the counsel is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, the counsel will, if required by the ALJ, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that the party will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.7   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice must be signed by at least one counsel of record in the counsel's individual name and must state that counsel's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number. A party who acts as the party's own counsel must sign that person's individual name and state that person's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Electronic signatures may be used to satisfy the signature requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I>—(1) The signature of counsel or a party will constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the ALJ will strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the counsel's or party's statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.8   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person may appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The ALJ may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 19.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.9   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication. Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the OCC (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ALJ handling that proceeding, the Comptroller, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the Comptroller until the date that the Comptroller issues a final decision pursuant to § 19.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person outside the OCC must not make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to the Comptroller, the ALJ, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, ALJ, or decisional employee may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the OCC any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an <I>ex parte</I> communication is received by the ALJ, the Comptroller, or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person will cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding may, within ten days of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication, file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The ALJ or the Comptroller then determines whether any action should be taken concerning the <I>ex parte</I> communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or counsel to a party who makes a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Comptroller or the ALJ including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the ALJ may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of an employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision process.</I> An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 19.40, except as witness or counsel in administrative or judicial proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.10   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 19.25 and 19.26, must be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Comptroller or the ALJ, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Comptroller or the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers to a same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on an 8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 11 inch page and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 19.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the OCC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.11   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers must serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party must use one of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers by same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Comptroller or the ALJ.</I>—(1) All papers required to be served by the Comptroller or the ALJ upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 19.6 will be served by electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Comptroller or ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) If a respondent has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 19.6, the Comptroller or the ALJ will serve the respondent by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the respondent;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the respondent's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the person's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.12   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I>—(1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of transmission by electronic mail or other electronic means, upon transmittal by the serving party;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight delivery service or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of personal service or same day courier delivery, upon actual service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Comptroller or ALJ in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by electronic mail or other electronic means or by same day courier delivery, add one calendar day to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by overnight delivery service, add two calendar days to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.13   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the ALJ may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Comptroller pursuant to § 19.38, the Comptroller may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Comptroller's or the ALJ's own motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.14   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A witness, including an expert witness, who testifies at a deposition or hearing will be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and unless otherwise waived.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception for testimony by a party.</I> In the case of testimony by a party, no witness fees or mileage need to be paid. The OCC will not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of payment.</I> Fees and mileage in accordance with this paragraph (c) must be paid in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the OCC is the party requesting the subpoena.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.15   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. Any such offer or proposal may only be made to Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.16   OCC's right to conduct examination.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the OCC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the OCC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.17   Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding will continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart will be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.18   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I>—(1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law. Enforcement Counsel may serve the notice upon counsel for the respondent, provided that Enforcement Counsel has confirmed that counsel represents the respondent in the matter and will accept service of the notice on behalf of the respondent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enforcement Counsel must file the notice with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> Notice pleading applies. The notice must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Matters of fact or law showing that the OCC is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing must be filed with OFIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.19   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent must file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent must also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the respondent lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Comptroller based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order of the Comptroller without further action by the ALJ.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.20   Amended pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Comptroller or ALJ orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the ALJ may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the ALJ that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The ALJ may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.21   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the ALJ will file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.22   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation</I>—(1) On the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The ALJ may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the ALJ finds:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.23   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I>—(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the ALJ. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the ALJ directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the ALJ, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I>—(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the ALJ or the Comptroller, any party may file a written response to a motion. The ALJ will not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 19.29 and 19.30.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.24   Scope of document discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery</I>—(1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term <I>documents</I> includes writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, electronically stored information, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party, into a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of either interrogatories or requests for admission is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material; or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, or the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All document discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, must be completed by the date set by the ALJ and no later than 30 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit are permitted, unless the ALJ finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of paragraph (d).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.25   Request for document discovery from parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Document requests.</I>—(1) Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect or copy any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. In the case of a request for inspection, the responding party may produce copies of documents or of electronically stored information instead of permitting inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) The request:
</P>
<P>(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected or produced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection or production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the ALJ or agreed upon by the parties, the producing party must produce copies of documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or organized to correspond to the categories of the request, and electronically stored information must be produced in a form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> The producing party must pay its own costs to respond to a discovery request, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I>—(1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within 20 days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 19.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to must be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) and § 19.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, or any other privileges of the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law, or are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The ALJ retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I>—(1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 19.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the document request may file a written response to a motion to compel within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the ALJ will rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, the ALJ may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the ALJ may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the ALJ its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the ALJ's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the ALJ issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena will not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.26   Document subpoenas to nonparties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I>—(1) Any party may apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 19.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I>—(1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena with the ALJ. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 19.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the ALJ has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena will in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.27" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.27   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I>—(1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the ALJ for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The ALJ may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the ALJ requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the ALJ orders otherwise, no deposition under this section may be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I>—(1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the ALJ to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I>—(1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party must have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the ALJ for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition must certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section, or fails to comply with any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraphs (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena with which the subpoenaed party has not complied. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.28" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.28   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Comptroller may review a ruling of the ALJ prior to the certification of the record to the Comptroller only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 19.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Comptroller may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the ALJ if the Comptroller finds:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review must be filed by a party with the ALJ within ten days of the ruling and must otherwise comply with § 19.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 19.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the ALJ will refer the matter to the Comptroller for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Comptroller under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ or the Comptroller.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.29" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.29   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The ALJ will recommend that the Comptroller issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I>—(1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that the party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the ALJ, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends supports the moving party's position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the opposing party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the written request of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the ALJ will determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the ALJ determines that summary disposition is warranted, the ALJ will submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Comptroller. If the ALJ finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, the ALJ will make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.30   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If the ALJ determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, the ALJ will defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the ALJ has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.31   Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding, the ALJ will direct counsel for all parties to meet with the ALJ at a specified time and manner prior to the hearing for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting is called a “scheduling conference.” The schedule for the identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The ALJ may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to confer with the ALJ at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The ALJ may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at the party's expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the ALJ will serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.32   Prehearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Party prehearing submissions.</I> Within the time set by the ALJ, but in no case later than 20 days before the start of the hearing, each party must file with the ALJ and serve on every other party:
</P>
<P>(1) A prehearing statement that states:
</P>
<P>(i) The party's position with respect to the legal issues presented;
</P>
<P>(ii) The statutory and case law upon which the party relies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The facts that the party expects to prove at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness, which need not identify the exhibits to be relied upon by each witness at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the exhibits expected to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.33   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings must be open to the public, unless the Comptroller in their discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Comptroller a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the ALJ a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Comptroller. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 19.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in Enforcement Counsel's discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The ALJ will take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.34   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I>—(1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the ALJ may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application must serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the ALJ, the party making the application must serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I>—(1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 19.26(c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.35   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Conduct of hearings.</I> Hearings must be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel will present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel will be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the ALJ will fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the ALJ may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the ALJ directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The ALJ may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the ALJ's own motion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the ALJ may direct the use of, or any party may use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the ALJ requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs, unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.36   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility</I>—(1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice</I>—(1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the ALJ or the Comptroller must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, must be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents</I>—(1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection, or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a State regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the ALJ's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections</I>—(1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what the examining counsel expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct questioning of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses</I>—(1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the ALJ may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.37   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs</I>—(1) Using the same method of service for each party, the ALJ will serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the ALJ proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the ALJ or within such longer period as may be ordered by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the ALJ any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The ALJ will not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.38   Recommended decision and filing of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 19.37(b), the ALJ will file with and certify to the Comptroller, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the ALJ's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The ALJ will serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the ALJ files with and certifies to the Comptroller for final determination the record of the proceeding, the ALJ will furnish to the Comptroller a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index must include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document, or motion filed with the ALJ in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index must also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.39   Exceptions to recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 19.38, a party may file with the Comptroller written exceptions to the ALJ's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the ALJ to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions</I>—(1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Comptroller if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the ALJ and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I>—(1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the ALJ's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the ALJ's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.40   Review by the Comptroller.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Comptroller.</I> When the Comptroller determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Comptroller will serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Comptroller for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Comptroller.</I> Upon the initiative of the Comptroller or on the written request of any party filed with the Comptroller within the time for filing exceptions, the Comptroller may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the ALJ. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Comptroller's final decision. Oral argument before the Comptroller must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller's final decision</I>—(1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Comptroller in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Comptroller will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Comptroller may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller will render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Comptroller orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the ALJ for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Comptroller will be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Comptroller or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.1.27.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.41   Stays pending judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Comptroller may not, unless specifically ordered by the Comptroller or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Comptroller. The Comptroller may, in its discretion, and on such terms as the Comptroller finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedural Rules for OCC Adjudications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.100   Filing documents.</HEAD>
<P>All materials required to be filed with or referred to the Comptroller or the ALJ in any proceeding under this part must be filed with the OCC Hearing Clerk in a manner prescribed by § 19.10(b) and (c). Filings to be made with the Hearing Clerk include the notice and answer; motions and responses to motions; briefs; the record filed by the ALJ after the issuance of a recommended decision; the recommended decision filed by the ALJ following a motion for summary disposition; referrals by the ALJ of motions for interlocutory review; exceptions and requests for oral argument; any other papers required to be filed with the Comptroller or the ALJ under this part; and any attachments or exhibits to such documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.101   Delegation to OFIA.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller, an ALJ assigned to OFIA conducts administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.102" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.102   Civil money penalties.</HEAD>
<P>A respondent must pay civil money penalties assessed pursuant to subpart A of this part within 60 days after the issuance of the notice of assessment unless the OCC requires a different time for payment. A respondent that has made a timely request for a hearing to challenge the assessment of the penalty is not required to pay the penalty until the OCC has issued a final order of assessment. In these instances, the respondent must pay the penalty within 60 days of service of the order unless the OCC requires a different time for payment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Removals, Suspensions, and Prohibitions of an Institution-Affiliated Party When a Crime Is Charged or a Conviction Is Obtained</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.110" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.110   Scope and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to informal hearings afforded to any institution-affiliated party who has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in the affairs of any depository institution pursuant to section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) by a notice or order issued by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this subpart—
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>petitioner</I> means an individual who has filed a petition for an informal hearing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>depository institution</I> means any national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>OCC Supervisory Office</I> means the Senior Deputy Comptroller or Deputy Comptroller of the OCC department or office responsible for supervision of the depository institution or, in the case of an individual no longer affiliated with a particular depository institution, the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.111" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.111   Suspension, removal, or prohibition of institution-affiliated party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of notice or order.</I> The Comptroller may serve a notice of suspension or prohibition or order of removal or prohibition pursuant to section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) on an institution-affiliated party. The Comptroller will serve a copy of this notice or order on any depository institution that the subject of the notice or order is affiliated with at the time the OCC issues the notice or order. After service of the notice or order, the institution-affiliated party must immediately cease service to, or participation in the affairs of, that depository institution and, if so determined by the OCC, any other depository institution. The notice or order will indicate the basis for suspension, removal, or prohibition and will inform the institution-affiliated party of the right to request in writing, within 30 days from the date that the institution-affiliated party was served, an opportunity to show at an informal hearing that continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution has not posed, does not pose, or is not likely to pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or has not threatened, does not threaten, or is not likely to threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution. The Comptroller will serve the notice or order upon the institution-affiliated party and the related institution in the manner set forth in § 19.11(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for hearing</I>—(1) <I>Submission.</I> Unless instructed otherwise in writing by the Comptroller, an institution-affiliated party must send the written request for an informal hearing referenced in paragraph (a) of this section to the OCC Supervisory Office by certified mail, a same day courier service, an overnight delivery service, or by personal service with a signed receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of request for a hearing.</I> The request filed under this section must state specifically the relief desired and the grounds on which that relief is based and must admit, deny, or state that the institution-affiliated party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation in the notice or order. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation denied; general denials are not permitted. When the institution-affiliated party denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation in the notice or order which is not denied is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. The request must state with particularity how the institution-affiliated party intends to show that its continued service to or participation in the affairs of the institution would not pose a threat to the interests of the institution's depositors or impair public confidence in any institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default.</I> If the institution-affiliated party fails to timely file a petition for a hearing pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or fails to appear at a hearing, either in person or by counsel, or fails to submit a written argument where oral argument has been waived pursuant to § 19.112(c), the notice will remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of and the order will remain in effect until terminated by the OCC.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.112" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.112   Informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of hearing order.</I> After receipt of a request for hearing, the OCC Supervisory Office must notify the petitioner requesting the hearing and OCC Enforcement of the date, time, and place fixed for the hearing. The OCC will hold the hearing no later than 30 days from the date when the OCC receives the request for a hearing, unless the time is extended in response to a written request of the petitioner. The OCC Supervisory Office may extend the hearing date only for a specific period of time and must take appropriate action to ensure that the hearing is not unduly delayed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appointment of presiding officer.</I> The OCC Supervisory Office must appoint one or more OCC employees as the presiding officer to conduct the hearing. The presiding officer(s) may not have been involved in a prosecutorial or investigative role in the proceeding, a factually related proceeding, or the underlying enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver of oral hearing</I>—(1) <I>Petitioner.</I> When the petitioner requests a hearing, the petitioner may elect to have the matter determined by the presiding officer solely on the basis of written submissions by serving on the OCC Supervisory Office and all parties a signed document waiving the statutory right to appear and make oral argument. The petitioner must present the written submissions to the presiding officer and serve the other parties not later than ten days prior to the date fixed for the hearing or within a shorter time period as the presiding officer may permit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OCC.</I> The OCC may respond to the petitioner's submissions by presenting the presiding officer with a written response and by serving the other parties in the manner prescribed by § 19.11(c) not later than the date fixed for the hearing or within such other time period as the presiding officer may require.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> Hearings under this subpart are not subject to the provisions of subpart A of this part or the adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Powers of the presiding officer.</I> The presiding officer must determine all procedural issues that are governed by this subpart. The presiding officer also may permit witnesses, limit the number of witnesses, and impose time limitations as they deem reasonable. The informal hearing will not be governed by formal rules of evidence, including the Federal Rules of Evidence. The presiding officer must consider all oral presentations, when permitted, and all documents the presiding officer deems to be relevant and material to the proceeding and not unduly repetitious. The presiding officer may ask questions of any person participating in the hearing and may make any rulings reasonably necessary to facilitate the effective and efficient operation of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Presentation.</I> (i) The OCC and the petitioner may present relevant written materials and oral argument at the hearing. The petitioner may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. Except as permitted in paragraph (c) of this section, each party, including the OCC, must file a copy of any affidavit, memorandum, or other written material to be presented at the hearing with the presiding officer and must serve the other parties not later than ten days prior to the hearing or within such shorter time period as permitted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the petitioner or the OCC desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, they must file a written request with the presiding officer not later than ten days prior to the hearing, or within a shorter time period as required by the presiding officer. The written request must include the names of proposed witnesses, along with the general nature of the expected testimony, and the reasons why oral testimony is necessary. The presiding officer generally will not admit oral testimony or witnesses unless a specific and compelling need is demonstrated. Witnesses, if admitted, must be sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the presiding officer, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the witness.
</P>
<P>(iii) In deciding on any suspension or prohibition based on an indictment, information, or complaint, the presiding officer may not consider the ultimate question of the guilt or innocence of the individual with respect to the criminal charges that are outstanding. In deciding on any removal or prohibition with respect to a conviction or pre-trial diversion program, the presiding officer may not consider challenges to or efforts to impeach the validity of the conviction or the agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion program or other similar program. The presiding officer may consider facts in either situation, however, that show the nature of the events on which the criminal charges, conviction, or agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion program or other similar program was based.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the presiding officer may direct the use of, or any party may elect to use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the presiding officer requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs unless the parties agree to another manner by which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record.</I> A transcript of the proceedings may be taken if the petitioner requests a transcript and agrees to pay all expenses or if the presiding officer determines that the nature of the case warrants a transcript. The presiding officer may order the record to be kept open for a reasonable period following the hearing, not to exceed five business days, to permit the petitioner or the OCC to submit additional documents for the record. Thereafter, no further submissions may be accepted except for good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.113" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.113   Recommended and final decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of recommended decision.</I> The presiding officer must issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller within 20 days of the conclusion of the hearing or, when the petitioner has waived an oral hearing, within 20 days of the date fixed for the hearing. The presiding officer must serve promptly a copy of the recommended decision on the parties to the proceeding. The decision must include a summary of the facts and arguments of the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comments.</I> Each party may, within ten days of being served with the presiding officer's recommended decision, submit to the Comptroller comments on the recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance of final decision.</I> Within 60 days of the conclusion of the hearing or, if the petitioner has waived an oral hearing, within 60 days from the date fixed for the hearing, the Comptroller will notify the petitioner by registered mail, or electronic mail or other electronic means if the petitioner consents, whether the suspension or removal from office or prohibition from participation in any manner in the affairs of any depository institution will be affirmed, terminated, or modified. The Comptroller's decision must include a statement of reasons supporting the decision. The Comptroller's decision is a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other actions.</I> A finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge or charges on which a notice of suspension was based does not preclude the Comptroller from thereafter instituting removal proceedings pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)) and subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expiration of order.</I> A removal or prohibition by order remains in effect until terminated by the Comptroller. A suspension or prohibition by notice remains in effect until the criminal charge is disposed of or until terminated by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Petition for reconsideration.</I> A suspended or removed individual may petition the Comptroller to reconsider the decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the decision, but no petition for reconsideration may be made within 12 months of a previous petition. The petition must state specifically the relief sought and the grounds therefor, and may be accompanied by a supporting memorandum and any other documentation the petitioner wishes to have considered. The Comptroller is not required to grant a hearing on the petition for reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Actions Under the Federal Securities Laws</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.120" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.120   Exemption hearings under section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The rules in this section apply to informal hearings that may be held by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority in sections 12(h) and (i) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(h) and (i)), to exempt in whole or in part an issuer or a class of issuers from the provisions of section 12(g), or from section 13 or 14 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g), 78m or 78n), or whether to exempt from section 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p) any officer, director, or beneficial owner of securities of an issuer. The only issuers covered by this section are national banks and Federal savings associations whose securities are registered, or which may be subject to registration, pursuant to section 12(g) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g)). The Comptroller may deny an application for exemption without a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for exemption.</I> An issuer or an individual (officer, director, or shareholder) may submit a written application for an exemption order to Bank Advisory, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. The application must specify the type of exemption sought and the reasons for the exemption, including an explanation of why an exemption would not be inconsistent with the public interest or the protection of investors. Bank Advisory will inform the applicant in writing whether a hearing will be held to consider the matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Newspaper notice.</I> Upon being informed that an application will be considered at a hearing, the applicant must publish a notice one time in a newspaper of general circulation in the community where the issuer's main office is located. The notice must state: The name and title of any individual applicants; the type of exemption sought; the fact that a hearing will be held; and a statement that interested persons may submit to Bank Advisory, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219 within 30 days from the date of the newspaper notice, written comments concerning the application and a written request for an opportunity to be heard. The applicant must promptly provide a copy of the notice to Bank Advisory and to the national bank's or Federal savings association's shareholders in the same manner as is customary for shareholder communications.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Informal hearing</I>—(1) <I>Conduct of proceeding.</I> The adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, formal rules of evidence, and subpart A of this part do not apply to hearings conducted under this section, except as provided in § 19.100.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> Following the comment period, the Comptroller will send a notice that fixes a date, time, and place for hearing to each applicant and to any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The Comptroller will designate a presiding officer to conduct the hearing. The presiding officer must determine all procedural questions not governed by this section and may limit the number of witnesses and impose time and presentation limitations as are deemed reasonable. At the conclusion of the informal hearing, the presiding officer must issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller as to whether the exemption should be issued. The decision must include a summary of the facts and arguments of the parties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Attendance.</I> Each applicant and any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard may attend the hearing with or without counsel. The hearing will be open to the public. In addition, each applicant and any other hearing participant may introduce oral testimony through such witnesses as the presiding officer may permit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Order of presentation.</I> (i) Each applicant may present an opening statement of a length decided by the presiding officer. Each of the hearing participants, or one among them selected with the approval of the presiding officer, may then present an opening statement. The opening statement should summarize concisely what each applicant and participant intends to show.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each applicant will have an opportunity to make an oral presentation of facts and materials or submit written materials for the record. One or more of the hearing participants may make an oral presentation or a written submission.
</P>
<P>(iii) After the above presentations, each applicant, followed by one or more of the hearing participants, may make concise summary statements reviewing their position.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Witnesses.</I> The obtaining and use of witnesses is the responsibility of the parties afforded the hearing. All witnesses must be present on their own volition, but any person appearing as a witness may be questioned by each applicant, any hearing participant, and the presiding officer. Witnesses must be sworn unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the presiding officer, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the witness.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Evidence.</I> The presiding officer may exclude data or materials deemed to be improper or irrelevant. Formal rules of evidence do not apply. Documentary material must be of a size consistent with ease of handling and filing. The presiding officer may determine the number of copies that must be furnished for purposes of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the presiding officer may direct the use of, or any party may elect to use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the presiding officer requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Transcript.</I> The OCC will arrange a transcript of each proceeding with all expenses, including the furnishing of a copy to the presiding officer by electronic means or otherwise, paid by the applicant or applicants.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision of the Comptroller.</I> Following the conclusion of the hearing and the submission of the record and the presiding officer's recommended decision to the Comptroller for decision, the Comptroller will notify each applicant and all persons who have so requested in writing of the final disposition of the application. Exemptions granted must be in the form of an order that specifies the type of exemption granted and its terms and conditions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.121" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.121   Disciplinary proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in this section, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in sections 15B(c)(5), 15C(c)(2)(A), 17A(c)(3), and 17A(c)(4)(C) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5(c)(2)(A), 78q-1(c)(3)(A), and 78q-1(c)(4)(C)), to take disciplinary action against the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank that is a municipal securities dealer, any person associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer, or any person seeking to become associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer, any person associated with a bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer, or any person seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A bank that is a transfer agent, any person associated with a bank that is a transfer agent, or any person seeking to become associated with a bank that is a transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other actions.</I> In addition to the issuance of disciplinary orders after opportunity for hearing, the Comptroller may issue and serve any notices and temporary or permanent cease-and-desist orders and take any actions that are authorized by section 8 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818); sections 15B(c)(5), 15C(c)(2)(B), and 17A(d)(2) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5(c)(2)(B), and 78q-1(d)(2)); and other sections of this part against the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The parties listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that is a clearing agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>bank</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association, and, when referring to a government securities broker or government securities dealer, a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms <I>transfer agent, municipal securities dealer, government securities broker,</I> and <I>government securities dealer</I> have the same meaning as the terms in sections 3(a)(25), 3(a)(30), 3(a)(43), and 3(a)(44) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(25), 78c(a)(30), 78c(a)(43), and 78c(a)(44)), respectively;
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms <I>person associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer</I> and <I>person associated with a municipal securities dealer</I> have the same meaning as <I>person associated with a municipal securities dealer</I> in section 3(a)(32) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(32));
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms <I>person associated with a bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer</I> and <I>person associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer</I> have the same meaning as <I>person associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer</I> in section 3(a)(45) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(45)); and
</P>
<P>(v) The terms <I>person associated with a bank that is a transfer agent</I> and <I>person associated with a transfer agent</I> have the same meaning as <I>person associated with a transfer agent</I> in section 3(a)(49) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(49)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section impairs the powers conferred on the Comptroller by other provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of charges and answer</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Proceedings are commenced when the Comptroller serves a notice of charges on a bank or associated person. The notice must indicate the type of disciplinary action being contemplated and the grounds therefor and fix a date, time, and place for hearing. The hearing must be set for a date at least 30 days after service of the notice. A respondent served with a notice of charges may file an answer as prescribed in § 19.19. Any respondent who fails to appear at a hearing personally or by a duly authorized representative is deemed to have consented to the issuance of a disciplinary order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public basis of proceedings; private hearings.</I> All proceedings under this section must be commenced, and the notice of charges must be filed, on a public basis unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), a request for a private hearing may be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disciplinary orders</I>—(1) <I>Service of order; content.</I> In the event of consent, or if on the record filed by the ALJ, the Comptroller finds that any act or omission or violation specified in the notice of charges has been established, the Comptroller may serve on the bank or persons concerned a disciplinary order, as provided in the Exchange Act. The order may:
</P>
<P>(i) Censure; limit the activities, functions, or operations of; or suspend or revoke the registration of a bank that is a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Censure, suspend, or bar any person associated with a municipal securities dealer or seeking to become a person associated with a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Censure; limit the activities, functions, or operations of; or suspend or bar a bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Censure; limit the activities, functions, or operations of; or suspend or bar any person associated with or seeking to become a person associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny registration to; limit the activities, functions, or operations of; or suspend or revoke the registration of a bank that is a transfer agent; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Censure, limit the activities or functions of, or suspend or bar any person associated with a transfer agent or seeking to become a person associated with a transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date of order.</I> A disciplinary order is effective when served on the respondent or respondents involved and remains effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Comptroller or a reviewing court.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applications for stay or review of disciplinary actions imposed by registered clearing agencies</I>—(1) <I>Stays.</I> The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 19 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-2) apply to applications by banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the “OCC.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reviews.</I> The regulations adopted by the SEC pursuant to section 19 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for reviews of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-3(a) through (f)) apply to applications by banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the “OCC.”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.122" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.122   Civil money penalty authority under Federal securities laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Except as provided in this section, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2), in proceedings commenced pursuant to sections 15B, 15C, and 17A of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4, 78o-5, or 78q-1) for which the OCC is the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)), the Comptroller may impose a civil money penalty against the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank that is a municipal securities dealer, any person associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer, or any person seeking to become associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer, any person associated with a bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer, or any person seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer; or
</P>
<P>(3) A bank that is a transfer agent, any person associated with a bank that is a transfer agent, or any person seeking to become associated with a bank that is a transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>bank</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association, and, when referring to a government securities broker or government securities dealer, a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms <I>transfer agent, municipal securities dealer, government securities broker,</I> and <I>government securities dealer</I> have the same meaning as such terms in sections 3(a)(25), 3(a)(30), 3(a)(43), and 3(a)(44) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(25), 78c(a)(30), 78c(a)(43), and 78c(a)(44)), respectively;
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>person associated with a bank that is a municipal securities dealer</I> has the same meaning as <I>person associated with a municipal securities dealer</I> in section 3(a)(32) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(32));
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>person associated with a bank that is a government securities broker or government securities dealer</I> has the same meaning as <I>person associated with a government securities broker or government securities dealer</I> in section 3(a)(45) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(45)); and
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>person associated with a bank that is a transfer agent</I> has the same meaning as <I>person associated with a transfer agent</I> in section 3(a)(49) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(49)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public basis of proceedings; private hearings.</I> All proceedings under this section must be commenced, and the notice of assessment must be filed, on a public basis, unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), any request for a private hearing may be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.123" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.123   Cease-and-desist authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Except as provided in this section, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in sections 12(i) and 21C of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(i) and 78u-3), the Comptroller may initiate cease-and-desist proceedings against a national bank or Federal savings association for violations of sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78j-1(m), 78<I>l,</I> 78m, 78n(a), 78n(c), 78n(d), 78n(f), and 78p); sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 as amended (15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265); or regulations or rules issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public basis of proceedings; private hearings.</I> All proceedings under this section must be commenced, and the notice of charges must be filed, on a public basis, unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), any request for a private hearing may be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts E through G—Reserved</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Change in Bank Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.160   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart governs the procedures for a hearing requested by a person who has filed a notice that has been disapproved by the OCC for a change in control of:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to section 7(j) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) and 12 CFR 5.50; or
</P>
<P>(2) An uninsured national bank pursuant to 12 CFR 5.50.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability of subpart A of this part.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, the rules in subpart A set forth the procedures applicable to requests for OCC hearings under this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.161" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.6.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.161   Hearing process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing request.</I> Pursuant to 12 CFR 5.50(f)(6), following receipt of a notice of disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control of a national bank or Federal savings association, a filer may request a hearing by the OCC on the proposed acquisition. A hearing request must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Be filed with the Hearing Clerk of the OCC within ten days after service on the filer of the notice of disapproval. If a filer fails to request a hearing with a timely written request, the notice of disapproval constitutes a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing order.</I> Following receipt of a hearing request, the Comptroller will issue, within 20 days, an order that sets forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The matters of fact or law upon which the disapproval is based; and
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement for filing an answer to the hearing order with OFIA within 20 days after service of the hearing order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Answer.</I> An answer to a hearing order must specifically deny those portions of the order that are disputed. Those portions of the order that the filer does not specifically deny are deemed admitted by the filer. Any hearing under this subpart is limited to those portions of the order that are specifically denied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a filer to file an answer within 20 days after service of the hearing order constitutes a waiver of the filer's right to appear and contest the allegations in the hearing order. If a filer does not file a timely answer, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the hearing order. Any final order issued by the Comptroller based upon a filer's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent and is a final and unappealable order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Discovery Depositions and Subpoenas</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.170" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.7.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.170   Discovery depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In any proceeding instituted under or subject to the provisions of subpart A of this part, a party may take the deposition of a fact witness, an expert, or a hybrid fact-expert where there is need for the deposition. A fact witness is a person, including another party, who has direct knowledge of matters that are non-privileged and of material relevance to the proceeding. A hybrid fact-expert witness is a fact witness who will also provide relevant expert opinion testimony based on the witness' training and experience. The deposition of experts is limited to those experts who are expected to testify at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Report.</I> A party must produce an expert report for any testifying expert or hybrid fact-expert witness before the witness' deposition. Unless otherwise provided by the ALJ, the party must produce this report at least 20 days prior to any deposition of the expert or hybrid fact-expert witness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on depositions.</I> Respondents, collectively, are limited to a combined total of five depositions from fact witnesses and hybrid fact-expert witnesses. Enforcement Counsel are limited to a combined total of five depositions from fact witnesses and hybrid fact-expert witnesses. A party is entitled to take a deposition of each expert witness designated by an opposing party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A party desiring to take a deposition must give reasonable notice in writing to the deponent and to every other party to the proceeding. The notice must state the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition, and the name and address of the person to be deposed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Location.</I> A deposition notice may require the witness to be deposed at any place within a State, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, or such other convenient place as agreed by the noticing party and the witness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Remote participation.</I> The parties may stipulate, or the ALJ may order, that a deposition be taken by telephone or other remote means.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits.</I> A party may take depositions at any time after the commencement of the proceeding, but no later than 20 days before the scheduled hearing date, except with permission of the ALJ for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The witness must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party will have the right to examine the witness with respect to all matters that are non-privileged and of material relevance to the proceeding and of which the witness has factual, direct, and personal knowledge. Objections to questions or exhibits must be in short form and must state the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or exhibits is not a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recording the testimony</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> The party taking the deposition must have a certified court reporter record the witness' testimony:
</P>
<P>(i) By stenotype machine or electronic means, such as by sound or video recording device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon agreement of the parties, by any other method; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For good cause and with leave of the ALJ, by any other method.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost.</I> The party taking the deposition must bear the cost of recording and transcribing the witness' testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transcript.</I> Unless the parties agree that a transcription is not necessary, the court reporter must provide a transcript of the witness' testimony to the party taking the deposition and must make a copy of the transcript available to each party upon payment by that party of the cost of the copy.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protective orders.</I> At any time after notice of a deposition has been given, a party may file a motion for the issuance of a protective order. Such protective order may prohibit, terminate, or limit the scope or manner of the taking of a deposition. The ALJ may grant a protective order upon a showing of sufficient grounds, including that the deposition:
</P>
<P>(1) Is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome;
</P>
<P>(2) Involves privileged, irrelevant, or immaterial matters;
</P>
<P>(3) Involves unwarranted attempts to pry into a party's preparation for trial; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is being conducted in bad faith or in such manner as to unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the witness.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Expenses.</I> Deposition witnesses, including expert witnesses, must be paid the same expenses in the same manner as are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States in proceedings in which the United States is a party. Expenses in accordance with this paragraph (g) must be paid by the party seeking to take the deposition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.171" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.7.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.171   Deposition subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> At the request of a party, the ALJ may issue a subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness at a discovery deposition under § 19.170. The attendance of a witness may be required from any place in any State, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service</I>—(1) <I>Methods of service.</I> The party requesting the subpoena must serve it on the person named therein, or on that person's counsel, by any of the methods identified in § 19.11(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proof of service.</I> The party serving the subpoena must file proof of service with the ALJ, unless the ALJ issues an order indicating the filing of proof of service is not required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion to quash.</I> A person named in a subpoena, or any party, may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena. A statement of the reasons for the motion must accompany it and a copy of the motion must be served on the party that requested the subpoena. The motion must be made prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena and not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena, or if the subpoena is served within 15 days of the hearing, within five days after the date of service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement of deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena must be in accordance with the procedures of § 19.27(d).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Formal Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.180" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.180   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart and § 19.8 apply to formal investigations initiated by order of the Comptroller and pertain to the exercise of powers specified in section 5240 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 481); section 5(d)(1)(B) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1)(B)); sections 7(j)(15), 8(n), and 10(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15), 1818(n), and 1820(c)); sections 4(b) and 13(a) and (b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3102(b) and 3108(a) and (b)); and section 21 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u). This subpart does not restrict or in any way affect the authority of the Comptroller to conduct examinations into the affairs or ownership of national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches and agencies, and their affiliates.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.181" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.181   Confidentiality of formal investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The entire record of any formal investigative proceeding, including the resolution or order of the Comptroller authorizing or terminating the proceeding; all subpoenas issued by the OCC during the investigation; and all information, documents, and transcripts obtained by the OCC in the course of a formal investigation, are confidential and may be disclosed only in accordance with the provisions of part 4 of this chapter or pursuant to OCC discovery obligations under subpart A of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.182" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.182   Order to conduct a formal investigation.</HEAD>
<P>A formal investigation begins with the issuance of an order signed by the Comptroller. The order must designate the person or persons empowered by the Comptroller to conduct the investigation. These persons are authorized, among other things, to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken testimony under oath, and to issue or modify subpoenas, including subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> as to any matter under investigation by the Comptroller. Upon application and for good cause shown, the Comptroller may limit, modify, withdraw, or terminate the order at any stage of the proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.183" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.183   Rights of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to be shown order.</I> Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish testimony, documentary evidence, or other information with respect to any matter under formal investigation must, on request, be shown the order initiating the investigation. These persons may not retain copies of the order without first receiving written approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Right to counsel.</I> Any person who, in a formal investigation, is compelled to appear and testify, or who appears and testifies by request or permission of the OCC, may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel. The right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel means the right of a person testifying to have an attorney present at all times while testifying and to have the attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the person before, during, and after the conclusion of testimony;
</P>
<P>(2) Question the person, on the record, briefly at the conclusion of testimony for the purpose of clarifying any of the answers given; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make summary notes during the testimony solely for use in representing the person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion from proceedings.</I> Any person who has given or will give testimony and counsel representing the person may be excluded from the proceedings during the taking of testimony of any other person at the discretion of the OCC or the OCC's designated representatives. Neither attorney(s) for the institution(s) affiliated with the testifying person nor attorneys for any other interested persons have any right to be present during the testimony of any person not personally represented by such attorney.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Right to inspect testimony transcript.</I> Any person who is compelled to give testimony is entitled to inspect any transcript that has been made of the testimony but may not obtain a copy if the OCC or the OCC's designated representatives conducting the proceedings determine that the contents should not be disclosed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.184" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.184   Service of subpoena and payment of witness expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methods of service.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made by any of the methods identified in § 19.11(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expenses.</I> The fees and expenses specified in § 19.14 apply to a witness who is subpoenaed to testify pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Area of service.</I> Subpoenas issued in connection with a formal investigation proceeding that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of documents, including electronically stored information, may be served on any person or entity within any State, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law. Foreign nationals are subject to such subpoenas if service is made upon a duly authorized agent located in the United States or in accordance with international requirements for service of subpoenas.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.185" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.8.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.185   Dilatory, obstructionist, or insubordinate conduct.</HEAD>
<P>Any OCC designated representative conducting an investigative proceeding will report to the Comptroller any instances where any person has engaged in dilatory, obstructionist, or insubordinate conduct during the course of the proceeding or any other instance involving a violation of this part. The Comptroller may take such action as the circumstances warrant, including exclusion of the offending individual or individuals from participation in the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Parties and Representational Practice Before the OCC; Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.190" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.190   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains rules relating to parties and representational practice before the OCC. This subpart includes the imposition of sanctions by the ALJ, any other presiding officer appointed pursuant to subpart C of this part and § 19.120, or the Comptroller against parties or their counsel in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part. This subpart also covers other disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension, or debarment—against individuals who appear before the OCC in a representational capacity either in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part or in any other matters connected with presentations to the OCC relating to a client's rights, privileges, or liabilities. This representation includes, but is not limited to, the practice of attorneys and accountants. Employees of the OCC are not subject to disciplinary proceedings under this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.191" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.191   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in §§ 19.190 through 19.201, the following terms have the meaning given in this section unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accountant</I> means any individual who is duly qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state, possession, territory, or commonwealth of the United States or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attorney</I> means any individual who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, possession, territory, or commonwealth of the United States or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Practice before the OCC</I> includes any matters connected with written or oral presentations to the OCC or any of its officers or employees relating to a client's rights, privileges, or liabilities under laws or regulations administered by the OCC. Such matters include, but are not limited to, representation of a client in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part; the preparation of any statement, opinion or other paper or document by an attorney, accountant, or other licensed professional that is filed with, or submitted to, the OCC, on behalf of another person in, or in connection with, any application, notification, report or document; the representation of a person at conferences, hearings and meetings; and the transaction of other business before the OCC on behalf of another person. The term <I>practice before the OCC</I> does not include work prepared for a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank solely at its request for use in the ordinary course of its business.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.192" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.192   Sanctions relating to conduct in an adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Appropriate sanctions may be imposed when any party or person representing a party in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part has failed to comply with an applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that failure to comply:
</P>
<P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct;
</P>
<P>(2) Materially injures or prejudices another party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or
</P>
<P>(4) Unduly delays the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing an order against the party;
</P>
<P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;
</P>
<P>(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings;
</P>
<P>(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party;
</P>
<P>(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just; and
</P>
<P>(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</I> (1) Upon the motion of any party, or on their own motion, the ALJ or other presiding officer may impose sanctions in accordance with this section. The ALJ or other presiding officer will submit to the Comptroller for final ruling any sanction entering a final order that determines the case on the merits.
</P>
<P>(2) No sanction authorized by this section, other than refusal to accept late filings, will be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any party against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form as the ALJ or other presiding officer directs. The ALJ or other presiding officer may limit the opportunity to be heard to an opportunity of a party or a party's representative to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the ALJ or other presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, are subject to interlocutory review pursuant to § 19.25 in the same manner as any other ruling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section not exclusive.</I> This section does not preclude the ALJ or other presiding officer or the Comptroller from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.193" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.193   Censure, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>The Comptroller may censure an individual or suspend or debar an individual from practice before the OCC if the individual is incompetent in representing a client's rights or interest in a significant matter before the OCC; or engages, or has engaged, in disreputable conduct; or refuses to comply with the rules and regulations in this part; or with intent to defraud in any manner, willfully and knowingly deceives, misleads, or threatens any client or prospective client. The suspension or debarment of an individual may be initiated only upon a finding by the Comptroller that the basis for the disciplinary action is sufficiently egregious.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.194" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.194   Eligibility of attorneys and accountants to practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Attorneys.</I> Any attorney not currently under suspension or debarment pursuant to this subpart may practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accountants.</I> Any accountant not currently under suspension or debarment by the OCC may practice before the OCC.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.195" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.195   Incompetence.</HEAD>
<P>Incompetence in the representation of a client's rights and interests in a significant matter before the OCC is grounds for suspension or debarment. The term “incompetence” encompasses conduct that reflects a lack of the knowledge, judgment, and skill that a professional would ordinarily and reasonably be expected to exercise in adequately representing the rights and interests of a client. Such conduct includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Handling a matter that the individual knows or should know that they are not competent to handle, without associating with a professional who is competent to handle such matter;
</P>
<P>(b) Handling a matter without adequate preparation under the circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(c) Neglect in a matter entrusted to him or her.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.196" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.196   Disreputable conduct.</HEAD>
<P>Disreputable conduct for which an individual may be censured, debarred, or suspended from practice before the OCC includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Willfully or recklessly violating or willfully or recklessly aiding and abetting the violation of any provision of the Federal banking or applicable securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder or conviction of any offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust;
</P>
<P>(b) Knowingly or recklessly giving false or misleading information, or participating in any way in the giving of false information to the OCC or any officer or employee thereof, or to any tribunal authorized to pass upon matters administered by the OCC in connection with any matter pending or likely to be pending before it. The term “information” includes facts or other statements contained in testimony, financial statements, applications for enrollment, affidavits, declarations, or any other document or written or oral statement;
</P>
<P>(c) Directly or indirectly attempting to influence, or offering or agreeing to attempt to influence, the official action of any officer or employee of the OCC by the use of threats, false accusations, duress, or coercion; by the offer of any special inducement or promise of advantage; or by the bestowing of any gift, favor, or thing of value;
</P>
<P>(d) Disbarment or suspension from practice as an attorney, or debarment or suspension from practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant, by any duly constituted authority of any state, possession, or commonwealth of the United States or the District of Columbia for the conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, where the conviction has not been reversed on appeal;
</P>
<P>(e) Knowingly aiding or abetting another individual to practice before the OCC during that individual's period of suspension, debarment, or ineligibility;
</P>
<P>(f) Contemptuous conduct in connection with practice before the OCC, and knowingly making false accusations and statements, or circulating or publishing malicious or libelous matter;
</P>
<P>(g) Suspension, debarment, or removal from practice before the Board of Governors, the FDIC, the former OTS, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, or any other Federal or state agency; and
</P>
<P>(h) Willfully violating any of the regulations contained in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.197" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.197   Initiation of disciplinary proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of information.</I> An individual, including any employee of the OCC, who has reason to believe that an individual practicing before the OCC in a representative capacity has engaged in any conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension, or debarment under this subpart, may make a report thereof and forward it to the OCC or to such person as may be delegated responsibility for such matters by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Censure without formal proceeding.</I> Upon receipt of information regarding an individual's qualification to practice before the OCC, the Comptroller may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, censure such individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Institution of formal disciplinary proceeding.</I> When the Comptroller has reason to believe that any individual who practices before the OCC in a representative capacity has engaged in conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension, or debarment under § 19.192, the Comptroller may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, institute a formal disciplinary proceeding against such individual. The proceeding will be conducted pursuant to § 19.199 and initiated by a complaint that names the individual as a respondent and is signed by the Comptroller. Except in cases of willfulness, or when time, the nature of the proceeding, or the public interest do not permit, a proceeding under this section may not be commenced until the respondent has been informed, in writing, of the facts or conduct that warrant institution of a proceeding and the respondent has been accorded the opportunity to comply with all lawful requirements or take whatever action may be necessary to remedy the conduct that is the basis for the commencement of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.198" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.198   Conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Comptroller may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, debarment, or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for censure, debarment, or suspension has been commenced. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voluntary suspension or debarment.</I> In order to avoid the institution of, or a decision in, a debarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before the OCC may consent to suspension or debarment from practice. At the discretion of the Comptroller, the individual may be suspended or debarred in accordance with the consent offered.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.199" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.199   Proceedings under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Any hearing held under this subpart is held before an ALJ pursuant to procedures set forth in subpart A of this part. The Comptroller will appoint a person to represent the OCC in the hearing. Any person having prior involvement in the matter that is the basis for the suspension or debarment proceeding is disqualified from representing the OCC in the hearing. The hearing will be closed to the public unless the Comptroller, on the Comptroller's initiative or on the request of a party, otherwise directs. The ALJ will issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller, who will issue the final decision and order. The Comptroller may censure, debar, or suspend an individual, or take such other disciplinary action as the Comptroller deems appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.200   Effect of debarment, suspension, or censure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for debarment, the individual may not practice before the OCC unless otherwise permitted to do so by the Comptroller pursuant to § 19.201.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for suspension, the individual may not practice before the OCC during the period of suspension.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Censure.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before the OCC, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in the OCC's files.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of debarment or suspension.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for suspension or debarment, the Comptroller will give notice of the order to appropriate officers and employees of the OCC and to interested departments and agencies of the Federal government. The Comptroller will also give notice to the appropriate authorities of the state in which any debarred or suspended individual is or was licensed to practice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.201" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.9.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.201   Petition for reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>At the expiration of the period of time designated in the order of debarment, the Comptroller may entertain a petition for reinstatement from any person debarred from practice before the OCC. The Comptroller may grant reinstatement only if satisfied that the petitioner is likely to act in accordance with the regulations in this part, and that granting reinstatement would not be contrary to the public interest. Any request for reinstatement is limited to written submissions unless the Comptroller, at the Comptroller's discretion, affords the petitioner a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Equal Access to Justice Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.205" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.205   Authority and scope; waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart implements section 203 of the Equal Access to Justice Act (EAJA) (5 U.S.C. 504). EAJA provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities that are parties in certain administrative proceedings (adversary adjudications) before agencies of the Government of the United States. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over an agency unless the agency's position was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. However, no presumption under this subpart arises that the agency's position was not substantially justified because the agency did not prevail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> The types of adversary adjudications covered by this subpart are those proceedings listed in §§ 19.1, 19.110, 19.120, 19.190, 19.230, and 19.241.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver.</I> After reasonable notice to the parties, the presiding officer or the OCC may waive, for good cause shown, any provision contained in this subpart as long as the waiver is consistent with the terms and purpose of EAJA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.206" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.206   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adversary adjudication</I> means an adjudication under 5 U.S.C. 554 in which the position of the OCC is represented by Enforcement Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final disposition</I> means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of a proceeding or any other complete resolution of the proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable both within the OCC and to the courts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Party</I> means a party, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3), that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual whose net worth did not exceed $2,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated, and which had not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; except that an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (the Code) exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Code, or a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, may be a party regardless of the net worth of the organization or cooperative association. The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and any of its affiliates must be aggregated when determining the applicability of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Position of the OCC</I> means, in addition to the position taken by the OCC in the adversary adjudication, the action or failure to act by the OCC upon which the adversary adjudication is based, except that fees and other expenses may not be awarded to a party for any portion of the adversary adjudication in which the party has unreasonably protracted the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presiding officer</I> means the official, whether the official is designated as an ALJ or otherwise, that presided over the adversary adjudication or the official that presides over an EAJA proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.207" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.207   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of application.</I> A party seeking an award under this subpart must file an application with the OCC within 30 days after the OCC's final disposition of the adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of application.</I> An application for an award of fees and expenses under this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(2) Show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the position of the OCC that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(3) State the basis for the applicant's belief that the OCC position was not substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(4) Unless the applicant is an individual, state the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business;
</P>
<P>(5) Show that the applicant meets the definition of “party” in § 19.206(c), including documentation of its net worth pursuant to § 19.208, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(6) State the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought, as documented pursuant to § 19.209;
</P>
<P>(7) Be signed by the applicant if the applicant is an individual or by an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(8) Any other matter the applicant wishes the OCC to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made; and
</P>
<P>(9) Contain or be accompanied by a written verification under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referral of application.</I> Upon receipt of an EAJA application, the OCC will, if feasible, refer the matter to the official who heard the underlying adversary adjudication.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.208" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.208   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association, must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and, where appropriate, any of its affiliates at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated. Except as otherwise provided in this section, this exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this subpart. A presiding officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(1) An unaudited financial statement is acceptable for individual applicants as long as the statement provides a reliable basis for evaluation, unless the presiding officer or the OCC otherwise requires. Financial statements or reports filed with or reported to a Federal or State agency before the initiation of the adversary adjudication for other purposes and accurate as of a date not more than three months prior to the initiation of the proceeding are acceptable in establishing net worth as of the time of the initiation of the proceeding, unless the presiding officer or the OCC otherwise requires.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of applicants or affiliates that are not banks or savings associations, net worth will be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the excess of total assets over total liabilities as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated.
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a bank or a savings association, the portion of the statement of net worth that relates to the bank or the savings association must consist of a copy of the bank's or savings association's last Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Net worth will be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the total equity capital as reported, in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines, on the bank's or the savings association's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality of net worth submissions.</I> Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may request that the documents be filed under seal or otherwise be treated as confidential.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.209" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.209   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application must be accompanied by adequate documentation of the fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication, including the cost of any study, analysis, report, test, or project. An application seeking an increase in fees to account for inflation pursuant to § 19.215(d)(1)(i) also must include adequate documentation of the change in the consumer price index for the attorney or agent's locality. The applicant must submit a separate itemized statement for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The presiding officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any fees or expenses claimed.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.210   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award, or any accompanying documentation related to an application, must be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in accordance with § 19.11, except as provided in § 19.208(b) for confidential financial information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.211" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.211   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of answer.</I> Except as provided in § 19.213, Enforcement Counsel may file an answer to an application within 30 days after service of the application. Unless Enforcement Counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate a settlement under § 19.213, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> The answer must explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the Enforcement Counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, Enforcement Counsel must include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 19.214.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.212" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.212   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant must include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 19.214.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.213" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.213   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and Enforcement Counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with § 19.15. If a prevailing party and Enforcement Counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application must be filed with the proposed settlement. If a proposed settlement of an underlying proceeding provides that each side must bear its own expenses and the settlement is accepted, no application may be filed. If, after an application is filed, Enforcement Counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement will extend, under § 19.211, the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the presiding officer upon request by Enforcement Counsel and the applicant.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.214" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.214   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process for requesting further proceedings or additional information.</I> At the request of either the applicant or Enforcement Counsel, or on the presiding officer's own initiative, the presiding officer may, if necessary for a full and fair decision on the application, order the filing of additional written submissions; hold an informal conference or oral argument; or allow for discovery or hold an evidentiary hearing with respect to issues other than whether the OCC's position was substantially justified (such as those involving the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees or expenses). Any written submissions must be made, oral argument held, discovery conducted, and evidentiary hearing held as promptly as possible so as not to delay a decision on the application for fees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement to identify additional information sought and reason for requesting additional proceedings.</I> A request for further proceedings under this section must specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and must explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.215" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.215   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis for decision.</I> The presiding officer must determine whether the position of the OCC was substantially justified on the basis of the administrative record as a whole of the adversary adjudication for which fees and other expenses are sought.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of decision.</I> The presiding officer in a proceeding under this subpart will issue a recommended decision, in writing, on the application within 90 days after the time for filing a reply or, when further proceedings are held, within 90 days after completion of proceedings.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of decision.</I> The decision on the application must include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and, if applicable, an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision also must include, if applicable, findings on whether Enforcement Counsel's or the OCC's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly and unreasonably protracted the adversary adjudication, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Awards.</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Awards under this subpart may include the reasonable expenses of expert witnesses; the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, report, test, or project; and reasonable attorney or agent fees. The applicant must have incurred these expenses, costs, and fees after initiation of the adversary adjudication subject to the EAJA application. The presiding officer will base awards on prevailing market rates for the kind and quality of the services furnished, even if the services were provided without charge or at reduced rate to the applicant, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this subpart may exceed the hourly rate specified in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A) except to account for inflation since the last update of the statute's maximum award upon the request of the applicant as documented in the application pursuant to § 19.209 or if a special factor, such as the limited availability of qualified attorneys or agents for the proceedings involved, justifies a higher fee; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the OCC pays expert witnesses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Award for fees of an attorney, agent, or expert witness.</I> In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness the presiding officer should consider:
</P>
<P>(i) If in private practice, the attorney's, agent's, or witness' customary fee for similar services;
</P>
<P>(ii) If an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the attorney's, agent's, or witness' services;
</P>
<P>(iii) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily perform services;
</P>
<P>(iv) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(v) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other factors that may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Awards for costs of a study, analysis, report, test, project, or similar matter.</I> The presiding officer may award the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of the applicant to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services and the presiding officer finds that the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reduction or denial of an award.</I> A presiding officer may reduce the amount to be awarded, or deny any award, to the extent that the party during the course of the proceedings engaged in conduct which unduly and unreasonably protracted the final resolution of the matter in controversy or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final agency decision.</I> The Comptroller will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the presiding officer for further proceedings in accordance with § 19.40.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.216" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.216   Agency review.</HEAD>
<P>Either the applicant or Enforcement Counsel may seek review of the presiding officer's decision on the fee application, in accordance with § 19.39.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.217" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.217   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant may seek judicial review of final agency decisions on awards made under this section as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.218" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.218   Stay of decision concerning award.</HEAD>
<P>Any proceedings on an application for fees under this subpart will be automatically stayed until the OCC's final disposition of the decision on which the application is based and either the time period for seeking judicial review expires, or if review has been sought, until final disposition is made by a court and no further judicial review is available.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.219" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.10.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.219   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to submit final decision.</I> An applicant seeking payment of an award must submit to the OCC's Litigation Group a copy of the OCC's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. Applicants should send the submissions to: Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219, Attention: Director, Litigation Group.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time frame for award payment.</I> The OCC will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 90 days.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Procedures for Reclassifying an Insured Depository Institution Based on Criteria Other Than Capital Under Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.220" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.11.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.220   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to the procedures afforded to any insured depository institution that has been reclassified to a lower capital category by a notice or order issued by the OCC pursuant to section 38 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and 12 CFR part 6 (prompt corrective action). For purposes of this subpart, <I>insured depository institution</I> means an insured national bank, an insured Federal savings association, an insured Federal savings bank, or an insured Federal branch of a foreign bank.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.221" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.11.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.221   Reclassification of an insured depository institution based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification</I>—(1) <I>Grounds for reclassification.</I> (i) Pursuant to § 6.4 of this chapter, the OCC may reclassify a well capitalized insured depository institution as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized insured depository institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC determines that the insured depository institution is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC deems the insured depository institution to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1) is referred to in this subpart as “reclassification.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice to institution.</I> Prior to taking action pursuant to § 6.4 of this chapter, the OCC will issue and serve on the insured depository institution a written notice of the OCC's intention to reclassify the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify an insured depository institution based on unsafe or unsound condition will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the insured depository institution's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the insured depository institution would be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for reclassification of the insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which the insured depository institution subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the OCC a written response to the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which must be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the OCC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the insured depository institution or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</I> An insured depository institution may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the OCC. The response should include:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of why the insured depository institution is not in unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the insured depository institution or company regarding the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by an insured depository institution to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the OCC to a notice of proposed reclassification will constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and will constitute consent to the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</I> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC under this section. If the insured depository institution desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the insured depository institution must include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses must specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing will constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses will constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the OCC will issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the OCC allows further time at the request of the insured depository institution. The hearing will be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) The insured depository institution has the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The insured depository institution may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures will apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing will be recorded and a transcript furnished to the insured depository institution upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). If so requested, and by stipulation of the parties or by order of the presiding officer, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the witness. The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the presiding officer may direct the use of, or any party may elect to use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the presiding officer requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for its own presentation and related costs unless the parties agree to another manner by which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.
</P>
<P>(4) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recommendation of presiding officer(s).</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) will make a recommendation to the OCC on the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the OCC will decide whether to reclassify the insured depository institution and notify the insured depository institution of the OCC's decision.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.222" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.11.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.222   Request for rescission of reclassification.</HEAD>
<P>Any insured depository institution that has been reclassified under part 6 of this chapter and this subpart, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the OCC reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the insured depository institution will remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Order To Dismiss a Director or Senior Executive Officer Under Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.230" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.12.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.230   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to informal hearings afforded to any director or senior executive officer dismissed pursuant to an order issued under section 38 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and 12 CFR part 6 (prompt corrective action). For purposes of this subpart, <I>insured depository institution</I> means an insured national bank, an insured Federal savings association, an insured Federal savings bank, or an insured Federal branch of a foreign bank.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.231" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.12.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.231   Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notice.</I> When the OCC issues and serves a directive on an insured depository institution pursuant to subpart B of 12 CFR part 6 requiring the insured depository institution to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDIA, the OCC will also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to directive</I>—(1) <I>Request for reinstatement.</I> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The Respondent must file this request for reinstatement within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the OCC directive, unless further time is allowed by the OCC at the request of the Respondent. Failure by the Respondent to file a written request for reinstatement with the OCC within the specified time period will constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and will constitute consent to the dismissal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request; informal hearing.</I> The request for reinstatement must include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated and may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC or its designee under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent must include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses must specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing will constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses will constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the dismissal will remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring an insured depository institution to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the OCC will issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the OCC allows further time at the request of the Respondent. The hearing will be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Role of respondent.</I> A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent has the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application of Administrative Procedure Act and Uniform Rules.</I> Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures will apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the presiding officer may direct the use of, or any party may elect to use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the presiding officer requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for its own presentation and related costs unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Recordings; transcript.</I> The informal hearing will be recorded and a transcript furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Witnesses.</I> A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). If so requested, and by stipulation of the parties or by order of the presiding officer, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the witness. The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Continuance.</I> The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard for review.</I> A Respondent bears the burden of demonstrating that their continued employment by or service with the insured depository institution would materially strengthen the insured depository institution's ability:
</P>
<P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the insured depository institution's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the insured depository institution based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation of presiding officer.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) will make a recommendation to the OCC concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the OCC will grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the OCC's decision. If the OCC denies the request for reinstatement, the OCC will set forth in the notification the reasons for the OCC's action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.240" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.13.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.240   Inflation adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory formula to calculate inflation adjustments.</I> The OCC is required by statute to annually adjust for inflation the maximum amount of each civil money penalty within its jurisdiction to administer. The OCC calculates the inflation adjustment by multiplying the maximum dollar amount of the civil money penalty for the previous calendar year by the cost-of-living inflation adjustment multiplier provided annually by the Office of Management and Budget and rounding the total to the nearest dollar.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of inflation adjustments.</I> The OCC will publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the maximum penalties which may be assessed on an annual basis on or before January 15 of each calendar year based on the formula in paragraph (a) of this section, for penalties assessed on, or after, the date of publication of the most recent notice related to conduct occurring on, or after, November 2, 2015.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Removal, Suspension, and Debarment of Accountants From Performing Audit Services</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.241" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.241   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, which implements section 36(g)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m(g)(4)), provides rules and procedures for the removal, suspension, or debarment of independent public accountants and their accounting firms from performing independent audit and attestation services required by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, and insured Federal branches of foreign banks.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.242" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.242   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms have the meaning given below unless the context requires otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accounting firm</I> means a corporation, proprietorship, partnership, or other business firm providing audit services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audit services</I> means any service required to be performed by an independent public accountant by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) and 12 CFR part 363, including attestation services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent public accountant (accountant)</I> means any individual who performs or participates in providing audit services.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.243" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.243   Removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment</I>—(1) <I>Individuals.</I> The Comptroller may remove, suspend, or debar an independent public accountant from performing audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks that are subject to section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) if, after service of a notice of intention and opportunity for hearing in the matter, the Comptroller finds that the accountant:
</P>
<P>(i) Lacks the requisite qualifications to perform audit services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has knowingly or recklessly engaged in conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards, including those standards and conflicts of interest provisions applicable to accountants through the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Public Law 107-204, 116 Stat. 745 (2002) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), and developed by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has engaged in negligent conduct in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) A single instance of highly unreasonable conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards in circumstances in which an accountant knows, or should know, that heightened scrutiny is warranted; or
</P>
<P>(B) Repeated instances of unreasonable conduct, each resulting in a violation of applicable professional standards, that indicate a lack of competence to perform audit services;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has knowingly or recklessly given false or misleading information, or knowingly or recklessly participated in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the OCC or any officer or employee of the OCC;
</P>
<P>(v) Has engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing or reckless violation of any provision of the Federal banking or securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder, or any other law;
</P>
<P>(vi) Has been removed, suspended, or debarred from practice before any Federal or State agency regulating the banking, insurance, or securities industries, other than by an action listed in § 19.244, on grounds relevant to the provision of audit services; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Is suspended or debarred for cause from practice as an accountant by any duly constituted licensing authority of any State, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting firms.</I> If the Comptroller determines that there is good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment of a member or employee of an accounting firm under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Comptroller also may remove, suspend, or debar such firm or one or more offices of such firm. In considering whether to remove, suspend, or debar a firm or an office thereof, and the term of any sanction against a firm under this section, the Comptroller may consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The gravity, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act that constitutes good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of, and adherence to, applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the accounting firm's conduct of its business and the performance of audit services;
</P>
<P>(iii) The selection, training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the accounting firm involved in the performance of audit services;
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which managing partners or senior officers of the accounting firm have participated, directly, or indirectly through oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The extent to which the accounting firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited scope orders.</I> An order of removal, suspension (including an immediate suspension), or debarment may, at the discretion of the Comptroller, be made applicable to a particular insured national bank, insured Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch of a foreign bank or class of insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Remedies not exclusive.</I> The remedies provided in this subpart are in addition to any other remedies the OCC may have under any other applicable provisions of law, rule, or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings to remove, suspend, or debar</I>—(1) <I>Initiation of formal removal, suspension, or debarment proceedings.</I> The Comptroller may initiate a proceeding to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services by issuing a written notice of intention to take such action that names the individual or firm as a respondent and describes the nature of the conduct that constitutes good cause for such action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearings under paragraph (b) of this section.</I> An accountant or firm named as a respondent in the notice issued under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request a hearing on the allegations in the notice. Hearings conducted under this paragraph (b)(2) will be conducted in the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part, subject to the limitations in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Immediate suspension from performing audit services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Comptroller serves a written notice of intention to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services, the Comptroller may, with due regard for the public interest and without a preliminary hearing, immediately suspend such accountant or firm from performing audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks, if the Comptroller:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a reasonable basis to believe that the accountant or firm has engaged in conduct (specified in the notice served on the accountant or firm under paragraph (b) of this section) that would constitute grounds for removal, suspension, or debarment under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines that immediate suspension is necessary to avoid immediate harm to an insured depository institution or its depositors or to the depository system as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Serves such respondent with written notice of the immediate suspension.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> An immediate suspension notice issued under this paragraph (c)(2) will become effective upon service. Such suspension will remain in effect until the date the Comptroller dismisses the charges contained in the notice of intention, or the effective date of a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment issued by the Comptroller to the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition for stay.</I> Any accountant or firm immediately suspended from performing audit services in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 10 calendar days after service of the notice of immediate suspension, file with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219 for a stay of such immediate suspension. If no petition is filed within 10 calendar days, the right to a petition is waived and the immediate suspension remains in effect pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing on petition.</I> Upon receipt of a stay petition, the Comptroller will designate a presiding officer who will fix a place and time (not more than 10 calendar days after receipt of the petition, unless further time is allowed by the presiding officer at the request of petitioner) at which the immediately suspended party may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials and oral argument. Any OCC employee engaged in investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, serve as a presiding officer or participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer or of the OCC, except as witness or counsel in the proceeding. In the sole discretion of the presiding officer, upon a specific showing of compelling need, oral testimony of witnesses may also be presented. In hearings held pursuant to this paragraph (c)(4) there will be no discovery and the provisions of §§ 19.6 through 19.12, 19.16, and 19.21 apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Decision on petition.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the hearing, the presiding officer will issue a decision. The presiding officer will grant a stay upon a demonstration that a substantial likelihood exists of the respondent's success on the issues raised by the notice of intention and that, absent such relief, the respondent will suffer immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage. In the absence of such a demonstration, the presiding officer will notify the parties that the immediate suspension will be continued pending the completion of the administrative proceedings pursuant to the notice.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review of presiding officer's decision.</I> The parties may seek review of the presiding officer's decision by filing a petition for review with the presiding officer within 10 calendar days after service of the decision. Replies must be filed within 10 calendar days after the petition filing date. Upon receipt of a petition for review and any reply, the presiding officer will promptly certify the entire record to the Comptroller. Within 60 calendar days of the presiding officer's certification, the Comptroller will issue an order notifying the affected party whether or not the immediate suspension should be continued or reinstated. The order will state the basis of the Comptroller's decision.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.244" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.244   Automatic removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An independent public accountant or accounting firm may not perform audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks if the accountant or firm:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment (other than a limited scope order) issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the former Office of Thrift Supervision under section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m);
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a temporary suspension or permanent revocation of registration or a temporary or permanent suspension or bar from further association with any registered public accounting firm issued by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or the Securities and Exchange Commission under sections 105(c)(4)(A) or (B) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(A) or (B)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to an order of suspension or denial of the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request, the Comptroller, for good cause shown, may grant written permission to such accountant or firm to perform audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks. The request must contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Comptroller may require the applicant to submit additional information.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.245" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.245   Notice of removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to the public.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the Comptroller will make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the Comptroller by accountants and firms.</I> An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to an insured national bank, insured Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch of a foreign bank must provide the Comptroller with written notice of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any currently effective order or other action described in § 19.243(a)(1)(vi) through (vii) or § 19.244(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> Written notice required by this paragraph (c) must be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.246" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.14.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.246   Petition for reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of petition.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller, a petition for reinstatement by an independent public accountant, an accounting firm, or an office of a firm that was removed, suspended, or debarred under § 19.243 may be made in writing at any time. The request must contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Comptroller may require the applicant to submit additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> A petitioner for reinstatement under this section may, in the sole discretion of the Comptroller, be afforded a hearing. The accountant or firm bears the burden of going forward with a petition and proving the grounds asserted in support of the petition. In reinstatement proceedings, the person seeking reinstatement bears the burden of going forward with an application and proving the grounds asserted in support of the application. The Comptroller may, in his sole discretion, direct that any reinstatement proceeding be limited to written submissions. The removal, suspension, or debarment will continue until the Comptroller, for good cause shown, has reinstated the petitioner or until the suspension period has expired. The filing of a petition for reinstatement will not stay the effectiveness of the removal, suspension, or debarment of an accountant or firm.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Forfeiture of Franchise for Money Laundering or Cash Transaction Reporting Offenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.250" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.250   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this subpart, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93(d) or 12 U.S.C. 1464(w), as applicable, to terminate all rights, privileges, and franchises of a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency convicted of a criminal offense under 18 U.S.C. 1956 or 1957 or 31 U.S.C. 5322 or 5324.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.251" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.251   Notice and hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> After receiving written notification from the Attorney General of the United States of a conviction of a criminal offense under 18 U.S.C. 1956 or 1957, the Comptroller will, or under 31 U.S.C. 5322 or 5324, the Comptroller may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue to the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency a written notice of the Comptroller's intention to terminate all rights, privileges, and franchises of the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93(d) or 12 U.S.C. 1464(w); and
</P>
<P>(2) Schedule a pretermination hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The basis of termination pursuant to the factors listed in § 19.253;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order of termination;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as established by the presiding officer; and
</P>
<P>(6) That the answer must be filed with the OCC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to file an answer.</I> Unless the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency files an answer within the time specified in the notice, it will be deemed to have consented to termination of its rights, privileges and franchises and the Comptroller may order the termination of such rights, privileges, and franchises.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service.</I> The OCC will serve the notice upon the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency in the manner set forth in § 19.11(c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.252" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.252   Presiding officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> The Comptroller will designate a presiding officer to conduct the pretermination hearing under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The presiding officer has the same powers set forth in § 19.5, including the discretion necessary to conduct the pretermination hearing in a manner that avoids unnecessary delay. In addition, the presiding officer may limit the use of discovery and limit opportunities to file written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other materials or documents to avoid relitigation of facts already stipulated to by the parties; conceded to by the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or Federal agency; or otherwise already firmly established by the underlying criminal conviction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.253" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.253   Grounds for termination.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether to terminate a franchise, the Comptroller will take into account the following factors:
</P>
<P>(a) The extent to which directors or senior executive officers of the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency knew of, or were involved in, the commission of the money laundering offense of which the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency was found guilty;
</P>
<P>(b) The extent to which the offense occurred despite the existence of policies and procedures within the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or Federal agency which were designed to prevent the occurrence of the offense;
</P>
<P>(c) The extent to which the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency has fully cooperated with law enforcement authorities with respect to the investigation of the money laundering offense of which the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency was found guilty;
</P>
<P>(d) The extent to which the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency has implemented additional internal controls (since the commission of the offense of which the national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency was found guilty) to prevent the occurrence of any money laundering offense; and
</P>
<P>(e) The extent to which the interest of the local community in having adequate deposit and credit services available would be threatened by the forfeiture of the franchise.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 19.254" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 19.254   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank whose rights, privileges and franchises have been terminated by order of the Comptroller under this part has the right of judicial review of such order pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(h).






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.17.15.27.6.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 19—Rules of Practice and Procedure


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The content of this appendix reproduces 12 CFR parts 19, 108, 109, 112, and 165 as of October 1, 2023, which, pursuant to § 19.0, are applicable to adjudicatory actions initiated before April 1, 2024, unless the parties otherwise stipulate that the rules in this part in effect after April 1, 2024 apply. Cross-references to parts 19, 108, 109, and 112 (as well as to included sections) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1><B>PART 19—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE</B>


</HD1>
<P><E T="04">Authority:</E>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 93(b), 93a, 164, 481, 504, 1817, 1818, 1820, 1831m, 1831o, 1832, 1884, 1972, 3102, 3108(a), 3110, 3909, and 4717; 15 U.S.C. 78(h) and (i), 78o-4(c), 78o-5, 78q-1, 78s, 78u, 78u-2, 78u-3, 78w, and 1639e; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 330 and 5321; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.1 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the OCC is the appropriate agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the OCC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any provision of law referenced in 12 U.S.C. 93, or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93;
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 22 and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Amendments of 1970, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(4) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 or any regulation or order issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices and breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(7) Section 5211 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 161), pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 164;
</P>
<P>(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or any written agreement executed by the OCC, the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the OCC in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices, breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided herein, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.2 Rules of construction.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.3 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller</I> means the Comptroller of the Currency or a person delegated to perform the functions of the Comptroller of the Currency under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Comptroller's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Comptroller or the administrative law judge, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the OCC in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the Comptroller with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution</I> includes any national bank or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the OCC in the subparts of this part excluding subpart A.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>OFIA</I> means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the OCC, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board of Governors”), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), the Office of Thrift Supervision (“OTS”), and the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Party</I> means the OCC and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the OCC.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in subpart A of this part that are common to the OCC, the Board of Governors, the FDIC, the OTS, and the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Violation</I> includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.4 Authority of the Comptroller.</B>
</P>
<P>The Comptroller may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 19.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Comptroller shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Comptroller a recommended decision as provided herein;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the OCC or an administrative law judge</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the OCC if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer, director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Comptroller, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.7 Good faith certification.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.8 Conflicts of interest.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 19.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.9 Ex parte communications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the OCC (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, the Comptroller, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the Comptroller until the date that the Comptroller issues his or her final decision pursuant to § 19.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person outside the OCC shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication to the Comptroller, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the OCC any ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, the Comptroller or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 19.40, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.10 Filing of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 19.25 and 19.26, shall be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 19.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the OCC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.11 Service of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 19.10(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Comptroller or the administrative law judge.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 19.6 shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 19.6, the Comptroller or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) By delivery to an agent, which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.12 Construction of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Comptroller or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.13 Change of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Comptroller pursuant to § 19.38, the Comptroller may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Comptroller's or the administrative law judge's own motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.14 Witness fees and expenses.</B>
</P>
<P>Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the OCC is the party requesting the subpoena. The OCC shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.</B>
</P>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any OCC representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.16 OCC's right to conduct examination.</B>
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the OCC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the OCC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by the Comptroller upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notice must be filed with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the OCC is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.19 Answer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Comptroller based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.20 Amended pleadings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Comptroller or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.


</P>
<P><B>§ 19.21 Failure to appear.</B>
</P>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.23 Motions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Comptroller, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 19.29 and 19.30.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.24 Scope of document discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 19.25.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.25 Request for document discovery from parties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying.</I> The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per-page copying rate imposed by 12 CFR part 4 implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 19.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 19.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 19.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 19.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 19.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.28 Interlocutory review.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Comptroller may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Comptroller only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 19.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Comptroller may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the administrative law judge if the Comptroller finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 19.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 19.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Comptroller for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Comptroller under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Comptroller.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.29 Summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Comptroller issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Comptroller. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.30 Partial summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.32 Prehearing submissions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:
</P>
<P>(1) Prehearing statement;
</P>
<P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.33 Public hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the Comptroller, in the Comptroller's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Comptroller a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Comptroller. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 19.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.34 Hearing subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 19.26(c).




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.35 Conduct of hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) Order of hearing. Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the administrative law judge shall fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) Examination of witnesses. Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations. Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.36 Evidence.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or the Comptroller shall appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.37 Post-hearing filings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 19.37(b), the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Comptroller, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Comptroller for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Comptroller a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 19.38, a party may file with the Comptroller written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Comptroller if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.40 Review by the Comptroller.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Comptroller.</I> When the Comptroller determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Comptroller shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Comptroller for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Comptroller.</I> Upon the initiative of the Comptroller or on the written request of any party filed with the Comptroller within the time for filing exceptions, the Comptroller may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Comptroller's final decision. Oral argument before the Comptroller must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller's final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Comptroller in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Comptroller will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Comptroller may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Comptroller orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Comptroller shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Comptroller or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.41 Stays pending judicial review.</B>
</P>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Comptroller may not, unless specifically ordered by the Comptroller or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Comptroller. The Comptroller may, in his or her discretion, and on such terms as he or she finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Procedural Rules for OCC Adjudications</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.100 Filing documents.</B>
</P>
<P>All materials required to be filed with or referred to the Comptroller or the administrative law judge in any proceeding under this part must be filed with the Hearing Clerk, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. Filings to be made with the Hearing Clerk include the notice and answer; motions and responses to motions; briefs; the record filed by the administrative law judge after the issuance of a recommended decision; the recommended decision filed by the administrative law judge following a motion for summary disposition; referrals by the administrative law judge of motions for interlocutory review; exceptions and requests for oral argument; and any other papers required to be filed with the Comptroller or the administrative law judge under this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.101 Delegation to OFIA.</B>
</P>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller, administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part shall be conducted by an administrative law judge assigned to OFIA.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart C—Removals, Suspensions, and Prohibitions When a Crime Is Charged or a Conviction Is Obtained</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.110 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart applies to informal hearings afforded to any institution-affiliated party who has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in the affairs of any depository institution pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(g) by a notice or order issued by the Comptroller.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.111 Suspension, removal, or prohibition.</B>
</P>
<P>The Comptroller may serve a notice of suspension or order of removal or prohibition pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(g) on an institution-affiliated party. A copy of such notice or order will be served on any depository institution that the subject of the notice or order is affiliated with at the time the notice or order is issued, whereupon the institution-affiliated party involved must immediately cease service to, or participation in the affairs of, that depository institution and, if so determined by the OCC, any other depository institution. The notice or order will indicate the basis for suspension, removal or prohibition and will inform the institution-affiliated party of the right to request in writing, to be received by the OCC within 30 days from the date that the institution-affiliated party was served with such notice or order, an opportunity to show at an informal hearing that continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution has not posed, does not pose, or is not likely to pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or has not threatened, does not threaten, or is not likely to threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution. The written request must be sent by certified mail to, or served personally with a signed receipt on, the District Deputy Comptroller in the OCC district in which the bank in question is located; if the bank is supervised by Large Bank Supervision, to the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Large Bank Supervision for the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; if the bank is supervised by Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision, to the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision for the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; or if the institution-affiliated party is no longer affiliated with a particular national bank, to the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision, Washington, DC 20219. The request must state specifically the relief desired and the grounds on which that relief is based. For purposes of this section, the term <I>depository institution</I> means any depository institution of which the petitioner is or was an institution-affiliated party at the time at which the notice or order was issued by the Comptroller.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.112 Informal hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of hearing order.</I> After receipt of a request for hearing, the District Deputy Comptroller, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Large Bank Supervision, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision, or the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision, as appropriate, must notify the petitioner requesting the hearing, the OCC's Enforcement and Compliance Division, and the appropriate OCC District Counsel of the date, time, and place fixed for the hearing. The hearing must be scheduled to be held not later than 30 days from the date when a request for hearing is received unless the time is extended in response to a written request of the petitioner. The District Deputy Comptroller, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Large Bank Supervision, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision, or the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision, as appropriate, may extend the hearing date only for a specific period of time and must take appropriate action to ensure that the hearing is not unduly delayed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appointment of presiding officer.</I> the District Deputy Comptroller, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Large Bank Supervision, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision, or the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision, as appropriate, must appoint one or more OCC employees as the presiding officer to conduct the hearing. The presiding officer(s) may not have been involved in the proceeding, a factually related proceeding, or the underlying enforcement action in a prosecutorial or investigative role.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver of oral hearing</I>—(1) <I>Petitioner.</I> When the petitioner requests a hearing, the petitioner may elect to have the matter determined by the presiding officer solely on the basis of written submissions by serving on the District Deputy Comptroller, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Large Bank Supervision, the Senior Deputy Comptroller for Mid-Size/Community Bank Supervision, or the Deputy Comptroller for Special Supervision, as appropriate, and all parties, a signed document waiving the statutory right to appear and make oral argument. The petitioner must present the written submissions to the presiding officer, and serve the other parties, not later than ten days prior to the date fixed for the hearing, or within such shorter time period as the presiding officer may permit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OCC.</I> The OCC may respond to the petitioner's submissions by presenting the presiding officer with a written response, and by serving the other parties, not later than the date fixed for the hearing, or within such other time period as the presiding officer may require.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> Hearings under this subpart are not subject to the provisions of subpart A of this part or the adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Powers of the presiding officer.</I> The presiding officer shall determine all procedural issues that are governed by this subpart. The presiding officer may also permit or limit the number of witnesses and impose time limitations as he or she deems reasonable. The informal hearing will not be governed by the formal rules of evidence. All oral presentations, when permitted, and documents deemed by the presiding officer to be relevant and material to the proceeding and not unduly repetitious will be considered. The presiding officer may ask questions of any person participating in the hearing and may make any rulings reasonably necessary to facilitate the effective and efficient operation of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Presentation.</I> (i) The OCC may appear and the petitioner may appear personally or through counsel at the hearing to present relevant written materials and oral argument. Except as permitted in paragraph (c) of this section, each party, including the OCC, must file a copy of any affidavit, memorandum, or other written material to be presented at the hearing with the presiding officer and must serve the other parties not later than ten days prior to the hearing or within such shorter time period as permitted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the petitioner or the appointed OCC attorney desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, he or she must file a written request with the presiding officer not later than ten days prior to the hearing, or within a shorter time period as permitted by the presiding officer. The names of proposed witnesses should be included, along with the general nature of the expected testimony, and the reasons why oral testimony is necessary. The presiding officer generally will not admit oral testimony or witnesses unless a specific and compelling need is demonstrated. Witnesses, if admitted, shall be sworn.
</P>
<P>(iii) In deciding on any suspension, the presiding officer shall not consider the ultimate question of the guilt or innocence of the individual with respect to the criminal charges which are outstanding. In deciding on any removal, the presiding officer shall not consider challenges to or efforts to impeach the validity of the conviction. The presiding officer may consider facts in either situation, however, which show the nature of the events on which the indictment or conviction was based.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record.</I> A transcript of the proceedings may be taken if the petitioner requests a transcript and agrees to pay all expenses or if the presiding officer determines that the nature of the case warrants a transcript. The presiding officer may order the record to be kept open for a reasonable period following the hearing, not to exceed five business days, to permit the petitioner or the appointed OCC attorney to submit additional documents for the record. Thereafter, no further submissions may be accepted except for good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.113 Recommended and final decisions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) The presiding officer must issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller within 20 days of the conclusion of the hearing or, when the petitioner has waived an oral hearing, within 20 days of the date fixed for the hearing. The presiding officer must serve promptly a copy of the recommended decision on the parties to the proceeding. The decision must include a summary of the facts and arguments of the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Each party may, within ten days of being served with the presiding officer's recommended decision, submit to the Comptroller comments on the recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 60 days of the conclusion of the hearing or, when the petitioner has waived an oral hearing, within 60 days from the date fixed for the hearing, the Comptroller must notify the petitioner by registered mail whether the suspension or removal from office, and prohibition from participation in any manner in the affairs of any depository institution, will be affirmed, terminated, or modified. The Comptroller's decision must include a statement of reasons supporting the decision. The Comptroller's decision is a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(d) A finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge on which a notice of suspension was based does not preclude the Comptroller from thereafter instituting removal proceedings pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)) and subpart: A of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) A removal or prohibition by order remains in effect until terminated by the Comptroller. A suspension or prohibition by notice remains in effect until the criminal charge is disposed of or until terminated by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(f) A suspended or removed individual may petition the Comptroller to reconsider the decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the decision, but no petition for reconsideration may be made within 12 months of a previous petition. The petition must state specifically the relief sought and the grounds therefor, and may be accompanied by a supporting memorandum and any other documentation the petitioner wishes to have considered. No hearing need be granted on the petition for reconsideration.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart D—Exemption Hearings Under Section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.120 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>The rules in this subpart apply to informal hearings that may be held by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority in sections 12 (h) and (i) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I> (h) and (i)), to exempt in whole or in part an issuer or a class of issuers from the provisions of section 12(g), or from section 13 or 14 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g), 78m or 78n), or whether to exempt from section 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p) any officer, director, or beneficial owner of securities of an issuer. The only issuers covered by this subpart are banks whose securities are registered pursuant to section 12(g) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g)). The Comptroller may deny an application for exemption without a hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.121 Application for exemption.</B>
</P>
<P>An issuer or an individual (officer, director or shareholder) may submit a written application for an exemption order to the Securities and Corporate Practices Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. The application must specify the type of exemption sought and the reasons therefor, including an explanation of why an exemption would not be inconsistent with the public interest or the protection of investors. The Securities and Corporate Practices Division shall inform the applicant in writing whether a hearing will be held to consider the matter.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.122 Newspaper notice.</B>
</P>
<P>Upon being informed that an application will be considered at a hearing, the applicant shall publish a notice one time in a newspaper of general circulation in the community where the issuer's main office is located. The notice must state: the name and title of any individual applicants; the type of exemption sought; the fact that a hearing will be held; and a statement that interested persons may submit to the Securities and Corporate Practices Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219, within 30 days from the date of the newspaper notice, written comments concerning the application and a written request for an opportunity to be heard. The applicant shall promptly furnish a copy of the notice to the Securities and Corporate Practices Division, and to bank shareholders.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.123 Informal hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct of proceeding.</I> The adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, formal rules of evidence and subpart A of this part do not apply to hearings conducted under this subpart, except as provided in § 19.100(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> Following the comment period, the Comptroller shall send a notice which fixes a date, time and place for hearing to each applicant and to any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The Comptroller shall designate a presiding officer to conduct the hearing. The presiding officer shall determine all procedural questions not governed by this subpart and may limit the number of witnesses and impose time and presentation limitations as are deemed reasonable. At the conclusion of the informal hearing, the presiding officer shall issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller as to whether the exemption should issue. The decision shall include a summary of the facts and arguments of the parties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendance.</I> The applicant and any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard may attend the hearing, with or without counsel. The hearing shall be open to the public. In addition, the applicant and any other hearing participant may introduce oral testimony through such witnesses as the presiding officer shall permit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order of presentation.</I> (1) The applicant may present an opening statement of a length decided by the presiding officer. Then each of the hearing participants, or one among them selected with the approval of the presiding officer, may present an opening statement. The opening statement should summarize concisely what the applicant and each participant intends to show.
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant shall have an opportunity to make an oral presentation of facts and materials or submit written materials for the record. One or more of the hearing participants may make an oral presentation or a written submission.
</P>
<P>(3) After the above presentations, the applicant, followed by one or more of the hearing participants, may make concise summary statements reviewing their position.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Witnesses.</I> The obtaining and use of witnesses is the responsibility of the parties afforded the hearing. All witnesses shall be present on their own volition, but any person appearing as a witness may be questioned by each applicant, any hearing participant, and the presiding officer. Witnesses shall be sworn unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Evidence.</I> The presiding officer may exclude data or materials deemed to be improper or irrelevant. Formal rules of evidence do not apply. Documentary material must be of a size consistent with ease of handling and filing. The presiding officer may determine the number of copies that must be furnished for purposes of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Transcript.</I> A transcript of each proceeding will be arranged by the OCC, with all expenses, including the furnishing of a copy to the presiding officer, being borne by the applicant.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.124 Decision of the Comptroller.</B>
</P>
<P>Following the conclusion of the hearing and the submission of the record and the presiding officer's recommended decision to the Comptroller for decision, the Comptroller shall notify the applicant and all persons who have so requested in writing of the final disposition of the application. Exemptions granted must be in the form of an order which specifies the type of exemption granted and its terms and conditions.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart E—Disciplinary Proceedings Involving the Federal Securities Laws</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.130 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this subpart, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in sections 15B(c)(5), 15C(c)(2)(A), 17A(c)(3), and 17A(c)(4)(C) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5(c)(2)(A), 78q-1(c)(3)(A), and 78q-1(c)(4)(C)), to take disciplinary action against the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank which is a municipal securities dealer, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank which is a government securities broker or dealer, or any person associated with such government securities broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(3) A bank which is a transfer agent, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with such transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the issuance of disciplinary orders after opportunity for hearing, the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate may issue and serve any notices and temporary or permanent cease-and-desist orders and take any actions that are authorized by section 8 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818), sections 15B(c)(5), 15C(c)(2)(B), and 17A(d)(2) of the Exchange Act, and other subparts of this part against the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The parties listed in paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A bank which is a clearing agency.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart impairs the powers conferred on the Comptroller by other provisions of law.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.131 Notice of charges and answer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Proceedings are commenced when the Comptroller serves a notice of charges on a bank or associated person. The notice must indicate the type of disciplinary action being contemplated and the grounds therefor, and fix a date, time and place for hearing. The hearing must be set for a date at least 30 days after service of the notice. A party served with a notice of charges may file an answer as prescribed in § 19.19. Any party who fails to appear at a hearing personally or by a duly authorized representative shall be deemed to have consented to the issuance of a disciplinary order.
</P>
<P>(b) All proceedings under this subpart must be commenced, and the notice of charges must be filed, on a public basis, unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), a request for a private hearing may be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.132 Disciplinary orders.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) In the event of consent, or if on the record filed by the administrative law judge, the Comptroller finds that any act or omission or violation specified in the notice of charges has been established, the Comptroller may serve on the bank or persons concerned a disciplinary order, as provided in the Exchange Act. The order may:
</P>
<P>(1) Censure, limit the activities, functions or operations, or suspend or revoke the registration of a bank which is a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) Censure, suspend or bar any person associated or seeking to become associated with a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(3) Censure, limit the activities, functions or operations, or suspend or bar a bank which is a government securities broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(4) Censure, limit the activities, functions or operations, or suspend or bar any person associated with a government securities broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(5) Deny registration to, limit the activities, functions, or operations or suspend or revoke the registration of a bank which is a transfer agent; or
</P>
<P>(6) Censure or limit the activities or functions, or suspend or bar, any person associated or seeking to become associated with a transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(b) A disciplinary order is effective when served on the party or parties involved and remains effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Comptroller or a reviewing court.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.135 Applications for stay or review of disciplinary actions imposed by registered clearing agencies.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Stays.</I> The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-2) apply to applications by national banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the “OCC.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reviews.</I> The regulations adopted by the SEC pursuant to section 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for reviews of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-3(a)-(f)) apply to applications by national banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the “OCC.”


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart F—Civil Money Penalty Authority Under the Securities Laws</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.140 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this subpart, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2), in proceedings commenced pursuant to sections 15B, 15C, and 17A of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4, 78o-5, or 78q-1) for which the OCC is the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)), the Comptroller may impose a civil money penalty against the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank which is a municipal securities dealer, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank which is a government securities broker or dealer, or any person associated with such government securities broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(3) A bank which is a transfer agent, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with such transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(b) All proceedings under this subpart must be commenced, and the notice of assessment must be filed, on a public basis, unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), any request for a private hearing must be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart G—Cease-and-Desist Authority Under the Securities Laws</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.150 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this subpart, subpart A of this part applies to proceedings by the Comptroller to determine whether, pursuant to authority contained in sections 12(i) and 21C of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(i) and 78u-3), the Comptroller may initiate cease-and-desist proceedings against a national bank for violations of sections 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Exchange Act or regulations or rules issued thereunder (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l,</I> 78m, 78n(a), 78n(c), 78n(d), 78n(f), and 78p).
</P>
<P>(b) All proceedings under this subpart must be commenced, and the notice of charges must be filed, on a public basis, unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller. Pursuant to § 19.33(a), any request for a private hearing must be filed within 20 days of service of the notice.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart H—Change in Bank Control</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.160 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Section 7(j) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) provides that no person may acquire control of an insured depository institution unless the appropriate Federal bank regulatory agency has been given prior written notice of the proposed acquisition. If, after investigating and soliciting comment on the proposed acquisition, the agency decides that the acquisition should be disapproved, the agency shall mail a written notification to the proposed acquiring person in writing within three days of the decision. The party can then request an agency hearing on the proposed acquisition. The OCC's procedures for reviewing notices of proposed acquisitions in change-in-control proceedings are set forth in § 5.50 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, the rules in subpart A of this part set forth the procedures applicable to requests for OCC hearings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.161 Notice of disapproval and hearing initiation.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> The OCC's written disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control of a national bank must:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain a statement of the basis for the disapproval; and
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate that the filer may request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing request.</I> Following receipt of a notice of disapproval, a filer may request a hearing on the proposed acquisition. A hearing request must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing; and
</P>
<P>(2) Be filed with the Hearing Clerk of the OCC within ten days after service on the filer of the notice of disapproval. If a filer fails to request a hearing with a timely written request, the notice of disapproval constitutes a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing order.</I> Following receipt of a hearing request, the Comptroller shall issue, within 20 days, an order that sets forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The matters of fact or law upon which the disapproval is based; and
</P>
<P>(3) The requirement for filing an answer to the hearing order with OFIA within 20 days after service of the hearing order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Answer.</I> An answer to a hearing order must specifically deny those portions of the order that are disputed. Those portions of the order that the filer does not specifically deny are deemed admitted by the filer. Any hearing under this subpart is limited to those portions of the order that are specifically denied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a filer to file an answer within 20 days after service of the hearing order constitutes a waiver of the filer's right to appear and contest the allegations in the hearing order. If a filer does not file a timely answer, enforcement counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the hearing order. Any final order issued by the Comptroller based upon a filer's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent and is a final and unappealable order.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart I—Discovery Depositions and Subpoenas</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.170 Discovery depositions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In any proceeding instituted under or subject to the provisions of subpart A of this part, a party may take the deposition of an expert, or of a person, including another party, who has direct knowledge of matters that are non-privileged, relevant, and material to the proceeding, and where there is need for the deposition. The deposition of experts shall be limited to those experts who are expected to testify at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A party desiring to take a deposition shall give reasonable notice in writing to the deponent and to every other party to the proceeding. The notice must state the time and place for taking the deposition, and the name and address of the person to be deposed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits.</I> A party may take depositions at any time after the commencement of the proceeding, but no later than ten days before the scheduled hearing date, except with permission of the administrative law judge for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The witness must be duly sworn, and each party will have the right to examine the witness with respect to all non-privileged, relevant, and material matters of which the witness has factual, direct, and personal knowledge. Objections to questions or exhibits must be in short form and must state the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or exhibits is not a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recording the testimony</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> The party taking the deposition must have a certified court reporter record the witness's testimony:
</P>
<P>(i) By stenotype machine or electronic sound recording device;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon agreement of the parties, by any other method; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For good cause and with leave of the administrative law judge, by any other method.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost.</I> The party taking the deposition must bear the cost of the recording and transcribing the witness's testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transcript.</I> Unless the parties agree that a transcription is not necessary, the court reporter must provide a transcript of the witness's testimony to the party taking the deposition and must make a copy of the transcript available to each party upon payment by that party of the cost of the copy.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Protective orders.</I> At any time after notice of a deposition has been given, a party may file a motion for the issuance of a protective order. Such protective order may prohibit, terminate, or limit the scope or manner of the taking of a deposition. The administrative law judge shall grant such protective order upon a showing of sufficient grounds, including that the deposition:
</P>
<P>(1) Is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome;
</P>
<P>(2) Involves privileged, irrelevant, or immaterial matters;
</P>
<P>(3) Involves unwarranted attempts to pry into a party's preparation for trial; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is being conducted in bad faith or in such manner as to unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the witness.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fees.</I> Deposition witnesses, including expert witnesses, shall be paid the same expenses in the same manner as are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States in proceedings in which the United States is a party. Expenses in accordance with this paragraph shall be paid by the party seeking to take the deposition.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.171 Deposition subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> At the request of a party, the administrative law judge shall issue a subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness at a discovery deposition under paragraph (a) of this section. The attendance of a witness may be required from any place in any state or territory that is subject to the jurisdiction of the United States or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service</I>—(1) <I>Methods of service.</I> The party requesting the subpoena must serve it on the person named therein, or on that person's counsel, by any of the methods identified in § 19.11(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proof of service.</I> The party serving the subpoena must file proof of service with the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion to quash.</I> A person named in a subpoena may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena. A statement of the reasons for the motion must accompany it and a copy of the motion must be served on the party which requested the subpoena. The motion must be made prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena and not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena, or if the subpoena is served within 15 days of the hearing, within five days after the date of service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement of deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena shall be in accordance with the procedures of § 19.27(d).




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart J—Formal Investigations</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.180 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart and § 19.8 apply to formal investigations initiated by order of the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate and pertain to the exercise of powers specified in 12 U.S.C. 481, 1818(n) and 1820(c), and section 21 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u). This subpart does not restrict or in any way affect the authority of the Comptroller to conduct examinations into the affairs or ownership of banks and their affiliates.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.181 Confidentiality of formal investigations.</B>
</P>
<P>Information or documents obtained in the course of a formal investigation are confidential and may be disclosed only in accordance with the provisions of part 4 of this chapter.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.182 Order to conduct a formal investigation.</B>
</P>
<P>A formal investigation begins with the issuance of an order signed by the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate. The order must designate the person or persons who will conduct the investigation. Such persons are authorized, among other things, to issue subpoenas duces tecum, to administer oaths, and receive affirmations as to any matter under investigation by the Comptroller. Upon application and for good cause shown, the Comptroller may limit, modify, or withdraw the order at any stage of the proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.183 Rights of witnesses.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish testimony, documentary evidence, or other information with respect to any matter under formal investigation shall, on request, be shown the order initiating the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who, in a formal investigation, is compelled to appear and testify, or who appears and testifies by request or permission of the Comptroller, may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel. The right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel means the right of a person testifying to have an attorney present at all times while testifying and to have the attorney—
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the person before, during and after the conclusion of testimony;
</P>
<P>(2) Question the person briefly at the conclusion of testimony to clarify any of the answers given; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make summary notes during the testimony solely for the use of the person.
</P>
<P>(c) Any person who has given or will give testimony and counsel representing the person may be excluded from the proceedings during the taking of testimony of any other witness.
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who is compelled to give testimony is entitled to inspect any transcript that has been made of the testimony but may not obtain a copy if the Comptroller's representatives conducting the proceedings have cause to believe that the contents should not be disclosed pending completion of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(e) Any designated representative conducting an investigative proceeding shall report to the Comptroller any instances where a person has been guilty of dilatory, obstructionist or insubordinate conduct during the course of the proceeding or any other instance involving a violation of this part. The Comptroller may take such action as the circumstances warrant, including exclusion of the offending individual or individuals from participation in the proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.184 Service of subpoena and payment of witness expenses.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Methods of service.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made by any of the methods identified in § 19.11(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expenses.</I> A witness who is subpoenaed will be paid the same expenses in the same manner as witnesses in the district courts of the United States. The expenses need not be tendered at the time a subpoena is served.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart K—Parties and Representational Practice Before the OCC; Standards of Conduct</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.190 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart contains rules relating to parties and representational practice before the OCC. This subpart includes the imposition of sanctions by the administrative law judge, any other presiding officer appointed pursuant to subparts C and D of this part, or the Comptroller against parties or their counsel in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part. This subpart also covers other disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension or debarment—against individuals who appear before the OCC in a representational capacity either in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part or in any other matters connected with presentations to the OCC relating to a client's rights, privileges, or liabilities. This representation includes, but is not limited to, the practice of attorneys and accountants. Employees of the OCC are not subject to disciplinary proceedings under this subpart.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.191 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>As used in §§ 19.190 through 19.201, the following terms shall have the meaning given in this section unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Practice before the OCC</I> includes any matters connected with presentations to the OCC or any of its officers or employees relating to a client's rights, privileges or liabilities under laws or regulations administered by the OCC. Such matters include, but are not limited to, representation of a client in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part; the preparation of any statement, opinion or other paper or document by an attorney, accountant, or other licensed professional which is filed with, or submitted to, the OCC, on behalf of another person in, or in connection with, any application, notification, report or document; the representation of a person at conferences, hearings and meetings; and the transaction of other business before the OCC on behalf of another person. The term “practice before the OCC” does not include work prepared for a bank solely at its request for use in the ordinary course of its business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attorney</I> means any individual who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, of the United States or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accountant</I> means any individual who is duly qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state, possession, territory, commonwealth of the United States, or the District of Columbia.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.192 Sanctions relating to conduct in an adjudicatory proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Appropriate sanctions may be imposed when any party or person representing a party in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part has failed to comply with an applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that failure to comply:
</P>
<P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct;
</P>
<P>(2) Materially injures or prejudices another party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or
</P>
<P>(4) Unduly delays the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing an order against the party;
</P>
<P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;
</P>
<P>(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings;
</P>
<P>(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party;
</P>
<P>(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just; and
</P>
<P>(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</I> (1) Upon the motion of any party, or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge or other presiding officer may impose sanctions in accordance with this section. The administrative law judge or other presiding officer shall submit to the Comptroller for final ruling any sanction entering a final order that determines the case on the merits.
</P>
<P>(2) No sanction authorized by this section, other than refusal to accept late filings, shall be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any party against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form as the administrative law judge or other presiding officer directs. The administrative law judge or other presiding officer may limit the opportunity to be heard to an opportunity of a party or a party's representative to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the administrative law judge or other presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, are subject to interlocutory review pursuant to § 19.25 in the same manner as any other ruling.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section not exclusive.</I> Nothing in this section shall be read as precluding the administrative law judge or other presiding officer or the Comptroller from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation.


</P>
<P><B>§ 19.193 Censure, suspension or debarment.</B>
</P>
<P>The Comptroller may censure an individual or suspend or debar such individual from practice before the OCC if he or she is incompetent in representing a client's rights or interest in a significant matter before the OCC; or engages, or has engaged, in disreputable conduct; or refuses to comply with the rules and regulations in this part; or with intent to defraud in any manner, willfully and knowingly deceives, misleads, or threatens any client or prospective client. The suspension or debarment of an individual may be initiated only upon a finding by the Comptroller that the basis for the disciplinary action is sufficiently egregious.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.194 Eligibility of attorneys and accountants to practice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Attorneys.</I> Any attorney who is qualified to practice as an attorney and is not currently under suspension or debarment pursuant to this subpart may practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accountants.</I> Any accountant who is qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant and is not currently under suspension or debarment by the OCC may practice before the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.195 Incompetence.</B>
</P>
<P>Incompetence in the representation of a client's rights and interests in a significant matter before the OCC is grounds for suspension or debarment. The term “incompetence” encompasses conduct that reflects a lack of the knowledge, judgment and skill that a professional would ordinarily and reasonably be expected to exercise in adequately representing the rights and interests of a client. Such conduct includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Handling a matter which the individual knows or should know that he or she is not competent to handle, without associating with a professional who is competent to handle such matter.
</P>
<P>(b) Handling a matter without adequate preparation under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Neglect in a matter entrusted to him or her.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.196 Disreputable conduct.</B>
</P>
<P>Disreputable conduct for which an individual may be censured, debarred, or suspended from practice before the OCC includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Willfully or recklessly violating or willfully or recklessly aiding and abetting the violation of any provision of the Federal banking or applicable securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder or conviction of any offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust;
</P>
<P>(b) Knowingly or recklessly giving false or misleading information, or participating in any way in the giving of false information to the OCC or any officer or employee thereof, or to any tribunal authorized to pass upon matters administered by the OCC in connection with any matter pending or likely to be pending before it. The term “information” includes facts or other statements contained in testimony, financial statements, applications for enrollment, affidavits, declarations, or any other document or written or oral statement;
</P>
<P>(c) Directly or indirectly attempting to influence, or offering or agreeing to attempt to influence, the official action of any officer or employee of the OCC by the use of threats, false accusations, duress or coercion, by the offer of any special inducement or promise of advantage or by the bestowing of any gift, favor, or thing of value.
</P>
<P>(d) Disbarment or suspension from practice as an attorney, or debarment or suspension from practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant, by any duly constituted authority of any state, possession, or commonwealth of the United States, or the District of Columbia for the conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving moral turpitude in matters relating to the supervisory responsibilities of the OCC, where the conviction has not been reversed on appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) Knowingly aiding or abetting another individual to practice before the OCC during that individual's period of suspension, debarment, or ineligibility.
</P>
<P>(f) Contemptuous conduct in connection with practice before the OCC, and knowingly making false accusations and statements, or circulating or publishing malicious or libelous matter.
</P>
<P>(g) Suspension, debarment or removal from practice before the Board of Governors, the FDIC, the OTS, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, or any other Federal or state agency; and
</P>
<P>(h) Willful violation of any of the regulations contained in this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.197 Initiation of disciplinary proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of information.</I> An individual, including any employee of the OCC, who has reason to believe that an individual practicing before the OCC in a representative capacity has engaged in any conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 19.192, may make a report thereof and forward it to the OCC or to such person as may be delegated responsibility for such matters by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Censure without formal proceeding.</I> Upon receipt of information regarding an individual's qualification to practice before the OCC, the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, censure such individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Institution of formal disciplinary proceeding.</I> When the Comptroller has reason to believe that any individual who practices before the OCC in a representative capacity has engaged in conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 19.192, the Comptroller may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, institute a formal disciplinary proceeding against such individual. The proceeding will be conducted pursuant to § 19.199 and initiated by a complaint which names the individual as a respondent and is signed by the Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate. Except in cases of willfulness, or when time, the nature of the proceeding, or the public interest do not permit, a proceeding under this section may not be commenced until the respondent has been informed, in writing, of the facts or conduct which warrant institution of a proceeding and the respondent has been accorded the opportunity to comply with all lawful requirements or take whatever action may be necessary to remedy the conduct that is the basis for the commencement of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.198 Conferences.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Comptroller may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, debarment or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for debarment or suspension has been commenced. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Resignation or voluntary suspension.</I> In order to avoid the institution of, or a decision in, a debarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before the OCC may consent to suspension from practice. At the discretion of the Comptroller, the individual may be suspended or debarred in accordance with the consent offered.


</P>
<P><B>§ 19.199 Proceedings under this subpart.</B>
</P>
<P>Any hearing held under this subpart is held before an administrative law judge pursuant to procedures set forth in subpart A of this part. The Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate shall appoint a person to represent the OCC in the hearing. Any person having prior involvement in the matter which is the basis for the suspension or debarment proceeding is disqualified from representing the OCC in the hearing. The hearing will be closed to the public unless the Comptroller on his or her own initiative, or on the request of a party, otherwise directs. The administrative law judge shall issue a recommended decision to the Comptroller who shall issue the final decision and order. The Comptroller may censure, debar or suspend an individual, or take such other disciplinary action as the Comptroller deems appropriate.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.200 Effect of suspension, debarment or censure.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for debarment, the individual may not practice before the OCC unless otherwise permitted to do so by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) S<I>uspension.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for suspension, the individual may not practice before the OCC during the period of suspension.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Censure.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before the OCC, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in the OCC's files.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of debarment or suspension.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for suspension or debarment, the Comptroller shall give notice of the order to appropriate officers and employees of the OCC and to interested departments and agencies of the Federal government. The Comptroller or the Comptroller's delegate shall also give notice to the appropriate authorities of the state in which any debarred or suspended individual is or was licensed to practice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.201 Petition for reinstatement.</B>
</P>
<P>At the expiration of the period of time designated in the order of debarment, the Comptroller may entertain a petition for reinstatement from any person debarred from practice before the OCC. The Comptroller may grant reinstatement only if satisfied that the petitioner is likely to act in accordance with the regulations in this part, and that granting reinstatement would not be contrary to the public interest. Any request for reinstatement shall be limited to written submissions unless the Comptroller, in his or her discretion, affords the petitioner a hearing.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart L—Equal Access to Justice Act</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.210 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>The Equal Access to Justice Act regulations applicable to formal OCC adjudicatory proceedings under this part are set forth at 31 CFR part 6.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart M—Procedures for Reclassifying a Bank Based on Criteria Other Than Capital</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.220 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart applies to the procedures afforded to any bank that has been reclassified to a lower capital category by a notice or order issued by the OCC pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.221 Reclassification of a bank based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification</I>—(1) <I>Grounds for reclassification.</I> (i) Pursuant to § 6.4 of this chapter, the OCC may reclassify a well capitalized bank as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized bank or undercapitalized bank to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC determines that the bank is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(B) The OCC deems the bank to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1) shall hereinafter be referred to as “reclassification.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice to institution.</I> Prior to taking action pursuant to § 6.4 of this chapter, the OCC shall issue and serve on the bank a written notice of the OCC's intention to reclassify the bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify a bank based on unsafe or unsound condition will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the bank would be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for reclassification of the bank;
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which the bank subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the OCC a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the OCC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</I> A bank may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the OCC. The response should include:
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation of why the bank is not in unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or company regarding the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a bank to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the OCC to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</I> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC under this section. If the bank desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the bank shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the OCC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the OCC allows further time at the request of the bank. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) The bank shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The bank may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript furnished to the bank upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recommendation of presiding officer(s).</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the OCC on the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the OCC will decide whether to reclassify the bank and notify the bank of the OCC's decision.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.222 Request for rescission of reclassification.</B>
</P>
<P>Any bank that has been reclassified under part 6 of this chapter and this subpart, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the OCC reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the bank shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the OCC.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart N—Order To Dismiss a Director or Senior Executive Officer</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.230 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart applies to informal hearings afforded to any director or senior executive officer dismissed pursuant to an order issued under 12 U.S.C. 1831o and part 6 of this chapter.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.231 Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notice.</I> When the OCC issues and serves a directive on a bank pursuant to subpart B of part 6 of this chapter requiring the bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act, the OCC shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to directive</I>—(1) <I>Request for reinstatement.</I> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the OCC at the request of the Respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request; informal hearing.</I> The request for reinstatement shall include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated, and may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC or its designee under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the OCC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard for review.</I> A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the bank would materially strengthen the bank's ability:
</P>
<P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the bank's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the bank based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation of presiding officer.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the OCC concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the OCC shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the OCC's decision. If the OCC denies the request for reinstatement, the OCC shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the OCC's action.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart O—Civil Money Penalty Adjustments</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.240 Inflation adjustments.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory formula to calculate inflation adjustments.</I> The OCC is required by statute to annually adjust for inflation the maximum amount of each civil money penalty within its jurisdiction to administer. The inflation adjustment is calculated by multiplying the maximum dollar amount of the civil money penalty for the previous calendar year by the cost-of-living inflation adjustment multiplier provided annually by the Office of Management and Budget and rounding the total to the nearest dollar.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of inflation adjustments.</I> The OCC will publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the maximum penalties which may be assessed on an annual basis on or before January 15 of each calendar year based on the formula in paragraph (a) of this section, for penalties assessed on, or after, the date of publication of the most recent notice related to conduct occurring on, or after, November 2, 2015.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart P—Removal, Suspension, and Debarment of Accountants From Performing Audit Services</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 19.241 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart, which implements section 36(g)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m(g)(4)), provides rules and procedures for the removal, suspension, or debarment of independent public accountants and their accounting firms from performing independent audit and attestation services required by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, and insured Federal branches of foreign banks.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.242 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms have the meaning given below unless the context requires otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accounting firm</I> means a corporation, proprietorship, partnership, or other business firm providing audit services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audit services</I> means any service required to be performed by an independent public accountant by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) and 12 CFR part 363, including attestation services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent public accountant (accountant)</I> means any individual who performs or participates in providing audit services.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.243 Removal, suspension, or debarment.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment</I>—(1) <I>Individuals.</I> The Comptroller may remove, suspend, or debar an independent public accountant from performing audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks that are subject to section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) if, after service of a notice of intention and opportunity for hearing in the matter, the Comptroller finds that the accountant:
</P>
<P>(i) Lacks the requisite qualifications to perform audit services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has knowingly or recklessly engaged in conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards, including those standards and conflicts of interest provisions applicable to accountants through the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Public Law 107-204, 116 Stat. 745 (2002) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), and developed by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has engaged in negligent conduct in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) A single instance of highly unreasonable conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards in circumstances in which an accountant knows, or should know, that heightened scrutiny is warranted; or
</P>
<P>(B) Repeated instances of unreasonable conduct, each resulting in a violation of applicable professional standards, that indicate a lack of competence to perform audit services;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has knowingly or recklessly given false or misleading information, or knowingly or recklessly participated in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the OCC or any officer or employee of the OCC;
</P>
<P>(v) Has engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing or reckless violation of any provision of the Federal banking or securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder, or any other law;
</P>
<P>(vi) Has been removed, suspended, or debarred from practice before any Federal or State agency regulating the banking, insurance, or securities industries, other than by an action listed in § 19.244, on grounds relevant to the provision of audit services; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Is suspended or debarred for cause from practice as an accountant by any duly constituted licensing authority of any State, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting firms.</I> If the Comptroller determines that there is good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment of a member or employee of an accounting firm under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Comptroller also may remove, suspend, or debar such firm or one or more offices of such firm. In considering whether to remove, suspend, or debar a firm or an office thereof, and the term of any sanction against a firm under this section, the Comptroller may consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The gravity, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act that constitutes good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of, and adherence to, applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the accounting firm's conduct of its business and the performance of audit services;
</P>
<P>(iii) The selection, training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the accounting firm involved in the performance of audit services;
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which managing partners or senior officers of the accounting firm have participated, directly, or indirectly through oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The extent to which the accounting firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited scope orders.</I> An order of removal, suspension (including an immediate suspension), or debarment may, at the discretion of the Comptroller, be made applicable to a particular insured national bank, insured Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch of a foreign bank or class of insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Remedies not exclusive.</I> The remedies provided in this subpart are in addition to any other remedies the OCC may have under any other applicable provisions of law, rule, or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings to remove, suspend, or debar</I>—(1) <I>Initiation of formal removal, suspension, or debarment proceedings.</I> The Comptroller may initiate a proceeding to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services by issuing a written notice of intention to take such action that names the individual or firm as a respondent and describes the nature of the conduct that constitutes good cause for such action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearings under paragraph (b) of this section.</I> An accountant or firm named as a respondent in the notice issued under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request a hearing on the allegations in the notice. Hearings conducted under this paragraph will be conducted in the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 19, subpart A), subject to the limitations in § 19.243(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Immediate suspension from performing audit services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Comptroller serves a written notice of intention to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services, the Comptroller may, with due regard for the public interest and without a preliminary hearing, immediately suspend such accountant or firm from performing audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks, if the Comptroller:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a reasonable basis to believe that the accountant or firm has engaged in conduct (specified in the notice served on the accountant or firm under paragraph (b) of this section) that would constitute grounds for removal, suspension, or debarment under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines that immediate suspension is necessary to avoid immediate harm to an insured depository institution or its depositors or to the depository system as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Serves such respondent with written notice of the immediate suspension.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> An immediate suspension notice issued under this paragraph will become effective upon service. Such suspension will remain in effect until the date the Comptroller dismisses the charges contained in the notice of intention, or the effective date of a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment issued by the Comptroller to the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition for stay.</I> Any accountant or firm immediately suspended from performing audit services in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 10 calendar days after service of the notice of immediate suspension, file with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219 for a stay of such immediate suspension. If no petition is filed within 10 calendar days, the right to a petition is waived and the immediate suspension remains in effect pursuant to paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing on petition.</I> Upon receipt of a stay petition, the Comptroller will designate a presiding officer who will fix a place and time (not more than 10 calendar days after receipt of the petition, unless further time is allowed by the presiding officer at the request of petitioner) at which the immediately suspended party may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials and oral argument. Any OCC employee engaged in investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, serve as a presiding officer or participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer or of the OCC, except as witness or counsel in the proceeding. In the sole discretion of the presiding officer, upon a specific showing of compelling need, oral testimony of witnesses may also be presented. In hearings held pursuant to this paragraph there will be no discovery and the provisions of §§ 19.6 through 19.12, 19.16, and 19.21 of this part apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Decision on petition.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the hearing, the presiding officer will issue a decision. The presiding officer will grant a stay upon a demonstration that a substantial likelihood exists of the respondent's success on the issues raised by the notice of intention and that, absent such relief, the respondent will suffer immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage. In the absence of such a demonstration, the presiding officer will notify the parties that the immediate suspension will be continued pending the completion of the administrative proceedings pursuant to the notice.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review of presiding officer's decision.</I> The parties may seek review of the presiding officer's decision by filing a petition for review with the presiding officer within 10 calendar days after service of the decision. Replies must be filed within 10 calendar days after the petition filing date. Upon receipt of a petition for review and any reply, the presiding officer will promptly certify the entire record to the Comptroller. Within 60 calendar days of the presiding officer's certification, the Comptroller will issue an order notifying the affected party whether or not the immediate suspension should be continued or reinstated. The order will state the basis of the Comptroller's decision.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.244 Automatic removal, suspension, or debarment.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) An independent public accountant or accounting firm may not perform audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks if the accountant or firm:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment (other than a limited scope order) issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the former Office of Thrift Supervision under section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m).
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a temporary suspension or permanent revocation of registration or a temporary or permanent suspension or bar from further association with any registered public accounting firm issued by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or the Securities and Exchange Commission under sections 105(c)(4)(A) or (B) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(A) or (B)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to an order of suspension or denial of the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request, the Comptroller, for good cause shown, may grant written permission to such accountant or firm to perform audit services for insured national banks, insured Federal savings associations, or insured Federal branches of foreign banks. The request must contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Comptroller may require the applicant to submit additional information.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.245 Notice of removal, suspension, or debarment.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to the public.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the Comptroller will make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the Comptroller by accountants and firms.</I> An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to a insured national bank, insured Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch of a foreign bank must provide the Comptroller with written notice of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any currently effective order or other action described in § 19.243(a)(1)(vi) through (vii) or § 19.244(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> Written notice required by this paragraph must be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier.




</P>
<P><B>§ 19.246 Petition for reinstatement.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Form of petition.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Comptroller, a petition for reinstatement by an independent public accountant, an accounting firm, or an office of a firm that was removed, suspended, or debarred under § 19.243 may be made in writing at any time. The request must contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Comptroller may require the applicant to submit additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> A petitioner for reinstatement under this section may, in the sole discretion of the Comptroller, be afforded a hearing. The accountant or firm bears the burden of going forward with a petition and proving the grounds asserted in support of the petition. In reinstatement proceedings, the person seeking reinstatement bears the burden of going forward with an application and proving the grounds asserted in support of the application. The Comptroller may, in his sole discretion, direct that any reinstatement proceeding be limited to written submissions. The removal, suspension, or debarment will continue until the Comptroller, for good cause shown, has reinstated the petitioner or until the suspension period has expired. The filing of a petition for reinstatement will not stay the effectiveness of the removal, suspension, or debarment of an accountant or firm.


</P>
<HD1><B>PART 108—REMOVALS, SUSPENSIONS, AND PROHIBITIONS WHERE A CRIME IS CHARGED OR PROVEN</B>


</HD1>
<P><E T="04">Authority:</E>12 U.S.C. 1464, 1818, 5412(b)(2)(B).




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.1 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>The rules in this part apply to hearings, which are exempt from the adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act, afforded to any officer, director, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of a Federal savings association, Federal savings association subsidiary, or affiliate service corporation, where such person has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of one of the aforementioned entities by a Notice or Order served by the OCC upon the grounds set forth in section 8(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.2 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>As used in this part—
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>Notice</I> means a Notice of Suspension or Notice of Prohibition issued by the OCC pursuant to section 8(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>Order</I> means an Order of Removal or Order of Prohibition issued by the OCC pursuant to section 8(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>association</I> means a Federal savings association within the meaning of section 2(5) of the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1462(5) (“HOLA”), Federal savings association subsidiary and an affiliate service corporation within the meaning of section 8(b)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(8) (“FDIA”).
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>subject individual</I> means a person served with a Notice or Order.
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>petitioner</I> means a subject individual who has filed a petition for informal hearing under this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.3 Issuance of Notice or Order.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) The OCC may issue and serve a Notice upon an officer, director, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of an association, where the individual is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint with the commission of or participation in a crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust that is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or Federal law, if the OCC, upon due deliberation, determines that continued service or participation by the individual may pose a threat to the interests of the association's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the association. The Notice shall remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of or until terminated by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC may issue and serve an Order upon a subject individual against whom a judgment of conviction, or an agreement to enter a pretrial diversion or other similar program has been rendered, where such judgment is not subject to further appellate review, and the OCC, upon the deliberation, has determined that continued service or participation by the subject individual may pose a threat to the interests of the association's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the association.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.4 Contents and service of the Notice or Order.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) The Notice or Order shall set forth the basis and facts in support of the OCC's issuance of such Notice or Order, and shall inform the subject individual of his right to a hearing, in accordance with this part, for the purpose of determining whether the Notice or Order should be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified.
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC shall serve a copy of the Notice or Order upon the subject individual and the related association in the manner set forth in § 109.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of the Notice or Order, the subject individual shall immediately comply with the requirements thereof.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.5 Petition for hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) To obtain a hearing, the subject individual must file two copies of a petition with the OCC within 30 days of being served with the Notice or Order.
</P>
<P>(b) The petition filed under this section shall admit or deny specifically each allegation in the Notice or Order, unless the petitioner is without knowledge or information, in which case the petition shall so state and the statement shall have the effect of a denial. Any allegation not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. When a petitioner intends in good faith to deny only a part of or to qualify an allegation, he shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder.
</P>
<P>(c) The petition shall state whether the petitioner is requesting termination or modification of the Notice or Order, and shall state with particularity how the petitioner intends to show that his continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the association would not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the association's depositors or to impair public confidence in the association.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.6 Initiation of hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within 10 days of the filing of a petition for hearing, the OCC shall notify the petitioner of the time and place fixed for hearing, and it shall designate one or more OCC employees to serve as presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing shall be scheduled to be held no later than 30 days from the date the petition was filed, unless the time is extended at the request of the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(c) A petitioner may appear personally or through counsel, but if represented by counsel, said counsel is required to comply with § 109.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) A representative(s) of the OCC's Enforcement Division also may attend the hearing and participate therein as a party.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.7 Conduct of hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Hearings provided by this section are not subject to the adjudicative provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557). The presiding officer is, however, authorized to exercise all of the powers enumerated in § 109.5 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Witnesses may be presented, within time limits specified by the presiding officer, provided that at least 10 days prior to the hearing date, the party presenting the witnesses furnishes the presiding officer and the opposing party with a list of such witnesses and a summary of the proposed testimony. However, the requirement for furnishing such a witness list and summary of testimony shall not apply to the presentation of rebuttal witnesses. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness, and each party shall have an opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the request of either the petitioner or a representative of the Enforcement Division, the record shall remain open for a period of 5 business days following the hearing, during which time the parties may make any additional submissions for the record. Thereafter, the record shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(d) Following the introduction of all evidence, the petitioner and the representative of the Enforcement Division shall have an opportunity for oral argument; however, the parties may jointly waive the right to oral argument, and, in lieu thereof, elect to submit written argument.
</P>
<P>(e) All oral testimony and oral argument shall be recorded, and transcripts made available to the petitioner upon payment of the cost thereof. A copy of the transcript shall be sent directly to the presiding officer, who shall have authority to correct the record <I>sua sponte</I> or upon the motion of any party.
</P>
<P>(f) The parties may, in writing, jointly waive an oral hearing and instead elect a hearing upon a written record in which all evidence and argument would be submitted to the presiding officer in documentary form and statements of individuals would be made by affidavit.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.8 Default.</B>
</P>
<P>If the subject individual fails to file a petition for a hearing, or fails to appear at a hearing, either in person or by attorney, or fails to submit a written argument where oral argument has been waived pursuant to § 108.7(d) or (f) of this part, the Notice shall remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of and the Order shall remain in effect until terminated by the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.9 Rules of evidence.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Formal rules of evidence shall not apply to a hearing, but the presiding officer may limit the introduction of irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) All matters officially noticed by the presiding officer shall appear on the record.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.10 Burden of persuasion.</B>
</P>
<P>The petitioner has the burden of showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that his or her continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the association does not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the association's depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the association.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.11 Relevant considerations.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) In determining whether the petitioner has shown that his or her continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the association would not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the association's depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the association, in order to decide whether the Notice or Order should be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, the OCC will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature and extent of the petitioner's participation in the affairs of the association;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of the offense with which the petitioner has been charged;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent of the publicity accorded the indictment and trial; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such other relevant factors as may be entered on the record.
</P>
<P>(b) When considering a request for the termination or modification of a Notice, the OCC will not consider the ultimate guilt or innocence of the petitioner with respect to the criminal charge that is outstanding.
</P>
<P>(c) When considering a request for the termination or modification of an Order which has been issued following a final judgment of conviction against a subject individual, the OCC will not collaterally review such final judgment of conviction.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.12 Proposed findings and conclusions and recommended decision.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after completion of oral argument or the submission of written argument where oral argument has been waived, the presiding officer shall file with and certify to the OCC for decision the entire record of the hearing, which shall include a recommended decision, the Notice or Order, and all other documents filed in connection with the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The recommended decision shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the issue(s) presented,
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of findings and conclusions, and the reasons or basis therefor, on all material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record, and
</P>
<P>(3) An appropriate recommendation as to whether the suspension, removal, or prohibition should be continued, modified, or terminated.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.13 Decision of the OCC.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after the recommended decision has been certified to the OCC, the OCC shall issue a final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC's final decision shall contain a statement of the basis therefor. The OCC may satisfy this requirement where it adopts the recommended decision of the presiding officer upon finding that the recommended decision satisfies the requirements of § 109.38 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The OCC shall serve upon the petitioner and the representative of the Enforcement Division a copy of the OCC's final decision and the related recommended decision.




</P>
<P><B>§ 108.14 Miscellaneous.</B>
</P>
<P>The provisions of §§ 109.10, 109.11, and 109.12 of this chapter shall apply to proceedings under this part.




</P>
<HD1><B>PART 109—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE IN ADJUDICATORY PROCEEDINGS</B>


</HD1>
<P><E T="04">Authority:</E>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1468, 1817, 1818, 1820(k), 1829(e), 1832, 1884, 1972, 3349, 4717, 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78(l), 78o-5, 78u-2, 1639e; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 5321; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 109.1 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure with regard to Federal savings associations applicable to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings on the record are provided for by the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the OCC should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the OCC is the appropriate agency.
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the OCC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464 (d), (s) and (v);
</P>
<P>(2) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d);
</P>
<P>(3) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a (i) and (r);
</P>
<P>(4) Any provisions of the Change in Bank Control Act, any regulation or order issued thereunder or certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(5) Sections 22(h) and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act, or any regulation issued thereunder or certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1468;
</P>
<P>(6) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(7) Section 1120 of Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(8) The terms of any final or temporary order issued or enforceable pursuant to section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the OCC, the terms of any conditions imposed in writing by the OCC in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided herein pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(9) Any provision of law referenced in section 102 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) to impose penalties on senior examiners for violation of post-employment prohibitions; and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.2 Rules of construction.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.3 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the OCC's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the OCC or the administrative law judge, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Comptroller</I> means the Comptroller of the Currency or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the OCC in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the OCC with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution</I> includes any Federal savings association as that term is defined in section 3(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules found in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Office of Financial Institution Adjudication</I> (OFIA) means the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the OCC, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Party</I> means the OCC and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the OCC.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Violation</I> includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.4 Authority of the Comptroller.</B>
</P>
<P>The Comptroller may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 109.31 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Comptroller shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Comptroller a recommended decision as provided herein;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the OCC or an administrative law judge</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the OCC if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer, director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Comptroller, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.7 Good faith certification.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.8 Conflicts of interest.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 109.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.9 Ex parte communications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the OCC (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, the Comptroller, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the Comptroller until the date that the Comptroller issues the final decision pursuant to § 109.40(c) of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person outside the OCC shall make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to the Comptroller, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the OCC any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, the Comptroller or other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation-of-functions.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the OCC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 109.40 of this subpart, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.10 Filing of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 109.25 and 109.26 of this subpart, shall be filed with the OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section as to form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8 1-2 × 11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 109.7 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the OCC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Comptroller, or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.11 Service of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 109.10(c) of this subpart as to form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Comptroller or the administrative law judge.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding through a counsel of record, shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 109.6 of this subpart, the Comptroller or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) By delivery to an agent, which in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.12 Construction of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Comptroller or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Comptroller or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.13 Change of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Comptroller pursuant to § 109.38 of this subpart, the Comptroller may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party or on the Comptroller's or the administrative law judge's own motion after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.14 Witness fees and expenses.</B>
</P>
<P>Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or deposition shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the OCC is the party requesting the subpoena. The OCC shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.</B>
</P>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any OCC representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.16 OCC's right to conduct examination.</B>
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the OCC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the OCC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by the Comptroller upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notice must be filed with the OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the OCC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the OCC is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) The answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.19 Answer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Comptroller based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.20 Amended pleadings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Comptroller or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.21 Failure to appear.</B>
</P>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Comptroller a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.23 Motions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, but upon the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Comptroller, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 109.29 and 109.30 of this subpart.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.24 Scope of document discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 109.102 of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 109.25 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative-process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.25 Request for document discovery from parties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying.</I> The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per-page copying rate imposed under 12 CFR 4.17 for requests under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 109.23 of this subpart to revoke or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 109.23 of this subpart are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to revoke or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney-work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 109.23 of this subpart for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 109.24(d) of this subpart. The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 109.25(d) of this subpart, and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.28 Interlocutory review.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Comptroller may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Comptroller only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 109.23 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Comptroller may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the administrative law judge if the Comptroller finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 109.23 of this subpart. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 109.23(d) of this subpart. Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Comptroller for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Comptroller under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Comptroller.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.29 Summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Comptroller issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes that there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Comptroller. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.30 Partial summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at its expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.32 Prehearing submissions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:
</P>
<P>(1) Prehearing statement;
</P>
<P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.33 Public hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the Comptroller, in the Comptroller's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Comptroller a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Comptroller. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 109.23 of this subpart. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.34 Hearing subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 109.26(c) of this subpart.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.35 Conduct of hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree the administrative law judge shall fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.36 Evidence.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the APA and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or Comptroller shall appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by the appropriate Federal banking agency, as defined in section 3(q) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), or state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness, either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Comptroller.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.37 Post-hearing filings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party, that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 109.37(b) of this subpart, the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Comptroller, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Comptroller for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Comptroller a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 109.38 of this subpart, a party may file with the Comptroller written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Comptroller if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.40 Review by the Comptroller.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Comptroller.</I> When the Comptroller determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Comptroller shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Comptroller for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Comptroller.</I> Upon the initiative of the Comptroller or on the written request of any party filed with the Comptroller within the time for filing exceptions, the Comptroller may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Comptroller's final decision. Oral argument before the Comptroller must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comptroller's final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Comptroller in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Comptroller will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Comptroller may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Comptroller orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Comptroller shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Comptroller or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.41 Stays pending judicial review.</B>
</P>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the OCC may not, unless specifically ordered by the Comptroller or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Comptroller. The Comptroller may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of the order.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Local Rules</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 109.100 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>The rules and procedures in this subpart B shall apply to those proceedings covered by subpart A of this part. In addition, subpart A of this part and this subpart shall apply to adjudicatory proceedings for which hearings on the record are provided for by the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Proceedings under section 10(a)(2)(D) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(2)(D)) to determine whether any person directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of a savings association or any other company; and
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) Proceedings under section 15(c)(4) of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o(c)(4)) (Exchange Act) to determine whether any Federal savings association or person subject to the jurisdiction of the OCC pursuant to section 12(i) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78 <I>l</I> (i)) has failed to comply with the provisions of sections 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d) or 14(f) of the Exchange Act.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.101 Appointment of Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.</B>
</P>
<P>Unless otherwise directed by the OCC, all hearings under subpart A of this part and this subpart shall be conducted by administrative law judges under the direction of the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.102 Discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party may take the deposition of an expert, or of a person, including another party, who has direct knowledge of matters that are non-privileged, relevant and material to the proceeding and where there is a need for the deposition. The deposition of experts shall be limited to those experts who are expected to testify at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A party desiring to take a deposition shall give reasonable notice in writing to the deponent and to every other party to the proceeding. The notice must state the time and place for taking the deposition and the name and address of the person to be deposed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits.</I> A party may take depositions at any time after the commencement of the proceeding, but no later than ten days before the scheduled hearing date, except with permission of the administrative law judge for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The witness must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness with respect to all non-privileged, relevant and material matters of which the witness has factual, direct and personal knowledge.
</P>
<P>Objections to questions or exhibits shall be in short form, stating the grounds for objection. Failure to object to questions or exhibits is not a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. The court reporter shall transcribe or otherwise record the witness's testimony, as agreed among the parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Protective orders.</I> At any time after notice of a deposition has been given, a party may file a motion for the issuance of a protective order. Such protective order may prohibit, terminate, or limit the scope or manner of the taking of a deposition. The administrative law judge shall grant such protective order upon a showing of sufficient grounds, including that the deposition:
</P>
<P>(1) Is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome;
</P>
<P>(2) Involves privileged, investigative, trial preparation, irrelevant or immaterial matters; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is being conducted in bad faith or in such manner as to unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees.</I> Deposition witnesses, including expert witnesses, shall be paid the same expenses in the same manner as are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States in proceedings in which the United States Government is a party. Expenses in accordance with this paragraph shall be paid by the party seeking to take the deposition.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deposition subpoenas</I>—(1) <I>Issuance.</I> At the request of a party, the administrative law judge shall issue a subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness at a deposition. The attendance of a witness may be required from any place in any state or territory that is subject to the jurisdiction of the United States or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service.</I> The party requesting the subpoena must serve it on the person named therein or upon that person's counsel, by any of the methods identified in § 109.11(d) of this part. The party serving the subpoena must file proof of service with the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Motion to quash.</I> A person named in the subpoena or a party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena. A statement of the reasons for the motion must accompany it and a copy of the motion must be served on the party that requested the subpoena. The motion must be made prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena and not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena, or if the subpoena is served within 15 days of the hearing, within five days after the date of service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enforcement of deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena shall be in accordance with the procedures of § 109.27(d) of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.103 Civil money penalties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment.</I> In the event of consent, or if upon the record developed at the hearing the OCC finds that any of the grounds specified in the notice issued pursuant to § 109.18 of this part have been established, the OCC may serve an order of assessment of civil money penalty upon the party concerned. The assessment order shall be effective immediately upon service or upon such other date as may be specified therein and shall remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the OCC or by a reviewing court.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment.</I> (1) Civil penalties assessed pursuant to subpart A of this part and this subpart B are payable and to be collected within 60 days after the issuance of the notice of assessment, unless the OCC fixes a different time for payment where it determines that the purpose of the civil money penalty would be better served thereby; however, if a party has made a timely request for a hearing to challenge the assessment of the penalty, the party may not be required to pay such penalty until the OCC has issued a final order of assessment following the hearing. In such instances, the penalty shall be paid within 60 days of service of such order unless the OCC fixes a different time for payment. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the OCC may seek to attach the party's assets or to have a receiver appointed to secure payment of the potential civil money penalty or other obligation in advance of the hearing in accordance with section 8(i)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(4)).
</P>
<P>(2) Checks in payment of civil penalties shall be made payable to the Treasurer of the United States and sent to the OCC. Upon receipt, the OCC shall forward the check to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum amount of civil money penalties</I>—(1) <I>Statutory formula.</I> The OCC is required by statute to annually adjust for inflation the maximum amount of each civil money penalty within its jurisdiction to administer. The inflation adjustment is calculated by multiplying the maximum dollar amount of the civil money penalty for the previous calendar year by the cost-of-living inflation adjustment multiplier provided annually by the Office of Management and Budget and rounding the total to the nearest dollar.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of inflation adjustments.</I> The OCC will publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the maximum penalties which may be assessed on an annual basis on, or before, January 15 of each calendar year based on the formula in paragraph (a) of this section, for penalties assessed on, or after, the date of publication of the most recent notice related to conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015.




</P>
<P><B>§ 109.104 Additional procedures.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Replies to exceptions.</I> Replies to written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order pursuant to § 109.39 of this part shall be filed within 10-days of the date such written exceptions were required to be filed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions.</I> All motions shall be filed with the administrative law judge and an additional copy shall be filed with the OCC Hearing Clerk who receives adjudicatory filings; provided, however, that once the administrative law judge has certified the record to the Comptroller pursuant to § 109.38 of this part, all motions must be filed with the Comptroller to the attention of the Hearing Clerk within the 10-day period following the filing of exceptions allowed for the filing of replies to exceptions. Responses to such motions filed in a timely manner with the Comptroller, other than motions for oral argument before the Comptroller, shall be allowed pursuant to the procedures at § 109.23(d) of this part. No response is required for the Comptroller to make a determination on a motion for oral argument.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority of administrative law judge.</I> In addition to the powers listed in § 109.5 of this part, the administrative law judge shall have the authority to deny any dispositive motion and shall follow the procedures set forth for motions for summary disposition at § 109.29 of this part and partial summary disposition at § 109.30 of this part in making determinations on such motions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of submission of proceeding to the Comptroller.</I> Upon the expiration of the time for filing any exceptions, any replies to such exceptions or any motions and any ruling thereon, and after receipt of certified record, the OCC shall notify the parties within ten days of the submission of the proceeding to the Comptroller for final determination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extensions of time for final determination.</I> The Comptroller may, <I>sua sponte,</I> extend the time for final determination by signing an order of extension of time within the 90-day time period and notifying the parties of such extension thereafter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service upon the OCC.</I> Service of any document upon the OCC shall be made by filing with the Hearing Clerk, in addition to the individuals and/or offices designated by the OCC in its Notice issued pursuant to § 109.18 of this part, or such other means reasonably suited to provide notice of the person and/or offices designated to receive filings.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filings with the Comptroller.</I> An additional copy of all materials required or permitted to be filed with or referred to the administrative law judge pursuant to subpart A and B of this part shall be filed with the Hearing Clerk. This rule shall not apply to the transcript of testimony and exhibits adduced at the hearing or to proposed exhibits submitted in advance of the hearing pursuant to an order of the administrative law judge under § 109.32 of this part. Materials required or permitted to be filed with or referred to the Comptroller pursuant to subparts A and B of this part shall be filed with the Comptroller, to the attention of the Hearing Clerk.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Presence of cameras and other recording devices.</I> The use of cameras and other recording devices, other than those used by the court reporter, shall be prohibited and excluded from the proceedings.


</P>
<HD1><B>PART 112—RULES FOR INVESTIGATIVE PROCEEDINGS AND FORMAL EXAMINATION PROCEEDINGS</B>


</HD1>
<P><E T="04">Authority:</E>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1813, 1817(j), 1818(n), 1820(c), 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78<I>l.</I>




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.1 Scope of part.</B>
</P>
<P>This part prescribes rules of practice and procedure applicable to the conduct of formal examination proceedings with respect to Federal savings associations and their affiliates under section 5(d)(1)(B) of the HOLA, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1)(B) or section 7(j)(15) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15) (“FDIA”), section 8(n) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1818(n), or section 10(c) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1820(c). This part does not apply to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings are required by statute, the rules for which are contained in part 109 of this chapter.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.2 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency;
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal examination proceeding</I> means the administration of oaths and affirmations, taking and preserving of testimony, requiring the production of books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, and all other records, the issuance of subpoenas, and all related activities in connection with examination of savings associations and their affiliates conducted pursuant to section 5(d)(1)(B) of the HOLA, section 7(j)(15) of the FDIA, section 8(n) of the FDIA or section 10(c) of the FDIA; and
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Designated representative</I> means the person or persons empowered by the OCC to conduct an investigative proceeding or a formal examination proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.3 Confidentiality of proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>All formal examination proceedings shall be private and, unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, all investigative proceedings shall also be private. Unless otherwise ordered or permitted by the OCC, or required by law, and except as provided in §§ 112.4 and 112.5, the entire record of any investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding, including the resolution of the OCC or its delegate(s) authorizing the proceeding, the transcript of such proceeding, and all documents and information obtained by the designated representative(s) during the course of said proceedings shall be confidential.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.4 Transcripts.</B>
</P>
<P>Transcripts or other recordings, if any, of investigative proceedings or formal examination proceedings shall be prepared solely by an official reporter or by any other person or means authorized by the designated representative. A person who has submitted documentary evidence or given testimony in an investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding may procure a copy of his own documentary evidence or transcript of his own testimony upon payment of the cost thereof; <I>provided,</I> that a person seeking a transcript of his own testimony must file a written request with the OCC's Director for Enforcement stating the reason he desires to procure such transcript, and said persons may for good cause deny such request. In any event, any witness (or his counsel) shall have the right to inspect the transcript of the witness' own testimony.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.5 Rights of witnesses.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish documentary evidence or give testimony at an investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding shall have the right to examine, upon request, the OCC resolution authorizing such proceeding. Copies of such resolution shall be furnished, for their retention, to such persons only with the written approval of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) Any witness at an investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding may be accompanied and advised by an attorney personally representing that witness.
</P>
<P>(1) Such attorney shall be a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, Commonwealth, possession, territory, or the District of Columbia, who has not been suspended or debarred from practice by the bar of any such political entity or before the OCC in accordance with the provisions of part 19 of this chapter and has not been excluded from the particular investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Such attorney may advise the witness before, during, and after the taking of his testimony and may briefly question the witness, on the record, at the conclusion of his testimony, for the sole purpose of clarifying any of the answers the witness has given. During the taking of the testimony of a witness, such attorney may make summary notes solely for his use in representing his client. All witnesses shall be sequestered, and, unless permitted in the discretion of the designated representative, no witness or accompanying attorney may be permitted to be present during the taking of testimony of any other witness called in such proceeding. Neither attorney(s) for the association(s) that are the subjects of the investigative proceedings or formal examination proceedings, nor attorneys for any other interested persons, shall have any right to be present during the testimony of any witness not personally being represented by such attorney.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC, for good cause, may exclude a particular attorney from further participation in any investigation in which the OCC has found the attorney to have engaged in dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct. The person conducting an investigation may report to the OCC instances of apparently dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct on the part of an attorney. After due notice to the attorney, the OCC may take such action as the circumstances warrant based upon a written record evidencing the conduct of the attorney in that investigation or such other or additional written or oral presentation as the OCC may permit or direct.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.6 Obstruction of the proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>The designated representative shall report to the Comptroller any instances where any witness or counsel has engaged in dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct or has otherwise violated any provision of this part during the course of an investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding; and the OCC may take such action as the circumstances warrant, including the exclusion of counsel from further participation in such proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 112.7 Subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Service of a subpoena in connection with any investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding shall be effected in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Service upon a natural person.</I> Service of a subpoena upon a natural person may be effected by handing it to such person; by leaving it at his office with the person in charge thereof, or, if there is no one in charge, by leaving it in a conspicuous place therein; by leaving it at his dwelling place or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein; by mailing it to him by registered or certified mail or by an express delivery service at his last known address; or by any method whereby actual notice is given to him.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service upon other persons.</I> When the person to be served is not a natural person, service of the subpoena may be effected by handing the subpoena to a registered agent for service, or to any officer, director, or agent in charge of any office of such person; by mailing it to any such representative by registered or certified mail or by an express delivery service at his last known address; or by any method whereby actual notice is given to such person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions to quash.</I> Any person to whom a subpoena is directed may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than 10 days after the date of service of such subpoena, apply to the Deputy Chief Counsel or his designee to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanying such application with a statement of the reasons therefor. The Deputy Chief Counsel or his designee, as appropriate, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny the application;
</P>
<P>(2) Quash or revoke the subpoena;
</P>
<P>(3) Modify the subpoena; or
</P>
<P>(4) Condition the granting of the application on such terms as the Deputy Chief Counsel or his designee determines to be just, reasonable, and proper.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attendance of witnesses.</I> Subpoenas issued in connection with an investigative proceeding or formal examination proceeding may require the attendance and/or testimony of witnesses from any state or territory of the United States and the production by such witnesses of documentary or other tangible evidence at any designated place where the proceeding is being (or is to be) conducted. Foreign nationals are subject to such subpoenas if such service is made upon a duly authorized agent located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Witness fees and mileage.</I> Witnesses summoned in any proceeding under this part shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States. Such fees and mileage need not be tendered when the subpoena is issued on behalf of the OCC by any of its designated representatives.




</P>
<HD1><B>PART 165—PROMPT CORRECTIVE ACTION</B>




</HD1>
<P><E T="04">Authority:</E>12 U.S.C. 1831o, 5412(b)(2)(B).




</P>
<P><B>§§ 165.1-165.7 [Reserved]</B>




</P>
<P><B>§ 165.8 Procedures for reclassifying a Federal savings association based on criteria other than capital.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice</I>—(1) <I>Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification—(i) Grounds for reclassification.</I> (A) Pursuant to 12 CFR 6.4(d), the OCC may reclassify a well capitalized Federal savings association as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The OCC determines that the savings association is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The OCC deems the savings association to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall hereinafter be referred to as “reclassification.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prior notice to institution.</I> Prior to taking action pursuant to 12 CFR 6.4(d), the OCC shall issue and serve on the Federal savings association a written notice of the OCC's intention to reclassify the savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify a Federal savings association based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the savings association's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the savings association would be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for reclassification of the savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date by which the savings association subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the OCC a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the OCC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the savings association or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</I> A Federal savings association may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the OCC. The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of why the savings association is not in unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the savings association or company regarding the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a Federal savings association to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the OCC to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</I> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC or its designee under this section. If the Federal savings association desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the savings association shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the OCC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the OCC allows further time at the request of the Federal savings association. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (i) The Federal savings association shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The savings association may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor parts 19 or 109 of this chapter apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded and a transcript furnished to the savings association upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the OCC on the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the OCC will decide whether to reclassify the Federal savings association and notify the savings association of the OCC's decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for rescission of reclassification.</I> Any Federal savings association that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the OCC reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the savings association shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 165.9 Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notice.</I> When the OCC issues and serves a directive on a Federal savings association pursuant to subpart B of part 6 of this chapter requiring the savings association to dismiss any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act, the OCC shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to directive</I>—(1) <I>Request for reinstatement.</I> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the OCC at the request of the Respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request; informal hearing.</I> The request for reinstatement should include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated, and may include a request for an informal hearing before the OCC or its designee under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a Federal savings association to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the OCC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the OCC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the OCC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the OCC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor parts 19 or 109 of this chapter apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the OCC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded and a transcript furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard for review.</I> A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the Federal savings association would materially strengthen the savings association's ability:
</P>
<P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the savings association's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the savings association based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the OCC concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing has been requested, the OCC shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the OCC's decision. If the OCC denies the request for reinstatement, the OCC shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the OCC's action.




</P>
<P><B>§ 165.10 [Reserved]</B>




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 21—MINIMUM SECURITY DEVICES AND PROCEDURES, REPORTS OF SUSPICIOUS ACTIVITIES, AND BANK SECRECY ACT COMPLIANCE PROGRAM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 161, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1818, 1881-1884, and 3401-3422; 31 U.S.C. 5318.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Minimum Security Devices and Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 29564, June 28, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 21.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.1   Purpose and scope of subpart A of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is issued by the Comptroller of the Currency pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882) and is applicable to all national banking associations. It requires each bank to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies and to assist in identifying and apprehending persons who commit such acts. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is the responsibility of a bank's board of directors to comply with this regulation and ensure that a security program which equals or exceeds the standards prescribed by this part is developed and implemented for the bank's main office and branches (as the term “branch” is used in 12 U.S.C. 36).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 29564, June 28, 1991, as amended at 73 FR 22244, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.2   Designation of security officer.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the opening of a new bank, the Bank's board of directors shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, for immediately developing and administering a written security program to protect each banking office from robberies, burglaries, and larcenies and to assist in identifying and apprehending persons who commit such acts.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approval by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1557-0180)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.3   Security program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of security program.</I> The security program shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times; 
</P>
<P>(2) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the institution and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification or conviction; such procedures may include, but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining a camera that records activity in the banking office; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Retaining a record of any robbery, burglary or larceny committed or attempted against a banking office; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for initial and periodic training of employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a robbery; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide for selecting, testing, operating and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security devices.</I> Each national bank shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:
</P>
<P>(1) A means of protecting cash or other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;
</P>
<P>(2) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office;
</P>
<P>(3) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows designed to be opened;
</P>
<P>(4) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery, burglary or larceny; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(i) The incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of currency or other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, or larceny;
</P>
<P>(iii) The distance of the banking office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers and the time required for such law enforcement officers ordinarily to arrive at the banking office;
</P>
<P>(iv) The cost of the security devices;
</P>
<P>(v) Other security measures in effect at the banking office; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The physical characteristics of the banking office structure and its surroundings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.4   Report.</HEAD>
<P>The security officer for a national bank shall report at least annually to the bank's board of directors on the effectiveness of the security program. The substance of such report shall be reflected in the minutes of the Board meeting in which it is given.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1557-0180)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reports of Suspicious Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.11   Suspicious Activity Report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section ensures that national banks file a Suspicious Activity Report when they detect a known or suspected violation of Federal law or a suspicious transaction related to a money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act. This section applies to all national banks as well as any Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks licensed or chartered by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FinCEN</I> means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network of the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in sections 3(u) and 8(b)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u) and 1818(b)(5)). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SAR</I> means a Suspicious Activity Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>SARs required.</I> A national bank shall file a SAR with the appropriate Federal law enforcement agencies and the Department of the Treasury on the form prescribed by the OCC and in accordance with the form's instructions. The bank shall send the completed SAR to FinCEN in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Insider abuse involving any amount.</I> Whenever the national bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying one of its directors, officers, employees, agents or other institution-affiliated parties as having committed or aided in the commission of a criminal act, regardless of the amount involved in the violation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Violations aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified.</I> Whenever the national bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations or that it was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined prior to filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an alias, then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as drivers' license or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Violations aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of potential suspects.</I> Whenever the national bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though there is no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violate the Bank Secrecy Act.</I> Any transaction (which for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4) means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, or purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected) conducted or attempted by, at or through the national bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the bank knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under Federal law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the institution knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for reporting.</I> A national bank is required to file a SAR no later than 30 calendar days after the date of the initial detection of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR. If no suspect was identified on the date of detection of the incident requiring the filing, a national bank may delay filing a SAR for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect. In no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of initial detection of a reportable transaction. In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing, the financial institution shall immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and the OCC in addition to filing a timely SAR. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reports to state and local authorities.</I> National banks are encouraged to file a copy of the SAR with state and local law enforcement agencies where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) A national bank need not file a SAR for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities. 
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank need not file a SAR for lost, missing, counterfeit, or stolen securities if it files a report pursuant to the reporting requirements of 17 CFR 240.17f-1. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Retention of records.</I> A national bank shall maintain a copy of any SAR filed and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of the filing of the SAR. Supporting documentation shall be identified and maintained by the bank as such, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the SAR. A national bank shall make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement agencies upon request. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notification to board of directors</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Whenever a national bank files a SAR pursuant to this section, the management of the bank shall promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee of directors or executive officers designated by the board of directors to receive notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Suspect is a director or executive officer.</I> If the bank files a SAR pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section and the suspect is a director or executive officer, the bank may not notify the suspect, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2), but shall notify all directors who are not suspects. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance.</I> Failure to file a SAR in accordance with this section and the instructions may subject the national bank, its directors, officers, employees, agents, or other institution-affiliated parties to supervisory action. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Obtaining SARs.</I> A national bank may obtain SARs and the Instructions from the appropriate OCC District Office listed in 12 CFR part 4. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Confidentiality of SARs.</I> A SAR, and any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, are confidential, and shall not be disclosed except as authorized in this paragraph (k).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prohibition on disclosure by national banks</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> No national bank, and no director, officer, employee, or agent of a national bank, shall disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR. Any national bank, and any director, officer, employee, or agent of any national bank that is subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, shall decline to produce the SAR or such information, citing this section and 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(A)(i), and shall notify the following of any such request and the response thereto:
</P>
<P>(A) Director, Litigation Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) The Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rules of construction.</I> Provided that no person involved in any reported suspicious transaction is notified that the transaction has been reported, this paragraph (k)(1) shall not be construed as prohibiting:
</P>
<P>(A) The disclosure by a national bank, or any director, officer, employee or agent of a national bank of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, to the OCC, FinCEN, or any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR is based, including, but not limited to, disclosures:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) To another financial institution, or any director, officer, employee or agent of a financial institution, for the preparation of a joint SAR; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In connection with certain employment references or termination notices, to the full extent authorized in 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(B); or
</P>
<P>(B) The sharing by a national bank, or any director, officer, employee, or agent of a national bank, of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, within the bank's corporate organizational structure for purposes consistent with title II of the Bank Secrecy Act as determined by regulation or in guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition on disclosure by the OCC.</I> The OCC will not, and no officer, employee or agent of the OCC, shall disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, except as necessary to fulfill official duties consistent with title II of the Bank Secrecy Act. For purposes of this section, official duties shall not include the disclosure of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, in response to a request for use in a private legal proceeding or in response to a request for disclosure of non-public OCC information under 12 CFR 4.33.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Limitation on liability.</I> A national bank and any director, officer, employee or agent of a national bank that makes a voluntary disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation to a government agency or makes a disclosure pursuant to this section or any other authority, including a disclosure made jointly with another financial institution, shall be protected from liability to any person for any such disclosure, or for failure to provide notice of such disclosure to any person identified in the disclosure, or both, to the full extent provided by 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3). 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) may grant a national bank an exemption from the requirements of this section. A national bank requesting an exemption must submit a request in writing to the OCC. In reviewing such requests, the OCC will consider whether the exemption is consistent with the purposes of the Bank Secrecy Act (if applicable) and safe and sound banking, and may consider other appropriate factors. Any exemption will apply only as expressly stated in the exemption. (A national bank requesting an exemption that also requires relief from the requirements of applicable regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR chapter X must submit a request in writing to both the OCC and FinCEN for approval.)
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC will respond in writing to a national bank that submits a request pursuant to paragraph (m)(1) of this section after considering whether the exemption is consistent with the factors in paragraph (m)(1) of this section. Any exemption granted by the OCC under paragraph (m)(1) of this section will continue for the time specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may extend the period of time or may revoke an exemption granted under paragraph (m)(1) of this section. Exemptions or extensions may be revoked in the sole discretion of the OCC. Before revoking an exemption, the OCC will provide written notice to the national bank of the OCC's intention to revoke an exemption. Such notice will include the basis for the revocation and will provide an opportunity for the national bank to submit a response to the OCC. The OCC will consider any response before deciding whether or not to revoke an exemption and provide written notice to the national bank of the OCC's final decision to revoke an exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to requests for exemptions that will also require relief from the requirements of applicable regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR chapter X, upon receiving approval from both the OCC and FinCEN, the requestor will be relieved of its obligations under this section to the extent stated in such approvals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 4337, Feb. 5, 1996, as amended at 75 FR 75583, Dec. 3, 2010; 87 FR 15332, Mar. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Monitoring Bank Secrecy Act Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 21.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.18.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 21.21   Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart is issued to assure that all national banks and savings associations establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor their compliance with the requirements of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR Chapter X.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of savings association.</I> For purposes of this subpart C, the term <I>savings association</I> means a savings association as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. It includes a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank, chartered under section 5 of the FDI Act, or a building and loan, savings and loan, or homestead association, or a cooperative bank (other than a cooperative bank which is a state bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the FDI Act) organized and operating according to the laws of the state in which it is chartered or organized, or a corporation (other than a bank as defined in section 3(a)(1) of the FDI Act) that the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Comptroller jointly determine to be operating substantially in the same manner as a savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishment of a BSA compliance program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each national bank and each savings association shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code and the implementing regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR Chapter X. The compliance program must be written, approved by the national bank's or savings association's board of directors, and reflected in the minutes of the national bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Each national bank and each savings association is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulations jointly promulgated by the OCC and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 1020.220, which require a customer identification program to be implemented as part of the BSA compliance program required under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contents of compliance program.</I> The compliance program shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by national bank or savings association personnel or by an outside party;
</P>
<P>(3) Designate an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 1557-0180)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2859, Jan. 27, 1987, as amended at 68 FR 25111, May 9, 2003; 76 FR 6687, Feb. 8, 2011; 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 22—LOANS IN AREAS HAVING SPECIAL FLOOD HAZARDS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 5412(b)(2)(B); 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 43240, July 21, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 22.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the requirements of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part, except for §§ 22.6 and 22.8, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Sections 22.6 and 22.8 apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrator of FEMA</I> means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Building</I> means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community</I> means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Designated loan</I> means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal savings association</I> means, for purposes of this part, a Federal savings association as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(2) and any service corporations thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mobile home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term <I>mobile home</I> does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this part, the term <I>mobile home</I> means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term <I>mobile home</I> includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Mutual aid society</I> means an organization—
</P>
<P>(1) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
</P>
<P>(2) That covers losses caused by damage to members' property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
</P>
<P>(3) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members' property caused by flooding.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>National bank</I> means a national bank or a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>NFIP</I> means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the Act.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Private flood insurance</I> means an insurance policy that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
</P>
<P>(v) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
</P>
<P>(A) The insured; and
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(iii) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Residential improved real estate</I> means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Servicer</I> means the person responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>SFIP</I> means, for purposes of §§ 22.2(k), a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to a national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Special flood hazard area</I> means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43240, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4969, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.3   Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the Act. Flood insurance coverage under the Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table funded loans.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Private flood insurance</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must accept private flood insurance, as defined in § 22.2(k), in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in § 22.2(k), without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discretionary acceptance.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in § 22.2(k) in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
</P>
<P>(iii) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the national bank or Federal savings association documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mutual aid societies.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in § 22.2(h), in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The OCC has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the national bank or Federal savings association documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43240, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4970, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.4   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The flood insurance requirement prescribed by § 22.3 does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any State-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of States falling within this exemption;
</P>
<P>(b) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
</P>
<P>(c) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the national bank or Federal savings association that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.5   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, a national bank or a Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 22.3(a) for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of § 22.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements of § 22.3(a);
</P>
<P>(B) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
</P>
<P>(C) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The loan has a term of no longer than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duration of exception.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting its behalf, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply, then the bank or savings association, or the servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 22.3(a) as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Escrow account.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan for which a national bank or Federal savings association is required to escrow under paragraphs (a)(1) or (c)(2) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraphs (a)(3) of this section during the term of the loan, the national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under § 22.9 informing the borrower that the national bank or Federal savings association is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small lender exception</I>—(1) <I>Qualification.</I> Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this section do not apply to a national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On or before July 6, 2012:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
</P>
<P>(B) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in status.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the national bank or Federal savings association must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Option to escrow</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 22.3 for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the national bank or Federal savings association has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan or the national bank or Federal savings association qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, respectively;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the national bank or Federal savings association has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association or the servicer acting on its behalf, must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the bank or savings association, or servicer, receives the borrower's request to escrow.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43243, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.6   Required use of standard flood hazard determination form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of form.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. A national bank or Federal savings association may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA's Web site at <I>www.fema.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of form.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the bank or savings association owns the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.7   Force placement of flood insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice and purchase of coverage.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank or savings association, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under § 22.3, then the national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower's expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under § 22.3, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, shall purchase insurance on the borrower's behalf. The national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>Termination and refund.</I> Within 30 days of receipt by a national bank or Federal savings association, or by a servicer acting on its behalf, of a confirmation of a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage, the national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the national bank or Federal savings association, or by its servicer, under paragraph (a) of this section during any period during which the borrower's flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the national bank or Federal savings association, or its servicer, during such period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sufficiency of demonstration.</I> For purposes of confirming a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (b) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.8   Determination fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any national bank or Federal savings association, or a servicer acting on behalf of the national bank or Federal savings association, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrower fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
</P>
<P>(1) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's revision or updating of flood plain areas or flood-risk zones;
</P>
<P>(3) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's publication of a notice or compendium that:
</P>
<P>(i) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(4) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the lender, or its servicer, on behalf of the borrower under § 22.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchaser or transferee fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.9   Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a national bank or Federal savings association makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the bank or savings association shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the Act for the collateral securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The written notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP also may be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association shall provide the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the bank or savings association provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the bank or savings association provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of receipt.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time it owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate method of notice.</I> Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (a) of this section, a national bank or Federal savings association may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The national bank or Federal savings association shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time it owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use of sample form of notice.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A to this part within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A to this part satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43240, July 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 43244, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 22.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 22.10   Notice of servicer's identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a national bank or Federal savings association makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, it shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the national bank's or Federal savings association's notice of the servicer's identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer of servicing rights.</I> The national bank or Federal savings association shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (b) shall transfer to the transferee servicer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.11.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 22—Sample Form of Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HD1>
<P>We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
</P>
<P>The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA's <I>Flood Insurance Rate Map</I> or the <I>Flood Hazard Boundary Map</I> for the following community: ___. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
</P>
<P>Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
</P>
<P>__The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
</P>
<P>• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover <I>the lesser of:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) the outstanding principal balance of the loan; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
</P>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community's participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
</P>
<P>• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
</P>
<HD3>Availability of Private Flood Insurance Coverage
</HD3>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>[Escrow Requirement for Residential Loans
</HD3>
<P>Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
</P>
<P>__Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43244, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.19.0.27.11.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 22—Sample Clause for Option to Escrow for Outstanding Loans
</HEAD>
<HD3>Escrow Option Clause
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
</P>
<P>• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
</P>
<P>• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
</P>
<P>• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
</P>
<P>To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
</P>
<P>[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43244, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 23—LEASING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 24(Tenth), and 93a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 66560, Dec. 18, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> A national bank may engage in personal property lease financing transactions pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) or 12 U.S.C. 24(Tenth). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to set forth standards for personal property lease financing transactions authorized for national banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to the acquisition of personal property by a national bank for the purpose of, or in connection with, the leasing of that property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means an affiliate as described in § 23.6. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital and surplus</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying community banking organizations that have elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter; plus.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, as reported in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(2) For all other national banks:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank's tier 1 and tier 2 capital calculated under the OCC's risk-based capital standards set forth in part 3 of this chapter, as applicable, as reported in the Call Report; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of a bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the bank's Tier 2 capital, for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, as reported in the Call Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CEBA Lease</I> means a personal property lease authorized under 12 U.S.C. 24(Tenth). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conforming lease</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A CEBA Lease that conforms with the requirements of subparts A and B of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Section 24(Seventh) Lease that conforms with the requirements of subparts A and C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Full-payout lease</I> means a lease in which the national bank reasonably expects to realize the return of its full investment in the leased property, plus the estimated cost of financing the property over the term of the lease, from: 
</P>
<P>(1) Rentals; 
</P>
<P>(2) Estimated tax benefits; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated residual value of the property at the expiration of the lease term. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Net lease</I> means a lease under which the national bank will not, directly or indirectly, provide or be obligated to provide for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Servicing, repair, or maintenance of the leased property during the lease term; 
</P>
<P>(2) Parts or accessories for the leased property; 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan of replacement or substitute property while the leased property is being serviced; 
</P>
<P>(4) Payment of insurance for the lessee, except where the lessee has failed in its contractual obligation to purchase or maintain required insurance; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Renewal of any license or registration for the property unless renewal by the bank is necessary to protect its interest as owner or financier of the property. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Off-lease property</I> means property that reverts to a national bank's possession or control upon the expiration of a lease or upon the default of the lessee. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Section 24(Seventh) Lease</I> means a personal property lease authorized under 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66560, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61794, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69297, Dec. 18, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.3   Lease requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A national bank may acquire personal property for the purpose of, or in connection with leasing that property, and may engage in activities incidental thereto, if the lease qualifies as a full-payout lease and a net lease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Change in condition.</I> If, in good faith, a national bank believes that there has been a change in condition that threatens its financial position by increasing its exposure to loss, then the bank may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Take reasonable and appropriate action, including the actions specified in § 23.2(f), to salvage or protect the value of the leased property or its interests arising under the lease; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquire or perfect title to the leased property pursuant to any existing rights. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions to protect the bank's interests.</I> A national bank may include any provision in a lease, or make any additional agreement, to protect its financial position or investment in the event of a change in conditions that would increase its exposure to loss. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Arranging for services by a third party.</I> A national bank may arrange for a third party to provide any of the services enumerated in § 23.2(f) to the lessee at the expense of the lessee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.4   Investment in personal property.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A national bank may acquire specific property to be leased only after the bank has entered into: 
</P>
<P>(1) A conforming lease; 
</P>
<P>(2) A legally binding written agreement that indemnifies the bank against loss in connection with its acquisition of the property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A legally binding written commitment to enter into a conforming lease. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> A national bank may acquire property to be leased without complying with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of the property is consistent with the leasing business then conducted by the bank or is consistent with a business plan for expansion of the bank's existing leasing business or for entry into the leasing business; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank's aggregate investment in property held pursuant to this paragraph (b) does not exceed 15 percent of the bank's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Holding period.</I> At the expiration of the lease (including any renewals or extensions with the same lessee), or in the event of a default on a lease agreement prior to the expiration of the lease term, a national bank shall either liquidate the off-lease property or re-lease it under a conforming lease as soon as practicable. Liquidation or re-lease must occur not later than five years from the date that the bank acquires the legal right to possession or control of the property, except the OCC may extend the period for up to an additional five years, if the bank provides a clearly convincing demonstration why any additional holding period is necessary. The bank must value off-lease property at the lower of current fair market value or book value promptly after the property becomes off-lease property. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bridge or interim leases.</I> During the holding period allowed by paragraph (c) of this section, a national bank may enter into a short-term bridge or interim lease pending the liquidation of off-lease property or the re-lease of the property under a conforming lease. A short-term bridge or interim lease must be a net lease, but need not comply with any requirement of subpart B or C of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.5   Requirement for separate records.</HEAD>
<P>If a national bank enters into both CEBA Leases and Section 24(Seventh) Leases, the bank's records must distinguish the CEBA Leases from the Section 24(Seventh) Leases. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.6   Application of lending limits; restrictions on transactions with affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>All leases entered into pursuant to this part are subject to the lending limits prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 84, as implemented by 12 CFR part 32, or, if the lessee is an affiliate of the bank, to the restrictions on transactions with affiliates prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1 and Regulation W, 12 CFR part 223. The OCC may also determine that other limits or restrictions apply. The term affiliate means an affiliate as defined in 12 U.S.C. 371c or 371c-1, as implemented by Regulation W, 12 CFR part 223, as applicable. For the purpose of measuring compliance with the lending limits prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 84 as implemented by part 32, a national bank records the investment in a lease net of any nonrecourse debt the bank has incurred to finance the acquisition of the leased asset. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66560, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22244, Apr. 24, 2008; 85 FR 42642, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—CEBA Leases</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.10   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Tenth) a national bank may invest in tangible personal property, including vehicles, manufactured homes, machinery, equipment, or furniture, for the purpose of, or in connection with leasing that property, if the aggregate book value of the property does not exceed 10 percent of the bank's consolidated assets and the related lease is a conforming lease. For the purpose of measuring compliance with the 10 percent limit prescribed by this section, a national bank records the investment in a lease entered into pursuant to this subpart net of any nonrecourse debt the bank has incurred to finance the acquisition of the leased asset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.11   Lease term.</HEAD>
<P>A CEBA Lease must have an initial term of not less than 90 days. A national bank may acquire property subject to an existing lease with a remaining maturity of less than 90 days if, at its inception, the lease was a conforming lease. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.12   Transition rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A CEBA Lease entered into prior to July 22, 1991, may continue to be administered in accordance with the lease terms in effect as of that date. For purposes of applying the lending limits and the restrictions on transactions with affiliates described in § 23.6, however, a national bank that enters into a new extension of credit to a customer, including a lease, on or after July 22, 1991, shall include all outstanding leases regardless of the date on which they were made. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renewal of non-conforming leases.</I> A national bank may renew a CEBA Lease that was entered into prior to July 22, 1991, and that is not a conforming lease only if the following conditions are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank entered into the CEBA Lease in good faith; 
</P>
<P>(2) The expiring lease contains a binding agreement requiring that the bank renew the lease at the lessee's option, and the bank cannot reasonably avoid its commitment to do so; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The bank determines in good faith, and demonstrates by appropriate documentation, that renewal of the lease is necessary to avoid financial loss and to recover its investment in, and its cost of financing, the leased property. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Section 24(Seventh) Leases</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.20   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh) a national bank may invest in tangible or intangible personal property, including vehicles, manufactured homes, machinery, equipment, furniture, patents, copyrights, and other intellectual property, for the purpose of, or in connection with leasing that property, if the related lease is a conforming lease representing a noncancelable obligation of the lessee (notwithstanding the possible early termination of that lease). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.21   Estimated residual value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recovery of investment and costs.</I> A national bank's estimate of the residual value of the property that the bank relies upon to satisfy the requirements of a full-payout lease, for purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must be reasonable in light of the nature of the leased property and all circumstances relevant to the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any unguaranteed amount must not exceed 25 percent of the original cost of the property to the bank or the percentage for a particular type of property specified in published OCC guidance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Estimated residual value subject to guarantee.</I> The amount of any estimated residual value guaranteed by the manufacturer, the lessee, or other third party may exceed 25 percent of the original cost of the property if the bank determines, and demonstrates by appropriate documentation, that the guarantor has the resources to meet the guarantee and the guarantor is not an affiliate of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Leases to government entities.</I> A bank's calculations of estimated residual value in connection with leases of personal property to Federal, State, or local governmental entities may be based on future transactions or renewals that the bank reasonably anticipates will occur. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66560, Dec. 18, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 34792, July 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 23.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.20.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 23.22   Transition rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion.</I> A Section 24(Seventh) Lease entered into prior to June 12, 1979, may continue to be administered in accordance with the lease terms in effect as of that date. For purposes of applying the lending limits and the restrictions on transactions with affiliates described in § 23.6, however, a national bank that enters into a new extension of credit to a customer, including a lease, on or after June 12, 1979, shall include all outstanding leases regardless of the date on which they were made. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renewal of non-conforming leases.</I> A national bank may renew a Section 24(Seventh) Lease that was entered into prior to June 12, 1979, and that is not a conforming lease only if the following conditions are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank entered into the Section 24(Seventh) Lease in good faith; 
</P>
<P>(2) The expiring lease contains a binding agreement requiring that the bank renew the lease at the lessee's option, and the bank cannot reasonably avoid its commitment to do so; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The bank determines in good faith, and demonstrates by appropriate documentation, that renewal of the lease is necessary to avoid financial loss and to recover its investment in, and its cost of financing, the leased property.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 24—COMMUNITY AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT ENTITIES, COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT PROJECTS, AND OTHER PUBLIC WELFARE INVESTMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 24(Eleventh), 93a, 481, and 1818.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 24.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.1   Authority, purpose, and OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) issues this part pursuant to its authority under 12 U.S.C. 24(Eleventh), 93a, and 481. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh). It is the OCC's policy to encourage a national bank to make investments described in § 24.3, consistent with safety and soundness. This part provides the standards and procedures that apply to these investments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>OMB control number.</I> The collection of information requirements contained in this part were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB control number 1557-0194. 
</P>
<P>(d) A national bank that makes loans or investments that are authorized under both 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh) and other provisions of the Federal banking laws may do so under such other provisions without regard to the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh) or this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Investments made, or written commitments to make investments made, prior to October 13, 2006, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh) and this part, continue to be subject to the statutes and regulations in effect prior to the enactment of the Financial Services Regulatory Relief Act of 2006 (Pub. L. 109-351).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 70990, Dec. 20, 1999; 68 FR 48775, Aug. 15, 2003; 73 FR 22244, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adequately capitalized</I> has the same meaning as adequately capitalized in 12 CFR 6.4. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital and surplus</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying community banking organizations that have elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, as reported in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(2) For all other national banks:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank's tier 1 and tier 2 capital calculated under the OCC's risk-based capital standards set forth in part 3 of this chapter, as applicable, as reported in the Call Report; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of a bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the bank's tier 2 capital, for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, as reported in the Call Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community and economic development entity</I> (CEDE) means an entity that makes investments or conducts activities that primarily benefit low- and moderate-income individuals, low- and moderate-income areas, or other areas targeted by a governmental entity for redevelopment, or would receive consideration as “qualified investments” under § 25.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25. The following is a non-exclusive list of examples of the types of entities that may be CEDEs:
</P>
<P>(1) National bank community development corporation subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Private or nonbank community development corporations;
</P>
<P>(3) CDFI Fund-certified Community Development Financial Institutions or Community Development Entities;
</P>
<P>(4) Limited liability companies or limited partnerships;
</P>
<P>(5) Community development loan funds or lending consortia;
</P>
<P>(6) Community development real estate investment trusts;
</P>
<P>(7) Business development companies;
</P>
<P>(8) Community development closed-end mutual funds;
</P>
<P>(9) Non-diversified closed-end investment companies; and
</P>
<P>(10) Community development venture or equity capital funds.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community development Project (CD Project)</I> means a project to make an investment that meets the requirements of § 24.3. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible bank</I> means, for purposes of § 24.5, a national bank that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is well capitalized; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System; 
</P>
<P>(3) Has a Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) rating of “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory”; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, formal written agreement, or Prompt Corrective Action directive (<I>see</I> 12 CFR part 6, subpart B) or, if subject to any such order, agreement or directive, is informed in writing by the OCC that the bank may be treated as an “eligible bank” for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Low-income and moderate-income</I> have the same meanings as “low-income” and “moderate-income” in § 25.12(m) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Significant risk to the deposit insurance fund</I> means a substantial probability that any Federal deposit insurance fund could suffer a loss. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Small business</I> means a business, including a small farm or minority-owned small business, that meets the qualifications for Small Business Administration Development Company or Small Business Investment Company loan programs in 13 CFR 121.301.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Well capitalized</I> has the same meaning as well capitalized in 12 CFR 6.4. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 48775, Aug. 15, 2003; 73 FR 22244, Apr. 24, 2008; 73 FR 46534, Aug. 11, 2008; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61795, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69298, Dec. 18, 2019; 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.3   Public welfare investments.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank or national bank subsidiary may make an investment directly or indirectly under this part if the investment primarily benefits low- and moderate income individuals, low- and moderate income areas, or other areas targeted by a governmental entity for redevelopment, or the investment would receive consideration under § 25.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25 as a “qualified investment.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 46534, Aug. 11, 2008, as amended at 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.4   Investment limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on aggregate outstanding investments.</I> A national bank's aggregate outstanding investments under this part may not exceed 5 percent of its capital and surplus, unless the bank is at least adequately capitalized and the OCC determines, by written approval of a written request by the bank to exceed the 5 percent limit, that a higher amount of investments will not pose a significant risk to the deposit insurance fund. In no case may a bank's aggregate outstanding investments under this part exceed 15 percent of its capital and surplus. When calculating the aggregate amount of its aggregate outstanding investments under this part, a national bank should follow generally accepted accounting principles, unless otherwise directed or permitted in writing by the OCC for prudential or safety and soundness reasons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limited liability.</I> A national bank may not make an investment under this part that would expose the bank to unlimited liability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 70991, Dec. 20, 1999; 68 FR 48776, Aug. 15, 2003; 73 FR 22244, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.5   Public welfare investment after-the-fact notice and prior approval procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>After-the-fact notice of public welfare investments.</I> (1) Subject to § 24.4(a), an eligible bank may make an investment authorized by 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh) and this part without prior notification to, or approval by, the OCC if the bank follows the after-the-fact notice procedures described in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An eligible bank shall provide an after-the-fact notification of an investment, within 10 working days after it makes the investment, to the Community Affairs Department, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. The after-the-fact notification may also be e-mailed to <I>CommunityAffairs@occ.treas.gov</I>, faxed to (202) 649-5709, or provided electronically via National BankNet at <I>www.occ.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's after-the-fact-notice must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the bank's investment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the investment;
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of the bank's capital and surplus represented by the investment that is the subject of the notice and by the bank's aggregate outstanding public welfare investments and commitments, including the investment that is the subject of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement certifying that the investment complies with the requirements of §§ 24.3 and 24.4.
</P>
<P>(4) A bank may satisfy the notice requirements of paragraph (3) of this section by completing form CD-1, attached as appendix 1 to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) A national bank that is not an eligible bank but that is at least adequately capitalized, and has a composite rating of at least 3 with improving trends under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System, may submit a letter to the Community Affairs Department requesting authority to submit after-the-fact notices of its investments. The Community Affairs Department considers these requests on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a bank may not submit an after-the-fact notice of an investment if:
</P>
<P>(i) The investment involves properties carried on the bank's books as “other real estate owned”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC determines, in published guidance, that the investment is inappropriate for after-the-fact notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments requiring prior approval.</I> (1) If a national bank does not meet the requirements for after-the-fact investment notification set forth in this part, the bank must submit an investment proposal to the Community Affairs Department, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Washington, DC 20219. The investment proposal may also be e-mailed to <I>CommunityAffairs@occ.treas.gov</I>, faxed to (202) 874-4652, or submitted electronically via National BankNet at <I>www.occ.gov.</I> The bank may use form CD-1, attached to this part as appendix 1, to satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) The bank's investment proposal must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the bank's investment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the investment;
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of the bank's capital and surplus represented by the proposed investment and by the bank's aggregate outstanding public welfare investments and commitments, including the proposed investment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement certifying that the investment complies with the requirements of §§ 24.3 and 24.4.
</P>
<P>(3) In reviewing a proposal, the OCC considers the following factors and other available information: 
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the investment satisfies the requirements of §§ 24.3 and 24.4; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the investment is consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the investment is consistent with the requirements of this part and the OCC's policies. 
</P>
<P>(4) Unless otherwise notified in writing by the OCC, and subject to § 24.4(a), the proposed investment is deemed approved after 30 calendar days from the date on which the OCC receives the bank's investment proposal. 
</P>
<P>(5) The OCC, by notifying the bank, may extend its period for reviewing the investment proposal. If so notified, the bank may make the investment only with the OCC's written approval. 
</P>
<P>(6) The OCC may impose one or more conditions in connection with its approval of an investment under this part. All approvals are subject to the condition that a national bank must conduct the approved activity in a manner consistent with any published guidance issued by the OCC regarding the activity. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 70991, Dec. 20, 1999; 68 FR 48776, Aug. 15, 2003; 73 FR 22245, Apr. 24, 2008; 79 FR 15641, Mar. 21, 2014; 80 FR 28472, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.6   Examples of qualifying public welfare investments.</HEAD>
<P>Investments that primarily support the following types of activities are examples of investments that meet the requirements of § 24.3:
</P>
<P>(a) Affordable housing activities, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Investments in an entity that finances, acquires, develops, rehabilitates, manages, sells, or rents housing primarily for low- and moderate-income individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) Investments in a project that develops or operates transitional housing for the homeless; 
</P>
<P>(3) Investments in a project that develops or operates special needs housing for disabled or elderly low- and moderate-income individuals; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Investments in a project that qualifies for the Federal low-income housing tax credit; 
</P>
<P>(b) Economic development and job creation investments, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Investments that finance small businesses (including equity or debt financing and investments in an entity that provides loan guarantees) that are located in low- and moderate-income areas or other targeted redevelopment areas or that produce or retain permanent jobs, the majority of which are held by low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Investments that finance small businesses or small farms, including minority- and women-owned small businesses or small farms, that, although not located in low- and moderate-income areas or targeted redevelopment areas, create a significant number of permanent jobs for low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) Investments in an entity that acquires, develops, rehabilitates, manages, sells, or rents commercial or industrial property that is located in a low- and moderate-income area or targeted redevelopment area and occupied primarily by small businesses, or that is occupied primarily by small businesses that produce or retain permanent jobs, the majority of which are held by low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(4) Investments in low- and moderate-income areas or targeted redevelopment areas that produce or retain permanent jobs, the majority of which are held by low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(c) Investments in CEDEs, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Investments in a national bank that has been approved by the OCC as a national bank with a community development focus; 
</P>
<P>(2) Investments in a community development financial institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4742(5); 
</P>
<P>(3) Investments in a CEDE that is eligible to receive New Markets tax credits under 26 U.S.C. 45D; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Other public welfare investments, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Investments that provide credit counseling, financial literacy, job training, community development research, and similar technical assistance for non-profit community development organizations, low- and moderate-income individuals or areas or targeted redevelopment areas, or small businesses, including minority- and women-owned small businesses, located in low- and moderate-income areas or that produce or retain permanent jobs, the majority of which are held by low- and moderate-income individuals; 
</P>
<P>(2) Investments of a type approved by the Federal Reserve Board under 12 CFR 208.22 for state member banks that are consistent with the requirements of § 24.3; 
</P>
<P>(3) Investments of a type determined by the OCC to be permissible under this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) Investments in minority- and women-owned depository institutions that serve primarily low- and moderate-income individuals or low- and moderate-income areas or targeted redevelopment areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 48776, Aug. 15, 2003, as amended at 73 FR 22245, Apr. 24, 2008; 73 FR 46534, Aug. 11, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 24.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 24.7   Examination, records, and remedial action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Examination.</I> National bank investments under this part are subject to the examination provisions of 12 U.S.C. 481.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Records.</I> Each national bank shall maintain in its files information adequate to demonstrate that its investments meet the standards set out in § 24.3 of this part, including, where applicable, the criteria of § 25.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25, and that the bank is otherwise in compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedial action.</I> If the OCC finds that an investment under this part is in violation of law or regulation, is inconsistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank, or poses a significant risk to a Federal deposit insurance fund, the national bank shall take appropriate remedial action as determined by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 49660, Sept. 23, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 48777, Aug. 15, 2003; 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix 1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.21.0.27.8.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix 1 to Part 24—CD-1—National Bank Community Development (Part 24) Investments
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er19se23.092.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19se23.093.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19se23.094.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19se23.095.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19se23.096.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 64360, Sept. 19, 2023]















</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 25—COMMUNITY REINVESTMENT ACT AND INTERSTATE DEPOSIT PRODUCTION REGULATIONS




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 21, 22, 26, 27, 30, 36, 93a, 161, 215, 215a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1814, 1816, 1828(c), 1835a, 2901 through 2908, 3101 through 3111, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 71339, Dec. 15, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.11   Authority, purposes, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The authority for this part is 12 U.S.C. 21, 22, 26, 27, 30, 36, 93a, 161, 215, 215a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1814, 1816, 1828(c), 1835a, 2901 through 2908, 3101 through 3111, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> This part implements the requirement in the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA) that the appropriate Federal banking agency assess a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the bank or savings association is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank or savings association, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the bank or savings association. Accordingly, this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes the framework and criteria by which the appropriate Federal banking agency assesses a bank's or savings association's record of responding to the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides that the appropriate Federal banking agency takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) This subpart, subparts B through E of this part, and appendices A through G to this part apply to all banks and savings associations except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section. Subpart F of this part only applies to banks.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to this subpart, subparts B through E of this part, and appendices A through F to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) has the authority to prescribe the regulations in this part for national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches of foreign banks, and State savings associations and has the authority to enforce the regulations in this part for national banks, Federal branches of foreign banks, and Federal savings associations; and
</P>
<P>(B) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) has the authority to enforce the regulations in this part for State savings associations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal branches and agencies.</I> (i) This part applies to all insured Federal branches and to any Federal branch that is uninsured that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, this part does not apply to uninsured Federal branches, limited Federal branches, or Federal agencies, as those terms are defined or used in part 28 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain special purpose banks and savings associations.</I> This part does not apply to special purpose banks or special purpose savings associations that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks or savings associations include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), and banks or savings associations that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks or savings associations, trust companies, or clearing agents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="36">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7167, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term “control” has the same meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable housing</I> means activities described in § 25.13(b).
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> means, with respect to this subpart (except in the definition of <I>minority depository institution</I> in this section), subparts B through E of this part, and appendices A through E to this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC when the institution is a bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC when the institution is a State savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA (as defined in this section), if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has not been subdivided into metropolitan divisions, or for the metropolitan division, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in a nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P><I>Assets</I> means a bank's or savings association's total assets as reported in Schedule RC of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income as filed under 12 U.S.C. 161, 324, 1464, or 1817, as applicable (Call Report), or Schedule RAL of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a), 3102(b), or 3105(c)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means a national bank (including a Federal branch as defined in part 28 of this chapter) with federally insured deposits, except as provided in § 25.11(c).
</P>
<P><I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility, whether shared or unshared, that the appropriate Federal banking agency approved or authorized as a branch and that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Census tract</I> means a census tract delineated by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Closed-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning given to the term “closed-end mortgage loan” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination of loan dollars and loan count</I> means, when applied to a particular ratio, the average of:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio calculated using loans measured in dollar volume; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ratio calculated using loans measured in number of loans.
</P>
<P><I>Community development</I> means activities described in § 25.13(b) through (l).
</P>
<P>Community Development Financial Institution (CDFI) means an entity that satisfies the definition in section 103(5)(A) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)) and is certified by the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Community Development Financial Institutions Fund as meeting the requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Community development investment</I> means a lawful investment, including a legally binding commitment to invest, that is reported on Schedule RC-L of the Call Report or on Schedule L of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable; deposit; membership share; grant; or monetary or in-kind donation that supports community development, as described in § 25.13.
</P>
<P><I>Community development loan</I> means a loan, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit, such as a standby letter of credit, that supports community development, as described in § 25.13. A community development loan does not include any home mortgage loan considered under the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, with the exception of one-to-four family home mortgage loans for rental housing with affordable rents in nonmetropolitan areas under § 25.13(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Community development services</I> means the performance of volunteer services by a bank's or savings association's or its affiliate's board members or employees, performed on behalf of the bank or savings association, where those services:
</P>
<P>(1) Support community development, as described in § 25.13; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are related to the provision of financial services, which include credit, deposit, and other personal and business financial services, or services that reflect a board member's or an employee's expertise at the bank or savings association or affiliate, such as human resources, information technology, and legal services.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures and that is one of the following types of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Automobile loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> as reported as “credit card” in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other revolving credit plan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other consumer loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>County</I> means any county, county equivalent, or statistically equivalent entity as used by the U.S. Census Bureau pursuant to title 13 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit location</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks or savings associations that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 25.42, the address on file with the bank or savings association for purposes of the Customer Identification Program required by 31 CFR 1020.220 or another documented address at which the depositor resides or is located.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks or savings associations that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 25.42, the county of the bank or savings association facility to which the deposits are assigned in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any institution subject to the CRA, as described in § 25.11 and 12 CFR 228.11 and 345.11.
</P>
<P><I>Deposits</I> has the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks or savings associations that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 25.42, <I>deposits</I> means deposits in domestic offices of individuals, partnerships, and corporations, and of commercial banks and other depository institutions in the United States as defined in Schedule RC-E of the Call Report; deposits does not include U.S. Government deposits, State and local government deposits, domestically held deposits of foreign governments or official institutions, or domestically held deposits of foreign banks or other foreign financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(2) For banks or savings associations that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 25.42, <I>deposits</I> means a bank's or savings association's deposits as reported in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits as required under 12 CFR 304.3(c).
</P>
<P><I>Digital delivery system</I> means a channel through which banks or savings associations offer retail banking services electronically, such as online banking or mobile banking.
</P>
<P><I>Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract</I> means a census tract publicly designated as such by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the FDIC, and the OCC, based on the criteria in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, compiled in a list, and published annually by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC).
</P>
<P>(1) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as distressed if it is in a county that meets one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) An unemployment rate of at least 1.5 times the national average;
</P>
<P>(ii) A poverty rate of 20 percent or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A population loss of 10 percent or more between the previous and most recent decennial census or a net population loss of five percent or more over the five-year period preceding the most recent census.
</P>
<P>(2) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as underserved if it meets the criteria for population size, density, and dispersion that indicate the area's population is sufficiently small, thin, and distant from a population center that the census tract is likely to have difficulty financing the fixed costs of meeting essential community needs. The criteria for these designations are based on the Urban Influence Codes established by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Economic Research Service numbered “7,” “10,” “11,” or “12.”
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation period</I> means the period, generally in calendar years, during which a bank or savings association conducted the activities that the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates in a CRA examination, in accordance with the appropriate Federal banking agency's guidelines and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Facility-based assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 25.16.
</P>
<P><I>High Opportunity Area</I> means an area identified by the Federal Housing Finance Agency for purposes of the Duty to Serve Underserved Markets regulation in 12 CFR part 1282, subpart C.
</P>
<P><I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end home mortgage loan or an open-end home mortgage loan as these terms are defined in this section.
</P>
<P>Income level includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association, excluding a bank or savings association designated as a limited purpose bank or savings association pursuant to § 25.26, that had assets of at least $600 million as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and less than $2 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The OCC adjusts and publishes the figures in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association, excluding a bank or savings association designated as a limited purpose bank or savings association pursuant to § 25.26, that had assets of at least $2 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years. The OCC adjusts and publishes the figure in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large depository institution</I> means any depository institution, excluding depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to § 25.26(a) and depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to 12 CFR 228.26(a) or 345.26(a), that meets the asset size threshold of a large bank or savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Limited purpose bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association that is not in the business of extending closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans evaluated under § 25.22 to retail customers, except on an incidental and accommodation basis, and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank or savings association is in effect, pursuant to § 25.26.
</P>
<P><I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the census tract where the borrower resides at the time that the borrower submits the loan application;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan is located in the census tract where the property securing the loan is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business loan or small farm loan is located in the census tract where the main business facility or farm is located or where the borrower will otherwise apply the loan proceeds, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Low-cost education loan</I> means any private education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(8)) (including a loan under a State or local education loan program), originated by the bank or savings association for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002), implemented in 34 CFR part 600, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P><I>Low-income credit union (LICU</I>) has the same meaning given to that term in 12 CFR 701.34.
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit for housing persons of low income pursuant to section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 42).
</P>
<P><I>Major product line</I> means a product line that the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, pursuant to § 25.22(d)(2) and paragraphs II.b.1 and II.b.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Majority automobile lender</I> means a bank or savings association for which more than 50 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans were automobile loans, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.3 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means any MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan division</I> has the same meaning as that term is defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Military bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel who serve or have served in the U.S. Armed Forces (including the U.S. Air Force, U.S. Army, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Marine Corps, U.S. Navy, and U.S. Space Force) or their dependents. A bank or savings association whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents means a bank or savings association whose most important customer group is military personnel or their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Minority depository institution (MDI) means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of activities conducted pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2907(a), “minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(2) For all other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) “Minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) “Minority depository institution” as defined in section 308 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 1463 note); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A depository institution considered to be a minority depository institution by the appropriate Federal banking agency. For purposes of this paragraph (2)(iii), “appropriate Federal banking agency” has the meaning given to it in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Mission-driven nonprofit organization</I> means an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that benefits or serves primarily low- or moderate-income individuals or communities, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area delineated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e)(3) and (10), 31 U.S.C. 1104(d), and Executive Order 10253 (June 11, 1951).
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily loan</I> means an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a “multifamily dwelling” as defined in 12 CFR 1003.2.
</P>
<P><I>Multistate MSA</I> means an MSA that crosses a State boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Nationwide area</I> means the entire United States and its territories.
</P>
<P><I>Native Land Area means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) All land within the limits of any Indian reservation under the jurisdiction of the United States, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(a);
</P>
<P>(2) All dependent Indian communities within the borders of the United States whether within the original or subsequently acquired territory thereof, and whether within or without the limits of a State, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(b);
</P>
<P>(3) All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through the same, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Any land held in trust by the United States for tribes or Native Americans or tribally-held restricted fee land;
</P>
<P>(5) Reservations established by a State government for a tribe or tribes recognized by the State;
</P>
<P>(6) Any Native village, as defined in 43 U.S.C. 1602(c), in Alaska;
</P>
<P>(7) Lands that have the status of Hawaiian Home Lands as defined in section 204 of the Hawaiian Homes Commission Act, 1920 (42 Stat. 108), as amended;
</P>
<P>(8) Areas defined by the U.S. Census Bureau as Alaska Native Village Statistical Areas, Oklahoma Tribal Statistical Areas, Tribal-Designated Statistical Areas, or American Indian Joint-Use Areas; and
</P>
<P>(9) Land areas of State-recognized Indian tribes and heritage groups that are defined and recognized by individual States and included in the U.S. Census Bureau's annual Boundary and Annexation Survey.
</P>
<P><I>New Markets Tax Credit (NMTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit pursuant to section 45D of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 45D).
</P>
<P><I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Open-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning as given to the term “open-end line of credit” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Operating subsidiary</I> means an operating subsidiary as described in 12 CFR 5.34 in the case of an operating subsidiary of a national bank or an operating subsidiary as described in 12 CFR 5.38 in the case of a savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Other delivery system</I> means a channel, other than branches, remote services facilities, or digital delivery systems, through which banks or savings associations offer retail banking services.
</P>
<P><I>Outside retail lending area</I> means the geographic area delineated pursuant to § 25.18.
</P>
<P><I>Persistent poverty county</I> means a county that has had poverty rates of 20 percent or more for 30 years, as publicly designated by the Board, FDIC, and OCC, compiled in a list, and published annually by the FFIEC.
</P>
<P><I>Product line</I> means a bank's or savings association's loans in one of the following, separate categories in a particular Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Closed-end home mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(2) Small business loans;
</P>
<P>(3) Small farm loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) Automobile loans, if a bank or savings association is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 25.22.
</P>
<P><I>Remote service facility</I> means an automated, virtually staffed, or unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, a bank or savings association, such as an automated teller machine (ATM), interactive teller machine, cash dispensing machine, or other remote electronic facility, that is open to the general public and at which deposits are accepted, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P><I>Reported loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan reported by a bank or savings association pursuant to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, as implemented by 12 CFR part 1003; or
</P>
<P>(2) A small business loan or a small farm loan reported by a bank or savings association pursuant to § 25.42.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking products</I> means credit and deposit products or programs that facilitate a lending or depository relationship between the bank or savings association and consumers, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking services</I> means retail financial services provided by a bank or savings association to consumers, small businesses, or small farms and include a bank's or savings association's systems for delivering retail financial services.
</P>
<P><I>Retail lending assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 25.17.
</P>
<P><I>Retail Lending Test Area</I> means a facility-based assessment area, a retail lending assessment area, or an outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or a State savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Small bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association, excluding a bank or savings association designated as a limited purpose bank or savings association pursuant to § 25.26, that had assets of less than $600 million as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The appropriate Federal banking agency adjusts and publishes the dollar figure in this definition annually based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a business, other than a farm, that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small business loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small business” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm</I> means a farm that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small farm” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small farms” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a U.S. State or territory, and includes the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted census tract</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A low-income census tract or a moderate-income census tract; or
</P>
<P>(2) A distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract.
</P>
<P><I>Tribal government</I> means the recognized governing body of any Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, community, component band, or component reservation, individually identified (including parenthetically) in the list most recently published pursuant to section 104 of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 5131).
</P>
<P><I>Women's depository institution (WDI)</I> means “women's depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(2).
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7166, Feb. 1, 2024, § 25.12 was amended in part by removing “appropriate Federal banking agency” and adding “OCC” in the definition of “Small bank and savings association”; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.13   Consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>As provided in paragraph (a) of this section, a bank or savings association may receive consideration for a loan, investment, or service that supports community development as described in paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Full and partial credit for community development loans, community development investments, and community development services</I>—(1) <I>Full credit.</I> A bank or savings association will receive credit for its entire loan, investment, or service if it meets the majority standard in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; meets the bona fide intent standard in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section; involves an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section; or involves a LIHTC as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Majority standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the majority standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan, investment, or service supports community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, the majority of the housing units are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) and (d) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (c) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, small businesses or small farms;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (e), (f), (g), and (i) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (h) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of designated disaster areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (j) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of Native Land Areas; or
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (l) of this section, the loan, investment, or service primarily supports community development under paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bona fide intent standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the bona fide intent standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing units, beneficiaries, or proportion of dollars necessary to meet the majority standard are not reasonably quantifiable pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan, investment, or service has the express, bona fide intent of community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The loan, investment, or service is specifically structured to achieve community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports community development under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>LIHTC.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports LIHTC-financed affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial credit.</I> If a loan, investment, or service supporting affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not meet the majority standard under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a bank or savings association will receive partial credit for the loan, investment, or service in proportion to the percentage of total housing units in any development that are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affordable housing.</I> Affordable housing comprises the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rental housing in conjunction with a government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.</I> Rental housing for low- or moderate-income individuals purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in conjunction with a Federal, State, local, or tribal government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multifamily rental housing with affordable rents.</I> Multifamily rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved if:
</P>
<P>(i) For the majority of units, the monthly rent as underwritten by the bank or savings association, reflecting post-construction or post-renovation changes as applicable, does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the following additional criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing is located in a low- or moderate-income census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) The housing is located in a census tract in which the median income of renters is low- or moderate-income and the median rent does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income;
</P>
<P>(C) The housing is purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved by any nonprofit organization with a stated mission of, or that otherwise directly supports, providing affordable housing; or
</P>
<P>(D) The bank or savings association provides documentation that a majority of the housing units are occupied by low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One-to-four family rental housing with affordable rents in a nonmetropolitan area.</I> One-to-four family rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in a nonmetropolitan area that meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affordable owner-occupied housing for low- or moderate-income individuals.</I> Assistance for low- or moderate-income individuals to obtain, maintain, rehabilitate, or improve affordable owner-occupied housing, excluding loans by a bank or savings association directly to one or more owner-occupants of such housing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mortgage-backed securities.</I> Purchases of mortgage-backed securities where a majority of the underlying loans are not loans that the bank or savings association originated or purchased and:
</P>
<P>(i) Are home mortgage loans made to low- or moderate-income individuals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are loans that finance multifamily affordable housing that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Economic development.</I> Economic development comprises:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government-related support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services undertaken in conjunction or in syndication with Federal, State, local, or tribal government plans, programs, or initiatives that support small businesses or small farms, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loans, investments, and services other than direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services that support small businesses or small farms in accordance with how small businesses and small farms are defined in the applicable plan, program, or initiative, but excluding loans by a bank or savings association directly to small businesses or small farms (either as defined in a government plan, program, or initiative or in § 25.12). If the government plan, program, or initiative does not identify a standard for the size of the small businesses or small farms supported by the plan, program, or initiative, the small businesses or small farms supported must meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 25.12. Loans to, investments in, or services provided to the following are presumed to meet the criteria of this paragraph (c)(1)(i):
</P>
<P>(A) Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107);
</P>
<P>(B) New Markets Venture Capital Company (13 CFR part 108);
</P>
<P>(C) Qualified Community Development Entity (26 U.S.C. 45D(c)); or
</P>
<P>(D) U.S. Department of Agriculture Rural Business Investment Company (7 CFR 4290.50).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans by a bank or savings association directly to businesses or farms, including, but not limited to, loans in conjunction or syndicated with a U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) Certified Development Company (13 CFR 120.10) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107), that meet the following size and purpose criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Size eligibility standard.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must be to businesses and farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the U.S. Small Business Administration Development Company (13 CFR 121.301) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR 121.301 and 121.201) programs or that meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 25.12.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Purpose test.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must have the purpose of promoting permanent job creation or retention for low- or moderate-income individuals or in low- or moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediary support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, or services provided to intermediaries that lend to, invest in, or provide assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community supportive services.</I> Community supportive services are activities that assist, benefit, or contribute to the health, stability, or well-being of low- or moderate-income individuals, such as childcare, education, workforce development and job training programs, health services programs, and housing services programs. Community supportive services include, but are not limited to, activities that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are conducted with a mission-driven nonprofit organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Are conducted with a nonprofit organization located in and serving low- or moderate-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(3) Are conducted in a low- or moderate-income census tract and targeted to the residents of the census tract;
</P>
<P>(4) Are offered to individuals at a workplace where the majority of employees are low- or moderate-income, based on U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics data for the average wage for workers in that particular occupation or industry;
</P>
<P>(5) Are provided to students or their families through a school at which the majority of students qualify for free or reduced-price meals under the U.S. Department of Agriculture's National School Lunch Program;
</P>
<P>(6) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Medicaid;
</P>
<P>(7) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Federal Supplemental Security Income, Social Security Disability Insurance, or support through other Federal disability assistance programs; or
</P>
<P>(8) Primarily benefit or serve recipients of government assistance plans, programs, or initiatives that have income qualifications equivalent to, or stricter than, the definitions of low- and moderate-income as defined in this part. Examples include, but are not limited to, the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development's section 8, 202, 515, and 811 programs or the U.S. Department of Agriculture's section 514, 516, and Supplemental Nutrition Assistance programs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revitalization or stabilization</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Revitalization or stabilization comprises activities that support revitalization or stabilization of targeted census tracts, including adaptive reuse of vacant or blighted buildings, brownfield redevelopment, support of a plan for a business improvement district or main street program, or any other activity that supports revitalization or stabilization, and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on revitalizing or stabilizing targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed-use revitalization or stabilization project.</I> Projects to revitalize or stabilize a targeted census tract that include both commercial and residential components qualify as revitalization or stabilization activities under this paragraph (e)(2), if:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 50 percent of the project is non-residential as measured by the percentage of total square footage or dollar amount of the project.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Essential community facilities.</I> Essential community facilities are public facilities that provide essential services generally accessible by a local community, including, but not limited to, schools, libraries, childcare facilities, parks, hospitals, healthcare facilities, and community centers that benefit or serve targeted census tracts, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Essential community infrastructure.</I> Essential community infrastructure comprises activities benefitting or serving targeted census tracts, including, but not limited to, broadband, telecommunications, mass transit, water supply and distribution, and sewage treatment and collection systems, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recovery of designated disaster areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Activities that promote recovery of a designated disaster area are those that revitalize or stabilize geographic areas subject to a Major Disaster Declaration administered by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a disaster plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving the designated disaster area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of the designated disaster area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in the designated disaster area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility limitations for loans, investments, or services supporting recovery of a designated disaster area.</I> (i) Loans, investments, or services that support recovery from a designated disaster in counties designated to receive only FEMA Public Assistance Emergency Work Category A (Debris Removal) and/or Category B (Emergency Protective Measures) are not eligible for consideration under this paragraph (h)(2), unless the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC announce a temporary exception.
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate Federal banking agency will consider loans, investments, and services that support recovery from a designated disaster under this paragraph (h)(2) for 36 months after a Major Disaster Declaration, unless that time period is extended by the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency.</I> Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities assist individuals and communities to prepare for, adapt to, and withstand natural disasters or weather-related risks or disasters. Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities benefit or serve targeted census tracts and:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency in Native Land Areas.</I> (1) Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are activities specifically targeted to and conducted in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Revitalization or stabilization activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraph (e) of this section, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on revitalizing or stabilizing Native Land Areas and a particular focus on low- or moderate-income households;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents in Native Land Areas, with substantial benefits for low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(3) Essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraphs (f), (g), and (i) of this section, respectively, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on benefitting or serving Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs.</I> Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs are loans, investments, or services undertaken by any bank or savings association, including by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank or savings association evaluated under this part or 12 CFR part 228 or 345, in cooperation with an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI. Such activities do not include investments by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank or savings association in itself.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Financial literacy.</I> Activities that promote financial literacy are those that assist individuals, families, and households, including low- or moderate-income individuals, families, and households, to make informed financial decisions regarding managing income, savings, credit, and expenses, including with respect to homeownership.
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7167, Feb. 1, 2024, § 25.13 was amended in part by removing “CDFI bank or savings associations” wherever it appears in paragraph (k) and adding “CDFI bank” in its place; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.14   Community development illustrative list; Confirmation of eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Illustrative list</I>—(1) <I>Issuing and maintaining the illustrative list.</I> The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC jointly issue and maintain a publicly available illustrative list of non-exhaustive examples of loans, investments, and services that qualify for community development consideration as provided in § 25.13.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modifying the illustrative list.</I> (i) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC update the illustrative list in paragraph (a)(1) of this section periodically.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC determine that a loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration, the owner of the loan or investment at the time of the determination will continue to receive community development consideration for the remaining term or period of the loan or investment. However, these loans or investments will not be considered eligible for community development consideration for any new purchasers of that loan or investment after the agencies make a determination that the loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>Request for confirmation of eligibility.</I> A bank or savings association subject to this part may request that the appropriate Federal banking agency confirm that a loan, investment, or service is eligible for community development consideration by submitting a request to, and in a format prescribed by, the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of eligibility.</I> (i) To determine the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service for which a request has been submitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers:
</P>
<P>(A) Information that describes and supports the request; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any other information that the appropriate Federal banking agency deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC expect and are presumed to jointly determine eligibility of a loan, investment, or service under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section to promote consistency. Before making a determination under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency consults with the  Board and the FDIC or the Board and the OCC, as appropriate, regarding the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) The appropriate Federal banking agency may impose limitations or requirements on a determination of the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service to ensure consistency with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of eligibility.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency notifies the requestor and the Board and the FDIC or the Board and the OCC, as appropriate, in writing of any determination under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as the rationale for such determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.15   Impact and responsiveness review of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Impact and responsiveness review, in general.</I> Under the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the extent to which a bank's or savings association's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services are impactful and responsive in meeting community development needs in each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area. The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the impact and responsiveness of a bank's or savings association's community development loans, community development investments, or community development services based on paragraph (b) of this section, and may take into account performance context information pursuant to § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Impact and responsiveness review factors.</I> Factors considered in evaluating the impact and responsiveness of a bank's or savings association's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services include, but are not limited to, whether the community development loan, community development investment, or community development service:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(3) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(4) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(5) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(6) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(7) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(8) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(9) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(10) Is an investment in projects financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(11) Reflects bank or savings association leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(12) Is a new community development financing product or service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Geographic Considerations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.16   Facility-based assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank or savings association must delineate one or more facility-based assessment areas within which the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the performance tests and strategic plan described in § 25.21.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for facility-based assessment areas.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas must include each county in which a bank or savings association has a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility, as well as the surrounding counties in which the bank or savings association has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans).
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, each of a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas must consist of a single MSA, one or more contiguous counties within an MSA, or one or more contiguous counties within the nonmetropolitan area of a State.
</P>
<P>(3) An intermediate bank or savings association or a small bank or savings association may adjust the boundaries of its facility-based assessment areas to include only the portion of a county that it reasonably can be expected to serve, subject to paragraph (c) of this section. A facility-based assessment area that includes a partial county must consist of contiguous whole census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other limitations on the delineation of a facility-based assessment area.</I> Each of a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas:
</P>
<P>(1) May not reflect illegal discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(2) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income census tracts. In determining whether a bank or savings association has arbitrarily excluded low- or moderate-income census tracts from a facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency takes into account the bank's or savings association's capacity and constraints, including its size and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Military banks or savings associations.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a military bank or savings association whose customers are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency uses the facility-based assessment areas delineated by a bank or savings association in its evaluation of the bank's or savings association's CRA performance unless the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the facility-based assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.17   Retail lending assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Based upon the criteria described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a large bank or savings association must delineate retail lending assessment areas within which the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to § 25.22.
</P>
<P>(2) A large bank or savings association is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas for a particular calendar year if, in the prior two calendar years, the large bank or savings association originated or purchased within its facility-based assessment areas more than 80 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank or savings association as described in paragraph II.a.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If, in a retail lending assessment area delineated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the large bank or savings association did not originate or purchase any reported loans in any of the product lines that formed the basis of the retail lending assessment area delineation pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency will not consider the retail lending assessment area to have been delineated for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for retail lending assessment areas.</I> (1) A large bank's or savings association's retail lending assessment area must consist of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The entirety of a single MSA (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding any counties inside the large bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas; or
</P>
<P>(ii) All of the counties in the nonmetropolitan area of a State (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any counties included in the large bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any counties in which the large bank or savings association did not originate any closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are reported loans during that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) A retail lending assessment area may not extend beyond a State boundary unless the retail lending assessment area consists of counties in a multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delineation of retail lending assessment areas.</I> Subject to the geographic requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, a large bank or savings association must delineate, for a particular calendar year, a retail lending assessment area in any MSA or in the nonmetropolitan area of any State in which it originated:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 150 closed-end home mortgage loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years; or
</P>
<P>(2) At least 400 small business loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of retail lending assessment areas.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency uses the retail lending assessment areas delineated by a large bank or savings association in its evaluation of the bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage lending and small business lending performance unless the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the retail lending assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.18   Outside retail lending areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Large banks or savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a large bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 25.22. However, the appropriate Federal banking agency will not evaluate a large bank or savings association in its outside retail lending area if it did not originate or purchase loans in any product lines in the outside retail lending area during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate or small banks or savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the record of an intermediate bank or savings association, or a small bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 25.22, for a particular calendar year, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank or savings association opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the prior two calendar years, the bank or savings association originated or purchased outside the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas more than 50 percent of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association, as described in paragraph II.a.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements of outside retail lending areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area consists of the nationwide area, excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any county in a nonmetropolitan area in which the bank or savings association did not originate or purchase any closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component geographic area.</I> The outside retail lending area is comprised of component geographic areas. A component geographic area is any MSA or the nonmetropolitan area of any State, or portion thereof, included within the outside retail lending area.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.19   Areas for eligible community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency may consider a bank's or savings association's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services provided outside of its facility-based assessment areas, as provided in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards for Assessing Performance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.21   Evaluation of CRA performance in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of performance tests and strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>Large banks or savings associations.</I> To evaluate the performance of a large bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency applies the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, and the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of an intermediate bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency applies the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 and either the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2) or, at the bank's or savings association's option, the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated under § 25.24.</I> If an intermediate bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the intermediate bank or savings association for the evaluation period preceding the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 and continues evaluations pursuant to this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank or savings association opts out. If an intermediate bank or savings association opts out of the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the appropriate Federal banking agency reverts to evaluating the bank or savings association pursuant to the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> An intermediate bank or savings association may request additional consideration pursuant to § 25.30(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks or savings associations</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of a small bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency applies the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2), unless the bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks or savings associations evaluated under the Retail Lending Test.</I> If a small bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the small bank or savings association using the same provisions used to evaluate intermediate banks or savings associations pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22.
</P>
<P>(B) The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the small bank or savings association for the evaluation period preceding the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 and continues evaluations under this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank or savings association opts out. If a small bank or savings association opts out of the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency reverts to evaluating the bank or savings association pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A small bank or savings association may request additional consideration pursuant to § 25.29(b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited purpose banks or savings associations</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a limited purpose bank or savings association pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A limited purpose bank or savings association may request additional consideration pursuant to § 25.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Military banks or savings associations</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a military bank or savings association pursuant to the applicable performance tests described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Evaluation approach for military banks or savings associations operating under § 25.16(d).</I> If a military bank or savings association delineates the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area pursuant to § 25.16(d), the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank or savings association exclusively at the institution level based on its performance in its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Banks and savings associations operating under a strategic plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the performance of a bank or savings association that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 25.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of  operating subsidiaries and other affiliates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In the performance evaluation of a bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's or savings association's  operating subsidiaries and other affiliates, as applicable, as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, so long as no other depository institution claims the loan, investment, service, or product for purposes of this part or 12 CFR part 228 or 345.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of  operating subsidiaries.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the loans, investment, services, and products of a bank's or savings association's  operating subsidiaries under this part, unless an  operating subsidiary is independently subject to the CRA. The bank or savings association must collect, maintain, and report data on the loans, investments, services, and products of its  operating subsidiaries as provided in § 25.42(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of other affiliates.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank or savings association that are not  operating subsidiaries, at the bank's or savings association's option, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The affiliate is not independently subject to the CRA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or savings association collects, maintains, and reports data on the loans, investments, services, or products of the affiliate as provided in § 25.42(d).
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, if a bank or savings association opts to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider the closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans that are originated or purchased by one or more of the bank's or savings association's affiliates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, all of the loans in that product line originated or purchased by all of the bank's or savings association's affiliates in the particular Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, if a large bank or savings association opts to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are originated or purchased by any of the bank's or savings association's affiliates in any Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans originated by all of the bank's or savings association's affiliates in the nationwide area when delineating retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 25.17(c).
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26, the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2), or pursuant to an approved strategic plan in § 25.27, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider, at the bank's or savings association's option, community development loans or community development investments that are originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by one or more of the bank's or savings association's affiliates, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development lending and community development investment by a consortium or a third party.</I> If a bank or savings association invests in or participates in a consortium that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, or if a bank or savings association invests in a third party that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider, at the bank's or savings association's option, either those loans or investments, subject to the limitations in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, or the investment in the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(1) The bank or savings association must collect, maintain, and report the data pertaining to the community development loans and community development investments as provided in § 25.42(e), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) If the participants or investors choose to allocate community development loans or community development investments among themselves for consideration under this section, no participant or investor may claim a loan origination, loan purchase, or investment for community development consideration if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination, loan purchase, or investment; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank or savings association may not claim community development loans or community development investments accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans or investments made by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance context information considered.</I> When applying performance tests and strategic plans pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and when determining whether to approve a strategic plan pursuant to § 25.27(h), the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider the following performance context information to the extent that it is not considered as part of the performance tests as provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information regarding a bank's or savings association's institutional capacity or constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank or savings association, safety and soundness limitations, or any other bank-specific factors that significantly affect the bank's or savings association's ability to provide retail lending, retail banking services and retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) Any information regarding the bank's or savings association's past performance;
</P>
<P>(3) Demographic data on income levels and income distribution, nature of housing stock, housing costs, economic climate, or other relevant data;
</P>
<P>(4) Any information about retail banking and community development needs and opportunities provided by the bank or savings association or other relevant sources, including, but not limited to, members of the community, community organizations, State, local, and tribal governments, and economic development agencies;
</P>
<P>(5) Data and information provided by the bank or savings association regarding the bank's or savings association's business strategy and product offerings;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's or savings association's public file, as provided in § 25.43, including any written comments about the bank's or savings association's CRA performance submitted to the bank or savings association or the appropriate Federal banking agency and the bank's or savings association's responses to those comments; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions to a large bank's or savings association's or limited purpose bank's or savings association's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions to a small bank's or savings association's or intermediate bank's or savings association's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 25.28 and appendices C and E to this part. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions to a bank or savings association that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 25.28 and paragraph g of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns an overall CRA performance rating to a bank or savings association in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution pursuant to § 25.28 and appendices D and E to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> The CRA and this part do not require a bank or savings association to originate or purchase loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices, including underwriting standards. Banks and savings associations are permitted to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income individuals, small businesses or small farms, and low- or moderate-income census tracts, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.22   Retail lending test.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="40">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7167, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Lending Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's or savings association's origination and purchase of home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Automobile loans.</I> The Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's or savings association's origination and purchase of automobile loans if the bank or savings association is a majority automobile lender. A bank or savings association that is not a majority automobile lender may opt to have automobile loans evaluated under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology overview</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates whether a bank or savings association meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in each facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Volume Screen as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending distribution analysis.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of each of a bank's or savings association's major product lines in each Retail Lending Test Area, as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section for each Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area is informed by the bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area, performance context factors provided in § 25.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>No major product line.</I> If a bank or savings association has no major product line in a facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns the bank or savings association a Retail Lending Test conclusion for that facility-based assessment area based upon its performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context factors provided in § 25.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks and savings associations that lack an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank or savings association lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> A bank or savings association meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the bank or savings association has a Bank Volume Metric of 30 percent or greater of the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark pursuant to section I of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks and savings associations that meet or surpass the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If a bank or savings association meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Banks and savings associations that do not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(i) <I>Acceptable basis factors.</I> If a bank or savings association does not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines whether the bank or savings association has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in the facility-based assessment area by considering:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank's or savings association's dollar volume of non-automobile consumer loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The bank's or savings association's institutional capacity and constraints, including the financial condition of the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(C) The presence or lack of other lenders in the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(D) Safety and soundness limitations;
</P>
<P>(E) The bank's or savings association's business strategy; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other factors that limit the bank's or savings association's ability to lend in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks and savings associations that have an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If, after reviewing the factors described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that a bank or savings association has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area in the same manner as for a bank or savings association that meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks and savings associations that lack an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(A) <I>Large banks or savings associations.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that a large bank or savings association lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns the bank or savings association a Retail Lending Test conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for that facility-based assessment area. In determining whether “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” is the appropriate conclusion, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's or savings association's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's or savings association's distribution analysis pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 25.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intermediate or small banks or savings associations.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that an intermediate bank or savings association, or a small bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section. The appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the facility-based assessment area is informed by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's or savings association's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 25.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of Retail Lending Test distribution analysis</I>—(1) <I>Product lines evaluated in a Retail Lending Test Area.</I> In each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates originated and purchased loans in each of the following product lines that is a major product line, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans in a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans in a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small farm loans in a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Automobile loans in a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major product line standards</I>—(i) <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> In a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, a product line is a major product line if the bank's or savings association's loans in that product line comprise 15 percent or more of the bank's or savings association's loans across all of the bank's or savings association's product lines in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Major product line standards for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(A) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank or savings association delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 25.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(B) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank or savings association delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 25.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retail Lending Test distribution analysis.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test performance in each of its Retail Lending Test Areas by considering the geographic and borrower distributions of a bank's or savings association's loans in its major product lines.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Distribution analysis in general</I>—(i) <I>Distribution analysis for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> For closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, respectively, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares a bank's or savings association's geographic and borrower distributions to performance ranges based on the applicable market and community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section V of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Distribution analysis for automobile loans.</I> For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares a bank's or savings association's geographic and borrower distributions to the applicable community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categories of lending evaluated</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the geographic distributions separately for the following categories of census tracts:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the borrower distributions separately for, as applicable, the following categories of borrowers:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(C) Businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(D) Businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(E) Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(F) Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the geographic distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Geographic Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Geographic Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Geographic Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Borrower distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the borrower distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Borrower Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Borrower Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Borrower Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as described in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for each of a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test Areas based on the distribution analysis described in paragraph (e) of this section and using performance ranges, supporting conclusions, and product line scores as provided in sections V through VII of appendix A to this part. For each major product line, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a separate supporting conclusion for each category of census tracts and each category of borrowers described in paragraphs V.a and VI.a of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Geographic Market Benchmark, the Geographic Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.b and V.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions for automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to the Geographic Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.b of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Borrower Market Benchmark, Borrower Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.d and V.e of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions for automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to the Borrower Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Development of Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Assignment of performance scores.</I> For each supporting conclusion developed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a corresponding performance score as described in sections V and VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combination of performance scores.</I> As described in section VII of appendix A to this part, for each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency:
</P>
<P>(A) Combines the performance scores for each supporting conclusion for each major product line into a product line score; and
</P>
<P>(B) Calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> For each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion that corresponds to the weighted average of product line scores developed pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as described in section VII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional factors considered when evaluating retail lending performance.</I> The factors in paragraphs (g)(1) through (7) of this section, as appropriate, inform the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Information indicating that a bank or savings association purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing its retail lending performance, including, but not limited to, information indicating subsequent resale of such loans or any indication that such loans have been considered in multiple depository institutions' CRA evaluations, in which case the appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider such loans in the bank's or savings association's performance evaluation;
</P>
<P>(2) The dispersion of a bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending within a facility-based assessment area to determine whether there are gaps in lending that are not explained by performance context;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of lenders whose home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans and deposits data are used to establish the applicable Retail Lending Volume Threshold, geographic distribution market benchmarks, and borrower distribution market benchmarks;
</P>
<P>(4) Missing or faulty data that would be necessary to calculate the relevant metrics and benchmarks or any other factors that prevent the appropriate Federal banking agency from calculating a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion. If unable to calculate a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion based on consideration of the relevant available data;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion does not accurately reflect the bank's or savings association's performance in a Retail Lending Test Area in which one or more of the bank's or savings association's major product lines consists of fewer than 30 loans;
</P>
<P>(6) A bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending in distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts where a bank's or savings association's nonmetropolitan facility-based assessment area or nonmetropolitan retail lending assessment area includes very few or no low- and moderate-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information indicating that the credit needs of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area are not being met by lenders in the aggregate, such that the relevant benchmarks do not adequately reflect community credit needs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Retail Lending Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28, section VIII of appendix A to this part, and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail Lending Test Area conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for each Retail Lending Test Area based on the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, performance context factors provided in § 25.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (h)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facility-based assessment areas with no major product line.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank or savings association has no major product line based on the bank's or savings association's performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context information provided in § 25.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Facility-based assessment areas in which a bank or savings association lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank or savings association lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.23   Retail services and products test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Services and Products Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the Retail Services and Products Test evaluates the availability of a bank's or savings association's retail banking services and retail banking products and the responsiveness of those services and products to the credit needs of the bank's or savings association's entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms. The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's retail banking services, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, and the bank's or savings association's retail banking products, as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Main offices.</I> For purposes of this section, references to a branch also include a main office that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency considers services under the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25, the appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider those services under the Retail Services and Products Test.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retail banking services</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> To evaluate a bank's or savings association's retail banking services, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's branch availability and services provided at branches, remote service facility availability, and digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the branch availability and services provided at branches of banks or savings associations that operate one or more branches pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the remote service facility availability of banks or savings associations that operate one or more remote service facilities pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of banks or savings associations pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of the following banks or savings associations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Large banks or savings associations that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Large banks or savings associations that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that do not operate branches.
</P>
<P>(B) For a large bank or savings association that had assets less than or equal $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that operates at least one branch, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the bank's or savings association's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems at the bank's or savings association's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's branch availability and services in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch distribution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's branch distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Branch distribution metrics.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the number and percentage of the bank's or savings association's branches within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency's consideration of the branch distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Percentage of all full-service depository institution branches in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the availability of branches in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a branch delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Branch openings and closings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's record of opening and closing branches since the previous CRA examination to inform the degree of accessibility of services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, small businesses, and small farms, and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Branch hours of operation and services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The reasonableness of branch hours in low- and moderate-income census tracts compared to middle- and upper-income census tracts, including, but not limited to, whether branches offer extended and weekend hours.
</P>
<P>(B) The range of services provided at branches in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, respectively, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Bilingual and translation services;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Free or low-cost check cashing services, including, but not limited to, check cashing services for government-issued and payroll checks;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Reasonably priced international remittance services; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Electronic benefit transfers.
</P>
<P>(C) The degree to which branch-provided retail banking services are responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households in a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's remote service facility availability in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Remote service facility distribution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's remote service facility distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Remote service facility distribution metrics.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the number and percentage of the bank's or savings association's remote service facilities within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency's consideration of the remote service facility distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the availability of remote service facilities in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a remote service facility delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access to out-of-network ATMs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers whether the bank or savings association offers customers fee-free access to out-of-network ATMs in low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the availability and responsiveness of a bank's or savings association's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, including to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households at the institution level by considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's or savings association's strategy and initiatives to serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households with digital delivery systems and other delivery systems as reflected by, for example, the costs, features, and marketing of the delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of checking and savings accounts opened each calendar year during the evaluation period digitally and through other delivery systems in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems and that are active at the end of each calendar year during the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other bank or savings association data that demonstrates digital delivery systems and other delivery systems are available to individuals and in census tracts of different income levels, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail banking products evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's retail banking products offered in the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, at the institution level as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's credit products and programs pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Deposit products.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's deposit products pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For large banks or savings associations that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(B) For large banks or savings associations that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's deposit products only at the bank's or savings association's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates whether a bank's or savings association's credit products and programs are, consistent with safe and sound operations, responsive to the credit needs of the bank's or savings association's entire community, including the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, or small farms. Responsive credit products and programs may include, but are not limited to, credit products and programs that:
</P>
<P>(i) Facilitate home mortgage and consumer lending targeted to low- or moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meet the needs of small businesses and small farms, including small businesses and small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are conducted in cooperation with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Are low-cost education loans; or
</P>
<P>(v) Are special purpose credit programs pursuant to 12 CFR 1002.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposit products.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the availability and usage of a bank's or savings association's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the extent to which a bank or savings association offers deposit products that, consistent with safe and sound operations, have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households. Deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households include but are not limited to, deposit products with the following types of features:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-cost features, including, but not limited to, deposit products with no overdraft or insufficient funds fees, no or low minimum opening balance, no or low monthly maintenance fees, or free or low-cost check-cashing and bill-pay services;
</P>
<P>(B) Features facilitating broad functionality and accessibility, including, but not limited to, deposit products with in-network ATM access, debit cards for point-of-sale and bill payments, and immediate access to funds for customers cashing government, payroll, or bank-issued checks; or
</P>
<P>(C) Features facilitating inclusivity of access by individuals without banking or credit histories or with adverse banking histories.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Usage of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the usage of a bank's or savings association's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) In connection with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period;
</P>
<P>(C) Marketing, partnerships, and other activities that the bank or savings association has undertaken to promote awareness and use of responsive deposit accounts by low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households; and
</P>
<P>(D) Optionally, any other information the bank or savings association provides that demonstrates usage of the bank's or savings association's deposit products that have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d). The evaluation of a bank's or savings association's retail banking products under paragraph (c) of this section may only contribute positively to the bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates a bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.24   Community development financing test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Financing Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the Community Development Financing Test evaluates the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's or savings association's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area using the metric in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, benchmarks in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph d.1 of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area compared to deposits in the bank or savings association that are located in the facility-based assessment area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> For each of a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> (A) For each of a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas within an MSA, the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(B) For each of a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas within a nonmetropolitan area, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(C) The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks pursuant to paragraph II.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the impact and responsiveness of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a State, pursuant to §§ 25.19 and 25.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for each State based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the State, pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State performance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a State using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank State Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State compared to deposits in the bank or savings association that are located in the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the State for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's or savings association's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.f of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA, pursuant to §§ 25.19 and 25.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion in each multistate MSA based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a multistate MSA.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—multistate MSA performance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA compared to deposits in the bank or savings association located in the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.g of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the multistate MSA for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.h of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's or savings association's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.i of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 25.19, using the two components in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in the nationwide area.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's or savings association's conclusions for the Community Development Financing Test for its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in the nationwide area using the metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to deposits in the bank or savings association located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.j of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to the deposits located in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.k of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's or savings association's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.l of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's or savings association's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the deposits in the bank or savings association located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.m of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years compared to deposits located in the nationwide area for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.n of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community Development Financing Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates a bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.25   Community development services test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Services Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the Community Development Services Test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the community development services needs of its entire community.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers information provided by the bank or savings association and may consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development service benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development services performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area, by considering one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of community development services attributable to each type of community development described in § 25.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(2) The capacities in which a bank's or savings association's or its affiliate's board members or employees serve (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer);
</P>
<P>(3) Total hours of community development services performed by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence demonstrating that the bank's or savings association's community development services are responsive to community development needs, such as the number of low- and moderate-income individuals that are participants, or number of organizations served; and
</P>
<P>(5) The impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development services that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's community development services performance in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or nationwide area, and assigns a conclusion for those areas, based on the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Services Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within a State, multistate MSA, or the institution pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—evaluation of community development services outside of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust upwards the conclusion based on the weighted average derived under paragraph (c)(1) of this section and an evaluation of the bank's or savings association's community development services performed outside of its facility-based assessment areas pursuant to § 25.19, which may consider one or more of the factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community Development Services Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a bank's or savings association's Community Development Services Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates a bank's or savings association's Community Development Services Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.26   Limited purpose banks and savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank and savings association request for designation as a limited purpose bank or savings association.</I> To receive a designation as a limited purpose bank or savings association, a bank or savings association must file a written request with the appropriate Federal banking agency at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the appropriate Federal banking agency approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank or savings association requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the appropriate Federal banking agency notifies a limited purpose bank or savings association that the appropriate Federal banking agency has revoked the designation on the appropriate Federal banking agency's own initiative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate a limited purpose bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency applies the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations as described in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(i) <I>Community development services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a limited purpose bank's or savings association's institution rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” where a bank or savings association requests and receives additional consideration for services that would qualify under the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> A limited purpose bank or savings association may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the limited purpose bank's or savings association's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations evaluates a limited purpose bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's or savings association's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion in the facility-based assessment area based on the appropriate Federal banking agency's:
</P>
<P>(1) Consideration of the dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(2) A review of the impact and responsiveness of the limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State or multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to §§ 25.19 and 25.28(c), and assigns a conclusion for the bank's or savings association's performance in the State or multistate MSA based on the appropriate Federal banking agency's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State or multistate MSA.</I> A limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in its facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State or multistate MSA performance.</I> The dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSA and a review of the impact and responsiveness of those loans and investments, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 25.19, and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on the appropriate Federal banking agency's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in the nationwide area based on the following metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to the bank's or savings association's assets calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations or savings associations pursuant to  paragraph (a) of this section or designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 228.26(a) or 345.26(a) reported pursuant to § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit and serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix B to this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limited Purpose Bank and savings association Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a limited purpose bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's or savings association's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the bank's or savings association's assets, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a limited purpose bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a limited purpose bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates a limited purpose bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.27" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.27   Strategic plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> Pursuant to § 25.21, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community under a strategic plan, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate Federal banking agency has approved the plan pursuant to this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank or savings association has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data requirements.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's or savings association's obligation, if any, to collect, maintain, and report data as required by § 25.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of not more than five years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance tests in plan.</I> (i) A bank's or savings association's plan must include the same performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan, except as provided in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with paragraph (g) of this section, a bank's or savings association's plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessment areas and other geographic areas</I>—(i) <I>Multiple geographic areas.</I> A bank or savings association may prepare a single plan or separate plans for its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic areas not included in a plan.</I> Any facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, or other geographic area that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan, but is not included in an approved plan, will be evaluated pursuant to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating subsidiaries and affiliates</I>—(i) <I>Operating subsidiaries.</I> The loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's or savings association's  operating subsidiary must be included in the bank's or savings association's plan, unless the  operating subsidiary is independently subject to CRA requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliates</I>—(A) <I>Optional inclusion of other affiliates' loans, investments, services, and products.</I> Consistent with § 25.21(b)(3), a bank or savings association may include loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank or savings association that are not  operating subsidiaries in a plan, if those loans, investments, services, and products are not included in the CRA performance evaluation of any other depository institution.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Joint plans.</I> Affiliated depository institutions supervised by the same Federal financial supervisory agency may prepare a joint plan, provided that the plan includes, for each bank or savings association, the applicable performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan. The joint plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Allocation.</I> The inclusion of an affiliate's loans, investments, services, and products in a bank's or savings association's plan, or in a joint plan of affiliated depository institutions, is subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The loans, investments, services, and products may not be included in the CRA performance evaluation of another depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The allocation of loans, investments, services, and products to a bank or savings association, or among affiliated banks or savings associations, must reflect a reasonable basis for the allocation and may not be for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing any bank's or savings association's CRA evaluation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Justification and appropriateness of plan election</I>—(1) <I>Justification requirements.</I> A bank's or savings association's plan must provide a justification that demonstrates the need for the following aspects of a plan due to the bank's or savings association's business model (<I>e.g.,</I> its retail banking services and retail banking products):
</P>
<P>(i) Optional evaluation components pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible modifications or additions to the applicable performance tests pursuant to paragraph (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional geographic areas pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions and ratings methodology pursuant to paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Justification elements.</I> Each justification must specify the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the bank's or savings association's business model is outside the scope of, or inconsistent with, one or more aspects of the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Why an evaluation of the bank or savings association pursuant to any aspect of a plan in paragraph (d)(1) of this section would more meaningfully reflect a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community than if it were evaluated under the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Why the optional performance components and eligible modifications or additions meet the standards of paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public participation in initial draft plan development</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Before submitting a draft plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency for approval pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, a bank or savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the bank or savings association has developed its initial draft plan, formally solicit public comment on the initial draft plan for at least 60 days by:
</P>
<P>(A) Submitting the initial draft plan for publication on the appropriate Federal banking agency's website and by publishing the initial draft plan on the bank's or savings association's website, if the bank or savings association maintains one; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation (if available, otherwise a digital publication) in each facility-based assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a military bank or savings association, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation targeted to members of the military (if available, otherwise a digital publication targeted to members of the military); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include in the notice required under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section a means by which members of the public can electronically submit and mail comments to the bank or savings association on its initial draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of initial draft plan.</I> During the period when the bank or savings association is formally soliciting public comment on its initial draft plan, the bank or savings association must make copies of the initial draft plan available for review at no cost at all offices of the bank or savings association in any facility-based assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the initial draft plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Submission of a draft plan.</I> The bank or savings association must submit its draft plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank or savings association must also submit with its draft plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of notice publication and a description of its efforts to seek input from members of the public, including individuals and organizations the bank or savings association contacted and how the bank or savings association gathered information;
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comments or other public input received;
</P>
<P>(3) If the bank or savings association revised the initial draft plan in response to the public input received, the initial draft plan as released for public comment with an explanation of the relevant changes; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the bank or savings association did not revise the initial draft plan in response to suggestions or concerns from public input received, an explanation for why any suggestion or concern was not addressed in the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan content.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the plan must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components.</I> A bank or savings association must include in its plan a focus on the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, and small businesses and small farms. The bank or savings association must describe how its plan is responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas served by the bank or savings association, considering public comment and the bank's or savings association's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy. As applicable, a bank or savings association must specify components in its plan for helping to meet:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail lending needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and outside retail lending area that are covered by the plan. A bank or savings association that originates or purchases loans in a product line evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 or originates or purchases loans evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2) must include the applicable test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The retail banking services and retail banking products needs of its facility-based assessment areas and at the institution level that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank or savings association that maintains delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23(b) must include this component of the test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank or savings association that does not maintain delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23(b) may include retail banking products components in § 25.23(c) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank or savings association other than a large bank or savings association may include components of retail banking services or retail banking products and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The community development loan and community development investment needs of its facility-based assessment areas, States, or multistate MSAs, as applicable, and the nationwide area that are covered by the plan. Subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank or savings association must include the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank or savings association must include either the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 or the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2) in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A limited purpose bank or savings association must include the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank or savings association may include a community development loan or community development investment component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The community development services needs of its facility-based assessment areas served by the bank or savings association that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank or savings association must include the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25 in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, for each facility-based assessment area where the bank or savings association has employees.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank or savings association other than a large bank or savings association may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible modifications or additions to applicable performance tests</I>—(i) <I>Retail lending.</I> (A) For a bank or savings association that the appropriate Federal banking agency would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank or savings association may omit, as applicable, the evaluation of performance criteria related to the loan-to-deposit ratio or the percentage of loans located in the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A bank or savings association may add annual measurable goals for any aspect of the bank's or savings association's retail lending.
</P>
<P>(B) For a bank or savings association the appropriate Federal banking agency would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank or savings association may add additional loan products, such as non-automobile consumer loans or open-end home mortgage loans, or additional goals for major product lines, such as closed-end home mortgage loans to first-time homebuyers, with accompanying annual measurable goals.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where annual measurable goals for additional loan products or additional goals for major product lines have been added pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, a bank or savings association may provide different weights for averaging together the performance across these loan products and may include those loan products in the numerator of the Bank Volume Metric.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A bank or savings association may use alternative weights for combining the borrower and geographic distribution analyses for major product line(s) or other loan products.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products.</I> (A) A large bank or savings association may add annual measurable goals for any component of the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank or savings association may modify the Retail Services and Products Test by removing a component of the test.
</P>
<P>(C) A large bank or savings association may assign specific weights to applicable components in paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(A) of this section in reaching a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(D) A bank or savings association other than a large bank or savings association may include retail banking services or retail banking products component(s) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Community development loans and community development investments.</I> (A) A bank or savings association may specify annual measurable goals for community development loans, community development investments, or both. The bank or savings association must base any annual measurable goals as a percentage or ratio of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments for all or certain types of community development described in § 25.13(b) through (l), presented either on a combined or separate basis, relative to the bank's or savings association's capacity and should account for community development needs and opportunities.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank or savings association may specify using assets as an alternative denominator for a community development financing metric if it better measures a bank's or savings association's capacity.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank or savings association may specify additional benchmarks to evaluate a community development financing metric.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank or savings association may include community development loans, community development investments, or both, and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Community development services.</I> (A) A bank or savings association may specify annual measurable goals for community development services activity, by number of activity hours, number of hours per full-time equivalent employee, or some other measure.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank or savings association other than a large bank or savings association may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Weights for assessing performance across geographic areas.</I> A bank or savings association may specify alternative weights for averaging test performance across assessment areas or other geographic areas. These alternative weights must be based on the bank's or savings association's capacity and community needs and opportunities in specific geographic areas.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Test weights.</I> For ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels pursuant to § 25.28(b) and paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A bank or savings association may request an alternate weighting method for combining performance under the applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components. In specifying alternative test weights for each applicable test, a bank or savings association must emphasize retail lending, community development financing, or both. Alternative weights must be responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of a bank's or savings association's assessment areas and public comments and must be based on the bank's or savings association's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank or savings association that requests an alternate weighting method pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(vi)(A) of this section must compensate for decreasing the weight under one test by committing to enhance its efforts to help meet the credit needs of its community under another performance test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic coverage of plan.</I> (i) A bank or savings association may incorporate performance evaluation components and accompanying annual measurable goals for additional geographic areas but may not eliminate the evaluation of its performance in any geographic area that would be included in its performance evaluation in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank or savings association is no longer required to delineate a retail lending assessment area previously identified in the plan as a result of not meeting the required retail lending assessment area thresholds pursuant to § 25.17, the appropriate Federal banking agency will not evaluate the bank or savings association for its performance in that area for the applicable years of the plan in which the area is no longer a retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>(iii) A bank or savings association that includes additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify the geographic areas where those components and goals apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank or savings association may submit additional information to the appropriate Federal banking agency on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“Satisfactory” and “Outstanding” performance goals.</I> A bank or savings association that includes modified or additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify in its plan annual measurable goals that constitute “Satisfactory” performance and may specify annual measurable goals that constitute “Outstanding” performance.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conclusions and rating methodology.</I> A bank or savings association must specify in its plan how all elements of a plan covered in paragraphs (g)(1) through (5) of this section, in conjunction with any other applicable performance tests not included in an approved strategic plan, should be considered to assign:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix C to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution. In assigning conclusions under a strategic plan, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 25.28 and paragraph f of appendix D to this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency incorporates the conclusions of a bank or savings association evaluated under an approved plan into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating, accounting for paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Draft plan evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency seeks to act upon a draft plan within 90 calendar days after the appropriate Federal banking agency receives the complete draft plan and other materials required pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. If the appropriate Federal banking agency does not act within this time period, the appropriate Federal banking agency will communicate to the bank or savings association the rationale for the delay and an expected timeframe for a decision on the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the draft plan, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers:
</P>
<P>(i) The public's involvement in formulating the draft plan, including specific information regarding the members of the public and organizations the bank or savings association contacted and how the bank or savings association collected information relevant to the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Written public comments and other public input on the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any response by the bank or savings association to public input on the draft plan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether to solicit additional public input or require the bank or savings association to provide any additional response to public input already received.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan for approval.</I> (i) The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates all plans using the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The extent to which the plan meets the standards set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extent to which the plan has adequately justified the need for a plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a plan under the following criteria, as applicable, considering performance context information pursuant to § 25.21(d):
</P>
<P>(A) The extent and breadth of retail lending or retail lending-related activities to address credit needs, including the distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, pursuant to §§ 25.22, and 25.29, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The effectiveness of the bank's or savings association's systems for delivering retail banking services and the availability and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's retail banking products, pursuant to § 25.23, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent, breadth, impact, and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments, pursuant to §§ 25.24, 25.26, and 25.30, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(D) The number, hours, and types of community development services performed and the extent to which the bank's or savings association's community development services are impactful and responsive, pursuant to §§ 25.25 and 25.30, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plan decisions</I>—(i) <I>Approval.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may approve a plan after considering the criteria in paragraph (h)(3) of this section and if it determines that the bank or savings association has provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Denial.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may deny a bank's or savings association's request to be evaluated under a plan for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) The Agency determines that the bank or savings association has not provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The appropriate Federal banking agency determines that evaluation under the plan would not provide a more meaningful reflection of the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the bank's or savings association's community;
</P>
<P>(C) The plan is not responsive to public comment received pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) The appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the plan otherwise fails to meet the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(E) The bank or savings association fails to provide information requested by the appropriate Federal banking agency that is necessary for the appropriate Federal banking agency to make an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication of approved plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will publish an approved plan on the appropriate Federal banking agency's website.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan amendment</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank or savings association must submit to the appropriate Federal banking agency for approval an amendment to its plan if a material change in circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Impedes its ability to perform at a satisfactory level under the plan, such as financial constraints caused by significant events that impact the local or national economy; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly increases its financial capacity and ability to engage in retail lending, retail banking services, retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services referenced in an approved plan, such as a merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elective plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank or savings association may request the appropriate Federal banking agency to approve an amendment to the plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for plan amendments</I>—(i) <I>Amendment explanation.</I> When submitting a plan amendment for approval, a bank or savings association must explain:
</P>
<P>(A) The material change in circumstances necessitating the amendment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Why it is necessary and appropriate to amend its plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compliance requirement.</I> An amendment to a plan must comply with all relevant requirements of this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency waives a requirement as not applicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Performance evaluation under a plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's performance under an approved plan based on the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan and any optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the applicable performance tests set forth in the bank's or savings association's approved plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Goal considerations.</I> If a bank or savings association established annual measurable goals and does not meet one or more of its satisfactory goals, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider the following factors to determine the effect on a bank's or savings association's CRA performance evaluation:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree to which the goal was not met;
</P>
<P>(ii) The importance of the unmet goals to the plan as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any circumstances beyond the control of the bank or savings association, such as economic conditions or other market factors or events, that have adversely impacted the bank's or savings association's ability to perform.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ratings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates the performance of a bank or savings association under this section pursuant to appendix D to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.28" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.28   Assigned conclusions and ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conclusions</I>—(1) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution test conclusions and performance scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For each of the applicable performance tests pursuant to §§ 25.22 through 25.26 and 25.30, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions and associated test performance scores of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a bank or savings association in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks or savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a small bank or savings association evaluated under the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2) in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution pursuant to § 25.29 and appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks and savings associations operating under a strategic plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for the performance of a bank or savings association operating under a strategic plan pursuant to § 25.27 in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution in accordance with the methodology of the plan and appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank and savings association performance in metropolitan and nonmetropolitan areas.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2906, the appropriate Federal banking agency provides conclusions derived under this part separately for metropolitan areas in which a bank or savings association maintains one or more domestic branch offices and for the nonmetropolitan area of a State if a bank or savings association maintains one or more domestic branch offices in such nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratings</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating for a bank's or savings association's overall CRA performance of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution, as provided in this section and appendices D and E to this part. The ratings assigned by the appropriate Federal banking agency reflect the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings and overall performance scores.</I> (i) For large banks or savings associations, intermediate banks or savings associations, small banks or savings associations that opt into the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, and limited purpose banks or savings associations, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates and discloses the bank's or savings association's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. The appropriate Federal banking agency uses a bank's or savings association's overall performance scores described in this section to assign a rating for the bank's or savings association's overall performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Overall performance scores are based on the bank's or savings association's performance score for each applicable performance test and derived as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, as applicable, and appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weighting of performance scores.</I> In calculating a large bank's or savings association's or intermediate bank's or savings association's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency weights the performance scores for the bank or savings association for each applicable performance test as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Large bank or savings association performance test weights.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the bank's or savings association's performance score for the performance tests applicable to a large bank or savings association as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 40 percent;
</P>
<P>(B) Retail Services and Products Test, 10 percent;
</P>
<P>(C) Community Development Financing Test, 40 percent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Community Development Services Test, 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate bank or savings association performance test weights.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the bank's or savings association's performance score for the performance tests applicable to an intermediate bank or savings association as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test or Community Development Financing Test, as applicable, 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum conclusion requirements</I>—(i) <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or savings association or a large bank or savings association must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or institution to receive, respectively, a State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum of “Low Satisfactory” overall facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area conclusion.</I> (A) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A), the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a large bank or savings association an overall conclusion for each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area, as provided in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in § 25.51(e), a large bank or savings association with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution, unless the bank or savings association receives an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conclusions and ratings for States and multistate MSAs</I>—(1) <I>States</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank or savings association and assigns conclusions and ratings for any State in which the bank or savings association maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>States with rated multistate MSAs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank or savings association and assigns conclusions and ratings for a State only if the bank or savings association maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility outside the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. In evaluating a bank or savings association and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>States with non-rated multistate MSAs.</I> If a facility-based assessment area of a bank or savings association comprises a geographic area spanning two or more States within a multistate MSA that is not identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers activities in the entire facility-based assessment area to be in the State in which the bank or savings association maintains, within the multistate MSA, a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility. In evaluating a bank or savings association and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in any facility-based assessment area that is considered to be in another State pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>States with multistate retail lending assessment areas.</I> In assigning Retail Lending Test conclusions for a State pursuant to § 25.22(h), the appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider a bank's or savings association's activities to be in the State if those activities take place in a retail lending assessment area consisting of counties in more than one State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated multistate MSAs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank or savings association and assigns conclusions and ratings under this part in any multistate MSA in which the bank or savings association maintains a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility in two or more States within that multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> For each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency's evaluation of a bank's or savings association's performance under this part is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices, as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The appropriate Federal banking agency considers evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in this section by:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank or savings association, including by an  operating subsidiary of the bank or savings association; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other affiliate related to any activities considered in the evaluation of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, discriminatory or other illegal credit practices consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination on a prohibited basis, including in violation of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1639);
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45);
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 1031 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5531, 5536);
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vi) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) Violations of the Military Lending Act (10 U.S.C. 987);
</P>
<P>(viii) Violations of the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other violation of a law, rule, or regulation consistent with the types of violations in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agency considerations.</I> In determining the effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section on the bank's or savings association's assigned State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The root cause or causes of any such violations of law, rule, or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The severity of any harm to any communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms resulting from such violations;
</P>
<P>(iii) The duration of time over which the violations occurred;
</P>
<P>(iv) The pervasiveness of the violations;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree to which the bank or savings association,  operating subsidiary, or affiliate, as applicable, has established an effective compliance management system across the institution to self-identify risks and to take the necessary actions to reduce the risk of noncompliance and harm to communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of past performance.</I> When assigning ratings, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers a bank's or savings association's past performance. If a bank's or savings association's prior rating was “Needs to Improve,” the appropriate Federal banking agency may determine that a “Substantial Noncompliance” rating is appropriate where the bank or savings association failed to improve its performance since the previous evaluation period, with no acceptable basis for such failure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.29" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.29   Small bank and savings association performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Small bank or savings association performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a small bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless the small bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test.</I> A small bank's or savings association's retail lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's or savings association's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities located in the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank's or savings association's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other retail and community development lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(iv) The geographic distribution of the bank's or savings association's loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) The bank's or savings association's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Small banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a small bank or savings association rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank or savings association requests and receives additional consideration for the following activities, without regard to whether the activity is in one or more of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Making community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing branches and other services, digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, and deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small banks or savings associations that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a small bank or savings association rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank or savings association requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, or the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs, and for providing low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a small bank or savings association may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(b) and 2907(a) and for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the small bank's or savings association's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small bank or savings association performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Except for a small bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for the performance of a small bank or savings association evaluated under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for the bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test performance as provided in appendix C to this part. In assigning conclusions for a small bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> For a small bank or savings association evaluated under the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test, the appropriate Federal banking agency rates the bank's or savings association's performance under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a small bank or savings association opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency rates the performance of a small bank or savings association as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.30   Intermediate bank and savings association performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Intermediate bank or savings association performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates an intermediate bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 and the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless an intermediate bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test.</I> (i) An intermediate bank's or savings association's community development performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The number and dollar amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The number and dollar amount of community development investments;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent to which the bank or savings association provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(D) The bank's or savings association's responsiveness through such community development loans, community development investments, and community development services to community development needs. The appropriate Federal banking agency's evaluation of the responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's activities is informed by information provided by the bank or savings association, and may be informed by the impact and responsiveness review factors described in § 25.15(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate Federal banking agency considers an intermediate bank's or savings association's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services without regard to whether the activity is made in one or more of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas. The extent of the appropriate Federal banking agency's consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services outside of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas will depend on the adequacy of the bank's or savings association's responsiveness to community development needs and opportunities within the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and applicable performance context information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to theIntermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank or savings association evaluated as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank or savings association requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank or savings association requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25, or both.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, an intermediate bank or savings association may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the intermediate bank's or savings association's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Intermediate bank or savings association performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a conclusion for the performance of an intermediate bank or savings association evaluated pursuant to this section as provided in appendices C and E to this part. In assigning conclusions for an intermediate bank or savings association, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates the performance of an intermediate bank or savings association evaluated under this section as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.3.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.31   Effect of CRA performance on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the appropriate Federal banking agency takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of each applicant bank or savings association, and for applications under 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)), of each proposed subsidiary savings association, in considering an application for:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of:
</P>
<P>(i) A domestic branch for insured banks; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to take deposits for savings associations;
</P>
<P>(2) The relocation of the main office or a branch;
</P>
<P>(3) The merger or consolidation with or the acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities of an insured depository institution requiring approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(4) The conversion of an insured depository institution to a national bank or Federal savings association charter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisitions subject to section 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charter application.</I> (1) An applicant (other than an insured depository institution) for a national bank charter must submit with its application a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The OCC takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant for a Federal savings association charter must submit with its application a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The appropriate Federal banking agency takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interested parties.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the applicable comment procedures in considering CRA performance in an application listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank's or savings association's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “insured depository institution” has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1813.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reporting, Disclosure, and Public Engagement Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.42   Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="47">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7168, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information required to be collected and maintained</I>—(1) <I>Small business loans and small farm loans data.</I> A large bank or savings association must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data for each small business loan or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank or savings association during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) An indicator for the loan type as reported on the bank's or savings association's Call Report or Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(vi) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(vii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(viii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(ix) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(x) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer loans data</I>—<I>automobile loans</I>—(i) <I>Large banks or savings associations.</I> A large bank or savings association for which automobile loans are a product line must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data is evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank or savings association during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate or small banks or savings associations.</I> An intermediate bank or savings association or a small bank or savings association for which automobile loans are a product line may collect and maintain in a format of the bank's or savings association's choosing, including in an electronic form prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank or savings association during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data collected and maintained.</I> Data collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(F) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> (i) If a large bank or savings association is subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003, the bank or savings association must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank or savings association has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) pursuant to the requirements in 12 CFR 1003.4(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank or savings association is not subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003 due to the location of its branches, but would otherwise meet the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) size and lending activity requirements pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the bank or savings association must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data, for each closed-end home mortgage loan, excluding multifamily loans, originated or purchased during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The location of each home mortgage loan origination or purchase, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision; and
</P>
<P>(F) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products data</I>—(i) <I>Branches and remote service facilities.</I> A large bank or savings association must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data with respect to retail banking services and retail banking products offered and provided by the bank or savings association during each calendar year:
</P>
<P>(A) Location of branches, main offices described in § 25.23(a)(2), and remote service facilities. Location information must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) An indicator for whether each branch is full-service or limited-service, and for each remote service facility whether it is deposit-taking, cash-advancing, or both;
</P>
<P>(C) Locations and dates of branch, main office described in § 25.23(a)(2), and remote service facility openings and closings, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) Hours of operation of each branch, main office described in § 25.23(a)(2), and remote service facility, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(E) Services offered at each branch or main office described in § 25.23(a)(2) that are responsive to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems data</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, a large bank or savings association that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that does not operate any branches or a main office described in § 25.23(a)(2), and a large bank or savings association that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 25.23(b)(4), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section. A bank or savings association may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's or savings association's own choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank or savings association must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families, or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems by census tract income level for each calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems that are active at the end of each calendar year by census tract income level for each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank or savings association may collect and maintain any additional information not required in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section that demonstrates that digital delivery systems and other delivery systems serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and a large bank or savings association that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households pursuant to § 25.23(c)(3), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B) of this section. A bank or savings association may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's or savings association's choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank or savings association must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank or savings association may collect and maintain any other information that demonstrates the availability and usage of the bank's or savings association's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> (i)(A) A large bank or savings association and a limited purpose bank or savings association that would be a large bank or savings association based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank or savings association, must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank or savings association during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated under the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 must collect and maintain in the format used by the bank or savings association in the normal course of business, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank or savings association during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, a bank or savings association must collect and maintain, on an annual basis, the following data for community development loans and community development investments:
</P>
<P>(A) General information on the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Date of origination, purchase, refinance, or renewal of the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Date the loan or investment was sold or paid off; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The dollar amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A community development loan originated or purchased, or a community development investment made, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit or a legally binding commitment to invest, in the calendar year, as described in paragraph I.a.1.i of appendix B to this part;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed or to an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The outstanding balance of a community development loan originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed in previous years or community development investment made or renewed in previous years, as of December 31 for each year that the loan or investment remains on the bank's or savings association's balance sheet; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The outstanding balance, less any increase reported in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section in the same calendar year, of a community development loan refinanced or renewed in a year subsequent to the year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 of the calendar year for each year that the loan remains on the bank's or savings association's balance sheet; or an existing community development investment renewed in a year subsequent to the year the investment was made as of December 31 for each year that the investment remains on the bank's or savings association's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(B) Community development loan or community development investment information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Activity type (loan or investment);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The type of community development described in § 25.13(b) through (l); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Community development loan or community development investment detail, such as the specific type of financing and type of entity supported (<I>e.g.,</I> LIHTC, NMTC, Small Business Investment Company, multifamily mortgage, private business, or mission-driven nonprofit organization, mortgage-backed security, or other).
</P>
<P>(C) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development loan or community development investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is an investment in a project financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Reflects bank or savings association leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Is a new community development financing product that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(D) Specific location information, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract.
</P>
<P>(E) Allocation of the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment to geographic areas served by the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A list of the geographic areas served by the community development loan or community development investment, specifying any county, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Specific information about the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment that was allocated to each county served by the loan or investment, if available.
</P>
<P>(F) Other information relevant to determining that the community development loan or community development investment meets the standards pursuant to § 25.13.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Community development services data.</I> A large bank or savings association must collect and maintain, in a format of the bank's or savings association's choosing or in a standardized format, as provided by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following community development services data:
</P>
<P>(i) Community development services information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Date of service;
</P>
<P>(B) Number of board member or employee service hours;
</P>
<P>(C) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of community development described in § 25.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(E) Capacity in which a bank's or savings association's or its affiliate's board member or employee serves (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer); and
</P>
<P>(F) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development service:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Reflects bank or savings association leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is a new community development service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(ii) Location information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Location list.</I> A list of the geographic areas served by the activity, specifying any census tracts, counties, States, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Geographic-level.</I> Whether the bank or savings association is seeking consideration in a facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Deposits data.</I> A large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must collect and maintain annually, in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, until the completion of the bank's or savings association's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the dollar amount of its deposits at the county level based on deposit location. The bank or savings association allocates the deposits for which a deposit location is not available to the nationwide area. Annual deposits must be calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements. Any other bank or savings association that opts to collect and maintain the data in this paragraph (a)(7) must do so in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information required to be reported</I>—(1) <I>Small business loan and small farm loan data.</I> A large bank or savings association must report annually by April 1 to the appropriate Federal banking agency in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the small business loan and small farm loan data described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section for the prior calendar year. For each census tract in which the bank or savings association originated or purchased a small business loan or small farm loan, the bank or savings association must report the aggregate number and dollar amount of small business loans and small farm loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With an amount at origination of greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of greater than $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(v) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(vi) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(vii) To businesses and farms for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> A large bank or savings association and a limited purpose bank or savings association that would be a large bank or savings association based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank or savings association must report annually by April 1 to the appropriate Federal banking agency in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the community development loan and community development investment data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for the prior calendar year, except for the data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section and paragraphs (a)(5)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposits data.</I> (i) A large bank or savings association that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must report annually by April 1 to the appropriate Federal banking agency in electronic form, as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the deposits data for the prior calendar year collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section. This reporting must include, for each county, State, and multistate MSA, and for the institution overall, the average annual deposit balances (calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements, as applicable), in aggregate, of deposit accounts with associated addresses located in such county, State, or multistate MSA, where available, and for the institution overall. Any other bank or savings association that opts to collect and maintain the data in paragraph (a)(7) of this section must report these data in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (b)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section for which a deposit location is not available must report these deposits at the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data on  operating subsidiaries.</I> To the extent that its  operating subsidiaries engage in retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services, a bank or savings association must collect, maintain, and report these loans, investments, services, and products of its  operating subsidiaries pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, for purposes of evaluating the bank's or savings association's performance. For home mortgage loans, the bank or savings association must identify the home mortgage loans reported by its  operating subsidiary under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by its  operating subsidiary that the bank or savings association would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section had the bank or savings association originated or purchased the loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on other affiliates.</I> A bank or savings association that elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services engaged in by affiliates of a bank or savings association (other than an  operating subsidiary), for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the data that the bank or savings association would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section had the loans, investments, services, or products been engaged in by the bank or savings association. For home mortgage loans, the bank or savings association must identify the home mortgage loans reported by bank or savings association affiliates under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by the affiliate that the bank or savings association would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraphs (a)(3) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank or savings association that elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or third party for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the loans and investments data that the bank or savings association would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5) and (b)(2) of this section had the bank or savings association originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed the loans or investments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assessment area data</I>—(1) <I>Facility-based assessment areas.</I> A large bank or savings association and a limited purpose bank or savings association that would be a large bank or savings association based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank or savings association must collect and report to the appropriate Federal banking agency annually by April 1 a list of each facility-based assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the facility-based assessment area, as of December 31 of the prior calendar year or the last date the facility-based assessment area was in effect, provided the facility-based assessment area was delineated for at least six months of the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending assessment areas.</I> A large bank or savings association must collect and report to the appropriate Federal banking agency annually by April 1 a list of each retail lending assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the retail lending assessment area for the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each bank or savings association that reports data pursuant to this section, a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a State-by-State basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank or savings association reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract according to whether the census tract is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank or savings association reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(v) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank or savings association reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in census tracts with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract in the county, facility-based assessment area, or retail lending assessment area according to whether the median income in the census tract relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank or savings association reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located inside each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area reported by the bank or savings association and the number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located outside of the facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas reported by the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments reported as originated or purchased inside each facility-based assessment area, each State in which the bank or savings association has a branch, each multistate MSA in which a bank or savings association has a branch in two or more States of the multistate MSA, and nationwide area outside of these States and multistate MSAs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a State boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each State, an aggregate disclosure statement of reported small business lending, small farm lending, community development lending, and community development investments by all depository institutions subject to reporting under this part or 12 CFR part 228 or 345. These disclosure statements indicate the number and dollar amount of all small business loans and small farm loans originated or purchased for each census tract and the number and dollar amount of all community development loans and community development investments for each county by reporting banks or savings associations, except that the appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of a bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of disclosure statements.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency makes the individual bank or savings association CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (g) of this section, and the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>HMDA data disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For a large bank or savings association required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the appropriate Federal banking agency will publish on the appropriate Federal banking agency's website the data required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section concerning the distribution of a large bank's or savings association's originations and applications of home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity in each of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas. This information is published annually based on data reported pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data to be published on the appropriate Federal banking agency's website.</I> For each of the large bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas, the appropriate Federal banking agency publishes on the appropriate Federal banking agency's website:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage of originations and applications of the large bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage of originations and applications of aggregate mortgage lending of all lenders reporting HMDA data in the facility-based assessment area and as applicable, the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demographic data of the geographic area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Announcement of data publication.</I> Upon publishing the data required pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency will publicly announce that the information is available on the appropriate Federal banking agency's public website.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect on CRA conclusions and ratings.</I> The race and ethnicity information published pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section does not impact the conclusions or ratings of the large bank or savings association.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.43   Content and availability of public file.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="49">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7168, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank or savings association must maintain a public file, in either paper or digital format, that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's or savings association's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank or savings association, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or savings association or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's or savings association's most recent CRA performance evaluation prepared by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The bank or savings association must include this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's or savings association's branches, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank or savings association during the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of retail banking services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's or savings association's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. A bank or savings association may elect to include information regarding the availability of other systems for delivering retail banking services (for example, mobile or online banking, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or mobile branch programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the census tracts contained in the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank or savings association chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks and savings associations subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 25.42.</I> A bank or savings association subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 25.42 must include in its public file a written notice that the CRA Disclosure Statement pertaining to the bank or savings association, its  operating subsidiaries, and its other affiliates, if applicable, may be obtained on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>. The bank or savings association must include the written notice in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks and savings associations required to report HMDA data</I>—(i) <I>HMDA Disclosure Statement.</I> A bank or savings association required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the bank's or savings association's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (CFPB's) website at: <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>. In addition, if the appropriate Federal banking agency considered the home mortgage lending of a bank's or savings association's operating subsidiaries or, at a bank's or savings association's election, the appropriate Federal banking agency considered the home mortgage lending of other bank or savings association affiliates, the bank or savings association must include in its public file the names of the operating subsidiaries and the names of the affiliates and a written notice that the operating subsidiaries' and other affiliates' HMDA Disclosure Statements may be obtained at the CFPB's website. The bank or savings association must include the written notices in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability of bank or savings association HMDA data.</I> A large bank or savings association required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the home mortgage loan data published by the appropriate Federal banking agency under § 25.42(j) are available at the appropriate Federal banking agency's website.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks or savings associations.</I> A small bank or savings association, or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year, must include in its public file the bank's or savings association's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks and savings associations with strategic plans.</I> A bank or savings association that has been approved to be evaluated under a strategic plan must include in its public file a copy of that plan while it is in effect. A bank or savings association need not include information submitted to the appropriate Federal banking agency on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks and savings associations with less than “Satisfactory” ratings.</I> A bank or savings association that received a less than “Satisfactory” institution rating during its most recent examination must include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank or savings association must update the description quarterly by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank or savings association must make available to the public for inspection, upon request and at no cost, the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks or savings associations that maintain a website, all information required for the bank's or savings association's public file under this section must be maintained on the bank's or savings association's website.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks or savings associations that do not maintain a website:
</P>
<P>(i) All the information required for the bank's or savings association's public file must be maintained at the main office and, if an interstate bank or savings association, at one branch office in each State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At each branch, the following must be maintained:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the public section of the bank's or savings association's most recent CRA performance evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information that the bank or savings association is required to maintain under this section in the public file relating to the facility-based assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank or savings association must provide copies, either on paper or in digital form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank or savings association may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if not provided in digital form).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing requirements.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank or savings association must ensure that its public file contains the information required by this section for each of the previous three calendar years, with the most recent calendar year included in its file annually by April 1 of the current calendar year.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.44   Public notice by banks and savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>A bank or savings association must provide in the public area of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in appendix F to this part. Only a branch of a bank or savings association having more than one facility-based assessment area must include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only a bank or savings association that is an affiliate of a holding company must include the next to the last sentence of the notices. A bank or savings association must include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional depository institutions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.45   Publication of planned examination schedule.</HEAD>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency publishes on its public website, at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter, a list of banks or savings associations scheduled for CRA examinations for the next two quarters.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.46" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.46   Public engagement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency encourages communication between members of the public and banks or savings associations, including through members of the public submitting written public comments regarding community credit needs and opportunities as well as a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet community credit needs. The appropriate Federal banking agency will take these comments into account in connection with the bank's or savings association's next scheduled CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of public comments.</I> Members of the public may submit public comments regarding community credit needs and a bank's or savings association's CRA performance by submitting comments to the appropriate Federal banking agency at <I>“CRAComments@occ.treas.gov</I>, or by mailing comments to: Compliance Risk Policy Division, Bank Supervision Policy, OCC, Washington, DC 20219, for banks and Federal savings associations; or <I>CRACommentCollector@fdic.gov</I>, or by mailing comments to the address of the appropriate FDIC regional office found at <I>https://www.fdic.gov/resources/bankers/community-reinvestment-act/cra-regional-contacts-list.html</I>, for State savings associations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of public comments.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency receives a public comment before the close date of a bank's or savings association's CRA examination, the public comment will be considered in connection with that CRA examination. If the appropriate Federal banking agency receives a public comment after the close date of a bank's or savings association's CRA examination, it will be considered in connection with the bank's or savings association's subsequent CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution of public comments.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will forward all public comments received regarding a bank's or savings association's CRA performance to the bank or savings association.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Transition Rules</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.51   Applicability dates and transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), and (d) of this section, this part is applicable, beginning on April 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific applicability dates.</I> The following sections are applicable as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On January 1, 2026, §§ 25.12 through 25.30, 25.42(a), 25.43, and 25.44; the data collection and maintenance requirements in § 25.42(c) through (f); and appendices A through F to this part become applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) On January 1, 2027, § 25.42(b) and (g) through (i) and the reporting requirements in § 25.42(c) through (f) become applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rules during transition period.</I> Prior to the applicability dates in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, banks and savings associations must comply with the relevant provisions of this part in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. The relevant provisions set forth in appendix G to this part are applicable to CRA performance evaluations pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(a)(1) that assess activities that a bank or savings association conducted prior to the dates set forth in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HMDA data disclosures.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will publish the data pursuant to § 25.42(j) beginning January 1, 2027.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of bank or savings association activities.</I> (1) In assessing a bank's or savings association's CRA performance, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider any loan, investment, service, or product that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time the bank or savings association conducted the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in assessing a bank's or savings association's CRA performance, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider any loan or investment that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time that the bank or savings association entered into a legally binding commitment to make the loan or investment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>New and replaced strategic plans.</I> The CRA regulatory requirements in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part, apply to any new strategic plan, including a plan that replaces an expired strategic plan, submitted to the appropriate Federal banking agency for approval on or after April 1, 2024, but before November 1, 2025, and that the agency has determined is a complete plan consistent with the requirements under 12 CFR 25.27 in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. These strategic plans remain in effect until the expiration date of the plan. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not accept any strategic plan submitted on or after November 1, 2025, and before January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing strategic plans.</I> A strategic plan in effect as of February 1, 2024, remains in effect until the expiration date of the plan except for provisions that were not permissible under this part as of January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>First evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024.</I> In its first performance evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024, a large bank or savings association that has a total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable, and that was a bank or savings association subject to evaluation under this part or [other Agencies' regulations]prior to February 1, 2024, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, or for the institution, unless the bank or savings association received an overall facility-based assessment area conclusion, calculated as described in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part, of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7168, Feb. 1, 2024, § 25.51 was amended by removing “[other Agencies' CRA regulations]” and adding “12 CFR part 228 or 345” in its place in paragraph (e); however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Prohibition Against Use of Interstate Branches Primarily for Deposit Production</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 71339, Dec. 15, 2021, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated and revised at 89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 25.61" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1835a) of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (Interstate Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart applies to any national bank or savings association that has operated a covered interstate branch for a period of at least one year, and any foreign bank or savings association that has operated a covered interstate branch that is a Federal branch for a period of at least one year.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart describes the requirements imposed under 12 U.S.C. 1835a, which requires the appropriate Federal banking agencies (the OCC, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the FDIC) to prescribe uniform rules that prohibit a bank or savings association from using any authority to engage in interstate branching pursuant to the Interstate Act, or any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law, primarily for the purpose of deposit production.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.62" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.62   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank and savings association</I> means, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank or savings association as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7) and 12 CFR 28.11(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered interstate branch</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any branch of a national bank or savings association, and any Federal branch of a foreign bank or savings association, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established or acquired outside the bank's or savings association's home State pursuant to the interstate branching authority granted by the Interstate Act or by any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Could not have been established or acquired outside of the bank's or savings association's home State but for the establishment or acquisition of a branch described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank or savings association or branch of a bank or savings association controlled by an out-of-State bank or savings association holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal branch</I> means Federal branch as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(6) and 12 CFR 28.11(h).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Home State</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a State bank or savings association, the State that chartered the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a national bank or savings association, the State in which the main office of the bank or savings association is located;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a bank or savings association holding company, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such company are the largest on the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) July 1, 1966; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the company becomes a bank or savings association holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign bank or savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of determining whether a U.S. branch of a foreign bank or savings association is a covered interstate branch, the home State of the foreign bank or savings association as determined in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3103(c) and 12 CFR 28.11(n); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of determining whether a branch of a U.S. bank or savings association controlled by a foreign bank or savings association is a covered interstate branch, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such foreign bank or savings association are the largest on the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) July 1, 1966; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the foreign bank or savings association becomes a bank or savings association holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Host State</I> means a State in which a covered interstate branch is established or acquired.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Host state loan-to-deposit ratio</I> generally means, with respect to a particular host state, the ratio of total loans in the host state relative to total deposits from the host state for all banks or savings associations (including institutions covered under the definition of “ bank or savings association” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1)) that have that state as their home state, as determined and updated periodically by the appropriate Federal banking agencies and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Out-of-State bank or savings association holding company</I> means, with respect to any State, a bank or savings association holding company whose home State is another State.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>State</I> means state as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statewide loan-to-deposit ratio</I> means, with respect to a bank or savings association, the ratio of the bank's or savings association's loans to its deposits in a state in which the bank or savings association has one or more covered interstate branches, as determined by the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.63" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.63   Loan-to-deposit ratio screen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of screen.</I> Beginning no earlier than one year after a covered interstate branch is acquired or established, the OCC will consider whether the bank's or savings association's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the relevant host State loan-to-deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Results of screen.</I> (1) If the OCC determines that the bank's or savings association's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is 50 percent or more of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, no further consideration under this subpart is required.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC determines that the bank's or savings association's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, or if reasonably available data are insufficient to calculate the bank's or savings association's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio, the OCC will make a credit needs determination for the bank or savings association as provided in § 25.64.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.64" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.64   Credit needs determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The OCC will review the loan portfolio of the bank or savings association and determine whether the bank or savings association is reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities in the host state that are served by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines.</I> The OCC will use the following considerations as guidelines when making the determination pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether covered interstate branches were formerly part of a failed or failing depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether covered interstate branches were acquired under circumstances where there was a low loan-to-deposit ratio because of the nature of the acquired institution's business or loan portfolio;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether covered interstate branches have a high concentration of commercial or credit card lending, trust services, or other specialized activities, including the extent to which the covered interstate branches accept deposits in the host state;
</P>
<P>(4) The CRA ratings received by the bank or savings association, if any;
</P>
<P>(5) Economic conditions, including the level of loan demand, within the communities served by the covered interstate branches;
</P>
<P>(6) The safe and sound operation and condition of the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(7) The OCC's CRA regulations (subparts A through D of this part) and interpretations of those regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 25.65" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 25.65   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If the OCC determines that a bank or savings association is not reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank or savings association in the host state, and that the bank's or savings association's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, the OCC:
</P>
<P>(1) May order that a bank's or savings association's covered interstate branch or branches be closed unless the bank or savings association provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the OCC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank or savings association has an acceptable plan under which the bank or savings association will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank or savings association in the host state; and
</P>
<P>(2) Will not permit the bank or savings association to open a new branch in the host state that would be considered to be a covered interstate branch unless the bank or savings association provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the OCC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank or savings association will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the community that the new branch will serve.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice prior to closure of a covered interstate branch.</I> Before exercising the OCC's authority to order the bank or savings association to close a covered interstate branch, the OCC will issue to the bank or savings association a notice of the OCC's intent to order the closure and will schedule a hearing within 60 days of issuing the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing.</I> The OCC will conduct a hearing scheduled under paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(h) and 12 CFR part 19.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 25—Calculations for the Retail Lending Test
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="54">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7168, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 25.22 and 25.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Retail Lending Test Distribution Metrics—Scope of Evaluation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark for a facility-based assessment area and determines whether the bank or savings association has met or surpassed the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in that facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Volume Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Volume Metric for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of loans included in the Bank Volume Metric (<I>i.e., volume metric loans</I>). The bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of volume metric loans is the total dollar amount of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans originated or purchased by the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area in that year. Automobile loans are included in the bank's or savings association's annual dollar amount of volume metric loans only if automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area. For a bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank or savings association in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank or savings association that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar amounts of <I>volume metric loans</I> are $300,000 (year 1), $300,000 (year 2), and $400,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar amount of <I>volume metric loans</I> in a facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $1 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits in the bank located in the facility-based assessment area are $1.7 million (year 1), $1.6 million (year 2), and $1.7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $5 million. The Bank Volume Metric for the facility-based assessment area would be $1 million divided by $5 million, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.064.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Market Volume Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Market Volume Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area. For purposes of calculating the Market Volume Benchmark, a <I>benchmark depository institution</I> for a particular year is a depository institution that, in that year, was subject to reporting pursuant to § 25.42(b)(1), 12 CFR 228.42(b)(1) or 345.42(b)(1), or 12 CFR part 1003, and operated a facility included in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits data in the facility-based assessment area. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Market Volume Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans. The annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is the total dollar volume of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the facility-based assessment area in that year that are reported loans originated by benchmark depository institutions.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area is the sum across benchmark depository institutions of: (i) for a benchmark depository institution that reports data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 228.42(b)(3) or 345.42(b)(3), the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year; and (ii) for a benchmark depository institution that does not report data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 228.42(b)(3) or 345.42(b)(3), the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-2:</I> With reference to example A-1 to this appendix, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is $6 million (year 1), $7 million (year 2), and $7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $20 million. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions is $17 million (year 1), $15 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $50 million. The Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area would be $20 million divided by $50 million, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.065.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area by 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent). A bank or savings association meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the Bank Volume Metric is equal to or greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-3:</I> Based on examples A-1 and A-2 to this appendix, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark of 40 percent by 0.3, equal to 0.12 (equivalently, 12 percent). The Bank Volume Metric, 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent), is greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold. Accordingly, the bank surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<FP-2><I>Bank Volume Metric (20%) &gt; Retail Lending Volume Threshold [(40%) × 0.3 = 12%]</I>
</FP-2>
<HD1>II. Retail Lending Distribution Metrics—Scope Of Evaluation
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Retail Lending Test Areas evaluated.</I> A bank's or savings association's major product lines are evaluated in its Retail Lending Test Areas, as provided in § 25.22(d) and as described in paragraphs II.a.1 and 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Large banks or savings associations exempt from evaluation in retail lending assessment areas.</I> Pursuant to § 25.17(a)(2), a large bank or savings association is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas in a particular calendar year if the following ratio exceeds 80 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank or savings association, originated or purchased in its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank or savings association, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-4:</I> A large bank (for which automobile loans are not a product line) originated or purchased 20,000 closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the prior two calendar years, representing $6 billion in loan dollars. Of these loans, 18,000 loans, representing $4.5 billion in loan dollars, were originated or purchased in the large bank's facility-based assessment areas. As such, the large bank originated or purchased 75 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans ($4.5 billion/$6 billion) by loan dollars and 90 percent (18,000/20,000) of these loans by loan count within its facility-based assessment areas. The combination of loan dollars and loan count is 82.5 percent, or (75 + 90)/2. Thus, this large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 25.17(a)(2) in the current calendar year because the 82.5 percent exceeds the 80 percent threshold.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small banks or savings associations and intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated in outside retail lending areas.</I> Pursuant to § 25.18(a)(2), the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of the major product lines of an intermediate bank or savings association, or a small bank or savings association that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, in the bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area if either:
</P>
<P>i. The bank or savings association opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>ii. The following ratio exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association, originated or purchased outside of its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Product lines and major product lines.</I> In each of a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test Areas, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates each of a bank's or savings association's major product lines, as provided in § 25.22(d)(2) and as described in paragraphs II.b.1 through 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> Except as provided in paragraph II.b.1.iii of this appendix, a product line is a major product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area if the following ratio is 15 percent or more, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's or savings association's loans in the product line originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's or savings association's loans in all product lines originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>iii. If a bank or savings association has not collected, maintained, or reported loan data on a product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area for one or more years of an evaluation period, the product line is a major product line if the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the product line is material to the bank's or savings association's business in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Major product line standard for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank or savings association delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 25.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank or savings association delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 25.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Banks and savings associations for which automobile loans are a product line.</I>
</P>
<P>i. If a bank's or savings association's automobile loans are a product line (either because the bank or savings association is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 25.22), automobile loans are a product line for the bank or savings association for the entire evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. A bank or savings association is a majority automobile lender if the following ratio, calculated at the institution level, exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's or savings association's automobile loans originated or purchased overall; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's or savings association's automobile loans, home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<HD1>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Bank Metric, the Geographic Market Benchmark, and the Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, as set forth in this section. For each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, and component geographic area of the bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area, the appropriate Federal banking agency includes either low-income census tracts or moderate-income census tracts (<I>i.e., designated census tracts</I>) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks calculations for a particular year. To evaluate small banks or savings associations and intermediate banks or savings associations without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the appropriate Federal banking agency will use data collected by the bank or savings association in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank or savings association loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Geographic Bank Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Bank Metric for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Bank Metric by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and small farm loans are a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area (FBAA-1). The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased small farm loans) are 100 (year 1), 75 (year 2), and 75 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans is therefore 250 in the evaluation period. In the low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 25 small farm loans (year 1), 15 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 50 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in low-income census tracts would be 50 divided by 250, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In the moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 30 small farm loans (year 1), 20 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 60 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts would be 60 divided by 250, or 0.24 (equivalently, 24 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.066.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line, excluding automobile loans. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-6:</I> The Geographic Market Benchmarks for small farm loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 500 small farm loans (year 1), 250 small farm loans (year 2), and 250 small farm loans (year 3) within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 200 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2) and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 400. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 400 divided by 1,000, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 100 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2), and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 300. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 300 divided by 1,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.067.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.4.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-7:</I> The Geographic Community Benchmarks for small business loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 1), 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 1,400 non-farm businesses (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of non-farm businesses in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. In low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 200 non-farm businesses (year 1), 150 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 150 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 500 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 500 divided by 4,000, or 0.125 (equivalently, 12.5 percent).
</P>
<P>In moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 400 non-farm businesses (year 1), 300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 300 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 1,000 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.068.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated census tracts by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 25.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Market Benchmark described in paragraph III.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's or savings association's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for each category of designated census tract and for each major product line by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 25.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Community Benchmark described in paragraph III.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's or savings association's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Bank Metric, the Borrower Market Benchmark, and the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of borrowers (<I>i.e., designated borrowers</I>), as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>For closed-end home mortgage loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate-income borrowers.
</P>
<P>For small business loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate income borrowers.
</P>
<P>To evaluate small banks or savings associations and intermediate banks or savings associations without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the appropriate Federal banking agency will use data collected by the bank or savings association in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank or savings association loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Borrower Bank Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Bank Metric for each major product line and category of designated borrowers in each Retail Lending Test Area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line for the bank in FBAA-1. The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans) are 30 (year 1), 40 (year 2), and 30 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 100 in the evaluation period. In FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 10 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 3 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 7 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 20 divided by 100, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In FBAA-1, the bank also originated and purchased 12 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 1), 5 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 2), and 13 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers would be 30 divided by 100, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.069.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Market Metric for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-9:</I> The Borrower Market Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 500 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 1), 275 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 2), and 225 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 3). The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 50 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 100. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 100 divided by 1,000, or 0.1 (equivalently, 10 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 100 loans (year 1), 75 loans (year 2), and 25 loans (year 3) to moderate-income borrowers. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 200. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers in FBAA-1 would be 200 divided by 1,000, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.070.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of designated borrowers for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-10:</I> The Borrower Community Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 families (year 1), 1,300 families (year 2), and 1,400 families (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of families in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. There were 300 low-income families (year 1), 300 low-income families (year 2), and 400 low-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,000 low-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income families within the FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<P>There were 350 moderate-income families (year 1), 400 moderate-income families (year 2), and 450 moderate-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,200 moderate-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income families in FBAA-1 would be 1,200 divided by 4,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.071.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmark for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 25.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Market Benchmark described in section IV.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's or savings association's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph IV.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each major product line and for each category of designated borrowers in the bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating the benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 25.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Community Benchmark described in paragraph IV.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's or savings association's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings calculated in paragraph IV.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area by comparing the bank's or savings association's distribution metrics to sets of performance ranges determined by, as applicable, the market and community benchmarks, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 1 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's or savings association's geographic distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares the relevant Geographic Bank Metric for each category of designated census tracts to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Geographic Market Benchmark and the Geographic Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of the 0.8 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares each Geographic Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.b.1 through V.b.5 of this appendix. The geographic distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated census tracts is determined by the performance range within which the Geographic Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding points values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. <I>Borrower distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's or savings association's borrower distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the appropriate Federal banking agency compares the relevant Borrower Bank Metric for each category of designated borrowers to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Borrower Market Benchmark and Borrower Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency compares each Borrower Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.d.1 through V.d.5 of this appendix. The borrower distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated borrowers is determined by the performance range within which the Borrower Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For any bank or savings association for which automobile lending is evaluated under § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 2 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix A—Automobile Loans: Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Lending</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's or savings association's geographic distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Geographic Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated census tracts to the corresponding Geographic Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Borrower distribution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's or savings association's borrower distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Borrower Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated borrowers to the corresponding Borrower Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Performance scores.</I> Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</HD1>
<P>a. The appropriate Federal banking agency determines a bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test performance conclusion for a major product line in a Retail Lending Test Area by calculating a weighted performance score for each major product line:
</P>
<P>1. The appropriate Federal banking agency develops a weighted average performance score for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency creates a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated census tracts (<I>i.e., geographic distribution average</I>) and a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated borrowers (<I>i.e., borrower distribution average</I>).
</P>
<P>ii. For the geographic distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated census tracts is based on the demographics of the Retail Testing Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Appendix A—Retail Lending, Test Geographic Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of


<br/>designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>In the case of a Retail Lending Test Area that contains no low-income census tracts and no moderate-income census tracts, the bank or savings association will not receive a geographic distribution average for that assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-11:</I> A large bank's closed-end home mortgage loans constitute a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area. The bank's geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “High Satisfactory” (performance score of 7 points) for low-income census tracts and “Needs to Improve” (performance score of 3 points) for moderate-income census tracts. Owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts represents 20 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area, and owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts represents 5 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the moderate-income geographic distribution performance score is 80 percent [20 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 80 percent] and the weight assigned to the low-income geographic distribution performance score is 20 percent [5 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 20 percent]. The bank's geographic distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 3.8 [(7 points × 0.2 weight = 1.4) + (3 points × 0.8 weight = 2.4)].
</P>
<P>iii. For the borrower distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated borrowers is based on the demographics of the Retail Lending Test Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test, Borrower Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Categories of designated borrowers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,00 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income households.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income households.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-12:</I> Building on example A-11 to this appendix, the bank's borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “Outstanding” (performance score of 10 points) for low-income borrowers and “Low Satisfactory” (performance score of 6 points) for moderate-income borrowers. Low-income families represent 14 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area and moderate-income families represent 6 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the low-income borrower distribution performance score is 70 percent [14 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 70 percent] and the weight assigned to the moderate-income borrower distribution performance score is 30 percent [6 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 30 percent]. The bank's borrower distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 8.8 [(10 points × 0.7 weight = 7.0) + (6 points × 0.3 weight = 1.8)].
</P>
<P>2. For each major product line, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the average of the geographic distribution average and the borrower distribution average (<I>i.e., product line score</I>). If a bank or savings association has no geographic distribution average for a product (due to the absence of both low-income census tracts and moderate-income census tracts in the geographic area), the product line score is the borrower distribution average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-13:</I> Based on examples A-11 and A-12 to this appendix, the bank's product line score for closed-end home mortgage loans is 6.3 [(3.8 geographic distribution average × 0.5 weight = 1.9) + (8.8 borrower distribution average × 0.5 weight = 4.4)].
</P>
<P>b. For each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines (<I>i.e., Retail Lending Test Area Score</I>). For each Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency uses a ratio of the bank's or savings association's loan originations and purchases in each major product line to its loan originations and purchases in all major product lines during the evaluation period, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12, as weights in the weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-14:</I> In addition to the product line score of 6.3 for closed-end home mortgage loans in example A-13 to this appendix, the bank has a product line score of 4.2 for small business lending in the same facility-based assessment area. Among major product lines, 60 percent of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area are closed-end home mortgages and 40 percent are small business loans based upon the combination of loan dollars and loan count. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the closed-end home mortgage product line score is 60 percent and the weight assigned to the small business product line score is 40 percent. The bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score for this facility-based assessment area is 5.46 [(6.3 closed-end home mortgage loan product line score × 0.6 weight = 3.78) + (4.2 small business loan product line score × 0.4 weight = 1.68)].
</P>
<P>c. The appropriate Federal banking agency then develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the Retail Lending Test Area Score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Recommended


<br/>conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test area score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-15:</I> Based on example A-14 to this appendix, the bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score is associated with a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion, so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for this facility-based assessment area is “Low Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>d. Once a recommended conclusion is determined for a Retail Lending Test Area, the performance context information provided in § 25.21(d) and the additional factors provided in § 25.22(g) inform the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of the Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area. The agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency develops the Retail Lending Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The appropriate Federal banking agency translates Retail Lending Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and as applicable, the outside retail lending area into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the weighted average of Retail Lending Test Area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution (<I>i.e., performance score for the Retail Lending Test</I>). For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 25.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers all of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas and, as applicable, the bank's or savings association's outside retail lending area. Each Retail Lending Test Area performance score is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank or savings association in counties in the Retail Lending Test Area for that year. For a bank or savings association that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank or savings association in the Retail Lending Test Area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's loans in the Retail Lending Test Area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in the Retail Lending Test Area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>c. The appropriate Federal banking agency develops a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Retail Lending Test for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. The agency considers relevant performance context information provided in § 25.21(d) to inform the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of the bank's or savings association's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-16:</I> A large bank operates in one State only, and has two facility-based assessment areas and one retail lending assessment area in that state and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as it is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 75 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (based on dollar amount) and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12). The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2) is associated with 15 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 20 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12). The bank received a “Low Satisfactory” (6 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>iii. The Retail lending assessment area is associated with 8 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 68 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12). The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>iv. The bank's outside retail lending area, is associated with 2 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 2 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 25.12). The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For facility-based assessment area 1: weight = 42.5 percent [(75 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For facility-based assessment area 2: weight = 17.5 percent [(15 percent of deposits + 20 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>iii. For the retail lending assessment area: weight = 38 percent [(8 percent of deposits + 68 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iv. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 2 percent [(2 percent of deposits + 2 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-16, the bank's Retail Lending Test performance score for the institution is 6.3 [(0.425 weight × 3 points in facility-based assessment area 1) + (0.175 weight × 6 points in facility-based assessment area 2) + (0.38 weight × 10 points in retail lending assessment area) + (0.02 weight × 7 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 6.3 corresponds with the conclusion category “Low Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “Low Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 25.21(d) may inform the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-17:</I> An intermediate bank operates in a single State, has two facility-based assessment areas, and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as automobile lending is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 60 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 30 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2 is) associated with 40 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2; and
</P>
<P>iii. The bank's outside retail lending area is associated with 0 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (the bank did not voluntarily collect and maintain depositor location data, so all deposits in the bank are attributed to its branches within facility-based assessment areas) and 60 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For FBAA-1: weight = 45 percent [(60 percent of deposits + 30 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For FBAA-2: weight = 25 percent [(40 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iii. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 30 percent [(0 percent of deposits + 60 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-17, the bank's recommended Retail Lending Test performance score at the institution level is 7.2 [(0.45 weight × 10 points in FBAA-1) + (0.25 weight × 7 points in FBAA-2) + (0.3 weight × 3 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 7.2 corresponds with the conclusion category “High Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “High Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 25.21(d) may inform the appropriate Federal banking agency's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 25—Calculations for the Community Development Tests
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 25.24 through 25.26 and 25.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Weighting of Conclusions
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</HD1>
<P>For purposes of the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 and Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency identifies the community development loans and community development investments included in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks and the deposits or assets included in the denominator of the metrics and benchmarks, as applicable, pursuant to paragraph I.a of this appendix. The appropriate Federal banking agency determines whether to include a community development loan or community development investment in the numerator for a particular metric or benchmark pursuant to the allocation provisions in paragraph I.b of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Community development loans and community development investments, deposits, and assets included in the community development financing metrics and benchmarks—in general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the community development financing metrics and benchmarks in §§ 25.24 and 25.26 using community development loans and community development investments and deposits or assets, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Numerator</I>—i. <I>Community development loans and community development investments considered.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency includes community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by a depository institution or attributed to a depository institution pursuant to § 25.21(b) and (c) (<I>e.g.,</I> an affiliate community development loan) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments by summing the dollar volume of the following community development loans and community development investments for each calendar year in an evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments</I>):
</P>
<P>A. The dollar volume of all community development loans originated or purchased and community development investments made, including legally binding commitments to extend credit or legally binding commitments to invest,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in that calendar year;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The dollar volume of a legally binding commitment to extend credit or legally binding commitment to invest in any given year is: (1) the full dollar volume committed; or (2) if drawn upon, the combined dollar volume of the outstanding commitment and any drawn portion of the commitment.</P></FTNT>
<P>B. The dollar volume of any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed and in an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>C. The outstanding dollar volume of community development loans originated or purchased in previous calendar years and community development investments made in previous calendar years, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan or investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet; and
</P>
<P>D. The outstanding dollar volume, less any increase reported in paragraph I.a.1.B of this appendix in the same calendar year, of a community development loan the depository institution refinanced or renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan remains on the depository institution's balance sheet, and an existing community development investment renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of the investment, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Community development loan and community development investment allocation.</I> To calculate the metrics and benchmarks provided in §§ 25.24 and 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency includes all community development loans and community development investments that are allocated to the specific facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, respectively, in the numerator for the metric and benchmarks applicable to that geographic area. <I>See</I> paragraph I.b of this appendix for the community development financing allocation provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Denominator.</I> i. <I>Annual dollar volume of deposits.</I> For purposes of metrics and benchmarks in § 25.24, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates an annual dollar volume of deposits in a depository institution that is specific to each metric or benchmark for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of deposits</I>). For a depository institution that collects, maintains, and reports deposits data as provided in § 25.42 or 12 CFR 228.42 or 345.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the annual average daily balance of deposits in the depository institution as provided in statements (<I>e.g.,</I> monthly or quarterly statements) based on the deposit location. For a depository institution that does not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 25.42 or 12 CFR 228.42 or 345.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the deposits assigned to each facility pursuant to the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Annual dollar volume of assets.</I> For purposes of the metrics and benchmarks in § 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency calculates an annual dollar volume of assets for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., the annual dollar volume of assets</I>). The annual dollar volume of assets is calculated by averaging the assets for each quarter end in the calendar year.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Allocation of community development loans and community development investments.</I> 1. <I>In general.</I> For the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers community development loans and community development investments in the evaluation of a bank's or savings association's performance in a facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, based on the data provided by the bank or savings association pursuant to § __.42(a)(5)(ii)(E) and the specific location, if available, pursuant to § 25.42(a)(5)(ii)(D). As appropriate, the appropriate Federal banking agency may also consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>2. A bank or savings association may allocate a community development loan or community development investment as follows:
</P>
<P>i. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves only one county, and not any areas beyond that one county, would have the full dollar amount of the activity allocated to that county.
</P>
<P>ii. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves multiple counties, a State, a multistate MSA, multiple States, multiple multistate MSAs, or the nationwide area is allocated according to either specific documentation that the bank or savings association can provide regarding the dollar amount allocated to each county or based on the geographic scope of the activity, as follows:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Allocation approach if specific documentation is available.</I> A bank or savings association may allocate a community development loan or community development investment or portion of a loan or investment based on documentation that specifies the appropriate dollar volume to assign to each county, such as specific addresses and dollar volumes associated with each address, or other information that indicates the specific dollar volume of the loan or investment that benefits or serves each county.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Allocation approach based on geographic scope of a community development loan or community development investment.</I>
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In the absence of specific documentation, the appropriate Federal banking agency will allocate a community development loan or community development investment based on the geographic scope of the loan or investment as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the purposes of allocating community development loans and community development investments, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers low- or moderate-income families to be located in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, consistent with § 25.28(c).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>1.</I> Allocate at the county level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one county;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Allocate at the county level based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each county for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of less than an entire State or multistate MSA;
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one or more State(s) or multistate MSA(s), but not the entire nation; and
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Allocate at the nationwide area level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire Nation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix B—Community Development Loan or Community Development Investment Allocation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach if specific documentation is available
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach based on geographic scope of activity
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple counties that are part of one State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties in proportions equivalent to the distribution of low- and moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple States or multistate MSAs, less than the entire nation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the States or multistate MSAs, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nationwide area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to nationwide area.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics, benchmarks, and combination of performance scores for Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric in § 25.24(b)(1) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area are $35,000 (year 1), $25,000 (year 2), and $40,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area is therefore $100,000. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area are $3.1 million (year 1), $3.3 million (year 2), and $3.6 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment is therefore $10 million. For the evaluation period, the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric would be $100,000 divided by $10 million, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.072.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(b)(2)(i) for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-2:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions are $3.25 million (year 1), $3 million (year 2), and $3.75 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions are $330 million (year 1), $330 million (year 2), and $340 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 billion. For the evaluation period, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area would be $10 million divided by $1 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.073.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates an MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each MSA in which the bank or savings association has a facility-based assessment area in the MSA. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each nonmetropolitan area in which the bank or savings association has a facility-based assessment area in the nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>1. <I>MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(b)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-3:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $98 billion (year 1), $100 billion (year 2), and $102 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $300 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $14.9 trillion (year 1), $15 trillion (year 2), and $15.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $45 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Metropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $300 billion divided by $45 trillion, or 0.007 (equivalently, 0.7 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.074.gif"/>
<P>2. <I>Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(b)(2)(ii)(B) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-4:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $3 billion (year 1), $3.2 billion (year 2), and $3.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in all large depository institutions are $330 billion (year 1), $334 billion (year 2), and $336 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $10 billion divided by $1 trillion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.075.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric in § 25.24(c)(2)(i) for each State in which the bank or savings association has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State (which includes all activities within the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the State) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits located in a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraphs II.d.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State are $15 million (year 1), $17 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by a bank is therefore $50 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State are $1.5 billion (year 1), $1.6 billion (year 2), and $1.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State is therefore $5 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric would be $50 million divided by $5 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.076.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the State Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(c)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-6:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions are $2.3 billion (year 1), $2.5 billion (year 2), and $2.7 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $7.5 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions are $160 billion (year 1), $170 billion (year 2), and $170 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions is therefore $500 billion. For the evaluation period, the State Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $7.5 billion divided by $500 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.077.gif"/>
<P>f. <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(c)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the applicable Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a State for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-7:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas (FBAAs) in a State (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The appropriate Federal banking agency does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of number of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.078.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.079.gif"/>
<P>• Calculating weights for FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.080.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.081.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights for FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>o The bank's State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight for FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (Weight for FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>g. <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric in § 25.24(d)(2)(i) for each multistate MSA in which the bank or savings association has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA (which includes all activities within the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the multistate MSA) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.g.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.g.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA are $47 million (year 1), $51 million (year 2), and $52 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by the bank is therefore $150 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA are $3.1 billion (year 1), $3.3 billion (year 2), and $3.6 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA is therefore $10 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric would be $150 million divided by $10 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.082.gif"/>
<P>h. <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(d)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.h.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.h.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-9:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions are $135 million (year 1), $140 million (year 2), and $145 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $420 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions are $4 billion (year 1), $5 billion (year 2), and $6 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions is therefore $15 billion. For the evaluation period, the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $420 million divided by $15 billion, or 0.028 (equivalently, 2.8 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.083.gif"/>
<P>i. <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(c)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) by averaging all of the bank's or savings association's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a multistate MSA for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-10:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas in a multistate MSA (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The appropriate Federal banking agency does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.084.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.085.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.086.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.087.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>j. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric in § 25.24(e)(2)(i) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.j.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.j.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-11:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $60 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $75 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $2.5 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.088.gif"/>
<P>k. <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(e)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.k.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.k.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-12:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $100 billion (year 1), $103 billion (year 2), and $107 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $310 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $15.2 trillion (year 1), $15.3 trillion (year 2), and $15.5 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is $46 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $310 billion divided by $46 trillion, or 0.0067 (equivalently, 0.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.089.gif"/>
<P>l. <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 25.24(e)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the bank's or savings association's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in the nationwide area, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-13:</I> The bank has three facility-based assessment areas in the nationwide area (FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3).
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 40 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-3, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 4.0 percent. FBAA-3 represents 10 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 15 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 5 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-1 is 50 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.090.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 55 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.091.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.092.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.093.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-3:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.094.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.095.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.55 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1(0.55) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (2%)) + (Weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark FBAA-2 (3%)) + (Weight of FBAA-3 (0.10) × Benchmark in FBAA-3 (4%)) = Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (2.55%)
</P>
<P>m. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric in § 25.24(e)(2)(iii) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.m.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.m.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-14:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $600 million (year 1), $680 million (year 2), and $720 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $2 billion. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $24 billion (year 1), $27 billion (year 2), and $29 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $80 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $2 billion divided by $80 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.096.gif"/>
<P>n. <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark in § 25.24(e)(2)(iv) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of deposits in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.n.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.n.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-15:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $350 billion (year 1), $360 billion (year 2), and $390 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $1.1 trillion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $21.9 trillion (year 1), $22 trillion (year 2), and $22.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $66 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $1.1 trillion divided by $66 trillion, or 0.0167 (equivalently, 1.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.097.gif"/>
<P>o. <I>Weighting of benchmarks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a weighted average of the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for a bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 25.28(c). For the weighted average for the nationwide area, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for all of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas. Each Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.o.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.o.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank or savings association in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank or savings association that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>p. <I>Combined score for facility-based assessment area conclusions and the metrics and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> 1. As described in § 25.24(c) through (e), the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score calculated in paragraph p.2.iii of this appendix for a bank's or savings association's performance under the Community Development Financing Test in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. The appropriate Federal banking agency bases a Community Development Financing Test combined performance score on the following:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Component one—Weighted average of the bank's or savings association's performance scores corresponding to facility-based assessment area conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency derives a performance score based on a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to conclusions for facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Component two— Bank and savings association score for metric and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines a performance score (as shown in paragraph IV.a of this appendix) corresponding to a conclusion category by considering the relevant metric and benchmarks and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments. In the nationwide area, for large banks or savings associations that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the appropriate Federal banking agency also considers whether the bank's or savings association's performance under the Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, compared to the Community Development Investment Benchmark, contributes positively to the bank's or savings association's Community Development Financing Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Combined score.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency associates the performance score calculated pursuant to this paragraph II.p.2.iii with a conclusion category. The appropriate Federal banking agency derives the combined performance score corresponding to a conclusion category as follows:
</P>
<P>A. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the average of two components to determine weighting:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The percentage, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, of the bank's or savings association's total originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the bank's or savings association's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The percentage of the total dollar volume of deposits in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the deposits in the bank or savings association in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period. For purposes of this paragraph II.p.2.iii.A.<I>2,</I> “deposits” excludes deposits reported under § 25.42(b)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>B. If the average is:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> At least 80 percent, then component one receives a 50 percent weight and component two receives a 50 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> At least 60 percent but less than 80 percent, then component one receives a 40 percent weight and component two receives a 60 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> At least 40 percent but less than 60 percent, then component one receives a 30 percent weight and component two receives a 70 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> At least 20 percent but less than 40 percent, then component one receives a 20 percent weight and component two receives an 80 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Below 20 percent, then component one receives a 10 percent weight and component two receives a 90 percent weight.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix B—Component Weights for Combined Performance Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average of the percentage of deposits and percentage of loans
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on


<br/>component 1

<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on


<br/>component 2

<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 20% but less than 40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 20%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example B-16:</I>
</P>
<P>• Assume that the weighted average of the bank's performance scores corresponding to its facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide is 7.5. Assume further that the bank score for the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide is 6.
</P>
<P>• Assume further that 95 percent of the deposits in the bank and 75 percent of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile loans (calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12) during the evaluation period are associated with its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>• The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns weights for component one and component two based on the share of deposits in the bank and the share of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, associated with its facility-based assessment areas: (95 percent of deposits + 75 percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count)/2 = 85 percent, which is between 80 percent and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>• Thus, the weighted average of the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions in the nationwide area (component one—paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent, and the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in the nationwide area (component two—paragraph II.p.2.ii of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>• Using the point values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion at the institution level is a “High Satisfactory”: (0.50 weight × 7.5 points for the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide) + (0.50 weight × 6 points for the bank score for metrics and benchmarks analysis and review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide) results in a performance score of 6.75, which is closest to the point value (7) associated with “High Satisfactory.”
</P>
<HD1>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics and benchmarks for Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric provided in § 25.26 by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of the assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations or savings associations pursuant to § 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 228.26(a) or 345.26(a) reported pursuant to § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations or savings associations pursuant to § 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 228.26(a) or 345.26(a) that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to  § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to § 25.42(b) or 12 CFR 228.42(b) or 345.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Limited Purpose Bank and savings association Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, provided in § 25.26(f)(2)(iii), for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-17:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $62 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $73 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank are $2.4 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank over the evaluation period is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.098.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark, provided in § 25.26(f)(2)(iv), by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-18:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $35 billion (year 1), $37 million (year 2), and $38 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $110 billion. The annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $1.8 trillion (year 1), $2.1 trillion (year 2), and $2.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $6 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $110 billion divided by $6 trillion, or 0.0183 (equivalently, 1.83 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.099.gif"/>
<HD1>IV. Weighting of Conclusions
</HD1>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates component one of the combined performance score, as set forth in paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix, for the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24 and a performance score for the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25 in each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area, as applicable, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The appropriate Federal banking agency translates the Community Development Financing Test and the Community Development Services Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 25.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers all of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank or savings association in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank or savings association that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 25—Performance Test Conclusions
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Performance test conclusions, in general.</I> For a bank or savings association evaluated under, as applicable, the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 25.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations in § 25.26, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for the bank's or savings association's CRA performance pursuant to these tests and this appendix. In assigning conclusions, the appropriate Federal banking agency may consider performance context information as provided in § 25.21(d).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns Retail Lending Test conclusions for each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Retail Lending Test Area.</I> For each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion and corresponding performance score pursuant to § 25.22(h)(1), as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns the Retail Lending Test conclusions for a bank's or savings association's performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, as set forth in section VIII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Retail Services and Products Test conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution. For a bank or savings association that does not operate any branches, a main office described in § 25.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns the bank's or savings association's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion as the Retail Services and Product Test conclusion for the State or multistate MSA, as applicable.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for a bank's or savings association's performance in a facility-based assessment area based on an evaluation of the bank's or savings association's branch availability and services and remote services facilities availability, if applicable, pursuant to § 25.23(b)(2) and (3), respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency develops the Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this paragraph c.2.
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency translates Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 25.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers all of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>A. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's deposits in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Dividing the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix by the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>2</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank or savings association that reports deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank or savings association in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank or savings association that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 25.42(b)(3), the bank's or savings association's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank or savings association in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>B. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's or savings association's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 25.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The bank's or savings association's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank or savings association, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. For a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the weighted average for the State or multistate MSA calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> the performance score for the Retail Services and Products Test for the State or multistate MSA).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the retail services and products test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>iv. For the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion based on the bank's or savings association's combined retail banking services conclusion, developed pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix, and an evaluation of the bank's or savings association's retail banking products, pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.B of this appendix. The appropriate Federal banking agency translates the Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for the institution into a numerical performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A. <I>Combined retail banking services conclusion. 1. In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's retail banking services, as applicable, and assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based the weighted average for the institution calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix and a digital and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix. For a large bank or savings association without branches, a main office described in § 25.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based only on a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion based on an evaluation of a bank's or savings association's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 25.23(b)(4).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Retail banking products evaluation.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's retail banking products offered in the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<P><I>1. Credit products and programs.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance regarding its credit products and programs pursuant to § 25.23(c)(2) and determines whether the bank's or savings association's performance contributes positively to the bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Deposit products.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's performance regarding its deposit products pursuant to § 25.23(c)(3), as applicable, and determines whether the bank's or savings association's performance contributes positively to the bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the combined retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>3. Impact of retail banking products on Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.</I> The bank's or savings association's retail banking products evaluated pursuant to § 25.23(c) may positively impact the bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion. The bank's or savings association's lack of responsive retail banking products does not adversely affect the bank's or savings association's Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusion.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Community Development Financing Test conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Community Development Financing Test conclusion and corresponding performance score based on the metric and benchmarks as provided in § 25.24 and a review of the impact and responsiveness of a bank's or savings association's activities as provided in § 25.15 as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for a bank's or savings association's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution as set forth in paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Community Development Services Test conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns Community Development Services Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion based on the extent to which a bank or savings association provided community development services, considering the factors in § 25.25(b). The appropriate Federal banking agency translates the conclusion for each facility-based assessment area into a numerical performance score as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and the nationwide area, the appropriate Federal banking agency develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the performance test conclusions pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part. The resulting number is the Community Development Services Test performance score for a State, multistate MSA, or the institution. Subject to paragraph e.2.ii of this appendix, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Community Development Services Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Community Development Services Test as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the community


<br/>development services test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust upwards the Community Development Services Test conclusion assigned under paragraph e.2.i of this appendix, based on Community Development Services Test activities performed outside of facility-based assessment areas as provided in § 25.19. If there is no upward adjustment, the performance score used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part is the Community Development Services Test performance score discussed in paragraph e.2.i of this appendix. If there is an upward adjustment, the appropriate Federal banking agency translates the Community Development Services Test conclusion into a numerical performance score, which will be used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>f. <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns one of the following Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusions based on consideration of the dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area over the evaluation period, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's activities in the facility-based assessment area as provided in § 25.15: “Outstanding”; “High Satisfactory”; “Low Satisfactory”; “Needs to Improve”; or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>State or multistate MSA.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment area performance test conclusions in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P>ii. The dollar volume of a bank's or savings association's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSAs, as applicable, over the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P>iii. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's activities in the State or multistate MSAs, as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Institution.</I> For the institution, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's or savings association's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency's comparison of the bank's or savings association's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to both the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark and the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark;
</P>
<P>iii. The appropriate Federal banking agency's comparison of the bank's or savings association's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark; and
</P>
<P>iv. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's activities in a nationwide area as provided in § 25.15.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Strategic Plan conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a bank or savings association that operates under an approved plan in facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending areas, State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions consistent with the methodology set forth by the bank or savings association in its plan. For elements of the plan that correspond to performance tests that would apply to the bank or savings association in the absence of an approved plan, the plan should include a conclusion methodology that is generally consistent with paragraphs b through f of this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 25—Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Ratings, in general.</I> In assigning a rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, pursuant to §§ 25.21 and 25.28. The agency calculates an overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the bank's or savings association's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution that is nearest to the overall performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 25.28(d) and the bank's or savings association's past performance pursuant to § 25.28(e).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Large bank or savings association ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the appropriate Federal banking agency combines a large bank's or savings association's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance under the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 25.25 to determine the bank's or savings association's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The appropriate Federal banking agency multiplies each of these weights by the bank's or savings association's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance score.
</P>
<P>2. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example D-1:</I> A large bank received the following performance scores and conclusions in a State:
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Lending Test, the bank received a 7.3 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “High Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Services and Products Test, the bank received a 6.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Financing Test, the bank received a 5.7 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;” and
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Services Test, the bank received a 3.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Needs to Improve.”
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Lending Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4);
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Services and Products Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1);
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Financing Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4); and
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Services Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1).
</P>
<P><I>State Performance Score:</I> Based on the illustration in this example D-1, the bank's State performance score is 6.1.
</P>
<FP-2>(0.4 weight × 7.3 performance score on the Retail Lending Test = 2.92) + (0.1 weight × 6.0 performance score on the Retail Services and Products Test = 0.6) + (0.4 weight × 5.7 performance score on the Community Development Financing Test = 2.28) + (0.1 weight × 3.0 performance score on the Community Development Services Test = 0.3).
</FP-2>
<P><I>State Rating:</I> A State performance score of 6.1 is greater than 4.5 but less than 8.5, resulting in a rating of “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>c. <I>Intermediate bank or savings association ratings.</I> 1. <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the appropriate Federal banking agency combines an intermediate bank's or savings association's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution performance under the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test to determine the bank's or savings association's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Community Development Financing Test (50 percent). The appropriate Federal banking agency multiplies each of these weights by the bank's or savings association's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust an intermediate bank's or savings association's institution rating where the bank or savings association has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 25.30(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2).</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency combines an intermediate bank's or savings association's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution conclusions under the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30(a)(2) to determine the bank's or savings association's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test (50 percent). The appropriate Federal banking agency multiplies each of these weights by the bank's or savings association's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score. For purposes of this paragraph c.2.i, the performance score for the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test corresponds to the conclusion assigned, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust an intermediate bank's or savings association's institution rating where the bank or savings association has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 25.30(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Small bank or savings association ratings.</I> 1. <I>Ratings for small banks or savings associations that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency determines a small bank's or savings association's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Retail Lending Test conclusions for the State, multistate MSA or institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a small bank's or savings association's institution rating where the bank or savings association has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 25.29(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ratings for small banks or savings associations evaluated under the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test pursuant to § 25.29(a)(2).</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating for small banks or savings associations evaluated under the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test pursuant to § 25.29(a)(2) as provided in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Limited purpose banks or savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency determines a limited purpose bank's or savings association's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks and Savings Associations conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or the institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>1. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, respectively, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a limited purpose bank's or savings association's institution rating where the bank or savings association has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 25.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>f. <I>Ratings for banks or savings associations operating under an approved strategic plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the performance of a bank or savings association operating under an approved plan consistent with the rating methodology that is specified in the plan pursuant to § 25.27(g)(6). The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating according to the category assigned under the rating methodology specified in the plan: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>g. <I>Minimum performance test conclusion requirements.</I> 1. <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or savings association or a large bank or savings association must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion at, respectively, the State, multistate MSA, or institution level to receive an overall State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum of “low satisfactory” overall conclusion for 60 percent of facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> i. Except as provided in § 25.51(e), a large bank or savings association with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State, multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State, multistate MSA, or for the institution unless the bank or savings association received an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Overall conclusion in facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For purposes of the requirement in paragraph g.2 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>A. The appropriate Federal banking agency calculates an overall conclusion in a facility-based assessment area by combining a large bank's or savings association's performance scores for its conclusions in the facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 25.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 25.25.
</P>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The appropriate Federal banking agency multiplies each of these weights by the bank's or savings association's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a facility-based assessment area performance score.
</P>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. An overall conclusion in a retail lending assessment area is the retail lending assessment area conclusion assigned pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 as provided in appendix C to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 25—Small Bank and Savings Association and Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Performance Evaluation Conclusions and Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Small banks or savings associations evaluated under the small bank or savings association performance evaluation.</I> 1. <I>Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test conclusions.</I> Unless a small bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for a small bank's or savings association's performance pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test in § 25.29(a)(2) for each facility-based assessment area, in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test conclusion.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a small bank's or savings association's performance pursuant to the Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test a conclusion of “Satisfactory” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>A. A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's or savings association's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, and community development investments;
</P>
<P>B. A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>C. A distribution of retail lending to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>D. A reasonable geographic distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels in the bank's or savings association's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>E. A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's or savings association's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test conclusion.</I> A small bank or savings association that meets each of the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion under this paragraph a.1.ii. and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending evaluation conclusion of “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>iii. “<I>Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test conclusions.</I> A small bank or savings association may also receive a lending evaluation conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small bank or savings association ratings.</I> Unless a small bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22, the appropriate Federal banking agency determines a small bank's or savings association's rating for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution based on its Small Bank and Savings Association Lending Test conclusions at the State, multistate MSA, and institution level, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating based on the lending evaluation conclusion according to the category of the conclusion assigned: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>ii. The appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust a small bank's or savings association's institution rating where the bank or savings association has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 25.29(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>iii. The appropriate Federal banking agency also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 25.28(d) and the bank's or savings association's past performance pursuant to § 25.28(e).
</P>
<P>3. The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating for small banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 25.22 as provided in appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Intermediate banks or savings associations evaluated pursuant to the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30.</I> Unless an intermediate bank or savings association opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 25.24, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns conclusions for an intermediate bank's or savings association's performance pursuant to the Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test in § 25.30 for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 25.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>1. <I>Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test conclusions.</I> i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns an intermediate bank's or savings association's community development performance a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank or savings association demonstrates adequate responsiveness, and a “High Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank or savings association demonstrates good responsiveness, to the community development needs of its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's or savings association's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns an intermediate bank's or savings association's community development performance an “Outstanding” conclusion if the bank or savings association demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's or savings association's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>“Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Intermediate Bank and Savings Association Community Development Test conclusions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns an intermediate bank's or savings association's community development performance a “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” conclusion depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate bank or savings association ratings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates an intermediate bank's or savings association's performance as provided in appendix D to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7165, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 25—CRA Notice
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank, one branch office in each State.
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the [Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) or Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as appropriate] evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]; and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] for the next two quarters. This list is available through the [OCC's or FDIC's, as appropriate] website at [<I>OCC.gov</I> or <I>FDIC.gov,</I> as appropriate].
</P>
<P>You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank), (title of responsible official), to the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate, (address)]. You may also submit comments electronically to the [OCC at <I>CRAComments@occ.treas.gov</I> or FDIC through the FDIC's website at <I>FDIC.gov/regulations/cra</I>, as appropriate]. Your written comments, together with any response by us, will be considered by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate]. You may also request from the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate] an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]
</P>
<P>(b) Notice for branch offices.
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the [Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) or Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as appropriate] evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate], and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us:
</P>
<P>(1) A map showing the facility-based assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] evaluates our CRA performance in this community;
</P>
<P>(2) Information about our branches in this facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of services we provide at those locations;
</P>
<P>(4) Data on our lending performance in this facility-based assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this facility-based assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire bank is available on our website (website address) and at (name of office located in State), located at (address).]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] for the next two quarters. This list is available through the [OCC's or FDIC's, as appropriate] website at [<I>OCC.gov</I> or <I>FDIC.gov,</I> as appropriate].
</P>
<P>You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank), (title of responsible official), to the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate (address)]. You may also submit comments electronically to the [OCC at <I>CRAComments@occ.treas.gov</I> or FDIC through the FDIC's website at <I>FDIC.gov/regulations/cra</I>, as appropriate]. Your written comment, together with any response by us, will be considered by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate]. You may also request from the [OCC or FDIC Regional Director, as appropriate] an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7171, Feb. 1, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.22.6.27.6.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 25—Community Reinvestment Act and Interstate Deposit Production Regulations
</HEAD>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7172, Feb. 1, 2024, appendix G to part 25 was added, effective until Jan. 1, 2031.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The content of this appendix reproduces part 25 implementing the Community Reinvestment Act as of March 31, 2024. Cross-references to CFR parts (as well as to included sections, subparts, and appendices) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix and the CFR as of March 31, 2024.</P></NOTE>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—General</B>


</HD3>
<P><B>§ 25.11 Authority, purposes, and scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and OMB control number</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> The authority for subparts A, B, C, D, and E is 12 U.S.C. 21, 22, 26, 27, 30, 36, 93a, 161, 215, 215a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1814, 1816, 1828(c), 1835a, 2901 through 2908, 3101 through 3111, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OMB control number.</I> The information collection requirements contained in this part were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB control number 1557-0160.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> In enacting the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Congress required each appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency to assess an institution's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the institution is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the institution. This part is intended to carry out the purposes of the CRA by:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing the framework and criteria by which the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as appropriate, assesses a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing that the OCC takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Subparts A, B, C, and D, and Appendices A and B, apply to all banks and savings associations except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section. Subpart E only applies to banks.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to subparts A, B, C, and D, and Appendices A and B—
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC has the authority to prescribe these regulations for national banks, Federal savings associations, and State savings associations and has the authority to enforce these regulations for national banks and Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC has the authority to enforce these regulations for State savings associations.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to subparts A, B, C, and D, and appendix A, references to appropriate Federal banking agency will mean the OCC when the institution is a national bank or Federal savings association and the FDIC when the institution is a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal branches and agencies.</I> (i) This part applies to all insured Federal branches and to any Federal branch that is uninsured that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, this part does not apply to Federal branches that are uninsured, limited Federal branches, or Federal agencies, as those terms are defined in part 28 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain special purpose banks and savings associations.</I> This part does not apply to special purpose banks or special purpose savings associations that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks or savings associations include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), and banks or savings associations that engage only in one or more of the following activities: Providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks or savings associations, trust companies, or clearing agents.


</P>
<P><B>§ 25.12 Definitions.</B>


</P>
<P>For purposes of subparts A, B, C, and D, and appendices A and B, of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term “control” has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA, if a person or geography is located in an MSA, or for the metropolitan division, if a person or geography is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a person or geography is located outside an MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated in accordance with § 25.41.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Automated teller machine (ATM)</I> means an automated, unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, the bank or savings association at which deposits are received, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Bank or savings association</I> means, except as provided in § 25.11(c), a national bank (including a Federal branch as defined in part 28 of this chapter) with Federally insured deposits or a savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank and savings association</I> means, except as provided in § 25.11(c), a national bank (including a Federal branch as defined in part 28 of this chapter) with Federally insured deposits and a savings association.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility authorized as a branch, whether shared or unshared, including, for example, a mini-branch in a grocery store or a branch operated in conjunction with any other local business or nonprofit organization.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community development</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Affordable housing (including multifamily rental housing) for low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Community services targeted to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) Activities that promote economic development by financing businesses or farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the Small Business Administration's Development Company or Small Business Investment Company programs (13 CFR 121.301) or have gross annual revenues of $1 million or less; or
</P>
<P>(4) Activities that revitalize or stabilize—
</P>
<P>(i) Low-or moderate-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated disaster areas; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income geographies designated by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, FDIC, and the OCC, based on—
</P>
<P>(A) Rates of poverty, unemployment, and population loss; or
</P>
<P>(B) Population size, density, and dispersion. Activities revitalize and stabilize geographies designated based on population size, density, and dispersion if they help to meet essential community needs, including needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Community development loan</I> means a loan that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development; and
</P>
<P>(2) Except in the case of a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not been reported or collected by the bank or savings association or an affiliate for consideration in the bank's or savings association's assessment as a home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loan, unless the loan is for a multifamily dwelling (as defined in § 1003.2(n) of this title); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefits the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area(s) that includes the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development service</I> means a service that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development;
</P>
<P>(2) Is related to the provision of financial services; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has not been considered in the evaluation of the bank's or savings association's retail banking services under § 25.24(d).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures. A consumer loan does not include a home mortgage, small business, or small farm loan. Consumer loans include the following categories of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Motor vehicle loan,</I> which is a consumer loan extended for the purchase of and secured by a motor vehicle;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> which is a line of credit for household, family, or other personal expenditures that is accessed by a borrower's use of a “credit card,” as this term is defined in § 1026.2 of this title;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other secured consumer loan,</I> which is a secured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other unsecured consumer loan,</I> which is an unsecured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Geography</I> means a census tract delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census in the most recent decennial census.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit as these terms are defined under § 1003.2 of this title, and that is not an excluded transaction under § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) of this title.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Income level</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is less than 50 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is at least 50 and less than 80 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is at least 80 and less than 120 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means an individual income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income, or a median family income that is 120 percent or more, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Limited purpose bank</I> or savings association means a bank or savings association that offers only a narrow product line (such as credit card or motor vehicle loans) to a regional or broader market and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank or savings association is in effect, in accordance with § 25.25(b).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the geography where the borrower resides;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan is located in the geography where the property to which the loan relates is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business or small farm loan is located in the geography where the main business facility or farm is located or where the loan proceeds otherwise will be applied, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Loan production office</I> means a staffed facility, other than a branch, that is open to the public and that provides lending-related services, such as loan information and applications.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Metropolitan division</I> means a metropolitan division as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Qualified investment</I> means a lawful investment, deposit, membership share, or grant that has as its primary purpose community development.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Small bank or savings association</I>—(1) <I>Definition. Small bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association that, as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years, had assets of less than $1.322 billion. <I>Intermediate small bank or savings association</I> means a small bank or savings association with assets of at least $330 million as of December 31 of both of the prior two calendar years and less than $1.322 billion as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjustment.</I> The dollar figures in paragraph (u)(1) of this section shall be adjusted annually and published by the appropriate Federal banking agency, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each twelve-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Small business loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Small farm loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small farms” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Wholesale bank or savings association</I> means a bank or savings association that is not in the business of extending home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loans to retail customers, and for which a designation as a wholesale bank or savings association is in effect, in accordance with § 25.25(b).


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Standards for Assessing Performance</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 25.21 Performance tests, standards, and ratings, in general.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance tests and standards.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assesses the CRA performance of a bank or savings association in an examination as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency applies the lending, investment, and service tests, as provided in §§ 25.22 through 25.24, in evaluating the performance of a bank or savings association, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (3), and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks and savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency applies the community development test for a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association, as provided in § 25.25, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small bank and savings association performance standards.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency applies the small bank or savings association performance standards as provided in § 25.26 in evaluating the performance of a small bank or savings association or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year, unless the bank or savings association elects to be assessed as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), or (4) of this section. The bank or savings association may elect to be assessed as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if it collects and reports the data required for other banks or savings associations under § 25.42.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Strategic plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the performance of a bank or savings association under a strategic plan if the bank or savings association submits, and the appropriate Federal banking agency approves, a strategic plan as provided in § 25.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance context.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency applies the tests and standards in paragraph (a) of this section and also considers whether to approve a proposed strategic plan in the context of:
</P>
<P>(1) Demographic data on median income levels, distribution of household income, nature of housing stock, housing costs, and other relevant data pertaining to a bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Any information about lending, investment, and service opportunities in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) maintained by the bank or savings association or obtained from community organizations, state, local, and tribal governments, economic development agencies, or other sources;
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's or savings association's product offerings and business strategy as determined from data provided by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(4) Institutional capacity and constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank or savings association, the economic climate (national, regional, and local), safety and soundness limitations, and any other factors that significantly affect the bank's or savings association's ability to provide lending, investments, or services in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's or savings association's past performance and the performance of similarly situated lenders;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's or savings association's public file, as described in § 25.43, and any written comments about the bank's or savings association's CRA performance submitted to the bank or savings association or the appropriate Federal banking agency; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assigned ratings.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns to a bank or savings association one of the following four ratings pursuant to § 25.28 and appendix A of this part: “outstanding”; “satisfactory”; “needs to improve”; or “substantial noncompliance” as provided in 12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2). The rating assigned by the appropriate Federal banking agency reflects the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> This part and the CRA do not require a bank or savings association to make loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound operations. To the contrary, the appropriate Federal banking agency anticipates banks and savings associations can meet the standards of this part with safe and sound loans, investments, and services on which the banks and savings associations expect to make a profit. Banks and savings associations are permitted and encouraged to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income geographies or individuals, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a bank or savings association under this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers, as a factor, low-cost education loans originated by the bank or savings association to borrowers, particularly in its assessment area(s), who have an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income. For purposes of this paragraph, “low-cost education loans” means any education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(7)) (including a loan under a State or local education loan program), originated by the bank or savings association for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as that term is generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002) and the implementing regulations published by the U.S. Department of Education, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a nonminority-owned and nonwomen-owned bank or savings association under this part, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers as a factor capital investment, loan participation, and other ventures undertaken by the bank or savings association in cooperation with minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions. Such activities must help meet the credit needs of local communities in which the minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions are chartered. To be considered, such activities need not also benefit the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) or the broader statewide or regional area(s) that includes the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.22 Lending test.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> (1) The lending test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through its lending activities by considering a bank's or savings association's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and community development lending. If consumer lending constitutes a substantial majority of a bank's or savings association's business, the appropriate Federal banking agency will evaluate the bank's or savings association's consumer lending in one or more of the following categories: motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured loans. In addition, at a bank's or savings association's option, the appropriate Federal banking agency will evaluate one or more categories of consumer lending, if the bank or savings association has collected and maintained, as required in § 25.42(c)(1), the data for each category that the bank or savings association elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluate.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal banking agency considers originations and purchases of loans. The appropriate Federal banking agency will also consider any other loan data the bank or savings association may choose to provide, including data on loans outstanding, commitments and letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) A bank or savings association may ask the appropriate Federal banking agency to consider loans originated or purchased by consortia in which the bank or savings association participates or by third parties in which the bank or savings association has invested only if the loans meet the definition of community development loans and only in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not consider these loans under any criterion of the lending test except the community development lending criterion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's lending performance pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending activity.</I> The number and amount of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The geographic distribution of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on the loan location, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The proportion of the bank's or savings association's lending in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) The dispersion of lending in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and amount of loans in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower characteristics.</I> The distribution, particularly in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s), of the bank's or savings association's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on borrower characteristics, including the number and amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Home mortgage loans to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small business and small farm loans by loan amount at origination; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Consumer loans, if applicable, to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Community development lending.</I> The bank's or savings association's community development lending, including the number and amount of community development loans, and their complexity and innovativeness; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Innovative or flexible lending practices.</I> The bank's or savings association's use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate lending.</I> (1) At a bank's or savings association's option, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider loans by an affiliate of the bank or savings association, if the bank or savings association provides data on the affiliate's loans pursuant to § 25.42.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal banking agency considers affiliate lending subject to the following constraints:
</P>
<P>(i) No affiliate may claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another institution claims the same loan origination or purchase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a bank or savings association elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider loans within a particular lending category made by one or more of the bank's or savings association's affiliates in a particular assessment area, the bank or savings association shall elect to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all the loans within that lending category in that particular assessment area made by all of the bank's or savings association's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agency does not consider affiliate lending in assessing a bank's or savings association's performance under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> Community development loans originated or purchased by a consortium in which the bank or savings association participates or by a third party in which the bank or savings association has invested:
</P>
<P>(1) Will be considered, at the bank's or savings association's option, if the bank or savings association reports the data pertaining to these loans under § 25.42(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(2) May be allocated among participants or investors, as they choose, for purposes of the lending test, except that no participant or investor:
</P>
<P>(i) May claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination or purchase; or
</P>
<P>(ii) May claim loans accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans originated by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.23 Investment test.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The investment test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through qualified investments that benefit its assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion.</I> Activities considered under the lending or service tests may not be considered under the investment test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate investment.</I> At a bank's or savings association's option, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider, in its assessment of a bank's or savings association's investment performance, a qualified investment made by an affiliate of the bank or savings association, if the qualified investment is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition of branch premises.</I> Donating, selling on favorable terms, or making available on a rent-free basis a branch of the bank or savings association that is located in a predominantly minority neighborhood to a minority depository institution or women's depository institution (as these terms are defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)) will be considered as a qualified investment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the investment performance of a bank or savings association pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The dollar amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness or complexity of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The responsiveness of qualified investments to credit and community development needs; and
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which the qualified investments are not routinely provided by private investors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.24 Service test.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The service test evaluates a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) by analyzing both the availability and effectiveness of a bank's or savings association's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of its community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area(s) benefitted.</I> Community development services must benefit a bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate service.</I> At a bank's or savings association's option, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider, in its assessment of a bank's or savings association's service performance, a community development service provided by an affiliate of the bank or savings association, if the community development service is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance criteria—retail banking services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the availability and effectiveness of a bank's or savings association's systems for delivering retail banking services, pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The current distribution of the bank's or savings association's branches among low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) In the context of its current distribution of the bank's or savings association's branches, the bank's or savings association's record of opening and closing branches, particularly branches located in low- or moderate-income geographies or primarily serving low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) The availability and effectiveness of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> ATMs, ATMs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank or savings association, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs) in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(4) The range of services provided in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies and the degree to which the services are tailored to meet the needs of those geographies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria—community development services.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates community development services pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the bank or savings association provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness and responsiveness of community development services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.25 Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks and savings associations.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assesses a wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under the community development test through its community development lending, qualified investments, or community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association.</I> In order to receive a designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association, a bank or savings association shall file a request, in writing, with the appropriate Federal banking agency, at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the appropriate Federal banking agency approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank or savings association requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the appropriate Federal banking agency notifies the bank or savings association that it has revoked the designation on its own initiative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the community development performance of a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans (including originations and purchases of loans and other community development loan data provided by the bank or savings association, such as data on loans outstanding, commitments, and letters of credit), qualified investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services and the extent to which the investments are not routinely provided by private investors; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's or savings association's responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indirect activities.</I> At a bank's or savings association's option, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider in its community development performance assessment:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified investments or community development services provided by an affiliate of the bank or savings association, if the investments or services are not claimed by any other institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Community development lending by affiliates, consortia and third parties, subject to the requirements and limitations in § 25.22(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefit to assessment area(s)</I>—(1) <I>Benefit inside assessment area(s).</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers all qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas within the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit outside assessment area(s).</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency considers the qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas outside the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s), if the bank or savings association has adequately addressed the needs of its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community development performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's community development performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.26 Small bank and savings association performance standards.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance criteria</I>—(1) <I>Small banks and savings associations that are not intermediate small banks or savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the record of a small bank or savings association that is not, or that was not during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank or savings association, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate small banks and savings associations.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the record of a small bank or savings association that is, or that was during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank or savings association, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending test.</I> A small bank's or savings association's lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's or savings association's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities located in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's or savings association's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(4) The geographic distribution of the bank's or savings association's loans; and
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's or savings association's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development test.</I> An intermediate small bank's or savings association's community development performance also is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(2) The number and amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the bank or savings association provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank's or savings association's responsiveness through such activities to community development lending, investment, and services needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Small bank or savings association performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates the performance of a bank or savings association evaluated under this section as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.27 Strategic plan.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will assess a bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under a strategic plan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank or savings association has submitted the plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency as provided for in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal banking agency has approved the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank or savings association has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data reporting.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's or savings association's obligation, if any, to report data as required by § 25.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of no more than five years, and any multi-year plan must include annual interim measurable goals under which the appropriate Federal banking agency will evaluate the bank's or savings association's performance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple assessment areas.</I> A bank or savings association with more than one assessment area may prepare a single plan for all of its assessment areas or one or more plans for one or more of its assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment of affiliates.</I> Affiliated institutions may prepare a joint plan if the plan provides measurable goals for each institution. Activities may be allocated among institutions at the institutions' option, provided that the same activities are not considered for more than one institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public participation in plan development.</I> Before submitting a plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency for approval, a bank or savings association shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public in its assessment area(s) covered by the plan while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Once the bank or savings association has developed a plan, formally solicit public comment on the plan for at least 30 days by publishing notice in at least one newspaper of general circulation in each assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) During the period of formal public comment, make copies of the plan available for review by the public at no cost at all offices of the bank or savings association in any assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of plan.</I> The bank or savings association shall submit its plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank or savings association shall also submit with its plan a description of its informal efforts to seek suggestions from members of the public, any written public comment received, and, if the plan was revised in light of the comment received, the initial plan as released for public comment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan content</I>—(1) <I>Measurable goals.</I> (i) A bank or savings association shall specify in its plan measurable goals for helping to meet the credit needs of each assessment area covered by the plan, particularly the needs of low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals, through lending, investment, and services, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank or savings association shall address in its plan all three performance categories and, unless the bank or savings association has been designated as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association, shall emphasize lending and lending-related activities. Nevertheless, a different emphasis, including a focus on one or more performance categories, may be appropriate if responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its assessment area(s), considering public comment and the bank's or savings association's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank or savings association may submit additional information to the appropriate Federal banking agency on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Satisfactory and outstanding goals.</I> A bank or savings association shall specify in its plan measurable goals that constitute “satisfactory” performance. A plan may specify measurable goals that constitute “outstanding” performance. If a bank or savings association submits, and the appropriate Federal banking agency approves, both “satisfactory” and “outstanding” performance goals, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider the bank or savings association eligible for an “outstanding” performance rating.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Election if satisfactory goals not substantially met.</I> A bank or savings association may elect in its plan that, if the bank or savings association fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency will evaluate the bank's or savings association's performance under the lending, investment, and service tests, the community development test, or the small bank or savings association performance standards, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan approval</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will act upon a plan within 60 calendar days after the appropriate Federal banking agency receives the complete plan and other material required under paragraph (e) of this section. If the appropriate Federal banking agency fails to act within this time period, the plan shall be deemed approved unless the appropriate Federal banking agency extends the review period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the plan's goals, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the public's involvement in formulating the plan, written public comment on the plan, and any response by the bank or savings association to public comment on the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a plan's measurable goals using the following criteria, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent and breadth of lending or lending-related activities, including, as appropriate, the distribution of loans among different geographies, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, the extent of community development lending, and the use of innovative or flexible lending practices to address credit needs;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and innovativeness, complexity, and responsiveness of the bank's or savings association's qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability and effectiveness of the bank's or savings association's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of the bank's or savings association's community development services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank or savings association may request the appropriate Federal banking agency to approve an amendment to the plan on grounds that there has been a material change in circumstances. The bank or savings association shall develop an amendment to a previously approved plan in accordance with the public participation requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan assessment.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency approves the goals and assesses performance under a plan as provided for in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.28 Assigned ratings.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency assigns to a bank or savings association a rating of “outstanding,” “satisfactory,” “needs to improve,” or “substantial noncompliance” based on the bank's or savings association's performance under the lending, investment and service tests, the community development test, the small bank or savings association performance standards, or an approved strategic plan, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns a rating for a bank or savings association assessed under the lending, investment, and service tests in accordance with the following principles:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank or savings association that receives an “outstanding” rating on the lending test receives an assigned rating of at least “satisfactory”;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank or savings association that receives an “outstanding” rating on both the service test and the investment test and a rating of at least “high satisfactory” on the lending test receives an assigned rating of “outstanding”; and
</P>
<P>(3) No bank or savings association may receive an assigned rating of “satisfactory” or higher unless it receives a rating of at least “low satisfactory” on the lending test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> (1) The appropriate Federal banking agency's evaluation of a bank's or savings association's CRA performance is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices in any geography by the bank or savings association or in any assessment area by any affiliate whose loans have been considered as part of the bank's or savings association's lending performance. In connection with any type of lending activity described in § 25.22(a), evidence of discriminatory or other credit practices that violate an applicable law, rule, or regulation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination against applicants on a prohibited basis in violation, for example, of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act or the Fair Housing Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act provisions regarding a consumer's right of rescission.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining the effect of evidence of practices described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section on the bank's or savings association's assigned rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the nature, extent, and strength of the evidence of the practices; the policies and procedures that the bank or savings association (or affiliate, as applicable) has in place to prevent the practices; any corrective action that the bank or savings association (or affiliate, as applicable) has taken or has committed to take, including voluntary corrective action resulting from self-assessment; and any other relevant information.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.29 Effect of CRA performance on applications.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the appropriate Federal banking agency takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of each applicant bank or savings association, and for applications under 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)), of each proposed subsidiary savings association, in considering an application for:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of:
</P>
<P>(i) A domestic branch for insured national banks; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to take deposits for savings associations;
</P>
<P>(2) The relocation of the main office or a branch;
</P>
<P>(3) The merger or consolidation with or the acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities of an insured depository institution requiring approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)); and
</P>
<P>(4) The conversion of an insured depository institution to a national bank or Federal savings association charter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Acquisitions subject to section 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charter application.</I> (1) An applicant (other than an insured depository institution) for a national bank charter shall submit with its application a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The OCC takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant for a Federal savings association charter shall submit with its application a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The appropriate Federal banking agency takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interested parties.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the applicable comment procedures in considering CRA performance in an application listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank's or savings association's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “insured depository institution” has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1813.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart C—Records, Reporting, and Disclosure Requirements</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 25.41 Assessment area delineation.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank or savings association shall delineate one or more assessment areas within which the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates the bank's or savings association's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community. The appropriate Federal banking agency does not evaluate the bank's or savings association's delineation of its assessment area(s) as a separate performance criterion, but the appropriate Federal banking agency reviews the delineation for compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic area(s) for wholesale or limited purpose banks or savings associations.</I> The assessment area(s) for a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association must consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns, in which the bank or savings association has its main office, branches, and deposit-taking ATMs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Geographic area(s) for other banks and savings association.</I> The assessment area(s) for a bank or savings association other than a wholesale or limited purpose bank or savings association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include the geographies in which the bank or savings association has its main office, its branches, and its deposit-taking ATMs, as well as the surrounding geographies in which the bank or savings association has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, small business and small farm loans, and any other loans the bank or savings association chooses, such as those consumer loans on which the bank or savings association elects to have its performance assessed).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustments to geographic area(s).</I> A bank or savings association may adjust the boundaries of its assessment area(s) to include only the portion of a political subdivision that it reasonably can be expected to serve. An adjustment is particularly appropriate in the case of an assessment area that otherwise would be extremely large, of unusual configuration, or divided by significant geographic barriers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on the delineation of an assessment area.</I> Each bank's or savings associations assessment area(s):
</P>
<P>(1) Must consist only of whole geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) May not reflect illegal discrimination;
</P>
<P>(3) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income geographies, taking into account the bank's or savings association's size and financial condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) May not extend substantially beyond an MSA boundary or beyond a state boundary unless the assessment area is located in a multistate MSA. If a bank or savings association serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond a state boundary, the bank or savings association shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas in each state. If a bank or savings association serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond an MSA boundary, the bank or savings association shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas inside and outside the MSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Banks and savings association serving military personnel.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a bank or savings association whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents who are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate its entire deposit customer base as its assessment area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of assessment area(s).</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency uses the assessment area(s) delineated by a bank or savings association in its evaluation of the bank's or savings association's CRA performance unless the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the assessment area(s) do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.42 Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Loan information required to be collected and maintained.</I> A bank or savings association, except a small bank or savings association, shall collect, and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency) until the completion of its next CRA examination, the following data for each small business or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank or savings association:
</P>
<P>(1) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(2) The loan amount at origination;
</P>
<P>(3) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(4) An indicator whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan information required to be reported.</I> A bank or savings association, except a small bank or savings association or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year, shall report annually by March 1 to the appropriate Federal banking agency in machine readable form (as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency) the following data for the prior calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Small business and small farm loan data.</I> For each geography in which the bank or savings association originated or purchased a small business or small farm loan, the aggregate number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With amount at origination of more than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of more than $250,000; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less (using the revenues that the bank or savings association considered in making its credit decision);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loan data.</I> The aggregate number and aggregate amount of community development loans originated or purchased; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> If the bank or savings association is subject to reporting under part 1003 of this title, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank or savings association has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) in accordance with the requirements of part 1003 of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional data collection and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Consumer loans.</I> A bank or savings association may collect and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency) data for consumer loans originated or purchased by the bank or savings association for consideration under the lending test. A bank or savings association may maintain data for one or more of the following categories of consumer loans: Motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured. If the bank or savings association maintains data for loans in a certain category, it shall maintain data for all loans originated or purchased within that category. The bank or savings association shall maintain data separately for each category, including for each loan:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iii) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The gross annual income of the borrower that the bank or savings association considered in making its credit decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other loan data.</I> At its option, a bank or savings association may provide other information concerning its lending performance, including additional loan distribution data.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on affiliate lending.</I> A bank or savings association that elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider loans by an affiliate, for purposes of the lending or community development test or an approved strategic plan, shall collect, maintain, and report for those loans the data that the bank or savings association would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank or savings association. For home mortgage loans, the bank or savings association shall also be prepared to identify the home mortgage loans reported under part 1003 of this title by the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank or savings association that elects to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider community development loans by a consortium or third party, for purposes of the lending or community development tests or an approved strategic plan, shall report for those loans the data that the bank or savings association would have reported under paragraph (b)(2) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Small banks and savings associations electing evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests.</I> A bank or savings association that qualifies for evaluation under the small bank or savings association performance standards but elects evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests shall collect, maintain, and report the data required for other banks or savings association pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assessment area data.</I> A bank or savings association, except a small bank or savings association or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year, shall collect and report to the appropriate Federal banking agency by March 1 of each year a list for each assessment area showing the geographies within the area.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency prepares annually for each bank or savings association that reports data pursuant to this section a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a state-by-state basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank or savings association reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography according to whether the geography is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank or savings association reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank or savings association reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in geographies with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography in the county or assessment area according to whether the median income in the geography relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank or savings association reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans located inside each assessment area reported by the bank or savings association and the number and amount of small business and small farm loans located outside the assessment area(s) reported by the bank or savings association; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and amount of community development loans reported as originated or purchased.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The OCC, in conjunction with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the FDIC, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a state boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each state, an aggregate disclosure statement of small business and small farm lending by all institutions subject to reporting under this part or parts 228 or 345 of this title. These disclosure statements indicate, for each geography, the number and amount of all small business and small farm loans originated or purchased by reporting institutions, except that the appropriate Federal banking agency may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of an institution.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Central data depositories.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency makes the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (i) of this section, and the individual bank or savings association CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available to the public at central data depositories. The appropriate Federal banking agency publishes a list of the depositories at which the statements are available.


</P>
<P><B>§ 25.43 Content and availability of public file.</B>


</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank or savings association shall maintain a public file that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's or savings association's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank or savings association, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or savings association or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's or savings association's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation prepared by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The bank or savings association shall place this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's or savings association's branches, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank or savings association during the current year and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's or savings association's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. At its option, a bank or savings association may include information regarding the availability of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> ATMs, ATMs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank or savings association, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the geographies contained within the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank or savings association chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks and savings associations other than small banks or savings associations.</I> A bank or savings association, except a small bank or savings association or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year, shall include in its public file the following information pertaining to the bank or savings association and its affiliates, if applicable, for each of the prior two calendar years:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank or savings association has elected to have one or more categories of its consumer loans considered under the lending test, for each of these categories, the number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(A) To low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) Located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Located inside the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s) and outside the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's or savings association's CRA Disclosure Statement. The bank or savings association shall place the statement in the public file within three business days of its receipt from the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks and savings associations required to report Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data.</I> A bank or savings association required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant part 1003 of this title shall include in its public file a written notice that the institution's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (Bureau's) website at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>. In addition, a bank or savings association that elected to have the appropriate Federal banking agency consider the mortgage lending of an affiliate shall include in its public file the name of the affiliate and a written notice that the affiliate's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained at the Bureau's website. The bank or savings association shall place the written notice(s) in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council of the availability of the disclosure statement(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks and savings associations.</I> A small bank or savings association or a bank or savings association that was a small bank or savings association during the prior calendar year shall include in its public file:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's or savings association's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The information required for other banks or savings associations by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the bank or savings association has elected to be evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks and savings associations with strategic plans.</I> A bank or savings association that has been approved to be assessed under a strategic plan shall include in its public file a copy of that plan. A bank or savings association need not include information submitted to the appropriate Federal banking agency on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks and savings associations with less than satisfactory ratings.</I> A bank or savings association that received a less than satisfactory rating during its most recent examination shall include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank or savings association shall update the description quarterly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank or savings association shall make available to the public for inspection upon request and at no cost the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At the main office and, if an interstate bank or savings association, at one branch office in each state, all information in the public file; and
</P>
<P>(2) At each branch:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the public section of the bank's or savings association's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information in the public file relating to the assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank or savings association shall provide copies, either on paper or in another form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank or savings association may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Updating.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank or savings association shall ensure that the information required by this section is current as of April 1 of each year.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.44 Public notice by banks and savings associations.</B>
</P>
<P>A bank or savings association shall provide in the public lobby of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in appendix B of this part. Only a branch of a bank or savings association having more than one assessment area shall include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only an insured national bank that is an affiliate of a holding company shall include the next to the last sentence of the notices. An insured national bank shall include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional banks. Only a savings association that is an affiliate of a holding company shall include the last two sentences of the notices.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.45 Publication of planned examination schedule.</B>
</P>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency publishes at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter a list of banks and savings associations scheduled for CRA examinations in that quarter.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart D—Transition Provisions</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 25.51 Consideration of Bank Activities.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) In assessing a bank's CRA performance, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider any loan, investment, or service that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time the bank conducted the activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in assessing a bank's CRA performance, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider any loan or investment that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time the bank entered into a legally binding commitment to make the loan or investment.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.52 Strategic Plan Retention.</B>
</P>
<P>A bank or savings association strategic plan approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency and in effect as of December 31, 2021, remains in effect, except that provisions of the plan that are not consistent with this part in effect as of January 1, 2022, are void, unless amended pursuant to § 25.27.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart E—Prohibition Against Use of Interstate Branches Primarily for Deposit Production</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 25.61 Purpose and scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1835a) of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (Interstate Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart applies to any national bank that has operated a covered interstate branch for a period of at least one year, and any foreign bank that has operated a covered interstate branch that is a Federal branch for a period of at least one year.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart describes the requirements imposed under 12 U.S.C. 1835a, which requires the appropriate Federal banking agencies (the OCC, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the FDIC) to prescribe uniform rules that prohibit a bank from using any authority to engage in interstate branching pursuant to the Interstate Act, or any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law, primarily for the purpose of deposit production.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.62 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7) and 12 CFR 28.11(i).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered interstate branch</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any branch of a national bank, and any Federal branch of a foreign bank, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is established or acquired outside the bank's home State pursuant to the interstate branching authority granted by the Interstate Act or by any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Could not have been established or acquired outside of the bank's home State but for the establishment or acquisition of a branch described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank or branch of a bank controlled by an out-of-State bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal branch</I> means Federal branch as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(6) and 12 CFR 28.11(h).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Home State</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a State bank, the State that chartered the bank;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a national bank, the State in which the main office of the bank is located;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a bank holding company, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such company are the largest on the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) July 1, 1966; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the company becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign bank:
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of determining whether a U.S. branch of a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the home State of the foreign bank as determined in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3103(c) and 12 CFR 28.11(n); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of determining whether a branch of a U.S. bank controlled by a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such foreign bank are the largest on the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) July 1, 1966; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the foreign bank becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Host State</I> means a State in which a covered interstate branch is established or acquired.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Host state loan-to-deposit ratio</I> generally means, with respect to a particular host state, the ratio of total loans in the host state relative to total deposits from the host state for all banks (including institutions covered under the definition of “bank” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1)) that have that state as their home state, as determined and updated periodically by the appropriate Federal banking agencies and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Out-of-State bank holding company</I> means, with respect to any State, a bank holding company whose home State is another State.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>State</I> means state as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statewide loan-to-deposit ratio</I> means, with respect to a bank, the ratio of the bank's loans to its deposits in a state in which the bank has one or more covered interstate branches, as determined by the OCC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.63 Loan-to-deposit ratio screen.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application of screen.</I> Beginning no earlier than one year after a covered interstate branch is acquired or established, the OCC will consider whether the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the relevant host State loan-to-deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Results of screen.</I> (1) If the OCC determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is 50 percent or more of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, no further consideration under this subpart is required.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, or if reasonably available data are insufficient to calculate the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio, the OCC will make a credit needs determination for the bank as provided in § 25.64.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.64 Credit needs determination.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The OCC will review the loan portfolio of the bank and determine whether the bank is reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities in the host state that are served by the bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines.</I> The OCC will use the following considerations as guidelines when making the determination pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether covered interstate branches were formerly part of a failed or failing depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether covered interstate branches were acquired under circumstances where there was a low loan-to-deposit ratio because of the nature of the acquired institution's business or loan portfolio;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether covered interstate branches have a high concentration of commercial or credit card lending, trust services, or other specialized activities, including the extent to which the covered interstate branches accept deposits in the host state;
</P>
<P>(4) The CRA ratings received by the bank, if any;
</P>
<P>(5) Economic conditions, including the level of loan demand, within the communities served by the covered interstate branches;
</P>
<P>(6) The safe and sound operation and condition of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(7) The OCC's CRA regulations (subparts A through D of this part) and interpretations of those regulations.




</P>
<P><B>§ 25.65 Sanctions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If the OCC determines that a bank is not reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state, and that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, the OCC:
</P>
<P>(1) May order that a bank's covered interstate branch or branches be closed unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the OCC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank has an acceptable plan under which the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state; and
</P>
<P>(2) Will not permit the bank to open a new branch in the host state that would be considered to be a covered interstate branch unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the OCC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the community that the new branch will serve.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice prior to closure of a covered interstate branch.</I> Before exercising the OCC's authority to order the bank to close a covered interstate branch, the OCC will issue to the bank a notice of the OCC's intent to order the closure and will schedule a hearing within 60 days of issuing the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing.</I> The OCC will conduct a hearing scheduled under paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(h) and 12 CFR part 19.


</P>
<HD1>Appendix A to Part 25—Ratings
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> (1) In assigning a rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency evaluates a bank's or savings association's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, in accordance with §§ 25.21 and 25.28. This includes consideration of low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers and activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions, as well as adjustments on the basis of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank's or savings association's performance need not fit each aspect of a particular rating profile in order to receive that rating, and exceptionally strong performance with respect to some aspects may compensate for weak performance in others. The bank's or savings association's overall performance, however, must be consistent with safe and sound banking practices and generally with the appropriate rating profile as follows.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banks and savings associations evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests</I>—(1) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns each bank's or savings association's lending performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Excellent responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A substantial majority of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An excellent geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An excellent distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) An excellent record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Extensive use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It is a leader in making community development loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Good responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A high percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A good geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A good distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) A good record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a relatively high level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) An adequate percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An adequate geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) An adequate record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Limited use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made an adequate level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) A poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Little use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a low level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's lending performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A very poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A very small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A very poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A very poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank or savings association;
</P>
<P>(E) A very poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) No use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made few, if any, community development loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns each bank's or savings association's investment performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An excellent level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, often in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A significant level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, occasionally in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Significant use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Good responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An adequate level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, although rarely in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A poor level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's investment performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Few, if any, qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns each bank's or savings association's service performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance “outstanding” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are readily accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has improved the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) are tailored to the convenience and needs of its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It is a leader in providing community development services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a relatively high level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are reasonably accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has generally not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides an adequate level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance “needs to improve” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has adversely affected the accessibility its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a limited level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a bank's or savings association's service performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to significant portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has significantly adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that significantly inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides few, if any, community development services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assigns each wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development performance one of the four following ratings.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outstanding.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A high level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfactory.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development performance “satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) An adequate level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development performance as “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A poor level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's or savings association's community development performance in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) Few, if any, community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Banks and savings associations evaluated under the small bank and savings association performance standards</I>—(1) <I>Lending test ratings.</I> (i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory lending test rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates a small bank's or savings association's lending performance “satisfactory” if, in general, the bank or savings association demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's or savings association's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its assessment area(s), and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets and community development loans and qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(B) A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its assessment area;
</P>
<P>(C) A distribution of loans to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's or savings association's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(E) A reasonable geographic distribution of loans given the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an “outstanding” lending test rating.</I> A small bank or savings association that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under this paragraph and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending test rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> A small bank or savings association may also receive a lending test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test ratings for intermediate small banks and savings associations</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory community development test rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates an intermediate small bank's or savings association's community development performance “satisfactory” if the bank or savings association demonstrates adequate responsiveness to the community development needs of its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's or savings association's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, its assessment area's need for such community development activities, and the availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding community development test rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency rates an intermediate small bank's or savings association's community development performance “outstanding” if the bank or savings association demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services, as appropriate, considering the bank's or savings association's capacity and the need and availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> An intermediate small bank or savings association may also receive a community development test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overall rating</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory overall rating.</I> No intermediate small bank or savings association may receive an assigned overall rating of “satisfactory” unless it receives a rating of at least “satisfactory” on both the lending test and the community development test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding overall rating.</I> (A) An intermediate small bank or savings association that receives an “outstanding” rating on one test and at least “satisfactory” on the other test may receive an assigned overall rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(B) A small bank or savings association that is not an intermediate small bank or savings association that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under the lending test and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for an overall rating of “outstanding.” In assessing whether a bank's or savings association's performance is “outstanding,” the appropriate Federal banking agency considers the extent to which the bank or savings association exceeds each of the performance standards for a “satisfactory” rating and its performance in making qualified investments and its performance in providing branches and other services and delivery systems that enhance credit availability in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance overall ratings.</I> A small bank or savings association may also receive a rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Strategic plan assessment and rating</I>—(1) <I>Satisfactory goals.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency approves as “satisfactory” measurable goals that adequately help to meet the credit needs of the bank's or savings association's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outstanding goals.</I> If the plan identifies a separate group of measurable goals that substantially exceed the levels approved as “satisfactory,” the appropriate Federal banking agency will approve those goals as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rating.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency assesses the performance of a bank or savings association operating under an approved plan to determine if the bank or savings association has met its plan goals:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank or savings association substantially achieves its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency will rate the bank's or savings association's performance under the plan as “satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank or savings association exceeds its plan goals for a satisfactory rating and substantially achieves its plan goals for an outstanding rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency will rate the bank's or savings association's performance under the plan as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If the bank or savings association fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the appropriate Federal banking agency will rate the bank or savings association as either “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance,” depending on the extent to which it falls short of its plan goals, unless the bank or savings association elected in its plan to be rated otherwise, as provided in § 25.27(f)(4).


</P>
<HD1>Appendix B to Part 25—CRA Notice
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank and savings association, one branch office in each state.</I>


</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the [Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) or Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as appropriate] evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<HD1>Your Involvement is Encouraged
</HD1>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]; and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] publishes a nationwide list of the banks and savings associations that are scheduled for CRA examination in that quarter. This list is available from the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate], at [address]. You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to [name and address of official at bank or savings association] and to the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate], at [address]. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. You may also request from the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. We are an affiliate of [name of holding company], a [bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as appropriate]. You may request from the [title of responsible official], Federal Reserve Bank of [__] [address] an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by [bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies, as appropriate].
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice for branch offices.</I>


</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice


</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the [Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), as appropriate] evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<HD1>Your Involvement is Encouraged
</HD1>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA evaluation, prepared by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate], and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us: (1) A map showing the assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] evaluates our CRA performance in this community; (2) information about our branches in this assessment area; (3) a list of services we provide at those locations; (4) data on our lending performance in this assessment area; and (5) copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire [bank or savings association, as appropriate] is available at [name of office located in state], located at [address].]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] publishes a nationwide list of the banks and savings associations that are scheduled for CRA examination in that quarter. This list is available from the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] at [address]. You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to [name and address of official at bank or savings association, as appropriate] and to the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] at [address]. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. You may also request from the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate] an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the [OCC or FDIC, as appropriate]. We are an affiliate of [name of holding company], a [bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as appropriate]. You may request from the [title of responsible official], Federal Reserve Bank of [__], [address], an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by [bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies, as appropriate].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7172, Feb. 1, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 26—MANAGEMENT OFFICIAL INTERLOCKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 3201-3208, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 40300, Aug. 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 26.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (Interlocks Act) (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended, and the OCC's general rulemaking authority for national banks in 12 U.S.C. 93a and Federal savings associations in 12 U.S.C. 1462a and 5412(b)(2)(B). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the Interlocks Act and this part is to foster competition by generally prohibiting a management official from serving two nonaffiliated depository organizations in situations where the management interlock likely would have an anticompetitive effect. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to management officials of national banks, Federal savings associations, and their affiliates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term <I>affiliate</I> has the meaning given in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201). For purposes of that section 202, shares held by an individual include shares held by members of his or her immediate family. “Immediate family” means spouse, mother, father, child, grandchild, sister, brother, or any of their spouses, whether or not any of their shares are held in trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(3)(B) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(3)(B)), an affiliate relationship involving a national bank or Federal savings association based on common ownership does not exist if the OCC determines, after giving the affected persons the opportunity to respond, that the asserted affiliation was established in order to avoid the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act and does not represent a true commonality of interest between the depository organizations. In making this determination, the OCC considers, among other things, whether a person, including members of his or her immediate family, whose shares are necessary to constitute the group, owns a nominal percentage of the shares of one of the organizations and the percentage is substantially disproportionate to that person's ownership of shares in the other organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the metropolitan statistical area (MSA), if a depository organization is located in an MSA; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a depository organization is located outside an MSA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community</I> means a city, town, or village, and contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages</I> means cities, towns, or villages whose borders touch each other or whose borders are within 10 road miles of each other at their closest points. The property line of an office located in an unincorporated city, town, or village is the boundary line of that city, town, or village for the purpose of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository holding company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company (as more fully defined in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201)) having its principal office located in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depository institution</I> means a commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union, chartered under the laws of the United States and having a principal office located in the United States. Additionally, a United States office, including a branch or agency, of a foreign commercial bank is a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution affiliate</I> means a depository institution that is an affiliate of a depository organization. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depository organization</I> means a depository institution or a depository holding company. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Low- and moderate-income areas</I> means census tracts (or, if an area is not in a census tract, block numbering areas delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census) where the median family income is less than 100 percent of the area median income. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Management official.</I> (1) The term <I>management official</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A director; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory or honorary director of a depository institution with total assets of $100 million or more; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A senior executive officer as that term is defined in 12 CFR 5.51(c)(3); 
</P>
<P>(iv) A branch manager; 
</P>
<P>(v) A trustee of a depository organization under the control of trustees; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person who has a representative or nominee serving in any of the capacities in this paragraph (j)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>management official</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose management functions relate exclusively to the business of retail merchandising or manufacturing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person whose management functions relate principally to the business outside the United States of a foreign commercial bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A person described in the provisos of section 202(4) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(4)) (referring to an officer of a State-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or trust company that neither makes real estate mortgage loans nor accepts savings). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Office</I> means a principal or branch office of a depository institution located in the United States. <I>Office</I> does not include a representative office of a foreign commercial bank, an electronic terminal, or a loan production office. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, or other business entity. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Relevant metropolitan statistical area (RMSA)</I> means an MSA, a primary MSA, or a consolidated MSA that is not comprised of designated primary MSAs to the extent that these terms are defined and applied by the Office of Management and Budget. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Representative or nominee</I> means a natural person who serves as a management official and has an obligation to act on behalf of another person with respect to management responsibilities. The OCC will find that a person has an obligation to act on behalf of another person only if the first person has an agreement, express or implied, to act on behalf of the second person with respect to management responsibilities. The OCC will determine, after giving the affected persons an opportunity to respond, whether a person is a <I>representative or nominee.</I> 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Total assets.</I> (1) The term <I>total assets</I> means assets measured on a consolidated basis and reported in the most recent fiscal year-end Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>total assets</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assets of a diversified savings and loan holding company as defined by section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of a bank holding company that is exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 pursuant to an order issued under section 4(d) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(d)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assets of offices of a foreign commercial bank other than the assets of its United States branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>United States</I> means the United States of America, any State or territory of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40300, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51678, Sept. 24, 1999; 72 FR 1276, Jan. 11, 2007; 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008; 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.3   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same community. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RMSA.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same RMSA and each depository organization has total assets of $50 million or more. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major assets.</I> A management official of a depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization) may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization), regardless of the location of the two depository organizations. The OCC will adjust these thresholds, as necessary, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for the Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, with rounding to the nearest $100 million. The OCC will announce the revised thresholds by publishing a final rule without notice and comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40300, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51678, Sept. 24, 1999; 72 FR 1276, Jan. 11, 2007; 84 FR 54471, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.4   Interlocking relationships permitted by statute.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions of § 26.3 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof: 
</P>
<P>(a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function; 
</P>
<P>(b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.,</I> respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations); 
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union; 
</P>
<P>(d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation; 
</P>
<P>(f) A Federal Home Loan Bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies; 
</P>
<P>(g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired; and 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) with respect to the service of a director of such company who also is a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period. 
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (h) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period. 
</P>
<P>(i) Any savings association that has issued stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance pursuant to section 10(q) of the HOLA, as provided by section 205(9) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3204(9)).
</P>
<P>(j) A management official or prospective management official of a depository organization may enter into an otherwise prohibited interlocking relationship with a Federal savings association for a period of up to 10 years if such relationship is approved by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation pursuant to section 13(k)(1)(A)(v) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)(1)(A)(v)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40300, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.5   Small market share exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A management interlock that is prohibited by § 26.3 is permissible, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The interlock is not prohibited by § 26.3(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The depository organizations (and their depository institution affiliates) hold, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the deposits in each RMSA or community in which both depository organizations (or their depository institution affiliates) have offices. The amount of deposits shall be determined by reference to the most recent annual Summary of Deposits published by the FDIC for the RMSA or community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation and records.</I> Each depository organization must maintain records sufficient to support its determination of eligibility for the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, and must reconfirm that determination on an annual basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 51678, Sept. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.6   General exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> The OCC may by order issued following receipt of an application, exempt an interlock from the prohibitions in § 26.3 if the OCC finds that the interlock would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition and would not present safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> In reviewing an application for an exemption under this section, the OCC will apply a rebuttable presumption that an interlock will not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition if the depository organization seeking to add a management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily serves low-and moderate-income areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Is controlled or managed by persons who are members of a minority group, or women;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a depository institution that has been chartered for less than two years; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is deemed to be in “troubled condition” as defined in 12 CFR 5.51(c)(7).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> (1) Unless a specific expiration period is provided in the OCC approval, an exemption permitted by paragraph (a) of this section may continue so long as it does not result in either:
</P>
<P>(i) A monopoly or substantial lessening of competition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unsafe or unsound condition.
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC grants an interlock exemption in reliance upon a presumption under paragraph (b) of this section, the interlock may continue for three years, unless otherwise provided by the OCC in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 51678, Sept. 24, 1999, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014; 85 FR 42642, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.7   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A management official shall terminate his or her service or apply for an exemption if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or any reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the depository organization involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. The OCC may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40300, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51678, Sept. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 26.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.23.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 26.8   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, the OCC administers and enforces the Interlocks Act with respect to national banks, Federal savings associations, and their affiliates, and may refer any case of a prohibited interlocking relationship involving these entities to the Attorney General of the United States to enforce compliance with the Interlocks Act and this part. If an affiliate of a national bank or Federal savings association is subject to the primary regulation of another Federal depository organization supervisory agency, then the OCC does not administer and enforce the Interlocks Act with respect to that affiliate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008, as amended at 79 FR 28399, May 16, 2014]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="27" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 27 [Reserved] 
</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="28" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 28—INTERNATIONAL BANKING ACTIVITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 93a, 161, 602, 1818, 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> and 3901 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Foreign Operations of National Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 93a, and 602. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets forth filing requirements for national banks that engage in international operations and clarifies permissible foreign activities of national banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to any national bank that engages in international operations through a foreign branch, or acquires an interest in an Edge corporation, Agreement corporation, foreign bank, or certain other foreign organizations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agreement corporation</I> means a corporation having an agreement or undertaking with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (FRB) under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA), 12 U.S.C. 601 through 604a. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Edge corporation</I> means a corporation that is organized under section 25A of the FRA, 12 U.S.C. 611 through 631. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized under the laws of a foreign country; 
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in the business of banking; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authority of the country of its organization or principal banking operations; 
</P>
<P>(4) Receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of its business; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Has the power to accept demand deposits. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign branch</I> means an office of a national bank (other than a representative office) that is located outside the United States at which banking or financing business is conducted. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign country</I> means one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 60387, Nov. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.3   Filing requirements for foreign operations of a national bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> A national bank shall notify the OCC when it: 
</P>
<P>(1) Files an application, notice, or report with the FRB to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establish or open a foreign branch; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquire or divest of an interest in, or close, an Edge corporation, Agreement corporation, foreign bank, or other foreign organization; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Opens a foreign branch, and no application or notice is required by the FRB for such transaction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other applications and notices accepted.</I> In lieu of a notice under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the OCC may accept a copy of an application, notice, or report submitted to another Federal agency that covers the proposed action and contains substantially the same information required by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information.</I> A national bank shall furnish the OCC with any additional information the OCC may require in connection with the national bank's foreign operations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70699, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.4   Permissible activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subject to the applicable approval process, if any, a national bank may engage in any activity in a foreign country that is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Permissible for a national bank in the United States; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Usual in connection with the business of banking in the country where it transacts business. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional activities.</I> In addition to its general banking powers, a national bank may engage in any activity in a foreign country that is permissible under the FRB's Regulation K, 12 CFR part 211. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign operations guarantees.</I> A national bank may guarantee the deposits and other liabilities of its Edge corporations and Agreement corporations and of its corporate instrumentalities in foreign countries. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.5   Filing of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to file.</I> A national bank shall file any notice or submission required under this subpart with the appropriate supervisory office of the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of forms.</I> Individual forms and instructions for filings are available from the appropriate supervisory office of the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70699, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.10   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to the authority in the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA), 12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> and 12 U.S.C. 93a. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose—Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart implements the IBA pertaining to the licensing, supervision, and operations of Federal branches and agencies in the United States. For corporate procedures pertaining to Federal branches and agencies, refer to 12 CFR part 5. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks. Nothing in the OCC's rules relieves a Federal branch or agency from complying with requirements that are imposed by the FRB under Regulation K (12 CFR part 211) or otherwise imposed in accordance with applicable law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 60387, Nov. 27, 1996; 68 FR 70699, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.11   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreement corporation</I> means a corporation having an agreement or undertaking with the FRB under section 25 of the FRA, 12 U.S.C. 601 through 604a. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital equivalency deposit</I> means a deposit by a Federal branch or agency in a member bank as described in section 4 of the IBA, 12 U.S.C. 3102(g). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control.</I> An entity controls another entity if the entity directly or indirectly controls or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other entity or controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors or trustees of the other entity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Edge corporation</I> means a corporation that is organized under section 25A of the FRA, 12 U.S.C. 611 through 631. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Establish a Federal branch or agency</I> means to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Open and conduct business through an initial or additional Federal branch or agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Acquire directly or indirectly through merger, consolidation, or similar transaction with another foreign bank, the operations of a Federal branch or agency that is open and conducting business; 
</P>
<P>(3) Acquire a Federal branch or agency through the acquisition of a foreign bank subsidiary that will cease to operate in the same corporate form following the acquisition; 
</P>
<P>(4) Convert a state branch or agency operated by a foreign bank, or a commercial lending company controlled by a foreign bank, into a Federal branch or agency; 
</P>
<P>(5) Relocate a Federal branch or agency within a state or from one state to another; or 
</P>
<P>(6) Convert a Federal agency or a limited Federal branch into a Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federal agency</I> means an office or place of business, licensed by the OCC and operated by a foreign bank in any state, that may engage in the business of banking, including maintaining credit balances, cashing checks, and lending money, but may not accept deposits from citizens or residents of the United States. Obligations may not be considered credit balances unless they are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Incidental to, or arise out of the exercise of, other lawful banking powers; 
</P>
<P>(2) To serve a specific purpose; 
</P>
<P>(3) Not solicited from the general public; 
</P>
<P>(4) Not used to pay routine operating expenses in the United States such as salaries, rent, or taxes; 
</P>
<P>(5) Withdrawn within a reasonable period of time after the specific purpose for which they were placed has been accomplished; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Drawn upon in a manner reasonable in relation to the size and nature of the account. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federal branch</I> means an office or place of business, licensed by the OCC and operated by a foreign bank in any state, that may engage in the business of banking, including accepting deposits, that is not a Federal agency as defined in paragraph (h) of this section. Unless otherwise provided, the references in this subpart B of part 28 to a Federal branch include a limited Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country, a territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands, and that engages directly in the business of banking in a foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Foreign business</I> means any entity, including a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, association, foundation or trust that is organized under the laws of a foreign country, or any United States entity that is controlled by a foreign entity or foreign national. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Foreign country</I> means one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Home country</I> means the country in which the foreign bank is chartered or incorporated. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Home country supervisor</I> means the governmental entity or entities in the foreign bank's home country responsible for supervising and regulating the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Home state</I> of a foreign bank means the state in which the foreign bank has a branch, agency, subsidiary commercial lending company, or subsidiary bank. If a foreign bank has an office in more than one state, the home state of the foreign bank is the state that is selected to be the home state by the foreign bank or, in default of the foreign bank's selection, by the FRB. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Immediate family member of an individual</I> means the spouse, father, mother, brother, sister, son, or daughter of that individual. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Initial deposit</I> means the first deposit transaction between a depositor and the Federal branch made on or after July 1, 1996. The initial deposit may be placed into different deposit accounts or into different kinds of deposit accounts, such as demand, savings, or time accounts. Deposit accounts that are held by a depositor in the same right and capacity may be added together for the purpose of determining the dollar amount of the initial deposit. <I>First deposit</I> means the deposit made when there is no current deposit relationship between the depositor and the Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>International banking facility</I> means a set of asset and liability accounts segregated on the books and records of a depository institution, a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge corporation or Agreement corporation, that includes only international banking facility time deposits and extensions of credit. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Large United States business</I> means any business entity including a corporation, company, partnership, sole proprietorship, association, foundation or trust that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, and has: 
</P>
<P>(1) Securities registered on a national securities exchange or quoted on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System; or 
</P>
<P>(2) More than $1 million in annual gross revenues for the fiscal year immediately preceding the year of the initial deposit. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limited Federal branch</I> means a Federal branch that may receive only those deposits permissible for an Edge corporation to receive. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Managed or controlled</I> by a Federal branch or agency means that a majority of the responsibility for business decisions, including decisions with regard to lending, asset management, funding, or liability management, or the responsibility for recordkeeping of assets or liabilities for a non-United States office, resides at the Federal branch or agency. For purposes of this definition, forwarding data or information of offshore operations gathered or compiled by the United States office in the normal course of business to the parent foreign bank does not constitute recordkeeping. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Manual</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 5.2(c). 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Parent foreign bank senior management</I> means individuals at the executive level of the parent foreign bank who are responsible for supervising and authorizing activities of the Federal branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Person</I> means an individual or a corporation, government, partnership, association, or any other entity. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>State</I> means any state of the United States and the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>United States bank</I> means a bank organized under the laws of the United States or any state. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 60387, Nov. 27, 1996; 68 FR 70699, Dec. 19, 2003; 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.12   Approval of a Federal branch or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval and licensing requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a foreign bank shall submit an application to, and obtain prior approval from, the OCC before it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establishes a Federal branch or agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Exercises fiduciary powers at a Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Licensing.</I> A foreign bank must receive a license from the OCC to open and operate its initial Federal branch or agency in the United States. A foreign bank that has a license to operate and is operating a full-service Federal branch need not obtain a new license for any additional Federal branches or agencies, or to upgrade or downgrade its operations in an existing Federal branch or agency. A foreign bank that only has a license to operate and is operating a limited Federal branch or Federal agency need not obtain a new license for any additional limited Federal branches or Federal agencies, or to convert a limited Federal branch into a Federal agency or a Federal agency into a limited Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for approval.</I> Generally, in reviewing an application by a foreign bank to establish a Federal branch or agency, the OCC considers: 
</P>
<P>(1) The financial and managerial resources and future prospects of the applicant foreign bank and the Federal branch or agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the foreign bank has furnished to the OCC the information the OCC requires to assess the application adequately, and provided the OCC with adequate assurances that information will be made available to the OCC on the operations or activities of the foreign bank or any of its affiliates that the OCC deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with the IBA and other applicable Federal banking statutes; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the foreign bank and its United States affiliates are in compliance with applicable United States law; 
</P>
<P>(4) The convenience and needs of the community to be served and the effects of the proposal on competition in the domestic and foreign commerce of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to an application to establish a Federal branch or agency outside of the foreign bank's home state, whether the foreign bank is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by its home country supervisor. The OCC, in its discretion, also may consider whether the foreign bank is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by its home country supervisor when reviewing any other type of application to establish a Federal branch or agency; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the home country supervisor has consented to the proposed establishment of the Federal branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis.</I> In determining whether a foreign bank is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis, the OCC reviews various factors, including whether the foreign bank is supervised or regulated in a manner so that its home country supervisor receives sufficient information on the worldwide operations of the foreign bank to assess the foreign bank's overall financial condition and compliance with laws and regulations as specified in the FRB's Regulation K, 12 CFR 211.24. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions on approval.</I> The OCC may impose conditions on its approval including a condition permitting future termination of activities based on the inability of the foreign bank to provide information on its activities, or those of its affiliate, that the OCC deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with United States banking laws. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited review.</I> Unless the OCC concludes that the filing presents significant supervisory or compliance concerns, or raises significant legal or policy issues, the OCC generally processes the following filings by an eligible foreign bank, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, under expedited review procedures: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Intrastate relocations.</I> An application submitted by an eligible foreign bank to relocate a Federal branch or agency within a state is deemed approved by the OCC as of the seventh day after the close of the applicable public comment period in 12 CFR part 5, unless the OCC notifies the bank prior to that date that the filing is not eligible for expedited review. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written notice for an additional intrastate Federal branch or agency.</I> (i) In a case where a foreign bank seeks to establish intrastate an additional Federal branch or agency, the foreign bank shall provide written notice 30 days in advance of the establishment of the intrastate Federal branch or agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC may waive the 30-day period required under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section if immediate action is required. The OCC also may suspend the notice period or require an application if the notification raises significant policy or supervisory concerns. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited approval procedures for an interstate Federal branch or agency.</I> An application submitted by an eligible foreign bank to establish and operate a de novo Federal branch or agency in any state outside the home state of the foreign bank is deemed conditionally approved by the OCC as of the 15th day after the close of the applicable public comment period, or the 45th day after the filing is received by the OCC, whichever is later, unless the OCC notifies the foreign bank prior to that date that the filing is not eligible for expedited review. In the event that the FRB has approved the application prior to the expiration of the period, then the OCC's approval shall be deemed a final approval. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conversions.</I> An application submitted by an eligible foreign bank to establish a Federal branch or agency as defined in 12 CFR 28.11(f)(4) or (f)(6) is deemed approved by the OCC as of the 30th day after the OCC receives the filing, unless the OCC notifies the foreign bank prior to that date that the filing is not eligible for expedited review.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fiduciary powers.</I> An application submitted by an eligible foreign bank to exercise fiduciary powers at an established Federal branch is deemed approved by the OCC 30 days after filing with the OCC, unless the OCC notifies the bank prior to that date that the filing is not eligible for expedited review. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other filings.</I> Any other application submitted by an eligible foreign bank may be approved by the OCC on an expedited basis as described in the Manual. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligible foreign bank.</I> For purposes of this section, a foreign bank is an eligible foreign bank if each Federal branch and agency of the foreign bank or, if the foreign bank has no Federal branches or agencies and is engaging in an establishment of a Federal branch or agency as defined in 12 CFR 28.11(f)(4), each state branch and agency:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the interagency rating system for United States branches and agencies of foreign banks; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, formal written agreement, Prompt Corrective Action directive (<I>see</I> 12 CFR part 6) or, if subject to such order, agreement, or directive, is informed in writing by the OCC that the Federal branch or agency may be treated as an “eligible foreign bank” for purposes of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Has, if applicable, a Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), 12 U.S.C. 2906, rating of “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory”. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>After-the-fact approval.</I> Unless otherwise provided by the OCC, a foreign bank proposing to establish a Federal branch or agency through the acquisition of, or merger or consolidation with, a foreign bank that has an office in the United States, may proceed with the transaction before an application to establish the Federal branch or agency has been filed or acted upon, if the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) Gives the OCC reasonable advance notice of the proposed acquisition, merger, or consolidation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to consummation of the acquisition, merger, or consolidation, commits in writing to comply with the OCC application procedures within a reasonable period of time, or has already submitted an application; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Commits in writing to abide by the OCC's decision on the application, including a decision to terminate activities of the Federal branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>After-the-fact notice for an eligible foreign bank.</I> Unless otherwise provided by the OCC, a foreign bank proposing to establish a Federal branch or agency through the acquisition of, or merger or consolidation with, a foreign bank that has an existing U.S. bank subsidiary or a Federal or state branch or agency may proceed with the transaction and provide after-the-fact notice to the OCC within 14 days of the transaction, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The resulting bank is an “eligible foreign bank” under paragraph (f) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) No Federal branch established by the transaction accepts deposits that are insured by the FDIC pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contraction of operations.</I> A foreign bank shall provide written notice to the OCC within 10 days after converting a Federal branch into a limited Federal branch or Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Procedures for approval.</I> A foreign bank shall file an application for approval pursuant to this section in accordance with 12 CFR part 5 and the Manual. The OCC reserves the right to adopt materially different procedures for a particular filing, or class of filings, pursuant to 12 CFR 5.2(b). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Other applications accepted.</I> As provided in 12 CFR 5.4(c), the OCC may accept an application or other filing submitted to another U.S. Government agency that covers the proposed activity or transaction and contains substantially the same information as required by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70699, Dec. 19, 2003; 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.13   Permissible activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of laws</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided by the IBA, other Federal laws or regulations, or otherwise determined by the OCC, the operations of a foreign bank at a Federal branch or agency shall be conducted with the same rights and privileges and subject to the same duties, restrictions, penalties, liabilities, conditions, and limitations that would apply if the Federal branch or agency were a national bank operating at the same location. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Parent foreign bank senior management approval.</I> Unless otherwise provided by the OCC, any provision in law, regulation, policy, or procedure that requires a national bank to obtain the approval of its board of directors will be deemed to require a Federal branch or agency to obtain the approval of parent foreign bank senior management. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management of shell branches</I>—(1) <I>Federal branches and agencies.</I> A Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank shall not manage, through an office of the foreign bank that is located outside the United States and that is managed or controlled by that Federal branch or agency, any type of activity that a United States bank is not permitted to manage at any branch or subsidiary of the United States bank that is located outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities managed in foreign branches or subsidiaries of United States banks.</I> The types of activities referred to in paragraph (b)(1) of this section include the types of activities authorized to a United States bank by state or Federal charters, regulations issued by chartering or regulatory authorities, and other United States banking laws. However, United States procedural or quantitative requirements that may be applicable to the conduct of those activities by United States banks do not apply. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional guidance regarding permissible activities.</I> For purposes of section 7(h) of the IBA, 12 U.S.C. 3105(h), the OCC may issue opinions, interpretations, or rulings regarding permissible activities of Federal branches. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.14   Limitations based upon capital of a foreign bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any limitation or restriction based upon the capital of a national bank shall be deemed to refer, as applied to a Federal branch or agency, to the dollar equivalent of the capital of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation.</I> Unless otherwise provided by the OCC, a foreign bank must calculate its capital in a manner consistent with 12 CFR part 3, subpart C, for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation.</I> The foreign bank shall aggregate business transacted by all Federal branches and agencies with the business transacted by all state branches and state agencies controlled by the foreign bank in determining its compliance with limitations based upon the capital of the foreign bank. The foreign bank shall designate one Federal branch or agency office in the United States to maintain consolidated information so that the OCC can monitor compliance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.15   Capital equivalency deposits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital equivalency deposits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For purposes of section 4(g) of the IBA, 12 U.S.C. 3102(g), unless otherwise provided by the OCC, a foreign bank's capital equivalency deposits (CED) must consist of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Investment securities eligible for investment by national banks; 
</P>
<P>(ii) United States dollar deposits payable in the United States or payable in any other Group of Ten country; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Certificates of deposit, payable in the United States, and banker's acceptances, provided that, in either case, the issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Repurchase agreements; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Other similar assets permitted by the OCC to qualify to be included in the CED. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal requirements.</I> The agreement with the depository bank to hold the CED and the amount of the deposit must comply with the requirements in section 4(g) of the IBA, 12 U.S.C. 3102(g). If a foreign bank has more than one Federal branch or agency in a state, it shall determine the CED and the amount of liabilities requiring capital equivalency coverage on an aggregate basis for all the foreign bank's Federal branches or agencies in that state. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> In determining the amount of the CED, the OCC excludes liabilities of an international banking facility (IBF) to third parties and of a Federal branch of a foreign bank to an IBF. The OCC may exclude liabilities from repurchase agreements on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Increase in capital equivalency deposits.</I> For prudential or supervisory reasons, the OCC may require, in individual cases or otherwise, that a foreign bank increase its CED above the minimum amount. For example, the OCC may require an increase if a Federal branch or agency of the foreign bank increases its leverage through the establishment, acquisition, or maintenance of an operating subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Value of assets.</I> The obligations referred to in paragraph (a) of this section must be valued at principal amount or market value, whichever is lower. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposit arrangements.</I> A foreign bank should require its depository bank to segregate its CED on the depository bank's books and records. The funds deposited and obligations referred to in paragraph (a) of this section that are placed in safekeeping at a depository bank to satisfy a foreign bank's CED requirement: 
</P>
<P>(1) May not be reduced in value below the minimum required for that branch or agency without the prior approval of the OCC, but in no event below the statutory minimum; 
</P>
<P>(2) Must be maintained pursuant to an agreement prescribed by the OCC that shall be a written agreement entered into with the OCC for purposes of section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must be free from any lien, charge, right of setoff, credit, or preference in connection with any claim of the depository bank against the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Deposit and Consolidation.</I> As provided in 12 U.S.C. 3102(g), a foreign bank with a Federal branch or agency shall deposit its CED into an account in a bank that is located in the state in which the Federal branch or agency is located. For this purpose, such depository bank is considered to be located in those states in which it has its main office or a branch. A foreign bank with Federal branches or agencies in more than one state may consolidate some or all of its CEDs into one such account. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation.</I> The total amount of the consolidated CED shall continue to be calculated on an office-by-office basis. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Maintenance of capital equivalency ledger account.</I> Each Federal branch or agency shall maintain a capital equivalency account and keep records of the amount of liabilities requiring capital equivalency coverage in a manner and form prescribed by the OCC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 60363, Nov. 27, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 49098, Sept. 26, 2001; 67 FR 4326, Jan. 30, 2002; 67 FR 41620, June 19, 2002; 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003; 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.16   Deposit-taking by an uninsured Federal branch.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> In carrying out this section, the OCC shall consider the importance of according foreign banks competitive opportunities equal to those of United States banks and the availability of credit to all sectors of the United States economy, including international trade finance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> An uninsured Federal branch may accept initial deposits of less than the standard maximum deposit insurance amount as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)(E) only from: 
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals who are not citizens or residents of the United States at the time of the initial deposit; 
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who are not citizens of the United States, but are residents of the United States, and are employed by a foreign bank, foreign business, foreign government, or recognized international organization; 
</P>
<P>(3) Persons (including immediate family members of an individual) to whom the branch or foreign bank (including any affiliate thereof) has extended credit or provided other nondeposit banking services within the past 12 months, or with whom the branch or foreign bank has a written agreement to extend credit or provide such services within 12 months after the date of the initial deposit; 
</P>
<P>(4) Foreign businesses and large United States businesses; 
</P>
<P>(5) Foreign governmental units, including political subdivisions, and recognized international organizations; 
</P>
<P>(6) Federal and state governmental units, including political subdivisions and agencies thereof; 
</P>
<P>(7) Persons who are depositing funds in connection with the issuance of a financial instrument by the branch for transmission of funds, or transmission of funds by any electronic means; 
</P>
<P>(8) Persons who may deposit funds with an Edge corporation as provided in the FRB's Regulation K, 12 CFR 211.6, including persons engaged in certain international business activities; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other depositor if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate amount of deposits received from those depositors does not exceed, on an average daily basis, 1 percent of the average of the branch's deposits for the last 30 days of the most recent calendar quarter, excluding deposits of other offices, branches, agencies, or wholly owned subsidiaries of the foreign bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The branch does not solicit deposits from the general public by advertising, display of signs, or similar activity designed to attract the attention of the general public. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application for an exemption.</I> A foreign bank may apply to the OCC for an exemption to permit an uninsured Federal branch to accept or maintain deposit accounts that are not listed in paragraph (b) of this section. The request should describe: 
</P>
<P>(1) The types, sources, and estimated amounts of such deposits and explain why the OCC should grant an exemption; and 
</P>
<P>(2) How the exemption maintains and furthers the policies described in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregation of deposits.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(9) of this section, a foreign bank that has more than one Federal branch in the same state may aggregate deposits in all of its Federal branches in that state, but exclude deposits of other branches, agencies or wholly owned subsidiaries of the bank. The Federal branch shall compute the average amount by using the sum of deposits as of the close of business of the last 30 calendar days ending with and including the last day of the calendar quarter, divided by 30. The Federal branch shall maintain records of the calculation until its next examination by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to depositors.</I> A Federal branch that accepts deposits pursuant to this section shall provide notice to depositors pursuant to 12 CFR 346.207, which generally requires that the Federal branch conspicuously display a sign at the branch and include a statement on each signature card, passbook, and instrument evidencing a deposit that the deposit is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transition period.</I> (1) An uninsured Federal branch may maintain a deposit lawfully accepted under the exemptions existing prior to July 1, 1996 if the deposit would qualify for an exemption under paragraph (b) of this section, except for the fact that the deposit was made before July 1, 1996. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a deposit lawfully accepted under the exemption existing prior to July 1, 1996 would not qualify for an exemption under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the uninsured Federal branch must terminate the deposit no later than: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of time deposits, the maturity of a time deposit or October 1, 1996, whichever is longer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of all other deposits, five years after July 1, 1996. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insured banks in United States territories.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “foreign bank” does not include any bank organized under the laws of any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands whose deposits are insured by the FDIC pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003; 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003; 76 FR 43569, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.17   Notice of change in activity or operations.</HEAD>
<P><I>Notice.</I> A Federal branch or agency shall notify the OCC if: 
</P>
<P>(a) It changes its corporate title; 
</P>
<P>(b) It changes its mailing address; 
</P>
<P>(c) It converts to a state branch, state agency, or representative office; or 
</P>
<P>(d) The parent foreign bank changes the designation of its home state. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.18   Recordkeeping and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Federal branch or agency shall comply with applicable recordkeeping and reporting requirements that apply to national banks and with any additional requirements that may be prescribed by the OCC. A Federal branch or agency, and the parent foreign bank, shall furnish information relating to the affairs of the parent foreign bank and its affiliates that the OCC may from time to time request. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory reports filed with other agencies.</I> A foreign bank operating a Federal branch or agency in the United States shall provide the OCC with a copy of reports filed with other Federal regulatory agencies that are designated in guidance issued by the OCC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of accounts, books, and records.</I> (1) Each Federal branch or agency shall maintain a set of accounts and records reflecting its transactions that are separate from those of the foreign bank and any other branch or agency. The Federal branch or agency shall keep a set of accounts and records in English sufficient to permit the OCC to examine the condition of the Federal branch or agency and its compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The Federal branch or agency shall promptly provide any additional records requested by the OCC for examination or supervisory purposes. 
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank with more than one Federal branch or agency in a state shall designate one of those offices to maintain consolidated asset, liability, and capital equivalency accounts for all Federal branches or agencies in that state. 
</P>
<P>(3) A foreign bank with a Federal branch or agency in more than one state that consolidates its CEDs into one account in accordance with § 28.15(e) shall designate a participating Federal branch or agency to maintain consolidated asset, liability, and capital equivalency account information for all Federal branches and agencies covered by the consolidated deposit. A foreign bank with a consolidated CED shall maintain a book entry accounting of assets designated under the consolidated CED for each office of that foreign bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.19   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>As provided by section 13 of the IBA, 12 U.S.C. 3108(b), the OCC may enforce compliance with the requirements of the IBA, other applicable banking laws, and OCC regulations or orders under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818. This enforcement authority is in addition to any other remedies otherwise provided by the IBA or any other law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.20   Maintenance of assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) For prudential, supervisory, or enforcement reasons, the OCC may require a foreign bank to hold certain assets in the state in which its Federal branch or agency is located. Those assets may only consist of currency, bonds, notes, debentures, drafts, bills of exchange, or other evidence of indebtedness including loan participation agreements or certificates, or other obligations payable in the United States or in United States funds or, with the approval of the OCC, funds freely convertible into United States funds. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the OCC requires asset maintenance, the amount of assets held by a foreign bank shall be prescribed by the OCC after consideration of the aggregate amount of liabilities of the Federal branch or agency, payable at or through the Federal branch or agency. To determine the aggregate amount of liabilities for purposes of this section, the foreign bank shall include bankers' acceptances, but exclude liabilities to the head office and any other branches, offices, agencies, subsidiaries, and affiliates of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation.</I> For the purposes of this section, marketable securities must be valued at principal amount or market value, whichever is lower. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credits.</I> In determining compliance with the asset maintenance requirements, the OCC will give the Federal branch or agency credit for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Capital equivalency deposits maintained pursuant to § 28.15; 
</P>
<P>(2) Reserves required to be maintained by the Federal branch or agency pursuant to the FRB's authority under 12 U.S.C. 3105(a); and 
</P>
<P>(3) Assets pledged, and surety bonds payable, to the FDIC to secure the payment of domestic deposits. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusions.</I> In determining eligible assets for purposes of this section, the Federal branch or agency shall exclude: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any amount due from the head office or any other branch, office, agency, subsidiary, or affiliate of the foreign bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any classified asset; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any asset that, in the determination of the OCC, is not supported by sufficient credit information; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any deposit with a bank in the United States, unless that bank has executed a valid waiver of offset agreement; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any asset not in the Federal branch's actual possession unless the branch holds title to the asset and maintains records sufficient to enable independent verification of the branch's ownership of the asset, as determined at the most recent examination; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other particular asset or class of assets as provided by the OCC, based on a case-by-case assessment of the risks associated with the asset. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International banking facility.</I> Unless specifically exempted by the OCC, the eligible assets and liabilities of any international banking facility operated through the Federal branch or agency must be included in the computation of eligible assets and liabilities for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.21   Service of process.</HEAD>
<P>A foreign bank operating at any Federal branch or agency is subject to service of process at the location of the Federal branch or agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.22   Voluntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures to close all Federal branches and agencies.</I> Unless otherwise provided, in cases in which a foreign bank proposes to close all of its Federal branches or agencies, the foreign bank shall comply with applicable requirements in 12 CFR 5.48 and the Manual, including requirements that apply to an expedited liquidation of an insured Federal branch. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to customers and creditors.</I> A foreign bank shall publish notice of the impending closure of each Federal branch or agency for a period of two months in every issue of a local newspaper where the Federal branch or agency is located. If only weekly publication is available, the notice must be published for nine consecutive weeks. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Report of condition.</I> The Federal branch or agency shall submit a Report of Assets and Liabilities of United States Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as of the close of the last business day prior to the start of liquidation of the Federal branch or agency. This report must include a certified maturity schedule of all remaining liabilities, if any. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Return of certificate.</I> The Federal branch or agency shall return the Federal branch or agency license certificate within 30 days of closure to the public. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reports of examination.</I> The Federal branch or agency shall send the OCC certification that all of its Reports of Examination have been destroyed or return its Reports of Examination to the OCC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.23   Procedures for closing of some of a foreign bank's Federal branches and/or agencies.</HEAD>
<P>In cases where § 28.22 does not apply, and a foreign bank is closing one or more, but not all, of its Federal branches and/or agencies, it shall follow the procedures set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1831r-1(a) and (b) (branch closings).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.24   Termination of a Federal branch or agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for termination.</I> The OCC may revoke the authority of a foreign bank to operate a Federal branch or agency if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC determines that there is reasonable cause to believe that the foreign bank has violated or failed to comply with any of the provisions of the IBA, other applicable Federal laws or regulations, or orders of the OCC; 
</P>
<P>(2) A conservator is appointed for the foreign bank, or a similar proceeding is initiated in the foreign bank's home country; 
</P>
<P>(3) One or more grounds for receivership, including insolvency, as specified in 12 U.S.C. 3102(j), exists; 
</P>
<P>(4) One or more grounds for termination, including unsafe and unsound practices, insufficiency or dissipation of assets, concealment of books and records, a money laundering conviction, or other grounds as specified in 12 U.S.C. 191, exists; or 
</P>
<P>(5) The OCC receives a recommendation from the FRB, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3105(e)(5), that the license of a Federal branch or agency be terminated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice and hearing.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the OCC may issue an order to terminate the license of a Federal branch or agency after providing notice to the Federal branch or agency and after providing an opportunity for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures for hearing.</I> The OCC shall conduct a hearing under this section pursuant to the OCC's Rules of Practice and Procedure in 12 CFR part 19. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited procedure.</I> The OCC may act without providing an opportunity for a hearing if it determines that expeditious action is necessary in order to protect the public interest. When the OCC finds that it is necessary to act without providing an opportunity for a hearing, the OCC in its sole discretion, may:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the Federal branch or agency with notice of the intended termination order;
</P>
<P>(ii) Grant the Federal branch or agency an opportunity to present a written submission opposing issuance of the order; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Take any other action designed to provide the Federal branch or agency with notice and an opportunity to present its views concerning the termination order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996. Redesignated at 68 FR 70700, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.25   Change in control.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>After-the-fact notice.</I> In cases in which no other filing is required under subpart B of this part, a foreign bank that operates a Federal branch or agency shall inform the OCC in writing of the direct or indirect acquisition of control of the foreign bank by any person or entity, or group of persons or entities acting in concert, within 14 calendar days after the foreign bank becomes aware of a change in control. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> The foreign bank shall furnish the OCC with any additional information the OCC may require in connection with the acquisition of control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70701, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.2.27.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.26   Loan production offices.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal branch may establish lending offices, make credit decisions, and engage in other representational activities at a site other than a Federal branch office, subject to the same rights, privileges, requirements and limitations that apply to national banks under 12 CFR 7.1003, 7.1004, and 7.1005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70701, Dec. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—International Lending Supervision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.50   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 161, and 1818; and the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Pub. L. 98-181, title IX, 97 Stat. 1153, 12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements the requirements of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>),
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart requires national banks to establish reserves against the risks presented in certain international assets and sets forth the accounting for various fees received by the banks when making international loans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.51   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Banking institution</I> means a national bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the OCC, the FRB, and the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>International assets</I> means those assets required to be included in banking institutions' <I>Country Exposure Report</I> forms (FFIEC 009).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International loan</I> means a loan as defined in the instructions to the <I>Report of Condition and Income</I> for the respective banking institution (FFIEC 031, 032, 033 and 034) and made to a foreign government, or to an individual, a corporation, or other entity not a citizen of, resident in, or organized or incorporated in the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restructured international loan</I> means a loan that meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower is unable to service the existing loan according to its terms and is a resident of a foreign country in which there is a generalized inability of public and private sector obligors to meet their external debt obligations on a timely basis because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the existing loan are amended to reduce stated interest or extend the schedule of payments; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A new loan is made to, or for the benefit of, the borrower, enabling the borrower to service or refinance the existing debt. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfer risk</I> means the possibility that an asset cannot be serviced in the currency of payment because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country of the obligor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 19532, May 2, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 57048, Oct. 26, 1998; 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.52" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.52   Allocated transfer risk reserve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of allocated transfer risk reserve.</I> A banking institution shall establish an allocated transfer risk reserve (ATRR) for specified international assets when required by the OCC in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and standards</I>—(1) <I>Joint agency determination.</I> At least annually, the Federal banking agencies shall determine jointly, based on the standards set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Which international assets subject to transfer risk warrant establishment of an ATRR; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the ATRR for the specified assets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether an ATRR established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for requiring ATRR</I>—(i) <I>Evaluation of assets.</I> The Federal banking agencies shall apply the following criteria in determining whether an ATRR is required for particular international assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the quality of a banking institution's assets has been impaired by a protracted inability of public or private obligors in a foreign country to make payments on their external indebtedness as indicated by such factors, among others, as whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such obligors have failed to make full interest payments on external indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such obligors have failed to comply with the terms of any restructured indebtedness; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A foreign country has failed to comply with any International Monetary Fund or other suitable adjustment program; or
</P>
<P>(B) Whether no definite prospects exist for the orderly restoration of debt service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of amount of ATRR.</I> (A) In determining the amount of the ATRR, the Federal banking agencies shall consider:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The length of time the quality of the asset has been impaired;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Recent actions taken to restore debt service capability;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prospects for restored asset quality; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Such other factors as the Federal banking agencies may consider relevant to the quality of the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) The initial year's provision for the ATRR shall be 10 percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the Federal banking agencies. Additional provision, if any, for the ATRR in subsequent years shall be 15 percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the Federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification.</I> Based on the joint agency determinations under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the OCC shall notify each banking institution holding assets subject to an ATRR:
</P>
<P>(i) Of the amount of the ATRR to be established by the institution for specified international assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That an ATRR to be established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting treatment of ATRR</I>—(1) <I>Charge to current income.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR by a charge to current income and the amounts so charged shall not be included in the banking institution's capital or surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate accounting.</I> A banking institution shall account for an ATRR separately from the Allowance for Possible Loan Losses, and shall deduct the ATRR from “gross loans and leases” to arrive at “net loans and leases.” The ATRR must be established for each asset subject to the ATRR in the percentage amount specified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consolidation.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR, as required, on a consolidated basis. Consolidation should be in accordance with the procedures and tests of significance set forth in the instructions for preparation of <I>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income</I> (FFIEC 031, 032, 033 and 034). For bank holding companies, the consolidation shall be in accordance with the principles set forth in the “Instructions to the Bank Holding Company Financial Supplement to Report F.R. Y-6” (Form F.R. Y-9). Edge corporations and Agreement corporations engaged in banking shall report in accordance with instructions for preparation of the Report of Condition for Edge corporations and Agreement corporations (Form F.R. 2886b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative accounting treatment.</I> A banking institution need not establish an ATRR if it writes down in the period in which the ATRR is required, or has written down in prior periods, the value of the specified international assets in the requisite amount for each such asset. For purposes of this paragraph, international assets may be written down by a charge to the Allowance for Possible Loan Losses or a reduction in the principal amount of the asset by application of interest payments or other collections on the asset. However, the Allowance for Possible Loan Losses must be replenished in such amount necessary to restore it to a level which adequately provides for the estimated losses inherent in the banking institution's loan portfolio.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reduction of ATRR.</I> A banking institution may reduce an ATRR when notified by the OCC or, at any time, by writing down such amount of the international asset for which the ATRR was established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.53" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.53   Accounting for fees on international loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions on fees for restructured international loans.</I> No banking institution shall charge, in connection with the restructuring of an international loan, any fee exceeding the administrative costs of the restructuring unless it amortizes the amount of the fee exceeding the administrative cost over the effective life of the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting treatment.</I> Subject to paragraph (a) of this section, a banking institution is to account for fees in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 57048, Oct. 26, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 28.54" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.25.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 28.54   Reporting and disclosure of international assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Pursuant to section 907(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (title IX, Pub. L. 98-181, 97 Stat. 1153, 12 U.S.C. 3906) (ILSA) a banking institution shall submit to the OCC, at least quarterly, information regarding the amounts and composition of its holdings of international assets. 
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 907(b) of ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3906), a banking institution shall submit to the OCC information regarding concentrations in its holdings of international assets that are material in relation to total assets and to capital of the institution, such information to be made publicly available by the OCC on request. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> The format, content, and reporting and filing dates of the reports required under paragraph (a) of this section shall be determined jointly by the Federal banking agencies. The requirements to be prescribed by the agencies may include changes to existing reporting forms (such as the Country Exposure Report, FFIEC 009) or such other requirements as the agencies deem appropriate. The agencies also may determine to exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section banking institutions that, in the agencies' judgment, have <I>de minimis</I> holdings of international assets. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing contained in this part shall preclude the OCC from requiring from a banking institution such additional or more frequent information on the institution's holdings of international assets as the OCC may consider necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="29" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 29 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 30—SAFETY AND SOUNDNESS STANDARDS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 371, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831p-1, 1881-1884, 3102(b) and 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 1681s, 1681w, 6801, and 6805(b)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 30 appear at 69 FR 77616, Dec. 28, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 30.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules set forth in this part and the standards set forth in appendices A, B, C, D, and E to this part apply to national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches of foreign banks that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39)(12 U.S.C. 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>(b) The standards set forth in appendix B to this part also apply to uninsured national banks, Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, and the subsidiaries of any national bank, Federal savings association, and Federal branch and Federal agency of a foreign bank (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers). Violation of these standards may be an unsafe and unsound practice within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 1818.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 8633, Feb. 1, 2001, as amended at 70 FR 6332, Feb. 7, 2005; 79 FR 54543, Sept. 11, 2014; 81 FR 66800, Sept. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 39 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, requires the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, a national bank or Federal savings association may be required to submit a compliance plan if it is not in compliance with a safety and soundness standard prescribed by guideline under section 39(a) or (b). An enforceable order under section 8 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818(b), may be issued if, after being notified that it is in violation of a safety and soundness standard prescribed under section 39, the national bank or Federal savings association fails to submit an acceptable compliance plan or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan. This part establishes procedures for requiring submission of a compliance plan and issuing an enforceable order pursuant to section 39. The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness are set forth in appendix A to this part, and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards are set forth in appendix B to this part. The OCC Guidelines Establishing Standards for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices are set forth in appendix C to this part. The OCC Guidelines Establishing Heightened Standards for Certain Large Insured National Banks, Insured Federal Savings Associations, and Insured Federal Branches are set forth in appendix D to this part. The OCC Guidelines Establishing Standards for Recovery Planning by Certain Large Insured National Banks, Insured Federal Savings Associations, and Insured Federal Branches are set forth in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 55488, Oct. 15, 1998; 64 FR 52641, Sept. 30, 1999; 66 FR 8633, Feb. 1, 2001; 70 FR 6332, Feb. 7, 2005; 79 FR 54543, Sept. 11, 2014; 81 FR 66800, Sept. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.3   Determination and notification of failure to meet safety and soundness standards and request for compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination.</I> The OCC may, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information that becomes available to the OCC, determine that a national bank or Federal savings association has failed to satisfy the safety and soundness standards contained in the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness set forth in appendix A to this part, the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information set forth in appendix B to this part, the OCC Guidelines Establishing Standards for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices set forth in appendix C to this part, the OCC Guidelines Establishing Heightened Standards for Certain Large Insured National Banks, Insured Federal Savings Associations, and Insured Federal Branches set forth in appendix D to this part, or the OCC Guidelines Establishing Standards for Recovery Planning by Certain Large Insured National Banks, Insured Federal Savings Associations, and Insured Federal Branches set forth in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for compliance plan.</I> If the OCC determines that a national bank or Federal savings association has failed to satisfy a safety and soundness standard pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the OCC may request, by letter or through a report of examination, the submission of a compliance plan and the bank or savings association shall be deemed to have notice of the deficiency three days after mailing of the letter by the OCC or delivery of the report of examination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 55488, Oct. 15, 1998; 64 FR 52641, Sept. 30, 1999; 66 FR 8633, Feb. 1, 2001; 70 FR 6332, Feb. 7, 2005; 79 FR 54543, Sept. 11, 2014; 81 FR 66800, Sept. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.4   Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall file a written safety and soundness compliance plan with the OCC within 30 days of receiving a request for a compliance plan pursuant to § 30.3(b) unless the OCC notifies the bank or savings association in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other plans.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association is obligated to file, or is currently operating under, a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)), a formal or informal agreement, or a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of the OCC, submit a compliance plan under this section as part of that plan, order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline provided in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> The compliance plan shall include a description of the steps the national bank or Federal savings association will take to correct the deficiency and the time within which those steps will be taken. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of safety and soundness compliance plans.</I> Within 30 days after receiving a safety and soundness compliance plan under this part, the OCC shall provide written notice to the national bank or Federal savings association of whether the plan has been approved or seek additional information from the bank or savings association regarding the plan. The OCC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan will be provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to submit or implement a compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time specified by the OCC or fails in any material respect to implement a compliance plan, then the OCC shall, by order, require the bank or savings association to correct the deficiency and may take further actions provided in section 39(e)(2)(B). Pursuant to section 39(e)(3), the OCC may be required to take certain actions if the national bank or Federal savings association commenced operations or experienced a change in control within the previous 24-month period, or the bank or savings association experienced extraordinary growth during the previous 18-month period. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extraordinary growth.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, extraordinary growth means an increase in assets of more than 7.5 percent during any quarter within the 18-month period preceding the issuance of a request for submission of a compliance plan, by a national bank or Federal savings association that is not well capitalized for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) will be excluded. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment of compliance plan.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that has filed an approved compliance plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the OCC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank or savings association shall implement the compliance plan as previously approved. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 54543, Sept. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.5   Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue order</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The OCC shall provide a national bank or Federal savings association prior written notice of the OCC's intention to issue an order requiring the bank or savings association to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act. The national bank or Federal savings association shall have such time to respond to a proposed order as provided by the OCC under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final order.</I> If the OCC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 39 of the FDI Act, the OCC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue an order requiring a national bank or Federal savings association immediately to take actions to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39. A national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to such an immediately effective order may submit a written appeal of the order to the OCC. Such an appeal must be received by the OCC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the order, unless the OCC permits a longer period. The OCC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely manner, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the order shall remain in effect unless the OCC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the order. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notice.</I> A notice of intent to issue an order shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the safety and soundness deficiency or deficiencies that have been identified at the national bank or Federal savings association; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the OCC proposes to impose or require; 
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of any required action; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the national bank or Federal savings association subject to the order may file with the OCC a written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice</I>—(1) <I>Time for response.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order within the time period set by the OCC. Such a response must be received by the OCC within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the OCC determines that a different period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the national bank or Federal savings association or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the OCC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 39;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the national bank or Federal savings association regarding the proposed order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agency consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the OCC may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the order and so notify the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the national bank or Federal savings association, or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a national bank or Federal savings association to file with the OCC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed order shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for modification or rescission of order.</I> Any national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to an order under this part may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the OCC reconsider the terms of the order, and may propose that the order be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, the order shall continue in place while such request is pending before the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 54544, Sept. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 30.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 30.6   Enforcement of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a national bank or Federal savings association fails to comply with an order issued under section 39, the OCC may seek enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with order.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)(A), the OCC may assess a civil money penalty against any national bank or Federal savings association that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final order issued under section 39 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the OCC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 39 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35680, July 10, 1995, as amended at 79 FR 54544, Sept. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.7.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 30—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness


</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>A. Preservation of existing authority. 
</P>
<P>B. Definitions. 
</P>
<HD2>II. Operational and Managerial Standards 
</HD2>
<P>A. Internal controls and information systems. 
</P>
<P>B. Internal audit system. 
</P>
<P>C. Loan documentation. 
</P>
<P>D. Credit underwriting. 
</P>
<P>E. Interest rate exposure. 
</P>
<P>F. Asset growth. 
</P>
<P>G. Asset quality. 
</P>
<P>H. Earnings. 
</P>
<P>I. Compensation, fees and benefits. 
</P>
<HD2>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice 
</HD2>
<P>A. Excessive compensation. 
</P>
<P>B. Compensation leading to material financial loss. 
</P>
<HD1>I. Introduction 
</HD1>
<P>i. Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (FDI Act) requires each Federal banking agency (collectively, the agencies) to establish certain safety and soundness standards by regulation or by guideline for all insured depository institutions. Under section 39, the agencies must establish three types of standards: (1) Operational and managerial standards; (2) compensation standards; and (3) such standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation as they determine to be appropriate.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) was added by section 132 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (FDICIA), Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991), and amended by section 956 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3895 (1992) and section 318 of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994, Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160 (1994).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. Section 39(a) requires the agencies to establish operational and managerial standards relating to: (1) Internal controls, information systems and internal audit systems, in accordance with section 36 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831m); (2) loan documentation; (3) credit underwriting; (4) interest rate exposure; (5) asset growth; and (6) compensation, fees, and benefits, in accordance with subsection (c) of section 39. Section 39(b) requires the agencies to establish standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation that the agencies determine to be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>iii. Section 39(c) requires the agencies to establish standards prohibiting as an unsafe and unsound practice any compensatory arrangement that would provide any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder of the institution with excessive compensation, fees or benefits and any compensatory arrangement that could lead to material financial loss to an institution. Section 39(c) also requires that the agencies establish standards that specify when compensation is excessive. 
</P>
<P>iv. If an agency determines that an institution fails to meet any standard established by guideline under subsection (a) or (b) of section 39, the agency may require the institution to submit to the agency an acceptable plan to achieve compliance with the standard. In the event that an institution fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time allowed by the agency or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan, the agency must, by order, require the institution to correct the deficiency. The agency may, and in some cases must, take other supervisory actions until the deficiency has been corrected. 
</P>
<P>v. The agencies have adopted amendments to their rules and regulations to establish deadlines for submission and review of compliance plans. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, these regulations appear at 12 CFR part 30; for the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, these regulations appear at 12 CFR part 263; and for the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, these regulations appear at 12 CFR part 308, subpart R and 12 CFR part 391, subpart B.</P></FTNT>
<P>vi. The following Guidelines set out the safety and soundness standards that the agencies use to identify and address problems at insured depository institutions before capital becomes impaired. The agencies believe that the standards adopted in these Guidelines serve this end without dictating how institutions must be managed and operated. These standards are designed to identify potential safety and soundness concerns and ensure that action is taken to address those concerns before they pose a risk to the deposit insurance funds. 
</P>
<HD1>A. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority</I>
</HD1>
<P>Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the agencies to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 39 and these Guidelines may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the agencies. Nothing in these Guidelines limits the authority of the FDIC pursuant to section 38(i)(2)(F) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(o)) and part 325 of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations. 
</P>
<HD1>B. <I>Definitions</I>
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> For purposes of these Guidelines, except as modified in the Guidelines or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank and in the case of a Federal branch of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the insured foreign branch. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensation</I> means all direct and indirect payments or benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, including but not limited to payments or benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, postemployment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Director</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(c). 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In applying these definitions for savings associations, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464, savings associations shall use the terms “savings association” and “insured savings association” in place of the terms “member bank” and “insured bank”.</P></FTNT>
<P>5. <I>Executive officer</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(d). 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>6. <I>Principal shareholder</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(<I>l</I>). 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Operational and Managerial Standards
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Internal controls and information systems.</I> An institution should have internal controls and information systems that are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature, scope and risk of its activities and that provide for: 
</P>
<P>1. An organizational structure that establishes clear lines of authority and responsibility for monitoring adherence to established policies; 
</P>
<P>2. Effective risk assessment; 
</P>
<P>3. Timely and accurate financial, operational and regulatory reports; 
</P>
<P>4. Adequate procedures to safeguard and manage assets; and 
</P>
<P>5. Compliance with applicable laws and regulations. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Internal audit system.</I> An institution should have an internal audit system that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities and that provides for: 
</P>
<P>1. Adequate monitoring of the system of internal controls through an internal audit function. For an institution whose size, complexity or scope of operations does not warrant a full scale internal audit function, a system of independent reviews of key internal controls may be used; 
</P>
<P>2. Independence and objectivity; 
</P>
<P>3. Qualified persons; 
</P>
<P>4. Adequate testing and review of information systems; 
</P>
<P>5. Adequate documentation of tests and findings and any corrective actions; 
</P>
<P>6. Verification and review of management actions to address material weaknesses; and 
</P>
<P>7. Review by the institution's audit committee or board of directors of the effectiveness of the internal audit systems. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Loan documentation.</I> An institution should establish and maintain loan documentation practices that: 
</P>
<P>1. Enable the institution to make an informed lending decision and to assess risk, as necessary, on an ongoing basis; 
</P>
<P>2. Identify the purpose of a loan and the source of repayment, and assess the ability of the borrower to repay the indebtedness in a timely manner; 
</P>
<P>3. Ensure that any claim against a borrower is legally enforceable; 
</P>
<P>4. Demonstrate appropriate administration and monitoring of a loan; and 
</P>
<P>5. Take account of the size and complexity of a loan. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Credit underwriting.</I> An institution should establish and maintain prudent credit underwriting practices that: 
</P>
<P>1. Are commensurate with the types of loans the institution will make and consider the terms and conditions under which they will be made; 
</P>
<P>2. Consider the nature of the markets in which loans will be made; 
</P>
<P>3. Provide for consideration, prior to credit commitment, of the borrower's overall financial condition and resources, the financial responsibility of any guarantor, the nature and value of any underlying collateral, and the borrower's character and willingness to repay as agreed; 
</P>
<P>4. Establish a system of independent, ongoing credit review and appropriate communication to management and to the board of directors; 
</P>
<P>5. Take adequate account of concentration of credit risk; and 
</P>
<P>6. Are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Interest rate exposure.</I> An institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Manage interest rate risk in a manner that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the complexity of its assets and liabilities; and 
</P>
<P>2. Provide for periodic reporting to management and the board of directors regarding interest rate risk with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of risk. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Asset growth.</I> An institution's asset growth should be prudent and consider: 
</P>
<P>1. The source, volatility and use of the funds that support asset growth; 
</P>
<P>2. Any increase in credit risk or interest rate risk as a result of growth; and 
</P>
<P>3. The effect of growth on the institution's capital. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Asset quality.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to identify problem assets and prevent deterioration in those assets. The institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Conduct periodic assetquality reviews to identify problem assets; 
</P>
<P>2. Estimate the inherent losses in those assets and establish reserves that are sufficient to absorb estimated losses; 
</P>
<P>3. Compare problem asset totals to capital; 
</P>
<P>4. Take appropriate corrective action to resolve problem assets; 
</P>
<P>5. Consider the size and potential risks of material asset concentrations; and 
</P>
<P>6. Provide periodic asset reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of asset risk. 
</P>
<P>H. <I>Earnings.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to evaluate and monitor earnings and ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves. The institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Compare recent earnings trends relative to equity, assets, or other commonly used benchmarks to the institution's historical results and those of its peers; 
</P>
<P>2. Evaluate the adequacy of earnings given the size, complexity, and risk profile of the institution's assets and operations; 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the source, volatility, and sustainability of earnings, including the effect of nonrecurring or extraordinary income or expense; 
</P>
<P>4. Take steps to ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves after considering the institution's asset quality and growth rate; and 
</P>
<P>5. Provide periodic earnings reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess earnings performance. 
</P>
<P>I. <I>Compensation, fees and benefits.</I> An institution should maintain safeguards to prevent the payment of compensation, fees, and benefits that are excessive or that could lead to material financial loss to the institution. 
</P>
<HD1>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Excessive Compensation
</HD2>
<P>Excessive compensation is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice. Compensation shall be considered excessive when amounts paid are unreasonable or disproportionate to the services performed by an executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, considering the following: 
</P>
<P>1. The combined value of all cash and non-cash benefits provided to the individual; 
</P>
<P>2. The compensation history of the individual and other individuals with comparable expertise at the institution; 
</P>
<P>3. The financial condition of the institution; 
</P>
<P>4. Comparable compensation practices at comparable institutions, based upon such factors as asset size, geographic location, and the complexity of the loan portfolio or other assets; 
</P>
<P>5. For postemployment benefits, the projected total cost and benefit to the institution; 
</P>
<P>6. Any connection between the individual and any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the institution; and 
</P>
<P>7. Any other factors the agencies determines to be relevant. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Compensation Leading to Material Financial Loss 
</HD2>
<P>Compensation that could lead to material financial loss to an institution is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35678, 35682, July 10, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 43950, Aug. 27, 1996; 79 FR 54544, Sept. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.7.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 30—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards










</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Introduction 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Scope 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Preservation of Existing Authority 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Definitions 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>II. Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Information Security Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Objectives 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>III. Development and Implementation of Customer Information Security Program 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Involve the Board of Directors 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Assess Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Manage and Control Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Adjust the Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Report to the Board 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Implement the Standards 
</FP1-2>
<P>I. Introduction
</P>
<P>The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39, codified at 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), and sections 501 and 505(b), codified at 15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805(b) of the Gramm-Leach Bliley Act. These Guidelines address standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information. These Guidelines also address standards with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information, pursuant to sections 621 and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w).
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> The Guidelines apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of entities over which the OCC has authority. Such entities, referred to as “the national bank or Federal savings association,” are national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, and any subsidiaries of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers). The Guidelines also apply to the proper disposal of consumer information by or on behalf of such entities.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority.</I> Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limit the authority of the OCC to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The OCC may take action under section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement action available to the OCC. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Definitions.</I> 1. Except as modified in the Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Consumer information</I> means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the national bank or Federal savings association for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not identify an individual.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples.</I> (1) <I>Consumer information</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A consumer report that a national bank or Federal savings association obtains;
</P>
<P>(B) Information from a consumer report that the national bank or Federal savings association obtains from its affiliate after the consumer has been given a notice and has elected not to opt out of that sharing;
</P>
<P>(C) Information from a consumer report that the national bank or Federal savings association obtains about an individual who applies for but does not receive a loan, including any loan sought by an individual for a business purpose;
</P>
<P>(D) Information from a consumer report that the national bank or Federal savings association obtains about an individual who guarantees a loan (including a loan to a business entity); or
</P>
<P>(E) Information from a consumer report that the national bank or Federal savings association obtains about an employee or prospective employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer information</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate information, such as the mean credit score, derived from a group of consumer reports; or
</P>
<P>(B) Blind data, such as payment history on accounts that are not personally identifiable, that may be used for developing credit scoring models or for other purposes.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Customer</I> means any customer of the national bank or Federal savings association as defined in 12 CFR 1016.3(i). 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Customer information</I> means any record containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in 12 CFR 1016.3(p), about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the national bank or Federal savings association. 
</P>
<P>f. <I>Customer information systems</I> means any methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information. 
</P>
<P>g. <I>Service provider</I> means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information or consumer information through its provision of services directly to the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Information Security 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Information Security Program.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall implement a comprehensive written information security program that includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the national bank or Federal savings association and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the national bank or Federal savings association are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's information security program shall be designed to: 
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; 
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; 
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer; and
</P>
<P>4. Ensure the proper disposal of customer information and consumer information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Development and Implementation of Information Security Program 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Involve the Board of Directors.</I> The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each national bank or Federal savings association shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Approve the national bank's or Federal savings association's written information security program; and 
</P>
<P>2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the national bank's or Federal savings association's information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Assess Risk.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information. 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Manage and Control Risk.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the national bank's or Federal savings association's activities. Each national bank or Federal savings association must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the national bank or Federal savings association and, if so, adopt those measures the national bank or Federal savings association concludes are appropriate: 
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means. 
</P>
<P>b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing customer information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals; 
</P>
<P>c. Encryption of electronic customer information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access; 
</P>
<P>d. Procedures designed to ensure that customer information system modifications are consistent with the national bank's or Federal savings association's information security program; 
</P>
<P>e. Dual control procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to customer information; 
</P>
<P>f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into customer information systems; 
</P>
<P>g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the national bank or Federal savings association suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and 
</P>
<P>h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of customer information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technological failures. 
</P>
<P>2. Train staff to implement the national bank's or Federal savings association's information security program. 
</P>
<P>3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs. 
</P>
<P>4. Develop, implement, and maintain, as part of its information security program, appropriate measures to properly dispose of customer information and consumer information in accordance with each of the requirements of this paragraph III.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oversee Service Provider Arrangements.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers; 
</P>
<P>2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these Guidelines; and 
</P>
<P>3. Where indicated by the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by section D.2. As part of this monitoring, a national bank or Federal savings association should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Adjust the Program.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its customer information, internal or external threats to information, and the national bank's or Federal savings association's own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Report to the Board.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association shall report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the national bank's or Federal savings association's compliance with these Guidelines. The reports should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations and management's responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Implement the Standards.</I> 1. <I>Effective date.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association must implement an information security program pursuant to these Guidelines by July 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Two-year grandfathering of agreements with service providers.</I> Until July 1, 2003, a contract that a national bank or Federal savings association has entered into with a service provider to perform services for it or functions on its behalf satisfies the provisions of section III.D., even if the contract does not include a requirement that the servicer maintain the security and confidentiality of customer information, as long as the national bank or Federal savings association entered into the contract on or before March 5, 2001.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effective date for measures relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association must satisfy these Guidelines with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2005.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Exception for existing agreements with service providers relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Notwithstanding the requirement in paragraph III.G.3., a national bank's or Federal savings association's contracts with its service providers that have access to consumer information and that may dispose of consumer information, entered into before July 1, 2005, must comply with the provisions of the Guidelines relating to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2006.
</P>
<HD1>Supplement A to Appendix B to Part 30—Interagency Guidance on Response Programs for Unauthorized Access to Customer Information and Customer Notice
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Background
</HD1>
<P>This Guidance 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> interprets section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (“GLBA”) and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (the “Security Guidelines”) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and describes response programs, including customer notification procedures, that a financial institution should develop and implement to address unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to a customer. The scope of, and definitions of terms used in, this Guidance are identical to those of the Security Guidelines. For example, the term “customer information” is the same term used in the Security Guidelines, and means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, maintained by or on behalf of the institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This Guidance was jointly issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS). Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5412, the OTS is no longer a party to this Guidance.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 CFR part 30, app. B (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, app. D-2 and part 225, app. F (Board); and 12 CFR part 364, app. B and 12 CFR 391.5 (FDIC). The “Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards” were formerly known as “The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information.”</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Interagency Security Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the Agencies to establish appropriate standards for financial institutions subject to their jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards, to protect the security and confidentiality of customer information. Accordingly, the Agencies issued Security Guidelines requiring every financial institution to have an information security program designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Assessment and Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
</P>
<P>a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems;
</P>
<P>b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.B.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. Following the assessment of these risks, the Security Guidelines require a financial institution to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures an institution should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the financial institution is required to consider the specific security measures enumerated in the Security Guidelines, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and adopt those that are appropriate for the institution, including:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
</P>
<P>b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the financial institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>C. Service Providers
</HD2>
<P>The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, II.B. and III.D. Further, the Agencies note that, in addition to contractual obligations to a financial institution, a service provider may be required to implement its own comprehensive information security program in accordance with the Safeguards Rule promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”), 16 CFR part 314.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Response Program
</HD1>
<P>Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Identity thieves misuse personal information they obtain from a number of sources, including financial institutions, to perpetrate identity theft. Therefore, financial institutions should take preventative measures to safeguard customer information against attempts to gain unauthorized access to the information. For example, financial institutions should place access controls on customer information systems and conduct background checks for employees who are authorized to access customer information. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> However, every financial institution should also develop and implement a risk-based response program to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems 




<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> that occur nonetheless. A response program should be a key part of an institution's information security program. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> The program should be appropriate to the size and complexity of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The FTC estimates that nearly 10 million Americans discovered they were victims of some form of identity theft in 2002. <I>See</I> The Federal Trade Commission, <I>Identity Theft Survey Report,</I> (September 2003), available at <I>http://www.ftc.gov/os/2003/09/synovatereport.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Institutions should also conduct background checks of employees to ensure that the institution does not violate 12 U.S.C. 1829, which prohibits an institution from hiring an individual convicted of certain criminal offenses or who is subject to a prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Under the Guidelines, an institution's <I>customer information systems</I> consist of all of the methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information, including the systems maintained by its service providers. <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, I.C.2.d.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002 available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/ffiecinfobase/html_pages/infosec_book_frame.htm.</I> Federal Reserve SR 97-32, Sound Practice Guidance for Information Security for Networks, Dec. 4, 1997; OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000), for additional guidance on preventing, detecting, and responding to intrusions into financial institution computer systems.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, each institution should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in the Guidelines that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the Agencies, 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> an institution's contract with its service provider should require the service provider to take appropriate actions to address incidents of unauthorized access to the financial institution's customer information, including notification to the institution as soon as possible of any such incident, to enable the institution to expeditiously implement its response program.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> Federal Reserve SR Ltr. 13-19, Guidance on Managing Outsourcing Risk, Dec. 5, 2013; OCC Bulletin 2013-29, “Third-Party Relationships—Risk Management Guidance,” Oct. 30, 2013; and FDIC FIL 68-99, Risk Assessment Tools and Practices for Information System Security, July 7, 1999.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Components of a Response Program
</HD2>
<P>1. At a minimum, an institution's response program should contain procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what customer information systems and types of customer information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>b. Notifying its primary Federal regulator as soon as possible when the institution becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of <I>sensitive</I> customer information, as defined below;
</P>
<P>c. Consistent with the Agencies' Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations, 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> notifying appropriate law enforcement authorities, in addition to filing a timely SAR in situations involving Federal criminal violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> An institution's obligation to file a SAR is set out in the Agencies' SAR regulations and Agency guidance. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 21.11 (national banks, Federal branches and agencies); 12 CFR 163.180 (Federal savings associations); 12 CFR 208.62 (State member banks); 12 CFR 211.5(k) (Edge and agreement corporations); 12 CFR 211.24(f) (uninsured State branches and agencies of foreign banks); 12 CFR 225.4(f) (bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries); 12 CFR part 353 (State non-member banks); and 12 CFR 390.355 (state savings associations). National banks and Federal savings associations must file SARs in connection with computer intrusions and other computer crimes. <I>See</I> OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000); <I>see also</I> Federal Reserve SR 01-11, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, Apr. 26, 2001.</P></FTNT>
<P>d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of customer information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence;
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002, pp. 68-74.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. Notifying customers when warranted.
</P>
<P>2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to customer information involves customer information systems maintained by an institution's service providers, it is the responsibility of the financial institution to notify the institution's customers and regulator. However, an institution may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the institution's customers or regulator on its behalf.
</P>
<HD1>III. Customer Notice
</HD1>
<P>Financial institutions have an affirmative duty to protect their customers' information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying customers of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the customer's information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty. Timely and effective notice also may reduce an institution's legal risk, assist in maintaining good customer relations, and enable the institution's customers to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When customer notification is warranted, an institution may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the institution believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
</P>
<HD2>A. Standard for Providing Notice
</HD2>
<P>When a financial institution becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive customer information, the institution should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the institution determines that misuse of its information about a customer has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected customer as soon as possible. Customer notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the institution with a written request for the delay. However, the institution should notify its customers as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>1. Sensitive Customer Information
</HD3>
<P>Under the Guidelines, an institution must protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to <I>sensitive customer information</I> because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft. For purposes of this Guidance, <I>sensitive customer information</I> means a customer's name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the customer's social security number, driver's license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the customer's account. <I>Sensitive customer information</I> also includes any combination of components of customer information that would allow someone to log onto or access the customer's account, such as user name and password or password and account number.
</P>
<HD3>2. Affected Customers
</HD3>
<P>If a financial institution, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which customers' information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those customers with regard to whom the institution determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the institution determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific customers' information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the institution to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all customers in the group.
</P>
<HD2>B. Content of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. Customer notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of customer information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the institution has done to protect the customers' information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that customers can call for further information and assistance. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice also should remind customers of the need to remain vigilant over the next twelve to twenty-four months, and to promptly report incidents of suspected identity theft to the institution. The notice should include the following additional items, when appropriate:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The institution should, therefore, ensure that it has reasonable policies and procedures in place, including trained personnel, to respond appropriately to customer inquiries and requests for assistance.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. A recommendation that the customer review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the institution;
</P>
<P>b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the customer may place a fraud alert in the customer's consumer reports to put the customer's creditors on notice that the customer may be a victim of fraud;
</P>
<P>c. A recommendation that the customer periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
</P>
<P>d. An explanation of how the customer may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
</P>
<P>e. Information about the availability of the FTC's online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the customer to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC's Web site address and toll-free telephone number that customers may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Currently, the FTC Web site for the ID Theft brochure and the FTC Hotline phone number are <I>http://www.consumer.gov/idtheft</I> and 1-877-IDTHEFT. The institution may also refer customers to any materials developed pursuant to section 151(b) of the FACT Act (educational materials developed by the FTC to teach the public how to prevent identity theft).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. The Agencies encourage financial institutions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of customers that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
</P>
<HD2>C. Delivery of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>Customer notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a customer can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the institution may choose to contact all customers affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those customers for whom it has a valid e-mail address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 8633, Feb. 1, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 77616, Dec. 28, 2004; 70 FR 15751, 15753, Mar. 29, 2005; 71 FR 5780, Feb. 3, 2006; 79 FR 54544, Sept. 11, 2014; 91 FR 18293, Apr. 10, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.7.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 30—OCC Guidelines Establishing Standards for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices








</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP>I. Introduction 
</FP>
<P-1>A. Scope 
</P-1>
<P-1>B. Preservation of Existing Authority 
</P-1>
<P-1>C. Relationship to Other Legal Requirements 
</P-1>
<P-1>D. Definitions 
</P-1>
<FP>II. Standards for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices 
</FP>
<P-1>A. General 
</P-1>
<P-1>B. Objectives 
</P-1>
<FP>III. Implementation of Residential Mortgage Lending Standards 
</FP>
<P-1>A. Avoidance of Particular Loan Terms, Conditions, and Features 
</P-1>
<P-1>B. Prudent Consideration of Certain Loan Terms, Conditions and Features 
</P-1>
<P-1>C. Enhanced Care To Avoid Abusive Loan Terms, Conditions, and Features in Certain Mortgages 
</P-1>
<P-1>D. Avoidance of Consumer Misunderstanding 
</P-1>
<P-1>E. Purchased and Brokered Loans 
</P-1>
<P-1>F. Monitoring and Corrective Action
</P-1>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>i. These OCC Guidelines for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1 (Section 39). The Guidelines are designed to protect against involvement by national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, and their respective operating subsidiaries (together, “national banks and Federal savings associations”), either directly or through loans that they purchase or make through intermediaries, in predatory or abusive residential mortgage lending practices that are injurious to their respective customers and that expose the national bank or Federal savings association to credit, legal, compliance, and other risks. The Guidelines focus on the substance of activities and practices, not the creation of policies. The Guidelines are enforceable under Section 39 in accordance with the procedures prescribed by the regulations in 12 CFR part 30.
</P>
<P>ii. As the OCC has previously indicated in guidance to national banks and in rulemaking proceedings (OCC Advisory Letters 2003-2 and 2003-3 (Feb. 21, 2003)), many of the abusive practices commonly associated with predatory mortgage lending, such as loan flipping and equity stripping, will involve conduct that likely violates the Federal Trade Commission Act's (FTC Act) prohibition against unfair or deceptive acts or practices. 15 U.S.C. 45. In addition, loans that involve violations of the FTC Act, or mortgage loans based predominantly on the foreclosure or liquidation value of the borrower's collateral without regard to the borrower's ability to repay the loan according to its terms, will involve violations of OCC regulations governing real estate lending activities, 12 CFR 34.3 (Lending Rules).
</P>
<P>iii. In addition, national banks, Federal savings associations, and their respective operating subsidiaries must comply with the requirements and Guidelines affecting appraisals of residential mortgage loans and appraiser independence. 12 CFR part 34, subpart C, and the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines (OCC Bulletin 2010-42 (December 10, 2010). For example, engaging in a practice of influencing the independent judgment of an appraiser with respect to a valuation of real estate that is to be security for a residential mortgage loan would violate applicable standards.
</P>
<P>iv. Targeting inappropriate credit products and unfair loan terms to certain borrowers also may entail conduct that violates the FTC Act, as well as the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA) and the Fair Housing Act (FHA). 15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I> 42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I> For example, “steering” a consumer to a loan with higher costs rather than to a comparable loan offered by the national bank or Federal savings association with lower costs for which the consumer could qualify, on a prohibited basis such as the borrower's race, national origin, age, gender, or marital status, would be unlawful.
</P>
<P>v. OCC regulations also prohibit national banks and their operating subsidiaries from providing lump sum, single premium fees for debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements in connection with residential mortgage loans. 12 CFR 37.3(c)(2). Some lending practices and loan terms, including financing single premium credit insurance and the use of mandatory arbitration clauses, also may significantly impair the eligibility of a residential mortgage loan for purchase in the secondary market.
</P>
<P>vi. Finally, OCC regulations and supervisory guidance on fiduciary activities and asset management address the need for national banks and Federal savings associations to perform due diligence and exercise appropriate control with regard to trustee activities. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 9.6 (a), in the case of national banks, and 12 CFR 150.200, in the case of Federal savings associations, and the Comptroller's Handbook on Asset Management. 
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> These Guidelines apply to the residential mortgage lending activities of national banks, Federal savings associations, Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, and operating subsidiaries of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority.</I> Neither Section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the OCC to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, unfair or deceptive practices, or other violations of law. The OCC may take action under Section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the OCC.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Relationship to Other Legal Requirements.</I> Actions by a national bank or Federal savings association in connection with residential mortgage lending that are inconsistent with these Guidelines or Appendix A to this part 30 may also constitute unsafe or unsound practices for purposes of section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818, unfair or deceptive practices for purposes of section 5 of the FTC Act, 15 U.S.C. 45, and the OCC's Lending Rules, 12 CFR 34.3 (Lending Rules) and Real Estate Lending Standards, 12 CFR part 34, subpart D, in the case of national banks, and 12 CFR 160.100 and 160.101, in the case of Federal savings associations, or violations of the ECOA and FHA.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Except as modified in these Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1.
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of these Guidelines, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Residential mortgage loan</I> means any loan or other extension of credit made to one or more individuals for personal, family, or household purposes secured by an owner-occupied 1-4 family residential dwelling, including a cooperative unit or mobile home.
</P>
<P>b. <I>National bank or Federal savings association</I> means any national bank, Federal savings association, Federal branch or Federal agency of a foreign bank, and any operating subsidiary thereof that is subject to these Guidelines.


</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Residential Mortgage Lending Practices
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's residential mortgage lending activities should reflect standards and practices consistent with and appropriate to the size and complexity of the bank or savings association and the nature and scope of its lending activities.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's residential mortgage lending activities should reflect standards and practices that:
</P>
<P>1. Enable the national bank or Federal savings association to effectively manage the credit, legal, compliance, and other risks associated with the bank's or savings association's consumer residential mortgage lending activities.
</P>
<P>2. Effectively prevent the national bank or Federal savings association from becoming engaged in abusive, predatory, unfair, or deceptive practices, directly, indirectly through mortgage brokers or other intermediaries, or through purchased loans.
</P>
<HD1>III. Implementation of Residential Mortgage Lending Standards
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Avoidance of Particular Loan Terms, Conditions, and Features.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association should not become involved, directly or indirectly in residential mortgage lending activities involving abusive, predatory, unfair or deceptive lending practices, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Equity Stripping and Fee Packing.</I> Repeat refinancings where a borrower's equity is depleted as a result of financing excessive fees for the loan or ancillary products.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan Flipping.</I> Repeat refinancings under circumstances where the relative terms of the new and refinanced loan and the cost of the new loan do not provide a tangible economic benefit to the borrower.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Refinancing of Special Mortgages.</I> Refinancing of a special subsidized mortgage that contains terms favorable to the borrower with a loan that does not provide a tangible economic benefit to the borrower relative to the refinanced loan.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Encouragement of Default.</I> Encouraging a borrower to breach a contract and default on an existing loan prior to and in connection with the consummation of a loan that refinances all or part of the existing loan.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Prudent Consideration of Certain Loan Terms, Conditions and Features.</I> Certain loan terms, conditions and features, may, under particular circumstances, be susceptible to abusive, predatory, unfair or deceptive practices, yet may be appropriate and acceptable risk mitigation measures, consistent with safe and sound lending, and benefit customers under other circumstances. A national bank or Federal savings association should prudently consider the circumstances, including the characteristics of a targeted market and applicable consumer and safety and soundness safeguards, under which the national bank or Federal savings association will engage directly or indirectly in making residential mortgage loans with the following loan terms, conditions and features:
</P>
<P>1. Financing single premium credit life, disability or unemployment insurance.
</P>
<P>2. Negative amortization, involving a payment schedule in which regular periodic payments cause the principal balance to increase.
</P>
<P>3. Balloon payments in short-term transactions.
</P>
<P>4. Prepayment penalties that are not limited to the early years of the loan, particularly in subprime loans.
</P>
<P>5. Interest rate increases upon default at a level not commensurate with risk mitigation.
</P>
<P>6. Call provisions permitting the national bank or Federal savings association to accelerate payment of the loan under circumstances other than the borrower's default under the credit agreement or to mitigate the bank's or savings association's exposure to loss.
</P>
<P>7. Absence of an appropriate assessment and documentation of the consumer's ability to repay the loan in accordance with its terms, commensurate with the type of loan, as required by appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>8. Mandatory arbitration clauses or agreements, particularly if the eligibility of the loan for purchase in the secondary market is thereby impaired.
</P>
<P>9. Pricing terms that result in the loan's being subject to the provisions of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act. 15 U.S.C. 1639 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>10. Original principal balance of the loan in excess of appraised value.
</P>
<P>11. Payment schedules that consolidate more than two periodic payments and pay them in advance from the loan proceeds.
</P>
<P>12. Payments to home improvement contractors under a home improvement contract from the proceeds of a residential mortgage loan other than by an instrument payable to the consumer, jointly to the consumer and the contractor, or through an independent third party escrow agent.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Enhanced Care to Avoid Abusive Loan Terms, Conditions, and Features in Certain Mortgages.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may face heightened risks when it solicits or offers loans to consumers who are not financially sophisticated, have language barriers, or are elderly, or have limited or poor credit histories, are substantially indebted, or have other characteristics that limit their credit choices. In connection with such consumers, a national bank or Federal savings association should exercise enhanced care if it employs the residential mortgage loan terms, conditions, and features described in paragraph B of this section III, and should also apply appropriate heightened internal controls and monitoring to any line of business that does so.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Avoidance of Consumer Misunderstanding.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's residential mortgage lending activities should include provision of timely, sufficient, and accurate information to a consumer concerning the terms and costs, risks, and benefits of the loan. Consumers should be provided with information sufficient to draw their attention to these key terms.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Purchased and Brokered Loans.</I> With respect to consumer residential mortgage loans that the national bank or Federal savings association purchases, or makes through a mortgage broker or other intermediary, the national bank or Federal savings association's residential mortgage lending activities should reflect standards and practices consistent with those applied by the bank or savings association in its direct lending activities and include appropriate measures to mitigate risks, such as the following:
</P>
<P>1. Criteria for entering into and continuing relationships with intermediaries and originators, including due diligence requirements.
</P>
<P>2. Underwriting and appraisal requirements.
</P>
<P>3. Standards related to total loan compensation and total compensation of intermediaries, including maximum rates, points, and other charges, and the use of overages and yield-spread premiums, structured to avoid providing an incentive to originate loans with predatory or abusive characteristics.
</P>
<P>4. Requirements for agreements with intermediaries and originators, including with respect to risks identified in the due diligence process, compliance with appropriate national bank or Federal savings association policies, procedures and practices and with applicable law (including remedies for failure to comply), protection of the national bank or Federal savings association against risk, and termination procedures.
</P>
<P>5. Loan documentation procedures, management information systems, quality control reviews, and other methods through which the national bank or Federal savings association will verify compliance with agreements, bank or savings association policies, and applicable laws, and otherwise retain appropriate oversight of mortgage origination functions, including loan sourcing, underwriting, and loan closings.
</P>
<P>6. Criteria and procedures for the national bank or Federal savings association to take appropriate corrective action, including modification of loan terms and termination of the relationship with the intermediary or originator in question.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Monitoring and Corrective Action.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's consumer residential mortgage lending activities should include appropriate monitoring of compliance with applicable law and the bank's or savings association's lending standards and practices, periodic monitoring and evaluation of the nature, quantity and resolution of customer complaints, and appropriate evaluation of the effectiveness of the bank's or savings association's standards and practices in accomplishing the objectives set forth in these Guidelines. The bank's or savings association's activities also should include appropriate steps for taking corrective action in response to failures to comply with applicable law and the bank's or savings association's lending standards, and for making adjustments to the bank's or savings association's activities as may be appropriate to enhance their effectiveness or to reflect changes in business practices, market conditions, or the bank's or savings association's lines of business, residential mortgage loan programs, or customer base.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 6332, Feb. 7, 2005, as amended at 79 FR 54544, Sept. 11, 2014; 91 FR 18293, Apr. 10, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.27.0.27.7.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 30—OCC Guidelines Establishing Heightened Standards for Certain Large Insured National Banks, Insured Federal Savings Associations, and Insured Federal Branches










</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Scope
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Compliance Date
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Reservation of Authority
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Preservation of Existing Authority
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Definitions
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>II. Standards For Risk Governance Framework
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Risk Governance Framework
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Scope of Risk Governance Framework
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Roles and Responsibilities
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>1. Role and Responsibilities of Front Line Units
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>2. Role and Responsibilities of Independent Risk Management
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>3. Role and Responsibilities of Internal Audit
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Strategic Plan
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Risk Appetite Statement
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Concentration and Front Line Unit Risk Limits
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Risk Appetite Review, Monitoring, and Communication Processes
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>H. Processes Governing Risk Limit Breaches
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>I. Concentration Risk Management
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>J. Risk Data Aggregation and Reporting
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>K. Relationship of Risk Appetite Statement, Concentration Risk Limits, and Front Line Unit Risk Limits to Other Processes
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>L. Talent Management Processes
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>M. Compensation and Performance Management Programs
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>III. Standards for Board of Directors
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Require an Effective Risk Governance Framework
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Provide Active Oversight of Management
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Exercise Independent Judgment
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Include Independent Directors
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Provide Ongoing Training to All Directors
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Self-Assessments
</FP1-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1. The OCC expects a covered bank, as that term is defined in paragraph I.E. to establish and implement a risk governance framework to manage and control the covered bank's risk-taking activities.
</P>
<P>2. This appendix establishes minimum standards for the design and implementation of a covered bank's risk governance framework and minimum standards for the covered bank's board of directors in providing oversight to the framework's design and implementation (Guidelines). These standards are in addition to any other applicable requirements in law or regulation.
</P>
<P>3. A covered bank may use its parent company's risk governance framework in its entirety, without modification, if the framework meets these minimum standards, the risk profiles of the parent company and the covered bank are substantially the same as set forth in paragraph I.4. of these Guidelines, and the covered bank has demonstrated through a documented assessment that its risk profile and its parent company's risk profile are substantially the same. The assessment should be conducted at least annually, in conjunction with the review and update of the risk governance framework performed by independent risk management, as set forth in paragraph II.A. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>4. A parent company's and covered bank's risk profiles are substantially the same if, as reported on the covered bank's Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Reports) for the four most recent consecutive quarters, the covered bank's average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, represent 95 percent or more of the parent company's average total consolidated assets.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> A covered bank that does not satisfy this test may submit a written analysis to the OCC for consideration and approval that demonstrates that the risk profile of the parent company and the covered bank are substantially the same based upon other factors not specified in this paragraph.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For a parent company, average total consolidated assets means the average of the parent company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the parent company's Form FR Y-9C to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or equivalent regulatory report, for the four most recent consecutive quarters.</P></FTNT>
<P>5. Subject to paragraph I.6. of these Guidelines, a covered bank should establish its own risk governance framework when the parent company's and covered bank's risk profiles are not substantially the same. The covered bank's framework should ensure that the covered bank's risk profile is easily distinguished and separate from that of its parent for risk management and supervisory reporting purposes and that the safety and soundness of the covered bank is not jeopardized by decisions made by the parent company's board of directors and management.
</P>
<P>6. When the parent company's and covered bank's risk profiles are not substantially the same, a covered bank may, in consultation with the OCC, incorporate or rely on components of its parent company's risk governance framework when developing its own risk governance framework to the extent those components are consistent with the objectives of these Guidelines.
</P>
<HD3>A. <I>Scope</I>
</HD3>
<P>These Guidelines apply to any bank, as that term is defined in paragraph I.E. of these Guidelines, with average total consolidated assets equal to or greater than $50 billion. In addition, these Guidelines apply to any bank with average total consolidated assets less than $50 billion if that institution's parent company controls at least one covered bank. For a covered bank, average total consolidated assets means the average of the covered bank's total consolidated assets, as reported on the covered bank's Call Reports, for the four most recent consecutive quarters.
</P>
<HD3>B. <I>Compliance Date</I>
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Initial compliance.</I> The date on which a covered bank should comply with the Guidelines is set forth below:
</P>
<P>(a) A covered bank with average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, equal to or greater than $750 billion as of November 10, 2014 should comply with these Guidelines on November 10, 2014;
</P>
<P>(b) A covered bank with average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, equal to or greater than $100 billion but less than $750 billion as of November 10, 2014 should comply with these Guidelines within six months from November 10, 2014;
</P>
<P>(c) A covered bank with average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, equal to or greater than $50 billion but less than $100 billion as of November 10, 2014 should comply with these Guidelines within 18 months from November 10, 2014;
</P>
<P>(d) A covered bank with average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, less than $50 billion that is a covered bank because that bank's parent company controls at least one other covered bank as of November 10, 2014 should comply with these Guidelines on the date that such other covered bank should comply; and
</P>
<P>(e) A covered bank that does not come within the scope of these Guidelines on November 10, 2014, but subsequently becomes subject to the Guidelines because average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, are equal to or greater than $50 billion after November 10, 2014, should comply with these Guidelines within 18 months from the as-of date of the most recent Call Report used in the calculation of the average.
</P>
<HD3>C. <I>Reservation of Authority</I>
</HD3>
<P>1. The OCC reserves the authority to apply these Guidelines, in whole or in part, to a bank that has average total consolidated assets less than $50 billion, if the OCC determines such bank's operations are highly complex or otherwise present a heightened risk as to warrant the application of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>2. The OCC reserves the authority, for each covered bank, to extend the time for compliance with these Guidelines or modify these Guidelines; or
</P>
<P>3. The OCC reserves the authority to determine that compliance with these Guidelines should no longer be required for a covered bank. The OCC would generally make the determination under this paragraph I.C.3. if a covered bank's operations are no longer highly complex or no longer present a heightened risk. In determining whether a covered bank's operations are highly complex or present a heightened risk, the OCC will consider the following factors: Complexity of products and services, risk profile, and scope of operations.
</P>
<P>4. When exercising the authority in this paragraph I.C., the OCC will apply notice and response procedures, when appropriate, in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<HD3>D. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority</I>
</HD3>
<P>Neither section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the OCC to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or other violations of law. The OCC may take action under section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the OCC.
</P>
<HD3>E. <I>Definitions</I>
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Bank</I> means any insured national bank, insured Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Chief Audit Executive</I> means an individual who leads internal audit and is one level below the Chief Executive Officer in a covered bank's organizational structure.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Chief Risk Executive</I> means an individual who leads an independent risk management unit and is one level below the Chief Executive Officer in a covered bank's organizational structure. A covered bank may have more than one Chief Risk Executive.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Control.</I> A parent company <I>controls</I> a covered bank if it:
</P>
<P>(a) Owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the covered bank; or
</P>
<P>(b) Consolidates the covered bank for financial reporting purposes.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Covered bank</I> means any bank:
</P>
<P>(a) With average total consolidated assets, as calculated according to paragraph I.A. of these Guidelines, equal to or greater than $50 billion;
</P>
<P>(b) With average total consolidated assets less than $50 billion if that bank's parent company controls at least one covered bank; or
</P>
<P>(c) With average total consolidated assets less than $50 billion, if the OCC determines such bank's operations are highly complex or otherwise present a heightened risk as to warrant the application of these Guidelines pursuant to paragraph I.C. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Front Line Unit.</I> (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this definition, <I>front line unit</I> means any organizational unit or function thereof in a covered bank that is accountable for a risk in paragraph II.B. of these Guidelines that:
</P>
<P>(i) Engages in activities designed to generate revenue or reduce expenses for the parent company or covered bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides operational support or servicing to any organizational unit or function within the covered bank for the delivery of products or services to customers; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides technology services to any organizational unit or function covered by these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Front line unit</I> does not ordinarily include an organizational unit or function thereof within a covered bank that provides legal services to the covered bank.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Independent risk management</I> means any organizational unit within a covered bank that has responsibility for identifying, measuring, monitoring, or controlling aggregate risks. Such units maintain independence from front line units through the following reporting structure:
</P>
<P>(a) The board of directors or the board's risk committee reviews and approves the risk governance framework;
</P>
<P>(b) Each Chief Risk Executive has unrestricted access to the board of directors and its committees to address risks and issues identified through independent risk management's activities;
</P>
<P>(c) The board of directors or its risk committee approves all decisions regarding the appointment or removal of the Chief Risk Executive(s) and approves the annual compensation and salary adjustment of the Chief Risk Executive(s); and
</P>
<P>(d) No front line unit executive oversees any independent risk management unit.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Internal audit</I> means the organizational unit within a covered bank that is designated to fulfill the role and responsibilities outlined in 12 CFR part 30, Appendix A, II.B. Internal audit maintains independence from front line units and independent risk management through the following reporting structure:
</P>
<P>(a) The Chief Audit Executive has unrestricted access to the board's audit committee to address risks and issues identified through internal audit's activities;
</P>
<P>(b) The audit committee reviews and approves internal audit's overall charter and audit plans;
</P>
<P>(c) The audit committee approves all decisions regarding the appointment or removal and annual compensation and salary adjustment of the Chief Audit Executive;
</P>
<P>(d) The audit committee or the Chief Executive Officer oversees the Chief Audit Executive's administrative activities; and
</P>
<P>(e) No front line unit executive oversees internal audit.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Parent company</I> means the top-tier legal entity in a covered bank's ownership structure.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Risk appetite</I> means the aggregate level and types of risk the board of directors and management are willing to assume to achieve a covered bank's strategic objectives and business plan, consistent with applicable capital, liquidity, and other regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Risk profile</I> means a point-in-time assessment of a covered bank's risks, aggregated within and across each relevant risk category, using methodologies consistent with the risk appetite statement described in paragraph II.E. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Risk Governance Framework
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Risk Governance Framework.</I> A covered bank should establish and adhere to a formal, written risk governance framework that is designed by independent risk management and approved by the board of directors or the board's risk committee. The risk governance framework should include delegations of authority from the board of directors to management committees and executive officers as well as the risk limits established for material activities. Independent risk management should review and update the risk governance framework at least annually, and as often as needed to address improvements in industry risk management practices and changes in the covered bank's risk profile caused by emerging risks, its strategic plans, or other internal and external factors.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Scope of Risk Governance Framework.</I> The risk governance framework should cover the following risk categories that apply to the covered bank: Credit risk, interest rate risk, liquidity risk, price risk, operational risk, compliance risk, and strategic risk.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Roles and Responsibilities.</I> The risk governance framework should include well-defined risk management roles and responsibilities for front line units, independent risk management, and internal audit.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The roles and responsibilities for each of these organizational units should be:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> These roles and responsibilities are in addition to any roles and responsibilities set forth in Appendices A, B, and C to Part 30. Many of the risk management practices established and maintained by a covered bank to meet these standards, including loan review and credit underwriting and administration practices, should be components of its risk governance framework, within the construct of the three distinct units identified herein. In addition, existing OCC guidance sets forth standards for establishing risk management programs for certain risks, <I>e.g.</I>, compliance risk management. These risk-specific programs should also be considered components of the risk governance framework, within the context of the three units described in paragraph II.C. of these Guidelines.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. <I>Role and Responsibilities of Front Line Units.</I> Front line units should take responsibility and be held accountable by the Chief Executive Officer and the board of directors for appropriately assessing and effectively managing all of the risks associated with their activities. In fulfilling this responsibility, each front line unit should, either alone or in conjunction with another organizational unit that has the purpose of assisting a front line unit:
</P>
<P>(a) Assess, on an ongoing basis, the material risks associated with its activities and use such risk assessments as the basis for fulfilling its responsibilities under paragraphs II.C.1.(b) and (c) of these Guidelines and for determining if actions need to be taken to strengthen risk management or reduce risk given changes in the unit's risk profile or other conditions;
</P>
<P>(b) Establish and adhere to a set of written policies that include front line unit risk limits as discussed in paragraph II.F. of these Guidelines. Such policies should ensure risks associated with the front line unit's activities are effectively identified, measured, monitored, and controlled, consistent with the covered bank's risk appetite statement, concentration risk limits, and all policies established within the risk governance framework under paragraphs II.C.2.(c) and II.G. through K. of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(c) Establish and adhere to procedures and processes, as necessary, to maintain compliance with the policies described in paragraph II.C.1.(b) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(d) Adhere to all applicable policies, procedures, and processes established by independent risk management;
</P>
<P>(e) Develop, attract, and retain talent and maintain staffing levels required to carry out the unit's role and responsibilities effectively, as set forth in paragraphs II.C.1.(a) through (d) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(f) Establish and adhere to talent management processes that comply with paragraph II.L. of these Guidelines; and
</P>
<P>(g) Establish and adhere to compensation and performance management programs that comply with paragraph II.M. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Role and Responsibilities of Independent Risk Management.</I> Independent risk management should oversee the covered bank's risk-taking activities and assess risks and issues independent of front line units. In fulfilling these responsibilities, independent risk management should:
</P>
<P>(a) Take primary responsibility and be held accountable by the Chief Executive Officer and the board of directors for designing a comprehensive written risk governance framework that meets these Guidelines and is commensurate with the size, complexity, and risk profile of the covered bank;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify and assess, on an ongoing basis, the covered bank's material aggregate risks and use such risk assessments as the basis for fulfilling its responsibilities under paragraphs II.C.2.(c) and (d) of these Guidelines and for determining if actions need to be taken to strengthen risk management or reduce risk given changes in the covered bank's risk profile or other conditions;
</P>
<P>(c) Establish and adhere to enterprise policies that include concentration risk limits. Such policies should state how aggregate risks within the covered bank are effectively identified, measured, monitored, and controlled, consistent with the covered bank's risk appetite statement and all policies and processes established within the risk governance framework under paragraphs II.G. through K. of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(d) Establish and adhere to procedures and processes, as necessary, to ensure compliance with the policies described in paragraph II.C.2.(c) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(e) Identify and communicate to the Chief Executive Officer and the board of directors or the board's risk committee:
</P>
<P>(i) Material risks and significant instances where independent risk management's assessment of risk differs from that of a front line unit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant instances where a front line unit is not adhering to the risk governance framework, including instances when front line units do not meet the standards set forth in paragraph II.C.1. of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(f) Identify and communicate to the board of directors or the board's risk committee:
</P>
<P>(i) Material risks and significant instances where independent risk management's assessment of risk differs from the Chief Executive Officer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant instances where the Chief Executive Officer is not adhering to, or holding front line units accountable for adhering to, the risk governance framework;
</P>
<P>(g) Develop, attract, and retain talent and maintain staffing levels required to carry out its role and responsibilities effectively, as set forth in paragraphs II.C.2.(a) through (f) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(h) Establish and adhere to talent management processes that comply with paragraph II.L. of these Guidelines; and
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and adhere to compensation and performance management programs that comply with paragraph II.M. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Role and Responsibilities of Internal Audit.</I> In addition to meeting the standards set forth in appendix A of part 30, internal audit should ensure that the covered bank's risk governance framework complies with these Guidelines and is appropriate for the size, complexity, and risk profile of the covered bank. In carrying out its responsibilities, internal audit should:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain a complete and current inventory of all of the covered bank's material processes, product lines, services, and functions, and assess the risks, including emerging risks, associated with each, which collectively provide a basis for the audit plan described in paragraph II.C.3.(b) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(b) Establish and adhere to an audit plan that is periodically reviewed and updated that takes into account the covered bank's risk profile, emerging risks, and issues, and establishes the frequency with which activities should be audited. The audit plan should require internal audit to evaluate the adequacy of and compliance with policies, procedures, and processes established by front line units and independent risk management under the risk governance framework. Significant changes to the audit plan should be communicated to the board's audit committee;
</P>
<P>(c) Report in writing, conclusions and material issues and recommendations from audit work carried out under the audit plan described in paragraph II.C.3.(b) of these Guidelines to the board's audit committee. Internal audit's reports to the audit committee should also identify the root cause of any material issues and include:
</P>
<P>(i) A determination of whether the root cause creates an issue that has an impact on one organizational unit or multiple organizational units within the covered bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination of the effectiveness of front line units and independent risk management in identifying and resolving issues in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(d) Establish and adhere to processes for independently assessing the design and ongoing effectiveness of the risk governance framework on at least an annual basis. The independent assessment should include a conclusion on the covered bank's compliance with the standards set forth in these Guidelines; 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The annual independent assessment of the risk governance framework may be conducted by internal audit, an external party, or internal audit in conjunction with an external party.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) Identify and communicate to the board's audit committee significant instances where front line units or independent risk management are not adhering to the risk governance framework;
</P>
<P>(f) Establish a quality assurance program that ensures internal audit's policies, procedures, and processes comply with applicable regulatory and industry guidance, are appropriate for the size, complexity, and risk profile of the covered bank, are updated to reflect changes to internal and external risk factors, emerging risks, and improvements in industry internal audit practices, and are consistently followed;
</P>
<P>(g) Develop, attract, and retain talent and maintain staffing levels required to effectively carry out its role and responsibilities, as set forth in paragraphs II.C.3.(a) through (f) of these Guidelines;
</P>
<P>(h) Establish and adhere to talent management processes that comply with paragraph II.L. of these Guidelines; and
</P>
<P>(i) Establish and adhere to compensation and performance management programs that comply with paragraph II.M. of these Guidelines.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Strategic Plan.</I> The Chief Executive Officer should be responsible for the development of a written strategic plan with input from front line units, independent risk management, and internal audit. The board of directors should evaluate and approve the strategic plan and monitor management's efforts to implement the strategic plan at least annually. The strategic plan should cover, at a minimum, a three-year period and:
</P>
<P>1. Contain a comprehensive assessment of risks that currently have an impact on the covered bank or that could have an impact on the covered bank during the period covered by the strategic plan;
</P>
<P>2. Articulate an overall mission statement and strategic objectives for the covered bank, and include an explanation of how the covered bank will achieve those objectives;
</P>
<P>3. Include an explanation of how the covered bank will update, as necessary, the risk governance framework to account for changes in the covered bank's risk profile projected under the strategic plan; and
</P>
<P>4. Be reviewed, updated, and approved, as necessary, due to changes in the covered bank's risk profile or operating environment that were not contemplated when the strategic plan was developed.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Risk Appetite Statement.</I> A covered bank should have a comprehensive written statement that articulates the covered bank's risk appetite and serves as the basis for the risk governance framework. The risk appetite statement should include both qualitative components and quantitative limits. The qualitative components should describe a safe and sound risk culture and how the covered bank will assess and accept risks, including those that are difficult to quantify. Quantitative limits should incorporate sound stress testing processes, as appropriate, and address the covered bank's earnings, capital, and liquidity. The covered bank should set limits at levels that take into account appropriate capital and liquidity buffers and prompt management and the board of directors to reduce risk before the covered bank's risk profile jeopardizes the adequacy of its earnings, liquidity, and capital.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Where possible, covered banks should establish aggregate risk appetite limits that can be disaggregated and applied at the front line unit level. However, where this is not possible, covered banks should establish limits that reasonably reflect the aggregate level of risk that the board of directors and executive management are willing to accept.</P></FTNT>
<P>F. <I>Concentration and Front Line Unit Risk Limits.</I> The risk governance framework should include concentration risk limits and, as applicable, front line unit risk limits, for the relevant risks. Concentration and front line unit risk limits should limit excessive risk taking and, when aggregated across such units, provide that these risks do not exceed the limits established in the covered bank's risk appetite statement.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Risk Appetite Review, Monitoring, and Communication Processes.</I> The risk governance framework should require: 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> With regard to paragraphs 3., 4., and 5. in this paragraph II.G., the frequency of monitoring and reporting should be performed more often, as necessary, based on the size and volatility of risks and any material change in the covered bank's business model, strategy, risk profile, or market conditions.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Review and approval of the risk appetite statement by the board of directors or the board's risk committee at least annually or more frequently, as necessary, based on the size and volatility of risks and any material changes in the covered bank's business model, strategy, risk profile, or market conditions;
</P>
<P>2. Initial communication and ongoing reinforcement of the covered bank's risk appetite statement throughout the covered bank in a manner that causes all employees to align their risk-taking decisions with applicable aspects of the risk appetite statement;
</P>
<P>3. Monitoring by independent risk management of the covered bank's risk profile relative to its risk appetite and compliance with concentration risk limits and reporting on such monitoring to the board of directors or the board's risk committee at least quarterly;
</P>
<P>4. Monitoring by front line units of compliance with their respective risk limits and reporting to independent risk management at least quarterly; and
</P>
<P>5. When necessary due to the level and type of risk, monitoring by independent risk management of front line units' compliance with front line unit risk limits, ongoing communication with front line units regarding adherence to these limits, and reporting of any concerns to the Chief Executive Officer and the board of directors or the board's risk committee, as set forth in paragraphs II.C.2.(e) and (f) of these Guidelines, all at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Processes Governing Risk Limit Breaches.</I> A covered bank should establish and adhere to processes that require front line units and independent risk management, in conjunction with their respective responsibilities, to:
</P>
<P>1. Identify breaches of the risk appetite statement, concentration risk limits, and front line unit risk limits;
</P>
<P>2. Distinguish breaches based on the severity of their impact on the covered bank;
</P>
<P>3. Establish protocols for when and how to inform the board of directors, front line unit management, independent risk management, internal audit, and the OCC of a risk limit breach that takes into account the severity of the breach and its impact on the covered bank;
</P>
<P>4. Include in the protocols established in paragraph II.H.3. of these Guidelines the requirement to provide a written description of how a breach will be, or has been, resolved; and
</P>
<P>5. Establish accountability for reporting and resolving breaches that include consequences for risk limit breaches that take into account the magnitude, frequency, and recurrence of breaches.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Concentration Risk Management.</I> The risk governance framework should include policies and supporting processes appropriate for the covered bank's size, complexity, and risk profile for effectively identifying, measuring, monitoring, and controlling the covered bank's concentrations of risk.
</P>
<P>J. <I>Risk Data Aggregation and Reporting.</I> The risk governance framework should include a set of policies, supported by appropriate procedures and processes, designed to provide risk data aggregation and reporting capabilities appropriate for the size, complexity, and risk profile of the covered bank, and to support supervisory reporting requirements. Collectively, these policies, procedures, and processes should provide for:
</P>
<P>1. The design, implementation, and maintenance of a data architecture and information technology infrastructure that support the covered bank's risk aggregation and reporting needs during normal times and during times of stress;
</P>
<P>2. The capturing and aggregating of risk data and reporting of material risks, concentrations, and emerging risks in a timely manner to the board of directors and the OCC; and
</P>
<P>3. The distribution of risk reports to all relevant parties at a frequency that meets their needs for decision-making purposes.
</P>
<P>K. <I>Relationship of Risk Appetite Statement, Concentration Risk Limits, and Front Line Unit Risk Limits to Other Processes.</I> A covered bank's front line units and independent risk management should incorporate at a minimum the risk appetite statement, concentration risk limits, and front line unit risk limits into the following:
</P>
<P>1. Strategic and annual operating plans;
</P>
<P>2. Capital stress testing and planning processes;
</P>
<P>3. Liquidity stress testing and planning processes;
</P>
<P>4. Product and service risk management processes, including those for approving new and modified products and services;
</P>
<P>5. Decisions regarding acquisitions and divestitures; and
</P>
<P>6. Compensation and performance management programs.
</P>
<P>L. <I>Talent Management Processes.</I> A covered bank should establish and adhere to processes for talent development, recruitment, and succession planning to ensure that management and employees who are responsible for or influence material risk decisions have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to effectively identify, measure, monitor, and control relevant risks. The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board should:
</P>
<P>1. Appoint a Chief Executive Officer and appoint or approve the appointment of a Chief Audit Executive and one or more Chief Risk Executives with the skills and abilities to carry out their roles and responsibilities within the risk governance framework;
</P>
<P>2. Review and approve a written talent management program that provides for development, recruitment, and succession planning regarding the individuals described in paragraph II.L.1. of these Guidelines, their direct reports, and other potential successors; and
</P>
<P>3. Require management to assign individuals specific responsibilities within the talent management program, and hold those individuals accountable for the program's effectiveness.
</P>
<P>M. <I>Compensation and Performance Management Programs.</I> A covered bank should establish and adhere to compensation and performance management programs that comply with any applicable statute or regulation and are appropriate to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the Chief Executive Officer, front line units, independent risk management, and internal audit implement and adhere to an effective risk governance framework;
</P>
<P>2. Ensure front line unit compensation plans and decisions appropriately consider the level and severity of issues and concerns identified by independent risk management and internal audit, as well as the timeliness of corrective action to resolve such issues and concerns;
</P>
<P>3. Attract and retain the talent needed to design, implement, and maintain an effective risk governance framework; and
</P>
<P>4. Prohibit any incentive-based payment arrangement, or any feature of any such arrangement, that encourages inappropriate risks by providing excessive compensation or that could lead to material financial loss.
</P>
<HD1>III. Standards for Board of Directors
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Require an Effective Risk Governance Framework.</I> Each member of a covered bank's board of directors should oversee the covered bank's compliance with safe and sound banking practices. The board of directors should also require management to establish and implement an effective risk governance framework that meets the minimum standards described in these Guidelines. The board of directors or the board's risk committee should approve any significant changes to the risk governance framework and monitor compliance with such framework.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Provide Active Oversight of Management.</I> A covered bank's board of directors should actively oversee the covered bank's risk-taking activities and hold management accountable for adhering to the risk governance framework. In providing active oversight, the board of directors may rely on risk assessments and reports prepared by independent risk management and internal audit to support the board's ability to question, challenge, and when necessary, oppose recommendations and decisions made by management that could cause the covered bank's risk profile to exceed its risk appetite or jeopardize the safety and soundness of the covered bank.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Exercise Independent Judgment.</I> When providing active oversight under paragraph III.B. of these Guidelines, each member of the board of directors should exercise sound, independent judgment.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Include Independent Directors.</I> To promote effective, independent oversight of the covered bank's management, at least two members of the board of directors: 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> This provision does not supersede other regulatory requirements regarding the composition of the Board that apply to Federal savings associations. These institutions must continue to comply with such other requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Should not be an officer or employee of the parent company or covered bank and has not been an officer or employee of the parent company or covered bank during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>2. Should not be a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 225.41(b)(3) of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(b)(3)), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the parent company or covered bank, as defined in § 215.2(e)(1) of Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)); and
</P>
<P>3. Should qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the OCC.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Provide Ongoing Training to All Directors.</I> The board of directors should establish and adhere to a formal, ongoing training program for all directors. This program should consider the directors' knowledge and experience and the covered bank's risk profile. The program should include, as appropriate, training on:
</P>
<P>1. Complex products, services, lines of business, and risks that have a significant impact on the covered bank;
</P>
<P>2. Laws, regulations, and supervisory requirements applicable to the covered bank; and
</P>
<P>3. Other topics identified by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Self-Assessments.</I> A covered bank's board of directors should conduct an annual self-assessment that includes an evaluation of its effectiveness in meeting the standards in section III of these Guidelines.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 54545, Sept. 11, 2014, as amended at 91 FR 18293, Apr. 10, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 31—EXTENSIONS OF CREDIT TO INSIDERS AND TRANSACTIONS WITH AFFILIATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 375a(4), 375b(3), 1463, 1467a(d), 1468, 1817(k), and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 54536, Oct. 21, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 31.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93a, 375a(4), 375b(3), 1463, 1467a(d), 1468, 1817(k), and 5412(b)(2)(B), as amended.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.2   Insider lending restrictions and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> National banks, Federal savings associations, and their insiders shall comply with the provisions contained in 12 CFR part 215 (Regulation O). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement.</I> The Comptroller of the Currency administers and enforces insider lending standards and reporting requirements as they apply to national banks, Federal savings associations, and their insiders. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 54536, Oct. 21, 1996, as amended at 82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 31.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 31.3   Affiliate transactions requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> National banks and Federal savings associations shall comply with the provisions contained in 12 CFR part 223 (Regulation W).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement.</I> The Comptroller of the Currency administers and enforces affiliate transactions requirements as they apply to national banks and Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard for exemptions.</I> The OCC may, by order, exempt transactions or relationships of a national bank or Federal savings association from the requirements of section 23A and section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA), as applicable, and 12 CFR part 223 if:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC, jointly with the Federal Reserve Board, finds the exemption to be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23A or section 11 of the HOLA, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC, within 60 days of receiving notice of such joint finding, does not object in writing to the finding based on a determination that the exemption presents an unacceptable risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for exemptions.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may request an exemption from the requirements of section 23A or section 11 of the HOLA, as applicable, and 12 CFR part 223 for a national bank or Federal savings association by submitting a written request to the Deputy Comptroller for Licensing with a copy to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. Such a request must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe in detail the transaction or relationship for which the national bank or Federal savings association seeks exemption;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain why the OCC should exempt the transaction or relationship;
</P>
<P>(3) Explain how the exemption would be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23A or section 11 of the HOLA, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) Explain why the exemption does not present an unacceptable risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28.0.27.4.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 31—Interpretations: Deposits Between Affiliated Banks
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>General rule.</I> A deposit made by a bank in an affiliated bank is treated as a loan or extension of credit to the affiliate bank under 12 U.S.C. 371c, as this statute is implemented by the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation W, 12 CFR part 223. Thus, unless an exemption from Regulation W is available, these deposits must be secured in accordance with 12 CFR 223.14. However, a national bank may not pledge assets to secure private deposits unless otherwise permitted by law (<I>see, e.g.</I>, 12 U.S.C. 90 (permitting collateralization of deposits of public funds); 12 U.S.C. 92a (trust funds); and 25 U.S.C. 156 and 162a (Native American funds)). Thus, unless one of the exceptions to 12 CFR part 223 noted in paragraph b. of this interpretation applies, unless another exception applies that enables a bank to meet the collateral requirements of § 223.14, or unless a party other than the bank in which the deposit is made can legally offer and does post the required collateral, a national bank may not:
</P>
<P>1. Make a deposit in an affiliated national bank;
</P>
<P>2. Make a deposit in an affiliated State-chartered bank unless the affiliated State-chartered bank can legally offer collateral for the deposit in conformance with applicable State law and 12 CFR 223.14; or
</P>
<P>3. Receive deposits from an affiliated bank.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Exceptions.</I> The restrictions of 12 CFR part 223 (other than 12 CFR 223.13, which requires affiliate transactions to be consistent with safe and sound banking practices) do not apply to deposits:
</P>
<P>1. Made in an affiliated depository institution or affiliated foreign bank provided that the deposit represents an ongoing, working balance maintained in the ordinary course of correspondent business. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 223.42(a); or
</P>
<P>2. Made in an affiliated, insured depository institution that meets the requirements of the “sister bank” exemption under 12 CFR 223.41(a) or (b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.28.0.27.4.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 31—Comparison of Selected Provisions of Parts 32 and 215


</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix compares certain provisions of 12 CFR part 32 with those of 12 CFR part 215. As used in this appendix, the term “bank” refers to both national banks and Federal savings associations.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Definition of “Loan or Extension of Credit”</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Renewals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In most cases, the two definitions of “loan or extension of credit” are equivalent. A difference exists, however, in the treatment of renewals. Under part 215, a renewal of a loan to an “insider” (which, unless noted otherwise, includes a bank's executive officers, directors, principal shareholders, and “related interests” of such persons) is considered to be an extension of credit. Under part 32, renewals generally are not considered to be an extension of credit if the bank exercises reasonable efforts, consistent with safe and sound banking practices, to bring the loan into conformance with the lending limit. Renewals would be considered an extension of credit under part 32, however, if new funds are advanced to the borrower, a new borrower replaces the original borrower, or the OCC determines that the renewal was undertaken to evade the lending limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commitments to extend credit..</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A binding commitment to make a loan is treated as an extension of credit under part 215. Under part 32, a commitment to make a loan will not be treated as an extension of credit if the amount of the commitment exceeds the lending limit. Rather, the commitment will be deemed a “nonqualifying commitment” under part 32 and advances may be made thereunder only if the advance, together with all other outstanding loans to the borrower, will not exceed the bank's lending limit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Overdrafts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An advance by means of an overdraft (except for an intraday overdraft) generally is considered to be an extension of credit under both parts 32 and 215. However, indebtedness in amounts up to $5,000 is excluded from the definition of “extension of credit” under part 215 if the indebtedness arises pursuant to a written, preauthorized, interest-bearing plan or written, preauthorized transfer of funds from another account. Under part 215, if an overdraft is not made pursuant to this type of plan or transfer, a bank is prohibited from paying an overdraft of an insider (which, in this case, includes only an executive officer or director of the insider's bank) unless the overdraft is inadvertent, in amounts not exceeding $1,000, outstanding for not more than 5 business days, and subject to the bank's standard overdraft fee. Part 32 does not contain these exceptions for overdrafts, and simply treats overdrafts (except for intraday overdrafts) as extensions of credit subject to lending limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guarantees</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Generally speaking, guarantees are included in the part 215 definition of “extension of credit” but are not included in the definition of “extension of credit” in part 32 unless other criteria are satisfied. Part 215 applies to any transaction as a result of which an insider becomes obligated to pay money to a bank, whether the obligation arises (i) directly or indirectly, (ii) because of an endorsement on an obligation or otherwise, or (iii) by any means whatsoever. Accordingly, a loan guaranteed by an insider will be deemed to have been made to that insider. In contrast, part 32 does not consider a loan on which someone signs as guarantor as having been made to the guarantor unless that person is deemed to be a borrower under the “direct benefit” or “common enterprise” tests (<E T="03">see</E> discussion of these tests in the discussion of the “General Rule” under “Combination/Attribution Rules,” below).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Exclusions to Definition</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Funds advanced for taxes, etc., necessary to preserve collateral or that are incidental to indebtedness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Both rules exclude funds advanced for items such as taxes, insurance, or other expenses related to existing indebtedness. However, part 32 includes these advances for the purpose of determining whether subsequent loans meet the lending limit, whereas part 215 excludes these advances for all purposes. Part 215 contains no such requirement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan participations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Both rules exclude loan participations if the participation is without recourse. However, part 32 elaborates on this exclusion by requiring that the participation result in a <E T="03">pro rata</E> sharing of credit risk proportionate to the respective interests of the originating and participating lenders. Part 32 also requires the originating bank, if funding the entire loan, to receive funding from the participants before the close of the next business day. Otherwise, the portion funded will be treated as a loan by the originating bank to the underlying borrower, and may be treated as a “nonconforming” loan rather than a violation if (i) the originating bank had an agreement with the participating bank that reduced the loan to an amount within the originating bank's lending limit, (ii) the participating bank reconfirmed its participation and the originating bank had no knowledge of information that would permit the participating bank to withhold its participation, and (iii) the participation was to be funded by close of business of the originating bank's next business day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Acquisition of debt through merger or foreclosure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under part 215, a note or other evidence of indebtedness acquired through a merger is excluded from the definition of “extension of credit.” Under part 32, the indebtedness is deemed to be a loan or extension of credit. However, if a loan that conformed with part 32 when originally made exceeds the lending limits following a merger after the loan is aggregated with other extensions of credit to the same borrower, the loan will not be deemed to be a lending limits violation. Rather, the loan will be treated as “nonconforming,” and the bank will have to exercise reasonable efforts to bring the loan into compliance unless to do so would be inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit card indebtedness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An insider may incur up to $15,000 in debt on a credit card or similar open-end credit plan offered by the insider's bank without the debt counting as an extension of credit under part 215. The terms of the credit card or other credit plan must be no more favorable than those offered by the bank to the general public. Part 32 does not exclude credit card debt from the lending limits.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="04">Combination/ Attribution Rules</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General rule</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under part 215, a loan will be attributed to an insider if the loan proceeds are “transferred to,” or used for the “tangible economic benefit of,” the insider or if the loan is made to a “related interest” of the insider. Under part 32, a loan will be attributed to another person when either (i) the proceeds of the loan are to be used for the direct benefit of the other person or (ii) a common enterprise exists between the borrower and the other person. The “transfer” test and “tangible economic benefit” test of part 215 are substantially the same as the “direct benefit” test of part 32. Under each of these tests, a loan will be attributed to another person where the proceeds are transferred to the other person, unless the proceeds are used in a <E T="03">bona fide</E> arm's length transaction to acquire property, goods, or services. However, the “related interest” test of part 215 and the “common enterprise” test under part 32 will lead to different results in many instances. Under part 215, a “related interest” is a company or a political or campaign committee that is “controlled” by an insider. Part 215 defines “control” as meaning, generally speaking, that someone owns or controls at least 25 percent of a class of voting securities of a company, controls the election of a majority of the company's directors, or can “exercise a controlling influence” over the company. Part 32 uses the same definition of “control” in the “common enterprise” test, but a mere finding of “control” is not, by itself, a sufficient basis to find that a common enterprise exists. Part 32 will attribute a loan under the “common enterprise” test if the borrowers are under common control (including where one of the persons in question controls the other) <E T="03">and</E> there is “substantial financial interdependence” between the borrowers (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> where at least 50 percent of the gross receipts or expenditures of one borrower comes from transactions with the other). If there is not both common control and substantial financial interdependence, the OCC will not attribute a loan under the “common enterprise” test unless (i) the expected source of repayment for a loan is the same for each borrower and neither borrower has another source of income from which the loan may be repaid, (ii) two people borrow to acquire a business of which they will own a majority of the voting securities, or (iii) OCC determines that a common enterprise exists based on facts and circumstances of a particular transaction.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to corporate groups</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Both parts 32 and 215 will consider a loan that was made to a corporation to have been made to a third person if the tests identified in the previous discussion of the “General Rule” are satisfied. If these tests are not met, parts 32 and 215 still may require attribution, but the circumstances when this will occur and the consequences of attribution under these circumstances differ under the two rules. Under part 215, a loan to a corporation will be deemed to have been made to an insider if the corporation is a “related interest” of the insider (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> the insider owns at least 25% percent of a class of voting shares of the company, controls the election of a majority of the company's directors, or has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the company). Under part 32, a loan to an individual or company will not be considered to have been made to a corporate group unless a “person” (which includes individuals and companies) owns more than 50% of the voting shares of a company. If a loan is found to have been made to a related interest of an insider under part 215, the loan must comply with all of the insider lending restrictions of part 215. If a loan is found to have been made to a corporate group under part 32, the loan, when aggregated with all other loans to that corporate group, generally may not exceed 50% of the bank's capital and surplus.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 54536, Oct. 21, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008; 82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 32—LENDING LIMITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 84, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464(u), 5412(b)(2)(B), and 15 U.S.C. 1639h.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 8532, Feb. 15, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 32.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 84, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464(u), and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to protect the safety and soundness of national banks and savings associations by preventing excessive loans to one person, or to related persons that are financially dependent, and to promote diversification of loans and equitable access to banking services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Except as provided by paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, this part applies to all loans and extensions of credit made by national banks and their domestic operating subsidiaries and to all loans and extensions of credit made by savings associations, their operating subsidiaries, and their service corporations that are consolidated under Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). For purposes of this part, the term “savings association” includes Federal savings associations and state savings associations, as those terms are defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b).
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to loans or extensions of credit made to the bank's or savings association's:
</P>
<P>(i) Affiliates, as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(1) and (e), as implemented by 12 CFR 223.2(a) (Regulation W);
</P>
<P>(ii) Operating subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iii) Edge Act or Agreement Corporation subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other subsidiary consolidated with the bank or savings association under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) The lending limits in this part are separate and independent from the investment limits prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) or 12 U.S.C. 1464(c), as applicable, and 12 CFR Part 1 and 12 CFR 160.30, and a national bank or savings association may make loans or extensions of credit to one borrower up to the full amount permitted by this part and also hold eligible securities of the same obligor up to the full amount permitted under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) or 12 U.S.C. 1464(c), as applicable, and 12 CFR part 1 and 12 CFR 160.30.
</P>
<P>(4) Loans and extensions of credit to executive officers, directors and principal shareholders of national banks, savings associations, and their related interests are subject to limits prescribed by 12 U.S.C. 375a and 375b in addition to the lending limits established by 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u) as applicable, and this part.
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to the foregoing, loans and extensions of credit must be consistent with safe and sound banking practices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Temporary exception.</I> The requirements of this part shall not apply to the credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction or securities financing transaction until October 1, 2013.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 8532, Feb. 15, 1995, as amended at 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008; 77 FR 37275, June 21, 2012; 77 FR 76842, Dec. 31, 2012; 78 FR 37943, June 25, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrower</I> means a person who is named as a borrower or debtor in a loan or extension of credit; a person to whom a national bank or savings association has credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction or a securities financing transaction, entered by the bank or savings association; or any other person, including a drawer, endorser, or guarantor, who is deemed to be a borrower under the “direct benefit” or the “common enterprise” tests set forth in § 32.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital and surplus</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying community banking organizations that have elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(i) A qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12 of this chapter; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, as reported in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(2) For all other national banks and Federal savings associations:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank's or savings association's tier 1 and tier 2 capital calculated under the risk-based capital standards applicable to the institution as reported in the Call Report; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of a national bank's or Federal savings association's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowances for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the bank's or savings association's tier 2 capital, for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, as reported in the national bank's or savings association's Call Report.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Close of business</I> means the time at which a national bank or savings association closes its accounting records for the business day. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means the user of any products, commodities, goods, or services, whether leased or purchased, but does not include any person who purchases products or commodities for resale or fabrication into goods for sale. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer paper</I> means paper relating to automobiles, mobile homes, residences, office equipment, household items, tuition fees, insurance premium fees, and similar consumer items. Consumer paper also includes paper covering the lease (where the national bank or savings association is not the owner or lessor) or purchase of equipment for use in manufacturing, farming, construction, or excavation. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contractual commitment to advance funds.</I> (1) The term includes a national bank's or savings association's obligation to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Make payment (directly or indirectly) to a third person contingent upon default by a customer of the bank or savings association in performing an obligation and to make such payment in keeping with the agreed upon terms of the customer's contract with the third person, or to make payments upon some other stated condition; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Guarantee or act as surety for the benefit of a person; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Advance funds under a qualifying commitment to lend, as defined in paragraph (t) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Advance funds under a standby letter of credit as defined in paragraph (ee) of this section, a put, or other similar arrangement.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include commercial letters of credit and similar instruments where the issuing bank or savings association expects the beneficiary to draw on the issuer, that do not guarantee payment, and that do not provide for payment in the event of a default by a third party. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Control</I> is presumed to exist when a person directly or indirectly, or acting through or together with one or more persons—
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another person; 
</P>
<P>(2) Controls, in any manner, the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of another person; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of another person. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit derivative</I> has the same meaning as this term has in 12 CFR 3.2.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Current market value</I> means the bid or closing price listed for an item in a regularly published listing or an electronic reporting service. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Derivative transaction</I> includes any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Effective margining arrangement</I> means a master legal agreement governing derivative transactions between a bank or savings association and a counterparty that requires the counterparty to post, on a daily basis, variation margin to fully collateralize that amount of the bank's or savings association's net credit exposure to the counterparty that exceeds $25 million created by the derivative transactions covered by the agreement.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivative contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee, as defined in 12 CFR 3.2, and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the derivative contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Bankruptcy, insolvency, restructuring (for obligors not subject to bankruptcy or insolvency), or inability of the obligor on the reference exposure to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the derivative contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss with respect to the derivative reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the derivative contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provides that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the derivative contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Eligible national bank or eligible savings association</I> means a national bank or saving association that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is well capitalized as defined in the prompt corrective action rules applicable to the institution; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System in connection with the national bank's or savings association's most recent examination or subsequent review, with at least a rating of 2 for asset quality and for management.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Eligible protection provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign entity (a central government, including the U.S. government; an agency; department; ministry; or central bank);
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal Home Loan Bank;
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation;
</P>
<P>(5) A depository institution, as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c);
</P>
<P>(6) A bank holding company, as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1841;
</P>
<P>(7) A savings and loan holding company, as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a;
</P>
<P>(8) A securities broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78o et seq;
</P>
<P>(9) An insurance company that is subject to the supervision of a State insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(10) A foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(11) A non-U.S.-based securities firm or a non-U.S.-based insurance company that is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions, securities broker-dealers, or insurance companies; and
</P>
<P>(12) A qualifying central counterparty;
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Financial instrument</I> means stocks, notes, bonds, and debentures traded on a national securities exchange, OTC margin stocks as defined in Regulation U, 12 CFR part 221, commercial paper, negotiable certificates of deposit, bankers' acceptances, and shares in money market and mutual funds of the type that issue shares in which national banks or savings associations may perfect a security interest. Financial instruments may be denominated in foreign currencies that are freely convertible to U.S. dollars. The term “financial instrument” does not include mortgages. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Loans and extensions of credit</I> means a national bank's or savings association's direct or indirect advance of funds to or on behalf of a borrower based on an obligation of the borrower to repay the funds or repayable from specific property pledged by or on behalf of the borrower; and any credit exposure, as determined pursuant to § 32.9, arising from a derivative transaction or a securities financing transaction.
</P>
<P>(1) Loans or extensions of credit for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, and this part include—
</P>
<P>(i) A contractual commitment to advance funds, as defined in paragraph (g) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A maker or endorser's obligation arising from a national bank's or savings association's discount of commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank's or savings association's purchase of third-party paper subject to an agreement that the seller will repurchase the paper upon default or at the end of a stated period. The amount of the bank's or savings association's loan is the total unpaid balance of the paper owned by the bank or savings association less any applicable dealer reserves retained by the bank or savings association and held by the bank or savings association as collateral security. Where the seller's obligation to repurchase is limited, the bank's or savings association's loan is measured by the total amount of the paper the seller may ultimately be obligated to repurchase. A national bank's or savings association's purchase of third party paper without direct or indirect recourse to the seller is not a loan or extension of credit to the seller;
</P>
<P>(iv) An overdraft, whether or not prearranged, but not an intra-day overdraft for which payment is received before the close of business of the national bank or savings association that makes the funds available;
</P>
<P>(v) The sale of Federal funds with a maturity of more than one business day, but not Federal funds with a maturity of one day or less or Federal funds sold under a continuing contract; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Loans or extensions of credit that have been charged off on the books of the national bank or savings association in whole or in part, unless the loan or extension of credit—
</P>
<P>(A) Is unenforceable by reason of discharge in bankruptcy;
</P>
<P>(B) Is no longer legally enforceable because of expiration of the statute of limitations or a judicial decision; 
</P>
<P>(C) Is no longer legally enforceable for other reasons, provided that the bank or savings association maintains sufficient records to demonstrate that the loan is unenforceable.
</P>
<P>(2) The following items do not constitute loans or extensions of credit for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, and this part—
</P>
<P>(i) Additional funds advanced for the benefit of a borrower by a national bank or savings association for payment of taxes, insurance, utilities, security, and maintenance and operating expenses necessary to preserve the value of real property securing the loan, consistent with safe and sound banking practices, but only if the advance is for the protection of the bank's or savings association's interest in the collateral, and provided that such amounts must be treated as an extension of credit if a new loan or extension of credit is made to the borrower;
</P>
<P>(ii) Accrued and discounted interest on an existing loan or extension of credit, including interest that has been capitalized from prior notes and interest that has been advanced under terms and conditions of a loan agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Financed sales of a national bank's or savings association's own assets, including Other Real Estate Owned, if the financing does not put the bank or savings association in a worse position than when the bank or savings association held title to the assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) A renewal or restructuring of a loan as a new “loan or extension of credit,” following the exercise by a national bank or savings association of reasonable efforts, consistent with safe and sound banking practices, to bring the loan into conformance with the lending limit, unless new funds are advanced by the national bank or savings association to the borrower (except as permitted by § 32.3(b)(5)), or a new borrower replaces the original borrower, or unless the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that a renewal or restructuring was undertaken as a means to evade the bank's or savings association's lending limit;
</P>
<P>(v) Amounts paid against uncollected funds in the normal process of collection; 
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) That portion of a loan or extension of credit sold as a participation by a national bank or savings association on a nonrecourse basis, provided that the participation results in a pro rata sharing of credit risk proportionate to the respective interests of the originating and participating lenders. Where a participation agreement provides that repayment must be applied first to the portions sold, a pro rata sharing will be deemed to exist only if the agreement also provides that, in the event of a default or comparable event defined in the agreement, participants must share in all subsequent repayments and collections in proportion to their percentage participation at the time of the occurrence of the event.
</P>
<P>(B) When an originating national bank or savings association funds the entire loan, it must receive funding from the participants before the close of business of its next business day. If the participating portions are not received within that period, then the portions funded will be treated as a loan by the originating bank or savings association to the borrower. If the portions so attributed to the borrower exceed the originating bank's or savings association's lending limit, the loan may be treated as nonconforming subject to § 32.6, rather than a violation, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The originating national bank or savings association had a valid and unconditional participation agreement with a participant or participants that was sufficient to reduce the loan to within the originating bank's or savings association's lending limit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The participant reconfirmed its participation and the originating national bank or savings association had no knowledge of any information that would permit the participant to withhold its participation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The participation was to be funded by close of business of the originating national bank's or savings association's next business day; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) That portion of one or more loans or extensions of credit, not to exceed 10 percent of capital and surplus, with respect to which the national bank or savings association has purchased protection in the form of a single-name credit derivative that meets the requirements of § 32.2(m)(1) through (7) from an eligible protection provider if the reference obligor is the same legal entity as the borrower in the loan or extension of credit and the maturity of the protection purchased equals or exceeds the maturity of the loan or extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Person</I> means an individual; sole proprietorship; partnership; joint venture; association; trust; estate; business trust; corporation; limited liability company; not-for-profit corporation; sovereign government or agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision thereof; or any similar entity or organization; and
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Qualifying central counterparty</I> has the same meaning as this term has in 12 CFR 3.2.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Qualifying commitment to lend</I> means a legally binding written commitment to lend that, when combined with all other outstanding loans and qualifying commitments to a borrower, was within the national bank's or savings association's lending limit when entered into, and has not been disqualified. 
</P>
<P>(1) In determining whether a commitment is within the national bank's or savings association's lending limit when made, the bank or savings association may deduct from the amount of the commitment the amount of any legally binding loan participation commitments that are issued concurrent with the bank's or savings association's commitment and that would be excluded from the definition of “loan or extension of credit” under paragraph (q)(2)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the national bank or savings association subsequently chooses to make an additional loan and that subsequent loan, together with all outstanding loans and qualifying commitments to a borrower, exceeds the bank's or savings association's applicable lending limit at that time, the bank's or savings association's qualifying commitments to the borrower that exceed the bank's or savings association's lending limit at that time are deemed to be permanently disqualified, beginning with the most recent qualifying commitment and proceeding in reverse chronological order. When a commitment is disqualified, the entire commitment is disqualified and the disqualified commitment is no longer considered a “loan or extension of credit.” Advances of funds under a disqualified or non-qualifying commitment may only be made to the extent that the advance, together with all other outstanding loans to the borrower, do not exceed the bank's or savings association's lending limit at the time of the advance, calculated pursuant to § 32.4. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> has the same meaning as this term has in 12 CFR 3.2.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means financial instruments and bullion that are salable under ordinary market conditions with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based upon actual transactions on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Readily marketable staple</I> means an article of commerce, agriculture, or industry, such as wheat and other grains, cotton, wool, and basic metals such as tin, copper and lead, in the form of standardized interchangeable units, that is easy to sell in a market with sufficiently frequent price quotations. 
</P>
<P>(1) An article comes within this definition if—
</P>
<P>(i) The exact price is easy to determine; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The staple itself is easy to sell at any time at a price that would not be considerably less than the amount at which it is valued as collateral. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether an article qualifies as a readily marketable staple is determined on the basis of the conditions existing at the time the loan or extension of credit that is secured by the staples is made. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Residential housing units</I> mean:
</P>
<P>(1) Homes (including a dwelling unit in a multi-family residential property such as a condominium or a cooperative);
</P>
<P>(2) Combinations of homes and business property (<I>i.e.,</I> a home used in part for business);
</P>
<P>(3) Other real estate used for primarily residential purposes other than a home (but which may include homes);
</P>
<P>(4) Combinations of such real estate and business property involving only minor business use (<I>i.e.,</I> where no more than 20 percent of the total appraised value of the real estate is attributable to the business use);
</P>
<P>(5) Farm residences and combinations of farm residences and commercial farm real estate;
</P>
<P>(6) Property to be improved by the construction of such structures; or
</P>
<P>(7) Leasehold interests in the above real estate.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Residential real estate loan</I> means a loan or extension of credit that is secured by 1-4 family residential real estate.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Sale of Federal funds</I> means any transaction between depository institutions involving the transfer of immediately available funds resulting from credits to deposit balances at Federal Reserve Banks, or from credits to new or existing deposit balances due from a correspondent depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Securities financing transaction means</I> a repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities lending transaction, or securities borrowing transaction.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Security</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(10) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10)).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Loans to small businesses</I> means loans or extensions of credit “secured by nonfarm nonresidential properties” or “commercial and industrial loans” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Loans or extensions of credit to small farms</I> means “loans secured by farmland” or “loans to finance agricultural production and other loans to farmers” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Standby letter of credit</I> means any letter of credit, or similar arrangement, that represents an obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer: 
</P>
<P>(1) To repay money borrowed by or advanced to or for the account of the account party; 
</P>
<P>(2) To make payment on account of any indebtedness undertaken by the account party; or 
</P>
<P>(3) To make payment on account of any default by the account party in the performance of an obligation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 8532, Feb. 15, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 15746, Apr. 1, 1998; 66 FR 31120, June 11, 2001; 66 FR 55072, Nov. 1, 2001; 69 FR 51357, Aug. 19, 2004; 77 FR 37275, June 21, 2012; 77 FR 37277, June 21, 2012; 78 FR 37944, June 25, 2013; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 80 FR 28479, May 18, 2015; 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61795, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 69298, Dec. 18, 2019; 85 FR 42642, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.3   Lending limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Combined general limit.</I> A national bank's or savings association's total outstanding loans and extensions of credit to one borrower may not exceed 15 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus, plus an additional 10 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus, if the amount that exceeds the bank's or savings association's 15 percent general limit is fully secured by readily marketable collateral, as defined in § 32.2(v). To qualify for the additional 10 percent limit, the bank or savings association must perfect a security interest in the collateral under applicable law and the collateral must have a current market value at all times of at least 100 percent of the amount of the loan or extension of credit that exceeds the bank's or savings association's 15 percent general limit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans subject to special lending limits.</I> The following loans or extensions of credit are subject to the lending limits set forth below. When loans and extensions of credit qualify for more than one special lending limit, the special limits are cumulative. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loans secured by bills of lading or warehouse receipts covering readily marketable staples.</I> (i) A national bank's or savings association's loans or extensions of credit to one borrower secured by bills of lading, warehouse receipts, or similar documents transferring or securing title to readily marketable staples, as defined in § 32.2(w), may not exceed 35 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus in addition to the amount allowed under the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. The market value of the staples securing the loan must at all times equal at least 115 percent of the amount of the outstanding loan that exceeds the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Staples that qualify for this special limit must be nonperishable, may be refrigerated or frozen, and must be fully covered by insurance if such insurance is customary. Whether a staple is non-perishable must be determined on a case-by-case basis because of differences in handling and storing commodities. 
</P>
<P>(iii) This special limit applies to a loan or extension of credit arising from a single transaction or secured by the same staples, provided that the duration of the loan or extension of credit is: 
</P>
<P>(A) Not more than ten months if secured by nonperishable staples; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Not more than six months if secured by refrigerated or frozen staples. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The holder of the warehouse receipts, order bills of lading, documents qualifying as documents of title under the Uniform Commercial Code, or other similar documents, must have control and be able to obtain immediate possession of the staple so that the bank or savings association is able to sell the underlying staples and promptly transfer title and possession to a purchaser if default should occur on a loan secured by such documents. The existence of a brief notice period, or similar procedural requirements under applicable law, for the disposal of the collateral will not affect the eligibility of the instruments for this special limit. 
</P>
<P>(A) Field warehouse receipts are an acceptable form of collateral when issued by a duly bonded and licensed grain elevator or warehouse having exclusive possession and control of the staples even though the grain elevator or warehouse is maintained on the premises of the owner of the staples. 
</P>
<P>(B) Warehouse receipts issued by the borrower-owner that is a grain elevator or warehouse company, duly-bonded and licensed and regularly inspected by state or Federal authorities, may be considered eligible collateral under this provision only when the receipts are registered with an independent registrar whose consent is required before the staples may be withdrawn from the warehouse. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discount of installment consumer paper.</I> (i) A national bank's or savings association's loans and extensions of credit to one borrower that arise from the discount of negotiable or nonnegotiable installment consumer paper, as defined at § 32.2(f), that carries a full recourse endorsement or unconditional guarantee by the person selling the paper, may not exceed 10 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus in addition to the amount allowed under the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. An unconditional guarantee may be in the form of a repurchase agreement or separate guarantee agreement. A condition reasonably within the power of the bank or savings association to perform, such as the repossession of collateral, will not make conditional an otherwise unconditional guarantee. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the seller of the paper offers only partial recourse to the bank or savings association, the lending limits of this section apply to the obligation of the seller to the bank or savings association, which is measured by the total amount of paper the seller may be obligated to repurchase or has guaranteed. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the bank or savings association is relying primarily upon the maker of the paper for payment of the loans or extensions of credit and not upon any full or partial recourse endorsement or guarantee by the seller of the paper, the lending limits of this section apply only to the maker. The bank or savings association must substantiate its reliance on the maker with—
</P>
<P>(A) Records supporting the bank's or savings association's independent credit analysis of the maker's ability to repay the loan or extension of credit, maintained by the bank or savings association or by a third party that is contractually obligated to make those records available for examination purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(B) A written certification by an officer of the bank or savings association authorized by the bank's or savings association's board of directors or any designee of that officer, that the bank or savings association is relying primarily upon the maker to repay the loan or extension of credit. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Where paper is purchased in substantial quantities, the records, evaluation, and certification must be in a form appropriate for the class and quantity of paper involved. The bank or savings association may use sampling techniques, or other appropriate methods, to independently verify the reliability of the credit information supplied by the seller. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans secured by documents covering livestock.</I> (i) A national bank's or savings association's loans or extensions of credit to one borrower secured by shipping documents or instruments that transfer or secure title to or give a first lien on livestock may not exceed 10 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus in addition to the amount allowed under the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. The market value of the livestock securing the loan must at all times equal at least 115 percent of the amount of the outstanding loan that exceeds the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. For purposes of this subsection, the term “livestock” includes dairy and beef cattle, hogs, sheep, goats, horses, mules, poultry and fish, whether or not held for resale. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or savings association must maintain in its files an inspection and valuation for the livestock pledged that is reasonably current, taking into account the nature and frequency of turnover of the livestock to which the documents relate, but in any case not more than 12 months old. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the laws of certain states, persons furnishing pasturage under a grazing contract may have a lien on the livestock for the amount due for pasturage. If a lien that is based on pasturage furnished by the lienor prior to the bank's or savings association's loan or extension of credit is assigned to the bank or savings association by a recordable instrument and protected against being defeated by some other lien or claim, by payment to a person other than the bank or savings association, or otherwise, it will qualify under this exception provided the amount of the perfected lien is at least equal to the amount of the loan and the value of the livestock is at no time less than 115 percent of the portion of the loan or extension of credit that exceeds the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. When the amount due under the grazing contract is dependent upon future performance, the resulting lien does not meet the requirements of the exception. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Loans secured by dairy cattle.</I> A national bank's or savings association's loans and extensions of credit to one borrower that arise from the discount by dealers in dairy cattle of paper given in payment for the cattle may not exceed 10 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus in addition to the amount allowed under the bank's or savings association's combined general limit. To qualify, the paper—
</P>
<P>(i) Must carry the full recourse endorsement or unconditional guarantee of the seller; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be secured by the cattle being sold, pursuant to liens that allow the bank or savings association to maintain a perfected security interest in the cattle under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional advances to complete project financing pursuant to renewal of a qualifying commitment to lend.</I> A national bank or savings association may renew a qualifying commitment to lend, as defined by § 32.2(t), and complete funding under that commitment if all of the following criteria are met—
</P>
<P>(i) The completion of funding is consistent with safe and sound banking practices and is made to protect the position of the bank or savings association; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The completion of funding will enable the borrower to complete the project for which the qualifying commitment to lend was made; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the additional funding does not exceed the unfunded portion of the bank's or savings association's qualifying commitment to lend. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans not subject to the lending limits.</I> The following loans or extensions of credit are not subject to the lending limits of 12 U.S.C. 84, or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, of this part. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loans arising from the discount of commercial or business paper.</I> (i) Loans or extensions of credit arising from the discount of negotiable commercial or business paper that evidences an obligation to the person negotiating the paper. The paper—
</P>
<P>(A) Must be given in payment of the purchase price of commodities purchased for resale, fabrication of a product, or any other business purpose that may reasonably be expected to provide funds for payment of the paper; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Must bear the full recourse endorsement of the owner of the paper, except that paper discounted in connection with export transactions, that is transferred without recourse, or with limited recourse, must be supported by an assignment of appropriate insurance covering the political, credit, and transfer risks applicable to the paper, such as insurance provided by the Export-Import Bank. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A failure to pay principal or interest on commercial or business paper when due does not result in a loan or extension of credit to the maker or endorser of the paper; however, the amount of such paper thereafter must be counted in determining whether additional loans or extensions of credit to the same borrower may be made within the limits of 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, and this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bankers' acceptances.</I> A national bank's or savings association's acceptance of drafts eligible for rediscount under 12 U.S.C. 372 and 373 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(1)(M), as applicable, or a national bank's or savings association's purchase of acceptances created by other banks or savings associations that are eligible for rediscount under those sections; but not including—
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank's or savings association's acceptance of drafts ineligible for rediscount (which constitutes a loan by the bank or savings association to the customer for whom the acceptance was made, in the amount of the draft);
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank's or savings association's purchase of ineligible acceptances created by other banks or savings associations (which constitutes a loan from the purchasing bank or savings association to the accepting bank or savings association, in the amount of the purchase price); and
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank's or savings association's purchase of its own acceptances (which constitutes a loan to the bank's or savings association's customer for whom the acceptance was made, in the amount of the purchase price). 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Loans secured by U.S. obligations.</I> Loans or extensions of credit, or portions thereof, to the extent fully secured by the current market value of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States or by similar obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States; 
</P>
<P>(B) Loans to the extent guaranteed as to repayment of principal by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, as set forth in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) To qualify a loan or extension of credit under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the national bank or savings association must perfect a security interest in the collateral under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Loans to or guaranteed by a Federal agency.</I> (i) Loans or extensions of credit to any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States or any corporation wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans or extensions of credit, including portions thereof, to the extent secured by unconditional takeout commitments or guarantees of any of the foregoing governmental entities. The commitment or guarantee—
</P>
<P>(A) Must be payable in cash or its equivalent within 60 days after demand for payment is made; 
</P>
<P>(B) Is considered unconditional if the protection afforded the national bank or savings association is not substantially diminished or impaired if loss should result from factors beyond the bank's or savings association's control. Protection against loss is not materially diminished or impaired by procedural requirements, such as an agreement to pay on the obligation only in the event of default, including default over a specific period of time, a requirement that notification of default be given within a specific period after its occurrence, or a requirement of good faith on the part of the bank or savings association. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Loans to or guaranteed by general obligations of a State or political subdivision.</I> (i) A loan or extension of credit to a State or political subdivision that constitutes a general obligation of the State or political subdivision, as defined in part 1 of this chapter, and for which the lending national bank or savings association has an opinion of counsel or the opinion of that State Attorney General, or other State legal official with authority to opine on the obligation in question, that the loan or extension of credit is a valid and enforceable general obligation of the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A loan or extension of credit, including portions thereof, to the extent guaranteed or secured by a general obligation of a State or political subdivision and for which the lending bank or savings association has an opinion of counsel or the opinion of that State Attorney General, or other State legal official with authority to opine on the guarantee or collateral in question, that the guarantee or collateral is a valid and enforceable general obligation of that public body.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Loans secured by segregated deposit accounts.</I> Loans or extensions of credit, including portions thereof, to the extent secured by a segregated deposit account in the lending national bank or savings association, provided a security interest in the deposit has been perfected under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(i) Where the deposit is eligible for withdrawal before the secured loan matures, the bank or savings association must establish internal procedures to prevent release of the security without the lending bank's or savings association's prior consent. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A deposit that is denominated and payable in a currency other than that of the loan or extension of credit that it secures may be eligible for this exception if the currency is freely convertible to U.S. dollars. 
</P>
<P>(A) This exception applies to only that portion of the loan or extension of credit that is covered by the U.S. dollar value of the deposit. 
</P>
<P>(B) The lending bank or savings association must establish procedures to periodically revalue foreign currency deposits to ensure that the loan or extension of credit remains fully secured at all times. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Loans to financial institutions with the approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> Loans or extensions of credit to any financial institution or to any receiver, conservator, superintendent of banks, or other agent in charge of the business and property of a financial institution when an emergency situation exists and a national bank or savings association is asked to provide assistance to another financial institution, and the loan is approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency. For purposes of this paragraph, financial institution means a commercial bank, savings bank, trust company, savings association, or credit union. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loans to the Student Loan Marketing Association.</I> Loans or extensions of credit to the Student Loan Marketing Association. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Loans to industrial development authorities.</I> A loan or extension of credit to an industrial development authority or similar public entity created to construct and lease a plant facility, including a health care facility, to an industrial occupant will be deemed a loan to the lessee, provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or savings association evaluates the creditworthiness of the industrial occupant before the loan is extended to the authority; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The authority's liability on the loan is limited solely to whatever interest it has in the particular facility; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The authority's interest is assigned to the bank or savings association as security for the loan or the industrial occupant issues a promissory note to the bank or savings association that provides a higher order of security than the assignment of a lease; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The industrial occupant's lease rentals are assigned and paid directly to the bank or savings association. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Loans to leasing companies.</I> A loan or extension of credit to a leasing company for the purpose of purchasing equipment for lease will be deemed a loan to the lessee, provided that—
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or savings association evaluates the creditworthiness of the lessee before the loan is extended to the leasing corporation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan is without recourse to the leasing corporation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank or savings association is given a security interest in the equipment and in the event of default, may proceed directly against the equipment and the lessee for any deficiency resulting from the sale of the equipment; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The leasing corporation assigns all of its rights under the lease to the bank or savings association; 
</P>
<P>(v) The lessee's lease payments are assigned and paid to the bank or savings association; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The lease terms are subject to the same limitations that would apply to a national bank or savings association acting as a lessor. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Credit Exposures arising from transactions financing certain government securities.</I> Credit exposures arising from securities financing transactions in which the securities financed are Type I securities, as defined in 12 CFR 1.2(j), in the case of national banks, or securities listed in section 5(c)(1)(C), (D), (E), and (F) of HOLA and general obligations of a state or subdivision as listed in section 5(c)(1)(H) of HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(1)(C), (D), (E), (F), and (H), in the case of savings associations.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Intraday credit exposures.</I> Intraday credit exposures arising from a derivative transaction or securities financing transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special lending limits for savings associations</I>—(1) <I>$500,000 exception for savings associations.</I> If a savings association's aggregate lending limitation calculated under paragraph (a) of this section is less than $500,000, notwithstanding this limitation in paragraph (a) of this section, such savings association may have total loans and extensions of credit, for any purpose, to one borrower outstanding at one time not to exceed $500,000.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans by savings associations to develop domestic residential housing units.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, a savings association may make loans to one borrower to develop domestic residential housing units, not to exceed the lesser of $30,000,000 or 30 percent of the savings association's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus, including all loans and extensions of credit subject to paragraph (a) of this section, <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The savings association is, and continues to be, in compliance with 12 CFR part 3, part 390, subpart Z, or part 324, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) Upon application by a savings association under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency permits, subject to conditions it may impose, the savings association to use the higher limit set forth under this paragraph (d)(2)(i);
</P>
<P>(C) The loans and extensions of credit made under this paragraph (d)(2)(i) to all borrowers do not, in aggregate, exceed 150 percent of the savings association's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus; and
</P>
<P>(D) The loans and extensions of credit made under this paragraph (d)(2)(i) comply with the applicable loan-to-value requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) The authority of a savings association to make a loan or extension of credit under the exception in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section ceases immediately upon the association's failure to comply with any one of the requirements set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section or any condition(s) set forth in an order issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency under paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(B) and (d)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) As used in this section, the term “<I>to develop</I>” includes each of the various phases necessary to produce housing units as an end product, such as acquisition, development and construction; development and construction; construction; rehabilitation; and conversion; and the term “<I>domestic”</I> includes units within the fifty states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, Guam, and the Pacific Islands;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Procedures</I>—(A) <I>Federal savings associations</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Application.</I> A Federal savings association must submit an application to, and receive approval from, the appropriate OCC supervisory office before using the higher limit set forth under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section. The supervisory office may approve a completed application if it finds that approval is consistent with safety and soundness. To be deemed complete, the application must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If applicable, certification that the savings association is an “eligible savings association”;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A demonstration that the savings association meets the requirements of paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(A), (C), and (D) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A copy of a written resolution by a majority of the savings association's board of directors approving the use of the limits provided in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) of this section, and confirming the terms and conditions for use of this lending authority; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) A description of how the board will exercise its continuing responsibility to oversee the use of this lending authority.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Expedited review.</I> An application by an eligible savings association is deemed approved as of the 30th day after the application is received by the OCC, unless before that date the OCC informs the savings association it must obtain prior written approval from the OCC.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>State savings associations.</I> A state savings association shall seek approval to use the higher limit set forth under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section from its appropriate Federal banking agency, under the rules and procedures established by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commercial paper and corporate debt securities.</I> In addition to the amount allowed under the savings association's combined general limit, a savings association may invest up to 10 percent of unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus in the obligations of one issuer evidenced by commercial paper or corporate debt securities that are, as of the date of purchase, investment grade. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 8532, Feb. 15, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 15746, Apr. 1, 1998; 66 FR 31120, June 11, 2001; 66 FR 35072, Nov. 1, 2001; 77 FR 37277, June 21, 2012; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 80 FR 28479, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.4   Calculation of lending limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation date.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with 12 U.S.C. 84, and 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, and this part, a national bank or savings association shall determine its lending limit as of the most recent of the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) The last day of the preceding calendar quarter; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which there is a change in the bank's or savings association's capital category for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1831o and 12 CFR 6.3 or 12 CFR 324.402, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> (1) A national bank's or savings association's lending limit calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be effective as of the earlier of the following dates:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the bank's or savings association's Call Report is submitted; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the bank's or savings association's Call Report is required to be submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank's or savings association's lending limit calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section will be effective on the date that the limit is to be calculated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>More frequent calculations.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency determines for safety and soundness reasons that a national bank or savings association should calculate its lending limit more frequently than required by paragraph (a) of this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency may provide written notice to the national bank or savings association directing it to calculate its lending limit at a more frequent interval, and the national bank or savings association shall thereafter calculate its lending limit at that interval until further notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 15746, Apr. 1, 1998, as amended at 77 FR 37278, June 21, 2012; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.5   Combination rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Loans or extensions of credit to one borrower will be attributed to another person and each person will be deemed a borrower—
</P>
<P>(1) When proceeds of a loan or extension of credit are to be used for the direct benefit of the other person, to the extent of the proceeds so used; or 
</P>
<P>(2) When a common enterprise is deemed to exist between the persons. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct benefit.</I> The proceeds of a loan or extension of credit to a borrower will be deemed to be used for the direct benefit of another person and will be attributed to the other person when the proceeds, or assets purchased with the proceeds, are transferred to another person, other than in a bona fide arm's length transaction where the proceeds are used to acquire property, goods, or services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Common enterprise.</I> A common enterprise will be deemed to exist and loans to separate borrowers will be aggregated: 
</P>
<P>(1) When the expected source of repayment for each loan or extension of credit is the same for each borrower and neither borrower has another source of income from which the loan (together with the borrower's other obligations) may be fully repaid. An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee, unless the standards of paragraph (c)(2) of this section are met; 
</P>
<P>(2) When loans or extensions of credit are made— 
</P>
<P>(i) To borrowers who are related directly or indirectly through common control, including where one borrower is directly or indirectly controlled by another borrower; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Substantial financial interdependence exists between or among the borrowers. Substantial financial interdependence is deemed to exist when 50 percent or more of one borrower's gross receipts or gross expenditures (on an annual basis) are derived from transactions with the other borrower. Gross receipts and expenditures include gross revenues/expenses, intercompany loans, dividends, capital contributions, and similar receipts or payments; 
</P>
<P>(3) When separate persons borrow from a national bank or savings association to acquire a business enterprise of which those borrowers will own more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests, in which case a common enterprise is deemed to exist between the borrowers for purposes of combining the acquisition loans; or 
</P>
<P>(4) When the appropriate Federal banking agency determines, based upon an evaluation of the facts and circumstances of particular transactions, that a common enterprise exists. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for loans to a corporate group.</I> (1) Loans or extensions of credit by a national bank or savings association to a corporate group may not exceed 50 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus. This limitation applies only to loans subject to the combined general limit. A corporate group includes a person and all of its subsidiaries. For purposes of this paragraph, a corporation or a limited liability company is a subsidiary of a person if the person owns or beneficially owns directly or indirectly more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests of the corporation or company. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, loans or extensions of credit to a person and its subsidiary, or to different subsidiaries of a person, are not combined unless either the direct benefit or the common enterprise test is met. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special rules for loans to partnerships, joint ventures, and associations</I>—(1) <I>Partnership loans.</I> Loans or extensions of credit to a partnership, joint venture, or association are deemed to be loans or extensions of credit to each member of the partnership, joint venture, or association. This rule does not apply to limited partners in limited partnerships or to members of joint ventures or associations if the partners or members, by the terms of the partnership or membership agreement, are not held generally liable for the debts or actions of the partnership, joint venture, or association, and those provisions are valid under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans to partners.</I> (i) Loans or extensions of credit to members of a partnership, joint venture, or association are not attributed to the partnership, joint venture, or association unless either the direct benefit or the common enterprise tests are met. Both the direct benefit and common enterprise tests are met between a member of a partnership, joint venture or association and such partnership, joint venture or association, when loans or extensions of credit are made to the member to purchase an interest in the partnership, joint venture or association. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans or extensions of credit to members of a partnership, joint venture, or association are not attributed to other members of the partnership, joint venture, or association unless either the direct benefit or common enterprise test is met. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loans to foreign governments, their agencies, and instrumentalities</I>—(1) <I>Aggregation.</I> Loans and extensions of credit to foreign governments, their agencies, and instrumentalities will be aggregated with one another only if the loans or extensions of credit fail to meet either the means test or the purpose test at the time the loan or extension of credit is made. 
</P>
<P>(i) The means test is satisfied if the borrower has resources or revenue of its own sufficient to service its debt obligations. If the government's support (excluding guarantees by a central government of the borrower's debt) exceeds the borrower's annual revenues from other sources, it will be presumed that the means test has not been satisfied. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose test is satisfied if the purpose of the loan or extension of credit is consistent with the purposes of the borrower's general business. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documentation.</I> In order to show that the means and purpose tests have been satisfied, a national bank or savings association must, at a minimum, retain in its files the following items: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement (accompanied by supporting documentation) describing the legal status and the degree of financial and operational autonomy of the borrowing entity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial statements for the borrowing entity for a minimum of three years prior to the date the loan or extension of credit was made or for each year that the borrowing entity has been in existence, if less than three; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Financial statements for each year the loan or extension of credit is outstanding; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The national bank's or savings association's assessment of the borrower's means of servicing the loan or extension of credit, including specific reasons in support of that assessment. The assessment shall include an analysis of the borrower's financial history, its present and projected economic and financial performance, and the significance of any financial support provided to the borrower by third parties, including the borrower's central government; and 
</P>
<P>(v) A loan agreement or other written statement from the borrower which clearly describes the purpose of the loan or extension of credit. The written representation will ordinarily constitute sufficient evidence that the purpose test has been satisfied. However, when, at the time the funds are disbursed, the bank or savings association knows or has reason to know of other information suggesting that the borrower will use the proceeds in a manner inconsistent with the written representation, it may not, without further inquiry, accept the representation. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restructured loans</I>—(i) <I>Non-combination rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section, when previously outstanding loans and other extensions of credit to a foreign government, its agencies, and instrumentalities (i.e., public-sector obligors) that qualified for a separate lending limit under paragraph (f)(1) of this section are consolidated under a central obligor in a qualifying restructuring, such loans will not be aggregated and attributed to the central obligor. This includes any substitution in named obligors, solely because of the restructuring. Such loans (other than loans originally attributed to the central obligor in their own right) will not be considered obligations of the central obligor and will continue to be attributed to the original public-sector obligor for purposes of the lending limit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Qualifying restructuring.</I> Loans and other extensions of credit to a foreign government, its agencies, and instrumentalities will qualify for the non-combination process under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section only if they are restructured in a sovereign debt restructuring approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency, upon request by a national bank or savings association for application of the non combination rule. The factors that the appropriate Federal banking agency will use in making this determination include, but are not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the restructuring involves a substantial portion of the total commercial bank loans outstanding to the foreign government, its agencies, and instrumentalities; 
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the restructuring involves a substantial number of the foreign country's external commercial bank creditors; 
</P>
<P>(C) Whether the restructuring and consolidation under a central obligor is being done primarily to facilitate external debt management; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the restructuring includes features of debt or debt-service reduction. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>50 percent aggregate limit.</I> With respect to any case in which the non-combination process under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section applies, a national bank's or savings association's loans and other extensions of credit to a foreign government, its agencies and instrumentalities, (including restructured debt) shall not exceed, in the aggregate, 50 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 8532, Feb. 15, 1995, as amended at 77 FR 37279, June 21, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.6   Nonconforming loans and extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A loan or extension of credit, within a national bank's or savings association's legal lending limit when made, will not be deemed a violation but will be treated as nonconforming if the loan or extension of credit is no longer in conformity with the bank's or savings association's lending limit because—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's or savings association's capital has declined, borrowers have subsequently merged or formed a common enterprise, lenders have merged, or the lending limit or capital rules have changed;
</P>
<P>(2) Collateral securing the loan to satisfy the requirements of a lending limit exception has declined in value; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a credit exposure arising from a transaction identified in § 32.9(a) and measured by the Model Method specified in § 32.9(b)(1)(i) or § 32.9 (c)(1)(i), the Current Exposure Method specified in § 32.9(b)(1)(iii), or the Basel Collateral Haircut Method specified in § 32.9(c)(1)(iii), the credit exposure subject to the lending limits of 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, or this part increases after execution of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank or savings association must use reasonable efforts to bring a loan or extension of credit that is nonconforming as a result of paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(3) of this section into conformity with the bank's or savings association's lending limit unless to do so would be inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) A national bank or savings association must bring a loan that is nonconforming as a result of circumstances described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section into conformity with the bank's or savings association's lending limit within 30 calendar days, except when judicial proceedings, regulatory actions or other extraordinary circumstances beyond the bank's or savings association's control prevent it from taking action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 37279, June 21, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 37944, June 25, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.7   Residential real estate loans, loans to small businesses, and loans or extensions of credit to small farms (“Supplemental Lending Limits Program”).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Residential real estate, loans to small businesses, and loans or extensions of credit to small farms.</I> (1) In addition to the amount that a national bank or savings association may lend to one borrower under § 32.3, an eligible national bank or eligible savings association may make residential real estate loans or extensions of credit to one borrower in the lesser of the following two amounts: 10 percent of its capital and surplus; or the percent of its capital and surplus, in excess of 15 percent, that a State bank or savings association is permitted to lend under the State lending limit that is available for residential real estate loans or unsecured loans in the State where the main office of the national bank or savings association is located. Any such loan or extension of credit must be secured by a perfected first-lien security interest in 1-4 family real estate in an amount that does not exceed 80 percent of the appraised value of the collateral at the time the loan or extension of credit is made.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the amount that a national bank or savings association may lend to one borrower under § 32.3, an eligible national bank or eligible savings association may make loans to small businesses to one borrower in the lesser of the following two amounts: 10 percent of its capital and surplus; or the percent of its capital and surplus, in excess of 15 percent, that a State bank is permitted to lend under the state lending limit that is available for loans to small businesses or unsecured loans in the state where the main office of the national bank or home office of the savings association is located.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the amount that a national bank or savings association may lend to one borrower under § 32.3, an eligible national bank or eligible savings association may make loans or extensions of credit to small farms to one borrower in the lesser of the following two amounts: 10 percent of its capital and surplus; or the percent of its capital and surplus, in excess of 15 percent, that a State bank or savings association is permitted to lend under the State lending limit that is available for loans or extensions of credit to small farms or unsecured loans in the State where the main office of the national bank or savings association is located.
</P>
<P>(4) The total outstanding amount of a national bank's or savings association's loans and extensions of credit to one borrower made under § 32.3(a) and (b), together with loans and extensions of credit to the borrower made pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, shall not exceed 25 percent of the bank's or savings association's capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(5) The total outstanding amount of a national bank's or savings association's loans and extensions of credit to all of its borrowers made pursuant to the supplemental lending limits provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section may not exceed 100 percent of the bank's or saving association's capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application process.</I> An eligible national bank or eligible savings association must submit an application to, and receive approval from, its supervisory office before using the supplemental lending limits in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section. The supervisory office may approve a completed application if it finds that approval is consistent with safety and soundness. To be deemed complete, the application must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Certification that the bank or savings association is an “eligible bank” or “eligible savings association”;
</P>
<P>(2) Citations to relevant State laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of a written resolution by a majority of the bank's or savings association's board of directors approving the use of the limits provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, and confirming the terms and conditions for use of this lending authority; and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of how the board will exercise its continuing responsibility to oversee the use of this lending authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of approval.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a bank or savings association that has received appropriate Federal banking agency approval may continue to make loans and extensions of credit under the supplemental lending limits in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, provided the bank or savings association remains an “eligible bank” or “eligible savings association.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discretionary termination of authority.</I> The appropriate supervisory office may rescind a bank's or savings association's authority to use the supplemental lending limits in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section based upon concerns about credit quality, undue concentrations in the bank's or savings association's portfolio of residential real estate, loans to small businesses, or loans or extensions of credit to small farms, or concerns about the bank's or savings association's overall credit risk management systems and controls. The bank or savings association must cease making new loans or extensions of credit in reliance on the supplemental lending limits upon receipt of written notice from the appropriate supervisory office that its authority has been rescinded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Existing loans.</I> Any loans or extensions of credit made by a bank or savings association under the supplemental lending limits in paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, that were in compliance with this section when made, will not be deemed a lending limit violation and will not be treated as nonconforming under § 32.6.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 31120, June 11, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 32436, June 10, 2004; 69 FR 51357, Aug. 19, 2004; 72 FR 31444, June 7, 2007; 77 FR 37279, June 21, 2012; 80 FR 28479, May 18, 2015; 85 FR 42642, July 14, 2020; 85 FR 61810, Oct. 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.8   Temporary funding arrangements in emergency situations.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the amount that a national bank or savings association may lend to one borrower under § 32.3 of this part, an eligible bank or eligible savings association with the written approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency may make loans and extensions of credit to one borrower subject to a special temporary lending limit established by the appropriate Federal banking agency, where the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that such loans and extensions of credit are essential to address an emergency situation, such as critical financial markets stability, will be of short duration, will be reduced in amount in a timeframe and manner acceptable to the appropriate Federal banking agency, and do not present unacceptable risk. In granting approval for such a special temporary lending limit, the appropriate Federal banking agency will impose supervisory oversight and reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with the foregoing standards as set forth in this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 14924, Mar. 20, 2008, as amended at 77 FR 37280, June 21, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 32.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 32.9   Credit exposure arising from derivative and securities financing transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the rules for calculating the credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction or a securities financing transaction entered into by a national bank or savings association for purposes of determining the bank's or savings association's lending limit pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 84 or 12 U.S.C. 1464(u), as applicable, and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivative transactions</I>—(1) <I>Non-credit derivatives.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, a national bank or savings association shall calculate the credit exposure to a counterparty arising from a derivative transaction by one of the following methods. Subject to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a national bank or savings association shall use the same method for calculating counterparty credit exposure arising from all of its derivative transactions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Model Method</I>—(A) <I>Credit exposure.</I> The credit exposure of a derivative transaction under the Internal Model Method shall equal the sum of the current credit exposure of the derivative transaction and the potential future credit exposure of the derivative transaction.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Calculation of current credit exposure.</I> A bank or savings association shall determine its current credit exposure by the mark-to-market value of the derivative contract. If the mark-to-market value is positive, then the current credit exposure equals that mark-to-market value. If the mark to market value is zero or negative, than the current credit exposure is zero.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Calculation of potential future credit exposure.</I> (<I>1</I>) A bank or savings association shall calculate its potential future credit exposure by using either:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) An internal model the use of which has been approved in writing for purposes of 12 CFR 3.132(d) or 324.132(d), as appropriate, provided that the bank or savings association provides prior written notice to the appropriate Federal banking agency of its use for purposes of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Any other appropriate model the use of which has been approved in writing for purposes of this section by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any substantive revisions to a model made after the bank or savings association has provided notice of the use of the model to the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section or after the appropriate Federal banking agency has approved the use of the model pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section must be approved by the agency before a bank or savings association may use the revised model for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Net credit exposure.</I> A bank or savings association that calculates its credit exposure by using the Internal Model Method pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1)(i) may net credit exposures of derivative transactions arising under the same qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conversion Factor Matrix Method.</I> The credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction under the Conversion Factor Matrix Method shall equal and remain fixed at the potential future credit exposure of the derivative transaction which shall equal the product of the notional amount of the derivative transaction and a fixed multiplicative factor determined by reference to Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Conversion Factor Matrix for Calculating Potential Future Credit Exposure 
<sup>1</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Original maturity 
<sup>2</sup> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign exchange rate and gold 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other 
<sup>3</sup> (includes commodities and precious metals except gold) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 1 to 3 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.18 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 3 to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over 5 to 10 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.60 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over ten years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For an OTC derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the derivative contract.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For an OTC derivative contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the market value of the contract is zero, the remaining maturity equals the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate derivative contract with a remaining maturity of greater than one year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.005.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Transactions not explicitly covered by any other column in the Table are to be treated as “Other.”</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Current Exposure Method.</I> The credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction (other than a credit derivative transaction) under the Current Exposure Method shall be calculated pursuant to 12 CFR 3.34(b)(1) and (2) and (c) or 324.34(b)(1) and (2) and (c), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk Method.</I> The credit exposure arising from a derivative transaction (other than a credit derivative transaction) under the Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk Method shall be calculated pursuant to 12 CFR 3.132(c)(5) or 324.132(c)(5), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit Derivatives</I>—(i) <I>Counterparty exposure</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section and subject to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, a national bank or savings association that uses the Conversion Factor Matrix Method or the Current Exposure Method, or that uses the Model Method without entering an effective margining arrangement as defined in § 32.2(l), shall calculate the counterparty credit exposure arising from credit derivatives entered by the bank or savings association by adding the net notional value of all protection purchased from the counterparty on each reference entity.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Special rule for certain effective margining arrangements.</I> A bank or savings association must add the EMA threshold amount to the counterparty credit exposure arising from credit derivatives calculated under the Model Method. The <I>EMA threshold</I> is the amount under an effective margining arrangement with respect to which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin to fully collateralize the amount of the bank's or savings association's net credit exposure to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reference entity exposure.</I> A national bank or savings association shall calculate the credit exposure to a reference entity arising from credit derivatives entered into by the bank or savings association by adding the net notional value of all protection sold on the reference entity. A bank or savings association may reduce its exposure to a reference entity by the amount of any eligible credit derivative purchased on that reference entity from an eligible protection provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for central counterparties.</I> (i) In addition to amounts calculated under § 32.9(b)(1) and (2), the measure of counterparty exposure to a central counterparty shall also include the sum of the initial margin posted by the bank or savings association, plus any contributions made by it to a guaranty fund at the time such contribution is made.
</P>
<P>(ii) Paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to a national bank or saving association that uses an internal model pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section if such model reflects the initial margin and any contributions to a guaranty fund.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mandatory or alternative method.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may in its discretion require or permit a national bank or savings association to use a specific method or methods set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to calculate the credit exposure arising from all derivative transactions or any specific, or category of, derivative transactions if it finds, in its discretion, that such method is consistent with the safety and soundness of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Securities financing transactions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided by paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a national bank or savings association shall calculate the credit exposure arising from a securities financing transaction by one of the following methods. A national bank or savings association shall use the same method for calculating credit exposure arising from all of its securities financing transactions. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Model Method.</I> (A) A national bank or savings association may calculate the credit exposure of a securities financing transaction by using either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An internal model the use of which has been approved in writing by the appropriate Federal banking agency for purposes of 12 CFR 3.132(b) or 324.132(b), as appropriate, provided the bank or savings association provides prior written notice to the appropriate Federal banking agency of its use for purposes of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any other appropriate model the use of which has been approved in writing for purposes of this section by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(B) Any substantive revisions to a model made after the bank or savings association has provided notice of the use of the model to the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section or after the appropriate Federal banking agency has approved the use of the model pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section must be approved by the agency before a bank or savings association may use the revised model for purposes of part 32.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basic Method.</I> A national bank or savings association may calculate the credit exposure of a securities financing transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Repurchase agreement.</I> The credit exposure arising from a repurchase agreement shall equal and remain fixed at the market value at execution of the transaction of the securities transferred to the other party less cash received.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Securities lending</I>— (<I>1</I>) <I>Cash collateral transactions.</I> The credit exposure arising from a securities lending transaction where the collateral is cash shall equal and remain fixed at the market value at execution of the transaction of securities transferred less cash received.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Non-cash collateral transactions.</I> The credit exposure arising from a securities lending transaction where the collateral is other securities shall equal and remain fixed as the product of the higher of the two haircuts associated with the two securities, as determined in Table 2 of this section, and the higher of the two par values of the securities. Where more than one security is provided as collateral, the applicable haircut is the higher of the haircut associated with the security lent and the notional-weighted average of the haircuts associated with the securities provided as collateral.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Reverse repurchase agreements.</I> The credit exposure arising from a reverse repurchase agreement shall equal and remain fixed as the product of the haircut associated with the collateral received, as determined in Table 2 of this section, and the amount of cash transferred.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Securities borrowing</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Cash collateral transactions.</I> The credit exposure arising from a securities borrowed transaction where the collateral is cash shall equal and remain fixed as the product of the haircut on the collateral received, as determined in Table 2 of this section, and the amount of cash transferred to the other party.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Non-cash collateral transactions.</I> The credit exposure arising from a securities borrowed transaction where the collateral is other securities shall equal and remain fixed as the product of the higher of the two haircuts associated with the two securities, as determined in Table 2 of this section, and the higher of the two par values of the securities. Where more than one security is provided as collateral, the applicable haircut is the higher of the haircut associated with the security borrowed and the notional-weighted average of the haircuts associated with the securities provided as collateral.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">TABLE 2—Collateral Haircuts 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row">SOVEREIGN ENTITIES 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual maturity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Haircut without currency mismatch 
<sup>1</sup> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Country Risk Classification 
<sup>2</sup> 0-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1 year, ≤5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.04.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Country Risk Classification 2-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1 year, ≤5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.03.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row">CORPORATE AND MUNICIPAL BONDS THAT ARE BANK-ELIGIBLE INVESTMENTS 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Residual maturity for debt securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Haircut without currency mismatch
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.02.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1 year, ≤5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="3" scope="row">OTHER ELIGIBLE COLLATERAL 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Main index 
<sup>3</sup> equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Other publicly-traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> In cases where the currency denomination of the collateral differs from the currency denomination of the credit transaction, an additional 8 percent haircut will apply.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> OECD Country Risk Classification means the country risk classification as defined in Article 25 of the OECD's February 2011 Arrangement on Officially Supported Export Credits Arrangement.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Main index means the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the covered company can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Federal Reserve that the equities represented in the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Basel Collateral Haircut Method.</I> A national bank or savings association may calculate the credit exposure of a securities financing transaction pursuant to 12 CFR 3.132(b)(2)(i) and (ii) or 324.132(b)(2)(i) and (ii), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory or alternative method.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may in its discretion require or permit a national bank or savings association to use a specific method or methods set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to calculate the credit exposure arising from all securities financing transactions or any specific, or category of, securities financing transactions if the appropriate Federal banking agency finds, in its discretion, that such method is consistent with the safety and soundness of the bank or savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 37280, June 21, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 37944, June 25, 2013; 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 85 FR 4414, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.29.0.27.10.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 32—Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Section 1. Interrelation of General Limitation With Exception for Loans To Develop Domestic Residential Housing Units
</HD2>
<P>1. The § 32.3(d)(2) exception for loans to one borrower to develop domestic residential housing units is characterized in the regulation as an “alternative” limit. This exceptional $30,000,000 or 30 percent limitation does not operate in addition to the 15 percent General Limitation or the 10 percent additional amount a savings association may loan to one borrower secured by readily marketable collateral, but serves as the uppermost limitation on a savings association's lending to any one person once a savings association employs this exception.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>Savings Association A's lending limitation as calculated under the 15 percent General Limitation is $800, 000. If Savings Association A lends Y $800,000 for commercial purposes, Savings Association A cannot lend Y an additional $1,600,000, or 30 percent of capital and surplus, to develop residential housing units under the paragraph § 32.3(d)(2) exception. The § 32.3(d)(2) exception operates as the uppermost limitation on all lending to one borrower (for savings associations that may employ this exception) and includes any amounts loaned to the same borrower under the General Limitation. Savings Association A, therefore, may lend only an additional $800,000 to Y, provided § 32.3(d)(2) prerequisites have been met. The amount loaned under the authority of the General Limitation ($800,000), when added to the amount loaned under the exception ($800,000), yields a sum that does not exceed the 30 percent uppermost limitation ($1,600,000).</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>2. a. This result does not change even if the facts are altered to assume that some or all of the $800,000 amount of lending permissible under the General Limitation's 15 percent basket is not used, or is devoted to the development of domestic residential housing units.
</P>
<P>b. In other words, using the above example, if Savings Association A lends Y $400,000 for commercial purposes and $300,000 for residential purposes—both of which would be permitted under its $800,000 General Limitation—Savings Association A's remaining permissible lending to Y would be: first, an additional $100,000 under the General Limitation, and then another $800,000 to develop domestic residential housing units if the savings association meets the paragraph § 32.3(d)(2) prerequisites. (The latter is $800,000 because in no event may the total lending to Y exceed 30 percent of unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus). If Savings Association A did not lend Y the remaining $100,000 permissible under the General Limitation, its permissible loans to develop domestic residential housing units under § 32.3(d)(2) would be $900,000 instead of $800,000 (the total loans to Y would still equal $1,600,000).
</P>
<P>3. In short, under the § 32.3(d)(2) exception, the 30 percent or $30,000,000 limit will always operate as the uppermost limitation, unless the savings association does not avail itself of the exception and merely relies upon its General Limitation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 2. Interrelationship Between the General Limitation and the 150 Percent Aggregate Limit on Loans to All Borrowers To Develop Domestic Residential Housing Units
</HD2>
<P>Numerous questions have been received regarding the allocation of loans between the different lending limit “baskets,” <I>i.e.,</I> the 15 percent General Limitation basket and the 30 percent Residential Development basket. In general, the inquiries concern the manner in which a savings association may “move” a loan from the General Limitation basket to the Residential Development basket. The following example is intended to provide guidance:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>Savings Association A's General Limitation under § 32.3(a) is $15 million. In January, Savings Association A makes a $10 million loan to Borrower to develop domestic residential housing units. At the time the loan was made, Savings Association A had not received approval under an order issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency to avail itself of the residential development exception to lending limits. Therefore, the $10 million loan is made under Savings Association A's General Limitation.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>2. In June, Savings Association A receives authorization to lend under the Residential Development exception. In July, Savings Association A lends $3 million to Borrower to develop domestic residential housing units. In August, Borrower seeks an additional $12 million commercial loan from Savings Association A. Savings Association A cannot make the loan to Borrower, however, because it already has an outstanding $10 million loan to Borrower that counts against Savings Association A's General Limitation of $15 million. Thus, Savings Association A may lend only up to an additional $5 million to Borrower under the General Limitation.
</P>
<P>3. However, Savings Association A may be able to reallocate the $10 million loan it made to Borrower in January to its Residential Development basket provided that: (1) Savings Association A has obtained authority under an order issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency to avail itself of the additional lending authority for residential development and maintains compliance with all prerequisites to such lending authority; (2) the original $10 million loan made in January constitutes a loan to develop domestic residential housing units as defined; and (3) the housing unit(s) constructed with the funds from the January loan remain in a stage of “development” at the time Savings Association A reallocates the loan to the domestic residential housing basket. The project must be in a stage of acquisition, development, construction, rehabilitation, or conversion in order for the loan to be reallocated.
</P>
<P>4. If Savings Association A is able to reallocate the $10 million loan made to Borrower in January to its Residential Development basket, it may make the $12 million commercial loan requested by Borrower in August. Once the January loan is reallocated to the Residential Development basket, however, the $10 million loan counts towards Savings Association A's 150 percent aggregate limitation on loans to all borrowers under the residential development basket (§ 32.3(d)(2)).
</P>
<P>5. If Savings Association A reallocates the January loan to its domestic residential housing basket and makes an additional $12 million commercial loan to Borrower, Savings Association A's totals under the respective limitations would be: $12 million under the General Limitation; and $13 million under the Residential Development limitation. The full $13 million residential development loan counts toward Savings Association A's aggregate 150 percent limitation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 37282, June 21, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 33 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 34—REAL ESTATE LENDING AND APPRAISALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 25b, 29, 93a, 371, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1465, 1701j-3, 1828(o), 3331 <I>et seq.,</I> 5101 <I>et seq.,</I> 5412(b)(2)(B) and 15 U.S.C. 1639h.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 11300, Mar. 20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to set forth standards for real estate-related lending and associated activities by national banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to national banks and their operating subsidiaries as provided in 12 CFR 5.34. For the purposes of 12 U.S.C. 371 and subparts A and B of this part, loans secured by liens on interests in real estate include loans made upon the security of condominiums, leaseholds, cooperatives, forest tracts, land sales contracts, and construction project loans. Construction project loans are not subject to subparts A and B of this part, however, if they have a maturity not exceeding 60 months and are made to finance the construction of either: 
</P>
<P>(1) A building where there is a valid and binding agreement entered into by a financially responsible lender or other party to advance the full amount of the bank's loan upon completion of the building; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A residential or farm building. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Due-on-sale clause</I> means any clause that gives the lender or any assignee or transferee of the lender the power to declare the entire debt payable if all or part of the legal or equitable title or an equivalent contractual interest in the property securing the loan is transferred to another person, whether by deed, contract, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Escrow account</I> means an account established in connection with a loan or extension of credit secured by a lien on interest in real estate in which the borrower places funds for the purpose of assuring payment of taxes, insurance premiums, or other charges with respect to the property.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>State</I> means any State of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, and Guam. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State law limitations</I> means any State statute, regulation, or order of any State agency, or judicial decision interpreting State law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11300, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 91 FR 29347, May 19, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank may make, arrange, purchase, or sell loans or extensions of credit, or interests therein, that are secured by liens on, or interests in, real estate (real estate loans), subject to 12 U.S.C. 1828(o) and such restrictions and requirements as the Comptroller of the Currency may prescribe by regulation or order.
</P>
<P>(b) A national bank shall not make a consumer loan subject to this subpart based predominantly on the bank's realization of the foreclosure or liquidation value of the borrower's collateral, without regard to the borrower's ability to repay the loan according to its terms. A bank may use any reasonable method to determine a borrower's ability to repay, including, for example, the borrower's current and expected income, current and expected cash flows, net worth, other relevant financial resources, current financial obligations, employment status, credit history, or other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(c) A national bank shall not engage in unfair or deceptive practices within the meaning of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 45(a)(1), and regulations promulgated thereunder in connection with loans made under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) National banks may establish or maintain escrow accounts. The terms and conditions of any such escrow account, including the investment of escrowed funds, fees assessed for the provision of such accounts, or whether and to what extent interest or other compensation is calculated and paid to customers whose funds are placed in the escrow account, are business decisions to be made by each national bank in its discretion.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 70131, Dec. 17, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 1917, Jan. 13, 2004; 91 FR 29347, May 19, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.4   Applicability of state law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A national bank may make real estate loans under 12 U.S.C. 371 and § 34.3, without regard to state law limitations concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) Licensing, registration (except for purposes of service of process), filings, or reports by creditors; 
</P>
<P>(2) The ability of a creditor to require or obtain private mortgage insurance, insurance for other collateral, or other credit enhancements or risk mitigants, in furtherance of safe and sound banking practices; 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan-to-value ratios; 
</P>
<P>(4) The terms of credit, including schedule for repayment of principal and interest, amortization of loans, balance, payments due, minimum payments, or term to maturity of the loan, including the circumstances under which a loan may be called due and payable upon the passage of time or a specified event external to the loan; 
</P>
<P>(5) The aggregate amount of funds that may be loaned upon the security of real estate; 
</P>
<P>(6) Escrow accounts, impound accounts, and similar accounts; 
</P>
<P>(7) Security property, including leaseholds; 
</P>
<P>(8) Access to, and use of, credit reports; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disclosure and advertising, including laws requiring specific statements, information, or other content to be included in credit application forms, credit solicitations, billing statements, credit contracts, or other credit-related documents; 
</P>
<P>(10) Processing, origination, servicing, sale or purchase of, or investment or participation in, mortgages; 
</P>
<P>(11) Disbursements and repayments; 
</P>
<P>(12) Rates of interest on loans;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The limitations on charges that comprise rates of interest on loans by national banks are determined under Federal law. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 85 and 1735f-7a; 12 CFR 7.4001. State laws purporting to regulate national bank fees and charges that do not constitute interest are addressed in 12 CFR 7.4002.</P></FTNT>
<P>(13) Due-on-sale clauses except to the extent provided in 12 U.S.C. 1701j-3 and 12 CFR part 591; and 
</P>
<P>(14) Covenants and restrictions that must be contained in a lease to qualify the leasehold as acceptable security for a real estate loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) State laws on the following subjects are not inconsistent with the real estate lending powers of national banks and apply to national banks to the extent consistent with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.,</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996): 
</P>
<P>(1) Contracts; 
</P>
<P>(2) Torts; 
</P>
<P>(3) Criminal law; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> But see the distinction drawn by the Supreme Court in <I>Easton</I> v. <I>Iowa,</I> 188 U.S. 220, 238 (1903), where the Court stated that “[u]ndoubtedly a state has the legitimate power to define and punish crimes by general laws applicable to all persons within its jurisdiction * * *. But it is without lawful power to make such special laws applicable to banks organized and operating under the laws of the United States.” <I>Id.</I> at 239 (holding that Federal law governing the operations of national banks preempted a state criminal law prohibiting insolvent banks from accepting deposits).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Homestead laws specified in 12 U.S.C. 1462a(f); 
</P>
<P>(5) Rights to collect debts; 
</P>
<P>(6) Acquisition and transfer of real property; 
</P>
<P>(7) Taxation; 
</P>
<P>(8) Zoning; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Any other law that the OCC determines to be applicable to national banks in accordance with the decision of the Supreme Court in <I>Barnett Bank of Marion County, N.A.</I> v. <I>Nelson, Florida Insurance Commissioner, et al.,</I> 517 U.S. 25 (1996), or that is made applicable by Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 1917, Jan. 13, 2004, as amended at 76 FR 43569, July 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.5   Due-on-sale clauses.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank may make or acquire a loan or interest therein, secured by a lien on real property, that includes a due-on-sale clause. Except as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1701j-3(d) (which contains a list of transactions in which due-on-sale clauses may not be enforced), due-on-sale clauses in loans, whenever originated, will be valid and enforceable, notwithstanding any State law limitations to the contrary. For the purposes of this section, the term real property includes residential dwellings such as condominium units, cooperative housing units, and residential manufactured homes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.6   Applicability of state law to Federal savings associations and subsidiaries.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 1046 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 25b), Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries shall be subject to the same laws and legal standards, including regulations of the OCC, as are applicable to national banks and their subsidiaries, regarding the preemption of state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 43569, July 21, 2011]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.1.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.7   OCC preemption determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section codifies preemption determinations issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Escrow.</I> The OCC has determined that Federal law preempts State laws that restrict a national bank's or Federal savings association's flexibility to decide whether and to what extent to pay interest or other compensation on funds placed in escrow accounts or assess fees for such accounts, including the following State laws:
</P>
<P>(1) California: Cal. Civ. Code sec. 2954.8;
</P>
<P>(2) Connecticut: Conn. Gen. Stat. sec. 49-2a;
</P>
<P>(3) Guam: 11 Guam Code Ann. sec. 106103;
</P>
<P>(4) Maine: Me. Rev. Stat. Ann. tit. 9-B, sec. 429; Me. Rev. Stat. Ann. tit. 33, sec. 504;
</P>
<P>(5) Maryland: Md. Code Ann., Com. Law secs. 12-109, 12-109.2;
</P>
<P>(6) Massachusetts: Mass. Gen. L. ch. 183, sec. 61;
</P>
<P>(7) Minnesota: Minn. Stat. Ann. sec. 47.20, subd. 9;
</P>
<P>(8) New York: N.Y. Gen. Oblig. Law sec. 5-601;
</P>
<P>(9) Oregon: Or. Rev. Stat. secs. 86.245, 86.250;
</P>
<P>(10) Rhode Island: 19 R.I. Gen. Laws sec. 19-9-2;
</P>
<P>(11) United States Virgin Islands: V.I. Code tit. 9, sec. 67;
</P>
<P>(12) Utah: Utah Code Ann. sec. 7-17-3;
</P>
<P>(13) Vermont: Vt. Stat. Ann. tit. 8, sec. 10404; and
</P>
<P>(14) Wisconsin: Wis. Stat. secs. 138.051, 138.052.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 29358, May 19, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Adjustable-Rate Mortgages</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) loan</I> means an extension of credit made to finance or refinance the purchase of, and secured by a lien on, a one-to-four family dwelling, including a condominium unit, cooperative housing unit, or residential manufactured home, where the lender, pursuant to an agreement with the borrower, may adjust the rate of interest from time to time. An ARM loan does not include fixed-rate extensions of credit that are payable at the end of a term that, when added to any terms for which the bank has promised to renew the loan, is shorter than the term of the amortization schedule. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.21   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorization.</I> A national bank and its subsidiaries may make, sell, purchase, participate in, or otherwise deal in ARM loans and interests therein without regard to any State law limitations on those activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase of loans not in compliance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a national bank may purchase or participate in ARM loans that were not made in accordance with this part, provided such purchases are consistent with safe and sound banking practices as described in published OCC guidance, including appropriate diligence regarding the quality and characteristics of the loans, and other applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchase of loans from a subsidiary or affiliate.</I> ARM loans purchased, in whole or in part, from a subsidiary or affiliate must comply with this part and with other applicable regulations, and be consistent with safe and sound banking practices as described in published OCC guidance, including appropriate diligence regarding the quality and characteristics of the loans. For purposes of this paragraph, the terms affiliate and subsidiary have the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 371c.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11300, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.22   Index.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a national bank makes an ARM loan to which 12 CFR 226.19(b) applies (<I>i.e.,</I> the annual percentage rate of a loan may increase after consummation, the term exceeds one year, and the consumer's principal dwelling secures the indebtedness), the loan documents must specify an index or combination of indices to which changes in the interest rate will be linked. This index must be readily available to, and verifiable by, the borrower and beyond the control of the bank. A national bank may use as an index any measure of rates of interest that meets these requirements. The index may be either single values of the chosen measure or a moving average of the chosen measure calculated over a specified period. A national bank also may increase the interest rate in accordance with applicable loan documents specifying the amount of the increase and the times at which, or circumstances under which, it may be made. A national bank may decrease the interest rate at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> Thirty days after filing a notice with the OCC, a national bank may use an index other than one described in paragraph (a) of this section unless, within that 30-day period, the OCC has notified the bank that the notice presents supervisory concerns or raises significant issues of law or policy. If the OCC provides such notice to the bank, the bank may not use that index unless it applies for and receives the OCC's prior written approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11300, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 73 FR 22251, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.23   Prepayment fees.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank offering or purchasing ARM loans may impose fees for prepayments notwithstanding any State law limitations to the contrary. For purposes of this section, prepayments do not include: 
</P>
<P>(a) Payments that exceed the required payment amount to avoid or reduce negative amortization; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Principal payments, in excess of those necessary to retire the outstanding debt over the remaining loan term at the then-current interest rate, that are made in accordance with rules governing the determination of monthly payments contained in the loan documents. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.24   Nonfederally chartered commercial banks.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3803(a), a State chartered commercial bank may make ARM loans in accordance with the provisions of this subpart. For purposes of this section, the term “State” shall have the same meaning as set forth in § 34.2(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.25   Transition rule.</HEAD>
<P>If, on October 1, 1988, a national bank had made a loan or binding commitment to lend under an ARM loan program that complied with the requirements of 12 CFR part 29 in effect prior to October 1, 1988 (see 12 CFR Parts 1 to 199, revised as of January 1, 1988) but would have violated any of the provisions of this subpart, the national bank may continue to administer the loan or binding commitment to lend in accordance with that loan program. All ARM loans or binding commitments to make ARM loans that a national bank entered into after October 1, 1988, must comply with all provisions of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Appraisals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 34696, Aug. 24, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.41   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (the OCC) under 12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1828(m), 5412(b)(2)(B), and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183 (1989)), 12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) Title XI of FIRREA provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This subpart implements the requirements of title XI, and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the OCC or by institutions regulated by the OCC (<I>regulated institutions</I>). 
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a State certified appraiser and which by a State licensed appraiser; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the OCC. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 34696, Aug. 24, 1990, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.42   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisal</I> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business loan</I> means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is not secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Complex appraisal for a residential real estate transaction</I> means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federally related transaction</I> means any real estate-related financial transaction entered into on or after August 9, 1990, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC or any of its regulated institutions engages in or contracts for; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Market value</I> means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby:
</P>
<P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated;
</P>
<P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests;
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market;
</P>
<P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and
</P>
<P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate</I> or <I>real property</I> means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests, or similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights, or similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Real estate-related financial transaction</I> means any transaction involving:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Residential real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>State certified appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The OCC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State licensed appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The OCC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Tract development</I> means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Transaction value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 34696, Aug. 24, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 12202, Apr. 9, 1992; 59 FR 29499, June 7, 1994; 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014; 83 FR 15035, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53597, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.43   Appraisals required; transactions requiring a State certified or licensed appraiser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisals required.</I> An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is a residential real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $400,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution; 
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is not secured by real estate; 
</P>
<P>(4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; 
</P>
<P>(5) The transaction is a business loan that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment; 
</P>
<P>(6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate; 
</P>
<P>(7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; 
</P>
<P>(8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met OCC regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination; 
</P>
<P>(9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; 
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate; 
</P>
<P>(11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; 
</P>
<P>(12) The OCC determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution; 
</P>
<P>(13) The transaction is a commercial real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $500,000 or less; or
</P>
<P>(14) The transaction is exempted from the appraisal requirement pursuant to the rural residential exemption under 12 U.S.C. 3356.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluations required.</I> For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraphs (a)(1), (5), (7), (13), or (14) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns.</I> The OCC reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser</I>—(1) <I>All transactions of $1,000,000 or more.</I> All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commercial real estate transactions of more than $500,000.</I> All federally related transactions that are commercial real estate transactions having a transaction value of more than $500,000 shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions of more than $400,000.</I> All complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is more than $400,000. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals for residential real estate transactions are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser.</I> All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 34696, Aug. 24, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 12202, Apr. 9, 1992; 59 FR 29499, June 7, 1994; 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014; 83 FR 15035, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53597, Oct. 8, 2019; 84 FR 53597, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.44   Minimum appraisal standards.</HEAD>
<P>For federally related transactions, all appraisals shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(a) Conform to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, (<I>www.appraisalfoundation.org</I>), unless principles of safe and sound banking require compliance with stricter standards; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be written and contain sufficient information and analysis to support the institution's decision to engage in the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) Be subject to appropriate review for compliance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;
</P>
<P>(d) Analyze and report appropriate deductions and discounts for proposed construction or renovation, partially leased buildings, non-market lease terms, and tract developments with unsold units; 
</P>
<P>(e) Be based upon the definition of market value as set forth in this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Be performed by State licensed or certified appraisers in accordance with requirements set forth in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 29500, June 7, 1994, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014; 84 FR 53597, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.45   Appraiser independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staff appraisers.</I> If an appraisal is prepared by a staff appraiser, that appraiser must be independent of the lending, investment, and collection functions and not involved, except as an appraiser, in the federally related transaction, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property. If the only qualified persons available to perform an appraisal are involved in the lending, investment, or collection functions of the regulated institution, the regulated institution shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the appraisers exercise independent judgment. Such steps include, but are not limited to, prohibiting an individual from performing an appraisal in connection with federally related transactions in which the appraiser is otherwise involved and prohibiting directors and officers from participating in any vote or approval involving assets on which they performed an appraisal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee appraisers.</I> (1) If an appraisal is prepared by a fee appraiser, the appraiser shall be engaged directly by the regulated institution or its agent, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated institution also may accept an appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another financial services institution, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The appraiser has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulated institution determines that the appraisal conforms to the requirements of this subpart and is otherwise acceptable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 34696, Aug. 24, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 29500, June 7, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.46" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.46   Professional association membership; competency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership in appraisal organizations.</I> A State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a federally related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competency.</I> All staff and fee appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions must be State certified or licensed, as appropriate. However, a State certified or licensed appraiser may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified or licensed. Any determination of competency shall be based upon the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular appraisal assignment for which he or she is being considered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.47" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.47   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Institutions and institution-affiliated parties, including staff appraisers and fee appraisers, may be subject to removal and/or prohibition orders, cease and desist orders, and the imposition of civil money penalties pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, or other applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Real Estate Lending Standards</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 62889, Dec. 31, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.61" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, issued pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, 12 U.S.C. 1828(o), prescribes standards for real estate lending to be used by national banks in adopting internal real estate lending policies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.62" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.62   Real estate lending standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each national bank shall adopt and maintain written policies that establish appropriate limits and standards for extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate, or that are made for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real estate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with safe and sound banking practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be reviewed and approved by the bank's board of directors at least annually.
</P>
<P>(2) The lending policies must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan portfolio diversification standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prudent underwriting standards, including loan-to-value limits, that are clear and measurable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan administration procedures for the bank's real estate portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation, approval, and reporting requirements to monitor compliance with the bank's real estate lending policies.
</P>
<P>(c) Each national bank must monitor conditions in the real estate market in its lending area to ensure that its real estate lending policies continue to be appropriate for current market conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) The real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section should reflect consideration of the Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies established by the Federal bank and thrift supervisory agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.4.27.3.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart D of Part 34—Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending
</HEAD>
<P>The agencies' regulations require that each insured depository institution adopt and maintain a written policy that establishes appropriate limits and standards for all extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate or made for the purpose of financing the construction of a building or other improvements. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> These guidelines are intended to assist institutions in the formulation and maintenance of a real estate lending policy that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its individual operations, as well as satisfies the requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The agencies have adopted a uniform rule on real estate lending. See 12 CFR part 365 (FDIC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart C (FRB); 12 CFR part 34, subpart D (OCC); and 12 CFR 563.100-101 (OTS).</P></FTNT>
<P>Each institution's policies must be comprehensive, and consistent with safe and sound lending practices, and must ensure that the institution operates within limits and according to standards that are reviewed and approved at least annually by the board of directors. Real estate lending is an integral part of many institutions' business plans and, when undertaken in a prudent manner, will not be subject to examiner criticism. 
</P>
<HD1>Loan Portfolio Management Considerations
</HD1>
<P>The lending policy should contain a general outline of the scope and distribution of the institution's credit facilities and the manner in which real estate loans are made, serviced, and collected. In particular, the institution's policies on real estate lending should: 
</P>
<P>• Identify the geographic areas in which the institution will consider lending. 
</P>
<P>• Establish a loan portfolio diversification policy and set limits for real estate loans by type and geographic market (e.g., limits on higher risk loans).
</P>
<P>• Identify appropriate terms and conditions by type of real estate loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish loan origination and approval procedures, both generally and by size and type of loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish prudent underwriting standards that are clear and measurable, including loan-to-value limits, that are consistent with these supervisory guidelines. 
</P>
<P>• Establish review and approval procedures for exception loans, including loans with loan-to-value percentages in excess of supervisory limits. 
</P>
<P>• Establish loan administration procedures, including documentation, disbursement, collateral inspection, collection, and loan review. 
</P>
<P>• Establish real estate appraisal and evaluation programs. 
</P>
<P>• Require that management monitor the loan portfolio and provide timely and adequate reports to the board of directors.
</P>
<P>The institution should consider both internal and external factors in the formulation of its loan policies and strategic plan. Factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution. 
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending staff. 
</P>
<P>• The need to avoid undue concentrations of risk.
</P>
<P>• Compliance with all real estate related laws and regulations, including the Community Reinvestment Act, anti-discrimination laws, and for savings associations, the Qualified Thrift Lender test.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions. 
</P>
<P>The institution should monitor conditions in the real estate markets in its lending area so that it can react quickly to changes in market conditions that are relevant to its lending decisions. Market supply and demand factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• Demographic indicators, including population and employment trends.
</P>
<P>• Zoning requirements.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected vacancy, construction, and absorption rates.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected lease terms, rental rates, and sales prices, including concessions.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected operating expenses for different types of projects.
</P>
<P>• Economic indicators, including trends and diversification of the lending area.
</P>
<P>• Valuation trends, including discount and direct capitalization rates.
</P>
<HD1>Underwriting Standards
</HD1>
<P>Prudently underwritten real estate loans should reflect all relevant credit factors, including:
</P>
<P>• The capacity of the borrower, or income from the underlying property, to adequately service the debt.
</P>
<P>• The value of the mortgaged property.
</P>
<P>• The overall creditworthiness of the borrower.
</P>
<P>• The level of equity invested in the property.
</P>
<P>• Any secondary sources of repayment.
</P>
<P>• Any additional collateral or credit enhancements (such as guarantees, mortgage insurance or takeout commitments). 
</P>
<P>The lending policies should reflect the level of risk that is acceptable to the board of directors and provide clear and measurable underwriting standards that enable the institution's lending staff to evaluate these credit factors. The underwriting standards should address:
</P>
<P>• The maximum loan amount by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Maximum loan maturities by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Amortization schedules.
</P>
<P>• Pricing structure for different types of real estate loans.
</P>
<P>• Loan-to-value limits by type of property. 
</P>
<P>For development and construction projects, and completed commercial properties, the policy should also establish, commensurate with the size and type of the project or property:
</P>
<P>• Requirements for feasibility studies and sensitivity and risk analyses (<I>e.g.,</I> sensitivity of income projections to changes in economic variables such as interest rates, vacancy rates, or operating expenses).
</P>
<P>• Minimum requirements for initial investment and maintenance of hard equity by the borrower (<I>e.g.,</I> cash or unencumbered investment in the underlying property).
</P>
<P>• Minimum standards for net worth, cash flow, and debt service coverage of the borrower or underlying property.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on non-amortizing loans.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on the use of interest reserves.
</P>
<P>• Pre-leasing and pre-sale requirements for income-producing property.
</P>
<P>• Pre-sale and minimum unit release requirements for non-income-producing property loans.
</P>
<P>• Limits on partial recourse or nonrecourse loans and requirements for guarantor support.
</P>
<P>• Requirements for takeout commitments.
</P>
<P>• Minimum covenants for loan agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Loan Administration
</HD1>
<P>The institution should also establish loan administration procedures for its real estate portfolio that address:
</P>
<P>• Documentation, including:
</P>
<FP1-2>Type and frequency of financial statements, including requirements for verification of information provided by the borrower;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Type and frequency of collateral evaluations (appraisals and other estimates of value).
</FP1-2>
<P>• Loan closing and disbursement.
</P>
<P>• Payment processing.
</P>
<P>• Escrow administration.
</P>
<P>• Collateral administration.
</P>
<P>• Loan payoffs.
</P>
<P>• Collections and foreclosure, including:
</P>
<FP1-2>Delinquency follow-up procedures;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Foreclosure timing;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Extensions and other forms of forbearance;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>Acceptance of deeds in lieu of foreclosure.
</FP1-2>
<P>• Claims processing (<I>e.g.,</I> seeking recovery on a defaulted loan covered by a government guaranty or insurance program).
</P>
<P>• Servicing and participation agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>Institutions should establish their own internal loan-to-value limits for real estate loans. These internal limits should not exceed the following supervisory limits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan-to-value limit (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raw land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commercial, multifamily, 
<sup>1</sup> and other nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1- to 4-family residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Improved property</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A loan-to-value limit has not been established for permanent mortgage or home equity loans on owner-occupied, 1- to 4-family residential property. However, for any such loan with a loan-to-value ratio that equals or exceeds 90 percent at origination, an institution should require appropriate credit enhancement in the form of either mortgage insurance or readily marketable collateral.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The supervisory loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (e.g., a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under supervisory loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the supervisory limits, lenders should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
</P>
<P>In establishing internal loan-to-value limits, each lender is expected to carefully consider the institution-specific and market factors listed under “Loan Portfolio Management Considerations,” as well as any other relevant factors, such as the particular subcategory or type of loan. For any subcategory of loans that exhibits greater credit risk than the overall category, a lender should consider the establishment of an internal loan-to-value limit for that subcategory that is lower than the limit for the overall category.
</P>
<P>The loan-to-value ratio is only one of several pertinent credit factors to be considered when underwriting a real estate loan. Other credit factors to be taken into account are highlighted in the “Underwriting Standards” section above. Because of these other factors, the establishment of these supervisory limits should not be interpreted to mean that loans at these levels will automatically be considered sound.
</P>
<HD1>Loans in Excess of the Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>The agencies recognize that appropriate loan-to-value limits vary not only among categories of real estate loans but also among individual loans. Therefore, it may be appropriate in individual cases to originate or purchase loans with loan-to-value ratios in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits, based on the support provided by other credit factors. Such loans should be identified in the institutions's records, and their aggregate amount reported at least quarterly to the institution's board of directors. (See additional reporting requirements described under “Exceptions to the General Policy.”)
</P>
<P>The aggregate amount of all loans in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits should not exceed 100 percent of total capital. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, within the aggregate limit, total loans for all commercial, agricultural, multifamily or other non-1-to-4 family residential properties should not exceed 30 percent of total capital. An institution will come under increased supervisory scrutiny as the total of such loans approaches these levels.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the state member banks, the term “total capital” means “total risk-based capital” as defined in Appendix A to 12 CFR part 208. For insured state non-member banks, “total capital” refers to that term described in table I of Appendix A to 12 CFR part 325. For national banks and Federal savings associations, the term “total capital” is defined at 12 CFR 3.2.</P></FTNT>
<P>In determining the aggregate amount of such loans, institutions should: (a) Include all loans secured by the same property if any one of those loans exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limits; and (b) include the recourse obligation of any such loan sold with recourse. Conversely, a loan should no longer be reported to the directors as part of aggregate totals when reduction in principal or senior liens, or additional contribution of collateral or equity (e.g., improvements to the real property securing the loan), bring the loan-to-value ratio into compliance with supervisory limits.
</P>
<HD1>Excluded Transactions
</HD1>
<P>The agencies also recognize that there are a number of lending situations in which other factors significantly outweigh the need to apply the supervisory loan-to-value limits. These include:
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government or its agencies, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans backed by the full faith and credit of a State government, provided that the amount of the assurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by a State, municipal or local government, or an agency thereof, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit, and provided that the lender has determined that the guarantor or insurer has the financial capacity and willingness to perform under the terms of the guaranty or insurance agreement.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are to be sold promptly after origination, without recourse, to a financially responsible third party.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured without the advancement of new funds or an increase in the line of credit (except for reasonable closing costs), or loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured in connection with a workout situation, either with or without the advancement of new funds, where consistent with safe and sound banking practices and part of a clearly defined and well-documented program to achieve orderly liquidation of the debt, reduce risk of loss, or maximize recovery on the loan.
</P>
<P>• Loans that facilitate the sale of real estate acquired by the lender in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>• Loans for which a lien on or interest in real property is taken as additional collateral through an abundance of caution by the lender (e.g., the institution takes a blanket lien on all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, and the value of the real property is low relative to the aggregate value of all other collateral).
</P>
<P>• Loans, such as working capital loans, where the lender does not rely principally on real estate as security and the extension of credit is not used to acquire, develop, or construct permanent improvements on real property.
</P>
<P>• Loans for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real property, but not secured by the property, if such security interest is not required by prudent underwriting practice.
</P>
<HD1>Exceptions to the General Lending Policy
</HD1>
<P>Some provision should be made for the consideration of loan requests from creditworthy borrowers whose credit needs do not fit within the institution's general lending policy. An institution may provide for prudently underwritten exceptions to its lending policies, including loan-to-value limits, on a loan-by-loan basis. However, any exceptions from the supervisory loan-to-value limits should conform to the aggregate limits on such loans discussed above.
</P>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for establishing standards for the review and approval of exception loans. Each institution should establish an appropriate internal process for the review and approval of loans that do not conform to its own internal policy standards. The approval of any such loan should be supported by a written justification that clearly sets forth all of the relevant credit factors that support the underwriting decision. The justification and approval documents for such loans should be maintained as a part of the permanent loan file. Each institution should monitor compliance with its real estate lending policy and individually report exception loans of a significant size to its board of directors.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Review of Real Estate Lending Policies and Practices
</HD1>
<P>The real estate lending policies of institutions will be evaluated by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine if the policies are consistent with safe and sound lending practices, these guidelines, and the requirements of the regulation. In evaluating the adequacy of the institution's real estate lending policies and practices, examiners will take into consideration the following factors:
</P>
<P>• The nature and scope of the institution's real estate lending activities.
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>• The quality of the institution's management and internal controls.
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending and loan administration staff.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions.
</P>
<P>Lending policy exception reports will also be reviewed by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine whether the institutions' exceptions are adequately documented and appropriate in light of all of the relevant credit considerations. An excessive volume of exceptions to an institution's real estate lending policy may signal a weakening of its underwriting practices, or may suggest a need to revise the loan policy.
</P>
<HD1>Definitions 
</HD1>
<P>For the purposes of these Guidelines: 
</P>
<P><I>Construction loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of erecting or rehabilitating buildings or other structures, including any infrastructure necessary for development. 
</P>
<P><I>Extension of credit</I> or <I>loan</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total amount of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment with respect to real property; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount, based on the amount of consideration paid, of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment acquired by a lender by purchase, assignment, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P><I>Improved property loan</I> means an extension of credit secured by one of the following types of real property: 
</P>
<P>(1) Farmland, ranchland or timberland committed to ongoing management and agricultural production; 
</P>
<P>(2) 1- to 4-family residential property that is not owner-occupied; 
</P>
<P>(3) Residential property containing five or more individual dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(4) Completed commercial property; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Other income-producing property that has been completed and is available for occupancy and use, except income-producing owner-occupied 1- to 4-family residential property. 
</P>
<P><I>Land development loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of improving unimproved real property prior to the erection of structures. The improvement of unimproved real property may include the laying or placement of sewers, water pipes, utility cables, streets, and other infrastructure necessary for future development. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan origination</I> means the time of inception of the obligation to extend credit (i.e., when the last event or prerequisite, controllable by the lender, occurs causing the lender to become legally bound to fund an extension of credit). 
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value</I> or <I>loan-to-value ratio</I> means the percentage or ratio that is derived at the time of loan origination by dividing an extension of credit by the total value of the property(ies) securing or being improved by the extension of credit plus the amount of any readily marketable collateral and other acceptable collateral that secures the extension of credit. The total amount of all senior liens on or interests in such property(ies) should be included in determining the loan-to-value ratio. When mortgage insurance or collateral is used in the calculation of the loan-to-value ratio, and such credit enhancement is later released or replaced, the loan-to-value ratio should be recalculated. 
</P>
<P><I>Other acceptable collateral</I> means any collateral in which the lender has a perfected security interest, that has a quantifiable value, and is accepted by the lender in accordance with safe and sound lending practices. Other acceptable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral. Other acceptable collateral includes, among other items, unconditional irrevocable standby letters of credit for the benefit of the lender. 
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied,</I> when used in conjunction with the term <I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means that the owner of the underlying real property occupies at least one unit of the real property as a principal residence of the owner.
</P>
<P><I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means insured deposits, financial instruments, and bullion in which the lender has a perfected interest. Financial instruments and bullion must be salable under ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions, on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. Readily marketable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral.
</P>
<P><I>Value</I> means an opinion or estimate, set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate, of the market value of real property, prepared in accordance with the agency's appraisal regulations and guidance. For loans to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value.
</P>
<P><I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means property containing fewer than five individual dwelling units, including manufactured homes permanently affixed to the underlying property (when deemed to be real property under State law).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62896, Dec. 31, 1992; 58 FR 4460, Jan. 14, 1993, as amended at 79 FR 11312, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56374, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Other Real Estate Owned</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.81" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.81   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Debts previously contracted (DPC) real estate</I> means real estate (including leases) acquired by a national bank or Federal savings association through any means in full or partial satisfaction of a debt previously contracted.
</P>
<P><I>Former banking premises</I> means real estate permissible under § 7.1000(a)(1) of this chapter that is no longer used or contemplated to be used for the purposes permitted under that section.
</P>
<P><I>Market value</I> means the value determined in accordance with subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P><I>Other real estate owned (OREO)</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) DPC real estate; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Former banking premises. 
</P>
<P><I>Recorded investment amount</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For loans, the recorded loan balance, as determined by generally accepted accounting principles; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For former banking premises, the net book value. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 79 FR 11313, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56374, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.82" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.82   Holding period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Holding period for OREO</I>—(1) <I>National bank.</I> A national bank shall dispose of OREO at the earliest time that prudent judgment dictates, but not later than the end of the holding period (or an extension thereof) permitted by 12 U.S.C. 29.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings association.</I> A Federal savings association may hold OREO for not more than five years after commencement of the holding period. On the request of a Federal savings association, the OCC may extend the holding period for not more than an additional five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of holding period.</I> The holding period begins on the date that:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership of the property is originally transferred to a national bank or Federal savings association, including as a result of a merger with or acquisition of another organization holding OREO;
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association completes relocation from former banking premises to new banking premises or ceases to use the former banking premises without relocating;
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank or Federal savings association decides not to use real estate acquired for future banking expansion;
</P>
<P>(4) An institution converts to a national bank or Federal savings association, unless the institution was a national bank or Federal savings association immediately prior to the conversion; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is January 1, 2020, for OREO obtained by a Federal savings association prior to that date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of statutory redemption period.</I> For DPC real estate that is subject to a redemption period imposed under State law, the holding period begins at the expiration of that redemption period. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of failed disposition.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association disposes of OREO, but the real estate subsequently is conveyed back to the institution within five years as a result of a valid rescission or invalidation of the original disposition, then the holding period will be tolled for the period during which the real estate was not in possession of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Re-acquisition of former OREO.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association reacquires a property that had been OREO and was disposed of consistent with § 34.83, the holding period will reset.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 56375, Oct. 22, 2019; 84 FR 64193, Nov. 21, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.83" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.83   Disposition of OREO.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disposition.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may dispose of OREO in the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to OREO in general: 
</P>
<P>(i) By entering into a transaction that is a sale under generally accepted accounting principles; 
</P>
<P>(ii) By entering into a transaction that involves a loan guaranteed or insured by the United States government or by an agency of the United States government or a loan eligible for purchase by a Federally-sponsored instrumentality that purchases loans; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) By selling the property pursuant to a land contract or a contract for deed; 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to DPC real estate, by retaining the property for its own use as bank premises or by transferring it to a subsidiary or affiliate for use in the business of the subsidiary or affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a lease:
</P>
<P>(i) By obtaining an assignment or a coterminous sublease. If a national bank or Federal savings association enters into a sublease that is not coterminous, the period during which the master lease must be divested will be suspended for the duration of the sublease, and will begin running again upon termination of the sublease. A national bank or Federal savings association holding a lease as OREO may enter into an extension of the lease that would exceed the holding period referred to in § 34.82 if the extension meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(A) The extension is necessary in order to sublease the master lease; 
</P>
<P>(B) The national bank or Federal savings association, prior to entering into the extension, has a firm commitment from a prospective subtenant to sublease the property; and
</P>
<P>(C) The term of the extension is reasonable and does not materially exceed the term of the sublease; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Should the OCC determine that a national bank or Federal savings association has entered into a lease, extension of a lease, or a sublease for the purpose of real estate speculation, the OCC will take appropriate measures to address the violation, which may include requiring the bank or savings association to take immediate steps to divest the lease or sublease; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a transaction that does not qualify as a disposition under paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, by receiving or accumulating from the purchaser an amount in a down payment, principal and interest payments, and private mortgage insurance totalling at least 10 percent of the sales price, as measured in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method approved by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional method for Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association also may transfer OREO to a service corporation. A service corporation may hold real property transferred to it:
</P>
<P>(1) As OREO, subject to the requirements otherwise applicable to the Federal savings association under this subpart E; or
</P>
<P>(2) As an investment in real estate under § 5.59.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disposition efforts and documentation.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association shall make diligent and ongoing efforts to dispose of each parcel of OREO, and shall maintain documentation adequate to reflect those efforts. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 56375, Oct. 22, 2019; 85 FR 43422, July 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.84" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.84   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.85" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.85   Appraisal requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Upon transfer to OREO, a national bank or Federal savings association shall substantiate the parcel's market value by obtaining either: 
</P>
<P>(i) An appraisal in accordance with subpart C of this part; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An appropriate evaluation when the recorded investment amount is equal to or less than the threshold amount in subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association shall develop a prudent real estate collateral evaluation policy that allows the bank or savings association to monitor the value of each parcel of OREO in a manner consistent with prudent banking practice. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> If a national bank or Federal savings association has a valid appraisal or an appropriate evaluation obtained in connection with a real estate loan and in accordance with subpart C of this part, then the bank or savings association need not obtain another appraisal or evaluation when it acquires ownership of the property. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sales of OREO.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association need not obtain a new appraisal or evaluation when selling OREO if the sale is consummated based on a valid appraisal or an appropriate evaluation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 11301, Mar. 20, 1996, as amended at 84 FR 56375, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.86" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.5.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.86   OREO expenditures and notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operating expenditures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may pay operating expenses on OREO, including taxes, insurance, utilities, and maintenance, that are reasonable and consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business expenditures.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association may pay expenses for OREO that includes the operation of a business, provided the expenses are:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonably calculated to reduce any shortfall between the property's market value and the recorded investment amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) Consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional expenditures.</I> For OREO that is a development or improvement project, a national bank or Federal savings association may make advances to complete the project if the advances are:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonably calculated to reduce any shortfall between the property's market value and the recorded investment amount;
</P>
<P>(2) Not made for the purpose of speculation in real estate; and
</P>
<P>(3) Consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification procedures for additional expenditures.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association shall notify the appropriate supervisory office at least 30 days before implementing a development or improvement plan for OREO when the sum of the plan's estimated cost and the bank's or savings association's current recorded investment amount (including any unpaid prior liens on the property) exceeds 10 percent of the bank's or savings association's total equity capital on its most recent report of condition. A national bank or Federal savings association need notify the OCC under this paragraph (d)(1) only once.
</P>
<P>(2) The required notification must demonstrate that the additional expenditure is consistent with the conditions and limitations in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless informed otherwise, the national bank or Federal savings association may implement the proposed plan on the thirty-first day (or sooner, if notified by the OCC) following receipt by the OCC of the notification, subject to any conditions imposed by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 56375, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Appraisals for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 10432, Feb. 13, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.201" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.201   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency under 12 U.S.C. 93a, 12 U.S.C. 1463, 1464 and 15 U.S.C. 1639h.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The OCC adopts this subpart pursuant to the requirements of section 129H of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1639h) which provides that a creditor, including a national bank or operating subsidiary, a Federal branch or agency or a Federal savings association or operating subsidiary, may not extend credit in the form of a higher-risk mortgage without complying with the requirements of section 129H of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1639h) and this subpart G. The definition of a higher-risk mortgage in section 129H is consistent with the definition of a higher-priced mortgage loan under Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026. Specifically, 12 CFR 1026.35 defines a higher-priced mortgage loan as a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set:
</P>
<P>(1) By 1.5 or more percentage points, for a loan secured by a first lien with a principal obligation at consummation that does not exceed the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac;
</P>
<P>(2) By 2.5 or more percentage points, for a loan secured by a first lien with a principal obligation at consummation that exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac; or
</P>
<P>(3) By 3.5 or more percentage points, for a loan secured by a subordinate lien.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to higher-priced mortgage loan transactions entered into by national banks and their operating subsidiaries, Federal branches and agencies and Federal savings associations and operating subsidiaries of savings associations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Official Interpretations.</I> Appendix C to this subpart sets out OCC Interpretations of the requirements imposed by the OCC pursuant to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.202" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.202   Definitions applicable to higher-priced mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consummation has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(13).
</P>
<P>(b) Creditor has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17).
</P>
<P>(c) Higher-priced mortgage loan has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.35(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) Reverse mortgage has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.33(a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10432, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78579, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.203" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.203   Appraisals for higher-priced mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certified or licensed appraiser</I> means a person who is certified or licensed by the State agency in the State in which the property that secures the transaction is located, and who performs the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements applicable to appraisers in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations, in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit risk</I> means the financial risk that a consumer will default on a loan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manufactured home</I> has the same meaning as in 24 CFR 3280.2.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Manufacturer's invoice</I> means a document issued by a manufacturer and provided with a manufactured home to a retail dealer that separately details the wholesale (base) prices at the factory for specific models or series of manufactured homes and itemized options (large appliances, built-in items and equipment), plus actual itemized charges for freight from the factory to the dealer's lot or the homesite (including any rental of wheels and axles) and for any sales taxes to be paid by the dealer. The invoice may recite such prices and charges on an itemized basis or by stating an aggregate price or charge, as appropriate, for each category.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>National Registry</I> means the database of information about State certified and licensed appraisers maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>New manufactured home</I> means a manufactured home that has not been previously occupied.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>State agency</I> means a “State appraiser certifying and licensing agency” recognized in accordance with section 1118(b) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3347(b)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Unless otherwise specified, the requirements in paragraph (c) through (f) of this section do not apply to the following types of transactions:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan that satisfies the criteria of a qualified mortgage as defined pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1639c.
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of credit for which the amount of credit extended is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount, which is adjusted every year to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable, and published in the OCC official interpretations to this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction secured by a mobile home, boat, or trailer.
</P>
<P>(4) A transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(5) A loan with a maturity of 12 months or less, if the purpose of the loan is a “bridge” loan connected with the acquisition of a dwelling intended to become the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(6) A reverse-mortgage transaction subject to 12 CFR 1026.33(a).
</P>
<P>(7) An extension of credit that is a refinancing secured by a first lien, with refinancing defined as in 12 CFR 1026.20(a) (except that the creditor need not be the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation), provided that the refinancing meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Either—
</P>
<P>(A) The credit risk of the refinancing is retained by the person that held the credit risk of the existing obligation and there is no commitment, at consummation, to transfer the credit risk to another person; or
</P>
<P>(B) The refinancing is insured or guaranteed by the same Federal government agency that insured or guaranteed the existing obligation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The regular periodic payments under the refinance loan do not—
</P>
<P>(A) Cause the principal balance to increase;
</P>
<P>(B) Allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal; or
</P>
<P>(C) Result in a balloon payment, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proceeds from the refinancing are used solely to satisfy the existing obligation and to pay amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing; and
</P>
<P>(8) A transaction secured by:
</P>
<P>(i) A new manufactured home and land, but the exemption shall only apply to the requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section that the appraiser conduct a physical visit of the interior of the new manufactured home; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A manufactured home and not land, for which the creditor obtains one of the following and provides a copy to the consumer no later than three business days prior to consummation of the transaction—
</P>
<P>(A) For a new manufactured home, the manufacturer's invoice for the manufactured home securing the transaction, provided that the date of manufacture is no earlier than 18 months prior to the creditor's receipt of the consumer's application for credit;
</P>
<P>(B) A cost estimate of the value of the manufactured home securing the transaction obtained from an independent cost service provider; or
</P>
<P>(C) A valuation, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.42(b)(3), of the manufactured home performed by a person who has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction for which the valuation is performed and has training in valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals required</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer without obtaining, prior to consummation, a written appraisal of the property to be mortgaged. The appraisal must be performed by a certified or licensed appraiser who conducts a physical visit of the interior of the property that will secure the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor obtains a written appraisal that meets the requirements for an appraisal required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Orders that the appraiser perform the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifies through the National Registry that the appraiser who signed the appraiser's certification was a certified or licensed appraiser in the State in which the appraised property is located as of the date the appraiser signed the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(iii) Confirms that the elements set forth in appendix A to this subpart are addressed in the written appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no actual knowledge contrary to the facts or certifications contained in the written appraisal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional appraisal for certain higher-priced mortgage loans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d)(7) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer to finance the acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling without obtaining, prior to consummation, two written appraisals, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The seller acquired the property 90 or fewer days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 10 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller acquired the property 91 to 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Different certified or licensed appraisers.</I> The two appraisals required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section may not be performed by the same certified or licensed appraiser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship to general appraisal requirements.</I> If two appraisals must be obtained under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, each appraisal shall meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required analysis in the additional appraisal.</I> One of the two required appraisals must include an analysis of:
</P>
<P>(i) The difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, as specified in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in market conditions between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No charge for the additional appraisal.</I> If the creditor must obtain two appraisals under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the creditor may charge the consumer for only one of the appraisals.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Creditor's determination of prior sale date and price</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> A creditor must obtain two written appraisals under paragraph (d)(1) of this section unless the creditor can demonstrate by exercising reasonable diligence that the requirement to obtain two appraisals does not apply. A creditor acts with reasonable diligence if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as the documents listed in appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inability to determine prior sale date or price—modified requirements for additional appraisal.</I> If, after exercising reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (d)(1)(ii) are present and therefore must obtain two written appraisals in accordance with paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(5) of this section, one of the two appraisals shall include an analysis of the factors in paragraph (d)(4) of this section only to the extent that the information necessary for the appraiser to perform the analysis can be determined.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exemptions from the additional appraisal requirement.</I> The additional appraisal required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall not apply to extensions of credit that finance a consumer's acquisition of property:
</P>
<P>(i) From a local, State or Federal government agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) From a person who acquired title to the property through foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure as a result of the person's exercise of rights as the holder of a defaulted mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) From a non-profit entity as part of a local, State, or Federal government program under which the non-profit entity is permitted to acquire title to single-family properties for resale from a seller who acquired title to the property through the process of foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure;
</P>
<P>(iv) From a person who acquired title to the property by inheritance or pursuant to a court order of dissolution of marriage, civil union, or domestic partnership, or of partition of joint or marital assets to which the seller was a party;
</P>
<P>(v) From an employer or relocation agency in connection with the relocation of an employee;
</P>
<P>(vi) From a servicemember, as defined in 50 U.S.C. App. 511(1), who received a deployment or permanent change of station order after the servicemember purchased the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Located in an area designated by the President as a federal disaster area, if and for as long as the Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(6), waive the requirements in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in that area; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Located in a rural county, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall disclose the following statement, in writing, to a consumer who applies for a higher-priced mortgage loan: “We may order an appraisal to determine the property's value and charge you for this appraisal. We will give you a copy of any appraisal, even if your loan does not close. You can pay for an additional appraisal for your own use at your own cost.” Compliance with the disclosure requirement in Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(2), satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> The disclosure required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be delivered or placed in the mail no later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application for a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section. In the case of a loan that is not a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section at the time of application, but becomes a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section after application, the disclosure shall be delivered or placed in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor determines that the loan is a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Copy of appraisals</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of any written appraisal performed in connection with a higher-priced mortgage loan pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> A creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of each written appraisal pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than three business days prior to consummation of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a loan that is not consummated, no later than 30 days after the creditor determines that the loan will not be consummated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of copy.</I> Any copy of a written appraisal required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No charge for copy of appraisal.</I> A creditor shall not charge the consumer for a copy of a written appraisal required to be provided to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relation to other rules.</I> The rules in this section 34.203 were adopted jointly by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board), the OCC, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Bureau). These rules are substantively identical to the Board's and the Bureau's higher-priced mortgage loan appraisal rules published separately in 12 CFR 226.43 (for the Board) and 12 CFR 1026.35(a) and (c) (for the Bureau).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10432, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78579, 78580, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.4.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart G of Part 34—Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Safe Harbor Review
</HEAD>
<P>To qualify for the safe harbor provided in § 34.203(c)(2), a creditor must confirm that the written appraisal:
</P>
<P>1. Identifies the creditor who ordered the appraisal and the property and the interest being appraised.
</P>
<P>2. Indicates whether the contract price was analyzed.
</P>
<P>3. Addresses conditions in the property's neighborhood.
</P>
<P>4. Addresses the condition of the property and any improvements to the property.
</P>
<P>5. Indicates which valuation approaches were used, and includes a reconciliation if more than one valuation approach was used.
</P>
<P>6. Provides an opinion of the property's market value and an effective date for the opinion.
</P>
<P>7. Indicates that a physical property visit of the interior of the property was performed, as applicable..
</P>
<P>8. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice.
</P>
<P>9. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10432, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78580, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.4.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart G of Part 34—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HEAD>
<P>A creditor acts with reasonable diligence under § 34.203(d)(6)(i) if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as:
</P>
<P>1. A copy of the recorded deed from the seller.
</P>
<P>2. A copy of a property tax bill.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of any owner's title insurance policy obtained by the seller.
</P>
<P>4. A copy of the RESPA settlement statement from the seller's acquisition (<I>i.e.,</I> the HUD-1 or any successor form).
</P>
<P>5. A property sales history report or title report from a third-party reporting service.
</P>
<P>6. Sales price data recorded in multiple listing services.
</P>
<P>7. Tax assessment records or transfer tax records obtained from local governments.
</P>
<P>8. A written appraisal performed in compliance with § 34.203(c)(1) for the same transaction.
</P>
<P>9. A copy of a title commitment report detailing the seller's ownership of the property, the date it was acquired, or the price at which the seller acquired the property.
</P>
<P>10. A property abstract.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.7.27.4.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart G of Part 34—OCC Interpretations












</HEAD>
<HD1>Section 34.202—Definitions applicable to higher-priced mortgage loans
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Staff Interpretations.</I> Section 34.202 incorporates definitions from Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026. These OCC Interpretations of 12 CFR part 34, subpart G, incorporate the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z associated with those definitions, at 12 CFR part 1026, Supplement I.
</P>
<HD1>Section 34.203—Appraisals for higher-priced mortgage loans
</HD1>
<P><I>34.203(a) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34.203(a)(1) Certified or licensed appraiser.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>USPAP.</I> The Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) are established by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(9)). Under § 34.203(a)(1), the relevant USPAP standards are those found in the edition of USPAP in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> The appraiser's certification refers to the certification that must be signed by the appraiser for each appraisal assignment. This requirement is specified in USPAP Standards Rule 2-3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>FIRREA title XI and implementing regulations.</I> The relevant regulations are those prescribed under section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA), as amended (12 U.S.C. 3339), that relate to an appraiser's development and reporting of the appraisal in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification. Paragraph (3) of FIRREA section 1110 (12 U.S.C. 3339(3)), which relates to the review of appraisals, is not relevant for determining whether an appraiser is a certified or licensed appraiser under § 34.203(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>34.203(b) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compliance with title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA).</I> Section 34.203(b) provides exemptions solely from the requirements of § 34.203(c) through (f). Institutions subject to the requirements of FIRREA and its implementing regulations that make a loan qualifying for an exemption under § 34.203(b) must still comply with appraisal and evaluation requirements under FIRREA and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<HD3>34.203(b)(1) Exemptions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Qualified mortgage criteria.</I> Under § 34.203(b)(1), a loan is exempt from the appraisal requirements of § 34.203 if either:
</P>
<P>i. The loan is—(1) subject to the ability-to-repay requirements of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Bureau) in 12 CFR 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in 12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1)) and (2) a qualified mortgage pursuant to the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), or Rural Housing Service (RHS), a qualified mortgage pursuant to applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's definition of a qualified mortgage applies to those loans); or
</P>
<P>ii. The loan is—(1) not subject to the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in 12 CFR 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in 12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1)), but (2) meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). To explain further, loans enumerated in 12 CFR 1026.43(a) are not “covered transactions” under the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in 12 CFR 1026.43, and thus cannot be qualified mortgages (entitled to a rebuttable presumption or safe harbor of compliance with the ability-to-repay requirements of 12 CFR 1026.43, <I>see, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(1)). These include an extension of credit made pursuant to a program administered by a Housing Finance Agency, as defined under 24 CFR 266.5, or pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (vi). They also include extensions of credit made by a creditor identified in 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(v). However, these loans are eligible for the exemption in § 34.203(b)(1) if they meet the Bureau's qualified mortgage criteria in 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(2), (4), (5), or (6) or 12 CFR 1026.43(f) (including limits on when loans must be consummated) or, for loans that are insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, in applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). For example, assume that HUD has prescribed rules to define loans insured under its programs that are qualified mortgages and those rules are in effect. Assume further that a creditor designated as a Community Development Financial Institution, as defined under 12 CFR 1805.104(h), originates a loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration, which is a part of HUD. The loan is not a “covered transaction” and thus is not a qualified mortgage. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(A) and (b)(1). Nonetheless, the transaction is eligible for an exemption from the appraisal requirements of § 34.203(b)(1) if it meets the qualified mortgage criteria in HUD's rules. Nothing in § 34.203(b)(1) alters the definition of a qualified mortgage under regulations of the Bureau, HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS.


</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P><I>Threshold amount.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(b)(2), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in comment 203(b)(2)-3 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 203(b)(2)-3 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(b)(2), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $26,000.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $26,700.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $28,500.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $31,000.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $32,400.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $33,500.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $34,200.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Qualifying for exemption—in general.</I> A transaction is exempt under § 34.203(b)(2) if the creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that is equal to or below the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Qualifying for exemption—subsequent changes.</I> A transaction does not meet the condition for an exemption under § 34.203(b)(2) merely because it is used to satisfy and replace an existing exempt loan unless the amount of the new extension of credit is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount. For example, assume a closed-end loan that qualified for a § 34.203(b)(2) exemption at consummation in year one is refinanced in year ten and that the new loan amount is greater than the threshold amount in effect in year ten. In these circumstances, the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 34.203 with respect to the year ten transaction if the original loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan unless another exemption from the requirements of § 34.203 applies. <I>See</I> § 34.203(b) and (d)(7).








</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(3).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a mobile home.</I> For purposes of the exemption in § 34.203(b)(3), a mobile home does not include a manufactured home, as defined in § 34.203(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Construction-to-permanent loans.</I> Section 34.203 does not apply to a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. This exclusion applies to a construction-only loan as well as to the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan. Section 34.203 does apply, however, to permanent financing that replaces a construction loan, whether the permanent financing is extended by the same or a different creditor, unless the permanent financing is otherwise exempt from the requirements of § 34.203. <I>See</I> § 34.203(b). When a construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the general disclosure requirements for closed-end credit pursuant to Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.17) provide that the creditor may give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) and the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 17(c)(6)-2. Which disclosure option a creditor elects under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) does not affect the determination of whether the permanent phase of the transaction is subject to § 34.203. When the creditor discloses the two phases as separate transactions, the annual percentage rate for the permanent phase must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 34.203. When the creditor discloses the two phases as a single transaction, a single annual percentage rate, reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases, must be calculated for the transaction in accordance with 12 CFR 1026.35(a)(1) (incorporated into 12 CFR part 34, subpart G by § 34.202) and appendix D to 12 CFR part 1026. The annual percentage rate must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 34.203. If the transaction is determined to be a higher-priced mortgage loan not otherwise exempt under § 34.203(b), only the permanent phase is subject to the requirements of § 34.203.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Financing initial construction.</I> The exemption for construction loans in § 34.203(b)(4) applies to temporary financing of the construction of a dwelling that will be replaced by permanent financing once construction is complete. The exemption does not apply, for example, to loans to finance the purchase of manufactured homes that have not been or are in the process of being built when the financing obtained by the consumer at that time is permanent. <I>See</I> § 34.203(b)(8).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(7)
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(7)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Same credit risk holder.</I> The requirement that the holder of the credit risk on the existing obligation and the refinancing be the same applies to situations in which an entity bears the financial responsibility for the default of a loan by either holding the loan in its portfolio or guaranteeing payments of principal and any interest to investors in a mortgage-backed security in which the loan is pooled. <I>See</I> § 34.203(a)(2) (defining “credit risk”). For example, a credit risk holder could be a bank that bears the credit risk on the existing obligation by holding the loan in the bank's portfolio. Another example of a credit risk holder would be a government-sponsored enterprise that bears the risk of default on a loan by guaranteeing the payment of principal and any interest on a loan to investors in a mortgage-backed security. The holder of credit risk under § 34.203(b)(7)(i)(A) does not mean individual investors in a mortgage-backed security or providers of private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Same credit risk holder—illustrations.</I>
</P>
<P>Illustrations of the credit risk holder of the existing obligation continuing to be the credit risk holder of the refinancing include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a bank, thus the bank holds the credit risk. The bank arranges to refinance the loan and also will hold the refinancing in its portfolio. If the refinancing otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 34.203(b)(7), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the bank arranged to refinance the loan directly or indirectly, such as through the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation.
</P>
<P>ii. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a government-sponsored enterprise (GSE), thus the GSE holds the credit risk. The existing obligation is then refinanced by the servicer of the loan and immediately transferred to the GSE. The GSE pools the refinancing in a mortgage-backed security guaranteed by the GSE, thus the GSE holds the credit risk on the refinance loan. If the refinance transaction otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 34.203(b)(7), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the existing obligation was refinanced by the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation (acting as a “creditor” under 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17)) or by a different creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be sold or otherwise transferred pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the transaction is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” A refinance loan does not satisfy the requirement of § 34.203(b)(7)(i)(A) if the loan will be acquired pursuant to a forward commitment, such that the credit risk on the refinance loan will transfer to a person who did not hold the credit risk on the existing obligation.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(7)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> Under § 34.203(b)(7)(ii), the regular periodic payments on the refinance loan must not: Result in an increase of the principal balance (negative amortization); allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal (<I>see</I> 12 CFR 1026.43, and the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 43(e)(2)(i)-2); or result in a balloon payment. Thus, the terms of the legal obligation must require the consumer to make payments of principal and interest on a monthly or other periodic basis that will repay the loan amount over the loan term. Except for payments resulting from any interest rate changes after consummation in an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage, the periodic payments must be substantially equal. For an explanation of the term “substantially equal,” <I>see</I> 12 CFR 1026.43, the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. In addition, a single-payment transaction is not a refinancing meeting the requirements of § 34.203(b)(7) because it does not require “regular periodic payments.”
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(7)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Permissible use of proceeds.</I> The exemption for a refinancing under § 34.203(b)(7) is available only if the proceeds from the refinancing are used exclusively for the existing obligation and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. The existing obligation includes the unpaid principal balance of the existing first lien loan, any earned unpaid finance charges, and any other lawful charges related to the existing loan. For guidance on the meaning of refinancing costs, <I>see</I> 12 CFR 1026.23, the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulations Z, comment 23(f)-4. If the proceeds of a refinancing are used for other purposes, such as to pay off other liens or to provide additional cash to the consumer for discretionary spending, the transaction does not qualify for the exemption for a refinancing under § 34.203(b)(7) from the appraisal requirements in § 34.203.
</P>
<HD3>For applications received on or after July 18, 2015
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34.203(b)(8)
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(8)(i)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Secured by new manufactured home and land—physical visit of the interior.</I> A transaction secured by a new manufactured home and land is subject to the requirements of § 34.203(c) through (f) except for the requirement in § 34.203(c)(1) that the appraiser conduct a physical inspection of the interior of the property. Thus, for example, a creditor of a loan secured by a new manufactured home and land could comply with § 34.203(c)(1) by obtaining an appraisal conducted by a state-certified or -licensed appraiser based on plans and specifications for the new manufactured home and an inspection of the land on which the property will be sited, as well as any other information necessary for the appraiser to complete the appraisal assignment in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements of FIRREA and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(8)(ii)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a manufactured home and not land.</I> Section 34.203(b)(8)(ii) applies to a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a manufactured home and not land, regardless of whether the home is titled as realty by operation of state law.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(8)(ii)(B)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Independent.</I> A cost service provider from which the creditor obtains a manufactured home unit cost estimate under § 34.203(b)(8)(ii)(B) is “independent” if that person is not affiliated with the creditor in the transaction, such as by common corporate ownership, and receives no direct or indirect financial benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustments.</I> The requirement that the cost estimate be from an independent cost service provider does not prohibit a creditor from providing a cost estimate that reflects adjustments to account for factors such as special features, condition or location. However, the requirement that the estimate be obtained from an independent cost service provider means that any adjustments to the estimate must be based on adjustment factors available as part of the independent cost service used, with associated values that are determined by the independent cost service.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(b)(8)(ii)(C)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Interest in the property.</I> A person has a direct or indirect in the property if, for example, the person has any ownership or reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the manufactured home. To illustrate, a person who seeks a loan to purchase the manufactured home to be valued has a reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest in the transaction.</I> A person has a direct or indirect interest in the transaction if, for example, the person or an affiliate of that person also serves as a loan officer of the creditor or otherwise arranges the credit transaction, or is the retail dealer of the manufactured home. A person also has a prohibited interest in the transaction if the person is compensated or otherwise receives financial or other benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Training in valuing manufactured homes.</I> Training in valuing manufactured homes includes, for example, successfully completing a course in valuing manufactured homes offered by a state or national appraiser association or receiving job training from an employer in the business of valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manufactured home valuation—example.</I> A valuation in compliance with § 34.203(b)(8)(ii)(C) would include, for example, an appraisal of the manufactured home in accordance with the appraisal requirements for a manufactured home classified as personal property under the Title I Manufactured Home Loan Insurance Program of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, pursuant to section 2(b)(10) of the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1703(b)(10).
</P>
<P><I>34.203(c)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written appraisal—electronic transmission.</I> To satisfy the requirement that the appraisal be “written,” a creditor may obtain the appraisal in paper form or via electronic transmission.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(c)(2) Safe harbor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor that satisfies the safe harbor conditions in § 34.203(c)(2)(i) through (iv) complies with the appraisal requirements of § 34.203(c)(1). A creditor that does not satisfy the safe harbor conditions in § 34.203(c)(2)(i) through (iv) does not necessarily violate the appraisal requirements of § 34.203(c)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(c)(2), the appraiser's certification refers to the certification specified in item 9 of appendix A to this subpart. <I>See also</I> comment 34.203(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(c)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Confirming elements in the appraisal.</I> To confirm that the elements in appendix A to this subpart are included in the written appraisal, a creditor need not look beyond the face of the written appraisal and the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d) Additional appraisal for certain higher-priced mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acquisition.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(d), the terms “acquisition” and “acquire” refer to the acquisition of legal title to the property pursuant to applicable State law, including by purchase.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Appraisal from a previous transaction.</I> An appraisal that was previously obtained in connection with the seller's acquisition or the financing of the seller's acquisition of the property does not satisfy the requirements to obtain two written appraisals under § 34.203(d)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>90-day, 180-day calculation.</I> The time periods described in § 34.203(d)(1)(i) and (ii) are calculated by counting the day after the date on which the seller acquired the property, up to and including the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property that secures the transaction. For example, assume that the creditor determines that date of the consumer's acquisition agreement is October 15, 2012, and that the seller acquired the property on April 17, 2012. The first day to be counted in the 180-day calculation would be April 18, 2012, and the last day would be October 15, 2012. In this case, the number of days from April 17 would be 181, so an additional appraisal is not required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date seller acquired the property.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(d)(1)(i) and (ii), the date on which the seller acquired the property is the date on which the seller became the legal owner of the property pursuant to applicable State law.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.</I> For the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property under § 34.203(d)(1)(i) and (ii), the creditor should use the date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement provided to the creditor by the consumer. The date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement might not be the date on which the consumer became contractually obligated under State law to acquire the property. For purposes of § 34.203(d)(1)(i) and (ii), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. If the dates on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement differ, the creditor should use the later of the two dates.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Price at which the seller acquired the property.</I> The price at which the seller acquired the property refers to the amount paid by the seller to acquire the property. The price at which the seller acquired the property does not include the cost of financing the property.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.</I> The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property is the price indicated on the consumer's agreement with the seller to acquire the property. The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property from the seller does not include the cost of financing the property. For purposes of § 34.203(d)(1)(i) and (ii), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. <I>See also</I> comment 34.203(d)(1)-4.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(2) Different certified or licensed appraisers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Independent appraisers.</I> The requirements that a creditor obtain two separate appraisals under § 34.203(d)(1), and that each appraisal be conducted by a different licensed or certified appraiser under § 34.203(d)(2), indicate that the two appraisals must be conducted independently of each other. If the two certified or licensed appraisers are affiliated, such as by being employed by the same appraisal firm, then whether they have conducted the appraisal independently of each other must be determined based on the facts and circumstances of the particular case known to the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(3) Relationship to general appraisal requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> When a creditor is required to obtain an additional appraisal under § 34.203(d)(1), the creditor must comply with the requirements of both § 34.203(c)(1) and § 34.203(d)(2) through (5) for that appraisal. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 34.203(c)(1) for the additional appraisal if the creditor meets the safe harbor conditions in § 34.203(c)(2) for that appraisal.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(4) Required analysis in the additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining acquisition dates and prices used in the analysis of the additional appraisal.</I> For guidance on identifying the date on which the seller acquired the property, see comment 34.203(d)(1)-3. For guidance on identifying the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property, see comment 34.203(d)(1)-4. For guidance on identifying the price at which the seller acquired the property, see comment 34.203(d)(1)-5. For guidance on identifying the price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, see comment 34.203(d)(1)-6.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(5) No charge for additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for the performance of one of the two appraisals required under § 34.203(d)(1), including by imposing a fee specifically for that appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(6) Creditor's determination of prior sale date and price.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(6)(i) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated sales price.</I> If a written source document describes the seller's acquisition price in a manner that indicates that the price described is an estimated or assumed amount and not the actual price, the creditor should look at an alternative document to satisfy the reasonable diligence standard in determining the price at which the seller acquired the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable diligence—oral statements insufficient.</I> Reliance on oral statements of interested parties, such as the consumer, seller, or mortgage broker, does not constitute reasonable diligence under § 34.203(d)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lack of information and conflicting information—two appraisals required.</I> If a creditor is unable to demonstrate that the requirement to obtain two appraisals under § 34.203(d)(1) does not apply, the creditor must obtain two written appraisals before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the requirements of § 34.203 <I>See also</I> comment 34.203(d)(6)(ii)-1. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a creditor orders and reviews the results of a title search, which shows that a prior sale occurred between 91 and 180 days ago, but not the price paid in that sale. Thus, based on the title search, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the price the consumer is obligated to pay under the consumer's acquisition agreement is more than 20 percent higher than the seller's acquisition price, pursuant to § 34.203(d)(1)(ii). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 34.203, the creditor must either: perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition price and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 34.203(d)(6). <I>See also</I> comment 34.203(d)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a creditor reviews the results of a title search indicating that the last recorded purchase was more than 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. Assume also that the creditor subsequently receives a written appraisal indicating that the seller acquired the property between 91 and 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. In this case, unless one of these sources is clearly wrong on its face, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the seller acquired the property within 180 days of the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller, pursuant to § 34.203(d)(1)(ii). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 34.203, the creditor must either: perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition date and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 34.203(d)(6). <I>See also</I> comment 34.203(d)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(6)(ii) Inability to determine prior sales date or price—modified requirements for additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Required analysis.</I> In general, the additional appraisal required under § 34.203(d)(1) should include an analysis of the factors listed in § 34.203(d)(4)(i) through (iii). However, if, following reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in § 34.203(d)(1)(i) or (ii) are present due to a lack of information or conflicting information, the required additional appraisal must include the analyses required under § 34.203(d)(4)(i) through (iii) only to the extent that the information necessary to perform the analyses is known. For example, assume that a creditor is able, following reasonable diligence, to determine that the date on which the seller acquired the property occurred between 91 and 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is unable, following reasonable diligence, to determine the price at which the seller acquired the property. In this case, the creditor is required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes an analysis under § 34.203(d)(4)(ii) and (iii) of the changes in market conditions and any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is not required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes analysis under § 34.203(d)(4)(i) of the difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(d)(7) Exemptions from the additional appraisal requirement.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(d)(7)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-profit entity.</I> For purposes of § 34.203(d)(7)(iii), a “non-profit entity” is a person with a tax exemption ruling or determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (12 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34.203(d)(7)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bureau table of rural counties.</I> The Bureau publishes on its Web site a table of rural counties under 12 CFR 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A) for each calendar year by the end of that calendar year. <I>See</I> Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 35(b)(2)(iv)-1. A property securing an HPML subject to § 34.203 is in a rural county under § 34.203(d)(7)(viii) if the county in which the property is located is on the table of rural counties most recently published by the Bureau. For example, for a transaction occurring in 2015, assume that the Bureau most recently published a table of rural counties at the end of 2014. The property securing the transaction would be located in a rural county for purposes of § 34.203(d)(7)(viii) if the county is on the table of rural counties published by the Bureau at the end of 2014.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(e) Required disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34.203(e)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the disclosure to only one of the consumers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraisal independence requirements not affected.</I> Nothing in the text of the consumer notice required by § 34.203(e)(1) should be construed to affect, modify, limit, or supersede the operation of any legal, regulatory, or other requirements or standards relating to independence in the conduct of appraisals or restrictions on the use of borrower-ordered appraisals by creditors.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(f) Copy of appraisals.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34.203(f)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the copy of each required appraisal to only one of the consumers.
</P>
<P><I>34.203(f)(2) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>“Provide.”</I> For purposes of the requirement to provide a copy of the appraisal within a specified time under § 34.203(f)(2), “provide” means “deliver.” Delivery occurs three business days after mailing or delivering the copies to the last-known address of the applicant, or when evidence indicates actual receipt by the applicant (which, in the case of electronic receipt, must be based upon consent that complies with the E-Sign Act), whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No waiver.</I> Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(1), allowing the consumer to waive the requirement that the appraisal copy be provided three business days before consummation, does not apply to higher-priced mortgage loans subject to § 34.203. A consumer of a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to § 34.203 may not waive the timing requirement to receive a copy of the appraisal under § 34.203(f)(2).
</P>
<P><I>34.203(f)(4) No charge for copy of appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for any copy of an appraisal required to be provided under § 34.203(f)(1), including by imposing a fee specifically for a required copy of an appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix B—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Title commitment report.</I> The “title commitment report” is a document from a title insurance company describing the property interest and status of its title, parties with interests in the title and the nature of their claims, issues with the title that must be resolved prior to closing of the transaction between the parties to the transfer, amount and disposition of the premiums, and endorsements on the title policy. This document is issued by the title insurance company prior to the company's issuance of an actual title insurance policy to the property's transferee and/or creditor financing the transaction. In different jurisdictions, this instrument may be referred to by different terms, such as a title commitment, title binder, title opinion, or title report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10432, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78580, Dec. 26, 2013; 79 FR 78298, Dec. 30, 2014; 80 FR 73945, Nov. 27, 2015; 81 FR 86254, Nov. 30, 2016; 82 FR 51974, Nov. 9, 2017; 83 FR 59274, Nov. 23, 2018; 84 FR 58015, Oct. 30, 2019; 85 FR 79387, Dec. 10, 2020; 86 FR 67845, Nov. 30, 2021; 87 FR 63665, Oct. 20, 2022; 88 FR 83313, Nov. 29, 2023; 89 FR 82932, Oct. 15, 2024; 90 FR 58143, Dec. 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Appraisal Management Company Minimum Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 32679, June 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.210   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency under 12 U.S.C. 93a and Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act (FIRREA), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement sections 1109, 1117, 1121, and 1124 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338, 3346, 3350, and 3353.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to States and to appraisal management companies (AMCs) providing appraisal management services in connection with consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling or securitizations of those transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this subpart should be construed to prevent a State from establishing requirements in addition to those in this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart should be construed to alter guidance in, and applicability of, the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> or other relevant agency guidance that cautions banks, bank holding companies, Federal savings associations, state savings associations, and credit unions, as applicable, that each such entity is accountable for overseeing the activities of third-party service providers and ensuring that any services provided by a third party comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance applicable directly to the financial institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> <I>http://www.occ.gov/news-issuances/bulletins/2010/bulletin-2010-42.html</I>.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.211" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.211   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning provided in 12 U.S.C. 1841.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AMC National Registry</I> means the registry of State-registered AMCs and Federally regulated AMCs maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Appraisal management company</I> (AMC) means a person that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a given 12-month period, as defined in § 34.212(d), oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States, as described in § 34.212;
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appraisal management services</I> means one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;
</P>
<P>(2) Contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;
</P>
<P>(3) Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appraiser panel</I> means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an AMC to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the AMC. Appraisers on an AMC's “appraiser panel” under this part include both appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this subpart if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the AMC for purposes of Federal income taxation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered transaction</I> means any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<P>(2) A person regularly extends consumer credit if the person extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32) more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dwelling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federally regulated AMC</I> means an AMC that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federally related transaction regulations</I> means regulations established by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Administration, pursuant to sections 1112, 1113, and 1114 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3341-3343.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secondary mortgage market participant</I> means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. Secondary mortgage market participant only includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security if that investor also serves in the capacity of a guarantor, insurer, underwriter, or issuer for the mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>States</I> mean the 50 States and the District of Columbia and the territories of Guam, Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice</I> (USPAP) means the appraisal standards promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.212" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.212   Appraiser panel—annual size calculation.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining whether, within a 12-month period, an AMC oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States pursuant to § 34.211(c)(1)(iii)—
</P>
<P>(a) An appraiser is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel as of the earliest date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the appraiser for the AMC's consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions; or
</P>
<P>(2) Engages the appraiser to perform one or more appraisals on behalf of a creditor for a covered transaction or secondary mortgage market participant in connection with covered transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) An appraiser who is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is deemed to remain on the panel until the date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Sends written notice to the appraiser removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, with an explanation of its action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receives written notice from the appraiser asking to be removed from the appraiser panel or notice of the death or incapacity of the appraiser.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appraiser is removed from an AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, but the AMC subsequently accepts the appraiser for consideration for future assignments or engages the appraiser at any time during the twelve months after the AMC's removal, the removal will be deemed not to have occurred, and the appraiser will be deemed to have been part of the AMC's appraiser panel without interruption.
</P>
<P>(d) The period for purposes of counting appraisers on an AMC's appraiser panel may be the calendar year or a 12-month period established by law or rule of each State with which the AMC is required to register.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.213" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.213   Appraisal management company registration.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish and maintain within the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency a licensing program that is subject to the limitations set forth in § 34.214 and with the legal authority and mechanisms to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review and approve or deny an AMC's application for initial registration;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and renew or review and deny an AMC's registration periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the books and records of an AMC operating in the State and require the AMC to submit reports, information, and documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that the appraisers on the AMC's appraiser panel hold valid State certifications or licenses, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Conduct investigations of AMCs to assess potential violations of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders;
</P>
<P>(6) Discipline, suspend, terminate, or deny renewal of the registration of an AMC that violates applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders; and
</P>
<P>(7) Report an AMC's violation of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders, as well as disciplinary and enforcement actions and other relevant information about an AMC's operations, to the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose requirements on AMCs that are not owned and controlled by an insured depository institution and not regulated by a Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to:
</P>
<P>(1) Register with and be subject to supervision by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engage only State-certified or State-licensed appraisers for Federally related transactions in conformity with any Federally related transaction regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC, in engaging an appraiser, selects an appraiser who is independent of the transaction and who has the requisite education, expertise, and experience necessary to competently complete the appraisal assignment for the particular market and property type;
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the appraiser to perform the assignment in accordance with USPAP; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC conducts its appraisal management services in accordance with the requirements of section 129E(a) through (i) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639e(a) through (i), and regulations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.214" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.214   Ownership limitations for State-registered appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraiser certification or licensing of owners.</I> (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 34.213 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 34.213 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Good moral character of owners.</I> An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC—
</P>
<P>(1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.215" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.215   Requirements for Federally regulated appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements in providing services.</I> To provide appraisal management services for a creditor or secondary mortgage market participant relating to a covered transaction, a Federally regulated AMC must comply with the requirements in § 34.213(b)(2) through (5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ownership limitations.</I> (1) A Federally regulated AMC shall not be included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federally regulated AMC is not barred by this paragraph (b) from being included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting information for the AMC National Registry.</I> A Federally regulated AMC must report to the State or States in which it operates the information required to be submitted by the State to the Appraisal Subcommittee, pursuant to the Appraisal Subcommittee's policies regarding the determination of the AMC National Registry fee, including but not necessarily limited to the collection of information related to the limitations set forth in this section, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.216" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.8.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.216   Information to be presented to the Appraisal Subcommittee by participating States.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs for purposes of permitting AMCs to provide appraisal management services relating to covered transactions in the State must submit to the Appraisal Subcommittee the information required to be submitted by Appraisal Subcommittee regulations or guidance concerning AMCs that operate in the State.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models Used for Mortgage Lending Purposes</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 64571, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 34.220" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.9.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.220   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to section 1125 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 2198 (2010)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to entities regulated by the OCC that are mortgage originators or secondary market issuers.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.221" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.9.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.221   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include any person who is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Discloses to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least 1 unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 34.222" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.31.9.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 34.222   Quality control standards.</HEAD>
<P>Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 35—DISCLOSURE AND REPORTING OF CRA-RELATED AGREEMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1831y, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 35.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.1   Purpose and scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part implements section 711 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). That section requires any nongovernmental entity or person, insured depository institution, or affiliate of an insured depository institution that enters into a covered agreement to— 
</P>
<P>(1) Make the covered agreement available to the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency; and 
</P>
<P>(2) File an annual report with the appropriate Federal banking agency concerning the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of this part.</I> The provisions of this part apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal savings association and its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(3) Nongovernmental entities or persons (NGEPs) that enter into covered agreements with any entity listed in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to Community Reinvestment Act.</I> This part does not affect in any way the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>), part 25 of this chapter (Community Reinvestment Act and Interstate Deposit Production Regulations), or the OCC's interpretations or administration of that Act or part 25.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014; 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.2   Definition of covered agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General definition of covered agreement.</I> A covered agreement is any contract, arrangement, or understanding that meets all of the following criteria— 
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement is in writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) The parties to the agreement include— 
</P>
<P>(i) One or more insured depository institutions or affiliates of an insured depository institution; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more NGEPs.
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement provides for the insured depository institution or any affiliate to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) cash payments, grants, or other consideration (except loans) that have an aggregate value of more than $10,000 in any calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Make to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) loans that have an aggregate principal amount of more than $50,000 in any calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(4) The agreement is made pursuant to, or in connection with, the fulfillment of the CRA, as defined in § 35.4.
</P>
<P>(5) The agreement is with a NGEP that has had a CRA communication as described in § 35.3 prior to entering into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples concerning written arrangements or understandings</I>—(1) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more community development investments in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not reach an agreement concerning the community development investments the institution should make in the community, and the parties do not reach any mutual arrangement or understanding. Two weeks later, the institution unilaterally issues a press release announcing that it has established a general goal of making $100 million of community development grants in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods served by the insured depository institution over the next 5 years. The NGEP is not identified in the press release. The press release is not a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to offer new loan programs in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and the insured depository institution reach a mutual arrangement or understanding that the institution will provide additional loans in the NGEP's community. The institution tells the NGEP that it will issue a press release announcing the program. Later, the insured depository institution issues a press release announcing the loan program. The press release incorporates the key terms of the understanding reached between the NGEP and the insured depository institution. The written press release reflects the mutual arrangement or understanding of the NGEP and the insured depository institution and is, therefore, a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An NGEP sends a letter to an insured depository institution requesting that the institution provide a $15,000 grant to the NGEP. The insured depository institution responds in writing and agrees to provide the grant in connection with its annual grant program. The exchange of letters constitutes a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loan agreements that are not covered agreements.</I> A covered agreement does not include— 
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual loan that is secured by real estate; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any specific contract or commitment for a loan or extension of credit to an individual, business, farm, or other entity, or group of such individuals or entities, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The funds are loaned at rates that are not substantially below market rates; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan application or other loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to use the borrowed funds to make a loan or extension of credit to one or more third parties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples concerning loan agreements</I>—(1) <I>Example 1.</I> An insured depository institution provides an organization with a $1 million loan that is documented in writing and is secured by real estate owned or to-be-acquired by the organization. The agreement is an individual mortgage loan and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regardless of the interest rate on the loan or whether the organization intends or is authorized to re-loan the funds to a third party. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> An insured depository institution commits to provide a $500,000 line of credit to a small business that is documented by a written agreement. The loan is made at rates that are within the range of rates offered by the institution to similarly situated small businesses in the market and the loan documentation does not indicate that the small business intends or is authorized to re-lend the borrowed funds. The agreement is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An insured depository institution offers small business loans that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration (SBA). A small business obtains a $75,000 loan, documented in writing, from the institution under the institution's SBA loan program. The loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to re-lend the funds. Although the rate charged on the loan is well below that charged by the institution on commercial loans, the rate is within the range of rates that the institution would charge a similarly situated small business for a similar loan under the SBA loan program. Accordingly, the loan is not made at substantially below market rates and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company enters into a written agreement with a community development organization that provides that insured depository institutions owned by the bank holding company will make $250 million in small business loans in the community over the next 5 years. The written agreement is not a specific contract or commitment for a loan or an extension of credit and, thus, is not exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Each small business loan made by the insured depository institution pursuant to this general commitment would, however, be exempt from coverage if the loan is made at rates that are not substantially below market rates and the loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intended or was authorized to re-lend the funds. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements that include exempt loan agreements.</I> If an agreement includes a loan, extension of credit or loan commitment that, if documented separately, would be exempt under paragraph (c) of this section, the exempt loan, extension of credit or loan commitment may be excluded for purposes of determining whether the agreement is a covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determining annual value of agreements that lack schedule of disbursements.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a multi-year agreement that does not include a schedule for the disbursement of payments, grants, loans or other consideration by the insured depository institution or affiliate, is considered to have a value in the first year of the agreement equal to all payments, grants, loans and other consideration to be provided at any time under the agreement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.3   CRA communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of CRA communication.</I> A CRA communication is any of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral comment or testimony provided to a Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that discusses the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the institution and must be included in the institution's CRA public file. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any discussion or other contact with the insured depository institution or any affiliate about—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing (or refraining from providing) written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing (or refraining from providing) written comments to the insured depository institution that concern the adequacy of the institution's performance under the CRA and must be included in the institution's CRA public file; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discussions or contacts that are not CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Timing of contacts with a Federal banking agency.</I> An oral or written communication with a Federal banking agency is not a CRA communication if it occurred more than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of contacts with insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> A communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate is not a CRA communication if the communication occurred— 
</P>
<P>(i) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any written communication; 
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any oral communication in which the NGEP discusses providing (or refraining from providing) comments or testimony to a Federal banking agency or written comments that must be included in the institution's CRA public file in connection with a request to, or agreement by, the institution or affiliate to take (or refrain from taking) any action that is in fulfillment of the CRA; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) More than 1 year before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any other oral communication not described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Knowledge of communication by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> (i) A communication is only a CRA communication under paragraph (a) of this section if the insured depository institution or its affiliate has knowledge of the communication under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (b)(3)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Communication with insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate has knowledge of a communication by the NGEP to the institution or its affiliate under this paragraph only if one of the following representatives of the insured depository institution or any affiliate has knowledge of the communication—
</P>
<P>(A) An employee who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the NGEP; or 
</P>
<P>(B) An employee designated with responsibility for compliance with the CRA or executive officer if the employee or executive officer knows that the institution or affiliate is negotiating, intends to negotiate, or has been informed by the NGEP that it expects to request that the institution or affiliate negotiate an agreement with the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other communications.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate is deemed to have knowledge of—
</P>
<P>(A) Any testimony provided to a Federal banking agency at a public meeting or hearing; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any comment submitted to a Federal banking agency that is conveyed in writing by the agency to the insured depository institution or affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that must be and is included in the institution's CRA public file. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communication where NGEP has knowledge.</I> A NGEP has a CRA communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate only if any of the following individuals has knowledge of the communication—
</P>
<P>(i) A director, employee, or member of the NGEP who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who functions as an executive officer of the NGEP and who knows that the NGEP is negotiating or intends to negotiate an agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the NGEP is an individual, the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Examples of actions that are CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive and assume that the communication occurs within the relevant time period as described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and the appropriate representatives have knowledge of the communication as specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP files a written comment with a Federal banking agency that states than an insured depository institution successfully addresses the credit needs of its community. The written comment is in response to a general request from the agency for comments on an application of the insured depository institution to open a new branch and a copy of the comment is provided to the institution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution must improve its CRA performance. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more mortgage loans in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods in its community. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company files an application with a Federal banking agency to acquire an insured depository institution. Two weeks later, the NGEP meets with an executive officer of the bank holding company to discuss the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the target insured depository institution. The insured depository institution was an affiliate of the bank holding company at the time the NGEP met with the target institution. (<I>See</I> § 35.11(a).) Accordingly, the NGEP had a CRA communication with an affiliate of the bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of actions that are not CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of actions that are not by themselves CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP provides to a Federal banking agency comments or testimony concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate in response to a direct request by the agency for comments or testimony from that NGEP. Direct requests for comments or testimony do not include a general invitation by a Federal banking agency for comments or testimony from the public in connection with a CRA performance evaluation of, or application for a deposit facility (as defined in section 803 of the CRA (12 U.S.C. 2902(3)) by, an insured depository institution or an application by a company to acquire an insured depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP makes a statement concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate at a widely attended conference or seminar regarding a general topic. A public or private meeting, public hearing, or other meeting regarding one or more specific institutions, affiliates or transactions involving an application for a deposit facility is not considered a widely attended conference or seminar. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP, such as a civil rights group, community group providing housing and other services in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, veterans organization, community theater group, or youth organization, sends a fundraising letter to insured depository institutions and to other businesses in its community. The letter encourages all businesses in the community to meet their obligation to assist in making the local community a better place to live and work by supporting the fundraising efforts of the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A NGEP discusses with an insured depository institution or affiliate whether particular loans, services, investments, community development activities, or other activities are generally eligible for consideration by a Federal banking agency under the CRA. The NGEP and insured depository institution or affiliate do not discuss the adequacy of the CRA performance of the insured depository institution or affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5.</I> A NGEP engaged in the sale or purchase of loans in the secondary market sends a general offering circular to financial institutions offering to sell or purchase a portfolio of loans. An insured depository institution that receives the offering circular discusses with the NGEP the types of loans included in the loan pool, whether such loans are generally eligible for consideration under the CRA, and which loans are made to borrowers in the institution's local community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not discuss the adequacy of the institution's CRA performance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiparty covered agreements</I>—(1) A NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple NGEPs is not required to comply with the requirements of this part if—
</P>
<P>(i) The NGEP has not had a CRA communication; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the NGEP identified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that another NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication. 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple insured depository institutions or affiliates is not required to comply with the disclosure and annual reporting requirements in §§ 35.6 and 35.7 if—
</P>
<P>(i) No NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning the insured depository institution or any affiliate; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the insured depository institution or any affiliate identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that an NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning any other insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.4   Fulfillment of the CRA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>List of factors that are in fulfillment of the CRA.</I> Fulfillment of the CRA, for purposes of this part, means the following list of factors—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Comments to a Federal banking agency or included in CRA public file.</I> Providing or refraining from providing written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the performance under the CRA of an insured depository institution or CRA affiliate that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement or written comments that are required to be included in the CRA public file of any such insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities given favorable CRA consideration.</I> Performing any of the following activities if the activity is of the type that is likely to receive favorable consideration by a Federal banking agency in evaluating the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) Home-purchase, home-improvement, small business, small farm, community development, and consumer lending, as described in § 25.22 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25, including loan purchases, loan commitments, and letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making investments, deposits, or grants, or acquiring membership shares, that have as their primary purpose community development, as described in § 25.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25;
</P>
<P>(iii) Delivering retail banking services, as described in § 25.24(d) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing community development services, as described in § 25.24(e) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a wholesale or limited-purpose insured depository institution, community development lending, including originating and purchasing loans and making loan commitments and letters of credit, making qualified investments, or providing community development services, as described in § 25.25(c) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25;
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a small insured depository institution, any lending or other activity described in § 25.26(a) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25; or
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of an insured depository institution that is evaluated on the basis of a strategic plan, any element of the strategic plan, as described in § 25.27(f) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreements relating to activities of CRA affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that concerns any activity described in paragraph (a) of this section of a CRA affiliate must, prior to the time the agreement is entered into, notify each NGEP that is a party to the agreement that the agreement concerns a CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 22067, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.5   Related agreements considered a single agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The following rules must be applied in determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 35.2. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements entered into by same parties.</I> All written agreements to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement if the agreements— 
</P>
<P>(1) Are entered into with the same NGEP; 
</P>
<P>(2) Were entered into within the same 12-month period; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Are each in fulfillment of the CRA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantively related contracts.</I> All written contracts to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement, without regard to whether the other parties to the contracts are the same or whether each such contract is in fulfillment of the CRA, if the contracts were negotiated in a coordinated fashion and a NGEP is a party to each contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.6   Disclosure of covered agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into after November 12, 1999. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements to the public</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that enters into a covered agreement must promptly make a copy of the covered agreement available to any individual or entity upon request. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nondisclosure of confidential and proprietary information permitted.</I> In responding to a request for a covered agreement from any individual or entity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate may withhold from public disclosure confidential or proprietary information that the party believes the relevant supervisory agency could withhold from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) (FOIA). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information that must be disclosed.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a party must disclose any of the following information that is contained in a covered agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) The names and addresses of the parties to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any payments, fees, loans, or other consideration to be made or provided by any party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any description of how the funds or other resources provided under the agreement are to be used; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The term of the agreement (if the agreement establishes a term); and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other information that the relevant supervisory agency determines is not properly exempt from public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request for review of withheld information.</I> Any individual or entity may request that the relevant supervisory agency review whether any information in a covered agreement withheld by a party must be disclosed. Any requests for agency review of withheld information must be filed, and will be processed in accordance with, the relevant supervisory agency's rules concerning the availability of information (<I>see</I> subpart B of part 4 of the OCC's rules regarding the availability of information under the Freedom of Information Act (12 CFR part 4, subpart B). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> The obligation to disclose a covered agreement to the public terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reasonable copy and mailing fees.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate may charge an individual or entity that requests a copy of a covered agreement a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Use of CRA public file by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution and any affiliate of an insured depository institution may fulfill its obligation under this paragraph (b) by placing a copy of the covered agreement in the insured depository institution's CRA public file if the institution makes the agreement available in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 25.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure by NGEPs of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (1) Each NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement must provide the following within 30 days of receiving a request from the relevant supervisory agency— 
</P>
<P>(i) A complete copy of the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the NGEP proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information and an explanation justifying the exclusions. Any public version must include the information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation of a NGEP to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure by insured depository institution or affiliate of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Within 60 days of the end of each calendar quarter, each insured depository institution and affiliate must provide each relevant supervisory agency with—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A complete copy of each covered agreement entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event the institution or affiliate proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information (other than any information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section) and an explanation justifying the exclusions; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of all covered agreements entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter that contains—
</P>
<P>(A) The name and address of each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(B) The name and address of each NGEP that is a party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(C) The date the agreement was entered into; 
</P>
<P>(D) The estimated total value of all payments, fees, loans and other consideration to be provided by the institution or any affiliate of the institution under the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(E) The date the agreement terminates. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prompt filing of covered agreements contained in list required.</I> (i) If an insured depository institution or affiliate files a list of the covered agreements entered into by the institution or affiliate pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the institution or affiliate must provide any relevant supervisory agency a complete copy and public version of any covered agreement referenced in the list within 7 calendar days of receiving a request from the agency for a copy of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The obligation of an insured depository institution or affiliate to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency under this paragraph (d)(2) terminates 36 months after the end of the term of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint filings.</I> In the event that 2 or more insured depository institutions or affiliates are parties to a covered agreement, the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) may jointly file the documents required by this paragraph (d). Any joint filing must identify the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) for whom the filings are being made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.7   Annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into on or after May 12, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual report required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement must file an annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning the disbursement, receipt, and uses of funds or other resources under the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of reporting requirement</I>—(1) <I>NGEPs.</I> A NGEP must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the NGEP receives or uses funds or other resources under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the institution or affiliate—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides or receives any payments, fees, or loans under the covered agreement that must be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has data to report on loans, investments, and services provided by a party to the covered agreement under the covered agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual reports filed by NGEP</I>—(1) <I>Contents of report.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP under this section must include the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The name and mailing address of the NGEP filing the report; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of funds or resources received under the covered agreement during the fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed, itemized list of how any funds or resources received by the NGEP under the covered agreement were used during the fiscal year, including the total amount used for—
</P>
<P>(A) Compensation of officers, directors, and employees; 
</P>
<P>(B) Administrative expenses; 
</P>
<P>(C) Travel expenses; 
</P>
<P>(D) Entertainment expenses; 
</P>
<P>(E) Payment of consulting and professional fees; and 
</P>
<P>(F) Other expenses and uses (specify expense or use). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More detailed reporting of uses of funds or resources permitted</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a NGEP allocated and used funds received under a covered agreement for a specific purpose, the NGEP may fulfill the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section with respect to such funds by providing—
</P>
<P>(A) A brief description of each specific purpose for which the funds or other resources were used; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds or resources used during the fiscal year for each specific purpose. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific purpose defined.</I> A NGEP allocates and uses funds for a specific purpose if the NGEP receives and uses the funds for a purpose that is more specific and limited than the categories listed in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of other reports.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP may consist of or incorporate a report prepared for any other purpose, such as the Internal Revenue Service Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax on Form 990, or any other Internal Revenue Service form, state tax form, report to members or shareholders, audited or unaudited financial statements, audit report, or other report, so long as the annual report filed by the NGEP contains all of the information required by this paragraph (d). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consolidated reports permitted.</I> A NGEP that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file with each relevant supervisory agency a single consolidated annual report covering all the covered agreements. Any consolidated report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (d). The information reported under paragraphs (d)(1)(iv) and (d)(2) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples of annual report requirements for NGEPs</I>—(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP receives an unrestricted grant of $15,000 under a covered agreement, includes the funds in its general operating budget and uses the funds during its fiscal year. The NGEP's annual report for the fiscal year must provide the name and mailing address of the NGEP, information sufficient to identify the covered agreement, and state that the NGEP received $15,000 during the fiscal year. The report must also indicate the total expenditures made by the NGEP during the fiscal year for compensation, administrative expenses, travel expenses, entertainment expenses, consulting and professional fees, and other expenses and uses. The NGEP's annual report may provide this information by submitting an Internal Revenue Service Form 990 that includes the required information. If the Internal Revenue Service Form does not include information for all of the required categories listed in this part, the NGEP must report the total expenditures in the remaining categories either by providing that information directly or by providing another form or report that includes the required information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> An organization receives $15,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement and allocates and uses the $15,000 during the fiscal year to purchase computer equipment to support its functions. The organization's annual report must include the name and address of the organization, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the organization received $15,000 during the year. In addition, since the organization allocated and used the funds for a specific purpose that is more narrow and limited than the categories of expenses included in the detailed, itemized list of expenses, the organization would have the option of providing either the total amount it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section, or a statement that it used the $15,000 to purchase computer equipment and a brief description of the equipment purchased. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A community group receives $50,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement. During its fiscal year, the community group specifically allocates and uses $5,000 of the funds to pay for a particular business trip and uses the remaining $45,000 for general operating expenses. The group's annual report for the fiscal year must include the name and address of the group, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the group received $50,000. Because the group did not allocate and use all of the funds for a specific purpose, the group's annual report must provide the total amount of funds it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. The group's annual report also could state that it used $5,000 for a particular business trip and include a brief description of the trip. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A community development organization is a party to two separate covered agreements with two unaffiliated insured depository institutions. Under each agreement, the organization receives $15,000 during its fiscal year and uses the funds to support its activities during that year. If the organization elects to file a consolidated annual report, the consolidated report must identify the organization and the two covered agreements, state that the organization received $15,000 during the fiscal year under each agreement, and provide the total amount that the organization used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual report filed by insured depository institution or affiliate</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The annual report filed by an insured depository institution or affiliate must include the following— 
</P>
<P>(i) The name and principal place of business of the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans provided by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement to any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans received by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement from any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year; 
</P>
<P>(v) A general description of the terms and conditions of any payments, fees, or loans reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, or, in the event such terms and conditions are set forth— 
</P>
<P>(A) In the covered agreement, a statement identifying the covered agreement and the date the agreement (or a list identifying the agreement) was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; or 
</P>
<P>(B) In a previous annual report filed by the insured depository institution or affiliate, a statement identifying the date the report was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The aggregate amount and number of loans, aggregate amount and number of investments, and aggregate amount of services provided under the covered agreement to any individual or entity not a party to the agreement— 
</P>
<P>(A) By the insured depository institution or affiliate during its fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(B) By any other party to the agreement, unless such information is not known to the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report or such information is or will be contained in the annual report filed by another party under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidated reports permitted</I>—(i) <I>Party to multiple agreements.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file a single consolidated annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning all the covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliated entities party to the same agreement.</I> An insured depository institution and its affiliates that are parties to the same covered agreement may file a single consolidated annual report relating to the agreement with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Content of report.</I> Any consolidated annual report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (e). The amounts and data required to be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vi) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time and place of filing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each party must file its annual report with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement no later than six months following the end of the fiscal year covered by the report. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative method of fulfilling annual reporting requirement for a NGEP.</I> (i) A NGEP may fulfill the filing requirements of this section by providing the following materials to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement no later than six months following the end of the NGEP's fiscal year— 
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the NGEP's annual report required under paragraph (d) of this section for the fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Written instructions that the insured depository institution or affiliate promptly forward the annual report to the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An insured depository institution or affiliate that receives an annual report from a NGEP pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section must file the report with the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP within 30 days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.8   Release of information under FOIA.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC will make covered agreements and annual reports available to the public in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) and the OCC's rules regarding the availability of information under the Freedom of Information Act (12 CFR part 4, subpart B). A party to a covered agreement may request confidential treatment of proprietary and confidential information in a covered agreement or an annual report under those procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.9   Compliance provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Willful failure to comply with disclosure and reporting obligations.</I> (1) If the OCC determines that a NGEP has willfully failed to comply in a material way with § 35.6 or § 35.7, the OCC will notify the NGEP in writing of that determination and provide the NGEP a period of 90 days (or such longer period as the OCC finds to be reasonable under the circumstances) to comply. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the NGEP does not comply within the time period established by the OCC, the agreement shall thereafter be unenforceable by that NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). 
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may assist any insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that is unenforceable by a NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y) in identifying a successor to assume the NGEP's responsibilities under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diversion of funds.</I> If a court or other body of competent jurisdiction determines that funds or resources received under a covered agreement have been diverted contrary to the purposes of the covered agreement for an individual's personal financial gain, the OCC may take either or both of the following actions— 
</P>
<P>(1) Order the individual to disgorge the diverted funds or resources received under the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the individual from being a party to any covered agreement for a period not to exceed 10 years. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and opportunity to respond.</I> Before making a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or taking any action under paragraph (b) of this section, the OCC will provide written notice and an opportunity to present information to the OCC concerning any relevant facts or circumstances relating to the matter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inadvertent or de minimis errors.</I> Inadvertent or de minimis errors in annual reports or other documents filed with the OCC under §§ 35.6 or 35.7 will not subject the reporting party to any penalty. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of provisions in covered agreements.</I> No provision of this part shall be construed as authorizing the OCC to enforce the provisions of any covered agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.10   Transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements entered into before the effective date of this part.</I> The following disclosure requirements apply to covered agreements that were entered into after November 12, 1999, and that terminated before April 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure to the public.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the public under § 35.6 until at least April 1, 2002. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (i) Each NGEP that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the relevant supervisory agency under § 35.6 until at least April 1, 2002. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must, by June 30, 2001, provide each relevant supervisory agency either—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the agreement under § 35.6(d)(1)(i); or 
</P>
<P>(B) The information described in § 35.6(d)(1)(ii) for each agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of annual reports that relate to fiscal years ending on or before December 31, 2000.</I> In the event that a NGEP, insured depository institution or affiliate has any information to report under § 35.7 for a fiscal year that ends on or before December 31, 2000, and that concerns a covered agreement entered into between May 12, 2000, and December 31, 2000, the annual report for that fiscal year must be provided no later than June 30, 2001, to—
</P>
<P>(1) Each relevant supervisory agency; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a NGEP, to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement in accordance with § 35.7(f)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 35.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.32.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 35.11   Other definitions and rules of construction used in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> “Affiliate” means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 35.2, an “affiliate” includes any company that would be under common control or merged with another company on consummation of any transaction pending before a Federal banking agency at the time—
</P>
<P>(i) The parties enter into the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The NGEP that is a party to the agreement makes a CRA communication, as described in § 35.3. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control.</I> “Control” is defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CRA affiliate.</I> A “CRA affiliate” of an insured depository institution is any company that is an affiliate of an insured depository institution to the extent, and only to the extent, that the activities of the affiliate were considered by the appropriate Federal banking agency when evaluating the CRA performance of the institution at its most recent CRA examination prior to the agreement. An insured depository institution or affiliate also may designate any company as a CRA affiliate at any time prior to the time a covered agreement is entered into by informing the NGEP that is a party to the agreement of such designation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CRA public file.</I> “CRA public file” means the public file maintained by an insured depository institution and described in § 25.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 25. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Executive officer.</I> The term “executive officer” has the same meaning as in § 215.2(e)(1) of Regulation O issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)). In applying this definition under this part to a Federal savings association, the phrase “Federal savings association” shall be used in place of the term “bank.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal banking agency; appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> The terms “Federal banking agency” and “appropriate Federal banking agency” have the same meanings as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fiscal year.</I> (1) The fiscal year for a NGEP that does not have a fiscal year shall be the calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate that has a fiscal year may elect to have the calendar year be its fiscal year for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> “Insured depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>NGEP.</I> “NGEP” means a nongovernmental entity or person. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nongovernmental entity or person</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A “nongovernmental entity or person” is any partnership, association, trust, joint venture, joint stock company, corporation, limited liability corporation, company, firm, society, other organization, or individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> A nongovernmental entity or person does not include— 
</P>
<P>(i) The United States government, a state government, a unit of local government (including a county, city, town, township, parish, village, or other general-purpose subdivision of a state) or an Indian tribe or tribal organization established under Federal, state or Indian tribal law (including the Department of Hawaiian Home Lands), or a department, agency, or instrumentality of any such entity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally-chartered public corporation that receives Federal funds appropriated specifically for that corporation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An insured depository institution or affiliate of an insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) An officer, director, employee, or representative (acting in his or her capacity as an officer, director, employee, or representative) of an entity listed in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Party.</I> The term “party” with respect to a covered agreement means each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that entered into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Relevant supervisory agency.</I> The “relevant supervisory agency” for a covered agreement means the appropriate Federal banking agency for— 
</P>
<P>(1) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) or CRA affiliate that makes payments or loans or provides services that are subject to the covered agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any company (other than an insured depository institution or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Term of agreement.</I> An agreement that does not have a fixed termination date is considered to terminate on the last date on which any party to the agreement makes any payment or provides any loan or other resources under the agreement, unless the relevant supervisory agency for the agreement otherwise notifies each party in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 2084, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014; 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 36 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 37—DEBT CANCELLATION CONTRACTS AND DEBT SUSPENSION AGREEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 93a, 1818.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 58976, Sept. 19, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 37.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> A national bank is authorized to enter into debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements and charge a fee therefor, in connection with extensions of credit that it makes, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets forth the standards that apply to debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements entered into by national banks. The purpose of these standards is to ensure that national banks offer and implement such contracts and agreements consistent with safe and sound banking practices, and subject to appropriate consumer protections.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements entered into by national banks in connection with extensions of credit they make. National banks' debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements are governed by this part and applicable Federal law and regulations, and not by part 14 of this chapter or by State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>For purposes of this part:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Actuarial method</I> means the method of allocating payments made on a debt between the amount financed and the finance charge pursuant to which a payment is applied first to the accumulated finance charge and any remainder is subtracted from, or any deficiency is added to, the unpaid balance of the amount financed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means a national bank and a Federal branch or Federal agency of a foreign bank as those terms are defined in part 28 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Closed-end credit</I> means consumer credit other than open-end credit as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contract</I> means a debt] cancellation contract or a debt suspension agreement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Customer</I> means an individual who obtains an extension of credit from a bank primarily for personal, family or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debt cancellation contract</I> means a loan term or contractual arrangement modifying loan terms under which a bank agrees to cancel all or part of a customer's obligation to repay an extension of credit from that bank upon the occurrence of a specified event. The agreement may be separate from or a part of other loan documents. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Debt suspension agreement</I> means a loan term or contractual arrangement modifying loan terms under which a bank agrees to suspend all or part of a customer's obligation to repay an extension of credit from that bank upon the occurrence of a specified event. The agreement may be separate from or a part of other loan documents. The term <I>debt suspension agreement</I> does not include loan payment deferral arrangements in which the triggering event is the borrower's unilateral election to defer repayment, or the bank's unilateral decision to allow a deferral of repayment. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Open-end credit</I> means consumer credit extended by a bank under a plan in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank reasonably contemplates repeated transactions; 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank may impose a finance charge from time to time on an outstanding unpaid balance; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of credit that may be extended to the customer during the term of the plan (up to any limit set by the bank) is generally made available to the extent that any outstanding balance is repaid. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Residential mortgage loan</I> means a loan secured by 1-4 family, residential real property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.3   Prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Anti-tying.</I> A national bank may not extend credit nor alter the terms or conditions of an extension of credit conditioned upon the customer entering into a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement with the bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Misrepresentations generally.</I> A national bank may not engage in any practice or use any advertisement that could mislead or otherwise cause a reasonable person to reach an erroneous belief with respect to information that must be disclosed under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited contract terms.</I> A national bank may not offer debt cancellation contracts or debt suspension agreements that contain terms: 
</P>
<P>(1) Giving the bank the right unilaterally to modify the contract unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The modification is favorable to the customer and is made without additional charge to the customer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The customer is notified of any proposed change and is provided a reasonable opportunity to cancel the contract without penalty before the change goes into effect; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Requiring a lump sum, single payment for the contract payable at the outset of the contract, where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.4   Refunds of fees in the event of termination or prepayment of the covered loan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Refunds.</I> If a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement is terminated (including, for example, when the customer prepays the covered loan), the bank shall refund to the customer any unearned fees paid for the contract unless the contract provides otherwise. A bank may offer a customer a contract that does not provide for a refund only if the bank also offers that customer a <I>bona fide</I> option to purchase a comparable contract that provides for a refund. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of calculating refund.</I> The bank shall calculate the amount of a refund using a method at least as favorable to the customer as the actuarial method. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.5   Method of payment of fees.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 37.3(c)(2), a bank may offer a customer the option of paying the fee for a contract in a single payment, provided the bank also offers the customer a <I>bona fide</I> option of paying the fee for that contract in monthly or other periodic payments. If the bank offers the customer the option to finance the single payment by adding it to the amount the customer is borrowing, the bank must also disclose to the customer, in accordance with § 37.6, whether and, if so, the time period during which, the customer may cancel the agreement and receive a refund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.6   Disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of short form of disclosures.</I> The short form of disclosures required by this part must include the information described in appendix A to this part that is appropriate to the product offered. Short form disclosures made in a form that is substantially similar to the disclosures in appendix A to this part will satisfy the short form disclosure requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of long form of disclosures.</I> The long form of disclosures required by this part must include the information described in appendix B to this part that is appropriate to the product offered. Long form disclosures made in a form that is substantially similar to the disclosures in appendix B to this part will satisfy the long form disclosure requirements of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure requirements; timing and method of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Short form disclosures.</I> The bank shall make the short form disclosures orally at the time the bank first solicits the purchase of a contract. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Long form disclosures.</I> The bank shall make the long form disclosures in writing before the customer completes the purchase of the contract. If the initial solicitation occurs in person, then the bank shall provide the long form disclosures in writing at that time. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule for transactions by telephone.</I> If the contract is solicited by telephone, the bank shall provide the short form disclosures orally and shall mail the long form disclosures, and, if appropriate, a copy of the contract to the customer within 3 business days, beginning on the first business day after the telephone solicitation. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Special rule for solicitations using written mail inserts or “take one” applications.</I> If the contract is solicited through written materials such as mail inserts or “take one” applications, the bank may provide only the short form disclosures in the written materials if the bank mails the long form disclosures to the customer within 3 business days, beginning on the first business day after the customer contacts the bank to respond to the solicitation, subject to the requirements of § 37.7(c).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for electronic transactions.</I> The disclosures described in this section may be provided through electronic media in a manner consistent with the requirements of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Disclosures must be readily understandable.</I> The disclosures required by this section must be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures must be meaningful.</I> The disclosures required by this section must be in a meaningful form. Examples of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A typeface and type size that are easy to read; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Wide margins and ample line spacing; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Boldface or italics for key words; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Distinctive type style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advertisements and other promotional material for debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements.</I> The short form disclosures are required in advertisements and promotional material for contracts unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.7   Affirmative election to purchase and acknowledgment of receipt of disclosures required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affirmative election and acknowledgment of receipt of disclosures.</I> Before entering into a contract the bank must obtain a customer's written affirmative election to purchase a contract and written acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures required by § 37.6(b). The election and acknowledgment information must be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to their significance. The election and acknowledgment satisfy these standards if they conform with the requirements in § 37.6(d) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for telephone solicitations.</I> If the sale of a contract occurs by telephone, the customer's affirmative election to purchase may be made orally, provided the bank: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains sufficient documentation to show that the customer received the short form disclosures and then affirmatively elected to purchase the contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) Mails the affirmative written election and written acknowledgment, together with the long form disclosures required by § 37.6 of this part, to the customer within 3 business days after the telephone solicitation, and maintains sufficient documentation to show it made reasonable efforts to obtain the documents from the customer; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Permits the customer to cancel the purchase of the contract without penalty within 30 days after the bank has mailed the long form disclosures to the customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule for solicitations using written mail inserts or “take one” applications.</I> If the contract is solicited through written materials such as mail inserts or “take one” applications and the bank provides only the short form disclosures in the written materials, then the bank shall mail the acknowledgment of receipt of disclosures, together with the long form disclosures required by § 37.6 of this part, to the customer within 3 business days, beginning on the first business day after the customer contacts the bank or otherwise responds to the solicitation. The bank may not obligate the customer to pay for the contract until after the bank has received the customer's written acknowledgment of receipt of disclosures unless the bank: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains sufficient documentation to show that the bank provided the acknowledgment of receipt of disclosures to the customer as required by this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintains sufficient documentation to show that the bank made reasonable efforts to obtain from the customer a written acknowledgment of receipt of the long form disclosures; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Permits the customer to cancel the purchase of the contract without penalty within 30 days after the bank has mailed the long form disclosures to the customer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for electronic election.</I> The affirmative election and acknowledgment may be made electronically in a manner consistent with the requirements of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 58976, Sept. 19, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 22252, Apr. 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 37.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 37.8   Safety and soundness requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank must manage the risks associated with debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements in accordance with safe and sound banking principles. Accordingly, a national bank must establish and maintain effective risk management and control processes over its debt cancellation contracts and debt suspension agreements. Such processes include appropriate recognition and financial reporting of income, expenses, assets and liabilities, and appropriate treatment of all expected and unexpected losses associated with the products. A bank also should assess the adequacy of its internal control and risk mitigation activities in view of the nature and scope of its debt cancellation contract and debt suspension agreement programs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.9.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 37—Short Form Disclosures 
</HEAD>
<FP-1>• This product is optional
</FP-1>
<P>Your purchase of [PRODUCT NAME] is optional. Whether or not you purchase [PRODUCT NAME] will not affect your application for credit or the terms of any existing credit agreement you have with the bank.
</P>
<FP-1>• Lump sum payment of fee
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if a bank offers the option to pay the fee in a single payment] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan]
</FP>
<P>You may choose to pay the fee in a single lump sum or in [monthly/quarterly] payments. Adding the lump sum of the fee to the amount you borrow will increase the cost of [PRODUCT NAME].
</P>
<FP-1>• Lump sum payment of fee with no refund 
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if a bank offers the option to pay the fee in a single payment for a no-refund DCC] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan]
</FP>
<P>You may choose [PRODUCT NAME] with a refund provision or without a refund provision. Prices of refund and no-refund products are likely to differ.
</P>
<FP-1>• Refund of fee paid in lump sum
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable where the customer pays the fee in a single payment and the fee is added to the amount borrowed] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan] 
</FP>
<P>[Either:] (1) You may cancel [PRODUCT NAME] at any time and receive a refund; or (2) You may cancel [PRODUCT NAME] within __ days and receive a full refund; or (3) If you cancel [PRODUCT NAME] you will not receive a refund. 
</P>
<FP-1>• Additional disclosures
</FP-1>
<P>We will give you additional information before you are required to pay for [PRODUCT NAME]. [If applicable]: This information will include a copy of the contract containing the terms of [PRODUCT NAME].
</P>
<FP-1>• Eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions
</FP-1>
<P>There are eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions that could prevent you from receiving benefits under [PRODUCT NAME]. 
</P>
<P>[Either:] You should carefully read our additional information for a full explanation of the terms of [PRODUCT NAME] <I>or</I> You should carefully read the contract for a full explanation of the terms of [PRODUCT NAME].


</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.34.0.27.9.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 37—Long Form Disclosures 
</HEAD>
<FP-1>• This product is optional
</FP-1>
<P>Your purchase of [PRODUCT NAME] is optional. Whether or not you purchase [PRODUCT NAME] will not affect your application for credit or the terms of any existing credit agreement you have with the bank.
</P>
<FP-1>• Explanation of debt suspension agreement
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if the contract has a debt suspension feature]
</FP>
<P>If [PRODUCT NAME] is activated, your duty to pay the loan principal and interest to the bank is only suspended. You must fully repay the loan after the period of suspension has expired. [If applicable]: This includes interest accumulated during the period of suspension.
</P>
<FP-1>• Amount of fee
</FP-1>
<P>[For closed-end credit]: The total fee for [PRODUCT NAME] is __. 
</P>
<P>[For open-end credit, either:] (1) The monthly fee for [PRODUCT NAME] is based on your account balance each month multiplied by the unit-cost, which is ___; <I>or</I> (2) The formula used to compute the fee is _____]. 
</P>
<FP-1>• Lump sum payment of fee
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if a bank offers the option to pay the fee in a single payment] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan]
</FP>
<P>You may choose to pay the fee in a single lump sum or in [monthly/quarterly] payments. Adding the lump sum of the fee to the amount you borrow will increase the cost of [PRODUCT NAME].
</P>
<FP-1>• Lump sum payment of fee with no refund
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if a bank offers the option to pay the fee in a single payment for a no-refund DCC] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan]
</FP>
<P>You have the option to purchase [PRODUCT NAME] that includes a refund of the unearned portion of the fee if you terminate the contract or prepay the loan in full prior to the scheduled termination date. Prices of refund and no-refund products may differ.
</P>
<FP-1>• Refund of fee paid in lump sum
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable where the customer pays the fee in a single payment and the fee is added to the amount borrowed] 
</FP>
<FP>[Prohibited where the debt subject to the contract is a residential mortgage loan]
</FP>
<P>[Either:] (1) You may cancel [PRODUCT NAME] at any time and receive a refund; or (2) You may cancel [PRODUCT NAME] within __ days and receive a full refund; or (3) If you cancel [PRODUCT NAME] you will not receive a refund.
</P>
<FP-1>• Use of card or credit line restricted
</FP-1>
<FP>[Applicable if the contract restricts use of card or credit line when customer activates protection]
</FP>
<P>If [PRODUCT NAME] is activated, you will be unable to incur additional charges on the credit card or use the credit line.
</P>
<FP-1>• Termination of [PRODUCT NAME]
</FP-1>
<P>[Either]: (1) You have no right to cancel [PRODUCT NAME]; <I>or</I> (2) You have the right to cancel [PRODUCT NAME] in the following circumstances: _____.
</P>
<P>[And either]: (1) The bank has no right to cancel [PRODUCT NAME]; <I>or</I> (2)The bank has the right to cancel [PRODUCT NAME] in the following circumstances: _____.
</P>
<FP-1>• Eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions
</FP-1>
<P>There are eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions that could prevent you from receiving benefits under [PRODUCT NAME]. 
</P>
<P>[Either]: (1) The following is a summary of the eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions. [The bank provides a summary of any eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions]; <I>or</I> (2) You may find a complete explanation of the eligibility requirements, conditions, and exclusions in paragraphs ___ of the [PRODUCT NAME] agreement.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="38-40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 38-40 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 41—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24(Seventh), 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1818, 1828, 1831p-1, 1881-1884, and 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 1681m, 1681s, 1681t, and 1681w.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 77616, Dec. 28, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Proper Disposal of Records Containing Consumer Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 41.80-41.82" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 41.80-41.82   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 41.83" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 41.83   Proper disposal of records containing consumer information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions as used in this section.</I> (1) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or an operating subsidiary of a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>National bank</I> means a national bank, an operating subsidiary of a national bank, or a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> Each national bank or Federal savings association must properly dispose of any consumer information that it maintains or otherwise possesses in accordance with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards, as set forth in appendix B to 12 CFR part 30, to the extent that the bank or savings association is covered by the scope of the Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Require a national bank or Federal savings association to maintain or destroy any record pertaining to a consumer that is not imposed under any other law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Alter or affect any requirement imposed under any other provision of law to maintain or destroy such a record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Identity Theft Red Flags</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 63753, Nov. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 41.90" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 41.90   Duties regarding the detection, prevention, and mitigation of identity theft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a financial institution or creditor that is a national bank; a Federal savings association; a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank; or an operating subsidiary of any of these institutions that is not a functionally regulated subsidiary within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and appendix J, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> means a continuing relationship established by a person with a financial institution or creditor to obtain a product or service for personal, family, household or business purposes. Account includes:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension of credit, such as the purchase of property or services involving a deferred payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A deposit account.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>board of directors</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, the managing official in charge of the branch or agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any other creditor that does not have a board of directors, a designated employee at the level of senior management.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered account</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An account that a financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that involves or is designed to permit multiple payments or transactions, such as a credit card account, mortgage loan, automobile loan, margin account, cell phone account, utility account, checking account, or savings account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other account that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains for which there is a reasonably foreseeable risk to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, including financial, operational, compliance, reputation, or litigation risks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681m(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Customer</I> means a person that has a covered account with a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial institution</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(t).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identity theft</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1022.3(h).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate, cooperative, association, government, or governmental subdivision or agency, or other entity.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Red Flag</I> means a pattern, practice, or specific activity that indicates the possible existence of identity theft.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Service provider</I> means a person that provides a service directly to the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic Identification of Covered Accounts.</I> Each financial institution or creditor must periodically determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts. As a part of this determination, a financial institution or creditor must conduct a risk assessment to determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods it provides to open its accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to access its accounts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishment of an Identity Theft Prevention Program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts must develop and implement a written Identity Theft Prevention Program (Program) that is designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. The Program must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the financial institution or creditor and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of the Program.</I> The Program must include reasonable policies and procedures to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify relevant Red Flags for the covered accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, and incorporate those Red Flags into its Program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detect Red Flags that have been incorporated into the Program of the financial institution or creditor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond appropriately to any Red Flags that are detected pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section to prevent and mitigate identity theft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) is updated periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers and to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration of the Program.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must provide for the continued administration of the Program and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain approval of the initial written Program from either its board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(2) Involve the board of directors, an appropriate committee thereof, or a designated employee at the level of senior management in the oversight, development, implementation and administration of the Program;
</P>
<P>(3) Train staff, as necessary, to effectively implement the Program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Exercise appropriate and effective oversight of service provider arrangements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must consider the guidelines in appendix J of this part and include in its Program those guidelines that are appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63753, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 28400, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 41.91" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 41.91   Duties of card issuers regarding changes of address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to an issuer of a debit or credit card (card issuer) that is a national bank; a Federal savings association; a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank; or an operating subsidiary of any of these institutions that is not a functionally regulated subsidiary within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cardholder</I> means a consumer who has been issued a credit or debit card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Address validation requirements.</I> A card issuer must establish and implement reasonable policies and procedures to assess the validity of a change of address if it receives notification of a change of address for a consumer's debit or credit card account and, within a short period of time afterwards (during at least the first 30 days after it receives such notification), the card issuer receives a request for an additional or replacement card for the same account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not issue an additional or replacement card, until, in accordance with its reasonable policies and procedures and for the purpose of assessing the validity of the change of address, the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Notifies the cardholder of the request:
</P>
<P>(A) At the cardholder's former address; or
</P>
<P>(B) By any other means of communication that the card issuer and the cardholder have previously agreed to use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides to the cardholder a reasonable means of promptly reporting incorrect address changes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise assesses the validity of the change of address in accordance with the policies and procedures the card issuer has established pursuant to § 41.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative timing of address validation.</I> A card issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if it validates an address pursuant to the methods in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section when it receives an address change notification, before it receives a request for an additional or replacement card.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of notice.</I> Any written or electronic notice that the card issuer provides under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous and provided separately from its regular correspondence with the cardholder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63753, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 79 FR 28401, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 41.92" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 41.92   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The examples in appendix J and supplement A to appendix J are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this subpart. Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issue that may arise in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 28401, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3.27.4.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes A-I to Part 41 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.36.3.27.4.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 41—Interagency Guidelines on Identity Theft Detection, Prevention, and Mitigation
</HEAD>
<P>Section 41.90 of this part requires each financial institution and creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts, as defined in § 41.90(b)(3) of this part, to develop and provide for the continued administration of a written Program to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. These guidelines are intended to assist financial institutions and creditors in the formulation and maintenance of a Program that satisfies the requirements of § 41.90 of this part.
</P>
<HD3>I. The Program
</HD3>
<P>In designing its Program, a financial institution or creditor may incorporate, as appropriate, its existing policies, procedures, and other arrangements that control reasonably foreseeable risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>II. Identifying Relevant Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Risk Factors.</I> A financial institution or creditor should consider the following factors in identifying relevant Red Flags for covered accounts, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of covered accounts it offers or maintains;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to open its covered accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) The methods it provides to access its covered accounts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sources of Red Flags.</I> Financial institutions and creditors should incorporate relevant Red Flags from sources such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Incidents of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has experienced;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has identified that reflect changes in identity theft risks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categories of Red Flags.</I> The Program should include relevant Red Flags from the following categories, as appropriate. Examples of Red Flags from each of these categories are appended as supplement A to this appendix J.
</P>
<P>(1) Alerts, notifications, or other warnings received from consumer reporting agencies or service providers, such as fraud detection services;
</P>
<P>(2) The presentation of suspicious documents;
</P>
<P>(3) The presentation of suspicious personal identifying information, such as a suspicious address change;
</P>
<P>(4) The unusual use of, or other suspicious activity related to, a covered account; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notice from customers, victims of identity theft, law enforcement authorities, or other persons regarding possible identity theft in connection with covered accounts held by the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD3>III. Detecting Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should address the detection of Red Flags in connection with the opening of covered accounts and existing covered accounts, such as by:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtaining identifying information about, and verifying the identity of, a person opening a covered account, for example, using the policies and procedures regarding identification and verification set forth in the Customer Identification Program rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l); and
</P>
<P>(b) Authenticating customers, monitoring transactions, and verifying the validity of change of address requests, in the case of existing covered accounts.
</P>
<HD3>IV. Preventing and Mitigating Identity Theft
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should provide for appropriate responses to the Red Flags the financial institution or creditor has detected that are commensurate with the degree of risk posed. In determining an appropriate response, a financial institution or creditor should consider aggravating factors that may heighten the risk of identity theft, such as a data security incident that results in unauthorized access to a customer's account records held by the financial institution, creditor, or third party, or notice that a customer has provided information related to a covered account held by the financial institution or creditor to someone fraudulently claiming to represent the financial institution or creditor or to a fraudulent website. Appropriate responses may include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Monitoring a covered account for evidence of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Contacting the customer;
</P>
<P>(c) Changing any passwords, security codes, or other security devices that permit access to a covered account;
</P>
<P>(d) Reopening a covered account with a new account number;
</P>
<P>(e) Not opening a new covered account;
</P>
<P>(f) Closing an existing covered account;
</P>
<P>(g) Not attempting to collect on a covered account or not selling a covered account to a debt collector;
</P>
<P>(h) Notifying law enforcement; or
</P>
<P>(i) Determining that no response is warranted under the particular circumstances.
</P>
<HD3>V. Updating the Program
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should update the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, based on factors such as:
</P>
<P>(a) The experiences of the financial institution or creditor with identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Changes in methods of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in methods to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft;
</P>
<P>(d) Changes in the types of accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains; and
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in the business arrangements of the financial institution or creditor, including mergers, acquisitions, alliances, joint ventures, and service provider arrangements.
</P>
<HD3>VI. Methods for Administering the Program
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Oversight of Program.</I> Oversight by the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management should include:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigning specific responsibility for the Program's implementation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing reports prepared by staff regarding compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 41.90 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Approving material changes to the Program as necessary to address changing identity theft risks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports.</I> (1) <I>In general.</I> Staff of the financial institution or creditor responsible for development, implementation, and administration of its Program should report to the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management, at least annually, on compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 41.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The report should address material matters related to the Program and evaluate issues such as: the effectiveness of the policies and procedures of the financial institution or creditor in addressing the risk of identity theft in connection with the opening of covered accounts and with respect to existing covered accounts; service provider arrangements; significant incidents involving identity theft and management's response; and recommendations for material changes to the Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oversight of service provider arrangements.</I> Whenever a financial institution or creditor engages a service provider to perform an activity in connection with one or more covered accounts the financial institution or creditor should take steps to ensure that the activity of the service provider is conducted in accordance with reasonable policies and procedures designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate the risk of identity theft. For example, a financial institution or creditor could require the service provider by contract to have policies and procedures to detect relevant Red Flags that may arise in the performance of the service provider's activities, and either report the Red Flags to the financial institution or creditor, or to take appropriate steps to prevent or mitigate identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>VII. Other Applicable Legal Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should be mindful of other related legal requirements that may be applicable, such as:
</P>
<P>(a) For financial institutions and creditors that are subject to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), filing a Suspicious Activity Report in accordance with applicable law and regulation;
</P>
<P>(b) Implementing any requirements under 15 U.S.C. 1681c-1(h) regarding the circumstances under which credit may be extended when the financial institution or creditor detects a fraud or active duty alert;
</P>
<P>(c) Implementing any requirements for furnishers of information to consumer reporting agencies under 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2, for example, to correct or update inaccurate or incomplete information, and to not report information that the furnisher has reasonable cause to believe is inaccurate; and
</P>
<P>(d) Complying with the prohibitions in 15 U.S.C. 1681m on the sale, transfer, and placement for collection of certain debts resulting from identity theft.
</P>
<HD2>Supplement A to Appendix J
</HD2>
<P>In addition to incorporating Red Flags from the sources recommended in section II.b. of the Guidelines in appendix J of this part, each financial institution or creditor may consider incorporating into its Program, whether singly or in combination, Red Flags from the following illustrative examples in connection with covered accounts:
</P>
<HD2>Alerts, Notifications or Warnings from a Consumer Reporting Agency
</HD2>
<P>1. A fraud or active duty alert is included with a consumer report.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of credit freeze in response to a request for a consumer report.
</P>
<P>3. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of address discrepancy, as defined in 12 CFR 1022.82(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>4. A consumer report indicates a pattern of activity that is inconsistent with the history and usual pattern of activity of an applicant or customer, such as:
</P>
<P>a. A recent and significant increase in the volume of inquiries;
</P>
<P>b. An unusual number of recently established credit relationships;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in the use of credit, especially with respect to recently established credit relationships; or
</P>
<P>d. An account that was closed for cause or identified for abuse of account privileges by a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Documents
</HD2>
<P>5. Documents provided for identification appear to have been altered or forged.
</P>
<P>6. The photograph or physical description on the identification is not consistent with the appearance of the applicant or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>7. Other information on the identification is not consistent with information provided by the person opening a new covered account or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>8. Other information on the identification is not consistent with readily accessible information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor, such as a signature card or a recent check.
</P>
<P>9. An application appears to have been altered or forged, or gives the appearance of having been destroyed and reassembled.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Personal Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>10. Personal identifying information provided is inconsistent when compared against external information sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address does not match any address in the consumer report; or
</P>
<P>b. The Social Security Number (SSN) has not been issued, or is listed on the Social Security Administration's Death Master File.
</P>
<P>11. Personal identifying information provided by the customer is not consistent with other personal identifying information provided by the customer. For example, there is a lack of correlation between the SSN range and date of birth.
</P>
<P>12. Personal identifying information provided is associated with known fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is the same as the address provided on a fraudulent application; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number on an application is the same as the number provided on a fraudulent application.
</P>
<P>13. Personal identifying information provided is of a type commonly associated with fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is fictitious, a mail drop, or a prison; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number is invalid, or is associated with a pager or answering service.
</P>
<P>14. The SSN provided is the same as that submitted by other persons opening an account or other customers.
</P>
<P>15. The address or telephone number provided is the same as or similar to the address or telephone number submitted by an unusually large number of other persons opening accounts or by other customers.
</P>
<P>16. The person opening the covered account or the customer fails to provide all required personal identifying information on an application or in response to notification that the application is incomplete.
</P>
<P>17. Personal identifying information provided is not consistent with personal identifying information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>18. For financial institutions and creditors that use challenge questions, the person opening the covered account or the customer cannot provide authenticating information beyond that which generally would be available from a wallet or consumer report.
</P>
<HD2>Unusual Use of, or Suspicious Activity Related to, the Covered Account
</HD2>
<P>19. Shortly following the notice of a change of address for a covered account, the institution or creditor receives a request for a new, additional, or replacement card or a cell phone, or for the addition of authorized users on the account.
</P>
<P>20. A new revolving credit account is used in a manner commonly associated with known patterns of fraud. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The majority of available credit is used for cash advances or merchandise that is easily convertible to cash (e.g., electronics equipment or jewelry); or
</P>
<P>b. The customer fails to make the first payment or makes an initial payment but no subsequent payments.
</P>
<P>21. A covered account is used in a manner that is not consistent with established patterns of activity on the account. There is, for example:
</P>
<P>a. Nonpayment when there is no history of late or missed payments;
</P>
<P>b. A material increase in the use of available credit;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in purchasing or spending patterns;
</P>
<P>d. A material change in electronic fund transfer patterns in connection with a deposit account; or
</P>
<P>e. A material change in telephone call patterns in connection with a cellular phone account.
</P>
<P>22. A covered account that has been inactive for a reasonably lengthy period of time is used (taking into consideration the type of account, the expected pattern of usage and other relevant factors).
</P>
<P>23. Mail sent to the customer is returned repeatedly as undeliverable although transactions continue to be conducted in connection with the customer's covered account.
</P>
<P>24. The financial institution or creditor is notified that the customer is not receiving paper account statements.
</P>
<P>25. The financial institution or creditor is notified of unauthorized charges or transactions in connection with a customer's covered account.
</P>
<HD2>Notice From Customers, Victims of Identity Theft, Law Enforcement Authorities, or Other Persons Regarding Possible Identity Theft in Connection With Covered Accounts Held by the Financial Institution or Creditor
</HD2>
<P>26. The financial institution or creditor is notified by a customer, a victim of identity theft, a law enforcement authority, or any other person that it has opened a fraudulent account for a person engaged in identity theft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63754, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22642, May 14, 2009; 76 FR 6688, Feb. 8, 2011; 79 FR 28401, May 16, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 42 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 43—CREDIT RISK RETENTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 161, 1464, 1818, 5412(b)(2)(B), and 15 U.S.C. 78o-11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 77740, 77764, Dec. 24, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority, Purpose, Scope and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 161, 1464, 1818, 5412(b)(2)(B), and 15 U.S.C. 78o-11.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This part requires securitizers to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and it establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the OCC to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to any securitizer that is a national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank, or a subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Compliance with this part is required:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any securitization transaction collateralized by residential mortgages, on and after December 24, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other securitization transaction, on and after December 24, 2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77764, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>ABS interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any type of interest or obligation issued by an issuing entity, whether or not in certificated form, including a security, obligation, beneficial interest or residual interest (other than an uncertificated regular interest in a REMIC that is held by another REMIC, where both REMICs are part of the same structure and a single REMIC in that structure issues ABS interests to investors, or a non-economic residual interest issued by a REMIC), payments on which are primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral owned or held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include common or preferred stock, limited liability interests, partnership interests, trust certificates, or similar interests that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are issued primarily to evidence ownership of the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payments, if any, on which are not primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include the right to receive payments for services provided by the holder of such right, including servicing, trustee services and custodial services.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> of, or a person <I>affiliated</I> with, a specified person means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Asset</I> means a self-liquidating financial asset (including but not limited to a loan, lease, mortgage, or receivable).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(79) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79)).
</P>
<P><I>Collateral</I> means, with respect to any issuance of ABS interests, the assets that provide the cash flow and the servicing assets that support such cash flow for the ABS interests irrespective of the legal structure of issuance, including security interests in assets or other property of the issuing entity, fractional undivided property interests in the assets or other property of the issuing entity, or any other property interest in or rights to cash flow from such assets and related servicing assets. Assets or other property <I>collateralize</I> an issuance of ABS interests if the assets or property serve as collateral for such issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate loan</I> has the same meaning as in § 43.14.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> including the terms “controlling,” “controlled by” and “under common control with”:
</P>
<P>(1) Means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) Without limiting the foregoing, a person shall be considered to control another person if the first person:
</P>
<P>(i) Owns, controls or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees or persons performing similar functions of the other person.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk of loss that could result from the failure of the borrower in the case of a securitized asset, or the issuing entity in the case of an ABS interest in the issuing entity, to make required payments of principal or interest on the asset or ABS interest on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(2) The risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding with respect to the borrower or issuing entity, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(3) The effect that significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the asset or ABS interest may have on the market value of the asset or ABS interest.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(g).
</P>
<P><I>Depositor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor, in the case of a securitization transaction where there is not an intermediate transfer of the assets from the sponsor to the issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity in the case of a securitization transaction where the person transferring or selling the securitized assets directly to the issuing entity is itself a trust.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal residual interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest in the issuing entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That is an interest in a single class or multiple classes in the issuing entity, provided that each interest meets, individually or in the aggregate, all of the requirements of this definition;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to which, on any payment date or allocation date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds to satisfy its obligation to pay all contractual interest or principal due, any resulting shortfall will reduce amounts payable to the eligible horizontal residual interest prior to any reduction in the amounts payable to any other ABS interest, whether through loss allocation, operation of the priority of payments, or any other governing contractual provision (until the amount of such ABS interest is reduced to zero); and
</P>
<P>(3) That, with the exception of any non-economic REMIC residual interest, has the most subordinated claim to payments of both principal and interest by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal cash reserve account</I> means an account meeting the requirements of § 43.4(b).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible vertical interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, a single vertical security or an interest in each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as part of the securitization transaction that constitutes the same proportion of each such class.
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing entity</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the trust or other entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That owns or holds the pool of assets to be securitized; and
</P>
<P>(2) In whose name the asset-backed securities are issued.
</P>
<P><I>Majority-owned affiliate</I> of a person means an entity (other than the issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, such person. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means a person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Through an extension of credit or otherwise, creates an asset that collateralizes an asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sells the asset directly or indirectly to a securitizer or issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>REMIC</I> has the same meaning as in 26 U.S.C. 860D.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A transaction that is a covered transaction as defined in § 1026.43(b) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(2) Any transaction that is exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loan secured by a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium or cooperative unit and, if used as a residence, a mobile home or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Retaining sponsor</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the sponsor that has retained or caused to be retained an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization transaction</I> means a transaction involving the offer and sale of asset-backed securities by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitized asset</I> means an asset that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is transferred, sold, or conveyed to an issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralizes the ABS interests issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitizer</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, either:
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor of the asset-backed securities (if the depositor is not the sponsor); or
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor of the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means any person responsible for the management or collection of the securitized assets or making allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests, but does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the asset-backed securities that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Servicing assets</I> means rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to ABS interest holders and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the issuing entity's securitized assets. Servicing assets include amounts received by the issuing entity as proceeds of securitized assets, including proceeds of rights or other assets, whether as remittances by obligors or as other recoveries.
</P>
<P><I>Single vertical security</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest entitling the sponsor to a specified percentage of the amounts paid on each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity (other than such single vertical security).
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who organizes and initiates a securitization transaction by selling or transferring assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the same meaning as in Section 3(a)(16) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(16)).
</P>
<P><I>United States or U.S.</I> means the United States of America, including its territories and possessions, any State of the United States, and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Wholly-owned affiliate</I> means a person (other than an issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, wholly controls, is wholly controlled by, or is wholly under common control with, another person. For purposes of this definition, “wholly controls” means ownership of 100 percent of the equity of an entity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Credit Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.3   Base risk retention requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Base risk retention requirement.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 43.4 through 43.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multiple sponsors.</I> If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of § 43.4, § 43.5, § 43.8, § 43.9, or § 43.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.4   Standard risk retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as provided in §§ 43.5 through 43.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account.</I> In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and
</P>
<P>(3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or
</P>
<P>(B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Horizontal interest.</I> With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Discount rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Loss given default (recovery);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prepayment rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Lag time between default and recovery; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The basis of forward interest rates used.
</P>
<P>(F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vertical interest.</I> With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;
</P>
<P>(B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.5   Revolving pool securitizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Revolving pool securitization</I> means an issuing entity that is established to issue on multiple issuance dates more than one series, class, subclass, or tranche of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of securitized assets that will change in composition over time, and that does not monetize excess interest and fees from its securitized assets.
</P>
<P><I>Seller's interest</I> means an ABS interest or ABS interests:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized by the securitized assets and servicing assets owned or held by the issuing entity, other than the following that are not considered a component of seller's interest:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing assets that have been allocated as collateral only for a specific series in connection with administering the revolving pool securitization, such as a principal accumulation or interest reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets that are not eligible under the terms of the securitization transaction to be included when determining whether the revolving pool securitization holds aggregate securitized assets in specified proportions to aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) That is <I>pari passu</I> with each series of investor ABS interests issued, or partially or fully subordinated to one or more series in identical or varying amounts, with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets prior to early amortization of the revolving securitization (as specified in the securitization transaction documents); and
</P>
<P>(3) That adjusts for fluctuations in the outstanding principal balance of the securitized assets in the pool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 43.3 with respect to a securitization transaction for which the issuing entity is a revolving pool securitization if the sponsor maintains a seller's interest of not less than 5 percent of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests in the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Measuring the seller's interest.</I> In measuring the seller's interest for purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets for the numerator of the 5 percent ratio shall not include assets of the types excluded from the definition of seller's interest in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator of the 5 percent ratio may be reduced by the amount of funds held in a segregated principal accumulation account for the repayment of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the securitization transaction documents prevent funds in the principal accumulation account from being applied for any purpose other than the repayment of the unpaid principal of outstanding investor ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Funds in that account are invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 43.4 are permitted to be invested;
</P>
<P>(3) If the terms of the securitization transaction documents set minimum required seller's interest as a proportion of the unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, rather than as a proportion of the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests in all outstanding series combined, the percentage of the seller's interest for each such series must, when combined with the percentage of any minimum seller's interest set by reference to the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests, equal at least 5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) The 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied at the closing of each issuance of ABS interests to investors by the issuing entity, and
</P>
<P>(i) At least monthly at a seller's interest measurement date specified under the securitization transaction documents, until no ABS interest in the issuing entity is held by any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the revolving pool securitization fails to meet the 5 percent test as of any date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, and the securitization transaction documents specify a cure period, the 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied within the earlier of the cure period, or one month after the date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measuring outstanding investor ABS interests.</I> In measuring the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for purposes of this section, ABS interests held for the life of such ABS interests by the sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates may be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holding and retention of the seller's interest; legacy trusts.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 43.12(a), the seller's interest, and any offsetting horizontal retention interest retained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, must be retained by the sponsor or by one or more wholly-owned affiliates of the sponsor, including one or more depositors of the revolving pool securitization.
</P>
<P>(2) If one revolving pool securitization issues collateral certificates representing a beneficial interest in all or a portion of the securitized assets held by that securitization to another revolving pool securitization, which in turn issues ABS interests for which the collateral certificates are all or a portion of the securitized assets, a sponsor may satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section by retaining the seller's interest for the assets represented by the collateral certificates through either of the revolving pool securitizations, so long as both revolving pool securitizations are retained at the direction of the same sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains the seller's interest associated with the collateral certificates at the level of the revolving pool securitization that issues those collateral certificates, the proportion of the seller's interest required by paragraph (b) of this section retained at that level must equal the proportion that the principal balance of the securitized assets represented by the collateral certificates bears to the principal balance of the securitized assets in the revolving pool securitization that issues the ABS interests, as of each measurement date required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offset for pool-level excess funding account.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced on a dollar-for-dollar basis by the balance, as of such date, of an excess funding account in the form of a segregated account that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is funded in the event of a failure to meet the minimum seller's interest requirements or other requirement to maintain a minimum balance of securitized assets under the securitization transaction documents by distributions otherwise payable to the holder of the seller's interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Is invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in a horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 43.4 are permitted to be invested; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of an early amortization, makes payments of amounts held in the account to holders of investor ABS interests in the same manner as payments to holders of investor ABS interests of amounts received on securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combined seller's interests and horizontal interest retention.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced to a percentage lower than 5 percent to the extent that, for all series of investor ABS interests issued after the applicable effective date of this § 43.5, the sponsor, or notwithstanding § 43.12(a) a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, retains, at a minimum, a corresponding percentage of the fair value of ABS interests issued in each series, in the form of one or more of the horizontal residual interests meeting the requirements of paragraphs (h) or (i).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Residual ABS interests in excess interest and fees.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for a residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, whether certificated or uncertificated, in a single or multiple classes, subclasses, or tranches, that meets, individually or in the aggregate, the requirements of this paragraph (h);
</P>
<P>(1) Each series of the revolving pool securitization distinguishes between the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows and the series' share of the principal repayment cash flows from the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization, which may according to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, include not only the series' ratable share of such cash flows but also excess cash flows available from other series;
</P>
<P>(2) The residual ABS interest's claim to any part of the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows for any interest payment period is subordinated to all accrued and payable interest due on the payment date to more senior ABS interests in the series for that period, and further reduced by the series' share of losses, including defaults on principal of the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization (whether incurred in that period or carried over from prior periods) to the extent that such payments would have been included in amounts payable to more senior interests in the series;
</P>
<P>(3) The revolving pool securitization continues to revolve, with one or more series, classes, subclasses, or tranches of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of assets that change in composition over time; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, and the fair value of the series of outstanding investor ABS interests to which it is subordinated and supports using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP, as of:
</P>
<P>(i) The closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller's interest measurement dates described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except that for these periodic determinations the sponsor must update the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees for the numerator of the percentage ratio, but may at the sponsor's option continue to use the fair values determined in (h)(4)(i) for the outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Offsetting eligible horizontal residual interest.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for ABS interests that would meet the definition of eligible horizontal residual interests in § 43.2 but for the sponsor's simultaneous holding of subordinated seller's interests, residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, or a combination of the two, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor complies with all requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section for its holdings of subordinated seller's interest, and paragraph (h) for its holdings of residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests in the series supported by the eligible horizontal residual interest, determined using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Without including in the numerator of the percentage ratio any fair value based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The subordinated seller's interest or residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees;
</P>
<P>(B) the interest payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section in taking the offset in paragraph (g) of this section; and,
</P>
<P>(C) the principal payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of the seller's interest pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and distributions on that seller's interest are available to reduce charge-offs that would otherwise be allocated to reduce principal payable to the offset eligible horizontal residual interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Specified dates.</I> A sponsor using data about the revolving pool securitization's collateral, or ABS interests previously issued, to determine the closing-date percentage of a seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this § 43.5 may use such data prepared as of specified dates if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor describes the specified dates in the disclosures required by paragraph (k) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dates are no more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors of disclosures required for the interest by paragraph (k) of this section, or for revolving pool securitizations that make distributions to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, no more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors of such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Disclosure and record maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” the following disclosure in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (k):
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security, a description of the material terms of the seller's interest, and the percentage of the seller's interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction, measured in accordance with the requirements of this § 43.5, as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests issued, or as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, as required by the terms of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of seller's interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the material terms of any horizontal residual interests offsetting the seller's interest in accordance with paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure of the fair value of those horizontal residual interests retained by the sponsor for the series being offered to investors and described in the disclosures, as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests issued, described in the same manner and within the same timeframes required for disclosure of the fair values of eligible horizontal residual interests specified in § 43.4(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted data.</I> Disclosures required by this paragraph (k) to be made a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security of the amount of seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest may include adjustments to the amount of securitized assets for additions or removals the sponsor expects to make before the closing date and adjustments to the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for expected increases and decreases of those interests under the control of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraph (k)(1) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Early amortization of all outstanding series.</I> A sponsor that organizes a revolving pool securitization that relies on this § 43.5 to satisfy the risk retention requirements of § 43.3, does not violate the requirements of this part if its seller's interest falls below the level required by § 43. 5 after the revolving pool securitization commences early amortization, pursuant to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, of all series of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor was in full compliance with the requirements of this section on all measurement dates specified in paragraph (c) of this section prior to the commencement of early amortization;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the seller's interest continue to make it <I>pari passu</I> with or subordinate in identical or varying amounts to each series of outstanding investor ABS interests issued with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any horizontal interest relied upon by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (g) to offset the minimum seller's interest amount continue to require the interests to absorb losses in accordance with the terms of paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) The revolving pool securitization issues no additional ABS interests after early amortization is initiated to any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, either at the time of issuance or during the amortization period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.6   Eligible ABCP conduits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>100 percent liquidity coverage</I> means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP</I> means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP conduit</I> means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP conduit</I> means an ABCP conduit, <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:
</P>
<P>(i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,
</P>
<P>(B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or
</P>
<P>(C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section).
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate SPV</I> means a special purpose vehicle that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Originator-seller</I> means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 43.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated liquidity provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 43.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 43.4 or § 43.5; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Originator-seller compliance with risk retention.</I> The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Periodic disclosures to investors.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits.</I> At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.7   Commercial mortgage-backed securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Special servicer</I> means, with respect to any securitization of commercial real estate loans, any servicer that, upon the occurrence of one or more specified conditions in the servicing agreement, has the right to service one or more assets in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third-party purchaser.</I> A sponsor may satisfy some or all of its risk retention requirements under § 43.3 with respect to a securitization transaction if a third party (or any majority-owned affiliate thereof) purchases and holds for its own account an eligible horizontal residual interest in the issuing entity in the same form, amount, and manner as would be held by the sponsor under § 43.4 and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Number of third-party purchasers.</I> At any time, there are no more than two third-party purchasers of an eligible horizontal residual interest. If there are two third-party purchasers, each third-party purchaser's interest must be <I>pari passu</I> with the other third-party purchaser's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composition of collateral.</I> The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by commercial real estate loans and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Source of funds.</I> (i) Each third-party purchaser pays for the eligible horizontal residual interest in cash at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) No third-party purchaser obtains financing, directly or indirectly, for the purchase of such interest from any other person that is a party to, or an affiliate of a party to, the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer other than a special servicer affiliated with the third-party purchaser), other than a person that is a party to the transaction solely by reason of being an investor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Third-party review.</I> Each third-party purchaser conducts an independent review of the credit risk of each securitized asset prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction that includes, at a minimum, a review of the underwriting standards, collateral, and expected cash flows of each commercial real estate loan that is collateral for the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Affiliation and control rights.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, no third-party purchaser is affiliated with any party to the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer) other than investors in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a third-party purchaser may be affiliated with:
</P>
<P>(A) The special servicer for the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) One or more originators of the securitized assets, as long as the assets originated by the affiliated originator or originators collectively comprise less than 10 percent of the unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets included in the securitization transaction at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operating Advisor.</I> The underlying securitization transaction documents shall provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The appointment of an operating advisor (the Operating Advisor) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with other parties to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not directly or indirectly have any financial interest in the securitization transaction other than in fees from its role as Operating Advisor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is required to act in the best interest of, and for the benefit of, investors as a collective whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) Standards with respect to the Operating Advisor's experience, expertise and financial strength to fulfill its duties and responsibilities under the applicable transaction documents over the life of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation with respect to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the eligible horizontal residual interest has been reduced by principal payments, realized losses, and appraisal reduction amounts (which reduction amounts are determined in accordance with the applicable transaction documents) to a principal balance of 25 percent or less of its initial principal balance, the special servicer for the securitized assets must consult with the Operating Advisor in connection with, and prior to, any material decision in connection with its servicing of the securitized assets, including, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) Any material modification of, or waiver with respect to, any provision of a loan agreement (including a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement);
</P>
<P>(B) Foreclosure upon or comparable conversion of the ownership of a property; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any acquisition of a property.
</P>
<P>(v) The Operating Advisor shall have adequate and timely access to information and reports necessary to fulfill its duties under the transaction documents, including all reports made available to holders of ABS interests and third-party purchasers, and shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(A) Reviewing the actions of the special servicer;
</P>
<P>(B) Reviewing all reports provided by the special servicer to the issuing entity or any holder of ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(C) Reviewing for accuracy and consistency with the transaction documents calculations made by the special servicer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Issuing a report to investors (including any third-party purchasers) and the issuing entity on a periodic basis concerning:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that the special servicer is operating in compliance with any standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which, if any, standards the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, the special servicer has failed to comply.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) The Operating Advisor shall have the authority to recommend that the special servicer be replaced by a successor special servicer if the Operating Advisor determines, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The special servicer has failed to comply with a standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such replacement would be in the best interest of the investors as a collective whole; and
</P>
<P>(B) If a recommendation described in paragraph (b)(6)(vi)(A) of this section is made, the special servicer shall be replaced upon the affirmative vote of a majority of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests voting on the matter, with a minimum of a quorum of ABS interests voting on the matter. For purposes of such vote, the applicable transaction documents shall specify the quorum and may not specify a quorum of more than the holders of 20 percent of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests in the issuing entity, with such quorum including at least three ABS interest holders that are not affiliated with each other.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of each initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each initial third-party purchaser's experience in investing in commercial mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information regarding each initial third-party purchaser or each initial third-party purchaser's retention of the eligible horizontal residual interest that is material to investors in light of the circumstances of the particular securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that will be retained (or was retained) by each initial third-party purchaser, as well as the amount of the purchase price paid by each initial third-party purchaser for such interest;
</P>
<P>(v) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction that the sponsor would have retained pursuant to § 43.4 if the sponsor had relied on retaining an eligible horizontal residual interest in that section to meet the requirements of § 43.3 with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by each initial third-party purchaser, including the same information as is required to be disclosed by sponsors retaining horizontal interests pursuant to § 43.4;
</P>
<P>(vii) The material terms of the applicable transaction documents with respect to the Operating Advisor, including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and form of organization of the Operating Advisor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of any material conflict of interest or material potential conflict of interest between the Operating Advisor and any other party to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) The standards required by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section and a description of how the Operating Advisor satisfies each of the standards; and
</P>
<P>(D) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The representations and warranties concerning the securitized assets, a schedule of any securitized assets that are determined not to comply with such representations and warranties, and what factors were used to make the determination that such securitized assets should be included in the pool notwithstanding that the securitized assets did not comply with such representations and warranties, such as compensating factors or a determination that the exceptions were not material.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging, transfer and pledging</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, each third-party purchaser and its affiliates must comply with the hedging and other restrictions in § 43.12 as if it were the retaining sponsor with respect to the securitization transaction and had acquired the eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to § 43.4; provided that, the hedging and other restrictions in § 43.12 shall not apply on or after the date that each CRE loan (as defined in § 43.14) that serves as collateral for outstanding ABS interests has been defeased. For purposes of this section, a loan is deemed to be defeased if:
</P>
<P>(A) cash or cash equivalents of the types permitted for an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 43.4 whose maturity corresponds to the remaining debt service obligations, have been pledged to the issuing entity as collateral for the loan and are in such amounts and payable at such times as necessary to timely generate cash sufficient to make all remaining debt service payments due on such loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) the issuing entity has an obligation to release its lien on the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions</I>—(A) <I>Transfer by initial third-party purchaser or sponsor.</I> An initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, or a sponsor that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, may, on or after the date that is five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction, transfer that interest to a subsequent third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The initial third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the subsequent third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Transfer by subsequent third-party purchaser.</I> At any time, a subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this section may transfer its interest to a different third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The transferring third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the acquiring third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Requirements applicable to subsequent third-party purchasers.</I> A subsequent third-party purchaser is subject to all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section applicable to third-party purchasers, provided that obligations under paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section that apply to initial third-party purchasers at or before the time of closing of the securitization transaction shall apply to successor third-party purchasers at or before the time of the transfer of the eligible horizontal residual interest to the successor third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section by itself and for compliance by each initial or subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures to monitor each third-party purchaser's compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the sponsor determines that a third-party purchaser no longer complies with one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), or (b)(8) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such third-party purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.8   Federal National Mortgage Association and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation ABS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies its risk retention requirement under this part if the sponsor fully guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on all ABS interests issued by the issuing entity in the securitization transaction and is:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617) with capital support from the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any limited-life regulated entity succeeding to the charter of either the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 1367(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617(i)), provided that the entity is operating with capital support from the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain provisions not applicable.</I> The provisions of § 43.12(b), (c), and (d) shall not apply to a sponsor described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, its affiliates, or the issuing entity with respect to a securitization transaction for which the sponsor has retained credit risk in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide to investors, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” and, upon request, to the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Commission, a description of the manner in which it has met the credit risk retention requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.9   Open market CLOs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>CLO</I> means a special purpose entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Issues debt and equity interests, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose assets consist primarily of loans that are securitized assets and servicing assets.
</P>
<P><I>CLO-eligible loan tranche</I> means a term loan of a syndicated facility that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>CLO manager</I> means an entity that manages a CLO, which entity is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>), or is an affiliate of such a registered investment adviser and itself is managed by such registered investment adviser.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial borrower</I> means an obligor under a corporate credit obligation (including a loan).
</P>
<P><I>Initial loan syndication transaction</I> means a transaction in which a loan is syndicated to a group of lenders.
</P>
<P><I>Lead arranger</I> means, with respect to a CLO-eligible loan tranche, an institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is active in the origination, structuring and syndication of commercial loan transactions (as defined in § 43.14) and has played a primary role in the structuring, underwriting and distribution on the primary market of the CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has taken an allocation of the funded portion of the syndicated credit facility under the terms of the transaction that includes the CLO-eligible loan tranche of at least 20 percent of the aggregate principal balance at origination, and no other member (or members affiliated with each other) of the syndication group that funded at origination has taken a greater allocation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is identified in the applicable agreement governing the CLO-eligible loan tranche; represents therein to the holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche and to any holders of participation interests in such CLO-eligible loan tranche that such lead arranger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i) of this definition and, at the time of initial funding of the CLO-eligible tranche, will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (ii) of this definition; further represents therein (solely for the purpose of assisting such holders to determine the eligibility of such CLO-eligible loan tranche to be held by an open market CLO) that in the reasonable judgment of such lead arranger, the terms of such CLO-eligible loan tranche are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section; and covenants therein to such holders that such lead arranger will fulfill the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Open market CLO</I> means a CLO:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose assets consist of senior, secured syndicated loans acquired by such CLO directly from the sellers thereof in open market transactions and of servicing assets,
</P>
<P>(ii) That is managed by a CLO manager, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That holds less than 50 percent of its assets, by aggregate outstanding principal amount, in loans syndicated by lead arrangers that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager or originated by originators that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager.
</P>
<P><I>Open market transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Either an initial loan syndication transaction or a secondary market transaction in which a seller offers senior, secured syndicated loans to prospective purchasers in the loan market on market terms on an arm's length basis, which prospective purchasers include, but are not limited to, entities that are not affiliated with the seller, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A reverse inquiry from a prospective purchaser of a senior, secured syndicated loan through a dealer in the loan market to purchase a senior, secured syndicated loan to be sourced by the dealer in the loan market.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market transaction</I> means a purchase of a senior, secured syndicated loan not in connection with an initial loan syndication transaction but in the secondary market.
</P>
<P><I>Senior, secured syndicated loan</I> means a loan made to a commercial borrower that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not subordinate in right of payment to any other obligation for borrowed money of the commercial borrower,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is secured by a valid first priority security interest or lien in or on specified collateral securing the commercial borrower's obligations under the loan, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The value of the collateral subject to such first priority security interest or lien, together with other attributes of the obligor (including, without limitation, its general financial condition, ability to generate cash flow available for debt service and other demands for that cash flow), is adequate (in the commercially reasonable judgment of the CLO manager exercised at the time of investment) to repay the loan and to repay all other indebtedness of equal seniority secured by such first priority security interest or lien in or on the same collateral, and the CLO manager certifies, on or prior to each date that it acquires a loan constituting part of a new CLO-eligible tranche, that it has policies and procedures to evaluate the likelihood of repayment of loans acquired by the CLO and it has followed such policies and procedures in evaluating each CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 43.3 with respect to an open market CLO transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) The open market CLO does not acquire or hold any assets other than CLO-eligible loan tranches that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) The governing documents of such open market CLO require that, at all times, the assets of the open market CLO consist of senior, secured syndicated loans that are CLO-eligible loan tranches and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The open market CLO does not invest in ABS interests or in credit derivatives other than hedging transactions that are servicing assets to hedge risks of the open market CLO;
</P>
<P>(4) All purchases of CLO-eligible loan tranches and other assets by the open market CLO issuing entity or through a warehouse facility used to accumulate the loans prior to the issuance of the CLO's ABS interests are made in open market transactions on an arms-length basis;
</P>
<P>(5) The CLO manager of the open market CLO is not entitled to receive any management fee or gain on sale at the time the open market CLO issues its ABS interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CLO-eligible loan tranche.</I> To qualify as a CLO-eligible loan tranche, a term loan of a syndicated credit facility to a commercial borrower must have the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum of 5 percent of the face amount of the CLO-eligible loan tranche is retained by the lead arranger thereof until the earliest of the repayment, maturity, involuntary and unscheduled acceleration, payment default, or bankruptcy default of such CLO-eligible loan tranche, provided that such lead arranger complies with limitations on hedging, transferring and pledging in § 43.12 with respect to the interest retained by the lead arranger.
</P>
<P>(2) Lender voting rights within the credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranche are defined so as to give holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche consent rights with respect to, at minimum, any material waivers and amendments of such applicable documents, including but not limited to, adverse changes to the calculation or payments of amounts due to the holders of the CLO-eligible tranche, alterations to <I>pro rata</I> provisions, changes to voting provisions, and waivers of conditions precedent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The pro rata provisions, voting provisions, and similar provisions applicable to the security associated with such CLO-eligible loan tranches under the CLO credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranches are not materially less advantageous to the holder(s) of such CLO-eligible tranche than the terms of other tranches of comparable seniority in the broader syndicated credit facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction and at least annually with respect to the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Open market CLOs.</I> A complete list of every asset held by an open market CLO (or before the CLO's closing, in a warehouse facility in anticipation of transfer into the CLO at closing), including the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The full legal name, Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) category code, and legal entity identifier (LEI) issued by a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee or the Global LEI Foundation (if an LEI has been obtained by the obligor) of the obligor of the loan or asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name of the specific loan tranche held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iii) The face amount of the entire loan tranche held by the CLO, and the face amount of the portion thereof held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iv) The price at which the loan tranche was acquired by the CLO; and
</P>
<P>(v) For each loan tranche, the full legal name of the lead arranger subject to the sales and hedging restrictions of § 43.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CLO manager.</I> The full legal name and form of organization of the CLO manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.2.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.10   Qualified tender option bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Municipal security</I> or <I>municipal securities</I> shall have the same meaning as the term “municipal securities” in Section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)) and any rules promulgated pursuant to such section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tender option bond entity</I> means an issuing entity with respect to tender option bonds for which each of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Such entity is collateralized solely by servicing assets and by municipal securities that have the same municipal issuer and the same underlying obligor or source of payment (determined without regard to any third-party credit enhancement), and such municipal securities are not subject to substitution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such entity issues no securities other than:
</P>
<P>(A) A single class of tender option bonds with a preferred variable return payable out of capital that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) One or more residual equity interests that, in the aggregate, are entitled to all remaining income of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(C) The types of securities referred to in paragraphs (ii)(A) and (B) of this definition must constitute asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The municipal securities held as assets by such entity are issued in compliance with Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “IRS Code”, 26 U.S.C. 103), such that the interest payments made on those securities are excludable from the gross income of the owners under Section 103 of the IRS Code.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms of all of the securities issued by the entity are structured so that all holders of such securities who are eligible to exclude interest received on such securities will be able to exclude that interest from gross income pursuant to Section 103 of the IRS Code or as “exempt-interest dividends” pursuant to Section 852(b)(5) of the IRS Code (26 U.S.C. 852(b)(5)) in the case of regulated investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) Such entity has a legally binding commitment from a regulated liquidity provider as defined in § 43.6(a), to provide a 100 percent guarantee or liquidity coverage with respect to all of the issuing entity's outstanding tender option bonds.
</P>
<P>(vi) Such entity qualifies for monthly closing elections pursuant to IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Tender option bond</I> means a security which has features which entitle the holders to tender such bonds to the issuing entity for purchase at any time upon no more than 397 days' notice, for a purchase price equal to the approximate amortized cost of the security, plus accrued interest, if any, at the time of tender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention options.</I> Notwithstanding anything in this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds may retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 43.4. In order to satisfy its risk retention requirements under this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 43.4; or
</P>
<P>(2) An interest that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal security that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any combination of interests and securities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section such that the sum of the percentages held in each form equals at least five.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tender option termination event.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain an interest that upon issuance meets the requirements of an eligible horizontal residual interest but that upon the occurrence of a “tender option termination event” as defined in Section 4.01(5) of IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time will meet the requirements of an eligible vertical interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of a municipal security outside of the qualified tender option bond entity.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may satisfy its risk retention requirements under this Section by holding municipal securities from the same issuance of municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity, the face value of which retained municipal securities is equal to 5 percent of the face value of the municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the form and subordination features of such retained interest in accordance with the disclosure obligations in § 43.4(c);
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible horizontal residual interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 43.10(c)), the fair value of that interest (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and as a dollar amount);
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible vertical interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 43.10(c)), the percentage of ABS interests issued represented by the eligible vertical interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent any portion of the retained interest claimed by the sponsor is a municipal security held outside of the qualified tender option bond entity, the name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity, the identity of the issuer of the municipal securities, the face value of the municipal securities deposited into the qualified tender option bond entity, and the face value of the municipal securities retained by the sponsor or its majority-owned affiliates and subject to the transfer and hedging prohibition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on Hedging and Transfer.</I> The prohibitions on transfer and hedging set forth in § 43.12, apply to any interests or municipal securities retained by the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity pursuant to of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Transfer of Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.11   Allocation of risk retention to an originator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor choosing to retain an eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest (including an eligible horizontal cash reserve account), or combination thereof under § 43.4, with respect to a securitization transaction may offset the amount of its risk retention requirements under § 43.4 by the amount of the eligible interests, respectively, acquired by an originator of one or more of the securitized assets if:
</P>
<P>(1) At the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator acquires the eligible interest from the sponsor and retains such interest in the same manner and proportion (as between horizontal and vertical interests) as the sponsor under § 43.4, as such interest was held prior to the acquisition by the originator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the percentage of eligible interests acquired and retained by the originator to the percentage of eligible interests otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 43.4, does not exceed the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets originated by the originator; to
</P>
<P>(B) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets in the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator acquires and retains at least 20 percent of the aggregate risk retention amount otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 43.4; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The originator purchases the eligible interests from the sponsor at a price that is equal, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the amount by which the sponsor's required risk retention is reduced in accordance with this section, by payment to the sponsor in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash; or
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction in the price received by the originator from the sponsor or depositor for the assets sold by the originator to the sponsor or depositor for inclusion in the pool of securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to the disclosures required pursuant to § 43.4(c), the sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, the name and form of organization of any originator that will acquire and retain (or has acquired and retained) an interest in the transaction pursuant to this section, including a description of the form and amount (expressed as a percentage and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) and nature (<I>e.g.,</I> senior or subordinated) of the interest, as well as the method of payment for such interest under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hedging, transferring and pledging.</I> The originator and each of its affiliates complies with the hedging and other restrictions in § 43.12 with respect to the interests retained by the originator pursuant to this section as if it were the retaining sponsor and was required to retain the interest under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A retaining sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor the compliance by each originator that is allocated a portion of the sponsor's risk retention obligations with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the sponsor determines that any such originator no longer complies with any of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such originator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.12   Hedging, transfer and financing prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer.</I> Except as permitted by § 43.7(b)(8), and subject to § 43.5, a retaining sponsor may not sell or otherwise transfer any interest or assets that the sponsor is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part to any person other than an entity that is and remains a majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor and each such majority-owned affiliate shall be subject to the same restrictions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited hedging by sponsor and affiliates.</I> A retaining sponsor and its affiliates may not purchase or sell a security, or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or other position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited hedging by issuing entity.</I> The issuing entity in a securitization transaction may not purchase or sell a security or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor for the transaction (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to the securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted hedging activities.</I> The following activities shall not be considered prohibited hedging activities under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Hedging the interest rate risk (which does not include the specific interest rate risk, known as spread risk, associated with the ABS interest that is otherwise considered part of the credit risk) or foreign exchange risk arising from one or more of the particular ABS interests required to be retained by the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) under subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that underlie the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Purchasing or selling a security or other financial instrument or entering into an agreement, derivative, or other position with any third party where payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are based, directly or indirectly, on an index of instruments that includes asset-backed securities if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any class of ABS interests in the issuing entity that were issued in connection with the securitization transaction and that are included in the index represents no more than 10 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All classes of ABS interests in all issuing entities that were issued in connection with any securitization transaction in which the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain an interest pursuant to subpart B of this part and that are included in the index represent, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited non-recourse financing.</I> Neither a retaining sponsor nor any of its affiliates may pledge as collateral for any obligation (including a loan, repurchase agreement, or other financing transaction) any ABS interest that the sponsor is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part unless such obligation is with full recourse to the sponsor or affiliate, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duration of the hedging and transfer restrictions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance (if applicable) of the securitized assets that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the total unpaid principal obligations under the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal obligations of the ABS interests at closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Two years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Securitizations of residential mortgages.</I> (i) If all of the assets that collateralize a securitization transaction subject to risk retention under this part are residential mortgages, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance of the residential mortgages that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 25 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of such residential mortgages at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire with respect to the sponsor of a securitization transaction described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section on or after the date that is seven years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conservatorship or receivership of sponsor.</I> A conservator or receiver of the sponsor (or any other person holding risk retention pursuant to this part) of a securitization transaction is permitted to sell or hedge any economic interest in the securitization transaction if the conservator or receiver has been appointed pursuant to any provision of federal or State law (or regulation promulgated thereunder) that provides for the appointment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or an agency or instrumentality of the United States or of a State as conservator or receiver, including without limitation any of the following authorities:
</P>
<P>(i) 12 U.S.C. 1811;
</P>
<P>(ii) 12 U.S.C. 1787;
</P>
<P>(iii) 12 U.S.C. 4617; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 12 U.S.C. 5382.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Revolving pool securitizations.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) are not available to sponsors of revolving pool securitizations with respect to the forms of risk retention specified in § 43.5.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exceptions and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.13   Exemption for qualified residential mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Currently performing</I> means the borrower in the mortgage transaction is not currently thirty (30) days or more past due, in whole or in part, on the mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified residential mortgage</I> means a “qualified mortgage” as defined in section 129C of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C.1639c) and regulations issued thereunder, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction, if:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) None of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(3) As of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, each qualified residential mortgage collateralizing the asset-backed securities is currently performing; and
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The depositor with respect to the securitization transaction certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed security are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls must be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security in reliance on this section, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repurchase of loans subsequently determined to be non-qualified after closing.</I> A sponsor that has relied on the exemption provided in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a securitization transaction shall not lose such exemption with respect to such transaction if, after closing of the securitization transaction, it is determined that one or more of the residential mortgage loans collateralizing the asset-backed securities does not meet all of the criteria to be a qualified residential mortgage <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining aggregate unpaid principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) no later than 90 days after the determination that the loans do not satisfy the requirements to be a qualified residential mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor promptly notifies, or causes to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is (or are) required to be repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, including the amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.14   Definitions applicable to qualifying commercial loans, qualifying commercial real estate loans, and qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of §§ 43.15 through 43.18:
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Standards Board</I> means the board of the Appraisal Foundation that develops, interprets, and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), establishing generally accepted standards for the appraisal profession.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile loan:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means any loan to an individual to finance the purchase of, and that is secured by a first lien on, a passenger car or other passenger vehicle, such as a minivan, van, sport-utility vehicle, pickup truck, or similar light truck for personal, family, or household use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan to finance fleet sales;
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal cash loan secured by a previously purchased automobile;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan to finance the purchase of a commercial vehicle or farm equipment that is not used for personal, family, or household purposes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lease financing;
</P>
<P>(v) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle with a salvage title; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle intended to be used for scrap or parts.
</P>
<P><I>Combined loan-to-value (CLTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the sum of the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property, plus the principal balance of any junior-lien mortgage loan that, to the creditor's knowledge, would exist at the closing of the transaction and that is secured by the same property, divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 43.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 43.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial loan</I> means a secured or unsecured loan to a company or an individual for business purposes, other than any:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan to purchase or refinance a one-to-four family residential property;
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial real estate loan.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate (CRE) loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan secured by a property with five or more single family units, or by nonfarm nonresidential real property, the primary source (50 percent or more) of repayment for which is expected to be:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the sale, refinancing, or permanent financing of the property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Rental income associated with the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans secured by improved land if the obligor owns the fee interest in the land and the land is leased to a third party who owns all improvements on the land, and the improvements are nonresidential or residential with five or more single family units; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A land development and construction loan (including 1- to 4-family residential or commercial construction loans);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other land loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unsecured loan to a developer.
</P>
<P><I>Debt service coverage (DSC) ratio</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying leased CRE loans, qualifying multi-family loans, and other CRE loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual NOI less the annual replacement reserve of the CRE property at the time of origination of the CRE loan(s) divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest (calculated at the fully-indexed rate) on any debt obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) For commercial loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower's EBITDA as of the most recently completed fiscal year divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest on all debt obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Debt to income (DTI) ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan, divided by the borrower's monthly income.
</P>
<P><I>Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA)</I> means the annual income of a business before expenses for interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization are deducted, as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental risk assessment</I> means a process for determining whether a property is contaminated or exposed to any condition or substance that could result in contamination that has an adverse effect on the market value of the property or the realization of the collateral value.
</P>
<P><I>First lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that has priority over all other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Junior lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that is lower in priority relative to other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Leverage ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt divided by the borrower's EBITDA.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 43.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 43.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Model year</I> means the year determined by the manufacturer and reflected on the vehicle's Motor Vehicle Title as part of the vehicle description.
</P>
<P><I>Net operating income (NOI)</I> refers to the income a CRE property generates for the owner after all expenses have been deducted for federal income tax purposes, except for depreciation, debt service expenses, and federal and state income taxes, and excluding any unusual and nonrecurring items of income.
</P>
<P><I>Operating affiliate</I> means an affiliate of a borrower that is a lessor or similar party with respect to the commercial real estate securing the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Payments-in-kind</I> means payments of accrued interest that are not paid in cash when due, and instead are paid by increasing the principal balance of the loan or by providing equity in the borrowing company.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money security interest</I> means a security interest in property that secures the obligation of the obligor incurred as all or part of the price of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase price</I> means the amount paid by the borrower for the vehicle net of any incentive payments or manufacturer cash rebates.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tenant</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A tenant with a lease who has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner; or
</P>
<P>(2) A tenant who originally had a lease that subsequently expired and currently is leasing the property on a month-to-month basis, has occupied the property for at least three years prior to the date of origination, and has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying leased CRE loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by commercial nonfarm real property, other than a multi-family property or a hotel, inn, or similar property:
</P>
<P>(1) That is occupied by one or more qualified tenants pursuant to a lease agreement with a term of no less than one (1) month; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where no more than 20 percent of the aggregate gross revenue of the property is payable from one or more tenants who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are subject to a lease that will terminate within six months following the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not qualified tenants.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying multi-family loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by any residential property (excluding a hotel, motel, inn, hospital, nursing home, or other similar facility where dwellings are not leased to residents):
</P>
<P>(1) That consists of five or more dwelling units (including apartment buildings, condominiums, cooperatives and other similar structures) primarily for residential use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where at least 75 percent of the NOI is derived from residential rents and tenant amenities (including income from parking garages, health or swim clubs, and dry cleaning), and not from other commercial uses.
</P>
<P><I>Rental income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Income derived from a lease or other occupancy agreement between the borrower or an operating affiliate of the borrower and a party which is not an affiliate of the borrower for the use of real property or improvements serving as collateral for the applicable loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other income derived from hotel, motel, dormitory, nursing home, assisted living, mini-storage warehouse or similar properties that are used primarily by parties that are not affiliates or employees of the borrower or its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement reserve</I> means the monthly capital replacement or maintenance amount based on the property type, age, construction and condition of the property that is adequate to maintain the physical condition and NOI of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Salvage title</I> means a form of vehicle title branding, which notes that the vehicle has been severely damaged and/or deemed a total loss and uneconomical to repair by an insurance company that paid a claim on the vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Total debt,</I> with respect to a borrower, means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an automobile loan, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) All monthly housing payments (rent- or mortgage-related, including property taxes, insurance and home owners association fees); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the following that is dependent upon the borrower's income for payment:
</P>
<P>(A) Monthly payments on other debt and lease obligations, such as credit card loans or installment loans, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan;
</P>
<P>(B) Estimated monthly amortizing payments for any term debt, debts with other than monthly payments and debts not in repayment (such as deferred student loans, interest-only loans); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any required monthly alimony, child support or court-ordered payments; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a commercial loan, the outstanding balance of all long-term debt (obligations that have a remaining maturity of more than one year) and the current portion of all debt that matures in one year or less.
</P>
<P><I>Total liabilities ratio</I> means the borrower's total liabilities divided by the sum of the borrower's total liabilities and equity, less the borrower's intangible assets, with each component determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Trade-in allowance</I> means the amount a vehicle purchaser is given as a credit at the purchase of a vehicle for the fair exchange of the borrower's existing vehicle to compensate the dealer for some portion of the vehicle purchase price, not to exceed the highest trade-in value of the existing vehicle, as determined by a nationally recognized automobile pricing agency and based on the manufacturer, year, model, features, mileage, and condition of the vehicle, less the payoff balance of any outstanding debt collateralized by the existing vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)</I> means generally accepted standards for professional appraisal practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.15   Qualifying commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exception for qualifying assets.</I> Commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans that are securitized through a securitization transaction shall be subject to a 0 percent risk retention requirement under subpart B, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets meet the underwriting standards set forth in § 43.16 (qualifying commercial loans), § 43.17 (qualifying CRE loans), or § 43.18 (qualifying automobile loans) of this part, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by loans of the same asset class and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization transaction does not permit reinvestment periods; and
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities of the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission, and to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a description of the manner in which the sponsor determined the aggregate risk retention requirement for the securitization transaction after including qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans with 0 percent risk retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention requirement.</I> For any securitization transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section, the percentage of risk retention required under § 43.3(a) is reduced by the percentage evidenced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans (as applicable) to the total unpaid principal balance of commercial loans, CRE loans, or automobile loans (as applicable) that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the qualifying asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The qualifying asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the qualifying asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the qualifying asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section also includes descriptions of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, and qualifying automobile loans (qualifying assets) and descriptions of the assets that are not qualifying assets, and the material differences between the group of qualifying assets and the group of assets that are not qualifying assets with respect to the composition of each group's loan balances, loan terms, interest rates, borrower credit information, and characteristics of any loan collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for securitizations of qualifying assets only.</I> Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, the risk retention requirements of subpart B of this part shall not apply to securitization transactions where the transaction is collateralized solely by servicing assets and either qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the certifications required in §§ 43.16(a)(8), 43.17(a)(10), and 43.18(a)(8), as applicable, in its records until three years after all ABS interests issued in the securitization are no longer outstanding. The sponsor must provide the disclosures and certifications upon request to the Commission and the sponsor's appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.16   Underwriting standards for qualifying commercial loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the commercial loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the financial condition of the borrower:
</P>
<P>(A) As of the end of the borrower's two most recently completed fiscal years; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the period, if any, since the end of its most recently completed fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined that, based on the previous two years' actual performance, the borrower had:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater;
</P>
<P>(iv) Determined that, based on the two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the closing date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to, upon or promptly following the inception of the loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) If the loan is originated on a secured basis, obtains a perfected security interest (by filing, title notation or otherwise) or, in the case of real property, a recorded lien, on all of the property pledged to collateralize the loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the loan documents indicate the purpose of the loan is to finance the purchase of tangible or intangible property, or to refinance such a loan, obtains a first lien on the property.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the commercial loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide to the servicer of the commercial loan the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit the borrower from retaining or entering into a debt arrangement that permits payments-in-kind;
</P>
<P>(iii) Impose limits on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest or lien with respect to any of the borrower's property that serves as collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any of the borrower's assets that serve as collateral for the loan; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of the borrower, or any other party that pledges collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower and any other party that pledges collateral for the loan to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on the collateral for the commercial loan at least up to the amount of the loan, and that names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on any collateral;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to perfect or protect the security interest and first lien (as applicable) of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any collateral for the commercial loan or the priority thereof, and to defend any collateral against claims adverse to the lender's interest;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer of the loan, to inspect any collateral for the commercial loan and the books and records of the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of any collateral for the commercial loan.
</P>
<P>(4) Loan payments required under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) that fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed five years from the date of origination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than quarterly over a term that does not exceed five years.
</P>
<P>(5) The primary source of repayment for the loan is revenue from the business operations of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) The loan was funded within the six (6) months prior to the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying commercial loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 43.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 43.15 with respect to a qualifying commercial loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the commercial loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.17   Underwriting standards for qualifying CRE loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) The CRE loan must be secured by the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An enforceable first lien, documented and recorded appropriately pursuant to applicable law, on the commercial real estate and improvements;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) An assignment of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Leases and rents and other occupancy agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor or similar party and all payments under such leases and occupancy agreements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All franchise, license and concession agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor, licensor, concession granter or similar party and all payments under such other agreements, whether the assignments described in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) are absolute or are stated to be made to the extent permitted by the agreements governing the applicable franchise, license or concession agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) An assignment of all other payments due to the borrower or due to any operating affiliate in connection with the operation of the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The right to enforce the agreements described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the agreements under which payments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are due against, and collect amounts due from, each lessee, occupant or other obligor whose payments were assigned pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section upon a breach by the borrower of any of the terms of, or the occurrence of any other event of default (however denominated) under, the loan documents relating to such CRE loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A security interest:
</P>
<P>(A) In all interests of the borrower and any applicable operating affiliate in all tangible and intangible personal property of any kind, in or used in the operation of or in connection with, pertaining to, arising from, or constituting, any of the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the form of a perfected security interest if the security interest in such property can be perfected by the filing of a financing statement, fixture filing, or similar document pursuant to the law governing the perfection of such security interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to origination of the CRE loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the current financial condition of the borrower and each operating affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtained a written appraisal of the real property securing the loan that:
</P>
<P>(A) Had an effective date not more than six months prior to the origination date of the loan by a competent and appropriately State-certified or State-licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(B) Conforms to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the USPAP and the appraisal requirements 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Federal banking agencies; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 CFR part 34, subpart C (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E, and 12 CFR part 225, subpart G (Board); and 12 CFR part 323 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Provides an “as is” opinion of the market value of the real property, which includes an income approach; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See USPAP, Standard 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Qualified the borrower for the CRE loan based on a monthly payment amount derived from level monthly payments consisting of both principal and interest (at the fully-indexed rate) over the term of the loan, not exceeding 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multi-family property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducted an environmental risk assessment to gain environmental information about the property securing the loan and took appropriate steps to mitigate any environmental liability determined to exist based on this assessment;
</P>
<P>(v) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections (including operating income projections for the property);
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Determined that based on the two years' actual performance immediately preceding the origination of the loan, the borrower would have had:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(B) If the borrower did not own the property for any part of the last two years prior to origination, the calculation of the DSC ratio, for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, shall include the property's operating income for any portion of the two-year period during which the borrower did not own the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Determined that, based on two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the origination date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the CRE loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules to the servicer on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly, including information on existing, maturing and new leasing or rent-roll activity for the property securing the loan, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose prohibitions on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest with respect to the collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section or of any other collateral consisting of fixtures, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment other than any such fixture, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment that is obsolete or surplus; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of any borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor unless such borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor shall have given the holder of the loan at least 30 days advance notice and, pursuant to applicable law governing perfection and priority, the holder of the loan is able to take all steps necessary to continue its perfection and priority during such 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Require each borrower and each operating affiliate to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for an amount no less than the replacement cost of the property improvements, and names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or lender loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Protect the security interest and the enforceability and priority thereof in the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and defend such collateral against claims adverse to the originator's or any subsequent holder's interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perfect the security interest of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any other collateral for the CRE loan to the extent that such security interest is required by this section to be perfected;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer, to inspect any collateral for the CRE loan and the books and records of the borrower or other party relating to any collateral for the CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Comply with all environmental, zoning, building code, licensing and other laws, regulations, agreements, covenants, use restrictions, and proffers applicable to collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Comply with leases, franchise agreements, condominium declarations, and other documents and agreements relating to the operation of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and to not modify any material terms and conditions of such agreements over the term of the loan without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer; and
</P>
<P>(H) Not materially alter collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer.
</P>
<P>(4) The loan documentation for the CRE loan prohibits the borrower and each operating affiliate from obtaining a loan secured by a junior lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the principal amount of such junior lien loan, plus the principal amount of all other loans secured by collateral described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, does not exceed the applicable CLTV ratio in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, based on the appraisal at origination of such junior lien loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such loan is a purchase money obligation that financed the acquisition of machinery or equipment and the borrower or operating affiliate (as applicable) pledges such machinery and equipment as additional collateral for the CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(5) At origination, the applicable loan-to-value ratios for the loan are:
</P>
<P>(i) LTV less than or equal to 65 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 70 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) LTV less than or equal to 60 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 65 percent, if an appraisal used to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section used a direct capitalization rate, and that rate is less than or equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The 10-year swap rate, as reported in the Federal Reserve's H.15 Report (or any successor report) as of the date concurrent with the effective date of such appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(B) 300 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the appraisal required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section included a direct capitalization method using an overall capitalization rate, that rate must be disclosed to potential investors in the securitization.
</P>
<P>(6) All loan payments required to be made under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) to fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multifamily loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than monthly over a term of at least ten years.
</P>
<P>(7) Under the terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Any maturity of the note occurs no earlier than ten years following the date of origination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is not permitted to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The interest rate on the loan is:
</P>
<P>(A) A fixed interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that effectively results in a fixed interest rate; or
</P>
<P>(C) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that established a cap on the interest rate for the term of the loan, and the loan meets the underwriting criteria in paragraphs (a)(2)(vi) and (vii) of this section using the maximum interest rate allowable under the interest rate cap.
</P>
<P>(8) The originator does not establish an interest reserve at origination to fund all or part of a payment on the loan.
</P>
<P>(9) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying CRE loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 43.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any; and
</P>
<P>(11) Within two weeks of the closing of the CRE loan by its originator or, if sooner, prior to the transfer of such CRE loan to the issuing entity, the originator shall have obtained a UCC lien search from the jurisdiction of organization of the borrower and each operating affiliate, that does not report, as of the time that the security interest of the originator in the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section was perfected, other higher priority liens of record on any property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, other than purchase money security interests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 43.15 with respect to a qualifying CRE loan and it is subsequently determined that the CRE loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the CRE loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section is not material; or;
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) or (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, restoring conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.18   Underwriting standards for qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the automobile loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented that within 30 days of the date of origination:
</P>
<P>(A) The borrower was not currently 30 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(B) Within the previous 24 months, the borrower has not been 60 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(C) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Been a debtor in a proceeding commenced under Chapter 7 (Liquidation), Chapter 11 (Reorganization), Chapter 12 (Family Farmer or Family Fisherman plan), or Chapter 13 (Individual Debt Adjustment) of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Been the subject of any federal or State judicial judgment for the collection of any unpaid debt;
</P>
<P>(D) Within the previous 36 months, no one-to-four family property owned by the borrower has been the subject of any foreclosure, deed in lieu of foreclosure, or short sale; or
</P>
<P>(E) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not had any personal property repossessed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determined and documented that the borrower has at least 24 months of credit history; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined and documented that, upon the origination of the loan, the borrower's DTI ratio is less than or equal to 36 percent.
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of making the determination under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, the originator must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Verify and document all income of the borrower that the originator includes in the borrower's effective monthly income (using payroll stubs, tax returns, profit and loss statements, or other similar documentation); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On or after the date of the borrower's written application and prior to origination, obtain a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintain files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p)) and verify that all outstanding debts reported in the borrower's credit report are incorporated into the calculation of the borrower's DTI ratio under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) An originator will be deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator, no more than 30 days before the closing of the loan, obtains a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p));
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the information in such credit report, the borrower meets all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and no information in a credit report subsequently obtained by the originator before the closing of the loan contains contrary information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator obtains electronic or hard copies of the credit report.
</P>
<P>(3) At closing of the automobile loan, the borrower makes a down payment from the borrower's personal funds and trade-in allowance, if any, that is at least equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The full cost of the vehicle title, tax, and registration fees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dealer-imposed fees;
</P>
<P>(iii) The full cost of any additional warranties, insurance or other products purchased in connection with the purchase of the vehicle; and
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 percent of the vehicle purchase price.
</P>
<P>(4) The originator records a first lien securing the loan on the purchased vehicle in accordance with State law.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of the loan agreement provide a maturity date for the loan that does not exceed the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) Six years from the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 years minus the difference between the current model year and the vehicle's model year.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify a fixed rate of interest for the life of the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for a level monthly payment amount that fully amortizes the amount financed over the loan term;
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not permit the borrower to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower to make the first payment on the automobile loan within 45 days of the loan's contract date.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current; and
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying automobile loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 43.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 43.15 with respect to a qualifying automobile loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the automobile loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than ninety (90) days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.19   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Community-focused residential mortgage</I> means a residential mortgage exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (v) of the CFPB's Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)).
</P>
<P><I>First pay class</I> means a class of ABS interests for which all interests in the class are entitled to the same priority of payment and that, at the time of closing of the transaction, is entitled to repayments of principal and payments of interest prior to or pro-rata with all other classes of securities collateralized by the same pool of first-lien residential mortgages, until such class has no principal or notional balance remaining.
</P>
<P><I>Inverse floater</I> means an ABS interest issued as part of a securitization transaction for which interest or other income is payable to the holder based on a rate or formula that varies inversely to a reference rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan</I> means a mortgage loan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured by a dwelling (as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19)) that is owner occupied and contains three-to-four housing units;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is deemed to be for business purposes for purposes of Regulation Z under 12 CFR part 1026, supplement I, paragraph 3(a)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise meets all of the requirements to qualify as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) and (f) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(e) and (f)) as if the loan were a covered transaction under that section.
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S. Government-backed securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets that are insured or guaranteed (in whole or in part) as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States, and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves the issuance of asset-backed securities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Are insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Are collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets or interests in such assets, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain agricultural loan securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by loans or other assets made, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by any institution that is subject to the supervision of the Farm Credit Administration, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State and municipal securitizations.</I> Any asset-backed security that is a security issued or guaranteed by any State, or by any political subdivision of a State, or by any public instrumentality of a State that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of section 3(a)(2) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified scholarship funding bonds.</I> Any asset-backed security that meets the definition of a qualified scholarship funding bond, as set forth in section 150(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 150(d)(2)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pass-through resecuritizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by asset-backed securities:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is structured so that it involves the issuance of only a single class of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for the pass-through of all principal and interest payments received on the underlying asset-backed securities (net of expenses of the issuing entity) to the holders of such class.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First-pay-class securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by first-pay classes of asset-backed securities collateralized by first-lien residential mortgages on properties located in any state:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not provide for any ABS interest issued in the securitization transaction to share in realized principal losses other than pro rata with all other ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction based on the current unpaid principal balance of such ABS interests at the time the loss is realized;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is structured to reallocate prepayment risk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not reallocate credit risk (other than as a consequence of reallocation of prepayment risk); and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not include any inverse floater or similarly structured ABS interest.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Seasoned loans.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by seasoned loans that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The loans have not been modified since origination; and
</P>
<P>(B) None of the loans have been delinquent for 30 days or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a <I>seasoned loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of five years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 25 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, any residential mortgage loan that has been outstanding and performing for a period of at least seven years shall be deemed a seasoned loan.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to all other classes of asset-backed securities, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of at least two years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 33 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certain public utility securitizations.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction where the asset-back securities issued in the transaction are secured by the intangible property right to collect charges for the recovery of specified costs and such other assets, if any, of an issuing entity that is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by an investor owned utility company that is subject to the regulatory authority of a State public utility commission or other appropriate State agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specified cost</I> means any cost identified by a State legislature as appropriate for recovery through securitization pursuant to specified cost recovery legislation; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Specified cost recovery legislation</I> means legislation enacted by a State that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Authorizes the investor owned utility company to apply for, and authorizes the public utility commission or other appropriate State agency to issue, a financing order determining the amount of specified costs the utility will be allowed to recover;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides that pursuant to a financing order, the utility acquires an intangible property right to charge, collect, and receive amounts necessary to provide for the full recovery of the specified costs determined to be recoverable, and assures that the charges are non-bypassable and will be paid by customers within the utility's historic service territory who receive utility goods or services through the utility's transmission and distribution system, even if those customers elect to purchase these goods or services from a third party; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Guarantees that neither the State nor any of its agencies has the authority to rescind or amend the financing order, to revise the amount of specified costs, or in any way to reduce or impair the value of the intangible property right, except as may be contemplated by periodic adjustments authorized by the specified cost recovery legislation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for securitizations of assets issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized solely by obligations issued by the United States or an agency of the United States and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralized solely by assets that are fully insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States (other than those referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the United States or any agency of the United States;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation securitizations.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction that is sponsored by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting as conservator or receiver under any provision of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reduced requirement for certain student loan securitizations.</I> The 5 percent risk retention requirement set forth in § 43.4 shall be modified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by student loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan Program (“FFELP loans”) that are guaranteed as to 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 0 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans that are guaranteed as to at least 98 percent but less than 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community-focused lending securitizations.</I> (1) This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by community-focused residential mortgages and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) For any securitization transaction that includes both community-focused residential mortgages and residential mortgages that are not exempt from risk retention under this part, the percent of risk retention required under § 43.4(a) is reduced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the community-focused residential mortgages to the total unpaid principal balance of residential mortgages that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the pool assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions for securitizations of certain three-to-four unit mortgage loans.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages as defined in § 43.13, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor with respect to the securitization provides the certifications set forth in § 43.13(b)(4) with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages, or servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor of the securitization complies with the repurchase requirements in § 43.13(c) with respect to a loan if, after closing, it is determined that the loan does not meet all of the criteria to be either a qualified residential mortgage or a qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Securitization transactions involving the issuance of asset-backed securities that are either issued, insured, or guaranteed by, or are collateralized by obligations issued by, or loans that are issued, insured, or guaranteed by, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or a Federal home loan bank shall not on that basis qualify for exemption under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.20   Safe harbor for certain foreign-related transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>U.S. person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any natural person resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;
</P>
<P>(C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The estate is governed by foreign law;
</P>
<P>(C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;
</P>
<P>(F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:
</P>
<P>(i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evasions prohibited.</I> In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.21   Additional exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization transactions.</I> The federal agencies with rulewriting authority under section 15G(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)) with respect to the type of assets involved may jointly provide a total or partial exemption of any securitization transaction as such agencies determine may be appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions, exemptions, and adjustments.</I> The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, may jointly adopt or issue exemptions, exceptions or adjustments to the requirements of this part, including exemptions, exceptions or adjustments for classes of institutions or assets in accordance with section 15G(e) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 43.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.38.4.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 43.22   Periodic review of the QRM definition, exempted three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, and community-focused residential mortgage exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, shall commence a review of the definition of qualified residential mortgage in § 43.13, a review of the community-focused residential mortgage exemption in § 43.19(f), and a review of the exemption for qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans in § 43.19(g):
</P>
<P>(1) No later than four years after the effective date of the rule (as it relates to securitizers and originators of asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages), five years following the completion of such initial review, and every five years thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(2) At any time, upon the request of any Federal banking agency, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency or the Department of Housing and Urban Development, specifying the reason for such request, including as a result of any amendment to the definition of qualified mortgage or changes in the residential housing market.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal banking agencies, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the commencement of a review and, in the case of a review commenced under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the reason an agency is requesting such review. After completion of any review, but no later than six months after the publication of the notice announcing the review, unless extended by the agencies, the agencies shall jointly publish a notice disclosing the determination of their review. If the agencies determine to amend the definition of qualified residential mortgage, the agencies shall complete any required rulemaking within 12 months of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of such notice disclosing the determination of their review, unless extended by the agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 44—PROPRIETARY TRADING AND CERTAIN INTERESTS IN AND RELATIONSHIPS WITH COVERED FUNDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 27 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 1, 24, 92a, 93a, 161, 1461, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1813(q), 1818, 1851, 3101 3102, 3108, 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and relationship to other authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the OCC under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1851).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act establishes prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and on investments in or relationships with covered funds by certain banking entities, including national banks, Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks, Federal savings associations, and certain subsidiaries thereof. This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and on investments in or relationships with covered funds, and explaining the statute's requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act with respect to banking entities for which the OCC is authorized to issue regulations under section 13(b)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(b)(2)) and take actions under section 13(e) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(e)). These include national banks, Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, Federal savings associations, Federal savings banks, and any of their respective subsidiaries (except a subsidiary for which there is a different primary financial regulatory agency, as that term is defined in this part), but do not include such entities to the extent they are not within the definition of banking entity in § 44.2(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to other authorities.</I> Except as otherwise provided under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, the prohibitions and restrictions under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act and this part shall apply to the activities and investments of a banking entity identified in paragraph (c) of this section, even if such activities and investments are authorized for the banking entity under other applicable provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part limits in any way the authority of the OCC to impose on a banking entity identified in paragraph (c) of this section additional requirements or restrictions with respect to any activity, investment, or relationship covered under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part, or additional penalties for violation of this part provided under any other applicable provision of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35019, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank holding company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Banking entity.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, <I>banking entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any affiliate or subsidiary of any entity described in paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Banking entity does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A covered fund that is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A portfolio company held under the authority contained in section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H), (I)), or any portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), so long as the portfolio company or portfolio concern is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC acting in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CFTC</I> means the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Derivative.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, <I>derivative</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale of a commodity, that is not an excluded commodity, for deferred shipment or delivery that is intended to be physically settled;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)) or foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25));
</P>
<P>(iv) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(C)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(C)(i));
</P>
<P>(v) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in a commodity other than foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(D)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(D)(i)); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any transaction authorized under section 19 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 23(a) or (b));
</P>
<P>(2) A derivative does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any consumer, commercial, or other agreement, contract, or transaction that the CFTC and SEC have further defined by joint regulation, interpretation, or other action as not within the definition of swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any identified banking product, as defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee</I> includes a member of the immediate family of the employee.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Excluded commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(19) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(19)).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(o) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(o)), but does not include a foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that is organized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, or the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of any country other than the United States that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under foreign insurance law.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>General account</I> means all of the assets of an insurance company except those allocated to one or more separate accounts.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Insurance company</I> means a company that is organized as an insurance company, primarily and predominantly engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, subject to supervision as such by a state insurance regulator or a foreign insurance regulator, and not operated for the purpose of evading the provisions of section 13 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1851).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)), but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution that is described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution if it has, and if every company that controls it has, total consolidated assets of $10 billion or less and total trading assets and trading liabilities, on a consolidated basis, that are 5 percent or less of total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limited trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, is less than $1 billion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC has not determined pursuant to § 44.20(g) or (h) of this part that the banking entity should not be treated as having limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity other than a banking entity described in paragraph (s)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States, including branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a U.S. branch or agency of the foreign banking organization, for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Loan</I> means any loan, lease, extension of credit, or secured or unsecured receivable that is not a security or derivative.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Moderate trading assets and liabilities</I> means, with respect to a banking entity, that the banking entity does not have significant trading assets and liabilities or limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Primary financial regulatory agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(12) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5301(12)).
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Purchase</I> includes any contract to buy, purchase, or otherwise acquire. For security futures products, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, purchase includes the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Qualifying foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization that qualifies as such under § 211.23(a), (c), or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c), or (e)).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Sale</I> and <I>sell</I> each include any contract to sell or otherwise dispose of. For security futures products, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, such terms include the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Security</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(10) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10)).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Security-based swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(71) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Security future</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(55) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(55)).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Separate account</I> means an account established and maintained by an insurance company in connection with one or more insurance contracts to hold assets that are legally segregated from the insurance company's other assets, under which income, gains, and losses, whether or not realized, from assets allocated to such account, are, in accordance with the applicable contract, credited to or charged against such account without regard to other income, gains, or losses of the insurance company.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Significant trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, equals or exceeds $20 billion; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC has determined pursuant to § 44.20(h) of this part that the banking entity should be treated as having significant trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity, other than a banking entity described in paragraph (ee)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States as well as branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a branch or agency of the foreign banking entity operating, located or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>State insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of a State that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under State insurance law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 1(a)(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62093, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Proprietary Trading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.3   Prohibition on proprietary trading.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not engage in proprietary trading. <I>Proprietary trading</I> means engaging as principal for the trading account of the banking entity in any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of trading account.</I> (1) <I>Trading account.</I> Trading account means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments principally for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging one or more of the positions resulting from the purchases or sales of financial instruments described in this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments that are both market risk capital rule covered positions and trading positions (or hedges of other market risk capital rule covered positions), if the banking entity, or any affiliate with which the banking entity is consolidated for regulatory reporting purposes, calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments, if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is licensed or registered, or is required to be licensed or registered, to engage in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities that require the banking entity to be licensed or registered as such; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is engaged in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer outside of the United States, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities of such business.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading account application for certain banking entities.</I> (i) A banking entity that is subject to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account is not subject to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not calculate risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule and is not a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule may elect to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph. A banking entity that elects under this section to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph is not required to apply paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consistency of account election for certain banking entities.</I> (i) Any election or change to an election under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must apply to the electing banking entity and all of its wholly owned subsidiaries. The primary financial regulatory agency of a banking entity that is affiliated with but is not a wholly owned subsidiary of such electing banking entity may require that the banking entity be subject to this uniform application requirement if the primary financial regulatory agency determines that it is necessary to prevent evasion of the requirements of this part after notice and opportunity for response as provided in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not elect under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to be subject to the trading account definition in (b)(1)(ii) of this section may continue to apply the trading account definition in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for one year from the date on which it becomes, or becomes a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes with, a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebuttable presumption for certain purchases and sales.</I> The purchase (or sale) of a financial instrument by a banking entity shall be presumed not to be for the trading account of the banking entity under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section if the banking entity holds the financial instrument for sixty days or longer and does not transfer substantially all of the risk of the financial instrument within sixty days of the purchase (or sale).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial instrument.</I> (1) <I>Financial instrument</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A security, including an option on a security;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative, including an option on a derivative; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery, or option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial instrument does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A commodity that is not:
</P>
<P>(A) An excluded commodity (other than foreign exchange or currency);
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative;
</P>
<P>(C) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(D) An option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreign exchange or currency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proprietary trading.</I> Proprietary trading does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a repurchase or reverse repurchase agreement pursuant to which the banking entity has simultaneously agreed, in writing, to both purchase and sell a stated asset, at stated prices, and on stated dates or on demand with the same counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a transaction in which the banking entity lends or borrows a security temporarily to or from another party pursuant to a written securities lending agreement under which the lender retains the economic interests of an owner of such security, and has the right to terminate the transaction and to recall the loaned security on terms agreed by the parties;
</P>
<P>(3) Any purchase or sale of a security, foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)), foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)), or cross-currency swap by a banking entity for the purpose of liquidity management in accordance with a documented liquidity management plan of the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically contemplates and authorizes the particular financial instruments to be used for liquidity management purposes, the amount, types, and risks of these financial instruments that are consistent with liquidity management, and the liquidity circumstances in which the particular financial instruments may or must be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires that any purchase or sale of financial instruments contemplated and authorized by the plan be principally for the purpose of managing the liquidity of the banking entity, and not for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging a position taken for such short-term purposes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requires that any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes be highly liquid and limited to financial instruments the market, credit, and other risks of which the banking entity does not reasonably expect to give rise to appreciable profits or losses as a result of short-term price movements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Limits any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes, together with any other financial instruments purchased or sold for such purposes, to an amount that is consistent with the banking entity's near-term funding needs, including deviations from normal operations of the banking entity or any affiliate thereof, as estimated and documented pursuant to methods specified in the plan;
</P>
<P>(v) Includes written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis, and independent testing to ensure that the purchase and sale of financial instruments that are not permitted under § 44.6(a) or (b) of this subpart are for the purpose of liquidity management and in accordance with the liquidity management plan described in this paragraph (d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is consistent with the OCC's regulatory requirements regarding liquidity management;
</P>
<P>(4) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency in connection with clearing financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(5) Any excluded clearing activities by a banking entity that is a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(6) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an existing delivery obligation of the banking entity or its customers, including to prevent or close out a failure to deliver, in connection with delivery, clearing, or settlement activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an obligation of the banking entity in connection with a judicial, administrative, self-regulatory organization, or arbitration proceeding;
</P>
<P>(7) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian;
</P>
<P>(8) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the purchase or sale is made directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity;
</P>
<P>(9) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the financial instrument as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such instrument for longer than such period permitted by the OCC;
</P>
<P>(10) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that was made in error by a banking entity in the course of conducting a permitted or excluded activity or is a subsequent transaction to correct such an error;
</P>
<P>(11) Contemporaneously entering into a customer-driven swap or customer-driven security-based swap and a matched swap or security-based swap if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity retains no more than minimal price risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity is not a registered dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer;
</P>
<P>(12) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that the banking entity uses to hedge mortgage servicing rights or mortgage servicing assets in accordance with a documented hedging strategy; or
</P>
<P>(13) Any purchase or sale of a financial instrument that does not meet the definition of trading asset or trading liability under the applicable reporting form for a banking entity as of January 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definition of other terms related to proprietary trading.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Anonymous</I> means that each party to a purchase or sale is unaware of the identity of the other party(ies) to the purchase or sale.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(23) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(9) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(9)), except that a commodity does not include any security;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery</I> means a contract of sale (as that term is defined in section 1a(13) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(13)) for future delivery (as that term is defined in section 1a(27) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(27))).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A derivatives clearing organization registered under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is exempt from the registration requirements under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A foreign derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is permitted to clear for a foreign board of trade that is registered with the CFTC.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exchange,</I> unless the context otherwise requires, means any designated contract market, swap execution facility, or foreign board of trade registered with the CFTC, or, for purposes of securities or security-based swaps, an exchange, as defined under section 3(a)(1) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(1)), or security-based swap execution facility, as defined under section 3(a)(77) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(77)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Excluded clearing activities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to customer transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, a clearing agency, or a designated financial market utility, any purchase or sale necessary to correct trading errors made by or on behalf of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of the default or threatened default of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any purchase or sale that is required by the rules or procedures of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility to mitigate the risk to the clearing agency, derivatives clearing organization, or designated financial market utility that would result from the clearing by a member of security-based swaps that reference the member or an affiliate of the member.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as in section 803(4) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462(4)).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Market risk capital rule covered position and trading position</I> means a financial instrument that meets the criteria to be a covered position and a trading position, as those terms are respectively defined, without regard to whether the financial instrument is reported as a covered position or trading position on any applicable regulatory reporting forms:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a banking entity that is a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or insured depository institution, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a banking entity that is affiliated with a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, other than a banking entity to which a market risk capital rule is applicable, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the affiliated bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Market risk capital rule</I> means the market risk capital rule that is contained in 12 CFR part 3, subpart F, with respect to a banking entity for which the OCC is the primary financial regulatory agency, 12 CFR part 217 with respect to a banking entity for which the Board is the primary financial regulatory agency, or 12 CFR part 324 with respect to a banking entity for which the FDIC is the primary financial regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Municipal security</I> means a security that is a direct obligation of or issued by, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions thereof.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Trading desk</I> means a unit of organization of a banking entity that purchases or sells financial instruments for the trading account of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that is:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Structured by the banking entity to implement a well-defined business strategy;
</P>
<P>(B) Organized to ensure appropriate setting, monitoring, and management review of the desk's trading and hedging limits, current and potential future loss exposures, and strategies; and
</P>
<P>(C) Characterized by a clearly defined unit that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Engages in coordinated trading activity with a unified approach to its key elements;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Operates subject to a common and calibrated set of risk metrics, risk levels, and joint trading limits;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Submits compliance reports and other information as a unit for monitoring by management; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Books its trades together; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, or a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, established by the banking entity or its affiliate for purposes of market risk capital calculations under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62095, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.4   Permitted underwriting and market making-related activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted underwriting activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The underwriting activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is acting as an underwriter for a distribution of securities and the trading desk's underwriting position is related to such distribution;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The amount and type of the securities in the trading desk's underwriting position are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) Reasonable efforts are made to sell or otherwise reduce the underwriting position within a reasonable period, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The products, instruments or exposures each trading desk may purchase, sell, or manage as part of its underwriting activities;
</P>
<P>(B) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(D) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(B) and (C) of this section by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (a) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in the activity described in this paragraph (a) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of distribution.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), a distribution of securities means:
</P>
<P>(i) An offering of securities, whether or not subject to registration under the Securities Act of 1933, that is distinguished from ordinary trading transactions by the presence of special selling efforts and selling methods; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An offering of securities made pursuant to an effective registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of underwriter.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>underwriter</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who has agreed with an issuer or selling security holder to:
</P>
<P>(A) Purchase securities from the issuer or selling security holder for distribution;
</P>
<P>(B) Engage in a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(C) Manage a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who has agreed to participate or is participating in a distribution of such securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of selling security holder.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>selling security holder</I> means any person, other than an issuer, on whose behalf a distribution is made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definition of underwriting position.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>underwriting position</I> means the long or short positions in one or more securities held by a banking entity or its affiliate, and managed by a particular trading desk, in connection with a particular distribution of securities for which such banking entity or affiliate is acting as an underwriter.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis, refer to market participants that may transact with the banking entity in connection with a particular distribution for which the banking entity is acting as underwriter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Market making-related activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted market making-related activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's market making-related activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The market making-related activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The trading desk that establishes and manages the financial exposure, routinely stands ready to purchase and sell one or more types of financial instruments related to its financial exposure, and is willing and available to quote, purchase and sell, or otherwise enter into long and short positions in those types of financial instruments for its own account, in commercially reasonable amounts and throughout market cycles on a basis appropriate for the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The trading desk's market-making related activities are designed not to exceed, on an ongoing basis, the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (b), including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial instruments each trading desk stands ready to purchase and sell in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The actions the trading desk will take to demonstrably reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate promptly the risks of its financial exposure consistent with the limits required under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section; the products, instruments, and exposures each trading desk may use for risk management purposes; the techniques and strategies each trading desk may use to manage the risks of its market making-related activities and positions; and the process, strategies, and personnel responsible for ensuring that the actions taken by the trading desk to mitigate these risks are and continue to be effective;
</P>
<P>(C) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(E) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(C) and (D) by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (b) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in activity described in this paragraph (b) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis refer to market participants that make use of the banking entity's market making-related services by obtaining such services, responding to quotations, or entering into a continuing relationship with respect to such services, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) A trading desk or other organizational unit of another banking entity is not a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk if that other entity has trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more as measured in accordance with the methodology described in § 44.2(ee) of this part, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The trading desk documents how and why a particular trading desk or other organizational unit of the entity should be treated as a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase or sale by the trading desk is conducted anonymously on an exchange or similar trading facility that permits trading on behalf of a broad range of market participants.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of financial exposure.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>financial exposure</I> means the aggregate risks of one or more financial instruments and any associated loans, commodities, or foreign exchange or currency, held by a banking entity or its affiliate and managed by a particular trading desk as part of the trading desk's market making-related activities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of market-maker positions.</I> For the purposes of this section, <I>market-maker positions</I> means all of the positions in the financial instruments for which the trading desk stands ready to make a market in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, that are managed by the trading desk, including the trading desk's open positions or exposures arising from open transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Internal limits.</I> (i) A banking entity shall be presumed to meet the requirement in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section with respect to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument if the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces the internal limits for the relevant trading desk as described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to underwriting activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's underwriting activities, on the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risk of its underwriting position;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its underwriting position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Period of time a security may be held.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to market making-related activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's market-making related activities, that address the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risks of its market-maker positions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Amount, types, and risks of the products, instruments, and exposures the trading desk may use for risk management purposes;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its financial exposure; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Period of time a financial instrument may be held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisory review and oversight.</I> The limits described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be subject to supervisory review and oversight by the OCC on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit breaches and increases.</I> (i) With respect to any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, a banking entity shall maintain and make available to the OCC upon request records regarding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any limit that is exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any temporary or permanent increase to any limit(s), in each case in the form and manner as directed by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a breach or increase of any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall continue to be available only if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Takes action as promptly as possible after a breach to bring the trading desk into compliance; and
</P>
<P>(B) Follows established written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that exceeds a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebutting the presumption.</I> The presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section may be rebutted by the OCC if the OCC determines, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and based on all relevant facts and circumstances, that a trading desk is engaging in activity that is not based on the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties. The OCC's rebuttal of the presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62096, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.5   Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity in connection with and related to individual or aggregated positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity and designed to reduce the specific risks to the banking entity in connection with and related to such positions, contracts, or other holdings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures regarding the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging, including documentation indicating what positions, contracts or other holdings a particular trading desk may use in its risk-mitigating hedging activities, as well as position and aging limits with respect to such positions, contracts or other holdings;
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(C) The conduct of analysis and independent testing designed to ensure that the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging may reasonably be expected to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risk(s) being hedged;
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is conducted in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is consistent with the written hedging policies and procedures required under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks that develop over time from the risk-mitigating hedging activities undertaken under this section and the underlying positions, contracts, and other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the underlying and hedging positions, contracts and other holdings of the banking entity and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Requires ongoing recalibration of the hedging activity by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The compensation arrangements of persons performing risk-mitigating hedging activities are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that does not have significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if the risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(i) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject, as appropriate, to ongoing recalibration by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation requirement.</I> (1) A banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, unless the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, with respect to any purchase or sale of financial instruments made in reliance on this section for risk-mitigating hedging purposes that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the hedging activity is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) Established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the purchases or sales are designed to reduce, but that is effected through a financial instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy that is not specifically identified in the trading desk's written policies and procedures established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section or under § 44.4(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this subpart as a product, instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy such trading desk may use for hedging; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Established to hedge aggregated positions across two or more trading desks.
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with any purchase or sale identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking entity must, at a minimum, and contemporaneously with the purchase or sale, document:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific, identifiable risk(s) of the identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity that the purchase or sale is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific risk-mitigating strategy that the purchase or sale is designed to fulfill; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The trading desk or other business unit that is establishing and responsible for the hedge.
</P>
<P>(3) A banking entity must create and retain records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (c) for a period that is no less than five years in a form that allows the banking entity to promptly produce such records to the OCC on request, or such longer period as required under other law or this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The financial instrument purchased or sold is identified on a written list of pre-approved financial instruments that are commonly used by the trading desk for the specific type of hedging activity for which the financial instrument is being purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the financial instrument is purchased or sold, the hedging activity (including the purchase or sale of the financial instrument) complies with written, pre-approved limits for the trading desk purchasing or selling the financial instrument for hedging activities undertaken for one or more other trading desks. The limits shall be appropriate for the:
</P>
<P>(A) Size, types, and risks of the hedging activities commonly undertaken by the trading desk;
</P>
<P>(B) Financial instruments purchased and sold for hedging activities by the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>(C) Levels and duration of the risk exposures being hedged.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62098, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.6   Other permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted trading in domestic government obligations.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale by a banking entity of a financial instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation, participation, or other instrument of, or issued or guaranteed by, an agency of the United States, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, a Federal Home Loan Bank, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or a Farm Credit System institution chartered under and subject to the provisions of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) An obligation of any State or any political subdivision thereof, including any municipal security; or
</P>
<P>(4) An obligation of the FDIC, or any entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired or held by the FDIC in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permitted trading in foreign government obligations</I>—(1) <I>Affiliates of foreign banking entities in the United States.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of such foreign sovereign, by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is organized under or is directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of a foreign sovereign and is not directly or indirectly controlled by a top-tier banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign banking entity referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale as principal is not made by an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign affiliates of a U.S. banking entity.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign, by a foreign entity that is owned or controlled by a banking entity organized or established under the laws of the United States or any State, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign entity is a foreign bank, as defined in section 211.2(j) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2(j)), or is regulated by the foreign sovereign as a securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign entity is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The financial instrument is owned by the foreign entity and is not financed by an affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted trading on behalf of customers</I>—(1) <I>Fiduciary transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity does not have or retain beneficial ownership of the financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as riskless principal in a transaction in which the banking entity, after receiving an order to purchase (or sell) a financial instrument from a customer, purchases (or sells) the financial instrument for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted trading by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity that is an insurance company or an affiliate of an insurance company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate purchases or sells the financial instruments solely for:
</P>
<P>(i) The general account of the insurance company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate account established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase or sale is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws, regulations, and written guidance of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law, regulation, or written guidance described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the covered banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permitted trading activities of foreign banking entities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase or sale by the banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) A purchase or sale by a banking entity is permitted for purposes of this paragraph (e) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity engaging as principal in the purchase or sale (including relevant personnel) is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to purchase or sell as principal is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to the instruments purchased or sold, is not accounted for as principal directly or on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (e), a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is considered to be located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permitted trading activities of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument by a qualifying foreign excluded fund. For purposes of this paragraph (f), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(3) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity's acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 44.13(b);
</P>
<P>(4) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62099, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46496, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.7   Limitations on permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 44.4 through 44.6 if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 44.8-44.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.2.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 44.8-44.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Covered Funds Activities and Investments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.10   Prohibition on acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in and having certain relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not, as principal, directly or indirectly, acquire or retain any ownership interest in or sponsor a covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not include acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in a covered fund by a banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian, so long as;
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the ownership interest is held or controlled directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the ownership interest as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such ownership interest for longer than such period permitted by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On behalf of customers as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity for a customer that is not a covered fund, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, the customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, covered fund means:
</P>
<P>(i) An issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), <I>but for</I> section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(1) or (7));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commodity pool under section 1a(10) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(10)) for which:
</P>
<P>(A) The commodity pool operator has claimed an exemption under 17 CFR 4.7; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) A commodity pool operator is registered with the CFTC as a commodity pool operator in connection with the operation of the commodity pool;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Substantially all participation units of the commodity pool are owned by qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Participation units of the commodity pool have not been publicly offered to persons who are not qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); or
</P>
<P>(iii) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, an entity that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside the United States and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities; and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Has as its sponsor that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has issued an ownership interest that is owned directly or indirectly by that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer shall not be deemed to be a covered fund under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section if, were the issuer subject to U.S. securities laws, the issuer could rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine otherwise, a covered fund does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Foreign public funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is authorized to offer and sell ownership interests, and such interests are offered and sold, through one or more public offerings.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and any issuer for which such banking entity acts as sponsor, the sponsoring banking entity may not rely on the exemption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for such issuer unless more than 75 percent of the ownership interests in the issuer are sold to persons other than:
</P>
<P>(A) Such sponsoring banking entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Such issuer;
</P>
<P>(C) Affiliates of such sponsoring banking entity or such issuer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Directors and senior executive officers as defined in § 225.71(c) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.71(c)) of such entities.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the term “public offering” means a distribution (as defined in § 44.4(a)(3)) of securities in any jurisdiction outside the United States to investors, including retail investors, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The distribution is subject to substantive disclosure and retail investor protection laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an issuer for which the banking entity serves as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, commodity pool operator, or sponsor, the distribution complies with all applicable requirements in the jurisdiction in which such distribution is being made;
</P>
<P>(C) The distribution does not restrict availability to investors having a minimum level of net worth or net investment assets; and
</P>
<P>(D) The issuer has filed or submitted, with the appropriate regulatory authority in such jurisdiction, offering disclosure documents that are publicly available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholly-owned subsidiaries.</I> An entity, all of the outstanding ownership interests of which are owned directly or indirectly by the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to five percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests, less any amounts outstanding under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, may be held by employees or directors of the banking entity or such affiliate (including former employees or directors if their ownership interest was acquired while employed by or in the service of the banking entity); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be held by a third party if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by the third party for the purpose of establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture between a banking entity or any of its affiliates and one or more unaffiliated persons, provided that the joint venture:
</P>
<P>(i) Is composed of no more than 10 unaffiliated co-venturers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is in the business of engaging in activities that are permissible for the banking entity or affiliate, other than investing in securities for resale or other disposition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Acquisition vehicles.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) Formed solely for the purpose of engaging in a <I>bona fide</I> merger or acquisition transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That exists only for such period as necessary to effectuate the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Foreign pension or retirement funds.</I> A plan, fund, or program providing pension, retirement, or similar benefits that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Organized and administered outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) A broad-based plan for employees or citizens that is subject to regulation as a pension, retirement, or similar plan under the laws of the jurisdiction in which the plan, fund, or program is organized and administered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Established for the benefit of citizens or residents of one or more foreign sovereigns or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Insurance company separate accounts.</I> A separate account, provided that no banking entity other than the insurance company participates in the account's profits and losses.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bank owned life insurance.</I> A separate account that is used solely for the purpose of allowing one or more banking entities to purchase a life insurance policy for which the banking entity or entities is beneficiary, provided that no banking entity that purchases the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the investment decisions regarding the underlying assets or holdings of the separate account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Participates in the profits and losses of the separate account other than in compliance with applicable requirements regarding bank owned life insurance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loan securitizations</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An issuing entity for asset-backed securities that satisfies all the conditions of this paragraph (c)(8) and the assets or holdings of which are composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 44.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to holders of such securities and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the loans, provided that each asset that is a security (other than special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section) meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Debt securities, other than asset-backed securities and convertible securities, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The aggregate value of such debt securities does not exceed five percent of the aggregate value of loans held under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(A) of this section, cash and cash equivalents held under paragraph (c)(8)(iii)(A) of this section, and debt securities held under this paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The aggregate value of the loans, cash and cash equivalents, and debt securities for purposes of this paragraph is calculated at par value at the most recent time any such debt security is acquired, except that the issuing entity may instead determine the value of any such loan, cash equivalent, or debt security based on its fair market value if:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The issuing entity is required to use the fair market value of such assets for purposes of calculating compliance with concentration limitations or other similar calculations under its transaction agreements, and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The issuing entity's valuation methodology values similarly situated assets consistently.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impermissible assets.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(8), except as permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, the assets or holdings of the issuing entity shall not include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A security, including an asset-backed security, or an interest in an equity or debt security other than as permitted in paragraphs (c)(8)(iii), (iv), or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative, other than a derivative that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) A commodity forward contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Permitted securities.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(8)(ii)(A) of this section, the issuing entity may hold securities, other than debt securities permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, if those securities are:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash equivalents—which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the securitization's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the asset-backed securities—for purposes of the rights and assets in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to the loans supporting the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Derivatives.</I> The holdings of derivatives by the issuing entity shall be limited to interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that satisfy all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The written terms of the derivatives directly relate to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The derivatives reduce the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates.</I> The assets or holdings of the issuing entity may include collateral certificates and special units of beneficial interest issued by a special purpose vehicle, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate meets the requirements in this paragraph (c)(8);
</P>
<P>(B) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is used for the sole purpose of transferring to the issuing entity for the loan securitization the economic risks and benefits of the assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under this paragraph (c)(8) and does not directly or indirectly transfer any interest in any other economic or financial exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is created solely to satisfy legal requirements or otherwise facilitate the structuring of the loan securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate and the issuing entity are established under the direction of the same entity that initiated the loan securitization.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Qualifying asset-backed commercial paper conduits.</I> (i) An issuing entity for asset-backed commercial paper that satisfies all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit holds only:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Loans and other assets permissible for a loan securitization under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Asset-backed securities supported solely by assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section and acquired by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit as part of an initial issuance either directly from the issuing entity of the asset-backed securities or directly from an underwriter in the distribution of the asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(B) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit issues only asset-backed securities, comprised of a residual interest and securities with a legal maturity of 397 days or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide full and unconditional liquidity coverage with respect to all of the outstanding asset-backed securities issued by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit (other than any residual interest) in the event that funds are required to redeem maturing asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(9), a regulated liquidity provider means:
</P>
<P>(A) A depository institution, as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c));
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company, as defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) A savings and loan holding company, as defined in section 10a of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(D) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor, as defined in § 211.21(q) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(q)), has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord for the Basel Committee on banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(E) The United States or a foreign sovereign.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Qualifying covered bonds</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An entity owning or holding a dynamic or fixed pool of loans or other assets as provided in paragraph (c)(8) of this section for the benefit of the holders of covered bonds, provided that the assets in the pool are composed solely of assets that meet the conditions in paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered bond.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(10), a covered bond means:
</P>
<P>(A) A debt obligation issued by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization, the payment obligations of which are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A debt obligation of an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section, provided that the payment obligations are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization and the entity is a wholly-owned subsidiary, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, of such foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>SBICs and public welfare investment funds.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), or that has received from the Small Business Administration notice to proceed to qualify for a license as a small business investment company, which notice or license has not been revoked, or that has voluntarily surrendered its license to operate as a small business investment company in accordance with 13 CFR 107.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such voluntary surrender;
</P>
<P>(ii) The business of which is to make investments that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs) and including investments that qualify for consideration under the regulations implementing the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(B) Qualified rehabilitation expenditures with respect to a qualified rehabilitated building or certified historic structure, as such terms are defined in section 47 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or a similar State historic tax credit program;
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated or is regulated as a rural business investment company, as described in 15 U.S.C. 80b-3(b)(8)(A) or (B), or that has terminated its participation as a rural business investment company in accordance with 7 CFR 4290.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such termination; or
</P>
<P>(iv) That is a qualified opportunity fund, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1400Z-2(d).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Registered investment companies and excluded entities.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is registered as an investment company under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a registered investment company as described in § 44.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 18 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-18);
</P>
<P>(ii) That may rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-53) and has not withdrawn its election, or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a business development company as described in § 44.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 61 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-60).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Issuers in conjunction with the FDIC's receivership or conservatorship operations.</I> An issuer that is an entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for the purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired in the FDIC's capacity as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Other excluded issuers.</I> (i) Any issuer that the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine the exclusion of which is consistent with the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination made under paragraph (c)(14)(i) of this section will be promptly made public.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Credit funds.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c)(15)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, an issuer that satisfies the asset and activity requirements of paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The issuer's assets must be composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 44.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Debt instruments, subject to paragraph (c)(15)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Rights and other assets that are related or incidental to acquiring, holding, servicing, or selling such loans or debt instruments, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each right or asset held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) that is a security is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A cash equivalent (which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the debt instruments);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A security received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to such loans or debt instruments; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) An equity security (or right to acquire an equity security) received on customary terms in connection with such loans or debt instruments; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Rights or other assets held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section may not include commodity forward contracts or any derivative; and
</P>
<P>(D) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The written terms of the derivative directly relate to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The derivative reduces the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Activity requirements.</I> To be eligible for the exclusion of paragraph (c)(15) of this section, an issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 44.3(b)(l)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not issue asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirements for a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor.</I> A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 44.11(a)(8) of this subpart, as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the limitations imposed in § 44.14, as if the issuer were a covered fund, except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Additional Banking Entity Requirements.</I> A banking entity may not rely on this exclusion with respect to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer or of any entity to which such issuer extends credit or in which such issuer invests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any assets the issuer holds pursuant to paragraphs (c)(15)(i)(B) or (i)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section would be permissible for the banking entity to acquire and hold directly under applicable federal banking laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Investment and Relationship Limits.</I> A banking entity's investment in, and relationship with, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 44.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Qualifying venture capital funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(16)(ii) through (iv) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a venture capital fund as defined in 17 CFR 275.203(l)-1; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 44.3(b)(1)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraph (c)(16)(i) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 44.11(a)(8), as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the restrictions in § 44.14 as if the issuer were a covered fund (except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer).
</P>
<P>(iii) The banking entity must not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity's ownership interest in or relationship with the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 44.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Family wealth management vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(17)(ii) of this section, any entity that is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities, and:
</P>
<P>(A) If the entity is a trust, the grantor(s) of the entity are all family customers; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the entity is not a trust:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A majority of the voting interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A majority of the interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The entity is owned only by family customers and up to 5 closely related persons of the family customers; and
</P>
<P>(C) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(17)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not family customers or closely related persons if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(17)(i) of this section with respect to an entity provided that the banking entity (or an affiliate):
</P>
<P>(A) Provides bona fide trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services to the entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such entity;
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the disclosure obligations under § 44.11(a)(8), as if such entity were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the entity;
</P>
<P>(D) Does not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the entity, other than as described in paragraph (c)(17)(i)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Complies with the requirements of §§ 44.14(b) and 44.15, as if such entity were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(F) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, complies with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the entity were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(17) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Closely related person</I> means a natural person (including the estate and estate planning vehicles of such person) who has longstanding business or personal relationships with any family customer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Family customer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A family client, as defined in Rule 202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (17 CFR 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4)); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any natural person who is a father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law or daughter-in-law of a family client, or a spouse or a spousal equivalent of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Customer facilitation vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(18)(ii) of this section, an issuer that is formed by or at the request of a customer of the banking entity for the purpose of providing such customer (which may include one or more affiliates of such customer) with exposure to a transaction, investment strategy, or other service provided by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(18)(i) of this section with respect to an issuer provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All of the ownership interests of the issuer are owned by the customer (which may include one or more of its affiliates) for whom the issuer was created;
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(A) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the issuer's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not customers if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Maintain documentation outlining how the banking entity intends to facilitate the customer's exposure to such transaction, investment strategy, or service;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Comply with the disclosure obligations under § 44.11(a)(8), as if such issuer were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Do not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the issuer, other than as described in paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the requirements of §§ 44.14(b) and 44.15, as if such issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, comply with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the issuer were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of other terms related to covered funds.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means U.S. generally accepted accounting principles, or such other accounting standards applicable to a banking entity that the OCC determines are appropriate and that the banking entity uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Asset-backed security</I> has the meaning specified in Section 3(a)(79) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Director</I> has the same meaning as provided in section 215.2(d)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(22) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(22)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Issuing entity</I> means with respect to asset-backed securities the special purpose vehicle that owns or holds the pool assets underlying asset-backed securities and in whose name the asset-backed securities supported or serviced by the pool assets are issued.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ownership interest</I>—(i) <I>Ownership interest</I> means any equity, partnership, or other similar interest. An “other similar interest” means an interest that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has the right to participate in the selection or removal of a general partner, managing member, member of the board of directors or trustees, investment manager, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor of the covered fund, excluding:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The right to participate in the removal of an investment manager for “cause” or participate in the selection of a replacement manager upon an investment manager's resignation or removal. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(6)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>), “cause” for removal of an investment manager means one or more of the following events:
</P>
<P><I>(i)</I> The bankruptcy, insolvency, conservatorship or receivership of the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(ii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of any material provision of the covered fund's transaction agreements applicable to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(iii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of material representations or warranties;
</P>
<P><I>(iv)</I> The occurrence of an act that constitutes fraud or criminal activity in the performance of the investment manager's obligations under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P><I>(v)</I> The indictment of the investment manager for a criminal offense, or the indictment of any officer, member, partner or other principal of the investment manager for a criminal offense materially related to his or her investment management activities;
</P>
<P><I>(vi)</I> A change in control with respect to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(vii)</I> The loss, separation or incapacitation of an individual critical to the operation of the investment manager or primarily responsible for the management of the covered fund's assets; or
</P>
<P><I>(viii)</I> Other similar events that constitute “cause” for removal of an investment manager, provided that such events are not solely related to the performance of the covered fund or the investment manager's exercise of investment discretion under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) Has the right under the terms of the interest to receive a share of the income, gains or profits of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Has the right to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed and/or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event);
</P>
<P>(D) Has the right to receive all or a portion of excess spread (the positive difference, if any, between the aggregate interest payments received from the underlying assets of the covered fund and the aggregate interest paid to the holders of other outstanding interests);
</P>
<P>(E) Provides under the terms of the interest that the amounts payable by the covered fund with respect to the interest could be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest;
</P>
<P>(F) Receives income on a pass-through basis from the covered fund, or has a rate of return that is determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(G) Any synthetic right to have, receive, or be allocated any of the rights in paragraphs (d)(6)(i)(A) through (F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ownership interest does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Restricted profit interest, which is an interest held by an entity (or an employee or former employee thereof) in a covered fund for which the entity (or employee thereof) serves as investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or other service provider, so long as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sole purpose and effect of the interest is to allow the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to share in the profits of the covered fund as performance compensation for the investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services provided to the covered fund by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof), provided that the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) may be obligated under the terms of such interest to return profits previously received;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All such profit, once allocated, is distributed to the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) promptly after being earned or, if not so distributed, is retained by the covered fund for the sole purpose of establishing a reserve amount to satisfy contractual obligations with respect to subsequent losses of the covered fund and such undistributed profit of the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) does not share in the subsequent investment gains of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any amounts invested in the covered fund, including any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining the restricted profit interest, are within the limits of § 44.12 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest is not transferable by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) except to an affiliate thereof (or an employee of the banking entity or affiliate), to immediate family members, or through the intestacy, of the employee or former employee, or in connection with a sale of the business that gave rise to the restricted profit interest by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to an unaffiliated party that provides investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) Any senior loan or senior debt interest that has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Under the terms of the interest the holders of such interest do not have the right to receive a share of the income, gains, or profits of the covered fund, but are entitled to receive only:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Interest at a stated interest rate, as well as commitment fees or other fees, which are not determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Repayment of a fixed principal amount, on or before a maturity date, in a contractually-determined manner (which may include prepayment premiums intended solely to reflect, and compensate holders of the interest for, forgone income resulting from an early prepayment);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The entitlement to payments under the terms of the interest are absolute and could not be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The holders of the interest are not entitled to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prime brokerage transaction</I> means any transaction that would be a covered transaction, as defined in section 23A(b)(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), that is provided in connection with custody, clearance and settlement, securities borrowing or lending services, trade execution, financing, or data, operational, and administrative support.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Resident of the United States</I> means a person that is a “U.S. person” as defined in rule 902(k) of the SEC's Regulation S (17 CFR 230.902(k)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Sponsor</I> means, with respect to a covered fund:
</P>
<P>(i) To serve as a general partner, managing member, or trustee of a covered fund, or to serve as a commodity pool operator with respect to a covered fund as defined in (b)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In any manner to select or to control (or to have employees, officers, or directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of a covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To share with a covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes, the same name or a variation of the same name, except as permitted under § 44.11(a)(6).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Trustee.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (d)(9) of this section and § 44.11 of subpart C, a trustee does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A trustee that does not exercise investment discretion with respect to a covered fund, including a trustee that is subject to the direction of an unaffiliated named fiduciary who is not a trustee pursuant to section 403(a)(1) of the Employee's Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1103(a)(1)); or
</P>
<P>(B) A trustee that is subject to fiduciary standards imposed under foreign law that are substantially equivalent to those described in paragraph (d)(10)(i)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any entity that directs a person described in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, or that possesses authority and discretion to manage and control the investment decisions of a covered fund for which such person serves as trustee, shall be considered to be a trustee of such covered fund.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Riskless principal transaction.</I> Riskless principal transaction means a transaction in which a banking entity, after receiving an order from a customer to buy (or sell) a security, purchases (or sells) the security in the secondary market for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35020, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62099, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46496, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.11   Permitted organizing and offering, underwriting, and market making with respect to a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Organizing and offering a covered fund in general.</I> Notwithstanding § 44.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering a covered fund, including serving as a general partner, managing member, trustee, or commodity pool operator of the covered fund and in any manner selecting or controlling (or having employees, officers, directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of the covered fund, including any necessary expenses for the foregoing, only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) provides <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered fund is organized and offered only in connection with the provision of <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services and only to persons that are customers of such services of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), pursuant to a written plan or similar documentation outlining how the banking entity or such affiliate intends to provide advisory or similar services to its customers through organizing and offering such fund;
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity and its affiliates do not acquire or retain an ownership interest in the covered fund except as permitted under § 44.12 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) The banking entity and its affiliates comply with the requirements of § 44.14 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) The banking entity and its affiliates do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests;
</P>
<P>(6) The covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not share the same name or a variation of the same name with the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) except that a covered fund may share the same name or a variation of the same name with a banking entity that is an investment adviser to the covered fund if:
</P>
<P>(A) The investment adviser is not an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(B) The investment adviser does not share the same name or a variation of the same name as an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not use the word “bank” in its name;
</P>
<P>(7) No director or employee of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) takes or retains an ownership interest in the covered fund, except for any director or employee of the banking entity or such affiliate who is directly engaged in providing investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund at the time the director or employee takes the ownership interest; and
</P>
<P>(8) The banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly and conspicuously discloses, in writing, to any prospective and actual investor in the covered fund (such as through disclosure in the covered fund's offering documents):
</P>
<P>(A) That “any losses in [such covered fund] will be borne solely by investors in [the covered fund] and not by [the banking entity] or its affiliates; therefore, [the banking entity's] losses in [such covered fund] will be limited to losses attributable to the ownership interests in the covered fund held by [the banking entity] and any affiliate in its capacity as investor in the [covered fund] or as beneficiary of a restricted profit interest held by [the banking entity] or any affiliate”;
</P>
<P>(B) That such investor should read the fund offering documents before investing in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) That the “ownership interests in the covered fund are not insured by the FDIC, and are not deposits, obligations of, or endorsed or guaranteed in any way, by any banking entity” (unless that happens to be the case); and
</P>
<P>(D) The role of the banking entity and its affiliates and employees in sponsoring or providing any services to the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Complies with any additional rules of the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, or the CFTC, as provided in section 13(b)(2) of the BHC Act, designed to ensure that losses in such covered fund are borne solely by investors in the covered fund and not by the covered banking entity and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organizing and offering an issuing entity of asset-backed securities.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 44.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering that issuing entity, so long as the banking entity and its affiliates comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) through (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b), organizing and offering a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities means acting as the securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)) of the issuing entity, or acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in the issuing entity as required by section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C.78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting and market making in ownership interests of a covered fund.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities or market making-related activities involving a covered fund so long as:
</P>
<P>(1) Those activities are conducted in accordance with the requirements of § 44.4(a) or (b) of subpart B, respectively; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any banking entity (or any affiliate thereof) that: Acts as a sponsor, investment adviser or commodity trading advisor to a particular covered fund or otherwise acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund in reliance on paragraph (a) of this section; or acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund and is either a securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)), or is acquiring and retaining an ownership interest in such covered fund in compliance with section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder each as permitted by paragraph (b) of this section, then in each such case any ownership interests acquired or retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in connection with underwriting and market making related activities for that particular covered fund are included in the calculation of ownership interests permitted to be held by the banking entity and its affiliates under the limitations of § 44.12(a)(2)(ii) and (iii) and (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35020, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62099, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.12   Permitted investment in a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and limitations on permitted investments in covered funds.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity may acquire and retain an ownership interest in a covered fund that the banking entity or an affiliate thereof organizes and offers pursuant to § 44.11, for the purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Establishment.</I> Establishing the fund and providing the fund with sufficient initial equity for investment to permit the fund to attract unaffiliated investors, subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>De minimis investment.</I> Making and retaining an investment in the covered fund subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment limits</I>—(i) <I>Seeding period.</I> With respect to an investment in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(A) Must actively seek unaffiliated investors to reduce, through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods, the aggregate amount of all ownership interests of the banking entity in the covered fund to the amount permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must, no later than 1 year after the date of establishment of the fund (or such longer period as may be provided by the Board pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section), conform its ownership interest in the covered fund to the limits in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Per-fund limits.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, an investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may not exceed 3 percent of the total number or value of the outstanding ownership interests of the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) An investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities may not exceed 3 percent of the total fair market value of the ownership interests of the fund measured in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, unless a greater percentage is retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in compliance with the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder, in which case the investment by the banking entity and its affiliates in the covered fund may not exceed the amount, number, or value of ownership interests of the fund required under section 15G of the Exchange Act and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> The aggregate value of all ownership interests of the banking entity and its affiliates in all covered funds acquired or retained under this section may not exceed 3 percent of the tier 1 capital of the banking entity, as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall be calculated as of the last day of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Date of establishment.</I> For purposes of this section, the date of establishment of a covered fund shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>In general.</I> The date on which the investment adviser or similar entity to the covered fund begins making investments pursuant to the written investment strategy for the fund;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, the date on which the assets are initially transferred into the issuing entity of asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of construction</I>—(1) <I>Attribution of ownership interests to a covered banking entity.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount and value of a banking entity's permitted investment in any single covered fund shall include any ownership interest held under § 44.12 directly by the banking entity, including any affiliate of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of registered investment companies, SEC-regulated business development companies, and foreign public funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a registered investment company, SEC-regulated business development companies, or foreign public fund as described in § 44.10(c)(1) will not be considered to be an affiliate of the banking entity so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity, together with its affiliates, does not own, control, or hold with the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of the company or fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity, or an affiliate of the banking entity, provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, administrative, and other services to the company or fund in compliance with the limitations under applicable regulation, order, or other authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covered funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a covered fund will not be considered to be an affiliate of a banking entity so long as the covered fund is held in compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Treatment of employee and director investments financed by the banking entity.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires an ownership interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the ownership interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of permitted ownership interests in a single covered fund.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4), for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate number of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the total number of ownership interests held under this section by the banking entity in a covered fund divided by the total number of ownership interests held by all entities in that covered fund, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (both measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment);
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the aggregate fair market value of all investments in and capital contributions made to the covered fund by the banking entity, divided by the value of all investments in and capital contributions made to that covered fund by all entities, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (all measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment). If fair market value cannot be determined, then the value shall be the historical cost basis of all investments in and contributions made by the banking entity to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, once a valuation methodology is chosen, the banking entity must calculate the value of its investment and the investments of all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an ownership interest in an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For securitizations subject to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), the calculations shall be made as of the date and according to the valuation methodology applicable pursuant to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the calculations shall be made as of the date of establishment as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or such earlier date on which the transferred assets have been valued for purposes of transfer to the covered fund, and thereafter only upon the date on which additional securities of the issuing entity of asset-backed securities are priced for purposes of the sales of ownership interests to unaffiliated investors.
</P>
<P>(iii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests in the covered fund shall be the fair market value of the assets transferred to the issuing entity of the securitization and any other assets otherwise held by the issuing entity at such time, determined in a manner that is consistent with its determination of the fair market value of those assets for financial statement purposes.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair market value of the ownership interests must be the same for both the ownership interests held by a banking entity and the ownership interests held by all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multi-tier fund investments</I>—(i) <I>Master-feeder fund investments.</I> If the principal investment strategy of a covered fund (the “feeder fund”) is to invest substantially all of its assets in another single covered fund (the “master fund”), then for purposes of the investment limitations in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the banking entity's permitted investment in such funds shall be measured only by reference to the value of the master fund. The banking entity's permitted investment in the master fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in the master fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the master fund that is held through the feeder fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fund-of-funds investments.</I> If a banking entity organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 44.11 for the purpose of investing in other covered funds (a “fund of funds”) and that fund of funds itself invests in another covered fund that the banking entity is permitted to own, then the banking entity's permitted investment in that other fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in that other fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the fund that is held through the fund of funds. The investment of the banking entity may not represent more than 3 percent of the amount or value of any single covered fund.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Parallel Investments and Co-Investments.</I> (i) A banking entity shall not be required to include in the calculation of the investment limits under paragraph (a)(2) of this section any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity shall not be restricted under this section in the amount of any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate permitted investments in all covered funds.</I> (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the aggregate value of all ownership interests held by a banking entity shall be the sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in covered funds (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 44.10(d)(6)(ii)), on a historical cost basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of tier 1 capital.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Entities that are required to hold and report tier 1 capital.</I> If a banking entity is required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital of the banking entity as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, as reported to its primary financial regulatory agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a banking entity is not required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be determined to be equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a banking entity that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by such controlling depository institution in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a banking entity that is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Bank holding company subsidiaries.</I> If the banking entity is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by the top-tier affiliate of such covered banking entity that calculates and reports tier 1 capital in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Other holding companies and any subsidiary or affiliate thereof.</I> If the banking entity is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the total amount of shareholders' equity of the top-tier affiliate within such organization as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter that has ended, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Treatment of foreign banking entities</I>—(A) <I>Foreign banking entities.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, with respect to a banking entity that is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, the tier 1 capital of the banking entity shall be the consolidated tier 1 capital of the entity as calculated under applicable home country standards.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>U.S. affiliates of foreign banking entities.</I> With respect to a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and is controlled by a foreign banking entity identified under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be as calculated under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital treatment for a permitted investment in a covered fund.</I> For purposes of calculating compliance with the applicable regulatory capital requirements, a banking entity shall deduct from the banking entity's tier 1 capital (as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 44.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), on a historical cost basis, plus any earnings received; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The fair market value of the banking entity's ownership interests in the covered fund as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3) of this section (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 44.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), if the banking entity accounts for the profits (or losses) of the fund investment in its financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension of time to divest an ownership interest</I>—(1) <I>Extension period.</I> Upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for up to 2 additional years if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application requirements.</I> An application for extension must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the reasons for application, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Factors governing the Board determinations.</I> In reviewing any application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the permitted investment in a covered fund, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the investment would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date on which the covered fund is expected to have attracted sufficient investments from investors unaffiliated with the banking entity to enable the banking entity to comply with the limitations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total exposure of the covered banking entity to the investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment in the covered fund may pose to the banking entity and the financial stability of the United States;
</P>
<P>(v) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the investment within the applicable period;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the investment or the divestiture or conformance of the investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated parties, including clients, customers, or counterparties to which it owes a duty;
</P>
<P>(vii) The banking entity's prior efforts to reduce through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods its ownership interests in the covered fund, including activities related to the marketing of interests in such covered fund;
</P>
<P>(viii) Market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investment during any extension period.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consultation.</I> In the case of a banking entity that is primarily regulated by another Federal banking agency, the SEC, or the CFTC, the Board will consult with such agency prior to acting on an application by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62100, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46500, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.13   Other permitted covered fund activities and investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) of this subpart does not apply with respect to an ownership interest in a covered fund acquired or retained by a banking entity that is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks to the banking entity in connection with:
</P>
<P>(i) A compensation arrangement with an employee of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory or other services to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A position taken by the banking entity when acting as intermediary on behalf of a customer that is not itself a banking entity to facilitate the exposure by the customer to the profits and losses of the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity are permitted under this paragraph (a) only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program in accordance with subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or retention of the ownership interest:
</P>
<P>(A) Is made in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedge, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks arising:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Out of a transaction conducted solely to accommodate a specific customer request with respect to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with the compensation arrangement with the employee that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to risk-mitigating hedging activity conducted pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the compensation arrangement relates solely to the covered fund in which the banking entity or any affiliate has acquired an ownership interest pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) and such compensation arrangement provides that any losses incurred by the banking entity on such ownership interest will be offset by corresponding decreases in amounts payable under such compensation arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain permitted covered fund activities and investments outside of the United States.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund by a banking entity only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) No ownership interest in the covered fund is offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) An activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The activity or investment is conducted in accordance with the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) An ownership interest in a covered fund is not offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section only if it is not sold and has not been sold pursuant to an offering that targets residents of the United States in which the banking entity or any affiliate of the banking entity participates. If the banking entity or an affiliate sponsors or serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity pool operator or commodity trading advisor to a covered fund, then the banking entity or affiliate will be deemed for purposes of this paragraph (b)(3) to participate in any offer or sale by the covered fund of ownership interests in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(4) An activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity acting as sponsor, or engaging as principal in the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in the covered fund, is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to acquire or retain the ownership interest or act as sponsor to the covered fund is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The investment or sponsorship, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to an ownership interest, is not accounted for as principal directly or indirectly on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank, or any subsidiary thereof, is located in the United States; however, a foreign bank of which that branch, agency, or subsidiary is a part is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operation of the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted covered fund interests and activities by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention by an insurance company, or an affiliate thereof, of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate acquires and retains the ownership interest solely for the general account of the insurance company or for one or more separate accounts established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition and retention of the ownership interest is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws and regulations of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law or regulation described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted covered fund activities and investments of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a) does not apply to a qualifying foreign excluded fund.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity's acquisition of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund by the foreign banking entity meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 44.13(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62100, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46502, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.14   Limitations on relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationships with a covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 44.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 44.11(b) of this subpart, and no affiliate of such entity, may enter into a transaction with the covered fund, or with any other covered fund that is controlled by such covered fund, that would be a covered transaction as defined in section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), as if such banking entity and the affiliate thereof were a member bank and the covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a banking entity may:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquire and retain any ownership interest in a covered fund in accordance with the requirements of § 44.11, § 44.12, or § 44.13;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into any prime brokerage transaction with any covered fund in which a covered fund managed, sponsored, or advised by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) has taken an ownership interest, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is in compliance with each of the limitations set forth in § 44.11 of this subpart with respect to a covered fund organized and offered by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(B) The chief executive officer (or equivalent officer) of the banking entity certifies in writing annually no later than March 31 to the OCC (with a duty to update the certification if the information in the certification materially changes) that the banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests; and
</P>
<P>(C) The Board has not determined that such transaction is inconsistent with the safe and sound operation and condition of the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Enter into a transaction with a covered fund that would be an exempt covered transaction under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42) subject to the limitations specified under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42), as applicable,
</P>
<P>(iv) Enter into a riskless principal transaction with a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(v) Extend credit to or purchase assets from a covered fund, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) Each extension of credit or purchase of assets is in the ordinary course of business in connection with payment transactions; settlement services; or futures, derivatives, and securities clearing;
</P>
<P>(B) Each extension of credit is repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of five business days; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity making each extension of credit meets the requirements of § 223.42(l)(1)(i) and (ii) of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42(l)(1)(i) and(ii)), as if the extension of credit was an intraday extension of credit, regardless of the duration of the extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) Any transaction or activity permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(iii), (iv) or (v) of this section must comply with the limitations in § 44.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on transactions with covered funds.</I> A banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, or that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 44.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 44.11(b) of this subpart, shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1), as if such banking entity were a member bank and such covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on other permitted transactions.</I> Any transaction permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1) as if the counterparty were an affiliate of the banking entity under section 23B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62101, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46502, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.15   Other limitations on permitted covered fund activities and investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 44.11 through 44.13 of this subpart if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.16   Ownership of interests in and sponsorship of issuers of certain collateralized debt obligations backed by trust-preferred securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition contained in § 44.10(a)(1) does not apply to the ownership by a banking entity of an interest in, or sponsorship of, any issuer if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer was established, and the interest was issued, before May 19, 2010;
</P>
<P>(2) The banking entity reasonably believes that the offering proceeds received by the issuer were invested primarily in Qualifying TruPS Collateral; and
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity acquired such interest on or before December 10, 2013 (or acquired such interest in connection with a merger with or acquisition of a banking entity that acquired the interest on or before December 10, 2013).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this § 44.16, <I>Qualifying TruPS Collateral</I> shall mean any trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a depository institution holding company that, as of the end of any reporting period within 12 months immediately preceding the issuance of such trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument, had total consolidated assets of less than $15,000,000,000 or issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a banking entity may act as a market maker with respect to the interests of an issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the applicable provisions of §§ 44.4 and 44.11.
</P>
<P>(d) Without limiting the applicability of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board, the FDIC and the OCC will make public a non-exclusive list of issuers that meet the requirements of paragraph (a). A banking entity may rely on the list published by the Board, the FDIC and the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5227, Jan. 31, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 44.17-44.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.3.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 44.17-44.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compliance Program Requirement; Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.20   Program for compliance; reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each banking entity (other than a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities or a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 44.6(f) or 44.13(d)) shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a compliance program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and covered fund activities and investments set forth in section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. The terms, scope, and detail of the compliance program shall be appropriate for the types, size, scope, and complexity of activities and business structure of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking entities with significant trading assets and liabilities.</I> With respect to a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the compliance program required by paragraph (a) of this section, at a minimum, shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Written policies and procedures reasonably designed to document, describe, monitor and limit trading activities subject to subpart B (including those permitted under §§ 44.3 to 44.6 of subpart B), including setting, monitoring and managing required limits set out in §§ 44.4 and 44.5, and activities and investments with respect to a covered fund subject to subpart C (including those permitted under §§ 44.11 through 44.14 of subpart C) conducted by the banking entity to ensure that all activities and investments conducted by the banking entity that are subject to section 13 of the BHC Act and this part comply with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A system of internal controls reasonably designed to monitor compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to prevent the occurrence of activities or investments that are prohibited by section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(3) A management framework that clearly delineates responsibility and accountability for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and includes appropriate management review of trading limits, strategies, hedging activities, investments, incentive compensation and other matters identified in this part or by management as requiring attention;
</P>
<P>(4) Independent testing and audit of the effectiveness of the compliance program conducted periodically by qualified personnel of the banking entity or by a qualified outside party;
</P>
<P>(5) Training for trading personnel and managers, as well as other appropriate personnel, to effectively implement and enforce the compliance program; and
</P>
<P>(6) Records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, which a banking entity must promptly provide to the OCC upon request and retain for a period of no less than 5 years or such longer period as required by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CEO attestation.</I> The CEO of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must, based on a review by the CEO of the banking entity, attest in writing to the OCC, each year no later than March 31, that the banking entity has in place processes to establish, maintain, enforce, review, test and modify the compliance program required by paragraph (b) of this section in a manner reasonably designed to achieve compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. In the case of a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking entity, the attestation may be provided for the entire U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity by the senior management officer of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity who is located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting requirements under appendix A to this part.</I> (1) A banking entity (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 44.6(f) or 44.13(d)) engaged in proprietary trading activity permitted under subpart B shall comply with the reporting requirements described in appendix A to this part, if:</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has significant trading assets and liabilities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC notifies the banking entity in writing that it must satisfy the reporting requirements contained in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of reporting:</I> Unless the OCC notifies the banking entity in writing that it must report on a different basis, a banking entity subject to the appendix shall report the information required by appendix A to this part for each quarter within 30 days of the end of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional documentation for covered funds.</I> A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 44.6(f) or 44.13(d)) shall maintain records that include:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation of the exclusions or exemptions other than sections 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 relied on by each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) in determining that such fund is not a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(2) For each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) for which the banking entity relies on one or more of the exclusions from the definition of covered fund provided by § 44.10(c)(1), § 44.10(c)(5), § 44.10(c)(8), § 44.10(c)(9), or § 44.10(c)(10) of subpart C, documentation supporting the banking entity's determination that the fund is not a covered fund pursuant to one or more of those exclusions;
</P>
<P>(3) For each seeding vehicle described in § 44.10(c)(12)(i) or (iii) of subpart C that will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company, a written plan documenting the banking entity's determination that the seeding vehicle will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company; the period of time during which the vehicle will operate as a seeding vehicle; and the banking entity's plan to market the vehicle to third-party investors and convert it into a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company within the time period specified in § 44.12(a)(2)(i)(B) of subpart C;
</P>
<P>(4) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, if the aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds that are described in § 44.10(c)(1) of subpart C owned by such banking entity (including ownership interests owned by any affiliate that is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State) exceeds $50 million at the end of two or more consecutive calendar quarters, beginning with the next succeeding calendar quarter, documentation of the value of the ownership interests owned by the banking entity (and such affiliates) in each foreign public fund and each jurisdiction in which any such foreign public fund is organized, calculated as of the end of each calendar quarter, which documentation must continue until the banking entity's aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds is below $50 million for two consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified programs for less active banking entities</I>—(1) <I>Banking entities with no covered activities.</I> A banking entity that does not engage in activities or investments pursuant to subpart B or subpart C (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a) of subpart B) may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing the required compliance program prior to becoming engaged in such activities or making such investments (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 44.6(a) of subpart B).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banking entities with moderate trading assets and liabilities.</I> A banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements of this section by including in its existing compliance policies and procedures appropriate references to the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and adjustments as appropriate given the activities, size, scope, and complexity of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance for banking entities with limited trading assets and liabilities</I>—(1) <I>Rebuttable presumption.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities shall be presumed to be compliant with subpart B and subpart C of this part and shall have no obligation to demonstrate compliance with this part on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttal of presumption.</I> If upon examination or audit, the OCC determines that the banking entity has engaged in proprietary trading or covered fund activities that are otherwise prohibited under subpart B or subpart C of this part, the OCC may require the banking entity to be treated under this part as if it did not have limited trading assets and liabilities. The OCC's rebuttal of the presumption in this paragraph must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the OCC retains its authority to require a banking entity without significant trading assets and liabilities to apply any requirements of this part that would otherwise apply if the banking entity had significant or moderate trading assets and liabilities if the OCC determines that the size or complexity of the banking entity's trading or investment activities, or the risk of evasion of subpart B or subpart C of this part, does not warrant a presumption of compliance under paragraph (g) of this section or treatment as a banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities, as applicable. The OCC's exercise of this reservation of authority must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice and response procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The OCC will notify the banking entity in writing of any determination requiring notice under this part and will provide an explanation of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response.</I> The banking entity may respond to any or all items in the notice described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section. The response should include any matters that the banking entity would have the OCC consider in deciding whether to make the determination. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated OCC official within 30 days after the date on which the banking entity received the notice. The OCC may shorten the time period when, in the opinion of the OCC, the activities or condition of the banking entity so requires, provided that the banking entity is informed of the time period at the time of notice, or with the consent of the banking entity. In its discretion, the OCC may extend the time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver.</I> Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the OCC shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the OCC's determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision.</I> The OCC will notify the banking entity of the decision in writing. The notice will include an explanation of the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62101, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46502, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 44.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 44.21   Termination of activities or investments; penalties for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any banking entity that engages in an activity or makes an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or acts in a manner that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, including through an abuse of any activity or investment permitted under subparts B or C, or otherwise violates the restrictions and requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, shall, upon discovery, promptly terminate the activity and, as relevant, dispose of the investment.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the OCC finds reasonable cause to believe any banking entity has engaged in an activity or made an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or engaged in any activity or made any investment that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, the OCC may take any action permitted by law to enforce compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, including directing the banking entity to restrict, limit, or terminate any or all activities under this part and dispose of any investment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.39.6.27.1.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 44—Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements for Covered Trading Activities
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>a. This appendix sets forth reporting and recordkeeping requirements that certain banking entities must satisfy in connection with the restrictions on proprietary trading set forth in subpart B (“proprietary trading restrictions”). Pursuant to § 44.20(d), this appendix applies to a banking entity that, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, has significant trading assets and liabilities. These entities are required to (i) furnish periodic reports to the OCC regarding a variety of quantitative measurements of their covered trading activities, which vary depending on the scope and size of covered trading activities, and (ii) create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports. The requirements of this appendix must be incorporated into the banking entity's internal compliance program under § 44.20.
</P>
<P>b. The purpose of this appendix is to assist banking entities and the OCC in:
</P>
<P>(1) Better understanding and evaluating the scope, type, and profile of the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Identifying covered trading activities that warrant further review or examination by the banking entity to verify compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions;
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks engaged in market making-related activities subject to § 44.4(b) are consistent with the requirements governing permitted market making-related activities;
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks that are engaged in permitted trading activity subject to § 44.4, § 44.5, or § 44.6(a) and (b) (<I>i.e.,</I> underwriting and market making-related activity, risk-mitigating hedging, or trading in certain government obligations) are consistent with the requirement that such activity not result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(6) Identifying the profile of particular covered trading activities of the banking entity, and the individual trading desks of the banking entity, to help establish the appropriate frequency and scope of examination by the OCC of such activities; and
</P>
<P>(7) Assessing and addressing the risks associated with the banking entity's covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>c. Information that must be furnished pursuant to this appendix is not intended to serve as a dispositive tool for the identification of permissible or impermissible activities.
</P>
<P>d. In addition to the quantitative measurements required in this appendix, a banking entity may need to develop and implement other quantitative measurements in order to effectively monitor its covered trading activities for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to have an effective compliance program, as required by § 44.20. The effectiveness of particular quantitative measurements may differ based on the profile of the banking entity's businesses in general and, more specifically, of the particular trading desk, including types of instruments traded, trading activities and strategies, and history and experience (e.g., whether the trading desk is an established, successful market maker or a new entrant to a competitive market). In all cases, banking entities must ensure that they have robust measures in place to identify and monitor the risks taken in their trading activities, to ensure that the activities are within risk tolerances established by the banking entity, and to monitor and examine for compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions in this part.
</P>
<P>e. On an ongoing basis, banking entities must carefully monitor, review, and evaluate all furnished quantitative measurements, as well as any others that they choose to utilize in order to maintain compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. All measurement results that indicate a heightened risk of impermissible proprietary trading, including with respect to otherwise-permitted activities under §§ 44.4 through 44.6(a) and (b), or that result in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies, must be escalated within the banking entity for review, further analysis, explanation to the OCC, and remediation, where appropriate. The quantitative measurements discussed in this appendix should be helpful to banking entities in identifying and managing the risks related to their covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>The terms used in this appendix have the same meanings as set forth in §§ 44.2 and 44.3. In addition, for purposes of this appendix, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Applicability</I> identifies the trading desks for which a banking entity is required to calculate and report a particular quantitative measurement based on the type of covered trading activity conducted by the trading desk.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation period</I> means the period of time for which a particular quantitative measurement must be calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Comprehensive profit</I> and loss means the net profit or loss of a trading desk's material sources of trading revenue over a specific period of time, including, for example, any increase or decrease in the market value of a trading desk's holdings, dividend income, and interest income and expense.
</P>
<P><I>Covered trading activity</I> means trading conducted by a trading desk under § 44.4, § 44.5, § 44.6(a), or § 44.6(b). A banking entity may include in its covered trading activity trading conducted under § 44.3(d), § 44.6(c), § 44.6(d), or § 44.6(e).
</P>
<P><I>Measurement frequency</I> means the frequency with which a particular quantitative metric must be calculated and recorded.
</P>
<P><I>Trading day</I> means a calendar day on which a trading desk is open for trading.
</P>
<HD1>III. Reporting and Recordkeeping
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Scope of Required Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. Quantitative measurements. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 must furnish the following quantitative measurements, as applicable, for each trading desk of the banking entity engaged in covered trading activities and calculate these quantitative measurements in accordance with this appendix:
</P>
<P>i. Internal Limits and Usage;
</P>
<P>ii. Value-at-Risk;
</P>
<P>iii. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution;
</P>
<P>iv. Positions; and
</P>
<P>v. Transaction Volumes.
</P>
<P>2. Trading desk information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 must provide certain descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>3. Quantitative measurements identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 must provide certain identifying and descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding its quantitative measurements.
</P>
<P>4. Narrative statement. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 may provide an optional narrative statement, as further described in this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. File identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 must provide file identifying information in each submission to the OCC pursuant to this appendix, including the name of the banking entity, the RSSD ID assigned to the top-tier banking entity by the Board, and identification of the reporting period and creation date and time.
</P>
<HD2>b. Trading Desk Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Each banking entity must provide descriptive information regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities, including:
</P>
<P>i. Name of the trading desk used internally by the banking entity and a unique identification label for the trading desk;
</P>
<P>ii. Identification of each type of covered trading activity in which the trading desk is engaged;
</P>
<P>iii. Brief description of the general strategy of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>v. A list identifying each Agency receiving the submission of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>2. Indication of whether each calendar date is a trading day or not a trading day for the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>3. Currency reported and daily currency conversion rate.
</P>
<HD2>c. <I>Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information</I>
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity must provide the following information regarding the quantitative measurements:
</P>
<P>1. An Internal Limits Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each limit reported pursuant to the Internal Limits and Usage quantitative measurement, including the name of the limit, a unique identification label for the limit, a description of the limit, the unit of measurement for the limit, the type of limit, and identification of the corresponding risk factor attribution in the particular case that the limit type is a limit on a risk factor sensitivity and profit and loss attribution to the same risk factor is reported; and
</P>
<P>2. A Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each risk factor attribution reported pursuant to the Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution quantitative measurement, including the name of the risk factor or other factor, a unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor, a description of the risk factor or other factor, and the risk factor or other factor's change unit.
</P>
<HD2>d. Narrative Statement
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 44.20 may submit in a separate electronic document a Narrative Statement to the OCC with any information the banking entity views as relevant for assessing the information reported. The Narrative Statement may include further description of or changes to calculation methods, identification of material events, description of and reasons for changes in the banking entity's trading desk structure or trading desk strategies, and when any such changes occurred.
</P>
<HD2>e. Frequency and Method of Required Calculation and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must calculate any applicable quantitative measurement for each trading day. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement electronically to the OCC on the reporting schedule established in § 44.20 unless otherwise requested by the OCC. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement to the OCC in accordance with the XML Schema specified and published on the OCC's website.
</P>
<HD2>f. Recordkeeping
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must, for any quantitative measurement furnished to the OCC pursuant to this appendix and § 44.20(d), create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports, as well as such information as is necessary to permit the OCC to verify the accuracy of such reports, for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the measurement was taken. A banking entity must retain the Narrative Statement, the Trading Desk Information, and the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the information was reported to the OCC.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Quantitative Measurements
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Risk-Management Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Internal Limits and Usage
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Internal Limits are the constraints that define the amount of risk and the positions that a trading desk is permitted to take at a point in time, as defined by the banking entity for a specific trading desk. Usage represents the value of the trading desk's risk or positions that are accounted for by the current activity of the desk. Internal limits and their usage are key compliance and risk management tools used to control and monitor risk taking and include, but are not limited to, the limits set out in §§ 44.4 and 44.5. A trading desk's risk limits, commonly including a limit on “Value-at-Risk,” are useful in the broader context of the trading desk's overall activities, particularly for the market making activities under § 44.4(b) and hedging activity under § 44.5. Accordingly, the limits required under §§ 44.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 44.5(b)(1)(i)(A) must meet the applicable requirements under §§ 44.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 44.5(b)(1)(i)(A) and also must include appropriate metrics for the trading desk limits including, at a minimum, “Value-at-Risk” except to the extent the “Value-at-Risk” metric is demonstrably ineffective for measuring and monitoring the risks of a trading desk based on the types of positions traded by, and risk exposures of, that desk.
</P>
<P>A. A banking entity must provide the following information for each limit reported pursuant to this quantitative measurement: The unique identification label for the limit reported in the Internal Limits Information Schedule, the limit size (distinguishing between an upper and a lower limit), and the value of usage of the limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>2. Value-at-Risk
</HD2>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Value-at-Risk (“VaR”) is the measurement of the risk of future financial loss in the value of a trading desk's aggregated positions at the ninety-nine percent confidence level over a one-day period, based on current market conditions.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>b. Source-of-Revenue Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution is an analysis that attributes the daily fluctuation in the value of a trading desk's positions to various sources. First, the daily profit and loss of the aggregated positions is divided into two categories: (i) Profit and loss attributable to a trading desk's existing positions that were also positions held by the trading desk as of the end of the prior day (“existing positions”); and (ii) profit and loss attributable to new positions resulting from the current day's trading activity (“new positions”).
</P>
<P>A. The comprehensive profit and loss associated with existing positions must reflect changes in the value of these positions on the applicable day. The comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions must be further attributed, as applicable, to (i) changes in the specific risk factors and other factors that are monitored and managed as part of the trading desk's overall risk management policies and procedures; and (ii) any other applicable elements, such as cash flows, carry, changes in reserves, and the correction, cancellation, or exercise of a trade.
</P>
<P>B. For the attribution of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions to specific risk factors and other factors, a banking entity must provide the following information for the factors that explain the preponderance of the profit or loss changes due to risk factor changes: The unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor listed in the Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule, and the profit or loss due to the risk factor or other factor change.
</P>
<P>C. The comprehensive profit and loss attributed to new positions must reflect commissions and fee income or expense and market gains or losses associated with transactions executed on the applicable day. New positions include purchases and sales of financial instruments and other assets/liabilities and negotiated amendments to existing positions. The comprehensive profit and loss from new positions may be reported in the aggregate and does not need to be further attributed to specific sources.
</P>
<P>D. The portion of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions that is not attributed to changes in specific risk factors and other factors must be allocated to a residual category. Significant unexplained profit and loss must be escalated for further investigation and analysis.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>c. Positions and Transaction Volumes Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Positions
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Positions is the value of securities and derivatives positions managed by the trading desk. For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, do not include in the Positions calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>1223</SU>
<FTREF/> A banking entity must separately report the trading desk's market value of long securities positions, short securities positions, derivatives receivables, and derivatives payables.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1223</SU> <I>See</I> § 44.2(h), (aa). For example, under this part, a security-based swap is both a “security” and a “derivative.” For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, security-based swaps are reported as derivatives rather than securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 44.4(a) or (b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<HD3>2. Transaction Volumes
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Transaction Volumes measures three exclusive categories of covered trading activity conducted by a trading desk. A banking entity is required to report the value and number of security and derivative transactions conducted by the trading desk with: (i) Customers, excluding internal transactions; (ii) non-customers, excluding internal transactions; and (iii) trading desks and other organizational units where the transaction is booked into either the same banking entity or an affiliated banking entity. For securities, value means gross market value. For derivatives, value means gross notional value. For purposes of calculating the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, do not include in the Transaction Volumes calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>1224</SU>
<FTREF/> Further, for purposes of the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 44.4(a) to conduct underwriting activity is a market participant identified in § 44.4(a)(7), and a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 44.4(b) to conduct market making-related activity is a market participant identified in § 44.4(b)(3).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1224</SU> <I>See</I> § 44.2(h), (aa).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 44.4(a) or (b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62102, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 45—MARGIN AND CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS FOR COVERED SWAP ENTITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 481, 1818, 3907, 3909, 5412(b)(2)(B), and 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 45 appear at 80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 45.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.1   Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of 7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 161, 481, 1818, 3907, 3909, 5412(b)(2)(B), and 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the OCC to establish capital and margin requirements for any for any national bank or subsidiary thereof, Federal savings association or subsidiary thereof, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This regulation implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this part with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This part applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this part is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 45.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security-based swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 45.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this part on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin and § 45.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 45.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 45.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this part with respect to that counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Legacy swaps.</I> Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this part for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this part if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:
</P>
<P>(A) A covered swap entity, or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;
</P>
<P>(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii); or
</P>
<P>(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:
</P>
<P>(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);
</P>
<P>(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section but any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.
</P>
<P>(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or
</P>
<P>(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74910, 74923, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50811, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9948, Mar. 19, 2019; 85 FR 39468, 39771, July 1, 2020]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 84 FR 9948, Mar. 19, 2019, § 45.1 was amended by adding paragraph (h), containing two subparagraphs designated (h)(2)(iv).</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> A company is an affiliate of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(4) The OCC has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on OCC's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Covered swap entity</I> means any national bank or subsidiary thereof, Federal savings association or subsidiary thereof, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank that is a swap entity, or any other entity that the OCC determines.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P><I>Currency of settlement</I> means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.
</P>
<P><I>Day of execution</I> means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral described in § 45.6.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of Title 12, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Financial end user</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange forward</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin</I> means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 45.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin collection amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 45.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin model</I> means an internal risk management model that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been approved by the OCC pursuant to § 45.8.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin threshold amount</I> means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 45.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Major currency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) United States Dollar (USD);
</P>
<P>(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);
</P>
<P>(3) Euro (EUR);
</P>
<P>(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);
</P>
<P>(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);
</P>
<P>(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);
</P>
<P>(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);
</P>
<P>(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);
</P>
<P>(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);
</P>
<P>(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);
</P>
<P>(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or
</P>
<P>(12) Any other currency as determined by the OCC.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means initial margin and variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Market intermediary</I> means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P><I>Material swaps exposure</I> for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 45.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the OCC determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared security-based swap</I> means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared swap</I> means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).
</P>
<P><I>Prudential regulator</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P><I>Security-based swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a subsidiary of another company if<I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on OCC's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).
</P>
<P><I>Swap entity</I> means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74911, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50811, Oct. 10, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.3   Initial margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap <I>less</I> the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 45.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.4   Variation margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 45.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Netting arrangements.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § 45.3 using an initial margin model as described in § 45.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 45.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this part on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 45.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this part and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 45.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 45.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this part. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 45.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to post margin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum transfer amount.</I> Notwithstanding § 45.3 or § 45.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this part with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this part to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</I> A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 45.3, § 45.4, or § 45.6(e) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity has:
</P>
<P>(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of the OCC that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.6   Eligible collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to initial margin only:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 45.12;
</P>
<P>(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR part 1 and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the terms of 12 CFR part 1 and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 45.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Gold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 45.12;
</P>
<P>(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR part 1 and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the terms of 12 CFR part 1 and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 45.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(10) Gold.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this part is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this part does not include a security issued by:
</P>
<P>(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).
</P>
<P>(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 45.3(d) or § 45.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this part in any form of collateral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74911, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.7   Segregation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 45.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 45.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 45.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 45.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 45.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 45.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 45.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 45.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 45.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.8   Initial margin models and standardized amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized amounts.</I> Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 45.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of initial margin models.</I> A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 45.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for initial margin model.</I> (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of the OCC before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered swap entity must notify the OCC in writing 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that the OCC has approved under this section to an additional product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by the OCC under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.
</P>
<P>(4) The OCC may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if the OCC determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative requirements.</I> (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.
</P>
<P>(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.
</P>
<P>(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.
</P>
<P>(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.
</P>
<P>(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the OCC that such omission is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the OCC that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.
</P>
<P>(15) The OCC may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if the OCC determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic review.</I> A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.
</P>
<P>(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify the OCC of the problems, describe to the OCC any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.
</P>
<P>(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this part. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.9   Cross-border application of margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions to which this rule does not apply.</I> The requirements of §§ 45.3 through 45.8 and §§ 45.10 through 45.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign non-cleared swap</I> or <I>foreign non-cleared security-based swap</I> is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign covered swap entity</I> is any covered swap entity that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply</I>—(1) <I>Determinations and reliance.</I> For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this part by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 45.3 through 45.8 and §§ 45.10 through 45.12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard.</I> In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this part and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance.</I> A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement.</I> A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 45.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for determinations.</I> (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:
</P>
<P>(A) The scope of transactions covered;
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;
</P>
<P>(C) The timing of margin requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) Any documentation requirements;
</P>
<P>(E) The forms of eligible collateral;
</P>
<P>(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Segregation unavailable.</I> Sections 45.3(b) and 45.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 45.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 45.7;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 45.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 45.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 45.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 45.6(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) The OCC provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarantee</I> means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section is not subject to the requirements of § 45.3(a) or § 45.11(a) for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in § 45.11(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39772, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.10   Documentation of margin matters.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this subpart, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 45.3 or § 45.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and
</P>
<P>(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39772, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.11   Special rules for affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 45.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 45.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 45.3(c), until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or
</P>
<P>(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under § 45.11(a)(1) falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 45.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (a), “tier 1 capital” means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 3.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 3.20(c), as reported in the institution's most recent Consolidated Reports of Income and Condition (Call Report); and
</P>
<P>(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 45.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 45.3(a) from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 45.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 45.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An affiliate as defined in § 45.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>subsidiary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 45.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39772, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 45.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 45.12   Capital.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall comply with:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a covered swap entity that is a national bank or Federal savings association, the minimum capital requirements as generally provided 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a covered swap entity that is a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank, the capital adequacy guidelines applicable as generally provided under 12 CFR 28.14.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74911, Nov. 30, 2015]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.13.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 45—Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non—cleared Security-based Swaps

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non-cleared Security-Based Swaps
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gross initial margin
<br/>(% of notional exposure)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Exchange/Currency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">where;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.40.0.27.13.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 45—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral.

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 45.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="46" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 46—STRESS TESTING


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a; 1463(a)(2); 5365(i)(2); and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 46.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 93a; 12 U.S.C. 1463(a)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5412(b)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), which requires a national bank or Federal savings association with total consolidated assets of more than $10 billion to conduct an annual stress test and establishes a definition of stress test, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Covered institution</I> means a national bank or Federal savings association with average total consolidated assets, calculated as required under this part, that are greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P><I>Federal savings association</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means a set period of time over which the impact of the scenarios is assessed.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting year</I> means the calendar year in which a covered institution must conduct, report, and publish its stress test.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> means sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered institution that the OCC determines are appropriate for use in the stress tests under this part, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered institution over the planning horizon, taking into account the covered institution's current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 83 FR 7953, Feb. 23, 2018; 84 FR 54475, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Measurement of average total consolidated assets for a covered institution.</I> A covered institution's average total consolidated assets is calculated as the average of the covered institution's total consolidated assets, as reported on the covered institution's Call Reports, for the four most recent consecutive quarters. If the covered institution has not filed a Call Report for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the covered institution's average total consolidated assets is calculated as the average of the covered institution's total consolidated assets, as reported on the covered institution's Call Reports, for the most recent one or more consecutive quarters. The date on which a national bank or Federal savings association becomes a covered institution shall be the as-of date of the most recent Call Report used in the calculation of the average.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered institutions that become subject to stress testing requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that becomes a covered institution shall conduct its first stress test under this part in the first reporting year that begins more than three calendar quarters after the date the national bank or Federal savings association becomes a covered institution, unless otherwise determined by the OCC in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ceasing to be a covered institution or changing categories.</I> A covered institution shall remain subject to the stress test requirements until total consolidated assets of the covered institution falls below the relevant size threshold for each of four consecutive quarters as reported by the covered institution's most recent Call Reports, effective on the “as of” date of the fourth consecutive Call Report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 71633, Dec. 3, 2014; 83 FR 7953, Feb. 23, 2018; 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.4   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association not otherwise subject to this part to comply with the stress test requirements of this part. With respect to any national bank or Federal savings association subject to the stress test requirements of this part pursuant to § 46.3(a), the OCC may modify or delay some or all of the requirements of this part which include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing of stress test.</I> The OCC may accelerate or extend any specified deadline for stress testing, reporting, or publication of disclosures of the stress test results.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stress tests.</I> The OCC may require additional stress tests not otherwise required by this part or may require or permit different or additional analytical techniques and methods, different scenarios, or different assumptions, as appropriate for the covered institution to use in meeting the stress test requirements of this part. In addition, the OCC may specify a different as-of date for any or all categories of financial data used by the stress test. The OCC may also exempt one or more covered institutions from the requirement to conduct a stress test in a particular reporting year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reporting and disclosures.</I> The OCC may modify the reporting date or any reporting requirement of a report required by this part, or may require any additional reports relating to stress testing as may be appropriate. The OCC may delay or otherwise modify the publication requirements of this part if the disclosure of stress test results under this part would not provide sufficiently meaningful or useful information to the public. In addition, the OCC may require different or additional disclosures not otherwise required by this part, if the existing disclosures do not adequately address one or more material elements of the stress test.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors considered.</I> Any exercise of authority under this section by the OCC will be in writing and will consider the nature and level of the activities, complexity, risks, operations, and regulatory capital of the national bank or Federal savings association, in addition to any other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and comment procedures.</I> In making a determination under paragraph (a) of this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures, in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 11313, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.5   Stress testing.</HEAD>
<P>Each covered institution must conduct the stress test under this part subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Financial data.</I> A covered institution must use financial data available as of December 31 of the calendar year prior to the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by the OCC.</I> In conducting the stress test under this part, each covered institution must use the scenarios provided by the OCC. The scenarios provided by the OCC will reflect a minimum of two sets of economic and financial conditions, including baseline and severely adverse scenarios. The OCC will provide a description of the scenarios required to be used by each covered institution no later than February 15 of the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Significant trading activities.</I> The OCC may require a covered institution with significant trading activities, as determined by the OCC, to include trading and counterparty components in its adverse and severely adverse scenarios. The trading and counterparty position data to be used in this component will be as of a date between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of that calendar year in which the stress test is performed, and the OCC will communicate a description of the component to the covered institution no later than March 1 of that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of stress test results.</I> The board of directors and senior management of each covered institution must consider the results of the stress tests conducted under this section in the normal course of business, including but not limited to the covered institution's capital planning, assessment of capital adequacy, and risk management practices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Frequency.</I> A covered institution that is consolidated under a holding company that is required, pursuant to applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, to conduct a stress test at least once every calendar year must treat every calendar year as a reporting year, unless otherwise determined by the OCC. All other covered institutions must treat every even-numbered calendar year beginning January 1, 2020 (<I>i.e.,</I> 2022, 2024, 2026, etc.), as a reporting year, unless otherwise determined by the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 7953, Feb. 23, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.6   Stress test methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> During each quarter of the planning horizon, a covered institution shall estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Pre-provision net revenues, losses, loan loss provisions, and net income, and
</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on the covered institution's regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered institution under 12 CFR part 3 and any other capital ratios specified by the OCC, incorporating the effects of any capital actions over the planning horizon and maintenance by the covered institution of an allowance for loan losses appropriate for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon. </P>
<P>(b) <I>Planning horizon.</I> A covered institution must use a minimum planning horizon of at least nine quarters, beginning with the first day of the period covered by the stress tests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Controls and oversight of stress test processes.</I> (1) The senior management of the covered institution must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, designed to ensure that the stress test processes used by the covered institution satisfy the requirements in this part. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the covered institution's stress test practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the covered institution's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors of the covered institution, or a committee thereof, shall approve and review the policies and procedures of the covered institution's stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the institution may warrant, but no less than once every reporting year. The board of directors and senior management must be provided with a summary of the stress test results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 71633, Dec. 3, 2014; 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.7   Reports to the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Reserve Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> A covered institution must report to the OCC and to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, on or before April 5 of the reporting year, the results of the stress test in the manner and form specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality of Reports.</I> As provided by § 4.32(b) of this title, the report required under this section is non-public OCC information because it is deemed to be a record created or obtained by the OCC in connection with the OCC's performance of its responsibilities, such as a record concerning supervision, licensing, regulations, and examination, of a national bank, a Federal savings association, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or an affiliate. The report is the property of the OCC and unauthorized disclosure of the report is generally prohibited pursuant to § 4.37 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 71633, Dec. 3, 2014; 83 FR 7953, Feb. 23, 2018; 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 46.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.41.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 46.8   Publication of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication date.</I> A covered institution must publish a summary of the results of its stress test in the period starting June 15 and ending July 15 of the reporting year, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless the OCC determines otherwise, if the $50 billion or over covered institution is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company subject to supervisory stress tests conducted by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to 12 CFR part 252, then within the June 15 to July 15 period such covered institution may not publish the required summary of its annual stress test earlier than the date that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System publishes the supervisory stress test results of the covered bank's parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System publishes the supervisory stress test results of the covered institution's parent holding company prior to June 15, then such covered institution may publish its stress test results prior to June 15, but no later than July 15, through actual publication by the covered institution or through publication by the parent holding company pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication method.</I> The summary required under this section may be published on the covered institution's Web site or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public. A covered institution controlled by a bank holding company that is required to conduct a company-run stress test under applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System will be deemed to have satisfied the publication requirement of this section when the bank holding company publicly discloses summary results of its stress test in satisfaction of the requirements of applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, unless the OCC determines that the disclosures at the holding company level do not adequately capture the potential impact of the scenarios on the capital of the covered institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information to be disclosed in the summary.</I> The information disclosed shall, at a minimum, include—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(3) Estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provisions for credit losses, net income, and pro forma capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by the OCC); and
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the most significant causes of the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of estimates for the planning horizon.</I> (1) The disclosure of the estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provisions for credit losses, net income, and pro forma capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by the OCC), as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must reflect the estimated cumulative effects, as well as the estimated capital ratios, at the end of the planning horizon for the severely adverse scenario.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to the capital ratio disclosure required in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the disclosure must also include the value at the beginning of the planning horizon, and the minimum over the planning horizon of the estimated quarter-end values of each ratio.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 61246, Oct. 9, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 71634, Dec. 3, 2014; 83 FR 7954, Feb. 23, 2018; 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 54476, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="47" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 47—MANDATORY CONTRACTUAL STAY REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFIED FINANCIAL CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 481, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 3102(b), 3108(a), 5412(b)(2)(B), (D)-(F).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 56662, Nov. 29, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 47.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 3102(b), 3108(a), 5412(b)(2)(B), (D)-(F).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to promote the safety and soundness of federally chartered or licensed institutions by mitigating the potential destabilizing effects of the resolution of a global systemically important banking entity on an affiliate that is a covered bank (as defined by this part) by requiring covered banks to include in financial contracts covered by this part certain mandatory contractual provisions relating to stays on acceleration and close out rights and transfer rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means an affiliate as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841(k) (Bank Holding Company Act).
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Chapter 11 proceeding</I> means a proceeding under Chapter 11 of Title 11, United States Code (11 U.S.C. 1101-74).
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated affiliate</I> means an affiliate of another company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Either consolidates the other company, or is consolidated by the other company, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Is, along with the other company, consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1841 (Bank Holding Company Act).
</P>
<P><I>Covered entity</I> has the same meaning as in § 252.82(a) of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.82).
</P>
<P><I>Covered FSI</I> has the same meaning as in § 382.2(b) of this title (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) (12 CFR 382.2(b)).
</P>
<P><I>Default right</I> (1) Means, with respect to a QFC, any:
</P>
<P>(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including, without limitation, rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement, or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation, and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay, or defer payment or performance thereunder, or modify the obligations of a party thereunder, or any similar rights; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral, or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to § 47.5, does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act proceeding</I> means a proceeding that commences upon the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation being appointed as conservator or receiver under section 11 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821).
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act stay period</I> means, in connection with an FDI Act proceeding, the period of time during which a party to a QFC with a party that is subject to an FDI Act proceeding may not exercise any right that the party that is not subject to an FDI Act proceeding has to terminate, liquidate, or net such QFC, in accordance with section 11(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Financial counterparty</I> means a person that is:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company that is established or designated for purposes of compliance with § 252.153 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.153); or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Federal Reserve Board under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company, money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2002 <I>et seq.</I>), that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any entity registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) A securities holding company, with the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(viii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(ix) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(x) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial counterparty described in paragraphs (1)(i)-(xi) of this definition, if the entity were organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial counterparty” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements.
</P>
<P><I>Financial market utility (FMU)</I> means any person, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the person is located or organized, that manages or operates a multilateral system for the purpose of transferring, clearing, or settling payments, securities, or other financial transactions among financial institutions or between financial institutions and the person, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, security-based swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), solely by reason of their providing facilities for comparison of data respecting the terms of settlement of securities or futures transactions effected on such exchange or by means of any electronic system operated or controlled by such entities, provided that the exclusions in paragraph (1) of this definition apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a FMU or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the FMU of services to its participants or the use of services of the FMU by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the FMU.
</P>
<P><I>Investment advisory contract</I> means any contract or agreement whereby a person agrees to act as investment adviser to or to manage any investment or trading account of another person.
</P>
<P><I>Master agreement</I> means a QFC of the type set forth in section 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V)) or a master agreement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a QFC pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> includes an individual, bank, corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract (QFC)</I> has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A business customer, but solely if and to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency manages its transactions with the business customer, including deposits, unsecured funding, and credit facility and liquidity facility transactions, in the same way it manages its transactions with individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transactions with the business customer have liquidity risk characteristics that are similar to comparable transactions with individuals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total aggregate funding raised from the business customer is less than $1.5 million; or
</P>
<P>(3) A living or testamentary trust that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is solely for the benefit of natural persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not have a corporate trustee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years, if applicable under state law.
</P>
<P><I>Small financial institution</I> means a company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized as a bank, as defined in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)), the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a savings association, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a farm credit system institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2002 <I>et seq.</I>); or an insured Federal credit union or State-chartered credit union under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(2) Has total assets of $10,000,000,000 or less on the last day of the company's most recent fiscal year.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary of a covered bank</I> means any operating subsidiary of a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency as defined in § 5.34 of this chapter (national banks), or § 5.38 of this chapter (Federal savings associations), or any other entity owned or controlled by the covered bank that would be a subsidiary under 12 U.S.C. 1841 (Bank Holding Company Act).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. agency</I> has the same meaning as the term “agency” in 12 U.S.C. 3101(1).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. branch</I> has the same meaning as the term “branch” in 12 U.S.C. 3101(3).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. special resolution regimes</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811-1835a) and regulations promulgated thereunder and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381-5394) and regulations promulgated thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A covered bank must ensure that each covered QFC conforms to the requirements of §§ 47.4 and 47.5.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered bank</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> For purposes of this part, a covered bank is:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that has more than $700 billion in total assets as reported on the national bank's or Federal savings association's most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report);
</P>
<P>(ii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important bank holding company that has been designated pursuant to § 252.82 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.82);
</P>
<P>(iii) A national bank or Federal savings association that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important foreign banking organization that has been designated pursuant to § 252.87 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.87); or
</P>
<P>(iv) A Federal branch or agency, as defined in subpart B of this chapter (governing Federal branches and agencies), of a global systemically important foreign banking organization that has been designated pursuant to § 252.87 of this title (Federal Reserve Board Regulation YY) (12 CFR 252.87).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsidiary of a covered bank.</I> This part applies to a subsidiary of a covered bank as provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Specifically, the covered bank is required to ensure that a covered QFC to which the subsidiary of a covered bank is a party (as a direct counterparty or a support provider) satisfies the requirements of §§ 47.4 and 47.5 in the same manner and to the same extent applicable to the covered bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsidiaries not included as covered banks.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a covered bank does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary that is owned by a covered bank in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith pursuant to section 5137 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 29) (national bank) or section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464) (Federal savings association);
</P>
<P>(ii) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662) (national banks), or under section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)) (Federal savings associations);
</P>
<P>(iii) A subsidiary that is owned pursuant to paragraph (7) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh)), or paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(Eleventh)) (national banks), or § 5.59 of this chapter (12 CFR 5.59) (Federal savings associations) designed primarily to promote the public welfare, including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services or jobs).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered QFCs.</I> For purposes of this part, a covered QFC is:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered bank that is a covered bank on January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered bank, or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI, also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered bank that becomes a covered bank after January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank and January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered bank, if the covered bank or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI, also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>In-scope QFCs.</I> An in-scope QFC is a QFC that explicitly:
</P>
<P>(1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered bank does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial applicability of requirements for covered QFCs.</I> (1) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered bank that is a covered bank on January 1, 2018, must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this part by:
</P>
<P>(i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
</P>
<P>(ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI; or
</P>
<P>(iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this section, or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a small financial institution.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered bank that is not a covered bank on January 1, 2018, must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this part by:
</P>
<P>(i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following one year after the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
</P>
<P>(ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following two years from the date the covered bank first becomes a covered bank if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is not described in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section, or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered bank) is a small financial institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.4   U.S. special resolution regimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 47.3, a covered bank is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered QFC designates, in the manner described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each party to the covered QFC, other than the covered bank, is:
</P>
<P>(A) An individual that is domiciled in the United States, including any State;
</P>
<P>(B) A company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(C) A company the principal place of business of which is located in the United States, including any State; or
</P>
<P>(D) A U.S. branch or U.S. agency.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC designates the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly provides that the covered QFC is governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly provide that one or both of the U.S. special resolution regimes, or a broader set of laws that includes a U.S. special resolution regime, is excluded from the laws governing the covered QFC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provisions required.</I> A covered QFC must explicitly provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) In the event the covered bank becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, the transfer of the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) from the covered bank will be effective to the same extent as the transfer would be effective under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the covered bank or an affiliate of the covered bank becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, default rights with respect to the covered QFC that may be exercised against the covered bank are permitted to be exercised to no greater extent than the default rights could be exercised under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relevance of creditor protection provisions.</I> The requirements of this section apply notwithstanding paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 47.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.5   Insolvency proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> Notwithstanding § 47.3, a covered bank is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not explicitly provide any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not explicitly prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or would prohibit such a transfer only if the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General prohibitions.</I> (1) A covered QFC may not permit the exercise of any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC may not prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding unless the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions relevant to the general prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>Direct party. Direct party</I> means a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI that is a party to the direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct QFC. Direct QFC</I> means a QFC that is not a credit enhancement, provided that, for a QFC that is a master agreement that includes an affiliate credit enhancement as a supplement to the master agreement, the direct QFC does not include the affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliate credit enhancement. Affiliate credit enhancement</I> means a credit enhancement that is provided by an affiliate of a party to the direct QFC that the credit enhancement supports.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General creditor protections.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered direct QFC and covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC may permit the exercise of a default right with respect to the covered QFC that arises as a result of:
</P>
<P>(1) The direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to the covered QFC or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default right in the covered QFC; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider or transferee not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to a covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions relevant to the general creditor protections</I>—(1) <I>Covered direct QFC. Covered direct QFC</I> means a direct QFC to which a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI is a party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered affiliate credit enhancement. Covered affiliate credit enhancement</I> means an affiliate credit enhancement in which a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI is the obligor of the credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered affiliate support provider. Covered affiliate support provider</I> means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the affiliate of the direct party that is obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement and is not a transferee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supported party. Supported party</I> means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement and the direct QFC that the covered affiliate credit enhancement supports, a party that is a beneficiary of the covered affiliate support provider's obligation under the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional creditor protections for supported QFCs.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right after the stay period that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered affiliate support provider that remains obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a Chapter 11 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, the transferee, if any, becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider does not remain, and a transferee does not become, obligated to the same, or substantially similar, extent as the covered affiliate support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered affiliate credit enhancement;
</P>
<P>(ii) All other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of other covered direct QFCs between the direct party and the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of covered direct QFCs between the direct party and affiliates of the supported party referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a transfer of the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee:
</P>
<P>(i) All of the ownership interests of the direct party directly or indirectly held by the covered affiliate support provider are not transferred to the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable assurance has not been provided that all or substantially all of the assets of the covered affiliate support provider (or net proceeds therefrom), excluding any assets reserved for the payment of costs and expenses of administration in the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, will be transferred or sold to the transferee in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definitions relevant to the additional creditor protections for supported QFCs</I>—(1) <I>Stay period. Stay period</I> means, with respect to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, the period of time beginning on the commencement of the proceeding and ending at the later of 5:00 p.m. (eastern time) on the business day following the date of the commencement of the proceeding and 48 hours after the commencement of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business day. Business day</I> means a day on which commercial banks in the jurisdiction the proceeding is commenced are open for general business (including dealings in foreign exchange and foreign currency deposits).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transferee. Transferee</I> means a person to whom a covered affiliate credit enhancement is transferred upon the covered affiliate support provider entering a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or thereafter as part of the resolution, restructuring, or reorganization involving the covered affiliate support provider.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Creditor protections related to FDI Act proceedings.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (d), and (f) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to FDI Act proceedings:
</P>
<P>(1) After the FDI Act stay period, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is not transferred pursuant to section 11(e)(9)-(e)(10) of Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(9)-(e)(10)) and any regulations promulgated thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(2) During the FDI Act stay period, if the default right may only be exercised so as to permit the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement to suspend performance with respect to the supported party's obligations under the covered direct QFC to the same extent as the supported party would be entitled to do if the covered direct QFC were with the covered affiliate support provider and were treated in the same manner as the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibited terminations.</I> A covered QFC must require, after an affiliate of the direct party has become subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding:
</P>
<P>(1) The party seeking to exercise a default right to bear the burden of proof that the exercise is permitted under the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) Clear and convincing evidence or a similar or higher burden of proof to exercise a default right.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.6   Approval of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protocol compliance.</I> (1) Unless the OCC determines otherwise based on the specific facts and circumstances, a covered QFC is deemed to comply with this part if it is amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC will be deemed to be amended by the universal protocol for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section notwithstanding the covered QFC being amended by one or more Country Annexes, as the term is defined in the universal protocol.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The <I>universal protocol</I> means the ISDA 2015 Universal Resolution Stay Protocol, including the Securities Financing Transaction Annex and Other Agreements Annex, published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., as of May 3, 2016, and minor or technical amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(ii) The <I>U.S. protocol</I> means a protocol that is the same as the universal protocol other than as provided in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The provisions of Section 1 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI and may be limited with respect to resolutions under the Identified Regimes, as those regimes are identified by the universal protocol;
</P>
<P>(B) The provisions of Section 2 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
</P>
<P>(C) The provisions of Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply with respect to U.S. special resolution regimes;
</P>
<P>(D) The provision of Section 4(b) of the attachment to the universal protocol may only be effective to the extent that the covered QFC affected by an adherent's election thereunder would continue to meet the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(E) The provisions of Section 2(k) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply; and
</P>
<P>(F) The U.S. protocol may include minor and technical differences from the universal protocol and differences necessary to conform the U.S. protocol to the differences described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol, with respect to covered QFCs between adherents to the protocol, includes amendments through incorporation of the terms of the protocol (by reference or otherwise) into the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The <I>attachment to the universal protocol</I> means the attachment that the universal protocol identifies as “ATTACHMENT to the ISDA 2015 UNIVERSAL RESOLUTION STAY PROTOCOL.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposal of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</I> (1) A covered bank may request that the OCC approve as compliant with the requirements of §§ 47.4 and 47.5 proposed provisions of one or more forms of covered QFCs, or proposed amendments to one or more forms of covered QFCs, with enhanced creditor protection conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Enhanced creditor protection conditions means a set of limited exemptions to the requirements of § 47.5(b) that are different than that of paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 47.5.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered bank making a request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) An analysis of the proposal that addresses each consideration in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A written legal opinion verifying that proposed provisions or amendments would be valid and enforceable under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, including, in the case of proposed amendments, the validity and enforceability of the proposal to amend the covered QFCs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information that the OCC requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>OCC approval.</I> The OCC may approve, subject to any conditions or commitments the OCC may set, a proposal by a covered bank under paragraph (b) of this section if the proposal, as compared to a covered QFC that contains only the limited exemptions in paragraphs of (d), (f), and (h) of § 47.5 or that is amended as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, would promote the safety and soundness of federally chartered or licensed institutions by mitigating the potential destabilizing effects of the resolution of a global significantly important banking entity that is an affiliate of the covered bank, at least to the same extent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Considerations.</I> In reviewing a proposal under this section, the OCC may consider all facts and circumstances related to the proposal, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would reduce the resiliency of such covered banks during distress or increase the impact on U.S. financial stability were one or more of the covered banks to fail;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would materially decrease the ability of a covered bank, or an affiliate of a covered bank, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the covered bank, or an affiliate of a covered bank, that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the set of conditions or the mechanism in which they are applied facilitates, on an industry-wide basis, contractual modifications to remove impediments to resolution and increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment with respect to the default rights of non-defaulting parties to a covered QFC;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal applies to existing and future transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would apply to multiple forms of QFCs or multiple covered banks or an affiliates of covered banks;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the proposal would permit a party to a covered QFC that is within the scope of the proposal to adhere to the proposal with respect to only one or a subset of covered banks or an affiliates of covered banks;
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to a supported party, the degree of assurance the proposal provides to the supported party that the material payment and delivery obligations of the covered affiliate credit enhancement and the covered direct QFC it supports will continue to be performed after the covered affiliate support provider enters a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) The presence, nature, and extent of any provisions that require a covered affiliate support provider or transferee to meet conditions other than material payment or delivery obligations to its creditors;
</P>
<P>(9) The extent to which the supported party's overall credit risk to the direct party may increase if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are not met and the likelihood that the supported party's credit risk to the direct party would decrease or remain the same if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are met; and
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the proposal provides the counterparty with additional default rights or other rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.7   Foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</I> With respect to a Federal branch or agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization, a foreign bank multi-branch master agreement that is a covered QFC solely because the master agreement permits agreements or transactions that are QFCs to be entered into at one or more Federal branches or agencies of the global systemically important foreign banking organization will be considered a covered QFC for purposes of this part only with respect to such agreements or transactions booked at such Federal branches or agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</I> A <I>foreign bank multi-branch master agreement</I> means a master agreement that permits a Federal branch or agency and another place of business of a foreign bank that is outside the United States to enter transactions under the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 47.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.42.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 47.8   Exclusion of certain QFCs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion of QFCs with FMUs.</I> Notwithstanding § 47.3, a covered bank is not required to conform to the requirements of this part a covered QFC to which:
</P>
<P>(1) A CCP is party; or
</P>
<P>(2) Each party (other than the covered bank) is an FMU.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion of certain covered entity and covered FSI QFCs.</I> If a covered QFC is also a covered QFC under part 382 or 252, subpart I, of this title that an affiliate of the covered bank is also required to conform pursuant to part 382 or 252, subpart I, of this title and the covered bank is:
</P>
<P>(1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered bank is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party to which the excluded bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered bank is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of certain contracts.</I> Notwithstanding § 47.3, a covered bank is not required to conform the following types of contracts or agreements to the requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) An investment advisory contract that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered into pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered bank except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby.
</P>
<P>(2) A warrant that:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered bank or an affiliate of the covered bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Was issued prior to January 1, 2018.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption by order.</I> The OCC may exempt by order one or more covered banks from conforming one or more contracts or types of contracts to one or more of the requirements of this part after considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered bank, or affiliates of the covered bank, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factor the OCC deems relevant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="48" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 48—RETAIL FOREIGN EXCHANGE TRANSACTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 27 <I>et seq.;</I> 12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 24, 93a, 161, 1461 <I>et seq.,</I> 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1813(q), 1818, 1831o, 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3102, 3106a, 3108, and 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 48.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>National banks.</I> A national bank may offer or enter into retail foreign exchange transactions. A national bank offering or entering into retail foreign exchange transactions must comply with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> A Federal savings association may offer or enter into retail foreign exchange transactions. A Federal savings association offering or entering into retail foreign exchange transactions must comply with the requirements of this part as if each reference to a national bank were a reference to a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes rules applicable to retail foreign exchange transactions engaged in by national banks and applies on or after the effective date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, this part applies to national banks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International applicability.</I> Sections 48.3 and 48.5 to 48.16 do not apply to retail foreign exchange transactions between a foreign branch of a national bank and a non-U.S. customer. With respect to those transactions, the foreign branch remains subject to any disclosure, recordkeeping, capital, margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, and other requirements of foreign law applicable to the branch.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 56096, Sept. 12, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions in this section, for purposes of this part, the following terms have the same meaning as in the Commodity Exchange Act: “Affiliated person of a futures commission merchant”; “associated person”; “contract of sale”; “commodity”; “eligible contract participant”; “futures commission merchant”; “future delivery”; “option”; “security”; and “security futures product”.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464) or an operating subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Forex</I> means foreign exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Identified banking product</I> has the same meaning as in section 401(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)).
</P>
<P><I>Institution-affiliated party</I> or <I>IAP</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(u)(1), (2), or (3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)(1), (2), or (3)).
</P>
<P><I>Introducing broker</I> means any person that solicits or accepts orders from a retail forex customer in connection with retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P><I>National bank</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank, each as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101; and
</P>
<P>(3) An operating subsidiary of a national bank or an operating subsidiary of a Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P><I>Related person,</I> when used in reference to a retail forex counterparty, means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any general partner, officer, director, or owner of 10 percent or more of the capital stock of the retail forex counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) An associated person or employee of the retail forex counterparty, if the retail forex counterparty is not a national bank;
</P>
<P>(3) An IAP of the retail forex counterparty, if the retail forex counterparty is a national bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) A relative or spouse of any of the foregoing persons, or a relative of such spouse, who shares the same home as any of the foregoing persons.
</P>
<P><I>Retail foreign exchange dealer</I> means any person other than a retail forex customer that is, or that offers to be, the counterparty to a retail forex transaction, except for a person described in item (aa), (bb), (cc)(AA), (dd), or (ff) of section 2(c)(2)(B)(i)(II) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(B)(i)(II)).
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex account</I> means the account of a retail forex customer, established with a national bank, in which retail forex transactions with the national bank as counterparty are undertaken, or the account of a retail forex customer that is established in order to enter into such transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex account agreement</I> means the contractual agreement between a national bank and a retail forex customer that contains the terms governing the customer's retail forex account with the national bank.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex business</I> means engaging in one or more retail forex transactions with the intent to derive income from those transactions, either directly or indirectly.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex counterparty</I> includes, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) A national bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A retail foreign exchange dealer;
</P>
<P>(3) A futures commission merchant; and
</P>
<P>(4) An affiliated person of a futures commission merchant.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex customer</I> means a customer that is not an eligible contract participant, acting on his, her, or its own behalf and engaging in retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex obligation</I> means an obligation of a retail forex customer with respect to a retail forex transaction, including trading losses, fees, spreads, charges, and commissions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex proprietary account</I> means: A retail forex account carried on the books of a national bank for one of the following persons; a retail forex account of which 10 percent or more is owned by one of the following persons; or a retail forex account of which an aggregate of 10 percent or more of which is owned by more than one of the following persons:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank;
</P>
<P>(2) An officer, director, or owner of 10 percent or more of the capital stock of the national bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) An employee of the national bank, whose duties include:
</P>
<P>(i) The management of the national bank's business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The handling of the national bank's retail forex transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The keeping of records, including without limitation the software used to make or maintain those records, pertaining to the national bank's retail forex transactions; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The signing or co-signing of checks or drafts on behalf of the national bank;
</P>
<P>(4) A spouse or minor dependent living in the same household as any of the foregoing persons; or
</P>
<P>(5) An affiliate of the national bank.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex transaction</I> means an agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency, other than an identified banking product or a part of an identified banking product, that is offered or entered into by a national bank with a person that is not an eligible contract participant and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract;
</P>
<P>(2) An option, other than an option executed or traded on a national securities exchange registered pursuant to section 6(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78(f)(a)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Offered or entered into on a leveraged or margined basis, or financed by a national bank, its affiliate, or any person acting in concert with the national bank or its affiliate on a similar basis, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is not a security futures product as defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contract of sale that:
</P>
<P>(A) Results in actual delivery within two days; or
</P>
<P>(B) Creates an enforceable obligation to deliver between a seller and buyer that have the ability to deliver and accept delivery, respectively, in connection with their line of business; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An agreement, contract, or transaction that the OCC determines is not functionally or economically similar to:
</P>
<P>(A) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract; or
</P>
<P>(B) An option, other than an option executed or traded on a national securities exchange registered pursuant to section 6(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78(f)(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 56096, Sept. 12, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.3   Prohibited transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fraudulent conduct prohibited.</I> No national bank or its IAPs may, directly or indirectly, in or in connection with any retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Cheat or defraud or attempt to cheat or defraud any person;
</P>
<P>(2) Willfully make or cause to be made to any person any false report or statement or cause to be entered for any person any false record; or
</P>
<P>(3) Willfully deceive or attempt to deceive any person by any means whatsoever.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acting as counterparty and exercising discretion prohibited.</I> If a national bank can cause retail forex transactions to be effected for a retail forex customer without the retail forex customer's specific authorization, then neither the national bank nor its affiliates may act as the counterparty for any retail forex transaction with that retail forex customer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.4   Supervisory non-objection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervisory non-objection required.</I> Before commencing a retail forex business, a national bank must provide the OCC with prior notice and obtain from the OCC a written supervisory non-objection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for obtaining supervisory non-objection.</I> (1) In order to obtain a written supervisory non-objection, a national bank must:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish to the satisfaction of the OCC that the national bank has established and implemented written policies, procedures, and risk measurement and management systems and controls for the purpose of ensuring that it conducts retail forex transactions in a safe and sound manner and in compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide such other information as the OCC may require.
</P>
<P>(2) The information provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include, without limitation, information regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) Customer due diligence, including without limitation credit evaluations, customer appropriateness, and “know your customer” documentation;
</P>
<P>(ii) New product approvals;
</P>
<P>(iii) The haircuts that the national bank will apply to noncash margin as provided in § 48.9(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of existing retail forex businesses.</I> A national bank that is engaged in a retail forex business on July 15, 2011 or September 12, 2011 for Federal savings associations, may continue to do so for up to six months, subject to an extension of time by the OCC, if it requests the supervisory non-objection required by paragraph (a) of this section within 30 days of July 15, 2011 or September 12, 2011 for Federal savings associations, and submits the information required to be submitted under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance with the Commodity Exchange Act.</I> A national bank that is engaged in a retail forex business on July 15, 2011 or September 12, 2011 for Federal savings associations and complies with paragraph (c) of this section will be deemed, during the six-month or extended period described in paragraph (c) of this section, to be acting pursuant to a rule or regulation described in section 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 56096, Sept. 12, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.5   Application and closing out of offsetting long and short positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of purchases and sales.</I> Any national bank that—
</P>
<P>(1) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the purchase of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has an open retail forex transaction for the sale of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the sale of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has an open retail forex transaction for the purchase of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has a short put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that purchased; or
</P>
<P>(4) Sells a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has a long put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that sold must:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately apply such purchase or sale against such previously held opposite transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly furnish such retail forex customer with a statement showing the financial result of the transactions involved and the name of any introducing broker to the account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Close-out against oldest open position.</I> In all instances in which the short or long position in a customer's retail forex account immediately prior to an offsetting purchase or sale is greater than the quantity purchased or sold, the national bank must apply such offsetting purchase or sale to the oldest portion of the previously held short or long position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transactions to be applied as directed by customer.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, to the extent the national bank allows retail forex customers to use other methods of offsetting retail forex transactions, the offsetting transaction must be applied as directed by a retail forex customer's specific instructions. These instructions may not be made by the national bank or an IAP of the national bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.6   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk disclosure statement required.</I> No national bank may open or maintain open an account that will engage in retail forex transactions for a retail forex customer unless the national bank has furnished the retail forex customer with a separate written disclosure statement containing only the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgment of risk disclosure statement required.</I> The national bank must receive from the retail forex customer a written acknowledgment signed and dated by the customer that the customer received and understood the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Placement of risk disclosure statement.</I> The disclosure statement may be attached to other documents as the initial page(s) of such documents and as the only material on such page(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of risk disclosure statement.</I> The language set forth in the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section is as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Risk Disclosure Statement
</HD1>
<P>Retail forex transactions involve the leveraged trading of contracts denominated in foreign currency with [name of entity] as your counterparty. Because of the leverage and the other risks disclosed here, you can rapidly lose all of the funds or property you pledge to [name of entity] as margin for retail forex trading. You may lose more than you pledge as margin.
</P>
<P>If your margin falls below the required amount, and you fail to provide the required additional margin, [name of entity] is required to liquidate your retail forex transactions. [Name of entity] cannot apply your retail forex losses to any of your assets or liabilities at [name of entity] other than funds or property that you have pledged as margin for retail forex transactions. However, if you lose more money than you have pledged as margin, [name of entity] may seek to recover that deficiency in an appropriate forum, such as a court of law.
</P>
<P>You should be aware of and carefully consider the following points before determining whether retail forex trading is appropriate for you.
</P>
<P>(1) Trading is not on a regulated market or exchange—[name of entity] is your trading counterparty and has conflicting interests. The retail forex transaction you are entering into is not conducted on an interbank market nor is it conducted on a futures exchange subject to regulation as a designated contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission. The foreign currency trades you transact are trades with [name of entity] as the counterparty. When you sell, [name of entity] is the buyer. When you buy, [name of entity] is the seller. As a result, when you lose money trading, [name of entity] is making money on such trades, in addition to any fees, commissions, or spreads [name of entity] may charge.
</P>
<P>(2) An electronic trading platform for retail foreign currency transactions is not an exchange. It is an electronic connection for accessing [name of entity]. The terms of availability of such a platform are governed only by your contract with [name of entity]. Any trading platform that you may use to enter into off-exchange foreign currency transactions is only connected to [name of entity]. You are accessing that trading platform only to transact with [name of entity]. You are not trading with any other entities or customers of [name of entity] by accessing such platform. The availability and operation of any such platform, including the consequences of the unavailability of the trading platform for any reason, is governed only by the terms of your account agreement with [name of entity].
</P>
<P>(3) You may be able to offset or liquidate any trading positions only through [name of national bank] because the transactions are not made on an exchange or regulated contract market, and [name of entity] may set its own prices. Your ability to close your transactions or offset positions is limited to what [name of entity] will offer to you, as there is no other market for these transactions. [Name of entity] may offer any prices it wishes, including prices derived from outside sources or not in its discretion. [Name of entity] may establish its prices by offering spreads from third-party prices, but it is under no obligation to do so or to continue to do so. [Name of entity] may offer different prices to different customers at any point in time on its own terms. The terms of your account agreement alone govern the obligations [name of entity] has to you to offer prices and offer offset or liquidating transactions in your account and make any payments to you. The prices offered by [name of entity] may or may not reflect prices available elsewhere at any exchange, interbank, or other market for foreign currency.
</P>
<P>(4) Paid solicitors may have undisclosed conflicts. [Name of entity] may compensate introducing brokers for introducing your account in ways that are not disclosed to you. Such paid solicitors are not required to have, and may not have, any special expertise in trading and may have conflicts of interest based on the method by which they are compensated. You should thoroughly investigate the manner in which all such solicitors are compensated and be very cautious in granting any person or entity authority to trade on your behalf. You should always consider obtaining dated written confirmation of any information you are relying on from [name of entity] in making any trading or account decisions.
</P>
<P>(5) Retail forex transactions are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(6) Retail forex transactions are not a deposit in, or guaranteed by, [name of entity].
</P>
<P>(7) Retail forex transactions are subject to investment risks, including possible loss of all amounts invested.
</P>
<P>Finally, you should thoroughly investigate any statements by [name of entity] that minimize the importance of, or contradict, any of the terms of this risk disclosure. These statements may indicate sales fraud.
</P>
<P>This brief statement cannot, of course, disclose all the risks and other aspects of trading off-exchange foreign currency with [name of entity].
</P>
<P>I hereby acknowledge that I have received and understood this risk disclosure statement.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Customer</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Disclosure of profitable accounts ratio.</I> Immediately following the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section must include, for each of the most recent four calendar quarters during which the national bank maintained retail forex customer accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of retail forex customer accounts maintained by the national bank over which the national bank does not exercise investment discretion;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of such accounts that were profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's statement of profitable trades must include the following legend: “Past performance is not necessarily indicative of future results.” Each national bank must provide, upon request, to any retail forex customer or prospective retail forex customer the total number of retail forex accounts maintained by the national bank for which the national bank does not exercise investment discretion, the percentage of such accounts that were profitable, and the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for each calendar quarter during the most recent five-year period during which the national bank maintained such accounts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of fees and other charges.</I> Immediately following the language required by paragraph (e) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any fee, charge, spread, or commission that the national bank may impose on the retail forex customer in connection with a retail forex account or retail forex transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of how the national bank will determine the amount of such fees, charges, spreads, or commissions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The circumstances under which the national bank may impose such fees, charges, spreads, or commissions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Future disclosure requirements.</I> If, with regard to a retail forex customer, the national bank changes any fee, charge, or commission required to be disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section, then the national bank must mail or deliver to the retail forex customer a notice of the changes at least 15 days prior to the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other disclosure requirements unaffected.</I> This section does not relieve a national bank from any other disclosure obligation it may have under applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 56096, Sept. 12, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.7   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A national bank engaging in retail forex transactions must keep full, complete, and systematic records, together with all pertinent data and memoranda, pertaining to its retail forex business, including the following 6 types of records:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail forex account records.</I> For each retail forex account:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the person for whom the account is carried or introduced and the principal occupation or business of the person;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of any other person guaranteeing the account or exercising trading control with respect to the account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The establishment or termination of the account;
</P>
<P>(iv) A means to identify the person that has solicited and is responsible for the account;
</P>
<P>(v) The funds in the account, net of any commissions and fees;
</P>
<P>(vi) The account's net profits and losses on open trades;
</P>
<P>(vii) The funds in the account plus or minus the net profits and losses on open trades, adjusted for the net option value in the case of open options positions;
</P>
<P>(viii) Financial ledger records that show all charges against and credits to the account, including deposits, withdrawals, and transfers, and charges or credits resulting from losses or gains on closed transactions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A list of all retail forex transactions executed for the account, with the details specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail forex transaction records.</I> For each retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time the national bank received the order;
</P>
<P>(ii) The price at which the national bank placed the order, or, in the case of an option, the premium that the retail forex customer paid;
</P>
<P>(iii) The customer account identification information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The currency pair;
</P>
<P>(v) The size or quantity of the order;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the order was a buy or sell order;
</P>
<P>(vii) The type of order, if the order was not a market order;
</P>
<P>(viii) The size and price at which the order is executed, or in the case of an option, the amount of the premium paid for each option purchased, or the amount credited for each option sold;
</P>
<P>(ix) For options, whether the option is a put or call, expiration date, quantity, underlying contract for future delivery or underlying physical, strike price, and details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission, and fees; and
</P>
<P>(x) For futures, the delivery date; and
</P>
<P>(xi) If the order was made on a trading platform:
</P>
<P>(A) The price quoted on the trading platform when the order was placed, or, in the case of an option, the premium quoted;
</P>
<P>(B) The date and time the order was transmitted to the trading platform; and
</P>
<P>(C) The date and time the order was executed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Price changes on a trading platform.</I> If a trading platform is used, daily logs showing each price change on the platform, the time of the change to the nearest second, and the trading volume at that time and price.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Methods or algorithms.</I> Any method or algorithm used to determine the bid or asked price for any retail forex transaction or the prices at which customer orders are executed, including, but not limited to, any markups, fees, commissions or other items which affect the profitability or risk of loss of a retail forex customer's transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Daily records</I> which show for each business day complete details of:
</P>
<P>(i) All retail forex transactions that are futures transactions executed on that day, including the date, price, quantity, market, currency pair, delivery date, and the person for whom such transaction was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) All retail forex transactions that are option transactions executed on that day, including the date, whether the transaction involved a put or call, the expiration date, quantity, currency pair, delivery date, strike price, details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission and fees, and the person for whom the transaction was made; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All other retail forex transactions executed on that day for such account, including the date, price, quantity, currency and the person for whom such transaction was made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other records.</I> Written acknowledgments of receipt of the risk disclosure statement required by § 48.6(b), offset instructions pursuant to § 48.5(c), records required under paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, trading cards, signature cards, street books, journals, ledgers, payment records, copies of statements of purchase, and all other records, data, and memoranda that have been prepared in the course of the national bank's retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratio of profitable accounts.</I>

 (1) With respect to its active retail forex customer accounts over which it did not exercise investment discretion and that are not retail forex proprietary accounts open for any period of time during the quarter, a national bank must prepare and maintain on a quarterly basis (calendar quarter):
</P>
<P>(i) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were profitable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Data supporting the calculations described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating whether a retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter, the national bank must compute the realized and unrealized gains or losses on all retail forex transactions carried in the retail forex account at any time during the quarter, subtract all fees, commissions, and any other charges posted to the retail forex account during the quarter, and add any interest income and other income or rebates credited to the retail forex account during the quarter. All deposits and withdrawals of funds made by the retail forex customer during the quarter must be excluded from the computation of whether the retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter. Computations that result in a zero or negative number must be considered a retail forex account that was not profitable. Computations that result in a positive number must be considered a retail forex account that was profitable.
</P>
<P>(3) A retail forex account must be considered “active” for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section if and only if for the relevant calendar quarter a retail forex transaction was executed in that account or the retail forex account contained an open position resulting from a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records related to violations of law.</I> A national bank engaging in retail forex transactions must make a record of all communications received by the national bank or its IAPs concerning facts giving rise to possible violations of law related to the national bank's retail forex business. The record must contain: The name of the complainant, if provided; the date of the communication; the relevant agreement, contract, or transaction; the substance of the communication; the name of the person that received the communication; and the final disposition of the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records for noncash margin.</I> A national bank must maintain a record of all noncash margin collected pursuant to § 48.9. The record must show separately for each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the securities or property received;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of such retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) The dates when the securities or property were received;
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the depositories or other places where such securities or property are segregated or held, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) The dates in which the national bank placed or removed such securities or property into or from such depositories; and
</P>
<P>(6) The dates of return of such securities or property to such retail forex customer, or other disposition thereof, together with the facts and circumstances of such other disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order Tickets.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, immediately upon the receipt of a retail forex transaction order, a national bank must prepare an order ticket for the order (whether unfulfilled, executed, or canceled). The order ticket must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Account identification (account or customer name with which the retail forex transaction was effected);
</P>
<P>(ii) Order number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of order (market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions);
</P>
<P>(iv) Date and time, to the nearest minute, that the retail forex transaction order was received (as evidenced by time-stamp or other timing device);
</P>
<P>(v) Time, to the nearest minute, that the retail forex transaction order was executed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Price at which the retail forex transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-execution allocation of bunched orders.</I> Specific identifiers for retail forex accounts included in bunched orders need not be recorded at time of order placement or upon report of execution as required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank placing and directing the allocation of an order eligible for post-execution allocation has been granted written investment discretion with regard to participating customer accounts and makes the following information available to retail forex customers upon request:
</P>
<P>(A) The general nature of the post-execution allocation methodology the national bank will use;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the national bank has any interest in accounts that may be included with customer accounts in bunched orders eligible for post-execution allocation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Summary or composite data sufficient for that customer to compare the customer's results with those of other comparable customers and, if applicable, any account in which the national bank has an interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Post-execution allocations are made as soon as practicable after the entire transaction is executed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Post-execution allocations are fair and equitable, with no account or group of accounts receiving consistently favorable or unfavorable treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The post-execution allocation methodology is sufficiently objective and specific to permit the OCC to verify the fairness of the allocations using that methodology.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Record of monthly statements and confirmations.</I> A national bank must retain a copy of each monthly statement and confirmation required by § 48.10.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Form of record and manner of maintenance.</I> The records required by this section must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. A national bank must create and maintain audio recordings of oral orders and oral offset instructions. Record maintenance may include the use of automated or electronic records provided that the records are easily retrievable and readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Length of maintenance.</I> A national bank must keep each record required by this section for at least five years from the date the record is created.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.8   Capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well capitalized as defined by 12 CFR part 6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.9   Margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Margin required.</I> A national bank engaging, or offering to engage, in retail forex transactions must collect from each retail forex customer an amount of margin not less than:
</P>
<P>(1) Two percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for major currency pairs and 5 percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for all other currency pairs;
</P>
<P>(2) For short options, 2 percent for major currency pairs and 5 percent for all other currency pairs of the notional value of the retail forex transaction, plus the premium received by the retail forex customer; or
</P>
<P>(3) For long options, the full premium charged and received by the national bank.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Form of margin.</I> Margin collected under paragraph (a) of this section or pledged by a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions must be in the form of cash or the following financial instruments:
</P>
<P>(i) Obligations of the United States and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) General obligations of any State or of any political subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(iii) General obligations issued or guaranteed by any enterprise, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(10);
</P>
<P>(iv) Certificates of deposit issued by an insured depository institution, as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2));
</P>
<P>(v) Commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(vi) Corporate notes or bonds;
</P>
<P>(vii) General obligations of a sovereign nation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Interests in money market mutual funds; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Such other financial instruments as the OCC deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Haircuts.</I> A national bank must establish written policies and procedures that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Haircuts for noncash margin collected under this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual evaluation, and, if appropriate, modification, of the haircuts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separate margin account.</I> Margin collected by the national bank from a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions or pledged by a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions must be placed into a separate account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Margin calls; liquidation of position.</I> (1) For each retail forex customer, at least once per day, a national bank must:
</P>
<P>(i) Mark the value of the retail forex customer's open retail forex positions to market;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mark the value of the margin collected under this section from the retail forex customer to market; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determine whether, based on the marks in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, the national bank has collected margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If, pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section, the national bank determines that it has not collected margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section then, within a reasonable period of time, the national bank must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Collect margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquidate the retail forex customer's retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Set-off prohibited.</I> A national bank may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply a retail forex customer's retail forex obligations against any funds or other asset of the retail forex customer other than margin in the separate margin account described in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Apply a retail forex customer's retail forex obligations to increase the amount owed by the retail forex customer to the national bank under any loan; or
</P>
<P>(3) Collect the margin required under this section by use of any right of set-off.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.10   Required reporting to customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monthly statements.</I> Each national bank must promptly furnish to each retail forex customer, as of the close of the last business day of each month or as of any regular monthly date selected, except for accounts in which there are neither open positions at the end of the statement period nor any changes to the account balance since the prior statement period but, in any event, not less frequently than once every three months, a statement that clearly shows:
</P>
<P>(1) For each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(i) The open retail forex transactions with prices at which acquired;
</P>
<P>(ii) The net unrealized profits or losses in all open retail forex transactions marked to the market;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any money, securities, or other property in the separate margin account required by § 48.9(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: Money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; and fees, charges, spreads, and commissions.
</P>
<P>(2) For each retail forex customer engaging in retail forex transactions that are options:
</P>
<P>(i) All such options purchased, sold, exercised, or expired during the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(ii) The open option positions carried for such customer and arising as of the end of the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(iii) All such option positions marked to the market and the amount each position is in the money, if any;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any money, securities, or other property in the separate margin account required by § 48.9(c); and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: Money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; premiums and mark-ups; and fees, charges, and commissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation statement.</I> Each national bank must, not later than the next business day after any retail forex transaction, send:
</P>
<P>(1) To each retail forex customer, a written confirmation of each retail forex transaction caused to be executed by it for the customer, including offsetting transactions executed during the same business day and the rollover of an open retail forex transaction to the next business day;
</P>
<P>(2) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, a written confirmation of each forex option transaction, containing at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail forex customer's account identification number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate listing of the actual amount of the premium, as well as each markup thereon, if applicable, and all other commissions, costs, fees, and other charges incurred in connection with the forex option transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The strike price;
</P>
<P>(iv) The underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency;
</P>
<P>(v) The final exercise date of the forex option purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date that the forex option transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(3) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, upon the expiration or exercise of any option, a written confirmation statement thereof, which statement must include the date of such occurrence, a description of the option involved, and, in the case of exercise, the details of the retail forex or physical currency position that resulted therefrom including, if applicable, the final trading date of the retail forex transaction underlying the option.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a retail forex transaction that is caused to be executed for a pooled investment vehicle that engages in retail forex transactions need be confirmed only to the operator of such pooled investment vehicle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Controlled accounts.</I> With respect to any account controlled by any person other than the retail forex customer for whom such account is carried, each national bank must promptly furnish in writing to such other person the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Introduced accounts.</I> Each statement provided pursuant to the provisions of this section must, if applicable, show that the account for which the national bank was introduced by an introducing broker and the name of the introducing broker.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.11   Unlawful representations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No implication or representation of limiting losses.</I> No national bank engaged in retail foreign exchange transactions or its IAPs may imply or represent that it will, with respect to any retail customer forex account, for or on behalf of any person:
</P>
<P>(1) Guarantee such person or account against loss;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit the loss of such person or account; or
</P>
<P>(3) Not call for or attempt to collect margin as established for retail forex customers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No implication of representation of engaging in prohibited acts.</I> No national bank or its IAPs may in any way imply or represent that it will engage in any of the acts or practices described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No Federal government endorsement.</I> No national bank or its IAPs may represent or imply in any manner whatsoever that any retail forex transaction or retail forex product has been sponsored, recommended, or approved by the OCC, the Federal government, or any agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assuming or sharing of liability from bank error.</I> This section does not prevent a national bank from assuming or sharing in the losses resulting from the national bank's error or mishandling of a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain guaranties unaffected.</I> This section does not affect any guarantee entered into prior to the effective date of this part, but this section does apply to any extension, modification, or renewal thereof entered into after such date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.12   Authorization to trade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specific authorization required.</I> No national bank may directly or indirectly effect a retail forex transaction for the account of any retail forex customer unless, before the retail forex transaction occurs, the retail forex customer specifically authorized the national bank to effect the retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for specific authorization.</I> A retail forex transaction is “specifically authorized” for purposes of this section if the retail forex customer specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The precise retail forex transaction to be effected;
</P>
<P>(2) The exact amount of the foreign currency to be purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an option, the identity of the foreign currency or contract that underlies the option.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.13   Trading and operational standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Internal rules, procedures, and controls required.</I> A national bank engaging in retail forex transactions must establish and implement internal policies, procedures, and controls designed, at a minimum, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure, to the extent reasonable, that each retail forex transaction that is executable at or near the price that the national bank has quoted to the retail forex customer is entered for execution before any retail forex transaction for:
</P>
<P>(i) A proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(ii) An account for which a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(iii) An account in which a related person has an interest, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An account in which a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent national-bank related persons from placing orders, directly or indirectly, with another person in a manner designed to circumvent the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Fairly and objectively establish settlement prices for retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of retail forex transactions.</I> No national bank engaging in retail forex transactions may disclose that an order of another person is being held by the national bank, unless the disclosure is necessary to the effective execution of such order or the disclosure is made at the request of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handling of retail forex accounts of related persons of retail forex counterparties.</I> No national bank engaging in retail forex transactions may knowingly handle the retail forex account of an employee of another retail forex counterparty's retail forex business unless the national bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization from a person designated by the other retail forex counterparty with responsibility for the surveillance over the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepares immediately upon receipt of an order for the account a written record of the order, including the account identification and order number, and records thereon to the nearest minute, by time-stamp or other timing device, the date and time the order was received; and
</P>
<P>(3) Transmits on a regular basis to the other retail forex counterparty copies of all statements for the account and of all written records prepared upon the receipt of orders for the account pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related person of national bank establishing account at another retail forex counterparty.</I> No related person of a national bank working in the national bank's retail forex business may have an account, directly or indirectly, with another retail forex counterparty unless the other retail forex counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization to open and maintain the account from a person designated by the national bank with responsibility for the surveillance over the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Transmits on a regular basis to the national bank copies of all statements for the account and of all written records prepared by the other retail forex counterparty upon receipt of orders for the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited trading practices.</I> No national bank engaging in retail forex transactions may:
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into a retail forex transaction, to be executed pursuant to a market or limit order at a price that is not at or near the price at which other retail forex customers, during that same time period, have executed retail forex transactions with the national bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Adjust or alter prices for a retail forex transaction after the transaction has been confirmed to the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide to a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is higher than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also higher than its previous asked price by a similar amount;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide to a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is lower than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also lower than its previous asked price by a similar amount; or
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a new position for a retail forex customer (except one that offsets an existing position for that retail forex customer) where the national bank holds outstanding orders of other retail forex customers for the same currency pair at a comparable price.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.14   Supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision by the national bank.</I> A national bank engaging in retail forex transactions must diligently supervise the handling by its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) of all retail forex accounts carried, operated, or advised by at the national bank and all activities of its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) relating to its retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervision by officers, employees, or agents.</I> An officer, employee, or agent of a national bank must diligently supervise his or her subordinates' handling of all retail forex accounts at the national bank and all the subordinates' activities relating to the national bank's retail forex business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.15   Notice of transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice generally required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a national bank must provide a retail forex customer with 30 days' prior notice of any assignment of any position or transfer of any account of the retail forex customer. The notice must include a statement that the retail forex customer is not required to accept the proposed assignment or transfer and may direct the national bank to liquidate the positions of the retail forex customer or transfer the account to a retail forex counterparty of the retail forex customer's selection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to transfers:
</P>
<P>(1) Requested by the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(2) Made by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation as receiver or conservator under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise authorized by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligations of transferee national bank.</I> A national bank to which retail forex accounts or positions are assigned or transferred under paragraph (a) of this section must provide to the affected retail forex customers the risk disclosure statements and forms of acknowledgment required by this part and receive the required signed acknowledgments within 60 days of such assignments or transfers. This requirement does not apply if the national bank has clear written evidence that the retail forex customer has received and acknowledged receipt of the required disclosure statements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.16   Customer dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary submission of claims to dispute or settlement procedures.</I> No national bank may enter into any agreement or understanding with a retail forex customer in which the customer agrees, prior to the time a claim or grievance arises, to submit such claim or grievance to any settlement procedure unless the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Signing the agreement is not a condition for the customer to use the services offered by the national bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If the agreement is contained as a clause or clauses of a broader agreement, the customer separately endorses the clause or clauses.
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement advises the retail forex customer that, at such time as the customer notifies the national bank that the customer intends to submit a claim to arbitration, or at such time the national bank notifies the customer of its intent to submit a claim to arbitration, the customer will have the opportunity to choose a person qualified in dispute resolution to conduct the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) The agreement must acknowledge that the national bank will pay any incremental fees that may be assessed in connection with the dispute resolution, unless it is determined in the proceeding that the retail forex customer has acted in bad faith in initiating the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) The agreement must include the following language printed in large boldface type:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Two forums exist for the resolution of disputes related to retail forex transactions: civil court litigation and arbitration conducted by a private organization. The opportunity to settle disputes by arbitration may in some cases provide benefits to customers, including the ability to obtain an expeditious and final resolution of disputes without incurring substantial cost. Each customer must individually examine the relative merits of arbitration and consent to this arbitration agreement must be voluntary.
</P>
<P>By signing this agreement, you: (1) May be waving your right to sue in a court of law; and (2) are agreeing to be bound by arbitration of any claims or counterclaims that you or [name of entity] may submit to arbitration under this agreement. In the event a dispute arises, you will be notified if [name of entity] intends to submit the dispute to arbitration.
</P>
<P>You need not sign this agreement to open or maintain a retail forex account with [name of entity].</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Election of forum.</I> (1) Within 10 business days after receipt of notice from the retail forex customer that the customer intends to submit a claim to arbitration, the national bank must provide the customer with a list of persons qualified in dispute resolution.
</P>
<P>(2) The customer must, within 45 days after receipt of such list, notify the national bank of the person selected. The customer's failure to provide such notice must give the national bank the right to select a person from the list.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforceability.</I> A dispute settlement procedure may require parties using the procedure to agree, under applicable state law, submission agreement, or otherwise, to be bound by an award rendered in the procedure if the agreement to submit the claim or grievance to the procedure complies with paragraph (a) of this section or the agreement to submit the claim or grievance to the procedure was made after the claim or grievance arose. Any award so rendered by the procedure will be enforceable in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits for submission of claims.</I> The dispute settlement procedure used by the parties may not include any unreasonably short limitation period foreclosing submission of a customer's claims or grievances or counterclaims.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterclaims.</I> A procedure for the settlement of a retail forex customer's claims or grievances against a national bank or employee thereof may permit the submission of a counterclaim in the procedure by a person against whom a claim or grievance is brought if the counterclaim:
</P>
<P>(1) Arises out of the transaction or occurrence that is the subject of the retail forex customer's claim or grievance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not require for adjudication the presence of essential witnesses, parties, or third persons over which the settlement process lacks jurisdiction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41384, July 14, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 56097, Sept. 12, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 48.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.43.0.27.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 48.17   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may modify the disclosure, recordkeeping, capital and margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, or other standards or requirements under this part for a specific retail forex transaction or a class of retail forex transactions if the OCC determines that the modification is consistent with safety and soundness and the protection of retail forex customers.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="49" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 49 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 50—LIQUIDITY RISK MEASUREMENT STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> 93a, 481, 1818, 1828, and 1462 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.1.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes a minimum liquidity standard and a minimum stable funding standard for certain national banks and Federal savings associations on a consolidated basis, as set forth herein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association is subject to the minimum liquidity standard, minimum stable funding standard, and other requirements of this part if:
</P>
<P>(i) It is a:
</P>
<P>(A) GSIB depository institution supervised by the OCC;
</P>
<P>(B) Category II national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(C) Category III national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The OCC has determined that application of this part is appropriate in light of the national bank's or Federal savings association's asset size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, affiliation with foreign or domestic covered entities, or risk to the financial system.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A bridge financial company as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(3), or a subsidiary of a bridge financial company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A new depository institution or a bridge depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(i); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal branch or agency as defined by 12 CFR 28.11.
</P>
<P>(3) In making a determination under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59266, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 9207, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.1.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.2   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to hold an amount of high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity risk profile, if the OCC determines that the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity risks. In making determinations under this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<P>(b) The OCC may require a national bank or Federal savings association to maintain an amount of available stable funding greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the national bank's or Federal savings association's stable funding, if the OCC determines that the national bank's or Federal savings association's stable funding requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the national bank's or Federal savings association's funding risks. In making determinations under this section, the OCC will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 3.404.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the OCC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient liquidity levels, deficient stable funding levels, or violations of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9207, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.1.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated depository institution</I> means with respect to a national bank or Federal savings association that is a depository institution, another depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is also a consolidated subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Asset exchange</I> means a transaction in which, as of the calculation date, the counterparties have previously exchanged non-cash assets, and have each agreed to return such assets to each other at a future date. Asset exchanges do not include secured funding and secured lending transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Average weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> means the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-15 or, if the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed the FR Y-15 for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or averaged over the most recent quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> is defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Brokered deposit</I> means any deposit held at the national bank or Federal savings association that is obtained, directly or indirectly, from or through the mediation or assistance of a deposit broker as that term is defined in section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Brokered reciprocal deposit</I> means a brokered deposit that a national bank or Federal savings association receives through a deposit placement network on a reciprocal basis, such that:
</P>
<P>(1) For any deposit received, the national bank or Federal savings association (as agent for the depositors) places the same amount with other depository institutions through the network; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each member of the network sets the interest rate to be paid on the entire amount of funds it places with other network members.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation date</I> means, for subparts B through J of this part, any date on which a national bank or Federal savings association calculates its liquidity coverage ratio under § 50.10, and for subparts K through M of this part, any date on which a national bank or Federal savings association calculates its net stable funding ratio under § 50.100.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, NSFR regulatory capital element, or NSFR liability, the value on the balance sheet of the national bank or Federal savings association, each as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Category II national bank or Federal savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (1), a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category II national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the national bank or Federal savings association is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (<I>3</I>) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (2)(i) and (ii) of this definition, a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category II national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form;
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Category III national bank or Federal savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the national bank's or Federal savings association's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the national bank or Federal savings association has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (1), a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category III national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the national bank or Federal savings association is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (<I>3</I>) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) One or more of the following in paragraphs (2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each measured as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters, or if the depository institution has not filed the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, Call Report, or FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report, equal to $75 billion or more; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (2)(i) and (ii) of this definition, a national bank or Federal savings association continues to be a Category III national bank or Federal savings association until the national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Has less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II national bank or Federal savings bank; or
</P>
<P>(D) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Client pool security</I> means a security that is owned by a customer of the national bank or Federal savings association that is not an asset of the national bank or Federal savings association, regardless of a national bank's or Federal savings association's hypothecation rights with respect to the security.
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized deposit</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of a public sector entity held at the national bank or Federal savings association that is required to be secured under applicable law by a lien on assets owned by the national bank or Federal savings association and that gives the depositor, as holder of the lien, priority over the assets in the event the national bank or Federal savings association enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the national bank or Federal savings association for which the national bank or Federal savings association is a fiduciary and is required under 12 CFR 9.10(b) (national banks) or 12 CFR 150.300 through 150.320 (Federal savings associations) to set aside assets owned by the national bank or Federal savings association as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the national bank or Federal savings association enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the national bank or Federal savings association for which the national bank's or Federal savings association's affiliated insured depository institution is a fiduciary and where the national bank or Federal savings association under 12 CFR 9.10(c) (national banks), 12 CFR 150.310 (Federal savings associations), or applicable state law (state member and nonmember banks, and state savings associations) has set aside assets owned by the national bank or Federal savings association as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the national bank or Federal savings association enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Committed</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that under the terms of the facility, it is not unconditionally cancelable.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated subsidiary</I> means a company that is consolidated on the balance sheet of a national bank or Federal savings association or other company under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company or a national bank or Federal savings association, a consolidated subsidiary or a company that otherwise meets the definition of “subsidiary” in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P><I>Covered depository institution holding company</I> means a top-tier bank holding company or savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(A) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(4) A U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding</I> means a non-recourse loan that is extended as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility or Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility authorized by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to section 13(3) of the Federal Reserve Act.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility was authorized on March 18, 2020, and the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility was authorized on April 6, 2020.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Credit facility</I> means a legally binding agreement to extend funds if requested at a future date, including a general working capital facility such as a revolving credit facility for general corporate or working capital purposes. A credit facility does not include a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. <I>See liquidity facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Customer short position</I> means a legally binding written agreement pursuant to which the customer must deliver to the national bank or Federal savings association a non-cash asset that the customer has already sold.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit</I> means “deposit” as defined in section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>)) or an equivalent liability of the national bank or Federal savings association in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> is defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit insurance</I> means deposit insurance provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Derivative transaction</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, forward contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign currency exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days. A derivative does not include any identified banking product, as that term is defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Designated company</I> means a company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible HQLA</I> means a high-quality liquid asset that meets the requirements set forth in § 50.22.
</P>
<P><I>Encumbered</I> means, with respect to an asset, that the asset:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restriction on the ability of the national bank or Federal savings association to monetize the asset; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is pledged, explicitly or implicitly, to secure or to provide credit enhancement to any transaction, not including when the asset is pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise where:
</P>
<P>(i) Potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended to the national bank or Federal savings association or its consolidated subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pledged asset is not required to support access to the payment services of a central bank.
</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> means fair value as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Financial sector entity</I> means an investment adviser, investment company, pension fund, non-regulated fund, regulated financial company, or identified company.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign withdrawable reserves</I> means a national bank's or Federal savings association's balances held by or on behalf of the national bank or Federal savings association at a foreign central bank that are not subject to restrictions on the national bank's or Federal savings association's ability to use the reserves.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
</P>
<P><I>GSIB depository institution</I> means a depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC and has total consolidated assets equal to $10 billion or more, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent calendar quarter or the average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this definition, a depository institution continues to be a GSIB depository institution until the depository institution has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the depository institution is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P><I>High-quality liquid asset (HQLA)</I> means an asset that is a level 1 liquid asset, level 2A liquid asset, or level 2B liquid asset, in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 50.20.
</P>
<P><I>HQLA amount</I> means the HQLA amount as calculated under § 50.21.
</P>
<P><I>Identified company</I> means any company that the OCC has determined should be treated for the purposes of this part the same as a regulated financial company, investment company, non-regulated fund, pension fund, or investment adviser, based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operations to those entities.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person, and does not include a sole proprietorship.
</P>
<P><I>Investment adviser</I> means a company registered with the SEC as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such company.
</P>
<P><I>Investment company</I> means a person or company registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such persons or companies.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid and readily-marketable</I> has the meaning given the term in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P><I>Liquidity facility</I> means a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. A liquidity facility includes an agreement to provide liquidity support to asset-backed commercial paper by lending to, or purchasing assets from, any structure, program or conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing asset-backed commercial paper. Liquidity facilities exclude facilities that are established solely for the purpose of general working capital, such as revolving credit facilities for general corporate or working capital purposes. If a facility has characteristics of both credit and liquidity facilities, the facility must be classified as a liquidity facility. <I>See credit facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the OCC determines poses comparable risk.
</P>
<P><I>Municipal obligation</I> means an obligation of:
</P>
<P>(1) A state or any political subdivision thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any agency or instrumentality of a state or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Non-regulated fund</I> means any hedge fund or private equity fund whose investment adviser is required to file SEC Form PF (Reporting Form for Investment Advisers to Private Funds and Certain Commodity Pool Operators and Commodity Trading Advisors), other than a small business investment company as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Nonperforming exposure</I> means an exposure that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>NSFR liability</I> means any liability or equity reported on a national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet that is not an NSFR regulatory capital element.
</P>
<P><I>NSFR regulatory capital element</I> means any capital element included in a national bank's or Federal savings association's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, and tier 2 capital, in each case as defined in 12 CFR 3.20, prior to application of capital adjustments or deductions as set forth in 12 CFR 3.22, excluding any debt or equity instrument that does not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in 12 CFR 3.22 and is being phased out of tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital pursuant to subpart G of 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<P><I>Operational deposit</I> means short-term unsecured wholesale funding that is a deposit, unsecured wholesale lending that is a deposit, or a collateralized deposit, in each case that meets the requirements of § 50.4(b) with respect to that deposit and is necessary for the provision of operational services as an independent third-party intermediary, agent, or administrator to the wholesale customer or counterparty providing the deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Operational services</I> means the following services, provided they are performed as part of cash management, clearing, or custody services:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment remittance;
</P>
<P>(2) Administration of payments and cash flows related to the safekeeping of investment assets, not including the purchase or sale of assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Payroll administration and control over the disbursement of funds;
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission, reconciliation, and confirmation of payment orders;
</P>
<P>(5) Daylight overdraft;
</P>
<P>(6) Determination of intra-day and final settlement positions;
</P>
<P>(7) Settlement of securities transactions;
</P>
<P>(8) Transfer of capital distributions and recurring contractual payments;
</P>
<P>(9) Customer subscriptions and redemptions;
</P>
<P>(10) Scheduled distribution of customer funds;
</P>
<P>(11) Escrow, funds transfer, stock transfer, and agency services, including payment and settlement services, payment of fees, taxes, and other expenses; and
</P>
<P>(12) Collection and aggregation of funds.
</P>
<P><I>Pension fund</I> means an employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the U.S. sovereign entity level.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly traded</I> means, with respect to an equity security, that the equity security is traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the security in question.
</P>
<P><I>QMNA netting set</I> means a group of derivative transactions with a single counterparty that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and is netted under the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the national bank or Federal savings association the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 225, or part 382 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution holding company or designated company;
</P>
<P>(2) A company included in the organization chart of a depository institution holding company on the Form FR Y-6, as listed in the hierarchy report of the depository institution holding company produced by the National Information Center (NIC) website,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> provided that the top-tier depository institution holding company is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under 12 CFR part 249;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/nicpubweb/nicweb/NicHome.aspx.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); national bank, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution;
</P>
<P>(4) An insurance company;
</P>
<P>(5) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o); futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>); swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a); or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c);
</P>
<P>(6) A designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462);
</P>
<P>(7) A U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any company not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this definition (<I>e.g.,</I> a foreign banking organization, foreign insurance company, foreign securities broker or dealer or foreign financial market utility).
</P>
<P>(9) A regulated financial company does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. government-sponsored enterprises;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Central banks, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or multilateral development banks.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve Bank balances</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Balances held in a master account of the national bank or Federal savings association at a Federal Reserve Bank, less any balances that are attributable to any respondent of the national bank or Federal savings association if the national bank or Federal savings association is a correspondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(l));
</P>
<P>(2) Balances held in a master account of a correspondent of the national bank or Federal savings association that are attributable to the national bank or Federal savings association if the national bank or Federal savings association is a respondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D;
</P>
<P>(3) “Excess balances” of the national bank or Federal savings association as defined in section 204.2(z) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(z)) that are maintained in an “excess balance account” as defined in section 204.2(aa) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(aa)) if the national bank or Federal savings association is an excess balance account participant; or
</P>
<P>(4) “Term deposits” of the national bank or Federal savings association as defined in section 204.2(dd) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(dd)) if such term deposits are offered and maintained pursuant to terms and conditions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly and contractually permit such term deposits to be withdrawn upon demand prior to the expiration of the term, or that
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit such term deposits to be pledged as collateral for term or automatically-renewing overnight advances from the Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A business customer, but solely if and to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association manages its transactions with the business customer, including deposits, unsecured funding, and credit facility and liquidity facility transactions, in the same way it manages its transactions with individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transactions with the business customer have liquidity risk characteristics that are similar to comparable transactions with individuals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total aggregate funding raised from the business customer is less than $1.5 million; or
</P>
<P>(3) A living or testamentary trust that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is solely for the benefit of natural persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not have a corporate trustee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years, if applicable under state law.
</P>
<P><I>Retail deposit</I> means a demand or term deposit that is placed with the national bank or Federal savings association by a retail customer or counterparty, other than a brokered deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Retail mortgage</I> means a mortgage that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Secured funding transaction</I> means any funding transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of the national bank or Federal savings association to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the national bank or Federal savings association, which gives the wholesale customer or counterparty, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the national bank or Federal savings association enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured funding transactions include repurchase transactions, securities lending transactions, other secured loans, and borrowings from a Federal Reserve Bank. Secured funding transactions do not include securities.
</P>
<P><I>Secured lending transaction</I> means any lending transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the national bank or Federal savings association that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the wholesale customer or counterparty, which gives the national bank or Federal savings association, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the counterparty enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured lending transactions include reverse repurchase transactions and securities borrowing transactions. Secured lending transactions do not include securities.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose entity</I> means a company organized for a specific purpose, the activities of which are significantly limited to those appropriate to accomplish a specific purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the credit risk of the special purpose entity.
</P>
<P><I>Stable retail deposit</I> means a retail deposit that is entirely covered by deposit insurance and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held by the depositor in a transactional account; or
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor that holds the account has another established relationship with the national bank or Federal savings association such as another deposit account, a loan, bill payment services, or any similar service or product provided to the depositor that the national bank or Federal savings association demonstrates to the satisfaction of the OCC would make deposit withdrawal highly unlikely during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Structured security</I> means a security whose cash flow characteristics depend upon one or more indices or that has embedded forwards, options, or other derivatives or a security where an investor's investment return and the issuer's payment obligations are contingent on, or highly sensitive to, changes in the value of underlying assets, indices, interest rates, or cash flows.
</P>
<P><I>Structured transaction</I> means a secured transaction in which repayment of obligations and other exposures to the transaction is largely derived, directly or indirectly, from the cash flow generated by the pool of assets that secures the obligations and other exposures to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Sweep deposit</I> means a deposit held at the national bank or Federal savings association by a customer or counterparty through a contractual feature that automatically transfers to the national bank or Federal savings association from another regulated financial company at the close of each business day amounts identified under the agreement governing the account from which the amount is being transferred.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the Federal government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress, but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means the top-tier company that is required to be established pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that a national bank or Federal savings association may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the facility (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale funding</I> means a liability or general obligation of the national bank or Federal savings association to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a secured funding transaction. Unsecured wholesale funding includes wholesale deposits. Unsecured wholesale funding does not include asset exchanges.
</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale lending</I> means a liability or general obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the national bank or Federal savings association that is not a secured lending transaction or a security. Unsecured wholesale lending does not include asset exchanges.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is not a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale deposit means</I> a demand or term deposit that is provided by a wholesale customer or counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 78294, Dec. 30, 2014; 82 FR 56669, Nov. 29, 2017; 83 FR 44454, Aug. 31, 2018; 84 FR 59266, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020; 86 FR 9207, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.1.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.4   Certain operational requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying master netting agreements.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 50.3, a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 50.3; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding) the relevant judicial and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 50.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational deposits.</I> In order to recognize a deposit as an operational deposit as defined in § 50.3:
</P>
<P>(1) The related operational services must be performed pursuant to a legally binding written agreement, and:
</P>
<P>(i) The termination of the agreement must be subject to a minimum 30 calendar-day notice period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As a result of termination of the agreement or transfer of services to a third-party provider, the customer providing the deposit would incur significant contractual termination costs or switching costs (switching costs include significant technology, administrative, and legal service costs incurred in connection with the transfer of the operational services to a third-party provider);
</P>
<P>(2) The deposit must be held in an account designated as an operational account;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer must hold the deposit at the national bank or Federal savings association for the primary purpose of obtaining the operational services provided by the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(4) The deposit account must not be designed to create an economic incentive for the customer to maintain excess funds therein through increased revenue, reduction in fees, or other offered economic incentives;
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate that the deposit is empirically linked to the operational services and that it has a methodology that takes into account the volatility of the average balance for identifying any excess amount, which must be excluded from the operational deposit amount;
</P>
<P>(6) The deposit must not be provided in connection with the national bank's or Federal savings association's provision of prime brokerage services, which, for the purposes of this part, are a package of services offered by the national bank or Federal savings association whereby the national bank or Federal savings association, among other services, executes, clears, settles, and finances transactions entered into by the customer or a third-party entity on behalf of the customer (such as an executing broker), and where the national bank or Federal savings association has a right to use or rehypothecate assets provided by the customer, including in connection with the extension of margin and other similar financing of the customer, subject to applicable law, and includes operational services provided to a non-regulated fund; and
</P>
<P>(7) The deposits must not be for arrangements in which the national bank or Federal savings association (as correspondent) holds deposits owned by another depository institution bank (as respondent) and the respondent temporarily places excess funds in an overnight deposit with the national bank or Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Liquidity Coverage Ratio</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.2.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.10   Liquidity coverage ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum liquidity coverage ratio requirement.</I> Subject to the transition provisions in subpart F of this part, a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on each business day in accordance with this part. A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its liquidity coverage ratio as of the same time on each calculation date (the elected calculation time). The national bank or Federal savings association must select this time by written notice to the OCC prior to December 31, 2019. The national bank or Federal savings association may not thereafter change its elected calculation time without prior written approval from the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the liquidity coverage ratio.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity coverage ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's HQLA amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart C of this part; <I>divided by</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's total net cash outflow amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59268, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—High-Quality Liquid Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.3.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.20   High-quality liquid asset criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 1 liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 1 liquid asset if it is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) Reserve Bank balances;
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign withdrawable reserves;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of the Treasury) whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, provided that the security is liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(5) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, European Community, or a multilateral development bank, that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of (12 CFR part 3) as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity; or
</P>
<P>(6) A security issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of (12 CFR part 3), where the sovereign entity issues the security in its own currency, the security is liquid and readily-marketable, and the national bank or Federal savings association holds the security in order to meet its net cash outflows in the jurisdiction of the sovereign entity, as calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Level 2A liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2A liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A security issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date, provided that the claim is senior to preferred stock; or
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity or multilateral development bank that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not included in level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under subpart D of (12 CFR part 3) as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 10 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 10 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity, and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Level 2B liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2B liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A corporate debt security that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 20 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 20 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A publicly traded common equity share that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Russell 1000 Index; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a national bank's or Federal savings association's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including equity shares in level 2B liquid assets under applicable regulatory policy, if the share is held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued in:
</P>
<P>(A) U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) The currency of a jurisdiction where the national bank or Federal savings association operates and the national bank or Federal savings association holds the common equity share in order to cover its net cash outflows in that jurisdiction, as calculated under subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued by an entity whose publicly traded common equity shares have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 40 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to securities borrowing and lending transactions that are collateralized by the publicly traded common equity shares or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 40 percentage points, during a 30 calendar day period of significant stress;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not issued by a financial sector entity and not issued by a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity;
</P>
<P>(v) If held by a depository institution, is not acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted (DPC); and
</P>
<P>(vi) If held by a consolidated subsidiary of a depository institution, the depository institution can include the publicly traded common equity share in its level 2B liquid assets only if the share is held to cover net cash outflows of the depository institution's consolidated subsidiary in which the publicly traded common equity share is held, as calculated by the national bank or Federal savings association under subpart D of this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal obligation that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 44454, Aug. 31, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.3.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.21   High-quality liquid asset amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of the HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, a national bank's or Federal savings association's HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 1 liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2A liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(3) The level 2B liquid asset amount; minus
</P>
<P>(4) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The unadjusted excess HQLA amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The adjusted excess HQLA amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> The level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets held by the national bank or Federal savings association as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA, less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets held by the national bank or Federal savings association as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets held by the national bank or Federal savings association as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the unadjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the unadjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of the level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2A liquid asset amount plus the level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of the level 2B cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2B excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2B liquid asset amount minus the level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the level 1 liquid asset amount and the level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of adjusted liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the national bank or Federal savings association upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the national bank or Federal savings association will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA; less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the national bank or Federal savings association upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the national bank or Federal savings association will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the national bank or Federal savings association upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the national bank or Federal savings association will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Calculation of the adjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The adjusted level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount plus the adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2B excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2B excess liquid asset amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount and the adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.3.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.22   Requirements for eligible high-quality liquid assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational requirements for eligible HQLA.</I> With respect to each asset that is eligible for inclusion in a national bank's or Federal savings association's HQLA amount, a national bank or Federal savings association must meet all of the following operational requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association must demonstrate the operational capability to monetize the HQLA by:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementing and maintaining appropriate procedures and systems to monetize any HQLA at any time in accordance with relevant standard settlement periods and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodically monetizing a sample of HQLA that reasonably reflects the composition of the national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible HQLA, including with respect to asset type, maturity, and counterparty characteristics;
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank or Federal savings association must implement policies that require eligible HQLA to be under the control of the management function in the national bank or Federal savings association that is charged with managing liquidity risk, and this management function must evidence its control over the HQLA by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Segregating the HQLA from other assets, with the sole intent to use the HQLA as a source of liquidity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrating the ability to monetize the assets and making the proceeds available to the liquidity management function without conflicting with a business or risk management strategy of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(3) The fair value of the eligible HQLA must be reduced by the outflow amount that would result from the termination of any specific transaction hedging eligible HQLA;
</P>
<P>(4) The national bank or Federal savings association must implement and maintain policies and procedures that determine the composition of its eligible HQLA on each calculation date, by:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying its eligible HQLA by legal entity, geographical location, currency, account, or other relevant identifying factors as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining that eligible HQLA meet the criteria set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring the appropriate diversification of the eligible HQLA by asset type, counterparty, issuer, currency, borrowing capacity, or other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets; and
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must have a documented methodology that results in a consistent treatment for determining that the national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible HQLA meet the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Generally applicable criteria for eligible HQLA.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's eligible HQLA must meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets are not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(2) The asset is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A client pool security held in a segregated account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An asset received from a secured funding transaction involving client pool securities that were held in a segregated account;
</P>
<P>(3) For eligible HQLA held in a legal entity that is a U.S. consolidated subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(i) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, the national bank or Federal savings association may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary calculated by the U.S. consolidated subsidiary for its own minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier national bank or Federal savings association during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is not subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, the national bank or Federal savings association may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the national bank or Federal savings association for the national bank's or Federal savings association's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier national bank or Federal savings association during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223);
</P>
<P>(4) For HQLA held by a consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association that is organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the national bank or Federal savings association may include the eligible HQLA of the consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of net cash outflows of the consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the national bank or Federal savings association for the national bank's or Federal savings association's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional amount of assets that are available for transfer to the top-tier national bank or Federal savings association during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions;
</P>
<P>(5) The national bank or Federal savings association must not include as eligible HQLA any assets, or HQLA resulting from transactions involving an asset that the national bank or Federal savings association received with rehypothecation rights, if the counterparty that provided the asset or the beneficial owner of the asset has a contractual right to withdraw the assets without an obligation to pay more than de minimis remuneration at any time during the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) The national bank or Federal savings association has not designated the assets to cover operational costs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of U.S. eligible HQLA.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association is generally expected to maintain as eligible HQLA an amount and type of eligible HQLA in the United States that is sufficient to meet its total net cash outflow amount in the United States under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9209, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Total Net Cash Outflow</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.30   Total net cash outflow amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of total net cash outflow amount.</I> As of the calculation date, a national bank's or Federal savings association's total net cash outflow amount equals the national bank's or Federal savings association's outflow adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (c) of this section multiplied by:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the outflow amounts calculated under § 50.32(a) through (l); minus
</P>
<P>(2) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the inflow amounts calculated under § 50.33(b) through (g); and
</P>
<P>(ii) 75 percent of the amount calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section; plus
</P>
<P>(3) The maturity mismatch add-on as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of maturity mismatch add-on.</I> (1) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The net cumulative maturity outflow amount for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date is equal to the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 50.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 50.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day.
</P>
<P>(ii) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount is equal to, as of the 30th day following the calculation date, the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 50.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 50.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) As of the calculation date, a national bank's or Federal savings association's maturity mismatch add-on is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The largest net cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; <I>minus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Other than the transactions identified in § 50.32(h)(2), (h)(5), or (j) or § 50.33(d) or (f), the maturity of which is determined under § 50.31(a), transactions that have an open maturity are not included in the calculation of the maturity mismatch add-on.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Outflow adjustment percentage.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's outflow adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to Table 1 to this paragraph (c).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 50.30(<E T="01">c</E>)—Outflow Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Outflow adjustment percentage</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GSIB depository institution that is a national bank or Federal savings association</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II national bank or Federal savings association</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III national bank or Federal savings association that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs

(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part, in each case with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Has $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III national bank or Federal savings association that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part, in each case with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Has less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association whose outflow adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher outflow adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association whose outflow adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower outflow adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59268, Nov. 1, 2019; 86 FR 9209, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.31   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of calculating its liquidity coverage ratio and the components thereof under this subpart, a national bank or Federal savings association shall assume an asset or transaction matures:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 50.32, on the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could accelerate the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, the national bank or Federal savings association should exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would reduce the maturity, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the investor or funds provider will exercise the option at the earliest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would extend the maturity, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the investor or funds provider will not exercise the option to extend the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the national bank or Federal savings association has an option that would reduce the maturity of an obligation, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the national bank or Federal savings association will exercise the option at the earliest possible date, except if either of the following criteria are satisfied, in which case the maturity of the obligation for purposes of this part will be the original maturity date at issuance:
</P>
<P>(A) The original maturity of the obligation is greater than one year and the option does not go into effect for a period of 180 days following the issuance of the instrument; or
</P>
<P>(B) The counterparty is a sovereign entity, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, or a public sector entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the national bank or Federal savings association has an option that would extend the maturity of an obligation it issued, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume the national bank or Federal savings association will not exercise that option to extend the maturity; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the earliest possible contractual maturity date regardless of the notice period.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 50.33, on the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could extend the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, the national bank or Federal savings association may exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the borrower has an option that would extend the maturity, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the borrower will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the borrower has an option that would reduce the maturity, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume that the borrower will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the national bank or Federal savings association has an option that would reduce the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume the national bank or Federal savings association will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the national bank or Federal savings association has an option that would extend the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the national bank or Federal savings association must assume the national bank or Federal savings association will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the national bank or Federal savings association must determine the latest possible contractual maturity date based on the borrower using the entire notice period.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a transaction subject to § 50.33(f)(1)(iii) through (vii) (secured lending transactions) or § 50.33(f)(2)(ii) through (x) (asset exchanges), to the extent the transaction is secured by collateral that has been pledged in connection with either a secured funding transaction or asset exchange that has a remaining maturity of 30 calendar days or less as of the calculation date, the maturity date is the later of the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the secured lending transaction or asset exchange or the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction or asset exchange for which the collateral has been pledged.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a transaction that has an open maturity, is not an operational deposit, and is subject to the provisions of § 50.32(h)(2), (h)(5), (j), or (k) or § 50.33(d) or (f), the maturity date is the first calendar day after the calculation date. Any other transaction that has an open maturity and is subject to the provisions of § 50.32 shall be considered to mature within 30 calendar days of the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a transaction subject to the provisions of § 50.33(g), on the date of the next scheduled calculation of the amount required under applicable legal requirements for the protection of customer assets with respect to each broker-dealer segregated account, in accordance with the national bank's or Federal savings association's normal frequency of recalculating such requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9209, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.32   Outflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail funding outflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's retail funding outflow amount as of the calculation date includes (regardless of maturity or collateralization):
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all stable retail deposits held at the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all other retail deposits held at the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all deposits placed at the national bank or Federal savings association by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all deposits placed at the national bank or Federal savings association by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(5) 40 percent of all funding from a retail customer or counterparty that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A debt instrument issued by the national bank or Federal savings association that is owned by a retail customer or counterparty (see paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Structured transaction outflow amount.</I> If the national bank or Federal savings association is a sponsor of a structured transaction where the issuing entity is not consolidated on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet under GAAP, the structured transaction outflow amount for each such structured transaction as of the calculation date is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of the amount of all debt obligations of the issuing entity that mature 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date and all commitments made by the issuing entity to purchase assets within 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum contractual amount of funding the national bank or Federal savings association may be required to provide to the issuing entity 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date through a liquidity facility, a return or repurchase of assets from the issuing entity, or other funding agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Net derivative cash outflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash outflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash outflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash outflow amount does not include forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to paragraph (d) of this section. The net derivative cash outflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the national bank or Federal savings association will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the national bank or Federal savings association will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mortgage commitment outflow amount.</I> The mortgage commitment outflow amount as of a calculation date is 10 percent of the amount of funds the national bank or Federal savings association has contractually committed for its own origination of retail mortgages that can be drawn upon 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commitment outflow amount.</I> (1) A national bank's or Federal savings association's commitment outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by a national bank or Federal savings association that is a depository institution to an affiliated depository institution that is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 30 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, and foreign banks, but excluding commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) 40 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section and liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended to a special purpose entity that issues or has issued commercial paper or securities (other than equity securities issued to a company of which the special purpose entity is a consolidated subsidiary) to finance its purchases or operations, and excluding liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all other committed credit or liquidity facilities extended by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within 30 calendar days of the calculation date under the governing agreement, less the amount of level 1 liquid assets and the amount of level 2A liquid assets securing the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the amount of level 1 liquid assets and level 2A liquid assets securing a committed credit or liquidity facility is the fair value of level 1 liquid assets and 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets that are required to be pledged as collateral by the counterparty to secure the facility, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets pledged upon a draw on the facility would be eligible HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank or Federal savings association has not included the assets as eligible HQLA under subpart C of this part as of the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Collateral outflow amount.</I> The collateral outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changes in financial condition.</I> 100 percent of all additional amounts of collateral the national bank or Federal savings association could be contractually required to pledge or to fund under the terms of any transaction as a result of a change in the national bank's or Federal savings association's financial condition;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Derivative collateral potential valuation changes.</I> 20 percent of the fair value of any collateral securing a derivative transaction pledged to a counterparty by the national bank or Federal savings association that is not a level 1 liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Potential derivative valuation changes.</I> The absolute value of the largest 30-consecutive calendar day cumulative net mark-to-market collateral outflow or inflow realized during the preceding 24 months resulting from derivative transaction valuation changes;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Excess collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association could be required by contract to return to a counterparty because the collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association exceeds the current collateral requirement of the counterparty under the governing contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not segregated from the national bank's or Federal savings association's other assets such that it cannot be rehypothecated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not already excluded as eligible HQLA by the national bank or Federal savings association under § 50.22(b)(5);
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contractually required collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that the national bank or Federal savings association is contractually required to pledge to a counterparty and, as of such calculation date, the national bank or Federal savings association has not yet pledged;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Collateral substitution.</I> (i) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as level 1 liquid assets, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty, where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where under, the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 1 or level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the national bank or Federal savings association by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties.</I> The brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all brokered deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all brokered deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature later than 30 calendar days from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all brokered deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all brokered deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(5) 10 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(6) 25 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(7) 10 percent of all sweep deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(8) 25 percent of all sweep deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are not deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(9) 40 percent of all sweep deposits at the national bank or Federal savings association provided by a retail customer or counterparty where less than the entire amount of the deposit balance is covered by deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) For unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not provided by a financial sector entity or consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity:
</P>
<P>(i) 20 percent of all such funding, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance and the funding is not a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) 40 percent of all such funding, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; or
</P>
<P>(B) The funding is a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not included in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Funding provided by a company that is a consolidated subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a consolidated subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Debt instruments issued by the national bank or Federal savings association, including such instruments owned by retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(3) 5 percent of all operational deposits, other than operational deposits that are held in escrow accounts, where the entire deposit amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 25 percent of all operational deposits not included in paragraph (h)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not otherwise described in this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debt security buyback outflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's debt security buyback outflow amount for debt securities issued by the national bank or Federal savings association that mature more than 30 calendar days after the calculation date and for which the national bank or Federal savings association or a consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association is the primary market maker in such debt securities includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all such debt securities that are not structured securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) 5 percent of all such debt securities that are structured securities.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Secured funding and asset exchange outflow amount.</I> (1) A national bank's or Federal savings association's secured funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all funds the national bank or Federal savings association must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of all funds the national bank or Federal savings association must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) 25 percent of all funds the national bank or Federal savings association must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions with sovereign entities, multilateral development banks, or U.S. government-sponsored enterprises that are assigned a risk weight of 20 percent under subpart D of (12 CFR part 3), to the extent that the funds are not secured by level 1 or level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of all funds the national bank or Federal savings association must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all funds received from secured funding transactions that are customer short positions where the customer short positions are covered by other customers' collateral and the collateral does not consist of HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all other funds the national bank or Federal savings association must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) If an outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for a secured funding transaction is greater than the outflow rate that the national bank or Federal savings association is required to apply under paragraph (h) of this section to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with the same counterparty, the national bank or Federal savings association may apply to the secured funding transaction the outflow rate that applies to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with that counterparty, except in the case of:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured funding transactions that are secured by collateral that was received by the national bank or Federal savings association under a secured lending transaction or asset exchange, in which case the national bank or Federal savings association must apply the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Collateralized deposits that are operational deposits, in which case the national bank or Federal savings association may apply to the operational deposit amount, as calculated in accordance with § 50.4(b), the operational deposit outflow rate specified in paragraph (h)(3) or (4) of this section, as applicable, if such outflow rate is lower than the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A national bank's or Federal savings association's asset exchange outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive level 1 liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets that national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where national bank or Federal savings association will receive level 1 or level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(x) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the national bank or Federal savings association has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xi) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the national bank or Federal savings association has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the national bank or Federal savings association has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) 100 percent of the fair value of the non-HQLA the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the national bank or Federal savings association has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount is, in a foreign jurisdiction where the national bank or Federal savings association has borrowed from the jurisdiction's central bank, the outflow amount assigned to borrowings from central banks in a minimum liquidity standard established in that jurisdiction. If the foreign jurisdiction has not specified a central bank borrowing outflow amount in a minimum liquidity standard, the foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount must be calculated in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other contractual outflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's other contractual outflow amount is 100 percent of funding or amounts, with the exception of operating expenses of the national bank or Federal savings association (such as rents, salaries, utilities, and other similar payments), payable by the national bank or Federal savings association to counterparties under legally binding agreements that are not otherwise specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The outflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association and a consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association and another consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61538, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9209, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.33   Inflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inflows in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Amounts the national bank or Federal savings association holds in operational deposits at other regulated financial companies;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts the national bank or Federal savings association expects, or is contractually entitled to receive, 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date due to forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to § 50.32(d);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any credit or liquidity facilities extended to the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of any asset that is eligible HQLA and any amounts payable to the national bank or Federal savings association with respect to that asset;
</P>
<P>(5) Any amounts payable to the national bank or Federal savings association from an obligation of a customer or counterparty that is a nonperforming asset as of the calculation date or that the national bank or Federal savings association has reason to expect will become a nonperforming exposure 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) Amounts payable to the national bank or Federal savings association with respect to any transaction that has no contractual maturity date or that matures after 30 calendar days of the calculation date (as determined by § 50.31).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Net derivative cash inflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash inflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash inflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash inflow amount does not include amounts excluded from inflows under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The net derivative cash inflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the national bank or Federal savings association will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the national bank or Federal savings association will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail cash inflow amount.</I> The retail cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the national bank or Federal savings association from retail customers or counterparties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount.</I> The unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all payments contractually payable to the national bank or Federal savings association from financial sector entities, or from a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or central banks; and
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the national bank or Federal savings association from wholesale customers or counterparties that are not financial sector entities or consolidated subsidiaries thereof, provided that, with respect to revolving credit facilities, the amount of the existing loan is not included in the unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount and the remaining undrawn balance is included in the outflow amount under § 50.32(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Securities cash inflow amount.</I> The securities cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association on securities it owns that are not eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secured lending and asset exchange cash inflow amount.</I> (1) A national bank's or Federal savings association's secured lending cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions, including margin loans extended to customers, to the extent that the payments are secured by collateral that has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraph (f)(1)(vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not eligible HQLA, but are still held by the national bank or Federal savings association and are available for immediate return to the counterparty at any time;
</P>
<P>(iii) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 15 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i), (ii), or (vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vii) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the national bank or Federal savings association pursuant to collateralized margin loans extended to customers, not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, provided that the loans are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank's or Federal savings association's asset exchange inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, to the extent that the asset received by the national bank or Federal savings association from the counterparty has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the national bank or Federal savings association within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Zero percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post level 1 liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 15 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 100 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post level 1 or level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 35 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ix) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post assets that are HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(x) 50 percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the national bank or Federal savings association will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the national bank or Federal savings association must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount is the fair value of all assets released from broker-dealer segregated accounts maintained in accordance with statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer trading assets, provided that the calculation of the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, for any transaction affecting the calculation of the segregated balance (as required by applicable law), shall be consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In calculating the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, the national bank or Federal savings association must calculate the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date by assuming that customer cash and collateral positions have changed consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 50.32 and 50.33.
</P>
<P>(2) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 50.32 and 50.33, is less than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the difference is the segregated account inflow amount.
</P>
<P>(3) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 50.32 and 50.33, is more than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the segregated account inflow amount is zero.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other cash inflow amounts.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's inflow amount as of the calculation date includes zero percent of other cash inflow amounts not included in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The inflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank or Federal savings association and a consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association and another consolidated subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.4.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.34   Cash flows related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, outflow amounts and inflow amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of a national bank's or Federal savings association's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 50.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the national bank or Federal savings association or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and this outflow amount must be included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 50.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Liquidity Coverage Shortfall</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.5.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.40   Liquidity coverage shortfall: Supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must notify the OCC on any business day when its liquidity coverage ratio is calculated to be less than the minimum requirement in § 50.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity plan.</I> (1) For the period during which a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio on the last business day of each applicable calendar month under subpart F of this part, if the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 50.10 for any calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month, or if the OCC has determined that the national bank or Federal savings association is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the national bank or Federal savings association must promptly consult with the OCC to determine whether the national bank or Federal savings association must provide to the OCC a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 50.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) For the period during which a national bank or Federal savings association must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio each business day under subpart F of this part, if a national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 50.10 for three consecutive business days, or if the OCC has determined that the national bank or Federal savings association is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the national bank or Federal savings association must promptly provide to the OCC a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 50.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity position;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the national bank or Federal savings association has taken and will take to achieve full compliance with this part, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the national bank's or Federal savings association's risk profile, risk management, and funding sources in order to achieve full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A commitment to report to the OCC no less than weekly on progress to achieve compliance in accordance with the plan until full compliance with this part is achieved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The OCC may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Transitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.6.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.50   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No transition for certain national banks and Federal savings association.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association that is subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part prior to December 31, 2019 must comply with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that initially becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 50.1(b)(1)(i) must comply with the requirements of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this part, except that a national bank or Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(i) For the first two calendar quarters after the national bank or Federal savings association begins complying with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio monthly, on each calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning the first day of the fifth calendar quarter after the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part and continuing thereafter, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio on each calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 50.1(b)(1)(ii), must comply with the requirements of this part subject to a transition period specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association whose outflow adjustment percentage changes is subject to transition periods as set forth in § 50.30(d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance date.</I> The OCC may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the OCC determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the OCC will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the national bank or Federal savings association is taking to come into compliance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59269, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts G-J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Net Stable Funding Ratio</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9202, 9209, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 50.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.100   Net stable funding ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum net stable funding ratio requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must maintain a net stable funding ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on an ongoing basis in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the net stable funding ratio.</I> For purposes of this part, a national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's available stable funding (ASF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 50.103, as of the calculation date; divided by
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's required stable funding (RSF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 50.105, as of the calculation date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.101   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating its net stable funding ratio, including its ASF amount and RSF amount, under subparts K through N, a national bank or Federal savings association shall assume each of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to any NSFR liability, the NSFR liability matures according to § 50.31(a)(1) of this part without regard to whether the NSFR liability is subject to § 50.32;
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to an asset, the asset matures according to § 50.31(a)(2) of this part without regard to whether the asset is subject to § 50.33 of this part;
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that is perpetual, the NSFR liability or asset matures one year or more after the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that has an open maturity, the NSFR liability or asset matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date, except that in the case of a deferred tax liability, the NSFR liability matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date on which the deferred tax liability could be realized; and
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to any principal payment of an NSFR liability or asset, such as an amortizing loan, that is due prior to the maturity of the NSFR liability or asset, the payment matures on the date on which it is contractually due.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.102" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.102   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Balance-sheet metric.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is not included on a national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet is not assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable; and an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is included on a national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet is assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Netting of certain transactions.</I> Where a national bank or Federal savings association has secured lending transactions, secured funding transactions, or asset exchanges with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from the counterparty under the transactions by the gross value of payables under the transactions due to the counterparty, the receivables or payables associated with the offsetting transactions that are not included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet are treated as if they were included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet with carrying values, unless the criteria in 12 CFR 3.10(c)(2)(v)(A) through (C) are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of Securities Received in an Asset Exchange by a Securities Lender.</I> Where a national bank or Federal savings association receives a security in an asset exchange, acts as a securities lender, includes the carrying value of the received security on its balance sheet, and has not rehypothecated the security received:
</P>
<P>(1) The security received by the national bank or Federal savings association is not assigned an RSF factor; and
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation to return the security received by the national bank or Federal savings association is not assigned an ASF factor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.103" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.103   Calculation of available stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>A national bank's or Federal savings association's ASF amount equals the sum of the carrying values of the national bank's or Federal savings association's NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities, in each case multiplied by the ASF factor applicable in § 50.104 or § 50.107(c) and consolidated in accordance with § 50.109.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.104" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.104   ASF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities assigned a 100 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR regulatory capital element or NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 100 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or
</P>
<P>(2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 95 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 95 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held at the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(2) A sweep deposit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a controlled subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The national bank or Federal savings association demonstrates to the satisfaction of the OCC that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 90 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 90 percent ASF factor if it is funding provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the national bank or Federal savings association, a controlled subsidiary of the national bank or Federal savings association, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the national bank or Federal savings association is a controlled subsidiary, where the sweep deposit does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) A brokered deposit that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or a sweep deposit, that is not held in a transactional account, and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 50 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 50 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association or an operational deposit placed at the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit placed at the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(3) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association or an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(4) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(5) A security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(6) An operational deposit placed at the national bank or Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(7) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (c) or (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(8) A sweep deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(9) An NSFR liability owed to a retail customer or counterparty that is not a deposit and is not a security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(10) Any other NSFR liability that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (c) or (d)(1) through (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a zero percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a zero percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A trade date payable that results from a purchase by the national bank or Federal savings association of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is contractually required to settle within the lesser of the market standard settlement period for the particular transaction and five business days from the date of the sale;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or sweep deposit, is not held in a transactional account, and matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(4) An NSFR liability with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NSFR liability matures less than six months from the calculation date or has an open maturity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NSFR liability is not a security issued by the national bank or Federal savings association or an operational deposit placed at the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other NSFR liability that matures less than six months from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (d) or (e)(1) through (4) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.105" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.105   Calculation of required stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required stable funding amount.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's RSF amount equals the national bank's or Federal savings association's required stable funding adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (b) of this section multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The carrying values of a national bank's or Federal savings association's assets (other than amounts included in the calculation of the derivatives RSF amount pursuant to § 50.107(b)) and the undrawn amounts of a national bank's or Federal savings association's credit and liquidity facilities, in each case multiplied by the RSF factors applicable in § 50.106; and
</P>
<P>(2) The national bank's or Federal savings association's derivatives RSF amount calculated pursuant to § 50.107(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's required stable funding adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to table 1 to this paragraph (b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(b)</E>—Required Stable Funding Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GSIB depository institution that is a national bank or Federal savings association</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II national bank or Federal savings association</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III national bank or Federal savings association that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part, in each case with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Has $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III national bank or Federal savings association that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part, in each case with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Has less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III national bank or Federal savings association in this part.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Transition into a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association whose required stable funding adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher required stable funding adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association whose required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower required stable funding adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9202, 9209, Feb. 11, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 9209, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.106" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.106   RSF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments.</I> All assets and undrawn amounts under credit and liquidity facilities, unless otherwise provided in § 50.107(b) relating to derivative transactions or paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, are assigned RSF factors as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a zero percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a zero percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Currency and coin;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cash item in the process of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Reserve Bank balance or other claim on a Reserve Bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iv) A claim on a foreign central bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(v) A trade date receivable due to the national bank or Federal savings association resulting from the national bank's or Federal savings association's sale of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is required to settle no later than the market standard, without extension, for the particular transaction, and that has yet to settle but is not more than five business days past the scheduled settlement date;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other level 1 liquid asset not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(vii) A secured lending transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The secured lending transaction matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The secured lending transaction is secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(D) The national bank or Federal savings association retains the right to rehypothecate the collateral provided by the counterparty for the duration of the secured lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments assigned a 5 percent RSF factor.</I> An undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility extended by a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 5 percent RSF factor. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within one year of the calculation date under the governing agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 15 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 15 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2A liquid asset; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section and is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 50 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 50 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2B liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) An operational deposit placed by the national bank or Federal savings association at a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An asset that is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) or (a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(iii) of this section that matures less than one year from the calculation date, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) Lending to a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 65 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 65 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 50 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 3; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 20 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned an 85 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned an 85 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of greater than 50 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 3;
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of greater than 20 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 3;
</P>
<P>(iii) A publicly traded common equity share that is not HQLA;
</P>
<P>(iv) A security, other than a publicly traded common equity share, that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is not HQLA; or
</P>
<P>(v) A commodity for which derivative transactions are traded on a U.S. board of trade or trading facility designated as a contract market under sections 5 and 6 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7 and 8) or on a U.S. swap execution facility registered under section 5h of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7b-3) or on another exchange, whether located in the United States or in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 100 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a national bank or Federal savings association is assigned a 100 percent RSF factor if it is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section, including a secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonperforming assets.</I> An RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to any asset that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Encumbered assets.</I> An encumbered asset, unless otherwise provided in § 50.107(b) relating to derivative transactions, is assigned an RSF factor as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Encumbered assets with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if the asset were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Encumbered assets with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period:
</P>
<P>(A) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of 50 percent or less under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, an RSF factor of 50 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of greater than 50 percent under paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(7) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if it were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Encumbered assets with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period, an RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets encumbered for period longer than remaining maturity.</I> If an asset is encumbered for an encumbrance period longer than the asset's maturity, the asset is assigned an RSF factor under paragraph (c)(1) of this section based on the length of the encumbrance period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregated account assets.</I> An asset held in a segregated account maintained pursuant to statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer assets is not considered encumbered for purposes of this paragraph solely because such asset is held in the segregated account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Off-balance sheet rehypothecated assets.</I> When an NSFR liability of a national bank or Federal savings association is secured by an off-balance sheet asset or results from the national bank or Federal savings association selling an off-balance sheet asset (for instance, in the case of a short sale), other than an off-balance sheet asset received by the national bank or Federal savings association as variation margin under a derivative transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) If the national bank or Federal savings association received the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction, an RSF factor is assigned to the lending transaction as if it were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the lending transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the national bank or Federal savings association received the off-balance sheet asset under an asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the asset provided by the national bank or Federal savings association in the asset exchange as if the provided asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the provided asset; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the national bank or Federal savings association did not receive the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction or asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the on-balance sheet asset resulting from the rehypothecation of the off-balance sheet asset as if the on-balance sheet asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the transaction through which the off-balance sheet asset was received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.107" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.107   Calculation of NSFR derivatives amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must calculate its derivatives RSF amount and certain components of its ASF amount relating to the national bank's or Federal savings association's derivative transactions (which includes cleared derivative transactions of a customer with respect to which the national bank or Federal savings association is acting as agent for the customer that are included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet under GAAP) in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of required stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> A national bank's or Federal savings association's derivatives RSF amount equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current derivative transaction values.</I> The national bank's or Federal savings association's NSFR derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the national bank or Federal savings association under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set, to the extent the variation margin reduces the national bank's or Federal savings association's derivatives liability value under the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of zero percent;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Excess variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the national bank or Federal savings association under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set in excess of the amount described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for each derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 50.106;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Variation margin received.</I> The carrying value of variation margin received by the national bank or Federal savings association, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 50.106;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Potential valuation changes.</I> (i) An amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the gross derivative values of the national bank or Federal savings association that are liabilities, as calculated under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, for each of the national bank's or Federal savings association's derivative transactions not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each of its QMNA netting sets, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (5)(i) of this section, the gross derivative value of a derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or of a QMNA netting set is equal to the value to the national bank or Federal savings association, calculated as if no variation margin had been exchanged and no settlement payments had been made based on changes in the value of the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contributions to central counterparty mutualized loss sharing arrangements.</I> The fair value of a national bank's or Federal savings association's contribution to a central counterparty's mutualized loss sharing arrangement (regardless of whether the contribution is included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor of 85 percent; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Initial margin provided.</I> The fair value of initial margin provided by the national bank or Federal savings association for derivative transactions (regardless of whether the initial margin is included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet), which does not include initial margin provided by the national bank or Federal savings association for cleared derivative transactions with respect to which the national bank or Federal savings association is acting as agent for a customer and the national bank or Federal savings association does not guarantee the obligations of the customer's counterparty to the customer under the derivative transaction (such initial margin would be assigned an RSF factor pursuant to § 50.106 to the extent the initial margin is included on the national bank's or Federal savings association's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor equal to the higher of 85 percent or the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the initial margin pursuant to § 50.106.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of available stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> The following amounts of a national bank or Federal savings association are assigned a zero percent ASF factor:
</P>
<P>(1) The national bank's or Federal savings association's NSFR derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The carrying value of NSFR liabilities in the form of an obligation to return initial margin or variation margin received by the national bank or Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of NSFR derivatives asset or liability amount.</I> (1) A national bank's or Federal savings association's NSFR derivatives asset amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, less the national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank's or Federal savings association's NSFR derivatives liability amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, less the national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of total derivatives asset and liability amounts.</I> (1) A national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives asset amount is the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's derivatives asset values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank's or Federal savings association's total derivatives liability amount is the sum of the national bank's or Federal savings association's derivatives liability values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of derivatives asset and liability values.</I> For each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivatives asset value is equal to the asset value to the national bank or Federal savings association, after taking into account:
</P>
<P>(i) Any variation margin received by the national bank or Federal savings association that is in the form of cash and meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The variation margin is not segregated;
</P>
<P>(B) The variation margin is received in connection with a derivative transaction that is governed by a QMNA or other contract between the counterparties to the derivative transaction, which stipulates that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided;
</P>
<P>(C) The variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract; and
</P>
<P>(D) The variation margin is in a currency specified as an acceptable currency to settle obligations in the relevant governing contract; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any variation margin received by the national bank or Federal savings association that is in the form of level 1 liquid assets and meets the conditions of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section provided the national bank or Federal savings association retains the right to rehypothecate the asset for the duration of time that the asset is posted as variation margin to the national bank or Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(2) The derivatives liability value is equal to the liability value of the national bank or Federal savings association, after taking into account any variation margin provided by the national bank or Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.108" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.108   Funding related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, available stable funding amounts and required stable funding amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of a national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 50.100(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the national bank or Federal savings association or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and assets securing the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and the available stable funding amount and required stable funding amount must be included in the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 50.100(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.109" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.8.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.109   Rules for consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidated subsidiary available stable funding amount.</I> For available stable funding of a legal entity that is a consolidated subsidiary of a national bank or Federal savings association, including a consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the national bank or Federal savings association may include the available stable funding of the consolidated subsidiary in its ASF amount up to:
</P>
<P>(1) The RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the national bank or Federal savings association for the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio under this part; plus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the national bank or Federal savings association for the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio under this part, to the extent the consolidated subsidiary may transfer assets to the top-tier national bank or Federal savings association, taking into account statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, such as sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required consolidation procedures.</I> To the extent a national bank or Federal savings association includes an ASF amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, the national bank or Federal savings association must implement and maintain written procedures to identify and monitor applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions on transferring assets from any of its consolidated subsidiaries. These procedures must document which types of transactions the national bank or Federal savings association could use to transfer assets from a consolidated subsidiary to the national bank or Federal savings association and how these types of transactions comply with applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Net Stable Funding Shortfall</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9202, 9209, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 50.110" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.9.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.110   NSFR shortfall: Supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> A national bank or Federal savings association must notify the OCC no later than 10 business days, or such other period as the OCC may otherwise require by written notice, following the date that any event has occurred that would cause or has caused the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio to be less than 1.0 as required under § 50.100.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity Plan.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association must within 10 business days, or such other period as the OCC may otherwise require by written notice, provide to the OCC a plan for achieving a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 50.100 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The national bank or Federal savings association has or should have provided notice, pursuant to § 50.110(a), that the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio is, or will become, less than 1.0 as required under § 50.100;
</P>
<P>(ii) The national bank's or Federal savings association's reports or disclosures to the OCC indicate that the national bank's or Federal savings association's net stable funding ratio is less than 1.0 as required under § 50.100; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The OCC notifies the national bank or Federal savings association in writing that a plan is required and provides a reason for requiring such a plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the national bank or Federal savings association has taken and will take to achieve a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 50.100, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the national bank's or Federal savings association's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with subpart K of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with § 50.100.
</P>
<P>(3) The national bank or Federal savings association must report to the OCC at least monthly, or such other frequency as required by the OCC, on progress to achieve full compliance with § 50.100.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The OCC may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum net stable funding ratio and other requirements of subparts K through N of this part (see also § 50.2(c)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Transitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 50.120" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.45.10.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 50.120   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association that initially becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 50.1(b)(1)(i) after July 1, 2021, must comply with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the national bank or Federal savings association becomes subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association that becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 50.1(b)(1)(ii) must comply with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part subject to a transition period specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition to a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A national bank or Federal savings association whose required stable funding adjustment percentage changes is subject to the transition periods as set forth in § 50.105(c).
</P>
<P>(2) A national bank or Federal savings association institution that is no longer subject to the minimum stable funding requirement of this part pursuant to § 50.1(b)(1)(i) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, or instructions to the FR Y-9LP, the FR Y-15, or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part as of the first day of the first calendar quarter after it is no longer subject to § 50.1(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The OCC may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the OCC determines such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the OCC will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part, and the actions the national bank or Federal savings association is taking to come into compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9210, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 51—RECEIVERSHIPS FOR UNINSURED NATIONAL BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 16, 93a, 191-200, 481, 482, 1831c, and 1867.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 92602, Dec. 20, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 51.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part sets out procedures for receiverships of national banks conducted by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) under the receivership provisions of the National Bank Act (NBA). These receivership provisions apply to national banks that are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to the appointment of a receiver for uninsured national banks (uninsured banks) and the operation of a receivership after appointment of a receiver for an uninsured bank under 12 U.S.C. 191.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> This part does not apply to receiverships for uninsured Federal branches or uninsured Federal agencies.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.2   Appointment of receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Comptroller of the Currency (Comptroller) may appoint any person, including the OCC or another government agency, as receiver for an uninsured bank. The receiver performs its duties under the direction of the Comptroller and serves at the will of the Comptroller. The Comptroller may require the receiver to post a bond or other security. The receiver, with the approval of the Comptroller, may employ such staff and enter into contracts for professional services as are necessary to carry out the receivership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for appointment.</I> The Comptroller may appoint a receiver for an uninsured bank based on any of the grounds specified in 12 U.S.C. 191(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Judicial review.</I> If the Comptroller appoints a receiver for an uninsured bank, the bank may seek judicial review of the appointment as provided in 12 U.S.C. 191(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.3   Notice of appointment of receiver.</HEAD>
<P>Upon appointment of a receiver for an uninsured bank, the OCC will provide notice to the public of the receivership, including by publication in a newspaper of general circulation for three consecutive months. The notice of the receivership will provide instructions for creditors and other claimants seeking to submit claims with the receiver for the uninsured bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.4   Claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of claims for consideration by the OCC.</I> (1) Persons who have claims against the receivership for an uninsured bank may present such claims, along with supporting documentation, for consideration by the OCC. The OCC will determine the validity and approve the amounts of such claims.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC will establish a date by which any person seeking to present a claim against the uninsured bank for consideration by the OCC must present their claim for determination. The deadline for filing such claims will not be less than 30 days after the end of the three-month notice period in § 51.3.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC will allow any claim against the uninsured bank received on or before the deadline for presenting claims if such claim is established to the OCC's satisfaction by the information on the uninsured bank's books and records or otherwise submitted. The OCC may disallow any portion of any claim by a creditor or claim of a security, preference, set-off, or priority which is not established to the satisfaction of the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of claims to a court.</I> Persons with claims against an uninsured bank in receivership may present their claims to a court of competent jurisdiction for adjudication. Such persons must submit a copy of any final judgment received from the court to the OCC, to participate in ratable dividends along with other proved claims.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Right of set-off.</I> If a person with a claim against an uninsured bank in receivership also has an obligation owed to the bank, the claim and obligation will be set off against each other and only the net balance remaining after set-off shall be considered as a claim, provided such set-off is otherwise legally valid.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.5   Order of priorities.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC will pay receivership expenses and proved claims against the uninsured bank in receivership in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(a) Administrative expenses of the receiver;
</P>
<P>(b) Unsecured creditors of the uninsured bank, including secured creditors to the extent their claim exceeds their valid and enforceable security interest;
</P>
<P>(c) Creditors of the uninsured bank, if any, whose claims are subordinated to general creditor claims; and
</P>
<P>(d) Shareholders of the uninsured bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.6   Administrative expenses of receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Priority of administrative expenses.</I> All administrative expenses of the receiver for an uninsured bank shall be paid out of the assets of the bank in receivership before payment of claims against the receivership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of administrative expenses.</I> Administrative expenses of the receiver for an uninsured bank include those expenses incurred by the receiver in maintaining banking operations during the receivership, to preserve assets of the uninsured bank, while liquidating or otherwise resolving the affairs of the uninsured bank. Such expenses include pre-receivership and post-receivership obligations that the receiver determines are necessary and appropriate to facilitate the orderly liquidation or other resolution of the uninsured bank in receivership.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Types of administrative expenses.</I> Administrative expenses for the receiver of an uninsured bank include:
</P>
<P>(1) Salaries, costs, and other expenses of the receiver and its staff, and costs of contracts entered into by the receiver for professional services relating to performing receivership duties; and
</P>
<P>(2) Expenses necessary for the operation of the uninsured bank, including wages and salaries of employees, expenses for professional services, contractual rent pursuant to an existing lease or rental agreement, and payments to third-party or affiliated service providers, that in the opinion of the receiver are of benefit to the receivership, until the date the receiver repudiates, terminates, cancels, or otherwise discontinues the applicable contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.7   Powers and duties of receiver; disposition of fiduciary and custodial accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Marshalling of assets.</I> In resolving the affairs of an uninsured bank in receivership, the receiver:
</P>
<P>(1) Takes possession of the books, records and other property and assets of the uninsured bank, including the value of collateral pledged by the uninsured bank to the extent it exceeds valid and enforceable security interests of a claimant;
</P>
<P>(2) Collects all debts, dues and claims belonging to the uninsured bank, including claims remaining after set-off;
</P>
<P>(3) Sells or compromises all bad or doubtful debts, subject to approval by a court of competent jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(4) Sells the real and personal property of the uninsured bank, subject to approval by a court of competent jurisdiction, on such terms as the court shall direct; and
</P>
<P>(5) Deposits all receivership funds collected from the liquidation of the uninsured bank in an account designated by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposition of fiduciary and custodial accounts.</I> The receiver for an uninsured bank closes the bank's fiduciary and custodial appointments and accounts or transfers some or all of such accounts to successor fiduciaries and custodians, in accordance with 12 CFR 9.16, and other applicable Federal law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other powers.</I> The receiver for an uninsured bank may exercise other rights, privileges, and powers authorized for receivers of national banks under the NBA and the common law of receiverships as applied by the courts to receiverships of national banks conducted under the NBA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reports to OCC.</I> The receiver for an uninsured bank shall make periodic reports to the OCC on the status and proceedings of the receivership.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Receiver subject to removal; modification of fees.</I> (1) The Comptroller may remove and replace the receiver for an uninsured bank if, in the Comptroller's discretion, the receiver is not conducting the receivership in accordance with applicable Federal laws or regulations or fails to comply with decisions of the Comptroller with respect to the conduct of the receivership or claims against the receivership.
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller may reduce the fees of the receiver for an uninsured bank if, in the Comptroller's discretion, the Comptroller finds the performance of the receiver to be deficient, or the fees of the receiver to be excessive, unreasonable, or beyond the scope of the work assigned to the receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.8   Payment of claims and dividends to shareholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) After the administrative expenses of the receivership have been paid, the OCC shall make ratable dividends from time to time of available receivership funds according to the priority described in § 51.5, based on the claims that have been proved to the OCC's satisfaction or adjudicated in a court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) Dividend payments to creditors and other claimants of an uninsured bank will be made solely from receivership funds, if any, paid to the OCC by the receiver after payment of the expenses of the receiver.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fiduciary and custodial assets.</I> Assets held by an uninsured bank in a fiduciary or custodial capacity, as designated on the bank's books and records, will not be considered as part of the bank's general assets and liabilities held in connection with its other business, and will not be considered a source for payment of unrelated claims of creditors and other claimants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of dividends.</I> The payment of dividends, if any, under paragraph (a) of this section, on proved or adjudicated claims will be made periodically, at the discretion of the OCC, as the receiver liquidates the assets of the uninsured bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution to shareholders.</I> After all administrative expenses of the receiver and proved claims of creditors of the uninsured bank have been paid in full, to the extent there are receivership assets to make such payments, any remaining proceeds shall be paid to the shareholders, or their legal representatives, in proportion to their stock ownership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 51.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.46.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 51.9   Termination of receivership.</HEAD>
<P>If there are assets remaining after full payment of the expenses of the receiver and all claims of creditors for an uninsured bank and all fiduciary accounts of the bank have been closed or transferred to a successor fiduciary and fiduciary powers surrendered, the Comptroller shall call a meeting of the shareholders of the uninsured bank, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 197, for the shareholders to decide the manner in which the liquidation will continue. The liquidation may continue by:
</P>
<P>(a) Continuing the receivership of the uninsured bank under the direction of the Comptroller; or
</P>
<P>(b) Ending the receivership and oversight by the Comptroller and replacing the receiver with a liquidating agent to proceed to liquidate the remaining assets of the uninsured bank for the benefit of the shareholders, as set out in 12 U.S.C. 197.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="52" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 52—REGULATORY REPORTING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 1463(a), 1464(v), and 1817(a)(12).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 29050, June 21, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 52.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 93a, 161, 1463(a), 1464(v), and 1817(a)(12).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes a reduced reporting requirement for a covered depository institution making its reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters of a year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Covered depository institution</I> means a national bank, Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Has less than $5 billion in total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of the preceding year;
</P>
<P>(2) Has no foreign offices, as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not required to or has not elected to use 12 CFR part 3, subpart E (for advanced approaches banks), to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) Is not a large institution or highly complex institution, as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 327.8, or treated as a large institution, as requested under 12 CFR 327.16(f); and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not subject to the filing requirements for the FFIEC 002 report of condition.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign country</I> refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign office</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A branch or consolidated subsidiary in a foreign country, unless the branch is located on a U.S. military facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An international banking facility as such term is defined in 12 CFR 204.8;
</P>
<P>(3) A majority-owned Edge Act or Agreement subsidiary as defined in 12 CFR 28.2, including both its U.S. and its foreign offices; and
</P>
<P>(4) For an institution chartered or headquartered in any U.S. state or the District of Columbia, a branch or consolidated subsidiary located in a U.S. territory or possession.
</P>
<P><I>Report of condition</I> means the FFIEC 031, FFIEC 041, or FFIEC 051 versions of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) or the FFIEC 002 (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks), as applicable, and as they may be amended or superseded from time to time in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
</P>
<P><I>Total consolidated assets</I> means total assets as reported in an institution's report of condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.3   Reduced reporting.</HEAD>
<P>A covered depository institution may file the FFIEC 051 version of the Call Report, or any successor thereto, to satisfy its requirement to file a report of condition for the first and third calendar quarters of a year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.4   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may determine that a covered depository institution shall not use the reduced reporting in § 52.3. In making this determination, the OCC will consider whether the institution is significantly engaged in complex, specialized, or higher risk activities, for which a reduced reporting requirement would not provide sufficient information. The institution has 30 days following notification from the OCC to inform the OCC, in writing, of why it should continue to be eligible to use reduced reporting or cannot cease using reduced reporting in the OCC's proposed timeframe. The OCC will make a final decision after reviewing any response. Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the OCC's authority to obtain information from a covered depository institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 52.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.47.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 52.5   Temporary relief.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether it meets the asset threshold in paragraph (1) of the definition of “covered depository institution” in § 52.5 of this part, for purposes of a report required to be submitted for calendar year 2021, a national bank, Federal savings association, or insured Federal branch may refer to the lesser of its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition as of December 31, 2019, and its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 77359, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="53" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 53—COMPUTER-SECURITY INCIDENT NOTIFICATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 161, 481, 1463, 1464, 1861-1867, and 3102.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 66442, Nov. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 53.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.48.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 161, 481, 1463, 1464, 1861-1867, and 3102.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part promotes the timely notification of computer-security incidents that may materially and adversely affect Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC)-supervised institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks. This part also applies to their bank service providers as defined in § 53.2(b)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.48.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as modified in this part, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in this part have the same meanings as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Banking organization</I> means a national bank, Federal savings association, or Federal branch or agency of a foreign bank; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank service provider</I> means a bank service company or other person that performs covered services; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a bank service provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business line</I> means a product or service offered by a banking organization to serve its customers or support other business needs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computer-security incident</I> is an occurrence that results in actual harm to the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system or the information that the system processes, stores, or transmits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Covered services</I> are services performed, by a person, that are subject to the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861-1867).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 5462(4).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification incident</I> is a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, a banking organization's—
</P>
<P>(i) Ability to carry out banking operations, activities, or processes, or deliver banking products and services to a material portion of its customer base, in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) Business line(s), including associated operations, services, functions, and support, that upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations, including associated services, functions and support, as applicable, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Person</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(8)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.48.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.3   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>A banking organization must notify the appropriate OCC supervisory office, or OCC-designated point of contact, about a notification incident through email, telephone, or other similar methods that the OCC may prescribe. The OCC must receive this notification from the banking organization as soon as possible and no later than 36 hours after the banking organization determines that a notification incident has occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 53.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.48.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 53.4   Bank service provider notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank service provider is required to notify at least one bank-designated point of contact at each affected banking organization customer as soon as possible when the bank service provider determines that it has experienced a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, covered services provided to such banking organization for four or more hours.
</P>
<P>(1) A bank-designated point of contact is an email address, phone number, or any other contact(s), previously provided to the bank service provider by the banking organization customer.
</P>
<P>(2) If the banking organization customer has not previously provided a bank-designated point of contact, such notification shall be made to the Chief Executive Officer and Chief Information Officer of the banking organization customer, or two individuals of comparable responsibilities, through any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification requirement in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any scheduled maintenance, testing, or software update previously communicated to a banking organization customer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="54-99" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 54-99 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 100—RULES APPLICABLE TO SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 5412(b)(2)(B), 5414(b)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48956, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 100.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.50.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.1   Certain regulations superseded.</HEAD>
<P>Effective on July 21, 2011, section 312(b)(2)(B) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)) (12 U.S.C. 5412(b)(2)(B)) transferred rulemaking authority of the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) relating to all savings associations, both state and Federal to the OCC. The regulations set forth in parts 1 through 197 of this chapter I applying to Federal savings associations and state savings associations, as those terms are defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), supersede corresponding regulations set forth in parts 500 through 591 of chapter V of the Code of Federal Regulations that were applicable to such entities prior to July 21, 2011.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 48956, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28479, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 100.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.50.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 100.2   Waiver authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Comptroller of the Currency may, for good cause and to the extent permitted by statute, waive the applicability of any provision of parts 1 through 197 of this chapter I, as applicable, with respect to Federal savings associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 48956, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28479, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 101—COVERED SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1464a, and 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 24005, May 24, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 101.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.1   Authority and purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to sections 3, 4, 5, and 5A of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, and 1464a), section 5239A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 93a), and section 312(b)(2)(B) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5412(b)(2)(B)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> This part establishes standards and procedures for a Federal savings association to elect to operate as a covered savings association pursuant to section 5A of the HOLA and clarifies the requirements for the treatment of covered savings associations. It also establishes standards and procedures to terminate an election and to reelect to operate as a covered savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.2   Definitions and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered savings association</I> means a Federal savings association that has made an election that is in effect in accordance with § 101.3(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date of the election</I> means, with respect to a Federal savings association, the date on which the Federal savings association's election to operate as a covered savings association takes effect pursuant to § 101.3(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity.</I> (i) With respect to a covered savings association:
</P>
<P>(A) Means any subsidiary, asset, or activity that is not permissible for a covered savings association or, if permissible, is being operated, held, or conducted in a manner that exceeds the limit applicable to a covered savings association; and
</P>
<P>(B) Includes an investment in a subsidiary or other entity that is not permissible for a covered savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a Federal savings association that has terminated an election to operate as a covered savings association:
</P>
<P>(A) Means any subsidiary, asset, or activity that is not permissible for a Federal savings association or, if permissible, is being operated, held, or conducted in a manner that exceeds the limit applicable to a Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(B) Includes an investment in a subsidiary or other entity that is not permissible for a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Similarly located national bank</I> means, with respect to a covered savings association, a national bank that has its main office situated in the same location as the home office of the covered savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation of time.</I> The OCC will compute a period of days for purposes of this part in accordance with 12 CFR 5.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.3   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice</I>—(1) <I>Submission.</I> A Federal savings association that had total consolidated assets of $20 billion or less as of December 31, 2017, as reported on the Federal savings association's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for December 31, 2017, may make an election to operate as a covered savings association by submitting a notice to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> The notice shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be signed by a duly authorized officer of the Federal savings association; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify and describe each nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity that the Federal savings association operates, holds, or conducts at the time it submits the notice, each of which must be divested, conformed, or discontinued pursuant to § 101.5.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of the election</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An election to operate as a covered savings association shall take effect on the date that is 60 days after the date on which the OCC receives the notice submitted under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Earlier notice.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the OCC may notify a Federal savings association in writing prior to the expiration of 60 days that it is eligible to make an election, and the election shall take effect on the date the OCC so notifies the Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.4   Treatment of covered savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>National bank activities.</I> Except as provided in this section, a covered savings association may engage in any activity that is permissible for a similarly located national bank to engage in as part of, or incidental to, the business of banking, or explicitly authorized by statute for a national bank, subject to the same authorization, terms, and conditions that would apply to a similarly located national bank, as determined by the OCC for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment as a Federal savings association.</I> A covered savings association shall continue to comply with the provisions of law that apply to Federal savings associations for purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Governance (including incorporation, bylaws, boards of directors, shareholders, members, and distribution of dividends);
</P>
<P>(ii) Consolidation, merger, dissolution, conversion (including conversion to a stock bank or to another charter), conservatorship, and receivership;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions of law applicable only to Federal mutual savings associations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Offers and sales of securities at an office of a Federal savings association;
</P>
<P>(v) Savings bank activities authorized by section 5(i)(4) of HOLA;
</P>
<P>(vi) Issuance of subordinated debt securities and mandatorily redeemable preferred stock;
</P>
<P>(vii) Increases in permanent capital of a Federal stock savings association;
</P>
<P>(viii) Rules of practice and procedure in adjudicatory proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ix) Rules for investigative proceedings and formal examination proceedings;
</P>
<P>(x) Removals, suspensions, and prohibitions where a crime is charged or proven;
</P>
<P>(xi) Security procedures;
</P>
<P>(xii) Maintenance of records and recordkeeping and confirmation requirements for securities transactions;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Accounting and disclosure standards;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Nondiscrimination; and
</P>
<P>(xv) Advertising.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Existing branches.</I> A covered savings association may continue to operate any branch or agency that the covered savings association operated on the effective date of the election.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assets greater than $20 billion.</I> A covered savings association may continue to operate as a covered savings association if, after the effective date of the election, it has total consolidated assets greater than $20 billion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.5   Nonconforming subsidiaries, assets, and activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Divestiture, conformance, or discontinuation.</I> A covered savings association shall divest, conform, or discontinue a nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity at the earliest time that prudent judgment dictates but not later than two years after the effective date of the election. The OCC may require a covered savings association to submit a plan to divest, conform, or discontinue a nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> The OCC may grant a covered savings association extensions of not more than two years each up to a maximum of eight years if the OCC determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered savings association has made a good faith effort to divest, conform, or discontinue the nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity;
</P>
<P>(2) Divestiture, conformance, or discontinuation would have a material adverse financial effect on the covered savings association; and
</P>
<P>(3) Retention or continuation of the nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity is consistent with the safe and sound operation of the covered savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicable law.</I> Until a covered savings association divests, conforms, or discontinues a nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity, the nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity shall continue to be subject to the same provisions of law that applied to the nonconforming subsidiary, asset, or activity on the day before the effective date of the election, including any amendments to those provisions of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.6   Termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A covered savings association may terminate its election to operate as a covered savings association, after an appropriate period of time as determined by the OCC, by submitting a notice to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> A covered savings association wishing to terminate its election shall comply with, and shall be subject to, the provisions of §§ 101.2, 101.3, and 101.5, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of §§ 101.3 and 101.5 shall be applied by substituting “covered savings association” for “Federal savings association” and “Federal savings association” for “covered savings association” each place those terms appear in those sections;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 101.3(a)(1) shall not apply; and
</P>
<P>(3) Sections 101.3 and 101.5 shall be applied by substituting “effective date of the termination” for “effective date of the election.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicable law.</I> On and after the effective date of the termination, a Federal savings association that has terminated its election to operate as a covered savings association shall be subject to the same provisions of law as a Federal savings association that has not made an election under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.7   Reelection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reelection.</I> A Federal savings association that has terminated its election to operate as a covered savings association may submit a notice to reelect to operate as a covered savings association, if at least five years have elapsed since the effective date of the termination. Upon determining that good cause exists, the OCC may permit a Federal savings association to reelect to operate as a covered savings association prior to the expiration of the five-year period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and treatment.</I> A Federal savings association reelecting to operate as a covered savings association shall comply with, and shall be subject to, the provisions of this part as if it were making an election for the first time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 101.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.51.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 101.8   Evasion.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may disapprove any notice submitted pursuant to this part if the OCC determines that the notice is made for the purpose of evading § 101.5, including as that section applies to a covered savings association terminating an election.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="102-127" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 102-127 [RESERVED]






















</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="128" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 128—NONDISCRIMINATION REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48978, August 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 128.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part 128—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> For purposes of this part, an application for a loan or other service is as defined in Regulation C, 12 CFR 203.2(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Savings association.</I> The term “savings association” means any Federal savings association as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dwelling.</I> The term “dwelling” means a residential structure (whether or not it is attached to real property) located in a state of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, or mobile or manufactured home.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.2   Nondiscrimination in lending and other services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No savings association may deny a loan or other service, or discriminate in the purchase of loans or securities or discriminate in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, application procedures, collection or enforcement procedures, or other terms or conditions of such loan or other service on the basis of the age or location of the dwelling, or on the basis of the race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status (having one or more children under the age of 18), marital status, age (provided the person has the capacity to contract) or national origin of:
</P>
<P>(1) An applicant or joint applicant;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person associated with an applicant or joint applicant regarding such loan or other service, or with the purposes of such loan or other service;
</P>
<P>(3) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of the dwelling(s) for which such loan or other service is to be made or given;
</P>
<P>(4) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of other dwellings in the vicinity of the dwelling(s) for which such loan or other service is to be made or given.
</P>
<P>(b) A savings association shall consider without prejudice the combined income of joint applicants for a loan or other service.
</P>
<P>(c) No savings association may discriminate against an applicant for a loan or other service on any prohibited basis (as defined in 12 CFR 202.2(z) and 24 CFR part 100).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 128.2:</HED>
<P><I>See also,</I> § 128.9(b) and (c).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.3   Nondiscrimination in applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No savings association may discourage, or refuse to allow, receive, or consider, any application, request, or inquiry regarding a loan or other service, or discriminate in imposing conditions upon, or in processing, any such application, request, or inquiry on the basis of the age or location of the dwelling, or on the basis of the race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status (having one or more children under the age of 18), marital status, age (provided the person has the capacity to contract), national origin, or other characteristics prohibited from consideration in § 128.2(c) of this part, of the prospective borrower or other person, who:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes application for any such loan or other service;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests forms or papers to be used to make application for any such loan or other service; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inquires about the availability of such loan or other service.
</P>
<P>(b) A savings association shall inform each inquirer of his or her right to file a written loan application, and to receive a copy of the association's underwriting standards.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 128.3:</HED>
<P><I>See also,</I> § 128.9(a) through (d).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.4   Nondiscriminatory advertising.</HEAD>
<P>No savings association may directly or indirectly engage in any form of advertising that implies or suggests a policy of discrimination or exclusion in violation of title VIII of the Civil Rights Acts of 1968, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, or this part 128. Advertisements for any loan for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling or any loan secured by a dwelling shall include a facsimile of the following logotype and legend:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09au11.000.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.5   Equal Housing Lender Poster.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each savings association shall post and maintain one or more Equal Housing Lender Posters, the text of which is prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, in the lobby of each of its offices in a prominent place or places readily apparent to all persons seeking loans. The poster shall be at least 11 by 14 inches in size, and the text shall be easily legible. It is recommended that savings associations post a Spanish language version of the poster in offices serving areas with a substantial Spanish-speaking population.
</P>
<P>(b) The text of the Equal Housing Lender Poster shall be as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er09au11.001.gif"/>
<P>We Do Business In Accordance With Federal Fair Lending Laws.
</P>
<P>UNDER THE FEDERAL FAIR HOUSING ACT, IT IS ILLEGAL, ON THE BASIS OF RACE, COLOR, NATIONAL ORIGIN, RELIGION, SEX, HANDICAP, OR FAMILIAL STATUS (HAVING CHILDREN UNDER THE AGE OF 18) TO:
</P>
<P>[ ] Deny a loan for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing or maintaining a dwelling or to deny any loan secured by a dwelling; or
</P>
<P>[ ] Discriminate in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, application procedures, or other terms or conditions of such a loan or in appraising property.
</P>
<P>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD:
</P>
<P>SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</P>
<P>Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, Department of Housing and Urban Development, Washington, DC 20410.
</P>
<P>For processing under the Federal Fair Housing Act
</P>
<P>AND TO:
</P>
<P>[Insert contact information for appropriate Federal regulator]
</P>
<P>For processing under applicable Regulations.
</P>
<P>UNDER THE EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT, IT IS ILLEGAL TO DISCRIMINATE IN ANY CREDIT TRANSACTION:
</P>
<P>[ ] On the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, marital status, or age;
</P>
<P>[ ] Because income is from public assistance; or
</P>
<P>[ ] Because a right has been exercised under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.
</P>
<P>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</P>
<P>[Insert contact information for appropriate Federal regulator]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.6   Loan application register.</HEAD>
<P>Savings associations and other lenders required to file Home Mortgage Disclosure Act Loan Application Registers with the OCC in accordance with 12 CFR part 203 must enter the reason for denial, using the codes provided in 12 CFR part 203, with respect to all loan denials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.7   Nondiscrimination in employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No savings association shall, because of an individual's race, color, religion, sex, or national origin:
</P>
<P>(1) Fail or refuse to hire such individual;
</P>
<P>(2) Discharge such individual;
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise discriminate against such individual with respect to such individual's compensation, promotion, or the terms, conditions, or privileges of such individual's employment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Discriminate in admission to, or employment in, any program of apprenticeship, training, or retraining, including on-the-job training.
</P>
<P>(b) No savings association shall limit, segregate, or classify its employees in any way which would deprive or tend to deprive any individual of employment opportunities or otherwise adversely affect such individual's status as an employee because of such individual's race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(c) No savings association shall discriminate against any employee or applicant for employment because such employee or applicant has opposed any employment practice made unlawful by Federal, state, or local law or regulation or because he has in good faith made a charge of such practice or testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in an investigation, proceeding, or hearing of such practice by any lawfully constituted authority.
</P>
<P>(d) No savings association shall print or publish or cause to be printed or published any notice or advertisement relating to employment by such savings association indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(e) This regulation shall not apply in any case in which the Federal Equal Employment Opportunities law is made inapplicable by the provisions of section 2000e-1 or sections 2000e-2(e) through (j) of title 42, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(f) Any violation of the following laws or regulations by a savings association shall be deemed to be a violation of this part 128:
</P>
<P>(1) The Equal Employment Opportunity Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 2000e-2000h-2, and Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) regulations at 29 CFR part 1600;
</P>
<P>(2) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act, 29 U.S.C. 621-633, and EEOC and Department of Labor regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) regulations at 41 CFR part 60;
</P>
<P>(4) The Veterans Employment and Readjustment Act of 1972, 38 U.S.C. 2011-2012, and the Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Adjustment Assistance Act of 1974, 38 U.S.C. 2021-2026;
</P>
<P>(5) The Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.;</I> and
</P>
<P>(6) The Immigration and Nationality Act, 8 U.S.C. 1324b, and INS regulations at 8 CFR part 274a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.8   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints alleging violations of the Fair Housing Act by a savings association shall be referred to the Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, Washington, DC 20410 for processing under the Fair Housing Act, and to the appropriate Federal regulator for processing under applicable regulations. Complaints regarding discrimination in employment by a savings association should be referred to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, Washington, DC 20506 and a copy, for information only, sent to the appropriate Federal regulator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.9   Guidelines relating to nondiscrimination in lending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Fair housing and equal opportunity in home financing is a policy of the United States established by Federal statutes and Presidential orders and proclamations. In furtherance of the Federal civil rights laws and the economical home financing purposes of the statutes administered by the OCC, the OCC has adopted, in part 128 of this chapter, nondiscrimination regulations that, among other things, prohibit arbitrary refusals to consider loan applications on the basis of the age or location of a dwelling, and prohibit discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status (having one or more children under the age of 18), marital status, age (provided the person has the capacity to contract), or national origin in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, application procedures, collection or enforcement procedures, or other terms or conditions of housing related loans. Such discrimination is also prohibited in the purchase of loans and securities. This section provides supplementary guidelines to aid savings associations in developing and implementing nondiscriminatory lending policies. Each savings association should reexamine its underwriting standards at least annually in order to ensure equal opportunity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan underwriting standards.</I> The basic purpose of the nondiscrimination regulations is to require that every applicant be given an equal opportunity to obtain a loan. Each loan applicant's creditworthiness should be evaluated on an individual basis without reference to presumed characteristics of a group. The use of lending standards which have no economic basis and which are discriminatory in effect is a violation of law even in the absence of an actual intent to discriminate. However, a standard which has a discriminatory effect is not necessarily improper if its use achieves a genuine business need which cannot be achieved by means which are not discriminatory in effect or less discriminatory in effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discriminatory practices</I>—(1) <I>Discrimination on the basis of sex or marital status.</I> The Civil Rights Act of 1968 and the National Housing Act prohibit discrimination in lending on the basis of sex. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act, in addition to this prohibition, forbids discrimination on the basis of marital status. Refusing to lend to, requiring higher standards of creditworthiness of, or imposing different requirements on, members of one sex or individuals of one marital status, is discrimination based on sex or marital status. Loan underwriting decisions must be based on an applicant's credit history and present and reasonably foreseeable economic prospects, rather than on the basis of assumptions regarding comparative differences in creditworthiness between married and unmarried individuals, or between men and women.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discrimination on the basis of language.</I> Requiring fluency in the English language as a prerequisite for obtaining a loan may be a discriminatory practice based on national origin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Income of husbands and wives.</I> A practice of discounting all or part of either spouse's income where spouses apply jointly is a violation of section 527 of the National Housing Act. As with other income, when spouses apply jointly for a loan, the determination as to whether a spouse's income qualifies for credit purposes should depend upon a reasonable evaluation of his or her past, present, and reasonably foreseeable economic circumstances. Information relating to child-bearing intentions of a couple or an individual may not be requested.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supplementary income.</I> Lending standards which consider as effective only the non-overtime income of the primary wage-earner may result in discrimination because they do not take account of variations in employment patterns among individuals and families. The favored method of loan underwriting reasonably evaluates the credit worthiness of each applicant based on a realistic appraisal of his or her own past, present, and foreseeable economic circumstances. The determination as to whether primary income or additional income qualifies as effective for credit purposes should depend upon whether such income may reasonably be expected to continue through the early period of the mortgage risk. Automatically discounting other income from bonuses, overtime, or part-time employment, will cause some applicants to be denied financing without a realistic analysis of their credit worthiness. Since statistics show that minority group members and low- and moderate-income families rely more often on such supplemental income, the practice may be racially discriminatory in effect, as well as artificially restrictive of opportunities for home financing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Applicant's prior history.</I> Loan decisions should be based upon a realistic evaluation of all pertinent factors respecting an individual's creditworthiness, without giving undue weight to any one factor. The savings association should, among other things, take into consideration that:
</P>
<P>(i) In some instances, past credit difficulties may have resulted from discriminatory practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) A policy favoring applicants who previously owned homes may perpetuate prior discrimination;
</P>
<P>(iii) A current, stable earnings record may be the most reliable indicator of credit-worthiness, and entitled to more weight than factors such as educational level attained;
</P>
<P>(iv) Job or residential changes may indicate upward mobility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Preferring applicants who have done business with the lender can perpetuate previous discriminatory policies.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Income level or racial composition of area.</I> Refusing to lend or lending on less favorable terms in particular areas because of their racial composition is unlawful. Refusing to lend, or offering less favorable terms (such as interest rate, downpayment, or maturity) to applicants because of the income level in an area can discriminate against minority group persons.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Age and location factors.</I> Sections 128.2, 128.11, and 128.3 of this chapter prohibit loan denials based upon the age or location of a dwelling. These restrictions are intended to prohibit use of unfounded or unsubstantiated assumptions regarding the effect upon loan risk of the age of a dwelling or the physical or economic characteristics of an area. Loan decisions should be based on the present market value of the property offered as security (including consideration of specific improvements to be made by the borrower) and the likelihood that the property will retain an adequate value over the term of the loan. Specific factors which may negatively affect its short-range future value (up to 3-5 years) should be clearly documented. Factors which in some cases may cause the market value of a property to decline are recent zoning changes or a significant number of abandoned homes in the immediate vicinity of the property. However, not all zoning changes will cause a decline in property values, and proximity to abandoned buildings may not affect the market value of a property because of rehabilitation programs or affirmative lending programs, or because the cause of abandonment is unrelated to high risk. Proper underwriting considerations include the condition and utility of the improvements, and various physical factors such as street conditions, amenities such as parks and recreation areas, availability of public utilities and municipal services, and exposure to flooding and land faults. However, arbitrary decisions based on age or location are prohibited, since many older, soundly constructed homes provide housing opportunities which may be precluded by an arbitrary lending policy.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fair Housing Act (title VIII, Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended).</I> Savings associations must comply with all regulations promulgated by the Department of Housing and Urban Development to implement the Fair Housing Act, found at 24 CFR parts 100 through 125, except that they shall use the Equal Housing Lender logo and poster prescribed by OCC regulations at 12 CFR 128.4 and 128.5 rather than the Equal Housing Opportunity logo and poster required by 24 CFR part 110.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Marketing practices.</I> Savings associations should review their advertising and marketing practices to ensure that their services are available without discrimination to the community they serve. Discrimination in lending is not limited to loan decisions and underwriting standards; a savings association does not meet its obligations to the community or implement its equal lending responsibility if its marketing practices and business relationships with developers and real estate brokers improperly restrict its clientele to segments of the community. A review of marketing practices could begin with an examination of an association's loan portfolio and applications to ascertain whether, in view of the demographic characteristics and credit demands of the community in which the institution is located, it is adequately serving the community on a nondiscriminatory basis. The OCC will systematically review marketing practices where evidence of discrimination in lending is discovered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.10   Supplementary guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>The policy statement found at 12 CFR 128.9 supplements this part and should be read together with this part. Refer also to the HUD Fair Housing regulations at 24 CFR parts 100 through 125, Federal Reserve Regulation B at 12 CFR part 202, and Federal Reserve Regulation C at 12 CFR part 203.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 128.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.53.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 128.11   Nondiscriminatory appraisal and underwriting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisal.</I> No savings association may use or rely upon an appraisal of a dwelling which the savings association knows, or reasonably should know, is discriminatory on the basis of the age or location of the dwelling, or is discriminatory per se or in effect under the Fair Housing Act of 1968 or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Underwriting.</I> Each savings association shall have clearly written, non-discriminatory loan underwriting standards, available to the public upon request, at each of its offices. Each association shall, at least annually, review its standards, and business practices implementing them, to ensure equal opportunity in lending.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note to § 128.11:</HED>
<P><I>See also,</I> § 128.9(b), (c)(6), and (c)(7).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="129-140" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 129-140 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="141" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 141—DEFINITIONS FOR REGULATIONS AFFECTING FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48990, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 141.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.1   When do the definitions in this part apply?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in this part and in 12 CFR part 161 apply throughout parts 100 through 199 of this chapter, unless another definition is specifically provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.5   Commercial paper.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>commercial paper</I> means any note, draft, or bill of exchange which arises out of a current transaction or the proceeds of which have been or are to be used for current transactions, and which has a maturity at the time of issuance of not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.7   Corporate debt security.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>corporate debt security</I> means a marketable obligation, evidencing the indebtedness of any corporation in the form of a bond, note and/or debenture which is commonly regarded as a debt security and is not predominantly speculative in nature. A security is marketable if it may be sold with reasonable promptness at a price which corresponds reasonably to its fair value.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.8   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.10   Dwelling unit.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>dwelling unit</I> means the unified combination of rooms designed for residential use by one family, other than a single-family dwelling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.11   Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.14   Home.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>home</I> means real estate comprising a single-family dwelling(s) or a dwelling unit(s) for four or fewer families in the aggregate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.15-141.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.15-141.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.20   Loans.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>loans</I> means obligations and extensions or advances of credit; and any reference to a loan or investment includes an interest in such a loan or investment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.21" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.21   Nonresidential real estate.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>nonresidential real estate or nonresidential real property</I> mean real estate that is not <I>residential real estate,</I> as that term is defined in § 141.23 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.22" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.22   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.23" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.23   Residential real estate.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>residential real estate or residential real property</I> mean:
</P>
<P>(a) Homes (including a dwelling unit in a multi-family residential property such as a condominium or a cooperative);
</P>
<P>(b) Combinations of homes and business property (<I>i.e.,</I> a home used in part for business);
</P>
<P>(c) Other real estate used for primarily residential purposes other than a home (but which may include homes);
</P>
<P>(d) Combinations of such real estate and business property involving only minor business use (<I>i.e.,</I> where no more than 20 percent of the total appraised value of the real estate is attributable to the business use);
</P>
<P>(e) Farm residences and combinations of farm residences and commercial farm real estate;
</P>
<P>(f) Property to be improved by the construction of such structures; or
</P>
<P>(g) Leasehold interests in the above real estate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.25   Single-family dwelling.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>single-family dwelling</I> means a structure designed for residential use by one family, or a unit so designed, whose owner owns, directly or through a non-profit cooperative housing organization, an undivided interest in the underling real estate, including property owned in common with others which contributes to the use and enjoyment of the structure or unit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 141.26" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.55.0.27.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 141.26   Surplus.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>surplus</I> means undistributed earnings held as unallocated reserves for general corporate use.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="142" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 142 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="143" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 143—FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS—GRANDFATHERED AUTHORITY 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48991, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 143.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.57.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 143.12   Grandfathered authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal savings bank formerly chartered or designated as a mutual savings bank under state law may exercise any authority it was authorized to exercise as a mutual savings bank under state law at the time of its conversion from a state mutual savings bank to a Federal or other state charter. Except to the extent such authority may be exercised by Federal savings associations not enjoying grandfathered rights hereunder, such authority may be exercised only to the degree authorized under state law at the time of such conversion. Unless otherwise determined by the OTS prior to July 21, 2011 or by the OCC an association, in the exercise of grandfathered authority, may continue to follow applicable state laws and regulations in effect at the time of such conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal savings association that acquires, or has acquired, a Federal savings bank by merger or consolidation may itself exercise any grandfathered rights enjoyed by the disappearing institution, whether such rights were obtained directly through conversion or through merger or consolidation. The extent of the grandfathered rights of a Federal savings association that disappeared prior to the effective date of this section shall be determined exclusively pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) This section shall not be construed to prevent the exercise by a Federal savings association enjoying grandfathered rights hereunder of authority that is available under the applicable state law only upon the occurrence of specific preconditions, such as the attainment of a particular future date or specified level of regulatory capital, which have not occurred at the time of conversion from a state mutual savings bank, provided they occur thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) This section shall not be construed to permit the exercise of any particular authority on a more liberal basis than is allowable under the most liberal construction of either state or Federal law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="144" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 144—FEDERAL MUTUAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS—COMMUNICATION BETWEEN MEMBERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48995, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 144.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.58.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 144.8   Communication between members of a Federal mutual savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of communication with other members.</I> A member of a Federal mutual savings association has the right to communicate, as prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, with other members of the Federal savings association regarding any matter related to the Federal savings association's affairs, except for “improper” communications, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section. The association may not defeat that right by redeeming a savings member's savings account in the Federal mutual savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member communication procedures.</I> If a member of a Federal mutual savings association desires to communicate with other members, the following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(1) The member shall give the Federal mutual savings association a written request to communicate;
</P>
<P>(2) If the proposed communication is in connection with a meeting of the Federal savings association's members, the request shall be given at least thirty days before the annual meeting or 10 days before a special meeting;
</P>
<P>(3) The request shall contain—
</P>
<P>(i) The member's full name and address;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature and extent of the member's interest in the Federal savings association at the time the information is given;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the proposed communication; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the communication is in connection with a meeting of the members, the date of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal savings association shall reply to the request within either—
</P>
<P>(i) Fourteen days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ten days, if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Three days, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting;
</P>
<P>(5) The reply shall provide either—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of the Federal savings association's members and the estimated reasonable cost to the Federal savings association of mailing to them the proposed communication; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notification that the Federal savings association has determined not to mail the communication because it is “improper”, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(6) After receiving the amount of the estimated costs of mailing and sufficient copies of the communication, the Federal savings association shall mail the communication to all members, by a class of mail specified by the requesting member, either—
</P>
<P>(i) Within fourteen days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Within seven days, if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting;
</P>
<P>(iii) As soon as practicable before the meeting, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On a later date specified by the member;
</P>
<P>(7) If the Federal savings association refuses to mail the proposed communication, it shall return the requesting member's materials together with a written statement of the specific reasons for refusal, and shall simultaneously send to the appropriate OCC licensing office two copies each of the requesting member's materials, the Federal savings association's written statement, and any other relevant material. The materials shall be sent within:
</P>
<P>(i) Fourteen days,
</P>
<P>(ii) Ten days if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Three days, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting, after the Federal savings association receives the request for communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Improper communication.</I> A communication is an “improper communication” if it contains material which:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time and in the light of the circumstances under which it is made:
</P>
<P>(i) Is false or misleading with respect to any material fact; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Omits a material fact necessary to make the statements therein not false or misleading, or necessary to correct a statement in an earlier communication on the same subject which has become false or misleading;
</P>
<P>(2) Relates to a personal claim or a personal grievance, or is solicitous of personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;
</P>
<P>(3) Relates to any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause, that is not significantly related to the business of the Federal savings association or is not within the control of the Federal savings association; or
</P>
<P>(4) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation:
</P>
<P>(i) Impugns character, integrity, or personal reputation,
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Makes statements impugning the stability and soundness of the Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="145" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 145—FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS—OPERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1828, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 48999, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 145.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.1   General authority.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association may exercise all authority granted it by the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933 (“Act”), 12 U.S.C. 1464, as amended, and its charter and bylaws, whether or not implemented specifically by OCC regulations, subject to the limitations and interpretations contained in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.16   Public deposits, depositaries, and fiscal agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Moneys</I> includes <I>monies</I> and has the same meaning it has in applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State law</I> includes actions by a governmental body which has a charter adopted under the constitution of the state with provisions respecting deposits of public money of that body;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surety</I> means surety under real and/or personal suretyship, and includes guarantor; and
</P>
<P>(4) Terms in paragraph (b) of this section have the meanings they have under applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to act as surety for public deposits.</I> (1) A Federal savings association that is a deposit association may give bond or security for deposit in it of public moneys or investment in it by a governmental unit if required to do so by state law, either as an alternative condition or otherwise, regardless of the amount required. Any bond or security may be given and any substitution or increase thereof may be made under this section at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) If state law requires as a condition of such deposit or investment that the Federal savings association or its bond or security, or any combination thereof, be surety for or with respect to other deposits or instruments, whether of that depositor or investor or of any other(s), and whether in the Federal savings association or in any other institution(s) having, when the investments or deposits were made, insurance by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the same shall become, or if the state law is self-executing shall be, such surety.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Depositaries and fiscal agents.</I> Subject to regulation of the United States Treasury Department, a Federal savings association may serve as a depositary for Federal taxes, as a Treasury tax and loan depositary, or as a depositary of public money and fiscal agent of the Government or any other instrumentality thereof when designated for that purpose by such instrumentality and approved by the OCC, and may satisfy any requirement in connection therewith, including maintaining accounts described in §§ 161.33, 161.52, 161.53, and 161.54 of this chapter; pledging collateral; and performing the services outlined in 31 CFR 202.3(b) or any section that supersedes or amends § 202.3(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.17" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.17   Funds transfer services.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association is authorized to transfer, with or without fee, its customers' funds from any account (including a line of credit) of the customer at the Federal savings association or at another financial intermediary to third parties or other accounts of the customer on the customer's order or authorization by any mechanism or device, including cashier's checks, conforming with applicable laws and established commercial practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.92" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.92   Branch offices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> A branch office of a Federal savings association (“you”) is any office other than your home office, agency office, administrative office, data processing office, or an electronic means or facility under part 155 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Branching.</I> Subject to the application and notice requirements at § 5.31 of this chapter, you may branch in any state or states of the United States and its territories unless the location would violate:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 5(r) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(r));
</P>
<P>(2) Section 10(e)(3) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)(3)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Section 13(k)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)(4)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preemption.</I> This exercise of the OCC's authority is preemptive of any state law purporting to address the subject of branching by a Federal savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 48999, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 145.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.59.0.27.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 145.101   Fiscal agency.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association designated fiscal agent by the Secretary of the Treasury or with OCC approval by another instrumentality of the United States, shall, as such, perform such reasonable duties and exercise only such powers and privileges as the Secretary of the Treasury or such instrumentality may prescribe.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="146-149" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.60" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 146-149 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="150" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 150—FIDUCIARY POWERS OF FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49003, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 150.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.10   What regulations govern the fiduciary operations of Federal savings associations?</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association (“you”) must conduct its fiduciary operations in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1464(n) and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.20   What are fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>Fiduciary powers are the authority that the OCC permits you to exercise under 12 U.S.C. 1464(n).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.30   What fiduciary capacities does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>You are subject to this part if you act in a fiduciary capacity, except as described in subpart E of this part. You act in a fiduciary capacity when you act in any of the following capacities:
</P>
<P>(a) Trustee.
</P>
<P>(b) Executor.
</P>
<P>(c) Administrator.
</P>
<P>(d) Registrar of stocks and bonds.
</P>
<P>(e) Transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(f) Assignee.
</P>
<P>(g) Receiver.
</P>
<P>(h) Guardian or conservator of the estate of a minor, an incompetent person, an absent person, or a person over whose estate a court has taken jurisdiction, other than under bankruptcy or insolvency laws.
</P>
<P>(i) A fiduciary in a relationship established under a state law that is substantially similar to the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act or the Uniform Transfers to Minors Act as published by the American Law Institute.
</P>
<P>(j) Investment adviser, if you receive a fee for your investment advice.
</P>
<P>(k) Any capacity in which you have investment discretion on behalf of another.
</P>
<P>(l) Any other similar capacity that the OCC may authorize under 12 U.S.C. 1464(n).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.40   When do I have investment discretion?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You have investment discretion when you have, with respect to a fiduciary account, the sole or shared authority to determine what securities or other assets to purchase or sell on behalf of that account. It does not matter whether you have exercised this authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delegations.</I> You retain investment discretion if you delegate investment discretion to another. You also have investment discretion if you receive delegated authority to exercise investment discretion from another.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.50   What is a fiduciary account?</HEAD>
<P>A fiduciary account is an account that you administer acting in a fiduciary capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.0.38.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.60   What other definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P><I>Activities ancillary to your fiduciary business</I> include advertising, marketing, or soliciting fiduciary business, contacting existing or potential customers, answering questions and providing information to customers related to their accounts, acting as liaison between you and your customer (for example, forwarding requests for distribution, changes in investment objectives, forms, or funds received from the customer), and inspecting or maintaining custody of fiduciary assets or holding title to real property. This list is illustrative and not comprehensive. Other activities may also be “ancillary activities” for purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 221a(b). For purposes of this part, substitute the term “Federal savings association” for the term “member bank” whenever it appears in 12 U.S.C. 221a(b).
</P>
<P><I>Applicable law</I> means the law of a state or other jurisdiction governing your fiduciary relationships, any Federal law governing those relationships, the terms of the instrument governing a fiduciary relationship, and any court order pertaining to the relationship.
</P>
<P><I>Fiduciary activities</I> include accepting a fiduciary appointment, executing fiduciary-related documents, providing investment advice for a fee regarding fiduciary assets, or making discretionary decisions regarding investment or distribution of assets.
</P>
<P><I>Fiduciary officers and employees</I> means the officers and employees of a Federal savings association to whom the board of directors or its designee has assigned functions involving the exercise of the association's fiduciary powers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Obtaining Fiduciary Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.70" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.1.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.70   Must I obtain OCC approval or file a notice before I exercise fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>Except for fiduciary activities subject solely to subpart E, you should refer to 12 CFR 5.26 to determine if you must obtain OCC approval or file a notice with the OCC before you exercise fiduciary powers. A Federal savings association may not exercise fiduciary powers unless it obtains prior approval from the OCC to the extent required under 12 CFR 5.26.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Exercising Fiduciary Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.130   How may I conduct multi-state operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conducting fiduciary activities in more than one state.</I> You may conduct fiduciary activities in any state, subject to the application and notice requirements in § 5.26 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Serving customers in more than one state.</I> When you conduct fiduciary activities in a state:
</P>
<P>(1) You may market your fiduciary services to, and act as a fiduciary for, customers located in any state, may act as a fiduciary for relationships that include property located in other states, and may act as a testamentary trustee for a testator located in other states.
</P>
<P>(2) You may establish or utilize an office in any state to perform activities that are ancillary to your fiduciary business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49003, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.135" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.135   How do I determine which state's laws apply to my operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The state laws that apply to you by virtue of 12 U.S.C. 1464(n) are the laws of the states in which you conduct fiduciary activities. For each individual state, you may conduct fiduciary activities in the capacity of trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or in any other fiduciary capacity the state permits for its state banks, trust companies, or other corporations that compete with Federal savings associations in the state.
</P>
<P>(b) For each fiduciary relationship, the state referred to in 12 U.S.C. 1464(n) is the state in which you conduct fiduciary activities for that relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.136" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.136   To what extent do state laws apply to my fiduciary operations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of state law.</I> To enhance safety and soundness and to enable Federal savings associations to conduct their fiduciary activities in accordance with the best practices of thrift institutions in the United States (by efficiently delivering fiduciary services to the public free from undue regulatory duplication and burden), the OCC intends to give Federal savings associations maximum flexibility to exercise their fiduciary powers in accordance with a uniform scheme of Federal regulation. Accordingly, Federal savings associations may exercise fiduciary powers as authorized under Federal law, including this part, without regard to state laws that purport to regulate or otherwise affect their fiduciary activities, except to the extent provided in 12 U.S.C. 1464(n) (state laws regarding scope of fiduciary powers, access to examination reports regarding trust activities, deposits of securities, oaths and affidavits, and capital) or in paragraph (c) of this section. For purposes of this section, “state law” includes any state statute, regulation, ruling, order, or judicial decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Illustrative examples.</I> Examples of state laws that are preempted by the HOLA and this section include those regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Registration and licensing;
</P>
<P>(2) Recordkeeping;
</P>
<P>(3) Advertising and marketing;
</P>
<P>(4) The ability of a Federal savings association conducting fiduciary activities to maintain an action or proceeding in state court; and
</P>
<P>(5) Fiduciary-related fees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State laws that are not preempted.</I> State laws of the following types are not preempted to the extent that they only incidentally affect the fiduciary operations of Federal savings associations or are otherwise consistent with the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Contract and commercial law;
</P>
<P>(2) Real property law;
</P>
<P>(3) Tort law;
</P>
<P>(4) Criminal law;
</P>
<P>(5) Probate law; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other law that the OCC, upon review, finds:
</P>
<P>(i) Furthers a vital state interest; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either has only an incidental effect on fiduciary operations or is not otherwise contrary to the purposes expressed in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.140" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.140   Must I adopt and follow written policies and procedures in exercising fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>You must adopt and follow written policies and procedures adequate to maintain your fiduciary activities in compliance with applicable law. Among other relevant matters, the policies and procedures should address, where appropriate, the following areas:
</P>
<P>(a) Your brokerage placement practices.
</P>
<P>(b) Your methods for ensuring that your fiduciary officers and employees do not use material inside information in connection with any decision or recommendation to purchase or sell any security.
</P>
<P>(c) Your methods for preventing self-dealing and conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(d) Your selection and retention of legal counsel who is ready and available to advise you and your fiduciary officers and employees on fiduciary matters.
</P>
<P>(e) Your investment of funds held as fiduciary, including short-term investments and the treatment of fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fiduciary Personnel and Facilities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.150" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.150   Who is responsible for the exercise of fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>The exercise of your fiduciary powers must be managed by or under the direction of your board of directors. In discharging its responsibilities, the board may assign any function related to the exercise of fiduciary powers to any director, officer, employee, or committee of directors, officers, or employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.160   What personnel and facilities may I use to perform fiduciary services?</HEAD>
<P>You may use your qualified personnel and facilities or an affiliate's qualified personnel and facilities to perform services related to the exercise of fiduciary powers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.170" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.170   May my other departments or affiliates use fiduciary personnel and facilities to perform other services?</HEAD>
<P>Your other departments or affiliates may use fiduciary officers, employees, and facilities to perform services unrelated to the exercise of fiduciary powers, to the extent not prohibited by applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.180" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.180   May I perform fiduciary services for, or purchase fiduciary services from, another association or entity?</HEAD>
<P>You may perform services related to the exercise of fiduciary powers for another association or other entity under a written agreement. You may also purchase services related to the exercise of fiduciary powers from another association or other entity under a written agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.190" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.38.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.190   Must fiduciary officers and employees be bonded?</HEAD>
<P>You must obtain an adequate bond for all fiduciary officers and employees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.39" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Review of a Fiduciary Account</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.39.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.200   Must I review a prospective account before I accept it?</HEAD>
<P>Before accepting a prospective fiduciary account, you must review it to determine whether you can properly administer the account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.39.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.210   Must I conduct another review of an account after I accept it?</HEAD>
<P>After you accept a fiduciary account for which you have investment discretion, you must conduct a prompt review of all assets of the account to evaluate whether they are appropriate, individually and collectively, for the account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.220" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.39.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.220   Are any other account reviews required?</HEAD>
<P>At least once every calendar year, you must conduct a review of all assets of each fiduciary account for which you have investment discretion. In this review, you must evaluate whether the assets are appropriate, individually and collectively, for the account.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.40" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Custody and Control of Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.230" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.40.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.230   Who must maintain custody or control of assets in a fiduciary account?</HEAD>
<P>You must place assets of fiduciary accounts in the joint custody or control of not fewer than two fiduciary officers or employees designated for that purpose by the board of directors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.240" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.40.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.240   May I hold investments of a fiduciary account off-premises?</HEAD>
<P>You may hold the investments of a fiduciary account off-premises, if this practice is consistent with applicable law, and you maintain adequate safeguards and controls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.245" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.40.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.245   When is a fiduciary not required to maintain custody or control of fiduciary assets?</HEAD>
<P>If you are deemed a fiduciary based solely on your capacity as investment advisor, as that capacity is defined in § 9.101(a) of this chapter, and have no other fiduciary capacity as enumerated in § 150.30, you are not required to maintain custody or control of fiduciary assets as set forth in § 150.220 or § 150.240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8109, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.250" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.40.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.250   Must I keep fiduciary assets separate from other assets?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep the assets of fiduciary accounts separate from your other assets. You must also keep the assets of each fiduciary account separate from all other accounts, or you must identify the investments as the property of a particular account, except as provided in § 150.260.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.41" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Investing Funds of a Fiduciary Account</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.260" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.41.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.260   How may I invest funds of a fiduciary account?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You must invest funds of a fiduciary account in a manner consistent with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collective investment funds.</I> (1) You may invest funds of a fiduciary account in a collective investment fund, including a collective investment fund that you have established. In establishing and administering such funds, you must comply with 12 CFR 9.18.
</P>
<P>(2) If you must file a document with the OCC under 12 CFR 9.18, the OCC may review such documents for compliance with this part and other laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) “Bank” and “national bank” as used in 12 CFR 9.18 shall be deemed to include a Federal savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.42" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Funds Awaiting Investment or Distribution</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.290" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.42.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.290   What must I do with fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution?</HEAD>
<P>If you have investment discretion or discretion over distributions for a fiduciary account which contains funds awaiting investment or distribution, you must ensure that those funds do not remain uninvested and undistributed any longer than is reasonable for the proper management of the account and consistent with applicable law. You also must obtain a rate of return for those funds that is consistent with applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.300" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.42.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.300   Where may I deposit fiduciary funds awaiting investment or distribution?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Self deposits.</I> You may deposit funds of a fiduciary account that are awaiting investment or distribution in your other departments, unless prohibited by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate deposits.</I> You may also deposit funds of a fiduciary account that are awaiting investment or distribution with an affiliated insured depository institution, unless prohibited by applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.310" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.42.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.310   What if the FDIC does not insure the deposits?</HEAD>
<P>If the FDIC does not insure the entire amount of a self deposit, you must set aside collateral as security. If the FDIC does not insure the entire amount of an affiliate deposit, you or your affiliate must set aside collateral as security. The market value of the collateral must at all times equal or exceed the amount of the uninsured fiduciary funds. You must place the collateral under the control of appropriate fiduciary officers and employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.320" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.42.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.320   What is acceptable collateral for uninsured deposits?</HEAD>
<P>Any of the following is acceptable collateral for self deposits or affiliate deposits under § 150.310:
</P>
<P>(a) Direct obligations of the United States, or other obligations fully guaranteed by the United States as to principal and interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Readily marketable securities of the classes in which state-chartered corporate fiduciaries are permitted to invest fiduciary funds under applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(c) Other readily marketable securities as the OCC may determine.
</P>
<P>(d) Surety bonds, to the extent they provide adequate security, unless prohibited by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(e) Any other assets that qualify under applicable state law as appropriate security for deposits of fiduciary funds.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Restrictions on Self Dealing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.330" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.330   Are there investments in which I may not invest funds of a fiduciary account?</HEAD>
<P>You may not invest funds of a fiduciary account for which you have investment discretion in the following assets, unless authorized by applicable law:
</P>
<P>(a) The stock or obligations of, or assets acquired from, you or any of your directors, officers, or employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The stock or obligations of, or assets acquired from, your affiliates or any of their directors, officers, or employees.
</P>
<P>(c) The stock or obligations of, or assets acquired from, other individuals or organizations if you have an interest in the individual or organization that might affect the exercise of your best judgment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.340" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.340   May I exercise rights to purchase additional stock or fractional shares of my stock or obligations or the stock or obligations of my affiliates?</HEAD>
<P>If the retention of investments in your stock or obligations or the stock or obligations of an affiliate in fiduciary accounts is consistent with applicable law, you may do either of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Exercise rights to purchase additional stock (or securities convertible into additional stock) when these rights are offered <I>pro rata</I> to stockholders.
</P>
<P>(b) Purchase fractional shares to complement fractional shares acquired through the exercise of rights or through the receipt of a stock dividend resulting in fractional share holdings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.350" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.350   May I lend, sell, or transfer assets of a fiduciary account if I have an interest in the transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General restriction.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, you may not lend, sell, or otherwise transfer assets of a fiduciary account for which you have investment discretion to yourself or any of your directors, officers, or employees; to your affiliates or any of their directors, officers, or employees; or to other individuals or organizations with whom you have an interest that might affect the exercise of your best judgment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Funds for which you have investment discretion.</I> You may lend, sell or otherwise transfer assets of a fiduciary account for which you have investment discretion to yourself or any of your directors, officers, or employees; to your affiliates or any of their directors, officers, or employees; or to other individuals or organizations with whom you have an interest that might affect the exercise of your best judgment, if you meet one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is authorized by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Legal counsel advises you in writing that you have incurred, in your fiduciary capacity, a contingent or potential liability. Upon the sale or transfer of assets, you must reimburse the fiduciary account in cash in an amount equal to the greater of book or market value of the assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction is permitted under 12 CFR 9.18(b)(8)(iii) for defaulted fixed-income investments.
</P>
<P>(iv) The OCC requires you to do so.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Funds held as trustee.</I> You may make loans of funds held in trust to any of your directors, officers, or employees if the funds are held in an employee benefit plan and the loan is made in accordance with the exemptions found at section 408 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1108).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.360" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.360   May I make a loan to a fiduciary account that is secured by an interest in the assets of the account?</HEAD>
<P>You may make a loan to a fiduciary account that is secured by an interest in the assets of the account, if the transaction is fair to the account and is not prohibited by applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.370" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.43.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.370   May I sell assets or lend money between fiduciary accounts?</HEAD>
<P>You may sell assets or lend money between fiduciary accounts, if the transaction is fair to both accounts and is not prohibited by applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.44" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compensation, Gifts, and Bequests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.380" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.44.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.380   May I earn compensation for acting in a fiduciary capacity?</HEAD>
<P>If the amount of your compensation for acting in a fiduciary capacity is not set or governed by applicable law, you may charge a reasonable fee for your services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.390" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.44.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.390   May my officer or employee retain compensation for acting as a co-fiduciary?</HEAD>
<P>You may not permit your officers or employees to retain any compensation for acting as a co-fiduciary with you in the administration of a fiduciary account, except with the specific approval of your board of directors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.400" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.44.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.400   May my fiduciary officer or employee accept a gift or bequest?</HEAD>
<P>You may not permit any fiduciary officer or employee to accept a bequest or gift of fiduciary assets, unless the bequest or gift is directed or made by a relative of the officer or employee or is specifically approved by your board of directors.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.45" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.410" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.45.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.410   What records must I keep?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep adequate records for all fiduciary accounts. For example, you must keep documents on the establishment and termination of each fiduciary account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.420" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.45.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.420   How long must I keep these records?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep fiduciary records for three years after the termination of the account or the termination of any litigation relating to the account, whichever is later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.430" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.45.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.430   Must I keep fiduciary records separate and distinct from other records?</HEAD>
<P>You must keep fiduciary records separate and distinct from your other records.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="46" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Audit Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.440" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.440   When do I have to audit my fiduciary activities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual audit.</I> If you do not use a continuous audit system described in paragraph (b) of this section, then you must arrange for a suitable audit of all significant fiduciary activities at least once during each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuous audit.</I> Instead of an annual audit, you may adopt a continuous audit system. Under a continuous audit system, you must arrange for a discrete audit of each significant fiduciary activity (<I>i.e.,</I> on an activity-by-activity basis) at an interval commensurate with the nature and risk of that activity. Some fiduciary activities may receive audits at intervals greater or less than one year, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.450" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.450   What standards govern the conduct of the audit?</HEAD>
<P>Auditors must follow generally accepted standards for attestation engagements and other standards established by the OCC. An audit must ascertain whether your internal control policies and procedures provide reasonable assurance of three things:
</P>
<P>(a) You are administering fiduciary activities in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) You are properly safeguarding fiduciary assets.
</P>
<P>(c) You are accurately recording transactions in appropriate accounts in a timely manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.460" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.460   Who may conduct an audit?</HEAD>
<P>Internal auditors, external auditors, or other qualified persons who are responsible only to the board of directors, may conduct an audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.470" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.470   Who directs the conduct of the audit?</HEAD>
<P>Your fiduciary audit committee directs the conduct of the audit. Your fiduciary audit committee may consist of a committee of your directors or an audit committee of an affiliate. There are two restrictions on who may serve on the committee:
</P>
<P>(a) Your officers and officers of an affiliate who participate significantly in administering your fiduciary activities may not serve on the audit committee.
</P>
<P>(b) A majority of the members of the audit committee may not serve on any committee to which the board of directors has delegated power to manage and control your fiduciary activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.480" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.2.46.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.480   How do I report the results of the audit?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual audit.</I> If you conduct an annual audit, you must note the results of the audit (including significant actions taken as a result of the audit) in the minutes of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Continuous audit.</I> If you adopt a continuous audit system, you must note the results of all discrete audits conducted since the last audit report (including significant actions taken as a result of the audits) in the minutes of the board of directors at least once during each calendar year.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Depositing Securities With State Authorities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.490" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.3.47.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.490   When must I deposit securities with state authorities?</HEAD>
<P>You must deposit securities with a state's authorities or, if applicable, a Federal Home Loan Bank under § 150.510, if you meet all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) You are located in the state.
</P>
<P>(b) You act as a private or court-appointed trustee.
</P>
<P>(c) The law of the state requires corporations acting in a fiduciary capacity to deposit securities with state authorities for the protection of private or court trusts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.500" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.3.47.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.500   How much must I deposit if I administer fiduciary assets in more than one state?</HEAD>
<P>If you administer fiduciary assets in more than one state, you must compute the amount of deposit required for each state on the basis of fiduciary assets that you administer primarily from offices located in that state.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.510" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.3.47.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.510   What must I do if state authorities refuse my deposit?</HEAD>
<P>If state authorities refuse to accept your deposit under § 150.490, you must deposit the securities with the Federal Home Loan Bank of which you are a member. The Federal Home Loan Bank will hold the securities for the protection of private or court trusts to the same extent as if the securities had been deposited with state authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Terminating Fiduciary Activities Receivership or Liquidation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.520" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.47.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.520   What happens if I am placed in receivership or voluntary liquidation?</HEAD>
<P>If the OCC appoints a conservator or receiver, or if you place yourself in voluntary liquidation, the receiver, conservator, or liquidating agent must promptly close or transfer all fiduciary accounts to a substitute fiduciary, in accordance with OCC instructions and the orders of the court having jurisdiction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="47" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.47" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Surrender of Fiduciary Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.530" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.47.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.530   How do I surrender fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>If you want to surrender your fiduciary powers, you must file a certified copy of a resolution of your board of directors evidencing that intent. You must file the resolution with the appropriate OCC licensing office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.540" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.47.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.540   When will the OCC terminate my fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>If, after appropriate investigation, the OCC is satisfied that you have been discharged from all fiduciary duties, the appropriate OCC licensing office will issue a written notice indicating that you are no longer authorized to exercise fiduciary powers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.550" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.47.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.550   May I recover my deposit from state authorities?</HEAD>
<P>Upon issuance of the OCC written notice under § 150.540, you may recover any securities deposited with state authorities, or a Federal Home Loan Bank, under subpart C of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="48" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.48" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Revocation of Fiduciary Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.560" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.48.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.560   When may the OCC revoke my fiduciary powers?</HEAD>
<P>The OCC may revoke your fiduciary powers if it determines that you have done any of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Exercised those fiduciary powers unlawfully or unsoundly.
</P>
<P>(b) Failed to exercise those fiduciary powers for five consecutive years.
</P>
<P>(c) Otherwise failed to follow the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.570" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.4.48.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.570   What procedures govern the revocation?</HEAD>
<P>The procedures for revocation of fiduciary powers are set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1464(n)(10). The OCC will conduct the hearing required under 12 U.S.C. 1464(n)(10)(B) under part 19 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49003, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 89908, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Activities Exempt From This Part</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.580" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.580   When may I conduct fiduciary activities without obtaining OCC approval?</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the requirements of this subpart E, you do not need OCC approval under subpart B if you conduct fiduciary activities in the following fiduciary capacities:
</P>
<P>(a) Trustee of a trust created or organized in the United States and forming part of a stock bonus, pension, or profit-sharing plan qualifying for specific tax treatment under section 401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (26 U.S.C. 401(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) Trustee or custodian of a Individual Retirement Account within the meaning of section 408(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954 (26 U.S.C. 408(a)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.590" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.590   What standards must I observe when acting in exempt fiduciary capacities?</HEAD>
<P>You must observe principles of sound fiduciary administration, including those related to recordkeeping and segregation of assets.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.600" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.600   How may funds be invested when I act in an exempt fiduciary capacity?</HEAD>
<P>If you act in an exempt fiduciary capacity under § 150.580, the funds of the fiduciary account may be invested only in the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Your accounts, deposits, obligations, or securities.
</P>
<P>(b) Other assets as the customer may direct, provided you do not exercise any investment discretion and do not directly or indirectly provide any investment advice for the fiduciary account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.610" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.610   What disclosures must I make when acting in exempt fiduciary capacities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you act in an exempt fiduciary capacity under § 150.580 and fiduciary investments are not limited to accounts or deposits insured by the FDIC, you must include the following language in bold type on the first page of any contract documents:
</P>
<P>(b) Funds invested pursuant to this agreement are not insured by the FDIC merely because the trustee or custodian is a Federal savings association the accounts of which are covered by such insurance. Only investments in the accounts of a Federal savings association are insured by the FDIC, subject to its rules and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 150.620" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.61.5.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 150.620   May I receive compensation for acting in exempt fiduciary capacities?</HEAD>
<P>You may receive reasonable compensation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="151" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 151—RECORDKEEPING AND CONFIRMATION REQUIREMENTS FOR SECURITIES TRANSACTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49008, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 151.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.10   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes recordkeeping and confirmation requirements that apply when a Federal savings association (“you”) effects certain securities transactions for customers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.20   Must I comply with this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (b) of this section, you must comply with this part when:
</P>
<P>(1) You effect a securities transaction for a customer.
</P>
<P>(2) You effect a transaction in government securities.
</P>
<P>(3) You effect a transaction in municipal securities and are not registered as a municipal securities dealer with the SEC.
</P>
<P>(4) You effect a securities transaction as fiduciary. You also must comply with 12 CFR part 150 when you effect such a transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Small number of transactions.</I> You are not required to comply with §§ 151.50(b) through (d) (recordkeeping) and 151.140(a) through (c) (policies and procedures), if you effected an average of fewer than 500 securities transactions per year for customers over the three prior calendar years. You may exclude transactions in government securities when you calculate this average.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Government securities.</I> If you effect fewer than 500 government securities brokerage transactions per year, you are not required to comply with § 151.50 (recordkeeping) for those transactions. This exception does not apply to government securities dealer transactions. <I>See</I> 17 CFR 404.4(a).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Municipal securities.</I> If you are registered with the SEC as a “municipal securities dealer,” as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30) (<I>see</I> 15 U.S.C. 78o-4), you are not required to comply with this part when you conduct municipal securities transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Foreign branches.</I> You are not required to comply with this part when you conduct a transaction at your foreign branch.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transactions by registered broker-dealers.</I> You are not required to comply with this part for securities transactions effected by a registered broker-dealer, if the registered broker-dealer directly provides the customer with a confirmation. These transactions include a transaction effected by your employee who also acts as an employee of a registered broker-dealer (“dual employee”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.30   What requirements apply to all transactions?</HEAD>
<P>You must effect all transactions, including transactions excepted under § 151.20, in a safe and sound manner. You must maintain effective systems of records and controls regarding your customers' securities transactions. These systems must clearly and accurately reflect all appropriate information and provide an adequate basis for an audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.40   What definitions apply to this part?</HEAD>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> means a security that is primarily serviced by the cash flows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period. <I>Asset-backed security</I> includes any rights or other assets designed to ensure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders.
</P>
<P><I>Common or collective investment fund</I> means any fund established under 12 CFR 150.260(b) or 12 CFR 9.18.
</P>
<P><I>Completion of the transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) If the customer purchases a security through or from you, except as provided in paragraph (2) of this definition, the time the customer pays you any part of the purchase price. If payment is made by a bookkeeping entry, the time you make the bookkeeping entry for any part of the purchase price.
</P>
<P>(2) If the customer purchases a security through or from you and pays for the security before you request payment or notify the customer that payment is due, the time you deliver the security to or into the account of the customer.
</P>
<P>(3) If the customer sells a security through or to you, except as provided in paragraph (4) of this definition, the time the customer delivers the security to you. If you have custody of the security at the time of sale, the time you transfer the security from the customer's account.
</P>
<P>(4) If the customer sells a security through or to you and delivers the security to you before you request delivery or notify the customer that delivery is due, the time you pay the customer or pay into the customer's account.
</P>
<P><I>Customer</I> means a person or account, including an agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account for which you effect a securities transaction. <I>Customer</I> does not include a broker or dealer, or you when you: act as a broker or dealer; act as a fiduciary with investment discretion over an account; are a trustee that acts as the shareholder of record for the purchase or sale of securities; or are the issuer of securities that are the subject of the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Debt security</I> means any security, such as a bond, debenture, note, or any other similar instrument that evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or a similar security). <I>Debt security</I> also includes a fractional or participation interest in these debt securities. <I>Debt security</I> does not include securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Government security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or an obligation that is guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest if the Secretary of the Treasury has designated the security for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors;
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by a corporation if a statute specifically designates, by name, the corporation's securities as exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the SEC; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a government security described in this definition, other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege:
</P>
<P>(i) That is traded on one or more national securities exchanges; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For which quotations are disseminated through an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association.
</P>
<P><I>Investment discretion</I> means the same as under 12 CFR 150.40(a).
</P>
<P><I>Investment company plan</I> means any plan under which:
</P>
<P>(1) A customer purchases securities issued by an open-end investment company or unit investment trust registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, making the payments directly to, or made payable to, the registered investment company, or the principal underwriter, custodian, trustee, or other designated agent of the registered investment company; or
</P>
<P>(2) A customer sells securities issued by an open-end investment company or unit investment trust registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 under:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual retirement or individual pension plan qualified under the Internal Revenue Code; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contractual or systematic agreement under which the customer purchases at the applicable public offering price, or redeems at the applicable redemption price, securities in specified amounts (calculated in security units or dollars) at specified time intervals, and stating the commissions or charges (or the means of calculating them) that the customer will pay in connection with the purchase.
</P>
<P><I>Municipal security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a state or any political subdivision, or any agency or instrumentality of a state or any political subdivision.
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more states; or
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is an industrial development bond.
</P>
<P><I>Periodic plan</I> means a written document that authorizes you to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities (other than securities issued by an open end investment company or unit investment trust registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940). The written document must authorize you to purchase or sell in specific amounts (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and must set forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them.
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> means any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, and any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), or, in general, any instrument commonly known as a “security'; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> does not include currency; any note, draft, bill of exchange, or banker's acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance of less than nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof, the maturity of which is likewise limited; a deposit or share account in a Federal or state chartered depository institution; a loan participation; a letter of credit or other form of bank indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business; units of a collective investment fund; interests in a variable amount (master) note of a borrower of prime credit; U.S. Savings Bonds; or any other instrument the OCC determines does not constitute a security for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Sweep account</I> means any prearranged, automatic transfer or sweep of funds above a certain dollar level from a deposit account to purchase a security or securities, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security or securities when a deposit account drops below a certain level with the proceeds being transferred into a deposit account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49008, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Recordkeeping Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.1.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.50   What records must I maintain for securities transactions?</HEAD>
<P>If you effect securities transactions for customers, you must maintain all of the following records for at least three years:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Chronological records.</I> You must maintain an itemized daily record of each purchase and sale of securities in chronological order, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The account or customer name for which you effected each transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and amount of the securities;
</P>
<P>(3) The unit and aggregate purchase or sale price;
</P>
<P>(4) The trade date; and
</P>
<P>(5) The name or other designation of the registered broker-dealer or other person from whom you purchased the securities or to whom you sold the securities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Account records.</I> You must maintain account records for each customer reflecting:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases and sales of securities;
</P>
<P>(2) Receipts and deliveries of securities;
</P>
<P>(3) Receipts and disbursements of cash; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other debits and credits pertaining to transactions in securities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Memorandum (order ticket).</I> You must make and keep current a memorandum (order ticket) of each order or any other instruction given or received for the purchase or sale of securities (whether executed or not), including:
</P>
<P>(1) The account or customer name for which you effected each transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the transaction was a market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions;
</P>
<P>(3) The time the trader received the order;
</P>
<P>(4) The time the trader placed the order with the registered broker-dealer, or if there was no registered broker-dealer, the time the trader executed or cancelled the order;
</P>
<P>(5) The price at which the trader executed the order;
</P>
<P>(6) The name of the registered broker-dealer you used.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of registered broker-dealers.</I> You must maintain a record of all registered broker-dealers that you selected to effect securities transactions and the amount of commissions that you paid or allocated to each registered broker-dealer during each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notices.</I> You must maintain a copy of the written notice required under subpart B of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.1.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.60   How must I maintain my records?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The records required by § 151.50 must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. Record maintenance may include the use of automated or electronic records provided the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in a hard copy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of third party.</I> You may contract with third-party service providers to maintain the records required by this section, provided that you maintain effective oversight of the third-party vendor to ensure records meet the requirements of § 150.50 and this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Content and Timing of Notice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.70" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.70   What type of notice must I provide when I effect a securities transaction for a customer?</HEAD>
<P>If you effect a securities transaction for a customer, you must give or send the customer the registered broker-dealer confirmation described at § 151.80, or the written notice described at § 151.90. For certain types of transactions, you may elect to provide the alternate notices described in § 151.100.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.80" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.80   How do I provide a registered broker-dealer confirmation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you elect to satisfy § 151.70 by providing the customer with a registered broker-dealer confirmation, you must provide the confirmation by having the registered broker-dealer send the confirmation directly to the customer or by sending a copy of the registered broker-dealer's confirmation to the customer within one business day after you receive it.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless you have determined remuneration in a written agreement with the customer, if you have received or will receive remuneration from any source, including the customer, in connection with the transaction, you must provide a statement of the source and amount of the remuneration in addition to the registered broker-dealer confirmation described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49008, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.90" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.90   How do I provide a written notice?</HEAD>
<P>If you elect to satisfy § 151.70 by providing the customer a written notice, you must give or send the written notice at or before the completion of the securities transaction. You must include all of the following information in a written notice:
</P>
<P>(a) Your name and the customer's name.
</P>
<P>(b) The capacity in which you acted (for example, as agent).
</P>
<P>(c) The date and time of execution of the securities transaction (or a statement that you will furnish this information within a reasonable time after the customer's written request), and the identity, price, and number of shares or units (or principal amount in the case of debt securities) of the security the customer purchased or sold.
</P>
<P>(d) The name of the person from whom you purchased or to whom you sold the security, or a statement that you will furnish this information within a reasonable time after the customer's written request.
</P>
<P>(e) The amount of any remuneration that you have received or will receive from the customer in connection with the transaction unless the remuneration paid by the customer is determined under a written agreement, other than on a transaction basis.
</P>
<P>(f) The source and amount of any other remuneration you have received or will receive in connection with the transaction. If, in the case of a purchase, you were not participating in a distribution, or in the case of a sale, were not participating in a tender offer, the written notice may state whether you have or will receive any other remuneration and state that you will furnish the source and amount of the other remuneration within a reasonable time after the customer's written request.
</P>
<P>(g) That you are not a member of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation, if that is the case. This does not apply to a transaction in shares of a registered open-end investment company or unit investment trust if the customer sends funds or securities directly to, or receives funds or securities directly from, the registered open-end investment company or unit investment trust, its transfer agent, its custodian, or a designated broker or dealer who sends the customer either a confirmation or the written notice in this section.
</P>
<P>(h) Additional disclosures. You must provide all of the additional disclosures described in the following chart for transactions involving certain debt securities:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you effect a transaction involving . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You must provide the following additional information in your written notice . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) A debt security subject to redemption before maturity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A statement that the issuer may redeem the debt security in whole or in part before maturity, that the redemption could affect the represented yield, and that additional redemption information is available upon request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) A debt security that you effected exclusively on the basis of a dollar price</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) The dollar price at which you effected the transaction; and
<br/>(ii) The yield to maturity calculated from the dollar price. You do not have to disclose the yield to maturity if:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) The issuer may extend the maturity date of the security with a variable interest rate; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(B) The security is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in, or is secured by, a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) A debt security that you effected on basis of yield</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) The yield at which the transaction, including the percentage amount and its characterization (e.g., current yield, yield to maturity, or yield to call). If you effected the transaction at yield to call, you must indicate the type of call, the call date, and the call price;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) The dollar price calculated from that yield; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) The yield to maturity and the represented yield, if you effected the transaction on a basis other than yield to maturity and the yield to maturity is lower than the represented yield. You are not required to disclose this information if:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) The issuer may extend the maturity date of the security with a variable interest rate; or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(B) The security is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in, or is secured by, a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) A debt security that is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in, or is secured by, a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) A statement that the actual yield of the asset-backed security may vary according to the rate at which the underlying receivables or other financial assets are prepaid; and
<br/>(ii) A statement that you will furnish information concerning the factors that affect yield (including at a minimum estimated yield, weighted average life, and the prepayment assumptions underlying yield) upon the customer's written request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) A debt security, other than a government security</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A statement that the security is unrated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, if that is the case.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.100   What are the alternate notice requirements?</HEAD>
<P>You may elect to satisfy § 151.70 by providing the alternate notices described in the following chart for certain types of transactions.

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If you effect a securities transaction . . .
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then you may elect to . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a) For or with the account of a customer under a periodic plan, sweep account, or investment company plan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Give or send to the customer within five business days after the end of each quarterly period a written statement disclosing: (1) Each purchase and redemption that you effected for or with, and each dividend or distribution that you credited to or reinvested for, the customer's account during the period;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The date of each transaction;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The identity, number, and price of any securities that the customer purchased or redeemed in each transaction;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The total number of shares of the securities in the customer's account;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Any remuneration that you received or will receive in connection with the transaction; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) That you will give or send the registered broker-dealer confirmation described in § 151.80 or the written notice described in § 151.90 within a reasonable time after the customer's written request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(b) For or with the account of a customer in shares of an open-ended management company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 that holds itself out as a money market fund and attempts to maintain a stable net asset value per share</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Give or send to the customer the written statement described at paragraph (a) of this section on a monthly basis. You may not use the alternate notice, however, if you deduct sales loads upon the purchase or redemption of shares in the money market fund.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(c) For an account for which you do not exercise investment discretion, and for which you and the customer have agreed in writing to an arrangement concerning the time and content of the written notice</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Give or send to the customer a written notice at the agreed-upon time and with the agreed-upon content, and include a statement that you will furnish the registered broker-dealer confirmation described in § 151.80 or the written notice described in § 151.90 within a reasonable time after the customer's written request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(d) For an account for which you exercise investment discretion other than in an agency capacity, excluding common or collective investment funds</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Give or send the registered broker-dealer confirmation described in § 151.80 or the written notice described in § 151.90 within a reasonable time after a written request by the person with the power to terminate the account or, if there is no such person, any person holding a vested beneficial interest in the account.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(e) For an account in which you exercise investment discretion in an agency capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Give or send each customer a written itemized statement specifying the funds and securities in your custody or possession and all debits, credits, and transactions in the customer's account. You must provide this information to the customer not less than once every three months. You must give or send the registered broker-dealer confirmation described in § 151.80 or the written notice described in § 151.90 within a reasonable time after a customer's written request.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(f) For a common or collective investment fund</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Give or send to a customer who invests in the fund a copy of the annual financial report of the fund, or
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Notify the customer that a copy of the report is available and that you will furnish the report within a reasonable time after a written request by a person to whom a regular periodic accounting would ordinarily be rendered with respect to each participating account.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.120" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.2.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.120   May I charge a fee for a notice?</HEAD>
<P>You may not charge a fee for providing a notice required under this subpart B, except that you may charge a reasonable fee for the notices provided under §§ 151.100(a), (d), and (e).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Settlement of Securities Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.3.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.130   When must I settle a securities transaction?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may not effect or enter into a contract for the purchase or sale of a security that provides for payment of funds and delivery of securities later than the latest of:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of business days in the standard settlement cycle followed by registered broker dealers in the United States after the date of the contract. The number of business days in the standard settlement cycle shall be determined by reference to paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1, 17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a);
</P>
<P>(2) The fourth business day after the contract, if the contract involves the sale for cash of securities that are priced after 4:30 p.m. Eastern Standard Time on the date the securities are priced and are sold by an issuer to an underwriter under a firm commitment underwritten offering registered under the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77a, <I>et seq.,</I> or are sold by you to an initial purchaser participating in the offering;
</P>
<P>(3) Such time as the SEC may specify pursuant to an order of exemption in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of SEC Rule 15c6-1; or
</P>
<P>(4) Such time as the parties expressly agree at the time of the transaction. The parties to a contract are deemed to have expressly agreed to an alternate date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction for a contract for the sale for cash of securities under a firm commitment offering, if the managing underwriter and the issuer have agreed to the date for all securities sold under the offering and the parties to the contract have not expressly agreed to another date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) The deadlines in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to the purchase or sale of limited partnership interests that are not listed on an exchange or for which quotations are not disseminated through an automated quotation system of a registered securities association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49008, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 26349, June 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Securities Trading Policies and Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.140" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.4.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.140   What policies and procedures must I maintain and follow for securities transactions?</HEAD>
<P>If you effect securities transactions for customers, you must maintain and follow policies and procedures that meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) Your policies and procedures must assign responsibility for the supervision of all officers or employees who:
</P>
<P>(1) Transmit orders to, or place orders with, registered broker-dealers;
</P>
<P>(2) Execute transactions in securities for customers; or
</P>
<P>(3) Process orders for notice or settlement purposes, or perform other back office functions for securities transactions that you effect for customers. Policies and procedures for personnel described in this paragraph (a)(3) must provide supervision and reporting lines that are separate from supervision and reporting lines for personnel described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Your policies and procedures must provide for the fair and equitable allocation of securities and prices to accounts when you receive orders for the same security at approximately the same time and you place the orders for execution either individually or in combination.
</P>
<P>(c) Your policies and procedures must provide for securities transactions in which you act as agent for the buyer and seller (crossing of buy and sell orders) on a fair and equitable basis to the parties to the transaction, where permissible under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) Your policies and procedures must require your officers and employees to file the personal securities trading reports described at § 151.150, if the officer or employee:
</P>
<P>(1) Makes investment recommendations or decisions for the accounts of customers;
</P>
<P>(2) Participates in the determination of these recommendations or decisions; or
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with their duties, obtains information concerning which securities you intend to purchase, sell, or recommend for purchase or sale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 151.150" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.62.4.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 151.150   How do my officers and employees file reports of personal securities trading transactions?</HEAD>
<P>An officer or employee described in § 151.140(d) must report all personal transactions in securities made by or on behalf of the officer or employee if he or she has a beneficial interest in the security.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Contents and filing of report.</I> The officer or employee must file the report with you no later than 30 calendar days after the end of each calendar quarter. The report must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of each transaction, the title and number of shares, the interest rate and maturity date (if applicable), and the principal amount of each security involved.
</P>
<P>(2) The nature of each transaction (i.e., purchase, sale, or other type of acquisition or disposition).
</P>
<P>(3) The price at which each transaction was effected.
</P>
<P>(4) The name of the broker, dealer, or other intermediary effecting the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) The date the officer or employee submitted the report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Report not required for certain transactions.</I> Your officer or employee is not required to report a transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) He or she has no direct or indirect influence or control over the account for which the transaction was effected or over the securities held in that account;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction was in shares issued by an open-end investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction was in direct obligations of the government of the United States;
</P>
<P>(4) The transaction was in bankers' acceptances, bank certificates of deposit, commercial paper or high quality short term debt instruments, including repurchase agreements; or
</P>
<P>(5) The officer or employee had an aggregate amount of purchases and sales of $10,000 or less during the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternate report.</I> When you act as an investment adviser to an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, an officer or employee that is an “access person” may fulfill his or her reporting requirements under this section by filing with you the “access person” personal securities trading report required by SEC Rule 17j-1(d), 17 CFR 270.17j-1(d).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="152-154" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.63" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 152-154 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="155" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.64" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 155—ELECTRONIC OPERATIONS OF FEDERAL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 155.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.64.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part describes how a Federal savings association may provide products and services through electronic means and facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.64.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.200   Use of electronic means and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Federal savings association may use, or participate with others to use, electronic means or facilities to perform any function, or provide any product or service, as part of an authorized activity. Electronic means or facilities include, but are not limited to, automated teller machines, automated loan machines, personal computers, the internet, telephones, and other similar electronic devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other.</I> To optimize the use of resources, a Federal savings association may market and sell, or participate with others to market and sell, electronic capacities and by-products to third-parties, if the savings association acquired or developed these capacities and by-products in good faith as part of providing financial services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 155.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.64.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 155.210   Requirements for using electronic means and facilities.</HEAD>
<P>To use electronic means and facilities under this subpart, a Federal savings association's management must:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify, assess, and mitigate potential risks and establish prudent internal controls; and
</P>
<P>(b) Implement security measures designed to ensure secure operations. Such measures must be adequate to:
</P>
<P>(1) Prevent unauthorized access to the savings association's records and its customers' records;
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent financial fraud through the use of electronic means or facilities; and
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with applicable security devices requirements of part 168 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="156" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.65" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 156 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="157" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 157—DEPOSITS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49025, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 157.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.1   What does this part do?</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to the deposit activities of Federal savings associations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.10   What authorities govern the issuance of deposit accounts by Federal savings associations?</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association (“you”) may raise funds through accounts and may issue evidence of accounts under section 5(b)(1) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(b)(1)), your charter, and this part. Additionally, 12 CFR parts 204 and 230 apply to your deposit activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.11" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.11   To what extent does Federal law preempt deposit-related state laws?</HEAD>
<P>State law applies to the deposit activities of Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries to the same extent and in the same manner that those laws apply to national banks and their subsidiaries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 157.12-157.13" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 157.12-157.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.14   What interest rate may I pay on accounts?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may pay interest at any rate or anticipated rate of return on accounts, either in deposit or in share form, as provided in your charter and the account's terms.
</P>
<P>(b) You may pay fixed or variable rates. If you pay a variable rate, you must base it on a schedule, index, or formula that you specify in the account's terms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.15   Who owns a deposit account?</HEAD>
<P>You may treat the holder of record as the account owner, even if you receive contrary notice, until you transfer the account on your records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 157.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.66.0.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 157.20   What records should I maintain on deposit activities?</HEAD>
<P>You should establish and maintain deposit documentation practices and records that demonstrate that you appropriately administer and monitor deposit-related activities. Your records should adequately evidence ownership, balances, and all transactions involving each account. You may maintain records on deposit activities in any format that is consistent with standard business practices.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="158-159" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.67" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 158-159 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 160—LENDING AND INVESTMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1701j-3, 1828, 3803, 3806, 5412(b)(2)(B); 42 U.S.C. 4106.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 160.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope.</I> This part is being issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) under its general rulemaking and supervisory authority under the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA), 12 U.S.C. 1462 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General lending standards.</I> Each savings association is expected to conduct its lending and investment activities prudently. Each association should use lending and investment standards that are consistent with safety and soundness, ensure adequate portfolio diversification and are appropriate for the size and condition of the institution, the nature and scope of its operations, and conditions in its lending market. Each association should adequately monitor the condition of its portfolio and the adequacy of any collateral securing its loans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.2   Applicability of law.</HEAD>
<P>State law applies to the lending activities of Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries to the same extent and in the same manner that those laws apply to national banks and their subsidiaries.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part and any determination under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m):
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loans</I> include loans for personal, family, or household purposes and loans reasonably incident thereto, and may be made as either open-end or closed-end consumer credit (as defined at 12 CFR 226.2(a)(10) and (20)). Consumer loans do not include credit extended in connection with credit card loans, bona fide overdraft loans, and other loans that the savings association has designated as made under investment or lending authority other than section 5(c)(2)(D) of the HOLA.
</P>
<P><I>Credit card</I> is any card, plate, coupon book, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain credit.
</P>
<P><I>Credit card account</I> is a credit account established in conjunction with the issuance of, or the extension of credit through, a credit card. This term includes loans made to consolidate credit card debt, including credit card debt held by other lenders, and participation certificates, securities and similar instruments secured by credit card receivables.
</P>
<P><I>Escrow account</I> means an account established in connection with a real estate loan in which the borrower places funds for the purpose of assuring payment of taxes, insurance premiums, or other charges with respect to the property.






</P>
<P><I>Home loans</I> include any loans made on the security of a home (including a dwelling unit in a multi-family residential property such as a condominium or a cooperative), combinations of homes and business property (<I>i.e.,</I> a home used in part for business), farm residences, and combinations of farm residences and commercial farm real estate.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means a security that meets the creditworthiness standards described in 12 U.S.C. 1831e.
</P>
<P><I>Loan commitment</I> includes a loan in process, a letter of credit, or any other commitment to extend credit.
</P>
<P><I>Real estate loan,</I> for purposes of this part, is a loan for which the savings association substantially relies upon a security interest in real estate given by the borrower as a condition of making the loan. A loan is made on the security of real estate if:
</P>
<P>(1) The security property is real estate pursuant to the law of the state in which the property is located;
</P>
<P>(2) The security interest of the Federal savings association may be enforced as a real estate mortgage or its equivalent pursuant to the law of the state in which the property is located;
</P>
<P>(3) The security property is capable of separate appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(4) With regard to a security property that is a leasehold or other interest for a period of years, the term of the interest extends, or is subject to extension or renewal at the option of the Federal savings association for a term of at least five years following the maturity of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> includes a small business concern or entity as defined by section 3(a) of the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632(a), and implemented by the regulations of the Small Business Administration at 13 CFR part 121.
</P>
<P><I>Small business loans</I> and <I>loans to small businesses</I> include any loan to a small business as defined in this section; or a loan that does not exceed $2 million (including a group of loans to one borrower) and is for commercial, corporate, business, or agricultural purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework, as set forth under the OCC's Capital Adequacy Standards at part 3 of this chapter, total capital refers to the qualifying community banking organization's tier 1 capital, as used under § 3.12(b)(2) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) For all other Federal savings associations, total capital means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital, as calculated under part 3 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012; 84 FR 61795, Nov. 13, 2019; 91 FR 29347, May 19, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.30" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.30   General lending and investment powers of Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 5(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”), 12 U.S.C. 1464(c), a Federal savings association may make, invest in, purchase, sell, participate in, or otherwise deal in (including brokerage or warehousing) all loans and investments allowed under section 5(c) of the HOLA including, without limitation, the following loans, extensions of credit, and investments, subject to the limitations indicated and any such terms, conditions, or limitations as may be prescribed from time to time by the OCC by policy directive, order, or regulation:






</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (a)


</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statutory authorization 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statutory investment
<br/>limitations (Endnotes contain
<br/>applicable regulatory
<br/>limitations)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Bankers' bank stock</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(4)(E)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Same terms as applicable to national banks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Business development credit corporations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(4)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The lesser of .5% of total outstanding loans or $250,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20% of total assets, provided that amounts in excess of 10% of total assets may be used only for small business loans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial paper and corporate debt securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(2)(D)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 35% of total assets. 
<sup>2 3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Community development loans and equity investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(3)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% of total assets, provided equity investments do not exceed 2% of total assets. 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction loans without security</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(3)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In the aggregate, the greater of total capital or 5% of total assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Consumer loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(2)(D)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 35% of total assets. 
<sup>2 5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit card loans or loans made through credit card accounts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(T)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Deposits in insured depository institutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(G)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Education loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(U)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal government and government-sponsored enterprise securities and instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(C), 5(c)(1)(D), 5(c)(1)(E), 5(c)(1)(F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Finance leasing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(B), 5(c)(2)(A), 5(c)(2)(B), 5(c)(2)(D)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Based on purpose and property financed. 
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign assistance investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(4)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1% of total assets. 
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General leasing</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% of assets. 
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Home improvement loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(J)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Home (residential) loans 
<sup>9</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 10</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">HUD-insured or guaranteed investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(O)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insured loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(I), 5(c)(1)(K)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Liquidity investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(M)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans secured by deposit accounts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 11</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to financial institutions, brokers, and dealers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(L)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 12</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manufactured home loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(J)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 13</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mortgage-backed securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(R)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">National Housing Partnership Corporation and related partnerships and joint ventures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(N)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New markets venture capital companies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(4)(F)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% of total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonconforming loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% of total assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonresidential real property loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">400% of total capital. 
<sup>14</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Open-end management investment companies 
<sup>15</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(Q)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rural business investment companies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 U.S.C. 2009cc-9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Five percent of total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Service corporations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(4)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3% of total assets, as long as any amounts in excess of 2% of total assets further community, inner city, or community development purposes. 
<sup>16</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small business investment companies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15 U.S.C. 682(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5% of total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small business-related securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(S)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">State and local government obligations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(H)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None for general obligations. Per issuer limitation of 10% of capital for other obligations. 
<sup>6 17</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">State housing corporations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(P)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 18</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transaction account loans, including overdrafts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5(c)(1)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None. 
<sup>6 19</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Endnotes
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All references are to section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464) unless otherwise indicated.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For purposes of determining a Federal savings association's percentage of assets limitation, investment in commercial paper and corporate debt securities must be aggregated with the Federal savings association's investment in consumer loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A Federal savings association may invest in commercial paper and corporate debt securities, which includes corporate debt securities convertible into stock, subject to the provisions of § 160.40 of this part. Amounts in excess of 30% of assets, in the aggregate, may be invested only in obligations purchased by the association directly from the original obligor and for which no finder's or referral fees have been paid.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The 2% of assets limitation is a sublimit for investments within the overall 5% of assets limitation on community development loans and investments. The qualitative standards for such loans and investments are set forth in HOLA section 5(c)(3)(A) (formerly 5(c)(3)(B)), as explained in an opinion of the Office of Thrift Supervision Chief Counsel dated May 10, 1995.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Amounts in excess of 30% of assets, in the aggregate, may be invested only in loans made by the association directly to the original obligor and for which no finder's or referral fees have been paid. A Federal savings association may include loans to dealers in consumer goods to finance inventory and floor planning in the total investment made under this section.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> While there is no statutory limit on certain categories of loans and investments, including credit card loans, home improvement loans, education loans, and deposit account loans, the OCC may establish an individual limit on such loans or investments if the association's concentration in such loans or investments presents a safety and soundness concern.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> A Federal savings association may engage in leasing activities subject to the provisions of § 160.41 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> This 1% of assets limitation applies to the aggregate outstanding investments made under the Foreign Assistance Act and in the capital of the Inter-American Savings and Loan Bank. Such investments may be made subject to the provisions of § 160.43 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>9</sup> A home (or residential) loan includes loans secured by one-to-four family dwellings, multi-family residential property, and loans secured by a unit or units of a condominium or housing cooperative.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>10</sup> A Federal savings association may make home loans subject to the provisions of §§ 160.33, 160.34, and 160.35 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>11</sup> Loans secured by savings accounts and other time deposits may be made without limitation, provided the Federal savings association obtains a lien on, or a pledge of, such accounts. Such loans may not exceed the withdrawable amount of the account.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>12</sup> A Federal savings association may only invest in these loans if they are secured by obligations of, or by obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities, the borrower is a financial institution insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or is a broker or dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, and the market value of the securities for each loan at least equals the amount of the loan at the time it is made.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>13</sup> If the wheels and axles of the manufactured home have been removed and it is permanently affixed to a foundation, a loan secured by a combination of a manufactured home and developed residential lot on which it sits may be treated as a home loan.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>14</sup> Without regard to any limitations of this part, a Federal savings association may make or invest in the fully insured or guaranteed portion of nonresidential real estate loans insured or guaranteed by the Economic Development Administration, the Farmers Home Administration, or the Small Business Administration. Unguaranteed portions of guaranteed loans must be aggregated with uninsured loans when determining an association's compliance with the 400% of capital limitation for other real estate loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>15</sup> This authority is limited to investments in open-end management investment companies that are registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940. The portfolio of the investment company must be restricted by the company's investment policy (changeable only if authorized by shareholder vote) solely to investments that a Federal savings association may, without limitation as to percentage of assets, invest in, sell, redeem, hold, or otherwise deal in. Separate and apart from this authority, a Federal savings association may make pass-through investments to the extent authorized by § 160.32 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>16</sup> A Federal savings association may invest in service corporations subject to the provisions of § 5.59 of this chapter.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>17</sup> This category includes obligations issued by any state, territory, or possession of the United States or political subdivision thereof (including any agency, corporation, or instrumentality of a state or political subdivision), subject to § 160.42 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>18</sup> A Federal savings association may invest in state housing corporations subject to the provisions of § 160.121 of this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>19</sup> Payments on accounts in excess of the account balance (overdrafts) on commercial deposit or transaction accounts shall be considered commercial loans for purposes of determining the association's percentage of assets limitation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Federal savings associations may establish or maintain escrow accounts. The terms and conditions of any such escrow account, including the investment of escrowed funds, fees assessed for the provision of such accounts, or whether and to what extent interest or other compensation is calculated and paid to customers whose funds are placed in the escrow account, are business decisions to be made by each Federal savings association in its discretion.





</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015; 91 FR 29347, May 19, 2026]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.31   Election regarding categorization of loans or investments and related calculations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a loan or other investment is authorized under more than one section of the HOLA, as amended, or this part, a Federal savings association may designate under which section the loan or investment has been made. Such a loan or investment may be apportioned among appropriate categories, and may be moved, in whole or part, from one category to another. A loan commitment shall be counted as an investment and included in total assets of a Federal savings association for purposes of calculating compliance with HOLA section 5(c)'s investment limitations only to the extent that funds have been advanced and not repaid pursuant to the commitment.
</P>
<P>(b) Loans or portions of loans sold to a third party shall be included in the calculation of a percentage-of-assets or percentage-of-capital investment limitation only to the extent they are sold with recourse.
</P>
<P>(c) A Federal savings association may make a loan secured by an assignment of loans to the extent that it could, under applicable law and regulations, make or purchase the underlying assigned loans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.32" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.32   Pass-through investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal savings association (“you”) may make pass-through investments. A pass-through investment occurs when you invest in an entity (“company”) that engages only in activities that you may conduct directly and the investment meets the requirements of this section. If an investment is authorized under both this section and some other provision of law, you may designate under which authority or authorities the investment is made. When making a pass-through investment, you must comply with all the statutes and regulations that would apply if you were engaging in the activity directly. For example, your proportionate share of the company's assets will be aggregated with the assets you hold directly in calculating investment limits (<I>e.g.,</I> no more than 400% of total capital may be invested in nonresidential real property loans).
</P>
<P>(b) Your pass-through investments are subject to the requirements and filing procedures of 12 CFR 5.58.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.33   Late charges.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association may include in a home loan contract a provision authorizing the imposition of a late charge with respect to the payment of any delinquent periodic payment. With respect to any loan made after July 31, 1976, on the security of a home occupied or to be occupied by the borrower, no late charge, regardless of form, shall be assessed or collected by a Federal savings association, unless any billing, coupon, or notice the Federal savings association may provide regarding installment payments due on the loan discloses the date after which the charge may be assessed. A Federal savings association may not impose a late charge more than one time for late payment of the same installment, and any installment payment made by the borrower shall be applied to the longest outstanding installment due. A Federal savings association shall not assess a late charge as to any payment received by it within fifteen days after the due date of such payment. No form of such late charge permitted by this paragraph shall be considered as interest to the Federal savings association and the Federal savings association shall not deduct late charges from the regular periodic installment payments on the loan, but must collect them as such from the borrower.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.34   Prepayments.</HEAD>
<P>Any prepayment on a real estate loan must be applied directly to reduce the principal balance on the loan unless the loan contract or the borrower specifies otherwise. Subject to the terms of the loan contract, a Federal savings association may impose a fee for any prepayment of a loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.35   Adjustments to home loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For any home loan secured by borrower-occupied property, or property to be occupied by the borrower, adjustments to the interest rate, payment, balance, or term to maturity must comply with the limitations of this section and the disclosure and notice requirements of 560.210 until superseding regulations are issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.
</P>
<P>(b) Adjustments to the interest rate shall correspond directly to the movement of an index satisfying the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. A Federal savings association also may increase the interest rate pursuant to a formula or schedule that specifies the amount of the increase, the time at which it may be made, and which is set forth in the loan contract. A Federal savings association may decrease the interest rate at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) Adjustments to the payment and the loan balance that do not reflect an interest-rate adjustment may be made if:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjustments reflect a change in an index that may be used pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a payment adjustment, the adjustment reflects a change in the loan balance or is made pursuant to a formula, or to a schedule specifying the percentage or dollar change in the payment as set forth in the loan contract; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an open-end line-of-credit loan, the adjustment reflects an advance taken by the borrower under the line-of-credit and is permitted by the loan contract.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Any index used must be readily available and independently verifiable. If set forth in the loan contract, an association may use any combination of indices, a moving average of index values, or more than one index during the term of a loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, any index used must be a national or regional index.
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal savings association may use an index not satisfying the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section 30 days after filing a notice unless, within that 30-day period, the OCC has notified the association that the notice presents supervisory concerns or raises significant issues of law or policy. If the OCC provides such notice to the Federal savings association, the Federal savings association may not use that index unless it applies for and receives the OCC's prior written approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 28480, May 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.36   De minimis investments.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association may invest in the aggregate up to the greater of 1% of its total capital or $250,000 in community development investments of the type permitted for a national bank under 12 CFR part 24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.40   Commercial paper and corporate debt securities.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to HOLA section 5(c)(2)(D), a Federal savings association may invest in, sell, or hold commercial paper and corporate debt securities subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations.</I> (1) Commercial paper must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Investment grade as of the date of purchase; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Guaranteed by a company having outstanding paper that meets the standard set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Corporate debt securities must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Securities that may be sold with reasonable promptness at a price that corresponds reasonably to their fair value; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Investment grade.
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal savings association's total investment in the commercial paper and corporate debt securities of any one issuer, or issued by any one person or entity affiliated with such issuer, together with other loans, shall not exceed the general lending limitations contained in § 32.3(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Investments in corporate debt securities convertible into stock are subject to the following additional limitations:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase of securities convertible into stock at the option of the issuer is prohibited;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time of purchase, the cost of such securities must be written down to an amount that represents the investment value of the securities considered independently of the conversion feature; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal savings associations are prohibited from exercising the conversion feature.
</P>
<P>(5) A Federal savings association shall maintain information in its files adequate to demonstrate that it has exercised prudent judgment in making investments under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the limitations contained in this section, the OCC may permit investment in corporate debt securities of another savings association in connection with the purchase or sale of a branch office or in connection with a supervisory merger or acquisition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting.</I> Before committing to acquire any investment security, a Federal savings association must determine whether the investment is safe and sound and suitable for the association. The Federal savings association must consider, as appropriate, the interest rate, credit, liquidity, price, transaction, and other risks associated with the investment activity. The Federal savings association must also determine that the issuer has adequate resources and the willingness to provide for all required payments on its obligations in a timely manner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012; 77 FR 37283, June 21, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.41   Leasing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible activities.</I> Subject to the limitations of this section, a Federal savings association may engage in leasing activities. These activities include becoming the legal or beneficial owner of tangible personal property or real property for the purpose of leasing such property, obtaining an assignment of a lessor's interest in a lease of such property, and incurring obligations incidental to its position as the legal or beneficial owner and lessor of the leased property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>net lease</I> means a lease under which the Federal savings association will not, directly or indirectly, provide or be obligated to provide for:
</P>
<P>(i) The servicing, repair or maintenance of the leased property during the lease term;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchasing of parts and accessories for the leased property, except that improvements and additions to the leased property may be leased to the lessee upon its request in accordance with the full-payout requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The loan of replacement or substitute property while the leased property is being serviced;
</P>
<P>(iv) The purchasing of insurance for the lessee, except where the lessee has failed to discharge a contractual obligation to purchase or maintain insurance; or
</P>
<P>(v) The renewal of any license, registration, or filing for the property unless such action by the Federal savings association is necessary to protect its interest as an owner or financier of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>full-payout lease</I> means a lease transaction in which any unguaranteed portion of the estimated residual value relied on by the association to yield the return of its full investment in the leased property, plus the estimated cost of financing the property over the term of the lease, does not exceed 25% of the original cost of the property to the lessor. In general, a lease will qualify as a full-payout lease if the scheduled payments provide at least 75% of the principal and interest payments that a lessor would receive if the finance lease were structured as a market-rate loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>realization of investment</I> means that a Federal savings association that enters into a lease financing transaction must reasonably expect to realize the return of its full investment in the leased property, plus the estimated cost of financing the property over the term of the lease from:
</P>
<P>(i) Rentals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimated tax benefits, if any; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The estimated residual value of the property at the expiration of the term of the lease.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Finance leasing</I>—(1) <I>Investment limits.</I> A Federal savings association may exercise its authority under HOLA sections 5(c)(1)(B) (residential real estate loans), 5(c)(2)(A) (commercial, business, corporate or agricultural loans), 5(c)(2)(B) (nonresidential real estate loans), and 5(c)(2)(D) (consumer loans) by conducting leasing activities that are the functional equivalent of loans made under those HOLA sections. These activities are commonly referred to as financing leases. Such financing leases are subject to the same investment limits that apply to loans made under those sections. For example, a financing lease of tangible personal property made to a natural person for personal, family or household purposes is subject to all limitations applicable to the amount of a Federal savings association's investment in consumer loans. A financing lease made for commercial, corporate, business, or agricultural purposes is subject to all limitations applicable to the amount of a Federal savings association's investment in commercial loans. A financing lease of residential or nonresidential real property is subject to all limitations applicable to the amount of a Federal savings association's investment in these types of real estate loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Functional equivalent of lending.</I> To qualify as the functional equivalent of a loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The lease must be a net, full-payout lease representing a non-cancelable obligation of the lessee, notwithstanding the possible early termination of the lease;
</P>
<P>(ii) The portion of the estimated residual value of the property relied upon by the lessor to satisfy the requirements of a full-payout lease must be reasonable in light of the nature of the leased property and all relevant circumstances so that realization of the lessor's full investment plus the cost of financing the property depends primarily on the creditworthiness of the lessee, and not on the residual market value of the leased property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) At the termination of a financing lease, either by expiration or default, property acquired must be liquidated or released on a net basis as soon as practicable. Any property held in anticipation of re-leasing must be reevaluated and recorded at the lower of fair market value or book value.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General leasing.</I> Pursuant to section 5(c)(2)(C) of the HOLA, a Federal savings association may invest in tangible personal property, including vehicles, manufactured homes, machinery, equipment, or furniture, for the purpose of leasing that property. In contrast to financing leases, lease investments made under this authority need not be the functional equivalent of loans.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Leasing salvage powers.</I> If, in good faith, a Federal savings association believes that there has been an unanticipated change in conditions that threatens its financial position by significantly increasing its exposure to loss, it may:
</P>
<P>(1) As the owner and lessor, take reasonable and appropriate action to salvage or protect the value of the property or its interest arising under the lease;
</P>
<P>(2) As the assignee of a lessor's interest in a lease, become the owner and lessor of the leased property pursuant to its contractual right, or take any reasonable and appropriate action to salvage or protect the value of the property or its interest arising under the lease; or
</P>
<P>(3) Include any provisions in a lease, or make any additional agreements, to protect its financial position or investment in the circumstances set forth in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.42   State and local government obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to HOLA section 5(c)(1)(H), a Federal savings association may invest in obligations issued by any state, territory, possession, or political subdivision thereof (“governmental entity”), subject to appropriate underwriting and the following conditions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aggregate limitation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Per-issuer limitation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (1) General obligations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (2) Other obligations of a governmental entity (<E T="03">e.g.</E>, revenue bonds) if the issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% of the institution's total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> (3) Obligations of a governmental entity that do not qualify under any other paragraph but are approved by the OCC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As approved by the OCC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% of the institution's total capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>What is a political subdivision? Political subdivision</I> means a county, city, town, or other municipal corporation, a public authority, or a publicly-owned entity that is an instrumentality of a state or a municipal corporation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is a general obligation of a state or political subdivision?</I> A <I>general obligation</I> is an obligation that is guaranteed by the full faith and credit of a state or political subdivision that has the power to tax. Indirect payments, such as through a special fund, may qualify as general obligations if a state or political subdivision with taxing authority has unconditionally agreed to provide funds to cover payments.
</P>
<P>(d) For all securities, the institution must consider, as appropriate, the interest rate, credit, liquidity, price, transaction, and other risks associated with the investment activity and determine that such investment is appropriate for the institution. The institution must also determine that the obligor has adequate resources and willingness to provide for all required payments on its obligations in a timely manner.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 35258, June 13, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.43   Foreign assistance investments.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to HOLA section 5(c)(4)(C), a Federal savings association may make foreign assistance investments in an aggregate amount not to exceed one percent of its assets, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) For any investment made under the Foreign Assistance Act, the loan agreement shall specify what constitutes an event of default, and provide that upon default in payment of principal or interest under such agreement, the entire amount of outstanding indebtedness thereunder shall become immediately due and payable, at the lender's option. Additionally, the contract of guarantee shall cover 100% of any loss of investment thereunder, except for any portion of the loan arising out of fraud or misrepresentation for which the party seeking payment is responsible, and provide that the guarantor shall pay for any such loss in U.S. dollars within a specified reasonable time after the date of application for payment.
</P>
<P>(b) To make any investments in the share capital and capital reserve of the Inter-American Savings and Loan Bank, a Federal savings association must be adequately capitalized and have adequate allowances for loan and lease losses. The Federal savings association's aggregate investment in such capital or capital reserve, including the amount of any obligations undertaken to provide said Bank with reserve capital in the future (call-able capital), must not, as a result of such investment, exceed the lesser of one-quarter of 1% of its assets or $100,000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.60" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.60   Suretyship and guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 5(b)(2) of the HOLA, a Federal savings association may enter into a repayable suretyship or guaranty agreement, subject to the conditions in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>What is a suretyship or guaranty agreement?</I> Under a suretyship, a Federal savings association is bound with its principal to pay or perform an obligation to a third person. Under a guaranty agreement, a Federal savings association agrees to satisfy the obligation of the principal only if the principal fails to pay or perform.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What requirements apply to suretyship and guaranty agreements under this section?</I> A Federal savings association may enter into a suretyship or guaranty agreement under this section, subject to each of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal savings association must limit its obligations under the agreement to a fixed dollar amount and a specified duration.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal savings association's performance under the agreement must create an authorized loan or other investment.
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal savings association must treat its obligation under the agreement as a loan to the principal for purposes of 12 CFR 31.2 and part 32 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal savings association must take and maintain a perfected security interest in collateral sufficient to cover its total obligation under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What collateral is sufficient?</I> (1) The Federal savings association must take and maintain a perfected security interest in real estate or marketable securities equal to at least 110 percent of its obligation under the agreement, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If the collateral is real estate, the Federal savings association must establish the value by a signed appraisal or evaluation in accordance with part 34, subpart C of this chapter. In determining the value of the collateral, the Federal savings association must factor in the value of any existing senior mortgages, liens or other encumbrances on the property, except those held by the principal to the suretyship or guaranty agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the collateral is marketable securities, the Federal savings association must be authorized to invest in that security taken as collateral. The Federal savings association must ensure that the value of the security is 110 percent of the obligation at all times during the term of agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal savings association may take and maintain a perfected security interest in collateral which is at all times equal to at least 100 percent of its obligation, if the collateral is:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligations of the United States or its agencies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obligations fully guarantied by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Notes, drafts, or bills of exchange or bankers' acceptances that are eligible for rediscount or purchase by a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 37283, June 21, 2012; 79 FR 28401, May 16, 2014; 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.100   Real estate lending standards; purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This section, and § 160.101 of this subpart, issued pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, 12 U.S.C. 1828(o), prescribe standards for real estate lending to be used by Federal savings associations and all their includable subsidiaries, as defined in 12 CFR 3.22(a)(8)(iv) over which the savings associations exercise control, in adopting internal real estate lending policies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 11313, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.101   Real estate lending standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal savings association shall adopt and maintain written policies that establish appropriate limits and standards for extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate, or that are made for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real estate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with safe and sound banking practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be reviewed and approved by the savings association's board of directors at least annually.
</P>
<P>(2) The lending policies must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan portfolio diversification standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prudent underwriting standards, including loan-to-value limits, that are clear and measurable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan administration procedures for the savings association's real estate portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation, approval, and reporting requirements to monitor compliance with the savings association's real estate lending policies.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Federal savings association must monitor conditions in the real estate market in its lending area to ensure that its real estate lending policies continue to be appropriate for current market conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) The real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section should reflect consideration of the Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies established by the Federal bank and thrift supervisory agencies.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix to § 160.101—Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies
</HD1>
<P>The agencies' regulations require that each insured depository institution adopt and maintain a written policy that establishes appropriate limits and standards for all extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate or made for the purpose of financing the construction of a building or other improvements.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> These guidelines are intended to assist institutions in the formulation and maintenance of a real estate lending policy that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its individual operations, as well as satisfies the requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The agencies have adopted a uniform rule on real estate lending. See 12 CFR part 365 (FDIC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart C (Board); 12 CFR part 34, subpart D and 12 CFR 160.100-160.101 (OCC).</P></FTNT>
<P>Each institution's policies must be comprehensive, and consistent with safe and sound lending practices, and must ensure that the institution operates within limits and according to standards that are reviewed and approved at least annually by the board of directors. Real estate lending is an integral part of many institutions' business plans and, when undertaken in a prudent manner, will not be subject to examiner criticism.
</P>
<HD3>Loan Portfolio Management Considerations
</HD3>
<P>The lending policy should contain a general outline of the scope and distribution of the institution's credit facilities and the manner in which real estate loans are made, serviced, and collected. In particular, the institution's policies on real estate lending should:
</P>
<P>• Identify the geographic areas in which the institution will consider lending.
</P>
<P>• Establish a loan portfolio diversification policy and set limits for real estate loans by type and geographic market (<I>e.g.,</I> limits on higher risk loans).
</P>
<P>• Identify appropriate terms and conditions by type of real estate loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish loan origination and approval procedures, both generally and by size and type of loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish prudent underwriting standards that are clear and measurable, including loan-to-value limits, that are consistent with these supervisory guidelines.
</P>
<P>• Establish review and approval procedures for exception loans, including loans with loan-to-value percentages in excess of supervisory limits.
</P>
<P>• Establish loan administration procedures, including documentation, disbursement, collateral inspection, collection, and loan review.
</P>
<P>• Establish real estate appraisal and evaluation programs.
</P>
<P>• Require that management monitor the loan portfolio and provide timely and adequate reports to the board of directors.
</P>
<P>The institution should consider both internal and external factors in the formulation of its loan policies and strategic plan. Factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending staff.
</P>
<P>• The need to avoid undue concentrations of risk.
</P>
<P>• Compliance with all real estate related laws and regulations, including the Community Reinvestment Act, anti-discrimination laws, and for savings associations, the Qualified Thrift Lender test.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions.
</P>
<P>The institution should monitor conditions in the real estate markets in its lending area so that it can react quickly to changes in market conditions that are relevant to its lending decisions. Market supply and demand factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• Demographic indicators, including population and employment trends.
</P>
<P>• Zoning requirements.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected vacancy, construction, and absorption rates.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected lease terms, rental rates, and sales prices, including concessions.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected operating expenses for different types of projects.
</P>
<P>• Economic indicators, including trends and diversification of the lending area.
</P>
<P>• Valuation trends, including discount and direct capitalization rates.
</P>
<HD3>Underwriting Standards
</HD3>
<P>Prudently underwritten real estate loans should reflect all relevant credit factors, including:
</P>
<P>• The capacity of the borrower, or income from the underlying property, to adequately service the debt.
</P>
<P>• The value of the mortgaged property.
</P>
<P>• The overall creditworthiness of the borrower.
</P>
<P>• The level of equity invested in the property.
</P>
<P>• Any secondary sources of repayment.
</P>
<P>• Any additional collateral or credit enhancements (such as guarantees, mortgage insurance or takeout commitments).
</P>
<P>The lending policies should reflect the level of risk that is acceptable to the board of directors and provide clear and measurable underwriting standards that enable the institution's lending staff to evaluate these credit factors. The underwriting standards should address:
</P>
<P>• The maximum loan amount by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Maximum loan maturities by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Amortization schedules.
</P>
<P>• Pricing structure for different types of real estate loans.
</P>
<P>• Loan-to-value limits by type of property.
</P>
<P>For development and construction projects, and completed commercial properties, the policy should also establish, commensurate with the size and type of the project or property:
</P>
<P>• Requirements for feasibility studies and sensitivity and risk analyses (<I>e.g.,</I> sensitivity of income projections to changes in economic variables such as interest rates, vacancy rates, or operating expenses).
</P>
<P>• Minimum requirements for initial investment and maintenance of hard equity by the borrower (<I>e.g.,</I> cash or unencumbered investment in the underlying property).
</P>
<P>• Minimum standards for net worth, cash flow, and debt service coverage of the borrower or underlying property.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on non-amortizing loans.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on the use of interest reserves.
</P>
<P>• Pre-leasing and pre-sale requirements for income-producing property.
</P>
<P>• Pre-sale and minimum unit release requirements for non-income-producing property loans.
</P>
<P>• Limits on partial recourse or nonrecourse loans and requirements for guarantor support.
</P>
<P>• Requirements for takeout commitments.
</P>
<P>• Minimum covenants for loan agreements.
</P>
<HD3>Loan Administration
</HD3>
<P>The institution should also establish loan administration procedures for its real estate portfolio that address:
</P>
<P>• Documentation, including:
</P>
<P>Type and frequency of financial statements, including requirements for verification of information provided by the borrower;
</P>
<P>Type and frequency of collateral evaluations (appraisals and other estimates of value).
</P>
<P>• Loan closing and disbursement.
</P>
<P>• Payment processing.
</P>
<P>• Escrow administration.
</P>
<P>• Collateral administration.
</P>
<P>• Loan payoffs.
</P>
<P>• Collections and foreclosure, including:
</P>
<P>Delinquency follow-up procedures;
</P>
<P>Foreclosure timing;
</P>
<P>Extensions and other forms of forbearance;
</P>
<P>Acceptance of deeds in lieu of foreclosure.
</P>
<P>• Claims processing (<I>e.g.,</I> seeking recovery on a defaulted loan covered by a government guaranty or insurance program).
</P>
<P>• Servicing and participation agreements.
</P>
<HD3>Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD3>
<P>Institutions should establish their own internal loan-to-value limits for real estate loans. These internal limits should not exceed the following supervisory limits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan-to-value limit (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raw land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commercial, multifamily,
<sup>1</sup> and other nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1- to 4-family residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Improved property</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">( 
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A loan-to-value limit has not been established for permanent mortgage or home equity loans on owner-occupied, 1- to 4-family residential property. However, for any such loan with a loan-to-value ratio that equals or exceeds 90 percent at origination, an institution should require appropriate credit enhancement in the form of either mortgage insurance or readily marketable collateral.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The supervisory loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (<I>e.g.,</I> a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under supervisory loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the supervisory limits, lenders should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
</P>
<P>In establishing internal loan-to-value limits, each lender is expected to carefully consider the institution-specific and market factors listed under “Loan Portfolio Management Considerations,” as well as any other relevant factors, such as the particular subcategory or type of loan. For any subcategory of loans that exhibits greater credit risk than the overall category, a lender should consider the establishment of an internal loan-to-value limit for that subcategory that is lower than the limit for the overall category.
</P>
<P>The loan-to-value ratio is only one of several pertinent credit factors to be considered when underwriting a real estate loan. Other credit factors to be taken into account are highlighted in the “Underwriting Standards” section above. Because of these other factors, the establishment of these supervisory limits should not be interpreted to mean that loans at these levels will automatically be considered sound.
</P>
<HD3>Loans in Excess of the Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD3>
<P>The agencies recognize that appropriate loan-to-value limits vary not only among categories of real estate loans but also among individual loans. Therefore, it may be appropriate in individual cases to originate or purchase loans with loan-to-value ratios in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits, based on the support provided by other credit factors. Such loans should be identified in the institutions' records, and their aggregate amount reported at least quarterly to the institution's board of directors. (<I>see</I> additional reporting requirements described under “Exceptions to the General Policy.”) The aggregate amount of all loans in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits should not exceed 100 percent of total capital.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, within the aggregate limit, total loans for all commercial, agricultural, multifamily or other non-1-to-4 family residential properties should not exceed 30 percent of total capital. An institution will come under increased supervisory scrutiny as the total of such loans approaches these levels.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the state member banks, the term “total capital” means “total risk-based capital” as defined in Appendix A to 12 CFR part 208. For insured state non-member banks, “total capital” refers to that term described in table I of Appendix A to 12 CFR part 325. For national banks and Federal savings associations, the term “total capital” is defined at 12 CFR 3.2.</P></FTNT>
<P>In determining the aggregate amount of such loans, institutions should: (a) Include all loans secured by the same property if any one of those loans exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limits; and (b) include the recourse obligation of any such loan sold with recourse. Conversely, a loan should no longer be reported to the directors as part of aggregate totals when reduction in principal or senior liens, or additional contribution of collateral or equity (<I>e.g.,</I> improvements to the real property securing the loan), bring the loan-to-value ratio into compliance with supervisory limits.
</P>
<HD3>Excluded Transactions
</HD3>
<P>The agencies also recognize that there are a number of lending situations in which other factors significantly outweigh the need to apply the supervisory loan-to-value limits.
</P>
<P>These include:
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government or its agencies, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans backed by the full faith and credit of a state government, provided that the amount of the assurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by a state, municipal or local government, or an agency thereof, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit, and provided that the lender has determined that the guarantor or insurer has the financial capacity and willingness to perform under the terms of the guaranty or insurance agreement.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are to be sold promptly after origination, without recourse, to a financially responsible third party.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured without the advancement of new funds or an increase in the line of credit (except for reasonable closing costs), or loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured in connection with a workout situation, either with or without the advancement of new funds, where consistent with safe and sound banking practices and part of a clearly defined and well-documented program to achieve orderly liquidation of the debt, reduce risk of loss, or maximize recovery on the loan.
</P>
<P>• Loans that facilitate the sale of real estate acquired by the lender in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>• Loans for which a lien on or interest in real property is taken as additional collateral through an abundance of caution by the lender (<I>e.g.,</I> the institution takes a blanket lien on all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, and the value of the real property is low relative to the aggregate value of all other collateral).
</P>
<P>• Loans, such as working capital loans, where the lender does not rely principally on real estate as security and the extension of credit is not used to acquire, develop, or construct permanent improvements on real property.
</P>
<P>• Loans for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real property, but not secured by the property, if such security interest is not required by prudent underwriting practice.
</P>
<HD3>Exceptions to the General Lending Policy
</HD3>
<P>Some provision should be made for the consideration of loan requests from creditworthy borrowers whose credit needs do not fit within the institution's general lending policy. An institution may provide for prudently underwritten exceptions to its lending policies, including loan-to-value limits, on a loan-by-loan basis. However, any exceptions from the supervisory loan-to-value limits should conform to the aggregate limits on such loans discussed above.
</P>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for establishing standards for the review and approval of exception loans. Each institution should establish an appropriate internal process for the review and approval of loans that do not conform to its own internal policy standards. The approval of any such loan should be supported by a written justification that clearly sets forth all of the relevant credit factors that support the underwriting decision. The justification and approval documents for such loans should be maintained as a part of the permanent loan file. Each institution should monitor compliance with its real estate lending policy and individually report exception loans of a significant size to its board of directors.
</P>
<HD3>Supervisory Review of Real Estate Lending Policies and Practices
</HD3>
<P>The real estate lending policies of institutions will be evaluated by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine if the policies are consistent with safe and sound lending practices, these guidelines, and the requirements of the regulation. In evaluating the adequacy of the institution's real estate lending policies and practices, examiners will take into consideration the following factors:
</P>
<P>• The nature and scope of the institution's real estate lending activities.
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>• The quality of the institution's management and internal controls.
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending and loan administration staff.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions.
</P>
<P>Lending policy exception reports will also be reviewed by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine whether the institutions' exceptions are adequately documented and appropriate in light of all of the relevant credit considerations. An excessive volume of exceptions to an institution's real estate lending policy may signal a weakening of its underwriting practices, or may suggest a need to revise the loan policy.
</P>
<HD3>Definitions
</HD3>
<P>For the purposes of these Guidelines:
</P>
<P><I>Construction loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of erecting or rehabilitating buildings or other structures, including any infrastructure necessary for development.
</P>
<P><I>Extension of credit or loan means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The total amount of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment with respect to real property; and
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount, based on the amount of consideration paid, of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment acquired by a lender by purchase, assignment, or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Improved property loan</I> means an extension of credit secured by one of the following types of real property:
</P>
<P>(1) Farmland, ranchland or timberland committed to ongoing management and agricultural production;
</P>
<P>(2) 1- to 4-family residential property that is not owner-occupied;
</P>
<P>(3) Residential property containing five or more individual dwelling units;
</P>
<P>(4) Completed commercial property; or
</P>
<P>(5) Other income-producing property that has been completed and is available for occupancy and use, except income-producing owner-occupied 1- to 4-family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Land development loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of improving unimproved real property prior to the erection of structures. The improvement of unimproved real property may include the laying or placement of sewers, water pipes, utility cables, streets, and other infrastructure necessary for future development.
</P>
<P><I>Loan origination</I> means the time of inception of the obligation to extend credit (<I>i.e.,</I> when the last event or prerequisite, controllable by the lender, occurs causing the lender to become legally bound to fund an extension of credit).
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value</I> or <I>loan-to-value ratio</I> means the percentage or ratio that is derived at the time of loan origination by dividing an extension of credit by the total value of the property(ies) securing or being improved by the extension of credit plus the amount of any readily marketable collateral and other acceptable collateral that secures the extension of credit. The total amount of all senior liens on or interests in such property(ies) should be included in determining the loan-to-value ratio. When mortgage insurance or collateral is used in the calculation of the loan-to-value ratio, and such credit enhancement is later released or replaced, the loan-to-value ratio should be recalculated.
</P>
<P><I>Other acceptable collateral</I> means any collateral in which the lender has a perfected security interest that has a quantifiable value, and is accepted by the lender in accordance with safe and sound lending practices. Other acceptable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral. Other acceptable collateral includes, among other items, unconditional irrevocable standby letters of credit for the benefit of the lender.
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied,</I> when used in conjunction with the term <I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means that the owner of the underlying real property occupies at least one unit of the real property as a principal residence of the owner.
</P>
<P><I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means insured deposits, financial instruments, and bullion in which the lender has a perfected interest. Financial instruments and bullion must be salable under ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions, on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. Readily marketable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral.
</P>
<P><I>Value</I> means an opinion or estimate, set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate, of the market value of real property, prepared in accordance with the agency's appraisal regulations and guidance. For loans to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value.
</P>
<P><I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means property containing fewer than five individual dwelling units, including manufactured homes permanently affixed to the underlying property (when deemed to be real property under state law).</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 11313, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.110" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.110   Most favored lender usury preemption for all savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The term “interest” as used in 12 U.S.C. 1463(g) includes any payment compensating a creditor or prospective creditor for an extension of credit, making available of a line of credit, or any default or breach by a borrower of a condition upon which credit was extended. It includes, among other things, the following fees connected with credit extension or availability: numerical periodic rates, late fees, not sufficient funds (NSF) fees, overlimit fees, annual fees, cash advance fees, and membership fees. It does not ordinarily include appraisal fees, premiums and commissions attributable to insurance guaranteeing repayment of any extension of credit, finders' fees, fees for document preparation or notarization, or fees incurred to obtain credit reports.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority.</I> A savings association located in a state may charge interest at the maximum rate permitted to any state-chartered or licensed lending institution by the law of that state. If state law permits different interest charges on specified classes of loans, a Federal savings association making such loans is subject only to the provisions of state law relating to that class of loans that are material to the determination of the permitted interest. For example, a Federal savings association may lawfully charge the highest rate permitted to be charged by a state-licensed small loan company, without being so licensed, but subject to state law limitations on the size of loans made by small loan companies. State supervisors determine the degree to which state-chartered savings associations must comply with state laws other than those imposing restrictions on interest, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect on state definitions of interest.</I> The Federal definition of the term “interest” in paragraph (a) of this section does not change how interest is defined by the individual states (nor how the state definition of interest is used) solely for purposes of state law. For example, if late fees are not “interest” under state law where a savings association is located but state law permits its most favored lender to charge late fees, then a savings association located in that state may charge late fees to its intrastate customers. The savings association may also charge late fees to its interstate customers because the fees are interest under the Federal definition of interest and an allowable charge under state law where the savings association is located. However, the late fees would not be treated as interest for purposes of evaluating compliance with state usury limitations because state law excludes late fees when calculating the maximum interest that lending institutions may charge under those limitations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transferred loans.</I> Interest on a loan that is permissible under 12 U.S.C. 1463(g)(1) shall not be affected by the sale, assignment, or other transfer of the loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 33536, June 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.121" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.121   Investment in state housing corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Federal savings association to the extent it has legal authority to do so, may make investments in, commitments to invest in, loans to, or commitments to lend to any state housing corporation; provided, that such obligations or loans are secured directly, or indirectly through a fiduciary, by a first lien on improved real estate which is insured under the National Housing Act, as amended, and that in the event of default, the holder of such obligations or loans has the right directly, or indirectly through a fiduciary, to subject to the satisfaction of such obligations or loans the real estate described in the first lien, or the insurance proceeds.
</P>
<P>(b) Any Federal savings association that is adequately capitalized may, to the extent it has legal authority to do so, invest in obligations (including loans) of, or issued by, any state housing corporation incorporated in the state in which such savings association has its home or a branch office; provided (except with respect to loans), that:
</P>
<P>(1) The obligations are investment grade; or
</P>
<P>(2) The obligations are approved by the OCC. The aggregate outstanding direct investment in obligations under paragraph (b) of this section shall not exceed the amount of the Federal savings association's total capital.
</P>
<P>(c) Each state housing corporation in which a savings association invests under the authority of paragraph (b) of this section shall agree, before accepting any such investment (including any loan or loan commitment), to make available at any time to the OCC such information as the OCC may consider to be necessary to ensure that investments are properly made under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49030, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 35259, June 13, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.130   Prohibition on loan procurement fees.</HEAD>
<P>If you are a director, officer, or other natural person having the power to direct the management or policies of a Federal savings association, you must not receive, directly or indirectly, any commission, fee, or other compensation in connection with the procurement of any loan made by the savings association or a subsidiary of the savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.160   Asset classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each savings association must evaluate and classify its assets on a regular basis in a manner consistent with, or reconcilable to, the asset classification system used by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with the examination of a savings association or its affiliates, OCC examiners may identify problem assets and classify them, if appropriate. The association must recognize such examiner classifications in its subsequent reports to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) Based on the evaluation and classification of its assets, each savings association shall establish adequate valuation allowances or charge-offs, as appropriate, consistent with generally accepted accounting principles and the practices of the Federal banking agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.170" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.170   Records for lending transactions.</HEAD>
<P>In establishing and maintaining its records pursuant to § 163.170 of this chapter, each Federal savings association and service corporation should establish and maintain loan documentation practices that:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that the institution can make an informed lending decision and can assess risk on an ongoing basis;
</P>
<P>(b) Identify the purpose and all sources of repayment for each loan, and assess the ability of the borrower(s) and any guarantor(s) to repay the indebtedness in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that any claims against a borrower, guarantor, security holders, and collateral are legally enforceable;
</P>
<P>(d) Demonstrate appropriate administration and monitoring of its loans; and
</P>
<P>(e) Take into account the size and complexity of its loans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.210" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.210   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 160.220" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.68.0.49.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 160.220   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="161" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 161—DEFINITIONS FOR REGULATIONS AFFECTING ALL SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49043, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 161.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.1   When do the definitions in this part apply?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in this part and in 12 CFR part 141 apply throughout parts 100-199 of this chapter, unless another definition is specifically provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.2   Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>account</I> means any savings account, demand account, certificate account, tax and loan account, note account, United States Treasury general account or United States Treasury time deposit-open account, whether in the form of a deposit or a share, held by an accountholder in a savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.3   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.4   Affiliate.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>affiliate</I> of a savings association, unless otherwise defined, means any corporation, business trust, association, or other similar organization:
</P>
<P>(a) Of which a savings association, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions; or
</P>
<P>(b) Of which control is held, directly or indirectly through stock ownership or in any other manner, by the shareholders of a savings association who own or control either a majority of the shares of such savings association or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of directors of such savings association at the preceding election, or by trustees for the benefit of the shareholders of any such savings association; or
</P>
<P>(c) Of which a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions are directors of any one savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.5   Affiliated person.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>affiliated person</I> of a savings association means the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A director, officer, or controlling person of such association;
</P>
<P>(b) A spouse of a director, officer, or controlling person of such association;
</P>
<P>(c) A member of the immediate family of a director, officer, or controlling person of such association, who has the same home as such person or who is a director or officer of any subsidiary of such association or of any holding company affiliate of such association;
</P>
<P>(d) Any corporation or organization (other than the savings association or a corporation or organization through which the savings association operates) of which a director, officer or the controlling person of such association:
</P>
<P>(1) Is chief executive officer, chief financial officer, or a person performing similar functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Is a general partner;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a limited partner who, directly or indirectly either alone or with his or her spouse and the members of his or her immediate family who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns an interest of 10 percent or more in the partnership (based on the value of his or her contribution) or who, directly or indirectly with other directors, officers, and controlling persons of such association and their spouses and their immediate family members who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns an interest of 25 percent or more in the partnership; or
</P>
<P>(4) Directly or indirectly either alone or with his or her spouse and the members of his or her immediate family who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns or controls 10 percent or more of any class of equity securities or owns or controls, with other directors, officers, and controlling persons of such association and their spouses and their immediate family members who are also affiliated persons of the association, 25 percent or more of any class of equity securities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any trust or other estate in which a director, officer, or controlling person of such association or the spouse of such person has a substantial beneficial interest or as to which such person or his or her spouse serves as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.7   Appropriate Federal banking agency.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>appropriate Federal banking agency</I> means appropriate Federal banking agency as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.8   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.9" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.9   Certificate account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>certificate account</I> means a savings account evidenced by a certificate that must be held for a fixed or minimum term.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.10   Comptroller.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Comptroller</I> means the Comptroller of the Currency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.12" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.12   Consumer credit.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>consumer credit</I> means credit extended to a natural person for personal, family, or household purposes, including loans secured by liens on real estate and chattel liens secured by mobile homes and leases of personal property to consumers that may be considered the functional equivalent of loans on personal security: <I>Provided,</I> the savings association relies substantially upon other factors, such as the general credit standing of the borrower, guaranties, or security other than the real estate or mobile home, as the primary security for the loan. Appropriate evidence to demonstrate justification for such reliance should be retained in a savings association's files. Among the types of credit included within this term are consumer loans; educational loans; unsecured loans for real property alteration, repair or improvement, or for the equipping of real property; loans in the nature of overdraft protection; and credit extended in connection with credit cards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.14" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.14   Controlling person.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>controlling person</I> of a savings association means any person or entity which, either directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with one or more other persons or entities, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, ten percent or more of the voting shares or rights of such savings association; or controls in any manner the election or appointment of a majority of the directors of such savings association. However, a director of a savings association will not be deemed to be a controlling person of such savings association based upon his or her voting, or acting in concert with other directors in voting, proxies:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtained in connection with an annual solicitation of proxies, or
</P>
<P>(b) Obtained from savings account holders and borrowers if such proxies are voted as directed by a majority vote of the entire board of directors of such association, or of a committee of such directors if such committee's composition and authority are controlled by a majority vote of the entire board and if its authority is revocable by such a majority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.15   Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>Corporation</I> and <I>FDIC</I> mean the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.16" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.16   Demand accounts.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>demand accounts</I> means non-interest-bearing demand deposits that are subject to check or to withdrawal or transfer on negotiable or transferable order to the savings association and that are permitted to be issued by statute, regulation, or otherwise and are payable on demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.18" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.18   Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>director</I> means any director, trustee, or other person performing similar functions with respect to any organization whether incorporated or unincorporated. Such term does not include an advisory director, honorary director, director emeritus, or similar person, unless the person is otherwise performing functions similar to those of a director.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.19" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.19   Financial institution.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>financial institution</I> has the same meaning as the term <I>depository institution</I> set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.24" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.24   Immediate family.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>immediate family</I> of any natural person means the following (whether by the full or half blood or by adoption):
</P>
<P>(a) Such person's spouse, father, mother, children, brothers, sisters, and grandchildren;
</P>
<P>(b) The father, mother, brothers, and sisters of such person's spouse; and
</P>
<P>(c) The spouse of a child, brother, or sister of such person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 161.26-161.31" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 161.26-161.31   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.33   Note account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>note account</I> means a note, subject to the right of immediate call, evidencing funds held by depositories electing the note option under applicable United States Treasury Department regulations. Note accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.34" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.34   OCC.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>OCC</I> means Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.35" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.35   Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Officer</I> means the president, any vice-president (but not an assistant vice-president, second vice-president, or other vice president having authority similar to an assistant or second vice-president), the secretary, the treasurer, the comptroller, and any other person performing similar functions with respect to any organization whether incorporated or unincorporated. The term <I>officer</I> also includes the chairman of the board of directors if the chairman is authorized by the charter or by-laws of the organization to participate in its operating management or if the chairman in fact participates in such management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.37" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.37   Parent company; subsidiary.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a person, and includes any service corporation owned in whole or in part by a savings association, or a subsidiary of such service corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49043, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.38" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.38   Political subdivision.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>political subdivision</I> includes any subdivision of a public unit, any principal department of such public unit:
</P>
<P>(a) The creation of which subdivision or department has been expressly authorized by state statute,
</P>
<P>(b) To which some functions of government have been delegated by state statute, and
</P>
<P>(c) To which funds have been allocated by statute or ordinance for its exclusive use and control. It also includes drainage, irrigation, navigation, improvement, levee, sanitary, school or power districts and bridge or port authorities and other special districts created by state statute or compacts between the states. Excluded from the term are subordinate or nonautonomous divisions, agencies or boards within principal departments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.39   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.40" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.40   Public unit.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>public unit</I> means the United States, any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, any county, any municipality or any political subdivision thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.41" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.42" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.42   Savings account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>savings account</I> means any withdrawable account, except a demand account as defined in § 161.16 of this chapter, a tax and loan account, a note account, a United States Treasury general account, or a United States Treasury time deposit-open account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.43" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.43   Savings association.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>savings association</I> means a savings association as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Corporation. It includes a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank, chartered under section 5 of the Act, or a building and loan, savings and loan, or homestead association, or a cooperative bank (other than a cooperative bank which is a state bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) organized and operating according to the laws of the state in which it is chartered or organized, or a corporation (other than a bank as defined in section 3(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) that the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Comptroller jointly determine to be operating substantially in the same manner as a savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.44" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.44   Security.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>security</I> means any non-withdrawable account, note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement, collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a <I>security,</I> or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing, except that a <I>security</I> shall not include an account or deposit insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.45" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.45   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.50" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.50   State.</HEAD>
<P>The term “State” means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.51" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.51   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.52" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.52   Tax and loan account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>tax and loan account</I> means an account, the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, established for receipt of payments of Federal taxes and certain United States obligations. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.53" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.53   United States Treasury General Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>United States Treasury General Account</I> means an account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, except in the case of the closure of the member, and in which a zero balance may be maintained. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.54" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.54   United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Account</I> means a non-interest-bearing account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury which may not be withdrawn prior to the expiration of 30 days' written notice from the United States Treasury, or such other period of notice as the Treasury may require. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 161.55" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.69.0.49.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 161.55   With recourse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>with recourse</I> means, in connection with the sale of a loan or a participation interest in a loan, an agreement or arrangement under which the purchaser is to be entitled to receive from the seller a sum of money or thing of value, whether tangible or intangible (including any substitution), upon default in payment of any loan involved or any part thereof or to withhold or to have withheld from the seller a sum of money or anything of value by way of security against default. The recourse liability resulting from a sale with recourse shall be the total book value of any loan sold with recourse less:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any insurance or guarantee against loss in the event of default provided by a third party,
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of any loss to be borne by the purchaser in the event of default, and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any loss resulting from a recourse obligation entered on the books and records of the savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>with recourse</I> does not include loans or interests therein where the agreement of sale provides for the savings association directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(1) To hold or retain a subordinate interest in a specified percentage of the loans or interests; or
</P>
<P>(2) To guarantee against loss up to a specified percentage of the loans or interests, which specified percentage shall not exceed ten percent of the outstanding balance of the loans or interests at the time of sale: <I>Provided,</I> That the savings association designates adequate reserves for the subordinate interest or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(c) This definition does not apply for purposes of determining the capital adequacy requirements under 12 CFR part 3.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49043, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 11313, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="162" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.70" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 162—ACCOUNTING AND DISCLOSURE STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1463, 5412(b)(2)(B).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 162.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.70.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 162.1   Accounting and disclosure standards.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association shall follow U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) and the disclosure standards included therein when complying with all applicable regulations, unless otherwise required by statute, regulation, or the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="163" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 163—SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS—OPERATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1, 93a, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1817, 1820, 1828, 1831o, 3806, 5101 <I>et seq.,</I> 5412(b)(2)(B); 31 U.S.C. 5318; 42 U.S.C. 4106.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Accounts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.1.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.1.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.5   Securities: Statement of non-insurance.</HEAD>
<P>Every security issued by a Federal savings association must include in its provisions a clear statement that the security is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Operation and Structure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.27" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.27   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>No Federal savings association shall use advertising (which includes print or broadcast media, displays or signs, stationery, and all other promotional materials), or make any representation which is inaccurate in any particular or which in any way misrepresents its services, contracts, investments, or financial condition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.33" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.33   Directors, officers, and employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Directors</I>—(1) <I>Requirements.</I> The composition of the board of directors of a Federal savings association must be in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority of the directors must not be salaried officers or employees of the savings association or of any subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) Not more than two of the directors may be members of the same immediate family.
</P>
<P>(iii) Not more than one director may be an attorney with a particular law firm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prospective application.</I> In the case of an association whose board of directors does not conform with any requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as of October 5, 1983, this paragraph (a) shall not prohibit the uninterrupted service, including re-election and re-appointment, of any person serving on the board of directors at that date.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.36" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.36   Tying restriction exception.</HEAD>
<P>For applicable rules, see regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.39" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.39   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.47" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.2.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.47   Pension plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No Federal savings association or service corporation thereof shall sponsor an employee pension plan which, because of unreasonable costs or any other reason, could lead to material financial loss or damage to the sponsor. For purposes of this section, an employee pension plan is defined in section 3(2) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended. The prospective obligation or liability of a plan sponsor to each plan participant shall be stated in or determinable from the plan, and, for a defined benefit plan, shall also be based upon an actuarial estimate of future experience under the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding.</I> Actuarial cost methods permitted under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 and the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, shall be used to determine plan funding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plan amendment.</I> A plan may be amended to provide reasonable annual cost-of-living increases to retired participants: <I>Provided,</I> That
</P>
<P>(1) Any such increase shall be for a period and amount determined by the sponsor's board of directors, but in no event shall it exceed the annual increase in the Consumer Price Index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics; and
</P>
<P>(2) No increase shall be granted unless:
</P>
<P>(i) Anticipated charges to net income for future periods have first been found by such board of directors to be reasonable and are documented by appropriate resolution and supporting analysis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The increase will not reduce the association's regulatory capital below its regulatory capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination.</I> The plan shall permit the sponsor's board of directors and its successors to terminate such plan. Notice of intent to terminate shall be filed with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) at least 60 days prior to the proposed termination date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records.</I> Each Federal savings association or service corporation maintaining a plan not subject to recordkeeping and reporting requirements of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, and the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, shall establish and maintain records containing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Plan description;
</P>
<P>(2) Schedule of participants and beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) Schedule of participants and beneficiaries' rights and obligations;
</P>
<P>(4) Plan's financial statements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Except for defined contribution plans, an opinion signed by an enrolled actuary (as defined by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974) affirming that actuarial assumptions in the aggregate are reasonable, take into account the plan's experience and expectations, and represent the actuary's best estimate of the plan's projected experiences.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Securities and Borrowings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.74" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.3.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.74   Mutual capital certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No savings association that is in the mutual form shall issue mutual capital certificates pursuant to this section or amend the terms of such certificates unless it has obtained written approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency. No approval shall be granted unless the proposed issuance of the mutual capital certificates and the form and manner of filing of the application are in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility Requirements.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will consider and process an application for approval of the issuance of mutual capital certificates pursuant to this section only if the issuance is authorized by applicable law and regulation and is not inconsistent with any provision of the applicant's charter, constitution or bylaws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application form; supporting information.</I> An application for approval of the issuance of mutual capital certificates pursuant to this section shall be in the form prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. Such application and instructions may be obtained from the appropriate Federal banking agency. Information and exhibits shall be furnished in support of the application in accordance with such instructions, setting forth all of the terms and provisions relating to the proposed issue and showing that all of the requirements of this section have been or will be met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charter amendment.</I> No application for approval of the issuance of mutual capital certificates pursuant to this section may be filed unless the amendment to the mutual association's charter, constitution or bylaws or other actions conferring such authority shall have been approved pursuant to the procedures and requirements set forth in the mutual association's charter, constitution or bylaws, or as may otherwise be required by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing requirements.</I> The application for issuance of mutual capital certificates shall be publicly filed with the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Supervisory objection.</I> No application or approval of the issuance of mutual capital certificates pursuant to this section shall be approved if, in the opinion of the appropriate Federal banking agency, the policies, condition, or operation of the applicant afford a basis for supervisory objection to the application.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Limitation on offering period.</I> Following the date of the approval of the application by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the association shall have an offering period of not more than one year in which to complete the sale of the mutual capital certificates issued pursuant to this section. The appropriate Federal banking agency may in its discretion extend such offering period if a written request showing good cause for such extension is filed with it not later than 30 days before the expiration of such offering period or any extension thereof.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reports.</I> Within 30 days after completion of the sale of mutual capital certificates issued pursuant to this section, the association shall transmit to the appropriate Federal banking agency a written report stating the total dollar amount of securities sold, and the amount of net proceeds received by the association, and within 90 days it shall transmit a written report stating the number of purchasers.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements as to mutual capital certificates</I>—(1) <I>Form of certificate.</I> Each mutual capital certificate and any governing agreement evidencing a mutual capital certificate issued by an association pursuant to this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall bear on its face, in bold-face type, the following legend: “This security is not a savings account or a deposit and it is not insured by the United States or any agency or fund of the United States”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall clearly state that the certificate is subject to the requirements of § 163.74(i)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal requirements.</I> Mutual capital certificates issued pursuant to this section shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be subordinate to all claims against the association having the same priority as savings accounts, savings certificates, debt obligations or any higher priority;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not be eligible for use as collateral for any loan made by the issuing association;
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute a claim in liquidation not exceeding the face value plus accrued dividends of the certificates, on the general reserves, surplus and undivided profits of the association remaining after the payment in full of all savings accounts, savings certificates and debt obligations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Be entitled to the payment of dividends, which may be fixed, variable, participating, or cumulative, or any combination thereof, only if, when and as declared by the association's board of directors out of funds legally available for that purpose, provided that no dividend may be declared or paid without the approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency if such payment would cause the association to fail to meet its regulatory capital requirements under 12 CFR part 3 if a Federal savings association, or 12 CFR part 324 or part 390, subpart Z, as applicable, if a state savings association, and provided further that no dividend may be paid if such payment would constitute a violation of 12 U.S.C. 1828(b);
</P>
<P>(v) Not be redeemable, except: where the dollar weighted average term of each issue of mutual capital certificates to be redeemed is seven years or more and redemption is to be made pursuant to a redemption schedule; in the event of a merger, consolidation or reorganization approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency; or where the funds for redemption are raised by the issuance of mutual capital certificates approved pursuant to this section, or in conjunction with the issuance of capital stock pursuant to part 192 of this chapter: <I>Provided,</I> that mandatory redemption shall not be required; that mutual capital certificates shall not be redeemable on the demand or at the option of the holder; and that mutual capital certificates shall not receive, benefit from, be credited with or otherwise be entitled to or due payments in or for redemption if such payments would cause the association to fail to meet its regulatory capital requirements under 12 CFR part 3 if a Federal savings association, or 12 CFR part 324 or part 390, subpart Z, as applicable, if a state savings association; <I>And Provided further,</I> for the purposes of this paragraph (i)(2)(v), the “dollar weighted average term” of an issue of mutual capital certificates shall be the sum of the products calculated for each year that the mutual capital certificates in the issue have been redeemed or are scheduled to be redeemed. Each product shall be calculated by multiplying the number of years of each mutual capital certificate of a given term by a fraction, the numerator of which shall be the total dollar amount of each mutual capital certificate in the issue with the same term and the denominator of which shall be the total dollar amount of mutual capital certificates in the entire issue;
</P>
<P>(vi) Not have preemptive rights;
</P>
<P>(vii) Not have voting rights, except that an association may provide for voting rights if:
</P>
<P>(A) The savings association fails to pay dividends for a minimum of three consecutive dividend periods, and then the holders of the class or classes of mutual capital certificates granted such voting rights, and voting as a single class, with one vote for each outstanding certificate, may elect by a majority vote a maximum of one-third of the association's board of directors, the directors so elected to serve until the next annual meeting of the association succeeding the payment of all current and past dividends;
</P>
<P>(B) Any merger, consolidation, or reorganization (except in a supervisory case) is sought to be authorized, where the issuing association is not the survivor, provided that the regulatory capital of the resulting association available for payment of any class of mutual capital certificate on liquidation is less than the regulatory capital available for such class prior to the merger, consolidation, or reorganization;
</P>
<P>(C) Action is sought to be authorized which would create any class of mutual capital certificates having a preference or priority over an outstanding class or classes of mutual capital certificates;
</P>
<P>(D) Any action is sought to be authorized which would adversely change the specific terms of any class of mutual capital certificates;
</P>
<P>(E) Action is sought to be authorized which would increase the number of a class of mutual capital certificates, or the number of a class of mutual capital certificates ranking prior to or on parity with another class of mutual capital certificates; or
</P>
<P>(F) Action is sought which would authorize the issuance of an additional class or classes of mutual capital certificates without the association having met specific financial standards;
</P>
<P>(viii) Not constitute an obligation of the association and shall confer no rights which would give rise to any claim of or action for default;
</P>
<P>(ix) Not be convertible into any account, security, or interest, except that mutual capital certificates may be surrendered in exchange for preferred stock issued in connection with the conversion of the issuing savings association to the stock form pursuant to part 192 of this chapter, provided that the preferred stock shall have substantially the same voting rights, designations, preferences and relative, participating optional, or other special rights, and qualifications, limitations, and restrictions, as the mutual capital certificates exchanged for the preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(x) Provide for charging of losses after the exhaustion of all other items in the regulatory capital account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 11314, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.76" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.3.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.76   Offers and sales of securities at an office of a Federal savings association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal saving association may not offer or sell debt or equity securities issued by the association or an affiliate of the association at an office of the association; except that equity securities issued by the association or an affiliate in connection with the association's conversion from the mutual to stock form of organization in a conversion approved pursuant to part 192 of this chapter may be offered and sold at the association's offices: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(1) The OCC does not object on supervisory grounds to the offer and sale of the securities at the offices of the association;
</P>
<P>(2) No commissions, bonuses, or comparable payments are paid to any employee of the savings association or its affiliates or to any other person in connection with the sale of securities at an office of a savings association; except that compensation and commissions consistent with industry norms may be paid to securities personnel of registered broker-dealers;
</P>
<P>(3) No offers or sales are made by tellers or at the teller counter, or by comparable persons at comparable locations;
</P>
<P>(4) Sales activity is conducted in a segregated or separately identifiable area of the savings association's offices apart from the area accessible to the general public for the purposes of making or withdrawing deposits;
</P>
<P>(5) Offers and sales are made only by regular, full-time employees of the savings association or by securities personnel who are subject to supervision by a registered broker-dealer;
</P>
<P>(6) An acknowledgment, in the form set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, is signed by any customer to whom the security is sold in the savings association's offices prior to the sale of any such securities;
</P>
<P>(7) A legend that the security is not a deposit or account and is not Federally insured or guaranteed appears conspicuously on the security and in all offering documents and advertisements for the securities; the legend must state in bold or other prominent type at least as large as other textual type in the document that “This security is not a deposit or account and is not Federally insured or guaranteed”; and
</P>
<P>(8) The savings association will be in compliance with its current capital requirements upon completion of the conversion stock offering.
</P>
<P>(b) Securities sales practices, advertisements, and other sales literature used in connection with offers and sales of securities by Federal savings associations shall be subject to § 16.32 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Offers and sales of securities of a savings association or its affiliates in any office of the savings association must use a one-page, unambiguous, certification in substantially the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>FORM OF CERTIFICATION
</HD3>
<P>I ACKNOWLEDGE THAT THIS SECURITY IS NOT A DEPOSIT OR ACCOUNT AND IS NOT FEDERALLY INSURED, AND IS NOT GUARANTEED BY [<I>insert name of savings association</I>] OR BY THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT.
</P>
<P>If anyone asserts that this security is Federally insured or guaranteed, or is as safe as an insured deposit, I should call the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>I further certify that, before purchasing the [<I>description of security being offered</I>] of [<I>name of issuer, name of savings association and affiliation to issuer (if different)</I>], I received an offering circular.
</P>
<P>The offering circular that I received contains disclosure concerning the nature of the security being offered and describes the risks involved in the investment, including:
</P>
<P>[<I>List briefly the principal risks involved and cross reference certain specified pages of the offering circular where a more complete description of the risks is made.</I>]
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, an “office” of an association means any premises used by the association that are identified to the public through advertising or signage using the association's name, trade name, or logo.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.80" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.3.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.80   Borrowing limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as the appropriate Federal banking agency otherwise may permit by advice in writing, a savings association may borrow only in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of borrowing.</I> A savings association may borrow up to the amount authorized by the laws under which the savings association operates.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security.</I> An association may give security for borrowings subject to any requirements imposed by the appropriate Federal banking agency or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) regarding notice of default on borrowings and any FDIC right of first refusal to purchase collateral.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required statement for all securities evidencing outside borrowings.</I> Each security shall bear on its face, in a prominent place, the following legend:
</P>
<P>This security is not a savings account or a deposit and it is not insured by the United States or any agency or fund of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing requirements for outside borrowings with maturities in excess of one year.</I> (1) Unless the savings association meets its capital requirement under 12 CFR part 3 if a Federal savings association or 12 CFR part 324 or part 390, subpart Z, as applicable, if a state savings association it shall, at least ten business days prior to issuance, file a notice of intent to issue securities evidencing such borrowings with the appropriate OCC licensing office if a Federal savings association, or with the appropriate regional director of the FDIC if a state savings association. Such notice shall contain a summary of the items of the security, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Principal amount of the securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Anticipated interest rate range and price range at which the securities are to be sold;
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum denomination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Stated and average effective maturity;
</P>
<P>(v) Mandatory and optional prepayment provisions;
</P>
<P>(vi) Description, amount, and maintenance of collateral if any;
</P>
<P>(vii) Trustee provisions if any;
</P>
<P>(viii) Events of default and remedies of default;
</P>
<P>(ix) Any provisions which restrict, conditionally or otherwise, the operations of the association.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal banking agency shall have 10 business days after receipt of such filing to object to the issuance of such securities. The appropriate Federal banking agency shall object if the terms or covenants of the proposed issue place unreasonable burdens on, or control over, the operations of the association. If no objection is taken, the savings association shall have 120 calendar days within which to issue such securities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Note accounts.</I> For purposes of this section, note accounts are not borrowings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 11314, Feb. 28, 2014; 84 FR 56376, Oct. 22, 2019; 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Financial Management Policies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.170" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.5.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.170   Examinations and audits; appraisals; establishment and maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Examinations and audits.</I> Each Federal savings association and affiliate thereof shall be examined periodically, and may be examined at any time, by the OCC, with appraisals when deemed advisable, in accordance with general policies from time to time established by the OCC. The costs, as computed by the OCC, of any examinations made by it, including office analysis, overhead, per diem, travel expense, other supervision by the OCC, and other indirect costs, shall be paid by the savings associations examined, except that in the case of service corporations of Federal savings associations the cost of examinations, as determined by the OCC, shall be paid by the service corporations. Payments shall be made in accordance with a schedule of annual assessments based upon each savings association's total assets and of rates for examiner time in amounts determined by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisals.</I> (1) Unless otherwise ordered by the OCC, appraisal of real estate by the OCC in connection with any examination or audit of a savings association, affiliate, or service corporation shall be made by an appraiser, or by appraisers, selected by the OCC. The cost of such appraisal shall promptly be paid by such savings association, affiliate, or service corporation direct to such appraiser or appraisers upon receipt by the savings association, affiliate, or service corporation of a statement of such cost as approved by the OCC. A copy of the report of each appraisal made by the OCC pursuant to any of the foregoing provisions of this section shall be furnished to the savings association, affiliate, or service corporation, as appropriate within a reasonable time, not to exceed 90 days, following the completion of such appraisals and the filing of a report thereof by the appraiser, or appraisers, with the OCC.
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC may obtain at any time, at its expense, such appraisals of any of the assets, including the security therefore, of a savings association, affiliate, or service corporation as the OCC deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Establishment and maintenance of records.</I> To enable the OCC to examine Federal savings associations and affiliates and audit savings associations, affiliates, and service corporations pursuant to the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, each savings association, affiliate, and service corporation shall establish and maintain such accounting and other records as will provide an accurate and complete record of all business it transacts. This includes, without limitation, establishing and maintaining such other records as are required by statute or any other regulation to which the savings association, affiliate, or service corporation is subject. The documents, files, and other material or property comprising said records shall at all times be available for such examination and audit wherever any of said records, documents, files, material, or property may be.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in location of records.</I> A Federal savings association shall not transfer the location of any of its general accounting or control records, or the maintenance thereof, from its home office to a branch or service office, or from a branch or service office to its home office or to another branch or service office unless prior to the date of transfer its board of directors has:
</P>
<P>(1) By resolution authorized the transfer or maintenance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sent a certified copy of the resolution to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of data processing services for maintenance of records.</I> A Federal savings association which determines to maintain any of its records by means of data processing services shall so notify the OCC in writing, at least 90 days prior to the date on which such maintenance of records will begin. Such notification shall include identification of the records to be maintained by data processing services and a statement as to the location at which such records will be maintained. Any contract, agreement, or arrangement made by a savings association pursuant to which data processing services are to be performed for such savings association shall be in writing and shall expressly provide that the records to be maintained by such services shall at all times be available for examination and audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.171" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.5.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.171   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.172" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.5.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.172   Financial derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> A financial derivative is a financial contract whose value depends on the value of one or more underlying assets, indices, or reference rates. The most common types of financial derivatives are futures, forward contracts, options, and swaps. A mortgage derivative security, such as a collateralized mortgage obligation or a real estate mortgage investment conduit, is not a financial derivative under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible financial derivatives transactions.</I> A Federal savings association may engage in a transaction involving a financial derivative if the savings association is authorized to invest in the assets underlying the financial derivative, the transaction is safe and sound, and the requirements in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section are met. In general, a Federal savings association that engages in a transaction involving a financial derivative should do so to reduce its risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board of directors' responsibilities.</I> (1) A Federal savings association's board of directors is responsible for effective oversight of financial derivatives activities.
</P>
<P>(2) Before a savings association may engage in any transaction involving a financial derivative, your board of directors must establish written policies and procedures governing authorized financial derivatives. The board of directors should review applicable guidance issued by the OCC on establishing a sound risk management program.
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors must periodically review:
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance with the policies and procedures established under paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of these policies and procedures to ensure that they continue to be appropriate to the nature and scope of the savings association's operations and existing market conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) The board of directors must ensure that management establishes an adequate system of internal controls for transactions involving financial derivatives.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management responsibilities.</I> (1) The management of a Federal savings association is responsible for daily oversight and management of financial derivatives activities. The management of a Federal savings association must implement the policies and procedures established by the board of directors and must establish a system of internal controls. This system of internal controls should, at a minimum, provide for periodic reporting to the board of directors and management, segregation of duties, and internal review procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) Management must ensure that financial derivatives activities are conducted in a safe and sound manner and should review applicable guidance issued by the OCC on implementing a sound risk management program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recordkeeping requirement.</I> A Federal savings association must maintain records adequate to demonstrate compliance with this section and with its board of directors' policies and procedures on financial derivatives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 8110, Jan. 23, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.176" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.5.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.176   Interest-rate-risk-management procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Federal savings associations shall take the following actions:
</P>
<P>(a) The board of directors or a committee thereof shall review the savings association's interest-rate-risk exposure and devise a policy for the savings association's management of that risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors shall formally adopt a policy for the management of interest-rate risk. The management of the savings association shall establish guidelines and procedures to ensure that the board's policy is successfully implemented.
</P>
<P>(c) The management of the savings association shall periodically report to the board of directors regarding implementation of the savings association's policy for interest-rate-risk management and shall make that information available upon request to the OCC.
</P>
<P>(d) The savings association's board of directors shall review the results of operations at least quarterly and shall make such adjustments as it considers necessary and appropriate to the policy for interest-rate-risk management, including adjustments to the authorized acceptable level of interest-rate risk.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Reporting and Bonding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.180" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.6.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.180   Suspicious Activity Reports and other reports and statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>False or misleading statements or omissions.</I> No savings association or director, officer, agent, employee, affiliated person, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of such association nor any person filing or seeking approval of any application shall knowingly:
</P>
<P>(1) Make any written or oral statement to the appropriate Federal banking agency or to an agent, representative or employee of the appropriate Federal banking agency that is false or misleading with respect to any material fact or omits to state a material fact concerning any matter within the jurisdiction of the appropriate Federal banking agency or
</P>
<P>(2) Make any such statement or omission to a person or organization auditing a savings association or otherwise preparing or reviewing its financial statements concerning the accounts, assets, management condition, ownership, safety, or soundness, or other affairs of the association.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspicious Activity Reports</I>—(1) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This paragraph (d) ensures that savings associations and service corporations file a Suspicious Activity Report when they detect a known or suspected violation of Federal law or a suspicious transaction related to a money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (d):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FinCEN</I> means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network of the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in sections 3(u) and 8(b)(9) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u) and 1818(b)(9)).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>SAR</I> means a Suspicious Activity Report.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SARs required.</I> A savings association or service corporation shall file a SAR with the appropriate Federal law enforcement agencies and the Department of the Treasury on the form prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency and in accordance with the form's instructions, by sending a completed SAR to FinCEN in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insider abuse involving any amount.</I> Whenever the savings association or service corporation detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the savings association or service corporation or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the savings association or service corporation, where the savings association or service corporation believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that it was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and it has a substantial basis for identifying one of its directors, officers, employees, agents or other institution-affiliated parties as having committed or aided in the commission of a criminal act, regardless of the amount involved in the violation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Violations aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified.</I> Whenever the savings association or service corporation detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the savings association or service corporation or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the savings association or service corporation and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the savings association or service corporation believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation or series of criminal violations, or that it was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and it has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined prior to filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an alias, then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as drivers' license or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Violations aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of potential suspects.</I> Whenever the savings association or service corporation detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the savings association or service corporation or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the savings association or service corporation and involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the savings association or service corporation believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation or series of criminal violations, or that it was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though there is no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violations of the Bank Secrecy Act.</I> Any transaction (which for purposes of this paragraph (d)(3)(iv) means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected) conducted or attempted by, at or through the savings association or service corporation and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the savings association or service corporation knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under Federal law;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the institution knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Service corporations.</I> When a service corporation is required to file a SAR under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, either the service corporation or a savings association that wholly or partially owns the service corporation may file the SAR.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Time for reporting.</I> A savings association or service corporation is required to file a SAR no later than 30 calendar days after the date of initial detection of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR. If no suspect was identified on the date of detection of the incident requiring the filing, a savings association or service corporation may delay filing a SAR for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect. In no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of initial detection of a reportable transaction. In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing, the savings association or service corporation shall immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and the appropriate Federal banking agency in addition to filing a timely SAR.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reports to state and local authorities.</I> A savings association or service corporation is encouraged to file a copy of the SAR with state and local law enforcement agencies where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exception.</I> A savings association or service corporation need not file a SAR for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Retention of records.</I> A savings association or service corporation shall maintain a copy of any SAR filed and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of the filing of the SAR. Supporting documentation shall be identified and maintained by the savings association or service corporation as such, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the SAR. A savings association or service corporation shall make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement agencies upon request. A savings association or service corporation shall make all supporting documentation available to the appropriate Federal banking agency, FinCEN, or any Federal, state, or local law enforcement agency, or any Federal regulatory authority that examines the savings association or service corporation for compliance with the Bank Secrecy Act, or any state regulatory authority administering a state law that requires the savings association or service corporation to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act or otherwise authorizes the state authority to ensure that the institution complies with the Bank Secrecy Act, upon request.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Notification to board of directors</I>—(i) <I>Generally.</I> Whenever a savings association (or a service corporation in which the savings association has an ownership interest) files a SAR pursuant to this paragraph (d), the management of the savings association or service corporation shall promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee of directors or executive officers designated by the board of directors to receive notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Suspect is a director or executive officer.</I> If the savings association or service corporation files a SAR pursuant to this paragraph (d) and the suspect is a director or executive officer, the savings association or service corporation may not notify the suspect, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2), but shall notify all directors who are not suspects.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Compliance.</I> Failure to file a SAR in accordance with this section and the instructions may subject the savings association or service corporation, its directors, officers, employees, agents, or other institution-affiliated parties to supervisory action.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Obtaining SARs.</I> A savings association or service corporation may obtain SARs and the instructions from the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Confidentiality of SARs.</I> A SAR, and any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, are confidential, and shall not be disclosed except as authorized in this paragraph (d)(12).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibition on disclosure by savings associations or service corporations.</I> No savings association or service corporation, and no director, officer, employee, or agent of a savings association or service corporation, shall disclose a SAR or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR. Any savings association or service corporation, and any director, officer, employee, or agent of any savings association or service corporation that is subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, shall decline to produce the SAR or such information, citing this section and 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(A)(i), and shall notify the following of any such request and the response thereto:
</P>
<P>(A) Director, Litigation Division, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency or the appropriate FDIC region, as appropriate and
</P>
<P>(B) The Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rules of construction.</I> Provided that no person involved in any reported suspicious transaction is notified that the transaction has been reported, paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall not be construed as prohibiting:
</P>
<P>(A) The disclosure by a savings association or service corporation, or any director, officer, employee or agent of a savings association or service corporation of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, to FinCEN or the appropriate Federal banking agency or any Federal, state, or local law enforcement agency; or any Federal regulatory authority that examines the savings association or service corporation for compliance with the Bank Secrecy Act, or any state regulatory authority administering a state law that requires compliance with the Bank Secrecy Act or otherwise authorizes the state authority to ensure that the institution complies with the Bank Secrecy Act; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The underlying facts, transactions, and documents upon which a SAR is based, including, but not limited to, disclosures:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) To another financial institution, or any director, officer, employee or agent of a financial institution, for the preparation of a joint SAR; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) In connection with certain employment references or termination notices, to the full extent authorized in 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2)(B); or
</P>
<P>(B) The sharing by a savings association or service corporation, or any director, officer, employee, or agent of a savings association or service corporation, of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, within the corporate organizational structure of the savings association or service corporation, for purposes consistent with title II of the Bank Secrecy Act as determined by regulation or in guidance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Prohibition on disclosure by the appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will not, and no officer, employee or agent of appropriate Federal banking agency shall disclose a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, except as necessary to fulfill official duties consistent with title II of the Bank Secrecy Act. For purposes of this section, “official duties” shall not include the disclosure of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, in response to a request for use in a private legal proceeding or in response to a request for disclosure of non-public information under 12 CFR 4.33 or 12 CFR part 309, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Limitation on liability.</I> A savings association or service corporation and any director, officer, employee or agent of a savings association or service corporation that makes a voluntary disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation to a government agency or makes a disclosure pursuant to this section or any other authority, including a disclosure made jointly with another institution, shall be protected from liability for any such disclosure, or for failure to provide notice of such disclosure to any person identified in the disclosure, or both, to the full extent provided by 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Safe harbor.</I> The safe harbor provision of 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), which exempts any financial institution that makes a disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation from liability under any law or regulation of the United States, or any constitution, law or regulation of any state or political subdivision, covers all reports of suspected or known criminal violations and suspicious activities to law enforcement and financial institution supervisory authorities, including supporting documentation, regardless of whether such reports are filed pursuant to this paragraph (d), or are filed on a voluntary basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage indices</I>—(1) <I>Reporting obligation.</I> Upon the request of a Federal Home Loan Bank, all savings associations within the jurisdiction of that Federal Home Loan Bank shall report the data items set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section for the Federal Home Loan Bank to use in calculating and publishing an adjustable-rate mortgage index.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data to be reported.</I> For purposes of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the term “data items” means the data items previously collected from the monthly Thrift Financial Report or Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, as appropriate, and such data items as may be altered, amended, or substituted by the requesting Federal Home Loan Bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicable indices.</I> For the purpose of this reporting requirement, the term “adjustable-rate mortgage index” means any of the adjustable-rate mortgage indices calculated and published by a Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board on or before August 9, 1989.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) The OCC may grant a Federal savings association or service corporation an exemption from the requirements of this section. A Federal savings association or service corporation requesting an exemption must submit a request in writing to the OCC. In reviewing such requests, the OCC will consider whether the exemption is consistent with the purposes of the Bank Secrecy Act (if applicable) and safe and sound banking, and may consider other appropriate factors. Any exemption will apply only as expressly stated in the exemption. (A Federal savings association or service corporation requesting an exemption that also requires relief from the requirements of applicable regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR chapter X must submit a request in writing to both the OCC and FinCEN for approval.)
</P>
<P>(2) The OCC will respond in writing to the Federal savings association or service corporation that submits a request pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section after considering whether the exemption is consistent with the factors in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Any exemption granted by the OCC under paragraph (f)(1) of this section will continue for the time specified by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC may extend the period of time or may revoke an exemption granted under paragraph (f)(1) of this section. Exemptions or extensions may be revoked in the sole discretion of the OCC. Before revoking an exemption, the OCC will provide written notice to the Federal savings association or service corporation of the OCC's intention to revoke an exemption. Such notice will include the basis for the revocation and will provide an opportunity for the Federal savings association or service corporation to submit a response to the OCC. The OCC will consider any response before deciding whether or not to revoke an exemption and provide written notice to the Federal savings association or service corporation of the OCC's final decision to revoke an exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to requests for exemptions that will also require relief from the requirements of applicable regulations issued by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR chapter X, upon receiving approval from both the OCC and FinCEN, the requestor will be relieved of its obligations under this section to the extent stated in such approvals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49047, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 8111, Jan. 23, 2017; 85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020; 87 FR 15332, Mar. 18, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.6.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.200   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>If you are a director, officer, or employee of a Federal savings association, or have the power to direct its management or policies, or otherwise owe a fiduciary duty to a Federal savings association:
</P>
<P>(a) You must not advance your own personal or business interests, or those of others with whom you have a personal or business relationship, at the expense of the savings association; and
</P>
<P>(b) You must, if you have an interest in a matter or transaction before the board of directors:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose to the board all material nonprivileged information relevant to the board's decision on the matter or transaction, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The existence, nature and extent of your interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The facts known to you as to the matter or transaction under consideration;
</P>
<P>(2) Refrain from participating in the board's discussion of the matter or transaction; and
</P>
<P>(3) Recuse yourself from voting on the matter or transaction (if you are a director).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 163.201" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.71.6.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 163.201   Corporate opportunity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you are a director or officer of a Federal savings association, or have the power to direct its management or policies, or otherwise owe a fiduciary duty to a Federal savings association, you must not take advantage of corporate opportunities belonging to the savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) A corporate opportunity belongs to a Federal savings association if:
</P>
<P>(1) The opportunity is within the corporate powers of the savings association or a subsidiary of the savings association; and
</P>
<P>(2) The opportunity is of present or potential practical advantage to the savings association, either directly or through its subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) The OCC will not deem you to have taken advantage of a corporate opportunity belonging to the Federal savings association if a disinterested and independent majority of the savings association's board of directors, after receiving a full and fair presentation of the matter, rejected the opportunity as a matter of sound business judgment.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="165-166" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.72" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 165-166 [RESERVED]






</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="168" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 168—SECURITY PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 1828, 1831p-1, 1881-1884, 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w; 15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805(b)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49129, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 168.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued under section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C 1882), sections 501 and 505(b)(1) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805(b)(1)), and sections 621 and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w). This part is applicable to Federal savings associations. It requires each Federal savings association to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies and to assist in the identification and prosecution of persons who commit such acts. Section 168.5 of this part is applicable to Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers). Section 168.5 of this part requires covered institutions to establish and implement appropriate administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the responsibility of a Federal savings association's board of directors to comply with this regulation and ensure that a written security program for the association's main office and branches is developed and implemented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.2   Designation of security officer.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the effective date of insurance of accounts, the board of directors of each Federal savings association shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, to develop, within a reasonable time but no later than 180 days, and to administer a written security program for each of the association's offices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.3   Security program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of security program.</I> The security program shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the association and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution. Such procedures may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintaining a camera that records activity in the office;
</P>
<P>(ii) Using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the association;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a burglary, robbery, or larceny; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide for selecting, testing, operating and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security devices.</I> Each savings association shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:
</P>
<P>(1) A means of protecting cash and other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;
</P>
<P>(2) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the office;
</P>
<P>(3) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows that may be opened;
</P>
<P>(4) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(i) The incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of currency and other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, or larceny;
</P>
<P>(iii) The distance of the office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers;
</P>
<P>(iv) The cost of the security devices;
</P>
<P>(v) Other security measures in effect at the office; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The physical characteristics of the structure of the office and its surroundings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.4   Report.</HEAD>
<P>The security officer for each Federal savings association shall report at least annually to the association's board of directors on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 168.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.73.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 168.5   Protection of customer information.</HEAD>
<P>Federal savings associations and their subsidiaries (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers) must comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards set forth in appendix B to part 30 of this chapter. Supplement A to appendix B to part 30 of this chapter provides interpretive guidance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 49129, Aug. 9, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 54549, Sept. 11, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="169" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.74" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 169—PROXIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 2, 48 Stat. 128, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1462); section 3, as added by section 301, 103 Stat. 278 (12 U.S.C. 1462a); section 4, as added by section 301, 103 Stat. 280 (12 U.S.C. 1463), 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49129, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 169.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.74.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Security holder.</I> (1) The term <I>security holder</I> means any person having the right to vote in the affairs of a savings association by virtue of:
</P>
<P>(i) Ownership of any security of the association or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any indebtedness to the association.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, the term <I>security holder</I> shall include any account holder having the right to vote in the affairs of a mutual savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Person.</I> The term <I>person</I> includes, in addition to natural persons, corporations, partnerships, pension funds, profit-sharing funds, trusts, and any other group of associated persons of whatever nature.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proxy.</I> The term <I>proxy</I> includes every form of authorization by which a person is, or may be deemed to be, designated to act for the security holder in the exercise of his or her voting rights in the affairs of a savings association. Such an authorization may take the form of failure to dissent or object.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Solicit; solicitation.</I> (1) The terms <I>solicit</I> and <I>solicitation</I> refer to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any request for a proxy whether or not accompanied by or included in a form of proxy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any request to execute, not execute, or revoke a proxy; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The furnishing of a form of proxy or other communication to security holders under circumstances reasonably calculated to result in the procurement, withholding, or revocation of a proxy.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms do not apply, however, to the furnishing of a form of proxy to a security holder upon the request of such security holder or to the performance by any person of ministerial acts on behalf of a person soliciting a proxy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.74.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.2   Form of proxies.</HEAD>
<P>Every form of proxy shall conform to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The proxy shall be revocable at will by the person giving it. The power to revoke may not be conditioned on any event or occurrence or be otherwise limited; except that, in the case of a proxy relating to capital stock if such proxy is coupled with an interest, states such fact on its face, and is valid under the laws of the state in which it is to be exercised, such proxy may be made irrevocable to the extent permitted by such state law.
</P>
<P>(b) The proxy may not be part of any other document or instrument (such as an account card).
</P>
<P>(c) The proxy shall be clearly labeled “Revocable Proxy” in boldface type (at least as large as 18 point).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.74.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.3   Holders of proxies.</HEAD>
<P>No proxy of a mutual savings association with a term greater than eleven months or solicited at the expense of the association may designate as holder anyone other than the board of directors [trustees] as a whole, or a committee appointed by a majority of such board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 169.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.74.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 169.4   Proxy soliciting material.</HEAD>
<P>No solicitation of a proxy shall be made by means of any statement, form of proxy, notice of meeting, or other communication, written or oral, which:
</P>
<P>(a) Solicits any undated or postdated proxy;
</P>
<P>(b) Solicits any proxy that provides that it shall be deemed to be dated as of any date subsequent to the date on which it is signed by the security holder; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Contains any statement that is false or misleading with respect to any material fact, or
</P>
<P>(2) Omits to state any material fact:
</P>
<P>(i) Necessary in order to make the statements therein not false or misleading or
</P>
<P>(ii) Necessary to correct any statement in any earlier communication with respect to the solicitation of a proxy for the same meeting or subject matter that has subsequently become false or misleading.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="170-189" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.75" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 170-189 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="190" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 190—PREEMPTION OF STATE USURY LAWS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1735f-7a, 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49151, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 190.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part contains regulations issued under section 501 of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980, Public Law 96-221, 94 Stat. 161.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The purpose of this permanent preemption of state interest-rate ceilings applicable to Federally-related residential mortgage loans is to ensure that the availability of such loans is not impeded in states having restrictive interest limitations. This part applies to loans, mortgages, credit sales, and advances, secured by first liens on residential real property, stock in residential cooperative housing corporations, or residential manufactured homes as defined in § 190.2 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Loans</I> mean any loans, mortgages, credit sales, or advances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federally-related loans</I> include any loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Made by any lender whose deposits or accounts are insured by any agency of the Federal government;
</P>
<P>(2) Made by any lender regulated by any agency of the Federal government;
</P>
<P>(3) Made by any lender approved by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development for participation in any mortgage insurance program under the National Housing Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Made in whole or in part by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development; insured, guaranteed, supplemented, or assisted in any way by the Secretary or any officer or agency of the Federal government, or made under or in connection with a housing or urban development program administered by the Secretary, or a housing or related program administered by any other such officer or agency;
</P>
<P>(5) Eligible for purchase by the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Government National Mortgage Association, or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or made by any financial institution from which the loan could be purchased by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(6) Made in whole or in part by any entity which:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly extends, or arranges for the extension of, credit payable by agreement in more than four installments or for which the payment of a finance charge is or may be required; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes or invests in residential real property loans, including loans secured by first liens on residential manufactured homes that aggregate more than $1,000,000 per year; except that the latter requirement shall not apply to such an entity selling residential manufactured homes and providing financing for such sales through loans or credit sales secured by first liens on residential manufactured homes, if the entity has an arrangement to sell such loans or credit sales in whole or in part, or where such loans or credit sales are sold in whole or in part, to a lender or other institution otherwise included in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans which are secured by first liens on real estate</I> means loans on the security of any instrument (whether a mortgage, deed of trust, or land contract) which makes the interest in real estate (whether in fee, or in a leasehold or subleasehold extending, or renewable, automatically or at the option of the holder or the lender, for a period of at least 5 years beyond the maturity of the loan) specific security for the payment of the obligation secured by the instrument: <I>Provided,</I> That the instrument is of such a nature that, in the event of default, the real estate described in the instrument could be subjected to the satisfaction of the obligation with the same priority as a first mortgage of a first deed of trust in the jurisdiction where the real estate is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans secured by first liens on stock in a residential cooperative housing corporation</I> means loans on the security of:
</P>
<P>(1) A first security interest in stock or a membership certificate issued to a tenant stockholder or resident member by a cooperative housing organization; and
</P>
<P>(2) An assignment of the borrower's interest in the proprietary lease or occupancy agreement issued by such organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loans secured by first liens on residential manufactured homes</I> means a loan made pursuant to an agreement by which the party extending the credit acquires a security interest in the residential manufactured home which will have priority over any conflicting security interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Residential real property</I> means real estate improved or to be improved by a structure or structures designed primarily for dwelling, as opposed to commercial use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential manufactured home</I> shall mean a manufactured home as defined in the National Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards Act, 42 U.S.C. 5402(6), which is or will be used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>State</I> means the several states, Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Trust Territories of the Pacific Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Virgin Islands, except as provided in section 501(a)(2)(B) of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980, Public Law 96-221, 94 Stat. 161.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.3   Operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of the constitution or law of any state expressly limiting the rate or amount of interest, discount points, finance charges, or other charges which may be charged, taken, received, or reserved shall not apply to any Federally-related loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Made after March 31, 1980; and
</P>
<P>(2) Secured by a first lien on:
</P>
<P>(i) Residential real property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Stock in a residential cooperative housing corporation when the loan is used to finance the acquisition of such stock; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A residential manufactured home: <I>Provided,</I> That the loan so secured contains the consumer safeguards required by § 190.4 of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to loans made in any state on or before the date (after April 1, 1980 and prior to April l, 1983) on which the state adopts a law or certifies that the voters of such state have voted in favor of any law, constitutional or otherwise, which states explicitly and by its terms that such state does not want the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section to apply with respect to loans made in such state, except that—
</P>
<P>(1) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to any loan which is made after such date pursuant to a commitment therefore which was entered into during the period beginning on April 1, 1980, and ending on the date the state takes such action;
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to any rollover of a loan which loan was made, or committed to be made, during the period beginning on April 1, 1980, and ending on the date the state takes such action, if the mortgage document or loan note provided that the interest rate to the original borrower could be changed through the use of such a rollover; and
</P>
<P>(3) At any time after the date of adoption of these regulations, any state may adopt a provision of law placing limitations on discount points or such other charges on any loan described in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section preempts limitations in state laws on prepayment charges, attorneys' fees, late charges or other provisions designed to protect borrowers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.4   Federally-related residential manufactured housing loans—consumer protection provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Prepayment.</I> A “prepayment” occurs upon—
</P>
<P>(i) Refinancing or consolidation of the indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(ii) Actual prepayment of the indebtedness by the debtor, whether voluntarily or following acceleration of the payment obligation by the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The entry of a judgment for the indebtedness in favor of the creditor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Actuarial method.</I> The term <I>actuarial method</I> means the method of allocating payments made on a debt between the outstanding balance of the obligation and the finance charge pursuant to which a payment is applied first to the accumulated finance charge and any remainder is subtracted from, or any deficiency is added to, the outstanding balance of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Precomputed Finance Charge.</I> The term <I>precomputed finance charge</I> means interest or a time/price differential as computed by the add-on or discount method. Precomputed finance charges do not include loan fees, points, finder's fees, or similar charges.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Creditor.</I> The term <I>creditor</I> means any entity covered by this part, including those which regularly extend or arrange for the extension of credit and assignees that are creditors under section 501(a)(1)(C)(v) of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) The provisions of the constitution or the laws of any state expressly limiting the rate or amount of interest, discount points, finance charges, or other charges which may be charged, taken, received, or reserved shall not apply to any loan, mortgage, credit sale, or advance which is secured by a first lien on a residential mobile home if a creditor covered by this part complies with the consumer protection regulations of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relation to state law.</I> (i) In making loans or credit sales subject to this section, creditors shall comply with state and Federal law in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>State law regulating matters not covered by this section.</I> When state law regulating matters not covered by this section is otherwise applicable to a loan or credit sale subject to this section, creditors shall comply with such state law provisions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>State law regulating matters covered by this section.</I> Creditors need comply only with the provisions of this section, unless the OCC determines that an otherwise applicable state law regulating matters covered by this section provides greater protection to consumers. Such determinations shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall operate prospectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any interested party may petition the OCC for a determination that state law requirements are more protective of consumers than the provisions of this section. Petitions shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the state law to be considered;
</P>
<P>(B) Copies of any relevant judicial, regulatory, or administrative interpretations of the state law; and
</P>
<P>(C) An opinion or memorandum from the state Attorney General or other appropriate state official having primary enforcement responsibilities for the subject state law provision, indicating how the state law to be considered offers greater protection to consumers than the OCC's regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Refund of precomputed finance charge.</I> In the event the entire indebtedness is prepaid, the unearned portion of the precomputed finance charge shall be refunded to the debtor. This refund shall be in an amount not less than the amount which would be refunded if the unearned precomputed finance charge were calculated in accordance with the actuarial method, except that the debtor shall not be entitled to a refund which, is less than one dollar. The unearned portion of the precomputed finance charge is, at the option of the creditor, either:
</P>
<P>(1) That portion of the precomputed finance charge which is allocable to all unexpired payment periods as originally scheduled, or if deferred, as deferred. A payment period shall be deemed unexpired if prepayment is made within 15 days after the payment period's scheduled due date. The unearned precomputed finance charge is the total of that which would have been earned for each such period had the loan not been precomputed, by applying to unpaid balances of principal, according to the actuarial method, an annual percentage rate based on those charges which are considered precomputed finance charges in this section, assuming that all payments were made as originally scheduled, or as deferred, if deferred. The creditor, at its option, may round this annual percentage rate to the nearest one-quarter of one percent; or
</P>
<P>(2) The total precomputed finance charge less the earned precomputed finance charge. The earned precomputed finance charge shall be determined by applying an annual percentage rate based on the total precomputed finance charge (as that term is defined in this section), under the actuarial method, to the unpaid balances for the actual time those balances were unpaid up to the date of prepayment. If a late charge or deferral fee has been collected, it shall be treated as a payment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> A debtor may prepay in full or in part the unpaid balance of the loan at any time without penalty. The right to prepay shall be disclosed in the loan contract in type larger than that used for the body of the document.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Balloon payments</I>—(1) <I>Federal savings associations.</I> Federal savings association creditors may enter into agreements with debtors which provide for non-amortized and partially-amortized loans on residential manufactured homes, and such loans shall be governed by the provisions of this section and 12 CFR 560.220 until superseding regulations are issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau regarding the Alternative Mortgage Transactions Parity Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other creditors.</I> All other creditors may enter into agreements with debtors which provide for non-amortized and partially-amortized loans on residential manufactured homes to the extent authorized by applicable Federal or state law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Late charges.</I> (1) No late charge may be assessed, imposed, or collected unless provided for by written contract between the creditor and debtor.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that applicable state law does not provide for a longer period of time, no late charge may be collected on an installment which is paid in full on or before the 15th day after its scheduled or deferred due date even though an earlier maturing installment or a late charge on an earlier installment may not have been paid in full. For purposes of assessing late charges, payments received are deemed to be applied first to current installments.
</P>
<P>(3) A late charge may be imposed only once on an installment; however, no such charge may be collected for a late installment which has been deferred.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent that applicable state law does not provide for a lower charge or a longer grace period, a late charge on any installment not paid in full on or before the 15th day after its scheduled or deferred due date may not exceed five percent of the unpaid amount of the installment.
</P>
<P>(5) If, at any time after imposition of a late charge, the lender provides the borrower with written notice regarding amounts claimed to be due but unpaid, the notice shall separately state the total of all late charges claimed.
</P>
<P>(6) Interest after the final scheduled maturity date may not exceed the maximum rate otherwise allowable under state law for such contracts, and if such interest is charged, no separate late charge may be made on the final scheduled installment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Deferral fees.</I> (1) With respect to mobile home credit transactions containing precomputed finance charges, agreements providing for deferral of all or part of one or more installments shall be in writing, signed by the parties, and
</P>
<P>(i) Provide, to the extent that applicable state law does not provide for a lower charge, for a charge not exceeding one percent of each installment or part thereof for each month from the date when such installment was due to the date when it is agreed to become payable and proportionately for a part of each month, counting each day as 1/30th of a month;
</P>
<P>(ii) Incorporate by reference the transaction to which the deferral applied;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclose each installment or part thereof in the amount to be deferred, the date or dates originally payable, and the date or dates agreed to become payable: and
</P>
<P>(iv) Set forth the fact of the deferral charge, the dollar amount of the charge for each installment to be deferred, and the total dollar amount to be paid by the debtor for the privilege of deferring payment.
</P>
<P>(2) No term of a writing executed by the debtor shall constitute authority for a creditor unilaterally to grant a deferral with respect to which a charge is to be imposed or collected.
</P>
<P>(3) The deferral period is that period of time in which no payment is required or made by reason of the deferral.
</P>
<P>(4) Payments received with respect to deferred installments shall be deemed to be applied first to deferred installments.
</P>
<P>(5) A charge may not be collected for the deferral of an installment or any part thereof if, with respect to that installment, a refinancing or consolidation agreement is concluded by the parties, or a late charge has been imposed or collected, unless such late charge is refunded to the borrower or credited to the deferral charge.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice before repossession, foreclosure, or acceleration.</I> (1) Except in the case of abandonment or other extreme circumstances, no action to repossess or foreclose, or to accelerate payment of the entire outstanding balance of the obligation, may be taken against the debtor until 30 days after the creditor sends the debtor a notice of default in the form set forth in paragraph (h)(2) of this section. Such notice shall be sent by registered or certified mail with return receipt requested. In the case of default on payments, the sum stated in the notice may only include payments in default and applicable late or deferral charges. If the debtor cures the default within 30 days of the postmark of the notice and subsequently defaults a second time, the creditor shall again give notice as described in this paragraph (h)(1). The debtor is not entitled to notice of default more than twice in any one-year period.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice in the following form shall state the nature of the default, the action the debtor must take to cure the default, the creditor's intended actions upon failure of the debtor to cure the default, and the debtor's right to redeem under state law.
</P>
<P>To:
</P>
<P>Date:    , 20
</P>
<P>Notice of Default and Right To Cure Default
</P>
<P>Name, address, and telephone number of creditor
</P>
<P>Account number, if any
</P>
<P>Brief identification of credit transaction
</P>
<P>You are now in default on this credit transaction. You have a right to correct this default within 30 days from the postmarked date of this notice.
</P>
<P>If you correct the default, you may continue with the contract as though you did not default. Your default consists of:
</P>
<P>Describe default alleged
</P>
<P><I>Cure of default:</I> Within 30 days from the postmarked date of this notice, you may cure your default by (describe the acts necessary for cure, including, if applicable, the amount of payment required, including itemized delinquency or deferral charges).
</P>
<P>Creditor's rights: If you do not correct your default in the time allowed, we may exercise our rights against you under the law by (describe action creditor intends to take).
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, write (the creditor) at the above address or call (creditor's designated employee) at (telephone number) between the hours of and on (state days of week).
</P>
<P>If this default was caused by your failure to make a payment or payments, and you want to pay by mail, please send a check or money order; do not send cash.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.100   Status of Interpretations issued under Public Law 96-161.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC continues to adhere to the views expressed in the formal Interpretations issued under the authority of section 105(c) of Public Law 96-161, 93 Stat. 1233 (1979). These interpretations, which relate to the temporary preemption of state interest ceilings contained in Public Law 96-161, may be found at 45 FR 2840 (Jan. 15, 1980); 45 FR 6165 (Jan. 25, 1980); 45 FR 8000 (Feb. 6, 1980); 45 FR 15921 (Mar. 12, 1980).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 190.101" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.76.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 190.101   State criminal usury statutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 501 provides that “the provisions of the constitution or laws of any state expressly limiting the rate or amount of interest, discount points, finance charges, or other charges shall not apply to any” Federally-related loan secured by a first lien on residential real property, a residential manufactured home, or all the stock allocated to a dwelling unit in a residential housing cooperative. 12 U.S.C. 1735f-7 note (Supp. IV 1980). The question has arisen as to whether the Federal statute preempts a state law which deems it a criminal offense to charge interest at a rate in excess of that specified in the state law.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 501 preempts all state laws which expressly limit the rate or amount of interest chargeable on a Federally-related residential first mortgage. It does not matter whether the statute in question imposes criminal or civil sanctions; section 501, by its terms, preempts “any” state law which imposes a ceiling on interest rates. The wording of the Federal statute clearly expresses an intent to displace all direct state law restraints on interest. Any state law that conflicts with this Congressional purpose must yield.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="191" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 191—PREEMPTION OF STATE DUE-ON-SALE LAWS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1464, 1701j-3, and 5412(b)(2)(B).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 49154, Aug. 9, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 191.1" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part contains regulations issued under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933, as amended, and under section 341 of the Garn-St Germain Depository Institutions Act of 1982, Public Law 97-320, 96 Stat. 1469, 1505-1507.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The purpose of this permanent preemption of state prohibitions on the exercise of due-on-sale clauses by all lenders, whether Federally- or state-chartered, is to reaffirm the authority of Federal savings associations to enforce due-on-sale clauses, and to confer on other lenders generally comparable authority with respect to the exercise of such clauses. This part applies to all real property loans, and all lenders making such loans, as those terms are defined in § 191.2 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.2" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assumed</I> includes transfers of real property subject to a real property loan by assumptions, installment land sales contracts, wraparound loans, contracts for deed, transfers subject to the mortgage or similar lien, and other like transfers. “Completed credit application” has the same meaning as completed application for credit as provided in § 202.2(f) of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Due-on-sale clause</I> means a contract provision which authorizes the lender, at its option, to declare immediately due and payable sums secured by the lender's security instrument upon a sale of transfer of all or any part of the real property securing the loan without the lender's prior written consent. For purposes of this definition, a <I>sale or transfer</I> means the conveyance of real property of any right, title or interest therein, whether legal or equitable, whether voluntary or involuntary, by outright sale, deed, installment sale contract, land contract, contract for deed, leasehold interest with a term greater than three years, lease-option contract or any other method of conveyance of real property interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal savings association</I> has the same meaning as provided in § 141.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal credit union</I> means a credit union chartered under the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Home</I> has the same meaning as provided in § 141.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Savings association</I> has the same meaning as provided in § 161.43 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lender</I> means a person or government agency making a real property loan, including without limitation, individuals, Federal savings associations, state-chartered savings associations, national banks, state-chartered banks and state-chartered mutual savings banks, Federal credit unions, state-chartered credit unions, mortgage banks, insurance companies and finance companies which make real property loans, manufactured-home retailers who extend credit, agencies of the Federal government, any lender approved by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development for participation in any mortgage insurance program under the National Housing Act, and any assignee or transferee, in whole or part, of any such persons or agencies.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Loan secured by a lien on real property</I> means a loan on the security of any instrument (whether a mortgage, deed or trust, or land contract) which makes the interest in real property (whether in fee, or in a leasehold or subleasehold) specific security for the payment of the obligation secured by the instrument.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan secured by a lien on stock in a residential cooperative housing corporation</I> means a loan on the security of:
</P>
<P>(1) A security interest in stock or a membership certificate issued to a tenant stockholder or resident member by a cooperative housing organization; and
</P>
<P>(2) An assignment of the borrower's interest in the proprietary lease or occupancy agreement issued by such organization.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Loan secured by a lien on a residential manufactured home, whether real or personal property,</I> means a loan made pursuant to an agreement by which the party extending the credit acquires a security interest in the residential manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Loan originated by</I> a Federal savings association or other lender means any loan for which the lender makes the first advance of credit thereunder, <I>Provided,</I> That such lender then held a beneficial interest in the loan, whether as to the whole loan or a portion thereof, and whether or not the loan is later held by or transferred to another lender.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Real property loan</I> means any loan, mortgage, advance or credit sale secured by a lien on real property, the stock or membership certificate allocated to a dwelling unit in a cooperative housing corporation, or a residential manufactured home, whether real or personal property.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Residential manufactured home</I> has the same meaning as provided in § 190.2(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reverse mortgage</I> means an instrument that provides for one or more payments to a homeowner based on accumulated equity. The lender may make payment directly, through the purchase of an annuity through an insurance company, or in any other manner. The loan may be due either on a specific date or when a specified event occurs, such as the sale of the property or the death of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>State</I> means the several states, Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, Guam, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, the Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.
</P>
<P>(p)(1) A <I>window-period loan</I> means a real property loan, not originated by a Federal savings association, which was made or assumed during a window-period created by state law and subject to that law, which loan was recorded, at the time of origination or assumption, before October 15, 1982, or within 60 days thereafter (December 14, 1982).
</P>
<P>(2) The window-period begins on:
</P>
<P>(i) The date a state adopted a law (by means of a constitutional provision or statute) prohibiting the unrestricted exercise of due-on-sale clauses upon outright transfers of property securing loans subject to the state law creating the window-period, or the effective date of a constitutional or statutory provision so adopted, whichever is later; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the highest court of the state rendered a decision prohibiting such unrestricted exercise (or if the highest court has not so decided, the date on which the next highest appellate court rendered a decision resulting in a final judgment which applies statewide), and ends on the earlier of the date such state law prohibition terminated under state law or October 15, 1982.
</P>
<P>(3) Categories of state law which create window-periods by prohibiting the unrestricted exercise of due-on-sale clauses upon outright transfers of property securing loans subject to such state law restrictions include laws or judicial decisions which permit the lender to exercise its option under a due-on-sale clause only where:
</P>
<P>(i) The lender's security interest or the likelihood of repayment is impaired; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The lender is required to accept an assumption of the existing loan without an interest-rate change or with an interest-rate change below the market interest rate currently being offered by the lender on similar loans secured by similar property at the time of the transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.3" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.3   Loans originated by Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With regard to any real property loan originated or to be originated by a Federal savings association, as a matter of contract between it and the borrower, a Federal savings association continues to have the power to include a due-on-sale clause in its loan instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in § 191.5 of this part with respect to any such loan made on the security of a home occupied or to be occupied by the borrower, exercise by any lender of a due-on-sale clause in a loan originated by a Federal savings association shall be exclusively governed by the terms of the loan contract, and all rights and remedies of the lender and borrower shall at all times be fixed and governed by that contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.4" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.4   Loans originated by lenders other than Federal savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With regard to any real property loan originated by a lender other than a Federal savings association, as a matter of contract between it and the borrower, the lender has the power to include a due on sale clause in its loan instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section and § 191.5 of this part, the exercise of due-on-sale clauses in loans originated by lenders other than Federal savings associations shall be governed exclusively by the terms of the loan contract, and all rights and remedies of the lender and the borrower shall be fixed and governed by that contract.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In the case of a window-period loan, the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section shall apply only in the case of a sale or transfer of the property subject to the real property loan and only if such sale or transfer occurs on or after October 15, 1985: <I>Provided,</I> That:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to real property loans originated in a state by lenders other than national banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal credit unions, a state may otherwise regulate such contracts by state law enacted prior to October 16, 1985, in which case paragraph (b) of this section shall apply only if such state law so provides; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to real property loans originated by national banks and Federal credit unions, the OCC or the National Credit Union Administration Board, respectively, may otherwise regulate such contracts by regulations promulgated prior to October 16, 1985, in which case paragraph (b) of this section shall apply only if such regulation so provides.
</P>
<P>(2) A lender may not exercise its options pursuant to a due-on-sale clause contained in a window-period loan in the case of a sale or transfer of property securing such loan where the sale or transfer occurred prior to October 15, 1982.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Prior to the sale or transfer of property securing a window-period loan subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Any lender in the business of making real property loans may require any successor or transferee of the borrower to supply credit information customarily required by the lender in connection with credit applications, to complete its customary credit application, and to meet customary credit standards applied by such lender, at the date of sale or transfer, to the lender's similar loans secured by similar property.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any lender not in the business of making loans may require any successor or transferee of the borrower to meet credit standards customarily applied by other similarly situated lenders or sellers in the geographic market within which the transaction occurs, for similar loans secured by similar property, prior to the lender's consent to the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) The lender may exercise a due-on-sale clause in a window-period loan if:
</P>
<P>(i) The successor or transferee of the borrower fails to meet the lender's credit standards as set forth in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon transfer of the security property and not later than fifteen days after written request by the lender, the successor or transferee of the borrower fails to provide information requested by the lender pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section, to determine whether such successor or transferee of the borrower meets the lender's customary credit standards.
</P>
<P>(3) The lender shall, within thirty days of receipt of a completed credit application and any other related information provided by the successor or transferee of the borrower, determine whether such successor or transferee meets the customary credit standards of the lender and provide written notice to the successor or transferee of its decision, and the reasons in the event of a disapproval. Failure of the lender to provide such notice shall preclude the lender from exercise of its due-on-sale clause upon the sale or transfer of the property securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) The lender's right to exercise a due-on-sale clause pursuant to this paragraph (d)(4) is in addition to any other rights afforded the lender by state law regulating window-period loans with regard to the exercise of due-on-sale clauses and loan assumptions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.5   Limitation on exercise of due-on-sale clauses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in § 191.4(c) and (d)(4) of this part, due-on-sale practices of Federal savings associations and other lenders shall be governed exclusively by the OCC's regulations, in preemption of and without regard to any limitations imposed by state law on either their inclusion or exercise including, without limitation, state law prohibitions against restraints on alienation, prohibitions against penalties and forfeitures, equitable restrictions and state law dealing with equitable transfers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific limitations.</I> With respect to any loan on the security of a home occupied or to be occupied by the borrower,
</P>
<P>(1) A lender shall not (except with regard to a reverse mortgage) exercise its option pursuant to a due-on-sale clause upon:
</P>
<P>(i) The creation of a lien or other encumbrance subordinate to the lender's security instrument which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property: <I>Provided,</I> That such lien or encumbrance is not created pursuant to a contract for deed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creation of a purchase-money security interest for household appliances;
</P>
<P>(iii) A transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety;
</P>
<P>(iv) The granting of a leasehold interest which has a term of three years or less and which does not contain an option to purchase (that is, either a lease of more than three years or a lease with an option to purchase will allow the exercise of a due-on-sale clause);
</P>
<P>(v) A transfer, in which the transferee is a person who occupies or will occupy the property, which is:
</P>
<P>(A) A transfer to a relative resulting from the death of the borrower;
</P>
<P>(B) A transfer where the spouse or child(ren) becomes an owner of the property; or
</P>
<P>(C) A transfer resulting from a decree of dissolution of marriage, legal separation agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement by which the spouse becomes an owner of the property; or
</P>
<P>(vi) A transfer into an inter vivos trust in which the borrower is and remains the beneficiary and occupant of the property, unless, as a condition precedent to such transfer, the borrower refuses to provide the lender with reasonable means acceptable to the lender by which the lender will be assured of timely notice of any subsequent transfer of the beneficial interest or change in occupancy.
</P>
<P>(2) A lender shall not impose a prepayment penalty or equivalent fee when the lender or party acting on behalf of the lender.
</P>
<P>(i) Declares by written notice that the loan is due pursuant to a due-on-sale clause or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commences a judicial or nonjudicial foreclosure proceeding to enforce a due-on-sale clause or to seek payment in full as a result of invoking such clause.
</P>
<P>(3) A lender shall not impose a prepayment penalty or equivalent fee when the lender or party acting on behalf of the lender fails to approve within 30 days the completed credit application of a qualified transferee of the security property to assume the loan in accordance with the terms of the loan, and thereafter the borrower transfers the security property to such transferee and prepays the loan in full within 120 days after receipt by the lender of the completed credit application. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), a <I>qualified transferee</I> is a person who qualifies for the loan under the lender's applicable underwriting standards and who occupies or will occupy the security property.
</P>
<P>(4) A lender waives its option to exercise a due-on-sale clause as to a specific transfer if, before the transfer, the lender and the existing borrower's prospective successor in interest agree in writing that the successor in interest will be obligated under the terms of the loan and that interest on sums secured by the lender's security interest will be payable at a rate the lender shall request. Upon such agreement and resultant waiver, a lender shall release the existing borrower from all obligations under the loan instruments, and the lender is deemed to have made a new loan to the existing borrower's successor in interest. The waiver and release apply to all loans secured by homes occupied by borrowers made by a Federal savings association after July 31, 1976, and to all loans secured by homes occupied by borrowers made by other lenders after the effective date of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be construed to restrict a lender's right to enforce a due-on-sale clause upon the subsequent occurrence of any event which disqualifies a transfer for a previously-applicable exception under that paragraph (b)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policy considerations.</I> Paragraph (b) of this section does not prohibit a lender from requiring, as a condition to an assumption, continued maintenance of mortgage insurance by the existing borrower's successor in interest, whether by endorsement of the existing policy or by entrance into a new contract of insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 191.6" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.77.0.49.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 191.6   Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>The OCC periodically will publish Interpretations under section 341 of the Garn-St Germain Depository Institutions Act of 1982, Public Law 97-320, 96 Stat. 1469, 1505-1507, in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in response to written requests sent to the OCC.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="192" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 192—CONVERSIONS FROM MUTUAL TO STOCK FORM


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467a, 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 5412(b)(2)(B); 15 U.S.C. 78c, 78<I>l</I>, 78m, 78n, 78w.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 192.5" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.5   Purpose, prescribed forms, waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part governs how a savings association may convert from the mutual to the stock form of ownership. Subpart A of this part governs standard mutual-to-stock conversions. Subpart B of this part governs voluntary supervisory mutual-to-stock conversions. This part supersedes all inconsistent charter and bylaw provisions of Federal savings associations converting to stock form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prescribed forms.</I> A savings association must use the forms prescribed under this part and part 16 and provide such information as the appropriate Federal banking agency may require under the forms and by regulation. The forms required under this part include: Form AC (Application for Conversion); Form PS (Proxy Statement); Form OC (Offering Circular); Form OF (Order Form); and the applicable form for a registration statement under 12 CFR 16.15. Forms AC, PS, OC, and OF are available on the website of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) at <I>http://www.occ.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may waive any requirement of this part or a provision in any prescribed form. To obtain a waiver, a savings association must file a written request with the appropriate Federal banking agency that:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifies the requirement(s) or provision(s) the savings association wants the appropriate Federal banking agency to waive;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrates that the waiver is equitable; is not detrimental to the savings association, its account holders, or other savings associations; and is not contrary to the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes an opinion of counsel demonstrating that applicable law does not conflict with the waiver of the requirement or provision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial statements.</I> The form and content of financial statements and related financial data in a filing under this part must be prepared and presented in accordance with U. S. generally accepted accounting principles and other applicable accounting guidance and requirements as specified by the OCC in the forms required under paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.7" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.7   Electronic filing.</HEAD>
<P>For Federal savings associations, the OCC encourages the electronic filing of all applications, notices, or other documents required by this part through <I>http://www.banknet.gov/</I>. The Comptroller's Licensing Manual describes the OCC's electronic filing procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.8" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.8   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>In computing the period of days, the OCC excludes the day of the act or event (<I>e.g.,</I> the date an application is received by the OCC) from when the period begins to run. When the last day of a time period is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the time period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.10" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.10   Forming a holding company upon conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may convert to the stock form of ownership as part of a transaction where the savings association organizes a holding company to acquire all of the savings association's shares upon their issuance. In this transaction, the savings association's holding company will offer rights to purchase its shares instead of the savings association's shares. Regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System address holding company application requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.15" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.15   Forming a charitable organization upon conversion.</HEAD>
<P>When a savings association converts to the stock form, it may form a charitable organization. A savings association's contributions to the charitable organization are governed by the requirements of §§ 192.550 through 192.575.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.20" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.20   Acquiring another insured depository institution upon conversion.</HEAD>
<P>When a savings association converts to stock form, it may acquire for cash or stock another insured depository institution that is already in the stock form of ownership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.25" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.0.69.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.25   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part and the forms prescribed under this part:
</P>
<P><I>Acting in concert</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 5.50(d)(2). The rebuttable presumptions of 12 CFR 5.50(f)(2), other than 12 CFR 5.50(f)(2)(ii)(A) and (B), apply to the share purchase limitations at §§ 192.355 through 192.395.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate of,</I> or a person <I>affiliated with,</I> a specified person is a person that directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the specified person.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> means appropriate Federal banking agency as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P><I>Associate</I> of a person is:
</P>
<P>(1) A corporation or organization (other than a savings association or its majority-owned subsidiaries), if the person is a senior officer or partner, or beneficially owns, directly or indirectly, 10 percent or more of any class of equity securities of the corporation or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) A trust or other estate, if the person has a substantial beneficial interest in the trust or estate or is a trustee or fiduciary of the trust or estate. For purposes of §§ 192.370 through 192.395 and 192.505, a person who has a substantial beneficial interest in a savings association's tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan, or who is a trustee or a fiduciary of the plan, is not an associate of the plan. For the purposes of § 192.370, a savings association's tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan is not an associate of a person.
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who is related by blood or marriage to such person and:
</P>
<P>(i) Who lives in the same home as the person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who is the savings association's director or senior officer, or a director or senior officer of the savings association's holding company or its subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Association members</I> or <I>members</I> are persons who, under applicable law, are eligible to vote at the meeting on conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Community offering</I> means the offer to sell to the members of the general public in the savings association's community the securities not subscribed for in the subscription offering. The community offering may occur concurrently with the subscription offering and any syndicated community offering, or upon conclusion of the subscription offering.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> (including <I>controlling, controlled by,</I> and <I>under common control with</I>) means the direct or indirect power to direct or exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise as described in 12 CFR 5.50.
</P>
<P><I>Demand accounts</I> means non-interest-bearing demand deposits that are subject to check or to withdrawal or transfer on negotiable or transferable order to the savings association and that are permitted to be issued by statute, regulation, or otherwise and are payable on demand.
</P>
<P><I>Eligibility record date</I> is the date for determining eligible account holders. The eligibility record date must be at least one year before the date a savings association's board of directors adopts the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible account holders</I> are any persons holding qualifying deposits on the eligibility record date.
</P>
<P><I>Federal savings association</I> means a Federal savings association or Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1464).
</P>
<P><I>IRS</I> is the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P><I>Local community</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Every county, parish, or similar governmental subdivision in which a savings association has a home or branch office;
</P>
<P>(2) Each county's, parish's, or subdivision's metropolitan statistical area;
</P>
<P>(3) All zip code areas in a savings association's Community Reinvestment Act assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other area or category that a savings association sets out in its plan of conversion, as approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P><I>Offer, offer to sell,</I> or <I>offer for sale</I> is an attempt or offer to dispose of, or a solicitation of an offer to buy, a security or interest in a security for value. Preliminary negotiations or agreements with an underwriter, or among underwriters who are or will be in privity of contract with a savings association, are not offers, offers to sell, or offers for sale.
</P>
<P><I>Offering circular</I> means the securities offering materials for the conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> is an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint-stock company, a limited liability company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, or a government or political subdivision of a government.
</P>
<P><I>Proxy soliciting material</I> includes a proxy statement, form of proxy, or other written or oral communication regarding the conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase</I> or <I>buy</I> includes every contract to acquire a security or interest in a security for value.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying deposit</I> is the total balance in an account holder's savings accounts at the close of business on the eligibility or supplemental eligibility record date. A savings association's plan of conversion may provide that only savings accounts with total deposit balances of $50 or more will qualify.
</P>
<P><I>Sale</I> or <I>sell</I> includes every contract to dispose of a security or interest in a security for value. An exchange of securities in a merger or acquisition approved by the appropriate Federal banking agency is not a sale.
</P>
<P><I>Savings account</I> means any withdrawable account, including a demand account, except this term does not mean a tax and loan account, a note account, a United States Treasury general account, or a United States Treasury time deposit-open account.
</P>
<P><I>Savings association</I> means a savings association as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)).
</P>
<P><I>Solicitation</I> and <I>solicit</I> is a request for a proxy, whether or not accompanied by or included in a form of proxy; a request to execute, not execute, or revoke a proxy; or the furnishing of a form of proxy or other communication reasonably calculated to cause a savings association's members to procure, withhold, or revoke a proxy. Solicitation or solicit does not include providing a form of proxy at the unsolicited request of a member, the acts required to mail communications for members, or ministerial acts performed on behalf of a person soliciting a proxy.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State savings association</I> means a State savings association as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Subscription offering</I> is the offering of shares through nontransferable subscription rights to:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible account holders under § 192.355;
</P>
<P>(2) Tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans under § 192.380;
</P>
<P>(3) Supplemental eligible account holders under § 192.355; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other voting members under § 192.365.
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental eligibility record date</I> is the date for determining supplemental eligible account holders. The supplemental eligibility record date is the last day of the calendar quarter before the appropriate Federal banking agency approves a savings association's conversion and will only occur if such agency has not approved such conversion within 15 months after the eligibility record date.
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental eligible account holders</I> are any persons, except a savings association's officers, directors, and their associates, holding qualifying deposits on the supplemental eligibility record date.
</P>
<P><I>Tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan</I> is any defined benefit plan or defined contribution plan, such as an employee stock ownership plan, stock bonus plan, profit-sharing plan, or other plan, and a related trust, that is qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401).
</P>
<P><I>Underwriter</I> is any person who purchases any securities from a savings association with a view to distributing the securities, offers or sells securities for a savings association in connection with the securities' distribution, or participates or has a direct or indirect participation in the direct or indirect underwriting of any such undertaking. Underwriter does not include a person whose interest is limited to a usual and customary distributor's or seller's commission from an underwriter or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Voluntary supervisory conversion</I> is a mutual to stock conversion for a savings association that is unable to complete a standard mutual to stock conversion under part 192, subpart A, and that meets the eligibility requirements of § 192.625.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Standard Conversions</HEAD>


<DIV7 N="69" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Prior to Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.100" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.100   Preparing for a conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Meeting with appropriate Federal banking agency prior to passing plan.</I> A savings association's board, or a subcommittee of its board, must meet, in person or electronically, with the appropriate Federal banking agency before the savings association passes its plan of conversion. At this meeting the savings association must provide the appropriate Federal banking agency with a written strategic plan that outlines the objectives of the proposed conversion and the intended use of the conversion proceeds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultation with appropriate Federal banking agency before filing application.</I> A savings association also should consult with the appropriate Federal banking agency before filing its application for conversion. The appropriate Federal banking agency will discuss the information that the savings association must include in the application for conversion, general issues that it may confront in the conversion process, and any other pertinent issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.105" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.105   Information required in business plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum requirements.</I> Prior to filing an application for conversion, a savings association must adopt a business plan reflecting its intended plans for deployment of the proposed conversion proceeds. The savings association's business plan is required, under § 192.150, to be included in its application for conversion. At a minimum, the business plan must address:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association's projected operations and activities for three years following the conversion. These projections must include how the savings association will accomplish the following by the final year of the business plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Deploy the conversion proceeds at the converted savings association (and holding company, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) What opportunities are available to reasonably achieve its planned deployment of conversion proceeds in the proposed market areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) How the deployment will provide a reasonable return on investment commensurate with investment risk, investor expectations, and industry norms. The savings association must include three years of projected financial statements. The business plan must provide that the converted savings association must retain at least 50 percent of the net conversion proceeds. The appropriate Federal banking agency may require that a larger percentage of proceeds remain in the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association's plan for deploying conversion proceeds to meet credit and lending needs in the proposed market areas. The appropriate Federal banking agencies strongly discourage business plans that provide for a substantial investment in mortgage securities or other securities, except as an interim measure to facilitate orderly, prudent deployment of proceeds during the three years following the conversion or as part of a properly managed leverage strategy.
</P>
<P>(3) The risks associated with the savings association's plan for deployment of conversion proceeds, and the effect of this plan on management resources, staffing, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(4) The expertise of the savings association's management and board of directors, or plans for adequate staffing and controls to prudently manage the growth, expansion, new investment, and other operations and activities proposed in the business plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited information.</I> The savings association may not project returns of capital or special dividends in any part of the business plan. A newly converted company may not plan on stock repurchases in the first year of the business plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.110" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.110   Review of business plan by chief executive officer and board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review and approval.</I> A savings association's chief executive officer and members of the board of directors must review, and at least two-thirds of the board of directors must approve, the business plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification.</I> A savings association's chief executive officer and at least two-thirds of the board of directors must certify that the business plan accurately reflects the intended plans for deployment of conversion proceeds, and that any new initiatives reflected in the business plan are reasonably achievable. The savings association must submit these certifications with its business plan, as part of its application for conversion under § 192.150.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.115" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.115   Review of business plan by the appropriate Federal banking agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the savings association's business plan to determine that it demonstrates a safe and sound deployment of conversion proceeds, as part of its review of the application for conversion. In making its determination, the appropriate Federal banking agency will consider how the savings association has addressed the applicable factors of § 192.105. No single factor will be determinative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of business plan.</I> A savings association must file its business plan as a separate confidential exhibit to the Form AC with the appropriate OCC licensing office if it is a Federal savings association, or with the appropriate Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) region if it is a State savings association. The appropriate Federal banking agency may request additional information, if necessary, to support its determination under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operation within business plan.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency approves a savings association's application for conversion and the conversion is completed, the savings association must operate within the parameters of its business plan. The savings association must obtain the prior written approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency for any material deviations from its business plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.120" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.69.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.120   Confidentiality of conversion information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted disclosure.</I> A savings association may discuss information about its conversion with individuals that the savings association authorizes to prepare documents for its conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential information.</I> Except as permitted under paragraph (a) of this section, a savings association must keep all information about its conversion confidential until its board of directors adopts the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations of confidentiality.</I> If a savings association violates this section, the appropriate Federal banking agency may require the savings association to take remedial action. For example, the appropriate Federal banking agency may require the savings association to take any or all of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Publicly announce that the savings association is considering a conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) Set an eligibility record date acceptable to the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Limit the subscription rights of any person who violates or aids a violation of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other action to assure that the conversion is fair and equitable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="70" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.70" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Plan of Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.125" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.70.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.125   Adoption of plan of conversion by board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to filing an application for conversion, a savings association's board of directors must adopt a plan of conversion that conforms to §§ 192.320 through 192.485 and 192.505. The savings association's board of directors must adopt the plan by at least a two-thirds vote. Pursuant to § 192.150, the savings association must include the plan of conversion in the application for conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.130" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.70.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.130   Information required in plan of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must include the information included in §§ 192.320 through 192.485 and 192.505 in its plan of conversion. The appropriate Federal banking agency may require the savings association to delete or revise any provision in its plan of conversion if it determines the provision is inequitable; is detrimental to the savings association, its account holders, or other savings associations; or is contrary to public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.135" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.70.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.135   Notifying members of adopted plan of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> A savings association must promptly notify its members that the board of directors adopted a plan of conversion and that a copy of the plan is available for the members' inspection in the savings association's home office and in its branch offices. The savings association must provide this notice by sending to each member a letter, through the mail or electronically if the member receives electronic communication, or by publishing a notice in the local newspaper in every local community where the savings association has an office. The savings association also may issue a press release and may make this notice available on its website. The appropriate Federal banking agency may require broader publication, if necessary, to ensure adequate notice to the savings association's members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The savings association may include only the following statements and descriptions in the letter, notice, or press release.
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association's board of directors adopted a proposed plan to convert from a mutual to a stock savings institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association will send its members a proxy statement with detailed information on the proposed conversion before the savings association convenes a members' meeting to vote on the conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) The savings association's members will have an opportunity to approve or disapprove the proposed conversion at a meeting. A majority of the eligible votes must approve the conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) The savings association will not vote existing proxies to approve or disapprove the conversion. The savings association will solicit new proxies for voting on the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>(5) The appropriate Federal banking agency, and in the case of a State-chartered savings association, the appropriate State regulator, must approve the conversion before the conversion will be effective. The savings association's members will have an opportunity to file written comments, including objections and materials supporting the objections, with the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(6) The IRS must issue a favorable tax ruling, or a tax expert must issue an appropriate tax opinion, on the tax consequences of the savings association's conversion before the appropriate Federal banking agency will approve the conversion. The ruling or opinion must indicate the conversion will be a tax-free reorganization.
</P>
<P>(7) The appropriate Federal banking agency, and in the case of a State-chartered savings association, the appropriate State regulator, might not approve the conversion, and the IRS or a tax expert might not issue a favorable tax ruling or tax opinion.
</P>
<P>(8) Savings account holders will continue to hold accounts in the converted savings association with the same dollar amounts, rates of return, and general terms as existing deposits. The FDIC will continue to insure the accounts.
</P>
<P>(9) The savings association's conversion will not affect borrowers' loans, including the amount, rate, maturity, security, and other contractual terms.
</P>
<P>(10) The savings association's business of accepting deposits and making loans will continue without interruption.
</P>
<P>(11) The savings association's current management and staff will continue to conduct current services for depositors and borrowers under current policies and in existing offices.
</P>
<P>(12) The savings association may substantively amend its proposed plan of conversion before the members' meeting.
</P>
<P>(13) The savings association may terminate the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>(14) After the appropriate Federal banking agency, and in the case of a State-chartered savings association, the appropriate State regulator, approves the proposed conversion, the savings association will send proxy materials providing additional information. After the savings association sends proxy materials, members may telephone or write to the savings association with additional questions.
</P>
<P>(15) The proposed record date for determining the eligible account holders who are entitled to receive subscription rights to purchase the savings association's shares.
</P>
<P>(16) A brief description of the circumstances under which supplemental eligible account holders will receive subscription rights to purchase the savings association's shares.
</P>
<P>(17) A brief description of how voting members may participate in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(18) A brief description of how directors, officers, and employees will participate in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(19) A brief description of the proposed plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(20) The par value (if any) and approximate number of shares the savings association will issue and sell in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> (1) The savings association may not solicit proxies, provide financial statements, describe the benefits of conversion, or estimate the value of its shares upon conversion in the letter, notice, or press release.
</P>
<P>(2) If the savings association responds to inquiries about the conversion, it may address only the matters listed in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.140" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.70.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.140   Amendments to plan of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may amend its plan of conversion before it solicits proxies. After the savings association solicits proxies, it may amend the plan of conversion only if the appropriate Federal banking agency concurs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="71" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.71" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Filing Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.150" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.71.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.150   Information required in an application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> A savings association's application for conversion must include all of the following information.
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association's plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) Pricing materials meeting the requirements of § 192.200(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Proxy soliciting materials under § 192.270, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A preliminary proxy statement with signed financial statements;
</P>
<P>(ii) A form of proxy meeting the requirements of § 192.255; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional proxy soliciting materials, including press releases, personal solicitation instructions, radio or television scripts that the savings association plans to use or furnish to its members, and a legal opinion indicating that any marketing materials comply with all applicable securities laws.
</P>
<P>(4) An offering circular described in § 192.300.
</P>
<P>(5) The documents and information required by Form AC. The savings association may obtain Form AC from the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(6) Where indicated, written consents, signed and dated, of any accountant, attorney, investment banker, appraiser, or other professional who prepared, reviewed, passed upon, or certified any statement, report, or valuation for use. <I>See</I> Form AC, instructions.
</P>
<P>(7) The savings association's business plan, submitted as a separately bound, confidential exhibit. <I>See</I> § 192.160.
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional information that the appropriate Federal banking agency requests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rejection of filing.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will not accept for filing, and may return, any application for conversion that is executed improperly, materially deficient, substantially incomplete, or that provides for unreasonable conversion expenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.155" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.71.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.155   Filing an application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal savings association must file Form AC with the appropriate OCC licensing office. A State savings association must file its application with the appropriate FDIC region.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.160" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.71.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.160   Request for confidential treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency makes all filings under this part available to the public, but may keep portions of the application for conversion confidential under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests for confidential treatment.</I> A savings association may request that the appropriate Federal banking agency keep portions of the savings association's application confidential. To make this request, the savings association must clearly designate as “confidential” any portion of its application for conversion that it deems confidential. The savings association must provide a written statement specifying the grounds supporting its request for confidentiality. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not treat as confidential the portion of a savings association's application describing how it plans to meet Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) objectives. The CRA portion of a savings association's application may not incorporate by reference information contained in the confidential portion of the application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of confidential treatment.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will determine whether confidential information must be made available to the public under 5 U.S.C. 552 and 12 CFR part 4 or 12 CFR part 309, as appropriate. The appropriate Federal banking agency will advise the savings association before it makes information designated as “confidential” available to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.165" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.71.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.165   Amendments to an application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>To amend its application for conversion, a savings association must:
</P>
<P>(a) File an amendment with an appropriate facing sheet;
</P>
<P>(b) Number each amendment consecutively;
</P>
<P>(c) Respond to all issues raised by the appropriate Federal banking agency; and
</P>
<P>(d) Demonstrate that the amendment conforms to all applicable regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="72" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.72" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Notice of Filing of Application and Comment Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.180" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.72.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.180   Public notice of an application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A Federal savings association must publish a public notice of the application in accordance with the procedures in 12 CFR 5.8. The Federal savings association must simultaneously prominently post the notice in its home office and all branch offices and may also make this notice available on its website.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional notice.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency does not accept a savings association's application for conversion under § 192.200 and requires the savings association to file a new application, the savings association must publish and post a new notice and allow an additional 30 calendar days for comment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.185" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.72.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.185   Public comment on application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>Commenters may submit comments on a Federal savings association's application in accordance with the procedures in 12 CFR 5.10.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="73" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.73" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Agency Review of the Application for Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.200" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.73.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.200   Review, approval, or denial of application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for review of application.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may approve an application for conversion only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The conversion complies with this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association will meet its regulatory capital requirements under 12 CFR part 3 or part 324, as applicable, after the conversion; and
</P>
<P>(3) The conversion will not result in a taxable reorganization under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for review of appraisal.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the appraisal required by § 192.150(a)(2) in determining whether to approve the application. The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the appraisal under the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) Independent persons experienced and expert in corporate appraisal, and acceptable to the appropriate Federal banking agency, must prepare the appraisal report.
</P>
<P>(2) An affiliate of the appraiser may serve as an underwriter or selling agent, if the savings association ensures that the appraiser is separate from the underwriter or selling agent affiliate and the underwriter or selling agent affiliate does not make recommendations or affect the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(3) The appraiser may not receive any fee in connection with the conversion other than for appraisal services.
</P>
<P>(4) The appraisal report must include a complete and detailed description of the elements of the appraisal, a justification for the appraisal methodology, and sufficient support for the conclusions.
</P>
<P>(5) If the appraisal is based on a capitalization of the savings association's pro forma income, it must indicate the basis for determining the income to be derived from the sale of shares, and demonstrate that the earnings multiple used is appropriate, including future earnings growth assumptions.
</P>
<P>(6) If the appraisal is based on a comparison of the savings association's shares with outstanding shares of existing stock associations, the existing stock associations must be reasonably comparable in size, market area, competitive conditions, risk profile, profit history, and expected future earnings.
</P>
<P>(7) The appropriate Federal banking agency may decline to process the application for conversion and deem it materially deficient or substantially incomplete if the initial appraisal report is materially deficient or substantially incomplete.
</P>
<P>(8) A savings association may not represent or imply that the appropriate Federal banking agency approved the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance with the Community Reinvestment Act.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the savings association's compliance record under 12 CFR part 25 and its business plan to determine how the savings association will serve the convenience and needs of its communities after the conversion.
</P>
<P>(1) Based on this review, the appropriate Federal banking agency may approve the application, deny the application, or approve the application on the condition that the savings association will improve its CRA performance or that the savings association will address the particular credit or lending needs of the communities that it will serve.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal banking agency may deny the application if the savings association's business plan does not demonstrate that its proposed use of conversion proceeds will help the savings association to meet the credit and lending needs of the communities that it will serve.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may request that a savings association amend its application if further explanation is necessary, material is missing, or material needs correction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of application.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will deny an application if the application does not meet the requirements of this subpart, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency waives the requirement under § 192.5(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 42643, July 14, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.205" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.73.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.205   Court review of final action on application for conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any person aggrieved by the appropriate Federal banking agency's final action on a savings association's application for conversion may ask the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the principal office or residence of such person is located, or the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, to review the action under 12 U.S.C. 1464(i)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing procedures.</I> To obtain court review of the action, this statute requires the aggrieved person to file a written petition requesting that the court modify, terminate, or set aside the final appropriate Federal banking agency action. The aggrieved person must file the petition with the court within the later of 30 calendar days after the appropriate Federal agency publishes notice of its final action in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or 30 calendar days after the savings association mails the proxy statement to its members under § 192.235.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="74" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.74" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Vote by Members</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.225" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.74.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.225   Approval of plan of conversion by members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> After the appropriate Federal banking agency approves a plan of conversion, the savings association must submit the plan of conversion to its members for approval. The savings association must obtain this approval at a meeting of its members, which may be a special or annual meeting, unless the savings association is State-chartered and State law requires approval via an annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval.</I> The savings association's members must approve the plan of conversion by a majority of the total outstanding votes, unless the savings association is State-chartered and State law prescribes a higher percentage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting method.</I> Savings association members may vote in person or by proxy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification to non-voting members.</I> The savings association may notify eligible account holders or supplemental eligible account holders who are not voting members of its proposed conversion. The savings association may include only the information in § 192.135 in its notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.230" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.74.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.230   Members' voting eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association determines members' eligibility to vote by setting a voting record date. The savings association must set a voting record date that is not more than 60 calendar days nor less than 20 calendar days before its meeting, unless the savings association is State-chartered and State law requires a different voting record date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.235" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.74.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.235   Notice of members' meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must notify its members of the meeting to consider its conversion by sending the members a proxy statement cleared by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The savings association must notify its members 20 to 45 calendar days before the meeting, unless the savings association is State-chartered and State law requires a different notice period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to beneficial account holders.</I> The savings association must also notify each beneficial holder of an account held in a fiduciary capacity:
</P>
<P>(1) If the savings association is a Federal savings association, and the name of the beneficial holder is disclosed on the savings association's records; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the savings association is a State-chartered savings association and the beneficial holder possesses voting rights under State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.240" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.74.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.240   Submission of documents to the appropriate Federal banking agency after the members' meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filings after members' meeting.</I> Promptly after the members' meeting, a savings association must file all of the following information with the appropriate OCC licensing office, if the savings association is Federally-chartered, and with the appropriate FDIC region if the savings association is State-chartered.
</P>
<P>(1) A certified copy of each adopted resolution on the conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) The total votes eligible to be cast.
</P>
<P>(3) The total votes represented in person or by proxy.
</P>
<P>(4) The total votes cast in favor of and against each matter.
</P>
<P>(5) The percentage of votes necessary to approve each matter.
</P>
<P>(6) An opinion of counsel that the savings association conducted the members' meeting in compliance with all applicable State or Federal laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing after conversion.</I> Promptly after completion of the conversion, the savings association must submit an opinion of counsel that it complied with all laws applicable to the conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="75" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Proxy Solicitation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.250" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.250   Compliance with proxy solicitation provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Savings association compliance.</I> A savings association must comply with these proxy solicitation provisions when it provides proxy solicitation material to members for the meeting to vote on the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member compliance.</I> Members of the savings association must comply with these proxy solicitation provisions when they provide proxy solicitation materials to members for the meeting to vote on the conversion, pursuant to § 192.280, except where:
</P>
<P>(1) The member solicits 50 people or fewer and does not solicit proxies on the savings association's behalf; or
</P>
<P>(2) The member solicits proxies through newspaper advertisements after the savings association's board of directors adopts the plan of conversion. Any newspaper advertisements may include only the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reason for the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposal or proposals to be voted upon;
</P>
<P>(iv) Where a member may obtain a copy of the proxy solicitation material; and
</P>
<P>(v) A request for the savings association's members to vote at the meeting.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.255" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.255   Form of proxy requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The form of proxy must include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A statement in bold face type stating that management is soliciting the proxy.
</P>
<P>(b) Blank spaces where the member must date and sign the proxy.
</P>
<P>(c) Clear and impartial identification of each matter or group of related matters that members will vote upon. The savings association must include any proposed charitable contribution as an item to be voted on separately.
</P>
<P>(d) The phrase “Revocable Proxy” in bold face type (at least 18 point).
</P>
<P>(e) A description of any charter or State law requirement that restricts or conditions votes by proxy.
</P>
<P>(f) An acknowledgment that the member received a proxy statement before he or she signed the form of proxy.
</P>
<P>(g) The date, time, and the place of the meeting, when available.
</P>
<P>(h) A way for the member to specify by ballot whether he or she approves or disapproves of each matter that members will vote upon.
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that management will vote the proxy in accordance with the member's specifications.
</P>
<P>(j) A statement in bold face type indicating how management will vote the proxy if the member does not specify a choice for a matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.260" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.260   Previously executed proxies.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may not use previously executed proxies for the plan of conversion vote. If members consider the plan of conversion at an annual meeting, the savings association may vote proxies obtained through other proxy solicitations only on matters not related to the plan of conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.265" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.265   Proxies executed under this part.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may vote a proxy obtained under this part on matters that are incidental to the conduct of the meeting. The savings association may not vote a proxy obtained under this subpart at any meeting other than the meeting (or any adjournment of the meeting) to vote on the plan of conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.270" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.270   Proxy statement requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content requirements.</I> A savings association must prepare its proxy statement in compliance with this part and Form PS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other requirements.</I> (1) The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the proxy solicitation material when it reviews the application for conversion and will clear the proxy solicitation material.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association must provide a cleared written proxy statement to its members before or at the same time it provides any other soliciting material. The savings association must mail cleared proxy solicitation material to its members within 10 calendar days after the appropriate Federal banking agency clears the solicitation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.275" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.275   Filing revised proxy materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must file revised proxy solicitation materials as an amendment to its application for conversion. The proxy solicitation materials must be in the form in which it furnished the materials to its members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> To revise its proxy solicitation materials, the savings association must file:
</P>
<P>(1) Its revised proxy materials as required by Form PS;
</P>
<P>(2) Its revised form of proxy, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional proxy solicitation material subject to § 192.270; and
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the revised proxy solicitation materials marked to clearly indicate changes from the prior filing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When to file.</I> The savings association must file no later than the date that it sends or gives the proxy solicitation material to its members. The savings association must indicate the date that it will release the materials.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Material not required to be filed.</I> Unless requested by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the savings association does not have to file copies of replies to inquiries from its members or copies of communications that merely request members to sign and return proxy forms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.280" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.280   Mailing member's proxy solicitation materials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must mail the member's cleared proxy solicitation material if:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association's board of directors adopted a plan of conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) A member requests in writing that the savings association mail the proxy solicitation material;
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agency has cleared the member's proxy solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(4) The member agrees to defray the savings association's reasonable expenses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required information.</I> As soon as practicable after the savings association receives a request under paragraph (a) of this section, it must mail or otherwise furnish the following information to the member:
</P>
<P>(1) The approximate number of members that the savings association solicited or will solicit, or the approximate number of members of any group of account holders that the member designates; and
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated cost of mailing the proxy solicitation material for the member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> The savings association must mail cleared proxy solicitation material to the designated members promptly after the member furnishes the materials, envelopes (or other containers), and postage (or payment for postage) to the savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content.</I> The savings association is not responsible for the content of a member's proxy solicitation material.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sharing of proxy material.</I> A member may furnish other members its own proxy solicitation material, cleared by the appropriate Federal banking agency, subject to the rules in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.285" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.285   Prohibited solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>False or misleading statements.</I> (1) No one may use proxy solicitation material for the members' meeting if the material contains any statement which, considering the time and the circumstances of the statement:
</P>
<P>(i) Is false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) Omits any material fact that is necessary to make the statements not false or misleading; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Omits any material fact that is necessary to correct a statement in an earlier communication that has become false or misleading.
</P>
<P>(2) No one may represent or imply that the appropriate Federal banking agency determined that the proxy solicitation material is accurate, complete, not false or not misleading, or passed upon the merits of or approved any proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other prohibited solicitations.</I> No person may solicit:
</P>
<P>(1) An undated or post-dated proxy;
</P>
<P>(2) A proxy that states it will be dated after the date it is signed by a member;
</P>
<P>(3) A proxy that is not revocable at will by the member; or
</P>
<P>(4) A proxy that is part of another document or instrument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.290" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.290   Remedial measures for prohibited solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If a solicitation violates § 192.285, the appropriate Federal banking agency may require remedial measures, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Correction of the violation by a retraction and a new solicitation;
</P>
<P>(2) Rescheduling the members' meeting; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other actions necessary to ensure a fair vote.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other action.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency also may bring an enforcement action against the violator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.295" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.75.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.295   Re-solicitation of proxies.</HEAD>
<P>If a savings association amends its application for conversion, the appropriate Federal banking agency may require the savings association to re-solicit proxies for its members' meeting as a condition of approval of the amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="76" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.76" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Offering Circular</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.300" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.76.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.300   Offering circular requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content and filing requirements.</I> A savings association must prepare and file its offering circular in compliance with this part, Form OC, and the applicable SEC registration statement form required under 12 CFR 16.15. A Federal savings association must file its offering circular with the appropriate OCC licensing office and a State savings association must file its offering circular with the appropriate FDIC region. If filing an amendment, the savings association also must comply with §§ 192.155 and 192.165.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member approval.</I> A savings association must condition its stock offering upon member approval of its plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency review.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will review the offering circular and may comment on the included disclosures and financial statements. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not approve the adequacy or accuracy of the offering circular or the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revised filings.</I> A savings association must file any revised offering circular, final offering circular, and any post-effective amendment to the final offering circular in accordance with the procedures in §§ 192.155 and 192.165.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for effectiveness.</I> After a savings association satisfactorily addresses the appropriate Federal banking agency's comments, the savings association must request that the appropriate Federal banking agency declare the offering circular effective for a time period. The time period may not exceed the maximum time period for the completion of the sale of all of the savings association's shares under § 192.400.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.305" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.76.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.305   Distribution of offering circular.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary offering circular.</I> A savings association may distribute a preliminary offering circular at the same time as or after it mails the proxy statement to its members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Early distribution prohibited.</I> A savings association may not distribute a final offering circular for stock issued in the transaction until after the appropriate Federal banking agency declares the offering circular effective or the Securities and Exchange Commission declares the registration statement for the offering circular effective. The savings association must have the offering circular delivered in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective offering circular.</I> A savings association must distribute a final offering circular for stock issued in the transaction to persons listed in its plan of conversion within 10 calendar days after the appropriate Federal banking agency declares the offering circular effective or the Securities and Exchange Commission declares the registration statement for the offering circular effective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.310" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.76.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.310   Filing a post-effective amendment to an offering circular.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must file a post-effective amendment to the offering circular with the appropriate Federal banking agency or have its proposed stock holding company file a post-effective amendment to its registration statement for the offering circular with the Securities and Exchange Commission, when a material event or change of circumstances occurs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of delivery.</I> After the appropriate Federal banking agency or the Securities and Exchange Commission declares the post-effective amendment effective, the savings association must immediately have the amendment to the offering circular delivered to each person who subscribed for or ordered shares in the offering.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content.</I> The post-effective amendment must indicate that each person may increase, decrease, or rescind their subscription or order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Post-effective offering period.</I> The post-effective offering period must remain open no less than 10 calendar days nor more than 20 calendar days, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency approves a longer rescission period.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="77" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Offers and Sales of Stock</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.320" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.320   Order of priority to purchase conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must offer to sell its shares in the following order:
</P>
<P>(a) Eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(b) Tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans.
</P>
<P>(c) Supplemental eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(d) Other voting members who have subscription rights.
</P>
<P>(e) The savings association's community, its community and the general public, or the general public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.325" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.325   Timing of offer to sell conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association may offer to sell its conversion shares after the appropriate Federal banking agency approves the conversion, clears the proxy statement, and declares the offering circular effective.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> The offer may commence at the same time the savings association starts the proxy solicitation of its members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.330" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.330   Pricing of conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must sell its conversion shares at a uniform price per share and at a total price that is equal to the estimated pro forma market value of its shares after the conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum price.</I> The maximum price must be no more than 15 percent above the midpoint of the estimated price range in the savings association's offering circular.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum price.</I> The minimum price must be no more than 15 percent below the midpoint of the estimated price range in the savings association's offering circular.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Increase in price.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency permits, the savings association may increase the maximum price of conversion shares sold. The maximum price, as adjusted, must be no more than 15 percent above the maximum price computed under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Price range.</I> The maximum price must be between $5 and $50 per share.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inclusion in preliminary offering circular.</I> The savings association must include the estimated price in any preliminary offering circular.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.335" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.335   Procedures for the sale of conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Distribution of order forms.</I> A savings association must distribute order forms to all eligible account holders, supplemental eligible account holders, and other voting members to enable them to subscribe for the conversion shares they are permitted under the plan of conversion. The savings association may either send the order forms with its offering circular or after the savings association distributes its offering circular.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sale of shares.</I> A savings association may sell its conversion shares in a community offering, a public offering, or both. The savings association may begin the community offering, the public offering, or both at any time during the subscription offering or upon conclusion of the subscription offering.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting commissions and fees.</I> A savings association may pay underwriting commissions (including underwriting discounts). The appropriate Federal banking agency may object to the payment of unreasonable commissions. The savings association may reimburse an underwriter for accountable expenses in a subscription offering if the public offering is limited. If no public offering occurs, the savings association may pay an underwriter a consulting fee. The appropriate Federal banking agency may object to the payment of unreasonable consulting fees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sequence of order fulfillment.</I> If a savings association conducts the community offering, the public offering, or both at the same time as the subscription offering, the savings association must fill all subscription orders first.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preparation of order form.</I> A savings association must prepare its order form in compliance with this part and Form OF.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.340" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.340   Prohibited sales practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Offers, sales, or purchases of conversion shares.</I> In connection with offers, sales, or purchases of conversion shares under this part, a savings association and its directors, officers, agents, or employees may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Employ any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud;
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain money or property by means of any untrue statement of a material fact or any omission of a material fact necessary to make the statements, in light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading; or
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in any act, transaction, practice, or course of business that operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon a purchaser or seller.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conversion.</I> During the conversion, no person may:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfer, or enter into any agreement or understanding to transfer, the legal or beneficial ownership of subscription rights for the savings association's conversion shares or the underlying securities to the account of another;
</P>
<P>(2) Make any offer, or any announcement of an offer, to purchase any of the savings association's conversion shares from anyone but the savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly acquire more than the maximum purchase allowable under the savings association's plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> The restrictions in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to offers for more than 10 percent of any class of conversion shares by:
</P>
<P>(1) An underwriter or a selling group, acting on the savings association's behalf, that makes the offer with a view toward public resale; or
</P>
<P>(2) One or more of the savings association's tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans so long as the plan or plans do not beneficially own more than 25 percent of any class of the savings association's equity securities in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Violations.</I> Any person found to have violated the restrictions in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section may become subject to an enforcement action, civil money penalties, criminal prosecution, or other legal action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.345" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.345   Permissible forms of subscriber payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A subscriber may purchase conversion shares with cash, by a withdrawal from a savings account, or a withdrawal from a certificate of deposit. If a subscriber purchases shares by a withdrawal from a certificate of deposit, the savings association may not assess a penalty for the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition.</I> A savings association may not extend credit to any person to purchase the savings association's conversion shares.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.350" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.350   Interest on payments for conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must pay interest from the date the savings association receives a payment for conversion shares until the date the savings association completes or terminates the conversion. The savings association must pay interest at no less than its passbook rate for amounts paid in cash, check, or money order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest on withdrawals from savings accounts.</I> If a subscriber withdraws money from a savings account to purchase conversion shares, the savings association must pay interest on the payment until the savings association completes or terminates the conversion as if the withdrawn amount remained in the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest on withdrawals from certificates of deposit.</I> If a depositor fails to maintain the applicable minimum balance requirement because he or she withdraws money from a certificate of deposit to purchase conversion shares, the savings association may cancel the certificate and pay interest at no less than its passbook rate on any remaining balance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.355" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.355   Subscription rights for eligible account holders and supplemental eligible account holders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible account holders.</I> A savings association must give each eligible account holder subscription rights to purchase conversion shares in an amount equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The maximum purchase limitation established for the community offering or the public offering under § 192.395;
</P>
<P>(2) One-tenth of one percent of the total stock offering; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fifteen times the following number: The total number of conversion shares that the savings association will issue, multiplied by the following fraction. The numerator is the total qualifying deposit of the eligible account holder. The denominator is the total qualifying deposits of all eligible account holders. The savings association must round down the product of this multiplied fraction to the next whole number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplemental eligible account holders.</I> The savings association must give subscription rights to purchase shares to each supplemental eligible account holder in the same amount as described in paragraph (a) of this section, except that the savings association must compute the fraction described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section as follows: The numerator is the total qualifying deposit of the supplemental eligible account holder. The denominator is the total qualifying deposits of all supplemental eligible account holders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.360" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.360   Officers, directors, and associates as eligible account holders.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association's officers, directors, and their associates may be eligible account holders. However, if an officer, director, or his or her associate receives subscription rights based on increased deposits in the year before the eligibility record date, the savings association must subordinate subscription rights for these deposits to subscription rights exercised by other eligible account holders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.365" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.365   Purchase of conversion shares by other voting members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must give rights to purchase its conversion shares in the conversion to voting members who are neither eligible account holders nor supplemental eligible account holders. The savings association must allocate rights to each voting member that are equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The maximum purchase limitation established for the community offering and the public offering under § 192.395; or
</P>
<P>(2) One-tenth of one percent of the total stock offering.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subordination of voting rights.</I> The savings association must subordinate the voting members' rights to the rights of eligible account holders, tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans, and supplemental eligible account holders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.370" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.370   Limits on aggregate purchases by officers, directors, and associates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> When a savings association converts, its officers, directors, and their associates may not purchase, in the aggregate, more than the following percentage of the savings association's total stock offering:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 192.370(<E T="01">a</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Institution size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Officer and
<br/>director
<br/>purchases
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50,000,000 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50,000,001-100,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100,000,001-150,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$150,000,001-200,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$200,000,001-250,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$250,000,001-300,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$300,000,001-350,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$350,000,001-400,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$400,000,001-450,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$450,000,001-500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over $500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> The purchase limitations in this section do not apply to shares held in tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans that are attributable to the savings association's officers, directors, and their associates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.375" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.375   Allocation of oversubscribed conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible account holders.</I> If a savings association's conversion shares are oversubscribed by its eligible account holders, the savings association must allocate shares among the eligible account holders so that each, to the extent possible, may purchase 100 shares.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplemental eligible account holders.</I> If a savings association's conversion shares are oversubscribed by its supplemental eligible account holders, the savings association must allocate shares among the supplemental eligible account holders so that each, to the extent possible, may purchase 100 shares.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible and supplemental eligible account holders.</I> If a person is an eligible account holder and a supplemental eligible account holder, the savings association must include the eligible account holder's allocation in determining the number of conversion shares that the savings association may allocate to the person as a supplemental eligible account holder.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional allocations.</I> For conversion shares that the savings association does not allocate under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the savings association must allocate the shares among the eligible or supplemental eligible account holders equitably, based on the amounts of qualifying deposits. The savings association must describe this method of allocation in its plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oversubscription.</I> If shares remain after the savings association has allocated shares as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and if the savings association's voting members oversubscribe, the savings association must allocate its conversion shares among those members equitably. The savings association must describe the method of allocation in its plan of conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.380" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.380   Purchase of conversion shares by employee stock ownership plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association's tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan may purchase up to 10 percent of the total offering of the savings association's conversion shares.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revised stock valuation range.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency approves a revised stock valuation range as described in § 192.330(e), and the final conversion stock valuation range exceeds the former maximum stock offering range, a savings association may allocate conversion shares to its tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan, up to the 10 percent limit in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Open market purchase.</I> If a savings association's tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan is not able to or chooses not to purchase stock in the offering, it may, with prior appropriate Federal banking agency approval and appropriate disclosure in the savings association's offering circular, purchase stock in the open market, or purchase authorized but unissued conversion shares.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charitable organizations.</I> A savings association may include stock contributed to a charitable organization in the conversion in the calculation of the total offering of conversion shares under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency objects on supervisory grounds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.385" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.48" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.385   Purchase limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association may limit the number of shares that any person, group of associated persons, or persons otherwise acting in concert, may subscribe to up to five percent of the total stock sold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification of purchase limit.</I> If a savings association sets a limit of five percent under paragraph (a) of this section, the savings association may modify that limit with appropriate Federal banking agency approval to provide that any person, group of associated persons, or persons otherwise acting in concert subscribing for five percent, may purchase between five and 10 percent as long as the aggregate amount that the subscribers purchase does not exceed 10 percent of the total stock offering.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum purchase.</I> A savings association may require persons exercising subscription rights to purchase a minimum number of conversion shares. The minimum number of shares must equal the lesser of the number of shares obtained by a $500 subscription or 25 shares.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregation.</I> In setting purchase limitations under this section, a savings association may not aggregate conversion shares attributed to a person in the savings association's tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan with shares purchased directly by, or otherwise attributable to, that person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.390" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.49" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.390   Community offering of conversion shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purchase preference in subscription offering.</I> In a subscription offering, a savings association may give a purchase preference to eligible account holders, supplemental eligible account holders, and voting members residing in its local community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase preference in community offering.</I> In a community offering, a savings association must give a purchase preference to natural persons residing in its local community.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.395" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.77.50" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.395   Other conditions for community and public offerings.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must offer and sell its stock to achieve a widespread distribution of the stock. If a savings association offers shares in a community offering, a public offering, or both, it must first fill orders for its stock up to a maximum of two percent of the conversion stock on a basis that will promote a widespread distribution of stock. The savings association must allocate any remaining shares on an equal number of shares per order basis until it fills all orders.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="78" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Completion of the Offering</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.400" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.51" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.400   Time period for completion of sale of stock.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must complete all sales of its stock within 45 calendar days after the last day of the subscription period, unless the offering is extended under § 192.405.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.405" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.52" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.405   Extension of the offering period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must submit a request in writing to the appropriate Federal banking agency for an extension of any offering period. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not grant any single extension of more than 90 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Post-effective amendment to offering circular.</I> If the appropriate Federal banking agency grants a savings association's request for an extension of time, the savings association must provide a post-effective amendment to the offering circular under § 192.310 to each person who subscribed for or ordered stock. The amendment must indicate that the appropriate Federal banking agency extended the offering period and that each person who subscribed for or ordered stock may increase, decrease, or rescind their subscription or order within the time remaining in the extension period.


</P>
<HEAD>§ 192.405   </HEAD>
</DIV8>

<HEAD>Completion of the Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.420" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.53" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.420   Time period for completion of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>In its plan of conversion, a savings association must set a date by which the conversion must be completed. This date must not be more than 24 months from the date that the savings association's members approve the plan of conversion. The date, once set, may not be extended by the savings association or by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The savings association must terminate the conversion if it is not completed by that date. The conversion is complete on the date that the savings association accepts the offers for its stock.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.425" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.54" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.425   Termination of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A conversion may be terminated by:
</P>
<P>(a) A savings association's members failing to approve the conversion at its members' meeting;
</P>
<P>(b) A savings association before its members' meeting; or
</P>
<P>(c) A savings association after the members' meeting, but only if the appropriate Federal banking agency concurs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.430" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.55" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.430   Charter amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conversion from Federally-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank to Federally-chartered stock savings association or savings bank.</I> If the savings association is a Federally-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank and it converts to a Federally-chartered stock savings association or savings bank, it must apply to the OCC to amend its charter and bylaws consistent with 12 CFR 5.22, as part of the savings association's application for conversion. The savings association may only include OCC pre-approved anti-takeover provisions in its amended charter and bylaws. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 5.22(g)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conversion from Federally-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank to State-chartered stock savings association or savings bank.</I> If the savings association is a Federally-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank and is converting to a State-chartered stock savings association under this part, the savings association must surrender its charter to the OCC for cancellation promptly after the State issues its new State stock charter. The savings association must promptly file a copy of its new State stock charter with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conversion from State-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank to Federally State-chartered stock savings association or savings bank.</I> If the savings association is a State-chartered mutual savings association or savings bank, and is converting to a Federally chartered stock savings association or savings bank, it must apply to the OCC for a new charter and bylaws consistent with 12 CFR 5.22. The savings association may only include OCC pre-approved anti-takeover provisions in its charter and bylaws. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 5.22(g)(7).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Priority of accounts.</I> In any conversion described in this section that involves a mutual holding company, the charter of each resulting subsidiary savings association of the holding company must contain the following provision:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In any situation in which the priority of the accounts of the association is in controversy, all such accounts must, to the extent of their withdrawable value, be debts of the association having the same priority as the claims of general creditors of the association not having priority (other than any priority arising or resulting from consensual subordination) over other general creditors of the association.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Liquidation account.</I> The savings association's new or amended charter must require the savings association to establish and maintain a liquidation account for eligible and supplemental eligible account holders under § 192.450.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.435" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.56" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.435   Corporate existence after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association's corporate existence will continue following its conversion, unless it converts to a State-chartered stock savings association and State law prescribes otherwise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.440" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.57" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.440   Stockholder voting rights after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must provide its stockholders with exclusive voting rights, except as provided in § 192.445(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.445" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.58" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.445   Savings account holder's account after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The savings association must provide each savings account holder, without payment, a withdrawable savings account or accounts in the same amount and under the same terms and conditions as their accounts before the conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidation account.</I> The savings association must provide a liquidation account for each eligible and supplemental eligible account holder under § 192.450.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting rights.</I> If the savings association is State-chartered and State law requires the savings association to provide voting rights to savings account holders or borrowers, the charter must:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit these voting rights to the minimum required by State law; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the savings association to solicit proxies from the savings account holders and borrowers in the same manner that the savings association solicits proxies from its stockholders.
</P>
<HD1>Liquidation Account


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.450" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.59" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.450   Liquidation accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A liquidation account represents the potential interest of eligible account holders and supplemental eligible account holders in the savings association's net worth at the time of conversion. A savings association must maintain a sub-account to reflect the interest of each account holder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution of liquidation.</I> Before a savings association may provide a liquidation distribution to common stockholders, it must give a liquidation distribution to those eligible account holders and supplemental eligible account holders who hold savings accounts from the time of conversion until liquidation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recording of liquidation account in financial statements.</I> A savings association may not record the liquidation account in its financial statements. The savings association must disclose the liquidation account in the footnotes to the savings association's financial statements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.455" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.60" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.455   Initial balance of liquidation account.</HEAD>
<P>The initial balance of the liquidation account is the savings association's net worth in the statement of financial condition included in the final offering circular.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.460" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.61" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.460   Initial balance of liquidation sub-account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) A savings association must calculate the initial liquidation sub-account balance of each eligible and supplemental eligible account holder at the time of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) The initial liquidation sub-account balance for a savings account held by an eligible account holder, for a savings account not held by the eligible account holder on the supplemental eligibility record date, is calculated by multiplying the initial liquidation account balance by the following fraction: The numerator is the qualifying deposit in the savings account on the eligibility record date and the denominator is the calculation in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The initial liquidation sub-account balance for a savings account held by a supplemental eligible account holder, for a savings account not held by the supplemental eligible account holder on the eligibility record date, is calculated by multiplying the initial liquidation account balance by the following fraction: The numerator is the qualifying deposit in the savings account on the supplemental eligibility record date and the denominator is the calculation in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For a savings account held on both the eligibility record date and the supplemental eligibility record date, the amount of the qualifying deposit for calculating the initial liquidation sub-account is the higher account balance of the savings account on either the eligibility record date or the supplemental eligibility record date. The initial liquidation sub-account balance is calculated by multiplying the liquidation account balance by the following fraction: The numerator is the higher amount of the qualifying deposit in the savings account on either the eligibility record date or the supplemental eligibility record date and the denominator is the calculation in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The denominator for calculating the initial liquidation sub-account balance of each eligible and supplemental eligible account holder is the sum of the numerator calculations in paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Balance increases and decreases.</I> A savings association must not increase the initial liquidation and sub-account balances. It must decrease the initial liquidation account and the sub-account balances under § 192.470 as depositors reduce or close their savings accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.465" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.62" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.465   Retention of voting rights based on liquidation sub-accounts.</HEAD>
<P>Eligible account holders or supplemental eligible account holders do not retain any voting rights based on their liquidation sub-accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.470" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.63" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.470   Required adjustments to liquidation sub-accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reductions.</I> (1) A savings association must reduce the balance of an eligible account holder's or supplemental eligible account holder's liquidation sub-account if the deposit balance in the account holder's savings account at the close of business on any annual closing date, which for purposes of this section is the savings association's fiscal year end, falls below the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The deposit balance in the account holder's savings account as of the relevant eligibility record date; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The deposit balance in the account holder's savings account as of its lowest balance as of any subsequent annual closing date.
</P>
<P>(2) The reduction in the account holder's liquidation sub-account from its balance at the time of conversion must be proportionate to the reduction in the account holder's savings account from its balance at the time of conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on increases.</I> If a savings association reduces the balance of a liquidation sub-account, it may not subsequently increase it if the deposit balance increases.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquidation account adjustments.</I> A savings association is not required to adjust the liquidation account and sub-account balances at each annual closing date if the savings association maintains sufficient records to make the computations if a liquidation subsequently occurs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of liquidation sub-account.</I> A savings association must maintain the liquidation sub-account for each account holder as long as the account holder maintains an account with the same social security number.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Complete liquidation.</I> If there is a complete liquidation, the savings association must provide the account holder of a liquidation sub-account with a liquidation distribution in the amount of the account holder's remaining liquidation sub-account balance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.475" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.64" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.475   Definition of liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A liquidation is a sale of a savings association's assets and settlement of its liabilities with the intent to cease operations and close. Upon liquidation, a savings association must return its charter to the governmental agency that issued it. The government agency must cancel the savings association's charter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other transactions.</I> A merger, consolidation, or similar combination or transaction with another depository institution, is not a liquidation. If a savings association is involved in such a transaction, the surviving institution must assume the liquidation account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.480" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.65" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.480   Effect of liquidation account on net worth.</HEAD>
<P>The liquidation account does not affect a savings association's net worth.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.485" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.78.66" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.485   Required liquidation account provision in new Federal charter.</HEAD>
<P>If a savings association converts to Federal stock form, it must include the following provision in its new charter: “Liquidation Account. Under appropriate Federal banking agency regulations, the association must establish and maintain a liquidation account for the benefit of its savings account holders as of ______. If the association undergoes a complete liquidation, it must comply with appropriate Federal banking agency regulations with respect to the amount and priorities on liquidation of each of the savings account holder's interests in the liquidation account. A savings account holder's interest in the liquidation account does not entitle the savings account holder to any voting rights.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="79" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Post-Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.500" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.67" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.500   Permissible management stock benefit plans after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> During the 12 months after its conversion, a savings association may implement a stock option plan (Option Plan), an employee stock ownership plan or other tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan (collectively, ESOP), and a management recognition plan (MRP), provided that the savings association meets all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association discloses the plans in its proxy statement and offering circular and indicates in its offering circular that there will be a separate shareholder vote on the Option Plan and the MRP at least six months after the conversion. No shareholder vote is required to implement the ESOP. The savings association's ESOP must be tax-qualified.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association's Option Plan does not encompass more than 10 percent of the number of shares that the savings association issued in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The savings association's ESOP and MRP do not encompass, in the aggregate, more than 10 percent of the number of shares that the savings association issued in the conversion. If the savings association has tangible capital of 10 percent or more following the conversion, the appropriate Federal banking agency may permit the ESOP and MRP to encompass, in the aggregate, up to 12 percent of the number of shares issued in the conversion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The savings association's MRP does not encompass more than three percent of the number of shares that the savings association issued in the conversion. If the savings association has tangible capital of 10 percent or more after the conversion, the appropriate Federal banking agency may permit the MRP to encompass up to four percent of the number of shares that the savings association issued in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) No individual receives more than 25 percent of the shares under any plan.
</P>
<P>(5) The savings association's directors who are not officers of the savings association do not receive more than five percent of the shares of the MRP or Option Plan individually, or 30 percent of any such plan in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(6) The savings association's shareholders approve each of the Option Plan and the MRP by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a duly called meeting before the savings association establishes or implements the plan. The savings association may not hold this meeting until six months after its conversion.
</P>
<P>(7) When the savings association distributes proxies or related material to shareholders in connection with the vote on a plan, the savings association states that the plan complies with the appropriate Federal banking agency's regulations and that the appropriate Federal banking agency does not endorse or approve the plan in any way. The savings association may not make any written or oral representations to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(8) The savings association does not grant stock options at less than the market price at the time of grant.
</P>
<P>(9) The savings association does not fund the Option Plan or the MRP at the time of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(10) The savings association's plan does not begin to vest earlier than one year after shareholders approve the plan, and does not vest at a rate exceeding 20 percent per year.
</P>
<P>(11) The savings association's plan permits accelerated vesting only for disability or death, or if the savings association undergoes a change of control.
</P>
<P>(12) The savings association's plan provides that its executive officers or directors must exercise or forfeit their options in the event the institution becomes critically undercapitalized (as defined in 12 CFR 6.4 or 324.403, as applicable), is subject to appropriate Federal banking agency enforcement action, or receives a capital directive under 12 CFR part 6, subpart B or 12 CFR 308.201, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(13) The savings association files a copy of the proposed Option Plan or MRP with the appropriate Federal banking agency and certify to such agency that the plan approved by the shareholders is the same plan that the savings association filed with, and disclosed in, the proxy materials distributed to shareholders in connection with the vote on the plan.
</P>
<P>(14) The savings association files the plan and the certification with the appropriate Federal banking agency within five calendar days after its shareholders approve the plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stock splits or other adjustments.</I> The savings association may provide dividend equivalent rights or dividend adjustment rights to allow for stock splits or other adjustments to its stock in the ESOP, MRP, and Option Plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans implemented more than 12 months after conversion.</I> The restrictions in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to plans implemented more than 12 months after the conversion, provided that materials pertaining to any shareholder vote regarding such plans are not distributed within the 12 months after the conversion. If a plan adopted in conformity with paragraph (a) of this section is amended more than 12 months following the conversion, shareholders must ratify any material deviations to the requirements in paragraph (a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.505" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.68" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.505   Restrictions on the trading of shares by directors, officers, and associates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sales restriction.</I> Directors and officers who purchase conversion shares may not sell the shares for one year after the date of purchase, except that in the event of the death of the officer or director, the successor in interest may sell the shares.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of sales restriction on stock certificate.</I> The savings association must include notice of the restriction described in paragraph (a) of this section on each certificate of stock that a director or officer purchases during the conversion or receives in connection with a stock dividend, stock split, or otherwise with respect to such restricted shares.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stock purchase restrictions.</I> For three years after the conversion, the savings association's officers, directors, and their associates may purchase the savings association's stock only from a broker or dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission. However, the savings association's officers, directors, and their associates may engage in a negotiated transaction involving more than one percent of the savings association's outstanding stock, and may purchase stock through any of the savings association's management or employee stock benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communication of restrictions with transfer agent.</I> The savings association must instruct its stock transfer agent about the transfer restrictions in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.510" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.69" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.510   Repurchase of shares after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Repurchases during first year after conversion.</I> A savings association may not repurchase its shares in the first year after the conversion except:
</P>
<P>(1) In extraordinary circumstances, a savings association may make open market repurchases of up to five percent of its outstanding stock in the first year after the conversion if the savings association files a notice under § 192.515(a) and the appropriate Federal banking agency does not disapprove the repurchase. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not approve such repurchases unless the repurchase meets the standards in § 192.515(c), and the repurchase is consistent with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A savings association may repurchase qualifying shares of a director or conduct an appropriate Federal banking agency-approved repurchase pursuant to an offer made to all shareholders of the savings association.
</P>
<P>(3) Repurchases to fund management recognition plans that have been ratified by shareholders do not count toward the repurchase limitations in this section. Repurchases in the first year to fund such plans require prior written notification to the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(4) Purchases to fund tax qualified employee stock benefit plans do not count toward the repurchase limitations in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repurchases following first year after conversion.</I> After the first year, a savings association may repurchase its shares, subject to all other applicable regulatory and supervisory restrictions and paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on all repurchases.</I> All stock repurchases are subject to the following restrictions.
</P>
<P>(1) A savings association may not repurchase its shares if the repurchase will reduce the savings association's regulatory capital below the amount required for its liquidation account under § 192.450. The savings association must comply with the capital distribution requirements at 12 CFR 5.55.
</P>
<P>(2) The restrictions on share repurchases apply to a charitable organization under § 192.550. A savings association must aggregate purchases of shares by the charitable organization with the savings association's repurchases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.515" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.70" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.515   Information to be filed with Federal banking agency prior to repurchase of shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> To repurchase stock in the first year following conversion, other than repurchases under § 192.510(a)(3) or (4), a savings association must file a written notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office if Federally chartered, and with the appropriate FDIC region if State-chartered. The savings association must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed repurchase program;
</P>
<P>(2) The effect of the repurchases on the savings association's regulatory capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) The purpose of the repurchases and, if applicable, an explanation of the extraordinary circumstances necessitating the repurchases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of notice.</I> A Federal savings association must file its notice with the appropriate OCC licensing office, and a State savings association must file its notice with the appropriate regional director of the FDIC, at least 10 calendar days before the savings association begins its repurchase program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency review.</I> A savings association may not repurchase its shares if the appropriate Federal banking agency objects to the repurchase program. The appropriate Federal banking agency will not object to a repurchase program if:
</P>
<P>(1) The repurchase program will not adversely affect the savings association's financial condition;
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association submits sufficient information to evaluate the proposed repurchases;
</P>
<P>(3) The savings association demonstrates extraordinary circumstances and a compelling and valid business purpose for the share repurchases; and
</P>
<P>(4) The repurchase program would not be contrary to other applicable regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.520" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.71" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.520   Declaring and paying dividends after the conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may declare or pay a dividend on its shares after the conversion if:
</P>
<P>(a) The dividend will not reduce the savings association's regulatory capital below the amount required for the liquidation account under § 192.450;
</P>
<P>(b) The savings association complies with all capital requirements under 12 CFR part 3 after it declares or pays dividends;
</P>
<P>(c) The savings association complies with the capital distribution requirements under 12 CFR 5.55; and
</P>
<P>(d) The savings association does not return any capital, other than ordinary dividends, to purchasers during the term of the business plan submitted with the conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.525" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.72" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.525   Restrictions on acquisition of shares after conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior agency approval.</I> For three years after conversion, no person may, directly or indirectly, acquire or offer to acquire the beneficial ownership of more than 10 percent of any class of the savings association's equity securities without the appropriate Federal banking agency's prior written approval. If a person violates this prohibition, the savings association may not permit the person to vote shares in excess of 10 percent, and may not count the shares in excess of 10 percent in any shareholder vote.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Beneficial ownership.</I> A person acquires beneficial ownership of more than 10 percent of a class of shares when he or she holds any combination of the savings association's stock or revocable or irrevocable proxies under circumstances that give rise to a conclusive control determination or rebuttable control determination under 12 CFR 5.50. The appropriate Federal banking agency will presume that a person has acquired shares if the acquiror entered into a binding written agreement for the transfer of shares. For purposes of this section, an offer is made when it is communicated. An offer does not include non-binding expressions of understanding or letters of intent regarding the terms of a potential acquisition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding the restrictions in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to any offer with a view toward public resale made exclusively to the savings association, to the underwriters, or to a selling group acting on the savings association's behalf.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the appropriate Federal banking agency objects in writing, any person may offer or announce an offer to acquire up to one percent of any class of shares. In computing the one percent limit, the person must include all of his or her acquisitions of the same class of shares during the prior 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) A corporation whose ownership is, or will be, substantially the same as the savings association's ownership may acquire or offer to acquire more than 10 percent of the savings association's common stock, if it makes the offer or acquisition more than one year after the savings association's conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) One or more of the savings association's tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans may acquire the savings association's shares, if the plan or plans do not beneficially own more than 25 percent of any class of the savings association's shares in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(5) An acquiror does not have to file a separate application to obtain the appropriate Federal banking agency's approval under paragraph (a) of this section if the acquiror files an application under 12 CFR 5.50 that specifically addresses the criteria listed under paragraph (d) of this section and the savings association does not oppose the proposed acquisition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors for agency denial.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may deny an application under paragraph (a) of this section if the proposed acquisition:
</P>
<P>(1) Is contrary to the purposes of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Is manipulative or deceptive;
</P>
<P>(3) Subverts the fairness of the conversion;
</P>
<P>(4) Is likely to injure the savings association;
</P>
<P>(5) Is inconsistent with the savings association's plan to meet the credit and lending needs of its proposed market area;
</P>
<P>(6) Otherwise violates laws or regulations; or
</P>
<P>(7) Does not prudently deploy the savings association's conversion proceeds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.530" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.79.73" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.530   Other post-conversion requirements.</HEAD>
<P>After a savings association converts, it must:
</P>
<P>(a) Promptly register its shares under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a-78jj, as amended). The savings association may not deregister the shares for three years.
</P>
<P>(b) Encourage and assist a market maker to establish and to maintain a market for its shares. A market maker for a security is a dealer who:
</P>
<P>(1) Regularly publishes bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations for the security in a recognized inter-dealer quotation system;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnishes bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations for the security on request; or
</P>
<P>(3) May effect transactions for the security in reasonable quantities at quoted prices with other brokers or dealers.
</P>
<P>(c) Use its best efforts to list its shares on a national or regional securities exchange or on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation system.
</P>
<P>(d) File all post-conversion reports that the appropriate Federal banking agency requires.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="80" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Contributions to Charitable Organizations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.550" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.74" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.550   Donating conversion shares or conversion proceeds to a charitable organization.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may contribute some of its conversion shares or proceeds to a charitable organization if:
</P>
<P>(a) The savings association's plan of conversion provides for the proposed contribution;
</P>
<P>(b) The savings association's members approve the proposed contribution; and
</P>
<P>(c) The IRS either has approved, or approves within two years after formation, the charitable organization as a tax-exempt charitable organization under the Internal Revenue Code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.555" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.75" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.555   Member approval of charitable contributions.</HEAD>
<P>At the meeting to consider the conversion, a savings association's members must separately approve, by a majority of the total eligible votes, a charitable contribution of conversion shares or proceeds. If the savings association is in mutual holding company form and adding a charitable contribution as part of a second step stock conversion, the savings association must also have its minority shareholders separately approve the charitable contribution by a majority of their total eligible votes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.560" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.76" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.560   Limitations on charitable contributions.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may contribute a reasonable amount of conversion shares or proceeds to a charitable organization if such contribution will not exceed limits for charitable deductions under the Internal Revenue Code and the appropriate Federal banking agency does not object on supervisory grounds. If the savings association is well-capitalized, the appropriate Federal banking agency generally will not object if the savings association contributes an aggregate amount of eight percent or less of the conversion shares or proceeds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.565" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.77" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.565   Contents of organizational documents of charitable organization.</HEAD>
<P>The charitable organization's charter (or trust agreement) and gift instrument must provide that:
</P>
<P>(a) The charitable organization's primary purpose is to serve and make grants in the savings association's local community;
</P>
<P>(b) As long as the charitable organization controls shares, it must vote those shares in the same ratio as all other shares voted on each proposal considered by the savings association's shareholders;
</P>
<P>(c) For at least five years after its organization, one seat on the charitable organization's board of directors (or board of trustees) is reserved for an independent director (or trustee) from the savings association's local community. This director may not be an officer, director, or employee of the savings association or of an affiliate of the savings association, and should have experience with local community charitable organizations and grant making; and
</P>
<P>(d) For at least five years after its organization, one seat on the charitable organization's board of directors (or board of trustees) is reserved for a director from the savings association's board of directors or the board of directors of an acquiror or resulting institution in the event of a merger or acquisition of the savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.570" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.78" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.570   Conflicts of interest among directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A person is subject to 12 CFR 163.200 if that person:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a director, officer, or employee of the savings association; has the power to direct the savings association's management or policies; or otherwise owes a fiduciary duty to the savings association (for example, holding company directors); and
</P>
<P>(2) Will serve as an officer, director, or employee of the charitable organization. <I>See</I> Form AC for further information on operating plans and conflict of interest plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identification and recusal of directors.</I> Before the savings association's board of directors may adopt a plan of conversion that includes a charitable organization, the savings association must identify its directors that will serve on the charitable organization's board. These directors may not participate in the board's discussions concerning contributions to the charitable organization, and may not vote on the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.575" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.1.80.79" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.575   Other requirements for charitable organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charter and gift instrument requirements.</I> The charitable organization's charter (or trust agreement) and the gift instrument for the contribution must provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate Federal banking agency may examine the charitable organization at the charitable organization's expense;
</P>
<P>(2) The charitable organization must comply with all supervisory directives that the appropriate Federal banking agency imposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The charitable organization must operate according to written policies adopted by its board of directors (or board of trustees), including a conflict of interest policy;
</P>
<P>(4) The charitable organization must not engage in self-dealing; and
</P>
<P>(5) The charitable organization must comply with all laws necessary to maintain its tax-exempt status under the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stock certificate requirement.</I> The savings association must include the following legend in the stock certificates of shares that the savings association contributes to the charitable organization or that the charitable organization otherwise acquires: “The board of directors must consider the shares that this stock certificate represents as voted in the same ratio as all other shares voted on each proposal considered by the shareholders, as long as the shares are controlled by the charitable organization.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting ratio.</I> As long as the charitable organization controls shares, the savings association must consider those shares as voted in the same ratio as all of the shares voted on each proposal considered by the savings association's shareholders.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing requirement.</I> After the savings association completes its stock offering, it must submit copies of the following documents to the appropriate OCC licensing office if it is a Federal savings association or with the appropriate FDIC region if it is a State savings association:
</P>
<P>(1) The charitable organization's charter and bylaws (or trust agreement);
</P>
<P>(2) The charitable organization's operating plan (within six months after the savings association's stock offering);
</P>
<P>(3) The charitable organization's conflict of interest policy; and
</P>
<P>(4) The gift instrument for the contributions of either stock or cash to the charitable organization.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Voluntary Supervisory Conversions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.600" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.600   Voluntary supervisory conversions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings association must comply with this subpart and part 16 to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion. This subpart applies to all voluntary supervisory conversions under sections 5(i)(1), (i)(2), and (p) of HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1464(i)(1), (i)(2), and (p).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of subpart A.</I> Subpart A of this part also applies to a voluntary supervisory conversion, unless a requirement is clearly inapplicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.605" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.605   Conducting a voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association may conduct a voluntary supervisory conversion through one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(a) A savings association may sell its shares or the shares of a holding company to the public under the requirements of subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A savings association may convert to stock form by merging into an interim Federal- or State-chartered stock association.
</P>
<P>(c) A savings association may sell its shares directly to an acquiror, who may be a person, company, depository institution, or depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>(d) A savings association may merge or consolidate with an existing or newly created depository institution. The merger or consolidation must be authorized by, and is subject to, other applicable laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.610" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.610   Member rights in a voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>Savings association members do not have the right to approve or participate in a voluntary supervisory conversion, and will not have any legal or beneficial ownership interests in the converted association, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency provides otherwise. Savings association members may have interests in a liquidation account, if one is established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="81" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Eligibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.625" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.625   Eligibility for a voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> An insured savings association may be eligible to convert under this subpart B if:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association is significantly undercapitalized (or undercapitalized and a standard conversion that would make the savings association adequately capitalized is not feasible) and the savings association will be a viable entity following the conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) Severe financial conditions threaten the savings association's stability and a conversion is likely to improve its financial condition;
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC will assist the savings association under section 13 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1823; or
</P>
<P>(4) The savings association is in receivership and a conversion will assist the savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for viability after conversion.</I> The savings association will be a viable entity following the conversion if it satisfies all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association will be adequately capitalized as a result of the conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association, its proposed conversion, and its acquiror(s) comply with applicable supervisory policies;
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is in the savings association's best interest, and the best interest of the Deposit Insurance Fund and the public; and
</P>
<P>(4) The transaction will not injure or be detrimental to the savings association, the Deposit Insurance Fund, or the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.630" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.81.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.630   Eligibility of State-chartered savings bank for voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A State-chartered savings bank may be eligible to convert to a Federal stock savings bank under this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(a) The FDIC certifies under section 5(o)(2)(C) of the HOLA that severe financial conditions threaten the savings bank's stability and that the voluntary supervisory conversion is likely to improve its financial condition; or
</P>
<P>(b) The savings bank meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings bank's liabilities exceed its assets, as calculated under generally accepted accounting principles, assuming the savings bank is a going concern; and
</P>
<P>(2) The savings bank will issue a sufficient amount of permanent capital stock to meet its applicable FDIC capital requirement immediately upon completion of the conversion, or the FDIC determines that the savings bank will achieve an acceptable capital level within an acceptable time period.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="82" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.82" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Plan of Supervisory Conversion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.650" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.82.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.650   Contents of plan of voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>A majority of the board of directors of the savings association must adopt a plan of voluntary supervisory conversion. The savings association must include all of the following information in its plan of voluntary supervisory conversion.
</P>
<P>(a) The savings association's name and address.
</P>
<P>(b) A complete description of the proposed voluntary supervisory conversion transaction that also describes plans for any liquidation account.
</P>
<P>(c) Certified copies of all resolutions relating to the conversion adopted by the board of directors of the savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="83" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.83" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Voluntary Supervisory Conversion Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.660" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.83.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.660   Contents of voluntary supervisory conversion application.</HEAD>
<P>A savings association must include all of the following information and documents in a voluntary supervisory conversion application to the appropriate OCC licensing office if it is a Federal savings association and to the appropriate FDIC region if it is a State savings association under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> (1) Evidence establishing that the savings association meets the eligibility requirements under § 192.625 or § 192.630.
</P>
<P>(2) An opinion of qualified, independent counsel or an independent, certified public accountant regarding the tax consequences of the conversion, or an IRS ruling indicating that the transaction qualifies as a tax-free reorganization.
</P>
<P>(3) An opinion of independent counsel indicating that applicable State law authorizes the voluntary supervisory conversion, if the conversion involves a State-chartered savings association converting to State stock form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan of conversion.</I> A plan of voluntary supervisory conversion that complies with § 192.650.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business plan.</I> A business plan that complies with § 192.105, when required by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial data.</I> (1) The savings association's most recent audited financial statements and Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Call Report, as appropriate. The savings association must explain how its current capital levels make the savings association eligible to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion under § 192.625 or § 192.630.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the savings association's estimated conversion expenses.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence supporting the value of any non-cash asset contributions. Appraisals must be acceptable to the appropriate Federal banking agency and the non-cash assets must meet all other appropriate Federal banking agency policy guidelines.
</P>
<P>(4) Pro forma financial statements that reflect the effects of the transaction. The savings association must identify its tangible, core, and risk-based capital levels and show the adjustments necessary to compute the capital levels. The savings association must prepare its pro forma statements in conformance with the appropriate Federal banking agency's regulations and the applicable accounting requirements.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing the aggregate number and percentage of shares that each director, officer, and any affiliates or associates of the director or officer will purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proposed documents.</I> (1) The savings association's proposed charter and bylaws.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association's proposed stock certificate form.
</P>
<P>(3) Any securities offering circular and other securities disclosure materials to be used in connection with the proposed voluntary supervisory conversion.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agreements.</I> (1) A copy of any agreements between the savings association and proposed purchasers.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy and description of all existing and proposed employment contracts. The savings association must describe the term, salary, and severance provisions of the contract, the identity and background of the officer or employee to be employed, and the amount of any conversion shares to be purchased by the officer or employee or his or her affiliates or associates.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Related filings and applications.</I> (1) All filings required under the securities offering rules of 12 CFR parts 16 and 192.
</P>
<P>(2) Any required Change in Bank Control Act notice and rebuttal of control submissions under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j) and 12 CFR 5.50, or copies of any Holding Company Act applications, including prior-conduct certifications listed under the appropriate Federal banking agency's regulatory guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) A subordinated debt application, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) Applications for permission to organize a stock association and for approval of a merger, if applicable, and a copy of any application for FDIC insurance of accounts, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing any other applications required under Federal or State banking laws for all transactions related to the conversion, copies of all dispositive documents issued by regulatory authorities relating to the applications, and, if requested by the appropriate Federal banking agency, copies of the applications and related documents.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other information.</I> (1) A statement indicating the role each director, officer, and affiliate of the savings association or associate of the director or officer will have after the conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional information requested by the OCC, as authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Waiver request.</I> A description of any of the features of the savings association's application that do not conform to the requirements of this subpart, including any request for waiver of these requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="84" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.84" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency Review of the Voluntary Supervisory Conversion Application</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.670" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.84.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.670   Approval of voluntary supervisory conversion application.</HEAD>
<P>The appropriate Federal banking agency will generally approve a savings association's application to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion unless it determines:
</P>
<P>(a) The savings association does not meet the eligibility requirements for a voluntary supervisory conversion under § 192.625 or § 192.630 or because the proceeds from the sale of conversion stock, less the expenses of the conversion, would be insufficient to satisfy any applicable viability requirement;
</P>
<P>(b) The transaction is detrimental to or would cause potential injury to the savings association or the Deposit Insurance Fund or is contrary to the public interest;
</P>
<P>(c) The savings association or its acquiror, or the controlling parties or directors and officers of the savings association or its acquiror, have engaged in unsafe or unsound practices in connection with the voluntary supervisory conversion; or
</P>
<P>(d) The savings association fails to justify an employment contract incidental to the conversion, or the employment contract will be an unsafe or unsound practice or represent a sale of control. In a voluntary supervisory conversion, the appropriate Federal banking agency generally will not approve employment contracts of more than one year for existing management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.675" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.84.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.675   Conditions imposed upon approval of voluntary supervisory conversion application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required condition.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency will condition approval of a voluntary supervisory conversion application on all of the following.
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association must complete the conversion stock sale within three months after the appropriate Federal banking agency approves the application. The appropriate Federal banking agency may grant an extension for good cause.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association must comply with all filing requirements of this part, and 12 CFR part 16.
</P>
<P>(3) The savings association must submit an opinion of independent legal counsel indicating that the sale of its shares complies with all applicable State securities law requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) The savings association must comply with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations.
</P>
<P>(5) The savings association must satisfy any other requirements or conditions the appropriate Federal banking agency may impose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary conditions.</I> The appropriate Federal banking agency may condition approval of a voluntary supervisory application for conversion on either of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings association must satisfy any conditions and restrictions the appropriate Federal banking agency imposes to prevent unsafe or unsound practices, to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund and the public interest, and to prevent potential injury or detriment to the savings association before and after the conversion. The appropriate Federal banking agency may impose these conditions and restrictions on the savings association (before and after the conversion) or, as appropriate, the savings association's acquiror, controlling parties, or its directors and officers; or
</P>
<P>(2) The savings association must infuse a larger amount of capital, if necessary, for safety and soundness reasons.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="85" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.85" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Offers and Sales of Stock</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.680" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.85.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.680   Offer and sale of shares in a voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>If a savings association converts under this subpart, it must offer and sell its shares in accordance with the applicable requirements of 12 CFR parts 16 and 192.
</P>
<HD1>Post-Conversion


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 192.690" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.78.2.85.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 192.690   Restrictions on acquisition of additional shares after voluntary supervisory conversion.</HEAD>
<P>For three years after the completion of a voluntary supervisory conversion, neither the savings association nor its controlling shareholder(s) may acquire shares from minority shareholders without the appropriate Federal banking agency's prior approval.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="193-199" NODE="12:1.0.1.1.79" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 193-199 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 1, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="2" NODE="12:2" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 2</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Federal Reserve System
</SUBJECT>
<PG>201


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="12:2.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="200" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 200 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="201" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 201—EXTENSIONS OF CREDIT BY FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS (REGULATION A)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(i)-(j), 343 <I>et seq.,</I> 347a, 347b, 347c, 348 <I>et seq.,</I> 357, 374, 374a, and 461.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 54010, Aug. 14, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 201.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of sections 10A, 10B, 11(i), 11(j), 13, 13A, 14(d), and 19 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)-(j), 343 <I>et seq.</I>, 347a, 347b, 347c, 348 <I>et seq.,</I> 357, 374, 374a, and 461). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part establishes rules under which a Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit to depository institutions and others. Except as otherwise provided, this part applies to United States branches and agencies of foreign banks that are subject to reserve requirements under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204) in the same manner and to the same extent as this part applies to depository institutions. The Federal Reserve System extends credit with due regard to the basic objectives of monetary policy and the maintenance of a sound and orderly financial system. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67785, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appropriate federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Critically undercapitalized insured depository institution</I> means any insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) that is deemed to be critically undercapitalized under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(b)(1)(E)) and its implementing regulations. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Depository institution</I> means an institution that maintains reservable transaction accounts or nonpersonal time deposits and is: 
</P>
<P>(i) An <I>insured bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A <I>mutual savings bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(iii) A <I>savings bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(g)) or a bank that is eligible to make application to become an insured bank under section 5 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(iv) An <I>insured credit union</I> as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or a credit union that is eligible to make application to become an insured credit union pursuant to section 201 of such act (12 U.S.C. 1781); 
</P>
<P>(v) A <I>member</I> as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); or 
</P>
<P>(vi) A <I>savings association</I> as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)) that is an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) or is eligible to apply to become an insured depository institution under section 5 of the act (12 U.S.C. 15(a)). 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>depository institution</I> does not include a financial institution that is not required to maintain reserves under § 204.1(c)(4) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.1(c)(4)) because it is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions, is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business, and does not do business with the general public. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transaction account</I> and <I>nonpersonal time deposit</I> have the meanings specified in Regulation D (12 CFR part 204). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Undercapitalized insured depository institution</I> means any insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution; and 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is deemed to be undercapitalized under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(b)(1)(C)) and its implementing regulations; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has received from its appropriate federal banking agency a composite CAMELS rating of 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating by its appropriate federal banking agency under a comparable rating system) as of the most recent examination of such institution. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Viable,</I> with respect to a depository institution, means that the Board of Governors or the appropriate federal banking agency has determined, giving due regard to the economic conditions and circumstances in the market in which the institution operates, that the institution is not critically undercapitalized, is not expected to become critically undercapitalized, and is not expected to be placed in conservatorship or receivership. Although there are a number of criteria that may be used to determine viability, the Board of Governors believes that ordinarily an undercapitalized insured depository institution is viable if the appropriate federal banking agency has accepted a capital restoration plan for the depository institution under 12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(2) and the depository institution is complying with that plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67785, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.3   Extensions of credit generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advances to and discounts for a depository institution.</I> (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may lend to a depository institution either by making an advance secured by acceptable collateral under § 201.4 of this part or by discounting certain types of paper. A Federal Reserve Bank generally extends credit by making an advance. 
</P>
<P>(2) An advance to a depository institution must be secured to the satisfaction of the Federal Reserve Bank that makes the advance. Satisfactory collateral generally includes United States government and federal-agency securities, and, if of acceptable quality, mortgage notes covering one-to four-family residences, state and local government securities, and business, consumer, and other customer notes. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a Federal Reserve Bank concludes that a discount would meet the needs of a depository institution or an institution described in section 13A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 349) more effectively, the Reserve Bank may discount any paper indorsed by the institution, provided the paper meets the requirements specified in the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No obligation to make advances or discounts.</I> This section does not entitle any person or entity to obtain any credit or any increase, renewal or extension of maturity of any credit from a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information requirements.</I> (1) Before extending credit to a depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank should determine if the institution is an undercapitalized insured depository institution or a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution and, if so, follow the lending procedures specified in § 201.5. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each Federal Reserve Bank shall require any information it believes appropriate or desirable to ensure that assets tendered as collateral for advances or for discount are acceptable and that the borrower uses the credit provided in a manner consistent with this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each Federal Reserve Bank shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Keep itself informed of the general character and amount of the loans and investments of a depository institution as provided in section 4(8) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 301); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider such information in determining whether to extend credit. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indirect credit for others.</I> Except for depository institutions that receive primary credit as described in § 201.4(a), no depository institution shall act as the medium or agent of another depository institution in receiving Federal Reserve credit except with the permission of the Federal Reserve Bank extending credit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67786, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 74 FR 65016, Dec. 9, 2009; 80 FR 78965, Dec. 18, 2015; 83 FR 21168, May 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.4   Availability and terms of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Primary credit.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may extend primary credit on a very short-term basis, usually overnight, as a backup source of funding to a depository institution that is in generally sound financial condition in the judgment of the Reserve Bank. Such primary credit ordinarily is extended with minimal administrative burden on the borrower. A Federal Reserve Bank also may extend primary credit with maturities up to a few weeks as a backup source of funding to a depository institution if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, the depository institution is in generally sound financial condition and cannot obtain such credit in the market on reasonable terms. Credit extended under the primary credit program is granted at the primary credit rate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secondary credit.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may extend secondary credit on a very short-term basis, usually overnight, as a backup source of funding to a depository institution that is not eligible for primary credit if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, such a credit extension would be consistent with a timely return to a reliance on market funding sources. A Federal Reserve Bank also may extend longer-term secondary credit if the Reserve Bank determines that such credit would facilitate the orderly resolution of serious financial difficulties of a depository institution. Credit extended under the secondary credit program is granted at a rate above the primary credit rate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Seasonal credit.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may extend seasonal credit for periods longer than those permitted under primary credit to assist a smaller depository institution in meeting regular needs for funds arising from expected patterns of movement in its deposits and loans. An interest rate that varies with the level of short-term market interest rates is applied to seasonal credit. 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal Reserve Bank may extend seasonal credit only if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The depository institution's seasonal needs exceed a threshold that the institution is expected to meet from other sources of liquidity (this threshold is calculated as a certain percentage, established by the Board of Governors, of the institution's average total deposits in the preceding calendar year); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Reserve Bank is satisfied that the institution's qualifying need for funds is seasonal and will persist for at least four weeks. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may establish special terms for seasonal credit when depository institutions are experiencing unusual seasonal demands for credit in a period of liquidity strain. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency credit for others</I>—(1) <I>Authorization to extend credit.</I> In unusual and exigent circumstances, the Board, by the affirmative vote of not less than five members,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> may authorize any Federal Reserve Bank, subject to such conditions and during such periods as the Board may determine, to extend credit to any participant in a program or facility with broad-based eligibility established and operated in accordance with this paragraph (d).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Unless fewer are authorized pursuant to section 11(r) of the Federal Reserve Act. 12 U.S.C. 248(r).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Approval of the Secretary of the Treasury.</I> A program or facility may not be established under this paragraph (d) without obtaining the prior approval of the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure of justification and terms.</I> As soon as is reasonably practicable, and no later than 7 days after a program or facility is authorized under this paragraph (d), the Board and the authorized Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Reserve Banks, as appropriate, will make publicly available a description of the program or facility, a description of the market or sector of the financial system to which the program or facility is intended to provide liquidity, a description of the unusual and exigent circumstances that exist, the intended effect of the program or facility, and the terms and conditions for participation in the program or facility. In addition, within the same 7-day period, the Board will provide a copy of this information to the Committee on Banking, Housing and Urban Affairs of the U.S. Senate and the Committee on Financial Services of the U.S. House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Broad-based eligibility.</I> (i) A program or facility established under this paragraph (d) must have broad-based eligibility in accordance with terms established by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a program or facility has broad-based eligibility only if the program or facility is designed to provide liquidity to an identifiable market or sector of the financial system;
</P>
<P>(iii) A program or facility will not be considered to have broad-based eligibility for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The program or facility is designed for the purpose of assisting one or more specific companies avoid bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding, including by removing assets from the balance sheet of one or more such company;
</P>
<P>(B) The program or facility is designed for the purpose of aiding one or more failing financial companies; or
</P>
<P>(C) Fewer than five persons or entities would be eligible to participate in the program or facility.
</P>
<P>(iv) A Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit through a program or facility with broad-based eligibility established under this paragraph (d) through such mechanism or vehicle as the Board determines would facilitate the extension of such credit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insolvency.</I> (i) A Federal Reserve Bank may not extend credit through a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) to any person or entity that is insolvent or to any person or entity that is borrowing for the purpose of lending the proceeds of the loan to a person or entity that is insolvent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Before extending credit through a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) to any person or entity, the Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that the person or entity is not insolvent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A person or entity is “insolvent” for purposes of this paragraph (d) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The person or entity is in bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>) or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(B) The person or entity is generally not paying its undisputed debts as they become due during the 90 days preceding the date of borrowing under the program or facility; or
</P>
<P>(C) The Board or Federal Reserve Bank otherwise determines that the person or entity is insolvent.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of meeting the requirements of this paragraph (d)(5), the Board or Federal Reserve Bank, as relevant, may rely on:
</P>
<P>(A) A written certification from the person or from the chief executive officer or other authorized officer of the entity, at the time the person or entity initially borrows under the program or facility, that the person or entity is not in bankruptcy, resolution under Title II of Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>) or any other Federal or State insolvency proceeding, and has not failed to generally pay its undisputed debts as they become due during the 90 days preceding the date of borrowing under the program or facility;
</P>
<P>(B) Recent audited financial statements of the person or entity; or
</P>
<P>(C) Other information that the Board or the Federal Reserve Bank may determine to be relevant.
</P>
<P>(v) A person or officer (or successor of either) that submits a written certification under this subparagraph must immediately notify the lending Federal Reserve Bank if the information in the certification changes.
</P>
<P>(vi) Upon a finding by the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank that a participant, including a participant that has provided a certification under this paragraph (d)(5), is or has become insolvent, that participant is not eligible for any new extension of credit from a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) until such time as the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank determines that such participant is no longer insolvent.
</P>
<P>(vii) If a participant or person has provided a certification under this paragraph (d)(5) or paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section that includes a knowing material misrepresentation in the certification, all extensions of credit made pursuant to this paragraph (d) that are outstanding to the relevant participant shall become immediately due and payable, and all accrued interest, fees and penalties shall become immediately due and payable. The Board or the lending Federal Reserve Bank will also refer the matter to the relevant law enforcement authorities for investigation and action in accordance with applicable criminal and civil law.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Indorsement or other security.</I> (i) All credit extended under a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) must be indorsed or otherwise secured, in each case, to the satisfaction of the lending Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining whether an extension of credit under any program or facility established under this paragraph (d) is secured to its satisfaction, a Federal Reserve Bank must, prior to or at the time the credit is initially extended, assign a lendable value to all collateral for the program or facility, consistent with sound risk management practices and to ensure protection for the taxpayer.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Penalty rate and fees.</I> (i) The Board will determine the interest rate to be charged on any credit extended through a program or facility established under this section in accordance with this paragraph (d) and the provisions of section 14, subdivision (d) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 357). The Board may determine the interest rate by auction or such other method as the Board determines in accordance with section 14, subdivision (d) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 357).
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rate established for credit extended through a program or facility established under this section will be set at a penalty level that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a premium to the market rate in normal circumstances;
</P>
<P>(B) Affords liquidity in unusual and exigent circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(C) Encourages repayment of the credit and discourages use of the program or facility as the unusual and exigent circumstances that motivated the program or facility recede and economic conditions normalize.
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining the rate, the Board will consider the condition of affected markets and the financial system generally, the historical rate of interest for loans of comparable terms and maturity during normal times, the purpose of the program or facility, the risk of repayment, the collateral supporting the credit, the duration, terms and amount of the credit, and any other factor that the Board determines to be relevant to ensuring that the taxpayer is appropriately compensated for the risks associated with the credit extended under the program or facility and the purposes of this paragraph (d) are fulfilled.
</P>
<P>(iv) In addition to the rate established and charged under this paragraph (d)(7), the Board may require the payment of any fees, penalties, charges or other consideration the Board determines to be appropriate to protect and appropriately compensate the taxpayer for the risks associated with the credit extended under the program or facility.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Evidence regarding unavailability of adequate credit accommodation.</I> (i) Each lending Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that, under the prevailing circumstances, participants in a program or facility established under this paragraph (d) are unable to secure adequate credit accommodations from other banking institutions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Evidence required under this paragraph (d)(8) may be based on economic conditions in the market or markets intended to be addressed by the program or facility, a written certification from the person or from the chief executive officer or other authorized officer of the entity at the time the person or entity initially borrows under the program or facility, or other evidence from participants or other sources.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Termination of program or facility.</I> (i) A program or facility established under this paragraph (d) shall cease extending new credit no later than one year after the date of the first extension of credit under the program or facility or the date of any extension of the program or facility by the Board under paragraph (d)(9)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A program or facility may be renewed upon the vote of not less than five members of the Board 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> that unusual and exigent circumstances continue to exist and the program or facility continues to appropriately provide liquidity to the financial system, and the approval of the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Unless fewer are authorized pursuant to section 11(r) of the Federal Reserve Act. 12 U.S.C. 248(r).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) The Board shall make the disclosures required under paragraph (d)(3) of this section to the public and the relevant congressional committees no later than 7 days after renewing a program or facility under this paragraph (d)(9).
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board may at any time terminate a program or facility established under this paragraph (d). To ensure that the program or facility under this paragraph (d) is terminated in a timely and orderly fashion, the Board will periodically review, no less frequently than once every 6 months, the existence of unusual and exigent circumstances, the extent of usage of the program or facility, the extent to which the continuing authorization of the program or facility facilitates restoring or sustaining confidence in the identified financial markets, the ongoing need for the liquidity support provided by such program or facility, and such other factors as the Board may deem to be appropriate. The Board will terminate lending under a program or facility promptly upon finding that conditions no longer warrant the continuation of the program or facility or that continuation of the program or facility is no longer appropriate.
</P>
<P>(v) A program or facility that has been terminated will cease extending new credit and will collect existing loans pursuant to the applicable terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> The Board will comply with the reporting requirements of 12 U.S.C. 248(s) and 12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C) pursuant to their terms.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>No obligation to extend credit.</I> This paragraph (d) does not entitle any person or entity to obtain any credit or any increase, renewal or extension of maturity of any credit from a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Participation in programs and facilities and vendor selection.</I> (i) Participation in any program or facility under this paragraph (d) shall not be limited or conditioned on the basis of any legally prohibited basis, such as the race, religion, color, gender, national origin, age or disability of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(ii) The selection of any third-party vendor used in the design, marketing or implementation of any program or facility under this paragraph (d) shall be without regard to the race, religion, color, gender, national origin, age or disability of the vendor or any principal shareholder of the vendor, and, to the extent possible and consistent with law, shall involve a process designed to support equal opportunity and diversity.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Short-term emergency credit secured solely by United States or agency obligations.</I> In unusual and exigent circumstances and after consultation with the Board, a Federal Reserve Bank may extend credit under section 13(13) of the Federal Reserve Act if the collateral used to secure such credit consists solely of obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or an agency thereof. Prior to extending credit under this paragraph (d)(13), the Federal Reserve Bank must obtain evidence that credit is not available from other sources and failure to obtain such credit would adversely affect the economy. Credit extended under this paragraph (d)(13) may not be extended for a term exceeding 90 days, must be extended at a rate above the highest rate in effect for advances to depository institutions as determined in accordance with section 14(d) of the Federal Reserve Act, and is subject to such limitations and conditions as provided by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Term auction facility.</I> (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may make an advance to a depository institution pursuant to an auction conducted under this paragraph and at the rate specified in § 201.51(e) if, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank, the depository institution is in generally sound financial condition and is expected to remain in that condition during the term of the advance. An auction under this paragraph shall be conducted subject to such conditions, including conditions regarding the participants, size and duration of the facility, minimum bid amount, maximum bid amount, term of advance, minimum bid rate, use of proceeds, and schedule of auction dates, as the Board may establish from time to time in connection with the term auction facility. The Board may appoint one or more Reserve Banks or others to conduct the auction.
</P>
<P>(2) Authorization for the term auction facility established by § 201.4(e)(1) shall expire on such date as set by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67786, Nov. 7, 2002, as amended at 72 FR 71203, Dec. 17, 2007; 80 FR 78965, Dec. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.5   Limitations on availability and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lending to undercapitalized insured depository institutions.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may make or have outstanding advances to or discounts for a depository institution that it knows to be an undercapitalized insured depository institution, only: 
</P>
<P>(1) If, in any 120-day period, advances or discounts from any Federal Reserve Bank to that depository institution are not outstanding for more than 60 days during which the institution is an undercapitalized insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) During the 60 calendar days after the receipt of a written certification from the chairman of the Board of Governors or the head of the appropriate federal banking agency that the borrowing depository institution is viable; or 
</P>
<P>(3) After consultation with the Board of Governors. In unusual circumstances, when prior consultation with the Board is not possible, a Federal Reserve Bank should consult with the Board as soon as possible after extending credit that requires consultation under this paragraph (a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending to critically undercapitalized insured depository institutions.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may make or have outstanding advances to or discounts for a depository institution that it knows to be a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution only: 
</P>
<P>(1) During the 5-day period beginning on the date the institution became a critically undercapitalized insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) After consultation with the Board of Governors. In unusual circumstances, when prior consultation with the Board is not possible, a Federal Reserve Bank should consult with the Board as soon as possible after extending credit that requires consultation under this paragraph (b)(2). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessments.</I> The Board of Governors will assess the Federal Reserve Banks for any amount that the Board pays to the FDIC due to any excess loss in accordance with section 10B(b) of the Federal Reserve Act. Each Federal Reserve Bank shall be assessed that portion of the amount that the Board of Governors pays to the FDIC that is attributable to an extension of credit by that Federal Reserve Bank, up to 1 percent of its capital as reported at the beginning of the calendar year in which the assessment is made. The Board of Governors will assess all of the Federal Reserve Banks for the remainder of the amount it pays to the FDIC in the ratio that the capital of each Federal Reserve Bank bears to the total capital of all Federal Reserve Banks at the beginning of the calendar year in which the assessment is made, provided, however, that if any assessment exceeds 50 percent of the total capital and surplus of all Federal Reserve Banks, whether to distribute the excess over such 50 percent shall be made at the discretion of the Board of Governors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67787, Nov. 7, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.51" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.51   Interest rates applicable to credit extended by a Federal Reserve Bank. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The primary, secondary, and seasonal credit rates described in this section apply to both advances and discounts made under the primary, secondary, and seasonal credit programs, respectively.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Primary credit.</I> The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for primary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(a) is 3.75 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Secondary credit.</I> The interest rate at each Federal Reserve Bank for secondary credit provided to depository institutions under § 201.4(b) is 4.25 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Seasonal credit.</I> The rate for seasonal credit extended to depository institutions under § 201.4(c) is a flexible rate that takes into account rates on market sources of funds.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Primary credit rate in a financial emergency.</I> (1) The primary credit rate at a Federal Reserve Bank is the target federal funds rate of the Federal Open Market Committee or, if the Federal Open Market Committee has set a target range for the federal funds rate, the rate corresponding to the top of the target range, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) In a financial emergency the Reserve Bank has established the primary credit rate at that rate; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Chairman of the Board of Governors (or, in the Chairman's absence, his authorized designee) certifies that a quorum of the Board is not available to act on the Reserve Bank's rate establishment. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a financial emergency is a significant disruption to the U.S. money markets resulting from an act of war, military or terrorist attack, natural disaster, or other catastrophic event. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Term auction facility.</I> The interest rate on advances to depository institutions made pursuant to an auction under § 201.4(e) is the rate at which all bids at that auction may be fulfilled, up to the maximum auction amount and subject to any minimum bid rate and other conditions as set by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 67 FR 67787, Nov. 7, 2002]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 201.51, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.104" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.104   Eligibility of consumer loans and finance company paper.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has clarified and modified its position with respect to the eligibility of consumer loans and finance company paper for discount with and as collateral for advances by the reserve banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 13, paragraph 2, of the Federal Reserve Act authorizes a Federal Reserve Bank, under certain conditions, to discount for member banks
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * notes, drafts, and bills of exchange arising out of actual commercial transactions; that is, notes, drafts, and bills of exchange issued or drawn for agricultural, industrial, or commercial purposes, or the proceeds of which have been used, or are to be used, for such purposes, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to have the right to determine or define the character of the paper thus eligible for discount, within the meaning of this Act.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) It continues to be the opinion of the Board that borrowing for the purpose of purchasing goods is borrowing for a commercial purpose, whether the borrower intends to use the goods himself or to resell them. Hence, loans made to enable consumers to purchase automobiles or other goods should be included under commercial, agricultural, and industrial paper within the meaning of the Federal Reserve Act, and as such are eligible for discounting with the Reserve Banks and as security for advances from the Reserve Banks under section 13, paragraph 8, of the Federal Reserve Act as long as they conform to requirements with respect to maturity and other matters. This applies equally to loans made directly by banks to consumers and to paper accepted by banks from dealers or finance companies. It also applies to notes of finance companies themselves as long as the proceeds of such notes are used to finance the purchase of consumer goods or for other purposes which are eligible within the meaning of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) If there is any question as to whether the proceeds of a note of a finance company have been or are to be used for a commercial, agricultural, or industrial purpose, a financial statement of the finance company reflecting an excess of notes receivable which appear eligible for rediscount (without regard to maturity) over total current liabilities (i.e., notes due within 1 year) may be taken as an indication of eligibility. Where information is lacking as to whether direct consumer loans by a finance company are for eligible purposes, it may be assumed that 50 percent of such loans are “notes receivable which appear eligible for rediscount”. In addition, that language should be regarded as including notes given for the purchase of mobile homes that are acquired by a finance company from a dealer-seller of such homes. 
</P>
<P>(e) The principles stated above apply not only to notes of a finance company engaged in making consumer loans but also to notes of a finance company engaged in making loans for other eligible purposes, including business and agricultural loans. Under section 13a of the Federal Reserve Act, paper representing loans to finance the production, marketing, and carrying of agricultural products or the breeding, raising, fattening, or marketing of livestock is eligible for discount if the paper has a maturity of not exceeding 9 months. Consequently, a note of a finance company the proceeds of which are used by it to make loans for such purposes is eligible for discount or as security for a Federal Reserve advance, and such a note, unlike the note of a finance company making consumer loans, may have a maturity of up to 9 months. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 4701, Mar. 4, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.107" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.107   Eligibility of demand paper for discount and as security for advances by Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has reconsidered a ruling made in 1917 that demand notes are ineligible for discount under the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act. (1917 Federal Reserve Bulletin 378.) 
</P>
<P>(b) The basis of that ruling was the provision in the second paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act that notes, drafts, and bills of exchange must have a maturity at the time of discount of not more than 90 days, exclusive of grace. The ruling stated that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>a demand note or bill is not eligible under the provisions of the act, since it is not in terms payable within the prescribed 90 days, but, at the option of the holder, may not be presented for payment until after that time.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) It is well settled as a matter of law, however, that demand paper is due and payable on the date of its issue. The generally accepted legal view is stated in Beutel's Brannan on Negotiable Instruments Law, at page 305, as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The words <I>on demand</I> serve the same purpose as words making instruments payable at a specified time. They fix maturity of the obligation and do not make demand necessary, but mean that the instrument is due, payable and matured when made and delivered.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Accordingly, the Board has concluded that, since demand paper is due and payable on the date of its issue, it satisfies the maturity requirements of the statute. Demand paper which otherwise meets the eligibility requirements of the Federal Reserve Act and this part Regulation A, therefore, is eligible for discount and as security for advances by Reserve Banks. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 5443, Apr. 16, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.108" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.108   Obligations eligible as collateral for advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 3(a) of Pub. L. 90-505, approved September 21, 1968, amended the eighth paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 347) to authorize advances thereunder to member banks “secured by such obligations as are eligible for purchase under section 14(b) of this Act.” The relevant part of such paragraph had previously referred only to “notes * * * eligible * * * for purchase”, which the Board had construed as not including obligations generally regarded as securities. (See 1962 Federal Reserve Bulletin 690, § 201.103(d).) 
</P>
<P>(b) Under section 14(b) direct obligations of, and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States are eligible for purchase by Reserve Banks. Such obligations include certificates issued by the trustees of Penn Central Transportation Co. that are fully guaranteed by the Secretary of Transportation. Under section 14(b) direct obligations of, and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, any agency of the United States are also eligible for purchase by Reserve Banks. Following are the principal agency obligations eligible as collateral for advances: 
</P>
<P>(1) Federal Intermediate Credit Bank debentures; 
</P>
<P>(2) Federal Home Loan Bank notes and bonds; 
</P>
<P>(3) Federal Land Bank bonds; 
</P>
<P>(4) Bank for Cooperative debentures; 
</P>
<P>(5) Federal National Mortgage Association notes, debentures and guaranteed certificates of participation; 
</P>
<P>(6) Obligations of or fully guaranteed by the Government National Mortgage Association; 
</P>
<P>(7) Merchant Marine bonds; 
</P>
<P>(8) Export-Import Bank notes and guaranteed participation certificates; 
</P>
<P>(9) Farmers Home Administration insured notes; 
</P>
<P>(10) Notes fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the Small Business Administration; 
</P>
<P>(11) Federal Housing Administration debentures; 
</P>
<P>(12) District of Columbia Armory Board bonds; 
</P>
<P>(13) Tennessee Valley Authority bonds and notes; 
</P>
<P>(14) Bonds and notes of local urban renewal or public housing agencies fully supported as to principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States pursuant to section 302 of the Housing Act of 1961 (42 U.S.C. 1421a(c), 1452(c)). 
</P>
<P>(15) Commodity Credit Corporation certificates of interest in a price-support loan pool. 
</P>
<P>(16) Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation notes, debentures, and guaranteed certificates of participation. 
</P>
<P>(17) U.S. Postal Service obligations. 
</P>
<P>(18) Participation certificates evidencing undivided interests in purchase contracts entered into by the General Services Administration. 
</P>
<P>(19) Obligations entered into by the Secretary of Health, Education, and Welfare under the Public Health Service Act, as amended by the Medical Facilities Construction and Modernization Amendments of 1970. 
</P>
<P>(20) Obligations guaranteed by the Overseas Private Investment Corp., pursuant to the provisions of the Foreign Assistance Act of 1961, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing less than a full guarantee of principal and interest by a Federal agency will make an obligation eligible. For example, mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration are not eligible since the insurance contract is not equivalent to an unconditional guarantee and does not fully cover interest payable on the loan. Obligations of international institutions, such as the Inter-American Development Bank and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, are also not eligible, since such institutions are not agencies of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) Also eligible for purchase under section 14(b) are “bills, notes, revenue bonds, and warrants with a maturity from date of purchase of not exceeding 6 months, issued in anticipation of the collection of taxes or in anticipation of the receipt of assured revenues by any State, county, district, political subdivision, or municipality in the continental United States, including irrigation, drainage and reclamation districts.”
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> In determining the eligibility of such obligations as collateral for advances, but the Reserve Bank will satisfy itself that sufficient tax or other assured revenues earmarked for payment of such obligations will be available for that purpose at maturity, or within 6 months from the date of the advance if no maturity is stated. Payments due from Federal, State or other governmental units may, in the Reserve Bank's discretion, be regarded as “other assured revenues”; but neither the proceeds of a prospective issue of securities nor future tolls, rents or similar collections for the voluntary use of government property for non-governmental purposes will normally be so regarded. Obligations with original maturities exceeding 1 year would not ordinarily be self-liquidating as contemplated by the statute, unless at the time of issue provision is made for a redemption or sinking fund that will be sufficient to pay such obligations at maturity. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Paragraph 3 of section 1 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 221) defines <I>the continental United States</I> to mean “the States of the United States and the District of Columbia”, thus including Alaska and Hawaii.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. A, 33 FR 17231, Nov. 21, 1968, as amended at 34 FR 1113, Jan. 24, 1969; 34 FR 6417, Apr. 12, 1969; 36 FR 8441, May 6, 1971; 37 FR 24105, Nov. 14, 1972; 43 FR 53709, Nov. 17, 1978; 58 FR 68515, Dec. 28, 1993; 80 FR 78965, Dec. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.109" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.109   Eligibility for discount of mortgage company notes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The question has arisen whether notes issued by mortgage banking companies to finance their acquisition and temporary holding of real estate mortgages are eligible for discount by Reserve Banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act the Board has authority to define what are “agricultural, industrial, or commercial purposes”, which is the statutory criterion for determining the eligibility of notes and drafts for discount. However, such definition may not include paper “covering merely investments or issued or drawn for the purpose of carrying or trading in stocks, bonds, or other investment securities”. 
</P>
<P>(c) The legislative history of section 13 suggests that Congress intended to make eligible for discount “any paper drawn for a legitimate business purpose of any kind” 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and that the Board, in determining what paper is eligible, should place a “broad and adaptable construction” 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> upon the terms in section 13. It may also be noted that Congress apparently considered paper issued to carry investment securities as paper issued for a “commercial purpose”, since it specifically prohibited the Board from making such paper eligible for discount. If “commercial” is broad enough to encompass investment banking, it would also seem to include mortgage banking. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> House Report No. 69, 63d Cong., p. 48.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> 50 Cong. Rec. 4675 (1913) (remarks of Rep. Phelan).</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) In providing for the discount of commercial paper by Reserve Banks, Congress obviously intended to facilitate the current financing of agriculture, industry, and commerce, as opposed to long-term investment. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> In the main, trading in stocks and bonds is investment-oriented; most securities transactions do not directly affect the production or distribution of goods and services. Mortgage banking, on the other hand, is essential to the construction industry and thus more closely related to industry and commerce. Although investment bankers also perform similar functions with respect to newly issued securities, Congress saw fit to deny eligibility to all paper issued to finance the carrying of securities. Congress did not distinguish between newly issued and outstanding securities, perhaps covering the larger area in order to make certain that the area of principal concern (i.e., trading in outstanding stocks and bonds) was fully included. Speculation was also a major Congressional concern, but speculation is not a material element in mortgage banking operations. Mortgage loans would not therefore seem to be within the purpose underlying the exclusions from eligibility in section 13. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> 50 Cong. Rec. 5021 (1913) (remarks of Rep. Thompson of Oklahoma); 50 Cong. Rec. 4731-32 (1913) (remarks of Rep. Borland).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) Section 201.3(a) provides that a negotiable note maturing in 90 days or less is not eligible for discount if the proceeds are used “for permanent or fixed investments of any kind, such as land, buildings or machinery, or for any other fixed capital purpose”. However, the proceeds of a mortgage company's commercial paper are not used by it for any permanent or fixed capital purpose, but only to carry temporarily an inventory of mortgage loans pending their “packaging” for sale to permanent investors that are usually recurrent customers. 
</P>
<P>(f) In view of the foregoing considerations the Board concluded that notes issued to finance such temporary “warehousing” of real estate mortgage loans are notes issued for an industrial or commercial purpose, that such mortgage loans do not constitute “investment securities”, as that term is used in section 13, and that the temporary holding of such mortgages in these circumstances is not a permanent investment by the mortgage banking company. Accordingly, the Board held that notes having not more than 90 days to run which are issued to finance the temporary holding of mortgage loans are eligible for discount by Reserve Banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 527, Jan. 15, 1970, as amended at 58 FR 68515, Dec. 28, 1993; 80 FR 78965, Dec. 18, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 201.110" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 201.110   Goods held by persons employed by owner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked to review an Interpretation it issued in 1933 concerning the eligibility for rediscount by a Federal Reserve Bank of bankers' acceptances issued against field warehouse receipts where the custodian of the goods is a present or former employee of the borrower. [¶ 1445 Published Interpretations, 1933 BULLETIN 188] The Board determined at that time that the acceptances were not eligible because such receipts do not comply with the requirement of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act that a banker's acceptance be “secured at the time of acceptance by a warehouse receipt or other such document <I>conveying or securing title</I> covering readily marketable staples,” nor with the requirement of section XI of the Board's Regulation A that it be “secured at the time of acceptance by a warehouse, terminal, or other similar receipt, conveying security title to such staples, <I>issued by a party independent of the customer.”</I>
</P>
<FP>The requirement that the receipt be “issued by a party independent of the customer” was deleted from Regulation A in 1973, and thus the primary issue for the Board's consideration is whether a field warehouse receipt is a document “securing title” to readily marketable staples. 
</FP>
<P>(b) While bankers' acceptances secured by field warehouse receipts are rarely offered for rediscount or as collateral for an advance, the issue of “eligibility” is still significant. If an ineligible acceptance is discounted and then sold by a member bank, the proceeds are deemed to be “deposits” under § 204.1(f) of Regulation D and are subject to reserve requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) In reviewing this matter, the Board has taken into consideration the changes that have occurred in commercial law and practice since 1933. Modern commercial law, embodied in the Uniform Commercial Code, refers to “perfecting security interests” rather than “securing title” to goods. The Board believes that if, under State law, the issuance of a field warehouse receipt provides the lender with a perfected security interest in the goods, the receipt should be regarded as a document “securing title” to goods for the purposes of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. It should be noted, however, that the mere existence of a perfected security interest alone is not sufficient; the Act requires that the acceptance be secured by a warehouse receipt or its equivalent. 
</P>
<P>(d) Under the U.C.C., evidence of an agreement between the secured party and the debtor must exist before a security interest can attach. [U.C.C. section 9-202.] This agreement may be evidence by: (1) A written security agreement signed by the debtor, or (2) the collateral being placed in the possession of the secured party or his agent [U.C.C. section 9-203]. Generally, a security interest is perfected by the filing of a financing statement, [U.C.C. section 9-302.] However, if the collateral is in the possession of a bailee, then perfection can be achieved by:
</P>
<P>(1) Having warehouse receipts issued in the name of the secured party; (2) notifying the bailee of the secured party's interest; or (3) having a financing statement filed. [U.C.C. section 9-304(3).] 
</P>
<P>(e) If the field warehousing operation is properly conducted, a security interest in the goods is perfected when a warehouse receipt is issued in the name of the secured party (the lending bank). Therefore, warehouse receipts issued pursuant to a bona fide field warehousing operation satisfy the legal requirements of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. Moreover, in a properly conducted field warehousing operation, the warehouse manager will be trained, bonded, supervised and audited by the field warehousing company. This procedure tends to insure that he will not be impermissibly controlled by his former (or sometimes present) employer, the borrower, even though he may look to the borrower for reemployment at some future time. A prudent lender will, of course, carefully review the field warehousing operation to ensure that stated procedures are satisfactory and that they are actually being followed. The lender may also wish to review the field warehousing company's fidelity bonds and legal liability insurance policies to ensure that they provide satisfactory protection to the lender. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the warehousing operation is not conducted properly, however, and the manager remains under the control of the borrower, the security interest may be lost. Consequently, the lender may wish to require a written security agreement and the filing of a financing statement to insure that the lender will have a perfected security interest even if it is later determined that the field warehousing operation was not properly conducted. It should be noted however, that the Federal Reserve Act clearly requires that the bankers' acceptance be secured by a warehouse receipt in order to satisfy the requirements of eligibility, and a written security agreement and a filed financing statement, while desirable, cannot serve as a substitute for a warehouse receipt. 
</P>
<P>(g) This Interpretation is based on facts that have been presented in regard to field warehousing operations conducted by established, professional field warehouse companies, and it does not necessarily apply to all field warehousing operations. Thus ¶ 1430 and ¶ 1440 of the Published Interpretations [1918 BULLETIN 31 and 1918 BULLETIN 862] maintain their validity with regard to corporations formed for the purpose of conducting limited field warehousing operations. Furthermore, the prohibition contained in ¶ 1435 Published Interpretations [1918 BULLETIN 634] that “the borrower shall not have access to the premises and shall exercise no control over the goods stored” retains its validity, except that access for inspection purposes is still permitted under ¶ 1450 [1926 BULLETIN 666]. The purpose for the acceptance transaction must be proper and cannot be for speculation [¶ 1400, 1919 BULLETIN 858] or for the purpose of furnishing working capital [¶ 1405, 1922 BULLETIN 52]. 
</P>
<P>(h) This interpretation supersedes only the previous ¶ 1445 of the Published Interpretations [1933 BULLETIN 188], and is not intended to affect any other Board Interpretation regarding field warehousing.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 342 <I>et seq.</I>)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 21434, May 18, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="202" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 202—EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT (REGULATION B)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1691-1691f; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 202.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.1   Authority, scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope.</I> This regulation is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). Except as otherwise provided herein, this regulation applies to all persons who are creditors, as defined in § 202.2(1). Information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0201. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this regulation is to promote the availability of credit to all creditworthy applicants without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract); to the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program; or to the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The regulation prohibits creditor practices that discriminate on the basis of any of these factors. The regulation also requires creditors to notify applicants of action taken on their applications; to report credit history in the names of both spouses on an account; to retain records of credit applications; to collect information about the applicant's race and other personal characteristics in applications for certain dwelling-related loans; and to provide applicants with copies of appraisal reports used in connection with credit transactions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this regulation, unless the context indicates otherwise, the following definitions apply. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> means an extension of credit. When employed in relation to an account, the word use refers only to open-end credit. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (title VII of the Consumer Credit Protection Act). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adverse action.</I> (1) The term means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A refusal to grant credit in substantially the amount or on substantially the terms requested in an application unless the creditor makes a counteroffer (to grant credit in a different amount or on other terms) and the applicant uses or expressly accepts the credit offered; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A termination of an account or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor's accounts; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A refusal to increase the amount of credit available to an applicant who has made an application for an increase. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the terms of an account expressly agreed to by an applicant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action or forbearance relating to an account taken in connection with inactivity, default, or delinquency as to that account; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at point of sale or loan, except when the refusal is a termination or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor's accounts, or when the refusal is a denial of an application for an increase in the amount of credit available under the account; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A refusal to extend credit because applicable law prohibits the creditor from extending the credit requested; or 
</P>
<P>(v) A refusal to extend credit because the creditor does not offer the type of credit or credit plan requested. 
</P>
<P>(3) An action that falls within the definition of both paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section is governed by paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Age</I> refers only to the age of natural persons and means the number of fully elapsed years from the date of an applicant's birth. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who requests or who has received an extension of credit from a creditor, and includes any person who is or may become contractually liable regarding an extension of credit. For purposes of § 202.7(d), the term includes guarantors, sureties, endorsers, and similar parties. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application</I> means an oral or written request for an extension of credit that is made in accordance with procedures used by a creditor for the type of credit requested. The term application does not include the use of an account or line of credit to obtain an amount of credit that is within a previously established credit limit. A <I>completed application</I> means an application in connection with which a creditor has received all the information that the creditor regularly obtains and considers in evaluating applications for the amount and type of credit requested (including, but not limited to, credit reports, any additional information requested from the applicant, and any approvals or reports by governmental agencies or other persons that are necessary to guarantee, insure, or provide security for the credit or collateral). The creditor shall exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining such information. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Business credit</I> refers to extensions of credit primarily for business or commercial (including agricultural) purposes, but excluding extensions of credit of the types described in § 202.3(a)-(d). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit extended to a natural person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contractually liable</I> means expressly obligated to repay all debts arising on an account by reason of an agreement to that effect. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Credit</I> means the right granted by a creditor to an applicant to defer payment of a debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Credit card</I> means any card, plate, coupon book, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain money, property, or services on credit. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Creditor</I> means a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly participates in a credit decision, including setting the terms of the credit. The term creditor includes a creditor's assignee, transferee, or subrogee who so participates. For purposes of § 202.4(a) and (b), the term creditor also includes a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly refers applicants or prospective applicants to creditors, or selects or offers to select creditors to whom requests for credit may be made. A person is not a creditor regarding any violation of the Act or this regulation committed by another creditor unless the person knew or had reasonable notice of the act, policy, or practice that constituted the violation before becoming involved in the credit transaction. The term does not include a person whose only participation in a credit transaction involves honoring a credit card. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Credit transaction</I> means every aspect of an applicant's dealings with a creditor regarding an application for credit or an existing extension of credit (including, but not limited to, information requirements; investigation procedures; standards of creditworthiness; terms of credit; furnishing of credit information; revocation, alteration, or termination of credit; and collection procedures). 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Discriminate against an applicant</I> means to treat an applicant less favorably than other applicants. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Elderly</I> means age 62 or older. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems</I>—(1) <I>A credit scoring system</I> is a system that evaluates an applicant's creditworthiness mechanically, based on key attributes of the applicant and aspects of the transaction, and that determines, alone or in conjunction with an evaluation of additional information about the applicant, whether an applicant is deemed creditworthy. To qualify as an <I>empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system,</I> the system must be: 
</P>
<P>(i) Based on data that are derived from an empirical comparison of sample groups or the population of creditworthy and noncreditworthy applicants who applied for credit within a reasonable preceding period of time; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Developed for the purpose of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants with respect to the legitimate business interests of the creditor utilizing the system (including, but not limited to, minimizing bad debt losses and operating expenses in accordance with the creditor's business judgment); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Developed and validated using accepted statistical principles and methodology; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Periodically revalidated by the use of appropriate statistical principles and methodology and adjusted as necessary to maintain predictive ability. 
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may use an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system obtained from another person or may obtain credit experience from which to develop such a system. Any such system must satisfy the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section; if the creditor is unable during the development process to validate the system based on its own credit experience in accordance with paragraph (p)(1) of this section, the system must be validated when sufficient credit experience becomes available. A system that fails this validity test is no longer an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system for that creditor. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Extend credit</I> and <I>extension of credit</I> mean the granting of credit in any form (including, but not limited to, credit granted in addition to any existing credit or credit limit; credit granted pursuant to an open-end credit plan; the refinancing or other renewal of credit, including the issuance of a new credit card in place of an expiring credit card or in substitution for an existing credit card; the consolidation of two or more obligations; or the continuance of existing credit without any special effort to collect at or after maturity). 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Good faith</I> means honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Inadvertent error</I> means a mechanical, electronic, or clerical error that a creditor demonstrates was not intentional and occurred notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Judgmental system of evaluating applicants</I> means any system for evaluating the creditworthiness of an applicant other than an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Marital status</I> means the state of being unmarried, married, or separated, as defined by applicable state law. The term “unmarried” includes persons who are single, divorced, or widowed. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Negative factor or value,</I> in relation to the age of elderly applicants, means utilizing a factor, value, or weight that is less favorable regarding elderly applicants than the creditor's experience warrants or is less favorable than the factor, value, or weight assigned to the class of applicants that are not classified as elderly and are most favored by a creditor on the basis of age. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Open-end credit</I> means credit extended under a plan in which a creditor may permit an applicant to make purchases or obtain loans from time to time directly from the creditor or indirectly by use of a credit card, check, or other device. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, estate, partnership, cooperative, or association. 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Pertinent element of creditworthiness,</I> in relation to a judgmental system of evaluating applicants, means any information about applicants that a creditor obtains and considers and that has a demonstrable relationship to a determination of creditworthiness. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Prohibited basis</I> means race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act or any state law upon which an exemption has been granted by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.3   Limited exceptions for certain classes of transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public utilities credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Public utilities credit refers to extensions of credit that involve public utility services provided through pipe, wire, or other connected facilities, or radio or similar transmission (including extensions of such facilities), if the charges for service, delayed payment, and any discount for prompt payment are filed with or regulated by a government unit. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to public utilities credit: 
</P>
<P>(i) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Securities credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Securities credit refers to extensions of credit subject to regulation under section 7 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or extensions of credit by a broker or dealer subject to regulation as a broker or dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to securities credit: 
</P>
<P>(i) Section 202.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 202.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 202.7(b) relating to designation of name to the extent necessary to comply with rules regarding an account in which a broker or dealer has an interest, or rules regarding the aggregation of accounts of spouses to determine controlling interests, beneficial interests, beneficial ownership, or purchase limitations and restrictions; 
</P>
<P>(v) Section 202.7(c) relating to action concerning open-end accounts, to the extent the action taken is on the basis of a change of name or marital status; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 202.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 202.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and 
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incidental credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Incidental credit refers to extensions of consumer credit other than the types described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) That are not made pursuant to the terms of a credit card account; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That are not subject to a finance charge (as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 226.4); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) That are not payable by agreement in more than four installments. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this regulation do not apply to incidental credit: 
</P>
<P>(i) Section 202.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant, but only to the extent necessary for medical records or similar purposes; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 202.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 202.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 202.5(d)(2) concerning information about income derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments; 
</P>
<P>(v) Section 202.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 202.9 relating to notifications; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 202.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and 
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 202.12(b) relating to record retention. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Government credit refers to extensions of credit made to governments or governmental subdivisions, agencies, or instrumentalities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of regulation.</I> Except for § 202.4(a), the general rule against discrimination on a prohibited basis, the requirements of this regulation do not apply to government credit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.4   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discrimination.</I> A creditor shall not discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis regarding any aspect of a credit transaction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discouragement.</I> A creditor shall not make any oral or written statement, in advertising or otherwise, to applicants or prospective applicants that would discourage on a prohibited basis a reasonable person from making or pursuing an application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written applications.</I> A creditor shall take written applications for the dwelling-related types of credit covered by § 202.13(a). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor that provides in writing any disclosures or information required by this regulation must provide the disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner and, except for the disclosures required by §§ 202.5 and 202.13, in a form the applicant may retain.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures in electronic form.</I> The disclosures required by this part that are required to be given in writing may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). Where the disclosures under §§ 202.5(b)(1), 202.5(b)(2), 202.5(d)(1), 202.5(d)(2), 202.13, and 202.14(a)(2)(i) accompany an application accessed by the applicant in electronic form, these disclosures may be provided to the applicant in electronic form on or with the application form, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign-language disclosures.</I> Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 63451, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.5   Rules concerning requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Requests for information.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor may request any information in connection with a credit transaction. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This paragraph does not limit or abrogate any Federal or State law regarding privacy, privileged information, credit reporting limitations, or similar restrictions on obtainable information.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Required collection of information.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor shall request information for monitoring purposes as required by § 202.13 for credit secured by the applicant's dwelling. In addition, a creditor may obtain information required by a regulation, order, or agreement issued by, or entered into with, a court or an enforcement agency (including the Attorney General of the United States or a similar state official) to monitor or enforce compliance with the Act, this regulation, or other federal or state statutes or regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special-purpose credit.</I> A creditor may obtain information that is otherwise restricted to determine eligibility for a special purpose credit program, as provided in § 202.8(b), (c), and (d). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on information about race, color, religion, national origin, or sex.</I> A creditor shall not inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Self-test.</I> A creditor may inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction for the purpose of conducting a self-test that meets the requirements of § 202.15. A creditor that makes such an inquiry shall disclose orally or in writing, at the time the information is requested, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant will not be required to provide the information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor is requesting the information to monitor its compliance with the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal law prohibits the creditor from discriminating on the basis of this information, or on the basis of an applicant's decision not to furnish the information; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, certain information will be collected based on visual observation or surname if not provided by the applicant or other person. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sex.</I> An applicant may be requested to designate a title on an application form (such as Ms., Miss, Mr., or Mrs.) if the form discloses that the designation of a title is optional. An application form shall otherwise use only terms that are neutral as to sex. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information about a spouse or former spouse</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor may not request any information concerning the spouse or former spouse of an applicant. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible inquiries.</I> A creditor may request any information concerning an applicant's spouse (or former spouse under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section) that may be requested about the applicant if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The spouse will be permitted to use the account; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The spouse will be contractually liable on the account; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant is relying on the spouse's income as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; or 
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant is relying on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments from a spouse or former spouse as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other accounts of the applicant.</I> A creditor may request that an applicant list any account on which the applicant is contractually liable and to provide the name and address of the person in whose name the account is held. A creditor may also ask an applicant to list the names in which the applicant has previously received credit. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other limitations on information requests</I>—(1) <I>Marital status.</I> If an applicant applies for individual unsecured credit, a creditor shall not inquire about the applicant's marital status unless the applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. If an application is for other than individual unsecured credit, a creditor may inquire about the applicant's marital status, but shall use only the terms <I>married, unmarried,</I> and <I>separated.</I> A creditor may explain that the category <I>unmarried</I> includes single, divorced, and widowed persons. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure about income from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance.</I> A creditor shall not inquire whether income stated in an application is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments unless the creditor discloses to the applicant that such income need not be revealed if the applicant does not want the creditor to consider it in determining the applicant's creditworthiness. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Childbearing, childrearing.</I> A creditor shall not inquire about birth control practices, intentions concerning the bearing or rearing of children, or capability to bear children. A creditor may inquire about the number and ages of an applicant's dependents or about dependent-related financial obligations or expenditures, provided such information is requested without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permanent residency and immigration status.</I> A creditor may inquire about the permanent residency and immigration status of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.6   Rules concerning evaluation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule concerning use of information.</I> Except as otherwise provided in the Act and this regulation, a creditor may consider any information obtained, so long as the information is not used to discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The legislative history of the Act indicates that the Congress intended an “effects test” concept, as outlined in the employment field by the Supreme Court in the cases of <I>Griggs</I> v. <I>Duke Power Co.,</I> 401 U.S. 424 (1971), and <I>Albemarle Paper Co.</I> v. <I>Moody,</I> 422 U.S. 405 (1975), to be applicable to a creditor's determination of creditworthiness.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules concerning use of information.</I> (1) Except as provided in the Act and this regulation, a creditor shall not take a prohibited basis into account in any system of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Age, receipt of public assistance.</I> (i) Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor shall not take into account an applicant's age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract) or whether an applicant's income derives from any public assistance program. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system, a creditor may use an applicant's age as a predictive variable, provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In a judgmental system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider an applicant's age or whether an applicant's income derives from any public assistance program only for the purpose of determining a pertinent element of creditworthiness. 
</P>
<P>(iv) In any system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider the age of an elderly applicant when such age is used to favor the elderly applicant in extending credit. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Childbearing, childrearing.</I> In evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor shall not make assumptions or use aggregate statistics relating to the likelihood that any category of persons will bear or rear children or will, for that reason, receive diminished or interrupted income in the future. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Telephone listing.</I> A creditor shall not take into account whether there is a telephone listing in the name of an applicant for consumer credit but may take into account whether there is a telephone in the applicant's residence. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Income.</I> A creditor shall not discount or exclude from consideration the income of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant because of a prohibited basis or because the income is derived from part-time employment or is an annuity, pension, or other retirement benefit; a creditor may consider the amount and probable continuance of any income in evaluating an applicant's creditworthiness. When an applicant relies on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments in applying for credit, the creditor shall consider such payments as income to the extent that they are likely to be consistently made. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit history.</I> To the extent that a creditor considers credit history in evaluating the creditworthiness of similarly qualified applicants for a similar type and amount of credit, in evaluating an applicant's creditworthiness a creditor shall consider: 
</P>
<P>(i) The credit history, when available, of accounts designated as accounts that the applicant and the applicant's spouse are permitted to use or for which both are contractually liable;
</P>
<P>(ii) On the applicant's request, any information the applicant may present that tends to indicate the credit history being considered by the creditor does not accurately reflect the applicant's creditworthiness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) On the applicant's request, the credit history, when available, of any account reported in the name of the applicant's spouse or former spouse that the applicant can demonstrate accurately reflects the applicant's creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Immigration status.</I> A creditor may consider the applicant's immigration status or status as a permanent resident of the United States, and any additional information that may be necessary to ascertain the creditor's rights and remedies regarding repayment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Marital status.</I> Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall evaluate married and unmarried applicants by the same standards; and in evaluating joint applicants, a creditor shall not treat applicants differently based on the existence, absence, or likelihood of a marital relationship between the parties.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Race, color, religion, national origin, sex.</I> Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall not consider race, color, religion, national origin, or sex (or an applicant's or other person's decision not to provide the information) in any aspect of a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State property laws.</I> A creditor's consideration or application of state property laws directly or indirectly affecting creditworthiness does not constitute unlawful discrimination for the purposes of the Act or this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.7   Rules concerning extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual accounts.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to grant an individual account to a creditworthy applicant on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of name.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to allow an applicant to open or maintain an account in a birth-given first name and a surname that is the applicant's birth-given surname, the spouse's surname, or a combined surname.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action concerning existing open-end accounts</I>—(1) <I>Limitations.</I> In the absence of evidence of the applicant's inability or unwillingness to repay, a creditor shall not take any of the following actions regarding an applicant who is contractually liable on an existing open-end account on the basis of the applicant's reaching a certain age or retiring or on the basis of a change in the applicant's name or marital status:
</P>
<P>(i) Require a reapplication, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change the terms of the account; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminate the account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requiring reapplication.</I> A creditor may require a reapplication for an open-end account on the basis of a change in the marital status of an applicant who is contractually liable if the credit granted was based in whole or in part on income of the applicant's spouse and if information available to the creditor indicates that the applicant's income may not support the amount of credit currently available.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature of spouse or other person</I>—(1) <I>Rule for qualified applicant.</I> Except as provided in this paragraph, a creditor shall not require the signature of an applicant's spouse or other person, other than a joint applicant, on any credit instrument if the applicant qualifies under the creditor's standards of creditworthiness for the amount and terms of the credit requested. A creditor shall not deem the submission of a joint financial statement or other evidence of jointly held assets as an application for joint credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsecured credit.</I> If an applicant requests unsecured credit and relies in part upon property that the applicant owns jointly with another person to satisfy the creditor's standards of creditworthiness, the creditor may require the signature of the other person only on the instrument(s) necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under the law of the state in which the property is located, to enable the creditor to reach the property being relied upon in the event of the death or default of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unsecured credit</I>—<I>community property states.</I> If a married applicant requests unsecured credit and resides in a community property state, or if the applicant is relying on property located in such a state, a creditor may require the signature of the spouse on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the community property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default if:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable state law denies the applicant power to manage or control sufficient community property to qualify for the credit requested under the creditor's standards of creditworthiness; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant does not have sufficient separate property to qualify for the credit requested without regard to community property.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Secured credit.</I> If an applicant requests secured credit, a creditor may require the signature of the applicant's spouse or other person on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the property being offered as security available to satisfy the debt in the event of default, for example, an instrument to create a valid lien, pass clear title, waive inchoate rights, or assign earnings.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional parties.</I> If, under a creditor's standards of creditworthiness, the personal liability of an additional party is necessary to support the credit requested, a creditor may request a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar party. The applicant's spouse may serve as an additional party, but the creditor shall not require that the spouse be the additional party.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rights of additional parties.</I> A creditor shall not impose requirements upon an additional party that the creditor is prohibited from imposing upon an applicant under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insurance.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to extend credit and shall not terminate an account because credit life, health, accident, disability, or other credit-related insurance is not available on the basis of the applicant's age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.8   Special purpose credit programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for programs.</I> Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Act and this regulation permit a creditor to extend special purpose credit to applicants who meet eligibility requirements under the following types of credit programs:
</P>
<P>(1) Any credit assistance program expressly authorized by federal or state law for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Any credit assistance program offered by a not-for-profit organization, as defined under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, for the benefit of its members or for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any special purpose credit program offered by a for-profit organization, or in which such an organization participates to meet special social needs, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The program is established and administered pursuant to a written plan that identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit and sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit pursuant to the program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The program is established and administered to extend credit to a class of persons who, under the organization's customary standards of creditworthiness, probably would not receive such credit or would receive it on less favorable terms than are ordinarily available to other applicants applying to the organization for a similar type and amount of credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules in other sections</I>—(1) <I>General applicability.</I> All the provisions of this regulation apply to each of the special purpose credit programs described in paragraph (a) of this section except as modified by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Common characteristics.</I> A program described in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section qualifies as a special purpose credit program only if it was established and is administered so as not to discriminate against an applicant on any prohibited basis; however, all program participants may be required to share one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) so long as the program was not established and is not administered with the purpose of evading the requirements of the Act or this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule concerning requests and use of information.</I> If participants in a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section are required to possess one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) and if the program otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a creditor may request and consider information regarding the common characteristic(s) in determining the applicant's eligibility for the program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule in the case of financial need.</I> If financial need is one of the criteria under a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section, the creditor may request and consider, in determining an applicant's eligibility for the program, information regarding the applicant's marital status; alimony, child support, and separate maintenance income; and the spouse's financial resources. In addition, a creditor may obtain the signature of an applicant's spouse or other person on an application or credit instrument relating to a special purpose credit program if the signature is required by federal or state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.9   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons</I>—(1) <I>When notification is required.</I> A creditor shall notify an applicant of action taken within:
</P>
<P>(i) 30 days after receiving a completed application concerning the creditor's approval of, counteroffer to, or adverse action on the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an incomplete application, unless notice is provided in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an existing account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 90 days after notifying the applicant of a counteroffer if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of notification when adverse action is taken.</I> A notification given to an applicant when adverse action is taken shall be in writing and shall contain a statement of the action taken; the name and address of the creditor; a statement of the provisions of § 701(a) of the Act; the name and address of the federal agency that administers compliance with respect to the creditor; and either:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of specific reasons for the action taken; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A disclosure of the applicant's right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, if the statement is requested within 60 days of the creditor's notification. The disclosure shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained. If the creditor chooses to provide the reasons orally, the creditor shall also disclose the applicant's right to have them confirmed in writing within 30 days of receiving the applicant's written request for confirmation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification to business credit applicants.</I> For business credit, a creditor shall comply with the notification requirements of this section in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(i) With regard to a business that had gross revenues of $1 million or less in its preceding fiscal year (other than an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit), a creditor shall comply with paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) The statement of the action taken may be given orally or in writing, when adverse action is taken;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure of an applicant's right to a statement of reasons may be given at the time of application, instead of when adverse action is taken, provided the disclosure contains the information required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) For an application made entirely by telephone, a creditor satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section by an oral statement of the action taken and of the applicant's right to a statement of reasons for adverse action.
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, a creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify the applicant, within a reasonable time, orally or in writing, of the action taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provide a written statement of the reasons for adverse action and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the applicant makes a written request for the reasons within 60 days of the creditor's notification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons</I>—(1) <I>ECOA notice.</I> To satisfy the disclosure requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section regarding section 701(a) of the Act, the creditor shall provide a notice that is substantially similar to the following: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A of this regulation].
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of specific reasons.</I> The statement of reasons for adverse action required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be specific and indicate the principal reason(s) for the adverse action. Statements that the adverse action was based on the creditor's internal standards or policies or that the applicant, joint applicant, or similar party failed to achieve a qualifying score on the creditor's credit scoring system are insufficient.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incomplete applications</I>—(1) <I>Notice alternatives.</I> Within 30 days after receiving an application that is incomplete regarding matters that an applicant can complete, the creditor shall notify the applicant either:
</P>
<P>(i) Of action taken, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Of the incompleteness, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of incompleteness.</I> If additional information is needed from an applicant, the creditor shall send a written notice to the applicant specifying the information needed, designating a reasonable period of time for the applicant to provide the information, and informing the applicant that failure to provide the information requested will result in no further consideration being given to the application. The creditor shall have no further obligation under this section if the applicant fails to respond within the designated time period. If the applicant supplies the requested information within the designated time period, the creditor shall take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oral request for information.</I> At its option, a creditor may inform the applicant orally of the need for additional information. If the application remains incomplete the creditor shall send a notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral notifications by small-volume creditors.</I> In the case of a creditor that did not receive more than 150 applications during the preceding calendar year, the requirements of this section (including statements of specific reasons) are satisfied by oral notifications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of approved application.</I> When an applicant submits an application and the parties contemplate that the applicant will inquire about its status, if the creditor approves the application and the applicant has not inquired within 30 days after applying, the creditor may treat the application as withdrawn and need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When an application involves more than one applicant, notification need only be given to one of them but must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applications submitted through a third party.</I> When an application is made on behalf of an applicant to more than one creditor and the applicant expressly accepts or uses credit offered by one of the creditors, notification of action taken by any of the other creditors is not required. If no credit is offered or if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered, each creditor taking adverse action must comply with this section, directly or through a third party. A notice given by a third party shall disclose the identity of each creditor on whose behalf the notice is given.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 63451, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.10   Furnishing of credit information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of accounts.</I> A creditor that furnishes credit information shall designate:
</P>
<P>(1) Any new account to reflect the participation of both spouses if the applicant's spouse is permitted to use or is contractually liable on the account (other than as a guarantor, surety, endorser, or similar party); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any existing account to reflect such participation, within 90 days after receiving a written request to do so from one of the spouses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Routine reports to consumer reporting agency.</I> If a creditor furnishes credit information to a consumer reporting agency concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in a manner that will enable the agency to provide access to the information in the name of each spouse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting in response to inquiry.</I> If a creditor furnishes credit information in response to an inquiry, concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in the name of the spouse about whom the information is requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.11   Relation to state law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent state laws.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, this regulation alters, affects, or preempts only those state laws that are inconsistent with the Act and this regulation and then only to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is not inconsistent if it is more protective of an applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preempted provisions of state law.</I> (1) A state law is deemed to be inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this regulation and less protective of an applicant within the meaning of section 705(f) of the Act to the extent that the law:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the Act or this regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibits the individual extension of consumer credit to both parties to a marriage if each spouse individually and voluntarily applies for such credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Prohibits inquiries or collection of data required to comply with the Act or this regulation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Prohibits asking about or considering age in an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system to determine a pertinent element of creditworthiness, or to favor an elderly applicant; or
</P>
<P>(v) Prohibits inquiries necessary to establish or administer a special purpose credit program as defined by § 202.8.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor, state, or other interested party may request that the Board determine whether a state law is inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Laws on finance charges, loan ceilings.</I> If married applicants voluntarily apply for and obtain individual accounts with the same creditor, the accounts shall not be aggregated or otherwise combined for purposes of determining permissible finance charges or loan ceilings under any federal or state law. Permissible loan ceiling laws shall be construed to permit each spouse to become individually liable up to the amount of the loan ceilings, less the amount for which the applicant is jointly liable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State and federal laws not affected.</I> This section does not alter or annul any provision of state property laws, laws relating to the disposition of decedents' estates, or federal or state banking regulations directed only toward insuring the solvency of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for state-regulated transactions</I>—(1) <I>Applications.</I> A state may apply to the Board for an exemption from the requirements of the Act and this regulation for any class of credit transactions within the state. The Board will grant such an exemption if the Board determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The class of credit transactions is subject to state law requirements substantially similar to those of the Act and this regulation or that applicants are afforded greater protection under state law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liability and enforcement.</I> (i) No exemption will extend to the civil liability provisions of section 706 of the Act or the administrative enforcement provisions of section 704 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) After an exemption has been granted, the requirements of the applicable state law (except for additional requirements not imposed by federal law) will constitute the requirements of the Act and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.12   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retention of prohibited information.</I> A creditor may retain in its files information that is prohibited by the Act or this regulation for use in evaluating applications, without violating the Act or this regulation, if the information was obtained:
</P>
<P>(1) From any source prior to March 23, 1977;
</P>
<P>(2) From consumer reporting agencies, an applicant, or others without the specific request of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(3) As required to monitor compliance with the Act and this regulation or other federal or state statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preservation of records</I>—(1) <I>Applications.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of action taken on an application or of incompleteness, the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) Any application that it receives, any information required to be obtained concerning characteristics of the applicant to monitor compliance with the Act and this regulation or other similar law, and any other written or recorded information used in evaluating the application and not returned to the applicant at the applicant's request;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the following documents if furnished to the applicant in written form (or, if furnished orally, any notation or memorandum made by the creditor):
</P>
<P>(A) The notification of action taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) The statement of specific reasons for adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing accounts.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of adverse action regarding an existing account, the creditor shall retain as to that account, in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) Any written or recorded information concerning the adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other applications.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) after the date that a creditor receives an application for which the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements of § 202.9, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information in its possession concerning the applicant, including any notation of action taken.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enforcement proceedings and investigations.</I> A creditor shall retain the information beyond 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section) if the creditor has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation of the Act or this part, by the Attorney General of the United States or by an enforcement agency charged with monitoring that creditor's compliance with the Act and this regulation, or if it has been served with notice of an action filed pursuant to section 706 of the Act and § 202.16 of this part. The creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by order of the agency or court.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for certain business credit applications.</I> With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year, or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, the creditor shall retain records for at least 60 days after notifying the applicant of the action taken. If within that time period the applicant requests in writing the reasons for adverse action or that records be retained, the creditor shall retain records for 12 months.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Self-tests.</I> For 25 months after a self-test (as defined in § 202.15) has been completed, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information about the self-test. A creditor shall retain information beyond 25 months if it has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation, or if it has been served with notice of a civil action. In such cases, the creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by the appropriate agency or court order.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prescreened solicitations.</I> For 25 months after the date on which an offer of credit is made to potential customers (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section), the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) The text of any prescreened solicitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The list of criteria the creditor used to select potential recipients of the solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any correspondence related to complaints (formal or informal) about the solicitation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 41599, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.13" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.13   Information for monitoring purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information to be requested.</I> (1) A creditor that receives an application for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling occupied or to be occupied by the applicant as a principal residence, where the extension of credit will be secured by the dwelling, shall request as part of the application the following information regarding the applicant(s):
</P>
<P>(i) Ethnicity, using the categories Hispanic or Latino, and not Hispanic or Latino; and race, using the categories American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, and White;
</P>
<P>(ii) Sex;
</P>
<P>(iii) Marital status, using the categories married, unmarried, and separated; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Age.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit and a mobile or other manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obtaining information.</I> Questions regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age may be listed, at the creditor's option, on the application form or on a separate form that refers to the application. The applicant(s) shall be asked but not required to supply the requested information. If the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information or any part of it, that fact shall be noted on the form. The creditor shall then also note on the form, to the extent possible, the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant(s) on the basis of visual observation or surname.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure to applicant(s).</I> The creditor shall inform the applicant(s) that the information regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age is being requested by the federal government for the purpose of monitoring compliance with federal statutes that prohibit creditors from discriminating against applicants on those bases. The creditor shall also inform the applicant(s) that if the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information, the creditor is required to note the ethnicity, race and sex on the basis of visual observation or surname.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substitute monitoring program.</I> A monitoring program required by an agency charged with administrative enforcement under section 704 of the Act may be substituted for the requirements contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.14" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.14   Rules on providing appraisal reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Providing appraisals.</I> A creditor shall provide a copy of an appraisal report used in connection with an application for credit that is to be secured by a lien on a dwelling. A creditor shall comply with either paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Routine delivery.</I> A creditor may routinely provide a copy of an appraisal report to an applicant (whether credit is granted or denied or the application is withdrawn).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Upon request.</I> A creditor that does not routinely provide appraisal reports shall provide a copy upon an applicant's written request.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice.</I> A creditor that provides appraisal reports only upon request shall notify an applicant in writing of the right to receive a copy of an appraisal report. The notice may be given at any time during the application process but no later than when the creditor provides notice of action taken under § 202.9 of this regulation. The notice shall specify that the applicant's request must be in writing, give the creditor's mailing address, and state the time for making the request as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Delivery.</I> A creditor shall mail or deliver a copy of the appraisal report promptly (generally within 30 days) after the creditor receives an applicant's request, receives the report, or receives reimbursement from the applicant for the report, whichever is last to occur. A creditor need not provide a copy when the applicant's request is received more than 90 days after the creditor has provided notice of action taken on the application under § 202.9 of this regulation or 90 days after the application is withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit unions.</I> A creditor that is subject to the regulations of the National Credit Union Administration on making copies of appraisal reports available is not subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the term dwelling means a residential structure that contains one to four units whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit, and a mobile or other manufactured home. The term <I>appraisal report</I> means the document(s) relied upon by a creditor in evaluating the value of the dwelling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.15" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.15   Incentives for self-testing and self-correction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Voluntary self-testing and correction.</I> The report or results of a self-test that a creditor voluntarily conducts (or authorizes) are privileged as provided in this section. Data collection required by law or by any governmental authority is not a voluntary self-test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corrective action required.</I> The privilege in this section applies only if the creditor has taken or is taking appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other privileges.</I> The privilege created by this section does not preclude the assertion of any other privilege that may also apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-test defined</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> A self-test is any program, practice, or study that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed and used specifically to determine the extent or effectiveness of a creditor's compliance with the Act or this regulation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Creates data or factual information that is not available and cannot be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of information privileged.</I> The privilege under this section applies to the report or results of the self-test, data or factual information created by the self-test, and any analysis, opinions, and conclusions pertaining to the self-test report or results. The privilege covers workpapers or draft documents as well as final documents.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of information not privileged.</I> The privilege under this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Information about whether a creditor conducted a self-test, the methodology used or the scope of the self-test, the time period covered by the self-test, or the dates it was conducted; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Loan and application files or other business records related to credit transactions, and information derived from such files and records, even if the information has been aggregated, summarized, or reorganized to facilitate analysis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appropriate corrective action</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> For the privilege in this section to apply, appropriate corrective action is required when the self-test shows that it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, even though no violation has been formally adjudicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action.</I> A creditor must take corrective action that is reasonably likely to remedy the cause and effect of a likely violation by:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying the policies or practices that are the likely cause of the violation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the extent and scope of any violation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of relief.</I> Appropriate corrective action may include both prospective and remedial relief, except that to establish a privilege under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a tester used in a self-test;
</P>
<P>(ii) A creditor is only required to provide remedial relief to an applicant identified by the self-test as one whose rights were more likely than not violated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a particular applicant if the statute of limitations applicable to the violation expired before the creditor obtained the results of the self-test or the applicant is otherwise ineligible for such relief.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No admission of violation.</I> Taking corrective action is not an admission that a violation occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of privilege</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The report or results of a privileged self-test may not be obtained or used:
</P>
<P>(i) By a government agency in any examination or investigation relating to compliance with the Act or this regulation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a government agency or an applicant (including a prospective applicant who alleges a violation of § 202.4(b)) in any proceeding or civil action in which a violation of the Act or this regulation is alleged.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loss of privilege.</I> The report or results of a self-test are not privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the creditor or a person with lawful access to the report or results:
</P>
<P>(i) Voluntarily discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, to an applicant or government agency or to the public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, as a defense to charges that the creditor has violated the Act or regulation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Fails or is unable to produce written or recorded information about the self-test that is required to be retained under § 202.12(b)(6) when the information is needed to determine whether the privilege applies. This paragraph does not limit any other penalty or remedy that may be available for a violation of § 202.12.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited use of privileged information.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the self-test report or results and any other information privileged under this section may be obtained and used by an applicant or government agency solely to determine a penalty or remedy after a violation of the Act or this regulation has been adjudicated or admitted. Disclosures for this limited purpose may be used only for the particular proceeding in which the adjudication or admission was made. Information disclosed under this paragraph (d)(3) remains privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.16" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.16   Enforcement, penalties and liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> (1) As set forth more fully in section 704 of the Act, administrative enforcement of the Act and this regulation regarding certain creditors is assigned to the Comptroller of the Currency, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of Thrift Supervision, National Credit Union Administration, Surface Transportation Board, Secretary of Agriculture, Farm Credit Administration, Securities and Exchange Commission, Small Business Administration, and Secretary of Transportation.
</P>
<P>(2) Except to the extent that administrative enforcement is specifically assigned to other authorities, compliance with the requirements imposed under the Act and this regulation is enforced by the Federal Trade Commission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalties and liabilities.</I> (1) Sections 702(g) and 706(a) and (b) of the Act provide that any creditor that fails to comply with a requirement imposed by the Act or this regulation is subject to civil liability for actual and punitive damages in individual or class actions. Pursuant to sections 702(g) and 704(b), (c), and (d) of the Act, violations of the Act or this regulation also constitute violations of other federal laws. Liability for punitive damages can apply only to nongovernmental entities and is limited to $10,000 in individual actions and the lesser of $500,000 or 1 percent of the creditor's net worth in class actions. Section 706(c) provides for equitable and declaratory relief and section 706(d) authorizes the awarding of costs and reasonable attorney's fees to an aggrieved applicant in a successful action.
</P>
<P>(2) As provided in section 706(f), a civil action under the Act or this regulation may be brought in the appropriate United States district court without regard to the amount in controversy or in any other court of competent jurisdiction within two years after the date of the occurrence of the violation, or within one year after the commencement of an administrative enforcement proceeding or of a civil action brought by the Attorney General of the United States within two years after the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(3) If an agency responsible for administrative enforcement is unable to obtain compliance with the Act or this regulation, it may refer the matter to the Attorney General of the United States. If the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of Thrift Supervision, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice of discouraging or denying applications in violation of the Act or this regulation, the agency shall refer the matter to the Attorney General. If the agency has reason to believe that one or more creditors violated section 701(a) of the Act, the agency may refer a matter to the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(4) On referral, or whenever the Attorney General has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice in violation of the Act or this regulation, the Attorney General may bring a civil action for such relief as may be appropriate, including actual and punitive damages and injunctive relief.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of Thrift Supervision, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe (as a result of a consumer complaint, a consumer compliance examination, or some other basis) that a violation of the Act or this regulation has occurred which is also a violation of the Fair Housing Act, and the matter is not referred to the Attorney General, the agency shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the applicant that the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development has been notified and that remedies may be available under the Fair Housing Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure of compliance.</I> A creditor's failure to comply with §§ 202.6(b)(6), 202.9, 202.10, 202.12 or 202.13 is not a violation if it results from an inadvertent error. On discovering an error under §§ 202.9 and 202.10, the creditor shall correct it as soon as possible. If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 202.13, the creditor may retain information and act on the application without violating the regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003. Redesignated at 72 FR 63451, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 202.17" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.0.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 202.17   Data collection for credit applications by women-owned, minority-owned, or small businesses.</HEAD>
<P>No motor vehicle dealer covered by section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5519(a), shall be required to comply with the requirements of section 704B of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691c-2, until the effective date of final rules issued by the Board to implement section 704B of the Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691c-2. This paragraph shall not be construed to affect the effective date of section 704B of the Act for any person other than a motor vehicle dealer covered by section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 76 FR 59239, Sept. 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.2.2.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 202—Federal Enforcement Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The following list indicates the federal agencies that enforce Regulation B for particular classes of creditors. Any questions concerning a particular creditor should be directed to its enforcement agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P><I>National banks, and federal branches and federal agencies of foreign banks:</I> Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Customer Assistance Group, 1301 McKinney Street, Suite 3450, Houston, TX 77010-9050 
</P>
<P><I>State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than federal branches, federal agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act:</I> Federal Reserve Consumer Help Center, P.O. Box 1200, Minneapolis, MN 55480.
</P>
<P><I>Nonmember Insured Banks and Insured State Branches of Foreign Banks:</I> FDIC Consumer Response Center, 1100 Walnut Street, Box #11, Kansas City, MO 64106.
</P>
<P><I>Savings institutions under the Savings Association Insurance Fund of the FDIC and federally chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund of the FDIC (but not including state-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund):</I> Office of Thrift Supervision, Consumer Response Unit, 1700 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20552.
</P>
<FP-1><I>Federal Credit Unions:</I> Regional office of the National Credit Union Administration serving the area in which the federal credit union is located.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Air carriers:</I> Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, Department of Transportation, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Washington, DC 20590
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Creditors Subject to Surface Transportation Board:</I> Office of Proceedings, Surface Transportation Board, Department of Transportation, 1925 K Street NW., Washington, DC 20423
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Creditors Subject to Packers and Stockyards Act:</I> Nearest Packers and Stockyards Administration area supervisor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Small Business Investment Companies:</I> Associate Deputy Administrator for Capital Access, United States Small Business Administration, 409 Third Street, SW., 8th Floor, Washington, DC 20416.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Brokers and Dealers:</I> Securities and Exchange Commission, Washington, DC 20549.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Federal Land Banks, Federal Land Bank Associations, Federal Intermediate Credit Banks, and Production Credit Associations:</I> Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090.
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Retailers, Finance Companies, and All Other Creditors Not Listed Above:</I> FTC Regional Office for region in which the creditor operates or Federal Trade Commission, Equal Credit Opportunity, Washington, DC 20580.
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 11296, Mar. 7, 2006; 71 FR 28563, May 17, 2006; 72 FR 55020, Sept. 28, 2007; 73 FR 33663, June 13, 2008; 73 FR 53685, Sept. 17, 2008; 76 FR 31451, June 1, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.2.2.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 202—Model Application Forms
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix contains five model credit application forms, each designated for use in a particular type of consumer credit transaction as indicated by the bracketed caption on each form. The first sample form is intended for use in open-end, unsecured transactions; the second for closed-end, secured transactions; the third for closed-end transactions, whether unsecured or secured; the fourth in transactions involving community property or occurring in community property states; and the fifth in residential mortgage transactions which contains a model disclosure for use in complying with § 202.13 for certain dwelling-related loans. All forms contained in this appendix are models; their use by creditors is optional.
</P>
<P>2. The use or modification of these forms is governed by the following instructions. A creditor may change the forms: by asking for additional information not prohibited by § 202.5; by deleting any information request; or by rearranging the format without modifying the substance of the inquiries. In any of these three instances, however, the appropriate notices regarding the optional nature of courtesy titles, the option to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, and the limitation concerning marital status inquiries must be included in the appropriate places if the items to which they relate appear on the creditor's form.
</P>
<P>3. If a creditor uses an appropriate Appendix B model form, or modifies a form in accordance with the above instructions, that creditor shall be deemed to be acting in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of § 202.5 of this regulation.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.096.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.097.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.098.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.099.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.100.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.101.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.102.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18mr03.103.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11se03.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11se03.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11se03.047.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11se03.048.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 68 FR 53491, Sept. 11, 2003]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.2.2.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 202—Sample Notification Forms
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix contains ten sample notification forms. Forms C-1 through C-4 are intended for use in notifying an applicant that adverse action has been taken on an application or account under §§ 202.9(a)(1) and (2)(i) of this regulation. Form C-5 is a notice of disclosure of the right to request specific reasons for adverse action under §§ 202.9(a)(1) and (2)(ii). Form C-6 is designed for use in notifying an applicant, under § 202.9(c)(2), that an application is incomplete. Forms C-7 and C-8 are intended for use in connection with applications for business credit under § 202.9(a)(3). Form C-9 is designed for use in notifying an applicant of the right to receive a copy of an appraisal under § 202.14. Form C-10 is designed for use in notifying an applicant for nonmortgage credit that the creditor is requesting applicant characteristic information.
</P>
<P>2. Form C-1 contains the Fair Credit Reporting Act disclosure as required by sections 615(a) and (b) of that act. Forms C-2 through C-5 contain only the section 615(a) disclosure (that a creditor obtained information from a consumer reporting agency that was considered in the credit decision and, as applicable, a credit score used in taking adverse action along with related information). A creditor must provide the section 615(a) disclosure when adverse action is taken against a consumer based on information from a consumer reporting agency. A creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure when adverse action is taken based on information from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. In addition, a creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure if the creditor obtained information from an affiliate other than information in a consumer report or other than information concerning the affiliate's own transactions or experiences with the consumer. Creditors may comply with the disclosure requirements for adverse action based on information in a consumer report obtained from an affiliate by providing either the section 615(a) or section 615(b) disclosure. Optional language in Forms C-1 through C-5 may be used to direct the consumer to the entity that provided the credit score for any questions about the credit score, along with the entity's contact information. Creditors may use or not use this additional language without losing the safe harbor, since the language is optional.
</P>
<P>3. The sample forms are illustrative and may not be appropriate for all creditors. They were designed to include some of the factors that creditors most commonly consider. If a creditor chooses to use the checklist of reasons provided in one of the sample forms in this appendix and if reasons commonly used by the creditor are not provided on the form, the creditor should modify the checklist by substituting or adding other reasons. For example, if “inadequate down payment” or “no deposit relationship with us” are common reasons for taking adverse action on an application, the creditor ought to add or substitute such reasons for those presently contained on the sample forms.
</P>
<P>4. If the reasons listed on the forms are not the factors actually used, a creditor will not satisfy the notice requirement by simply checking the closest identifiable factor listed. For example, some creditors consider only references from banks or other depository institutions and disregard finance company references altogether; their statement of reasons should disclose “insufficient bank references,” not “insufficient credit references.” Similarly, a creditor that considers bank references and other credit references as distinct factors should treat the two factors separately and disclose them as appropriate. The creditor should either add such other factors to the form or check “other” and include the appropriate explanation. The creditor need not, however, describe how or why a factor adversely affected the application. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
</P>
<P>5. A creditor may design its own notification forms or use all or a portion of the forms contained in this appendix. Proper use of Forms C-1 through C-4 will satisfy the requirement of § 202.9(a)(2)(i). Proper use of Forms C-5 and C-6 constitutes full compliance with §§ 202.9(a)(2)(ii) and 202.9(c)(2), respectively. Proper use of Forms C-7 and C-8 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.9(a)(2)(i) and (ii), respectively, for applications for business credit. Proper use of Form C-9 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.14 of this part. Proper use of Form C-10 will satisfy the requirements of § 202.5(b)(1).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-1—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons Statement of Credit Denial, Termination or Change
</HD1>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Applicant's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Applicant's Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Description of Account, Transaction, or Requested Credit:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Description of Action Taken:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Part I—Principal Reason(s) for Credit Denial, Termination, or Other Action Taken Concerning Credit
</HD1>
<P><I>This section must be completed in all instances.</I>
</P>
<P>____Credit application incomplete
</P>
<P>____Insufficient number of credit references provided
</P>
<P>____Unacceptable type of credit references provided
</P>
<P>____Unable to verify credit references
</P>
<P>____Temporary or irregular employment
</P>
<P>____Unable to verify employment
</P>
<P>____Length of employment
</P>
<P>____Income insufficient for amount of credit requested
</P>
<P>____Excessive obligations in relation to income
</P>
<P>____Unable to verify income
</P>
<P>____Length of residence
</P>
<P>____Temporary residence
</P>
<P>____Unable to verify residence
</P>
<P>____No credit file
</P>
<P>____Limited credit experience
</P>
<P>____Poor credit performance with us
</P>
<P>____Delinquent past or present credit obligations with others
</P>
<P>____Collection action or judgment
</P>
<P>____Garnishment or attachment
</P>
<P>____Foreclosure or repossession
</P>
<P>____Bankruptcy
</P>
<P>____Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
</P>
<P>____Value or type of collateral not sufficient
</P>
<P>____Other, specify:____________
</P>
<HD1>Part II—Disclosure of Use of Information Obtained From an Outside Source
</HD1>
<P>This section should be completed if the credit decision was based in whole or in part on information that has been obtained from an outside source.
</P>
<P>____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from the consumer reporting agency listed below. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Toll-free] Telephone number
</FP-DASH>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP>Your credit score:____________
</FP>
<FP>Date:____________
</FP>
<FP>Scores range from a low of____________to a high of____________
</FP>
<FP>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</FP>
<FP>____________
</FP>
<FP>____________
</FP>
<FP>____________
</FP>
<FP>____________
</FP>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Toll-free] Telephone number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained from an affiliate or from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, you have the right to make a written request, no later than 60 days after you receive this notice, for disclosure of the nature of this information.
</P>
<P><I>If you have any questions regarding this notice, you should contact:</I>
</P>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's telephone number:
</FP-DASH>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notice:</HED>
<P>The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Form C-2—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application. Your request for [a loan/a credit card/an increase in your credit limit] was carefully considered, and we regret that we are unable to approve your application at this time, for the following reason(s):
</P>
<FP>Your Income:
</FP>
<FP>____is below our minimum requirement.
</FP>
<FP>____is insufficient to sustain payments on the amount of credit requested.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<FP>Your Employment:
</FP>
<FP>____is not of sufficient length to qualify.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<FP>Your Credit History:
</FP>
<FP>____of making payments on time was not satisfactory.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<FP>Your Application:
</FP>
<FP>____lacks a sufficient number of credit references.
</FP>
<FP>____lacks acceptable types of credit references.
</FP>
<FP>____reveals that current obligations are excessive in relation to income.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Other:
</FP-DASH>
<P>The consumer reporting agency contacted that provided information that influenced our decision in whole or in part was [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the reporting agency]. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. Any questions regarding such information should be directed to [consumer reporting agency]. If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at [creditor's name, address and telephone number].
</P>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Scores range from a low of____________to a high of____________
</FP>
<FP>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number:____________________]]
</FP>
<P>Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-3—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons [(Credit Scoring)]
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application for ________. We regret that we are unable to approve your request.
</P>
<P>[<E T="04">Reasons for Denial of Credit</E>]
</P>
<P>Your application was processed by a [credit scoring] system that assigns a numerical value to the various items of information we consider in evaluating an application. These numerical values are based upon the results of analyses of repayment histories of large numbers of customers.
</P>
<P>The information you provided in your application did not score a sufficient number of points for approval of the application. The reasons you did not score well compared with other applicants were
</P>
<P>• Insufficient bank references
</P>
<P>• Type of occupation
</P>
<P>• Insufficient credit experience
</P>
<P>• Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
</P>
<P>[<E T="04">Your Right to Get Your Consumer Report</E>]
</P>
<P>In evaluating your application the consumer reporting agency listed below provided us with information that in whole or in part influenced our decision. The consumer reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. It can be obtained by contacting: [name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</P>
<P>[<E T="04">Information about Your Credit Score]</E>
</P>
<P>We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Scores range from a low of ________to a high of________
</FP>
<FP>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number:____________________]]
</FP>
<P>If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at
</P>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Sincerely,
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Notice:</HED>
<P>The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (with certain limited exceptions); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Form C-4—Sample Notice of Action Taken, Statement of Reasons and Counteroffer
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for ________. We are unable to offer you credit on the terms that you requested for the following reason(s):
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>We can, however, offer you credit on the following terms:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>If this offer is acceptable to you, please notify us within [amount of time] at the following address: ________.
</P>
<P>Our credit decision on your application was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</P>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ____________ to a high of ____________
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone
</FP>
<FP>number:____________________]]
</FP>
<P>You should know that the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors, such as ourselves, from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of their race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract), because they receive income from a public assistance program, or because they may have exercised their rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. If you believe there has been discrimination in handling your application you should contact the [name and address of the appropriate federal enforcement agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<P>Sincerely,
</P>
<HD1>Form C-5—Sample Disclosure of Right to Request Specific Reasons for Credit Denial Date
</HD1>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for ________.
</P>
<P>After carefully reviewing your application, we are sorry to advise you that we cannot [open an account for you/grant a loan to you/increase your credit limit] at this time. If you would like a statement of specific reasons why your application was denied, please contact [our credit service manager] shown below within 60 days of the date of this letter. We will provide you with the statement of reasons within 30 days after receiving your request.
</P>
<FP>Creditor's Name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>Telephone Number
</FP>
<P>If we obtained information from a consumer reporting agency as part of our consideration of your application, its name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number is shown below. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. [You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency.] You have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you received is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. You can find out about the information contained in your file (if one was used) by contacting:
</P>
<FP>Consumer reporting agency's name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number
</FP>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from this consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date: 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Scores range from a low of ____________ to a high of ____________
</FP>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number:____________________]]
</FP>
<P>Sincerely,
</P>
<P>Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-6—Sample Notice of Incomplete Application and Request for Additional Information
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>Telephone number
</FP>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for credit. The following information is needed to make a decision on your application: __________
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>We need to receive this information by __________(date). If we do not receive it by that date, we will regrettably be unable to give further consideration to your credit request.
</P>
<P>Sincerely, 
</P>
<HD1>Form C-7—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons (Business Credit)
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's Name
</FP>
<FP>Creditor's address
</FP>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for credit. We have given your request careful consideration, and regret that we are unable to extend credit to you at this time for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(Insert appropriate reason, such as: Value or type of collateral not sufficient; Lack of established earnings record; Slow or past due in trade or loan payments)
</P>
<P>Sincerely,
</P>
<P>Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<HD1>Form C-8—Sample Disclosure of Right To Request Specific Reasons for Credit Denial Given at Time of Application (Business Credit)
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Creditor's address
</FP>
<P>If your application for business credit is denied, you have the right to a written statement of the specific reasons for the denial. To obtain the statement, please contact [name, address and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained] within 60 days from the date you are notified of our decision. We will send you a written statement of reasons for the denial within 30 days of receiving your request for the statement.
</P>
<P>Notice: The federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<HD1>Form C-9—Sample Disclosure of Right To Receive a Copy of an Appraisal
</HD1>
<P>You have the right to a copy of the appraisal report used in connection with your application for credit. If you wish a copy, please write to us at the mailing address we have provided. We must hear from you no later than 90 days after we notify you about the action taken on your credit application or you withdraw your application.
</P>
<P>[In your letter, give us the following information:]
</P>
<HD1>Form C-10—Sample Disclosure About Voluntary Data Notation
</HD1>
<P>We are requesting the following information to monitor our compliance with the federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, which prohibits unlawful discrimination. You are not required to provide this information. We will not take this information (or your decision not to provide this information) into account in connection with your application or credit transaction. The law provides that a creditor may not discriminate based on this information, or based on whether or not you choose to provide it. [If you choose not to provide the information, we will note it by visual observation or surname].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 41600, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.2.2.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 202—Issuance of Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Official Staff Interpretations.</I> Officials in the Board's Division of Consumer and Community Affairs are authorized to issue official staff interpretations of this regulation. These interpretations provide the protection afforded under section 706(e) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to the regulation, which will be amended periodically.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Requests for Issuance of Official Staff Interpretations.</I> A request for an official staff interpretation should be in writing and addressed to the Director, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request should contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Scope of Interpretations.</I> No staff interpretations will be issued approving creditors' forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.3.2.2.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 202—Official Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<P>Following is an official staff interpretation of Regulation B (12 CFR part 202) issued under authority delegated by the Federal Reserve Board to officials in the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs. References are to sections of the regulation or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<HD2>Introduction 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> Section 706(e) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act protects a creditor from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with an interpretation issued by a duly authorized official of the Federal Reserve Board. This commentary is the means by which the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs of the Federal Reserve Board issues official staff interpretations of Regulation B. Good-faith compliance with this commentary affords a creditor protection under section 706(e) of the Act.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuance of interpretations.</I> Under Appendix D to the regulation, any person may request an official staff interpretation. Interpretations will be issued at the discretion of designated officials and incorporated in this commentary following publication for comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Except in unusual circumstances, official staff interpretations will be issued only by means of this commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Status of previous interpretations.</I> Interpretations of Regulation B previously issued by the Federal Reserve Board and its staff have been incorporated into this commentary as appropriate. All other previous Board and staff interpretations, official and unofficial, are superseded by this commentary.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Footnotes.</I> Footnotes in the regulation have the same legal effect as the text of the regulation, whether they are explanatory or illustrative in nature.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Comment designations.</I> The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. For example, comments to § 202.2(c) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 2(c)(1)(ii)-1 and comment 2(c)(2)(ii)-1.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.1—Authority, Scope, and Purpose 
</HD3>
<P>1(a) <I>Authority and scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The Equal Credit Opportunity Act and Regulation B apply to all credit—commercial as well as personal—without regard to the nature or type of the credit or the creditor. If a transaction provides for the deferral of the payment of a debt, it is credit covered by Regulation B even though it may not be a credit transaction covered by Regulation Z (Truth in Lending) (12 CFR part 226). Further, the definition of creditor is not restricted to the party or person to whom the obligation is initially payable, as is the case under Regulation Z. Moreover, the Act and regulation apply to all methods of credit evaluation, whether performed judgmentally or by use of a credit scoring system.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation B generally does not apply to lending activities that occur outside the United States. The regulation does apply to lending activities that take place within the United States (as well as the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and any territory or possession of the United States), whether or not the applicant is a citizen.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Board.</I> The term <I>Board,</I> as used in this regulation, means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.2—Definitions 
</HD3>
<P>2(c) <I>Adverse action.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application for credit.</I> If the applicant applied in accordance with the creditor's procedures, a refusal to refinance or extend the term of a business or other loan is adverse action.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Move from service area.</I> If a credit card issuer terminates the open-end account of a customer because the customer has moved out of the card issuer's service area, the termination is adverse action unless termination on this ground was explicitly provided for in the credit agreement between the parties. In cases where termination is adverse action, notification is required under § 202.9.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Termination based on credit limit.</I> If a creditor terminates credit accounts that have low credit limits (for example, under $400) but keeps open accounts with higher credit limits, the termination is adverse action and notification is required under § 202.9.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Default—exercise of due-on-sale clause.</I> If a mortgagor sells or transfers mortgaged property without the consent of the mortgagee, and the mortgagee exercises its contractual right to accelerate the mortgage loan, the mortgagee may treat the mortgagor as being in default. An adverse action notice need not be given to the mortgagor or the transferee. (See comment 2(e)-1 for treatment of a purchaser who requests to assume the loan.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Current delinquency or default.</I> The term adverse action does not include a creditor's termination of an account when the accountholder is currently in default or delinquent on that account. Notification in accordance with § 202.9 of the regulation generally is required, however, if the creditor's action is based on a past delinquency or default on the account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> Denial of credit at point of sale is not adverse action except under those circumstances specified in the regulation. For example, denial at point of sale is not adverse action in the following situations: 
</P>
<P>i. A credit cardholder presents an expired card or a card that has been reported to the card issuer as lost or stolen. 
</P>
<P>ii. The amount of a transaction exceeds a cash advance or credit limit.
</P>
<P>iii. The circumstances (such as excessive use of a credit card in a short period of time) suggest that fraud is involved. 
</P>
<P>iv. The authorization facilities are not functioning. 
</P>
<P>v. Billing statements have been returned to the creditor for lack of a forwarding address.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application for increase in available credit.</I> A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at the point of sale or loan is not adverse action except when the refusal is a denial of an application, submitted in accordance with the creditor's procedures, for an increase in the amount of credit.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(v)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terms of credit versus type of credit offered.</I> When an applicant applies for credit and the creditor does not offer the credit terms requested by the applicant (for example, the interest rate, length of maturity, collateral, or amount of downpayment), a denial of the application for that reason is adverse action (unless the creditor makes a counteroffer that is accepted by the applicant) and the applicant is entitled to notification under § 202.9.
</P>
<P>2(e) <I>Applicant.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request to assume loan.</I> If a mortgagor sells or transfers the mortgaged property and the buyer makes an application to the creditor to assume the mortgage loan, the mortgagee must treat the buyer as an applicant unless its policy is not to permit assumptions.
</P>
<P>2(f) <I>Application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A creditor has the latitude under the regulation to establish its own application process and to decide the type and amount of information it will require from credit applicants.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures used.</I> The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a creditor for making credit decisions as well as its stated application procedures. For example, if a creditor's stated policy is to require all applications to be in writing on the creditor's application form, but the creditor also makes credit decisions based on oral requests, the creditor's procedures are to accept both oral and written applications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>When an inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application.</I> A creditor is encouraged to provide consumers with information about loan terms. However, if in giving information to the consumer the creditor also evaluates information about the consumer, decides to decline the request, and communicates this to the consumer, the creditor has treated the inquiry or prequalification request as an application and must then comply with the notification requirements under § 202.9. Whether the inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application depends on how the creditor responds to the consumer, not on what the consumer says or asks. (See comment 9-5 for further discussion of prequalification requests; see comment 2(f)-5 for a discussion of preapproval requests.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of inquiries that are not applications.</I> The following examples illustrate situations in which only an inquiry has taken place: 
</P>
<P>i. A consumer calls to ask about loan terms and an employee explains the creditor's basic loan terms, such as interest rates, loan-to-value ratio, and debt-to-income ratio. 
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer calls to ask about interest rates for car loans, and, in order to quote the appropriate rate, the loan officer asks for the make and sales price of the car and the amount of the downpayment, then gives the consumer the rate. 
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer asks about terms for a loan to purchase a home and tells the loan officer her income and intended downpayment, but the loan officer only explains the creditor's loan-to-value ratio policy and other basic lending policies, without telling the consumer whether she qualifies for the loan. 
</P>
<P>iv. A consumer calls to ask about terms for a loan to purchase vacant land and states his income and the sales price of the property to be financed, and asks whether he qualifies for a loan; the employee responds by describing the general lending policies, explaining that he would need to look at all of the consumer's qualifications before making a decision, and offering to send an application form to the consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples of an application.</I> An application for credit includes the following situations: 
</P>
<P>i. A person asks a financial institution to “preapprove” her for a loan (for example, to finance a house or a vehicle she plans to buy) and the institution reviews the request under a program in which the institution, after a comprehensive analysis of her creditworthiness, issues a written commitment valid for a designated period of time to extend a loan up to a specified amount. The written commitment may not be subject to conditions other than conditions that require the identification of adequate collateral, conditions that require no material change in the applicant's financial condition or creditworthiness prior to funding the loan, and limited conditions that are not related to the financial condition or creditworthiness of the applicant that the lender ordinarily attaches to a traditional application (such as certification of a clear termite inspection for a home purchase loan, or a maximum mileage requirement for a used car loan). But if the creditor's program does not provide for giving written commitments, requests for preapprovals are treated as prequalification requests for purposes of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>ii. Under the same facts as above, the financial institution evaluates the person's creditworthiness and determines that she does not qualify for a preapproval.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Completed application—diligence requirement.</I> The regulation defines a completed application in terms that give a creditor the latitude to establish its own information requirements. Nevertheless, the creditor must act with reasonable diligence to collect information needed to complete the application. For example, the creditor should request information from third parties, such as a credit report, promptly after receiving the application. If additional information is needed from the applicant, such as an address or a telephone number to verify employment, the creditor should contact the applicant promptly. (But see comment 9(a)(1)-3, which discusses the creditor's option to deny an application on the basis of incompleteness.)
</P>
<P>2(g) <I>Business credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The test for deciding whether a transaction qualifies as business credit is one of primary purpose. For example, an open-end credit account used for both personal and business purposes is not business credit unless the primary purpose of the account is business-related. A creditor may rely on an applicant's statement of the purpose for the credit requested.
</P>
<P>2(j) <I>Credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Regulation B covers a wider range of credit transactions than Regulation Z (Truth in Lending). Under Regulation B, a transaction is credit if there is a right to defer payment of a debt—regardless of whether the credit is for personal or commercial purposes, the number of installments required for repayment, or whether the transaction is subject to a finance charge.
</P>
<P>2(l) <I>Creditor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assignees.</I> The term creditor includes all persons participating in the credit decision. This may include an assignee or a potential purchaser of the obligation who influences the credit decision by indicating whether or not it will purchase the obligation if the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Referrals to creditors.</I> For certain purposes, the term creditor includes persons such as real estate brokers, automobile dealers, home builders, and home-improvement contractors who do not participate in credit decisions but who only accept applications and refer applicants to creditors, or select or offer to select creditors to whom credit requests can be made. These persons must comply with § 202.4(a), the general rule prohibiting discrimination, and with § 202.4(b), the general rule against discouraging applications.
</P>
<P>2(p) <I>Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Purpose of definition.</I> The definition under § 202.2(p)(1)(i) through (iv) sets the criteria that a credit system must meet in order to use age as a predictive factor. Credit systems that do not meet these criteria are judgmental systems and may consider age only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (Both types of systems may favor an elderly applicant. See § 202.6(b)(2).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Periodic revalidation.</I> The regulation does not specify how often credit scoring systems must be revalidated. The credit scoring system must be revalidated frequently enough to ensure that it continues to meet recognized professional statistical standards for statistical soundness. To ensure that predictive ability is being maintained, the creditor must periodically review the performance of the system. This could be done, for example, by analyzing the loan portfolio to determine the delinquency rate for each score interval, or by analyzing population stability over time to detect deviations of recent applications from the applicant population used to validate the system. If this analysis indicates that the system no longer predicts risk with statistical soundness, the system must be adjusted as necessary to reestablish its predictive ability. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor's own data.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Pooled data scoring systems.</I> A scoring system or the data from which to develop such a system may be obtained from either a single credit grantor or multiple credit grantors. The resulting system will qualify as an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system provided the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section are met. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor's own data when it becomes available.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Effects test and disparate treatment.</I> An empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system may include age as a predictive factor (provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value). Besides age, no other prohibited basis may be used as a variable. Generally, credit scoring systems treat all applicants objectively and thus avoid problems of disparate treatment. In cases where a credit scoring system is used in conjunction with individual discretion, disparate treatment could conceivably occur in the evaluation process. In addition, neutral factors used in credit scoring systems could nonetheless be subject to challenge under the effects test. (See comment 6(a)-2 for a discussion of the effects test).
</P>
<P>2(w) <I>Open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Open-end real estate mortgages.</I> The term “open-end credit” does not include negotiated advances under an open-end real estate mortgage or a letter of credit.
</P>
<P>2(z) <I>Prohibited basis.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Persons associated with applicant.</I> As used in this regulation, prohibited basis refers not only to characteristics—the race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age—of an applicant (or officers of an applicant in the case of a corporation) but also to the characteristics of individuals with whom an applicant is affiliated or with whom the applicant associates. This means, for example, that under the general rule stated in § 202.4(a), a creditor may not discriminate against an applicant because of that person's personal or business dealings with members of a certain religion, because of the national origin of any persons associated with the extension of credit (such as the tenants in the apartment complex being financed), or because of the race of other residents in the neighborhood where the property offered as collateral is located.
</P>
<P>2. <I>National origin.</I> A creditor may not refuse to grant credit because an applicant comes from a particular country but may take the applicant's immigration status into account. A creditor may also take into account any applicable law, regulation, or executive order restricting dealings with citizens (or the government) of a particular country or imposing limitations regarding credit extended for their use.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Public assistance program.</I> Any federal, state, or local governmental assistance program that provides a continuing, periodic income supplement, whether premised on entitlement or need, is “public assistance” for purposes of the regulation. The term includes (but is not limited to) Temporary Aid to Needy Families, food stamps, rent and mortgage supplement or assistance programs, social security and supplemental security income, and unemployment compensation. Only physicians, hospitals, and others to whom the benefits are payable need consider Medicare and Medicaid as public assistance.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.3—Limited Exceptions for Certain Classes of Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Under this section, procedural requirements of the regulation do not apply to certain types of credit. All classes of transactions remain subject to § 202.4(a), the general rule barring discrimination on a prohibited basis, and to any other provision not specifically excepted.
</P>
<P>3(a) <I>Public-utilities credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> This definition applies only to credit for the purchase of a utility service, such as electricity, gas, or telephone service. Credit provided or offered by a public utility for some other purpose—such as for financing the purchase of a gas dryer, telephone equipment, or other durable goods, or for insulation or other home improvements—is not excepted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Security deposits.</I> A utility company is a creditor when it supplies utility service and bills the user after the service has been provided. Thus, any credit term (such as a requirement for a security deposit) is subject to the regulation's bar against discrimination on a prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Telephone companies.</I> A telephone company's credit transactions qualify for the exceptions provided in § 202.3(a)(2) only if the company is regulated by a government unit or files the charges for service, delayed payment, or any discount for prompt payment with a government unit.
</P>
<P>3(c) <I>Incidental credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> If a service provider (such as a hospital, doctor, lawyer, or merchant) allows the client or customer to defer the payment of a bill, this deferral of debt is credit for purposes of the regulation, even though there is no finance charge and no agreement for payment in installments. Because of the exceptions provided by this section, however, these particular credit extensions are excepted from compliance with certain procedural requirements as specified in § 202.3(c).
</P>
<P>3(d) <I>Government credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit to governments.</I> The exception relates to credit extended to (not by) governmental entities. For example, credit extended to a local government is covered by this exception, but credit extended to consumers by a federal or state housing agency does not qualify for special treatment under this category.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.4—General Rules
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of rule.</I> The general rule stated in § 202.4(a) covers all dealings, without exception, between an applicant and a creditor, whether or not addressed by other provisions of the regulation. Other provisions of the regulation identify specific practices that the Board has decided are impermissible because they could result in credit discrimination on a basis prohibited by the Act. The general rule covers, for example, application procedures, criteria used to evaluate creditworthiness, administration of accounts, and treatment of delinquent or slow accounts. Thus, whether or not specifically prohibited elsewhere in the regulation, a credit practice that treats applicants differently on a prohibited basis violates the law because it violates the general rule. Disparate treatment on a prohibited basis is illegal whether or not it results from a conscious intent to discriminate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> 
</P>
<P>i. Disparate treatment would exist, for example, in the following situations:
</P>
<P>A. A creditor provides information only on “subprime” and similar products to minority applicants who request information about the creditor's mortgage products, but provides information on a wider variety of mortgage products to similarly situated nonminority applicants.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor provides more comprehensive information to men than to similarly situated women.
</P>
<P>C. A creditor requires a minority applicant to provide greater documentation to obtain a loan than a similarly situated nonminority applicant.
</P>
<P>D. A creditor waives or relaxes credit standards for a nonminority applicant but not for a similarly situated minority applicant. 
</P>
<P>ii. Treating applicants differently on a prohibited basis is unlawful if the creditor lacks a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason for its action, or if the asserted reason is found to be a pretext for discrimination.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prospective applicants.</I> Generally, the regulation's protections apply only to persons who have requested or received an extension of credit. In keeping with the purpose of the Act—to promote the availability of credit on a nondiscriminatory basis—§ 202.4(b) covers acts or practices directed at prospective applicants that could discourage a reasonable person, on a prohibited basis, from applying for credit. Practices prohibited by this section include: 
</P>
<P>i. A statement that the applicant should not bother to apply, after the applicant states that he is retired. 
</P>
<P>ii. The use of words, symbols, models or other forms of communication in advertising that express, imply, or suggest a discriminatory preference or a policy of exclusion in violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>iii. The use of interview scripts that discourage applications on a prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affirmative advertising.</I> A creditor may affirmatively solicit or encourage members of traditionally disadvantaged groups to apply for credit, especially groups that might not normally seek credit from that creditor.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement for written applications.</I> Model application forms are provided in Appendix B to the regulation, although use of a printed form is not required. A creditor will satisfy the requirement by writing down the information that it normally considers in making a credit decision. The creditor may complete an application on behalf of an applicant and need not require the applicant to sign the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Telephone applications.</I> A creditor that accepts applications by telephone for dwelling-related credit covered by § 202.13 can meet the requirement for written applications by writing down pertinent information that is provided by the applicant.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Computerized entry.</I> Information entered directly into and retained by a computerized system qualifies as a written application under this paragraph. (See the commentary to § 202.13(b), <I>Applications through electronic media</I> and <I>Applications through video.</I>)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(d)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> This standard requires that disclosures be presented in a reasonably understandable format in a way that does not obscure the required information. No minimum type size is mandated, but the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether the disclosures required to be on or with an application must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If an applicant accesses a credit application electronically (other than as described under ii below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its website) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the applicant, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if an applicant is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses a credit application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the applicant uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.5—Rules Concerning Requests for Information 
</HD3>
<P><I>5(a) General rules.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requests for information.</I> This section governs the types of information that a creditor may gather. Section 202.6 governs how information may be used.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Local laws.</I> Information that a creditor is allowed to collect pursuant to a “state” statute or regulation includes information required by a local statute, regulation, or ordinance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information required by Regulation C.</I> Regulation C generally requires creditors covered by the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) to collect and report information about the race, ethnicity, and sex of applicants for home-improvement loans and home-purchase loans, including some types of loans not covered by § 202.13.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Collecting information on behalf of creditors.</I> Persons such as loan brokers and correspondents do not violate the ECOA or Regulation B if they collect information that they are otherwise prohibited from collecting, where the purpose of collecting the information is to provide it to a creditor that is subject to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act or another federal or state statute or regulation requiring data collection.
</P>
<P>5(d) <I>Other limitations on information requests.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(d)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Indirect disclosure of prohibited information.</I> The fact that certain credit-related information may indirectly disclose marital status does not bar a creditor from seeking such information. For example, the creditor may ask about: 
</P>
<P>i. The applicant's obligation to pay alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income. 
</P>
<P>ii. The source of income to be used as the basis for repaying the credit requested, which could disclose that it is the income of a spouse. 
</P>
<P>iii. Whether any obligation disclosed by the applicant has a co-obligor, which could disclose that the co-obligor is a spouse or former spouse. 
</P>
<P>iv. The ownership of assets, which could disclose the interest of a spouse.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(d)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure about income.</I> The sample application forms in appendix B to the regulation illustrate how a creditor may inform an applicant of the right not to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General inquiry about source of income.</I> Since a general inquiry about the source of income may lead an applicant to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income, a creditor making such an inquiry on an application form should preface the request with the disclosure required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Specific inquiry about sources of income.</I> A creditor need not give the disclosure if the inquiry about income is specific and worded in a way that is unlikely to lead the applicant to disclose the fact that income is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. For example, an application form that asks about specific types of income such as salary, wages, or investment income need not include the disclosure.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.6—Rules Concerning Evaluation of Applications 
</HD3>
<P>6(a) <I>General rule concerning use of information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> When evaluating an application for credit, a creditor generally may consider any information obtained. However, a creditor may not consider in its evaluation of creditworthiness any information that it is barred by § 202.5 from obtaining or from using for any purpose other than to conduct a self-test under § 202.15.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effects test.</I> The effects test is a judicial doctrine that was developed in a series of employment cases decided by the U.S. Supreme Court under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>), and the burdens of proof for such employment cases were codified by Congress in the Civil Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C. 2000e-2). Congressional intent that this doctrine apply to the credit area is documented in the Senate Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-589, pp. 4-5; and in the House Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-210, p.5. The Act and regulation may prohibit a creditor practice that is discriminatory in effect because it has a disproportionately negative impact on a prohibited basis, even though the creditor has no intent to discriminate and the practice appears neutral on its face, unless the creditor practice meets a legitimate business need that cannot reasonably be achieved as well by means that are less disparate in their impact. For example, requiring that applicants have income in excess of a certain amount to qualify for an overdraft line of credit could mean that women and minority applicants will be rejected at a higher rate than men and nonminority applicants. If there is a demonstrable relationship between the income requirement and creditworthiness for the level of credit involved, however, use of the income standard would likely be permissible.
</P>
<P>6(b) <I>Specific rules concerning use of information.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited basis—special purpose credit.</I> In a special purpose credit program, a creditor may consider a prohibited basis to determine whether the applicant possesses a characteristic needed for eligibility. (See § 202.8.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Favoring the elderly.</I> Any system of evaluating creditworthiness may favor a credit applicant who is age 62 or older. A credit program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants age 62 or older is also permissible; a program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants at an age lower than 62 is permissible only if it meets the special-purpose credit requirements of § 202.8.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consideration of age in a credit scoring system.</I> Age may be taken directly into account in a credit scoring system that is “demonstrably and statistically sound,” as defined in § 202.2(p), with one limitation: applicants age 62 years or older must be treated at least as favorably as applicants who are under age 62. If age is scored by assigning points to an applicant's age category, elderly applicants must receive the same or a greater number of points as the most favored class of nonelderly applicants. 
</P>
<P>i. <I>Age-split scorecards.</I> Some credit systems segment the population and use different scorecards based on the age of an applicant. In such a system, one card may cover a narrow age range (for example, applicants in their twenties or younger) who are evaluated under attributes predictive for that age group. A second card may cover all other applicants, who are evaluated under the attributes predictive for that broader class. When a system uses a card covering a wide age range that encompasses elderly applicants, the credit scoring system is not deemed to score age. Thus, the system does not raise the issue of assigning a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants. But if a system segments the population by age into multiple scorecards, and includes elderly applicants in a narrower age range, the credit scoring system does score age. To comply with the Act and regulation in such a case, the creditor must ensure that the system does not assign a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants as a class.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consideration of age in a judgmental system.</I> In a judgmental system, defined in § 202.2(t), a creditor may not decide whether to extend credit or set the terms and conditions of credit based on age or information related exclusively to age. Age or age-related information may be considered only in evaluating other “pertinent elements of creditworthiness” that are drawn from the particular facts and circumstances concerning the applicant. For example, a creditor may not reject an application or terminate an account because the applicant is 60 years old. But a creditor that uses a judgmental system may relate the applicant's age to other information about the applicant that the creditor considers in evaluating creditworthiness. As the following examples illustrate, the evaluation must be made in an individualized, case-by-case manner: 
</P>
<P>i. A creditor may consider the applicant's occupation and length of time to retirement to ascertain whether the applicant's income (including retirement income) will support the extension of credit to its maturity. 
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor may consider the adequacy of any security offered when the term of the credit extension exceeds the life expectancy of the applicant and the cost of realizing on the collateral could exceed the applicant's equity. An elderly applicant might not qualify for a 5 percent down, 30-year mortgage loan but might qualify with a larger downpayment or a shorter loan maturity. 
</P>
<P>iii. A creditor may consider the applicant's age to assess the significance of length of employment (a young applicant may have just entered the job market) or length of time at an address (an elderly applicant may recently have retired and moved from a long-term residence).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consideration of age in a reverse mortgage.</I> A reverse mortgage is a home-secured loan in which the borrower receives payments from the creditor, and does not become obligated to repay these amounts (other than in the case of default) until the borrower dies, moves permanently from the home, or transfers title to the home, or upon a specified maturity date. Disbursements to the borrower under a reverse mortgage typically are determined by considering the value of the borrower's home, the current interest rate, and the borrower's life expectancy. A reverse mortgage program that requires borrowers to be age 62 or older is permissible under § 202.6(b)(2)(iv). In addition, under § 202.6(b)(2)(iii), a creditor may consider a borrower's age to evaluate a pertinent element of creditworthiness, such as the amount of the credit or monthly payments that the borrower will receive, or the estimated repayment date.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consideration of age in a combined system.</I> A creditor using a credit scoring system that qualifies as “empirically derived” under § 202.2(p) may consider other factors (such as a credit report or the applicant's cash flow) on a judgmental basis. Doing so will not negate the classification of the credit scoring component of the combined system as “demonstrably and statistically sound.” While age could be used in the credit scoring portion, however, in the judgmental portion age may not be considered directly. It may be used only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (See comment 6(b)(2)-3.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Consideration of public assistance.</I> When considering income derived from a public assistance program, a creditor may take into account, for example: 
</P>
<P>i. The length of time an applicant will likely remain eligible to receive such income. 
</P>
<P>ii. Whether the applicant will continue to qualify for benefits based on the status of the applicant's dependents (as in the case of Temporary Aid to Needy Families, or social security payments to a minor). 
</P>
<P>iii. Whether the creditor can attach or garnish the income to assure payment of the debt in the event of default.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consideration of an individual applicant.</I> A creditor must evaluate income derived from part-time employment, alimony, child support, separate maintenance payments, retirement benefits, or public assistance on an individual basis, not on the basis of aggregate statistics; and must assess its reliability or unreliability by analyzing the applicant's actual circumstances, not by analyzing statistical measures derived from a group.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payments consistently made.</I> In determining the likelihood of consistent payments of alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, a creditor may consider factors such as whether payments are received pursuant to a written agreement or court decree; the length of time that the payments have been received; whether the payments are regularly received by the applicant; the availability of court or other procedures to compel payment; and the creditworthiness of the payor, including the credit history of the payor when it is available to the creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consideration of income.</I> 
</P>
<P>i. A creditor need not consider income at all in evaluating creditworthiness. If a creditor does consider income, there are several acceptable methods, whether in a credit scoring or a judgmental system:
</P>
<P>A. A creditor may score or take into account the total sum of all income stated by the applicant without taking steps to evaluate the income for reliability.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor may evaluate each component of the applicant's income, and then score or take into account income determined to be reliable separately from other income; or the creditor may disregard that portion of income that is not reliable when it aggregates reliable income.
</P>
<P>C. A creditor that does not evaluate all income components for reliability must treat as reliable any component of protected income that is not evaluated. 
</P>
<P>ii. In considering the separate components of an applicant's income, the creditor may not automatically discount or exclude from consideration any protected income. Any discounting or exclusion must be based on the applicant's actual circumstances.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Part-time employment, sources of income.</I> A creditor may score or take into account the fact that an applicant has more than one source of earned income—a full-time and a part-time job or two part-time jobs. A creditor may also score or treat earned income from a secondary source differently than earned income from a primary source. The creditor may not, however, score or otherwise take into account the number of sources for income such as retirement income, social security, supplemental security income, and alimony. Nor may the creditor treat negatively the fact that an applicant's only earned income is derived from, for example, a part-time job.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Types of credit references.</I> A creditor may restrict the types of credit history and credit references that it will consider, provided that the restrictions are applied to all credit applicants without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. On the applicant's request, however, a creditor must consider credit information not reported through a credit bureau when the information relates to the same types of credit references and history that the creditor would consider if reported through a credit bureau.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(7)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>National origin—immigration status.</I> The applicant's immigration status and ties to the community (such as employment and continued residence in the area) could have a bearing on a creditor's ability to obtain repayment. Accordingly, the creditor may consider immigration status and differentiate, for example, between a noncitizen who is a long-time resident with permanent resident status and a noncitizen who is temporarily in this country on a student visa.
</P>
<P>2. <I>National origin—citizenship.</I> A denial of credit on the ground that an applicant is not a United States citizen is not per se discrimination based on national origin.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(8)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited basis—marital status.</I> A creditor may consider the marital status of an applicant or joint applicant for the purpose of ascertaining the creditor's rights and remedies applicable to the particular extension of credit. For example, in a secured transaction involving real property, a creditor could take into account whether state law gives the applicant's spouse an interest in the property being offered as collateral.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.7—Rules Concerning Extensions of Credit 
</HD3>
<P>7(a) <I>Individual accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Open-end credit—authorized user.</I> A creditor may not require a creditworthy applicant seeking an individual credit account to provide additional signatures. But the creditor may condition the designation of an authorized user by the account holder on the authorized user's becoming contractually liable for the account, as long as the creditor does not differentiate on any prohibited basis in imposing this requirement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Open-end credit—choice of authorized user.</I> A creditor that permits an account holder to designate an authorized user may not restrict this designation on a prohibited basis. For example, if the creditor allows the designation of spouses as authorized users, the creditor may not refuse to accept a nonspouse as an authorized user.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Overdraft authority on transaction accounts.</I> If a transaction account (such as a checking account or NOW account) includes an overdraft line of credit, the creditor may require that all persons authorized to draw on the transaction account assume liability for any overdraft.
</P>
<P>7(b) <I>Designation of name.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Single name on account.</I> A creditor may require that joint applicants on an account designate a single name for purposes of administering the account and that a single name be embossed on any credit cards issued on the account. But the creditor may not require that the name be the husband's name. (See § 202.10 for rules governing the furnishing of credit history on accounts held by spouses.)
</P>
<P>7(c) <I>Action concerning existing open-end accounts.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Termination coincidental with marital status change.</I> When an account holder's marital status changes, a creditor generally may not terminate the account unless it has evidence that the account holder is now unable or unwilling to repay. But the creditor may terminate an account on which both spouses are jointly liable, even if the action coincides with a change in marital status, when one or both spouses: 
</P>
<P>i. Repudiate responsibility for future charges on the joint account. 
</P>
<P>ii. Request separate accounts in their own names. 
</P>
<P>iii. Request that the joint account be closed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Updating information.</I> A creditor may periodically request updated information from applicants but may not use events related to a prohibited basis—such as an applicant's retirement or reaching a particular age, or a change in name or marital status—to trigger such a request.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Procedure pending reapplication.</I> A creditor may require a reapplication from an account holder, even when there is no evidence of unwillingness or inability to repay, if (1) the credit was based on the qualifications of a person who is no longer available to support the credit and (2) the creditor has information indicating that the account holder's income may be insufficient to support the credit. While a reapplication is pending, the creditor must allow the account holder full access to the account under the existing contract terms. The creditor may specify a reasonable time period within which the account holder must submit the required information.
</P>
<P>7(d) <I>Signature of spouse or other person.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Qualified applicant.</I> The signature rules ensure that qualified applicants are able to obtain credit in their own names. Thus, when an applicant requests individual credit, a creditor generally may not require the signature of another person unless the creditor has first determined that the applicant alone does not qualify for the credit requested.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unqualified applicant.</I> When an applicant requests individual credit but does not meet a creditor's standards, the creditor may require a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar partie—but cannot require that it be the spouse. (See commentary to § 202.7(d)(5) and (6).)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Signature of another person.</I> It is impermissible for a creditor to require an applicant who is individually creditworthy to provide a cosigner—even if the creditor applies the requirement without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. (But see comment 7(d)(6)-1 concerning guarantors of closely held corporations.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Joint applicant.</I> The term “joint applicant” refers to someone who applies contemporaneously with the applicant for shared or joint credit. It does not refer to someone whose signature is required by the creditor as a condition for granting the credit requested.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Evidence of joint application.</I> A person's intent to be a joint applicant must be evidenced at the time of application. Signatures on a promissory note may not be used to show intent to apply for joint credit. On the other hand, signatures or initials on a credit application affirming applicants' intent to apply for joint credit may be used to establish intent to apply for joint credit. (See Appendix B). The method used to establish intent must be distinct from the means used by individuals to affirm the accuracy of information. For example, signatures on a joint financial statement affirming the veracity of information are not sufficient to establish intent to apply for joint credit.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Jointly owned property.</I> If an applicant requests unsecured credit, does not own sufficient separate property, and relies on joint property to establish creditworthiness, the creditor must value the applicant's interest in the jointly owned property. A creditor may not request that a nonapplicant joint owner sign any instrument as a condition of the credit extension unless the applicant's interest does not support the amount and terms of the credit sought. 
</P>
<P>i. <I>Valuation of applicant's interest.</I> In determining the value of an applicant's interest in jointly owned property, a creditor may consider factors such as the form of ownership and the property's susceptibility to attachment, execution, severance, or partition; the value of the applicant's interest after such action; and the cost associated with the action. This determination must be based on the existing form of ownership, and not on the possibility of a subsequent change. For example, in determining whether a married applicant's interest in jointly owned property is sufficient to satisfy the creditor's standards of creditworthiness for individual credit, a creditor may not consider that the applicant's separate property could be transferred into tenancy by the entirety after consummation. Similarly, a creditor may not consider the possibility that the couple may divorce. Accordingly, a creditor may not require the signature of the nonapplicant spouse in these or similar circumstances. 
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Other options to support credit.</I> If the applicant's interest in jointly owned property does not support the amount and terms of credit sought, the creditor may offer the applicant other options to qualify for the extension of credit. For example:
</P>
<P>A. Providing a co-signer or other party (§ 202.7(d)(5)); 
</P>
<P>B. Requesting that the credit be granted on a secured basis (§ 202.7(d)(4)); or
</P>
<P>C. Providing the signature of the joint owner on an instrument that ensures access to the property in the event of the applicant's death or default, but does not impose personal liability unless necessary under state law (such as a limited guarantee). A creditor may not routinely require, however, that a joint owner sign an instrument (such as a quitclaim deed) that would result in the forfeiture of the joint owner's interest in the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Need for signature—reasonable belief.</I> A creditor's reasonable belief as to what instruments need to be signed by a person other than the applicant should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Residency.</I> In assessing the creditworthiness of a person who applies for credit in a community property state, a creditor may assume that the applicant is a resident of the state unless the applicant indicates otherwise.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Creation of enforceable lien.</I> Some state laws require that both spouses join in executing any instrument by which real property is encumbered. If an applicant offers such property as security for credit, a creditor may require the applicant's spouse to sign the instruments necessary to create a valid security interest in the property. The creditor may not require the spouse to sign the note evidencing the credit obligation if signing only the mortgage or other security agreement is sufficient to make the property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default. However, if under state law both spouses must sign the note to create an enforceable lien, the creditor may require the signatures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Need for signature—reasonable belief.</I> Generally, a signature to make the secured property available will only be needed on a security agreement. A creditor's reasonable belief that, to ensure access to the property, the spouse's signature is needed on an instrument that imposes personal liability should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Integrated instruments.</I> When a creditor uses an integrated instrument that combines the note and the security agreement, the spouse cannot be asked to sign the integrated instrument if the signature is only needed to grant a security interest. But the spouse could be asked to sign an integrated instrument that makes clear—for example, by a legend placed next to the spouse's signature—that the spouse's signature is only to grant a security interest and that signing the instrument does not impose personal liability.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Qualifications of additional parties.</I> In establishing guidelines for eligibility of guarantors, cosigners, or similar additional parties, a creditor may restrict the applicant's choice of additional parties but may not discriminate on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. For example, the creditor could require that the additional party live in the creditor's market area.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reliance on income of another person—individual credit.</I> An applicant who requests individual credit relying on the income of another person (including a spouse in a non-community property state) may be required to provide the signature of the other person to make the income available to pay the debt. In community property states, the signature of a spouse may be required if the applicant relies on the spouse's separate income. If the applicant relies on the spouse's future earnings that as a matter of state law cannot be characterized as community property until earned, the creditor may require the spouse's signature, but need not do so—even if it is the creditor's practice to require the signature when an applicant relies on the future earnings of a person other than a spouse. (See § 202.6(c) on consideration of state property laws.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Renewals.</I> If the borrower's creditworthiness is reevaluated when a credit obligation is renewed, the creditor must determine whether an additional party is still warranted and, if not warranted, release the additional party.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(d)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Guarantees.</I> A guarantee on an extension of credit is part of a credit transaction and therefore subject to the regulation. A creditor may require the personal guarantee of the partners, directors, or officers of a business, and the shareholders of a closely held corporation, even if the business or corporation is creditworthy. The requirement must be based on the guarantor's relationship with the business or corporation, however, and not on a prohibited basis. For example, a creditor may not require guarantees only for women-owned or minority-owned businesses. Similarly, a creditor may not require guarantees only of the married officers of a business or the married shareholders of a closely held corporation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Spousal guarantees.</I> The rules in § 202.7(d) bar a creditor from requiring the signature of a guarantor's spouse just as they bar the creditor from requiring the signature of an applicant's spouse. For example, although a creditor may require all officers of a closely held corporation to personally guarantee a corporate loan, the creditor may not automatically require that spouses of married officers also sign the guarantee. If an evaluation of the financial circumstances of an officer indicates that an additional signature is necessary, however, the creditor may require the signature of another person in appropriate circumstances in accordance with § 202.7(d)(2).
</P>
<P>7(e) <I>Insurance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Differences in terms.</I> Differences in the availability, rates, and other terms on which credit-related casualty insurance or credit life, health, accident, or disability insurance is offered or provided to an applicant does not violate Regulation B.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance information.</I> A creditor may obtain information about an applicant's age, sex, or marital status for insurance purposes. The information may only be used for determining eligibility and premium rates for insurance, however, and not in making the credit decision.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.8—Special Purpose Credit Programs 
</HD3>
<P>8(a) <I>Standards for programs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining qualified programs.</I> The Board does not determine whether individual programs qualify for special purpose credit status, or whether a particular program benefits an “economically disadvantaged class of persons.” The agency or creditor administering or offering the loan program must make these decisions regarding the status of its program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compliance with a program authorized by federal or state law.</I> A creditor does not violate Regulation B when it complies in good faith with a regulation promulgated by a government agency implementing a special purpose credit program under § 202.8(a)(1). It is the agency's responsibility to promulgate a regulation that is consistent with federal and state law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Expressly authorized.</I> Credit programs authorized by federal or state law include programs offered pursuant to federal, state, or local statute, regulation or ordinance, or pursuant to judicial or administrative order.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor liability.</I> A refusal to grant credit to an applicant is not a violation of the Act or regulation if the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements under a special purpose credit program.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Determining need.</I> In designing a special purpose credit program under § 202.8(a), a for-profit organization must determine that the program will benefit a class of people who would otherwise be denied credit or would receive it on less favorable terms. This determination can be based on a broad analysis using the organization's own research or data from outside sources, including governmental reports and studies. For example, a creditor might design new products to reach consumers who would not meet, or have not met, its traditional standards of creditworthiness due to such factors as credit inexperience or the use of credit sources that may not report to consumer reporting agencies. Or, a bank could review Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data along with demographic data for its assessment area and conclude that there is a need for a special purpose credit program for low-income minority borrowers.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Elements of the program.</I> The written plan must contain information that supports the need for the particular program. The plan also must either state a specific period of time for which the program will last, or contain a statement regarding when the program will be reevaluated to determine if there is a continuing need for it.
</P>
<P>8(b) <I>Rules in other sections.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of rules.</I> A creditor that rejects an application because the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements (common characteristic or financial need, for example) must nevertheless notify the applicant of action taken as required by § 202.9.
</P>
<P>8(c) <I>Special rule concerning requests and use of information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request of prohibited basis information.</I> This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 202.5 and 202.6 to determine an applicant's eligibility for a particular program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of programs under which the creditor can ask for and consider information about a prohibited basis are: 
</P>
<P>i. Energy conservation programs to assist the elderly, for which the creditor must consider the applicant's age. 
</P>
<P>ii. Programs under a Minority Enterprise Small Business Investment Corporation, for which a creditor must consider the applicant's minority status.
</P>
<P>8(d) <I>Special rule in the case of financial need.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request of prohibited basis information.</I> This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 202.5 and 202.6, and to require signatures that would otherwise be prohibited by § 202.7(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of programs in which financial need is a criterion are: 
</P>
<P>i. Subsidized housing programs for low- to moderate-income households, for which a creditor may have to consider the applicant's receipt of alimony or child support, the spouse's or parents' income, etc. 
</P>
<P>ii. Student loan programs based on the family's financial need, for which a creditor may have to consider the spouse's or parents' financial resources.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Student loans.</I> In a guaranteed student loan program, a creditor may obtain the signature of a parent as a guarantor when required by federal or state law or agency regulation, or when the student does not meet the creditor's standards of creditworthiness. (See § 202.7(d)(1) and (5).) The creditor may not require an additional signature when a student has a work or credit history that satisfies the creditor's standards.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.9—Notifications
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Use of the term adverse action.</I> The regulation does not require that a creditor use the term adverse action in communicating to an applicant that a request for an extension of credit has not been approved. In notifying an applicant of adverse action as defined by § 202.2(c)(1), a creditor may use any words or phrases that describe the action taken on the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expressly withdrawn applications.</I> When an applicant expressly withdraws a credit application, the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements under § 202.9. (The creditor must comply, however, with the record retention requirements of the regulation. See § 202.12(b)(3).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>When notification occurs.</I> Notification occurs when a creditor delivers or mails a notice to the applicant's last known address or, in the case of an oral notification, when the creditor communicates the credit decision to the applicant.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Location of notice.</I> The notifications required under § 202.9 may appear on either or both sides of a form or letter.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prequalification requests.</I> Whether a creditor must provide a notice of action taken for a prequalification request depends on the creditor's response to the request, as discussed in comment 2(f)-3. For instance, a creditor may treat the request as an inquiry if the creditor evaluates specific information about the consumer and tells the consumer the loan amount, rate, and other terms of credit the consumer could qualify for under various loan programs, explaining the process the consumer must follow to submit a mortgage application and the information the creditor will analyze in reaching a credit decision. On the other hand, a creditor has treated a request as an application, and is subject to the adverse action notice requirements of § 202.9 if, after evaluating information, the creditor decides that it will not approve the request and communicates that decision to the consumer. For example, if the creditor tells the consumer that it would not approve an application for a mortgage because of a bankruptcy in the consumer's record, the creditor has denied an application for credit.
</P>
<P>9(a) <I>Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing of notice—when an application is complete.</I> Once a creditor has obtained all the information it normally considers in making a credit decision, the application is complete and the creditor has 30 days in which to notify the applicant of the credit decision. (See also comment 2(f)-6.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notification of approval.</I> Notification of approval may be express or by implication. For example, the creditor will satisfy the notification requirement when it gives the applicant the credit card, money, property, or services requested.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Incomplete application—denial for incompleteness.</I> When an application is incomplete regarding information that the applicant can provide and the creditor lacks sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may deny the application giving as the reason for denial that the application is incomplete. The creditor has the option, alternatively, of providing a notice of incompleteness under § 202.9(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incomplete application—denial for reasons other than incompleteness.</I> When an application is missing information but provides sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may evaluate the application, make its credit decision, and notify the applicant accordingly. If credit is denied, the applicant must be given the specific reasons for the credit denial (or notice of the right to receive the reasons); in this instance missing information or “incomplete application” cannot be given as the reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Length of counteroffer.</I> Section 202.9(a)(1)(iv) does not require a creditor to hold a counteroffer open for 90 days or any other particular length of time.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Counteroffer combined with adverse action notice.</I> A creditor that gives the applicant a combined counteroffer and adverse action notice that complies with § 202.9(a)(2) need not send a second adverse action notice if the applicant does not accept the counteroffer. A sample of a combined notice is contained in form C-4 of Appendix C to the regulation.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Denial of a telephone application.</I> When an application is made by telephone and adverse action is taken, the creditor must request the applicant's name and address in order to provide written notification under this section. If the applicant declines to provide that information, then the creditor has no further notification responsibility.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> In determining which rules in this paragraph apply to a given business credit application, a creditor may rely on the applicant's assertion about the revenue size of the business. (Applications to start a business are governed by the rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(i).) If an applicant applies for credit as a sole proprietor, the revenues of the sole proprietorship will determine which rules govern the application. However, if an applicant applies for business credit as an individual, the rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(i) apply unless the application is for trade or similar credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Trade credit.</I> The term trade credit generally is limited to a financing arrangement that involves a buyer and a seller—such as a supplier who finances the sale of equipment, supplies, or inventory; it does not apply to an extension of credit by a bank or other financial institution for the financing of such items.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Factoring.</I> Factoring refers to a purchase of accounts receivable, and thus is not subject to the Act or regulation. If there is a credit extension incident to the factoring arrangement, the notification rules in § 202.9(a)(3)(ii) apply, as do other relevant sections of the Act and regulation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manner of compliance.</I> In complying with the notice provisions of the Act and regulation, creditors offering business credit may follow the rules governing consumer credit. Similarly, creditors may elect to treat all business credit the same (irrespective of revenue size) by providing notice in accordance with § 202.9(a)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Timing of notification.</I> A creditor subject to § 202.9(a)(3)(ii)(A) is required to notify a business credit applicant, orally or in writing, of action taken on an application within a reasonable time of receiving a completed application. Notice provided in accordance with the timing requirements of § 202.9(a)(1) is deemed reasonable in all instances.
</P>
<P>9(b) <I>Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantially similar notice.</I> The ECOA notice sent with a notification of a credit denial or other adverse action will comply with the regulation if it is “substantially similar” to the notice contained in § 202.9(b)(1). For example, a creditor may add a reference to the fact that the ECOA permits age to be considered in certain credit scoring systems, or add a reference to a similar state statute or regulation and to a state enforcement agency.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Number of specific reasons.</I> A creditor must disclose the principal reasons for denying an application or taking other adverse action. The regulation does not mandate that a specific number of reasons be disclosed, but disclosure of more than four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Source of specific reasons.</I> The specific reasons disclosed under §§ 202.9(a)(2) and (b)(2) must relate to and accurately describe the factors actually considered or scored by a creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Description of reasons.</I> A creditor need not describe how or why a factor adversely affected an applicant. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit scoring system.</I> If a creditor bases the denial or other adverse action on a credit scoring system, the reasons disclosed must relate only to those factors actually scored in the system. Moreover, no factor that was a principal reason for adverse action may be excluded from disclosure. The creditor must disclose the actual reasons for denial (for example, “age of automobile”) even if the relationship of that factor to predicting creditworthiness may not be clear to the applicant.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Credit scoring—method for selecting reasons.</I> The regulation does not require that any one method be used for selecting reasons for a credit denial or other adverse action that is based on a credit scoring system. Various methods will meet the requirements of the regulation. One method is to identify the factors for which the applicant's score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by applicants whose total score was at or slightly above the minimum passing score. Another method is to identify the factors for which the applicant's score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by all applicants. These average scores could be calculated during the development or use of the system. Any other method that produces results substantially similar to either of these methods is also acceptable under the regulation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Judgmental system.</I> If a creditor uses a judgmental system, the reasons for the denial or other adverse action must relate to those factors in the applicant's record actually reviewed by the person making the decision.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Combined credit scoring and judgmental system.</I> If a creditor denies an application based on a credit evaluation system that employs both credit scoring and judgmental components, the reasons for the denial must come from the component of the system that the applicant failed. For example, if a creditor initially credit scores an application and denies the credit request as a result of that scoring, the reasons disclosed to the applicant must relate to the factors scored in the system. If the application passes the credit scoring stage but the creditor then denies the credit request based on a judgmental assessment of the applicant's record, the reasons disclosed must relate to the factors reviewed judgmentally, even if the factors were also considered in the credit scoring component. If the application is not approved or denied as a result of the credit scoring, but falls into a gray band, and the creditor performs a judgmental assessment and denies the credit after that assessment, the reasons disclosed must come from both components of the system. The same result applies where a judgmental assessment is the first component of the combined system. As provided in comment 9(b)(2)-1, disclosure of more than a combined total of four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Automatic denial.</I> Some credit decision methods contain features that call for automatic denial because of one or more negative factors in the applicant's record (such as the applicant's previous bad credit history with that creditor, the applicant's declaration of bankruptcy, or the fact that the applicant is a minor). When a creditor denies the credit request because of an automatic-denial factor, the creditor must disclose that specific factor.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Combined ECOA-FCRA disclosures.</I> The ECOA requires disclosure of the principal reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application for an extension of credit. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) requires a creditor to disclose when it has based its decision in whole or in part on information from a source other than the applicant or its own files. Disclosing that a consumer report was obtained and used in the denial of the application, as the FCRA requires, does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons. For example, if the applicant's credit history reveals delinquent credit obligations and the application is denied for that reason, to satisfy § 202.9(b)(2) the creditor must disclose that the application was denied because of the applicant's delinquent credit obligations. The FCRA also requires a creditor to disclose, as applicable, a credit score it used in taking adverse action along with related information, including up to four key factors that adversely affected the consumer's credit score (or up to five factors if the number of inquiries made with respect to that consumer report is a key factor). Disclosing the key factors that adversely affected the consumer's credit score does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application or extension of credit. Sample forms C-1 through C-5 of appendix C of the regulation provide for both the ECOA and FCRA disclosures. See also comment 9(a)(2)-1.
</P>
<P>9(c) <I>Incomplete applications.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Exception for preapprovals.</I> The requirement to provide a notice of incompleteness does not apply to preapprovals that constitute applications under § 202.2(f).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reapplication.</I> If information requested by a creditor is submitted by an applicant after the expiration of the time period designated by the creditor, the creditor may require the applicant to make a new application.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(c)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Oral inquiries for additional information.</I> If an applicant fails to provide the information in response to an oral request, a creditor must send a written notice to the applicant within the 30-day period specified in § 202.9(c)(1) and (2). If the applicant provides the information, the creditor must take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with § 202.9(a).
</P>
<P>9(g) <I>Applications submitted through a third party.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Third parties.</I> The notification of adverse action may be given by one of the creditors to whom an application was submitted, or by a noncreditor third party. If one notification is provided on behalf of multiple creditors, the notice must contain the name and address of each creditor. The notice must either disclose the applicant's right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, or give the primary reasons each creditor relied upon in taking the adverse action—clearly indicating which reasons relate to which creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Third party notice—enforcement agency.</I> If a single adverse action notice is being provided to an applicant on behalf of several creditors and they are under the jurisdiction of different federal enforcement agencies, the notice need not name each agency; disclosure of any one of them will suffice.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party notice—liability.</I> When a notice is to be provided through a third party, a creditor is not liable for an act or omission of the third party that constitutes a violation of the regulation if the creditor accurately and in a timely manner provided the third party with the information necessary for the notification and maintains reasonable procedures adapted to prevent such violations.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.10—Furnishing of Credit Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of § 202.10 for designating and reporting credit information apply only to consumer credit transactions. Moreover, they apply only to creditors that opt to furnish credit information to credit bureaus or to other creditors; there is no requirement that a creditor furnish credit information on its accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reporting on all accounts.</I> The requirements of § 202.10 apply only to accounts held or used by spouses. However, a creditor has the option to designate all joint accounts (or all accounts with an authorized user) to reflect the participation of both parties, whether or not the accounts are held by persons married to each other.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Designating accounts.</I> In designating accounts and reporting credit information, a creditor need not distinguish between accounts on which the spouse is an authorized user and accounts on which the spouse is a contractually liable party.
</P>
<P>4. <I>File and index systems.</I> The regulation does not require the creation or maintenance of separate files in the name of each participant on a joint or user account, or require any other particular system of recordkeeping or indexing. It requires only that a creditor be able to report information in the name of each spouse on accounts covered by § 202.10. Thus, if a creditor receives a credit inquiry about the wife, it should be able to locate her credit file without asking the husband's name.
</P>
<P>10(a) <I>Designation of accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>New parties.</I> When new parties who are spouses undertake a legal obligation on an account, as in the case of a mortgage loan assumption, the creditor must change the designation on the account to reflect the new parties and must furnish subsequent credit information on the account in the new names.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Request to change designation of account.</I> A request to change the manner in which information concerning an account is furnished does not alter the legal liability of either spouse on the account and does not require a creditor to change the name in which the account is maintained.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.11—Relation to State Law 
</HD3>
<P>11(a) Inconsistent state laws.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Preemption determination—New York.</I> The Board has determined that the following provisions in the state law of New York are preempted by the federal law, effective November 11, 1988: 
</P>
<P>i. Article 15, section 296a(1)(b)—Unlawful discriminatory practices in relation to credit on the basis of race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars taking a prohibited basis into account when establishing eligibility for certain special-purpose credit programs. 
</P>
<P>ii. Article 15, section 296a(1)(c)'Unlawful discriminatory practice to make any record or inquiry based on race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars a creditor from requesting and considering information regarding the particular characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) required for eligibility for special-purpose credit programs.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preemption determination—Ohio.</I> The Board has determined that the following provision in the state law of Ohio is preempted by the federal law, effective July 23, 1990: 
</P>
<P>i. Section 4112.021(B)(1)—Unlawful discriminatory practices in credit transactions. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars asking or favorably considering the age of an elderly applicant; prohibits the consideration of age in a credit scoring system; permits without limitation the consideration of age in real estate transactions; and limits the consideration of age in special-purpose credit programs to certain government-sponsored programs identified in the state law.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.12—Record Retention 
</HD3>
<P>12(a) <I>Retention of prohibited information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of prohibited information.</I> Unless the creditor specifically requested such information, a creditor does not violate this section when it receives prohibited information from a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of retained information.</I> Although a creditor may keep in its files prohibited information as provided in § 202.12(a), the creditor may use the information in evaluating credit applications only if permitted to do so by § 202.6.
</P>
<P>12(b) <I>Preservation of records.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Copies.</I> Copies of the original record include carbon copies, photocopies, microfilm or microfiche copies, or copies produced by any other accurate retrieval system, such as documents stored and reproduced by computer. A creditor that uses a computerized or mechanized system need not keep a paper copy of a document (for example, of an adverse action notice) if it can regenerate all pertinent information in a timely manner for examination or other purposes.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Computerized decisions.</I> A creditor that enters information items from a written application into a computerized or mechanized system and makes the credit decision mechanically, based only on the items of information entered into the system, may comply with § 202.12(b) by retaining the information actually entered. It is not required to store the complete written application, nor is it required to enter the remaining items of information into the system. If the transaction is subject to § 202.13, however, the creditor is required to enter and retain the data on personal characteristics in order to comply with the requirements of that section.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(b)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawn and brokered applications.</I> In most cases, the 25-month retention period for applications runs from the date a notification is sent to the applicant granting or denying the credit requested. In certain transactions, a creditor is not obligated to provide a notice of the action taken. (See, for example, comment 9-2.) In such cases, the 25-month requirement runs from the date of application, as when:
</P>
<P>i. An application is withdrawn by the applicant.
</P>
<P>ii. An application is submitted to more than one creditor on behalf of the applicant, and the application is approved by one of the other creditors.
</P>
<P>12(b)(6) <I>Self-tests</I>
</P>
<P>1. The rule requires all written or recorded information about a self-test to be retained for 25 months after a self-test has been completed. For this purpose, a self-test is completed after the creditor has obtained the results and made a determination about what corrective action, if any, is appropriate. Creditors are required to retain information about the scope of the self-test, the methodology used and time period covered by the self-test, the report or results of the self-test including any analysis or conclusions, and any corrective action taken in response to the self-test.
</P>
<P>12(b)(7) <I>Preapplication marketing information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prescreened credit solicitations.</I> The rule requires creditors to retain copies of prescreened credit solicitations. For purposes of this regulation, a prescreened solicitation is an “offer of credit” as described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act. A creditor complies with this rule if it retains a copy of each solicitation mailing that contains different terms, such as the amount of credit offered, annual percentage rate, or annual fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>List of criteria.</I> A creditor must retain the list of criteria used to select potential recipients. This includes the criteria used by the creditor both to determine the potential recipients of the particular solicitation and to determine who will actually be offered credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Correspondence.</I> A creditor may retain correspondence relating to consumers' complaints about prescreened solicitations in any manner that is reasonably accessible and is understandable to examiners. There is no requirement to establish a separate database or set of files for such correspondence, or to match consumer complaints with specific solicitation programs.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.13—Information for Monitoring Purposes 
</HD3>
<P>13(a) <I>Information to be requested.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Natural person.</I> Section 202.13 applies only to applications from natural persons.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Principal residence.</I> The requirements of § 202.13 apply only if an application relates to a dwelling that is or will be occupied by the applicant as the principal residence. A credit application related to a vacation home or a rental unit is not covered. In the case of a two- to four-unit dwelling, the application is covered if the applicant intends to occupy one of the units as a principal residence.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Temporary financing.</I> An application for temporary financing to construct a dwelling is not subject to § 202.13. But an application for both a temporary loan to finance construction of a dwelling and a permanent mortgage loan to take effect upon the completion of construction is subject to § 202.13.
</P>
<P>4. <I>New principal residence.</I> A person can have only one principal residence at a time. However, if a person buys or builds a new dwelling that will become that person's principal residence within a year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal residence for purposes of § 202.13.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> The information-collection requirements of this section apply to applications for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling that is or will become the applicant's principal residence. Therefore, applications for credit secured by the applicant's principal residence but made primarily for a purpose other than the purchase or refinancing of the principal residence (such as loans for home improvement and debt consolidation) are not subject to the information-collection requirements. An application for an open-end home equity line of credit is not subject to this section unless it is readily apparent to the creditor when the application is taken that the primary purpose of the line is for the purchase or refinancing of a principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Refinancings.</I> A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same borrower. A creditor that receives an application to refinance an existing extension of credit made by that creditor for the purchase of the applicant's dwelling may request the monitoring information again but is not required to do so if it was obtained in the earlier transaction.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Data collection under Regulation C.</I> See comment 5(a)(2)-2.
</P>
<P>13(b) <I>Obtaining of information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Forms for collecting data.</I> A creditor may collect the information specified in § 202.13(a) either on an application form or on a separate form referring to the application. The applicant must be offered the option to select more than one racial designation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written applications.</I> The regulation requires written applications for the types of credit covered by § 202.13. A creditor can satisfy this requirement by recording on paper or by means of computer the information that the applicant provides orally and that the creditor normally considers in a credit decision.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Telephone, mail applications.</I> 
</P>
<P>i. A creditor that accepts an application by telephone or mail must request the monitoring information. 
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor that accepts an application by mail need not make a special request for the monitoring information if the applicant has failed to provide it on the application form returned to the creditor. 
</P>
<P>iii. If it is not evident on the face of an application that it was received by mail, telephone, or via an electronic medium, the creditor should indicate on the form or other application record how the application was received.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Video and other electronic-application processes.</I> 
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor takes an application through an electronic medium that allows the creditor to see the applicant, the creditor must treat the application as taken in person. The creditor must note the monitoring information on the basis of visual observation or surname, if the applicant chooses not to provide the information.
</P>
<P>ii. If an applicant applies through an electronic medium without video capability, the creditor treats the application as if it were received by mail.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Applications through loan-shopping services.</I> When a creditor receives an application through an unaffiliated loan-shopping service, it does not have to request the monitoring information for purposes of the ECOA or Regulation B. Creditors subject to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act should be aware, however, that data collection may be called for under Regulation C (12 CFR part 203), which generally requires creditors to report, among other things, the sex and race of an applicant on brokered applications or applications received through a correspondent.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Inadvertent notation.</I> If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 202.13, the creditor may process and retain the application without violating the regulation.
</P>
<P>13(c) <I>Disclosure to applicants.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Procedures for providing disclosures.</I> The disclosure to an applicant regarding the monitoring information may be provided in writing. Appendix B contains a sample disclosure. A creditor may devise its own disclosure so long as it is substantially similar. The creditor need not orally request the monitoring information if it is requested in writing.
</P>
<P>13(d) <I>Substitute monitoring program.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substitute program.</I> An enforcement agency may adopt, under its established rulemaking or enforcement procedures, a program requiring creditors under its jurisdiction to collect information in addition to information required by this section.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.14—Rules on Providing Appraisal Reports 
</HD3>
<P>14(a) <I>Providing appraisals.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This section covers applications for credit to be secured by a lien on a dwelling, as that term is defined in § 202.14(c), whether the credit is for a business purpose (for example, a loan to start a business) or a consumer purpose (for example, a loan to finance a child's education).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewals.</I> This section applies when an applicant requests the renewal of an existing extension of credit and the creditor obtains a new appraisal report. This section does not apply when a creditor uses the appraisal report previously obtained to evaluate the renewal request.
</P>
<P>14(a)(2)(i) <I>Notice.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When an application that is subject to this section involves more than one applicant, the notice about the appraisal report need only be given to one applicant, but it must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
</P>
<P>14(a)(2)(ii) <I>Delivery.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reimbursement.</I> Creditors may charge for photocopy and postage costs incurred in providing a copy of the appraisal report, unless prohibited by state or other law. If the consumer has already paid for the report—for example, as part of an application fee—the creditor may not require additional fees for the appraisal (other than photocopy and postage costs).
</P>
<P>14(c) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Appraisal reports.</I> Examples of appraisal reports are:
</P>
<P>i. A report prepared by an appraiser (whether or not licensed or certified), including written comments and other documents submitted to the creditor in support of the appraiser's estimate or opinion of the property's value.
</P>
<P>ii. A document prepared by the creditor's staff that assigns value to the property, if a third-party appraisal report has not been used.
</P>
<P>iii. An internal review document reflecting that the creditor's valuation is different from a valuation in a third party's appraisal report (or different from valuations that are publicly available or valuations such as manufacturers' invoices for mobile homes).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other reports.</I> The term “appraisal report” does not cover all documents relating to the value of the applicant's property. Examples of reports not covered are:
</P>
<P>i. Internal documents, if a third-party appraisal report was used to establish the value of the property.
</P>
<P>ii. Governmental agency statements of appraised value.
</P>
<P>iii. Valuations lists that are publicly available (such as published sales prices or mortgage amounts, tax assessments, and retail price ranges) and valuations such as manufacturers' invoices for mobile homes.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.15—Incentives for Self-Testing and Self-Correction 
</HD3>
<P>15(a) <I>General rules.</I>
</P>
<P>15(a)(1) <I>Voluntary self-testing and correction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Activities required by any governmental authority are not voluntary self-tests. A governmental authority includes both administrative and judicial authorities for federal, state, and local governments.
</P>
<P>15(a)(2) <I>Corrective action required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. To qualify for the privilege, appropriate corrective action is required when the results of a self-test show that it is more likely than not that there has been a violation of the ECOA or this regulation. A self-test is also privileged when it identifies no violations.
</P>
<P>2. In some cases, the issue of whether certain information is privileged may arise before the self-test is complete or corrective actions are fully under way. This would not necessarily prevent a creditor from asserting the privilege. In situations where the self-test is not complete, for the privilege to apply the lender must satisfy the regulation's requirements within a reasonable period of time. To assert the privilege where the self-test shows a likely violation, the rule requires, at a minimum, that the creditor establish a plan for corrective action and a method to demonstrate progress in implementing the plan. Creditors must take appropriate corrective action on a timely basis after the results of the self-test are known.
</P>
<P>3. A creditor's determination about the type of corrective action needed, or a finding that no corrective action is required, is not conclusive in determining whether the requirements of this paragraph have been satisfied. If a creditor's claim of privilege is challenged, an assessment of the need for corrective action or the type of corrective action that is appropriate must be based on a review of the self-testing results, which may require an <I>in camera</I> inspection of the privileged documents.
</P>
<P>15(a)(3) Other privileges.
</P>
<P>1. A creditor may assert the privilege established under this section in addition to asserting any other privilege that may apply, such as the attorney-client privilege or the work-product privilege. Self-testing data may be privileged under this section whether or not the creditor's assertion of another privilege is upheld.
</P>
<P>15(b) <I>Self-test defined.</I>
</P>
<P>15(b)(1) <I>Definition.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(b)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. To qualify for the privilege, a self-test must be sufficient to constitute a determination of the extent or effectiveness of the creditor's compliance with the Act and Regulation B. Accordingly, a self-test is only privileged if it was designed and used for that purpose. A self-test that is designed or used to determine compliance with other laws or regulations or for other purposes is not privileged under this rule. For example, a self-test designed to evaluate employee efficiency or customers' satisfaction with the level of service provided by the creditor is not privileged even if evidence of discrimination is uncovered incidentally. If a self-test is designed for multiple purposes, only the portion designed to determine compliance with the ECOA is eligible for the privilege.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(b)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. The principal attribute of self-testing is that it constitutes a voluntary undertaking by the creditor to produce new data or factual information that otherwise would not be available and could not be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions. Self-testing includes, but is not limited to, the practice of using fictitious applicants for credit (testers), either with or without the use of matched pairs. A creditor may elect to test a defined segment of its business, for example, loan applications processed by a specific branch or loan officer, or applications made for a particular type of credit or loan program. A creditor also may use other methods of generating information that is not available in loan and application files, such as surveying mortgage loan applicants. To the extent permitted by law, creditors might also develop new methods that go beyond traditional pre-application testing, such as hiring testers to submit fictitious loan applications for processing.
</P>
<P>2. The privilege does not protect a creditor's analysis performed as part of processing or underwriting a credit application. A creditor's evaluation or analysis of its loan files, Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data, or similar types of records (such as broker or loan officer compensation records) does not produce new information about a creditor's compliance and is not a self-test for purposes of this section. Similarly, a statistical analysis of data derived from existing loan files is not privileged.
</P>
<P>15(b)(3) <I>Types of information not privileged.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(b)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. The information listed in this paragraph is not privileged and may be used to determine whether the prerequisites for the privilege have been satisfied. Accordingly, a creditor might be asked to identify the self-testing method, for example, whether preapplication testers were used or data were compiled by surveying loan applicants. Information about the scope of the self-test (such as the types of credit transactions examined, or the geographic area covered by the test) also is not privileged.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(b)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. Property appraisal reports, minutes of loan committee meetings or other documents reflecting the basis for a decision to approve or deny an application, loan policies or procedures, underwriting standards, and broker compensation records are examples of the types of records that are not privileged. If a creditor arranges for testers to submit loan applications for processing, the records are not related to actual credit transactions for purposes of this paragraph and may be privileged self-testing records.
</P>
<P>15(c) <I>Appropriate corrective action.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The rule only addresses the corrective actions required for a creditor to take advantage of the privilege in this section. A creditor may be required to take other actions or provide additional relief if a formal finding of discrimination is made.
</P>
<P>15(c)(1) <I>General requirement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Appropriate corrective action is required even though no violation has been formally adjudicated or admitted by the creditor. In determining whether it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, a creditor must treat testers as if they are actual applicants for credit. A creditor may not refuse to take appropriate corrective action under this section because the self-test used fictitious loan applicants. The fact that a tester's agreement with the creditor waives the tester's legal right to assert a violation does not eliminate the requirement for the creditor to take corrective action, although no remedial relief for the tester is required under paragraph 15(c)(3).
</P>
<P>15(c)(2) <I>Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Whether a creditor has taken or is taking corrective action that is appropriate will be determined on a case-by-case basis. Generally, the scope of the corrective action that is needed to preserve the privilege is governed by the scope of the self-test. For example, a creditor that self-tests mortgage loans and discovers evidence of discrimination may focus its corrective actions on mortgage loans, and is not required to expand its testing to other types of loans.
</P>
<P>2. In identifying the policies or practices that are a likely cause of the violation, a creditor might identify inadequate or improper lending policies, failure to implement established policies, employee conduct, or other causes. The extent and scope of a likely violation may be assessed by determining which areas of operations are likely to be affected by those policies and practices, for example, by determining the types of loans and stages of the application process involved and the branches or offices where the violations may have occurred.
</P>
<P>3. Depending on the method and scope of the self-test and the results of the test, appropriate corrective action may include one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>i. If the self-test identifies individuals whose applications were inappropriately processed, offering to extend credit if the application was improperly denied and compensating such persons for out-of-pocket costs and other compensatory damages; 
</P>
<P>ii. Correcting institutional policies or procedures that may have contributed to the likely violation, and adopting new policies as appropriate; 
</P>
<P>iii. Identifying and then training and/or disciplining the employees involved; 
</P>
<P>iv. Developing outreach programs, marketing strategies, or loan products to serve more effectively segments of the lender's markets that may have been affected by the likely discrimination; and 
</P>
<P>v. Improving audit and oversight systems to avoid a recurrence of the likely violations.
</P>
<P>15(c)(3) <I>Types of relief.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(c)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. The use of pre-application testers to identify policies and practices that illegally discriminate does not require creditors to review existing loan files for the purpose of identifying and compensating applicants who might have been adversely affected.
</P>
<P>2. If a self-test identifies a specific applicant who was discriminated against on a prohibited basis, to qualify for the privilege in this section the creditor must provide appropriate remedial relief to that applicant; the creditor is not required to identify other applicants who might also have been adversely affected.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(c)(3)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to an applicant that would not be available by law. An applicant might also be ineligible for certain types of relief due to changed circumstances. For example, a creditor is not required to offer credit to a denied applicant if the applicant no longer qualifies for the credit due to a change in financial circumstances, although some other type of relief might be appropriate.
</P>
<P>15(d)(1) <I>Scope of privilege.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The privilege applies with respect to any examination, investigation or proceeding by federal, state, or local government agencies relating to compliance with the Act or this regulation. Accordingly, in a case brought under the ECOA, the privilege established under this section preempts any inconsistent laws or court rules to the extent they might require disclosure of privileged self-testing data. The privilege does not apply in other cases (such as in litigation filed solely under a state's fair lending statute). In such cases, if a court orders a creditor to disclose self-test results, the disclosure is not a voluntary disclosure or waiver of the privilege for purposes of paragraph 15(d)(2); a creditor may protect the information by seeking a protective order to limit availability and use of the self-testing data and prevent dissemination beyond what is necessary in that case. Paragraph 15(d)(1) precludes a party who has obtained privileged information from using it in a case brought under the ECOA, provided the creditor has not lost the privilege through voluntary disclosure under paragraph 15(d)(2).
</P>
<P><I>15(d)(2) Loss of privilege.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. A creditor's corrective action, by itself, is not considered a voluntary disclosure of the self-test report or results. For example, a creditor does not disclose the results of a self-test merely by offering to extend credit to a denied applicant or by inviting the applicant to reapply for credit. Voluntary disclosure could occur under this paragraph, however, if the creditor disclosed the self-test results in connection with a new offer of credit.
</P>
<P>2. The disclosure of self-testing results to an independent contractor acting as an auditor or consultant for the creditor on compliance matters does not result in loss of the privilege.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. The privilege is lost if the creditor discloses privileged information, such as the results of the self-test. The privilege is not lost if the creditor merely reveals or refers to the existence of the self-test.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. A creditor's claim of privilege may be challenged in a court or administrative law proceeding with appropriate jurisdiction. In resolving the issue, the presiding officer may require the creditor to produce privileged information about the self-test.
</P>
<FP>Paragraph 15(d)(3) <I>Limited use of privileged information</I>
</FP>
<P>1. A creditor may be required to produce privileged documents for the purpose of determining a penalty or remedy after a violation of the ECOA or Regulation B has been formally adjudicated or admitted. A creditor's compliance with such a requirement does not evidence the creditor's intent to forfeit the privilege.
</P>
<HD3>Section 202.16—Enforcement, Penalties, and Liabilities
</HD3>
<P>17(c) <I>Failure of compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Inadvertent errors.</I> Inadvertent errors include, but are not limited to, clerical mistake, calculation error, computer malfunction, and printing error. An error of legal judgment is not an inadvertent error under the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Correction of error.</I> For inadvertent errors that occur under §§ 202.12 and 202.13, this section requires that they be corrected prospectively.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix B—Model Application Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Freddie Mac/Fannie Mae form—residential loan application.</I> The uniform residential loan application form (Freddie Mac 65/Fannie Mae 1003), including supplemental form (Freddie Mac 65A/Fannie Mae 1003A), prepared by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and the Federal National Mortgage Association and dated October 1992 may be used by creditors without violating this regulation. Creditors that are governed by the monitoring requirements of this regulation (which limits collection to applications primarily for the purchase or refinancing of the applicant's principal residence) should delete, strike, or modify the data-collection section on the form when using it for transactions not covered by § 202.13(a) to ensure that they do not collect the information. Creditors that are subject to more extensive collection requirements by a substitute monitoring program under § 202.13(d) or by the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) may use the form as issued, in compliance with the substitute program or HMDA.
</P>
<P>2. <I>FHLMC/FNMA form—home improvement loan application.</I> The home-improvement and energy loan application form (FHLMC 703/FNMA 1012), prepared by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and the Federal National Mortgage Association and dated October 1986, complies with the requirements of the regulation for some creditors but not others because of the form's section “Information for Government Monitoring Purposes.” Creditors that are governed by § 202.13(a) of the regulation (which limits collection to applications primarily for the purchase or refinancing of the applicant's principal residence) should delete, strike, or modify the data-collection section on the form when using it for transactions not covered by § 202.13(a) to ensure that they do not collect the information. Creditors that are subject to more extensive collection requirements by a substitute monitoring program under § 202.13(d) may use the form as issued, in compliance with that substitute program.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix C—Sample Notification Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Form C-9.</I> Creditors may design their own form, add to, or modify the model form to reflect their individual policies and procedures. For example, a creditor may want to add: 
</P>
<P>i. A telephone number that applicants may call to leave their name and the address to which an appraisal report should be sent. 
</P>
<P>ii. A notice of the cost the applicant will be required to pay the creditor for the appraisal or a copy of the report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. B, 68 FR 13161, Mar. 18, 2003, as amended at 72 FR 63451, Nov. 9, 2007; 72 FR 71057, Dec. 14, 2007; 76 FR 41602, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="203" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 203 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="204" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 204—RESERVE REQUIREMENTS OF DEPOSITORY INSTITUTIONS (REGULATION D)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(a), 248(c), 461, 601, 611, and 3105.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 204.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of section 19 (12 U.S.C. 461 <I>et seq.</I>) and other provisions of the Federal Reserve Act and of section 7 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3105). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part relates to reserve requirements imposed on depository institutions for the purpose of facilitating the implementation of monetary policy by the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The following depository institutions are required to maintain reserves in accordance with this part: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any insured bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or any bank that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any savings bank or mutual savings bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f), (g)); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or any credit union that is eligible to apply to become an insured credit union under section 201 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1781); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any member as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any insured institution as defined in section 401 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1724(a)) or any institution which is eligible to apply to become an insured institution under section 403 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1726). 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as may be otherwise provided by the Board, a foreign bank's branch or agency located in the United States is required to comply with the provisions of this part in the same manner and to the same extent as if the branch or agency were a member bank, if its parent foreign bank (i) has total worldwide consolidated bank assets in excess of $1 billion; or (ii) is controlled by a foreign company or by a group of foreign companies that own or control foreign banks that in the aggregate have total worldwide consolidated bank assets in excess of $1 billion. In addition, any other foreign bank's branch located in the United States that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1815) is required to maintain reserves in accordance with this part as a nonmember depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(3) Except as may be otherwise provided by the Board, an Edge Corporation (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) or an Agreement Corporation (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) is required to comply with the provisions of this part in the same manner and to the same extent as a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) This part does not apply to any financial institution that (i) is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions; (ii) is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business; and (iii) does not do business with the general public. 
</P>
<P>(5) The provisions of this part do not apply to any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 56018, Aug. 22, 1980, as amended by Reg. D, 77 FR 21852, Apr. 12, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply unless otherwise specified: 
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Deposit</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid balance of money or its equivalent received or held by a depository institution in the usual course of business and for which it has given or is obligated to give credit, either conditionally or unconditionally, to an account, including interest credited, or which is evidenced by an instrument on which the depository institution is primarily liable; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Money received or held by a depository institution, or the credit given for money or its equivalent received or held by the depository institution in the usual course of business for a special or specific purpose, regardless of the legal relationships established thereby, including escrow funds, funds held as security for securities loaned by the depository institution, funds deposited as advance payment on subscriptions to United States government securities, and funds held to meet its acceptances;
</P>
<P>(iii) An outstanding teller's check, or an outstanding draft, certified check, cashier's check, money order, or officer's check drawn on the depository institution, issued in the usual course of business for any purpose, including payment for services, dividends or purchases;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any due bill or other liability or undertaking on the part of a depository institution to sell or deliver securities to, or purchase securities for the account of, any customer (including another depository institution), involving either the receipt of funds by the depository institution, regardless of the use of the proceeds, or a debit to an account of the customer before the securities are delivered. A deposit arises thereafter, if after three business days from the date of issuance of the obligation, the depository institution does not deliver the securities purchased or does not fully collateralize its obligation with securities similar to the securities purchased. A security is similar if it is of the same type and if it is of comparable maturity to that purchased by the customer;
</P>
<P>(v) Any liability of a depository institution's affiliate that is not a depository institution, on any promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, due bill, or similar obligation (written or oral), with a maturity of less than one and one-half years, to the extent that the proceeds are used to supply or to maintain the availability of funds (other than capital) to the depository institution, except any such obligation that, had it been issued directly by the depository institution, would not constitute a deposit. If an obligation of an affiliate of a depository institution is regarded as a deposit and is used to purchase assets from the depository institution, the maturity of the deposit is determined by the shorter of the maturity of the obligation issued or the remaining maturity of the assets purchased. If the proceeds from an affiliate's obligation are placed in the depository institution in the form of a reservable deposit, no reserves need be maintained against the obligation of the affiliate since reserves are required to be maintained against the deposit issued by the depository institution. However, the maturity of the deposit issued to the affiliate shall be the shorter of the maturity of the affiliate's obligation or the maturity of the deposit;
</P>
<P>(vi) Credit balances;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any liability of a depository institution on any promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, bankers' acceptance, or similar obligation (written or oral), including mortgage-backed bonds, that is issued or undertaken by a depository institution as a means of obtaining funds, except any such obligation that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is issued or undertaken and held for the account of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An office located in the United States of another depository institution, foreign bank, Edge or Agreement Corporation, or New York Investment (Article XII) Company;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The United States government or an agency thereof; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Export-Import Bank of the United States, Minbanc Capital Corporation, the Government Development Bank for Puerto Rico, a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility;
</P>
<P>(B) Arises from a transfer of direct obligations of, or obligations that are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States Government or any agency thereof that the depository institution is obligated to repurchase;
</P>
<P>(C) Is not insured by a Federal agency, is subordinated to the claims of depositors, has a weighted average maturity of five years or more, and is issued by a depository institution with the approval of, or under the rules and regulations of, its primary Federal supervisor;
</P>
<P>(D) Arises from a borrowing by a depository institution from a dealer in securities, for one business day, of proceeds of a transfer of deposit credit in a Federal Reserve Bank or other immediately available funds (commonly referred to as <I>Federal funds</I>), received by such dealer on the date of the loan in connection with clearance of securities transactions; or 
</P>
<P>(E) Arises from the creation, discount and subsequent sale by a depository institution of its bankers' acceptance of the type described in paragraph 7 of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372). 
</P>
<P>(viii) Any liability of a depository institution that arises from the creation after June 20, 1983, of a bankers' acceptance that is not of the type described in paragraph 7 of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372) except any such liability held for the account of an entity specified in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A); or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposit</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Trust funds received or held by the depository institution that it keeps properly segregated as trust funds and apart from its general assets or which it deposits in another institution to the credit of itself as trustee or other fiduciary. If trust funds are deposited with the commercial department of the depository institution or otherwise mingled with its general assets, a deposit liability of the institution is created; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An obligation that represents a conditional, contingent or endorser's liability; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Obligations, the proceeds of which are not used by the depository institution for purposes of making loans, investments, or maintaining liquid assets such as cash or “due from” depository institutions or other similar purposes. An obligation issued for the purpose of raising funds to purchase business premises, equipment, supplies, or similar assets is not a deposit; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Accounts payable; 
</P>
<P>(v) Hypothecated <I>deposits</I> created by payments on an installment loan where (A) the amounts received are not used immediately to reduce the unpaid balance due on the loan until the sum of the payments equals the entire amount of loan principal and interest; (B) and where such amounts are irrevocably assigned to the depository institution and cannot be reached by the borrower or creditors of the borrower; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Dealer reserve and differential accounts that arise from the financing of dealer installment accounts receivable, and which provide that the dealer may not have access to the funds in the account until the installment loans are repaid, as long as the depository institution is not actually (as distinguished from contingently) obligated to make credit or funds available to the dealer; 
</P>
<P>(vii) A dividend declared by a depository institution for the period intervening between the date of the declaration of the dividend and the date on which it is paid; 
</P>
<P>(viii) An obligation representing a <I>pass through account,</I> as defined in this section; 
</P>
<P>(ix) An obligation arising from the retention by the depository institution of no more than a 10 per cent interest in a pool of conventional 1-4 family mortgages that are sold to third parties; 
</P>
<P>(x) An obligation issued to a State or municipal housing authority under a loan-to-lender program involving the issuance of tax exempt bonds and the subsequent lending of the proceeds to the depository institution for housing finance purposes; 
</P>
<P>(xi) Shares of a credit union held by the National Credit Union Administration or the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility under a statutorily authorized assistance program; and 
</P>
<P>(xii) Any liability of a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank to another United States branch or agency of the same foreign bank, or the liability of the United States office of an Edge Corporation to another United States office of the same Edge Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Demand deposit</I> means a deposit that is payable on demand, or a deposit issued with an original maturity or required notice period of less than seven days, or a deposit representing funds for which the depository institution does not reserve the right to require at least seven days' written notice of an intended withdrawal. Demand deposits may be in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Checking accounts; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Certified, cashier's, teller's, and officer's checks (including such checks issued in payment of dividends);
</P>
<P>(iii) Traveler's checks and money orders that are primary obligations of the issuing institution; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Checks or drafts drawn by, or on behalf of, a non-United States office of a depository institution on an account maintained at any of the institution's United States offices; 
</P>
<P>(v) Letters of credit sold for cash or its equivalent;
</P>
<P>(vi) Withheld taxes, withheld insurance and other withheld funds;
</P>
<P>(vii) Time deposits that have matured or time deposits upon which the contractually required notice of withdrawal as given and the notice period has expired and which have not been renewed (either by action of the depositor or automatically under the terms of the deposit agreement); and
</P>
<P>(viii) An obligation to pay, on demand or within six days, a check (or other instrument, device, or arrangement for the transfer of funds) drawn on the depository institution, where the account of the institution's customer already has been debited.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>demand deposit</I> also means deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which the depositor is authorized to make withdrawals or transfers in excess of the withdrawal or transfer limitations specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section for such an account and the account is not a NOW account, or an ATS account or other account that meets the criteria specified in either paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Demand deposit</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any account that is a time deposit or a savings deposit under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any deposit or account on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and either—
</P>
<P>(A) Is subject to check, draft, negotiable order of withdrawal, share draft, or similar item, such as an account authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1832(a) (<I>NOW account</I>) and a savings deposit described in § 204.2(d)(2), provided that the depositor is eligible to hold a NOW account; or
</P>
<P>(B) From which the depositor is authorized to make transfers by preauthorized transfer or telephonic (including data transmission) agreement, order or instruction to another account or to a third party, provided that the depositor is eligible to hold a NOW account;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any deposit or account on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which withdrawals may be made automatically through payment to the depository institution itself or through transfer of credit to a demand deposit or other account in order to cover checks or drafts drawn upon the institution or to maintain a specified balance in, or to make periodic transfers to such other account, such as accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 371a (automatic transfer account or ATS account), provided that the depositor is eligible to hold an ATS account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) IBF time deposits meeting the requirements of § 204.8(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Time deposit</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A deposit that the depositor does not have a right and is not permitted to make withdrawals from within six days after the date of deposit unless the deposit is subject to an early withdrawal penalty of at least seven days' simple interest on amounts withdrawn within the first six days after deposit. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> A time deposit from which partial early withdrawals are permitted must impose additional early withdrawal penalties of at least seven days' simple interest on amounts withdrawn within six days after each partial withdrawal. If such additional early withdrawal penalties are not imposed, the account ceases to be a time deposit. The account may become a savings deposit if it meets the requirements for a saving deposit; otherwise it becomes a transaction account. <I>Time deposit</I> includes funds—
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A time deposit, or a portion thereof, may be paid during the period when an early withdrawal penalty would otherwise be required under this part without imposing an early withdrawal penalty specified by this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Where the time deposit is maintained in an individual retirement account established in accordance with 26 U.S.C. 408 and is paid within seven days after establishment of the individual retirement account pursuant to 26 CFR 1.408-6(d)(4), where it is maintained in a Keogh (H.R. 10) plan, or where it is maintained in a <I>401(k) plan</I> under 26 U.S.C. 401(k); <I>Provided</I> that the depositor forfeits an amount at least equal to the simple interest earned on the amount withdrawn;
</P>
<P>(b) Where the depository institution pays all or a portion of a time deposit representing funds contributed to an individual retirement account or a Keogh (H.R.10) plan established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 408 or 26 U.S.C. 401 or to a <I>401(k) plan</I> established pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 401(k) when the individual for whose benefit the account is maintained attains age 59
<FR>1/2</FR> or is disabled (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 72(m)(7)) or thereafter;
</P>
<P>(c) Where the depository institution pays that portion of a time deposit on which federal deposit insurance has been lost as a result of the merger of two or more federally insured banks in which the depositor previously maintained separate time deposits, for a period of one year from the date of the merger;
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the death of any owner of the time deposit funds;
</P>
<P>(e) When any owner of the time deposit is determined to be legally incompetent by a court or other administrative body of competent jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(f) Where a time deposit is withdrawn within ten days after a specified maturity date even though the deposit contract provided for automatic renewal at the maturity date.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) Payable on a specified date not less than seven days after the date of deposit;
</P>
<P>(B) Payable at the expiration of a specified time not less than seven days after the date of deposit; 
</P>
<P>(C) Payable only upon written notice that is actually required to be given by the depositor not less than seven days prior to withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(D) Held in <I>club</I> accounts (such as <I>Christmas club</I> accounts and <I>vacation club</I> accounts that are not maintained as <I>savings deposits</I>) that are deposited under written contracts providing that no withdrawal shall be made until a certain number of periodic deposits have been made during a period of not less than three months even though some of the deposits may be made within six days from the end of the period; or 
</P>
<P>(E) Share certificates and certificates of indebtedness issued by credit unions, and certificate accounts and notice accounts issued by savings and loan associations;


</P>
<P>(ii) An <I>IBF time deposit</I> meeting the requirements of § 204.8(a)(2); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Borrowings, regardless of maturity, represented by a promissory note, an acknowledgment of advance, or similar obligation described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) that is issued to, or any bankers' acceptance (other than the type described in 12 U.S.C. 372) of the depository institution held by—
</P>
<P>(A) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution or Edge or agreement corporation organized under the laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(C) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> engaged principally in activities which are ordinarily performed in the United States by governmental entities; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Other than states, provinces, municipalities, or other regional or local governmental units or agencies or instrumentalities thereof.</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) An international entity of which the United States is a member; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any other foreign, international, or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The designated entities are specified in 12 CFR 204.125.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) A time deposit may be represented by a transferable or nontransferable, or a negotiable or nonnegotiable, certificate, instrument, passbook, or statement, or by book entry or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Savings deposit</I> means a deposit or account with respect to which the depositor is not required by the deposit contract but may at any time be required by the depository institution to give written notice of an intended withdrawal not less than seven days before withdrawal is made, and that is not payable on a specified date or at the expiration of a specified time after the date of deposit. The term <I>savings deposit</I> includes a regular share account at a credit union and a regular account at a savings and loan association.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “savings deposit” also means: A deposit or account, such as an account commonly known as a passbook savings account, a statement savings account, or as a money market deposit account (MMDA), that otherwise meets the requirements in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and from which, under the terms of the deposit contract or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor may be permitted or authorized to make transfers and withdrawals to another account (including a transaction account) of the depositor at the same institution or to a third party, regardless of the number of such transfers and withdrawals or the manner in which such transfers and withdrawals are made.
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit may continue to be classified as a savings deposit even if the depository institution exercises its right to require notice of withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Savings deposit</I> does not include funds deposited to the credit of the depository institution's own trust department where the funds involved are utilized to cover checks or drafts. Such funds are <I>transaction accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transaction account</I> means a deposit or account from which the depositor or account holder is permitted to make transfers or withdrawals by negotiable or transferable instrument, payment order of withdrawal, telephone transfer, or other similar device for the purpose of making payments or transfers to third persons or others or from which the depositor may make third party payments at an automated teller machine (ATM) or a remote service unit, or other electronic device, including by debit card. Transaction account includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Demand deposits;
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and that are subject to check, draft, negotiable order of withdrawal, share draft, or other similar item, including accounts described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section (savings deposits) and including accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1832(a) (NOW accounts).
</P>
<P>(3) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and from which withdrawals may be made automatically through payment to the depository institution itself or through transfer or credit to a demand deposit or other account in order to cover checks or drafts drawn upon the institution or to maintain a specified balance in, or to make periodic transfers to such accounts, including accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 371a (automatic transfer accounts or ATS accounts).
</P>
<P>(4) Deposits or accounts on which the depository institution has reserved the right to require at least seven days' written notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account and under the terms of which, or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor is permitted or authorized to make withdrawals for the purposes of transferring funds to another account of the depositor at the same institution (including transaction account) or for making payment to a third party, regardless of the number of such transfers and withdrawals and regardless of the manner in which such transfers and withdrawals are made.
</P>
<P>(5) Deposits or accounts maintained in connection with an arrangement that permits the depositor to obtain credit directly or indirectly through the drawing of a negotiable or nonnegotiable check, draft, order or instruction or other similar device (including telephone or electronic order or instruction) on the issuing institution that can be used for the purpose of making payments or transfers to third persons or others or to a deposit account of the depositor.
</P>
<P>(6) All deposits other than time deposits, including those accounts that are time deposits in form but that the Board has determined, by rule or order, to be transaction accounts.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Nonpersonal time deposit</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A time deposit, including an MMDA or any other savings deposit, representing funds in which any beneficial interest is held by a depositor which is not a natural person;
</P>
<P>(ii) A time deposit, including an MMDA or any other savings deposit, that represents funds deposited to the credit of a depositor that is not a natural person, other than a deposit to the credit of a trustee or other fiduciary if the entire beneficial interest in the deposit is held by one or more natural persons;
</P>
<P>(iii) A transferable time deposit. A time deposit is transferable unless it contains a specific statement on the certificate, instrument, passbook, statement or other form representing the account that it is not transferable. A time deposit that contains a specific statement that it is not transferable is not regarded as transferable even if the following transactions can be effected: a pledge as collateral for a loan, a transaction that occurs due to circumstances arising from death, incompetency, marriage, divorce, attachment, or otherwise by operation of law or a transfer on the books or records of the institution; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A time deposit represented by a promissory note, an acknowledgment of advance, or similar obligation described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section that is issued to, or any bankers' acceptance (other than the type described in 12 U.S.C. 372) of the depository institution held by:
</P>
<P>(A) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution or Edge or agreement corporation organized under the laws of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(C) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof, 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> engaged principally in activities which are ordinarily performed in the United States by governmental entities; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Other than states, provinces, municipalities, or other regional or local governmental units or agencies or instrumentalities thereof.</P></FTNT>
<P>(D) An international entity of which the United States is a member; or
</P>
<P>(E) Any other foreign, international, or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The designated entities are specified in 12 CFR 204.125.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpersonal time deposit</I> does not include nontransferable time deposits to the credit of or in which the entire beneficial interest is held by an individual pursuant to an individual retirement account or Keogh (H.R. 10) plan under 26 U.S.C. 408, 401, or non-transferable time deposits held by an employer as part of an unfunded deferred-compensation plan established pursuant to subtitle D of the Revenue Act of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-600, 92 Stat. 2763), or a <I>401(k) plan</I> under 26 U.S.C. 401(k).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Natural person</I> means an individual or a sole proprietorship. The term does not mean a corporation owned by an individual, a partnership or other association. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Eurocurrency liabilities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a depository institution or an Edge or Agreement Corporation organized under the laws of the United States, the sum, if positive, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Net balances due to its non-United States offices and its international banking facilities (<I>IBFs</I>) from its United States offices;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For a depository institution organized under the laws of the United States, assets (including participations) acquired from its United States offices and held by its non-United States offices, by its IBF, or by non-United States offices of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation; 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> This paragraph does not apply to assets that were acquired by an IBF from its establishing entity before the end of the second reserve computation period after its establishment.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) For an Edge or Agreement Corporation, assets (including participations) acquired from its United States offices and held by its non-United States offices, by its IBF, by non-United States offices of its U.S. or foreign parent institution, or by non-United States offices of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit outstanding from its non-United States offices to United States residents (other than assets acquired and net balances due from its United States offices), except credit extended (A) from its non-United States offices in the aggregate amount of $100,000 or less to any United States resident, (B) by a non-United States office that at no time during the computation period had credit outstanding to United States residents exceeding $1 million, (C) to an international banking facility, or (D) to an institution that will be maintaining reserves on such credit pursuant to this part. Credit extended from non-United States offices or from IBFs to a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate of other foreign establishment (<I>foreign affiliate</I>) controlled by one or more domestic corporations is not regarded as credit extended to a United States resident if the proceeds will be used to finance the operations outside the United States of the borrower or of other foreign affiliates of the controlling domestic corporation(s).
</P>
<P>(2) For a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank, the sum, if positive, of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Net balances due to its foreign bank (including offices thereof located outside the United States) and its international banking facility after deducting an amount equal to 8 per cent of the following: the United States branch's or agency's total assets less the sum of (A) cash items in process of collection; (B) unposted debits; (C) demand balances due from depository institutions organized under the laws of the United States and from other foreign banks; (D) balances due from foreign central banks; and (E) positive net balances due from its IBF, its foreign bank, and the foreign bank's United States and non-United States offices; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets (including participations) acquired from the United States branch or agency (other than assets required to be sold by Federal or State supervisory authorities) and held by its foreign bank (including offices thereof located outside the United States), by its parent holding company, by non-United States offices or an IBF of an affiliated Edge or Agreement Corporation, or by its IBFs. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> See footnote 7.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Cash item in process of collection</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Checks in the process of collection, drawn on a bank or other depository institution that are payable immediately upon presentation in the United States, including checks forwarded to a Federal Reserve Bank in process of collection and checks on hand that will be presented for payment or forwarded for collection on the following business day; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Government checks drawn on the Treasury of the United States that are in the process of collection; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other items in the process of collection, that are payable immediately upon presentation in the United States and that are customarily cleared or collected by depository institutions as cash items, including: 
</P>
<P>(A) Drafts payable through another depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(B) Matured bonds and coupons (including bonds and coupons that have been called and are payable on presentation);
</P>
<P>(C) Food coupons and certificates; 
</P>
<P>(D) Postal and other money orders, and traveler's checks; 
</P>
<P>(E) Amounts credited to deposit accounts in connection with automated payment arrangements where such credits are made one business day prior to the scheduled payment date to insure that funds are available on the payment date; 
</P>
<P>(F) Commodity or bill of lading drafts payable immediately upon presentation in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(G) Returned items and unposted debits; and 
</P>
<P>(H) Broker security drafts. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cash item in process of collection</I> does not include items handled as noncash collections and credit card sales slips and drafts. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Net transaction accounts</I> means the total amount of a depository institution's transaction accounts less the deductions allowed under the provisions of § 204.3. 
</P>
<P>(k)(1) <I>Vault cash</I> means United States currency and coin owned and booked as an asset by a depository institution that may, at any time, be used to satisfy claims of that depository institution's depositors and that meets the requirements of paragraph (k)(2)(i) or (k)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vault cash</I> must be either:
</P>
<P>(i) Held at a physical location of the depository institution (including the depository institution's proprietary ATMs) from which the institution's depositors may make cash withdrawals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Held at an alternate physical location if—
</P>
<P>(A) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at all times retains full rights of ownership in and to the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location;
</P>
<P>(B) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at all times books the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location as an asset of the depository institution;
</P>
<P>(C) No other depository institution claims the currency and coin held at the alternate physical location as vault cash in satisfaction of that other depository institution's reserve requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) The currency and coin held at the alternate physical location is reasonably nearby a location of the depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash at which its depositors may make cash withdrawals (an alternate physical location is considered “reasonably nearby” if the depository institution that claims the currency and coin as vault cash can recall the currency and coin from the alternate physical location by 10 a.m. and, relying solely on ground transportation, receive the currency and coin not later than 4 p.m. on the same calendar day at a location of the depository institution at which its depositors may make cash withdrawals); and
</P>
<P>(E) The depository institution claiming the currency and coin as vault cash has in place a written cash delivery plan and written contractual arrangements necessary to implement that plan that demonstrate that the currency and coin can be recalled and received in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (k)(2)(ii)(D) of this section at any time. The depository institution shall provide copies of the written cash delivery plan and written contractual arrangements to the Federal Reserve Bank that holds its account or to the Board upon request.
</P>
<P>(3) “Vault cash” includes United States currency and coin in transit to a Federal Reserve Bank or a correspondent depository institution for which the reporting depository institution has not yet received credit, and United States currency and coin in transit from a Federal Reserve Bank or a correspondent depository institution when the reporting depository institution's account at the Federal Reserve or correspondent bank has been charged for such shipment.
</P>
<P>(4) Silver and gold coin and other currency and coin whose numismatic or bullion value is substantially in excess of face value is not vault cash for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Pass-through account</I> means a balance maintained by a depository institution with a correspondent institution under § 204.5(d).
</P>
<P>(m)(1) <I>Depository institution</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any insured bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) or any bank that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any savings bank or mutual savings bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(f), (g)); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)) or any credit union that is eligible to apply to become an insured credit union under section 201 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1781); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any member as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(4)); and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any insured institution as defined in section 401 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1724(a)) or any institution which is eligible to apply to become an insured institution under section 403 of such Act (12 U.S.C. 1726). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Depository institution</I> does not include international organizations such as the World Bank, the Inter-American Development Bank, and the Asian Development Bank. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Member bank</I> means a depository institution that is a member of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign bank</I> means any bank or other similar institution organized under the laws of any country other than the United States or organized under the laws of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, or other territory or possession of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(p) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Affiliate</I> includes any corporation, association, or other organization: 
</P>
<P>(1) Of which a depository institution, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 percent of the numbers of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Of which control is held, directly or indirectly, through stock ownership or in any other manner, by the shareholders of a depository institution who own or control either a majority of the shares of such depository institution or more than 50 percent of the number of shares voted for the election of directors of such depository institution at the preceding election, or by trustees for the benefit of the shareholders of any such depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(3) Of which a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions are directors of any one depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Which owns or controls, directly or indirectly, either a majority of the shares of capital stock of a depository institution or more than 50 percent of the number of shares voted for the election of directors, trustees or other persons exercising similar functions of a depository institution at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of a depository institution, or for the benefit of whose shareholders or members all or substantially all the capital stock of a depository institution is held by trustees. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>United States</I> means the States of the United States and the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>United States resident</I> means (1) any individual residing (at the time of the transaction) in the United States; (2) any corporation, partnership, association or other entity organized in the United States (<I>domestic corporation</I>); and (3) any branch or office located in the United States of any entity that is not organized in the United States.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States</I> means (1) a deposit of a United States resident 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> that is in a denomination of $100,000 or more, and as to which the depositor is entitled, under the agreement with the institution, to demand payment only outside the United States or (2) a deposit of a person who is not a United States resident 
<SU>9</SU> as to which the depositor is entitled, under the agreement with the institution, to demand payment only outside the United States.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> A deposit of a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate or other foreign establishment (<I>foreign affiliate</I>) controlled by one or more domestic corporations is not regarded as a deposit of a United States resident if the funds serve a purpose in connection with its foreign or international business or that of other foreign affiliates of the controlling domestic corporation(s).</P></FTNT>
<P>(u) <I>Teller's check</I> means a check drawn by a depository institution on another depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank, or a Federal Home Loan Bank, or payable at or through a depository institution, a Federal Reserve Bank, or a Federal Home Loan Bank, and which the drawing depository institution engages or is obliged to pay upon dishonor.
</P>
<P>(v)-(x) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Eligible institution</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any depository institution as described in § 204.1(c) of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Any trust company;
</P>
<P>(3) Any corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) or having an agreement with the Board under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(4) Any branch or agency of a foreign bank (as defined in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978, 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)).
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Excess balance</I> means the average balance maintained in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period that exceeds the top of the penalty-free band.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Excess balance account</I> means an account at a Reserve Bank pursuant to § 204.10(d) of this chapter that is established by one or more eligible institutions through an agent and in which only balances of the participating eligible institutions may at any time be maintained. An excess balance account is not a “pass-through account” for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Balance maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement</I> means the average balance held in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Targeted federal funds rate</I> means the federal funds rate established from time to time by the Federal Open Market Committee.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Term deposit</I> means those funds of an eligible institution that are maintained by that institution for a specified maturity at a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to section 204.10(e) of this part.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Reserve balance requirement</I> means the balance that a depository institution is required to maintain on average over a reserve maintenance period in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank if vault cash does not fully satisfy the depository institution's reserve requirement imposed by this part.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Deficiency</I> means the bottom of the penalty-free band less the average balance maintained in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank by or on behalf of an institution over a reserve maintenance period.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Top of the penalty-free band</I> means an amount equal to an institution's reserve balance requirement plus an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of the institution's reserve balance requirement or $50,000. The top of the penalty-free band for a pass-through correspondent is an amount equal to the aggregate reserve balance requirement of the correspondent (if any) and all of its respondents plus an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of that aggregate reserve balance requirement or $50,000.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Bottom of the penalty-free band</I> means an amount equal to an institution's reserve balance requirement less an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of the institution's reserve balance requirement or $50,000. The bottom of the penalty-free band for a pass-through correspondent is an amount equal to the aggregate reserve balance requirement of the correspondent (if any) and all of its respondents less an amount that is the greater of 10 percent of that aggregate reserve balance requirement or $50,000. In no case will the penalty-free band be less than zero.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 45 FR 56018, Aug. 22, 1980] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 204.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.3   Reporting and location.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every depository institution, U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, and Edge or Agreement corporation shall file a report of deposits (or any other form or statement that may be required by the Board or by a Federal Reserve Bank) with the Federal Reserve Bank in the Federal Reserve District in which it is located, regardless of the manner in which it chooses to maintain required reserve balances.
</P>
<P>(b) A foreign bank's U.S. branches and agencies and an Edge or Agreement corporation's offices operating within the same State and the same Federal Reserve District shall prepare and file a report of deposits on an aggregated basis.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this part, the obligations of a majority-owned (50 percent or more) U.S. subsidiary (except an Edge or Agreement corporation) of a depository institution shall be regarded as obligations of the parent depository institution.
</P>
<P>(d) A depository institution, a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation shall, if possible, assign the low reserve tranche and reserve requirement exemption prescribed in § 204.4(f) to only one office or to a group of offices filing a single aggregated report of deposits. The amount of the reserve requirement exemption allocated to an office or group of offices may not exceed the amount of the low reserve tranche allocated to such office or offices. If the low reserve tranche or reserve requirement exemption cannot be fully utilized by a single office or by a group of offices filing a single report of deposits, the unused portion of the tranche or exemption may be assigned to other offices or groups of offices of the same institution until the amount of the tranche (or net transaction accounts) or exemption (or reservable liabilities) is exhausted. The tranche or exemption may be reallocated each year concurrent with implementation of the indexed tranche and exemption, or, if necessary during the course of the year to avoid underutilization of the tranche or exemption, at the beginning of a reserve computation period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Computation of transaction accounts.</I> Overdrafts in demand deposit or other transaction accounts are not to be treated as negative demand deposits or negative transaction accounts and shall not be netted since overdrafts are properly reflected on an institution's books as assets. However, where a customer maintains multiple transaction accounts with a depository institution, overdrafts in one account pursuant to a <I>bona fide</I> cash management arrangement are permitted to be netted against balances in other related transaction accounts for reserve requirement purposes.
</P>
<P>(f) The Board and the Federal Reserve Banks will not hold a pass-through correspondent responsible for guaranteeing the accuracy of the reports of deposits submitted by its respondents.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) For purposes of this section, a depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation is located in the Federal Reserve District that contains the location specified in the institution's charter, organizing certificate, license, or articles of incorporation, or as specified by the institution's primary regulator, or if no such location is specified, the location of its head office, unless otherwise determined by the Board under paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the location specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in the Board's judgment, is ambiguous, would impede the ability of the Board or the Federal Reserve Banks to perform their functions under the Federal Reserve Act, or would impede the ability of the institution to operate efficiently, the Board will determine the Federal Reserve District in which the institution is located, after consultation with the institution and the relevant Federal Reserve Banks. The relevant Federal Reserve Banks are the Federal Reserve Bank whose District contains the location specified in paragraph (g)(1) of this section and the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the institution is proposed to be located. In making this determination, the Board will consider any applicable laws, the business needs of the institution, the location of the institution's head office, the locations where the institution performs its business, and the locations that would allow the institution, the Board, and the Federal Reserve Banks to perform their functions efficiently and effectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 56018, Aug. 22, 1980] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 204.3, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.4   Computation of required reserves.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining the reserve requirement under this part, the amount of cash items in process of collection and balances subject to immediate withdrawal due from other depository institutions located in the United States (including such amounts due from United States branches and agencies of foreign banks and Edge and Agreement corporations) may be deducted from the amount of gross transaction accounts. The amount that may be deducted may not exceed the amount of gross transaction accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) United States branches and agencies of a foreign bank may not deduct balances due from another United States branch or agency of the same foreign bank, and United States offices of an Edge or Agreement Corporation may not deduct balances due from another United States office of the same Edge or Agreement Corporation.
</P>
<P>(c) Balances “due from other depository institutions” do not include balances due from Federal Reserve Banks, pass-through accounts, or balances (payable in dollars or otherwise) due from banking offices located outside the United States. An institution exercising fiduciary powers may not include in balances “due from other depository institutions” amounts of trust funds deposited with other banks and due to it as a trustee or other fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(d) For institutions that file a report of deposits weekly, reserve requirements are computed on the basis of the institution's daily average balances of deposits and Eurocurrency liabilities during a 14-day computation period ending every second Monday.
</P>
<P>(e) For institutions that file a report of deposits quarterly, reserve requirements are computed on the basis of the institution's daily average balances of deposits and Eurocurrency liabilities during the 7-day computation period that begins on the third Tuesday of March, June, September, and December.


</P>
<P>(f) For all depository institutions, Edge and Agreement corporations, and United States branches and agencies of foreign banks, required reserves are computed by applying the reserve requirement ratios in table 1 to this paragraph (f) to net transaction accounts, nonpersonal time deposits, and Eurocurrency liabilities of the institution during the computation period.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">f</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reservable liability
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Reserve requirement
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Transaction Accounts:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">$0 to reserve requirement exemption amount ($39.2 million)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent of amount.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Over reserve requirement exemption amount ($39.2 million) and up to low reserve tranche ($674.1 million)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent of amount.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Over low reserve tranche ($674.1 million)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0 plus 0 percent of amount over $674.1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonpersonal time deposits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eurocurrency liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 74 FR 25637, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 204.4, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.5   Maintenance of required reserves.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, and an Edge or Agreement corporation shall satisfy reserve requirements by maintaining vault cash and, if vault cash does not fully satisfy the institution's reserve requirement, in the form of a balance maintained
</P>
<P>(i) In the institution's account at the Federal Reserve Bank in the Federal Reserve District in which the institution is located, or
</P>
<P>(ii) With a pass-through correspondent in accordance with § 204.5(d).
</P>
<P>(2) Each individual institution subject to this part is responsible for satisfying its reserve balance requirement, if any, either directly with a Federal Reserve Bank or through a pass-through correspondent.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) For institutions that file a report of deposits weekly, the balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements shall be maintained during a 14-day maintenance period that begins on the third Thursday following the end of a given computation period.
</P>
<P>(2) For institutions that file a report of deposits quarterly, the balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements shall be maintained during an interval of either six or seven consecutive 14-day maintenance periods, depending on when the interval begins and ends. The interval will begin on the fourth Thursday following the end of each quarterly reporting period if that Thursday is the first day of a 14-day maintenance period. If the fourth Thursday following the end of a quarterly reporting period is not the first day of a 14-day maintenance period, then the interval will begin on the fifth Thursday following the end of the quarterly reporting period. The interval will end on the fourth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period if that Wednesday is the last day of a 14-day maintenance period. If the fourth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period is not the last day of a 14-day maintenance period, then the interval will conclude on the fifth Wednesday following the end of the subsequent quarterly reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) Cash items forwarded to a Federal Reserve Bank for collection and credit are not included in an institution's balance maintained to satisfy its reserve balance requirement until the expiration of the time specified in the appropriate time schedule established under Regulation J, “Collection of Checks and Other Items by Federal Reserve Banks and Funds Transfers Through Fedwire” (12 CFR part 210). If a depository institution draws against items before that time, the charge will be made to its account if the balance is sufficient to pay it; any resulting deficiency in balances maintained to satisfy the institution's reserve balance requirement will be subject to the penalties provided by law and to the deficiency charges provided by this part. However, the Federal Reserve Bank may, at its discretion, refuse to permit the withdrawal or other use of credit given in an account for any time for which the Federal Reserve Bank has not received payment in actually and finally collected funds.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A depository institution, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement corporation with a reserve balance requirement (“respondent”) may select only one pass-through correspondent under this section, unless otherwise permitted by the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the respondent is located. Eligible pass-through correspondents are Federal Home Loan Banks, the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility, and depository institutions, U.S. branches or agencies of foreign banks, and Edge and Agreement corporations that maintain balances to satisfy their own reserve balance requirements which may be zero, in an account at a Federal Reserve Bank. In addition, the Board reserves the right to permit other institutions, on a case-by-case basis, to serve as pass-through correspondents.
</P>
<P>(2) Respondents or correspondents may institute, terminate, or change pass-through correspondent agreements by providing all documentation required for the establishment of the new agreement or termination of or change to the existing agreement to the Federal Reserve Banks involved within the time period specified by those Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P>(3) Balances maintained to satisfy reserve balance requirements of a correspondent's respondents shall be maintained along with the balances maintained to satisfy a correspondent's reserve balance requirement (if any), in a single commingled account of the correspondent at the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the correspondent is located. Balances maintained in the correspondent's account are the property of the correspondent and represent a liability of the Reserve Bank solely to the correspondent, regardless of whether the funds represent the balances maintained to satisfy the reserve balance requirement of a respondent.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A pass-through correspondent shall be responsible for maintaining balances to satisfy its own reserve balance requirement (if any) and the reserve balance requirements of all of its respondents. A charge for any deficiency in the correspondent's account will be imposed by the Reserve Bank on the correspondent maintaining the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each correspondent is required to maintain detailed records for each of its respondents that permit Reserve Banks to determine whether the respondent has provided a sufficient funds to the correspondent to satisfy the reserve balance requirement of the respondent. The correspondent shall maintain such records and make such reports as the Board or Reserve Bank may requires in order to ensure the correspondent's compliance with its responsibilities under this section and shall make them available to the Board or Reserve Bank as required.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal Reserve Bank may terminate any pass-through agreement under which the correspondent is deficient in its recordkeeping or other responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(iv) Interest paid on supplemental reserves (if such reserves are required under § 204.7) held by a respondent will be credited to the account maintained by the correspondent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 74 FR 25638, May 29, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 21853, Apr. 12, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.6   Charges for deficiencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal Reserve Banks are authorized to assess charges for deficiencies at a rate of 1 percentage point per year above the primary credit rate, as provided in § 201.51(a) of this chapter, in effect for borrowings from the Federal Reserve Bank on the first day of the calendar month in which the deficiencies occurred. Charges shall be assessed on the basis of daily average deficiencies during each maintenance period.
</P>
<P>(b) Reserve Banks may waive the charges for deficiencies based on an evaluation of the circumstances in each individual case.
</P>
<P>(c) In individual cases, where a Federal supervisory authority waives a liquidity requirement, or waives the penalty for failing to satisfy a liquidity requirement, the Reserve Bank in the District where the involved depository institution is located shall waive the reserve requirement imposed under this part for such depository institution when requested by the Federal supervisory authority involved.
</P>
<P>(d) Violations of this part may be subject to assessment of civil money penalties by the Board under authority of Section 19(1) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 505) as implemented in 12 CFR part 263. In addition, the Board and any other Federal financial institution supervisory authority may enforce this part with respect to depository institutions subject to their jurisdiction under authority conferred by law to undertake cease and desist proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 74 FR 25639, May 29, 2009, as amended at 77 FR 21854, Apr. 12, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.7   Supplemental reserve requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding by Board.</I> Upon the affirmative vote of at least five members of the Board and after consultation with the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, and the National Credit Union Administration Board, the Board may impose a supplemental reserve requirement on every depository institution of not more than 4 percent of its total transaction accounts. A supplemental reserve requirement may be imposed if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sole purpose of the requirement is to increase the amount of reserves maintained to a level essential for the conduct of monetary policy; 
</P>
<P>(2) The requirement is not imposed for the purpose of reducing the cost burdens resulting from the imposition of basic reserve requirements; 
</P>
<P>(3) Such requirement is not imposed for the purpose of increasing the amount of balances needed for clearing purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(4) On the date on which supplemental reserve requirements are imposed, the total amount of basic reserve requirements is not less than the amount of reserves that would be required on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits under the initial reserve ratios established by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (Pub. L. 96-221) in effect on September 1, 1980. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Term.</I> (1) If a supplemental reserve requirement has been imposed for a period of one year or more, the Board shall review and determine the need for continued maintenance of supplemental reserves and shall transmit annual reports to the Congress regarding the need for continuing such requirement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any supplemental reserve requirement shall terminate at the close of the first 90-day period after the requirement is imposed during which the average amount of supplemental reserves required are less than the amount of reserves which would be required if the ratios in effect on September 1, 1980, were applied. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Earnings Participation Account.</I> A depository institutions's supplemental reserve requirement shall be maintained by the Federal Reserve Banks in an Earnings Participation Account. Such balances shall receive earnings to be paid by the Federal Reserve Banks during each calendar quarter at a rate not to exceed the rate earned on the securities portfolio of the Federal Reserve System during the previous calendar quarter. Additional rules and regulations maybe prescribed by the Board concerning the payment of earnings on Earnings Participation Accounts by Federal Reserve Banks. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report to Congress.</I> The Board shall transmit promptly to the Congress a report stating the basis for exercising its authority to require a supplemental reserve under this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reserve requirements.</I> At present, there are no supplemental reserve requirements imposed under this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 56018, Aug. 22, 1980, as amended at 45 FR 81537, Dec. 11, 1980. Redesignated at 74 FR 25639, May 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.8   International banking facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>International banking facility</I> or <I>IBF</I> means a set of asset and liability accounts segregated on the books and records of a depository institution, United States branch or agency of a foreign bank, or an Edge or Agreement Corporation that includes only international banking facility time deposits and international banking facility extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>International banking facility time deposit</I> or <I>IBF time deposit</I> means a deposit, placement, borrowing or similar obligation represented by a promissory note, acknowledgment of advance, or similar instrument that is not issued in negotiable or bearer form, and
</P>
<P>(i)(A) That must remain on deposit at the IBF at least overnight; and
</P>
<P>(B) That is issued to
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution organized under the laws of the United States or of an Edge or Agreement Corporation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A United States office or a non-United States office of the entity establishing the IBF;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Another IBF; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof, 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> engaged principally in activities which are ordinarily performed in the United States by governmental entities; an international entity of which the United States is a member; or any other foreign international or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board;
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> or 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Other than states, provinces, municipalities, or other regional or local governmental units or agencies or instrumentalities thereof.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> The designated entities are specified in 12 CFR 204.125.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) (A) That is payable
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) On a specified date not less than two business days after the date of deposit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Upon expiration of a specified period of time not less than two business days after the date of deposit; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Upon written notice that actually is required to be given by the depositor not less than two business days prior to the date of withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(B) That represents funds deposited to the credit of a non-United States resident or a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate, or other foreign establishment (<I>foreign affiliate</I>) controlled by one or more domestic corporations provided that such funds are used only to support the operations outside the United States of the depositor or of its affiliates located outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(C) That is maintained under an agreement or arrangement under which no deposit or withdrawal of less than $100,000 is permitted, except that a withdrawal of less than $100,000 is permitted if such withdrawal closes an account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>International banking facility extension of credit</I> or <I>IBF loan</I> means any transaction where an IBF supplies funds by making a loan, or placing funds in a deposit account. Such transactions may be represented by a promissory note, security, acknowledgment of advance, due bill, repurchase agreement, or any other form of credit transaction. Such credit may be extended only to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any office located outside the United States of another depository institution organized under the laws of the United States or of an Edge or Agreement Corporation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any office located outside the United States of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) A United States or a non-United States office of the institution establishing the IBF;
</P>
<P>(iv) Another IBF;
</P>
<P>(v) A foreign national government, or an agency or instrumentality thereof, 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> engaged principally in activities which are ordinarily performed in the United States by governmental entities; an international entity of which the United States is a member; or any other foreign international or supranational entity specifically designated by the Board; 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See footnote 10.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See footnote 11.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) A non-United States resident or a foreign branch, office, subsidiary, affiliate or other foreign establishment (<I>foreign affiliate</I>) controlled by one or more domestic corporations provided that the funds are used only to finance the operations outside the United States of the borrower or of its affiliates located outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgment of use of IBF deposits and extensions of credit.</I> An IBF shall provide written notice to each of its customers (other than those specified in § 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B) and § 204.8(a)(3) (i) through (v)) at the time a deposit relationship or a credit relationship is first established that it is the policy of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System that deposits received by international banking facilities may be used only to support the depositor's operations outside the United States as specified in § 204.8(a)(2)(ii)(B) and that extensions of credit by IBFs may be used only to finance operations outside of the United States as specified in § 204.8(a)(3)(vi). In the case of loans to or deposits from foreign affiliates of U.S. residents, receipt of such notice must be acknowledged in writing whenever a deposit or credit relationship is first established with the IBF.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption from reserve requirements.</I> An institution that is subject to the reserve requirements of this part is not required to maintain reserves against its IBF time deposits or IBF loans. Deposit-taking activities of IBFs are limited to accepting only IBF time deposits and lending activities of IBFs are restricted to making only IBF loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishment of an international banking facility.</I> A depository institution, an Edge or Agreement Corporation or a United States branch or agency of a foreign bank may establish an IBF in any location where it is legally authorized to engage in IBF business. However, only one IBF may be established for each reporting entity that is required to submit a Report of Transaction Accounts, Other Deposits and Vault Cash (Form FR 2900).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification to Federal Reserve.</I> At least fourteen days prior to the first reserve computation period that an institution intends to establish an IBF it shall notify the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which it is located of its intent. Such notification shall include a statement of intention by the institution that it will comply with the rules of this part concerning IBFs, including restrictions on sources and uses of funds, and recordkeeping and accounting requirements. Failure to comply with the requirements of this part shall subject the institution to reserve requirements under this part or result in the revocation of the institution's ability to operate an IBF.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recordkeeping requirements.</I> A depository institution shall segregate on its books and records the asset and liability accounts of its IBF and submit reports concerning the operations of its IBF as required by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 32429, June 23, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 9636, Mar. 20, 1986; 56 FR 15495, Apr. 17, 1991; 61 FR 69025, Dec. 31, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.9   Emergency reserve requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Finding by Board.</I> The Board may impose, after consulting with the appropriate committees of Congress, additional reserve requirements on depository institutions at any ratio on any liability upon a finding by at least five members of the Board that extraordinary circumstances require such action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Term.</I> Any action taken under this section shall be valid for a period not exceeding 180 days, and may be extended for further periods of up to 180 days each by affirmative action of at least five members of the Board for each extension. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports to Congress.</I> The Board shall transmit promptly to Congress a report of any exercise of its authority under this paragraph and the reasons for the exercise of authority. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reserve requirements.</I> At present, there are no emergency reserve requirements imposed under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 56018, Aug. 22, 1980. Redesignated at 74 FR 25638, May 29, 2009] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.10   Payment of interest on balances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, interest on balances maintained at Federal Reserve Banks by or on behalf of an eligible institution shall be established by the Board in accordance with this section, at a rate or rates not to exceed the general level of short-term interest rates.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the amount of a “balance” in an account maintained by or on behalf of an eligible institution at a Federal Reserve Bank is determined at the close of the Federal Reserve Bank's business day.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, “short-term interest rates” are rates on obligations with maturities of no more than one year, such as the primary credit rate and rates on term federal funds, term repurchase agreements, commercial paper, term Eurodollar deposits, and other similar instruments.
</P>
<P>(4) The payment of interest on balances under this section shall be subject to such other terms and conditions as the Board may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of interest.</I> Interest on balances maintained at Federal Reserve Banks by or on behalf of an eligible institution is established as set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) For balances maintained in an eligible institution's master account, interest is the amount equal to the interest on reserve balances rate (“IORB rate”) on a day multiplied by the total balances maintained on that day. The IORB rate is 3.65 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) For term deposits, interest is:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount equal to the principal amount of the term deposit multiplied by a rate specified in advance by the Board, in light of existing short-term market rates, to maintain the federal funds rate at a level consistent with monetary policy objectives; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount equal to the principal amount of the term deposit multiplied by a rate determined by the auction through which such term deposits are offered.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of § 204.10(b), a “master account” is the record maintained by a Federal Reserve Bank of the debtor-creditor relationship between the Federal Reserve Bank and a single eligible institution with respect to deposit balances of the eligible institution that are maintained with the Federal Reserve Bank. A “master account” is not a “term deposit,” an “excess balance account,” a “joint account,” or any deposit account maintained with a Federal Reserve Bank governed by an agreement that states the account is not a master account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pass-through balances.</I> A pass-through correspondent that is an eligible institution may pass back to its respondent interest paid on balances maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of that respondent. In the case of balances maintained by a pass-through correspondent that is not an eligible institution, a Reserve Bank may pay interest only on the balances maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement of one or more respondents up to the top of the penalty-free band, and the correspondent shall pass back to its respondents interest paid on balances in the correspondent's account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Excess balance accounts.</I> (1) A Reserve Bank may establish an excess balance account for eligible institutions under the provisions of this paragraph (d). Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part, the balances maintained by eligible institutions in an excess balance account represent a liability of the Reserve Bank solely to those participating eligible institutions.
</P>
<P>(2) The participating eligible institutions in an excess balance account shall authorize another institution to act as agent of the participating institutions for purposes of general account management, including but not limited to transferring the balances of participating institutions in and out of the excess balance account. An excess balance account must be established at the Reserve Bank where the agent maintains its master account, unless otherwise determined by the Board. The agent may not commingle its own funds in the excess balance account.
</P>
<P>(3) Balances maintained in an excess balance account may not be used for general payments or other activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Interest on balances of eligible institutions maintained in an excess balance account is the amount equal to the IORB rate in effect on a day multiplied by the total balances maintained on that day.
</P>
<P>(5) A Reserve Bank may establish additional terms and conditions consistent with this part with respect to the operation of an excess balance account, including, but not limited to, terms of and fees for services, conditions under which an institution may act as agent for an account, restrictions on the agent with respect to account management, penalties for noncompliance with this section or any terms and conditions, and account termination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Term deposits.</I> (1) A Federal Reserve Bank may accept term deposits from eligible institutions under the provisions of this paragraph (e) subject to such terms and conditions as the Board may establish from time to time, including but not limited to conditions regarding the maturity of the term deposits being offered, maximum and minimum amounts that may be maintained by an eligible institution in a term deposit, the interest rate or rates offered, early withdrawal of term deposits, pledging term deposits as collateral and, if term deposits are offered through an auction mechanism, the size of the offering, maximum and minimum bid amounts, and other relevant terms.
</P>
<P>(2) A term deposit will not satisfy any institution's reserve balance requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) A term deposit may not be used for general payments or settlement activities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedure for determination of rates.</I> The Board anticipates that notice and public participation with respect to changes in the rate or rates of interest to be paid under this section will generally be impracticable, unnecessary, contrary to the public interest, or otherwise not required in the public interest, and that there will generally be reason and good cause in the public interest why the effective date should not be deferred for 30 days. The reason or reasons in such cases are generally expected to include that such notice, public participation, or deferment of effective date would prevent the action from becoming effective as promptly as necessary in the public interest, would permit speculators or others to reap unfair profits or to interfere with the Board's actions taken with a view to accommodating commerce and business and with regard to their bearing upon the general credit situation of the country, would provoke other consequences contrary to the public interest, would not aid the persons affected, or would otherwise serve no useful purpose.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 74 FR 25629, May 29, 2009]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 204.10, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.121" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.121   Bankers' banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221), imposes Federal reserve requirements on depository institutions that maintain transaction accounts or nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(9), however, a depository institution is not required to maintain reserves if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Is organized solely to do business with other financial institutions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is owned primarily by the financial institutions with which it does business; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not do business with the general public.
</P>
<FP>Depository institutions that satisfy all of these requirements are regarded as <I>bankers' banks.</I>
</FP>
<P>(2) In its application of these requirements to specific institutions, the Board will use the following standards:
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution may be regarded as organized solely to do business with other depository institutions even if, as an incidental part to its activities, it does business to a limited extent with entities other than depository institutions. The extent to which the institution may do business with other entities and continue to be regarded as a bankers' bank is specified in paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution will be regarded as being owned primarily by the institutions with which it does business if 75 per cent or more of its capital is owned by other depository institutions. The 75 per cent or more ownership rule applies regardless of the type of depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A depository institution will not be regarded as doing business with the general public if it meets two conditions. First, the range of customers with which the institution does business must be limited to depository institutions, including subsidiaries or organizations owned by depository institutions; directors, officers or employees of the same or other depository institutions; individuals whose accounts are acquired at the request of the institution's supervisory authority due to the actual or impending failure of another depository institution; share insurance funds; depository institution trade associations; and such others as the Board may determine on a case-by-case basis consistent with the purposes of the Act and the bankers' bank exemption. Second, the extent to which the depository institution makes loans to, or investments in, the above entities (other than depository institutions) cannot exceed 10 per cent of total assets, and the extent to which it receives deposits (or shares if the institution does not receive deposits) from or issues other liabilities to the above entities (other than depository institutions) cannot exceed 10 per cent of total liabilities (or net worth if the institution does not receive deposits).
</P>
<FP>If a depository institution is unable to meet all of these requirements on a continuing basis, it will not be regarded as a bankers' bank and will be required to satisfy Federal reserve requirements on all of its transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits.
</FP>
<P>(b) (1) Section 19(c)(1) of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221) provides that Federal reserve requirements may be satisfied by the maintenance of vault cash or balances in a Federal Reserve Bank. Depository institutions that are not members of the Federal Reserve System may also satisfy reserve requirements by maintaining a balance in another depository institution that maintains required reserve balances at a Federal Reserve Bank, in a Federal Home Loan Bank, or in the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility if the balances maintained by such institutions are subsequently passed through to the Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) On August 27, 1980, the Board announced the procedures that will apply to such pass-through arrangements (45 FR 58099). Section 204.3(i)(1) provides that the Board may permit, on a case-by-case basis, depository institutions that are not themselves required to maintain reserves (<I>bankers' banks</I>) to act as pass-through correspondents if certain criteria are satisfied. The Board has determined that a bankers' bank may act as a pass-through correspondent if it enters into an agreement with the Federal Reserve to accept responsibility for the maintenance of pass-through reserve accounts in accordance with Regulation D (12 CFR 204.3(i)) and if the Federal Reserve is satisfied that the quality of management and financial resources of the institution are adequate in order to enable the institution to serve as a pass-through correspondent in accordance with Regulation D. Satisfaction of these criteria will assure that pass-through arrangements are maintained properly without additional financial risk to the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<P>(3) In order to determine uniformly the adequacy of managerial and financial resources, the Board will consult with the Federal supervisor for the type of institution under consideration. Because the Board does not possess direct experience with supervising depository institutions other than commercial banks, and does not intend to involve itself in the direct supervision of such institutions, it will request the National Credit Union Administration to review requests from credit unions that qualify as bankers' banks and the Federal Home Loan Bank Board to review requests from savings and loan associations that qualify as bankers' banks, regardless of charter or insurance status. (The Board, itself, will consider requests from all commercial banks that qualify as bankers' banks.) If the Federal supervisor does not find the institution's managerial or financial resources to be adequate, the Board will not permit the institution to act as a pass-through correspondent. In order to assure the continued adequacy of managerial and financial resources, it is anticipated that the appropriate Federal supervisor will, on a periodic basis, review and evaluate the managerial and financial resources of the institution in order to determine whether it should continue to be permitted to act as a pass-through correspondent. It is anticipated that, with respect to state chartered institutions, the Federal supervisor may discuss the request with the institute State supervisor. The Board believes that this procedure will promote uniformity of treatment for all types of bankers' banks, and provide consistent advice concerning managerial ability and financial strength from supervisory authorities that are in a better position to evaluate these criteria for depository institutions that are not commercial banks.
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for a determination as to whether a depository institution will be regarded as a bankers' bank for purposes of the Federal Reserve Act or for permission to act as a pass-through correspondent may be addressed to the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the main office of the depository institution is located or to the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The Board will act promptly on all requests received directly or through Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 69879, Oct. 22, 1980, as amended by Reg. D, 72 FR 16990, Apr. 6, 2007] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.122" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.122   Secondary market activities of international banking facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions have been raised concerning the extent to which international banking facilities may purchase (or sell) IBF-eligible assets such as loans (including loan participations), securities, CDs, and bankers' acceptances from (or to) third parties. Under the Board's regulations, as specified in § 204.8 of Regulation D, IBFs are limited, with respect to making loans and accepting deposits, to dealing only with certain customers, such as other IBFs and foreign offices of other organizations, and with the entity establishing the IBF. In addition, an IBF may extend credit to a nonbank customer only to finance the borrower's non-U.S. operations and may accept deposits from a nonbank customer that are used only to support the depositor's non-U.S. business.
</P>
<P>(b) Consistent with the Board's intent, IBFs may purchase IBF-eligible assets 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> from, or sell such assets to, any domestic or foreign customer provided that the transactions are at arm's length without recourse. However, an IBF of a U.S. depository institution may not purchase assets from, or sell such assets to, any U.S. affiliate of the institution establishing the IBF; an IBF of an Edge or Agreement corporation may not purchase assets from, or sell assets to, any U.S. affiliate of the Edge or Agreement corporation or to U.S. branches of the Edge or Agreement corporation or to U.S. branches of the Edge or Agreement corporation other than the branch 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> establishing the IBF; and an IBF of a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank may not purchase assets from, or sell assets to any U.S. affiliates of the foreign bank or to any other U.S. branch or agency of the same foreign bank. 
<SU>2</SU> (This would not prevent an IBF from purchasing (or selling) assets directly from (or to) any IBF, including an IBF of an affiliate, or to the institution establishing the IBF; such purchases from the institution establishing the IBF would continue to be subject to Eurocurrency reserve requirements except during the initial four-week transition period.) Since repurchase agreements are regarded as loans, transactions involving repurchase agreements are permitted only with customers who are otherwise eligible to deal with IBFs, as specified in Regulation D. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In order for an asset to be eligible to be held by an IBF, the obligor or issuer of the instrument, or in the case of bankers' acceptances, the customer and any endorser or acceptor, must be an IBF-eligible customer.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Branches of Edge or Agreement corporations and agencies and branches of foreign banks that file a consolidated report for reserve requirements purposes (FR 2900) are considered to be the establishing entity of an IBF.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) In the case of purchases of assets, in order to determine that the Board's use-of-proceeds requirement has been met, it is necessary for the IBF (1) to ascertain that the applicable IBF notices and acknowledgments have been provided, or (2) in the case of loans or securities, to review the documentation underlying the loan or security, or accompanying the security (e.g., the prospectus or offering statement), to determine that the proceeds are being used only to finance the obligor's operations outside the U.S., or (3) in the case of loans, to obtain a statement from either the seller or borrower that the proceeds are being used only to finance operations outside the U.S., or in the case of securities, to obtain such a statement from the obligor, or (4) in the case of bankers' acceptances, to review the underlying documentation to determine that the proceeds are being used only to finance the parties' operations outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Under the Board's regulations, IBFs are not permitted to issue negotiable Euro-CDs, bankers' acceptances, or similar instruments. Accordingly, consistent with the Board's intent in this area, IBFs may sell such instruments issued by third parties that qualify as IBF-eligible assets provided that the IBF, its establishing institution and any affiliate of the institution establishing the IBF do not endorse, accept, or otherwise guarantee the instrument.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 62812, Dec. 29, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 47694, Dec. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.123" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.123   Sale of Federal funds by investment companies or trusts in which the entire beneficial interest is held exclusively by depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (Title I of Pub. L. 96-221) imposes Federal Reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonnel time deposits held by depository institutions. The Board is empowered under the Act to determine what types of obligations shall be deemed a deposit. Regulation D—Reserve Requirements of Depository Institutions exempts from the definition of <I>deposit</I> those obligations of a depository institution that are issued or undertaken and held for the account of a domestic office of another depository institution (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A)(1)). These exemptions from the definition of <I>deposit</I> are known collectively as the <I>Federal funds</I> or <I>interbank</I> exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) Title IV of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980 authorizes Federal savings and loan associations to invest in open-ended management investment companies provided the funds' investment portfolios are limited to the types of investments that a Federal savings and loan association could hold without limit as to percentage of assets (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(1)(Q)). Such investments include mortgages, U.S. Government and agency securities, securities of states and political subdivisions, sales of Federal funds and deposits held at banks insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. The Federal Credit Union Act authorizes Federal credit unions to aggregate their funds in trusts provided the trust is limited to such investments that Federal credit unions could otherwise make. Such investments include loans to credit union members, obligations of the U.S. government or secured by the U.S. government, loans to other credit unions, shares or accounts held at savings and loan associations or mutual savings banks insured by FSLIC or FDIC, sales of Federal funds and shares of any central credit union whose investments are specifically authorized by the board of directors of the Federal credit union making the investment (12 U.S.C. 1757(7)).
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has considered whether an investment company or trust whose entire beneficial interest is held by depository institutions, as defined in Regulation D, would be eligible for the Federal funds exemption from Reserve requirements and interest rate limitations. The Board has determined that such investment companies or trusts are eligible to participate in the Federal funds market because, in effect, they act as mere conduits for the holders of their beneficial interest. To be regarded by the Board as acting as a conduit and, thus, be eligible for participation in the Federal funds market, an investment company or trust must meet each of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The entire beneficial interest in the investment company or trust must be held by depository institutions, as defined in Regulation D. These institutions presently may participate directly in the Federal funds market. If the entire beneficial interest in the investment company or trust is held only by depository institutions, the Board will regard the investment company or trust as a mere conduit for the holders of its beneficial interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The assets of the investment company or trust must be limited to investments that <I>all</I> of the holders of the beneficial interest could make directly without limit.
</P>
<P>(3) Holders of the beneficial interest in the investment company or trust must not be allowed to make third party payments from their accounts with the investment company or trust. The Board does not regard an investment company or trust that offers third party payment capabilities or other similar services which actively transform the nature of the funds passing between the holders of the beneficial interest and the Federal funds market as mere conduits.
</P>
<FP>The Board expects that the above conditions will be included in materials filed by an investment company or trust with the appropriate regulatory agencies.
</FP>
<P>(d) The Board believes that permitting sales of Federal funds by investment companies or trusts whose beneficial interests are held exclusively by depository institutions, that invest solely in assets that the holders of their beneficial interests can otherwise invest in without limit, and do not provide third party payment capabilities offer the potential for an increased yield for thrifts. This is consistent with Congressional intent to provide thrifts with convenient liquidity vehicles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 8987, Mar. 3, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 47695, Dec. 16, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.124" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.124   Repurchase agreement involving shares of a money market mutual fund whose portfolio consists wholly of United States Treasury and Federal agency securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the Monetary Control Act of 1980 (title I of Pub. L. 96-221) imposes Federal reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits held by depository institutions. The Board is empowered under the Act to determine what types of obligations shall be deemed a deposit (12 U.S.C. 461). Regulation D—Reserve Requirements of Depository Institutions exempts from the definition of <I>deposit</I> those obligations of a depository institution that arise from a transfer of direct obligations of, or obligations that are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States government or any agency thereof that the depository institution is obligated to repurchase (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(B)).
</P>
<P>(b) The National Bank Act provides that a national bank may purchase for its own account investment securities under limitations and restrictions as the Comptroller may prescribe (12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7). The statute defines investment securities to mean marketable obligations evidencing indebtedness of any person in the form of bonds, notes, and debentures. The Act further limits a national bank's holdings of any one security to no more than an amount equal to 10 percent of the bank's capital stock and surplus. However, these limitations do not apply to obligations issued by the United States, general obligations of any state and certain obligations of Federal agencies. In addition, generally a national bank is not permitted to purchase for its own account stock of any corporation. These restrictions also apply to state member banks (12 U.S.C. 335). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Comptroller of the Currency has permitted national banks to purchase for their own accounts shares of open-end investment companies that are purchased and sold at par (i.e., money market mutual funds) provided the portfolios of such companies consist solely of securities that a national bank may purchase directly (Banking Bulletin B-83-58). The Board of Governors has permitted state member banks to purchase, to the extent permitted under applicable state law, shares of money market mutual funds (<I>MMMF</I>) whose portfolios consist solely of securities that the state member bank may purchase directly (12 CFR 208.123). 
</P>
<P>(d) The Board has determined that an obligation arising from a repurchase agreement involving shares of a MMMF whose portfolio consists wholly of securities of the United States government or any agency thereof 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> would not be a <I>deposit</I> for purposes of Regulations D and Q. The Board believes that a repurchase agreement involving shares of such a MMMF is the functional equivalent of a repurchase agreement directly involving United States government or agency obligations. A purchaser of shares of a MMMF obtains an interest in a <I>pro rata</I> portion of the assets that comprise the MMMF's portfolio. Accordingly, regardless of whether the repurchase agreement involves United States government or agency obligations directly or shares in a MMMF whose portfolio consists entirely of United States government or agency obligations, an equitable and undivided interest in United States and agency government obligations is being transferred. Moreover, the Board believes that this interpretation will further the purpose of the exemption in Regulations D and Q for repurchase agreements involving United States government or Federal obligations by enhancing the market for such obligations. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The term <I>United States government or any agency thereof</I> as used herein shall have the same meaning as in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(B) of Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(B).</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 13011, Apr. 2, 1985, as amended at 52 FR 47695, Dec. 16, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.125" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.125   Foreign, international, and supranational entities referred to in §§ 204.2(c)(1)(iii)(E) and (f)(1)(iv)(E) and 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B)(<I>5</I>).</HEAD>
<P>The entities referred to in §§ 204.2(c)(1)(iii)(E) and (f)(1)(iv)(E) and 204.8(a)(2)(i)(B)(<I>5</I>) are:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Europe
</HD1>
<FP-1>Bank for International Settlements.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Atomic Energy Community.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Central Bank. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Coal and Steel Community.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The European Communities. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Development Fund.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Economic Community.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Free Trade Association.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Fund.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>European Investment Bank.
</FP-1>
<HD1>Latin America
</HD1>
<FP-1>Andean Development Corporation.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Andean Subregional Group.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caribbean Development Bank.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caribbean Free Trade Association
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Caribbean Regional Development Agency.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Central American Bank for Economic Integration. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>The Central American Institute for Industrial Research and Technology. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Central American Monetary Stabilization Fund. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>East Caribbean Common Market. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Latin American Free Trade Association.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organization for Central American States.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Permanent Secretariat of the Central American General Treaty of Economic Integration. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>River Plate Basin Commission. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Africa
</HD1>
<FP-1>African Development Bank.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Banque Centrale des Etats de l'Afrique Equatorial et du Cameroun.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Banque Centrale des Etats d'Afrique del'Ouest. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Conseil de l'Entente.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>East African Community.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organisation Commune Africaine et Malagache. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Organization of African Unity.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Union des Etats de l'Afrique Centrale. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Union Douaniere et Economique de l'Afrique Centrale. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Union Douaniere des Etats de l'Afrique de l'Ouest. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Asia
</HD1>
<FP-1>Asia and Pacific Council.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Association of Southeast Asian Nations. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Bank of Taiwan.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Korea Exchange Bank. 
</FP-1>
<HD1>Middle East 
</HD1>
<FP-1>Central Treaty Organization.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Regional Cooperation for Development.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. D, 52 FR 47695, Dec. 16, 1987, as amended at 56 FR 15495, Apr. 17, 1991; 65 FR 12917, Mar. 10, 2000; 88 FR 45058, July 14, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.126" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.126   Depository institution participation in “Federal funds” market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A), there is an exemption from Regulation D for member bank obligations in nondeposit form to another bank. To assure the effectiveness of the limitations on persons who sell Federal funds to depository institutions, Regulation D applies to nondocumentary obligations undertaken by a depository institution to obtain funds for use in its banking business, as well as to documentary obligations. Under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) of Regulation D, a depository institution's liability under informal arrangements as well as those formally embodied in a document are within the coverage of Regulation D. 
</P>
<P>(b) The exemption in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) applies to obligations owed by a depository institution to a domestic office of any entity listed in that section (the <I>exempt institutions</I>). The <I>exempt institutions</I> explicitly include another depository institution, foreign bank, Edge or agreement corporation, New York Investment (article XII) Company, the Export-Import Bank of the United States, Minbanc Capital Corp., and certain other credit sources. The term <I>exempt institutions</I> also includes subsidiaries of depository institutions:
</P>
<P>(1) That engage in businesses in which their parents are authorized to engage; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The stock of which by statute is explicitly eligible for purchase by national banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) To assure that this exemption for liabilities to exempt institutions is not used as a means by which nondepository institutions may arrange through an exempt institution to <I>sell</I> Federal funds to a depository institution, obligations within the exemption must be issued to an exempt institution for its own account. In view of this requirement, a depository institution that <I>purchases</I> Federal funds should ascertain the character (not necessarily the identity) of the actual <I>seller</I> in order to justify classification of its liability on the transaction as <I>Federal funds purchased</I> rather than as a deposit. Any exempt institution that has given general assurance to the purchasing depository institution that sales by it of Federal funds ordinarily will be for its own account and thereafter executes such transactions for the account of others, should disclose the nature of the actual lender with respect to each such transaction. If it fails to do so, the depository institution would be deemed by the Board as indirectly violating section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act and Regulation D. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47695, Dec. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.127" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.127   Nondepository participation in “Federal funds” market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has considered whether the use of <I>interdepository institution loan participations</I> (<I>IDLPs</I>) which involve participation by third parties other than depository institutions in Federal funds transactions, comes within the exemption from <I>deposit</I> classification for certain obligations owed by a depository institution to an institution exempt in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D. An IDLP transaction is one through which an institution that has sold Federal funds to a depository institution, subsequently <I>sells</I> or participates out that obligation to a nondepository third party without notifying the obligated institution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board's interpretation regarding Federal funds transactions (12 CFR 204.126) clarified that a depository institutions's liability must be issued to an exempt institution described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D for its own account in order to come within the nondeposit exemption for interdepository liabilities. The Board regards transactions which result in third parties gaining access to the Federal funds market as contrary to the exemption contained in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) of Regulation D regardless of whether the nondepository institution third party is a party to the initial transaction or thereafter becomes a participant in the transaction through purchase of all or part of the obligation held by the <I>selling</I> depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board regards the notice requirements set out in 12 CFR 204.126 as applicable to IDLP-type transactions as described herein so that a depository institution <I>selling</I> Federal funds must provide to the purchaser—
</P>
<P>(1) Notice of its intention, at the time of the initial transaction, to sell or participate out its loan contract to a nondepository third party, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Full and prompt notice whenever it (the <I>selling</I> depository institution) subsequently sells or participates out its loan contract to a non-depository third party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47695, Dec. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.128" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.128   Deposits at foreign branches guaranteed by domestic office of a depository institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accepting deposits at branches abroad, some depository institutions may enter into agreements from time to time with depositors that in effect guarantee payment of such deposits in the United States if the foreign branch is precluded from making payment. The question has arisen whether such deposits are subject to Regulation D, and this interpretation is intended as clarification. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act which establishes reserve requirements does not apply to deposits of a depository institution “payable only at an office thereof located outside of the States of the United States and the District of Columbia” (12 U.S.C. 371a; 12 CFR 204.1(c)(5)). The Board rule in 1918 that the requirements of section 19 as to reserves to be carried by member banks do not apply to foreign branches (1918 <I>Fed. Res. Bull.</I> 1123). The Board has also defined the phrase <I>Any deposit that is payable only at an office located outside the United States,</I> in § 204.2(t) of Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(t). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board believes that this exemption from reserve requirements should be limited to deposits in foreign branches as to which the depositor is entitled, under his agreement with the depository institution, to demand payment only outside the United States, regardless of special circumstances. The exemption is intended principally to enable foreign branches of U.S. depository institutions to compete on a more nearly equal basis with banks in foreign countries in accordance with the laws and regulations of those countries. A customer who makes a deposit that is payable solely at a foreign branch of the depository institution assumes whatever risk may exist that the foreign country in which a branch is located might impose restrictions on withdrawals. When payment of a deposit in a foreign branch is guaranteed by a promise of payment at an office in the United States if not paid at the foreign office, the depositor no longer assumes this risk but enjoys substantially the same rights as if the deposit had been made in a U.S. office of the depository institution. To assure the effectiveness of Regulation D and to prevent evasions thereof, the Board considers that such guaranteed foreign-branch deposits must be subject to that regulation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly, a deposit in a foreign branch of a depository institution that is guaranteed by a domestic office is subject to the reserve requirements of Regulation D the same as if the deposit had been made in the domestic office. This interpretation is not designed in any respect to prevent the head office of a U.S. bank from repaying borrowings from, making advances to, or supplying capital funds to its foreign branches, subject to Eurocurrency liability reserve requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47696, Dec. 16, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.130" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.130   Eligibility for NOW accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Summary.</I> In response to many requests for rulings, the Board has determined to clarify the types of entities that may maintain NOW accounts at member banks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individuals.</I> (1) Any individual may maintain a NOW account regardless of the purposes that the funds will serve. Thus, deposits of an individual used in his or her business including a sole proprietor or an individual doing business under a trade name is eligible to maintain a NOW account in the individual's name or in the “DBA” name. However, other entities organized or operated to make a profit such as corporations, partnerships, associations, business trusts, or other organizations may not maintain NOW accounts.
</P>
<P>(2) Pension funds, escrow accounts, security deposits, and other funds held under various agency agreements may also be classified as NOW accounts if the entire beneficial interest is held by individuals or other entities eligible to maintain NOW accounts directly. The Board believes that these accounts are similar in nature to trust accounts and should be accorded identical treatment. Therefore, such funds may be regarded as eligible for classification as NOW accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonprofit organizations.</I> (1) A nonprofit organization that is operated primarily for religious, philanthropic, charitable, educational, political or other similar purposes may maintain a NOW account. The Board regards the following kinds of organizations as eligible for NOW accounts under this standard if they are not operated for profit:
</P>
<P>(i) Organizations described in section 501(c)(3) through (13), and (19) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(3) through (13) and (19)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Political organizations described in section 527 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 527); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Homeowners and condominium owners associations described in section 528 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 528), including housing cooperative associations that perform similar functions.
</P>
<P>(2) All organizations that are operated for profit are not eligible to maintain NOW accounts at depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) The following types of organizations described in the cited provisions of the Internal Revenue Code are among those not eligible to maintain NOW accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit unions and other mutual depository institutions described in section 501(c)(14) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(14));
</P>
<P>(ii) Mutual insurance companies described in section 501(c)(15) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(15));
</P>
<P>(iii) Crop financing organizations described in section 501(c)(16) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(16));
</P>
<P>(iv) Organizations created to function as part of a qualified group legal services plan described in section 501(c)(20) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 501(c)(20)); or
</P>
<P>(v) Farmers' cooperatives described in section 521 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. (I.R.C. 1954) section 521).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Governmental units.</I> Governmental units are generally eligible to maintain NOW accounts at member banks. NOW accounts may consist of funds in which the entire beneficial interest is held by the United States, any State of the United States, county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, American Samoa, Guam, any territory or possession of the United States, or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Funds held by a fiduciary.</I> Under current provisions, funds held in a fiduciary capacity (either by an individual fiduciary or by a corporate fiduciary such as a bank trust department or a trustee in bankruptcy), including those awaiting distribution or investment, may be held in the form of NOW accounts if all of the beneficiaries are otherwise eligible to maintain NOW accounts. The Board believes that such a classification should continue since fiduciaries are required to invest even temporarily idle balances to the greatest extent feasible in order to responsibly carry out their fiduciary duties. The availability of NOW accounts provides a convenient vehicle for providing a short-term return on temporarily idle trust funds of beneficiaries eligible to maintain accounts in their own names.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Grandfather provision.</I> In order to avoid unduly disrupting account relationships, a NOW account established at a member bank on or before August 31, 1981, that represents funds of a nonqualifying entity that previously qualified to maintain a NOW account may continue to be maintained in a NOW account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47697, Dec. 16, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.131" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.131   Participation by a depository institution in the secondary market for its own time deposits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Background.</I> In 1982, the Board issued an interpretation concerning the effect of a member bank's purchase of its own time deposits in the secondary market in order to ensure compliance with regulatory restrictions on the payment of interest on time deposits, with the prohibition against payment of interest on demand deposits, and with regulatory requirements designed to distinguish between time deposits and demand deposits for federal reserve requirement purposes (47 FR 37878, Aug. 27, 1982). The interpretation was designed to ensure that the regulatory early withdrawal penalties in Regulation Q used to achieve these three purposes were not evaded through the purchase by a member bank or its affiliate of a time deposit of the member bank prior to the maturity of the deposit. 
</P>
<P>(b) Because the expiration of the Depository Institutions Deregulation Act (title II of Pub. L. 96-221) on April 1, 1986, removed the authority to set interest rate ceilings on deposits, one of the purposes for adopting the interpretation was eliminated. The removal of the authority to set interest rate ceilings on deposits required the Board to revise the early withdrawal penalties which were also used to distinguish between types of deposits for reserve requirement purposes. Effective April 1, 1986, the Board amended its Regulation D to incorporate early withdrawal penalties applicable to all depository institutions for this purpose (51 FR 9629, Mar. 20, 1986). Although the new early withdrawal penalties differ from the penalties used to enforce interest rate ceilings, secondary market purchases still effectively shorten the maturities of deposits and may be used to evade reserve requirements. This interpretation replaces the prior interpretation and states the application of the new early withdrawal penalties to purchases by depository institutions and their affiliates of the depository institution's time deposits. The interpretation applies only to situations in which the Board's regulatory penalties apply. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secondary market purchases under the rule.</I> The Board has determined that a depository institution purchasing a time deposit it has issued should be regarded as having paid the time deposit prior to maturity. The effect of the transaction is that the depository institution has cancelled a liability as opposed to having acquired an asset for its portfolio. Thus, the depository institution is required to impose any early withdrawal penalty required by Regulation D on the party from whom it purchases the instrument by deducting the amount of the penalty from the purchase price. The Board recognizes, however, that secondary market sales of time deposits are often done without regard to the identity of the original owner of the deposit. Such sales typically involve a pool of time deposits with the price based on the aggregate face value and average rate of return on the deposits. A depository institution purchasing time deposits from persons other than the person to whom the deposit was originally issued should be aware of the parties named on each of the deposits it is purchasing but through failure to inspect the deposits prior to the purchase may not be aware at the time it purchases a pool of time deposits that it originally issued one or more of the deposits in the pool. In such cases, if a purchasing depository institution does not wish to assess an applicable early withdrawal penalty, the deposit may be sold immediately in the secondary market as an alternative to imposing the early withdrawal penalty. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purchases by affiliates.</I> On a consolidated basis, if an affiliate (as defined in § 204.2(q) of Regulation D) of a depository institution purchases a CD issued by the depository institution, the purchase does not reduce their consolidated liabilities and could be accomplished primarily to assist the depository institution in avoiding the requirements of the Board's Regulation D. Because the effect of the early withdrawal penalty rule could be easily circumvented by purchases of time deposits by affiliates, such purchases are also regarded as an early withdrawals of the time deposit, and the purchase should be treated as if the depository institution made the purchase directly. Thus, the regulatory requirements for early withdrawal penalties apply to affiliates of a depository institution as well as to the institution itself. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository institution acting as broker.</I> The Board believes that it is permissible for a depository institution to facilitate the secondary market for its own time deposits by finding a purchaser for a time deposit that a customer is trying to sell. In such instances, the depository institution will not be paying out any of its own funds, and the depositor does not have a guarantee that the depository institution will actually be able to find a buyer. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Third-party market-makers.</I> A depository institution may also establish and advertise arrangements whereby an unaffiliated third party agrees in advance to purchase time deposits issued by the institution. The Board would not regard these transactions as inconsistent with the purposes that the early withdrawal penalty is intended to serve unless a depository institution pays a fee to the third party purchaser as compensation for making the purchases or to remove the risk from purchasing the deposits. In this regard, any interim financing provided to such a third party by a depository institution in connection with the institution's secondary market activity involving the institution's time deposits must be made substantially on the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions with other similarly situated persons and may not involve more than the normal risk of repayment. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reciprocal arrangements.</I> Finally, while a depository institution may enter into an arrangement with an unaffiliated third party wherein the third party agrees to stand ready to purchase time deposits held by the depository institution's customers, the Board will regard a reciprocal arrangement with another depository institution for purchase of each other's time deposits as a circumvention of the early withdrawal penalty rule and the purposes it is designed to serve. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 47697, Dec. 16, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.132" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.132   Treatment of loan strip participations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Effective March 31, 1988, the glossary section of the instructions for the Report of Condition and Income (FFIEC 031-034; OMB control number 7100-0036; available from a depository institution's primary federal regulator) (<I>Call Report</I>) was amended to clarify that certain short-term loan participation arrangements (sometimes known or styled as <I>loan strips</I> or <I>strip participations</I>) are regarded as borrowings rather than sales for Call Report purposes in certain circumstances. Through this interpretation, the Board is clarifying that such transactions should be treated as deposits for purposes of Regulation D.
</P>
<P>(b) These transactions involve the sale (or placement) of a short-term loan by a depository institution that has been made under a long-term commitment of the depository institution to advance funds. For example, a 90-day loan made under a five-year revolving line of credit may be sold to or placed with a third party by the depository institution originating the loan. The depository institution originating the loan is obligated to renew the 90-day note itself (by advancing funds to its customer at the end of the 90-day period) in the event the original participant does not wish to renew the credit. Since, under these arrangements, the depository institution is obligated to make another loan at the end of 90 days (absent any event of default on the part of the borrower), the depository institution selling the loan or participation in effect must buy back the loan or participation at the maturity of the 90-day loan sold to or funded by the purchaser at the option of the purchaser. Accordingly, these transactions bear the essential characteristics of a repurchase agreement and, therefore, are reportable and reservable under Regulation D.
</P>
<P>(c) Because many of these transactions give rise to deposit liabilities in the form of promissory notes, acknowledgments of advance or similar obligations (written or oral) as described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii) of Regulation D, the exemptions from the definition of <I>deposit</I> incorporated in that section may apply to the liability incurred by a depository institution when it offers or originates a loan strip facility. Thus, for example, loan strips sold to domestic offices of other depository institutions are exempt from Regulation D under § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A)(<I>1</I>) because they are obligations issued or undertaken and held for the account of a U.S. office of another depository institution. Similarly, some of these transactions result in Eurocurrency liabilities and are reportable and reservable as such.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 24931, July 1, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.133" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.133   Multiple savings deposits treated as a transaction account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act, the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Background.</I> Under Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(d)(2), the term “savings deposit” includes a deposit or an account that meets the requirements of § 204.2(d)(1) and from which, under the terms of the deposit contract or by practice of the depository institution, the depositor is permitted or authorized to make up to six transfers or withdrawals per month or statement cycle of at least four weeks. The depository institution may authorize up to three of these six transfers to be made by check, draft, debit card, or similar order drawn by the depositor and payable to third parties. If more than six transfers (or more than three third party transfers by check, etc.) are permitted or authorized per month or statement cycle, the depository institution may not classify the account as a savings deposit. If the depositor, during the period, makes more than six transfers or withdrawals (or more than three third party transfers by check, etc.), the depository institution may, depending upon the facts and circumstances, be required by Regulation D (Footnote 5 at § 204.2(d)(2)) to reclassify or close the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of multiple savings deposits.</I> Depository institutions have asked for guidance as to when a depositor may maintain more than one savings deposit and be permitted to make all the transfers or withdrawals authorized for savings deposits under Regulation D from each savings deposit. The Board has determined that, if a depository institution suggests or otherwise promotes the establishment of or operation of multiple savings accounts with transfer capabilities in order to permit transfers and withdrawals in excess of those permitted by Regulation D for an individual savings account, the accounts generally should be considered to be transaction accounts. This determination applies regardless of whether the deposits have entirely separate account numbers or are subsidiary accounts of a master deposit account. Multiple savings accounts, however, should not be considered to be transaction accounts if there is a legitimate purpose, other than increasing the number of transfers or withdrawals, for opening more than one savings deposit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> The distinction between appropriate and inappropriate uses of multiple accounts is illustrated by the following examples:
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>(i) X wishes to open an account that maximizes his interest earnings but also permits X to draw up to ten checks a month against the account. X's Bank suggests an arrangement under which X establishes four savings deposits at Bank. Under the arrangement, X deposits funds in the first account and then draws three checks against that account. X then instructs Bank to transfer all funds in excess of the amount of the three checks to the second account and draws an additional three checks. Funds are continually shifted between accounts when additional checks are drawn so that no more than three checks are drawn against each account each month.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) Suggesting the use of four savings accounts in the name of X in this example is designed solely to permit the customer to exceed the transfer limitations on savings accounts. Accordingly, the savings accounts should be classified as transaction accounts.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>(i) X is trustee of separate trusts for each of his four children. X's Bank suggests that X, as trustee, open a savings deposit in a depository institution for each of his four children in order to ensure an independent accounting of the funds held by each trust. 
</PSPACE><P>(ii) X's Bank's suggestion to use four savings deposits in the name of X in this example is appropriate, and the third party transfers from one account should not be considered in determining whether the transfer and withdrawal limit was exceeded on any other account. X established a legitimate purpose, the segregation of the trust assets, for each account separate from the need to make third party transfers. Furthermore, there is no indication, such as by the direct or indirect transfer of funds from one account to another, that the accounts are being used for any purpose other than to make transfers to the appropriate trust.</P></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>(i) X opens four savings accounts with Bank. X regularly draws up to three checks against each account and transfers funds between the accounts in order to ensure that the checks on the separate accounts are covered. X's Bank did not suggest or otherwise promote the arrangement.
</PSPACE><P>(ii) X's Bank may treat the multiple accounts as savings deposits for Regulation D purposes, even if it discovers that X is using the accounts to increase the transfer limits applicable to savings accounts because X's Bank did not suggest or otherwise promote the establishment of or operation of the arrangement.</P></EXAMPLE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38427, Aug. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.134" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.134   Linked time deposits and transaction accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)), the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b)(2) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Linked time deposits and transaction accounts.</I> Some depository institutions are offering or proposing to offer account arrangements under which a group of participating depositors maintain transaction accounts and time deposits with a depository institution in an arrangement under which each depositor may draw checks up to the aggregate amount held by that depositor in these accounts. Under this account arrangement, at the end of the day funds over a specified balance in each depositor's transaction account are swept from the transaction account into a commingled time deposit. A separate time deposit is opened on each business day with the balance of deposits received that day, as well as the proceeds of any time deposit that has matured that day that are not used to pay checks or withdrawals from the transaction accounts. The time deposits, which generally have maturities of seven days, are staggered so that one or more time deposits mature each business day. Funds are apportioned among the various time deposits in a manner calculated to minimize the possibility that the funds available on any given day would be insufficient to pay all items presented.
</P>
<P>(1) The time deposits involved in such an arrangement may be held directly by the depositor or indirectly through a trust or other arrangement. The individual depositor's interest in time deposits may be identifiable, with an agreement by the depositors that balances held in the arrangement may be used to pay checks drawn by other depositors participating in the arrangement, or the depositor may have an undivided interest in a series of time deposits.
</P>
<P>(2) Each day funds from the maturing time deposits are available to pay checks or other charges to the depositor's transaction account. The depository institution's decision concerning whether to pay checks drawn on an individual depositor's transaction account is based on the aggregate amount of funds that the depositor has invested in the arrangement, including any amount that may be invested in unmatured time deposits. Only if checks drawn by all participants in the arrangement exceed the total balance of funds available that day (i.e. funds from the time deposit that has matured that day as well as any deposits made to participating accounts during the day) is a time deposit withdrawn prior to maturity so as to incur an early withdrawal penalty. The arrangement may be marketed as providing the customer unlimited access to its funds with a high rate of interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination.</I> In these arrangements, the aggregate deposit balances of all participants generally vary by a comparatively small amount, allowing the time deposits maturing on any day safely to cover any charges to the depositors' transaction accounts and avoiding any early withdrawal penalties. Thus, this arrangement substitutes time deposit balances for transaction accounts balances with no practical restrictions on the depositors' access to their funds, and serves no business purpose other than to allow the payment of higher interest through the avoidance of reserve requirements. As the time deposits may be used to provide funds indirectly for the purposes of making payments or transfers to third persons, the Board has determined that the time deposits should be considered to be transaction accounts for the purposes of Regulation D.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38428, Aug. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.135" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.135   Shifting funds between depository institutions to make use of the low reserve tranche.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)) the Board is authorized to define terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and to prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b)(2) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. In addition to its authority to define terms under section 19(a), section 19(g) of the Federal Reserve Act also give the Board the specific authority to define terms relating to deductions allowed in reserve computation, including “balances due from other banks.” This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Background.</I> (1) Currently, the Board requires reserves of zero, three, or ten percent on transaction accounts, depending upon the amount of transaction deposits in the depository institution, and of zero percent on nonpersonal time deposits. In determining its reserve balance under Regulation D, a depository institution may deduct the balances it maintains in another depository institution located in the United States if those balances are subject to immediate withdrawal by the depositing depository institution (§ 204.3(f)). This deduction is commonly known as the “due from” deduction. In addition, Regulation D at § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(A) exempts from the definition of “deposit” any liability of a depository institution on a promissory note or similar obligation that is issued or undertaken and held for the account of an office located in the United States of another depository institution. Transactions falling within this exemption from the definition of “deposit” include federal funds or “fed funds” transactions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 19(b)(2) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)(2)), the Board is required to impose reserves of three percent on total transaction deposits at or below an amount determined under a formula. Transaction deposits falling within this amount are in the “low reserve tranche.” Currently the low reserve tranche runs up to $42.2 million. Under section 19(b)(11) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)(11)) the Board is also required to impose reserves of zero percent on reservable liabilities at or below an amount determined under a formula. Currently that amount is $3.6 million.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shifting funds between depository institutions.</I> The Board is aware that certain depository institutions with transaction account balances in an amount greater than the low reserve tranche have entered into transactions with affiliated depository institutions that have transaction account balances below the maximum low reserve tranche amount. These transactions are intended to lower the transaction reserves of the larger depository institution and leave the economic position of the smaller depository institutions unaffected, and have no apparent purpose other than to reduce required reserves of the larger institution. The larger depository institution places funds in a demand deposit at a small domestic depository institution. The larger depository institution considers those funds to be subject to the “due from” deduction, and accordingly reduces its transaction reserves in the amount of the demand deposit. The larger depository institution then reduces its transaction account reserves by 10 percent of the deposited amount. The small depository institution, because it is within the low reserve tranche, must maintain transaction account reserves of 3 percent on the funds deposited by the larger depository institution. The small depository institution then transfers all but 3 percent of the funds deposited by the larger depository institution back to the larger depository institution in a transaction that qualifies as a “fed funds” transaction. The 3 percent not transferred to the larger depository institution is the amount of the larger depository institution's deposit that the small depository institution must maintain as transaction account reserves. Because the larger depository institution books this second part of the transaction as a “fed funds” transaction, the larger depository institution does not maintain reserves on the funds that it receives back from the small depository institution. As a consequence, the larger depository institution has available for its use 97 percent of the amount transferred to the small depository institution. Had the larger depository institution not entered into the transaction, it would have maintained transaction account reserves of 10 percent on that amount, and would have had only 90 percent of that amount for use in its business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determination.</I> The Board believes that the practice described above generally is a device to evade the reserves imposed by Regulation D. Consequently, the Board has determined that, in the circumstances described above, the larger depository institution depositing funds in the smaller institution may not take a “due from” deduction on account of the funds in the demand deposit account if, and to the extent that, funds flow back to the larger depository institution from the small depository institution by means of a transaction that is exempt from transaction account reserve requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38429, Aug. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 204.136" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.5.0.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 204.136   Treatment of trust overdrafts for reserve requirement reporting purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Under section 19(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(a)), the Board is authorized to define the terms used in section 19, and to prescribe regulations to implement and prevent evasions of the requirements of that section. Section 19(b) establishes general reserve requirements on transaction accounts and nonpersonal time deposits. Under section 19(b)(1)(F), the Board also is authorized to determine, by regulation or order, that an account or deposit is a transaction account if such account is used directly or indirectly for the purpose of making payments to third persons or others. This interpretation is adopted under these authorities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Netting of trust account balances.</I> (1) Not all depository institutions have treated overdrafts in trust accounts administered by a trust department in the same manner when calculating the balance in a commingled transaction account in the depository institution for the account of the trust department of the institution. In some cases, depository institutions carry the aggregate of the positive balances in the individual trust accounts as the balance on which reserves are computed for the commingled account. In other cases depository institutions net positive balances in some trust accounts against negative balances in other trust accounts, thus reducing the balance in the commingled account and lowering the reserve requirements. Except in limited circumstances, negative balances in individual trust accounts should not be netted against positive balances in other trust accounts when determining the balance in a trust department's commingled transaction account maintained in a depository institution's commercial department. The netting of positive and negative balances has the effect of reducing the aggregate of a commingled transaction account reported by the depository institution to the Federal Reserve and reduces the reserves the institution must hold against transaction accounts under Regulation D. Unless the governing trust agreement or state law authorizes the depository institution, as trustee, to lend money in one trust to another trust, the negative balances in effect, for purposes of Regulation D, represent a loan from the depository institution. Consequently, negative balances in individual trust accounts should not be netted against positive balances in other individual trust accounts, and the balance in any transaction account containing commingled trust balances should reflect positive or zero balances for each individual trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) For example, where a trust department engages in securities lending activities for trust accounts, overdrafts might occur because of the trust department's attempt to “normalize” the effects of timing delays between the depository institution's receipt of the cash collateral from the broker and the trust department's posting of the transaction to the lending trust account. When securities are lent from a trust customer to a broker that pledges cash as collateral, the broker usually transfers the cash collateral to the depository institution on the day that the securities are made available. While the institution has the use of the funds from the time of the transfer, the trust department's normal posting procedures may not reflect receipt of the cash collateral by the individual account until the next day. On the day that the loan is terminated, the broker returns the securities to the lending trust account and the trust customer's account is debited for the amount of the cash collateral that is returned by the depository institution to the broker. The trust department, however, often does not liquidate the investment made with the cash collateral until the day after the loan terminates, a delay that normally causes a one day overdraft in the trust account. Regulation D requires that, on the day the loan is terminated, the depository institution regard the negative balance in the customer's account as zero for reserve requirement reporting purposes and not net the overdraft against positive balances in other accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> In order to meet the requirements of Regulation D, a depository institution must have procedures to determine the aggregate of trust department transaction account balances for Regulation D on a daily basis. The procedures must consider only the positive balances in individual trust accounts without netting negative balances except in those limited circumstances where loans are legally permitted from one trust to another, or where offsetting is permitted pursuant to trust law or written agreement, or where the amount that caused the overdraft is still available in a settlement, suspense or other trust account within the trust department and may be used to offset the overdraft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38429, Aug. 25, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="205" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 205—ELECTRONIC FUND TRANSFERS (REGULATION E)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1693b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 205.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part, known as Regulation E, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>). The information-collection requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0200. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part carries out the purposes of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, which establishes the basic rights, liabilities, and responsibilities of consumers who use electronic fund transfer services and of financial institutions that offer these services. The primary objective of the act and this part is the protection of individual consumers engaging in electronic fund transfers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Access device</I> means a card, code, or other means of access to a consumer's account, or any combination thereof, that may be used by the consumer to initiate electronic fund transfers. 
</P>
<P>(2) An access device becomes an <I>accepted access device</I> when the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requests and receives, or signs, or uses (or authorizes another to use) the access device to transfer money between accounts or to obtain money, property, or services; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests validation of an access device issued on an unsolicited basis; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Receives an access device in renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device from either the financial institution that initially issued the device or a successor. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Account</I> means a demand deposit (checking), savings, or other consumer asset account (other than an occasional or incidental credit balance in a credit plan) held directly or indirectly by a financial institution and established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term includes a “payroll card account” which is an account that is directly or indirectly established through an employer and to which electronic fund transfers of the consumer's wages, salary, or other employee compensation (such as commissions), are made on a recurring basis, whether the account is operated or managed by the employer, a third-party payroll processor, a depository institution or any other person. For rules governing payroll card accounts, see § 205.18.
</P>
<P>(3) The term does not include an account held by a financial institution under a bona fide trust agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Act</I> means the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (title IX of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business day</I> means any day on which the offices of the consumer's financial institution are open to the public for carrying on substantially all business functions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means a natural person. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit</I> means the right granted by a financial institution to a consumer to defer payment of debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I> is defined in § 205.3. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic terminal</I> means an electronic device, other than a telephone operated by a consumer, through which a consumer may initiate an electronic fund transfer. The term includes, but is not limited to, point-of-sale terminals, automated teller machines, and cash dispensing machines. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial institution</I> means a bank, savings association, credit union, or any other person that directly or indirectly holds an account belonging to a consumer, or that issues an access device and agrees with a consumer to provide electronic fund transfer services. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, government agency, estate, trust, partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, or association. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Preauthorized electronic fund transfer</I> means an electronic fund transfer authorized in advance to recur at substantially regular intervals. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>State</I> means any state, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision of the above in this paragraph (l). 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Unauthorized electronic fund transfer</I> means an electronic fund transfer from a consumer's account initiated by a person other than the consumer without actual authority to initiate the transfer and from which the consumer receives no benefit. The term does not include an electronic fund transfer initiated: 
</P>
<P>(1) By a person who was furnished the access device to the consumer's account by the consumer, unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized; 
</P>
<P>(2) With fraudulent intent by the consumer or any person acting in concert with the consumer; or 
</P>
<P>(3) By the financial institution or its employee. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 1481, Jan. 10, 2006; 71 FR 51449, Aug. 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.3   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part applies to any electronic fund transfer that authorizes a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer's account. Generally, this part applies to financial institutions. For purposes of §§ 205.3(b)(2) and (b)(3), 205.10(b), (d), and (e), 205.13, and 205.20, this part applies to any person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> The term electronic fund transfer means any transfer of funds that is initiated through an electronic terminal, telephone, computer, or magnetic tape for the purpose of ordering, instructing, or authorizing a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer's account. The term includes, but is not limited to—
</P>
<P>(i) Point-of-sale transfers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Automated teller machine transfers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Direct deposits or withdrawals of funds;
</P>
<P>(iv) Transfers initiated by telephone; and
</P>
<P>(v) Transfers resulting from debit card transactions, whether or not initiated through an electronic terminal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic fund transfer using information from a check.</I> (i) This part applies where a check, draft, or similar paper instrument is used as a source of information to initiate a one-time electronic fund transfer from a consumer's account. The consumer must authorize the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person initiating an electronic fund transfer using the consumer's check as a source of information for the transfer must provide a notice that the transaction will or may be processed as an EFT, and obtain a consumer's authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer (in providing a check to a merchant or other payee for the MICR encoding, that is, the routing number of the financial institution, the consumer's account number and the serial number) when the consumer receives notice and goes forward with the underlying transaction. For point-of-sale transfers, the notice must be posted in a prominent and conspicuous location, and a copy thereof, or a substantially similar notice, must be provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) The person that initiates an electronic fund transfer using the consumer's check as a source of information for the transfer shall also provide a notice to the consumer at the same time it provides the notice required under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) that when a check is used to initiate an electronic fund transfer, funds may be debited from the consumer's account as soon as the same day payment is received, and, as applicable, that the consumer's check will not be returned by the financial institution holding the consumer's account. For point-of-sale transfers, the person initiating the transfer may post the notice required in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) in a prominent and conspicuous location and need not include this notice on the copy of the notice given to the consumer under paragraph (b)(2)(ii). The requirements in this paragraph (b)(2)(iii) shall remain in effect until December 31, 2009.
</P>
<P>(iv) A person may provide notices that are substantially similar to those set forth in appendix A-6 to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collection of returned item fees via electronic fund transfer</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect a fee for the return of an electronic fund transfer or a check that is unpaid, including due to insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer's account, must obtain the consumer's authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer from his or her account to pay the fee for the returned item or transfer if the person collecting the fee provides notice to the consumer stating that the person may electronically collect the fee, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction. The notice must state that the fee will be collected by means of an electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account if the payment is returned unpaid and must disclose the dollar amount of the fee. If the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, then, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the person collecting the fee may disclose, in place of the dollar amount of the fee, an explanation of how the fee will be determined.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> If a fee for an electronic fund transfer or check returned unpaid may be collected electronically in connection with a point-of-sale transaction, the person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect the fee must post the notice described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section in a prominent and conspicuous location. The person also must either provide the consumer with a copy of the posted notice (or a substantially similar notice) at the time of the transaction, or mail the copy (or a substantially similar notice) to the consumer's address as soon as reasonably practicable after the person initiates the electronic fund transfer to collect the fee. If the amount of the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, the posted notice may explain how the fee will be determined, but the notice provided to the consumer must state the dollar amount of the fee if the amount can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Delayed compliance date for fee disclosure.</I> Through December 31, 2007, the notice required to be provided to consumers under paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section in connection with a point-of-sale transaction, whether given to the consumer at the time of the transaction or subsequently mailed to the consumer, need not include either the dollar amount of any fee collected electronically for a check or electronic fund transfer returned unpaid or an explanation of how the amount of the fee will be determined.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusions from coverage.</I> The term electronic fund transfer does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Checks.</I> Any transfer of funds originated by check, draft, or similar paper instrument; or any payment made by check, draft, or similar paper instrument at an electronic terminal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Check guarantee or authorization.</I> Any transfer of funds that guarantees payment or authorizes acceptance of a check, draft, or similar paper instrument but that does not directly result in a debit or credit to a consumer's account. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wire or other similar transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds through Fedwire or through a similar wire transfer system that is used primarily for transfers between financial institutions or between businesses. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Securities and commodities transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds the primary purpose of which is the purchase or sale of a security or commodity, if the security or commodity is: 
</P>
<P>(i) Regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchased or sold through a broker-dealer regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or through a futures commission merchant regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Held in book-entry form by a Federal Reserve Bank or federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Automatic transfers by account-holding institution.</I> Any transfer of funds under an agreement between a consumer and a financial institution which provides that the institution will initiate individual transfers without a specific request from the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(i) Between a consumer's accounts within the financial institution; 
</P>
<P>(ii) From a consumer's account to an account of a member of the consumer's family held in the same financial institution; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Between a consumer's account and an account of the financial institution, except that these transfers remain subject to § 205.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 915 and 916 of the act regarding civil and criminal liability. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone-initiated transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is initiated by a telephone communication between a consumer and a financial institution making the transfer; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not take place under a telephone bill-payment or other written plan in which periodic or recurring transfers are contemplated. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Small institutions.</I> Any preauthorized transfer to or from an account if the assets of the account-holding financial institution were $100 million or less on the preceding December 31. If assets of the account-holding institution subsequently exceed $100 million, the institution's exemption for preauthorized transfers terminates one year from the end of the calendar year in which the assets exceed $100 million. Preauthorized transfers exempt under this paragraph (c)(7) remain subject to § 205.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 915 and 916 of the act regarding civil and criminal liability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 1659, Jan. 10, 2006; 71 FR 51456, Aug. 30, 2006; 75 FR 16613, Apr. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.4   General disclosure requirements; jointly offered services.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this part shall be clear and readily understandable, in writing, and in a form the consumer may keep, except as otherwise provided in this part. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer-consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). A financial institution may use commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations in complying with the disclosure requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this part may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information; disclosures required by other laws.</I> A financial institution may include additional information and may combine disclosures required by other laws (such as the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.</I>)) with the disclosures required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple accounts and account holders</I>—(1) <I>Multiple accounts.</I> A financial institution may combine the required disclosures into a single statement for a consumer who holds more than one account at the institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple account holders.</I> For joint accounts held by two or more consumers, a financial institution need provide only one set of the required disclosures and may provide them to any of the account holders. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Services offered jointly.</I> Financial institutions that provide electronic fund transfer services jointly may contract among themselves to comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. An institution need make only the disclosures required by §§ 205.7 and 205.8 that are within its knowledge and within the purview of its relationship with the consumer for whom it holds an account. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 14532, Mar. 25, 1998; 66 FR 17793, Apr. 4, 2001; 72 FR 63456, Nov. 9, 2007; 75 FR 16613, Apr. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.5   Issuance of access devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Solicited issuance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer only: 
</P>
<P>(1) In response to an oral or written request for the device; or 
</P>
<P>(2) As a renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device whether issued by the institution or a successor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unsolicited issuance.</I> A financial institution may distribute an access device to a consumer on an unsolicited basis if the access device is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not validated, meaning that the institution has not yet performed all the procedures that would enable a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer using the access device; 
</P>
<P>(2) Accompanied by a clear explanation that the access device is not validated and how the consumer may dispose of it if validation is not desired; 
</P>
<P>(3) Accompanied by the disclosures required by § 205.7, of the consumer's rights and liabilities that will apply if the access device is validated; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Validated only in response to the consumer's oral or written request for validation, after the institution has verified the consumer's identity by a reasonable means. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.6   Liability of consumer for unauthorized transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conditions for liability.</I> A consumer may be held liable, within the limitations described in paragraph (b) of this section, for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer involving the consumer's account only if the financial institution has provided the disclosures required by § 205.7(b)(1), (2), and (3). If the unauthorized transfer involved an access device, it must be an accepted access device and the financial institution must have provided a means to identify the consumer to whom it was issued. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on amount of liability.</I> A consumer's liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer or a series of related unauthorized transfers shall be determined as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timely notice given.</I> If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the lesser of $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur before notice to the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timely notice not given.</I> If the consumer fails to notify the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the lesser of $500 or the sum of: 
</P>
<P>(i) $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur within the two business days, whichever is less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of two business days and before notice to the institution, provided the institution establishes that these transfers would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within that two-day period. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic statement; timely notice not given.</I> A consumer must report an unauthorized electronic fund transfer that appears on a periodic statement within 60 days of the financial institution's transmittal of the statement to avoid liability for subsequent transfers. If the consumer fails to do so, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of the 60 days and before notice to the institution, and that the institution establishes would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within the 60-day period. When an access device is involved in the unauthorized transfer, the consumer may be liable for other amounts set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extension of time limits.</I> If the consumer's delay in notifying the financial institution was due to extenuating circumstances, the institution shall extend the times specified above to a reasonable period. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice to financial institution.</I> (i) Notice to a financial institution is given when a consumer takes steps reasonably necessary to provide the institution with the pertinent information, whether or not a particular employee or agent of the institution actually receives the information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer may notify the institution in person, by telephone, or in writing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice is considered given at the time the consumer mails the notice or delivers it for transmission to the institution by any other usual means. Notice may be considered constructively given when the institution becomes aware of circumstances leading to the reasonable belief that an unauthorized transfer to or from the consumer's account has been or may be made. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Liability under state law or agreement.</I> If state law or an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution imposes less liability than is provided by this section, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the amount imposed under the state law or agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.7   Initial disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> A financial institution shall make the disclosures required by this section at the time a consumer contracts for an electronic fund transfer service or before the first electronic fund transfer is made involving the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> A financial institution shall provide the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Liability of consumer.</I> A summary of the consumer's liability, under § 205.6 or under state or other applicable law or agreement, for unauthorized electronic fund transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telephone number and address.</I> The telephone number and address of the person or office to be notified when the consumer believes that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has been or may be made.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business days.</I> The financial institution's business days.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Types of transfers; limitations.</I> The type of electronic fund transfers that the consumer may make and any limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers. Details of the limitations need not be disclosed if confidentiality is essential to maintain the security of the electronic fund transfer system.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fees.</I> Any fees imposed by the financial institution for electronic fund transfers or for the right to make transfers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Documentation.</I> A summary of the consumer's right to receipts and periodic statements, as provided in § 205.9, and notices regarding preauthorized transfers as provided in §§ 205.10(a), and 205.10(d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stop payment.</I> A summary of the consumer's right to stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer and the procedure for placing a stop-payment order, as provided in § 205.10(c).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Liability of institution.</I> A summary of the financial institution's liability to the consumer under section 910 of the act for failure to make or to stop certain transfers.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Confidentiality.</I> The circumstances under which, in the ordinary course of business, the financial institution may provide information concerning the consumer's account to third parties.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice that is substantially similar to Model Form A-3 as set out in appendix A of this part concerning error resolution.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>ATM fees.</I> A notice that a fee may be imposed by an automated teller machine operator as defined in § 205.16(a)(1), when the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or makes a balance inquiry, and by any network used to complete the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Addition of electronic fund transfer services.</I> If an electronic fund transfer service is added to a consumer's account and is subject to terms and conditions different from those described in the initial disclosures, disclosures for the new service are required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 13412, Mar. 6, 2001; 71 FR 1659, Jan. 10, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.8   Change in terms notice; error resolution notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Change in terms notice</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice required.</I> A financial institution shall mail or deliver a written notice to the consumer, at least 21 days before the effective date, of any change in a term or condition required to be disclosed under § 205.7(b) if the change would result in:
</P>
<P>(i) Increased fees for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increased liability for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fewer types of available electronic fund transfers; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Stricter limitations on the frequency or dollar amount of transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice exception.</I> A financial institution need not give prior notice if an immediate change in terms or conditions is necessary to maintain or restore the security of an account or an electronic fund transfer system. If the institution makes such a change permanent and disclosure would not jeopardize the security of the account or system, the institution shall notify the consumer in writing on or with the next regularly scheduled periodic statement or within 30 days of making the change permanent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Error resolution notice.</I> For accounts to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall mail or deliver to the consumer, at least once each calendar year, an error resolution notice substantially similar to the model form set forth in appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3). Alternatively, an institution may include an abbreviated notice substantially similar to the model form error resolution notice set forth in Appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3), on or with each periodic statement required by § 205.9(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.9   Receipts at electronic terminals; periodic statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipts at electronic terminals—General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a financial institution shall make a receipt available to a consumer at the time the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer at an electronic terminal. The receipt shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> The amount of the transfer. A transaction fee may be included in this amount, provided the amount of the fee is disclosed on the receipt and displayed on or at the terminal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Date.</I> The date the consumer initiates the transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Type.</I> The type of transfer and the type of the consumer's account(s) to or from which funds are transferred. The type of account may be omitted if the access device used is able to access only one account at that terminal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identification.</I> A number or code that identifies the consumer's account or accounts, or the access device used to initiate the transfer. The number or code need not exceed four digits or letters to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Terminal location.</I> The location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated, or an identification such as a code or terminal number. Except in limited circumstances where all terminals are located in the same city or state, if the location is disclosed, it shall include the city and state or foreign country and one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The street address; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A generally accepted name for the specific location; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the owner or operator of the terminal if other than the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Third party transfer.</I> The name of any third party to or from whom funds are transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Periodic statements.</I> For an account to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall send a periodic statement for each monthly cycle in which an electronic fund transfer has occurred; and shall send a periodic statement at least quarterly if no transfer has occurred. The statement shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transaction information.</I> For each electronic fund transfer occurring during the cycle:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of transfer and type of account to or from which funds were transferred;
</P>
<P>(iv) For a transfer initiated by the consumer at an electronic terminal (except for a deposit of cash or a check, draft, or similar paper instrument), the terminal location described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) The name of any third party to or from whom funds were transferred.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account number.</I> The number of the account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees.</I> The amount of any fees assessed against the account during the statement period for electronic fund transfers, for the right to make transfers, or for account maintenance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Account balances.</I> The balance in the account at the beginning and at the close of the statement period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Address and telephone number for inquiries.</I> The address and telephone number to be used for inquiries or notice of errors, preceded by “Direct inquiries to” or similar language. The address and telephone number provided on an error resolution notice under § 205.8(b) given on or with the statement satisfies this requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone number for preauthorized transfers.</I> A telephone number the consumer may call to ascertain whether preauthorized transfers to the consumer's account have occurred, if the financial institution uses the telephone-notice option under
</P>
<P>§ 205.10(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to the periodic statement requirement for certain accounts</I>—(1) <I>Preauthorized transfers to accounts.</I> For accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Passbook accounts.</I> For passbook accounts, the financial institution need not provide a periodic statement if the institution updates the passbook upon presentation or enters on a separate document the amount and date of each electronic fund transfer since the passbook was last presented.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other accounts.</I> For accounts other than passbook accounts, the financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intra-institutional transfers.</I> For an electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer between two accounts of the consumer in the same institution, documenting the transfer on a periodic statement for one of the two accounts satisfies the periodic statement requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship between paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section.</I> An account that is accessed by preauthorized transfers to the account described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and by intra-institutional transfers described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, but by no other type of electronic fund transfers, qualifies for the exceptions provided by paragraph (c)(1) of this section .
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation for foreign-initiated transfers.</I> The failure by a financial institution to provide a terminal receipt for an electronic fund transfer or to document the transfer on a periodic statement does not violate this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transfer is not initiated within a state; and
</P>
<P>(2) The financial institution treats an inquiry for clarification or documentation as a notice of error in accordance with § 205.11.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for receipts in small-value transfers.</I> A financial institution is not subject to the requirement to make available a receipt under paragraph (a) of this section if the amount of the transfer is $15 or less.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 36593, July 5, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.10   Preauthorized transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preauthorized transfers to consumer's account</I>—(1) <I>Notice by financial institution.</I> When a person initiates preauthorized electronic fund transfers to a consumer's account at least once every 60 days, the account-holding financial institution shall provide notice to the consumer by:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Positive notice.</I> Providing oral or written notice of the transfer within two business days after the transfer occurs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative notice.</I> Providing oral or written notice, within two business days after the date on which the transfer was scheduled to occur, that the transfer did not occur; or
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Readily-available telephone line.</I> Providing a readily available telephone line that the consumer may call to determine whether the transfer occurred and disclosing the telephone number on the initial disclosure of account terms and on each periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice by payor.</I> A financial institution need not provide notice of a transfer if the payor gives the consumer positive notice that the transfer has been initiated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Crediting.</I> A financial institution that receives a preauthorized transfer of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall credit the amount of the transfer as of the date the funds for the transfer are received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written authorization for preauthorized transfers from consumer's account.</I> Preauthorized electronic fund transfers from a consumer's account may be authorized only by a writing signed or similarly authenticated by the consumer. The person that obtains the authorization shall provide a copy to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer's right to stop payment</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> A consumer may stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account by notifying the financial institution orally or in writing at least three business days before the scheduled date of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written confirmation.</I> The financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of a stop-payment order within 14 days of an oral notification. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification. An oral stop-payment order ceases to be binding after 14 days if the consumer fails to provide the required written confirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of transfers varying in amount</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> When a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account will vary in amount from the previous transfer under the same authorization or from the preauthorized amount, the designated payee or the financial institution shall send the consumer written notice of the amount and date of the transfer at least 10 days before the scheduled date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Range.</I> The designated payee or the institution shall inform the consumer of the right to receive notice of all varying transfers, but may give the consumer the option of receiving notice only when a transfer falls outside a specified range of amounts or only when a transfer differs from the most recent transfer by more than an agreed-upon amount.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compulsory use</I>—(1) <I>Credit.</I> No financial institution or other person may condition an extension of credit to a consumer on the consumer's repayment by preauthorized electronic fund transfers, except for credit extended under an overdraft credit plan or extended to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employment or government benefit.</I> No financial institution or other person may require a consumer to establish an account for receipt of electronic fund transfers with a particular institution as a condition of employment or receipt of a government benefit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.11   Procedures for resolving errors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of error</I>—(1) <I>Types of transfers or inquiries covered.</I> The term <I>error</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An unauthorized electronic fund transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) An incorrect electronic fund transfer to or from the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The omission of an electronic fund transfer from a periodic statement;
</P>
<P>(iv) A computational or bookkeeping error made by the financial institution relating to an electronic fund transfer;
</P>
<P>(v) The consumer's receipt of an incorrect amount of money from an electronic terminal;
</P>
<P>(vi) An electronic fund transfer not identified in accordance with §§ 205.9 or 205.10(a); or
</P>
<P>(vii) The consumer's request for documentation required by §§ 205.9 or 205.10(a) or for additional information or clarification concerning an electronic fund transfer, including a request the consumer makes to determine whether an error exists under paragraphs (a)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of inquiries not covered.</I> The term <I>error</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A routine inquiry about the consumer's account balance;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for information for tax or other recordkeeping purposes; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A request for duplicate copies of documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of error from consumer</I>—(1) <I>Timing; contents.</I> A financial institution shall comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any oral or written notice of error from the consumer that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is received by the institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the periodic statement or provides the passbook documentation, required by § 205.9, on which the alleged error is first reflected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enables the institution to identify the consumer's name and account number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Indicates why the consumer believes an error exists and includes to the extent possible the type, date, and amount of the error, except for requests described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written confirmation.</I> A financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of an error within 10 business days of an oral notice. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for documentation or clarifications.</I> When a notice of error is based on documentation or clarification that the consumer requested under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section, the consumer's notice of error is timely if received by the financial institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the information requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits and extent of investigation</I>—(1) <I>Ten-day period.</I> A financial institution shall investigate promptly and, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), shall determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days of receiving a notice of error. The institution shall report the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation. The institution shall correct the error within one business day after determining that an error occurred. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Forty-five day period.</I> If the financial institution is unable to complete its investigation within 10 business days, the institution may take up to 45 days from receipt of a notice of error to investigate and determine whether an error occurred, provided the institution does the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provisionally credits the consumer's account in the amount of the alleged error (including interest where applicable) within 10 business days of receiving the error notice. If the financial institution has a reasonable basis for believing that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has occurred and the institution has satisfied the requirements of § 205.6(a), the institution may withhold a maximum of $50 from the amount credited. An institution need not provisionally credit the consumer's account if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The institution requires but does not receive written confirmation within 10 business days of an oral notice of error; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The alleged error involves an account that is subject to Regulation T (Securities Credit by Brokers and Dealers, 12 CFR part 220); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Informs the consumer, within two business days after the provisional crediting, of the amount and date of the provisional crediting and gives the consumer full use of the funds during the investigation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Corrects the error, if any, within one business day after determining that an error occurred; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Reports the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation (including, if applicable, notice that a provisional credit has been made final). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of time periods.</I> The time periods in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section are extended as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable time is 20 business days in place of 10 business days under paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section if the notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer to or from the account within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicable time is 90 days in place of 45 days under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for completing an investigation, if a notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not initiated within a state;
</P>
<P>(B) Resulted from a point-of-sale debit card transaction; or
</P>
<P>(C) Occurred within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigation.</I> With the exception of transfers covered by § 205.14, a financial institution's review of its own records regarding an alleged error satisfies the requirements of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The alleged error concerns a transfer to or from a third party; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of electronic fund transfer involved. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures if financial institution determines no error or different error occurred.</I> In addition to following the procedures specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the financial institution shall follow the procedures set forth in this paragraph (d) if it determines that no error occurred or that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written explanation.</I> The institution's report of the results of its investigation shall include a written explanation of the institution's findings and shall note the consumer's right to request the documents that the institution relied on in making its determination. Upon request, the institution shall promptly provide copies of the documents. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Debiting provisional credit.</I> Upon debiting a provisionally credited amount, the financial institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the consumer of the date and amount of the debiting; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the consumer that the institution will honor checks, drafts, or similar instruments payable to third parties and preauthorized transfers from the consumer's account (without charge to the consumer as a result of an overdraft) for five business days after the notification. The institution shall honor items as specified in the notice, but need honor only items that it would have paid if the provisionally credited funds had not been debited. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reassertion of error.</I> A financial institution that has fully complied with the error resolution requirements has no further responsibilities under this section should the consumer later reassert the same error, except in the case of an error asserted by the consumer following receipt of information provided under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 52118, Sept. 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.12   Relation to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relation to Truth in Lending.</I> (1) The Electronic Fund Transfer Act and this part govern—
</P>
<P>(i) The addition to an accepted credit card as defined in Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.12, comment 12-2), of the capability to initiate electronic fund transfers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuance of an access device that permits credit extensions (under a preexisting agreement between a consumer and a financial institution) only when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) The addition of an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a), to an accepted access device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A consumer's liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer and the investigation of errors involving an extension of credit that occurs under an agreement between the consumer and a financial institution to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a).
</P>
<P>(2) The Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), which prohibit the unsolicited issuance of credit cards, govern—
</P>
<P>(i) The addition of a credit feature to an accepted access device; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the issuance of a credit card that is also an access device.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preemption of inconsistent state laws</I>—(1) <I>Inconsistent requirements.</I> The Board shall determine, upon its own motion or upon the request of a state, financial institution, or other interested party, whether the act and this part preempt state law relating to electronic fund transfers, or dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates in the case of gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for determination.</I> State law is inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part if it: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the federal law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides for consumer liability for unauthorized electronic fund transfers that exceeds the limits imposed by the federal law; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Allows longer time periods than the federal law for investigating and correcting alleged errors, or does not require the financial institution to credit the consumer's account during an error investigation in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(i); or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Requires initial disclosures, periodic statements, or receipts that are different in content from those required by the federal law except to the extent that the disclosures relate to consumer rights granted by the state law and not by the federal law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State exemptions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Any state may apply for an exemption from the requirements of the act or this part for any class of electronic fund transfers within the state. The Board shall grant an exemption if it determines that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Under state law the class of electronic fund transfers is subject to requirements substantially similar to those imposed by the federal law; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> To assure that the federal and state courts continue to have concurrent jurisdiction, and to aid in implementing the act: 
</P>
<P>(i) No exemption shall extend to the civil liability provisions of section 915 of the act; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) When the Board grants an exemption, the state law requirements shall constitute the requirements of the federal law for purposes of section 915 of the act, except for state law requirements not imposed by the federal law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 59052, Nov. 17, 2009; 75 FR 16614, Apr. 1, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.13" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.13   Administrative enforcement; record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement by federal agencies.</I> Compliance with this part is enforced by the agencies listed in Appendix B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) Any person subject to the act and this part shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by the act and this part for a period of not less than two years from the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any person subject to the act and this part having actual notice that it is the subject of an investigation or an enforcement proceeding by its enforcement agency, or having been served with notice of an action filed under sections 910, 915, or 916(a) of the act, shall retain the records that pertain to the investigation, action, or proceeding until final disposition of the matter unless an earlier time is allowed by court or agency order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.14" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.14   Electronic fund transfer service provider not holding consumer's account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provider of electronic fund transfer service.</I> A person that provides an electronic fund transfer service to a consumer but that does not hold the consumer's account is subject to all requirements of this part if the person: 
</P>
<P>(1) Issues a debit card (or other access device) that the consumer can use to access the consumer's account held by a financial institution; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Has no agreement with the account-holding institution regarding such access. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance by service provider.</I> In addition to the requirements generally applicable under this part, the service provider shall comply with the following special rules: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosures and documentation.</I> The service provider shall give the disclosures and documentation required by §§ 205.7, 205.8, and 205.9 that are within the purview of its relationship with the consumer. The service provider need not furnish the periodic statement required by § 205.9(b) if the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The debit card (or other access device) issued to the consumer bears the service provider's name and an address or telephone number for making inquiries or giving notice of error; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer receives a notice concerning use of the debit card that is substantially similar to the notice contained in appendix A of this part; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer receives, on or with the receipts required by § 205.9(a), the address and telephone number to be used for an inquiry, to give notice of an error, or to report the loss or theft of the debit card; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The service provider transmits to the account-holding institution the information specified in § 205.9(b)(1), in the format prescribed by the automated clearinghouse system used to clear the fund transfers; 
</P>
<P>(v) The service provider extends the time period for notice of loss or theft of a debit card, set forth in § 205.6(b) (1) and (2), from two business days to four business days after the consumer learns of the loss or theft; and extends the time periods for reporting unauthorized transfers or errors, set forth in §§ 205.6(b)(3) and 205.11(b)(1)(i), from 60 days to 90 days following the transmittal of a periodic statement by the account-holding institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Error resolution.</I> (i) The service provider shall extend by a reasonable time the period in which notice of an error must be received, specified in § 205.11(b)(1)(i), if a delay resulted from an initial attempt by the consumer to notify the account-holding institution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The service provider shall disclose to the consumer the date on which it initiates a transfer to effect a provisional credit in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(ii). 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the service provider determines an error occurred, it shall transfer funds to or from the consumer's account, in the appropriate amount and within the applicable time period, in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2)(i). 
</P>
<P>(iv) If funds were provisionally credited and the service provider determines no error occurred, it may reverse the credit. The service provider shall notify the account-holding institution of the period during which the account-holding institution must honor debits to the account in accordance with § 205.11(d)(2)(ii). If an overdraft results, the service provider shall promptly reimburse the account-holding institution in the amount of the overdraft. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance by account-holding institution.</I> The account-holding institution need not comply with the requirements of the act and this part with respect to electronic fund transfers initiated through the service provider except as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documentation.</I> The account-holding institution shall provide a periodic statement that describes each electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer with the access device issued by the service provider. The account-holding institution has no liability for the failure to comply with this requirement if the service provider did not provide the necessary information; and 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Error resolution.</I> Upon request, the account-holding institution shall provide information or copies of documents needed by the service provider to investigate errors or to furnish copies of documents to the consumer. The account-holding institution shall also honor debits to the account in accordance with § 205.11(d)(2)(ii). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.15" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.15   Electronic fund transfer of government benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government agency subject to regulation.</I> (1) A government agency is deemed to be a financial institution for purposes of the act and this part if directly or indirectly it issues an access device to a consumer for use in initiating an electronic fund transfer of government benefits from an account, other than needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency. The agency shall comply with all applicable requirements of the act and this part, except as provided in this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term <I>account</I> means an account established by a government agency for distributing government benefits to a consumer electronically, such as through automated teller machines or point-of-sale terminals, but does not include an account for distributing needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of access devices.</I> For purposes of this section, a consumer is deemed to request an access device when the consumer applies for government benefits that the agency disburses or will disburse by means of an electronic fund transfer. The agency shall verify the identity of the consumer receiving the device by reasonable means before the device is activated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative to periodic statement.</I> A government agency need not furnish the periodic statement required by § 205.9(b) if the agency makes available to the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's account balance, through a readily available telephone line and at a terminal (such as by providing balance information at a balance-inquiry terminal or providing it, routinely or upon request, on a terminal receipt at the time of an electronic fund transfer); and 
</P>
<P>(2) A written history of the consumer's account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 60 days preceding the date of a request by the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Modified requirements.</I> A government agency that does not furnish periodic statements, in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, shall comply with the following special rules: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> The agency shall modify the disclosures under § 205.7(b) by disclosing: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Account balance.</I> The means by which the consumer may obtain information concerning the account balance, including a telephone number. The agency provides a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written account history.</I> A summary of the consumer's right to receive a written account history upon request, in place of the periodic statement required by § 205.7(b)(6), and the telephone number to call to request an account history. This disclosure may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.7(b)(10). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual error resolution notice.</I> The agency shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-5 in appendix A, in place of the notice required by § 205.8(b). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations on liability.</I> For purposes of § 205.6(b)(3), regarding a 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer that appears on a periodic statement, the 60-day period shall begin with transmittal of a written account history or other account information provided to the consumer under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Error resolution.</I> The agency shall comply with the requirements of § 205.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received no later than 60 days after the consumer obtains the written account history or other account information, under paragraph (c) of this section, in which the error is first reflected. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 43469, Aug. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.16" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.16   Disclosures at automated teller machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition. Automated teller machine operator</I> means any person that operates an automated teller machine at which a consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry and that does not hold the account to or from which the transfer is made, or about which an inquiry is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> An automated teller machine operator that imposes a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide notice that a fee will be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or a balance inquiry; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose the amount of the fee. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice requirement.</I> To meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, an automated teller machine operator must comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>On the machine.</I> Post in a prominent and conspicuous location on or at the automated teller machine a notice that:
</P>
<P>(i) A fee will be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or for a balance inquiry; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A fee may be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or for a balance inquiry, but the notice in this paragraph (c)(1)(ii) may be substituted for the notice in paragraph (c)(1)(i) only if there are circumstances under which a fee will not be imposed for such services; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Screen or paper notice.</I> Provide the notice required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section either by showing it on the screen of the automated teller machine or by providing it on paper, before the consumer is committed to paying a fee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Temporary exemption.</I> Through December 31, 2004, the notice requirement in paragraph (c)(2) of this section does not apply to any automated teller machine that lacks the technical capability to provide such information. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Imposition of fee.</I> An automated teller machine operator may impose a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry only if 
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer is provided the notices required under paragraph (c) of this section, and 
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer elects to continue the transaction or inquiry after receiving such notices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 66 FR 13412, Mar. 6, 2001, as amended at 71 FR 1659, Jan. 10, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.17" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.17   Requirements for overdraft services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “overdraft service” means a service under which a financial institution assesses a fee or charge on a consumer's account held by the institution for paying a transaction (including a check or other item) when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the account. The term “overdraft service” does not include any payment of overdrafts pursuant to—
</P>
<P>(1) A line of credit subject to the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), including transfers from a credit card account, home equity line of credit, or overdraft line of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) A service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by a consumer, such as a savings account; or
</P>
<P>(3) A line of credit or other transaction exempt from the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) pursuant to 12 CFR 226.3(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a financial institution holding a consumer's account shall not assess a fee or charge on a consumer's account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, unless the institution:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer with a notice in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, segregated from all other information, describing the institution's overdraft service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtains the consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to the institution's payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the consumer with confirmation of the consumer's consent in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, which includes a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke such consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditioning payment of other overdrafts on consumer's affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution shall not:
</P>
<P>(i) Condition the payment of any overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the institution's payment of ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Decline to pay checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions that overdraw the consumer's account because the consumer has not affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Same account terms, conditions, and features.</I> A financial institution shall provide to consumers who do not affirmatively consent to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions the same account terms, conditions, and features that it provides to consumers who affirmatively consent, except for the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>Existing account holders.</I> For accounts opened prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution must not assess any fees or charges on a consumer's account on or after August 15, 2010 for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the overdraft service, unless the institution has complied with § 205.17(b)(1) and obtained the consumer's affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New account holders.</I> For accounts opened on or after July 1, 2010, the financial institution must comply with § 205.17(b)(1) and obtain the consumer's affirmative consent before the institution assesses any fee or charge on the consumer's account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and format.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be substantially similar to Model Form A-9 set forth in Appendix A of this part, include all applicable items in this paragraph, and may not contain any information not specified in or otherwise permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Overdraft service.</I> A brief description of the financial institution's overdraft service and the types of transactions for which a fee or charge for paying an overdraft may be imposed, including ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees imposed.</I> The dollar amount of any fees or charges assessed by the financial institution for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, including any daily or other overdraft fees. If the amount of the fee is determined on the basis of the number of times the consumer has overdrawn the account, the amount of the overdraft, or other factors, the institution must disclose the maximum fee that may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limits on fees charged.</I> The maximum number of overdraft fees or charges that may be assessed per day, or, if applicable, that there is no limit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure of opt-in right.</I> An explanation of the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to the financial institution's payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, including the methods by which the consumer may consent to the service; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alternative plans for covering overdrafts.</I> If the institution offers a line of credit subject to the Board's Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) or a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state that fact. An institution may, but is not required to, list additional alternatives for the payment of overdrafts.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Permitted modifications and additional content.</I> If applicable, the institution may modify the content required by § 205.17(d) to indicate that the consumer has the right to opt into, or opt out of, the payment of overdrafts under the institution's overdraft service for other types of transactions, such as checks, ACH transactions, or automatic bill payments; to provide a means for the consumer to exercise this choice; and to disclose the associated returned item fee and that additional merchant fees may apply. The institution may also disclose the consumer's right to revoke consent. For notices provided to consumers who have opened accounts prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution may describe the institution's overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card transactions with a statement such as “After August 15, 2010, we will not authorize and pay overdrafts for the following types of transactions unless you ask us to (see below).”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint relationships.</I> If two or more consumers jointly hold an account, the financial institution shall treat the affirmative consent of any of the joint consumers as affirmative consent for that account. Similarly, the financial institution shall treat a revocation of affirmative consent by any of the joint consumers as revocation of consent for that account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuing right to opt in or to revoke the opt-in.</I> A consumer may affirmatively consent to the financial institution's overdraft service at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. A consumer may also revoke consent at any time in the manner made available to the consumer for providing consent. A financial institution must implement a consumer's revocation of consent as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Duration and revocation of opt-in.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent to the institution's overdraft service is effective until revoked by the consumer, or unless the financial institution terminates the service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 74 FR 59052, Nov. 17, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 31671, June 4, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.18" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.18   Requirements for financial institutions offering payroll card accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> A financial institution shall comply with all applicable requirements of the act and this part with respect to payroll card accounts except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative to periodic statements.</I> (1) A financial institution need not furnish periodic statements required by § 205.9(b) if the institution makes available to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer's account balance, through a readily available telephone line;
</P>
<P>(ii) An electronic history of the consumer's account transactions, such as through an Internet Web site, that covers at least 60 days preceding the date the consumer electronically accesses the account; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A written history of the consumer's account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 60 days preceding the date the financial institution receives the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(2) The history of account transactions provided under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section must include the information set forth in § 205.9(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Modified requirements.</I> A financial institution that provides information under paragraph (b) of this section, shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> The financial institution shall modify the disclosures under § 205.7(b) by disclosing—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Account information.</I> A telephone number that the consumer may call to obtain the account balance, the means by which the consumer can obtain an electronic account history, such as the address of an Internet Web site, and a summary of the consumer's right to receive a written account history upon request (in place of the summary of the right to receive a periodic statement required by § 205.7(b)(6)), including a telephone number to call to request a history. The disclosure required by this paragraph (c)(1)(i) may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(a) in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(b) in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.7(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual error resolution notice.</I> The financial institution shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph A-7(b) in appendix A of this part, in place of the notice required by § 205.8(b). Alternatively, a financial institution may include on or with each electronic and written history provided in accordance with § 205.18(b)(1), a notice substantially similar to the abbreviated notice for periodic statements contained in paragraph A-3(b) in appendix A of this part, modified as necessary to reflect the error resolution provisions set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations on liability.</I> (i) For purposes of § 205.6(b)(3), the 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer shall begin on the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the transfer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section in which the unauthorized transfer is first reflected.
</P>
<P>(ii) A financial institution may comply with paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section by limiting the consumer's liability for an unauthorized transfer as provided under § 205.6(b)(3) for any transfer reported by the consumer within 120 days after the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Error resolution.</I> (i) The financial institution shall comply with the requirements of § 205.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the earlier of—
</P>
<P>(A) Sixty days after the date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the alleged error; or
</P>
<P>(B) Sixty days after the date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section in which the alleged error is first reflected.
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of following the procedures in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, a financial institution complies with the requirements for resolving errors in § 205.11 if it investigates any oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the institution within 120 days after the transfer allegedly in error was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 71 FR 51449, Aug. 30, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 205.20" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 205.20   Requirements for gift cards and gift certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, except as excluded under paragraph (b), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Gift certificate</I> means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount that may not be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Store gift card</I> means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>General-use prepaid card</I> means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Loyalty, award, or promotional gift card</I> means a card, code, or other device that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is redeemable upon presentation at one or more merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sets forth the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement indicating that the card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(B) The expiration date for the underlying funds, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of any fees that may be imposed in connection with the card, code, or other device, and the conditions under which they may be imposed, which must be provided on or with the card, code, or other device; and
</P>
<P>(D) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain fee information, which must be included on the card, code, or other device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dormancy or inactivity fee.</I> The terms “dormancy fee” and “inactivity fee” mean a fee for non-use of or inactivity on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Service fee.</I> The term “service fee” means a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Activity.</I> The term “activity” means any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a certificate or card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> The terms “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” and “general-use prepaid card”, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section, do not include any card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Useable solely for telephone services;
</P>
<P>(2) Reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the term “reloadable” includes a temporary non-reloadable card issued solely in connection with a reloadable card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(3) A loyalty, award, or promotional gift card;
</P>
<P>(4) Not marketed to the general public;
</P>
<P>(5) Issued in paper form only; or
</P>
<P>(6) Redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations, or to obtain goods or services in conjunction with admission to such events or venues, at the event or venue or at specific locations affiliated with and in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> Disclosures made under this section must be clear and conspicuous. The disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Format.</I> Disclosures made under this section generally must be provided to the consumer in written or electronic form. Except for the disclosures in paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2), written and electronic disclosures made under this section must be in a retainable form. Only disclosures provided under paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2) of this section may be given orally.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosures prior to purchase.</I> Before a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card is purchased, a person that issues or sells such certificate or card must disclose to the consumer the information required by paragraphs (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(1) of this section. The fees and terms and conditions of expiration that are required to be disclosed prior to purchase may not be changed after purchase.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures on the certificate or card.</I> Disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(4)(iii), (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2) of this section must be made on the certificate or card, or in the case of a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card, on the card, code, or other device. A disclosure made in an accompanying terms and conditions document, on packaging surrounding a certificate or card, or on a sticker or other label affixed to the certificate or card does not constitute a disclosure on the certificate or card. For an electronic certificate or card, disclosures must be provided electronically on the certificate or card provided to the consumer. An issuer that provides a code or confirmation to a consumer orally must provide to the consumer a written or electronic copy of the code or confirmation promptly, and the applicable disclosures must be provided on the written copy of the code or confirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on imposition of fees or charges.</I> No person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee with respect to a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) There has been no activity with respect to the certificate or card, in the one-year period ending on the date on which the fee is imposed;
</P>
<P>(2) The following are stated, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously on the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee that may be charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) How often such fee may be assessed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That such fee may be assessed for inactivity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is imposed in any given calendar month.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on sale of gift certificates or cards with expiration dates.</I> No person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The person has established policies and procedures to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date;
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date for the underlying funds is at least the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) Five years after the date the gift certificate was initially issued, or the date on which funds were last loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The certificate or card expiration date, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) The following disclosures are provided on the certificate or card, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration date for the underlying funds or, if the underlying funds do not expire, that fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site that a consumer may use to obtain a replacement certificate or card after the certificate or card expires if the underlying funds may be available; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Except where a non-reloadable certificate or card bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture, a statement, disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date, that:
</P>
<P>(A) The certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and;
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card; and
</P>
<P>(4) No fee or charge is imposed on the cardholder for replacing the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card or for providing the certificate or card holder with the remaining balance in some other manner prior to the funds expiration date, unless such certificate or card has been lost or stolen.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional disclosure requirements for gift certificates or cards.</I> The following disclosures must be provided in connection with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fee disclosures.</I> For each type of fee that may be imposed in connection with the certificate or card (other than a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee subject to the disclosure requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this section), the following information must be provided on or with the certificate or card:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of fee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the fee (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The conditions under which the fee may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telephone number for fee information.</I> A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain information about fees described in paragraphs (d)(2) and (f)(1) of this section must be disclosed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compliance dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date for gift certificates, store gift cards, and general-use prepaid cards.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h), the requirements of this section apply to any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010, or provided to a consumer as a replacement for such certificate or card. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.</I> The requirements in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) apply to any card, code, or other device provided to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program if the period of eligibility for such program began on or after August 22, 2010.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary exemption</I>—(1) <I>Delayed effective date.</I> For any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card produced prior to April 1, 2010, the effective date of the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) of this section is January 31, 2011, provided that an issuer of such certificate or card:
</P>
<P>(i) Complies with all other provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not impose an expiration date with respect to the funds underlying such certificate or card;
</P>
<P>(iii) At the consumer's request, replaces such certificate or card if it has funds remaining at no cost to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Satisfies the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional disclosures.</I> Issuers relying on the delayed effective date in § 205.20(h)(1) must disclose through in-store signage, messages during customer service calls, Web sites, and general advertising, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The underlying funds of such certificate or card do not expire;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consumers holding such certificate or card have a right to a free replacement certificate or card, which must be accompanied by the packaging and materials typically associated with such certificate or card; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee for such certificate or card that might otherwise be charged will not be charged if such fees do not comply with Section 915 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expiration of additional disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosures in paragraph (h)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2011, with respect to in-store signage and general advertising.
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2013, with respect to messages during customer service calls and Web sites.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 75 FR 16614, Apr. 1, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 50687, Aug. 17, 2010; 75 FR 66648, Oct. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.20.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 205—Model Disclosure Clauses and Forms
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-1—Model Clauses for unsolicited issuance (§ 205.5(b)(2))</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-2—Model clauses for initial disclosures (§ 205.7(b))</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-3—Model forms for error resolution notice (§§ 205.7(b)(10) and 205.8(b))</E> 
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-4—Model form for service-providing institutions (§ 205.14(b)(1)(ii))</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-5—Model forms for government agencies (§ 205.15(d)(1) and (2))</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="05">A-9 Model Consent Form for Overdraft Services (§ 205.17)</E>
</FP-2>
<HD1>A-1—Model Clauses For Unsolicited Issuance (§ 205.5(<E T="01">b</E>)(2))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Accounts using cards.</I> You cannot use the enclosed card to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the card, please (destroy it at once by cutting it in half). 
</P>
<P>[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounts using codes.</I> You cannot use the enclosed code to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the code, please (destroy this notice at once). 
</P>
<P>[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.] 
</P>
<HD1>A-2—Model Clauses For Initial Disclosures (§ 205.7(<E T="01">b</E>)) 
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer Liability (§ 205.7(b)(1)).</I>
</P>
<P>(Tell us AT ONCE if you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, or if you believe that an electronic fund transfer has been made without your permission using information from your check. Telephoning is the best way of keeping your possible losses down. You could lose all the money in your account (plus your maximum overdraft line of credit). If you tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], you can lose no more than $50 if someone used your [card][code] without your permission.)
</P>
<P>If you do NOT tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], and we can prove we could have stopped someone from using your [card] [code] without your permission if you had told us, you could lose as much as $500.
</P>
<P>Also, if your statement shows transfers that you did not make, including those made by card, code or other means, tell us at once. If you do not tell us within 60 days after the statement was mailed to you, you may not get back any money you lost after the 60 days if we can prove that we could have stopped someone from taking the money if you had told us in time. If a good reason (such as a long trip or a hospital stay) kept you from telling us, we will extend the time periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contact in event of unauthorized transfer (§ 205.7(b)(2)).</I> If you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, call: [Telephone number] or write: [Name of person or office to be notified] [Address]
</P>
<P>You should also call the number or write to the address listed above if you believe a transfer has been made using the information from your check without your permission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days (§ 205.7(b)(3)).</I> For purposes of these disclosures, our business days are (Monday through Friday) (Monday through Saturday) (any day including Saturdays and Sundays). Holidays are (not) included. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transfer types and limitations (§ 205.7(b)(4))</I>—(1) <I>Account access.</I> You may use your [card][code] to:
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraw cash from your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Make deposits to your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transfer funds between your checking and savings accounts whenever you request.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pay for purchases at places that have agreed to accept the [card] [code].
</P>
<P>(v) Pay bills directly [by telephone] from your [checking] [or] [savings] account in the amounts and on the days you request.
</P>
<P>Some of these services may not be available at all terminals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic check conversion.</I> You may authorize a merchant or other payee to make a one-time electronic payment from your checking account using information from your check to:
</P>
<P>(i) Pay for purchases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay bills.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations on frequency of transfers.</I> (i) You may make only [insert number, e.g., 3] cash withdrawals from our terminals each [insert time period, e.g., week].
</P>
<P>(ii) You can use your telephone bill-payment service to pay [insert number] bills each [insert time period] [telephone call].
</P>
<P>(iii) You can use our point-of-sale transfer service for [insert number] transactions each [insert time period].
</P>
<P>(iv) For security reasons, there are limits on the number of transfers you can make using our [terminals] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on dollar amounts of transfers.</I> (i) You may withdraw up to [insert dollar amount] from our terminals each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code].
</P>
<P>(ii) You may buy up to [insert dollar amount] worth of goods or services each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code] in our point-of-sale transfer service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees (§ 205.7(b)(5))</I>—(1) <I>Per transfer charge.</I> We will charge you [insert dollar amount] for each transfer you make using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service]. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fixed charge.</I> We will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [insert time period] for our [automated teller machine service] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service]. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Average or minimum balance charge.</I> We will only charge you for using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service] if the [average] [minimum] balance in your [checking account] [savings account] [accounts] falls below [insert dollar amount]. If it does, we will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [transfer] [insert time period]. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Confidentiality (§ 205.7(b)(9)).</I> We will disclose information to third parties about your account or the transfers you make: 
</P>
<P>(i) Where it is necessary for completing transfers, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In order to verify the existence and condition of your account for a third party, such as a credit bureau or merchant, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) In order to comply with government agency or court orders, or 
</P>
<P>(iv) If you give us your written permission. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation (§ 205.7(b)(6))</I>—(1) <I>Terminal transfers.</I> You can get a receipt at the time you make any transfer to or from your account using one of our [automated teller machines] [or] [point-of-sale terminals]. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preauthorized credits.</I> If you have arranged to have direct deposits made to your account at least once every 60 days from the same person or company, (we will let you know if the deposit is [not] made.) [the person or company making the deposit will tell you every time they send us the money] [you can call us at (insert telephone number) to find out whether or not the deposit has been made]. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic statements.</I> You will get a [monthly] [quarterly] account statement (unless there are no transfers in a particular month. In any case you will get the statement at least quarterly). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Passbook account where the only possible electronic fund transfers are preauthorized credits.</I> If you bring your passbook to us, we will record any electronic deposits that were made to your account since the last time you brought in your passbook. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Preauthorized payments (§ 205.7(b) (6), (7) and (8); § 205.10(d))</I>—(1) <I>Right to stop payment and procedure for doing so.</I> If you have told us in advance to make regular payments out of your account, you can stop any of these payments. Here's how: 
</P>
<P>Call us at [insert telephone number], or write us at [insert address], in time for us to receive your request 3 business days or more before the payment is scheduled to be made. If you call, we may also require you to put your request in writing and get it to us within 14 days after you call. (We will charge you [insert amount] for each stop-payment order you give.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of varying amounts.</I> If these regular payments may vary in amount, [we] [the person you are going to pay] will tell you, 10 days before each payment, when it will be made and how much it will be. (You may choose instead to get this notice only when the payment would differ by more than a certain amount from the previous payment, or when the amount would fall outside certain limits that you set.) 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liability for failure to stop payment of preauthorized transfer.</I> If you order us to stop one of these payments 3 business days or more before the transfer is scheduled, and we do not do so, we will be liable for your losses or damages. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial institution's liability (§ 205.7(b)(8)).</I> If we do not complete a transfer to or from your account on time or in the correct amount according to our agreement with you, we will be liable for your losses or damages. However, there are some exceptions. We will not be liable, for instance: 
</P>
<P>(1) If, through no fault of ours, you do not have enough money in your account to make the transfer. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the transfer would go over the credit limit on your overdraft line. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the automated teller machine where you are making the transfer does not have enough cash. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the [terminal] [system] was not working properly and you knew about the breakdown when you started the transfer. 
</P>
<P>(5) If circumstances beyond our control (such as fire or flood) prevent the transfer, despite reasonable precautions that we have taken. 
</P>
<P>(6) There may be other exceptions stated in our agreement with you. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>ATM fees (§ 205.7(b)(11)).</I> When you use an ATM not owned by us, you may be charged a fee by the ATM operator [or any network used] (and you may be charged a fee for a balance inquiry even if you do not complete a fund transfer). 
</P>
<HD1>A-3—Model Forms For Error Resolution Notice (§§ 205.7(<E T="01">b</E>)(10) and 205.8(<E T="01">b</E>))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Initial and annual error resolution notice (§§ 205.7(b)(10) and 205.8(b)).</I> 
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] Write us at [insert address] [or E-mail us at [insert electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer listed on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent the FIRST statement on which the problem or error appeared. 
</P>
<P>(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any). 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information. 
</P>
<P>(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error. 
</P>
<P>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days. 
</P>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account. 
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error. 
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation. You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Error resolution notice on periodic statements (§ 205.8(b)).</I>
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] or Write us at [insert address] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the FIRST statement on which the error or problem appeared.
</P>
<P>(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information.
</P>
<P>(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>We will investigate your complaint and will correct any error promptly. If we take more than 10 business days to do this, we will credit your account for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation.
</P>
<HD1>A-4—Model Form For Service-providing Institutions (§ 205.14(<E T="01">b</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>))
</HD1>
<P>ALL QUESTIONS ABOUT TRANSACTIONS MADE WITH YOUR (NAME OF CARD) CARD MUST BE DIRECTED TO US (NAME OF SERVICE PROVIDER), AND NOT TO THE BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION WHERE YOU HAVE YOUR ACCOUNT. We are responsible for the [name of service] service and for resolving any errors in transactions made with your [name of card] card. 
</P>
<P>We will not send you a periodic statement listing transactions that you make using your [name of card] card. The transactions will appear only on the statement issued by your bank or other financial institution. SAVE THE RECEIPTS YOU ARE GIVEN WHEN YOU USE YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD, AND CHECK THEM AGAINST THE ACCOUNT STATEMENT YOU RECEIVE FROM YOUR BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION. If you have any questions about one of these transactions, call or write us at [telephone number and address] [the telephone number and address indicated below]. 
</P>
<P>IF YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD IS LOST OR STOLEN, NOTIFY US AT ONCE by calling or writing to us at [telephone number and address]. 
</P>
<HD1>A-5—Model Forms For Government Agencies(§ 205.15(<E T="01">d</E>)(1) and (2)) 
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure by government agencies of information about obtaining account balances and account histories (§ 205.15(d)(1)(i) and (ii)).</I> 
</P>
<P>You may obtain information about the amount of benefits you have remaining by calling [telephone number]. That information is also available [on the receipt you get when you make a transfer with your card at (an ATM)(a POS terminal)][when you make a balance inquiry at an ATM][when you make a balance inquiry at specified locations]. 
</P>
<P>You also have the right to receive a written summary of transactions for the 60 days preceding your request by calling [telephone number]. [Optional: Or you may request the summary by contacting your caseworker.] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of error resolution procedures for government agencies that do not provide periodic statements (§ 205.15(d)(1)(iii) and (d)(2)).</I>
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [telephone number] Write us at [insert address] [or E-mail us at [insert electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your [EBT][agency's name for program] account. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after you learn of the error. You will need to tell us: 
</P>
<P>• Your name and [case] [file] number.
</P>
<P>• Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
</P>
<P>• Approximately when the error took place.
</P>
<FP>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
</FP>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation. You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
</P>
<P>If you need more information about our error resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number][the telephone number shown above].
</P>
<HD1>A-6 Model Clauses for Authorizing One-Time Electronic Fund Transfers Using Information From a Check (§ 205.3(<E T="01">b</E>)(2)) 
</HD1>
<HD2>(a)—Notice About Electronic Check Conversion
</HD2>
<P>When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us either to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account or to process the payment as a check transaction.
</P>
<HD2>(b)—Alternative Notice About Electronic Check Conversion (Optional)
</HD2>
<P>When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account. In certain circumstances, such as for technical or processing reasons, we may process your payment as a check transaction.
</P>
<P>[<I>Specify other circumstances (at payee's option).</I>]
</P>
<HD2>(c)—Notice For Providing Additional Information About Electronic Check Conversion
</HD2>
<P>When we use information from your check to make an electronic fund transfer, funds may be withdrawn from your account as soon as the same day [you make] [we receive] your payment[, and you will not receive your check back from your financial institution].
</P>
<HD1>A-7—Model Clauses for Financial Institutions Offering Payroll Card Accounts (§ 205.18(<E T="01">c</E>))
</HD1>
<HD2>(a)—Disclosure by financial institutions of information about obtaining account information for payroll card accounts. § 205.18(c)(1).
</HD2>
<P>You may obtain information about the amount of money you have remaining in your payroll card account by calling [telephone number]. This information, along with a 60-day history of account transactions, is also available on-line at [Internet address].
</P>
<P>You also have the right to obtain a 60-day written history of account transactions by calling [telephone number], or by writing us at [address].
</P>
<HD2>(b)—Disclosure of error-resolution procedures for financial institutions that provide alternative means of obtaining payroll card account information (§ 205.18(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2)).
</HD2>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Payroll Card Account Telephone us at [telephone number] or Write us at [address] [or E-mail us at [electronic mail address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your payroll card account. We must allow you to report an error until 60 days after the earlier of the date you electronically access your account, if the error could be viewed in your electronic history, or the date we sent the FIRST written history on which the error appeared. You may request a written history of your transactions at any time by calling us at [telephone number] or writing us at [address]. You will need to tell us:
</P>
<P>Your name and [payroll card account] number.
</P>
<P>Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
</P>
<P>Approximately when the error took place.
</P>
<P>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
</P>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation.
</P>
<P>You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
</P>
<P>If you need more information about our error-resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number] [the telephone number shown above] [or visit [Internet address]].
</P>
<HD1>A-8 Model Clause for Electronic Collection of Returned Item Fees (§ 205.3(<E T="01">b</E>)(3))
</HD1>
<P>If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/ name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee of [$____]. [If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/ name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee. The fee will be determined [by]/ [as follows]: [________________].]
</P>
<HD1>A-9 Model Consent Form for Overdraft Services (§ 205.17)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no09.010.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19669, May 2, 1996, as amended at 63 FR 52118, Sept. 29, 1998; 66 FR 13412, Mar. 6, 2001; 66 FR 17793, Apr. 4, 2001; 71 FR 1659, Jan. 10, 2006; 71 FR 51456, Aug. 30, 2006; 71 FR 69437, Dec. 1, 2006; 72 FR 51450, Aug. 30, 2006; 74 FR 59053, Nov. 17, 2009]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.20.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 205—Federal Enforcement Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The following list indicates which Federal agency enforces Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) for particular classes of institutions. Any questions concerning compliance by a particular institution should be directed to the appropriate enforcing agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101). 
</P>
<HD2>National banks, and Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks 
</HD2>
<P>District office of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency where the institution is located. 
</P>
<HD2>State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act 
</HD2>
<P>Federal Reserve Bank serving the District in which the institution is located. 
</P>
<HD2>Nonmember insured banks and insured state branches of foreign banks 
</HD2>
<P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation regional director for the region in which the institution is located. 
</P>
<HD2>Savings institutions insured under the Savings Association Insurance Fund of the FDIC and federally-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund of the FDIC (but not including state-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund) 
</HD2>
<P>Office of Thrift Supervision Regional Director for the region in which the institution is located. 
</P>
<HD2>Federal Credit Unions 
</HD2>
<P>Division of Consumer Affairs, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428 
</P>
<HD2>Air Carriers 
</HD2>
<P>Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, Department of Transportation, 400 Seventh Street, S.W., Washington, D.C. 20590. 
</P>
<HD2>Brokers and Dealers 
</HD2>
<P>Division of Market Regulation, Securities and Exchange Commission, Washington, D.C. 20549. 
</P>
<HD2>Retailers, Consumer Finance Companies, Certain Other Financial Institutions, and all others not covered above 
</HD2>
<P>Federal Trade Commission, Electronic Fund Transfers, Washington, D.C. 20580.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.20.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 205—Issuance of Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD1>Official Staff Interpretations 
</HD1>
<P>Pursuant to section 915(d) of the act, the Board has designated the director and other officials of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs as officials “duly authorized” to issue, at their discretion, official staff interpretations of this part. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically. 
</P>
<HD1>Requests for Issuance of Official Staff Interpretations 
</HD1>
<P>A request for an official staff interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Director, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, D.C. 20551. The request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents. 
</P>
<HD1>Scope of Interpretations 
</HD1>
<P>No staff interpretations will be issued approving financial institutions' forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency. 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.6.0.3.20.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 205—Official Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD1>Section 205.2—Definitions
</HD1>
<HD2>2(a) Access Device
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> The term access device includes debit cards, personal identification numbers (PINs), telephone transfer and telephone bill payment codes, and other means that may be used by a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer (EFT) to or from a consumer account. The term does not include magnetic tape or other devices used internally by a financial institution to initiate electronic transfers. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Checks used to capture information.</I> The term “access device” does not include a check or draft used to capture the MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) encoding to initiate a one-time ACH debit. For example, if a consumer authorizes a one-time ACH debit from the consumer's account using a blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed check for the merchant to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the debit, the check is not an access device. (Although the check is not an access device under Regulation E, the transaction is nonetheless covered by the regulation. See comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.) 
</P>
<HD2>2(b) Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consumer asset account.</I> The term consumer asset account includes: 
</P>
<P>i. Club accounts, such as vacation clubs. In many cases, however, these accounts are exempt from the regulation under § 205.3(c)(5) because all electronic transfers to or from the account have been preauthorized by the consumer and involve another account of the consumer at the same institution. 
</P>
<P>ii. A retail repurchase agreement (repo), which is a loan made to a financial institution by a consumer that is collateralized by government or government-insured securities. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Certain employment-related cards not covered.</I> The term “payroll card account” does not include a card used solely to disburse incentive-based payments (other than commissions which can represent the primary means through which a consumer is paid), such as bonuses, which are unlikely to be a consumer's primary source of salary or other compensation. The term also does not include a card used solely to make disbursements unrelated to compensation, such as petty cash reimbursements or travel per diem payments. Similarly, a payroll card account does not include a card that is used in isolated instances to which an employer typically does not make recurring payments, such as when providing final payments or in emergency situations when other payment methods are unavailable. However, all transactions involving the transfer of funds to or from a payroll card account are covered by the regulation, even if a particular transaction involves payment of a bonus, other incentive-based payment, or reimbursement, or the transaction does not represent a transfer of wages, salary, or other employee compensation.
</P>
<P>3. Examples of accounts not covered by Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) include: 
</P>
<P>i. Profit-sharing and pension accounts established under a trust agreement, which are exempt under § 205.2(b)(2). 
</P>
<P>ii. Escrow accounts, such as those established to ensure payment of items such as real estate taxes, insurance premiums, or completion of repairs or improvements. 
</P>
<P>iii. Accounts for accumulating funds to purchase U.S. savings bonds. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(b)(2) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Bona fide trust agreements.</I> The term bona fide trust agreement is not defined by the act or regulation; therefore, financial institutions must look to state or other applicable law for interpretation. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Custodial agreements.</I> An account held under a custodial agreement that qualifies as a trust under the Internal Revenue Code, such as an individual retirement account, is considered to be held under a trust agreement for purposes of Regulation E. 
</P>
<HD2>2(d) Business Day 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Duration.</I> A business day includes the entire 24-hour period ending at midnight, and a notice required by the regulation is effective even if given outside normal business hours. The regulation does not require, however, that a financial institution make telephone lines available on a 24-hour basis. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially all business functions.</I> “Substantially all business functions” include both the public and the back-office operations of the institution. For example, if the offices of an institution are open on Saturdays for handling some consumer transactions (such as deposits, withdrawals, and other teller transactions), but not for performing internal functions (such as investigating account errors), then Saturday is not a business day for that institution. In this case, Saturday does not count toward the business-day standard set by the regulation for reporting lost or stolen access devices, resolving errors, etc. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short hours.</I> A financial institution may determine, at its election, whether an abbreviated day is a business day. For example, if an institution engages in substantially all business functions until noon on Saturdays instead of its usual 3:00 p.m. closing, it may consider Saturday a business day. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Telephone line.</I> If a financial institution makes a telephone line available on Sundays for reporting the loss or theft of an access device, but performs no other business functions, Sunday is not a business day under the “substantially all business functions” standard. 
</P>
<HD2>2(h) Electronic Terminal
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Point-of-sale (POS) payments initiated by telephone.</I> Because the term electronic terminal excludes a telephone operated by a consumer, a financial institution need not provide a terminal receipt when: 
</P>
<P>i. A consumer uses a debit card at a public telephone to pay for the call. 
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer initiates a transfer by a means analogous in function to a telephone, such as by home banking equipment or a facsimile machine. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>POS terminals.</I> A POS terminal that captures data electronically, for debiting or crediting to a consumer's asset account, is an electronic terminal for purposes of Regulation E even if no access device is used to initiate the transaction. (See § 205.9 for receipt requirements.) 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Teller-operated terminals.</I> A terminal or other computer equipment operated by an employee of a financial institution is not an electronic terminal for purposes of the regulation. However, transfers initiated at such terminals by means of a consumer's access device (using the consumer's PIN, for example) are EFTs and are subject to other requirements of the regulation. If an access device is used only for identification purposes or for determining the account balance, the transfers are not EFTs for purposes of the regulation. 
</P>
<HD2>2(k) Preauthorized Electronic Fund Transfer 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Advance authorization.</I> A “preauthorized electronic fund transfer” under Regulation E is one authorized by the consumer in advance of a transfer that will take place on a recurring basis, at substantially regular intervals, and will require no further action by the consumer to initiate the transfer. In a bill-payment system, for example, if the consumer authorizes a financial institution to make monthly payments to a payee by means of EFTs, and the payments take place without further action by the consumer, the payments are preauthorized EFTs. In contrast, if the consumer must take action each month to initiate a payment (such as by entering instructions on a touch-tone telephone or home computer), the payments are not preauthorized EFTs. 
</P>
<HD2>2(m) Unauthorized Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transfer by institution's employee.</I> A consumer has no liability for erroneous or fraudulent transfers initiated by an employee of a financial institution. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authority.</I> If a consumer furnishes an access device and grants authority to make transfers to a person (such as a family member or co-worker) who exceeds the authority given, the consumer is fully liable for the transfers unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Access device obtained through robbery or fraud.</I> An unauthorized EFT includes a transfer initiated by a person who obtained the access device from the consumer through fraud or robbery. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Forced initiation.</I> An EFT at an automated teller machine (ATM) is an unauthorized transfer if the consumer has been induced by force to initiate the transfer. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reversal of direct deposits.</I> The reversal of a direct deposit made in error is not an unauthorized EFT when it involves: 
</P>
<P>i. A credit made to the wrong consumer's account; 
</P>
<P>ii. A duplicate credit made to a consumer's account; or 
</P>
<P>iii. A credit in the wrong amount (for example, when the amount credited to the consumer's account differs from the amount in the transmittal instructions). 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.3—Coverage
</HD1>
<HD2>3(a) General 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accounts covered.</I> The requirements of the regulation apply only to an account for which an agreement for EFT services to or from the account has been entered into between: 
</P>
<P>i. The consumer and the financial institution (including an account for which an access device has been issued to the consumer, for example); 
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer and a third party (for preauthorized debits or credits, for example), when the account-holding institution has received notice of the agreement and the fund transfers have begun. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated clearing house (ACH) membership.</I> The fact that membership in an ACH requires a financial institution to accept EFTs to accounts at the institution does not make every account of that institution subject to the regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation E applies to all persons (including branches and other offices of foreign banks located in the United States) that offer EFT services to residents of any state, including resident aliens. It covers any account located in the United States through which EFTs are offered to a resident of a state. This is the case whether or not a particular transfer takes place in the United States and whether or not the financial institution is chartered in the United States or a foreign country. The regulation does not apply to a foreign branch of a U.S. bank unless the EFT services are offered in connection with an account in a state as defined in § 205.2(l). 
</P>
<HD2>3(b) Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(1)—Definition 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fund transfers covered.</I> The term electronic fund transfer includes: 
</P>
<P>i. A deposit made at an ATM or other electronic terminal (including a deposit in cash or by check) provided a specific agreement exists between the financial institution and the consumer for EFTs to or from the account to which the deposit is made. 
</P>
<P>ii. A transfer sent via ACH. For example, social security benefits under the U.S. Treasury's direct-deposit program are covered, even if the listing of payees and payment amounts reaches the account-holding institution by means of a computer printout from a correspondent bank. 
</P>
<P>iii. A preauthorized transfer credited or debited to an account in accordance with instructions contained on magnetic tape, even if the financial institution holding the account sends or receives a composite check. 
</P>
<P>iv. A transfer from the consumer's account resulting from a debit-card transaction at a merchant location, even if no electronic terminal is involved at the time of the transaction, if the consumer's asset account is subsequently debited for the amount of the transfer. 
</P>
<P>v. A transfer via ACH where a consumer has provided a check to enable the merchant or other payee to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the transfer, whether the check is blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed; whether the check is presented at POS or is mailed to a merchant or other payee or lockbox and later converted to an EFT; or whether the check is retained by the consumer, the merchant or other payee, or the payee's financial institution. 
</P>
<P>vi. A payment made by a bill payer under a bill-payment service available to a consumer via computer or other electronic means, unless the terms of the bill-payment service explicitly state that all payments, or all payments to a particular payee or payees, will be solely by check, draft, or similar paper instrument drawn on the consumer's account, and the payee or payees that will be paid in this manner are identified to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fund transfers not covered.</I> The term electronic fund transfer does not include: 
</P>
<P>i. A payment that does not debit or credit a consumer asset account, such as a payroll allotment to a creditor to repay a credit extension (which is deducted from salary). 
</P>
<P>ii. A payment made in currency by a consumer to another person at an electronic terminal. 
</P>
<P>iii. A preauthorized check drawn by the financial institution on the consumer's account (such as an interest or other recurring payment to the consumer or another party), even if the check is computer-generated. 
</P>
<P>iv. Transactions arising from the electronic collection, presentment, or return of checks through the check collection system, such as through transmission of electronic check images.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(2)—Electronic Fund Transfer Using Information From a Check
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notice at POS not furnished due to inadvertent error.</I> If the copy of the notice under section 205.3(b)(2)(ii) for ECK transactions is not provided to the consumer at POS because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal printing mechanism jams, no violation results if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authorization to process a transaction as an EFT or as a check.</I> In order to process a transaction as an EFT or alternatively as a check, the payee must obtain the consumer's authorization to do so. A payee may, at its option, specify the circumstances under which a check may not be converted to an EFT. (See model clauses in Appendix A-6.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notice for each transfer.</I> Generally, a notice to authorize an electronic check conversion transaction must be provided for each transaction. For example, a consumer must receive a notice that the transaction will be processed as an EFT for each transaction at POS or each time a consumer mails a check in an accounts receivable (ARC) transaction to pay a bill, such as a utility bill, if the payee intends to convert a check received as payment. Similarly, the consumer must receive notice if the payee intends to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT for each transaction whether at POS or if the consumer mails a check to pay a bill. The notice about when funds may be debited from a consumer's account and the non-return of consumer checks by the consumer's financial institution must also be provided for each transaction. However, if in an ARC transaction, a payee provides a coupon book to a consumer, for example, for mortgage loan payments, and the payment dates and amounts are set out in the coupon book, the payee may provide a single notice on the coupon book stating all of the required disclosures under paragraph (b)(2) of this section in order to obtain authorization for each conversion of a check and any debits via EFT to the consumer's account to collect any service fees imposed by the payee for insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer's account. The notice must be placed on a conspicuous location of the coupon book that a consumer can retain—for example, on the first page, or inside the front cover.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple payments/multiple consumers.</I> If a merchant or other payee will use information from a consumer's check to initiate an EFT from the consumer's account, notice to a consumer listed on the billing account that a check provided as payment during a single billing cycle or after receiving an invoice or statement will be processed as a one-time EFT or as a check transaction constitutes notice for all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or the invoice for which notice has been provided, whether the check(s) is submitted by the consumer or someone else. The notice applies to all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or invoice until the provision of notice on or with the next invoice or statement. Thus, if a merchant or other payee receives a check as payment for the consumer listed on the billing account after providing notice that the check will be processed as a one-time EFT, the authorization from that consumer constitutes authorization to convert any other checks provided for that invoice or statement. Other notices required under this paragraph (b)(2) (for example, to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT) provided to the consumer listed on the billing account also constitutes notice to any other consumer who may provide a check for the billing cycle or invoice.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional disclosures about ECK transactions at POS.</I> When a payee initiates an EFT at POS using information from the consumer's check, and returns the check to the consumer at POS, the payee need not provide a notice to the consumer that the check will not be returned by the consumer's financial institution.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(3)—Collection of Returned Item Fees via Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed by account-holding institution.</I> The requirement to obtain a consumer's authorization to collect a fee via EFT for the return of an EFT or check unpaid applies only to the person that intends to initiate an EFT to collect the returned item fee from the consumer's account. The authorization requirement does not apply to any fees assessed by the consumer's account-holding financial institution when it returns the unpaid underlying EFT or check or pays the amount of an overdraft.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Accounts receivable transactions.</I> In an accounts receivable (ARC) transaction where a consumer sends in a payment for amounts owed (or makes an in-person payment at a biller's physical location, such as when a consumer makes a loan payment at a bank branch or places a payment in a dropbox), a person seeking to electronically collect a fee for items returned unpaid must obtain the consumer's authorization to collect the fee in this manner. A consumer authorizes a person to electronically collect a returned item fee when the consumer receives notice, typically on an invoice or statement, that the person may collect the fee through an EFT to the consumer's account, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction by providing payment. The notice must also state the dollar amount of the fee. However, an explanation of how that fee will be determined may be provided in place of the dollar amount of the fee if the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, such as the number of days the underlying transaction is left outstanding. For example, if a state law permits a maximum fee of $30 or 10% of the underlying transaction, whichever is greater, the person collecting the fee may explain how the fee is determined, rather than state a specific dollar amount for the fee.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of dollar amount of fee for POS transactions.</I> The notice provided to the consumer in connection with a POS transaction under § 205.3(b)(3)(ii) must state the amount of the fee for a returned item if the dollar amount of the fee can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed. For example, if notice is provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction, if the applicable state law sets a maximum fee that may be collected for a returned item based on the amount of the underlying transaction (such as where the amount of the fee is expressed as a percentage of the underlying transaction), the person collecting the fee must state the actual dollar amount of the fee on the notice provided to the consumer. Alternatively, if the amount of the fee to be collected cannot be calculated at the time of the transaction (for example, where the amount of the fee will depend on the number of days a debt continues to be owed), the person collecting the fee may provide a description of how the fee will be determined on both the posted notice as well as on the notice provided at the time of the transaction. However, if the person collecting the fee elects to send the consumer notice after the person has initiated an EFT to collect the fee, that notice must state the amount of the fee to be collected.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Third party providing notice.</I> The person initiating an EFT to a consumer's account to electronically collect a fee for an item returned unpaid may obtain the authorization and provide the notices required under § 205.3(b)(3) through third parties, such as merchants.
</P>
<HD2>3(c) Exclusions From Coverage 
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(1)—Checks 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Re-presented checks.</I> The electronic re-presentment of a returned check is not covered by Regulation E because the transaction originated by check. Regulation E does apply, however, to any fee debited via an EFT from a consumer's account by the payee because the check was returned for insufficient or uncollected funds. The person debiting the fee electronically must obtain the consumer's authorization.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Check used to capture information for a one-time EFT.</I> See comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(2)—Check Guarantee or Authorization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Memo posting.</I> Under a check guarantee or check authorization service, debiting of the consumer's account occurs when the check or draft is presented for payment. These services are exempt from coverage, even when a temporary hold on the account is memo-posted electronically at the time of authorization. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(3)—Wire or Other Similar Transfers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fedwire and ACH.</I> If a financial institution makes a fund transfer to a consumer's account after receiving funds through Fedwire or a similar network, the transfer by ACH is covered by the regulation even though the Fedwire or network transfer is exempt. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Article 4A.</I> Financial institutions that offer telephone-initiated Fedwire payments are subject to the requirements of UCC section 4A-202, which encourages verification of Fedwire payment orders pursuant to a security procedure established by agreement between the consumer and the receiving bank. These transfers are not subject to Regulation E and the agreement is not considered a telephone plan if the service is offered separately from a telephone bill-payment or other prearranged plan subject to Regulation E. The Board's Regulation J (12 CFR part 210) specifies the rules applicable to funds handled by Federal Reserve Banks. To ensure that the rules for all fund transfers through Fedwire are consistent, the Board used its preemptive authority under UCC section 4A-107 to determine that subpart B of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), including the provisions of Article 4A, applies to all fund transfers through Fedwire, even if a portion of the fund transfer is governed by the EFTA. The portion of the fund transfer that is governed by the EFTA is not governed by subpart B of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Similar fund transfer systems.</I> Fund transfer systems that are similar to Fedwire include the Clearing House Interbank Payments System (CHIPS), Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT), Telex, and transfers made on the books of correspondent banks. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(4)—Securities and Commodities Transfers 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The securities exemption applies to securities and commodities that may be sold by a registered broker-dealer or futures commission merchant, even when the security or commodity itself is not regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example of exempt transfer.</I> The exemption applies to a transfer involving a transfer initiated by a telephone order to a stockbroker to buy or sell securities or to exercise a margin call. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of nonexempt transfers.</I> The exemption does not apply to a transfer involving: 
</P>
<P>i. A debit card or other access device that accesses a securities or commodities account such as a money market mutual fund and that the consumer uses for purchasing goods or services or for obtaining cash. 
</P>
<P>ii. A payment of interest or dividends into the consumer's account (for example, from a brokerage firm or from a Federal Reserve Bank for government securities). 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(5)—Automatic Transfers by Account-Holding Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Automatic transfers exempted.</I> The exemption applies to: 
</P>
<P>i. Electronic debits or credits to consumer accounts for check charges, stop-payment charges, NSF charges, overdraft charges, provisional credits, error adjustments, and similar items that are initiated automatically on the occurrence of certain events. 
</P>
<P>ii. Debits to consumer accounts for group insurance available only through the financial institution and payable only by means of an aggregate payment from the institution to the insurer. 
</P>
<P>iii. EFTs between a thrift institution and its paired commercial bank in the state of Rhode Island, which are deemed under state law to be intra-institutional. 
</P>
<P>iv. Automatic transfers between a consumer's accounts within the same financial institution, even if the account holders on the two accounts are not identical. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automatic transfers not exempted.</I> Transfers between accounts of the consumer at affiliated institutions (such as between a bank and its subsidiary or within a holding company) are not intra-institutional transfers, and thus do not qualify for the exemption. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(6)—Telephone-Initiated Transfers 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written plan or agreement.</I> A transfer that the consumer initiates by telephone is covered by Regulation E if the transfer is made under a written plan or agreement between the consumer and the financial institution making the transfer. A written statement available to the public or to account holders that describes a service allowing a consumer to initiate transfers by telephone constitutes a plan—for example, a brochure, or material included with periodic statements. The following, however, do not by themselves constitute a written plan or agreement:
</P>
<P>i. A hold-harmless agreement on a signature card that protects the institution if the consumer requests a transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. A legend on a signature card, periodic statement, or passbook that limits the number of telephone-initiated transfers the consumer can make from a savings account because of reserve requirements under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204).
</P>
<P>iii. An agreement permitting the consumer to approve by telephone the rollover of funds at the maturity of an instrument. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of covered transfers.</I> When a written plan or agreement has been entered into, a transfer initiated by a telephone call from a consumer is covered even though: 
</P>
<P>i. An employee of the financial institution completes the transfer manually (for example, by means of a debit memo or deposit slip). 
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer is required to make a separate request for each transfer. 
</P>
<P>iii. The consumer uses the plan infrequently. 
</P>
<P>iv. The consumer initiates the transfer via a facsimile machine. 
</P>
<P>v. The consumer initiates the transfer using a financial institution's audio-response or voice-response telephone system. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(7)—Small Institutions 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption is limited to preauthorized transfers; institutions that offer other EFTs must comply with the applicable sections of the regulation as to such services. The preauthorized transfers remain subject to sections 913, 915, and 916 of the act and § 205.10(e), and are therefore exempt from UCC Article 4A. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.4—General Disclosure Requirements; Jointly Offered Services
</HD1>
<HD2>4(a) Form of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Although no particular rules govern type size, number of pages, or the relative conspicuousness of various terms, the disclosures must be in a clear and readily understandable written form that the consumer may retain. Numbers or codes are considered readily understandable if explained elsewhere on the disclosure form. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.5—Issuance of Access Devices
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The provisions of this section limit the circumstances under which a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer. Making an additional account accessible through an existing access device is equivalent to issuing an access device and is subject to the limitations of this section. 
</P>
<HD2>5(a) Solicited Issuance 
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(1) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Joint account.</I> For a joint account, a financial institution may issue an access device to each account holder if the requesting holder specifically authorizes the issuance. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible forms of request.</I> The request for an access device may be written or oral (for example, in response to a telephone solicitation by a card issuer). 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(2) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>One-for-one rule.</I> In issuing a renewal or substitute access device, only one renewal or substitute device may replace a previously issued device. For example, only one new card and PIN may replace a card and PIN previously issued. A financial institution may provide additional devices at the time it issues the renewal or substitute access device, however, provided the institution complies with § 205.5(b). (See comment 5(b)-5.) If the replacement device or the additional device permits either fewer or additional types of electronic fund transfer services, a change-in-terms notice or new disclosures are required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewal or substitution by a successor institution.</I> A successor institution is an entity that replaces the original financial institution (for example, following a corporate merger or acquisition) or that acquires accounts or assumes the operation of an EFT system. 
</P>
<HD2>5(b) Unsolicited Issuance
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Compliance.</I> A financial institution may issue an unsolicited access device (such as the combination of a debit card and PIN) if the institution's ATM system has been programmed not to accept the access device until after the consumer requests and the institution validates the device. Merely instructing a consumer not to use an unsolicited debit card and PIN until after the institution verifies the consumer's identity does not comply with the regulation. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>PINS.</I> A financial institution may impose no liability on a consumer for unauthorized transfers involving an unsolicited access device until the device becomes an “accepted access device” under the regulation. A card and PIN combination may be treated as an accepted access device once the consumer has used it to make a transfer. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Functions of PIN.</I> If an institution issues a PIN at the consumer's request, the issuance may constitute both a way of validating the debit card and the means to identify the consumer (required as a condition of imposing liability for unauthorized transfers). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Verification of identity.</I> To verify the consumer's identity, a financial institution may use any reasonable means, such as a photograph, fingerprint, personal visit, signature comparison, or personal information about the consumer. However, even if reasonable means were used, if an institution fails to verify correctly the consumer's identity and an imposter succeeds in having the device validated, the consumer is not liable for any unauthorized transfers from the account. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional access devices in a renewal or substitution.</I> A financial institution may issue more than one access device in connection with the renewal or substitution of a previously issued accepted access device, provided that any additional access device (beyond the device replacing the accepted access device) is not validated at the time it is issued, and the institution complies with the other requirements of § 205.5(b). The institution may, if it chooses, set up the validation procedure such that both the device replacing the previously issued device and the additional device are not validated at the time they are issued, and validation will apply to both devices. If the institution sets up the validation procedure in this way, the institution should provide a clear and readily understandable disclosure to the consumer that both devices are unvalidated and that validation will apply to both devices.
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.6—Liability of Consumer for Unauthorized Transfers
</HD1>
<HD2>6(a) Conditions for Liability
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Means of identification.</I> A financial institution may use various means for identifying the consumer to whom the access device is issued, including but not limited to: 
</P>
<P>i. Electronic or mechanical confirmation (such as a PIN). 
</P>
<P>ii. Comparison of the consumer's signature, fingerprint, or photograph. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple users.</I> When more than one access device is issued for an account, the financial institution may, but need not, provide a separate means to identify each user of the account. 
</P>
<HD2>6(b) Limitations on Amount of Liability
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of liability provisions.</I> There are three possible tiers of consumer liability for unauthorized EFTs depending on the situation. A consumer may be liable for (1) up to $50; (2) up to $500; or (3) an unlimited amount depending on when the unauthorized EFT occurs. More than one tier may apply to a given situation because each corresponds to a different (sometimes overlapping) time period or set of conditions. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer negligence.</I> Negligence by the consumer cannot be used as the basis for imposing greater liability than is permissible under Regulation E. Thus, consumer behavior that may constitute negligence under state law, such as writing the PIN on a debit card or on a piece of paper kept with the card, does not affect the consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers. (However, refer to comment 2(m)-2 regarding termination of the authority of given by the consumer to another person.) 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limits on liability.</I> The extent of the consumer's liability is determined solely by the consumer's promptness in reporting the loss or theft of an access device. Similarly, no agreement between the consumer and an institution may impose greater liability on the consumer for an unauthorized transfer than the limits provided in Regulation E. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(1)—Timely Notice Given
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>$50 limit applies.</I> The basic liability limit is $50. For example, the consumer's card is lost or stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the loss or theft on Wednesday. If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft (by midnight Friday), the consumer's liability is limited to $50 or the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurred before notification, whichever is less. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Knowledge of loss or theft of access device.</I> The fact that a consumer has received a periodic statement that reflects unauthorized transfers may be a factor in determining whether the consumer had knowledge of the loss or theft, but cannot be deemed to represent conclusive evidence that the consumer had such knowledge. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Two-business-day rule.</I> The two-business-day period does not include the day the consumer learns of the loss or theft or any day that is not a business day. The rule is calculated based on two 24-hour periods, without regard to the financial institution's business hours or the time of day that the consumer learns of the loss or theft. For example, a consumer learns of the loss or theft at 6 p.m. on Friday. Assuming that Saturday is a business day and Sunday is not, the two-business-day period begins on Saturday and expires at 11:59 p.m. on Monday, not at the end of the financial institution's business day on Monday. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(2)—Timely Notice Not Given 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>$500 limit applies.</I> The second tier of liability is $500. For example, the consumer's card is stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the theft that same day. The consumer reports the theft on Friday. The $500 limit applies because the consumer failed to notify the financial institution within two business days of learning of the theft (which would have been by midnight Wednesday). How much the consumer is actually liable for, however, depends on when the unauthorized transfers take place. In this example, assume a $100 unauthorized transfer was made on Tuesday and a $600 unauthorized transfer on Thursday. Because the consumer is liable for the amount of the loss that occurs within the first two business days (but no more than $50), plus the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurs after the first two business days and before the consumer gives notice, the consumer's total liability is $500 ($50 of the $100 transfer plus $450 of the $600 transfer, in this example). But if $600 was taken on Tuesday and $100 on Thursday, the consumer's maximum liability would be $150 ($50 of the $600 plus $100). 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)—Periodic Statement; Timely Notice Not Given
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Unlimited liability applies.</I> The standard of unlimited liability applies if unauthorized transfers appear on a periodic statement, and may apply in conjunction with the first two tiers of liability. If a periodic statement shows an unauthorized transfer made with a lost or stolen debit card, the consumer must notify the financial institution within 60 calendar days after the periodic statement was sent; otherwise, the consumer faces unlimited liability for all unauthorized transfers made after the 60-day period. The consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers before the statement is sent, and up to 60 days following, is determined based on the first two tiers of liability: up to $50 if the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft of the card and up to $500 if the consumer notifies the institution after two business days of learning of the loss or theft. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfers not involving access device.</I> The first two tiers of liability do not apply to unauthorized transfers from a consumer's account made without an access device. If, however, the consumer fails to report such unauthorized transfers within 60 calendar days of the financial institution's transmittal of the periodic statement, the consumer may be liable for any transfers occurring after the close of the 60 days and before notice is given to the institution. For example, a consumer's account is electronically debited for $200 without the consumer's authorization and by means other than the consumer's access device. If the consumer notifies the institution within 60 days of the transmittal of the periodic statement that shows the unauthorized transfer, the consumer has no liability. However, if in addition to the $200, the consumer's account is debited for a $400 unauthorized transfer on the 61st day and the consumer fails to notify the institution of the first unauthorized transfer until the 62nd day, the consumer may be liable for the full $400. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(4)—Extension of Time Limits
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Extenuating circumstances.</I> Examples of circumstances that require extension of the notification periods under this section include the consumer's extended travel or hospitalization. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(5)—Notice to Financial Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of notice.</I> A financial institution is considered to have received notice for purposes of limiting the consumer's liability if notice is given in a reasonable manner, even if the consumer notifies the institution but uses an address or telephone number other than the one specified by the institution. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice by third party.</I> Notice to a financial institution by a person acting on the consumer's behalf is considered valid under this section. For example, if a consumer is hospitalized and unable to report the loss or theft of an access device, notice is considered given when someone acting on the consumer's behalf notifies the bank of the loss or theft. A financial institution may require appropriate documentation from the person representing the consumer to establish that the person is acting on the consumer's behalf. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content of notice.</I> Notice to a financial institution is considered given when a consumer takes reasonable steps to provide the institution with the pertinent account information. Even when the consumer is unable to provide the account number or the card number in reporting a lost or stolen access device or an unauthorized transfer, the notice effectively limits the consumer's liability if the consumer otherwise identifies sufficiently the account in question. For example, the consumer may identify the account by the name on the account and the type of account in question. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.7—Initial Disclosures
</HD1>
<HD2>7(a) Timing of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Early disclosures.</I> Disclosures given by a financial institution earlier than the regulation requires (for example, when the consumer opens a checking account) need not be repeated when the consumer later enters into an agreement with a third party to initiate preauthorized transfers to or from the consumer's account, unless the terms and conditions differ from those that the institution previously disclosed. This interpretation also applies to any notice provided about one-time EFTs from a consumer's account initiated using information from the consumer's check. On the other hand, if an agreement for EFT services to be provided by an account-holding institution is directly between the consumer and the account-holding institution, disclosures must be given in close proximity to the event requiring disclosure, for example, when the consumer contracts for a new service.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lack of advance notice of a transfer.</I> Where a consumer authorizes a third party to debit or credit the consumer's account, an account-holding institution that has not received advance notice of the transfer or transfers must provide the required disclosures as soon as reasonably possible after the first debit or credit is made, unless the institution has previously given the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Addition of new accounts.</I> If a consumer opens a new account permitting EFTs at a financial institution, and the consumer already has received Regulation E disclosures for another account at that institution, the institution need only disclose terms and conditions that differ from those previously given. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Addition of service in interchange systems.</I> If a financial institution joins an interchange or shared network system (which provides access to terminals operated by other institutions), disclosures are required for additional EFT services not previously available to consumers if the terms and conditions differ from those previously disclosed. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Disclosures covering all EFT services offered.</I> An institution may provide disclosures covering all EFT services that it offers, even if some consumers have not arranged to use all services. 
</P>
<HD2>7(b) Content of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(1)—Liability of Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>No liability imposed by financial institution.</I> If a financial institution chooses to impose zero liability for unauthorized EFTs, it need not provide the liability disclosures. If the institution later decides to impose liability, however, it must first provide the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preauthorized transfers.</I> If the only EFTs from an account are preauthorized transfers, liability could arise if the consumer fails to report unauthorized transfers reflected on a periodic statement. To impose such liability on the consumer, the institution must have disclosed the potential liability and the telephone number and address for reporting unauthorized transfers. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional information.</I> At the institution's option, the summary of the consumer's liability may include advice on promptly reporting unauthorized transfers or the loss or theft of the access device. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(2)—Telephone Number and Address
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of telephone numbers.</I> An institution may use the same or different telephone numbers in the disclosures for the purpose of: 
</P>
<P>i. Reporting the loss or theft of an access device or possible unauthorized transfers; 
</P>
<P>ii. Inquiring about the receipt of a preauthorized credit; 
</P>
<P>iii. Stopping payment of a preauthorized debit; 
</P>
<P>iv. Giving notice of an error. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Location of telephone number.</I> The telephone number need not be incorporated into the text of the disclosure; for example, the institution may instead insert a reference to a telephone number that is readily available to the consumer, such as “Call your branch office. The number is shown on your periodic statement.” However, an institution must provide a specific telephone number and address, on or with the disclosure statement, for reporting a lost or stolen access device or a possible unauthorized transfer. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(4)—Types of Transfers; Limitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Security limitations.</I> Information about limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers generally must be disclosed in detail, even if related to security aspects of the system. If the confidentiality of certain details is essential to the security of an account or system, these details may be withheld (but the fact that limitations exist must still be disclosed). For example, an institution limits cash ATM withdrawals to $100 per day. The institution may disclose that daily withdrawal limitations apply and need not disclose that the limitations may not always be in force (such as during periods when its ATMs are off-line). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Restrictions on certain deposit accounts.</I> A limitation on account activity that restricts the consumer's ability to make EFTs must be disclosed even if the restriction also applies to transfers made by nonelectronic means. For example, Regulation D (12 CFR Part 204) restricts the number of payments to third parties that may be made from a money market deposit account; an institution that does not execute fund transfers in excess of those limits must disclose the restriction as a limitation on the frequency of EFTs. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Preauthorized transfers.</I> Financial institutions are not required to list preauthorized transfers among the types of transfers that a consumer can make. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>One-time EFTs initiated using information from a check.</I> Financial institutions must disclose the fact that one-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer's check are among the types of transfers that a consumer can make. (See Appendix A-2.) 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(5)—Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of EFT fees.</I> An institution is required to disclose all fees for EFTs or the right to make them. Others fees (for example, minimum-balance fees, stop-payment fees, or account overdrafts) may, but need not, be disclosed (but see Regulation DD, 12 CFR Part 230. An institution is not required to disclose fees for inquiries made at an ATM since no transfer of funds is involved. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees also applicable to non-EFT.</I> A per-item fee for EFTs must be disclosed even if the same fee is imposed on nonelectronic transfers. If a per-item fee is imposed only under certain conditions, such as when the transactions in the cycle exceed a certain number, those conditions must be disclosed. Itemization of the various fees may be provided on the disclosure statement or on an accompanying document that is referenced in the statement. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interchange system fees.</I> Fees paid by the account-holding institution to the operator of a shared or interchange ATM system need not be disclosed, unless they are imposed on the consumer by the account-holding institution. Fees for use of an ATM that are debited directly from the consumer's account by an institution other than the account-holding institution (for example, fees included in the transfer amount) need not be disclosed. (See § 205.7(b)(11) for the general notice requirement regarding fees that may be imposed by ATM operators and by a network used to complete the transfer.) 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(9)—Confidentiality
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information provided to third parties.</I> An institution must describe the circumstances under which any information relating to an account to or from which EFTs are permitted will be made available to third parties, not just information concerning those EFTs. The term “third parties” includes affiliates such as other subsidiaries of the same holding company. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(10)—Error Resolution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantially similar.</I> The error resolution notice must be substantially similar to the model form in appendix A of part 205. An institution may use different wording so long as the substance of the notice remains the same, may delete inapplicable provisions (for example, the requirement for written confirmation of an oral notification), and may substitute substantive state law requirements affording greater consumer protection than Regulation E. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extended time-period for certain transactions.</I> To take advantage of the longer time periods for resolving errors under § 205.11(c)(3) (for new accounts as defined in Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), transfers initiated outside the United States, or transfers resulting from POS debit-card transactions), a financial institution must have disclosed these longer time periods. Similarly, an institution that relies on the exception from provisional crediting in § 205.11(c)(2) for accounts subject to Regulation T (12 CFR part 220) must have disclosed accordingly. 
</P>
<HD2>7(c) Addition of Electronic Fund Transfer Services
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Addition of electronic check conversion services.</I> One-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer's check are a new type of transfer requiring new disclosures, as applicable. (See Appendix A-2.) 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.8—Change-in-Terms Notice; Error Resolution Notice
</HD1>
<HD2>8(a) Change-in-Terms Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of notice.</I> No specific form or wording is required for a change-in-terms notice. The notice may appear on a periodic statement, or may be given by sending a copy of a revised disclosure statement, provided attention is directed to the change (for example, in a cover letter referencing the changed term). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following changes do not require disclosure: 
</P>
<P>i. Closing some of an institution's ATMs; 
</P>
<P>ii. Cancellation of an access device. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limitations on transfers.</I> When the initial disclosures omit details about limitations because secrecy is essential to the security of the account or system, a subsequent increase in those limitations need not be disclosed if secrecy is still essential. If, however, an institution had no limits in place when the initial disclosures were given and now wishes to impose limits for the first time, it must disclose at least the fact that limits have been adopted. (See also § 205.7(b)(4) and the related commentary.) 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Change in telephone number or address.</I> When a financial institution changes the telephone number or address used for reporting possible unauthorized transfers, a change-in-terms notice is required only if the institution will impose liability on the consumer for unauthorized transfers under § 205.6. (See also § 205.6(a) and the related commentary.) 
</P>
<HD2>8(b) Error Resolution Notice 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Change between annual and periodic notice.</I> If an institution switches from an annual to a periodic notice, or vice versa, the first notice under the new method must be sent no later than 12 months after the last notice sent under the old method. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception for new accounts.</I> For new accounts, disclosure of the longer error resolution time periods under § 205.11(c)(3) is not required in the annual error resolution notice or in the notice that may be provided with each periodic statement as an alternative to the annual notice. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.9—Receipts at Electronic Terminals; Periodic Statements
</HD1>
<HD2>9(a) Receipts at Electronic Terminals
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Receipts furnished only on request.</I> The regulation requires that a receipt be “made available.” A financial institution may program its electronic terminals to provide a receipt only to consumers who elect to receive one. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Third party providing receipt.</I> An account-holding institution may make terminal receipts available through third parties such as merchants or other financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Inclusion of promotional material.</I> A financial institution may include promotional material on receipts if the required information is set forth clearly (for example, by separating it from the promotional material). In addition, a consumer may not be required to surrender the receipt or that portion containing the required disclosures in order to take advantage of a promotion. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transfer not completed.</I> The receipt requirement does not apply to a transfer that is initiated but not completed (for example, if the ATM is out of currency or the consumer decides not to complete the transfer). 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Receipts not furnished due to inadvertent error.</I> If a receipt is not provided to the consumer because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal runs out of paper or the mechanism jams, no violation results if the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple transfers.</I> If the consumer makes multiple transfers at the same time, the financial institution may document them on a single or on separate receipts. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(1)—Amount
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of transaction fee.</I> The required display of a fee amount on or at the terminal may be accomplished by displaying the fee on a sign at the terminal or on the terminal screen for a reasonable duration. Displaying the fee on a screen provides adequate notice, as long as a consumer is given the option to cancel the transaction after receiving notice of a fee. (See § 205.16 for the notice requirements applicable to ATM operators that impose a fee for providing EFT services.) 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship between § 205.9(a)(1) and § 205.16.</I> The requirements of §§ 205.9(a)(1) and 205.16 are similar but not identical. 
</P>
<P>i. Section 205.9(a)(1) requires that if the amount of the transfer as shown on the receipt will include the fee, then the fee must be disclosed either on a sign on or at the terminal, or on the terminal screen. Section 205.16 requires disclosure both on a sign on or at the terminal (in a prominent and conspicuous location) and on the terminal screen. Section 205.16 permits disclosure on a paper notice as an alternative to the on-screen disclosure. 
</P>
<P>ii. The disclosure of the fee on the receipt under § 205.9(a)(1) cannot be used to comply with the alternative paper disclosure procedure under § 205.16, if the receipt is provided at the completion of the transaction because, pursuant to the statute, the paper notice must be provided before the consumer is committed to paying the fee. 
</P>
<P>iii. Section 205.9(a)(1) applies to any type of electronic terminal as defined in Regulation E (for example, to POS terminals as well as to ATMs), while § 205.16 applies only to ATMs. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(2)—Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Calendar date.</I> The receipt must disclose the calendar date on which the consumer uses the electronic terminal. An accounting or business date may be disclosed in addition if the dates are clearly distinguished. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(3)—Type
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identifying transfer and account.</I> Examples identifying the type of transfer and the type of the consumer's account include “withdrawal from checking,” “transfer from savings to checking,” or “payment from savings.” 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception.</I> Identification of an account is not required when the consumer can access only one asset account at a particular time or terminal, even if the access device can normally be used to access more than one account. For example, the consumer may be able to access only one particular account at terminals not operated by the account-holding institution, or may be able to access only one particular account when the terminal is off-line. The exception is available even if, in addition to accessing one asset account, the consumer also can access a credit line. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Access to multiple accounts.</I> If the consumer can use an access device to make transfers to or from different accounts of the same type, the terminal receipt must specify which account was accessed, such as “withdrawal from checking I” or “withdrawal from checking II.” If only one account besides the primary checking account can be debited, the receipt can identify the account as “withdrawal from other account.” 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Generic descriptions.</I> Generic descriptions may be used for accounts that are similar in function, such as share draft or NOW accounts and checking accounts. In a shared system, for example, when a credit union member initiates transfers to or from a share draft account at a terminal owned or operated by a bank, the receipt may identify a withdrawal from the account as a “withdrawal from checking.” 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> There is no prescribed terminology for identifying a transfer at a merchant's POS terminal. A transfer may be identified, for example, as a purchase, a sale of goods or services, or a payment to a third party. When a consumer obtains cash from a POS terminal in addition to purchasing goods, or obtains cash only, the documentation need not differentiate the transaction from one involving the purchase of goods. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(5)—Terminal Location
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Options for identifying terminal.</I> The institution may provide either:
</P>
<P>i. The city, state or foreign country, and the information in §§ 205.9(a)(5) (i), (ii), or (iii), or 
</P>
<P>ii. A number or a code identifying the terminal. If the institution chooses the second option, the code or terminal number identifying the terminal where the transfer is initiated may be given as part of a transaction code. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Omission of city name.</I> The city may be omitted if the generally accepted name (such as a branch name) contains the city name. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Omission of a state.</I> A state may be omitted from the location information on the receipt if: 
</P>
<P>i. All the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in that state, or 
</P>
<P>ii. All transfers occur at terminals located within 50 miles of the financial institutions's main office. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Omission of a city and state.</I> A city and state may be omitted if all the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in the same city. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(i) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Street address.</I> The address should include number and street (or intersection); the number (or intersecting street) may be omitted if the street alone uniquely identifies the terminal location. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(ii) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Generally accepted name.</I> Examples of a generally accepted name for a specific location include a branch of the financial institution, a shopping center, or an airport. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(iii) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Name of owner or operator of terminal.</I> Examples of an owner or operator of a terminal are a financial institution or a retail merchant. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(6)—Third Party Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Omission of third-party name.</I> The receipt need not disclose the third-party name if the name is provided by the consumer in a form that is not machine readable (for example, if the consumer indicates the payee by depositing a payment stub into the ATM). If, on the other hand, the consumer keys in the identity of the payee, the receipt must identify the payee by name or by using a code that is explained elsewhere on the receipt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Receipt as proof of payment.</I> Documentation required under the regulation constitutes prima facie proof of a payment to another person, except in the case of a terminal receipt documenting a deposit.
</P>
<HD2>9(b) Periodic Statements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic cycles.</I> Periodic statements may be sent on a cycle that is shorter than monthly. The statements must correspond to periodic cycles that are reasonably equal, that is, do not vary by more than four days from the regular cycle. The requirement of reasonably equal cycles does not apply when an institution changes cycles for operational or other reasons, such as to establish a new statement day or date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interim statements.</I> Generally, a financial institution must provide periodic statements for each monthly cycle in which an EFT occurs, and at least quarterly if a transfer has not occurred. Where EFTs occur between regularly-scheduled cycles, interim statements must be provided. For example, if an institution issues quarterly statements at the end of March, June, September and December, and the consumer initiates an EFT in February, an interim statement for February must be provided. If an interim statement contains interest or rate information, the institution must comply with Regulation DD, 12 CFR 230.6.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Inactive accounts.</I> A financial institution need not send statements to consumers whose accounts are inactive as defined by the institution.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statement pickup.</I> A financial institution may permit, but may not require, consumers to pick up their periodic statements at the financial institution. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic statements limited to EFT activity.</I> A financial institution that uses a passbook as the primary means for displaying account activity, but also allows the account to be debited electronically, may provide a periodic statement requirement that reflects only the EFTs and other required disclosures (such as charges, account balances, and address and telephone number for inquiries). (See § 205.9(c)(1)(i) for the exception applicable to preauthorized transfers for passbook accounts.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Codes and accompanying documents.</I> To meet the documentation requirements for periodic statements, a financial institution may:
</P>
<P>i. Include copies of terminal receipts to reflect transfers initiated by the consumer at electronic terminals;
</P>
<P>ii. Enclose posting memos, deposit slips, and other documents that, together with the statement, disclose all the required information;
</P>
<P>iii. Use codes for names of third parties or terminal locations and explain the information to which the codes relate on an accompanying document.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)—Transaction Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information obtained from others.</I> While financial institutions must maintain reasonable procedures to ensure the integrity of data obtained from another institution, a merchant, or other third parties, verification of each transfer that appears on the periodic statement is not required.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Incorrect deposit amount.</I> If a financial institution determines that the amount actually deposited at an ATM is different from the amount entered by the consumer, the institution need not immediately notify the consumer of the discrepancy. The periodic statement reflecting the deposit may show either the correct amount of the deposit or the amount entered by the consumer along with the institution's adjustment.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Type of transfer.</I> There is no prescribed terminology for describing a type of transfer. Placement of the amount of the transfer in the debit or the credit column is sufficient if other information on the statement, such as a terminal location or third-party name, enables the consumer to identify the type of transfer.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Nonproprietary terminal in network.</I> An institution need not reflect on the periodic statement the street addresses, identification codes, or terminal numbers for transfers initiated in a shared or interchange system at a terminal operated by an institution other than the account-holding institution. The statement must, however, specify the entity that owns or operates the terminal, plus the city and state.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(v)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Recurring payments by government agency.</I> The third-party name for recurring payments from federal, state, or local governments need not list the particular agency. For example, “U.S. gov't” or “N.Y. sal” will suffice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer as third-party payee.</I> If a consumer makes an electronic fund transfer to another consumer, the financial institution must identify the recipient by name (not just by an account number, for example).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminal location/third party.</I> A single entry may be used to identify both the terminal location and the name of the third party to or from whom funds are transferred. For example, if a consumer purchases goods from a merchant, the name of the party to whom funds are transferred (the merchant) and the location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated will be satisfied by a disclosure such as “XYZ Store, Anytown, Ohio.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Account-holding institution as third party.</I> Transfers to the account-holding institution (by ATM, for example) must show the institution as the recipient, unless other information on the statement (such as, “loan payment from checking”) clearly indicates that the payment was to the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consistency in third-party identity.</I> The periodic statement must disclose a third-party name as it appeared on the receipt, whether it was, for example, the “dba” (doing business as) name of the third party or the parent corporation's name.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Third-party identity on deposits at electronic terminal.</I> A financial institution need not identify third parties whose names appear on checks, drafts, or similar paper instruments deposited to the consumer's account at an electronic terminal.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(3)—Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of fees.</I> The fees disclosed may include fees for EFTs and for other nonelectronic services, and both fixed fees and per-item fees; they may be given as a total or may be itemized in part or in full.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees in interchange system.</I> An account-holding institution must disclose any fees it imposes on the consumer for EFTs, including fees for ATM transactions in an interchange or shared ATM system. Fees for use of an ATM imposed on the consumer by an institution other than the account-holding institution and included in the amount of the transfer by the terminal-operating institution need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Finance charges.</I> The requirement to disclose any fees assessed against the account does not include a finance charge imposed on the account during the statement period.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(4)—Account Balances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Opening and closing balances.</I> The opening and closing balances must reflect both EFTs and other account activity.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(5)—Address and Telephone Number for Inquiries
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Telephone number.</I> A single telephone number, preceded by the “direct inquiries to” language, will satisfy the requirements of § 205.9(b)(5) and (6).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(6)—Telephone Number for Preauthorized Transfers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Telephone number.</I> See comment 9(b)(5)-1.
</P>
<HD2>9(c) Exceptions to the Periodic Statement Requirements for Certain Accounts
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transfers between accounts.</I> The regulation provides an exception from the periodic statement requirement for certain intra-institutional transfers between a consumer's accounts. The financial institution must still comply with the applicable periodic statement requirements for any other EFTs to or from the account. For example, a Regulation E statement must be provided quarterly for an account that also receives payroll deposits electronically, or for any month in which an account is also accessed by a withdrawal at an ATM.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(c)(1)—Preauthorized Transfers to Accounts 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account.</I> The exception for “accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account” includes accounts that can be accessed by means other than EFTs, such as checks. If, however, an account may be accessed by any EFT other than preauthorized credits to the account, such as preauthorized debits or ATM transactions, the account does not qualify for the exception. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reversal of direct deposits.</I> For direct-deposit-only accounts, a financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly. A reversal of a direct deposit to correct an error does not trigger the monthly statement requirement when the error represented a credit to the wrong consumer's account, a duplicate credit, or a credit in the wrong amount. (See also comment 2(m)-5.) 
</P>
<HD2>9(d) Documentation for Foreign-Initiated Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Foreign-initiated transfers.</I> An institution must make a good faith effort to provide all required information for foreign-initiated transfers. For example, even if the institution is not able to provide a specific terminal location, it should identify the country and city in which the transfer was initiated.
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.10—Preauthorized Transfers
</HD1>
<HD2>10(a) Preauthorized Transfers to Consumer's Account
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(a)(1)—Notice by Financial Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> No specific language is required for notice regarding receipt of a preauthorized transfer. Identifying the deposit is sufficient; however, simply providing the current account balance is not.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice of credit.</I> A financial institution may use different methods of notice for various types or series of preauthorized transfers, and the institution need not offer consumers a choice of notice methods.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Positive notice.</I> A periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer, showing the transfer, can serve as notice of receipt. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Negative notice.</I> The absence of a deposit entry (on a periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer date) will serve as negative notice. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Telephone notice.</I> If a financial institution uses the telephone notice option, it should be able in most instances to verify during a consumer's initial call whether a transfer was received. The institution must respond within two business days to any inquiry not answered immediately. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Phone number for passbook accounts.</I> The financial institution may use any reasonable means necessary to provide the telephone number to consumers with passbook accounts that can only be accessed by preauthorized credits and that do not receive periodic statements. For example, it may print the telephone number in the passbook, or include the number with the annual error resolution notice. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Telephone line availability.</I> To satisfy the readily-available standard, the financial institution must provide enough telephone lines so that consumers get a reasonably prompt response. The institution need only provide telephone service during normal business hours. Within its primary service area, an institution must provide a local or toll-free telephone number. It need not provide a toll-free number or accept collect long-distance calls from outside the area where it normally conducts business. 
</P>
<HD2>10(b) Written Authorization for Preauthorized Transfers From Consumer's Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preexisting authorizations.</I> The financial institution need not require a new authorization before changing from paper-based to electronic debiting when the existing authorization does not specify that debiting is to occur electronically or specifies that the debiting will occur by paper means. A new authorization also is not required when a successor institution begins collecting payments. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authorization obtained by third party.</I> The account-holding financial institution does not violate the regulation when a third-party payee fails to obtain the authorization in writing or fails to give a copy to the consumer; rather, it is the third-party payee that is in violation of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written authorization for preauthorized transfers.</I> The requirement that preauthorized EFTs be authorized by the consumer “only by a writing” cannot be met by a payee's signing a written authorization on the consumer's behalf with only an oral authorization from the consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Use of a confirmation form.</I> A financial institution or designated payee may comply with the requirements of this section in various ways. For example, a payee may provide the consumer with two copies of a preauthorization form, and ask the consumer to sign and return one and to retain the second copy. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Similarly authenticated.</I> The similarly authenticated standard permits signed, written authorizations to be provided electronically. The writing and signature requirements of this section are satisfied by complying with the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.,</I> which defines electronic records and electronic signatures. Examples of electronic signatures include, but are not limited to, digital signatures and security codes. A security code need not originate with the account-holding institution. The authorization process should evidence the consumer's identity and assent to the authorization. The person that obtains the authorization must provide a copy of the terms of the authorization to the consumer either electronically or in paper form. Only the consumer may authorize the transfer and not, for example, a third-party merchant on behalf of the consumer. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Requirements of an authorization.</I> An authorization is valid if it is readily identifiable as such and the terms of the preauthorized transfer are clear and readily understandable. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Bona fide error.</I> Consumers sometimes authorize third-party payees, by telephone or on-line, to submit recurring charges against a credit card account. If the consumer indicates use of a credit card account when in fact a debit card is being used, the payee does not violate the requirement to obtain a written authorization if the failure to obtain written authorization was not intentional and resulted from a bona fide error, and if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid any such error. Procedures reasonably adapted to avoid error will depend upon the circumstances. Generally, requesting the consumer to specify whether the card to be used for the authorization is a debit (or check) card or a credit card is a reasonable procedure. Where the consumer has indicated that the card is a credit card (or that the card is not a debit or check card), the payee may rely on the consumer's statement without seeking further information about the type of card. If the payee believes, at the time of the authorization, that a credit card is involved, and later finds that the card used is a debit card (for example, because the consumer later brings the matter to the payee's attention), the payee must obtain a written and signed or (where appropriate) a similarly authenticated authorization as soon as reasonably possible, or cease debiting the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD2>10(c) Consumer's Right To Stop Payment
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Stop-payment order.</I> The financial institution must honor an oral stop-payment order made at least three business days before a scheduled debit. If the debit item is resubmitted, the institution must continue to honor the stop-payment order (for example, by suspending all subsequent payments to the payee-originator until the consumer notifies the institution that payments should resume). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Revocation of authorization.</I> Once a financial institution has been notified that the consumer's authorization is no longer valid, it must block all future payments for the particular debit transmitted by the designated payee-originator. (However, see comment 10(c)-3.) The institution may not wait for the payee-originator to terminate the automatic debits. The institution may confirm that the consumer has informed the payee-originator of the revocation (for example, by requiring a copy of the consumer's revocation as written confirmation to be provided within 14 days of an oral notification). If the institution does not receive the required written confirmation within the 14-day period, it may honor subsequent debits to the account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Alternative procedure for processing a stop-payment request.</I> If an institution does not have the capability to block a preauthorized debit from being posted to the consumer's account—as in the case of a preauthorized debit made through a debit card network or other system, for example—the institution may instead comply with the stop-payment requirements by using a third party to block the transfer(s), as long as the consumer's account is not debited for the payment.
</P>
<HD2>10(d) Notice of Transfers Varying in Amount
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(d)(1)—Notice
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preexisting authorizations.</I> A financial institution holding the consumer's account does not violate the regulation if the designated payee fails to provide notice of varying amounts. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(d)(2)—Range
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Range.</I> A financial institution or designated payee that elects to offer the consumer a specified range of amounts for debiting (in lieu of providing the notice of transfers varying in amount) must provide an acceptable range that could be anticipated by the consumer. For example, if the transfer is for payment of a gas bill, an appropriate range might be based on the highest bill in winter and the lowest bill in summer. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfers to an account of the consumer held at another institution.</I> A financial institution need not provide a consumer the option of receiving notice with each varying transfer, and may instead provide notice only when a debit to an account of the consumer falls outside a specified range or differs by more than a specified amount from the most recent transfer, if the funds are transferred and credited to an account of the consumer held at another financial institution. The specified range or amount, however, must be one that reasonably could be anticipated by the consumer, and the institution must notify the consumer of the range or amount at the time the consumer provides authorization for the preauthorized transfers. For example, if the transfer is for payment of interest for a fixed-rate certificate of deposit account, an appropriate range might be based on a month containing 28 days and a month containing 31 days.
</P>
<HD2>10(e) Compulsory Use
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(e)(1)—Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Loan payments.</I> Creditors may not require repayment of loans by electronic means on a preauthorized, recurring basis. A creditor may offer a program with a reduced annual percentage rate or other cost-related incentive for an automatic repayment feature, provided the program with the automatic payment feature is not the only loan program offered by the creditor for the type of credit involved. Examples include: 
</P>
<P>i. Mortgages with graduated payments in which a pledged savings account is automatically debited during an initial period to supplement the monthly payments made by the borrower. 
</P>
<P>ii. Mortgage plans calling for preauthorized biweekly payments that are debited electronically to the consumer's account and produce a lower total finance charge. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Overdraft.</I> A financial institution may require the automatic repayment of an overdraft credit plan even if the overdraft extension is charged to an open-end account that may be accessed by the consumer in ways other than by overdrafts. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(e)(2)—Employment or Government Benefit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payroll.</I> An employer (including a financial institution) may not require its employees to receive their salary by direct deposit to any particular institution. An employer may require direct deposit of salary by electronic means if employees are allowed to choose the institution that will receive the direct deposit. Alternatively, an employer may give employees the choice of having their salary deposited at a particular institution (designated by the employer) or receiving their salary by another means, such as by check or cash. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.11—Procedures for Resolving Errors
</HD1>
<HD2>11(a) Definition of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Terminal location.</I> With regard to deposits at an ATM, a consumer's request for the terminal location or other information triggers the error resolution procedures, but the financial institution need only provide the ATM location if it has captured that information. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Verifying an account debit or credit.</I> If the consumer contacts the financial institution to ascertain whether a payment (for example, in a home-banking or bill-payment program) or any other type of EFT was debited to the account, or whether a deposit made via ATM, preauthorized transfer, or any other type of EFT was credited to the account, without asserting an error, the error resolution procedures do not apply. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Loss or theft of access device.</I> A financial institution is required to comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer reports the loss or theft of an access device if the consumer also alleges possible unauthorized use as a consequence of the loss or theft. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Error asserted after account closed.</I> The financial institution must comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer properly asserts an error, even if the account has been closed. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Request for documentation or information.</I> A request for documentation or other information must be treated as an error unless it is clear that the consumer is requesting a duplicate copy for tax or other record-keeping purposes. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terminal receipts for transfers of $15 or less.</I> The fact that an institution does not make a terminal receipt available for a transfer of $15 or less in accordance with § 205.9(e) is not an error for purposes of §§ 205.11(a)(1)(vi) or (vii).
</P>
<HD2>11(b) Notice of Error From Consumer
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(b)(1)—Timing; Contents
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content of error notice.</I> The notice of error is effective even if it does not contain the consumer's account number, so long as the financial institution is able to identify the account in question. For example, the consumer could provide a Social Security number or other unique means of identification. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Investigation pending receipt of information.</I> While a financial institution may request a written, signed statement from the consumer relating to a notice of error, it may not delay initiating or completing an investigation pending receipt of the statement. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statement held for consumer.</I> When a consumer has arranged for periodic statements to be held until picked up, the statement for a particular cycle is deemed to have been transmitted on the date the financial institution first makes the statement available to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Failure to provide statement.</I> When a financial institution fails to provide the consumer with a periodic statement, a request for a copy is governed by this section if the consumer gives notice within 60 days from the date on which the statement should have been transmitted. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Discovery of error by institution.</I> The error resolution procedures of this section apply when a notice of error is received from the consumer, and not when the financial institution itself discovers and corrects an error. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Notice at particular phone number or address.</I> A financial institution may require the consumer to give notice only at the telephone number or address disclosed by the institution, provided the institution maintains reasonable procedures to refer the consumer to the specified telephone number or address if the consumer attempts to give notice to the institution in a different manner. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Effect of late notice.</I> An institution is not required to comply with the requirements of this section for any notice of error from the consumer that is received by the institution later than 60 days from the date on which the periodic statement first reflecting the error is sent. Where the consumer's assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 205.6 before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(b)(2)—Written Confirmation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written confirmation-of-error notice.</I> If the consumer sends a written confirmation of error to the wrong address, the financial institution must process the confirmation through normal procedures. But the institution need not provisionally credit the consumer's account if the written confirmation is delayed beyond 10 business days in getting to the right place because it was sent to the wrong address. 
</P>
<HD2>11(c) Time Limits and Extent of Investigation 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice to consumer.</I> Unless otherwise indicated in this section, the financial institution may provide the required notices to the consumer either orally or in writing. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written confirmation of oral notice.</I> A financial institution must begin its investigation promptly upon receipt of an oral notice. It may not delay until it has received a written confirmation. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges for error resolution.</I> If a billing error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the financial institution may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error-resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation). Since the act grants the consumer error-resolution rights, the institution should avoid any chilling effect on the good-faith assertion of errors that might result if charges are assessed when no billing error has occurred. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Correction without investigation.</I> A financial institution may make, without investigation, a final correction to a consumer's account in the amount or manner alleged by the consumer to be in error, but must comply with all other applicable requirements of § 205.11. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Correction notice.</I> A financial institution may include the notice of correction on a periodic statement that is mailed or delivered within the 10-business-day or 45-calendar-day time limits and that clearly identifies the correction to the consumer's account. The institution must determine whether such a mailing will be prompt enough to satisfy the requirements of this section, taking into account the specific facts involved. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Correction of an error.</I> If the financial institution determines an error occurred, within either the 10-day or 45-day period, it must correct the error (subject to the liability provisions of §§ 205.6 (a) and (b)) including, where applicable, the crediting of interest and the refunding of any fees imposed by the institution. In a combined credit/EFT transaction, for example, the institution must refund any finance charges incurred as a result of the error. The institution need not refund fees that would have been imposed whether or not the error occurred.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Extent of required investigation.</I> A financial institution complies with its duty to investigate, correct, and report its determination regarding an error described in § 205.11(a)(1)(vii) by transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation within the time limits set forth in § 205.11(c). If the institution has provisionally credited the consumer's account in accordance with § 205.11(c)(2), it may debit the amount upon transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(c)(2)(i) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Compliance with all requirements.</I> Financial institutions exempted from provisionally crediting a consumer's account under § 205.11(c)(2)(i) (A) and (B) must still comply with all other requirements of § 205.11. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(c)(3)—Extension of Time Periods 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>POS debit card transactions.</I> The extended deadlines for investigating errors resulting from POS debit card transactions apply to all debit card transactions, including those for cash only, at merchants' POS terminals, and also including mail and telephone orders. The deadlines do not apply to transactions at an ATM, however, even though the ATM may be in a merchant location. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(c)(4)—Investigation 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Third parties.</I> When information or documentation requested by the consumer is in the possession of a third party with whom the financial institution does not have an agreement, the institution satisfies the error resolution requirement by so advising the consumer within the specified time period. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Scope of investigation.</I> When an alleged error involves a payment to a third party under the financial institution's telephone bill-payment plan, a review of the institution's own records is sufficient, assuming no agreement exists between the institution and the third party concerning the bill-payment service. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>POS transfers.</I> When a consumer alleges an error involving a transfer to a merchant via a POS terminal, the institution must verify the information previously transmitted when executing the transfer. For example, the financial institution may request a copy of the sales receipt to verify that the amount of the transfer correctly corresponds to the amount of the consumer's purchase. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Agreement.</I> An agreement that a third party will honor an access device is an agreement for purposes of this paragraph. A financial institution does not have an agreement for purposes of § 205.11(c)(4)(ii) solely because it participates in transactions that occur under the federal recurring payments programs, or that are cleared through an ACH or similar arrangement for the clearing and settlement of fund transfers generally, or because it agrees to be bound by the rules of such an arrangement. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>No EFT agreement.</I> When there is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of EFT involved, the financial institution must review any relevant information within the institution's own records for the particular account to resolve the consumer's claim. The extent of the investigation required may vary depending on the facts and circumstances. However, a financial institution may not limit its investigation solely to the payment instructions where additional information within its own records pertaining to the particular account in question could help to resolve a consumer's claim.
</P>
<P>Information that may be reviewed as part of an investigation might include:
</P>
<P>i. The ACH transaction records for the transfer;
</P>
<P>ii. The transaction history of the particular account for a reasonable period of time immediately preceding the allegation of error;
</P>
<P>iii. Whether the check number of the transaction in question is notably out-of-sequence;
</P>
<P>iv. The location of either the transaction or the payee in question relative to the consumer's place of residence and habitual transaction area;
</P>
<P>v. Information relative to the account in question within the control of the institution's third-party service providers if the financial institution reasonably believes that it may have records or other information that could be dispositive; or
</P>
<P>vi. Any other information appropriate to resolve the claim.
</P>
<HD2>11(d) Procedures if Financial Institution Determines No Error or Different Error Occurred 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Error different from that alleged.</I> When a financial institution determines that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer, it must comply with the requirements of both § 205.11 (c) and (d), as relevant. The institution may give the notice of correction and the explanation separately or in a combined form. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(d)(1)—Written Explanation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Request for documentation.</I> When a consumer requests copies of documents, the financial institution must provide the copies in an understandable form. If an institution relied on magnetic tape it must convert the applicable data into readable form, for example, by printing it and explaining any codes. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(d)(2)—Debiting Provisional Credit 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Alternative procedure for debiting of credited funds.</I> The financial institution may comply with the requirements of this section by notifying the consumer that the consumer's account will be debited five business days from the transmittal of the notification, specifying the calendar date on which the debiting will occur. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees for overdrafts.</I> The financial institution may not impose fees for items it is required to honor under § 205.11. It may, however, impose any normal transaction or item fee that is unrelated to an overdraft resulting from the debiting. If the account is still overdrawn after five business days, the institution may impose the fees or finance charges to which it is entitled, if any, under an overdraft credit plan. 
</P>
<HD2>11(e) Reassertion of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawal of error; right to reassert.</I> The financial institution has no further error resolution responsibilities if the consumer voluntarily withdraws the notice alleging an error. A consumer who has withdrawn an allegation of error has the right to reassert the allegation unless the financial institution had already complied with all of the error resolution requirements before the allegation was withdrawn. The consumer must do so, however, within the original 60-day period. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.12—Relation to Other Laws
</HD1>
<HD2>12(a) Relation to Truth in Lending
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determining applicable regulation.</I> i. For transactions involving access devices that also function as credit cards, whether Regulation E or Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) applies depends on the nature of the transaction. For example, if the transaction solely involves an extension of credit, and does not include a debit to a checking account (or other consumer asset account), the liability limitations and error resolution requirements of Regulation Z apply. If the transaction debits a checking account only (with no credit extended), the provisions of Regulation E apply. If the transaction debits a checking account but also draws on an overdraft line of credit attached to the account, Regulation E's liability limitations apply, in addition to §§ 226.13 (d) and (g) of Regulation Z (which apply because of the extension of credit associated with the overdraft feature on the checking account). If a consumer's access device is also a credit card and the device is used to make unauthorized withdrawals from a checking account, but also is used to obtain unauthorized cash advances directly from a line of credit that is separate from the checking account, both Regulation E and Regulation Z apply.
</P>
<P>ii. The following examples illustrate these principles: 
</P>
<P>A. A consumer has a card that can be used either as a credit card or a debit card. When used as a debit card, the card draws on the consumer's checking account. When used as a credit card, the card draws only on a separate line of credit. If the card is stolen and used as a credit card to make purchases or to get cash advances at an ATM from the line of credit, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation Z apply; Regulation E does not apply. 
</P>
<P>B. In the same situation, if the card is stolen and is used as a debit card to make purchases or to get cash withdrawals at an ATM from the checking account, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply; Regulation Z does not apply. 
</P>
<P>C. In the same situation, assume the card is stolen and used both as a debit card and as a credit card; for example, the thief makes some purchases using the card as a debit card, and other purchases using the card as a credit card. Here, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as a debit card, and the corresponding provisions of Regulation Z apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as a credit card. 
</P>
<P>D. Assume a somewhat different type of card, one that draws on the consumer's checking account and can also draw on an overdraft line of credit attached to the checking account. There is no separate line of credit, only the overdraft line, associated with the card. In this situation, if the card is stolen and used, the liability limits and the error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply. In addition, if the use of the card has resulted in accessing the overdraft line of credit, the error resolution provisions of § 226.13(d) and (g) of Regulation Z also apply, but not the other error resolution provisions of Regulation Z. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuance rules.</I> For access devices that also constitute credit cards, the issuance rules of Regulation E apply if the only credit feature is a preexisting credit line attached to the asset account to cover overdrafts (or to maintain a specified minimum balance) or an overdraft service, as defined in § 205.17(a). Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) rules apply if there is another type of credit feature; for example, one permitting direct extensions of credit that do not involve the asset account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Overdraft service.</I> The addition of an overdraft service, as that term is defined in § 205.17(a), to an accepted access device does not constitute the addition of a credit feature subject to Regulation Z. Instead, the provisions of Regulation E apply, including the liability limitations (§ 205.6) and the requirement to obtain consumer consent to the service before any fees or charges for paying an overdraft may be assessed on the account (§ 205.17).
</P>
<HD2>12(b) Preemption of Inconsistent State Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Specific determinations.</I> The regulation prescribes standards for determining whether state laws that govern EFTs, and state laws regarding gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards that govern dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates, are preempted by the act and the regulation. A state law that is inconsistent may be preempted even if the Board has not issued a determination. However, nothing in § 205.12(b) provides a financial institution with immunity for violations of state law if the institution chooses not to make state disclosures and the Board later determines that the state law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preemption determination.</I> The Board determined that certain provisions in the state law of Michigan are preempted by the federal law, effective March 30, 1981: 
</P>
<P>i. Definition of unauthorized use. Section 5(4) is preempted to the extent that it relates to the section of state law governing consumer liability for unauthorized use of an access device. 
</P>
<P>ii. Consumer liability for unauthorized use of an account. Section 14 is inconsistent with § 205.6 and is less protective of the consumer than the federal law. The state law places liability on the consumer for the unauthorized use of an account in cases involving the consumer's negligence. Under the federal law, a consumer's liability for unauthorized use is not related to the consumer's negligence and depends instead on the consumer's promptness in reporting the loss or theft of the access device. 
</P>
<P>iii. Error resolution. Section 15 is preempted because it is inconsistent with § 205.11 and is less protective of the consumer than the federal law. The state law allows financial institutions up to 70 days to resolve errors, whereas the federal law generally requires errors to be resolved within 45 days. 
</P>
<P>iv. Receipts and periodic statements. Sections 17 and 18 are preempted because they are inconsistent with § 205.9. The state provisions require a different disclosure of information than does the federal law. The receipt provision is also preempted because it allows the consumer to be charged for receiving a receipt if a machine cannot furnish one at the time of a transfer. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.13—Administrative Enforcement; Record Retention
</HD1>
<HD2>13(b) Record Retention 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A financial institution need not retain records that it has given disclosures and documentation to each consumer; it need only retain evidence demonstrating that its procedures reasonably ensure the consumers' receipt of required disclosures and documentation.
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.14—Electronic Fund Transfer Service Provider Not Holding Consumer's Account
</HD1>
<HD2>14(a) Electronic Fund Transfer Service Providers Subject to Regulation 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies only when a service provider issues an access device to a consumer for initiating transfers to or from the consumer's account at a financial institution and the two entities have no agreement regarding this EFT service. If the service provider does not issue an access device to the consumer for accessing an account held by another institution, it does not qualify for the treatment accorded by § 205.14. For example, this section does not apply to an institution that initiates preauthorized payroll deposits to consumer accounts on behalf of an employer. By contrast, § 205.14 can apply to an institution that issues a code for initiating telephone transfers to be carried out through the ACH from a consumer's account at another institution. This is the case even if the consumer has accounts at both institutions. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>ACH agreements.</I> The ACH rules generally do not constitute an agreement for purposes of this section. However, an ACH agreement under which members specifically agree to honor each other's debit cards is an “agreement,” and thus this section does not apply. 
</P>
<HD2>14(b) Compliance by Electronic Fund Transfer Service Provider 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Liability.</I> The service provider is liable for unauthorized EFTs that exceed limits on the consumer's liability under § 205.6. 
</P>
<P>Paragraph 14(b)(1)—Disclosures and Documentation 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements from electronic fund transfer service provider.</I> A service provider that meets the conditions set forth in this paragraph does not have to issue periodic statements. A service provider that does not meet the conditions need only include on periodic statements information about transfers initiated with the access device it has issued. 
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 14(b)(2)—Error Resolution 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Error resolution.</I> When a consumer notifies the service provider of an error, the EFT service provider must investigate and resolve the error in compliance with § 205.11 as modified by § 205.14(b)(2). If an error occurred, any fees or charges imposed as a result of the error, either by the service provider or by the account-holding institution (for example, overdraft or dishonor fees) must be reimbursed to the consumer by the service provider. 
</P>
<HD2>14(c) Compliance by Account-Holding Institution 
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 14(c)(1) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements from account-holding institution.</I> The periodic statement provided by the account-holding institution need only contain the information required by § 205.9(b)(1).
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.16—Disclosures at Automated Teller Machines 
</HD1>
<HD2>16(b) General 
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 16(b)(1) 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Specific notices.</I> An ATM operator that imposes a fee for a specific type of transaction—such as for a cash withdrawal, but not for a balance inquiry, or for some cash withdrawals, but not for others (such as where the card was issued by a foreign bank or by a card issuer that has entered into a special contractual relationship with the ATM operator regarding surcharges)—may provide a notice on or at the ATM that a fee will be imposed or a notice that a fee may be imposed for providing EFT services or may specify the type of EFT for which a fee is imposed. If, however, a fee will be imposed in all instances, the notice must state that a fee will be imposed.
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.17—Requirements for Overdraft Services
</HD1>
<HD2>17(a) Definition
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exempt securities- and commodities-related lines of credit.</I> The definition of “overdraft service” does not include the payment of transactions in a securities or commodities account pursuant to which credit is extended by a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<HD2>17(b) Opt-In Requirement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Account-holding institutions.</I> Section 205.17(b) applies to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or on behalf of the account-holding institution. Section 205.17(b) does not apply to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or through a third party unless the debit card is issued on behalf of the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Coding of transactions.</I> A financial institution complies with the rule if it adapts its systems to identify debit card transactions as either one-time or recurring. If it does so, the financial institution may rely on the transaction's coding by merchants, other institutions, and other third parties as a one-time or a preauthorized or recurring debit card transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>One-time debit card transactions.</I> The opt-in applies to any one-time debit card transaction, whether the card is used, for example, at a point-of-sale, in an on-line transaction, or in a telephone transaction.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Application of fee prohibition.</I> The prohibition on assessing overdraft fees under § 205.17(b)(1) applies to all institutions. For example, the prohibition applies to an institution that has a policy and practice of declining to authorize and pay any ATM or one-time debit card transactions when the institution has a reasonable belief at the time of the authorization request that the consumer does not have sufficient funds available to cover the transaction. However, the institution is not required to comply with §§ 205.17(b)(1)(i)-(iv), including the notice and opt-in requirements, if it does not assess overdraft fees for paying ATM or one-time debit card transactions that overdraw the consumer's account. Assume an institution does not provide an opt-in notice, but authorizes an ATM or one-time debit card transaction on the reasonable belief that the consumer has sufficient funds in the account to cover the transaction. If, at settlement, the consumer has insufficient funds in the account (for example, due to intervening transactions that post to the consumer's account), the institution is not permitted to assess an overdraft fee or charge for paying that transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution may pay overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions even if a consumer has not affirmatively consented or opted in to the institution's overdraft service. If the institution pays such an overdraft without the consumer's affirmative consent, however, it may not impose a fee or charge for doing so. These provisions do not limit the institution's ability to debit the consumer's account for the amount overdrawn if the institution is permitted to do so under applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Overdraft transactions not required to be authorized or paid.</I> Section 205.17 does not require a financial institution to authorize or pay an overdraft on an ATM or one-time debit card transaction even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to an institution's overdraft service for such transactions.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution provides a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent when, among other things, it provides reasonable methods by which the consumer may affirmatively consent. A financial institution provides such reasonable methods, if—
</P>
<P>i. <I>By mail.</I> The institution provides a form for the consumer to fill out and mail to affirmatively consent to the service.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>By telephone.</I> The institution provides a readily-available telephone line that consumers may call to provide affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>By electronic means.</I> The institution provides an electronic means for the consumer to affirmatively consent. For example, the institution could provide a form that can be accessed and processed at its Web site, where the consumer may click on a check box to provide consent and confirm that choice by clicking on a button that affirms the consumer's consent.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>In person.</I> The institution provides a form for the consumer to complete and present at a branch or office to affirmatively consent to the service.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Implementing opt-in at account-opening.</I> A financial institution may provide notice regarding the institution's overdraft service prior to or at account-opening. A financial institution may require a consumer, as a necessary step to opening an account, to choose whether or not to opt into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service. For example, the institution could require the consumer, at account opening, to sign a signature line or check a box on a form (consistent with comment 17(b)-6) indicating whether or not the consumer affirmatively consents at account opening. If the consumer does not check any box or provide a signature, the institution must assume that the consumer does not opt in. Or, the institution could require the consumer to choose between an account that does not permit the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service and an account that permits the payment of such overdrafts, provided that the accounts comply with § 205.17(b)(2) and § 205.17(b)(3).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Affirmative consent required.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to a financial institution's overdraft service must be obtained separately from other consents or acknowledgements obtained by the institution, including a consent to receive disclosures electronically. An institution may obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a blank signature line or check box that the consumer could sign or select to affirmatively consent, provided that the signature line or check box is used solely for purposes of evidencing the consumer's choice whether or not to opt into the overdraft service and not for other purposes. An institution does not obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by including preprinted language about the overdraft service in an account disclosure provided with a signature card or contract that the consumer must sign to open the account and that acknowledges the consumer's acceptance of the account terms. Nor does an institution obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a signature card that contains a pre-selected check box indicating that the consumer is requesting the service.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Confirmation.</I> A financial institution may comply with the requirement in § 205.17(b)(1)(iv) to provide confirmation of the consumer's affirmative consent by mailing or delivering to the consumer a copy of the consumer's completed opt-in notice, or by mailing or delivering a letter or notice to the consumer acknowledging that the consumer has elected to opt into the institution's service. The confirmation, which must be provided in writing, or electronically if the consumer agrees, must include a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke the opt-in at any time. <I>See</I> § 205.17(d)(6), which permits institutions to include the revocation statement on the initial opt-in notice. An institution complies with the confirmation requirement if it has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that overdraft fees are assessed only in connection with transactions paid after the confirmation has been mailed or delivered to the consumer.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Outstanding Negative Balance.</I> If a fee or charge is based on the amount of the outstanding negative balance, an institution is prohibited from assessing any such fee if the negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, unless the consumer has opted into the institution's overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing such a fee if the negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the prohibition on assessing overdraft fees in § 205.17(b)(1).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Daily or Sustained Overdraft, Negative Balance, or Similar Fee or Charge</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges.</I> If a consumer has not opted into the institution's overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions, the fee prohibition in § 205.17(b)(1) applies to all overdraft fees or charges for paying those transactions, including but not limited to daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges. Thus, where a consumer's negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, the rule prohibits the assessment of such fees unless the consumer has opted in. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges if a negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition. When the negative balance is attributable in part to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, and in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition, the date on which such a fee may be assessed is based on the date on which the check, ACH, or other type of transaction is paid into overdraft.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate how an institution complies with the fee prohibition. For each example, assume the following: (a) The consumer has not opted into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card overdrafts; (b) these transactions are paid into overdraft because the amount of the transaction at settlement exceeded the amount authorized or the amount was not submitted for authorization; (c) under the account agreement, the institution may charge a per-item fee of $20 for each overdraft, and a one-time sustained overdraft fee of $20 on the fifth consecutive day the consumer's account remains overdrawn; (d) the institution posts ATM and debit card transactions before other transactions; and (e) the institution allocates deposits to account debits in the same order in which it posts debits.
</P>
<P>a. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60 and a check transaction of $40. The institution charges an overdraft fee of $20 for the check overdraft but cannot assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. At the end of the day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $70. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 2 and March 6. Because the consumer's negative balance is attributable in part to the $40 check (and associated overdraft fee), the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
</P>
<P>b. Same facts as in a., except that on March 3, the consumer deposits $40 in the account. The institution allocates the $40 to the debit card transaction first, consistent with its posting order policy. At the end of the day on March 3, the consumer has an account balance of negative $30, which is attributable to the check transaction (and associated overdraft fee). The consumer does not make any further deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 6. Because the remaining negative balance is attributable to the March 1 check transaction, the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
</P>
<P>c. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $10. The institution may not assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. On March 3, the institution pays a check transaction of $100 and charges an overdraft fee of $20. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $130. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 8. Because the consumer's negative balance is attributable in part to the check, the institution may assess a $20 sustained overdraft fee. However, because the check was paid on March 3, the institution must use March 3 as the start date for determining the date on which the sustained overdraft fee may be assessed. Thus, the institution may charge a $20 sustained overdraft fee on March 8.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Alternative approach.</I> For a consumer who does not opt into the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, an institution may also comply with the fee prohibition in § 205.17(b)(1) by not assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges unless a consumer's negative balance is attributable solely to check, ACH or other types of transactions not subject to the fee prohibition while that negative balance remains outstanding. In such case, the institution would not have to determine how to allocate subsequent deposits that reduce but do not eliminate the negative balance. For example, if a consumer has a negative balance of $30, of which $10 is attributable to a one-time debit card transaction, an institution complies with the fee prohibition if it does not assess a sustained overdraft fee while that negative balance remains outstanding.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(b)(2)—Conditioning Payment of Other Overdrafts on Consumer's Affirmative Consent
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application of the same criteria.</I> The prohibitions on conditioning in § 205.17(b)(2) generally require an institution to apply the same criteria for deciding when to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions, whether or not the consumer has affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts. For example, if an institution's internal criteria would lead the institution to pay a check overdraft if the consumer had affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, it must also apply the same criteria in a consistent manner in determining whether to pay the check overdraft if the consumer has not opted in.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No requirement to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions.</I> The prohibition on conditioning in § 205.17(b)(2) does not require an institution to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions in all circumstances. Rather, the rule simply prohibits institutions from considering the consumer's decision not to opt in when deciding whether to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(b)(3)—Same Account Terms, Conditions, and Features
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variations in terms, conditions, or features.</I> A financial institution may not vary the terms, conditions, or features of an account provided to a consumer who does not affirmatively consent to the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service. This includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Interest rates paid and fees assessed;
</P>
<P>ii. The type of ATM or debit card provided to the consumer. For instance, an institution may not provide consumers who do not opt in a PIN-only card while providing a debit card with both PIN and signature-debit functionality to consumers who opt in;
</P>
<P>iii. Minimum balance requirements; or
</P>
<P>iv. Account features such as on-line bill payment services.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limited-feature bank accounts.</I> Section 205.17(b)(3) does not prohibit institutions from offering deposit account products with limited features, provided that a consumer is not required to open such an account because the consumer did not opt in. For example, § 205.17(b)(3) does not prohibit an institution from offering a checking account designed to comply with state basic banking laws, or designed for consumers who are not eligible for a checking account because of their credit or checking account history, which may include features limiting the payment of overdrafts. However, a consumer who applies, and is otherwise eligible, for a full-service or other particular deposit account product may not be provided instead with the account with more limited features because the consumer has declined to opt in.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(b)(4)—Exception to the Notice and Opt-In Requirement
</HD3>
<HD2>17(c) Timing
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Early compliance.</I> A financial institution may provide the notice required by § 205(b)(1)(i) and obtain the consumer's affirmative consent to the financial institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions prior to July 1, 2010, provided that the financial institution complies with all of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permitted fees or charges.</I> Fees or charges for ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts may be assessed only for overdrafts paid on or after the date the financial institution receives the consumer's affirmative consent to the institution's overdraft service. <I>See also</I> comment 17(b)-7.
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<HD2>17(d) Content and Format
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Overdraft service.</I> The description of the institution's overdraft service should indicate that the consumer has the right to affirmatively consent, or opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. The description should also disclose the institution's policies regarding the payment of overdrafts for other transactions, including checks, ACH transactions, and automatic bill payments, provided that this content is not more prominent than the description of the consumer's right to opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. As applicable, the institution also should indicate that it pays overdrafts at its discretion, and should briefly explain that if the institution does not authorize and pay an overdraft, it may decline the transaction.
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<P>2. <I>Maximum fee.</I> If the amount of a fee may vary from transaction to transaction, the financial institution may indicate that the consumer may be assessed a fee “up to” the maximum fee. The financial institution must disclose all applicable overdraft fees, including but not limited to:
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<P>i. Per item or per transaction fees;
</P>
<P>ii. Daily overdraft fees;
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<P>iii. Sustained overdraft fees, where fees are assessed when the consumer has not repaid the amount of the overdraft after some period of time (for example, if an account remains overdrawn for five or more business days); or
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<P>iv. Negative balance fees.
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<P>3. <I>Opt-in methods.</I> The opt-in notice must include the methods by which the consumer may consent to the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. Institutions may tailor Model Form A-9 to the methods offered to consumers for affirmatively consenting to the service. For example, an institution need not provide the tear-off portion of Model Form A-9 if it is only permitting consumers to opt-in telephonically or electronically. Institutions may, but are not required, to provide a signature line or check box where the consumer can indicate that he or she declines to opt in.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Identification of consumer's account.</I> An institution may use any reasonable method to identify the account for which the consumer submits the opt-in notice. For example, the institution may include a line for a printed name and an account number, as shown in Model Form A-9. Or, the institution may print a bar code or use other tracking information. <I>See also</I> comment 17(b)-6, which describes how an institution obtains a consumer's affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Alternative plans for covering overdrafts.</I> If the institution offers both a line of credit subject to the Board's Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) and a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state in its opt-in notice that both alternative plans are offered. For example, the notice might state “We also offer <I>overdraft protection plans,</I> such as a link to a savings account or to an overdraft line of credit, which may be less expensive than our standard overdraft practices.” If the institution offers one, but not the other, it must state in its opt-in notice the alternative plan that it offers. If the institution does not offer either plan, it should omit the reference to the alternative plans.
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<HD2>17(f) Continuing Right To Opt-In or To Revoke the Opt-In
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges for overdrafts incurred prior to revocation.</I> Section 205.17(f)(1) provides that a consumer may revoke his or her prior consent at any time. If a consumer does so, this provision does not require the financial institution to waive or reverse any overdraft fees assessed on the consumer's account prior to the institution's implementation of the consumer's revocation request.
</P>
<HD2>17(g) Duration of Opt-In.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Termination of overdraft service.</I> A financial institution may, for example, terminate the overdraft service when the consumer makes excessive use of the service.
</P>
<HD1>§ 205.18 Requirements for Financial Institutions Offering Payroll Card Accounts.
</HD1>
<HD2>18(a) Coverage
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Issuance of access device.</I> Consistent with § 205.5(a), a financial institution may issue an access device only in response to an oral or written request for the device, or as a renewal or substitute for an accepted access device. A consumer is deemed to request an access device for a payroll card account when the consumer chooses to receive salary or other compensation through a payroll card account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to employers and service providers.</I> Typically, employers and third-party service providers do not meet the definition of a “financial institution” subject to the regulation because they neither hold payroll card accounts nor issue payroll cards and agree with consumers to provide EFT services in connection with payroll card accounts. However, to the extent an employer or a service provider undertakes either of these functions, it would be deemed a financial institution under the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>18(b) Alternative to Periodic Statements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Posted transactions.</I> A history of transactions provided under §§ 205.18(b)(1)(ii) and (iii) shall reflect transfers once they have been posted to the account. Thus, an institution does not need to include transactions that have been authorized, but that have not yet posted to the account.
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<P>2. <I>Electronic history.</I> The electronic history required under § 205.18(b)(1)(ii) must be provided in a form that the consumer may keep, as required under § 205.4(a)(1). Financial institutions may satisfy this requirement if they make the electronic history available in a format that is capable of being retained. For example, an institution satisfies the requirement if it provides a history at an Internet Web site in a format that is capable of being printed or stored electronically using an Internet web browser.
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<HD2>18(c) Modified Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Error resolution safe harbor provision.</I> Institutions that choose to investigate notices of error provided up to 120 days from the date a transaction has posted to a consumer's account may still disclose the error resolution time period required by the regulation (as set forth in the Model Form in Appendix A-7). Specifically, an institution may disclose to payroll card account holders that the institution will investigate any notice of error provided within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history upon request that reflects the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution investigates any notice of error provided up to 120 days from the date that the transaction alleged to be in error has posted to the consumer's account. Similarly, an institution's summary of the consumer's liability (as required under § 205.7(b)(1)) may disclose that liability is based on the consumer providing notice of error within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history reflecting the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution allows a consumer to assert a notice of error up to 120 days from the date of posting of the alleged error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic access.</I> A consumer is deemed to have accessed a payroll card account electronically when the consumer enters a user identification code or password or otherwise complies with a security procedure used by an institution to verify the consumer's identity. An institution is not required to determine whether a consumer has in fact accessed information about specific transactions to trigger the beginning of the 60-day periods for liability limits and error resolution under §§ 205.6 and 205.11.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Untimely notice of error.</I> An institution that provides a transaction history under § 205.18(b)(1) is not required to comply with the requirements of § 205.11 for any notice of error from the consumer pertaining to a transfer that occurred more than 60 days prior to the earlier of the date the consumer electronically accesses the account or the date the financial institution sends a written history upon the consumer's request. (Alternatively, as provided in § 205.18(c)(4)(ii), an institution need not comply with the requirements of § 205.11 with respect to any notice of error received from the consumer more than 120 days after the date of posting of the transfer allegedly in error.) Where the consumer's assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 205.6 before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
</P>
<HD1>Section 205.20—Requirements for Gift Cards and Gift Certificates
</HD1>
<HD2>20(a) Definitions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of card, code, or device.</I> Section 205.20 applies to any card, code, or other device that meets one of the definitions in § 205.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) (and is not otherwise excluded by § 205.20(b)), even if it is not issued in card form. Section 205.20 applies, for example, to an account number or bar code that can be used to access underlying funds. Similarly, § 205.20 applies to a device with a chip or other embedded mechanism that links the device to stored funds, such as a mobile phone or sticker containing a contactless chip that enables the consumer to access the stored funds. A card, code, or other device that meets the definition in § 205.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) includes an electronic promise (<I>see</I> comment 20(a)-2) as well as a promise that is not electronic. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(b)(5). In addition, § 205.20 applies if a merchant issues a code that entitles a consumer to redeem the code for goods or services, regardless of the medium in which the code is issued (<I>see, however,</I> § 205.20(b)(5)), and whether or not it may be redeemed electronically or in the merchant's store. Thus, for example, if a merchant e-mails a code that a consumer may redeem in a specified amount either on-line or in the merchant's store, that code is covered under § 205.20, unless one of the exclusions in § 205.20(b) apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic promise.</I> The term “electronic promise” as used in EFTA Sections 915(a)(2)(B), (a)(2)(C), and (a)(2)(D) means a person's commitment or obligation communicated or stored in electronic form made to a consumer to provide payment for goods or services for transactions initiated by the consumer. The electronic promise is itself represented by a card, code or other device that is issued or honored by the person, reflecting the person's commitment or obligation to pay. For example, if a merchant issues a code that can be given as a gift and that entitles the recipient to redeem the code in an on-line transaction for goods or services, that code represents an electronic promise by the merchant and is a card, code, or other device covered by § 205.20.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Cards, codes, or other devices redeemable for specific goods or services.</I> Certain cards, codes, or other devices may be redeemable upon presentation for a specific good or service, or “experience,” such as a spa treatment, hotel stay, or airline flight. In other cases, a card, code, or other device may entitle the consumer to a certain percentage off the purchase of a good or service, such as 20% off of any purchase in a store. Such cards, codes, or other devices generally are not subject to the requirements of this section because they are not issued to a consumer “in a specified amount” as required under the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card.” However, if the card, code, or other device is issued in a specified or denominated amount that can be applied toward the purchase of a specific good or service, such as a certificate or card redeemable for a spa treatment up to $50, the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless one of the exceptions in § 205.20(b) apply. <I>See, e.g.,</I> § 205.20(b)(3). Similarly, if the card, code, or other device states a specific monetary value, such as “a $50 value,” the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless an exclusion in § 205.20(b) applies.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Issued primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.</I> Section 205.20 only applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are sold or issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. A card, code, or other device initially purchased by a business is subject to this section if the card, code, or other device is purchased for redistribution or resale to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Moreover, the fact that a card, code, or other device may be primarily funded by a business, for example, in the case of certain rewards or incentive cards, does not mean the card, code, or other device is outside the scope of § 205.20, if the card, code, or other device will be provided to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. <I>But see</I> § 205.20(b)(3). Whether a card, code, or other device is issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes will depend on the facts and circumstances. For example, if a program manager purchases store gift cards directly from an issuing merchant and sells those cards through the program manager's retail outlets, such gift cards are subject to the requirements of § 205.20 because the store gift cards are sold to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. In contrast, a card, code, or other device generally would not be issued to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and therefore would fall outside the scope of § 205.20, if the purchaser of the card, code, or device is contractually prohibited from reselling or redistributing the card, code, or device to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and reasonable policies and procedures are maintained to avoid such sale or distribution for such purposes. However, if an entity that has purchased cards, codes, or other devices for business purposes sells or distributes such cards, codes, or other devices to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that entity does not comply with § 205.20 if it has not otherwise met the substantive and disclosure requirements of the rule or unless an exclusion in § 205.20(b) applies.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples of cards, codes, or other devices issued for business purposes.</I> Examples of cards, codes, or other devices that are issued and used for business purposes and therefore excluded from the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” include
</P>
<P>i. Cards, codes, or other devices to reimburse employees for travel or moving expenses.
</P>
<P>ii. Cards, codes, or other devices for employees to use to purchase office supplies and other business-related items.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(2)—Store Gift Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between “gift certificate” and “store gift card”.</I> The term “store gift card” in § 205.20(a)(2) includes “gift certificate” as defined in § 205.20(a)(1). For example, a numeric or alphanumeric code representing a specified dollar amount or value that is electronically sent to a consumer as a gift which can be redeemed or exchanged by the recipient to obtain goods or services may be both a “gift certificate” and a “store gift card” if the specified amount or value cannot be increased.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affiliated group of merchants.</I> The term “affiliated group of merchants” means two or more affiliated merchants or other persons that are related by common ownership or common corporate control (<I>see, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 227.3(b) and 12 CFR 223.2) and that share the same name, mark, or logo. For example, the term includes franchisees that are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses. The term also applies to two or more merchants or other persons that agree among themselves, by contract or otherwise, to redeem cards, codes, or other devices bearing the same name, mark, or logo (other than the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network), for the purchase of goods or services solely at such merchants or persons. For example, assume a movie theatre chain and a restaurant chain jointly agree to issue cards that share the same “Flix and Food” logo that can be redeemed solely towards the purchase of movie tickets or concessions at any of the participating movie theatres, or towards the purchase of food or beverages at any of the participating restaurants. For purposes of § 205.20, the movie theatre chain and the restaurant chain would be considered to be an affiliated group of merchants, and the cards are considered to be “store gift cards.” However, merchants or other persons are not considered to be affiliated merely because they agree to accept a card that bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mall gift cards.</I> See comment 20(a)(3)-2.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(3)—General-Use Prepaid Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.</I> A card, code, or other device is redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants if, for example, such merchants agree to honor the card, code, or device if it bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network, pursuant to the rules of the payment network.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mall gift cards.</I> Mall gift cards that are intended to be used or redeemed for goods or services at participating retailers within a shopping mall may be considered store gift cards or general-use prepaid cards depending on the merchants with which the cards may be redeemed. For example, if a mall card may only be redeemed at merchants within the mall itself, the card is more likely to be redeemable at an affiliated group of merchants and considered a store gift card. However, certain mall cards also carry the brand of a payment network and can be used at any retailer that accepts that card brand, including retailers located outside of the mall. Such cards are considered general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(4)—Loyalty, Award, or Promotional Gift Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of loyalty, award, or promotional programs.</I> Examples of loyalty, award or promotional programs under § 205.20(a)(4) include, but are not limited to
</P>
<P>i. Consumer retention programs operated or administered by a merchant or other person that provide to consumers cards or coupons redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value as a reward for purchases made or for visits to the participating merchant;
</P>
<P>ii. Sales promotions operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide coupons or discounts redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value.
</P>
<P>iii. Rebate programs operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in connection with the consumer's purchase of a product or service and the consumer's completion of the rebate submission process.
</P>
<P>iv. Sweepstakes or contests that distribute cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers as an invitation to enter into the promotion for a chance to win a prize.
</P>
<P>v. Referral programs that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in exchange for referring other potential consumers to a merchant.
</P>
<P>vi. Incentive programs through which an employer provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to employees, for example, to recognize job performance, such as increased sales, or to encourage employee wellness and safety.
</P>
<P>vii. Charitable or community relations programs through which a company provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to a charity or community group for their fundraising purposes, for example, as a reward for a donation or as a prize in a charitable event.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes.</I> To indicate that a card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes as required by § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), it is sufficient for the card, code, or other device to state on the front, for example, “Reward” or “Promotional.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reference to toll-free number and Web site.</I> If a card, code, or other device issued in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 205.20(a)(4)(iii)(D) is not required on the card, code, or other device.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(6)—Service Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Service fees.</I> Under § 205.20(a)(6), a service fee includes a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card, such as a monthly maintenance fee, a transaction fee, an ATM fee, a reload fee, a foreign currency transaction fee, or a balance inquiry fee, whether or not the fee is waived for a certain period of time or is only imposed after a certain period of time. A service fee does not include a one-time fee or a fee that is unlikely to be imposed more than once while the underlying funds are still valid, such as an initial issuance fee, a cash-out fee, a supplemental card fee, or a lost or stolen certificate or card replacement fee.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(7)—Activity
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Activity.</I> Under § 205.20(a)(7), any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction, constitutes activity for purposes of § 205.20. For example, the purchase and activation of a certificate or card, the use of the certificate or card to purchase a good or service, or the reloading of funds onto a store gift card or general-use prepaid card constitutes activity. However, the imposition of a fee, the replacement of an expired, lost, or stolen certificate or card, and a balance inquiry do not constitute activity. In addition, if a consumer attempts to engage in a transaction with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, but the transaction cannot be completed due to technical or other reasons, such attempt does not constitute activity. Furthermore, if the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card are adjusted because there was an error or the consumer has returned a previously purchased good, the adjustment also does not constitute activity with respect to the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(b) Exclusions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of exclusion.</I> A card, code, or other device is excluded from the definition of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” if it meets any of the exclusions in § 205.20(b). An excluded card, code, or other device generally is not subject to any of the requirements of this section. (<I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Eligibility for multiple exclusions.</I> A card, code, or other device may qualify for one or more exclusions. For example, a corporation may give its employees a gift card that is marketed solely to businesses for incentive-related purposes, such as to reward job performance or promote employee safety. In this case, the card may qualify for the exclusion for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards under § 205.20(b)(3), or for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4). In addition, as long as any one of the exclusions applies, a card, code, or other device is not covered by § 205.20, even if other exclusions do not apply. In the above example, the corporation may give its employees a type of gift card that can also be purchased by a consumer directly from a merchant. Under these circumstances, while the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4) because the card can also be obtained through retail channels, it is nevertheless exempt from the substantive requirements of § 205.20 because it is a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card. (<I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.) Similarly, a person may market a reloadable card to teenagers for occasional expenses that enables parents to monitor spending. Although the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 205.20(b)(4), it may nevertheless be exempt from the requirements of § 205.20 under § 205.20(b)(2) if it is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.
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<HD3>Paragraph 20(b)(1)—Usable Solely for Telephone Services
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of excluded products.</I> The exclusion for products usable solely for telephone services applies to prepaid cards for long-distance telephone service, prepaid cards for wireless telephone service and prepaid cards for other services that function similar to telephone services, such as prepaid cards for voice over internet protocol (VoIP) access time.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(b)(2)—Reloadable and Not Marketed or Labeled as a Gift Card or Gift Certificate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reloadable.</I> A card, code, or other device is “reloadable” if the terms and conditions of the agreement permit funds to be added to the card, code, or other device after the initial purchase or issuance. A card, code, or other device is not “reloadable” merely because the issuer or processor is technically able to add functionality that would otherwise enable the card, code, or other device to be reloaded.
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<P>2. <I>Marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I> The term “marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate” means directly or indirectly offering, advertising or otherwise suggesting the potential use of a card, code or other device, as a gift for another person. Whether the exclusion applies generally does not depend on the type of entity that makes the promotional message. For example, a card may be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if anyone (other than the purchaser of the card), including the issuer, the retailer, the program manager that may distribute the card, or the payment network on which a card is used, promotes the use of the card as a gift card or gift certificate. A card, code, or other device, including a general-purpose reloadable card, is marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate even if it is only occasionally marketed as a gift card or gift certificate. For example, a network-branded general purpose reloadable card would be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if the issuer principally advertises the card as a less costly alternative to a bank account but promotes the card in a television, radio, newspaper, or Internet advertisement, or on signage as “the perfect gift” during the holiday season. However, the mere mention of the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in an advertisement or on a sign that also indicates the availability of other excluded prepaid cards does not by itself cause the excluded prepaid cards to be marketed as a gift card or a gift certificate. For example, the posting of a sign in a store that refers to the availability of gift cards does not by itself constitute the marketing of otherwise excluded prepaid cards that may also be sold in the store as gift cards or gift certificates, provided that a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances would not be led to believe that the sign applies to all prepaid cards sold in the store. (<I>See, however,</I> comment 20(b)(2)-4.ii.)
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<P>3. <I>Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate include
</P>
<P>A. Using the word “gift” or “present” on a card, certificate, or accompanying material, including documentation, packaging and promotional displays;
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<P>B. Representing or suggesting that a certificate or card can be given to another person, for example, as a “token of appreciation” or a “stocking stuffer,” or displaying a congratulatory message on the card, certificate or accompanying material;
</P>
<P>C. Incorporating gift-giving or celebratory imagery or motifs, such as a bow, ribbon, wrapped present, candle, or congratulatory message, on a card, certificate, accompanying documentation, or promotional material;
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<P>ii. The term does not include
</P>
<P>A. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for a checking, savings, or deposit account;
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<P>B. Representing that a card or certificate can be used to pay for a consumer's health-related expenses—for example, a card tied to a health savings account;
</P>
<P>C. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for travelers checks or cash;
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<P>D. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a budgetary tool, for example, by teenagers, or to cover emergency expenses.
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<P>4. <I>Reasonable policies and procedures to avoid marketing as a gift card.</I> The exclusion for a card, code, or other device that is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate in § 205.20(b)(2) applies if a reloadable card, code, or other device is not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate and if persons subject to the rule, including issuers, program managers, and retailers, maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid such marketing. Such policies and procedures may include contractual provisions prohibiting a reloadable card, code, or other device from being marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate, merchandising guidelines or plans regarding how the product must be displayed in a retail outlet, and controls to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the card, code or other device is not being marketed as a gift card. Whether a reloadable card, code, or other device has been marketed as a gift card or gift certificate will depend on the facts and circumstances, including whether a reasonable consumer would be led to believe that the card, code, or other device is a gift card or gift certificate. The following examples illustrate the application of § 205.20(b)(2)
</P>
<P>i. An issuer or program manager of prepaid cards agrees to sell general-purpose reloadable cards through a retailer. The contract between the issuer or program manager and the retailer establishes the terms and conditions under which the cards may be sold and marketed at the retailer. The terms and conditions prohibit the general-purpose reloadable cards from being marketed as a gift card or gift certificate, and require policies and procedures to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the cards are not being marketed as such. The issuer or program manager sets up one promotional display at the retailer for gift cards and another physically separated display for excluded products under § 205.20(b), including general-purpose reloadable cards and wireless telephone cards, such that a reasonable consumer would not believe that the excluded cards are gift cards. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
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<P>ii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid cards are sold, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards. A sign stating “Gift Cards” appears prominently at the top of the display. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) does not apply with respect to the general-purpose reloadable cards because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of excluded cards as gift cards or gift certificates are not maintained.
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<P>iii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional multi-sided display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards are sold. Gift cards are segregated from excluded cards, with gift cards on one side of the display and excluded cards on a different side of a display. Signs of equal prominence at the top of each side of the display clearly differentiate between gift cards and the other types of prepaid cards that are available for sale. The retailer does not use any more conspicuous signage suggesting the general availability of gift cards, such as a large sign stating “Gift Cards” at the top of the display or located near the display. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
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<P>iv. Same facts as in i., except that the retailer sells a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards, arranged side-by-side in the same checkout lane. The retailer does not affirmatively indicate or represent that gift cards are available, such as by displaying any signage or other indicia at the checkout lane suggesting the general availability of gift cards. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid marketing the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained.
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<P>5. <I>On-line sales of prepaid cards.</I> Some Web sites may prominently advertise or promote the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in a manner that suggests to a consumer that the Web site exclusively sells gift cards or gift certificates. For example, a Web site may display a banner advertisement or a graphic on the home page that prominently states “Gift Cards,” “Gift Giving,” or similar language without mention of other available products, or use a Web address that includes only a reference to gift cards or gift certificates in the address. In such a case, a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances could be led to believe that all prepaid products sold on the Web site are gift cards or gift certificates. Under these facts, the Web site has marketed all such products, including general-purpose reloadable cards, as gift cards or gift certificates, and the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) does not apply.
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<P>6. <I>Temporary non-reloadable cards issued in connection with a general-purpose reloadable card.</I> Certain general-purpose reloadable cards that are typically marketed as an account substitute initially may be sold or issued in the form of a temporary non-reloadable card. After the card is purchased, the cardholder is typically required to call the issuer to register the card and to provide identifying information in order to obtain a reloadable replacement card. In most cases, the temporary non-reloadable card can be used for purchases until the replacement reloadable card arrives and is activated by the cardholder. Because the temporary non-reloadable card may only be obtained in connection with the general-purpose reloadable card, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(2) applies so long as the card is not marketed as a gift card or gift certificate.
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<HD3>Paragraph 20(b)(4)—Not Marketed to the General Public
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Marketed to the general public.</I> A card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public if the potential use of the card, code, or other device is directly or indirectly offered, advertised, or otherwise promoted to the general public. A card, code, or other device may be marketed to the general public through any advertising medium, including television, radio, newspaper, the Internet, or signage. However, the posting of a company policy that funds may be disbursed by prepaid card (such as a sign posted at a cash register or customer service center stating that store credit will be issued by prepaid card) does not constitute the marketing of a card, code, or other device to the general public. In addition, the method of distribution by itself is not dispositive in determining whether a card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public. Factors that may be considered in determining whether the exclusion applies to a particular card, code, or other device include the means or channel through which the card, code, or device may be obtained by a consumer, the subset of consumers that are eligible to obtain the card, code, or device, and whether the availability of the card, code, or device is advertised or otherwise promoted in the marketplace.
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4)
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<P>i. A merchant sells its gift cards at a discount to a business which may give them to employees or loyal consumers as incentives or rewards. In determining whether the gift card falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4), the merchant must consider whether the card is of a type that is advertised or made available to consumers generally or can be obtained elsewhere. If the card can also be purchased through retail channels, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply, even if the consumer obtained the card from the business as an incentive or reward. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(b)(3).
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<P>ii. A national retail chain decides to market its gift cards only to members of its frequent buyer program. Similarly, a bank may decide to sell gift cards only to its customers. If a member of the general public may become a member of the program or a customer of the bank, the card does not fall within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) because the general public has the ability to obtain the cards. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(b)(3).
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<P>iii. A card issuer advertises a reloadable card to teenagers and their parents promoting the card for use by teenagers for occasional expenses, schoolbooks and emergencies and by parents to monitor spending. Because the card is marketed to and may be sold to any member of the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(b)(2).
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<P>iv. An insurance company settles a policyholder's claim and distributes the insurance proceeds to the consumer by means of a prepaid card. Because the prepaid card is simply the means for providing the insurance proceeds to the consumer and the availability of the card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies.
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<P>v. A merchant provides store credit to a consumer following a merchandise return by issuing a prepaid card that clearly indicates that the card contains funds for store credit. Because the prepaid card is issued for the stated purpose of providing store credit to the consumer and the ability to receive refunds by a prepaid card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies.
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<P>vi. A tax preparation company elects to distribute tax refunds to its clients by issuing prepaid cards, but does not advertise or otherwise promote the ability to receive proceeds in this manner. Because the prepaid card is simply the mechanism for providing the tax refund to the consumer, and the tax preparer does not advertise the ability to obtain tax refunds by a prepaid card, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) applies. However, if the tax preparer promotes the ability to receive tax refund proceeds through a prepaid card as a way to obtain “faster” access to the proceeds, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(4) does not apply.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(b)(5)—Issued in Paper Form Only
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Exclusion explained.</I> To qualify for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5), the sole means of issuing the card, code, or other device must be in a paper form. Thus, the exclusion generally applies to certificates issued in paper form where solely the paper itself may be used to purchase goods or services. A card, code or other device is not issued solely in paper form simply because it may be reproduced or printed on paper. For example, a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon electronically provided to a consumer and redeemable for goods and services is not issued in paper form, even if it may be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer. In this circumstance, although the consumer might hold a paper facsimile of the card, code, or other device, the exclusion does not apply because the information necessary to redeem the value was initially issued in electronic form. A paper certificate is within the exclusion regardless of whether it may be redeemed electronically. For example, a paper certificate or receipt that bears a bar code, code, or account number falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) if the bar code, code, or account number is not issued in any form other than on the paper. In addition, the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) continues to apply in circumstances where an issuer replaces a gift certificate that was initially issued in paper form with a card or electronic code (for example, to replace a lost paper certificate).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5)
</P>
<P>i. A merchant issues a paper gift certificate that entitles the bearer to a specified dollar amount that can be applied towards a future meal. The merchant fills in the certificate with the name of the certificate holder and the amount of the certificate. The certificate falls within the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) because it is issued in paper form only.
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<P>ii. A merchant allows a consumer to prepay for a good or service, such as a car wash or time at a parking meter, and issues a paper receipt bearing a numerical or bar code that the consumer may redeem to obtain the good or service. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) applies because the code is issued in paper form only.
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<P>iii. A merchant issues a paper certificate or receipt bearing a bar code or certificate number that can later be scanned or entered into the merchant's system and redeemed by the certificate or receipt holder towards the purchase of goods or services. The bar code or certificate number is not issued by the merchant in any form other than paper. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) applies because the bar code or certificate number is issued in paper form only.
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<P>iv. An on-line merchant electronically provides a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon to a consumer that the consumer may print on a home printer and later redeem towards the purchase of goods or services. The exclusion in § 205.20(b)(5) does not apply because the bar code or card or certificate number was issued to the consumer in electronic form, even though it can be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer.
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<HD3>Paragraph 20(b)(6)—Redeemable Solely for Admission to Events or Venues
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Exclusion explained.</I> The exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices that are redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations generally applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are not redeemed for a specified monetary value, but rather solely for admission or entry to an event or venue. The exclusion also covers a card, code, or other device that is usable to purchase goods or services in addition to entry into the event or the venue, either at the event or venue or at an affiliated location or location in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6)
</P>
<P>i. A consumer purchases a prepaid card that entitles the holder to a ticket for entry to an amusement park. The prepaid card may only be used for entry to the park. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission. In addition, if the prepaid card does not have a monetary value, and therefore is not “issued in a specified amount,” the card does not meet the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” in § 205.20(a). <I>See</I> comment 20(a)-3.
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<P>ii. Same facts as in i., except that the gift card also entitles the holder of the gift card to a dollar amount that can be applied towards the purchase of food and beverages or goods or services at the park or at nearby affiliated locations. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission.
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<P>iii. A consumer purchases a $25 gift card that the holder of the gift card can use to make purchases at a merchant, or, alternatively, can apply towards the cost of admission to the merchant's affiliated amusement park. The card is not eligible for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(6) because it is not redeemable solely for the admission or ticket itself (or for goods and services purchased in conjunction with such admission). The card meets the definition of “store gift card” and is therefore subject to § 205.20, unless a different exclusion applies.
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<HD2>20(c) Form of Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(c)(1)—Clear and Conspicuous
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> All disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of this section if they are readily understandable and, in the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size are readily noticeable to consumers. Disclosures need not be located on the front of the certificate or card, except where otherwise required, to be considered clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for the purposes of this section if they are in a print that contrasts with and is otherwise not obstructed by the background on which they are printed. For example, disclosures on a card or computer screen are not likely to be conspicuous if obscured by a logo printed in the background. Similarly, disclosures on the back of a card that are printed on top of indentations from embossed type on the front of the card are not likely to be conspicuous if the indentations obstruct the readability of the disclosures. To the extent permitted, oral disclosures meet the standard when they are given at a volume and speed sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them.
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<P>2. <I>Abbreviations and symbols.</I> Disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols, such as “mo.” for month or a “/” to indicate “per.” Under the clear and conspicuous standard, it is sufficient to state, for example, that a particular fee is charged “$2.50/mo. after 12 mos.”
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<HD3>Paragraph 20(c)(2)—Format
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Disclosures provided electronically pursuant to this section are not subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). Electronic disclosures must be in a retainable form. For example, a person may satisfy the requirement if it provides an online disclosure in a format that is capable of being printed. Electronic disclosures may not be provided through a hyperlink or in another manner by which the purchaser can bypass the disclosure. A person is not required to confirm that the consumer has read the electronic disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(c)(3)—Disclosure Prior to Purchase
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Method of purchase.</I> The disclosures required by this paragraph must be provided before a certificate or card is purchased regardless of whether the certificate or card is purchased in person, online, by telephone, or by other means.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Section 205.20(c)(3) provides that the disclosures required by this section must be provided to the consumer prior to purchase. For certificates or cards purchased electronically, disclosures made to the consumer after a consumer has initiated an online purchase of a certificate or card, but prior to completing the purchase of the certificate or card, would satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement. However, electronic disclosures made available on a person's Web site that may or may not be accessed by the consumer are not provided to the consumer and therefore would not satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Non-physical certificates and cards.</I> If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures must be provided to the consumer before the certificate or card is purchased. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code that is provided by telephone, the required disclosures may be provided orally prior to purchase. <I>See also</I> § 205.20(c)(2).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(c)(4)—Disclosures on the Certificate or Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Non-physical certificates and cards.</I> If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures required by this paragraph must be disclosed on the code, confirmation, or other written or electronic document provided to the consumer. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code or confirmation that is provided to a consumer on-line or sent to a consumer's e-mail address, the required disclosures may be provided electronically on the same document as the code or confirmation.
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<P>2. <I>No disclosures on a certificate or card.</I> Disclosures required by § 205.20(c)(4) need not be made on a certificate or card if it is accompanied by a certificate or card that complies with this section. For example, a person may issue or sell a supplemental gift card that is smaller than a standard size and that does not bear the applicable disclosures if it is accompanied by a fully compliant certificate or card. <I>See also</I> comment 20(c)(2)-2.
</P>
<HD2>20(d) Prohibition on Imposition of Fees or Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>One-year period.</I> Section 205.20(d) provides that a person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee only if there has been no activity with respect to a certificate or card for one year. The following examples illustrate this rule
</P>
<P>i. A certificate or card is purchased on January 15 of year one. If there has been no activity on the certificate or card since the certificate or card was purchased, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed on the certificate or card on January 15 of year two.
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<P>ii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. Because no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month, the earliest date that another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed, assuming there continues to be no activity on the certificate or card, is February 1 of year two. A dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is permitted to be imposed on February 1 of year two because there has been no activity on the certificate or card for the preceding year (February 1 of year one through January 31 of year two), and February is a new calendar month. The imposition of a fee on January 15 of year two is not activity for purposes of § 205.20(d). <I>See</I> comment 20(a)(7)-1.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. On January 31 of year two, the consumer uses the card to make a purchase. Another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee could not be imposed until January 31 of year three, assuming there has been no activity on the certificate or card since January 31 of year two.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3).</I> Sections 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) contain similar, but not identical, disclosure requirements. Section 205.20(d)(2) requires the disclosure of dormancy, inactivity, and service fees on a certificate or card. Section 205.20(c)(3) requires that vendor person that issues or sells such certificate or card disclose to a consumer any dormancy, inactivity, and service fees associated with the certificate or card before such certificate or card may be purchased. Depending on the context, a single disclosure that meets the clear and conspicuous requirements of both §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) may be used to disclose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 205.20(d)(2), are visible to the consumer without having to remove packaging or other materials sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, the disclosures also meet the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3). Otherwise, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may need to be disclosed multiple times to satisfy the requirements of §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (c)(3). For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 205.20(d)(2), are obstructed by packaging sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, they also must be disclosed on the packaging sold with the certificate or card to meet the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required under § 205.20(d)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(e)(3) and (f)(2) of this section must also be provided on the certificate or card.
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<P>4. <I>One fee per month.</I> Under § 205.20(d)(3), no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month. For example, if a dormancy fee is imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and a consumer makes a balance inquiry on January 15, a balance inquiry fee may not be imposed at that time because a dormancy fee was already imposed earlier that month and a balance inquiry fee is a type of service fee. If, however, the dormancy fee could be imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and the consumer makes a balance inquiry on the same date, the person assessing the fees may choose whether to impose the dormancy fee or the balance inquiry fee on January 1. The restriction in § 205.20(d)(3) does not apply to any fee that is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, assume a service fee is imposed on a general-use prepaid card on January 1, following a year of inactivity. If a consumer cashes out the remaining funds by check on January 15, a cash-out fee, to the extent such cash-out fee is permitted under § 205.20(e)(4), may be imposed at that time because a cash-out fee is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee.
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<P>5. <I>Accumulation of fees.</I> Section 205.20(d) prohibits the accumulation of dormancy, inactivity, or service fees for previous periods into a single fee because such a practice would circumvent the limitation in § 205.20(d)(3) that only one fee may be charged per month. For example, if a consumer purchases and activates a store gift card on January 1 but never uses the card, a monthly maintenance fee of $2.00 a month may not be accumulated such that a fee of $24 is imposed on January 1 the following year.
</P>
<HD2>20(e) Prohibition on Sale of Gift Certificates or Cards With Expiration Dates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable opportunity.</I> Under § 205.20(e)(1), no person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. Consumers are deemed to have a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date if
</P>
<P>i. There are policies and procedures established to prevent the sale of a certificate or card unless the certificate or card expiration date is at least five years after the date the certificate or card was sold or initially issued to a consumer; or
</P>
<P>ii. A certificate or card is available to consumers to purchase five years and six months before the certificate or card expiration date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability to replacement certificates or cards.</I> Section 205.20(e)(1) applies solely to the <I>purchase</I> of a certificate or card. Therefore, § 205.20(e)(1) does not apply to the replacement of such certificates or cards. Certificates or cards issued as a replacement may bear a certificate or card expiration date of less than five years from the date of issuance of the replacement certificate or card. If the certificate or card expiration date for a replacement certificate or card is later than the date set forth in § 205.20(e)(2)(i), then pursuant to § 205.20(e)(2), the expiration date for the underlying funds at the time the replacement certificate or card is issued must be no earlier than the expiration date for the replacement certificate or card. For purposes of § 205.20(e)(2), funds are not considered to be loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card solely because a replacement card has been issued or activated for use.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of funds expiration—date not required.</I> Section 205.20(e)(3)(i) does not require disclosure of the precise date the funds will expire. It is sufficient to disclose, for example, “Funds expire 5 years from the date funds last loaded to the card.”; “Funds can be used 5 years from the date money was last added to the card.”; or “Funds do not expire.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosure not required if no expiration date.</I> If the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire, the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(i) need not be stated on the certificate or card. If the certificate or card and underlying funds expire at the same time, only one expiration date need be disclosed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site.</I> If a certificate or card does not expire, or if the underlying funds are not available after the certificate or card expires, the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(ii) need not be stated on the certificate or card. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(f)(2).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relationship to § 226.20(f)(2).</I> The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and the certificate or card and the underlying funds do not expire.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Distinguishing between certificate or card expiration and funds expiration.</I> If applicable, a disclosure must be made on the certificate or card that notifies a consumer that the certificate or card expires, but the funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and that the consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card. The disclosure must be made with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date. The close proximity requirement does not apply to oral disclosures. In the case of a certificate or card, close proximity means that the disclosure must be on the same side as the certificate or card expiration date. For example, if the disclosure is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the certificate or card expiration date, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent and in close proximity. The disclosure need not be embossed on the certificate or card to be deemed equally prominent, even if the expiration date is embossed on the certificate or card. The disclosure may state on the front of the card, for example, “Funds expire after card. Call for replacement card.” or “Funds do not expire. Call for new card after 09/2016.” Disclosures made pursuant to § 205.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) may also fulfill the requirements of § 205.20(e)(3)(i). For example, making a disclosure that “Funds do not expire” to comply with § 205.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) also fulfills the requirements of § 205.20(e)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Expiration date safe harbor.</I> A non-reloadable certificate or card that bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture need not state the disclosure required by § 205.20(e)(3)(iii). However, § 205.20(e)(1) still prohibits the sale or issuance of such certificate or card unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to purchase the certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. In addition, under § 205.20(e)(2), the funds may not expire before the certificate or card expiration date, even if the expiration date of the certificate or card bears an expiration date that is more than five years at the date of purchase. For purposes of this safe harbor, the date of manufacture is the date on which the certificate or card expiration date is printed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required to be made under § 205.20(e)(3), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (f)(2) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Replacement or remaining balance of an expired certificate or card.</I> When a certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds have not expired, an issuer, at its option in accordance with applicable state law, may provide either a replacement certificate or card or otherwise provide the certificate or card holder, for example, by check, with the remaining balance on the certificate or card. In either case, the issuer may not charge a fee for the service.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Replacement of a lost or stolen certificate or card not required.</I> Section 205.20(e)(4) does not require the replacement of a certificate or card that has been lost or stolen.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Date of issuance or loading.</I> For purposes of § 205.20(e)(2)(i), a certificate or card is not issued or loaded with funds until the certificate or card is activated for use.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Application of expiration date provisions after redemption of certificate or card.</I> The requirement that funds underlying a certificate or card must not expire for at least five years from the date of issuance or date of last load ceases to apply once the certificate or card has been fully redeemed, even if the underlying funds are not used to contemporaneously purchase a specific good or service. For example, some certificates or cards can be used to purchase music, media, or virtual goods. Once redeemed by a consumer, the entire balance on the certificate or card is debited from the certificate or card and credited or transferred to another “account” established by the merchant of such goods or services. The consumer can then make purchases of songs, media, or virtual goods from the merchant using that “account” either at the time the value is transferred from the certificate or card or at a later time. Under these circumstances, once the card has been fully redeemed and the “account” credited with the amount of the underlying funds, the five-year minimum expiration term no longer applies to the underlying funds. However, if the consumer only partially redeems the value of the certificate or card, the five-year minimum expiration term requirement continues to apply to the funds remaining on the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(f) Additional Disclosure Requirements for Gift Certificates or Cards
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site.</I> If a certificate or card does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 205.20(f)(2) is not required on the certificate or card. <I>See, however,</I> § 205.20(e)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 226.20(e)(3)(ii).</I> The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and both the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship between §§ 205.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required pursuant to § 205.20(f)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 205.20(d)(2) and (e)(3) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(g) Compliance Dates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Period of eligibility for loyalty, award, or promotional programs.</I> For purposes of § 205.20(g)(2), the period of eligibility is the time period during which a consumer must engage in a certain action or actions to meet the terms of eligibility for a loyalty, award, or promotional program and obtain the card, code, or other device. Under § 205.20(g)(2), a gift card issued pursuant to a loyalty, award, or promotional program that began prior to August 22, 2010 need not state the disclosures in § 205.20(a)(4)(iii) regardless of whether the consumer became eligible to receive the gift card prior to August 22, 2010, or after that date. For example, a product manufacturer may provide a $20 rebate card to a consumer if the consumer purchases a particular product and submits a fully completed entry between January 1, 2010 and December 31, 2010. Similarly, a merchant may provide a $20 gift card to a consumer if the consumer makes $200 worth of qualifying purchases between June 1, 2010 and October 30, 2010. Under both examples, gift cards provided pursuant to these loyalty, award, or promotional programs need not state the disclosures in § 205.20(a)(4)(iii) to qualify for the exclusion in § 205.20(b)(3) for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards because the period of eligibility for each program began prior to August 22, 2010.
</P>
<HD2>20(h) Temporary Exemption
</HD2>
<HD3>20(h)(1)—Delayed Effective Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application to certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010.</I> Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 may be sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010 without satisfying the requirements of § 205.20(c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) through January 30, 2011, provided that issuers of such certificates or cards comply with the additional substantive and disclosure requirements of §§ 205.20(h)(1)(i) through (iv). Issuers of certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 need not satisfy these additional requirements if the certificates or cards fully comply with the rule (§§ 205.20(a) through (f)). For example, the in-store signage and other disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) do not apply to gift cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not have fees and do not expire, and which otherwise comply with the rule.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expiration of temporary exemption.</I> Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not fully comply with §§ 205.20(a) through (f) may not be issued or sold to consumers on or after January 31, 2011.
</P>
<HD3>20(h)(2)—Additional Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures through third parties.</I> Issuers may make the disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) through a third party, such as a retailer or merchant. For example, an issuer may have a merchant install in-store signage with the disclosures required by § 205.20(h)(2) on the issuer's behalf.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General advertising disclosures.</I> Section 205.20(h)(2) does not impose an obligation on the issuer to advertise gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix A—Model Disclosure Clauses and Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Review of forms.</I> The Board will not review or approve disclosure forms or statements for financial institutions. However, the Board has issued model clauses for institutions to use in designing their disclosures. If an institution uses these clauses accurately to reflect its service, the institution is protected from liability for failure to make disclosures in proper form. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of forms.</I> The appendix contains model disclosure clauses for optional use by financial institutions to facilitate compliance with the disclosure requirements of sections 205.5(b)(2) and (b)(3), 205.6(a), 205.7, 205.8(b), 205.14(b)(1)(ii), 205.15(d)(1) and (d)(2), and 205.18(c)(1) and (c)(2). The use of appropriate clauses in making disclosures will protect a financial institution from liability under sections 915 and 916 of the act provided the clauses accurately reflect the institution's EFT services.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Altering the clauses.</I> Financial institutions may use clauses of their own design in conjunction with the Board's model clauses. The inapplicable words or portions of phrases in parentheses should be deleted. The catchlines are not part of the clauses and need not be used. Financial institutions may make alterations, substitutions, or additions in the clauses to reflect the services offered, such as technical changes (including the substitution of a trade name for the word “card,” deletion of inapplicable services, or substitution of lesser liability limits). Several of the model clauses include references to a telephone number and address. Where two or more of these clauses are used in a disclosure, the telephone number and address may be referenced and need not be repeated. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. E, 61 FR 19686, May 2, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 13412, Mar. 6, 2001; 66 FR 15192, Mar. 16, 2001; 66 FR 17794, Apr. 4, 2001; 71 FR 1661, Jan. 10, 2006; 71 FR 69437, Dec. 1, 2006; 71 FR 1482, Jan. 10, 2006, 71 FR 51450, Aug. 30, 2006; 72 FR 36593, July 5, 2007; 72 FR 63456, Nov. 9, 2007; 74 FR 59055, Nov. 17, 2009; 75 FR 31671, June 4, 2010; 75 FR 16615, Apr. 1, 2010; 75 FR 50688, Aug. 17, 2010; 75 FR 66649, Oct. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="206" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 206—LIMITATIONS ON INTERBANK LIABILITIES (REGULATION F)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 371b-2
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 206.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> This part (Regulation F, 12 CFR part 206) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under authority of section 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b-2). The purpose of this part is to limit the risks that the failure of a depository institution would pose to insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to all depository institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 53283, Sept. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context requires otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means an insured depository institution, as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813), and includes an insured national bank, state bank, District bank, or savings association, and an insured branch of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commonly-controlled correspondent</I> means a correspondent that is commonly controlled with the bank and for which the bank is subject to liability under section 5(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. A correspondent is considered to be commonly controlled with the bank if:
</P>
<P>(1) 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the bank and the correspondent are owned, directly or indirectly, by the same depository institution or company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Either the bank or the correspondent owns 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correspondent</I> means a U.S. depository institution or a foreign bank, as defined in this part, to which a bank has exposure, but does not include a commonly controlled correspondent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposure</I> means the potential that an obligation will not be paid in a timely manner or in full. “Exposure” includes credit and liquidity risks, including operational risks, related to intraday and interday transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign bank</I> means an institution that: (1) Is organized under the laws of a country other than the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in the business of banking;
</P>
<P>(3) Is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of the bank's organization;
</P>
<P>(4) Receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has the power to accept demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Primary federal supervisor</I> has the same meaning as the term “appropriate Federal banking agency” in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Total capital</I> means the total of a bank's Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital under the risk-based capital guidelines provided by the bank's primary federal supervisor. For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), total capital means the bank's Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter). For an insured branch of a foreign bank organized under the laws of a country that subscribes to the principles of the Basel Capital Accord, “total capital” means total Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital as calculated under the standards of that country. For an insured branch of a foreign bank organized under the laws of a country that does not subscribe to the principles of the Basel Capital Accord (Accord), “total capital” means total Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital as calculated under the provisions of the Accord.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>U.S. depository institution</I> means a bank, as defined in § 206.2(a) of this part, other than an insured branch of a foreign bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 53283, Sept. 10, 2003; 84 FR 61796, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.3   Prudential standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A bank shall establish and maintain written policies and procedures to prevent excessive exposure to any individual correspondent in relation to the condition of the correspondent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for selecting correspondents.</I> (1) A bank shall establish policies and procedures that take into account credit and liquidity risks, including operational risks, in selecting correspondents and terminating those relationships.
</P>
<P>(2) Where exposure to a correspondent is significant, the policies and procedures shall require periodic reviews of the financial condition of the correspondent and shall take into account any deterioration in the correspondent's financial condition. Factors bearing on the financial condition of the correspondent include the capital level of the correspondent, level of nonaccrual and past due loans and leases, level of earnings, and other factors affecting the financial condition of the correspondent. Where public information on the financial condition of the correspondent is available, a bank may base its review of the financial condition of a correspondent on such information, and is not required to obtain non-public information for its review. However, for those foreign banks for which there is no public source of financial information, a bank will be required to obtain information for its review.
</P>
<P>(3) A bank may rely on another party, such as a bank rating agency or the bank's holding company, to assess the financial condition of or select a correspondent, provided that the bank's board of directors has reviewed and approved the general assessment or selection criteria used by that party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Internal limits on exposure.</I> (1) Where the financial condition of the correspondent and the form or maturity of the exposure create a significant risk that payments will not be made in full or in a timely manner, a bank's policies and procedures shall limit the bank's exposure to the correspondent, either by the establishment of internal limits or by other means. Limits shall be consistent with the risk undertaken, considering the financial condition and the form and maturity of exposure to the correspondent. Limits may be fixed as to amount or flexible, based on such factors as the monitoring of exposure and the financial condition of the correspondent. Different limits may be set for different forms of exposure, different products, and different maturities.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank shall structure transactions with a correspondent or monitor exposure to a correspondent, directly or through another party, to ensure that its exposure ordinarily does not exceed the bank's internal limits, including limits established for credit exposure, except for occasional excesses resulting from unusual market disturbances, market movements favorable to the bank, increases in activity, operational problems, or other unusual circumstances. Generally, monitoring may be done on a retrospective basis. The level of monitoring required depends on:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which exposure approaches the bank's internal limits;
</P>
<P>(ii) The volatility of the exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The financial condition of the correspondent.
</P>
<P>(3) A bank shall establish appropriate procedures to address excesses over its internal limits.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review by board of directors.</I> The policies and procedures established under this section shall be reviewed and approved by the bank's board of directors at least annually.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 53283, Sept. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.4   Credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on credit exposure.</I> (1) The policies and procedures on exposure established by a bank under § 206.3(c) of this part shall limit a bank's interday credit exposure to an individual correspondent to not more than 25 percent of the bank's total capital, unless the bank can demonstrate that its correspondent is at least adequately capitalized, as defined in § 206.5(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a bank is no longer able to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized for the purposes of § 206.4(a) of this part, including where the bank cannot obtain adequate information concerning the capital ratios of the correspondent, the bank shall reduce its credit exposure to comply with the requirements of § 206.4(a)(1) of this part within 120 days after the date when the current Report of Condition and Income or other relevant report normally would be available.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of credit exposure.</I> Except as provided in §§ 206.4 (c) and (d) of this part, the credit exposure of a bank to a correspondent shall consist of the bank's assets and off-balance sheet items that are subject to capital requirements under the capital adequacy guidelines of the bank's primary federal supervisor, and that involve claims on the correspondent or capital instruments issued by the correspondent. For this purpose, off-balance sheet items shall be valued on the basis of current exposure. The term “credit exposure” does not include exposure related to the settlement of transactions, intraday exposure, transactions in an agency or similar capacity where losses will be passed back to the principal or other party, or other sources of exposure that are not covered by the capital adequacy guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Netting.</I> Transactions covered by netting agreements that are valid and enforceable under all applicable laws may be netted in calculating credit exposure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusions.</I> A bank may exclude the following from the calculation of credit exposure to a correspondent:
</P>
<P>(1) Transactions, including reverse repurchase agreements, to the extent that the transactions are secured by government securities or readily marketable collateral, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, based on the current market value of the collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) The proceeds of checks and other cash items deposited in an account at a correspondent that are not yet available for withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(3) Quality assets, as defined in paragraph (f) of this section, on which the correspondent is secondarily liable, or obligations of the correspondent on which a creditworthy obligor in addition to the correspondent is available, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Loans to third parties secured by stock or debt obligations of the correspondent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans to third parties purchased from the correspondent with recourse;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loans or obligations of third parties backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by the correspondent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Obligations of the correspondent backed by stand-by letters of credit issued by a creditworthy third party;
</P>
<P>(4) exposure that results from the merger with or acquisition of another bank for one year after that merger or acquisition is consummated; and
</P>
<P>(5) The portion of the bank's exposure to the correspondent that is covered by federal deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit exposure of subsidiaries.</I> In calculating credit exposure to a correspondent under this part, a bank shall include credit exposure to the correspondent of any entity that the bank is required to consolidate on its Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government securities</I> means obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States government or any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States, or any corporation wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means financial instruments or bullion that may be sold in ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions on an auction or a similarly available daily bid- ask-price market.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Quality asset</I> means an asset:
</P>
<P>(A) That is not in a nonaccrual status;
</P>
<P>(B) On which principal or interest is not more than thirty days past due; and
</P>
<P>(C) Whose terms have not been renegotiated or compromised due to the deteriorating financial conditions of the additional obligor.
</P>
<P>(ii) An asset is not considered a “quality asset” if any other loans to the primary obligor on the asset have been classified as “substandard,” “doubtful,” or “loss,” or treated as “other loans specially mentioned” in the most recent report of examination or inspection of the bank or an affiliate prepared by either a federal or a state supervisory agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 53283, Sept. 10, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.5   Capital levels of correspondents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adequately capitalized correspondents.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> For the purpose of this part, a correspondent is considered adequately capitalized if the correspondent has:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As used in this part, the term “adequately capitalized” is similar but not identical to the definition of that term as used for the purposes of the prompt corrective action standards. See, <I>e.g.</I> 12 CFR part 208, subpart D.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) A total risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, of 8.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(2) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(3) A leverage ratio, as defined in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, of 4.0 percent or greater.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Frequency of monitoring capital levels.</I> A bank shall obtain information to demonstrate that a correspondent is at least adequately capitalized on a quarterly basis, either from the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, financial statement, or bank rating report for the correspondent. For a foreign bank correspondent for which quarterly financial statements or reports are not available, a bank shall obtain such information on as frequent a basis as such information is available. Information obtained directly from a correspondent for the purpose of this section should be based on the most recently available Report of Condition and Income, Thrift Financial Report, or financial statement of the correspondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign banks.</I> A correspondent that is a foreign bank may be considered adequately capitalized under this section without regard to the minimum leverage ratio required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reliance on information.</I> A bank may rely on information as to the capital levels of a correspondent obtained from the correspondent, a bank rating agency, or other party that it reasonably believes to be accurate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of qualifying total capital to weighted risk assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to weighted risk assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent's primary federal supervisor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of capital ratios.</I> (1) For a correspondent that is a U.S. depository institution, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the correspondent's primary federal supervisor.
</P>
<P>(2) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the capital adequacy guidelines of the appropriate supervisory authority of the country in which the correspondent is chartered.
</P>
<P>(3) For a correspondent that is a foreign bank organized in a country that has not adopted the risk-based framework of the Basel Capital Accord, the ratios shall be calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Basel Capital Accord.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. F, 57 FR 60106, Dec. 18, 1992, as amended at 68 FR 53283, Sept. 10, 2003; 84 FR 61796, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 206.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.7.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 206.6   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may waive the application of § 206.4(a) of this part to a bank if the primary Federal supervisor of the bank advises the Board that the bank is not reasonably able to obtain necessary services, including payment-related services and placement of funds, without incurring exposure to a correspondent in excess of the otherwise applicable limit.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="207" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 207—DISCLOSURE AND REPORTING OF CRA-RELATED AGREEMENTS (REGULATION G) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1831y. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. G, 66 FR 2092, Jan. 10, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 207.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.1   Purpose and scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part implements section 711 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). That section requires any nongovernmental entity or person, insured depository institution, or affiliate of an insured depository institution that enters into a covered agreement to—
</P>
<P>(1) Make the covered agreement available to the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency; and 
</P>
<P>(2) File an annual report with the appropriate Federal banking agency concerning the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of this part.</I> The provisions of this part apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) State member banks and their subsidiaries; 
</P>
<P>(2) Bank holding companies; 
</P>
<P>(3) Savings and loan holding companies;
</P>
<P>(4) Affiliates of bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, other than banks, savings associations and subsidiaries of banks and savings associations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Nongovernmental entities or persons that enter into covered agreements with any company listed in paragraph (b)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to Community Reinvestment Act.</I> This part does not affect in any way the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>), the Board's Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228), or the Board's interpretations or administration of that Act or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise in this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. G, 66 FR 2092, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 76 FR 56530, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.2   Definition of covered agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General definition of covered agreement.</I> A covered agreement is any contract, arrangement, or understanding that meets all of the following criteria—
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement is in writing. 
</P>
<P>(2) The parties to the agreement include—
</P>
<P>(i) One or more insured depository institutions or affiliates of an insured depository institution; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more nongovernmental entities or persons (referred to hereafter as NGEPs). 
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement provides for the insured depository institution or any affiliate to— 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) cash payments, grants, or other consideration (except loans) that have an aggregate value of more than $10,000 in any calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Make to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) loans that have an aggregate principal amount of more than $50,000 in any calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(4) The agreement is made pursuant to, or in connection with, the fulfillment of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA), as defined in § 207.4. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agreement is with a NGEP that has had a CRA communication as described in § 207.3 prior to entering into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples concerning written arrangements or understandings</I>—(1) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more community development investments in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not reach an agreement concerning the community development investments the institution should make in the community, and the parties do not reach any mutual arrangement or understanding. Two weeks later, the institution unilaterally issues a press release announcing that it has established a general goal of making $100 million of community development grants in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods served by the insured depository institution over the next 5 years. The NGEP is not identified in the press release. The press release is not a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to offer new loan programs in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and the insured depository institution reach a mutual arrangement or understanding that the institution will provide additional loans in the NGEP's community. The institution tells the NGEP that it will issue a press release announcing the program. Later, the insured depository institution issues a press release announcing the loan program. The press release incorporates the key terms of the understanding reached between the NGEP and the insured depository institution. The written press release reflects the mutual arrangement or understanding of the NGEP and the insured depository institution and is, therefore, a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An NGEP sends a letter to an insured depository institution requesting that the institution provide a $15,000 grant to the NGEP. The insured depository institution responds in writing and agrees to provide the grant in connection with its annual grant program. The exchange of letters constitutes a written arrangement or understanding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loan agreements that are not covered agreements.</I> A covered agreement does not include—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual loan that is secured by real estate; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any specific contract or commitment for a loan or extension of credit to an individual, business, farm, or other entity, or group of such individuals or entities, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The funds are loaned at rates that are not substantially below market rates; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan application or other loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to use the borrowed funds to make a loan or extension of credit to one or more third parties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples concerning loan agreements</I>—(1) <I>Example 1.</I> An insured depository institution provides an organization with a $1 million loan that is documented in writing and is secured by real estate owned or to-be-acquired by the organization. The agreement is an individual mortgage loan and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regardless of the interest rate on the loan or whether the organization intends or is authorized to re-loan the funds to a third party. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> An insured depository institution commits to provide a $500,000 line of credit to a small business that is documented by a written agreement. The loan is made at rates that are within the range of rates offered by the institution to similarly situated small businesses in the market and the loan documentation does not indicate that the small business intends or is authorized to re-lend the borrowed funds. The agreement is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An insured depository institution offers small business loans that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration (SBA). A small business obtains a $75,000 loan, documented in writing, from the institution under the institution's SBA loan program. The loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to re-lend the funds. Although the rate charged on the loan is well below that charged by the institution on commercial loans, the rate is within the range of rates that the institution would charge a similarly situated small business for a similar loan under the SBA loan program. Accordingly, the loan is not made at substantially below market rates and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company enters into a written agreement with a community development organization that provides that insured depository institutions owned by the bank holding company will make $250 million in small business loans in the community over the next 5 years. The written agreement is not a specific contract or commitment for a loan or an extension of credit and, thus, is not exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Each small business loan made by the insured depository institution pursuant to this general commitment would, however, be exempt from coverage if the loan is made at rates that are not substantially below market rates and the loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intended or was authorized to re-lend the funds. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements that include exempt loan agreements.</I> If an agreement includes a loan, extension of credit or loan commitment that, if documented separately, would be exempt under paragraph (c) of this section, the exempt loan, extension of credit or loan commitment may be excluded for purposes of determining whether the agreement is a covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determining annual value of agreements that lack schedule of disbursements.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a multi-year agreement that does not include a schedule for the disbursement of payments, grants, loans or other consideration by the insured depository institution or affiliate, is considered to have a value in the first year of the agreement equal to all payments, grants, loans and other consideration to be provided at any time under the agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.3   CRA communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of CRA communication.</I> A CRA communication is any of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral comment or testimony provided to a Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that discusses the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the institution and must be included in the institution's CRA public file. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any discussion or other contact with the insured depository institution or any affiliate about—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing (or refraining from providing) written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing (or refraining from providing) written comments to the insured depository institution that concern the adequacy of the institution's performance under the CRA and must be included in the institution's CRA public file; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discussions or contacts that are not CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Timing of contacts with a Federal banking agency.</I> An oral or written communication with a Federal banking agency is not a CRA communication if it occurred more than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of contacts with insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> A communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate is not a CRA communication if the communication occurred— 
</P>
<P>(i) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any written communication; 
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any oral communication in which the NGEP discusses providing (or refraining from providing) comments or testimony to a Federal banking agency or written comments that must be included in the institution's CRA public file in connection with a request to, or agreement by, the institution or affiliate to take (or refrain from taking) any action that is in fulfillment of the CRA; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) More than 1 year before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any other oral communication not described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Knowledge of communication by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> (i) A communication is only a CRA communication under paragraph (a) of this section if the insured depository institution or its affiliate has knowledge of the communication under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (b)(3)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Communication with insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate has knowledge of a communication by the NGEP to the institution or its affiliate under this paragraph only if one of the following representatives of the insured depository institution or any affiliate has knowledge of the communication.
</P>
<P>(A) An employee who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the NGEP; or 
</P>
<P>(B) An employee designated with responsibility for compliance with the CRA or executive officer if the employee or executive officer knows that the institution or affiliate is negotiating, intends to negotiate, or has been informed by the NGEP that it expects to request that the institution or affiliate negotiate an agreement with the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other communications.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate is deemed to have knowledge of—
</P>
<P>(A) Any testimony provided to a Federal banking agency at a public meeting or hearing; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any comment submitted to a Federal banking agency that is conveyed in writing by the agency to the insured depository institution or affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that must be and is included in the institution's CRA public file. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communication where NGEP has knowledge.</I> A NGEP has a CRA communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate only if any of the following individuals has knowledge of the communication—
</P>
<P>(i) A director, employee, or member of the NGEP who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who functions as an executive officer of the NGEP and who knows that the NGEP is negotiating or intends to negotiate an agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the NGEP is an individual, the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Examples of actions that are CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive and assume that the communication occurs within the relevant time period as described in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and the appropriate representatives have knowledge of the communication as specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP files a written comment with a Federal banking agency that states than an insured depository institution successfully addresses the credit needs of its community. The written comment is in response to a general request from the agency for comments on an application of the insured depository institution to open a new branch and a copy of the comment is provided to the institution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution must improve its CRA performance. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more mortgage loans in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods in its community. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company files an application with a Federal banking agency to acquire an insured depository institution. Two weeks later, the NGEP meets with an executive officer of the bank holding company to discuss the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the target insured depository institution. The insured depository institution was an affiliate of the bank holding company at the time the NGEP met with the target institution. (See § 207.11(a).) Accordingly, the NGEP had a CRA communication with an affiliate of the bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of actions that are not CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of actions that are not by themselves CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP provides to a Federal banking agency comments or testimony concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate in response to a direct request by the agency for comments or testimony from that NGEP. Direct requests for comments or testimony do not include a general invitation by a Federal banking agency for comments or testimony from the public in connection with a CRA performance evaluation of, or application for a deposit facility (as defined in section 803 of the CRA (12 U.S.C. 2902(3)) by, an insured depository institution or an application by a company to acquire an insured depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP makes a statement concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate at a widely attended conference or seminar regarding a general topic. A public or private meeting, public hearing, or other meeting regarding one or more specific institutions, affiliates or transactions involving an application for a deposit facility is not considered a widely attended conference or seminar. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP, such as a civil rights group, community group providing housing and other services in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, veterans organization, community theater group, or youth organization, sends a fundraising letter to insured depository institutions and to other businesses in its community. The letter encourages all businesses in the community to meet their obligation to assist in making the local community a better place to live and work by supporting the fundraising efforts of the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A NGEP discusses with an insured depository institution or affiliate whether particular loans, services, investments, community development activities, or other activities are generally eligible for consideration by a Federal banking agency under the CRA. The NGEP and insured depository institution or affiliate do not discuss the adequacy of the CRA performance of the insured depository institution or affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5.</I> A NGEP engaged in the sale or purchase of loans in the secondary market sends a general offering circular to financial institutions offering to sell or purchase a portfolio of loans. An insured depository institution that receives the offering circular discusses with the NGEP the types of loans included in the loan pool, whether such loans are generally eligible for consideration under the CRA, and which loans are made to borrowers in the institution's local community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not discuss the adequacy of the institution's CRA performance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiparty covered agreements.</I> (1) A NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple NGEPs is not required to comply with the requirements of this part if—
</P>
<P>(i) The NGEP has not had a CRA communication; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the NGEP identified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that another NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication. 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple insured depository institutions or affiliates is not required to comply with the disclosure and annual reporting requirements in §§ 207.6 and 207.7 if—
</P>
<P>(i) No NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning the insured depository institution or any affiliate; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the insured depository institution or any affiliate identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that an NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning any other insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.4   Fulfillment of the CRA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>List of factors that are in fulfillment of the CRA.</I> Fulfillment of the CRA, for purposes of this part, means the following list of factors—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Comments to a Federal banking agency or included in CRA public file.</I> Providing or refraining from providing written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the performance under the CRA of an insured depository institution or CRA affiliate that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement or written comments that are required to be included in the CRA public file of any such insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities given favorable CRA consideration.</I> Performing any of the following activities if the activity is of the type that is likely to receive favorable consideration by a Federal banking agency in evaluating the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) Home-purchase, home-improvement, small business, small farm, community development, and consumer lending, as described in § 228.22 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228, including loan purchases, loan commitments, and letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making investments, deposits, or grants, or acquiring membership shares, that have as their primary purpose community development, as described in § 228.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228;
</P>
<P>(iii) Delivering retail banking services, as described in § 228.24(d) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing community development services, as described in § 228.24(e) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a wholesale or limited-purpose insured depository institution, community development lending, including originating and purchasing loans and making loan commitments and letters of credit, making qualified investments, or providing community development services, as described in § 228.25(c) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228;
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a small insured depository institution, any lending or other activity described in § 228.26(a) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228; or
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of an insured depository institution that is evaluated on the basis of a strategic plan, any element of the strategic plan, as described in § 228.27(f) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreements relating to activities of CRA affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that concerns any activity described in paragraph (a) of this section of a CRA affiliate must, prior to the time the agreement is entered into, notify each NGEP that is a party to the agreement that the agreement concerns a CRA affiliate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. G, 66 FR 2092, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.5   Related agreements considered a single agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The following rules must be applied in determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 207.2. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements entered into by same parties.</I> All written agreements to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement if the agreements—
</P>
<P>(1) Are entered into with the same NGEP; 
</P>
<P>(2) Were entered into within the same 12-month period; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Are each in fulfillment of the CRA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantively related contracts.</I> All written contracts to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement, without regard to whether the other parties to the contracts are the same or whether each such contract is in fulfillment of the CRA, if the contracts were negotiated in a coordinated fashion and a NGEP is a party to each contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.6   Disclosure of covered agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into after November 12, 1999. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements to the public</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that enters into a covered agreement must promptly make a copy of the covered agreement available to any individual or entity upon request. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nondisclosure of confidential and proprietary information permitted.</I> In responding to a request for a covered agreement from any individual or entity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate may withhold from public disclosure confidential or proprietary information that the party believes the relevant supervisory agency could withhold from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) (FOIA). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information that must be disclosed.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a party must disclose any of the following information that is contained in a covered agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) The names and addresses of the parties to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any payments, fees, loans, or other consideration to be made or provided by any party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any description of how the funds or other resources provided under the agreement are to be used; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The term of the agreement (if the agreement establishes a term); and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other information that the relevant supervisory agency determines is not properly exempt from public disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request for review of withheld information.</I> Any individual or entity may request that the relevant supervisory agency review whether any information in a covered agreement withheld by a party must be disclosed. Any requests for agency review of withheld information must be filed, and will be processed in accordance with, the relevant supervisory agency's rules concerning the availability of information (<I>see</I> § 261.12 of the Board's Rules Regarding the Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.12)). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> The obligation to disclose a covered agreement to the public terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reasonable copy and mailing fees.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate may charge an individual or entity that requests a copy of a covered agreement a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Use of CRA public file by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution and any affiliate of an insured depository institution may fulfill its obligation under this paragraph (b) by placing a copy of the covered agreement in the insured depository institution's CRA public file if the institution makes the agreement available in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 228.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure by NGEPs of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (1) Each NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement must provide the following within 30 days of receiving a request from the relevant supervisory agency— 
</P>
<P>(i) A complete copy of the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the NGEP proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information and an explanation justifying the exclusions. Any public version must include the information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation of a NGEP to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure by insured depository institution or affiliate of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Within 60 days of the end of each calendar quarter, each insured depository institution and affiliate must provide each relevant supervisory agency with—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A complete copy of each covered agreement entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter; and 
</P>
<P>(B) In the event the institution or affiliate proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information (other than any information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section) and an explanation justifying the exclusions; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of all covered agreements entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter that contains—
</P>
<P>(A) The name and address of each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(B) The name and address of each NGEP that is a party to the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(C) The date the agreement was entered into; 
</P>
<P>(D) The estimated total value of all payments, fees, loans and other consideration to be provided by the institution or any affiliate of the institution under the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(E) The date the agreement terminates. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prompt filing of covered agreements contained in list required.</I> (i) If an insured depository institution or affiliate files a list of the covered agreements entered into by the institution or affiliate pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the institution or affiliate must provide any relevant supervisory agency a complete copy and public version of any covered agreement referenced in the list within 7 calendar days of receiving a request from the agency for a copy of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The obligation of an insured depository institution or affiliate to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency under this paragraph (d)(2) terminates 36 months after the end of the term of the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint filings.</I> In the event that 2 or more insured depository institutions or affiliates are parties to a covered agreement, the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) may jointly file the documents required by this paragraph (d). Any joint filing must identify the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) for whom the filings are being made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. G, 66 FR 2092, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.7   Annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into on or after May 12, 2000. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual report required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement must file an annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning the disbursement, receipt, and uses of funds or other resources under the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of reporting requirement</I>—(1) <I>NGEPs.</I> A NGEP must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the NGEP receives or uses funds or other resources under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the institution or affiliate—
</P>
<P>(i) provides or receives any payments, fees, or loans under the covered agreement that must be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) has data to report on loans, investments, and services provided by a party to the covered agreement under the covered agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual reports filed by NGEP</I>—(1) <I>Contents of report.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP under this section must include the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The name and mailing address of the NGEP filing the report; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of funds or resources received under the covered agreement during the fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed, itemized list of how any funds or resources received by the NGEP under the covered agreement were used during the fiscal year, including the total amount used for—
</P>
<P>(A) Compensation of officers, directors, and employees; 
</P>
<P>(B) Administrative expenses; 
</P>
<P>(C) Travel expenses; 
</P>
<P>(D) Entertainment expenses; 
</P>
<P>(E) Payment of consulting and professional fees; and 
</P>
<P>(F) Other expenses and uses (specify expense or use). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More detailed reporting of uses of funds or resources permitted</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a NGEP allocated and used funds received under a covered agreement for a specific purpose, the NGEP may fulfill the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section with respect to such funds by providing—
</P>
<P>(A) A brief description of each specific purpose for which the funds or other resources were used; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds or resources used during the fiscal year for each specific purpose. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific purpose defined.</I> A NGEP allocates and uses funds for a specific purpose if the NGEP receives and uses the funds for a purpose that is more specific and limited than the categories listed in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of other reports.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP may consist of or incorporate a report prepared for any other purpose, such as the Internal Revenue Service Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax on Form 990, or any other Internal Revenue Service form, state tax form, report to members or shareholders, audited or unaudited financial statements, audit report, or other report, so long as the annual report filed by the NGEP contains all of the information required by this paragraph (d). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consolidated reports permitted.</I> A NGEP that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file with each relevant supervisory agency a single consolidated annual report covering all the covered agreements. Any consolidated report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (d). The information reported under paragraphs (d)(1)(iv) and (d)(2) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples of annual report requirements for NGEPs</I>—(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP receives an unrestricted grant of $15,000 under a covered agreement, includes the funds in its general operating budget and uses the funds during its fiscal year. The NGEP's annual report for the fiscal year must provide the name and mailing address of the NGEP, information sufficient to identify the covered agreement, and state that the NGEP received $15,000 during the fiscal year. The report must also indicate the total expenditures made by the NGEP during the fiscal year for compensation, administrative expenses, travel expenses, entertainment expenses, consulting and professional fees, and other expenses and uses. The NGEP's annual report may provide this information by submitting an Internal Revenue Service Form 990 that includes the required information. If the Internal Revenue Service Form does not include information for all of the required categories listed in this part, the NGEP must report the total expenditures in the remaining categories either by providing that information directly or by providing another form or report that includes the required information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> An organization receives $15,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement and allocates and uses the $15,000 during the fiscal year to purchase computer equipment to support its functions. The organization's annual report must include the name and address of the organization, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the organization received $15,000 during the year. In addition, since the organization allocated and used the funds for a specific purpose that is more narrow and limited than the categories of expenses included in the detailed, itemized list of expenses, the organization would have the option of providing either the total amount it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section, or a statement that it used the $15,000 to purchase computer equipment and a brief description of the equipment purchased. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A community group receives $50,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement. During its fiscal year, the community group specifically allocates and uses $5,000 of the funds to pay for a particular business trip and uses the remaining $45,000 for general operating expenses. The group's annual report for the fiscal year must include the name and address of the group, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the group received $50,000. Because the group did not allocate and use all of the funds for a specific purpose, the group's annual report must provide the total amount of funds it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. The group's annual report also could state that it used $5,000 for a particular business trip and include a brief description of the trip. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A community development organization is a party to two separate covered agreements with two unaffiliated insured depository institutions. Under each agreement, the organization receives $15,000 during its fiscal year and uses the funds to support its activities during that year. If the organization elects to file a consolidated annual report, the consolidated report must identify the organization and the two covered agreements, state that the organization received $15,000 during the fiscal year under each agreement, and provide the total amount that the organization used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual report filed by insured depository institution or affiliate</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The annual report filed by an insured depository institution or affiliate must include the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The name and principal place of business of the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans provided by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement to any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans received by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement from any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year; 
</P>
<P>(v) A general description of the terms and conditions of any payments, fees, or loans reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, or, in the event such terms and conditions are set forth—
</P>
<P>(A) In the covered agreement, a statement identifying the covered agreement and the date the agreement (or a list identifying the agreement) was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; or 
</P>
<P>(B) In a previous annual report filed by the insured depository institution or affiliate, a statement identifying the date the report was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The aggregate amount and number of loans, aggregate amount and number of investments, and aggregate amount of services provided under the covered agreement to any individual or entity not a party to the agreement—
</P>
<P>(A) By the insured depository institution or affiliate during its fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(B) By any other party to the agreement, unless such information is not known to the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report or such information is or will be contained in the annual report filed by another party under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidated reports permitted</I>—(i) <I>Party to multiple agreements.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file a single consolidated annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning all the covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliated entities party to the same agreement.</I> An insured depository institution and its affiliates that are parties to the same covered agreement may file a single consolidated annual report relating to the agreement with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Content of report.</I> Any consolidated annual report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (e). The amounts and data required to be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vi) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time and place of filing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each party must file its annual report with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement no later than six months following the end of the fiscal year covered by the report. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative method of fulfilling annual reporting requirement for a NGEP.</I> (i) A NGEP may fulfill the filing requirements of this section by providing the following materials to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement no later than six months following the end of the NGEP's fiscal year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the NGEP's annual report required under paragraph (d) of this section for the fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Written instructions that the insured depository institution or affiliate promptly forward the annual report to the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An insured depository institution or affiliate that receives an annual report from a NGEP pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section must file the report with the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP within 30 days. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.8   Release of information under FOIA.</HEAD>
<P>The Board will make covered agreements and annual reports available to the public in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Board's Rules Regarding the Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261). A party to a covered agreement may request confidential treatment of proprietary and confidential information in a covered agreement or an annual report under those procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.9   Compliance provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Willful failure to comply with disclosure and reporting obligations.</I> (1) If the Board determines that a NGEP has willfully failed to comply in a material way with §§ 207.6 or 207.7, the Board will notify the NGEP in writing of that determination and provide the NGEP a period of 90 days (or such longer period as the Board finds to be reasonable under the circumstances) to comply. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the NGEP does not comply within the time period established by the Board, the agreement shall thereafter be unenforceable by that NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may assist any insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that is unenforceable by a NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y) in identifying a successor to assume the NGEP's responsibilities under the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diversion of funds.</I> If a court or other body of competent jurisdiction determines that funds or resources received under a covered agreement have been diverted contrary to the purposes of the covered agreement for an individual's personal financial gain, the Board may take either or both of the following actions—
</P>
<P>(1) Order the individual to disgorge the diverted funds or resources received under the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the individual from being a party to any covered agreement for a period not to exceed 10 years. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and opportunity to respond.</I> Before making a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or taking any action under paragraph (b) of this section, the Board will provide written notice and an opportunity to present information to the Board concerning any relevant facts or circumstances relating to the matter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inadvertent or de minimis errors.</I> Inadvertent or de minimis errors in annual reports or other documents filed with the Board under § 207.6 or § 207.7 will not subject the reporting party to any penalty. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of provisions in covered agreements.</I> No provision of this part shall be construed as authorizing the Board to enforce the provisions of any covered agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.10   Transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements entered into before the effective date of this part.</I> The following disclosure requirements apply to covered agreements that were entered into after November 12, 1999, and that terminated before April 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure to the public.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the public under § 207.6 until at least April 1, 2002. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (i) Each NGEP that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the relevant supervisory agency under § 207.6 until at least April 1, 2002. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must, by June 30, 2001, provide each relevant supervisory agency either—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the agreement under § 207.6(d)(1)(i); or 
</P>
<P>(B) The information described in § 207.6(d)(1)(ii) for each agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of annual reports that relate to fiscal years ending on or before December 31, 2000.</I> In the event that a NGEP, insured depository institution or affiliate has any information to report under § 207.7 for a fiscal year that ends on or before December 31, 2000, and that concerns a covered agreement entered into between May 12, 2000, and December 31, 2000, the annual report for that fiscal year must be provided no later than June 30, 2001, to—
</P>
<P>(1) Each relevant supervisory agency; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a NGEP, to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement in accordance with § 207.7(f)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 207.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.8.0.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 207.11   Other definitions and rules of construction used in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> “Affiliate” means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company; and 
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 207.2, an “affiliate” includes any company that would be under common control or merged with another company on consummation of any transaction pending before a Federal banking agency at the time—
</P>
<P>(i) The parties enter into the agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The NGEP that is a party to the agreement makes a CRA communication, as described in § 207.3. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control.</I> “Control” is defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CRA affiliate.</I> A “CRA affiliate” of an insured depository institution is any company that is an affiliate of an insured depository institution to the extent, and only to the extent, that the activities of the affiliate were considered by the appropriate Federal banking agency when evaluating the CRA performance of the institution at its most recent CRA examination prior to the agreement. An insured depository institution or affiliate also may designate any company as a CRA affiliate at any time prior to the time a covered agreement is entered into by informing the NGEP that is a party to the agreement of such designation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CRA public file.</I> “CRA public file” means the public file maintained by an insured depository institution and described in § 228.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 228. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Executive officer.</I> The term “executive officer” has the same meaning as in § 215.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal banking agency; appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> The terms “Federal banking agency” and “appropriate Federal banking agency” have the same meanings as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fiscal year.</I> (1) The fiscal year for a NGEP that does not have a fiscal year shall be the calendar year. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate that has a fiscal year may elect to have the calendar year be its fiscal year for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> “Insured depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>NGEP.</I> “NGEP” means a nongovernmental entity or person. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nongovernmental entity or person</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A “nongovernmental entity or person” is any partnership, association, trust, joint venture, joint stock company, corporation, limited liability corporation, company, firm, society, other organization, or individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> A nongovernmental entity or person does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) The United States government, a state government, a unit of local government (including a county, city, town, township, parish, village, or other general-purpose subdivision of a state) or an Indian tribe or tribal organization established under Federal, state or Indian tribal law (including the Department of Hawaiian Home Lands), or a department, agency, or instrumentality of any such entity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally-chartered public corporation that receives Federal funds appropriated specifically for that corporation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An insured depository institution or affiliate of an insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) An officer, director, employee, or representative (acting in his or her capacity as an officer, director, employee, or representative) of an entity listed in paragraphs (i)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Party.</I> The term “party” with respect to a covered agreement means each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that entered into the agreement. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Relevant supervisory agency.</I> The “relevant supervisory agency” for a covered agreement means the appropriate Federal banking agency for— 
</P>
<P>(1) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) or CRA affiliate that makes payments or loans or provides services that are subject to the covered agreement; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any company (other than an insured depository institution or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Term of agreement.</I> An agreement that does not have a fixed termination date is considered to terminate on the last date on which any party to the agreement makes any payment or provides any loan or other resources under the agreement, unless the relevant supervisory agency for the agreement otherwise notifies each party in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. G, 66 FR 2092, Jan. 10, 2001, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="208" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 208—MEMBERSHIP OF STATE BANKING INSTITUTIONS IN THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (REGULATION H)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 24, 36, 92a, 93a, 248(a), 248(c), 321-338a, 371d, 461, 481-486, 601, 611, 1814, 1816, 1817(a)(3), 1817(a)(12), 1818, 1820(d)(9), 1833(j), 1828(o), 1831, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1, 1831w, 1831x, 1835a, 1882, 2901-2907, 3105, 3310, 3331-3351, 3905-3909, 5371, and 5371 note; 15 U.S.C. 78b, 78I(b), 78<I>l</I>(i), 780-4(c)(5), 78q, 78q-1, 78w, 1681s, 1681w, 6801, and 6805; 31 U.S.C. 5318; 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. H, 17 FR 8006, Sept. 4, 1952, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Membership and Branching Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37637, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart A of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart A) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under 12 U.S.C. 24, 36; sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1 and 1835a of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831r-1, and 1835); and 12 U.S.C. 3906-3909.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope of Part 208.</I> The requirements of this part 208 govern State member banks and state banks applying for admission to membership in the Federal Reserve System (System) under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (Act), except for § 208.7, which also applies to certain foreign banks licensed by a State. This part 208 does not govern banks eligible for membership under section 2 or 19 of the Act. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Any bank desiring to be admitted to the System under the provisions of section 2 or 19 should communicate with the Federal Reserve Bank with which it would like to become a member.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Under section 2 of the Federal Reserve Act, every national bank in any state shall, upon commencing business, or within 90 days after admission into the Union of the State in which it is located, become a member of the System. Under section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act, national banks and banks organized under local laws, located in a dependency or insular possession or any part of the United States outside of the States of the United States and the District of Columbia, are not required to become members of the System but may, with the consent of the board, become members of the System.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Purpose and scope of Subpart A.</I> This Subpart A describes the eligibility requirements for membership of state-chartered banking institutions in the System, the general conditions imposed upon members, including capital and dividend requirements, as well as the requirements for establishing and maintaining branches.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board of Directors</I> means the governing board of any institution performing the usual functions of a board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Branch.</I> (1) Branch means any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business that receives deposits, pays checks, or lends money. A branch may include a temporary, seasonal, or mobile facility that meets these criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan origination facility where the proceeds of loans are not disbursed;
</P>
<P>(ii) An office of an affiliated or unaffiliated institution that provides services to customers of the member bank on behalf of the member bank so long as the institution is not established or operated by the bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) An automated teller machine;
</P>
<P>(iv) A remote service unit;
</P>
<P>(v) A facility to which the bank does not permit members of the public to have physical access for purposes of making deposits, paying checks, or borrowing money (such as an office established by the bank that receives deposits only through the mail); or
</P>
<P>(vi) A facility that is located at the site of, or is an extension of, an approved main office or branch. The Board determines whether a facility is an extension of an existing main or branch office on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital stock and surplus</I> means, unless otherwise provided in this part, or by statute:
</P>
<P>(1) Tier 1 and tier 2 capital included in a member bank's risk-based capital (as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q); and
</P>
<P>(2) The balance of a member bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, not included in its tier 2 capital for calculation of risk-based capital, based on the bank's most recent Report of Condition and Income filed under 12 U.S.C. 324. 
</P>
<P>(3) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), capital stock and surplus means the bank's Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) plus allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible bank</I> means a member bank that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is well capitalized as defined in subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a composite Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (CAMELS) rating of 1 or 2;
</P>
<P>(3) Has a Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2906) rating of “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>(4) Has a compliance rating of 1 or 2; and
</P>
<P>(5) Has no major unresolved supervisory issues outstanding (as determined by the Board or appropriate Federal Reserve Bank in its discretion).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>State bank</I> means any bank incorporated by special law of any State, or organized under the general laws of any State, or of the United States, including a Morris Plan bank, or other incorporated banking institution engaged in a similar business.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State member bank or member bank</I> means a state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37637, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62281, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015; 84 FR 4240, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61796, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.3   Application and conditions for membership in the Federal Reserve System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applications for membership and stock.</I> (1) State banks applying for membership in the Federal Reserve System shall file with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank an application for membership in the Federal Reserve System and for stock in the Reserve Bank, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> in accordance with this part and § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure, located at 12 CFR 262.3.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Federal Reserve Bank stock may apply for membership evidenced initially by a deposit, but if the laws under which the bank is organized are not amended at the first session of the legislature after its admission to authorize the purchase, or if the bank fails to purchase the stock within six months of the amendment, its membership shall be terminated.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Board approval.</I> If an applying bank conforms to all the requirements of the Federal Reserve Act and this section, and is otherwise qualified for membership, the Board may approve its application subject to such conditions as the Board may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date of membership.</I> A State bank becomes a member of the Federal Reserve System on the date its Federal Reserve Bank stock is credited to its account (or its deposit is accepted, if it is a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock) in accordance with the Board's Regulation I (12 CFR part 209).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors considered in approving applications for membership.</I> Factors given special consideration by the Board in passing upon an application are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial condition and management.</I> The financial history and condition of the applying bank and the general character of its management.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital.</I> The adequacy of the bank's capital in accordance with § 208.4, and its future earnings prospects.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convenience and needs.</I> The convenience and needs of the community.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Corporate powers.</I> Whether the bank's corporate powers are consistent with the purposes of the Federal Reserve Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited approval for eligible banks and bank holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Availability of expedited treatment.</I> The expedited membership procedures described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are available to:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that cannot be determined to be an eligible bank because it has not received CAMELS compliance or CRA ratings from a bank regulatory authority, if it is controlled by a bank holding company that meets the criteria for expedited processing under § 225.14(c) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.14(c)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited procedures.</I> A completed membership application filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank will be deemed approved on the fifteenth day after receipt of the complete application by the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is approved prior to that date or the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is not eligible for expedited review for any reason, including, without limitation, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank will offer banking services that are materially different from those currently offered by the bank, or by the affiliates of the proposed bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or bank holding company does not meet the criteria under § 208.3(c)(1);
</P>
<P>(iii) The application contains a material error or is otherwise deficient; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The application raises significant supervisory, compliance, policy or legal issues that have not been resolved, or a timely substantive adverse comment is submitted. A comment will be considered substantive unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously considered, or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of membership</I>—(1) <I>Safety and soundness.</I> Each member bank shall at all times conduct its business and exercise its powers with due regard to safety and soundness. Each member bank shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), set forth in appendix D-1 to this part, and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805) and section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w), set forth in appendix D-2 to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General character of bank's business.</I> A member bank may not, without the permission of the Board, cause or permit any change in the general character of its business or in the scope of the corporate powers it exercises at the time of admission to membership.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compliance with conditions of membership.</I> Each member bank shall comply at all times with this Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) and any other conditions of membership prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waivers</I>—(1) <I>Conditions of membership.</I> A member bank may petition the Board to waive a condition of membership. The Board may grant a waiver of a condition of membership upon a showing of good cause and, in its discretion, may limit, among other items, the scope, duration, and timing of the waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reports of affiliates.</I> Pursuant to section 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 486), the Board waives the requirement for the submission of reports of affiliates of member banks, unless such reports are specifically requested by the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Voluntary withdrawal from membership.</I> Voluntary withdrawal from membership becomes effective upon cancellation of the Federal Reserve Bank stock held by the member bank, and after the bank has made due provision to pay any indebtedness due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank in accordance with the Board's Regulation I (12 CFR part 209).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 63 FR 37637, July 13, 1998, as amended at 63 FR 58620, Nov. 2, 1998; 66 FR 8634, Feb. 1, 2001; 69 FR 77617, Dec. 28, 2004; 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.4   Capital adequacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adequacy.</I> A member bank's capital, calculated in accordance with part 217, shall be at all times adequate in relation to the character and condition liabilities and other corporate responsibilities. If at any time, in light of all the circumstances, the bank's capital appears inadequate in relation to its assets, liabilities, and responsibilities, the bank shall increase the amount of its capital, within such period as the Board deems reasonable, to an amount which, in the judgment of the Board, shall be adequate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for evaluating capital adequacy.</I> Standards and measures, by which the Board evaluates the capital adequacy of member banks for risk-based capital purposes and for leverage measurement purposes, are located in part 217 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Regulation H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.5   Dividends and other distributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital surplus</I> means the total of surplus as reportable in the bank's Reports of Condition and Income and surplus on perpetual preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent capital</I> means the total of the bank's perpetual preferred stock and related surplus, common stock and surplus, and minority interest in consolidated subsidiaries, as reportable in the Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations.</I> The limitations in this section on the payment of dividends and withdrawal of capital apply to all cash and property dividends or distributions on common or preferred stock. The limitations do not apply to dividends paid in the form of common stock.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Earnings limitations on payment of dividends.</I> (1) A member bank may not declare or pay a dividend if the total of all dividends declared during the calendar year, including the proposed dividend, exceeds the sum of the bank's net income (as reportable in its Reports of Condition and Income) during the current calendar year and the retained net income of the prior two calendar years, unless the dividend has been approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) “Retained net income” in a calendar year is equal to the bank's net income (as reported in its Report of Condition and Income for such year), less any dividends declared during such year. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The bank's net income during the current year and its retained net income from the prior two calendar years is reduced by any net losses incurred in the current or prior two years and any required transfers to surplus or to a fund for the retirement of preferred stock. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In the case of dividends in excess of net income for the year, a bank generally is not required to carry forward negative amounts resulting from such excess. Instead, the bank may attribute the excess to the prior two years, attributing the excess first to the earlier year and then to the immediately preceding year. If the excess is greater than the bank's previously undistributed net income for the preceding two years, prior Board approval of the dividend is required and a negative amount would be carried forward in future dividend calculations. However, in determining any such request for approval, the Board could consider any request for different treatment of such negative amount, including advance waivers for future periods. This applies only to earnings deficits that result from dividends declared in excess of net income for the year and does not apply to other types of current earnings deficits.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> State member banks are required to comply with state law provisions concerning the maintenance of surplus funds in addition to common capital. Where the surplus of a State member bank is less than what applicable state law requires the bank to maintain relative to its capital stock account, the bank may be required to transfer amounts from its undivided profits account to surplus.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation on withdrawal of capital by dividend or otherwise.</I> (1) A member bank may not declare or pay a dividend if the dividend would exceed the bank's undivided profits as reportable on its Reports of Condition and Income, unless the bank has received the prior approval of the Board and of at least two-thirds of the shareholders of each class of stock outstanding.
</P>
<P>(2) A member bank may not permit any portion of its permanent capital to be withdrawn unless the withdrawal has been approved by the Board and by at least two-thirds of the shareholders of each class of stock outstanding.
</P>
<P>(3) If a member bank has capital surplus in excess of that required by law, the excess amount may be transferred to the bank's undivided profits account and be available for the payment of dividends if:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount transferred came from the earnings of prior periods, excluding earnings transferred as a result of stock dividends;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's board of directors approves the transfer of funds; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The transfer has been approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment of capital distributions.</I> All member banks also are subject to the restrictions on payment of capital distributions contained in § 208.45 of subpart D of this part implementing section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Compliance.</I> A member bank shall use the date a dividend is declared to determine compliance with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37637, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.6   Establishment and maintenance of branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Branching.</I> (1) To the extent authorized by state law, a member bank may establish and maintain branches (including interstate branches) subject to the same limitations and restrictions that apply to the establishment and maintenance of national bank branches (12 U.S.C. 36 and 1831u), except that approval of such branches shall be obtained from the Board rather than from the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch applications.</I> A State member bank wishing to establish a branch in the United States or its territories must file an application in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure, located at 12 CFR 262.3, and must comply with the public notice and comment rules contained in paragraphs (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section. Branches of member banks located in foreign nations, in the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States, and in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, are subject to the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR part 211).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public notice of branch applications</I>—(i) <I>Location of publication.</I> A State member bank wishing to establish a branch in the United States or its territories must publish notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the form and at the locations specified in § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The newspaper notice referred to in paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the application for a period of at least 15 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing of publication.</I> Each newspaper notice shall be published no more than 7 calendar days before and no later than the calendar day on which an application is filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public comment</I>—(i) <I>Timely comments.</I> Interested persons may submit information and comments regarding a branch application under § 208.6. A comment shall be considered timely for purposes of this subpart if the comment, together with all supplemental information, is submitted in writing in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3) and received by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank prior to the expiration of the public comment period provided in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extension of comment period.</I> The Board may, in its discretion, extend the public comment period regarding any application under § 208.6. In the event that an interested person requests a copy of an application submitted under § 208.6, the Board may, in its discretion and based on the facts and circumstances, grant such person an extension of the comment period for up to 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors considered in approving domestic branch applications.</I> Factors given special consideration by the Board in passing upon a branch application are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial condition and management.</I> The financial history and condition of the applying bank and the general character of its management;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital.</I> The adequacy of the bank's capital in accordance with § 208.4, and its future earnings prospects;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convenience and needs.</I> The convenience and needs of the community to be served by the branch;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>CRA performance.</I> In the case of branches with deposit-taking capability, the bank's performance under the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) and Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228); and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investment in bank premises.</I> Whether the bank's investment in bank premises in establishing the branch is consistent with § 208.21.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited approval for eligible banks and bank holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Availability of expedited treatment.</I> The expedited branch application procedures described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section are available to:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that cannot be determined to be an eligible bank because it has not received CAMELS compliance or CRA ratings from a bank regulatory authority, if it is controlled by a bank holding company that meets the criteria for expedited processing under § 225.14(c) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.14(c)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited procedures.</I> A completed domestic branch application filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank will be deemed approved on the fifth day after the close of the comment period, unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is approved prior to that date (but in no case will an application be approved before the third day after the close of the public comment period) or the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the application is not eligible for expedited review for any reason, including, without limitation, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank or bank holding company does not meet the criteria under § 208.6(c)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) The application contains a material error or is otherwise deficient; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The application or the notice required under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, raises significant supervisory, Community Reinvestment Act, compliance, policy or legal issues that have not been resolved, or a timely substantive adverse comment is submitted. A comment will be considered substantive unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously considered, or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consolidated Applications</I>—(1) <I>Proposed branches; notice of branch opening.</I> A member bank may seek approval in a single application or notice for any branches that it proposes to establish within one year after the approval date. The bank shall, unless notification is waived, notify the appropriate Reserve Bank not later than 30 days after opening any branch approved under a consolidated application. A bank is not required to open a branch approved under either a consolidated or single branch application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration of branch approval.</I> Branch approvals remain valid for one year unless the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that in its judgment, based on reports of condition, examinations, or other information, there has been a change in the bank's condition, financial or otherwise, that warrants reconsideration of the approval.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Branch closings.</I> A member bank shall comply with section 42 of the FDI Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1831r-1, with regard to branch closings.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Branch relocations.</I> A relocation of an existing branch does not require filing a branch application. A relocation of an existing branch, for purposes of determining whether to file a branch application, is a movement that does not substantially affect the nature of the branch's business or customers served.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37639, July 13, 1998, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.1.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.7   Prohibition against use of interstate branches primarily for deposit production.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to implement section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1835a) of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (Interstate Act).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> (i) This section applies to any State member bank that has operated a covered interstate branch for a period of at least one year, and any foreign bank that has operated a covered interstate branch licensed by a State for a period of at least one year.
</P>
<P>(ii) This section describes the requirements imposed under 12 U.S.C. 1835a, which requires the appropriate Federal banking agencies (the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) to prescribe uniform rules that prohibit a bank from using any authority to engage in interstate branching pursuant to the Interstate Act, or any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law, primarily for the purpose of deposit production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank</I> means, unless the context indicates otherwise:
</P>
<P>(i) A State member bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(d)(2); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7) and 12 CFR 211.21.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered interstate branch</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any branch of a State member bank, and any uninsured branch of a foreign bank licensed by a State, that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Is established or acquired outside the bank's home State pursuant to the interstate branching authority granted by the Interstate Act or by any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Could not have been established or acquired outside of the bank's home State but for the establishment or acquisition of a branch described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any bank or branch of a bank controlled by an out-of-State bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home State</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a State bank, the State that chartered the bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a national bank, the State in which the main office of the bank is located; 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to a bank holding company, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such company are the largest on the later of: 
</P>
<P>(A) July 1, 1966; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the company becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to a foreign bank: 
</P>
<P>(A) For purposes of determining whether a U.S. branch of a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the home State of the foreign bank as determined in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3103(c) and 12 CFR 211.22; and 
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of determining whether a branch of a U.S. bank controlled by a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such foreign bank are the largest on the later of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) July 1, 1966; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date on which the foreign bank becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Host State</I> means a State in which a covered interstate branch is established or acquired. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Host state loan-to-deposit ratio</I> generally means, with respect to a particular host state, the ratio of total loans in the host state relative to total deposits from the host state for all banks (including institutions covered under the definition of “bank” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1)) that have that state as their home state, as determined and updated periodically by the appropriate Federal banking agencies and made available to the public.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Out-of-State bank holding company</I> means, with respect to any State, a bank holding company whose home State is another State. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>State</I> means state as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Statewide loan-to-deposit ratio</I> means, with respect to a bank, the ratio of the bank's loans to its deposits in a state in which the bank has one or more covered interstate branches, as determined by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Application of screen.</I> Beginning no earlier than one year after a covered interstate branch is acquired or established, the Board will consider whether the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the relevant host State loan-to-deposit ratio. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Results of screen.</I> (i) If the Board determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is 50 percent or more of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, no further consideration under this section is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, or if reasonably available data are insufficient to calculate the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio, the Board will make a credit needs determination for the bank as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Credit needs determination</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board will review the loan portfolio of the bank and determine whether the bank is reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities in the host state that are served by the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Guidelines.</I> The Board will use the following considerations as guidelines when making the determination pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether covered interstate branches were formerly part of a failed or failing depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether covered interstate branches were acquired under circumstances where there was a low loan-to-deposit ratio because of the nature of the acquired institution's business or loan portfolio;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether covered interstate branches have a high concentration of commercial or credit card lending, trust services, or other specialized activities, including the extent to which the covered interstate branches accept deposits in the host state;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Community Reinvestment Act ratings received by the bank, if any, under 12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(v) Economic conditions, including the level of loan demand, within the communities served by the covered interstate branches;
</P>
<P>(vi) The safe and sound operation and condition of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The Board's Regulation BB—Community Reinvestment (12 CFR part 228) and interpretations of that regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sanctions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Board determines that a bank is not reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state, and that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) May order that a bank's covered interstate branch or branches be closed unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the Board, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank has an acceptable plan under which the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Will not permit the bank to open a new branch in the host state that would be considered to be a covered interstate branch unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the Board, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the community that the new branch will serve.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice prior to closure of a covered interstate branch.</I> Before exercising the Board's authority to order the bank to close a covered interstate branch, the Board will issue to the bank a notice of the Board's intent to order the closure and will schedule a hearing within 60 days of issuing the notice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing.</I> The Board will conduct a hearing scheduled under paragraph (e)(2) of this section in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(h) and 12 CFR part 263.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37637, July 13, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 38848, June 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Investments and Loans</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37641, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.20" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.20   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart B of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart B) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24; sections 9, 11 and 21 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), and 481-486); sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1823(j), 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1); and the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart B describes certain investment limitations on member banks, statutory requirements for amortizing losses on agricultural loans and extending credit in areas having special flood hazards, as well as the requirements for issuing letters of credit and acceptances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.21" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.21   Investments in premises and securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investment in bank premises.</I> No state member bank shall invest in bank premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation holding the premises of such bank, or make loans to or upon the security of any such corporation unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank notifies the appropriate Reserve Bank at least fifteen days prior to such investment and has not received notice that the investment is subject to further review by the end of the fifteen day notice period;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation that is an affiliate of the bank (as defined in section 2 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 221a), is less than or equal to the bank's perpetual preferred stock and related surplus plus common stock plus surplus, as those terms are defined in the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income; or
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation that is an affiliate of the bank, is less than or equal to 150 percent of the bank's perpetual preferred stock and related surplus plus common stock plus surplus, as those terms are defined in the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Interagency Bank Rating System 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> (or an equivalent rating under a comparable rating system) as of the most recent examination of the bank; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> FRRS 3-1575 for an explanation of the Uniform Interagency Bank Rating System. (For availability, see 12 CFR 261.10(f).)</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Is well capitalized and will continue to be well capitalized, in accordance with subpart D of this part, after the investment or loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments in securities.</I> Member banks are subject to the same limitations and conditions with respect to purchasing, selling, underwriting, and holding investment securities and stocks as are national banks under 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th. To determine whether an obligation qualifies as an investment security for the purposes of 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th, and to calculate the limits with respect to the purchase of such obligations, a state member bank may look to part 1 of the rules of the Comptroller of the Currency (12 CFR part 1) and interpretations thereunder. A state member bank may consult the Board for a determination with respect to the application of 12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th, with respect to issues not addressed in 12 CFR part 1. The provisions of 12 CFR part 1 do not provide authority for a state member bank to purchase securities of a type or amount that the bank is not authorized to purchase under applicable state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37641, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.22" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.22   Community development and public welfare investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low- or moderate-income area</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) One or more census tracts in a Metropolitan Statistical Area where the median family income adjusted for family size in each census tract is less than 80 percent of the median family income adjusted for family size of the Metropolitan Statistical Area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If not in a Metropolitan Statistical Area, one or more census tracts or block-numbered areas where the median family income adjusted for family size in each census tract or block-numbered area is less than 80 percent of the median family income adjusted for family size of the State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Low- and moderate-income persons</I> has the same meaning as low- and moderate-income persons as defined in 42 U.S.C. 5302(a)(20)(A).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small business</I> means a business that meets the size-eligibility standards of 13 CFR 121.802(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments not requiring prior Board approval.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24, ¶ 7th) made applicable to member banks by paragraph 20 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335), a member bank may make an investment, without prior Board approval, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The investment is in a corporation, limited partnership, or other entity, and:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board has determined that an investment in that entity or class of entities is a public welfare investment under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), or a community development investment under Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.25(b)(6)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Comptroller of the Currency has determined, by order or regulation, that an investment in that entity by a national bank is a public welfare investment under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The entity is a community development financial institution as defined in section 103(5) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The entity, directly or indirectly, engages solely in or makes loans solely for the purposes of one or more of the following community development activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Investing in, developing, rehabilitating, managing, selling, or renting residential property if a majority of the units will be occupied by low- and moderate-income persons, or if the property is a “qualified low-income building” as defined in section 42(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42(c)(2));
</P>
<P>(B) Investing in, developing, rehabilitating, managing, selling, or renting nonresidential real property or other assets located in a low- or moderate-income area and targeted towards low- and moderate-income persons;
</P>
<P>(C) Investing in one or more small businesses located in a low- or moderate-income area to stimulate economic development;
</P>
<P>(D) Investing in, developing, or otherwise assisting job training or placement facilities or programs that will be targeted towards low- and moderate-income persons;
</P>
<P>(E) Investing in an entity located in a low- or moderate-income area if the entity creates long-term employment opportunities, a majority of which (based on full-time equivalent positions) will be held by low- and moderate-income persons; and
</P>
<P>(F) Providing technical assistance, credit counseling, research, and program development assistance to low- and moderate-income persons, small businesses, or nonprofit corporations to help achieve community development;
</P>
<P>(2) The investment is permitted by state law;
</P>
<P>(3) The investment will not expose the member bank to liability beyond the amount of the investment;
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate of all such investments of the member bank does not exceed the sum of five percent of its capital stock and surplus;
</P>
<P>(5) The member bank is well capitalized or adequately capitalized under §§ 208.43(b) (1) and (2);
</P>
<P>(6) The member bank received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System as of its most recent examination and an overall rating of “1” or “2” as of its most recent consumer compliance examination; and
</P>
<P>(7) The member bank is not subject to any written agreement, cease-and-desist order, capital directive, prompt-corrective-action directive, or memorandum of understanding issued by the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to Federal Reserve Bank.</I> Not more than 30 days after making an investment under paragraph (b) of this section, the member bank shall advise its Federal Reserve Bank of the investment, including the amount of the investment and the identity of the entity in which the investment is made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investments requiring Board approval.</I> (1) With prior Board approval, a member bank may make public welfare investments under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), other than those specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for Board approval under this paragraph (d) shall include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the proposed investment;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the entity in which the investment is to be made;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of why the investment is a public welfare investment under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a);
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the member bank's potential liability under the proposed investment;
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of the member bank's aggregate outstanding public welfare investments under paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act;
</P>
<P>(vi) The amount of the member bank's capital stock and surplus; and
</P>
<P>(vii) If the bank investment is not eligible under paragraph (b) of this section, explain the reason or reasons why it is ineligible.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board shall act on a request under this paragraph (d) within 60 calendar days of receipt of a request that meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, unless the Board notifies the requesting member bank that a longer time period will be required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Divestiture of investments.</I> A member bank shall divest itself of an investment made under paragraph (b) or (d) of this section to the extent that the investment exceeds the scope of, or ceases to meet, the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(4) or paragraph (d) of this section. The divestiture shall be made in the manner specified in 12 CFR 225.140, Regulation Y, for interests acquired by a lending subsidiary of a bank holding company or the bank holding company itself in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.23" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.23   Agricultural loan loss amortization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accepting official</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The Reserve Bank in whose district the bank is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director of the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation in cases in which the Reserve Bank cannot determine that the bank qualifies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agriculturally related other property</I> means any property, real or personal, that the bank owned on January 1, 1983, and any additional property that it acquired prior to January 1, 1992, in connection with a qualified agricultural loan. For the purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the value of such property shall include the amount previously charged off as a loss.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Participating bank</I> means an agricultural bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1823(j)(4)(A)) that, as of January 1, 1992, had a proposal for a capital restoration plan accepted by an accepting official and received permission from the accepting official, subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, to amortize losses in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified agricultural loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Loans that finance agricultural production or are secured by farm land for purposes of Schedule RC-C of the FFIEC Consolidated Report of Condition or such other comparable schedule;
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans secured by farm machinery;
</P>
<P>(iii) Other loans that a bank proves to be sufficiently related to agriculture for classification as an agricultural loan by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The remaining unpaid balance of any loans described in paragraphs (a)(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) of this section that have been charged off since January 1, 1984, and that qualify for deferral under this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Provided there is no evidence that the loss resulted from fraud or criminal abuse on the part of the bank, the officers, directors, or principal shareholders, a participating bank may amortize in its Reports of Condition and Income:
</P>
<P>(i) Any loss on a qualified agricultural loan that the bank would be required to reflect in its financial statements for any period between and including 1984 and 1991; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any loss that the bank would be required to reflect in its financial statements for any period between and including 1983 and 1991 resulting from a reappraisal or sale of agriculturally-related other property.
</P>
<P>(2) Amortization under this section shall be computed over a period not to exceed seven years on a quarterly straight-line basis commencing in the first quarter after the loan was or is charged off so as to be fully amortized not later than December 31, 1998.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting for amortization.</I> Any bank that is permitted to amortize losses in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section may restate its capital and other relevant accounts and account for future authorized deferrals and authorization in accordance with the instructions to the FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. Any resulting increase in the capital account shall be included in capital pursuant to part 217 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of participation.</I> In order for a bank to maintain its status as a participating bank, it shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Adhere to the approved capital plan and obtain the prior approval of the accepting official before making any modifications to the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain accounting records for each asset subject to loss deferral under the program that document the amount and timing of the deferrals, repayments, and authorizations;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain the financial condition of the bank so that it does not deteriorate to the point where it is no longer a viable, fundamentally sound institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Make a reasonable effort, consistent with safe and sound banking practices, to maintain in its loan portfolio a percentage of agricultural loans, including agriculturally-related other property, not less than the percentage of such loans in its loan portfolio on January 1, 1986; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide the accepting official, upon request, with any information the accepting official deems necessary to monitor the bank's amortization, its compliance with the conditions of participation, and its continued eligibility.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revocation of eligibility for loss amortization.</I> The failure to comply with any condition in an acceptance, with the capital restoration plan, or with the conditions stated in paragraph (d) of this section, is grounds for revocation of acceptance for loss amortization and for an administrative action against the bank under 12 U.S.C. 1818(b). In addition, acceptance of a bank for loss amortization shall not foreclose any administrative action against the bank that the Board may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expiration date.</I> The terms of this section will no longer be in effect as of January 1, 1999.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37641, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.24" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.24   Letters of credit and acceptances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standby letters of credit.</I> For the purpose of this section, standby letters of credit include every letter of credit (or similar arrangement however named or designated) that represents an obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer:
</P>
<P>(1) To repay money borrowed by or advanced to or for the account of the account party; or
</P>
<P>(2) To make payment on account of any evidence of indebtedness undertaken by the account party; or
</P>
<P>(3) To make payment on account of any default by the party procuring the issuance of the letter of credit in the performance of an obligation. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> A standby letter of credit does not include: (1) Commercial letters of credit and similar instruments, where the issuing bank expects the beneficiary to draw upon the issuer, and which do not guaranty payment of a money obligation; or (2) a guaranty or similar obligation issued by a foreign branch in accordance with and subject to the limitations of 12 CFR part 211 (Regulation K).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Ineligible acceptance.</I> An ineligible acceptance is a time draft accepted by a bank, which does not meet the requirements for discount with a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank's lending limits.</I> Standby letters of credit and ineligible acceptances count toward member banks' lending limits imposed by state law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> A standby letter of credit or ineligible acceptance is not subject to the restrictions set forth in paragraph (c) of this section if prior to or at the time of issuance of the credit:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuing bank is paid an amount equal to the bank's maximum liability under the standby letter of credit; or
</P>
<P>(2) The party procuring the issuance of a letter of credit or ineligible acceptance has set aside sufficient funds in a segregated, clearly earmarked deposit account to cover the bank's maximum liability under the standby letter of credit or ineligible acceptance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37641, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.25" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.25   Loans in areas having special flood hazards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to implement the requirements of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> This section, except for paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Paragraphs (f) and (h) of this section apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrator of FEMA</I> means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Building</I> means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Community</I> means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Designated loan</I> means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mobile home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term <I>mobile home</I> does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this section, the term <I>mobile home</I> means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term <I>mobile home</I> includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Mutual aid society</I> means an organization—
</P>
<P>(i) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
</P>
<P>(ii) That covers losses caused by damage to members' property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members' property caused by flooding.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>NFIP</I> means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the Act.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Private flood insurance</I> means an insurance policy that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
</P>
<P>(B) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(B) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
</P>
<P>(C) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
</P>
<P>(D) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
</P>
<P>(E) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The insured; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The member bank that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(B) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(C) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
</P>
<P>(D) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Residential improved real estate</I> means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Servicer</I> means the person responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>SFIP</I> means, for purposes of paragraph (b)(9) of this section, a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to a member bank.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Special flood hazard area</I> means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A member bank shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the Act. Flood insurance coverage under the Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Table funded loans.</I> A member bank that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Private flood insurance</I>—(i) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> A member bank must accept private flood insurance, as defined in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance.</I> A member bank may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in paragraph (b)(9) of this section, without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Discretionary acceptance.</I> A member bank may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in paragraph (b)(9) of this section in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the policy:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
</P>
<P>(C) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the member bank documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Mutual aid societies.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, a member bank may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in paragraph (b)(7) of this section, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act.
</P>
<P>(B) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
</P>
<P>(D) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the member bank documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions.</I> The flood insurance requirement prescribed by paragraph (c) of this section does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any State-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of States falling within this exemption;
</P>
<P>(2) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(3):
</P>
<P>(i) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the member bank that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Escrow requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) or (e)(3) of this section, a member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
</P>
<P>(D) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(E) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
</P>
<P>(F) The loan has a term of not longer than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Duration of exception.</I> If a member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section does not apply, then the bank or its servicer shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Escrow account.</I> The member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan for which a member bank is required to escrow under paragraphs (e)(1) or (e)(3)(ii) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section during the term of the loan, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under paragraph (i) of this section informing the borrower that the member bank is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A to this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small lender exception</I>—(i) <I>Qualification.</I> Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (4) of this section do not apply to a member bank:
</P>
<P>(A) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(B) On or before July 6, 2012:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in status.</I> If a member bank previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the member bank must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Option to escrow</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under paragraph (c) of this section for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the member bank has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan or the member bank qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) or (e)(3) of this section, respectively;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) The member bank is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan subject to paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section, the member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the member bank has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing.</I> The member bank or servicer must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the member bank or servicer receives the borrower's request to escrow.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Required use of standard flood hazard determination form</I>—(1) <I>Use of form.</I> A state member bank shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. A state member bank may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA's Web site at <I>www.fema.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retention of form.</I> A state member bank shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the state member bank owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Force placement of flood insurance</I>—(1) <I>Notice and purchase of coverage.</I> If a member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under paragraph (c) of this section, then the member bank or its servicer shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower's expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under paragraph (c) of this section, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the member bank or its servicer shall purchase insurance on the borrower's behalf. The member bank or its servicer may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination of force-placed insurance</I>—(i) <I>Termination and refund.</I> Within 30 days of receipt by a member bank, or a servicer acting on its behalf, of a confirmation of a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage, the member bank or its servicer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer under paragraph (g)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer under paragraph (g)(1) of this section during any period during which the borrower's flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the member bank or its servicer were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the member bank or its servicer during such period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Sufficiency of demonstration.</I> For purposes of confirming a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (g)(2) of this section, a member bank or its servicer shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Determination fees.</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any member bank, or a servicer acting on behalf of the bank, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Borrower fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (h)(1) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
</P>
<P>(i) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's revision or updating of flood plain areas or flood-risk zones;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's publication of a notice or compendium that:
</P>
<P>(A) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
</P>
<P>(B) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the lender or its servicer on behalf of the borrower under paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purchaser or transferee fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (h)(1) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance.</I> When a member bank makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the bank shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the Act for the collateral securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(1)<I> Contents of notice.</I> The written notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP also may be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The member bank shall provide the notice required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the bank provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the bank provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record of receipt.</I> The member bank shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time the bank owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternate method of notice.</I> Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (i)(1) of this section, a member bank may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The member bank shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time the bank owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of sample form of notice.</I> A member bank will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this paragraph (i) of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A of this section within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A of this section satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notice of servicer's identity</I>—(1) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a member bank makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the bank shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the member bank's notice of the servicer's identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfer of servicing rights.</I> The member bank shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (j)(2) of this section shall transfer to the transferee servicer.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 208.25—Sample Form of Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HD1>
<HD3>Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HD3>
<P>We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
</P>
<P>The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA's <I>Flood Insurance Rate Map</I> or the <I>Flood Hazard Boundary Map</I> for the following community: ______. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
</P>
<P>Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
</P>
<P>____ The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
</P>
<P>• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover <I>the lesser of:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) the outstanding principal balance of the loan; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
</P>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community's participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
</P>
<P>• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
</P>
<HD3>Availability of Private Flood Insurance Coverage
</HD3>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>[Escrow Requirement for Residential Loans
</HD3>
<P>Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
</P>
<P>____ Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.</P></EXTRACT>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix B to § 208.25—Sample Clause for Option to Escrow for Outstanding Loans
</HD1>
<HD3>Escrow Option Clause
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
</P>
<P>• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
</P>
<P>• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
</P>
<P>• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
</P>
<P>To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
</P>
<P>[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 80 FR 43245, July 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 43247, July 21, 2015; 84 FR 4970, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Bank Securities and Securities-Related Activities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37646, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.30" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.30   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart C of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart C) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 24, 92a, 93a; sections 1818 and 1831p-1(a)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818, 1831p-1(a)(2)); and sections 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, and 78w of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78b, 78l(b), 78l(g), 78l(i), 78o-4(c)(5), 78o-5, 78q, 78q-1, 78w).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart C describes the requirements imposed upon member banks acting as transfer agents, registered clearing agencies, or sellers of securities under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. This subpart C also describes the reporting requirements imposed on member banks whose securities are subject to registration under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.31" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.31   State member banks as transfer agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-l) prescribing procedures for registration of transfer agents for which the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency (17 CFR 240.17Ac2-1) apply to member bank transfer agents. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) The rules adopted by the SEC pursuant to section 17A prescribing operational and reporting requirements for transfer agents (17 CFR 240.17Ac2-2 and 240.17Ad-1 through 240.17Ad-16) apply to member bank transfer agents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.32" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.32   Notice of disciplinary sanctions imposed by registered clearing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> Any member bank or any of its subsidiaries that is a registered clearing agency pursuant to section 17A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act), and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Imposes any final disciplinary sanction on any participant therein;
</P>
<P>(2) Denies participation to any applicant; or
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibits or limits any person in respect to access to services offered by the clearing agency, shall file with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for a participant or applicant) notice thereof in the manner prescribed in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of final disciplinary actions.</I> (1) Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that takes any final disciplinary action with respect to any participant shall promptly file a notice thereof with the Board in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section. For the purposes of this paragraph (b), <I>final disciplinary action</I> means the imposition of any disciplinary sanction pursuant to section 17A(b)(3)(G) of the Act, or other action of a registered clearing agency which, after notice and opportunity for hearing, results in final disposition of charges of:
</P>
<P>(i) One or more violations of the rules of the registered clearing agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Acts or practices constituting a statutory disqualification of a type defined in paragraph (iv) or (v) (except prior convictions) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) However, if a registered clearing agency fee schedule specifies certain charges for errors made by its participants in giving instructions to the registered clearing agency which are <I>de minimis</I> on a per error basis, and whose purpose is, in part, to provide revenues to the clearing agency to compensate it for effort expended in beginning to process an erroneous instruction, such error charges shall not be considered a final disciplinary action for purposes of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of final disciplinary action notice.</I> Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the respondent and the respondent's last known address, as reflected on the records of the clearing agency, and the name of the person, committee, or other organizational unit that brought the charges. However, identifying information as to any respondent found not to have violated a provision covered by a charge may be deleted insofar as the notice reports the disposition of that charge and, prior to the filing of the notice, the respondent does not request that identifying information be included in the notice;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement describing the investigative or other origin of the action;
</P>
<P>(3) As charged in the proceeding, the specific provision or provisions of the rules of the clearing agency violated by the respondent, or the statutory disqualification referred to in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and a statement describing the answer of the respondent to the charges;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement setting forth findings of fact with respect to any act or practice in which the respondent was charged with having engaged in or omitted; the conclusion of the clearing agency as to whether the respondent violated any rule or was subject to a statutory disqualification as charged; and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement describing any sanction imposed, the reasons therefor, and the date upon which the sanction became or will become effective; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the clearing agency may deem relevant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of final denial, prohibition, termination or limitation based on qualification or administrative rules.</I> (1) Any registered clearing agency, for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, that takes any final action that denies or conditions the participation of any person, or prohibits or limits access, to services offered by the clearing agency, shall promptly file notice thereof with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for the affected person) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; but such action shall not be considered a final disciplinary action for purposes of paragraph (b) of this section where the action is based on an alleged failure of such person to:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the qualification standards prescribed by the rules of the registered clearing agency pursuant to section 17A(b)(4)(B) of the Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with any administrative requirements of the registered clearing agency (including failure to pay entry or other dues or fees, or to file prescribed forms or reports) not involving charges of violations that may lead to a disciplinary sanction.
</P>
<P>(2) However, no such action shall be considered final pursuant to this paragraph (d) that results merely from a notice of such failure to comply to the person affected, if such person has not sought an adjudication of the matter, including a hearing, or otherwise exhausted the administrative remedies within the registered clearing agency with respect to such a matter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contents of notice required by paragraph (d) of this section.</I> Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of each person concerned and each person's last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific grounds upon which the action of the clearing agency was based, and a statement describing the answer of the person concerned;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement setting forth findings of fact and conclusions as to each alleged failure of the person to comply with qualification standards or administrative obligations, and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) The date upon which such action became or will become effective; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of final action based on prior adjudicated statutory disqualifications.</I> Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that takes any final action shall promptly file notice thereof with the Board (and the appropriate regulatory agency, if other than the Board, for the affected person) in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, where the final action:
</P>
<P>(1) Denies or conditions participation to any person, or prohibits or limits access to services offered by the clearing agency; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is based upon a statutory disqualification of a type defined in paragraph (A), (B) or (C) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act, consisting of a prior conviction, as described in subparagraph (E) of section 3(a)(39) of the Act. However, no such action shall be considered final pursuant to this paragraph (f) that results merely from a notice of such disqualification to the person affected, if such person has not sought an adjudication of the matter, including a hearing, or otherwise exhausted the administrative remedies within the clearing agency with respect to such a matter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contents of notice required by paragraph (f) of this section.</I> Any notice filed pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section shall consist of the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of each person concerned and each person's last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement setting forth the principal issues raised, the answer of any person concerned, and a statement of the clearing agency in support of its resolution of the principal issues raised in the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Any description furnished by or on behalf of the person concerned of the activities engaged in by the person since the adjudication upon which the disqualification is based;
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the order or decision of the court, appropriate regulatory agency, or self-regulatory organization that adjudicated the matter giving rise to the statutory disqualification;
</P>
<P>(5) The nature of the action taken and the date upon which such action is to be made effective; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of summary suspension of participation.</I> Any registered clearing agency for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency that summarily suspends or closes the accounts of a participant pursuant to the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C) of the Act shall, within one business day after such action becomes effective, file notice thereof with the Board and the appropriate regulatory agency for the participant, if other than the Board, of such action in accordance with paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contents of notice of summary suspension.</I> Any notice pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section shall contain at least the following information, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the participant concerned and the participant's last known address, as reflected in the records of the clearing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The date upon which the summary action became or will become effective;
</P>
<P>(3) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(i) of the Act, a copy of the relevant order or decision of the self-regulatory organization, if available to the clearing agency;
</P>
<P>(4) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(ii) of the Act, a statement describing the default of any delivery of funds or securities to the clearing agency;
</P>
<P>(5) If the summary action is based upon the provisions of section 17A(b)(5)(C)(iii) of the Act, a statement describing the financial or operating difficulty of the participant based upon which the clearing agency determined that the suspension and closing of accounts was necessary for the protection of the clearing agency, its participants, creditors, or investors;
</P>
<P>(6) The nature and effective date of the suspension; and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other matters as the clearing agency deems relevant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.33" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.33   Application for stay or review of disciplinary sanctions imposed by registered clearing agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stays.</I> The rules adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) pursuant to section 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-2) apply to applications by member banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reviews.</I> The regulations adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 19 of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78s) regarding applications by persons for whom the SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for reviews of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by registered clearing agencies (17 CFR 240.19d-3(a)-(f)) apply to applications by member banks. References to the “Commission” are deemed to refer to the Board. The Board's Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 263) apply to review proceedings under this § 208.33 to the extent not inconsistent with this § 208.33.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.34" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.34   Recordkeeping and confirmation of certain securities transactions effected by State member banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions and safe and sound operations.</I> (1) A State member bank may be excepted from one or more of the requirements of this section if it meets one of the following conditions of paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>De minimis transactions.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (c)(4) and paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this section shall not apply to banks having an average of less than 200 securities transactions per year for customers over the prior three calendar year period, exclusive of transactions in government securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Government securities.</I> The recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (c) of this section shall not apply to banks effecting fewer than 500 government securities brokerage transactions per year; provided that this exception shall not apply to government securities transactions by a State member bank that has filed a written notice, or is required to file notice, with the Federal Reserve Board that it acts as a government securities broker or a government securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Municipal securities.</I> The municipal securities activities of a State member bank that are subject to regulations promulgated by the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board shall not be subject to the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Foreign branches.</I> The requirements of this section shall not apply to the activities of foreign branches of a State member bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Every State member bank qualifying for an exemption under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that conducts securities transactions for customers shall, to ensure safe and sound operations, maintain effective systems of records and controls regarding its customer securities transactions that clearly and accurately reflect appropriate information and provide an adequate basis for an audit of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Asset-backed security</I> shall mean a security that is serviced primarily by the cash flows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collective investment fund</I> shall mean funds held by a State member bank as fiduciary and, consistent with local law, invested collectively as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In a common trust fund maintained by such bank exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of monies contributed thereto by the bank in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In a fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or similar trusts which are exempt from Federal income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Completion of the transaction</I> effected by or through a state member bank shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) For purchase transactions, the time when the customer pays the bank any part of the purchase price (or the time when the bank makes the book-entry for any part of the purchase price if applicable); however, if the customer pays for the security prior to the time payment is requested or becomes due, then the transaction shall be completed when the bank transfers the security into the account of the customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For sale transactions, the time when the bank transfers the security out of the account of the customer or, if the security is not in the bank's custody, then the time when the security is delivered to the bank; however, if the customer delivers the security to the bank prior to the time delivery is requested or becomes due then the transaction shall be completed when the banks makes payment into the account of the customer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Crossing of buy and sell orders</I> shall mean a security transaction in which the same bank acts as agent for both the buyer and the seller.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Customer</I> shall mean any person or account, including any agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account, for which a State member bank effects or participates in effecting the purchase or sale of securities, but shall not include a broker, dealer, bank acting as a broker or dealer, municipal securities broker or dealer, or issuer of the securities which are the subject of the transactions.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Debt security</I> as used in paragraph (c) of this section shall mean any security, such as a bond, debenture, note or any other similar instrument which evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or similar security) and fractional or participation interests in one or more of any of the foregoing; provided, however, that securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.,</I> shall not be included in this definition.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Government security</I> shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest and which is designated by the Secretary of the Treasury for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by any corporation whose securities are designated, by statute specifically naming the corporation, to constitute exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the Securities and Exchange Commission; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security as described in paragraphs (b)(7) (i), (ii), or (iii) of this section other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege that is traded on one or more national securities exchanges, or for which quotations are disseminated though an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Investment discretion</I> with respect to an account shall mean if the State member bank, directly or indirectly, is authorized to determine what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account, or makes decisions as to what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account even though some other person may have responsibility for such investment decisions.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Municipal security</I> shall mean a security which is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States, or any security which is an industrial development bond (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)(2) the interest on which is excludable from gross income under 26 U.S.C. 103(a)(1), by reason of the application of paragraph (4) or (6) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) (determined as if paragraphs (4)(A), (5) and (7) were not included in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)), paragraph (1) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) does not apply to such security.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Periodic plan</I> shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) A written authorization for a State member bank to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities, in a specific amount (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and setting forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them (including dividend reinvestment plans, automatic investment plans, and employee stock purchase plans); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any prearranged, automatic transfer or sweep of funds from a deposit account to purchase a security, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security with the funds being transferred into a deposit account (including cash management sweep services).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Security</I> shall mean:
</P>
<P>(i) Any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, for a security, any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security, or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), any instrument commonly known as a “security”; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(ii) But does not include a deposit or share account in a federally or state insured depository institution, a loan participation, a letter of credit or other form of bank indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business, currency, any note, draft, bill of exchange, or bankers acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance of not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited, units of a collective investment fund, interests in a variable amount (master) note of a borrower of prime credit, or U.S. Savings Bonds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, every State member bank effecting securities transactions for customers, including transactions in government securities, and municipal securities transactions by banks not subject to registration as municipal securities dealers, shall maintain the following records with respect to such transactions for at least three years. Nothing contained in this section shall require a bank to maintain the records required by this paragraph in any given manner, provided that the information required to be shown is clearly and accurately reflected and provides an adequate basis for the audit of such information. Records may be maintained in hard copy, automated, or electronic form provided the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in a hard copy. A bank may contract with third party service providers, including broker/dealers, to maintain records required under this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Chronological records of original entry containing an itemized daily record of all purchases and sales of securities. The records of original entry shall show the account or customer for which each such transaction was effected, the description of the securities, the unit and aggregate purchase or sale price (if any), the trade date and the name or other designation of the broker/dealer or other person from whom purchased or to whom sold;
</P>
<P>(2) Account records for each customer which shall reflect all purchases and sales of securities, all receipts and deliveries of securities, and all receipts and disbursements of cash with respect to transactions in securities for such account and all other debits and credits pertaining to transactions in securities;
</P>
<P>(3) A separate memorandum (order ticket) of each order to purchase or sell securities (whether executed or canceled), which shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The account(s) for which the transaction was effected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the transaction was a market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time the order was received by the trader or other bank employee responsible for effecting the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The time the order was placed with the broker/dealer, or if there was no broker/dealer, the time the order was executed or canceled;
</P>
<P>(v) The price at which the order was executed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The broker/dealer utilized;
</P>
<P>(4) A record of all broker/dealers selected by the bank to effect securities transactions and the amount of commissions paid or allocated to each such broker during the calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the written notification required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and time of notification.</I> Every State member bank effecting a securities transaction for a customer shall give or send to such customer either of the following types of notifications at or before completion of the transaction or; if the bank uses a broker/dealer's confirmation, within one business day from the bank's receipt of the broker/dealer's confirmation:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the confirmation of a broker/dealer relating to the securities transaction; and if the bank is to receive remuneration from the customer or any other source in connection with the transaction, and the remuneration is not determined pursuant to a prior written agreement between the bank and the customer, a statement of the source and the amount of any remuneration to be received; or
</P>
<P>(2) A written notification disclosing:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the customer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the bank is acting as agent for such customer, as agent for both such customer and some other person, as principal for its own account, or in any other capacity;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of execution and a statement that the time of execution will be furnished within a reasonable time upon written request of such customer specifying the identity, price and number of shares or units (or principal amount in the case of debt securities) of such security purchased or sold by such customer;
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received, directly or indirectly, by any broker/dealer from such customer in connection with the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received by the bank from the customer and the source and amount of any other remuneration to be received by the bank in connection with the transaction, unless remuneration is determined pursuant to a written agreement between the bank and the customer, provided, however, in the case of Government securities and municipal securities, this paragraph (d)(2)(vi) shall apply only with respect to remuneration received by the bank in an agency transaction. If the bank elects not to disclose the source and amount of remuneration it has or will receive from a party other than the customer pursuant to this paragraph (d)(2)(vi), the written notification must disclose whether the bank has received or will receive remuneration from a party other than the customer, and that the bank will furnish within a reasonable time the source and amount of this remuneration upon written request of the customer. This election is not available, however, if, with respect to a purchase, the bank was participating in a distribution of that security; or with respect to a sale, the bank was participating in a tender offer for that security;
</P>
<P>(vii) The name of the broker/dealer utilized; or, where there is no broker/dealer, the name of the person from whom the security was purchased or to whom it was sold, or the fact that such information will be furnished within a reasonable time upon written request;
</P>
<P>(viii) In the case of a transaction in a debt security subject to redemption before maturity, a statement to the effect that the debt security may be redeemed in whole or in part before maturity, that the redemption could affect the yield represented and that additional information is available on request;
</P>
<P>(ix) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected exclusively on the basis of a dollar price:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar price at which the transaction was effected;
</P>
<P>(B) The yield to maturity calculated from the dollar price; provided, however, that this paragraph (c)(2)(ix)(B) shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer with a variable interest payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject to continuous prepayment;
</P>
<P>(x) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected on the basis of yield:
</P>
<P>(A) The yield at which the transaction was effected, including the percentage amount and its characterization (e.g., current yield, yield to maturity, or yield to call) and if effected at yield to call, the type of call, the call date, and the call price; and
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar price calculated from the yield at which the transaction was effected; and
</P>
<P>(C) If effected on a basis other than yield to maturity and the yield to maturity is lower than the represented yield, the yield to maturity as well as the represented yield; provided, however, that this paragraph (c)(2)(x)(C) shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer with a variable interest rate payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject to continuous prepayment;
</P>
<P>(xi) In the case of a transaction in a debt security that is an asset-backed security which represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment, a statement indicating that the actual yield of such asset-backed security may vary according to the rate at which the underlying receivables or other financial assets are prepaid and a statement of the fact that information concerning the factors that affect yield (including at a minimum, the estimated yield, weighted average life, and the prepayment assumptions underlying yield) will be furnished upon written request of such customer; and
</P>
<P>(xii) In the case of a transaction in a debt security, other than a government security, that the security is unrated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, if that is the case.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification by agreement; alternative forms and times of notification.</I> A State member bank may elect to use the following alternative procedures if a transaction is effected for:
</P>
<P>(1) Accounts (except periodic plans) where the bank does not exercise investment discretion and the bank and the customer agree in writing to a different arrangement as to the time and content of the notification; provided, however, that such agreement makes clear the customer's right to receive the written notification pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section at no additional cost to the customer;
</P>
<P>(2) Accounts (except collective investment funds) where the bank exercises investment discretion in other than an agency capacity, in which instance the bank shall, upon request of the person having the power to terminate the account or, if there is no such person, upon the request of any person holding a vested beneficial interest in such account, give or send to such person the written notification within a reasonable time. The bank may charge such person a reasonable fee for providing this information;
</P>
<P>(3) Accounts, where the bank exercises investment discretion in an agency capacity, in which instance:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank shall give or send to each customer not less frequently than once every three months an itemized statement which shall specify the funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank at the end of such period and all debits, credits and transactions in the customer's accounts during such period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If requested by the customer, the bank shall give or send to each customer within a reasonable time the written notification described in paragraph (c) of this section. The bank may charge a reasonable fee for providing the information described in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) A collective investment fund, in which instance the bank shall at least annually furnish a copy of a financial report of the fund, or provide notice that a copy of such report is available and will be furnished upon request, to each person to whom a regular periodic accounting would ordinarily be rendered with respect to each participating account. This report shall be based upon an audit made by independent public accountants or internal auditors responsible only to the board of directors of the bank;
</P>
<P>(5) A periodic plan, in which instance the bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall (except for a cash management sweep service) give or send to the customer a written statement not less than every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account, showing the customer's funds and securities in the custody or possession of the bank; all service charges and commissions paid by the customer in connection with the transaction; and all other debits and credits of the customer's account involved in the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall for a cash management sweep service or similar periodic plan as defined in § 208.34(b)(10)(ii) give or send its customer a written statement in the same form as prescribed in paragraph (e)(3) above for each month in which a purchase or sale of a security takes place in a deposit account and not less than once every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account subject to any other applicable laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(6) Upon the written request of the customer the bank shall furnish the information described in paragraph (d) of this section, except that any such information relating to remuneration paid in connection with the transaction need not be provided to the customer when paid by a source other than the customer. The bank may charge a reasonable fee for providing the information described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Settlement of securities transactions.</I> All contracts for the purchase or sale of a security shall provide for completion of the transaction within the number of business days in the standard settlement cycle for the security followed by registered broker dealers in the United States unless otherwise agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Securities trading policies and procedures.</I> Every State member bank effecting securities transactions for customers shall establish written policies and procedures providing:
</P>
<P>(1) Assignment of responsibility for supervision of all officers or employees who:
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit orders to or place orders with broker/dealers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Execute transactions in securities for customers; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Process orders for notification and/or settlement purposes, or perform other back office functions with respect to securities transactions effected for customers; provided that procedures established under this paragraph (g)(1)(iii) should provide for supervision and reporting lines that are separate from supervision of personnel under paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) For the fair and equitable allocation of securities and prices to accounts when orders for the same security are received at approximately the same time and are placed for execution either individually or in combination;
</P>
<P>(3) Where applicable and where permissible under local law, for the crossing of buy and sell orders on a fair and equitable basis to the parties to the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(4) That bank officers and employees who make investment recommendations or decisions for the accounts of customers, who participate in the determination of such recommendations or decisions, or who, in connection with their duties, obtain information concerning which securities are being purchased or sold or recommended for such action, must report to the bank, within ten days after the end of the calendar quarter, all transactions in securities made by them or on their behalf, either at the bank or elsewhere in which they have a beneficial interest. The report shall identify the securities purchased or sold and indicate the dates of the transactions and whether the transactions were purchases or sales. Excluded from this requirement are transactions for the benefit of the officer or employee over which the officer or employee has no direct or indirect influence or control, transactions in mutual fund shares, and all transactions involving in the aggregate $10,000 or less during the calendar quarter. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(4), the term securities does not include government securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.35" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.35   Qualification requirements for transactions in certain securities. [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.36" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.36   Reporting requirements for State member banks subject to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing, disclosure and other requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a member bank whose securities are subject to registration pursuant to section 12(b) or section 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the 1934 Act) (15 U.S.C. 78l(b) and (g)) shall comply with the rules, regulations and forms adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (Commission) pursuant to—
</P>
<P>(i) Sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f) and 16 of the 1934 Act (15 U.S.C. 78f(m), 78l, 78m, 78n(a), (c), (d) and (f), and 78p); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406 and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (codified at 15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264 and 7265). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>References to the Commission.</I> Any references to the “Securities and Exchange Commission” or the “Commission” in the rules, regulations and forms described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall with respect to securities issued by member banks be deemed to refer to the Board unless the context otherwise requires. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elections permitted for member banks with total assets of $150 million or less.</I> (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section or the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission pursuant to the 1934 Act a member bank that has total assets of $150 million or less as of the end of its most recent fiscal year, and no foreign offices, may elect to substitute for the financial statements required by the Commission's Form 10-Q, the balance sheet and income statement from the quarterly report of condition required to be filed by the bank with the Board under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 324) (Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Form 033 or 034).
</P>
<P>(2) A member bank qualifying for and electing to file financial statements from its quarterly report of condition pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section in its form 10-Q shall include earnings per share or net loss per share data prepared in accordance with GAAP and disclose any material contingencies, as required by Article 10 of the Commission's Regulation S-X (17 CFR 210.10-01), in the Management's Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations section of Form 10-Q.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a member bank may, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, make the election described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if it has no foreign offices and had total assets of $150 million or less, determined based on the lesser of total assets as of December 31, 2019, and total assets as of the end of the bank's most recent fiscal year. The relief provided under this paragraph (b)(3) of this section does not apply to a member bank if the Board determines that permitting the member bank to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the member bank. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the member bank since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the member bank has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the member bank. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (b)(3), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required filings</I>—(1) <I>Place and timing of filing.</I> All papers required to be filed with the Board, pursuant to the 1934 Act or regulations thereunder, shall be submitted to the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551. Material may be filed by delivery to the Board, through the mails, or otherwise. The date on which papers are actually received by the Board shall be the date of filing thereof if all of the requirements with respect to the filing have been complied with.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing fees.</I> No filing fees specified by the Commission's rules shall be paid to the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public inspection.</I> Copies of the registration statement, definitive proxy solicitation materials, reports, and annual reports to shareholders required by this section (exclusive of exhibits) shall be available for public inspection at the Board's offices in Washington, DC, as well as at the Federal Reserve Banks of New York, Chicago, and San Francisco and at the Reserve Bank in the district in which the reporting bank is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidentiality of filing.</I> Any person filing any statement, report, or document under the 1934 Act may make written objection to the public disclosure of any information contained therein in accordance with the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(1) The person shall omit from the statement, report, or document, when it is filed, the portion thereof that the person desires to keep undisclosed (hereinafter called the confidential portion). The person shall indicate at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document that the confidential portion has been omitted and filed separately with the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The person shall file the following with the copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) As many copies of the confidential portion, each clearly marked “CONFIDENTIAL TREATMENT,” as there are copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board. Each copy of the confidential portion shall contain the complete text of the item and, notwithstanding that the confidential portion does not constitute the whole of the answer, the entire answer thereto; except that in case the confidential portion is part of a financial statement or schedule, only the particular financial statement or schedule need be included. All copies of the confidential portion shall be in the same form as the remainder of the statement, report, or document; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An application making objection to the disclosure of the confidential portion. The application shall be on a sheet or sheets separate from the confidential portion, and shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify the portion of the statement, report, or document that has been omitted;
</P>
<P>(B) Include a statement of the grounds of objection; and
</P>
<P>(C) Include the name of each exchange, if any, with which the statement, report, or document is filed.
</P>
<P>(3) The copies of the confidential portion and the application filed in accordance with this paragraph shall be enclosed in a separate envelope marked “CONFIDENTIAL TREATMENT,” and addressed to Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
</P>
<P>(4) Pending determination by the Board on the objection filed in accordance with this paragraph, the confidential portion shall not be disclosed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Board determines to sustain the objection, a notation to that effect shall be made at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document.
</P>
<P>(6) If the Board determines not to sustain the objection because disclosure of the confidential portion is in the public interest, a finding and determination to that effect shall be entered and notice of the finding and determination sent by registered or certified mail to the person.
</P>
<P>(7) If the Board determines not to sustain the objection, pursuant to paragraph (d)(6) of this section, the confidential portion shall be made available to the public:
</P>
<P>(i) 15 days after notice of the Board's determination not to sustain the objection has been given, as required by paragraph (d)(6) of this section, provided that the person filing the objection has not previously filed with the Board a written statement that he intends, in good faith, to seek judicial review of the finding and determination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 60 days after notice of the Board's determination not to sustain the objection has been given as required by paragraph (d)(6) of this section and the person filing the objection has filed with the Board a written statement of intent to seek judicial review of the finding and determination, but has failed to file a petition for judicial review of the Board's determination; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Upon final judicial determination, if adverse to the party filing the objection.
</P>
<P>(8) If the confidential portion is made available to the public, a copy thereof shall be attached to each copy of the statement, report, or document filed with the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37646, July 13, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 57941, Sept. 13, 2002; 68 FR 4096, Jan. 28, 2003; 85 FR 77360, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.37" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.3.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.37   Government securities sales practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart is applicable to state member banks that have filed notice as, or are required to file notice as, government securities brokers or dealers pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank that is a government securities broker or dealer</I> means a state member bank that has filed notice, or is required to file notice, as a government securities broker or dealer pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and Part 401).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer</I> does not include a broker or dealer or a government securities broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Government security</I> has the same meaning as this term has in section 3(a)(42) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(42)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-institutional customer</I> means any customer other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank, savings association, insurance company, or registered investment company;
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment adviser registered under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any entity (whether a natural person, corporation, partnership, trust, or otherwise) with total assets of at least $50 million.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business conduct.</I> A bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall observe high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of its business as a government securities broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recommendations to customers.</I> In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of a government security, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and as to the customer's financial situation and needs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Customer information.</I> Prior to the execution of a transaction recommended to a non-institutional customer, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall make reasonable efforts to obtain information concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The customer's financial status;
</P>
<P>(2) The customer's tax status;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer's investment objectives; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such other information used or considered to be reasonable by the bank in making recommendations to the customer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37652, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.40" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.40   Authority, purpose, scope, other supervisory authority, and disclosure of capital categories.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart D of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, Subpart D) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 38 (section 38) of the FDI Act as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart D defines the capital measures and capital levels that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. (Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized.) This subpart also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38. Certain of the provisions of this subpart apply to officers, directors, and employees of state member banks. Other provisions apply to any company that controls a member bank and to the affiliates of the member bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other supervisory authority.</I> Neither section 38 nor this subpart in any way limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, violations of law, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the Board, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of capital categories.</I> The assignment of a bank under this subpart within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38. Unless permitted by the Board or otherwise required by law, no bank may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart or that the Board or any other Federal banking agency has assigned the bank to a particular capital category.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing.</I> The calculation of the definitions of common equity tier 1 capital, the common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, the leverage ratio, the supplementary leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, total assets, total leverage exposure, the total risk-based capital ratio, and total risk-weighted assets under this subpart is subject to the timing provisions at 12 CFR 217.1(f) and the transitions at 12 CFR part 217, subpart G.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37652, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.41" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.41   Definitions for purposes of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, except as modified in this section or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in section 38 and section 3 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Advanced approaches bank</I> means a bank that is described in § 217.100(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.100(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> means the amount of capital as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(1) or § 217.10(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(1), 12 CFR 217.10(d)(1)), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I>—(1) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning assigned to it in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841), and the term <I>controlled</I> shall be construed consistently with the term <I>control.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusion for fiduciary ownership.</I> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity. Shares shall not be deemed to have been acquired in a fiduciary capacity if the acquiring insured depository institution or company has sole discretionary authority to exercise voting rights with respect to the shares.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion for debts previously contracted.</I> No insured depository institution or company controls another insured depository institution or company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, until two years after the date of acquisition. The two-year period may be extended at the discretion of the appropriate Federal banking agency for up to three one-year periods.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Controlling person</I> means any person having control of an insured depository institution and any company controlled by that person.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Global systemically important BHC</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to average total consolidated assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Management fee</I> means any payment of money or provision of any other thing of value to a company or individual for the provision of management services or advice to the bank, or related overhead expenses, including payments related to supervisory, executive, managerial, or policy making functions, other than compensation to an individual in the individual's capacity as an officer or employee of the bank.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Supplementary leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Tangible equity</I> means the amount of tier 1 capital, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the amount of capital as defined in § 217.20 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20). 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(2) or § 217.10(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(2), 12 CFR 217.10(d)(2)), as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Total assets</I> means quarterly average total assets as reported in a bank's Call Report, minus items deducted from tier 1 capital. At its discretion the Federal Reserve may calculate total assets using a bank's period-end assets rather than quarterly average assets. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Total leverage exposure</I> means the total leverage exposure, as calculated in accordance with § 217.11 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.11).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Total risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of total capital to total risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(3) or § 217.10(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10(b)(3), 12 CFR 217.10(d)(3)), as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Total risk-weighted assets</I> means standardized total risk-weighted assets, and for an advanced approaches bank also includes advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, as defined in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Regulation H, 78 FR 62282, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 49102, Aug. 14, 2015; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015; 90 FR 55289, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.42" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.42   Notice of capital category.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date of determination of capital category.</I> A member bank shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart as of the date the bank is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of capital category.</I> A member bank shall be deemed to have been notified of its capital levels and its capital category as of the most recent date:
</P>
<P>(1) A Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) is required to be filed with the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) A final report of examination is delivered to the bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice is provided by the Board to the bank of its capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart or that the bank's capital category has changed as provided in paragraph (c) of this section or § 208.43(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments to reported capital levels and capital category</I>—(1) <I>Notice of adjustment by bank.</I> A member bank shall provide the Board with written notice that an adjustment to the bank's capital category may have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event occurred that would cause the bank to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the bank for purposes of section 38 and this subpart on the basis of the bank's most recent Call Report or report of examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination by Board to change capital category.</I> After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board shall determine whether to change the capital category of the bank and shall notify the bank of the Board's determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.43" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.43   Capital measures and capital category definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital measures.</I> (1) For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart, the relevant capital measures are:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The total risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The tier 1 risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank or, if applicable, a bank that is a Category III Board-regulated institution (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter), the supplementary leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(2) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), the leverage ratio calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter is used to determine the well capitalized capital category under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital categories.</I> For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart, a member bank is deemed to be:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) “Well capitalized” if:
</P>
<P>(A) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(C) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.5 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(D) Leverage Measure: The bank has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(E) The bank is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the Board pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907), or section 38 of the FDI Act, or any regulation thereunder, to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization, as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter, that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under § 217.12 of this chapter, shall be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) “Adequately capitalized” if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.5 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank has a leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank or bank that is a Category III Board-regulated institution (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter), the bank has a supplementary leverage ratio of 3.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(v) The bank does not meet the definition of a “well capitalized” bank.
</P>
<P>(3) “Undercapitalized” if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 8.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.5 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank has a leverage ratio of less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches bank or bank that is a Category III Board-regulated institution (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter), the bank has a supplementary leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) “Significantly undercapitalized” if:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a total risk-based capital ratio of less than 6.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: the bank has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 4.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: the bank has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of less than 3.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure: the bank has a leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) “Critically undercapitalized” if the bank has a ratio of tangible equity to total assets that is equal to or less than 2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than capital.</I> The Board may reclassify a well capitalized member bank as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately-capitalized or an undercapitalized member bank to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the bank were in the next lower capital category (except that the Board may not reclassify a significantly undercapitalized bank as critically undercapitalized) (each of these actions are hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassifications”) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> The Board has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to 12 CFR 263.203, that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> The Board has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to 12 CFR 263.203, that, in the most recent examination of the bank, the bank received and has not corrected, a less-than-satisfactory rating for any of the categories of asset quality, management, earnings, liquidity, or sensitivity to market risk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37652, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. H, 78 FR 62283, Oct. 11, 2013; 79 FR 24540, May 1, 2014; 80 FR 49102, Aug. 14, 2015; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015; 84 FR 61796, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 70887, Dec. 26, 2019; 85 FR 32989, June 1, 2020; 90 FR 55289, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.44" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.44   Capital restoration plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A member bank shall file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate Reserve Bank within 45 days of the date that the bank receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized bank that has been required, pursuant to § 208.43(c), to comply with supervisory actions as if the bank were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional capital restoration plans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a bank that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under section 38 and this subpart is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution under § 208.43(c), unless the Board notifies the bank that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. A bank that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan shall file the plan in writing with the appropriate Reserve Bank within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan shall be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the Call Report, unless the Board instructs otherwise. The capital restoration plan shall include all of the information required to be filed under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act. A bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan as the result of a reclassification of the bank pursuant to § 208.43(c) shall include a description of the steps the bank will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. No plan shall be accepted unless it includes any performance guarantee described in section 38(e)(2)(C) of that Act by each company that controls the bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of capital restoration plans.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this subpart, the Board shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved. The Board may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disapproval of capital plan.</I> If the Board does not approve a capital restoration plan, the bank shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the Board. Upon receiving notice that its capital restoration plan has not been approved, any undercapitalized member bank (as defined in § 208.43(b)(3)) shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions. These provisions shall be applicable until such time as the Board approves a new or revised capital restoration plan submitted by the bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to submit capital restoration plan.</I> A member bank that is undercapitalized (as defined in § 208.43(b)(3)) and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section shall, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</I> Any undercapitalized member bank that fails in any material respect to implement a capital restoration plan shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Amendment of capital plan.</I> A bank that has filed an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the Board, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice to FDIC.</I> Within 45 days of the effective date of Board approval of a capital restoration plan, or any amendment to a capital restoration plan, the Board shall provide a copy of the plan or amendment to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Performance guarantee by companies that control a bank</I>—(1) <I>Limitation on Liability</I>—(i) <I>Amount limitation.</I> The aggregate liability under the guarantee provided under section 38 and this subpart for all companies that control a specific member bank that is required to submit a capital restoration plan under this subpart shall be limited to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to 5.0 percent of the bank's total assets at the time the bank was notified or deemed to have notice that the bank was undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(B) The amount necessary to restore the relevant capital measures of the bank to the levels required for the bank to be classified as adequately capitalized, as those capital measures and levels are defined at the time that the bank initially fails to comply with a capital restoration plan under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limit on duration.</I> The guarantee and limit of liability under section 38 and this subpart shall expire after the Board notifies the bank that it has remained adequately capitalized for each of four consecutive calendar quarters. The expiration or fulfillment by a company of a guarantee of a capital restoration plan shall not limit the liability of the company under any guarantee required or provided in connection with any capital restoration plan filed by the same bank after expiration of the first guarantee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Collection on guarantee.</I> Each company that controls a bank shall be jointly and severally liable for the guarantee for such bank as required under section 38 and this subpart, and the Board may require and collect payment of the full amount of that guarantee from any or all of the companies issuing the guarantee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to provide guarantee.</I> In the event that a bank that is controlled by a company submits a capital restoration plan that does not contain the guarantee required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act, the bank shall, upon submission of the plan, be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have not submitted an acceptable capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to perform guarantee.</I> Failure by any company that controls a bank to perform fully its guarantee of any capital plan shall constitute a material failure to implement the plan for purposes of section 38(f) of the FDI Act. Upon such failure, the bank shall be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart that are applicable to banks that have failed in a material respect to implement a capital restoration plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.45" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.4.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.45   Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions under section 38.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions</I>—(1) <I>Provisions applicable to all banks.</I> All member banks are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of capital distributions and management fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks.</I> Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.42 or § 208.44, that the bank is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Restricting payment of capital distributions and management fees (section 38(d));
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring that the Board monitor the condition of the bank (section 38(e)(1));
</P>
<P>(iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2));
</P>
<P>(iv) Restricting the growth of the bank's assets (section 38(e)(3)); and
</P>
<P>(v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 3(e)(4)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized banks.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.42 or § 208.44, that the bank is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the bank is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because the bank failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized banks.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 208.32, that the bank is critically undercapitalized, the bank shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Restricting the activities of the bank (section 38(h)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Restricting payments on subordinated debt of the bank (section 38(h)(2)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions.</I> In taking any action under section 38 that is within the Board's discretion to take in connection with: A member bank that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; an officer or director of such bank; or a company that controls such bank, the Board shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under 12 CFR 263.202 and 263.204, unless otherwise provided in section 38 or this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Real Estate Lending, Appraisal Standards, and Minimum Requirements for Appraisal Management Companies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.50" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.50   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart E of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart E) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, (12 U.S.C 1828(o)), Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act, (12 U.S.C 3331-3351), and section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, (12 U.S.C. 3353).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart prescribes standards for real estate lending to be used by state member banks in adopting internal real estate lending policies. The standards applicable to appraisals rendered in connection with Federally related transactions entered into by member banks and the minimum requirements for appraisal management companies are set forth in 12 CFR part 225, subparts G and M respectively (Regulation Y).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 32681, June 9, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.51" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.51   Real estate lending standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption of written policies.</I> Each state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System shall adopt and maintain written policies that establish appropriate limits and standards for extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate, or that are made for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real estate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of lending policies.</I> (1) Real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Consistent with safe and sound banking practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewed and approved by the bank's board of directors at least annually.
</P>
<P>(2) The lending policies shall establish:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan portfolio diversification standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prudent underwriting standards, including loan-to-value limits, that are clear and measurable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan administration procedures for the bank's real estate portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation, approval, and reporting requirements to monitor compliance with the bank's real estate lending policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Monitoring conditions.</I> Each member bank shall monitor conditions in the real estate market in its lending area to ensure that its real estate lending policies continue to be appropriate for current market conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interagency guidelines.</I> The real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section should reflect consideration of the Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies (contained in appendix C of this part) established by the Federal bank and thrift supervisory agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Miscellaneous Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37655, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.60" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.60   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subpart F of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart F) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under sections 9, 11, 21, 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 248(a), 248(c), 481-486, 601 and 611), section 7 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105), section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), sections 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1814, 1816, 1818, 1831o, 1831p-1 and 1831r-1), and the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5318).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart F describes a member bank's obligation to implement security procedures to discourage certain crimes, to file suspicious activity reports, and to comply with the Bank Secrecy Act's requirements for reporting and recordkeeping of currency and foreign transactions. It also describes the examination schedule for certain small insured member banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.61" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.61   Bank security procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority, purpose, and scope.</I> Pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882), member banks are required to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies, and to assist in the identification and prosecution of persons who commit such acts. It is the responsibility of the member bank's board of directors to comply with the provisions of this section and ensure that a written security program for the bank's main office and branches is developed and implemented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of security officer.</I> Upon becoming a member of the Federal Reserve System, a member bank's board of directors shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, to develop, within a reasonable time, but no later than 180 days, and to administer a written security program for each banking office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security program.</I> (1) The security program shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the institution and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution. Such procedures may include, but are not limited to: maintaining a camera that records activity in the banking office; using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices; and retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a burglary, robbery, or larceny; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide for selecting, testing, operating, and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security devices.</I> Each member bank shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:
</P>
<P>(i) A means of protecting cash and other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;
</P>
<P>(ii) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office;
</P>
<P>(iii) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows that may be opened;
</P>
<P>(iv) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary; and
</P>
<P>(v) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration: the incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area; the amount of currency and other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, or larceny; the distance of the banking office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers; the cost of the security devices; other security measures in effect at the banking office; and the physical characteristics of the structure of the banking office and its surroundings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual reports.</I> The security officer for each member bank shall report at least annually to the bank's board of directors on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reserve Banks.</I> Each Reserve Bank shall develop and maintain a written security program for its main office and branches subject to review and approval of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.62" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.62   Suspicious activity reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section ensures that a member bank files a Suspicious Activity Report when it detects a known or suspected violation of Federal law, or a suspicious transaction related to a money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act. This section applies to all member banks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FinCEN</I> means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network of the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institution-affiliated</I> party means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1786(r), or 1813(u) and 1818(b) (3), (4) or (5).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>SAR</I> means a Suspicious Activity Report on the form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>SARs required.</I> A member bank shall file a SAR with the appropriate Federal law enforcement agencies and the Department of the Treasury in accordance with the form's instructions by sending a completed SAR to FinCEN in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Insider abuse involving any amount.</I> Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying one of its directors, officers, employees, agents or other institution-affiliated parties as having committed or aided in the commission of a criminal act regardless of the amount involved in the violation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Violations aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified.</I> Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the bank has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined prior to filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an “alias,” then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as drivers' licenses or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Violations aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of a potential suspect.</I> Whenever the member bank detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the bank or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the bank and involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the bank believes that it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the bank was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though there is no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violations of the Bank Secrecy Act.</I> Any transaction (which for purposes of this paragraph (c)(4) means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected) conducted or attempted by, at or through the member bank and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the bank knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under federal law;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the bank knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for reporting.</I> A member bank is required to file a SAR no later than 30 calendar days after the date of initial detection of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a SAR. If no suspect was identified on the date of detection of the incident requiring the filing, a member bank may delay filing a SAR for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect. In no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of initial detection of a reportable transaction. In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is on-going, the financial institution shall immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and the Board in addition to filing a timely SAR.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reports to state and local authorities.</I> Member banks are encouraged to file a copy of the SAR with state and local law enforcement agencies where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) A member bank need not file a SAR for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities.
</P>
<P>(2) A member bank need not file a SAR for lost, missing, counterfeit, or stolen securities if it files a report pursuant to the reporting requirements of 17 CFR 240.17f-1.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Retention of records.</I> A member bank shall maintain a copy of any SAR filed and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of the filing of the SAR. Supporting documentation shall be identified and maintained by the bank as such, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the SAR. A member bank must make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement agencies upon request.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notification to board of directors.</I> The management of a member bank shall promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee thereof, of any report filed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compliance.</I> Failure to file a SAR in accordance with this section and the instructions may subject the member bank, its directors, officers, employees, agents, or other institution affiliated parties to supervisory action.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Confidentiality of SARs.</I> SARs are confidential. Any member bank subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR or the information contained in a SAR shall decline to produce the SAR or to provide any information that would disclose that a SAR has been prepared or filed citing this section, applicable law (e.g., 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)), or both, and notify the Board.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Safe harbor.</I> The safe harbor provisions of 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), which exempts any member bank that makes a disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation from liability under any law or regulation of the United States, or any constitution, law or regulation of any state or political subdivision, covers all reports of suspected or known criminal violations and suspicious activities to law enforcement and financial institution supervisory authorities, including supporting documentation, regardless of whether such reports are filed pursuant to this section or are filed on a voluntary basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.63" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.63   Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section is issued to assure that all state member banks establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor their compliance with the provisions of the Bank Secrecy Act (31 U.S.C. 5311, <I>et seq.</I>) and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR part 103, requiring recordkeeping and reporting of currency transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of BSA compliance program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each bank shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Bank Secrecy Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR part 103. The compliance program shall be reduced to writing, approved by the board of directors, and noted in the minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Each bank is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the Board and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 103.121, which require a customer identification program to be implemented as part of the BSA compliance program required under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of compliance program.</I> The compliance program shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by bank personnel or by an outside party;
</P>
<P>(3) Designate an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37655, July 13, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 25111, May 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.64" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.6.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.64   Frequency of examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Federal Reserve examines insured member banks pursuant to authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 325 and the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1820(d). The Federal Reserve is required to conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of every insured member bank at least once during each 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>18-month rule for certain small institutions.</I> The Federal Reserve may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of an insured member bank at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(2) The bank is well capitalized as defined in subpart D of this part (§ 208.43);
</P>
<P>(3) At the most recent examination conducted by either the Federal Reserve or applicable State banking agency, the Federal Reserve—
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned the bank a rating of 1 or 2 for management as part of the bank's rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (commonly referred to as CAMELS); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigned the bank a composite CAMELS rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System;
</P>
<P>(4) The bank currently is not subject to a formal enforcement proceeding or order by the Federal Reserve or the FDIC; and
</P>
<P>(5) No person acquired control of the bank during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope examination would have been required but for this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> This section does not limit the authority of the Federal Reserve to examine any member bank as frequently as the agency deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the extended examination cycle described in paragraph (b) of this section, the total assets of a member bank shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets of the member bank as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The assets of the member bank as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (d)(1) of this section limits the authority of the Federal Reserve to examine any member bank as frequently as the agency deems necessary pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37655, July 13, 1998, as amended at 72 FR 17802, Apr. 10, 2007; 81 FR 10069, Feb. 29, 2016; 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77360, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Financial Subsidiaries of State Member Banks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. H, 66 FR 42933, Aug. 16, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.71" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.71   What are the requirements to invest in or control a financial subsidiary?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A state member bank may control, or hold an interest in, a financial subsidiary only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The state member bank and each depository institution affiliate of the state member bank are well capitalized and well managed;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate consolidated total assets of all financial subsidiaries of the state member bank do not exceed the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) 45 percent of the consolidated total assets of the parent bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $50 billion, which dollar amount shall be adjusted according to an indexing mechanism jointly established by the Board and the Secretary of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) The state member bank, if it is one of the largest 100 insured banks (based on consolidated total assets as of the end of the previous calendar year), meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of paragraph (b) of this section, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank has approved the bank to acquire the interest in or control the financial subsidiary under § 208.76.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debt rating or alternative requirement for 100 largest insured banks</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A state member bank meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of this paragraph (b) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank has at least one issue of eligible debt outstanding that is currently rated in one of the three highest investment grade rating categories by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank is one of the second 50 largest insured banks (based on consolidated total assets as of the end of the previous calendar year), the bank has a current long-term issuer credit rating from at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization that is within the three highest investment grade rating categories used by the organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial subsidiaries engaged in financial activities only as agent.</I> This paragraph (b) does not apply to a state member bank if the financial subsidiaries of the bank engage in financial activities described in § 208.72(a)(1) and (2) only in an agency capacity and not directly or indirectly as principal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.72" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.72   What activities may a financial subsidiary conduct?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized activities.</I> A financial subsidiary of a state member bank may engage in only the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Any financial activity listed in § 225.86(a), (b), or (c) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.86(a), (b), or (c));
</P>
<P>(2) Any activity that the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Board, has determined to be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity and permissible for financial subsidiaries pursuant to Section 5136A(b) of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24a(b)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any activity that the state member bank is permitted to engage in directly (subject to the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activity by the state member bank).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Impermissible activities.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a financial subsidiary may not engage as principal in the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability or death (except to the extent permitted under applicable state law and section 302 or 303(c) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6712 or 6713(c));
</P>
<P>(2) Providing or issuing annuities the income of which is subject to tax treatment under section 72 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 72);
</P>
<P>(3) Real estate development or real estate investment, unless otherwise expressly authorized by applicable state and Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any merchant banking or insurance company investment activity permitted for financial holding companies by section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) and (I)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.73" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.73   What additional provisions are applicable to state member banks with financial subsidiaries?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital deduction required prior to January 1, 2015, for state member banks that are not advanced approaches banks (as defined in § 208.41).</I> A state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must comply with the following rules in determining its compliance with applicable regulatory capital standards (including the well capitalized standard of § 208.71(a)(1)):
</P>
<P>(1) The bank must not consolidate the assets and liabilities of any financial subsidiary with those of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the bank's risk-based capital ratios under appendix A of this part, the bank must—
</P>
<P>(i) Deduct 50 percent of the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from both the bank's Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Deduct the entire amount of the bank's outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank's risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of determining the bank's leverage capital ratio under appendix B of this part, the bank must—
</P>
<P>(i) Deduct 50 percent of the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank's Tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Deduct the entire amount of the bank's outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank's average total assets.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of determining the bank's ratio of tangible equity to total assets under § 208.43(b)(5), the bank must deduct the entire amount of the bank's outstanding equity investment (including retained earnings) in all financial subsidiaries from the bank's tangible equity and total assets.
</P>
<P>(5) If the deduction from Tier 2 capital required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section exceeds the bank's Tier 2 capital, any excess must be deducted from the bank's Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital requirements for advanced approaches banks (as defined in § 208.41) and, after January 1, 2015, all state member banks.</I> Beginning on January 1, 2014, for a state member bank that is an advanced approaches bank, and beginning on January 1, 2015 for all state member banks, a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must comply with the rules set forth in § 217.22(a)(7) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(a)(7)) in determining its compliance with applicable regulatory capital standards (including the well capitalized standard of § 208.71(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial statement disclosure of capital deduction.</I> Any published financial statement of a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must, in addition to providing information prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, separately present financial information for the bank reflecting the capital deduction and adjustments required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safeguards for the bank.</I> A state member bank that establishes, controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish and maintain procedures for identifying and managing financial and operational risks within the state member bank and the financial subsidiary that adequately protect the state member bank from such risks; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain reasonable policies and procedures to preserve the separate corporate identity and limited liability of the state member bank and the financial subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application of Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act.</I> For purposes of sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1):
</P>
<P>(1) A financial subsidiary of a state member bank shall be deemed an affiliate, and not a subsidiary, of the bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The restrictions contained in section 23A(a)(1)(A) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(a)(1)(A)) shall not apply with respect to covered transactions between the bank and any individual financial subsidiary of the bank;
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's investment in a financial subsidiary shall not include retained earnings of the financial subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(4) Any purchase of, or investment in, the securities of a financial subsidiary by an affiliate of the bank will be considered to be a purchase of, or investment in, such securities by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any extension of credit by an affiliate of the bank to a financial subsidiary of the bank will be considered to be an extension of credit by the bank to the financial subsidiary if the Board determines that such treatment is necessary or appropriate to prevent evasions of the Federal Reserve Act and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application of anti-tying prohibitions.</I> A financial subsidiary of a state member bank shall be deemed a subsidiary of a bank holding company and not a subsidiary of the bank for purposes of the anti-tying prohibitions of section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 66 FR 42933, Aug. 16, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 62284, Oct. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.74" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.74   What happens if the state member bank or a depository institution affiliate fails to continue to meet certain requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifications and safeguards.</I> The following procedures apply to a state member bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice by Board.</I> If the Board finds that a state member bank or any of its depository institution affiliates fails to continue to be well capitalized and well managed, or the state member bank is not in compliance with the asset limitation set forth in § 208.71(a)(2) or the safeguards set forth in § 208.73(c), the Board will notify the state member bank in writing and identify the areas of noncompliance. The Board may provide this notice at any time before or after receiving notice from the state member bank under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification by state member bank.</I> A state member bank must notify the appropriate Reserve Bank in writing within 15 calendar days of becoming aware that any depository institution affiliate of the bank has ceased to be well capitalized or well managed. The notification must identify the depository institution affiliate and the area(s) of noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Execution of agreement.</I> Within 45 days after receiving a notice from the Board under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or such additional period of time as the Board may permit, the:
</P>
<P>(i) State member bank must execute an agreement acceptable to the Board to comply with all applicable capital, management, asset and safeguard requirements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any relevant depository institution affiliate of the state member bank must execute an agreement acceptable to its appropriate Federal banking agency to comply with all applicable capital and management requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Agreement requirements.</I> Any agreement required by paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Explain the specific actions that the state member bank will take to correct all areas of noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a schedule within which each action will be taken; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide any other information the Board may require.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Imposition of limits.</I> Until the Board determines that the conditions described in the notice under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are corrected:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board may impose any limitations on the conduct or activities of the state member bank or any subsidiary of the bank as the Board determines to be appropriate under the circumstances and consistent with the purposes of section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, including requiring the Board's prior approval for any financial subsidiary of the bank to acquire any company or engage in any additional activity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate Federal banking agency for any relevant depository institution affiliate may impose any limitations on the conduct or activities of the depository institution or any subsidiary of that institution as the agency determines to be appropriate under the circumstances and consistent with the purposes of section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Divestiture.</I> The Board may require a state member bank to divest control of any financial subsidiary if the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a)(1) of this section are not corrected within 180 days of receipt of the notice or such additional period of time as the Board may permit. Any divestiture must be completed in accordance with any terms and conditions established by the Board.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consultation.</I> The Board will consult with all relevant Federal and state regulatory authorities in taking any action under this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debt rating or alternative requirement.</I> If a state member bank does not continue to meet any applicable debt rating or alternative requirement of § 208.71(b), the bank may not, directly or through a subsidiary, purchase or acquire any additional equity capital of any financial subsidiary until the bank restores its compliance with the requirements of that section. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the term “equity capital” includes, in addition to any equity instrument, any debt instrument issued by the financial subsidiary if the debt instrument qualifies as capital of the subsidiary under any Federal or state law, regulation or interpretation applicable to the subsidiary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.75" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.75   What happens if the state member bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates receives less than a “satisfactory” CRA rating?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on establishment of financial subsidiaries and expansion of existing financial subsidiaries.</I> If a state member bank, or any insured depository institution affiliate of the bank, has received less than a “satisfactory” rating in meeting community credit needs in its most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>):
</P>
<P>(1) The state member bank may not, directly or indirectly, acquire control of any financial subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any financial subsidiary controlled by the state member bank may not commence any additional activity or acquire control, including all or substantially all of the assets, of any company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception for certain activities.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply to any activity, or to the acquisition of control of any company that is engaged only in activities, that the state member bank is permitted to conduct directly and that are conducted on the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activity by the state member bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of prohibitions.</I> The prohibitions described in paragraph (a) of this section shall continue in effect until such time as the state member bank and each insured depository institution affiliate of the state member bank has achieved at least a “satisfactory” rating in meeting community credit needs in its most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.76" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.76   What Federal Reserve approvals are necessary for financial subsidiaries?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirements.</I> (1) A state member bank may not acquire control of, or an interest in, a financial subsidiary unless it files a notice (in letter form, with enclosures) with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) A state member bank may not engage in any additional activity pursuant to § 208.72(a)(1) or (2) through an existing financial subsidiary unless the state member bank files a notice (in letter form, with enclosures) with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of Notice.</I> Any notice required by paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a notice filed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, describe the transaction(s) through which the bank proposes to acquire control of, or an interest in, the financial subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the name and head office address of the financial subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a description of the current and proposed activities of the financial subsidiary and the specific authority permitting each activity;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the capital ratios as of the close of the previous calendar quarter for all relevant capital measures, as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), for the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates;
</P>
<P>(5) Certify that the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates was well capitalized at the close of the previous calendar quarter and is well capitalized as of the date the bank files its notice;
</P>
<P>(6) Certify that the bank and each of its depository institution affiliates is well managed as of the date the bank files its notice;
</P>
<P>(7) Certify that the bank meets the debt rating or alternative requirement of § 208.71(b), if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(8) Certify that the bank and its financial subsidiaries are in compliance with the asset limit set forth in § 208.71(a)(2) both before the proposal and on a pro forma basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insurance activities.</I> (1) If a notice filed under paragraph (a) of this section relates to the initial affiliation of the bank with a company engaged in insurance activities, the notice must describe the type of insurance activity that the company is engaged in or plans to conduct and identify each state where the company holds an insurance license and the state insurance regulatory authority that issued the license.
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Reserve Bank will send a copy of any notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to the appropriate state insurance regulatory authorities and provide such authorities with an opportunity to comment on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval procedures.</I> A notice filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed approved on the fifteenth day after receipt of a complete notice by the appropriate Reserve Bank, unless prior to that date the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank notifies the bank that the notice is approved, that the notice will require additional review, or that the bank does not meet the requirements of this subpart. Any notification of early approval of a notice must be in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.77" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.7.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.77   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions shall apply for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate, Company, Control, and Subsidiary.</I> The terms “affiliate”, “company”, “control”, and “subsidiary” have the meanings given those terms in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, Depository Institution, Insured Bank and Insured Depository Institution.</I> The terms “appropriate Federal banking agency”, “depository institution”, “insured bank” and “insured depository institution” have the meanings given those terms in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible Debt.</I> The term “eligible debt” means unsecured debt with an initial maturity of more than 360 days that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not supported by any form of credit enhancement, including a guarantee or standby letter of credit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not held in whole or in any significant part by any affiliate, officer, director, principal shareholder, or employee of the bank or any other person acting on behalf of or with funds from the bank or an affiliate of the bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial Subsidiary</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The term “financial subsidiary” means any company that is controlled by one or more insured depository institutions <I>other than:</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary that engages only in activities that the state member bank is permitted to engage in directly and that are conducted on the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activities by the state member bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A subsidiary that the state member bank is specifically authorized by the express terms of a Federal statute (other than section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335)), and not by implication or interpretation, to control, such as by section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601-604a, 611-631) or the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsidiaries of financial subsidiaries.</I> A financial subsidiary includes any company that is directly or indirectly controlled by the financial subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Long-term Issuer Credit Rating.</I> The term “long-term issuer credit rating” means a written opinion issued by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization of the bank's overall capacity and willingness to pay on a timely basis its unsecured, dollar-denominated financial obligations maturing in not less than one year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Well Capitalized</I>—(1) <I>Insured depository institutions.</I> An insured depository institution is “well capitalized” if it has and maintains at least the capital levels required to be well capitalized under the capital adequacy regulations or guidelines adopted by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency under section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Uninsured depository institutions.</I> A depository institution the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is “well capitalized” if the institution has and maintains at least the capital levels required for an insured depository institution to be well capitalized.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Well Managed</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The term “well managed” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the institution has received a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating under an equivalent rating system) and at least a rating of 2 for management (if such rating is given) in connection with its most recent examination or subsequent review by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency (or the appropriate state banking agency in an examination described in section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(d)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any depository institution that has not been examined by its appropriate Federal banking agency or been subject to an examination by its appropriate state banking agency that meets the requirements of section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (18 U.S.C. 1820(d)), the existence and use of managerial resources that the appropriate Federal banking agency determines are satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Merged depository institutions</I>—(i) <I>Merger involving well managed institutions.</I> A depository institution that results from the merger of two or more depository institutions that are well managed will be considered to be well managed unless the appropriate Federal banking agency for the resulting depository institution determines otherwise.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Merger involving a poorly rated institution.</I> A depository institution that results from the merger of a well managed depository institution with one or more depository institutions that are not well managed or that have not been examined shall be considered to be well managed if the appropriate Federal banking agency for the resulting depository institution determines that the institution is well managed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 66 FR 42933, Aug. 16, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 62284, Oct. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Consumer Protection in Sales of Insurance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 75841, Dec. 4, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.81" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.81   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes consumer protections in connection with retail sales practices, solicitations, advertising, or offers of any insurance product or annuity to a consumer by: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any state member bank; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other person that is engaged in such activities at an office of the bank or on behalf of the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.82" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.82   Definitions for purposes of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means a company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means a state member bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, business trust, association or similar organization, or any other trust (unless by its terms the trust must terminate within twenty-five years or not later than twenty-one years and ten months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust). It does not include any corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States or by any State, or a qualified family partnership, as defined in section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual who purchases, applies to purchase, or is solicited to purchase from you insurance products or annuities primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> of a company has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(5)). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Domestic violence</I> means the occurrence of one or more of the following acts by a current or former family member, household member, intimate partner, or caretaker: 
</P>
<P>(1) Attempting to cause or causing or threatening another person physical harm, severe emotional distress, psychological trauma, rape, or sexual assault; 
</P>
<P>(2) Engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts toward another person, including following the person without proper authority, under circumstances that place the person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or physical harm; 
</P>
<P>(3) Subjecting another person to false imprisonment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Attempting to cause or causing damage to property so as to intimidate or attempt to control the behavior of another person. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Electronic media</I> includes any means for transmitting messages electronically between you and a consumer in a format that allows visual text to be displayed on equipment, for example, a personal computer monitor. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Office</I> means the premises of a bank where retail deposits are accepted from the public. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(4)). 
</P>
<P>(j)(1) <I>You</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person only when the person sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity to a consumer at an office of the bank or on behalf of a bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, activities on behalf of a bank include activities where a person, whether at an office of the bank or at another location sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity and at least one of the following applies: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person represents to a consumer that the sale, solicitation, advertisement, or offer of any insurance product or annuity is by or on behalf of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank refers a consumer to a seller of insurance products or annuities and the bank has a contractual arrangement to receive commissions or fees derived from the sale of an insurance product or annuity resulting from that referral; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents evidencing the sale, solicitation, advertising, or offer of an insurance product or annuity identify or refer to the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.83" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.83   Prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Anticoercion and antitying rules.</I> You may not engage in any practice that would lead a consumer to believe that an extension of credit, in violation of section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972), is conditional upon either: 
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank or any of its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) An agreement by the consumer not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on misrepresentations generally.</I> You may not engage in any practice or use any advertisement at any office of, or on behalf of, the bank or a subsidiary of the bank that could mislead any person or otherwise cause a reasonable person to reach an erroneous belief with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The fact that an insurance product or annuity sold or offered for sale by you or any subsidiary of the bank is not backed by the Federal government or the bank or the fact that the insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves investment risk, the fact that there is an investment risk, including the potential that principal may be lost and that the product may decline in value; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a bank or subsidiary of the bank at which insurance products or annuities are sold or offered for sale, the fact that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The approval of an extension of credit to a consumer by the bank or subsidiary may not be conditioned on the purchase of an insurance product or annuity by the consumer from the bank or a subsidiary of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer is free to purchase the insurance product or annuity from another source. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on domestic violence discrimination.</I> You may not sell or offer for sale, as principal, agent, or broker, any life or health insurance product if the status of the applicant or insured as a victim of domestic violence or as a provider of services to victims of domestic violence is considered as a criterion in any decision with regard to insurance underwriting, pricing, renewal, or scope of coverage of such product, or with regard to the payment of insurance claims on such product, except as required or expressly permitted under State law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.84" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.84   What you must disclose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Insurance disclosures.</I> In connection with the initial purchase of an insurance product or annuity by a consumer from you, you must disclose to the consumer, except to the extent the disclosure would not be accurate, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance product or annuity is not a deposit or other obligation of, or guaranteed by, the bank or an affiliate of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) or any other agency of the United States, the bank, or (if applicable) an affiliate of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves an investment risk, there is investment risk associated with the product, including the possible loss of value. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit disclosure.</I> In the case of an application for credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold, you must disclose that the bank may not condition an extension of credit on either: 
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the bank or any of its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's agreement not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing and method of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be provided orally and in writing before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer. The disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made orally and in writing at the time the consumer applies for an extension of credit in connection with which insurance is solicited, offered, or sold. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions for transactions by mail.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section. If you take an application for credit by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for transactions by telephone.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by telephone, you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section by mail within 3 business days beginning on the first business day after the sale, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C 6103(a). If you take an application for such credit by telephone, you may provide the written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section by mail, provided you mail it to the consumer within three days beginning the first business day after the application is taken, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic form of disclosures.</I> (i) Subject to the requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001(c)), you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section through electronic media instead of on paper, if the consumer affirmatively consents to receiving the disclosures electronically and if the disclosures are provided in a format that the consumer may retain or obtain later, for example, by printing or storing electronically (such as by downloading). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosures required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section that are provided by electronic media are not required to be provided orally. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosures must be readily understandable.</I> The disclosures provided shall be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. For instance, you may use the following disclosures, in visual media, such as television broadcasting, ATM screens, billboards, signs, posters and written advertisements and promotional materials, as appropriate and consistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>• NOT A DEPOSIT 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT FDIC-INSURED 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT INSURED BY ANY FEDERAL GOVERNMENT AGENCY 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• NOT GUARANTEED BY THE BANK 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• MAY GO DOWN IN VALUE</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>Disclosures must be meaningful.</I> (i) You must provide the disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in a meaningful form. Examples of the types of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures; 
</P>
<P>(B) A typeface and type size that are easy to read; 
</P>
<P>(C) Wide margins and ample line spacing; 
</P>
<P>(D) Boldface or italics for key words; and
</P>
<P>(E) Distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information. 
</P>
<P>(ii) You have not provided the disclosures in a meaningful form if you merely state to the consumer that the required disclosures are available in printed material, but you do not provide the printed material when required and do not orally disclose the information to the consumer when required. 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to those disclosures made through electronic media for which paper or oral disclosures are not required, the disclosures are not meaningfully provided if the consumer may bypass the visual text of the disclosures before purchasing an insurance product or annuity. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consumer acknowledgment.</I> You must obtain from the consumer, at the time a consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, or at the time of the initial purchase by the consumer of an insurance product or annuity, a written acknowledgment by the consumer that the consumer received the disclosures. You may permit a consumer to acknowledge receipt of the disclosures electronically or in paper form. If the disclosures required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section are provided in connection with a transaction that is conducted by telephone, you must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain an oral acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures and maintain sufficient documentation to show that the acknowledgment was given; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Make reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisements and other promotional material for insurance products or annuities.</I> The disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section are required in advertisements and promotional material for insurance products or annuities unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.85" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.85   Where insurance activities may take place.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A bank must, to the extent practicable, keep the area where the bank conducts transactions involving insurance products or annuities physically segregated from areas where retail deposits are routinely accepted from the general public, identify the areas where insurance product or annuity sales activities occur, and clearly delineate and distinguish those areas from the areas where the bank's retail deposit-taking activities occur. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referrals.</I> Any person who accepts deposits from the public in an area where such transactions are routinely conducted in the bank may refer a consumer who seeks to purchase an insurance product or annuity to a qualified person who sells that product only if the person making the referral receives no more than a one-time, nominal fee of a fixed dollar amount for each referral that does not depend on whether the referral results in a transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.86" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.86   Qualification and licensing requirements for insurance sales personnel.</HEAD>
<P>A bank may not permit any person to sell or offer for sale any insurance product or annuity in any part of its office or on its behalf, unless the person is at all times appropriately qualified and licensed under applicable State insurance licensing standards with regard to the specific products being sold or recommended. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.8.3.7.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart H of Part 208—Consumer Grievance Process 
</HEAD>
<P>Any consumer who believes that any bank or any other person selling, soliciting, advertising, or offering insurance products or annuities to the consumer at an office of the bank or on behalf of the bank has violated the requirements of this subpart should contact the Consumer Complaints Section, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System at the following address: 20th &amp; C Streets, NW, Washington, D.C. 20551.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Interpretations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. H, 63 FR 37658, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 14814, Mar. 20, 2000. Redesignated further at 65 FR 75841, Dec. 4, 2000. Redesignated further at 75 FR 44688, July 28, 2010.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.110" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.10.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.110   Sale of bank's money orders off premises as establishment of branch office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked to consider whether the appointment by a member bank of an agent to sell the bank's money orders, at a location other than the premises of the bank, constitutes the establishment of a branch office.
</P>
<P>(b) Section 5155 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 36), which is also applicable to member banks, defines the term branch as including “any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business * * * at which deposits are received, or checks paid, or money lent.” The basic question is whether the sale of a bank's money orders by an agent amounts to the receipt of deposits at a branch place of business within the meaning of this statute.
</P>
<P>(c) Money orders are classified as deposits for certain purposes. However, they bear a strong resemblance to traveler's checks that are issued by banks and sold off premises. In both cases, the purchaser does not intend to establish a deposit account in the bank, although a liability on the bank's part is created. Even though they result in a deposit liability, the Board is of the opinion that the issuance of a bank's money orders by an authorized agent does not involve the receipt of deposits at a “branch place of business” and accordingly does not require the Board's permission to establish a branch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.111" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.10.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.111   Obligations concerning institutional customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the Board is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the Board believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board's Suitability Rule, § 208.37(d), is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks' responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer.
</P>
<P>(c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and financial situation and needs.
</P>
<P>(d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 208.37(d). 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The interpretation in this section does not address the obligation related to suitability that requires that a bank have”* * * a ‘reasonable basis’ to believe that the recommendation could be suitable for at least some customers.” In the Matter of the Application of F.J. Kaufman and Company of Virginia and Frederick J. Kaufman, Jr., 50 SEC 164 (1989).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank's suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the Board has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 208.37(d). These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations.
</P>
<P>(f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank's recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank's customer-specific obligations under § 208.37(d) would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision.
</P>
<P>(g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer's investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank's obligations under § 208.25(d) for a particular customer are fulfilled. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> Where a customer has delegated decision-making authority to an agent, such as an investment advisor or a bank trust department, the interpretation in this section shall be applied to the agent.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> <I>See</I> footnote 8 in paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer's capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include:
</P>
<P>(1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments;
</P>
<P>(2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer's ability to understand the economic features of the security involved;
</P>
<P>(4) The customer's ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and
</P>
<P>(5) The complexity of the security or securities involved.
</P>
<P>(i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer. Relevant considerations could include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank's recommendations;
</P>
<P>(3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives.
</P>
<P>(j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction.
</P>
<P>(k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the Board will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 63 FR 37658, July 13, 1998. Redesignated at 65 FR 14814, Mar. 20, 2000. Redesignated further at 65 FR 75841, Dec. 4, 2000. Redesignated further at 75 FR 44688, July 28, 2010; 75 FR 44692, July 28, 2010; 78 FR 62284, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.112" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.10.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.112   Policy statement on section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 330), a State member bank may exercise all corporate powers granted it by the State in which it was created except that the Board may limit the activities of State member banks and subsidiaries of State member banks in a manner consistent with section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.” The Board interprets this provision as vesting in the Board the authority to prohibit or otherwise restrict State member banks and their subsidiaries from engaging as principal in any activity (including acquiring or retaining any investment) that is not permissible for a national bank, unless the activity is permissible for State-chartered banks by Federal statute or under section 24(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board generally believes that the same activity, presenting the same risks, should be subject to the same regulatory framework, and that a different activity, presenting different risks, should be subject to a different regulatory framework. Consistent with this principle, the Board intends to interpret section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 330) to facilitate innovation by insured and uninsured State member banks in a manner consistent with safety and soundness of State member banks and preserving the stability of the U.S. financial system.
</P>
<P>(c) In alignment with this principle, the Board generally presumes that it will exercise its discretion under section 9(13) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 330) to limit the authority of insured State member banks and their subsidiaries to engage in any activity as principal to those activities that are permissible for national banks—in each case, subject to the terms, conditions, and limitations placed on national banks with respect to the activity—unless those activities are permissible for insured State-chartered banks under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(d) If an activity is authorized for national banks to conduct as principal, it is generally permissible for State member banks to conduct as principal, provided that it is permitted under relevant State law and the bank adheres to the terms, conditions, and limitations placed on national banks by the OCC with respect to the activity.
</P>
<P>(e) If the FDIC, by rule, permits insured State-chartered banks to engage in any activity as principal under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act that is not permissible for national banks, it is generally permissible for State member banks to engage in that activity, provided it is permitted under applicable State law. If there is no authority for an insured State-chartered bank to engage in a particular activity as principal under Federal statute or part 362 of the FDIC's regulations, that activity must be authorized for insured depository institutions by the FDIC under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a) and the insured State member bank must be in compliance with applicable capital requirements issued by the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) An uninsured State member bank may not engage in any activity as principal that is not authorized for national banks or insured State-chartered banks, unless the Board has provided otherwise by regulation, order, or other means, or the uninsured State member bank has received the permission of the Board under § 208.3(d)(2) of the Board's Regulation H. In determining whether to grant an uninsured state member bank or an uninsured State-chartered bank applicant for membership permission to engage in an activity as principal that is not permissible for insured State member banks, the Board will consider whether the uninsured State member bank would be capable of engaging in such activity in a safe and sound manner and in a manner that is consistent with preserving the stability of the U.S. financial system.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59733, Dec. 22, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Forms, Instructions and Reports</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. H, 84 FR 29051, June 21, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 208.120" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.120   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board under section 7 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3) and (12), and section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 324.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart informs a state member bank where it may obtain forms and instructions for reports of conditions and implements 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(12) to allow reduced reporting for a covered depository institution when such institution makes its reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters of a year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.121" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.121   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Covered depository institution</I> means a state member bank that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Has less than $5 billion in total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of the preceding year, except that, during the calendar year 2021, a state member bank shall determine whether it meets the requirement in paragraph (1) of this section by using the lesser of its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition as of December 31, 2019, and its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of 2020. The relief provided under this paragraph (1) of this section does not apply to a state member bank if the Board determines that permitting the state member bank to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the state member bank. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the state member bank since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the state member bank has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the state member bank. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (1), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(2) Has no foreign offices, as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not required to or has not elected to use 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is not a large institution or highly complex institution, as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 327.8, or treated as a large institution, as requested under 12 CFR 327.16(f).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign country</I> refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign office</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A branch or consolidated subsidiary in a foreign country, unless the branch is located on a U.S. military facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An international banking facility as such term is defined in 12 CFR 204.8;
</P>
<P>(3) A majority-owned Edge Act or Agreement subsidiary including both its U.S. and its foreign offices; and
</P>
<P>(4) For an institution chartered or headquartered in any U.S. state or the District of Columbia, a branch or consolidated subsidiary located in a U.S. territory or possession.
</P>
<P><I>Report of condition</I> means the FFIEC 031, FFIEC 041, or FFIEC 051 versions of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) or the FFIEC 002 (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks), as applicable, and as they may be amended or superseded from time to time in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
</P>
<P><I>Total consolidated assets</I> means total assets as reported in a state member bank's report of condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 84 FR 29051, June 21, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 77360, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.122" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.122   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state member bank is required to file the report of condition (Call Report) in accordance with the instructions for these reports. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of, the Call Report. The Board uses Call Report data to monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual state member banks and the banking industry. Reporting state member banks must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the Board may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report forms and instructions can be obtained from Federal Reserve District Banks or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) Every insured U.S. branch of a foreign bank is required to file the FFIEC 002 version of the report of condition (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks) in accordance with the instructions for the report. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of the report. The Board uses the reported data to monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual insured branches and the banking industry. Insured branches must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the Board may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report forms and instructions can be obtained from Federal Reserve District Banks or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.123" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.123   Reduced reporting.</HEAD>
<P>A covered depository institution may file the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, which shall provide for reduced reporting for the reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters for a year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 208.124" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 208.124   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding § 208.123, the Board in consultation with the applicable state chartering authority may require an otherwise eligible covered depository institution to file the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, based on an institution-specific determination. In making this determination, the Board may consider criteria including, but not limited to, whether the institution is significantly engaged in one or more complex, specialized, or other higher risk activities, such as those for which limited information is reported in the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition compared to the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition. Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the Board's authority to obtain information from a state member bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.6.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes A-B to Part 208 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.6.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 208—Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies
</HEAD>
<P>The agencies' regulations require that each insured depository institution adopt and maintain a written policy that establishes appropriate limits and standards for all extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate or made for the purpose of financing the construction of a building or other improvements. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> These guidelines are intended to assist institutions in the formulation and maintenance of a real estate lending policy that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its individual operations, as well as satisfies the requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The agencies have adopted a uniform rule on real estate lending. See 12 CFR part 365 (FDIC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E (FRB); 12 CFR part 34, subpart D (OCC); and 12 CFR 563.100-101 (OTS).</P></FTNT>
<P>Each institution's policies must be comprehensive, and consistent with safe and sound lending practices, and must ensure that the institution operates within limits and according to standards that are reviewed and approved at least annually by the board of directors. Real estate lending is an integral part of many institutions' business plans and, when undertaken in a prudent manner, will not be subject to examiner criticism. 
</P>
<HD1>Loan Portfolio Management Considerations
</HD1>
<P>The lending policy should contain a general outline of the scope and distribution of the institution's credit facilities and the manner in which real estate loans are made, serviced, and collected. In particular, the institution's policies on real estate lending should: 
</P>
<P>• Identify the geographic areas in which the institution will consider lending. 
</P>
<P>• Establish a loan portfolio diversification policy and set limits for real estate loans by type and geographic market (e.g., limits on higher risk loans).
</P>
<P>• Identify appropriate terms and conditions by type of real estate loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish loan origination and approval procedures, both generally and by size and type of loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish prudent underwriting standards that are clear and measurable, including loan-to-value limits, that are consistent with these supervisory guidelines. 
</P>
<P>• Establish review and approval procedures for exception loans, including loans with loan-to-value percentages in excess of supervisory limits. 
</P>
<P>• Establish loan administration procedures, including documentation, disbursement, collateral inspection, collection, and loan review. 
</P>
<P>• Establish real estate appraisal and evaluation programs. 
</P>
<P>• Require that management monitor the loan portfolio and provide timely and adequate reports to the board of directors.
</P>
<P>The institution should consider both internal and external factors in the formulation of its loan policies and strategic plan. Factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution. 
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending staff. 
</P>
<P>• The need to avoid undue concentrations of risk.
</P>
<P>• Compliance with all real estate related laws and regulations, including the Community Reinvestment Act, anti-discrimination laws, and for savings associations, the Qualified Thrift Lender test.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions. 
</P>
<P>The institution should monitor conditions in the real estate markets in its lending area so that it can react quickly to changes in market conditions that are relevant to its lending decisions. Market supply and demand factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• Demographic indicators, including population and employment trends.
</P>
<P>• Zoning requirements.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected vacancy, construction, and absorption rates.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected lease terms, rental rates, and sales prices, including concessions.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected operating expenses for different types of projects.
</P>
<P>• Economic indicators, including trends and diversification of the lending area.
</P>
<P>• Valuation trends, including discount and direct capitalization rates.
</P>
<HD1>Underwriting Standards
</HD1>
<P>Prudently underwritten real estate loans should reflect all relevant credit factors, including:
</P>
<P>• The capacity of the borrower, or income from the underlying property, to adequately service the debt.
</P>
<P>• The value of the mortgaged property.
</P>
<P>• The overall creditworthiness of the borrower.
</P>
<P>• The level of equity invested in the property.
</P>
<P>• Any secondary sources of repayment.
</P>
<P>• Any additional collateral or credit enhancements (such as guarantees, mortgage insurance or takeout commitments). 
</P>
<P>The lending policies should reflect the level of risk that is acceptable to the board of directors and provide clear and measurable underwriting standards that enable the institution's lending staff to evaluate these credit factors. The underwriting standards should address:
</P>
<P>• The maximum loan amount by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Maximum loan maturities by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Amortization schedules.
</P>
<P>• Pricing structure for different types of real estate loans.
</P>
<P>• Loan-to-value limits by type of property. 
</P>
<P>For development and construction projects, and completed commercial properties, the policy should also establish, commensurate with the size and type of the project or property:
</P>
<P>• Requirements for feasibility studies and sensitivity and risk analyses (<I>e.g.,</I> sensitivity of income projections to changes in economic variables such as interest rates, vacancy rates, or operating expenses).
</P>
<P>• Minimum requirements for initial investment and maintenance of hard equity by the borrower (<I>e.g.,</I> cash or unencumbered investment in the underlying property).
</P>
<P>• Minimum standards for net worth, cash flow, and debt service coverage of the borrower or underlying property.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on non-amortizing loans.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on the use of interest reserves.
</P>
<P>• Pre-leasing and pre-sale requirements for income-producing property.
</P>
<P>• Pre-sale and minimum unit release requirements for non-income-producing property loans.
</P>
<P>• Limits on partial recourse or nonrecourse loans and requirements for guarantor support.
</P>
<P>• Requirements for takeout commitments.
</P>
<P>• Minimum covenants for loan agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Loan Administration
</HD1>
<P>The institution should also establish loan administration procedures for its real estate portfolio that address:
</P>
<P>• Documentation, including:
</P>
<FP1-2> Type and frequency of financial statements, including requirements for verification of information provided by the borrower;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Type and frequency of collateral evaluations (appraisals and other estimates of value).
</FP1-2>
<P>• Loan closing and disbursement.
</P>
<P>• Payment processing.
</P>
<P>• Escrow administration.
</P>
<P>• Collateral administration.
</P>
<P>• Loan payoffs.
</P>
<P>• Collections and foreclosure, including:
</P>
<FP1-2> Delinquency follow-up procedures; 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Foreclosure timing; 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Extensions and other forms of forbearance; 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Acceptance of deeds in lieu of foreclosure.
</FP1-2>
<P>• Claims processing (<I>e.g.,</I> seeking recovery on a defaulted loan covered by a government guaranty or insurance program).
</P>
<P>• Servicing and participation agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>Institutions should establish their own internal loan-to-value limits for real estate loans. These internal limits should not exceed the following supervisory limits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan-to-value limit (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raw land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commercial, multifamily, 
<sup>1</sup> and other nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1- to 4-family residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Improved property</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>2</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A loan-to-value limit has not been established for permanent mortgage or home equity loans on owner-occupied, 1- to 4-family residential property. However, for any such loan with a loan-to-value ratio that equals or exceeds 90 percent at origination, an institution should require appropriate credit enhancement in the form of either mortgage insurance or readily marketable collateral.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The supervisory loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (e.g., a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under supervisory loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the supervisory limits, lenders should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
</P>
<P>In establishing internal loan-to-value limits, each lender is expected to carefully consider the institution-specific and market factors listed under “Loan Portfolio Management Considerations,” as well as any other relevant factors, such as the particular subcategory or type of loan. For any subcategory of loans that exhibits greater credit risk than the overall category, a lender should consider the establishment of an internal loan-to-value limit for that subcategory that is lower than the limit for the overall category.
</P>
<P>The loan-to-value ratio is only one of several pertinent credit factors to be considered when underwriting a real estate loan. Other credit factors to be taken into account are highlighted in the “Underwriting Standards” section above. Because of these other factors, the establishment of these supervisory limits should not be interpreted to mean that loans at these levels will automatically be considered sound.
</P>
<HD1>Loans in Excess of the Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>The agencies recognize that appropriate loan-to-value limits vary not only among categories of real estate loans but also among individual loans. Therefore, it may be appropriate in individual cases to originate or purchase loans with loan-to-value ratios in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits, based on the support provided by other credit factors. Such loans should be identified in the institutions's records, and their aggregate amount reported at least quarterly to the institution's board of directors. (See additional reporting requirements described under “Exceptions to the General Policy.”)
</P>
<P>The aggregate amount of all loans in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits should not exceed 100 percent of total capital. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, within the aggregate limit, total loans for all commercial, agricultural, multifamily or other non-1-to-4 family residential properties should not exceed 30 percent of total capital. An institution will come under increased supervisory scrutiny as the total of such loans approaches these levels.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For advanced approaches banks (as defined in 12 CFR 208.41) and, after January 1, 2015, for all state member banks, the term “total capital” refers to that term as defined in subpart A of 12 CFR part 217. For insured state nonmember banks and state savings associations, “total capital” refers to that term defined in subpart A of 12 CFR part 324. For national banks and Federal savings associations, the term “total capital” refers to that term as defined in subpart A of 12 CFR part 3. Prior to January 1, 2015, for state member banks that are not advanced approaches banks (as defined in 12 CFR 208.41), the term “total capital” means “total risk-based capital” as defined in appendix A to 12 CFR part 208. For insured state non-member banks, “total capital” refers to that term described in table I of appendix A to 12 CFR part 325. For national banks, the term “total capital” is defined at 12 CFR 3.2(e). For savings associations, the term “total capital” is defined at 12 CFR 567.5(c).</P></FTNT>
<P>In determining the aggregate amount of such loans, institutions should: (a) Include all loans secured by the same property if any one of those loans exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limits; and (b) include the recourse obligation of any such loan sold with recourse. Conversely, a loan should no longer be reported to the directors as part of aggregate totals when reduction in principal or senior liens, or additional contribution of collateral or equity (e.g., improvements to the real property securing the loan), bring the loan-to-value ratio into compliance with supervisory limits.
</P>
<HD1>Excluded Transactions
</HD1>
<P>The agencies also recognize that there are a number of lending situations in which other factors significantly outweigh the need to apply the supervisory loan-to-value limits. These include:
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government or its agencies, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans backed by the full faith and credit of a state government, provided that the amount of the assurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by a state, municipal or local government, or an agency thereof, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit, and provided that the lender has determined that the guarantor or insurer has the financial capacity and willingness to perform under the terms of the guaranty or insurance agreement.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are to be sold promptly after origination, without recourse, to a financially responsible third party.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured without the advancement of new funds or an increase in the line of credit (except for reasonable closing costs), or loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured in connection with a workout situation, either with or without the advancement of new funds, where consistent with safe and sound banking practices and part of a clearly defined and well-documented program to achieve orderly liquidation of the debt, reduce risk of loss, or maximize recovery on the loan.
</P>
<P>• Loans that facilitate the sale of real estate acquired by the lender in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>• Loans for which a lien on or interest in real property is taken as additional collateral through an abundance of caution by the lender (e.g., the institution takes a blanket lien on all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, and the value of the real property is low relative to the aggregate value of all other collateral).
</P>
<P>• Loans, such as working capital loans, where the lender does not rely principally on real estate as security and the extension of credit is not used to acquire, develop, or construct permanent improvements on real property.
</P>
<P>• Loans for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real property, but not secured by the property, if such security interest is not required by prudent underwriting practice.
</P>
<HD1>Exceptions to the General Lending Policy
</HD1>
<P>Some provision should be made for the consideration of loan requests from creditworthy borrowers whose credit needs do not fit within the institution's general lending policy. An institution may provide for prudently underwritten exceptions to its lending policies, including loan-to-value limits, on a loan-by-loan basis. However, any exceptions from the supervisory loan-to-value limits should conform to the aggregate limits on such loans discussed above.
</P>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for establishing standards for the review and approval of exception loans. Each institution should establish an appropriate internal process for the review and approval of loans that do not conform to its own internal policy standards. The approval of any such loan should be supported by a written justification that clearly sets forth all of the relevant credit factors that support the underwriting decision. The justification and approval documents for such loans should be maintained as a part of the permanent loan file. Each institution should monitor compliance with its real estate lending policy and individually report exception loans of a significant size to its board of directors.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Review of Real Estate Lending Policies and Practices
</HD1>
<P>The real estate lending policies of institutions will be evaluated by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine if the policies are consistent with safe and sound lending practices, these guidelines, and the requirements of the regulation. In evaluating the adequacy of the institution's real estate lending policies and practices, examiners will take into consideration the following factors:
</P>
<P>• The nature and scope of the institution's real estate lending activities.
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>• The quality of the institution's management and internal controls.
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending and loan administration staff.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions.
</P>
<P>Lending policy exception reports will also be reviewed by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine whether the institutions' exceptions are adequately documented and appropriate in light of all of the relevant credit considerations. An excessive volume of exceptions to an institution's real estate lending policy may signal a weakening of its underwriting practices, or may suggest a need to revise the loan policy.
</P>
<HD1>Definitions 
</HD1>
<P>For the purposes of these Guidelines: 
</P>
<P><I>Construction loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of erecting or rehabilitating buildings or other structures, including any infrastructure necessary for development. 
</P>
<P><I>Extension of credit</I> or <I>loan</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total amount of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment with respect to real property; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount, based on the amount of consideration paid, of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment acquired by a lender by purchase, assignment, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P><I>Improved property loan</I> means an extension of credit secured by one of the following types of real property: 
</P>
<P>(1) Farmland, ranchland or timberland committed to ongoing management and agricultural production; 
</P>
<P>(2) 1- to 4-family residential property that is not owner-occupied; 
</P>
<P>(3) Residential property containing five or more individual dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(4) Completed commercial property; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Other income-producing property that has been completed and is available for occupancy and use, except income-producing owner-occupied 1- to 4-family residential property. 
</P>
<P><I>Land development loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of improving unimproved real property prior to the erection of structures. The improvement of unimproved real property may include the laying or placement of sewers, water pipes, utility cables, streets, and other infrastructure necessary for future development. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan origination</I> means the time of inception of the obligation to extend credit (i.e., when the last event or prerequisite, controllable by the lender, occurs causing the lender to become legally bound to fund an extension of credit). 
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value</I> or <I>loan-to-value ratio</I> means the percentage or ratio that is derived at the time of loan origination by dividing an extension of credit by the total value of the property(ies) securing or being improved by the extension of credit plus the amount of any readily marketable collateral and other acceptable collateral that secures the extension of credit. The total amount of all senior liens on or interests in such property(ies) should be included in determining the loan-to-value ratio. When mortgage insurance or collateral is used in the calculation of the loan-to-value ratio, and such credit enhancement is later released or replaced, the loan-to-value ratio should be recalculated. 
</P>
<P><I>Other acceptable collateral</I> means any collateral in which the lender has a perfected security interest, that has a quantifiable value, and is accepted by the lender in accordance with safe and sound lending practices. Other acceptable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral. Other acceptable collateral includes, among other items, unconditional irrevocable standby letters of credit for the benefit of the lender. 
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied,</I> when used in conjunction with the term <I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means that the owner of the underlying real property occupies at least one unit of the real property as a principal residence of the owner.
</P>
<P><I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means insured deposits, financial instruments, and bullion in which the lender has a perfected interest. Financial instruments and bullion must be salable under ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions, on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. Readily marketable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral.
</P>
<P><I>Value</I> means an opinion or estimate, set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate, of the market value of real property, prepared in accordance with the agency's appraisal regulations and guidance. For loans to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value.
</P>
<P><I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means property containing fewer than five individual dwelling units, including manufactured homes permanently affixed to the underlying property (when deemed to be real property under state law).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62896, 62900, Dec. 31, 1992; 58 FR 4460, Jan. 14, 1993; 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998; 78 FR 62284, Oct. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.6.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D-1 to Part 208—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<HD2>I. Introduction
</HD2>
<P>A. Preservation of existing authority. 
</P>
<P>B. Definitions. 
</P>
<HD2>II. Operational and Managerial Standards 
</HD2>
<P>A. Internal controls and information systems. 
</P>
<P>B. Internal audit system. 
</P>
<P>C. Loan documentation. 
</P>
<P>D. Credit underwriting. 
</P>
<P>E. Interest rate exposure. 
</P>
<P>F. Asset growth. 
</P>
<P>G. Asset quality.
</P>
<P>H. Earnings.
</P>
<P>I. Compensation, fees and benefits. 
</P>
<HD2>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice 
</HD2>
<P>A. Excessive compensation. 
</P>
<P>B. Compensation leading to material financial loss. 
</P>
<HD1>I. Introduction 
</HD1>
<P>i. Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (FDI Act) requires each Federal banking agency (collectively, the agencies) to establish certain safety and soundness standards by regulation or by guideline for all insured depository institutions. Under section 39, the agencies must establish three types of standards: (1) Operational and managerial standards; (2) compensation standards; and (3) such standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation as they determine to be appropriate.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) was added by section 132 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (FDICIA), Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991), and amended by section 956 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3895 (1992) and section 318 of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994, Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160 (1994).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. Section 39(a) requires the agencies to establish operational and managerial standards relating to: (1) Internal controls, information systems and internal audit systems, in accordance with section 36 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831m); (2) loan documentation; (3) credit underwriting; (4) interest rate exposure; (5) asset growth; and (6) compensation, fees, and benefits, in accordance with subsection (c) of section 39. Section 39(b) requires the agencies to establish standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation that the agencies determine to be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>iii. Section 39(c) requires the agencies to establish standards prohibiting as an unsafe and unsound practice any compensatory arrangement that would provide any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder of the institution with excessive compensation, fees or benefits and any compensatory arrangement that could lead to material financial loss to an institution. Section 39(c) also requires that the agencies establish standards that specify when compensation is excessive. 
</P>
<P>iv. If an agency determines that an institution fails to meet any standard established by guideline under subsection (a) or (b) of section 39, the agency may require the institution to submit to the agency an acceptable plan to achieve compliance with the standard. In the event that an institution fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time allowed by the agency or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan, the agency must, by order, require the institution to correct the deficiency. The agency may, and in some cases must, take other supervisory actions until the deficiency has been corrected. 
</P>
<P>v. The agencies have adopted amendments to their rules and regulations to establish deadlines for submission and review of compliance plans. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 30; for the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 263; for the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 308, subpart R, and for the Office of Thrift Supervision, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 570.</P></FTNT>
<P>vi. The following Guidelines set out the safety and soundness standards that the agencies use to identify and address problems at insured depository institutions before capital becomes impaired. The agencies believe that the standards adopted in these Guidelines serve this end without dictating how institutions must be managed and operated. These standards are designed to identify potential safety and soundness concerns and ensure that action is taken to address those concerns before they pose a risk to the deposit insurance funds. 
</P>
<HD1>A. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority</I>
</HD1>
<P>Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the agencies to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 39 and these Guidelines may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the agencies. Nothing in these Guidelines limits the authority of the FDIC pursuant to section 38(i)(2)(F) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(o)) and Part 325 of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations. 
</P>
<HD1>B. <I>Definitions</I>
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> For purposes of these Guidelines, except as modified in the Guidelines or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank and in the case of a federal branch of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the insured foreign branch. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensation</I> means all direct and indirect payments or benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, including but not limited to payments or benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, postemployment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Director</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(c). 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In applying these definitions for savings associations, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464, savings associations shall use the terms “savings association” and “insured savings association” in place of the terms “member bank” and “insured bank”.</P></FTNT>
<P>5. <I>Executive officer</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(d). 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>6. <I>Principal shareholder</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(<I>l</I>). 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Operational and Managerial Standards
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Internal controls and information systems.</I> An institution should have internal controls and information systems that are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature, scope and risk of its activities and that provide for: 
</P>
<P>1. An organizational structure that establishes clear lines of authority and responsibility for monitoring adherence to established policies; 
</P>
<P>2. Effective risk assessment; 
</P>
<P>3. Timely and accurate financial, operational and regulatory reports; 
</P>
<P>4. Adequate procedures to safeguard and manage assets; and 
</P>
<P>5. Compliance with applicable laws and regulations. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Internal audit system.</I> An institution should have an internal audit system that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities and that provides for: 
</P>
<P>1. Adequate monitoring of the system of internal controls through an internal audit function. For an institution whose size, complexity or scope of operations does not warrant a full scale internal audit function, a system of independent reviews of key internal controls may be used; 
</P>
<P>2. Independence and objectivity; 
</P>
<P>3. Qualified persons; 
</P>
<P>4. Adequate testing and review of information systems; 
</P>
<P>5. Adequate documentation of tests and findings and any corrective actions; 
</P>
<P>6. Verification and review of management actions to address material weaknesses; and 
</P>
<P>7. Review by the institution's audit committee or board of directors of the effectiveness of the internal audit systems. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Loan documentation.</I> An institution should establish and maintain loan documentation practices that: 
</P>
<P>1. Enable the institution to make an informed lending decision and to assess risk, as necessary, on an ongoing basis; 
</P>
<P>2. Identify the purpose of a loan and the source of repayment, and assess the ability of the borrower to repay the indebtedness in a timely manner; 
</P>
<P>3. Ensure that any claim against a borrower is legally enforceable; 
</P>
<P>4. Demonstrate appropriate administration and monitoring of a loan; and 
</P>
<P>5. Take account of the size and complexity of a loan. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Credit underwriting.</I> An institution should establish and maintain prudent credit underwriting practices that: 
</P>
<P>1. Are commensurate with the types of loans the institution will make and consider the terms and conditions under which they will be made; 
</P>
<P>2. Consider the nature of the markets in which loans will be made; 
</P>
<P>3. Provide for consideration, prior to credit commitment, of the borrower's overall financial condition and resources, the financial responsibility of any guarantor, the nature and value of any underlying collateral, and the borrower's character and willingness to repay as agreed; 
</P>
<P>4. Establish a system of independent, ongoing credit review and appropriate communication to management and to the board of directors; 
</P>
<P>5. Take adequate account of concentration of credit risk; and 
</P>
<P>6. Are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Interest rate exposure.</I> An institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Manage interest rate risk in a manner that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the complexity of its assets and liabilities; and 
</P>
<P>2. Provide for periodic reporting to management and the board of directors regarding interest rate risk with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of risk. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Asset growth.</I> An institution's asset growth should be prudent and consider: 
</P>
<P>1. The source, volatility and use of the funds that support asset growth; 
</P>
<P>2. Any increase in credit risk or interest rate risk as a result of growth; and 
</P>
<P>3. The effect of growth on the institution's capital. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Asset quality.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to identify problem assets and prevent deterioration in those assets. The institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Conduct periodic asset quality reviews to identify problem assets; 
</P>
<P>2. Estimate the inherent losses in those assets and establish reserves that are sufficient to absorb estimated losses; 
</P>
<P>3. Compare problem asset totals to capital; 
</P>
<P>4. Take appropriate corrective action to resolve problem assets; 
</P>
<P>5. Consider the size and potential risks of material asset concentrations; and 
</P>
<P>6. Provide periodic asset reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of asset risk. 
</P>
<P>H. <I>Earnings.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to evaluate and monitor earnings and ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves. The institution should: 
</P>
<P>1. Compare recent earnings trends relative to equity, assets, or other commonly used benchmarks to the institution's historical results and those of its peers; 
</P>
<P>2. Evaluate the adequacy of earnings given the size, complexity, and risk profile of the institution's assets and operations; 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the source, volatility, and sustainability of earnings, including the effect of nonrecurring or extraordinary income or expense; 
</P>
<P>4. Take steps to ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves after considering the institution's asset quality and growth rate; and 
</P>
<P>5. Provide periodic earnings reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess earnings performance. 
</P>
<P>I. <I>Compensation, fees and benefits.</I> An institution should maintain safeguards to prevent the payment of compensation, fees, and benefits that are excessive or that could lead to material financial loss to the institution. 
</P>
<HD1>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice 
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Excessive Compensation
</HD2>
<P>Excessive compensation is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice. Compensation shall be considered excessive when amounts paid are unreasonable or disproportionate to the services performed by an executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, considering the following: 
</P>
<P>1. The combined value of all cash and non-cash benefits provided to the individual; 
</P>
<P>2. The compensation history of the individual and other individuals with comparable expertise at the institution; 
</P>
<P>3. The financial condition of the institution; 
</P>
<P>4. Comparable compensation practices at comparable institutions, based upon such factors as asset size, geographic location, and the complexity of the loan portfolio or other assets; 
</P>
<P>5. For postemployment benefits, the projected total cost and benefit to the institution; 
</P>
<P>6. Any connection between the individual and any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the institution; and 
</P>
<P>7. Any other factors the agencies determines to be relevant. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Compensation Leading to Material Financial Loss
</HD2>
<P>Compensation that could lead to material financial loss to an institution is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35678, 35682, July 10, 1995, as amended by Reg. H, 61 FR 43951, Aug. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.6.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D-2 to Part 208—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Introduction 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Scope 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Preservation of Existing Authority 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Definitions 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>II. Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Information Security Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Objectives 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>III. Development and Implementation of Customer Information Security Program 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Involve the Board of Directors 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Assess Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Manage and Control Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Adjust the Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Report to the Board 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Implement the Standards
</FP1-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction 
</HD1>
<P>These Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805), in the same manner, to the extent practicable, as standards prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1). These Guidelines address standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information. These Guidelines also address standards with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information, pursuant to sections 621 and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w).
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> The Guidelines apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of state member banks (banks) and their nonbank subsidiaries, except for brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisors. Pursuant to §§ 211.9 and 211.24 of this chapter, these guidelines also apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of Edge corporations, agreement corporations, and uninsured state-licensed branches or agencies of a foreign bank. These Guidelines also apply to the proper disposal of consumer information by or on behalf of such entities.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority.</I> Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limit the authority of the Board to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The Board may take action under section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement action available to the Board. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Definitions.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. Except as modified in the Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the branch or agency.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Consumer information</I> means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the bank for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not identify an individual.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples.</I> (1) <I>Consumer information</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A consumer report that a bank obtains;
</P>
<P>(B) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains from its affiliate after the consumer has been given a notice and has elected not to opt out of that sharing;
</P>
<P>(C) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an individual who applies for but does not receive a loan, including any loan sought by an individual for a business purpose;
</P>
<P>(D) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an individual who guarantees a loan (including a loan to a business entity); or
</P>
<P>(E) Information from a consumer report that the bank obtains about an employee or prospective employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer information does not include:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate information, such as the mean credit score, derived from a group of consumer reports; or
</P>
<P>(B) Blind data, such as payment history on accounts that are not personally identifiable, that may be used for developing credit scoring models or for other purposes.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Customer</I> means any customer of the bank as defined in § 1016.3(i) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Customer</I> information means any record containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in § 1016.3(p) of this chapter, about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the bank. 
</P>
<P>f. <I>Customer information systems</I> means any methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information. 
</P>
<P>g. <I>Service provider</I> means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information or consumer information through its provision of services directly to the bank.
</P>
<P>h. <I>Subsidiary</I> means any company controlled by a bank, except a broker, dealer, person providing insurance, investment company, investment advisor, insured depository institution, or subsidiary of an insured depository institution. 
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Information Security 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Information Security Program.</I> Each bank shall implement a comprehensive written information security program that includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the bank and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the bank are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated. A bank also shall ensure that each of its subsidiaries is subject to a comprehensive information security program. The bank may fulfill this requirement either by including a subsidiary within the scope of the bank's comprehensive information security program or by causing the subsidiary to implement a separate comprehensive information security program in accordance with the standards and procedures in sections II and III of this appendix that apply to banks. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> A bank's information security program shall be designed to: 
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; 
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; 
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer; and 
</P>
<P>4. Ensure the proper disposal of customer information and consumer information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Development and Implementation of Information Security Program 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Involve the Board of Directors.</I> The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each bank shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Approve the bank's written information security program; and 
</P>
<P>2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the bank's information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Assess Risk.</I> Each bank shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information. 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Manage and Control Risk.</I> Each bank shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the bank's activities. Each bank must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the bank and, if so, adopt those measures the bank concludes are appropriate: 
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means.
</P>
<P>b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing customer information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals; 
</P>
<P>c. Encryption of electronic customer information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access; 
</P>
<P>d. Procedures designed to ensure that customer information system modifications are consistent with the bank's information security program; 
</P>
<P>e. Dual control procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to customer information; 
</P>
<P>f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into customer information systems; 
</P>
<P>g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the bank suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and 
</P>
<P>h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of customer information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technological failures. 
</P>
<P>2. Train staff to implement the bank's information security program. 
</P>
<P>3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the bank's risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs. 
</P>
<P>4. Develop, implement, and maintain, as part of its information security program, appropriate measures to properly dispose of customer information and consumer information in accordance with each of the requirements in this paragraph III.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oversee Service Provider Arrangements.</I> Each bank shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers; 
</P>
<P>2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these Guidelines; and 
</P>
<P>3. Where indicated by the bank's risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by paragraph D.2. As part of this monitoring, a bank should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Adjust the Program.</I> Each bank shall monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its customer information, internal or external threats to information, and the bank's own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Report to the Board.</I> Each bank shall report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the bank's compliance with these Guidelines. The reports should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations and management's responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Implement the Standards.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> Each bank must implement an information security program pursuant to these Guidelines by July 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Two-year grandfathering of agreements with service providers.</I> Until July 1, 2003, a contract that a bank has entered into with a service provider to perform services for it or functions on its behalf satisfies the provisions of section III.D., even if the contract does not include a requirement that the servicer maintain the security and confidentiality of customer information, as long as the bank entered into the contract on or before March 5, 2001. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effective date for measures relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Each bank must satisfy these Guidelines with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2005.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Exception for existing agreements with service providers relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Notwithstanding the requirement in paragraph III.G.3., a bank's contracts with its service providers that have access to consumer information and that may dispose of consumer information, entered into before July 1, 2005, must comply with the provisions of the Guidelines relating to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2006.
</P>
<HD1>Supplement A to Appendix D-2 to Part 208—Interagency Guidance on Response Programs for Unauthorized Access to Customer Information and Customer Notice
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Background
</HD1>
<P>This Guidance 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> interprets section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (“GLBA”) and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (the “Security Guidelines”) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and describes response programs, including customer notification procedures, that a financial institution should develop and implement to address unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to a customer. The scope of, and definitions of terms used in, this Guidance are identical to those of the Security Guidelines. For example, the term “customer information” is the same term used in the Security Guidelines, and means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, maintained by or on behalf of the institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This Guidance is being jointly issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 CFR part 30, app. B (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, app. D-2 and part 225, app. F (Board); 12 CFR part 364, app. B (FDIC); and 12 CFR part 570, app. B (OTS). The “Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards” were formerly known as “The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information.”</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Interagency Security Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the Agencies to establish appropriate standards for financial institutions subject to their jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards, to protect the security and confidentiality of customer information. Accordingly, the Agencies issued Security Guidelines requiring every financial institution to have an information security program designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Assessment and Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
</P>
<P>a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems;
</P>
<P>b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.B.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. Following the assessment of these risks, the Security Guidelines require a financial institution to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures an institution should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the financial institution is required to consider the specific security measures enumerated in the Security Guidelines, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and adopt those that are appropriate for the institution, including:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
</P>
<P>b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the financial institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>C. Service Providers
</HD2>
<P>The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, II.B. and III.D. Further, the Agencies note that, in addition to contractual obligations to a financial institution, a service provider may be required to implement its own comprehensive information security program in accordance with the Safeguards Rule promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”), 16 CFR part 314.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Response Program
</HD1>
<P>Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Identity thieves misuse personal information they obtain from a number of sources, including financial institutions, to perpetrate identity theft. Therefore, financial institutions should take preventative measures to safeguard customer information against attempts to gain unauthorized access to the information. For example, financial institutions should place access controls on customer information systems and conduct background checks for employees who are authorized to access customer information. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> However, every financial institution should also develop and implement a risk-based response program to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> that occur nonetheless. A response program should be a key part of an institution's information security program. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> The program should be appropriate to the size and complexity of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The FTC estimates that nearly 10 million Americans discovered they were victims of some form of identity theft in 2002. <I>See</I> The Federal Trade Commission, <I>Identity Theft Survey Report,</I> (September 2003), available at <I>http://www.ftc.gov/os/2003/09/synovatereport.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Institutions should also conduct background checks of employees to ensure that the institution does not violate 12 U.S.C. 1829, which prohibits an institution from hiring an individual convicted of certain criminal offenses or who is subject to a prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Under the Guidelines, an institution's <I>customer information systems</I> consist of all of the methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information, including the systems maintained by its service providers. <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, I.C.2.d (I.C.2.c for OTS).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002 available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/ffiecinfobase/html_pages/infosec_book_frame.htm.</I> Federal Reserve SR 97-32, Sound Practice Guidance for Information Security for Networks, Dec. 4, 1997; OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000), for additional guidance on preventing, detecting, and responding to intrusions into financial institution computer systems.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, each institution should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in the Guidelines that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the Agencies, 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> an institution's contract with its service provider should require the service provider to take appropriate actions to address incidents of unauthorized access to the financial institution's customer information, including notification to the institution as soon as possible of any such incident, to enable the institution to expeditiously implement its response program.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> Federal Reserve SR Ltr. 00-04, Outsourcing of Information and Transaction Processing, Feb. 9, 2000; OCC Bulletin 2001-47, “Third-Party Relationships Risk Management Principles,” Nov. 1, 2001; FDIC FIL 68-99, Risk Assessment Tools and Practices for Information System Security, July 7, 1999; OTS Thrift Bulletin 82a, Third Party Arrangements, Sept. 1, 2004.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Components of a Response Program
</HD2>
<P>1. At a minimum, an institution's response program should contain procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what customer information systems and types of customer information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>b. Notifying its primary Federal regulator as soon as possible when the institution becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of <I>sensitive</I> customer information, as defined below;
</P>
<P>c. Consistent with the Agencies' Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations, 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> notifying appropriate law enforcement authorities, in addition to filing a timely SAR in situations involving Federal criminal violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> An institution's obligation to file a SAR is set out in the Agencies' SAR regulations and Agency guidance. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 21.11 (national banks, Federal branches and agencies); 12 CFR 208.62 (State member banks); 12 CFR 211.5(k) (Edge and agreement corporations); 12 CFR 211.24(f) (uninsured State branches and agencies of foreign banks); 12 CFR 225.4(f) (bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries); 12 CFR part 353 (State non-member banks); and 12 CFR 563.180 (savings associations). National banks must file SARs in connection with computer intrusions and other computer crimes. <I>See</I> OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000); Advisory Letter 97-9, “Reporting Computer Related Crimes” (November 19, 1997) (general guidance still applicable though instructions for new SAR form published in 65 FR 1229, 1230 (January 7, 2000)). <I>See also</I> Federal Reserve SR 01-11, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, Apr. 26, 2001; SR 97-28, Guidance Concerning Reporting of Computer Related Crimes by Financial Institutions, Nov. 6, 1997; FDIC FIL 48-2000, Suspicious Activity Reports, July 14, 2000; FIL 47-97, Preparation of Suspicious Activity Reports, May 6, 1997; OTS CEO Memorandum 139, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, May 4, 2001; CEO Memorandum 126, New Suspicious Activity Report Form, July 5, 2000; <I>http://www.ots.treas.gov/BSA</I> (for the latest SAR form and filing instructions required by OTS as of July 1, 2003).</P></FTNT>
<P>d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of customer information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence;
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002, pp. 68-74.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. Notifying customers when warranted.
</P>
<P>2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to customer information involves customer information systems maintained by an institution's service providers, it is the responsibility of the financial institution to notify the institution's customers and regulator. However, an institution may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the institution's customers or regulator on its behalf.
</P>
<HD1>III. Customer Notice
</HD1>
<P>Financial institutions have an affirmative duty to protect their customers' information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying customers of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the customer's information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty. Timely notification of customers is important to manage an institution's reputation risk. Effective notice also may reduce an institution's legal risk, assist in maintaining good customer relations, and enable the institution's customers to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When customer notification is warranted, an institution may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the institution believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
</P>
<HD2>A. Standard for Providing Notice
</HD2>
<P>When a financial institution becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive customer information, the institution should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the institution determines that misuse of its information about a customer has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected customer as soon as possible. Customer notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the institution with a written request for the delay. However, the institution should notify its customers as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>1. Sensitive Customer Information
</HD3>
<P>Under the Guidelines, an institution must protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to <I>sensitive customer information</I> because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft. For purposes of this Guidance, <I>sensitive customer information</I> means a customer's name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the customer's social security number, driver's license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the customer's account. <I>Sensitive customer information</I> also includes any combination of components of customer information that would allow someone to log onto or access the customer's account, such as user name and password or password and account number.
</P>
<HD3>2. Affected Customers
</HD3>
<P>If a financial institution, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which customers' information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those customers with regard to whom the institution determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the institution determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific customers' information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the institution to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all customers in the group.
</P>
<HD2>B. Content of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. Customer notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of customer information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the institution has done to protect the customers' information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that customers can call for further information and assistance. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice also should remind customers of the need to remain vigilant over the next twelve to twenty-four months, and to promptly report incidents of suspected identity theft to the institution. The notice should include the following additional items, when appropriate:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The institution should, therefore, ensure that it has reasonable policies and procedures in place, including trained personnel, to respond appropriately to customer inquiries and requests for assistance.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. A recommendation that the customer review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the institution;
</P>
<P>b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the customer may place a fraud alert in the customer's consumer reports to put the customer's creditors on notice that the customer may be a victim of fraud;
</P>
<P>c. A recommendation that the customer periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
</P>
<P>d. An explanation of how the customer may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
</P>
<P>e. Information about the availability of the FTC's online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the customer to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC's Web site address and toll-free telephone number that customers may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Currently, the FTC Web site for the ID Theft brochure and the FTC Hotline phone number are <I>http://www.consumer.gov/idtheft</I> and 1-877-IDTHEFT. The institution may also refer customers to any materials developed pursuant to section 151(b) of the FACT Act (educational materials developed by the FTC to teach the public how to prevent identity theft).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. The Agencies encourage financial institutions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of customers that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
</P>
<HD2>C. Delivery of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>Customer notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a customer can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the institution may choose to contact all customers affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those customers for whom it has a valid e-mail address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. H, 66 FR 8634, Feb. 1, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 77617, Dec. 28, 2004; 70 FR 15753, Mar. 29, 2005; 71 FR 5780, Feb. 3, 2006; 79 FR 37166, July 1, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.9.11.3.6.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes E-F to Part 208 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="209" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 209—FEDERAL RESERVE BANK CAPITAL STOCK (REGULATION I)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 12 U.S.C. 222, 248, 282, 286-288, 289, 321, 323, 327-328, and 466.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 37663, July 13, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 209.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 222, 248, 282, 286-288, 289, 321, 323, 327-328, and 466.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act relating to the issuance and cancellation of Federal Reserve Bank stock upon becoming or ceasing to be a member bank, or upon changes in the capital and surplus of a member bank, of the Federal Reserve System. This part also implements the provisions of the Federal Reserve Act relating to the payment of dividends to member banks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to member banks of the Federal Reserve System, to national banks in process of organization, and to state banks applying for membership. National banks and locally-incorporated banks located in United States dependencies and possessions are eligible (with the consent of the Board) but not required to apply for membership under section 19(h) of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 466.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A bank located in the Virgin Islands or Puerto Rico should communicate with the Federal Reserve Bank of New York regarding applications for membership under the provisions of section 19(h) of the Federal Reserve Act. A bank located in Guam, American Samoa, or the Northern Mariana Islands should communicate with the Federal Reserve Bank of San Francisco regarding applications for membership under the provisions of section 19(h) of the Federal Reserve Act.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital Stock and Surplus.</I> Capital stock and surplus of a member bank means the paid-in capital stock 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and paid-in surplus of the bank, less any deficit in the aggregate of its retained earnings, gains (losses) on available for sale securities, and foreign currency translation accounts, all as shown on the bank's most recent report of condition. Paid-in capital stock and paid-in surplus of a bank in organization means the amount which is to be paid in at the time the bank commences business.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Capital stock includes common stock and preferred stock (including sinking fund preferred stock).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Dividend proration basis</I> means the use of a 360-day year of 12 30-day months for purposes of computing dividend payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total consolidated assets</I> means the total assets on the stockholder's balance sheet as reported by the stockholder on its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) as of the most recent December 31, except in the case of:
</P>
<P>(i) A new member “total consolidated assets” means (until the next December 31 Call Report becomes available) the total consolidated assets of the new member at the time of its application for capital stock; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A surviving stockholder after a merger “total consolidated assets” means (until the next December 31 Call Report becomes available) the total consolidated assets reported by that stockholder pursuant to § 209.3(d)(5).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37663, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. I, 81 FR 9087, Feb. 24, 2016; 87 FR 2030, Jan. 13, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.2   Banks desiring to become member banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for stock or deposit.</I> Each national bank in process of organization,
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> each nonmember state bank converting into a national bank, and each nonmember state bank applying for membership in the Federal Reserve System under Regulation H, 12 CFR part 208, shall file with the Federal Reserve Bank (Reserve Bank) in whose district it is located an application for stock (or deposit in the case of mutual savings banks not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>) in the Reserve Bank. This application for stock must state whether the applicant's total consolidated assets exceed$13,182,000,000. The bank shall pay for the stock (or deposit) in accordance with § 209.4 of this part.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> A new national bank organized by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under section 11(n) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(n)) should not apply until in the process of issuing stock pursuant to section 11(n)(15) of that act. Reserve Bank approval of such an application shall not be effective until the issuance of a certificate by the Comptroller of the Currency pursuant to section 11(n)(16) of that act.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Federal Reserve Bank stock may apply for membership evidenced initially by a deposit. (See § 208.3(a) of Regulation H, 12 CFR part 208.) The membership of the savings bank shall be terminated if the laws under which it is organized are not amended to authorize such purchase at the first session of the legislature after its admission, or if it fails to purchase such stock within six months after such an amendment.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of stock; acceptance of deposit.</I> Upon authorization to commence business by the Comptroller of the Currency in the case of a national bank in organization or upon approval of conversion by the Comptroller of the Currency in the case of a state nonmember bank converting to a national bank, or when all applicable requirements have been complied with in the case of a state bank approved for membership, the Reserve Bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books. In the case of a national or state member bank in organization, such issuance shall be as of the date the bank opens for business. In the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank shares, the Reserve Bank shall accept the deposit in place of issuing shares. The bank's membership shall become effective on the date of such issuance or acceptance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of bank</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of this part, a national bank or a State bank is located in the Federal Reserve District that contains the location specified in the bank's charter or organizing certificate, or as specified by the institution's primary regulator, or if no such location is specified, the location of its head office, unless otherwise determined by the Board under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board determination.</I> If the location of a bank as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in the judgment of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), is ambiguous, would impede the ability of the Board or the Reserve Banks to perform their functions under the Federal Reserve Act, or would impede the ability of the bank to operate efficiently, the Board will determine the Federal Reserve District in which the bank is located, after consultation with the bank and the relevant Reserve Banks. The relevant Reserve Banks are the Reserve Bank whose District contains the location specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the Reserve Bank in whose District the bank is proposed to be located. In making this determination, the Board will consider any applicable laws, the business needs of the bank, the location of the bank's head office, the locations where the bank performs its business, and the locations that would allow the bank, the Board, and the Reserve Banks to perform their functions efficiently and effectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37663, July 13, 1998, as amended at 74 FR 25639, May 29, 2009; Reg. I, 81 FR 9087, Feb. 24, 2016; 82 FR 11502, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 52174, Nov. 13, 2017; 83 FR 58467, Nov. 20, 2018; 84 FR 68326, Dec. 16, 2019; 85 FR 79390, Dec. 10, 2020; 86 FR 69579, Dec. 8, 2021; 87 FR 73635, Dec. 1, 2022; 88 FR 83318, Nov. 29, 2023; 89 FR 88878, Nov. 12, 2024; 90 FR 52232, Nov. 20, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.3   Cancellation of Reserve Bank stock; mergers involving member banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for cancellation.</I> Any bank that desires to withdraw from membership in the Federal Reserve System (including a national bank that wants to convert into a nonmember bank), voluntarily liquidates or ceases business, is merged or consolidated into a nonmember bank, or is involuntarily liquidated by a receiver or conservator or otherwise, shall promptly file with its Reserve Bank an application for cancellation of all its Reserve Bank stock (or withdrawal of its deposit, as the case may be) and payment therefor in accordance with § 209.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Involuntary termination of membership.</I> If an application is not filed promptly after a cessation of business by a state member bank, a vote to place a member bank in voluntary liquidation, or the appointment of a receiver for (or a determination to liquidate the bank by a conservator of) a member bank, the Board may, after notice and an opportunity for hearing where required under Section 9(9) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 327), order the membership of the bank terminated and all of its Reserve Bank stock canceled.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date of cancellation.</I> Cancellation in whole of a bank's Reserve Bank capital stock shall be effective, in the case of:
</P>
<P>(1) Voluntary withdrawal from membership by a state bank, as of the date of such withdrawal;
</P>
<P>(2) Merger into, consolidation with, or (for a national bank) conversion into, a nonmember bank, as of the effective date of the merger, consolidation, or conversion; and
</P>
<P>(3) Involuntary termination of membership, as of the date the Board issues the order of termination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exchange of stock on merger or change in location; stock adjustment upon merger with a nonmember bank; reporting of total consolidated assets following merger</I>—(1) <I>Applications.</I> (i) Before a merger or consolidation of member banks, the nonsurviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank to cancel its shares of Reserve Bank stock (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall file an application to transfer its deposit to the account of the surviving bank) and the surviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank for issue of a corresponding number of shares of Reserve Bank stock (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall file an application to increase its deposit obligation).
</P>
<P>(ii) Before a merger or consolidation of a member bank and a nonmember bank, a surviving member bank shall file an application with the appropriate Reserve Bank to adjust its Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank's anticipated post-merger capital and surplus, or, in the case of member bank that is a mutual savings bank, six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank's anticipated post-merger total deposit liabilities. A mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock shall file an application to adjust its deposit obligation in a like manner.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Merger of member banks in the same Federal Reserve District.</I> Upon a merger or consolidation of member banks located in the same Federal Reserve District, the Reserve Bank shall cancel the shares of the nonsurviving bank (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall credit the deposit to the account of the surviving bank) and shall credit the appropriate number of shares on its books to (or in the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, shall accept an appropriate increase in the deposit of) the surviving bank, subject to paragraph (d)(3) of § 209.4.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Change of location or merger of member banks in different Federal Reserve Districts.</I> Upon a determination under paragraph (c)(2) of § 209.2 that a member bank is located in a Federal Reserve District other than the District of the Reserve Bank of which it is a member, or upon a merger or consolidation of member banks located in different Federal Reserve Districts,—
</P>
<P>(i) The Reserve Bank of the member bank's former District, or of the nonsurviving member bank, shall cancel the bank's shares and transfer the amount paid in for those shares, plus accrued dividends (as specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of § 209.4) and subject to paragraph (d)(3) of § 209.4 (or, in the case of a mutual savings bank member not authorized to purchase Federal Reserve Bank stock, the amount of its deposit, adjusted in a like manner), to the Reserve Bank of the bank's new District or of the surviving bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Reserve Bank of the member bank's new District or of the surviving bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books (or, in the case of a mutual savings bank, by accepting the deposit or an appropriate increase in the deposit).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Merger with a nonmember bank.</I> Upon a merger or consolidation of a member bank and a nonmember bank, the Reserve Bank will adjust the surviving member bank's stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank's capital and surplus, or, in the case of a member bank that is a mutual savings bank, six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank's total deposit liabilities. If a mutual savings bank has a deposit with the appropriate Reserve Bank in lieu of Reserve Bank capital stock, its deposit obligation shall be adjusted in a like manner.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Statement of total consolidated assets.</I> When a member bank merges or consolidates with another bank and the surviving bank remains a Reserve Bank stockholder, the surviving stockholder must report whether its total consolidated assets exceed $13,182,000,000 in the application described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voluntary withdrawal.</I> Any bank withdrawing voluntarily from membership shall give 6 months written notice, and shall not cause the withdrawal of more than 25 percent of any Reserve Bank's capital stock in any calendar year, unless the Board waives these requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37663, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. I, 81 FR 9087, Feb. 24, 2016; 82 FR 11502, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 52174, Nov. 13, 2017; 83 FR 58467, Nov. 20, 2018; 84 FR 68326, Dec. 16, 2019; 85 FR 79390, Dec. 10, 2020; 86 FR 69579, Dec. 8, 2021; 87 FR 2030, Jan. 13, 2022; 87 FR 73635, Dec. 1, 2022; 88 FR 83318, Nov. 29, 2023; 89 FR 88878, Nov. 12, 2024; 90 FR 52232, Nov. 20, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.4   Amounts and payments for subscriptions and cancellations; timing and rate of dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of subscription.</I> The total subscription of a member bank (other than a mutual savings bank) shall equal six percent of its capital and surplus as shown on its most recent Call Report. After a member bank files a Call Report, the appropriate Reserve Bank will adjust the member bank's Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six percent of the member bank's capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mutual savings banks.</I> The total subscription of a member bank that is a mutual savings bank shall equal six-tenths of 1 percent of its total deposit liabilities as shown on its most recent Call Report. After a member bank that is a mutual savings bank files a Call Report, the appropriate Reserve Bank will adjust the member bank's Reserve Bank capital stock subscription to equal six-tenths of 1 percent of the member bank's total deposit liabilities. If a mutual savings bank has a deposit with the appropriate Reserve Bank in lieu of Reserve Bank capital stock, its deposit obligation shall be adjusted in a like manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment for subscriptions.</I> (1) When a Reserve Bank issues capital stock to a member bank (or accepts a deposit in lieu thereof), the member bank shall pay the Reserve Bank—
</P>
<P>(i) One-half of the subscription amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Accrued dividends equal to the paid-in subscription amount in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section multiplied by—
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $13,182,000,000, an annual rate equal to the lesser of the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the date of the last dividend payment and 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $13,182,000,000 or less, 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
</P>
<P>(2) A Reserve Bank shall obtain settlement for the payment described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section by debit to an account on the Reserve Bank's books or other form of settlement to which the Reserve Bank agrees.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon payment (and in the case of a national banks in organization or state nonmember bank converting into a national bank, upon authorization or approval by the Comptroller of the Currency), the Reserve Bank shall issue the appropriate number of shares by crediting the bank with the appropriate number of shares on its books. In the case of a mutual savings bank not authorized to purchase Reserve Bank stock, the Reserve Bank will accept the deposit or addition to the deposit in place of issuing shares. The remaining half of the subscription or additional subscription (including subscriptions for deposits or additions to deposits) shall be subject to call by the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) If the dividend rate applied at the next scheduled dividend payment date is based on a different annual rate than the rate used to compute the amount of the accrued dividend payment pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the amount of the dividends paid at the next scheduled dividend payment date should be adjusted accordingly. The amount of the adjustment should equal the difference between—
</P>
<P>(i) The accrued dividend payment pursuant paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The result of multiplying the subscription amount paid pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section by the dividend rate applied at the next scheduled dividend payment, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the subscription date according to the dividend proration basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment for cancellations.</I> (1) When a Reserve Bank cancels Reserve Bank capital stock of a member bank, or (in the case of involuntary termination of membership) upon the effective date of cancellation specified in § 209.3(c)(3), the Reserve Bank shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Reduce the bank's shareholding on the Reserve Bank's books by the number of shares required to be canceled and shall pay the paid-in subscription of the canceled stock; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay accrued dividends equal to the paid-in subscription of the canceled stock in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section multiplied by—
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $13,182,000,000, an annual rate equal to the lesser of the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the date of cancellation and 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the cancellation date according to the dividend proration basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $13,182,000,000 or less, 6 percent, adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the cancellation date according to the dividend proration basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the payments under paragraph (d)(1) of this section cannot exceed the book value of the stock.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Under sections 6 and 9(10) of the Act, a Reserve Bank is under no obligation to pay unearned accrued dividends on redemption of its capital stock from an insolvent member bank for which a receiver has been appointed or from state member banks on voluntary withdrawal from or involuntary termination of membership.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) In the case of any cancellation of Reserve Bank stock under this Part, the Reserve Bank may first apply such sum to any liability of the bank to the Reserve Bank and pay over the remainder to the bank (or receiver or conservator, as appropriate).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dividend.</I> (1) After all necessary expenses of a Reserve Bank have been paid or provided for, the stockholders of a Reserve Bank shall be entitled to receive a dividend on paid-in capital stock of—
</P>
<P>(i) in the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of more than $13,182,000,000, the lesser of the annual rate equal to the high yield of the 10-year Treasury note auctioned at the last auction held prior to the payment of such dividend and an annual rate of 6 percent, or
</P>
<P>(ii) in the case of a bank with total consolidated assets of $13,182,000,000 or less, an annual rate of 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The dividend pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be adjusted to reflect the period from the last dividend payment date to the current dividend payment date according to the dividend proration basis.
</P>
<P>(3) The entitlement to dividends under paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be cumulative.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Annual adjustment to total consolidated</I> assets. The dollar amounts for total consolidated assets specified in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section and §§ 209.2 and 209.3 shall be adjusted annually to reflect the change in the Gross Domestic Product Price Index, published by the Bureau of Economic Analysis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 37663, July 13, 1998, as amended by Reg. I, 81 FR 9088, Feb. 24, 2016; 82 FR 11502, Feb. 24, 2017; 82 FR 52174, Nov. 13, 2017; 83 FR 58467, Nov. 20, 2018; 84 FR 68326, Dec. 16, 2019; 85 FR 79390, Dec. 10, 2020; 86 FR 69579, Dec. 8, 2021; 87 FR 2030, Jan. 13, 2022; 87 FR 73635, Dec. 1, 2022; 88 FR 83318, Nov. 29, 2023; 89 FR 88878, Nov. 12, 2024; 90 FR 52232, Nov. 20, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 209.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.10.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 209.5   The share register.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Electronic or written record.</I> A member bank's holding of Reserve Bank capital stock shall be represented by one (or at the option of the Reserve Bank, more than one) notation on the Reserve Bank's books. Such books may be electronic or in writing. Upon any issue or cancellation of Reserve Bank capital stock, the Reserve Bank shall record the member bank's new share position in its books (or eliminate the bank's share position from its books, as the case may be).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification.</I> A Reserve Bank may certify on request as to the number of shares held by a member bank and purchased before March 28, 1942, or as to the purchase and cancellation dates and prices of shares cancelled, as the case may be.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="210" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 210—COLLECTION OF CHECKS AND OTHER ITEMS BY FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS AND FUNDS TRANSFERS THROUGH THE FEDWIRE FUNDS SERVICE AND THE FEDNOW SERVICE (REGULATION J)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(i), (j), and 248-1, 342, 360, 464, 4001-4010, and 5001-5018.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Collection of Checks and Other Items By Federal Reserve Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this subpart pursuant to the Federal Reserve Act, sections 11 (i) and (j) (12 U.S.C. 248 (i) and (j)), section 13 (12 U.S.C. 342), section 16 (12 U.S.C. 248(o) and 360), and section 19(f) (12 U.S.C. 464); the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001 <I>et seq.</I>); the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (12 U.S.C. 5001-5018) and other laws. This subpart governs the collection of checks and other cash and noncash items and the handling of returned checks by Federal Reserve Banks. Its purpose is to provide rules for collecting and returning items and settling balances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 21984, June 13, 1988, as amended at Reg. J, 59 FR 22965, May 4, 1994; Reg. J, 69 FR 62557, Oct. 27, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P><I>Account</I> means an account on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank. A subaccount is an informational record of a subset of transactions that affect an account and is not a separate account.
</P>
<P><I>Actually and finally collected funds</I> means cash or any other form of payment that is, or has become, final and irrevocable.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Reserve Bank</I> with respect to an entity means the Reserve Bank in whose District the entity is located, as determined under the procedure described in § 204.3(g) of this chapter (Regulation D), even if the entity is not otherwise subject to that section.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means any person engaged in the business of banking. A branch or separate office of a bank is a separate bank to the extent provided in the Uniform Commercial Code.
</P>
<P><I>Bank draft</I> means a check drawn by one bank on another bank.
</P>
<P><I>Banking day</I> means the part of a day on which a bank is open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its banking functions.
</P>
<P><I>Cash item</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A check other than one classified as a noncash item under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other item payable on demand and collectible at par that the Reserve Bank that receives the item is willing to accept as a cash item. <I>Cash item</I> does not include a returned check.
</P>
<P><I>Check</I> means a check or an electronic check, as those terms are defined in § 229.2 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P><I>Clock hour</I> and <I>clock half-hour.</I> (1) Clock hour means a time that is on the hour, such as 1:00, 2:00, etc.
</P>
<P>(2) Clock half-hour means a time that is on the half-hour, such as 1:30, 2:30, etc.
</P>
<P><I>Fedwire Funds Service</I> and <I>Fedwire</I> have the same meaning as that set forth in § 210.26.
</P>
<P><I>Item.</I> (1) Means—
</P>
<P>(i) An instrument or a promise or order to pay money, whether negotiable or not, that is—
</P>
<P>(A) Payable in a Federal Reserve District 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (District);
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of this subpart, the Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico are deemed to be in the Second District, and Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands in the Twelfth District.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Sent by a sender to a Reserve Bank for handling under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(C) Collectible in funds acceptable to the Reserve Bank of the District in which the instrument is payable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A check.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise indicated, <I>item</I> includes both a cash and a noncash item, and includes a returned check sent by a paying or returning bank. <I>Item</I> does not include a check that cannot be collected at par, or a payment order as defined in § 210.26(i) and handled under subpart B of this part. The term also does not include an electronically-created item as defined in § 229.2 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank payor</I> means a payor of an item, other than a bank.
</P>
<P><I>Noncash item</I> means an item that a receiving Reserve Bank classifies in its operating circulars as requiring special handling. The term also means an item normally received as a cash item if a Reserve Bank decides that special conditions require that it handle the item as a noncash item.
</P>
<P><I>Paying bank</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank by which an item is payable unless the item is payable or collectible at or through another bank and is sent to the other bank for payment or collection;
</P>
<P>(2) The bank at or through which an item is payable or collectible and to which it sent for payment or collection; or
</P>
<P>(3) The bank whose routing number appears on a check in the MICR line or in fractional form (or in the MICR-line information that accompanies an electronic item) and to which the check is sent for payment or collection.
</P>
<P><I>Returned check</I> means a cash item returned by a paying bank, including an electronic returned check as defined in § 229.2 of this chapter (Regulation CC) and a notice of nonpayment in lieu of a returned check, whether or not a Reserve Bank handled the check for collection.
</P>
<P><I>Sender</I> means any of the following entities that sends an item to a Reserve Bank for forward collection—
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution, as defined in section 19(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b));
</P>
<P>(2) A member bank, as defined in section 1 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 221);
</P>
<P>(3) A clearing institution, defined as—
</P>
<P>(i) An institution that is not a depository institution but that maintains with a Reserve Bank the balance referred to in the first paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 342); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An Edge corporation or agreement corporation that maintains an account with a Reserve Bank in conformity with part 211 of this chapter (Regulation K);
</P>
<P>(4) Another Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(5) An international organization for which a Reserve Bank is empowered to act as depositary or fiscal agent and maintains an account;
</P>
<P>(6) A foreign correspondent, defined as any of the following entities for which a Reserve Bank maintains an account: A foreign bank or banker, a foreign state as defined in section 25(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 632), or a foreign correspondent or agency referred to in section 14(e) of that act (12 U.S.C. 358); or
</P>
<P>(7) A branch or agency of a foreign bank maintaining reserves under section 7 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 347d, 3105).
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or a territory, possession, or dependency of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Commercial Code</I> and <I>U.C.C.</I> mean the Uniform Commercial Code as adopted in a state
</P>
<P><I>Terms not defined in this section.</I> Unless the context otherwise requires—
</P>
<P>(1) The terms not defined herein have the meanings set forth in § 229.2 of this chapter applicable to subpart C or D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(2) The terms not defined herein or in § 229.2 of this chapter have the meanings set forth in the Uniform Commercial Code.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 87 FR 34357, June 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.3   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Reserve Bank shall receive and handle items in accordance with this subpart, and shall issue operating circulars governing the details of its handling of items and other matters deemed appropriate by the Reserve Bank. The circulars may, among other things, classify cash items and noncash items, require separate sorts and letters, provide different closing times for the receipt of different classes or types of items, provide for instructions by an Administrative Reserve Bank to other Reserve Banks, set forth terms of services, and establish procedures for adjustments on a Reserve Bank's books, including amounts, waiver of expenses, and payment of compensation. As deemed appropriate by the Reserve Bank, the circulars may also require the sender to provide warranties and indemnities that only items and any noncash items the Reserve Banks have agreed to handle will be sent to the Reserve Banks. The Reserve Banks may provide to a subsequent collecting bank and to the paying bank any warranties and indemnities provided by the sender pursuant to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Binding effect.</I> This subpart, together with subparts C and D of part 229 and the operating circulars of the Reserve Banks, are binding on all parties interested in an item handled by any Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government items.</I> As depositaries and fiscal agents of the United States, Reserve Banks handle certain items payable by the United States or certain Federal agencies as cash or noncash items. To the extent provided by regulations issued by, and arrangements made with, the United States Treasury Department and other Government departments and agencies, the handling of such items is governed by this subpart. The Reserve Banks shall include in their operating circulars such information regarding these regulations and arrangements as the Reserve Banks deem appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government senders.</I> Except as otherwise provided by statutes of the United States, or regulations issued or arrangements made thereunder, this subpart and the operating circulars of the Reserve Banks apply to the following when acting as a sender: a department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of the United States, or a wholly owned or controlled Government corporation, that maintains or uses an account with a Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign items.</I> A Reserve Bank also may receive and handle certain items payable outside a Federal Reserve District, as provided in its operating circulars. The handling of such items in a state is governed by this subpart, and the handling of such items outside a state is governed by the local law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Relation to other law.</I> The provisions of this subpart supersede any inconsistent provisions of the Uniform Commercial Code, of any other state law, or of part 229 of this title, but only to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 21744, June 16, 1986; 53 FR 21984, June 13, 1988; Reg. J, 59 FR 22965, May 4, 1994; 62 FR 48171, Sept. 15, 1997; Reg. J, 69 FR 62558, Oct. 27, 2004; 77 FR 21858, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61518, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.4   Sending items to Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sending of items.</I> A sender's Administrative Reserve Bank may direct a sender other than a Reserve Bank to send any item to a specified Reserve Bank, whether or not the item is payable in the Reserve Bank's district.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Handling of items.</I> (1) The following parties, in the following order, are deemed to have handled an item that is sent to a Reserve Bank for collection:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial sender;
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial sender's Administrative Reserve Bank (which is deemed to have accepted deposit of the item from the initial sender);
</P>
<P>(iii) The Reserve Bank that receives the item from the initial sender (if different from the initial sender's Administrative Reserve Bank); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Another Reserve Bank, if any, that receives the item from a Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) A Reserve Bank that is not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not a person that handles an item and is not a collecting bank with respect to an item.
</P>
<P>(3) The identity and order of the parties under paragraph (b)(1) of this section determine the relationships and the rights and liabilities of the parties under this subpart, part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), section 13(1) and section 16(13) of the Federal Reserve Act, and the Uniform Commercial Code. An initial sender's Administrative Reserve Bank that is deemed to accept an item for deposit or handle an item is also deemed to be a sender with respect to that item. The Reserve Banks that are deemed to handle an item are deemed to be agents or subagents of the owner of the item, as provided in § 210.6(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Checks received at par.</I> The Reserve Banks shall receive cash items and other checks at par.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 77 FR 21858, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61518, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.5   Sender's agreement; recovery by Reserve Bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sender's agreement.</I> The warranties, indemnities, authorizations, and agreements made pursuant to this paragraph (a) may not be disclaimed and are made whether or not the item bears an indorsement of the sender. By sending an item to a Reserve Bank, the sender does all of the following.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Authorization to handle item.</I> The sender authorizes the sender's Administrative Reserve Bank and any other Reserve Bank or collecting bank to which the item is sent to handle the item (and authorizes any Reserve Bank that handles settlement for the item to make accounting entries), subject to this subpart and to the Reserve Banks' operating circulars, and warrants its authority to give this authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warranties for all items.</I> The sender warrants to each Reserve Bank handling the item that—
</P>
<P>(i) The sender is a person entitled to enforce the item or authorized to obtain payment of the item on behalf of a person entitled to enforce the item;
</P>
<P>(ii) The item has not been altered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The item bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the item for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC and U.C.C.</I> As applicable and unless otherwise provided, the sender of an item makes to each Reserve Bank that handles the item all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC) and Article 4 of the U.C.C. The sender makes all the warranties set forth in and subject to the terms of 4-207 of the U.C.C. for an electronic check as if it were an item subject to the U.C.C.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Reserve Bank operating circulars.</I> The sender makes any warranties and indemnities regarding the sending of items as set forth in an operating circular issued in accordance with § 210.3(a).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sender's liability to Reserve Bank.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the sender agrees to indemnify each Reserve Bank for any loss or expense sustained (including attorneys' fees and expenses of litigation) resulting from—
</P>
<P>(A) The sender's lack of authority to make the warranty in paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Any action taken by the Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the item; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under § 210.6(b), part 229 of this chapter, the U.C.C., or, regarding the sending of items, an operating circular issued in accordance with § 210.3(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) A sender's liability for warranties and indemnities that the Reserve Bank makes for a substitute check, a paper or electronic representation thereof, or for an electronic check is subject to the following conditions and limitations—
</P>
<P>(A) A sender of an original check shall not be liable under paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section for any amount that the Reserve Bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter, or under § 229.34 of this chapter with respect to an electronic check, absent the sender's agreement to the contrary; and
</P>
<P>(B) Nothing in this subpart alters the liability of a sender of a substitute check or paper or electronic representation of a substitute check under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter, or a sender of an electronic check under § 229.34 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) A sender shall not be liable for any amount that the Reserve Bank pays under this subpart or part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sender's liability under other law.</I> Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section limits any warranty or indemnity by a sender (or a person that handled an item prior to the sender) arising under state law or regulation (such as the U.C.C.), other federal law or regulation (such as part 229 of this chapter), or an agreement with a Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recovery by Reserve Bank.</I> (1) A Reserve Bank that has handled an item may recover as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section if an action or proceeding is brought against (or if defense is tendered to) the Reserve Bank based on—
</P>
<P>(i) The alleged failure of the sender to have the authority to make the warranty and agreement in paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action by the Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the item; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under § 210.6(b), part 229 of this chapter, or the U.C.C.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon entry of a final judgment or decree in an action or proceeding described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a Reserve Bank may recover from the sender the amount of attorneys' fees and other expenses of litigation incurred, as well as any amount the Reserve Bank is required to pay because of the judgment or decree or the tender of defense, together with interest thereon.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Methods of recovery.</I> (1) The Reserve Bank may recover the amount stated in paragraph (c) of this section by charging any account on its books that is maintained or used by the sender (or by charging a Reserve Bank sender), if—
</P>
<P>(i) The Reserve Bank made seasonable written demand on the sender to assume defense of the action or proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sender has not made any other arrangement for payment that is acceptable to the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The Reserve Bank is not responsible for defending the action or proceeding before using this method of recovery. A Reserve Bank that has been charged under this paragraph (d) may recover from its sender in the manner and under the circumstances set forth in this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(3) A Reserve Bank's failure to avail itself of the remedy provided in this paragraph (d) does not prejudice its enforcement in any other manner of the indemnity agreement referred to in paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security interest.</I> When a sender sends an item to a Reserve Bank, the sender and any prior collecting bank grant to the sender's Administrative Reserve Bank a security interest in all of their respective assets in the possession of, or held for the account of, any Reserve Bank to secure their respective obligations due or to become due to the Administrative Reserve Bank under this subpart or subpart C or D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC). The security interest attaches when a warranty is breached or any other obligation to the Reserve Bank is incurred. If the Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice thereof to the sender or prior collecting bank, or if the sender or prior collecting bank suspends payments or is closed, the Reserve Bank may take any action authorized by law to recover the amount of an obligation, including, but not limited to, the exercise of rights of set off, the realization on any available collateral, and any other rights it may have as a creditor under applicable law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 21745, June 16, 1986; Reg. J, 59 FR 22965, May 4, 1994; 62 FR 48171, Sept. 15, 1997, Reg. J, 69 FR 62558, Oct. 27, 2004; 70 FR 71224, Nov. 28, 2005; 83 FR 61518, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.6   Status, warranties, and liability of Reserve Bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Status.</I> A Reserve Bank that handles an item shall act as agent or subagent of the owner with respect to the item. This agency terminates when a Reserve Bank receives final payment for the item in actually and finally collected funds, a Reserve Bank makes the proceeds available for use by the sender, and the time for commencing all actions against the Reserve Bank has expired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations on Reserve Bank liability.</I> A Reserve Bank shall not have or assume any liability with respect to an item or its proceeds except—
</P>
<P>(i) For the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care;
</P>
<P>(ii) As provided in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) As provided in an operating circular issued in accordance with § 210.3(a) regarding the sending of items; and
</P>
<P>(iv) As provided in subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reliance on routing designation appearing on item.</I> A Reserve Bank may present or send an item based on the routing number or other designation of a paying bank or nonbank payor appearing in any form on the item when the Reserve Bank receives it. A Reserve Bank shall not be responsible for any delay resulting from its acting on any designation, whether inscribed by magnetic ink or by other means, and whether or not the designation acted on is consistent with any other designation appearing on the item.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Warranties and liability.</I> The following provisions apply when a Reserve Bank presents or sends an item.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Warranties for all items.</I> The Reserve Bank warrants to a subsequent collecting bank and to the paying bank and any other payor that—
</P>
<P>(i) The Reserve Bank is a person entitled to enforce the item (or is authorized to obtain payment of the item on behalf of a person that is either entitled to enforce the item or authorized to obtain payment on behalf of a person entitled to enforce the item);
</P>
<P>(ii) The item has not been altered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The item bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the item for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Reserve Bank operating circulars.</I> The Reserve Bank makes any warranties and indemnities regarding the sending of items as set forth in an operating circular issued in accordance with § 210.3(a).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC and U.C.C.</I> As applicable and unless otherwise provided, the Reserve Bank makes all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC) and Article 4 of the U.C.C. The Reserve Bank makes all the warranties set forth in and subject to the terms of 4-207 of the U.C.C. for an electronic check as if it were an item subject to the U.C.C.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Indemnity for substitute check created from an electronic check.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the Reserve Bank shall indemnify the bank to which it transfers or presents an electronic check (the recipient bank) for the amount of any losses that the recipient bank incurs under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC) for an indemnity that the recipient bank was required to make under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter in connection with a substitute check later created from the electronic check.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Reserve Bank shall not be liable under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section for any amount that the recipient bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care of the recipient bank or a person that handled the item, in any form, after the recipient bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time for commencing action against Reserve Bank.</I> (1) A claim against a Reserve Bank for lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care shall be barred unless the action on the claim is commenced within two years after the claim accrues. Such a claim accrues on the date when a Reserve Bank's alleged failure to exercise ordinary care or to act in good faith first results in damages to the claimant.
</P>
<P>(2) A claim that arises under paragraph (b)(3) of this section shall be barred unless the action on the claim is commenced within one year after the claim accrues. Such a claim accrues as of the date on which the claimant first learns, or by which the claimant reasonably should have learned, of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph (c) does not alter the time limit for claims under § 229.38(g) of this chapter (which include claims for breach of warranty under § 229.34 of this chapter) or subpart D of part 229 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, as amended at 51 FR 21745, June 16, 1986; 53 FR 21984, June 13, 1988; Reg. J, 59 FR 22966, May 4, 1994; 62 FR 48172, Sept. 15, 1997; Reg. J, 69 FR 62559, Oct. 27, 2004; 70 FR 71225, Nov. 28, 2005; 83 FR 61519, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.7   Presenting items for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Presenting or sending.</I> As provided under State law or as otherwise permitted by this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Reserve Bank or a subsequent collecting bank may present an item for payment or send the item for presentment and payment; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A Reserve Bank may send an item to a subsequent collecting bank with authority to present it for payment or to send it for presentment and payment. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Place of presentment.</I> A Reserve Bank or subsequent collecting bank may present an item—
</P>
<P>(1) At a place requested by the paying bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with § 229.36 of this chapter (Regulation CC);
</P>
<P>(3) At a place requested by the nonbank payor, if the item is payable by a nonbank payor other than through or at a paying bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Under a special collection agreement consistent with this subpart; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Through a clearinghouse and subject to its rules and practices. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presenting or sending direct.</I> A Reserve Bank or subsequent collecting bank may, with respect to an item that may be sent to the paying bank or nonbank payor in the Reserve Bank's District—
</P>
<P>(1) Present or send the item direct to the paying bank, or to a place requested by the paying bank; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the item is payable by a nonbank payor other than through a paying bank, present it direct to the nonbank payor. Documents, securities, or other papers accompanying a noncash item shall not be delivered to the nonbank payor before the item is paid unless the sender specifically authorizes delivery. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Item sent to another district.</I> A Reserve Bank receiving an item that may be sent to a paying bank or nonbank payor in another District ordinarily sends the item to the Reserve Bank of the other District, but with the agreement of the other Reserve Bank, may present or send the item as if it were sent to a paying bank or nonbank payor in its own District.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 21985, June 13, 1988; 62 FR 48172, Sept. 15, 1997; Reg. J, 83 FR 61520, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.8   Presenting noncash items for acceptance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Reserve Bank or a subsequent collecting bank may, if instructed by the sender, present a noncash item for acceptance in any manner authorized by law if—
</P>
<P>(1) The item provides that it must be presented for acceptance;
</P>
<P>(2) The item may be presented elsewhere than at the residence or place of business of the payor; or
</P>
<P>(3) The date of payment of the item depends on presentment for acceptance.
</P>
<P>(b) Documents accompanying a noncash item shall not be delivered to the payor upon acceptance of the item unless the sender specifically authorizes delivery. A Reserve Bank shall not have or assume any other obligation to present or to send for presentment for acceptance any noncash item.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 48172, Sept. 15, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.9   Settlement and payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Settlement through Administrative Reserve Bank.</I> A paying bank shall settle for an item under this subpart with its Administrative Reserve Bank, whether or not the paying bank received the item from that Reserve Bank. A paying bank's settlement with its Administrative Reserve Bank is deemed to be settlement with the Reserve Bank from which the paying bank received the item. A paying bank may settle for an item using any account on a Reserve Bank's books by agreement with its Administrative Reserve Bank, any other Reserve Bank holding the settlement account, and the account-holder. The paying bank remains responsible for settlement if the Reserve Bank holding the settlement account does not, for any reason, obtain settlement in that account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cash items</I>—(1) <I>Settlement obligation.</I> On the day a paying bank receives 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> a cash item from a Reserve Bank, it shall settle for the item such that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank by the close of Fedwire on that day, or it shall return the item by the later of the close of its banking day or the close of Fedwire. If the paying bank fails to settle for or return a cash item in accordance with this paragraph (b)(1), it is accountable for the amount of the item as of the close of its banking day or the close of Fedwire on the day it receives the item, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A paying bank is deemed to receive a cash item on its next banking day if it receives the item—
</P>
<P>(1) On a day other than a banking day for it; or
</P>
<P>(2) On a banking day for it, but after a “cut-off hour” established by it in accordance with state law.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Time of settlement.</I> (i) On the day a paying bank receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank, it shall settle for the item so that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank, or return the item, by the latest of—
</P>
<P>(A) The next clock hour or clock half-hour that is at least one half-hour after the paying bank receives the item;
</P>
<P>(B) 8:30 a.m. eastern time; or
</P>
<P>(C) Such later time as provided in the Reserve Banks' operating circulars.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the paying bank fails to settle for or return a cash item in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, it shall be subject to any applicable overdraft charges. Settlement under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section satisfies the settlement requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Paying bank closes voluntarily.</I> (i) If a paying bank closes voluntarily so that it does not receive a cash item on a day that is a banking day for a Reserve Bank, and the Reserve Bank makes a cash item available to the paying bank on that day, the paying bank shall either—
</P>
<P>(A) On that day, settle for the item so that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank, or return the item, by the latest of the next clock hour or clock half-hour that is at least one half-hour after it ordinarily would have received the item, 8:30 a.m. eastern time, or such later time as provided in the Reserve Banks' operating circulars; or
</P>
<P>(B) On the next day that is a banking day for both the paying bank and the Reserve Bank, settle for the item so that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank by 8:30 a.m. eastern time on that day or such later time as provided in the Reserve Banks' operating circulars; and compensate the Reserve Bank for the value of the float associated with the item in accordance with procedures provided in the Reserve Bank's operating circular.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a paying bank closes voluntarily so that it does not receive a cash item on a day that is a banking day for a Reserve Bank, and the Reserve Bank makes a cash item available to the paying bank on that day, the paying bank is not considered to have received the item until its next banking day, but it shall be subject to any applicable overdraft charges if it fails to settle for or return the item in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. The settlement requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to a paying bank that settles in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reserve Bank closed.</I> If a paying bank receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank on a banking day that is not a banking day for the Reserve Bank, the paying bank shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Settle for the item so that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank by the close of the Fedwire Funds Service on the Reserve Bank's next banking day, or return the item by midnight of the day it receives the item (if the paying bank fails to settle for or return a cash item in accordance with this paragraph (b)(4)(i), it shall become accountable for the amount of the item as of the close of its banking day on the day it receives the item); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Settle for the item so that the proceeds of the settlement are available to its Administrative Reserve Bank by 8:30 a.m. eastern time on the Reserve Bank's next banking day or such later time as provided in the Reserve Bank's operating circular, or return the item by midnight of the day it receives the item. If the paying bank fails to settle for or return a cash item in accordance with this paragraph (b)(4)(ii), it shall be subject to any applicable overdraft charges. Settlement under this paragraph (b)(4)(ii) satisfies the settlement requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Manner of settlement.</I> Settlement with a Reserve Bank under paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) of this section shall be made by debit to an account on the Reserve Bank's books or other form of settlement to which the Reserve Bank agrees, except that the Reserve Bank may, in its discretion, obtain settlement by charging the paying bank's account. A paying bank may not set off against the amount of a settlement under this section the amount of a claim with respect to another cash item, cash letter, or other claim under § 229.34 of this chapter (Regulation CC) or other law.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notice in lieu of return.</I> If a cash item is unavailable for return, the paying bank may send a notice in lieu of return as provided in § 229.31(f) of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncash items.</I> A Reserve Bank may require the paying or collecting bank to which it has presented or sent a noncash item to pay for the item by a debit to an account maintained or used by the paying or collecting bank on the Reserve Bank's books or by any other form of settlement acceptable to the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonbank payor.</I> A Reserve Bank may require a nonbank payor to which it has presented an item to pay for it by debit to an account on the Reserve Bank's books or other form of settlement acceptable to the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liability of Reserve Bank.</I> Except as set forth in § 229.35(b) of this chapter (Regulation CC), a Reserve Bank shall not be liable for the failure of a collecting bank, paying bank, or nonbank payor to pay for an item, or for any loss resulting from the Reserve Bank's acceptance of any form of payment other than cash authorized in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. A Reserve Bank that acts in good faith and exercises ordinary care shall not be liable for the nonpayment of, or failure to realize upon, any non-cash form of payment that it accepts under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 68634, Oct. 16, 1980, as amended at 49 FR 4200, Feb. 3, 1984; 51 FR 21745, June 16, 1986; 53 FR 21985, June 13, 1988; 57 FR 46955, Oct. 14, 1992; Reg. J, 59 FR 22966, May 4, 1994; 62 FR 48172, Sept. 15, 1997; 70 FR 71225, Nov. 28, 2005; 79 FR 72111, Dec. 5, 2014; 83 FR 61520, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.10   Time schedule and availability of credits for cash items and returned checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Reserve Bank shall publish a time schedule indicating when the amount of any cash item or returned check received by it is counted toward the balance maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement for purposes of part 204 of this chapter (Regulation D) and becomes available for use by the sender or paying or returning bank. The Reserve Bank that holds the settlement account shall give either immediate or deferred credit to a sender, a paying bank, or a returning bank (other than a foreign correspondent) in accordance with the time schedule of the receiving Reserve Bank. A Reserve Bank ordinarily gives credit to a foreign correspondent only when the Reserve Bank receives payment of the item in actually and finally collected funds, but, in its discretion, a Reserve Bank may give immediate or deferred credit in accordance with its time schedule.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding its time schedule, a Reserve Bank may refuse at any time to permit the use of credit given by it for any cash item or returned check, and may defer availability after credit is received by the Reserve Bank for a period of time that is reasonable under the circumstances.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 48173, Sept. 15, 1997, as amended by Reg. J, 77 FR 21858, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61520, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.11   Availability of proceeds of noncash items; time schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability of credit.</I> A Reserve Bank shall give credit to the sender for the proceeds of a noncash item when it receives payment in actually and finally collected funds (or advice from another Reserve Bank of such payment to it). The amount of the item is counted toward the balance maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement for purposes of part 204 of this chapter (Regulation D) and becomes available for use by the sender when the Reserve Bank receives the payment or advice, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time schedule.</I> A Reserve Bank may give credit for the proceeds of a noncash item subject to payment in actually and finally collected funds in accordance with a published time schedule. The time schedule shall indicate when the proceeds of the noncash item will be counted toward the balance maintained to satisfy a reserve balance requirement for purposes of part 204 of this chapter (Regulation D) and become available for use by the sender. A Reserve Bank may, however, refuse at any time to permit the use of credit given by it for a noncash item for which the Reserve Bank has not yet received payment in actually and finally collected funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 77 FR 21858, Apr. 12, 2012, as amended at 83 FR 61521, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.12   Return of cash items and handling of returned checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Return of items</I>—(1) <I>Return of cash items handled by Reserve Banks.</I> A paying bank that receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank, other than for immediate payment over the counter, and that settles for the item as provided in § 210.9(b), may, before it has finally paid the item, return the item to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to return the item to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. A paying bank that receives a cash item from a Reserve Bank also may return the item prior to settlement, in accordance with § 210.9(b) and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. The rules or practices of a clearinghouse through which the item was presented, or a special collection agreement under which the item was presented, may not extend these return times, but may provide for a shorter return time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Return of checks not handled by Reserve Banks.</I> A paying bank that receives a check, other than from a Reserve Bank, and that determines not to pay the check, may send the returned check to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to send the returned check to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars. A returning bank may send a returned check to any Reserve Bank (unless its Administrative Reserve Bank directs it to send the returned check to a specific Reserve Bank) in accordance with subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), the Uniform Commercial Code, and the Reserve Banks' operating circulars.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Handling of returned checks.</I> (1) The following parties, in the following order, are deemed to have handled a returned check sent to a Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The paying or returning bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Reserve Bank that receives the returned check from the paying or returning bank (if different from the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Another Reserve Bank, if any, that receives the returned check from a Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) A Reserve Bank that is not described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not a person that handles a returned check and is not a returning bank with respect to a returned check.
</P>
<P>(3) The identity and order of the parties under paragraph (b)(1) of this section determine the relationships and the rights and liabilities of the parties under this subpart, part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC), and the Uniform Commercial Code.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Paying bank's and returning bank's agreement.</I> The warranties, indemnities, authorizations, and agreements made pursuant to this paragraph (c) may not be disclaimed and are made whether or not the returned check bears an indorsement of the paying bank or returning bank. By sending a returned check to a Reserve Bank, the paying bank or returning bank does all of the following.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Authorization to handle returned check.</I> The paying bank or returning bank authorizes the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank, and any other Reserve Bank or returning bank to which the returned check is sent, to handle the returned check (and authorizes any Reserve Bank that handles settlement for the returned check to make accounting entries) subject to this subpart and to the Reserve Banks' operating circulars.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Warranties for all returned checks.</I> The paying bank or returning bank warrants to each Reserve Bank handling a returned check that the returned check bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the returned check for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC.</I> As applicable and unless otherwise provided, a paying bank or returning bank makes to each Reserve Bank that handles the returned check all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Paying bank or returning bank's liability to Reserve Bank.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section, a paying bank or returning bank agrees to indemnify each Reserve Bank for any loss or expense (including attorneys' fees and expenses of litigation) resulting from—
</P>
<P>(A) The paying or returning bank's lack of authority to give the authorization in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Any action taken by a Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the returned check; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under paragraph (e) of this section or part 229 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) A paying bank's or returning bank's liability for warranties and indemnities that a Reserve Bank makes for a returned check that is a substitute check, a paper or electronic representation thereof, or an electronic returned check is subject to the following conditions and limitations—
</P>
<P>(A) A paying bank or returning bank that sent an original returned check shall not be liable for any amount that a Reserve Bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter, or under § 229.34 of this chapter with respect to an electronic returned check, absent the paying bank's or returning bank's agreement to the contrary; and
</P>
<P>(B) Nothing in this subpart alters the liability under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter of a paying bank or returning bank that sent a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check or under § 229.34 of this chapter of a paying bank or returning bank that sent an electronic returned check; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A paying bank or returning bank shall not be liable for any amount that the Reserve Bank pays under this subpart or part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Paying bank or returning bank's liability under other law.</I> Nothing in paragraph (c) of this section limits any warranty or indemnity by a returning bank or paying bank (or a person that handled an item prior to that bank) arising under state law or regulation (such as the U.C.C.), other federal law or regulation (such as part 229 of this chapter), or an agreement with a Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Warranties by and liability of Reserve Bank</I>—(1) <I>Warranties and indemnities.</I> The following provisions apply when a Reserve Bank handles a returned check under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Warranties for all items.</I> The Reserve Bank warrants to the bank to which it sends the returned check that the returned check bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the returned check for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Warranties and indemnities as set forth in Regulation CC.</I> As applicable and unless otherwise provided, the Reserve Bank makes all the warranties and indemnities set forth in and subject to the terms of subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indemnity for substitute check created from electronic returned check.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, the Reserve Bank shall indemnify the bank to which it transfers or presents an electronic returned check (the recipient bank) for the amount of any losses that the recipient bank incurs under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC) for an indemnity that the recipient bank was required to make under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter in connection with a substitute check later created from the electronic returned check.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Reserve Bank shall not be liable under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section for any amount that the recipient bank pays under subpart D of part 229 of this chapter that is attributable to the lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care of the recipient bank or a person that handled the item, in any form, after the recipient bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liability of Reserve Bank.</I> A Reserve Bank shall not have or assume any other liability to any person except—
</P>
<P>(i) For the Reserve Bank's own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care;
</P>
<P>(ii) As provided in this paragraph (e); and
</P>
<P>(iii) As provided in subparts C and D of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recovery by Reserve Bank.</I> (1) A Reserve Bank that has handled a returned check may recover as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section if an action or proceeding is brought against (or if defense is tendered to) the Reserve Bank based on—
</P>
<P>(i) The alleged failure of the paying bank or returning bank to have the authority to give the authorization in paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action by the Reserve Bank within the scope of its authority in handling the returned check; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any warranty or indemnity made by the Reserve Bank under paragraph (e) of this section or part 229 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon entry of a final judgment or decree in an action or proceeding described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, a Reserve Bank may recover from the paying bank or returning bank the amount of attorneys' fees and other expenses of litigation incurred, as well as any amount the Reserve Bank is required to pay because of the judgment or decree or the tender of defense, together with interest thereon.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Methods of recovery.</I> (1) The Reserve Bank may recover the amount stated in paragraph (f) of this section by charging any account on its books that is maintained or used by the paying bank or returning bank (or by charging another returning Reserve Bank), if—
</P>
<P>(i) The Reserve Bank made seasonable written demand on the paying bank or returning bank to assume defense of the action or proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The paying bank or returning bank has not made any other arrangement for payment that is acceptable to the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The Reserve Bank is not responsible for defending the action or proceeding before using this method of recovery. A Reserve Bank that has been charged under this paragraph (g) may recover from the paying or returning bank in the manner and under the circumstances set forth in this paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(3) A Reserve Bank's failure to avail itself of the remedy provided in this paragraph (g) does not prejudice its enforcement in any other manner of the indemnity agreement referred to in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reserve Bank's responsibility.</I> A Reserve Bank shall handle a returned check, or a notice of nonpayment, in accordance with subpart C of part 229 and its operating circular. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Settlement.</I> A subsequent returning bank or depositary bank shall settle with its Administrative Reserve Bank for returned checks in the same manner and by the same time as for cash items presented for payment under this subpart. Settlement with its Administrative Reserve Bank is deemed to be settlement with the Reserve Bank from which the returning bank or depositary bank received the item.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Security interest.</I> When a paying or returning bank sends a returned check to a Reserve Bank, the paying bank, returning bank, and any prior returning bank grant to the paying bank's or returning bank's Administrative Reserve Bank a security interest in all of their respective assets in the possession of, or held for the account of, any Reserve Bank, to secure their respective obligations due or to become due to the Administrative Reserve Bank under this subpart or subpart C of part 229 of this chapter (Regulation CC). The security interest attaches when a warranty is breached or any other obligation to the Reserve Bank is incurred. If the Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice thereof to the paying bank, returning bank, or prior returning bank, or if the paying bank, returning bank, or prior returning bank suspends payments or is closed, the Reserve Bank may take any action authorized by law to recover the amount of an obligation, including, but not limited to, the exercise of rights of set off, the realization on any available collateral, and any other rights it may have as a creditor under applicable law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 21985, June 13, 1988, as amended at Reg. J, 59 FR 22966, May 4, 1994; 62 FR 48173, Sept. 15, 1997; Reg, J, 69 FR 62560, Oct. 27, 2004; 83 FR 61521, Nov. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.13" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.13   Unpaid items.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of recovery.</I> If a Reserve Bank does not receive payment in actually and finally collected funds for an item, the Reserve Bank shall recover by charge-back or otherwise the amount of the item from the sender, prior collecting bank, paying bank, or returning bank from or through which it was received, whether or not the item itself can be sent back. In the event of recovery from such a person, no person, including the owner or holder of the item, shall, for the purpose of obtaining payment of the amount of the item, have any interest in any reserve balance or other funds or property in the Reserve Bank's possession of the bank that failed to make payment in actually and finally collected funds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension or closing of bank.</I> A Reserve Bank shall not pay or act on a draft, authorization to charge (including a charge authorized by § 210.9(b)(5)), or other order on a reserve balance or other funds in its possession for the purpose of settling for items under § 210.9 or § 210.12 after it receives notice of suspension or closing of the bank making the settlement for that bank's own or another's account. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 59 FR 22966, May 4, 1994, as amended at Reg. J, 69 FR 62561, Oct. 27, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.14" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.14   Extension of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>If a bank (including a Reserve Bank) or nonbank payor is delayed in acting on an item beyond applicable time limits because of interruption of communication or computer facilities, suspension of payments by a bank or nonbank payor, war, emergency conditions, failure of equipment, or other circumstances beyond its control, its time for acting is extended for the time necessary to complete the action, if it exercises such diligence as the circumstances require. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 59 FR 22967, May 4, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.15" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.1.3.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.15   Direct presentment of certain warrants.</HEAD>
<P>If a Reserve Bank elects to present direct to the payor a bill, note, or warrant that is issued and payable by a State or a political subdivision and that is a cash item not payable or collectible through a bank: (a) Sections 210.9, 210.12, and 210.13 and the operating circulars of the Reserve Banks apply to the payor as if it were a paying bank; (b) § 210.14 applies to the payor as if it were a bank; and (c) under § 210.9 each day on which the payor is open for the regular conduct of its affairs or the accommodation of the public is considered a banking day. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Funds Transfers Through the Fedwire Funds Service</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 210.25" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.25   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> This subpart provides rules to govern funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service, and has been issued pursuant to the Federal Reserve Act—section 13 (12 U.S.C. 342), paragraph (f) of section 19 (12 U.S.C. 464), paragraph 14 of section 16 (12 U.S.C. 248(o)), and paragraphs (i) and (j) of section 11 (12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (j))—and other laws and has the force and effect of federal law. This subpart is not a funds-transfer system rule as defined in Section 4A-501(b) of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart incorporates the provisions of Article 4A set forth in appendix A of this part. In the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of the sections of this subpart and appendix A of this part, the provisions of the sections of this subpart shall prevail. In the event of an inconsistency between the provisions this subpart and section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act shall prevail.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, this subpart, including Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, governs the rights and obligations of the following parties with respect to the Fedwire Funds Service:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal Reserve Banks that send or receive payment orders;
</P>
<P>(ii) Senders that send payment orders directly to a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receiving banks that receive payment orders directly from a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) Beneficiaries that receive payment for payment orders by means of credit to an account maintained or used at a Federal Reserve Bank; and
</P>
<P>(v) Other parties to a funds transfer any part of which is carried out through the Fedwire Funds Service to the same extent as if this subpart were considered a funds-transfer system rule under Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(3) This subpart governs a funds transfer that is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service, as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, even though a portion of the funds transfer is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, but the portion of such funds transfer that is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (other than section 919 governing remittance transfers) is not governed by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that any portion of this Subpart establishes rights or obligations with respect to the availability of funds that are also governed by the Expedited Funds Availability Act or the Board's Regulation CC, Availability of Funds and Collection of Checks, those provisions of the Expedited Funds Availability Act or Regulation CC shall apply and the portion of this Subpart, including Article 4A as incorporated herein, shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating Circulars.</I> Each Federal Reserve Bank shall issue an Operating Circular consistent with this subpart that governs the details of its funds-transfer operations in connection with the Fedwire Funds Service and other matters it deems appropriate. Among other things, the Operating Circular may set cut-off times and funds-transfer business days; address security procedures offered by the Federal Reserve Banks to verify the authenticity of a payment order; specify format and media requirements for payment orders; specify the time and method of receipt, execution, and acceptance of a payment order and settlement of a Federal Reserve Bank's payment obligation for purposes of Article 4A; specify service terms governing ancillary features of the Fedwire Funds Service; provide for the acceptance of documents in electronic form to the extent any provision in Article 4A requires an agreement or other document to be in writing; identify messages that are not payment orders; and impose charges for funds-transfer services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government senders, receiving banks, and beneficiaries.</I> Except as otherwise expressly provided by the statutes of the United States, the parties specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) through (v) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(1) A department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of the United States, or a wholly-owned or controlled Government corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) An international organization;
</P>
<P>(3) A foreign central bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) A department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of a foreign government, or a wholly-owned or controlled corporation of a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial messaging standards.</I> Financial messaging standards (<I>e.g.,</I> ISO 20022), including the financial messaging components, elements, technical documentation, tags, and terminology used to implement those standards, do not confer or connote legal status or responsibilities. This subpart, including Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part, and the operating circulars of the Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section govern the rights and obligations of parties to funds transfers sent through the Fedwire Funds Service as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. To the extent there is any inconsistency between a financial messaging standard adopted by the Fedwire Funds Service and this subpart, this subpart shall prevail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990; 55 FR 47428, Nov. 13, 1990, as amended by Reg. J, 77 FR 21859, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61517, 61522, Nov. 30, 2018; 87 FR 34358, June 6, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.26" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.26   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Article 4A</I> means Article 4A of the Uniform Commercial Code as set forth in appendix A of this part, which is incorporated into this subpart in accordance with § 210.25(b).
</P>
<P><I>Automated clearing house transfer</I> means any transfer designated as an automated clearing house transfer in an operating circular issued by the Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A except that the term is limited to a beneficiary in a funds transfer any portion of which is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary's bank</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The term is limited to a beneficiary's bank in a funds transfer any portion of which is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service;
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal Reserve Bank need not be identified in the payment order in order to be the beneficiary's bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) The term includes a Federal Reserve Bank when that Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary of a payment order.
</P>
<P><I>Fedwire Funds Service</I> means the funds-transfer system owned and operated by the Federal Reserve Banks that is used primarily for the transmission and settlement of payment orders governed by this subpart. The Fedwire Funds Service does not include the FedNow Service or the system for making automated clearing house transfers.
</P>
<P><I>Interdistrict transfer</I> means a funds transfer involving entries to accounts maintained at two Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Intradistrict transfer</I> means a funds transfer involving entries to accounts maintained at one Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Off-line bank</I> means a bank that sends payment orders to and receives payment orders from a Federal Reserve Bank by telephone orally or by other means other than electronic data transmission.
</P>
<P><I>Payment order</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A except that the term includes only instructions sent or received through the Fedwire Funds Service and does not include automated clearing house transfers or any communication designated in an operating circular issued by a Federal Reserve Bank under this subpart as not being a payment order.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving bank</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A except that the term is limited to a receiving bank in a funds transfer any portion of which is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service.
</P>
<P><I>Sender</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A except that the term is limited to a sender in a funds transfer any portion of which is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service.
</P>
<P><I>Sender's account, receiving bank's account,</I> and <I>beneficiary's account</I> mean the reserve, clearing, or other funds deposit account at a Federal Reserve Bank maintained or used by the sender, receiving bank, or beneficiary, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Sender's Federal Reserve Bank</I> and <I>receiving bank's Federal Reserve Bank</I> mean the Federal Reserve Bank at which the sender or receiving bank, respectively, maintains or uses an account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 87 FR 34358, June 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.27" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.27   Reliance on identifying number.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify an intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank may rely on the number in a payment order that identifies the intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank, even if it identifies a bank different from the bank identified by name in the payment order, if the Federal Reserve Bank does not know of such an inconsistency in identification. A Federal Reserve Bank has no duty to detect any such inconsistency in identification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify beneficiary.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank, acting as a beneficiary's bank, may rely on the number in a payment order that identifies the beneficiary, even if it identifies a person different from the person identified by name in the payment order, if the Federal Reserve Bank does not know of such an inconsistency in identification. A Federal Reserve Bank has no duty to detect any such inconsistency in identification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.28" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.28   Agreement of sender.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of sender's obligation to a Federal Reserve Bank.</I> A sender (other than a Federal Reserve Bank), by maintaining or using an account with a Federal Reserve Bank, authorizes the sender's Federal Reserve Bank to obtain payment for the sender's payment orders by debiting the amount of the payment order from the sender's account. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overdrafts.</I> (1) A sender does not have the right to an overdraft in the sender's account. In the event an overdraft is created, the overdraft shall be due and payable immediately, without the need for a demand by the Federal Reserve Bank, at the earliest of the following times:
</P>
<P>(i) At the end of the Fedwire Funds Service funds-transfer business day;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the Federal Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice thereof to the sender; or
</P>
<P>(iii) At the time the sender suspends payments or is closed.
</P>
<P>(2) The sender shall have in its account, at the time the overdraft is due and payable, a balance of actually and finally collected funds sufficient to cover the aggregate amount of all its obligations to the Federal Reserve Bank, whether the obligations result from the execution of a payment order or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) To secure any overdraft, as well as any other obligation due or to become due to its Federal Reserve Bank, each sender, by sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that is accepted by the Federal Reserve Bank, grants to the Federal Reserve Bank a security interest in all of the sender's assets in the possession or control of, or held for the account of, the Federal Reserve Bank. The security interest attaches when an overdraft, or any other obligation to the Federal Reserve Bank, becomes due and payable. 


</P>
<P>(4) A Federal Reserve Bank may take any action authorized by law to recover the amount of an overdraft that is due and payable, including, but not limited to, the exercise of rights of set off, the realization on any available collateral, and any other rights it may have as a creditor under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a sender, other than a government sender described in § 210.25(d), incurs an overdraft in its account as a result of a debit to the account by a Federal Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section, the account will be subject to any applicable overdraft charges, regardless of whether the overdraft has become due and payable. A Federal Reserve Bank may debit a sender's account under paragraph (a) of this section immediately on acceptance of the payment order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of payment orders.</I> A sender, by sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank, agrees that for the purposes of sections 4A-204(a) and 4A-304 of Article 4A, a reasonable time to notify a Federal Reserve Bank of the relevant facts concerning an unauthorized or erroneously executed payment order is within 30 calendar days after the sender receives notice that the payment order was accepted or executed, or that the sender's account was debited with respect to the payment order. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 46956, Oct. 14, 1992; Reg. J, 87 FR 34359, June 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.29" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.29   Agreement of receiving bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment.</I> A receiving bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) that receives a payment order from its Federal Reserve Bank authorizes that Federal Reserve Bank to pay for the payment order by crediting the amount of the payment order to the receiving bank's account. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Off-line banks.</I> An off-line bank that does not expressly notify its Federal Reserve Bank in writing that it maintains an account for another bank warrants to that Federal Reserve Bank that the off-line bank does not act as an intermediary bank or a beneficiary's bank with respect to payment orders received through the Fedwire Funds Service for a beneficiary that is a bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990; 55 FR 47428, Nov. 13, 1990, as amended by Reg. J, 83 FR 61522, Nov. 30, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.30" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.30   Payment orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rejection.</I> A sender shall not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank unless authorized to do so by the Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank may reject, or impose conditions that must be satisfied before it will accept, a payment order for any reason. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection of an intermediary bank.</I> For an interdistrict transfer through the Fedwire Funds Service, a Federal Reserve Bank is authorized and directed to execute a payment order through another Federal Reserve Bank. A sender shall not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that requires the Federal Reserve Bank to send a payment order to an intermediary bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) unless that intermediary bank is designated in the sender's payment order. A sender shall not send to a Federal Reserve Bank a payment order through the Fedwire Funds Service that instructs use by a Federal Reserve Bank of a funds-transfer system or means of transmission other than the Fedwire Funds Service unless the Federal Reserve Bank agrees with the sender in writing to follow such instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Execution date and payment date.</I> A sender shall not send a payment order through the Fedwire Funds Service that instructs a Federal Reserve Bank to execute the payment order or to pay the beneficiary on a funds-transfer business day that is later than the Fedwire Funds Service funds-transfer business day on which the order is received by the Federal Reserve Bank, unless the Federal Reserve Bank agrees with the sender in writing to follow such instructions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990, as amended by Reg. J, 87 FR 34359, June 6, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.31" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.31   Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a receiving bank or beneficiary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment to a receiving bank.</I> Payment of a Federal Reserve Bank's obligation to pay a receiving bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) occurs at the earlier of the time when the amount of the payment order is credited to the receiving bank's account or when the payment order is sent to the receiving bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment to a beneficiary.</I> Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a beneficiary of a payment order, where the Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary's bank, occurs at the earlier of the time when the amount of the payment order is credited to the beneficiary's account or when notice of the credit is sent to the beneficiary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.32" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.32   Federal Reserve Bank liability; payment of compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Damages.</I> In connection with its handling of a payment order under this subpart, a Federal Reserve Bank shall not be liable to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or other Federal Reserve Bank, governed by this subpart, for any damages other than those payable under Article 4A. A Federal Reserve Bank shall not agree to be liable to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or other Federal Reserve Bank for consequential damages under section 4A-305(d) of Article 4A. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of compensation.</I> (1) A Federal Reserve Bank shall satisfy its obligation, or that of another Federal Reserve Bank, to pay compensation in the form of interest under Article 4A by paying such compensation in the form of interest to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or another party to the funds transfer that is entitled to such payment in an amount that is calculated in accordance with section 4A-506 of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sender or receiving bank that is the recipient of the payment of compensation is not the party entitled to compensation under Article 4A, the sender or receiving bank shall pass through the benefit of the compensation by making an interest payment, as of the day the compensation was paid by the Federal Reserve Bank, to the party entitled to compensation. The interest payment that is made to the party entitled to compensation shall not be less than the value of the compensation that was paid by the Federal Reserve Bank to the sender or receiving bank. The party entitled to compensation may agree to accept compensation in a form other than a direct interest payment, provided that such an alternative form of compensation is not less than the value of the interest payment that otherwise would be made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonwaiver of right of recovery.</I> Nothing in this subpart or any Operating Circular issued hereunder shall constitute, or be construed as constituting, a waiver by a Federal Reserve Bank of a cause of action for recovery under any applicable law of mistake and restitution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990, as amended by Reg. J, 77 FR 21859, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61517, Nov. 30, 2018; 87 FR 34359, June 6, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.2.3.9.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 210—Commentary
</HEAD>
<P>The Commentary provides background material to explain the intent of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) in adopting a particular provision in the subpart and to help readers interpret that provision. In some comments, examples are offered. The Commentary constitutes an official Board interpretation of subpart B of this part. Commentary is not provided for every provision of subpart B of this part, as some provisions are self-explanatory.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.25—Authority, Purpose, and Scope
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> Section 210.25(a) states that the purpose of subpart B of this part is to provide rules to govern funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service and recites the Board's rulemaking authority for this subpart. Subpart B of this part is Federal law and is not a “funds-transfer system rule” as defined in section 4A-501(b) of Article 4A, Funds Transfers, of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), as set forth in appendix A of this part. Certain provisions of Article 4A may not be varied by a funds-transfer system rule, but under section 4A-107, regulations of the Board and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks supersede inconsistent provisions of Article 4A to the extent of the inconsistency. In addition, regulations of the Board may preempt inconsistent provisions of state law. Accordingly, subpart B of this part supersedes or preempts inconsistent provisions of state law. It does not affect state law governing funds transfers that does not conflict with the provisions of subpart B of this part, such as Article 4A as enacted in any state, as such state law may apply to parties to funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service whose rights and obligations are not governed by subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Subpart B of this part incorporates the provisions of Article 4A set forth in appendix A of this part. The provisions set forth expressly in the sections of subpart B of this part supersede or preempt any inconsistent provisions of Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part or as enacted in any state. The official comments to Article 4A are not incorporated in subpart B of this part or this commentary to subpart B of this part, but the official comments may be useful in interpreting Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part. Because section 4A-105 refers to other provisions of the Uniform Commercial Code (<I>e.g.,</I> definitions in article 1 of the UCC), these other provisions of the UCC, as approved by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, which is now also known as the Uniform Law Commission, and the American Law Institute, from time to time, are also incorporated into subpart B of this part. Subpart B of this part applies to any party to a funds transfer over the Fedwire Funds Service that is in privity with a Federal Reserve Bank. These parties include a sender (bank or nonbank) that sends a payment order directly to a Federal Reserve Bank, a receiving bank that receives a payment order directly from a Federal Reserve Bank, and a beneficiary that receives credit to an account that it uses or maintains at a Federal Reserve Bank as payment for a payment order accepted by a Federal Reserve Bank. Other parties to a funds transfer over the Fedwire Funds Service are covered by subpart B of this part to the same extent subpart B would apply to them if subpart B were a “funds-transfer system rule” under Article 4A that selected subpart B of this part as the governing law.
</P>
<P>(2) The scope of the applicability of a funds-transfer system rule under Article 4A is specified in section 4A-501(b), and the scope of the choice of law provision is specified in section 4A-507(c). Under section 4A-507(c), a choice of law provision is binding on the participants in a funds-transfer system and certain other parties having notice that the funds-transfer system might be used for the funds transfer and of the choice of law provision. The Uniform Commercial Code provides that a person has notice of a fact when the person has actual knowledge of it, receives a notice or notification of it, or has reason to know that it exists from all the facts and circumstances known to the person at the time in question. (See UCC section 1-202.) However, under sections 4A-507(b) and 4A-507(d), a choice of law by agreement of the parties takes precedence over a choice of law made by funds-transfer system rule.
</P>
<P>(3) If originators, receiving banks, and beneficiaries that are not in privity with a Federal Reserve Bank have the notice contemplated by section 4A-507(c) or if those parties agree to be bound by subpart B of this part, subpart B of this part generally would apply to payment orders between those remote parties, including participants in other funds-transfer systems. For example, a payment order may be sent from an originator's bank through a funds-transfer system other than the Fedwire Funds Service to a receiving bank which, in turn, executes that payment order by sending a payment order through the Fedwire Funds Service. Similarly, a Federal Reserve Bank may send a payment order through the Fedwire Funds Service to a receiving bank that sends it through a funds-transfer system other than the Fedwire Funds Service to the beneficiary's bank. In the first example, if the originator's bank has notice that the Fedwire Funds Service may be used to effect part of the funds transfer, the sending of the payment order through the other funds-transfer system to the receiving bank will be governed by subpart B of this part unless the parties to the payment order have agreed otherwise. In the second example, if the beneficiary's bank has notice that the Fedwire Funds Service may be used to effect part of the funds transfer, the sending of the payment order to the beneficiary's bank through the other funds-transfer system will be governed by subpart B of this part unless the parties have agreed otherwise. In both cases, the other funds-transfer system's rules would also apply to, at a minimum, the portion of these funds transfers being made through that funds transfer system. Because subpart B of this part is Federal law, subpart B of this part will take precedence over any funds-transfer system rule applicable to the remote sender or receiving bank or to a Federal Reserve Bank to the extent of any inconsistency. If remote parties to a funds transfer, a portion of which is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service, have expressly selected by agreement, in accordance with section 4A-507(b), a law other than subpart B of this part, subpart B of this part would not take precedence over the choice of law made by the agreement even though the remote parties had notice that the Fedwire Funds Service might be used and of the governing law. (See section 4A-507(d).) In addition, subpart B of this part would not apply to a funds transfer sent through another funds-transfer system where no Federal Reserve Bank handles the funds transfer, even though settlement for the funds transfer is made by means of a separate net settlement or funds transfer through the Fedwire Funds Service.
</P>
<P>(4) Under section 4A-108, Article 4A does not apply to a funds transfer any part of which is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (EFTA) (15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>). In general, Fedwire funds transfers to or from consumer accounts are exempt from the EFTA and Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005). A funds transfer from a consumer originator or a funds transfer to a consumer beneficiary could be carried out in part through the Fedwire Funds Service and in part through an automated clearinghouse or other means that is subject to the EFTA or Regulation E. In these cases, subpart B would not govern the portion of the funds transfer that is governed by the EFTA or Regulation E. (See the commentary to § 210.26 in this appendix, “Payment Order”.)
</P>
<P>(5) Section 919 of the EFTA, however, governs “remittance transfers,” which may include funds transfers over the Fedwire Funds Service. Section 919 of the EFTA sets out the obligations of remittance transfer providers with respect to consumer senders of remittance transfers. Section 919 of the EFTA generally does not affect the rights and obligations of financial institutions involved in a remittance transfer. To the extent that a Fedwire funds transfer is a “remittance transfer” governed by section 919 of the EFTA, it continues to be governed by subpart B of this part, except that, in the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of subpart B of this part and section 919 of the EFTA, section 919 of the EFTA shall prevail. For example, a consumer may initiate a remittance transfer governed by EFTA section 919 from the consumer's account at a depository institution, and the depository institution may initiate that transfer by sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank through the Fedwire Funds Service. If the consumer subsequently exercised the right to cancel the remittance transfer and obtain a refund under the terms of section 919 of the EFTA, the depository institution would be required to comply with section 919 even if the institution does not have a right to reverse the payment order sent to the Federal Reserve Bank under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Finally, section 4A-404(a) provides that a beneficiary's bank is obliged to pay the amount of a payment order to the beneficiary on the payment date unless acceptance of the payment order occurs on the payment date after the close of the funds-transfer business day of the bank. The Expedited Funds Availability Act provides that funds received by a bank by wire transfer shall be available for withdrawal not later than the business day after the business day on which such funds are received (12 U.S.C. 4002(a)). That act also preempts any provision of state law that was not effective on September 1, 1989, that is inconsistent with that act or its implementing Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229). Accordingly, the Expedited Funds Availability Act and Regulation CC may preempt section 4A-404(a) as enacted in any state. In order to ensure that section 4A-404(a), or other provisions of Article 4A, as incorporated in subpart B of this part, do not take precedence over provisions of the Expedited Funds Availability Act, this section 210.25(b)(4) provides that where subpart B of this part establishes rights or obligations that are also governed by the Expedited Funds Availability Act or Regulation CC, the Expedited Funds Availability Act or Regulation CC provision shall apply and subpart B of this part shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating Circulars.</I> The Federal Reserve Banks issue Operating Circulars consistent with this subpart that contain additional provisions applicable to payment orders and other messages sent through the Fedwire Funds Service. Under section 4A-107, these Operating Circulars supersede inconsistent provisions of Article 4A, both as set forth in appendix A of this part and as enacted in any state. These Operating Circulars are not funds-transfer system rules, but, by their terms, they are binding on all parties covered by this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government senders, receiving banks, and beneficiaries.</I> This section clarifies that unless a statute of the United States provides otherwise, subpart B of this part applies to governmental entities, domestic or foreign, including foreign central banks as specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial messaging standards.</I> This paragraph makes clear that financial messaging standards, including the financial messaging components, elements, technical documentation, tags, and terminology used to implement those standards, do not confer or connote legal status or responsibilities. Instead, subpart B of this part and Federal Reserve Bank operating circulars govern the rights and obligations of parties to funds transfers sent through the Fedwire Funds Service as provided in § 210.25(b). Thus, to the extent there is any inconsistency between a financial messaging standard adopted by the Fedwire Funds Service and subpart B of this part, subpart B of this part, including Article 4A as adopted in appendix B to subpart B of this part, will prevail. In the ISO 20022 financial messaging standard, for example, the term <I>agent</I> is used to refer to a variety of bank parties to a funds transfer (<I>e.g., debtor agent,</I> <I>creditor agent, intermediary agent</I>). Notwithstanding use of that term in the standard and in message tags, such banks are not the agents of any party to a funds transfer and owe no duty to any other party to such a funds transfer except as provided in subpart B of this part (including Article 4A) or by express agreement. The ISO 20022 financial messaging standard also permits information to be carried in a funds-transfer message regarding persons that are not parties to that funds transfer (<I>e.g., ultimate debtor,</I> <I>ultimate creditor, initiating party</I>) for regulatory, compliance, remittance, or other purposes. An “ultimate debtor” is not an “originator” as defined in Article 4A. The relationship between the ultimate debtor and the originator (what the ISO 20022 standard calls the “debtor”) is determined by law other than Article 4A.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.26—Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Article 4A defines many terms (<I>e.g., beneficiary, intermediary bank, receiving bank, security procedure</I>) used in subpart B of this part. These terms are defined or listed in sections 4A-103 through 4A-105. These terms, such as the term <I>bank</I> (defined in section 4A-105(d)(2)), may differ from comparable terms in subpart A and subpart C of this part. As subpart B of this part incorporates consistent provisions of Article 4A, it incorporates these definitions unless these terms are expressly defined otherwise in subpart B of this part. Subpart B modifies the definitions of five Article 4A terms, <I>beneficiary, beneficiary's bank, payment order, receiving bank,</I> and <I>sender</I>. Subpart B also defines terms not defined in Article 4A.
</P>
<P><I>Article 4A. Article 4A</I> means the version of that article of the Uniform Commercial Code set forth in appendix A of this part. It does not refer to the law of any particular state unless the context indicates otherwise. Subject to the express provisions of this subpart, this version of Article 4A is incorporated into this subpart and made Federal law for transactions covered by subpart B of this part. (<I>See</I> § 210.25(b)(1) and accompanying commentary.) Because section 4A-105 refers to other provisions of the Uniform Commercial Code (<I>e.g.,</I> definitions in article 1 of the UCC), these other provisions of the UCC, as approved by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, which is now also known as the Uniform Law Commission, and the American Law Institute, from time to time, are also incorporated into subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary, beneficiary's bank, receiving bank,</I> and <I>sender.</I> The definitions of “beneficiary,” “beneficiary's bank,” “receiving bank,” and “sender” in subpart B of this part differ from the definitions in sections 4A-103(a)(2) through (4). The subpart B definitions clarify that, for the purposes of subpart B of this part, these terms are limited to parties in a funds transfer that is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service. For example, the parties to a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service would be governed by subpart C of this part, and would not be a “beneficiary,” “beneficiary's bank,” “receiving bank,” or “sender” governed by subpart B of this part. The subpart B definition of “beneficiary's bank” further clarifies that where a Federal Reserve Bank functions as the beneficiary's bank, it need not be identified in the payment order as the beneficiary's bank and that a Federal Reserve Bank that receives a payment order as beneficiary is also the beneficiary's bank with respect to that payment order.
</P>
<P><I>Fedwire Funds Service.</I> This term refers to the funds-transfer system owned and operated by the Federal Reserve Banks that is governed by this subpart. The term does not refer to any particular computer, telecommunications facility, or funds transfer, but rather to the system as a whole, which may include transfers by telephone or by written instrument in particular circumstances. The term does not include the FedNow Service or the system used for automated clearing house transfers.
</P>
<P><I>Off-line bank.</I> Most Fedwire payment orders are sent electronically from a sender to a Federal Reserve Bank or from a Federal Reserve Bank to a receiving bank. Banks that send payment orders to Federal Reserve Banks electronically are often referred to as on-line banks. Some Fedwire Funds Service participants, however, send payment orders to a Federal Reserve Bank or receive payment orders from a Federal Reserve Bank orally by telephone or, in unusual circumstances, in writing. A bank that does not use either a terminal or a computer that links it electronically to a terminal or computer at its Federal Reserve Bank to send payment orders through the Fedwire Funds Service is an off-line bank.
</P>
<P><I>Payment Order.</I> (1) The definition of “payment order” in subpart B of this part differs from the section 4A-103(a)(1) definition. The subpart B definition clarifies that, for the purposes of subpart B of this part, the term includes only instructions transmitted through the Fedwire Funds Service. For example, instructions transmitted through the FedNow Service would be governed by subpart C of this part, and not subpart B of this part. Additionally, the subpart B definition provides that certain messages that are transmitted through the Fedwire Funds Service are not payment orders. Federal Reserve Banks and banks participating in the Fedwire Funds Service send various types of messages relating to payment orders or to other matters, through the Fedwire Funds Service, that are not intended to be payment orders. In some cases, messages sent through the Fedwire Funds Service, such as certain requests for credit transfer, may be payment orders under Article 4A, but are not treated as payment orders under subpart B because they are not an instruction to a Federal Reserve Bank to pay or cause another bank to pay money. Under the subpart B definition, these messages are not “payment orders” governed by subpart B of this part. The operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks may specify those messages that may be transmitted through the Fedwire Funds Service but that are not payment orders.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B of this part, including its incorporation of Article 4A, governs a payment order even though the originator's or beneficiary's account may be a consumer account established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Under section 4A-108, Article 4A does not apply to a funds transfer any part of which is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act. That act and Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) implementing it do not apply to funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service (see 15 U.S.C. 1693a(7)(B) and 12 CFR 1005.3(c)(3)), except that section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act may govern a Fedwire funds transfer that is a “remittance transfer.” Such remittance transfers that are Fedwire funds transfers continue to be governed by subpart B. Thus, subpart B applies to all funds transfers through the Fedwire Funds Service even though some such transfers involve originators or beneficiaries who are consumers. (<I>See</I> also § 210.25(b) and accompanying commentary.)


</P>
<HD2>Section 210.27—Reliance on Identifying Number 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank.</I> Section 4A-208 provides that a receiving bank, such as a Federal Reserve Bank, may rely on the routing number of an intermediary bank or the beneficiary's bank specified in a payment order as identifying the appropriate intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank, even if the payment order identifies another bank by name, provided that the receiving bank does not know of the inconsistency. Under section 4A-208(b)(2), if the sender of the payment order is not a bank, a receiving bank may rely on the number only if the sender had notice before the receiving bank accepted the sender's order that the receiving bank might rely on the number. This section provides this notice to entities that are not banks, such as the Department of the Treasury, that send payment orders directly to a Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify beneficiary.</I> Section 4A-207 provides that a beneficiary's bank, such as a Federal Reserve Bank, may rely on the number identifying a beneficiary, such as the beneficiary's account number, specified in a payment order as identifying the appropriate beneficiary, even if the payment order identifies another beneficiary by name, provided that the beneficiary's bank does not know of the inconsistency. Under section 4A-207(c)(2), if the originator is not a bank, an originator is not obliged to pay for a payment order if the originator did not have notice that the beneficiary's bank might rely on the identifying number and the person paid on the basis of the identifying number was not entitled to receive payment. This section of subpart B provides this notice to entities that are not banks, such as the Department of the Treasury, that are originators of payment orders sent directly by the originators to a Federal Reserve Bank, where that Federal Reserve Bank or another Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary's bank (<I>see also</I> section 4A-402(b), providing that a sender must pay a beneficiary's bank for a payment order accepted by the beneficiary's bank). 


</P>
<HD2>Section 210.28—Agreement of Sender 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of sender's obligation to a Federal Reserve Bank.</I> When a sender sends a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank and the Federal Reserve Bank accepts the payment order by issuing a conforming order executing the sender's payment order, under section 4A-402 the sender is indebted to the Federal Reserve Bank for the amount of the payment order. Section 4A-403 specifies the various methods by which a sender may settle the obligation under section 4A-402. With respect to a payment order sent through the Fedwire Funds Service, the obligation of a sender (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) is settled by a debit to the account of the sender at a Federal Reserve Bank. Section 210.28(a) provides that a sender, other than a Federal Reserve Bank, that maintains or uses an account at a Federal Reserve Bank authorizes the Federal Reserve Bank to debit that account so that the Federal Reserve Bank can obtain payment for the payment order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overdrafts.</I> (1) In some cases, debits to a sender's account will create an overdraft in the sender's account. The Board and the Federal Reserve Banks have established policies concerning when a Federal Reserve Bank will permit a bank to incur an overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank. These policies do not give a bank or other sender a right to an overdraft in its account. Subpart B clarifies that a sender does not have a right to such an overdraft. If an overdraft arises, it becomes immediately due and payable at the earliest of the following times: The end of the Fedwire Funds Service funds-transfer business day; the time the Federal Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice to the sender; or the time that the sender suspends payments or is closed by governmental action, such as the appointment of a receiver. In some cases, a Federal Reserve Bank extends its Fedwire Funds Service operations beyond the standard cut-off time for that funds-transfer business day. For the purposes of this section, unless otherwise specified by the Federal Reserve Bank making such an extension, an overdraft becomes due and payable at the end of the extended operating hours. An overdraft becomes due and payable prior to a Federal Reserve Bank's cut-off time if the Federal Reserve Bank deems itself insecure and gives notice to the sender. A Federal Reserve Bank that deems itself insecure may give such notice in accordance with the provisions on notice in section 1-202(d) of the UCC, in accordance with any other applicable law or agreement, or by any other reasonable means. An overdraft also becomes due and payable at the time that a bank is closed or suspends payments. For example, an overdraft becomes due and payable if a receiver is appointed for the bank or the bank is prevented from making payments by governmental order. The Federal Reserve Bank need not make demand on the sender for the overdraft to become due and payable.
</P>
<P>(2) A sender must cover any overdraft and any other obligation of the sender to the Federal Reserve Bank by the time the overdraft becomes due and payable. By sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank, the sender grants a security interest to the Federal Reserve Bank in all of the assets of the sender possessed or controlled by, or held for the account of, the Federal Reserve Bank in order to secure all obligations due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank. The security interest attaches when the overdraft, or other obligation of the sender to the Federal Reserve Bank, becomes due and payable. The security interest does not apply to assets held by the sender as custodian or trustee for the sender's customers or third parties. Once an overdraft is due and payable, a Federal Reserve Bank may exercise its right of setoff, liquidate collateral, or take other similar action to satisfy the obligation the sender owes to the Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of payment orders.</I> (1) Under section 4A-204, a receiving bank is required to refund the principal amount of an unauthorized payment order that the sender was not obliged to pay, together with interest on the refundable amount calculated from the date that the receiving bank received payment to the date of the refund. The sender is not entitled to compensation in the form of interest if the sender fails to exercise ordinary care to determine that the order was not authorized and to notify the receiving bank within a reasonable period of time after the sender receives a notice that the payment order was accepted or that the sender's account was debited with respect to the order. Similarly, under section 4A-304, if a sender of a payment order that was erroneously executed does not notify the bank receiving the payment order within a reasonable time, the bank is not liable to the sender for compensation in the form of interest on any amount refundable to the sender. Section 210.28(c) establishes 30 calendar days as the reasonable period of time for the purposes of these provisions of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 4A-505 provides that, in order for a customer to assert a claim objecting to a debit to its account by a receiving bank, the customer must notify the receiving bank of its objection within one year after the customer received notification reasonably identifying the payment order. Subpart B of this part does not vary this one-year claim preclusion period.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.29—Agreement of Receiving Bank
</HD2>
<P>(b) <I>Off-line banks.</I> (1) Generally, an on-line bank receiving payment orders or advices of credit for payment orders from a Federal Reserve Bank receives the payment orders or advices electronically a short time after the corresponding payment orders are received by the on-line bank's Federal Reserve Bank. An off-line bank receiving payment orders or advices of credit from a Federal Reserve Bank does not have an electronic connection with the Federal Reserve Bank; therefore, payment orders or advices are transmitted either by telephone on the day the payment order is received by the receiving bank's Federal Reserve Bank, or sent by courier or mail along with the off-line bank's daily account statement, on the funds-transfer business day following the day the payment order is received by the off-line bank's Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Under section 4A-302(a)(2), a Federal Reserve Bank must transmit payment orders at a time and by means reasonably necessary to allow payment to the beneficiary on the payment date, or as soon thereafter as is feasible. Therefore, where an off-line receiving bank is an intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank in a payment order, its Federal Reserve Bank attempts to transmit the payment order to the off-line bank by telephone on the day the payment order is received by the Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank can generally identify these payment orders from the type code designated in the payment order.
</P>
<P>(3) Under section 4A-404(b), if a payment order instructs payment to the account of the beneficiary, the beneficiary's bank must notify the beneficiary of the receipt of a payment order before midnight of the next funds-transfer business day following the payment date. Where an off-line bank is the beneficiary of a payment order, telephone notice by a Federal Reserve Bank to the off-line bank of the receipt of the order is not required by Article 4A because the Federal Reserve Bank sends notice to the off-line bank by courier or mail, along with its daily account statement, on the day after the payment order is received by its Federal Reserve Bank. Payment orders for which an off-line bank is the beneficiary of the order are generally designated as settlement transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) If an off-line receiving bank maintains an account for another bank, the off-line bank may receive payment orders designated as settlement transactions in its capacity as beneficiary's bank or intermediary bank. A Federal Reserve Bank cannot readily distinguish these payment orders from settlement transactions for which the off-line bank is the beneficiary of the order. If an off-line bank notifies its Federal Reserve Bank that it maintains an account for another bank, the Federal Reserve Bank will attempt to telephone the off-line bank with respect to all settlement transactions received by such bank, whether the off-line bank is the beneficiary, the beneficiary's bank, or an intermediary bank in the payment order. Under this section, an off-line bank that does not expressly notify its Federal Reserve Bank in writing that it maintains an account for another bank warrants to that Federal Reserve Bank that it does not act as an intermediary bank or a beneficiary's bank for a bank beneficiary with respect to payment orders received through Fedwire.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.30—Payment Orders 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Rejection.</I> (1) A sender must make arrangements with its Federal Reserve Bank before it can send payment orders to the Federal Reserve Bank. Federal Reserve Banks reserve the right to reject or impose conditions on the acceptance of payment orders for any reason. For example, a Federal Reserve Bank might reject or impose conditions on accepting a payment order where a sender does not have sufficient funds in its account with the Federal Reserve Bank to cover the amount of the sender's payment order and other obligations of the sender due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank may require a sender to execute a written agreement concerning security procedures or other matters before the sender may send payment orders to the Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection of an intermediary bank.</I> (1) Under section 4A-302, if a receiving bank (other than a beneficiary's bank), such as a Federal Reserve Bank, accepts a payment order, it must issue a payment order that complies with the sender's order. The sender's order may include instructions concerning an intermediary bank to be used that must be followed by a receiving bank (<I>see</I> section 4A-302(a)(1)). If the sender does not designate any intermediary bank in its payment order, the receiving bank may select an intermediary bank through which the sender's payment order can be expeditiously issued to the beneficiary's bank so long as the receiving bank exercises ordinary care in selecting the intermediary bank (<I>see</I> section 4A-302(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) This section provides that in an interdistrict transfer, a Federal Reserve Bank is authorized and directed to select another Federal Reserve Bank as an intermediary bank. A sender may, however, instruct a Federal Reserve Bank to use a particular intermediary bank by designating that bank as the bank to be credited by that Federal Reserve Bank (or the second Federal Reserve Bank in the case of an interdistrict transfer) in its payment order, in which case the Federal Reserve Bank will send the payment order to that bank if that bank receives payment orders through the Fedwire Funds Service. A sender may not instruct a Federal Reserve Bank to use its discretion to select an intermediary bank other than a Federal Reserve Bank or an intermediary bank designated by the sender. In addition, a sender may not send a payment order through the Fedwire Funds Service that instructs a Federal Reserve Bank to use a funds-transfer system or means of transmission other than the Fedwire Funds Service unless the sender and the Federal Reserve Bank agree in writing to the use of that funds-transfer system or means of transmission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Execution date and payment date.</I> Generally, the Fedwire Funds Service is a same-day value transfer system through which funds may be transferred from the originator to the beneficiary on the same funds-transfer business day. A sender may not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that specifies an execution date or payment date later than the day on which the payment order is issued, unless the sender of the order and the Federal Reserve Bank agree in writing to the arrangement.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.31—Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Receiving Bank or Beneficiary 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Payment to a receiving bank.</I> (1) Under section 4A-402, when a Federal Reserve Bank executes a sender's payment order by issuing a conforming order to a receiving bank that accepts the payment order, the Federal Reserve Bank must pay the receiving bank the amount of the payment order. Section 210.29(a) authorizes a Federal Reserve Bank to make the payment by crediting the account at the Federal Reserve Bank maintained or used by the receiving bank. Section 210.31(a) provides that the payment occurs when the receiving bank's account is credited or when the payment order is sent by the Federal Reserve Bank to the receiving bank, whichever is earlier. Ordinarily, payment will occur during the funds-transfer business day a short time after the payment order is received, even if the receiving bank is an off-line bank. This credit is final and irrevocable when made and constitutes final settlement under section 4A-403. Payment does not waive a Federal Reserve Bank's right of recovery under the applicable law of mistake and restitution (<I>see</I> § 210.32(c)), affect a Federal Reserve Bank's right to apply the funds to any obligation due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank, or affect legal process or claims by third parties on the funds.
</P>
<P>(2) This section on final payment does not apply to settlement for payment orders between Federal Reserve Banks. These payment orders are settled by other means. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment to a beneficiary.</I> Section 210.31(b) specifies when a Federal Reserve Bank makes payment to a beneficiary for which it is the beneficiary's bank. As in the case of payment to a receiving bank, this payment occurs at the earlier of the time that the Federal Reserve Bank credits the beneficiary's account or sends notice of the credit to the beneficiary, and is final and irrevocable when made.


</P>
<HD2>Section 210.32—Federal Reserve Bank Liability; Payment of Compensation 
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Damages.</I> (1) Under section 4A-305(d), damages for failure of a receiving bank to execute a payment order that it was obligated to execute by express agreement are limited to expenses in the transaction and incidental expenses and interest and do not include additional damages, including consequential damages, unless they are provided for in an express written agreement of the receiving bank. This section clarifies that in connection with the handling of payment orders, Federal Reserve Banks may not agree to be liable for consequential damages under this provision and shall not be liable for damages other than those that may be due under Article 4A to parties governed by this subpart. Any agreement in conflict with these provisions would not be effective, because it would be in violation of subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not affect the ability of other parties to a funds transfer to agree to be liable for consequential damages, the liability of a Federal Reserve Bank under section 4A-404 (relating to obligation of beneficiary's bank to pay and give notice to beneficiary), or the liability to parties governed by subpart B for claims not based on the handling of a payment order under subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of compensation.</I> (1) Under article 4A, a Federal Reserve Bank may be required to pay compensation in the form of interest to another party in connection with its handling of a funds transfer. For example, payment of compensation in the form of interest is required in certain situations pursuant to sections 4A-204 (relating to refund of payment and duty of customer to report with respect to unauthorized payment order), 4A-209 (relating to acceptance of payment order), 4A-210 (relating to rejection of payment order), 4A-304 (relating to duty of sender to report erroneously executed payment order), 4A-305 (relating to liability for late or improper execution or failure to execute a payment order), 4A-402 (relating to obligation of sender to pay receiving bank), and 4A-404 (relating to obligation of beneficiary's bank to pay and give notice to beneficiary).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 210.32(b) requires Federal Reserve Banks to provide compensation through payment in the form of interest. Under section 4A-506(a), the amount of such interest may be determined by agreement between the sender and receiving bank or by funds-transfer system rule. If there is no such agreement, under section 4A-506(b), the amount of interest is based on the Federal funds rate. Similarly, compensation in the form of interest will be paid to government senders, receiving banks, or beneficiaries described in § 210.25(d) if they are entitled to interest under subpart B. A Federal Reserve Bank may also, in its discretion, pay compensation in the form of interest directly to a remote party to a Fedwire funds transfer that is entitled to interest, rather than providing compensation to its sender or receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(3) If a sender or receiving bank that received a payment of compensation is not the party entitled to compensation under Article 4A, the sender or receiving bank must pass the benefit of the payment made to it to the party that is entitled to compensation. The benefit may be passed on either in the form of a direct payment of interest or in the form of a compensating balance if the party entitled to interest agrees to accept the other form of compensation. In the latter case, the value of the compensating balance must be at least equivalent to the value of the interest payment that otherwise would have been provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonwaiver of right of recovery.</I> Several sections of Article 4A allow a party to a funds transfer to make a claim pursuant to the applicable law of mistake and restitution. Nothing in subpart B of this part or any operating circular issued in accordance with subpart B of this part waives any such claim by a Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank, however, may waive such a claim by express written agreement in order to settle litigation or for other purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 40801, Oct. 5, 1990; 55 FR 47428, Nov. 13, 1990, as amended by Reg. J, 77 FR 21859, Apr. 12, 2012; 83 FR 61517, 61522, Nov. 30, 2018; 87 FR 34359, June 6, 2022] 



 




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Funds Transfers Through the FedNow Service</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. J, 87 FR 34362, June 6, 2022, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 210.40" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.40   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> This subpart provides rules to govern funds transfers through the FedNow Service, and has been issued pursuant to the Federal Reserve Act—section 13 (12 U.S.C. 342), paragraph (f) of section 19 (12 U.S.C. 464), paragraph 14 of section 16 (12 U.S.C. 248(o)), and paragraphs (i) and (j) of section 11 (12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (j))—and other laws and has the force and effect of Federal law. This subpart is not a funds-transfer system rule as defined in Section 4A-501(b) of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart incorporates the provisions of Article 4A set forth in appendix A of this part. In the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of the sections of this subpart and appendix A of this part, the provisions of the sections of this subpart shall prevail.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section, this subpart, including Article 4A as incorporated herein and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, governs the rights and obligations of the following parties with respect to the FedNow Service:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal Reserve Banks that send or receive payment orders;
</P>
<P>(ii) Senders that send payment orders directly to a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receiving banks that receive payment orders directly from a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) Beneficiaries that receive payment for payment orders by means of credit to the beneficiary's settlement account; and
</P>
<P>(v) Other parties to a funds transfer any part of which is carried out through the FedNow Service to the same extent as if this subpart were considered a funds-transfer system rule under Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal Reserve Bank that is not the sender's Federal Reserve Bank, receiving bank's Federal Reserve Bank, or beneficiary's Federal Reserve Bank is not a party to the funds transfer for purposes of this subpart and Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(4) This subpart governs a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service, even if a portion of the funds transfer is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, but in the event of an inconsistency between the provisions this subpart and the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, the Electronic Fund Transfer Act shall prevail to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operating Circulars.</I> Each Federal Reserve Bank shall issue an Operating Circular consistent with this subpart that governs the details of its funds-transfer operations in connection with the FedNow Service and other matters it deems appropriate. Among other things, the Operating Circular may: set cut-off times and funds-transfer business days; address security procedures offered by the Federal Reserve Banks to verify the authenticity of a payment order; specify format and media requirements for payment orders; specify the time and method of receipt, execution, and acceptance of a payment order and settlement of a Federal Reserve Bank's payment obligation for purposes of Article 4A; prescribe time limits for the processing of payment orders; specify service terms governing ancillary features of the FedNow Service; provide for the acceptance of documents in electronic form to the extent any provision in Article 4A requires an agreement or other document to be in writing; identify messages that are not payment orders; and impose charges for funds-transfer services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government senders, receiving banks, and beneficiaries.</I> Except as otherwise expressly provided by the statutes of the United States, the parties specified in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) through (v) of this section include a department, agency, instrumentality, independent establishment, or office of the United States, or a wholly-owned or controlled government corporation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial messaging standards.</I> Financial messaging standards (<I>e.g.,</I> ISO 20022), including the financial messaging components, elements, technical documentation, tags, and terminology used to implement those standards, do not confer or connote legal status or responsibilities. This subpart, including Article 4A as incorporated herein, and the operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks issued in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section govern the rights and obligations of parties to funds transfers sent through the FedNow Service as provided in paragraph (b) of this section. To the extent there is any inconsistency between a financial messaging standard adopted by the Federal Reserve Banks for the FedNow Service and this subpart, this subpart shall prevail.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.41" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Article 4A</I> means Article 4A of the Uniform Commercial Code as set forth in appendix A of this part, which is incorporated into this subpart in accordance with § 210.40(b).
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that the term is limited to a beneficiary in a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary's bank</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that:
</P>
<P>(1) The term is limited to a beneficiary's bank in a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service;
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal Reserve Bank need not be identified in the payment order in order to be the beneficiary's bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) The term includes a Federal Reserve Bank when that Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary of a payment order.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank</I> with respect to an entity means the Federal Reserve Bank in whose District the entity is located, as determined under the procedure described in Part 204 of this chapter (Regulation D), even if the entity is not otherwise subject to that section, or, if the entity maintains an account on the books of a different Federal Reserve Bank, the Federal Reserve Bank at which the entity maintains an account.
</P>
<P><I>FedNow Service</I> means the funds-transfer system owned and operated by the Federal Reserve Banks to support instant payments that is used primarily for the transmission and settlement of payment orders governed by this subpart. The FedNow Service does not include the Fedwire Funds Service.
</P>
<P><I>Interdistrict transfer</I> means a funds transfer involving entries to settlement accounts maintained at two Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Payment order</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that the term includes only instructions sent or received through the FedNow Service, and does not include automated clearing house transfers or any communication designated as not being a payment order in an Operating Circular issued by a Federal Reserve Bank under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Receiving bank</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that the term is limited to a receiving bank in a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service.
</P>
<P><I>Sender</I> has the same meaning as in Article 4A, except that the term is limited to a sender in a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service.
</P>
<P><I>Sender's settlement account, receiving bank's settlement account,</I> and <I>beneficiary's settlement account</I> mean an account on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank maintained by the sender, receiving bank, or beneficiary, respectively. The term also includes any account on a Federal Reserve Bank's books used with respect to the FedNow Service by the sender, receiving bank, or beneficiary, respectively, by agreement with its Federal Reserve Bank, any other Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained, and the account-holder.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.42" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.42   Reliance on identifying number.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify a beneficiary's bank.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank that receives a payment order from a sender containing a number that identifies the beneficiary's bank may rely on the number, even if it identifies a bank different from the bank identified by name in the payment order, if the Federal Reserve Bank does not know of such an inconsistency in identification. A Federal Reserve Bank has no duty to detect any such inconsistency in identification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify beneficiary.</I> A Federal Reserve Bank, acting as a beneficiary's bank, that receives a payment order from a sender containing a number that identifies the beneficiary may rely on the number, even if it identifies a person different from the person identified by name in the payment order, if the Federal Reserve Bank does not know of such an inconsistency in identification. A Federal Reserve Bank has no duty to detect any such inconsistency in identification.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.43" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.43   Agreement of sender.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of sender's obligation to a Federal Reserve Bank.</I> A sender (other than a Federal Reserve Bank), by maintaining or using a settlement account with a Federal Reserve Bank, authorizes the sender's Federal Reserve Bank to obtain payment for the sender's payment orders by debiting, or causing any other Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained to debit, the amount of the payment order from the settlement account. The sender remains responsible for payment if the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained does not, for any reason, obtain payment by debiting that account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overdrafts.</I> (1) A sender does not have the right to an overdraft in its settlement account. In the event an overdraft is created, the overdraft shall be due and payable immediately, without the need for a demand by the Federal Reserve Bank, at the earliest of the following times:
</P>
<P>(i) At the end of the FedNow funds-transfer business day;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the Federal Reserve Bank, in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice thereof to the sender; or
</P>
<P>(iii) At the time the sender suspends payments or is closed.
</P>
<P>(2) The sender shall have in its settlement account, at the time the overdraft is due and payable, a balance of actually and finally collected funds sufficient to cover the aggregate amount of all its obligations to the Federal Reserve Bank, whether the obligations result from the acceptance of a payment order or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) To secure any overdraft, as well as any other obligation due or to become due to its Federal Reserve Bank, a sender, by sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that is accepted by the Federal Reserve Bank, grants to the Federal Reserve Bank a security interest in all of its assets in the possession or control of, or held for the account of, the Federal Reserve Bank. The security interest attaches when an overdraft, or any other obligation to the Federal Reserve Bank, becomes due and payable.
</P>
<P>(4) A Federal Reserve Bank may take any action authorized by law to recover the amount of an overdraft that is due and payable, including, but not limited to, the exercise of rights of set off, the realization on any available collateral, and any other rights it may have as a creditor under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(5) If a sender, other than a government sender described in § 210.40(d), incurs an overdraft in its settlement account as a result of a debit to the account by a Federal Reserve Bank under paragraph (a) of this section, the settlement account will be subject to any applicable overdraft charges, regardless of whether the overdraft has become due and payable. A Federal Reserve Bank may debit the settlement account under paragraph (a) of this section immediately on acceptance of the payment order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of payment orders.</I> A sender, by sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank, agrees that for the purposes of sections 4A-204(a) and 4A-304 of Article 4A, a reasonable time to notify a Federal Reserve Bank of the relevant facts concerning an unauthorized or erroneously executed payment order is within 60 calendar days after the sender receives notice that the payment order was accepted or that the sender's settlement account was debited with respect to the payment order.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.44" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.44   Agreement of receiving bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment.</I> A receiving bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) that receives a payment order from its Federal Reserve Bank authorizes that Federal Reserve Bank to pay for the payment order by crediting, or causing any other Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained to credit, the amount of the payment order to the settlement account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funds availability.</I> (1) A beneficiary's bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) that accepts a payment order over the FedNow Service is obliged to pay the amount of the order to the beneficiary of the order immediately after its acceptance of the payment order, by crediting an account of the beneficiary in accordance with section 4A-405(a) of Article 4A. The rights and obligations with respect to the availability of funds are also governed by the Expedited Funds Availability Act and the Board's Regulation CC, Availability of Funds and Collection of Checks.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or any Operating Circular issued hereunder shall create any rights that the beneficiary or any party other than a Federal Reserve Bank may assert against the beneficiary's bank, or affect any liability of the beneficiary's bank to the beneficiary or any party other than a Federal Reserve Bank under Article 4A or other law.
</P>
<P>(3) In circumstances where the beneficiary's bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) has reasonable cause to believe that the beneficiary is not entitled or permitted to receive payment, the beneficiary's bank may notify its Federal Reserve Bank that it requires additional time to determine whether to accept the payment order. In the event the beneficiary's bank gives such notice to its Federal Reserve Bank, for purposes of this subpart and Article 4A the beneficiary's bank does not accept the payment order upon its receipt of payment in the amount of the payment order by a Federal Reserve Bank.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.45" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.45   Payment orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rejection.</I> A sender shall not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank unless authorized to do so by the Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank may reject, or impose conditions that must be satisfied before it will accept, a payment order for any reason.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection of an intermediary bank.</I> For an interdistrict transfer through the FedNow Service, a Federal Reserve Bank is authorized and directed to execute a payment order through another Federal Reserve Bank. A sender shall not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that requires the Federal Reserve Bank to send a payment order to an intermediary bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank). A sender shall not send to a Federal Reserve Bank a payment order through the FedNow Service that instructs use by a Federal Reserve Bank of a funds-transfer system or means of transmission other than the FedNow Service, unless the Federal Reserve Bank agrees with the sender in writing to follow such instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Execution date and payment date.</I> A sender shall not issue a payment order through the FedNow Service that instructs a Federal Reserve Bank to execute the payment order or to pay the beneficiary on a FedNow funds-transfer business day that is later than the funds-transfer business day on which the order is received by the Federal Reserve Bank, unless the Federal Reserve Bank agrees with the sender in writing to follow such instructions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.46" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.46   Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a receiving bank or beneficiary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment to a receiving bank.</I> Payment of a Federal Reserve Bank's obligation to pay a receiving bank (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) occurs at the earlier of the time when the amount of the payment order is credited to the receiving bank's settlement account or when the payment order is sent to the receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment to a beneficiary.</I> Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a beneficiary of a payment order, where the Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary's bank, occurs at the earlier of the time when the amount of the payment order is credited to the beneficiary's settlement account or when notice of the credit is sent to the beneficiary.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 210.47" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 210.47   Federal Reserve Bank liability; payment of compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Damages.</I> In connection with its handling of a payment order under this subpart, a Federal Reserve Bank shall not be liable to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or other Federal Reserve Bank, governed by this subpart, for any damages other than those payable under Article 4A. A Federal Reserve Bank shall not agree to be liable to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or other Federal Reserve Bank for consequential damages under section 4A-305(d) of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of compensation.</I> (1) A Federal Reserve Bank shall satisfy its obligation, or that of another Federal Reserve Bank, to pay compensation in the form of interest under Article 4A by paying such compensation to a sender, receiving bank, beneficiary, or another party to the funds transfer that is entitled to such payment in an amount that is calculated in accordance with section 4A-506 of Article 4A.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sender or receiving bank that is the recipient of the payment of compensation is not the party entitled to compensation under Article 4A, the sender or receiving bank shall pass through the benefit of the compensation by making an interest payment, as of the day the compensation was paid by the Federal Reserve Bank, to the party entitled to compensation. The interest payment that is made to the party entitled to compensation shall not be less than the value of the compensation that was paid by the Federal Reserve Bank to the sender or receiving bank. The party entitled to compensation may agree to accept compensation in a form other than a direct interest payment, provided that such an alternative form of compensation is not less than the value of the interest payment that otherwise would be made.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonwaiver of right of recovery.</I> Nothing in this subpart or any operating circular issued hereunder shall constitute, or be construed as constituting, a waiver by a Federal Reserve Bank of a cause of action for recovery under any applicable law of mistake and restitution.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.3.3.9.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart C of Part 210—Commentary
</HEAD>
<P>The Commentary provides background material to explain the intent of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) in adopting a particular provision in the subpart and to help readers interpret that provision. In some comments, examples are offered. The Commentary constitutes an official Board interpretation of subpart C of this part. Commentary is not provided for every provision of subpart C of this part, as some provisions are self-explanatory.
</P>
<HD2>Section 210.40—Authority, Purpose, and Scope
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> Section 210.40(a) states that the purpose of subpart C of this part is to provide rules to govern funds transfers through the FedNow Service and recites the Board's rulemaking authority for this subpart. Subpart C of this part is Federal law and is not a “funds-transfer system rule,” as defined in section 4A-501(b) of Article 4A, Funds Transfers, of the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), as set forth in appendix A of this part. Certain provisions of Article 4A may not be varied by a funds-transfer system rule, but under section 4A-107, regulations of the Board and Operating Circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks supersede inconsistent provisions of Article 4A to the extent of the inconsistency. In addition, regulations of the Board may preempt inconsistent provisions of state law. Accordingly, subpart C of this part supersedes or preempts inconsistent provisions of state law. It does not affect state law governing funds transfers that does not conflict with the provisions of subpart C of this part, such as Article 4A, as enacted in any state, as such state law may apply to parties to funds transfers through the FedNow Service whose rights and obligations are not governed by subpart C of this part.
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<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Subpart C of this part incorporates the provisions of Article 4A set forth in appendix A of this part. The provisions set forth expressly in the sections of subpart C of this part supersede or preempt any inconsistent provisions of Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part or as enacted in any state. The official comments to Article 4A are not incorporated in subpart C of this part or this commentary to subpart C of this part, but the official comments may be useful in interpreting Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part. Because section 4A-105 refers to other provisions of the Uniform Commercial Code (<I>e.g.,</I> definitions in article 1 of the UCC), these other provisions of the UCC, as approved by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, which is now also known as the Uniform Law Commission, and the American Law Institute, from time to time, are also incorporated into subpart C of this part. Subpart C of this part applies to any party to a funds transfer sent through the FedNow Service that is in privity with a Federal Reserve Bank. These parties include a sender (bank or nonbank) that sends a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service, a receiving bank that receives a payment order from a Federal Reserve Bank, and a beneficiary that receives credit to an account that it uses or maintains at a Federal Reserve Bank as payment for a payment order accepted by a Federal Reserve Bank. Subpart C of this part also applies to Federal Reserve Banks that send or receive payment orders over the FedNow Service. For example, if a sender settles its activity over the FedNow Service in the account of a correspondent bank, the sender's Federal Reserve Bank would be a bank in the funds transfer chain, but the Federal Reserve Bank of the correspondent bank would not be a sender or receiving bank with respect to the payment order and would not be a party to the funds transfer. Other parties to a funds transfer sent through the FedNow Service are covered by this subpart to the same extent that this subpart would apply to them if this subpart were a “funds-transfer system rule” under Article 4A that selected subpart C of this part as the governing law.
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<P>(2) The scope of the applicability of a funds-transfer system rule under Article 4A is specified in section 4A-501(b), and the scope of the choice of law provision is specified in section 4A-507(c). Under section 4A-507(c), a choice of law provision is binding on the participants in a funds-transfer system and certain other parties having notice that the funds-transfer system might be used for the funds transfer and of the choice of law provision. The Uniform Commercial Code provides that a person has notice of a fact when the person has actual knowledge of it, receives a notice or notification of it, or has reason to know that it exists from all the facts and circumstances known to the person at the time in question. (<I>See</I> UCC sec. 1-202.) However, under sections 4A-507(b) and 4A-507(d), a choice of law by agreement of the parties takes precedence over a choice of law made by funds-transfer system rule.
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<P>(3) With respect to funds transfers sent through the FedNow Service, if originators and beneficiaries that are not in privity with a Federal Reserve Bank have the notice contemplated by Section 4A-507(c) or if those parties agree to be bound by subpart C of this part, subpart C of this part generally would apply to those remote parties. If remote parties to a funds transfer, a portion of which is sent through the FedNow Service, have expressly selected by agreement a law other than subpart C of this part under section 4A-507(b), subpart C of this part would not take precedence over the choice of law made by the agreement even though the remote parties had notice that the FedNow Service may be used and of the governing law. (<I>See</I> 4A-507(d).) In addition, subpart C of this part would not apply to a funds transfer sent through a funds-transfer system other than the FedNow Service, even though settlement for the funds transfer is made by means of a separate funds transfer through the FedNow Service.
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<P>(4) Under section 4A-108, Article 4A does not apply to a funds transfer, any part of which is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (EFTA) (15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>). A funds transfer from a consumer originator or a funds transfer to a consumer beneficiary could be carried out through the FedNow Service and could potentially be subject to the EFTA and Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) implementing it. If so, the funds transfer continues to also be governed by subpart C, except that, in the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of subpart C and the EFTA, the EFTA shall prevail to the extent of the inconsistency. (See also the commentary to section 210.41 in this appendix, “Payment Order.”) For example, a funds transfer may be initiated from a consumer's account at a depository institution, and the depository institution may execute that payment order by sending a conforming payment order to a Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service. If that transfer is subject to the EFTA, then examples of how the provisions of subpart C may govern the transfer include, but are not limited to, the following:
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<P>(i) Where the consumer subsequently gives timely notice that the transfer was an unauthorized electronic fund transfer to its depository institution and exercises the right to obtain a refund under the EFTA, the depository institution would be required to comply with the EFTA and the applicable provisions of the EFTA would govern the institution's obligations to its customer, even if under subpart C the institution does not have a right to receive a refund or reverse the payment order sent to the Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service.
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<P>(ii) Where the customer properly asserts an error under the EFTA with respect to the transfer and exercises the right to obtain a refund to correct the error under the EFTA, the depository institution would be required to comply with the EFTA and the applicable provisions of the EFTA would govern the institution's obligations to its customer, even if under subpart C the institution is obliged to pay its payment order sent to the Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service.
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<P>(c) <I>Operating Circulars.</I> The Federal Reserve Banks issue Operating Circulars consistent with this subpart that contain additional provisions applicable to payment orders and other messages sent through the FedNow Service. Under section 4A-107, this Operating Circular supersedes inconsistent provisions of Article 4A, both as set forth in appendix A of this part and as enacted in any state. These Operating Circulars are not funds-transfer system rules, but, by their terms, they are binding on all parties covered by this subpart.
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<P>(d) <I>Government senders, receiving banks, and beneficiaries.</I> This section clarifies that unless a statute of the United States provides otherwise, subpart C of this part applies to governmental entities.
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<P>(e) <I>Financial messaging standards.</I> This paragraph makes clear that financial messaging standards, including the financial messaging components, elements, technical documentation, tags, and terminology used to implement those standards, do not confer or connote legal status or responsibilities. Instead, subpart C of this part and Federal Reserve Bank operating circulars govern the rights and obligations of parties to funds transfers sent through the FedNow Service as provided in § 210.40(b). Thus, to the extent there is any inconsistency between a financial messaging standard adopted by the FedNow Service and subpart C of this part, subpart C of this part, including Article 4A as set forth in appendix A of this part, will prevail. In the ISO 20022 financial messaging standard, for example, the term agent is used to refer to a variety of bank parties to a funds transfer (<I>e.g., debtor agent, creditor agent, intermediary agent</I>). Notwithstanding use of that term in the standard and in message tags, such banks are not the agents of any party to a funds transfer and owe no duty to any other party to such a funds transfer except as provided in subpart C of this part (including Article 4A) or by express agreement. The ISO 20022 financial messaging standard also permits information to be carried in a funds-transfer message regarding persons that are not parties to that funds transfer (<I>e.g., ultimate debtor, ultimate creditor, initiating party</I>) for regulatory, compliance, remittance, or other purposes. An “ultimate debtor” is not an “originator” as defined in Article 4A. The relationship between the ultimate debtor and the originator (what the ISO 20022 standard calls the “debtor”) is determined by law other than Article 4A.
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<HD2>Section 210.41— Definitions
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<P>Article 4A defines many terms (<I>e.g., beneficiary, intermediary bank, receiving bank, security procedure</I>) used in this subpart. These terms are defined or listed in sections 4A-103 through 4A-105. These terms, such as the term bank (defined in section 4A-105(d)(2)), may differ from comparable terms in subpart A and subpart B of this part. As subpart C of this part incorporates consistent provisions of Article 4A, it incorporates these definitions unless these terms are expressly defined otherwise in subpart C of this part. This subpart modifies the definitions of five Article 4A terms: <I>beneficiary, beneficiary's bank, payment order, receiving bank,</I> and <I>sender</I>. This subpart also defines terms not defined in Article 4A.
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<P><I>Article 4A. Article 4A</I> means the version of that article of the Uniform Commercial Code set forth in appendix A of this part. It does not refer to the law of any particular state unless the context indicates otherwise. Subject to the express provisions of this Subpart, this version of Article 4A is incorporated into this subpart and made Federal law for transactions covered by this subpart. (<I>See</I> § 210.40(b)(1) and accompanying commentary.) Because section 4A-105 refers to other provisions of the Uniform Commercial Code (<I>e.g.,</I> definitions in article 1 of the UCC) these other provisions of the UCC, as approved by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, which is now also known as the Uniform Law Commission, and the American Law Institute, from time to time, are also incorporated in subpart C of this part.
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<P><I>Beneficiary, beneficiary's bank, receiving bank,</I> and <I>sender.</I> The definitions of “beneficiary,” “beneficiary's bank,” “receiving bank,” and “sender” in subpart C of this part differ from the definitions in sections 4A-103(a)(2)-(4). The subpart C definition clarifies that, for the purposes of subpart C of this part, these terms are limited to parties in a funds transfer that is sent through the FedNow Service. For example, the parties to a funds transfer that is sent through the Fedwire Funds Service would be governed by subpart B of this part, and would not be a “beneficiary,” “beneficiary's bank,” “receiving bank,” or “sender” governed by subpart C. The definition of “beneficiary's bank” in subpart C further clarifies that where a Federal Reserve Bank functions as the beneficiary's bank, it need not be identified in the payment order as the beneficiary's bank and that a Federal Reserve Bank that receives a payment order as beneficiary is also the beneficiary's bank with respect to that payment order.
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<P><I>The FedNow Service.</I> The FedNow Service refers to the funds-transfer system owned and operated by the Federal Reserve Banks to support instant payments that is governed by this Subpart. The term does not refer to any particular computer, telecommunications facility, or funds transfer, but rather to the system as a whole. The FedNow Service does not include the Fedwire Funds Service or the system used for automated clearing house transfers.
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<P><I>Payment Order.</I> (1) The definition of “payment order” in subpart C of this part differs from the section 4A-103(a)(1) definition. The subpart C definition clarifies that, for the purposes of subpart C of this part, the term includes only instructions transmitted through the FedNow Service. For example, instructions transmitted through the Fedwire Funds Service would be governed by subpart B of this part, and not subpart C.
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<P>Additionally, the subpart C definition provides that certain messages that are transmitted through the FedNow Service are not payment orders. Federal Reserve Banks and banks participating in the FedNow Service send various types of messages relating to payment orders or to other matters, through the FedNow Service, that are not intended to be payment orders. In some cases, messages sent through the FedNow Service, such as certain requests for payment, may be payment orders under Article 4A, but are not treated as payment orders under subpart C because they are not an instruction to a Federal Reserve Bank to pay or cause another bank to pay money. Under the subpart C definition, these messages are not “payment orders” governed by this subpart. The operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks may specify those messages that may be transmitted through the FedNow Service but that are not payment orders.
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<P>(2) Subpart C, including its incorporation of Article 4A, governs a payment order even though the originator's or beneficiary's account may be a consumer account established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Under section 4A-108, Article 4A does not apply to a funds transfer any part of which is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act. That Act, and Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) implementing it, may govern a transfer through the FedNow Service that is from a consumer originator or to a consumer beneficiary. In the event that a transfer through the FedNow Service is subject to the EFTA, the transfer continues to also be governed by this subpart, except that, in the event of an inconsistency between the provisions of subpart C and the EFTA, the EFTA shall prevail to the extent of the inconsistency. (See also § 210.40(b) and accompanying commentary.) Thus, this subpart applies to all funds transfers through the FedNow Service even though some such transfers involve originators or beneficiaries that are consumers.
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<P><I>Sender's settlement account, receiving bank's settlement acc</I>ount, and <I>beneficiary's settlement account.</I> A FedNow participant must designate an account on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank that the Federal Reserve Banks may use to settle the participant's activity over the FedNow Service. A FedNow participant may settle its activity over the FedNow Service in its master account. Alternatively, it may designate the account of a correspondent bank that the Federal Reserve Banks may use to settle activity through the service, subject to the correspondent bank's agreement to any such designation.
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<HD2>Section 210.42—Reliance on Identifying Number
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<P>(a) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank.</I> Section 4A-208 provides that a receiving bank, such as a Federal Reserve Bank, may rely on the routing number of an intermediary bank or the beneficiary's bank specified in a payment order as identifying the appropriate intermediary bank or beneficiary's bank, even if the payment order identifies another bank by name, provided that the receiving bank does not know of the inconsistency. Under section 4A-208(b)(2), if the sender of the payment order is not a bank, a receiving bank may rely on the number only if the sender had notice before the receiving bank accepted the sender's order that the receiving bank might rely on the number. This section provides this notice to entities that are not banks, such as the Department of the Treasury, that send payment orders directly to a Federal Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service.
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<P>(b) <I>Reliance by a Federal Reserve Bank on number to identify beneficiary.</I> Section 4A-207 provides that a beneficiary's bank, such as a Federal Reserve Bank, may rely on the number identifying a beneficiary, such as the beneficiary's account number, specified in a payment order as identifying the appropriate beneficiary, even if the payment order identifies another beneficiary by name, provided that the beneficiary's bank does not know of the inconsistency. Under section 4A-207(c)(2), if the originator is not a bank, an originator is not obliged to pay for a payment order if the originator did not have notice that the beneficiary's bank might rely on the identifying number and the person paid on the basis of the identifying number was not entitled to receive payment. This section of subpart C provides this notice to entities that are not banks, such as the Department of the Treasury, that are originators of payment orders sent directly by the originators to a Federal Reserve Bank through the FedNow Service, where that Federal Reserve Bank or another Federal Reserve Bank is the beneficiary's bank (see also section 4A-402(b), providing that a sender must pay a beneficiary's bank for a payment order accepted by the beneficiary's bank).
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<HD2>Section 210.43—Agreement of Sender
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<P>(a) <I>Payment of sender's obligation to a Federal Reserve Bank.</I> When a sender sends a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank and the Federal Reserve Bank accepts the payment order by issuing a conforming order executing the sender's payment order, under section 4A-402, the sender is indebted to the Federal Reserve Bank for the amount of the payment order. Section 4A-403 specifies the various methods by which a sender may settle the obligation under section 4A-402. With respect to a payment order sent through the FedNow Service, the obligation of a sender (other than a Federal Reserve Bank) is settled by a debit to the account of the sender at a Federal Reserve Bank. Section 210.43(a) provides that a sender, other than a Federal Reserve Bank, that maintains or uses a settlement account at a Federal Reserve Bank authorizes its Federal Reserve Bank to debit, or cause any other Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained to debit, that account, so that the Federal Reserve Bank can obtain payment for the payment order.
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<P>(b) <I>Overdrafts.</I> (1) In some cases, debits to a sender's settlement account will create an overdraft in the settlement account. The Board and the Federal Reserve Banks have established policies concerning when a Federal Reserve Bank will permit a bank to incur an overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank. These policies do not give a bank or other sender a right to an overdraft in its account. Subpart C clarifies that a sender does not have a right to such an overdraft. If an overdraft arises, it becomes immediately due and payable at the earliest of the following times: The end of the FedNow funds-transfer business day; the time the Federal Reserve Bank in its sole discretion, deems itself insecure and gives notice to the sender; or the time that the sender suspends payments or is closed by governmental action, such as the appointment of a receiver. In some cases, a Federal Reserve Bank extends its FedNow operations beyond the standard cut-off time for that FedNow funds-transfer business day. For the purposes of this section, unless otherwise specified by the Federal Reserve Bank making such an extension, an overdraft becomes due and payable at the end of the extended operating hours. An overdraft becomes due and payable prior to a Federal Reserve Bank's cut-off time if the Federal Reserve Bank deems itself insecure and gives notice to the sender. A Federal Reserve Bank that deems itself insecure may give such notice in accordance with the provisions on notice in section 1-202(d) of the UCC, in accordance with any other applicable law or agreement, or by any other reasonable means. An overdraft also becomes due and payable at the time that a bank is closed or suspends payments. For example, an overdraft becomes due and payable if a receiver is appointed for the bank or the bank is prevented from making payments by governmental order. The Federal Reserve Bank need not make demand on the sender for the overdraft to become due and payable.
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<P>(2) A sender must cover any overdraft and any other obligation of the sender to the Federal Reserve Bank by the time the overdraft becomes due and payable. By sending a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank, the sender grants a security interest to the Federal Reserve Bank in all of the assets of the sender possessed or controlled by, or held for the account of, the Federal Reserve Bank in order to secure all obligations due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank. The security interest attaches when the overdraft, or other obligation of the sender to the Federal Reserve Bank, becomes due and payable. The security interest does not apply to assets held by the sender as custodian or trustee for the sender's customers or third parties. Once an overdraft is due and payable, a Federal Reserve Bank may exercise its right of set off, liquidate collateral, or take other similar action to satisfy the obligation the sender owes to the Federal Reserve Bank.
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<P>(c) <I>Review of payment orders.</I> (1) Under section 4A-204, a receiving bank is required to refund the principal amount of an unauthorized payment order that the sender was not obliged to pay, together with interest on the refundable amount calculated from the date that the receiving bank received payment to the date of the refund. The sender is not entitled to compensation in the form of interest if the sender fails to exercise ordinary care to determine that the order was not authorized and to notify the receiving bank within a reasonable time after the sender receives a notice that the payment order was accepted or that the sender's account was debited with respect to the order. Similarly, under section 4A-304, if a sender of a payment order that was erroneously executed does not notify the bank receiving the payment order within a reasonable time, the bank is not liable to the sender for compensation in the form of interest on any amount refundable to the sender. Section 210.43(c) establishes 60 calendar days as the reasonable period of time for the purposes of these provisions of Article 4A.
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<P>(2) Section 4A-505 provides that in order for a customer to assert a claim objecting to a debit to its account by a receiving bank, the customer must notify the receiving bank of its objection within one year after the customer received notification reasonably identifying the payment order. Subpart C of this part does not vary this one-year claim preclusion period.
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<HD2>Section 210.44—Agreement of Receiving Bank
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<P>(b) <I>Funds availability.</I> (1) Section 4A-209(b) provides that a beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order at the earliest of certain specified events, including when the bank receives payment for the entire amount of the order from the sender (<I>see</I> section 4A-209(b)(2)). Section 4A-404(a) provides that if a beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order, it is obliged to pay the amount of a payment order to the beneficiary on the payment date unless acceptance of the payment order occurs on the payment date after the close of the funds-transfer business day of the bank. Section 4A-405(a) provides that if a beneficiary's bank pays the beneficiary by crediting an account of the beneficiary on its own books, payment of the bank's obligation under Section 4A-404(a) occurs when and to the extent (i) the bank notifies the beneficiary that it may withdraw the amount of the credit, (ii) the bank lawfully applies the credit to a debt of the beneficiary, or (iii) funds with respect to the payment order are otherwise made available to the beneficiary by the bank.
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<P>(2) Section 210.44(b)(1) provides that if a FedNow participant that is the beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order, it must pay the beneficiary by credit to the beneficiary's account in accordance with section 4A-405(a) of Article 4A, and it must do so immediately after its acceptance of the payment order. This section further clarifies that the provisions of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(a)) and its implementing regulation, Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), also govern. Regulation CC provides that funds received by a bank by an electronic payment shall be available for withdrawal not later than the business day after the banking day on which such funds are received. (12 CFR 229.10(b).) Because Subpart C of this part requires funds to be made available on a more prompt basis than the availability requirements of the Expedited Funds Availability Act and Regulation CC, that act and Regulation CC do not preempt or invalidate subpart C. For example, if a beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order through the FedNow Service at 10 a.m. but does not make funds available to the beneficiary until 5 p.m., the bank has failed to satisfy its obligations under subpart C of this part even if it has satisfied its obligations under Regulation CC.
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<P>(3) Section 210.44(b)(2) clarifies that the obligation for the beneficiary's bank to provide immediate funds availability to the beneficiary under § 210.44(b)(1), and any Operating Circular issued in accordance with subpart C, should not be construed as creating any rights that the beneficiary or any party other than a Federal Reserve Bank may assert against the beneficiary's bank, or affect any liability of the beneficiary's bank to the beneficiary or any party other than a Federal Reserve Bank under Article 4A or other law. In the example above, where the beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order through the FedNow Service at 10 a.m. but does not make funds available to the beneficiary until 5 p.m., the bank has failed to satisfy its obligations under § 210.44(b)(1) but the beneficiary would not have a claim or right to assert against the bank under that provision.
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<P>(4) Section 210.46(a) provides that payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a receiving bank occurs when the receiving bank's settlement account is credited or when the payment order is sent by the Federal Reserve Bank to the receiving bank, whichever is earlier, and would ordinarily be considered acceptance of the payment order by the beneficiary's bank under section 4A-209(b). Section 210.44(b)(3) provides that notwithstanding section 4A-209(b), in certain circumstances a beneficiary's bank is not deemed to accept a payment order at such time as it receives payment from its Federal Reserve Bank. Specifically, where the beneficiary's bank has reasonable cause to believe that the beneficiary is not entitled or permitted to receive payment and the beneficiary's bank notifies its Federal Reserve Bank that it requires additional time to determine whether to accept the payment order, this section provides that for purposes of subpart C and Article 4A, the beneficiary's bank does not accept the payment order even if it has received payment for the entire amount of the order from its Federal Reserve Bank as provided in § 210.46.
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<P>For example, if the beneficiary's bank has reasonable cause to believe that making funds available to the beneficiary may violate applicable U.S. sanctions, the beneficiary's bank may notify its Federal Reserve Bank that it requires additional time to determine whether to accept the payment order, including to investigate if the beneficiary is subject to applicable sanctions. As an additional example, if the beneficiary's bank has reasonable cause to believe that a particular payment order may be related to fraudulent activity, the beneficiary's bank may notify its Federal Reserve Bank that it requires additional time to determine whether to accept the payment order, including to investigate the suspected fraudulent activity. In both examples, in the event the beneficiary's bank gives such notice, the beneficiary's bank would not be deemed to have accepted the payment order at the time it receives payment from its Federal Reserve Bank.
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<HD2>Section 210.45—Payment Orders
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<P>(a) <I>Rejection.</I> (1) A sender must make arrangements with its Federal Reserve Bank before it can send payment orders to the Federal Reserve Bank. Federal Reserve Banks reserve the right to reject or impose conditions on the acceptance of payment orders for any reason. For example, a Federal Reserve Bank might reject or impose conditions on accepting a payment order where a sender does not have sufficient funds in its settlement account with the Federal Reserve Bank to cover the amount of the sender's payment order and other obligations of the sender due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank. As a further example, a Federal Reserve Bank may reject a payment order that is not successfully processed within time limits established by the Federal Reserve Banks. A Federal Reserve Bank may require a sender to execute a written agreement concerning security procedures or other matters before the sender may send payment orders to the Federal Reserve Bank.
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<P>(b) <I>Selection of an intermediary bank.</I> (1) Under section 4A-302, if a receiving bank (other than a beneficiary's bank), such as a Federal Reserve Bank, accepts a payment order, it must issue a payment order that complies with the sender's order. The sender's order may include instructions concerning an intermediary bank to be used that must be followed by a receiving bank (see section 4A-302(a)(1)). If the sender does not designate any intermediary bank in its payment order, the receiving bank may select an intermediary bank through which the sender's payment order can be expeditiously issued to the beneficiary's bank so long as the receiving bank exercises ordinary care in selecting the intermediary bank (see section 4A-302(b)).
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<P>(2) This section provides that in an interdistrict transfer, a Federal Reserve Bank is authorized and directed to select another Federal Reserve Bank as an intermediary bank. A sender may not instruct a Federal Reserve Bank to use a particular intermediary bank or to use its discretion to select an intermediary bank other than a Federal Reserve Bank. In addition, a sender may not send a payment order through the FedNow Service that instructs a Federal Reserve Bank to use a funds-transfer system or means of transmission other than the FedNow Service, unless the sender and the Federal Reserve Bank agree in writing to the use of that funds-transfer system or means of transmission.
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<P>(c) <I>Execution date and payment date.</I> (1) Under 4A-301(b), the “execution date” of a payment order means the day on which the receiving bank may properly issue a payment order in execution of the sender's order. Under section 4A-401, the “payment date” of a payment order is the day on which the amount of the order is payable to the beneficiary by the beneficiary's bank. The execution date and the payment date may be determined by instruction of the sender but cannot be earlier than the day the order is received and, unless otherwise determined, is the day the order is received (see sections 4A-301(b) and 4A-401). Section 4A-106, provides for the time that a payment order is received, including in the event that a receiving bank fixes a cut-off time for the receipt and processing of payment orders. If the bank receives a payment order after its cut-off time, the bank may treat the payment order as received at the opening of the next funds-transfer business day (see section 4A-106(a)).
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<P>(2) The FedNow Service is designed to be an instant value transfer system through which funds may be transferred from the originator to the beneficiary on the same funds-transfer business day. This section provides that a sender may not send a payment order to a Federal Reserve Bank that specifies an execution date or payment date later than the day on which the payment order is issued, unless the sender of the order and the Federal Reserve Bank agree in writing to the arrangement.
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<HD2>Section 210.46—Payment by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Receiving Bank or Beneficiary
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<P>(a) <I>Payment to a receiving bank.</I> (1) Under section 4A-402, when a Federal Reserve Bank executes a sender's payment order by issuing a conforming order to a receiving bank that accepts the payment order, the Federal Reserve Bank must pay the receiving bank the amount of the payment order. Section 210.44(a) authorizes a Federal Reserve Bank to make the payment by crediting, or causing any other Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the settlement account is maintained to credit, the settlement account of the receiving bank. Section 210.46(a) provides that the payment occurs when the receiving bank's settlement account is credited or when the payment order is sent by the Federal Reserve Bank to the receiving bank, whichever is earlier. Ordinarily, payment will occur during the FedNow funds-transfer business day a short time after the payment order is received. This credit is final and irrevocable when made and constitutes final settlement under section 4A-403. Payment does not waive a Federal Reserve Bank's right of recovery under the applicable law of mistake and restitution (<I>see</I> § 210.47(c)), affect a Federal Reserve Bank's right to apply the funds to any obligation due or to become due to the Federal Reserve Bank, or affect legal process or claims by third parties on the funds.
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<P>(2) This section on final payment does not apply to settlement for payment orders between Federal Reserve Banks. These payment orders are settled by other means.
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<P>(b) <I>Payment to a beneficiary.</I> Section 210.46(b) specifies when a Federal Reserve Bank makes payment to a beneficiary for which it is the beneficiary's bank. As in the case of payment to a receiving bank, this payment occurs at the earlier of the time that the Federal Reserve Bank credits the beneficiary's settlement account or sends notice of the credit to the beneficiary, and is final and irrevocable when made.
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<HD2>Section 210.47—Federal Reserve Bank Liability; Payment of Compensation
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<P>(a) <I>Damages.</I> (1) Under section 4A-305(d), damages for failure of a receiving bank to execute a payment order that it was obligated to execute by express agreement are limited to expenses in the transaction and incidental expenses and interest and do not include additional damages, including consequential damages, unless they are provided for in an express written agreement of the receiving bank. This section clarifies that in connection with the handling of payment orders, Federal Reserve Banks may not agree to be liable for consequential damages under this provision and shall not be liable for damages other than those that may be due under Article 4A to parties governed by this subpart. Any agreement in conflict with these provisions would not be effective, because it would be in violation of subpart C.
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<P>(2) This section does not affect the ability of other parties to a funds transfer to agree to be liable for consequential damages, the liability of a Federal Reserve Bank under section 4A-404 (relating to obligation of beneficiary's bank to pay and give notice to beneficiary), or the liability to parties governed by subpart C for claims not based on the handling of a payment order under subpart C.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of compensation.</I> (1) Under Article 4A, a Federal Reserve Bank may be required to pay compensation in the form of interest to another party in connection with its handling of a funds transfer. For example, payment of compensation in the form of interest is required in certain situations pursuant to sections 4A-204 (relating to refund of payment and duty of customer to report with respect to unauthorized payment order), 4A-209 (relating to acceptance of payment order), 4A-210 (relating to rejection of payment order), 4A-304 (relating to duty of sender to report erroneously executed payment order), 4A-305 (relating to liability for late or improper execution or failure to execute a payment order), 4A-402 (relating to obligation of sender to pay receiving bank), and 4A-404 (relating to obligation of beneficiary's bank to pay and give notice to beneficiary).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 210.47(b) requires Federal Reserve Banks to provide compensation through payment in the form of interest. Under section 4A-506(a), the amount of such interest may be determined by agreement between the sender and receiving bank or by funds-transfer system rule. If there is no such agreement, under section 4A-506(b), the amount of interest is based on the Federal funds rate. Similarly, compensation in the form of interest will be paid to government senders, receiving banks, or beneficiaries described in § 210.40(d) if they are entitled to interest under subpart C. A Federal Reserve Bank may also, in its discretion, pay compensation in the form of interest directly to a remote party to a transfer through the FedNow Service that is entitled to interest, rather than providing compensation to its sender or receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(3) If a sender or receiving bank that received a payment of compensation is not the party entitled to compensation under Article 4A, the sender or receiving bank must pass the benefit of the compensation payment made to it to the party that is entitled to compensation. The benefit may be passed on either in the form of a direct payment of interest or in the form of a compensating balance, if the party entitled to interest agrees to accept the other form of compensation. In the latter case, the value of the compensating balance must be at least equivalent to the value of the interest payment that otherwise would have been provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonwaiver of right of recovery.</I> Several sections of Article 4A allow a party to a funds transfer to make a claim pursuant to the applicable law of mistake and restitution. Nothing in subpart C of this part or any Operating Circular issued in accordance with subpart C of this part waives any such claim by a Federal Reserve Bank. A Federal Reserve Bank, however, may waive such a claim by express written agreement in order to settle litigation or for other purposes.






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.11.5.3.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 210—Article 4A, Funds Transfers
</HEAD>
<HD2>Part 1—Subject Matter and Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 4A-101. Short Title
</HD3>
<P>This Article may be cited as Uniform Commercial Code—Funds Transfers.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-102. Subject Matter
</HD3>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in section 4A-108, this Article applies to funds transfers defined in section 4A-104.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-103. Payment Order—Definitions
</HD3>
<P>(a) In this Article:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment order means an instruction of a sender to a receiving bank, transmitted orally, electronically, or in writing, to pay, or to cause another bank to pay, a fixed or determinable amount of money to a beneficiary if:
</P>
<P>(i) The instruction does not state a condition to payment to the beneficiary other than time of payment,
</P>
<P>(ii) The receiving bank is to be reimbursed by debiting an account of, or otherwise receiving payment from, the sender, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The instruction is transmitted by the sender directly to the receiving bank or to an agent, funds-transfer system, or communication system for transmittal to the receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Beneficiary means the person to be paid by the beneficiary's bank.
</P>
<P>(3) “Beneficiary's bank” means the bank identified in a payment order in which an account of the beneficiary is to be credited pursuant to the order or which otherwise is to make payment to the beneficiary if the order does not provide for payment to an account.
</P>
<P>(4) Receiving bank means the bank to which the sender's instruction is addressed.
</P>
<P>(5) Sender means the person giving the instruction to the receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(b) If an instruction complying with paragraph (a)(1) of this section is to make more than one payment to a beneficiary, the instruction is a separate payment order with respect to each payment.
</P>
<P>(c) A payment order is issued when it is sent to the receiving bank.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-104. Funds Transfer—Definitions
</HD3>
<P>In this Article:
</P>
<P>(a) Funds transfer means the series of transactions, beginning with the originator's payment order, made for the purpose of making payment to the beneficiary of the order. The term includes any payment order issued by the originator's bank or an intermediary bank intended to carry out the originator's payment order. A funds transfer is completed by acceptance by the beneficiary's bank of a payment order for the benefit of the beneficiary of the originator's payment order.
</P>
<P>(b) Intermediary bank means a receiving bank other than the originator's bank or the beneficiary's bank.
</P>
<P>(c) Originator means the sender of the first payment order in a funds transfer.
</P>
<P>(d) Originator's bank means:
</P>
<P>(1) The receiving bank to which the payment order of the originator is issued if the originator is not a bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) The originator if the originator is a bank.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-105. Other Definitions
</HD3>
<P>(a) In this Article:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorized account means a deposit account of a customer in a bank designated by the customer as a source of payment of payment orders issued by the customer to the bank. If a customer does not so designate an account, any account of the customer is an authorized account if payment of a payment order from that account is not inconsistent with a restriction on the use of that account.
</P>
<P>(2) Bank means a person engaged in the business of banking and includes a savings bank, savings and loan association, credit union, and trust company. A branch or separate office of a bank is a separate bank for purposes of this Article.
</P>
<P>(3) Customer means a person, including a bank, having an account with a bank or from whom a bank has agreed to receive payment orders.
</P>
<P>(4) Funds-transfer business day of a receiving bank means the part of a day during which the receiving bank is open for the receipt, processing, and transmittal of payment orders and cancellations and amendments of payment orders.
</P>
<P>(5) Funds-transfer system means a wire transfer network, automated clearing house, or other communication system of a clearing house or other association of banks through which a payment order by a bank may be transmitted to the bank to which the order is addressed.
</P>
<P>(6) Good faith means honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing.
</P>
<P>(7) Prove with respect to a fact means to meet the burden of establishing the fact (Section 1-201(8)).
</P>
<P>(b) Other definitions applying to this Article and the sections in which they appear are:
</P>
<FP-1>“Acceptance” .....Sec. 4A-209
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Beneficiary” .....Sec. 4A-103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Beneficiary's bank” .....Sec. 4A-103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Executed” .....Sec. 4A-301
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Execution date” .....Sec. 4A-301
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Funds transfer” .....Sec. 4A-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Funds-transfer system rule” .....Sec. 4A-501
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Intermediary bank” .....Sec. 4A-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Originator” .....Sec. 4A-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Originator's bank” .....Sec. 4A-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Payment by beneficiary's bank to beneficiary” .....Sec. 4A-405
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Payment by originator to beneficiary” .....Sec. 4A-406
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Payment by sender to receiving bank” .....Sec. 4A-403
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Payment date” .....Sec. 4A-401
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Payment order” .....Sec. 4A-103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Receiving bank” .....Sec. 4A-103
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Security procedure” .....Sec. 4A-201
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Sender” .....Sec. 4A-103
</FP-1>
<P>(c) The following definitions in Article 4 apply to this Article:
</P>
<FP-1>“Clearing house” .....Sec. 4-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Item” .....Sec. 4-104
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“Suspends payments” .....Sec. 4-104
</FP-1>
<P>(d) In addition Article 1 contains general definitions and principles of construction and interpretation applicable throughout this Article.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-106. Time Payment Order Is Received
</HD3>
<P>(a) The time of receipt of a payment order or communication canceling or amending a payment order is determined by the rules applicable to receipt of a notice stated in Section 1-201(27). A receiving bank may fix a cut-off time or times on a funds-transfer business day for the receipt and processing of payment orders and communications canceling or amending payment orders. Different cut-off times may apply to payment orders, cancellations, or amendments, or to different categories of payment orders, cancellations, or amendments. A cut-off time may apply to senders generally or different cut-off times may apply to different senders or categories of payment orders. If a payment order or communication canceling or amending a payment order is received after the close of a funds-transfer business day or after the appropriate cut-off time on a funds-transfer business day, the receiving bank may treat the payment order or communication as received at the opening of the next funds-transfer business day.
</P>
<P>(b) If this Article refers to an execution date or payment date or states a day on which a receiving bank is required to take action, and the date or day does not fall on a funds-transfer business day, the next day that is a funds-transfer business day is treated as the date or day stated, unless the contrary is stated in this Article.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-107. Federal Reserve Regulations and Operating Circulars
</HD3>
<P>Regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks supersede any inconsistent provision of this Article to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-108. Relationship to Electronic Fund Transfer Act
</HD3>
<P>(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), this Article does not apply to a funds transfer any part of which is governed by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act of 1978 (Title XX, Pub. L. 95-630, 92 Stat. 3728, 15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>) as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) This Article applies to a funds transfer that is a remittance transfer as defined in the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693o-1) as amended from time to time, unless the remittance transfer is an electronic fund transfer as defined in the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693a) as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(c) In a funds transfer to which this Article applies, in the event of an inconsistency between an applicable provision of this Article and an applicable provision of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, the provision of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act governs to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<HD2>Part 2—Issue and Acceptance of Payment Order
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 4A-201. Security Procedure
</HD3>
<P>Security procedure means a procedure established by agreement of a customer and a receiving bank for the purpose of (i) verifying that a payment order or communication amending or canceling a payment order is that of the customer, or (ii) detecting error in the transmission or the content of the payment order or communication. A security procedure may require the use of algorithms or other codes, identifying words or numbers, encryption, callback procedures, or similar security devices. Comparison of a signature on a payment order or communication with an authorized specimen signature of the customer is not by itself a security procedure.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-202. Authorized and Verified Payment Orders
</HD3>
<P>(a) A payment order received by the receiving bank is the authorized order of the person identified as sender if that person authorized the order or is otherwise bound by it under the law of agency.
</P>
<P>(b) If a bank and its customer have agreed that the authenticity of payment orders issued to the bank in the name of the customer as sender will be verified pursuant to a security procedure, a payment order received by the receiving bank is effective as the order of the customer, whether or not authorized, if (i) the security procedure is a commercially reasonable method of providing security against unauthorized payment orders, and (ii) the bank proves that it accepted the payment order in good faith and in compliance with the security procedure and any written agreement or instruction of the customer restricting acceptance of payment orders issued in the name of the customer. The bank is not required to follow an instruction that violates a written agreement with the customer or notice of which is not received at a time and in a manner affording the bank a reasonable opportunity to act on it before the payment order is accepted.
</P>
<P>(c) Commercial reasonableness of a security procedure is a question of law to be determined by considering the wishes of the customer expressed to the bank, the circumstances of the customer known to the bank, including the size, type, and frequency of payment orders normally issued by the customer to the bank, alternative security procedures offered to the customer, and security procedures in general use by customers and receiving banks similarly situated. A security procedure is deemed to be commercially reasonable if (i) the security procedure was chosen by the customer after the bank offered, and the customer refused, a security procedure that was commercially reasonable for that customer, and (ii) the customer expressly agreed in writing to be bound by any payment order, whether or not authorized, issued in its name and accepted by the bank in compliance with the security procedure chosen by the customer.
</P>
<P>(d) The term sender in this Article includes the customer in whose name a payment order is issued if the order is the authorized order of the customer under subsection (a) of this section, or it is effective as the order of the customer under subsection (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) This section applies to amendments and cancellations of payment orders to the same extent it applies to payment orders.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided in this section and in section 4A-203(a)(1), rights and obligations arising under this section or section 4A-203 may not be varied by agreement.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-203. Unenforceability of Certain Verified Payment Orders
</HD3>
<P>(a) If an accepted payment order is not, under section 4A-202(a), an authorized order of a customer identified as sender, but is effective as an order of the customer pursuant to section 4A-202(b), the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) By express written agreement, the receiving bank may limit the extent to which it is entitled to enforce or retain payment of the payment order.
</P>
<P>(2) The receiving bank is not entitled to enforce or retain payment of the payment order if the customer proves that the order was not caused, directly or indirectly, by a person (i) entrusted at any time with duties to act for the customer with respect to payment orders or the security procedure, or (ii) who obtained access to transmitting facilities of the customer or who obtained, from a source controlled by the customer and without authority of the receiving bank, information facilitating breach of the security procedure, regardless of how the information was obtained or whether the customer was at fault. Information includes any access device, computer software, or the like.
</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to amendments of payment orders to the same extent it applies to payment orders.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-204. Refund of Payment and Duty of Customer To Report With Respect to Unauthorized Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) If a receiving bank accepts a payment order issued in the name of its customer as sender which is (i) not authorized and not effective as the order of the customer under section 4A-202, or (ii) not enforceable, in whole or in part, against the customer under section 4A-203, the bank shall refund any payment of the payment order received from the customer to the extent the bank is not entitled to enforce payment and shall pay interest on the refundable amount calculated from the date the bank received payment to the date of the refund. However, the customer is not entitled to interest from the bank on the amount to be refunded if the customer fails to exercise ordinary care to determine that the order was not authorized by the customer and to notify the bank of the relevant facts within a reasonable time not exceeding 90 days after the date the customer received notification from the bank that the order was accepted or that the customer's account was debited with respect to the order The bank is not entitled to any recovery from the customer on account of a failure by the customer to give notification as stated in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Reasonable time under subsection (a) of this section may be fixed by agreement as stated in section 1-204(1), but the obligation of a receiving bank to refund payment as stated in subsection (a) may not otherwise be varied by agreement.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-205. Erroneous Payment Orders
</HD3>
<P>(a) If an accepted payment order was transmitted pursuant to a security procedure for the detection of error and the payment order (i) erroneously instructed payment to a beneficiary not intended by the sender, (ii) erroneously instructed payment in an amount greater than the amount intended by the sender, or (iii) was an erroneously transmitted duplicate of a payment order previously sent by the sender, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If the sender proves that the sender or a person acting on behalf of the sender pursuant to section 4A-206 complied with the security procedure and that the error would have been detected if the receiving bank had also complied, the sender is not obliged to pay the order to the extent stated in this paragraphs (2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(2) If the funds transfer is completed on the basis of an erroneous payment order described in clause (i) or (iii) of subsection (a), the sender is not obliged to pay the order and the receiving bank is entitled to recover from the beneficiary any amount paid to the beneficiary to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<P>(3) If the funds transfer is completed on the basis of a payment order described in clause (ii) of subsection (a), the sender is not obliged to pay the order to the extent the amount received by the beneficiary is greater than the amount intended by the sender. In that case, the receiving bank is entitled to recover from the beneficiary the excess amount received to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<P>(b) If (i) the sender of an erroneous payment order described in subsection (a) is not obliged to pay all or part of the order, and (ii) the sender receives notification from the receiving bank that the order was accepted by the bank or that the sender's account was debited with respect to the order, the sender has a duty to exercise ordinary care, on the basis of information available to the sender, to discover the error with respect to the order and to advise the bank of the relevant facts within a reasonable time, not exceeding 90 days, after the bank's notification was received by the sender. If the bank proves that the sender failed to perform that duty, the sender is liable to the bank for the loss the bank proves it incurred as a result of the failure, but the liability of the sender may not exceed the amount of the sender's order.
</P>
<P>(c) This section applies to amendments to payment orders to the same extent it applies to payment orders.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-206. Transmission of Payment Order Through Funds-Transfer or Other Communication System
</HD3>
<P>(a) If a payment order addressed to a receiving bank is transmitted to a funds-transfer system or other third-party communication system for transmittal to the bank, the system is deemed to be an agent of the sender for the purpose of transmitting the payment order to the bank. If there is a discrepancy between the terms of the payment order transmitted to the system and the terms of the payment order transmitted by the system to the bank, the terms of the payment order of the sender are those transmitted by the system. This section does not apply to a funds-transfer system of the Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P>(b) This section applies to cancellations and amendments of payment orders to the same extent it applies to payment orders.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-207. Misdescription of Beneficiary
</HD3>
<P>(a) Subject to subsection (b), if, in a payment order received by the beneficiary's bank, the name, bank account number, or other identification of the beneficiary refers to a nonexistent or unidentifiable person or account, no person has rights as a beneficiary of the order and acceptance of the order cannot occur.
</P>
<P>(b) If a payment order received by the beneficiary's bank identifies the beneficiary both by name and by an identifying or bank account number and the name and number identify different persons, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (c), if the beneficiary's bank does not know that the name and number refer to different persons, it may rely on the number as the proper identification of the beneficiary of the order. The beneficiary's bank need not determine whether the name and number refer to the same person.
</P>
<P>(2) If the beneficiary's bank pays the person identified by name or knows that the name and number identify different persons, no person has rights as beneficiary except the person paid by the beneficiary's bank if that person was entitled to receive payment from the originator of the funds transfer. If no person has rights as beneficiary, acceptance of the order cannot occur.
</P>
<P>(c) If (i) a payment order described in subsection (b) is accepted, (ii) the originator's payment order described the beneficiary inconsistently by name and number, and (iii) the beneficiary's bank pays the person identified by number as permitted by subsection (b)(1), the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If the originator is a bank, the originator is obliged to pay its order.
</P>
<P>(2) If the originator is not a bank and proves that the person identified by number was not entitled to receive payment from the originator, the originator is not obliged to pay its order unless the originator's bank proves that the originator, before acceptance of the originator's order, had notice that payment of a payment order issued by the originator might be made by the beneficiary's bank on the basis of an identifying or bank account number even if it identifies a person different from the named beneficiary. Proof of notice may be made by any admissible evidence. The originator's bank satisfies the burden of proof if it proves that the originator, before the payment order was accepted, signed a writing stating the information to which the notice relates.
</P>
<P>(d) In a case governed by subsection (b)(1), if the beneficiary's bank rightfully pays the person identified by number and that person was not entitled to receive payment from the originator, the amount paid may be recovered from that person to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the originator is obliged to pay its payment order as stated in subsection (c), the originator has the right to recover.
</P>
<P>(2) If the originator is not a bank and is not obliged to pay its payment order, the originator's bank has the right to recover.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-208. Misdescription of Intermediary Bank or Beneficiary's Bank
</HD3>
<P>(a) This subsection applies to a payment order identifying an intermediary bank or the beneficiary's bank only by an identifying number.
</P>
<P>(1) The receiving bank may rely on the number as the proper identification of the intermediary or beneficiary's bank and need not determine whether the number identifies a bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The sender is obliged to compensate the receiving bank for any loss and expenses incurred by the receiving bank as a result of its reliance on the number in executing or attempting to execute the order.
</P>
<P>(b) This subsection applies to a payment order identifying an intermediary bank or the beneficiary's bank both by name and an identifying number if the name and number identify different persons.
</P>
<P>(1) If the sender is a bank, the receiving bank may rely on the number as the proper identification of the intermediary or beneficiary's bank if the receiving bank, when it executes the sender's order, does not know that the name and number identify different persons. The receiving bank need not determine whether the name and number refer to the same person or whether the number refers to a bank. The sender is obliged to compensate the receiving bank for any loss and expenses incurred by the receiving bank as a result of its reliance on the number in executing or attempting to execute the order.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sender is not a bank and the receiving bank proves that the sender, before the payment order was accepted, had notice that the receiving bank might rely on the number as the proper identification of the intermediary or beneficiary's bank even if it identifies a person different from the bank identified by name, the rights and obligations of the sender and the receiving bank are governed by subsection (b)(1), as though the sender were a bank. Proof of notice may be made by any admissible evidence. The receiving bank satisfies the burden of proof if it proves that the sender, before the payment order was accepted, signed a writing stating the information to which the notice relates.
</P>
<P>(3) Regardless of whether the sender is a bank, the receiving bank may rely on the name as the proper identification of the intermediary or beneficiary's bank if the receiving bank, at the time it executes the sender's order, does not know that the name and number identify different persons. The receiving bank need not determine whether the name and number refer to the same person.
</P>
<P>(4) If the receiving bank knows that the name and number identify different persons, reliance on either the name or the number in executing the sender's payment order is a breach of the obligation stated in section 4A-302(a)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-209. Acceptance of Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) Subject to subsection (d), a receiving bank other than the beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order when it executes the order.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to subsections (c) and (d), a beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order at the earliest of the following times:
</P>
<P>(1) When the bank (i) pays the beneficiary as stated in section 4A-405(a) or 4A-405(b), or (ii) notifies the beneficiary of receipt of the order or that the account of the beneficiary has been credited with respect to the order unless the notice indicates that the bank is rejecting the order or that funds with respect to the order may not be withdrawn or used until receipt of payment from the sender of the order;
</P>
<P>(2) When the bank receives payment of the entire amount of the sender's order pursuant to section 4A-403(a)(1) or (2); or
</P>
<P>(3) The opening of the next funds-transfer business day of the bank following the payment date of the order if, at that time, the amount of the sender's order is fully covered by a withdrawable credit balance in an authorized account of the sender or the bank has otherwise received full payment from the sender, unless the order was rejected before that time or is rejected within (i) one hour after that time, or (ii) one hour after the opening of the next business day of the sender following the payment date if that time is later. If notice of rejection is received by the sender after the payment date and the authorized account of the sender does not bear interest, the bank is obliged to pay interest to the sender on the amount of the order for the number of days elapsing after the payment date to the day the sender receives notice or learns that the order was not accepted, counting that day as an elapsed day. If the withdrawable credit balance during that period falls below the amount of the order, the amount of interest payable is reduced accordingly.
</P>
<P>(c) Acceptance of a payment order cannot occur before the order is received by the receiving bank. Acceptance does not occur under subsection (b)(2) or (3) if the beneficiary of the payment order does not have an account with the receiving bank, the account has been closed, or the receiving bank is not permitted by law to receive credits for the beneficiary's account.
</P>
<P>(d) A payment order issued to the originator's bank cannot be accepted until the payment date if the bank is the beneficiary's bank, or the execution date if the bank is not the beneficiary's bank. If the originator's bank executes the originator's payment order before the execution date or pays the beneficiary of the originator's payment order before the payment date and the payment order is subsequently canceled pursuant to section 4A-211(b), the bank may recover from the beneficiary any payment received to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-210. Rejection of Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) A payment order is rejected by the receiving bank by a notice of rejection transmitted to the sender orally, electronically, or in writing. A notice of rejection need not use any particular words and is sufficient if it indicates that the receiving bank is rejecting the order or will not execute or pay the order. Rejection is effective when the notice is given if transmission is by a means that is reasonable in the circumstances. If notice of rejection is given by a means that is not reasonable, rejection is effective when the notice is received. If an agreement of the sender and receiving bank establishes the means to be used to reject a payment order, (i) any means complying with the agreement is reasonable, and (ii) any means not complying is not reasonable unless no significant delay in receipt of the notice resulted from the use of the noncomplying means.
</P>
<P>(b) This subsection applies if a receiving bank other than the beneficiary's bank fails to execute a payment order despite the existence on the execution date of a withdrawable credit balance in an authorized account of the sender sufficient to cover the order. If the sender does not receive notice of rejection of the order on the execution date and the authorized account of the sender does not bear interest, the bank is obliged to pay interest to the sender on the amount of the order for the number of days elapsing after the execution date to the earlier of the day the order is canceled pursuant to section 4A-211(d) or the day the sender receives notice or learns that the order was not executed, counting the final day of the period as an elapsed day. If the withdrawable credit balance during that period falls below the amount of the order, the amount of interest is reduced accordingly.
</P>
<P>(c) If a receiving bank suspends payments, all unaccepted payment orders issued to it are deemed rejected at the time the bank suspends payments.
</P>
<P>(d) Acceptance of a payment order precludes a later rejection of the order. Rejection of a payment order precludes a later acceptance of the order.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-211. Cancellation and Amendment of Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) A communication of the sender of a payment order canceling or amending the order may be transmitted to the receiving bank orally, electronically, or in writing. If a security procedure is in effect between the sender and the receiving bank, the communication is not effective to cancel or amend the order unless the communication is verified pursuant to the security procedure or the bank agrees to the cancellation or amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to subsection (a), a communication by the sender canceling or amending a payment order is effective to cancel or amend the order if notice of the communication is received at a time and in a manner affording the receiving bank a reasonable opportunity to act on the communication before the bank accepts the payment order.
</P>
<P>(c) After a payment order has been accepted, cancellation or amendment of the order is not effective unless the receiving bank agrees or a funds-transfer system rule allows cancellation or amendment without agreement of the bank.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a payment order accepted by a receiving bank other than the beneficiary's bank, cancellation or amendment is not effective unless a conforming cancellation or amendment of the payment order issued by the receiving bank is also made.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a payment order accepted by the beneficiary's bank, cancellation or amendment is not effective unless the order was issued in execution of an unauthorized payment order, or because of a mistake by a sender in the funds transfer which resulted in the issuance of a payment order (i) that is a duplicate of a payment order previously issued by the sender, (ii) that orders payment to a beneficiary not entitled to receive payment from the originator, or (iii) that orders payment in an amount greater than the amount the beneficiary was entitled to receive from the originator. If the payment order is canceled or amended, the beneficiary's bank is entitled to recover from the beneficiary any amount paid to the beneficiary to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<P>(d) An unaccepted payment order is canceled by operation of law at the close of the fifth funds-transfer business day of the receiving bank after the execution date or payment date of the order.
</P>
<P>(e) A canceled payment order cannot be accepted. If an accepted payment order is canceled, the acceptance is nullified and no person has any right or obligation based on the acceptance. Amendment of a payment order is deemed to be cancellation of the original order at the time of amendment and issue of a new payment order in the amended form at the same time.
</P>
<P>(f) Unless otherwise provided in an agreement of the parties or in a funds-transfer system rule, if the receiving bank, after accepting a payment order, agrees to cancellation or amendment of the order by the sender or is bound by a funds-transfer system rule allowing cancellation or amendment without the bank's agreement, the sender, whether or not cancellation or amendment is effective, is liable to the bank for any loss and expenses, including reasonable attorney's fees, incurred by the bank as a result of the cancellation or amendment or attempted cancellation or amendment.
</P>
<P>(g) A payment order is not revoked by the death or legal incapacity of the sender unless the receiving bank knows of the death or of an adjudication of incapacity by a court of competent jurisdiction and has reasonable opportunity to act before acceptance of the order.
</P>
<P>(h) A funds-transfer system rule is not effective to the extent it conflicts with subsection (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-212. Liability and Duty of Receiving Bank Regarding Unaccepted Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>If a receiving bank fails to accept a payment order that it is obliged by express agreement to accept, the bank is liable for breach of the agreement to the extent provided in the agreement or in this Article, but does not otherwise have any duty to accept a payment order or, before acceptance, to take any action, or refrain from taking action, with respect to the order except as provided in this Article or by express agreement. Liability based on acceptance arises only when acceptance occurs as stated in section 4A-209, and liability is limited to that provided in this Article. A receiving bank is not the agent of the sender or beneficiary of the payment order it accepts, or of any other party to the funds transfer, and the bank owes no duty to any party to the funds transfer except as provided in this Article or by express agreement.
</P>
<HD2>Part 3—Execution of Sender's Payment Order by Receiving Bank
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 4A-301. Execution and Execution Date
</HD3>
<P>(a) A payment order is “executed” by the receiving bank when it issues a payment order intended to carry out the payment order received by the bank. A payment order received by the beneficiary's bank can be accepted but cannot be executed.
</P>
<P>(b) Execution date of a payment order means the day on which the receiving bank may properly issue a payment order in execution of the sender's order. The execution date may be determined by instruction of the sender but cannot be earlier than the day the order is received and, unless otherwise determined, is the day the order is received. If the sender's instruction states a payment date, the execution date is the payment date or an earlier date on which execution is reasonably necessary to allow payment to the beneficiary on the payment date.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-302. Obligations of Receiving Bank in Execution of Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) through (d), if the receiving bank accepts a payment order pursuant to section 4A-209(a), the bank has the following obligations in executing the order:
</P>
<P>(1) The receiving bank is obliged to issue, on the execution date, a payment order complying with the sender's order and to follow the sender's instructions concerning (i) any intermediary bank or funds-transfer system to be used in carrying out the funds transfer, or (ii) the means by which payment orders are to be transmitted in the funds transfer. If the originator's bank issues a payment order to an intermediary bank, the originator's bank is obliged to instruct the intermediary bank according to the instruction of the originator. An intermediary bank in the funds transfer is similarly bound by an instruction given to it by the sender of the payment order it accepts.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sender's instruction states that the funds transfer is to be carried out telephonically or by wire transfer or otherwise indicates that the funds transfer is to be carried out by the most expeditious means, the receiving bank is obliged to transmit its payment order by the most expeditious available means, and to instruct any intermediary bank accordingly. If a sender's instruction states a payment date, the receiving bank is obliged to transmit its payment order at a time and by means reasonably necessary to allow payment to the beneficiary on the payment date or as soon thereafter as is feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise instructed, a receiving bank executing a payment order may (i) use any funds-transfer system if use of that system is reasonable in the circumstances, and (ii) issue a payment order to the beneficiary's bank or to an intermediary bank through which a payment order conforming to the sender's order can expeditiously be issued to the beneficiary's bank if the receiving bank exercises ordinary care in the selection of the intermediary bank. A receiving bank is not required to follow an instruction of the sender designating a funds-transfer system to be used in carrying out the funds transfer if the receiving bank, in good faith, determines that it is not feasible to follow the instruction or that following the instruction would unduly delay completion of the funds transfer.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless subsection (a)(2) applies or the receiving bank is otherwise instructed, the bank may execute a payment order by transmitting its payment order by first class mail or by any means reasonable in the circumstances. If the receiving bank is instructed to execute the sender's order by transmitting its payment order by the means stated or by any means as expeditious as the means stated.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless instructed by the sender, (i) the receiving bank may not obtain payment of its charges for services and expenses in connection with the execution of the sender's order by issuing a payment order in an amount equal to the amount of the sender's order less the amount of the charges, and (ii) may not instruct a subsequent receiving bank to obtain payment of its charges in the same manner.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-303. Erroneous Execution of Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) A receiving bank that (i) executes the payment order of the sender by issuing a payment order in an amount greater than the amount of the sender's order, or (ii) issues a payment order in execution of the sender's order and then issues a duplicate order, is entitled to payment of the amount of the sender's order under section 4A-402(c) if that subsection is otherwise satisfied. The bank is entitled to recover from the beneficiary of the erroneous order the excess payment received to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<P>(b) A receiving bank that executes the payment order of the sender by issuing a payment order in an amount less than the amount of the sender's order is entitled to payment of the amount of the sender's order under section 4A-402(c) if (i) that subsection is otherwise satisfied and (ii) the bank corrects its mistake by issuing an additional payment order for the benefit of the beneficiary of the sender's order. If the error is not corrected, the issuer of the erroneous order is entitled to receive or retain payment from the sender of the order it accepted only to the extent of the amount of the erroneous order. This subsection does not apply if the receiving bank executes the sender's payment order by issuing a payment order in an amount less than the amount of the sender's order for the purpose of obtaining payment of its charges for services and expenses pursuant to instruction of the sender.
</P>
<P>(c) If a receiving bank executes the payment order of the sender by issuing a payment order to a beneficiary different from the beneficiary of the sender's order and the funds transfer is completed on the basis of that error, the sender of the payment order that was erroneously executed and all previous senders in the funds transfer are not obliged to pay the payment orders they issued. The issuer of the erroneous order is entitled to recover from the beneficiary of the order the payment received to the extent allowed by the law governing mistake and restitution.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-304. Duty of Sender To Report Erroneously Executed Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>If the sender of a payment order that is erroneously executed as stated in section 4A-303 receives notification from the receiving bank that the order was executed or that the sender's account was debited with respect to the order, the sender has a duty to exercise ordinary care to determine, on the basis of information available to the sender, that the order was erroneously executed and to notify the bank of the relevant facts within a reasonable time not exceeding 90 days after the notification from the bank was received by the sender. If the sender fails to perform that duty, the bank is not obliged to pay interest on any amount refundable to the sender under section 4A-402(d) for the period before the bank learns of the execution error. The bank is not entitled to any recovery from the sender on account of a failure by the sender to perform the duty stated in this section.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-305. Liability for Late or Improper Execution or Failure To Execute Payment Order
</HD3>
<P>(a) If a funds transfer is completed but execution of a payment order by the receiving bank in breach of section 4A-302 results in delay in payment to the beneficiary, the bank is obliged to pay interest to either the originator or the beneficiary of the funds transfer for the period of delay caused by the improper execution. Except as provided in subsection (c), additional damages are not recoverable.
</P>
<P>(b) If execution of a payment order by a receiving bank in breach of section 4A-302 results in (i) noncompletion of the funds transfer, (ii) failure to use an intermediary bank designated by the originator, or (iii) issuance of a payment order that does not comply with the terms of the payment order of the originator, the bank is liable to the originator for its expenses in the funds transfer and for incidental expenses and interest losses, to the extent not covered by subsection (a), resulting from the improper execution. Except as provided in subsection (c), additional damages are not recoverable.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the amounts payable under subsections (a) and (b), damages, including consequential damages, are recoverable to the extent provided in an express written agreement of the receiving bank.
</P>
<P>(d) If a receiving bank fails to execute a payment order it was obliged by express agreement to execute, the receiving bank is liable to the sender for its expenses in the transaction and for incidential expenses and interest losses resulting from the failure to execute. Additional damages, including consequential damages, are recoverable to the extent provided in an express written agreement of the receiving bank, but are not otherwise recoverable.
</P>
<P>(e) Reasonable attorney's fees are recoverable if demand for compensation under subsection (a) or (b) of this section is made and refused before an action is brought on the claim. If a claim is made for breach of an agreement under subsection (d) and the agreement does not provide for damages, reasonable attorney's fees are recoverable if demand for compensation under subsection (d) is made and refused before an action is brought on the claim.
</P>
<P>(f) Except as stated in this section, the liability of a receiving bank under subsections (a) and (b) of this section may not be varied by agreement.
</P>
<HD2>Part 4—Payment
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 4A-401. Payment Date
</HD3>
<P>Payment date of a payment order means the day on which the amount of the order is payable to the beneficiary by the beneficiary's bank. The payment date may be determined by instruction of the sender but cannot be earlier than the day the order is received by the beneficiary's bank and, unless otherwise determined, is the day the order is received by the beneficiary's bank.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-402. Obligation of Sender To Pay Receiving Bank
</HD3>
<P>(a) This section is subject to sections 4A-205 and 4A-207.
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to a payment order issued to the beneficiary's bank, acceptance of the order by the bank obliges the sender to pay the bank the amount of the order, but payment is not due until the payment date of the order.
</P>
<P>(c) This subsection is subject to subsection (e) and to section 4A-303. With respect to a payment order issued to a receiving bank other than the beneficiary's bank, acceptance of the order by the receiving bank obliges the sender to pay the bank the amount of the sender's order. Payment by the sender is not due until the execution date of the sender's order. The obligation of that sender to pay its payment order is excused if the funds transfer is not completed by acceptance by the beneficiary's bank of a payment order instructing payment to the beneficiary of that sender's payment order.
</P>
<P>(d) If the sender of a payment order pays the order and was not obliged to pay all or part of the amount paid, the bank receiving payment is obliged to refund payment to the extent the sender was not obliged to pay. Except as provided in sections 4A-204 and 4A-304, interest is payable on the refundable amount from the date of payment.
</P>
<P>(e) If a funds transfer is not completed as stated in subsection (c) and an intermediary bank is obliged to refund payment as stated in subsection (d) but is unable to do so because not permitted by applicable law or because the bank suspends payments, a sender in the funds transfer that executed a payment order in compliance with an instruction, as stated in section 4A-302(a)(1), to route the funds transfer through that intermediary bank is entitled to receive or retain payment from the sender of the payment order that it accepted. The first sender in the funds transfer that issued an instruction requiring routing through that intermediary bank is subrogated to the right of the bank that paid the intermediary bank to refund as stated in subsection (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) The right of the sender of a payment order to be excused from the obligation to pay the order as stated in this subsection (c) or to receive refund under subsection (d) may not be varied by agreement.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-403. Payment by Sender to Receiving Bank
</HD3>
<P>(a) Payment of the sender's obligation under section 4A-402 to pay the receiving bank occurs as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the sender is a bank, payment occurs when the receiving bank receives final settlement of the obligation through a Federal Reserve Bank or through a funds-transfer system.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sender is a bank and the sender (i) credited an account of the receiving bank with the sender, or (ii) caused an account of the receiving bank in another bank to be credited, payment occurs when the credit is withdrawn or, if not withdrawn, at midnight of the day on which the credit is withdrawable and the receiving bank learns of that fact.
</P>
<P>(3) If the receiving bank debits an account of the sender with the receiving bank, payment occurs when the debit is made to the extent the debit is covered by a withdrawable credit balance in the account.
</P>
<P>(b) If the sender and receiving bank are members of a funds-transfer system that nets obligations multilaterally among participants, the receiving bank receives final settlement when settlement is complete in accordance with the rules of the system. The obligation of the sender to pay the amount of a payment order transmitted through the funds-transfer system may be satisfied, to the extent permitted by the rules of the system, by setting off and applying against the sender's obligation the right of the sender to receive payment from the receiving bank of the amount of any other payment order transmitted to the sender by the receiving bank through the funds-transfer system. The aggregate balance of obligations owed by each sender to each receiving bank in the funds-transfer system may be satisfied, to the extent permitted by the rules of the system, by setting off and applying against that balance the aggregate balance of obligations owed to the sender by other members of the system. The aggregate balance is determined after the right of setoff stated in the second sentence of this subsection has been exercised.
</P>
<P>(c) If two banks transmit payment orders to each other under an agreement that settlement of the obligations of each bank to the other under section 4A-402 will be made at the end of the day or other period, the total amount owed with respect to all orders transmitted by one bank shall be set off against the total amount owed with respect to all orders transmitted by the other bank. To the extent of the setoff, each bank has made payment to the other.
</P>
<P>(d) In a case not covered by paragraph (a) of this section, the time when payment of the sender's obligation under section 4A-402(b) or 4A-402(c) occurs is governed by applicable principles of law that determine when an obligation is satisfied.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-404. Obligation of Beneficiary's Bank to Pay and Give Notice to Beneficiary
</HD3>
<P>(a) Subject to sections 4A-211(e), 4A-405(d), and 4A-405(e), if a beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order, the bank is obliged to pay the amount of the order to the beneficiary of the order. Payment is due on the payment date of the order, but if acceptance occurs on the payment date after the close of the funds-transfer business day of the bank, payment is due on the next funds-transfer business day. If the bank refuses to pay after demand by the beneficiary and receipt of notice of particular circumstances that will give rise to consequential damages as a result of nonpayment, the beneficiary may recover damages resulting from the refusal to pay to the extent the bank had notice of the damages, unless the bank proves that it did not pay because of a reasonable doubt concerning the right of the beneficiary to payment.
</P>
<P>(b) If a payment order accepted by the beneficiary's bank instructs payment to an account of the beneficiary, the bank is obliged to notify the beneficiary of receipt of the order before midnight of the next funds-transfer business day following the payment date. If the payment order does not instruct payment to an account of the beneficiary, the bank is required to notify the beneficiary only if notice is required by the order. Notice may be given by first class mail or any other means reasonable in the circumstances. If the bank fails to give the required notice, the bank is obliged to pay interest to the beneficiary on the amount of the payment order from the day notice should have been given until the day the beneficiary learned of receipt of the payment order by the bank. No other damages are recoverable. Reasonable attorney's fees are also recoverable if demand for interest is made and refused before an action is brought on the claim.
</P>
<P>(c) The right of a beneficiary to receive payment and damages as stated in subsection (a) may not be varied by agreement or a funds-transfer system rule. The right of a beneficiary to be notified as stated in subsection (b) of this section may be varied by agreement of the beneficiary or by a funds-transfer system rule if the beneficiary is notified of the rule before initiation of the funds transfer.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-405. Payment by Beneficiary's Bank To Beneficiary
</HD3>
<P>(a) If the beneficiary's bank credits an account of the beneficiary of a payment order, payment of the bank's obligation under section 4A-404(a) occurs when and to the extent (i) the beneficiary is notified of the right to withdraw the credit, (ii) the bank lawfully applies the credit to a debt of the beneficiary, or (iii) funds with respect to the order are otherwise made available to the beneficiary by the bank.
</P>
<P>(b) If the beneficiary's bank does not credit an account of the beneficiary of a payment order, the time when payment of the bank's obligation under section 4A-404(a) occurs is governed by principles of law that determine when an obligation is satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as stated in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, if the beneficiary's bank pays the beneficiary of a payment order under a condition to payment or agreement of the beneficiary giving the bank the right to recover payment from the beneficiary if the bank does not receive payment of the order, the condition to payment or agreement is not enforceable.
</P>
<P>(d) A funds-transfer system rule may provide that payments made to beneficiaries of funds transfer made through the system are provisional until receipt of payment by the beneficiary's bank of the payment order it accepted. A beneficiary's bank that makes a payment that is provisional under the rule is entitled to refund from the beneficiary if (i) the rule requires that both the beneficiary and the originator be given notice of the provisional nature of the payment before the funds transfer is initiated, (ii) the beneficiary, the beneficiary's bank and the originator's bank agreed to be bound by the rule, and (iii) the beneficiary's bank did not receive payment of the payment order that it accepted. If the beneficiary is obliged to refund payment to the beneficiary's bank, acceptance of the payment order by the beneficiary's bank is nullified and no payment by the originator of the funds transfer to the beneficiary occurs under section 4A-406.
</P>
<P>(e) This paragraph applies to a funds transfer that includes a payment order transmitted over a funds-transfer system that (i) nets obligations-multilaterally among participants, and (ii) has in effect a loss-sharing agreement among participants for the purpose of providing funds necessary to complete settlement of the obligations of one or more participants that do not meet their settlement obligations. If the beneficiary's bank in the funds transfer accepts a payment order and the system fails to complete settlement pursuant to its rules with respect to any payment order in the funds transfer, (i) the acceptance by the beneficiary's bank is nullified and no person has any right or obligation based on the acceptance, (ii) the beneficiary's bank is entitled to recover payment from the beneficiary, (iii) no payment by the originator to the beneficiary occurs under section 4A-406, and (iv) subject to section 4A-402(e), each sender in the funds transfer is excused from its obligation to pay its payment order under section 4A-402(c) because the funds transfer has not been completed.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-406. Payment by Originator to Beneficiary; Discharge of Underlying Obligation
</HD3>
<P>(a) Subject to sections 4A-211(e), 4A-405(d), and 4A-405(e), the originator of a funds transfer pays the beneficiary of the originator's payment order (i) at the time a payment order for the benefit of the beneficiary is accepted by the beneficiary's bank in the funds transfer and (ii) in an amount equal to the amount of the order *40813 accepted by the beneficiary's bank, but not more than the amount of the originator's order.
</P>
<P>(b) If payment under paragraph (a) of this section is made to satisfy an obligation, the obligation is discharged to the same extent discharge would result from payment to the beneficiary of the same amount in money, unless (i) the payment under subsection (a) was made by a means prohibited by the contract of the beneficiary with respect to the obligation; (ii) the beneficiary, within a reasonable time after receiving notice of receipt of the order by the beneficiary's bank, notified the originator of the beneficiary's refusal of the payment; (iii) funds with respect to the order were not withdrawn by the beneficiary or applied to a debt of the beneficiary; and (iv) the beneficiary would suffer a loss that could reasonably have been avoided if payment had been made by a means complying with the contract. If payment by the originator does not result in discharge under this section, the originator is subrogated to the rights of the beneficiary to receive payment from the beneficiary's bank under section 4A-404(a).
</P>
<P>(c) For the purpose of determining whether discharge of an obligation occurs under paragraph (b) of this section, if the beneficiary's bank accepts a payment order in an amount equal to the amount of the originator's payment order less charges of one or more receiving banks in the funds transfer, payment to the beneficiary is deemed to be in the amount of the originator's order unless upon demand by the beneficiary the originator does not pay the beneficiary the amount of the deducted charges.
</P>
<P>(d) Rights of the originator or of the beneficiary of a funds transfer under this section may be varied only by agreement of the originator and the beneficiary.
</P>
<HD2>Part 5—Miscellaneous Provisions
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 4A-501. Variation by Agreement and Effect of Funds-Transfer System Rule
</HD3>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this Article, the rights and obligations of a party to a funds transfer may be varied by agreement of the affected party.
</P>
<P>(b) Funds-transfer system rule means a rule of an association of banks (i) governing transmission of payment orders by means of a funds-transfer system of the association or rights and obligations with respect to those orders, or (ii) to the extent the rule governs rights and obligations between banks that are parties to a funds transfer in which a Federal Reserve Bank, acting as an intermediary bank, sends a payment order to the beneficiary's bank. Except as otherwise provided in this Article, a funds-transfer system rule governing rights and obligations between participating banks using the system may be effective even if the rule conflicts with this Article and indirectly affects another party to the funds transfer who does not consent to the rule. A funds-transfer system rule may also govern rights and obligations of parties other than participating banks using the system to the extent stated in sections 4A-404(c), 4A-405(d), and 4A-507(c).
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-502. Creditor Process Served on Receiving Bank; Setoff by Beneficiary's Bank
</HD3>
<P>(a) As used in this section, creditor process means levy, attachment, garnishment, notice of lien, sequestration, or similar process issued by or on behalf of a creditor or other claimant with respect to an account.
</P>
<P>(b) This subsection applies to creditor process with respect to an authorized account of the sender of a payment order if the creditor process is served on the receiving bank. For the purpose of determining rights with respect to the creditor process, if the receiving bank accepts the payment order the balance in the authorized account is deemed to be reduced by the amount of the payment order to the extent the bank did not otherwise receive payment of the order, unless the creditor process is served at a time and in a manner affording the bank a reasonable opportunity to act on it before the bank accepts the payment order.
</P>
<P>(c) If a beneficiary's bank has received a payment order for payment to the beneficiary's account in the bank, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank may credit the beneficiary's account. The amount credited may be set off against an obligation owed by the beneficiary to the bank or may be applied to satisfy creditor process served on the bank with respect to the account.
</P>
<P>(2) The bank may credit the beneficiary's account and allow withdrawal of the amount credited unless creditor process with respect to the account is served at a time and in a manner affording the bank a reasonable opportunity to act to prevent withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(3) If creditor process with respect to the beneficiary's account has been served and the bank has had a reasonable opportunity to act on it, the bank may not reject the payment order except for a reason unrelated to the service of process.
</P>
<P>(d) Creditor process with respect to a payment by the originator to the beneficiary pursuant to a funds transfer may be served only on the beneficiary's bank with respect to the debt owned by that bank to the beneficiary. Any other bank served with the creditor process is not obliged to act with respect to the process.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-503. Injunction or Restraining Order With Respect to Funds Transfer
</HD3>
<P>For proper cause and in compliance with applicable law, a court may restrain:
</P>
<P>(i) a person from issuing a payment order to initiate a funds transfer,
</P>
<P>(ii) an originator's bank from executing the payment order of the originator, or
</P>
<P>(iii) the beneficiary's bank from releasing funds to the beneficiary or the beneficiary from withdrawing the funds. A court may not otherwise restrain a person from issuing a payment order, paying or receiving payment of a payment order, or otherwise acting with respect to a funds transfer.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-504. Order In Which Items and Payment Orders May Be Charged to Account; Order of Withdrawals from Account
</HD3>
<P>(a) If a receiving bank has received more than one payment order of the sender or one or more payment orders and other items that are payable from the sender's account, the bank may charge the sender's account with respect to the various orders and items in any sequence.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether a credit to an account has been withdrawn by the holder of the account or applied to a debt of the holder of the account, credits first made to the account are first withdrawn or applied.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-505. Preclusion of Objection to Debit of Customer's Account
</HD3>
<P>If a receiving bank has received payment from its customer with respect to a payment order issued in the name of the customer as sender and accepted by the bank, and the customer received notification reasonably identifying the order, the customer is precluded from asserting that the bank is not entitled to retain the payment unless the customer notifies the bank of the customer's objection to the payment within one year after the notification was received by the customer.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-506. Rate of Interest
</HD3>
<P>(a) If, under this Article, a receiving bank is obliged to pay interest with respect to a payment order issued to the bank, the amount payable may be determined (i) by agreement of the sender and receiving bank, or (ii) by a funds-transfer system rule if the payment order is transmitted through a funds-transfer system.
</P>
<P>(b) If the amount of interest is not determined by an agreement or rule as stated in subsection (a), the amount is calculated by multiplying the applicable Federal Funds rate by the amount on which interest is payable, and then multiplying the product by the number of days for which interest is payable. The applicable Federal Funds rate is the average of the Federal Funds rates published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York for each of the days for which interest is payable divided by 360. The Federal Funds rate for any day on which a published rate is not available is the same as the published rate for the next preceding day for which there is a published rate. If a receiving bank that accepted a payment order is required to refund payment to the sender of the order because the funds transfer was not completed, but the failure to complete was not due to any fault by the bank, the interest payable is reduced by a percentage equal to the reserve requirement on deposits of the receiving bank.
</P>
<HD3>Section 4A-507. Choice of Law
</HD3>
<P>(a) The following rules apply unless the affected parties otherwise agree or paragraph (c) of this section applies:
</P>
<P>(1) The rights and obligations between the sender of a payment order and the receiving bank are governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the receiving bank is located.
</P>
<P>(2) The rights and obligations between the beneficiary's bank and the beneficiary are governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the beneficiary's bank is located.
</P>
<P>(3) The issue of when payment is made pursuant to a funds transfer by the originator to the beneficiary is governed by the law of the jurisdiction in which the beneficiary's bank is located.
</P>
<P>(b) If the parties described in each subsection of paragraph (a) of this section have made an agreement selecting the law of a particular jurisdiction to govern rights and obligations between each other, the law of that jurisdiction governs those rights and obligations, whether or not the payment order or the funds transfer bears a reasonable relation to that jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) A funds-transfer system rule may select the law of a particular jurisdiction to govern (i) rights and obligations between participating banks with respect to payment orders transmitted or processed through the system, or (ii) the rights and obligations of some or all parties to a funds transfer any part of which is carried out by means of the system. A choice of law made pursuant to clause (i) is binding on participating banks. A choice of law made pursuant to clause (ii) is binding on the originator, other sender, or a receiving bank having notice that the funds-transfer system might be used in the funds transfer and of the choice of law by the system when the originator, other sender, or receiving bank issued or accepted a payment order. The beneficiary of a funds transfer is bound by the choice of law if, when the funds transfer is initiated, the beneficiary has notice that the funds-transfer system might be used in the funds transfer and of the choice of law by the system. The law of a jurisdiction selected pursuant to this subsection may govern, whether or not that law bears a reasonable relation to the matter in issue.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event of inconsistency between an agreement under paragraph (b) of this section and a choice-of-law rule under paragraph (c) of this section, the agreement under paragraph (b) prevails.
</P>
<P>(e) If a funds transfer is made by use of more than one funds-transfer system and there is inconsistency between choice-of-law rules of the systems, the matter in issue is governed by the law of the selected jurisdiction that has the most significant relationship to the matter in issue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. J, 87 FR 34369, June 6, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="211" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 211—INTERNATIONAL BANKING OPERATIONS (REGULATION K)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> 1818, 1835a, 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3901 <I>et seq.,</I> and 5101 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 1681s, 1681w, 6801 and 6805.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—International Operations of U.S. Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 211.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA) (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); and the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA) (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets out rules governing the international and foreign activities of U.S. banking organizations, including procedures for establishing foreign branches and Edge and agreement corporations to engage in international banking, and for investments in foreign organizations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Member banks with respect to their foreign branches and investments in foreign banks under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601-604a);
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601-604a), which refers to national banking associations, also applies to state member banks of the Federal Reserve System by virtue of section 9 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 321)</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Corporations organized under section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611-631) (Edge corporations); 
</P>
<P>(3) Corporations having an agreement or undertaking with the Board under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601-604a) (agreement corporations); and 
</P>
<P>(4) Bank holding companies with respect to the exemption from the nonbanking prohibitions of the BHC Act afforded by section 4(c)(13) of that act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) An <I>affiliate</I> of an organization means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any entity of which the organization is a direct or indirect subsidiary; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any direct or indirect subsidiary of the organization or such entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital and surplus</I> means, unless otherwise provided in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) For organizations subject to the capital rule:
</P>
<P>(i) Tier 1 and tier 2 capital included in an organization's risk-based capital (under the capital rule); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The balance of allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, not included in an organization's tier 2 capital for calculation of risk-based capital, based on the organization's most recent consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(iii) For qualifying community banking organizations (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that are subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) plus allowances for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other organizations, paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, and includes undivided profits but does not include the proceeds of capital notes or debentures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital rule</I> means part 217 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Directly</I> or <I>indirectly,</I> when used in reference to activities or investments of an organization, means activities or investments of the organization or of any subsidiary of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible country</I> means any country: 
</P>
<P>(1) For which an allocated transfer risk reserve is required pursuant to § 211.43 of this part and that has restructured its sovereign debt held by foreign creditors; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other country that the Board deems to be eligible. 
</P>
<P>(f) An Edge corporation is <I>engaged in banking</I> if it is ordinarily engaged in the business of accepting deposits in the United States from nonaffiliated persons. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Engaged in business</I> or <I>engaged in activities</I> in the United States means maintaining and operating an office (other than a representative office) or subsidiary in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Equity</I> means an ownership interest in an organization, whether through: 
</P>
<P>(1) Voting or nonvoting shares; 
</P>
<P>(2) General or limited partnership interests; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other form of interest conferring ownership rights, including warrants, debt, or any other interests that are convertible into shares or other ownership rights in the organization; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Loans that provide rights to participate in the profits of an organization, unless the investor receives a determination that such loans should not be considered equity in the circumstances of the particular investment. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foreign</I> or <I>foreign country</I> refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized under the laws of a foreign country; 
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in the business of banking; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authority of the country of its organization or principal banking operations; 
</P>
<P>(4) Receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of its business; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Has the power to accept demand deposits. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Foreign branch</I> means an office of an organization (other than a representative office) that is located outside the country in which the organization is legally established and at which a banking or financing business is conducted. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Foreign person</I> means an office or establishment located outside the United States, or an individual residing outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Investment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The ownership or control of equity; 
</P>
<P>(2) Binding commitments to acquire equity; 
</P>
<P>(3) Contributions to the capital and surplus of an organization; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The holding of an organization's subordinated debt when the investor and the investor's affiliates hold more than 5 percent of the equity of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Investment grade</I> means a security that is rated in one of the four highest rating categories by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Two or more NRSROs; or 
</P>
<P>(2) One NRSRO if the security has been rated by only one NRSRO. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Investor</I> means an Edge corporation, agreement corporation, bank holding company, or member bank. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Joint venture</I> means an organization that has 20 percent or more of its voting shares held directly or indirectly by the investor or by an affiliate of the investor under any authority, but which is not a subsidiary of the investor or of an affiliate of the investor. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Loans and extensions of credit</I> means all direct and indirect advances of funds to a person made on the basis of any obligation of that person to repay the funds. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>NRSRO</I> means a nationally recognized statistical rating organization as designated by the Securities and Exchange Commission. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Organization</I> means a corporation, government, partnership, association, or any other entity. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Person</I> means an individual or an organization. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Portfolio investment</I> means an investment in an organization other than a subsidiary or joint venture. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Representative office</I> means an office that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Engages solely in representational and administrative functions (such as soliciting new business or acting as liaison between the organization's head office and customers in the United States); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Does not have authority to make any business decision (other than decisions relating to its premises or personnel) for the account of the organization it represents, including contracting for any deposit or deposit-like liability on behalf of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Subsidiary</I> means an organization that has more than 50 percent of its voting shares held directly or indirectly, or that otherwise is controlled or capable of being controlled, by the investor or an affiliate of the investor under any authority. Among other circumstances, an investor is considered to control an organization if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The investor or an affiliate is a general partner of the organization; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The investor and its affiliates directly or indirectly own or control more than 50 percent of the equity of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as provided in § 217.2 of this chapter. A qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), calculates its tier 1 capital in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Well capitalized</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) In relation to a parent member or insured bank, that the standards set out in § 208.43(b)(1) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.43(b)(1)) are satisfied; 
</P>
<P>(2) In relation to a bank holding company, that the standards set out in § 225.2(r)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(r)(1)) are satisfied; and 
</P>
<P>(3) In relation to an Edge or agreement corporation, that it has tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios of 6.0 and 10.0 percent, respectively, or greater. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Well managed</I> means that the Edge or agreement corporation, any parent insured bank, and the bank holding company either received a composite rating of 1 or 2 or is considered satisfactory under the applicable rating system, and has at least a satisfactory rating for management if such a rating is given, at their most recent examination or review.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 83 FR 58734, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 4241, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.3   Foreign branches of U.S. banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Definition of banking organization.</I> For purposes of this section, a <I>banking organization</I> is defined as a member bank and its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(2) A banking organization is considered to be operating a branch in a foreign country if it has an affiliate that is a member bank, Edge or agreement corporation, or foreign bank that operates an office (other than a representative office) in that country. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this subpart, a foreign office of an operating subsidiary of a member bank shall be treated as a foreign branch of the member bank and may engage only in activities permissible for a branch of a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) At any time upon notice, the Board may modify or suspend branching authority conferred by this section with respect to any banking organization. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Establishment of foreign branches.</I> (i) Foreign branches may be established by any member bank having capital and surplus of $1,000,000 or more, an Edge corporation, an agreement corporation, any subsidiary the shares of which are held directly by the member bank, or any other subsidiary held pursuant to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board grants its general consent under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601-604a) for a member bank to establish a branch in the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this section, the establishment of a foreign branch requires 30 days' prior written notice to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Branching into additional foreign countries.</I> After giving the Board 12 business days prior written notice, a banking organization that operates branches in two or more foreign countries may establish a branch in an additional foreign country. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional branches within a foreign country.</I> No prior notice is required to establish additional branches in any foreign country where the banking organization operates one or more branches. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Branching by nonbanking affiliates.</I> No prior notice is required for a nonbanking affiliate of a banking organization (<I>i.e.,</I> an organization that is not a member bank, an Edge or agreement corporation, or foreign bank) to establish branches within a foreign country or in additional foreign countries. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Expiration of branching authority.</I> Authority to establish branches, when granted following prior written notice to the Board, shall expire one year from the earliest date on which the authority could have been exercised, unless extended by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting.</I> Any banking organization that opens, closes, or relocates a branch shall report such change in a manner prescribed by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reserves of foreign branches of member banks.</I> Member banks shall maintain reserves against foreign branch deposits when required by Regulation D (12 CFR part 204). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditional approval; access to information.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on authority granted by it under this section as it deems necessary, and may require termination of any activities conducted under authority of this section if a member bank is unable to provide information on its activities or those of its affiliates that the Board deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with U.S. banking laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.4   Permissible activities and investments of foreign branches of member banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible activities and investments.</I> In addition to its general banking powers, and to the extent consistent with its charter, a foreign branch of a member bank may engage in the following activities and make the following investments, so far as is usual in connection with the business of banking in the country where it transacts business: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Guarantees.</I> Guarantee debts, or otherwise agree to make payments on the occurrence of readily ascertainable events (including, but not limited to, nonpayment of taxes, rentals, customs duties, or costs of transport, and loss or nonconformance of shipping documents) if the guarantee or agreement specifies a maximum monetary liability; however, except to the extent that the member bank is fully secured, it may not have liabilities outstanding for any person on account of such guarantees or agreements which, when aggregated with other unsecured obligations of the same person, exceed the limit contained in section 5200(a)(1) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 84) for loans and extensions of credit; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Government obligations.</I> (i) Underwrite, distribute, buy, sell, and hold obligations of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The national government of the country where the branch is located and any political subdivision of that country; 
</P>
<P>(B) An agency or instrumentality of the national government of the country where the branch is located where such obligations are supported by the taxing authority, guarantee, or full faith and credit of that government; 
</P>
<P>(C) The national government or political subdivision of any country, where such obligations are rated investment grade; and 
</P>
<P>(D) An agency or instrumentality of any national government where such obligations are rated investment grade and are supported by the taxing authority, guarantee or full faith and credit of that government. 
</P>
<P>(ii) No member bank, under authority of this paragraph (a)(2), may hold, or be under commitment with respect to, such obligations for its own account in relation to any one country in an amount exceeding the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(A) 10 percent of its tier 1 capital; or 
</P>
<P>(B) 10 percent of the total deposits of the bank's branches in that country on the preceding year-end call report date (or the date of acquisition of the branch, in the case of a branch that has not been so reported); 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other investments.</I> (i) Invest in: 
</P>
<P>(A) The securities of the central bank, clearinghouses, governmental entities other than those authorized under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and government-sponsored development banks of the country where the foreign branch is located; 
</P>
<P>(B) Other debt securities eligible to meet local reserve or similar requirements; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Shares of automated electronic-payments networks, professional societies, schools, and the like necessary to the business of the branch; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total investments of a bank's branches in a country under this paragraph (a)(3) (exclusive of securities held as required by the law of that country or as authorized under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24, Seventh)) may not exceed 1 percent of the total deposits of the bank's branches in that country on the preceding year-end call report date (or on the date of acquisition of the branch, in the case of a branch that has not been so reported); 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Real estate loans.</I> Take liens or other encumbrances on foreign real estate in connection with its extensions of credit, whether or not of first priority and whether or not the real estate has been improved; 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insurance.</I> Act as insurance agent or broker; 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee benefits program.</I> Pay to an employee of the branch, as part of an employee benefits program, a greater rate of interest than that paid to other depositors of the branch; 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> Engage in repurchase agreements involving securities and commodities that are the functional equivalents of extensions of credit; 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Investment in subsidiaries.</I> With the Board's prior approval, acquire all of the shares of a company (except where local law requires other investors to hold directors' qualifying shares or similar types of instruments) that engages solely in activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) In which the member bank is permitted to engage; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) That are incidental to the activities of the foreign branch. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other activities.</I> With the Board's prior approval, engage in other activities that the Board determines are usual in connection with the transaction of the business of banking in the places where the member bank's branches transact business. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.5   Edge and agreement corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board Authority.</I> The Board shall have the authority to approve: 
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of Edge corporations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Investments in agreement corporations; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A member bank's proposal to invest more than 10 percent of its capital and surplus in the aggregate amount of stock held in all Edge and agreement corporations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organization of an Edge corporation</I>—(1) <I>Permit.</I> A proposed Edge corporation shall become a body corporate when the Board issues a permit approving its proposed name, articles of association, and organization certificate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Name.</I> The name of the Edge corporation shall include <I>international, foreign, overseas,</I> or a similar word, but may not resemble the name of another organization to an extent that might mislead or deceive the public. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Federal Register notice.</I> The Board shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of any proposal to organize an Edge corporation and shall give interested persons an opportunity to express their views on the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Factors considered by Board.</I> The factors considered by the Board in acting on a proposal to organize an Edge corporation include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The financial condition and history of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The general character of its management; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The convenience and needs of the community to be served with respect to international banking and financing services; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The effects of the proposal on competition. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Authority to commence business.</I> After the Board issues a permit, the Edge corporation may elect officers and otherwise complete its organization, invest in obligations of the U.S. government, and maintain deposits with depository institutions, but it may not exercise any other powers until at least 25 percent of the authorized capital stock specified in the articles of association has been paid in cash, and each shareholder has paid in cash at least 25 percent of that shareholder's stock subscription. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Expiration of unexercised authority.</I> Unexercised authority to commence business as an Edge corporation shall expire one year after issuance of the permit, unless the Board extends the period. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other provisions regarding Edge corporations</I>—(1) <I>Amendments to articles of association.</I> No amendment to the articles of association shall become effective until approved by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shareholders' meeting.</I> An Edge corporation shall provide in its bylaws that: 
</P>
<P>(i) A shareholders' meeting shall be convened at the request of the Board within five business days after the Board gives notice of the request to the Edge corporation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any shareholder or group of shareholders that owns or controls 25 percent or more of the shares of the Edge corporation shall attend such a meeting in person or by proxy; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure by a shareholder or authorized representative to attend such meeting in person or by proxy may result in removal or barring of the shareholder or representative from further participation in the management or affairs of the Edge corporation. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nature and ownership of shares</I>—(i) <I>Shares.</I> Shares of stock in an Edge corporation may not include no-par-value shares and shall be issued and transferred only on its books and in compliance with section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) and this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of share certificates.</I> The share certificates of an Edge corporation shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) Name and describe each class of shares, indicating its character and any unusual attributes, such as preferred status or lack of voting rights; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Conspicuously set forth the substance of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any limitations on the rights of ownership and transfer of shares imposed by section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>); and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any rules that the Edge corporation prescribes in its bylaws to ensure compliance with this paragraph (c). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Change in status of shareholder.</I> Any change in status of a shareholder that causes a violation of section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) shall be reported to the Board as soon as possible, and the Edge corporation shall take such action as the Board may direct. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ownership of Edge corporations by foreign institutions</I>—(1) <I>Prior Board approval.</I> One or more foreign or foreign-controlled domestic institutions referred to in section 25A(11) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 619) may apply for the Board's prior approval to acquire, directly or indirectly, a majority of the shares of the capital stock of an Edge corporation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions and requirements.</I> Such an institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the Board with information related to its financial condition and activities and such other information as the Board may require; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that any transaction by an Edge corporation with an affiliate 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> is on substantially the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions by the Edge corporation with nonaffiliated persons, and does not involve more than the normal risk of repayment or present other unfavorable features; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2), <I>affiliate</I> means any organization that would be an affiliate under section 23A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 371c) if the Edge corporation were a member bank.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Ensure that the Edge corporation will not provide funding on a continual or substantial basis to any affiliate or office of the foreign institution through transactions that would be inconsistent with the international and foreign business purposes for which Edge corporations are organized; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Comply with the limitation on aggregate investments in all Edge and agreement corporations set forth in paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign institutions not subject to the BHC Act.</I> In the case of a foreign institution not subject to section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), that institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with any conditions that the Board may impose that are necessary to prevent undue concentration of resources, decreased or unfair competition, conflicts of interest, or unsound banking practices in the United States; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Give the Board 30 days' prior written notice before engaging in any nonbanking activity in the United States, or making any initial or additional investments in another organization, that would require prior Board approval or notice by an organization subject to section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843); in connection with such notice, the Board may impose conditions necessary to prevent adverse effects that may result from such activity or investment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change in control of an Edge corporation</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice.</I> (i) Any person shall give the Board 60 days' prior written notice before acquiring, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of the voting shares, or otherwise acquiring control, of an Edge corporation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may extend the 60-day period for an additional 30 days by notifying the acquiring party. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice under this paragraph (e) need not be filed where a change in control is effected through a transaction requiring the Board's approval under section 3 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board review.</I> In reviewing a notice filed under this paragraph (e), the Board shall consider the factors set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, and may disapprove a notice or impose any conditions that it finds necessary to assure the safe and sound operation of the Edge corporation, to assure the international character of its operation, and to prevent adverse effects, such as decreased or unfair competition, conflicts of interest, or undue concentration of resources. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Domestic branching by Edge corporations</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice.</I> (i) An Edge corporation may establish branches in the United States 30 days after the Edge corporation has given written notice of its intention to do so to its Reserve Bank, unless the Edge corporation is notified to the contrary within that time. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice to the Reserve Bank shall include a copy of the notice of the proposal published in a newspaper of general circulation in the communities to be served by the branch. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The newspaper notice may appear no earlier than 90 calendar days prior to submission of notice of the proposal to the Reserve Bank. The newspaper notice shall provide an opportunity for the public to give written comment on the proposal to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank for at least 30 days after the date of publication. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors considered.</I> The factors considered in acting upon a proposal to establish a branch are enumerated in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expiration of authority.</I> Authority to establish a branch under prior notice shall expire one year from the earliest date on which that authority could have been exercised, unless the Board extends the period. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Agreement corporations</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> With the prior approval of the Board, a member bank or bank holding company may invest in a federally or state-chartered corporation that has entered into an agreement or undertaking with the Board that it will not exercise any power that is impermissible for an Edge corporation under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors considered by Board.</I> The factors considered in acting upon a proposal to establish an agreement corporation are enumerated in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) <I>Limitation on investment in Edge and agreement corporations.</I> A member bank may invest up to 10 percent of its capital and surplus in the capital stock of Edge and agreement corporations or, with the prior approval of the Board, up to 20 percent of its capital and surplus in such stock. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors considered by Board.</I> The factors considered by the Board in acting on a proposal under paragraph (h)(1) of this section shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) The composition of the assets of the bank's Edge and agreement corporations; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total capital invested by the bank in its Edge and agreement corporations when combined with retained earnings of the Edge and agreement corporations (including amounts invested in and retained earnings of any foreign bank subsidiaries) as a percentage of the bank's capital;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the bank, bank holding company, and Edge and agreement corporations are well-capitalized and well-managed; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the bank is adequately capitalized after deconsolidating and deducting the aggregate investment in and assets of all Edge or agreement corporations and all foreign bank subsidiaries; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other factor the Board deems relevant to the safety and soundness of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reserve requirements and interest rate limitations.</I> The deposits of an Edge or agreement corporation are subject to Regulations D and Q (12 CFR parts 204 and 217) in the same manner and to the same extent as if the Edge or agreement corporation were a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Liquid funds.</I> Funds of an Edge or agreement corporation that are not currently employed in its international or foreign business, if held or invested in the United States, shall be in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(1) Cash; 
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits with depository institutions, as described in Regulation D (12 CFR part 204), and other Edge and agreement corporations; 
</P>
<P>(3) Money-market instruments (including repurchase agreements with respect to such instruments), such as bankers' acceptances, federal funds sold, and commercial paper; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Short- or long-term obligations of, or fully guaranteed by, federal, state, and local governments and their instrumentalities. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reports by Edge and agreement corporations of crimes and suspected crimes.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation, or any branch or subsidiary thereof, shall file a suspicious-activity report in accordance with the provisions of § 208.62 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.62).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Protection of customer information and consumer information.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805) and, with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information, section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w), set forth in appendix D-2 to part 208 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Establishment of Compliance Program.</I> Each Edge corporation and each agreement corporation shall, in accordance with the provisions of § 208.63 of the Board's Regulation H, 12 CFR 208.63, develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the provisions of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Bank Secrecy Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR part 103. The compliance program shall be reduced to writing, approved by the board of directors, and noted in the minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Each Edge or agreement corporation is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the Board and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 103.121, which require a customer identification program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 58655, Nov. 23, 2001; 68 FR 25112, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004; 71 FR 13936, Mar. 20, 2006] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.6   Permissible activities of Edge and agreement corporations in the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Activities incidental to international or foreign business.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may engage, directly or indirectly, in activities in the United States that are permitted by section 25A(6) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 615) and are incidental to international or foreign business, and in such other activities as the Board determines are incidental to international or foreign business. The following activities will ordinarily be considered incidental to an Edge or agreement corporation's international or foreign business: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deposit-taking activities</I>—(i) <I>Deposits from foreign governments and foreign persons.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may receive in the United States transaction accounts, savings, and time deposits (including issuing negotiable certificates of deposits) from foreign governments and their agencies and instrumentalities, and from foreign persons. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Deposits from other persons.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may receive from any other person in the United States transaction accounts, savings, and time deposits (including issuing negotiable certificates of deposit) if such deposits: 
</P>
<P>(A) Are to be transmitted abroad; 
</P>
<P>(B) Consist of funds to be used for payment of obligations to the Edge or agreement corporation or collateral securing such obligations; 
</P>
<P>(C) Consist of the proceeds of collections abroad that are to be used to pay for exported or imported goods or for other costs of exporting or importing or that are to be periodically transferred to the depositor's account at another financial institution; 
</P>
<P>(D) Consist of the proceeds of extensions of credit by the Edge or agreement corporation; 
</P>
<P>(E) Represent compensation to the Edge or agreement corporation for extensions of credit or services to the customer; 
</P>
<P>(F) Are received from Edge or agreement corporations, foreign banks, and other depository institutions (as described in Regulation D (12 CFR part 204)); or 
</P>
<P>(G) Are received from an organization that by its charter, license, or enabling law is limited to business that is of an international character, including foreign sales corporations, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 922; transportation organizations engaged exclusively in the international transportation of passengers or in the movement of goods, wares, commodities, or merchandise in international or foreign commerce; and export trading companies established under subpart C of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Borrowings.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Borrow from offices of other Edge and agreement corporations, foreign banks, and depository institutions (as described in Regulation D (12 CFR part 204)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Issue obligations to the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Incur indebtedness from a transfer of direct obligations of, or obligations that are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof that the Edge or agreement corporation is obligated to repurchase; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Issue long-term subordinated debt that does not qualify as a <I>deposit</I> under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit activities.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Finance the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Contracts, projects, or activities performed substantially abroad; 
</P>
<P>(B) The importation into or exportation from the United States of goods, whether direct or through brokers or other intermediaries; 
</P>
<P>(C) The domestic shipment or temporary storage of goods being imported or exported (or accumulated for export); and 
</P>
<P>(D) The assembly or repackaging of goods imported or to be exported; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Finance the costs of production of goods and services for which export orders have been received or which are identifiable as being directly for export; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assume or acquire participations in extensions of credit, or acquire obligations arising from transactions the Edge or agreement corporation could have financed, including acquisition of obligations of foreign governments; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Guarantee debts, or otherwise agree to make payments on the occurrence of readily ascertainable events (including, but not limited to, nonpayment of taxes, rentals, customs duties, or cost of transport, and loss or nonconformance of shipping documents), so long as the guarantee or agreement specifies the maximum monetary liability thereunder and is related to a type of transaction described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Provide credit and other banking services for domestic and foreign purposes to foreign governments and their agencies and instrumentalities, foreign persons, and organizations of the type described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(G) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payments and collections.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may receive checks, bills, drafts, acceptances, notes, bonds, coupons, and other instruments for collection abroad, and collect such instruments in the United States for a customer abroad; and may transmit and receive wire transfers of funds and securities for depositors. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Foreign exchange.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may engage in foreign exchange activities. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Fiduciary and investment advisory activities.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Hold securities in safekeeping for, or buy and sell securities upon the order and for the account and risk of, a person, provided such services for U.S. persons are with respect to foreign securities only; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Act as paying agent for securities issued by foreign governments or other entities organized under foreign law; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Act as trustee, registrar, conversion agent, or paying agent with respect to any class of securities issued to finance foreign activities and distributed solely outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Make private placements of participations in its investments and extensions of credit; however, except to the extent permissible for member banks under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh)), no Edge or agreement corporation otherwise may engage in the business of underwriting, distributing, or buying or selling securities in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(v) Act as investment or financial adviser by providing portfolio investment advice and portfolio management with respect to securities, other financial instruments, real-property interests, and other investment assets, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> and by providing advice on mergers and acquisitions, provided such services for U.S. persons are with respect to foreign assets only; and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For purposes of this section, management of an investment portfolio does not include operational management of real property, or industrial or commercial assets.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Provide general economic information and advice, general economic statistical forecasting services, and industry studies, provided such services for U.S. persons shall be with respect to foreign economies and industries only. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Banking services for employees.</I> Provide banking services, including deposit services, to the officers and employees of the Edge or agreement corporation and its affiliates; however, extensions of credit to such persons shall be subject to the restrictions of Regulation O (12 CFR part 215) as if the Edge or agreement corporation were a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other activities.</I> With the Board's prior approval, an Edge or agreement corporation may engage, directly or indirectly, in other activities in the United States that the Board determines are incidental to their international or foreign business. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.7   Voluntary liquidation of Edge and agreement corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice.</I> An Edge or agreement corporation desiring voluntarily to discontinue normal business and dissolve, shall provide the Board with 45 days' prior written notice of its intent to do so. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of notice period.</I> The Board may waive the 45-day period if it finds that immediate action is required by the circumstances presented. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.8   Investments and activities abroad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> Activities abroad, whether conducted directly or indirectly, shall be confined to activities of a banking or financial nature and those that are necessary to carry on such activities. In doing so, investors 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> shall at all times act in accordance with high standards of banking or financial prudence, having due regard for diversification of risks, suitable liquidity, and adequacy of capital. Subject to these considerations and the other provisions of this section, it is the Board's policy to allow activities abroad to be organized and operated as best meets corporate policies. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For purposes of this section and §§ 211.9 and 211.10 of this part, a direct subsidiary of a member bank is deemed to be an investor.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Direct investments by member banks.</I> A member bank's direct investments under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) shall be limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Foreign banks; 
</P>
<P>(2) Domestic or foreign organizations formed for the sole purpose of holding shares of a foreign bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) Foreign organizations formed for the sole purpose of performing nominee, fiduciary, or other banking services incidental to the activities of a foreign branch or foreign bank affiliate of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Subsidiaries established pursuant to § 211.4(a)(8) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible investments.</I> Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section, an investor may, directly or indirectly: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Investment in subsidiary.</I> Invest in a subsidiary that engages solely in activities listed in § 211.10 of this part, or in such other activities as the Board has determined in the circumstances of a particular case are permissible; provided that, in the case of an acquisition of a going concern, existing activities that are not otherwise permissible for a subsidiary may account for not more than 5 percent of either the consolidated assets or consolidated revenues of the acquired organization; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment in joint venture.</I> Invest in a joint venture; provided that, unless otherwise permitted by the Board, not more than 10 percent of the joint venture's consolidated assets or consolidated revenues are attributable to activities not listed in § 211.10 of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portfolio investments.</I> Make portfolio investments in an organization, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Individual investment limits.</I> The total direct and indirect portfolio investments by the investor and its affiliates in an organization engaged in activities that are not permissible for joint ventures, when combined with all other shares in the organization held under any other authority, do not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(A) 40 percent of the total equity of the organization; or 
</P>
<P>(B) 19.9 percent of the organization's voting shares.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregate Investment Limit.</I> Portfolio investments made under authority of this subpart shall be subject to the aggregate equity limit of § 211.10(a)(15)(iii). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Loans and extensions of credit.</I> Any loans and extensions of credit made by an investor or its affiliates to the organization are on substantially the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions between the investor or its affiliates and nonaffiliated persons; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Protecting shareholder rights.</I> Nothing in this paragraph (c)(3) shall prohibit an investor from otherwise exercising rights it may have as shareholder to protect the value of its investment, so long as the exercise of such rights does not result in the investor's direct or indirect control of the organization. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investment limit.</I> In calculating the amount that may be invested in any organization under this section and §§ 211.9 and 211.10 of this part, there shall be included any unpaid amount for which the investor is liable and any investments in the same organization held by affiliates under any authority. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Divestiture.</I> An investor shall dispose of an investment promptly (unless the Board authorizes retention) if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The organization invested in: 
</P>
<P>(i) Engages in impermissible activities to an extent not permitted under paragraph (c) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Engages directly or indirectly in other business in the United States that is not permitted to an Edge corporation in the United States; provided that an investor may: 
</P>
<P>(A) Retain portfolio investments in companies that derive no more than 10 percent of their total revenue from activities in the United States; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Hold up to 5 percent of the shares of a foreign company that engages directly or indirectly in business in the United States that is not permitted to an Edge corporation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) After notice and opportunity for hearing, the investor is advised by the Board that such investment is inappropriate under the FRA, the BHC Act, or this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debts previously contracted.</I> Shares or other ownership interests acquired to prevent a loss upon a debt previously contracted in good faith are not subject to the limitations or procedures of this section; provided that such interests shall be disposed of promptly but in no event later than two years after their acquisition, unless the Board authorizes retention for a longer period. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Investments made through debt-for-equity conversions</I>—(1) <I>Permissible investments.</I> A bank holding company may make investments through the conversion of sovereign-or private-debt obligations of an eligible country, either through direct exchange of the debt obligations for the investment, or by a payment for the debt in local currency, the proceeds of which, including an additional cash investment not exceeding in the aggregate more than 10 percent of the fair value of the debt obligations being converted as part of such investment, are used to purchase the following investments: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Public-sector companies.</I> A bank holding company may acquire up to and including 100 percent of the shares of (or other ownership interests in) any foreign company located in an eligible country, if the shares are acquired from the government of the eligible country or from its agencies or instrumentalities. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Private-sector companies.</I> A bank holding company may acquire up to and including 40 percent of the shares, including voting shares, of (or other ownership interests in) any other foreign company located in an eligible country subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) A bank holding company may acquire more than 25 percent of the voting shares of the foreign company only if another shareholder or group of shareholders unaffiliated with the bank holding company holds a larger block of voting shares of the company; 
</P>
<P>(B) The bank holding company and its affiliates may not lend or otherwise extend credit to the foreign company in amounts greater than 50 percent of the total loans and extensions of credit to the foreign company; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The bank holding company's representation on the board of directors or on management committees of the foreign company may be no more than proportional to its shareholding in the foreign company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investments by bank subsidiary of bank holding company.</I> Upon application, the Board may permit an indirect investment to be made pursuant to this paragraph (g) through an insured bank subsidiary of the bank holding company, where the bank holding company demonstrates that such ownership is consistent with the purposes of the FRA. In granting its consent, the Board may impose such conditions as it deems necessary or appropriate to prevent adverse effects, including prohibiting loans from the bank to the company in which the investment is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Divestiture</I>—(i) <I>Time limits for divestiture.</I> A bank holding company shall divest the shares of, or other ownership interests in, any company acquired pursuant to this paragraph (g) within the longer of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Ten years from the date of acquisition of the investment, except that the Board may extend such period if, in the Board's judgment, such an extension would not be detrimental to the public interest; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Two years from the date on which the bank holding company is permitted to repatriate in full the investment in the foreign company. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum retention period.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(A) Divestiture shall occur within 15 years of the date of acquisition of the shares of, or other ownership interests in, any company acquired pursuant to this paragraph (g); and 
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company may retain such shares or ownership interests if such retention is otherwise permissible at the time required for divestiture. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Report to Board.</I> The bank holding company shall report to the Board on its plans for divesting an investment made under this paragraph (g) two years prior to the final date for divestiture, in a manner to be prescribed by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other conditions requiring divestiture.</I> All investments made pursuant to this paragraph (g) are subject to paragraph (e) of this section requiring prompt divestiture (unless the Board upon application authorizes retention), if the company invested in engages in impermissible business in the United States that exceeds in the aggregate 10 percent of the company's consolidated assets or revenues calculated on an annual basis; provided that such company may not engage in activities in the United States that consist of banking or financial operations (as defined in § 211.23(f)(5)(iii)(B)) of this part, or types of activities permitted by regulation or order under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), except under regulations of the Board or with the prior approval of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investment procedures</I>—(i) <I>General consent.</I> Subject to the other limitations of this paragraph (g), the Board grants its general consent for investments made under this paragraph (g) if the total amount invested does not exceed the greater of $25 million or 1 percent of the tier 1 capital of the investor. 
</P>
<P>(ii) All other investments shall be made in accordance with the procedures of § 211.9(f) and (g) of this part, requiring prior notice or specific consent. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Conditions</I>—(i) <I>Name.</I> Any company acquired pursuant to this paragraph (g) shall not bear a name similar to the name of the acquiring bank holding company or any of its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Neither the bank holding company nor its affiliates shall provide to any company acquired pursuant to this paragraph (g) any confidential business information or other information concerning customers that are engaged in the same or related lines of business as the company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 58655, Nov. 23, 2001] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.9   Investment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provisions.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Direct and indirect investments shall be made in accordance with the general consent, limited general consent, prior notice, or specific consent procedures contained in this section. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> When necessary, the provisions of this section relating to general consent and prior notice constitute the Board's approval under section 25A(8) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 615) for investments in excess of the limitations therein based on capital and surplus.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum capital adequacy standards.</I> Except as the Board may otherwise determine, in order for an investor to make investments pursuant to the procedures set out in this section, the investor, the bank holding company, and the member bank shall be in compliance with applicable minimum standards for capital adequacy set out in the capital rule; provided that, if the investor is an Edge or agreement corporation, the minimum capital required is total and tier 1 capital ratios of 8 percent and 4 percent, respectively. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composite rating.</I> Except as the Board may otherwise determine, in order for an investor to make investments under the general consent or limited general consent procedures of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, at the most recent examination the investor and any parent insured bank must have either received a composite rating of at least 2 or be considered satisfactory under the applicable rating system. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board's authority to modify or suspend procedures.</I> The Board, at any time upon notice, may modify or suspend the procedures contained in this section with respect to any investor or with respect to the acquisition of shares of organizations engaged in particular kinds of activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Long-range investment plan.</I> Any investor may submit to the Board for its specific consent a long-range investment plan. Any plan so approved shall be subject to the other procedures of this section only to the extent determined necessary by the Board to assure safety and soundness of the operations of the investor and its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prior specific consent for initial investment.</I> An investor shall apply for and receive the prior specific consent of the Board for its initial investment under this subpart in its first subsidiary or joint venture, unless an affiliate previously has received approval to make such an investment. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Expiration of investment authority.</I> Authority to make investments granted under prior notice or specific consent procedures shall expire one year from the earliest date on which the authority could have been exercised, unless the Board determines a longer period shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conditional approval; Access to information.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on authority granted by it under this section as it deems necessary, and may require termination of any activities conducted under authority of this subpart if an investor is unable to provide information on its activities or those of its affiliates that the Board deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with U.S. banking laws. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General consent.</I> The Board grants its general consent for a well capitalized and well managed investor to make investments, subject to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well capitalized and well managed investor.</I> In order to qualify for making investments under authority of this paragraph (b), both before and immediately after the proposed investment, the investor, any parent insured bank, and any parent bank holding company shall be well capitalized and well managed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Individual limit for investment in subsidiary.</I> In the case of an investment in a subsidiary, the total amount invested directly or indirectly in such subsidiary (in one transaction or a series of transactions) does not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 2 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The lesser of 2 percent of the tier 1 capital of any parent insured bank or 10 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individual limit for investment in joint venture.</I> In the case of an investment in a joint venture, the total amount invested directly or indirectly in such joint venture (in one transaction or a series of transactions) does not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(i) 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The lesser of 1 percent of the tier 1 capital of any parent insured bank or 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Individual limit for portfolio investment.</I> In the case of a portfolio investment, the total amount invested directly or indirectly in such company (in one transaction or a series of transactions) does not exceed the lesser of $25 million, or 
</P>
<P>(i) 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital in the case of a bank holding company or its subsidiary, or Edge corporation engaged in banking; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 25 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital in the case of an Edge corporation not engaged in banking. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investment in a general partnership or unlimited liability company.</I> An investment in a general partnership or unlimited liability company may be made under authority of paragraph (b) of this section, subject to the limits set out in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Aggregate investment limits</I>—(i) <I>Investment limits.</I> All investments made, directly or indirectly, during the previous 12-month period under authority of this section, when aggregated with the proposed investment, shall not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(A) 20 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(B) 10 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The lesser of 10 percent of the tier 1 capital of any parent insured bank or 50 percent of the tier 1 capital of the investor, for any other investor. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Downstream investments.</I> In determining compliance with the aggregate limits set out in this paragraph (b), an investment by an investor in a subsidiary shall be counted only once, notwithstanding that such subsidiary may, within 12 months of the date of making the investment, downstream all or any part of such investment to another subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Application of limits.</I> In determining compliance with the limits set out in this paragraph (b), an investor is not required to combine the value of all shares of an organization held in trading or dealing accounts under § 211.10(a)(15) of this part with investments in the same organization. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited general consent</I>—(1) <I>Individual limit.</I> The Board grants its general consent for an investor that is not well capitalized and well managed to make an investment in a subsidiary or joint venture, or to make a portfolio investment, if the total amount invested directly or indirectly (in one transaction or in a series of transactions) does not exceed the lesser of $25 million or: 
</P>
<P>(i) 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(ii) 1 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The lesser of 1 percent of any parent insured bank's tier 1 capital or 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> The amount of general consent investments made by any investor directly or indirectly under authority of this paragraph (c) during the previous 12-month period, when aggregated with the proposed investment, shall not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The lesser of 5 percent of any parent insured bank's tier 1 capital or 25 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application of limits.</I> In calculating compliance with the limits of this paragraph (c), the rules set forth in paragraphs (b)(6)(ii) and (b)(7) of this section shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other eligible investments under general consent.</I> In addition to the authority granted under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Board grants its general consent for any investor to make the following investments: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Investment in organization equal to cash dividends.</I> Any investment in an organization in an amount equal to cash dividends received from that organization during the preceding 12 calendar months; and 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment acquired from affiliate.</I> Any investment that is acquired from an affiliate at net asset value or through a contribution of shares. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Investments ineligible for general consent.</I> An investment in a foreign bank may not be made under authority of paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(1) After the investment, the foreign bank would be an affiliate of a member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign bank is located in a country in which the member bank and its affiliates have no existing banking presence. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prior notice.</I> An investment that does not qualify for general consent under paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section may be made after the investor has given the Board 30 days' prior written notice, such notice period to commence at the time the notice is received, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board may waive the 30-day period if it finds the full period is not required for consideration of the proposed investment, or that immediate action is required by the circumstances presented; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may suspend the 30-day period or act on the investment under the Board's specific consent procedures. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Specific consent.</I> Any investment that does not qualify for either the general consent or the prior notice procedure may not be consummated without the specific consent of the Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 58655, Nov. 23, 2001; Reg. K, 83 FR 58734, Nov. 21, 2018; 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.10   Permissible activities abroad.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Activities usual in connection with banking.</I> The Board has determined that the following activities are usual in connection with the transaction of banking or other financial operations abroad: 
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial and other banking activities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Financing, including commercial financing, consumer financing, mortgage banking, and factoring; 
</P>
<P>(3) Leasing real or personal property, or acting as agent, broker, or advisor in leasing real or personal property consistent with the provisions of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225); 
</P>
<P>(4) Acting as fiduciary; 
</P>
<P>(5) Underwriting credit life insurance and credit accident and health insurance; 
</P>
<P>(6) Performing services for other direct or indirect operations of a U.S. banking organization, including representative functions, sale of long-term debt, name-saving, holding assets acquired to prevent loss on a debt previously contracted in good faith, and other activities that are permissible domestically for a bank holding company under sections 4(a)(2)(A) and 4(c)(1)(C) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2)(A), (c)(1)(C)); 
</P>
<P>(7) Holding the premises of a branch of an Edge or agreement corporation or member bank or the premises of a direct or indirect subsidiary, or holding or leasing the residence of an officer or employee of a branch or subsidiary; 
</P>
<P>(8) Providing investment, financial, or economic advisory services; 
</P>
<P>(9) General insurance agency and brokerage; 
</P>
<P>(10) Data processing; 
</P>
<P>(11) Organizing, sponsoring, and managing a mutual fund, if the fund's shares are not sold or distributed in the United States or to U.S. residents and the fund does not exercise managerial control over the firms in which it invests; 
</P>
<P>(12) Performing management consulting services, if such services, when rendered with respect to the U.S. market, shall be restricted to the initial entry; 
</P>
<P>(13) Underwriting, distributing, and dealing in debt securities outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(14) Underwriting and distributing equity securities outside the United States as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limits for well-capitalized and well-managed investor</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> After providing 30 days' prior written notice to the Board, an investor that is well capitalized and well managed may underwrite equity securities, provided that commitments by an investor and its subsidiaries for the shares of a single organization do not, in the aggregate, exceed: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 15 percent of the bank holding company's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 3 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The lesser of 3 percent of any parent insured bank's tier 1 capital or 15 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor; 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Qualifying criteria.</I> An investor will be considered well-capitalized and well-managed for purposes of paragraph (a)(14)(i) of this section only if each of the bank holding company, member bank, and Edge or agreement corporation qualify as well-capitalized and well-managed. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limits for investor that is not well capitalized and well managed.</I> After providing 30 days' prior written notice to the Board, an investor that is not well capitalized and well managed may underwrite equity securities, provided that commitments by the investor and its subsidiaries for the shares of an organization do not, in the aggregate, exceed $60 million; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Application of limits.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with the limitations of this paragraph (a)(14), the investor may subtract portions of an underwriting that are covered by binding commitments obtained by the investor or its affiliates from sub-underwriters or other purchasers; 
</P>
<P>(15) Dealing in equity securities outside the United States as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Grandfathered authority.</I> By an investor, or an affiliate, that had commenced such activities prior to March 27, 1991, and subject to the limitations in effect at that time (See 12 CFR part 211, revised January 1, 1991); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limit on shares of a single issuer.</I> After providing 30 days' prior written notice to the Board, an investor may deal in the shares of an organization where the shares held in the trading or dealing accounts of an investor and its affiliates under authority of this paragraph (a)(15) do not in the aggregate exceed the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(A) $40 million; or 
</P>
<P>(B) 10 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital; 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregate equity limit.</I> The total shares held directly and indirectly by the investor and its affiliates under authority of this paragraph (a)(15) and § 211.8(c)(3) of this part in organizations engaged in activities that are not permissible for joint ventures do not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(A) 25 percent of the bank holding company's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(B) 20 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, where the investor is a member bank; 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For this purpose, a direct subsidiary of a member bank is deemed to be an investor.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) The lesser of 20 percent of any parent insured bank's tier 1 capital or 100 percent of the investor's tier 1 capital, for any other investor; 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Determining compliance with limits</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with all limits set out in this paragraph (a)(15): 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Long and short positions in the same security may be netted; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(15)(iv)(B)(<I>4</I>) of this section, equity securities held in order to hedge bank permissible equity derivatives contracts shall not be included. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Use of internal hedging models.</I> After providing 30 days' prior written notice to the Board the investor may use an internal hedging model that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Nets long and short positions in the same security and offsets positions in a security by futures, forwards, options, and other similar instruments referenced to the same security, for purposes of determining compliance with the single issuer limits of paragraph (a)(15)(ii) of this section;
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> A basket of stocks, specifically segregated as an offset to a position in a stock index derivative product, as computed by the investor's internal model, may be offset against the stock index.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Offsets its long positions in equity securities by futures, forwards, options, and similar instruments, on a portfolio basis, and for purposes of determining compliance with the aggregate equity limits of paragraph (a)(15)(iii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) With respect to all equity securities held under authority of paragraph (a)(15) of this section, no net long position in a security shall be deemed to have been reduced by more than 75 percent through use of internal hedging models under this paragraph (a)(15)(iv)(B); and 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) With respect to equity securities acquired to hedge bank permissible equity derivatives contracts under authority of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, any residual position that remains in the securities of a single issuer after netting and offsetting of positions relating to the security under the investor's internal hedging models shall be included in calculating compliance with the limits of this paragraph (a)(15)(ii) and (iii). 
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Underwriting commitments.</I> Any shares acquired pursuant to an underwriting commitment that are held for longer than 90 days after the payment date for such underwriting shall be subject to the limits set out in paragraph (a)(15) of this section and the investment provisions of §§ 211.8 and 211.9 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Authority to deal in shares of U.S. organization.</I> The authority to deal in shares under paragraph (a)(15) of this section includes the authority to deal in the shares of a U.S. organization: 
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to foreign persons only; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Subject to the limitations on owning or controlling shares of a company in section 4(c)(6) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(6)) and Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225). 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Report to senior management.</I> Any shares held in trading or dealing accounts for longer than 90 days shall be reported to the senior management of the investor; 
</P>
<P>(16) Operating a travel agency, but only in connection with financial services offered abroad by the investor or others; 
</P>
<P>(17) Underwriting life, annuity, pension fund-related, and other types of insurance, where the associated risks have been previously determined by the Board to be actuarially predictable; provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Investments in, and loans and extensions of credit (other than loans and extensions of credit fully secured in accordance with the requirements of section 23A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 371c), or with such other standards as the Board may require) to, the company by the investor or its affiliates are deducted from the capital of the investor (with 50 percent of such capital deduction to be taken from tier 1 capital); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Activities conducted directly or indirectly by a subsidiary of a U.S. insured bank are excluded from the authority of this paragraph (a)(17), unless authorized by the Board; 
</P>
<P>(18) Providing futures commission merchant services (including clearing without executing and executing without clearing) for nonaffiliated persons with respect to futures and options on futures contracts for financial and nonfinancial commodities; provided that prior notice under § 211.9(f) of this part shall be provided to the Board before any subsidiaries of a member bank operating pursuant to this subpart may join a mutual exchange or clearinghouse, unless the potential liability of the investor to the exchange, clearinghouse, or other members of the exchange, as the case may be, is legally limited by the rules of the exchange or clearinghouse to an amount that does not exceed applicable general consent limits under § 211.9 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(19) Acting as principal or agent in commodity-swap transactions in relation to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Swaps on a cash-settled basis for any commodity, provided that the investor's portfolio of swaps contracts is hedged in a manner consistent with safe and sound banking practices; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Contracts that require physical delivery of a commodity, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Such contracts are entered into solely for the purpose of hedging the investor's positions in the underlying commodity or derivative contracts based on the commodity; 
</P>
<P>(B) The contract allows for assignment, termination or offset prior to expiration; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Reasonable efforts are made to avoid delivery. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulation Y activities.</I> An investor may engage in activities that the Board has determined in § 225.28(b) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)) are closely related to banking under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific approval.</I> With the Board's specific approval, an investor may engage in other activities that the Board determines are usual in connection with the transaction of the business of banking or other financial operations abroad and are consistent with the FRA or the BHC Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.11   Advisory opinions under Regulation K.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for advisory opinion.</I> Any person may submit a request to the Board for an advisory opinion regarding the scope of activities permissible under any subpart of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and content of the request.</I> Any request for an advisory opinion under this section shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitted in writing to the Board; 
</P>
<P>(2) Contain a clear description of the proposed parameters of the activity, or the service or product, at issue; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Contain a concise explanation of the grounds on which the submitter contends the activity is or should be considered by the Board to be permissible under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to request.</I> In response to a request received under this section, the Board shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Direct the submitter to provide such additional information as the Board may deem necessary to complete the record for a full consideration of the issue presented; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide an advisory opinion within 45 days after the record on the request has been determined to be complete. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.12   Lending limits and capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptances of Edge corporations.</I> (1) Limitations. An Edge corporation shall be and remain fully secured for acceptances of the types described in section 13(7) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 372), as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) All acceptances outstanding in excess of 200 percent of its tier 1 capital; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) All acceptances outstanding for any one person in excess of 10 percent of its tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> These limitations do not apply if the excess represents the international shipment of goods, and the Edge corporation is: 
</P>
<P>(i) Fully covered by primary obligations to reimburse it that are guaranteed by banks or bankers; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Covered by participation agreements from other banks, as described in 12 CFR 250.165. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans and extensions of credit to one person</I>—(1) <I>Loans and extensions of credit defined. Loans and extensions of credit</I> has the meaning set forth in § 211.2(q) of this part 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> and, for purposes of this paragraph (b), also include: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> In the case of a foreign government, these includes loans and extensions of credit to the foreign government's departments or agencies deriving their current funds principally from general tax revenues. In the case of a partnership or firm, these include loans and extensions of credit to its members and, in the case of a corporation, these include loans and extensions of credit to the corporation's affiliates, where the affiliate incurs the liability for the benefit of the corporation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Acceptances outstanding that are not of the types described in section 13(7) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 372); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any liability of the lender to advance funds to or on behalf of a person pursuant to a guarantee, standby letter of credit, or similar agreements; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Investments in the securities of another organization other than a subsidiary; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any underwriting commitments to an issuer of securities, where no binding commitments have been secured from subunderwriters or other purchasers. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations.</I> Except as the Board may otherwise specify: 
</P>
<P>(i) The total loans and extensions of credit outstanding to any person by an Edge corporation engaged in banking, and its direct or indirect subsidiaries, may not exceed 15 percent of the Edge corporation's tier 1 capital;
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> For purposes of this paragraph (b), <I>subsidiaries</I> includes subsidiaries controlled by the Edge corporation, but does not include companies otherwise controlled by affiliates of the Edge corporation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The total loans and extensions of credit to any person by a foreign bank or Edge corporation subsidiary of a member bank, and by majority-owned subsidiaries of a foreign bank or Edge corporation, when combined with the total loans and extensions of credit to the same person by the member bank and its majority-owned subsidiaries, may not exceed the member bank's limitation on loans and extensions of credit to one person. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> The limitations of paragraph (b)(2) of this section do not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deposits with banks and federal funds sold; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Bills or drafts drawn in good faith against actual goods and on which two or more unrelated parties are liable; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any banker's acceptance, of the kind described in section 13(7) of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 372), that is issued and outstanding; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Obligations to the extent secured by cash collateral or by bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(v) Loans and extensions of credit that are covered by bona fide participation agreements; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Obligations to the extent supported by the full faith and credit of the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) The United States or any of its departments, agencies, establishments, or wholly owned corporations (including obligations, to the extent insured against foreign political and credit risks by the Export-Import Bank of the United States or the Foreign Credit Insurance Association), the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Inter-American Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, or the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development; 
</P>
<P>(B) Any organization, if at least 25 percent of such an obligation or of the total credit is also supported by the full faith and credit of, or participated in by, any institution designated in paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(A) of this section in such manner that default to the lender would necessarily include default to that entity. The total loans and extensions of credit under this paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(B) to any person shall at no time exceed 100 percent of the tier 1 capital of the Edge corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capitalization.</I> (1) An Edge corporation shall at all times be capitalized in an amount that is adequate in relation to the scope and character of its activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an Edge corporation engaged in banking, the minimum ratio of qualifying total capital to risk-weighted assets, as determined under the capital rule, shall not be less than 10 percent, of which at least 50 percent shall consist of tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph (c), no limitation shall apply on the inclusion of subordinated debt that qualifies as tier 2 capital under the capital rule. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.13" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.1.4.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.13   Supervision and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision</I>—(1) <I>Foreign branches and subsidiaries.</I> U.S. banking organizations conducting international operations under this subpart shall supervise and administer their foreign branches and subsidiaries in such a manner as to ensure that their operations conform to high standards of banking and financial prudence. 
</P>
<P>(i) Effective systems of records, controls, and reports shall be maintained to keep management informed of their activities and condition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such systems shall provide, in particular, information on risk assets, exposure to market risk, liquidity management, operations, internal controls, legal and operational risk, and conformance to management policies. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Reports on risk assets shall be sufficient to permit an appraisal of credit quality and assessment of exposure to loss, and, for this purpose, provide full information on the condition of material borrowers. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Reports on operations and controls shall include internal and external audits of the branch or subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint ventures.</I> Investors shall maintain sufficient information with respect to joint ventures to keep informed of their activities and condition. 
</P>
<P>(i) Such information shall include audits and other reports on financial performance, risk exposure, management policies, operations, and controls. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Complete information shall be maintained on all transactions with the joint venture by the investor and its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Availability of reports and information to examiners.</I> The reports specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section and any other information deemed necessary to determine compliance with U.S. banking law shall be made available to examiners of the appropriate bank supervisory agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examinations.</I> Examiners appointed by the Board shall examine each Edge corporation once a year. An Edge or agreement corporation shall make available to examiners information sufficient to assess its condition and operations and the condition and activities of any organization whose shares it holds. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports</I>—(1) <I>Reports of condition.</I> Each Edge or agreement corporation shall make reports of condition to the Board at such times and in such form as the Board may prescribe. The Board may require that statements of condition or other reports be published or made available for public inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign operations.</I> Edge and agreement corporations, member banks, and bank holding companies shall file such reports on their foreign operations as the Board may require. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acquisition or disposition of shares.</I> Member banks, Edge and agreement corporations, and bank holding companies shall report, in a manner prescribed by the Board, any acquisition or disposition of shares. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing and processing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Place of filing.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the Board, applications, notices, and reports required by this part shall be filed with the Federal Reserve Bank of the District in which the parent bank or bank holding company is located or, if none, the Reserve Bank of the District in which the applying or reporting institution is located. Instructions and forms for applications, notices, and reports are available from the Reserve Banks. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> The Board shall act on an application under this subpart within 60 calendar days after the Reserve Bank has received the application, unless the Board notifies the investor that the 60-day period is being extended and states the reasons for the extension.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Foreign Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 211.20" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.20   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>) and the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA) (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart is in furtherance of the purposes of the BHC Act and the IBA. It applies to foreign banks and foreign banking organizations with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) The limitations on interstate banking under section 5 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103); 
</P>
<P>(2) The exemptions from the nonbanking prohibitions of the BHC Act and the IBA afforded by sections 2(h) and 4(c)(9) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(h), 1843(c)(9)); 
</P>
<P>(3) Board approval of the establishment of an office of a foreign bank in the United States under sections 7(d) and 10(a) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d), 3107(a)); 
</P>
<P>(4) The termination by the Board of a foreign bank's representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary under sections 7(e) and 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(e), 3107(b)), and the transmission of a recommendation to the Comptroller to terminate a federal branch or federal agency under section 7(e)(5) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(e)(5)); 
</P>
<P>(5) The examination of an office or affiliate of a foreign bank in the United States as provided in sections 7(c) and 10(c) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(c), 3107(c)); 
</P>
<P>(6) The disclosure of supervisory information to a foreign supervisor under section 15 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3109); 
</P>
<P>(7) The limitations on loans to one borrower by state branches and state agencies of a foreign bank under section 7(h)(2) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(h)(2)); 
</P>
<P>(8) The limitation of a state branch and a state agency to conducting only activities that are permissible for a federal branch under section (7)(h)(1) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(h)(1)); and 
</P>
<P>(9) The deposit insurance requirement for retail deposit taking by a foreign bank under section 6 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3104). 
</P>
<P>(10) The management of shell branches (12 U.S.C. 3105(k)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional requirements.</I> Compliance by a foreign bank with the requirements of this subpart and the laws administered and enforced by the Board does not relieve the foreign bank of responsibility to comply with the laws and regulations administered by the licensing authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.21" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in §§ 211.1 and 211.2 apply to this subpart, except as a term is otherwise defined in this section: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> of a foreign bank or of a parent of a foreign bank means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the foreign bank or the parent of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> means any place of business of a foreign bank, located in any state, at which credit balances are maintained, checks are paid, money is lent, or, to the extent not prohibited by state or federal law, deposits are accepted from a person or entity that is not a citizen or resident of the United States. Obligations shall not be considered credit balances unless they are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Incidental to, or arise out of the exercise of, other lawful banking powers; 
</P>
<P>(2) To serve a specific purpose; 
</P>
<P>(3) Not solicited from the general public; 
</P>
<P>(4) Not used to pay routine operating expenses in the United States such as salaries, rent, or taxes; 
</P>
<P>(5) Withdrawn within a reasonable period of time after the specific purpose for which they were placed has been accomplished; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Drawn upon in a manner reasonable in relation to the size and nature of the account. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Appropriate Federal Reserve Bank</I> means, unless the Board designates a different Federal Reserve Bank: 
</P>
<P>(i) For a foreign banking organization, the Reserve Bank assigned to the foreign banking organization in § 225.3(b)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.3(b)(2)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a foreign bank that is not a foreign banking organization and proposes to establish an office, an Edge corporation, or an agreement corporation, the Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve District in which the foreign bank proposes to establish such office or corporation; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) In all other cases, the Reserve Bank designated by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) The appropriate Federal Reserve Bank need not be the Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve District in which the foreign bank's home state is located. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Banking subsidiary,</I> with respect to a specified foreign bank, means a bank that is a subsidiary as the terms <I>bank</I> and <I>subsidiary</I> are defined in section 2 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Branch</I> means any place of business of a foreign bank, located in any state, at which deposits are received, and that is not an agency, as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Change the status</I> of an office means to convert a representative office into a branch or agency, or an agency or limited branch into a branch, but does not include renewal of the license of an existing office. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commercial lending company</I> means any organization, other than a bank or an organization operating under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA) (12 U.S.C. 601-604a), organized under the laws of any state, that maintains credit balances permissible for an agency, and engages in the business of making commercial loans. <I>Commercial lending company</I> includes any company chartered under article XII of the banking law of the State of New York. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Comptroller</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), and the terms <I>controlled</I> and <I>controlling</I> shall be construed consistently with the term <I>control.</I> 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Domestic branch</I> means any place of business of a foreign bank, located in any state, that may accept domestic deposits and deposits that are incidental to or for the purpose of carrying out transactions in foreign countries. 
</P>
<P>(k) A foreign bank <I>engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States</I> if the foreign bank engages directly in banking activities usual in connection with the business of banking in the countries where it is organized or operating. 
</P>
<P>(l) To <I>establish</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) To open and conduct business through an office; 
</P>
<P>(2) To acquire directly, through merger, consolidation, or similar transaction with another foreign bank, the operations of an office that is open and conducting business; 
</P>
<P>(3) To acquire an office through the acquisition of a foreign bank subsidiary that will cease to operate in the same corporate form following the acquisition; 
</P>
<P>(4) To change the status of an office; or 
</P>
<P>(5) To relocate an office from one state to another. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal agency, federal branch, state agency,</I> and <I>state branch</I> have the same meanings as in section 1 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101). 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States. The term <I>foreign bank</I> does not include a central bank of a foreign country that does not engage or seek to engage in a commercial banking business in the United States through an office. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Operates a branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls a bank in the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Controls an Edge corporation acquired after March 5, 1987; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any company of which the foreign bank is a subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Home country,</I> with respect to a foreign bank, means the country in which the foreign bank is chartered or incorporated. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Home country supervisor,</I> with respect to a foreign bank, means the governmental entity or entities in the foreign bank's home country with responsibility for the supervision and regulation of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Licensing authority</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant state supervisor, with respect to an application to establish a state branch, state agency, commercial lending company, or representative office of a foreign bank; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller, with respect to an application to establish a federal branch or federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limited branch</I> means a branch of a foreign bank that receives only such deposits as would be permitted for a corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611-631).
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Office</I> or <I>office of a foreign bank</I> means any branch, agency, representative office, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(u) A <I>parent</I> of a foreign bank means a company of which the foreign bank is a subsidiary. An <I>immediate parent</I> of a foreign bank is a company of which the foreign bank is a direct subsidiary. An <I>ultimate parent</I> of a foreign bank is a parent of the foreign bank that is not the subsidiary of any other company. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Regional administrative office</I> means a representative office that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is established by a foreign bank that operates two or more branches, agencies, commercial lending companies, or banks in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is located in the same city as one or more of the foreign bank's branches, agencies, commercial lending companies, or banks in the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Manages, supervises, or coordinates the operations of the foreign bank or its affiliates, if any, in a particular geographic area that includes the United States or a region thereof, including by exercising credit approval authority in that area pursuant to written standards, credit policies, and procedures established by the foreign bank; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Does not solicit business from actual or potential customers of the foreign bank or its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Relevant state supervisor</I> means the state entity that is authorized to supervise and regulate a state branch, state agency, commercial lending company, or representative office. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Representative office</I> means any office of a foreign bank which is located in any state and is not a Federal branch, Federal agency, State branch, State agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>State</I> means any state of the United States or the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Subsidiary</I> means any organization that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has 25 percent or more of its voting shares directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with the power to vote by a company, including a foreign bank or foreign banking organization; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is otherwise controlled, or capable of being controlled, by a foreign bank or foreign banking organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.22" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.22   Interstate banking operations of foreign banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of home state.</I> (1) A foreign bank that, as of December 10, 1997, had declared a home state or had a home state determined pursuant to the law and regulations in effect prior to that date shall have that state as its home state. 
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank that has any branches, agencies, commercial lending company subsidiaries, or subsidiary banks in one state, and has no such offices or subsidiaries in any other states, shall have as its home state the state in which such offices or subsidiaries are located. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change of home state</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice.</I> A foreign bank may change its home state once, if it files 30 days' prior notice of the proposed change with the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application to change home state.</I> (i) A foreign bank, in addition to changing its home state by filing prior notice under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, may apply to the Board to change its home state, upon showing that a national bank or state-chartered bank with the same home state as the foreign bank would be permitted to change its home state to the new home state proposed by the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign bank may apply to the Board for such permission one or more times. 
</P>
<P>(iii) In determining whether to grant the request of a foreign bank to change its home state, the Board shall consider whether the proposed change is consistent with competitive equity between foreign and domestic banks. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of change in home state.</I> The home state of a foreign bank and any change in its home state by a foreign bank shall not affect which Federal Reserve Bank or Reserve Banks supervise the operations of the foreign bank, and shall not affect the obligation of the foreign bank to file required reports and applications with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conforming branches to new home state.</I> Upon any change in home state by a foreign bank under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the domestic branches of the foreign bank established in reliance on any previous home state of the foreign bank shall be conformed to those which a foreign bank with the new home state could permissibly establish or operate as of the date of such change. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition against interstate deposit production offices.</I> A covered interstate branch of a foreign bank may not be used as a deposit production office in accordance with the provisions in § 208.7 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.7). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.23" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.23   Nonbanking activities of foreign banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying foreign banking organizations.</I> Unless specifically made eligible for the exemptions by the Board, a foreign banking organization shall qualify for the exemptions afforded by this section only if, disregarding its United States banking, more than half of its worldwide business is banking; and more than half of its banking business is outside the United States. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> In order to qualify, a foreign banking organization shall: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> None of the assets, revenues, or net income, whether held or derived directly or indirectly, of a subsidiary bank, branch, agency, commercial lending company, or other company engaged in the business of banking in the United States (including any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands) shall be considered held or derived from the business of banking “outside the United States”.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Meet at least two of the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) Banking assets held outside the United States exceed total worldwide nonbanking assets; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Revenues derived from the business of banking outside the United States exceed total revenues derived from its worldwide nonbanking business; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income derived from the business of banking outside the United States exceeds total net income derived from its worldwide nonbanking business; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Meet at least two of the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) Banking assets held outside the United States exceed banking assets held in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Revenues derived from the business of banking outside the United States exceed revenues derived from the business of banking in the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income derived from the business of banking outside the United States exceeds net income derived from the business of banking in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining assets, revenues, and net income.</I> (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the total assets, revenues, and net income of an organization may be determined on a consolidated or combined basis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign banking organization shall include assets, revenues, and net income of companies in which it owns 50 percent or more of the voting shares when determining total assets, revenues, and net income. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The foreign banking organization may include assets, revenues, and net income of companies in which it owns 25 percent or more of the voting shares, if all such companies within the organization are included. 
</P>
<P>(2) Assets devoted to, or revenues or net income derived from, activities listed in § 211.10(a) shall be considered banking assets, or revenues or net income derived from the banking business, when conducted within the foreign banking organization by a foreign bank or its subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited exemptions available to foreign banking organizations in certain circumstances.</I> The following shall apply where a foreign bank meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section but its ultimate parent does not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Such foreign bank shall be entitled to the exemptions available to a qualifying foreign banking organization if its ultimate parent meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and could meet the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section but for the requirement in paragraph (b)(2) of this section that activities must be conducted by the foreign bank or its subsidiaries in order to be considered derived from the banking business; 
</P>
<P>(2) An ultimate parent as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be eligible for the exemptions available to a qualifying foreign banking organization except for those provided in § 211.23(f)(5)(iii). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loss of eligibility for exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Failure to meet qualifying test.</I> A foreign banking organization that qualified under paragraph (a) or (c) of this section shall cease to be eligible for the exemptions of this section if it fails to meet the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (c) of this section for two consecutive years, as reflected in its annual reports (FR Y-7) filed with the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Continuing activities and investments.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization that ceases to be eligible for the exemptions of this section may continue to engage in activities or retain investments commenced or acquired prior to the end of the first fiscal year for which its annual report reflects nonconformance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Termination or divestiture.</I> Activities commenced or investments made after that date shall be terminated or divested within three months of the filing of the second annual report, or at such time as the Board may determine upon request by the foreign banking organization to extend the period, unless the Board grants consent to continue the activity or retain the investment under paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for specific determination of eligibility.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization that ceases to qualify under paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, or an affiliate of such foreign banking organization, that requests a specific determination of eligibility under paragraph (e) of this section may, prior to the Board's determination on eligibility, continue to engage in activities and make investments under the provisions of paragraphs (f)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may grant consent for the foreign banking organization or its affiliate to make investments under paragraph (f)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific determination of eligibility for organizations that do not qualify for the exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> (i) A foreign organization that is not a foreign banking organization or a foreign banking organization that does not qualify under paragraph (a) or (c) of this section for some or all of the exemptions afforded by this section, or that has lost its eligibility for the exemptions under paragraph (d) of this section, may apply to the Board for a specific determination of eligibility for some or all of the exemptions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign banking organization may apply for a specific determination prior to the time it ceases to be eligible for the exemptions afforded by this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors considered by Board.</I> In determining whether eligibility for the exemptions would be consistent with the purposes of the BHC Act and in the public interest, the Board shall consider: 
</P>
<P>(i) The history and the financial and managerial resources of the foreign organization or foreign banking organization; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of its business in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount, type, and location of its nonbanking activities, including whether such activities may be conducted by U.S. banks or bank holding companies; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether eligibility of the foreign organization or foreign banking organization would result in undue concentration of resources, decreased or unfair competition, conflicts of interests, or unsound banking practices; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The extent to which the foreign banking organization is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis or the foreign organization is subject to oversight by regulatory authorities in its home country. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditions and limitations.</I> The Board may impose any conditions and limitations on a determination of eligibility, including requirements to cease activities or dispose of investments. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligibility not granted.</I> Determinations of eligibility generally would not be granted where a majority of the business of the foreign organization or foreign banking organization derives from commercial or industrial activities. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permissible activities and investments.</I> A foreign banking organization that qualifies under paragraph (a) of this section may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in activities of any kind outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(2) Engage directly in activities in the United States that are incidental to its activities outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(3) Own or control voting shares of any company that is not engaged, directly or indirectly, in any activities in the United States, other than those that are incidental to the international or foreign business of such company; 
</P>
<P>(4) Own or control voting shares of any company in a fiduciary capacity under circumstances that would entitle such shareholding to an exemption under section 4(c)(4) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(4)) if the shares were held or acquired by a bank; 
</P>
<P>(5) Own or control voting shares of a foreign company that is engaged directly or indirectly in business in the United States other than that which is incidental to its international or foreign business, subject to the following limitations: 
</P>
<P>(i) More than 50 percent of the foreign company's consolidated assets shall be located, and consolidated revenues derived from, outside the United States; provided that, if the foreign company fails to meet the requirements of this paragraph (f)(5)(i) for two consecutive years (as reflected in annual reports (FR Y-7) filed with the Board by the foreign banking organization), the foreign company shall be divested or its activities terminated within one year of the filing of the second consecutive annual report that reflects nonconformance with the requirements of this paragraph (f)(5)(i), unless the Board grants consent to retain the investment under paragraph (g) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign company shall not directly underwrite, sell, or distribute, nor own or control more than 10 percent of the voting shares of a company that underwrites, sells, or distributes securities in the United States, except to the extent permitted bank holding companies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the foreign company is a subsidiary of the foreign banking organization, the foreign company must be, or must control, an operating company, and its direct or indirect activities in the United States shall be subject to the following limitations: 
</P>
<P>(A) The foreign company's activities in the United States shall be the same kind of activities, or related to the activities, engaged in directly or indirectly by the foreign company abroad, as measured by the “establishment” categories of the Standard Industrial Classification (SIC). An activity in the United States shall be considered related to an activity outside the United States if it consists of supply, distribution, or sales in furtherance of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(B) The foreign company may engage in activities in the United States that consist of banking, securities, insurance, or other financial operations, or types of activities permitted by regulation or order under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), only under regulations of the Board or with the prior approval of the Board, subject to the following; 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Activities within Division H (Finance, Insurance, and Real Estate) of the SIC shall be considered banking or financial operations for this purpose, with the exception of acting as operators of nonresidential buildings (SIC 6512), operators of apartment buildings (SIC 6513), operators of dwellings other than apartment buildings (SIC 6514), and operators of residential mobile home sites (SIC 6515); and operating title abstract offices (SIC 6541); and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The following activities shall be considered financial activities and may be engaged in only with the approval of the Board under paragraph (g) of this section: credit reporting services (SIC 7323); computer and data processing services (SIC 7371, 7372, 7373, 7374, 7375, 7376, 7377, 7378, and 7379); armored car services (SIC 7381); management consulting (SIC 8732, 8741, 8742, and 8748); certain rental and leasing activities (SIC 4741, 7352, 7353, 7359, 7513, 7514, 7515, and 7519); accounting, auditing, and bookkeeping services (SIC 8721); courier services (SIC 4215 and 4513); and arrangement of passenger transportation (SIC 4724, 4725, and 4729). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions under section 4(c)(9) of the BHC Act.</I> A foreign banking organization that is of the opinion that other activities or investments may, in particular circumstances, meet the conditions for an exemption under section 4(c)(9) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(9)) may apply to the Board for such a determination by submitting to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank a letter setting forth the basis for that opinion. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reports.</I> The foreign banking organization shall report in a manner prescribed by the Board any direct activities in the United States by a foreign subsidiary of the foreign banking organization and the acquisition of all shares of companies engaged, directly or indirectly, in activities in the United States that were acquired under the authority of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of information.</I> If any information required under this section is unknown and not reasonably available to the foreign banking organization (either because obtaining it would involve unreasonable effort or expense, or because it rests exclusively within the knowledge of a company that is not controlled by the organization) the organization shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Give such information on the subject as it possesses or can reasonably acquire, together with the sources thereof; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Include a statement showing that unreasonable effort or expense would be involved, or indicating that the company whose shares were acquired is not controlled by the organization, and stating the result of a request for information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.24" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.24   Approval of offices of foreign banks; procedures for applications; standards for approval; representative office activities and standards for approval; preservation of existing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board approval of offices of foreign banks</I>—(1) <I>Prior Board approval of branches, agencies, commercial lending companies, or representative offices of foreign banks.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, a foreign bank shall obtain the approval of the Board before it: 
</P>
<P>(A) Establishes a branch, agency, commercial lending company subsidiary, or representative office in the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Acquires ownership or control of a commercial lending company subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice for certain offices.</I> (i) After providing 45 days' prior written notice to the Board, a foreign bank may establish: 
</P>
<P>(A) An additional office (other than a domestic branch outside the home state of the foreign bank established pursuant to section 5(a)(3) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(3))), provided that the Board has previously determined the foreign bank to be subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by its home country supervisor (<I>comprehensive consolidated supervision</I> or <I>CCS</I>); or
</P>
<P>(B) A representative office, if: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Board has not yet determined the foreign bank to be subject to consolidated comprehensive supervision, but the foreign bank is subject to the BHC Act, either directly or through section 8(a) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Board previously has approved an application by the foreign bank to establish a branch or agency pursuant to the standard set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Board previously has approved an application by the foreign bank to establish a representative office.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may waive the 45-day notice period if it finds that immediate action is required by the circumstances presented. The notice period shall commence at the time the notice is received by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. The Board may suspend the period or require Board approval prior to the establishment of such office if the notification raises significant policy or supervisory concerns. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>General consent for certain representative offices.</I> (i) The Board grants its general consent for a foreign bank that is subject to the BHC Act, either directly or through section 8(a) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)), to establish: 
</P>
<P>(A) A representative office, but only if the Board has previously determined that the foreign bank proposing to establish a representative office is subject to consolidated comprehensive supervision; 
</P>
<P>(B) A regional administrative office; or 
</P>
<P>(C) An office that solely engages in limited administrative functions (such as separately maintaining back-office support systems) that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Are clearly defined; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Are performed in connection with the U.S. banking activities of the foreign bank; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Do not involve contact or liaison with customers or potential customers, beyond incidental contact with existing customers relating to administrative matters (such as verification or correction of account information).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Suspension of general consent or prior notice procedures.</I> The Board may, at any time, upon notice, modify or suspend the prior notice and general consent procedures in paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section for any foreign bank with respect to the establishment by such foreign bank of any U.S. office of such foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Temporary offices.</I> The Board may, in its discretion, determine that a foreign bank has not established an office if the foreign bank temporarily operates at one or more additional locations in the same city of an existing branch or agency due to renovations, an expansion of activities, a merger or consolidation of the operations of affiliated foreign banks or companies, or other similar circumstances. The foreign bank must provide reasonable advance notice of its intent temporarily to utilize additional locations, and the Board may impose such conditions in connection with its determination as it deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>After-the-fact Board approval.</I> Where a foreign bank proposes to establish an office in the United States through the acquisition of, or merger or consolidation with, another foreign bank with an office in the United States, the Board may, in its discretion, allow the acquisition, merger, or consolidation to proceed before an application to establish the office has been filed or acted upon under this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign bank or banks resulting from the acquisition, merger, or consolidation, will not directly or indirectly own or control more than 5 percent of any class of the voting securities of, or control, a U.S. bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board is given reasonable advance notice of the proposed acquisition, merger, or consolidation; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior to consummation of the acquisition, merger, or consolidation, each foreign bank, as appropriate, commits in writing either: 
</P>
<P>(A) To comply with the procedures for an application under this section within a reasonable period of time; to engage in no new lines of business, or otherwise to expand its U.S. activities until the disposition of the application; and to abide by the Board's decision on the application, including, if necessary, a decision to terminate the activities of any such U.S. office, as the Board or the Comptroller may require; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Promptly to wind-down and close any office, the establishment of which would have required an application under this section; and to engage in no new lines of business or otherwise to expand its U.S. activities prior to the closure of such office. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notice of change in ownership or control or conversion of existing office or establishment of representative office under general-consent authority.</I> A foreign bank with a U.S. office shall notify the Board in writing within 10 days of the occurrence of any of the following events: 
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the foreign bank's ownership or control, where the foreign bank is acquired or controlled by another foreign bank or company and the acquired foreign bank with a U.S. office continues to operate in the same corporate form as prior to the change in ownership or control; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The conversion of a branch to an agency or representative office; an agency to a representative office; or a branch or agency from a federal to a state license, or a state to a federal license; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The establishment of a representative office under general-consent authority. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transactions subject to approval under Regulation Y.</I> Subpart B of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.11-225.17) governs the acquisition by a foreign banking organization of direct or indirect ownership or control of any voting securities of a bank or bank holding company in the United States if the acquisition results in the foreign banking organization's ownership or control of more than 5 percent of any class of voting securities of a U.S. bank or bank holding company, including through acquisition of a foreign bank or foreign banking organization that owns or controls more than 5 percent of any class of the voting securities of a U.S. bank or bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for application</I>—(1) <I>Filing application.</I> An application for the Board's approval pursuant to this section shall be filed in the manner prescribed by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Publication requirement</I>—(i) <I>Newspaper notice.</I> Except with respect to a proposed transaction where more extensive notice is required by statute or as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, an applicant under this section shall publish a notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the applicant proposes to engage in business. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The newspaper notice shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) State that an application is being filed as of the date of the newspaper notice; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Provide the name of the applicant, the subject matter of the application, the place where comments should be sent, and the date by which comments are due, pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Copy of notice with application.</I> The applicant shall furnish with its application to the Board a copy of the newspaper notice, the date of its publication, and the name and address of the newspaper in which it was published. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exception.</I> The Board may modify the publication requirement of paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section in appropriate circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Federal branch or federal agency.</I> In the case of an application to establish a federal branch or federal agency, compliance with the publication procedures of the Comptroller shall satisfy the publication requirement of this section. Comments regarding the application should be sent to the Board and the Comptroller. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Written comments.</I> (i) Within 30 days after publication, as required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, any person may submit to the Board written comments and data on an application. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may extend the 30-day comment period if the Board determines that additional relevant information is likely to be provided by interested persons, or if other extenuating circumstances exist. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Board action on application</I>—(i) <I>Time limits.</I> (A) The Board shall act on an application from a foreign bank to establish a branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary within 180 calendar days after the receipt of the application. 
</P>
<P>(B) The Board may extend for an additional 180 calendar days the period within which to take final action, after providing notice of and reasons for the extension to the applicant and the licensing authority. 
</P>
<P>(C) The time periods set forth in this paragraph (b)(4)(i) may be waived by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional information.</I> The Board may request any information in addition to that supplied in the application when the Board believes that the information is necessary for its decision, and may deny an application if it does not receive the information requested from the applicant or its home country supervisor in sufficient time to permit adequate evaluation of the information within the time periods set forth in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Coordination with other regulators.</I> Upon receipt of an application by a foreign bank under this section, the Board shall promptly notify, consult with, and consider the views of the licensing authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for approval of U.S. offices of foreign banks</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory standards</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> As specified in section 7(d) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)), the Board may not approve an application to establish a branch or an agency, or to establish or acquire ownership or control of a commercial lending company, unless it determines that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Each of the foreign bank and any parent foreign bank engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States and, except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by its home country supervisor; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The foreign bank has furnished to the Board the information that the Board requires in order to assess the application adequately. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basis for determining comprehensive consolidated supervision.</I> In determining whether a foreign bank and any parent foreign bank is subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision, the Board shall determine whether the foreign bank is supervised or regulated in such a manner that its home country supervisor receives sufficient information on the worldwide operations of the foreign bank (including the relationships of the bank to any affiliate) to assess the foreign bank's overall financial condition and compliance with law and regulation. In making such a determination, the Board shall assess, among other factors, the extent to which the home country supervisor: 
</P>
<P>(A) Ensures that the foreign bank has adequate procedures for monitoring and controlling its activities worldwide; 
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains information on the condition of the foreign bank and its subsidiaries and offices outside the home country through regular reports of examination, audit reports, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(C) Obtains information on the dealings and relationship between the foreign bank and its affiliates, both foreign and domestic; 
</P>
<P>(D) Receives from the foreign bank financial reports that are consolidated on a worldwide basis, or comparable information that permits analysis of the foreign bank's financial condition on a worldwide, consolidated basis; 
</P>
<P>(E) Evaluates prudential standards, such as capital adequacy and risk asset exposure, on a worldwide basis. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination of comprehensive consolidated supervision not required in certain circumstances.</I> (A) If the Board is unable to find, under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, that a foreign bank is subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision, the Board may, nevertheless, approve an application by the foreign bank if: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The home country supervisor is actively working to establish arrangements for the consolidated supervision of such bank; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All other factors are consistent with approval. 
</P>
<P>(B) In deciding whether to use its discretion under this paragraph (c)(1)(iii), the Board also shall consider whether the foreign bank has adopted and implemented procedures to combat money laundering. The Board also may take into account whether the home country supervisor is developing a legal regime to address money laundering or is participating in multilateral efforts to combat money laundering. In approving an application under this paragraph (c)(1)(iii), the Board, after requesting and taking into consideration the views of the licensing authority, may impose any conditions or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the proposed branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary, including restrictions on sources of funding. The Board shall coordinate with the licensing authority in the implementation of such conditions or restrictions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional standards.</I> In acting on any application under this subpart, the Board may take into account: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Consent of home country supervisor.</I> Whether the home country supervisor of the foreign bank has consented to the proposed establishment of the branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary; 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Financial resources.</I> The financial resources of the foreign bank (including the foreign bank's capital position, projected capital position, profitability, level of indebtedness, and future prospects) and the condition of any U.S. office of the foreign bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Managerial resources.</I> The managerial resources of the foreign bank, including the competence, experience, and integrity of the officers and directors; the integrity of its principal shareholders; management's experience and capacity to engage in international banking; and the record of the foreign bank and its management of complying with laws and regulations, and of fulfilling any commitments to, and any conditions imposed by, the Board in connection with any prior application; 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Sharing information with supervisors.</I> Whether the foreign bank's home country supervisor and the home country supervisor of any parent of the foreign bank share material information regarding the operations of the foreign bank with other supervisory authorities; 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Assurances to Board.</I> (A) Whether the foreign bank has provided the Board with adequate assurances that information will be made available to the Board on the operations or activities of the foreign bank and any of its affiliates that the Board deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with the IBA, the BHC Act, and other applicable federal banking statutes. 
</P>
<P>(B) These assurances shall include a statement from the foreign bank describing the laws that would restrict the foreign bank or any of its parents from providing information to the Board; 
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Measures for prevention of money laundering.</I> Whether the foreign bank has adopted and implemented procedures to combat money laundering, whether there is a legal regime in place in the home country to address money laundering, and whether the home country is participating in multilateral efforts to combat money laundering; 
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Compliance with U.S. law.</I> Whether the foreign bank and its U.S. affiliates are in compliance with applicable U.S. law, and whether the applicant has established adequate controls and procedures in each of its offices to ensure continuing compliance with U.S. law, including controls directed to detection of money laundering and other unsafe or unsound banking practices; and (viii) The needs of the community and the history of operation of the foreign bank and its relative size in its home country, provided that the size of the foreign bank is not the sole factor in determining whether an office of a foreign bank should be approved. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional standards for certain interstate applications.</I> (i) As specified in section 5(a)(3) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(3)), the Board may not approve an application by a foreign bank to establish a branch, other than a limited branch, outside the home state of the foreign bank under section 5(a)(1) or (2) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(1), (2)) unless the Board: 
</P>
<P>(A) Determines that the foreign bank's financial resources, including the capital level of the bank, are equivalent to those required for a domestic bank to be approved for branching under section 5155 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 36) and section 44 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA) (12 U.S.C. 1831u); 
</P>
<P>(B) Consults with the Department of the Treasury regarding capital equivalency; 
</P>
<P>(C) Applies the standards specified in section 7(d) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)) and this paragraph (c); and 
</P>
<P>(D) Applies the same requirements and conditions to which an application by a domestic bank for an interstate merger is subject under section 44(b)(1), (3), and (4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831u(b)(1), (3), (4)); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) As specified in section 5(a)(7) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(7)), the Board may not approve an application to establish a branch through a change in status of an agency or limited branch outside the foreign bank's home state unless: 
</P>
<P>(A) The establishment and operation of such branch is permitted by such state; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Such agency or branch has been in operation in such state for a period of time that meets the state's minimum age requirement permitted under section 44(a)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 183u(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Board conditions on approval.</I> The Board may impose any conditions on its approval as it deems necessary, including a condition which may permit future termination by the Board of any activities or, in the case of a federal branch or a federal agency, by the Comptroller, based on the inability of the foreign bank to provide information on its activities or those of its affiliates that the Board deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with U.S. banking laws. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Representative offices</I>—(1) <I>Permissible activities.</I> A representative office may engage in: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Representational and administrative functions.</I> Representational and administrative functions in connection with the banking activities of the foreign bank, which may include soliciting new business for the foreign bank; conducting research; acting as liaison between the foreign bank's head office and customers in the United States; performing preliminary and servicing steps in connection with lending; 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> or performing back-office functions; but shall not include contracting for any deposit or deposit-like liability, lending money, or engaging in any other banking activity for the foreign bank; 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR 250.141(h) for activities that constitute preliminary and servicing steps.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit approvals under certain circumstances.</I> Making credit decisions if the foreign bank also operates one or more branches or agencies in the United States, the loans approved at the representative office are made by a U.S. office of the bank, and the loan proceeds are not disbursed in the representative office; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other functions.</I> Other functions for or on behalf of the foreign bank or its affiliates, such as operating as a regional administrative office of the foreign bank, but only to the extent that these other functions are not banking activities and are not prohibited by applicable federal or state law, or by ruling or order of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for approval of representative offices.</I> As specified in section 10(a)(2) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3107(a)(2)), in acting on the application of a foreign bank to establish a representative office, the Board shall take into account, to the extent it deems appropriate, the standards for approval set out in paragraph (c) of this section. The standard regarding supervision by the foreign bank's home country supervisor (as set out in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section) will be met, in the case of a representative office application, if the Board makes a finding that the applicant bank is subject to a supervisory framework that is consistent with the activities of the proposed representative office, taking into account the nature of such activities and the operating record of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special-purpose foreign government-owned banks.</I> A foreign government-owned organization engaged in banking activities in its home country that are not commercial in nature may apply to the Board for a determination that the organization is not a foreign bank for purposes of this section. A written request setting forth the basis for such a determination may be submitted to the Reserve Bank of the District in which the foreign organization's representative office is located in the United States, or to the Board, in the case of a proposed establishment of a representative office. The Board shall review and act upon each request on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional requirements.</I> The Board may impose any additional requirements that it determines to be necessary to carry out the purposes of the IBA. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preservation of existing authority.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to relieve any foreign bank or foreign banking organization from any otherwise applicable requirement of federal or state law, including any applicable licensing requirement. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reports of crimes and suspected crimes.</I> Except for a federal branch or a federal agency or a state branch that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), a branch, agency, or representative office of a foreign bank operating in the United States shall file a suspicious activity report in accordance with the provisions of § 208.62 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.62). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Management of shell branches.</I> (1) A state-licensed branch or agency shall not manage, through an office of the foreign bank which is located outside the United States and is managed or controlled by such state-licensed branch or agency, any type of activity that a bank organized under the laws of the United States or any state is not permitted to manage at any branch or subsidiary of such bank which is located outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (g), an office of a foreign bank located outside the United States is “managed or controlled” by a state-licensed branch or agency if a majority of the responsibility for business decisions, including but not limited to decisions with regard to lending or asset management or funding or liability management, or the responsibility for recordkeeping in respect of assets or liabilities for that non-U.S. office, resides at the state-licensed branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(3) The types of activities that a state-licensed branch or agency may manage through an office located outside the United States that it manage or controls include the types of activities authorized to a U.S. bank by state or federal charters, regulations issued by chartering or regulatory authorities, and other U.S. banking laws, including the Federal Reserve Act, and the implementing regulations, but U.S. procedural or quantitative requirements that may be applicable to the conduct of such activities by U.S. banks shall not apply. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Government securities sales practices.</I> An uninsured state-licensed branch or agency of a foreign bank that is required to give notice to the Board under section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and the Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401) shall be subject to the provisions of 12 CFR 208.37 to the same extent as a state member bank that is required to give such notice. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Protection of customer information and consumer information.</I> An uninsured state-licensed branch or agency of a foreign bank shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805) and, with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information, section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w), set forth in appendix D-2 to part 208 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act compliance</I>—(1) <I>Establishment of Compliance Program.</I> Except for a Federal branch or a Federal agency or a state branch that is insured by the FDIC, a branch, agency, or representative office of a foreign bank operating in the United States shall, in accordance with the provisions of § 208.63 of the Board's Regulation H, 12 CFR 208.63, develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the provisions of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Bank Secrecy Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR part 103. The compliance program shall be reduced to writing, and either:
</P>
<P>(i) Approved by the foreign bank's board of directors and noted in the minutes, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Approved by a delegee acting under the express authority of the board of directors to approve the Bank Secrecy Act compliance program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Except for a federal branch or a federal agency or a state branch that is insured by the FDIC, a branch, agency, or representative office of a foreign bank operating in the United States is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the Board and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 103.121, which require a customer identification program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 53474, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 68 FR 35112, May 9, 2003; 69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004; 71 FR 13936, Mar. 20, 2006; 75 FR 44692, July 28, 2010; 84 FR 21692, May 15, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.25" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.25   Termination of offices of foreign banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for termination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Under sections 7(e) and 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d), 3107(b)), the Board may order a foreign bank to terminate the activities of its representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary if the Board finds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign bank is not subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision in accordance with § 211.24(c)(1), and the home country supervisor is not making demonstrable progress in establishing arrangements for the consolidated supervision of the foreign bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Both of the following criteria are met: 
</P>
<P>(A) There is reasonable cause to believe that the foreign bank, or any of its affiliates, has committed a violation of law or engaged in an unsafe or unsound banking practice in the United States; and 
</P>
<P>(B) As a result of such violation or practice, the continued operation of the foreign bank's representative office, state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary would not be consistent with the public interest, or with the purposes of the IBA, the BHC Act, or the FDIA. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional ground.</I> The Board also may enforce any condition imposed in connection with an order issued under § 211.24. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factor.</I> In making its findings under this section, the Board may take into account the needs of the community, the history of operation of the foreign bank, and its relative size in its home country, provided that the size of the foreign bank shall not be the sole determining factor in a decision to terminate an office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation with relevant state supervisor.</I> Except in the case of termination pursuant to the expedited procedure in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Board shall request and consider the views of the relevant state supervisor before issuing an order terminating the activities of a state branch, state agency, representative office, or commercial lending company subsidiary under this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice and hearing.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, an order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be issued only after notice to the relevant state supervisor and the foreign bank and after an opportunity for a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures for hearing.</I> Hearings under this section shall be conducted pursuant to the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited procedure.</I> The Board may act without providing an opportunity for a hearing, if it determines that expeditious action is necessary in order to protect the public interest. When the Board finds that it is necessary to act without providing an opportunity for a hearing, the Board, solely in its discretion, may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the foreign bank that is the subject of the termination order with notice of the intended termination order; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Grant the foreign bank an opportunity to present a written submission opposing issuance of the order; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Take any other action designed to provide the foreign bank with notice and an opportunity to present its views concerning the order. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination of federal branch or federal agency.</I> The Board may transmit to the Comptroller a recommendation that the license of a federal branch or federal agency be terminated if the Board has reasonable cause to believe that the foreign bank or any affiliate of the foreign bank has engaged in conduct for which the activities of a state branch or state agency may be terminated pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Voluntary termination.</I> A foreign bank shall notify the Board at least 30 days prior to terminating the activities of any office. Notice pursuant to this paragraph (f) is in addition to, and does not satisfy, any other federal or state requirements relating to the termination of an office or the requirement for prior notice of the closing of a branch, pursuant to section 39 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831p). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.26" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.26   Examination of offices and affiliates of foreign banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct of examinations</I>—(1) <I>Examination of branches, agencies, commercial lending companies, and affiliates.</I> The Board may examine: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any branch or agency of a foreign bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commercial lending company or bank controlled by one or more foreign banks, or one or more foreign companies that control a foreign bank; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other office or affiliate of a foreign bank conducting business in any state. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examination of representative offices.</I> The Board may examine any representative office in the manner and with the frequency it deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordination of examinations.</I> To the extent possible, the Board shall coordinate its examinations of the U.S. offices and U.S. affiliates of a foreign bank with the licensing authority and, in the case of an insured branch, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), including through simultaneous examinations of the U.S. offices and U.S. affiliates of a foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of on-site examination</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each branch or agency of a foreign bank shall be examined on-site at least once during each 12-month period (beginning on the date the most recent examination of the office ended) by—
</P>
<P>(i) The Board; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC, if the branch of the foreign bank accepts or maintains insured deposits; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Comptroller, if the branch or agency of the foreign bank is licensed by the Comptroller; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The state supervisor, if the office of the foreign bank is licensed or chartered by the state. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>18-month cycle for certain small institutions</I>—(i) <I>Mandatory standards.</I> The Board may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if the branch or agency— 
</P>
<P>(A) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(B) Has received a composite ROCA supervisory rating (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination; 
</P>
<P>(C) Satisfies the requirement of either the following paragraph (c)(2)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>): 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The foreign bank's most recently reported capital adequacy position consists of, or is equivalent to, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios of at least 6 percent and 10 percent, respectively, on a consolidated basis; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The branch or agency has maintained on a daily basis, over the past three quarters, eligible assets in an amount not less than 108 percent of the preceding quarter's average third-party liabilities (determined consistent with applicable federal and state law) and sufficient liquidity is currently available to meet its obligations to third parties; 
</P>
<P>(D) Is not subject to a formal enforcement action or order by the Board, FDIC, or OCC; and 
</P>
<P>(E) Has not experienced a change in control during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope, on-site examination would have been required but for this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discretionary standards.</I> In determining whether a branch or agency of a foreign bank that meets the standards of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section should not be eligible for an 18-month examination cycle pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2), the Board may consider additional factors, including whether— 
</P>
<P>(A) Any of the individual components of the ROCA supervisory rating of a branch or agency of a foreign bank is rated “3” or worse; 
</P>
<P>(B) The results of any off-site surveillance indicate a deterioration in the condition of the office; 
</P>
<P>(C) The size, relative importance, and role of a particular office when reviewed in the context of the foreign bank's entire U.S. operations otherwise necessitate an annual examination; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The condition of the foreign bank gives rise to such a need. 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, from December 2, 2020 through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the extended examination cycle described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the total assets of a branch or agency shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total assets of the branch or agency as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total assets of the branch or agency as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(B) The relief provided under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section does not apply to a branch or agency if the Board determines that permitting the branch or agency to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the branch or agency. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the branch or agency since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the branch or agency has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the branch or agency. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> Nothing in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section limits the authority of the Board to examine any U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank as frequently as it deems necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, as amended at 72 FR 17802, Apr. 10, 2007; 81 FR 10069, Feb. 29, 2016; 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77360, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.27" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.27   Disclosure of supervisory information to foreign supervisors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure by Board.</I> The Board may disclose information obtained in the course of exercising its supervisory or examination authority to a foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority, if the Board determines that disclosure is appropriate for bank supervisory or regulatory purposes and will not prejudice the interests of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Before making any disclosure of information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Board shall obtain, to the extent necessary, the agreement of the foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority to maintain the confidentiality of such information to the extent possible under applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.28" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.28   Provisions applicable to branches and agencies: limitation on loans to one borrower.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on loans to one borrower.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the total loans and extensions of credit by all the state branches and state agencies of a foreign bank outstanding to a single borrower at one time shall be aggregated with the total loans and extensions of credit by all federal branches and federal agencies of the same foreign bank outstanding to such borrower at the time; and shall be subject to the limitations and other provisions of section 5200 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 84), and the regulations promulgated thereunder, in the same manner that extensions of credit by a federal branch or federal agency are subject to section 4(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3102(b)) as if such state branches and state agencies were federal branches and federal agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preexisting loans and extensions of credit.</I> Any loans or extensions of credit to a single borrower that were originated prior to December 19, 1991, by a state branch or state agency of the same foreign bank and that, when aggregated with loans and extensions of credit by all other branches and agencies of the foreign bank, exceed the limits set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, may be brought into compliance with such limitations through routine repayment, provided that any new loans or extensions of credit (including renewals of existing unfunded credit lines, or extensions of the maturities of existing loans) to the same borrower shall comply with the limits set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.29" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.29   Applications by state branches and state agencies to conduct activities not permissible for federal branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> A state branch or state agency shall file with the Board a prior written application for permission to engage in or continue to engage in any type of activity that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is not permissible for a federal branch, pursuant to statute, regulation, official bulletin or circular, or order or interpretation issued in writing by the Comptroller; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is rendered impermissible due to a subsequent change in statute, regulation, official bulletin or circular, written order or interpretation, or decision of a court of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> No application shall be required by a state branch or state agency to conduct any activity that is otherwise permissible under applicable state and federal law or regulation and that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has been determined by the FDIC, pursuant to 12 CFR 362.4(c)(3)(i) through (c)(3)(ii)(A), not to present a significant risk to the affected deposit insurance fund; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is permissible for a federal branch, but the Comptroller imposes a quantitative limitation on the conduct of such activity by the federal branch; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is conducted as agent rather than as principal, provided that the activity is one that could be conducted by a state-chartered bank headquartered in the same state in which the branch or agency is licensed; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any other activity that the Board has determined may be conducted by any state branch or state agency of a foreign bank without further application to the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of application.</I> An application submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be in letter form and shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the activity, including the manner in which it will be conducted, and an estimate of the expected dollar volume associated with the activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) An analysis of the impact of the proposed activity on the condition of the U.S. operations of the foreign bank in general, and of the branch or agency in particular, including a copy, if available, of any feasibility study, management plan, financial projections, business plan, or similar document concerning the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(3) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors or, if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, evidence of approval by senior management, authorizing the conduct of such activity and the filing of this application; 
</P>
<P>(4) If the activity is to be conducted by a state branch insured by the FDIC, statements by the applicant: 
</P>
<P>(i) Of whether or not it is in compliance with 12 CFR 346.19 (Pledge of Assets) and 12 CFR 346.20 (Asset Maintenance); 
</P>
<P>(ii) That it has complied with all requirements of the FDIC concerning an application to conduct the activity and the status of the application, including a copy of the FDIC's disposition of such application, if available; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Explaining why the activity will pose no significant risk to the deposit insurance fund; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other information that the Reserve Bank deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors considered in determination.</I> (1) The Board shall consider the following factors in determining whether a proposed activity is consistent with sound banking practice: 
</P>
<P>(i) The types of risks, if any, the activity poses to the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization in general, and the branch or agency in particular; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the activity poses any such risks, the magnitude of each risk; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) If a risk is not de minimis, the actual or proposed procedures to control and minimize the risk. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each of the factors set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall be evaluated in light of the financial condition of the foreign bank in general and the branch or agency in particular and the volume of the activity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application procedures.</I> Applications pursuant to this section shall be filed with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. An application shall not be deemed complete until it contains all the information requested by the Reserve Bank and has been accepted. Approval of such an application may be conditioned on the applicant's agreement to conduct the activity subject to specific conditions or limitations. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Divestiture or cessation.</I> (1) If an application for permission to continue to conduct an activity is not approved by the Board or, if applicable, the FDIC, the applicant shall submit a detailed written plan of divestiture or cessation of the activity to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank within 60 days of the disapproval. 
</P>
<P>(i) The divestiture or cessation plan shall describe in detail the manner in which the applicant will divest itself of or cease the activity, and shall include a projected timetable describing how long the divestiture or cessation is expected to take. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Divestiture or cessation shall be complete within one year from the date of the disapproval, or within such shorter period of time as the Board shall direct. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a foreign bank operating a state branch or state agency chooses not to apply to the Board for permission to continue to conduct an activity that is not permissible for a federal branch, or which is rendered impermissible due to a subsequent change in statute, regulation, official bulletin or circular, written order or interpretation, or decision of a court of competent jurisdiction, the foreign bank shall submit a written plan of divestiture or cessation, in conformance with paragraph (f)(1) of this section within 60 days of the effective date of this part or of such change or decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.30" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.2.4.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.30   Criteria for evaluating U.S. operations of foreign banks not subject to consolidated supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Development and publication of criteria.</I> Pursuant to the Foreign Bank Supervision Enhancement Act, Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2286 (1991), the Board shall develop and publish criteria to be used in evaluating the operations of any foreign bank in the United States that the Board has determined is not subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria considered by Board.</I> Following a determination by the Board that, having taken into account the standards set forth in § 211.24(c)(1), a foreign bank is not subject to CCS, the Board shall consider the following criteria in determining whether the foreign bank's U.S. operations should be permitted to continue and, if so, whether any supervisory constraints should be placed upon the bank in connection with those operations: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proportion of the foreign bank's total assets and total liabilities that are located or booked in its home country, as well as the distribution and location of its assets and liabilities that are located or booked elsewhere;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which the operations and assets of the foreign bank and any affiliates are subject to supervision by its home country supervisor;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the home country supervisor of such foreign bank is actively working to establish arrangements for comprehensive consolidated supervision of the bank, and whether demonstrable progress is being made;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the foreign bank has effective and reliable systems of internal controls and management information and reporting, which enable its management properly to oversee its worldwide operations;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the foreign bank's home country supervisor has any objection to the bank continuing to operate in the United States;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the foreign bank's home country supervisor and the home country supervisor of any parent of the foreign bank share material information regarding the operations of the foreign bank with other supervisory authorities;
</P>
<P>(7) The relationship of the U.S. operations to the other operations of the foreign bank, including whether the foreign bank maintains funds in its U.S. offices that are in excess of amounts due to its U.S. offices from the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices;
</P>
<P>(8) The soundness of the foreign bank's overall financial condition;
</P>
<P>(9) The managerial resources of the foreign bank, including the competence, experience, and integrity of the officers and directors, and the integrity of its principal shareholders;
</P>
<P>(10) The scope and frequency of external audits of the foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(11) The operating record of the foreign bank generally and its role in the banking system in its home country;
</P>
<P>(12) The foreign bank's record of compliance with relevant laws, as well as the adequacy of its anti-money-laundering controls and procedures, in respect of its worldwide operations;
</P>
<P>(13) The operating record of the U.S. offices of the foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(14) The views and recommendations of the Comptroller or the relevant state supervisors in those states in which the foreign bank has operations, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the foreign bank, if requested, has provided the Board with adequate assurances that such information will be made available on the operations or activities of the foreign bank and any of its affiliates as the Board deems necessary to determine and enforce compliance with the IBA, the BHC Act, and other U.S. banking statutes; and
</P>
<P>(16) Any other information relevant to the safety and soundness of the U.S. operations of the foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on U.S. operations</I>—(1) <I>Terms of agreement.</I> Any foreign bank that the Board determines is not subject to CCS may be required to enter into an agreement to conduct its U.S. operations subject to such restrictions as the Board, having considered the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, determines to be appropriate in order to ensure the safety and soundness of its U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to enter into or comply with agreement.</I> A foreign bank that is required by the Board to enter into an agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section and either fails to do so, or fails to comply with the terms of such agreement, may be subject to:
</P>
<P>(i) Enforcement action, in order to ensure safe and sound banking operations, under 12 U.S.C. 1818; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Termination or a recommendation for termination of its U.S. operations, under § 211.25(a) and (e) and section (7)(e) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Export Trading Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. K, 66 FR 54374, Oct. 26, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 211.31" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.3.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.31   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>), the Bank Export Services Act (title II, Pub. L. 97-290, 96 Stat. 1235 (1982)) (BESA), and the Export Trading Company Act Amendments of 1988 (title III, Pub. L. 100-418, 102 Stat. 1384 (1988)) (ETC Act Amendments).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart is in furtherance of the purposes of the BHC Act, the BESA, and the ETC Act Amendments, the latter two statutes being designed to increase U.S. exports by encouraging investments and participation in export trading companies by bank holding companies and the specified investors. The provisions of this subpart apply to eligible investors as defined in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.32" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.3.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.32   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in §§ 211.1 and 211.2 of subpart A apply to this subpart, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appropriate Federal Reserve Bank</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(c) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(b) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(b)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible investors</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Bank holding companies, as defined in section 2(a) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a));
</P>
<P>(2) Edge and agreement corporations that are subsidiaries of bank holding companies but are not subsidiaries of banks;
</P>
<P>(3) Banker's banks, as described in section 4(c)(14)(F)(iii) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)(F)(iii)); and
</P>
<P>(4) Foreign banking organizations, as defined in § 211.21(o).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Export trading company</I> means a company that is exclusively engaged in activities related to international trade and, by engaging in one or more export trade services, derives:
</P>
<P>(1) At least one-third of its revenues in each consecutive four-year period from the export of, or from facilitating the export of, goods and services produced in the United States by persons other than the export trading company or its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(2) More revenues in each four-year period from export activities as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section than it derives from the import, or facilitating the import, into the United States of goods or services produced outside the United States. The four-year period within which to calculate revenues derived from its activities under this section shall be deemed to have commenced with the first fiscal year after the respective export trading company has been in operation for two years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Revenues</I> shall include net sales revenues from exporting, importing, or third-party trade in goods by the export trading company for its own account and gross revenues derived from all other activities of the export trading company.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(d) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Well capitalized</I> has the same meaning as in § 225.2(r) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(r)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Well managed</I> has the same meaning as in § 225.2(s) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(s)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.33" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.3.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.33   Investments and extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amount of investments.</I> In accordance with the procedures of § 211.34, an eligible investor may invest no more than 5 percent of its consolidated capital and surplus in one or more export trading companies, except that an Edge or agreement corporation not engaged in banking may invest as much as 25 percent of its consolidated capital and surplus but no more than 5 percent of the consolidated capital and surplus of its parent bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions of credit</I>—(1) <I>Amount.</I> An eligible investor in an export trading company or companies may extend credit directly or indirectly to the export trading company or companies in a total amount that at no time exceeds 10 percent of the investor's consolidated capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terms.</I> (i) An eligible investor in an export trading company may not extend credit directly or indirectly to the export trading company or any of its customers or to any other investor holding 10 percent or more of the shares of the export trading company on terms more favorable than those afforded similar borrowers in similar circumstances, and such extensions of credit shall not involve more than the normal risk of repayment or present other unfavorable features.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section, an investor in an export trading company includes any affiliate of the investor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collateral requirements.</I> Covered transactions between a bank and an affiliated export trading company in which a bank holding company has invested pursuant to this subpart are subject to the collateral requirements of section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c), except where a bank issues a letter of credit or advances funds to an affiliated export trading company solely to finance the purchase of goods for which:
</P>
<P>(i) The export trading company has a bona fide contract for the subsequent sale of the goods; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank has a security interest in the goods or in the proceeds from their sale at least equal in value to the letter of credit or the advance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.34" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.3.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.34   Procedures for filing and processing notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> Direct and indirect investments by eligible investors in export trading companies shall be made in accordance with the general consent or prior notice procedures contained in this section. The Board may at any time, upon notice, modify or suspend the general-consent procedures with respect to any eligible investor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General consent</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility for general consent.</I> Subject to the other limitations of this subpart, the Board grants its general consent for any investment an export trading company:
</P>
<P>(i) If the eligible investor is well capitalized and well managed;
</P>
<P>(ii) In an amount equal to cash dividends received from that export trading company during the preceding 12 calendar months; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That is acquired from an affiliate at net asset value or through a contribution of shares.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-investment notice.</I> By the end of the month following the month in which the investment is made, the investor shall provide the Board with the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the investment and the source of the funds with which the investment was made; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an initial investment, a description of the activities in which the export trading company proposes to engage and projections for the export trading company for the first year following the investment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing notice</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice.</I> An eligible investor shall give the Board 60 days' prior written notice of any investment in an export trading company that does not qualify under the general consent procedure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of change of activities.</I> (i) An eligible investor shall give the Board 60 days' prior written notice of changes in the activities of an export trading company that is a subsidiary of the investor if the export trading company expands its activities beyond those described in the initial notice to include: 
</P>
<P>(A) Taking title to goods where the export trading company does not have a firm order for the sale of those goods; 
</P>
<P>(B) Product research and design; 
</P>
<P>(C) Product modification; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Activities not specifically covered by the list of activities contained in section 4(c)(14)(F)(ii) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)(F)(ii)). 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such an expansion of activities shall be regarded as a proposed investment under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period for Board action.</I> (1) A proposed investment that has not been disapproved by the Board may be made 60 days after the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank accepts the notice for processing. A proposed investment may be made before the expiration of the 60-day period if the Board notifies the investor in writing of its intention not to disapprove the investment. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may extend the 60-day period for an additional 30 days if the Board determines that the investor has not furnished all necessary information or that any material information furnished is substantially inaccurate. The Board may disapprove an investment if the necessary information is provided within a time insufficient to allow the Board reasonably to consider the information received. 
</P>
<P>(3) Within three days of a decision to disapprove an investment, the Board shall notify the investor in writing and state the reasons for the disapproval. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time period for investment.</I> An investment in an export trading company that has not been disapproved shall be made within one year from the date of the notice not to disapprove, unless the time period is extended by the Board or by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—International Lending Supervision</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>49 FR 5592, Feb. 13, 1984, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 211.41" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.41   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Pub. L. 98-181, title IX, 97 Stat. 1153) (International Lending Supervision Act); the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>) (FRA), and the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>) (BHC Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart is issued in furtherance of the purposes of the International Lending Supervision Act. It applies to State banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (State member banks); corporations organized under section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 through 631) (Edge Corporations); corporations operating subject to an agreement with the Board under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 through 604a) (Agreement Corporations); and bank holding companies (as defined in section 2 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)) but not including a bank holding company that is a foreign banking organization as defined in § 211.21(o).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 1159, Jan. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.42" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.42   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative cost</I> means those costs which are specifically identified with negotiating, processing and consummating the loan. These costs include, but are not necessarily limited to: legal fees; costs of preparing and processing loan documents; and an allocable portion of salaries and related benefits of employees engaged in the international lending function. No portion of supervisory and administrative expenses or other indirect expenses such as occupancy and other similar overhead costs shall be included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking institution</I> means a State member bank; bank holding company; Edge Corporation and Agreement Corporation engaged in banking. Banking institution does not include a foreign banking organization as defined in § 211.21(o).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Comptroller of the Currency, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International assets</I> means those assets required to be included in banking institutions' <I>Country Exposure Report</I> forms (FFIEC No. 009).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International loan</I> means a loan as defined in the instructions to the <I>Report of Condition and Income</I> for the respective banking institution (FFIEC Nos. 031 and 041) and made to a foreign government, or to an individual, a corporation, or other entity not a citizen of, resident in, or organized or incorporated in the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Restructured international loan</I> means a loan that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower is unable to service the existing loan according to its terms and is a resident of a foreign country in which there is a generalized inability of public and private sector obligors to meet their external debt obligations on a timely basis because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country; and
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the existing loan are amended to reduce stated interest or extend the schedule of payments; or
</P>
<P>(3) A new loan is made to, or for the benefit of, the borrower, enabling the borrower to service or refinance the existing debt.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transfer risk</I> means the possibility that an asset cannot be serviced in the currency of payment because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country of the obligor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 1159, Jan. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.43" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.43   Allocated transfer risk reserve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of Allocated Transfer Risk Reserve.</I> A banking institution shall establish an allocated transfer risk reserve (ATRR) for specified international assets when required by the Board in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and standards</I>—(1) <I>Joint agency determination.</I> At least annually, the Federal banking agencies shall determine jointly, based on the standards set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Which international assets subject to transfer risk warrant establishment of an ATRR;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the ATRR for the specified assets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether an ATRR established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for requiring ATRR</I>—(i) <I>Evaluation of assets.</I> The Federal banking agencies shall apply the following criteria in determining whether an ATRR is required for particular international assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the quality of a banking institution's assets has been impaired by a protracted inability of public or private obligors in a foreign country to make payments on their external indebtedness as indicated by such factors, among others, as whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such obligors have failed to make full interest payments on external indebtedness; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such obligors have failed to comply with the terms of any restructured indebtedness; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A foreign country has failed to comply with any International Monetary Fund or other suitable adjustment program; or
</P>
<P>(B) Whether no definite prospects exist for the orderly restoration of debt service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of amount of ATRR.</I> (A) In determining the amount of the ATRR, the Federal banking agencies shall consider:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The length of time the quality of the asset has been impaired;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Recent actions taken to restore debt service capability;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prospects for restored asset quality; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Such other factors as the Federal banking agencies may consider relevant to the quality of the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) The initial year's provision for the ATRR shall be ten percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the Federal banking agencies. Additional provision, if any, for the ATRR in subsequent years shall be fifteen percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the Federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board notification.</I> Based on the joint agency determinations under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Board shall notify each banking institution holding assets subject to an ATRR:
</P>
<P>(i) Of the amount of the ATRR to be established by the institution for specified international assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That an ATRR established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting treatment of ATRR</I>—(1) <I>Charge to current income.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR by a charge to current income and the amounts so charged shall not be included in the banking institution's capital or surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate accounting.</I> A banking institution shall account for an ATRR separately from the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses, and shall deduct the ATRR from “gross loans and leases” to arrive at “net loans and leases.” The ATRR must be established for each asset subject to the ATRR in the percentage amount specified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consolidation.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR, as required, on a consolidated basis. For banks, consolidation should be in accordance with the procedures and tests of significance set forth in the instructions for preparation of <I>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income</I> (FFIEC 031 and 041). For bank holding companies, the consolidation shall be in accordance with the principles set forth in the “Instructions to Consolidated Financial Statements for Bank Holding Companies” (Form F.R. Y-9C). Edge and Agreement corporations engaged in banking shall report in accordance with instructions for preparation of the Report of Condition for Edge and Agreement Corporations (Form F.R. 2886b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative accounting treatment.</I> A banking institution is not required to establish an ATRR if it writes down in the period in which the ATRR is required, or has written down in prior periods, the value of the specified international assets in the requisite amount for each such asset. For purposes of this paragraph, international assets may be written down by a charge to the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or the allowance for credit losses, as applicable, to the extent permitted under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles, or a reduction in the principal amount of the asset by application of interest payments or other collections on the asset. However, the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable, must be replenished in such amount necessary to restore it to a level which adequately provides for the estimated losses inherent in the banking institution's loan portfolio.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reduction of ATRR.</I> A banking institution may reduce an ATRR when notified by the Board or, at any time, by writing down such amount of the international asset for which the ATRR was established.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 1159, Jan. 9, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 4241, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.44" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.44   Reporting and disclosure of international assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Pursuant to section 907(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Title IX, Pub. L. 98-181, 97 Stat. 1153) (ILSA), a banking institution shall submit to the Board, at least quarterly, information regarding the amounts and composition of its holdings of international assets.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 907(b) of ILSA, a banking institution shall submit to the Board information regarding concentrations in its holdings of international assets that are material in relation to total assets and to capital of the institution, such information to be made publicly available by the Board on request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> The format, content and reporting and filing dates of the reports required under paragraph (a) of this section shall be determined jointly by the Federal banking agencies. The requirements to be prescribed by the Federal banking agencies may include changes to existing reporting forms (such as the Country Exposure Report, form FFIEC No. 009) or such other requirements as the Federal banking agencies deem appropriate. The Federal banking agencies also may determine to exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section banking institutions that, in the Federal banking agencies' judgment, have <I>de minimis</I> holdings of international assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing contained in this rule shall preclude the Board from requiring from a banking institution such additional or more frequent information on the institution's holding of international assets as the Board may consider necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 1159, Jan. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.45" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.45   Accounting for fees on international loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions on fees for restructured international loans.</I> No banking institution shall charge, in connection with the restructuring of an international loan, any fee exceeding the administrative cost of the restructuring unless it amortizes the amount of the fee exceeding the administrative cost over the effective life of the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting treatment.</I> Subject to paragraph (a) of this section, banking institutions shall account for fees on international loans in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 1159, Jan. 9, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.601" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.601   Status of certain offices for purposes of the International Banking Act restrictions on interstate banking operations.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has considered the question of whether a foreign bank's California office that may accept deposits from certain foreign sources (e.g., a United States citizen residing abroad) is a branch or an agency for the purposes of the grandfather provisions of section 5 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(b)). The question has arisen as a result of the definitions in the International Banking Act of <I>branch</I> and <I>agency,</I> and the limited deposit-taking capabilities of certain California offices of foreign banks.
</P>
<P>The International Banking Act defines <I>agency</I> as “any office * * * at which deposits may not be accepted from citizens or residents of the United States,” and defines <I>branch</I> as “any office * * * of a foreign bank * * * at which deposits are received” (12 U.S.C. 3101(1) and (3)). Offices of foreign banks in California prior to the International Banking Act were generally prohibited from accepting deposits by the requirement of State law that such offices obtain Federal deposit insurance (Cal. Fin. Code 1756); until the passage of the International Banking Act an office of a foreign bank could not obtain such insurance. California law, however, permits offices of foreign banks, with the approval of the Banking Department, to accept deposits from any person that resides, is domiciled, and maintains its principal place of business in a foreign country (Cal. Fin. Code 1756.2). Thus, under a literal reading of the definitions of <I>branch</I> and <I>agency</I> contained in the International Banking Act, a foreign bank's California office that accepts deposits from certain foreign sources (e.g., a U.S. citizen residing abroad), is a branch rather than an agency.
</P>
<P>Section 5 of the International Banking Act establishes certain limitations on the expansion of the domestic deposit-taking capabilities of a foreign bank outside its home State. It also grandfathers offices established or applied for prior to July 27, 1978, and permits a foreign bank to select its home State from among the States in which it operated branches and agencies on the grandfather date. If a foreign bank's office that was established or applied for prior to June 27, 1978, is a <I>branch</I> as defined in the International Banking Act, then it is grandfathered as a branch. Accordingly, a foreign bank could designate a State other than California as its home State and subsequently convert its California office to a full domestic deposit-taking facility by obtaining Federal deposit insurance. If, however, the office is determined to be an <I>agency,</I> then it is grandfathered as such and the foreign bank may not expand its deposit-taking capabilities in California without declaring California its home State.
</P>
<P>In the Board's view, it would be inconsistent with the purposes and the legislative history of the International Banking Act to enable a foreign bank to expand its domestic interstate deposit-taking capabilities by grandfathering these California offices as branches because of their ability to receive certain foreign source deposits. The Board also notes that such deposits are of the same general type that may be received by an Edge Corporation and, hence in accordance with section 5(a) of the International Banking Act, by branches established and operated outside a foreign bank's home State. It would be inconsistent with the structure of the interstate banking provisions of the International Banking Act to grandfather as full deposit-taking offices those facilities whose activities have been determined by Congress to be appropriate for a foreign bank's out-of-home State branches.
</P>
<P>Accordingly, the Board, in administering the interstate banking provisions of the IBA, regards as agencies those offices of foreign banks that do not accept domestic deposits but that may accept deposits from any person that resides, is domiciled, and maintains its principal place of business in a foreign country.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 67309, Oct. 10, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.602" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.602   Investments by United States Banking Organizations in foreign companies that transact business in the United States.</HEAD>
<P>Section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611, the “Edge Act”) provides for the establishment of corporations to engage in international or foreign banking or other international or foreign financial operations (“Edge Corporations”). Congress has declared that Edge Corporations are to serve the purpose of stimulating the provision of international banking and financing services throughout the United States and are to have powers sufficiently broad to enable them to compete effectively with foreign-owned institutions in the United States and abroad. The Board was directed by the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101) to revise its regulations governing Edge Corporations in order to accomplish these and other objectives and was further directed to modify or eliminate any interpretations that impede the attainment of these purposes.
</P>
<P>One of the powers of Edge Corporations is that of investing in foreign companies. Under the relevant statutes, however, an Edge Corporation is prohibited from investing in foreign companies that engage in the general business of buying or selling goods, wares, merchandise or commodities in the United States. In addition, an Edge Corporation may not invest in foreign companies that transact any business in the United States that is not, in the Board's judgment, “incidental” to its international or foreign business. The latter limitation also applies to investments by bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) and member banks (12 U.S.C. 601).
</P>
<P>The Board has been asked to determine whether an Edge Corporation's minority investment (involving less than 25 percent of the voting shares) in a foreign company would continue to be permissible after the foreign company establishes or acquires a United States subsidiary that engages in domestic activities that are closely related to banking. The Board has also been asked to determine whether an Edge Corporation's minority investment in a foreign bank would continue to be permissible after the foreign bank establishes a branch in the United States that engages in domestic banking activities. In the latter case, the branch would be located outside the State in which the Edge Corporation and its parent bank are located.
</P>
<P>In the past the Board, in exercising its discretionary authority to determine those activities that are permissible in the United States, has followed the policy that an Edge Corporation could not hold even a minority interest in a foreign company that engaged, directly or indirectly, in any purely domestic business in the United States. The United States activities considered permissible were those internationally related activities that Edge Corporations may engage in directly. If this policy were applied to the subject requests, the Edge Corporations would be required to divest their interests in the foreign companies notwithstanding the fact that, in each case, the Edge Corporation, as a minority investor, did not control the decision to undertake activities in the United States, and that even after the United States activities are undertaken the business of the foreign company will remain predominantly outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>International banking and finance have undergone considerable growth and change in recent years. It is increasingly common, for example, for United States institutions to have direct or indirect offices in foreign countries and to engage in activities at those offices that are domestically as well as internationally oriented. In this climate, United States banking organizations would be placed at a competitive disadvantage if their minority investments in foreign companies were limited to those companies that do no domestic business in the United States. Moreover, continued adherence to the existing policy would be contrary to the declaration in the International Banking Act of 1978 that Edge Corporations' powers are to be sufficiently broad to enable them to compete effectively in the United States and abroad. Furthermore, where the activities to be conducted in the United States by the foreign company are banking or closely related to banking, it does not appear that any regulatory or supervisory purpose would be served by prohibiting a minority investment in the foreign firm by a United States banking organization.
</P>
<P>In view of these considerations, the Board has reviewed its policy relating to the activities that may be engaged in the United States by foreign companies (including foreign banks) in which Edge Corporations, member banks, and bank holding companies invest. As a result of that review, the Board has determined that it would be appropriate to interpret sections 25 and 25(a)of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601, 611) and section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) generally to allow United States banking organizations, with the prior consent of the Board, to acquire and hold investments in foreign companies that do business in the United States subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign company is engaged predominantly in business outside the United States or in internationally related activities in the United States;*
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>*This condition would ordinarily not be met where a foreign company merely maintains a majority of its business in international activities. Each case will be scrutinized to ensure that the activities in the United States do not alter substantially the international orientation of the foreign company's business.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The direct or indirect activities of the foreign company in the United States are either banking or closely related to banking; and
</P>
<P>(3) The United States banking organization does not own 25 percent or more of the voting stock of, or otherwise control, the foreign company.
</P>
<FP>In considering whether to grant its consent for such investments, the Board would also review the proposals to ensure that they are consistent with the purposes of the Bank Holding Company Act and the Federal Reserve Act.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 8437, Jan. 27, 1981] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.603" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.603   Commodity swap transactions.</HEAD>
<P>For text of interpretation relating to this subject, see § 208.128 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 63408, Dec. 4, 1991] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.604" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.604   Data processing activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> As a result of a recent proposal by a bank holding company to engage in data processing activities abroad, the Board has considered the scope of permissible data processing activities under Regulation K (12 CFR part 211). This question has arisen as a result of the fact that § 211.5(d)(10) of Regulation K does not specifically indicate the scope of data processing as a permissible activity abroad.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of data processing activities.</I> (1) Prior to 1979, the Board authorized specific banking organizations to engage in data processing activities abroad with the expectation that such activity would be primarily related to financial activities. When Regulation K was issued in 1979, data processing was included as a permissible activity abroad. Although the regulation did not provide specific guidance on the scope of this authority, the Board has considered such authority to be coextensive with the authority granted in specific cases prior to the issuance of Regulation K, which relied on the fact that most of the activity would relate to financial data. Regulation K does not address related activities such as the manufacture of hardware or the provision of software or related or incidental services.
</P>
<P>(2) In 1979, when the activity was included in Regulation K for the first time, the data processing authority in Regulation K was somewhat broader than that permissible in the United States under Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225) at that time, as the Regulation K authority permitted limited non-financial data processing. In 1979, Regulation Y authorized only financial data processing activities for third parties, with very limited exceptions. By 1997, however, the scope of data processing activities under Regulation Y was expanded such that bank holding companies are permitted to derive up to 30 percent of their data processing revenues from processing data that is not financial, banking, or economic. Moreover, in other respects, the Regulation Y provision is broader than the data processing provision in Regulation K.
</P>
<P>(3) In light of the fact that the permissible scope of data processing activities under Regulation Y is now equal to, and in some respects, broader than the activity originally authorized under Regulation K, the Board believes that § 211.5(d)(10) should be read to encompass all of the activities permissible under § 225.28(b)(14) of Regulation Y. In addition, the limitations of that section would also apply to § 211.5(d)(10).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications.</I> If a U.S. banking organization wishes to engage abroad in data processing or data transmission activities beyond those described in Regulation Y, it must apply for the Board's prior consent under § 211.5(d)(20) of Regulation K. In addition, if any investor has commenced activities beyond those permitted under § 225.28(b)(14) of Regulation Y in reliance on Regulation K, it should consult with staff of the Board to determine whether such activities have been properly authorized under Regulation K.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 64 FR 58781, Nov. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 211.605" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.12.4.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 211.605   Permissible underwriting activities of foreign banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> A number of foreign banks that are subject to the Bank Holding Company Act (“BHC Act”) have participated as co-managers in the underwriting of securities to be distributed in the United States despite the fact that the foreign banks in question do not have authority to engage in underwriting activity in the United States under either the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (“GLB Act”) or section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)). This interpretation clarifies the scope of existing restrictions on underwriting by such foreign banks with respect to securities that are distributed in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Underwriting transactions engaged in by foreign banks.</I> (1) In the transactions in question, a foreign bank typically becomes a member of the underwriting syndicate for securities that are registered and intended to be distributed in the United States. The lead underwriter, usually a registered U.S. broker-dealer not affiliated with the foreign bank, agrees to be responsible for distributing the securities being underwritten. The underwriting obligation is assumed by a foreign office or affiliate of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign banks have used their U.S. offices or affiliates to act as liaison with the U.S. issuer and the lead underwriter in the United States, to prepare documentation and to provide other services in connection with the underwriting. In some cases, the U.S. offices or affiliates that assisted the foreign bank with the underwriting receive a substantial portion of the revenue generated by the foreign bank's participation in the underwriting. In other cases, the U.S. offices receive “credit” from the head office of the foreign bank for their assistance in generating profits arising from the underwriting.
</P>
<P>(3) By assuming the underwriting risk and booking the underwriting fees in their foreign offices or affiliates, the foreign banks are able to take advantage of an exemption under U.S. securities laws; a foreign underwriter is not required to register in the United States if the underwriter either does not distribute any of the securities in the United States or distributes them only through a registered broker-dealer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible scope of underwriting activities.</I> (1) A foreign bank that is subject to the BHC Act may engage in underwriting activities in the United States only if it has been authorized under section 4 of the Act. The foreign banks in question have argued that they are not engaged in underwriting activity in the United States because the underwriting activity takes place only outside the United States where the transaction is booked. The foreign banks refer to Regulation K, which defines “engaged in business” or “engaged in activities” to mean conducting an activity through an office or subsidiary in the United States. Because the underwriting is not booked in a U.S. office or subsidiary, the banks assert that the activity cannot be considered conducted in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board believes that the position taken by the foreign banks is not supported by the Board's regulations or policies. Section 225.124 of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.124(d)) states that a foreign bank will not be considered to be engaged in the activity of underwriting in the United States if the shares to be underwritten are distributed outside the United States. In the transactions in question, all of the securities to be underwritten by the foreign banks are distributed in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(3) Regulation K (12 CFR part 211) was amended in 1985 to provide clarification that a foreign bank may not own or control voting shares of a foreign company that directly underwrites, sells or distributes securities in the United States (emphasis added). 12 CFR 211.23(f)(5)(ii). In proposing this latter provision, the Board clarified that no part of the prohibited underwriting process may take place in the United States and that the prohibition on the activity does not depend on the activity being conducted through an office or subsidiary in the United States. Moreover, in the transactions in question, there was significant participation by U.S. offices and affiliates of the foreign banks in the underwriting process. In some transactions, the foreign office at which the transactions were booked did not have any documentation on the particular transactions; all documentation was maintained in the United States office. In all cases, the U.S. offices or affiliates provided virtually all technical support for participation in the underwriting process and benefitted from profits generated by the activity. 
</P>
<P>(4) The fact that some technological and regulatory constraints on the delivery of cross-border services into the United States have been eliminated since the Regulation K definition of “engaged in business” was adopted in 1979 creates greater scope for banking organizations to deal with customers outside the U.S. bank regulatory framework. The definition in Regulation K, however, does not authorize foreign banking organizations to evade regulatory restrictions on securities activities in the United States by directly underwriting securities to be distributed in the United States or by using U.S. offices and affiliates to facilitate the prohibited activity. In the GLB Act, Congress established a framework within which both domestic and foreign banking organizations may underwrite and deal in securities in the United States. The GLB Act requires that banking organizations meet certain financial and managerial requirements in order to be able to engage in these activities in the United States. The Board believes the practices described above undermine this legislative framework and constitute an evasion of the requirements of the GLB Act and the Board's Regulation K. Foreign banking organizations that wish to conduct securities underwriting activity in the United States have long had the option of obtaining section 20 authority and now have the option of obtaining financial holding company status. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conclusion.</I> The Board finds that the underwriting of securities to be distributed in the United States is an activity conducted in the United States, regardless of the location at which the underwriting risk is assumed and the underwriting fees are booked. Consequently, any banking organization that wishes to engage in such activity must either be a financial holding company under the GLB Act or have authority to engage in underwriting activity under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (so-called “section 20 authority”). Revenue generated by underwriting bank-ineligible securities in such transactions should be attributed to the section 20 company for those foreign banks that operate under section 20 authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. K, 68 FR 7899, Feb. 19, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="212" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 212—MANAGEMENT OFFICIAL INTERLOCKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3201-3208; 15 U.S.C. 19. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 40302, Aug. 2, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 212.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (Interlocks Act) (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the Interlocks Act and this part is to foster competition by generally prohibiting a management official from serving two nonaffiliated depository organizations in situations where the management interlock likely would have an anticompetitive effect. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to management officials of state member banks, bank holding companies, and their affiliates. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term <I>affiliate</I> has the meaning given in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201). For purposes of that section 202, shares held by an individual include shares held by members of his or her immediate family. “Immediate family” means spouse, mother, father, child, grandchild, sister, brother, or any of their spouses, whether or not any of their shares are held in trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(3)(B) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(3)(B)), an affiliate relationship based on common ownership does not exist if the Board determines, after giving the affected persons the opportunity to respond, that the asserted affiliation was established in order to avoid the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act and does not represent a true commonality of interest between the depository organizations. In making this determination, the Board considers, among other things, whether a person, including members of his or her immediate family, whose shares are necessary to constitute the group owns a nominal percentage of the shares of one of the organizations and the percentage is substantially disproportionate to that person's ownership of shares in the other organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the metropolitan statistical area (MSA), if a depository organization is located in an MSA; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a depository organization is located outside an MSA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community</I> means a city, town, or village, and contiguous and adjacent cities, towns, or villages. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages</I> means cities, towns, or villages whose borders touch each other or whose borders are within 10 road miles of each other at their closest points. The property line of an office located in an unincorporated city, town, or village is the boundary line of that city, town, or village for the purpose of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository holding company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company (as more fully defined in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201)) having its principal office located in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depository institution</I> means a commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union, chartered under the laws of the United States and having a principal office located in the United States. Additionally, a United States office, including a branch or agency, of a foreign commercial bank is a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution affiliate</I> means a depository institution that is an affiliate of a depository organization. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depository organization</I> means a depository institution or a depository holding company. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Low- and moderate-income areas</I> means census tracts (or, if an area is not in a census tract, block numbering areas delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census) where the median family income is less than 100 percent of the area median income. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Management official.</I> (1) The term <I>management official</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A director; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory or honorary director of a depository institution with total assets of $100 million or more; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A senior executive officer as that term is defined in 12 CFR 225.71(c); 
</P>
<P>(iv) A branch manager; 
</P>
<P>(v) A trustee of a depository organization under the control of trustees; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person who has a representative or nominee, as defined in paragraph (n) of this section, serving in any of the capacities in this paragraph (j)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>management official</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose management functions relate exclusively to the business of retail merchandising or manufacturing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person whose management functions relate principally to a foreign commercial bank's business outside the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A person described in the provisos of section 202(4) of the Interlocks Act (referring to an officer of a State-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or trust company that neither makes real estate mortgage loans nor accepts savings). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Office</I> means a principal or branch office of a depository institution located in the United States. <I>Office</I> does not include a representative office of a foreign commercial bank, an electronic terminal, a loan production office, or any office of a depository holding company. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, or other business entity. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Relevant metropolitan statistical area (RMSA)</I> means an MSA, a primary MSA, or a consolidated MSA that is not comprised of designated Primary MSAs to the extent that these terms are defined and applied by the Office of Management and Budget. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Representative or nominee</I> means a natural person who serves as a management official and has an obligation to act on behalf of another person with respect to management responsibilities. The Board will find that a person has an obligation to act on behalf of another person only if the first person has an agreement, express or implied, to act on behalf of the second person with respect to management responsibilities. The Board will determine, after giving the affected persons an opportunity to respond, whether a person is a <I>representative or nominee.</I> 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Total assets.</I> (1) The term <I>total assets</I> means assets measured on a consolidated basis and reported in the most recent fiscal year-end Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>total assets</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assets of a diversified savings and loan holding company as defined by section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of a bank holding company that is exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 pursuant to an order issued under section 4(d) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(d)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assets of offices of a foreign commercial bank other than the assets of its United States branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (o)(1) of this section, and except as provided in paragraph (o)(3)(ii) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, the term <I>total assets,</I> with respect to a depository organization, means the lesser of assets of the depository organization reported on a consolidated basis as of December 31, 2019, and assets reported as of the end of the depository organization's most recent fiscal year on a consolidated basis as of December 31, 2020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The relief provided under paragraph (o)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to a depository organization if the Board determines that permitting the depository organization to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the depository organization. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the depository organization since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the depository organization has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the depository organization. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (o)(3)(ii), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>United States</I> means the United States of America, any State or territory of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40302, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51679, Sept. 24, 1999; Reg. L, 72 FR 1276, Jan. 11, 2007; 85 FR 77361, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.3   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same community. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RMSA.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same RMSA and, in the case of depository institutions, each depository organization has total assets of $50 million or more.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major assets.</I> A management official of a depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization) may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization), regardless of the location of the two depository organizations. The Board will adjust these thresholds, as necessary, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for the Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, with rounding to the nearest $100 million. The Board will announce the revised thresholds by publishing a final rule without notice and comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40302, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51679, Sept. 24, 1999; Reg. L, 72 FR 1276, Jan. 11, 2007; 84 FR 54471, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.4   Interlocking relationships permitted by statute.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions of § 212.3 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof: 
</P>
<P>(a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function; 
</P>
<P>(b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.,</I> respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations); 
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union; 
</P>
<P>(d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation; 
</P>
<P>(f) A Federal Home Loan Bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies; 
</P>
<P>(g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institution's regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired; and 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) with respect to the service of a director of such company who also is a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (h) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.5   Small market share exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A management interlock that is prohibited by § 212.3 is permissible, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The interlock is not prohibited by § 212.3(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The depository organizations (and their depository institution affiliates) hold, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the deposits in each RMSA or community in which both depository organizations (or their depository institution affiliates) have offices. The amount of deposits shall be determined by reference to the most recent annual Summary of Deposits published by the FDIC for the RMSA or community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation and records.</I> Each depository organization must maintain records sufficient to support its determination of eligibility for the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, and must reconfirm that determination on an annual basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 51679, Sept. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.6   General exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> The Board may, by agency order, exempt an interlock from the prohibitions in § 212.3, if the Board finds that the interlock would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, and would not present safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> In reviewing an application for an exemption under this section, the Board will apply a rebuttable presumption that an interlock will not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition if the depository organization seeking to add a management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily serves low- and moderate-income areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Is controlled or managed by persons who are members of a minority group, or women;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a depository institution that has been chartered for less than two years; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is deemed to be in “troubled condition” as defined in 12 CFR 225.71.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> Unless a shorter expiration period is provided in the Board approval, an exemption permitted by paragraph (a) of this section may continue so long as it does not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, or is unsafe or unsound. If the Board grants an interlock exemption in reliance upon a presumption under paragraph (b) of this section, the interlock may continue for three years, unless otherwise provided by the Board in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 51679, Sept. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.7   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A management official shall terminate his or her service or apply for an exemption if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the state member bank or bank holding company involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. The Board may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 40302, Aug. 2, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 51679, Sept. 24, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.8   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, the Board administers and enforces the Interlocks Act with respect to state member banks, bank holding companies, and affiliates of either, and may refer any case of a prohibited interlocking relationship involving these entities to the Attorney General of the United States to enforce compliance with the Interlocks Act and this part. If an affiliate of a state member bank or a bank holding company is subject to the primary regulation of another Federal depository organization supervisory agency, then the Board does not administer and enforce the Interlocks Act with respect to that affiliate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 212.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.13.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 212.9   Effect of Interlocks Act on Clayton Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Board regards the provisions of the first three paragraphs of section 8 of the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 19) to have been supplanted by the revised and more comprehensive prohibitions on management official interlocks between depository organizations in the Interlocks Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="213" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 213—CONSUMER LEASING (REGULATION M)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1604 and 1667f; Pub. L. No. 111-203 section 1100E, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 213.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.1   Authority, scope, purpose, and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part, known as Regulation M, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to implement the consumer leasing provisions of the Truth in Lending Act, which is title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). Information collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB control number 7100-0202. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> This part applies to all persons that are lessors of personal property under consumer leases as those terms are defined in § 213.2(e)(1) and (h). The purpose of this part is:
</P>
<P>(1) To ensure that lessees of personal property receive meaningful disclosures that enable them to compare lease terms with other leases and, where appropriate, with credit transactions;
</P>
<P>(2) To limit the amount of balloon payments in consumer lease transactions; and
</P>
<P>(3) To provide for the accurate disclosure of lease terms in advertising.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> Section 108 of the act contains the administrative enforcement provisions. Sections 112, 130, 131, and 185 of the act contain the liability provisions for failing to comply with the requirements of the act and this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 15367, Apr. 1, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Consumer Leasing Act is chapter 5 of the Truth in Lending Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message in any medium that directly or indirectly promotes a consumer lease transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board</I> refers to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closed-end lease</I> means a consumer lease other than an open-end lease as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Consumer lease</I> means a contract in the form of a bailment or lease for the use of personal property by a natural person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, for a period exceeding four months and for a total contractual obligation not exceeding the applicable threshold amount, whether or not the lessee has the option to purchase or otherwise become the owner of the property at the expiration of the lease. The threshold amount is adjusted annually to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable. See the official staff commentary to this paragraph (e) for the threshold amount applicable to a specific consumer lease. Unless the context indicates otherwise, in this part “lease” means “consumer lease.”
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include a lease that meets the definition of a credit sale in Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.2(a)). It also does not include a lease for agricultural, business, or commercial purposes or a lease made to an organization.
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not apply to a lease transaction of personal property which is incident to the lease of real property and which provides that:
</P>
<P>(i) The lessee has no liability for the value of the personal property at the end of the lease term except for abnormal wear and tear; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The lessee has no option to purchase the leased property.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Gross capitalized cost</I> means the amount agreed upon by the lessor and the lessee as the value of the leased property and any items that are capitalized or amortized during the lease term, including but not limited to taxes, insurance, service agreements, and any outstanding prior credit or lease balance. <I>Capitalized cost reduction</I> means the total amount of any rebate, cash payment, net trade-in allowance, and noncash credit that reduces the gross capitalized cost. The <I>adjusted capitalized cost</I> equals the gross capitalized cost less the capitalized cost reduction, and is the amount used by the lessor in calculating the base periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lessee</I> means a natural person who enters into or is offered a consumer lease.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lessor</I> means a person who regularly leases, offers to lease, or arranges for the lease of personal property under a consumer lease. A person who has leased, offered, or arranged to lease personal property more than five times in the preceding calendar year or more than five times in the current calendar year is subject to the act and this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Open-end lease</I> means a consumer lease in which the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Organization</I> means a corporation, trust, estate, partnership, cooperative, association, or government entity or instrumentality.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Personal property</I> means any property that is not real property under the law of the state where the property is located at the time it is offered or made available for lease.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Realized value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The price received by the lessor for the leased property at disposition;
</P>
<P>(2) The highest offer for disposition of the leased property; or
</P>
<P>(3) The fair market value of the leased property at the end of the lease term.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Residual value</I> means the value of the leased property at the end of the lease term, as estimated or assigned at consummation by the lessor, used in calculating the base periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Security interest</I> and <I>security</I> mean any interest in property that secures the payment or performance of an obligation.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 15367, Apr. 1, 1997; 76 FR 18353, Apr. 4, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.3   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A lessor shall make the disclosures required by § 213.4, as applicable. The disclosures shall be made clearly and conspicuously in writing in a form the consumer may keep, in accordance with this section. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the lessee in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. § 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). For an advertisement accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required by § 213.7 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form in the advertisement, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 213.4 shall be given to the lessee together in a dated statement that identifies the lessor and the lessee; the disclosures may be made either in a separate statement that identifies the consumer lease transaction or in the contract or other document evidencing the lease. Alternatively, the disclosures required to be segregated from other information under paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be provided in a separate dated statement that identifies the lease, and the other required disclosures may be provided in the lease contract or other document evidencing the lease. In a lease of multiple items, the property description required by § 213.4(a) may be given in a separate statement that is incorporated by reference in the disclosure statement required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Segregation of certain disclosures.</I> The following disclosures shall be segregated from other information and shall contain only directly related information: §§ 213.4(b) through (f), (g)(2), (h)(3), (i)(1), (j), and (m)(1). The headings, content, and format for the disclosures referred to in this paragraph (a)(2) shall be provided in a manner substantially similar to the applicable model form in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> A lessor shall provide the disclosures to the lessee prior to the consummation of a consumer lease.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Language of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 213.4 may be made in a language other than English provided that they are made available in English upon the lessee's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information; nonsegregated disclosures.</I> Additional information may be provided with any disclosure not listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, but it shall not be stated, used, or placed so as to mislead or confuse the lessee or contradict, obscure, or detract attention from any disclosure required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple lessors or lessees.</I> When a transaction involves more than one lessor, the disclosures required by this part may be made by one lessor on behalf of all the lessors. When a lease involves more than one lessee, the lessor may provide the disclosures to any lessee who is primarily liable on the lease.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of estimates.</I> If an amount or other item needed to comply with a required disclosure is unknown or unavailable after reasonable efforts have been made to ascertain the information, the lessor may use a reasonable estimate that is based on the best information available to the lessor, is clearly identified as an estimate, and is not used to circumvent or evade any disclosures required by this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent occurrence.</I> If a required disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event occurring after consummation, the inaccuracy is not a violation of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minor variations.</I> A lessor may disregard the effects of the following in making disclosures:
</P>
<P>(1) That payments must be collected in whole cents;
</P>
<P>(2) That dates of scheduled payments may be different because a scheduled date is not a business day;
</P>
<P>(3) That months have different numbers of days; and
</P>
<P>(4) That February 29 occurs in a leap year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 66 FR 17328, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63461, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.4   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>For any consumer lease subject to this part, the lessor shall disclose the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description of property.</I> A brief description of the leased property sufficient to identify the property to the lessee and lessor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount due at lease signing or delivery.</I> The total amount to be paid prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation, using the term “amount due at lease signing or delivery.” The lessor shall itemize each component by type and amount, including any refundable security deposit, advance monthly or other periodic payment, and capitalized cost reduction; and in motor-vehicle leases, shall itemize how the amount due will be paid, by type and amount, including any net trade-in allowance, rebates, noncash credits, and cash payments in a format substantially similar to the model forms in appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment schedule and total amount of periodic payments.</I> The number, amount, and due dates or periods of payments scheduled under the lease, and the total amount of the periodic payments. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other charges.</I> The total amount of other charges payable to the lessor, itemized by type and amount, that are not included in the periodic payments. Such charges include the amount of any liability the lease imposes upon the lessee at the end of the lease term; the potential difference between the residual and realized values referred to in paragraph (k) of this section is excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Total of payments.</I> The total of payments, with a description such as “the amount you will have paid by the end of the lease.” This amount is the sum of the amount due at lease signing (less any refundable amounts), the total amount of periodic payments (less any portion of the periodic payment paid at lease signing), and other charges under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. In an open-end lease, a description such as “you will owe an additional amount if the actual value of the vehicle is less than the residual value” shall accompany the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment calculation.</I> In a motor-vehicle lease, a mathematical progression of how the scheduled periodic payment is derived, in a format substantially similar to the applicable model form in appendix A of this part, which shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Gross capitalized cost.</I> The gross capitalized cost, including a disclosure of the agreed upon value of the vehicle, a description such as “the agreed upon value of the vehicle [state the amount] and any items you pay for over the lease term (such as service contracts, insurance, and any outstanding prior credit or lease balance),” and a statement of the lessee's option to receive a separate written itemization of the gross capitalized cost. If requested by the lessee, the itemization shall be provided before consummation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capitalized cost reduction.</I> The capitalized cost reduction, with a description such as “the amount of any net trade-in allowance, rebate, noncash credit, or cash you pay that reduces the gross capitalized cost.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted capitalized cost.</I> The adjusted capitalized cost, with a description such as “the amount used in calculating your base [periodic] payment.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Residual value.</I> The residual value, with a description such as “the value of the vehicle at the end of the lease used in calculating your base [periodic] payment.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Depreciation and any amortized amounts.</I> The depreciation and any amortized amounts, which is the difference between the adjusted capitalized cost and the residual value, with a description such as “the amount charged for the vehicle's decline in value through normal use and for any other items paid over the lease term.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rent charge.</I> The rent charge, with a description such as “the amount charged in addition to the depreciation and any amortized amounts.” This amount is the difference between the total of the base periodic payments over the lease term minus the depreciation and any amortized amounts.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Total of base periodic payments.</I> The total of base periodic payments with a description such as “depreciation and any amortized amounts plus the rent charge.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Lease payments.</I> The lease payments with a description such as “the number of payments in your lease.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Base periodic payment.</I> The total of the base periodic payments divided by the number of payment periods in the lease.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Itemization of other charges.</I> An itemization of any other charges that are part of the periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Total periodic payment.</I> The sum of the base periodic payment and any other charges that are part of the periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Early termination</I>—(1) <I>Conditions and disclosure of charges.</I> A statement of the conditions under which the lessee or lessor may terminate the lease prior to the end of the lease term; and the amount or a description of the method for determining the amount of any penalty or other charge for early termination, which must be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Early-termination notice.</I> In a motor-vehicle lease, a notice substantially similar to the following: “Early Termination. You may have to pay a substantial charge if you end this lease early. <I>The charge may be up to several thousand dollars.</I> The actual charge will depend on when the lease is terminated. The earlier you end the lease, the greater this charge is likely to be.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance responsibilities.</I> The following provisions are required:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statement of responsibilities.</I> A statement specifying whether the lessor or the lessee is responsible for maintaining or servicing the leased property, together with a brief description of the responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wear and use standard.</I> A statement of the lessor's standards for wear and use (if any), which must be reasonable; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of wear and use standard.</I> In a motor-vehicle lease, a notice regarding wear and use substantially similar to the following: “Excessive Wear and Use. You may be charged for excessive wear based on our standards for normal use.” The notice shall also specify the amount or method for determining any charge for excess mileage. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase option.</I> A statement of whether or not the lessee has the option to purchase the leased property, and: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>End of lease term.</I> If at the end of the lease term, the purchase price; and 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>During lease term.</I> If prior to the end of the lease term, the purchase price or the method for determining the price and when the lessee may exercise this option. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Statement referencing nonsegregated disclosures.</I> A statement that the lessee should refer to the lease documents for additional information on early termination, purchase options and maintenance responsibilities, warranties, late and default charges, insurance, and any security interests, if applicable. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Liability between residual and realized values.</I> A statement of the lessee's liability, if any, at early termination or at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Right of appraisal.</I> If the lessee's liability at early termination or at the end of the lease term is based on the realized value of the leased property, a statement that the lessee may obtain, at the lessee's expense, a professional appraisal by an independent third party (agreed to by the lessee and the lessor) of the value that could be realized at sale of the leased property. The appraisal shall be final and binding on the parties. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Liability at end of lease term based on residual value.</I> If the lessee is liable at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rent and other charges.</I> The rent and other charges, paid by the lessee and required by the lessor as an incident to the lease transaction, with a description such as “the total amount of rent and other charges imposed in connection with your lease [state the amount].” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excess liability.</I> A statement about a rebuttable presumption that, at the end of the lease term, the residual value of the leased property is unreasonable and not in good faith to the extent that the residual value exceeds the realized value by more than three times the base monthly payment (or more than three times the average payment allocable to a monthly period, if the lease calls for periodic payments other than monthly); and that the lessor cannot collect the excess amount unless the lessor brings a successful court action and pays the lessee's reasonable attorney's fees, or unless the excess of the residual value over the realized value is due to unreasonable or excessive wear or use of the leased property (in which case the rebuttable presumption does not apply). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mutually agreeable final adjustment.</I> A statement that the lessee and lessor are permitted, after termination of the lease, to make any mutually agreeable final adjustment regarding excess liability. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Fees and taxes.</I> The total dollar amount for all official and license fees, registration, title, or taxes required to be paid in connection with the lease. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Insurance.</I> A brief identification of insurance in connection with the lease including: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Through the lessor.</I> If the insurance is provided by or paid through the lessor, the types and amounts of coverage and the cost to the lessee; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Through a third party.</I> If the lessee must obtain the insurance, the types and amounts of coverage required of the lessee. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Warranties or guarantees.</I> A statement identifying all express warranties and guarantees from the manufacturer or lessor with respect to the leased property that apply to the lessee. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Penalties and other charges for delinquency.</I> The amount or the method of determining the amount of any penalty or other charge for delinquency, default, or late payments, which must be reasonable. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Security interest.</I> A description of any security interest, other than a security deposit disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section, held or to be retained by the lessor; and a clear identification of the property to which the security interest relates. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limitations on rate information.</I> If a lessor provides a percentage rate in an advertisement or in documents evidencing the lease transaction, a notice stating that “this percentage may not measure the overall cost of financing this lease” shall accompany the rate disclosure. The lessor shall not use the term “annual percentage rate,” “annual lease rate,” or any equivalent term. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Non-motor vehicle open-end leases.</I> Non-motor vehicle open-end leases remain subject to section 182(10) of the act regarding end of term liability. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 15367, Apr. 1, 1997; 63 FR 52109, Sept. 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.5   Renegotiations, extensions, and assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Renegotiation.</I> A renegotiation occurs when a consumer lease subject to this part is satisfied and replaced by a new lease undertaken by the same consumer. A renegotiation requires new disclosures, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> An extension is a continuation, agreed to by the lessor and the lessee, of an existing consumer lease beyond the originally scheduled end of the lease term, except when the continuation is the result of a renegotiation. An extension that exceeds six months requires new disclosures, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assumption.</I> New disclosures are not required when a consumer lease is assumed by another person, whether or not the lessor charges an assumption fee. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> New disclosures are not required for the following, even if they meet the definition of a renegotiation or an extension: 
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction in the rent charge; 
</P>
<P>(2) The deferment of one or more payments, whether or not a fee is charged; 
</P>
<P>(3) The extension of a lease for not more than six months on a month-to-month basis or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(4) A substitution of leased property with property that has a substantially equivalent or greater economic value, provided no other lease terms are changed; 
</P>
<P>(5) The addition, deletion, or substitution of leased property in a multiple-item lease, provided the average periodic payment does not change by more than 25 percent; or 
</P>
<P>(6) An agreement resulting from a court proceeding. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 15367, Apr. 1, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.7   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An advertisement for a consumer lease may state that a specific lease of property at specific amounts or terms is available only if the lessor usually and customarily leases or will lease the property at those amounts or terms. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures required by this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount due at lease signing or delivery.</I> Except for the statement of a periodic payment, any affirmative or negative reference to a charge that is a part of the disclosure required under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section shall not be more prominent than that disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement of a lease rate.</I> If a lessor provides a percentage rate in an advertisement, the rate shall not be more prominent than any of the disclosures in § 213.4, with the exception of the notice in § 213.4(s) required to accompany the rate; and the lessor shall not use the term “annual percentage rate,” “annual lease rate,” or equivalent term. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Catalogs or other multipage advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I> A catalog or other multipage advertisement , or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), that provides a table or schedule of the required disclosures shall be considered a single advertisement if, for lease terms that appear without all the required disclosures, the advertisement refers to the page or pages on which the table or schedule appears.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Triggering terms.</I> An advertisement that states any of the following items shall contain the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any payment; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of any capitalized cost reduction or other payment (or that no payment is required) prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional terms.</I> An advertisement stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall also state the following items: 
</P>
<P>(i) That the transaction advertised is a lease; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount due prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The number, amounts, and due dates or periods of scheduled payments under the lease; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of whether or not a security deposit is required; and 
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that an extra charge may be imposed at the end of the lease term where the lessee's liability (if any) is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value at the end of the lease term. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative disclosures—merchandise tags.</I> A merchandise tag stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section by referring to a sign or display prominently posted in the lessor's place of business that contains a table or schedule of the required disclosures. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements</I>—(1) <I>Toll-free number or print advertisement.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the advertisement states the items listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, and: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lists a toll-free telephone number along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Directs the consumer to a written advertisement in a publication of general circulation in the community served by the media station, including the name and the date of the publication, with a statement that information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section is included in the advertisement. The written advertisement shall be published beginning at least three days before and ending at least ten days after the broadcast. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Establishment of toll-free number.</I> (i) The toll-free telephone number shall be available for no fewer than ten days, beginning on the date of the broadcast. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The lessor shall provide the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section orally, or in writing upon request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 61 FR 52258, Oct. 7, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 15368, Apr. 1, 1997; 63 FR 52109, Sept. 29, 1998; 72 FR 63461, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.8   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>A lessor shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by this part, other than the advertising requirements under § 213.7, for a period of not less than two years after the date the disclosures are required to be made or an action is required to be taken. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 213.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 213.9   Relation to state laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent state law.</I> A state law that is inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part is preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. If a lessor cannot comply with a state law without violating a provision of this part, the state law is inconsistent within the meaning of section 186(a) of the act and is preempted, unless the state law gives greater protection and benefit to the consumer. A state, through an official having primary enforcement or interpretative responsibilities for the state consumer leasing law, may apply to the Board for a preemption determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> A state may apply to the Board for an exemption from the requirements of the act and this part for any class of lease transactions within the state. The Board will grant such an exemption if the Board determines that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The class of leasing transactions is subject to state law requirements substantially similar to the act and this part or that lessees are afforded greater protection under state law; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> After an exemption has been granted, the requirements of the applicable state law (except for additional requirements not imposed by federal law) will constitute the requirements of the act and this part. No exemption will extend to the civil liability provisions of sections 130, 131, and 185 of the act. 



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.10.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 213—Model Forms
</HEAD>
<FP>A-1 Model Open-End or Finance Vehicle Lease Disclosures 
</FP>
<FP>A-2 Model Closed-End or Net Vehicle Lease Disclosures 
</FP>
<FP>A-3 Model Furniture Lease Disclosures 

</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29se98.005.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 63 FR 52110, Sept. 29, 1998]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.10.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 213—Federal Enforcement Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The following list indicates which federal agency enforces Regulation M (12 CFR Part 213) for particular classes of business. Any questions concerning compliance by a particular business should be directed to the appropriate enforcement agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<FP-2>1. <I>National banks and federal branches and federal agencies of foreign banks</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>District office of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency for the district in which the institution is located. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>2. <I>State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than federal branches, federal agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Federal Reserve Bank serving the District in which the institution is located. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>3. <I>Nonmember insured banks and insured state branches of foreign banks</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Regional Director for the region in which the institution is located. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>4. <I>Savings institutions insured under the Savings Association Insurance Fund of the FDIC and federally chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund of the FDIC (but not including state-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund)</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Office of Thrift Supervision regional director for the region in which the institution is located. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>5. <I>Federal credit unions</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Regional office of the National Credit Union Administration serving the area in which the federal credit union is located. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>6. <I>Air carriers</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, Department of Transportation, 400 Seventh Street, S.W., Washington, DC 20590 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>7. <I>Those subject to Packers and Stockyards Act</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Nearest Packers and Stockyards Administration area supervisor. 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>8. <I>Federal Land Banks, Federal Land Bank Associations, Federal Intermediate Credit Banks, and Production Credit Associations</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Farm Credit Administration, 490 L'Enfant Plaza, S.W., Washington, DC 20578 
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>9. <I>All other lessors (lessors operating on a local or regional basis should use the address of the FTC regional office in which they operate)</I> 
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>Division of Credit Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580 


</FP1-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.10.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 213—Issuance of Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<P>Officials in the Board's Division of Consumer and Community Affairs are authorized to issue official staff interpretations of this Regulation M (12 CFR Part 213). These interpretations provide the formal protection afforded under section 130(f) of the act. Except in unusual circumstances, interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to Regulation M (Supplement I of this part), which will be amended periodically. No staff interpretations will be issued approving lessor's forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods. 




</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.14.0.5.10.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 213—Official Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> The commentary in Supplement I is the vehicle by which the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs of the Federal Reserve Board issues official staff interpretations of Regulation M (12 CFR part 213). Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under section 130(f) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1640(f)). Section 130(f) protects lessors from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any interpretation issued by a duly authorized official or employee of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures for requesting interpretations.</I> Under appendix C of Regulation M, anyone may request an official staff interpretation. Interpretations that are adopted will be incorporated in this commentary following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No official staff interpretations are expected to be issued other than by means of this commentary. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, some of the comments to § 213.4(f) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 4(f)(1)-1 and comment 4(f)(2)-1. In other cases, comments have more general application and are designated, for example, as comment 4(a)-1. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1 through I-4. An appendix may be cited as comment app. A-1. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Illustrations.</I> Lists that appear in the commentary may be exhaustive or illustrative; the appropriate construction should be clear from the context. Illustrative lists are introduced by phrases such as “including,” “such as,” “to illustrate,” and “for example.” 
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.1—Authority, Scope, Purpose, and Enforcement 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation M applies to all persons (including branches of foreign banks or leasing companies located in the United States) that offer consumer leases to residents of any state (including foreign nationals) as defined in § 213.2(p). The regulation does not apply to a foreign branch of a U.S. bank or to a leasing company leasing to a U.S. citizen residing or visiting abroad or to a foreign national abroad. 




</P>
<HD2>Section 213.2—Definitions 
</HD2>
<HD2>2(b) Advertisement 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The term advertisement includes messages inviting, offering, or otherwise generally announcing to prospective customers the availability of consumer leases, whether in visual, oral, print or electronic media. Examples include: 
</P>
<P>i. Messages in newspapers, magazines, leaflets, catalogs, and fliers. 
</P>
<P>ii. Messages on radio, television, and public address systems. 
</P>
<P>iii. Direct mail literature. 
</P>
<P>iv. Printed material on any interior or exterior sign or display, in any window display, in any point-of-transaction literature or price tag that is delivered or made available to a lessee or prospective lessee in any manner whatsoever. 
</P>
<P>v. Telephone solicitations. 
</P>
<P>vi. On-line messages, such as those on the Internet. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The term does not apply to the following: 
</P>
<P>i. Direct personal contacts, including follow-up letters, cost estimates for individual lessees, or oral or written communications relating to the negotiation of a specific transaction. 
</P>
<P>ii. Informational material distributed only to businesses. 
</P>
<P>iii. Notices required by federal or state law, if the law mandates that specific information be displayed and only the mandated information is included in the notice. 
</P>
<P>iv. News articles controlled by the news medium. 
</P>
<P>v. Market research or educational materials that do not solicit business. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Persons covered.</I> See the commentary to § 213.7(a). 
</P>
<HD2>2(d) Closed-End Lease 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In closed-end leases, sometimes referred to as “walk-away” leases, the lessee is not responsible for the residual value of the leased property at the end of the lease term. 
</P>
<HD2>2(e) Consumer Lease
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Primary purposes.</I> A lessor must determine in each case if the leased property will be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. If a question exists as to the primary purpose for a lease, the fact that a lessor gives disclosures is not controlling on the question of whether the transaction is covered. The primary purpose of a lease is determined before or at consummation and a lessor need not provide Regulation M disclosures where there is a subsequent change in the primary use.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Period of time.</I> To be a consumer lease, the initial term of the lease must be more than four months. Thus, a lease of personal property for four months, three months or on a month-to-month or week-to-week basis (even though the lease actually extends beyond four months) is not a consumer lease and is not subject to the disclosure requirements of the regulation. However, a lease that imposes a penalty for not continuing the lease beyond four months is considered to have a term of more than four months. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. A three-month lease extended on a month-to-month basis and terminated after one year is not subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>ii. A month-to-month lease with a penalty, such as the forfeiture of a security deposit for terminating before one year, is subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total contractual obligation.</I> The total contractual obligation is not necessarily the same as the total of payments disclosed under § 213.4(e). The total contractual obligation includes nonrefundable amounts a lessee is contractually obligated to pay to the lessor, but excludes items such as:
</P>
<P>i. Residual value amounts or purchase-option prices;
</P>
<P>ii. Amounts collected by the lessor but paid to a third party, such as taxes, licenses, and registration fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit sale.</I> The regulation does not cover a lease that meets the definition of a credit sale in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 226.2(a)(16), which is defined, in part, as a bailment or lease (unless terminable without penalty at any time by the consumer) under which the consumer:
</P>
<P>i. Agrees to pay as compensation for use a sum substantially equivalent to, or in excess of, the total value of the property and services involved; and
</P>
<P>ii. Will become (or has the option to become), for no additional consideration or for nominal consideration, the owner of the property upon compliance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Agricultural purpose.</I> Agricultural purpose means a purpose related to the production, harvest, exhibition, marketing, transportation, processing, or manufacture of agricultural products by a natural person who cultivates, plants, propagates, or nurtures those agricultural products, including but not limited to the acquisition of personal property and services used primarily in farming. Agricultural products include horticultural, viticultural, and dairy products, livestock, wildlife, poultry, bees, forest products, fish and shellfish, and any products thereof, including processed and manufactured products, and any and all products raised or produced on farms and any processed or manufactured products thereof.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Organization or other entity.</I> A consumer lease does not include a lease made to an organization such as a corporation or a government agency or instrumentality. Such a lease is not covered by the regulation even if the leased property is used (by an employee, for example) primarily for personal, family or household purposes, or is guaranteed by or subsequently assigned to a natural person.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Leases of personal property incidental to a service.</I> The following leases of personal property are deemed incidental to a service and thus are not subject to the regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Home entertainment systems requiring the consumer to lease equipment that enables a television to receive the transmitted programming.
</P>
<P>ii. Security alarm systems requiring the installation of leased equipment intended to monitor unlawful entries into a home and in some cases to provide fire protection.
</P>
<P>iii. Propane gas service where the consumer must lease a propane tank to receive the service.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Safe deposit boxes.</I> The lease of a safe deposit box is not a consumer lease under § 213.2(e).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Threshold amount.</I> A consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this part if the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. The threshold amount in effect during a particular time period is the amount stated in comment 2(e)-11 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 2(e)-11 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900. If a consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this part because the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation, the lease remains exempt regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount.
</P>
<P>10. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 213.2(e)(1), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From July 21, 2011, through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $55,800.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $57,200.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $61,000.
</P>
<P>xiv. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $66,400.
</P>
<P>xv. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $69,500.
</P>
<P>xvi. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $71,900.
</P>
<P>xvii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $73,400.
</P>
<HD2>2(g) Lessee 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Guarantors.</I> Guarantors are not lessees for purposes of the regulation. 
</P>
<HD2>2(h) Lessor 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Arranger of a lease.</I> To “arrange” for the lease of personal property means to provide or offer to provide a lease that is or will be extended by another person under a business or other relationship pursuant to which the person arranging the lease (a) receives or will receive a fee, compensation, or other consideration for the service or (b) has knowledge of the lease terms and participates in the preparation of the contract documents required in connection with the lease. To illustrate: 
</P>
<P>i. An automobile dealer who, pursuant to a business relationship, completes the necessary lease agreement before forwarding it for execution to the leasing company (to whom the obligation is payable on its face) is “arranging” for the lease. 
</P>
<P>ii. An automobile dealer who, without receiving a fee for the service, refers a customer to a leasing company that will prepare all relevant contract documents is not “arranging” for the lease.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consideration.</I> The term “other consideration” as used in comment 2(h)-1 refers to an actual payment corresponding to a fee or similar compensation and not to intangible benefits, such as the advantage of increased business, which may flow from the relationship between the parties.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assignees.</I> An assignee may be a lessor for purposes of the regulation in circumstances where the assignee has substantial involvement in the lease transaction. See cf. <I>Ford Motor Credit Co.</I> v. <I>Cenance,</I> 452 U.S. 155 (1981) (held that an assignee was a creditor for purposes of the pre-1980 Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z because of its substantial involvement in the credit transaction).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple lessors.</I> See the commentary to § 213.3(c).
</P>
<HD2>2(j) Organization
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The term “organization” includes joint ventures and persons operating under a business name. 
</P>
<HD2>2(l) Personal Property
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Whether property is personal property depends on state or other applicable law. For example, a mobile home or houseboat may be considered personal property in one state but real property in another. 
</P>
<HD2>2(m) Realized Value
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Realized value refers to either the retail or wholesale value of the leased property at early termination or at the end of the lease term. It is not a required disclosure. Realized value is relevant only to leases in which the lessee's liability at early termination or at the end of the lease term typically is based on the difference between the residual value (or the adjusted lease balance) of the leased property and its realized value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Options.</I> Subject to the contract and to state or other applicable law, the lessor may calculate the realized value in determining the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term or at early termination in one of the three ways stated in § 213.2(m). If the lessor sells the property prior to making the determination about liability, the price received for the property (or the fair market value) is the realized value. If the lessor does not sell the property prior to making that determination, the highest offer or the fair market value is the realized value.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination of realized value.</I> Disposition charges are not subtracted in determining the realized value but amounts attributable to taxes may be subtracted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Offers.</I> In determining the highest offer for disposition, the lessor may disregard offers that an offeror has withdrawn or is unable or unwilling to perform.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessor's appraisal.</I> See commentary to § 213.4(l).
</P>
<HD2>2(o) Security Interest and Security
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosable interests.</I> For purposes of disclosure, a security interest is an interest taken by the lessor to secure performance of the lessee's obligation. For example, if a bank that is not a lessor makes a loan to a leasing company and takes assignments of consumer leases generated by that company to secure the loan, the bank's security interest in the lessor's receivables is not a security interest for purposes of this regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General coverage.</I> An interest the lessor may have in leased property must be disclosed only if it is considered a security interest under state or other applicable law. The term includes, but is not limited to, security interests under the Uniform Commercial Code; real property mortgages, deeds of trust, and other consensual or confessed liens whether or not recorded; mechanic's, materialman's, artisan's, and other similar liens; vendor's liens in both real and personal property; liens on property arising by operation of law; and any interest in a lease when used to secure payment or performance of an obligation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Insurance exception.</I> The lessor's right to insurance proceeds or unearned insurance premiums is not a security interest for purposes of this regulation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.3—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<HD2>3(a) General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Disclosures must reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties. For example: 
</P>
<P>i. In a three-year lease with no penalty for termination after a one-year minimum term, disclosures are based on the full three-year term of the lease. The one-year minimum term is only relevant to the early termination provisions of §§ 213.4 (g)(1), (k) and (l).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The clear and conspicuous standard requires that disclosures be reasonably understandable. For example, the disclosures must be presented in a way that does not obscure the relationship of the terms to each other; appendix A of this part contains model forms that meet this standard. In addition, although no minimum typesize is required, the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multipurpose disclosure forms.</I> A lessor may use a multipurpose disclosure form provided the lessor is able to designate the specific disclosures applicable to a given transaction, consistent with the requirement that disclosures be clearly and conspicuously provided.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Number of transactions.</I> Lessors have flexibility in handling lease transactions that may be viewed as multiple transactions. For example: 
</P>
<P>i. When a lessor leases two items to the same lessee on the same day, the lessor may disclose the leases as either one or two lease transactions. 
</P>
<P>ii. When a lessor sells insurance or other incidental services in connection with a lease, the lessor may disclose in one of two ways: as a single lease transaction (in which case Regulation M, not Regulation Z, disclosures are required) or as a lease transaction and a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. When a lessor includes an outstanding lease or credit balance in a lease transaction, the lessor may disclose the outstanding balance as part of a single lease transaction (in which case Regulation M, not Regulation Z, disclosures are required) or as a lease transaction and a credit transaction. 
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(1) Form of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Cross-references.</I> Lessors may include in the nonsegregated disclosures a cross-reference to items in the segregated disclosures rather than repeat those items. A lessor may include in the segregated disclosures numeric or alphabetic designations as cross-references to related information so long as such references do not obscure or detract from the segregated disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of parties.</I> While disclosures must be made clearly and conspicuously, lessors are not required to use the word “lessor” and “lessee” to identify the parties to the lease transaction. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lessor's address.</I> The lessor must be identified by name; an address (and telephone number) may be provided. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple lessors and lessees.</I> In transactions involving multiple lessors and multiple lessees, a single lessor may make all the disclosures to a single lessee as long as the disclosure statement identifies all the lessors and lessees. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's signature.</I> The regulation does not require that the lessee sign the disclosure statement, whether disclosures are separately provided or are part of the lease contract. Nevertheless, to provide evidence that disclosures are given before a lessee becomes obligated on the lease transaction, the lessor may, for example, ask the lessee to sign the disclosure statement or an acknowledgement of receipt, may place disclosures that are included in the lease documents above the lessee's signature, or include instructions alerting a lessee to read the disclosures prior to signing the lease. 
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(2) Segregation of Certain Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Location.</I> The segregated disclosures referred to in § 213.3(a)(2) may be provided on a separate document and the other required disclosures may be provided in the lease contract, so long as all disclosures are given at the same time. Alternatively, all disclosures may be provided in a separate document or in the lease contract. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Additional information among segregated disclosures.</I> The disclosures required to be segregated may contain only the information required or permitted to be included among the segregated disclosures. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See commentary to appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(3) Timing of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> When a contractual relationship is created between the lessor and the lessee is a matter to be determined under state or other applicable law. 
</P>
<HD2>3(b) Additional Information; Nonsegregated Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>State law disclosures.</I> A lessor may include in the nonsegregated disclosures any state law disclosures that are not inconsistent with the act and regulation under § 213.9 as long as, in accordance with the standard set forth in § 213.3(b) for additional information, the state law disclosures are not used or placed to mislead or confuse or detract from any disclosure required by the regulation. 
</P>
<HD2>3(c) Multiple Lessors or Lessees 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multiple lessors.</I> If a single lessor provides disclosures to a lessee on behalf of several lessors, all disclosures for the transaction must be given, even if the lessor making the disclosures would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure. 
</P>
<HD2>3(d) Use of Estimates 
</HD2>
<HD2>3(d)(1) Standard 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Time of estimated disclosure.</I> The lessor may, after making a reasonable effort to obtain information, use estimates to make disclosures if necessary information is unknown or unavailable at the time the disclosures are made. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Basis of estimates.</I> Estimates must be made on the basis of the best information reasonably available at the time disclosures are made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the lessor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. The lessor may rely on the representations of other parties. For example, the lessor might look to the consumer to determine the purpose for which leased property will be used, to insurance companies for the cost of insurance, or to an automobile manufacturer or dealer for the date of delivery. See commentary to § 213.4(n) for estimating official fees and taxes.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Residual value of leased property at termination.</I> In an open-end lease where the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term is based on the residual value of the leased property as determined at consummation, the estimate of the residual value must be reasonable and based on the best information reasonably available to the lessor (see § 213.4(m)). A lessor should generally use an accepted trade publication listing estimated current or future market prices for the leased property unless other information or a reasonable belief based on its experience provides the better information. For example: 
</P>
<P>i. An automobile lessor offering a three-year open-end lease assigns a wholesale value to the vehicle at the end of the lease term. The lessor may disclose as an estimate a wholesale value derived from a generally accepted trade publication listing current wholesale values. 
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above, except that the lessor discloses an estimated value derived by adjusting the residual value quoted in the trade publication because, in its experience, the trade publication values either understate or overstate the prices actually received in local used-vehicle markets. The lessor may adjust estimated values quoted in trade publications if the lessor reasonably believes based on its experience that the values are understated or overstated. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Retail or wholesale value.</I> The lessor may choose either a retail or a wholesale value in estimating the value of leased property at termination of an open-end lease provided the choice is consistent with the lessor's general practice when determining the value of the property at the end of the lease term. The lessor should indicate whether the value disclosed is a retail or wholesale value. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Labelling estimates.</I> Generally, only the disclosure for which the exact information is unknown is labelled as an estimate. Nevertheless, when several disclosures are affected because of the unknown information, the lessor has the option of labelling as an estimate every affected disclosure or only the disclosure primarily affected. 
</P>
<HD2>3(e) Effect of Subsequent Occurrence 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent occurrences.</I> Examples of subsequent occurrences include: 
</P>
<P>i. An agreement between the lessee and lessor to change from a monthly to a weekly payment schedule. 
</P>
<P>ii. An increase in official fees or taxes. 
</P>
<P>iii. An increase in insurance premiums or coverage caused by a change in the law. 
</P>
<P>iv. Late delivery of an automobile caused by a strike. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Redisclosure.</I> When a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of a subsequent occurrence, the lessor need not make new disclosures unless new disclosures are required under § 213.5. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lessee's failure to perform.</I> The lessor does not violate the regulation if a previously given disclosure becomes inaccurate when a lessee fails to perform obligations under the contract and a lessor takes actions that are necessary and proper in such circumstances to protect its interest. For example, the addition of insurance or a security interest by the lessor because the lessee has not performed obligations contracted for in the lease is not a violation of the regulation. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.4—Content of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<HD2>4(a) Description of Property 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Placement of description.</I> Although the description of leased property may not be included among the segregated disclosures, a lessor may choose to place the description directly above the segregated disclosures. 
</P>
<HD2>4(b) Amount Due at Lease Signing or Delivery 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> See commentary to § 213.3(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Capitalized cost reduction.</I> A capitalized cost reduction is a payment in the nature of a downpayment on the leased property that reduces the amount to be capitalized over the term of the lease. This amount does not include any amounts included in a periodic payment paid at lease signing or delivery. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>“Negative” equity trade-in allowance.</I> If an amount owed on a prior lease or credit balance exceeds the agreed upon value of a trade-in, the difference is not reflected as a negative trade-in allowance under § 213.4(b). The lessor may disclose the trade-in allowance as zero or not applicable, or may leave a blank line. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates.</I> Only rebates applied toward an amount due at lease signing or delivery are required to be disclosed under § 213.4(b). 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Balance sheet approach.</I> In motor-vehicle leases, the total for the column labeled “total amount due at lease signing or delivery” must equal the total for the column labeled “how the amount due at lease signing or delivery will be paid.” 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Amounts to be paid in cash.</I> The term cash is intended to include payments by check or other payment methods in addition to currency; however, a lessor may add a line item under the column “how the amount due at lease signing or delivery will be paid” for non-currency payments such as credit cards. 
</P>
<HD2>4(c) Payment Schedule and Total Amount of Periodic Payments 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic payments.</I> The phrase “number, amount, and due dates or periods of payments” requires the disclosure of all payments that are made at regular or irregular intervals and generally derived from rent, capitalized or amortized amounts such as depreciation, and other amounts that are collected by the lessor at the same interval(s), including, for example, taxes, maintenance, and insurance charges. Other periodic payments may, but need not, be disclosed under § 213.4(c).
</P>
<HD2>4(d) Other charges 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 213.4(d) requires the disclosure of charges that are anticipated by the parties incident to the normal operation of the lease agreement. If a lessor is unsure whether a particular fee is an “other charge,” the lessor may disclose the fee as such without violating § 213.4(d) or the segregation rule under § 213.3(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Excluded charges.</I> This section does not require disclosure of charges that are imposed when the lessee terminates early, fails to abide by, or modifies the terms of the existing lease agreement, such as charges for: 
</P>
<P>i. Late payment. 
</P>
<P>ii. Default. 
</P>
<P>iii. Early termination. 
</P>
<P>iv. Deferral of payments. 
</P>
<P>v. Extension of the lease. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party fees and charges.</I> Third-party fees or charges collected by the lessor on behalf of third parties, such as taxes, are not disclosed under § 213.4(d). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relationship to other provisions.</I> The other charges mentioned in this paragraph are charges that are not required to be disclosed under some other provision of § 213.4. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. The price of a mechanical breakdown protection (MBP) contract is sometimes disclosed as an “other charge.” Nevertheless, the price of MBP is sometimes reflected in the periodic payment disclosure under § 213.4(c) or in states where MBP is regarded as insurance, the cost is be disclosed in accordance with § 213.4(o). 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's liabilities at the end of the lease term.</I> Liabilities that the lessor imposes upon the lessee at the end of the scheduled lease term and that must be disclosed under § 213.4(d) include disposition and “pick-up” charges. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Optional “disposition” charges.</I> Disposition and similar charges that are anticipated by the parties as an incident to the normal operation of the lease agreement must be disclosed under § 213.4(d). If, under a lease agreement, a lessee may return leased property to various locations, and the lessor charges a disposition fee depending upon the location chosen, under § 213.4(d), the lessor must disclose the highest amount charged. In such circumstances, the lessor may also include a brief explanation of the fee structure in the segregated disclosure. For example, if no fee or a lower fee is imposed for returning a leased vehicle to the originating dealer as opposed to another location, that fact may be disclosed. By contrast, if the terms of the lease treat the return of the leased property to a location outside the lessor's service area as a default, the fee imposed is not disclosed as an “other charge,” although it may be required to be disclosed under § 213.4(q). 
</P>
<HD2>4(e) Total of payments 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Open-end lease.</I> The additional statement is required under § 213.4(e) for open-end leases because, with some limitations, a lessee is liable at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual and realized values of the leased property. 
</P>
<HD2>4(f) Payment Calculation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Motor-vehicle lease.</I> Whether leased property is a motor vehicle is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple-items.</I> If a lease transaction involves multiple items of leased property, one of which is not a motor vehicle under state law, at their option, lessors may include all items in the disclosures required under § 213.4(f). See comment 3(a)-4 regarding disclosure of multiple transactions.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(1) Gross Capitalized Cost
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Agreed upon value of the vehicle.</I> The agreed upon value of a motor vehicle includes the amount of capitalized items such as charges for vehicle accessories and options, and delivery or destination charges. The lessor may also include taxes and fees for title, licenses, and registration that are capitalized. Charges for service or maintenance contracts, insurance products, guaranteed automobile protection, or an outstanding balance on a prior lease or credit transaction are not included in the agreed upon value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization of the gross capitalized cost.</I> The lessor may choose to provide the itemization of the gross capitalized cost only on request or may provide the itemization as a matter of course. In the latter case, the lessor need not provide a statement of the lessee's option to receive an itemization. The gross capitalized cost must be itemized by type and amount. The lessor may include in the itemization an identification of the items and amounts of some or all of the items contained in the agreed upon value of the vehicle. The itemization must be provided at the same time as the other disclosures required by § 213.4, but it may not be included among the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(7) Total of Base Periodic Payment
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accuracy of disclosure.</I> If the periodic payment calculation under § 213.4(f) has been calculated correctly, the amount disclosed under § 213.4(f)(7)—the total of base periodic payments—is correct for disclosure purposes even if that amount differs from the base periodic payment disclosed under § 213.4(f)(9) multiplied by the number of lease payments disclosed under § 213.4(f)(8), when the difference is due to rounding.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(8) Lease Payment
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Lease Term.</I> The lease term may be disclosed among the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>4(g) Early Termination
</HD2>
<HD2>4(g)(1) Conditions and Disclosure of Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonableness of charges.</I> See the commentary to § 213.4(q).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Description of the method.</I> Section 213.4(g)(1) requires a full description of the method of determining an early termination charge. The lessor should attempt to provide consumers with clear and understandable descriptions of its early termination charges. Descriptions that are full, accurate, and not intended to be misleading will comply with § 213.4(g)(1), even if the descriptions are complex. In providing a full description of an early termination method, a lessor may use the name of a generally accepted method of computing the unamortized cost portion (also known as the “adjusted lease balance”) of its early termination charges. For example, a lessor may state that the “constant yield” method will be utilized in obtaining the adjusted lease balance, but must specify how that figure, and any other term or figure, is used in computing the total early termination charge imposed upon the consumer. Additionally, if a lessor refers to a named method in this manner, the lessor must provide a written explanation of that method if requested by the consumer. The lessor has the option of providing the explanation as a matter of course in the lease documents or on a separate document.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing of written explanation of a named method.</I> While a lessor may provide an address or telephone number for the consumer to request a written explanation of the named method used to calculate the adjusted leased balance, if at consummation a consumer requests such an explanation, the lessor must provide a written explanation at that time. If a consumer requests an explanation after consummation, the lessor must provide a written explanation within a reasonable time after the request is made.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Default.</I> When default is a condition for early termination of a lease, default charges must be disclosed under § 213.4(g)(1). See the commentary to § 213.4(q).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's liability at early termination.</I> When the lessee is liable for the difference between the unamortized cost and the realized value at early termination, the method of determining the amount of the difference must be disclosed under § 213.4(g)(1).
</P>
<HD2>4(h) Maintenance Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Standards for wear and use.</I> No disclosure is required if a lessor does not set standards or impose charges for wear and use (such as excess mileage).
</P>
<HD2>4(i) Purchase Option
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Mandatory disclosure of no purchase option.</I> Generally the lessor need only make the specific required disclosures that apply to a transaction. In the case of a purchase option disclosure, however, a lessor must disclose affirmatively that the lessee has no option to purchase the leased property if the purchase option is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existence of purchase option.</I> Whether a purchase option exists under the lease is determined by state or other applicable law. The lessee's right to submit a bid to purchase property at termination of the lease is not an option to purchase under § 213.4(i) if the lessor is not required to accept the lessee's bid and the lessee does not receive preferential treatment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Purchase-option fee.</I> A purchase-option fee is disclosed under § 213.4(i), not § 213.4(d). The fee may be separately itemized or disclosed as part of the purchase-option price.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Official fees and taxes.</I> Official fees such as those for taxes, licenses, and registration charged in connection with the exercise of a purchase option may be disclosed under § 213.4(i) as part of the purchase-option price (with or without a reference to their inclusion in that price) or may be separately disclosed and itemized by category. Alternatively, a lessor may provide a statement indicating that the purchase-option price does not include fees for tags, taxes, and registration. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Purchase-option price.</I> Lessors must disclose the purchase-option price as a sum certain or as a sum certain to be determined at a future date by reference to a readily available independent source. The reference should provide sufficient information so that the lessee will be able to determine the actual price when the option becomes available. Statements of a purchase price as the “negotiated price” or the “fair market value” do not comply with the requirements of § 213.4(i). 
</P>
<HD2>4(j) Statement referencing nonsegregated disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> A lessor may delete inapplicable items from the disclosure. For example, if a lease contract does not include a security interest, the reference to a security interest may be omitted. 
</P>
<HD2>4(l) Right of appraisal 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure inapplicable.</I> The lessee does not have the right to an independent appraisal merely because the lessee is liable at the end of the lease term or at early termination for unreasonable wear or use. Thus, the disclosure under § 213.4(l) does not apply. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The automobile lessor might expect a lessee to return an undented car with four good tires at the end of the lease term. Even though it may hold the lessee liable for the difference between a dented car with bald tires and the value of a car in reasonably good repair, the disclosure under § 213.4(l) is not required. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's appraisal.</I> If the lessor obtains an appraisal of the leased property to determine its realized value, that appraisal does not suffice for purposes of section 183(c) of the act; the lessor must disclose the lessee's right to an independent appraisal under § 213.4(l). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Retail or wholesale.</I> In providing the disclosures in § 213.4(l), a lessor must indicate whether the wholesale or retail appraisal value will be used. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Time restriction on appraisal.</I> The regulation does not specify a time period in which the lessee must exercise the appraisal right. The lessor may require a lessee to obtain the appraisal within a reasonable time after termination of the lease. 
</P>
<HD2>4(m) Liability at end of Lease Term Based on Residual Value 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Open-end leases.</I> Section 213.4(m) applies only to open-end leases. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's payment of attorney's fees.</I> Section 183(a) of the act requires that the lessor pay the lessee's attorney's fees in all actions under § 213.4(m), whether successful or not. 
</P>
<HD2>4(m)(1) Rent and other charges 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This disclosure is intended to represent the cost of financing an open-end lease based on charges and fees that the lessor requires the lessee to pay. Examples of disclosable charges, in addition to the rent charge, include acquisition, disposition, or assignment fees. Charges imposed by a third party whose services are not required by the lessor (such as official fees and voluntary insurance) are not included in the § 213.4(m)(1) disclosure. 
</P>
<HD2>4(m)(2) Excess liability 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The disclosure limiting the lessee's liability for the value of the leased property does not apply in the case of early termination. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Leases with a minimum term.</I> If a lease has an alternative minimum term, the disclosures governing the liability limitation are not applicable for the minimum term. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges not subject to rebuttable presumption.</I> The limitation on liability applies only to liability at the end of the lease term that is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value. The regulation does not preclude a lessor from recovering other charges from the lessee at the end of the lease term. Examples of such charges include:
</P>
<P>i. Disposition charges.
</P>
<P>ii. Excess mileage charges.
</P>
<P>iii. Late payment and default charges.
</P>
<P>iv. In simple-interest accounting leases, amount by which the unamortized cost exceeds the residual value because the lessee has not made timely payments. 
</P>
<HD2>4(n) Fees and taxes 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Treatment of certain taxes.</I> Taxes paid in connection with the lease are generally disclosed under § 213.4(n), but there are exceptions. To illustrate: 
</P>
<P>i. Taxes paid by lease signing or delivery are disclosed under § 213.4(b) and § 213.4(n). 
</P>
<P>ii. Taxes that are part of the scheduled payments are reflected in the disclosure under § 213.4(c), (f), and (n).
</P>
<P>iii. A tax payable by the lessor that is passed on to the consumer and is reflected in the lease documentation must be disclosed under § 213.4(n). A tax payable by the lessor and absorbed as a cost of doing business need not be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>iv. Taxes charged in connection with the exercise of a purchase option are disclosed under § 213.4(i), not § 213.4(n). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimates.</I> In disclosing the total amount of fees and taxes under § 213.4(n), lessors may need to base the disclosure on estimated tax rates or amounts and are afforded great flexibility in doing so. Where a rate is applied to the future value of leased property, lessors have flexibility in estimating that value, including, but not limited to, using the mathematical average of the agreed upon value and the residual value or published valuation guides; or a lessor could prepare estimates using the agreed upon value and disclose a reasonable estimate of the total fees and taxes. Lessors may include a statement that the actual total of fees and taxes may be higher or lower depending on the tax rates in effect or the value of the leased property at the time a fee or tax is assessed.
</P>
<HD2>4(o) Insurance 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> If insurance is obtained through the lessor, information on the type and amount of insurance coverage (whether voluntary or required) as well as the cost, must be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's insurance.</I> Insurance purchased by the lessor primarily for its own benefit, and absorbed as a business expense and not separately charged to the lessee, need not be disclosed under § 213.4(o) even if it provides an incidental benefit to the lessee. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mechanical breakdown protection and other products.</I> Whether products purchased in conjunction with a lease, such as mechanical breakdown protection (MBP) or guaranteed automobile protection (GAP), should be treated as insurance is determined by state or other applicable law. In states that do not treat MBP or GAP as insurance, § 213.4(o) disclosures are not required. In such cases the lessor may, however, disclose this information in accordance with the additional information provision in § 213.3(b). For MBP insurance contracts not capped by a dollar amount, lessors may describe coverage by referring to a limitation by mileage or time period, for example, by indicating that the mechanical breakdown contract insures parts of the automobile for up to 100,000 miles. 
</P>
<HD2>4(p) Warranties or Guarantees 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Brief identification.</I> The statement identifying warranties may be brief and need not describe or list all warranties applicable to specific parts such as for air conditioning, radio, or tires in an automobile. For example, manufacturer's warranties may be identified simply by a reference to the standard manufacturer's warranty. If a lessor provides a comprehensive list of warranties that may not all apply, to comply with § 213.4(p) the lessor must indicate which warranties apply or, alternatively, which warranties do not apply. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Warranty disclaimers.</I> Although a disclaimer of warranties is not required by the regulation, the lessor may give a disclaimer as additional information in accordance with § 213.3(b). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>State law.</I> Whether an express warranty or guaranty exists is determined by state or other law. 
</P>
<HD2>4(q) Penalties and Other Charges for Delinquency 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Collection costs.</I> The automatic imposition of collection costs or attorney fees upon default must be disclosed under § 213.4(q). Collection costs or attorney fees that are not imposed automatically, but are contingent upon expenditures in conjunction with a collection proceeding or upon the employment of an attorney to effect collection, need not be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges for early termination.</I> When default is a condition for early termination of a lease, default charges must also be disclosed under § 213.4(g)(1). The § 213.4(q) and (g)(1) disclosures may, but need not, be combined. Examples of combined disclosures are provided in the model lease disclosure forms in appendix A. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Simple-interest leases.</I> In a simple-interest accounting lease, the additional rent charge that accrues on the lease balance when a periodic payment is made after the due date does not constitute a penalty or other charge for late payment. Similarly, continued accrual of the rent charge after termination of the lease because the lessee fails to return the leased property does not constitute a default charge. But in either case, if the additional charge accrues at a rate higher than the normal rent charge, the lessor must disclose the amount of or the method of determining the additional charge under § 213.4(q). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Extension charges.</I> Extension charges that exceed the rent charge in a simple-interest accounting lease or that are added separately are disclosed under § 213.4(q). 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reasonableness of charges.</I> Pursuant to section 183(b) of the act, penalties or other charges for delinquency, default, or early termination may be specified in the lease but only in an amount that is reasonable in light of the anticipated or actual harm caused by the delinquency, default, or early termination, the difficulties of proof of loss, and the inconvenience or nonfeasibility of otherwise obtaining an adequate remedy. 
</P>
<HD2>4(r) Security Interest 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosable security interests.</I> See § 213.2(o) and accompanying commentary to determine what security interests must be disclosed. 
</P>
<HD2>4(s) Limitations on Rate Information 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Segregated disclosures.</I> A lease rate may not be included among the segregated disclosures referenced in § 213.3(a)(2). 
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.5—Renegotiations, Extensions and Assumptions 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 213.5 applies only to existing leases that are covered by the regulation. It does not apply to the renegotiation or extension of leases with an initial term of four months or less, because such leases are not covered by the definition of consumer lease in.
</P>
<P>§ 213.2(e). Whether and when a lease is satisfied and replaced by a new lease is determined by state or other applicable law. 
</P>
<HD2>5(a) Renegotiations 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Lessors have flexibility in making disclosures so long as they reflect the legal obligation under the renegotiated lease. For example, assume that a 24-month lease is replaced by a 36-month lease. The initial lease began on January 1, 1998, and was renegotiated and replaced on July 1, 1998, so that the new lease term ends on January 1, 2001.
</P>
<P>i. If the renegotiated lease covers the 36-month period beginning January 1, 1998, the new disclosures would reflect all payments made by the lessee on the initial lease and all payments on the renegotiated lease. In this example, since the renegotiated lease covers a 36-month period beginning January 1, 1998, the disclosures must reflect payments made since that date. On the model form, the “total of base periodic payments” disclosed under § 213.4(f)(7) should reflect periodic payments to be made over the entire 36-month term. Payments received since January 1, 1998, are added as a new line item disclosed as “total of payments received” and are subtracted from the “total of base periodic payments” in calculating a new item disclosed as the “total of base periodic payments remaining.” For example, if 6 monthly payments of $300 were received since January 1, 1998, the disclosure form should include a “total of base periodic payments” line from which $1,800 is subtracted to arrive at the “total of base periodic payments remaining.” The remainder of the disclosures would not change.
</P>
<P>ii. If the renegotiated lease covers only the remaining 30 months, from July 1, 1998, to January 1, 2001, the disclosures would reflect only the charges incurred in connection with the renegotiation and the payments for the remaining period.
</P>
<HD2>5(b) Extensions 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Time of extension disclosures.</I> If a consumer lease is extended for a specified term greater than six months, new disclosures are required at the time the extension is agreed upon. If the lease is extended on a month-to-month basis and the cumulative extensions exceed six months, new disclosures are required at the commencement of the seventh month and at the commencement of each seventh month thereafter for as long as the extensions continue. If a consumer lease is extended for terms of varying durations, one of which will exceed six months beyond the originally scheduled termination date of the lease, new disclosures are required at the commencement of the term that will exceed six months beyond the originally scheduled termination date. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of disclosures for month-to-month extensions.</I> The disclosures for a lease extended on a month-to-month basis for more than six months should reflect the month-to-month nature of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> The disclosures should be based on the extension period, including any upfront costs paid in connection with the extension. For example, assume that initially a lease ends on March 1, 1999. In January 1999, agreement is reached to extend the lease until October 1, 1999. The disclosure would include any extension fee paid in January and the periodic payments for the seven-month extension period beginning in March.
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.6 [Reserved] 
</HD2>
<HD2>Section 213.7—Advertising 
</HD2>
<HD2>7(a) General Rule 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Persons covered.</I> All “persons” must comply with the advertising provisions in this section, not just those that meet the definition of a lessor in § 213.2(h). Thus, automobile dealers, merchants, and others who are not themselves lessors must comply with the advertising provisions of the regulation if they advertise consumer lease transactions. Pursuant to section 184(b) of the act, however, owners and personnel of the media in which an advertisement appears or through which it is disseminated are not subject to civil liability for violations under section 185(b) of the act. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>“Usually and customarily.”</I> Section 213.7(a) does not prohibit the advertising of a single item or the promotion of a new leasing program, but prohibits the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. Thus, an advertisement may state terms that will be offered for only a limited period or terms that will become available at a future date. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total contractual obligation of advertised lease.</I> Section 213.7 applies to advertisements for consumer leases, as defined in § 213.2(e). Under § 213.2(e), a consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this Part if the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. See comment 2(e)-9. Accordingly, § 213.7 does not apply to an advertisement for a specific consumer lease if the total contractual obligation for that lease exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made. If a lessor promotes multiple consumer leases in a single advertisement, the entire advertisement must comply with § 213.7 unless all of the advertised leases are exempt under § 213.2(e). For example
</P>
<P>A. Assume that, in an advertisement, a lessor states that certain terms apply to a consumer lease for a specific automobile. The total contractual obligation of the advertised lease exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made. Although the advertisement does not refer to any other lease, some or all of the advertised terms for the exempt lease also apply to other leases offered by the lessor with total contractual obligations that do not exceed the applicable threshold amount. The advertisement is not required to comply with § 213.7 because it refers only to an exempt lease.
</P>
<P>B. Assume that, in an advertisement, a lessor states certain terms (such as the amount due at lease signing) that will apply to consumer leases for automobiles of a particular brand. However, the advertisement does not refer to a specific lease. The total contractual obligations of the leases for some of the automobiles will exceed the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made, but the total contractual obligations of the leases for other automobiles will not exceed the threshold. The entire advertisement must comply with § 213.7 because it refers to terms for consumer leases that are not exempt.
</P>
<P>C. Assume that, in a single advertisement, a lessor states that certain terms apply to consumer leases for two different automobiles. The total contractual obligation of the lease for the first automobile exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made, but the total contractual obligation of the lease for the second automobile does not exceed the threshold. The entire advertisement must comply with § 213.7 because it refers to a consumer lease that is not exempt.
</P>
<HD2>7(b) Clear and Conspicuous Standard 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Standard.</I> The disclosures in an advertisement in any media must be reasonably understandable. For example, very fine print in a television advertisement or detailed and very rapidly stated information in a radio advertisement does not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read or hear, and cannot comprehend, the information required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(1) Amount due at Lease Signing or Delivery 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Itemization not required.</I> Only a total of amounts due at lease signing or delivery is required to be disclosed, not an itemization of its component parts. Such an itemization is provided in any transaction-specific disclosures provided under § 213.4.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prominence rule.</I> Except for a periodic payment, oral or written references to components of the total due at lease signing or delivery (for example, a reference to a capitalized cost reduction, where permitted) may not be more prominent than the disclosure of the total amount due at lease signing or delivery. 
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(2) Advertisement of a Lease Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Location of statement.</I> The notice required to accompany a percentage rate stated in an advertisement must be placed in close proximity to the rate without any other intervening language or symbols. For example, a lessor may not place an asterisk next to the rate and place the notice elsewhere in the advertisement. In addition, with the exception of the notice required by § 213.4(s), the rate cannot be more prominent than any other § 213.4 disclosure stated in the advertisement. 
</P>
<HD2>7(c) Catalogs or Other Multi-Page Advertisements; Electronic Advertisements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> The multiple-page advertisements referred to in § 213.7(c) are advertisements consisting of a series of numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing comprising several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope is not a single multiple-page advertisement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Cross references.</I> A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) is a single advertisement (requiring only one set of lease disclosures) if it contains a table, chart, or schedule with the disclosures required under § 213.7(d)(2)(i) through (v). If one of the triggering terms listed in § 213.7(d)(1) appears in a catalog, or in a multiple-page or electronic advertisement, it must clearly direct the consumer to the page or location where the table, chart, or schedule begins. For example, in an electronic advertisement, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly connects the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<HD2>7(d)(1) Triggering Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Typical example.</I> When any triggering term appears in a lease advertisement, the additional terms enumerated in § 213.7(d)(2) (i) through (v) must also appear. In a multi-lease advertisement, an example of one or more typical leases with a statement of all the terms applicable to each may be used. The examples must be labeled as such and must reflect representative lease terms that are made available by the lessor to consumers. 
</P>
<HD2>7(d)(2) Additional Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Third-party fees that vary by state or locality.</I> The disclosure of a periodic payment or total amount due at lease signing or delivery may:
</P>
<P>i. Exclude third-party fees, such as taxes, licenses, and registration fees and disclose that fact; or
</P>
<P>ii. Provide a periodic payment or total that includes third-party fees based on a particular state or locality as long as that fact and the fact that fees may vary by state or locality are disclosed.
</P>
<HD2>7(e) Alternative Disclosures—Merchandise Tags
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multiple-item leases.</I> Multiple-item leases that utilize merchandise tags requiring additional disclosures may use the alternate disclosure rule. 
</P>
<HD2>7(f) Alternative Disclosures—Television or Radio Advertisements 
</HD2>
<HD2>7(f)(1) Toll-Free Number or Print Advertisement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Publication in general circulation.</I> A reference to a written advertisement appearing in a newspaper circulated nationally, for example, USA Today or the Wall Street Journal, may satisfy the general circulation requirement in § 213.7(f)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Toll-free number, local or collect calls.</I> In complying with the disclosure requirements of § 213.7(f)(1)(i), a lessor must provide a toll-free number for nonlocal calls made from an area code other than the one used in the lessor's dialing area. Alternatively, a lessor may provide any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multi-purpose number.</I> When an advertised toll-free number responds with a recording, lease disclosures must be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several dialing options—such as providing directions to the lessor's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request lease disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statement accompanying toll free number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone and television number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the toll-free number, such as “call 1-800-000-0000 for details about costs and terms.”
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.8—Record Retention
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Manner of retaining evidence.</I> A lessor must retain evidence of having performed required actions and of having made required disclosures. Such records may be retained in paper form, on microfilm, microfiche, or computer, or by any other method designed to reproduce records accurately. The lessor need retain only enough information to reconstruct the required disclosures or other records.
</P>
<HD2>Section 213.9—Relation to State Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exemptions granted.</I> Effective October 1, 1982, the Board granted the following exemptions from portions of the Consumer Leasing Act:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Maine.</I> Lease transactions subject to the Maine Consumer Credit Code and its implementing regulations are exempt from chapters 2, 4, and 5 of the federal act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a lessor.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Oklahoma.</I> Lease transactions subject to the Oklahoma Consumer Credit Code are exempt from chapters 2 and 5 of the federal act. (The exemption does not apply to sections 132 through 135 of the federal act, nor does it apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a lessor.) 
</P>
<HD2>Appendix A—Model Forms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Although use of the model forms is not required, lessors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation. Generally, lessors may make certain changes in the format or content of the forms and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable to a transaction without losing the act's protection from liability. For example, the model form based on monthly periodic payments may be modified for single-payment lease transactions or for quarterly or other regular or irregular periodic payments. The model form may also be modified to reflect that a transaction is an extension. The content, format, and headings for the segregated disclosures must be substantially similar to those contained in the model forms; therefore, any changes should be minimal. The changes to the model forms should not be so extensive as to affect the substance and the clarity of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of acceptable changes.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the lessee.
</P>
<P>ii. Using “lessee,” “lessor,” or names instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>iii. Rearranging the sequence of the nonsegregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>v. Deleting or blocking out inapplicable disclosures, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items (this should facilitate use of multipurpose standard forms).
</P>
<P>vi. Adding language or symbols to indicate estimates.
</P>
<P>vii. Adding numeric or alphabetic designations.
</P>
<P>viii. Rearranging the disclosures into vertical columns, except for § 213.4 (b) through (e) disclosures.
</P>
<P>ix. Using icons and other graphics.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model closed-end or net vehicle lease disclosure.</I> Model A-2 is designed for a closed-end or net vehicle lease. Under the “Early Termination and Default” provision a reference to the lessee's right to an independent appraisal of the leased vehicle under § 213.4(l) is included for those closed-end leases in which the lessee's liability at early termination is based on the vehicle's realized value.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model furniture lease disclosures.</I> Model A-3 is a closed-end lease disclosure statement designed for a typical furniture lease. It does not include a disclosure of the appraisal right at early termination required under § 213.4(l) because few closed-end furniture leases base the lessee's liability at early termination on the realized value of the leased property. The disclosure should be added if it is applicable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. M, 62 FR 16058, Apr. 4, 1997]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting supplement I to part 213, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="214" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 214—RELATIONS WITH FOREIGN BANKS AND BANKERS (REGULATION N)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248, 348a, 358, 632. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. N, 8 FR 17290, Dec. 24, 1943, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.1   Scope of part.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the authority conferred upon it by section 14 of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (40 Stat. 235, 48 Stat. 181; 12 U.S.C. 358, 348a), and by other provisions of law, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prescribes the following regulations governing relationships and transactions between Federal Reserve Banks and foreign banks or bankers or groups of foreign banks, or bankers, or a foreign State as defined in section 25(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (55 Stat. 131; 12 U.S.C. 632). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.2   Information to be furnished to the Board.</HEAD>
<P>In order that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System may perform its statutory duty of exercising special supervision over all relationships and transactions of any kind entered into by any Federal Reserve Bank with any foreign bank or banker or with any group of foreign banks or bankers or with any foreign State, each Federal Reserve Bank shall promptly submit to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in writing full information concerning all existing relationships and transactions of any kind heretofore entered into by such Federal Reserve Bank with any foreign bank or banker or with any group of foreign banks or bankers or with any foreign State and copies of all written agreements between it and any foreign bank or banker or any group of foreign banks or bankers or any foreign State which are now in force, unless copies have heretofore been furnished to the Board. Each Federal Reserve Bank shall also keep the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System promptly and fully advised of all transactions with any foreign bank or banker or with any group of foreign banks or bankers or with any foreign State, except transactions of a routine character. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.3   Conferences and negotiations with foreign banks, bankers, or States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Without first obtaining the permission of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, no officer or other representative of any Federal Reserve Bank shall conduct negotiations of any kind with the officers or representatives of any foreign bank or banker or any group of foreign banks or bankers of any foreign State, except communications in the ordinary course of business in connection with transactions pursuant to agreements previously approved by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. Any request for the Board's permission to conduct any such negotiations shall be submitted in writing and shall include a full statement of the occasion and objects of the proposed negotiations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System reserves the right, in its discretion, to be represented by such representatives as it may designate in any negotiations between any officer or other representative of any Federal Reserve Bank and any officers or representatives of any foreign bank or banker or any group of foreign banks or bankers or any foreign State; and the Board shall be given reasonable notice in advance of the time and place of any such negotiations; and may itself designate the time and place of any such negotiations. 
</P>
<P>(c) A full report of all such conferences or negotiations and all understandings or agreements arrived at or transactions agreed upon and all other material facts appertaining to such conferences or negotiations shall be filed with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in writing by a duly authorized officer of each Federal Reserve Bank which shall have participated in such conferences or negotiations, including copies of all correspondence appertaining thereto. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.4   Agreements with foreign banks, bankers, or States, and participation in foreign accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No Federal Reserve Bank shall enter into any agreement, contract, or understanding with any foreign bank or banker or with any group of foreign banks or bankers or with any foreign State without first obtaining the permission of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(b) When any Federal Reserve Bank, with the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, has opened an account for any foreign bank or banker or group of foreign banks or bankers or for any foreign State, or has entered into any agreement, contract, or understanding with reference to opening or maintaining such an account, or with reference to any other matter or matters, any other Federal Reserve Bank may participate in such account, or in such agreement, contract, or understanding, and in operations and transactions performed therein or pursuant thereto, with the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.5   Accounts with foreign banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any Federal Reserve Bank, with the consent of the Board, may open and maintain accounts payable in foreign currencies with such foreign banks as may be designated by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding other provisions of this part, any officer or other representatives of the Federal Reserve Bank which maintains an account with a foreign bank may conduct such negotiations and enter into such agreements, contracts, or understandings with such foreign bank as may be authorized or directed by the Federal Open Market Committee in order to effectuate the conduct of open market transactions of the Federal Reserve Banks incident to the opening, maintenance, operation, increase, reduction, or discontinuance of such account; and, in any such case, such negotiations, agreements, contracts, or understandings shall be subject to such authorizations, directions, regulations, and limitations as may be prescribed by, or pursuant to authority of, the Federal Open Market Committee. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any Federal Reserve Bank may, when authorized or directed so to do by, or under the authority of, the Federal Open Market Committee, carry on or conduct, through any other Federal Reserve Bank which maintains an account with a foreign bank, any open market transactions authorized by section 14 of the Federal Reserve Act. Transactions authorized by section 14 which are not open market transactions may be carried on or conducted through such other Federal Reserve Bank only with the approval of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding other provisions of this part, reports with respect to any accounts opened and maintained, and negotiations, agreements, contracts, and understandings entered into, pursuant to this section shall be made to the Board at least quarterly, and more frequently if so requested by the Board, by a duly authorized officer of the Federal Reserve Bank involved. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. N, 27 FR 1719, Feb. 22, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 214.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.15.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 214.6   Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System reserves the right, in its discretion, to alter, amend or repeal these regulations and to prescribe such additional regulations, conditions, and limitations as it may deem desirable, respecting relationships and transactions of any kind entered into by any Federal Reserve Bank with any foreign bank or banker or with any group of foreign banks or bankers or with any foreign State. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. N, 8 FR 17290, Dec. 24, 1943. Redesignated at 27 FR 1719, Feb. 22, 1962]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="215" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 215—LOANS TO EXECUTIVE OFFICERS, DIRECTORS, AND PRINCIPAL SHAREHOLDERS OF MEMBER BANKS (REGULATION O)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(a), 375a(10), 375b(9) and (10), 1468, 1817(k), 5412; and Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991) (12 U.S.C. 1811 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 215.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to sections 11(a), 22(g), and 22(h) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(a), 375a, and 375b), 12 U.S.C. 1817(k), section 306 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)), section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468), and section 312(b)(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5412).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) This part governs any extension of credit made by a member bank to an executive officer, director, or principal shareholder of the member bank, of any company of which the member bank is a subsidiary, and of any other subsidiary of that company.
</P>
<P>(2) This part also applies to any extension of credit made by a member bank to a company controlled by such a person, or to a political or campaign committee that benefits or is controlled by such a person.
</P>
<P>(3) This part also implements the reporting requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1817(k) concerning extensions of credit by a member bank to its executive officers or principal shareholders (or to the related interests of such persons).
</P>
<P>(4) Extensions of credit made to an executive officer, director, or principal shareholder of a bank (or to a related interest of such person) by a correspondent bank also are subject to restrictions set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1972(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 71 FR 71474, Dec. 11, 2006, as amended at 76 FR 56530, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply unless otherwise specified:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company of which a member bank is a subsidiary or any other subsidiary of that company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, trust (business or otherwise), association, joint venture, pool syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of business entity not specifically listed herein. However, the term does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813); or 
</P>
<P>(2) A corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States or by any State. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Control of a company or bank</I> means that a person directly or indirectly, or acting through or in concert with one or more persons: 
</P>
<P>(i) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the company or bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of the company or bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of the company or bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) A person is presumed to have control, including the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies, of a company or bank if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The person is: 
</P>
<P>(A) An executive officer or director of the company or bank; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Directly or indirectly owns, controls, or has the power to vote more than 10 percent of any class of voting securities of the company or bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The person directly or indirectly owns, controls, or has the power to vote more than 10 percent of any class of voting securities of the company or bank; and 
</P>
<P>(B) No other person owns, controls, or has the power to vote a greater percentage of that class of voting securities. 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual is not considered to have control, including the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies, of a company or bank solely by virtue of the individual's position as an officer or director of the company or bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) A person may rebut a presumption established by paragraph (c)(2) of this section by submitting to the appropriate Federal banking agency (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q)) written materials that, in the agency's judgment, demonstrate an absence of control. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Director of a company or bank</I> means any director of the company or bank, whether or not receiving compensation. An advisory director is not considered a director if the advisory director: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is not elected by the shareholders of the company or bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not authorized to vote on matters before the board of directors; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides solely general policy advice to the board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(2) Extensions of credit to a director of an affiliate of a bank are not subject to §§ 215.4, 215.6, and 215.8 if— 
</P>
<P>(i) The director of the affiliate is excluded, by resolution of the board of directors or by the bylaws of the bank, from participation in major policymaking functions of the bank, and the director does not actually participate in such functions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The affiliate does not control the bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) As determined annually, the assets of the affiliate do not constitute more than 10 percent of the consolidated assets of the company that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Controls the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Is not controlled by any other company; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The director of the affiliate is not otherwise subject to §§ 215.4, 215.6, and 215.8. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, a resolution of the board of directors or a corporate bylaw may— 
</P>
<P>(i) Include the director (by name or by title) in a list of persons excluded from participation in such functions; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not include the director in a list of persons authorized (by name or by title) to participate in such functions. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Executive officer</I> of a company or bank means a person who participates or has authority to participate (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the company or bank, whether or not: the officer has an official title; the title designates the officer an assistant; or the officer is serving without salary or other compensation. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The chairman of the board, the president, every vice president, the cashier, the secretary, and the treasurer of a company or bank are considered executive officers, unless the officer is excluded, by resolution of the board of directors or by the bylaws of the bank or company, from participation (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the bank or company, and the officer does not actually participate therein. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The term is not intended to include persons who may have official titles and may exercise a certain measure of discretion in the performance of their duties, including discretion in the making of loans, but who do not participate in the determination of major policies of the bank or company and whose decisions are limited by policy standards fixed by the senior management of the bank or company. For example, the term does not include a manager or assistant manager of a branch of a bank unless that individual participates, or is authorized to participate, in major policymaking functions of the bank or company.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Extensions of credit to an executive officer of an affiliate of a bank are not subject to §§ 215.4, 215.6, and 215.8 if— 
</P>
<P>(i) The executive officer is excluded, by resolution of the board of directors or by the bylaws of the bank, from participation in major policymaking functions of the bank, and the executive officer does not actually participate in such functions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The affiliate does not control the bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) As determined annually, the assets of the affiliate do not constitute more than 10 percent of the consolidated assets of the company that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Controls the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Is not controlled by any other company; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The executive officer of the affiliate is not otherwise subject to §§ 215.4, 215.6, and 215.8. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2)(i) of this section, a resolution of the board of directors or a corporate bylaw may— 
</P>
<P>(i) Include the executive officer (by name or by title) in a list of persons excluded from participation in such functions; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Not include the executive officer in a list of persons authorized (by name or by title) to participate in such functions. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign bank</I> has the meaning given in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Immediate family</I> means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insider</I> means an executive officer, director, or principal shareholder, and includes any related interest of such a person. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Lending limit.</I> The lending limit for a member bank is an amount equal to the limit of loans to a single borrower established by section 5200 of the Revised Statutes,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 12 U.S.C. 84. This amount is 15 percent of the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus in the case of loans that are not fully secured, and an additional 10 percent of the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus in the case of loans that are fully secured by readily marketable collateral having a market value, as determined by reliable and continuously available price quotations, at least equal to the amount of the loan. The lending limit also includes any higher amounts that are permitted by section 5200 of the Revised Statutes for the types of obligations listed therein as exceptions to the limit. A member bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus equals:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Where State law establishes a lending limit for a State member bank that is lower than the amount permitted in section 5200 of the Revised Statutes, the lending limit established by applicable State laws shall be the lending limit for the State member bank.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The bank's tier 1 and tier 2 capital included in the bank's risk-based capital under the capital rule of the appropriate Federal banking agency, based on the bank's most recent consolidated report of condition filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3); and
</P>
<P>(2) The balance of the bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, not included in the bank's tier 2 capital for purposes of the calculation of risk-based capital under the capital rule of the appropriate Federal banking agency, based on the bank's most recent consolidated reports of condition filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section, for a member bank that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus equals Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) plus allowances for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Member bank</I> means any banking institution that is a member of the Federal Reserve System, including any subsidiary of a member bank. The term does not include any foreign bank that maintains a branch in the United States, whether or not the branch is insured (within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) and regardless of the operation of 12 U.S.C. 1813(h) and 12 U.S.C. 1828(j)(3)(B). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Pay an overdraft on an account</I> means to pay an amount upon the order of an account holder in excess of funds on deposit in the account. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual or a company. 
</P>
<P>(m)(1) <I>Principal shareholder</I> means a person (other than an insured bank) that directly or indirectly, or acting through or in concert with one or more persons, owns, controls, or has the power to vote more than 10 percent of any class of voting securities of a member bank or company. Shares owned or controlled by a member of an individual's immediate family are considered to be held by the individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) A principal shareholder of a member bank does not include a company of which a member bank is a subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Related interest</I> of a person means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A company that is controlled by that person; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A political or campaign committee that is controlled by that person or the funds or services of which will benefit that person. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the meaning given in 12 U.S.C. 1841(d), but does not include a subsidiary of a member bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994; 59 FR 37930, July 26, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 31054, June 13, 1995; 61 FR 57770, Nov. 8, 1996; 62 FR 13298, Mar. 20, 1997; 71 FR 71474, Dec. 11, 2006; 84 FR 4241, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.3   Extension of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An extension of credit is a making or renewal of any loan, a granting of a line of credit, or an extending of credit in any manner whatsoever, and includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A purchase under repurchase agreement of securities, other assets, or obligations; 
</P>
<P>(2) An advance by means of an overdraft, cash item, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of a standby letter of credit (or other similar arrangement regardless of name or description) or an ineligible acceptance, as those terms are defined in § 208.24 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(4) An acquisition by discount, purchase, exchange, or otherwise of any note, draft, bill of exchange, or other evidence of indebtedness upon which an insider may be liable as maker, drawer, endorser, guarantor, or surety; 
</P>
<P>(5) An increase of an existing indebtedness, but not if the additional funds are advanced by the bank for its own protection for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Accrued interest; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Taxes, insurance, or other expenses incidental to the existing indebtedness; 
</P>
<P>(6) An advance of unearned salary or other unearned compensation for a period in excess of 30 days; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Any other similar transaction as a result of which a person becomes obligated to pay money (or its equivalent) to a bank, whether the obligation arises directly or indirectly, or because of an endorsement on an obligation or otherwise, or by any means whatsoever. 
</P>
<P>(b) An extension of credit does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) An advance against accrued salary or other accrued compensation, or an advance for the payment of authorized travel or other expenses incurred or to be incurred on behalf of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) A receipt by a bank of a check deposited in or delivered to the bank in the usual course of business unless it results in the carrying of a cash item for or the granting of an overdraft (other than an inadvertent overdraft in a limited amount that is promptly repaid, as described in § 215.4(e) of this part); 
</P>
<P>(3) An acquisition of a note, draft, bill of exchange, or other evidence of indebtedness through: 
</P>
<P>(i) A merger or consolidation of banks or a similar transaction by which a bank acquires assets and assumes liabilities of another bank or similar organization; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Foreclosure on collateral or similar proceeding for the protection of the bank, provided that such indebtedness is not held for a period of more than three years from the date of the acquisition, subject to extension by the appropriate Federal banking agency for good cause; 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) An endorsement or guarantee for the protection of a bank of any loan or other asset previously acquired by the bank in good faith; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any indebtedness to a bank for the purpose of protecting the bank against loss or of giving financial assistance to it; 
</P>
<P>(5) Indebtedness of $15,000 or less arising by reason of any general arrangement by which a bank: 
</P>
<P>(i) Acquires charge or time credit accounts; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes payments to or on behalf of participants in a bank credit card plan, check credit plan, or similar open-end credit plan, provided: 
</P>
<P>(A) The indebtedness does not involve prior individual clearance or approval by the bank other than for the purposes of determining authority to participate in the arrangement and compliance with any dollar limit under the arrangement; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The indebtedness is incurred under terms that are not more favorable than those offered to the general public; 
</P>
<P>(6) Indebtedness of $5,000 or less arising by reason of an interest-bearing overdraft credit plan of the type specified in § 215.4(e); 
</P>
<P>(7) A discount of promissory notes, bills of exchange, conditional sales contracts, or similar paper, without recourse; or
</P>
<P>(8) Except for purposes of § 215.5 of this part, a loan:
</P>
<P>(i) Made pursuant to the “Paycheck Protection Program” in which the participation by the Small Business Administration on a deferred basis is 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) For which material terms, including the maturity and the interest rate, are set by the Small Business Administration;
</P>
<P>(iii) That is made during the “covered period,” as that term is defined in 15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)(A)(iii), but in no case later than March 31, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(iv) That would not be prohibited by 13 CFR 120.110(o) or rules or interpretations thereof issued by the Small Business Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) Non-interest-bearing deposits to the credit of a bank are not considered loans, advances, or extensions of credit to the bank of deposit; nor is the giving of immediate credit to a bank upon uncollected items received in the ordinary course of business considered to be a loan, advance or extension of credit to the depositing bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of § 215.4 of this part, an extension of credit by a member bank is considered to have been made at the time the bank enters into a binding commitment to make the extension of credit. 
</P>
<P>(e) A participation without recourse is considered to be an extension of credit by the participating bank, not by the originating bank. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tangible economic benefit rule</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An extension of credit is considered made to an insider to the extent that the proceeds are transferred to the insider or are used for the tangible economic benefit of the insider. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> An extension of credit is not considered made to an insider under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The credit is extended on terms that would satisfy the standard set forth in § 215.4(a) of this part for extensions of credit to insiders; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The proceeds of the extension of credit are used in a bona fide transaction to acquire property, goods, or services from the insider. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994; 59 FR 37930, July 26, 1994; 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998; 85 FR 22349, Apr. 22, 2020; 85 FR 43121, July 16, 2020; 86 FR 9839, Feb. 17, 2021; 86 FR 27509, May 21, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.4   General prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Terms and creditworthiness</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> No member bank may extend credit to any insider of the bank or insider of its affiliates unless the extension of credit: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is made on substantially the same terms (including interest rates and collateral) as, and following credit underwriting procedures that are not less stringent than, those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions by the bank with other persons that are not covered by this part and who are not employed by the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not involve more than the normal risk of repayment or present other unfavorable features. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Nothing in this paragraph (a) or paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section shall prohibit any extension of credit made pursuant to a benefit or compensation program— 
</P>
<P>(i) That is widely available to employees of the member bank and, in the case of extensions of credit to an insider of its affiliates, is widely available to employees of the affiliates at which that person is an insider; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) That does not give preference to any insider of the member bank over other employees of the member bank and, in the case of extensions of credit to an insider of its affiliates, does not give preference to any insider of its affiliates over other employees of the affiliates at which that person is an insider. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior approval.</I> (1) No member bank may extend credit (which term includes granting a line of credit) to any insider of the bank or insider of its affiliates in an amount that, when aggregated with the amount of all other extensions of credit to that person and to all related interests of that person, exceeds the higher of $25,000 or 5 percent of the member bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus, unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit has been approved in advance by a majority of the entire board of directors of that bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The interested party has abstained from participating directly or indirectly in the voting. 
</P>
<P>(2) In no event may a member bank extend credit to any insider of the bank or insider of its affiliates in an amount that, when aggregated with all other extensions of credit to that person, and all related interests of that person, exceeds $500,000, except by complying with the requirements of this paragraph (b). 
</P>
<P>(3) Approval by the board of directors under paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section is not required for an extension of credit that is made pursuant to a line of credit that was approved under paragraph (b)(1) of this section within 14 months of the date of the extension of credit. The extension of credit must also be in compliance with the requirements of § 215.4(a) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) Participation in the discussion, or any attempt to influence the voting, by the board of directors regarding an extension of credit constitutes indirect participation in the voting by the board of directors on an extension of credit. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual lending limit.</I> No member bank may extend credit to any insider of the bank or insider of its affiliates in an amount that, when aggregated with the amount of all other extensions of credit by the member bank to that person and to all related interests of that person, exceeds the lending limit of the member bank specified in § 215.2(i) of this part. This prohibition does not apply to an extension of credit by a member bank to a company of which the member bank is a subsidiary or to any other subsidiary of that company. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Aggregate lending limit</I>—(1) <I>General limit.</I> A member bank may not extend credit to any insider of the bank or insider of its affiliates unless the extension of credit is in an amount that, when aggregated with the amount of all outstanding extensions of credit by that bank to all such insiders, does not exceed the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus (as defined in § 215.2(i) of this part). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Member banks with deposits of less than $100,000,000.</I> (i) A member bank with deposits of less than $100,000,000 may by an annual resolution of its board of directors increase the general limit specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to a level not to exceed two times the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The board of directors determines that such higher limit is consistent with prudent, safe, and sound banking practices in light of the bank's experience in lending to its insiders and is necessary to attract or retain directors or to prevent restricting the availability of credit in small communities; 
</P>
<P>(B) The resolution sets forth the facts and reasoning on which the board of directors bases the finding, including the amount of the bank's lending to its insiders as a percentage of the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus as of the date of the resolution; 
</P>
<P>(C) The bank meets or exceeds, on a fully-phased in basis, all applicable capital requirements established by the appropriate Federal banking agency; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The bank received a satisfactory composite rating in its most recent report of examination. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a member bank has adopted a resolution authorizing a higher limit pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section and subsequently fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) or (d)(2)(i)(D) of this section, the member bank shall not extend any additional credit (including a renewal of any existing extension of credit) to any insider of the bank or its affiliates unless such extension or renewal is consistent with the general limit in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) The general limit specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not apply to the following: 
</P>
<P>(A) Extensions of credit secured by a perfected security interest in bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States or in other such obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States; 
</P>
<P>(B) Extensions of credit to or secured by unconditional takeout commitments or guarantees of any department, agency, bureau, board, commission or establishment of the United States or any corporation wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States; 
</P>
<P>(C) Extensions of credit secured by a perfected security interest in a segregated deposit account in the lending bank; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Extensions of credit arising from the discount of negotiable or nonnegotiable installment consumer paper that is acquired from an insider and carries a full or partial recourse endorsement or guarantee by the insider, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The financial condition of each maker of such consumer paper is reasonably documented in the bank's files or known to its officers; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An officer of the bank designated for that purpose by the board of directors of the bank certifies in writing that the bank is relying primarily upon the responsibility of each maker for payment of the obligation and not upon any endorsement or guarantee by the insider; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maker of the instrument is not an insider. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The exceptions in paragraphs (d)(3)(i)(A) through (d)(3)(i)(C) of this section apply only to the amounts of such extensions of credit that are secured in the manner described therein. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Overdrafts.</I> (1) No member bank may pay an overdraft of an executive officer or director of the bank or executive officer or director of its affiliates 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> on an account at the bank, unless the payment of funds is made in accordance with: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> This prohibition does not apply to the payment by a member bank of an overdraft of a principal shareholder of the member bank, unless the principal shareholder is also an executive officer or director. This prohibition also does not apply to the payment by a member bank of an overdraft of a related interest of an executive officer, director, or principal shareholder of the member bank or executive officer, director, or principal shareholder of its affiliates.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) A written, preauthorized, interest-bearing extension of credit plan that specifies a method of repayment; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A written, preauthorized transfer of funds from another account of the account holder at the bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) The prohibition in paragraph (e)(1) of this section does not apply to payment of inadvertent overdrafts on an account in an aggregate amount of $1,000 or less, provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) The account is not overdrawn for more than 5 business days; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The member bank charges the executive officer or director the same fee charged any other customer of the bank in similar circumstances. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994; 59 FR 37930, July 26, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 57770, Nov. 8, 1996; 62 FR 13298, Mar. 20, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.5   Additional restrictions on loans to executive officers of member banks.</HEAD>
<P>The following restrictions on extensions of credit by a member bank to any of its executive officers apply in addition to any restrictions on extensions of credit by a member bank to insiders of itself or its affiliates set forth elsewhere in this part. The restrictions of this section apply only to executive officers of the member bank and not to executive officers of its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(a) No member bank may extend credit to any of its executive officers, and no executive officer of a member bank shall borrow from or otherwise become indebted to the bank, except in the amounts, for the purposes, and upon the conditions specified in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) No member bank may extend credit in an aggregate amount greater than the amount permitted in paragraph (c)(4) of this section to a partnership in which one or more of the bank's executive officers are partners and, either individually or together, hold a majority interest. For the purposes of paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the total amount of credit extended by a member bank to such partnership is considered to be extended to each executive officer of the member bank who is a member of the partnership. 
</P>
<P>(c) A member bank is authorized to extend credit to any executive officer of the bank: 
</P>
<P>(1) In any amount to finance the education of the executive officer's children; 
</P>
<P>(2) In any amount to finance or refinance the purchase, construction, maintenance, or improvement of a residence of the executive officer, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is secured by a first lien on the residence and the residence is owned (or expected to be owned after the extension of credit) by the executive officer; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a refinancing, that only the amount thereof used to repay the original extension of credit, together with the closing costs of the refinancing, and any additional amount thereof used for any of the purposes enumerated in this paragraph (c)(2), are included within this category of credit; 
</P>
<P>(3) In any amount, if the extension of credit is secured in a manner described in § 215.4(d)(3)(i)(A) through (d)(3)(i)(C) of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(4) For any other purpose not specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, if the aggregate amount of extensions of credit to that executive officer under this paragraph does not exceed at any one time the higher of 2.5 per cent of the bank's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus or $25,000, but in no event more than $100,000. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any extension of credit by a member bank to any of its executive officers shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly reported to the member bank's board of directors; 
</P>
<P>(2) In compliance with the requirements of § 215.4(a) of this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) Preceded by the submission of a detailed current financial statement of the executive officer; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Made subject to the condition in writing that the extension of credit will, at the option of the member bank, become due and payable at any time that the officer is indebted to any other bank or banks in an aggregate amount greater than the amount specified for a category of credit in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994; 59 FR 37930, July 26, 1994; 60 FR 17636, Apr. 7, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.6   Prohibition on knowingly receiving unauthorized extension of credit.</HEAD>
<P>No executive officer, director, or principal shareholder of a member bank or any of its affiliates shall knowingly receive (or knowingly permit any of that person's related interests to receive) from a member bank, directly or indirectly, any extension of credit not authorized under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.7" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.7   Extensions of credit outstanding on March 10, 1979.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any extension of credit that was outstanding on March 10, 1979, and that would, if made on or after March 10, 1979, violate § 215.4(c) of this part, shall be reduced in amount by March 10, 1980, to be in compliance with the lending limit in § 215.4(c) of this part. Any renewal or extension of such an extension of credit on or after March 10, 1979, shall be made only on terms that will bring the extension of credit into compliance with the lending limit of § 215.4(c) of this part by March 10, 1980. However, any extension of credit made before March 10, 1979, that bears a specific maturity date of March 10, 1980, or later, shall be repaid in accordance with its repayment schedule in existence on or before March 10, 1979. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a member bank is unable to bring all extensions of credit outstanding on March 10, 1979, into compliance as required by paragraph (a) of this section, the member bank shall promptly report that fact to the Comptroller of the Currency, in the case of a national bank, or to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank, in the case of a State member bank, and explain the reasons why all the extensions of credit cannot be brought into compliance. The Comptroller or the Reserve Bank, as the case may be, is authorized, on the basis of good cause shown, to extend the March 10, 1980, date for compliance for any extension of credit for not more than two additional one-year periods. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.8" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.8   Records of member banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each member bank shall maintain records necessary for compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recordkeeping for insiders of the member bank.</I> Any recordkeeping method adopted by a member bank shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify, through an annual survey, all insiders of the bank itself; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintain records of all extensions of credit to insiders of the bank itself, including the amount and terms of each such extension of credit. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping for insiders of the member bank's affiliates.</I> Any recordkeeping method adopted by a member bank shall maintain records of extensions of credit to insiders of the member bank's affiliates by: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Survey method.</I> (i) Identifying, through an annual survey, each insider of the member bank's affiliates; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining records of the amount and terms of each extension of credit by the member bank to such insiders; or 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Borrower inquiry method.</I> (i) Requiring as part of each extension of credit that the borrower indicate whether the borrower is an insider of an affiliate of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining records that identify the amount and terms of each extension of credit by the member bank to borrowers so identifying themselves. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative recordkeeping methods for insiders of affiliates.</I> A member bank may employ a recordkeeping method other than those identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section if the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the bank's method is at least as effective as the identified methods. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for non-commercial lenders.</I> A member bank that is prohibited by law or by an express resolution of the board of directors of the bank from making an extension of credit to any company or other entity that is covered by this part as a company is not required to maintain any records of the related interests of the insiders of the bank or its affiliates or to inquire of borrowers whether they are related interests of the insiders of the bank or its affiliates. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.9   Disclosure of credit from member banks to executive officers and principal shareholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Principal shareholder of a member bank</I> means any person other than an insured bank, or a foreign bank as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7), that, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, or has power to vote more than 10 percent of any class of voting securities of the member bank. The term includes a person that controls a principal shareholder (<I>e.g.,</I> a person that controls a bank holding company). Shares of a bank (including a foreign bank), bank holding company, savings and loan holding company or other company owned or controlled by a member of an individual's immediate family are presumed to be owned or controlled by the individual for the purposes of determining principal shareholder status.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Related interest</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any company controlled by a person; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any political or campaign committee the funds or services of which will benefit a person or that is controlled by a person. For the purpose of this section, a related interest does not include a bank or a foreign bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public disclosure.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a written request from the public, a member bank shall make available the names of each of its executive officers and each of its principal shareholders to whom, or to whose related interests, the member bank had outstanding as of the end of the latest previous quarter of the year, an extension of credit that, when aggregated with all other outstanding extensions of credit at such time from the member bank to such person and to all related interests of such person, equaled or exceeded 5 percent of the member bank's capital and unimpaired surplus or $500,000, whichever amount is less. No disclosure under this paragraph is required if the aggregate amount of all extensions of credit outstanding at such time from the member bank to the executive officer or principal shareholder of the member bank and to all related interests of such a person does not exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(2) A member bank is not required to disclose the specific amounts of individual extensions of credit. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintaining records.</I> Each member bank shall maintain records of all requests for the information described in paragraph (b) of this section and the disposition of such requests. These records may be disposed of after two years from the date of the request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994; 59 FR 37930, July 26, 1994. Redesignated and amended at 71 FR 71474, Dec. 11, 2006, as amended at 76 FR 56530, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.10   Reporting requirement for credit secured by certain bank stock.</HEAD>
<P>Each executive officer or director of a member bank the shares of which are not publicly traded shall report annually to the board of directors of the member bank the outstanding amount of any credit that was extended to the executive officer or director and that is secured by shares of the member bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 59 FR 8837, Feb. 24, 1994. Redesignated at 71 FR 71474, Dec. 11, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.11   Civil penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Any member bank, or any officer, director, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of the bank, that violates any provision of this part (other than § 215.9) is subject to civil penalties as specified in section 29 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 504).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 71 FR 71475, Dec. 11, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 215.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 215.12   Application to savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this part apply to savings associations, as defined in 12 CFR 238.2(l) (including any subsidiary of a savings association), in the same manner and to the same extent as if the savings association were a member bank; provided that a savings association's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus will be determined under regulatory capital rules applicable to that savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. O, 76 FR 56530, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.16.0.6.13.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 215—Section 5200 of the Revised Statutes Total Loans and Extensions of Credit
</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The total loans and extensions of credit by a national banking association to a person outstanding at one time and not fully secured, as determined in a manner consistent with paragraph (2) of this subsection, by collateral having a market value at least equal to the amount of the loan or extension of credit shall not exceed 15 per centum of the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus of the association.
</P>
<P>(2) The total loans and extensions of credit by a national banking association to a person outstanding at one time and fully secured by readily marketable collateral having a market value, as determined by reliable and continuously available price quotations, at least equal to the amount of the funds outstanding shall not exceed 10 per centum of the unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus of the association. This limitation shall be separate from and in addition to the limitations contained in paragraph (1) of this subsection.
</P>
<HD1>Definitions
</HD1>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>loans and extensions of credit</I> shall include all direct or indirect advances of funds to a person made on the basis of any obligation of that person to repay the funds or repayable from specific property pledged by or on behalf of the person, and to the extent specified by the Comptroller of the Currency, such term shall also include any liability of a national banking association to advance funds to or on behalf of a person pursuant to a contractual commitment; and
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>person</I> shall include an individual, sole proprietorship, partnership, joint venture, association, trust, estate, business trust, corporation, sovereign government, or agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision thereof, or any similar entity or organization.
</P>
<HD1>Exceptions
</HD1>
<P>(c) The limitations contained in subsection (a) of this section shall be subject to the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) Loans or extensions of credit arising from the discount of commercial or business paper evidencing an obligation to the person negotiating it with recourse shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase of bankers' acceptances of the kind described in section 372 of this title and issued by other banks shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(3) Loans and extensions of credit secured by bills of lading, warehouse receipts, or similar documents transferring or securing title to readily marketable staples shall be subject to a limitation of 35 per centum of capital and surplus in addition to the general limitations if the market value of the staples securing each additional loan or extension of credit at all times equals or exceeds 115 per centum of the outstanding amount of such loan or extension of credit. The staples shall be fully covered by insurance whenever it is customary to insure such staples.
</P>
<P>(4) Loans or extensions of credit secured by bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States or by other such obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(5) Loans or extensions of credit to or secured by unconditional takeout commitments or guarantees of any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States or any corporation wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(6) Loans or extensions of credit secured by a segregated deposit account in the lending bank shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(7) Loans or extensions of credit to any financial institution or to any receiver, conservator, superintendent of banks, or other agent in charge of the business and property of such financial institution, when such loans or extensions of credit are approved by the Comptroller of the Currency, shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(8)(A) Loans and extensions of credit arising from the discount of negotiable or nonnegotiable installment consumer paper which carries a full recourse endorsement or unconditional guarantee by the person transferring the paper shall be subject under this section to a maximum limitation equal to 25 per centum of such capital and surplus, notwithstanding the collateral requirements set forth in subsection (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) If the bank's files or the knowledge of its officers of the financial condition of each maker of such consumer paper is reasonably adequate, and an officer of the bank designated for that purpose by the board of directors of the bank certifies in writing that the bank is relying primarily upon the responsibility of each maker for payment of such loans or extensions of credit and not upon any full or partial recourse endorsement or guarantee by the transferor, the limitations of this section as to the loans or extensions of credit of each such maker shall be the sole applicable loan limitations. 
</P>
<P>(9)(A) Loans and extensions of credit secured by shipping documents or instruments transferring or securing title covering livestock or giving a lien on livestock when the market value of the livestock securing the obligation is not at any time less than 115 per centum of the face amount of the note covered, shall be subject under this section notwithstanding the collateral requirements set forth in subsection (a)(2) of this section, to a maximum limitation equal to 25 per centum of such capital and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(B) Loans and extensions of credit which arise from the discount by dealers in dairy cattle of paper given in payment for dairy cattle, which paper carries a full recourse endorsement or unconditional guarantee of the seller, and which are secured by the cattle being sold, shall be subject under this section, notwithstanding the collateral requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to a limitation of 25 per centum of such capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(10) Loans or extensions of credit to the Student Loan Marketing Association shall not be subject to any limitation based on capital and surplus. 
</P>
<HD1>Authority of Comptroller of the Currency
</HD1>
<P>(d)(1) The Comptroller of the Currency may prescribe rules and regulations to administer and carry out the purposes of this section, including rules or regulations to define or further define terms used in this section and to establish limits or requirements other than those specified in this section for particular classes or categories of loans or extensions of credit. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Comptroller of the Currency also shall have authority to determine when a loan putatively made to a person shall for purposes of this section be attributed to another person.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 42806, Sept. 20, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="216" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 216 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="217" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 217—CAPITAL ADEQUACY OF BANK HOLDING COMPANIES, SAVINGS AND LOAN HOLDING COMPANIES, AND STATE MEMBER BANKS (REGULATION Q)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(a), 321-338a, 481-486, 1462a, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 1844(b), 1851, 3904, 3906-3909, 4808, 5365, 5368, 5371, 5371 note, and sec. 4012, Pub. L. 116-136, 134 Stat. 281.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.1.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.1   Purpose, applicability, reservations of authority, and timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards for entities described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. This part includes methodologies for calculating minimum capital requirements, public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements, and transition provisions for the application of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Board to take action under other provisions of law, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, section 8 of the Bank Holding Company Act, or section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability</I>—(1)(i) <I>Applicability in general.</I> This part applies on a consolidated basis to every Board-regulated institution that is:
</P>
<P>(A) A state member bank;
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company domiciled in the United States that is not subject to 12 CFR part 225, appendix C, provided that the Board may by order apply any or all of this part to any bank holding company, based on the institution's size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition; or
</P>
<P>(C) A covered savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States, other than a savings and loan holding company that meets the requirements of 12 CFR part 225, appendix C, as if the savings and loan holding company were a bank holding company and the savings association were a bank. For purposes of compliance with the capital adequacy requirements and calculations in this part, savings and loan holding companies that do not file form FR Y-9C or form FR Q-1 should follow the instructions to the FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mid-tier holding companies of insurance depository institution holding companies.</I> In the case of a bank holding company, or a covered savings and loan holding company, that does not calculate minimum risk-based capital requirements under subpart B of this part by operation of § 217.10(f)(1), this part applies to a depository institution holding company that is a subsidiary of such bank holding company or covered savings and loan holding company, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The subsidiary depository institution holding company is an insurance mid-tier holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) The subsidiary depository institution holding company's assets and liabilities are not consolidated with those of a depository institution holding company that controls the subsidiary for purposes of determining the parent depository institution holding company's capital requirements and capital ratios under subparts B through F of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards.</I> Each Board-regulated institution must calculate its minimum capital requirements and meet the overall capital adequacy standards in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory capital.</I> Each Board-regulated institution must calculate its regulatory capital in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) Each Board-regulated institution must use the methodologies in subpart D of this part (and subpart F of this part for a market risk Board-regulated institution) to calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must use the methodologies in subpart E (and subpart F of this part for a market risk Board-regulated institution) to calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosures.</I> (i) Except for an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that is making public disclosures pursuant to the requirements in subpart E of this part, each Board-regulated institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more must make the public disclosures described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each market risk Board-regulated institution must make the public disclosures described in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must make the public disclosures described in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Additional capital in the aggregate.</I> The Board may require a Board-regulated institution to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under this part if the Board determines that the Board-regulated institution's capital requirements under this part are not commensurate with the Board-regulated institution's credit, market, operational, or other risks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital elements.</I> (i) If the Board determines that a particular common equity tier 1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to exclude all or a portion of such element from common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, the Board may find that a capital element may be included in a Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 217.20(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amounts.</I> If the Board determines that the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under this part by the Board-regulated institution for one or more exposures is not commensurate with the risks associated with those exposures, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to the exposure(s) or to deduct the amount of the exposure(s) from its regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total leverage.</I> If the Board determines that the total leverage exposure, or the amount reflected in the Board-regulated institution's reported average total consolidated assets, for an on- or off-balance sheet exposure calculated by a Board-regulated institution under § 217.10 is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the Board-regulated institution, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to adjust this exposure amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the leverage ratio calculations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consolidation of certain exposures.</I> The Board may determine that the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet is not commensurate with the risk of the exposure and the relationship of the Board-regulated institution to the entity. Upon making this determination, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the balance sheet of the Board-regulated institution for purposes of determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirements and calculating the Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital ratios accordingly. The Board will look to the substance of, and risk associated with, the transaction, as well as other relevant factors the Board deems appropriate in determining whether to require such treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any deduction or limitation required under this part, the Board may require a different deduction or limitation, provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the Board-regulated institution's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response procedures.</I> In making a determination under this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Timing.</I> (1) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that is not a savings and loan holding company must:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart E and, if applicable, subpart F of this part and, beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D and, if applicable, subpart F of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) From January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014:
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate risk-weighted assets in accordance with the general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR parts 208 or 225, appendix A, and, if applicable, appendix E (state member banks or bank holding companies, respectively) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and substitute such risk-weighted assets for standardized total risk-weighted assets for purposes of § 217.10;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purpose of calculating its general risk-based capital ratios from January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution shall adjust, as appropriate, its risk-weighted asset measure (as that amount is calculated under 12 CFR parts 208 and 225, and, if applicable, appendix E (state member banks or bank holding companies, respectively) in the general risk-based capital rules) by excluding those assets that are deducted from its regulatory capital under § 217.22.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) If applicable, calculate general market risk equivalent assets in accordance with 12 CFR parts 208 or 225, appendix E, section 4(a)(3) (state member banks or bank holding companies, respectively) and substitute such general market risk equivalent assets for standardized market risk-weighted assets for purposes of § 217.20(d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(C) Substitute the corresponding provision or provisions of 12 CFR parts 208 or 225, appendix A, and, if applicable, appendix E (state member banks or bank holding companies, respectively) for any reference to subpart D of this part in: § 217.121(c); § 217.124(a) and (b); § 217.144(b); § 217.154(c) and (d); § 217.202(b) (definition of covered position in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)); and § 217.211(b); 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In addition, for purposes of § 217.201(c)(3), from January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, for any circumstance in which the Board may require a Board-regulated institution to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under subpart D of this part, the Board will instead require the Board-regulated institution to make such calculations according to 12 CFR parts 208 and 225, appendix A and, if applicable, appendix E (state member banks or bank holding companies, respectively).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B, and C of this part, provided, however, that such Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) From January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, maintain a minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4 percent, a minimum tier 1 capital ratio of 5.5 percent, a minimum total capital ratio of 8 percent, and a minimum leverage ratio of 4 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) From January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2017, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 217.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D, and if applicable, subpart F of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B and C of this part, provided, however, that from January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2017, a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 217.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning on January 1, 2016, and subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, a Board-regulated institution is subject to limitations on distributions and discretionary bonus payments with respect to its capital conservation buffer, any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, and any applicable GSIB surcharge, in accordance with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) Beginning Jan. 1, 2018, a global systemically important BHC (as defined in § 217.2) is subject to limitations on distributions and discretionary bonus payments in accordance with the lower of the maximum payout amount as determined under § 217.11(a)(2)(iii) and the maximum leverage payout amount as determined under § 217.11(a)(2)(vi). 
</P>
<P>(5) A depository institution holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company, or a state member bank that changes from one category of Board-regulated institution to another of such categories must comply with the requirements of its category in this part, including applicable transition provisions of the requirements in this part, no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the company's category.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution holding companies and treatment of subsidiary state-regulated insurers, regulated foreign subsidiaries, and regulated foreign affiliates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In complying with the capital adequacy requirements of this part (except for the requirements and calculations of subpart J of this part), including any determination of applicability under § 217.100 or § 217.201, an insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company may elect not to consolidate the assets and liabilities of its subsidiary state-regulated insurers, regulated foreign subsidiaries, and regulated foreign affiliates. Such an institution that makes this election must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in such subsidiaries and affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Include in the risk-weighted assets of the Board-regulated institution the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in such subsidiaries and affiliates and assign to these assets a 400 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Method of election.</I> (i) An insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company may make the election described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section by indicating that it has made this election on the applicable regulatory report, filed by the insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company for the first reporting period in which it is an insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company. The electing Board-regulated institution must indicate on the applicable regulatory report whether it elects to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section or whether it elects to include an amount in its risk-weighted assets in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company that has not made an effective election pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, or that seeks to change its election (or its choice of treatment under paragraph (g)(1) of this section) due to a change in control, business combination, or other legitimate business purpose, may do so only with the prior approval of the Board, effective as of the first reporting period after the period in which the Board approves the election, or such other date specified in the approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 24540, May 1, 2014; 79 FR 57744, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 5670, Feb. 3, 2015; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 80 FR 49103, Aug. 14, 2015; 83 FR 44198, Aug. 30, 2018; 84 FR 59269, Nov. 1, 2019; 88 FR 82967, Nov. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.1.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 217.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted allowances for credit losses (AACL)</I> means, with respect to a Board-regulated institution that has adopted CECL, valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings for expected credit losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost and a lessor's net investment in leases that have been established to reduce the amortized cost basis of the assets to amounts expected to be collected as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, adjusted allowances for credit losses include allowances for expected credit losses on off-balance sheet credit exposures not accounted for as insurance as determined in accordance with GAAP. Adjusted allowances for credit losses exclude “allocated transfer risk reserves” and allowances created that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches Board-regulated institution</I> means a Board-regulated institution that is described in § 217.100(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit-risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a market risk Board-regulated institution only, advanced market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Excess eligible credit reserves not included in the Board-regulated institution's tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced market risk-weighted assets</I> means the advanced measure for market risk calculated under § 217.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> with respect to a company, means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the company.
</P>
<P><I>Allocated transfer risk reserves</I> means reserves that have been established in accordance with section 905(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act, against certain assets whose value U.S. supervisory authorities have found to be significantly impaired by protracted transfer risk problems.
</P>
<P><I>Allowances for loan and lease losses (ALLL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses on loans, lease financing receivables or other extensions of credit as determined in accordance with GAAP. ALLL excludes “allocated transfer risk reserves.” For purposes of this part, ALLL includes allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with off-balance sheet credit exposures as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program</I> means a program established primarily for the purpose of issuing commercial paper that is investment grade and backed by underlying exposures held in a bankruptcy-remote special purpose entity (SPE).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program sponsor</I> means a Board-regulated institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(2) Approves the sellers permitted to participate in an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(3) Approves the exposures to be purchased by an ABCP program; or
</P>
<P>(4) Administers the ABCP program by monitoring the underlying exposures, underwriting or otherwise arranging for the placement of debt or other obligations issued by the program, compiling monthly reports, or ensuring compliance with the program documents and with the program's credit and investment policy.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> means a bank holding company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bank Holding Company Act</I> means the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, with respect to an entity or asset, that the entity or asset would be excluded from an insolvent entity's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Basis derivative contract</I> means a non-foreign-exchange derivative contract (<I>i.e.,</I> the contract is denominated in a single currency) in which the cash flows of the derivative contract depend on the difference between two risk factors that are attributable solely to one of the following derivative asset classes: Interest rate, credit, equity, or commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Board-regulated institution</I> means a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, the value of the asset on the balance sheet of a Board-regulated institution as determined in accordance with GAAP. For all assets other than available-for-sale debt securities or purchased credit deteriorated assets, the carrying value is not reduced by any associated credit loss allowance that is determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Category II Board-regulated institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5;
</P>
<P>(3) A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a company identified in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) A state member bank that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent quarters, total consolidated assets is based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (4)(i) of this section, a state member bank continues to be a Category II Board-regulated institution until the state member bank:
</P>
<P>(A) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Category III Board-regulated institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5;
</P>
<P>(3) A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a company identified in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(4) A depository institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least one of the following in paragraphs (4)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each calculated as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure equal to $75 billion or more. Off-balance sheet exposure is a state member bank's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the state member bank, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (4)(ii) of this definition, a state member bank continues to be a Category III Board-regulated institution until the state member bank:
</P>
<P>(A) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is a state member bank's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the state member bank, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>CFTC</I> means the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating Board-regulated institution or servicer to call securitization exposures before their stated maturity or call date.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared transaction</I> means an exposure associated with an outstanding derivative contract or repo-style transaction that a Board-regulated institution or clearing member has entered into with a central counterparty (that is, a transaction that a central counterparty has accepted).
</P>
<P>(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction between a CCP and a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member of the CCP where the Board-regulated institution enters into the transaction with the CCP for the Board-regulated institution's own account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction between a CCP and a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member of the CCP where the Board-regulated institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client and the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 217.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client Board-regulated institution and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 217.3(a) are met; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client Board-regulated institution and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client Board-regulated institution to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 217.3(a)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(2) The exposure of a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member to its clearing member client is not a cleared transaction where the Board-regulated institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the Board-regulated institution provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For the standardized approach treatment of these exposures, see § 217.34(e) (OTC derivative contracts) or § 217.37(c) (repo-style transactions). For the advanced approaches treatment of these exposures, see §§ 217.132(c)(8) and (d) (OTC derivative contracts) or §§ 217.132(b) and § 217.132(d) (repo-style transactions) and for calculation of the margin period of risk, see §§ 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) (OTC derivative contracts) and § 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(A) (repo-style transactions).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Clearing member</I> means a member of, or direct participant in, a CCP that is entitled to enter into transactions with the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member client</I> means a party to a cleared transaction associated with a CCP in which a clearing member acts either as a financial intermediary with respect to the party or guarantees the performance of the party to the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Client-facing derivative transaction</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction where the Board-regulated institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) or where the Board-regulated institution provides a guarantee on the performance of a client on a transaction between the client and a QCCP.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral agreement</I> means a legal contract that specifies the time when, and circumstances under which, a counterparty is required to pledge collateral to a Board-regulated institution for a single financial contract or for all financial contracts in a netting set and confers upon the Board-regulated institution a perfected, first-priority security interest (notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent), or the legal equivalent thereof, in the collateral posted by the counterparty under the agreement. This security interest must provide the Board-regulated institution with a right to close-out the financial positions and liquidate the collateral upon an event of default of, or failure to perform by, the counterparty under the collateral agreement. A contract would not satisfy this requirement if the Board-regulated institution's exercise of rights under the agreement may be stayed or avoided:
</P>
<P>(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The Board expects to evaluate jointly with the OCC and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of subpart I of the Board's Regulation YY (part 252 of this chapter), part 47 of this title, or part 382 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial end-user</I> means an entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Is not an entity described in section 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a “financial entity” for purposes of section 2(h)(7) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)); or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not an entity described in section 3C(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Qualifies for the exemption in section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(4) Qualifies for an exemption in section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) by virtue of section 3C(g)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates a Board-regulated institution to extend credit or to purchase assets.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity derivative contract</I> means a commodity-linked swap, purchased commodity-linked option, forward commodity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to commodities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 217.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest</I> means the common equity tier 1 capital of a depository institution or foreign bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A consolidated subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not owned by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> A person or company <I>controls</I> a company if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidates the company for financial reporting purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate exposure</I> means an exposure to a company that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to a GSE;
</P>
<P>(3) A residential mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) A pre-sold construction loan;
</P>
<P>(5) A statutory multifamily mortgage;
</P>
<P>(6) A high volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure;
</P>
<P>(7) A cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(8) A default fund contribution;
</P>
<P>(9) A securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(10) An equity exposure; or
</P>
<P>(11) An unsettled transaction.
</P>
<P>(12) A policy loan;
</P>
<P>(13) A separate account; or
</P>
<P>(14) A Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P><I>Country risk classification (CRC)</I> with respect to a sovereign, means the most recent consensus CRC published by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) as of December 31st of the prior calendar year that provides a view of the likelihood that the sovereign will service its external debt.
</P>
<P><I>Covered debt instrument</I> means an unsecured debt instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Issued by a global systemically important BHC and that is an eligible debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.61, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible debt security issued by the global systemically important BHC; or
</P>
<P>(2) Issued by a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, and that is an eligible Covered IHC debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible Covered IHC debt security issued by the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(3) Issued by a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2 other than a global systemically important BHC; or issued by a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization that is not a global systemically important BHC, other than a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161; and where,
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is eligible for use to comply with an applicable law or regulation requiring the issuance of a minimum amount of instruments to absorb losses or recapitalize the issuer or any of its subsidiaries in connection with a resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of the issuer or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; for purposes of this paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition, if the issuer may be subject to a special resolution regime, in its jurisdiction of incorporation or organization, that addresses the failure or potential failure of a financial company and any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument, then an instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition if that instrument is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument ahead of or proportionally with any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provided that, for purposes of this definition, <I>covered debt instrument</I> does not include a debt instrument that qualifies as tier 2 capital pursuant to 12 CFR 217.20(d) or that is otherwise treated as regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the issuer.
</P>
<P><I>Covered savings and loan holding company</I> means a top-tier savings and loan holding company other than an institution that—
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of section 10(c)(9)(C) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(9)(C)); and
</P>
<P>(2) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO)</I> means an on-balance sheet asset that, in form or in substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing representations and warranties</I> means representations and warranties that are made or assumed in connection with a transfer of underlying exposures (including loan servicing assets) and that obligate a Board-regulated institution to protect another party from losses arising from the credit risk of the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties include provisions to protect a party from losses resulting from the default or nonperformance of the counterparties of the underlying exposures or from an insufficiency in the value of the collateral backing the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50 percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
</P>
<P>(2) Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a GSE, provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Warranties that permit the return of underlying exposures in instances of misrepresentation, fraud, or incomplete documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk mitigant</I> means collateral, a credit derivative, or a guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-risk-weighted assets</I> means 1.06 multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets as calculated under § 217.131;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 217.142; and
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under § 217.151.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL)</I> means the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure</I> means, with respect to a netting set, the larger of zero or the fair value of a transaction or portfolio of transactions within the netting set that would be lost upon default of the counterparty, assuming no recovery on the value of the transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure methodology</I> means the method of calculating the exposure amount for over-the-counter derivative contracts in § 217.34(b).
</P>
<P><I>Custodial banking organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company domiciled in the United States that has assets under custody that are at least 30 times the amount of the depository institution holding company's total assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company described in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, total assets are equal to the average of the banking organization's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters. Assets under custody are equal to the average of the Board-regulated institution's assets under custody for the four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a financial institution that has legal custody of collateral provided to a CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Default fund contribution</I> means the funds contributed or commitments made by a clearing member to a CCP's mutualized loss sharing arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> means a payment made to an executive officer of a Board-regulated institution, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the executive officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount paid is determined by the Board-regulated institution without prior promise to, or agreement with, the executive officer; and
</P>
<P>(3) The executive officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when a Board-regulated institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A common equity tier 1 or additional tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when a Board-regulated institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase or redemption is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(4) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any tier 2 capital instrument if the Board-regulated institution has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any similar transaction that the Board determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376).
</P>
<P><I>Early amortization provision</I> means a provision in the documentation governing a securitization that, when triggered, causes investors in the securitization exposures to be repaid before the original stated maturity of the securitization exposures, unless the provision:
</P>
<P>(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating Board-regulated institution (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
</P>
<P><I>Effective notional amount</I> means for an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the lesser of the contractual notional amount of the credit risk mitigant and the exposure amount (or EAD for purposes of subpart E of this part) of the hedged exposure, multiplied by the percentage coverage of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facility</I> means a liquidity facility supporting ABCP, in form or in substance, that is subject to an asset quality test at the time of draw that precludes funding against assets that are 90 days or more past due or in default. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a liquidity facility is an eligible ABCP liquidity facility if the assets or exposures funded under the liquidity facility that do not meet the eligibility requirements are guaranteed by a sovereign that qualifies for a 20 percent risk weight or lower.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible clean-up call</I> means a clean-up call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating Board-regulated institution or servicer;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a synthetic securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative in the form of a credit default swap, n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, total return swap, or any other form of credit derivative approved by the Board, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the Board-regulated institution records net payments received on the swap as net income, the Board-regulated institution records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit reserves</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a Board-regulated institution that has not adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including the ALLL associated with such exposures, but excluding allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904 and other specific reserves created against recognized losses; and
</P>
<P>(2) For a Board-regulated institution that has adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings to cover expected credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including AACL associated with such exposures. Eligible credit reserves exclude allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, allowances that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities, and other specific reserves created against recognized losses.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantee</I> means a guarantee that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is written;
</P>
<P>(2) Is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Unconditional, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
</P>
<P>(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment;
</P>
<P>(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(9) Is not provided by an affiliate of the Board-regulated institution, unless the affiliate is an insured depository institution, foreign bank, securities broker or dealer, or insurance company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not control the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on depository institutions, U.S. securities broker-dealers, or U.S. insurance companies (as the case may be); and
</P>
<P>(10) For purposes of §§ 217.141 through 217.145 and subpart D of this part, is provided by an eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
</P>
<P>(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible margin loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral is marked-to-fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the Board-regulated institution the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This requirement is met where all transactions under the agreement are (i) executed under U.S. law and (ii) constitute “securities contracts” under section 555 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555), qualified financial contracts under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or netting contracts between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The Board expects to evaluate jointly with the OCC and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of subpart I of the Board's Regulation YY (part 252 of this chapter), part 47 of this title, or part 382 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution must comply with the requirements of § 217.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible servicer cash advance facility</I> means a servicer cash advance facility in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement of advances, except that a servicer may be obligated to make non-reimbursable advances for a particular underlying exposure if any such advance is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer's right to reimbursement is senior in right of payment to all other claims on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3) The servicer has no legal obligation to, and does not make advances to the securitization if the servicer concludes the advances are unlikely to be repaid.
</P>
<P><I>Employee stock ownership plan</I> has the same meaning as in 29 CFR 2550.407d-6.
</P>
<P><I>Equity derivative contract</I> means an equity-linked swap, purchased equity-linked option, forward equity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to equities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Equity exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the Board-regulated institution under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate derivative contract</I> means a cross-currency interest rate swap, forward foreign-exchange contract, currency option purchased, or any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded covered debt instrument</I> means an investment in a covered debt instrument held by a global systemically important BHC or a Board-regulated institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held in connection with market making-related activities permitted under 12 CFR 248.4, provided that a direct exposure or an indirect exposure to a covered debt instrument is held for 30 business days or less; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been designated as an excluded covered debt instrument by the global systemically important BHC or the subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.22(c)(5)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of the following positions: President, chief executive officer, executive chairman, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief investment officer, chief legal officer, chief lending officer, chief risk officer, or head of a major business line, and other staff that the board of directors of the Board-regulated institution deems to have equivalent responsibility.
</P>
<P><I>Expected credit loss (ECL)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor or segment of non-defaulted retail exposures that is carried at fair value with gains and losses flowing through earnings or that is classified as held-for-sale and is carried at the lower of cost or fair value with losses flowing through earnings, zero.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors or segments of non-defaulted retail exposures, the product of the probability of default (PD) times the loss given default (LGD) times the exposure at default (EAD) for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, the Board-regulated institution's impairment estimate for allowance purposes for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) Total ECL is the sum of expected credit losses for all wholesale and retail exposures other than exposures for which the Board-regulated institution has applied the double default treatment in § 217.135.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security, if the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 217.22(b)(2)); an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines the exposure amount under § 217.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For a security (that is not a securitization exposure, equity exposure, or preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP) classified as available-for-sale or held-to-maturity if the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 217.22(b)(2)), the Board-regulated institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) For available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP if the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 217.22(b)(2)), the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the Board-regulated institution's regulatory capital components.
</P>
<P>(4) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution calculates the exposure amount under § 217.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 217.33.
</P>
<P>(5) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount determined under § 217.34.
</P>
<P>(6) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 217.35.
</P>
<P>(7) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the bank calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 217.37, the exposure amount determined under § 217.37.
</P>
<P>(8) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 217.42.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4401).
</P>
<P><I>Fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account</I> means, for purposes of § 217.10(c)(2)(x), an account administered by a custodial banking organization for which the custodial banking organization provides fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping services, as authorized by applicable Federal or state law.
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) In the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash on deposit with the Board-regulated institution (including cash held for the Board-regulated institution by a third-party custodian or trustee);
</P>
<P>(ii) Gold bullion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which the Board-regulated institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof, (with the exception of cash on deposit; and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any priority security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP).
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company; savings and loan holding company; nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act; depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act; national association, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution; insurance company; securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act; broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act; futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) or (2) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Of which the Board-regulated institution owns:
</P>
<P>(A) An investment in GAAP equity instruments of the company with an adjusted carrying value or exposure amount equal to or greater than $10 million; or
</P>
<P>(B) More than 10 percent of the company's issued and outstanding common shares (or similar equity interest), and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is predominantly engaged in the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Lending money, securities or other financial instruments, including servicing loans;
</P>
<P>(B) Insuring, guaranteeing, indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, or death, or issuing annuities;
</P>
<P>(C) Underwriting, dealing in, making a market in, or investing as principal in securities or other financial instruments; or
</P>
<P>(D) Asset management activities (not including investment or financial advisory activities).
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this definition, a company is “predominantly engaged” in an activity or activities if:
</P>
<P>(i) 85 percent or more of the total consolidated annual gross revenues (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) of the company is either of the two most recent calendar years were derived, directly or indirectly, by the company on a consolidated basis from the activities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated total assets (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) as of the end of either of the two most recent calendar years were related to the activities.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other company that the Board may determine is a financial institution based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operation to those of the entities included in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this part, “financial institution” does not include the following entities:
</P>
<P>(i) GSEs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805;
</P>
<P>(iv) Entities registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Entities to the extent that the Board-regulated institution's investment in such entities would qualify as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>First-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure secured by a first lien.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means a foreign bank as defined in § 211.2 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2) (other than a depository institution).
</P>
<P><I>Forward agreement</I> means a legally binding contractual obligation to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date, not including commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Gain-on-sale</I> means an increase in the equity capital of a Board-regulated institution (as reported on [Schedule RC of the Call Report or Schedule HC of the FR Y-9C]) resulting from a traditional securitization (other than an increase in equity capital resulting from the Board-regulated institution's receipt of cash in connection with the securitization or reporting of a mortgage servicing asset on [Schedule RC of the Call Report or Schedule HC of the FRY-9C]).
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity (PSE).
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402.
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise</I> (GSE) means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>GSIB surcharge</I> means the capital surcharge applicable to a global systemically important BHC calculated pursuant to § 217.403.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or other similar financial instrument (other than a credit derivative) that allows one party (beneficiary) to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures (reference exposure) to another party (protection provider).
</P>
<P><I>High volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A credit facility secured by land or improved real property that, prior to being reclassified by the Board-regulated institution as a non-HVCRE exposure pursuant to paragraph (6) of this definition—
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily finances, has financed, or refinances the acquisition, development, or construction of real property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the purpose of providing financing to acquire, develop, or improve such real property into income-producing real property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is dependent upon future income or sales proceeds from, or refinancing of, such real property for the repayment of such credit facility.
</P>
<P>(2) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility financing—
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, development, or construction of properties that are—
</P>
<P>(A) One- to four-family residential properties. Credit facilities that do not finance the construction of one- to four-family residential structures, but instead solely finance improvements such as the laying of sewers, water pipes, and similar improvements to land, do not qualify for the one- to four-family residential properties exclusion;
</P>
<P>(B) Real property that would qualify as an investment in community development; or
</P>
<P>(C) Agricultural land;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or refinance of existing income-producing real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Improvements to existing income-producing improved real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial real property projects in which—
</P>
<P>(A) The loan-to-value ratio is less than or equal to the applicable maximum supervisory loan-to-value ratio as determined by the Board;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower has contributed capital of at least 15 percent of the real property's appraised, `as completed' value to the project in the form of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unencumbered readily marketable assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Paid development expenses out-of-pocket; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Contributed real property or improvements; and
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower contributed the minimum amount of capital described under paragraph (2)(iv)(B) of this definition before the Board-regulated institution advances funds (other than the advance of a nominal sum made in order to secure the Board-regulated institution's lien against the real property) under the credit facility, and such minimum amount of capital contributed by the borrower is contractually required to remain in the project until the HVCRE exposure has been reclassified by the Board-regulated institution as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An HVCRE exposure does not include any loan made prior to January 1, 2015;
</P>
<P>(4) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility reclassified as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(5) Value of contributed real property: For the purposes of this definition of HVCRE exposure, the value of any real property contributed by a borrower as a capital contribution is the appraised value of the property as determined under standards prescribed pursuant to section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3339), in connection with the extension of the credit facility or loan to such borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Reclassification as a non-HVCRE exposure: For purposes of this definition of HVCRE exposure and with respect to a credit facility and a Board-regulated institution, a Board-regulated institution may reclassify an HVCRE exposure as a non-HVCRE exposure upon—
</P>
<P>(i) The substantial completion of the development or construction of the real property being financed by the credit facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash flow being generated by the real property being sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this definition, a Board-regulated institution is not required to reclassify a credit facility that was originated on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to April 1, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Home country</I> means the country where an entity is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established.
</P>
<P><I>Independent collateral</I> means financial collateral, other than variation margin, that is subject to a collateral agreement, or in which a Board-regulated institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any prior security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP), and the amount of which does not change directly in response to the value of the derivative contract or contracts that the financial collateral secures.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect exposure</I> means an exposure that arises from the Board-regulated institution's investment in an investment fund which holds an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument or an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, indirect exposure also includes an investment in an investment fund that holds a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance bank holding company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance underwriting for credit risk).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance mid-tier holding company</I> means a bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company, domiciled in the United States that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(i) An insurance bank holding company to which subpart J of this part applies; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An insurance savings and loan holding company to which subpart J of this part applies; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not an insurance underwriting company that is subject to state law capital requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance savings and loan holding company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance underwriting for credit risk).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance underwriting company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381) that engages in insurance underwriting activities.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate derivative contract</I> means a single-currency interest rate swap, basis swap, forward rate agreement, purchased interest rate option, when-issued securities, or any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>International Lending Supervision Act</I> means the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Investing bank</I> means, with respect to a securitization, a Board-regulated institution that assumes the credit risk of a securitization exposure (other than an originating Board-regulated institution of the securitization). In the typical synthetic securitization, the investing Board-regulated institution sells credit protection on a pool of underlying exposures to the originating Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Investment fund</I> means a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all or substantially all of the assets of the company are financial assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) That has no material liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means that the entity to which the Board-regulated institution is exposed through a loan or security, or the reference entity with respect to a credit derivative, has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. Such an entity or reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in a covered debt instrument</I> means a Board-regulated institution's net long position calculated in accordance with § 217.22(h) in a covered debt instrument, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to the debt instrument, excluding any underwriting positions held by the Board-regulated institution for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 217.22(h) in an instrument that is recognized as capital for regulatory purposes by the primary supervisor of an unconsolidated regulated financial institution or is an instrument that is part of the GAAP equity of an unconsolidated unregulated financial institution, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to capital instruments, excluding underwriting positions held by the Board-regulated institution for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 217.22(h) in the Board-regulated institution's own common stock instrument, own additional tier 1 capital instrument or own tier 2 capital instrument, including direct, indirect, or synthetic exposures to such capital instruments. An investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument includes any contractual obligation to purchase such capital instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Junior-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure that is not a first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Main index</I> means the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the Board-regulated institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the equities represented in the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk Board-regulated institution</I> means a Board-regulated institution that is described in § 217.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Minimum transfer amount</I> means the smallest amount of variation margin that may be transferred between counterparties to a netting set pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Money market fund</I> means an investment fund that is subject to 17 CFR 270.2a-7 or any foreign equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets (MSAs)</I> means the contractual rights owned by a Board-regulated institution to service for a fee mortgage loans that are owned by others.
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank (MDB)</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the Board determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>National Bank Act</I> means the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 24).
</P>
<P><I>Net independent collateral amount</I> means the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 217.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a Board-regulated institution less the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 217.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the Board-regulated institution to the counterparty, excluding such amounts held in a bankruptcy remote manner or posted to a QCCP and held in conformance with the operational requirements in § 217.3.
</P>
<P><I>Netting set</I> means a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. For derivative contracts, netting set also includes a single derivative contract between a Board-regulated institution and a single counterparty. For purposes of the internal model methodology under § 217.132(d), netting set also includes a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement and does not include a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) That is not subject to such a master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Board-regulated institution has identified specific wrong-way risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-guaranteed separate account</I> means a separate account where the insurance company:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not contractually guarantee either a minimum return or account value to the contract holder; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not required to hold reserves (in the general account) pursuant to its contractual obligations to a policyholder.
</P>
<P><I>Non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution owns 10 percent or less of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>N</I>
<SU>th</SU><I>-to-default credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative that provides credit protection only for the n
<SU>th</SU>-defaulting reference exposure in a group of reference exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Operating entity</I> means a company established to conduct business with clients with the intention of earning a profit in its own right.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> with respect to an off-balance sheet commitment means the length of time between the date a commitment is issued and:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the Board-regulated institution can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
</P>
<P><I>Originating Board-regulated institution,</I> with respect to a securitization, means a Board-regulated institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly originated or securitized the underlying exposures included in the securitization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Serves as an ABCP program sponsor to the securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction. An OTC derivative includes a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Between a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member and a counterparty where the Board-regulated institution is acting as a financial intermediary and enters into a cleared transaction with a CCP that offsets the transaction with the counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member provides a CCP a guarantee on the performance of the counterparty to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Performance standby letter of credit (or performance bond)</I> means an irrevocable obligation of a Board-regulated institution to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) fails to perform on any contractual nonfinancial or commercial obligation. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things, subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P><I>Policy loan</I> means a loan by an insurance company to a policy holder pursuant to the provisions of an insurance contract that is secured by the cash surrender value or collateral assignment of the related policy or contract. A policy loan includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A cash loan, including a loan resulting from early payment benefits or accelerated payment benefits, on an insurance contract when the terms of contract specify that the payment is a policy loan secured by the policy; and
</P>
<P>(2) An automatic premium loan, which is a loan that is made in accordance with policy provisions which provide that delinquent premium payments are automatically paid from the cash value at the end of the established grace period for premium payments.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-sold construction loan</I> means any one-to-four family residential construction loan to a builder that meets the requirements of section 618(a)(1) or (2) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 1831n note) and the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, meaning that the Board-regulated institution has obtained sufficient documentation that the buyer of the home has a legally binding written sales contract and has a firm written commitment for permanent financing of the home upon completion;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser is an individual(s) that intends to occupy the residence and is not a partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or any other entity (including an entity acting as a sole proprietorship) that is purchasing one or more of the residences for speculative purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The purchaser has entered into a legally binding written sales contract for the residence;
</P>
<P>(4) The purchaser has not terminated the contract; however, if the purchaser terminates the sales contract, the Board must immediately apply a 100 percent risk weight to the loan and report the revised risk weight in the next quarterly Call Report, for a state member bank, or the FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable,
</P>
<P>(5) The purchaser has made a substantial earnest money deposit of no less than 3 percent of the sales price, which is subject to forfeiture if the purchaser terminates the sales contract; provided that, the earnest money deposit shall not be subject to forfeiture by reason of breach or termination of the sales contract on the part of the builder;
</P>
<P>(6) The earnest money deposit must be held in escrow by the Board-regulated institution or an independent party in a fiduciary capacity, and the escrow agreement must provide that in an event of default arising from the cancellation of the sales contract by the purchaser of the residence, the escrow funds shall be used to defray any cost incurred by the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(7) The builder must incur at least the first 10 percent of the direct costs of construction of the residence (that is, actual costs of the land, labor, and material) before any drawdown is made under the loan;
</P>
<P>(8) The loan may not exceed 80 percent of the sales price of the presold residence; and
</P>
<P>(9) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Protection amount (P)</I> means, with respect to an exposure hedged by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative, reduced to reflect any currency mismatch, maturity mismatch, or lack of restructuring coverage (as provided in §§ 217.36 or 217.134, as appropriate).
</P>
<P><I>Publicly-traded</I> means traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central bank</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) The central bank of any member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Sovereign exposures to the member country would receive a zero percent risk-weight under § 217.32; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sovereign debt of the member country is not in default or has not been in default during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central counterparty (QCCP)</I> means a central counterparty that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU) under Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that the central counterparty:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in sound financial condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is subject to supervision by the Board, the CFTC, or the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC), or, if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, is subject to effective oversight by a national supervisory authority in its home country; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Meets or exceeds the risk-management standards for central counterparties set forth in regulations established by the Board, the CFTC, or the SEC under Title VII or Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act; or if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, meets or exceeds similar risk-management standards established under the law of its home country that are consistent with international standards for central counterparty risk management as established by the relevant standard setting body of the Bank of International Settlements; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Provides the Board-regulated institution with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the Board-regulated institution is required to obtain under §§ 217.35(d)(3) and 217.133(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes available to the Board and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by the Board to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under §§ 217.35 and 217.133.
</P>
<P>(3) Exception. A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 217.3(f).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the Board-regulated institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The Board expects to evaluate jointly with the OCC and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of subpart I of the Board's Regulation YY (part 252 of this chapter), part 47 of this title, or part 382 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial institution</I> means a financial institution subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on the following U.S. financial institutions: Depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board, designated financial market utilities, securities broker-dealers, credit unions, or insurance companies.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated foreign subsidiary and regulated foreign affiliate</I> means a person described in section 171(a)(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5371(a)(6)) and any subsidiary of such a person other than a state-regulated insurer.
</P>
<P><I>Repo-style transaction</I> means a repurchase or reverse repurchase transaction, or a securities borrowing or securities lending transaction, including a transaction in which the Board-regulated institution acts as agent for a customer and indemnifies the customer against loss, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or a netting contract between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the Board-regulated institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The Board expects to evaluate jointly with the OCC and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of subpart I of the Board's Regulation YY (part 252 of this chapter), part 47 of this title, or part 382 of this title, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either overnight or unconditionally cancelable at any time by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Executed under an agreement that provides the Board-regulated institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of counterparty default; and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction for purposes of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution must comply with the requirements of § 217.3(e) of this part with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> means a securitization which has more than one underlying exposure and in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization;
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) An exposure to an asset-backed commercial paper program is not a resecuritization exposure if either:
</P>
<P>(i) The program-wide credit enhancement does not meet the definition of a resecuritization exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity sponsoring the program fully supports the commercial paper through the provision of liquidity so that the commercial paper holders effectively are exposed to the default risk of the sponsor instead of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, equity exposure, statutory multifamily mortgage, or presold construction loan):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) That is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With an original and outstanding amount of $1 million or less that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on residential property that is not one-to-four family; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating capital requirements under subpart E of this part, managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics and not on an individual-exposure basis.
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78).
</P>
<P><I>Securitization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization), or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization special purpose entity (securitization SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of holding underlying exposures of a securitization, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the underlying exposures held by the entity from the credit risk of the seller of the underlying exposures to the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Separate account</I> means a legally segregated pool of assets owned and held by an insurance company and maintained separately from the insurance company's general account assets for the benefit of an individual contract holder. To be a separate account:
</P>
<P>(1) The account must be legally recognized as a separate account under applicable law;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets in the account must be insulated from general liabilities of the insurance company under applicable law in the event of the insurance company's insolvency;
</P>
<P>(3) The insurance company must invest the funds within the account as directed by the contract holder in designated investment alternatives or in accordance with specific investment objectives or policies; and
</P>
<P>(4) All investment gains and losses, net of contract fees and assessments, must be passed through to the contract holder, provided that the contract may specify conditions under which there may be a minimum guarantee but must not include contract terms that limit the maximum investment return available to the policyholder.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance facility</I> means a facility under which the servicer of the underlying exposures of a securitization may advance cash to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments to investors in the securitization, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution owns more than 10 percent of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Act</I> means the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632).
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Investment Act</I> means the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign default</I> means noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal and interest timely and fully, arrearages, or restructuring.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
</P>
<P><I>Specific wrong-way risk</I> means wrong-way risk that arises when either:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty and issuer of the collateral supporting the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty and the reference asset of the transaction, are affiliates or are the same entity.
</P>
<P><I>Speculative grade</I> means the reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments in the near term, but is vulnerable to adverse economic conditions, such that should economic conditions deteriorate, the reference entity would present an elevated default risk.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized market risk-weighted assets</I> means the standardized measure for market risk calculated under § 217.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 217.31;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and default fund contributions as calculated under § 217.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 217.38;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 217.42;
</P>
<P>(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under §§ 217.52 and 217.53; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For a market risk Board-regulated institution only, standardized market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount of the Board-regulated institution's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, that is not included in tier 2 capital and any amount of “allocated transfer risk reserves.”
</P>
<P><I>State bank</I> means any bank incorporated by special law of any State, or organized under the general laws of any State, or of the United States, including a Morris Plan bank, or other incorporated banking institution engaged in a similar business.
</P>
<P><I>State member bank or member bank</I> means a state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>State-regulated insurer</I> means a person regulated by a state insurance regulator as defined in section 1002(22) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5481(22)), and any subsidiary of such a person, other than a regulated foreign subsidiary and regulated foreign affiliate.
</P>
<P><I>Statutory multifamily mortgage</I> means a loan secured by a multifamily residential property that meets the requirements under section 618(b)(1) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991, and that meets the following criteria: 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The types of loans that qualify as loans secured by multifamily residential properties are listed in the instructions for preparation of the Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards;
</P>
<P>(2) The principal amount of the loan at origination does not exceed 80 percent of the value of the property (or 75 percent of the value of the property if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) where the value of the property is the lower of the acquisition cost of the property or the appraised (or, if appropriate, evaluated) value of the property;
</P>
<P>(3) All principal and interest payments on the loan must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan, or in the case where an existing owner is refinancing a loan on the property, all principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan;
</P>
<P>(4) Amortization of principal and interest on the loan must occur over a period of not more than 30 years and the minimum original maturity for repayment of principal must not be less than 7 years;
</P>
<P>(5) Annual net operating income (before making any payment on the loan) generated by the property securing the loan during its most recent fiscal year must not be less than 120 percent of the loan's current annual debt service (or 115 percent of current annual debt service if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) or, in the case of a cooperative or other not-for-profit housing project, the property must generate sufficient cash flow to provide comparable protection to the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(6) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Sub-speculative grade</I> means the reference entity depends on favorable economic conditions to meet its financial commitments, such that should such economic conditions deteriorate the reference entity likely would default on its financial commitments.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company, a company controlled by that company.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic exposure</I> means an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument or to the value of an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, synthetic exposure includes an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual retail exposure);
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 minority interest</I> means the tier 1 capital of a consolidated subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution that is not owned by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> is defined in § 217.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital minority interest</I> means the total capital of a consolidated subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution that is not owned by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> is defined in § 217.10(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Traditional securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company defined in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24(Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The Board may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The Board may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in 12 CFR 208.34);
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a financial institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 217.22; or
</P>
<P>(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means all securitization exposures associated with a securitization that have the same seniority level.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means with respect to a commitment, that a Board-regulated institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Underlying exposures</I> means one or more exposures that have been securitized in a securitization transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Unregulated financial institution</I> means, for purposes of § 217.131, a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, including any financial institution that would meet the definition of “financial institution” under this section but for the ownership interest thresholds set forth in paragraph (4)(i) of that definition.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means the company that is required to be established or designated pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more exposures could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means financial collateral that is subject to a collateral agreement provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of the first party's obligations under one or more transactions between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such financial collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin agreement</I> means an agreement to collect or post variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 217.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a Board-regulated institution less the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 217.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the Board-regulated institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin threshold</I> means the amount of credit exposure of a Board-regulated institution to its counterparty that, if exceeded, would require the counterparty to post variation margin to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Volatility derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract in which the payoff of the derivative contract explicitly depends on a measure of the volatility of an underlying risk factor to the derivative contract.
</P>
<P><I>Wrong-way risk</I> means the risk that arises when an exposure to a particular counterparty is positively correlated with the probability of default of such counterparty itself.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 217.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.1.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.3   Operational requirements for counterparty credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subparts D and E of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleared transaction.</I> In order to recognize certain exposures as cleared transactions pursuant to paragraphs (1)(ii), (iii) or (iv) of the definition of “cleared transaction” in § 217.2, the exposures must meet the applicable requirements set forth in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the Board-regulated institution from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients. Omnibus accounts established under 17 CFR parts 190 and 300 satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible margin loan.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan as defined in § 217.2, a Board-regulated institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of eligible margin loan in § 217.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement as defined in § 217.101, a Board-regulated institution must obtain a written legal opinion verifying the validity and enforceability of the agreement under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions if the counterparty fails to perform upon an event of default, including upon receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 217.2, a Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 217.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repo-style transaction.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction as defined in § 217.2, a Board-regulated institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of repo-style transaction in § 217.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure of a QCCP to satisfy the rule's requirements.</I> If a Board-regulated institution determines that a CCP ceases to be a QCCP due to the failure of the CCP to satisfy one or more of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP in § 217.2, the Board-regulated institution may continue to treat the CCP as a QCCP for up to three months following the determination. If the CCP fails to remedy the relevant deficiency within three months after the initial determination, or the CCP fails to satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP continuously for a three-month period after remedying the relevant deficiency, a Board-regulated institution may not treat the CCP as a QCCP for the purposes of this part until after the Board-regulated institution has determined that the CCP has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP for three continuous months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.4-217.9" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.1.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.4-217.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Ratio Requirements and Buffers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.10" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.2.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.10   Minimum capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum capital requirements.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must maintain the following minimum capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A total capital ratio of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) A leverage ratio of 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) For advanced approaches Board-regulated institutions or, for Category III Board-regulated institutions, a supplementary leverage ratio of 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12), that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined § 217.12), is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standardized capital ratio calculations.</I> Other than as provided in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> A Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> A Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> A Board-regulated institution's total capital ratio is the ratio of the Board-regulated institution's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Leverage ratio.</I> A Board-regulated institution's leverage ratio is the ratio of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital to the Board-regulated institution's average total consolidated assets as reported on the Board-regulated institution's Call Report, for a state member bank, or the Consolidated Financial Statements for Bank Holding Companies (FR Y-9C), for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable minus amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 217.22(a), (c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplementary leverage ratio.</I> (1) A Category III Board-regulated institution or advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must determine its supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with this paragraph, beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the Board-regulated institution is identified as a Category III Board-regulated institution. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's or a Category III Board-regulated institution's supplementary leverage ratio is the ratio of its tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, the latter of which is calculated as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the on-balance sheet assets calculated as of each day of the reporting quarter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The mean of the off-balance sheet exposures calculated as of the last day of each of the most recent three months, minus the applicable deductions under § 217.22(a), (c), and (d).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, <I>total leverage exposure</I> means the sum of the items described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section for a clearing member Board-regulated institution and paragraph (c)(2)(x) of this section for a custodial banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) The balance sheet carrying value of all of the Board-regulated institution's on-balance sheet assets, <I>plus</I> the value of securities sold under a repurchase transaction or a securities lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP, <I>less</I> amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 217.22(a), (c), and (d), and <I>less</I> the value of securities received in security-for-security repo-style transactions, where the Board-regulated institution acts as a securities lender and includes the securities received in its on-balance sheet assets but has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received, and, for a Board-regulated institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 217.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, <I>less</I> the fair value of any derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For a Board-regulated institution that uses the current exposure methodology under § 217.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the potential future credit exposure (PFE) for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the Board-regulated institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), to which the Board-regulated institution is a counterparty as determined under § 217.34, but without regard to § 217.34(c), provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A Board-regulated institution may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 217.34, but without regard to § 217.34(c), provided that it does not adjust the net-to-gross ratio (NGR); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution that chooses to exclude the PFE of credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) of this section must do so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a Board-regulated institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under section § 217.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the PFE for each netting set to which the Board-regulated institution is a counterparty (including cleared transactions except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the Board-regulated institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), as determined under § 217.132(c)(7), in which the term C in § 217.132(c)(7)(i) equals zero, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>), a Board-regulated institution may set the value of the term C in § 217.132(c)(7)(i) equal to the amount of collateral posted by a clearing member client of the Board-regulated institution in connection with the client-facing derivative transactions within the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 217.132(c), provided that it does so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) For a Board-regulated institution that uses the current exposure methodology under § 217.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the amount of cash collateral that is received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has offset the mark-to-fair value of the derivative asset, or cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has reduced the Board-regulated institution's on-balance sheet assets, unless such cash collateral is all or part of variation margin that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The variation margin is used to reduce the current credit exposure of the derivative contract, calculated as described in § 217.34(b), and not the PFE; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For the purpose of the calculation of the NGR described in § 217.34(b)(2)(ii)(B), variation margin described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section may not reduce the net current credit exposure or the gross current credit exposure; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a Board-regulated institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 217.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the replacement cost of each derivative contract or single product netting set of derivative contracts to which the Board-regulated institution is a counterparty, calculated according to the following formula, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4:
</P>
<FP-1><I>Replacement Cost</I> = max{<I>V</I>−<I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> + <I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E>;0}
</FP-1>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P><I>V</I> equals the fair value for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the Board-regulated institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP);
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> equals the amount of cash collateral received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral received from the clearing member client; and
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E> equals the amount of cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has not offset the fair value of the derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral posted to the clearing member client;</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, where multiple netting sets are subject to a single variation margin agreement, a Board-regulated institution must apply the formula for replacement cost provided in § 217.132(c)(10)(i), in which the term C<E T="52">MA</E> may only include cash collateral that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>), a Board-regulated institution must treat a derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index if the Board-regulated institution elected to treat the derivative contract as multiple derivative contracts under § 217.132(c)(5)(vi);
</P>
<P>(C) For derivative contracts that are not cleared through a QCCP, the cash collateral received by the recipient counterparty is not segregated (by law, regulation, or an agreement with the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) Variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on the mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract;
</P>
<P>(E) The variation margin transferred under the derivative contract or the governing rules of the CCP or QCCP for a cleared transaction is the full amount that is necessary to fully extinguish the net current credit exposure to the counterparty of the derivative contracts, subject to the threshold and minimum transfer amounts applicable to the counterparty under the terms of the derivative contract or the governing rules for a cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(F) The variation margin is in the form of cash in the same currency as the currency of settlement set forth in the derivative contract, provided that for the purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(F), currency of settlement means any currency for settlement specified in the governing qualifying master netting agreement and the credit support annex to the qualifying master netting agreement, or in the governing rules for a cleared transaction; and
</P>
<P>(G) The derivative contract and the variation margin are governed by a qualifying master netting agreement between the legal entities that are the counterparties to the derivative contract or by the governing rules for a cleared transaction, and the qualifying master netting agreement or the governing rules for a cleared transaction must explicitly stipulate that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided under the contract if a credit event involving either counterparty occurs;
</P>
<P>(iv) The effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the derivative contract) of a credit derivative, or other similar instrument, through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the amount of any reduction in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative if the reduction is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative or other similar instrument, provided that the remaining maturity of the purchased credit derivative is equal to or greater than the remaining maturity of the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection and that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references a single exposure, the reference exposure of the purchased credit derivative is to the same legal entity and ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is junior to, the reference exposure of the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references multiple exposures, the reference exposures of the purchased credit derivative are to the same legal entities and rank <I>pari passu</I> with the reference exposures of the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection, and the level of seniority of the purchased credit derivative ranks <I>pari passu</I> to the level of seniority of the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where a Board-regulated institution has reduced the effective notional amount of a credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must also reduce the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative used to offset the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection, by the amount of any increase in the mark-to-fair value of the purchased credit derivative that is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Where the Board-regulated institution purchases credit protection through a total return swap and records the net payments received on a credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection in net income, but does not record offsetting deterioration in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection in net income (either through reductions in fair value or by additions to reserves), the Board-regulated institution may not use the purchased credit protection to offset the effective notional principal amount of the related credit derivative through which the Board-regulated institution provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(v) Where a Board-regulated institution acting as a principal has more than one repo-style transaction with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from a counterparty under reverse repurchase transactions by the gross value of payables under repurchase transactions due to the same counterparty, the gross value of receivables associated with the repo-style transactions <I>less</I> any on-balance sheet receivables amount associated with these repo-style transactions included under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, unless the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The offsetting transactions have the same explicit final settlement date under their governing agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) The right to offset the amount owed to the counterparty with the amount owed by the counterparty is legally enforceable in the normal course of business and in the event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under the governing agreements, the counterparties intend to settle net, settle simultaneously, or settle according to a process that is the functional equivalent of net settlement, (that is, the cash flows of the transactions are equivalent, in effect, to a single net amount on the settlement date), where both transactions are settled through the same settlement system, the settlement arrangements are supported by cash or intraday credit facilities intended to ensure that settlement of both transactions will occur by the end of the business day, and the settlement of the underlying securities does not interfere with the net cash settlement;
</P>
<P>(vi) The counterparty credit risk of a repo-style transaction, including where the Board-regulated institution acts as an agent for a repo-style transaction and indemnifies the customer with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty in an amount limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the transaction is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) for transactions with a counterparty must be calculated on a transaction by transaction basis, such that each transaction <I>i</I> is treated as its own netting set, in accordance with the following formula, where E<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or provided as collateral to the counterparty, and C<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or received as collateral from the counterparty:
</P>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">i</E>* = max {0, [E<E T="52">i</E> − C<E T="52">i</E>]}; and
</FP-1>
<P>(B) If the transaction is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) must be calculated as the greater of zero and the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase or provided as collateral to a counterparty for all transactions included in the qualifying master netting agreement (ΣE<E T="52">i</E>), <I>less</I> the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Board-regulated institution borrowed, purchased subject to resale or received as collateral from the counterparty for those transactions (ΣC<E T="52">i</E>), in accordance with the following formula:
</P>
<FP-1>E* = max {0, [ΣE<E T="52">i</E> − ΣC<E T="52">i</E>]}
</FP-1>
<P>(vii) If a Board-regulated institution acting as an agent for a repo-style transaction provides a guarantee to a customer of the security or cash its customer has lent or borrowed with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty and the guarantee is not limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, the amount of the guarantee that is greater than the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the value of the collateral the borrower has provided;
</P>
<P>(viii) The credit equivalent amount of all off-balance sheet exposures of the Board-regulated institution, excluding repo-style transactions, repurchase or reverse repurchase or securities borrowing or lending transactions that qualify for sales treatment under GAAP, and derivative transactions, determined using the applicable credit conversion factor under § 217.33(b), provided, however, that the minimum credit conversion factor that may be assigned to an off-balance sheet exposure under this paragraph is 10 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member:
</P>
<P>(A) A clearing member Board-regulated institution that guarantees the performance of a clearing member client with respect to a cleared transaction must treat its exposure to the clearing member client as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) A clearing member Board-regulated institution that guarantees the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client must treat its exposure to the CCP as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) A clearing member Board-regulated institution that does not guarantee the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client may exclude its exposure to the CCP for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) A Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member may exclude from its total leverage exposure the effective notional principal amount of credit protection sold through a credit derivative contract, or other similar instrument, that it clears on behalf of a clearing member client through a CCP as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(ix)(A) through (C) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may exclude from its total leverage exposure a clearing member's exposure to a clearing member client for a derivative contract, if the clearing member client and the clearing member are affiliates and consolidated for financial reporting purposes on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(x) A custodial banking organization shall exclude from its total leverage exposure the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of funds that the custodial banking organization has on deposit at a qualifying central bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds in deposit accounts at the custodial banking organization that are linked to fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping accounts at the custodial banking organization. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(x), a deposit account is linked to a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account if the deposit account is provided to a client that maintains a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account with the custodial banking organization, and the deposit account is used to facilitate the administration of the fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advanced approaches capital ratio calculations.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d) must determine its regulatory capital ratios as described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> The Board-regulated institution's total capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the Board-regulated institution's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets. A Board-regulated institution's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital is the Board-regulated institution's total capital after being adjusted as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct from its total capital any allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, included in its tier 2 capital in accordance with § 217.20(d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must add to its total capital any eligible credit reserves that exceed the Board-regulated institution's total expected credit losses to the extent that the excess reserve amount does not exceed 0.6 percent of the Board-regulated institution's credit risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, a Board-regulated institution must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the Board-regulated institution is exposed. The supervisory evaluation of the Board-regulated institution's capital adequacy is based on an individual assessment of numerous factors, including the character and condition of the institution's assets and its existing and prospective liabilities and other corporate responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insurance depository institution holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An insurance bank holding company that is a state-regulated insurer, or an insurance savings and loan holding company that is a state-regulated insurer, is not required to meet the minimum capital ratio requirements in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section if the company is subject to subpart J of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that is an insurance bank holding company, insurance savings and loan holding company, or insurance mid-tier holding company is not required to meet the minimum capital ratio requirements in paragraphs (a)(1)(iv) and (v) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62286, Oct. 11, 2013; 79 FR 57744, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41419, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35259, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59271, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4416, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 4578, Jan. 27, 2020; 85 FR 57961, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 732, Jan. 6, 2021; 88 FR 82969, Nov. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.11" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.2.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.11   Capital conservation buffer, countercyclical capital buffer amount, and GSIB surcharge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of a Board-regulated institution is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C or Call Report, as applicable, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the Board-regulated institution's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C or Call Report, as applicable, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum payout amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's maximum payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the Board-regulated institution's eligible retained income, multiplied by its maximum payout ratio.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a Board-regulated institution can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. For a Board-regulated institution that is not subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 and that is not a state member bank subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, the maximum payout ratio is determined by the Board-regulated institution's capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in table 1 to paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section. For a Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170, the maximum payout ratio is determined under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. For a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, the maximum payout ratio is determined under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Private sector credit exposure.</I> Private sector credit exposure means an exposure to a company or an individual that is not an exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, the International Monetary Fund, a MDB, a PSE, or a GSE.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Leverage buffer requirement.</I> (A) A global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement is 50 percent of the most recent method 1 surcharge (expressed as a percentage) that the Board-regulated institution was required to calculate pursuant to § 217.403(b), subject to the effective date provisions of § 217.403(d).
</P>
<P>(B) The leverage buffer requirement of a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC is equal to the lesser of 1.0 percent or 50 percent of the most recent method 1 surcharge (expressed as a percentage) that the global systemically important BHC that controls the state member bank was required to calculate pursuant to § 217.403(b), subject to the effective date provisions of § 217.403(d).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Stress capital buffer requirement.</I> (A) The stress capital buffer requirement for a Board-regulated institution subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 is the stress capital buffer requirement determined under 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If a Board-regulated institution subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 has not yet received a stress capital buffer requirement, its stress capital buffer requirement for purposes of this part is 2.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of capital conservation buffer.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is not subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 has a capital conservation buffer equal to the lowest of the following ratios, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10;
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital ratio minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10; and
</P>
<P>(C) The Board-regulated institution's total capital ratio minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A) through (C) of this section, if a Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio is less than or equal to the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10, respectively, the Board-regulated institution's capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is not subject 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed its maximum payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is not subject 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 and that has a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of its applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section is not subject to a maximum payout amount under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that is not subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the Board-regulated institution's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior approval—notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a Board-regulated institution that is not subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the Board-regulated institution, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the Board-regulated institution. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.11(<E T="01">a</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iv</E>)—Calculation of Maximum Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the Board-regulated institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Other limitations on distributions.</I> Additional limitations on distributions may apply under 12 CFR 225.4 and 263.202 to a Board-regulated institution that is not subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Category III Board-regulated institution must calculate a countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with this paragraph (b) for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under table 1 to § 217.11(a)(4)(iv) and, if applicable, table 2 to § 217.11(c)(4)(iii) or table 3 to § 217.11(f).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of capital conservation buffer.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount is an extension of the capital conservation buffer as described in paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Category III Board-regulated institution has a countercyclical capital buffer amount determined by calculating the weighted average of the countercyclical capital buffer amounts established for the national jurisdictions where the Board-regulated institution's private sector credit exposures are located, as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Weighting.</I> The weight assigned to a jurisdiction's countercyclical capital buffer amount is calculated by dividing the total risk-weighted assets for the Board-regulated institution's private sector credit exposures located in the jurisdiction by the total risk-weighted assets for all of the Board-regulated institution's private sector credit exposures. The methodology a Board-regulated institution uses for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of this paragraph (b) must be the methodology that determines its risk-based capital ratios under § 217.10. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the risk-weighted asset amount for a private sector credit exposure that is a covered position under subpart F of this part is its specific risk add-on as determined under § 217.210 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Location.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(B) and (C) of this section, the location of a private sector credit exposure is the national jurisdiction where the borrower is located (that is, where it is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established or, if the borrower is an individual, where the borrower resides).
</P>
<P>(B) If, in accordance with subpart D or E of this part, the Board-regulated institution has assigned to a private sector credit exposure a risk weight associated with a protection provider on a guarantee or credit derivative, the location of the exposure is the national jurisdiction where the protection provider is located.
</P>
<P>(C) The location of a securitization exposure is the location of the underlying exposures, or, if the underlying exposures are located in more than one national jurisdiction, the national jurisdiction where the underlying exposures with the largest aggregate unpaid principal balance are located. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the location of an underlying exposure shall be the location of the borrower, determined consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States</I>—(i) <I>Initial countercyclical capital buffer amount with respect to credit exposures in the United States.</I> The initial countercyclical capital buffer amount in the United States is zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustment of the countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The Board will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States in accordance with applicable law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Board expects that any adjustment will be based on a determination made jointly by the Board, OCC, and FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Range of countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The Board will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States between zero percent and 2.5 percent of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adjustment determination.</I> The Board will base its decision to adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount under this section on a range of macroeconomic, financial, and supervisory information indicating an increase in systemic risk including, but not limited to, the ratio of credit to gross domestic product, a variety of asset prices, other factors indicative of relative credit and liquidity expansion or contraction, funding spreads, credit condition surveys, indices based on credit default swap spreads, options implied volatility, and measures of systemic risk.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Effective date of adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(A) <I>Increase adjustment.</I> A determination by the Board under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to increase the countercyclical capital buffer amount will be effective 12 months from the date of announcement, unless the Board establishes an earlier effective date and includes a statement articulating the reasons for the earlier effective date.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Decrease adjustment.</I> A determination by the Board to decrease the established countercyclical capital buffer amount under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section will be effective on the day following announcement of the final determination or the earliest date permissible under applicable law or regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Twelve month sunset.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount will return to zero percent 12 months after the effective date that the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount is announced, unless the Board announces a decision to maintain the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount or adjust it again before the expiration of the 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for foreign jurisdictions.</I> The Board will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for private sector credit exposures to reflect decisions made by foreign jurisdictions consistent with due process requirements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of buffers for Board-regulated institutions subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170</I>—(1) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed its maximum payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio of a Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 is the lowest of the payout ratios determined by its standardized approach capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter; if applicable, advanced approaches capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter; and, if applicable, leverage buffer, as set forth in table 2 to § 217.11(c)(4)(iii), calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Capital conservation buffer requirements.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 has:
</P>
<P>(A) A standardized approach capital conservation buffer requirement equal to its stress capital buffer requirement plus its applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section plus its applicable GSIB surcharge in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the Board-regulated institution calculates risk-weighted assets under subpart E of this part, an advanced approaches capital conservation buffer requirement equal to 2.5 percent plus the Board-regulated institution's countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section plus its applicable GSIB surcharge in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>No maximum payout amount limitation.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 is not subject to a maximum payout amount under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section if it has:
</P>
<P>(A) A standardized approach capital conservation buffer, calculated under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, that is greater than its standardized approach capital conservation buffer requirement calculated under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) If applicable, an advanced approaches capital conservation buffer, calculated under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, that is greater than the Board-regulated institution's advanced approaches capital conservation buffer requirement calculated under paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, a leverage buffer, calculated under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, that is greater than its leverage buffer requirement as calculated under paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Negative eligible retained income.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(vi) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if, as of the end of the previous calendar quarter, the Board-regulated institution's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Standardized approach capital conservation buffer was less than its stress capital buffer requirement; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If applicable, advanced approaches capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If applicable, leverage buffer was less than its leverage buffer requirement.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prior approval.</I> Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, the Board may permit a Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the Board-regulated institution, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the Board-regulated institution. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Other limitations on distributions.</I> Additional limitations on distributions may apply under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, 238.170, 252.63, 252.165, and 263.202 to a Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standardized approach capital conservation buffer.</I> (i) The standardized approach capital conservation buffer for Board-regulated institutions subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is subject to 12 CFR 225.8 or 238.170 has a standardized approach capital conservation buffer that is equal to the lowest of the following ratios, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(b)(1) or (d)(1)(i), as applicable, minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(d)(2)(ii) minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a); and
</P>
<P>(C) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(d)(3)(ii) minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, if any of the ratios calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(b)(1), (2), or (3), or if applicable § 217.10(c)(1)(i), (c)(2)(i), or (c)(3)(i) is less than or equal to the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, or total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a), respectively, the Board-regulated institution's capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advanced approaches capital conservation buffer.</I> (i) The advanced approaches capital conservation buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that calculates risk-weighted assets under subpart E has an advanced approaches capital conservation buffer that is equal to the lowest of the following ratios, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(c)(1)(ii) minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a);
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(c)(2)(ii) minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a); and
</P>
<P>(C) The ratio calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(c)(3)(ii) minus the Board-regulated institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, if any of the ratios calculated by the Board-regulated institution under § 217.10(c)(1)(ii), (c)(2)(ii), or (c)(3)(ii) is less than or equal to the Board-regulated institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, or total capital ratio requirement under § 217.10(a), respectively, the Board-regulated institution's advanced approaches capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Leverage buffer.</I> (i) The leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) A global systemically important BHC has a leverage buffer that is equal to the global systemically important BHC's supplementary leverage ratio minus 3 percent, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, if the global systemically important BHC's supplementary leverage ratio is less than or equal to 3 percent, the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.11(<E T="01">c</E>)(4)(<E T="01">iii</E>)—Calculation of Maximum Payout Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital buffer 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 100 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the bank holding company's buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 25 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the Board-regulated institution's buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> A Board-regulated institution's “capital buffer” means each of, as applicable, its standardized approach capital conservation buffer, advanced approaches capital conservation buffer, and leverage buffer.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> A Board-regulated institution's “buffer requirement” means each of, as applicable, its standardized approach capital conservation buffer requirement, advanced approaches capital conservation buffer requirement, and leverage buffer requirement.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>GSIB surcharge.</I> A global systemically important BHC must use its GSIB surcharge calculated in accordance with subpart H of this part for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under Table 2 to § 217.11(c)(4)(iii). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insurance depository institution holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution that is an insurance bank holding company that is subject to subpart J of this part calculates its capital conservation buffer in accordance with § 217.604;
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that is an insurance savings and loan holding company that is subject to subpart J of this part calculates its capital conservation buffer in accordance with § 217.604; and
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution that is an insurance mid-tier holding company is not subject to the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Leverage buffer for a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC</I>—(1) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio of a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC is the lowest of the payout ratios determined by its capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in table 1 to § 217.11(a)(4)(iv), and leverage buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in table 3 to § 217.11(f).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the Board regulated institution's leverage buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, is less than its leverage buffer requirement as calculated under paragraph (a)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Leverage buffer.</I> (i) The leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC has a leverage buffer that is equal to the state member bank's supplementary leverage ratio minus 3 percent, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section, if the state member bank's supplementary leverage ratio is less than or equal to 3 percent, the state member bank's leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.11(<E T="01">f</E>)—Calculation of Maximum Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Leverage buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 100 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 25 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the state member bank's leverage buffer requirement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 15596, Mar. 18, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 3762, Jan. 15, 2021; 86 FR 7938, Feb. 3, 2021; 86 FR 9261, Feb. 12, 2021; 88 FR 82969, Nov. 27, 2023; 90 FR 55289, Dec. 1, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.12" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.2.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.12   Community bank leverage ratio framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community bank leverage ratio framework.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, a qualifying community banking organization that has made an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 217.10, the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 208.43(b)(1) of this chapter, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject, if it has a leverage ratio greater than 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a qualifying community banking organization means a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution and that satisfies all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a leverage ratio of greater than 8 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has total consolidated assets of less than $10 billion, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report or to Form FR Y-9C, as applicable, as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has off-balance sheet exposures of 25 percent or less of its total consolidated assets as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter, calculated as the sum of the notional amounts of the exposures listed in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (I) of this section, divided by total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The unused portion of commitments (except for unconditionally cancellable commitments);
</P>
<P>(B) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods;
</P>
<P>(C) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(D) Sold credit protection through guarantees and credit derivatives;
</P>
<P>(E) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties;
</P>
<P>(F) Securities lent and borrowed, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report or to Form FR Y-9C, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(G) Financial standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(H) Forward agreements that are not derivative contracts; and
</P>
<P>(I) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has total trading assets and trading liabilities, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report or to Form FR Y-9C, as applicable, of 5 percent or less of the Board-regulated institution's total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A qualifying community banking organization may elect to use the community bank leverage ratio framework if it makes an opt-in election under this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a qualifying community banking organization makes an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable reporting requirements of its Call Report or of its Form FR Y-9C, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) A qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework may opt out of the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable risk-based and leverage ratio reporting requirements necessary to demonstrate compliance with § 217.10(a)(1) in its Call Report or its Form FR Y-9C, as applicable, or by otherwise providing the information to the Board.
</P>
<P>(B) A qualifying community banking organization that opts out of the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section must comply with § 217.10(a)(1) immediately.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the leverage ratio.</I> A qualifying community banking organization's leverage ratio is calculated in accordance with § 217.10(b)(4), except that a qualifying community banking organization is not required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make adjustments and deductions from tier 2 capital for purposes of § 217.22(c); or
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate and deduct from tier 1 capital an amount resulting from insufficient tier 2 capital under § 217.22(f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment when ceasing to meet the qualifying community banking organization requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(5) through (7) of this section, if a Board-regulated institution ceases to meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization, the Board-regulated institution has a period of four reporting periods under its Call Report or Form FR Y-9C, as applicable, (grace period) either to satisfy the requirements to be a qualifying community banking organization or to comply with § 217.10(a)(1) and report the required capital measures under § 217.10(a)(1) on its Call Report or its Form FR Y-9C, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The grace period begins as of the end of the calendar quarter in which the Board-regulated institution ceases to satisfy the criteria to be a qualifying community banking organization provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The grace period ends on the last day of the fourth consecutive calendar quarter following the beginning of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(3) During the grace period, the Board-regulated institution continues to be treated as a qualifying community banking organization for the purpose of this part and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section unless the Board-regulated institution has opted out of using the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) During the grace period, the qualifying community banking organization continues to be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 217.10(a)(1), the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 208.43(b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this chapter, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject, and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that no longer meets the definition of a qualifying community banking organization as a result of a merger or acquisition has no grace period and immediately ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization. Such a Board-regulated institution must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 217.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 217.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that has a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less does not have a grace period and must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 217.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 217.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it reports a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that has spent eight or more of the previous twenty quarters within the grace period may not use the grace period in the current quarter. If the Board-regulated institution does not meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization in the current quarter, the Board-regulated institution must immediately comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 217.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 217.10(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 84 FR 61797, Nov. 13, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 77361, Dec. 2, 2020; 91 FR 22988, Apr. 29, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.13-217.19" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.2.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.13-217.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definition of Capital</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.20" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.3.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.20   Capital components and eligibility criteria for regulatory capital instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital components.</I> A Board-regulated institution's regulatory capital components are:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Additional tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital.</I> Common equity tier 1 capital is the sum of the common equity tier 1 capital elements in this paragraph (b), minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 217.22. The common equity tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any common stock instruments (plus any related surplus) issued by the Board-regulated institution, net of treasury stock, and any capital instruments issued by mutual banking organizations, that meet all the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the Board-regulated institution, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the Board-regulated institution that is proportional with the holder's share of the Board-regulated institution's issued capital after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can only be redeemed via discretionary repurchases with the prior approval of the Board to the extent otherwise required by law or regulation, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board-regulated institution did not create at issuance of the instrument through any action or communication an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation;
</P>
<P>(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the Board-regulated institution's net income, retained earnings, or surplus related to common stock, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument. State member banks are subject to other legal restrictions on reductions in capital resulting from cash dividends, including out of the capital surplus account, under 12 U.S.C. 324 and 12 CFR 208.5.
</P>
<P>(vi) The Board-regulated institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends and making any other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dividend payments and any other distributions on the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the Board-regulated institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur equally, proportionately, and simultaneously with the holders of all other common stock instruments before any losses are borne by holders of claims on the Board-regulated institution with greater priority in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ix) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(x) The Board-regulated institution, or an entity that the Board-regulated institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Board-regulated institution or of an affiliate of the Board-regulated institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument has been issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) The instrument is reported on the Board-regulated institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) Retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(3) Accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI) as reported under GAAP.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> § 217.22 for specific adjustments related to AOCI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Any common equity tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 217.21.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding the criteria for common stock instruments referenced above, a Board-regulated institution's common stock issued and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(iii), paragraph (b)(1)(iv) or paragraph (b)(1)(xi) of this section, provided that any repurchase of the stock is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of a Board-regulated institution that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by a Board-regulated institution to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criterion in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional tier 1 capital.</I> Additional tier 1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and any related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 217.22. Additional tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus any related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors, general creditors, and subordinated debt holders of the Board-regulated institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Board-regulated institution or of an affiliate of the Board-regulated institution, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem; and
</P>
<P>(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the Board-regulated institution only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in additional tier 1 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution must receive prior approval from the Board to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the Board-regulated institution must either: Replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c); 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that following redemption, the Board-regulated institution will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing additional tier 1 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from the Board.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Board-regulated institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the Board-regulated institution except in relation to any distributions to holders of common stock or instruments that are pari passu with the instrument.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any distributions on the instrument are paid out of the Board-regulated institution's net income, retained earnings, or surplus related to other additional tier 1 capital instruments. State member banks are subject to other legal restrictions on reductions in capital resulting from cash dividends, including out of the capital surplus account, under 12 U.S.C. 324 and 12 CFR 208.5.
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Board-regulated institution's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Board-regulated institution's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(xi) The Board-regulated institution, or an entity that the Board-regulated institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the Board-regulated institution, such as provisions that require the Board-regulated institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified time frame.
</P>
<P>(xiii) If the instrument is not issued directly by the Board-regulated institution or by a subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the Board-regulated institution, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the Board-regulated institution or to the Board-regulated institution's top-tier holding company in a form which meets or exceeds all of the other criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>De minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity can be disregarded for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(xiv) For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date upon which the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this part as set forth in § 217.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the Board-regulated institution enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 217.21, that is not included in the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any and all instruments that qualified as tier 1 capital under the Board's general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 208, appendix A or 12 CFR part 225, appendix A, as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any preferred stock instrument issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments referenced above:
</P>
<P>(i) An instrument issued by a Board-regulated institution and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that any repurchase is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of a Board-regulated institution that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by a Board-regulated institution to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(v) or paragraph (c)(1)(xi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this § 217.20(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tier 2 Capital.</I> Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus, minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 217.22. Tier 2 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors and general creditors of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Board-regulated institution or of an affiliate of the Board-regulated institution, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least five years. At the beginning of each of the last five years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than one year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the Board-regulated institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the Board-regulated institution only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution must receive the prior approval of the Board to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the Board-regulated institution must either: Replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that following redemption, the Board-regulated institution would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> A Board-regulated institution may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the state member bank or depository institution holding company, as applicable, or of a major subsidiary depository institution of the depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Board-regulated institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Board-regulated institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(viii) The Board-regulated institution, or an entity that the Board-regulated institution controls, has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the instrument is not issued directly by the Board-regulated institution or by a subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the Board-regulated institution, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the Board-regulated institution or the Board-regulated institution's top-tier holding company in a form that meets or exceeds all the other criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under this section.
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> A Board-regulated institution may disregard <I>de minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase requires the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(xi) For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date on which the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this part under § 217.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the Board-regulated institution enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Total capital minority interest, subject to the limitations set forth in § 217.21, that is not included in the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3) ALLL or AACL, as applicable, up to 1.25 percent of the Board-regulated institution's standardized total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the ALLL or AACL, as applicable (and excluding in the case of a market risk Board-regulated institution, its standardized market risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Any instrument that qualified as tier 2 capital under the Board's general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 208, appendix A, 12 CFR part 225, appendix A as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010,
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any debt instrument issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) For a Board-regulated institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of § 217.22), 45 percent of pretax net unrealized gains on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments referenced above, an instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a Board-regulated institution's tier 1 or tier 2 capital prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board approval of a capital element.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must receive Board prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element:
</P>
<P>(i) Was included in a Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital prior to May 19, 2010 in accordance with the Board's risk-based capital rules that were effective as of that date and the underlying instrument may continue to be included under the criteria set forth in this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element the Board determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When considering whether a Board-regulated institution may include a regulatory capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the Federal Reserve Board will consult with the FDIC and OCC.
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in a Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the Board will make its decision publicly available, including a brief description of the material terms of the regulatory capital element and the rationale for the determination.
</P>
<P>(f) A Board-regulated institution may not repurchase or redeem any common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital instrument without the prior approval of the Board to the extent such prior approval is required by paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62286, Oct. 11, 2013; 78 FR 76973, Dec. 20, 2013; 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014; 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35260, July 22, 2019; 86 FR 15080, Mar. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.21" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.3.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.21   Minority interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 217.20, a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (a) if a consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the Board-regulated institution.</I> The amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest that a Board-regulated institution may include in common equity tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all common equity tier 1 capital elements of the Board-regulated institution (not including the common equity tier 1 minority interest itself), less any common equity tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 217.22 (a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the Board-regulated institution.</I> The amount of tier 1 minority interest that a Board-regulated institution may include in tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all tier 1 capital elements of the Board-regulated institution (not including the tier 1 minority interest itself), less any tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 217.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the Board-regulated institution.</I> The amount of total capital minority interest that a Board-regulated institution may include in total capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all total capital elements of the Board-regulated institution (not including the total capital minority interest itself), less any total capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 217.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 217.20, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (b) if:
</P>
<P>(i) A consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each relevant regulatory capital ratio of the consolidated subsidiary, the ratio exceeds the sum of the subsidiary's minimum regulatory capital requirements plus its capital conservation buffer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Difference in capital adequacy standards at the subsidiary level.</I> For purposes of the minority interest calculations in this section, if the consolidated subsidiary issuing the capital is not subject to capital adequacy standards similar to those of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must assume that the capital adequacy standards of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution apply to the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the Board-regulated institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include in common equity tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The common equity tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's common equity tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, multiplied by the difference between the common equity tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of common equity tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The common equity tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the amount of tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include in tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution multiplied by the difference between the tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the Board-regulated institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the amount of total capital minority interest the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include in total capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total capital minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's total capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution multiplied by the difference between the total capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of total capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 84 FR 35260, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.22" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.3.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.22   Regulatory capital adjustments and deductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital deductions from common equity tier 1 capital.</I> A Board-regulated institution must deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements the items set forth in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(1) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, including goodwill that is embedded in the valuation of a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock (and that is reflected in the consolidated financial statements of the Board-regulated institution), in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets, other than MSAs, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, held by a depository institution holding company. With the prior approval of the Board, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the depository institution holding company has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in that fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an insured depository institution, no deduction is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must risk weight any portion of the defined benefit pension fund asset that is not deducted under paragraphs (a)(5)(i) or (a)(5)(ii) of this section as if the Board-regulated institution directly holds a proportional ownership share of each exposure in the defined benefit pension fund.
</P>
<P>(6) For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d), the amount of expected credit loss that exceeds its eligible credit reserves; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial subsidiaries.</I> (i) A state member bank must deduct the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in its financial subsidiaries (as defined in 12 CFR 208.77) and may not consolidate the assets and liabilities of a financial subsidiary with those of the state member bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) No other deduction is required under § 217.22(c) for investments in the capital instruments of financial subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must adjust the sum of common equity tier 1 capital elements pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Such adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital must be made net of the associated deferred tax effects.
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must make the adjustments required under § 217.22(b)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, and a Board-regulated institution that has not made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must deduct any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges included in AOCI that relate to the hedging of items that are not recognized at fair value on the balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must deduct any net gain and add any net loss related to changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in the Board-regulated institution's own credit risk. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct the difference between its credit spread premium and the risk-free rate for derivatives that are liabilities as part of this adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>AOCI opt-out election.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may make a one-time election to opt out of the requirement to include all components of AOCI (with the exception of accumulated net gains and losses on cash flow hedges related to items that are not fair-valued on the balance sheet) in common equity tier 1 capital (AOCI opt-out election). A Board-regulated institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2) must adjust common equity tier 1 capital as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale securities;
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(C) Subtract any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges;
</P>
<P>(D) Subtract any amounts recorded in AOCI attributed to defined benefit postretirement plans resulting from the initial and subsequent application of the relevant GAAP standards that pertain to such plans (excluding, at the Board-regulated institution's option, the portion relating to pension assets deducted under paragraph (a)(5) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(E) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on held-to-maturity securities that are included in AOCI.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must make its AOCI opt-out election in the Call Report, for a state member bank, FR Y-9C, for bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies:
</P>
<P>(A) If the Board-regulated institution is a Category III Board-regulated institution or Category IV Board-regulated institution, during the first reporting period after the Board-regulated institution meets the definition of a Category III Board-regulated institution or Category IV Board-regulated institution in § 217.2; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the A Board-regulated institution is not a Category III Board-regulated institution and not a Category IV Board-regulated institution, during the first reporting period after the Board-regulated institution is required to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 217.1(f).
</P>
<P>(iii) Each depository institution subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must elect the same option as the Board-regulated institution pursuant to paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(iv) With prior notice to the Board, a Board-regulated institution resulting from a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction may make a new AOCI opt-out election in the Call Report (for a state member bank), or FR Y-9C or FR Y-9SP, as applicable (for bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies) filed by the resulting Board-regulated institution for the first reporting period after it is required to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 217.1(f) if:
</P>
<P>(A) Other than as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction involved the acquisition or purchase of all or substantially all of either the assets or voting stock of another banking organization that is subject to regulatory capital requirements issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> These rules include the regulatory capital requirements set forth at 12 CFR part 3 (OCC); 12 CFR part 225 (Board); 12 CFR part 325, and 12 CFR part 390 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Prior to the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, only one of the banking organizations involved in the transaction made an AOCI opt-out election under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution may, with the prior approval of the Board, change its AOCI opt-out election under this paragraph (b) in the case of a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction that meets the requirements set forth at paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, but does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A). In making such a determination, the Board may consider the terms of the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, as well as the extent of any changes to the risk profile, complexity, and scope of operations of the Board-regulated institution resulting from the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory capital requirement for insurance underwriting risks.</I> A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must deduct an amount equal to the regulatory capital requirement for insurance underwriting risks established by the regulator of any insurance underwriting activities of the company. The bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must take the deduction 50 percent from tier 1 capital and 50 percent from tier 2 capital. If the amount deductible from tier 2 capital exceeds the Board-regulated institution's tier 2 capital, the Board-regulated institution must deduct the excess from tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions from regulatory capital related to investments in capital instruments or covered debt instruments</I> 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>—(1) <I>Investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital or covered debt instruments.</I> A Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instruments, and an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution also must deduct an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own covered debt instruments, as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> The Board-regulated institution must calculate amounts deducted under paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section after it calculates the amount of ALLL or AACL, as applicable, includable in tier 2 capital under § 217.20(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own common stock instruments from its common equity tier 1 capital elements to the extent such instruments are not excluded from regulatory capital under § 217.20(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own additional tier 1 capital instruments from its additional tier 1 capital elements;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own tier 2 capital instruments from its tier 2 capital elements; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the institution's own covered debt instruments from its tier 2 capital elements, as applicable. If the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution does not have a sufficient amount of tier 2 capital to effect this deduction, the institution must deduct the shortfall amount from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corresponding deduction approach.</I> For purposes of subpart C of this part, the corresponding deduction approach is the methodology used for the deductions from regulatory capital related to reciprocal cross holdings (as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section), investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution (as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section), non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution (as described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section), and non-common stock significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution (as described in paragraph (c)(6) of this section). Under the corresponding deduction approach, a Board-regulated institution must make deductions from the component of capital for which the underlying instrument would qualify if it were issued by the Board-regulated institution itself, as described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. If the Board-regulated institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction, the shortfall must be deducted according to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, the Board-regulated institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock or represents the most subordinated claim in a liquidation of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution and is senior in liquidation only to common shareholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a regulated financial institution and the instrument does not meet the criteria for common equity tier 1, additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments under § 217.20, the Board-regulated institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock included in GAAP equity or represents the most subordinated claim in liquidation of the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is included in GAAP equity, subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution, and senior in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding only to common shareholders;
</P>
<P>(C) A tier 2 capital instrument if it is not included in GAAP equity but considered regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(D) For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, a tier 2 capital instrument if it is a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an investment is in the form of a non-qualifying capital instrument (as defined in § 217.300(c)), the Board-regulated institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 1 capital prior to May 19, 2010; or
</P>
<P>(B) A tier 2 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 2 capital (but not includable in tier 1 capital) prior to May 19, 2010.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reciprocal cross holdings in the capital of financial institutions.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in the capital of other financial institutions that it holds reciprocally, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct an investment in any covered debt instrument that the institution holds reciprocally with another financial institution, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital or covered debt instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct its investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 217.2) that exceed 25 percent of the sum of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution pursuant to this paragraph (c) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> With the prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> Any investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions that do not exceed the 25 percent threshold for investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subparts D or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) <I>Non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> (i) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct its non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 217.2) that, in the aggregate and together with any investment in a covered debt instrument (as defined in § 217.2) issued by a financial institution in which the Board-regulated institution does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institution (as defined in § 217.2), exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments) by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this paragraph are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, is not required to deduct from capital a non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(5) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> For any calculation under this paragraph (c)(5)(i), an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may exclude the amount of an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraph (c)(5)(iii) or (iv) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> With the prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct a non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> Any non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or any investment in a covered debt instrument that is not required to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(5) or otherwise under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subparts D, E, or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, the amount to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(5) from a specific capital component is equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution and, if applicable, any investments in a covered debt instrument subject to deduction under this paragraph (c)(5), exceeding the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments, multiplied by
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution (in the form of such capital component) to the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's total non-significant investments in unconsolidated financial institutions, with an investment in a covered debt instrument being treated as tier 2 capital for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that is not a global systemically important BHC or a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, may exclude from the deduction the amount of the Board-regulated institution's gross long position, in accordance with § 217.22(h)(2), in investments in covered debt instruments issued by financial institutions in which the Board-regulated institution does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institutions up to an amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A global systemically important BHC or a Board-regulated institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC may designate any investment in a covered debt instrument as an excluded covered debt instrument, as defined in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(B) A global systemically important BHC or a Board-regulated institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC must deduct, according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, but no longer qualifies as an excluded covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(C) A global systemically important BHC or a Board-regulated institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section the amount of its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a direct or indirect investment in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, and has been held for more than thirty business days.
</P>
<P>(D) A global systemically important BHC or a Board-regulated institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, of its aggregate position in excluded covered debt instruments that exceeds 5 percent of the sum of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions that are not in the form of common stock.</I> If an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution has a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct from capital any such investment issued by the unconsolidated financial institution that is held by the Board-regulated institution other than an investment in the form of common stock, as well as any investment in a covered debt instrument issued by the unconsolidated financial institution, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct the significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(6) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> With prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, including an investment in a covered debt instrument, under this paragraph (c)(6) or otherwise under this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>MSAs and certain DTAs subject to common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(1).
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(1) that, individually, exceeds 25 percent of the sum of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 25 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the Board-regulated institution and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. A Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 217.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the Board-regulated institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The Board-regulated institution must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For a state member bank that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the state member bank could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. A Board-regulated institution that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. A Board-regulated institution may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(2) that, individually, exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
</P>
<P>(A) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 217.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For a state member bank that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the state member bank could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock subject to the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold may be reduced by any goodwill embedded in the valuation of such investments deducted by the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to this paragraph (d)(2) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> With the prior written approval of the Board, for the period of time stipulated by the Board, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution in distress in the form of common stock pursuant to this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section that are not deducted as a result of the application of the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold, and that, in aggregate, exceed 17.65 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, minus adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, minus the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section (the 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold). Any goodwill that has been deducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section can be excluded from the significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to this section must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the 10 and 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Netting of DTLs against assets subject to deduction.</I> (1) Except as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, netting of DTLs against assets that are subject to deduction under this section is permitted, but not required, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the threshold deduction in paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, may be offset by DTLs (that have not been netted against assets subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section) subject to the conditions set forth in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(i) Only the DTAs and DTLs that relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and that are eligible for offsetting by that authority may be offset for purposes of this deduction.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of DTLs that the Board-regulated institution nets against DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and against DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, must be allocated in proportion to the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs) and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs), respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) A Board-regulated institution may offset DTLs embedded in the carrying value of a leveraged lease portfolio acquired in a business combination that are not recognized under GAAP against DTAs that are subject to paragraph (d) of this section in accordance with this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(5) A Board-regulated institution must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period. A Board-regulated institution may change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction under this section only after obtaining the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insufficient amounts of a specific regulatory capital component to effect deductions.</I> Under the corresponding deduction approach, if a Board-regulated institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the full amount of any deduction from capital required under paragraph (d) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must deduct the shortfall amount from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital. Any investment by an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution in a covered debt instrument must be treated as an investment in the tier 2 capital for purposes of this paragraph (f). Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12) that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to § 217.12 is not required to deduct any shortfall of tier 2 capital from its additional tier 1 capital or common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted.</I> A Board-regulated institution must exclude from standardized total risk-weighted assets and, as applicable, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets any item that is required to be deducted from regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Net long position</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of calculating the amount of a Board-regulated institution's investment in the Board regulated institution's own capital instrument, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, and investment in a covered debt instrument under this section, the institution's net long position is the gross long position in the underlying instrument determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, as adjusted to recognize any short position by the Board-regulated institution in the same instrument subject to paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gross long position.</I> A gross long position is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity exposure that is held directly by the Board-regulated institution, the adjusted carrying value of the exposure as that term is defined in § 217.51(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) For an exposure that is held directly and that is not an equity exposure or a securitization exposure, the exposure amount as that term is defined in § 217.2;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each indirect exposure, the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of its investment in an investment fund or, alternatively:
</P>
<P>(A) A Board-regulated institution may, with the prior approval of the Board, use a conservative estimate of the amount of its indirect investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instruments, its indirect investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or its indirect investment in a covered debt instrument held through a position in an index, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) A Board-regulated institution may calculate the gross long position for an indirect exposure to the Board-regulated institution's own capital instruments, the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or a covered debt instrument by multiplying the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of its investment in the investment fund by either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The highest stated investment limit (in percent) for an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instruments, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable, as stated in the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract defining permissible investments of the investment fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The investment fund's actual holdings (in percent) of the investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instruments, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a synthetic exposure, the amount of the Board-regulated institution's loss on the exposure if the reference capital or covered debt instrument were to have a value of zero.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustments to reflect a short position.</I> In order to adjust the gross long position to recognize a short position in the same instrument under paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The maturity of the short position must match the maturity of the long position, or the short position must have a residual maturity of at least one year (maturity requirement); or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a position that is a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) as reported on the Board-regulated institution's Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or intermediate holding company, as applicable, if the Board-regulated institution has a contractual right or obligation to sell the long position at a specific point in time and the counterparty to the contract has an obligation to purchase the long position if the Board-regulated institution exercises its right to sell, this point in time may be treated as the maturity of the long position such that the maturity of the long position and short position are deemed to match for purposes of the maturity requirement, even if the maturity of the short position is less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For an investment in a Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution under paragraphs (c)(4) through (6) and (d) of this section (as applicable), and an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraphs (c)(1), (5), and (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution may only net a short position against a long position in an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument or own covered debt instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the short position involves no counterparty credit risk;
</P>
<P>(B) A gross long position in an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument due to a position in an index may be netted against a short position in the same index;
</P>
<P>(C) Long and short positions in the same index without maturity dates are considered to have matching maturities; and
</P>
<P>(D) A short position in an index that is hedging a long cash or synthetic position in an investment in the Board-regulated institution's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument can be decomposed to provide recognition of the hedge. More specifically, the portion of the index that is composed of the same underlying instrument that is being hedged may be used to offset the long position if both the long position being hedged and the short position in the index are reported as a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) on the Board-regulated institution's Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or intermediate holding company, as applicable, and the hedge is deemed effective by the Board-regulated institution's internal control processes, which have not been found to be inadequate by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62287, Oct. 11, 2013; 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014; 80 FR 41419, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35261, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59271, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61798, Nov. 13, 2019; 86 FR 735, Jan. 6, 2021] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 84 FR 35261, July 22, 2019, § 217.22 was amended in part by revising (a)(1)(i); however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.23-217.29" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.3.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.23-217.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Risk-Weighted Assets—Standardized Approach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.30" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for all Board-regulated institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a market risk Board-regulated institution must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, OTC derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets For General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.31" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.31   Mechanics for calculating risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General risk-weighting requirements.</I> A Board-regulated institution must apply risk weights to its exposures as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount of each on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, financial standby letter of credit, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 217.38;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 217.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) A default fund contribution subject to § 217.35;
</P>
<P>(iv) A securitization exposure subject to §§ 217.41 through 217.45; or
</P>
<P>(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 217.51 through 217.53.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.32" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.32   General risk weights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sovereign exposures</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to the U.S. government.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a Board-regulated institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) An exposure to the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency; and
</P>
<P>(B) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or other exposure, that is insured or otherwise unconditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other sovereign exposures.</I> In accordance with Table 1 to § 217.32, a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight to a sovereign exposure based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign or the sovereign's OECD membership status if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.32—Risk Weights for Sovereign Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Certain sovereign exposures.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may assign to a sovereign exposure a risk weight that is lower than the applicable risk weight in Table 1 to § 217.32 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure is denominated in the sovereign's currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that the home country supervisor allows Board-regulated institutions under its jurisdiction to assign to the same exposures to the sovereign.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to a non-OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(5) and (a)(6) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a 0 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign that is a member of the OECD if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sovereign default.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a sovereign exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs).</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to GSEs.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a GSE other than an equity exposure or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a depository institution or credit union that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, except as otherwise provided under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign banks.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided under paragraphs (d)(2)(iii), (d)(2)(v), and (d)(3) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank, in accordance with Table 2 to § 217.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the foreign bank's home country or the OECD membership status of the foreign bank's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the foreign bank's home country.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.32—Risk Weights for Exposures to Foreign Banks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk-weight to an exposure that is a self-liquidating, trade-related contingent item that arises from the movement of goods and that has a maturity of three months or less to a foreign bank whose home country has a CRC of 0, 1, 2, or 3, or is an OECD member with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(iv) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC, with the exception of self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, and that have a maturity of three months or less, which may be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(v) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a financial institution if the exposure may be included in that financial institution's capital unless the exposure is:
</P>
<P>(i) An equity exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) A significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to § 217.22(d)(2)(i)(c);
</P>
<P>(iii) Deducted from regulatory capital under § 217.22; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject to a 150 percent risk weight under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) or Table 2 of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposures to public sector entities (PSEs)</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. PSEs.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign PSEs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 3 to § 217.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 4 to § 217.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country; or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution may assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 or 4 to § 217.32 to an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(i) The PSE's home country supervisor allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower risk weight to such exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Table 1 to § 217.32.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE General Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 217.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE Revenue Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to PSEs from an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to PSEs whose home country is not an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a PSE whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a PSE exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in a PSE's home country or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the PSE's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate exposures.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all its corporate exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Board-regulated institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 217.35(b)(3)(i)(A) and a 4 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Board-regulated institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 217.35(b)(3)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Board-regulated institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 217.35(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential mortgage exposures.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is secured by a property that is either owner-occupied or rented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, including relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property; A Board-regulated institution must base all estimates of a property's value on an appraisal or evaluation of the property that satisfies subpart E of 12 CFR part 208.
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not restructured or modified.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to junior-lien residential mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this paragraph (g), if a Board-regulated institution holds the first-lien and junior-lien(s) residential mortgage exposures, and no other party holds an intervening lien, the Board-regulated institution must combine the exposures and treat them as a single first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) A loan modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program is not modified or restructured for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pre-sold construction loans.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case a Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statutory multifamily mortgages.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a statutory multifamily mortgage.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>High-volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an HVCRE exposure.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Past due exposures.</I> Except for an exposure to a sovereign entity or a residential mortgage exposure or a policy loan, if an exposure is 90 days or more past due or on nonaccrual:
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is unsecured;
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 217.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section; and
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution may assign a risk weight to the collateralized portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 217.37 if the collateral meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other assets.</I> (1)(i) A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must assign a zero percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of subsidiary depository institutions or in transit, and to gold bullion held in a subsidiary depository institution's own vaults, or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank must assign a zero percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of the state member bank or in transit; to gold bullion held in the state member bank's own vaults or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities; and to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(4) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 250 percent risk weight to the portion of each of the following items to the extent it is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to § 217.22(d):
</P>
<P>(i) MSAs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(5) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all assets not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 217.22.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a state member bank may assign an asset that is not included in one of the categories provided in this section to the risk weight category applicable under the capital rules applicable to bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies under this part, provided that all of the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution is not authorized to hold the asset under applicable law other than debt previously contracted or similar authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risks associated with the asset are substantially similar to the risks of assets that are otherwise assigned to a risk weight category of less than 100 percent under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Insurance assets</I>—(1) <I>Assets held in a separate account.</I> (i) A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must risk-weight the individual assets held in a separate account that does not qualify as a non-guaranteed separate account as if the individual assets were held directly by the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must assign a zero percent risk weight to an asset that is held in a non-guaranteed separate account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Policy loans.</I> A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a policy loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62287, Oct. 11, 2013; 84 FR 35264, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4417, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020; 85 FR 57961, Sept. 17, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.33" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.33   Off-balance sheet exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a Board-regulated institution commits to provide a commitment, the Board-regulated institution may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a Board-regulated institution provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the Board-regulated institution is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Where a Board-regulated institution provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit-enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit conversion factors</I>—(1) <I>Zero percent CCF.</I> A Board-regulated institution must apply a zero percent CCF to the unused portion of a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent CCF.</I> A Board-regulated institution must apply a 20 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of one year or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of one year or less.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>50 percent CCF.</I> A Board-regulated institution must apply a 50 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of more than one year that are not unconditionally cancelable by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>100 percent CCF.</I> A Board-regulated institution must apply a 100 percent CCF to the amount of the following off-balance-sheet items and other similar transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the Board-regulated institution has sold subject to repurchase);
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the Board-regulated institution has lent under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the Board-regulated institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Forward agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.34" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.34   Derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure amount for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must use the current exposure methodology (CEM) described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts, unless the Board-regulated institution makes the election provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may elect to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) in § 217.132(c) by notifying the Board, rather than calculating the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using CEM. A Board-regulated institution that elects under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) to calculate the exposure amount for its OTC derivative contracts under SA-CCR must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 217.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts, rather than applying § 217.35. A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and, if a Board-regulated institution has elected to use SA-CCR under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii), the Board-regulated institution may change its election only with prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advanced approaches Board-regulated institution.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using SA-CCR in § 217.132(c) for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 217.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current exposure methodology exposure amount</I>—(1) <I>Single OTC derivative contract.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for a single OTC derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the Board-regulated institution's current credit exposure and potential future credit exposure (PFE) on the OTC derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current credit exposure.</I> The current credit exposure for a single OTC derivative contract is the greater of the fair value of the OTC derivative contract or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PFE.</I> (A) The PFE for a single OTC derivative contract, including an OTC derivative contract with a negative fair value, is calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the OTC derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of calculating either the PFE under this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or the gross PFE under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for exchange rate contracts and other similar contracts in which the notional principal amount is equivalent to the cash flows, notional principal amount is the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.
</P>
<P>(C) For an OTC derivative contract that does not fall within one of the specified categories in Table 1 to this section, the PFE must be calculated using the appropriate “other” conversion factor.
</P>
<P>(D) A Board-regulated institution must use an OTC derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
</P>
<P>(E) The PFE of the protection provider of a credit derivative is capped at the net present value of the amount of unpaid premiums.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.34—Conversion Factor Matrix for Derivative Contracts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign exchange rate and gold
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit (investment grade reference asset) 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit (non-investment-grade reference asset)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precious metals (except gold)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than one year and less than or equal to five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For a derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the derivative contract.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For an OTC derivative contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the fair value of the contract is zero, the remaining maturity equals the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate derivative contract with a remaining maturity of greater than one year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.005.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A Board-regulated institution must use the column labeled “Credit (investment-grade reference asset)” for a credit derivative whose reference asset is an outstanding unsecured long-term debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade. A Board-regulated institution must use the column labeled “Credit (non-investment-grade reference asset)” for all other credit derivatives.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the net current credit exposure and the adjusted sum of the PFE amounts for all OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net current credit exposure.</I> The net current credit exposure is the greater of the net sum of all positive and negative fair values of the individual OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted sum of the PFE amounts.</I> The adjusted sum of the PFE amounts, Anet, is calculated as Anet = (0.4 × Agross) + (0.6 × NGR × Agross), where:
</P>
<P>(A) Agross = the gross PFE (that is, the sum of the PFE amounts as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section for each individual derivative contract subject to the qualifying master netting agreement); and
</P>
<P>(B) Net-to-gross Ratio (NGR) = the ratio of the net current credit exposure to the gross current credit exposure. In calculating the NGR, the gross current credit exposure equals the sum of the positive current credit exposures (as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) of all individual derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC derivative contract or multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) by using the simple approach in § 217.37(b).
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the simple approach, a Board-regulated institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures such a contract or netting set if the financial collateral is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement by applying a risk weight to the uncollateralized portion of the exposure, after adjusting the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section using the collateral haircut approach in § 217.37(c). The Board-regulated institution must substitute the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for ΣE in the equation in § 217.37(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk for credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection purchasers.</I> A Board-regulated institution that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 217.36 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this subpart provided that the Board-regulated institution does so consistently for all such credit derivatives. The Board-regulated institution must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection providers.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that is the protection provider under a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as an exposure to the underlying reference asset. The Board-regulated institution is not required to compute a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this subpart, provided that this treatment is applied consistently for all such credit derivatives. The Board-regulated institution must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (d)(2) apply to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes unless the Board-regulated institution is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the Board-regulated institution must compute a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterparty credit risk for equity derivatives.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 217.51 through 217.53 (unless the Board-regulated institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the Board-regulated institution must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section if the Board-regulated institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board-regulated institution risk weights the contract under the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 217.52, the Board-regulated institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of the equity derivative contract, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, a Board-regulated institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clearing member Board-regulated institution's exposure amount.</I> The exposure amount of a clearing member Board-regulated institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section for a client-facing derivative transaction or netting set of client-facing derivative transactions equals the exposure amount calculated according to paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section multiplied by the scaling factor the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the Board-regulated institution determines that a longer period is appropriate, the Board-regulated institution must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for a longer holding period as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.024.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where <I>H</I> = the holding period greater than or equal to five days.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>Additionally, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to set a longer holding period if the Board determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 4417, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.35" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.35   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternate requirements.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution and that has elected to use SA-CCR under § 217.34(a)(1) must apply § 217.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions rather than this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client Board-regulated institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the methodology used to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 217.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodologies under § 217.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client Board-regulated institution must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the Board-regulated institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the clearing member client Board-regulated institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client Board-regulated institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; or
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent if the requirements of § 217.35(b)(3)(A) are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client Board-regulated institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirements in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client Board-regulated institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with the requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member Board-regulated institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member Board-regulated institution must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract, calculated using the methodology to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 217.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for repo-style transactions calculated using methodologies under § 217.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weight.</I> (i) A clearing member Board-regulated institution must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member Board-regulated institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member Board-regulated institution may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a CCP where the clearing member Board-regulated institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 217.3(a), and the clearing member Board-regulated institution is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the CCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member Board-regulated institution that is held by a custodian in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the Board-regulated institution or the Board, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to non-qualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the Board, based on factors such as size, structure and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCP</I>s. A clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section (Method 1), multiplied by 1,250 percent or in paragraphs (d)(3)(iv) of this section (Method 2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method 1.</I> The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (K<E T="52">CCP</E>) equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.058.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(A) EBRM<E T="52">i</E> = the exposure amount for each transaction cleared through the QCCP by clearing member i, calculated in accordance with § 217.34 for OTC derivative contracts and § 217.37(c)(2) for repo-style transactions, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of this section, in calculating the exposure amount the Board-regulated institution may replace the formula provided in § 217.34(a)(2)(ii) with the following: Anet = (0.15 × Agross) + (0.85 × NGR × Agross); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For option derivative contracts that are cleared transactions, the PFE described in § 217.34(a)(1)(ii) must be adjusted by multiplying the notional principal amount of the derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to § 217.34 and the absolute value of the option's delta, that is, the ratio of the change in the value of the derivative contract to the corresponding change in the price of the underlying asset.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions, when applying § 217.37(c)(2), the Board-regulated institution must use the methodology in § 217.37(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(B) VM<E T="52">i</E> = any collateral posted by clearing member i to the QCCP that it is entitled to receive from the QCCP, but has not yet received, and any collateral that the QCCP has actually received from clearing member i;
</P>
<P>(C) IM<E T="52">i</E> = the collateral posted as initial margin by clearing member i to the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(D) DF<E T="52">i</E> = the funded portion of clearing member i's default fund contribution that will be applied to reduce the QCCP's loss upon a default by clearing member i;
</P>
<P>(E) RW = 20 percent, except when the Board has determined that a higher risk weight is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members; and
</P>
<P>(F) Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, a Board-regulated institution must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d), unless the Board-regulated institution determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by funded commitments, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.016.gif"/>
<P>Subscripts 1 and 2 denote the clearing members with the two largest A<E T="52">Net</E> values. For purposes of this paragraph (d), for derivatives A<E T="52">Net</E> is defined in § 217.34(a)(2)(ii) and for repo-style transactions, A<E T="52">Net</E> means the exposure amount as defined in § 217.37(c)(2) using the methodology in § 217.37(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(B) N = the number of clearing members in the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(C) DF<E T="52">CCP</E> = the QCCP's own funds and other financial resources that would be used to cover its losses before clearing members' default fund contributions are used to cover losses;
</P>
<P>(D) DF<E T="52">CM</E> = funded default fund contributions from all clearing members and any other clearing member contributed financial resources that are available to absorb mutualized QCCP losses;
</P>
<P>(E) DF = DF<E T="52">CCP</E> + DF<E T="52">CM</E> (that is, the total funded default fund contribution);
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.017.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(<I>1</I>) DF<E T="52">i</E> = the Board-regulated institution's unfunded commitment to the default fund;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) DF<E T="52">CM</E> = the total of all clearing members' unfunded commitment to the default fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(B) For a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by unfunded commitments and is unable to calculate K<E T="52">CM</E> using the methodology described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.018.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(<I>1</I>) IM<E T="52">i</E> = the Board-regulated institution's initial margin posted to the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) IM<E T="52">CM</E> = the total of initial margin posted to the QCCP; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>)<I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Method 2.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for its default fund contribution to a QCCP, RWA<E T="52">DF</E>, equals:
</P>
<FP-2>RWA<E T="52">DF</E> = Min {12.5 * DF; 0.18 * TE}
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(A) TE = the Board-regulated institution's trade exposure amount to the QCCP, calculated according to section 35(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(B) DF = the funded portion of the Board-regulated institution's default fund contribution to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions is the sum of a clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted assets for all of its default fund contributions to all CCPs of which the Board-regulated institution is a clearing member.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.36" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.36   Guarantees and credit derivatives: substitution treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative by substituting the risk weight associated with the protection provider for the risk weight assigned to an exposure, as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the Board-regulated institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 217.41 through 217.45.
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, a Board-regulated institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is subordinated to, the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution approach</I>—(1) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, a Board-regulated institution may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure by substituting the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider under this subpart D for the risk weight assigned to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the Board-regulated institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the Board-regulated institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the Board-regulated institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the Board-regulated institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: Pm = E × (t−0.25)/(T−0.25), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</P>
<P>(ii) E = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</P>
<P>(iii) t = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) T = the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment for credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If a Board-regulated institution recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the Board-regulated institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: Pr = Pm × 0.60, where:
</P>
<P>(1) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(2) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch, if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) If a Board-regulated institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the Board-regulated institution must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: Pc = Pr × (1−H<E T="52">FX</E>), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pc = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to eight percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period. A Board-regulated institution qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for the use of its own-estimates haircuts in § 217.37(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the Board-regulated institution revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every 10 business days using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.021.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.37" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.37   Collateralized transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To recognize the risk-mitigating effects of financial collateral, a Board-regulated institution may use:
</P>
<P>(i) The simple approach in paragraph (b) of this section for any exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral haircut approach in paragraph (c) of this section for repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution may use any approach described in this section that is valid for a particular type of exposure or transaction; however, it must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The simple approach</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures any exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every six months; and
</P>
<P>(C) The collateral (other than gold) and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk weight substitution.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral (that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) based on the risk weight assigned to the collateral under this subpart D. For repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, and securities lending and borrowing transactions, the collateral is the instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the risk weight assigned to the collateralized portion of the exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight applicable to the exposure under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to the 20 percent risk-weight floor and other requirements.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution may assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution may assign a 10 percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 217.32.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution may assign a zero percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
</P>
<P>(B) The financial collateral is an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 217.32, and the Board-regulated institution has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or single-product netting set of such transactions, and of any collateral that secures a repo-style transaction that is included in the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part by using the collateral haircut approach in this section. A Board-regulated institution may use the standard supervisory haircuts in paragraph (c)(3) of this section or, with prior written approval of the Board, its own estimates of haircuts according to paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure amount equation.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or a single-product netting set of such transactions by setting the exposure amount equal to max {0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + Σ(Es × Hs) + Σ(Efx × Hfx)]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) For eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions and netting sets thereof, ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set)); and
</P>
<P>(B) For collateralized derivative contracts and netting sets thereof, ΣE equals the exposure amount of the OTC derivative contract (or netting set) calculated under § 217.34(b)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold and cash the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(iii) Es equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in the instrument or gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(iv) Hs equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in Es;
</P>
<P>(v) Efx equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Hfx equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in Efx and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must use the haircuts for market price volatility (Hs) provided in Table 1 to § 217.37, as adjusted in certain circumstances in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.37—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization
<br/>exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 217.32
<br/>(in percent) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 217.32
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.37 are based on a 10 business-day holding period. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For currency mismatches, a Board-regulated institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (Hfx) of 8.0 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances under paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a Board-regulated institution may multiply the standard supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). For client-facing derivative transactions, if a larger scaling factor is applied under § 217.34(f), the same factor must be used to adjust the supervisory haircuts.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 217.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set. A Board-regulated institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.022.gif"/>
<P>(A) T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</P>
<P>(B) H<E T="52">S</E> equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</P>
<P>(C) T<E T="52">S</E> equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.
</P>
<P>(v) If the instrument a Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the Board-regulated institution must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may calculate haircuts (Hs and Hfx) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates:
</P>
<P>(i) To receive Board approval to use its own internal estimates, a Board-regulated institution must satisfy the following minimum standards:
</P>
<P>(A) A Board-regulated institution must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction and client-facing derivative transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan and a derivative contract other than a client-facing derivative transaction is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (c)(4)(i)(C) of this section applies. When a Board-regulated institution calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.023.gif"/>
<P>(<I>1</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the Board-regulated institution to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N.</E>
</P>
<P>(C) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 217.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(D) A Board-regulated institution is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(E) A Board-regulated institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the Board-regulated institution's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior approval of the Board for, and notify the Board if the Board-regulated institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Nothing in this section prevents the Board from requiring a Board-regulated institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(G) A Board-regulated institution must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, a Board-regulated institution may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the Board-regulated institution must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(C) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(D) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, a Board-regulated institution must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the Board-regulated institution must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(v) A Board-regulated institution's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57961, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Unsettled Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.38" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.18.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.38   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive current exposure of a Board-regulated institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the Board-regulated institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 217.34).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system or central counterparty, the Board may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> A Board-regulated institution must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Board-regulated institution's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The Board-regulated institution must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the Board-regulated institution by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 217.38.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.38—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business
<br/>days after
<br/>contractual
<br/>settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to
<br/>be applied to
<br/>positive current exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Board-regulated institution has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The Board-regulated institution must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the Board-regulated institution has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the Board-regulated institution has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Board-regulated institution as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board-regulated institution has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after counterparty delivery was due, the Board-regulated institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.39-217.40" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.18.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.39-217.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.41" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.41   Operational requirements for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> A Board-regulated institution that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each condition in this section is satisfied. A Board-regulated institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization. A Board-regulated institution that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the Board-regulated institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, a Board-regulated institution may recognize for risk-based capital purposes the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each condition in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. A Board-regulated institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. A Board-regulated institution that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 217.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 217.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the Board-regulated institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the Board-regulated institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the Board-regulated institution in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the Board-regulated institution after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 217.42(h), if a Board-regulated institution is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the Board-regulated institution must assign the securitization exposure a risk weight of 1,250 percent. The Board-regulated institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the exposure in relation to its capital.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average LTV ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.42" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.42   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization risk weight approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section or in § 217.41:
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of a CEIO that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with §§ 217.43(a) through 217.43(d) and subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section. Alternatively, a Board-regulated institution that is not subject to subpart F of this part may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the gross-up approach in accordance with § 217.43(e), provided, however, that such Board-regulated institution must apply either the SSFA or the gross-up approach consistently across all of its securitization exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the Board-regulated institution cannot, or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach to the exposure, the Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 217.44.
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a Board-regulated institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a Board-regulated institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amount for securitization exposures that the Board-regulated institution risk weights under §§ 217.41(c), 217.42(a)(1), and 217.43, 217.44, or 217.45, and paragraphs (e) through (j) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure</I>—(1) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure (excluding an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security where the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 217.22(b)(2), a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction) is equal to the carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures held by a Board-regulated institution that has made an AOCI opt-out election.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security held by a Board-regulated institution that has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 217.22(b)(2) is the Board-regulated institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees), less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Off-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative), or an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the Board-regulated institution could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets).
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA does not apply by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA applies by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and derivative contracts.</I> The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the exposure amount of the transaction as calculated under § 217.34 or § 217.37, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If a Board-regulated institution has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage to the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when a Board-regulated institution provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the Board-regulated institution is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the Board-regulated institution may apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implicit support.</I> If a Board-regulated institution provides support to a securitization in excess of the Board-regulated institution's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the Board-regulated institution of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) For a Board-regulated institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the Board-regulated institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this subpart, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with retained contractual exposure.</I> (1) Regardless of any other provision of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only its contractual exposure to the small-business obligations if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the Board-regulated institution's reasonably estimated liability under the contractual obligation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The small-business obligations are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 et seq.).
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) In the case of a state member bank, the bank is well capitalized, as defined in 12 CFR 208.43. For purposes of determining whether a state member bank is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (h), the state member bank's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations under this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is well capitalized, as defined in 12 CFR 225.2. For purposes of determining whether a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (h), the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of contractual exposure retained by a Board-regulated institution on transfers of small-business obligations receiving the capital treatment specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the Board-regulated institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Board-regulated institution ceases to be well capitalized under 12 CFR 208.43 or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the capital treatment under paragraph (h)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with retained contractual exposure that occurred during the time that the Board-regulated institution was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of the Board-regulated institution must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section for purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining whether a Board-regulated institution is adequately capitalized, undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized under the Board's prompt corrective action regulations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reclassifying a well-capitalized Board-regulated institution to adequately capitalized and requiring an adequately capitalized Board-regulated institution to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the Board-regulated institution were in the next lower prompt-corrective-action category.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> A Board-regulated institution may assign a risk weight using the SSFA in § 217.43 to an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (i). A Board-regulated institution must determine its exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the Board-regulated institution's exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution that does not use the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A Board-regulated institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 217.36(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the Board-regulated institution synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. A Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 217.34 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 217.36(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) A Board-regulated institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 217.36(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Board-regulated institution also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If a Board-regulated institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the Board-regulated institution had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the n
<SU>th</SU> smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 217.34 for a n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 217.36(b).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than n</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative) provided by a Board-regulated institution that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the Board-regulated institution must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that purchases a guarantee or OTC credit derivative (other than an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 217.45 as a credit risk mitigant (including via collateral recognized under § 217.37) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 217.31, in accordance with 34(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Board-regulated institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 217.45, the Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 217.34.
</P>
<P>(A) If the Board-regulated institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the Board-regulated institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Board-regulated institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the Board-regulated institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to section § 217.42, including § 217.42(a)(4) for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62288, Oct. 11, 2013; 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.43" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.43   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) and the gross-up approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, a Board-regulated institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A Board-regulated institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, a Board-regulated institution must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation: 
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08). 
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures: 
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned; 
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on: 
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default. 
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 217.42(i) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the Board-regulated institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. 
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in section 42(i) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. 
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.024.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Gross-up approach</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is not subject to subpart F of this part may apply the gross-up approach set forth in this section instead of the SSFA to determine the risk weight of its securitization exposures, provided that it applies the gross-up approach to all of its securitization exposures, except as otherwise provided for certain securitization exposures in §§ 217.44 and 217.45.
</P>
<P>(2) To use the gross-up approach, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the following four inputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Pro rata share, which is the par value of the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure as a percent of the par value of the tranche in which the securitization exposure resides;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enhanced amount, which is the par value of tranches that are more senior to the tranche in which the Board-regulated institution's securitization resides;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposure amount of the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure calculated under § 217.42(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk weight, which is the weighted-average risk weight of underlying exposures of the securitization as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit equivalent amount.</I> The credit equivalent amount of a securitization exposure under this section equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount of the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pro rata share multiplied by the enhanced amount, each calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> To calculate risk-weighted assets for a securitization exposure under the gross-up approach, a Board-regulated institution must apply the risk weight required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section to the credit equivalent amount calculated in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.44" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.44   Securitization exposures to which the SSFA and gross-up approach do not apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to all securitization exposures to which the Board-regulated institution does not apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach under § 217.43, except as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facilities.</I> A Board-regulated institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility by multiplying the exposure amount by the highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures covered by the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>A securitization exposure in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program</I>—(1) <I>Risk weighting.</I> A Board-regulated institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of a securitization exposure that is in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section by multiplying the exposure amount by the higher of the following risk weights:
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures of the ABCP program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The exposure is not an eligible ABCP liquidity facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exposure must be economically in a second loss position or better, and the first loss position must provide significant credit protection to the second loss position;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exposure qualifies as investment grade; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board-regulated institution holding the exposure must not retain or provide protection to the first loss position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.45" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.45   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An originating Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 217.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 217.36 or 217.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An investing Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 217.36 or 217.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mismatches.</I> A Board-regulated institution must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 217.36(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the Board-regulated institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.46-217.50" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.19.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.46-217.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.51" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.20.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.51   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to an investment fund, a Board-regulated institution must use the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) provided in 217.52. A Board-regulated institution must use the look-through approaches provided in § 217.53 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 217.2) as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 217.53.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy; or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of §§ 217.51 through 217.53, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure (other than an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 217.22(b)(2)), the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the Board-regulated institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 217.22(b)(2), the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the Board-regulated institution's regulatory capital components;
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of one year or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over one year receive a CF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.52" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.20.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.52   Simple risk-weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, a Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the Board-regulated institution's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined under this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the Board-regulated institution's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined under § 217.53.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, an MDB, and any other entity whose credit exposures receive a zero percent risk weight under § 217.32 may be assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a PSE, Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) must be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The equity exposures set forth in this paragraph (b)(3) must be assigned a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> (A) For state member banks and bank holding companies, an equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh), excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P>(B) For savings and loan holding companies, an equity exposure that is designed primarily to promote community welfare, including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families, such as by providing services or employment, and excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 217.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the Board-regulated institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a Board-regulated institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the Board-regulated institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a Board-regulated institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the Board-regulated institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the Board-regulated institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of a Board-regulated institution's equity exposures qualify for a 100 percent risk weight under this paragraph (b), a Board-regulated institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 217.22(d)(2) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) must be assigned a 300 percent risk weight. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7)) of this section that is not publicly traded must be assigned a 400 percent risk weight. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm must be assigned a 600 percent risk weight, provided that the investment firm: 
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the Board-regulated institution acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the Board-regulated institution will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. A Board-regulated institution must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E as set forth in this paragraph (c). 
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the Board-regulated institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals 0. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.027.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then E equals zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62288, Oct. 11, 2013; 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.53" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.20.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.53   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure under § 217.52(b)(3)(i), a Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach described in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alterative modified look-through approach described paragraph (d) of this section, provided, however, that the minimum risk weight that may be assigned to an equity exposure under this section is 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 217.52(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the Board-regulated institution does not use the full look-through approach, the Board-regulated institution must use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 217.52(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart as if the proportional ownership share of the adjusted carrying value of each exposure were held directly by the Board-regulated institution) may set the risk-weighted asset amount of the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under the simple modified look-through approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar agreement that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under the alternative modified look-through approach, a Board-regulated institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories under this subpart based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure type multiplied by the applicable risk weight under this subpart. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest applicable risk weight under this subpart and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest applicable risk weight under this subpart until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the Board-regulated institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. A Board-regulated institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.54-217.60" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.20.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.54-217.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.61" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.21.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 217.61 through 217.63 of this subpart establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements described in subpart B of this part for a Board-regulated institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the Board-regulated institution's most recent year-end Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution making public disclosures pursuant to § 217.172. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has not received approval from the Board to exit parallel run pursuant to § 217.121(d) is subject to the disclosure requirements described in §§ 217.62 and 217.63. A Board-regulated institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the Board-regulated institution's most recent year-end Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable, that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution making public disclosures subject to § 217.172 must comply with § 217.62 unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to the disclosure requirements of § 217.62 or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. For purposes of this section, total consolidated assets are determined based on the average of the Board-regulated institution's total consolidated assets in the four most recent quarters as reported on the Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable; or the average of the Board-regulated institution's total consolidated assets in the most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the Board-regulated institution's Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable if the Board-regulated institution has not filed such a report for each of the most recent four quarters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 84 FR 35266, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.62" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.21.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.62   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 217.63. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the Board-regulated institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the Board-regulated institution's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. The Board-regulated institution's management may provide all of the disclosures required by §§ 217.61 through 217.63 in one place on the Board-regulated institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Board-regulated institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) A Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the Board-regulated institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If a Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 concludes that specific commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would be exempt from disclosure by the Board under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), then the Board-regulated institution is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.63" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.21.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.63   Disclosures by Board-regulated institutions described in § 217.61.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 217.62, a Board-regulated institution described in § 217.61 must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 10 of this section. The Board-regulated institution must make these disclosures publicly available for each of the last three years (that is, twelve quarters) or such shorter period beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) A Board-regulated institution must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, tier 1 and total capital ratios, including the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Regulatory capital ratios during any transition periods, including a description of all the regulatory capital elements and all regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator and denominator of each capital ratio during any transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements as they relate to its balance sheet in any audited consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.63—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart D of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities 
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) That are fully consolidated;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.63—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common stock and related surplus;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retained earnings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Common equity minority interest;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) AOCI; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.63—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A summary discussion of the Board-regulated institution's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to sovereign entities;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to certain supranational entities and MDBs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Exposures to PSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Corporate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Statutory multifamily mortgages and pre-sold construction loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) HVCRE exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9) Past due loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10) Other assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11) Cleared transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12) Default fund contributions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(13) Unsettled transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(14) Securitization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(15) Equity exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardized market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total standardized risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 217.63—Capital Conservation Buffer
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer as described under § 217.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose the eligible retained income of the Board-regulated institution, as described under § 217.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer framework described under § 217.11, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 10, the Board-regulated institution must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including: Strategies and processes; the structure and organization of the relevant risk management function; the scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 217.63 
<sup>1</sup>—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 6), including the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes);
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Description of the methodology that the Board-regulated institution uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Discussion of the Board-regulated institution's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP, without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, Board-regulated institutions could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the Board-regulated institution's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity delineation (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may consist of individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. A Board-regulated institution might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the Board-regulated institution's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A Board-regulated institution is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 217.63—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk-Related Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The methodology used to assign credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The primary types of collateral taken; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The impact of the amount of collateral the Board-regulated institution would have to provide given a deterioration in the Board-regulated institution's own creditworthiness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> A Board-regulated institution also must disclose the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection and the distribution of current credit exposure by exposure type.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the Board-regulated institution's own credit portfolio and in its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering both the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 217.63—Credit Risk Mitigation 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the Board-regulated institution;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations with respect to credit risk mitigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed credit risk portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by eligible financial collateral, and after the application of haircuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives and the risk-weighted asset amount associated with that exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, a Board-regulated institution must provide the disclosures in Table 7 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, Board-regulated institutions are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives that are treated, for the purposes of this subpart, as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures and included within those relating to securitization (Table 8).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 217.63—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to a securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The Board-regulated institution's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the Board-regulated institution to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (e.g., liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the Board-regulated institution in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the Board-regulated institution's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The Board-regulated institution's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the Board-regulated institution follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the Board-regulated institution, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The Board-regulated institution must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off-balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the Board-regulated institution manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the Board-regulated institution has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the Board-regulated institution sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of the Board-regulated institution's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart D of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the Board-regulated institution to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An explanation of significant changes to any quantitative information since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total outstanding exposures securitized by the Board-regulated institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria provided in § 217.41 (categorized into traditional and synthetic securitizations), by exposure type, separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the bank acts only as sponsor.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For exposures securitized by the Board-regulated institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 217.41:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired/past due categorized by exposure type; 
<sup>5</sup> and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the Board-regulated institution during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (e.g., SSFA); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The Board-regulated institution should describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description should be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the Board-regulated institution is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles may include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Such affiliated entities may include, for example, money market funds, to be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, to be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the bank, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the bank's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the bank from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception. Banks are required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the bank's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of interest-only strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the bank with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 217.63—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to equity risk for equities not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those taken under other objectives including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting techniques and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Value disclosed on the balance sheet of investments, as well as the fair value of those investments; for securities that are publicly traded, a comparison to publicly-quoted share values where the share price is materially different from fair value.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is: (1) Publicly traded; and
<br/>(2) Non publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses).
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses).
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">  </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the Board-regulated institution's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding regulatory capital requirements.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized on the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either on the balance sheet or through earnings.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 217.63—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) A Category III Board-regulated institution that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 217.172(d) is subject to the supplementary leverage ratio disclosure requirement at § 217.173(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) A Category III Board-regulated institution that is required to calculate a countercyclical capital buffer pursuant to § 217.11 is subject to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to § 217.173, “Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers,” and not to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to this section, “Capital Conservation Buffer.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35267, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59271, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.64-217.99" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.4.21.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.64-217.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Risk-Weighted Assets—Internal Ratings-Based and Advanced Measurement Approaches</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.100" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.100   Purpose, applicability, and principle of conservatism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart E establishes:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum qualifying criteria for Board-regulated institutions using institution-specific internal risk measurement and management processes for calculating risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Methodologies for such Board-regulated institutions to calculate their total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart applies to:
</P>
<P>(i) A top-tier bank holding company or savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not a consolidated subsidiary of another bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that uses this subpart to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(B) That:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has a subsidiary depository institution that is required, or has elected, to use 12 CFR part 3, subpart E (OCC), this subpart (Board), or 12 CFR part 324, subpart E (FDIC), to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a Category II Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(C) Is a subsidiary of a depository institution that uses 12 CFR part 3, subpart E (OCC), this subpart (Board), or 12 CFR part 324, subpart E (FDIC), to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(D) Is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that uses this subpart to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any Board-regulated institution that elects to use this subpart to calculate its risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) A market risk Board-regulated institution must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, over-the-counter derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principle of conservatism.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution may choose not to apply a provision of this subpart to one or more exposures provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution can demonstrate on an ongoing basis to the satisfaction of the Board that not applying the provision would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution appropriately manages the risk of each such exposure;
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution notifies the Board in writing prior to applying this principle to each such exposure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The exposures to which the Board-regulated institution applies this principle are not, in the aggregate, material to the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62288, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 41419, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59271, Nov. 1, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.101" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms that are set forth in § 217.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced internal ratings-based (IRB) systems</I> means an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's internal risk rating and segmentation system; risk parameter quantification system; data management and maintenance system; and control, oversight, and validation system for credit risk of wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced systems</I> means an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution's advanced IRB systems, operational risk management processes, operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and, to the extent used by the Board-regulated institution, the internal models methodology, advanced CVA approach, double default excessive correlation detection process, and internal models approach (IMA) for equity exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of a Board-regulated institution's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmarking</I> means the comparison of a Board-regulated institution's internal estimates with relevant internal and external data or with estimates based on other estimation techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Bond option contract</I> means a bond option, bond future, or any other instrument linked to a bond that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Business environment and internal control factors</I> means the indicators of a Board-regulated institution's operational risk profile that reflect a current and forward-looking assessment of the Board-regulated institution's underlying business risk factors and internal control environment.
</P>
<P><I>Credit default swap</I> (CDS) means a financial contract executed under standard industry documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit valuation adjustment</I> (CVA) means the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Default</I>—For the purposes of calculating capital requirements under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail.</I> (i) A retail exposure of a Board-regulated institution is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure is 180 days past due, in the case of a residential mortgage exposure or revolving exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure is 120 days past due, in the case of retail exposures that are not residential mortgage exposures or revolving exposures; or
</P>
<P>(C) The Board-regulated institution has taken a full or partial charge-off, write-down of principal, or material negative fair value adjustment of principal on the exposure for credit-related reasons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, for a retail exposure held by a non-U.S. subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution that is subject to an internal ratings-based approach to capital adequacy consistent with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's “International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A Revised Framework” in a non-U.S. jurisdiction, the Board-regulated institution may elect to use the definition of default that is used in that jurisdiction, provided that the Board-regulated institution has obtained prior approval from the Board to use the definition of default in that jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A retail exposure in default remains in default until the Board-regulated institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution's wholesale obligor is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution determines that the obligor is unlikely to pay its credit obligations to the Board-regulated institution in full, without recourse by the Board-regulated institution to actions such as realizing collateral (if held); or
</P>
<P>(B) The obligor is past due more than 90 days on any material credit obligation(s) to the Board-regulated institution.
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> Overdrafts are past due once the obligor has breached an advised limit or been advised of a limit smaller than the current outstanding balance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An obligor in default remains in default until the Board-regulated institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on all exposures of the Board-regulated institution to the obligor (other than exposures that have been fully written-down or charged-off).
</P>
<P><I>Dependence</I> means a measure of the association among operational losses across and within units of measure.
</P>
<P><I>Economic downturn conditions</I> means, with respect to an exposure held by the Board-regulated institution, those conditions in which the aggregate default rates for that exposure's wholesale or retail exposure subcategory (or subdivision of such subcategory selected by the Board-regulated institution) in the exposure's national jurisdiction (or subdivision of such jurisdiction selected by the Board-regulated institution) are significantly higher than average.
</P>
<P><I>Effective maturity (M)</I> of a wholesale exposure means:
</P>
<P>(1) For wholesale exposures other than repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts described in paragraph (2) or (3) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) The weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the expected contractual cash flows from the exposure, using the undiscounted amounts of the cash flows as weights; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The nominal remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement for which the Board-regulated institution does not apply the internal models approach in section 132(d), the weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the individual transactions subject to the qualifying master netting agreement, with the weight of each individual transaction set equal to the notional amount of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts for which the Board-regulated institution applies the internal models approach in § 217.132(d), the value determined in § 217.132(d)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible double default guarantor,</I> with respect to a guarantee or credit derivative obtained by a Board-regulated institution, means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S.-based entities.</I> A depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a securities broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act, if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-U.S.-based entities.</I> A foreign bank, or a non-U.S.-based securities firm if the Board-regulated institution demonstrates that the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions, or securities broker-dealers) if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible operational risk offsets</I> means amounts, not to exceed expected operational loss, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are generated by internal business practices to absorb highly predictable and reasonably stable operational losses, including reserves calculated consistent with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are available to cover expected operational losses with a high degree of certainty over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposure</I> means a purchased wholesale exposure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution or securitization SPE purchased from an unaffiliated seller and did not directly or indirectly originate;
</P>
<P>(2) Was generated on an arm's-length basis between the seller and the obligor (intercompany accounts receivable and receivables subject to contra-accounts between firms that buy and sell to each other do not satisfy this criterion);
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the Board-regulated institution or securitization SPE with a claim on all proceeds from the exposure or a pro rata interest in the proceeds from the exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Has an M of less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(5) When consolidated by obligor, does not represent a concentrated exposure relative to the portfolio of purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected exposure (EE)</I> means the expected value of the probability distribution of non-negative credit risk exposures to a counterparty at any specified future date before the maturity date of the longest term transaction in the netting set. Any negative fair values in the probability distribution of fair values to a counterparty at a specified future date are set to zero to convert the probability distribution of fair values to the probability distribution of credit risk exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected operational loss (EOL)</I> means the expected value of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system using a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Expected positive exposure (EPE)</I> means the weighted average over time of expected (non-negative) exposures to a counterparty where the weights are the proportion of the time interval that an individual expected exposure represents. When calculating risk-based capital requirements, the average is taken over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure at default (EAD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, a cleared transaction, or default fund contribution), EAD means the Board-regulated institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure or segment less any allocated transfer risk reserve for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the Board-regulated institution's best estimate of net additions to the outstanding amount owed the Board-regulated institution, including estimated future additional draws of principal and accrued but unpaid interest and fees, that are likely to occur over a one-year horizon assuming the wholesale exposure or the retail exposures in the segment were to go into default. This estimate of net additions must reflect what would be expected during economic downturn conditions. For the purposes of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) Trade-related letters of credit are short-term, self-liquidating instruments that are used to finance the movement of goods and are collateralized by the underlying goods.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingencies relate to a particular transaction and include, among other things, performance bonds and performance-based letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction, or eligible margin loan for which the Board-regulated institution determines EAD under § 217.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of anything other than a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the notional amount of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) EAD for OTC derivative contracts is calculated as described in § 217.132. A Board-regulated institution also may determine EAD for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans as described in § 217.132.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure category</I> means any of the wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure categories.
</P>
<P><I>External operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to a Board-regulated institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at organizations other than the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>IMM exposure</I> means a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative for which a Board-regulated institution calculates its EAD using the internal models methodology of § 217.132(d).
</P>
<P><I>Internal operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to a Board-regulated institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P><I>Loss given default (LGD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of retail exposures, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the Board-regulated institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The economic loss on an exposure in the event of default is all material credit-related losses on the exposure (including accrued but unpaid interest or fees, losses on the sale of collateral, direct workout costs, and an appropriate allocation of indirect workout costs). Where positive or negative cash flows on a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or a defaulted retail exposure (including proceeds from the sale of collateral, workout costs, additional extensions of credit to facilitate repayment of the exposure, and draw-downs of unused credit lines) occur after the date of default, the economic loss must reflect the net present value of cash flows as of the default date using a discount rate appropriate to the risk of the defaulted exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Obligor</I> means the legal entity or natural person contractually obligated on a wholesale exposure, except that a Board-regulated institution may treat the following exposures as having separate obligors:
</P>
<P>(1) Exposures to the same legal entity or natural person denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An income-producing real estate exposure for which all or substantially all of the repayment of the exposure is reliant on the cash flows of the real estate serving as collateral for the exposure; the Board-regulated institution, in economic substance, does not have recourse to the borrower beyond the real estate collateral; and no cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place other than clauses obtained solely out of an abundance of caution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A wholesale exposure authorized under section 364 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 364) to a legal entity or natural person who is a debtor-in-possession for purposes of Chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss</I> means a loss (excluding insurance or tax effects) resulting from an operational loss event. Operational loss includes all expenses associated with an operational loss event except for opportunity costs, forgone revenue, and costs related to risk management and control enhancements implemented to prevent future operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss event</I> means an event that results in loss and is associated with any of the following seven operational loss event type categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act involving at least one internal party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent regulations, the law, or company policy excluding diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(2) External fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act by a third party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent the law. Retail credit card losses arising from non-contractual, third-party-initiated fraud (for example, identity theft) are external fraud operational losses. All other third-party-initiated credit losses are to be treated as credit risk losses.
</P>
<P>(3) Employment practices and workplace safety, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act inconsistent with employment, health, or safety laws or agreements, payment of personal injury claims, or payment arising from diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(4) Clients, products, and business practices, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the nature or design of a product or from an unintentional or negligent failure to meet a professional obligation to specific clients (including fiduciary and suitability requirements).
</P>
<P>(5) Damage to physical assets, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the loss of or damage to physical assets from natural disaster or other events.
</P>
<P>(6) Business disruption and system failures, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from disruption of business or system failures.
</P>
<P>(7) Execution, delivery, and process management, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from failed transaction processing or process management or losses arising from relations with trade counterparties and vendors.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk exposure</I> means the 99.9th percentile of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system over a one-year horizon (and not incorporating eligible operational risk offsets or qualifying operational risk mitigants).
</P>
<P><I>Other retail exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, an equity exposure, a residential mortgage exposure, a pre-sold construction loan, a qualifying revolving exposure, or the residual value portion of a lease exposure) that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and is either:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to an individual for non-business purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to an individual or company for business purposes if the Board-regulated institution's consolidated business credit exposure to the individual or company is $1 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Probability of default (PD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor, the Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the rating grade assigned by the Board-regulated institution to the obligor, capturing the average default experience for obligors in the rating grade over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the rating grade.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of non-defaulted retail exposures, the Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the exposures in the segment, capturing the average default experience for exposures in the segment over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, 100 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement</I> means a qualifying master netting agreement that provides for termination and close-out netting across multiple types of financial transactions or qualifying master netting agreements in the event of a counterparty's default, provided that the underlying financial transactions are OTC derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions. In order to treat an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution must comply with the requirements of § 217.3(c) of this part with respect to that agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying revolving exposure (QRE)</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) to an individual that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is revolving (that is, the amount outstanding fluctuates, determined largely by a borrower's decision to borrow and repay up to a pre-established maximum amount, except for an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month);
</P>
<P>(2) Is unsecured and unconditionally cancelable by the Board-regulated institution to the fullest extent permitted by Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Has a maximum contractual exposure amount (drawn plus undrawn) of up to $100,000; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a product with an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month, the total outstanding amount does not in practice exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(4) A segment of exposures that contains one or more exposures that fails to meet paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition must be treated as a segment of other retail exposures for the 24 month period following the month in which the total outstanding amount of one or more exposures individually exceeds $100,000.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure, a qualifying revolving exposure, or an other retail exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure subcategory</I> means the residential mortgage exposure, qualifying revolving exposure, or other retail exposure subcategory.
</P>
<P><I>Risk parameter</I> means a variable used in determining risk-based capital requirements for wholesale and retail exposures, specifically probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), exposure at default (EAD), or effective maturity (M).
</P>
<P><I>Scenario analysis</I> means a systematic process of obtaining expert opinions from business managers and risk management experts to derive reasoned assessments of the likelihood and loss impact of plausible high-severity operational losses. Scenario analysis may include the well-reasoned evaluation and use of external operational loss event data, adjusted as appropriate to ensure relevance to a Board-regulated institution's operational risk profile and control structure.
</P>
<P><I>Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets</I> means the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures that are not IMM exposures, cleared transactions, or default fund contributions to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for assets not defined by an exposure category;
</P>
<P>(4) Risk-weighted assets for non-material portfolios of exposures;
</P>
<P>(5) Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures (as determined in § 217.132(d));
</P>
<P>(6) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions (as determined in § 217.133); and
</P>
<P>(7) Risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions (as determined in § 217.136).
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected operational loss (UOL)</I> means the difference between the Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure and the Board-regulated institution's expected operational loss.
</P>
<P><I>Unit of measure</I> means the level (for example, organizational unit or operational loss event type) at which the Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system generates a separate distribution of potential operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure</I> means a credit exposure to a company, natural person, sovereign, or governmental entity (other than a securitization exposure, retail exposure, pre-sold construction loan, or equity exposure).
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure subcategory</I> means the HVCRE or non-HVCRE wholesale exposure subcategory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.102-217.120" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.102-217.120   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Qualification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.121" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.121   Qualification process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that is described in § 217.100(b)(1)(i) and (ii) must adopt a written implementation plan no later than six months after the date the Board-regulated institution meets a criterion in that section. The implementation plan must incorporate an explicit start date no later than 36 months after the date the Board-regulated institution meets at least one criterion under § 217.100(b)(1)(i) and (ii). The Board may extend the start date.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that elects to be subject to this subpart under § 217.101(b)(1)(iii) must adopt a written implementation plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation plan.</I> (1) The Board-regulated institution's implementation plan must address in detail how the Board-regulated institution complies, or plans to comply, with the qualification requirements in § 217.122. The Board-regulated institution also must maintain a comprehensive and sound planning and governance process to oversee the implementation efforts described in the plan. At a minimum, the plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comprehensively address the qualification requirements in § 217.122 for the Board-regulated institution and each consolidated subsidiary (U.S. and foreign-based) of the Board-regulated institution with respect to all portfolios and exposures of the Board-regulated institution and each of its consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Justify and support any proposed temporary or permanent exclusion of business lines, portfolios, or exposures from the application of the advanced approaches in this subpart (which business lines, portfolios, and exposures must be, in the aggregate, immaterial to the Board-regulated institution);
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the Board-regulated institution's self-assessment of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's current status in meeting the qualification requirements in § 217.122; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consistency of the Board-regulated institution's current practices with the Board's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Based on the Board-regulated institution's self-assessment, identify and describe the areas in which the Board-regulated institution proposes to undertake additional work to comply with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 or to improve the consistency of the Board-regulated institution's current practices with the Board's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements (gap analysis);
</P>
<P>(v) Describe what specific actions the Board-regulated institution will take to address the areas identified in the gap analysis required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify objective, measurable milestones, including delivery dates and a date when the Board-regulated institution's implementation of the methodologies described in this subpart will be fully operational;
</P>
<P>(vii) Describe resources that have been budgeted and are available to implement the plan; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Receive approval of the Board-regulated institution's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must submit the implementation plan, together with a copy of the minutes of the board of directors' approval, to the Board at least 60 days before the Board-regulated institution proposes to begin its parallel run, unless the Board waives prior notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parallel run.</I> Before determining its risk-weighted assets under this subpart and following adoption of the implementation plan, the Board-regulated institution must conduct a satisfactory parallel run. A satisfactory parallel run is a period of no less than four consecutive calendar quarters during which the Board-regulated institution complies with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 to the satisfaction of the Board. During the parallel run, the Board-regulated institution must report to the Board on a calendar quarterly basis its risk-based capital ratios determined in accordance with § 217.10(b)(1) through (3) and § 217.10(d)(1) through (3). During this period, the Board-regulated institution's minimum risk-based capital ratios are determined as set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval to calculate risk-based capital requirements under this subpart.</I> The Board will notify the Board-regulated institution of the date that the Board-regulated institution must begin to use this subpart for purposes of § 217.10 if the Board determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution fully complies with all the qualification requirements in § 217.122;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution has conducted a satisfactory parallel run under paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution has an adequate process to ensure ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in § 217.122.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62288, Oct. 11, 2013; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.122" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.122   Qualification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process and systems requirements.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The systems and processes used by a Board-regulated institution for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart must be consistent with the Board-regulated institution's internal risk management processes and management information reporting systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Board-regulated institution must have an appropriate infrastructure with risk measurement and management processes that meet the qualification requirements of this section and are appropriate given the Board-regulated institution's size and level of complexity. Regardless of whether the systems and models that generate the risk parameters necessary for calculating a Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirements are located at any affiliate of the Board-regulated institution, the Board-regulated institution itself must ensure that the risk parameters and reference data used to determine its risk-based capital requirements are representative of long run experience with respect to its own credit risk and operational risk exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk rating and segmentation systems for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1)(i) A Board-regulated institution must have an internal risk rating and segmentation system that accurately, reliably, and meaningfully differentiates among degrees of credit risk for the Board-regulated institution's wholesale and retail exposures. When assigning an internal risk rating, a Board-regulated institution may consider a third-party assessment of credit risk, provided that the Board-regulated institution's internal risk rating assignment does not rely solely on the external assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Board-regulated institution uses multiple rating or segmentation systems, the Board-regulated institution's rationale for assigning an obligor or exposure to a particular system must be documented and applied in a manner that best reflects the obligor or exposure's level of risk. A Board-regulated institution must not inappropriately allocate obligors or exposures across systems to minimize regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In assigning ratings to wholesale obligors and exposures, including loss severity ratings grades to wholesale exposures, and assigning retail exposures to retail segments, a Board-regulated institution must use all relevant and material information and ensure that the information is current.
</P>
<P>(iv) When assigning an obligor to a PD rating or retail exposure to a PD segment, a Board-regulated institution must assess the obligor or retail borrower's ability and willingness to contractually perform, taking a conservative view of projected information.
</P>
<P>(2) For wholesale exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each obligor to a single rating grade (reflecting the obligor's likelihood of default). A Board-regulated institution may elect, however, not to assign to a rating grade an obligor to whom the Board-regulated institution extends credit based solely on the financial strength of a guarantor, provided that all of the Board-regulated institution's exposures to the obligor are fully covered by eligible guarantees, the Board-regulated institution applies the PD substitution approach in § 217.134(c)(1) to all exposures to that obligor, and the Board-regulated institution immediately assigns the obligor to a rating grade if a guarantee can no longer be recognized under this part. The Board-regulated institution's wholesale obligor rating system must have at least seven discrete rating grades for non-defaulted obligors and at least one rating grade for defaulted obligors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the Board-regulated institution has chosen to directly assign LGD estimates to each wholesale exposure, the Board-regulated institution must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each wholesale exposure to a loss severity rating grade (reflecting the Board-regulated institution's estimate of the LGD of the exposure). A Board-regulated institution employing loss severity rating grades must have a sufficiently granular loss severity grading system to avoid grouping together exposures with widely ranging LGDs.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must have an effective process to obtain and update in a timely manner relevant and material information on obligor and exposure characteristics that affect PD, LGD and EAD.
</P>
<P>(3) For retail exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution must have an internal system that groups retail exposures into the appropriate retail exposure subcategory and groups the retail exposures in each retail exposure subcategory into separate segments with homogeneous risk characteristics that provide a meaningful differentiation of risk. The Board-regulated institution's system must identify and group in separate segments by subcategories exposures identified in § 217.131(c)(2)(ii) and (iii).
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must have an internal system that captures all relevant exposure risk characteristics, including borrower credit score, product and collateral types, as well as exposure delinquencies, and must consider cross-collateral provisions, where present.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution must review and, if appropriate, update assignments of individual retail exposures to segments and the loss characteristics and delinquency status of each identified risk segment. These reviews must occur whenever the Board-regulated institution receives new material information, but generally no less frequently than quarterly, and, in all cases, at least annually.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution's internal risk rating policy for wholesale exposures must describe the Board-regulated institution's rating philosophy (that is, must describe how wholesale obligor rating assignments are affected by the Board-regulated institution's choice of the range of economic, business, and industry conditions that are considered in the obligor rating process).
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution's internal risk rating system for wholesale exposures must provide for the review and update (as appropriate) of each obligor rating and (if applicable) each loss severity rating whenever the Board-regulated institution obtains relevant and material information on the obligor or exposure that affects PD, LGD and EAD, but no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantification of risk parameters for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1) The Board-regulated institution must have a comprehensive risk parameter quantification process that produces accurate, timely, and reliable estimates of the risk parameters on a consistent basis for the Board-regulated institution's wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution's estimates of PD, LGD, and EAD must incorporate all relevant, material, and available data that is reflective of the Board-regulated institution's actual wholesale and retail exposures and of sufficient quality to support the determination of risk-based capital requirements for the exposures. In particular, the population of exposures in the data used for estimation purposes, the lending standards in use when the data were generated, and other relevant characteristics, should closely match or be comparable to the Board-regulated institution's exposures and standards. In addition, a Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that its estimates are representative of long run experience, including periods of economic downturn conditions, whether internal or external data are used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into account any changes in lending practice or the process for pursuing recoveries over the observation period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reflect technical advances, new data, and other information as they become available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that the data used to estimate risk parameters support the accuracy and robustness of those estimates; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate that its estimation technique performs well in out-of-sample tests whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution's risk parameter quantification process must produce appropriately conservative risk parameter estimates where the Board-regulated institution has limited relevant data, and any adjustments that are part of the quantification process must not result in a pattern of bias toward lower risk parameter estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution's risk parameter estimation process should not rely on the possibility of U.S. government financial assistance, except for the financial assistance that the U.S. government has a legally binding commitment to provide.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must be able to demonstrate which variables have been found to be statistically significant with regard to EAD. The Board-regulated institution's EAD estimates must reflect its specific policies and strategies with regard to account management, including account monitoring and payment processing, and its ability and willingness to prevent further drawdowns in circumstances short of payment default. The Board-regulated institution must have adequate systems and procedures in place to monitor current outstanding amounts against committed lines, and changes in outstanding amounts per obligor and obligor rating grade and per retail segment. The Board-regulated institution must be able to monitor outstanding amounts on a daily basis.
</P>
<P>(6) At a minimum, PD estimates for wholesale obligors and retail segments must be based on at least five years of default data. LGD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of loss severity data, and LGD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of loss severity data. EAD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of exposure amount data, and EAD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of exposure amount data. If the Board-regulated institution has relevant and material reference data that span a longer period of time than the minimum time periods specified above, the Board-regulated institution must incorporate such data in its estimates, provided that it does not place undue weight on periods of favorable or benign economic conditions relative to periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Default, loss severity, and exposure amount data must include periods of economic downturn conditions, or the Board-regulated institution must adjust its estimates of risk parameters to compensate for the lack of data from periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(8) The Board-regulated institution's PD, LGD, and EAD estimates must be based on the definition of default in § 217.101.
</P>
<P>(9) If a Board-regulated institution uses internal data obtained prior to becoming subject to this subpart E or external data to arrive at PD, LGD, or EAD estimates, the Board-regulated institution must demonstrate to the Board that the Board-regulated institution has made appropriate adjustments if necessary to be consistent with the definition of default in § 217.101. Internal data obtained after the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this subpart E must be consistent with the definition of default in § 217.101.
</P>
<P>(10) The Board-regulated institution must review and update (as appropriate) its risk parameters and its risk parameter quantification process at least annually.
</P>
<P>(11) The Board-regulated institution must, at least annually, conduct a comprehensive review and analysis of reference data to determine relevance of the reference data to the Board-regulated institution's exposures, quality of reference data to support PD, LGD, and EAD estimates, and consistency of reference data to the definition of default in § 217.101.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk model.</I> A Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior written approval of the Board under § 217.132 to use the internal models methodology for counterparty credit risk and the advanced CVA approach for the CVA capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Double default treatment.</I> A Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior written approval of the Board under § 217.135 to use the double default treatment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equity exposures model.</I> A Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior written approval of the Board under § 217.153 to use the internal models approach for equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Operational risk.</I> (1) Operational risk management processes. A Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have an operational risk management function that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is independent of business line management; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is responsible for designing, implementing, and overseeing the Board-regulated institution's operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and related processes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have and document a process (which must capture business environment and internal control factors affecting the Board-regulated institution's operational risk profile) to identify, measure, monitor, and control operational risk in the Board-regulated institution's products, activities, processes, and systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report operational risk exposures, operational loss events, and other relevant operational risk information to business unit management, senior management, and the board of directors (or a designated committee of the board).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operational risk data and assessment systems.</I> A Board-regulated institution must have operational risk data and assessment systems that capture operational risks to which the Board-regulated institution is exposed. The Board-regulated institution's operational risk data and assessment systems must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be structured in a manner consistent with the Board-regulated institution's current business activities, risk profile, technological processes, and risk management processes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Include credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable processes that incorporate the following elements on an ongoing basis:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Internal operational loss event data.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a systematic process for capturing and using internal operational loss event data in its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Board-regulated institution's operational risk data and assessment systems must include a historical observation period of at least five years for internal operational loss event data (or such shorter period approved by the Board to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Board-regulated institution must be able to map its internal operational loss event data into the seven operational loss event type categories.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Board-regulated institution may refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts if the Board-regulated institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the thresholds are reasonable, do not exclude important internal operational loss event data, and permit the Board-regulated institution to capture substantially all the dollar value of the Board-regulated institution's operational losses.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>External operational loss event data.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating external operational loss event data into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Scenario analysis.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating scenario analysis into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Business environment and internal control factors.</I> The Board-regulated institution must incorporate business environment and internal control factors into its operational risk data and assessment systems. The Board-regulated institution must also periodically compare the results of its prior business environment and internal control factor assessments against its actual operational losses incurred in the intervening period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operational risk quantification systems.</I> (i) The Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification systems:
</P>
<P>(A) Must generate estimates of the Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure using its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Must employ a unit of measure that is appropriate for the Board-regulated institution's range of business activities and the variety of operational loss events to which it is exposed, and that does not combine business activities or operational loss events with demonstrably different risk profiles within the same loss distribution;
</P>
<P>(C) Must include a credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable approach for weighting each of the four elements, described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, that a Board-regulated institution is required to incorporate into its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(D) May use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure if the Board-regulated institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that its process for estimating dependence is sound, robust to a variety of scenarios, and implemented with integrity, and allows for uncertainty surrounding the estimates. If the Board-regulated institution has not made such a demonstration, it must sum operational risk exposure estimates across units of measure to calculate its total operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(E) Must be reviewed and updated (as appropriate) whenever the Board-regulated institution becomes aware of information that may have a material effect on the Board-regulated institution's estimate of operational risk exposure, but the review and update must occur no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) With the prior written approval of the Board, a state member bank may generate an estimate of its operational risk exposure using an alternative approach to that specified in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section. A state member bank proposing to use such an alternative operational risk quantification system must submit a proposal to the Board. In determining whether to approve a state member bank's proposal to use an alternative operational risk quantification system, the Board will consider the following principles:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of the alternative operational risk quantification system will be allowed only on an exception basis, considering the size, complexity, and risk profile of the state member bank;
</P>
<P>(B) The state member bank must demonstrate that its estimate of its operational risk exposure generated under the alternative operational risk quantification system is appropriate and can be supported empirically; and
</P>
<P>(C) A state member bank must not use an allocation of operational risk capital requirements that includes entities other than depository institutions or the benefits of diversification across entities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Data management and maintenance.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must have data management and maintenance systems that adequately support all aspects of its advanced systems and the timely and accurate reporting of risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must retain data using an electronic format that allows timely retrieval of data for analysis, validation, reporting, and disclosure purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must retain sufficient data elements related to key risk drivers to permit adequate monitoring, validation, and refinement of its advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The Board-regulated institution's senior management must ensure that all components of the Board-regulated institution's advanced systems function effectively and comply with the qualification requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually review the effectiveness of, and approve, the Board-regulated institution's advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must have an effective system of controls and oversight that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the integrity, reliability, and accuracy of the Board-regulated institution's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes adequate governance and project management processes.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must validate, on an ongoing basis, its advanced systems. The Board-regulated institution's validation process must be independent of the advanced systems' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the advanced systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must have an internal audit function or equivalent function that is independent of business-line management that at least annually:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviews the Board-regulated institution's advanced systems and associated operations, including the operations of its credit function and estimations of PD, LGD, and EAD;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Board-regulated institution's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents and reports its findings to the Board-regulated institution's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(6) The Board-regulated institution must periodically stress test its advanced systems. The stress testing must include a consideration of how economic cycles, especially downturns, affect risk-based capital requirements (including migration across rating grades and segments and the credit risk mitigation benefits of double default treatment).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Documentation.</I> The Board-regulated institution must adequately document all material aspects of its advanced systems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62289, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 41419, July 15, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.123" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.123   Ongoing qualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes to advanced systems.</I> A Board-regulated institution must meet all the qualification requirements in § 217.122 on an ongoing basis. A Board-regulated institution must notify the Board when the Board-regulated institution makes any change to an advanced system that would result in a material change in the Board-regulated institution's advanced approaches total risk-weighted asset amount for an exposure type or when the Board-regulated institution makes any significant change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with qualification requirements.</I> (1) If the Board determines that a Board-regulated institution that uses this subpart and that has conducted a satisfactory parallel run fails to comply with the qualification requirements in § 217.122, the Board will notify the Board-regulated institution in writing of the Board-regulated institution's failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must establish and submit a plan satisfactory to the Board to return to compliance with the qualification requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, if the Board determines that the Board-regulated institution's advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the Board-regulated institution's credit, market, operational, or other risks, the Board may require such a Board-regulated institution to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with any modifications provided by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.124" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.124   Merger and acquisition transitional arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies without advanced systems.</I> If a Board-regulated institution merges with or acquires a company that does not calculate its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the Board-regulated institution may use subpart D of this part to determine the risk-weighted asset amounts for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the merger or acquisition consummates. The Board may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the Board-regulated institution must submit to the Board an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the acquired company. During the period in which subpart D of this part applies to the merged or acquired company, any ALLL or AACL, as applicable, net of allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the acquiring Board-regulated institution's tier 2 capital up to 1.25 percent of the acquired company's risk-weighted assets. All general allowances of the merged or acquired company must be excluded from the Board-regulated institution's eligible credit reserves. In addition, the risk-weighted assets of the merged or acquired company are not included in the Board-regulated institution's credit-risk-weighted assets but are included in total risk-weighted assets. If a Board-regulated institution relies on this paragraph (a), the Board-regulated institution must disclose publicly the amounts of risk-weighted assets and qualifying capital calculated under this subpart for the acquiring Board-regulated institution and under subpart D of this part for the acquired company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies with advanced systems.</I> (1) If a Board-regulated institution merges with or acquires a company that calculates its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the Board-regulated institution may use the acquired company's advanced systems to determine total risk-weighted assets for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the acquisition or merger consummates. The Board may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the Board-regulated institution must submit to the Board an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the merged or acquired company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquiring Board-regulated institution is not subject to the advanced approaches in this subpart at the time of acquisition or merger, during the period when subpart D of this part applies to the acquiring Board-regulated institution, the ALLL or AACL, as applicable, associated with the exposures of the merged or acquired company may not be directly included in tier 2 capital. Rather, any excess eligible credit reserves associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the Board-regulated institution's tier 2 capital up to 0.6 percent of the credit-risk-weighted assets associated with those exposures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.125-217.130" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.125-217.130   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.131" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.131   Mechanics for calculating total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> A Board-regulated institution must calculate its total wholesale and retail risk-weighted asset amount in four distinct phases:
</P>
<P>(1) Phase 1—categorization of exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Phase 2—assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and segmentation of retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Phase 3—assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) Phase 4—calculation of risk-weighted asset amounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phase 1—Categorization.</I> The Board-regulated institution must determine which of its exposures are wholesale exposures, retail exposures, securitization exposures, or equity exposures. The Board-regulated institution must categorize each retail exposure as a residential mortgage exposure, a QRE, or another retail exposure. The Board-regulated institution must identify which wholesale exposures are HVCRE exposures, sovereign exposures, OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, eligible purchased wholesale exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, and unsettled transactions to which § 217.136 applies, and eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives that are used as credit risk mitigants. The Board-regulated institution must identify any on-balance sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, equity, or securitization exposure, any non-material portfolio of exposures described in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, and for bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, any on-balance sheet asset that is held in a non-guaranteed separate account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Phase 2—Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and retail exposures to segments</I>—(1) <I>Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution must assign each obligor of a wholesale exposure to a single obligor rating grade and must assign each wholesale exposure to which it does not directly assign an LGD estimate to a loss severity rating grade.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must identify which of its wholesale obligors are in default.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Segmentation of retail exposures.</I> (i) The Board-regulated institution must group the retail exposures in each retail subcategory into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must identify which of its retail exposures are in default. The Board-regulated institution must segment defaulted retail exposures separately from non-defaulted retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board-regulated institution determines the EAD for eligible margin loans using the approach in § 217.132(b), the Board-regulated institution must identify which of its retail exposures are eligible margin loans for which the Board-regulated institution uses this EAD approach and must segment such eligible margin loans separately from other retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution may group its eligible purchased wholesale exposures into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics. A Board-regulated institution must use the wholesale exposure formula in Table 1 of this section to determine the risk-based capital requirement for each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Phase 3—Assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures</I>—(1) <I>Quantification process.</I> Subject to the limitations in this paragraph (d), the Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Associate a PD with each wholesale obligor rating grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Associate an LGD with each wholesale loss severity rating grade or assign an LGD to each wholesale exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assign an EAD and M to each wholesale exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assign a PD, LGD, and EAD to each segment of retail exposures. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Floor on PD assignment.</I> The PD for each wholesale obligor or retail segment may not be less than 0.03 percent, except for exposures to or directly and unconditionally guaranteed by a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Commission, the European Central Bank, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or a multilateral development bank, to which the Board-regulated institution assigns a rating grade associated with a PD of less than 0.03 percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floor on LGD estimation.</I> The LGD for each segment of residential mortgage exposures may not be less than 10 percent, except for segments of residential mortgage exposures for which all or substantially all of the principal of each exposure is either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign entity; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Guaranteed by a contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a PD, LGD, EAD, and M to each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures. If the Board-regulated institution can estimate ECL (but not PD or LGD) for a segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the LGD of the segment equals 100 percent and that the PD of the segment equals ECL divided by EAD. The estimated ECL must be calculated for the exposures without regard to any assumption of recourse or guarantees from the seller or other parties. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Credit risk mitigation: credit derivatives, guarantees, and collateral.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives in support of a wholesale exposure by applying the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment to the exposure as provided in § 217.134 or, if applicable, applying double default treatment to the exposure as provided in § 217.135. A Board-regulated institution may decide separately for each wholesale exposure that qualifies for the double default treatment under § 217.135 whether to apply the double default treatment or to use the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment without recognizing double default effects. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of guarantees and credit derivatives in support of retail exposures in a segment when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In doing so, a Board-regulated institution must consider all relevant available information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of a wholesale exposure when quantifying the LGD of the exposure, and may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of retail exposures when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In order to do so, a Board-regulated institution must have established internal requirements for collateral management, legal certainty, and risk management processes. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>EAD for OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</I> A Board-regulated institution must calculate its EAD for an OTC derivative contract as provided in § 217.132 (c) and (d). A Board-regulated institution may take into account the risk-reducing effects of financial collateral in support of a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan and of any collateral in support of a repo-style transaction that is included in the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part through an adjustment to EAD as provided in § 217.132(b) and (d). A Board-regulated institution that takes collateral into account through such an adjustment to EAD under § 217.132 may not reflect such collateral in LGD. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Effective maturity.</I> An exposure's M must be no greater than five years and no less than one year, except that an exposure's M must be no less than one day if the exposure is a trade related letter of credit, or if the exposure has an original maturity of less than one year and is not part of a Board-regulated institution's ongoing financing of the obligor. An exposure is not part of a Board-regulated institution's ongoing financing of the obligor if the Board-regulated institution: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a legal and practical ability not to renew or roll over the exposure in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes an independent credit decision at the inception of the exposure and at every renewal or roll over; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has no substantial commercial incentive to continue its credit relationship with the obligor in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>EAD for exposures to certain central counterparties.</I> A Board-regulated institution may attribute an EAD of zero to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange, and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Phase 4—Calculation of risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>Non-defaulted exposures.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must calculate the dollar risk-based capital requirement for each of its wholesale exposures to a non-defaulted obligor (except for eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives that hedge another wholesale exposure, IMM exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions, and exposures to which the Board-regulated institution applies the double default treatment in § 217.135) and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures by inserting the assigned risk parameters for the wholesale obligor and exposure or retail segment into the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 and multiplying the output of the formula (K) by the EAD of the exposure or segment. Alternatively, a Board-regulated institution may apply a 300 percent risk weight to the EAD of an eligible margin loan if the Board-regulated institution is not able to meet the Board's requirements for estimation of PD and LGD for the margin loan. 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.029.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor and segment of non-defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and in § 217.135(e) equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures</I>—(i) <I>Not covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals 0.08 multiplied by the EAD of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and each segment of defaulted retail exposures covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.016, and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.08.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section plus the dollar risk-based capital requirements each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and for each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments.
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assets not included in a defined exposure category.</I> (i) A bank holding company or savings and loan holding company may assign a risk-weighted asset amount of zero to cash owned and held in all offices of subsidiary depository institutions or in transit; and for gold bullion held in a subsidiary depository institution's own vaults, or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank may assign a risk-weighted asset amount to cash owned and held in all offices of the state member bank or in transit and for gold bullion held in the state member bank's own vaults, or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to 50 percent of the carrying value to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case a Board-regulated institution must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to a 100 percent of the carrying value of the pre-sold construction loan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The risk-weighted asset amount for the residual value of a retail lease exposure equals such residual value.
</P>
<P>(v) The risk-weighted asset amount for DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Board-regulated institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks equals the carrying value, netted in accordance with § 217.22.
</P>
<P>(vi) The risk-weighted asset amount for MSAs, DTAs arising from temporary timing differences that the Board-regulated institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, and significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted pursuant to § 217.22(d) equals the amount not subject to deduction multiplied by 250 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) The risk-weighted asset amount for any other on-balance-sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, IMM, or equity exposure, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution and is not subject to deduction under § 217.22(a), (c), or (d) equals the carrying value of the asset.
</P>
<P>(viii) The risk-weighted asset amount for a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)) equals zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-material portfolios of exposures.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount of a portfolio of exposures for which the Board-regulated institution has demonstrated to the Board's satisfaction that the portfolio (when combined with all other portfolios of exposures that the Board-regulated institution seeks to treat under this paragraph (e)) is not material to the Board-regulated institution is the sum of the carrying values of on-balance sheet exposures plus the notional amounts of off-balance sheet exposures in the portfolio. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4), the notional amount of an OTC derivative contract that is not a credit derivative is the EAD of the derivative as calculated in § 217.132.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assets held in non-guaranteed separate accounts.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for an on-balance sheet asset that is held in a non-guaranteed separate account is zero percent of the carrying value of the asset.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62289, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 41420, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35268, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.132" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.132   Counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methodologies for collateral recognition.</I> (1) Instead of an LGD estimation methodology, a Board-regulated institution may use the following methodologies to recognize the benefits of financial collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized OTC derivative contracts and single product netting sets of such transactions, and to recognize the benefits of any collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions that are included in a Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The internal models methodology set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For single product netting sets of repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans, the simple VaR methodology set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution may use any combination of the three methodologies for collateral recognition; however, it must use the same methodology for transactions in the same category.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must use the methodology in paragraph (c) of this section, or with prior written approval of the Board, the internal model methodology in paragraph (d) of this section, to calculate EAD for an OTC derivative contract or a set of OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. To estimate EAD for qualifying cross-product master netting agreements, a Board-regulated institution may only use the internal models methodology in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) A Board-regulated institution must also use the methodology in paragraph (e) of this section to calculate the risk-weighted asset amounts for CVA for OTC derivatives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EAD for eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or single-product netting set of such transactions by factoring the collateral into its LGD estimates for the exposure. Alternatively, a Board-regulated institution may estimate an unsecured LGD for the exposure, as well as for any repo-style transaction that is included in the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part, and determine the EAD of the exposure using:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) For netting sets only, the simple VaR methodology described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(i) <I>EAD equation.</I> A Board-regulated institution may determine EAD for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or netting set by setting EAD equal to max 
</P>
<FP-2>{0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + Σ(E<E T="52">s</E> × H<E T="52">s</E>) + Σ(E<E T="52">fx</E> × H<E T="52">fx</E>)]}, 
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(A) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(B) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(C) E<E T="52">s</E> equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in a given instrument or in gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) H<E T="52">s</E> equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in E<E T="52">s</E>;
</P>
<P>(E) E<E T="52">fx</E> equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(F) H<E T="52">fx</E> equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in E<E T="52">fx</E> and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (A) Under the standard supervisory haircuts approach:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A Board-regulated institution must use the haircuts for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 217.132, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of § 217.132;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.132—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup> 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on: 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 217.132 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk
<br/>weight under § 217.132
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 are based on a 10 business-day holding period. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight. </P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For currency mismatches, a Board-regulated institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a Board-regulated institution may multiply the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the Board-regulated institution determines that a longer holding period is appropriate for client-facing derivative transactions, then it must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for the longer holding period pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days (for eligible margin loans) or five business days (for repo-style transactions), using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>) apply. If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when a Board-regulated institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 217.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, a Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted longer than the holding period, then the Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a minimum holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) A Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days for collateral associated with derivative contracts (five business days for client-facing derivative contracts) using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) apply. For collateral associated with a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, a Board-regulated institution must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, a Board-regulated institution must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section, for collateral associated with a derivative contract in a netting set under which more than two margin disputes that lasted longer than the holding period occurred during the two previous quarters, the minimum holding period is twice the amount provided under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A Board-regulated institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward, pursuant to the adjustments provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section, using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.025.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hs equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ts equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the instrument a Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the Board-regulated institution must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (Hs). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may calculate haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E> and H<E T="52">fx</E>) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates. 
</P>
<P>(A) To receive Board approval to use its own internal estimates, a Board-regulated institution must satisfy the following minimum quantitative standards: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A Board-regulated institution must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section applies. When a Board-regulated institution calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.031.gif"/>
<P>(<I>i</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans; 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the Board-regulated institution to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E>
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when a Board-regulated institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 217.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A Board-regulated institution is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A Board-regulated institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the Board-regulated institution's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior approval of the Board for, and notify the Board if the Board-regulated institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Nothing in this section prevents the Board from requiring a Board-regulated institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) A Board-regulated institution must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, a Board-regulated institution may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the Board-regulated institution must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, a Board-regulated institution must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(D) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the Board-regulated institution must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(E) A Board-regulated institution's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Simple VaR methodology.</I> With the prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may estimate EAD for a netting set using a VaR model that meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. In such event, the Board-regulated institution must set EAD equal to max {0, [(ΣE − ΣC) + PFE]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the netting set);
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Board-regulated institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the netting set); and
</P>
<P>(iii) PFE (potential future exposure) equals the Board-regulated institution's empirically based best estimate of the 99th percentile, one-tailed confidence interval for an increase in the value of (ΣE − ΣC) over a five-business-day holding period for repo-style transactions, or over a ten-business-day holding period for eligible margin loans except for netting sets for which paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section applies using a minimum one-year historical observation period of price data representing the instruments that the Board-regulated institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. The Board-regulated institution must validate its VaR model by establishing and maintaining a rigorous and regular backtesting regime.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a Board-regulated institution must use a twenty-business-day holding period for the following quarter (except when a Board-regulated institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 217.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, a Board-regulated institution must use a twenty-business-day holding period. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Board-regulated institution must set its PFE for that netting set equal to an estimate over a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>EAD for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Options for determining EAD.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine the EAD for a derivative contract using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) under paragraph (c)(5) of this section or using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. If a Board-regulated institution elects to use SA-CCR for one or more derivative contracts, the exposure amount determined under SA-CCR is the EAD for the derivative contract or derivatives contracts. A Board-regulation institution must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and may change its election only with prior approval of the Board. A Board-regulated institution may reduce the EAD calculated according to paragraph (c)(5) of this section by the credit valuation adjustment that the Board-regulated institution has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), the credit valuation adjustment does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the Board-regulated institution's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>End date</I> means the last date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references another instrument, by the underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Start date</I> means the first date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references the value of another instrument, by underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hedging set</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to interest rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same reference currency;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to exchange rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same currency pair;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to credit derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to equity derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(E) With respect to a commodity derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of the following commodity categories: Energy, metal, agricultural, or other commodities;
</P>
<P>(F) With respect to basis derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same pair of risk factors and are denominated in the same currency; or
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to volatility derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, separated according to the requirements under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) If the risk of a derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, the Board may require a Board-regulated institution to include the derivative contract in each appropriate hedging set under paragraphs (c)(1)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit derivatives.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 217.134 or § 217.135 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to calculate a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section so long as the Board-regulated institution does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that is the protection provider in a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as a wholesale exposure to the reference obligor and is not required to calculate a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this section, so long as it does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes all or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes (unless the Board-regulated institution is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the Board-regulated institution must calculate a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equity derivatives.</I> A Board-regulated institution must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 217.151-217.155 (unless the Board-regulated institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part). In addition, if the Board-regulated institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part, and under certain other circumstances described in § 217.155, the Board-regulated institution must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure amount.</I> (i) The exposure amount of a netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c) of this section, is equal to 1.4 multiplied by the sum of the replacement cost of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the variation margin agreement is not required to post variation margin, is equal to the lesser of the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section as if the netting set were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set that consists of only sold options in which the premiums have been fully paid by the counterparty to the options and where the options are not subject to a variation margin agreement is zero.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set in which the counterparty is a commercial end-user is equal to the sum of replacement cost, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a Board-regulated institution may elect to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, if the derivative contract is subject to a requirement that the counterparties make daily cash payments to each other to account for changes in the fair value of the derivative contract and to reduce the net position of the contract to zero. If a Board-regulated institution makes an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) for one derivative contract, it must treat all other derivative contracts within the same netting set that are eligible for an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) as derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(vi) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a Board-regulated institution may elect to treat a credit derivative contract, equity derivative contract, or commodity derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Replacement cost of a netting set</I>—(i) <I>Netting set subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the variation margin threshold and the minimum transfer amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set less the net independent collateral amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(C) Zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Netting sets not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set that is not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin to the Board-regulated institution is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(B) Zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Potential future exposure of a netting set.</I> The potential future exposure of a netting set is the product of the PFE multiplier and the aggregated amount.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>PFE multiplier.</I> The PFE multiplier is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.026.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>V is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A is the aggregated amount of the netting set.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregated amount.</I> The aggregated amount is the sum of all hedging set amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, within a netting set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 217.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 217.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging set amount</I>—(i) <I>Interest rate derivative contracts.</I> To calculate the hedging set amount of an interest rate derivative contract hedging set, a Board-regulated institution may use either of the formulas provided in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Formula 1 is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.027.gif"/>
<P>(B) Formula 2 is as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Hedging set amount =</I> |<I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB1</E>| + |<I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB2</E>| + |<I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB3</E>|.
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB1</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of less than one year from the present date;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB2</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of one to five years from the present date; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="53">IR</E><E T="54">TB3</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of more than five years from the present date.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exchange rate derivative contracts.</I> For an exchange rate derivative contract hedging set, the hedging set amount equals the absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Credit derivative contracts and equity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a credit derivative contract hedging set or equity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.028.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each reference entity within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of reference entities within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Ref</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference entity <I>k</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ<E T="54">k</E> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Commodity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a commodity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.029.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each commodity type within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of commodity types within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Type</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference commodity type.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>ρ equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Basis derivative contracts and volatility derivative contracts.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must calculate a separate hedging set amount for each basis derivative contract hedging set and each volatility derivative contract hedging set. A Board-regulated institution must calculate such hedging set amounts using one of the formulas under paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) that corresponds to the primary risk factor of the hedging set being calculated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Adjusted derivative contract amount</I>—(i) <I>Summary.</I> To calculate the adjusted derivative contract amount of a derivative contract, a Board-regulated institution must determine the adjusted notional amount of derivative contract, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(ii) of this section, and multiply the adjusted notional amount by each of the supervisory delta adjustment, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iii) of this section, the maturity factor, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, and the applicable supervisory factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted notional amount.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount equals the product of the notional amount of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation, and the supervisory duration, as calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.013.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>S is the number of business days from the present day until the start date of the derivative contract, or zero if the start date has already passed; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E is the number of business days from the present day until the end date of the derivative contract.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or credit derivative contract that is a variable notional swap, the notional amount is equal to the time-weighted average of the contractual notional amounts of such a swap over the remaining life of the swap; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract that is a leveraged swap, in which the notional amount of all legs of the derivative contract are divided by a factor and all rates of the derivative contract are multiplied by the same factor, the notional amount is equal to the notional amount of an equivalent unleveraged swap.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an exchange rate derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the notional amount of the non-U.S. denominated currency leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation. If both legs of the exchange rate derivative contract are denominated in currencies other than U.S. dollars, the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract is the largest leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, for an exchange rate derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the Board-regulated institution must set the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract equal to the notional amount of the derivative contract multiplied by the number of exchanges of principal under the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the product of the fair value of one unit of the reference instrument underlying the derivative contract and the number of such units referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, when calculating the adjusted notional amount for an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract that is a volatility derivative contract, the Board-regulated institution must replace the unit price with the underlying volatility referenced by the volatility derivative contract and replace the number of units with the notional amount of the volatility derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Supervisory delta adjustments.</I> (A) For a derivative contract that is not an option contract or collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is 1 if the fair value of the derivative contract increases when the value of the primary risk factor increases and −1 if the fair value of the derivative contract decreases when the value of the primary risk factor increases.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is an option contract, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formulas, as applicable:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.031.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formulas in Table 2 to this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Φ is the standard normal cumulative distribution function;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) P equals the current fair value of the instrument or risk factor, as applicable, underlying the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) K equals the strike price of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) T equals the number of business days until the latest contractual exercise date of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) λ equals zero for all derivative contracts except interest rate options for the currencies where interest rates have negative values. The same value of λ must be used for all interest rate options that are denominated in the same currency. To determine the value of λ for a given currency, a Board-regulated institution must find the lowest value L of P and K of all interest rate options in a given currency that the Board-regulated institution has with all counterparties. Then, λ is set according to this formula:

λ = <I>max</I>{−<I>L</I> + 0.1%, 0}; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) σ equals the supervisory option volatility, as provided in Table 3 to this section.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is a collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.032.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formula in paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A is the attachment point, which equals the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n−1) notional amounts of the underlying exposures are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) D is the detachment point, which equals one minus the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are senior to the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The resulting amount is designated with a positive sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was purchased by the Board-regulated institution and is designated with a negative sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was sold by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maturity factor.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.033.gif"/>
<P>Where MPOR refers to the period from the most recent exchange of collateral covering a netting set of derivative contracts with a defaulting counterparty until the derivative contracts are closed out and the resulting market risk is re-hedged.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For a derivative contract that is not a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than ten business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a derivative contract that is a client-facing derivative transaction, cannot be less than five business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, or a netting set that contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, MPOR cannot be less than twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, for a netting set subject to more than two outstanding disputes over margin that lasted longer than the MPOR over the previous two quarters, the applicable floor is twice the amount provided in paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is not subject to a variation margin agreement, or derivative contracts under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.034.gif"/>
<P>Where M equals the greater of 10 business days and the remaining maturity of the contract, as measured in business days.
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, if a Board-regulated institution has elected pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, the Board-regulated institution must treat the derivative contract as subject to a variation margin agreement with maturity factor as determined according to (c)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, and daily settlement does not change the end date of the period referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derivative contract as multiple effective derivative contracts.</I> A Board-regulated institution must separate a derivative contract into separate derivative contracts, according to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(A) For an option where the counterparty pays a predetermined amount if the value of the underlying asset is above or below the strike price and nothing otherwise (binary option), the option must be treated as two separate options. For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B) of this section, a binary option with strike K must be represented as the combination of one bought European option and one sold European option of the same type as the original option (put or call) with the strikes set equal to 0.95 * K and 1.05 * K so that the payoff of the binary option is reproduced exactly outside the region between the two strikes. The absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts of the bought and sold options is capped at the payoff amount of the binary option.
</P>
<P>(B) For a derivative contract that can be represented as a combination of standard option payoffs (such as collar, butterfly spread, calendar spread, straddle, and strangle), a Board-regulated institution must treat each standard option component as a separate derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C) For a derivative contract that includes multiple-payment options, (such as interest rate caps and floors), a Board-regulated institution may represent each payment option as a combination of effective single-payment options (such as interest rate caplets and floorlets).
</P>
<P>(D) A Board-regulated institution may not decompose linear derivative contracts (such as swaps) into components.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(6) of this section, a Board-regulated institution shall assign a single replacement cost to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Replacement Cost = max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E><I>max</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E>; 0} − <I>max</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E>; 0}; 0} + <I>max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E><I>min</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E>; 0} − <I>min</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E>; 0}; 0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>NS is each netting set subject to the variation margin agreement MA;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">NS</E> is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set NS; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C<E T="52">MA</E> is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting sets subject to the single variation margin agreement.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5) of this section, a Board-regulated institution shall assign a single potential future exposure to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin equal to the sum of the potential future exposure of each such netting set, each calculated according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section as if such nettings sets were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> To calculate replacement cost for either a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, the calculation for replacement cost is provided under paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section, except that the variation margin threshold equals the sum of the variation margin thresholds of all variation margin agreements within the netting set and the minimum transfer amount equals the sum of the minimum transfer amounts of all the variation margin agreements within the netting set.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> (A) To calculate potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the derivative contract must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, a Board-regulated institution must divide the netting set into sub-netting sets (as described in paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B) of this section) and calculate the aggregated amount for each sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for the netting set is calculated as the sum of the aggregated amounts for the sub-netting sets. The multiplier is calculated for the entire netting set.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(A) of this section, the netting set must be divided into sub-netting sets as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are not subject to a variation margin agreement or that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are subject to variation margin agreements in which the counterparty must post variation margin and that share the same value of the MPOR form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is subject to a variation margin agreement, using the MPOR value shared by the derivative contracts within the netting set.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.132—Supervisory Option Volatility, Supervisory Correlation Parameters, and Supervisory Factors for Derivative Contracts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>option
<br/>volatility
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>correlation
<br/>factor
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>factor 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exchange rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electricity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The applicable supervisory factor for basis derivative contract hedging sets is equal to one-half of the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3, and the applicable supervisory factor for volatility derivative contract hedging sets is equal to 5 times the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Internal models methodology.</I> (1)(i) With prior written approval from the Board, a Board-regulated institution may use the internal models methodology in this paragraph (d) to determine EAD for counterparty credit risk for derivative contracts (collateralized or uncollateralized) and single-product netting sets thereof, for eligible margin loans and single-product netting sets thereof, and for repo-style transactions and single-product netting sets thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that uses the internal models methodology for a particular transaction type (derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions) must use the internal models methodology for all transactions of that transaction type. A Board-regulated institution may choose to use the internal models methodology for one or two of these three types of exposures and not the other types.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution may also use the internal models methodology for derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions subject to a qualifying cross-product netting agreement if:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution effectively integrates the risk mitigating effects of cross-product netting into its risk management and other information technology systems; and
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution obtains the prior written approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(iv) A Board-regulated institution that uses the internal models methodology for a transaction type must receive approval from the Board to cease using the methodology for that transaction type or to make a material change to its internal model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted assets using IMM.</I> Under the IMM, a Board-regulated institution uses an internal model to estimate the expected exposure (EE) for a netting set and then calculates EAD based on that EE. A Board-regulated institution must calculate two EEs and two EADs (one stressed and one unstressed) for each netting set as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on the most recent data meeting the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on a historical period that includes a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the Board-regulated institution's counterparties according to paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution must use its internal model's probability distribution for changes in the fair value of a netting set that are attributable to changes in market variables to determine EE; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Under the internal models methodology, EAD = Max (0, α × effective EPE − CVA), or, subject to the prior written approval of Board as provided in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, a more conservative measure of EAD.
</P>
<P>(A) CVA equals the credit valuation adjustment that the Board-regulated institution has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any OTC derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (d), CVA does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the Board-regulated institution's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.033.gif"/>
<P>(C) α = 1.4 except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, or when the Board has determined that the Board-regulated institution must set α higher based on the Board-regulated institution's specific characteristics of counterparty credit risk or model performance.
</P>
<P>(v) A Board-regulated institution may include financial collateral currently posted by the counterparty as collateral (but may not include other forms of collateral) when calculating EE.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a Board-regulated institution hedges some or all of the counterparty credit risk associated with a netting set using an eligible credit derivative, the Board-regulated institution may take the reduction in exposure to the counterparty into account when estimating EE. If the Board-regulated institution recognizes this reduction in exposure to the counterparty in its estimate of EE, it must also use its internal model to estimate a separate EAD for the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the protection provider of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prior approval relating to EAD calculation.</I> To obtain Board approval to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based, the Board-regulated institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that it has been using for at least one year an internal model that broadly meets the following minimum standards, with which the Board-regulated institution must maintain compliance:
</P>
<P>(i) The model must have the systems capability to estimate the expected exposure to the counterparty on a daily basis (but is not expected to estimate or report expected exposure on a daily basis);
</P>
<P>(ii) The model must estimate expected exposure at enough future dates to reflect accurately all the future cash flows of contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(iii) The model must account for the possible non-normality of the exposure distribution, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board-regulated institution must measure, monitor, and control current counterparty exposure and the exposure to the counterparty over the whole life of all contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(v) The Board-regulated institution must be able to measure and manage current exposures gross and net of collateral held, where appropriate. The Board-regulated institution must estimate expected exposures for OTC derivative contracts both with and without the effect of collateral agreements;
</P>
<P>(vi) The Board-regulated institution must have procedures to identify, monitor, and control wrong-way risk throughout the life of an exposure. The procedures must include stress testing and scenario analysis;
</P>
<P>(vii) The model must use current market data to compute current exposures. The Board-regulated institution must estimate model parameters using historical data from the most recent three-year period and update the data quarterly or more frequently if market conditions warrant. The Board-regulated institution should consider using model parameters based on forward-looking measures, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(viii) When estimating model parameters based on a stress period, the Board-regulated institution must use at least three years of historical data that include a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the Board-regulated institution's counterparties. The Board-regulated institution must review the data set and update the data as necessary, particularly for any material changes in its counterparties. The Board-regulated institution must demonstrate, at least quarterly, and maintain documentation of such demonstration, that the stress period coincides with increased CDS or other credit spreads of the Board-regulated institution's counterparties. The Board-regulated institution must have procedures to evaluate the effectiveness of its stress calibration that include a process for using benchmark portfolios that are vulnerable to the same risk factors as the Board-regulated institution's portfolio. The Board may require the Board-regulated institution to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(ix) A Board-regulated institution must subject its internal model to an initial validation and annual model review process. The model review should consider whether the inputs and risk factors, as well as the model outputs, are appropriate. As part of the model review process, the Board-regulated institution must have a backtesting program for its model that includes a process by which unacceptable model performance will be determined and remedied;
</P>
<P>(x) A Board-regulated institution must have policies for the measurement, management and control of collateral and margin amounts; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A Board-regulated institution must have a comprehensive stress testing program that captures all credit exposures to counterparties, and incorporates stress testing of principal market risk factors and creditworthiness of counterparties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculating the maturity of exposures.</I> (i) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is greater than one year, the Board-regulated institution must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to the lower of five years or M(EPE), where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.034.gif"/>
<P>(ii) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is one year or less, the Board-regulated institution must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to one year, except as provided in § 217.131(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternatively, a Board-regulated institution that uses an internal model to calculate a one-sided credit valuation adjustment may use the effective credit duration estimated by the model as M(EPE) in place of the formula in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effects of collateral agreements on EAD.</I> A Board-regulated institution may capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when exposure to the counterparty increases, but may not capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when counterparty credit quality deteriorates. Two methods are available to capture the effect of a collateral agreement, as set forth in paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) With prior written approval from the Board, a Board-regulated institution may include the effect of a collateral agreement within its internal model used to calculate EAD. The Board-regulated institution may set EAD equal to the expected exposure at the end of the margin period of risk. The margin period of risk means, with respect to a netting set subject to a collateral agreement, the time period from the most recent exchange of collateral with a counterparty until the next required exchange of collateral, plus the period of time required to sell and realize the proceeds of the least liquid collateral that can be delivered under the terms of the collateral agreement and, where applicable, the period of time required to re-hedge the resulting market risk upon the default of the counterparty. The minimum margin period of risk is set according to paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As an alternative to paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that can model EPE without collateral agreements but cannot achieve the higher level of modeling sophistication to model EPE with collateral agreements can set effective EPE for a collateralized netting set equal to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An add-on that reflects the potential increase in exposure of the netting set over the margin period of risk, plus the larger of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The current exposure of the netting set reflecting all collateral held or posted by the Board-regulated institution excluding any collateral called or in dispute; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The largest net exposure including all collateral held or posted under the margin agreement that would not trigger a collateral call. For purposes of this section, the add-on is computed as the expected increase in the netting set's exposure over the margin period of risk (set in accordance with paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(B) Effective EPE without a collateral agreement plus any collateral the Board-regulated institution posts to the counterparty that exceeds the required margin amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this part, including paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, the margin period of risk for a netting set subject to a collateral agreement is:
</P>
<P>(A) Five business days for repo-style transactions subject to daily remargining and daily marking-to-market, and ten business days for other transactions when liquid financial collateral is posted under a daily margin maintenance requirement, or
</P>
<P>(B) Twenty business days if the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during the previous quarter (except if the Board-regulated institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 217.133) or contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or any derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the margin period of risk, then the Board-regulated institution must use a margin period of risk for that netting set that is at least two times the minimum margin period of risk for that netting set. If the periodicity of the receipt of collateral is N-days, the minimum margin period of risk is the minimum margin period of risk under this paragraph (d) plus N minus 1. This period should be extended to cover any impediments to prompt re-hedging of any market risk.
</P>
<P>(C) Five business days for an OTC derivative contract or netting set of OTC derivative contracts where the Board-regulated institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the Board-regulated institution provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client. A Board-regulated institution must use a longer holding period if the Board-regulated institution determines that a longer period is appropriate. Additionally, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to set a longer holding period if the Board determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Own estimate of alpha.</I> With prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on EPE (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2. For purposes of this calculation, economic capital is the unexpected losses for all counterparty credit risks measured at a 99.9 percent confidence level over a one-year horizon. To receive approval, the Board-regulated institution must meet the following minimum standards to the satisfaction of the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution's own estimate of alpha must capture in the numerator the effects of:
</P>
<P>(A) The material sources of stochastic dependency of distributions of fair values of transactions or portfolios of transactions across counterparties;
</P>
<P>(B) Volatilities and correlations of market risk factors used in the joint simulation, which must be related to the credit risk factor used in the simulation to reflect potential increases in volatility or correlation in an economic downturn, where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(C) The granularity of exposures (that is, the effect of a concentration in the proportion of each counterparty's exposure that is driven by a particular risk factor).
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must assess the potential model uncertainty in its estimates of alpha.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution must calculate the numerator and denominator of alpha in a consistent fashion with respect to modeling methodology, parameter specifications, and portfolio composition.
</P>
<P>(iv) The Board-regulated institution must review and adjust as appropriate its estimates of the numerator and denominator of alpha on at least a quarterly basis and more frequently when the composition of the portfolio varies over time.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Risk-based capital requirements for transactions with specific wrong-way risk.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine if a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, bond option, or equity derivative contract or purchased credit derivative to which the Board-regulated institution applies the internal models methodology under this paragraph (d) has specific wrong-way risk. If a transaction has specific wrong-way risk, the Board-regulated institution must treat the transaction as its own netting set and exclude it from the model described in § 217.132(d)(2) and instead calculate the risk-based capital requirement for the transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity derivative contract, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum amount the Board-regulated institution could lose on the equity derivative.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a purchased credit derivative by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the reference asset of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a bond option, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The smaller of the notional amount of the underlying reference asset and the maximum potential loss under the bond option contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The EAD of the transaction determined according to the EAD equation in § 217.132(b)(2), substituting the estimated value of the collateral assuming a default of the counterparty for the value of the collateral in Σ<I>c</I> of the equation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk.</I> The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk is the sum of a Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for purchased credit derivatives that are not bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section, a Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for equity derivatives with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section, a Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iii) of this section, and a Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iv) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures.</I> (i) The Board-regulated institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the unstressed capital requirement for each netting set. A Board-regulated institution that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(3) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the unstressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each wholesale obligor and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the stressed capital requirement for each netting set. A Board-regulated institution that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(6) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the stressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">stressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement under the internal models methodology equals the larger of K<E T="52">unstressed</E> and K<E T="52">stressed</E>. A Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted assets amount for IMM exposures is equal to the capital requirement multiplied by 12.5, plus risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk in paragraph (d)(8) of this section and those in paragraph (d)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other measures of counterparty exposure.</I> (i) With prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may set EAD equal to a measure of counterparty credit risk exposure, such as peak EAD, that is more conservative than an alpha of 1.4 times the larger of EPE<E T="52">unstressed</E> and EPE<E T="52">stressed</E> for every counterparty whose EAD will be measured under the alternative measure of counterparty exposure. The Board-regulated institution must demonstrate the conservatism of the measure of counterparty credit risk exposure used for EAD. With respect to paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For material portfolios of new OTC derivative products, the Board-regulated institution may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section for a period not to exceed 180 days.
</P>
<P>(B) For immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the Board-regulated institution generally may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To calculate risk-weighted assets for purposes of the approach in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 217.131, multiply the output of the formula by the EAD for the exposure as specified above, and multiply by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to its OTC derivative contracts, a Board-regulated institution must calculate a CVA risk-weighted asset amount for its portfolio of OTC derivative transactions that are subject to the CVA capital requirement using the simple CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section or, with prior written approval of the Board, the advanced CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. A Board-regulated institution that receives prior Board approval to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach must continue to use that approach for that class of counterparties until it notifies the Board in writing that the Board-regulated institution expects to begin calculating its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach. Such notice must include an explanation of the Board-regulated institution's rationale and the date upon which the Board-regulated institution will begin to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market risk Board-regulated institutions.</I> Notwithstanding the prior approval requirement in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, a market risk Board-regulated institution may calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the advanced CVA approach if the Board-regulated institution has Board approval to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine EAD for OTC derivative contracts using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine its specific risk add-on for debt positions issued by the counterparty using a specific risk model described in § 217.207(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recognition of hedges.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution may recognize a single name CDS, single name contingent CDS, any other equivalent hedging instrument that references the counterparty directly, and index credit default swaps (CDS<E T="52">ind</E>) as a CVA hedge under paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section or paragraph (e)(6) of this section, provided that the position is managed as a CVA hedge in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's hedging policies.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution shall not recognize as a CVA hedge any tranched or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total CVA risk-weighted assets.</I> Total CVA risk-weighted assets is the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, calculated for a Board-regulated institution's entire portfolio of OTC derivative counterparties that are subject to the CVA capital requirement, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simple CVA approach.</I> (i) Under the simple CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.035.gif"/>
<P>(A) <I>w</I><E T="54">i</E> = the weight applicable to counterparty <I>i</I> under Table 4 to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> = the EAD-weighted average of the effective maturity of each netting set with counterparty <I>i</I> (where each netting set's effective maturity can be no less than one year.)
</P>
<P>(C) <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> = the sum of the EAD for all netting sets of OTC derivative contracts with counterparty <I>i</I> calculated using the standardized approach to counterparty credit risk described in paragraph (c) of this section or the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. When the Board-regulated institution calculates EAD under paragraph (c) of this section, such EAD may be adjusted for purposes of calculating <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> by multiplying EAD by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>), where “exp” is the exponential function. When the Board-regulated institution calculates EAD under paragraph (d) of this section, <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> equals <I>EAD</I><E T="54">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E> = the notional weighted average maturity of the hedge instrument.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> = the sum of the notional amounts of any purchased single name CDS referencing counterparty <I>i</I> that is used to hedge CVA risk to counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>M</I><E T="52">ind</E> = the maturity of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> or the notional weighted average maturity of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk of counterparty <I>i.</I>
</P>
<P>(G) <I>B</I><E T="54">ind</E> = the notional amount of one or more CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk for counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>)
</P>
<P>(H) <I>w</I><E T="54">ind</E> = the weight applicable to the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> based on the average weight of the underlying reference names that comprise the index under Table 4 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution may treat the notional amount of the index attributable to a counterparty as a single name hedge of counterparty <I>i</I> (<I>B</I><E T="54">i</E>,) when calculating K<E T="52">CVA</E>, and subtract the notional amount of <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> from the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind.</E> A Board-regulated institution must treat the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge with the notional amount reduced by <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> as a CVA hedge.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 217.132—Assignment of Counterparty Weight
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Internal PD
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight <E T="03">w</E><E T="54">i</E>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.070-0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.15-0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.40-2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;2.00-6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Advanced CVA approach.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution may use the VaR model that it uses to determine specific risk under § 217.207(b) or another VaR model that meets the quantitative requirements of § 217.205(b) and § 217.207(b)(1) to calculate its CVA capital requirement for a counterparty by modeling the impact of changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, together with any recognized CVA hedges, on the CVA for the counterparties, subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The VaR model must incorporate only changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, not changes in other risk factors. The VaR model does not need to capture jump-to-default risk;
</P>
<P>(B) A Board-regulated institution that qualifies to use the advanced CVA approach must include in that approach any immaterial OTC derivative portfolios for which it uses the standardized approach to counterparty credit risk in paragraph (c) of this section according to paragraph (e)(6)(viii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must have the systems capability to calculate the CVA capital requirement for a counterparty on a daily basis (but is not required to calculate the CVA capital requirement on a daily basis).
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the advanced CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formulas:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.037.gif"/>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<P>(A) <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> = the time of the <I>i</I>-th revaluation time bucket starting from <I>t</I><E T="54">0</E> = 0.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>t</I><E T="54">T</E> = the longest contractual maturity across the OTC derivative contracts with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>s</I><E T="54">i</E> = the CDS spread for the counterparty at tenor <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> used to calculate the CVA for the counterparty. If a CDS spread is not available, the Board-regulated institution must use a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry and region of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>LGD</I><E T="54">MKT</E> = the loss given default of the counterparty based on the spread of a publicly traded debt instrument of the counterparty, or, where a publicly traded debt instrument spread is not available, a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty. Where no market information and no reliable proxy based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty are available to determine LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, a Board-regulated institution may use a conservative estimate when determining LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, subject to approval by the Board.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> = the sum of the expected exposures for all netting sets with the counterparty at revaluation time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, calculated according to paragraphs (e)(6)(iv)(A) and (e)(6)(v)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>D</I><E T="54">i</E> = the risk-free discount factor at time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, where <I>D</I><E T="54">0</E> = 1.
</P>
<P>(G) Exp is the exponential function.
</P>
<P>(H) The subscript j refers either to a stressed or an unstressed calibration as described in paragraphs (e)(6)(iv) and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (e)(6)(ii) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must use the formulas in paragraphs (e)(6)(iii)(A) or (e)(6)(iii)(B) of this section to calculate credit spread sensitivities if its VaR model is not based on full repricing.
</P>
<P>(A) If the VaR model is based on credit spread sensitivities for specific tenors, the Board-regulated institution must calculate each credit spread sensitivity according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.039.gif"/>
<P>(iv) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Unstressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> calculated using the calibration of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section, except as provided in § 217.132(e)(6)(vi), and
</P>
<P>(B) Use the historical observation period required under § 217.205(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Stressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> calculated using the stress calibration in paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section except as provided in paragraph (e)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Calibrate VaR model inputs to historical data from the most severe twelve-month stress period contained within the three-year stress period used to calculate <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E>. The Board may require a Board-regulated institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the <I>CVA</I><E T="52">Stressed</E> measure.
</P>
<P>(vi) If a Board-regulated institution captures the effect of a collateral agreement on EAD using the method described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must calculate <I>EE</I><E T="52">i</E> using the method in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section and keep that EE constant with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set, and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<P>(vii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(6) of this section, the Board-regulated institution's VaR model must capture the basis between the spreads of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> that is used as the hedging instrument and the hedged counterparty exposure over various time periods, including benign and stressed environments. If the VaR model does not capture that basis, the Board-regulated institution must reflect only 50 percent of the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge in the VaR model.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a Board-regulated institution uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section to calculate the EAD for any immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the Board-regulated institution must use that EAD as a constant EE in the formula for the calculation of CVA with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41421, July 15, 2015; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57961, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.133" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.133   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client Board-regulated institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a Board-regulated institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 217.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the Board-regulated institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 217.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodology set forth in § 217.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the Board-regulated institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 217.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client Board-regulated institution must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the Board-regulated institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any loss to the clearing member client Board-regulated institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client Board-regulated institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent, if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client Board-regulated institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client Board-regulated institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member Board-regulated institution</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member Board-regulated institution must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 217.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member Board-regulated institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 217.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated under § 217.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Board-regulated institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member Board-regulated institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 217.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) A clearing member Board-regulated institution must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member Board-regulated institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP according to subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member Board-regulated institution may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP where the clearing member Board-regulated institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 217.3(a), and the clearing member Board-regulated institution is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the QCCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member Board-regulated institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the Board-regulated institution or the Board, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to nonqualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the Board, based on factors such as size, structure, and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital requirement for default fund contributions to a QCCP.</I> A clearing member Board-regulated institution's capital requirement for its default fund contribution to a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CM</E>) is equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.014.gif"/>
<P>(5) <I>Hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP.</I> Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, a Board-regulated institution must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d)(5), unless the Board-regulated institution determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP. The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E>), as determined by the Board-regulated institution, is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E> = Σ<E T="54">CMi</E> <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> * 1.6 percent
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>CM</I><E T="52">i</E> is each clearing member of the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member of the QCCP, as determined under paragraph (d)(6) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member.</I> (i) The EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member is equal to the sum of the EAD for derivative contracts determined under paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section and the EAD for repo-style transactions determined under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any derivative contracts between the QCCP and the clearing member that are cleared transactions and any guarantees that the clearing member has provided to the QCCP with respect to performance of a clearing member client on a derivative contract, the EAD is equal to the exposure amount of the QCCP to the clearing member for all such derivative contracts and guarantees of derivative contracts calculated under SA-CCR in § 217.132(c) (or, with respect to a QCCP located outside the United States, under a substantially identical methodology in effect in the jurisdiction) using a value of 10 business days for purposes of § 217.132(c)(9)(iv); less the value of all collateral held by the QCCP posted by the clearing member or a client of the clearing member in connection with a derivative contract for which the clearing member has provided a guarantee to the QCCP and the amount of the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to any repo-style transactions between the QCCP and a clearing member that are cleared transactions, EAD is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> = max{<I>EBRM</I><E T="54">i</E>−<I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E>−<I>DF</I><E T="54">i</E>;0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>EBRM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member for all repo-style transactions between the QCCP and the clearing member, as determined under § 217.132(b)(2) and without recognition of the initial margin collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions or the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member institution to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the initial margin collateral posted by each clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>DF</I><E T="54">i</E> is the prefunded default fund contribution of each clearing member to the QCCP that is not already deducted in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) EAD must be calculated separately for each clearing member's sub-client accounts and sub-house account (<I>i.e.,</I> for the clearing member's proprietary activities). If the clearing member's collateral and its client's collateral are held in the same default fund contribution account, then the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the client-related transactions within the account and the EAD of the house-related transactions within the account. For purposes of determining such EADs, the independent collateral of the clearing member and its client must be allocated in proportion to the respective total amount of independent collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(v) If any account or sub-account contains both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the derivative contracts within the account and the EAD of the repo-style transactions within the account. If independent collateral is held for an account containing both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, then such collateral must be allocated to the derivative contracts and repo-style transactions in proportion to the respective product specific exposure amounts, calculated, excluding the effects of collateral, according to § 217.132(b) for repo-style transactions and to § 217.132(c)(5) for derivative contracts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding any other provision of paragraph (d) of this section, with the prior approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 217.35(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41421, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35269, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4426, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57962, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.134" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.134   Guarantees and credit derivatives: PD substitution and LGD adjustment approaches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section applies to wholesale exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the Board-regulated institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) Wholesale exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) are securitization exposures subject to § 217.141 through § 217.145.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution may elect to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covering an exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section by using the PD substitution approach or the LGD adjustment approach in paragraph (c) of this section or, if the transaction qualifies, using the double default treatment in § 217.135. A Board-regulated institution's PD and LGD for the hedged exposure may not be lower than the PD and LGD floors described in § 217.131(d)(2) and (d)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged wholesale exposures described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) A Board-regulated institution must use the same risk parameters for calculating ECL as it uses for calculating the risk-based capital requirement for the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> (that is, equally) with or is junior to the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are exposures to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to assure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligor fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk parameters for hedged exposures</I>—(1) <I>PD substitution approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, a Board-regulated institution may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure by substituting the PD associated with the rating grade of the protection provider for the PD associated with the rating grade of the obligor in the risk-based capital formula applicable to the guarantee or credit derivative in Table 1 of § 217.131 and using the appropriate LGD as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section. If the Board-regulated institution determines that full substitution of the protection provider's PD leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the Board-regulated institution may substitute a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and P of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure under § 217.131, where PD is the protection provider's PD, LGD is determined under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and EAD is P. If the Board-regulated institution determines that full substitution leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the Board-regulated institution may use a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 217.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P.
</P>
<P>(C) The treatment in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section is applicable when the credit risk of a wholesale exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis or when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>LGD of hedged exposures.</I> The LGD of a hedged exposure under the PD substitution approach is equal to: 
</P>
<P>(A) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the Board-regulated institution with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the Board-regulated institution with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>LGD adjustment approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure is the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The risk-based capital requirement for the exposure as calculated under § 217.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the protection provider as calculated under § 217.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative. 
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure would be the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure as calculated under § 217.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative and EAD set equal to P; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the guarantor as calculated under § 217.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD set equal to P. 
</P>
<P>(B) The Board-regulated institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 217.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>M of hedged exposures.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the M of the hedged exposure is the same as the M of the exposure if it were unhedged. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining its risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant. 
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s). 
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligor is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the Board-regulated institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the Board-regulated institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the Board-regulated institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> For example, where there is a step-up in cost in conjunction with a call feature or where the effective cost of protection increases over time even if credit quality remains the same or improves, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant will be the remaining time to the first call.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months. 
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the Board-regulated institution must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">m</E> = E × (t − 0.25)/(T − 0.25),
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch; 
</P>
<P>(ii) E = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant; 
</P>
<P>(iii) t = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) T = the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If a Board-regulated institution recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the Board-regulated institution must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">r</E> = P<E T="52">m</E> × 0.60,
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(1) P<E T="52">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and 
</P>
<P>(2) P<E T="52">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant adjusted for maturity mismatch (if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch.</I> (1) If a Board-regulated institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the Board-regulated institution must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: 
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">c</E> = P<E T="52">r x</E> (1 − H<E T="52">FX</E>), 
</FP-2>
<FP>where: 
</FP>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">c</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); 
</P>
<P>(ii) P<E T="52">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and 
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to 8 percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period and daily marking-to-market and remargining. A Board-regulated institution qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for: 
</P>
<P>(i) The own-estimates haircuts in § 217.132(b)(2)(iii); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The simple VaR methodology in § 217.132(b)(3); or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology in § 217.132(d). 
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the Board-regulated institution revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every ten business days using the square root of time formula provided in § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.135" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.135   Guarantees and credit derivatives: double default treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility and operational criteria for double default treatment.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of a guarantee or credit derivative covering an exposure described in § 217.134(a)(1) by applying the double default treatment in this section if all the following criteria are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) The hedged exposure is fully covered or covered on a pro rata basis by: 
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible guarantee issued by an eligible double default guarantor; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible credit derivative that meets the requirements of § 217.134(b)(2) and that is issued by an eligible double default guarantor. 
</P>
<P>(2) The guarantee or credit derivative is: 
</P>
<P>(i) An uncollateralized guarantee or uncollateralized credit derivative (for example, a credit default swap) that provides protection with respect to a single reference obligor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative (subject to the requirements of § 217.142(m).
</P>
<P>(3) The hedged exposure is a wholesale exposure (other than a sovereign exposure).
</P>
<P>(4) The obligor of the hedged exposure is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible double default guarantor or an affiliate of an eligible double default guarantor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate of the guarantor.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution does not recognize any credit risk mitigation benefits of the guarantee or credit derivative for the hedged exposure other than through application of the double default treatment as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The Board-regulated institution has implemented a process (which has received the prior, written approval of the Board) to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of the hedged exposure and the protection provider. If excessive correlation is present, the Board-regulated institution may not use the double default treatment for the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is at least equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution may determine its risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the Board-regulated institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize double default treatment on the protected portion of the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) For the protected exposure, the Board-regulated institution must set EAD equal to P and calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For the unprotected exposure, the Board-regulated institution must set EAD equal to the EAD of the original exposure minus P and then calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in § 217.131.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mismatches.</I> For any hedged exposure to which a Board-regulated institution applies double default treatment under this part, the Board-regulated institution must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 217.134(d), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The double default dollar risk-based capital requirement.</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure to which a Board-regulated institution has applied double default treatment is K<E T="52">DD</E> multiplied by the EAD of the exposure. K<E T="52">DD</E> is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">DD</E> = K<E T="52">o</E> × (0.15 + 160 × PD<E T="52">g</E>),
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(1)
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.048.gif"/>
<P>(2) PD<E T="52">g</E> = PD of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(3) PD<E T="52">o</E> = PD of the obligor of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) LGD<E T="52">g</E> =
</P>
<P>(i) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the Board-regulated institution with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the Board-regulated institution with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; and
</P>
<P>(5) ρ<E T="52">os</E> (asset value correlation of the obligor) is calculated according to the appropriate formula for (R) provided in Table 1 in § 217.131, with PD equal to PD<E T="52">o</E>.
</P>
<P>(6) b (maturity adjustment coefficient) is calculated according to the formula for b provided in Table 1 in § 217.131, with PD equal to the lesser of PD<E T="52">o</E> and PD<E T="52">g</E>; and
</P>
<P>(7) M (maturity) is the effective maturity of the guarantee or credit derivative, which may not be less than one year or greater than five years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.136" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.136   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) The positive current exposure of a Board-regulated institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the Board-regulated institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are subject to daily marking-to-market and daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions (which are addressed in §§ 217.131 and 132);
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts (which are addressed in §§ 217. 131 and 132); or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts and addressed in §§ 217.131 and 132).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a central counterparty, the Board may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> A Board-regulated institution must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Board-regulated institution's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The Board-regulated institution must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the Board-regulated institution by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 217.136.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.136—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business days after contractual settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to be applied to positive
<br/>current
<br/>exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Board-regulated institution has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The Board-regulated institution must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the Board-regulated institution has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the Board-regulated institution has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the Board-regulated institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Board-regulated institution as a wholesale exposure.
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution may use a 45 percent LGD for the transaction rather than estimating LGD for the transaction provided the Board-regulated institution uses the 45 percent LGD for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution may use a 100 percent risk weight for the transaction provided the Board-regulated institution uses this risk weight for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board-regulated institution has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after the counterparty delivery was due, the Board-regulated institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41421, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.137-217.140" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.137-217.140   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.141" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.141   Operational criteria for recognizing the transfer of risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> A Board-regulated institution that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (a) is satisfied. A Board-regulated institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any securitization exposures it retains in connection with the securitization. A Board-regulated institution that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the Board-regulated institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, a Board-regulated institution may recognize for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. A Board-regulated institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. A Board-regulated institution that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must hold risk-based capital under this subpart against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all of the requirements of an eligible guarantee in § 217.2 except for paragraph (3) of the definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all of the requirements of an eligible credit derivative except for paragraph (3) of the definition of eligible guarantee in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the Board-regulated institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the Board-regulated institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the Board-regulated institution in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the Board-regulated institution after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 217.142(k), if a Board-regulated institution is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the Board-regulated institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the securitization exposure. The Board-regulated institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the position in relation to regulatory capital according to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under this section for each securitization exposure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.142" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.142   Risk-based capital requirement for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hierarchy of approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section and in § 217.141: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Board-regulated institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute after tax gain-on-sale; 
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must apply the supervisory formula approach in § 217.143 to the exposure if the Board-regulated institution and the exposure qualify for the supervisory formula approach according to § 217.143(a); 
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach, the Board-regulated institution may apply the simplified supervisory formula approach under § 217.144; 
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 217.143, and the Board-regulated institution does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 217.144, the Board-regulated institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure; and 
</P>
<P>(5) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a Board-regulated institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a Board-regulated institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (e) of this section rather than apply the hierarchy of approaches described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures is equal to the sum of its risk-weighted assets calculated using §§ 217.141 through 146. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions.</I> A Board-regulated institution may calculate any deduction from common equity tier 1 capital for a securitization exposure net of any DTLs associated with the securitization exposure. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maximum risk-based capital requirement.</I> Except as provided in § 217.141(c), unless one or more underlying exposures does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure, the total risk-based capital requirement for all securitization exposures held by a single Board-regulated institution associated with a single securitization (excluding any risk-based capital requirements that relate to the Board-regulated institution's gain-on-sale or CEIOs associated with the securitization) may not exceed the sum of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's total risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart as if the Board-regulated institution directly held the underlying exposures; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total ECL of the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure.</I> (1) The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction is the Board-regulated institution's carrying value. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (m) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative), repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance-sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the Board-regulated institution could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets). 
</P>
<P>(3) The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the EAD of the exposure as calculated in § 217.132 or § 217.133. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If a Board-regulated institution has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage of the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when a Board-regulated institution provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the Board-regulated institution is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the Board-regulated institution may assign to the overlapping securitization exposure the applicable risk-based capital treatment under this subpart that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Securitizations of non-IRB exposures.</I> Except as provided in § 217.141(c), if a Board-regulated institution has a securitization exposure where any underlying exposure is not a wholesale exposure, retail exposure, securitization exposure, or equity exposure, the Board-regulated institution: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute gain-on-sale, if the Board-regulated institution is an originating Board-regulated institution; 
</P>
<P>(2) May apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 217.144 to the exposure, if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) Must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 217.143, and the Board-regulated institution does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 217.144 to the exposure. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Implicit support.</I> If a Board-regulated institution provides support to a securitization in excess of the Board-regulated institution's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support): 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must disclose publicly: 
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulatory capital impact to the Board-regulated institution of providing such implicit support. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, a Board-regulated institution that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility. 
</P>
<P>(2) For a Board-regulated institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the Board-regulated institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this part, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with recourse.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subpart E, a Board-regulated institution that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only the contractual amount of retained recourse if all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is a sale under GAAP. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the Board-regulated institution's reasonably estimated liability under the recourse arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The loans and leases are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 <I>et seq.</I>); and 
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) In the case of a state member bank, the bank is well capitalized, as defined in section 208.43 of this chapter. For purposes of determining whether a state member bank is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph, the state member bank's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in this paragraph (k)(1).
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is well capitalized, as defined in 12 CFR 225.2. For purposes of determining whether a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph, the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in this paragraph (k)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of recourse retained by a Board-regulated institution on transfers of small-business obligations subject to paragraph (k)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the Board-regulated institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Board-regulated institution ceases to be well capitalized or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, the preferential capital treatment specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with recourse that occurred during the time that the Board-regulated institution was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of a Board-regulated institution must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine a risk weight using the supervisory formula approach (SFA) pursuant to § 217.143 or the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) pursuant to § 217.144 for an n<E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (l). In the case of credit protection sold, a Board-regulated institution must determine its exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative using the SFA or the SSFA, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA to calculate the risk weight for its exposure in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the credit enhancement level (L) input to the SFA formula. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) risk-weighted asset amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the Board-regulated institution's exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of the SFA, parameter D must be set to equal L plus the thickness of tranche T input to the SFA formula.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution that does not use the SFA or the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its exposure in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A Board-regulated institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 217.134(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart for the underlying exposures as if the Board-regulated institution synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the lowest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. A Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 217.132 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 217.134(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) A Board-regulated institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 217.134(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Board-regulated institution also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If a Board-regulated institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the Board-regulated institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the bank had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the n
<SU>th</SU> smallest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 217.132 for a n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 217.134(b).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than n</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative) provided by a Board-regulated institution that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the Board-regulated institution must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that purchases an OTC credit derivative (other than an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 217.145 as a credit risk mitigant (including via recognized collateral) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 217.131 in accordance with § 217.132(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Board-regulated institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 217.145, the Board-regulated institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 217.132(c).
</P>
<P>(A) If the Board-regulated institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the Board-regulated institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according § 217.131.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Board-regulated institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the Board-regulated institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this section, including paragraph (a)(5) of this section for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62289, Oct. 11, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.143" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.143   Supervisory formula approach (SFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> A Board-regulated institution must use the SFA to determine its risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure if the Board-regulated institution can calculate on an ongoing basis each of the SFA parameters in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mechanics.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure equals its SFA risk-based capital requirement as calculated under paragraph (c) and (d) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The SFA risk-based capital requirement.</I> (1) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than or equal to L + T, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement equals the exposure amount.
</P>
<P>(2) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is less than or equal to L, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · T (where F is 0.016 for all securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T]−S[L].
</P>
<P>(3) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than L and less than L + T, the Board-regulated institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to an amount equal to UE · TP (K<E T="52">IRB</E>−L), and the exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · (T−(K<E T="52">IRB</E>−L)) (where F is 0.016 for all other securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T]−S[K<E T="52">IRB</E>].
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The supervisory formula:</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.049.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>SFA parameters.</I> For purposes of the calculations in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount of the underlying exposures (UE).</I> UE is the EAD of any underlying exposures that are wholesale and retail exposures (including the amount of any funded spread accounts, cash collateral accounts, and other similar funded credit enhancements) plus the amount of any underlying exposures that are securitization exposures (as defined in § 217.142(e)) plus the adjusted carrying value of any underlying exposures that are equity exposures (as defined in § 217.151(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tranche percentage (TP</I>). TP is the ratio of the amount of the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure to the amount of the tranche that contains the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital requirement on underlying exposures (K</I><E T="54">IRB</E><I>).</I> (i) K<E T="52">IRB</E> is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the risk-based capital requirements for the underlying exposures plus the expected credit losses of the underlying exposures (as determined under this subpart E as if the underlying exposures were directly held by the Board-regulated institution); to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) The calculation of K<E T="52">IRB</E> must reflect the effects of any credit risk mitigant applied to the underlying exposures (either to an individual underlying exposure, to a group of underlying exposures, or to all of the underlying exposures).
</P>
<P>(iii) All assets related to the securitization are treated as underlying exposures, including assets in a reserve account (such as a cash collateral account).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit enhancement level (L).</I> (i) L is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of all securitization exposures subordinated to the tranche that contains the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must determine L before considering the effects of any tranche-specific credit enhancements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any gain-on-sale or CEIO associated with the securitization may not be included in L.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any reserve account funded by accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the tranche that contains the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure may be included in the numerator and denominator of L to the extent cash has accumulated in the account. Unfunded reserve accounts (that is, reserve accounts that are to be funded from future cash flows from the underlying exposures) may not be included in the calculation of L.
</P>
<P>(v) In some cases, the purchase price of receivables will reflect a discount that provides credit enhancement (for example, first loss protection) for all or certain tranches of the securitization. When this arises, L should be calculated inclusive of this discount if the discount provides credit enhancement for the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Thickness of tranche (T).</I> T is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the tranche that contains the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(ii) UE.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effective number of exposures (N).</I> (i) Unless the Board-regulated institution elects to use the formula provided in paragraph (f) of this section,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.050.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where EAD<E T="52">i</E> represents the EAD associated with the ith instrument in the underlying exposures.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Multiple exposures to one obligor /must be treated as a single underlying exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a resecuritization, the Board-regulated institution must treat each underlying exposure as a single underlying exposure and must not look through to the originally securitized underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exposure-weighted average loss given default (EWALGD).</I> EWALGD is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.051.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where LGD<E T="52">i</E> represents the average LGD associated with all exposures to the ith obligor. In the case of a resecuritization, an LGD of 100 percent must be assumed for the underlying exposures that are themselves securitization exposures.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified method for computing N and EWALGD.</I> (1) If all underlying exposures of a securitization are retail exposures, a Board-regulated institution may apply the SFA using the following simplifications:
</P>
<P>(i) h = 0; and
</P>
<P>(ii) v = 0.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the conditions in §§ 217.143(f)(3) and (f)(4), a Board-regulated institution may employ a simplified method for calculating N and EWALGD.
</P>
<P>(3) If C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, a Board-regulated institution may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, and may set N equal to the following amount:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.052.gif"/>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<P>(i) C<E T="52">m</E> is the ratio of the sum of the amounts of the `m' largest underlying exposures to UE; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The level of m is to be selected by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(4) Alternatively, if only C<E T="52">1</E> is available and C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, the Board-regulated institution may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure and may set N = 1/C<E T="52">1</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.144" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.144   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, a Board-regulated institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A Board-regulated institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, a Board-regulated institution must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D of this part. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in section 142(l) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the Board-regulated institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in section 142(l) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.053.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.145" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.145   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An originating Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its securitization exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria in § 217.141 may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section. An investing Board-regulated institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collateral</I>—(1) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize financial collateral in determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure (other than a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, or an OTC derivative contract for which the Board-regulated institution has reflected collateral in its determination of exposure amount under § 217.132) as follows. The Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the collateralized securitization exposure is equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as calculated under the SSFA in § 217.144 or under the SFA in § 217.143 multiplied by the ratio of adjusted exposure amount (SE*) to original exposure amount (SE), 
</P>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P>(i) SE* = max {0, [SE−C × (1−H<E T="52">s</E>−H<E T="52">fx</E>)]};
</P>
<P>(ii) SE = the amount of the securitization exposure calculated under § 217.142(e);
</P>
<P>(iii) C = the current fair value of the collateral;
</P>
<P>(iv) H<E T="52">s</E> = the haircut appropriate to the collateral type; and
</P>
<P>(v) H<E T="52">fx</E> = the haircut appropriate for any currency mismatch between the collateral and the exposure.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.054.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> Unless a Board-regulated institution qualifies for use of and uses own-estimates haircuts in paragraph (b)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A Board-regulated institution must use the collateral type haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 217.132 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must use a currency mismatch haircut (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent if the exposure and the collateral are denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution must multiply the supervisory haircuts obtained in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 6.5 (which equals 2.549510); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A Board-regulated institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than 65 business days where and as appropriate to take into account the illiquidity of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may calculate haircuts using its own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility, subject to § 217.132(b)(2)(iii). The minimum holding period (T<E T="52">M</E>) for securitization exposures is 65 business days.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Limitations on recognition.</I> A Board-regulated institution may only recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ECL for securitization exposures.</I> When a Board-regulated institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure, the Board-regulated institution must also:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate ECL for the protected portion of the exposure using the same risk parameters that it uses for calculating the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Add the exposure's ECL to the Board-regulated institution's total ECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> A Board-regulated institution may recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative equals or exceeds the amount of the securitization exposure, the Board-regulated institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 217.131), using the Board-regulated institution's PD for the guarantor, the Board-regulated institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the amount of the securitization exposure (as determined in § 217.142(e)).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative is less than the amount of the securitization exposure, the Board-regulated institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covered portion.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 217.131), using the Board-regulated institution's PD for the guarantor, the Board-regulated institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the protection amount of the credit risk mitigant; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Uncovered portion.</I> (<I>1</I>) 1.0 minus the ratio of the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative to the amount of the securitization exposure); multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure without the credit risk mitigant (as determined in §§ 217.142 through 146).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mismatches.</I> The Board-regulated institution must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 217.134(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure and any more senior securitization exposure that benefits from the hedge. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the Board-regulated institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all the hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.146-217.150" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.24.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.146-217.150   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.151" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.151   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to investment funds, a Board-regulated institution may apply either the Simple Risk Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 217.152 or, if it qualifies to do so, the Internal Models Approach (IMA) in § 217.153. A Board-regulated institution must use the look-through approaches provided in § 217.154 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 217.2), as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 217.154.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy, or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of § 217.151(b)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the Board-regulated institution's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) for a given small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For unfunded equity commitments that are unconditional, the effective notional principal amount is the notional amount of the commitment. For unfunded equity commitments that are conditional, the effective notional principal amount is the Board-regulated institution's best estimate of the amount that would be funded under economic downturn conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.152" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.152   Simple risk weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, a Board-regulated institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the Board-regulated institution's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined in this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the Board-regulated institution's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined in § 217.154.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an entity whose credit exposures are exempt from the 0.03 percent PD floor in § 217.131(d)(2) is assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) is assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The following equity exposures are assigned a 100 percent risk weight:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> (A) For state member banks and bank holding companies, an equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh), excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P>(B) For savings and loan holding companies, an equity exposure that is designed primarily to promote community welfare, including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families, such as by providing services or employment, and excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the Board's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 217.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the Board-regulated institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a Board-regulated institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the Board-regulated institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a Board-regulated institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the Board-regulated institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the Board-regulated institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of a Board-regulated institution's equity exposures qualifies for a 100 percent risk weight under this section, a Board-regulated institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 217.22(b)(4) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) is assigned a 300 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section) that is not publicly traded is assigned a 400 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm that:
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the Board's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 217.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage is assigned a 600 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the Board-regulated institution acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the Board-regulated institution will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. A Board-regulated institution must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the Board-regulated institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals zero. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.055.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then the value of E is zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62289, Oct. 11, 2013; 84 FR 35269, July 22, 2019] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.153" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.153   Internal models approach (IMA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Board-regulated institution may calculate its risk-weighted asset amount for equity exposures using the IMA by modeling publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section) or by modeling only publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying criteria.</I> To qualify to use the IMA to calculate risk-weighted assets for equity exposures, a Board-regulated institution must receive prior written approval from the Board. To receive such approval, the Board-regulated institution must demonstrate to the Board's satisfaction that the Board-regulated institution meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution must have one or more models that:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess the potential decline in value of its modeled equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are commensurate with the size, complexity, and composition of the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequately capture both general market risk and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's model must produce an estimate of potential losses for its modeled equity exposures that is no less than the estimate of potential losses produced by a VaR methodology employing a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval of the distribution of quarterly returns for a benchmark portfolio of equity exposures comparable to the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures using a long-term sample period.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of risk factors and exposures in the sample and the data period used for quantification in the Board-regulated institution's model and benchmarking exercise must be sufficient to provide confidence in the accuracy and robustness of the Board-regulated institution's estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution's model and benchmarking process must incorporate data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures, and must include data from at least one equity market cycle containing adverse market movements relevant to the risk profile of the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures. In addition, the Board-regulated institution's benchmarking exercise must be based on daily market prices for the benchmark portfolio. If the Board-regulated institution's model uses a scenario methodology, the Board-regulated institution must demonstrate that the model produces a conservative estimate of potential losses on the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures over a relevant long-term market cycle. If the Board-regulated institution employs risk factor models, the Board-regulated institution must demonstrate through empirical analysis the appropriateness of the risk factors used.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must be able to demonstrate, using theoretical arguments and empirical evidence, that any proxies used in the modeling process are comparable to the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures and that the Board-regulated institution has made appropriate adjustments for differences. The Board-regulated institution must derive any proxies for its modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio using historical market data that are relevant to the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio (or, where not, must use appropriately adjusted data), and such proxies must be robust estimates of the risk of the Board-regulated institution's modeled equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for a Board-regulated institution using the IMA for publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If a Board-regulated institution models publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures, the Board-regulated institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 217.152) and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 217.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the Board-regulated institution's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) generated by the Board-regulated institution's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the Board-regulated institution's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund;
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs; and
</P>
<P>(C) 300 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the Board-regulated institution's equity exposures that are not publicly traded, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for a Board-regulated institution using the IMA only for publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If a Board-regulated institution models only publicly traded equity exposures, the Board-regulated institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under §§ 217.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 217.152), each equity exposure that qualifies for a 400 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(5) or a 600 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(6) (as determined under § 217.152), and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 217.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the Board-regulated institution's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) generated by the Board-regulated institution's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the Board-regulated institution's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 217.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.154" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.154   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 217.152(b)(3)(i), a Board-regulated institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alternative modified look-through approach in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 217.152(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the Board-regulated institution does not use the full look-through approach, the Board-regulated institution may use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 217.152(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart E of this part as if the proportional ownership share of each exposure were held directly by the Board-regulated institution) may either:
</P>
<P>(1) Set the risk-weighted asset amount of the Board-regulated institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's proportional ownership share of the fund; or
</P>
<P>(2) Include the Board-regulated institution's proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the fund in the Board-regulated institution's IMA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight assigned according to subpart D of this part that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under its prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, a Board-regulated institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories assigned according to subpart D of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the Board-regulated institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure class multiplied by the applicable risk weight. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest risk weight under subpart D of this part, and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest risk weight under subpart D of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the Board-regulated institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. A Board-regulated institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.155" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.155   Equity derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the IMA, in addition to holding risk-based capital against an equity derivative contract under this part, a Board-regulated institution must hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk in the equity derivative contract by also treating the equity derivative contract as a wholesale exposure and computing a supplemental risk-weighted asset amount for the contract under § 217.132.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the SRWA, a Board-regulated institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of equity derivative contracts, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, a Board-regulated institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.156-217.160" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.25.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.156-217.160   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Operational Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.161" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.161   Qualification requirements for incorporation of operational risk mitigants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualification to use operational risk mitigants.</I> A Board-regulated institution may adjust its estimate of operational risk exposure to reflect qualifying operational risk mitigants if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's operational risk quantification system is able to generate an estimate of the Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure (which does not incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants) and an estimate of the Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure adjusted to incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's methodology for incorporating the effects of insurance, if the Board-regulated institution uses insurance as an operational risk mitigant, captures through appropriate discounts to the amount of risk mitigation:
</P>
<P>(i) The residual term of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancellation terms of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) The policy's timeliness of payment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The uncertainty of payment by the provider of the policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mismatches in coverage between the policy and the hedged operational loss event.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying operational risk mitigants.</I> Qualifying operational risk mitigants are:
</P>
<P>(1) Insurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by an unaffiliated company that the Board-regulated institution deems to have strong capacity to meet its claims payment obligations and the obligor rating category to which the Board-regulated institution assigns the company is assigned a PD equal to or less than 10 basis points;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an initial term of at least one year and a residual term of more than 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a minimum notice period for cancellation by the provider of 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no exclusions or limitations based upon regulatory action or for the receiver or liquidator of a failed depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explicitly mapped to a potential operational loss event;
</P>
<P>(2) Operational risk mitigants other than insurance for which the Board has given prior written approval. In evaluating an operational risk mitigant other than insurance, the Board will consider whether the operational risk mitigant covers potential operational losses in a manner equivalent to holding total capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.162" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.26.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.162   Mechanics of risk-weighted asset calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a Board-regulated institution does not qualify to use or does not have qualifying operational risk mitigants, the Board-regulated institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is its operational risk exposure minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(b) If a Board-regulated institution qualifies to use operational risk mitigants and has qualifying operational risk mitigants, the Board-regulated institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure adjusted for qualifying operational risk mitigants minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any); or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.8 multiplied by the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution's operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(c) The Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for operational risk equals the Board-regulated institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk determined under sections 162(a) or (b) multiplied by 12.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.163-217.170" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.26.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.163-217.170   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.171" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.27.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.171   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>§§ 217.171 through 217.173 establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements of a Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.172" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.27.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.172   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to section 121(d) of subpart E of this part must publicly disclose each quarter its total and tier 1 risk-based capital ratios and their components as calculated under this subpart (that is, common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, total qualifying capital, and total risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(b) A Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to section 121(d) of subpart E of this part must comply with paragraph (c) of this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A Board-regulated institution described in paragraph (b) of this section must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 217.173. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the Board-regulated institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the Board-regulated institution's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes to these are disclosed in the interim. Management may provide all of the disclosures required by this subpart in one place on the Board-regulated institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Board-regulated institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution described in paragraph (b) of this section must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the Board-regulated institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Board-regulated institution described in paragraph (b) of this section believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the Board-regulated institution is not required to disclose those specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A Board-regulated institution that meets any of the criteria in § 217.100(b)(1) before January 1, 2015, must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part, beginning with the first quarter in 2015. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the Board-regulated institution has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d).
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated that meets any of the criteria in § 217.100(b)(1) on or after January 1, 2015, or a Category III Board-regulated institution must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the Board-regulated institution becomes an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Category III Board-regulated institution. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the Board-regulated institution has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57746, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41421, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59271, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.173" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.27.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.173   Disclosures by certain advanced approaches Board-regulated institutions and Category III Board-regulated institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution described in § 217.172(b) must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 217.173.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution and a Category III Board-regulated institution that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 217.172(d) must make the disclosures required under Table 13 to this section unless the Board-regulated institution is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 217.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2014, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the Board-regulated institution has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d). The disclosures described in Table 13 to § 217.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2015, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to the disclosure of the supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 217.172(d) and § 217.173(a)(2).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.173—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart E of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) That are fully consolidated;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Such entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.173—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common stock and related surplus;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retained earnings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Common equity minority interest;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) AOCI (net of tax) and other reserves; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the Board-regulated institution has elected to phase in recognition of the transitional amounts as defined in § 217.300(f).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital, tier 1 capital, and total capital without including the transitional amounts as defined in § 217.300(f).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.173—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A summary discussion of the Board-regulated institution's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for credit risk from:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Wholesale exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Qualifying revolving exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Other retail exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Securitization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Equity exposures:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Equity exposures subject to the simple risk weight approach; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) Equity exposures subject to the internal models approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardized market risk-weighted assets and advanced market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Standardized approach for specific risk; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Internal models approach for specific risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the transition provisions described in § 217.300(f):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the full adoption of CECL:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 217.173—Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Board-regulated institution must publicly disclose the geographic breakdown of its private sector credit exposures used in the calculation of the countercyclical capital buffer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer as described under § 217.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose the buffer retained income of the Board-regulated institution, as described under § 217.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the Board-regulated institution must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer framework described under § 217.11 of subpart B, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 12 to § 217.173, the Board-regulated institution must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Strategies and processes;
</P>
<P>(2) The structure and organization of the relevant risk management function;
</P>
<P>(3) The scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; and
</P>
<P>(4) Policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 
<sup>1</sup> to § 217.173—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 7 to § 217.173), including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Description of the methodology that the entity uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Discussion of the Board-regulated institution's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP,
<sup>2</sup> without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, Board-regulated institutions could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic 
<sup>3</sup> distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the entity's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity breakdown (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 to § 217.173 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210-20 as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may comprise individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. A Board-regulated institution might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the company's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A Board-regulated institution is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 217.173—Credit Risk: Disclosures for Portfolios Subject to IRB Risk-Based Capital Formulas
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explanation and review of the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Structure of internal rating systems and if the Board-regulated institution considers external ratings, the relation between internal and external ratings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Use of risk parameter estimates other than for regulatory capital purposes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Process for managing and recognizing credit risk mitigation (see Table 8 to § 217.173); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Control mechanisms for the rating system, including discussion of independence, accountability, and rating systems review.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the internal ratings process, provided separately for the following:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Wholesale category;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retail subcategories;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Qualifying revolving exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) Other retail exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each category and subcategory above the description should include:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(A) The types of exposure included in the category/subcategories; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(B) The definitions, methods and data for estimation and validation of PD, LGD, and EAD, including assumptions employed in the derivation of these variables.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: risk assessment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For wholesale exposures, present the following information across a sufficient number of PD grades (including default) to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk: 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Total EAD; 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Exposure-weighted average LGD (percentage);
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) Exposure-weighted average risk weight; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iv) Amount of undrawn commitments and exposure-weighted average EAD including average drawdowns prior to default for wholesale exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each retail subcategory, present the disclosures outlined above across a sufficient number of segments to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: historical results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actual losses in the preceding period for each category and subcategory and how this differs from past experience. A discussion of the factors that impacted the loss experience in the preceding period—for example, has the Board-regulated institution experienced higher than average default rates, loss rates or EADs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Board-regulated institution's estimates compared against actual outcomes over a longer period.
<sup>4</sup> At a minimum, this should include information on estimates of losses against actual losses in the wholesale category and each retail subcategory over a period sufficient to allow for a meaningful assessment of the performance of the internal rating processes for each category/subcategory.
<sup>5</sup> Where appropriate, the Board-regulated institution should further decompose this to provide analysis of PD, LGD, and EAD outcomes against estimates provided in the quantitative risk assessment disclosures above.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This disclosure item does not require a detailed description of the model in full—it should provide the reader with a broad overview of the model approach, describing definitions of the variables and methods for estimating and validating those variables set out in the quantitative risk disclosures below. This should be done for each of the four category/subcategories. The Board-regulated institution must disclose any significant differences in approach to estimating these variables within each category/subcategories.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The PD, LGD and EAD disclosures in Table 6 (c) to § 217.173 should reflect the effects of collateral, qualifying master netting agreements, eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives as defined under this part. Disclosure of each PD grade should include the exposure-weighted average PD for each grade. Where a Board-regulated institution aggregates PD grades for the purposes of disclosure, this should be a representative breakdown of the distribution of PD grades used for regulatory capital purposes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Outstanding loans and EAD on undrawn commitments can be presented on a combined basis for these disclosures.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> These disclosures are a way of further informing the reader about the reliability of the information provided in the “quantitative disclosures: Risk assessment” over the long run. The disclosures are requirements from year-end 2010; in the meantime, early adoption is encouraged. The phased implementation is to allow a Board-regulated institution sufficient time to build up a longer run of data that will make these disclosures meaningful.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> This disclosure item is not intended to be prescriptive about the period used for this assessment. Upon implementation, it is expected that a Board-regulated institution would provide these disclosures for as long a set of data as possible—for example, if a Board-regulated institution has 10 years of data, it might choose to disclose the average default rates for each PD grade over that 10-year period. Annual amounts need not be disclosed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> A Board-regulated institution must provide this further decomposition where it will allow users greater insight into the reliability of the estimates provided in the “quantitative disclosures: Risk assessment.” In particular, it must provide this information where there are material differences between its estimates of PD, LGD or EAD compared to actual outcomes over the long run. The Board-regulated institution must also provide explanations for such differences.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 217.173—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk of OTC Derivative Contracts, Repo-Style Transactions, and Eligible Margin Loans
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Discussion of methodology used to assign economic capital and credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Discussion of the primary types of collateral taken;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Discussion of policies with respect to wrong-way risk exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Discussion of the impact of the amount of collateral the Board-regulated institution would have to provide if the Board-regulated institution were to receive a credit rating downgrade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, netting benefits, netted current credit exposure, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> Also report measures for EAD used for regulatory capital for these transactions, the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection, and, for Board-regulated institutions not using the internal models methodology in § 217.132(d) , the distribution of current credit exposure by types of credit exposure.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the Board-regulated institution's own credit portfolio and for its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The estimate of alpha if the Board-regulated institution has received supervisory approval to estimate alpha.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements, without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc. 
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans. </P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 To § 217.173—Credit Risk Mitigation 
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for, and an indication of the extent to which the Board-regulated institution uses, on- or off-balance sheet netting;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the Board-regulated institution;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations within the mitigation taken.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure (after, where applicable, on- or off-balance sheet netting) that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, a Board-regulated institution must provide the disclosures in Table 8 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, Board-regulated institutions are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives and other credit mitigation that are treated for the purposes of this subpart as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures (in Table 8 to § 217.173) and included within those relating to securitization (in Table 9 to § 217.173).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 217.173—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The Board-regulated institution's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the Board-regulated institution to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (e.g. liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the Board-regulated institution in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the Board-regulated institution's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The Board-regulated institution's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the Board-regulated institution follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the Board-regulated institution, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The Board-regulated institution must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off- balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the Board-regulated institution manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the Board-regulated institution has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the Board-regulated institution sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of the Board-regulated institution's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
<br/>(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions and inputs applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions and inputs from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart E of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the Board-regulated institution to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An explanation of significant changes to any of the quantitative information set forth below since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total outstanding exposures securitized 
<sup>4</sup> by the Board-regulated institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 217.141 (categorized into traditional/synthetic), by underlying exposure type 
<sup>5</sup> separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the bank acts only as sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For exposures securitized by the Board-regulated institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 217.141:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired 
<sup>6</sup>/past due categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the Board-regulated institution during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (e.g. SA, SFA, or SSFA).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by asset type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The Board-regulated institution must describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description must be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the Board-regulated institution is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles would include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> For example, money market mutual funds should be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, should be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the bank, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the bank's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the bank from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> A Board-regulated institution is required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> A Board-regulated institution must include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the bank's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of I/O strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the bank with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 217.173—Operational Risk
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the AMA, including a discussion of relevant internal and external factors considered in the Board-regulated institution's measurement approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A description of the use of insurance for the purpose of mitigating operational risk.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to § 217.173—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to the equity risk of equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those held for other objectives, including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting methodology and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying value on the balance sheet of equity investments, as well as the fair value of those investments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Publicly traded; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Non-publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 and/or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the Board-regulated institution's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding total capital requirements.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized in the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either in the balance sheet or through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> This disclosure must include a breakdown of equities that are subject to the 0 percent, 20 percent, 100 percent, 300 percent, 400 percent, and 600 percent risk weights, as applicable. </P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to § 217.173—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 217.172(b), a Board-regulated institution described in § 217.172(d) must make the disclosures described in Table 13 to § 217.173; provided, however, the disclosures required under this paragraph are required without regard to whether the Board-regulated institution has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d). The Board-regulated institution must make these disclosures publicly available beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to § 217.173—Supplementary Leverage Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Dollar amounts in thousands
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tril
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thou
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 1: Summary comparison of accounting assets and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 Total consolidated assets as reported in published financial statements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 Adjustment for investments in banking, financial, insurance or commercial entities that are consolidated for accounting purposes but outside the scope of regulatory consolidation
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Adjustment for fiduciary assets recognized on balance sheet but excluded from total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Adjustment for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Adjustment for repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Adjustment for off-balance sheet exposures (that is, conversion to credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet exposures)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 Other adjustments
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 Total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 2: Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">On-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 On-balance sheet assets (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 LESS: Amounts deducted from tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Total on-balance sheet exposures (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions) (sum of lines 1 and 2)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Derivative exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Current exposure for derivative exposures (that is, net of cash variation margin)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Add-on amounts for potential future exposure (PFE) for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Gross-up for cash collateral posted if deducted from the on-balance sheet assets, except for cash variation margin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 LESS: Deductions of receivable assets for cash variation margin posted in derivative transactions, if included in on-balance sheet assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 LESS: Exempted CCP leg of client-cleared transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 Effective notional principal amount of sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 LESS: Effective notional principal amount offsets and PFE adjustments for sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Total derivative exposures (sum of lines 4 to 10)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Repo-style transactions</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 On-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions, except include the gross value of receivables for reverse repurchase transactions. Exclude from this item the value of securities received in a security-for-security repo-style transaction where the securities lender has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received. Include in this item the value of securities that qualified for sales treatment that must be reversed
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 LESS: Reduction of the gross value of receivables in reverse repurchase transactions by cash payables in repurchase transactions under netting agreements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 Counterparty credit risk for all repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 Exposure for repo-style transactions where a banking organization acts as an agent
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 Total exposures for repo-style transactions (sum of lines 12 to 15)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Other off-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 Off-balance sheet exposures at gross notional amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 LESS: Adjustments for conversion to credit equivalent amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19 Off-balance sheet exposures (sum of lines 17 and 18)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Capital and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 Tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 Total leverage exposure (sum of lines 3, 11, 16 and 19)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22 Supplementary leverage ratio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">(in percent)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P> 

</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57746, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41421, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4242, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59272, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 4428, Jan. 24, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.174-217.200" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.5.27.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.174-217.200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Risk-Weighted Assets—Market Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.201" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.201   Purpose, applicability, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart F establishes risk-based capital requirements for Board-regulated institutions with significant exposure to market risk, provides methods for these Board-regulated institutions to calculate their standardized measure for market risk and, if applicable, advanced measure for market risk, and establishes public disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart applies to any Board-regulated institution with aggregate trading assets and trading liabilities (as reported in the Board-regulated institution's most recent quarterly Call Report, for a state member bank, or FR Y-9C, for a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, as applicable, any savings and loan holding company that does not file the FR Y-9C should follow the instructions to the FR Y-9C) equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent or more of quarter-end total assets as reported on the most recent quarterly [Call Report or FR Y-9C]; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $1 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may apply this subpart to any Board-regulated institution if the Board deems it necessary or appropriate because of the level of market risk of the Board-regulated institution or to ensure safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may exclude a Board-regulated institution that meets the criteria of paragraph (b)(1) of this section from application of this subpart if the Board determines that the exclusion is appropriate based on the level of market risk of the Board-regulated institution and is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority</I> (1) The Board may require a Board-regulated institution to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under this subpart if the Board determines that the Board-regulated institution's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under this subpart is not commensurate with the market risk of the Board-regulated institution's covered positions. In making determinations under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures generally in the same manner as the notice and response procedures set forth in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board determines that the risk-based capital requirement calculated under this subpart by the Board-regulated institution for one or more covered positions or portfolios of covered positions is not commensurate with the risks associated with those positions or portfolios, the Board may require the Board-regulated institution to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to the positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may also require a Board-regulated institution to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under this subpart, or under subpart D or subpart E of this part, as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62289, Oct. 11, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.202" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms set forth in § 217.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of a Board-regulated institution's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. For purposes of this subpart, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in the price of a commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate debt position</I> means a debt position that is an exposure to a company that is not a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank, a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, a public sector entity, a GSE, or a securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Correlation trading position</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A securitization position for which all or substantially all of the value of the underlying exposures is based on the credit quality of a single company for which a two-way market exists, or on commonly traded indices based on such exposures for which a two-way market exists on the indices; or
</P>
<P>(2) A position that is not a securitization position and that hedges a position described in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(3) A correlation trading position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A resecuritization position;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative of a securitization position that does not provide a pro rata share in the proceeds of a securitization tranche; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A securitization position for which the underlying assets or reference exposures are retail exposures, residential mortgage exposures, or commercial mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Covered position</I> means the following positions:
</P>
<P>(1) A trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet),
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> as reported on Schedule RC-D of the Call Report or Schedule HC-D of the FR Y-9C (any savings and loan holding companies that does not file the FR Y-9C should follow the instructions to the FR Y-9C), that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the lender.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The position is a trading position or hedges another covered position; 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> A position that hedges a trading position must be within the scope of the bank's hedging strategy as described in paragraph (a)(2) of section 203 of this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The position is free of any restrictive covenants on its tradability or the Board-regulated institution is able to hedge the material risk elements of the position in a two-way market;
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign exchange or commodity position, regardless of whether the position is a trading asset or trading liability (excluding any structural foreign currency positions that the Board-regulated institution chooses to exclude with prior supervisory approval); and
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, a covered position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intangible asset, including any servicing asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any hedge of a trading position that the Board determines to be outside the scope of the Board-regulated institution's hedging strategy required in paragraph (a)(2) of § 217.203;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any position that, in form or substance, acts as a liquidity facility that provides support to asset-backed commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(iv) A credit derivative the Board-regulated institution recognizes as a guarantee for risk-weighted asset amount calculation purposes under subpart D or subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Any position that is recognized as a credit valuation adjustment hedge under § 217.132(e)(5) or § 217.132(e)(6), except as provided in § 217.132(e)(6)(vii);
</P>
<P>(vi) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an investment company as defined in and registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), provided that all the underlying equities held by the investment company are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraph (3)(vi) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any position a Board-regulated institution holds with the intent to securitize; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Any direct real estate holding.
</P>
<P><I>Debt position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in interest rates or credit spreads.
</P>
<P><I>Default by a sovereign entity</I> has the same meaning as the term sovereign default under § 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Equity position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in equity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Event risk</I> means the risk of loss on equity or hybrid equity positions as a result of a financial event, such as the announcement or occurrence of a company merger, acquisition, spin-off, or dissolution.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in foreign exchange rates.
</P>
<P><I>General market risk</I> means the risk of loss that could result from broad market movements, such as changes in the general level of interest rates, credit spreads, equity prices, foreign exchange rates, or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Hedge</I> means a position or positions that offset all, or substantially all, of one or more material risk factors of another position.
</P>
<P><I>Idiosyncratic risk</I> means the risk of loss in the value of a position that arises from changes in risk factors unique to that position.
</P>
<P><I>Incremental risk</I> means the default risk and credit migration risk of a position. Default risk means the risk of loss on a position that could result from the failure of an obligor to make timely payments of principal or interest on its debt obligation, and the risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar proceeding. Credit migration risk means the price risk that arises from significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the position.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from movements in market prices.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches that reflect different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) For non-synthetic securitizations, the underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24(Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The Board may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The Board may deem an exposure to a transaction that meets the definition of a securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in 12 CFR 208.34.
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a securitization (including a resecuritization); or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign debt position</I> means a direct exposure to a sovereign entity.
</P>
<P><I>Specific risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from factors other than broad market movements and includes event risk, default risk, and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P><I>Structural position in a foreign currency</I> means a position that is not a trading position and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Subordinated debt, equity, or minority interest in a consolidated subsidiary that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Capital assigned to foreign branches that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(3) A position related to an unconsolidated subsidiary or another item that is denominated in a foreign currency and that is deducted from the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 or tier 2 capital; or
</P>
<P>(4) A position designed to hedge a Board-regulated institution's capital ratios or earnings against the effect on paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition of adverse exchange rate movements.
</P>
<P><I>Term repo-style transaction</I> means a repo-style transaction that has an original maturity in excess of one business day.
</P>
<P><I>Trading position</I> means a position that is held by the Board-regulated institution for the purpose of short-term resale or with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements, or to lock in arbitrage profits.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more positions could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62290, Oct. 11, 2013; 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015; 84 FR 35269, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.203" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.203   Requirements for application of this subpart F.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Trading positions</I>—(1) <I>Identification of trading positions.</I> A Board-regulated institution must have clearly defined policies and procedures for determining which of its trading assets and trading liabilities are trading positions and which of its trading positions are correlation trading positions. These policies and procedures must take into account:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which a position, or a hedge of its material risks, can be marked-to-market daily by reference to a two-way market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Possible impairments to the liquidity of a position or its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading and hedging strategies.</I> A Board-regulated institution must have clearly defined trading and hedging strategies for its trading positions that are approved by senior management of the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(i) The trading strategy must articulate the expected holding period of, and the market risk associated with, each portfolio of trading positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hedging strategy must articulate for each portfolio of trading positions the level of market risk the Board-regulated institution is willing to accept and must detail the instruments, techniques, and strategies the Board-regulated institution will use to hedge the risk of the portfolio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management of covered positions</I>—(1) <I>Active management.</I> A Board-regulated institution must have clearly defined policies and procedures for actively managing all covered positions. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must require:
</P>
<P>(i) Marking positions to market or to model on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Daily assessment of the Board-regulated institution's ability to hedge position and portfolio risks, and of the extent of market liquidity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishment and daily monitoring of limits on positions by a risk control unit independent of the trading business unit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Daily monitoring by senior management of information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) At least annual reassessment of established limits on positions by senior management; and
</P>
<P>(vi) At least annual assessments by qualified personnel of the quality of market inputs to the valuation process, the soundness of key assumptions, the reliability of parameter estimation in pricing models, and the stability and accuracy of model calibration under alternative market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valuation of covered positions.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a process for prudent valuation of its covered positions that includes policies and procedures on the valuation of positions, marking positions to market or to model, independent price verification, and valuation adjustments or reserves. The valuation process must consider, as appropriate, unearned credit spreads, close-out costs, early termination costs, investing and funding costs, liquidity, and model risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for internal models.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior written approval of the Board before using any internal model to calculate its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must meet all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis. The Board-regulated institution must promptly notify the Board when:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution plans to extend the use of a model that the Board has approved under this subpart to an additional business line or product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution makes any change to an internal model approved by the Board under this subpart that would result in a material change in the Board-regulated institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a portfolio of covered positions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution makes any material change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may rescind its approval of the use of any internal model (in whole or in part) or of the determination of the approach under § 217.209(a)(2)(ii) for a Board-regulated institution's modeled correlation trading positions and determine an appropriate capital requirement for the covered positions to which the model would apply, if the Board determines that the model no longer complies with this subpart or fails to reflect accurately the risks of the Board-regulated institution's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its internal models in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance those models as appropriate to ensure that they continue to meet the Board's standards for model approval and employ risk measurement methodologies that are most appropriate for the Board-regulated institution's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must incorporate its internal models into its risk management process and integrate the internal models used for calculating its VaR-based measure into its daily risk management process.
</P>
<P>(6) The level of sophistication of a Board-regulated institution's internal models must be commensurate with the complexity and amount of its covered positions. A Board-regulated institution's internal models may use any of the generally accepted approaches, including but not limited to variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, to measure market risk.
</P>
<P>(7) The Board-regulated institution's internal models must properly measure all the material risks in the covered positions to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>(8) The Board-regulated institution's internal models must conservatively assess the risks arising from less liquid positions and positions with limited price transparency under realistic market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(9) The Board-regulated institution must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal models to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(10) If a Board-regulated institution uses internal models to measure specific risk, the internal models must also satisfy the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of § 217.207.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The Board-regulated institution must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must validate its internal models initially and on an ongoing basis. The Board-regulated institution's validation process must be independent of the internal models' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the internal models;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and the comparison of the Board-regulated institution's model outputs with relevant internal and external data sources or estimation techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting. For internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure, this process must include a comparison of the changes in the Board-regulated institution's portfolio value that would have occurred were end-of-day positions to remain unchanged (therefore, excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with VaR-based measures during a sample period not used in model development.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution must stress test the market risk of its covered positions at a frequency appropriate to each portfolio, and in no case less frequently than quarterly. The stress tests must take into account concentration risk (including but not limited to concentrations in single issuers, industries, sectors, or markets), illiquidity under stressed market conditions, and risks arising from the Board-regulated institution's trading activities that may not be adequately captured in its internal models.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Board-regulated institution's market risk measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and independent risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the Board-regulated institution's measures for market risk under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the Board-regulated institution's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal assessment of capital adequacy.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its market risk. The assessment must take into account risks that may not be captured fully in the VaR-based measure, including concentration and liquidity risk under stressed market conditions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation.</I> The Board-regulated institution must adequately document all material aspects of its internal models, management and valuation of covered positions, control, oversight, validation and review processes and results, and internal assessment of capital adequacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.204" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.204   Measure for market risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must calculate its standardized measure for market risk by following the steps described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution also must calculate an advanced measure for market risk by following the steps in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measure for market risk.</I> A Board-regulated institution must calculate the standardized measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures all as defined under this paragraph (a)(2), (except, that the Board-regulated institution may not use the SFA in section 210(b)(2)(vii)(B) of this subpart for purposes of this calculation)[, plus any additional capital requirement established by the Board]. An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notifications from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d) also must calculate the advanced measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures as defined under this paragraph (a)(2) [, plus any additional capital requirement established by the Board].
</P>
<P>(i) <I>VaR-based capital requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution's VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The previous day's VaR-based measure as calculated under § 217.205; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the daily VaR-based measures as calculated under § 217.205 for each of the preceding 60 business days multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stressed VaR-based capital requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution's stressed VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent stressed VaR-based measure as calculated under § 217.206; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the stressed VaR-based measures as calculated under § 217.206 for each of the preceding 12 weeks multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific risk add-ons.</I> A Board-regulated institution's specific risk add-ons equal any specific risk add-ons that are required under § 217.207 and are calculated in accordance with § 217.210.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Incremental risk capital requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution's incremental risk capital requirement equals any incremental risk capital requirement as calculated under section 208 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution's comprehensive risk capital requirement equals any comprehensive risk capital requirement as calculated under section 209 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Capital requirement for de minimis exposures.</I> A Board-regulated institution's capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The absolute value of the fair value of those <I>de minimis</I> exposures that are not captured in the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure or under paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) With the prior written approval of the Board, the capital requirement for any <I>de minimis</I> exposures using alternative techniques that appropriately measure the market risk associated with those exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Backtesting.</I> A Board-regulated institution must compare each of its most recent 250 business days' trading losses (excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with the corresponding daily VaR-based measures calibrated to a one-day holding period and at a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level. A Board-regulated institution must begin backtesting as required by this paragraph (b) no later than one year after the later of January 1, 2014 and the date on which the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this subpart. In the interim, consistent with safety and soundness principles, a Board-regulated institution subject to this subpart as of January 1, 2014 should continue to follow backtesting procedures in accordance with the Board's supervisory expectations.
</P>
<P>(1) Once each quarter, the Board-regulated institution must identify the number of exceptions (that is, the number of business days for which the actual daily net trading loss, if any, exceeds the corresponding daily VaR-based measure) that have occurred over the preceding 250 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must use the multiplication factor in Table 1 to § 217.204 that corresponds to the number of exceptions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to determine its VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and to determine its stressed VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section until it obtains the next quarter's backtesting results, unless the Board notifies the Board-regulated institution in writing that a different adjustment or other action is appropriate.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.204—Multiplication Factors Based on Results of Backtesting
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of exceptions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multiplication factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 or fewer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.205" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.205   VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must use one or more internal models to calculate daily a VaR-based measure of the general market risk of all covered positions. The daily VaR-based measure also may reflect the Board-regulated institution's specific risk for one or more portfolios of debt and equity positions, if the internal models meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of § 217.207. The daily VaR-based measure must also reflect the Board-regulated institution's specific risk for any portfolio of correlation trading positions that is modeled under § 217.209. A Board-regulated institution may elect to include term repo-style transactions in its VaR-based measure, provided that the Board-regulated institution includes all such term repo-style transactions consistently over time.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's internal models for calculating its VaR-based measure must use risk factors sufficient to measure the market risk inherent in all covered positions. The market risk categories must include, as appropriate, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk. For material positions in the major currencies and markets, modeling techniques must incorporate enough segments of the yield curve—in no case less than six—to capture differences in volatility and less than perfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure may incorporate empirical correlations within and across risk categories, provided the Board-regulated institution validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for measuring correlations. If the VaR-based measure does not incorporate empirical correlations across risk categories, the Board-regulated institution must add the separate measures from its internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure for the appropriate market risk categories (interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange rate risk, and/or commodity price risk) to determine its aggregate VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) The VaR-based measure must include the risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of options positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the fair value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors. A Board-regulated institution with a large or complex options portfolio must measure the volatility of options positions or positions with embedded optionality by different maturities and/or strike prices, where material.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must be able to justify to the satisfaction of the Board the omission of any risk factors from the calculation of its VaR-based measure that the Board-regulated institution uses in its pricing models.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board the appropriateness of any proxies used to capture the risks of the Board-regulated institution's actual positions for which such proxies are used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for VaR-based measure.</I> (1) The VaR-based measure must be calculated on a daily basis using a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level, and a holding period equivalent to a 10-business-day movement in underlying risk factors, such as rates, spreads, and prices. To calculate VaR-based measures using a 10-business-day holding period, the Board-regulated institution may calculate 10-business-day measures directly or may convert VaR-based measures using holding periods other than 10 business days to the equivalent of a 10-business-day holding period. A Board-regulated institution that converts its VaR-based measure in such a manner must be able to justify the reasonableness of its approach to the satisfaction of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure must be based on a historical observation period of at least one year. Data used to determine the VaR-based measure must be relevant to the Board-regulated institution's actual exposures and of sufficient quality to support the calculation of risk-based capital requirements. The Board-regulated institution must update data sets at least monthly or more frequently as changes in market conditions or portfolio composition warrant. For a Board-regulated institution that uses a weighting scheme or other method for the historical observation period, the Board-regulated institution must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Use an effective observation period of at least one year in which the average time lag of the observations is at least six months; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate to the Board that its weighting scheme is more effective than a weighting scheme with an average time lag of at least six months representing the volatility of the Board-regulated institution's trading portfolio over a full business cycle. A Board-regulated institution using this option must update its data more frequently than monthly and in a manner appropriate for the type of weighting scheme.
</P>
<P>(c) A Board-regulated institution must divide its portfolio into a number of significant subportfolios approved by the Board for subportfolio backtesting purposes. These subportfolios must be sufficient to allow the Board-regulated institution and the Board to assess the adequacy of the VaR model at the risk factor level; the Board will evaluate the appropriateness of these subportfolios relative to the value and composition of the Board-regulated institution's covered positions. The Board-regulated institution must retain and make available to the Board the following information for each subportfolio for each business day over the previous two years (500 business days), with no more than a 60-day lag:
</P>
<P>(1) A daily VaR-based measure for the subportfolio calibrated to a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level;
</P>
<P>(2) The daily profit or loss for the subportfolio (that is, the net change in price of the positions held in the portfolio at the end of the previous business day); and
</P>
<P>(3) The p-value of the profit or loss on each day (that is, the probability of observing a profit that is less than, or a loss that is greater than, the amount reported for purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section based on the model used to calculate the VaR-based measure described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.206" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.206   Stressed VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> At least weekly, a Board-regulated institution must use the same internal model(s) used to calculate its VaR-based measure to calculate a stressed VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for stressed VaR-based measure.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must calculate a stressed VaR-based measure for its covered positions using the same model(s) used to calculate the VaR-based measure, subject to the same confidence level and holding period applicable to the VaR-based measure under § 217.205, but with model inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the Board-regulated institution's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) The stressed VaR-based measure must be calculated at least weekly and be no less than the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the Board-regulated institution's stressed VaR-based measure under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The Board-regulated institution must obtain the prior approval of the Board for, and notify the Board if the Board-regulated institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures. The policies and procedures must address:
</P>
<P>(i) How the Board-regulated institution links the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure to the composition and directional bias of its current portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's process for selecting, reviewing, and updating the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure and for monitoring the appropriateness of the period to the Board-regulated institution's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section prevents the Board from requiring a Board-regulated institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.207" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.207   Specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must use one of the methods in this section to measure the specific risk for each of its debt, equity, and securitization positions with specific risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modeled specific risk.</I> A Board-regulated institution may use models to measure the specific risk of covered positions as provided in paragraph (a) of section 205 of this subpart (therefore, excluding securitization positions that are not modeled under section 209 of this subpart). A Board-regulated institution must use models to measure the specific risk of correlation trading positions that are modeled under § 217.209.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements for specific risk modeling.</I> (i) If a Board-regulated institution uses internal models to measure the specific risk of a portfolio, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(A) Explain the historical price variation in the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(B) Be responsive to changes in market conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) Be robust to an adverse environment, including signaling rising risk in an adverse environment; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture all material components of specific risk for the debt and equity positions in the portfolio. Specifically, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Capture event risk and idiosyncratic risk; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Capture and demonstrate sensitivity to material differences between positions that are similar but not identical and to changes in portfolio composition and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Board-regulated institution calculates an incremental risk measure for a portfolio of debt or equity positions under section 208 of this subpart, the Board-regulated institution is not required to capture default and credit migration risks in its internal models used to measure the specific risk of those portfolios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific risk fully modeled for one or more portfolios.</I> If the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure captures all material aspects of specific risk for one or more of its portfolios of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the Board-regulated institution has no specific risk add-on for those portfolios for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of § 217.204.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific risk not modeled.</I> (1) If the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk for a portfolio of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the Board-regulated institution must calculate a specific-risk add-on for the portfolio under the standardized measurement method as described in § 217.210.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must calculate a specific risk add-on under the standardized measurement method as described in § 217.210 for all of its securitization positions that are not modeled under § 217.209.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.208" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.208   Incremental risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution that measures the specific risk of a portfolio of debt positions under § 217.207(b) using internal models must calculate at least weekly an incremental risk measure for that portfolio according to the requirements in this section. The incremental risk measure is the Board-regulated institution's measure of potential losses due to incremental risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions. With the prior approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may choose to include portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model, provided that it consistently includes such equity positions in a manner that is consistent with how the Board-regulated institution internally measures and manages the incremental risk of such positions at the portfolio level. If equity positions are included in the model, for modeling purposes default is considered to have occurred upon the default of any debt of the issuer of the equity position. A Board-regulated institution may not include correlation trading positions or securitization positions in its incremental risk measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for incremental risk modeling.</I> For purposes of calculating the incremental risk measure, the incremental risk model must:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure incremental risk over a one-year time horizon and at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(i) A constant level of risk assumption means that the Board-regulated institution rebalances, or rolls over, its trading positions at the beginning of each liquidity horizon over the one-year horizon in a manner that maintains the Board-regulated institution's initial risk level. The Board-regulated institution must determine the frequency of rebalancing in a manner consistent with the liquidity horizons of the positions in the portfolio. The liquidity horizon of a position or set of positions is the time required for a Board-regulated institution to reduce its exposure to, or hedge all of its material risks of, the position(s) in a stressed market. The liquidity horizon for a position or set of positions may not be less than the shorter of three months or the contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<P>(ii) A constant position assumption means that the Board-regulated institution maintains the same set of positions throughout the one-year horizon. If a Board-regulated institution uses this assumption, it must do so consistently across all portfolios.
</P>
<P>(iii) A Board-regulated institution's selection of a constant position or a constant risk assumption must be consistent between the Board-regulated institution's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in section 209 of this subpart, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) A Board-regulated institution's treatment of liquidity horizons must be consistent between the Board-regulated institution's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in section 209, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Recognize the impact of correlations between default and migration events among obligors.
</P>
<P>(3) Reflect the effect of issuer and market concentrations, as well as concentrations that can arise within and across product classes during stressed conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Reflect netting only of long and short positions that reference the same financial instrument.
</P>
<P>(5) Reflect any material mismatch between a position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(6) Recognize the effect that liquidity horizons have on dynamic hedging strategies. In such cases, a Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Capture in the incremental risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies.
</P>
<P>(7) Reflect the nonlinear impact of options and other positions with material nonlinear behavior with respect to default and migration changes.
</P>
<P>(8) Maintain consistency with the Board-regulated institution's internal risk management methodologies for identifying, measuring, and managing risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of incremental risk capital requirement.</I> The incremental risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the incremental risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent incremental risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.209" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.209   Comprehensive risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) Subject to the prior approval of the Board, a Board-regulated institution may use the method in this section to measure comprehensive risk, that is, all price risk, for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that measures the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions using internal models must calculate at least weekly a comprehensive risk measure that captures all price risk according to the requirements of this section. The comprehensive risk measure is either:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) A surcharge for the Board-regulated institution's modeled correlation trading positions equal to the total specific risk add-on for such positions as calculated under section 210 of this subpart multiplied by 8.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With approval of the Board and provided the Board-regulated institution has met the requirements of this section for a period of at least one year and can demonstrate the effectiveness of the model through the results of ongoing model validation efforts including robust benchmarking, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board-regulated institution's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The total specific risk add-on that would apply to the bank's modeled correlation trading positions as calculated under section 210 of this subpart multiplied by 8.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for modeling all price risk.</I> If a Board-regulated institution uses an internal model to measure the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions:
</P>
<P>(1) The internal model must measure comprehensive risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(2) The model must capture all material price risk, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The risks associated with the contractual structure of cash flows of the position, its issuer, and its underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit spread risk, including nonlinear price risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) The volatility of implied correlations, including nonlinear price risks such as the cross-effect between spreads and correlations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Basis risk;
</P>
<P>(v) Recovery rate volatility as it relates to the propensity for recovery rates to affect tranche prices; and
</P>
<P>(vi) To the extent the comprehensive risk measure incorporates the benefits of dynamic hedging, the static nature of the hedge over the liquidity horizon must be recognized. In such cases, a Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(C) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture in the comprehensive risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies;
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution must use market data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the Board-regulated institution's correlation trading positions in order to ensure that the Board-regulated institution fully captures the material risks of the correlation trading positions in its comprehensive risk measure in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must be able to demonstrate that its model is an appropriate representation of comprehensive risk in light of the historical price variation of its correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for stress testing.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must at least weekly apply specific, supervisory stress scenarios to its portfolio of correlation trading positions that capture changes in:
</P>
<P>(i) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recovery rates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit spreads;
</P>
<P>(iv) Correlations of underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(v) Correlations of a correlation trading position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other requirements.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution must retain and make available to the Board the results of the supervisory stress testing, including comparisons with the capital requirements generated by the Board-regulated institution's comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Board-regulated institution must report to the Board promptly any instances where the stress tests indicate any material deficiencies in the comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> The comprehensive risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the comprehensive risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent comprehensive risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.210" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.210   Standardized measurement method for specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must calculate a total specific risk add-on for each portfolio of debt and equity positions for which the Board-regulated institution's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk and for all securitization positions that are not modeled under § 217.209. A Board-regulated institution must calculate each specific risk add-on in accordance with the requirements of this section. Notwithstanding any other definition or requirement in this subpart, a position that would have qualified as a debt position or an equity position but for the fact that it qualifies as a correlation trading position under paragraph (2) of the definition of correlation trading position in § 217.2, shall be considered a debt position or an equity position, respectively, for purposes of this section 210 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents sold credit protection is capped at the notional amount of the credit derivative contract. The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents purchased credit protection is capped at the current fair value of the transaction plus the absolute value of the present value of all remaining payments to the protection seller under the transaction. This sum is equal to the value of the protection leg of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with linear payoffs, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or index portfolio, except for a securitization position for which the Board-regulated institution directly calculates a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section. A swap must be included as an effective notional position in the underlying instrument or portfolio, with the receiving side treated as a long position and the paying side treated as a short position. For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with nonlinear payoffs, a Board-regulated institution must risk weight the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or portfolio multiplied by the derivative's delta.
</P>
<P>(3) For debt, equity, or securitization positions, a Board-regulated institution may net long and short positions (including derivatives) in identical issues or identical indices. A Board-regulated institution may also net positions in depositary receipts against an opposite position in an identical equity in different markets, provided that the Board-regulated institution includes the costs of conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) A set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge has a specific risk add-on of zero if:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt or securitization position is fully hedged by a total return swap (or similar instrument where there is a matching of swap payments and changes in fair value of the debt or securitization position);
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the swap and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the swap and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the swap and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in cases where a total return swap references a portfolio of positions with different maturity dates, the total return swap maturity date must match the maturity date of the underlying asset in that portfolio that has the latest maturity date.
</P>
<P>(5) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of paragraph (a)(4) of this section is equal to 20.0 percent of the capital requirement for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on when:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit risk of the position is fully hedged by a credit default swap or similar instrument;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in the case where the credit derivative hedge has a standard maturity date:
</P>
<P>(A) The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is within 30 business days of the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or
</P>
<P>(B) For purchased credit protection, the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is later than the maturity date of the debt or securitization position, but is no later than the standard maturity date for that instrument that immediately follows the maturity date of the debt or securitization position. The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge may not exceed the maturity date of the debt or securitization position by more than 90 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(6) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of either paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section, but in which all or substantially all of the price risk has been hedged, is equal to the specific risk add-on for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debt and securitization positions.</I> (1) The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of debt or securitization positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons for individual debt or securitization positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on for individual debt or securitization positions, a Board-regulated institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short debt or securitization position in the portfolio by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of this section, the appropriate specific risk-weighting factors include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sovereign debt positions.</I> (A) In accordance with Table 1 to § 217.210, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, or if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign, based on whether the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subpart, sovereign debt positions that are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States are treated as having a CRC of 0.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Sovereign Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Specific risk-weighting factor 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2"> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may assign to a sovereign debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the applicable specific risk-weighting factor in Table 1 to § 217.210 if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The position is denominated in the sovereign entity's currency;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Board-regulated institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The sovereign entity allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign the lower specific risk-weighting factor to the same exposures to the sovereign entity.
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position immediately upon determination a default has occurred; or if a default has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(D) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) A Board-regulated institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certain supranational entity and multilateral development bank debt positions.</I> A Board-regulated institution may assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>GSE debt positions.</I> A Board-regulated institution must assign a 1.6 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a GSE. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a Board-regulated institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Depository institution, foreign bank, and credit union debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution, a foreign bank, or a credit union, in accordance with Table 2 to § 217.210, based on the CRC that corresponds to that entity's home country or the OECD membership status of that entity's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the entity's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Depository Institution, Foreign Bank, and Credit Union Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) A Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution or a foreign bank that is includable in the depository institution's or foreign bank's regulatory capital and that is not subject to deduction as a reciprocal holding under § 217.22.
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determination that a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred or if a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PSE debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v)(B) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a PSE in accordance with Tables 3 and 4 to § 217.210 depending on the position's categorization as a general obligation or revenue obligation based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, as set forth in Tables 3 and 4 of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A Board-regulated institution may assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 and 4 of this section to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The PSE's home country allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor to such position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The specific risk-weighting factor is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Tables 3 and 4 of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A Board-regulated institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a PSE debt position immediately upon determination that a default by the PSE's home country has occurred or if a default by the PSE's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 217.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for PSE General Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">General obligation specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 217.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for PSE Revenue Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Revenue obligation specific risk-weighting factor
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-1 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 2-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) <I>Corporate debt positions.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a corporate debt position in accordance with the investment grade methodology in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Investment grade methodology.</I> (<I>1</I>) For corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that have issued and outstanding publicly traded instruments, a Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor based on the category and remaining contractual maturity of the position, in accordance with Table 5 to § 217.210. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>), the Board-regulated institution must determine whether the position is in the investment grade or not investment grade category.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 217.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Corporate Debt Positions Under the Investment Grade Methodology
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining contractual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specific risk-weighting factor
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor for corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that do not have publicly traded instruments outstanding.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> (<I>1</I>) A Board-regulated institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of at least 8.0 percent to an interest-only mortgage-backed security that is not a securitization position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution shall not assign a corporate debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the specific risk-weighting factor that corresponds to the CRC of the issuer's home country, if applicable, in table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Securitization positions</I>—(A) <I>General requirements.</I> (<I>1</I>) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or is a U.S. intermediate holding company that is required to be established or designated pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153 and that is not calculating risk-weighted assets according to Subpart E must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a securitization position using either the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section (and § 217.211) or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or is a U.S. intermediate holding company that is required to be established or designated pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153 and that is calculating risk-weighted assets according to Subpart E must calculate a specific risk add-on for a securitization position in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section if the Board-regulated institution and the securitization position each qualifies to use the SFA in § 217.143. A Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or is a U.S. intermediate holding company that is required to be established or designated pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153 and that is calculating risk-weighted assets according to Subpart E with a securitization position that does not qualify for the SFA under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section may assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the securitization position using the SSFA in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A Board-regulated institution must treat a short securitization position as if it is a long securitization position solely for calculation purposes when using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>SFA.</I> To calculate the specific risk add-on for a securitization position using the SFA, a Board-regulated institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must set the specific risk add-on for the position equal to the risk-based capital requirement as calculated under § 217.143.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, a Board-regulated institution must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with § 217.211.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A Board-regulated institution must determine a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section, or assign a specific risk-weighting factor using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(D), regardless of whether the Board-regulated institution is a net protection buyer or net protection seller. A Board-regulated institution must determine its position in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of determining the specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the specific risk-weighting factor for an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section the Board-regulated institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its position as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's position to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific add-on for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the credit enhancement level (L) input to the SFA formula in section 143 of this subpart. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's position. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the Board-regulated institution's position.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the Board-regulated institution's position in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific risk add-on for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter D must be set to equal the L input plus the thickness of tranche T input to the SFA formula in § 217.143 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A Board-regulated institution that does not use the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to determine a specific risk-add on, or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to determine a specific risk-weighting factor for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Modeled correlation trading positions.</I> For purposes of calculating the comprehensive risk measure for modeled correlation trading positions under either paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (a)(2)(ii) of § 217.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the Board-regulated institution's specific risk add-ons for each net long correlation trading position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the Board-regulated institution's specific risk add-ons for each net short correlation trading position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-modeled securitization positions.</I> For securitization positions that are not correlation trading positions and for securitizations that are correlation trading positions not modeled under § 217.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the Board-regulated institution's specific risk add-ons for each net long securitization position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the Board-regulated institution's specific risk add-ons for each net short securitization position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equity positions.</I> The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of equity positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons of the individual equity positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on of individual equity positions, a Board-regulated institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as determined under this paragraph (e):
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent. For equity positions that are index contracts comprising a well-diversified portfolio of equity instruments, the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short position is multiplied by a specific risk-weighting factor of 2.0 percent.
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> A portfolio is well-diversified if it contains a large number of individual equity positions, with no single position representing a substantial portion of the portfolio's total fair value.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) For equity positions arising from the following futures-related arbitrage strategies, a Board-regulated institution may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to one side (long or short) of each position with the opposite side exempt from an additional capital requirement:
</P>
<P>(i) Long and short positions in exactly the same index at different dates or in different market centers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Long and short positions in index contracts at the same date in different, but similar indices.
</P>
<P>(3) For futures contracts on main indices that are matched by offsetting positions in a basket of stocks comprising the index, a Board-regulated institution may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to the futures and stock basket positions (long and short), provided that such trades are deliberately entered into and separately controlled, and that the basket of stocks is comprised of stocks representing at least 90.0 percent of the capitalization of the index. A main index refers to the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the Board-regulated institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the equities represented in the index have liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads comparable to equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization positions.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization position that would materially affect the performance of the position by conducting and documenting the analysis set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. The Board-regulated institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization position and the materiality of the position in relation to capital.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding for each securitization position by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization position prior to acquiring the position and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring position, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the position, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization positions, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for each securitization position.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 78295, Dec. 30, 2014; 84 FR 35269, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4419, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.211" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.211   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, a Board-regulated institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A Board-regulated institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position using the SSFA, a Board-regulated institution must have accurate information on the five inputs to the SSFA calculation described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the position. Except as provided in § 217.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the position of the Board-regulated institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the position that contains the Board-regulated institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the position would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 217.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization positions that are <I>pari passu</I> with the position (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization positions that are not resecuritization positions and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a position as described in this paragraph (c) and paragraph (d) of this section. The specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a securitization position, or portion of a position, as appropriate, is the larger of the specific risk-weighting factor determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a specific risk-weighting factor of 1.6 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization position is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the position must be assigned a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization position is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the specific risk-weighting factor is a weighted-average of 1.00 and K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated under paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For the purpose of this calculation:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight assigned to 1.00 equals
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11oc13.057.gif"/>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.212" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.212   Market risk disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> A Board-regulated institution must comply with this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or a depository institution that is subject to these requirements or of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. A Board-regulated institution must make timely public disclosures each calendar quarter. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reporting amounts are no longer reflective of the Board-regulated institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be provided as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter may be disclosed annually, provided any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. If a Board-regulated institution believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public certain information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the Board-regulated institution is not required to disclose these specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed. The Board-regulated institution's management may provide all of the disclosures required by this section in one place on the Board-regulated institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Board-regulated institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure policy.</I> The Board-regulated institution must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses the Board-regulated institution's approach for determining its market risk disclosures. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management must ensure that appropriate verification of the disclosures takes place and that effective internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures are maintained. One or more senior officers of the Board-regulated institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart, and the board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> (1) For each material portfolio of covered positions, the Board-regulated institution must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The high, low, and mean VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(ii) The high, low, and mean stressed VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the stressed VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iii) The high, low, and mean incremental risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the incremental risk capital requirement at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iv) The high, low, and mean comprehensive risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the comprehensive risk capital requirement at period-end, with the period-end requirement broken down into appropriate risk classifications (for example, default risk, migration risk, correlation risk);
</P>
<P>(v) Separate measures for interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk used to calculate the VaR-based measure; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A comparison of VaR-based estimates with actual gains or losses experienced by the Board-regulated institution, with an analysis of important outliers.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the Board-regulated institution must disclose publicly the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate amount of on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet securitization positions by exposure type; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate amount of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> For each material portfolio of covered positions, the Board-regulated institution must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, or more frequently in the event of material changes for each portfolio:
</P>
<P>(1) The composition of material portfolios of covered positions;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's valuation policies, procedures, and methodologies for covered positions including, for securitization positions, the methods and key assumptions used for valuing such positions, any significant changes since the last reporting period, and the impact of such change;
</P>
<P>(3) The characteristics of the internal models used for purposes of this subpart. For the incremental risk capital requirement and the comprehensive risk capital requirement, this must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The approach used by the Board-regulated institution to determine liquidity horizons;
</P>
<P>(ii) The methodologies used to achieve a capital assessment that is consistent with the required soundness standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific approaches used in the validation of these models;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the approaches used for validating and evaluating the accuracy of internal models and modeling processes for purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) For each market risk category (that is, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk), a description of the stress tests applied to the positions subject to the factor;
</P>
<P>(6) The results of the comparison of the Board-regulated institution's internal estimates for purposes of this subpart with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development;
</P>
<P>(7) The soundness standard on which the Board-regulated institution's internal capital adequacy assessment under this subpart is based, including a description of the methodologies used to achieve a capital adequacy assessment that is consistent with the soundness standard;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the Board-regulated institution's processes for monitoring changes in the credit and market risk of securitization positions, including how those processes differ for resecuritization positions; and
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the Board-regulated institution's policy governing the use of credit risk mitigation to mitigate the risks of securitization and resecuritization positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 217.213-217.299" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.6.28.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 217.213-217.299   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Transition Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.300" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.300   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation and countercyclical capital buffer.</I> (1) From January 1, 2014 through December 31, 2015, a Board-regulated institution is not subject to limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 217.11 of subpart B of this part notwithstanding the amount of its capital conservation buffer or any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding § 217.11, beginning January 1, 2016 through December 31, 2018 a Board-regulated institution's maximum payout ratio shall be determined as set forth in Table 1 to § 217.300.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
<br/>(as a percentage of 
<br/>eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.469 percent plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 17.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 17.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.313 percent plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 12.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 12.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.156 percent plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 6.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.156 percent plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 6.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 50 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 50 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.938 percent plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 37.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 37.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.313 percent plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 12.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 12.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 75 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 75 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 1.406 percent plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 56.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.406 percent plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 56.25 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.938 percent plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 37.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 37.5 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 0.469 percent plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 18.75 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount and 18.75 percent of any applicable GSIB surcharge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying capital instruments</I>—(1) <I>Depository institution holding companies with total consolidated assets of more than $15 billion as of December 31, 2009 that were not mutual holding companies prior to May 19, 2010.</I> The transition provisions in this paragraph (c)(1) apply to debt or equity instruments that do not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in § 217.20, but that were issued and included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital, respectively (or, in the case of a savings and loan holding company, would have been included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital if the savings and loan holding company had been subject to the general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 225, appendix A), prior to May 19, 2010 (non-qualifying capital instruments), and that were issued by a depository institution holding company with total consolidated assets greater than or equal to $15 billion as of December 31, 2009 that was not a mutual holding company prior to May 19, 2010 (2010 MHC) (depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more).
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more may include in tier 1 and tier 2 capital non-qualifying capital instruments up to the applicable percentage set forth in Table 8 to § 217.300 of the aggregate outstanding principal amounts of non-qualifying tier 1 and tier 2 capital instruments, respectively, that are outstanding as of January 1, 2014, beginning January 1, 2014, for a depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that is not a savings and loan holding company, and beginning January 1, 2015, for all other depository institution holding companies of $15 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more must apply the applicable percentages set forth in Table 8 to § 217.300 separately to the aggregate amounts of its tier 1 and tier 2 non-qualifying capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of non-qualifying capital instruments that must be excluded from additional tier 1 capital in accordance with this section may be included in tier 2 capital without limitation, provided the instruments meet the criteria for tier 2 capital set forth in § 217.20(d).
</P>
<P>(iv) Non-qualifying capital instruments that do not meet the criteria for tier 2 capital set forth in § 217.20(d) may be included in tier 2 capital as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) A depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include non-qualifying capital instruments that have been phased-out of tier 1 capital in tier 2 capital, and
</P>
<P>(B) During calendar years 2014 and 2015, a depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include non-qualifying capital instruments in tier 2 capital that have been phased out of tier 1 capital in accordance with Table 8 to § 217.300. Beginning January 1, 2016, a depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may include non-qualifying capital instruments in tier 2 capital that have been phased out of tier 1 capital in accordance with Table 8, up to the applicable percentages set forth in Table 9 to § 217.300.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> (i) A depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more that acquires after December 31, 2013 either a depository institution holding company with total consolidated assets of less than $15 billion as of December 31, 2009 (depository institution holding company under $15 billion) or a depository institution holding company that is a 2010 MHC, may include in regulatory capital the non-qualifying capital instruments issued by the acquired organization up to the applicable percentages set forth in Table 8 to § 217.300.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a depository institution holding company under $15 billion acquires after December 31, 2013 a depository institution holding company under $15 billion or a 2010 MHC, and the resulting organization has total consolidated assets of $15 billion or more as reported on the resulting organization's FR Y-9C for the period in which the transaction occurred, the resulting organization may include in regulatory capital non-qualifying instruments of the resulting organization up to the applicable percentages set forth in Table 8 to § 217.300.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 217.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period
<br/>(calendar year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of non-qualifying capital instruments includable in additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital for a depository institution holding company of $15 billion or more
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2014</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2015</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016 and thereafter</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> 0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Depository institution holding companies under $15 billion and 2010 MHCs.</I> (i) Non-qualifying capital instruments issued by depository institution holding companies under $15 billion and 2010 MHCs prior to May 19, 2010, may be included in additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital if the instrument was included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital, respectively, as of January 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-qualifying capital instruments includable in tier 1 capital are subject to a limit of 25 percent of tier 1 capital elements, excluding any non-qualifying capital instruments and after applying all regulatory capital deductions and adjustments to tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-qualifying capital instruments that are not included in tier 1 as a result of the limitation in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section are includable in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Depository institutions.</I> (i) Beginning on January 1, 2014, a depository institution that is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution, and beginning on January 1, 2015, all other depository institutions, may include in regulatory capital debt or equity instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010 that do not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in § 217.20 but that were included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital respectively as of September 12, 2010 (non-qualifying capital instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010) up to the percentage of the outstanding principal amount of such non-qualifying capital instruments as of January 1, 2014 in accordance with Table 9 to § 217.300.
</P>
<P>(ii) Table 9 to § 217.300 applies separately to tier 1 and tier 2 non-qualifying capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of non-qualifying capital instruments that cannot be included in additional tier 1 capital under this section may be included in tier 2 capital without limitation, provided that the instruments meet the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under § 217.20(d).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 217.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period (calendar year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of non-qualifying capital
<br/>instruments includable in additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2014</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2015</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2019</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2020</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2021</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2022 and thereafter</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prompt corrective action.</I> For purposes of 12 CFR part 208, subpart D, a Board-regulated institution must calculate its capital measures and tangible equity ratio in accordance with the transition provisions in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) Until July 21, 2015, this part will not apply to any bank holding company subsidiary of a foreign banking organization that is currently relying on Supervision and Regulation Letter SR 01-01 issued by the Board (as in effect on May 19, 2010).
</P>
<P>(g) A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may apply the treatment under §§ 217.21 and 217.22(c)(2), (5), (6), and (d)(2) applicable to an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution during the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2020. During the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, a Board-regulated institution that makes such an election must deduct 80 percent of the amount otherwise required to be deducted under § 217.22(d)(2) and must apply a 100 percent risk weight to assets not deducted under § 217.22(d)(2). In addition, during the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, a Board-regulated institution that makes such an election must include in its regulatory capital 20 percent of any minority interest that exceeds the amount of minority interest includable in regulatory capital under § 217.21 as it applies to an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution. A Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must apply the treatment under §§ 217.21 and 217.22 applicable to a Board-regulated institution that is not an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution beginning April 1, 2020, and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>SA-CCR.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may use CEM rather than SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 217.34(a) and 217.132(c) until January 1, 2022. A Board-regulated institution must provide prior notice to the Board if it decides to begin using SA-CCR before January 1, 2022. On January 1, 2022, and thereafter, an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution must use SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 217.34(a), 217.132(c), and 217.135(d). Once an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution has begun to use SA-CCR, the advanced approaches Board-regulated institution may not change to use CEM.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Default fund contributions.</I> Prior to January 1, 2022, a Board-regulated institution that calculates the exposure amounts of its derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk in § 217.132(c) may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP under either method 1 under § 217.35(d)(3)(i) or method 2 under § 217.35(d)(3)(ii), rather than under § 217.133(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 78 FR 62157, 62285, Oct. 11, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62290, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70672, Nov. 16, 2015; 80 FR 49103, Aug. 14, 2015; 82 FR 55316, Nov. 21, 2017; 83 FR 705, Jan. 8, 2018; 84 FR 35269, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 61807, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4429, Jan. 24, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.301" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.301   Current expected credit losses (CECL) transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CECL transition provision.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a Board-regulated institution may elect to use a CECL transition provision pursuant to this section only if the Board-regulated institution records a reduction in retained earnings due to the adoption of CECL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that elects to use the CECL transition provision must elect to use the CECL transition provision in the first Call Report or FR Y-9C that includes CECL filed by the Board-regulated institution after it adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution that does not elect to use the CECL transition provision as of the first Call Report or FR Y-9C that includes CECL filed as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not elect to use the CECL transition provision in subsequent reporting periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transition period</I> means the three-year period beginning the first day of the fiscal year in which a Board-regulated institution adopts CECL and reflects CECL in its first Call Report or FR Y-9C filed after that date; or, for the 2020 CECL transition provision under paragraph (d) of this section, the five-year period beginning on the earlier of the date a Board-regulated institution was required to adopt CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP (as in effect January 1, 2020), or the first day of the fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year in which the Board-regulated institution files regulatory reports that include CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CECL transitional amount</I> means the difference net of any DTAs, in the amount of a Board-regulated institution's retained earnings as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL from the amount of the Board-regulated institution's retained earnings as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the Board-regulated institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DTA transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a Board-regulated institution's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL from the amount of the Board-regulated institution's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the Board-regulated institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>AACL transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a Board-regulated institution's AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL and the amount of the Board-regulated institution's ALLL as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the Board-regulated institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligible credit reserves transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of a Board-regulated institution's eligible credit reserves as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL from the amount of the Board-regulated institution's eligible credit reserves as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the Board-regulated institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the three-year CECL transition provision.</I> (1) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, a Board-regulated institution must make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an advanced approaches or Category III Board-regulated institution must make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition provision, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>2020 CECL transition provision.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a Board-regulated institution that adopts CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP as of the first day of a fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year may elect to use the transitional amounts and modified transitional amounts in paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to adjust its calculation of regulatory capital ratios during each quarter of the transition period in which a Board-regulated institution uses CECL for purposes of its Call Report or FR Y-9C. A Board-regulated institution may use the transition provision in this paragraph (d) if it has a positive modified CECL transitional amount during any quarter ending in 2020, and makes the election in the Call Report or FR Y-9C filed for the same quarter. A Board-regulated institution that does not calculate a positive modified CECL transitional amount in any quarter is not required to apply the adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios in paragraph (d)(2) of this section in that quarter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modified CECL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report or FR Y-9C, and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report or Y-9C at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Modified AACL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report or FR Y-9C, and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report or FR Y-9C at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the Board-regulated institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of 2020 CECL transition provision.</I> (i) A Board-regulated institution that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase retained earnings by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(B) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one-hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(C) Decrease amounts of AACL by one-hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by one hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its AACL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(D) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report or FR Y-9C for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches or Category III Board-regulated institution that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one-hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible credit reserves shortfall.</I> An advanced approaches Board-regulated institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the Board pursuant to § 217.121(d), whose amount of expected credit loss exceeded its eligible credit reserves immediately prior to the adoption of CECL, and that has an increase in common equity tier 1 capital as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which it adopts CECL after including the first year portion of the CECL transitional amount (or modified CECL transitional amount) must decrease its CECL transitional amount used in paragraph (c) of this section (or modified CECL transitional amount used in paragraph (d) of this section) by the full amount of its DTA transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Business combinations.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, for purposes of this paragraph (f), in the event of a business combination involving a Board-regulated institution where one or both Board-regulated institutions have elected the treatment described in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) If the acquirer Board-regulated institution (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, the acquirer Board-regulated institution must continue to use the transitional amounts (unaffected by the business combination) that it calculated as of the date that it adopted CECL through the end of its transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquired company (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, any transitional amount of the acquired company does not transfer to the resulting Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 61589, Sept. 30, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.302" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.302   Exposures Related the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, a Board-regulated institution may exclude exposures acquired pursuant to a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, announced by the Board on March 18, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable. For the purpose of this provision, a board-regulated institution's liability under the facility must be reduced by the purchase price of the assets acquired with funds advanced from the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 16236, Mar. 23, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.303" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.303   Temporary exclusions from total leverage exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section and notwithstanding any other requirement in this part, when calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter for purposes of determining the Board-regulated institution's total leverage exposure under § 217.10(c), a Board-regulated institution that is a depository institution holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company must, and a Board-regulated institution that is a state member bank may, exclude the balance sheet carrying value of the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. Treasury securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Funds on deposit at a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in period.</I> Before applying the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section, a state member bank must first notify the Board before July 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of relief.</I> When calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter, the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section applies from the beginning of the reporting quarter in which the state member bank filed an opt-in notice through the termination date specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of exclusions.</I> This section shall cease to be effective after the reporting period that ends March 31, 2021.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Custodial banking organizations.</I> A custodial banking organization must reduce the amount in § 217.10(c)(2)(x)(A) (to no less than zero) by any amount excluded under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure.</I> Notwithstanding Table 13 to § 217.173, a Board-regulated institution that is required to make the disclosures pursuant to § 217.173 must exclude the items excluded pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section from Table 13 to § 217.173.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Board approval for distributions.</I> During the calendar quarter beginning on July 1, 2020, and until March 31, 2021, no state member bank that has opted in to the relief provided under paragraph (a) of this section may make a distribution, or create an obligation to make such a distribution, without prior Board approval. When reviewing a request under this paragraph (g), the Board will consider all relevant factors, including whether the distribution would be contrary to the safety and soundness of the state member bank; the nature, purpose, and extent of the request; and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 32989, June 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.304" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.304   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.305" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.305   Exposures related to the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, a Board-regulated institution may exclude exposures pledged as collateral for a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility, announced by the Board on April 7, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable. For the purpose of this section, a Board-regulated institution's liability under the facility must be reduced by the principal amount of the loans pledged as collateral for funds advanced under the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.306" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.7.28.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.306   Building Block Approach (BBA) capital conservation buffer transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any provision of this part and subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an insurance bank holding company, or insurance savings and loan holding company, that, on January 1, 2023, was not subject to this part is not subject to any restrictions on distributions or discretionary bonus payments under §§ 217.11 and 217.604.
</P>
<P>(b) This section ceases to be effective after March 31, 2026.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 88 FR 82969, Nov. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Risk-based Capital Surcharge for Global Systemically Important Bank Holding Companies</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5365.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Q, 80 FR 49105, Aug. 14, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 217.400" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.400   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements provisions of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365), by establishing a risk-based capital surcharge for global systemically important bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This subpart applies to a bank holding company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Category III Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a consolidated subsidiary of a foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date of calculation and surcharge requirements.</I> (i) A bank holding company identified in § 217.400(b)(1) is subject to § 217.402 of this part and must determine whether it qualifies as a global systemically important BHC by December 31 of the year immediately following the year in which the bank holding company becomes an advanced approaches Board-regulated institution or a Category III Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank holding company that becomes a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402 must calculate its GSIB surcharge pursuant to § 217.403 by December 31 of the year in which the bank holding company is identified as a global systemically important BHC and must use that GSIB surcharge for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to § 217.11 beginning on January 1 of the year that is immediately following the full calendar year after it is identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> (1) The Board may apply this subpart to any Board-regulated institution, in whole or in part, by order of the Board based on the institution's capital structure, size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may adjust the amount of the GSIB surcharge applicable to a global systemically important BHC, or extend or accelerate any compliance date of this subpart, if the Board determines that the adjustment, extension, or acceleration is appropriate in light of the capital structure, size, complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations of the global systemically important BHC. In increasing the size of the GSIB surcharge for a global systemically important BHC, the Board shall follow the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR part 263, subpart E.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 80 FR 49105, Aug. 14, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 59075, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.401" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Aggregate global indicator amount</I> means, for each systemic indicator, the aggregate measure of that indicator, which is equal to the most recent annual dollar figure published by the Board that represents the sum of systemic indicator values of:
</P>
<P>(1) The 75 largest global banking organizations, as measured by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other banking organization that the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision includes in its sample total for that year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assets under custody</I> means assets held as a custodian on behalf of customers, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Average risk-weighted assets</I> means the four-quarter average of the measure of total risk-weighted assets associated with the lower of the bank holding company's common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratios, as reported on the bank holding company's FR Y-9C for each quarter of the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Brokered deposit</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consolidated subsidiary</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Covered asset exchange</I> means a transaction in which a bank holding company has provided assets of a given liquidity category to a counterparty in exchange for assets of a higher liquidity category, and the bank holding company and the counterparty agreed to return such assets to each other at a future date. Categories of assets, in descending order of liquidity, are level 1 liquid assets, level 2A liquid assets, level 2B liquid assets, and assets that are not HQLA. Covered asset exchanges do not include secured funding transactions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Financial sector entity</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>High-quality liquid asset (HQLA)</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Cross-jurisdictional claims</I> means foreign claims on an ultimate risk basis, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Cross-jurisdictional liabilities</I> means total cross-jurisdictional liabilities, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Intra-financial system assets</I> means total intra-financial system assets, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Intra-financial system liabilities</I> means total intra-financial system liabilities, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Level 1 liquid asset</I> is an asset that qualifies as a level 1 liquid asset pursuant to 12 CFR 249.20(a).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Level 2A liquid asset</I> is an asset that qualifies as a level 2A liquid asset pursuant to 12 CFR 249.20(b).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Level 2B liquid asset</I> is an asset that qualifies as a level 2B liquid asset pursuant to 12 CFR 249.20(c).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Level 3 assets</I> means assets valued using Level 3 measurement inputs, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Notional amount of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives</I> means the total notional amount of OTC derivatives, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Operational deposit</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Payments activity</I> means payments activity, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Secured funding transaction</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Securities outstanding</I> means total securities outstanding, as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Short position</I> means a transaction in which a bank holding company has borrowed or otherwise obtained a security from a counterparty and sold that security, and the bank holding company must return the security to the initial counterparty in the future.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Systemic indicator</I> includes the following indicators included on the FR Y-15:
</P>
<P>(1) Total exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Intra-financial system assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Intra-financial system liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Securities outstanding;
</P>
<P>(5) Payments activity;
</P>
<P>(6) Assets under custody;
</P>
<P>(7) Underwritten transactions in debt and equity markets;
</P>
<P>(8) Notional amount of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives;
</P>
<P>(9) Trading and available-for-sale (AFS) securities;
</P>
<P>(10) Level 3 assets;
</P>
<P>(11) Cross-jurisdictional claims; or
</P>
<P>(12) Cross-jurisdictional liabilities.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Total exposures</I> means total exposures as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Trading and AFS securities</I> means total adjusted trading and available-for-sale securities as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Underwritten transactions in debt and equity markets</I> means total underwriting activity as reported by the bank holding company on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Unsecured wholesale funding</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Wholesale customer or counterparty</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 249.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.402" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.402   Identification as a global systemically important BHC.</HEAD>
<P>A bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC if its method 1 score, as calculated under § 217.404, equals or exceeds 130 basis points. Subject to § 217.400(b)(2), a bank holding company must calculate its method 1 score on an annual basis by December 31 of each year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.403" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.403   GSIB surcharge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subject to § 217.400(b)(2), a company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402 must calculate its GSIB surcharge on an annual basis by December 31 of each year. For any given year, subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the GSIB surcharge is equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The method 1 surcharge calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The method 2 surcharge calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method 1 surcharge</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The method 1 surcharge of a global systemically important BHC is the amount set forth in Table 1 of this section that corresponds to the global systemically important BHC's method 1 score, calculated pursuant to § 217.404.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.403—Method 1 Surcharge
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method 1 score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method 1 surcharge
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130—229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230—329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330—429</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">430—529</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">530—629</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Higher method 1 surcharges.</I> To the extent that the method 1 score of a global systemically important BHC equals or exceeds 630 basis points, the method 1 surcharge equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) 4.5 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An additional 1.0 percent for each 100 basis points that the global systemically important BHC's score exceeds 630 basis points.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method 2 surcharge</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The method 2 surcharge of a global systemically important BHC is the amount set forth in Table 2 of this section that corresponds to the global systemically important BHC's method 2 score, calculated pursuant to § 217.405.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 217.403—Method 2 Surcharge
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method 2 score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Method 2 surcharge
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 130</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">130—229</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">230—329</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">330—429</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">430—529</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">530—629</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">630—729</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">730—829</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">830—929</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">930—1029</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1030—1129</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.5 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Higher method 2 surcharges.</I> To the extent that the method 2 score of a global systemically important BHC equals or exceeds 1130 basis points, the method 2 surcharge equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) 6.5 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An additional 0.5 percent for each 100 basis points that the global systemically important BHC's score exceeds 1130 basis points.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective date of an adjusted GSIB surcharge</I>—(1) <I>Increase in GSIB surcharge.</I> An increase in the GSIB surcharge of a global systemically important BHC will take effect (<I>i.e.,</I> be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to § 217.11) on January 1 of the year that is one full calendar year after the increased GSIB surcharge was calculated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decrease in GSIB surcharge.</I> A decrease in the GSIB surcharge of a global systemically important BHC will take effect (<I>i.e.,</I> be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to § 217.11) on January 1 of the year immediately following the calendar year in which the decreased GSIB surcharge was calculated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.404" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.404   Method 1 score.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company's method 1 score is the sum of its systemic indicator scores for the twelve systemic indicators set forth Table 1 of this section, as determined under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Systemic indicator score.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the systemic indicator score in basis points for a given systemic indicator is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of that systemic indicator, as reported by the bank holding company as of December 31 of the previous calendar year; to
</P>
<P>(B) The aggregate global indicator amount for that systemic indicator published by the Board in the fourth quarter of that year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplied by 10,000; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Multiplied by the indicator weight corresponding to the systemic indicator as set forth in Table 1 of this section.</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum substitutability score.</I> The sum of the systemic indicator scores for the indicators in the substitutability category (assets under custody, payments systems activity, and underwriting activity) will not exceed 100 basis points.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.404—Systemic Indicator Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Systemic indicator
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Indicator weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total exposures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interconnectedness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intra-financial system assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intra-financial system liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Securities outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substitutability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Payments activity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assets under custody</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underwritten transactions in debt and equity markets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Complexity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trading and available-for-sale (AFS) securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level 3 assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.67 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-jurisdictional activity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-jurisdictional claims</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-jurisdictional liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 80 FR 49105, Aug. 14, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 90954, Dec. 16, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.405" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.405   Method 2 score.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A global systemically important BHC's method 2 score is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The global systemically important BHC's systemic indicator scores for the nine systemic indicators set forth Table 1 of this section, as determined under paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The global systemically important BHC's short-term wholesale funding score, calculated pursuant to § 217.406.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Systemic indicator score.</I> A global systemically important BHC's score for a systemic indicator is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the systemic indicator, as reported by the bank holding company as of December 31 of the previous calendar year, expressed in billions of dollars;
</P>
<P>(2) Multiplied by the coefficient corresponding to the systemic indicator set forth in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.405—Coefficients for Systemic Indicators
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Systemic indicator
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coefficient value
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Size</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total exposures</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.423
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interconnectedness</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intra-financial system assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.007
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Intra-financial system liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.490
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Securities outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.056
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Complexity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.155
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trading and available-for-sale (AFS) securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30.169
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level 3 assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">161.177
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-jurisdictional activity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-jurisdictional claims</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.277
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-jurisdictional liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.926</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Q, 80 FR 49105, Aug. 14, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 90954, Dec. 16, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.406" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.8.28.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.406   Short-term wholesale funding score.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in § 217.400(b)(3)(ii), a global systemically important BHC's short-term wholesale funding score is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the global systemically important BHC's weighted short-term wholesale funding amount (defined in paragraph (b) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) Divided by the global systemically important BHC's average risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) Multiplied by a fixed factor of 350.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Weighted short-term wholesale funding amount.</I> (1) To calculate its weighted short-term wholesale funding amount, a global systemically important BHC must calculate the amount of its short-term wholesale funding on a consolidated basis for each business day of the previous calendar year and weight the components of short-term wholesale funding in accordance with Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Short-term wholesale funding includes the following components, each as defined in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) All funds that the bank holding company must pay under each secured funding transaction, other than an operational deposit, with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) All funds that the bank holding company must pay under all unsecured wholesale funding, other than an operational deposit, with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) The fair value of an asset as determined under GAAP that a bank holding company must return under a covered asset exchange with a remaining maturity of 1 year or less;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fair value of an asset as determined under GAAP that the bank holding company must return under a short position to the extent that the borrowed asset does not qualify as a Level 1 liquid asset or a Level 2A liquid asset; and
</P>
<P>(v) All brokered deposits held at the bank holding company provided by a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the short-term wholesale funding amount and the components thereof, a bank holding company must assume that each asset or transaction described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section matures in accordance with the criteria set forth in 12 CFR 249.31.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.406—Short-Term Wholesale Funding Components and Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component of short-term wholesale funding
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>maturity of
<br/>30 days of less
<br/>or no maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>maturity of
<br/>31 to 90 days
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>maturity of
<br/>91 to 180 days
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>maturity of
<br/>181 to 365 days
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 1</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Secured funding transaction secured by a level 1 liquid asset;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Unsecured wholesale funding where the customer or counterparty is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Brokered deposits provided by a retail customer or counterparty; and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(4) Short positions where the borrowed asset does not qualify as either a level 1 liquid asset or level 2A liquid asset.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 2</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Secured funding transaction secured by a level 2A liquid asset; and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Covered asset exchanges involving the future exchange of a Level 1 liquid asset for a Level 2A liquid asset.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 3</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Secured funding transaction secured by a level 2B liquid asset;
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Covered asset exchanges (other than those described in Category 2); and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Unsecured wholesale funding (other than unsecured wholesale funding described in Category 1).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category 4</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">75 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Any other component of short-term wholesale funding.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Application of Capital Rules</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 76377, Dec. 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 217.501" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.9.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.501   The Board's Regulatory Capital Framework for Depository Institution Holding Companies Organized as Non-Stock Companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This section applies to all depository institution holding companies that are organized as legal entities other than stock corporations and that are subject to this part (Regulation Q, 12 CFR part 217).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR 217.1(c)(1) through (3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding §§ 217.2 and 217.10, a bank holding company or covered savings and loan holding company that is organized as a legal entity other than a stock corporation and has issued capital instruments that do not qualify as common equity tier 1 capital under § 217.20 by virtue of the requirements set forth in this section may treat those capital instruments as common equity tier 1 capital until July 1, 2016.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital criteria applied to capital instruments issued by non-stock companies.</I> (1) Subpart C of this part provides criteria for capital instruments to qualify as common equity tier 1 capital. This section describes how certain criteria apply to capital instruments issued by bank holding companies and covered savings and loan holding companies that are organized as legal entities other than stock corporations, such as limited liability companies (LLCs) and partnerships.
</P>
<P>(2) Holding companies are organized using a variety of legal structures, including corporate forms, LLCs, partnerships, and similar structures.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In the Board's experience, some depository institution holding companies that are organized in non-stock form issue multiple classes of capital instruments that allocate profit and loss from a distribution differently among classes, which may affect the ability of those classes to qualify as common equity tier 1 capital.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A stock corporation's common stock should satisfy the CET1 criteria so long as the common stock does not have unusual features, such as a limited duration.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Notably, voting powers or other means of exercising control are not relevant for purposes of satisfying the CET1 eligibility criteria. Thus, the fact that a particular partner or member controls a holding company, for instance, due to serving as general partner or managing member, is not material to qualification of particular interests as CET1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Common equity tier 1 capital is defined in § 217.20(b). To qualify as common equity tier 1 capital, capital instruments must satisfy a number of criteria. This section provides examples of the application of certain common equity tier 1 capital criteria that relate to the economic interests in the company represented by particular capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> The following examples show how the criteria for common equity tier 1 capital apply to particular partnership or LLC structures.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Although the examples refer to specific types of legal entities for purposes of illustration, the substance of the Regulation Q criteria reflected in the examples applies to all types of legal entities.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) <I>LLC with one class of membership interests.</I> (i) An LLC issues one class of membership interests that provides that all holders of the interests bear losses and receive dividends proportionate to their levels of ownership.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided that the other criteria in § 217.20(b) are met, the membership interests would qualify as common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partnership with limited and general partners.</I> (i) A partnership has two classes of interests: General partnership interests and limited partnership interests. The general partners and the limited partners bear losses and receive distributions allocated proportionately to their capital contributions. In addition, the general partner has unlimited liability for the debts of the partnership.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided that the other criteria in § 217.20(b) are met, the general and limited partnership interests would qualify as common equity tier 1 capital. The fact of unlimited liability of the general partner is not relevant in the context of the eligibility criteria of common equity tier 1 capital instruments, provided that the general partner and limited partners share losses equally to the extent of the assets of the partnership, and the general partner is liable after the assets of the partnership are exhausted. In this regard, the general partner's unlimited liability is similar to a guarantee provided by the general partner, rather than a feature of the general partnership interest.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Senior and junior classes of capital instruments.</I> (i) An LLC issues two types of membership interests, Class A and Class B. Holders of Class A and Class B interests participate equally in operating distributions and have equal voting rights. However, in liquidation, holders of Class B interests must receive the entire amount of their contributed capital in order for any distributions to be made to holders of Class A interests.
</P>
<P>(ii) Class B interests have a preference over Class A interests in liquidation and, therefore, would not qualify as common equity tier 1 capital as the Class B interests are not the most subordinated claim (criterion (i)) and do not share losses proportionately (criterion (viii) (§ 217.20(b)(1)(i) and (viii), respectively).
</P>
<P>(A) If all other criteria are satisfied, Class A interests would qualify as common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(B) Class B interests may qualify as additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, if the Class B interests meet the applicable criteria (§ 217.20(c) and (d)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>LLC with two classes of membership interests.</I> (i) An LLC issues two types of membership interests, Class A and Class B. To the extent that the LLC makes a distribution, holders of Class A and Class B interests share proportionately in any losses and receive proportionate shares of contributed capital. To the extent that a capital distribution includes an allocation of profits, holders of Class A and Class B interests share proportionately up to the point where all holders receive a specific annual rate of return on capital contributions, and, if the distribution exceeds that point, holders of Class B interests receive double their proportional share and holders of Class A interests receive the remainder of the distribution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Class A and Class B interests would both qualify as common equity tier 1 capital, provided that under all circumstances they share losses proportionately, as measured with respect to each distribution, and that they satisfy the common equity tier 1 capital criteria. The holders of Class A and Class B interests may receive different allocations of profits with respect to a distribution, provided that the distribution is made simultaneously to all members of Class A and Class B interests. Despite the potential for disproportionate profits, Class A and Class B interests have the same level of seniority with regard to potential losses and therefore they both satisfy all the criteria in § 217.20(b), including criterion (ii) (§ 217.20(b)(1)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alternative LLC with two classes of membership interests.</I> (i) An LLC issues two types of membership interests, Class A and Class B. In the event that the LLC makes a distribution, holders of Class A interests bear a disproportionately low level of any losses, such that the Class B interests bear a disproportionately high level of losses at the distribution. In contrast to the example in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the different participation rights apply to distributions in situations where losses are allocated, including losses at liquidation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Because holders of the Class A interests do not bear a proportional interest in the losses (criterion (ii) (§ 217.20(b)(1)(ii)), the Class A interests would not qualify as common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(A) Companies with such structures may revise their capital structures in order to provide for a sufficiently large class of capital instruments that proportionally bear first losses in liquidation (that is, the Class B interests in this example).
</P>
<P>(B) Alternatively, companies with such structures could revise their capital structure to ensure that all classes of capital instruments that are intended to qualify as common equity tier 1 capital share equally in losses in liquidation consistent with criteria (i), (ii), (vii), and (viii) in § 217.20(b)(1)(i), (ii), (vii), respectively, even if each class of capital instruments has different rights to allocations of profits, as in paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Mandatory distributions.</I> (i) A partnership agreement contains provisions that require distributions to holders of one or more classes of capital instruments on the occurrence of particular events, such as upon specific dates or following a significant sale of assets, but not including any final distributions in liquidation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any class of capital instruments that provides holders with rights to mandatory distributions would not qualify as common equity tier 1 capital because a holding company must have full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends and making any other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restriction on the holding company (criterion (vi) in § 217.20(b)(1)(vi)). Companies must ensure that they have a sufficient amount of capital instruments that do not have such rights and that meet the other criteria of common equity tier 1 capital, in order to meet the requirements of Regulation Q.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Features that Reallocate Prior Distributions.</I> (i) An LLC issues two types of membership interests, Class A and Class B. The terms of the LLC's membership interests provide that, under certain circumstances, holders of Class A interests must return a portion of earlier distributions, which are then distributed to holders of Class B interests (sometimes called a “clawback”).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the reallocation of prior distributions described in paragraph (c)(7)(i) of this section could result in holders of the Class B interests bearing fewer losses on an aggregate basis than Class A interests, the Class B interests would not qualify as common equity tier 1 capital. However, where the membership interests provide for disproportionate allocation of profits, such as described in the example in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, and the reallocation of prior distributions would be limited to reversing the disproportionate portions of prior distributions, both the Class A and Class B interests could qualify as common equity tier 1 capital provided that they met all the other criteria in § 217.20(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.502" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.9.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.502   Application of the Board's Regulatory Capital Framework to Employee Stock Ownership Plans that are Depository Institution Holding Companies and Certain Trusts that are Savings and Loan Holding Companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee Stock Ownership Plans.</I> Notwithstanding § 217.1(c), a bank holding company or covered savings and loan holding company that is an employee stock ownership plan is exempt from this part until the Board adopts regulations that directly relate to the application of capital regulations to employee stock ownership plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal or Family Trusts.</I> Notwithstanding § 217.1(c), a covered savings and loan holding company is exempt from this part if it is a personal or family trust and not a business trust until the Board adopts regulations that apply capital regulations to such a covered savings and loan holding company.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Risk-Based Capital Requirements for Board-Regulated Institutions Significantly Engaged in Insurance Activities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 82969, Nov. 27, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 217.601" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.601   Purpose, applicability, and reservations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes a framework for assessing overall risk-based capital for Board-regulated institutions that are significantly engaged in insurance activities. The framework in this subpart is used to measure available capital resources and capital requirements across a Board-regulated institution and its subsidiaries that are subject to diverse capital frameworks, aggregate available capital resources and capital requirements and calculate a ratio that reflects the overall capital adequacy of the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart applies to every Board-regulated institution that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier depository institution holding company, that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance underwriting for credit risk). For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the Board-regulated institution must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the Board-regulated institution does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board; or
</P>
<P>(3) Depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization; or
</P>
<P>(4) An institution that is otherwise made subject to this subpart by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of certain depository institution holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart does not apply to a top-tier depository institution holding company that—
</P>
<P>(1) Exclusively files financial statements in accordance with Statutory Accounting Principles (SAP);
</P>
<P>(2) Is not subject to a state insurance capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has no subsidiary depository institution holding company that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is subject to a capital requirement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not exclusively file financial statements in accordance with SAP.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Regulatory capital resources.</I> (i) If the Board determines that a particular company capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, the Board may require the supervised insurance organization to exclude all or a portion of such element from building block available capital for a depository institution holding company in the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding any provision of § 217.608, the Board may find that a capital resource may be included in the building block available capital of a depository institution holding company on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the capital resource and in accordance with § 217.608(g).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required capital amounts.</I> If the Board determines that the building block capital requirement for any depository institution holding company is not commensurate with the risks of the depository institution holding company, the Board may adjust the building block capital requirement and building block available capital for the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Structural requirements.</I> In order to achieve the appropriate application of this subpart, the Board may require a supervised insurance organization to take any of the following actions with respect to the application of this subpart, if the Board determines that such action would better reflect the risk profile of an inventory company or the supervised insurance organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify components under this subpart differently than as done by the supervised insurance organization. This could include a different identification of a top-tier depository institution holding company, an inventory company, a material financial entity, or a building block parent, then that made by the supervised insurance organization; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Set a building block parent's allocation share of a downstream building block parent equal to 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any treatment required under this subpart, the Board may require a different treatment, provided that such alternative treatment is commensurate with the supervised insurance organization's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response procedures.</I> In making any determinations under paragraph (d) of this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner as the notice and response procedures in § 263.202 of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.602" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.602   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms that are set forth in § 217.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 217.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Allocation share</I> means the portion of a downstream building block's available capital or building block capital requirement that a building block parent must aggregate in calculating its own building block available capital or building block capital requirement, as applicable, and calculated in accordance with § 217.605(d).
</P>
<P><I>Assignment</I> means the process of associating an inventory company with one or more building block parents for purposes of inclusion in the building block parents' building blocks.
</P>
<P><I>BBA ratio</I> is defined in § 217.603.
</P>
<P><I>Building block</I> means a building block parent and all downstream companies and subsidiaries assigned to the building block parent.
</P>
<P><I>Building block available capital</I> has the meaning set out in § 217.608.
</P>
<P><I>Building block capital requirement</I> has the meaning set out in § 217.607.
</P>
<P><I>Building block parent</I> means the lead company of a building block whose indicated capital framework must be applied to all members of a building block for purposes of determining building block available capital and the building block capital requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Capital-regulated company</I> means a company that is—
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution, foreign bank, or company engaged in the business of insurance in a supervised insurance organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly subject to a regulatory capital framework.
</P>
<P><I>Common capital framework</I> means NAIC RBC.
</P>
<P><I>Company available capital</I> means, for a company, the amount of its capital elements, net of any adjustments and deductions, as determined in accordance with the company's indicated capital framework.
</P>
<P><I>Company capital element</I> means any part, item, component, balance sheet account, instrument, or other element qualifying as regulatory capital under a company's indicated capital framework prior to any adjustments and deductions under that framework.
</P>
<P><I>Company capital requirement</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) For a company whose indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC, the Authorized Control Level risk-based capital requirement as set forth in NAIC RBC;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a company whose indicated capital framework is a U.S. Federal banking capital rule, the total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For any other company, a risk-sensitive measure of required capital used to determine the jurisdictional intervention point applicable to that company.
</P>
<P><I>Downstream building block parent</I> means a building block parent that is a downstream company of another building block parent.
</P>
<P><I>Downstream company</I> means a company whose company capital element is directly or indirectly owned, in whole or in part, by another company in the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P><I>Downstreamed capital</I> means direct ownership of a downstream company's company capital element that is accretive to a downstream building block parent's building block available capital. When calculating building block available capital, the amount of the downstreamed capital is calculated as the amount, excluding any impact on taxes, of the company available capital of the building block parent of the upstream building block, if the owner were to deduct the downstreamed capital.
</P>
<P><I>Financial entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company; a savings and loan holding; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with part 252 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or state credit union; a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity; an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers; or
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C) of that Act; or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to 17 CFR 270.3a-7 (Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission);
</P>
<P>(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(viii) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in underwriting insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies;
</P>
<P>(ix) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (i) through (ix) of this definition, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Indicated capital framework</I> is defined in § 217.605, provided that for purposes of § 217.605(b)(2), the NAIC RBC frameworks for life insurance and fraternal insurers, property and casualty (P&amp;C) insurance, and health insurance companies are different indicated capital frameworks.
</P>
<P><I>Inventory company</I> means a company identified pursuant to § 217.605(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means, for a company in the supervised insurance organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Where the top-tier depository institution holding company's total exposure to the company exceeds 5 percent of the maximum of—
</P>
<P>(A) Top-tier depository institution holding company's company available capital; and
</P>
<P>(B) The largest company available capital of all capital regulated companies reported in the supervised insurance organization's inventory; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The company is otherwise significant when assessing the building block available capital or building block capital requirement of the top-tier depository institution holding company based on factors including risk exposure, activities, organizational structure, complexity, affiliate guarantees or recourse rights, and size.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this definition, total exposure includes:
</P>
<P>(A) The absolute value of the top-tier depository institution holding company's direct or indirect interest in the company capital elements of the company;
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum possible loss from a guarantee (explicit or implicit) the top-tier depository institution holding company or any other company in the supervised insurance organization provides for the benefit of the company; and
</P>
<P>(C) Maximum potential counterparty credit risk to the top-tier depository institution holding company or any other company in the supervised insurance organization arising from any derivative or similar instrument, reinsurance or similar arrangement, or other contractual agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Material financial entity</I> means a financial entity that, together with its subsidiaries, but excluding any subsidiary capital-regulated company (or subsidiary thereof), is material, provided that an inventory company is not eligible to be a material financial entity if:
</P>
<P>(i) The supervised insurance organization has elected pursuant to § 217.605(c) not to treat the company as a material financial entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The inventory company is a financial subsidiary, as defined in section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
</P>
<P><I>Member</I> means, with respect to a building block, the building block parent or any of its downstream companies or subsidiaries that have been assigned to a building block.
</P>
<P><I>NAIC</I> means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.
</P>
<P><I>NAIC RBC</I> means the most recent version of the Risk-Based Capital (RBC) For Insurers Model Act, together with the RBC instructions, as adopted in a substantially similar manner by an NAIC member and published in the NAIC's Model Regulation Service.
</P>
<P><I>Permitted accounting practice</I> means an accounting practice, specifically requested by a state-regulated insurer, that departs from SAP and state prescribed accounting practices and has been approved by the state-regulated insurer's domiciliary state regulatory authority.
</P>
<P><I>Prescribed accounting practice</I> means an accounting practice that is incorporated directly or by reference to state laws, regulations, and general administrative rules applicable to all insurance companies domiciled in a particular state.
</P>
<P><I>Principles based reserving (PBR)</I> means the valuation standard adopted for certain life insurance reserves by the NAIC effective as of January 1, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Recalculated building block capital requirement</I> means, for a downstream building block parent and an upstream building block parent, the downstream building block parent's building block capital requirement recalculated assuming that the downstream building block parent had no upstream investment in the upstream building block parent.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital framework</I> means, with respect to a company, the applicable legal requirements, excluding this subpart, specifying the minimum amount of total regulatory capital the company must hold to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments, regulatory intervention on the basis of capital adequacy levels for the company, or equivalent standards; provided that the NAIC RBC frameworks for life and fraternal insurance, P&amp;C insurance, and health insurance companies are different regulatory capital frameworks.
</P>
<P><I>SAP</I> means Statutory Accounting Principles as promulgated by the NAIC and adopted by a jurisdiction for purposes of financial reporting by insurance companies.
</P>
<P><I>Scalar compatible</I> means a capital framework:
</P>
<P>(i) For which the Board has determined scalars; or
</P>
<P>(ii) That is an insurance capital regulatory framework, and exhibits each of the following three attributes:
</P>
<P>(A) The framework is clearly defined and broadly applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The framework has an identifiable regulatory intervention point that can be used to calibrate a scalar; and
</P>
<P>(C) The framework provides a risk-sensitive measure of required capital reflecting material risks to a company's financial strength.
</P>
<P><I>Scaling</I> means the translation of building block available capital and building block capital requirement from one indicated capital framework to another by application of § 217.606.
</P>
<P><I>Submission date</I> means the date as of which form FR Q-1 is filed with the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Supervised insurance organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a depository institution holding company, the set of companies consisting of:
</P>
<P>(A) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company, together with its inventory companies; or
</P>
<P>(B) A top-tier depository institution holding company, together with its inventory companies, that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance underwriting for credit risk). For purposes of this paragraph (i)(B), the supervised firm must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the firm does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An institution that is otherwise subject to this subpart, as determined by the Board, together with its inventory companies.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital instruments</I> has the meaning set out in § 217.608(a).
</P>
<P><I>Top-tier depository institution holding company</I> means a depository institution holding company that is not controlled by another depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Upstream building block parent</I> means an upstream company that is a building block parent.
</P>
<P><I>Upstream company</I> means a company within a supervised insurance organization that directly or indirectly controls a downstream company, or directly or indirectly owns part or all of a downstream company's company capital elements.
</P>
<P><I>Upstream investment</I> means any direct or indirect investment by a downstream building block parent in an upstream building block parent. When calculating adjusted downstream building block available capital, the amount of the upstream investment is calculated as the impact, excluding any impact on taxes, on the downstream building block parent's building block available capital if the owner were to deduct the investment.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Federal banking capital rules</I> mean this part, other than this subpart, and the regulatory capital rules promulgated by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation at chapter III of this title and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency at chapter I of this title.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.603" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.603   BBA ratio and minimum requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A supervised insurance organization must determine its BBA ratio, subject to the minimum requirement set out in this section and buffer set out in § 217.604, for each depository institution holding company within its enterprise by:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing an inventory that includes the supervised insurance organization and every company that meets the requirements of § 217.605(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) Identifying all building block parents as required under § 217.605(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(3) Determining the available capital and capital requirement for each building block parent in accordance with its indicated capital framework;
</P>
<P>(4) Determining the building block available capital and building block capital requirement for each building block, reflecting adjustments and scaling as set out in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Rolling up building block available capital and building block capital requirement amounts across all building blocks in the supervised insurance organization's enterprise to determine the same for any depository institution holding companies in the enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(6) Determining the ratio of building block available capital to building block capital requirement for each depository institution holding company in the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of BBA ratio.</I> For a depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization, the BBA ratio is the ratio of the company's building block available capital to the company's building block capital requirement, each scaled to the common capital framework in accordance with § 217.606.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum capital requirement.</I> A depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization must maintain a BBA ratio of at least 250 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirement in this subpart, a depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which it is exposed. The supervisory evaluation of the depository institution holding company's capital adequacy is based on an individual assessment of numerous factors, including the character and condition of the company's assets and its existing and prospective liabilities and other corporate responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) A depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.604" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.604   Capital conservation buffer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer is composed solely of building block available capital excluding tier 2 capital instruments and additional tier 1 capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when a Board-regulated institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A common equity tier 1 or additional tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Board-regulated institution's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when a Board-regulated institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase or redemption is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(C) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(D) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any tier 2 capital instrument if the Board-regulated institution has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default;
</P>
<P>(E) A discretionary dividend payment on participating insurance policies; or
</P>
<P>(F) Any similar transaction that the Board determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligible retained income</I> means, for a depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization, the annual change in the company's building block available capital, calculated as of the last day of the current and immediately preceding calendar years based on the supervised insurance organization's most recent form FR Q-1, net of any distributions and accretion to building block available capital from capital instruments issued in the current or immediately preceding calendar year, excluding issuances corresponding with retirement of capital instruments under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum payout amount</I> means, for the current calendar year, is equal to the Board-regulated institution's eligible retained income, multiplied by its maximum payout ratio.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maximum payout ratio</I> means the percentage of eligible retained income that a Board-regulated institution can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar year. The maximum payout ratio is determined by the Board-regulated institution's capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar year, as set forth in table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(3) C<I>alculation of capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer for a depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization is the greater of its BBA ratio, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar year based on the supervised insurance organization's most recent form FR Q-1, minus the minimum capital requirement under § 217.603(c), and zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A top-tier depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar year that, in the aggregate, exceed its maximum payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A top-tier depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization and that has a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 150 percent is not subject to a maximum payout amount under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, a top-tier depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar year if the Board-regulated institution's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 150 percent as of the end of the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a top-tier depository institution holding company in a supervised insurance organization to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the depository institution holding company, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the depository institution holding company. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 217.604—Calculation of Maximum Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
<br/>(as a percentage of eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 150 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 150 percent, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 113 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 113 percent, <E T="03">and</E>greater than 75 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 38 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 38 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.605" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.605   Determination of building blocks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A supervised insurance organization must identify each building block parent and its allocation share of any downstream building block parent, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operation.</I> To identify building block parents and determine allocation shares, a supervised insurance organization must take the following steps in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inventory of companies.</I> A supervised insurance organization must identify as inventory companies:
</P>
<P>(i) All companies that are—
</P>
<P>(A) Required to be reported on the FR Y-6;
</P>
<P>(B) Required to be reported on the FR Y-10; or
</P>
<P>(C) Classified as affiliates in accordance with NAIC Statement of Statutory Accounting Principles (SSAP) No. 25 and Schedule Y;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company, special purpose entity, variable interest entity, or similar entity that:
</P>
<P>(A) Enters into one or more reinsurance or derivative transactions with inventory companies identified pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Is material;
</P>
<P>(C) Is engaged in activities such that one or more inventory companies identified pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are expected to absorb more than 50 percent of its expected losses; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is not otherwise identified as an inventory company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other company that the Board determines must be identified as an inventory company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of indicated capital framework.</I> (i) A supervised insurance organization must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine the indicated capital framework for each inventory company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Identify inventory companies that are subject to a regulatory capital framework.
</P>
<P>(ii) The indicated capital framework for an inventory company is:
</P>
<P>(A) If the inventory company is not engaged in insurance or reinsurance underwriting, the U.S. Federal banking capital rules, in particular:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the inventory company is not a depository institution, subparts A through F of this part; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the inventory company is a depository institution, the regulatory capital framework applied to the depository institution by the appropriate primary Federal regulator—that is, subparts A through F of this part (Board), part 3 of this title (Office of the Comptroller of the Currency), or part 324 of this title (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) If the inventory company is engaged in insurance or reinsurance underwriting and subject to a regulatory capital framework that is scalar compatible, the regulatory capital framework; and
</P>
<P>(C) If the inventory company is engaged in insurance or reinsurance underwriting and not subject to a regulatory capital framework that is scalar compatible, then NAIC RBC for life and fraternal insurers, health insurers, or property &amp; casualty insurers based on the company's primary source of premium revenue.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Identification of building block parents.</I> A supervised insurance organization must identify all building block parents according to the following procedure:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Identify all top-tier depository institution holding companies in the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P>(B) Any top-tier depository institution holding company is a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Identify any inventory company that is a depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) An inventory company identified in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section is a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify all inventory companies that are capital-regulated companies (that is, inventory companies that are subject to a regulatory capital framework) or material financial entities.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) Of the inventory companies identified in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, identify any inventory company that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is assigned an indicated capital framework that is different from the indicated capital framework of any next upstream inventory company identified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section or does not have a next upstream inventory company; and
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In a simple structure, an inventory company would compare its indicated capital framework to the indicated capital framework of its parent company. However, if the parent company does not meet the criteria to be identified as a building block parent, the inventory company must compare its capital framework to the next upstream company that is eligible to be identified as a building block parent. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3)(iv), a company is “next upstream” to a downstream company if it controls or owns, in whole or in part, a company capital element of the downstream company either directly, or indirectly other than through a company identified in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is assigned an indicated capital framework for which the Board has determined a scalar or, if the company in aggregate with all other companies subject to the same indicated capital framework are material, a provisional scalar;
</P>
<P>(B) Of the inventory companies identified in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, identify any inventory company that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is assigned an indicated capital framework that is the same as the indicated capital framework of each next upstream inventory company identified in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is assigned an indicated capital framework for which the Board has determined a scalar or, if the company in aggregate with all other companies subject to the same indicated capital framework is material, a provisional scalar; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is owned, in whole or part, by an inventory company that is subject to the same regulatory capital framework, and the owner:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Applies a charge on the inventory company's equity value in calculating its company capital requirement; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Deducts all or a portion of its investment in the inventory company in calculating its company available capital.
</P>
<P>(C) An inventory company identified in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)(A) through (B) of this section is a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(v) Include any inventory company identified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section as a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Identify any inventory company—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For which more than one building block parent, as identified pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) through (v) of this section, owns a company capital element either directly or indirectly other than through another such building block parent; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) Is consolidated under any such building block parent's indicated capital framework; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Owns downstreamed capital.
</P>
<P>(B) An inventory company identified in paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(A) of this section is a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Building blocks.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, a supervised insurance organization must assign an inventory company to the building block of any building block parent that owns a company capital element of the inventory company, or of which the inventory company is a subsidiary, directly or indirectly through any company other than a building block parent, unless the inventory company is a building block parent.
</P>
<P>(A) For purposes of this section, subsidiary includes a company that is required to be reported on the FR Y-6, FR Y-10, or NAIC's Schedule Y, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) A supervised insurance organization is not required to assign to a building block any inventory company that is not a downstream company or subsidiary of a top-tier depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financial statements.</I> The supervised insurance organization must:
</P>
<P>(i) For any inventory company whose indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC, prepare financial statements in accordance with SAP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any building block parent whose indicated capital framework is subparts A through F of this part:
</P>
<P>(A) Apply the same elections and treatment of exposures as are applied to the subsidiary depository institution;
</P>
<P>(B) Apply subparts A through F of this part, to the members of the building block of which the building block parent is a member, on a consolidated basis, to the same extent as if the building block parent were a Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(C) Where the building block parent is not the top-tier depository institution holding company, not deduct investments in capital of unconsolidated financial institutions, nor exclude these investments from the calculation of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Allocation share.</I> A supervised insurance organization must, for each building block parent, identify any downstream building block parent owned directly or indirectly through any company other than a building block parent, and determine the building block parent's allocation share of these downstream building block parents pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Material financial entity election.</I> (1) A supervised insurance organization may elect not to treat an inventory company meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(2) of this section as a material financial entity. An election under this paragraph (c)(1) must be included with the first financial statements submitted to the Board after the company is included in the supervised insurance organization's inventory.
</P>
<P>(2) The election in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is available to an inventory company if:
</P>
<P>(i) The company engages in transactions consisting solely of either—
</P>
<P>(A) Transactions for the purpose of transferring risk from one or more affiliates within the supervised insurance organization to one or more third parties; or
</P>
<P>(B) Transactions to invest assets contributed to the company by one or more affiliates within the supervised insurance organization, where the company is established for purposes of limiting tax obligation or legal liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The supervised insurance organization is able to calculate the adjustment required in § 217.607(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Allocation share.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a building block parent's allocation share of a downstream building block parent is calculated as the percentage of equity ownership of a downstream building block parent, including associated paid-in capital, held by an upstream building block parent directly or indirectly through a member of the upstream building block parent's building block.
</P>
<P>(2) The top-tier depository institution holding company's allocation share of a building block parent that has no outstanding common equity or that is identified under paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section is 100 percent. Any other building block parent's allocation share of such building block parent is zero.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.606" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.606   Scaling parameters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scaling specified by the Board</I>—(1) <I>Scaling between the U.S. Federal banking capital rules and NAIC RBC</I>—(i) <I>Scaling capital requirement.</I> When calculating the building block capital requirement for a building block parent in accordance with § 217.607, where the indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC or the U.S. Federal banking capital rules, and where the indicated capital framework of the appropriate downstream building block parent is NAIC RBC or the U.S. Federal banking capital rules, the capital requirement scaling modifier is provided by table 1 to this paragraph (a)(1)(i).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)(1)(i)</E>—Capital Requirement Scaling Modifiers for NAIC RBC and the U.S. Federal Banking Capital Rules
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Upstream building block parent's
<br/>indicated capital framework:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NAIC RBC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. Federal banking
<br/>capital rules
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downstream building block parent's indicated capital framework:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U.S. Federal banking capital rules</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0106</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NAIC RBC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.3</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Scaling available capital.</I> When calculating the building block available capital for a building block parent in accordance with § 217.608, where the indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC or the U.S. Federal banking capital rules, and where the indicated capital framework of the appropriate downstream building block parent is NAIC RBC or the U.S. Federal banking capital rules, the available capital scaling modifier is provided by table 2 to this paragraph (a)(1)(ii).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph <E T="01">(a)(1)(ii)</E>—Available Capital Scaling Modifiers for NAIC RBC and the U.S. Federal Banking Capital Rules
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Upstream building block parent's indicated capital framework:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NAIC RBC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. Federal banking capital rules
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Downstream building block parent's indicated capital framework:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U.S. Federal banking capital rules</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Recalculated building block capital requirement * 0.063</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NAIC RBC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Recalculated building block capital requirement * 5.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capital framework:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">NAIC RBC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Recalculated building block capital requirement * 5.9.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Scaling to determine BBA ratio.</I> For purposes of determining the BBA ratio under § 217.603(b)—
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution holding company for which the indicated capital framework is the U.S. Federal banking capital rules scales its building block available capital and building block capital requirement the common capital framework by using the methods described in paragraphs (a)(1) of this section. For purposes of scaling under this paragraph (a)(2)(i), the downstream building block parent's indicated capital framework is the U.S. Federal banking capital rules and the upstream building block parent's indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution holding company for which the indicated capital framework is NAIC RBC does not scale its building block available capital or building block capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scaling not specified by the Board but framework is scalar compatible.</I> Where a scaling modifier to be used in § 217.607 or § 217.608 is not specified in paragraph (a) of this section, and the building block parent's indicated capital framework (<I>i.e.,</I> jurisdictional capital framework) is scalar compatible, a building block parent determines the scaling modifier as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Jurisdictional intervention point.</I> The jurisdictional intervention point is the capital level, under the laws of the jurisdiction for its domestic insurers, at which the supervisory authority in the jurisdiction may intervene as to a company subject its capital framework by imposing restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments by the company or, if no such intervention may occur in a jurisdiction, then the capital level at which the supervisory authority would first have the authority to take action against a company based on its capital level.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Jurisdiction adjustment.</I> The jurisdictional adjustment is the risk adjustment set forth in table 3 to this paragraph (b)(1)(ii), based on the country risk classification set by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) for the jurisdiction. This adjustment is applied to the jurisdictional intervention point.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Jurisdictional Adjustments by OECD Country Risk Classification
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OECD CRC
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Jurisdictional 
<br/>adjustment 
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0-1, including jurisdictions with no OECD country risk classification</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Scaling capital requirement.</I> When calculating the building block capital requirement for a building block parent in accordance with § 217.607, where the indicated capital framework of the appropriate downstream building block parent is a scalar-compatible framework for which the Board has not specified a capital requirement scaling modifier, the capital requirement scaling modifier is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 1 to Paragraph (b)(2)
</HD3>
<img src="/graphics/er27no23.001.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Adjustment</I><E T="54">scaling from</E> is equal to the jurisdictional adjustment of the downstream building block parent;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Requirement</I><E T="54">scaling from</E> is equal to the jurisdictional intervention point of the downstream building block parent; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Requirement</I><E T="54">scaling to</E> is equal to the jurisdictional intervention point of the upstream building block parent.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Scaling available capital.</I> When calculating the building block available capital for a building block parent in accordance with § 217.608, where the indicated capital framework of the appropriate downstream building block parent is a scalar-compatible framework for which the Board has not specified an available capital scaling modifier, the available capital scaling modifier is equal to zero.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.607" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.607   Capital requirements under the Building Block Approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of building block capital requirement.</I> For each building block parent, <I>building block capital requirement</I> means the sum of the items in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The company capital requirement of the building block parent; that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Recalculated under the assumption that members of the building block parent's building block had no investment in any downstream building block parent; and is:
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjusted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) For each downstream building block parent, the adjusted downstream building block capital requirement (<I>BBCR</I><E T="54">ADJ</E>), which is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 1 to Paragraph (a)(2)
</HD3>
<FP-2><I>BBCR</I><E T="54">ADJ</E> = <I>BBCR</I><E T="54">DS</E> · <I>CRSM</I> · AS
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>BBCR</I><E T="54">DS</E> is equal to the building block capital requirement of the downstream building block parent recalculated under the assumption that the downstream building block parent had no upstream investment in the building block parent;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRSM</I> is equal to the appropriate capital requirement scaling modifier under § 217.606; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AS</I> is equal to the building block parent's allocation share of the downstream building block parent.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustments in determining the building block capital requirement.</I> A supervised insurance organization must adjust the company capital requirement for any building block parent as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Internal credit risk charges.</I> A supervised insurance organization must deduct from the building block parent's company capital requirement any difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The building block parent's company capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The building block parent's company capital requirement recalculated excluding capital requirements related to potential for the possibility of default of any company in the supervised insurance organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permitted accounting practices and prescribed accounting practices.</I> A supervised insurance organization must adjust the building block parent's company capital requirement by any difference between:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2) introductory text:</HED>
<P>The adjustment can be either positive or negative depending on the permitted or prescribed practices. In most cases, the reversal of the permitted or prescribed practice would result in an increase in the building block parent's company required capital. In rare cases, a permitted or prescribed practice could increase the insurers required capital. In this instance, this adjustment would reduce the building block parent's company required capital.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) The building block parent's company capital requirement, after making any adjustment in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The building block parent's company capital requirement, after making any adjustment in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, recalculated under the assumption that neither the building block parent, nor any company that is a member of that building block parent's building block, had prepared its financial statements with the application of any permitted accounting practice, prescribed accounting practice, or other practice, including legal, regulatory, or accounting procedures or standards, that departs from a solvency framework as promulgated for application in a jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risks of certain intermediary entities.</I> Where a supervised insurance organization has made an election with respect to a company not to treat that company as a material financial entity pursuant to § 217.605(c), the supervised insurance organization must add to the company capital requirement of any building block parent, whose building block contains a member, with which the company engages in one or more transactions, and for which the company engages in one or more transactions described in § 217.605(c)(2) with a third party, any difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The building block parent's company capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The building block parent's company capital requirement recalculated taking into account the risks of the company, excluding internal credit risks described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, allocated to the building block parent, reflecting the transaction(s) that the company engages in with any member of the building block parent's building block. Note, the total allocation of the risks of the intermediary entity to building block parents must capture all material risks and avoid double counting.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investments in own capital instruments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A supervised insurance organization must deduct from the building block parent's company capital requirement any difference between:
</P>
<P>(A) The building block parent's company capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(B) The building block parent's company capital requirement recalculated after assuming that neither the building block parent, nor any company that is a member of the building block parent's building block, held any investment in the building block parent's own capital instrument(s), including any net long position determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Net long position.</I> For purposes of calculating an investment in a building block parent's own capital instrument under this section, the net long position is determined in accordance with § 217.22(h), provided that a separate account asset or associated guarantee is not regarded as an indirect exposure unless the net long position of the fund underlying the separate account asset (determined in accordance with § 217.22(h) without regard to this paragraph (b)(4)(ii)) equals or exceeds 5 percent of the value of the fund.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Risks relating to title insurance.</I> A supervised insurance organization must add to the building block parent's company capital requirement the amount of the building block parent's reserves for claims pertaining to title insurance, multiplied by 300 percent.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 217.608" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.10.28.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 217.608   Available capital resources under the Building Block Approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying capital instruments</I>—(1) <I>General criteria.</I> A qualifying capital instrument with respect to a building block parent is a capital instrument that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors and general creditors of the building block parent;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the building block parent or of an affiliate of the building block parent, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least five years. At the beginning of each of the last five years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in building block available capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions), and is excluded from building block available capital when the remaining maturity is less than one year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the building block parent to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; and
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">iv</E>):</HED>
<P>A building block parent may replace qualifying capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing qualifying capital instruments.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the building block parent only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in the building block parent's company available capital or building block available capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The top-tier depository institution holding company must receive the prior approval of the Board to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The building block parent does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the top-tier depository institution holding company must either: replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for qualifying capital instruments under this section; or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that following redemption, the top-tier depository institution holding company would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1)(<E T="01">v</E>)(<E T="01">C</E>):</HED>
<P>A building block parent may replace qualifying capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing qualifying capital instruments.</P></NOTE>
<P>(vi) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase requires the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument meets the criteria in § 217.20(d)(1)(vi) through (ix) and (xi), except that each instance of “Board-regulated institution” is replaced with “building block parent” and, in § 217.20(d)(1)(ix), “tier 2 capital instruments” is replaced with “qualifying capital instruments”.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional tier 1 capital instruments.</I> Additional tier 1 capital instruments of a top-tier depository institution holding company are instruments issued by any inventory company that are qualifying capital instruments under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2) introductory text:</HED>
<P>For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), the supervised insurance organization evaluates the criteria in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with regard to the building block in which the issuing inventory company is a member.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) The instrument is subordinated to depositors, general creditors, and subordinated debt holders of the building block parent in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the building block parent or of an affiliate of the building block parent, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in the building block parent's company available capital or building block available capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The top-tier depository institution holding company must receive the prior approval of the Board to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The building block parent does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the top-tier depository institution holding company must either: replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments or common equity tier 1 instruments under this section; or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that following redemption, the top-tier depository institution holding company would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 4 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iv</E>)(<E T="01">C</E>):</HED>
<P>A building block parent may replace qualifying capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing qualifying capital instruments.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(vi) The paid-in amount would be classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument meets the criteria in § 217.20(c)(1)(vii) through (ix) and (xi) through (xiv), except that each instance of “Board-regulated institution” is replaced with “building block parent”.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital instruments.</I> Common equity tier 1 capital instruments of a top-tier depository institution holding company are instruments issued by any inventory company that are qualifying capital instruments under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and that meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 5 to paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(3) introductory text:</HED>
<P>For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), the supervised insurance organization evaluates the criteria in paragraph (a)(1) of this section with regard to the building block in which the issuing inventory company is a member.</P></NOTE>
<P>(i) The holders of the instrument bear losses, as they occur, equally, proportionately, and simultaneously with the holders of all other qualifying capital instruments (other than additional tier 1 capital instruments or tier 2 capital instruments) before any losses are borne by holders of claims on the building block parent any with greater priority in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(ii) The paid-in amount would be classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument meets the criteria in § 217.20(b)(1)(i) through (vii) and (x) through (xiii).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tier 2 capital instruments.</I> Tier 2 capital instruments of a top-tier depository institution holding company are instruments issued by any inventory company that are qualifying capital instruments under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and are not additional tier 1 capital instruments or common equity tier 1 capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of building block available capital</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For each building block parent, <I>building block available capital</I> means the sum of the items described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The company available capital of the building block parent:
</P>
<P>(A) Less the amount of downstreamed capital owned by any member of the building block parent's building block; and
</P>
<P>(B) Adjusted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each downstream building block parent, the adjusted downstream building block available capital (<I>BBAC</I><E T="52">ADJ</E>), which is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<HD3>Equation 1 to Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<FP-2><I>BBAC</I><E T="54">ADJ</E> = (<I>BBAC</I><E T="54">DS</E>−<I>UpInv</I> + <I>ACSM</I>) ·<I>AS</I> 
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>BBAC</I><E T="54">DS</E> is equal to the building block available capital of the downstream building block parent;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>UpInv</I> is equal to the amount of any upstream investment held by that downstream building block parent in the building block parent;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ACSM</I> is equal to the appropriate available capital scaling modifier under § 217.606; and <I>AS</I> is equal to the building block parent's allocation share of the downstream building block parent.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Combining tiers of capital.</I> If there is more than one tier of company available capital under a building block parent's indicated capital framework, the amounts of company available capital from all tiers are combined in calculating building block available capital in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments in determining building block available capital.</I> For purposes of the calculations required in paragraph (b) of this section, a supervised insurance organization must adjust the company available capital for any building block parent as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Nonqualifying capital instruments.</I> A supervised insurance organization must deduct from the building block parent's company available capital any accretion arising from any instrument issued by any company that is a member of the building block parent's building block, where the instrument is not a qualifying capital instrument.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insurance underwriting RBC.</I> When applying the U.S. Federal banking capital rules as the indicated capital framework for a building block parent, a supervised insurance organization must add back into the building block parent's company available capital any amounts deducted pursuant to § 3.22(b)(3) of this title, § 217.22(b)(3), or § 324.22(b)(3) of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permitted accounting practices and prescribed accounting practices.</I> A supervised insurance organization must adjust the building block parent's company available capital by any difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The building block parent's company available capital; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The building block parent's company available capital recalculated under the assumption that neither the building block parent, nor any company that is a member of that building block parent's building block, had prepared its financial statements with the application of any permitted accounting practice, prescribed accounting practice, or other practice, including legal, regulatory, or accounting procedures or standards, that departs from a solvency framework as promulgated for application in a jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjusting certain life insurance reserves.</I> A supervised insurance organization must adjust the building block parent's company available capital by any difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The building block parent's company available capital; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The building block parent's company available capital recalculated based on using a 40 percent factor applied to all term life insurance accounted for using an approach based on the Valuation of Life Insurance Policies Model Regulation and a 90 percent factor applied to all secondary-guaranteed universal life insurance products accounted for using Actuarial Guideline XXXVIII—The Application of the Valuation of Life Insurance Policies Model Regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deduction of investments in own capital instruments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A supervised insurance organization must deduct from the building block parent's company available capital any investment by the building block parent in its own capital instrument(s), or any investment by any member of the building block parent's building block in capital instruments of the building block parent, including any net long position determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, to the extent that such investment(s) would otherwise be accretive to the building block parent's building block available capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Net long position.</I> For purposes of calculating an investment in a building block parent's own capital instrument under this section, the net long position is determined in accordance with § 217.22(h), provided that a separate account asset or associated guarantee is not regarded as an indirect exposure unless the net long position of the fund underlying the separate account asset (determined in accordance with § 217.22(h) without regard to this paragraph (c)(5)(ii)) equals or exceeds 5 percent of the value of the fund.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reciprocal cross holdings in the capital of financial institutions.</I> A supervised insurance organization must deduct from the building block parent's company available capital any investment(s) by the building block parent in the capital of unaffiliated financial institutions that it holds reciprocally, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital instruments, to the extent that such investment(s) would otherwise be accretive to the building block parent's building block available capital.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limits on certain elements in building block available capital of top-tier depository institution holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Investment in capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> (i) A top-tier depository institution holding company must deduct from its building block available capital any accreted capital from an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution that is not an inventory company, that exceeds twenty-five percent of the amount of its building block available capital, prior to application of this adjustment, excluding tier 2 capital instruments. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(1), the amount of an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution is calculated in accordance with § 217.22(h), except that a separate account asset or associated guarantee is not an indirect exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The deductions described in this paragraph (d)(1) are net of associated deferred tax liabilities in accordance with § 217.22(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjustments to accretions from tier 2 capital instruments.</I> A top-tier depository institution holding company must adjust accretions from tier 2 capital instruments in accordance with this paragraph (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company must deduct any accretions from tier 2 capital instruments that, in the aggregate, exceed the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 150 percent of the amount of its building block capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of instruments subject to paragraph (e) or (f) of this section that are outstanding as of the submission date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A top-tier depository institution holding company must increase accretions from tier 2 capital instruments by any amount deducted from accretions from additional tier 1 capital instruments by operation of paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitation on additional tier 1 capital instruments.</I> A top-tier depository institution holding company must deduct any accretions from additional tier 1 capital instruments that, in the aggregate, exceed the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent of the amount of its building block capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of instruments subject to paragraph (f) of this section that are outstanding as of the submission date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Treatment of outstanding surplus notes.</I> A surplus note issued by any company in a supervised insurance organization is deemed to meet the criteria in paragraphs (a)(1)(iii) and (vi) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument was issued prior to the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) November 1, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The earliest date on which any depository institution holding company in the group became a depository institution holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) The surplus note is a company capital element for the issuing company;
</P>
<P>(3) The surplus note is not owned by an affiliate of the issuer; and
</P>
<P>(4) The surplus note is outstanding as of the submission date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Treatment of certain callable instruments.</I> Notwithstanding the criteria under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, provided that the instrument was a company capital element issued prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Board approval of a capital instrument.</I> (1) A supervised insurance organization must receive Board prior approval to include in its building block available capital for any building block an instrument (as listed in this section), issued by any company in the supervised insurance organization, unless the instrument:
</P>
<P>(i) Was a capital element for the issuer prior to May 19, 2010, in accordance with the indicated capital framework that was effective as of that date and the underlying instrument meets the criteria to be a qualifying capital instrument (as defined in paragraph (a) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a company capital element that the Board determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (g)(2) of this section, or may be included in the regulatory capital of a Board-regulated institution pursuant to § 217.20(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) After determining that an instrument may be included in a supervised insurance organization's regulatory capital under this subpart, the Board will make its decision publicly available, including a brief description of the material terms of the instrument and the rationale for the determination.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.18.12.28.1.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 217—The Federal Reserve Board's Framework for Implementing the Countercyclical Capital Buffer
</HEAD>
<HD1>1. Background
</HD1>
<P>(a) In 2013, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) issued a final regulatory capital rule (Regulation Q) in coordination with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) that strengthened risk-based and leverage capital requirements applicable to insured depository institutions and depository institution holding companies (banking organizations).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Among those changes was the introduction of a countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB) for large, internationally active banking organizations.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR part 217; Federal Reserve Board Approves Final Rule To Help Ensure Banks Maintain Strong Capital Positions (July 2, 2013), available at <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov;</I> Agencies Adopt Supplementary Leverage Ratio Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (July 9, 2013), available at <I>http://www.occ.gov;</I> and FDIC Board Approves Basel III Interim Final Rule and Supplementary Leverage Ratio Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (July 9, 2013) available at <I>https://www.fdic.gov</I>.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 CFR 217.11(b). The CCyB applies only to banking organizations subject to the advanced approaches capital rules, which generally apply to those banking organizations with greater than $250 billion in assets or more than $10 billion in on-balance-sheet foreign exposures. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 217.100(b). An advanced approaches institution is subject to the CCyB regardless of whether it has completed the parallel run process and received notification from its primary Federal supervisor. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 217.121(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The CCyB is a supplemental, macroprudential policy tool that the Board can increase during periods of rising vulnerabilities in the financial system and reduce when vulnerabilities recede. It is designed to increase the resilience of large banking organizations when there is an elevated risk of above-normal losses. Increasing the resilience of large banking organizations will, in turn, improve the resilience of the broader financial system. Above-normal losses often follow periods of rapid asset price appreciation or credit growth that are not well supported by underlying economic fundamentals. The circumstances in which the Board would most likely begin to increase the CCyB above zero percent to augment minimum capital requirements and other capital buffers would be when systemic vulnerabilities are meaningfully above normal. By requiring large banking organizations to hold additional capital during those periods of excess and removing the requirement to hold additional capital when the vulnerabilities have diminished, the CCyB also is expected to moderate fluctuations in the supply of credit over time. Moderating the supply of credit may mitigate or prevent the conditions that contribute to above-normal losses, such as elevated asset prices and excessive leverage, and prevent or mitigate reductions in lending to creditworthy borrowers that can amplify an economic downturn. In this way, implementation of the CCyB also responds to the Dodd-Frank Act's requirement that the Board seek to make its capital requirements countercyclical.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1844(b), 1464a(g)(1), and 3907(a)(1) (codifying sections 616(a), (b), and (c) of the Dodd-Frank Act).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) Regulation Q established the initial CCyB amount with respect to private sector credit exposures located in the United States (U.S.-based credit exposures) at zero percent and provided that the maximum potential amount of the CCyB for credit exposures in the United States was 2.5 percent of risk-weighted assets.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The Board expects to make decisions about the appropriate level of the CCyB for U.S.-based credit exposures jointly with the OCC and FDIC, and expects that the CCyB amount for U.S.-based credit exposures will be the same for covered depository institution holding companies and insured depository institutions. The CCyB is designed to take into account the macrofinancial environment in which banking organizations function and the degree to which that environment impacts the resilience of advanced approaches institutions. Therefore, the appropriate level of the CCyB for U.S.-based credit exposures is not closely linked to the characteristics of an individual institution. Rather, the impact of the CCyB on any single institution will depend on the particular composition of the private-sector credit exposures of the institution across national jurisdictions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The CCyB is subject to a phase-in arrangement between 2016 and 2019. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 217.300(a)(2).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>2. Overview and Scope of the Policy Statement
</HD1>
<P>This Policy Statement describes the framework that the Board will follow in setting the amount of the CCyB for U.S.-based credit exposures. The framework consists of a set of principles for translating assessments of financial system vulnerabilities that are regularly undertaken by the Board into the appropriate level of the CCyB. Those assessments are informed by a broad array of quantitative indicators of financial and economic performance and a set of empirical models. In addition, the framework includes an assessment of whether the CCyB is the most appropriate policy instrument (among available policy instruments) to address the highlighted financial system vulnerabilities.
</P>
<HD1>3. The Objectives of the CCyB
</HD1>
<P>(a) The objectives of the CCyB are to strengthen banking organizations' resilience against the build-up of systemic vulnerabilities and reduce fluctuations in the supply of credit. The CCyB supplements the minimum capital requirements and the capital conservation buffer, which themselves are designed to provide substantial resilience to unexpected losses created by normal fluctuations in economic and financial conditions. The capital surcharge on global systemically important banking organizations adds an additional layer of defense for the largest and most systemically important institutions, whose financial distress can have outsized effects on the rest of the financial system and the real economy.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> However, periods of financial excesses, for example as reflected in episodes of rapid asset price appreciation or credit growth not well supported by underlying economic fundamentals, are often followed by above-normal losses that leave banking organizations and other financial institutions undercapitalized. Therefore, the Board would most likely begin to increase the CCyB above zero in those circumstances when systemic vulnerabilities become meaningfully above normal and progressively raise the CCyB level if vulnerabilities become more severe.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See,</I> Federal Reserve Board Approves Final Rule Requiring The Largest, Most Systemically Important U.S. Bank Holding Companies To Further Strengthen Their Capital Positions (July 20, 2015), available at <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov</I>.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The CCyB is expected to help provide additional resilience for advanced approaches institutions, and by extension the broader financial system, against elevated vulnerabilities primarily in two ways. First, advanced approaches institutions will likely hold more capital to avoid limitations on capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from implementation of the CCyB. Strengthening their capital positions when financial conditions are accommodative would increase the capacity of advanced approaches institutions to absorb outsized losses during a future significant economic downturn or period of financial instability, thus making them more resilient.
</P>
<P>(c) The second and related goal of the CCyB is to promote a more sustainable supply of credit over the economic cycle. During a credit cycle downturn, better-capitalized institutions have been shown to be more likely than weaker institutions to have continued access to funding. Better-capitalized institutions also are less likely to take actions that lead to broader financial-sector distress and its associated macroeconomic costs, such as large-scale sales of assets at prices below their fundamental value and sharp contractions in credit supply.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Therefore, it is likely that as a result of the CCyB having been put into place during the preceding period of rapid credit creation, advanced approaches institutions would be better positioned to continue their important intermediary functions during a subsequent economic contraction. A timely and credible reduction in the CCyB requirement during a period of high credit losses could reinforce those beneficial effects of a higher base level of capital, because it would permit advanced approaches institutions either to realize loan losses promptly and remove them from their balance sheets or to expand their balance sheets, for example by continuing to lend to creditworthy borrowers.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For additional background on the relationship between financial distress and economic outcomes, see Carmen Reinhart and Kenneth Rogoff (2009), <I>This Time is Different.</I> Princeton University Press; Òscar Jordà &amp; Moritz Schularick &amp; Alan M Taylor (2011), “Financial Crises, Credit Booms, and External Imbalances: 140 Years of Lessons,” <I>IMF Economic Review,</I> Palgrave Macmillan, vol. 59(2), pages 340-378; and Bank for International Settlements (2010), “Assessing the Long-Run Economic Impact of Higher Capital and Liquidity Requirements.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) During a period of cyclically increasing vulnerabilities, advanced approaches institutions might react to an increase in the CCyB by raising lending standards, otherwise reducing their risk exposure, augmenting their capital, or some combination of those actions. They may choose to raise capital by taking actions that would increase net income, reducing capital distributions such as share repurchases or dividends, or issuing new equity. In this regard, an increase in the CCyB would not prevent advanced approaches institutions from maintaining their important role as credit intermediaries, but would reduce the likelihood that banking organizations with insufficient capital would foster unsustainable credit growth or engage in imprudent risk taking. The specific combination of adjustments and the relative size of each adjustment will depend in part on the initial capital positions of advanced approaches institutions, the cost of debt and equity financing, and the earnings opportunities presented by the economic situation at the time.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> For estimates of the size of certain adjustments, see Samuel G. Hanson, Anil K. Kashyap, and Jeremy C. Stein (2011), “A Macroprudential Approach to Financial Regulation,” <I>Journal of Economic Perspectives</I> 25(1), pp. 3-28; Skander J. Van den Heuvel (2008), “The Welfare Cost of Bank Capital Requirements.” <I>Journal of Monetary Economics</I> 55, pp. 298-320.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>4. The Framework for Setting the U.S. CCyB
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Board regularly monitors and assesses threats to financial stability by synthesizing information from a comprehensive set of financial-sector and macroeconomic indicators, supervisory information, surveys, and other interactions with market participants.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> In forming its view about the appropriate size of the U.S. CCyB, the Board will consider a number of financial system vulnerabilities, including but not limited to, asset valuation pressures and risk appetite, leverage in the nonfinancial sector, leverage in the financial sector, and maturity and liquidity transformation in the financial sector. The decision will reflect the implications of the assessment of overall financial system vulnerabilities as well as any concerns related to one or more classes of vulnerabilities. The specific combination of vulnerabilities is important because an adverse shock to one class of vulnerabilities could be more likely than another to exacerbate existing pressures in other parts of the economy or financial system.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Tobias Adrian, Daniel Covitz, and Nellie Liang (2014), “Financial Stability Monitoring.” <I>Finance and Economics Discussion Series</I> 2013-021. Washington: Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov/pubs/feds/2013/201321/201321pap.pdf</I>.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The Board intends to monitor a wide range of financial and macroeconomic quantitative indicators including, but not limited to, measures of relative credit and liquidity expansion or contraction, a variety of asset prices, funding spreads, credit condition surveys, indices based on credit default swap spreads, option implied volatilities, and measures of systemic risk.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> In addition, empirical models that translate a manageable set of quantitative indicators of financial and economic performance into potential settings for the CCyB, when used as part of a comprehensive judgmental assessment of all available information, can be a useful input to the Board's deliberations. Such models may include, but are not limited to, those that rely on small sets of indicators—such as the nonfinancial credit-to-GDP ratio, its growth rate, and combinations of the credit-to-GDP ratio with trends in the prices of residential and commercial real estate—which some academic research has shown to be useful in identifying periods of financial excess followed by a period of crisis on a cross-country basis.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> Such models may also include those that consider larger sets of indicators, which have the advantage of representing conditions in all key sectors of the economy, especially those specific to risk-taking, performance, and the financial condition of large banks.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR 217.11(b)(2)(iv).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> Jorda, Oscar, Moritz Schularick and Alan Taylor, 2013. “When Credit Bites Back: Leverage, Business Cycles and Crises,” <I>Journal of Money, Credit, and Banking,</I> 45(2), pp. 3-28, and Drehmann, Mathias, Claudio Borio, and Kostas Tsatsaronis, 2012. “Characterizing the Financial Cycle: Don't Lose Sight of the Medium Term!” BIS Working Papers 380, Bank for International Settlements. Jorda, Oscar, Moritz Schularick and Alan Taylor, 2015. “Leveraged Bubbles,” <I>Center for Economic Policy Research Discussion Paper</I> No. DP10781. BCBS (2010), “Guidance for National Authorities Operating the Countercyclical Capital Buffer,” BIS.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See, e.g.,</I> Aikman, David, Michael T. Kiley, Seung Jung Lee, Michael G. Palumbo, and Missaka N. Warusawitharana (2015), “Mapping Heat in the U.S. Financial System,” <I>Finance and Economics Discussion Series</I> 2015-059. Washington: Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, <I>http://dx.doi.org/10.17016/FEDS.2015.059</I> (providing an example of the range of indicators used and type of analysis possible).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) However, no single indictor or fixed set of indicators can adequately capture all the vulnerabilities in the U.S. economy and financial system. Moreover, adjustments in the CCyB that were tightly linked to a specific model or set of models could be imprecise due to the relatively short period that some indicators are available, the limited number of past crises against which the models can be calibrated, and limited experience with the CCyB as a macroprudential tool. As a result, the types of indicators and models considered in assessments of the appropriate level of the CCyB are likely to change over time based on advances in research and the experience of the Board with this new macroprudential tool.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board will determine the appropriate level of the CCyB for U.S.-based credit exposures based on its analysis of the above factors. Generally, a zero percent U.S. CCyB amount would reflect an assessment that U.S. economic and financial conditions are broadly consistent with a financial system in which levels of system-wide vulnerabilities are within or near their normal range of values. The Board could increase the CCyB as vulnerabilities build. A 2.5 percent CCyB amount for U.S.-based credit exposures, which is the maximum level under the Board's rule, would reflect an assessment that the U.S. financial sector is experiencing a period of significantly elevated or rapidly increasing system-wide vulnerabilities. Importantly, as a macroprudential policy tool, the CCyB will be activated and deactivated based on broad developments and trends in the U.S. financial system, rather than the activities of any individual banking organization.
</P>
<P>(e) Similarly, the Board would remove or reduce the CCyB when the conditions that led to its activation abate or lessen. Additionally, the Board would remove or reduce the CCyB when release of CCyB capital would promote financial stability. Indeed, for the CCyB to be most effective, the CCyB should be deactivated or reduced in a timely manner. Deactivating the CCyB in a timely manner could, for example, promote the prompt realization of loan losses by advanced approaches institutions and the removal of such loans from their balance sheets and would reduce the likelihood that advanced approaches institutions would significantly pare their risk-weighted assets in order to maintain their capital ratios during a downturn.
</P>
<P>(f) The pace and magnitude of changes in the CCyB will depend importantly on the underlying conditions in the financial sector and the economy as well as the desired effects of the proposed change in the CCyB. If vulnerabilities are rising gradually, then incremental increases in the level of the CCyB may be appropriate. Incremental increases would allow banks to augment their capital primarily through retained earnings and allow policymakers additional time to assess the effects of the policy change before making subsequent adjustments. However, if vulnerabilities in the financial system are building rapidly, then larger or more frequent adjustments may be necessary to increase loss-absorbing capacity sooner and potentially to mitigate the rise in vulnerabilities.
</P>
<P>(g) The Board will also consider whether the CCyB is the most appropriate of its available policy instruments to address the financial system vulnerabilities highlighted by the framework's judgmental assessments and empirical models. The CCyB primarily is intended to address cyclical vulnerabilities, rather than structural vulnerabilities that do not vary significantly over time. Structural vulnerabilities are better addressed through targeted reforms or permanent increases in financial system resilience. Two central factors for the Board to consider are whether advanced approaches institutions are exposed—either directly or indirectly—to the vulnerabilities identified in the comprehensive judgmental assessment or by the quantitative indicators that suggest activation of the CCyB and whether advanced approaches institutions are contributing—either directly or indirectly—to these highlighted vulnerabilities.
</P>
<P>(h) In setting the CCyB for advanced approaches institutions that it supervises, the Board plans to consult with the OCC and FDIC on their analyses of financial system vulnerabilities and on the extent to which advanced approaches banking organizations are either exposed to or contributing to these vulnerabilities.
</P>
<HD1>5. Communication of the U.S. CCyB With the Public
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Board expects to consider at least once per year the applicable level of the U.S. CCyB. The Board will review financial conditions regularly throughout the year and may adjust the CCyB more frequently as a result of those monitoring activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Further, the Board will continue to communicate with the public in other formats regarding its assessment of U.S. financial stability, including financial system vulnerabilities. In the event that the Board considered that a change in the CCyB were appropriate, it would, in proposing the change, include a discussion of the reasons for the proposed action as determined by the particular circumstances. In addition, the Board's biannual Monetary Policy Report to Congress, usually published in February and July, will continue to contain a section that reports on developments pertaining to the stability of the U.S. financial system.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> That portion of the report will be an important vehicle for updating the public on how the Board's current assessment of financial system vulnerabilities bears on the setting of the CCyB.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> For the most recent discussion in this format, see box titled “Developments Related to Financial Stability” in Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, <I>Monetary Policy Report to Congress,</I> June 2016, pp. 20-21.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>6. Monitoring the Effects of the U.S. CCyB
</HD1>
<P>(a) The effects of the U.S. CCyB ultimately will depend on the level at which it is set, the size and nature of any adjustments in the level, and the timeliness with which it is increased or decreased. The extent to which the CCyB may affect vulnerabilities in the broader financial system depends upon a complex set of interactions between required capital levels at the largest banking organizations and the economy and financial markets. In addition to the direct effects, the secondary economic effects could be amplified if financial markets extract a signal from the announcement of a change in the CCyB about subsequent actions that might be taken by the Board. Moreover, financial market participants might react by updating their expectations about future asset prices in specific markets or broader economic activity based on the concerns expressed by the regulators in communications announcing a policy change.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board will monitor and analyze adjustments by banking organizations and other financial institutions to the CCyB: whether a change in the CCyB leads to observed changes in risk-based capital ratios at advanced approaches institutions, as well as whether those adjustments are achieved passively through retained earnings, or actively through changes in capital distributions or in risk-weighted assets. Other factors to be monitored include the extent to which loan growth and interest rate spreads on loans made by affected banking organizations change relative to loan growth and loan spreads at banking organizations that are not subject to the buffer. Another consideration in setting the CCyB and other macroprudential tools is the extent to which the adjustments by advanced approaches institutions to higher capital buffers lead to migration of credit market activity outside of those banking organizations, especially to the nonbank financial sector. Depending on the amount of migration, which institutions are affected by it, and the remaining exposures of advanced approaches institutions, those adjustments could cause the Board to favor either a higher or a lower value of the CCyB.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board will also monitor information regarding the levels of and changes in the CCyB in other countries. The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision is expected to maintain this information for member countries in a publicly available form on its Web site.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Using that data in conjunction with supervisory and publicly available datasets, the Board will be able to draw not only upon the experience of the United States but also that of other countries to refine estimates of the effects of changes in the CCyB.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> BIS, Countercyclical capital buffer (CCyB), <I>www.bis.org/bcbs/ccyb/index.htm.</I></P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63686, Sept. 16, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="218" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 218—EXCEPTIONS FOR BANKS FROM THE DEFINITION OF BROKER IN THE SECURITIES EXCHANGE ACT OF 1934 (REGULATION R)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(F).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 218.100" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.100   Definition.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part the following definition shall apply: <I>Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.700" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.700   Defined terms relating to the networking exception from the definition of “broker.”</HEAD>
<P>When used with respect to the Third Party Brokerage Arrangements (“Networking”) Exception from the definition of the term “broker” in section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i)) in the context of transactions with a customer, the following terms shall have the meaning provided:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Contingent on whether the referral results in a transaction</I> means dependent on whether the referral results in a purchase or sale of a security; whether an account is opened with a broker or dealer; whether the referral results in a transaction involving a particular type of security; or whether it results in multiple securities transactions; provided, however, that a referral fee may be contingent on whether a customer:
</P>
<P>(1) Contacts or keeps an appointment with a broker or dealer as a result of the referral; or
</P>
<P>(2) Meets any objective, base-line qualification criteria established by the bank or broker or dealer for customer referrals, including such criteria as minimum assets, net worth, income, or marginal federal or state income tax rate, or any requirement for citizenship or residency that the broker or dealer, or the bank, may have established generally for referrals for securities brokerage accounts.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Incentive compensation</I> means compensation that is intended to encourage a bank employee to refer customers to a broker or dealer or give a bank employee an interest in the success of a securities transaction at a broker or dealer. The term does not include compensation paid by a bank under a bonus or similar plan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Paid on a discretionary basis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on multiple factors or variables and:
</P>
<P>(A) Those factors or variables include multiple significant factors or variables that are not related to securities transactions at the broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(B) A referral made by the employee is not a factor or variable in determining the employee's compensation under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(C) The employee's compensation under the plan is not determined by reference to referrals made by any other person.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this paragraph (b) shall be construed to prevent a bank from compensating an officer, director or employee under a bonus or similar plan on the basis of any measure of the overall profitability or revenue of:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank, either on a stand-alone or consolidated basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any affiliate of the bank (other than a broker or dealer), or any operating unit of the bank or an affiliate (other than a broker or dealer), if the affiliate or operating unit does not over time predominately engage in the business of making referrals to a broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A broker or dealer if:
</P>
<P>(A) Such measure of overall profitability or revenue is only one of multiple factors or variables used to determine the compensation of the officer, director or employee;
</P>
<P>(B) The factors or variables used to determine the compensation of the officer, director or employee include multiple significant factors or variables that are not related to the profitability or revenue of the broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(C) A referral made by the employee is not a factor or variable in determining the employee's compensation under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(D) The employee's compensation under the plan is not determined by reference to referrals made by any other person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nominal one-time cash fee of a fixed dollar amount</I> means a cash payment for a referral, to a bank employee who was personally involved in referring the customer to the broker or dealer, in an amount that meets any of the following standards:
</P>
<P>(1) The payment does not exceed:
</P>
<P>(i) Twice the average of the minimum and maximum hourly wage established by the bank for the current or prior year for the job family that includes the employee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 1/1000th of the average of the minimum and maximum annual base salary established by the bank for the current or prior year for the job family that includes the employee; or
</P>
<P>(2) The payment does not exceed twice the employee's actual base hourly wage or 1/1000th of the employee's actual annual base salary; or
</P>
<P>(3) The payment does not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25), as adjusted in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Job family</I> means a group of jobs or positions involving similar responsibilities, or requiring similar skills, education or training, that a bank, or a separate unit, branch or department of a bank, has established and uses in the ordinary course of its business to distinguish among its employees for purposes of hiring, promotion, and compensation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Referral</I> means the action taken by one or more bank employees to direct a customer of the bank to a broker or dealer for the purchase or sale of securities for the customer's account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inflation adjustment</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> On April 1, 2012, and on the 1st day of each subsequent 5-year period, the dollar amount referred to in paragraph (c)(3) of this section shall be adjusted by:
</P>
<P>(i) Dividing the annual value of the Employment Cost Index For Wages and Salaries, Private Industry Workers (or any successor index thereto), as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, for the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the adjustment is being made by the annual value of such index (or successor) for the calendar year ending December 31, 2006; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplying the dollar amount by the quotient obtained in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rounding.</I> If the adjusted dollar amount determined under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for any period is not a multiple of $1, the amount so determined shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.701" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.701   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for certain institutional referrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A bank that meets the requirements for the exception from the definition of “broker” under section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i)), other than section 3(a)(4)(B)(i)(VI) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i)(VI)), is exempt from the conditions of section 3(a)(4)(B)(i)(VI) of the Act solely to the extent that a bank employee receives a referral fee for referring a high net worth customer or institutional customer to a broker or dealer with which the bank has a contractual or other written arrangement of the type specified in section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) of the Act, if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank employee.</I> (i) The bank employee is:
</P>
<P>(A) Not registered or approved, or otherwise required to be registered or approved, in accordance with the qualification standards established by the rules of any self-regulatory organization;
</P>
<P>(B) Predominantly engaged in banking activities other than making referrals to a broker or dealer; and
</P>
<P>(C) Not subject to statutory disqualification, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(39) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)), except subparagraph (E) of that section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The high net worth customer or institutional customer is encountered by the bank employee in the ordinary course of the employee's assigned duties for the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank determinations and obligations</I>—(i) <I>Disclosures.</I> The bank provides the high net worth customer or institutional customer the information set forth in paragraph (b) of this section
</P>
<P>(A) In writing prior to or at the time of the referral; or
</P>
<P>(B) Orally prior to or at the time of the referral and
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank provides such information to the customer in writing within 3 business days of the date on which the bank employee refers the customer to the broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The written agreement between the bank and the broker or dealer provides for the broker or dealer to provide such information to the customer in writing in accordance with paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Customer qualification.</I> (A) In the case of a customer that is a not a natural person, the bank has a reasonable basis to believe that the customer is an institutional customer before the referral fee is paid to the bank employee.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a customer that is a natural person, the bank has a reasonable basis to believe that the customer is a high net worth customer prior to or at the time of the referral.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Employee qualification information.</I> Before a referral fee is paid to a bank employee under this section, the bank provides the broker or dealer the name of the employee and such other identifying information that may be necessary for the broker or dealer to determine whether the bank employee is registered or approved, or otherwise required to be registered or approved, in accordance with the qualification standards established by the rules of any self-regulatory organization or is subject to statutory disqualification, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(39) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)), except subparagraph (E) of that section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Good faith compliance and corrections.</I> A bank that acts in good faith and that has reasonable policies and procedures in place to comply with the requirements of this section shall not be considered a “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) solely because the bank fails to comply with the provisions of this paragraph (a)(2) with respect to a particular customer if the bank:
</P>
<P>(A) Takes reasonable and prompt steps to remedy the error (such as, for example, by promptly making the required determination or promptly providing the broker or dealer the required information); and
</P>
<P>(B) Makes reasonable efforts to reclaim the portion of the referral fee paid to the bank employee for the referral that does not, following any required remedial action, meet the requirements of this section and that exceeds the amount otherwise permitted under section 3(a)(4)(B)(i)(VI) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i)(VI)) and § 218.700.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provisions of written agreement.</I> The written agreement between the bank and the broker or dealer shall require that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Broker-dealer written disclosures.</I> If, pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the broker or dealer is to provide the customer in writing the disclosures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, the broker or dealer provides such information to the customer in writing:
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to or at the time the customer begins the process of opening an account at the broker or dealer, if the customer does not have an account with the broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to the time the customer places an order for a securities transaction with the broker or dealer as a result of the referral, if the customer already has an account at the broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Customer and employee qualifications.</I> Before the referral fee is paid to the bank employee:
</P>
<P>(A) The broker or dealer determine that the bank employee is not subject to statutory disqualification, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(39) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)), except subparagraph (E) of that section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The broker or dealer has a reasonable basis to believe that the customer is a high net worth customer or an institutional customer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Suitability or sophistication determination by broker or dealer</I>—(A) <I>Contingent referral fees.</I> In any case in which payment of the referral fee is contingent on completion of a securities transaction at the broker or dealer, the broker or dealer, before such securities transaction is conducted, perform a suitability analysis of the securities transaction in accordance with the rules of the broker or dealer's applicable self-regulatory organization as if the broker or dealer had recommended the securities transaction.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Non-contingent referral fees.</I> In any case in which payment of the referral fee is not contingent on the completion of a securities transaction at the broker or dealer, the broker or dealer, before the referral fee is paid, either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Determine that the customer:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Has the capability to evaluate investment risk and make independent decisions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is exercising independent judgment based on the customer's own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perform a suitability analysis of all securities transactions requested by the customer contemporaneously with the referral in accordance with the rules of the broker or dealer's applicable self-regulatory organization as if the broker or dealer had recommended the securities transaction.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Notice to the customer.</I> The broker or dealer inform the customer if the broker or dealer determines that the customer or the securities transaction(s) to be conducted by the customer does not meet the applicable standard set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice to the bank.</I> The broker or dealer promptly inform the bank if the broker or dealer determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) The customer is not a high net worth customer or institutional customer, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) The bank employee is subject to statutory disqualification, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(39) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(39)), except subparagraph (E) of that section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required disclosures.</I> The disclosures provided to the high net worth customer or institutional customer pursuant to paragraphs (a)(2)(i) or (a)(3)(i) of this section shall clearly and conspicuously disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the broker or dealer; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the bank employee participates in an incentive compensation program under which the bank employee may receive a fee of more than a nominal amount for referring the customer to the broker or dealer and payment of this fee may be contingent on whether the referral results in a transaction with the broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receipt of other compensation.</I> Nothing in this section prevents or prohibits a bank from paying or a bank employee from receiving any type of compensation that would not be considered incentive compensation under § 218.700(b)(1) or that is described in § 218.700(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> When used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High net worth customer</I>—(i) <I>General. High net worth customer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) Any natural person who, either individually or jointly with his or her spouse, has at least $5 million in net worth excluding the primary residence and associated liabilities of the person and, if applicable, his or her spouse; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any revocable, inter vivos or living trust the settlor of which is a natural person who, either individually or jointly with his or her spouse, meets the net worth standard set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Individual and spousal assets.</I> In determining whether any person is a high net worth customer, there may be included in the assets of such person
</P>
<P>(A) Any assets held individually;
</P>
<P>(B) If the person is acting jointly with his or her spouse, any assets of the person's spouse (whether or not such assets are held jointly); and
</P>
<P>(C) If the person is not acting jointly with his or her spouse, fifty percent of any assets held jointly with such person's spouse and any assets in which such person shares with such person's spouse a community property or similar shared ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institutional customer</I> means any corporation, partnership, limited liability company, trust or other non-natural person that has, or is controlled by a non-natural person that has, at least:
</P>
<P>(i) $10 million in investments; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $20 million in revenues; or
</P>
<P>(iii) $15 million in revenues if the bank employee refers the customer to the broker or dealer for investment banking services.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investment banking services</I> includes, without limitation, acting as an underwriter in an offering for an issuer; acting as a financial adviser in a merger, acquisition, tender offer or similar transaction; providing venture capital, equity lines of credit, private investment-private equity transactions or similar investments; serving as placement agent for an issuer; and engaging in similar activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Referral fee</I> means a fee (paid in one or more installments) for the referral of a customer to a broker or dealer that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A predetermined dollar amount, or a dollar amount determined in accordance with a predetermined formula (such as a fixed percentage of the dollar amount of total assets placed in an account with the broker or dealer), that does not vary based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The revenue generated by or the profitability of securities transactions conducted by the customer with the broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The quantity, price, or identity of securities transactions conducted over time by the customer with the broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(C) The number of customer referrals made; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A dollar amount based on a fixed percentage of the revenues received by the broker or dealer for investment banking services provided to the customer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Inflation adjustments</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> On April 1, 2012, and on the 1st day of each subsequent 5-year period, each dollar amount in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section shall be adjusted by:
</P>
<P>(i) Dividing the annual value of the Personal Consumption Expenditures Chain-Type Price Index (or any successor index thereto), as published by the Department of Commerce, for the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the adjustment is being made by the annual value of such index (or successor) for the calendar year ending December 31, 2006; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplying the dollar amount by the quotient obtained in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rounding.</I> If the adjusted dollar amount determined under paragraph (e)(1) of this section for any period is not a multiple of $100,000, the amount so determined shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $100,000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 20780, Apr. 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.721" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.721   Defined terms relating to the trust and fiduciary activities exception from the definition of “broker.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Defined terms for chiefly compensated test.</I> For purposes of this part and section 3(a)(4)(B)(ii) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii)), the following terms shall have the meaning provided:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chiefly compensated—account-by-account test. Chiefly compensated</I> shall mean the <I>relationship-total compensation percentage</I> for each <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> of the bank is greater than 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The <I>relationship-total compensation percentage</I> for a <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> shall be the mean of the <I>yearly compensation percentage</I> for the account for the immediately preceding year and the <I>yearly compensation percentage</I> for the account for the year immediately preceding that year.
</P>
<P>(3) The <I>yearly compensation percentage</I> for a <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> shall be
</P>
<P>(i) Equal to the relationship compensation attributable to the <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> during the year divided by the total compensation attributable to the <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> during that year, with the quotient expressed as a percentage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Calculated within 60 days of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Relationship compensation</I> means any compensation a bank receives attributable to a trust or fiduciary account that consists of:
</P>
<P>(i) An administration fee, including, without limitation, a fee paid—
</P>
<P>(A) For personal services, tax preparation, or real estate settlement services;
</P>
<P>(B) For disbursing funds from, or for recording receipt of payments to, a trust or fiduciary account;
</P>
<P>(C) In connection with securities lending or borrowing transactions;
</P>
<P>(D) For custody services; or
</P>
<P>(E) In connection with an investment in shares of an investment company for personal service, the maintenance of shareholder accounts or any service described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) An annual fee (payable on a monthly, quarterly or other basis), including, without limitation, a fee paid for assessing investment performance or for reviewing compliance with applicable investment guidelines or restrictions;
</P>
<P>(iii) A fee based on a percentage of assets under management, including, without limitation, a fee paid
</P>
<P>(A) Pursuant to a plan under § 270.12b-1;
</P>
<P>(B) In connection with an investment in shares of an investment company for personal service or the maintenance of shareholder accounts;
</P>
<P>(C) Based on a percentage of assets under management for any of the following services—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Providing transfer agent or sub-transfer agent services for beneficial owners of investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Aggregating and processing purchase and redemption orders for investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Providing beneficial owners with account statements showing their purchases, sales, and positions in the investment company;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Processing dividend payments for the investment company;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Providing sub-accounting services to the investment company for shares held beneficially;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Forwarding communications from the investment company to the beneficial owners, including proxies, shareholder reports, dividend and tax notices, and updated prospectuses; or
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Receiving, tabulating, and transmitting proxies executed by beneficial owners of investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(D) Based on the financial performance of the assets in an account; or
</P>
<P>(E) For the types of services described in paragraph (a)(4)(i)(C) or (D) of this section if paid based on a percentage of assets under management;
</P>
<P>(iv) A flat or capped per order processing fee, paid by or on behalf of a customer or beneficiary, that is equal to not more than the cost incurred by the bank in connection with executing securities transactions for trust or fiduciary accounts; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any combination of such fees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Trust or fiduciary account</I> means an account for which the bank acts in a trustee or fiduciary capacity as defined in section 3(a)(4)(D) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(D)).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Year</I> means a calendar year, or fiscal year consistently used by the bank for recordkeeping and reporting purposes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revenues derived from transactions conducted under other exceptions or exemptions.</I> For purposes of calculating the <I>yearly compensation percentage</I> for a <I>trust or fiduciary account</I>, a bank may at its election exclude the compensation associated with any securities transaction conducted in accordance with the exceptions in section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) or sections 3(a)(4)(B)(iii)-(xi) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i) or 78c(a)(4)(B)(iii)-(xi)) and the rules issued thereunder, including any exemption related to such exceptions jointly adopted by the Commission and the Board, <I>provided that</I> if the bank elects to exclude such compensation, the bank must exclude the compensation from both the relationship compensation (if applicable) and total compensation for the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advertising restrictions</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank complies with the advertising restriction in section 3(a)(4)(B)(ii)(II) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii)(II)) if advertisements by or on behalf of the bank do not advertise—
</P>
<P>(i) That the bank provides securities brokerage services for trust or fiduciary accounts except as part of advertising the bank's broader trust or fiduciary services; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The securities brokerage services provided by the bank to trust or fiduciary accounts more prominently than the other aspects of the trust or fiduciary services provided to such accounts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>advertisement</I> has the same meaning as in § 218.760(h)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 20780, Apr. 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.722" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.722   Exemption allowing banks to calculate trust and fiduciary compensation on a bank-wide basis.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A bank is exempt from meeting the “chiefly compensated” condition in section 3(a)(4)(B)(ii)(I) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii)(I)) to the extent that it effects transactions in securities for any account in a trustee or fiduciary capacity within the scope of section 3(a)(4)(D) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(D)) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank meets the other conditions for the exception from the definition of the term “broker” under sections 3(a)(4)(B)(ii) and 3(a)(4)(C) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii) and 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(C)), including the advertising restrictions in section 3(a)(4)(B)(ii)(II) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii)(II) as implemented by § 218.721(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate relationship-total compensation percentage for the bank's trust and fiduciary business is at least 70 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregate relationship-total compensation percentage.</I> For purposes of this section, the <I>aggregate relationship-total compensation percentage</I> for a bank's trust and fiduciary business shall be the mean of the bank's <I>yearly bank-wide compensation percentage</I> for the immediately preceding year and the bank's <I>yearly bank-wide compensation percentage</I> for the year immediately preceding that year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Yearly bank-wide compensation percentage.</I> For purposes of this section, a bank's <I>yearly bank-wide compensation percentage</I> for a year shall be
</P>
<P>(1) Equal to the <I>relationship compensation</I> attributable to the bank's trust and fiduciary business as a whole during the year divided by the total compensation attributable to the bank's trust and fiduciary business as a whole during that year, with the quotient expressed as a percentage; and
</P>
<P>(2) Calculated within 60 days of the end of the year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revenues derived from transactions conducted under other exceptions or exemptions.</I> For purposes of calculating the <I>yearly compensation percentage</I> for a <I>trust or fiduciary account,</I> a bank may at its election exclude the compensation associated with any securities transaction conducted in accordance with the exceptions in section 3(a)(4)(B)(i) or sections 3(a)(4)(B)(iii)-(xi) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(i) or 78c(a)(4)(B)(iii)-(xi)) and the rules issued thereunder, including any exemption related to such sections jointly adopted by the Commission and the Board, <I>provided that</I> if the bank elects to exclude such compensation, the bank must exclude the compensation from both the relationship compensation (if applicable) and total compensation of the bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.723" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.723   Exemptions for special accounts, transferred accounts, foreign branches and a <E T="7462">de minimis</E> number of accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Short-term accounts.</I> A bank may, in determining its compliance with the chiefly compensated test in § 218.721(a)(1) or § 218.722(a)(2), exclude any trust or fiduciary account that had been open for a period of less than 3 months during the relevant year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounts acquired as part of a business combination or asset acquisition.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with the chiefly compensated test in § 218.721(a)(1) or § 218.722(a)(2), any <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> that a bank acquired from another person as part of a merger, consolidation, acquisition, purchase of assets or similar transaction may be excluded by the bank for 12 months after the date the bank acquired the account from the other person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-shell foreign branches</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with the chiefly compensated test in § 218.722(a)(2), a bank may exclude the trust or fiduciary accounts held at a non-shell foreign branch of the bank if the bank has reasonable cause to believe that trust or fiduciary accounts of the foreign branch held by or for the benefit of a U.S. person as defined in 17 CFR 230.902(k) constitute less than 10 percent of the total number of trust or fiduciary accounts of the foreign branch.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules of construction.</I> Solely for purposes of this paragraph (c), a bank will be deemed to have reasonable cause to believe that a trust or fiduciary account of a foreign branch of the bank is not held by or for the benefit of a U.S. person if
</P>
<P>(i) The principal mailing address maintained and used by the foreign branch for the accountholder(s) and beneficiary(ies) of the account is not in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The records of the foreign branch indicate that the accountholder(s) and beneficiary(ies) of the account is not a U.S. person as defined in 17 CFR 230.902(k).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-shell foreign branch.</I> Solely for purposes of this paragraph (c), a non-shell foreign branch of a bank means a branch of the bank
</P>
<P>(i) That is located outside the United States and provides banking services to residents of the foreign jurisdiction in which the branch is located; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For which the decisions relating to day-to-day operations and business of the branch are made at that branch and are not made by an office of the bank located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accounts transferred to a broker or dealer or other unaffiliated entity.</I> Notwithstanding section 3(a)(4)(B)(ii)(I) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(ii)(I)) and § 218.721(a)(1) of this part, a bank operating under § 218.721(a)(1) shall not be considered a broker for purposes of section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) solely because a <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> does not meet the chiefly compensated standard in § 218.721(a)(1) if, within 3 months of the end of the year in which the account fails to meet such standard, the bank transfers the account or the securities held by or on behalf of the account to a broker or dealer registered under section 15 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78o) or another entity that is not an affiliate of the bank and is not required to be registered as a broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>De minimis exclusion.</I> A bank may, in determining its compliance with the chiefly compensated test in § 218.721(a)(1), exclude a <I>trust or fiduciary account</I> if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank maintains records demonstrating that the securities transactions conducted by or on behalf of the account were undertaken by the bank in the exercise of its trust or fiduciary responsibilities with respect to the account;
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of accounts excluded by the bank under this paragraph (d) does not exceed the lesser of—
</P>
<P>(i) 1 percent of the total number of trust or fiduciary accounts held by the bank, <I>provided that</I> if the number so obtained is less than 1 the amount shall be rounded up to 1; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 500; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank did not rely on this paragraph (e) with respect to such account during the immediately preceding year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 20780, Apr. 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.740" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.740   Defined terms relating to the sweep accounts exception from the definition of “broker.”</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of section 3(a)(4)(B)(v) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(v)), the following terms shall have the meaning provided:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Deferred sales load</I> has the same meaning as in 17 CFR 270.6c-10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Money market fund</I> means an open-end company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) that is regulated as a money market fund pursuant to 17 CFR 270.2a-7.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>No-load</I>, in the context of an investment company or the securities issued by an investment company, means, for securities of the class or series in which a bank effects transactions, that:
</P>
<P>(i) That class or series is not subject to a sales load or a deferred sales load; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Total charges against net assets of that class or series of the investment company's securities for sales or sales promotion expenses, for personal service, or for the maintenance of shareholder accounts do not exceed 0.25 of 1% of average net assets annually.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, charges for the following will not be considered charges against net assets of a class or series of an investment company's securities for sales or sales promotion expenses, for personal service, or for the maintenance of shareholder accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing transfer agent or sub-transfer agent services for beneficial owners of investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(ii) Aggregating and processing purchase and redemption orders for investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing beneficial owners with account statements showing their purchases, sales, and positions in the investment company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Processing dividend payments for the investment company;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing sub-accounting services to the investment company for shares held beneficially;
</P>
<P>(vi) Forwarding communications from the investment company to the beneficial owners, including proxies, shareholder reports, dividend and tax notices, and updated prospectuses; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Receiving, tabulating, and transmitting proxies executed by beneficial owners of investment company shares.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Open-end company</I> has the same meaning as in section 5(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-5(a)(1)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sales load</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(35) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(35)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.741" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.741   Exemption for banks effecting transactions in money market funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) to the extent that it effects transactions on behalf of a customer in securities issued by a money market fund, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank either
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the customer, directly or indirectly, any other product or service, the provision of which would not, in and of itself, require the bank to register as a broker or dealer under section 15(a) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78o(a)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Effects the transactions on behalf of another bank as part of a program for the investment or reinvestment of deposit funds of, or collected by, the other bank; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The class or series of securities is no-load; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the class or series of securities is not no-load
</P>
<P>(A) The bank or, if applicable, the other bank described in paragraph (a)(1)(B) of this section provides the customer, not later than at the time the customer authorizes the securities transactions, a prospectus for the securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) The bank and, if applicable, the other bank described in paragraph (a)(1)(B) of this section do not characterize or refer to the class or series of securities as no-load.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Money market fund</I> has the same meaning as in § 218.740(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No-load</I> has the same meaning as in § 218.740(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 3 FR 20780, Apr. 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.760" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.760   Exemption from definition of “broker” for banks accepting orders to effect transactions in securities from or on behalf of custody accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee benefit plan accounts and individual retirement accounts or similar accounts.</I> A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) to the extent that, as part of its customary banking activities, the bank accepts orders to effect transactions in securities for an employee benefit plan account or an individual retirement account or similar account for which the bank acts as a custodian if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Employee compensation restriction and additional conditions.</I> The bank complies with the employee compensation restrictions in paragraph (c) of this section <I>and the other conditions in paragraph (d) of this section</I>;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisements.</I> Advertisements by or on behalf of the bank do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Advertise that the bank accepts orders for securities transactions for employee benefit plan accounts or individual retirement accounts or similar accounts, except as part of advertising the other custodial or safekeeping services the bank provides to these accounts; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Advertise that such accounts are securities brokerage accounts or that the bank's safekeeping and custody services substitute for a securities brokerage account; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advertisements and sales literature for individual retirement or similar accounts.</I> Advertisements and sales literature issued by or on behalf of the bank do not describe the securities order-taking services provided by the bank to individual retirement accounts or similar accounts more prominently than the other aspects of the custody or safekeeping services provided by the bank to these accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accommodation trades for other custodial accounts.</I> A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) to the extent that, as part of its customary banking activities, the bank accepts orders to effect transactions in securities for an account for which the bank acts as custodian other than an employee benefit plan account or an individual retirement account or similar account if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accommodation.</I> The bank accepts orders to effect transactions in securities for the account only as an accommodation to the customer;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee compensation restriction and additional conditions.</I> The bank complies with the employee compensation restrictions in paragraph (c) of this section and the other conditions in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bank fees.</I> Any fee charged or received by the bank for effecting a securities transaction for the account does not vary based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the bank accepted the order for the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The quantity or price of the securities to be bought or sold;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advertisements.</I> Advertisements by or on behalf of the bank do not state that the bank accepts orders for securities transactions for the account;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sales literature.</I> Sales literature issued by or on behalf of the bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not state that the bank accepts orders for securities transactions for the account except as part of describing the other custodial or safekeeping services the bank provides to the account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not describe the securities order-taking services provided to the account more prominently than the other aspects of the custody or safekeeping services provided by the bank to the account; and
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Investment advice and recommendations.</I> The bank does not provide investment advice or research concerning securities to the account, make recommendations to the account concerning securities or otherwise solicit securities transactions from the account; provided, however, that nothing in this paragraph (b)(6) shall prevent a bank from:
</P>
<P>(i) Publishing, using or disseminating advertisements and sales literature in accordance with paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Responding to customer inquiries regarding the bank's safekeeping and custody services by providing:
</P>
<P>(A) Advertisements or sales literature consistent with the provisions of paragraphs (b)(4) and (b)(5) of this section describing the safekeeping, custody and related services that the bank offers;
</P>
<P>(B) A prospectus prepared by a registered investment company, or sales literature prepared by a registered investment company or by the broker or dealer that is the principal underwriter of the registered investment company pertaining to the registered investment company's products;
</P>
<P>(C) Information based on the materials described in paragraphs (b)(6)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Responding to inquiries regarding the bank's safekeeping, custody or other services, such as inquiries concerning the customer's account or the availability of sweep or other services, so long as the bank does not provide investment advice or research concerning securities to the account or make a recommendation to the account concerning securities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee compensation restriction.</I> A bank may accept orders pursuant to this section for a securities transaction for an account described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section only if no bank employee receives compensation, including a fee paid pursuant to a plan under 17 CFR 270.12b-1, from the bank, the executing broker or dealer, or any other person that is based on whether a securities transaction is executed for the account or that is based on the quantity, price, or identity of securities purchased or sold by such account, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall prohibit a bank employee from receiving compensation that would not be considered incentive compensation under § 218.700(b)(1) as if a referral had been made by the bank employee, or any compensation described in § 218.700(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other conditions.</I> A bank may accept orders for a securities transaction for an account for which the bank acts as a custodian under this section only if the bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not act in a trustee or fiduciary capacity (as defined in section 3(a)(4)(D) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(D)) with respect to the account, other than as a directed trustee;
</P>
<P>(2) Complies with section 3(a)(4)(C) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(C)) in handling any order for a securities transaction for the account; and
</P>
<P>(3) Complies with section 3(a)(4)(B)(viii)(II) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)(viii)(II)) regarding carrying broker activities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-fiduciary administrators and recordkeepers.</I> A bank that acts as a non-fiduciary and non-custodial administrator or recordkeeper for an employee benefit plan account for which another bank acts as custodian may rely on the exemption provided in this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) Both the custodian bank and the administrator or recordkeeper bank comply with paragraphs (a), (c) and (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The administrator or recordkeeper bank does not execute a cross-trade with or for the employee benefit plan account or net orders for securities for the employee benefit plan account, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) Crossing or netting orders for shares of open-end investment companies not traded on an exchange, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Crossing orders between or netting orders for accounts of the custodian bank that contracted with the administrator or recordkeeper bank for services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Subcustodians.</I> A bank that acts as a subcustodian for an account for which another bank acts as custodian may rely on the exemptions provided in this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) For employee benefit plan accounts and individual retirement accounts or similar accounts, both the custodian bank and the subcustodian bank meet the requirements of paragraphs (a), (c) and (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) For other custodial accounts, both the custodian bank and the subcustodian bank meet the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The subcustodian bank does not execute a cross-trade with or for the account or net orders for securities for the account, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) Crossing or netting orders for shares of open-end investment companies not traded on an exchange, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Crossing orders between or netting orders for accounts of the custodian bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Evasions.</I> In considering whether a bank meets the terms of this section, both the form and substance of the relevant account(s), transaction(s) and activities (including advertising activities) of the bank will be considered in order to prevent evasions of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Definitions.</I> When used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account for which the bank acts as a custodian</I> means an account that is:
</P>
<P>(i) An employee benefit plan account for which the bank acts as a custodian;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual retirement account or similar account for which the bank acts as a custodian;
</P>
<P>(iii) An account established by a written agreement between the bank and the customer that sets forth the terms that will govern the fees payable to, and rights and obligations of, the bank regarding the safekeeping or custody of securities; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An account for which the bank acts as a directed trustee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement</I> means any material that is published or used in any electronic or other public media, including any Web site, newspaper, magazine or other periodical, radio, television, telephone or tape recording, videotape display, signs or billboards, motion pictures, or telephone directories (other than routine listings).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Directed trustee</I> means a trustee that does not exercise investment discretion with respect to the account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee benefit plan account</I> means a pension plan, retirement plan, profit sharing plan, bonus plan, thrift savings plan, incentive plan, or other similar plan, including, without limitation, an employer-sponsored plan qualified under section 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(a)), a governmental or other plan described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 457), a tax-deferred plan described in section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 403(b)), a church plan, governmental, multiemployer or other plan described in section 414(d), (e) or (f) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 414(d), (e) or (f)), an incentive stock option plan described in section 422 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 422); a Voluntary Employee Beneficiary Association Plan described in section 501(c)(9) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(9)), a non-qualified deferred compensation plan (including a rabbi or secular trust), a supplemental or mirror plan, and a supplemental unemployment benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Individual retirement account or similar account</I> means an individual retirement account as defined in section 408 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 408), Roth IRA as defined in section 408A of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 408A), health savings account as defined in section 223(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223(d)), Archer medical savings account as defined in section 220(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 220(d)), Coverdell education savings account as defined in section 530 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 530), or other similar account.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sales literature</I> means any written or electronic communication, other than an advertisement, that is generally distributed or made generally available to customers of the bank or the public, including circulars, form letters, brochures, telemarketing scripts, seminar texts, published articles, and press releases concerning the bank's products or services.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Principal underwriter</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(29) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(29)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.771" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.771   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for banks effecting transactions in securities issued pursuant to Regulation S.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)), to the extent that, as agent, the bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Effects a sale in compliance with the requirements of 17 CFR 230.903 of an eligible security to a purchaser who is not in the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Effects, by or on behalf of a person who is not a U.S. person under 17 CFR 230.902(k), a resale of an eligible security after its initial sale with a reasonable belief that the eligible security was initially sold outside of the United States within the meaning of and in compliance with the requirements of 17 CFR 230.903 to a purchaser who is not in the United States or a registered broker or dealer, provided that if the resale is made prior to the expiration of any applicable distribution compliance period specified in 17 CFR 230.903(b)(2) or (b)(3), the resale is made in compliance with the requirements of 17 CFR 230.904; or
</P>
<P>(3) Effects, by or on behalf of a registered broker or dealer, a resale of an eligible security after its initial sale with a reasonable belief that the eligible security was initially sold outside of the United States within the meaning of and in compliance with the requirements of 17 CFR 230.903 to a purchaser who is not in the United States, provided that if the resale is made prior to the expiration of any applicable distribution compliance period specified in 17 CFR 230.903(b)(2) or (b)(3), the resale is made in compliance with the requirements of 17 CFR 230.904.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Distributor</I> has the same meaning as in 17 CFR 230.902(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible security</I> means a security that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not being sold from the inventory of the bank or an affiliate of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not being underwritten by the bank or an affiliate of the bank on a firm-commitment basis, unless the bank acquired the security from an unaffiliated distributor that did not purchase the security from the bank or an affiliate of the bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purchaser</I> means a person who purchases an eligible security and who is not a U.S. person under 17 CFR 230.902(k).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.772" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.772   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for banks engaging in securities lending transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)), to the extent that, as an agent, it engages in or effects securities lending transactions, and any securities lending services in connection with such transactions, with or on behalf of a person the bank reasonably believes to be:
</P>
<P>(1) A qualified investor as defined in section 3(a)(54)(A) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(54)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any employee benefit plan that owns and invests on a discretionary basis, not less than $ 25,000,000 in investments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Securities lending transaction</I> means a transaction in which the owner of a security lends the security temporarily to another party pursuant to a written securities lending agreement under which the lender retains the economic interests of an owner of such securities, and has the right to terminate the transaction and to recall the loaned securities on terms agreed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Securities lending services</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Selecting and negotiating with a borrower and executing, or directing the execution of the loan with the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving, delivering, or directing the receipt or delivery of loaned securities;
</P>
<P>(3) Receiving, delivering, or directing the receipt or delivery of collateral;
</P>
<P>(4) Providing mark-to-market, corporate action, recordkeeping or other services incidental to the administration of the securities lending transaction;
</P>
<P>(5) Investing, or directing the investment of, cash collateral; or
</P>
<P>(6) Indemnifying the lender of securities with respect to various matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.775" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.775   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for banks effecting certain excepted or exempted transactions in investment company securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank that meets the conditions for an exception or exemption from the definition of the term “broker” except for the condition in section 3(a)(4)(C)(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(C)(i)), is exempt from such condition to the extent that it effects a transaction in a <I>covered security,</I> if:
</P>
<P>(1) Any such security is neither traded on a national securities exchange nor through the facilities of a national securities association or an interdealer quotation system;
</P>
<P>(2) The security is distributed by a registered broker or dealer, or the sales charge is no more than the amount permissible for a security sold by a registered broker or dealer pursuant to any applicable rules adopted pursuant to section 22(b)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-22(b)(1)) by a securities association registered under section 15A of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-3); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any such transaction is effected:
</P>
<P>(i) Through the National Securities Clearing Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly with a transfer agent or with an insurance company or separate account that is excluded from the definition of transfer agent in Section 3(a)(25) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any security issued by an open-end company, as defined by section 5(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-5(a)(1)), that is registered under that Act; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any variable insurance contract funded by a separate account, as defined by section 2(a)(37) of the Investment Company Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(37)), that is registered under that Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interdealer quotation system</I> has the same meaning as in 17 CFR 240.15c2-11.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insurance company</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(13).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 72 FR 56554, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 73 FR 20780, Apr. 17, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.776" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.776   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for banks effecting certain excepted or exempted transactions in a company's securities for its employee benefit plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank that meets the conditions for an exception or exemption from the definition of the term “broker” except for the condition in section 3(a)(4)(C)(i) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(C)(i)), is exempt from such condition to the extent that it effects a transaction in the securities of a company directly with a transfer agent acting for the company that issued the security, if:
</P>
<P>(1) No commission is charged with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is conducted by the bank solely for the benefit of an employee benefit plan account;
</P>
<P>(3) Any such security is obtained directly from:
</P>
<P>(i) The company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee benefit plan of the company; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any such security is transferred only to:
</P>
<P>(i) The company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An employee benefit plan of the company.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, the term <I>employee benefit plan account</I> has the same meaning as in § 218.760(h)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.780" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.780   Exemption for banks from liability under section 29 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No contract entered into before March 31, 2009, shall be void or considered voidable by reason of section 29(b) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78cc(b)) because any bank that is a party to the contract violated the registration requirements of section 15(a) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78o(a)), any other applicable provision of the Act, or the rules and regulations thereunder based solely on the bank's status as a broker when the contract was created.
</P>
<P>(b) No contract shall be void or considered voidable by reason of section 29(b) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78cc(b)) because any bank that is a party to the contract violated the registration requirements of section 15(a) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78o(a)) or the rules and regulations thereunder based solely on the bank's status as a broker when the contract was created, if:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time the contract was created, the bank acted in good faith and had reasonable policies and procedures in place to comply with section 3(a)(4)(B) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)(B)) and the rules and regulations thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(2) At the time the contract was created, any violation of the registration requirements of section 15(a) of the Act by the bank did not result in any significant harm or financial loss or cost to the person seeking to void the contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 218.781" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.19.0.28.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 218.781   Exemption from the definition of “broker” for banks for a limited period of time.</HEAD>
<P>A bank is exempt from the definition of the term “broker” under section 3(a)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)) until the first day of its first fiscal year commencing after September 30, 2008.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="219" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 219—REIMBURSEMENT FOR PROVIDING FINANCIAL RECORDS; RECORDKEEPING REQUIREMENTS FOR CERTAIN FINANCIAL RECORDS (REGULATION S)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3415.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 55813, Sept. 28, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Reimbursement to Financial Institutions for Providing Financial Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.1" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart of Regulation S (12 CFR part 219, subpart A) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under section 1115 of the Right to Financial Privacy Act (the Act) (12 U.S.C. 3415). It establishes the rates and conditions for reimbursement of reasonably necessary costs directly incurred by financial institutions in assembling or providing customer financial records to a government authority pursuant to the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 233, Jan. 3, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.2" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P><I>Customer</I> means any person or authorized representative of that person who uses any service of a financial institution, or for whom a financial institution acts or has acted as a fiduciary in relation to an account maintained in the person's name. Customer does not include corporations or partnerships comprised of more than five persons. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> means any office of a bank, savings bank, card issuer as defined in section 103 of the Consumers Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1602(n)), industrial loan company, trust company, savings association, building and loan, or homestead association (including cooperative banks), credit union, or consumer finance institution, located in any State or territory of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<P><I>Financial record</I> means an original or copy of, or information known to have been derived from, any record held by a financial institution pertaining to a customer's relationship with the financial institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Government authority</I> means any agency or department of the United States, or any officer, employee or agent thereof. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual or a partnership of five or fewer individuals. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. S, 61 FR 29640, June 12, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.3" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.3   Cost reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees payable.</I> (1) Except as provided in § 219.4 of this part, a government authority seeking access to financial records pertaining to a customer, by written request, through:
</P>
<P>(i) A court order;
</P>
<P>(ii) A subpoena issued pursuant to the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure or the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other agency administrative procedures, including administrative subpoenas, voluntary requests, or other process shall reimburse the financial institution for reasonably necessary costs directly incurred in searching for, reproducing or transporting books, papers, records, or other data as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The reimbursement schedule for a financial institution is set forth in appendix A to this section. If a financial institution has financial records that are stored at an independent storage facility that charges a fee to search for, reproduce, or transport particular records requested, these costs are considered to be directly incurred by the financial institution and may be included in the reimbursement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Search and processing costs.</I> (1) Reimbursement of search and processing costs shall cover the total amount of personnel time spent in locating, retrieving, reproducing, and preparing financial records for shipment. Search and processing costs shall not cover analysis of material or legal advice. 
</P>
<P>(2) If itemized separately, search and processing costs may include the actual cost of extracting electronically stored records, based on computer time and necessary supplies; however, personnel time for computer searches may be paid for at the rates set for computer support specialist, specified in appendix A to this section, but only when compliance with the request for information requires that the financial institution use programming or other higher level technical services of a computer support specialist in order to reproduce electronically stored information in the format requested by the government authority.
</P>
<P>(3) Rates for Search and Processing in appendix A shall be recalculated as follows on October 1, 2012, and on October 1 of each subsequent three-year period utilizing Bureau of Labor Statistics (“BLS”) data or equivalent data (as so designated by the Board) by replacing the existing hourly rates with the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Base labor rate recalculation</I>—Using the most recently available wage data from the Occupational Employment Statistics program (<I>http://www.bls.gov/oes/home.htm</I>) for the BLS industry category “Credit Intermediation and Related Activities” (NAICS Code Number 522000) (or successor category):
</P>
<P>(A) [Clerical/Technical category] the average of the median hourly rates for the “Information and Records Clerk” and “Computer Operator” job categories (SOC Code Number 43-4199 and 43-9011) (or any successor job categories);
</P>
<P>(B) [Manager/Supervisor category] the median hourly rate for the “first-line supervisors/managers of office” job category (SOC Code Number 43-1011) (or successor category), and
</P>
<P>(C) [Computer Support Specialist category] the median hourly rate for the “computer support specialist” job category (SOC Code Number 15-1041) (or successor category); plus
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benefits Adjustment</I>—an amount for each hourly rate category that is equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The hourly rates set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) The most recently available “percent of total compensation” represented by “total benefits” for the “Credit Intermediation and Related Activities” industry category (private sector) set out in the Employment Cost Trends section of the National Compensation Survey (<I>http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/outside.jsp?survey=cm</I>); and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the recalculated rates for Search and Processing (including the Base labor rate and the benefits adjustment) are not a multiple of $1, the recalculated rates shall be rounded up to the next multiple of $1.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reproduction costs.</I> The reimbursement rates for reproduction costs for requested information are set forth in appendix A to this section, subject to the Conditions for Payment set forth in § 219.5 of this part. Copies of photographs, films and other materials not listed in appendix A to this section are reimbursed at actual cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transportation or delivery costs.</I> Reimbursement for transportation or delivery costs shall be for the reasonably necessary costs directly incurred to transport personnel to locate and retrieve the requested information, and to deliver such material to the place of examination.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Appendix A to § 219.3—Reimbursement Schedule
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reproduction:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Photocopy, per page</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Paper copies of microfiche, per frame</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Duplicate Microfiche, per microfiche</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Storage media</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actual cost.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Search and Processing:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Clerical/Technical, hourly rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">22.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Computer Support Specialist, hourly rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Manager/Supervisory, hourly rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. S, 61 FR 29640, June 12, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 50107, Sept. 30, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.4" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.4   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>A financial institution is not entitled to reimbursement under this subpart for costs incurred in assembling or providing financial records or information related to: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Security interests, bankruptcy claims, debt collection.</I> Any financial records provided as an incident to perfecting a security interest, proving a claim in bankruptcy, or otherwise collecting on a debt owing either to the financial institution itself or in its role as a fiduciary. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government loan programs.</I> Financial records that are necessary to permit the appropriate government authority to carry out its responsibilities under a government loan, loan guaranty or loan insurance program. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonidentifiable information.</I> Financial records that are not identified with or identifiable as being derived from the financial records of a particular customer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial supervisory agencies.</I> Financial records disclosed to a financial supervisory agency in the exercise of its supervisory, regulatory, or monetary functions with respect to a financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal Revenue summons.</I> Financial records disclosed in accordance with procedures authorized by the Internal Revenue Code. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federally required reports.</I> Financial records required to be reported in accordance with any federal statute or rule promulgated thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Government civil or criminal litigation.</I> Financial records sought by a government authority under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure or comparable rules of other courts in connection with litigation to which the government authority and the customer are parties. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative agency subpoenas.</I> Financial records sought by a government authority pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued by an administrative law judge in an adjudicatory proceeding subject to 5 U.S.C. 554, and to which the government authority and the customer are parties. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Investigation of financial institution or its noncustomer.</I> Financial records sought by a government authority in connection with a lawful proceeding, investigation, examination, or inspection directed at the financial institution in possession of such records, or at an entity that is not a <I>customer</I> as defined in § 219.2 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>General Accounting Office requests.</I> Financial records sought by the General Accounting Office pursuant to an authorized proceeding, investigation, examination, or audit directed at a government authority. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federal Housing Finance Board requests.</I> Financial records or information sought by the Federal Housing Finance Board (FHFB) or any of the Federal home loan banks in the exercise of the FHFB's authority to extend credit to financial institutions or others. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Department of Veterans Affairs.</I> The disclosure of the name and address of any customer to the Department of Veterans Affairs where such disclosure is necessary to, and used solely for, the proper administration of benefits programs under laws administered by that Department. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. S, 61 FR 29640, June 12, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.5" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.5   Conditions for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Direct costs.</I> Payment shall be made only for costs that are both directly incurred and reasonably necessary to provide requested material. Search and processing, reproduction, and transportation or delivery costs shall be considered separately when determining whether the costs are reasonably necessary. Photocopying or microfiche charges are reasonably necessary only if the institution has reproduced financial records that were not stored electronically (<I>i.e.,</I> where the information requested was stored only on paper or in microfiche), or where the government authority making the request has specifically asked for printed copies of electronically stored records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance with legal process, request, or authorization.</I> No payment may be made to a financial institution until it satisfactorily complies with the legal process, the formal written request, or the customer authorization. When the legal process or formal written request is withdrawn, or the customer authorization is revoked, or where the customer successfully challenges disclosure to a grand jury or government authority, the financial institution shall be reimbursed for the reasonably necessary costs incurred in assembling the requested financial records prior to the time the financial institution is notified of such event. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Itemized bill or invoice.</I> No reimbursement is required unless a financial institution submits an itemized bill or invoice specifically detailing its search and processing, reproduction, and transportation costs. Search and processing time should be billed in 15-minute increments. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. S, 61 FR 29641, June 12, 1996, as amended at 74 FR 50108, Sept. 30, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.6" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.1.28.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.6   Payment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to submit invoice.</I> Promptly following a service of legal process or request, the court or government authority shall notify the financial institution that it must submit an itemized bill or invoice in order to obtain payment and shall furnish an address for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special notice.</I> If a grand jury or government authority withdraws the legal process or formal written request, or if the customer revokes the authorization, or if the legal process or request has been successfully challenged by the customer, the grand jury or government authority shall promptly notify the financial institution of these facts, and shall also notify the financial institution that it must submit an itemized bill or invoice in order to obtain payment of costs incurred prior to the time the financial institution receives this notice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. S, 61 FR 29641, June 12, 1996; 61 FR 32317, June 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Recordkeeping and Reporting Requirements for Funds Transfers and Transmittals of Funds</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1829b(b)(2) and (3). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 233, Jan. 3, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 219.21" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.2.28.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.21   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart of Regulation S (12 CFR part 219, subpart B) is issued by the Board under the authority of section 21(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1829b), as amended by the Annunzio-Wylie Anti-Money Laundering Act of 1992 (Pub. L. 102-550, title XV; 106 Stat. 3672, 4044), which authorizes the Board and the Secretary of the Treasury jointly to prescribe recordkeeping and reporting requirements for domestic wire transfers by insured depository institutions; and which also requires the Board and the Treasury jointly to prescribe recordkeeping and reporting requirements for international wire transfers by insured depository institutions and by nonbank financial institutions. The definitions and recordkeeping and reporting requirements referenced in this subpart are promulgated and administered jointly by the Board and the Treasury and are codified in 31 CFR 1010.100, 1010.410(e), and 1020.410(a). This subpart does not apply to a particular person or class of persons or a particular transaction or class of transactions to the extent that the Treasury has determined that 31 CFR 1010.410(e) or 1020.410(a) do not apply to that person, transaction, or class of persons or transactions. These recordkeeping and reporting requirements will assist in the prosecution of money laundering activities and are determined to have a high degree of usefulness in criminal, tax or regulatory investigations or proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 233, Jan. 3, 1995, as amended by Reg. S, 61 FR 58975, Nov. 20, 1996; 77 FR 65097, Oct. 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.22" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.2.28.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.22   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms are defined in 31 CFR 1010.100 under the joint authority of the Board and the Treasury: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1><I>Accept.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Beneficiary.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Beneficiary's bank.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Established customer.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Execution date.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Funds transfer.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Intermediary bank.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Intermediary financial institution.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Originator.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Originator's bank.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Payment date.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Payment order.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Receiving bank.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Receiving financial institution.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Recipient.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Recipient's financial institution.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Sender.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Transmittal of funds.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Transmittal order.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Transmittor.</I> 
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Transmittor's financial institution.</I></FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 233, Jan. 3, 1995, as amended by Reg. S, 77 FR 65098, Oct. 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.23" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.2.28.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.23   Recordkeeping and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Domestic and international funds transfers by insured depository institutions.</I> The Board and the Treasury are authorized to promulgate jointly recordkeeping and reporting requirements for domestic and international funds transfers by insured depository institutions whenever the agencies determine that the maintenance of such records has a high degree of usefulness in criminal, tax, or regulatory investigations or proceedings. These regulations are codified at 31 CFR 1020.410(a). For the purposes of this subpart, the provisions of 31 CFR 1020.410(a) apply only to funds transfers by insured depository institutions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>International transmittals of funds by financial institutions other than insured depository institutions.</I> The Board and the Treasury are required to promulgate jointly reporting and recordkeeping requirements for international transmittals of funds by financial institutions, including brokers and dealers in securities and businesses that provide money transmitting services. In prescribing these requirements, the Board and the Treasury take into account the usefulness of these records in criminal, tax, or regulatory investigations or proceedings and the effect the recordkeeping will have on the cost and efficiency of the payment system. These regulations are codified at 31 CFR 1010.410(e). For the purposes of this subpart, the provisions of 31 CFR 1010.410(e) apply only to international transmittals of funds. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 233, Jan. 3, 1995, as amended by Reg. S, 77 FR 65098, Oct. 25, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 219.24" NODE="12:2.0.1.1.20.2.28.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 219.24   Retention period.</HEAD>
<P>All records that are required to be retained by this subpart shall be retained for a period of five years. All these records shall be filed or stored in such a way as to be accessible within a reasonable period of time, taking into consideration the nature of the record and the amount of time that has expired since the record was made. Any records required to be retained by this subpart shall be made available to the Board upon request. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>Jan. 1, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="3" NODE="12:3" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 3</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Federal Reserve System (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>220


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="12:3.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED) 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="220" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 220—CREDIT BY BROKERS AND DEALERS (REGULATION T)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 78c, 78g, 78q, and 78w. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>A copy of each form referred to in this part is filed as a part of the original document. Copies are available upon request to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System or any Federal Reserve Bank.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 220.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> Regulation T (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act) (15 U.S.C.78a <I>et seq.</I>). Its principal purpose is to regulate extensions of credit by brokers and dealers; it also covers related transactions within the Board's authority under the Act. It imposes, among other obligations, initial margin requirements and payment rules on certain securities transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part provides a margin account and four special purpose accounts in which to record all financial relations between a customer and a creditor. Any transaction not specifically permitted in a special purpose account shall be recorded in a margin account.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not preclude any exchange, national securities association, or creditor from imposing additional requirements or taking action for its own protection.
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial relations between a customer and a creditor to the extent that they comply with a portfolio margining system under rules approved or amended by the SEC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit extended by a creditor based on a good faith determination that the borrower is an exempted borrower;
</P>
<P>(iii) Financial relations between a customer and a broker or dealer registered only under section 15C of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Financial relations between a foreign branch of a creditor and a foreign person involving foreign securities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2820, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the meanings given them in section 3(a) of the Act or as defined in this section as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated corporation</I> means a corporation of which all the common stock is owned directly or indirectly by the firm or general partners and employees of the firm, or by the corporation or holders of the controlling stock and employees of the corporation, and the affiliation has been approved by the creditor's examining authority.
</P>
<P><I>Cash equivalent</I> means securities issued or guaranteed by the United States or its agencies, negotiable bank certificates of deposit, bankers acceptances issued by banking institutions in the United States and payable in the United States, or money market mutual funds.
</P>
<P><I>Covered option transaction</I> means any transaction involving options or warrants in which the customer's risk is limited and all elements of the transaction are subject to contemporaneous exercise if:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount at risk is held in the account in cash, cash equivalents, or via an escrow receipt; and
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is eligible for the cash account by the rules of the registered national securities exchange authorized to trade the option or warrant or by the rules of the creditor's examining authority in the case of an unregistered option, provided that all such rules have been approved or amended by the SEC.
</P>
<P><I>Credit balance</I> means the cash amount due the customer in a margin account after debiting amounts transferred to the special memorandum account.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> means any broker or dealer (as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Act), any member of a national securities exchange, or any person associated with a broker or dealer (as defined in section 3(a)(18) of the Act), except for business entities controlling or under common control with the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>Current market value</I> of:
</P>
<P>(1) A security means:
</P>
<P>(i) Throughout the day of the purchase or sale of a security, the security's total cost of purchase or the net proceeds of its sale including any commissions charged; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At any other time, the closing sale price of the security on the preceding business day, as shown by any regularly published reporting or quotation service. If there is no closing sale price, the creditor may use any reasonable estimate of the market value of the security as of the close of business on the preceding business day.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other collateral means a value determined by any reasonable method.
</P>
<P><I>Customer</I> excludes an exempted borrower and includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person or persons acting jointly:
</P>
<P>(i) To or for whom a creditor extends, arranges, or maintains any credit; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who would be considered a customer of the creditor according to the ordinary usage of the trade;
</P>
<P>(2) Any partner in a firm who would be considered a customer of the firm absent the partnership relationship; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any joint venture in which a creditor participates and which would be considered a customer of the creditor if the creditor were not a participant.
</P>
<P><I>Debit balance</I> means the cash amount owed to the creditor in a margin account after debiting amounts transferred to the special memorandum account.
</P>
<P><I>Delivery against payment, Payment against delivery, or a C.O.D. transaction</I> refers to an arrangement under which a creditor and a customer agree that the creditor will deliver to, or accept from, the customer, or the customer's agent, a security against full payment of the purchase price.
</P>
<P><I>Equity</I> means the total current market value of security positions held in the margin account plus any credit balance less the debit balance in the margin account.
</P>
<P><I>Escrow agreement</I> means any agreement issued in connection with a call or put option under which a bank or any person designated as a control location under paragraph (c) of SEC Rule 15c3-3 (17 CFR 240.15c3-3(c)), holding the underlying asset or required cash or cash equivalents, is obligated to deliver to the creditor (in the case of a call option) or accept from the creditor (in the case of a put option) the underlying asset or required cash or cash equivalent against payment of the exercise price upon exercise of the call or put.
</P>
<P><I>Examining authority</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The national securities exchange or national securities association of which a creditor is a member; or
</P>
<P>(2) If a member of more than one self-regulatory organization, the organization designated by the SEC as the examining authority for the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>Exempted borrower</I> means a member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer, a substantial portion of whose business consists of transactions with persons other than brokers or dealers, and includes a borrower who:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains at least 1000 active accounts on an annual basis for persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) Earns at least $10 million in gross revenues on an annual basis from transactions with persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Earns at least 10 percent of its gross revenues on an annual basis from transactions with persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Exempted securities mutual fund</I> means any security issued by an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), provided the company has at least 95 percent of its assets continuously invested in exempted securities (as defined in section 3(a)(12) of the Act).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign margin stock</I> means a foreign security that is an equity security that:
</P>
<P>(1) Appears on the Board's periodically published List of Foreign Margin Stocks; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is deemed to have a “ready market” under SEC Rule 15c3-1 (17 CFR 240.15c3-1) or a “no-action” position issued thereunder.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign person</I> means a person other than a United States person as defined in section 7(f) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign security</I> means a security issued in a jurisdiction other than the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Good faith</I> with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Margin means the amount of margin which a creditor would require in exercising sound credit judgment;
</P>
<P>(2) Making a determination or accepting a statement concerning a borrower means that the creditor is alert to the circumstances surrounding the credit, and if in possession of information that would cause a prudent person not to make the determination or accept the notice or certification without inquiry, investigates and is satisfied that it is correct.
</P>
<P><I>Margin call</I> means a demand by a creditor to a customer for a deposit of additional cash or securities to eliminate or reduce a margin deficiency as required under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Margin deficiency</I> means the amount by which the required margin exceeds the equity in the margin account.
</P>
<P><I>Margin equity security</I> means a margin security that is an equity security (as defined in section 3(a)(11) of the Act).
</P>
<P><I>Margin excess</I> means the amount by which the equity in the margin account exceeds the required margin. When the margin excess is represented by securities, the current value of the securities is subject to the percentages set forth in § 220.12 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P><I>Margin security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any security registered or having unlisted trading privileges on a national securities exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) After January 1, 1999, any security listed on the Nasdaq Stock Market;
</P>
<P>(3) Any non-equity security;
</P>
<P>(4) Any security issued by either an open-end investment company or unit investment trust which is registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8);
</P>
<P>(5) Any foreign margin stock;
</P>
<P>(6) Any debt security convertible into a margin security;
</P>
<P>(7) Until January 1, 1999, any OTC margin stock; or
</P>
<P>(8) Until January 1, 1999, any OTC security designated as qualified for trading in the national market system under a designation plan approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission (NMS security).
</P>
<P><I>Money market mutual fund</I> means any security issued by an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8) that is considered a money market fund under SEC Rule 2a-7 (17 CFR 270.2a-7).
</P>
<P><I>Non-equity security</I> means a security that is not an equity security (as defined in section 3(a)(11) of the Act).
</P>
<P><I>Nonexempted security</I> means any security other than an exempted security (as defined in section 3(a)(12) of the Act).
</P>
<P><I>OTC margin stock</I> means any equity security traded over the counter that the Board has determined has the degree of national investor interest, the depth and breadth of market, the availability of information respecting the security and its issuer, and the character and permanence of the issuer to warrant being treated like an equity security treaded on a national securities exchange. An OTC stock is not considered to be an OTC margin stock unless it appears on the Board's periodically published list of OTC margin stocks.
</P>
<P><I>Payment period</I> means the number of business days in the standard securities settlement cycle in the United States, as defined in paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1 (17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a)), plus two business days.
</P>
<P><I>Purpose credit</I> means credit for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(1) Buying, carrying, or trading in securities; or
</P>
<P>(2) Buying or carrying any part of an investment contract security which shall be deemed credit for the purpose of buying or carrying the entire security.
</P>
<P><I>Short call or short put</I> means a call option or a put option that is issued, endorsed, or guaranteed in or for an account.
</P>
<P>(1) A short call that is not cash-settled obligates the customer to sell the underlying asset at the exercise price upon receipt of a valid exercise notice or as otherwise required by the option contract.
</P>
<P>(2) A short put that is not cash-settled obligates the customer to purchase the underlying asset at the exercise price upon receipt of a valid exercise notice or as otherwise required by the option contract.
</P>
<P>(3) A short call or a short put that is cash-settled obligates the customer to pay the holder of an in the money long put or long call who has, or has been deemed to have, exercised the option the cash difference between the exercise price and the current assigned value of the option as established by the option contract.
</P>
<P><I>Underlying asset</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The security or other asset that will be delivered upon exercise of an option; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a cash-settled option, the securities or other assets which comprise the index or other measure from which the option's value is derived.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2821, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.3   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> The creditor shall maintain a record for each account showing the full details of all transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Separation of accounts</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The requirements of one account may not be met by considering items in any other account. If withdrawals of cash or securities are permitted under this part, written entries shall be made when cash or securities are used for purposes of meeting requirements in another account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of calculating the required margin for a security in a margin account, assets held in the good faith account pursuant to § 220.6(e)(1)(i) or (ii) may serve in lieu of margin;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transfers may be effected between the margin account and the special memorandum account pursuant to §§ 220.4 and 220.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of credit.</I> Except as prohibited by this part, any credit initially extended in compliance with this part may be maintained regardless of:
</P>
<P>(1) Reductions in the customer's equity resulting from changes in market prices;
</P>
<P>(2) Any security in an account ceasing to be margin or exempted; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any change in the margin requirements prescribed under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Guarantee of accounts.</I> No guarantee of a customer's account shall be given any effect for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Receipt of funds or securities.</I> (1) A creditor, acting in good faith, may accept as immediate payment:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash or any check, draft, or order payable on presentation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any security with sight draft attached.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may treat a security, check or draft as received upon written notification from another creditor that the specified security, check, or draft has been sent.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon notification that a check, draft, or order has been dishonored or when securities have not been received within a reasonable time, the creditor shall take the action required by this part when payment or securities are not received on time.
</P>
<P>(4) To temporarily finance a customer's receipt of securities pursuant to an employee benefit plan registered on SEC Form S-8 or the withholding taxes for an employee stock award plan, a creditor may accept, in lieu of the securities, a properly executed exercise notice, where applicable, and instructions to the issuer to deliver the stock to the creditor. Prior to acceptance, the creditor must verify that the issuer will deliver the securities promptly and the customer must designate the account into which the securities are to be deposited.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exchange of securities.</I> (1) To enable a customer to participate in an offer to exchange securities which is made to all holders of an issue of securities, a creditor may submit for exchange any securities held in a margin account, without regard to the other provisions of this part, provided the consideration received is deposited into the account.
</P>
<P>(2) If a nonmargin, nonexempted security is acquired in exchange for a margin security, its retention, withdrawal, or sale within 60 days following its acquisition shall be treated as if the security is a margin security.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Arranging for loans by others.</I> A creditor may arrange for the extension or maintenance of credit to or for any customer by any person, provided the creditor does not willfully arrange credit that violates parts 221 or 224 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Innocent mistakes.</I> If any failure to comply with this part results from a mistake made in good faith in executing a transaction or calculating the amount of margin, the creditor shall not be deemed in violation of this part if, promptly after the discovery of the mistake, the creditor takes appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Foreign currency.</I> (1) Freely convertible foreign currency may be treated at its U.S. dollar equivalent, provided the currency is marked-to-market daily.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may extend credit denominated in any freely convertible foreign currency.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exempted borrowers.</I> (1) A member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer that has been in existence for less than one year may meet the definition of exempted borrower based on a six-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) Once a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer ceases to qualify as an exempted borrower, it shall notify its lender of this fact before obtaining additional credit. Any new extensions of credit to such a borrower, including rollovers, renewals, and additional draws on existing lines of credit, are subject to the provisions of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2822, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.4" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.4   Margin account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Margin transactions.</I> (1) All transactions not specifically authorized for inclusion in another account shall be recorded in the margin account.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may establish separate margin accounts for the same person to:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear transactions for other creditors where the transactions are introduced to the clearing creditor by separate creditors; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Clear transactions through other creditors if the transactions are cleared by separate creditors; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide one or more accounts over which the creditor or a third party investment adviser has investment discretion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required margin</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> The required margin for each long or short position in securities is set forth in § 220.12 (the Supplement) and is subject to the following exceptions and special provisions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short sale against the box.</I> A short sale “against the box” shall be treated as a long sale for the purpose of computing the equity and the required margin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>When-issued securities.</I> The required margin on a net long or net short commitment in a when-issued security is the margin that would be required if the security were an issued margin security, plus any unrealized loss on the commitment or less any unrealized gain.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stock used as cover.</I> (i) When a short position held in the account serves in lieu of the required margin for a short put, the amount prescribed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section as the amount to be added to the required margin in respect of short sales shall be increased by any unrealized loss on the position.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a security held in the account serves in lieu of the required margin for a short call, the security shall be valued at no greater than the exercise price of the short call.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accounts of partners.</I> If a partner of the creditor has a margin account with the creditor, the creditor shall disregard the partner's financial relations with the firm (as shown in the partner's capital and ordinary drawing accounts) in calculating the margin or equity of the partner's margin account.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contribution to joint venture.</I> If a margin account is the account of a joint venture in which the creditor participates, any interest of the creditor in the joint account in excess of the interest which the creditor would have on the basis of its right to share in the profits shall be treated as an extension of credit to the joint account and shall be margined as such.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Transfer of accounts.</I> (i) A margin account that is transferred from one creditor to another may be treated as if it had been maintained by the transferee from the date of its origin, if the transferee accepts, in good faith, a signed statement of the transferor (or, if that is not practicable, of the customer), that any margin call issued under this part has been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(ii) A margin account that is transferred from one customer to another as part of a transaction, not undertaken to avoid the requirements of this part, may be treated as if it had been maintained for the transferee from the date of its origin, if the creditor accepts in good faith and keeps with the transferee account a signed statement of the transferor describing the circumstances for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Sound credit judgment.</I> In exercising sound credit judgment to determine the margin required in good faith pursuant to § 220.12 (the Supplement), the creditor shall make its determination for a specified security position without regard to the customer's other assets or securities positions held in connection with unrelated transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When additional margin is required</I>—(1) <I>Computing deficiency.</I> All transactions on the same day shall be combined to determine whether additional margin is required by the creditor. For the purpose of computing equity in an account, security positions are established or eliminated and a credit or debit created on the trade date of a security transaction. Additional margin is required on any day when the day's transactions create or increase a margin deficiency in the account and shall be for the amount of the margin deficiency so created or increased.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfaction of deficiency.</I> The additional required margin may be satisfied by a transfer from the special memorandum account or by a deposit of cash, margin securities, exempted securities, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time limits.</I> (i) A margin call shall be satisfied within one payment period after the margin deficiency was created or increased.
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment period may be extended for one or more limited periods upon application by the creditor to its examining authority unless the examining authority believes that the creditor is not acting in good faith or that the creditor has not sufficiently determined that exceptional circumstances warrant such action. Applications shall be filed and acted upon prior to the end of the payment period or the expiration of any subsequent extension.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Satisfaction restriction.</I> Any transaction, position, or deposit that is used to satisfy one requirement under this part shall be unavailable to satisfy any other requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Liquidation in lieu of deposit.</I> If any margin call is not met in full within the required time, the creditor shall liquidate securities sufficient to meet the margin call or to eliminate any margin deficiency existing on the day such liquidation is required, whichever is less. If the margin deficiency created or increased is $1000 or less, no action need be taken by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawals of cash or securities.</I> (1) Cash or securities may be withdrawn from an account, except if:
</P>
<P>(i) Additional cash or securities are required to be deposited into the account for a transaction on the same or a previous day; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The withdrawal, together with other transactions, deposits, and withdrawals on the same day, would create or increase a margin deficiency.
</P>
<P>(2) Margin excess may be withdrawn or may be transferred to the special memorandum account (§ 220.5) by making a single entry to that account which will represent a debit to the margin account and a credit to the special memorandum account.
</P>
<P>(3) If a creditor does not receive a distribution of cash or securities which is payable with respect to any security in a margin account on the day it is payable and withdrawal would not be permitted under this paragraph (e), a withdrawal transaction shall be deemed to have occurred on the day the distribution is payable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interest, service charges, etc.</I> (1) Without regard to the other provisions of this section, the creditor, in its usual practice, may debit the following items to a margin account if they are considered in calculating the balance of such account:
</P>
<P>(i) Interest charged on credit maintained in the margin account;
</P>
<P>(ii) Premiums on securities borrowed in connection with short sales or to effect delivery;
</P>
<P>(iii) Dividends, interest, or other distributions due on borrowed securities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Communication or shipping charges with respect to transactions in the margin account; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other service charges which the creditor may impose.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may permit interest, dividends, or other distributions credited to a margin account to be withdrawn from the account if:
</P>
<P>(i) The withdrawal does not create or increase a margin deficiency in the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The current market value of any securities withdrawn does not exceed 10 percent of the current market value of the security with respect to which they were distributed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2823, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.5" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.5   Special memorandum account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A special memorandum account (SMA) may be maintained in conjunction with a margin account. A single entry amount may be used to represent both a credit to the SMA and a debit to the margin account. A transfer between the two accounts may be effected by an increase or reduction in the entry. When computing the equity in a margin account, the single entry amount shall be considered as a debit in the margin account. A payment to the customer or on the customer's behalf or a transfer to any of the customer's other accounts from the SMA reduces the single entry amount.
</P>
<P>(b) The SMA may contain the following entries:
</P>
<P>(1) Dividend and interest payments;
</P>
<P>(2) Cash not required by this part, including cash deposited to meet a maintenance margin call or to meet any requirement of a self-regulatory organization that is not imposed by this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Proceeds of a sale of securities or cash no longer required on any expired or liquidated security position that may be withdrawn under § 220.4(e); and
</P>
<P>(4) Margin excess transferred from the margin account under § 220.4(e)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2824, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.6" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.6   Good faith account.</HEAD>
<P>In a good faith account, a creditor may effect or finance customer transactions in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Securities entitled to good faith margin</I>—(1) <I>Permissible transactions.</I> A creditor may effect and finance transactions involving the buying, carrying, or trading of any security entitled to “good faith” margin as set forth in § 220.12 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required margin.</I> The required margin is set forth in § 220.12 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Satisfaction of margin.</I> Required margin may be satisfied by a transfer from the special memorandum account or by a deposit of cash, securities entitled to “good faith” margin as set forth in § 220.12 (the Supplement), any other asset that is not a security, or any combination thereof. An asset that is not a security shall have a margin value determined by the creditor in good faith.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Arbitrage.</I> A creditor may effect and finance for any customer bona fide arbitrage transactions. For the purpose of this section, the term “bona fide arbitrage” means:
</P>
<P>(1) A purchase or sale of a security in one market together with an offsetting sale or purchase of the same security in a different market at as nearly the same time as practicable for the purpose of taking advantage of a difference in prices in the two markets; or
</P>
<P>(2) A purchase of a security which is, without restriction other than the payment of money, exchangeable or convertible within 90 calendar days of the purchase into a second security together with an offsetting sale of the second security at or about the same time, for the purpose of taking advantage of a concurrent disparity in the prices of the two securities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>“Prime broker” transactions.</I> A creditor may effect transactions for a customer as part of a “prime broker” arrangement in conformity with SEC guidelines.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Credit to ESOPs.</I> A creditor may extend and maintain credit to employee stock ownership plans without regard to the other provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonpurpose credit.</I> (1) A creditor may:
</P>
<P>(i) Effect and carry transactions in commodities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Effect and carry transactions in foreign exchange;
</P>
<P>(iii) Extend and maintain secured or unsecured nonpurpose credit, subject to the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Every extension of credit, except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section, shall be deemed to be purpose credit unless, prior to extending the credit, the creditor accepts in good faith from the customer a written statement that it is not purpose credit. The statement shall conform to the requirements established by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2824, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.7" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.7   Broker-dealer credit account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> In a broker-dealer credit account, a creditor may effect or finance transactions in accordance with the following provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase or sale of security against full payment.</I> A creditor may purchase any security from or sell any security to another creditor or person regulated by a foreign securities authority under a good faith agreement to promptly deliver the security against full payment of the purchase price.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Joint back office.</I> A creditor may effect or finance transactions of any of its owners if the creditor is a clearing and servicing broker or dealer owned jointly or individually by other creditors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital contribution.</I> A creditor may extend and maintain credit to any partner or stockholder of the creditor for the purpose of making a capital contribution to, or purchasing stock of, the creditor, affiliated corporation or another creditor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Emergency and subordinated credit.</I> A creditor may extend and maintain, with the approval of the appropriate examining authority:
</P>
<P>(1) Credit to meet the emergency needs of any creditor; or
</P>
<P>(2) Subordinated credit to another creditor for capital purposes, if the other creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an affiliated corporation or would not be considered a customer of the lender apart from the subordinated loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Will not use the proceeds of the loan to increase the amount of dealing in securities for the account of the creditor, its firm or corporation or an affiliated corporation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Omnibus credit</I> (1) A creditor may effect and finance transactions for a broker or dealer who is registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Act and who gives the creditor written notice that:
</P>
<P>(i) All securities will be for the account of customers of the broker or dealer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any short sales effected will be short sales made on behalf of the customers of the broker or dealer other than partners.
</P>
<P>(2) The written notice required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall conform to any SEC rule on the hypothecation of customers' securities by brokers or dealers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special purpose credit.</I> A creditor may extend the following types of credit with good faith margin:
</P>
<P>(1) Credit to finance the purchase or sale of securities for prompt delivery, if the credit is to be repaid upon completion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) Credit to finance securities in transit or surrendered for transfer, if the credit is to be repaid upon completion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) Credit to enable a broker or dealer to pay for securities, if the credit is to be repaid on the same day it is extended.
</P>
<P>(4) Credit to an exempted borrower.
</P>
<P>(5) Credit to a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer to finance its activities as a market maker or specialist.
</P>
<P>(6) Credit to a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer to finance its activities as an underwriter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2824, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.8" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.8   Cash account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible transactions.</I> In a cash account, a creditor, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Buy for or sell to any customer any security or other asset if:
</P>
<P>(i) There are sufficient funds in the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor accepts in good faith the customer's agreement that the customer will promptly make full cash payment for the security or asset before selling it and does not contemplate selling it prior to making such payment;
</P>
<P>(2) Buy from or sell for any customer any security or other asset if:
</P>
<P>(i) The security is held in the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor accepts in good faith the customer's statement that the security is owned by the customer or the customer's principal, and that it will be promptly deposited in the account;
</P>
<P>(3) Issue, endorse, or guarantee, or sell an option for any customer as part of a covered option transaction; and
</P>
<P>(4) Use an escrow agreement in lieu of the cash, cash equivalents or underlying asset position if:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a short call or a short put, the creditor is advised by the customer that the required securities, assets or cash are held by a person authorized to issue an escrow agreement and the creditor independently verifies that the appropriate escrow agreement will be delivered by the person promptly; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a call issued, endorsed, guaranteed, or sold on the same day the underlying asset is purchased in the account and the underlying asset is to be delivered to a person authorized to issue an escrow agreement, the creditor verifies that the appropriate escrow agreement will be delivered by the person promptly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time periods for payment; cancellation or liquidation</I>—(1) <I>Full cash payment.</I> A creditor shall obtain full cash payment for customer purchases:
</P>
<P>(i) Within one payment period of the date:
</P>
<P>(A) Any nonexempted security was purchased;
</P>
<P>(B) Any when-issued security was made available by the issuer for delivery to purchasers;
</P>
<P>(C) Any “when distributed” security was distributed under a published plan;
</P>
<P>(D) A security owned by the customer has matured or has been redeemed and a new refunding security of the same issuer has been purchased by the customer, provided:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The customer purchased the new security no more than 35 calendar days prior to the date of maturity or redemption of the old security;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The customer is entitled to the proceeds of the redemption; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The delayed payment does not exceed 103 percent of the proceeds of the old security.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of the purchase of a foreign security, within one payment period of the trade date or within one day after the date on which settlement is required to occur by the rules of the foreign securities market, provided this period does not exceed the maximum time permitted by this part for delivery against payment transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delivery against payment.</I> If a creditor purchases for or sells to a customer a security in a delivery against payment transaction, the creditor shall have up to 35 calendar days to obtain payment if delivery of the security is delayed due to the mechanics of the transaction and is not related to the customer's willingness or ability to pay.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Shipment of securities, extension.</I> If any shipment of securities is incidental to consummation of a transaction, a creditor may extend the payment period by the number of days required for shipment, but not by more than one additional payment period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cancellation; liquidation; minimum amount.</I> A creditor shall promptly cancel or otherwise liquidate a transaction or any part of a transaction for which the customer has not made full cash payment within the required time. A creditor may, at its option, disregard any sum due from the customer not exceeding $1000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>90 day freeze.</I> (1) If a nonexempted security in the account is sold or delivered to another broker or dealer without having been previously paid for in full by the customer, the privilege of delaying payment beyond the trade date shall be withdrawn for 90 calendar days following the date of sale of the security. Cancellation of the transaction other than to correct an error shall constitute a sale.
</P>
<P>(2) The 90 day freeze shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) Within the period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, full payment is received or any check or draft in payment has cleared and the proceeds from the sale are not withdrawn prior to such payment or check clearance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchased security was delivered to another broker or dealer for deposit in a cash account which holds sufficient funds to pay for the security. The creditor may rely on a written statement accepted in good faith from the other broker or dealer that sufficient funds are held in the other cash account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extension of time periods; transfers.</I> (1) Unless the creditor's examining authority believes that the creditor is not acting in good faith or that the creditor has not sufficiently determined that exceptional circumstances warrant such action, it may upon application by the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Extend any period specified in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorize transfer to another account of any transaction involving the purchase of a margin or exempted security; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Grant a waiver from the 90 day freeze.
</P>
<P>(2) Applications shall be filed and acted upon prior to the end of the payment period, or in the case of the purchase of a foreign security within the period specified in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, or the expiration of any subsequent extension.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2825, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.9" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.9   Clearance of securities, options, and futures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credit for clearance of securities.</I> The provisions of this part shall not apply to the extension or maintenance of any credit that is not for more than one day if it is incidental to the clearance of transactions in securities directly between members of a national securities exchange or association or through any clearing agency registered with the SEC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deposit of securities with a clearing agency.</I> The provisions of this part shall not apply to the deposit of securities with an option or futures clearing agency for the purpose of meeting the deposit requirements of the agency if:
</P>
<P>(1) The clearing agency:
</P>
<P>(i) Issues, guarantees performance on, or clears transactions in, any security (including options on any security, certificate of deposit, securities index or foreign currency); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Guarantees performance of contracts for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or options on such contracts;
</P>
<P>(2) The clearing agency is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or is the clearing agency for a contract market regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; and
</P>
<P>(3) The deposit consists of any margin security and complies with the rules of the clearing agency that have been approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2826, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.10" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.10   Borrowing and lending securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Without regard to the other provisions of this part, a creditor may borrow or lend securities for the purpose of making delivery of the securities in the case of short sales, failure to receive securities required to be delivered, or other similar situations. If a creditor reasonably anticipates a short sale or fail transaction, such borrowing may be made up to one standard settlement cycle in advance of trade date.
</P>
<P>(b) A creditor may lend foreign securities to a foreign person (or borrow such securities for the purpose of relending them to a foreign person) for any purpose lawful in the country in which they are to be used.
</P>
<P>(c) A creditor that is an exempted borrower may lend securities without regard to the other provisions of this part and a creditor may borrow securities from an exempted borrower without regard to the other provisions of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2826, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.11   Requirements for the list of marginable OTC stocks and the list of foreign margin stocks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for inclusion on the list of marginable OTC stocks.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, OTC margin stock shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Four or more dealers stand willing to, and do in fact, make a market in such stock and regularly submit bona fide bids and offers to an automated quotations system for their own accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum average bid price of such stock, as determined by the Board, is at least $5 per share;
</P>
<P>(3) The stock is registered under section 12 of the Act, is issued by an insurance company subject to section 12(g)(2)(G) of the Act, is issued by a closed-end investment management company subject to registration pursuant to section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), is an American Depository Receipt (ADR) of a foreign issuer whose securities are registered under section 12 of the Act, or is a stock of an issuer required to file reports under section 15(d) of the Act;
</P>
<P>(4) Daily quotations for both bid and asked prices for the stock are continously available to the general public;
</P>
<P>(5) The stock has been publicly traded for at least six months;
</P>
<P>(6) The issuer has at least $4 million of capital, surplus, and undivided profits;
</P>
<P>(7) There are 400,000 or more shares of such stock outstanding in addition to shares held beneficially by officers, directors or beneficial owners of more than 10 percent of the stock;
</P>
<P>(8) There are 1,200 or more holders of record, as defined in SEC Rule 12g5-1 (17 CFR 240.12g5-1), of the stock who are not officers, directors or beneficial owners of 10 percent or more of the stock, or the average daily trading volume of such stock as determined by the Board, is at least 500 shares; and
</P>
<P>(9) The issuer or a predecessor in interest has been in existence for at least three years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for continued inclusion on the list of marginable OTC stocks.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, OTC margin stock shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Three or more dealers stand willing to, and do in fact, make a market in such stock and regularly submit bona fide bids and offers to an automated quotations system for their own accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The minimum average bid price of such stocks, as determined by the Board, is at least $2 per share;
</P>
<P>(3) The stock is registered as specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Daily quotations for both bid and asked prices for the stock are continuously available to the general public; ;
</P>
<P>(5) The issuer has at least $1 million of capital, surplus, and undivided profits;
</P>
<P>(6) There are 300,000 or more shares of such stock outstanding in addition to shares held beneficially by officers, directors, or beneficial owners of more than 10 percent of the stock; and
</P>
<P>(7) There continue to be 800 or more holders of record, as defined in SEC Rule 12g5-1 (17 CFR 240.12g5-1), of the stock who are not officers, directors, or beneficial owners of 10 percent or more of the stock, or the average daily trading volume of such stock, as determined by the Board, is at least 300 shares.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for inclusion on the list of foreign margin stocks.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a foreign security shall meet the following requirements before being placed on the <I>List of Foreign Margin Stocks:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The security is an equity security that is listed for trading on or through the facilities of a foreign securities exchange or a recognized foreign securities market and has been trading on such exchange or market for at least six months;
</P>
<P>(2) Daily quotations for both bid and asked or last sale prices for the security provided by the foreign securities exchange or foreign securities market on which the security is traded are continuously available to creditors in the United States pursuant to an electronic quotation system;
</P>
<P>(3) The aggregate market value of shares, the ownership of which is unrestricted, is not less than $1 billion;
</P>
<P>(4) The average weekly trading volume of such security during the preceding six months is either at least 200,000 shares or $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(5) The issuer or a predecessor in interest has been in existence for at least five years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for continued inclusion on the list of foreign margin stocks.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a foreign security shall meet the following requirements to remain on the <I>List of Foreign Margin Stocks:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The security continues to meet the requirements specified in paragraphs (c) (1) and (2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate market value of shares, the ownership of which is unrestricted, is not less than $500 million; and
</P>
<P>(3) The average weekly trading volume of such security during the preceding six months is either at least 100,000 shares or $500,000.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Removal from the list.</I> The Board shall periodically remove from the lists any stock that:
</P>
<P>(1) Ceases to exist or of which the issuer ceases to exist; or
</P>
<P>(2) No longer substantially meets the provisions of paragraphs (b) or (d) of this section or the definition of OTC margin stock.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discretionary authority of Board.</I> Without regard to other paragraphs of this section, the Board may add to, or omit or remove from the list of marginable OTC stocks and the list of foreign margin stocks an equity security, if in the judgment of the Board, such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Unlawful representations.</I> It shall be unlawful for any creditor to make, or cause to be made, any representation to the effect that the inclusion of a security on the list of marginable OTC stocks or the list of foreign margin stocks is evidence that the Board or the SEC has in any way passed upon the merits of, or given approval to, such security or any transactions therein. Any statement in an advertisement or other similar communication containing a reference to the Board in connection with the lists or stocks on those lists shall be an unlawful representation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2826, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.12   Supplement: margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The required margin for each security position held in a margin account shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Margin equity security, except for an exempted security, money market mutual fund or exempted securities mutual fund, warrant on a securities index or foreign currency or a long position in an option: 50 percent of the current market value of the security or the percentage set by the regulatory authority where the trade occurs, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(b) Exempted security, non-equity security, money market mutual fund or exempted securities mutual fund: The margin required by the creditor in good faith or the percentage set by the regulatory authority where the trade occurs, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(c) Short sale of a nonexempted security, except for a non-equity security:
</P>
<P>(1) 150 percent of the current market value of the security; or
</P>
<P>(2) 100 percent of the current market value if a security exchangeable or convertible within 90 calendar days without restriction other than the payment of money into the security sold short is held in the account, provided that any long call to be used as margin in connection with a short sale of the underlying security is an American-style option issued by a registered clearing corporation and listed or traded on a registered national securities exchange with an exercise price that does not exceed the price at which the underlying security was sold short.
</P>
<P>(d) Short sale of an exempted security or non-equity security: 100 percent of the current market value of the security plus the margin required by the creditor in good faith.
</P>
<P>(e) Nonmargin, nonexempted equity security: 100 percent of the current market value.
</P>
<P>(f) Put or call on a security, certificate of deposit, securities index or foreign currency or a warrant on a securities index or foreign currency:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of puts and calls issued by a registered clearing corporation and listed or traded on a registered national securities exchange or a registered securities association and registered warrants on a securities index or foreign currency, the amount, or other position specified by the rules of the registered national securities exchange or the registered securities association authorized to trade the option or warrant, provided that all such rules have been approved or amended by the SEC; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of all other puts and calls, the amount, or other position, specified by the maintenance rules of the creditor's examining authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 63 FR 2827, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.101" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.101   Transactions of customers who are brokers or dealers.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has recently considered certain questions regarding transactions of customers who are brokers or dealers. 
</P>
<P>(a) The first question was whether delivery and payment under § 220.4(f)(3) must be exactly simultaneous (such as in sight draft shipments), or whether it is sufficient if the broker-dealer customer, “as promptly as practicable in accordance with the ordinary usage of the trade,” mails or otherwise delivers to the creditor a check in settlement of the transaction, the check being accompanied by instructions for transfer or delivery of the security. The Board ruled that the latter method of setting the transaction is permissible. 
</P>
<P>(b) The second question was, in effect, whether the limitations of § 220.4(c)(8) apply to the account of a customer who is himself a broker or dealer. The answer is that the provision applies to any “special cash account,” regardless of the type of customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) The third question was, in effect, whether a purchase and a sale of an unissued security under § 220.4(f)(3) may be offset against each other, or whether each must be settled separately by what would amount to delivery of the security to settle one transaction and its redelivery to settle the other. The answer is that it is permissible to offset the transactions against each other without physical delivery and redelivery of the security. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[11 FR 14155, Dec. 7, 1946] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.102" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.102   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.103" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.103   Borrowing of securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked for a ruling as to whether § 220.6(h), which deals with borrowing and lending of securities, applies to a borrower of securities if the lender is a private individual, as contrasted with a member of a national securities exchange or a broker or dealer. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 220.6(h) does not require that the lender of the securities in such a case be a member of a national securities exchange or a broker or dealer. Therefore, a borrowing of securities may be able to qualify under the provision even though the lender is a private individual, and this is true whether the security is registered on a national securities exchange or is unregistered. In borrowing securities from a private individual under § 220.6(h), however, it becomes especially important to bear in mind two limitations that are contained in the section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The first limitation is that the section applies only if the broker borrows the securities for the purpose specified in the provision, that is, “for the purpose of making delivery of such securities in the case of short sales, failure to receive securities he is required to deliver, or other similar cases”. The present language of the provision does not require that the delivery for which the securities are borrowed must be on a transaction which the borrower has himself made, either as agent or as principal; he may borrow under the provision in order to relend to someone else for the latter person to make such a delivery. However, the borrowing must be related to an actual delivery of the type specified—a delivery in connection with a specific transaction that has already occurred or is in immediate prospect. The provision does not authorize a broker to borrow securities (or make the related deposit) merely in order that he or some other broker may have the securities “on hand” or may anticipate some need that may or may not arise in the future. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ruling in the 1940 Federal Reserve Bulletin, at page 647, is an example of a borrowing which, on the facts as given, did not meet the requirement. There, the broker wished to borrow stocks with the understanding that he “would offer to lend this stock in the ‘loan crowd’ on a national securities exchange.” There was no assurance that the stocks would be used for the purpose specified in § 220.6(h); they might be, or they might merely be held idle while the person lending the stocks had the use of the funds deposited against them. The ruling held in effect that since the borrowing could not qualify under § 220.6(h) it must comply with other applicable provisions of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) The second requirement is that the deposit of cash against the borrowed securities must be “bona fide.” This requirement naturally cannot be spelled out in detail, but it requires at least that the purpose of the broker in making the deposit should be to obtain the securities for the specified purpose, and that he should not use the arrangement as a means of accommodating a customer who is seeking to obtain more funds than he could get in a general account. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Board recognizes that even with these requirements there is still some possibility that the provision may be misapplied. The Board is reluctant to impose additional burdens on legitimate transactions by tightening the provision. If there should be evidence of abuses developing under the provision, however, it would become necessary to consider making it more restricted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[12 FR 5278, Aug. 2, 1947] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.104" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.105" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.105   Ninety-day rule in special cash account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 220.4(c)(8) places a limitation on a special cash account if a security other than an exempted security has been purchased in the account and “without having been previously paid for in full by the customer * * * has been * * * delivered out to any broker or dealer.” The limitation is that during the succeeding 90 days the customer may not purchase a security in the account other than an exempted security unless funds sufficient for the purpose are held in the account. In other words, the privilege of delayed payment in such an account is withdrawn during the 90-day period. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board recently considered a question as to whether the following situation makes an account subject to the 90-day disqualification: A customer purchases registered security ABC in a special cash account. The broker executes the order in good faith as a bona fide cash transaction, expecting to obtain full cash payment promptly. The next day, the customer sells registered security XYZ in the account, promising to deposit it promptly in the account. The proceeds of the sale are equal to or greater than the cost of security ABC. After both sale and purchase have been made, the customer requests the broker to deliver security ABC to a different broker, to receive security XYZ from that broker at about the same time, and to settle with the other broker—such settlement to be made either by paying the cost of security XYZ to the other broker and receiving from him the cost of security ABC, or by merely settling any difference between these amounts. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board expressed the view that the account becomes subject to the 90-day disqualification in § 220.4(c)(8). In the instant case, unlike that described at 1940 Federal Reserve Bulletin 772, the security sold is not held in the account and is not to be deposited in it unconditionally. It is to be obtained only against the delivery to the other broker of the security which had been purchased. Hence payment can not be said to have been made prior to such delivery; the purchased security has been delivered out to a broker without previously having been paid for in full, and the account becomes subject to the 90-day disqualification. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[13 FR 2368, May 1, 1948] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 220.106-220.107" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 220.106-220.107   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.108" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.108   International Bank Securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2 of the Act of June 29, 1949 (Pub. L. 142—81st Congress), amended the Bretton Woods Agreements Act by adding a new section numbered 15 providing, in part, that—
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any securities issued by International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (including any guaranty by the bank, whether or not limited in scope), and any securities guaranteed by the bank as to both principal and interest, shall be deemed to be exempted securities within the meaning of * * * paragraph (a)(12) of section 3 of the [Securities Exchange] Act of June 6, 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78c). * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) In response to inquiries with respect to the applicability of the margin requirements of this part to securities issued or guaranteed by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Board has replied that, as a result of this enactment, securities issued by the Bank are now classified as exempted securities under § 220.2(e). Such securities are now in the same category under this part as are United States Government, State and municipal bonds. Accordingly, the specific percentage limitations prescribed by this part with respect to maximum loan value and margin requirements are no longer applicable thereto. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[14 FR 5505, Sept. 7, 1949] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.109" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.110" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.110   Assistance by Federal credit union to its members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An inquiry was presented recently concerning the application of this part or part 221 of this subchapter, to a plan proposed by a Federal credit union to aid its members in purchasing stock of a corporation whose subsidiary apparently was the employer of all the credit union's members. 
</P>
<P>(b) From the information submitted, the plan appeared to contemplate that the Federal credit union would accept orders from its members for registered common stock of the parent corporation in multiples of 5 shares; that whenever orders had been so received for a total of 100 shares, the credit union, as agent for such members, would execute the orders through a brokerage firm with membership on a national securities exchange; that the brokerage firm would deliver certificates for the stock, registered in the names of the individual purchasers, to the credit union against payment by the credit union; that the credit union would prorate the total amount so paid, including the brokerage fee, among the individual purchasers according to the number of shares purchased by them; and that a savings in brokerage fee resulting from the 100-lot purchases would be passed on by the credit union to the individual purchasers of the stock. However, amounts of the stock less than 100 shares would be purchased by the credit union through the brokerage firm for any members willing to forego such savings. 
</P>
<P>(c) It appeared further that the Federal credit union members for whom stock was so purchased would reimburse the credit union (1) by cash payment, (2) by the proceeds of withdrawn shares of the credit union, (3) by the proceeds of an installment loan from the credit union collateraled by the stock purchased, or by (4) by a combination of two or more of the above methods. To assist the collection of any such loan, the employer of the credit union members would provide payroll deductions. Apparently, sales by the credit union of any of the stock purchased by one of its members would occur only in satisfaction of a delinquent loan balance. In no case did it appear that the credit union would make a charge for arranging the execution of transactions in the stock for its members. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Board was of the view that, from the facts as presented, it did not appear that the Federal credit union should be regarded as the type of institution to which part 221 of this subchapter, in its present form, applied. 
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to this part, the question was whether the activities of the Federal credit union under the proposal, or otherwise, might be such as to bring it within the meaning of the terms “broker” or “dealer” as used in the part and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The Board observed that this, of course, was a question of fact that necessarily depended upon the circumstances of the particular case, including the manner in which the arrangement in question might be carried out in practice. 
</P>
<P>(f) On the basis of the information submitted, however, it did not appear to the Board that the Federal credit union should be regarded as being subject to this part as a “broker or dealer who transacts a business in securities through the medium of” a member firm solely because of its activities as contemplated by the proposal in question. The Board stated that the part rather clearly would not apply if there appeared to be nothing other than loans by the credit union to its members to finance purchases made directly by them of stock of the parent corporation of the employer of the member-borrowers. The additional fact that the credit union, as agent, would purchase such stock for its members (even though all such purchases might not be financed by credit union loans) was not viewed by the Board as sufficient to make the regulation applicable where, as from the facts presented, it did not appear that the credit union in any case was to make any charge or receive any compensation for assisting in such purchases or that the credit union otherwise was engaged in securities activities. However, the Board stated that matters of this kind must be examined closely for any variations that might suggest the inapplicability of the foregoing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[18 FR 4592, Aug. 5, 1953] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.111" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.111   Arranging for extensions of credit to be made by a bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has recently had occasion to express opinions regarding the requirements which apply when a person subject to this part (for convenience, called here simply a broker) arranges for a bank to extend credit. 
</P>
<P>(b) The matter is treated generally in § 220.7(a) and is also subject to the general rule of law that any person who aids or abets a violation of law by another is himself guilty of a violation. It may be stated as a general principle that any person who arranges for credit to be extended by someone else has a responsibility so to conduct his activities as not to be a participant in a violation of this part, which applies to brokers, or part 221 of this subchapter, which applies to banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) More specifically, in arranging an extension of credit that may be subject to part 221 of this subchapter, a broker must act in good faith and, therefore, must question the accuracy of any non-purpose statement (i.e., a statement that the loan is not for the purpose of purchasing or carrying registered stocks) given in connection with the loan where the circumstances are such that the broker from any source knows or has reason to know that the statement is incomplete or otherwise inaccurate as to the true purpose of the credit. The requirement of “good faith” is of vital importance. While the application of the requirement will necessarily vary with the facts of the particular case, the broker, like the bank for whom the loan is arranged to be made, must be alert to the circumstances surrounding the loan. Thus, for example, if a broker or dealer is to deliver registered stocks to secure the loan or is to receive the proceeds of the loan, the broker arranging the loan and the bank making it would be put on notice that the loan would probably be subject to part 221 of this subchapter. In any such circumstances they could not in good faith accept or rely upon a statement to the contrary without obtaining a reliable and satisfactory explanation of the situation. The foregoing, of course, applies the principles contained in § 221.101 of this subchapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) In addition, when a broker is approached by another broker to arrange extensions of credit for customers of the approaching broker, the broker approached has a responsibility not to arrange any extension of credit which the approaching broker could not himself arrange. Accordingly, in such cases the statutes and regulations forbid the approached broker to arrange extensions of credit on unregistered securities for the purpose of purchasing or carrying either registered or unregistered securities. The approaching broker would also be violating the applicable requirements if he initiated or otherwise participated in any such forbidden transactions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The expression of views, set forth in this section, to the effect that certain specific transactions are forbidden, of course, should not in any way be understood to indicate approval of any other transactions which are not mentioned. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[18 FR 5505, Sept. 15, 1953] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.112" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.112   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.113" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.113   Necessity for prompt payment and delivery in special cash accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors recently received an inquiry concerning whether purchases of securities by certain municipal employees' retirement or pension systems on the basis of arrangements for delayed delivery and payment, might properly be effected by a creditor subject to this part in a special cash account under § 220.4(c). 
</P>
<P>(b) It appears that in a typical case the supervisors of the retirement system meet only once or twice each month, at which times decisions are made to purchase any securities wished to be acquired for the system. Although the securities are available for prompt delivery by the broker-dealer firm selected to effect the system's purchase, it is arranged in advance with the firm that the system will not accept delivery and pay for the securities before some date more than seven business days after the date on which the securities are purchased. Apparently, such an arrangement is occasioned by the monthly or semimonthly meetings of the system's supervisors. It was indicated that a retirement system of this kind may be supervised by officials who administer it as an incidental part of their regular duties, and that meetings requiring joint action by two or more supervisors may be necessary under the system's rules and procedures to authorize issuance of checks in payment for the securities purchased. It was indicated also that the purchases do not involve exempted securities, securities of the kind covered by § 220.4(c)(3), or any shipment of securities as described in § 220.4(c). 
</P>
<P>(c) This part provides that a creditor subject thereto may not effect for a customer a purchase in a special cash account under § 220.4(c) unless the use of the account meets the limitations of § 220.4(a) and the purchase constitutes a “bona fide cash transaction” which complies with the eligibility requirements of § 220.4(c)(1)(i). One such requirement is that the purchase be made “in reliance upon an agreement accepted by the creditor (broker-dealer) in good faith” that the customer will “promptly make full cash payment for the security, if funds sufficient for the purpose are not already in the account; and, subject to certain exceptions, § 220.4(c)(2) provides that the creditor shall promptly cancel or liquidate the transaction if payment is not made by the customer within seven business days after the date of purchase. As indicated in the Board's interpretation at 1940 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1172, a necessary part of the customer's undertaking pursuant to § 220.4(c)(1)(i) is that he “should have the necessary means of payment readily available when he purchases a security in the special cash account. He should expect to pay for it immediately or in any event within the period (of not more than a very few days) that is as long as is usually required to carry through the ordinary securities transaction.” 
</P>
<P>(d) The arrangements for delayed delivery and payment in the case presented to the Board and outlined above clearly would be inconsistent with the requirement of § 220.4(c)(1)(i) that the purchase be made in reliance upon an agreement accepted by the creditor in good faith that the customer will “promptly” make full cash payment for the security. Accordingly, the Board said that transactions of the kind in question would not qualify as a “bona fide cash transaction” and, therefore, could not properly be effected in a special cash account, unless a contrary conclusion would be justified by the exception in § 220.4(c)(5). 
</P>
<P>(e) Section 220.4(c)(5) provides that if the creditor, “acting in good faith in accordance with” § 220.4(c)(1), purchases a security for a customer “with the understanding that he is to deliver the security promptly to the customer, and the full cash payment is to be made promptly by the customer is to be made against such delivery”, the creditor may at his option treat the transaction as one to which the period applicable under § 220.4(c)(2) is not the seven days therein specified but 35 days after the date of such purchase. It will be observed that the application of § 220.4 (c)(5) is specifically conditioned on the creditor acting in good faith in accordance with § 220.4(c)(1). As noted above, the existence of the arrangements for delayed delivery and payment in the case presented would prevent this condition from being met, since the customer could not be regarded as having agreed to make full cash payment “promptly”. Furthermore, such arrangements clearly would be inconsistent with the requirement of § 220.4(c)(5) that the creditor “deliver the security promptly to the customer”. 
</P>
<P>(f) Section 220.4(c)(5) was discussed in the Board's published interpretation, referred to above, which states that “it is not the purpose of (§ 220.4 (c)(5)) to allow additional time to customers for making payment. The ‘prompt delivery’ described in (§ 220.4 (c)(5)) is delivery which is to be made as soon as the broker or dealer can reasonably make it in view of the mechanics of the securities business and the bona fide usages of the trade. The provision merely recognizes the fact that in certain circumstances it is an established bona fide practice in the trade to obtain payment against delivery of the security to the customer, and the further fact that the mechanics of the trade, unrelated to the customer's readiness to pay, may sometimes delay such delivery to the customer”. 
</P>
<P>(g) In the case presented, it appears that the only reason for the delay is related solely to the customer's readiness to pay and is in no way attributable to the mechanics of the securities business. Accordingly, it is the Board's view that the exception in § 220.4(c)(5) should not be regarded as permitting the transactions in question to be effected in a special cash account. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 5954, July 27, 1957] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 220.114-220.116" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 220.114-220.116   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.117" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.117   Exception to 90-day rule in special cash account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has recently interpreted certain of the provisions of § 220.4(c)(8), with respect to the withdrawal of proceeds of a sale of stock in a “special cash account” when the stock has been sold out of the account prior to payment for its purchase. 
</P>
<P>(b) The specific factual situation presented may be summarized as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Customer purchased stock in a special cash account with a member firm on Day 1. On Day 3 customer sold the same stock at a profit. On Day 8 customer delivered his check for the cost of the purchase to the creditor (member firm). On Day 9 the creditor mailed to the customer a check for the proceeds of the sale.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Section 220.4(c)(8) prohibits a creditor, as a general rule, from effecting a purchase of a security in a customer's special cash account if any security has been purchased in that account during the preceding 90 days and has then been sold in the account or delivered out to any broker or dealer without having been previously paid for in full by the customer. One exception to this general rule reads as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * The creditor may disregard for the purposes of this subparagraph (§ 220.4(c) (8)) a sale without prior payment provided full cash payment is received within the period described by subparagraph (2) of this paragraph (seven days after the date of purchase) and the customer has not withdrawn the proceeds of sale on or before the day on which such payment (and also final payment of any check received in that connection) is received. * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Final payment of customer's check: (1) The first question is: When is the creditor to be regarded as having received “final payment of any check received” in connection with the purchase? 
</P>
<P>(2) The clear purpose of § 220.4(c) (8) is to prevent the use of the proceeds of sale of a stock by a customer to pay for its purchase—i.e., to prevent him from trading on the creditor's funds by being able to deposit the sale proceeds prior to presentment of his own check to the drawee bank. Thus, when a customer undertakes to pay for a purchase by check, that check does not constitute payment for the purchase, within the language and intent of the above-quoted exception in § 220.4(c)(8), until it has been honored by the drawee bank, indicating the sufficiency of his account to pay the check. 
</P>
<P>(3) The phrase “final payment of any check” is interpreted as above notwithstanding § 220.6(f), which provides that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>For the purposes of this part (Regulation T), a creditor may, at his option (1) treat the receipt in good faith of any check or draft drawn on a bank which in the ordinary course of business is payable on presentation, * * * as receipt of payment of the amount of such check, draft or order; * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>This is a general provision substantially the same as language found in section 4(f) of Regulation T as originally promulgated in 1934. The language of the subject exception to the 90-day rule of § 220.4(c)(8), i.e., the exception based expressly on final “payment of any check,” was added to the regulation in 1949 by an amendment directed at a specific type of situation. Because the exception is a special, more recent provision, and because § 220.6(f), if controlling, would permit the exception to undermine, to some extent, the effectiveness of the 90-day rule, sound principles of construction require that the phrase “final payment of any check” be given its literal and intended effect. 
</FP>
<P>(4) There is no fixed period of time from the moment of receipt by the payee, or of deposit, within which it is certain that any check will be paid by the drawee bank. Therefore, in the rare case where the operation of the subject exception to § 220.4(c)(8) is necessary to avoid application of the 90-day rule, a creditor should ascertain (from his bank of deposit or otherwise) the fact of payment of a customer's check given for the purchase. Having so determined the day of final payment, the creditor can permit withdrawal on any subsequent day. 
</P>
<P>(e) Mailing as “withdrawal”: (1) Also presented is the question whether the mailing to the customer of the creditor's check for the sale proceeds constitutes a withdrawal of such proceeds by the customer at the time of mailing so that, if the check for the sale proceeds is mailed on or before the day on which the customer's check for the purchase is finally paid, the 90-day rule applies. It may be that a check mailed one day will not ordinarily be received by the customer until the next. The Board is of the view, however, that when the check for sale proceeds is issued and released into the mails, the proceeds are to be regarded as withdrawn by the customer; a more liberal interpretation would open a way for circumvention. Accordingly, the creditor's check should not be mailed nor the sale proceeds otherwise released to the customer “on or before the day” on which payment for the purchase, including final payment of any check given for such payment, is received by the creditor, as determined in accordance with the principles stated herein. 
</P>
<P>(2) Applying the above principles to the schedule of transactions described in the second paragraph of this interpretation, the mailing of the creditor's check on “Day 9” would be consistent with the subject exception to § 220.4(c)(8), as interpreted herein, only if the customer's check was paid by the drawee bank on “Day 8”. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 3511, Apr. 12, 1962] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.118" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.118   Time of payment for mutual fund shares purchased in a special cash account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has recently considered the question whether, in connection with the purchase of mutual fund shares in a “special cash account” under the provisions of this part 220, the 7-day period with respect to liquidation for nonpayment is that described in § 220.4(c)(2) or that described in § 220.4(c)(3). 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 220.4(c)(2) provides as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>In case a customer purchases a security (other than an exempted security) in the special cash account and does not make full cash payment for the security within 7 days after the date on which the security is so purchased, the creditor shall, except as provided in subparagraphs (3)-(7) of this paragraph, promptly cancel or otherwise liquidate the transaction or the unsettled portion thereof.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>Section 220.4(c)(3), one of the exceptions referred to, provides in relevant part as follows: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>If the security when so purchased is an unissued security, the period applicable to the transaction under subparagraph (2) of this paragraph shall be 7 days after the date on which the security is made available by the issuer for delivery to purchasers.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) In the case presented, the shares of the mutual fund (open-end investment company) are technically not issued at the time they are sold by the underwriter and distributor. Several days may elapse from the date of sale before a certificate can be delivered by the transfer agent. The specific inquiry to the Board was, in effect, whether the 7-day period after which a purchase transaction must be liquidated or cancelled for nonpayment should run, in the case of mutual fund shares, from the time when a certificate for the purchased shares is available for delivery to the purchaser, instead of from the date of the purchase. 
</P>
<P>(d) Under the general rule of § 220.4 (c)(2) that is applicable to purchases of outstanding securities, the 7-day period runs from the date of purchase without regard to the time required for the mechanical acts of transfer of ownership and delivery of a certificate. This rule is based on the principles governing the use of special cash accounts in accordance with which, in the absence of special circumstances, payment is to be made promptly upon the purchase of securities. 
</P>
<P>(e) The purpose of § 220.4(c)(3) is to recognize the fact that, when an issue of securities is to be issued at some fixed future date, a security that is a part of such issue can be purchased on a “when-issued” basis and that payment may reasonably be delayed until after such date of issue, subject to other basic conditions for transactions in a special cash account. Thus, unissued securities should be regarded as “made available for delivery to purchasers” on the date when they are substantially as available as outstanding securities are available upon purchase, and this would ordinarily be the designated date of issuance or, in the case of a stock dividend, the “payment date”. In any case, the time required for the mechanics of transfer and delivery of a certificate is not material under § 220.4(c)(3) any more than it is under § 220.4(c)(2). 
</P>
<P>(f) Mutual fund shares are essentially available upon purchase to the same extent as outstanding securities. The mechanics of their issuance and of the delivery of certificates are not significantly different from the mechanics of transfer and delivery of certificates for shares of outstanding securities, and the issuance of mutual fund shares is not a future event in a sense that would warrant the extension of the time for payment beyond that afforded in the case of outstanding securities. Consequently, the Board has concluded that a purchase of mutual fund shares is not a purchase of an “unissued security” to which § 220.4(c)(3) applies, but is a transaction to which § 220.4(c)(2) applies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 10885, Nov. 8, 1962] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.119" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.119   Applicability of margin requirements to credit extended to corporation in connection with retirement of stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether part 220 was violated when a dealer in securities transferred to a corporation 4,161 shares of the stock of such corporation for a consideration of $33,288, of which only 10 percent was paid in cash. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the transaction was of a kind that must be included in the corporation's “general account” with the dealer (§ 220.3), it would involve an excessive extension of credit in violation of § 220.3 (b)(1). However, the transaction would be permissible if the transaction came within the scope of § 220.4(f)(8), which permits a “creditor” (such as the dealer) to “Extend and maintain credit to or for any customer without collateral or on any collateral whatever for any purpose other than purchasing or carrying or trading in securities.” Accordingly, the crucial question is whether the corporation, in this transaction, was “purchasing” the 4,161 shares of its stock, within the meaning of that term as used in this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon first examination, it might seem apparent that the transaction was a purchase by the corporation. From the viewpoint of the dealer the transaction was a sale, and ordinarily, at least a sale by one party connotes a purchase by the other. Furthermore, other indicia of a sale/purchase transaction were present, such as a transfer of property for a pecuniary consideration. However, when the underlying objectives of the margin regulations are considered, it appears that they do not encompass a transaction of this nature, where securities are transferred on credit to the issuer thereof for the purpose of retirement. 
</P>
<P>(d) Section 7(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 requires the Board of Governors to prescribe margin regulations “For the purpose of preventing the excessive use of credit for the purchase or carrying of securities.” Accordingly, the provisions of this part are not intended to prevent the use of credit where the transaction will not have the effect of increasing the volume of credit in the securities markets. 
</P>
<P>(e) It appears that the instant transaction would have no such effect. When the transaction was completed, the equity interest of the dealer was transmuted into a dollar-obligation interest; in lieu of its status as a stockholder of the corporation, the dealer became a creditor of that corporation. The corporation did not become the owner of any securities acquired through the use of credit; its outstanding stock was simply reduced by 4,161 shares. 
</P>
<P>(f) The meaning of “sale” and “purchase” in the Securities Exchange Act has been considered by the Federal courts in a series of decisions dealing with corporate “insiders” profits under section 16(b) of that Act. Although the statutory purpose sought to be effectuated in those cases is quite different from the purpose of the margin regulations, the decisions in question support the propriety of not regarding a transaction as a “purchase” where this accords with the probable legislative intent, even though, literally, the statutory definition seems to include the particular transaction. See Roberts v. Eaton (CA 2 1954) 212 F. 2d 82, and cases and other authorities there cited. The governing principle, of course, is to effectuate the purpose embodied in the statutory or regulatory provision being interpreted, even where that purpose may conflict with the literal words. U.S. v. Amer. Trucking Ass'ns, 310 U.S. 534, 543 (1940); 2 Sutherland, Statutory Construction (3d ed. 1943) ch. 45. 
</P>
<P>(g) There can be little doubt that an extension of credit to a corporation to enable it to retire debt securities would not be for the purpose of “purchasing * * * securities” and therefore would come within § 220.4(f)(8), regardless of whether the retirement was obligatory (e.g., at maturity) or was a voluntary “call” by the issuer. This is true, it is difficult to see any valid distinction, for this purpose, between (1) voluntary retirement of an indebtedness security and (2) voluntary retirement of an equity security. 
</P>
<P>(h) For the reasons indicated above, it is the opinion of the Board of Governors that the extension of credit here involved is not of the kind which the margin requirements are intended to regulate and that the transaction described does not involve an unlawful extension of credit as far as this part is concerned. 
</P>
<P>(i) The foregoing interpretation relates, of course, only to cases of the type described. It should not be regarded as governing any other situations; for example, the interpretation does not deal with cases where securities are being transferred to someone other than the issuer, or to the issuer for a purpose other than immediate retirement. Whether the margin requirements are inapplicable to any such situations would depend upon the relevant facts of actual cases presented. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 12346, Dec. 13, 1962] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.120" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.120   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.121" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.121   Applicability of margin requirements to joint account between two creditors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has recently been asked whether extensions of credit in a joint account between two brokerage firms, a member of a national securities exchange (“Firm X”) and a member of the National Association of Securities Dealers (“Firm Y”) are subject to the margin requirements of this part (Regulation T). It is understood that similar joint accounts are not uncommon, and it appears that the margin requirements of the regulation are not consistently applied to extensions of credit in the accounts. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the account in question was opened, Firm Y deposited $5,000 with Firm X and has made no further deposit in the account, except for the monthly settlement described below. Both firms have the privilege of buying and selling specified securities in the account, but it appears that Firm X initiates most of the transactions therein. Trading volume may run from half a million to a million dollars a month. Firm X carries the “official” ledger of the account and sends Firm Y a monthly statement with a complete record of all transactions effected during the month. Settlement is then made in accordance with the agreement between the two firms, which provides that profits and losses shall be shared equally on a fifty-fifty basis. However, all transactions are confirmed and reconfirmed between the two on a daily basis. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 220.3(a) provides that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>All financial relations between a creditor and a customer, whether recorded in one record or in more than one record, shall be included in and be deemed to be part of the customer's general account with the creditor, * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>and § 220.2(c) defines the term “customer” to include 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * any person, or any group of persons acting jointly, * * * to or for whom a creditor is extending or maintaining any credit * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In the course of a normal month's operations, both Firm X and Firm Y are at one time or another extending credit to the joint account, since both make purchases for the account that are not “settled” until the month's end. Consequently, the account would be a “customer” within the above definition. 
</FP>
<P>(d) Section 220.6(b) provides, with respect to the account of a joint adventure in which a creditor participates, that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * the adjusted debit balance of the account shall include, in addition to the items specified in § 220.3(d), any amount by which the creditor's contribution to the joint adventure exceeds the contribution which he would have made if he had contributed merely in proportion to his right to share in the profits of the joint adventure.</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In addition, the final paragraph of § 220.2(c) states that the definition of “customer” 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * includes any joint adventure in which a creditor participates and which would be considered a customer of the creditor if the creditor were not a participant.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The above provisions clearly evince the Board's intent that the regulation shall cover trading accounts in which a creditor participates. If additional confirmation were needed, it is supplied by the fact that the Board found it needful specifically to exempt from ordinary margin requirements credit extended to certain joint accounts in which a creditor participates. These include the account in which transactions of odd-lot dealers may be financed under § 220.4(f) (4), and the specialist's account under § 220.4(g). Accordingly, the Board concluded that the joint account between Firm X and Firm Y is a “customer” within the meaning of the regulation, and that extensions of credit in the account are subject to margin requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 7169, May 17, 1966] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.122" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.122   “Deep in the money put and call options” as extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked to determine whether the business of selling instruments described as “deep in the money put and call options” would involve an extension of credit for the purposes of the Board's regulations governing margin requirements for securities transactions. Most of such options would be of the “call” type, such as the following proposal that was presented to the Board for its consideration: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>If X stock is selling at $100 per share, the customer would pay about $3,250 for a contract to purchase 100 shares of X at $70 per share within a 30-day period. The contract would be guaranteed by an exchange member, as are standard “puts” and “calls”. When the contract is made with the customer, the seller, who will also be the writer of the contract, will immediately purchase 100 shares of X at $100 per share through the guarantor member firm in a margin account. If the customer exercises the option, the shares will be delivered to him; if the option is not exercised, the writer will sell the shares in the margin account to close out the transaction. As a practical matter, it is anticipated that the customer will exercise the option in almost every case.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) An ordinary “put” is an option given to a person to sell to the writer of the put a specified amount of securities at a stated price within a certain time. A “call” is an option given to a person to buy from the writer a specified amount of securities at a stated price within a certain time. To be freely saleable, options must be indorsed, or guaranteed, by a member firm of the exchange on which the security is registered. The guarantor charges a fee for this service. 
</P>
<P>(c) The option embodied in the normal put or call is exercisable either at the market price of the security at the time the option is written, or some “points away” from the market. The price of a normal option is modest by comparison with the margin required to take a position. Writers of normal options are persons who are satisfied with the current price of a security, and are prepared to purchase or sell at that price, with the small profit provided by the fee. Moreover, since a large proportion of all options are never exercised, a person who customarily writes normal options can anticipate that the fee would be clear profit in many cases, and he will not be obligated to buy or sell the stock in question. 
</P>
<P>(d) The stock exchanges require that the writer of an option deposit and maintain in his margin account with the indorser 30 percent of the current market price in the case of a call (unless he has a long position in the stock) and 25 percent in the case of a put (unless he has a short position in the stock). Many indorsing firms in fact require larger deposits. Under § 220.3(a) of Regulation T, all financial relations between a broker and his customer must be included in the customer's general account, unless specifically eligible for one of the special accounts authorized by § 220.4. Accordingly, the writer, as a customer of the member firm, must make a deposit, which is included in his general account. 
</P>
<P>(e) In order to prevent the deposit from being available against other margin purchases, and in effect counted twice, § 220.3(d)(5) requires that in computing the customer's adjusted debit balance, there shall be included “the amount of any margin customarily required by the creditor in connection with his endorsement or guarantee of any put, call, or other option”. No other margin deposit is required in connection with a normal put or call option under Regulation T. 
</P>
<P>(f) Turning to the “deep in the money” proposed option contract described above, the price paid by the buyer can be divided into (1) a deposit of 30 percent of the current market value of the stock, and (2) an additional fixed charge, or fee. To the extent that the price of the stock rose during the 30 ensuing days the proposed instrument would produce results similar to those in the case of an ordinary profitable call, and the contract right would be exercised. But even if the price fell, unlike the situation with a normal option, the buyer would still be virtually certain to exercise his right to purchase before it expired, in order to minimize his loss. The result would be that the buyer would not have a genuine choice whether or not to buy. Rather, the instrument would have made it possible for him, in effect, to purchase stock as of the time the contract was written by depositing 30 percent of the stock's current market price. 
</P>
<P>(g) It was suggested that the proposed contract is not unusual, since there are examples of ordinary options selling at up to 28 percent of current market value. However, such examples are of options running for 12 months, and reflect expectations of changes in the price of the stock over that period. The 30-day contracts discussed above are not comparable to such 12-month options, because instances of true expectations of price changes of this magnitude over a 30-day period would be exceedingly rare. And a contract that does not reflect such true expectations of price change, plus a reasonable fee for the services of the writer, is not an option in the accepted meaning of the term. 
</P>
<P>(h) Because of the virtual certainty that the contract right would be exercised under the proposal described above, the writer would buy the stock in a margin account with an indorsing firm immediately on writing the contract. The indorsing firm would extend credit in the amount of 20 percent of the current market price of the stock, the maximum permitted by the current § 220.8 (supplement to Regulation T). The writer would deposit the 30 percent supplied by the buyer, and furnish the remaining 50 percent out of his own working capital. His account with the indorsing firm would thus be appropriately margined. 
</P>
<P>(i) As to the buyer, however, the writer would function as a broker. In effect, he would purchase the stock for the account, or use, of the buyer, on what might be described as a deferred payment arrangement. Like an ordinary broker, the writer of the contract described above would put up funds to pay for the difference between the price of securities the customer wished to purchase and the customer's own contribution. His only risk would be that the price of the securities would decline in excess of the customer's contribution. True, he would be locked in, and could not liquidate the customer's collateral for 30 days even if the market price should fall in excess of 30 percent, but the risk of such a decline is extremely slight. 
</P>
<P>(j) Like any other broker who extends credit in a margin account, the writer who was in the business of writing and selling such a contract would be satisfied with a fixed predetermined amount of return on his venture, since he would realize only the fee charged. Unlike a writer of ordinary puts and calls, he would not receive a substantial part of his income from fees on unexercised contract rights. The similarity of his activities to those of a broker, and the dissimilarity to a writer of ordinary options, would be underscored by the fact that his fee would be a fixed predetermined amount of return similar to an interest charge, rather than a fee arrived at individually for each transaction according to the volatility of the stock and other individual considerations. 
</P>
<P>(k) The buyer's general account with the writer would in effect reflect a debit for the purchase price of the stock and, on the credit side, a deposit of cash in the amount of 30 percent of that price, plus an extension of credit for the remaining 70 percent, rather than the maximum permissible 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(l) For the reasons stated above, the Board concluded that the proposed contracts would involve extensions of credit by the writer as broker in an amount exceeding that permitted by the current supplement to Regulation T. Accordingly, the writing of such contracts by a brokerage firm is presently prohibited by such regulation, and any brokerage firm that endorses such a contract would be arranging for credit in an amount greater than the firm itself could extend, a practice that is prohibited by § 220.7(a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 3280, Feb. 21, 1970] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.123" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.123   Partial delayed issue contracts covering nonconvertible bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) During recent years, it has become customary for portions of new issues of nonconvertible bonds and preferred stocks to be sold subject to partial delayed issue contracts, which have customarily been referred to in the industry as “delayed delivery” contracts, and the Board of Governors has been asked for its views as to whether such transactions involve any violations of the Board's margin regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The practice of issuing a portion of a debt (or equivalent) security issue at a date subsequent to the main underwriting has arisen where market conditions made it difficult or impossible, in a number of instances, to place an entire issue simultaneously. In instances of this kind, institutional investors (e.g., insurance companies or pension funds) whose cash flow is such that they expect to have funds available some months in the future, have been willing to subscribe to a portion, to be issued to them at a future date. The issuer has been willing to agree to issue the securities in two or more stages because it did not immediately need the proceeds to be realized from the deferred portion, because it could not raise funds on better terms, or because it preferred to have a certain portion of the issue taken down by an investor of this type. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of such a delayed issue contract, the underwriter is authorized to solicit from institutional customers offers to purchase from the issuer, pursuant to contracts of the kind described above, and the agreement becomes binding at the underwriters' closing, subject to specified conditions. When securities are issued pursuant to the agreement, the purchase price includes accrued interest or dividends, and until they are issued to it, the purchaser does not, in the case of bonds, have rights under the trust indenture, or, in the case of preferred stocks, voting rights. 
</P>
<P>(d) Securities sold pursuant to such arrangements are high quality debt issues (or their equivalent). The purchasers buy with a view to investment and do not resell or otherwise dispose of the contract prior to its completion. Delayed issue arrangements are not acceptable to issuers unless a substantial portion of an issue, not less than 10 percent, is involved. 
</P>
<P>(e) Sections 3(a) (13) and (14) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 provide that an agreement to purchase is equivalent to a purchase, and an agreement to sell to a sale. The Board has hitherto expressed the view that credit is extended at the time when there is a firm agreement to extend such credit (1968 Federal Reserve Bulletin 328; 12 CFR 207.101; ¶ 6800 Published Interpretations of the Board of Governors). Accordingly, in instances of the kind described above, the issuer may be regarded as extending credit to the institutional purchaser at the time of the underwriters' closing, when the obligations of both become fixed. 
</P>
<P>(f) Section 220.7(a) of the Board's Regulation T (12 CFR 220.7(a)), with an exception not applicable here, forbids a creditor subject to that regulation to arrange for credit on terms on which the creditor could not itself extend the credit. Sections 220.4(c) (1) and (2) (12 CFR 220.4(c) (1) and (2)) provide that a creditor may not sell securities to a customer except in good faith reliance upon an agreement that the customer will promptly, and in no event in more than 7 full business days, make full cash payment for the securities. Since the underwriters in question are creditors subject to the regulation, unless some specific exception applies, they are forbidden to arrange for the credit described above. This result follows because payment is not made until more than 7 full business days have passed from the time the credit is extended. 
</P>
<P>(g) However, § 220.4(c)(3) provides that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>If the security when so purchased is an unissued security, the period applicable to the transaction under subparagraph (2) of this paragraph shall be 7 days after the date on which the security is made available by the issuer for delivery to purchasers.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) In interpreting § 220.4(c)(3), the Board has stated that the purpose of the provision: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * is to recognize the fact that, when an issue of securities is to be issued at some future fixed date, a security that is part of such issue can be purchased on a “when-issued” basis and that payment may reasonably be delayed until after such date of issue, subject to other basic conditions for transactions in a special cash account. (1962 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1427; 12 CFR 220.118; ¶ 5996, Published Interpretations of the Board of Governors.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>In that situation, the Board distinguished the case of mutual fund shares, which technically are not issued until the certificate can be delivered by the transfer agent. The Board held that mutual fund shares must be regarded as issued at the time of purchase because they are: 
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * essentially available upon purchase to the same extent as outstanding securities. The mechanics of their issuance and of the delivery of certificates are not significantly different from the mechanics of transfer and delivery of certificates for shares of outstanding securities, and the issuance of mutual fund shares is not a future event in the sense that would warrant the extension of the time for payment beyond that afforded in the case of outstanding securities. (ibid.)</P></EXTRACT>
<FP>The issuance of debt securities subject to delayed issue contracts, by contrast with that of mutual fund shares, which are in a status of continual underwriting, is a specific single event taking place at a future date fixed by the issuer with a view to its need for funds and the availability of those funds under current market conditions. 
</FP>
<P>(i) For the reasons stated above the Board concluded that the nonconvertible debt and preferred stock subject to delayed issue contracts of the kind described above should not be regarded as having been issued until delivered, pursuant to the agreement, to the institutional purchaser. This interpretation does not apply, of course, to fact situations different from that described in this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 2777, Feb. 10, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.124" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.124   Installment sale of tax-shelter programs as “arranging” for credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether the sale by brokers and dealers of tax-shelter programs containing a provision that payment for the program may be made in installments would constitute “arranging” for credit in violation of this part 220. For the purposes of this interpretation, the term “tax-shelter program” means a program which is required to be registered pursuant to section 5 of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. section 77e), in which tax benefits, such as the ability to deduct substantial amounts of depreciation or oil exploration expenses, are made available to a person investing in the program. The programs may take various legal forms and can relate to a variety of industries including, but not limited to, oil and gas exploration programs, real estate syndications (except real estate investment trusts), citrus grove developments and cattle programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The most common type of tax-shelter program takes the form of a limited partnership. In the case of the programs under consideration, the investor would commit himself to purchase and the partnership would commit itself to sell the interests. The investor would be entitled to the benefits, and become subject to the risks of ownership at the time the contract is made, although the full purchase price is not then required to be paid. The balance of the purchase price after the downpayment usually is payable in installments which range from 1 to 10 years depending on the program. Thus, the partnership would be extending credit to the purchaser until the time when the latter's contractual obligation has been fulfilled and the final payment made. 
</P>
<P>(c) With an exception not applicable here, § 220.7(a) of Regulation T provides that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>A creditor [broker or dealer] may arrange for the extension or maintenance of credit to or for any customer of such creditor by any person upon the same terms and conditions as those upon which the creditor, under the provisions of this part, may himself extend or maintain such credit to such customer, but only such terms and conditions * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) In the case of credit for the purpose of purchasing or carrying securities (purpose credit), § 220.8 of the regulation (the Supplement to Regulation T) does not permit any loan value to be given securities that are not registered on a national securities exchange, included on the Board's OTC Margin List, or exempted by statute from the regulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) The courts have consistently held investment programs such as those described above to be “securities” for purpose of both the Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. The courts have also held that the two statutes are to be construed together. Tax-shelter programs, accordingly, are securities for purposes of Regulation T. They also are not registered on a national securities exchange, included on the Board's OTC Margin List, or exempted by statute from the regulation. 
</P>
<P>(f) Accordingly, the Board concludes that the sale by a broker/dealer of tax-shelter programs containing a provision that payment for the program may be made in installments would constitute “arranging” for the extension of credit to purchase or carry securities in violation of the prohibitions of §§ 220.7(a) and 220.8 of Regulation T. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 6568, Mar. 31, 1972] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 220.125-220.126" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 220.125-220.126   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.127" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.127   Independent broker/dealers arranging credit in connection with the sale of insurance premium funding programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board's September 5, 1972, clarifying amendment to § 220.4(k) set forth that creditors who arrange credit for the acquisition of mutual fund shares and insurance are also permitted to sell mutual fund shares without insurance under the provisions of the special cash account. It should be understood, of course, that such account provides a relatively short credit period of up to 7 business days even with so-called cash transactions. This amendment was in accordance with the Board's understanding in 1969, when the insurance premium funding provisions were adopted in § 220.4(k), that firms engaged in a general securities business would not also be engaged in the sale and arranging of credit in connection with such insurance premium funding programs. 
</P>
<P>(b) The 1972 amendment eliminated from § 220.4(k) the requirement that, to be eligible for the provisions of the section, a creditor had to be the issuer, or a subsidiary or affiliate of the issuer, of programs which combine the acquisition of both mutual fund shares and insurance. Thus the amendment permits an independent broker/dealer to sell such a program and to arrange for financing in that connection. In reaching such decision, the Board again relied upon the earlier understanding that independent broker/dealers who would sell such programs would not be engaged in transacting a general securities business. 
</P>
<P>(c) In response to a specific view recently expressed, the Board agrees that under Regulation T: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * a broker/dealer dealing in special insurance premium funding products can only extend credit in connection with such products or in connection with the sale of shares of registered investment companies under the cash accounts * * * (and) cannot engage in the general securities business or sell any securities other than shares * * * (in) registered investment companies through a cash account or any other manner involving the extension of credit.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) There is a way, of course, as has been indicated, that an independent broker/dealer might be able to sell other than shares of registered investment companies without creating any conflict with the regulation. Such sales could be executed on a “funds on hand” basis and in the case of payment by check, would have to include the collection of such check. It is understood from industry sources, however, that few if any independent broker/dealers engage solely in a “fund on hand” type of operation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 11066, May 4, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.128" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.128   Treatment of simultaneous long and short positions in the same margin account when put or call options or combinations thereof on such stock are also outstanding in the account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board was recently asked whether under Regulation T, “Credit by Brokers and Dealers” (12 CFR part 220), if there are simultaneous long and short positions in the same security in the same margin account (often referred to as a short sale “against the box”), such positions may be used to supply the place of the deposit of margin ordinarily required in connection with the guarantee by a creditor of a put or call option or combination thereof on such stock. 
</P>
<P>(b) The applicable provisions of regulation T are § 220.3(d)(3) and (5) and § 220.3(g)(4) and (5) which provide as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(d) * * * the adjusted debit balance of a general account * * * shall be calculated by taking the sum of the following items:</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(3) The current market value of any securities (other than unissued securities) sold short in the general account plus, for each security (other than an exempted security), such amount as the board shall prescribe from time to time in § 220.8(d) (the supplement to regulation T) as the margin required for such short sales, except that such amount so prescribed in such § 220.8(d) need not be included when there are held in the general account * * * the same securities or securities exchangeable or convertible within 90 calendar days, without restriction other than the payment of money, into such securities sold short;</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(5) The amount of any margin customarily required by the creditor in connection with his endorsement or guarantee of any put, call, or other option;</P></EXTRACT><STARS/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>(g) * * * (4) Any transaction which serves to meet the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section or otherwise serves to permit any offsetting transaction in an account shall, to that extent, be unavailable to permit any other transaction in such account. 
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this part (regulation T), if a security has maximum loan value under paragraph (c)(1) of this section in a general account, or under § 220.4(j) in a special convertible debt security account, a sale of the same security (even though not the same certificate) in such account shall be deemed to be a long sale and shall not be deemed to be or treated as a short sale.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Rule 431 of the New York Stock Exchange requires that a creditor obtain a minimum deposit of 25 percent of the current market value of the optioned stock in connection with his issuance or guarantee of a put, and at least 30 percent in the case of a call (and that such position be “marked to the market”), but permits a short position in the stock to serve in lieu of the required deposit in the case of a put and a long position to serve in the case of a call. Thus, where the appropriate position is held in an account, that position may serve as the margin required by § 220.3(d)(5). 
</P>
<P>(d) In a short sale “against the box,” however, the customer is both long and short the same security. He may have established either position, properly margined, prior to taking the other, or he may have deposited fully paid securities in his margin account on the same day he makes a short sale of such securities. In either case, he will have directed his broker to borrow securities elsewhere in order to make delivery on the short sale rather than using his long position for this purpose (see also 17 CFR 240.3b-3). 
</P>
<P>(e) Generally speaking, a customer makes a short sale “against the box” for tax reasons. Regulation T, however, provides in § 220.3(g) that the two positions must be “netted out” for the purposes of the calculations required by the regulation. Thus, the board concludes that neither position would be available to serve as the deposit of margin required in connection with the endorsement by the creditor of an option. 
</P>
<P>(f) A similar conclusion obtains under § 220.3(d)(3). That section provides, in essence, that the margin otherwise required in connection with a short sale need not be included in the account if the customer has in the account a long position in the same security. In § 220.3(g) (4), however, it is provided that “[A]ny transaction which * * * serves to permit any offsetting transaction in an account shall, to that extent, be unavailable to permit any other transaction in such account.” Thus, if a customer has, for example, a long position in a security and that long position has been used to supply the margin required in connection with a short sale of the same security, then the long position is unavailable to serve as the margin required in connection with the creditor's endorsement of a call option on such security. 
</P>
<P>(g) A situation was also described in which a customer has purported to establish simultaneous offsetting long and short positions by executing a “cross” or wash sale of the security on the same day. In this situation, no change in the beneficial ownership of stock has taken place. Since there is no actual “<I>contra</I>” party to either transaction, and no stock has been borrowed or delivered to accomplish the short sale, such fictitious positions would have no value for purposes of the Board's margin regulations. Indeed, the adoption of such a scheme in connection with an overall strategy involving the issuance, endorsement, or guarantee of put or call options or combinations thereof appears to be manipulative and may have been employed for the purpose of circumventing the requirements of the regulations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 12098, May 9, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 220.129-220.130" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 220.129-220.130   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.131" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.131   Application of the arranging section to broker-dealer activities under SEC Rule 144A.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether the purchase by a broker-dealer of debt securities for resale in reliance on Rule 144A of the Securities and Exchange Commission (17 CFR 230.144A) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> may be considered an arranging of credit permitted as an “investment banking service” under § 220.13(a) of Regulation T.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Rule 144A, 17 CFR 230.144A, was originally published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> at 55 FR 17933, April 30, 1990.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) SEC Rule 144A provides a safe harbor exemption from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 for resales of restricted securities to <I>qualified institutional buyers,</I> as defined in the rule. In general, a <I>qualified institutional buyer</I> is an institutional investor that in the aggregate owns and invests on a discretionary basis at least $100 million in securities of issuers that are not affiliated with the buyer. Registered broker-dealers need only own and invest on a discretionary basis at least $10 million of securities in order to purchase as principal under the rule. Section 4(2) of the Securities Act of 1933 provides an exemption from the registration requirements for “transactions by an issuer not involving any public offering.” Securities acquired in a transaction under section 4(2) cannot be resold without registration under the Act or an exemption therefrom. Rule 144A provides a safe harbor exemption for resales of such securities. Accordingly, broker-dealers that previously acted only as agents in intermediating between issuers and purchasers of privately-placed securities, due to the lack of such a safe harbor, now may purchase privately-placed securities from issuers as principal and resell such securities to “qualified institutional buyers” under Rule 144A.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has consistently treated the purchase of a privately-placed debt security as an extension of credit subject to the margin regulations. If the issuer uses the proceeds to buy securities, the purchase of the privately-placed debt security by a creditor represents an extension of “purpose credit” to the issuer. Section 7(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 prohibits the extension of purpose credit by a creditor if the credit is unsecured, secured by collateral other than securities, or secured by any security (other than an exempted security) in contravention of Federal Reserve regulations. If a debt security sold pursuant to Rule 144A represents purpose credit and is not properly collateralized by securities, the statute and Regulation T can be viewed as preventing the broker-dealer from taking the security into inventory in spite of the fact that the broker-dealer intends to immediately resell the debt security.
</P>
<P>(d) Under § 220.13 of Regulation T, a creditor may arrange credit it cannot itself extend if the arrangement is an “investment banking service” and the credit does not violate Regulations G and U. Investment banking services are defined to include, but not be limited to, “underwritings, private placements, and advice and other services in connection with exchange offers, mergers, or acquisitions, except for underwritings that involve the public distribution of an equity security with installment or other deferred-payment provisions.” To comply with Regulations G and U where the proceeds of debt securities sold under Rule 144A may be used to purchase or carry margin stock and the debt securities are secured in whole or in part, directly or indirectly by margin stock (see 12 CFR 207.2(f), 207.112, and 221.2(g)), the margin requirements of the regulations must be met.
</P>
<P>(e) The SEC's objective in adopting Rule 144A is to achieve “a more liquid and efficient institutional resale market for unregistered securities.” To further this objective, the Board believes it is appropriate for Regulation T purposes to characterize the participation of broker-dealers in this unique and limited market as an “investment banking service.” The Board is therefore of the view that the purchase by a creditor of debt securities for resale pursuant to SEC Rule 144A may be considered an investment banking service under the arranging section of Regulation T. The market-making activities of broker-dealers who hold themselves out to other institutions as willing to buy and sell Rule 144A securities on a regular and continuous basis may also be considered an arranging of credit permissible under § 220.13(a) of Regulation T.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 55 FR 29566, July 20, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 220.132" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.1.0.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 220.132   Credit to brokers and dealers.</HEAD>
<P>For text of this interpretation, see § 221.125 of this subchapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. T, 61 FR 60167, Nov. 26, 1996, as amended at 72 FR 70486, Dec. 12, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="221" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 221—CREDIT BY BANKS AND PERSONS OTHER THAN BROKERS OR DEALERS FOR THE PURPOSE OF PURCHASING OR CARRYING MARGIN STOCK (REGULATION U)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 78c, 78g, 78q, and 78w.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. U, 63 FR 2827, Jan. 16, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 221.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Regulation U (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act) (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) This part imposes credit restrictions upon persons other than brokers or dealers (hereinafter lenders) that extend credit for the purpose of buying or carrying margin stock if the credit is secured directly or indirectly by margin stock. Lenders include “banks” (as defined in § 221.2) and other persons who are required to register with the Board under § 221.3(b). Lenders may not extend more than the maximum loan value of the collateral securing such credit, as set by the Board in § 221.7 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to clearing agencies regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission that accept deposits of margin stock in connection with:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuance of, or guarantee of, or the clearance of transactions in, any security (including options on any security, certificate of deposit, securities index or foreign currency); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The guarantee of contracts for the purchase or sale of a commodity for future delivery or options on such contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not apply to credit extended to an exempted borrower.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of forms.</I> The forms referenced in this part are available from the Federal Reserve Banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the meanings given them in section 3(a) of the Act or as defined in this section as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks:
</P>
<P>(i) Any bank holding company of which a bank is a subsidiary within the meaning of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841(d));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other subsidiary of such bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other corporation, business trust, association, or other similar organization that is an affiliate as defined in section 2(b) of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 221a(c));
</P>
<P>(2) For nonbank lenders, <I>affiliate</I> means any person who, directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with the lender.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I>—(1) <I>Bank.</I> Has the meaning given to it in section 3(a)(6) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)) and includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any subsidiary of a bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any corporation organized under section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any agency or branch of a foreign bank located within the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any savings and loan association;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any lending institution that is an instrumentality or agency of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any member of a national securities exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying</I> credit is credit that enables a customer to maintain, reduce, or retire indebtedness originally incurred to purchase a security that is currently a margin stock.
</P>
<P><I>Current market value</I> of:
</P>
<P>(1) A security means:
</P>
<P>(i) If quotations are available, the closing sale price of the security on the preceding business day, as appearing on any regularly published reporting or quotation service; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is no closing sale price, the lender may use any reasonable estimate of the market value of the security as of the close of business on the preceding business day; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the credit is used to finance the purchase of the security, the total cost of purchase, which may include any commissions charged.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other collateral means a value determined by any reasonable method.
</P>
<P><I>Customer</I> excludes an exempted borrower and includes any person or persons acting jointly, to or for whom a lender extends or maintains credit.
</P>
<P><I>Examining authority</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The national securities exchange or national securities association of which a broker or dealer is a member; or
</P>
<P>(2) If a member of more than one self-regulatory organization, the organization designated by the Securities and Exchange Commission as the examining authority for the broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Exempted borrower</I> means a member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer, a substantial portion of whose business consists of transactions with persons other than brokers or dealers, and includes a borrower who:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains at least 1000 active accounts on an annual basis for persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) Earns at least $10 million in gross revenues on an annual basis from transactions with persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Earns at least 10 percent of its gross revenues on an annual basis from transactions with persons other than brokers, dealers, and persons associated with a broker-dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Good faith</I> with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) The loan value of collateral means that amount (not exceeding 100 per cent of the current market value of the collateral) which a lender, exercising sound credit judgment, would lend, without regard to the customer's other assets held as collateral in connection with unrelated transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) Making a determination or accepting a statement concerning a borrower means that the lender or its duly authorized representative is alert to the circumstances surrounding the credit, and if in possession of information that would cause a prudent person not to make the determination or accept the notice or certification without inquiry, investigates and is satisfied that it is correct;
</P>
<P><I>In the ordinary course of business</I> means occurring or reasonably expected to occur in carrying out or furthering any business purpose, or in the case of an individual, in the course of any activity for profit or the management or preservation of property.
</P>
<P><I>Indirectly secured.</I> (1) Includes any arrangement with the customer under which:
</P>
<P>(i) The customer's right or ability to sell, pledge, or otherwise dispose of margin stock owned by the customer is in any way restricted while the credit remains outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The exercise of such right is or may be cause for accelerating the maturity of the credit.
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include such an arrangement if:
</P>
<P>(i) After applying the proceeds of the credit, not more than 25 percent of the value (as determined by any reasonable method) of the assets subject to the arrangement is represented by margin stock;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a lending arrangement that permits accelerating the maturity of the credit as a result of a default or renegotiation of another credit to the customer by another lender that is not an affiliate of the lender;
</P>
<P>(iii) The lender holds the margin stock only in the capacity of custodian, depositary, or trustee, or under similar circumstances, and, in good faith, has not relied upon the margin stock as collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The lender, in good faith, has not relied upon the margin stock as collateral in extending or maintaining the particular credit.
</P>
<P><I>Lender</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any person subject to the registration requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Margin stock</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any equity security registered or having unlisted trading privileges on a national securities exchange;
</P>
<P>(2) Any OTC security designated as qualified for trading in the National Market System under a designation plan approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission (NMS security);
</P>
<P>(3) Any debt security convertible into a margin stock or carrying a warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase a margin stock;
</P>
<P>(4) Any warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase a margin stock; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any security issued by an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A company licensed under the Small Business Investment Company Act of 1958, as amended (15 U.S.C. 661); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A company which has at least 95 percent of its assets continuously invested in exempted securities (as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(12)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A company which issues face-amount certificates as defined in 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(15), but only with respect of such securities; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A company which is considered a money market fund under SEC Rule 2a-7 (17 CFR 270.2a-7).
</P>
<P><I>Maximum loan value</I> is the percentage of current market value assigned by the Board under § 221.7 (the Supplement) to specified types of collateral. The maximum loan value of margin stock is stated as a percentage of its current market value. Puts, calls and combinations thereof that do not qualify as margin stock have no loan value. All other collateral has good faith loan value.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank lender</I> means any person subject to the registration requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Purpose credit</I> is any credit for the purpose, whether immediate, incidental, or ultimate, of buying or carrying margin stock.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.3   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extending, maintaining, and arranging credit</I>—(1) <I>Extending credit.</I> No lender, except a plan-lender, as defined in § 221.4(a), shall extend any purpose credit, secured directly or indirectly by margin stock, in an amount that exceeds the maximum loan value of the collateral securing the credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintaining credit.</I> A lender may continue to maintain any credit initially extended in compliance with this part, regardless of:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduction in the customer's equity resulting from change in market prices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change in the maximum loan value prescribed by this part; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Change in the status of the security (from nonmargin to margin) securing an existing purpose credit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Arranging credit.</I> No lender may arrange for the extension or maintenance of any purpose credit, except upon the same terms and conditions under which the lender itself may extend or maintain purpose credit under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Registration of nonbank lenders; termination of registration; annual report</I>—(1) <I>Registration.</I> Every person other than a person subject to part 220 of this chapter or a bank who, in the ordinary course of business, extends or maintains credit secured, directly or indirectly, by any margin stock shall register on Federal Reserve Form FR G-1 (OMB control number 7100-0011) within 30 days after the end of any calendar quarter during which:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of credit extended equals $200,000 or more; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of credit outstanding at any time during that calendar quarter equals $500,000 or more.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deregistration.</I> A registered nonbank lender may apply to terminate its registration, by filing Federal Reserve Form FR G-2 (OMB control number 7100-0011), if the lender has not, during the preceding six calendar months, had more than $200,000 of such credit outstanding. Registration shall be deemed terminated when the application is approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual report.</I> Every registered nonbank lender shall, within 30 days following June 30 of every year, file Form FR G-4 (OMB control number 7100-0011).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Where to register and file applications and reports.</I> Registration statements, applications to terminate registration, and annual reports shall be filed with the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the principal office of the lender is located.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purpose statement</I>—(1) <I>General rule</I>—(i) <I>Banks.</I> Except for credit extended under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, whenever a bank extends credit secured directly or indirectly by any margin stock, in an amount exceeding $100,000, the bank shall require its customer to execute Form FR U-1 (OMB No. 7100-0115), which shall be signed and accepted by a duly authorized officer of the bank acting in good faith.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nonbank lenders.</I> Except for credit extended under paragraph (c)(2) of this section or § 221.4, whenever a nonbank lender extends credit secured directly or indirectly by any margin stock, the nonbank lender shall require its customer to execute Form FR G-3 (OMB control number 7100-0018), which shall be signed and accepted by a duly authorized representative of the nonbank lender acting in good faith.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purpose statement for revolving-credit or multiple-draw agreements or financing of securities purchases on a payment-against-delivery basis</I>—(i) <I>Banks.</I> If a bank extends credit, secured directly or indirectly by any margin stock, in an amount exceeding $100,000, under a revolving-credit or other multiple-draw agreement, Form FR U-1 must be executed at the time the credit arrangement is originally established and must be amended as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section for each disbursement if all of the collateral for the agreement is not pledged at the time the agreement is originally established.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nonbank lenders.</I> If a nonbank lender extends credit, secured directly or indirectly by any margin stock, under a revolving-credit or other multiple-draw agreement, Form FR G-3 must be executed at the time the credit arrangement is originally established and must be amended as described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section for each disbursement if all of the collateral for the agreement is not pledged at the time the agreement is originally established.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Collateral.</I> If a purpose statement executed at the time the credit arrangement is initially made indicates that the purpose is to purchase or carry margin stock, the credit will be deemed in compliance with this part if:
</P>
<P>(A) The maximum loan value of the collateral at least equals the aggregate amount of funds actually disbursed; or
</P>
<P>(B) At the end of any day on which credit is extended under the agreement, the lender calls for additional collateral sufficient to bring the credit into compliance with § 221.7 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Amendment of purpose statement.</I> For any purpose credit disbursed under the agreement, the lender shall obtain and attach to the executed Form FR U-1 or FR G-3 a current list of collateral which adequately supports all credit extended under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Single credit rule.</I> (1) All purpose credit extended to a customer shall be treated as a single credit, and all the collateral securing such credit shall be considered in determining whether or not the credit complies with this part, except that syndicated loans need not be aggregated with other unrelated purpose credit extended by the same lender.
</P>
<P>(2) A lender that has extended purpose credit secured by margin stock may not subsequently extend unsecured purpose credit to the same customer unless the combined credit does not exceed the maximum loan value of the collateral securing the prior credit.
</P>
<P>(3) If a lender extended unsecured purpose credit to a customer prior to the extension of purpose credit secured by margin stock, the credits shall be combined and treated as a single credit solely for the purposes of the withdrawal and substitution provision of paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If a lender extends purpose credit secured by any margin stock and non-purpose credit to the same customer, the lender shall treat the credits as two separate loans and may not rely upon the required collateral securing the purpose credit for the nonpurpose credit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exempted borrowers.</I> (1) An exempted borrower that has been in existence for less than one year may meet the definition of exempted borrower based on a six-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) Once a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer ceases to qualify as an exempted borrower, it shall notify its lenders of this fact. Any new extensions of credit to such a borrower, including rollovers, renewals, and additional draws on existing lines of credit, are subject to the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Withdrawals and substitutions.</I> (1) A lender may permit any withdrawal or substitution of cash or collateral by the customer if the withdrawal or substitution would not:
</P>
<P>(i) Cause the credit to exceed the maximum loan value of the collateral; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Increase the amount by which the credit exceeds the maximum loan value of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the maximum loan value of the collateral on the day of the withdrawal or substitution shall be used.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exchange offers.</I> To enable a customer to participate in a reorganization, recapitalization or exchange offer that is made to holders of an issue of margin stock, a lender may permit substitution of the securities received. A nonmargin, nonexempted security acquired in exchange for a margin stock shall be treated as if it is margin stock for a period of 60 days following the exchange.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Renewals and extensions of maturity.</I> A renewal or extension of maturity of a credit need not be considered a new extension of credit if the amount of the credit is increased only by the addition of interest, service charges, or taxes with respect to the credit.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transfers of credit.</I> (1) A transfer of a credit between customers or between lenders shall not be considered a new extension of credit if:
</P>
<P>(i) The original credit was extended by a lender in compliance with this part or by a lender subject to part 207 of this chapter in effect prior to April 1, 1998, (See part 207 appearing in the 12 CFR parts 200 to 219 edition revised as of January 1, 1997), in a manner that would have complied with this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transfer is not made to evade this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of credit is not increased; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The collateral for the credit is not changed.
</P>
<P>(2) Any transfer between customers at the same lender shall be accompanied by a statement by the transferor customer describing the circumstances giving rise to the transfer and shall be accepted and signed by a representative of the lender acting in good faith. The lender shall keep such statement with its records of the transferee account.
</P>
<P>(3) When a transfer is made between lenders, the transferee shall obtain a copy of the Form FR U-1 or Form FR G-3 originally filed with the transferor and retain the copy with its records of the transferee account. If no form was originally filed with the transferor, the transferee may accept in good faith a statement from the transferor describing the purpose of the loan and the collateral securing it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Action for lender's protection.</I> Nothing in this part shall require a bank to waive or forego any lien or prevent a bank from taking any action it deems necessary in good faith for its protection.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Mistakes in good faith.</I> A mistake in good faith in connection with the extension or maintenance of credit shall not be a violation of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.4" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.4   Employee stock option, purchase, and ownership plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plan-lender; eligible plan.</I> (1) Plan-lender means any corporation, (including a wholly-owned subsidiary, or a lender that is a thrift organization whose membership is limited to employees and former employees of the corporation, its subsidiaries or affiliates) that extends or maintains credit to finance the acquisition of margin stock of the corporation, its subsidiaries or affiliates under an eligible plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible plan.</I> An eligible plan means any employee stock option, purchase, or ownership plan adopted by a corporation and approved by its stockholders that provides for the purchase of margin stock of the corporation, its subsidiaries, or affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit to exercise rights under or finance an eligible plan.</I> (1) If a plan-lender extends or maintains credit under an eligible plan, any margin stock that directly or indirectly secured that credit shall have good faith loan value.
</P>
<P>(2) Credit extended under this section shall be treated separately from credit extended under any other section of this part except § 221.3(b)(1) and (b)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit to ESOPs.</I> A nonbank lender may extend and maintain purpose credit without regard to the provisions of this part, except for § 221.3(b)(1) and (b)(3), if such credit is extended to an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code, as amended (26 U.S.C. 401).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.5" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.5   Special purpose loans to brokers and dealers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special purpose loans.</I> A lender may extend and maintain purpose credit to brokers and dealers without regard to the limitations set forth in §§ 221.3 and 221.7, if the credit is for any of the specific purposes and meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written notice.</I> Prior to extending credit for more than a day under this section, the lender shall obtain and accept in good faith a written notice or certification from the borrower as to the purposes of the loan. The written notice or certification shall be evidence of continued eligibility for the special credit provisions until the borrower notifies the lender that it is no longer eligible or the lender has information that would cause a reasonable person to question whether the credit is being used for the purpose specified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Types of special purpose credit.</I> The types of credit that may be extended and maintained on a good faith basis are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Hypothecation loans.</I> Credit secured by hypothecated customer securities that, according to written notice received from the broker or dealer, may be hypothecated by the broker or dealer under Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) rules.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temporary advances in payment-against-delivery transactions.</I> Credit to finance the purchase or sale of securities for prompt delivery, if the credit is to be repaid upon completion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans for securities in transit or transfer.</I> Credit to finance securities in transit or surrendered for transfer, if the credit is to be repaid upon completion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Intra-day loans.</I> Credit to enable a broker or dealer to pay for securities, if the credit is to be repaid on the same day it is extended.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Arbitrage loans.</I> Credit to finance proprietary or customer bona fide arbitrage transactions. For the purpose of this section bona fide arbitrage means:
</P>
<P>(i) Purchase or sale of a security in one market, together with an offsetting sale or purchase of the same security in a different market at nearly the same time as practicable, for the purpose of taking advantage of a difference in prices in the two markets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchase of a security that is, without restriction other than the payment of money, exchangeable or convertible within 90 calendar days of the purchase into a second security, together with an offsetting sale of the second security at or about the same time, for the purpose of taking advantage of a concurrent disparity in the price of the two securities.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Market maker and specialist loans.</I> Credit to a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer to finance its activities as a market maker or specialist.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Underwriter loans.</I> Credit to a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer to finance its activities as an underwriter.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Emergency loans.</I> Credit that is essential to meet emergency needs of the broker-dealer business arising from exceptional circumstances.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Capital contribution loans.</I> Capital contribution loans include:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit that Board has exempted by order upon a finding that the exemption is necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors, provided the Securities Investor Protection Corporation certifies to the Board that the exemption is appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit to a customer for the purpose of making a subordinated loan or capital contribution to a broker or dealer in conformity with the SEC's net capital rules and the rules of the broker's or dealer's examining authority, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) The customer reduces the credit by the amount of any reduction in the loan or contribution to the broker or dealer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit is not used to purchase securities issued by the broker or dealer in a public distribution.
</P>
<P>(10) Credit to clearing brokers or dealers. Credit to a member of a national securities exchange or registered broker or dealer whose nonproprietary business is limited to financing and carrying the accounts of registered market makers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.6" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.6   Exempted transactions.</HEAD>
<P>A bank may extend and maintain purpose credit without regard to the provisions of this part if such credit is extended:
</P>
<P>(a) To any bank;
</P>
<P>(b) To any foreign banking institution;
</P>
<P>(c) Outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(d) To an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP) qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401);
</P>
<P>(e) To any plan lender as defined in § 221.4(a) to finance an eligible plan as defined in § 221.4(b), provided the bank has no recourse to any securities purchased pursuant to the plan;
</P>
<P>(f) To any customer, other than a broker or dealer, to temporarily finance the purchase or sale of securities for prompt delivery, if the credit is to be repaid in the ordinary course of business upon completion of the transaction and is not extended to enable the customer to pay for securities purchased in an account subject to part 220 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(g) Against securities in transit, if the credit is not extended to enable the customer to pay for securities purchased in an account subject to part 220 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(h) To enable a customer to meet emergency expenses not reasonably foreseeable, and if the extension of credit is supported by a statement executed by the customer and accepted and signed by an officer of the bank acting in good faith. For this purpose, emergency expenses include expenses arising from circumstances such as the death or disability of the customer, or some other change in circumstances involving extreme hardship, not reasonably foreseeable at the time the credit was extended. The opportunity to realize monetary gain or to avoid loss is not a “change in circumstances” for this purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.7" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.7   Supplement: Maximum loan value of margin stock and other collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maximum loan value of margin stock.</I> The maximum loan value of any margin stock is fifty per cent of its current market value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum loan value of nonmargin stock and all other collateral.</I> The maximum loan value of nonmargin stock and all other collateral except puts, calls, or combinations thereof is their good faith loan value.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum loan value of options.</I> Except for options that qualify as margin stock, puts, calls, and combinations thereof have no loan value.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.101" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.101   Determination and effect of purpose of loan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under this part the original purpose of a loan is controlling. In other words, if a loan originally is not for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock, changes in the collateral for the loan do not change its exempted character.
</P>
<P>(b) However, a so-called increase in the loan is necessarily on an entirely different basis. So far as the purpose of the credit is concerned, it is a new loan, and the question of whether or not it is subject to this part must be determined accordingly.
</P>
<P>(c) Certain facts should also be mentioned regarding the determination of the purpose of a loan. Section 221.3(c) provides in that whenever a lender is required to have its customer execute a “Statement of Purpose for an Extension of Credit Secured by Margin Stock,” the statement must be accepted by the lender “acting in good faith.” The requirement of “good faith” is of vital importance here. Its application will necessarily vary with the facts of the particular case, but it is clear that the bank must be alert to the circumstances surrounding the loan. For example, if the loan is to be made to a customer who is not a broker or dealer in securities, but such a broker or dealer is to deliver margin stock to secure the loan or is to receive the proceeds of the loan, the bank would be put on notice that the loan would probably be subject to this part. It could not accept in good faith a statement to the contrary without obtaining a reliable and satisfactory explanation of the situation.
</P>
<P>(d) Furthermore, the purpose of a loan means just that. It cannot be altered by some temporary application of the proceeds. For example, if a borrower is to purchase Government securities with the proceeds of a loan, but is soon thereafter to sell such securities and replace them with margin stock, the loan is clearly for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.102" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.102   Application to committed credit where funds are disbursed thereafter.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has concluded that the date a commitment to extend credit becomes binding should be regarded as the date when the credit is extended, since:
</P>
<P>(a) On that date the parties should be aware of law and facts surrounding the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, the date of contract is controlling for purposes of margin regulations and Federal securities law, regardless of the delivery of cash or securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.103" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.103   Loans to brokers or dealers.</HEAD>
<P>Questions have arisen as to the adequacy of statements received by lending banks under § 221.3(c), “Purpose Statement,” in the case of loans to brokers or dealers secured by margin stock where the proceeds of the loans are to be used to finance customer transactions involving the purchasing or carrying of margin stock. While some such loans may qualify for exemption under §§ 221.1(b)(2), 221.4, 221.5 or 221.6, unless they do qualify for such an exemption they are subject to this part. For example, if a loan so secured is made to a broker to furnish cash working capital for the conduct of his brokerage business (i.e., for purchasing and carrying securities for the account of customers), the maximum loan value prescribed in § 221.7 (the Supplement) would be applicable unless the loan should be of a kind exempted under this part. This result would not be affected by the fact that the margin stock given as security for the loan was or included margin stock owned by the brokerage firm. In view of the foregoing, the statement referred to in § 221.3(c) which the lending bank must accept in good faith in determining the purpose of the loan would be inadequate if the form of statement accepted or used by the bank failed to call for answers which would indicate whether or not the loan was of the kind discussed elsewhere in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.104" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.104   Federal credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>For text of the interpretation on Federal credit unions, see 12 CFR 220.110.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.105" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.105   Arranging for extensions of credit to be made by a bank.</HEAD>
<P>For text of the interpretation on Arranging for extensions of credit to be made by a bank, see 12 CFR 220.111.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.106" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.106   Reliance in “good faith” on statement of purpose of loan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Certain situations have arisen from time to time under this part wherein it appeared doubtful that, in the circumstances, the lending banks may have been entitled to rely upon the statements accepted by them in determining whether the purposes of certain loans were such as to cause the loans to be not subject to the part.
</P>
<P>(b) The use by a lending bank of a statement in determining the purpose of a particular loan is, of course, provided for by § 221.3(c). However, under that paragraph a lending bank may accept such statement only if it is “acting in good faith.” As the Board stated in the interpretation contained in § 221.101, the “requirement of ‘good faith’ is of vital importance”; and, to fulfill such requirement, “it is clear that the bank must be alert to the circumstances surrounding the loan.”
</P>
<P>(c) Obviously, such a statement would not be accepted by the bank in “good faith” if at the time the loan was made the bank had knowledge, from any source, of facts or circumstances which were contrary to the natural purport of the statement, or which were sufficient reasonably to put the bank on notice of the questionable reliability or completeness of the statement.
</P>
<P>(d) Furthermore, the same requirement of “good faith” is to be applied whether the statement accepted by the bank is signed by the borrower or by an officer of the bank. In either case, “good faith” requires the exercise of special diligence in any instance in which the borrower is not personally known to the bank or to the officer who processes the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) The interpretation set forth in § 221.101 contains an example of the application of the “good faith” test. There it was stated that “if the loan is to be made to a customer who is not a broker or dealer in securities, but such a broker or dealer is to deliver margin stock to secure the loan or is to receive the proceeds of the loan, the bank would be put on notice that the loan would probably be subject to this part. It could not accept in good faith a statement to the contrary without obtaining a reliable and satisfactory explanation of the situation”.
</P>
<P>(f) Moreover, and as also stated by the interpretation contained in § 221.101, the purpose of a loan, of course, “cannot be altered by some temporary application of the proceeds. For example, if a borrower is to purchase Government securities with the proceeds of a loan, but is soon thereafter to sell such securities and replace them with margin stock, the loan is clearly for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock”. The purpose of a loan therefore, should not be determined upon a narrow analysis of the immediate use to which the proceeds of the loan are put. Accordingly, a bank acting in “good faith” should carefully scrutinize cases in which there is any indication that the borrower is concealing the true purpose of the loan, and there would be reason for special vigilance if margin stock is substituted for bonds or nonmargin stock soon after the loan is made, or on more than one occasion.
</P>
<P>(g) Similarly, the fact that a loan made on the borrower's signature only, for example, becomes secured by margin stock shortly after the disbursement of the loan usually would afford reasonable grounds for questioning the bank's apparent reliance upon merely a statement that the purpose of the loan was not to purchase or carry margin stock.
</P>
<P>(h) The examples in this section are, of course, by no means exhaustive. They simply illustrate the fundamental fact that no statement accepted by a lender is of any value for the purposes of this part unless the lender accepting the statement is “acting in good faith”, and that “good faith” requires, among other things, reasonable diligence to learn the truth.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.107" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.107   Arranging loan to purchase open-end investment company shares.</HEAD>
<P>For text of the interpretation on Arranging loan to purchase open-end investment company shares, see 12 CFR 220.112.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.108" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.108   Effect of registration of stock subsequent to making of loan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board recently was asked whether a loan by a bank to enable the borrower to purchase a newly issued nonmargin stock during the initial over-the-counter trading period prior to the stock becoming registered (listed) on a national securities exchange would be subject to this part. The Board replied that, until such stock qualifies as margin stock, this would not be applicable to such a loan.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has now been asked what the position of the lending bank would be under this part if, after the date on which the stock should become registered, such bank continued to hold a loan of the kind just described. It is assumed that the loan was in an amount greater than the maximum loan value for the collateral specified in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If the stock should become registered, the loan would then be for the purpose of purchasing or carrying a margin stock, and, if secured directly or indirectly by any margin stock, would be subject to this part as from the date the stock was registered. Under this part, this does not mean that the bank would have to obtain reduction of the loan in order to reduce it to an amount no more than the specified maximum loan value. It does mean, however, that so long as the loan balance exceeded the specified maximum loan value, the bank could not permit any withdrawals or substitutions of collateral that would increase such excess; nor could the bank increase the amount of the loan balance unless there was provided additional collateral having a maximum loan value at least equal to the amount of the increase. In other words, as from the date the stock should become a margin stock, the loan would be subject to this part in exactly the same way, for example, as a loan subject to this part that became under-margined because of a decline in the current market value of the loan collateral or because of a decrease by the Board in the maximum loan value of the loan collateral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.109" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.109   Loan to open-end investment company.</HEAD>
<P>In response to a question regarding a possible loan by a bank to an open-end investment company that customarily purchases stocks registered on a national securities exchange, the Board stated that in view of the general nature and operations of such a company, any loan by a bank to such a company should be presumed to be subject to this part as a loan for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock. This would not be altered by the fact that the open-end company had used, or proposed to use, its own funds or proceeds of the loan to redeem some of its own shares, since mere application of the proceeds of a loan to some other use cannot prevent the ultimate purpose of a loan from being to purchase or carry registered stocks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.110" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.110   Questions arising under this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part governs “any purpose credit” extended by a lender “secured directly or indirectly by margin stock” and defines “purpose credit” as “any credit for the purpose, whether immediate, incidental, or ultimate, of buying or carrying margin stock, “ with certain exceptions, and provides that the maximum loan value of such margin stock shall be a fixed percentage “of its current market value.”
</P>
<P>(b) The Board of Governors has had occasion to consider the application of the language in paragraph (a) of this section to the two following questions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan secured by stock.</I> First, is a loan to purchase or carry margin stock subject to this part where made in unsecured form, if margin stock is subsequently deposited as security with the lender, and surrounding circumstances indicate that the parties originally contemplated that the loan should be so secured? The Board answered that in a case of this kind, the loan would be subject to this part, for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board has long held, in the closely related purpose area, that the original purpose of a loan should not be determined upon a narrow analysis of the technical circumstances under which a loan is made. Instead, the fundamental purpose of the loan is considered to be controlling. Indeed, “the fact that a loan made on the borrower's signature only, for example, becomes secured by registered stock shortly after the disbursement of the loan” affords reasonable grounds for questioning whether the bank was entitled to rely upon the borrower's statement as to the purpose of the loan. 1953 Fed. Res. Bull. 951 (<I>See,</I> § 221.106).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where security is involved, standards of interpretation should be equally searching. If, for example, the original agreement between borrower and lender contemplated that the loan should be secured by margin stock, and such stock is in fact delivered to the bank when available, the transaction must be regarded as fundamentally a secured loan. This view is strengthened by the fact that this part applies to a loan “secured directly or indirectly by margin stock.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loan to acquire controlling shares.</I> (i) The second question is whether this part governs a margin stock-secured loan made for the business purpose of purchasing a controlling interest in a corporation, or whether such a loan would be exempt on the ground that this part is directed solely toward purchases of stock for speculative or investment purposes. The Board answered that a margin stock-secured loan for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock is subject to this part, regardless of the reason for which the purchase is made.
</P>
<P>(ii) The answer is required, in the Board's view, since the language of this part is explicitly inclusive, covering “any purpose credit, secured directly or indirectly by margin stock.” Moreover, the withdrawal in 1945 of the original section 2(e) of this part, which exempted “any loan for the purpose of purchasing a stock from or through a person who is not a member of a national securities exchange . . .” plainly implies that transactions of the sort described are now subject to the general prohibition of § 221.3(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.111" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.111   Contribution to joint venture as extension of credit when the contribution is disproportionate to the contributor's share in the venture's profits or losses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board considered the question whether a joint venture, structured so that the amount of capital contribution to the venture would be disproportionate to the right of participation in profits or losses, constitutes an “extension of credit” for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual and a corporation plan to establish a joint venture to engage in the business of buying and selling securities, including margin stock. The individual would contribute 20 percent of the capital and receive 80 percent of the profits or losses; the corporate share would be the reverse. In computing profits or losses, each participant would first receive interest at the rate of 8 percent on his respective capital contribution. Although purchases and sales would be mutually agreed upon, the corporation could liquidate the joint portfolio if the individual's share of the losses equaled or exceeded his 20 percent contribution to the venture. The corporation would hold the securities, and upon termination of the venture, the assets would first be applied to repayment of capital contributions.
</P>
<P>(c) In general, the relationship of joint venture is created when two or more persons combine their money, property, or time in the conduct of some particular line of trade or some particular business and agree to share jointly, or in proportion to capital contributed, the profits and losses of the undertaking.
</P>
<P>(d) The incidents of the joint venture described in paragraph (b) of this section, however, closely parallel those of an extension of margin credit, with the corporation as lender and the individual as borrower. The corporation supplies 80 percent of the purchase price of securities in exchange for a net return of 8 percent of the amount advanced plus 20 percent of any gain. Like a lender of securities credit, the corporation is insulated against loss by retaining the right to liquidate the collateral before the securities decline in price below the amount of its contribution. Conversely, the individual—like a customer who borrows to purchase securities—puts up only 20 percent of their cost, is entitled to the principal portion of any appreciation in their value, bears the principal risk of loss should that value decline, and does not stand to gain or lose except through a change in value of the securities purchased.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board is of the opinion that where the right of an individual to share in profits and losses of such a joint venture is disproportionate to his contribution to the venture:
</P>
<P>(1) The joint venture involves an extension of credit by the corporation to the individual;
</P>
<P>(2) The extension of credit is to purchase or carry margin stock, and is collateralized by such margin stock; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the corporation is not a broker or dealer subject to Regulation T (12 CFR part 220), the credit is of the kind described by § 221.3(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.112" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.112   Loans by bank in capacity as trustee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board's advice has been requested whether a bank's activities in connection with the administration of an employees' savings plan are subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the plan, any regular, full-time employee may participate by authorizing the sponsoring company to deduct a percentage of his salary and wages and transmit the same to the bank as trustee. Voluntary contributions by the company are allocated among the participants. A participant may direct that funds held for him be invested by the trustee in insurance, annuity contracts, Series E Bonds, or in one or more of three specified securities which are listed on a stock exchange. Loans to purchase the stocks may be made to participants from funds of the trust, subject to approval of the administrative committee, which is composed of five participants, and of the trustee. The bank's right to approve is said to be restricted to the mechanics of making the loan, the purpose being to avoid cumbersome procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) Loans are secured by the credit balance of the borrowing participants in the savings fund, including stock, but excluding (in practice) insurance and annuity contracts and government securities. Additional stocks may be, but, in practice, have not been pledged as collateral for loans. Loans are not made, under the plan, from bank funds, and participants do not borrow from the bank upon assignment of the participants' accounts in the trust.
</P>
<P>(d) It is urged that loans under the plan are not subject to this part because a loan should not be considered as having been made by a bank where the bank acts solely in its capacity of trustee, without exercise of any discretion.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board reviewed this question upon at least one other occasion, and full consideration has again been given to the matter. After considering the arguments on both sides, the Board has reaffirmed its earlier view that, in conformity with an interpretation not published in the Code of Federal Regulations which was published at page 874 of the 1946 Federal Reserve Bulletin (<I>See</I> 12 CFR 261.10(f) for information on how to obtain Board publications.), this part applies to the activities of a bank when it is acting in its capacity as trustee. Although the bank in that case had at best a limited discretion with respect to loans made by it in its capacity as trustee, the Board concluded that this fact did not affect the application of the regulation to such loans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.113" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.113   Loan which is secured indirectly by stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A question has been presented to the Board as to whether a loan by a bank to a mutual investment fund is “secured * * * indirectly by margin stock” within the meaning of § 221.(3)(a), so that the loan should be treated as subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Briefly, the facts are as follows. Fund X, an open-end investment company, entered into a loan agreement with Bank Y, which was (and still is) custodian of the securities which comprise the portfolio of Fund X. The agreement includes the following terms, which are material to the question before the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) Fund X agrees to have an “asset coverage” (as defined in the agreements) of 400 percent of all its borrowings, including the proposed borrowing, at the time when it takes down any part of the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Fund X agrees to maintain an “asset coverage” of at least 300 percent of its borrowings at all times.
</P>
<P>(3) Fund X agrees not to amend its custody agreement with Bank Y, or to substitute another custodian without Bank Y's consent.
</P>
<P>(4) Fund X agrees not to mortgage, pledge, or otherwise encumber any of its assets elsewhere than with Bank Y.
</P>
<P>(c) In § 221.109 the Board stated that because of “the general nature and operations of such a company”, any “loan by a bank to an open-end investment company that customarily purchases margin stock * * * should be presumed to be subject to this part as a loan for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock” (purpose credit). The Board's interpretation went on to say that: “this would not be altered by the fact that the open-end company had used, or proposed to use, its own funds or proceeds of the loan to redeem some of its own shares * * *.”
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly, the loan by Bank Y to Fund X was and is a “purpose credit”. However, a loan by a bank is not subject to this part unless: it is a purpose credit; and it is “secured directly or indirectly by margin stock”. In the present case, the loan is not “secured directly” by stock in the ordinary sense, since the portfolio of Fund X is not pledged to secure the credit from Bank Y. But the word “indirectly” must signify some form of security arrangement other than the “direct” security which arises from the ordinary “transaction that gives recourse against a particular chattel or land or against a third party on an obligation” described in the American Law Institute's Restatement of the Law of Security, page 1. Otherwise the word “indirectly” would be superfluous, and a regulation, like a statute, must be construed if possible to give meaning to every word.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board has indicated its view that any arrangement under which margin stock is more readily available as security to the lending bank than to other creditors of the borrower may amount to indirect security within the meaning of this part. In an interpretation published at § 221.110 it stated: “The Board has long held, in the * * * purpose area, that the original purpose of a loan should not be determined upon a narrow analysis of the technical circumstances under which a loan is made * * * . Where security is involved, standards of interpretation should be equally searching.” In its pamphlet issued for the benefit and guidance of banks and bank examiners, entitled “Questions and Answers Illustrating Application of Regulation U”, the Board said: “In determining whether a loan is “indirectly” secured, it should be borne in mind that the reason the Board has thus far refrained * * * from regulating loans not secured by stock has been to simplify operations under the regulation. This objective of simplifying operations does not apply to loans in which arrangements are made to retain the substance of stock collateral while sacrificing only the form”.
</P>
<P>(f) A wide variety of arrangements as to collateral can be made between bank and borrower which will serve, to some extent, to protect the interest of the bank in seeing that the loan is repaid, without giving the bank a conventional direct “security” interest in the collateral. Among such arrangements which have come to the Board's attention are the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower may deposit margin stock in the custody of the bank. An arrangement of this kind may not, it is true, place the bank in the position of a secured creditor in case of bankruptcy, or even of conflicting claims, but it is likely effectively to strengthen the bank's position. The definition of <I>indirectly secured</I> in § 221.2, which provides that a loan is not indirectly secured if the lender “holds the margin stock only in the capacity of custodian, depositary or trustee, or under similar circumstances, and, in good faith has not relied upon the margin stock as collateral,” does not exempt a deposit of this kind from the impact of the regulation unless it is clear that the bank “has not relied” upon the margin stock deposited with it.
</P>
<P>(2) A borrower may not deposit his margin stock with the bank, but agree not to pledge or encumber his assets elsewhere while the loan is outstanding. Such an agreement may be difficult to police, yet it serves to some extent to protect the interest of the bank if only because the future credit standing and business reputation of the borrower will depend upon his keeping his word. If the assets covered by such an agreement include margin stock, then, the credit is “indirectly secured” by the margin stock within the meaning of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The borrower may deposit margin stock with a third party who agrees to hold the stock until the loan has been paid off. Here, even though the parties may purport to provide that the stock is not “security” for the loan (for example, by agreeing that the stock may not be sold and the proceeds applied to the debt if the borrower fails to pay), the mere fact that the stock is out of the borrower's control for the duration of the loan serves to some extent to protect the bank.
</P>
<P>(g) The three instances described in paragraph (f) of this section are merely illustrative. Other methods, or combinations of methods, may serve a similar purpose. The conclusion that any given arrangement makes a credit “indirectly secured” by margin stock may, but need not, be reinforced by facts such as that the stock in question was purchased with proceeds of the loan, that the lender suggests or insists upon the arrangement, or that the loan would probably be subject to criticism by supervisory authorities were it not for the protective arrangement.
</P>
<P>(h) Accordingly, the Board concludes that the loan by Bank Y to Fund X is indirectly secured by the portfolio of the fund and must be treated by the bank as a regulated loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.114" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.114   Bank loans to purchase stock of American Telephone and Telegraph Company under Employees' Stock Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors interpreted this part in connection with proposed loans by a bank to persons who are purchasing shares of stock of American Telephone and Telegraph Company pursuant to its Employees' Stock Plan.
</P>
<P>(b) According to the current offering under the Plan, an employee of the AT&amp;T system may purchase shares through regular deductions from his pay over a period of 24 months. At the end of that period, a certificate for the appropriate number of shares will be issued to the participating employee by AT&amp;T. Each employee is entitled to purchase, as a maximum, shares that will cost him approximately three-fourths of his annual base pay. Since the program extends over two years, it follows that the payroll deductions for this purpose may be in the neighborhood of 38 percent of base pay and a larger percentage of “take-home pay.” Deductions of this magnitude are in excess of the saving rate of many employees.
</P>
<P>(c) Certain AT&amp;T employees, who wish to take advantage of the current offering under the Plan, are the owners of shares of AT&amp;T stock that they purchased under previous offerings. A bank proposed to receive such stock as collateral for a “living expenses” loan that will be advanced to the employee in monthly installments over the 24-month period, each installment being in the amount of the employee's monthly payroll deduction under the Plan. The aggregate amount of the advances over the 24-month period would be substantially greater than the maximum loan value of the collateral as prescribed in § 221.7 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(d) In the opinion of the Board of Governors, a loan of the kind described would violate this part if it exceeded the maximum loan value of the collateral. The regulation applies to any margin stock-secured loan for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock (§ 221.3(a)). Although the proposed loan would purport to be for living expenses, it seems quite clear, in view of the relationship of the loan to the Employees' Stock Plan, that its actual purpose would be to enable the borrower to purchase AT&amp;T stock, which is margin stock. At the end of the 24-month period the borrower would acquire a certain number of shares of that stock and would be indebted to the lending bank in an amount approximately equal to the amount he would pay for such shares. In these circumstances, the loan by the bank must be regarded as a loan “for the purpose of purchasing” the stock, and therefore it is subject to the limitations prescribed by this part. This conclusion follows from the provisions of this part, and it may also be observed that a contrary conclusion could largely defeat the basic purpose of the margin regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) Accordingly, the Board concluded that a loan of the kind described may not be made in an amount exceeding the maximum loan value of the collateral, as prescribed by the current § 221.7 (the Supplement).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.115" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.115   Accepting a purpose statement through the mail without benefit of face-to-face interview.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether the acceptance of a purpose statement submitted through the mail by a lender subject to the provisions of this part will meet the good faith requirement of § 221.3(c). Section 221.3(c) states that in connection with any credit secured by collateral which includes any margin stock, a nonbank lender must obtain a purpose statement executed by the borrower and accepted by the lender in good faith. Such acceptance requires that the lender be alert to the circumstances surrounding the credit and if further information suggests inquiry, he must investigate and be satisfied that the statement is truthful.
</P>
<P>(b) The lender is a subsidiary of a holding company which also has another subsidiary which serves as underwriter and investment advisor to various mutual funds. The sole business of the lender will be to make “non-purpose” consumer loans to shareholders of the mutual funds, such loans to be collateralized by the fund shares. Most mutual funds shares are margin stock for purposes of this part. Solicitation and acceptance of these consumer loans will be done principally through the mail and the lender wishes to obtain the required purpose statement by mail rather than by a face-to-face interview. Personal interviews are not practicable for the lender because shareholders of the funds are scattered throughout the country. In order to provide the same safeguards inherent in face-to-face interviews, the lender has developed certain procedures designed to satisfy the good faith acceptance requirement of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The purpose statement will be supplemented with several additional questions relevant to the prospective borrower's investment activities such as purchases of any security within the last 6 months, dollar amount, and obligations to purchase or pay for previous purchases; present plans to purchase securities in the near future, participations in securities purchase plans, list of unpaid debts, and present income level. Some questions have been modified to facilitate understanding but no questions have been deleted. If additional inquiry is indicated by the answers on the form, a loan officer of the lender will interview the borrower by telephone to make sure the loan is “non-purpose”. Whenever the loan exceeds the “maximum loan value” of the collateral for a regulated loan, a telephone interview will be done as a matter of course.
</P>
<P>(d) One of the stated purposes of Regulation X (12 CFR part 224) was to prevent the infusion of unregulated credit into the securities markets by borrowers falsely certifying the purpose of a loan. The Board is of the view that the existence of Regulation X (12 CFR part 224), which makes the borrower liable for willful violations of the margin regulations, will allow a lender subject to this part to meet the good faith acceptance requirement of § 221.3(c) without a face-to-face interview if the lender adopts a program, such as the one described in paragraph (c) of this section, which requires additional detailed information from the borrower and proper procedures are instituted to verify the truth of the information received. Lenders intending to embark on a similar program should discuss proposed plans with their district Federal Reserve Bank. Lenders may have existing or future loans with the prospective customers which could complicate the efforts to determine the true purpose of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.116" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.116   Bank loans to replenish working capital used to purchase mutual fund shares.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a situation considered by the Board of Governors, a business concern (X) proposed to purchase mutual fund shares, from time to time, with proceeds from its accounts receivable, then pledge the shares with a bank in order to secure working capital. The bank was prepared to lend amounts equal to 70 percent of the current value of the shares as they were purchased by X. If the loans were subject to this part, only 50 percent of the current market value of the shares could be lent.
</P>
<P>(b) The immediate purpose of the loans would be to replenish X's working capital. However, as time went on, X would be acquiring mutual fund shares at a cost that would exceed the net earnings it would normally have accumulated, and would become indebted to the lending bank in an amount approximately 70 percent of the prices of said shares.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board held that the loans were for the purpose of purchasing the shares, and therefore subject to the limitations prescribed by this part. As pointed out in § 221.114 with respect to a similar program for putting a high proportion of cash income into stock, the borrowing against the margin stock to meet needs for which the cash would otherwise have been required, a contrary conclusion could largely defeat the basic purpose of the margin regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Also considered was an alternative proposal under which X would deposit proceeds from accounts receivable in a time account for 1 year, before using those funds to purchase mutual fund shares. The Board held that this procedure would not change the situation in any significant way. Once the arrangement was established, the proceeds would be flowing into the time account at the same time that similar amounts were released to purchase the shares, and over any extended period of time the result would be the same. Accordingly, the Board concluded that bank loans made under the alternative proposal would similarly be subject to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.117" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.117   When bank in “good faith” has not relied on stock as collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has received questions regarding the circumstances in which an extension or maintenance of credit will not be deemed to be “indirectly secured” by stock as indicated by the phrase, “if the lender, in good faith, has not relied upon the margin stock as collateral,” contained in paragraph (2)(iv) of the definition of <I>indirectly secured</I> in § 221.2.
</P>
<P>(b) In response, the Board noted that in amending this portion of the regulation in 1968 it was indicated that one of the purposes of the change was to make clear that the definition of <I>indirectly secured</I> does not apply to certain routine negative covenants in loan agreements. Also, while the question of whether or not a bank has relied upon particular stock as collateral is necessarily a question of fact to be determined in each case in the light of all relevant circumstances, some indication that the bank had not relied upon stock as collateral would seem to be afforded by such circumstances as the fact that:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank had obtained a reasonably current financial statement of the borrower and this statement could reasonably support the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) The loan was not payable on demand or because of fluctuations in market value of the stock, but instead was payable on one or more fixed maturities which were typical of maturities applied by the bank to loans otherwise similar except for not involving any possible question of stock collateral.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.118" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.118   Bank arranging for extension of credit by corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board considered the questions whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The guaranty by a corporation of an “unsecured” bank loan to exercise an option to purchase stock of the corporation is an “extension of credit” for the purpose of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Such a guaranty is given “in the ordinary course of business” of the corporation, as defined in § 221.2; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank involved took part in arranging for such credit on better terms than it could extend under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board understood that any officer or employee included under the corporation's stock option plan who wished to exercise his option could obtain a loan for the purchase price of the stock by executing an unsecured note to the bank. The corporation would issue to the bank a guaranty of the loan and hold the purchased shares as collateral to secure it against loss on the guaranty. Stock of the corporation is registered on a national securities exchange and therefore qualifies as “margin stock” under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A nonbank lender is subject to the registration and other requirements of this part if, in the ordinary course of his business, he extends credit on collateral that includes any margin stock in the amount of $200,000 or more in any calendar quarter, or has such credit outstanding in any calendar quarter in the amount of $500,000 or more. The Board understood that the corporation in question had sufficient guaranties outstanding during the applicable calendar quarter to meet the dollar thresholds for registration.
</P>
<P>(d) In the Board's judgment a person who guarantees a loan, and thereby becomes liable for the amount of the loan in the event the borrower should default, is lending his credit to the borrower. In the circumstances described, such a lending of credit must be considered an “extension of credit” under this part in order to prevent circumvention of the regulation's limitation on the amount of credit that can be extended on the security of margin stock.
</P>
<P>(e) Under § 221.2, the term <I>in the ordinary course of business means</I> “occurring or reasonably expected to occur in carrying out or furthering any business purpose. * * *” In general, stock option plans are designed to provide a company's employees with a proprietary interest in the company in the form of ownership of the company's stock. Such plans increase the company's ability to attract and retain able personnel and, accordingly, promote the interest of the company and its stockholders, while at the same time providing the company's employees with additional incentive to work toward the company's future success. An arrangement whereby participating employees may finance the exercise of their options through an unsecured bank loan guaranteed by the company, thereby facilitating the employees' acquisition of company stock, is likewise designed to promote the company's interest and is, therefore, in furtherance of a business purpose.
</P>
<P>(f) For the reasons indicated, the Board concluded that under the circumstances described a guaranty by the corporation constitutes credit extended in the ordinary course of business under this part, that the corporation is required to register pursuant to § 221.3(b), and that such guaranties may not be given in excess of the maximum loan value of the collateral pledged to secure the guaranty.
</P>
<P>(g) Section 221.3(a)(3) provides that “no lender may arrange for the extension or maintenance of any purpose credit, except upon the same terms and conditions on which the lender itself may extend or maintain purpose credit under this part”. Since the Board concluded that the giving of a guaranty by the corporation to secure the loan described above constitutes an extension of credit, and since the use of a guaranty in the manner described could not be effectuated without the concurrence of the bank involved, the Board further concluded that the bank took part in “arranging” for the extension of credit in excess of the maximum loan value of the margin stock pledged to secure the guaranties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.119" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.119   Applicability of plan-lender provisions to financing of stock options and stock purchase rights qualified or restricted under Internal Revenue Code.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether the plan-lender provisions of § 221.4(a) and (b) were intended to apply to the financing of stock options restricted or qualified under the Internal Revenue Code where such options or the option plan do not provide for such financing.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the Board's experience that in some nonqualified plans, particularly stock purchase plans, the credit arrangement is distinct from the plan. So long as the credit extended, and particularly, the character of the plan-lender, conforms with the requirements of the regulation, the fact that option and credit are provided for in separate documents is immaterial. It should be emphasized that the Board does not express any view on the preferability of qualified as opposed to nonqualified options; its role is merely to prevent excessive credit in this area.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 221.4(a) provides that a plan-lender may include a wholly-owned subsidiary of the issuer of the collateral (taking as a whole, corporate groups including subsidiaries and affiliates). This clarifies the Board's intent that, to qualify for special treatment under that section, the lender must stand in a special employer-employee relationship with the borrower, and a special relationship of issuer with regard to the collateral. The fact that the Board, for convenience and practical reasons, permitted the employing corporation to act through a subsidiary or other entity should not be interpreted to mean the Board intended the lender to be other than an entity whose overriding interests were coextensive with the issuer. An independent corporation, with independent interests was never intended, regardless of form, to be at the base of exempt stock-plan lending.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.120" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.120   Allocation of stock collateral to purpose and nonpurpose credits to same customer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank proposes to extend two credits (Credits A and B) to its customer. Although the two credits are proposed to be extended at the same time, each would be evidenced by a separate agreement. Credit A would be extended for the purpose of providing the customer with working capital (nonpurpose credit), collateralized by margin stock. Credit B would be extended for the purpose of purchasing or carrying margin stock (purpose credit), without collateral or on collateral other than stock.
</P>
<P>(b) This part allows a bank to extend purpose and nonpurpose credits simultaneously or successively to the same customer. This rule is expressed in § 221.3(d)(4) which provides in substance that for any nonpurpose credit to the same customer, the lender shall in good faith require as much collateral not already identified to the customer's purpose credit as the lender would require if it held neither the purpose loan nor the identified collateral. This rule in § 221.3(d)(4) also takes into account that the lender would not necessarily be required to hold collateral for the nonpurpose credit if, consistent with good faith banking practices, it would normally make this kind of nonpurpose loan without collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board views § 221.3(d)(4), when read in conjunction with § 221.3(c) and (f), as requiring that whenever a lender extends two credits to the same customer, one a purpose credit and the other nonpurpose, any margin stock collateral must first be identified with and attributed to the purpose loan by taking into account the maximum loan value of such collateral as prescribed in § 221.7 (the Supplement).
</P>
<P>(d) The Board is further of the opinion that under the foregoing circumstances Credit B would be indirectly secured by stock, despite the fact that there would be separate loan agreements for both credits. This conclusion flows from the circumstance that the lender would hold in its possession stock collateral to which it would have access with respect to Credit B, despite any ostensible allocation of such collateral to Credit A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.121" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.121   Extension of credit in certain stock option and stock purchase plans.</HEAD>
<P>Questions have been raised as to whether certain stock option and stock purchase plans involve extensions of credit subject to this part when the participant is free to cancel his participation at any time prior to full payment, but in the event of cancellation the participant remains liable for damages. It thus appears that the participant has the opportunity to gain and bears the risk of loss from the time the transaction is executed and payment is deferred. In some cases brought to the Board's attention damages are related to the market price of the stock, but in others, there may be no such relationship. In either of these circumstances, it is the Board's view that such plans involve extensions of credit. Accordingly, where the security being purchased is a margin security and the credit is secured, directly or indirectly, by any margin security, the creditor must register and the credit must conform with either the regular margin requirements of § 221.3(a) or the special “plan-lender” provisions set forth in § 221.4, whichever is applicable. This assumes, of course, that the amount of credit extended is such that the creditor is subject to the registration requirements of § 221.3(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.122" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.122   Applicability of margin requirements to credit in connection with Insurance Premium Funding Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked numerous questions regarding purpose credit in connection with insurance premium funding programs. The inquiries are included in a set of guidelines in the format of questions and answers. (The guidelines are available pursuant to the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information, 12 CFR part 261.) A glossary of terms customarily used in connection with insurance premium funding credit activities is included in the guidelines. Under a typical insurance premium funding program, a borrower acquires mutual fund shares for cash, or takes fund shares which he already owns, and then uses the loan value (currently 50 percent as set by the Board) to buy insurance. Usually, a funding company (the issuer) will sell both the fund shares and the insurance through either independent broker/dealers or subsidiaries or affiliates of the issuer. A typical plan may run for 10 or 15 years with annual insurance premiums due. To illustrate, assuming an annual insurance premium of $300, the participant is required to put up mutual fund shares equivalent to 250 percent of the premium or $600 ($600 × 50 percent loan value equals $300 the amount of the insurance premium which is also the amount of the credit extended).
</P>
<P>(b) The guidelines referenced in paragraph (a) of this section also:
</P>
<P>(1) Clarify an earlier 1969 Board interpretation to show that the public offering price of mutual fund shares (which includes the front load, or sales commission) may be used as a measure of their current market value when the shares serve as collateral on a purpose credit throughout the day of the purchase of the fund shares; and
</P>
<P>(2) Relax a 1965 Board position in connection with accepting purpose statements by mail.
</P>
<P>(c) It is the Board's view that when it is clearly established that a purpose statement supports a purpose credit then such statement executed by the borrower may be accepted by mail, provided it is received and also executed by the lender before the credit is extended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.123" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.123   Combined credit for exercising employee stock options and paying income taxes incurred as a result of such exercise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 221.4(a) and (b), which provides special treatment for credit extended under employee stock option plans, was designed to encourage their use in recognition of their value in giving an employee a proprietary interest in the business. Taking a position that might discourage the exercise of options because of tax complications would conflict with the purpose of § 221.4(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b) Accordingly, the Board has concluded that the combined loans for the exercise of the option and the payment of the taxes in connection therewith under plans complying with § 221.4(a)(2) may be regarded as <I>purpose credit</I> within the meaning of § 221.2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.124" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.124   Purchase of debt securities to finance corporate takeovers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Petitions have been filed with the Board raising questions as to whether the margin requirements in this part apply to two types of corporate acquisitions in which debt securities are issued to finance the acquisition of margin stock of a target company.
</P>
<P>(b) In the first situation, the acquiring company, Company A, controls a shell corporation that would make a tender offer for the stock of Company B, which is margin stock (as defined in § 221.2). The shell corporation has virtually no operations, has no significant business function other than to acquire and hold the stock of Company B, and has substantially no assets other than the margin stock to be acquired. To finance the tender offer, the shell corporation would issue debt securities which, by their terms, would be unsecured. If the tender offer is successful, the shell corporation would seek to merge with Company B. However, the tender offer seeks to acquire fewer shares of Company B than is necessary under state law to effect a short form merger with Company B, which could be consummated without the approval of shareholders or the board of directors of Company B.
</P>
<P>(c) The purchase of the debt securities issued by the shell corporation to finance the acquisition clearly involves purpose credit (as defined in § 221.2). In addition, such debt securities would be purchased only by sophisticated investors in very large minimum denominations, so that the purchasers may be lenders for purposes of this part. <I>See</I> § 221.3(b). Since the debt securities contain no direct security agreement involving the margin stock, applicability of the lending restrictions of this part turns on whether the arrangement constitutes an extension of credit that is secured indirectly by margin stock.
</P>
<P>(d) As the Board has recognized, indirect security can encompass a wide variety of arrangements between lenders and borrowers with respect to margin stock collateral that serve to protect the lenders' interest in assuring that a credit is repaid where the lenders do not have a conventional direct security interest in the collateral. <I>See</I> § 221.124. However, credit is not “indirectly secured” by margin stock if the lender in good faith has not relied on the margin stock as collateral extending or maintaining credit. <I>See</I> § 221.2.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board is of the view that, in the situation described in paragraph (b) of this section, the debt securities would be presumed to be indirectly secured by the margin stock to be acquired by the shell acquisition vehicle. The staff has previously expressed the view that nominally unsecured credit extended to an investment company, a substantial portion of whose assets consist of margin stock, is indirectly secured by the margin stock. <I>See</I> Federal Reserve Regulatory Service 5-917.12. (<I>See</I> 12 CFR 261.10(f) for information on how to obtain Board publications.) This opinion notes that the investment company has substantially no assets other than margin stock to support indebtedness and thus credit could not be extended to such a company in good faith without reliance on the margin stock as collateral.
</P>
<P>(f) The Board believes that this rationale applies to the debt securities issued by the shell corporation described in paragraph (b) of this section. At the time the debt securities are issued, the shell corporation has substantially no assets to support the credit other than the margin stock that it has acquired or intends to acquire and has no significant business function other than to hold the stock of the target company in order to facilitate the acquisition. Moreover, it is possible that the shell may hold the margin stock for a significant and indefinite period of time, if defensive measures by the target prevent consummation of the acquisition. Because of the difficulty in predicting the outcome of a contested takeover at the time that credit is committed to the shell corporation, the Board believes that the purchasers of the debt securities could not, in good faith, lend without reliance on the margin stock as collateral. The presumption that the debt securities are indirectly secured by margin stock would not apply if there is specific evidence that lenders could in good faith rely on assets other than margin stock as collateral, such as a guaranty of the debt securities by the shell corporation's parent company or another company that has substantial non-margin stock assets or cash flow. This presumption would also not apply if there is a merger agreement between the acquiring and target companies entered into at the time the commitment is made to purchase the debt securities or in any event before loan funds are advanced. In addition, the presumption would not apply if the obligation of the purchasers of the debt securities to advance funds to the shell corporation is contingent on the shell's acquisition of the minimum number of shares necessary under applicable state law to effect a merger between the acquiring and target companies without the approval of either the shareholders or directors of the target company. In these two situations where the merger will take place promptly, the Board believes the lenders could reasonably be presumed to be relying on the assets of the target for repayment.
</P>
<P>(g) In addition, the Board is of the view that the debt securities described in paragraph (b) of this section are indirectly secured by margin stock because there is a practical restriction on the ability of the shell corporation to dispose of the margin stock of the target company. Indirectly secured is defined in § 221.2 to include any arrangement under which the customer's right or ability to sell, pledge, or otherwise dispose of margin stock owned by the customer is in any way restricted while the credit remains outstanding. The purchasers of the debt securities issued by a shell corporation to finance a takeover attempt clearly understand that the shell corporation intends to acquire the margin stock of the target company in order to effect the acquisition of that company. This understanding represents a practical restriction on the ability of the shell corporation to dispose of the target's margin stock and to acquire other assets with the proceeds of the credit.
</P>
<P>(h) In the second situation, Company C, an operating company with substantial assets or cash flow, seeks to acquire Company D, which is significantly larger than Company C. Company C establishes a shell corporation that together with Company C makes a tender offer for the shares of Company D, which is margin stock. To finance the tender offer, the shell corporation would obtain a bank loan that complies with the margin lending restrictions of this part and Company C would issue debt securities that would not be directly secured by any margin stock. The Board is of the opinion that these debt securities should not be presumed to be indirectly secured by the margin stock of Company D, since, as an operating business, Company C has substantial assets or cash flow without regard to the margin stock of Company D. Any presumption would not be appropriate because the purchasers of the debt securities may be relying on assets other than margin stock of Company D for repayment of the credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 221.125" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.2.0.2.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 221.125   Credit to brokers and dealers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (Pub. L. 104-290, 110 Stat. 3416) restricts the Board's margin authority by repealing section 8(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Exchange Act) and amending section 7 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78g) to exclude the borrowing by a member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer “a substantial portion of whose business consists of transactions with persons other than brokers or dealers” and borrowing by a member of a national securities exchange or a registered broker or dealer to finance its activities as a market maker or an underwriter. Notwithstanding this exclusion, the Board may impose such rules and regulations if it determines they are “necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors.”
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has not found that it is necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors to impose rules and regulations regarding loans to brokers and dealers covered by the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="222" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 222—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING (REGULATION V) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1681b, 1681c, 1681m and 1681s; Secs. 3, 214, and 216, Pub. L. 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. V, 68 FR 74469, Dec. 24, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.1   Purpose, scope, and effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the Fair Credit Reporting Act. This part generally applies to persons that obtain and use information about consumers to determine the consumer's eligibility for products, services, or employment, share such information among affiliates, and furnish information to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institutions covered.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in this part, the regulations in this part apply to banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries that are not functionally regulated within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)), branches and Agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>), and bank holding companies and affiliates of such holding companies, but do not apply to affiliates of bank holding companies that are depository institutions regulated by another federal banking agency or to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of appendix B to this part, financial institutions as defined in section 509 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 6809), may use the model notices in appendix B to this part to comply with the notice requirement in section 623(a)(7) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective dates.</I> The applicable provisions of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (FACT Act), Pub. L. 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952, shall be effective in accordance with the following schedule: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Provisions effective December 31, 2003.</I> (i) Sections 151(a)(2), 212(e), 214(c), 311(b), and 711, concerning the relation to state laws; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of the provisions of the FACT Act that authorizes an agency to issue a regulation or to take other action to implement the applicable provision of the FACT Act or the applicable provision of the Fair Credit Reporting Act, as amended by the FACT Act, but only with respect to that agency's authority to propose and adopt the implementing regulation or to take such other action. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions effective March 31, 2004.</I> (i) Section 111, concerning the definitions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 156, concerning the statute of limitations; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Sections 312(d), (e), and (f), concerning the furnisher liability exception, liability and enforcement, and rule of construction, respectively; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 313(a), concerning action regarding complaints; 
</P>
<P>(v) Section 611, concerning communications for certain employee investigations; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 811, concerning clerical amendments. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provisions effective December 1, 2004.</I> (i) Section 112, concerning fraud alerts and active duty alerts; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 114, concerning procedures for the identification of possible instances of identity theft; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 115, concerning truncation of the social security number in a consumer report; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 151(a)(1), concerning the summary of rights of identity theft victims; 
</P>
<P>(v) Section 152, concerning blocking of information resulting from identity theft; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 153, concerning the coordination of identity theft complaint investigations; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 154, concerning the prevention of repollution of consumer reports; 
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 155, concerning notice by debt collectors with respect to fraudulent information; 
</P>
<P>(ix) Section 211(c), concerning a summary of rights of consumers; 
</P>
<P>(x) Section 212(a)-(d), concerning the disclosure of credit scores; 
</P>
<P>(xi) Section 213(c), concerning enhanced disclosure of the means available to opt out of prescreened lists; 
</P>
<P>(xii) Section 217(a), concerning the duty to provide notice to a consumer; 
</P>
<P>(xiii) Section 311(a), concerning the risk-based pricing notice; 
</P>
<P>(xiv) Section 312(a)-(c), concerning procedures to enhance the accuracy and integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies; 
</P>
<P>(xv) Section 314, concerning improved disclosure of the results of reinvestigation; 
</P>
<P>(xvi) Section 315, concerning reconciling addresses; 
</P>
<P>(xvii) Section 316, concerning notice of dispute through reseller; and 
</P>
<P>(xviii) Section 317, concerning the duty to conduct a reasonable reinvestigation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 74469, Dec. 24, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 6530, Feb. 11, 2004; 69 FR 33284, June 15, 2004; 69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004; 72 FR 62954, Nov. 7, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.2   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part. Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issue that may arise in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 70678, Nov. 22, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that is related by common ownership or common corporate control with another company.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(f)-(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Common ownership or common corporate control</I> means a relationship between two companies under which:
</P>
<P>(1) One company has, with respect to the other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of a company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of a company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of a company, as the Board determines; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person has, with respect to both companies, a relationship described in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) through (i)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer, that relates to:
</P>
<P>(i) The past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of health care to an individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The payment for the provision of health care to an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The age or gender of a consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demographic information about the consumer, including a consumer's residence address or e-mail address;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information about a consumer that does not relate to the physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of a consumer, including the existence or value of any insurance policy; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Information that does not identify a specific consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate cooperative, association, government or governmental subdivision or agency, or other entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 70 FR 70678, Nov. 22, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 63756, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Affiliate Marketing</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. V, 72 FR 62955, Nov. 7, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.20" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.20   Coverage and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> Subpart C of this part applies to member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries that are not functionally regulated within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)), branches and Agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> The term “clear and conspicuous” means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Concise</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “concise” means a reasonably brief expression or statement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combination with other required disclosures.</I> A notice required by this subpart may be concise even if it is combined with other disclosures required or authorized by federal or state law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligibility information.</I> The term “eligibility information” means any information the communication of which would be a consumer report if the exclusions from the definition of “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2)(A) of the Act did not apply. Eligibility information does not include aggregate or blind data that does not contain personal identifiers such as account numbers, names, or addresses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pre-existing business relationship</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “pre-existing business relationship” means a relationship between a person, or a person's licensed agent, and a consumer based on—
</P>
<P>(A) A financial contract between the person and the consumer which is in force on the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase, rental, or lease by the consumer of the person's goods or services, or a financial transaction (including holding an active account or a policy in force or having another continuing relationship) between the consumer and the person, during the 18-month period immediately preceding the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(C) An inquiry or application by the consumer regarding a product or service offered by that person during the three-month period immediately preceding the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of pre-existing business relationships.</I> (A) If a consumer has a time deposit account, such as a certificate of deposit, at a depository institution that is currently in force, the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services.
</P>
<P>(B) If a consumer obtained a certificate of deposit from a depository institution, but did not renew the certificate at maturity, the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for 18 months after the date of maturity of the certificate of deposit.
</P>
<P>(C) If a consumer obtains a mortgage, the mortgage lender has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. If the mortgage lender sells the consumer's entire loan to an investor, the mortgage lender has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for 18 months after the date it sells the loan, and the investor has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer upon purchasing the loan. If, however, the mortgage lender sells a fractional interest in the consumer's loan to an investor but also retains an ownership interest in the loan, the mortgage lender continues to have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer, but the investor does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. If the mortgage lender retains ownership of the loan, but sells ownership of the servicing rights to the consumer's loan, the mortgage lender continues to have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. The purchaser of the servicing rights also has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer as of the date it purchases ownership of the servicing rights, but only if it collects payments from or otherwise deals directly with the consumer on a continuing basis.
</P>
<P>(D) If a consumer applies to a depository institution for a product or service that it offers, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(E) If a consumer makes a telephone inquiry to a depository institution about its products or services and provides contact information to the institution, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(F) If a consumer makes an inquiry to a depository institution by e-mail about its products or services, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(G) If a consumer has an existing relationship with a depository institution that is part of a group of affiliated companies, makes a telephone call to the centralized call center for the group of affiliated companies to inquire about products or services offered by the insurance affiliate, and provides contact information to the call center, the call constitutes an inquiry to the insurance affiliate that offers those products or services. The insurance affiliate has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from its affiliated depository institution to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples where no pre-existing business relationship is created.</I> (A) If a consumer makes a telephone call to a centralized call center for a group of affiliated companies to inquire about the consumer's existing account at a depository institution, the call does not constitute an inquiry to any affiliate other than the depository institution that holds the consumer's account and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and any affiliate of the account-holding depository institution.
</P>
<P>(B) If a consumer who has a deposit account with a depository institution makes a telephone call to an affiliate of the institution to ask about the affiliate's retail locations and hours, but does not make an inquiry about the affiliate's products or services, the call does not constitute an inquiry and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the affiliate. Also, the affiliate's capture of the consumer's telephone number does not constitute an inquiry and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(C) If a consumer makes a telephone call to a depository institution in response to an advertisement that offers a free promotional item to consumers who call a toll-free number, but the advertisement does not indicate that the depository institution's products or services will be marketed to consumers who call in response, the call does not create a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the depository institution because the consumer has not made an inquiry about a product or service offered by the institution, but has merely responded to an offer for a free promotional item.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Solicitation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “solicitation” means the marketing of a product or service initiated by a person to a particular consumer that is—
</P>
<P>(A) Based on eligibility information communicated to that person by its affiliate as described in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intended to encourage the consumer to purchase or obtain such product or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusion of marketing directed at the general public.</I> A solicitation does not include marketing communications that are directed at the general public. For example, television, general circulation magazine, and billboard advertisements do not constitute solicitations, even if those communications are intended to encourage consumers to purchase products and services from the person initiating the communications.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples of solicitations.</I> A solicitation would include, for example, a telemarketing call, direct mail, e-mail, or other form of marketing communication directed to a particular consumer that is based on eligibility information received from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>You</I> means a person described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.21   Affiliate marketing opt-out and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial notice and opt-out requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> You may not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation for marketing purposes to the consumer, unless—
</P>
<P>(i) It is clearly and conspicuously disclosed to the consumer in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically, in a concise notice that you may use eligibility information about that consumer received from an affiliate to make solicitations for marketing purposes to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer is provided a reasonable opportunity and a reasonable and simple method to “opt out,” or prohibit you from using eligibility information to make solicitations for marketing purposes to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer has not opted out.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A consumer has a homeowner's insurance policy with an insurance company. The insurance company furnishes eligibility information about the consumer to its affiliated depository institution. Based on that eligibility information, the depository institution wants to make a solicitation to the consumer about its home equity loan products. The depository institution does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and none of the other exceptions apply. The depository institution is prohibited from using eligibility information received from its insurance affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its home equity loan products unless the consumer is given a notice and opportunity to opt out and the consumer does not opt out.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates who may provide the notice.</I> The notice required by this paragraph must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) By an affiliate that has or has previously had a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of a joint notice from two or more members of an affiliated group of companies, provided that at least one of the affiliates on the joint notice has or has previously had a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Making solicitations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, you make a solicitation for marketing purposes if—
</P>
<P>(i) You receive eligibility information from an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) You use that eligibility information to do one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify the consumer or type of consumer to receive a solicitation;
</P>
<P>(B) Establish criteria used to select the consumer to receive a solicitation; or
</P>
<P>(C) Decide which of your products or services to market to the consumer or tailor your solicitation to that consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) As a result of your use of the eligibility information, the consumer is provided a solicitation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receiving eligibility information from an affiliate, including through a common database.</I> You may receive eligibility information from an affiliate in various ways, including when the affiliate places that information into a common database that you may access.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Receipt or use of eligibility information by your service provider.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, you receive or use an affiliate's eligibility information if a service provider acting on your behalf (whether an affiliate or a nonaffiliated third party) receives or uses that information in the manner described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section. All relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether a person is acting as your service provider when it receives or uses an affiliate's eligibility information in connection with marketing your products and services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use by an affiliate of its own eligibility information.</I> Unless you have used eligibility information that you receive from an affiliate in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, you do not make a solicitation subject to this subpart if your affiliate:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses its own eligibility information that it obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer to market your products or services to the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Directs its service provider to use the affiliate's own eligibility information that it obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer to market your products or services to the consumer, and you do not communicate directly with the service provider regarding that use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of eligibility information by a service provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> You do not make a solicitation subject to Subpart C of this part if a service provider (including an affiliated or third-party service provider that maintains or accesses a common database that you may access) receives eligibility information from your affiliate that your affiliate obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer and uses that eligibility information to market your products or services to the consumer, so long as—
</P>
<P>(A) Your affiliate controls access to and use of its eligibility information by the service provider (including the right to establish the specific terms and conditions under which the service provider may use such information to market your products or services);
</P>
<P>(B) Your affiliate establishes specific terms and conditions under which the service provider may access and use the affiliate's eligibility information to market your products and services (or those of affiliates generally) to the consumer, such as the identity of the affiliated companies whose products or services may be marketed to the consumer by the service provider, the types of products or services of affiliated companies that may be marketed, and the number of times the consumer may receive marketing materials, and periodically evaluates the service provider's compliance with those terms and conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) Your affiliate requires the service provider to implement reasonable policies and procedures designed to ensure that the service provider uses the affiliate's eligibility information in accordance with the terms and conditions established by the affiliate relating to the marketing of your products or services;
</P>
<P>(D) Your affiliate is identified on or with the marketing materials provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(E) You do not directly use your affiliate's eligibility information in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Writing requirements.</I> (A) The requirements of paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A) and (C) of this section must be set forth in a written agreement between your affiliate and the service provider; and
</P>
<P>(B) The specific terms and conditions established by your affiliate as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) of this section must be set forth in writing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Examples of making solicitations.</I> (i) A consumer has a deposit account with a depository institution, which is affiliated with an insurance company. The insurance company receives eligibility information about the consumer from the depository institution. The insurance company uses that eligibility information to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about insurance products, and, as a result, the insurance company provides a solicitation to the consumer about its insurance products. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insurance company has made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, except that after using the eligibility information to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about insurance products, the insurance company asks the depository institution to send the solicitation to the consumer and the depository institution does so. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insurance company has made a solicitation to the consumer because it used eligibility information about the consumer that it received from an affiliate to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about its products or services, and, as a result, a solicitation was provided to the consumer about the insurance company's products.
</P>
<P>(iii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, except that eligibility information about consumers that have deposit accounts with the depository institution is placed into a common database that all members of the affiliated group of companies may independently access and use. Without using the depository institution's eligibility information, the insurance company develops selection criteria and provides those criteria, marketing materials, and related instructions to the depository institution. The depository institution reviews eligibility information about its own consumers using the selection criteria provided by the insurance company to determine which consumers should receive the insurance company's marketing materials and sends marketing materials about the insurance company's products to those consumers. Even though the insurance company has received eligibility information through the common database as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, it did not use that information to identify consumers or establish selection criteria; instead, the depository institution used its own eligibility information. Therefore, pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iv) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section, except that the depository institution provides the insurance company's criteria to the depository institution's service provider and directs the service provider to use the depository institution's eligibility information to identify depository institution consumers who meet the criteria and to send the insurance company's marketing materials to those consumers. The insurance company does not communicate directly with the service provider regarding the use of the depository institution's information to market its products to the depository institution's consumers. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliated group of companies includes a depository institution, an insurance company, and a service provider. Each affiliate in the group places information about its consumers into a common database. The service provider has access to all information in the common database. The depository institution controls access to and use of its eligibility information by the service provider. This control is set forth in a written agreement between the depository institution and the service provider. The written agreement also requires the service provider to establish reasonable policies and procedures designed to ensure that the service provider uses the depository institution's eligibility information in accordance with specific terms and conditions established by the depository institution relating to the marketing of the products and services of all affiliates, including the insurance company. In a separate written communication, the depository institution specifies the terms and conditions under which the service provider may use the depository institution's eligibility information to market the insurance company's products and services to the depository institution's consumers. The specific terms and conditions are: A list of affiliated companies (including the insurance company) whose products or services may be marketed to the depository institution's consumers by the service provider; the specific products or types of products that may be marketed to the depository institution's consumers by the service provider; the categories of eligibility information that may be used by the service provider in marketing products or services to the depository institution's consumers; the types or categories of the depository institution's consumers to whom the service provider may market products or services of depository institution affiliates; the number and/or types of marketing communications that the service provider may send to the depository institution's consumers; and the length of time during which the service provider may market the products or services of the depository institution's affiliates to its consumers. The depository institution periodically evaluates the service provider's compliance with these terms and conditions. The insurance company asks the service provider to market insurance products to certain consumers who have deposit accounts with the depository institution. Without using the depository institution's eligibility information, the insurance company develops selection criteria and provides those criteria, marketing materials, and related instructions to the service provider. The service provider uses the depository institution's eligibility information from the common database to identify the depository institution's consumers to whom insurance products will be marketed. When the insurance company's marketing materials are provided to the identified consumers, the name of the depository institution is displayed on the insurance marketing materials, an introductory letter that accompanies the marketing materials, an account statement that accompanies the marketing materials, or the envelope containing the marketing materials. The requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section have been satisfied, and the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(vi) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(v) of this section, except that the terms and conditions permit the service provider to use the depository institution's eligibility information to market the products and services of other affiliates to the depository institution's consumers whenever the service provider deems it appropriate to do so. The service provider uses the depository institution's eligibility information in accordance with the discretion afforded to it by the terms and conditions. Because the terms and conditions are not specific, the requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section have not been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> The provisions of this subpart do not apply to you if you use eligibility information that you receive from an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) To make a solicitation for marketing purposes to a consumer with whom you have a pre-existing business relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) To facilitate communications to an individual for whose benefit you provide employee benefit or other services pursuant to a contract with an employer related to and arising out of the current employment relationship or status of the individual as a participant or beneficiary of an employee benefit plan;
</P>
<P>(3) To perform services on behalf of an affiliate, except that this subparagraph shall not be construed as permitting you to send solicitations on behalf of an affiliate if the affiliate would not be permitted to send the solicitation as a result of the election of the consumer to opt out under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) In response to a communication about your products or services initiated by the consumer;
</P>
<P>(5) In response to an authorization or request by the consumer to receive solicitations; or
</P>
<P>(6) If your compliance with this subpart would prevent you from complying with any provision of State insurance laws pertaining to unfair discrimination in any State in which you are lawfully doing business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples of exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Example of the pre-existing business relationship exception.</I> A consumer has a deposit account with a depository institution. The consumer also has a relationship with the depository institution's securities affiliate for management of the consumer's securities portfolio. The depository institution receives eligibility information about the consumer from its securities affiliate and uses that information to make a solicitation to the consumer about the depository institution's wealth management services. The depository institution may make this solicitation even if the consumer has not been given a notice and opportunity to opt out because the depository institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of service provider exception.</I> (i) A consumer has an insurance policy issued by an insurance company. The insurance company furnishes eligibility information about the consumer to its affiliated depository institution. Based on that eligibility information, the depository institution wants to make a solicitation to the consumer about its deposit products. The depository institution does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and none of the other exceptions in paragraph (c) of this section apply. The consumer has been given an opt-out notice and has elected to opt out of receiving such solicitations. The depository institution asks a service provider to send the solicitation to the consumer on its behalf. The service provider may not send the solicitation on behalf of the depository institution because, as a result of the consumer's opt-out election, the depository institution is not permitted to make the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, except the consumer has been given an opt-out notice, but has not elected to opt out. The depository institution asks a service provider to send the solicitation to the consumer on its behalf. The service provider may send the solicitation on behalf of the depository institution because, as a result of the consumer's not opting out, the depository institution is permitted to make the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of consumer-initiated communications.</I> (i) A consumer who has a deposit account with a depository institution initiates a communication with the depository institution's credit card affiliate to request information about a credit card. The credit card affiliate may use eligibility information about the consumer it obtains from the depository institution or any other affiliate to make solicitations regarding credit card products in response to the consumer-initiated communication.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer who has a deposit account with a depository institution contacts the institution to request information about how to save and invest for a child's college education without specifying the type of product in which the consumer may be interested. Information about a range of different products or services offered by the depository institution and one or more affiliates of the institution may be responsive to that communication. Such products or services may include the following: Mutual funds offered by the institution's mutual fund affiliate; section 529 plans offered by the institution, its mutual fund affiliate, or another securities affiliate; or trust services offered by a different financial institution in the affiliated group. Any affiliate offering investment products or services that would be responsive to the consumer's request for information about saving and investing for a child's college education may use eligibility information to make solicitations to the consumer in response to this communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit card issuer makes a marketing call to the consumer without using eligibility information received from an affiliate. The issuer leaves a voice-mail message that invites the consumer to call a toll-free number to apply for the issuer's credit card. If the consumer calls the toll-free number to inquire about the credit card, the call is a consumer-initiated communication about a product or service and the credit card issuer may now use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A consumer calls a depository institution to ask about retail locations and hours, but does not request information about products or services. The institution may not use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services because the consumer-initiated communication does not relate to the depository institution's products or services. Thus, the use of eligibility information received from an affiliate would not be responsive to the communication and the exception does not apply.
</P>
<P>(v) A consumer calls a depository institution to ask about retail locations and hours. The customer service representative asks the consumer if there is a particular product or service about which the consumer is seeking information. The consumer responds that the consumer wants to stop in and find out about certificates of deposit. The customer service representative offers to provide that information by telephone and mail additional information and application materials to the consumer. The consumer agrees and provides or confirms contact information for receipt of the materials to be mailed. The depository institution may use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about certificates of deposit because such solicitations would respond to the consumer-initiated communication about products or services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of consumer authorization or request for solicitations.</I> (i) A consumer who obtains a mortgage from a mortgage lender authorizes or requests information about homeowner's insurance offered by the mortgage lender's insurance affiliate. Such authorization or request, whether given to the mortgage lender or to the insurance affiliate, would permit the insurance affiliate to use eligibility information about the consumer it obtains from the mortgage lender or any other affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about homeowner's insurance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer completes an online application to apply for a credit card from a credit card issuer. The issuer's online application contains a blank check box that the consumer may check to authorize or request information from the credit card issuer's affiliates. The consumer checks the box. The consumer has authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer completes an online application to apply for a credit card from a credit card issuer. The issuer's online application contains a pre-selected check box indicating that the consumer authorizes or requests information from the issuer's affiliates. The consumer does not deselect the check box. The consumer has not authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms and conditions of a credit card account agreement contain preprinted boilerplate language stating that by applying to open an account the consumer authorizes or requests to receive solicitations from the credit card issuer's affiliates. The consumer has not authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relation to affiliate-sharing notice and opt-out.</I> Nothing in this subpart limits the responsibility of a person to comply with the notice and opt-out provisions of section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Act where applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.22" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.22   Scope and duration of opt-out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of opt-out</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the consumer's election to opt out prohibits any affiliate covered by the opt-out notice from using eligibility information received from another affiliate as described in the notice to make solicitations to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Continuing relationship</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If the consumer establishes a continuing relationship with you or your affiliate, an opt-out notice may apply to eligibility information obtained in connection with—
</P>
<P>(A) A single continuing relationship or multiple continuing relationships that the consumer establishes with you or your affiliates, including continuing relationships established subsequent to delivery of the opt-out notice, so long as the notice adequately describes the continuing relationships covered by the opt-out; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any other transaction between the consumer and you or your affiliates as described in the notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Examples of continuing relationships. A consumer has a continuing relationship with you or your affiliate if the consumer—
</P>
<P>(A) Opens a deposit or investment account with you or your affiliate;
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a loan for which you or your affiliate owns the servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(C) Purchases an insurance product from you or your affiliate;
</P>
<P>(D) Holds an investment product through you or your affiliate, such as when you act or your affiliate acts as a custodian for securities or for assets in an individual retirement arrangement;
</P>
<P>(E) Enters into an agreement or understanding with you or your affiliate whereby you or your affiliate undertakes to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(F) Enters into a lease of personal property with you or your affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(G) Obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from you or your affiliate for a fee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No continuing relationship</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If there is no continuing relationship between a consumer and you or your affiliate, and you or your affiliate obtain eligibility information about a consumer in connection with a transaction with the consumer, such as an isolated transaction or a credit application that is denied, an opt-out notice provided to the consumer only applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with that transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of isolated transactions.</I> An isolated transaction occurs if—
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer uses your or your affiliate's ATM to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(B) You or your affiliate sells the consumer a cashier's check or money order, airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Menu of alternatives.</I> A consumer may be given the opportunity to choose from a menu of alternatives when electing to prohibit solicitations, such as by electing to prohibit solicitations from certain types of affiliates covered by the opt-out notice but not other types of affiliates covered by the notice, electing to prohibit solicitations based on certain types of eligibility information but not other types of eligibility information, or electing to prohibit solicitations by certain methods of delivery but not other methods of delivery. However, one of the alternatives must allow the consumer to prohibit all solicitations from all of the affiliates that are covered by the notice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for a notice following termination of all continuing relationships</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A consumer must be given a new opt-out notice if, after all continuing relationships with you or your affiliate(s) are terminated, the consumer subsequently establishes another continuing relationship with you or your affiliate(s) and the consumer's eligibility information is to be used to make a solicitation. The new opt-out notice must apply, at a minimum, to eligibility information obtained in connection with the new continuing relationship. Consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, the consumer's decision not to opt out after receiving the new opt-out notice would not override a prior opt-out election by the consumer that applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with a terminated relationship, regardless of whether the new opt-out notice applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with the terminated relationship.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> A consumer has a checking account with a depository institution that is part of an affiliated group. The consumer closes the checking account. One year after closing the checking account, the consumer opens a savings account with the same depository institution. The consumer must be given a new notice and opportunity to opt out before the depository institution's affiliates may make solicitations to the consumer using eligibility information obtained by the depository institution in connection with the new savings account relationship, regardless of whether the consumer opted out in connection with the checking account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of opt-out.</I> The election of a consumer to opt out must be effective for a period of at least five years (the “opt-out period”) beginning when the consumer's opt-out election is received and implemented, unless the consumer subsequently revokes the opt-out in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. An opt-out period of more than five years may be established, including an opt-out period that does not expire unless revoked by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time of opt-out.</I> A consumer may opt out at any time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.23" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.23   Contents of opt-out notice; consolidated and equivalent notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of opt-out notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A notice must be clear, conspicuous, and concise, and must accurately disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the affiliate(s) providing the notice. If the notice is provided jointly by multiple affiliates and each affiliate shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it is being provided by multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates providing the joint notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or by “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies”;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of the affiliates or types of affiliates whose use of eligibility information is covered by the notice, which may include companies that become affiliates after the notice is provided to the consumer. If each affiliate covered by the notice shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it applies to multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates covered by the notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each covered affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice applies to “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or to “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies”;
</P>
<P>(iii) A general description of the types of eligibility information that may be used to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the consumer may elect to limit the use of eligibility information to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(v) That the consumer's election will apply for the specified period of time stated in the notice and, if applicable, that the consumer will be allowed to renew the election once that period expires;
</P>
<P>(vi) If the notice is provided to consumers who may have previously opted out, such as if a notice is provided to consumers annually, that the consumer who has chosen to limit solicitations does not need to act again until the consumer receives a renewal notice; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A reasonable and simple method for the consumer to opt out.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint relationships.</I> (i) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a product or service, a single opt-out notice may be provided to the joint consumers. Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out.
</P>
<P>(ii) The opt-out notice must explain how an opt-out direction by a joint consumer will be treated. An opt-out direction by a joint consumer may be treated as applying to all of the associated joint consumers, or each joint consumer may be permitted to opt out separately. If each joint consumer is permitted to opt out separately, one of the joint consumers must be permitted to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers and the joint consumers must be permitted to exercise their separate rights to opt out in a single response.
</P>
<P>(iii) It is impermissible to require <I>all</I> joint consumers to opt out before implementing <I>any</I> opt-out direction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative contents.</I> If the consumer is afforded a broader right to opt out of receiving marketing than is required by this subpart, the requirements of this section may be satisfied by providing the consumer with a clear, conspicuous, and concise notice that accurately discloses the consumer's opt-out rights.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Model notices.</I> Model notices are provided in appendix C of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordinated and consolidated notices.</I> A notice required by this subpart may be coordinated and consolidated with any other notice or disclosure required to be issued under any other provision of law by the entity providing the notice, including but not limited to the notice described in section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Act and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act privacy notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equivalent notices.</I> A notice or other disclosure that is equivalent to the notice required by this subpart, and that is provided to a consumer together with disclosures required by any other provision of law, satisfies the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.24" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.24   Reasonable opportunity to opt out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation to the consumer about your products or services, unless the consumer is provided a reasonable opportunity to opt out, as required by § 222.21(a)(1)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of a reasonable opportunity to opt out.</I> The consumer is given a reasonable opportunity to opt out if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>By mail.</I> The opt-out notice is mailed to the consumer. The consumer is given 30 days from the date the notice is mailed to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By electronic means.</I> (i) The opt-out notice is provided electronically to the consumer, such as by posting the notice at an Internet Web site at which the consumer has obtained a product or service. The consumer acknowledges receipt of the electronic notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the date the consumer acknowledges receipt to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(ii) The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer by e-mail where the consumer has agreed to receive disclosures by e-mail from the person sending the notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the e-mail is sent to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>At the time of an electronic transaction.</I> The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer at the time of an electronic transaction, such as a transaction conducted on an Internet Web site. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction. There is a simple process that the consumer may use to opt out at that time using the same mechanism through which the transaction is conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>At the time of an in-person transaction.</I> The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer in writing at the time of an in-person transaction. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction, and is not permitted to complete the transaction without making a choice. There is a simple process that the consumer may use during the course of the in-person transaction to opt out, such as completing a form that requires consumers to write a “yes” or “no” to indicate their opt-out preference or that requires the consumer to check one of two blank check boxes—one that allows consumers to indicate that they want to opt out and one that allows consumers to indicate that they do not want to opt out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>By including in a privacy notice.</I> The opt-out notice is included in a Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act privacy notice. The consumer is allowed to exercise the opt-out within a reasonable period of time and in the same manner as the opt-out under that privacy notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.25" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.25   Reasonable and simple methods of opting out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation to the consumer about your products or services, unless the consumer is provided a reasonable and simple method to opt out, as required by § 222.21(a)(1)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Reasonable and simple opt-out methods.</I> Reasonable and simple methods for exercising the opt-out right include—
</P>
<P>(i) Designating a check-off box in a prominent position on the opt-out form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Including a reply form and a self-addressed envelope together with the opt-out notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing an electronic means to opt out, such as a form that can be electronically mailed or processed at an Internet Web site, if the consumer agrees to the electronic delivery of information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing a toll-free telephone number that consumers may call to opt out; or
</P>
<P>(v) Allowing consumers to exercise all of their opt-out rights described in a consolidated opt-out notice that includes the privacy opt-out under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> the affiliate sharing opt-out under the Act, and the affiliate marketing opt-out under the Act, by a single method, such as by calling a single toll-free telephone number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt-out methods that are not reasonable and simple.</I> Reasonable and simple methods for exercising an opt-out right <I>do not</I> include—
</P>
<P>(i) Requiring the consumer to write his or her own letter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring the consumer to call or write to obtain a form for opting out, rather than including the form with the opt-out notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requiring the consumer who receives the opt-out notice in electronic form only, such as through posting at an Internet Web site, to opt out solely by paper mail or by visiting a different Web site without providing a link to that site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific opt-out means.</I> Each consumer may be required to opt out through a specific means, as long as that means is reasonable and simple for that consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.26" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.26   Delivery of opt-out notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The opt-out notice must be provided so that each consumer can reasonably be expected to receive actual notice. For opt-out notices provided electronically, the notice may be provided in compliance with either the electronic disclosure provisions in this subpart or the provisions in section 101 of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> A consumer may reasonably be expected to receive actual notice if the affiliate providing the notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Hand-delivers a printed copy of the notice to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) Mails a printed copy of the notice to the last known mailing address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a notice by e-mail to a consumer who has agreed to receive electronic disclosures by e-mail from the affiliate providing the notice; or
</P>
<P>(4) Posts the notice on the Internet Web site at which the consumer obtained a product or service electronically and requires the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of no reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> A consumer may <I>not</I> reasonably be expected to receive actual notice if the affiliate providing the notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Only posts the notice on a sign in a branch or office or generally publishes the notice in a newspaper;
</P>
<P>(2) Sends the notice via e-mail to a consumer who has not agreed to receive electronic disclosures by e-mail from the affiliate providing the notice; or
</P>
<P>(3) Posts the notice on an Internet Web site without requiring the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.27" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.27   Renewal of opt-out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Renewal notice and opt-out requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> After the opt-out period expires, you may not make solicitations based on eligibility information you receive from an affiliate to a consumer who previously opted out, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer has been given a renewal notice that complies with the requirements of this section and §§ 222.24 through 222.26 of this part, and a reasonable opportunity and a reasonable and simple method to renew the opt-out, and the consumer does not renew the opt-out; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An exception in § 222.21(c) of this part applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renewal period.</I> Each opt-out renewal must be effective for a period of at least five years as provided in § 222.22(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates who may provide the notice.</I> The notice required by this paragraph must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) By the affiliate that provided the previous opt-out notice, or its successor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of a joint renewal notice from two or more members of an affiliated group of companies, or their successors, that jointly provided the previous opt-out notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of renewal notice.</I> The renewal notice must be clear, conspicuous, and concise, and must accurately disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the affiliate(s) providing the notice. If the notice is provided jointly by multiple affiliates and each affiliate shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it is being provided by multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates providing the joint notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or by “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies”;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the affiliates or types of affiliates whose use of eligibility information is covered by the notice, which may include companies that become affiliates after the notice is provided to the consumer. If each affiliate covered by the notice shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it applies to multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates covered by the notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each covered affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice applies to “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or to “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies”;
</P>
<P>(3) A general description of the types of eligibility information that may be used to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(4) That the consumer previously elected to limit the use of certain information to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(5) That the consumer's election has expired or is about to expire;
</P>
<P>(6) That the consumer may elect to renew the consumer's previous election;
</P>
<P>(7) If applicable, that the consumer's election to renew will apply for the specified period of time stated in the notice and that the consumer will be allowed to renew the election once that period expires; and
</P>
<P>(8) A reasonable and simple method for the consumer to opt out.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of the renewal notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A renewal notice may be provided to the consumer either—
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time before the expiration of the opt-out period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any time after the expiration of the opt-out period but before solicitations that would have been prohibited by the expired opt-out are made to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combination with annual privacy notice.</I> If you provide an annual privacy notice under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> providing a renewal notice with the last annual privacy notice provided to the consumer before expiration of the opt-out period is a reasonable period of time before expiration of the opt-out in all cases.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No effect on opt-out period.</I> An opt-out period may not be shortened by sending a renewal notice to the consumer before expiration of the opt-out period, even if the consumer does not renew the opt out.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.28" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.3.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.28   Effective date, compliance date, and prospective application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> This subpart is effective January 1, 2008.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory compliance date.</I> Compliance with this subpart is required not later than October 1, 2008.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prospective application.</I> The provisions of this subpart shall not prohibit you from using eligibility information that you receive from an affiliate to make solicitations to a consumer if you receive such information prior to October 1, 2008. For purposes of this section, you are deemed to receive eligibility information when such information is placed into a common database and is accessible by you.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Medical Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 70679, Nov. 22, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.30" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.30   Obtaining or using medical information in connection with a determination of eligibility for credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the following that participates as a creditor in a transaction—
</P>
<P>(i) A bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or Agency of a foreign bank (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks) and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iii) A commercial lending company owned or controlled by foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(iv) An organization operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(v) A bank holding company and an affiliate of such holding company (other than depository institutions and consumer reporting agencies); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person that participates as a creditor in a transaction involving a person described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General prohibition on obtaining or using medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may not obtain or use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit</I> means the consumer's qualification or fitness to receive, or continue to receive, credit, including the terms on which credit is offered. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any determination of the consumer's qualification or fitness for employment, insurance (other than a credit insurance product), or other non-credit products or services;
</P>
<P>(B) Authorizing, processing, or documenting a payment or transaction on behalf of the consumer in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit; or
</P>
<P>(C) Maintaining or servicing the consumer's account in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction for obtaining and using unsolicited medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if it receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit without specifically requesting medical information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of unsolicited medical information.</I> A creditor that receives unsolicited medical information in the manner described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may use that information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to the extent the creditor can rely on at least one of the exceptions in § 222.30(d) or (e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) In response to a general question regarding a consumer's debts or expenses, the creditor receives information that the consumer owes a debt to a hospital.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a conversation with the creditor's loan officer, the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer has a particular medical condition.
</P>
<P>(iii) In connection with a consumer's application for an extension of credit, the creditor requests a consumer report from a consumer reporting agency and receives medical information in the consumer report furnished by the agency even though the creditor did not specifically request medical information from the consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial information exception for obtaining and using medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The information is the type of information routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations, such as information relating to debts, expenses, income, benefits, assets, collateral, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor uses the medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable information that is not medical information in a credit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account as part of any such determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Examples of the types of information routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations.</I> Paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section permits a creditor, for example, to obtain and use information about:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar amount, repayment terms, repayment history, and similar information regarding medical debts to calculate, measure, or verify the repayment ability of the consumer, the use of proceeds, or the terms for granting credit;
</P>
<P>(B) The value, condition, and lien status of a medical device that may serve as collateral to secure a loan;
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amount and continued eligibility for disability income, workers' compensation income, or other benefits related to health or a medical condition that is relied on as a source of repayment; or
</P>
<P>(D) The identity of creditors to whom outstanding medical debts are owed in connection with an application for credit, including but not limited to, a transaction involving the consolidation of medical debts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of uses of medical information consistent with the exception.</I> (A) A consumer includes on an application for credit information about two $20,000 debts. One debt is to a hospital; the other debt is to a retailer. The creditor contacts the hospital and the retailer to verify the amount and payment status of the debts. The creditor learns that both debts are more than 90 days past due. Any two debts of this size that are more than 90 days past due would disqualify the consumer under the creditor's established underwriting criteria. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the consumer has a poor repayment history on outstanding debts. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(B) A consumer indicates on an application for a $200,000 mortgage loan that she receives $15,000 in long-term disability income each year from her former employer and has no other income. Annual income of $15,000, regardless of source, would not be sufficient to support the requested amount of credit. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the projected debt-to-income ratio of the consumer does not meet the creditor's underwriting criteria. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(C) A consumer includes on an application for a $10,000 home equity loan that he has a $50,000 debt to a medical facility that specializes in treating a potentially terminal disease. The creditor contacts the medical facility to verify the debt and obtain the repayment history and current status of the loan. The creditor learns that the debt is current. The applicant meets the income and other requirements of the creditor's underwriting guidelines. The creditor grants the application. The creditor has used medical information in accordance with the exception.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples of uses of medical information inconsistent with the exception.</I> (A) A consumer applies for $25,000 of credit and includes on the application information about a $50,000 debt to a hospital. The creditor contacts the hospital to verify the amount and payment status of the debt, and learns that the debt is current and that the consumer has no delinquencies in her repayment history. If the existing debt were instead owed to a retail department store, the creditor would approve the application and extend credit based on the amount and repayment history of the outstanding debt. The creditor, however, denies the application because the consumer is indebted to a hospital. The creditor has used medical information, here the identity of the medical creditor, in a manner and to an extent that is less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(B) A consumer meets with a loan officer of a creditor to apply for a mortgage loan. While filling out the loan application, the consumer informs the loan officer orally that she has a potentially terminal disease. The consumer meets the creditor's established requirements for the requested mortgage loan. The loan officer recommends to the credit committee that the consumer be denied credit because the consumer has that disease. The credit committee follows the loan officer's recommendation and denies the application because the consumer has a potentially terminal disease. The creditor has used medical information in a manner inconsistent with the exception by taking into account the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition, or history, type of treatment, or prognosis as part of a determination of eligibility or continued eligibility for credit.
</P>
<P>(C) A consumer who has an apparent medical condition, such as a consumer who uses a wheelchair or an oxygen tank, meets with a loan officer to apply for a home equity loan. The consumer meets the creditor's established requirements for the requested home equity loan and the creditor typically does not require consumers to obtain a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product in connection with such loans. However, based on the consumer's apparent medical condition, the loan officer recommends to the credit committee that credit be extended to the consumer only if the consumer obtains a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product from a nonaffiliated third party. The credit committee agrees with the loan officer's recommendation. The loan officer informs the consumer that the consumer must obtain a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product from a nonaffiliated third party to qualify for the loan. The consumer obtains one of these products and the creditor approves the loan. The creditor has used medical information in a manner inconsistent with the exception by taking into account the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition, or history, type of treatment, or prognosis in setting conditions on the consumer's eligibility for credit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific exceptions for obtaining and using medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit—
</P>
<P>(i) To determine whether the use of a power of attorney or legal representative that is triggered by a medical condition or event is necessary and appropriate or whether the consumer has the legal capacity to contract when a person seeks to exercise a power of attorney or act as legal representative for a consumer based on an asserted medical condition or event;
</P>
<P>(ii) To comply with applicable requirements of local, state, or Federal laws;
</P>
<P>(iii) To determine, at the consumer's request, whether the consumer qualifies for a legally permissible special credit program or credit-related assistance program that is—
</P>
<P>(A) Designed to meet the special needs of consumers with medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(B) Established and administered pursuant to a written plan that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit or providing other credit-related assistance under the program;
</P>
<P>(iv) To the extent necessary for purposes of fraud prevention or detection;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of credit for the purpose of financing medical products or services, to determine and verify the medical purpose of a loan and the use of proceeds;
</P>
<P>(vi) Consistent with safe and sound practices, if the consumer or the consumer's legal representative specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, and such request is documented by the creditor;
</P>
<P>(vii) Consistent with safe and sound practices, to determine whether the provisions of a forbearance practice or program that is triggered by a medical condition or event apply to a consumer;
</P>
<P>(viii) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the contract or agreement; or
</P>
<P>(ix) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a credit insurance product if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the product.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example of determining eligibility for a special credit program or credit assistance program.</I> A not-for-profit organization establishes a credit assistance program pursuant to a written plan that is designed to assist disabled veterans in purchasing homes by subsidizing the down payment for the home purchase mortgage loans of qualifying veterans. The organization works through mortgage lenders and requires mortgage lenders to obtain medical information about the disability of any consumer that seeks to qualify for the program, use that information to verify the consumer's eligibility for the program, and forward that information to the organization. A consumer who is a veteran applies to a creditor for a home purchase mortgage loan. The creditor informs the consumer about the credit assistance program for disabled veterans and the consumer seeks to qualify for the program. Assuming that the program complies with all applicable law, including applicable fair lending laws, the creditor may obtain and use medical information about the medical condition and disability, if any, of the consumer to determine whether the consumer qualifies for the credit assistance program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of verifying the medical purpose of the loan or the use of proceeds.</I> (i) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing vision correction surgery, the creditor may verify with the surgeon that the procedure will be performed. If the surgeon reports that surgery will not be performed on the consumer, the creditor may use that medical information to deny the consumer's application for credit, because the loan would not be used for the stated purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing cosmetic surgery, the creditor may confirm the cost of the procedure with the surgeon. If the surgeon reports that the cost of the procedure is $5,000, the creditor may use that medical information to offer the consumer only $5,000 of credit.
</P>
<P>(iii) A creditor has an established medical loan program for financing particular elective surgical procedures. The creditor receives a loan application from a consumer requesting $10,000 of credit under the established loan program for an elective surgical procedure. The consumer indicates on the application that the purpose of the loan is to finance an elective surgical procedure not eligible for funding under the guidelines of the established loan program. The creditor may deny the consumer's application because the purpose of the loan is not for a particular procedure funded by the established loan program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of obtaining and using medical information at the request of the consumer.</I> (i) If a consumer applies for a loan and specifically requests that the creditor consider the consumer's medical disability at the relevant time as an explanation for adverse payment history information in his credit report, the creditor may consider such medical information in evaluating the consumer's willingness and ability to repay the requested loan to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, consistent with safe and sound practices. The creditor may also decline to consider such medical information to accommodate the consumer, but may evaluate the consumer's application in accordance with its otherwise applicable underwriting criteria. The creditor may not deny the consumer's application or otherwise treat the consumer less favorably because the consumer specifically requested a medical accommodation, if the creditor would have extended the credit or treated the consumer more favorably under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a consumer applies for a loan by telephone and explains that his income has been and will continue to be interrupted on account of a medical condition and that he expects to repay the loan by liquidating assets, the creditor may, but is not required to, evaluate the application using the sale of assets as the primary source of repayment, consistent with safe and sound practices, provided that the creditor documents the consumer's request by recording the oral conversation or making a notation of the request in the consumer's file.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a consumer applies for a loan and the application form provides a space where the consumer may provide any other information or special circumstances, whether medical or non-medical, that the consumer would like the creditor to consider in evaluating the consumer's application, the creditor may use medical information provided by the consumer in that space on that application to accommodate the consumer's application for credit, consistent with safe and sound practices, or may disregard that information.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a consumer specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit and provides the creditor with medical information for that purpose, and the creditor determines that it needs additional information regarding the consumer's circumstances, the creditor may request, obtain, and use additional medical information about the consumer as necessary to verify the information provided by the consumer or to determine whether to make an accommodation for the consumer. The consumer may decline to provide additional information, withdraw the request for an accommodation, and have the application considered under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(v) If a consumer completes and signs a credit application that is not for medical purpose credit and the application contains boilerplate language that routinely requests medical information from the consumer or that indicates that by applying for credit the consumer authorizes or consents to the creditor obtaining and using medical information in connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, the consumer has not specifically requested that the creditor obtain and use medical information to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example of a forbearance practice or program.</I> After an appropriate safety and soundness review, a creditor institutes a program that allows consumers who are or will be hospitalized to defer payments as needed for up to three months, without penalty, if the credit account has been open for more than one year and has not previously been in default, and the consumer provides confirming documentation at an appropriate time. A consumer is hospitalized and does not pay her bill for a particular month. This consumer has had a credit account with the creditor for more than one year and has not previously been in default. The creditor attempts to contact the consumer and speaks with the consumer's adult child, who is not the consumer's legal representative. The adult child informs the creditor that the consumer is hospitalized and is unable to pay the bill at that time. The creditor defers payments for up to three months, without penalty, for the hospitalized consumer and sends the consumer a letter confirming this practice and the date on which the next payment will be due. The creditor has obtained and used medical information to determine whether the provisions of a medically-triggered forbearance practice or program apply to a consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.31   Limits on redisclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>), and bank holding companies and affiliates of such holding companies (other than depository institutions and consumer reporting agencies).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits on redisclosure.</I> If a person described in paragraph (a) of this section receives medical information about a consumer from a consumer reporting agency or its affiliate, the person must not disclose that information to any other person, except as necessary to carry out the purpose for which the information was initially disclosed, or as otherwise permitted by statute, regulation, or order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.32" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.32   Sharing medical information with affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> The exclusions from the term “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2) of the Act that allow the sharing of information with affiliates do not apply to a person described in paragraph (a) of this section if that person communicates to an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) Medical information;
</P>
<P>(2) An individualized list or description based on the payment transactions of the consumer for medical products or services; or
</P>
<P>(3) An aggregate list of identified consumers based on payment transactions for medical products or services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> A person described in paragraph (a) of this section may rely on the exclusions from the term “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2) of the Act to communicate the information in paragraph (b) of this section to an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with the business of insurance or annuities (including the activities described in section 18B of the model Privacy of Consumer Financial and Health Information Regulation issued by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners, as in effect on January 1, 2003);
</P>
<P>(2) For any purpose permitted without authorization under the regulations promulgated by the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA);
</P>
<P>(3) For any purpose referred to in section 1179 of HIPAA;
</P>
<P>(4) For any purpose described in section 502(e) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act;
</P>
<P>(5) In connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit consistent with § 222.30 of this part; or
</P>
<P>(6) As otherwise permitted by order of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Duties of Furnishers of Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 31514, July 1, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.40" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart E of this part applies to member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries that are not functionally regulated within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)), branches and Agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal Agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.41" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart and appendix E of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accuracy</I> means that information that a furnisher provides to a consumer reporting agency about an account or other relationship with the consumer correctly:
</P>
<P>(1) Reflects the terms of and liability for the account or other relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the consumer's performance and other conduct with respect to the account or other relationship; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identifies the appropriate consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct dispute</I> means a dispute submitted directly to a furnisher (including a furnisher that is a debt collector) by a consumer concerning the accuracy of any information contained in a consumer report and pertaining to an account or other relationship that the furnisher has or had with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Furnisher</I> means an entity that furnishes information relating to consumers to one or more consumer reporting agencies for inclusion in a consumer report. An entity is not a furnisher when it:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides information to a consumer reporting agency solely to obtain a consumer report in accordance with sections 604(a) and (f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Is acting as a “consumer reporting agency” as defined in section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a consumer to whom the furnished information pertains; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is a neighbor, friend, or associate of the consumer, or another individual with whom the consumer is acquainted or who may have knowledge about the consumer, and who provides information about the consumer's character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living in response to a specific request from a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Identity theft</I> has the same meaning as in 16 CFR 603.2(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Integrity</I> means that information that a furnisher provides to a consumer reporting agency about an account or other relationship with the consumer:
</P>
<P>(1) Is substantiated by the furnisher's records at the time it is furnished;
</P>
<P>(2) Is furnished in a form and manner that is designed to minimize the likelihood that the information may be incorrectly reflected in a consumer report; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes the information in the furnisher's possession about the account or other relationship that the Board has:
</P>
<P>(i) Determined that the absence of which would likely be materially misleading in evaluating a consumer's creditworthiness, credit standing, credit capacity, character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Listed in section I.(b)(2)(iii) of appendix E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.5.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.42   Reasonable policies and procedures concerning the accuracy and integrity of furnished information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> Each furnisher must establish and implement reasonable written policies and procedures regarding the accuracy and integrity of the information relating to consumers that it furnishes to a consumer reporting agency. The policies and procedures must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of each furnisher's activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each furnisher must consider the guidelines in appendix E of this part in developing its policies and procedures required by this section, and incorporate those guidelines that are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reviewing and updating policies and procedures.</I> Each furnisher must review its policies and procedures required by this section periodically and update them as necessary to ensure their continued effectiveness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.5.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.43   Direct disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a furnisher must conduct a reasonable investigation of a direct dispute if it relates to:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's liability for a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to whether there is or has been identity theft or fraud against the consumer, whether there is individual or joint liability on an account, or whether the consumer is an authorized user of a credit account;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to the type of account, principal balance, scheduled payment amount on an account, or the amount of the credit limit on an open-end account;
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer's performance or other conduct concerning an account or other relationship with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to the current payment status, high balance, date a payment was made, the amount of a payment made, or the date an account was opened or closed; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information contained in a consumer report regarding an account or other relationship with the furnisher that bears on the consumer's creditworthiness, credit standing, credit capacity, character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to a furnisher if:
</P>
<P>(1) The direct dispute relates to:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer's identifying information (other than a direct dispute relating to a consumer's liability for a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) such as name(s), date of birth, Social Security number, telephone number(s), or address(es);
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of past or present employers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Inquiries or requests for a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information derived from public records, such as judgments, bankruptcies, liens, and other legal matters (unless provided by a furnisher with an account or other relationship with the consumer);
</P>
<P>(v) Information related to fraud alerts or active duty alerts; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Information provided to a consumer reporting agency by another furnisher; or
</P>
<P>(2) The furnisher has a reasonable belief that the direct dispute is submitted by, is prepared on behalf of the consumer by, or is submitted on a form supplied to the consumer by, a credit repair organization, as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3), or an entity that would be a credit repair organization, but for 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3)(B)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct dispute address.</I> A furnisher is required to investigate a direct dispute only if a consumer submits a dispute notice to the furnisher at:
</P>
<P>(1) The address of a furnisher provided by a furnisher and set forth on a consumer report relating to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) An address clearly and conspicuously specified by the furnisher for submitting direct disputes that is provided to the consumer in writing or electronically (if the consumer has agreed to the electronic delivery of information from the furnisher); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any business address of the furnisher if the furnisher has not so specified and provided an address for submitting direct disputes under paragraphs (c)(1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Direct dispute notice contents.</I> A dispute notice must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient information to identify the account or other relationship that is in dispute, such as an account number and the name, address, and telephone number of the consumer, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific information that the consumer is disputing and an explanation of the basis for the dispute; and
</P>
<P>(3) All supporting documentation or other information reasonably required by the furnisher to substantiate the basis of the dispute. This documentation may include, for example: a copy of the relevant portion of the consumer report that contains the allegedly inaccurate information; a police report; a fraud or identity theft affidavit; a court order; or account statements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duty of furnisher after receiving a direct dispute notice.</I> After receiving a dispute notice from a consumer pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the furnisher must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a reasonable investigation with respect to the disputed information;
</P>
<P>(2) Review all relevant information provided by the consumer with the dispute notice;
</P>
<P>(3) Complete its investigation of the dispute and report the results of the investigation to the consumer before the expiration of the period under section 611(a)(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681i(a)(1)) within which a consumer reporting agency would be required to complete its action if the consumer had elected to dispute the information under that section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the investigation finds that the information reported was inaccurate, promptly notify each consumer reporting agency to which the furnisher provided inaccurate information of that determination and provide to the consumer reporting agency any correction to that information that is necessary to make the information provided by the furnisher accurate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Frivolous or irrelevant disputes.</I> (1) A furnisher is not required to investigate a direct dispute if the furnisher has reasonably determined that the dispute is frivolous or irrelevant. A dispute qualifies as frivolous or irrelevant if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer did not provide sufficient information to investigate the disputed information as required by paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The direct dispute is substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted by or on behalf of the consumer, either directly to the furnisher or through a consumer reporting agency, with respect to which the furnisher has already satisfied the applicable requirements of the Act or this section; provided, however, that a direct dispute is not substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted if the dispute includes information listed in paragraph (d) of this section that had not previously been provided to the furnisher; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The furnisher is not required to investigate the direct dispute because one or more of the exceptions listed in paragraph (b) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of determination.</I> Upon making a determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant, the furnisher must notify the consumer of the determination not later than five business days after making the determination, by mail or, if authorized by the consumer for that purpose, by any other means available to the furnisher.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of notice of determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant.</I> A notice of determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant must include the reasons for such determination and identify any information required to investigate the disputed information, which notice may consist of a standardized form describing the general nature of such information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Duties of Users Regarding Risk-Based Pricing</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 2752, January 15, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.70" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.70   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This subpart applies to any person that both—
</P>
<P>(i) Uses a consumer report in connection with an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to a consumer that is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit to the consumer on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable material terms available to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business credit excluded.</I> This subpart does not apply to an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to a consumer or to any other applicant primarily for a business purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relation to Federal Trade Commission rules.</I> These rules are substantively identical to the Federal Trade Commission's (Commission's) risk-based pricing rules in 16 CFR 640. Both rules apply to the covered person described in paragraph (a) of this section. Compliance with either the Board's rules or the Commission's rules satisfies the requirements of the statute (15 U.S.C. 1681m(h)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement.</I> The provisions of this subpart will be enforced in accordance with the enforcement authority set forth in sections 621(a) and (b) of the FCRA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.71" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adverse action</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(k)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual percentage rate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 226.14(b) with respect to an open-end credit plan and as in 12 CFR 226.22 with respect to closed-end credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Closed-end credit</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 226.2(a)(10).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consummation</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 226.2(a)(13).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Credit card</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(2).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Credit card issuer</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Credit score</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681g(f)(2)(A).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Firm offer of credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(l).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Material terms</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (n)(1)(ii) and (n)(3) of this section, in the case of credit extended under an open-end credit plan, the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 226.6(a)(1)(ii) or 12 CFR 226.6(b)(2)(i), excluding any temporary initial rate that is lower than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, any penalty rate that will apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, and any fixed annual percentage rate option for a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a credit card (other than a credit card that is used to access a home equity line of credit or a charge card), the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 226.6(b)(2)(i) that applies to purchases (“purchase annual percentage rate”) and no other annual percentage rate, or in the case of a credit card that has no purchase annual percentage rate, the annual percentage rate that varies based on information in a consumer report and that has the most significant financial impact on consumers;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of closed-end credit, the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 226.17(c) and 226.18(e); and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of credit for which there is no annual percentage rate, the financial term that varies based on information in a consumer report and that has the most significant financial impact on consumers, such as a deposit required in connection with credit extended by a telephone company or utility or an annual membership fee for a charge card.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Materially less favorable</I> means, when applied to material terms, that the terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer differ from the terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to another consumer from or through the same person such that the cost of credit to the first consumer would be significantly greater than the cost of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to the other consumer. For purposes of this definition, factors relevant to determining the significance of a difference in cost include the type of credit product, the term of the credit extension, if any, and the extent of the difference between the material terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to the two consumers.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Open-end credit plan</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(i), as interpreted by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) and the Official Staff Commentary to Regulation Z (Supplement I to 12 CFR Part 226).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.72" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.72   General requirements for risk-based pricing notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a person must provide to a consumer a notice (“risk-based pricing notice”) in the form and manner required by this subpart if the person both—
</P>
<P>(1) Uses a consumer report in connection with an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to that consumer that is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit to that consumer on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable material terms available to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining which consumers must receive a notice.</I> A person may determine whether paragraph (a) of this section applies by directly comparing the material terms offered to each consumer and the material terms offered to other consumers for a specific type of credit product. For purposes of this section, a “specific type of credit product” means one or more credit products with similar features that are designed for similar purposes. Examples of a specific type of credit product include student loans, unsecured credit cards, secured credit cards, new automobile loans, used automobile loans, fixed-rate mortgage loans, and variable-rate mortgage loans. As an alternative to making this direct comparison, a person may make the determination by using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit score proxy method</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A person that sets the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, based in whole or in part on a credit score, may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by—
</P>
<P>(A) Determining the credit score (hereafter referred to as the “cutoff score”) that represents the point at which approximately 40 percent of the consumers to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit have higher credit scores and approximately 60 percent of the consumers to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit have lower credit scores; and
</P>
<P>(B) Providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit whose credit score is lower than the cutoff score.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Alternative to the 40/60 cutoff score determination.</I> In the case of credit that has been granted, extended, or provided on the most favorable material terms to more than 40 percent of consumers, a person may, at its option, set its cutoff score at a point at which the approximate percentage of consumers who historically have been granted, extended, or provided credit on material terms other than the most favorable terms would receive risk-based pricing notices under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determining the cutoff score</I>—(A) <I>Sampling approach.</I> A person that currently uses risk-based pricing with respect to the credit products it offers must calculate the cutoff score by considering the credit scores of all or a representative sample of the consumers to whom it has granted, extended, or provided credit for a specific type of credit product.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Secondary source approach in limited circumstances.</I> A person that is a new entrant into the credit business, introduces new credit products, or starts to use risk-based pricing with respect to the credit products it currently offers may initially determine the cutoff score based on information derived from appropriate market research or relevant third-party sources for a specific type of credit product, such as research or data from companies that develop credit scores. A person that acquires a credit portfolio as a result of a merger or acquisition may determine the cutoff score based on information from the party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Recalculation of cutoff scores.</I> A person using the credit score proxy method must recalculate its cutoff score(s) no less than every two years in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. A person using the credit score proxy method using market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio as permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B) of this section generally must calculate a cutoff score(s) based on the scores of its own consumers in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section within one year after it begins using a cutoff score derived from market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio. If such a person does not grant, extend, or provide credit to new consumers during that one-year period such that it lacks sufficient data with which to recalculate a cutoff score based on the credit scores of its own consumers, the person may continue to use a cutoff score derived from market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B) until it obtains sufficient data on which to base the recalculation. However, the person must recalculate its cutoff score(s) in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section within two years, if it has granted, extended, or provided credit to some new consumers during that two-year period.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Use of two or more credit scores.</I> A person that generally uses two or more credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or provided to a consumer must determine the cutoff score using the same method the person uses to evaluate multiple scores when making credit decisions. These evaluation methods may include, but are not limited to, selecting the low, median, high, most recent, or average credit score of each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit. If a person that uses two or more credit scores does not consistently use the same method for evaluating multiple credit scores (<I>e.g.,</I> if the person sometimes chooses the median score and other times calculates the average score), the person must determine the cutoff score using a reasonable means. In such cases, use of any one of the methods that the person regularly uses or the average credit score of each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit is deemed to be a reasonable means of calculating the cutoff score.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Credit score not available.</I> For purposes of this section, a person using the credit score proxy method who grants, extends, or provides credit to a consumer for whom a credit score is not available must assume that the consumer receives credit on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable credit terms offered to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Examples.</I> (A) A credit card issuer engages in risk-based pricing and the annual percentage rates it offers to consumers are based in whole or in part on a credit score. The credit card issuer takes a representative sample of the credit scores of consumers to whom it issued credit cards within the preceding three months. The credit card issuer determines that approximately 40 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score at or above 720 (on a scale of 350 to 850) and approximately 60 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score below 720. Thus, the card issuer selects 720 as its cutoff score. A consumer applies to the credit card issuer for a credit card. The card issuer obtains a credit score for the consumer. The consumer's credit score is 700. Since the consumer's 700 credit score falls below the 720 cutoff score, the credit card issuer must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(B) A credit card issuer engages in risk-based pricing, and the annual percentage rates it offers to consumers are based in whole or in part on a credit score. The credit card issuer takes a representative sample of the consumers to whom it issued credit cards over the preceding six months. The credit card issuer determines that approximately 80 percent of the sampled consumers received credit at its lowest annual percentage rate, and 20 percent received credit at a higher annual percentage rate. Approximately 80 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score at or above 750 (on a scale of 350 to 850), and 20 percent have a credit score below 750. Thus, the card issuer selects 750 as its cutoff score. A consumer applies to the credit card issuer for a credit card. The card issuer obtains a credit score for the consumer. The consumer's credit score is 740. Since the consumer's 740 credit score falls below the 750 cutoff score, the credit card issuer must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(C) An auto lender engages in risk-based pricing, obtains credit scores from one of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies, and uses the credit score proxy method to determine which consumers must receive a risk-based pricing notice. A consumer applies to the auto lender for credit to finance the purchase of an automobile. A credit score about that consumer is not available from the consumer reporting agency from which the lender obtains credit scores. The lender nevertheless grants, extends, or provides credit to the consumer. The lender must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tiered pricing method</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A person that sets the material terms of credit granted, extended, or provided to a consumer by placing the consumer within one of a discrete number of pricing tiers for a specific type of credit product, based in whole or in part on a consumer report, may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer who is not placed within the top pricing tier or tiers, as described below.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Four or fewer pricing tiers.</I> If a person using the tiered pricing method has four or fewer pricing tiers, the person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who does not qualify for the top tier (that is, the lowest-priced tier). For example, a person that uses a tiered pricing structure with annual percentage rates of 8, 10, 12, and 14 percent would provide the risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit at annual percentage rates of 10, 12, and 14 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Five or more pricing tiers.</I> If a person using the tiered pricing method has five or more pricing tiers, the person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who does not qualify for the top two tiers (that is, the two lowest-priced tiers) and any other tier that, together with the top tiers, comprise no less than the top 30 percent but no more than the top 40 percent of the total number of tiers. Each consumer placed within the remaining tiers must receive a risk-based pricing notice. For example, if a person has nine pricing tiers, the top three tiers (that is, the three lowest-priced tiers) comprise no less than the top 30 percent but no more than the top 40 percent of the tiers. Therefore, a person using this method would provide a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who is placed within the bottom six tiers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application to credit card issuers</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A credit card issuer subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may use one of the methods set forth in paragraph (b) of this section to identify consumers to whom it must provide a risk-based pricing notice. Alternatively, a credit card issuer may satisfy its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer when—
</P>
<P>(i) A consumer applies for a credit card either in connection with an application program, such as a direct-mail offer or a take-one application, or in response to a solicitation under 12 CFR 226.5a, and more than a single possible purchase annual percentage rate may apply under the program or solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on a consumer report, the credit card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer with an annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) that is greater than the lowest annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) available in connection with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No requirement to compare different offers.</I> A credit card issuer is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer if—
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer applies for a credit card for which the card issuer provides a single annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii), excluding a temporary initial rate that is lower than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires and a penalty rate that will apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit card issuer offers the consumer the lowest annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) available under the credit card offer for which the consumer applied, even if a lower annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) is available under a different credit card offer issued by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A credit card issuer sends a solicitation to the consumer that discloses several possible purchase annual percentage rates that may apply, such as 10, 12, or 14 percent, or a range of purchase annual percentage rates from 10 to 14 percent. The consumer applies for a credit card in response to the solicitation. The card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer with a purchase annual percentage rate of 12 percent based in whole or in part on a consumer report. Unless an exception applies under § 222.74, the card issuer may satisfy its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer because the consumer received credit at a purchase annual percentage rate greater than the lowest purchase annual percentage rate available under that solicitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, except that the card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer at a purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The card issuer is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer even if, under a different credit card solicitation, that consumer or other consumers might qualify for a purchase annual percentage rate of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Account review</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a person is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer in the form and manner required by this subpart if the person—
</P>
<P>(i) Uses a consumer report in connection with a review of credit that has been extended to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, increases the annual percentage rate (the annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) in the case of a credit card).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A credit card issuer periodically obtains consumer reports for the purpose of reviewing the terms of credit it has extended to consumers in connection with credit cards. As a result of this review, the credit card issuer increases the purchase annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's credit card based in whole or in part on information in a consumer report. The credit card issuer is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.73" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.73   Content, form, and timing of risk-based pricing notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of the notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 222.72(a) or (c) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the terms offered, such as the annual percentage rate, have been set based on information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the terms offered may be less favorable than the terms offered to consumers with better credit histories;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(v) The identity of each consumer reporting agency that furnished a consumer report used in the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain a copy of a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice without charge for 60 days after receipt of the notice;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement informing the consumer how to obtain a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice and providing contact information (including a toll-free telephone number, where applicable) specified by the consumer reporting agency or agencies;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement directing consumers to the Web sites of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Trade Commission to obtain more information about consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(ix) If a credit score of the consumer to whom a person grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit is used in setting the material terms of credit:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report, that the consumer's credit score was used to set the terms of credit offered, and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit score used by the person in making the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(C) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(D) All of the key factors that adversely affected the credit score, which shall not exceed four key factors, except that if one of the key factors is the number of enquiries made with respect to the consumer report, the number of key factors shall not exceed five;
</P>
<P>(E) The date on which the credit score was created; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account review.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 222.72(d) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that credit history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the person has conducted a review of the account using information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that as a result of the review, the annual percentage rate on the account has been increased based on information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(v) The identity of each consumer reporting agency that furnished a consumer report used in the account review;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain a copy of a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice without charge for 60 days after receipt of the notice;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement informing the consumer how to obtain a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice and providing contact information (including a toll-free telephone number, where applicable) specified by the consumer reporting agency or agencies;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement directing consumers to the Web sites of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Trade Commission to obtain more information about consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(ix) If a credit score of the consumer whose extension of credit is under review is used in increasing the annual percentage rate:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report, that the consumer's credit score was used to set the terms of credit offered, and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit score used by the person in making the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(C) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(D) All of the key factors that adversely affected the credit score, which shall not exceed four key factors, except that if one of the key factors is the number of enquires made with respect to the consumer report, the number of key factors shall not exceed five;
</P>
<P>(E) The date on which the credit score was created; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of the notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 222.72(a), (c), or (d) must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided to the consumer in oral, written, or electronic form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Model forms.</I> Model forms of the risk-based pricing notice required by § 222.72(a) and (c) are contained in Appendices H-1 and H-6 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-1 or H-6 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 222.72(a) and (c). Model forms of the risk-based pricing notice required by § 222.72(d) are contained in Appendices H-2 and H-7 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-2 or H-7 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 222.72(d). Use of the model forms is optional.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a risk-based pricing notice must be provided to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a grant, extension, or other provision of closed-end credit, before consummation of the transaction, but not earlier than the time the decision to approve an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit, is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of credit granted, extended, or provided under an open-end credit plan, before the first transaction is made under the plan, but not earlier than the time the decision to approve an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a review of credit that has been extended to the consumer, at the time the decision to increase the annual percentage rate (annual percentage rate referenced in § 222.71(n)(1)(ii) in the case of a credit card) based on a consumer report is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice, or if no notice of the increase in the annual percentage rate is provided to the consumer prior to the effective date of the change in the annual percentage rate (to the extent permitted by law), no later than five days after the effective date of the change in the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application to certain automobile lending transactions.</I> When a person to whom a credit obligation is initially payable grants, extends, or provides credit to a consumer for the purpose of financing the purchase of an automobile from an auto dealer or other party that is not affiliated with the person, any requirement to provide a risk-based pricing notice pursuant to this subpart is satisfied if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides a notice described in § 222.72(a), § 222.74(e), or § 222.74(f) to the consumer within the time periods set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, § 222.74(e)(3), or § 222.74(f)(4), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Arranges to have the auto dealer or other party provide a notice described in § 222.72(a), § 222.74(e), or § 222.74(f) to the consumer on its behalf within the time periods set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, § 222.74(e)(3), or § 222.74(f)(4), as applicable, and maintains reasonable policies and procedures to verify that the auto dealer or other party provides such notice to the consumer within the applicable time periods. If the person arranges to have the auto dealer or other party provide a notice described in § 222.74(e), the person's obligation is satisfied if the consumer receives a notice containing a credit score obtained by the dealer or other party, even if a different credit score is obtained and used by the person on whose behalf the notice is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing requirements for contemporaneous purchase credit.</I> When credit under an open-end credit plan is granted, extended, or provided to a consumer in person or by telephone for the purpose of financing the contemporaneous purchase of goods or services, any risk-based pricing notice required to be provided pursuant to this subpart (or the disclosures permitted under § 222.74(e) or (f)) may be provided at the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The time of the first mailing by the person to the consumer after the decision is made to approve the grant, extension, or other provision of open-end credit, such as in a mailing containing the account agreement or a credit card; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after the decision to approve the grant, extension, or other provision of credit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple credit scores</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains or creates two or more credit scores and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must include that credit score and information relating to that credit score required by paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix). When a person obtains or creates two or more credit scores and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit by, for example, computing the average of all the credit scores obtained or created, the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must include one of those credit scores and information relating to credit scores required by paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix). The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of credit cards granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies and uses the low score when determining the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person must disclose the low score in the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of automobile loans granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies, each of which it uses in an underwriting program in order to determine the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person may choose one of these scores to include in the notices described in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 2752, Jan. 15, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 41616, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.74" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.74   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for specific terms</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 222.72(a) or (c) if the consumer applies for specific material terms and is granted those terms, unless those terms were specified by the person using a consumer report after the consumer applied for or requested credit and after the person obtained the consumer report. For purposes of this section, “specific material terms” means a single material term, or set of material terms, such as an annual percentage rate of 10 percent, and not a range of alternatives, such as an annual percentage rate that may be 8, 10, or 12 percent, or between 8 and 12 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A consumer receives a firm offer of credit from a credit card issuer. The terms of the firm offer are based in whole or in part on information from a consumer report that the credit card issuer obtained under the FCRA's firm offer of credit provisions. The solicitation offers the consumer a credit card with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 12 percent. The consumer applies for and receives a credit card with an annual percentage rate of 12 percent. Other customers with the same credit card have a purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The exception applies because the consumer applied for specific material terms and was granted those terms. Although the credit card issuer specified the annual percentage rate in the firm offer of credit based in whole or in part on a consumer report, the credit card issuer specified that material term <I>before,</I> not <I>after,</I> the consumer applied for or requested credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adverse action notice.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 222.72(a), (c), or (d) if the person provides an adverse action notice to the consumer under section 615(a) of the FCRA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prescreened solicitations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 222.72(a) or (c) if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains a consumer report that is a prescreened list as described in section 604(c)(2) of the FCRA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses the consumer report for the purpose of making a firm offer of credit to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More favorable material terms.</I> This exception applies to any firm offer of credit offered by a person to a consumer, even if the person makes other firm offers of credit to other consumers on more favorable material terms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> A credit card issuer obtains two prescreened lists from a consumer reporting agency. One list includes consumers with high credit scores. The other list includes consumers with low credit scores. The issuer mails a firm offer of credit to the high credit score consumers with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The issuer also mails a firm offer of credit to the low credit score consumers with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 14 percent. The credit card issuer is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the low credit score consumers who receive the 14 percent offer because use of a consumer report to make a firm offer of credit does not trigger the risk-based pricing notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans secured by residential real property—credit score disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 222.72(a) or (c) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer requests from the person an extension of credit that is or will be secured by one to four units of residential real property; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The person provides to each consumer described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section a notice that contains the following—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) is a record of the consumer's credit history and includes information about whether the consumer pays his or her obligations on time and how much the consumer owes to creditors;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the consumer's credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(D) The information required to be disclosed to the consumer pursuant to section 609(g) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(E) The distribution of credit scores among consumers who are scored under the same scoring model that is used to generate the consumer's credit score using the same scale as that of the credit score that is provided to the consumer, presented in the form of a bar graph containing a minimum of six bars that illustrates the percentage of consumers with credit scores within the range of scores reflected in each bar or by other clear and readily understandable graphical means, or a clear and readily understandable statement informing the consumer how his or her credit score compares to the scores of other consumers. Use of a graph or statement obtained from the person providing the credit score that meets the requirements of this paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(E) is deemed to comply with this requirement;
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(H) Contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(I) A statement directing consumers to the Web sites of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Trade Commission to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided on or with the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer, except for the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be provided to the consumer at the time the disclosure required by section 609(g) of the FCRA is provided to the consumer, but in any event at or before consummation in the case of closed-end credit or before the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple credit scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must include that credit score and the other information required by that paragraph. When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by computing the average of all the credit scores obtained, the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must include one of those credit scores and the other information required by that paragraph. The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> (A) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies and uses the low score when determining the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person must disclose the low score in the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies, each of which it uses in an underwriting program in order to determine the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person may choose one of these scores to include in the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section consolidated with the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA is contained in Appendix H-3 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-3 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 222.74(d). Use of the model form is optional.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other extensions of credit—credit score disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 222.72(a) or (c) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer requests from the person an extension of credit other than credit that is or will be secured by one to four units of residential real property; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The person provides to each consumer described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section a notice that contains the following—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) is a record of the consumer's credit history and includes information about whether the consumer pays his or her obligations on time and how much the consumer owes to creditors;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the consumer's credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(D) The current credit score of the consumer or the most recent credit score of the consumer that was previously calculated by the consumer reporting agency for a purpose related to the extension of credit;
</P>
<P>(E) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(F) The distribution of credit scores among consumers who are scored under the same scoring model that is used to generate the consumer's credit score using the same scale as that of the credit score that is provided to the consumer, presented in the form of a bar graph containing a minimum of six bars that illustrates the percentage of consumers with credit scores within the range of scores reflected in each bar, or by other clear and readily understandable graphical means, or a clear and readily understandable statement informing the consumer how his or her credit score compares to the scores of other consumers. Use of a graph or statement obtained from the person providing the credit score that meets the requirements of this paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(F) is deemed to comply with this requirement;
</P>
<P>(G) The date on which the credit score was created;
</P>
<P>(H) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score;
</P>
<P>(I) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(J) A statement that federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(K) Contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(L) A statement directing consumers to the web sites of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Trade Commission to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must be provided to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the credit score has been obtained, but in any event at or before consummation in the case of closed-end credit or before the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple credit scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must include that credit score and the other information required by that paragraph. When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by computing the average of all the credit scores obtained, the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must include one of those credit scores and the other information required by that paragraph. The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The manner in which multiple credit scores are to be disclosed under this section are substantially identical to the manner set forth in the examples contained in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section is contained in Appendix H-4 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-4 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 222.74(e). Use of the model form is optional.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit score not available</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 222.72(a) or (c) if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly obtains credit scores from a consumer reporting agency and provides credit score disclosures to consumers in accordance with paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section, but a credit score is not available from the consumer reporting agency from which the person regularly obtains credit scores for a consumer to whom the person grants, extends, or provides credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not obtain a credit score from another consumer reporting agency in connection with granting, extending, or providing credit to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides to the consumer a notice that contains the following—
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that history;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time in response to changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that credit scores are important because consumers with higher credit scores generally obtain more favorable credit terms;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that not having a credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that a credit score about the consumer was not available from a consumer reporting agency, which must be identified by name, generally due to insufficient information regarding the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the consumer report;
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free consumer report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(H) The contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(I) A statement directing consumers to the web sites of the Federal Reserve Board and Federal Trade Commission to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of non-mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from a particular consumer reporting agency and provides those credit scores and additional information to consumers to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. That consumer reporting agency provides to the person a consumer report on a particular consumer that contains one trade line, but does not provide the person with a credit score on that consumer. If the person does not obtain a credit score from another consumer reporting agency and, based in whole or in part on information in a consumer report, grants, extends, or provides credit to the consumer, the person may provide the notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section. If, however, the person obtains a credit score from another consumer reporting agency, the person may not rely upon the exception in paragraph (f) of this section, but may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section must be provided to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the person has requested the credit score, but in any event not later than consummation of a transaction in the case of closed-end credit or when the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section is contained in Appendix H-5 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-5 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 222.74(f). Use of the model form is optional.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.75" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.7.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.75   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>One notice per credit extension.</I> A consumer is entitled to no more than one risk-based pricing notice under § 222.72(a) or (c), or one notice under § 222.74(d), (e), or (f), for each grant, extension, or other provision of credit. Notwithstanding the foregoing, even if a consumer has previously received a risk-based pricing notice in connection with a grant, extension, or other provision of credit, another risk-based pricing notice is required if the conditions set forth in § 222.72(d) have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multi-party transactions</I>—(1) <I>Initial creditor.</I> The person to whom a credit obligation is initially payable must provide the risk-based pricing notice described in § 222.72(a) or (c), or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions in § 222.74(d), (e), or (f), even if that person immediately assigns the credit agreement to a third party and is not the source of funding for the credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchasers or assignees.</I> A purchaser or assignee of a credit contract with a consumer is not subject to the requirements of this subpart and is not required to provide the risk-based pricing notice described in § 222.72(a) or (c), or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions in § 222.74(d), (e), or (f).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A consumer obtains credit to finance the purchase of an automobile. If the auto dealer is the person to whom the loan obligation is initially payable, such as where the auto dealer is the original creditor under a retail installment sales contract, the auto dealer must provide the risk-based pricing notice to the consumer (or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions noted above), even if the auto dealer immediately assigns the loan to a bank or finance company. The bank or finance company, which is an assignee, has no duty to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer obtains credit to finance the purchase of an automobile. If a bank or finance company is the person to whom the loan obligation is initially payable, the bank or finance company must provide the risk-based pricing notice to the consumer (or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions noted above) based on the terms offered by that bank or finance company only. The auto dealer has no duty to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer. However, the bank or finance company may comply with this rule if the auto dealer has agreed to provide notices to consumers before consummation pursuant to an arrangement with the bank or finance company, as permitted under § 222.73(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple consumers</I>—(1) <I>Risk-based pricing notices.</I> In a transaction involving two or more consumers who are granted, extended, or otherwise provided credit, a person must provide a notice to each consumer to satisfy the requirements of § 222.72(a) or (c). Whether the consumers have the same address or not, the person must provide a separate notice to each consumer if a notice includes a credit score(s). Each separate notice that includes a credit score(s) must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided, and not the credit score(s) of the other consumer. If the consumers have the same address, and the notice does not include a credit score(s), a person may satisfy the requirements by providing a single notice addressed to both consumers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit score disclosure notices.</I> In a transaction involving two or more consumers who are granted, extended, or otherwise provided credit, a person must provide a separate notice to each consumer to satisfy the exceptions in § 222.74(d), (e), or (f). Whether the consumers have the same address or not, the person must provide a separate notice to each consumer. Each separate notice must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided, and not the credit score(s) of the other consumer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> (i) Two consumers jointly apply for credit with a creditor. The creditor obtains credit scores on both consumers. Based in part on the credit scores, the creditor grants credit to the consumers on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable terms available to other consumers from the creditor. The creditor provides risk-based pricing notices to satisfy its obligations under this subpart. The creditor must provide a separate risk-based pricing notice to each consumer whether the consumers have the same address or not. Each risk-based pricing notice must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two consumers jointly apply for credit with a creditor. The two consumers reside at the same address. The creditor obtains credit scores on each of the two consumer applicants. The creditor grants credit to the consumers. The creditor provides credit score disclosure notices to satisfy its obligations under this subpart. Even though the two consumers reside at the same address, the creditor must provide a separate credit score disclosure notice to each of the consumers. Each notice must contain only the credit score of the consumer to whom the notice is provided.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 2752, Jan. 15, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 41617, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Duties of Users of Consumer Reports Regarding Identity Theft</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§§ 222.80-222.81" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 222.80-222.81   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.82" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.8.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.82   Duties of users regarding address discrepancies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a user of consumer reports (user) that receives a notice of address discrepancy from a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p), and that is a member bank of the Federal Reserve System (other than a national bank) and its respective operating subsidiaries, a branch or agency of a foreign bank (other than a Federal branch, Federal agency, or insured State branch of a foreign bank), commercial lending company owned or controlled by a foreign bank, and an organization operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, a <I>notice of address discrepancy</I> means a notice sent to a user by a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681c(h)(1), that informs the user of a substantial difference between the address for the consumer that the user provided to request the consumer report and the address(es) in the agency's file for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable belief</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to form a reasonable belief.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures designed to enable the user to form a reasonable belief that a consumer report relates to the consumer about whom it has requested the report, when the user receives a notice of address discrepancy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of reasonable policies and procedures.</I> (i) Comparing the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with information the user:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtains and uses to verify the consumer's identity in accordance with the requirements of the Customer Identification Program (CIP) rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 103.121);
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains in its own records, such as applications, change of address notifications, other customer account records, or retained CIP documentation; or
</P>
<P>(C) Obtains from third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifying the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer's address</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to furnish consumer's address to a consumer reporting agency.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures for furnishing an address for the consumer that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) from whom it received the notice of address discrepancy when the user:
</P>
<P>(i) Can form a reasonable belief that the consumer report relates to the consumer about whom the user requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes a continuing relationship with the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Regularly and in the ordinary course of business furnishes information to the consumer reporting agency from which the notice of address discrepancy relating to the consumer was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of confirmation methods.</I> The user may reasonably confirm an address is accurate by:
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying the address with the consumer about whom it has requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing its own records to verify the address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verifying the address through third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Using other reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The policies and procedures developed in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section must provide that the user will furnish the consumer's address that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) as part of the information it regularly furnishes for the reporting period in which it establishes a relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 72 FR 63756, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22642, May 14, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.83" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.8.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.83   Disposal of consumer information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions as used in this section.</I> (1) <I>You</I> means member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal agencies and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> You must properly dispose of any consumer information that you maintain or otherwise possess in accordance with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards, as required under sections 208.3(d) (Regulation H), 211.5(l) and 211.24(i) (Regulation K) of this chapter, to the extent that you are covered by the scope of the Guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Require you to maintain or destroy any record pertaining to a consumer that is not imposed under any other law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Alter or affect any requirement imposed under any other provision of law to maintain or destroy such a record.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Identity Theft Red Flags</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. V, 72 FR 63758, Nov. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 222.90" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.9.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.90   Duties regarding the detection, prevention, and mitigation of identity theft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to financial institutions and creditors that are member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks) and their respective operating subsidiaries that are not functionally regulated within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)), branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.,</I> and 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and appendix J, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> means a continuing relationship established by a person with a financial institution or creditor to obtain a product or service for personal, family, household or business purposes. Account includes:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension of credit, such as the purchase of property or services involving a deferred payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A deposit account.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>board of directors</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, the managing official in charge of the branch or agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any other creditor that does not have a board of directors, a designated employee at the level of senior management.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered account</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An account that a financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that involves or is designed to permit multiple payments or transactions, such as a credit card account, mortgage loan, automobile loan, margin account, cell phone account, utility account, checking account, or savings account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other account that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains for which there is a reasonably foreseeable risk to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, including financial, operational, compliance, reputation, or litigation risks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681m(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Customer</I> means a person that has a covered account with a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial institution</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(t).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identity theft</I> has the same meaning as in 16 CFR 603.2(a).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Red Flag</I> means a pattern, practice, or specific activity that indicates the possible existence of identity theft.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Service provider</I> means a person that provides a service directly to the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic Identification of Covered Accounts.</I> Each financial institution or creditor must periodically determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts. As a part of this determination, a financial institution or creditor must conduct a risk assessment to determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods it provides to open its accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to access its accounts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishment of an Identity Theft Prevention Program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts must develop and implement a written Identity Theft Prevention Program (Program) that is designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. The Program must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the financial institution or creditor and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of the Program.</I> The Program must include reasonable policies and procedures to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify relevant Red Flags for the covered accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, and incorporate those Red Flags into its Program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detect Red Flags that have been incorporated into the Program of the financial institution or creditor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond appropriately to any Red Flags that are detected pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section to prevent and mitigate identity theft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) is updated periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers and to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration of the Program.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must provide for the continued administration of the Program and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain approval of the initial written Program from either its board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(2) Involve the board of directors, an appropriate committee thereof, or a designated employee at the level of senior management in the oversight, development, implementation and administration of the Program;
</P>
<P>(3) Train staff, as necessary, to effectively implement the Program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Exercise appropriate and effective oversight of service provider arrangements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must consider the guidelines in appendix J of this part and include in its Program those guidelines that are appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 72 FR 63758, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22642, May 14, 2009; 79 FR 30711, May 29, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 222.91" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.9.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 222.91   Duties of card issuers regarding changes of address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a person described in § 222.90(a) that issues a debit or credit card (card issuer).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cardholder</I> means a consumer who has been issued a credit or debit card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Address validation requirements.</I> A card issuer must establish and implement reasonable policies and procedures to assess the validity of a change of address if it receives notification of a change of address for a consumer's debit or credit card account and, within a short period of time afterwards (during at least the first 30 days after it receives such notification), the card issuer receives a request for an additional or replacement card for the same account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not issue an additional or replacement card, until, in accordance with its reasonable policies and procedures and for the purpose of assessing the validity of the change of address, the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Notifies the cardholder of the request:
</P>
<P>(A) At the cardholder's former address; or
</P>
<P>(B) By any other means of communication that the card issuer and the cardholder have previously agreed to use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides to the cardholder a reasonable means of promptly reporting incorrect address changes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise assesses the validity of the change of address in accordance with the policies and procedures the card issuer has established pursuant to § 222.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative timing of address validation.</I> A card issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if it validates an address pursuant to the methods in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section when it receives an address change notification, before it receives a request for an additional or replacement card.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of notice.</I> Any written or electronic notice that the card issuer provides under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous and provided separately from its regular correspondence with the cardholder.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 222 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 222—Model Notices of Furnishing Negative Information
</HEAD>
<P>a. Although use of the model notices is not required, a financial institution that is subject to section 623(a)(7) of the FCRA shall be deemed to be in compliance with the notice requirement in section 623(a)(7) of the FCRA if the institution properly uses the model notices in this appendix (as applicable).
</P>
<P>b. A financial institution may use Model Notice B-1 if the institution provides the notice prior to furnishing negative information to a nationwide consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>c. A financial institution may use Model Notice B-2 if the institution provides the notice after furnishing negative information to a nationwide consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>d. Financial institutions may make certain changes to the language or format of the model notices without losing the safe harbor from liability provided by the model notices. The changes to the model notices may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the language in the model notices. Financial institutions making such extensive revisions will lose the safe harbor from liability that this appendix provides. Acceptable changes include, for example,
</P>
<P>1. Rearranging the order of the references to “late payment(s),” or “missed payment(s)”
</P>
<P>2. Pluralizing the terms “credit bureau,” “credit report,” and “account”
</P>
<P>3. Specifying the particular type of account on which information may be furnished, such as “credit card account”
</P>
<P>4. Rearranging in Model Notice B-1 the phrases “information about your account” and “to credit bureaus” such that it would read “We may report to credit bureaus information about your account.”
</P>
<HD2>Model Notice B-1
</HD2>
<P>We may report information about your account to credit bureaus. Late payments, missed payments, or other defaults on your account may be reflected in your credit report.
</P>
<HD2>Model Notice B-2
</HD2>
<P>We have told a credit bureau about a late payment, missed payment or other default on your account. This information may be reflected in your credit report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 33285, June 15, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 222—Model Forms for Opt-Out Notices
</HEAD>
<P>a. Although use of the model forms is not required, use of the model forms in this appendix (as applicable) complies with the requirement in section 624 of the Act for clear, conspicuous, and concise notices.
</P>
<P>b. Certain changes may be made to the language or format of the model forms without losing the protection from liability afforded by use of the model forms. These changes may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the language in the model forms. Persons making such extensive revisions will lose the safe harbor that this appendix provides. Acceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>1. Rearranging the order of the references to “your income,” “your account history,” and “your credit score.”
</P>
<P>2. Substituting other types of information for “income,” “account history,” or “credit score” for accuracy, such as “payment history,” “credit history,” “payoff status,” or “claims history.”
</P>
<P>3. Substituting a clearer and more accurate description of the affiliates providing or covered by the notice for phrases such as “the [ABC] group of companies,” including without limitation a statement that the entity providing the notice recently purchased the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>4. Substituting other types of affiliates covered by the notice for “credit card,” “insurance,” or “securities” affiliates.
</P>
<P>5. Omitting items that are not accurate or applicable. For example, if a person does not limit the duration of the opt-out period, the notice may omit information about the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>6. Adding a statement informing consumers how much time they have to opt out before shared eligibility information may be used to make solicitations to them.
</P>
<P>7. Adding a statement that the consumer may exercise the right to opt out at any time.
</P>
<P>8. Adding the following statement, if accurate: “If you previously opted out, you do not need to do so again.”
</P>
<P>9. Providing a place on the form for the consumer to fill in identifying information, such as his or her name and address.
</P>
<P>10. Adding disclosures regarding the treatment of opt-outs by joint consumers to comply with § 222.23(a)(2) of this part.
</P>
<FP-1>C-1 Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-2 Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Joint Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-3 Model Form for Renewal Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-4 Model Form for Renewal Notice (Joint Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-5 Model Form for Voluntary “No Marketing” Notice
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-6 Model Form for Voluntary “No Marketing” Notice
</FP-1>
<HD2>C-1—Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)—[Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Marketing Opt-out]
</HD2>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from our affiliates. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from our affiliates.]
</P>
<P>• You may limit our affiliates in the [ABC] group of companies, such as our [credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that we collect and share with them. This information includes your [income], your [account history with us], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice to limit marketing offers from our affiliates will apply [until you tell us to change your choice]/[for x years from when you tell us your choice]/[for at least 5 years from when you tell us your choice]. [Include if the opt-out period expires.] Once that period expires, you will receive a renewal notice that will allow you to continue to limit marketing offers from our affiliates for [another x years]/[at least another 5 years].
</P>
<P>• [Include, if applicable, in a subsequent notice, including an annual notice, for consumers who may have previously opted out.] If you have already made a choice to limit marketing offers from our affiliates, you do not need to act again until you receive the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>To limit marketing offers, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<P>• By telephone: 1-877-###-####
</P>
<P>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</P>
<P>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</P>
<FP-1>[Company name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Company address]
</FP-1>
<P>__Do not allow your affiliates to use my personal information to market to me.
</P>
<HD2>C-2—Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Joint Notice)—[Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Marketing Opt-out]
</HD2>
<P>• The [ABC group of companies] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from the [ABC] companies. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from the [ABC] companies.]
</P>
<P>• You may limit the [ABC] companies, such as the [ABC credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that they receive from other [ABC] companies. This information includes your [income], your [account history], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies will apply [until you tell us to change your choice]/[for x years from when you tell us your choice]/[for at least 5 years from when you tell us your choice]. [Include if the opt-out period expires.] Once that period expires, you will receive a renewal notice that will allow you to continue to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies for [another x years]/[at least another 5 years].
</P>
<P>• [Include, if applicable, in a subsequent notice, including an annual notice, for consumers who may have previously opted out.] If you have already made a choice to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies, you do not need to act again until you receive the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>To limit marketing offers, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<P>• By telephone: 1-877-###-####
</P>
<P>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</P>
<P>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</P>
<FP-1>[Company name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Company address]
</FP-1>
<P>__Do not allow any company [in the ABC group of companies] to use my personal information to market to me.
</P>
<HD2>C-3—Model Form for Renewal Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)—[Renewing Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Renewing Your Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD2>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from our affiliates. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from our affiliates.]
</P>
<P>• You previously chose to limit our affiliates in the [ABC] group of companies, such as our [credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that we share with them. This information includes your [income], your [account history with us], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice has expired or is about to expire.
</P>
<P>To renew your choice to limit marketing for [x] more years, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<P>• By telephone: 1-877-###-####
</P>
<P>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</P>
<P>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</P>
<FP-1>[Company name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Company address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>__Renew my choice to limit marketing for [x] more years.
</FP-1>
<HD2>C-4—Model Form for Renewal Notice (Joint Notice)—[Renewing Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Renewing Your Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD2>
<P>• The [ABC group of companies] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from the [ABC] companies. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from the [ABC] companies.]
</P>
<P>• You previously chose to limit the [ABC] companies, such as the [ABC credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that they receive from other ABC companies. This information includes your [income], your [account history], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice has expired or is about to expire.
</P>
<P>To renew your choice to limit marketing for [x] more years, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<P>• By telephone: 1-877-###-####
</P>
<P>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</P>
<P>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</P>
<FP-1>[Company name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Company address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>__Renew my choice to limit marketing for [x] more years.
</FP-1>
<HD1>C-5—Model Form for Voluntary “No Marketing” Notice
</HD1>
<HD1>Your Choice To Stop Marketing
</HD1>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• You may choose to stop all marketing from us and our affiliates.
</P>
<P>• [Your choice to stop marketing from us and our affiliates will apply until you tell us to change your choice.]
</P>
<P>To stop all marketing, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<P>• By telephone: 1-877-###-####
</P>
<P>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</P>
<P>• By mail: Chec&gt;k the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</P>
<FP-1>[Company name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Company address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>__Do not market to me.
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 72 FR 62962, Nov. 7, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22642, May 14, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 222 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 222— Interagency Guidelines Concerning the Accuracy and Integrity of Information Furnished to Consumer Reporting Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The Board encourages voluntary furnishing of information to consumer reporting agencies. Section 222.42 of this part requires each furnisher to establish and implement reasonable written policies and procedures concerning the accuracy and integrity of the information it furnishes to consumer reporting agencies. Under § 222.42(b) of this part, a furnisher must consider the guidelines set forth below in developing its policies and procedures. In establishing these policies and procedures, a furnisher may include any of its existing policies and procedures that are relevant and appropriate. Section 222.42(c) requires each furnisher to review its policies and procedures periodically and update them as necessary to ensure their continued effectiveness.
</P>
<HD1>I. Nature, Scope, and Objectives of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Nature and Scope.</I> Section 222.42(a) of this part requires that a furnisher's policies and procedures be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's activities. In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of business activities in which the furnisher engages;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and frequency of the information the furnisher provides to consumer reporting agencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) The technology used by the furnisher to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives.</I> A furnisher's policies and procedures should be reasonably designed to promote the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that is accurate, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the appropriate consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reflects the terms of and liability for those accounts or other relationships; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reflects the consumer's performance and other conduct with respect to the account or other relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that has integrity, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantiated by the furnisher's records at the time it is furnished;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is furnished in a form and manner that is designed to minimize the likelihood that the information may be incorrectly reflected in a consumer report; thus, the furnished information should:
</P>
<P>(A) Include appropriate identifying information about the consumer to whom it pertains; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be furnished in a standardized and clearly understandable form and manner and with a date specifying the time period to which the information pertains; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes the credit limit, if applicable and in the furnisher's possession;
</P>
<P>(3) To conduct reasonable investigations of consumer disputes and take appropriate actions based on the outcome of such investigations; and
</P>
<P>(4) To update the information it furnishes as necessary to reflect the current status of the consumer's account or other relationship, including, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Any transfer of an account (<I>e.g.,</I> by sale or assignment for collection) to a third party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any cure of the consumer's failure to abide by the terms of the account or other relationship.
</P>
<HD1>II. Establishing and Implementing Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In establishing and implementing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify practices or activities of the furnisher that can compromise the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing its existing practices and activities, including the technological means and other methods it uses to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies and the frequency and timing of its furnishing of information;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing its historical records relating to accuracy or integrity or to disputes; reviewing other information relating to the accuracy or integrity of information provided by the furnisher to consumer reporting agencies; and considering the types of errors, omissions, or other problems that may have affected the accuracy or integrity of information it has furnished about consumers to consumer reporting agencies;
</P>
<P>(3) Considering any feedback received from consumer reporting agencies, consumers, or other appropriate parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Obtaining feedback from the furnisher's staff; and
</P>
<P>(5) Considering the potential impact of the furnisher's policies and procedures on consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of existing policies and procedures of the furnisher regarding the accuracy and integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies; consider whether new, additional, or different policies and procedures are necessary; and consider whether implementation of existing policies and procedures should be modified to enhance the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Evaluate the effectiveness of specific methods (including technological means) the furnisher uses to provide information to consumer reporting agencies; how those methods may affect the accuracy and integrity of the information it provides to consumer reporting agencies; and whether new, additional, or different methods (including technological means) should be used to provide information to consumer reporting agencies to enhance the accuracy and integrity of that information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Specific Components of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should address the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishing and implementing a system for furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies that is appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's business operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Using standard data reporting formats and standard procedures for compiling and furnishing data, where feasible, such as the electronic transmission of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintaining records for a reasonable period of time, not less than any applicable recordkeeping requirement, in order to substantiate the accuracy of any information about consumers it furnishes that is subject to a direct dispute.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing and implementing appropriate internal controls regarding the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by implementing standard procedures and verifying random samples of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(e) Training staff that participates in activities related to the furnishing of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies to implement the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) Providing for appropriate and effective oversight of relevant service providers whose activities may affect the accuracy or integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies to ensure compliance with the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) Furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies following mergers, portfolio acquisitions or sales, or other acquisitions or transfers of accounts or other obligations in a manner that prevents re-aging of information, duplicative reporting, or other problems that may similarly affect the accuracy or integrity of the information furnished.
</P>
<P>(h) Deleting, updating, and correcting information in the furnisher's records, as appropriate, to avoid furnishing inaccurate information.
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting reasonable investigations of disputes.
</P>
<P>(j) Designing technological and other means of communication with consumer reporting agencies to prevent duplicative reporting of accounts, erroneous association of information with the wrong consumer(s), and other occurrences that may compromise the accuracy or integrity of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(k) Providing consumer reporting agencies with sufficient identifying information in the furnisher's possession about each consumer about whom information is furnished to enable the consumer reporting agency properly to identify the consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) Conducting a periodic evaluation of its own practices, consumer reporting agency practices of which the furnisher is aware, investigations of disputed information, corrections of inaccurate information, means of communication, and other factors that may affect the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(m) Complying with applicable requirements under the Fair Credit Reporting Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 74 FR 31516, July 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes F-G to Part 222 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 222—Model Forms for Risk-Based Pricing and Credit Score Disclosure Exception Notices
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix contains four model forms for risk-based pricing notices and three model forms for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exceptions. Each of the model forms is designated for use in a particular set of circumstances as indicated by the title of that model form.
</P>
<P>2. Model form H-1 is for use in complying with the general risk-based pricing notice requirements in Sec. 222.72 if a credit score is not used in setting the material terms of credit. Model form H-2 is for risk-based pricing notices given in connection with account review if a credit score is not used in increasing the annual percentage rate. Model form H-3 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception for loans secured by residential real property. Model form H-4 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception for loans that are not secured by residential real property. Model form H-5 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception when no credit score is available for a consumer. Model form H-6 is for use in complying with the general risk-based pricing notice requirements in Sec. 222.72 if a credit score is used in setting the material terms of credit. Model form H-7 is for risk-based pricing notices given in connection with account review if a credit score is used in increasing the annual percentage rate. All forms contained in this appendix are models; their use is optional.
</P>
<P>3. A person may change the forms by rearranging the format or by making technical modifications to the language of the forms, in each case without modifying the substance of the disclosures. Any such rearrangement or modification of the language of the model forms may not be so extensive as to materially affect the substance, clarity, comprehensibility, or meaningful sequence of the forms. Persons making revisions with that effect will lose the benefit of the safe harbor for appropriate use of Appendix H model forms. A person is not required to conduct consumer testing when rearranging the format of the model forms.
</P>
<P>a. Acceptable changes include, for example
</P>
<P>i. Corrections or updates to telephone numbers, mailing addresses, or Web site addresses that may change over time.
</P>
<P>ii. The addition of graphics or icons, such as the person's corporate logo.
</P>
<P>iii. Alteration of the shading or color contained in the model forms.
</P>
<P>iv. Use of a different form of graphical presentation to depict the distribution of credit scores.
</P>
<P>v. Substitution of the words “credit” and “creditor” or “finance” and “finance company” for the terms “loan” and “lender.”
</P>
<P>vi. Including pre-printed lists of the sources of consumer reports or consumer reporting agencies in a “check-the-box” format.
</P>
<P>vii. Including the name of the consumer, transaction identification numbers, a date, and other information that will assist in identifying the transaction to which the form pertains.
</P>
<P>viii. Including the name of an agent, such as an auto dealer or other party, when providing the “Name of the Entity Providing the Notice.”
</P>
<P>b. Unacceptable changes include, for example
</P>
<P>i. Providing model forms on register receipts or interspersed with other disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. Eliminating empty lines and extra spaces between sentences within the same section.
</P>
<P>4. Optional language in model forms H-6 and H-7 may be used to direct the consumer to the entity (which may be a consumer reporting agency or the creditor itself, for a proprietary score that meets the definition of a credit score) that provided the credit score for any questions about the credit score, along with the entity's contact information. Creditors may use or not use the additional language without losing the safe harbor, since the language is optional.
</P>
<P>H-1 Model form for risk-based pricing notice.
</P>
<P>H-2 Model form for account review risk-based pricing notice.
</P>
<P>H-3 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for credit secured by one to four units of residential real property.
</P>
<P>H-4 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for loans not secured by residential real property.
</P>
<P>H-5 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for loans where credit score is not available.
</P>
<P>H-6 Model form for risk-based pricing notice with credit score information
</P>
<P>H-7 Model form for account review risk-based pricing notice with credit score information
</P>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 2759, Jan. 15, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 41617, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 222 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.3.11.3.1.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 222—Interagency Guidelines on Identity Theft Detection, Prevention, and Mitigation
</HEAD>
<P>Section 222.90 of this part requires each financial institution and creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts, as defined in § 222.90(b)(3) of this part, to develop and provide for the continued administration of a written Program to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. These guidelines are intended to assist financial institutions and creditors in the formulation and maintenance of a Program that satisfies the requirements of § 222.90 of this part.
</P>
<HD3>I. The Program
</HD3>
<P>In designing its Program, a financial institution or creditor may incorporate, as appropriate, its existing policies, procedures, and other arrangements that control reasonably foreseeable risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>II. Identifying Relevant Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Risk Factors.</I> A financial institution or creditor should consider the following factors in identifying relevant Red Flags for covered accounts, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of covered accounts it offers or maintains;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to open its covered accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) The methods it provides to access its covered accounts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sources of Red Flags.</I> Financial institutions and creditors should incorporate relevant Red Flags from sources such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Incidents of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has experienced;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has identified that reflect changes in identity theft risks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categories of Red Flags.</I> The Program should include relevant Red Flags from the following categories, as appropriate. Examples of Red Flags from each of these categories are appended as Supplement A to this appendix J.
</P>
<P>(1) Alerts, notifications, or other warnings received from consumer reporting agencies or service providers, such as fraud detection services;
</P>
<P>(2) The presentation of suspicious documents;
</P>
<P>(3) The presentation of suspicious personal identifying information, such as a suspicious address change;
</P>
<P>(4) The unusual use of, or other suspicious activity related to, a covered account; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notice from customers, victims of identity theft, law enforcement authorities, or other persons regarding possible identity theft in connection with covered accounts held by the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD3>III. Detecting Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should address the detection of Red Flags in connection with the opening of covered accounts and existing covered accounts, such as by:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtaining identifying information about, and verifying the identity of, a person opening a covered account, for example, using the policies and procedures regarding identification and verification set forth in the Customer Identification Program rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 103.121); and
</P>
<P>(b) Authenticating customers, monitoring transactions, and verifying the validity of change of address requests, in the case of existing covered accounts.
</P>
<HD3>IV. Preventing and Mitigating Identity Theft
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should provide for appropriate responses to the Red Flags the financial institution or creditor has detected that are commensurate with the degree of risk posed. In determining an appropriate response, a financial institution or creditor should consider aggravating factors that may heighten the risk of identity theft, such as a data security incident that results in unauthorized access to a customer's account records held by the financial institution, creditor, or third party, or notice that a customer has provided information related to a covered account held by the financial institution or creditor to someone fraudulently claiming to represent the financial institution or creditor or to a fraudulent website. Appropriate responses may include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Monitoring a covered account for evidence of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Contacting the customer;
</P>
<P>(c) Changing any passwords, security codes, or other security devices that permit access to a covered account;
</P>
<P>(d) Reopening a covered account with a new account number;
</P>
<P>(e) Not opening a new covered account;
</P>
<P>(f) Closing an existing covered account;
</P>
<P>(g) Not attempting to collect on a covered account or not selling a covered account to a debt collector;
</P>
<P>(h) Notifying law enforcement; or
</P>
<P>(i) Determining that no response is warranted under the particular circumstances.
</P>
<HD3>V. Updating the Program
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should update the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, based on factors such as:
</P>
<P>(a) The experiences of the financial institution or creditor with identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Changes in methods of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in methods to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft;
</P>
<P>(d) Changes in the types of accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains; and
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in the business arrangements of the financial institution or creditor, including mergers, acquisitions, alliances, joint ventures, and service provider arrangements.
</P>
<HD3>VI. Methods for Administering the Program
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Oversight of Program.</I> Oversight by the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management should include:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigning specific responsibility for the Program's implementation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing reports prepared by staff regarding compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 222.90 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Approving material changes to the Program as necessary to address changing identity theft risks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports.</I> (1) <I>In general.</I> Staff of the financial institution or creditor responsible for development, implementation, and administration of its Program should report to the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management, at least annually, on compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 222.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The report should address material matters related to the Program and evaluate issues such as: the effectiveness of the policies and procedures of the financial institution or creditor in addressing the risk of identity theft in connection with the opening of covered accounts and with respect to existing covered accounts; service provider arrangements; significant incidents involving identity theft and management's response; and recommendations for material changes to the Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oversight of service provider arrangements.</I> Whenever a financial institution or creditor engages a service provider to perform an activity in connection with one or more covered accounts the financial institution or creditor should take steps to ensure that the activity of the service provider is conducted in accordance with reasonable policies and procedures designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate the risk of identity theft. For example, a financial institution or creditor could require the service provider by contract to have policies and procedures to detect relevant Red Flags that may arise in the performance of the service provider's activities, and either report the Red Flags to the financial institution or creditor, or to take appropriate steps to prevent or mitigate identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>VII. Other Applicable Legal Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should be mindful of other related legal requirements that may be applicable, such as:
</P>
<P>(a) For financial institutions and creditors that are subject to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), filing a Suspicious Activity Report in accordance with applicable law and regulation;
</P>
<P>(b) Implementing any requirements under 15 U.S.C. 1681c-1(h) regarding the circumstances under which credit may be extended when the financial institution or creditor detects a fraud or active duty alert;
</P>
<P>(c) Implementing any requirements for furnishers of information to consumer reporting agencies under 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2, for example, to correct or update inaccurate or incomplete information, and to not report information that the furnisher has reasonable cause to believe is inaccurate; and
</P>
<P>(d) Complying with the prohibitions in 15 U.S.C. 1681m on the sale, transfer, and placement for collection of certain debts resulting from identity theft.
</P>
<HD2>Supplement A to Appendix J
</HD2>
<P>In addition to incorporating Red Flags from the sources recommended in section II.b. of the Guidelines in appendix J of this part, each financial institution or creditor may consider incorporating into its Program, whether singly or in combination, Red Flags from the following illustrative examples in connection with covered accounts:
</P>
<HD2>Alerts, Notifications or Warnings from a Consumer Reporting Agency
</HD2>
<P>1. A fraud or active duty alert is included with a consumer report.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of credit freeze in response to a request for a consumer report.
</P>
<P>3. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of address discrepancy, as defined in 12 CFR 1022.82(b).
</P>
<P>4. A consumer report indicates a pattern of activity that is inconsistent with the history and usual pattern of activity of an applicant or customer, such as:
</P>
<P>a. A recent and significant increase in the volume of inquiries;
</P>
<P>b. An unusual number of recently established credit relationships;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in the use of credit, especially with respect to recently established credit relationships; or
</P>
<P>d. An account that was closed for cause or identified for abuse of account privileges by a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Documents
</HD2>
<P>5. Documents provided for identification appear to have been altered or forged.
</P>
<P>6. The photograph or physical description on the identification is not consistent with the appearance of the applicant or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>7. Other information on the identification is not consistent with information provided by the person opening a new covered account or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>8. Other information on the identification is not consistent with readily accessible information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor, such as a signature card or a recent check.
</P>
<P>9. An application appears to have been altered or forged, or gives the appearance of having been destroyed and reassembled.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Personal Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>10. Personal identifying information provided is inconsistent when compared against external information sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address does not match any address in the consumer report; or
</P>
<P>b. The Social Security Number (SSN) has not been issued, or is listed on the Social Security Administration's Death Master File.
</P>
<P>11. Personal identifying information provided by the customer is not consistent with other personal identifying information provided by the customer. For example, there is a lack of correlation between the SSN range and date of birth.
</P>
<P>12. Personal identifying information provided is associated with known fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is the same as the address provided on a fraudulent application; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number on an application is the same as the number provided on a fraudulent application.
</P>
<P>13. Personal identifying information provided is of a type commonly associated with fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is fictitious, a mail drop, or a prison; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number is invalid, or is associated with a pager or answering service.
</P>
<P>14. The SSN provided is the same as that submitted by other persons opening an account or other customers.
</P>
<P>15. The address or telephone number provided is the same as or similar to the address or telephone number submitted by an unusually large number of other persons opening accounts or by other customers.
</P>
<P>16. The person opening the covered account or the customer fails to provide all required personal identifying information on an application or in response to notification that the application is incomplete.
</P>
<P>17. Personal identifying information provided is not consistent with personal identifying information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>18. For financial institutions and creditors that use challenge questions, the person opening the covered account or the customer cannot provide authenticating information beyond that which generally would be available from a wallet or consumer report.
</P>
<HD2>Unusual Use of, or Suspicious Activity Related to, the Covered Account
</HD2>
<P>19. Shortly following the notice of a change of address for a covered account, the institution or creditor receives a request for a new, additional, or replacement card or a cell phone, or for the addition of authorized users on the account.
</P>
<P>20. A new revolving credit account is used in a manner commonly associated with known patterns of fraud. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The majority of available credit is used for cash advances or merchandise that is easily convertible to cash (e.g., electronics equipment or jewelry); or
</P>
<P>b. The customer fails to make the first payment or makes an initial payment but no subsequent payments.
</P>
<P>21. A covered account is used in a manner that is not consistent with established patterns of activity on the account. There is, for example:
</P>
<P>a. Nonpayment when there is no history of late or missed payments;
</P>
<P>b. A material increase in the use of available credit;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in purchasing or spending patterns;
</P>
<P>d. A material change in electronic fund transfer patterns in connection with a deposit account; or
</P>
<P>e. A material change in telephone call patterns in connection with a cellular phone account.
</P>
<P>22. A covered account that has been inactive for a reasonably lengthy period of time is used (taking into consideration the type of account, the expected pattern of usage and other relevant factors).
</P>
<P>23. Mail sent to the customer is returned repeatedly as undeliverable although transactions continue to be conducted in connection with the customer's covered account.
</P>
<P>24. The financial institution or creditor is notified that the customer is not receiving paper account statements.
</P>
<P>25. The financial institution or creditor is notified of unauthorized charges or transactions in connection with a customer's covered account.
</P>
<HD2>Notice from Customers, Victims of Identity Theft, Law Enforcement Authorities, or Other Persons Regarding Possible Identity Theft in Connection with Covered Accounts Held by the Financial Institution or Creditor
</HD2>
<P>26. The financial institution or creditor is notified by a customer, a victim of identity theft, a law enforcement authority, or any other person that it has opened a fraudulent account for a person engaged in identity theft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. V, 72 FR 63758, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22642, May 14, 2009; 79 FR 30711, May 29, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="223" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 223—TRANSACTIONS BETWEEN MEMBER BANKS AND THEIR AFFILIATES (REGULATION W) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(1)(E), (b)(2)(A), and (f), 371c-1(e), 1828(j), 1468(a), and section 312(b)(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5412).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 76604, Dec. 12, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Introduction and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this part (Regulation W) under the authority of sections 23A(f) and 23B(e) of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA) (12 U.S.C. 371c(f), 371c-1(e)) section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468), and section 312(b)(2)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5412).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1) establish certain quantitative limits and other prudential requirements for loans, purchases of assets, and certain other transactions between a member bank and its affiliates. This regulation implements sections 23A and 23B by defining terms used in the statute, explaining the statute's requirements, and exempting certain transactions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Sections 23A and 23B and this regulation apply by their terms to “member banks”—that is, any national bank, State bank, trust company, or other institution that is a member of the Federal Reserve System. In addition, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(j)) applies sections 23A and 23B to insured State nonmember banks in the same manner and to the same extent as if they were member banks. The Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468(a)) also applies sections 23A and 23B to insured savings associations in the same manner and to the same extent as if they were member banks (and imposes two additional restrictions). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 76604, Dec. 12, 2002, as amended at 76 FR 56531, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.2   What is an “affiliate” for purposes of sections 23A and 23B and this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this part and except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, “affiliate” with respect to a member bank means: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Parent companies.</I> Any company that controls the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Companies under common control by a parent company.</I> Any company, including any subsidiary of the member bank, that is controlled by a company that controls the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Companies under other common control.</I> Any company, including any subsidiary of the member bank, that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by trust or otherwise, by or for the benefit of shareholders who beneficially or otherwise control, directly or indirectly, by trust or otherwise, the member bank or any company that controls the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Companies with interlocking directorates.</I> Any company in which a majority of its directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) constitute a majority of the persons holding any such office with the member bank or any company that controls the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sponsored and advised companies.</I> Any company, including a real estate investment trust, that is sponsored and advised on a contractual basis by the member bank or an affiliate of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Investment companies.</I> (i) Any investment company for which the member bank or any affiliate of the member bank serves as an investment adviser, as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(20)); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other investment fund for which the member bank or any affiliate of the member bank serves as an investment advisor, if the member bank and its affiliates own or control in the aggregate more than 5 percent of any class of voting securities or of the equity capital of the fund; 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Depository institution subsidiaries.</I> A depository institution that is a subsidiary of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Financial subsidiaries.</I> A financial subsidiary of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Companies held under merchant banking or insurance company investment authority</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Any company in which a holding company of the member bank owns or controls, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons, 15 percent or more of the equity capital pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) or (I)). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>General exemption.</I> A company will not be an affiliate under paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section if the holding company presents information to the Board that demonstrates, to the Board's satisfaction, that the holding company does not control the company. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific exemptions.</I> A company also will not be an affiliate under paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(A) No director, officer, or employee of the holding company serves as a director, trustee, or general partner (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; 
</P>
<P>(B) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the holding company owns or controls a greater percentage of the equity capital of the company than is owned or controlled by the holding company, and no more than one officer or employee of the holding company serves as a director or trustee (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; or 
</P>
<P>(C) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the holding company owns or controls more than 50 percent of the voting shares of the company, and officers and employees of the holding company do not constitute a majority of the directors or trustees (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Application of rule to private equity funds.</I> A holding company will not be deemed to own or control the equity capital of a company for purposes of paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section solely by virtue of an investment made by the holding company in a private equity fund (as defined in the merchant banking subpart of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.173(a))) that owns or controls the equity capital of the company unless the holding company controls the private equity fund under 12 CFR 225.173(d)(4). 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(9), “<I>holding company</I>” with respect to a member bank means a company that controls the member bank, or a company that is controlled by shareholders that control the member bank, and all subsidiaries of the company (including any depository institution that is a subsidiary of the company). 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Partnerships associated with the member bank or an affiliate.</I> Any partnership for which the member bank or any affiliate of the member bank serves as a general partner or for which the member bank or any affiliate of the member bank causes any director, officer, or employee of the member bank or affiliate to serve as a general partner; 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Subsidiaries of affiliates.</I> Any subsidiary of a company described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (10) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Other companies.</I> Any company that the Board determines by regulation or order, or that the appropriate Federal banking agency for the member bank determines by order, to have a relationship with the member bank, or any affiliate of the member bank, such that covered transactions by the member bank with that company may be affected by the relationship to the detriment of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) “<I>Affiliate</I>” with respect to a member bank does <I>not</I> include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Subsidiaries.</I> Any company that is a subsidiary of the member bank, unless the company is:
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) A financial subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) Directly controlled by:
</P>
<P>(A) One or more affiliates (other than depository institution affiliates) of the member bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) A shareholder that controls the member bank or a group of shareholders that together control the member bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) An employee stock option plan, trust, or similar organization that exists for the benefit of the shareholders, partners, members, or employees of the member bank or any of its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other company determined to be an affiliate under paragraph (a)(12) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank premises.</I> Any company engaged solely in holding the premises of the member bank;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe deposit.</I> Any company engaged solely in conducting a safe deposit business;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Government securities.</I> Any company engaged solely in holding obligations of the United States or its agencies or obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Companies held DPC.</I> Any company where control results from the exercise of rights arising out of a bona fide debt previously contracted. This exclusion from the definition of “affiliate” applies only for the period of time specifically authorized under applicable State or Federal law or regulation or, in the absence of such law or regulation, for a period of two years from the date of the exercise of such rights. The Board may authorize, upon application and for good cause shown, extensions of time for not more than one year at a time, but such extensions in the aggregate will not exceed three years.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of subpart F (implementing section 23B), “affiliate” with respect to a member bank also does <I>not</I> include any depository institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.3   What are the meanings of the other terms used in sections 23A and 23B and this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Aggregate amount of covered transactions</I> means the amount of the covered transaction about to be engaged in added to the current amount of all outstanding covered transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> with respect to a member bank or other depository institution has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(c) “<I>Bank holding company</I>” has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital stock and surplus</I> means the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) A member bank's tier 1 and tier 2 capital under the capital rule of the appropriate Federal banking agency, based on the member bank's most recent consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3);
</P>
<P>(2) The balance of a member bank's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, not included in its tier 2 capital under the capital rule of the appropriate Federal banking agency, based on the member bank's most recent consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(3); and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any investment by a member bank in a financial subsidiary that counts as a covered transaction and is required to be deducted from the member bank's capital for regulatory capital purposes.


</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section, for a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), capital stock and surplus equals tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) plus allowances for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Carrying value</I> with respect to a security means (unless otherwise provided) the value of the security on the financial statements of the member bank, determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, association, or similar organization and, unless specifically excluded, includes a member bank and a depository institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Control</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> “<I>Control</I>” by a company or shareholder over another company means that:
</P>
<P>(i) The company or shareholder, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons, owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The company or shareholder controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the other company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board determines, after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the company or shareholder, directly or indirectly, exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ownership or control of shares as fiduciary.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this regulation, no company will be deemed to control another company by virtue of its ownership or control of shares in a fiduciary capacity, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of § 223.2 or if the company owning or controlling the shares is a business trust.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ownership or control of securities by subsidiary.</I> A company controls securities, assets, or other ownership interests owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by any subsidiary (including a subsidiary depository institution) of the company.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ownership or control of convertible instruments.</I> A company or shareholder that owns or controls instruments (including options or warrants) that are convertible or exercisable, at the option of the holder or owner, into securities, controls the securities, unless the company or shareholder presents information to the Board that demonstrates, to the Board's satisfaction, that the company or shareholder should not be deemed to control the securities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ownership or control of nonvoting securities.</I> A company or shareholder that owns or controls 25 percent or more of the equity capital of another company controls the other company, unless the company or shareholder presents information to the Board that demonstrates, to the Board's satisfaction, that the company or shareholder does not control the other company.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered transaction</I> with respect to an affiliate means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit to the affiliate;
</P>
<P>(2) A purchase of, or an investment in, a security issued by the affiliate;
</P>
<P>(3) A purchase of an asset from the affiliate, including an asset subject to recourse or an agreement to repurchase, except such purchases of real and personal property as may be specifically exempted by the Board by order or regulation;
</P>
<P>(4) The acceptance of a security issued by the affiliate as collateral for an extension of credit to any person or company; and
</P>
<P>(5) The issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit, including an endorsement or standby letter of credit, on behalf of the affiliate, a confirmation of a letter of credit issued by the affiliate, and a cross-affiliate netting arrangement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit transaction</I> with an affiliate means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit to the affiliate;
</P>
<P>(2) An issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit, including an endorsement or standby letter of credit, on behalf of the affiliate and a confirmation of a letter of credit issued by the affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(3) A cross-affiliate netting arrangement.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Cross-affiliate netting arrangement</I> means an arrangement among a member bank, one or more affiliates of the member bank, and one or more nonaffiliates of the member bank in which:
</P>
<P>(1) A nonaffiliate is permitted to deduct any obligations of an affiliate of the member bank to the nonaffiliate when settling the nonaffiliate's obligations to the member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The member bank is permitted or required to add any obligations of its affiliate to a nonaffiliate when determining the member bank's obligations to the nonaffiliate.
</P>
<P>(k) “<I>Depository institution</I>” means, unless otherwise noted, an insured depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813)), but does not include any branch of a foreign bank. For purposes of this definition, an operating subsidiary of a depository institution is treated as part of the depository institution.
</P>
<P>(l) “<I>Derivative transaction</I>” means any derivative contract listed in sections III.E.1.a. through d. of appendix A to 12 CFR part 225 and any similar derivative contract, including a credit derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(m) “<I>Eligible affiliated mutual fund securities</I>” has the meaning specified in paragraph (c)(2) of § 223.24.
</P>
<P>(n) “<I>Equity capital</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a corporation, preferred stock, common stock, capital surplus, retained earnings, and accumulated other comprehensive income, less treasury stock, plus any other account that constitutes equity of the corporation; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a partnership, limited liability company, or other company, equity accounts similar to those described in paragraph (n)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) “<I>Extension of credit</I>” to an affiliate means the making or renewal of a loan, the granting of a line of credit, or the extending of credit in any manner whatsoever, including on an intraday basis, to an affiliate. An extension of credit to an affiliate includes, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(1) An advance to an affiliate by means of an overdraft, cash item, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(2) A sale of Federal funds to an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(3) A lease that is the functional equivalent of an extension of credit to an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(4) An acquisition by purchase, discount, exchange, or otherwise of a note or other obligation, including commercial paper or other debt securities, of an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(5) Any increase in the amount of, extension of the maturity of, or adjustment to the interest rate term or other material term of, an extension of credit to an affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other similar transaction as a result of which an affiliate becomes obligated to pay money (or its equivalent).
</P>
<P>(p) “<I>Financial subsidiary</I>”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (p)(2) of this section, the term “<I>financial subsidiary</I>” means any subsidiary of a member bank that:
</P>
<P>(i) Engages, directly or indirectly, in any activity that national banks are not permitted to engage in directly or that is conducted under terms and conditions that differ from those that govern the conduct of such activity by national banks; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a subsidiary that a national bank is specifically authorized to own or control by the express terms of a Federal statute (other than 12 U.S.C. 24a), and not by implication or interpretation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> “<I>Financial subsidiary</I>” does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary of a member bank that is considered a financial subsidiary under paragraph (p)(1) of this section solely because the subsidiary engages in the sale of insurance as agent or broker in a manner that is not permitted for national banks; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A subsidiary of a State bank (other than a subsidiary described in section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w(a))) that is considered a financial subsidiary under paragraph (p)(1) of this section solely because the subsidiary engages in one or more of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) An activity that the State bank may engage in directly under applicable Federal and State law and that is conducted under the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activity by the State bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) An activity that the subsidiary was authorized by applicable Federal and State law to engage in prior to December 12, 2002, and that was lawfully engaged in by the subsidiary on that date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsidiaries of financial subsidiaries.</I> If a company is a financial subsidiary under paragraphs (p)(1) and (p)(2) of this section, any subsidiary of such a company is also a financial subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(q) “<I>Foreign bank</I>” and an “<I>agency,</I>” “<I>branch,</I>” or “<I>commercial lending company</I>” of a foreign bank have the same meanings as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>(r) “<I>GAAP</I>” means U.S. generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(s) “<I>General purpose credit card</I>” has the meaning specified in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of § 223.16.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>In contemplation.</I> A transaction between a member bank and a nonaffiliate is presumed to be “<I>in contemplation</I>” of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate of the member bank if the member bank enters into the transaction with the nonaffiliate after the execution of, or commencement of negotiations designed to result in, an agreement under the terms of which the nonaffiliate would become an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(u) “<I>Intraday extension of credit</I>” has the meaning specified in paragraph (l)(2) of § 223.42.
</P>
<P>(v) “<I>Low-quality asset</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(1) An asset (including a security) classified as “substandard,” “doubtful,” or “loss,” or treated as “special mention” or “other transfer risk problems,” either in the most recent report of examination or inspection of an affiliate prepared by either a Federal or State supervisory agency or in any internal classification system used by the member bank or the affiliate (including an asset that receives a rating that is substantially equivalent to “classified” or “special mention” in the internal system of the member bank or affiliate);
</P>
<P>(2) An asset in a nonaccrual status;
</P>
<P>(3) An asset on which principal or interest payments are more than thirty days past due;
</P>
<P>(4) An asset whose terms have been renegotiated or compromised due to the deteriorating financial condition of the obligor; and
</P>
<P>(5) An asset acquired through foreclosure, repossession, or otherwise in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted, if the asset has not yet been reviewed in an examination or inspection.
</P>
<P>(w) “<I>Member bank</I>” means any national bank, State bank, banking association, or trust company that is a member of the Federal Reserve System. For purposes of this definition, an operating subsidiary of a member bank is treated as part of the member bank.
</P>
<P>(x) “<I>Municipal securities</I>” has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (17 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)).
</P>
<P>(y) “<I>Nonaffiliate</I>” with respect to a member bank means any person that is not an affiliate of the member bank.
</P>
<P>(z) “<I>Obligations of, or fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or its agencies</I>” includes those obligations listed in 12 CFR 201.108(b) and any additional obligations as determined by the Board. The term does not include Federal Housing Administration or Veterans Administration loans.
</P>
<P>(aa) “<I>Operating subsidiary</I>” with respect to a member bank or other depository institution means any subsidiary of the member bank or depository institution other than a subsidiary described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of § 223.2.
</P>
<P>(bb) “<I>Person</I>” means an individual, company, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P>(cc) “<I>Principal underwriter</I>” has the meaning specified in paragraph (c)(1) of § 223.53.
</P>
<P>(dd) “<I>Purchase of an asset</I>” by a member bank from an affiliate means the acquisition by a member bank of an asset from an affiliate in exchange for cash or any other consideration, including an assumption of liabilities. The merger of an affiliate into a member bank is a purchase of assets by the member bank from an affiliate if the member bank assumes any liabilities of the affiliate or pays any other form of consideration in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Riskless principal.</I> A company is “<I>acting exclusively as a riskless principal</I>” if, after receiving an order to buy (or sell) a security from a customer, the company purchases (or sells) the security in the secondary market for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(ff) “<I>Securities</I>” means stocks, bonds, debentures, notes, or similar obligations (including commercial paper).
</P>
<P>(gg) “<I>Securities affiliate</I>” with respect to a member bank means:
</P>
<P>(1) An affiliate of the member bank that is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as a broker or dealer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other securities broker or dealer affiliate of a member bank that is approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(hh) “<I>State bank</I>” has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(ii) “<I>Subsidiary</I>” with respect to a specified company means a company that is controlled by the specified company.
</P>
<P>(jj) “<I>Voting securities</I>” has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P>(kk) “<I>Well capitalized</I>” has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2 and, in the case of any holding company that is not a bank holding company, “<I>well capitalized</I>” means that the holding company has and maintains at least the capital levels required for a bank holding company to be well capitalized under 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P>(ll) “<I>Well managed</I>” has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 76604, Dec. 12, 2002, as amended at 84 FR 4244, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 61798, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Provisions of Section 23A</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.11   What is the maximum amount of covered transactions that a member bank may enter into with any single affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>A member bank may not engage in a covered transaction with an affiliate (other than a financial subsidiary of the member bank) if the aggregate amount of the member bank's covered transactions with such affiliate would exceed 10 percent of the capital stock and surplus of the member bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.12   What is the maximum amount of covered transactions that a member bank may enter into with all affiliates?</HEAD>
<P>A member bank may not engage in a covered transaction with any affiliate if the aggregate amount of the member bank's covered transactions with all affiliates would exceed 20 percent of the capital stock and surplus of the member bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.13" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.13   What safety and soundness requirement applies to covered transactions?</HEAD>
<P>A member bank may not engage in any covered transaction, including any transaction exempt under this regulation, unless the transaction is on terms and conditions that are consistent with safe and sound banking practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.14" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.14   What are the collateral requirements for a credit transaction with an affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collateral required for extensions of credit and certain other covered transactions.</I> A member bank must ensure that each of its credit transactions with an affiliate is secured by the amount of collateral required by paragraph (b) of this section at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of collateral required</I>—(1) <I>The rule.</I> A credit transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section must be secured by collateral having a market value equal to at least:
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent of the amount of the transaction, if the collateral is:
</P>
<P>(A) Obligations of the United States or its agencies;
</P>
<P>(B) Obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest;
</P>
<P>(C) Notes, drafts, bills of exchange, or bankers' acceptances that are eligible for rediscount or purchase by a Federal Reserve Bank; or
</P>
<P>(D) A segregated, earmarked deposit account with the member bank that is for the sole purpose of securing credit transactions between the member bank and its affiliates and is identified as such;
</P>
<P>(ii) 110 percent of the amount of the transaction, if the collateral is obligations of any State or political subdivision of any State;
</P>
<P>(iii) 120 percent of the amount of the transaction, if the collateral is other debt instruments, including loans and other receivables; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 130 percent of the amount of the transaction, if the collateral is stock, leases, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A member bank makes a $1,000 loan to an affiliate. The affiliate posts as collateral for the loan $500 in U.S. Treasury securities, $480 in corporate debt securities, and $130 in real estate. The loan satisfies the collateral requirements of this section because $500 of the loan is 100 percent secured by obligations of the United States, $400 of the loan is 120 percent secured by debt instruments, and $100 of the loan is 130 percent secured by real estate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ineligible collateral.</I> The following items are not eligible collateral for purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Low-quality assets; 
</P>
<P>(2) Securities issued by any affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(3) Equity securities issued by the member bank, and debt securities issued by the member bank that represent regulatory capital of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(4) Intangible assets (including servicing assets), unless specifically approved by the Board; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Guarantees, letters of credit, and other similar instruments. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Perfection and priority requirements for collateral</I>—(1) <I>Perfection.</I> A member bank must maintain a security interest in collateral required by this section that is perfected and enforceable under applicable law, including in the event of default resulting from bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, or similar circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Priority.</I> A member bank either must obtain a first priority security interest in collateral required by this section or must deduct from the value of collateral obtained by the member bank the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any security interest in the collateral that is senior to that of the member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any credit secured by the collateral that is senior to that of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> A member bank makes a $2,000 loan to an affiliate. The affiliate grants the member bank a second priority security interest in a piece of real estate valued at $3,000. Another institution that previously lent $1,000 to the affiliate has a first priority security interest in the entire parcel of real estate. This transaction is not in compliance with the collateral requirements of this section. Due to the existence of the prior third-party lien on the real estate, the effective value of the real estate collateral for the member bank for purposes of this section is only $2,000—$600 less than the amount of real estate collateral required by this section for the transaction ($2,000 × 130 percent = $2,600). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Replacement requirement for retired or amortized collateral.</I> A member bank must ensure that any required collateral that subsequently is retired or amortized is replaced with additional eligible collateral as needed to keep the percentage of the collateral value relative to the amount of the outstanding credit transaction equal to the minimum percentage required at the inception of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Inapplicability of the collateral requirements to certain transactions.</I> The collateral requirements of this section do not apply to the following transactions. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acceptances.</I> An acceptance that already is fully secured either by attached documents or by other property that is involved in the transaction and has an ascertainable market value. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The unused portion of certain extensions of credit.</I> The unused portion of an extension of credit to an affiliate as long as the member bank does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit until the affiliate provides the amount of collateral required by paragraph (b) of this section with respect to the entire used portion (including the amount of the requested advance) of the extension of credit. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purchases of affiliate debt securities in the secondary market.</I> The purchase of a debt security issued by an affiliate as long as the member bank purchases the debt security from a nonaffiliate in a bona fide secondary market transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.15" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.15   May a member bank purchase a low-quality asset from an affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A member bank may not purchase a low-quality asset from an affiliate unless, pursuant to an independent credit evaluation, the member bank had committed itself to purchase the asset before the time the asset was acquired by the affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for renewals of loan participations involving problem loans.</I> The prohibition contained in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to the renewal of, or extension of additional credit with respect to, a member bank's participation in a loan to a nonaffiliate that was originated by an affiliate if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The loan was not a low-quality asset at the time the member bank purchased its participation; 
</P>
<P>(2) The renewal or extension of additional credit is approved, as necessary to protect the participating member bank's investment by enhancing the ultimate collection of the original indebtedness, by the board of directors of the participating member bank or, if the originating affiliate is a depository institution, by: 
</P>
<P>(i) An executive committee of the board of directors of the participating member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more senior management officials of the participating member bank, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The board of directors of the member bank approves standards for the member bank's renewals or extensions of additional credit described in this paragraph (b), based on the determination set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(B) Each renewal or extension of additional credit described in this paragraph (b) meets the standards; and 
</P>
<P>(C) The board of directors of the member bank periodically reviews renewals and extensions of additional credit described in this paragraph (b) to ensure that they meet the standards and periodically reviews the standards to ensure that they continue to meet the criterion set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(3) The participating member bank's share of the renewal or extension of additional credit does not exceed its proportional share of the original transaction by more than 5 percent, unless the member bank obtains the prior written approval of its appropriate Federal banking agency; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The participating member bank provides its appropriate Federal banking agency with written notice of the renewal or extension of additional credit not later than 20 days after consummation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.16" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.16   What transactions by a member bank with any person are treated as transactions with an affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A member bank must treat any of its transactions with any person as a transaction with an affiliate to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, an affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain agency transactions.</I> (1) Except to the extent described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate is not treated as an extension of credit to an affiliate under paragraph (a) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the extension of credit are used to purchase an asset through an affiliate of the member bank, and the affiliate is acting exclusively as an agent or broker in the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset purchased by the nonaffiliate is not issued, underwritten, or sold as principal by any affiliate of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) The interpretation set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to the extent of any agency fee, brokerage commission, or other compensation received by an affiliate from the proceeds of the extension of credit. The receipt of such compensation may qualify, however, for the exemption contained in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the following transactions are not subject to the quantitative limits of §§ 223.11 and 223.12 or the collateral requirements of § 223.14. The transactions are, however, subject to the safety and soundness requirement of § 223.13 and the market terms requirement and other provisions of subpart F (implementing section 23B). 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certain riskless principal transactions.</I> An extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the extension of credit are used to purchase a security through a securities affiliate of the member bank, and the securities affiliate is acting exclusively as a riskless principal in the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The security purchased by the nonaffiliate is not issued, underwritten, or sold as principal (other than as riskless principal) by any affiliate of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any riskless principal mark-up or other compensation received by the securities affiliate from the proceeds of the extension of credit meets the market terms standard set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brokerage commissions, agency fees, and riskless principal mark-ups.</I> An affiliate's retention of a portion of the proceeds of an extension of credit described in paragraph (b) or (c)(1) of this section as a brokerage commission, agency fee, or riskless principal mark-up, if that commission, fee, or mark-up is substantially the same as, or lower than, those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions with or involving other nonaffiliates, in accordance with the market terms requirement of § 223.51. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Preexisting lines of credit.</I> An extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the extension of credit are used to purchase a security from or through a securities affiliate of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The extension of credit is made pursuant to, and consistent with any conditions imposed in, a preexisting line of credit that was not established in contemplation of the purchase of securities from or through an affiliate of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>General purpose credit card transactions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> An extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The proceeds of the extension of credit are used by the nonaffiliate to purchase a product or service from an affiliate of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The extension of credit is made pursuant to, and consistent with any conditions imposed in, a general purpose credit card issued by the member bank to the nonaffiliate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition.</I> “<I>General purpose credit card</I>” means a credit card issued by a member bank that is widely accepted by merchants that are not affiliates of the member bank for the purchase of products or services, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) Less than 25 percent of the total value of products and services purchased with the card by all cardholders are purchases of products and services from one or more affiliates of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(B) All affiliates of the member bank would be permissible for a financial holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841) under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), and the member bank has no reason to believe that 25 percent or more of the total value of products and services purchased with the card by all cardholders are or would be purchases of products and services from one or more affiliates of the member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The member bank presents information to the Board that demonstrates, to the Board's satisfaction, that less than 25 percent of the total value of products and services purchased with the card by all cardholders are and would be purchases of products and services from one or more affiliates of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculating compliance.</I> To determine whether a credit card qualifies as a general purpose credit card under the standard set forth in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a member bank must compute compliance on a monthly basis, based on cardholder purchases that were financed by the credit card during the preceding 12 calendar months. If a credit card has qualified as a general purpose credit card for 3 consecutive months but then ceases to qualify in the following month, the member bank may continue to treat the credit card as a general purpose credit card for such month and three additional months (or such longer period as may be permitted by the Board). 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example of calculating compliance with the 25 percent test.</I> A member bank seeks to qualify a credit card as a general purpose credit card under paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A) of this section. The member bank assesses its compliance under paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section on the 15th day of every month (for the preceding 12 calendar months). The credit card qualifies as a general purpose credit card for at least three consecutive months. On June 15, 2005, however, the member bank determines that, for the 12-calendar-month period from June 1, 2004, through May 31, 2005, 27 percent of the total value of products and services purchased with the card by all cardholders were purchases of products and services from an affiliate of the member bank. Unless the credit card returns to compliance with the 25 percent limit by the 12-calendar-month period ending August 31, 2005, the card will cease to qualify as a general purpose credit card as of September 1, 2005. Any outstanding extensions of credit under the credit card that were used to purchase products or services from an affiliate of the member bank would become covered transactions at such time. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Valuation and Timing Principles Under Section 23A</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.21   What valuation and timing principles apply to credit transactions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation</I>—(1) <I>Initial valuation.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (3) of this section, a credit transaction with an affiliate initially must be valued at the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The principal amount of the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount owed by the affiliate to the member bank under the transaction; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The sum of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount provided to, or on behalf of, the affiliate in the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount that the member bank could be required to provide to, or on behalf of, the affiliate under the terms of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial valuation of certain acquisitions of a credit transaction.</I> If a member bank acquires from a nonaffiliate a credit transaction with an affiliate, the covered transaction initially must be valued at the sum of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The total amount of consideration given (including liabilities assumed) by the member bank in exchange for the credit transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional amount that the member bank could be required to provide to, or on behalf of, the affiliate under the terms of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Debt securities.</I> The valuation principles of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply to a member bank's purchase of or investment in a debt security issued by an affiliate, which is governed by § 223.23. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to value a member bank's credit transactions with an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Term loan.</I> A member bank makes a loan to an affiliate that has a principal amount of $100. The affiliate pays $2 in up-front fees to the member bank, and the affiliate receives net loan proceeds of $98. The member bank must initially value the covered transaction at $100. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Revolving credit.</I> A member bank establishes a $300 revolving credit facility for an affiliate. The affiliate has drawn down $100 under the facility. The member bank must value the covered transaction at $300 throughout the life of the facility. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Guarantee.</I> A member bank has issued a guarantee to a nonaffiliate on behalf of an affiliate under which the member bank would be obligated to pay the nonaffiliate $500 if the affiliate defaults on an issuance of debt securities. The member bank must value the guarantee at $500 throughout the life of the guarantee. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Acquisition of a loan to an affiliate.</I> A member bank purchases from a nonaffiliate a fixed-rate loan to an affiliate. The loan has an outstanding principal amount of $100 but, due to movements in the general level of interest rates since the time of the loan's origination, the member bank is able to purchase the loan for $90. The member bank initially must value the credit transaction at $90 (and must ensure that the credit transaction complies with the collateral requirements of § 223.14 at the time of its acquisition of the loan). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A member bank engages in a credit transaction with an affiliate at the time during the day that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The member bank becomes legally obligated to make an extension of credit to, issue a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit on behalf of, or confirm a letter of credit issued by, an affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The member bank enters into a cross-affiliate netting arrangement; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The member bank acquires an extension of credit to, or guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit issued on behalf of, an affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit transactions by a member bank with a nonaffiliate that becomes an affiliate of the member bank</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A credit transaction with a nonaffiliate becomes a covered transaction at the time that the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate of the member bank. The member bank must treat the amount of any such credit transaction as part of the aggregate amount of the member bank's covered transactions for purposes of determining compliance with the quantitative limits of §§ 223.11 and 223.12 in connection with any future covered transactions. Except as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, the member bank is not required to reduce the amount of its covered transactions with any affiliate because the nonaffiliate has become an affiliate. If the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate less than one year after the member bank enters into the credit transaction with the nonaffiliate, the member bank also must ensure that the credit transaction complies with the collateral requirements of § 223.14 promptly after the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit transactions by a member bank with a nonaffiliate in contemplation of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate of the member bank.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, if a member bank engages in a credit transaction with a nonaffiliate in contemplation of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate of the member bank, the member bank must ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The aggregate amount of the member bank's covered transactions (including any such credit transaction with the nonaffiliate) would not exceed the quantitative limits of § 223.11 or 223.12 at the time the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The credit transaction complies with the collateral requirements of § 223.14 at the time the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example.</I> A member bank with capital stock and surplus of $1,000 and no outstanding covered transactions makes a $120 unsecured loan to a nonaffiliate. The member bank does not make the loan in contemplation of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate. Nine months later, the member bank's holding company purchases all the stock of the nonaffiliate, thereby making the nonaffiliate an affiliate of the member bank. The member bank is not in violation of the quantitative limits of § 223.11 or 223.12 at the time of the stock acquisition. The member bank is, however, prohibited from engaging in any additional covered transactions with the new affiliate at least until such time as the value of the loan transaction falls below 10 percent of the member bank's capital stock and surplus. In addition, the member bank must bring the loan into compliance with the collateral requirements of § 223.14 promptly after the stock acquisition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.22" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.22   What valuation and timing principles apply to asset purchases?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a purchase of an asset by a member bank from an affiliate must be valued initially at the total amount of consideration given (including liabilities assumed) by the member bank in exchange for the asset. The value of the covered transaction after the purchase may be reduced to reflect amortization or depreciation of the asset, to the extent that such reductions are consistent with GAAP. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Purchase of an extension of credit to an affiliate.</I> A purchase from an affiliate of an extension of credit to an affiliate must be valued in accordance with § 223.21, unless the note or obligation evidencing the extension of credit is a security issued by an affiliate (in which case the transaction must be valued in accordance with § 223.23). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Purchase of a security issued by an affiliate.</I> A purchase from an affiliate of a security issued by an affiliate must be valued in accordance with § 223.23. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transfer of a subsidiary.</I> A transfer to a member bank of securities issued by an affiliate that is treated as a purchase of assets from an affiliate under § 223.31 must be valued in accordance with paragraph (b) of § 223.31. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Purchase of a line of credit.</I> A purchase from an affiliate of a line of credit, revolving credit facility, or other similar credit arrangement for a nonaffiliate must be valued initially at the total amount of consideration given by the member bank in exchange for the asset plus any additional amount that the member bank could be required to provide to the borrower under the terms of the credit arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A purchase of an asset from an affiliate remains a covered transaction for a member bank for as long as the member bank holds the asset. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Asset purchases by a member bank from a nonaffiliate in contemplation of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate of the member bank.</I> If a member bank purchases an asset from a nonaffiliate in contemplation of the nonaffiliate becoming an affiliate of the member bank, the asset purchase becomes a covered transaction at the time that the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate of the member bank. In addition, the member bank must ensure that the aggregate amount of the member bank's covered transactions (including any such transaction with the nonaffiliate) would not exceed the quantitative limits of § 223.11 or 223.12 at the time the nonaffiliate becomes an affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to value a member bank's purchase of an asset from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cash purchase of assets.</I> A member bank purchases a pool of loans from an affiliate for $10 million. The member bank initially must value the covered transaction at $10 million. Going forward, if the borrowers repay $6 million of the principal amount of the loans, the member bank may value the covered transaction at $4 million. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchase of assets through an assumption of liabilities.</I> An affiliate of a member bank contributes real property with a fair market value of $200,000 to the member bank. The member bank pays the affiliate no cash for the property, but assumes a $50,000 mortgage on the property. The member bank has engaged in a covered transaction with the affiliate and initially must value the transaction at $50,000. Going forward, if the member bank retains the real property but pays off the mortgage, the member bank must continue to value the covered transaction at $50,000. If the member bank, however, sells the real property, the transaction ceases to be a covered transaction at the time of the sale (regardless of the status of the mortgage). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.23" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.23   What valuation and timing principles apply to purchases of and investments in securities issued by an affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of § 223.32 with respect to financial subsidiaries, a member bank's purchase of or investment in a security issued by an affiliate must be valued at the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The total amount of consideration given (including liabilities assumed) by the member bank in exchange for the security, reduced to reflect amortization of the security to the extent consistent with GAAP; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The carrying value of the security. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to value a member bank's purchase of or investment in securities issued by an affiliate (other than a financial subsidiary of the member bank). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase of the debt securities of an affiliate.</I> The parent holding company of a member bank owns 100 percent of the shares of a mortgage company. The member bank purchases debt securities issued by the mortgage company for $600. The initial carrying value of the securities is $600. The member bank initially must value the investment at $600. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Purchase of the shares of an affiliate.</I> The parent holding company of a member bank owns 51 percent of the shares of a mortgage company. The member bank purchases an additional 30 percent of the shares of the mortgage company from a third party for $100. The initial carrying value of the shares is $100. The member bank initially must value the investment at $100. Going forward, if the member bank's carrying value of the shares declines to $40, the member bank must continue to value the investment at $100. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contribution of the shares of an affiliate.</I> The parent holding company of a member bank owns 100 percent of the shares of a mortgage company and contributes 30 percent of the shares to the member bank. The member bank gives no consideration in exchange for the shares. If the initial carrying value of the shares is $300, then the member bank initially must value the investment at $300. Going forward, if the member bank's carrying value of the shares increases to $500, the member bank must value the investment at $500. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A purchase of or investment in a security issued by an affiliate remains a covered transaction for a member bank for as long as the member bank holds the security. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>A member bank's purchase of or investment in a security issued by a nonaffiliate that becomes an affiliate of the member bank.</I> A member bank's purchase of or investment in a security issued by a nonaffiliate that becomes an affiliate of the member bank must be treated according to the same transition rules that apply to credit transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of § 223.21. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.24" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.24   What valuation principles apply to extensions of credit secured by affiliate securities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation of extensions of credit secured exclusively by affiliate securities.</I> An extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate secured exclusively by securities issued by an affiliate of the member bank must be valued at the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total value of the extension of credit; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The fair market value of the securities issued by an affiliate that are pledged as collateral, if the member bank verifies that such securities meet the market quotation standard contained in paragraph (e) of § 223.42 or the standards set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (5) of § 223.42. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation of extensions of credit secured by affiliate securities and other collateral.</I> An extension of credit by a member bank to a nonaffiliate secured in part by securities issued by an affiliate of the member bank and in part by nonaffiliate collateral must be valued at the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total value of the extension of credit less the fair market value of the nonaffiliate collateral; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The fair market value of the securities issued by an affiliate that are pledged as collateral, if the member bank verifies that such securities meet the market quotation standard contained in paragraph (e) of § 223.42 or the standards set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (5) of § 223.42. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of eligible affiliated mutual fund securities</I>—(1) <I>The exclusion.</I> Eligible affiliated mutual fund securities are not considered to be securities issued by an affiliate, and are instead considered to be nonaffiliate collateral, for purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, unless the member bank knows or has reason to know that the proceeds of the extension of credit will be used to purchase the eligible affiliated mutual fund securities collateral or will otherwise be used for the benefit of or transferred to an affiliate of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition.</I> “<I>Eligible affiliated mutual fund securities</I>” with respect to a member bank are securities issued by an affiliate of the member bank that is an open-end investment company registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The securities issued by the investment company: 
</P>
<P>(A) Meet the market quotation standard contained in paragraph (e) of § 223.42;
</P>
<P>(B) Meet the standards set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (5) of § 223.42; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Have closing prices that are made public through a mutual fund “supermarket” website maintained by an unaffiliated securities broker-dealer or mutual fund distributor; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The member bank and its affiliates do not own or control in the aggregate more than 5 percent of any class of voting securities or of the equity capital of the investment company (excluding securities held by the member bank or an affiliate in good faith in a fiduciary capacity, unless the member bank or affiliate holds the securities for the benefit of the member bank or affiliate, or the shareholders, employees, or subsidiaries of the member bank or affiliate). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> A member bank proposes to lend $100 to a nonaffiliate secured exclusively by eligible affiliated mutual fund securities. The member bank knows that the nonaffiliate intends to use all the loan proceeds to purchase the eligible affiliated mutual fund securities that would serve as collateral for the loan. Under the attribution rule in § 223.16, the member bank must treat the loan to the nonaffiliate as a loan to an affiliate, and, because securities issued by an affiliate are ineligible collateral under § 223.14, the loan would not be in compliance with § 223.14. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Other Requirements Under Section 23A</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.31   How does section 23A apply to a member bank's acquisition of an affiliate that becomes an operating subsidiary of the member bank after the acquisition?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certain acquisitions by a member bank of securities issued by an affiliate are treated as a purchase of assets from an affiliate.</I> A member bank's acquisition of a security issued by a company that was an affiliate of the member bank before the acquisition is treated as a purchase of assets from an affiliate, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) As a result of the transaction, the company becomes an operating subsidiary of the member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The company has liabilities, or the member bank gives cash or any other consideration in exchange for the security. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation</I>—(1) <I>Initial valuation.</I> A transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section must be valued initially at the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The total amount of consideration given by the member bank in exchange for the security; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The total liabilities of the company whose security has been acquired by the member bank, as of the time of the acquisition; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total value of all covered transactions (as computed under this part) acquired by the member bank as a result of the security acquisition. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing valuation.</I> The value of a transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section may be reduced after the initial transfer to reflect: 
</P>
<P>(i) Amortization or depreciation of the assets of the transferred company, to the extent that such reductions are consistent with GAAP; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Sales of the assets of the transferred company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Valuation example.</I> The parent holding company of a member bank contributes between 25 and 100 percent of the voting shares of a mortgage company to the member bank. The parent holding company retains no shares of the mortgage company. The member bank gives no consideration in exchange for the transferred shares. The mortgage company has total assets of $300,000 and total liabilities of $100,000. The mortgage company's assets do not include any loans to an affiliate of the member bank or any other asset that would represent a separate covered transaction for the member bank upon consummation of the share transfer. As a result of the transaction, the mortgage company becomes an operating subsidiary of the member bank. The transaction is treated as a purchase of the assets of the mortgage company by the member bank from an affiliate under paragraph (a) of this section. The member bank initially must value the transaction at $100,000, the total amount of the liabilities of the mortgage company. Going forward, if the member bank pays off the liabilities, the member bank must continue to value the covered transaction at $100,000. If the member bank, however, sells $15,000 of the transferred assets of the mortgage company or if $15,000 of the transferred assets amortize, the member bank may value the covered transaction at $85,000. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption for step transactions.</I> A transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section is exempt from the requirements of this regulation (other than the safety and soundness requirement of § 223.13 and the market terms requirement of § 223.51) if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The member bank acquires the securities issued by the transferred company within one business day (or such longer period, up to three months, as may be permitted by the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency) after the company becomes an affiliate of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The member bank acquires all the securities of the transferred company that were transferred in connection with the transaction that made the company an affiliate of the member bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) The business and financial condition (including the asset quality and liabilities) of the transferred company does not materially change from the time the company becomes an affiliate of the member bank and the time the member bank acquires the securities issued by the company; and
</P>
<P>(4) At or before the time that the transferred company becomes an affiliate of the member bank, the member bank notifies its appropriate Federal banking agency and the Board of the member bank's intent to acquire the company. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Example of step transaction.</I> A bank holding company acquires 100 percent of the shares of an unaffiliated leasing company. At that time, the subsidiary member bank of the holding company notifies its appropriate Federal banking agency and the Board of its intent to acquire the leasing company from its holding company. On the day after consummation of the acquisition, the holding company transfers all of the shares of the leasing company to the member bank. No material change in the business or financial condition of the leasing company occurs between the time of the holding company's acquisition and the member bank's acquisition. The leasing company has liabilities. The leasing company becomes an operating subsidiary of the member bank at the time of the transfer. This transfer by the holding company to the member bank, although deemed an asset purchase by the member bank from an affiliate under paragraph (a) of this section, would qualify for the exemption in paragraph (d) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.32" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.32   What rules apply to financial subsidiaries of a member bank?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption from the 10 percent limit for covered transactions between a member bank and a single financial subsidiary.</I> The 10 percent quantitative limit contained in § 223.11 does not apply with respect to covered transactions between a member bank and a financial subsidiary of the member bank. The 20 percent quantitative limit contained in § 223.12 does apply to such transactions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Valuation of purchases of or investments in the securities of a financial subsidiary</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A member bank's purchase of or investment in a security issued by a financial subsidiary of the member bank must be valued at the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The total amount of consideration given (including liabilities assumed) by the member bank in exchange for the security, reduced to reflect amortization of the security to the extent consistent with GAAP; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The carrying value of the security (adjusted so as not to reflect the member bank's pro rata portion of any earnings retained or losses incurred by the financial subsidiary after the member bank's acquisition of the security). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Carrying value of an investment in a consolidated financial subsidiary.</I> If a financial subsidiary is consolidated with its parent member bank under GAAP, the carrying value of the member bank's investment in securities issued by the financial subsidiary shall be equal to the carrying value of the securities on parent-only financial statements of the member bank, determined in accordance with GAAP (adjusted so as not to reflect the member bank's pro rata portion of any earnings retained or losses incurred by the financial subsidiary after the member bank's acquisition of the securities). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of the valuation of purchases of and investments in the securities of a financial subsidiary.</I> The following are examples of how a member bank must value its purchase of or investment in securities issued by a financial subsidiary of the member bank. Each example involves a securities underwriter that becomes a financial subsidiary of the member bank after the transactions described below. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial valuation.</I> (A) <I>Direct acquisition by a member bank.</I> A member bank pays $500 to acquire 100 percent of the shares of a securities underwriter. The initial carrying value of the shares on the member bank's parent-only GAAP financial statements is $500. The member bank initially must value the investment at $500. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Contribution of a financial subsidiary to a member bank.</I> The parent holding company of a member bank acquires 100 percent of the shares of a securities underwriter in a transaction valued at $500, and immediately contributes the shares to the member bank. The member bank gives no consideration in exchange for the shares. The member bank initially must value the investment at the carrying value of the shares on the member bank's parent-only GAAP financial statements. Under GAAP, the member bank's initial carrying value of the shares would be $500. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Carrying value not adjusted for earnings and losses of the financial subsidiary.</I> A member bank and its parent holding company engage in the transaction described in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section, and the member bank initially values the investment at $500. In the following year, the securities underwriter earns $25 in profit, which is added to its retained earnings. The member bank's carrying value of the shares of the underwriter is not adjusted for purposes of this part, and the member bank must continue to value the investment at $500. If, however, the member bank contributes $100 of additional capital to the securities underwriter, the member bank must value the aggregate investment at $600. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of an affiliate's investments in, and extensions of credit to, a financial subsidiary of a member bank</I>—(1) <I>Investments.</I> Any purchase of, or investment in, the securities of a financial subsidiary of a member bank by an affiliate of the member bank is treated as a purchase of or investment in such securities by the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensions of credit that are treated as regulatory capital of the financial subsidiary.</I> Any extension of credit to a financial subsidiary of a member bank by an affiliate of the member bank is treated as an extension of credit by the member bank to the financial subsidiary if the extension of credit is treated as capital of the financial subsidiary under any Federal or State law, regulation, or interpretation applicable to the subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other extensions of credit.</I> Any other extension of credit to a financial subsidiary of a member bank by an affiliate of the member bank will be treated as an extension of credit by the member bank to the financial subsidiary, if the Board determines, by regulation or order, that such treatment is necessary or appropriate to prevent evasions of the Federal Reserve Act or the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.33" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.33   What rules apply to derivative transactions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market terms requirement.</I> Derivative transactions between a member bank and its affiliates (other than depository institutions) are subject to the market terms requirement of § 223.51. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A member bank must establish and maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to manage the credit exposure arising from its derivative transactions with affiliates in a safe and sound manner. The policies and procedures must at a minimum provide for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Monitoring and controlling the credit exposure arising at any one time from the member bank's derivative transactions with each affiliate and all affiliates in the aggregate (through, among other things, imposing appropriate credit limits, mark-to-market requirements, and collateral requirements); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensuring that the member bank's derivative transactions with affiliates comply with the market terms requirement of § 223.51. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit derivatives.</I> A credit derivative between a member bank and a nonaffiliate in which the member bank provides credit protection to the nonaffiliate with respect to an obligation of an affiliate of the member bank is a guarantee by a member bank on behalf of an affiliate for purposes of this regulation. Such derivatives would include: 
</P>
<P>(1) An agreement under which the member bank, in exchange for a fee, agrees to compensate the nonaffiliate for any default of the underlying obligation of the affiliate; and 
</P>
<P>(2) An agreement under which the member bank, in exchange for payments based on the total return of the underlying obligation of the affiliate, agrees to pay the nonaffiliate a spread over funding costs plus any depreciation in the value of the underlying obligation of the affiliate. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions from the Provisions of Section 23A</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.41" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.41   What covered transactions are exempt from the quantitative limits and collateral requirements?</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions are not subject to the quantitative limits of §§ 223.11 and 223.12 or the collateral requirements of § 223.14. The transactions are, however, subject to the safety and soundness requirement of § 223.13 and the prohibition on the purchase of a low-quality asset of § 223.15. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Parent institution/subsidiary institution transactions.</I> Transactions with a depository institution if the member bank controls 80 percent or more of the voting securities of the depository institution or the depository institution controls 80 percent or more of the voting securities of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transactions between a member bank and a depository institution owned by the same holding company.</I> Transactions with a depository institution if the same company controls 80 percent or more of the voting securities of the member bank and the depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certain loan purchases from an affiliated depository institution.</I> Purchasing a loan on a nonrecourse basis from an affiliated depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Internal corporate reorganization transactions.</I> Purchasing assets from an affiliate (including in connection with a transfer of securities issued by an affiliate to a member bank described in paragraph (a) of § 223.31), if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The asset purchase is part of an internal corporate reorganization of a holding company and involves the transfer of all or substantially all of the shares or assets of an affiliate or of a division or department of an affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(2) The member bank provides its appropriate Federal banking agency and the Board with written notice of the transaction before consummation, including a description of the primary business activities of the affiliate and an indication of the proposed date of the asset purchase; 
</P>
<P>(3) The member bank's top-tier holding company commits to its appropriate Federal banking agency and the Board before consummation either: 
</P>
<P>(i) To make quarterly cash contributions to the member bank, for a two-year period following the member bank's purchase, equal to the book value plus any write-downs taken by the member bank, of any transferred assets that have become low-quality assets during the quarter; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) To repurchase, on a quarterly basis for a two-year period following the member bank's purchase, at a price equal to the book value plus any write-downs taken by the member bank, any transferred assets that have become low-quality assets during the quarter; 
</P>
<P>(4) The member bank's top-tier holding company complies with the commitment made under paragraph (d)(3) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(5) A majority of the member bank's directors reviews and approves the transaction before consummation; 
</P>
<P>(6) The value of the covered transaction (as computed under this part), when aggregated with the value of any other covered transactions (as computed under this part) engaged in by the member bank under this exemption during the preceding 12 calendar months, represents less than 10 percent of the member bank's capital stock and surplus (or such higher amount, up to 25 percent of the member bank's capital stock and surplus, as may be permitted by the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency after conducting a review of the member bank's financial condition and the quality of the assets transferred to the member bank); and 
</P>
<P>(7) The holding company and all its subsidiary member banks and other subsidiary depository institutions are well capitalized and well managed and would remain well capitalized upon consummation of the transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.42   What covered transactions are exempt from the quantitative limits, collateral requirements, and low-quality asset prohibition?</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions are not subject to the quantitative limits of §§ 223.11 and 223.12, the collateral requirements of § 223.14, or the prohibition on the purchase of a low-quality asset of § 223.15. The transactions are, however, subject to the safety and soundness requirement of § 223.13. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Making correspondent banking deposits.</I> Making a deposit in an affiliated depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813)) or affiliated foreign bank that represents an ongoing, working balance maintained in the ordinary course of correspondent business. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Giving credit for uncollected items.</I> Giving immediate credit to an affiliate for uncollected items received in the ordinary course of business. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transactions secured by cash or U.S. government securities</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Engaging in a credit transaction with an affiliate to the extent that the transaction is and remains secured by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Obligations of the United States or its agencies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A segregated, earmarked deposit account with the member bank that is for the sole purpose of securing credit transactions between the member bank and its affiliates and is identified as such. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A member bank makes a $100 non-amortizing term loan to an affiliate secured by U.S. Treasury securities with a market value of $50 and real estate with a market value of $75. The value of the covered transaction is $50. If the market value of the U.S. Treasury securities falls to $45 during the life of the loan, the value of the covered transaction would increase to $55. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purchasing securities of a servicing affiliate.</I> Purchasing a security issued by any company engaged solely in providing services described in section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(1)). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Purchasing certain liquid assets.</I> Purchasing an asset having a readily identifiable and publicly available market quotation and purchased at or below the asset's current market quotation. An asset has a readily identifiable and publicly available market quotation if the asset's price is quoted routinely in a widely disseminated publication that is readily available to the general public. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Purchasing certain marketable securities.</I> Purchasing a security from a securities affiliate, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The security has a “ready market,” as defined in 17 CFR 240.15c3-1(c)(11)(i); 
</P>
<P>(2) The security is eligible for a State member bank to purchase directly, subject to the same terms and conditions that govern the investment activities of a State member bank, and the member bank records the transaction as a purchase of a security for purposes of its Call Report, consistent with the requirements for a State member bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) The security is not a low-quality asset; 
</P>
<P>(4) The member bank does not purchase the security during an underwriting, or within 30 days of an underwriting, if an affiliate is an underwriter of the security, unless the security is purchased as part of an issue of obligations of, or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States or its agencies; 
</P>
<P>(5) The security's price is quoted routinely on an unaffiliated electronic service that provides indicative data from real-time financial networks, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The price paid by the member bank is at or below the current market quotation for the security; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The size of the transaction executed by the member bank does not cast material doubt on the appropriateness of relying on the current market quotation for the security; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The member bank maintains, for a period of two years, records and supporting information that are sufficient to enable the appropriate Federal banking agency to ensure the member bank's compliance with the terms of this exemption. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Purchasing municipal securities.</I> Purchasing a municipal security from a securities affiliate if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The security is rated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization or is part of an issue of securities that does not exceed $25 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The security is eligible for purchase by a State member bank, subject to the same terms and conditions that govern the investment activities of a State member bank, and the member bank records the transaction as a purchase of a security for purposes of its Call Report, consistent with the requirements for a State member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The security's price is quoted routinely on an unaffiliated electronic service that provides indicative data from real-time financial networks, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The price paid by the member bank is at or below the current market quotation for the security; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The size of the transaction executed by the member bank does not cast material doubt on the appropriateness of relying on the current market quotation for the security; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The price paid for the security can be verified by reference to two or more actual, current price quotes from unaffiliated broker-dealers on the exact security to be purchased or a security comparable to the security to be purchased, where: 
</P>
<P>(A) The price quotes obtained from the unaffiliated broker-dealers are based on a transaction similar in size to the transaction that is actually executed; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The price paid is no higher than the average of the price quotes; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The price paid for the security can be verified by reference to the written summary provided by the syndicate manager to syndicate members that discloses the aggregate par values and prices of all bonds sold from the syndicate account, if the member bank: 
</P>
<P>(A) Purchases the municipal security during the underwriting period at a price that is at or below that indicated in the summary; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a copy of the summary from its securities affiliate and retains the summary for three years. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Purchasing an extension of credit subject to a repurchase agreement.</I> Purchasing from an affiliate an extension of credit that was originated by the member bank and sold to the affiliate subject to a repurchase agreement or with recourse. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Asset purchases by a newly formed member bank.</I> The purchase of an asset from an affiliate by a newly formed member bank, if the appropriate Federal banking agency for the member bank has approved the asset purchase in writing in connection with its review of the formation of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transactions approved under the Bank Merger Act.</I> Any merger or consolidation between a member bank and an affiliated depository institution or U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, or any acquisition of assets or assumption of deposit liabilities by a member bank from an affiliated depository institution or U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, if the transaction has been approved by the responsible Federal banking agency pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Purchasing an extension of credit from an affiliate.</I> Purchasing from an affiliate, on a nonrecourse basis, an extension of credit, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The extension of credit was originated by the affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(2) The member bank makes an independent evaluation of the creditworthiness of the borrower before the affiliate makes or commits to make the extension of credit; 
</P>
<P>(3) The member bank commits to purchase the extension of credit before the affiliate makes or commits to make the extension of credit; 
</P>
<P>(4) The member bank does not make a blanket advance commitment to purchase extensions of credit from the affiliate; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The dollar amount of the extension of credit, when aggregated with the dollar amount of all other extensions of credit purchased from the affiliate during the preceding 12 calendar months by the member bank and its depository institution affiliates, does not represent more than 50 percent (or such lower percent as is imposed by the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency) of the dollar amount of extensions of credit originated by the affiliate during the preceding 12 calendar months. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Intraday extensions of credit</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An intraday extension of credit to an affiliate, if the member bank: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has established and maintains policies and procedures reasonably designed to manage the credit exposure arising from the member bank's intraday extensions of credit to affiliates in a safe and sound manner, including policies and procedures for: 
</P>
<P>(A) Monitoring and controlling the credit exposure arising at any one time from the member bank's intraday extensions of credit to each affiliate and all affiliates in the aggregate; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Ensuring that any intraday extension of credit by the member bank to an affiliate complies with the market terms requirement of § 223.51; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no reason to believe that the affiliate will have difficulty repaying the extension of credit in accordance with its terms; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ceases to treat any such extension of credit (regardless of jurisdiction) as an intraday extension of credit at the end of the member bank's business day in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition. Intraday extension of credit</I> by a member bank to an affiliate means an extension of credit by a member bank to an affiliate that the member bank expects to be repaid, sold, or terminated, or to qualify for a complete exemption under this regulation, by the end of its business day in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> Purchasing a security from a securities affiliate of the member bank if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The member bank or the securities affiliate is acting exclusively as a riskless principal in the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The security purchased is not issued, underwritten, or sold as principal (other than as riskless principal) by any affiliate of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Securities financing transactions.</I> (1) From September 15, 2008, until October 30, 2009 (unless further extended by the Board), securities financing transactions with an affiliate, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The security or other asset financed by the member bank in the transaction is of a type that the affiliate financed in the U.S. tri-party repurchase agreement market at any time during the week of September 8-12, 2008;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction is marked to market daily and subject to daily margin-maintenance requirements, and the member bank is at least as over-collateralized in the transaction as the affiliate's clearing bank was over-collateralized in comparable transactions with the affiliate in the U.S. tri-party repurchase agreement market on September 12, 2008;
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate risk profile of the securities financing transactions under this exemption is no greater than the aggregate risk profile of the securities financing transactions of the affiliate in the U.S. tri-party repurchase agreement market on September 12, 2008;
</P>
<P>(iv) The member bank's top-tier holding company guarantees the obligations of the affiliate under the securities financing transactions (or provides other security to the bank that is acceptable to the Board); and
</P>
<P>(v) The member bank has not been specifically informed by the Board, after consultation with the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency, that the member bank may not use this exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this exemption:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Securities financing transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) A purchase by a member bank from an affiliate of a security or other asset, subject to an agreement by the affiliate to repurchase the asset from the member bank;
</P>
<P>(B) A borrowing of a security by a member bank from an affiliate on a collateralized basis; or
</P>
<P>(C) A secured extension of credit by a member bank to an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>U.S. tri-party repurchase agreement market</I> means the U.S. market for securities financing transactions in which the counterparties use custodial arrangements provided by JPMorgan Chase Bank or Bank of New York or another financial institution approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Purchases of certain asset-backed commercial paper.</I> Purchases of asset-backed commercial paper from an affiliated SEC-registered open-end investment company that holds itself out as a money market mutual fund under SEC Rule 2a-7 (17 CFR 270.2a-7), if the member bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases the asset-backed commercial paper on or after September 19, 2008;
</P>
<P>(2) Pledges the asset-backed commercial paper to a Federal Reserve Bank to secure financing from the asset-backed commercial paper lending facility (AMLF) established by the Board on September 19, 2008; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has not been specifically informed by the Board, after consultation with the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency, that the member bank may not use this exemption.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 76604, Dec. 12, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 54308, Sept. 19, 2008; 73 FR 55709, Sept. 26, 2008; 74 FR 6226, 6227, Feb. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.5.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.43   What are the standards under which the Board may grant additional exemptions from the requirements of section 23A?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The standards.</I> The Board may, at its discretion, by regulation or order, exempt transactions or relationships from the requirements of section 23A and subparts B, C, and D of this part if it finds such exemptions to be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23A. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> A member bank may request an exemption from the requirements of section 23A and subparts B, C, and D of this part by submitting a written request to the General Counsel of the Board. Such a request must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Describe in detail the transaction or relationship for which the member bank seeks exemption; 
</P>
<P>(2) Explain why the Board should exempt the transaction or relationship; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Explain how the exemption would be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23A. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—General Provisions of Section 23B</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.51" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.51   What is the market terms requirement of section 23B?</HEAD>
<P>A member bank may not engage in a transaction described in § 223.52 unless the transaction is: 
</P>
<P>(a) On terms and under circumstances, including credit standards, that are substantially the same, or at least as favorable to the member bank, as those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with or involving nonaffiliates; or 
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of comparable transactions, on terms and under circumstances, including credit standards, that in good faith would be offered to, or would apply to, nonaffiliates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.52" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.52   What transactions with affiliates or others must comply with section 23B's market terms requirement?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The market terms requirement of § 223.51 applies to the following transactions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any covered transaction with an affiliate, unless the transaction is exempt under paragraphs (a) through (c) of § 223.41 or paragraphs (a) through (e) or (h) through (j) of § 223.42; 
</P>
<P>(2) The sale of a security or other asset to an affiliate, including an asset subject to an agreement to repurchase; 
</P>
<P>(3) The payment of money or the furnishing of a service to an affiliate under contract, lease, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any transaction in which an affiliate acts as an agent or broker or receives a fee for its services to the member bank or to any other person; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Any transaction or series of transactions with a nonaffiliate, if an affiliate: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a financial interest in the nonaffiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a participant in the transaction or series of transactions. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, any transaction by a member bank with any person will be deemed to be a transaction with an affiliate of the member bank if any of the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the affiliate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.53" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.53   What asset purchases are prohibited by section 23B?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fiduciary purchases of assets from an affiliate.</I> A member bank may not purchase as fiduciary any security or other asset from any affiliate unless the purchase is permitted: 
</P>
<P>(1) Under the instrument creating the fiduciary relationship; 
</P>
<P>(2) By court order; or 
</P>
<P>(3) By law of the jurisdiction governing the fiduciary relationship. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase of a security underwritten by an affiliate.</I> (1) A member bank, whether acting as principal or fiduciary, may not knowingly purchase or otherwise acquire, during the existence of any underwriting or selling syndicate, any security if a principal underwriter of that security is an affiliate of the member bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply if the purchase or acquisition of the security has been approved, before the security is initially offered for sale to the public, by a majority of the directors of the member bank based on a determination that the purchase is a sound investment for the member bank, or for the person on whose behalf the member bank is acting as fiduciary, as the case may be, irrespective of the fact that an affiliate of the member bank is a principal underwriter of the security. 
</P>
<P>(3) The approval requirement of paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be met if: 
</P>
<P>(i) A majority of the directors of the member bank approves standards for the member bank's acquisitions of securities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, based on the determination set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each acquisition described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section meets the standards; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A majority of the directors of the member bank periodically reviews acquisitions described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to ensure that they meet the standards and periodically reviews the standards to ensure that they continue to meet the criterion set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) A U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company of a foreign bank may comply with paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) of this section by obtaining the approvals and reviews required by paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(3) from either: 
</P>
<P>(i) A majority of the directors of the foreign bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A majority of the senior executive officers of the foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special definitions.</I> For purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>“Principal underwriter”</I> means any underwriter who, in connection with a primary distribution of securities: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is in privity of contract with the issuer or an affiliated person of the issuer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Acting alone or in concert with one or more other persons, initiates or directs the formation of an underwriting syndicate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is allowed a rate of gross commission, spread, or other profit greater than the rate allowed another underwriter participating in the distribution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“Security”</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(10) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.54" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.54   What advertisements and statements are prohibited by section 23B?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A member bank and its affiliates may not publish any advertisement or enter into any agreement stating or suggesting that the member bank will in any way be responsible for the obligations of its affiliates. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarantees, acceptances, letters of credit, and cross-affiliate netting arrangements subject to section 23A.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not prohibit a member bank from: 
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit on behalf of an affiliate, confirming a letter of credit issued by an affiliate, or entering into a cross-affiliate netting arrangement, to the extent such transaction satisfies the quantitative limits of §§ 223.11 and 223.12 and the collateral requirements of § 223.14, and is otherwise permitted under this regulation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Making reference to such a guarantee, acceptance, letter of credit, or cross-affiliate netting arrangement if otherwise required by law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.55" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.55   What are the standards under which the Board may grant exemptions from the requirements of section 23B?</HEAD>
<P>The Board may prescribe regulations to exempt transactions or relationships from the requirements of section 23B and subpart F of this part if it finds such exemptions to be in the public interest and consistent with the purposes of section 23B. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.56" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.6.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.56   What transactions are exempt from the market-terms requirement of section 23B?</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions are exempt from the market-terms requirement of § 223.51.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Purchases of certain asset-backed commercial paper.</I> Purchases of asset-backed commercial paper from an affiliated SEC-registered open-end investment company that holds itself out as a money market mutual fund under SEC Rule 2a-7 (17 CFR 270.2a-7), if the member bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases the asset-backed commercial paper on or after September 19, 2008;
</P>
<P>(2) Pledges the asset-backed commercial paper to a Federal Reserve Bank to secure financing from the asset-backed commercial paper lending facility (AMLF) established by the Board on September 19, 2008; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has not been specifically informed by the Board, after consultation with the member bank's appropriate Federal banking agency, that the member bank may not use this exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. W, 74 FR 6228, Feb. 6, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Application of Sections 23A and 23B to U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.61" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.61   How do sections 23A and 23B apply to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of sections 23A and 23B to foreign banks engaged in underwriting insurance, underwriting or dealing in securities, merchant banking, or insurance company investment in the United States.</I> Except as provided in this subpart, sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act and the provisions of this regulation apply to each U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company of a foreign bank in the same manner and to the same extent as if the branch, agency, or commercial lending company were a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate defined.</I> For purposes of this subpart, any company that would be an affiliate of a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company of a foreign bank if such branch, agency, or commercial lending company were a member bank is an affiliate of the branch, agency, or commercial lending company if the company also is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Directly engaged in the United States in any of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) Insurance underwriting pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(B) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(B)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities underwriting, dealing, or market making pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(E) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(E)); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Merchant banking activities pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) (but only to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the purpose of funding the affiliate's merchant banking activities); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Insurance company investment activities pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)); or 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other activity designated by the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) A portfolio company (as defined in the merchant banking subpart of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.177(c))) controlled by the foreign bank or an affiliate of the foreign bank or a company that would be an affiliate of the branch, agency, or commercial lending company of the foreign bank under paragraph (a)(9) of § 223.2 if such branch, agency, or commercial lending company were a member bank; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A subsidiary of an affiliate described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital stock and surplus.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the “<I>capital stock and surplus</I>” of a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company of a foreign bank will be determined by reference to the capital of the foreign bank as calculated under its home country capital standards. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Miscellaneous Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.71" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.71   How do sections 23A and 23B apply to transactions in which a member bank purchases from one affiliate an asset relating to another affiliate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In some situations in which a member bank purchases an asset from an affiliate, the asset purchase qualifies for an exemption under this regulation, but the member bank's resulting ownership of the purchased asset also represents a covered transaction (which may or may not qualify for an exemption under this part). In these situations, the transaction engaged in by the member bank would qualify as two different types of covered transaction. Although an asset purchase exemption may suffice to exempt the member bank's asset purchase from the first affiliate, the asset purchase exemption does not exempt the member bank's resulting covered transaction with the second affiliate. The exemptions subject to this interpretation include §§ 223.31(e), 223.41(a) through (d), and 223.42(e), (f), (i), (j), (k), and (m). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>The (d)(6) exemption.</I> A member bank purchases from Affiliate A securities issued by Affiliate B in a purchase that qualifies for the (d)(6) exemption in section 23A. The member bank's asset purchase from Affiliate A would be an exempt covered transaction under § 223.42(e); but the member bank also would have acquired an investment in securities issued by Affiliate B, which would be a covered transaction between the member bank and Affiliate B under § 223.3(h)(2) that does not qualify for the (d)(6) exemption. The (d)(6) exemption, by its terms, only exempts asset purchases by a member bank from an affiliate; hence, the (d)(6) exemption cannot exempt a member bank's investment in securities issued by an affiliate (even if the securities would qualify for the (d)(6) exemption). 
</P>
<P>(2) T<I>he sister-bank exemption.</I> A member bank purchases from Sister-Bank Affiliate A a loan to Affiliate B in a purchase that qualifies for the sister-bank exemption in section 23A. The member bank's asset purchase from Sister-Bank Affiliate A would be an exempt covered transaction under § 223.41(b); but the member bank also would have acquired an extension of credit to Affiliate B, which would be a covered transaction between the member bank and Affiliate B under § 223.3(h)(1) that does not qualify for the sister-bank exemption. The sister-bank exemption, by its terms, only exempts transactions by a member bank with a sister-bank affiliate; hence, the sister-bank exemption cannot exempt a member bank's extension of credit to an affiliate that is not a sister bank (even if the extension of credit was purchased from a sister bank).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Savings Associations—Transactions with Affiliates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 223.72" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.4.9.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 223.72   Transactions with affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart implements section 11(a) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468(a)). Section 11(a) applies sections 23A and 23B of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c1) to every savings association in the same manner and to the same extent as if the association were a member bank; prohibits certain types of transactions with affiliates; and authorizes the Board to impose additional restrictions on a savings association's transactions with affiliates.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this subpart, “savings association” is defined at section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813), and also includes any savings bank or any cooperative bank that is a savings association under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(l). A non-affiliate subsidiary of a savings association is treated as part of the savings association. For purposes of this subpart, a “non-affiliate subsidiary” is a subsidiary of a savings association other than a subsidiary described at 12 CFR 223.2(b)(1)(i), and (b)(1)(iii) through (v).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sections 23A and 23B of the FRA.</I> A savings association must comply with sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act and this part as if it were a member bank, except as described in the following chart.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Provision of Regulation W
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Application
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 12 CFR 223.2(a)(8)—“Affiliate” includes a financial subsidiary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply. Savings association subsidiaries do not meet the statutory definition of financial subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 12 CFR 223.2(a)(12)—Determination that “affiliate” includes other types of companies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to include the following statement: “Affiliate also includes any company that the Board determines, by order or regulation, to present a risk to the safety and soundness of the savings association.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 12 CFR 223.2(b)(1)(ii)—“Affiliate” includes a subsidiary that is a financial subsidiary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply. Savings association subsidiaries do not meet the statutory definition of financial subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) 12 CFR 223.3(d)—Definition of “capital stock and surplus.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Capital stock and surplus” for a savings association has the same meaning as under the regulatory capital requirements applicable to that savings association.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) 12 CFR 223.3(h)(1)—Section 23A covered transactions include an extension of credit to the affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to incorporate paragraph (c)(1) of this section, which prohibits loans or extensions of credit to an affiliate, unless the affiliate is engaged only in the activities described at 12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(F)(i), as defined in Regulation LL at 12 CFR 238.54.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) 12 CFR 223.3(h)(2)—Section 23A covered transactions include a purchase of or investment in securities issued by an affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to incorporate paragraph (c)(2) of this section, which prohibits purchases and investments in securities issued by an affiliate, other than with respect to shares of a subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) 12 CFR 223.3(k)—Definition of “depository institution.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to include the following statement: “For the purposes of this definition, a non-affiliate subsidiary of a savings association is treated as part of the depository institution.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) 12 CFR 223.3(p)—Definition of “financial subsidiary.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply. Savings association subsidiaries do not meet the statutory definition of financial subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) 12 CFR 223.3(w)—Definition of “member bank.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to include the following statement: “Member bank also includes a savings association. For purposes of this definition, a non-affiliate subsidiary of a savings association is treated as part of the savings association.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) 12 CFR 223.3(aa)—Definition of “operating subsidiary.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) 12 CFR 223.31—Application of section 23A to an acquisition of an affiliate that becomes an operating subsidiary</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to refer to “a non-affiliate subsidiary” instead of “operating subsidiary.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) 12 CFR 223.32—Rules that apply to financial subsidiaries of a bank</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply. Savings association subsidiaries do not meet the statutory definition of financial subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) 12 CFR 223.42(f)(2)—Exemption for purchasing certain marketable securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to refer to “Thrift Financial Report” instead of “Call Report.” References to “state member bank” are unchanged.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) 12 CFR 223.42(g)(2)—Exemption for purchasing municipal securities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Read to refer to “Thrift Financial Report” instead of “Call Report.” References to “state member bank” are unchanged.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) 12 CFR 223.61—Application of sections 23A and 23B to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Does not apply to savings associations or their subsidiaries.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Additional prohibitions and restrictions.</I> A savings association must comply with the additional prohibitions and restrictions in this paragraph (c). Except as described in paragraph (b) of this section, the definitions in this part apply to these additional prohibitions and restrictions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loans and extensions of credit.</I> (i) A savings association may not make a loan or other extension of credit to an affiliate, unless the affiliate is solely engaged in the activities described at 12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(F)(i), as defined in § 238.54 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.54). A loan or extension of credit to a third party is not prohibited merely because proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or are transferred to, an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board determines that a particular transaction is, in substance, a loan or extension of credit to an affiliate that is engaged in activities other than those described at 12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(F)(i), as defined in § 238.54 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.54), or the Board has other supervisory concerns concerning the transaction, the Board may inform the savings association that the transaction is prohibited under this paragraph (c)(1), and require the savings association to divest the loan, unwind the transaction, or take other appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchases or investments in securities.</I> A savings association may not purchase or invest in securities issued by any affiliate other than with respect to shares of a subsidiary. For the purposes of this paragraph (c)(2), subsidiary includes a bank and a savings association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 56531, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="224" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 224—BORROWERS OF SECURITIES CREDIT (REGULATION X)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 78g.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. X, 48 FR 56572, Dec. 22, 1983, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting part 224, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 224.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.5.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 224.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> Regulation X (this part) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (the Act) (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>). This part implements section 7(f) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78g(f)), the purpose of which is to require that credit obtained within or outside the United States complies with the limitations of the Board's Margin Regulations T and U (12 CFR parts 220 and 221, respectively).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and exemptions.</I> The Act and this part apply the Board's margin regulations to United States persons and foreign persons controlled by or acting on behalf of or in conjunction with United States persons (hereinafter borrowers), who obtain credit outside the United States to purchase or carry United States securities, or within the United States to purchase or carry any securities (both types of credit are hereinafter referred to as purpose credit). The following borrowers are exempt from the Act and this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Any borrower who obtains purpose credit within the United States, unless the borrower willfully causes the credit to be extended in contravention of Regulations T or U.
</P>
<P>(2) Any borrower whose permanent residence is outside the United States and who does not obtain or have outstanding, during any calendar year, a total of more than $100,000 in purpose credit obtained outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any borrower who is exempt by Order upon terms and conditions set by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. X, 48 FR 56572, Dec. 22, 1983, as amended by Reg. X, 63 FR 2839, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 224.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.5.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 224.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the meanings given to them in sections 3(a) and 7(f) of the Act, and in Regulations T and U. Section 7(f) of the Act contains the following definitions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>United States person</I> includes a person which is organized or exists under the laws of any State or, in the case of a natural person, a citizen or resident of the United States; a domestic estate; or a trust in which one or more of the foregoing persons has a cumulative direct or indirect beneficial interest in excess of 50 per centum of the valve of the trust.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>United States security</I> means a security (other than an exempted security) issued by a person incorporated under the laws of any State, or whose principal place of business is within a State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign person controlled by a United States person</I> includes any noncorporate entity in which United States persons directly or indirectly have more than a 50 per centum beneficial interest, and any corporation in which one or more United States persons, directly or indirectly, own stock possessing more than 50 per centum of the total combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to vote, or more than 50 per centum of the total value of shares of all classes of stock.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. X, 48 FR 56572, Dec. 22, 1983, as amended by Reg. X, 63 FR 2839, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 224.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.5.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 224.3   Margin regulations to be applied by nonexempted borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credit transactions outside the United States.</I> No borrower shall obtain purpose credit from outside the United States unless it conforms to the following margin regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulation T (12 CFR part 220) if the credit is obtained from a foreign branch of a broker-dealer;
</P>
<P>(2) Regulation U (12 CFR part 221), as it applies to banks, if the credit is obtained from a foreign branch of a bank, except for the requirement of a purpose statement (12 CFR 221.3(c)(1)(i) and (c)(2)(i)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Regulation U (12 CFR part 221), as it applies to nonbank lenders, if the credit is obtained from any other lender outside the United States, except for the requirement of a purpose statement (12 CFR 221.3(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit transactions within the United States.</I> Any borrower who willfully causes credit to be extended in contravention of Regulations T and U (12 CFR parts 220 and 221), and who, therefore, is not exempted by § 224.1(b)(1), must conform the credit to the margin regulation that applies to the lender.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. X, 63 FR 2839, Jan. 16, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="225" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 225—BANK HOLDING COMPANIES AND CHANGE IN BANK CONTROL (REGULATION Y)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(13), 1818, 1828(o), 1831i, 1831p-1, 1843(c)(8), 1844(b), 1972(1), 3106, 3108, 3310, 3331-3351, 3354, 3906, 3907, and 3909; 15 U.S.C. 1681s, 1681w, 6801 and 6805.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 49 FR 818, Jan. 5, 1984, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 225 appear at 69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV7 N="5" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulations</HEAD>

</DIV7>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 62 FR 9319, Feb. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (Regulation Y) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (<I>Board</I>) under section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(b)) (<I>BHC Act</I>); sections 8 and 13(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106 and 3108); section 7(j)(13) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended by the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(13)) (<I>Bank Control Act</I>); section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)); section 914 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i); section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972); and the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Pub. L. 98-181, title IX). The BHC Act is codified at 12 U.S.C. 1841, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Code of Federal Regulations, title 12, chapter II, part 225.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The principal purposes of this part are to:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulate the acquisition of control of banks by companies and individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Define and regulate the nonbanking activities in which bank holding companies and foreign banking organizations with United States operations may engage; and
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the procedures for securing approval for these transactions and activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Subpart A</I> contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subpart B</I> governs acquisitions of bank or bank holding company securities and assets by bank holding companies or by any company that will become a bank holding company as a result of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subpart C</I> defines and regulates the nonbanking activities in which bank holding companies and foreign banking organizations may engage directly or through a subsidiary. The Board's Regulation K governs certain nonbanking activities conducted by foreign banking organizations and certain foreign activities conducted by bank holding companies (12 CFR part 211, International Banking Operations).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subpart D</I> specifies situations in which a company is presumed to control voting securities or to have the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a bank or other company; sets forth the procedures for making a control determination; and provides rules governing the effectiveness of divestitures by bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subpart E</I> governs changes in bank control resulting from the acquisition by individuals or companies (other than bank holding companies) of voting securities of a bank holding company or state member bank of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subpart F</I> specifies the limitations that govern companies that control so-called nonbank banks and the activities of nonbank banks.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Subpart G</I> prescribes minimum standards that apply to the performance of real estate appraisals and identifies transactions that require state certified appraisers.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Subpart H</I> identifies the circumstances when written notice must be provided to the Board prior to the appointment of a director or senior officer of a bank holding company and establishes procedures for obtaining the required Board approval.
</P>
<P>(9) Subpart I establishes the procedure by which a bank holding company may elect to become a financial holding company, enumerates the consequences if a financial holding company ceases to meet a requirement applicable to a financial holding company, lists the activities in which a financial holding company may engage, establishes the procedure by which a person may request the Board to authorize additional activities as financial in nature or incidental thereto, and establishes the procedure by which a financial holding company may seek approval to engage in an activity that is complementary to a financial activity.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Subpart J</I> governs the conduct of merchant banking investment activities by financial holding companies as permitted under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)). 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Subpart K</I> governs the period of time that firms subject to section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) have to bring their activities, investments and relationships into compliance with the requirements of such section.
</P>
<P>(12)-(13) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Appendix D</I> contains the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines for measuring tier 1 leverage for bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(15) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Appendix F</I> contains the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9319, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 16472, Mar. 28, 2000; 66 FR 414, Jan. 3, 2001; 66 FR 8484, Jan. 31, 2001; 66 FR 8636, Feb. 1, 2001; 76 FR 8275, Feb. 14, 2011; 79 FR 62290, Oct. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as modified in this regulation or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in this regulation have the same meaning as set forth in the relevant statutes.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, another company.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Bank</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An insured bank as defined in section 3(h) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An institution organized under the laws of the United States which both:
</P>
<P>(A) Accepts demand deposits or deposits that the depositor may withdraw by check or similar means for payment to third parties or others; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is engaged in the business of making commercial loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank</I> does not include those institutions qualifying under the exceptions listed in section 2(c)(2) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Bank holding company</I> means any company (including a bank) that has direct or indirect control of a bank, other than control that results from the ownership or control of:
</P>
<P>(i) Voting securities held in good faith in a fiduciary capacity (other than as provided in paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section) without sole discretionary voting authority, or as otherwise exempted under section 2(a)(5)(A) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Voting securities acquired and held only for a reasonable period of time in connection with the underwriting of securities, as provided in section 2(a)(5)(B) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Voting rights to voting securities acquired for the sole purpose and in the course of participating in a proxy solicitation, as provided in section 2(a)(5)(C) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Voting securities acquired in satisfaction of debts previously contracted in good faith, as provided in section 2(a)(5)(D) of the BHC Act, if the securities are divested within two years of acquisition (or such later period as the Board may permit by order); or
</P>
<P>(v) Voting securities of certain institutions owned by a thrift institution or a trust company, as provided in sections 2(a)(5)(E) and (F) of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Except for the purposes of § 225.4(b) of this subpart and subpart E of this part, or as otherwise provided in this regulation, <I>bank holding company</I> includes a foreign banking organization. For the purposes of subpart B of this part, <I>bank holding company</I> includes a foreign banking organization only if it owns or controls a bank in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Company</I> includes any bank, corporation, general or limited partnership, association or similar organization, business trust, or any other trust unless by its terms it must terminate either within 25 years, or within 21 years and 10 months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Company</I> does not include any organization, the majority of the voting securities of which are owned by the United States or any state.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Testamentary trusts exempt.</I> Unless the Board finds that the trust is being operated as a business trust or company, a trust is presumed not to be a company if the trust:
</P>
<P>(i) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a testamentary or <I>inter vivos</I> trust established by an individual or individuals for the benefit of natural persons (or trusts for the benefit of natural persons) who are related by blood, marriage or adoption;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains only assets previously owned by the individual or individuals who established the trust;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not a Massachusetts business trust; and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not issue shares, certificates, or any other evidence of ownership.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified limited partnerships exempt.</I> Company does not include a qualified limited partnership, as defined in section 2(o)(10) of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Control</I> of a company means (except for the purposes of subpart E of this part):
</P>
<P>(i) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the company, directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company;
</P>
<P>(iii) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the company, as determined by the Board after notice and opportunity for hearing in accordance with § 225.31 of subpart D of this part; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Conditioning in any manner the transfer of 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of a company upon the transfer of 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of another company.


</P>
<P>(2) A company is deemed to control voting securities or assets owned, controlled, or held, directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(i) By the company, or by any subsidiary of the company;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the company has power to vote or to dispose of;
</P>
<P>(iii) In a fiduciary capacity for the benefit of the company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iv) In a fiduciary capacity (including by pension and profit-sharing trusts) for the benefit of the shareholders, members, or employees (or individuals serving in similar capacities) of the company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(v) According to the standards under § 225.9 of this part.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> and <I>qualifying foreign banking organization</I> have the same meanings as provided in §§ 211.21(n) and 211.23 of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(n) and 211.23).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insured depository institution</I> includes an insured bank as defined in section 3(h) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)) and a savings association.


</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lead insured depository institution</I> means the largest insured depository institution controlled by the bank holding company as of the quarter ending immediately prior to the proposed filing, based on a comparison of the average total risk-weighted assets controlled during the previous 12-month period be each insured depository institution subsidiary of the holding company. For purposes of this paragraph (h), for a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), average total risk-weighted assets equal the qualifying community banking organization's average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter).


</P>
<P>(i) <I>Management official</I> means any officer, director (including honorary or advisory directors), partner, or trustee of a bank or other company, or any employee of the bank or other company with policy-making functions.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nonbank bank</I> means any institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Became a bank as a result of enactment of the Competitive Equality Amendments of 1987 (Pub. L. 100-86), on the date of enactment (August 10, 1987); and
</P>
<P>(2) Was not controlled by a bank holding company on the day before the enactment of the Competitive Equality Amendments of 1987 (August 9, 1987).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Outstanding shares</I> means any voting securities, but does not include securities owned by the United States or by a company wholly owned by the United States.
</P>
<P>(l) Person includes an individual, bank, corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any federal savings association or federal savings bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Any building and loan association, savings and loan association, homestead association, or cooperative bank if such association or cooperative bank is a member of the Savings Association Insurance Fund; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any savings bank or cooperative that is deemed by the director of the Office of Thrift Supervision to be a savings association under section 10(l) of the Home Owners Loan Act.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Shareholder</I>—(1) <I>Controlling shareholder</I> means a person that owns or controls, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a bank or other company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Principal shareholder</I> means a person that owns or controls, directly or indirectly, 10 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a bank or other company, or any person that the Board determines has the power, directly or indirectly, to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a bank or other company.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Subsidiary</I> means a bank or other company that is controlled by another company, and refers to a direct or indirect subsidiary of a bank holding company. An indirect subsidiary is a bank or other company that is controlled by a subsidiary of the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>United States</I> means the United States and includes any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(q)(1) <I>Voting securities</I> means shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests if the shares or interest, by statute, charter, or in any manner, entitle the holder:
</P>
<P>(i) To vote for or to select directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions of the issuing company); or
</P>
<P>(ii) To vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of the issuing company.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonvoting securities.</I> Common shares, preferred shares, limited partnership interests, limited liability company interests, or similar interests are not <I>voting securities</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any voting rights associated with the securities are limited solely to the type customarily provided by statute with regard to matters that would significantly and adversely affect the rights or preference of the security, such as the issuance of additional amounts or classes of senior securities, the modification of the terms of the security, the dissolution of the issuing company, or the payment of dividends by the issuing company when preferred dividends are in arrears;
</P>
<P>(ii) The securities represent an essentially passive investment or financing device and do not otherwise provide the holder with control over the issuing company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The securities do not entitle the holder, by statute, charter, or in any manner, to select or to vote for the selection of directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions) of the issuing company; except that limited partnership interests or membership interests in limited liability companies are not voting securities due to voting rights that are limited solely to voting for the removal of a general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company) for cause, to replace a general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company) due to incapacitation or following the removal of such person, or to continue or dissolve the company after removal of the general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company).






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Class of voting shares.</I> Shares of stock issued by a single issuer are deemed to be the same class of voting shares, regardless of differences in dividend rights or liquidation preference, if the shares are voted together as a single class on all matters for which the shares have voting rights other than matters described in paragraph (o)(2)(i) of this section that affect solely the rights or preferences of the shares.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Well-capitalized</I>—(1) <I>Bank holding company.</I> In the case of a bank holding company, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> <I>well-capitalized</I> means that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For purposes of this subpart and subparts B and C of this part, a bank holding company that is subject to the Small Bank Holding Company and Savings and Loan Holding Company Policy Statement in appendix C of this part will be deemed to be “well-capitalized” if the bank holding company meets the requirements for expedited/waived processing in appendix C.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) On a consolidated basis, the bank holding company maintains a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater, as defined in 12 CFR 217.10;
</P>
<P>(ii) On a consolidated basis, the bank holding company maintains a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater, as defined in 12 CFR 217.10; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank holding company is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the Board to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured and uninsured depository institution</I>—(i) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> In the case of an insured depository institution, “well capitalized” means that the institution has and maintains at least the capital levels required to be well capitalized under the capital adequacy regulations or guidelines applicable to the institution that have been adopted by the appropriate Federal banking agency for the institution under section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Uninsured depository institution.</I> In the case of a depository institution the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, “well capitalized” means that the institution has and maintains at least the capital levels required for an insured depository institution to be well capitalized. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign banks</I>—(i) <I>Standards applied.</I> For purposes of determining whether a foreign banking organization qualifies under paragraph (r)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign banking organization whose home country supervisor, as defined in § 211.21 of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21), has adopted capital standards consistent in all respects with the Capital Accord of the Basle Committee on Banking Supervision (Basle Accord) may calculate its capital ratios under the home country standard; and
</P>
<P>(B) A foreign banking organization whose home country supervisor has not adopted capital standards consistent in all respects with the Basle Accord shall obtain a determination from the Board that its capital is equivalent to the capital that would be required of a U.S. banking organization under paragraph (r)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Branches and agencies.</I> For purposes of determining, under paragraph (r)(1) of this section, whether a branch or agency of a foreign banking organization is well-capitalized, the branch or agency shall be deemed to have the same capital ratios as the foreign banking organization.


</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (r)(1) through (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) is well capitalized if it satisfies the requirements of paragraph (r)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) is well capitalized.


</P>
<P>(s) <I>Well managed</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, a company or depository institution is well managed if:
</P>
<P>(i) At its most recent inspection or examination or subsequent review by the appropriate Federal banking agency for the company or institution (or the appropriate state banking agency in an examination described in section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(d)), the company or institution received:
</P>
<P>(A) At least a satisfactory composite rating; and
</P>
<P>(B) At least a satisfactory rating for management, if such rating is given. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a company or depository institution that has not received an inspection or examination rating, the Board has determined, after a review of the managerial and other resources of the company or depository institution and after consulting with the appropriate Federal and state banking agencies, as applicable, for the company or institution, that the company or institution is well managed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Merged depository institutions</I>—(i) <I>Merger involving well managed institutions.</I> A depository institution that results from the merger of two or more depository institutions that are well managed shall be considered to be well managed unless the Board determines otherwise after consulting with the appropriate Federal and state banking agencies, as applicable, for each depository institution involved in the merger. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Merger involving a poorly rated institution.</I> A depository institution that results from the merger of a depository institution that is well managed with one or more depository institutions that are not well managed or have not been examined shall be considered to be well managed if the Board determines, after a review of the managerial and other resources of the resulting depository institution and after consulting with the appropriate Federal and state banking agencies for the institutions involved in the merger, as applicable, that the resulting institution is well managed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign banking organizations.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, a foreign banking organization is considered well managed if the combined operations of the foreign banking organization in the United States have received at least a satisfactory composite rating at the most recent annual assessment.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Depository institution.</I> For purposes of this part, the term “depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).


</P>
<P>(u) <I>Voting percentage.</I> For purposes of this part, the percentage of a class of a company's voting securities controlled by a person is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The quotient, expressed as a percentage, of the number of shares of the class of voting securities controlled by the person, divided by the number of shares of the class of voting securities that are issued and outstanding, both as adjusted by § 225.9 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The quotient, expressed as a percentage, of the number of votes that may be cast by the person on the voting securities controlled by the person, divided by the total votes that are legally entitled to be cast by the issued and outstanding shares of the class of voting securities, both as adjusted by § 225.9 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9319, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 3791, Jan. 25, 2000; 65 FR 15055, Mar. 21, 2000; 66 FR 414, Jan. 3, 2001; 71 FR 9901, Feb. 28, 2006; 78 FR 62290, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015; 83 FR 44198, Aug. 30, 2018; 84 FR 61799, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 12421, Mar. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.3   Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegation of authority.</I> Designated Board members and officers and the Federal Reserve Banks are authorized by the Board to exercise various functions prescribed in this regulation and in the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR part 265) and the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR part 262).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.</I> In administering this regulation, unless a different Federal Reserve Bank is designated by the Board, the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For a bank holding company (or a company applying to become a bank holding company): the Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve district in which the company's banking operations are principally conducted, as measured by total domestic deposits in its subsidiary banks on the date it became (or will become) a bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) For a foreign banking organization that has no subsidiary bank and is not subject to paragraph (b)(1) of this section: the Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve district in which the total assets of the organization's United States branches, agencies, and commercial lending companies are the largest as of the later of January 1, 1980, or the date it becomes a foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(3) For an individual or company submitting a notice under subpart E of this part: The Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve district in which the banking operations of the bank holding company or state member bank to be acquired are principally conducted, as measured by total domestic deposits on the date the notice is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.4" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.4   Corporate practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank holding company policy and operations.</I> (1) A bank holding company shall serve as a source of financial and managerial strength to its subsidiary banks and shall not conduct its operations in an unsafe or unsound manner.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Board believes an activity of a bank holding company or control of a nonbank subsidiary (other than a nonbank subsidiary of a bank) constitutes a serious risk to the financial safety, soundness, or stability of a subsidiary bank of the bank holding company and is inconsistent with sound banking principles or the purposes of the BHC Act or the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) <I>et seq.</I>), the Board may require the bank holding company to terminate the activity or to terminate control of the subsidiary, as provided in section 5(e) of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase or redemption by bank holding company of its own securities</I>—(1) <I>Filing notice.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, a bank holding company shall give the Board prior written notice before purchasing or redeeming its equity securities if the gross consideration for the purchase or redemption, when aggregated with the net consideration paid by the company for all such purchases or redemptions during the preceding 12 months, is equal to 10 percent or more of the company's consolidated net worth. For the purposes of this section, “net consideration” is the gross consideration paid by the company for all of its equity securities purchased or redeemed during the period minus the gross consideration received for all of its equity securities sold during the period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of notice.</I> Any notice under this section shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose of the transaction, a description of the securities to be purchased or redeemed, the total number of each class outstanding, the gross consideration to be paid, and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of all equity securities redeemed within the preceding 12 months, the net consideration paid, and the terms of any debt incurred in connection with those transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of $3 billion or more, consolidated <I>pro forma</I> risk-based capital and leverage ratio calculations for the bank holding company as of the most recent quarter, and, if the redemption is to be debt funded, a parent-only <I>pro forma</I> balance sheet as of the most recent quarter; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of less than $3 billion, a <I>pro forma</I> parent-only balance sheet as of the most recent quarter, and, if the redemption is to be debt funded, one-year income statement and cash flow projections.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acting on notice.</I> Within 15 calendar days of receipt of a notice under this section, the appropriate Reserve Bank shall either approve the transaction proposed in the notice or refer the notice to the Board for decision. If the notice is referred to the Board for decision, the Board shall act on the notice within 30 calendar days after the Reserve Bank receives the notice.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Factors considered in acting on notice.</I> (i) The Board may disapprove a proposed purchase or redemption if it finds that the proposal would constitute an unsafe or unsound practice, or would violate any law, regulation, Board order, directive, or any condition imposed by, or written agreement with, the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining whether a proposal constitutes an unsafe or unsound practice, the Board shall consider whether the bank holding company's financial condition, after giving effect to the proposed purchase or redemption, meets the financial standards applied by the Board under section 3 of the BHC Act, including 12 CFR part 217, and the Board's Policy Statement for Small Bank Holding Companies (appendix C of this part).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disapproval and hearing.</I> (i) The Board shall notify the bank holding company in writing of the reasons for a decision to disapprove any proposed purchase or redemption. Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a notice of disapproval by the Board, the bank holding company may submit a written request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board shall order a hearing within 10 calendar days of receipt of the request if it finds that material facts are in dispute, or if it otherwise appears appropriate. Any hearing conducted under this paragraph shall be held in accordance with the Board's Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings (12 CFR part 263).
</P>
<P>(iii) At the conclusion of the hearing, the Board shall by order approve or disapprove the proposed purchase or redemption on the basis of the record of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exception for well-capitalized bank holding companies.</I> A bank holding company is not required to obtain prior Board approval for the redemption or purchase of its equity securities under this section provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Both before and immediately after the redemption, the bank holding company is well-capitalized;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank holding company is well-managed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank holding company is not the subject of any unresolved supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exception for certain bank holding companies.</I> This section 225.4(b) shall not apply to any bank holding company that is subject to § 225.8 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deposit insurance.</I> Every bank that is a bank holding company or a subsidiary of a bank holding company shall obtain Federal Deposit Insurance and shall remain an <I>insured bank</I> as defined in section 3(h) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(h)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acting as transfer agent or clearing agent.</I> A bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary that is a “bank,” as defined in section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)), and that is a transfer agent of securities, a clearing agency, or a participant in a clearing agency (as those terms are defined in section 3(a) of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)), shall be subject to §§ 208.31-208.33 of the Board's Regulation H (12 CFR 208.31-208.33) as if it were a state member bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting requirement for credit secured by certain bank holding company stock.</I> Each executive officer or director of a bank holding company the shares of which are not publicly traded shall report annually to the board of directors of the bank holding company the outstanding amount of any credit that was extended to the executive officer or director and that is secured by shares of the bank holding company. For purposes of this paragraph, the terms “executive officer” and “director” shall have the meaning given in § 215.2 of Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Suspicious activity report.</I> A bank holding company or any nonbank subsidiary thereof, or a foreign bank that is subject to the BHC Act or any nonbank subsidiary of such foreign bank operating in the United States, shall file a suspicious activity report in accordance with the provisions of § 208.62 of the Board's Regulation H (12 CFR 208.62).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requirements for financial holding companies engaged in securities underwriting, dealing, or market-making activities.</I> (1) Any intra-day extension of credit by a bank or thrift, or U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank to an affiliated company engaged in underwriting, dealing in, or making a market in securities pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(E) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(E)) must be on market terms consistent with section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act. (12 U.S.C. 371c-1).
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank that is or is treated as a financial holding company under this part shall ensure that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any extension of credit by any U.S. branch or agency of such foreign bank to an affiliated company engaged in underwriting, dealing in, or making a market in securities pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(E) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(E)), conforms to sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1) as if the branch or agency were a member bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase by any U.S. branch or agency of such foreign bank, as principal or fiduciary, of securities for which a securities affiliate described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section is a principal underwriter conforms to sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1) as if the branch or agency were a member bank; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Its U.S. branches and agencies not advertise or suggest that they are responsible for the obligations of a securities affiliate described in paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section, consistent with section 23B(c) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1(c)) as if the branches or agencies were member banks.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Protection of customer information and consumer information.</I> A bank holding company shall comply with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards, as set forth in appendix F of this part, prescribed pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805). A bank holding company shall properly dispose of consumer information in accordance with the rules set forth at 16 CFR part 682.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9319, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998; 65 FR 14442, Mar. 17, 2000; 66 FR 8636, Feb. 1, 2001; 69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004; 71 FR 9901, Feb. 28, 2006; 76 FR 74644, Dec. 1, 2011; 78 FR 62290, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015; 83 FR 44198, Aug. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.5" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.5   Registration, reports, and inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Registration of bank holding companies.</I> Each company shall register within 180 days after becoming a bank holding company by furnishing information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board. A company that receives the Board's prior approval under subpart B of this part to become a bank holding company may complete this registration requirement through submission of its first annual report to the Board as required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports of bank holding companies.</I> Each bank holding company shall furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, an annual report of the company's operations for the fiscal year in which it becomes a bank holding company, and for each fiscal year during which it remains a bank holding company. Additional information and reports shall be furnished as the Board may require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examinations and inspections.</I> The Board may examine or inspect any bank holding company and each of its subsidiaries and prepare a report of their operations and activities. With respect to a foreign banking organization, the Board may also examine any branch or agency of a foreign bank in any state of the United States and may examine or inspect each of the organization's subsidiaries in the United States and prepare reports of their operations and activities. The Board shall rely, as far as possible, on the reports of examination made by the primary federal or state supervisor of the subsidiary bank of the bank holding company or of the branch or agency of the foreign bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.6" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.6   Penalties for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal and civil penalties.</I> (1) Section 8 of the BHC Act provides criminal penalties for willful violation, and civil penalties for violation, by any company or individual, of the BHC Act or any regulation or order issued under it, or for making a false entry in any book, report, or statement of a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) Civil money penalty assessments for violations of the BHC Act shall be made in accordance with subpart C of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263, subpart C). For any willful violation of the Bank Control Act or any regulation or order issued under it, the Board may assess a civil penalty as provided in 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cease-and-desist proceedings.</I> For any violation of the BHC Act, the Bank Control Act, this regulation, or any order or notice issued thereunder, the Board may institute a cease-and-desist proceeding in accordance with the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.7" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.7   Exceptions to tying restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes exceptions to the anti-tying restrictions of section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971, 1972(1)). These exceptions are in addition to those in section 106. The section also restricts tying of electronic benefit transfer services by bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to statute.</I> Subject to the limitations of paragraph (c) of this section, a bank may:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Extension to affiliates of statutory exceptions preserving traditional banking relationships.</I> Extend credit, lease or sell property of any kind, or furnish any service, or fix or vary the consideration for any of the foregoing, on the condition or requirement that a customer:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain a loan, discount, deposit, or trust service from an affiliate of the bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide to an affiliate of the bank some additional credit, property, or service that the bank could require to be provided to itself pursuant to section 106(b)(1)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972(1)(C)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor for combined-balance discounts.</I> Vary the consideration for any product or package of products based on a customer's maintaining a combined minimum balance in certain products specified by the bank (eligible products), if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank offers deposits, and all such deposits are eligible products; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Balances in deposits count at least as much as nondeposit products toward the minimum balance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe harbor for foreign transactions.</I> Engage in any transaction with a customer if that customer is:
</P>
<P>(i) A corporation, business, or other person (other than an individual) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is incorporated, chartered, or otherwise organized outside the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has its principal place of business outside the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who is a citizen of a foreign country and is not resident in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations on exceptions.</I> Any exception granted pursuant to this section shall terminate upon a finding by the Board that the arrangement is resulting in anti-competitive practices. The eligibility of a bank to operate under any exception granted pursuant to this section shall terminate upon a finding by the Board that its exercise of this authority is resulting in anti-competitive practices.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extension of statute to electronic benefit transfer services.</I> A bank holding company or nonbank subsidiary of a bank holding company that provides electronic benefit transfer services shall be subject to the anti-tying restrictions applicable to such services set forth in section 7(i)(11) of the Food Stamp Act of 1977 (7 U.S.C. 2016(i)(11)).
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section, <I>bank</I> has the meaning given that term in section 106(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971), but shall also include a United States branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank that is subject to section 106 pursuant to section 8(d) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(d)), and any company made subject to section 106 by section 4(f)(9) or 4(h) of the BHC Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.8" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.8   Capital planning and stress capital buffer requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes capital planning and prior notice and approval requirements for capital distributions by certain bank holding companies. This section also establishes the Board's process for determining the stress capital buffer requirement applicable to these bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, this section applies to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any top-tier bank holding company domiciled in the United States with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more ($100 billion asset threshold);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other bank holding company domiciled in the United States that is made subject to this section, in whole or in part, by order of the Board;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Average total consolidated assets.</I> For purposes of this section, average total consolidated assets means the average of the total consolidated assets as reported by a bank holding company on its Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies (FR Y-9C) for the four most recent consecutive quarters. If the bank holding company has not filed the FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, average total consolidated assets means the average of the company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable. Average total consolidated assets are measured on the as-of date of the most recent FR Y-9C used in the calculation of the average.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A bank holding company (including any successor bank holding company) that is subject to any requirement in this section shall remain subject to such requirements unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $100 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as reported on the FR Y-9C and effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall limit the authority of the Federal Reserve to issue or enforce a capital directive or take any other supervisory or enforcement action, including an action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations of law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Unless the context otherwise requires, any reference to bank holding company in this section shall include a U.S. intermediate holding company and shall include a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board to the extent this section is made applicable pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Application of this section by order.</I> The Board may apply this section, in whole or in part, to a bank holding company by order based on the institution's size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transition periods for certain bank holding companies.</I> (1) A bank holding company that meets the $100 billion asset threshold (as measured under paragraph (b) of this section) on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this section beginning on January 1 of the next calendar year, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will not provide a bank holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement until the first year in which the Board conducts an analysis of the bank holding company pursuant to 12 CFR 252.44.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company that meets the $100 billion asset threshold after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this section beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the bank holding company meets the $100 billion asset threshold, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will not provide a bank holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement until the first year in which the Board conducts an analysis of the bank holding company pursuant to 12 CFR 252.44.


</P>
<P>(3) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with the concurrence of the Board, may require a bank holding company described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section to comply with any or all of the requirements of this section if the Board, or appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, determines that the requirement is appropriate on a different date based on the company's risk profile, scope of operation, or financial condition and provides prior notice to the company of the determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Average total nonbank assets</I> means the average of the total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP, for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the bank holding company has not filed the FR Y-9LP for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or quarters, as applicable.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital action</I> means any issuance of a debt or equity capital instrument, any capital distribution, and any similar action that the Federal Reserve determines could impact a bank holding company's consolidated capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital distribution</I> means a redemption or repurchase of any debt or equity capital instrument, a payment of common or preferred stock dividends, a payment that may be temporarily or permanently suspended by the issuer on any instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of any minimum regulatory capital ratio, and any similar transaction that the Federal Reserve determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Capital plan</I> means a written presentation of a bank holding company's capital planning strategies and capital adequacy process that includes the mandatory elements set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) C<I>apital plan cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Capital policy</I> means a bank holding company's written principles and guidelines used for capital planning, capital issuance, capital usage and distributions, including internal capital goals; the quantitative or qualitative guidelines for capital distributions; the strategies for addressing potential capital shortfalls; and the internal governance procedures around capital policy principles and guidelines.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Category IV bank holding company</I> means any bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section that, as of December 31 of the prior capital plan cycle, is a Category IV banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR part 217.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Effective capital distribution limitations</I> means any limitations on capital distributions established by the Board by order or regulation, including pursuant to 12 CFR 217.11, 225.4, 252.63, 252.165, and 263.202, provided that, for any limitations based on risk-weighted assets, such limitations must be calculated using the standardized approach, as set forth in 12 CFR part 217, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Final planned capital distributions</I> means the planned capital distributions included in a capital plan that include the adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, if any.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>GSIB surcharge</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.403.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Internal baseline scenario</I> means a scenario that reflects the bank holding company's expectation of the economic and financial outlook, including expectations related to the bank holding company's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Internal stress scenario</I> means a scenario designed by a bank holding company that stresses the specific vulnerabilities of the bank holding company's risk profile and operations, including those related to the bank holding company's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning with the quarter preceding the quarter in which the bank holding company submits its capital plan, over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the bank holding company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the bank holding company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the bank holding company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Severely adverse scenario</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR part 252, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Stress capital buffer requirement</I> means the amount calculated under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Supervisory stress test</I> means a stress test conducted using a severely adverse scenario and the assumptions contained in 12 CFR part 252, subpart E.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means the top-tier U.S. company that is required to be established pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153.




</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital planning requirements and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Annual capital planning.</I> (i) A bank holding company must develop and maintain a capital plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank holding company must submit its complete capital plan to the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank by April 5 of each calendar year, or such later date as directed by the Board or by the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank holding company's board of directors or a designated committee thereof must at least annually and prior to submission of the capital plan under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the robustness of the bank holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any deficiencies in the bank holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy are appropriately remedied; and
</P>
<P>(C) Approve the bank holding company's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory elements of capital plan.</I> A capital plan must contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the expected uses and sources of capital over the planning horizon that reflects the bank holding company's size, complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations, assuming both expected and stressful conditions, including:


</P>
<P>(A) Estimates of projected revenues, losses, reserves, and pro forma capital levels, including regulatory capital ratios, and any additional capital measures deemed relevant by the bank holding company, over the planning horizon under a range of scenarios, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, the Internal baseline scenario and at least one Internal stress scenario, as well as any additional scenarios, based on financial conditions or the macroeconomic outlook, or based on the bank holding company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy, that the Federal Reserve may provide the bank holding company after giving notice to the bank holding company; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, any scenarios provided by the Federal Reserve, the Internal baseline scenario, and at least one Internal stress scenario;






</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of the results of any stress test required by law or regulation, and an explanation of how the capital plan takes these results into account; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of all planned capital actions over the planning horizon. Planned capital actions must be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations, except as may be adjusted pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section. In determining whether a bank holding company's planned capital distributions are consistent with effective capital distribution limitations, a bank holding company must assume that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any countercyclical capital buffer amount currently applicable to the bank holding company remains at the same level, except that the bank holding company must reflect any increases or decreases in the countercyclical capital buffer amount that have been announced by the Board at the times indicated by the Board's announcement for when such increases or decreases will take effect; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any GSIB surcharge currently applicable to the bank holding company when the capital plan is submitted remains at the same level, except that the bank holding company must reflect any increase in its GSIB surcharge pursuant to 12 CFR 217.403(d)(1), beginning in the fifth quarter of the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the bank holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of how the bank holding company will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain capital commensurate with its risks, maintain capital above the regulatory capital ratios, and serve as a source of strength to its subsidiary depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of how the bank holding company will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain sufficient capital to continue its operations by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank holding company's capital policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A discussion of any expected changes to the bank holding company's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the bank holding company's capital adequacy or liquidity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Data collection.</I> Upon the request of the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank, the bank holding company shall provide the Federal Reserve with information regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank holding company's financial condition, including its capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank holding company's structure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amount and risk characteristics of the bank holding company's on- and off-balance sheet exposures, including exposures within the bank holding company's trading account, other trading-related exposures (such as counterparty-credit risk exposures) or other items sensitive to changes in market factors, including, as appropriate, information about the sensitivity of positions to changes in market rates and prices;
</P>
<P>(iv) The bank holding company's relevant policies and procedures, including risk management policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(v) The bank holding company's liquidity profile and management;
</P>
<P>(vi) The loss, revenue, and expense estimation models used by the bank holding company for stress scenario analysis, including supporting documentation regarding each model's development and validation; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other relevant qualitative or quantitative information requested by the Board or by the appropriate Reserve Bank to facilitate review of the bank holding company's capital plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> (i) A bank holding company must update and resubmit its capital plan to the appropriate Reserve Bank within 30 calendar days of the occurrence of one of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank holding company determines there has been or will be a material change in the bank holding company's risk profile, financial condition, or corporate structure since the bank holding company last submitted the capital plan to the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank under this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, directs the bank holding company in writing to revise and resubmit its capital plan for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The capital plan is incomplete or the capital plan, or the bank holding company's internal capital adequacy process, contains material weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) There has been, or will likely be, a material change in the bank holding company's risk profile (including a material change in its business strategy or any risk exposure), financial condition, or corporate structure;


</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Internal stress scenario(s) are not appropriate for the bank holding company's business model and portfolios, or changes in financial markets or the macro-economic outlook that could have a material impact on a bank holding company's risk profile and financial condition require the use of updated scenarios; or












</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, may extend the 30-day period in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section for up to an additional 60 calendar days, or such longer period as the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank, with concurrence of the Board, determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any updated capital plan must satisfy all the requirements of this section; however, a bank holding company may continue to rely on information submitted as part of a previously submitted capital plan to the extent that the information remains accurate and appropriate.






</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this section and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of the stress capital buffer requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Board will determine the stress capital buffer requirement that applies under 12 CFR 217.11 pursuant to this paragraph (f). For each bank holding company that is not a Category IV bank holding company, the Board will calculate the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement annually. For each Category IV bank holding company, the Board will calculate the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement biennially, occurring in each calendar year ending in an even number, and will adjust the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement biennially, occurring in each calendar year ending in an odd number. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will calculate the stress capital buffer requirement of a Category IV bank holding company in a year ending in an odd number with respect to which that company makes an election pursuant to 12 CFR 252.44(d)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stress capital buffer requirement calculation.</I> A bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement is equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The following calculation:
</P>
<P>(A) The ratio of a bank holding company's common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, as of the final quarter of the previous capital plan cycle, unless otherwise determined by the Board; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The lowest projected ratio of the bank holding company's common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; plus
</P>
<P>(C) The ratio of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sum of the bank holding company's planned common stock dividends (expressed as a dollar amount) for each of the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon; to
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-weighted assets of the bank holding company in the quarter in which the bank holding company had its lowest projected ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 2.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recalculation of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> If a bank holding company resubmits its capital plan pursuant to paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the Board may recalculate the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement. The Board will provide notice of whether the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement will be recalculated within 75 calendar days after the date on which the capital plan is resubmitted, unless the Board provides notice to the company that it is extending the time period.


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjustment of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> In each calendar year in which the Board does not calculate a Category IV bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the Board will adjust the Category IV bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement to be equal to the result of the calculation set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, using the same values that were used to calculate the stress capital buffer requirement most recently provided to the bank holding company, except that the value used in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section will be equal to the bank holding company's planned common stock dividends (expressed as a dollar amount) for each of the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon as set forth in the capital plan submitted by the bank holding company in the calendar year in which the Board adjusts the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement.






</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of capital plans by the Federal Reserve.</I> The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will consider the following factors in reviewing a bank holding company's capital plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The comprehensiveness of the capital plan, including the extent to which the analysis underlying the capital plan captures and addresses potential risks stemming from activities across the bank holding company and the bank holding company's capital policy;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasonableness of the bank holding company's capital plan, the assumptions and analysis underlying the capital plan, and the robustness of its capital adequacy process;
</P>
<P>(3) Relevant supervisory information about the bank holding company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) The bank holding company's regulatory and financial reports, as well as supporting data that would allow for an analysis of the bank holding company's loss, revenue, and reserve projections;
</P>
<P>(5) The results of any stress tests conducted by the bank holding company or the Federal Reserve; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other information requested or required by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank, as well as any other information relevant, or related, to the bank holding company's capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federal Reserve notice of stress capital buffer requirement; final planned capital distributions</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The Board will provide a bank holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test. Unless otherwise determined by the Board, notice will be provided by June 30 of the calendar year in which the capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section or within 90 calendar days of receiving notice that the Board will recalculate the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to notice</I>—(i) <I>Request for reconsideration of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> A bank holding company may request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement provided under paragraph (h)(1) of this section. To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, a bank holding company must submit to the Board a request pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustments to planned capital distributions.</I> Within two business days of receipt of notice of a stress capital buffer requirement under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, a bank holding company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine whether the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect; and
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would not be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect, the bank holding company must adjust its planned capital distributions such that its planned capital distributions would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect, the bank holding company may adjust its planned capital distributions. A bank holding company may not adjust its planned capital distributions to be inconsistent with the effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify the Board of any adjustments made to planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final planned capital distributions.</I> The Board will consider the planned capital distributions, including any adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section, to be the bank holding company's final planned capital distributions on the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration of the time for requesting reconsideration under paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the time for adjusting planned capital distributions pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effective date of final stress capital buffer requirement.</I> (i) The Board will provide a bank holding company with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of the bank holding company's final planned capital distributions by August 31 of the calendar year that a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, unless otherwise determined by the Board. A stress capital buffer requirement will not be considered final so as to be agency action subject to judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 704 during the pendency of a request for reconsideration made pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section or before the time for requesting reconsideration has expired.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise determined by the Board, a bank holding company's final planned capital distributions and final stress capital buffer requirement shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be effective on October 1 of the calendar year in which a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Remain in effect until superseded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication.</I> With respect to any bank holding company subject to this section, the Board may disclose publicly any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The stress capital buffer requirement provided to a bank holding company under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii);
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the results of the supervisory stress test; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Administrative remedies; request for reconsideration.</I> The following requirements and procedures apply to any request under this paragraph (i):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, provided under paragraph (h) of this section, a bank holding company must submit a written request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of request.</I> A request for reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, provided under paragraph (h) of this section, must be received within 15 calendar days of receipt of a notice of a bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of request.</I> (i) A request for reconsideration must include a detailed explanation of why reconsideration should be granted (that is, why a stress capital buffer requirement should be reconsidered). With respect to any information that was not previously provided to the Federal Reserve in the bank holding company's capital plan, the request should include an explanation of why the information should be considered.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for reconsideration may include a request for an informal hearing on the bank holding company's request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing.</I> (i) The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(ii) An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Response to request.</I> Within 30 calendar days of receipt of the bank holding company's request for reconsideration of its stress capital buffer requirement submitted under paragraph (i)(2) of this section or within 30 days of the conclusion of an informal hearing conducted under paragraph (i)(4) of this section, the Board will notify the company of its decision to affirm or modify the bank holding company's stress capital buffer requirement, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Distributions during the pendency of a request for reconsideration.</I> During the pendency of the Board's decision under paragraph (i)(5) of this section, the bank holding company may make capital distributions that are consistent with effective distribution limitations, unless prior approval is required under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Approval requirements for certain capital actions</I>—(1) <I>Circumstances requiring approval</I>—<I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> Unless it receives prior approval pursuant to paragraph (j)(3) of this section, a bank holding company may not make a capital distribution (excluding any capital distribution arising from the issuance of a capital instrument eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio) if the capital distribution would occur after the occurrence of an event requiring resubmission under paragraph (e)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for a capital distribution under this section must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank holding company's capital plan or a discussion of changes to the bank holding company's capital plan since it was last submitted to the Federal Reserve;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the capital distribution, including for redemptions or repurchases of securities, the gross consideration to be paid and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and for dividends, the amount of the dividend(s); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any additional information requested by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank (which may include, among other things, an assessment of the bank holding company's capital adequacy under a severely adverse scenario, a revised capital plan, and supporting data).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval of certain capital distributions.</I> (i) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will act on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution within 30 calendar days after the receipt of all the information required under paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In acting on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution, the Board, or appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will apply the considerations and principles in paragraph (g) of this section, as appropriate. In addition, the Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, may disapprove the transaction if the bank holding company does not provide all of the information required to be submitted under paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disapproval and hearing.</I> (i) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will notify the bank holding company in writing of the reasons for a decision to disapprove any proposed capital distribution. Within 15 calendar days after receipt of a disapproval by the Board, the bank holding company may submit a written request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact. An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be given to the bank holding company within 60 calendar days of the conclusion of any informal hearing ordered by the Board, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iv) While the Board's decision is pending and until such time as the Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, approves the capital distribution at issue, the bank holding company may not make such capital distribution.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Post notice requirement.</I> A bank holding company must notify the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank within 15 days of making a capital distribution if:
</P>
<P>(1) The capital distribution was approved pursuant to paragraph (j)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The dollar amount of the capital distribution will exceed the dollar amount of the bank holding company's final planned capital distributions, as measured on an aggregate basis beginning in the fourth quarter of the planning horizon through the quarter at issue.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 15599, Mar. 18, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 7940, Feb. 3, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.9" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.9   Control over securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contingent rights, convertible securities, options, and warrants.</I> (1) A person that controls a security, option, warrant, or other financial instrument that is convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or otherwise may become a security controls each security that could be acquired as a result of such conversion, exercise, exchange, or similar occurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) If a financial instrument of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or otherwise may become a number of securities that varies according to a formula, rate, or other variable metric, the number of securities controlled under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is the maximum number of securities that the financial instrument could be converted into, be exercised for, be exchanged for, or otherwise become under the formula, rate, or other variable metric.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person does not control voting securities due to controlling a financial instrument if the financial instrument:
</P>
<P>(i) By its terms is not convertible into, is not exercisable for, is not exchangeable for, and may not otherwise become voting securities in the hands of the person or an affiliate of the person; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By its terms is only convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or may otherwise become voting securities in the hands of a transferee after a transfer:
</P>
<P>(A) In a widespread public distribution;
</P>
<P>(B) To the issuing company;
</P>
<P>(C) In transfers in which no transferee (or group of associated transferees) would receive 2 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the issuing company; or
</P>
<P>(D) To a transferee that would control more than 50 percent of every class of voting securities of the issuing company without any transfer from the person.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person that has agreed to acquire securities or other financial instruments pursuant to a securities purchase agreement does not control such securities or financial instruments until the person acquires the securities or financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a right that provides a person the ability to acquire securities in future issuances or to convert nonvoting securities into voting securities does not cause the person to control the securities that could be acquired under the right, so long as the right does not allow the person to acquire a higher percentage of the class of securities than the person controlled immediately prior to the future acquisition.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a preferred security that would be a nonvoting security but for a right to vote on directors that activates only after six or more quarters of unpaid dividends is not considered to be a voting security until the security holder is entitled to exercise the voting right.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of determining the percentage of a class of voting securities or the total equity percentage of a company controlled by a person that controls a financial instrument of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The securities controlled by the person under paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section are deemed to be issued and outstanding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any securities controlled by anyone other than the person under paragraph (a)(1) through (6) of this section are not deemed to be issued and outstanding, unless by the terms of the financial instruments the securities controlled by the other persons must be issued and outstanding in order for the securities of the person to be issued and outstanding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction on securities.</I> A person that enters into an agreement or understanding with a second person under which the rights of the second person are restricted in any manner with respect to securities that are controlled by the second person, controls the securities of the second person, unless the restriction is:
</P>
<P>(1) A requirement that the second person offer the securities for sale to the first person for a reasonable period of time prior to transferring the securities to a third party;
</P>
<P>(2) A requirement that, if the second person agrees to sell the securities, the second person provide the first person with the opportunity to participate in the sale of the securities by the second person;
</P>
<P>(3) A requirement under which the second person agrees to sell its securities to a third party if a majority of security holders agrees to sell their securities to the third party;
</P>
<P>(4) Incident to a bona fide loan transaction in which the securities serve as collateral;
</P>
<P>(5) A short-term and revocable proxy;
</P>
<P>(6) A restriction on transferability that continues only for a reasonable amount of time necessary to complete an acquisition by the first person of the securities from the second person, including the time necessary to obtain required approval from an appropriate government authority with respect to the acquisition;
</P>
<P>(7) A requirement that the second person vote the securities in favor of a specific acquisition of control of the issuing company, or against competing transactions, if the restriction continues only for a reasonable amount of time necessary to complete the transaction, including the time necessary to obtain required approval from an appropriate government authority with respect to an acquisition or merger; or
</P>
<P>(8) An agreement among security holders of the issuing company intended to preserve the tax status or tax benefits of the company, such as qualification of the issuing company as a Subchapter S corporation, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1361(a)(1) or any successor statute, or prevention of events that could impair deferred tax assets, such as net operating loss carryforwards, as described in 26 U.S.C. 382 or any successor statute.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Securities held by senior management officials or controlling equity holders of a company.</I> A company that controls 5 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another company controls all securities issued by the second company that are controlled by senior management officials, directors, or controlling shareholders of the first company, or by immediate family members of such persons, unless the first company controls less than 15 percent of each class of voting securities of the second company and the senior management officials, directors, and controlling shareholders of the first company, and immediate family members of such persons, control 50 percent or more of each class of voting securities of the second company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, the Board may determine that securities are or are not controlled by a company based on the facts and circumstances presented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 12421, Mar. 2, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.10" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.1.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.10   Temporary relief for 2020 and 2021.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section and subject to the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, the consolidated assets, consolidated risk-weighted assets, total consolidated assets, and total assets of a bank holding company for purposes of §§ 225.4(b)(2)(iii)(A) and (B), 225.14(a)(1)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>), 225.14(a)(1)(vi), 225.23(a)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>), 225.24(a)(2)(iv) and (v), and 225.28(b)(11)(vi) shall be determined based on the lesser of each such amount as of December 31, 2019, and as of the otherwise applicable asset measurement date of the relevant paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section and subject to the provisions of paragraph (d) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining the applicability of §§ 224.14(c)(6)(ii), 225.17(a)(6), and 225.23(c)(5)(ii) of this part and appendix C to this part, the <I>pro forma</I> consolidated assets of a bank holding company and the consolidated risk-weighted assets of a bank holding company immediately following consummation of a transaction each shall be calculated as the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) Such amount calculated as the sum of the assets of each company involved in the proposed business combination, as well as any company with which any such company has combined since December 31, 2019, as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such amount calculated as the sum of the assets of each company involved in the proposed business combination as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(c) The relief provided under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section does not apply to a bank holding company if the Board determines that permitting the bank holding company to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the bank holding company. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the bank holding company since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the bank holding company has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the bank holding company. In making a determination pursuant to this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section limits the discretion of the Board or its delegatee to disallow the use of any expedited action process, require the submission of additional information in connection with a notice or application, or consider the ability of a bank holding company filing a notice or application under this part to comply with any statutory or regulatory requirements that may be applicable to the bank holding company upon expiration of the relief provided by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 77361, Dec. 2, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Acquisition of Bank Securities or Assets</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 62 FR 9324, Feb. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.11   Transactions requiring Board approval.</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions require the Board's prior approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act except as exempted under § 225.12 or as otherwise covered by § 225.17 of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Formation of bank holding company.</I> Any action that causes a bank or other company to become a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition of subsidiary bank.</I> Any action that causes a bank to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisition of control of bank or bank holding company securities.</I> (1) The acquisition by a bank holding company of direct or indirect ownership or control of any voting securities of a bank or bank holding company, if the acquisition results in the company's control of more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the bank or bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) An acquisition includes the purchase of additional securities through the exercise of preemptive rights, but does not include securities received in a stock dividend or stock split that does not alter the bank holding company's proportional share of any class of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquisition of bank assets.</I> The acquisition by a bank holding company or by a subsidiary thereof (other than a bank) of all or substantially all of the assets of a bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Merger of bank holding companies.</I> The merger or consolidation of bank holding companies, including a merger through the purchase of assets and assumption of liabilities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transactions by foreign banking organization.</I> Any transaction described in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section by a foreign banking organization that involves the acquisition of an interest in a U.S. bank or in a bank holding company for which application would be required if the foreign banking organization were a bank holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.12   Transactions not requiring Board approval.</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions do <I>not</I> require the Board's approval under § 225.11 of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acquisition of securities in fiduciary capacity.</I> The acquisition by a bank or other company (other than a trust that is a company) of control of voting securities of a bank or bank holding company in good faith in a fiduciary capacity, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquiring bank or other company has sole discretionary authority to vote the securities and retains this authority for more than two years; or
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition is for the benefit of the acquiring bank or other company, or its shareholders, employees, or subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition of securities in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</I> The acquisition by a bank or other company of control of voting securities of a bank or bank holding company in the regular course of securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, if the acquiring bank or other company divests the securities within two years of acquisition. The Board or Reserve Bank may grant requests for up to three one-year extensions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisition of securities by bank holding company with majority control.</I> The acquisition by a bank holding company of additional voting securities of a bank or bank holding company if more than 50 percent of the outstanding voting securities of the bank or bank holding company is lawfully controlled by the acquiring bank holding company prior to the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquisitions involving bank mergers and internal corporate reorganizations</I>—(1) <I>Transactions subject to Bank Merger Act.</I> The merger or consolidation of a subsidiary bank of a bank holding company with another bank, or the purchase of assets by the subsidiary bank, or a similar transaction involving subsidiary banks of a bank holding company, if the transaction requires the prior approval of a federal supervisory agency under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) and does not involve the acquisition of shares of a bank. This exception does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The merger of a nonsubsidiary bank and a nonoperating subsidiary bank formed by a company for the purpose of acquiring the nonsubsidiary bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any transaction requiring the Board's prior approval under § 225.11(e) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>The Board may require an application under this subpart if it determines that the merger or consolidation would have a significant adverse impact on the financial condition of the bank holding company, or otherwise requires approval under section 3 of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain acquisitions subject to Bank Merger Act.</I> The acquisition by a bank holding company of shares of a bank or company controlling a bank or the merger of a company controlling a bank with the bank holding company, if the transaction is part of the merger or consolidation of the bank with a subsidiary bank (other than a nonoperating subsidiary bank) of the acquiring bank holding company, or is part of the purchase of substantially all of the assets of the bank by a subsidiary bank (other than a nonoperating subsidiary bank) of the acquiring bank holding company, and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank merger, consolidation, or asset purchase occurs simultaneously with the acquisition of the shares of the bank or bank holding company or the merger of holding companies, and the bank is not operated by the acquiring bank holding company as a separate entity other than as the survivor of the merger, consolidation, or asset purchase;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction requires the prior approval of a federal supervisory agency under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of any nonbank company that would require prior approval under section 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843);
</P>
<P>(iv) Both before and after the transaction, the acquiring bank holding company meets the requirements of 12 CFR part 217;
</P>
<P>(v) At least 10 days prior to the transaction, the acquiring bank holding company has provided to the Reserve Bank written notice of the transaction that contains:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the filing made to the appropriate federal banking agency under the Bank Merger Act; and
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the holding company's involvement in the transaction, the purchase price, and the source of funding for the purchase price; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Prior to expiration of the period provided in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section, the Reserve Bank has not informed the bank holding company that an application under § 225.11 is required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Internal corporate reorganizations.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section, any of the following transactions performed in the United States by a bank holding company:
</P>
<P>(A) The merger of holding companies that are subsidiaries of the bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) The formation of a subsidiary holding company; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In the case of a transaction that results in the formation or designation of a new bank holding company, the new bank holding company must complete the registration requirements described in § 225.5.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) The transfer of control or ownership of a subsidiary bank or a subsidiary holding company between one subsidiary holding company and another subsidiary holding company or the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section qualifies for this exception if:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction represents solely a corporate reorganization involving companies and insured depository institutions that, both preceding and following the transaction, are lawfully controlled and operated by the bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of additional voting shares of an insured depository institution that, prior to the transaction, was less than majority owned by the bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(C) The bank holding company is not organized in mutual form; and
</P>
<P>(D) Both before and after the transaction, the bank holding company meets the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines (appendices A, B, C, D, and E of this part).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holding securities in escrow.</I> The holding of any voting securities of a bank or bank holding company in an escrow arrangement for the benefit of an applicant pending the Board's action on an application for approval of the proposed acquisition, if title to the securities and the voting rights remain with the seller and payment for the securities has not been made to the seller.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acquisition of foreign banking organization.</I> The acquisition of a foreign banking organization where the foreign banking organization does not directly or indirectly own or control a bank in the United States, unless the acquisition is also by a foreign banking organization and otherwise subject to § 225.11(f) of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[ Reg. Y, 62 FR 9324, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.13" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.13   Factors considered in acting on bank acquisition proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Factors requiring denial.</I> As specified in section 3(c) of the BHC Act, the Board may not approve any application under this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction would result in a monopoly or would further any combination or conspiracy to monopolize, or to attempt to monopolize, the business of banking in any part of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) The effect of the transaction may be substantially to lessen competition in any section of the country, tend to create a monopoly, or in any other manner be in restraint of trade, unless the Board finds that the transaction's anti-competitive effects are clearly outweighed by its probable effect in meeting the convenience and needs of the community;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant has failed to provide the Board with adequate assurances that it will make available such information on its operations or activities, and the operations or activities of any affiliate of the applicant, that the Board deems appropriate to determine and enforce compliance with the BHC Act and other applicable federal banking statutes, and any regulations thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an application involving a foreign banking organization, the foreign banking organization is not subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by the appropriate authorities in its home country, as provided in § 211.24(c)(1)(ii) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(c)(1)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other factors.</I> In deciding applications under this subpart, the Board also considers the following factors with respect to the applicant, its subsidiaries, any banks related to the applicant through common ownership or management, and the bank or banks to be acquired:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial condition.</I> Their financial condition and future prospects, including whether current and projected capital positions and levels of indebtedness conform to standards and policies established by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Managerial resources.</I> The competence, experience, and integrity of the officers, directors, and principal shareholders of the applicant, its subsidiaries, and the banks and bank holding companies concerned; their record of compliance with laws and regulations; and the record of the applicant and its affiliates of fulfilling any commitments to, and any conditions imposed by, the Board in connection with prior applications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convenience and needs of community.</I> The convenience and needs of the communities to be served, including the record of performance under the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) and regulations issued thereunder, including the Board's Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interstate transactions.</I> The Board may approve any application or notice under this subpart by a bank holding company to acquire control of all or substantially all of the assets of a bank located in a state other than the home state of the bank holding company, without regard to whether the transaction is prohibited under the law of any state, if the transaction complies with the requirements of section 3(d) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(d)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditional approvals.</I> The Board may impose conditions on any approval, including conditions to address competitive, financial, managerial, safety and soundness, convenience and needs, compliance or other concerns, to ensure that approval is consistent with the relevant statutory factors and other provisions of the BHC Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.14" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.14   Expedited action for certain bank acquisitions by well-run bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of notice</I>—(1) <I>Information required and public notice.</I> As an alternative to the procedure provided in § 225.15, a bank holding company that meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section may satisfy the prior approval requirements of § 225.11 in connection with the acquisition of shares, assets or control of a bank, or a merger or consolidation between bank holding companies, by providing the appropriate Reserve Bank with a written notice containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A certification that all of the criteria in paragraph (c) of this section are met;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the transaction that includes identification of the companies and insured depository institutions involved in the transaction 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and identification of each banking market affected by the transaction;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If, in connection with a transaction under this subpart, any person or group of persons proposes to acquire control of the acquiring bank holding company for purposes of the Bank Control Act or § 225.41, the person or group of persons may fulfill the notice requirements of the Bank Control Act and § 225.43 by providing, as part of the submission by the acquiring bank holding company under this subpart, identifying and biographical information required in paragraph (6)(A) of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)(A)), as well as any financial or other information requested by the Reserve Bank under § 225.43.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) A description of the effect of the transaction on the convenience and needs of the communities to be served and of the actions being taken by the bank holding company to improve the CRA performance of any insured depository institution subsidiary that does not have at least a satisfactory CRA performance rating at the time of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Evidence that notice of the proposal has been published in accordance with § 225.16(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(v)(A) If the bank holding company is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of $3 billion or more, an abbreviated consolidated <I>pro forma</I> balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, consolidated <I>pro forma</I> risk-based capital ratios for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter, and a description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of less than $3 billion, a <I>pro forma</I> parent-only balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, and a description of the purchase price, the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and the sources and schedule for retiring any debt incurred in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) If the bank holding company is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), an abbreviated consolidated <I>pro forma</I> balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, consolidated <I>pro forma</I> leverage ratio (as calculated under § 217.12 of this chapter) for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter, and a description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of less than $300 million, a list of and biographical information regarding any directors or senior executive officers of the resulting bank holding company that are not directors or senior executive officers of the acquiring bank holding company or of a company or institution to be acquired;
</P>
<P>(vii)(A) For each insured depository institution (that is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)) whose Tier 1 capital, total capital, total assets or risk-weighted assets change as a result of the transaction, the total risk-weighted assets, total assets, Tier 1 capital and total capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each insured depository institution that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), whose Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) or total assets change as a result of the transaction, the total assets and Tier 1 capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The market indexes for each relevant banking market reflecting the <I>pro forma</I> effect of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of unnecessary information.</I> The Reserve Bank may reduce the information requirements in paragraph (a)(1)(v) through (viii) of this section as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Action on proposals under this section.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall act on a proposal submitted under this section or notify the bank holding company that the transaction is subject to the procedure in § 225.15 within 5 business days after the close of the public comment period. The Board and the Reserve Bank shall not approve any proposal under this section prior to the third business day following the close of the public comment period, unless an emergency exists that requires expedited or immediate action. The Board may extend the period for action under this section for up to 5 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acceptance of notice in event expedited procedure not available.</I> In the event that the Board or the Reserve Bank determines after the filing of a notice under this section that a bank holding company may not use the procedure in this section and must file an application under § 225.15, the application shall be deemed accepted for purposes of § 225.15 as of the date that the notice was filed under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for use of expedited procedure.</I> The procedure in this section is available only if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well-capitalized organization</I>—(i) <I>Bank holding company.</I> Both at the time of and immediately after the proposed transaction, the acquiring bank holding company is well-capitalized;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Insured depository institutions.</I> Both at the time of and immediately after the proposed transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The lead insured depository institution of the acquiring bank holding company is well-capitalized;
</P>
<P>(B) Well-capitalized insured depository institutions control at least 80 percent of the total risk-weighted assets of insured depository institutions controlled by the acquiring bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) No insured depository institution controlled by the acquiring bank holding company is undercapitalized;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Well managed organization</I>—(i) <I>Satisfactory examination ratings.</I> At the time of the transaction, the acquiring bank holding company, its lead insured depository institution, and insured depository institutions that control at least 80 percent of the total risk-weighted assets of insured depository institutions controlled by the holding company are well managed and have received at least a satisfactory rating for compliance at their most recent examination if such rating was given;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No poorly managed institutions.</I> No insured depository institution controlled by the acquiring bank holding company has received 1 of the 2 lowest composite ratings at the later of the institution's most recent examination or subsequent review by the appropriate federal banking agency for the institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Recently acquired institutions excluded.</I> Any insured depository institution that has been acquired by the bank holding company during the 12-month period preceding the date on which written notice is filed under paragraph (a) of this section may be excluded for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section if :
</P>
<P>(A) The bank holding company has developed a plan acceptable to the appropriate federal banking agency for the institution to restore the capital and management of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) All insured depository institutions excluded under this paragraph represent, in the aggregate, less than 10 percent of the aggregate total risk-weighted assets of all insured depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convenience and needs criteria</I>—(i) <I>Effect on the community.</I> The record indicates that the proposed transaction would meet the convenience and needs of the community standard in the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Established CRA performance record.</I> At the time of the transaction, the lead insured depository institution of the acquiring bank holding company and insured depository institutions that control at least 80 percent of the total risk-weighted assets of insured institutions controlled by the holding company have received a satisfactory or better composite rating at the most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public comment.</I> No comment that is timely and substantive as provided in § 225.16 is received by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank other than a comment that supports approval of the proposal;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Competitive criteria</I>—(i) <I>Competitive screen.</I> Without regard to any divestitures proposed by the acquiring bank holding company, the acquisition does not cause:
</P>
<P>(A) Insured depository institutions controlled by the acquiring bank holding company to control in excess of 35 percent of market deposits in any relevant banking market; or
</P>
<P>(B) The Herfindahl-Hirschman index to increase by more than 200 points in any relevant banking market with a post-acquisition index of at least 1800; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Department of Justice.</I> The Department of Justice has not indicated to the Board that consummation of the transaction is likely to have a significantly adverse effect on competition in any relevant banking market;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Size of acquisition</I>—(i) <I>In general</I>—(A) <I>Limited growth.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(6)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the sum of the aggregate risk-weighted assets to be acquired in the proposal and the aggregate risk-weighted assets acquired by the acquiring bank holding company in all other qualifying transactions does not exceed 35 percent of the consolidated risk-weighted assets of the acquiring bank holding company. For purposes paragraph (c)(6) of this section, <I>other qualifying transactions</I> means any transaction approved under this section or § 225.23 during the 12 months prior to filing the notice under this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Individual size limitation.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(6)(iii) of this section, the total risk-weighted assets to be acquired do not exceed $7.5 billion;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small bank holding companies.</I> Paragraph (c)(6)(i)(A) of this section shall not apply if, immediately following consummation of the proposed transaction, the consolidated risk-weighted assets of the acquiring bank holding company are less than $300 million;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> Paragraphs (c)(6)(i)(A) and (B) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(A) The acquiring bank holding company is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the total assets to be acquired in the proposal and the total assets acquired by the acquiring bank holding company in all other qualifying transactions does not exceed 35 percent of the average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) of the acquiring bank holding company as last reported to the Board; and
</P>
<P>(C) The total assets to be acquired do not exceed $7.5 billion;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> During the 12-month period ending on the date on which the bank holding company proposes to consummate the proposed transaction, no formal administrative order, including a written agreement, cease and desist order, capital directive, prompt corrective action directive, asset maintenance agreement, or other formal enforcement action, is or was outstanding against the bank holding company or any insured depository institution subsidiary of the holding company, and no formal administrative enforcement proceeding involving any such enforcement action, order, or directive is or was pending;
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Interstate acquisitions.</I> Board-approval of the transaction is not prohibited under section 3(d) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Other supervisory considerations.</I> Board approval of the transaction is not prohibited under the informational sufficiency or comprehensive home country supervision standards set forth in section 3(c)(3) of the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Notification.</I> The acquiring bank holding company has not been notified by the Board, in its discretion, prior to the expiration of the period in paragraph (b)(1) of this section that an application under § 225.15 is required in order to permit closer review of any financial, managerial, competitive, convenience and needs or other matter related to the factors that must be considered under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Comment by primary banking supervisor</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> Upon receipt of a notice under this section, the appropriate Reserve Bank shall promptly furnish notice of the proposal and a copy of the information filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section to the primary banking supervisor of the insured depository institutions to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Comment period.</I> The primary banking supervisor shall have 30 calendar days (or such shorter time as agreed to by the primary banking supervisor) from the date of the letter giving notice in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Action subject to supervisor's comment.</I> Action by the Board or the Reserve Bank on a proposal under this section is subject to the condition that the primary banking supervisor not recommend in writing to the Board disapproval of the proposal prior to the expiration of the comment period described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. In such event, any approval given under this section shall be revoked and, if required by section 3(b) of the BHC Act, the Board shall order a hearing on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Emergencies.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(3) of this section, the Board may provide the primary banking supervisor with 10 calendar days' notice of a proposal under this section if the Board finds that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, and may act during the notice period or without providing notice to the primary banking supervisor if the Board finds that it must act immediately to prevent probable failure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Primary banking supervisor.</I> For purposes of this section and § 225.15(b), <I>the primary banking supervisor</I> for an institution is:
</P>
<P>(i) The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, in the case of a national banking association or District bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate supervisory authority for the State in which the bank is chartered, in the case of a State bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision, in the case of a savings association.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Branches and agencies of foreign banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this section, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking organization shall be considered to be an insured depository institution. A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking organization shall be subject to paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section only to the extent it is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in accordance with section 6 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3104).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) controls total risk-weighted assets equal to the qualifying community banking organization's average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) as last reported to its primary banking supervisor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9324, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 415, Jan. 3, 2001; 71 FR 9901, Feb. 28, 2006; 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 83 FR 44199, Aug. 30, 2018; 84 FR 61799, Nov. 13, 2019; 84 FR 70887, Dec. 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.15" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.15   Procedures for other bank acquisition proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing application.</I> Except as provided in § 225.14, an application for the Board's prior approval under this subpart shall be governed by the provisions of this section and shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank on the designated form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to primary banking supervisor.</I> Upon receipt of an application under this subpart, the Reserve Bank shall promptly furnish notice and a copy of the application to the primary banking supervisor of each bank to be acquired. The primary supervisor shall have 30 calendar days from the date of the letter giving notice in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accepting application for processing.</I> Within 7 calendar days after the Reserve Bank receives an application under this section, the Reserve Bank shall accept it for processing as of the date the application was filed or return the application if it is substantially incomplete. Upon accepting an application, the Reserve Bank shall immediately send copies to the Board. The Reserve Bank or the Board may request additional information necessary to complete the record of an application at any time after accepting the application for processing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action on applications</I>—(1) <I>Action under delegated authority.</I> The Reserve Bank shall approve an application under this section within 30 calendar days after the acceptance date for the application, unless the Reserve Bank, upon notice to the applicant, refers the application to the Board for decision because action under delegated authority is not appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board action.</I> The Board shall act on an application under this subpart that is referred to it for decision within 60 calendar days after the acceptance date for the application, unless the Board notifies the applicant that the 60-day period is being extended for a specified period and states the reasons for the extension. In no event may the extension exceed the 91-day period provided in § 225.16(f). The Board may, at any time, request additional information that it believes is necessary for its decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.16" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.16   Public notice, comments, hearings, and other provisions governing applications and notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The provisions of this section apply to all notices and applications filed under §§ 225.14 and 225.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public notice</I>—(1) <I>Newspaper publication</I>—(i) <I>Location of publication.</I> In the case of each notice or application submitted under § 225.14 or § 225.15, the applicant shall publish a notice in a newspaper of general circulation, in the form and at the locations specified in § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3);
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A newspaper notice under this paragraph shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the proposal for a period of at least 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing of publication.</I> Each newspaper notice published in connection with a proposal under this paragraph shall be published no more than 15 calendar days before and no later than 7 calendar days following the date that a notice or application is filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> <I>notice</I>—(i) <I>Publication by Board.</I> Upon receipt of a notice or application under § 225.14 or § 225.15, the Board shall promptly publish notice of the proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the proposal for a period of no more than 30 days;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for advance publication.</I> A bank holding company may request that, during the 15-day period prior to filing a notice or application under § 225.14 or § 225.15, the Board publish notice of a proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A request for advance <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication shall be made in writing to the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain the identifying information prescribed by the Board for <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver or shortening of notice.</I> The Board may waive or shorten the required notice periods under this section if the Board determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action on the proposal, or if the Board finds that immediate action is necessary to prevent the probable failure of an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public comment</I>—(1) <I>Timely comments.</I> Interested persons may submit information and comments regarding a proposal filed under this subpart. A comment shall be considered timely for purposes of this subpart if the comment, together with all supplemental information, is submitted in writing in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure and received by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank prior to the expiration of the latest public comment period provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of comment period</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Board may, in its discretion, extend the public comment period regarding any proposal submitted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requests in connection with obtaining application or notice.</I> In the event that an interested person has requested a copy of a notice or application submitted under this subpart, the Board may, in its discretion and based on the facts and circumstances, grant such person an extension of the comment period for up to 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Joint requests by interested person and acquiring company.</I> The Board will grant a joint request by an interested person and the acquiring bank holding company for an extension of the comment period for a reasonable period for a purpose related to the statutory factors the Board must consider under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substantive comment.</I> A comment will be considered substantive for purposes of this subpart unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously-considered or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to Attorney General.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank shall immediately notify the United States Attorney General of approval of any notice or application under § 225.14 or § 225.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hearings.</I> As provided in section 3(b) of the BHC Act, the Board shall order a hearing on any application or notice under § 225.15 if the Board receives from the primary supervisor of the bank to be acquired, within the 30-day period specified in § 225.15(b), a written recommendation of disapproval of an application. The Board may order a formal or informal hearing or other proceeding on the application or notice, as provided in § 262.3(i)(2) of the Board's Rules of Procedure. Any request for a hearing (other than from the primary supervisor) shall comply with § 262.3(e) of the Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(e)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Approval through failure to act</I>—(1) <I>Ninety-one day rule.</I> An application or notice under § 225.14 or § 225.15 shall be deemed approved if the Board fails to act on the application or notice within 91 calendar days after the date of submission to the Board of the complete record on the application. For this purpose, the Board acts when it issues an order stating that the Board has approved or denied the application or notice, reflecting the votes of the members of the Board, and indicating that a statement of the reasons for the decision will follow promptly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complete record.</I> For the purpose of computing the commencement of the 91-day period, the record is complete on the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of receipt by the Board of an application or notice that has been accepted by the Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The last day provided in any notice for receipt of comments and hearing requests on the application or notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of receipt by the Board of the last relevant material regarding the application or notice that is needed for the Board's decision, if the material is received from a source outside of the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The date of completion of any hearing or other proceeding.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions to notice and hearing requirements</I>—(1) <I>Probable bank failure.</I> If the Board finds it must act immediately on an application or notice in order to prevent the probable failure of a bank or bank holding company, the Board may modify or dispense with the notice and hearing requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency.</I> If the Board finds that, although immediate action on an application or notice is not necessary, an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, the Board shall provide the primary supervisor 10 days to submit its recommendation. The Board may act on such an application or notice without a hearing and may modify or dispense with the other notice and hearing requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Waiting period.</I> A transaction approved under § 225.14 or § 225.15 shall not be consummated until 30 days after the date of approval of the application, except that a transaction may be consummated:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately upon approval, if the Board has determined under paragraph (g) of this section that the application or notice involves a probable bank failure;
</P>
<P>(2) On or after the 5th calendar day following the date of approval, if the Board has determined under paragraph (g) of this section that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action; or
</P>
<P>(3) On or after the 15th calendar day following the date of approval, if the Board has not received any adverse comments from the United States Attorney General relating to the competitive factors and the Attorney General has consented to the shorter waiting period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.17" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.2.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.17   Notice procedure for one-bank holding company formations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions that qualify under this section.</I> An acquisition by a company of control of a bank may be consummated 30 days after providing notice to the appropriate Reserve Bank in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, provided that all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The shareholder or shareholders who control at least 67 percent of the shares of the bank will control, immediately after the reorganization, at least 67 percent of the shares of the holding company in substantially the same proportion, except for changes in shareholders' interests resulting from the exercise of dissenting shareholders' rights under state or federal law; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> A shareholder of a bank in reorganization will be considered to have the same proportional interest in the holding company if the shareholder interest increases, on a <I>pro rata</I> basis, as a result of either the redemption of shares from dissenting shareholders by the bank or bank holding company, or the acquisition of shares of dissenting shareholders by the remaining shareholders.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) No shareholder, or group of shareholders acting in concert, will, following the reorganization, own or control 10 percent or more of any class of voting shares of the bank holding company, unless that shareholder or group of shareholders was authorized, after review under the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) by the appropriate federal banking agency for the bank, to own or control 10 percent or more of any class of voting shares of the bank; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This procedure is not available in cases in which the exercise of dissenting shareholders' rights would cause a company that is not a bank holding company (other than the company in formation) to be required to register as a bank holding company. This procedure also is not available for the formation of a bank holding company organized in mutual form.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The bank is adequately capitalized (as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o));
</P>
<P>(4) The bank received at least a composite “satisfactory” rating at its most recent examination, in the event that the bank was examined;
</P>
<P>(5) At the time of the reorganization, neither the bank nor any of its officers, directors, or principal shareholders is involved in any unresolved supervisory or enforcement matters with any appropriate federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(6) The company demonstrates that any debt that it incurs at the time of the reorganization, and the proposed means of retiring this debt, will not place undue burden on the holding company or its subsidiary on a <I>pro forma</I> basis; 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For a banking organization with consolidated assets, on a <I>pro forma</I> basis, of less than $3 billion (other than a banking organization that will control a de novo bank), this requirement is satisfied if the proposal complies with the Board's Small Bank Holding Company and Savings and Loan Holding Company Policy Statement (appendix C of this part).</P></FTNT>
<P>(7) The holding company will not, as a result of the reorganization, acquire control of any additional bank or engage in any activities other than those of managing and controlling banks; and
</P>
<P>(8) During this period, neither the appropriate Reserve Bank nor the Board objected to the proposal or required the filing of an application under § 225.15 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice filed under this paragraph shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Certification by the notificant's board of directors that the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(C) and this section are met by the proposal;
</P>
<P>(2) A list identifying all principal shareholders of the bank prior to the reorganization and of the holding company following the reorganization, and specifying the percentage of shares held by each principal shareholder in the bank and proposed to be held in the new holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the resulting management of the proposed bank holding company and its subsidiary bank, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Biographical information regarding any senior officers and directors of the resulting bank holding company who were not senior officers or directors of the bank prior to the reorganization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed history of the involvement of any officer, director, or principal shareholder of the resulting bank holding company in any administrative or criminal proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pro forma</I> financial statements for the holding company, and a description of the amount, source, and terms of debt, if any, that the bank holding company proposes to incur, and information regarding the sources and timing for debt service and retirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acknowledgment of notice.</I> Within 7 calendar days following receipt of a notice under this section, the Reserve Bank shall provide the notificant with a written acknowledgment of receipt of the notice. This written acknowledgment shall indicate that the transaction described in the notice may be consummated on the 30th calendar day after the date of receipt of the notice if the Reserve Bank or the Board has not objected to the proposal during that time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application required upon objection.</I> The Reserve Bank or the Board may object to a proposal during the notice period by providing the bank holding company with a written explanation of the reasons for the objection. In such case, the bank holding company may file an application for prior approval of the proposal pursuant to § 225.15 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9319, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 9902, Feb. 28, 2006; 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 83 FR 44199, Aug. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Nonbanking Activities and Acquisitions by Bank Holding Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 62 FR 9329, Feb. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.21   Prohibited nonbanking activities and acquisitions; exempt bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited nonbanking activities and acquisitions.</I> Except as provided in § 225.22 of this subpart, a bank holding company or a subsidiary may not engage in, or acquire or control, directly or indirectly, voting securities or assets of a company engaged in, any activity other than:
</P>
<P>(1) Banking or managing or controlling banks and other subsidiaries authorized under the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) An activity that the Board determines to be so closely related to banking, or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, including any incidental activities that are necessary to carry on such an activity, if the bank holding company has obtained the prior approval of the Board for that activity in accordance with the requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exempt bank holding companies.</I> The following bank holding companies are exempt from the provisions of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Family-owned companies.</I> Any company that is a “company covered in 1970” (as defined in section 2(b) of the BHC Act), more than 85 percent of the voting securities of which was collectively owned on June 30, 1968, and continuously thereafter, by members of the same family (or their spouses) who are lineal descendants of common ancestors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Labor, agricultural, and horticultural organizations.</I> Any company that was on January 4, 1977, both a bank holding company and a labor, agricultural, or horticultural organization exempt from taxation under section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Companies granted hardship exemption.</I> Any bank holding company that has controlled only one bank since before July 1, 1968, and that has been granted an exemption by the Board under section 4(d) of the BHC Act, subject to any conditions imposed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Companies granted exemption on other grounds.</I> Any company that acquired control of a bank before December 10, 1982, without the Board's prior approval under section 3 of the BHC Act, on the basis of a narrow interpretation of the term <I>demand deposit</I> or <I>commercial loan,</I> if the Board has determined that:
</P>
<P>(i) Coverage of the company as a bank holding company under this subpart would be unfair or represent an unreasonable hardship; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclusion of the company from coverage under this part is consistent with the purposes of the BHC Act and section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971, 1972(1)). The provisions of § 225.4 of subpart A of this part do not apply to a company exempt under this paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.22" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.22   Exempt nonbanking activities and acquisitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certain de novo activities.</I> A bank holding company may, either directly or indirectly, engage <I>de novo</I> in any nonbanking activity listed in § 225.28(b) (other than operation of an insured depository institution) without obtaining the Board's prior approval if the bank holding company:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) (1), (2), and (6) of § 225.23;
</P>
<P>(2) Conducts the activity in compliance with all Board orders and regulations governing the activity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Within 10 business days after commencing the activity, provides written notice to the appropriate Reserve Bank describing the activity, identifying the company or companies engaged in the activity, and certifying that the activity will be conducted in accordance with the Board's orders and regulations and that the bank holding company meets the requirements of paragraphs (c) (1), (2), and (6) of § 225.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Servicing activities.</I> A bank holding company may, without the Board's prior approval under this subpart, furnish services to or perform services for, or establish or acquire a company that engages solely in servicing activities for:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank holding company or its subsidiaries in connection with their activities as authorized by law, including services that are necessary to fulfill commitments entered into by the subsidiaries with third parties, if the bank holding company or servicing company complies with the Board's published interpretations and does not act as principal in dealing with third parties; and
</P>
<P>(2) The internal operations of the bank holding company or its subsidiaries. Services for the internal operations of the bank holding company or its subsidiaries include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Accounting, auditing, and appraising;
</P>
<P>(ii) Advertising and public relations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Data processing and data transmission services, data bases, or facilities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Personnel services;
</P>
<P>(v) Courier services;
</P>
<P>(vi) Holding or operating property used wholly or substantially by a subsidiary in its operations or for its future use;
</P>
<P>(vii) Liquidating property acquired from a subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(viii) Liquidating property acquired from any sources either prior to May 9, 1956, or the date on which the company became a bank holding company, whichever is later; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Selling, purchasing, or underwriting insurance, such as blanket bond insurance, group insurance for employees, and property and casualty insurance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safe deposit business.</I> A bank holding company or nonbank subsidiary may, without the Board's prior approval, conduct a safe deposit business, or acquire voting securities of a company that conducts such a business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonbanking acquisitions not requiring prior Board approval.</I> The Board's prior approval is not required under this subpart for the following acquisitions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>DPC acquisitions.</I> (i) Voting securities or assets, acquired by foreclosure or otherwise, in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted (DPC property) in good faith, if the DPC property is divested within two years of acquisition.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may, upon request, extend this two-year period for up to three additional years. The Board may permit additional extensions for up to 5 years (for a total of 10 years), for shares, real estate or other assets where the holding company demonstrates that each extension would not be detrimental to the public interest and either the bank holding company has made good faith attempts to dispose of such shares, real estate or other assets or disposal of the shares, real estate or other assets during the initial period would have been detrimental to the company.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transfers of DPC property within the bank holding company system do not extend any period for divestiture of the property.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Securities or assets required to be divested by subsidiary.</I> Voting securities or assets required to be divested by a subsidiary at the request of an examining federal or state authority (except by the Board under the BHC Act or this regulation), if the bank holding company divests the securities or assets within two years from the date acquired from the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fiduciary investments.</I> Voting securities or assets acquired by a bank or other company (other than a trust that is a company) in good faith in a fiduciary capacity, if the voting securities or assets are:
</P>
<P>(i) Held in the ordinary course of business; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not acquired for the benefit of the company or its shareholders, employees, or subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Securities eligible for investment by national bank.</I> Voting securities of the kinds and amounts explicitly eligible by federal statute (other than section 4 of the Bank Service Corporation Act, 12 U.S.C. 1864) for investment by a national bank, and voting securities acquired prior to June 30, 1971, in reliance on section 4(c)(5) of the BHC Act and interpretations of the Comptroller of the Currency under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24(7)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Securities or property representing 5 percent or less of a company.</I> Voting securities of a company or property that, in the aggregate, represent 5 percent or less of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of a company, or that represent a 5 percent interest or less in the property, subject to the provisions of 12 CFR 225.137.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Securities of investment company.</I> Voting securities of an investment company that is solely engaged in investing in securities and that does not own or control more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of any company.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Assets acquired in ordinary course of business.</I> Assets of a company acquired in the ordinary course of business, subject to the provisions of 12 CFR 225.132, if the assets relate to activities in which the acquiring company has previously received Board approval under this regulation to engage.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Asset acquisitions by lending company or industrial bank.</I> Assets of an office(s) of a company, all or substantially all of which relate to making, acquiring, or servicing loans if:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquiring company has previously received Board approval under this regulation or is not required to obtain prior Board approval under this regulation to engage in lending activities or industrial banking activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) The assets acquired during any 12-month period do not represent more than 50 percent of the risk-weighted assets (on a consolidated basis) of the acquiring lending company or industrial bank, or more than $100 million, whichever amount is less;
</P>
<P>(iii) The assets acquired do not represent more than 50 percent of the selling company's consolidated assets that are devoted to lending activities or industrial banking business;
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquiring company notifies the Reserve Bank of the acquisition within 30 days after the acquisition; and
</P>
<P>(v) The acquiring company, after giving effect to the transaction, meets the requirements of 12 CFR part 217, and the Board has not previously notified the acquiring company that it may not acquire assets under the exemption in this paragraph (d).


</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(8)(ii) of this section, a lending company or industrial bank that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), or is a subsidiary of such a qualifying community banking organization, has risk-weighted assets equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) Its average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) as most recently reported to its primary banking supervisor (as defined in § 225.14(d)(5)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Its total assets, if the company or industrial bank does not report such average total consolidated assets.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acquisition of securities by subsidiary banks</I>—(1) <I>National bank.</I> A national bank or its subsidiary may, without the Board's approval under this subpart, acquire or retain securities on the basis of section 4(c)(5) of the BHC Act in accordance with the regulations of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State bank.</I> A state-chartered bank or its subsidiary may, insofar as federal law is concerned, and without the Board's prior approval under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquire or retain securities, on the basis of section 4(c)(5) of the BHC Act, of the kinds and amounts explicitly eligible by federal statute for investment by a national bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquire or retain all (but, except for directors' qualifying shares, not less than all) of the securities of a company that engages solely in activities in which the parent bank may engage, at locations at which the bank may engage in the activity, and subject to the same limitations as if the bank were engaging in the activity directly.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Activities and securities of new bank holding companies.</I> A company that becomes a bank holding company may, for a period of two years, engage in nonbanking activities and control voting securities or assets of a nonbank subsidiary, if the bank holding company engaged in such activities or controlled such voting securities or assets on the date it became a bank holding company. The Board may grant requests for up to three one-year extensions of the two-year period.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Grandfathered activities and securities.</I> Unless the Board orders divestiture or termination under section 4(a)(2) of the BHC Act, a “company covered in 1970,” as defined in section 2(b) of the BHC Act, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Retain voting securities or assets and engage in activities that it has lawfully held or engaged in continuously since June 30, 1968; and
</P>
<P>(2) Acquire voting securities of any newly formed company to engage in such activities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Securities or activities exempt under Regulation K.</I> A bank holding company may acquire voting securities or assets and engage in activities as authorized in Regulation K (12 CFR part 211).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[ Reg. Y, 62 FR 9329, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015; 84 FR 61800, Nov. 13, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.23" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.23   Expedited action for certain nonbanking proposals by well-run bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of notice</I>—(1) <I>Information required.</I> A bank holding company that meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section may satisfy the notice requirement of this subpart in connection with the acquisition of voting securities or assets of a company engaged in nonbanking activities that the Board has permitted by order or regulation (other than an insured depository institution), 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or a proposal to engage <I>de novo,</I> either directly or indirectly, in a nonbanking activity that the Board has permitted by order or by regulation, by providing the appropriate Reserve Bank with a written notice containing the following:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A bank holding company may acquire voting securities or assets of a savings association or other insured depository institution that is not a bank by using the procedures in § 225.14 of subpart B if the bank holding company and the proposal qualify under that section as if the savings association or other institution were a bank for purposes of that section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) A certification that all of the criteria in paragraph (c) of this section are met;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the transaction that includes identification of the companies involved in the transaction, the activities to be conducted, and a commitment to conduct the proposed activities in conformity with the Board's regulations and orders governing the conduct of the proposed activity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the proposal involves an acquisition of a going concern:
</P>
<P>(A) If the acquiring bank holding company is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of $3 billion or more, an abbreviated consolidated <I>pro forma</I> balance sheet for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, consolidated <I>pro forma</I> risk-based capital ratios for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter, a description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and the total revenue and net income of the company to be acquired; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of less than $3 billion, a <I>pro forma</I> parent-only balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, a description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction and the sources and schedule for retiring any debt incurred in the transaction, and the total assets, off-balance sheet items, revenue and net income of the company to be acquired;
</P>
<P>(B) If the acquiring bank holding company is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), an abbreviated consolidated <I>pro forma</I> balance sheet for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction, consolidated <I>pro forma</I> leverage ratio for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter, a description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and the total revenue and net income of the company to be acquired;
</P>
<P>(C) For each insured depository institution (that is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)) whose Tier 1 capital, total capital, total assets or risk-weighted assets change as a result of the transaction, the total risk-weighted assets, total assets, Tier 1 capital and total capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis; and
</P>
<P>(D) For each insured depository institution that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) whose Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) or total assets change as a result of the transaction, the total assets and Tier 1 capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identification of the geographic markets in which competition would be affected by the proposal, a description of the effect of the proposal on competition in the relevant markets, a list of the major competitors in that market in the proposed activity if the affected market is local in nature, and, if requested, the market indexes for the relevant market; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description of the public benefits that can reasonably be expected to result from the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of unnecessary information.</I> The Reserve Bank may reduce the information requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) (iii) and (iv) of this section as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Action on proposals under this section.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall act on a proposal submitted under this section, or notify the bank holding company that the transaction is subject to the procedure in § 225.24, within 12 business days following the filing of all of the information required in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acceptance of notice if expedited procedure not available.</I> If the Board or the Reserve Bank determines, after the filing of a notice under this section, that a bank holding company may not use the procedure in this section and must file a notice under § 225.24, the notice shall be deemed accepted for purposes of § 225.24 as of the date that the notice was filed under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for use of expedited procedure.</I> The procedure in this section is available only if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well-capitalized organization</I>—(i) <I>Bank holding company.</I> Both at the time of and immediately after the proposed transaction, the acquiring bank holding company is well-capitalized;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Insured depository institutions.</I> Both at the time of and immediately after the transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The lead insured depository institution of the acquiring bank holding company is well-capitalized;
</P>
<P>(B) Well-capitalized insured depository institutions control at least 80 percent of the total risk-weighted assets of insured depository institutions controlled by the acquiring bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) No insured depository institution controlled by the acquiring bank holding company is undercapitalized;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Well managed organization</I>—(i) <I>Satisfactory examination ratings.</I> At the time of the transaction, the acquiring bank holding company, its lead insured depository institution, and insured depository institutions that control at least 80 percent of the total risk-weighted assets of insured depository institutions controlled by the holding company are well managed and have received at least a satisfactory rating for compliance at their most recent examination if such rating was given;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No poorly managed institutions.</I> No insured depository institution controlled by the acquiring bank holding company has received 1 of the 2 lowest composite ratings at the later of the institution's most recent examination or subsequent review by the appropriate federal banking agency for the institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Recently acquired institutions excluded.</I> Any insured depository institution that has been acquired by the bank holding company during the 12-month period preceding the date on which written notice is filed under paragraph (a) of this section may be excluded for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank holding company has developed a plan acceptable to the appropriate federal banking agency for the institution to restore the capital and management of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) All insured depository institutions excluded under this paragraph represent, in the aggregate, less than 10 percent of the aggregate total risk-weighted assets of all insured depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permissible activity.</I> (i) The Board has determined by regulation or order that each activity proposed to be conducted is so closely related to banking, or managing or controlling banks, as to be a proper incident thereto; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has not indicated that proposals to engage in the activity are subject to the notice procedure provided in § 225.24;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Competitive criteria</I>—(i) <I>Competitive screen.</I> In the case of the acquisition of a going concern, the acquisition, without regard to any divestitures proposed by the acquiring bank holding company, does not cause:
</P>
<P>(A) The acquiring bank holding company to control in excess of 35 percent of the market share in any relevant market; or
</P>
<P>(B) The Herfindahl-Hirschman index to increase by more than 200 points in any relevant market with a post-acquisition index of at least 1800; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other competitive factors.</I> The Board has not indicated that the transaction is subject to close scrutiny on competitive grounds;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Size of acquisition</I>—(i) <I>In general</I>—(A) <I>Limited growth.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the sum of aggregate risk-weighted assets to be acquired in the proposal and the aggregate risk-weighted assets acquired by the acquiring bank holding company in all other qualifying transactions does not exceed 35 percent of the consolidated risk-weighted assets of the acquiring bank holding company. For purposes of paragraph (c)(5) of this section, “other qualifying transactions” means any transaction approved under this section or § 225.14 during the 12 months prior to filing the notice under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Consideration paid.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, the gross consideration to be paid by the acquiring bank holding company in the proposal does not exceed 15 percent of the consolidated Tier 1 capital of the acquiring bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Individual size limitation.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, the total risk-weighted assets to be acquired do not exceed $7.5 billion;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small bank holding companies.</I> Paragraph (c)(5)(i)(A) of this section shall not apply if, immediately following consummation of the proposed transaction, the consolidated risk-weighted assets of the acquiring bank holding company are less than $300 million;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> Paragraphs (c)(5)(i)(A) through (C) of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(A) The acquiring bank holding company is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the total assets to be acquired in the proposal and the total assets acquired by the acquiring bank holding company in all other qualifying transactions does not exceed 35 percent of the average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) of the acquiring bank holding company as last reported to the Board;
</P>
<P>(C) The gross consideration to be paid by the acquiring bank holding company in the proposal does not exceed 15 percent of the Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) of the acquiring bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(D) The total assets to be acquired do not exceed $7.5 billion;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> During the 12-month period ending on the date on which the bank holding company proposes to consummate the proposed transaction, no formal administrative order, including a written agreement, cease and desist order, capital directive, prompt corrective action directive, asset maintenance agreement, or other formal enforcement order is or was outstanding against the bank holding company or any insured depository institution subsidiary of the holding company, and no formal administrative enforcement proceeding involving any such enforcement action, order, or directive is or was pending; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification.</I> The bank holding company has not been notified by the Board, in its discretion, prior to the expiration of the period in paragraph (b) of this section that a notice under § 225.24 is required in order to permit closer review of any potential adverse effect or other matter related to the factors that must be considered under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Branches and agencies of foreign banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this section, a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking organization shall be considered to be an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) controls total risk-weighted assets equal to the qualifying community banking organization's average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) as last reported to its primary banking supervisor.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9329, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 415, Jan. 3, 2001; 71 FR 9902, Feb. 28, 2006; 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 20157, Apr. 15, 2015; 83 FR 44199, Aug. 30, 2018; 84 FR 61800, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.24" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.24   Procedures for other nonbanking proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice required for nonbanking activities.</I> Except as provided in §§ 225.22 and 225.23, a notice for the Board's prior approval under § 225.21(a) to engage in or acquire a company engaged in a nonbanking activity shall be filed by a bank holding company (including a company seeking to become a bank holding company) with the appropriate Reserve Bank in accordance with this section and the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Engaging de novo in listed activities.</I> A bank holding company seeking to commence or to engage <I>de novo,</I> either directly or through a subsidiary, in a nonbanking activity listed in § 225.28 shall file a notice containing a description of the activities to be conducted and the identity of the company that will conduct the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquiring company engaged in listed activities.</I> A bank holding company seeking to acquire or control voting securities or assets of a company engaged in a nonbanking activity listed in § 225.28 shall file a notice containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the proposal, including a description of each proposed activity, and the effect of the proposal on competition among entities engaging in each proposed activity in each relevant market with relevant market indexes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of any entity involved in the proposal, and, if the notificant proposes to conduct the activity through an existing subsidiary, a description of the existing activities of the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the public benefits that can reasonably be expected to result from the proposal;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of $150 million or more:
</P>
<P>(A) Parent company and consolidated <I>pro forma</I> balance sheets for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Consolidated <I>pro forma</I> risk-based capital and leverage ratio calculations for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter (or, in the case of a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), consolidated <I>pro forma</I> leverage ratio calculations under § 217.12 of this chapter for the acquiring bank holding company as of the most recent quarter); and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction;
</P>
<P>(v) If the bank holding company has consolidated assets of less than $150 million:
</P>
<P>(A) A <I>pro forma</I> parent-only balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction; and
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction and, if the transaction is debt funded, one-year income statement and cash flow projections for the parent company, and the sources and schedule for retiring any debt incurred in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) For each insured depository institution (that is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)) whose Tier 1 capital, total capital, total assets or risk-weighted assets change as a result of the transaction, the total risk-weighted assets, total assets, Tier 1 capital and total capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each insured depository institution that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) whose Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) or total assets change as a result of the transaction, the total assets and Tier 1 capital of the institution on a <I>pro forma</I> basis;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the management expertise, internal controls and risk management systems that will be utilized in the conduct of the proposed activities; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A copy of the purchase agreements, and balance sheet and income statements for the most recent quarter and year-end for any company to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice provided to Board.</I> The Reserve Bank shall immediately send to the Board a copy of any notice received under paragraphs (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to public</I>—(1) <I>Listed activities and activities approved by order.</I> (i) In a case involving an activity listed in § 225.28 or previously approved by the Board by order, the Reserve Bank shall notify the Board for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> immediately upon receipt by the Reserve Bank of:
</P>
<P>(A) A notice under this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A written request that notice of a proposal under this section or § 225.23 be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such a request may request that <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication occur up to 15 calendar days prior to submission of a notice under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice published under this paragraph shall invite public comment on the proposal, generally for a period of 15 days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New activities</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> In the case of a notice under this subpart involving an activity that is not listed in § 225.28 and that has not been previously approved by the Board by order, the Board shall send notice of the proposal to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication, unless the Board determines that the notificant has not demonstrated that the activity is so closely related to banking or to managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice shall invite public comment on the proposal for a reasonable period of time, generally for 30 days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Time for publication.</I> The Board shall send the notice required under this paragraph to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> within 10 business days of acceptance by the Reserve Bank. The Board may extend the 10-day period for an additional 30 calendar days upon notice to the notificant. In the event notice of a proposal is not published for comment, the Board shall inform the notificant of the reasons for the decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action on notices</I>—(1) <I>Reserve Bank action</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receipt by the Reserve Bank of a notice filed pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, the Reserve Banks shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Approve the notice; or
</P>
<P>(B) Refer the notice to the Board for decision because action under delegated authority is not appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return of incomplete notice.</I> Within 7 calendar days of receipt, the Reserve Bank may return any notice as informationally incomplete that does not contain all of the information required by this subpart. The return of such a notice shall be deemed action on the notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of action.</I> The Reserve Bank shall promptly notify the bank holding company of any action or referral under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Close of public comment period.</I> The Reserve Bank shall not approve any notice under this paragraph (d)(1) of this section prior to the third business day after the close of the public comment period, unless an emergency exists that requires expedited or immediate action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board action; internal schedule.</I> The Board seeks to act on every notice referred to it for decision within 60 days of the date that the notice is filed with the Reserve Bank. If the Board is unable to act within this period, the Board shall notify the notificant and explain the reasons and the date by which the Board expects to act. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Required time limit for System action.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank shall act on any notice under this section within 60 days after the submission of a complete notice. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extension of required period for action</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> The Board may extend the 60-day period required for Board action under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section for an additional 30 days upon notice to the notificant. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Unlisted activities.</I> If a notice involves a proposal to engage in an activity that is not listed in § 225.28, the Board may extend the period required for Board action under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section for an additional 90 days. This 90-day extension is in addition to the 30-day extension period provided in paragraph (d)(3)(ii)(A) of this section. The Board shall notify the notificant that the notice period has been extended and explain the reasons for the extension. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requests for additional information.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank may modify the information requirements under this section or at any time request any additional information that either believes is needed for a decision on any notice under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tolling of period.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank may at any time extend or toll the time period for action on a notice for any period with the consent of the notificant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9332, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 60640, Nov. 12, 1997; 65 FR 14438, Mar. 17, 2000; 84 FR 61801, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.25" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.25   Hearings, alteration of activities, and other matters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearings</I>—(1) <I>Procedure to request hearing.</I> Any request for a hearing on a notice under this subpart shall comply with the provisions of 12 CFR 262.3(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination to hold hearing.</I> The Board may order a formal or informal hearing or other proceeding on a notice as provided in 12 CFR 262.3(i)(2). The Board shall order a hearing only if there are disputed issues of material fact that cannot be resolved in some other manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of period for hearing.</I> The Board may extend the time for action on any notice for such time as is reasonably necessary to conduct a hearing and evaluate the hearing record. Such extension shall not exceed 91 calendar days after the date of submission to the Board of the complete record on the notice. The procedures for computation of the 91-day rule as set forth in § 225.16(f) apply to notices under this subpart that involve hearings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval through failure to act.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section or § 225.24(d)(5), a notice under this subpart shall be deemed to be approved at the conclusion of the period that begins on the date the complete notice is received by the Reserve Bank or the Board and that ends 60 calendar days plus any applicable extension and tolling period thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complete notice.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a notice shall be deemed complete at such time as it contains all information required by this subpart and all other information requested by the Board or the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to expand or alter nonbanking activities</I>—(1) <I>De novo expansion.</I> A notice under this subpart is required to open a new office or to form a subsidiary to engage in, or to relocate an existing office engaged in, a nonbanking activity that the Board has previously approved for the bank holding company under this regulation, only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board's prior approval was limited geographically;
</P>
<P>(ii) The activity is to be conducted in a country outside of the United States and the bank holding company has not previously received prior Board approval under this regulation to engage in the activity in that country; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board or appropriate Reserve Bank has notified the company that a notice under this subpart is required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities outside United States.</I> With respect to activities to be engaged in outside the United States that require approval under this subpart, the procedures of this section apply only to activities to be engaged in directly by a bank holding company that is not a qualifying foreign banking organization, or by a nonbank subsidiary of a bank holding company approved under this subpart. Regulation K (12 CFR part 211) governs other international operations of bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alteration of nonbanking activity.</I> Unless otherwise permitted by the Board, a notice under this subpart is required to alter a nonbanking activity in any material respect from that considered by the Board in acting on the application or notice to engage in the activity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Emergency savings association acquisitions.</I> In the case of a notice to acquire a savings association, the Board may modify or dispense with the public notice and hearing requirements of this subpart if the Board finds that an emergency exists that requires the Board to act immediately and the primary federal regulator of the institution concurs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9333, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended by Reg. Y, 62 FR 60640, Nov. 12, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.26" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.26   Factors considered in acting on nonbanking proposals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In evaluating a notice under § 225.23 or § 225.24, the Board shall consider whether the notificant's performance of the activities can reasonably be expected to produce benefits to the public (such as greater convenience, increased competition, and gains in efficiency) that outweigh possible adverse effects (such as undue concentration of resources, decreased or unfair competition, conflicts of interest, and unsound banking practices).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial and managerial resources.</I> Consideration of the factors in paragraph (a) of this section includes an evaluation of the financial and managerial resources of the notificant, including its subsidiaries and any company to be acquired, the effect of the proposed transaction on those resources, and the management expertise, internal control and risk-management systems, and capital of the entity conducting the activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Competitive effect of de novo proposals.</I> Unless the record demonstrates otherwise, the commencement or expansion of a nonbanking activity <I>de novo</I> is presumed to result in benefits to the public through increased competition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial for lack of information.</I> The Board may deny any notice submitted under this subpart if the notificant neglects, fails, or refuses to furnish all information required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditional approvals.</I> The Board may impose conditions on any approval, including conditions to address permissibility, financial, managerial, safety and soundness, competitive, compliance, conflicts of interest, or other concerns to ensure that approval is consistent with the relevant statutory factors and other provisions of the BHC Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.27" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.27   Procedures for determining scope of nonbanking activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advisory opinions regarding scope of previously approved nonbanking activities</I>—(1) <I>Request for advisory opinion.</I> Any person may submit a request to the Board for an advisory opinion regarding the scope of any permissible nonbanking activity. The request shall be submitted in writing to the Board and shall identify the proposed parameters of the activity, or describe the service or product that will be provided, and contain an explanation supporting an interpretation regarding the scope of the permissible nonbanking activity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to request.</I> The Board shall provide an advisory opinion within 45 days of receiving a written request under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for consideration of new activities</I>—(1) <I>Initiation of proceeding.</I> The Board may, at any time, on its own initiative or in response to a written request from any person, initiate a proceeding to determine whether any activity is so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests for determination.</I> Any request for a Board determination that an activity is so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, shall be submitted to the Board in writing, and shall contain evidence that the proposed activity is so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Publication.</I> The Board shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice that it is considering the permissibility of a new activity and invite public comment for a period of at least 30 calendar days. In the case of a request submitted under paragraph (b) of this section, the Board may determine not to publish notice of the request if the Board determines that the requester has provided no reasonable basis for a determination that the activity is so closely related to banking, or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, and notifies the requester of the determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Comments and hearing requests.</I> Any comment and any request for a hearing regarding a proposal under this section shall comply with the provisions of § 262.3(e) of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.28" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.3.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.28   List of permissible nonbanking activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Closely related nonbanking activities.</I> The activities listed in paragraph (b) of this section are so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, and may be engaged in by a bank holding company or its subsidiary in accordance with the requirements of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activities determined by regulation to be permissible</I>—(1) <I>Extending credit and servicing loans.</I> Making, acquiring, brokering, or servicing loans or other extensions of credit (including factoring, issuing letters of credit and accepting drafts) for the company's account or for the account of others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities related to extending credit.</I> Any activity usual in connection with making, acquiring, brokering or servicing loans or other extensions of credit, as determined by the Board. The Board has determined that the following activities are usual in connection with making, acquiring, brokering or servicing loans or other extensions of credit:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate and personal property appraising.</I> Performing appraisals of real estate and tangible and intangible personal property, including securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Arranging commercial real estate equity financing.</I> Acting as intermediary for the financing of commercial or industrial income-producing real estate by arranging for the transfer of the title, control, and risk of such a real estate project to one or more investors, if the bank holding company and its affiliates do not have an interest in, or participate in managing or developing, a real estate project for which it arranges equity financing, and do not promote or sponsor the development of the property.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Check-guaranty services.</I> Authorizing a subscribing merchant to accept personal checks tendered by the merchant's customers in payment for goods and services, and purchasing from the merchant validly authorized checks that are subsequently dishonored.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Collection agency services.</I> Collecting overdue accounts receivable, either retail or commercial.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Credit bureau services.</I> Maintaining information related to the credit history of consumers and providing the information to a credit grantor who is considering a borrower's application for credit or who has extended credit to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Asset management, servicing, and collection activities.</I> Engaging under contract with a third party in asset management, servicing, and collection 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> of assets of a type that an insured depository institution may originate and own, if the company does not engage in real property management or real estate brokerage services as part of these services.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Asset management services include acting as agent in the liquidation or sale of loans and collateral for loans, including real estate and other assets acquired through foreclosure or in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vii) <I>Acquiring debt in default.</I> Acquiring debt that is in default at the time of acquisition, if the company:
</P>
<P>(A) Divests shares or assets securing debt in default that are not permissible investments for bank holding companies, within the time period required for divestiture of property acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted under § 225.12(b); 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For this purpose, the divestiture period for property begins on the date that the debt is acquired, regardless of when legal title to the property is acquired.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Stands only in the position of a creditor and does not purchase equity of obligors of debt in default (other than equity that may be collateral for such debt); and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not acquire debt in default secured by shares of a bank or bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Real estate settlement servicing.</I> Providing real estate settlement services. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> For purposes of this section, real estate settlement services do not include providing title insurance as principal, agent, or broker.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Leasing personal or real property.</I> Leasing personal or real property or acting as agent, broker, or adviser in leasing such property if:
</P>
<P>(i) The lease is on a nonoperating basis; 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The requirement that the lease be on a nonoperating basis means that the bank holding company may not, directly or indirectly, engage in operating, servicing, maintaining, or repairing leased property during the lease term. For purposes of the leasing of automobiles, the requirement that the lease be on a nonoperating basis means that the bank holding company may not, directly or indirectly: (1) Provide servicing, repair, or maintenance of the leased vehicle during the lease term; (2) purchase parts and accessories in bulk or for an individual vehicle after the lessee has taken delivery of the vehicle; (3) provide the loan of an automobile during servicing of the leased vehicle; (4) purchase insurance for the lessee; or (5) provide for the renewal of the vehicle's license merely as a service to the lessee where the lessee could renew the license without authorization from the lessor. The bank holding company may arrange for a third party to provide these services or products.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The initial term of the lease is at least 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of leases involving real property:
</P>
<P>(A) At the inception of the initial lease, the effect of the transaction will yield a return that will compensate the lessor for not less than the lessor's full investment in the property plus the estimated total cost of financing the property over the term of the lease from rental payments, estimated tax benefits, and the estimated residual value of the property at the expiration of the initial lease; and
</P>
<P>(B) The estimated residual value of property for purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(iii)(A) of this section shall not exceed 25 percent of the acquisition cost of the property to the lessor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating nonbank depository institutions</I>—(i) <I>Industrial banking.</I> Owning, controlling, or operating an industrial bank, Morris Plan bank, or industrial loan company, so long as the institution is not a bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operating savings association.</I> Owning, controlling, or operating a savings association, if the savings association engages only in deposit-taking activities, lending, and other activities that are permissible for bank holding companies under this subpart C.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Trust company functions.</I> Performing functions or activities that may be performed by a trust company (including activities of a fiduciary, agency, or custodial nature), in the manner authorized by federal or state law, so long as the company is not a bank for purposes of section 2(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Financial and investment advisory activities.</I> Acting as investment or financial advisor to any person, including (without, in any way, limiting the foregoing):
</P>
<P>(i) Serving as investment adviser (as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(20)), to an investment company registered under that act, including sponsoring, organizing, and managing a closed-end investment company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Furnishing general economic information and advice, general economic statistical forecasting services, and industry studies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing advice in connection with mergers, acquisitions, divestitures, investments, joint ventures, leveraged buyouts, recapitalizations, capital structurings, financing transactions and similar transactions, and conducting financial feasibility studies;
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Feasibility studies do not include assisting management with the planning or marketing for a given project or providing general operational or management advice.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) Providing information, statistical forecasting, and advice with respect to any transaction in foreign exchange, swaps, and similar transactions, commodities, and any forward contract, option, future, option on a future, and similar instruments;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing educational courses, and instructional materials to consumers on individual financial management matters; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing tax-planning and tax-preparation services to any person.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Agency transactional services for customer investments</I>—(i) <I>Securities brokerage.</I> Providing securities brokerage services (including securities clearing and/or securities execution services on an exchange), whether alone or in combination with investment advisory services, and incidental activities (including related securities credit activities and custodial services), if the securities brokerage services are restricted to buying and selling securities solely as agent for the account of customers and do not include securities underwriting or dealing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> Buying and selling in the secondary market all types of securities on the order of customers as a “riskless principal” to the extent of engaging in a transaction in which the company, after receiving an order to buy (or sell) a security from a customer, purchases (or sells) the security for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer. This does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Selling bank-ineligible securities 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> at the order of a customer that is the issuer of the securities, or selling bank-ineligible securities in any transaction where the company has a contractual agreement to place the securities as agent of the issuer; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> A bank-ineligible security is any security that a State member bank is not permitted to underwrite or deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Acting as a riskless principal in any transaction involving a bank-ineligible security for which the company or any of its affiliates acts as underwriter (during the period of the underwriting or for 30 days thereafter) or dealer. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> A company or its affiliates may not enter quotes for specific bank-ineligible securities in any dealer quotation system in connection with the company's riskless principal transactions; except that the company or its affiliates may enter “bid” or “ask” quotations, or publish “offering wanted” or “bid wanted” notices on trading systems other than NASDAQ or an exchange, if the company or its affiliate does not enter price quotations on different sides of the market for a particular security during any two-day period.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Private placement services.</I> Acting as agent for the private placement of securities in accordance with the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 (1933 Act) and the rules of the Securities and Exchange Commission, if the company engaged in the activity does not purchase or repurchase for its own account the securities being placed, or hold in inventory unsold portions of issues of these securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Futures commission merchant.</I> Acting as a futures commission merchant (FCM) for unaffiliated persons in the execution, clearance, or execution and clearance of any futures contract and option on a futures contract traded on an exchange in the United States or abroad if:
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted through a separately incorporated subsidiary of the bank holding company, which may engage in activities other than FCM activities (including, but not limited to, permissible advisory and trading activities); and
</P>
<P>(B) The parent bank holding company does not provide a guarantee or otherwise become liable to the exchange or clearing association other than for those trades conducted by the subsidiary for its own account or for the account of any affiliate.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other transactional services.</I> Providing to customers as agent transactional services with respect to swaps and similar transactions, any transaction described in paragraph (b)(8) of this section, any transaction that is permissible for a state member bank, and any other transaction involving a forward contract, option, futures, option on a futures or similar contract (whether traded on an exchange or not) relating to a commodity that is traded on an exchange.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Investment transactions as principal</I>—(i) <I>Underwriting and dealing in government obligations and money market instruments.</I> Underwriting and dealing in obligations of the United States, general obligations of states and their political subdivisions, and other obligations that state member banks of the Federal Reserve System may be authorized to underwrite and deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335, including banker's acceptances and certificates of deposit, under the same limitations as would be applicable if the activity were performed by the bank holding company's subsidiary member banks or its subsidiary nonmember banks as if they were member banks.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Investing and trading activities.</I> Engaging as principal in:
</P>
<P>(A) Foreign exchange;
</P>
<P>(B) Forward contracts, options, futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on any rate, price, financial asset (including gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, or any other metal approved by the Board), nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, other than a bank-ineligible security, 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> if: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> A bank-ineligible security is any security that a state member bank is not permitted to underwrite or deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A state member bank is authorized to invest in the asset underlying the contract; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The contract requires cash settlement; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The contract allows for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration, and the company— 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The contract does not allow for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration and is based on an asset for which futures contracts or options on futures contracts have been approved for trading on a U.S. contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the company— 
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset. 
</P>
<P>(C) Forward contracts, options, 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on an index of a rate, a price, or the value of any financial asset, nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, if the contract requires cash settlement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> This reference does not include acting as a dealer in options based on indices of bank-ineligible securities when the options are traded on securities exchanges. These options are securities for purposes of the federal securities laws and bank-ineligible securities for purposes of section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act, 12 U.S.C. 337. Similarly, this reference does not include acting as a dealer in any other instrument that is a bank-ineligible security for purposes of section 20. A bank holding company may deal in these instruments in accordance with the Board's orders on dealing in bank-ineligible securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Buying and selling bullion, and related activities.</I> Buying, selling and storing bars, rounds, bullion, and coins of gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, and any other metal approved by the Board, for the company's own account and the account of others, and providing incidental services such as arranging for storage, safe custody, assaying, and shipment.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Management consulting and counseling activities</I>—(i) <I>Management consulting.</I> (A) Providing management consulting advice: 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> In performing this activity, bank holding companies are not authorized to perform tasks or operations or provide services to client institutions either on a daily or continuing basis, except as necessary to instruct the client institution on how to perform such services for itself. See also the Board's interpretation of bank management consulting advice (12 CFR 225.131).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>1</I>) On any matter to unaffiliated depository institutions, including commercial banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, credit unions, industrial banks, Morris Plan banks, cooperative banks, industrial loan companies, trust companies, and branches or agencies of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On any financial, economic, accounting, or audit matter to any other company.
</P>
<P>(B) A company conducting management consulting activities under this subparagraph and any affiliate of such company may not:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Own or control, directly or indirectly, more than 5 percent of the voting securities of the client institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allow a management official, as defined in 12 CFR 212.2(h), of the company or any of its affiliates to serve as a management official of the client institution, except where such interlocking relationship is permitted pursuant to an exemption granted under 12 CFR 212.4(b) or otherwise permitted by the Board.
</P>
<P>(C) A company conducting management consulting activities may provide management consulting services to customers not described in paragraph (b)(9)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section or regarding matters not described in paragraph (b)(9)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, if the total annual revenue derived from those management consulting services does not exceed 30 percent of the company's total annual revenue derived from management consulting activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employee benefits consulting services.</I> Providing consulting services to employee benefit, compensation and insurance plans, including designing plans, assisting in the implementation of plans, providing administrative services to plans, and developing employee communication programs for plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Career counseling services.</I> Providing career counseling services to:
</P>
<P>(A) A financial organization 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and individuals currently employed by, or recently displaced from, a financial organization;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>Financial organization</I> refers to insured depository institution holding companies and their subsidiaries, other than nonbanking affiliates of diversified savings and loan holding companies that engage in activities not permissible under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)(8)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Individuals who are seeking employment at a financial organization; and
</P>
<P>(C) Individuals who are currently employed in or who seek positions in the finance, accounting, and audit departments of any company.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Support services</I>—(i) <I>Courier services.</I> Providing courier services for:
</P>
<P>(A) Checks, commercial papers, documents, and written instruments (excluding currency or bearer-type negotiable instruments) that are exchanged among banks and financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(B) Audit and accounting media of a banking or financial nature and other business records and documents used in processing such media. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See also the Board's interpretation on courier activities (12 CFR 225.129), which sets forth conditions for bank holding company entry into the activity.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Printing and selling MICR-encoded items.</I> Printing and selling checks and related documents, including corporate image checks, cash tickets, voucher checks, deposit slips, savings withdrawal packages, and other forms that require Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) encoding.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Insurance agency and underwriting</I>—(i) <I>Credit insurance.</I> Acting as principal, agent, or broker for insurance (including home mortgage redemption insurance) that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly related to an extension of credit by the bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) Limited to ensuring the repayment of the outstanding balance due on the extension of credit 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> in the event of the death, disability, or involuntary unemployment of the debtor.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> <I>Extension of credit</I> includes direct loans to borrowers, loans purchased from other lenders, and leases of real or personal property so long as the leases are nonoperating and full-payout leases that meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Finance company subsidiary.</I> Acting as agent or broker for insurance directly related to an extension of credit by a finance company 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company, if:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> <I>Finance company</I> includes all non-deposit-taking financial institutions that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending (excluding lending secured by first mortgages) and all financial institutions specifically defined by individual states as finance companies and that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) The insurance is limited to ensuring repayment of the outstanding balance on such extension of credit in the event of loss or damage to any property used as collateral for the extension of credit; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extension of credit is not more than $10,000, or $25,000 if it is to finance the purchase of a residential manufactured home 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> and the credit is secured by the home; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> These limitations increase at the end of each calendar year, beginning with 1982, by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) The applicant commits to notify borrowers in writing that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) They are not required to purchase such insurance from the applicant;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such insurance does not insure any interest of the borrower in the collateral; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The applicant will accept more comprehensive property insurance in place of such single-interest insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Insurance in small towns.</I> Engaging in any insurance agency activity in a place where the bank holding company or a subsidiary of the bank holding company has a lending office and that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a population not exceeding 5,000 (as shown in the preceding decennial census); or
</P>
<P>(B) Has inadequate insurance agency facilities, as determined by the Board, after notice and opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Insurance-agency activities conducted on May 1, 1982.</I> Engaging in any specific insurance-agency activity 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> if the bank holding company, or subsidiary conducting the specific activity, conducted such activity on May 1, 1982, or received Board approval to conduct such activity on or before May 1, 1982. 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> A bank holding company or subsidiary engaging in a specific insurance agency activity under this clause may:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> Nothing contained in this provision shall preclude a bank holding company subsidiary that is authorized to engage in a specific insurance-agency activity under this clause from continuing to engage in the particular activity after merger with an affiliate, if the merger is for legitimate business purposes and prior notice has been provided to the Board.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> For the purposes of this paragraph, activities engaged in on May 1, 1982, include activities carried on subsequently as the result of an application to engage in such activities pending before the Board on May 1, 1982, and approved subsequently by the Board or as the result of the acquisition by such company pursuant to a binding written contract entered into on or before May 1, 1982, of another company engaged in such activities at the time of the acquisition.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) Engage in such specific insurance agency activity only at locations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In the state in which the bank holding company has its principal place of business (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842(d));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In any state or states immediately adjacent to such state; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In any state in which the specific insurance-agency activity was conducted (or was approved to be conducted) by such bank holding company or subsidiary thereof or by any other subsidiary of such bank holding company on May 1, 1982; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provide other insurance coverages that may become available after May 1, 1982, so long as those coverages insure against the types of risks as (or are otherwise functionally equivalent to) coverages sold or approved to be sold on May 1, 1982, by the bank holding company or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Supervision of retail insurance agents.</I> Supervising on behalf of insurance underwriters the activities of retail insurance agents who sell:
</P>
<P>(A) Fidelity insurance and property and casualty insurance on the real and personal property used in the operations of the bank holding company or its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) Group insurance that protects the employees of the bank holding company or its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Small bank holding companies.</I> Engaging in any insurance-agency activity if the bank holding company has total consolidated assets of $50 million or less. A bank holding company performing insurance-agency activities under this paragraph may not engage in the sale of life insurance or annuities except as provided in paragraphs (b)(11) (i) and (iii) of this section, and it may not continue to engage in insurance-agency activities pursuant to this provision more than 90 days after the end of the quarterly reporting period in which total assets of the holding company and its subsidiaries exceed $50 million.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Insurance-agency activities conducted before 1971.</I> Engaging in any insurance-agency activity performed at any location in the United States directly or indirectly by a bank holding company that was engaged in insurance-agency activities prior to January 1, 1971, as a consequence of approval by the Board prior to January 1, 1971.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Community development activities</I>—(i) <I>Financing and investment activities.</I> Making equity and debt investments in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare, such as the economic rehabilitation and development of low-income areas by providing housing, services, or jobs for residents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Advisory activities.</I> Providing advisory and related services for programs designed primarily to promote community welfare.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Money orders, savings bonds, and traveler's checks.</I> The issuance and sale at retail of money orders and similar consumer-type payment instruments; the sale of U.S. savings bonds; and the issuance and sale of traveler's checks.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Data processing.</I> (i) Providing data processing, data storage and data transmission services, facilities (including data processing, data storage and data transmission hardware, software, documentation, or operating personnel), databases, advice, and access to such services, facilities, or data-bases by any technological means, if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The data to be processed, stored or furnished are financial, banking or economic; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The hardware provided in connection therewith is offered only in conjunction with software designed and marketed for the processing, storage and transmission of financial, banking, or economic data, and where the general purpose hardware does not constitute more than 30 percent of the cost of any packaged offering. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A company conducting data processing, data storage, and data transmission activities may conduct data processing, data storage, and data transmission activities not described in paragraph (b)(14)(i) of this section if the total annual revenue derived from those activities does not exceed 49 percent of the company's total annual revenues derived from data processing, data storage and data transmission activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9329, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 68 FR 39810, July 3, 2003; 68 FR 41901, July 16, 2003; 68 FR 68499, Dec. 9, 2003]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Control and Divestiture Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 12422, Mar. 2, 2020, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.31   Control proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary determination of control.</I> (1) The Board in its sole discretion may issue a preliminary determination of control under the procedures set forth in this section in any case in which the Board determines, based on consideration of the facts and circumstances presented, that a first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a second company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board makes a preliminary determination of control under this section, the Board shall send notice to the first company containing a statement of the facts upon which the preliminary determination is based.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to preliminary determination of control.</I> (1) Within 30 calendar days after issuance by the Board of a preliminary determination of control or such longer period permitted by the Board in its discretion, the first company against whom the preliminary determination has been made shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Consent to the preliminary determination of control and either:
</P>
<P>(A) Submit for the Board's approval a specific plan for the prompt termination of the control relationship; or
</P>
<P>(B) File an application or notice under this part, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Contest the preliminary determination by filing a response, setting forth the facts and circumstances in support of its position that no control exists, and, if desired, requesting a hearing or other proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the first company fails to respond to the preliminary determination of control within 30 days or such longer period permitted by the Board in its discretion, the first company will be deemed to have waived its right to present additional information to the Board or to request a hearing or other proceeding regarding the preliminary determination of control.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing and final determination.</I> (1) The Board shall order a hearing or other appropriate proceeding upon the petition of a first company that contests a preliminary determination of control if the Board finds that material facts are in dispute. The Board may, in its discretion, order a hearing or other appropriate proceeding without a petition for such a proceeding by the first company.
</P>
<P>(2) At a hearing or other proceeding, any applicable presumptions established under this subpart shall be considered in accordance with the Federal Rules of Evidence and the Board's Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings (12 CFR part 263).
</P>
<P>(3) After considering the submissions of the first company and other evidence, including the record of any hearing or other proceeding, the Board will issue a final order determining whether the first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of the second company. If a controlling influence is found, the Board may direct the first company to terminate the control relationship or to file an application or notice for the Board's approval to retain the control relationship.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of evidence.</I> (1) In connection with contesting a preliminary determination of control under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, a first company may submit to the Board evidence or any other relevant information related to its control of a second company.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence or other relevant information submitted to the Board pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be in writing and may include a description of all current and proposed relationships between the first company and the second company, including relationships of the type that are identified under any of the rebuttable presumptions in §§ 225.32 and 225.33 of this part, copies of any formal agreements related to such relationships, and a discussion regarding why the Board should not determine the first company to control the second company.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors</I> means the board of directors of a company or a set of individuals exercising similar functions at a company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Director representative</I> means any individual that represents the interests of a first company through service on the board of directors of a second company. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2), examples of persons who are directors of a second company and generally would be considered director representatives of a first company include:
</P>
<P>(i) A current officer, employee, or director of the first company;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who was an officer, employee, or director of the first company within the prior two years; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who was nominated or proposed to be a director of the second company by the first company.
</P>
<P>(iv) A director representative does not include a nonvoting observer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>First company</I> means the company whose potential control of a second company is the subject of determination by the Board under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investment adviser</I> means a company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered as an investment adviser with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is registered as a commodity trading advisor with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Is a foreign equivalent of an investment adviser or commodity trading advisor, as described in paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Engages in any of the activities set forth in § 225.28(b)(6)(i) through (iv) of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Limiting contractual right</I> means a contractual right of the first company that would allow the first company to restrict significantly, directly or indirectly, the discretion of the second company, including its senior management officials and directors, over operational and policy decisions of the second company.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of limiting contractual rights may include, but are not limited to, a right that allows the first company to restrict or to exert significant influence over decisions related to:
</P>
<P>(A) Activities in which the second company may engage, including a prohibition on entering into new lines of business, making substantial changes to or discontinuing existing lines of business, or entering into a contractual arrangement with a third party that imposes significant financial obligations on the second company;
</P>
<P>(B) How the second company directs the proceeds of the first company's investment;
</P>
<P>(C) Hiring, firing, or compensating one or more senior management officials of the second company, or modifying the second company's policies or budget concerning the salary, compensation, employment, or benefits plan for its employees;
</P>
<P>(D) The second company's ability to merge or consolidate, or its ability to acquire, sell, lease, transfer, spin-off, recapitalize, liquidate, dissolve, or dispose of subsidiaries or assets;
</P>
<P>(E) The second company's ability to make investments or expenditures;
</P>
<P>(F) The second company achieving or maintaining a financial target or limit, including, for example, a debt-to-equity ratio, a fixed charges ratio, a net worth requirement, a liquidity target, a working capital target, or a classified assets or nonperforming loans limit;
</P>
<P>(G) The second company's payment of dividends on any class of securities, redemption of senior instruments, or voluntary prepayment of indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(H) The second company's ability to authorize or issue additional junior equity or debt securities, or amend the terms of any equity or debt securities issued by the second company;
</P>
<P>(I) The second company's ability to engage in a public offering or to list or de-list securities on an exchange, other than a right that allows the securities of the first company to have the same status as other securities of the same class;
</P>
<P>(J) The second company's ability to amend its articles of incorporation or by-laws, other than in a way that is solely defensive for the first company;
</P>
<P>(K) The removal or selection of any independent accountant, auditor, investment adviser, or investment banker employed by the second company; or
</P>
<P>(L) The second company's ability to significantly alter accounting methods and policies, or its regulatory, tax, or liability status (<I>e.g.,</I> converting from a stock corporation to a limited liability company); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting contractual right does not include a contractual right that would not allow the first company to significantly restrict, directly or indirectly, the discretion of the second company over operational and policy decisions of the second company. Examples of contractual rights that are not limiting contractual rights may include:
</P>
<P>(A) A right that allows the first company to restrict or to exert significant influence over decisions relating to the second company's ability to issue securities senior to securities owned by the first company;
</P>
<P>(B) A requirement that the first company receive financial reports or other information of the type ordinarily available to common stockholders;
</P>
<P>(C) A requirement that the second company maintain its corporate existence;
</P>
<P>(D) A requirement that the second company consult with the first company on a reasonable periodic basis;
</P>
<P>(E) A requirement that the second company provide notices of the occurrence of material events affecting the second company;
</P>
<P>(F) A requirement that the second company comply with applicable statutory and regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(G) A market standard requirement that the first company receive similar contractual rights as those held by other investors in the second company;
</P>
<P>(H) A requirement that the first company be able to purchase additional securities issued by the second company in order to maintain the first company's percentage ownership in the second company;
</P>
<P>(I) A requirement that the second company ensure that any security holder who intends to sell its securities of the second company provide other security holders of the second company or the second company itself the opportunity to purchase the securities before the securities can be sold to a third party; or
</P>
<P>(J) A requirement that the second company take reasonable steps to ensure the preservation of tax status or tax benefits, such as status of the second company as a Subchapter S corporation or the protection of the value of net operating loss carry-forwards.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Second company</I> means the company whose potential control by a first company is the subject of determination by the Board under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Senior management official</I> means any person who participates or has the authority to participate (other than in the capacity as a director) in major policymaking functions of a company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall limit the authority of the Board to take any supervisory or enforcement action otherwise permitted by law, including an action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.32" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.32   Rebuttable presumptions of control of a company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) In any proceeding under § 225.31(b) or (c) of this part, a first company is presumed to control a second company in the situations described in paragraphs (b) through (i) of this section. The Board also may find that a first company controls a second company based on other facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the presumptions in this section, any company that is a subsidiary of the first company and also a subsidiary of the second company is considered to be a subsidiary of the first company and not a subsidiary of the second company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management contract or similar agreement.</I> The first company enters into any agreement, understanding, or management contract (other than to serve as investment adviser) with the second company, under which the first company directs or exercises significant influence or discretion over the general management, overall operations, or core business or policy decisions of the second company. Examples of such agreements include where the first company is a managing member, trustee, or general partner of the second company, or exercises similar powers and functions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Total equity.</I> The first company controls one third or more of the total equity of the second company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ownership or control of 5 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries comprise 25 percent or more of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries are able to make or block the making of major operational or policy decisions of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more employees or directors of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serve as senior management officials of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) An employee or director of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serves as the chief executive officer, or serves in a similar capacity, of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that generate in the aggregate 10 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis; or
</P>
<P>(5) The first company or any of its subsidiaries has any limiting contractual right with respect to the second company or any of its subsidiaries, unless such limiting contractual right is part of an agreement to merge with or make a controlling investment in the second company that is reasonably expected to close within one year and such limiting contractual right is designed to ensure that the second company continues to operate in the ordinary course until the merger or investment is consummated or such limiting contractual right requires the second company to take an action necessary for the merger or investment to be consummated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ownership or control of 10 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 10 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The first company or any of its subsidiaries propose a number of director representatives to the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries in opposition to nominees proposed by the management or board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries that, together with any director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries on the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries, would comprise 25 percent or more of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Director representatives of the first company and its subsidiaries comprise more than 25 percent of any committee of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries that can take action that binds the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(3) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not on market terms; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Generate in the aggregate 5 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Ownership or control of 15 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 15 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1) A director representative of the first company or of any of its subsidiaries serves as the chair of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) One or more employees or directors of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serves as a senior management official of the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(3) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that generate in the aggregate 2 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accounting consolidation.</I> The first company consolidates the second company on its financial statements prepared under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Control of an investment fund.</I> (1) The first company serves as an investment adviser to the second company, the second company is an investment fund, and the first company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls 25 percent or more of the total equity of the second company.
</P>
<P>(2) The presumption of control in paragraph (h)(1) of this section does not apply if the first company organized and sponsored the second company within the preceding 12 months.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Divestiture of control.</I> (1) The first company controlled the second company under § 225.2(e)(1)(i) or (ii) of this part at any time during the prior two years and the first company controls 15 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (i)(1) of this section, a first company will not be presumed to control a second company under this paragraph if 50 percent or more of the outstanding securities of each class of voting securities of the second company is controlled by a person that is not a senior management official or director of the first company, or by a company that is not an affiliate of the first company.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Securities held in a fiduciary capacity.</I> For purposes of the presumptions of control in this section, the first company does not control securities of the second company that the first company holds in a fiduciary capacity, except that if the second company is a depository institution or a depository institution holding company, this paragraph (j) only applies to securities held in a fiduciary capacity without sole discretionary authority to exercise the voting rights of the securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.33" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.33   Rebuttable presumption of noncontrol of a company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any proceeding under § 225.31(b) or (c) of this part, a first company is presumed not to control a second company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The first company controls less than 10 percent of the outstanding securities of each class of voting securities of the second company; and
</P>
<P>(2) The first company is not presumed to control the second company under § 225.32 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In any proceeding under this subpart, or judicial proceeding under the Bank Holding Company Act, other than a proceeding in which the Board has made a preliminary determination that a first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a second company, a first company may not be held to have had control over a second company at any given time, unless the first company, at the time in question, controlled 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, or had already been found to have control on the basis of the existence of a controlling influence relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.34" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.34   Total equity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the total equity controlled by a first company in a second company that is organized as a stock corporation and prepares financial statements pursuant to U.S. generally accepted accounting principles will be calculated as described in paragraph (b) of this section. With respect to a second company that is not organized as a stock corporation or that does not prepare financial statements pursuant to U.S. generally accepted accounting principles, the first company's total equity in the second company will be calculated so as to be reasonably consistent with the methodology described in paragraph (b) of this section, while taking into account the legal form of the second company and the accounting system used by the second company to prepare financial statements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of total equity</I>—(1) <I>Total equity.</I> The first company's total equity in the second company, expressed as a percentage, is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of Investor Common Equity and, for each class of preferred stock issued by the second company, Investor Preferred Equity, divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) Issuer Shareholders' Equity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investor Common Equity</I> equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The quotient of the number of shares of common stock of the second company that are controlled by the first company divided by the total number of shares of common stock of the second company that are issued and outstanding, multiplied by the amount of shareholders' equity of the second company not allocated to preferred stock under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If the second company has multiple classes of common stock outstanding and different classes of common stock have different economic interests in the second company on a per share basis, the number of shares of common stock must be adjusted for purposes of this calculation so that each share of common stock has the same economic interest in the second company.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Investor Preferred Equity</I> equals, for each class of preferred stock issued by the second company, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The quotient of the number of shares of the class of preferred stock of the second company that are controlled by the first company divided by the total number of shares of the class of preferred stock that are issued and outstanding, multiplied by the amount of shareholders' equity of the second company allocated to the class of preferred stock under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If there are different classes of preferred stock with equal seniority (<I>i.e., pari passu</I> classes of preferred stock), the <I>pari passu</I> shares are treated as a single class. If <I>pari passu</I> classes of preferred stock have different economic interests in the second company on a per share basis, the number of shares of preferred stock must be adjusted for purposes of this calculation so that each <I>pari passu</I> share of preferred stock has the same economic interest in the second company.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of debt instruments and other interests in total equity.</I> (1) For purposes of the total equity calculation in paragraph (b) of this section, a debt instrument or other interest issued by the second company that is controlled by the first company may be treated as an equity instrument if that debt instrument or other interest is functionally equivalent to equity.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the principal amount of all debt instruments and the market value of all other interests that are functionally equivalent to equity that are controlled by the first company are added to the sum under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, and the principal amount of all debt instruments and the market value of all other interests that are functionally equivalent to equity that are outstanding are added to Issuer Shareholders' Equity.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a debt instrument issued by the second company may be considered functionally equivalent to equity if it has equity-like characteristics, such as:
</P>
<P>(i) Extremely long-dated maturity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subordination to other debt instruments issued by the second company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualification as regulatory capital under any regulatory capital rules applicable to the second company;
</P>
<P>(iii) Qualification as equity under applicable tax law;
</P>
<P>(iv) Qualification as equity under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles or other applicable accounting standards;
</P>
<P>(v) Inadequacy of the equity capital underlying the debt at the time of the issuance of the debt; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Issuance not on market terms.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an interest that is not a debt instrument issued by the second company may be considered functionally equivalent to equity if it has equity-like characteristics, such as entitling its owner to a share of the profits of the second company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusion of certain equity instruments from total equity.</I> (1) For purposes of the total equity calculation in paragraph (b) of this section, an equity instrument issued by the second company that is controlled by the first company may be treated as not an equity instrument if the equity instrument is functionally equivalent to debt.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an equity instrument issued by the second company may be considered functionally equivalent to debt if it has debt-like characteristics, such as protections generally provided to creditors, a limited term, a fixed rate of return or a variable rate of return linked to a reference interest rate, classification as debt for tax purposes, or classification as debt for accounting purposes.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Frequency of total equity calculation.</I> The total equity of a first company in a second company is calculated each time the first company acquires control over equity instruments of the second company, including any debt instruments or other interests that are functionally equivalent to equity in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 85 FR 12426, Mar. 2, 2020, subpart D was revised, including § 225.34 which contains 2 paragraphs designated (c)(3)(ii).</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Change in Bank Control</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 62 FR 9338, Feb. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.41" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.5.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.41   Transactions requiring prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice requirement.</I> Any person acting directly or indirectly, or through or in concert with one or more persons, shall give the Board 60 days' written notice, as specified in § 225.43 of this subpart, before acquiring control of a state member bank or bank holding company, unless the acquisition is exempt under § 225.42.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acquisition</I> includes a purchase, assignment, transfer, or pledge of voting securities, or an increase in percentage ownership of a state member bank or a bank holding company resulting from a redemption of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acting in concert</I> includes knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control of a state member bank or bank holding company whether or not pursuant to an express agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Immediate family</I> includes a person's father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, grandparent, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, the spouse of any of the foregoing, and the person's spouse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisitions requiring prior notice</I>—(1) <I>Acquisition of control.</I> The acquisition of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company constitutes the acquisition of control under the Bank Control Act, requiring prior notice to the Board, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person (or persons acting in concert) will own, control, or hold with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttable presumption of control.</I> The Board presumes that an acquisition of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company constitutes the acquisition of control under the Bank Control Act, requiring prior notice to the Board, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person (or persons acting in concert) will own, control, or hold with power to vote 10 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution, and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution has registered securities under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l); or
</P>
<P>(ii) No other person will own, control, or hold the power to vote a greater percentage of that class of voting securities immediately after the transaction. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If two or more persons, not acting in concert, each propose to acquire simultaneously equal percentages of 10 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the state member bank or bank holding company, each person must file prior notice to the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Rebuttable presumption of concerted action.</I> The following persons shall be presumed to be acting in concert for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) A company and any controlling shareholder, partner, trustee, or management official of the company, if both the company and the person own voting securities of the state member bank or bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) An individual and the individual's immediate family;
</P>
<P>(3) Companies under common control;
</P>
<P>(4) Persons that are parties to any agreement, contract, understanding, relationship, or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise, regarding the acquisition, voting, or transfer of control of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company, other than through a revocable proxy as described in § 225.42(a)(5) of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Persons that have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under sections 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n), and the rules promulgated thereunder by the Securities and Exchange Commission; and
</P>
<P>(6) A person and any trust for which the person serves as trustee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acquisitions of loans in default.</I> The Board presumes an acquisition of a loan in default that is secured by voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company to be an acquisition of the underlying securities for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other transactions.</I> Transactions other than those set forth in paragraph (c) of this section resulting in a person's control of less than 25 percent of a class of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company are not deemed by the Board to constitute control for purposes of the Bank Control Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rebuttal of presumptions.</I> Prior notice to the Board is not required for any acquisition of voting securities under the presumption of control set forth in this section, if the Board finds that the acquisition will not result in control. The Board shall afford any person seeking to rebut a presumption in this section an opportunity to present views in writing or, if appropriate, orally before its designated representatives at an informal conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.5.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.42   Transactions not requiring prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The following transactions do not require notice to the Board under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Existing control relationships.</I> The acquisition of additional voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company by a person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Continuously since March 9, 1979 (or since the institution commenced business, if later), held power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is presumed, under § 225.41(c)(2) of this subpart, to have controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979, if the aggregate amount of voting securities held does not exceed 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution or, in other cases, where the Board determines that the person has controlled the bank continuously since March 9, 1979;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Increase of previously authorized acquisitions.</I> Unless the Board or the Reserve Bank otherwise provides in writing, the acquisition of additional shares of a class of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company by any person (or persons acting in concert) who has lawfully acquired and maintained control of the institution (for purposes of § 225.41(c) of this subpart), after complying with the procedures and receiving approval to acquire voting securities of the institution under this subpart, or in connection with an application approved under section 3 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842; § 225.11 of subpart B of this part) or section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acquisitions subject to approval under BHC Act or Bank Merger Act.</I> Any acquisition of voting securities subject to approval under section 3 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842; § 225.11 of subpart B of this part), or section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions exempt under BHC Act.</I> Any transaction described in sections 2(a)(5), 3(a)(A), or 3(a)(B) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5), 1842(a)(A), and 1842(a)(B)), by a person described in those provisions;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proxy solicitation.</I> The acquisition of the power to vote securities of a state member bank or bank holding company through receipt of a revocable proxy in connection with a proxy solicitation for the purposes of conducting business at a regular or special meeting of the institution, if the proxy terminates within a reasonable period after the meeting;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stock dividends.</I> The receipt of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company through a stock dividend or stock split if the proportional interest of the recipient in the institution remains substantially the same; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Acquisition of foreign banking organization.</I> The acquisition of voting securities of a qualifying foreign banking organization. (This exemption does not extend to the reports and information required under paragraphs 9, 10, and 12 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j) (9), (10), and (12)) and § 225.44 of this subpart.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior notice exemption.</I> (1) The following acquisitions of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company, which would otherwise require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person notifies the appropriate Reserve Bank within 90 calendar days after the acquisition and provides any relevant information requested by the Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquisition of voting securities through inheritance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquisition of voting securities as a <I>bona fide</I> gift; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Acquisition of voting securities in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted (DPC) in good faith.
</P>
<P>(2) The following acquisitions of voting securities of a state member bank or bank holding company, which would otherwise require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person does not reasonably have advance knowledge of the transaction, and provides the written notice required under section 225.43 to the appropriate Reserve Bank within 90 calendar days after the transaction occurs:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquisition of voting securities resulting from a redemption of voting securities by the issuing bank or bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquisition of voting securities as a result of actions (including the sale of securities) by any third party that is not within the control of the acquiror.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section limits the authority of the Board to disapprove a notice pursuant to § 225.43(h) of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.5.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.43   Procedures for filing, processing, publishing, and acting on notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing notice.</I> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain all the information required by paragraph 6 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)), or prescribed in the designated Board form.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may waive any of the informational requirements of the notice if the Board determines that it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) A notificant shall notify the appropriate Reserve Bank or the Board immediately of any material changes in a notice submitted to the Reserve Bank, including changes in financial or other conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) When the acquiring person is an individual, or group of individuals acting in concert, the requirement to provide personal financial data may be satisfied by a current statement of assets and liabilities and an income summary, as required in the designated Board form, together with a statement of any material changes since the date of the statement or summary. The Reserve Bank or the Board, nevertheless, may request additional information, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of notice.</I> The 60-day notice period specified in § 225.41 of this subpart begins on the date of receipt of a complete notice. The Reserve Bank shall notify the person or persons submitting a notice under this subpart in writing of the date the notice is or was complete and thereby accepted for processing. The Reserve Bank or the Board may request additional relevant information at any time after the date of acceptance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publication</I>—(1) <I>Newspaper Announcement.</I> Any person(s) filing a notice under this subpart shall publish, in a form prescribed by the Board, an announcement soliciting public comment on the proposed acquisition. The announcement shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the head office of the state member bank to be acquired is located or, in the case of a proposed acquisition of a bank holding company, in the community in which its head office is located and in the community in which the head office of each of its subsidiary banks is located. The announcement shall be published no earlier than 15 calendar days before the filing of the notice with the appropriate Reserve Bank and no later than 10 calendar days after the filing date; and the publisher's affidavit of a publication shall be provided to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of newspaper announcement.</I> The newspaper announcement shall state:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of each person identified in the notice as a proposed acquiror of the bank or bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the bank or bank holding company to be acquired, including the name of each of the bank holding company's subsidiary banks; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that interested persons may submit comments on the notice to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank for a period of 20 days, or such shorter period as may be provided, pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> <I>announcement.</I> The Board shall, upon filing of a notice under this subpart, publish announcement in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of receipt of the notice. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcement shall contain the information required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section and a statement that interested persons may submit comments on the proposed acquisition for a period of 15 calendar days, or such shorter period as may be provided, pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section. The Board may waive publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> if the Board determines that such action is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delay of publication.</I> The Board may permit delay in the publication required under paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(3) of this section if the Board determines, for good cause shown, that it is in the public interest to grant such delay. Requests for delay of publication may be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shortening or waiving notice.</I> The Board may shorten or waive the public comment or newspaper publication requirements of this paragraph, or act on a notice before the expiration of a public comment period, if it determines in writing that an emergency exists, or that disclosure of the notice, solicitation of public comment, or delay until expiration of the public comment period would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of the bank or bank holding company to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Consideration of public comments.</I> In acting upon a notice filed under this subpart, the Board shall consider all public comments received in writing within the period specified in the newspaper or <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcement, whichever is later. At the Board's option, comments received after this period may, but need not, be considered.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Standing.</I> No person (other than the acquiring person) who submits comments or information on a notice filed under this subpart shall thereby become a party to the proceeding or acquire any standing or right to participate in the Board's consideration of the notice or to appeal or otherwise contest the notice or the Board's action regarding the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period for Board action</I>—(1) <I>Consummation of acquisition.</I> (i) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed acquisition 60 days after submission to the Reserve Bank of a complete notice under paragraph (a) of this section, unless within that period the Board disapproves the proposed acquisition or extends the 60-day period, as provided under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed transaction before the expiration of the 60-day period if the Board notifies the notificant(s) in writing of the Board's intention not to disapprove the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensions of time period.</I> (i) The Board may extend the 60-day period in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for an additional 30 days by notifying the acquiring person(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may further extend the period during which it may disapprove a notice for two additional periods of not more than 45 days each, if the Board determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) Any acquiring person has not furnished all the information required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Any material information submitted is substantially inaccurate;
</P>
<P>(C) The Board is unable to complete the investigation of an acquiring person because of inadequate cooperation or delay by that person; or
</P>
<P>(D) Additional time is needed to investigate and determine that no acquiring person has a record of failing to comply with the requirements of the Bank Secrecy Act, subchapter II of Chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board extends the time period under this paragraph, it shall notify the acquiring person(s) of the reasons therefor and shall include a statement of the information, if any, deemed incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advice to bank supervisory agencies.</I> (1) Upon accepting a notice relating to acquisition of securities of a state member bank, the Reserve Bank shall send a copy of the notice to the appropriate state bank supervisor, which shall have 30 calendar days from the date the notice is sent in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board. The Reserve Bank also shall send a copy of any notice to the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the Office of Thrift Supervision.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board finds that it must act immediately in order to prevent the probable failure of the bank or bank holding company involved, the Board may dispense with or modify the requirements for notice to the state supervisor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigation and report.</I> (1) After receiving a notice under this subpart, the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall conduct an investigation of the competence, experience, integrity, and financial ability of each person by and for whom an acquisition is to be made. The Board shall also make an independent determination of the accuracy and completeness of any information required to be contained in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section. In investigating any notice accepted under this subpart, the Board or Reserve Bank may solicit information or views from any person, including any bank or bank holding company involved in the notice, and any appropriate state, federal, or foreign governmental authority.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall prepare a written report of its investigation, which shall contain, at a minimum, a summary of the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Factors considered in acting on notices.</I> In reviewing a notice filed under this subpart, the Board shall consider the information in the record, the views and recommendations of the appropriate bank supervisor, and any other relevant information obtained during any investigation of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disapproval and hearing</I>—(1) <I>Disapproval of notice.</I> The Board may disapprove an acquisition if it finds adverse effects with respect to any of the factors set forth in paragraph 7 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)) (<I>i.e.,</I> competitive, financial, managerial, banking, or incompleteness of information).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disapproval notification.</I> Within three days after its decision to issue a notice of intent to disapprove any proposed acquisition, the Board shall notify the acquiring person in writing of the reasons for the action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing.</I> Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the notice of the Board's intent to disapprove, the acquiring person may submit a written request for a hearing. Any hearing conducted under this paragraph shall be in accordance with the Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings (12 CFR part 263). At the conclusion of the hearing, the Board shall, by order, approve or disapprove the proposed acquisition on the basis of the record of the hearing. If the acquiring person does not request a hearing, the notice of intent to disapprove becomes final and unappealable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.44" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.5.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.44   Reporting of stock loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Any foreign bank or affiliate of a foreign bank that has credit outstanding to any person or group of persons, in the aggregate, which is secured, directly or indirectly, by 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a state member bank, shall file a consolidated report with the appropriate Reserve Bank for the state member bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign bank or its affiliate also shall file a copy of the report with its appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(3) Any shares of the state member bank held by the foreign bank or any affiliate of the foreign bank as principal must be included in the calculation of the number of shares in which the foreign bank or its affiliate has a security interest for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Foreign bank</I> shall have the same meaning as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit outstanding</I> includes any loan or extension of credit; the issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit, including an endorsement or standby letter of credit; and any other type of transaction that extends credit or financing to the person or group of persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Group of persons</I> includes any number of persons that the foreign bank or any affiliate of a foreign bank has reason to believe:
</P>
<P>(i) Are acting together, in concert, or with one another to acquire or control shares of the same insured depository institution, including an acquisition of shares of the same depository institution at approximately the same time under substantially the same terms; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under section 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n), and the rules promulgated thereunder by the Securities and Exchange Commission regarding ownership of the shares of the same insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is not required if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person or group of persons referred to in that paragraph has disclosed the amount borrowed and the security interest therein to the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank in connection with a notice filed under § 225.41 of this subpart, or another application filed with the Board or Reserve Bank as a substitute for a notice under § 225.41 of this subpart, including an application filed under section 3 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842) or section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), or an application for membership in the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction involves a person or group of persons that has been the owner or owners of record of the stock for a period of one year or more; or, if the transaction involves stock issued by a newly chartered bank, before the bank is opened for business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report requirements.</I> (1) The consolidated report shall indicate the number and percentage of shares securing each applicable extension of credit, the identity of the borrower, and the number of shares held as principal by the foreign bank and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank, or any affiliate of a foreign bank, shall file the consolidated report in writing within 30 days of the date on which the foreign bank or affiliate first believes that the security for any outstanding credit consists of 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a state member bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other reporting requirements.</I> A foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, that is supervised by the System and is required to report credit outstanding that is secured by the shares of an insured depository institution to another Federal banking agency also shall file a copy of the report with the appropriate Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Limitations on Nonbank Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.52" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.6.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.52   Limitation on overdrafts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> means a reserve account, clearing account, or deposit account as defined in the Board's Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(i)), that is maintained at a Federal Reserve Bank or nonbank bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cash item</I> means (i) a check other than a check classified as a noncash item; or (ii) any other item payable on demand and collectible at par that the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the item is payable is willing to accept as a cash item.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discount window loan</I> means any credit extended by a Federal Reserve Bank to a nonbank bank or industrial bank pursuant to the provisions of the Board's Regulation A (12 CFR part 201).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Industrial bank</I> means an institution as defined in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Noncash item</I> means an item handled by a Reserve Bank as a noncash item under the Reserve Bank's “Collection of Noncash Items Operating Circular” (<I>e.g.,</I> a maturing bankers' acceptance or a maturing security, or a demand item, such as a check, with special instructions or an item that has not been preprinted or post-encoded).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other nonelectronic transactions</I> include all other transactions not included as funds transfers, book-entry securities transfers, cash items, noncash items, automated clearing house transactions, net settlement entries, and discount window loans (<I>e.g.,</I> original issue of securities or redemption of securities).
</P>
<P>(7) An <I>overdraft</I> in an account occurs whenever the Federal Reserve Bank, nonbank bank, or industrial bank holding an account posts a transaction to the account of the nonbank bank, industrial bank, or affiliate that exceeds the aggregate balance of the accounts of the nonbank bank, industrial bank, or affiliate, as determined by the posting rules set forth in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section and continues until the aggregate balance of the account is zero or greater.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Transfer item</I> means an item as defined in subpart B of Regulation J (12 CFR 210.25 <I>et seq</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction on overdrafts</I>—(1) <I>Affiliates.</I> Neither a nonbank bank nor an industrial bank shall permit any affiliate to incur any overdraft in its account with the nonbank bank or industrial bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonbank banks or industrial banks.</I> (i) No nonbank bank or industrial bank shall incur any overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(ii) An overdraft by a nonbank bank or industrial bank in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank shall be deemed to be on behalf of an affiliate whenever:
</P>
<P>(A) A nonbank bank or industrial bank holds an account for an affiliate from which third-party payments can be made; and
</P>
<P>(B) When the posting of an affiliate's transaction to the nonbank bank's or industrial bank's account at a Reserve Bank creates an overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank or increases the amount of an existing overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible overdrafts.</I> The following are permissible overdrafts not subject to paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Inadvertent error.</I> An overdraft in its account by a nonbank bank or its affiliate, or an industrial bank or its affiliate, that results from an inadvertent computer error or inadvertent accounting error, that was not reasonably forseeable or could not have been prevented through the maintenance of procedures reasonably adopted by the nonbank bank or affiliate to avoid such overdraft; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fully secured primary dealer affiliate overdrafts.</I> (i) An overdraft incurred by an affiliate of a nonbank bank, which affiliate is recognized as a primary dealer by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, in the affiliate's account at the nonbank bank, or an overdraft incurred by a nonbank bank on behalf of its primary dealer affiliate in the nonbank bank's account at a Federal Reserve Bank; <I>provided:</I> the overdraft is fully secured by bonds, notes, or other obligations which are direct obligations of the United States or on which the principal and interest are fully guaranteed by the United States or by securities and obligations eligible for settlement on the Federal Reserve book-entry system.
</P>
<P>(ii) An overdraft by a nonbank bank in its account at a Federal Reserve Bank that is on behalf of a primary dealer affiliate is fully secured when that portion of its overdraft at the Federal Reserve Bank that corresponds to the transaction posted for an affiliate that caused or increased the nonbank bank's overdraft is fully secured in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) An overdraft is fully secured under paragraph (c)(2)(i) when the nonbank bank can demonstrate that the overdraft is secured, at all times, by a perfected security interest in specific, identified obligations described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) with a market value that, in the judgment of the Reserve Bank holding the nonbank bank's account, is sufficiently in excess of the amount of the overdraft to provide a margin of protection in a volatile market or in the event the securities need to be liquidated quickly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Posting by Federal Reserve Banks.</I> For purposes of determining the balance of an account under this section, payments and transfers by nonbank banks and industrial banks processed by the Federal Reserve Banks shall be considered posted to their accounts at Federal Reserve Banks as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Funds transfers.</I> Transfer items shall be posted:
</P>
<P>(i) To the transferor's account at the time the transfer is actually made by the transferor's Federal Reserve Bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To the transferee's account at the time the transferee's Reserve Bank sends the transfer item or sends or telephones the advice of credit for the item to the transferee, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Book-entry securities transfers against payment.</I> A book-entry securities transfer against payment shall be posted: (i) to the transferor's account at the time the entry is made by the transferor's Reserve Bank; and (ii) to the transferee's account at the time the entry is made by the transferee's Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discount window loans.</I> Credit for a discount window loan shall be posted to the account of a nonbank bank or industrial bank at the close of business on the day that it is made or such earlier time as may be specifically agreed to by the Federal Reserve Bank and the nonbank bank under the terms of the loan. Debit for repayment of a discount window loan shall be posted to the account of the nonbank bank or industrial bank as of the close of business on the day of maturity of the loan or such earlier time as may be agreed to by the Federal Reserve Bank and the nonbank bank or required by the Federal Reserve Bank under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other transactions.</I> Total aggregate credits for automated clearing house transfers, cash items, noncash items, net settlement entries, and other nonelectronic transactions shall be posted to the account of a nonbank bank or industrial bank as of the opening of business on settlement day. Total aggregate debits for these transactions and entries shall be posted to the account of a nonbank bank or industrial bank as of the close of business on settlement day.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Posting by nonbank banks and industrial banks.</I> For purposes of determining the balance of an affiliate's account under this section, payments and transfers through an affiliate's account at a nonbank bank or industrial bank shall be posted as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Funds transfers.</I> (i) Fedwire transfer items shall be posted:
</P>
<P>(A) To the transferor affiliate's account no later than the time the transfer is actually made by the transferor's Federal Reserve Bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) To the transferee affiliate's account no earlier than the time the transferee's Reserve Bank sends the transfer item, or sends or telephones the advice of credit for the item to the transferee, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>(ii) For funds transfers not sent or received through Federal Reserve Banks, debits shall be posted to the transferor affiliate's account not later than the time the nonbank bank or industrial bank becomes obligated on the transfer. Credits shall not be posted to the transferee affiliate's account before the nonbank bank or industrial bank has received actually and finally collected funds for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Book-entry securities transfers against payment.</I> (i) A book-entry securities transfer against payment shall be posted:
</P>
<P>(A) To the transferor affiliate's account not earlier than the time the entry is made by the transferor's Reserve Bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) To the transferee affiliate's account not later than the time the entry is made by the transferee's Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) For book-entry securities transfers against payment that are not sent or received through Federal Reserve Banks, entries shall be posted:
</P>
<P>(A) To the buyer-affiliate's account not later than the time the nonbank bank or industrial bank becomes obligated on the transfer; and
</P>
<P>(B) To the seller-affiliate's account not before the nonbank bank or industrial bank has received actually and finally collected funds for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other transactions</I>—(i) <I>Credits.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, credits for cash items, noncash items, ACH transfers, net settlement entries, and all other nonelectronic transactions shall be posted to an affiliate's account on the day of the transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> settlement day for ACH transactions or the day of credit for check transactions), but no earlier than the Federal Reserve Bank's opening of business on that day. Credit for cash items that are required by federal or state statute or regulation to be made available to the depositor for withdrawal prior to the posting time set forth in the preceding paragraph shall be posted as of the required availability time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Debits.</I> Debits for cash items, noncash items, ACH transfers, net settlement entries, and all other nonelectronic transactions shall be posted to an affiliate's account on the day of the transaction (<I>e.g.,</I> settlement day for ACH transactions or the day of presentment for check transactions), but no later than the Federal Reserve Bank's close of business on that day. If a check drawn on an affiliate's account or an ACH debit transfer received by an affiliate is returned timely by the nonbank bank or industrial bank in accordance with applicable law and agreements, no entry need to be posted to the affiliate's account for such item.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 53 FR 37744, Sept. 28, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Appraisal Standards for Federally Related Transactions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 55 FR 27771, July 5, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.61" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.61   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the <I>Board</I>) under title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (<I>FlRREA</I>) (Pub. L. No. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183 (1989)), 12 U.S.C. 3310, 3331-3351, and section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1844(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) Title XI provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This subpart implements the requirements of title XI, and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the Board or by institutions regulated by the Board (<I>regulated institutions</I>). 
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a State certified appraiser and which by a State licensed appraiser; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.62" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.62   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisal</I> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business loan</I> means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is not secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Complex appraisal for a residential real estate transaction</I> means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federally related transaction</I> means any real estate-related financial transaction entered into on or after August 9, 1990, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board or any regulated institution engages in or contracts for; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Market value</I> means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby: 
</P>
<P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated; 
</P>
<P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests; 
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market; 
</P>
<P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate</I> or <I>real property</I> means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests, or similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights, or similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Real estate-related financial transaction</I> means any transaction involving: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities. 


</P>
<P>(k) <I>Residential real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.


</P>
<P>(l) <I>State certified appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet or exceed the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The Board may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State licensed appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The Board may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within the Board's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Tract development</I> means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Transaction value</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit; 
</P>
<P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and 
</P>
<P>(3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or the market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 55 FR 27771, July 5, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 29500, June 7, 1994; 83 FR 15035, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53597, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.63" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.63   Appraisals required; transactions requiring a State certified or licensed appraiser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisals required.</I> An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is a residential real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $400,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution; 
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is not secured by real estate; 
</P>
<P>(4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; 
</P>
<P>(5) The transaction is a business loan that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment; 
</P>
<P>(6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate; 
</P>
<P>(7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; 
</P>
<P>(8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met Board regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination; 
</P>
<P>(9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; 
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate; 
</P>
<P>(11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; 
</P>
<P>(12) The transaction involves underwriting or dealing in mortgage-backed securities; 
</P>
<P>(13) The Board determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution; 
</P>
<P>(14) The transaction is a commercial real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $500,000 or less; or
</P>
<P>(15) The transaction is exempted from the appraisal requirement pursuant to the rural residential exemption under 12 U.S.C. 3356.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluations required.</I> For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraphs (a)(1), (5), (7), (14), or (15) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns.</I> The Board reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser</I>—(1) <I>All transactions of $1,000,000 or more.</I> All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commercial real estate transactions of more than $500,000.</I> All federally related transactions that are commercial real estate transactions having a transaction value of more than $500,000 shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions of more than $400,000.</I> All complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is more than $400,000. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals for residential real estate transactions are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser.</I> All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 55 FR 27771, July 5, 1990, as amended at 58 FR 15077, Mar. 19, 1993; 59 FR 29500, June 7, 1994; 63 FR 65532, Nov. 27, 1998; 83 FR 15035, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53597, 53598, Oct. 8, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.64" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.64   Minimum appraisal standards.</HEAD>
<P>For federally related transactions, all appraisals shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(a) Conform to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, 1029 Vermont Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20005, unless principles of safe and sound banking require compliance with stricter standards; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be written and contain sufficient information and analysis to support the institution's decision to engage in the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) Be subject to appropriate review for compliance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;
</P>
<P>(d) Analyze and report appropriate deductions and discounts for proposed construction or renovation, partially leased buildings, non-market lease terms, and tract developments with unsold units; 
</P>
<P>(e) Be based upon the definition of market value as set forth in this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Be performed by State licensed or certified appraisers in accordance with requirements set forth in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994, as amended at 84 FR 53598, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.65" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.65   Appraiser independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staff appraisers.</I> If an appraisal is prepared by a staff appraiser, that appraiser must be independent of the lending, investment, and collection functions and not involved, except as an appraiser, in the federally related transaction, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property. If the only qualified persons available to perform an appraisal are involved in the lending, investment, or collection functions of the regulated institution, the regulated institution shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the appraisers exercise independent judgment and that the appraisal is adequate. Such steps include, but are not limited to, prohibiting an individual from performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions in which the appraiser is otherwise involved and prohibiting directors and officers from participating in any vote or approval involving assets on which they performed an appraisal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee appraisers.</I> (1) If an appraisal is prepared by a fee appraiser, the appraiser shall be engaged directly by the regulated institution or its agent, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated institution also may accept an appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another financial services institution, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The appraiser has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulated institution determines that the appraisal conforms to the requirements of this subpart and is otherwise acceptable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 55 FR 27771, July 5, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.66" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.66   Professional association membership; competency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership in appraisal organizations.</I> A State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a federally related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competency.</I> All staff and fee appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions must be State certified or licensed, as appropriate. However, a State certified or licensed appraiser may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified or licensed. Any determination of competency shall be based upon the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular appraisal assignment for which he or she is being considered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.67" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.7.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.67   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Institutions and institution-affiliated parties, including staff appraisers and fee appraisers, may be subject to removal and/or prohibition orders, cease and desist orders, and the imposition of civil money penalties pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C 1811 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, or other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Notice of Addition or Change of Directors and Senior Executive Officers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 62 FR 9341, Feb. 28, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.71" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.8.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Director</I> means a person who serves on the board of directors of a regulated institution, except that this term does not include an advisory director who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not elected by the shareholders of the regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not authorized to vote on any matters before the board of directors or any committee thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) Solely provides general policy advice to the board of directors and any committee thereof; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has not been identified by the Board or Reserve Bank as a person who performs the functions of a director for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulated institution</I> means a state member bank or a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Senior executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of the following positions: president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief lending officer, or chief investment officer. <I>Senior executive officer</I> also includes any other person identified by the Board or Reserve Bank, whether or not hired as an employee, with significant influence over, or who participates in, major policymaking decisions of the regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Troubled condition</I> for a regulated institution means an institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating, as determined in its most recent report of examination or inspection, of 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System or under the Federal Reserve Bank Holding Company Rating System;
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a cease-and-desist order or formal written agreement that requires action to improve the financial condition of the institution, unless otherwise informed in writing by the Board or Reserve Bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is informed in writing by the Board or Reserve Bank that it is in troubled condition for purposes of the requirements of this subpart on the basis of the institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination or inspection, or other information available to the Board or Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.72" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.8.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.72   Director and officer appointments; prior notice requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice by regulated institution.</I> A regulated institution shall give the Board 30 days' written notice, as specified in § 225.73, before adding or replacing any member of its board of directors, employing any person as a senior executive officer of the institution, or changing the responsibilities of any senior executive officer so that the person would assume a different senior executive officer position, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulated institution is not in compliance with all minimum capital requirements applicable to the institution as determined on the basis of the institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination or inspection;
</P>
<P>(2) The regulated institution is in troubled condition; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Board determines, in connection with its review of a capital restoration plan required under section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or subpart B of the Board's Regulation H, or otherwise, that such notice is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior notice by individual.</I> The prior notice required by paragraph (a) of this section may be provided by an individual seeking election to the board of directors of a regulated institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.73" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.8.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.73   Procedures for filing, processing, and acting on notices; standards for disapproval; waiver of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing notice</I>—(1) <I>Content.</I> The notice required in § 225.72 shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The information required by paragraph 6(A) of the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)(A)) as may be prescribed in the designated Board form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional information consistent with the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council's Joint Statement of Guidelines on Conducting Background Checks and Change in Control Investigations, as set forth in the designated Board form; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other information as may be required by the Board or Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification.</I> The Reserve Bank may modify or accept other information in place of the requirements of § 225.73(a)(1) for a notice filed under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance and processing of notice.</I> The 30-day notice period specified in § 225.72 shall begin on the date all information required to be submitted by the notificant pursuant to § 225.73(a)(1) is received by the appropriate Reserve Bank. The Reserve Bank shall notify the regulated institution or individual submitting the notice of the date on which all required information is received and the notice is accepted for processing, and of the date on which the 30-day notice period will expire. The Board or Reserve Bank may extend the 30-day notice period for an additional period of not more than 60 days by notifying the regulated institution or individual filing the notice that the period has been extended and stating the reason for not processing the notice within the 30-day notice period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of service</I>—(1) <I>At expiration of period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service after the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, unless the Board or Reserve Bank disapproves the notice before the end of the period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior to expiration of period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service before the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if the Board or the Reserve Bank notifies in writing the regulated institution or individual submitting the notice of the Board's or Reserve Bank's intention not to disapprove the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank shall disapprove a notice under § 225.72 if the Board or Reserve Bank finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom the notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the regulated institution or in the best interests of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the regulated institution. The notice of disapproval shall contain a statement of the basis for disapproval and shall be sent to the regulated institution and the disapproved individual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal of a notice of disapproval.</I> (1) A disapproved individual or a regulated institution that has submitted a notice that is disapproved under this section may appeal the disapproval to the Board within 15 days of the effective date of the notice of disapproval. An appeal shall be in writing and explain the reasons for the appeal and include all facts, documents, and arguments that the appealing party wishes to be considered in the appeal, and state whether the appealing party is requesting an informal hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be sent to the appealing party within 60 days of the receipt of an appeal, unless the appealing party's request for an informal hearing is granted.
</P>
<P>(3) The disapproved individual may not serve as a director or senior executive officer of the state member bank or bank holding company while the appeal is pending.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Informal hearing.</I> (1) An individual or regulated institution whose notice under this section has been disapproved may request an informal hearing on the notice. A request for an informal hearing shall be in writing and shall be submitted within 15 days of a notice of disapproval. The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that oral argument is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(2) An informal hearing shall be held within 30 days of a request, if granted, unless the requesting party agrees to a later date.
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be given to the individual and the regulated institution within 60 days of the conclusion of any informal hearing ordered by the Board, unless the requesting party agrees to a later date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver of notice</I>—(1) <I>Waiver requests.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank may permit an individual to serve as a senior executive officer or director before the notice required under this subpart is provided, if the Board or Reserve Bank finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Delay would threaten the safety or soundness of the regulated institution or a bank controlled by a bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Delay would not be in the public interest; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other extraordinary circumstances exist that justify waiver of prior notice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Automatic waiver.</I> An individual may serve as a director upon election to the board of directors of a regulated institution before the notice required under this subpart is provided if the individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not proposed by the management of the regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is elected as a new member of the board of directors at a meeting of the regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides to the appropriate Reserve Bank all the information required in § 225.73(a) within two (2) business days after the individual's election.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect on disapproval authority.</I> A waiver shall not affect the authority of the Board or Reserve Bank to disapprove a notice within 30 days after a waiver is granted under paragraph (f)(1) of this section or the election of an individual who has filed a notice and is serving pursuant to an automatic waiver under paragraph (f)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Financial Holding Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 66 FR 415, Jan. 3, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.81" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.81   What is a financial holding company?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> A financial holding company is a bank holding company that meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements to be a financial holding company.</I> In order to be a financial holding company: 
</P>
<P>(1) All depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company must be and remain well capitalized; 
</P>
<P>(2) All depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company must be and remain well managed; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The bank holding company must have made an effective election to become a financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for foreign banks that are or are owned by bank holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Foreign banks with U.S. branches or agencies that also own U.S. banks.</I> A foreign bank that is a bank holding company and that operates a branch or agency or owns or controls a commercial lending company in the United States must comply with the requirements of this section, § 225.82, and §§ 225.90 through 225.92 in order to be a financial holding company. After it becomes a financial holding company, a foreign bank described in this paragraph will be subject to the provisions of §§ 225.83, 225.84, 225.93, and 225.94.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank holding companies that own foreign banks with U.S. branches or agencies.</I> A bank holding company that owns a foreign bank that operates a branch or agency or owns or controls a commercial lending company in the United States must comply with the requirements of this section, § 225.82, and §§ 225.90 through 225.92 in order to be a financial holding company. After it becomes a financial holding company, a bank holding company described in this paragraph will be subject to the provisions of §§ 225.83, 225.84, 225.93, and 225.94. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.82" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.82   How does a bank holding company elect to become a financial holding company?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirement.</I> A bank holding company may elect to become a financial holding company by filing a written declaration with the appropriate Reserve Bank. A declaration by a bank holding company is considered to be filed on the date that all information required by paragraph (b) of this section is received by the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of declaration.</I> To be deemed complete, a declaration must: 
</P>
<P>(1) State that the bank holding company elects to be a financial holding company; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the name and head office address of the bank holding company and of each depository institution controlled by the bank holding company; 
</P>
<P>(3) Certify that each depository institution controlled by the bank holding company is well capitalized as of the date the bank holding company submits its declaration; 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the capital ratios as of the close of the previous quarter for all relevant capital measures, as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), for each depository institution controlled by the company on the date the company submits its declaration; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Certify that each depository institution controlled by the company is well managed as of the date the company submits its declaration. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effectiveness of election.</I> An election by a bank holding company to become a financial holding company shall not be effective if, during the period provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the Board finds that, as of the date the declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any insured depository institution controlled by the bank holding company (except an institution excluded under paragraph (d) of this section) has not achieved at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the institution's most recent examination; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any depository institution controlled by the bank holding company is not both well capitalized and well managed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consideration of the CRA performance of a recently acquired insured depository institution.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, an insured depository institution will be excluded for purposes of the review of the Community Reinvestment Act rating provisions of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank holding company acquired the insured depository institution during the 12-month period preceding the filing of an election under paragraph (a) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank holding company has submitted an affirmative plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency for the institution to take actions necessary for the institution to achieve at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the next examination of the institution; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agency for the institution has accepted the plan described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date of election</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An election filed by a bank holding company under paragraph (a) of this section is effective on the 31st calendar day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board notifies the bank holding company prior to that time that the election is ineffective. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Earlier notification that an election is effective.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank may notify a bank holding company that its election to become a financial holding company is effective prior to the 31st day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank. Such a notification must be in writing. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests to become a financial holding company submitted as part of an application to become a bank holding company</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A company that is not a bank holding company and has applied for the Board's approval to become a bank holding company under section 3(a)(1) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(1)) may as part of that application submit a request to become a financial holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request to become a financial holding company submitted as part of an application to become a bank holding company must: 
</P>
<P>(i) State that the company seeks to become a financial holding company on consummation of its proposal to become a bank holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Certify that each depository institution that would be controlled by the company on consummation of its proposal to become a bank holding company will be both well capitalized and well managed as of the date the company consummates the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request becomes a declaration and an effective election on date of consummation of bank holding company proposal.</I> A complete request submitted by a company under this paragraph (f) becomes a complete declaration by a bank holding company for purposes of section 4(l) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(l)) and becomes an effective election for purposes of § 225.81(b) on the date that the company lawfully consummates its proposal under section 3 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842), unless the Board notifies the company at any time prior to consummation of the proposal and that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any depository institution that would be controlled by the company on consummation of the proposal will not be both well capitalized and well managed on the date of consummation; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any insured depository institution that would be controlled by the company on consummation of the proposal has not achieved at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the institution's most recent examination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited exclusion for recently acquired institutions not available.</I> Unless the Board determines otherwise, an insured depository institution that is controlled or would be controlled by the company as part of its proposal to become a bank holding company may not be excluded for purposes of evaluating the Community Reinvestment Act criterion described in this paragraph or in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Board's authority to exercise supervisory authority over a financial holding company.</I> An effective election to become a financial holding company does not in any way limit the Board's statutory authority under the BHC Act, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or any other relevant Federal statute to take appropriate action, including imposing supervisory limitations, restrictions, or prohibitions on the activities and acquisitions of a bank holding company that has elected to become a financial holding company, or enforcing compliance with applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.83" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.83   What are the consequences of failing to continue to meet applicable capital and management requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice by the Board.</I> If the Board finds that a financial holding company controls any depository institution that is not well capitalized or well managed, the Board will notify the company in writing that it is not in compliance with the applicable requirement(s) for a financial holding company and identify the area(s) of noncompliance. The Board may provide this notice at any time before or after receiving notice from the financial holding company under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification by a financial holding company required</I>—(1) <I>Notice to Board.</I> A financial holding company must notify the Board in writing within 15 calendar days of becoming aware that any depository institution controlled by the company has ceased to be well capitalized or well managed. This notification must identify the depository institution involved and the area(s) of noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Triggering events for notice to the Board</I>—(i) <I>Well capitalized.</I> A company becomes aware that a depository institution it controls is no longer well capitalized upon the occurrence of any material event that would change the category assigned to the institution for purposes of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o). <I>See</I> 12 CFR 6.3(b)-(c), 208.42(b)-(c), and 325.102(b)-(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Well managed.</I> A company becomes aware that a depository institution it controls is no longer well managed at the time the depository institution receives written notice from the appropriate Federal or state banking agency that either its composite rating or its rating for management is not at least satisfactory. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Execution of agreement acceptable to the Board</I>—(1) <I>Agreement required; time period.</I> Within 45 days after receiving a notice from the Board under paragraph (a) of this section, the company must execute an agreement acceptable to the Board to comply with all applicable capital and management requirements. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of time for executing agreement.</I> Upon request by a company, the Board may extend the 45-day period under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the Board determines that granting additional time is appropriate under the circumstances. A request by a company for additional time must include an explanation of why an extension is necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agreement requirements.</I> An agreement required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section to correct a capital or management deficiency must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Explain the specific actions that the company will take to correct all areas of noncompliance; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a schedule within which each action will be taken; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide any other information that the Board may require; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Be acceptable to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations during period of noncompliance.</I> Until the Board determines that a company has corrected the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board may impose any limitations or conditions on the conduct or activities of the company or any of its affiliates as the Board finds to be appropriate and consistent with the purposes of the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The company and its affiliates may not commence any additional activity or acquire control or shares of any company under section 4(k) of the BHC Act without prior approval from the Board. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequences of failure to correct conditions within 180 days</I>—(1) <I>Divestiture of depository institutions.</I> If a company does not correct the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section within 180 days of receipt of the notice or such additional time as the Board may permit, the Board may order the company to divest ownership or control of any depository institution owned or controlled by the company. Such divestiture must be done in accordance with the terms and conditions established by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative method of complying with a divestiture order.</I> A company may comply with an order issued under paragraph (e)(1) of this section by ceasing to engage (both directly and through any subsidiary that is not a depository institution or a subsidiary of a depository institution) in any activity that may be conducted only under section 4(k), (n), or (o) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k), (n), or (o)). The termination of activities must be completed within the time period referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and in accordance with the terms and conditions acceptable to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultation with other agencies.</I> In taking any action under this section, the Board will consult with the relevant Federal and state regulatory authorities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.84" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.84   What are the consequences of failing to maintain a satisfactory or better rating under the Community Reinvestment Act at all insured depository institution subsidiaries?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations on activities</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Upon receiving a notice regarding performance under the Community Reinvestment Act in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a financial holding company may not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Commence any additional activity under section 4(k) or 4(n) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k) or (n)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly or indirectly acquire control, including all or substantially all of the assets, of a company engaged in any activity under section 4(k) or 4(n) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k) or (n)). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification.</I> A financial holding company receives notice for purposes of this paragraph at the time that the appropriate Federal banking agency for any insured depository institution controlled by the company or the Board provides notice to the institution or company that the institution has received a rating of “needs to improve record of meeting community credit needs” or “substantial noncompliance in meeting community credit needs” in the institution's most recent examination under the Community Reinvestment Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions for certain activities</I>—(1) <I>Continuation of investment activities.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section does not prevent a financial holding company from continuing to make investments in the ordinary course of conducting merchant banking activities under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) or insurance company investment activities under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I))if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The financial holding company lawfully was a financial holding company and commenced the merchant banking activity under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) or the insurance company investment activity under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)) prior to the time that an insured depository institution controlled by the financial holding company received a rating below “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has not, in the exercise of its supervisory authority, advised the financial holding company that these activities must be restricted. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities that are closely related to banking.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (a) of this section does not prevent a financial holding company from commencing any additional activity or acquiring control of a company engaged in any activity under section 4(c) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)), if the company complies with the notice, approval, and other requirements of that section and section 4(j) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of prohibitions.</I> The prohibitions described in paragraph (a) of this section shall continue in effect until such time as each insured depository institution controlled by the financial holding company has achieved at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the most recent examination of the institution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.85" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.85   Is notice to or approval from the Board required prior to engaging in a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No prior approval required generally</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A financial holding company and any subsidiary (other than a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution) of the financial holding company may engage in any activity listed in § 225.86, or acquire shares or control of a company engaged exclusively in activities listed in § 225.86, without providing prior notice to or obtaining prior approval from the Board unless required under paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquisitions by a financial holding company of a company engaged in other permissible activities.</I> In addition to the activities listed in § 225.86, a company acquired or to be acquired by a financial holding company under paragraph (a)(1) of this section may engage in activities otherwise permissible for a financial holding company under this part in accordance with any applicable notice, approval, or other requirement. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acquisition by a financial holding company of a company engaged in limited nonfinancial activities</I>—(i) <I>Mixed acquisitions generally permitted.</I> A financial holding company may under this subpart acquire more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities or control of a company that is not engaged exclusively in activities that are financial in nature, incidental to a financial activity, or otherwise permissible for the financial holding company under section 4(c) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)) if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The company to be acquired is substantially engaged in activities that are financial in nature, incidental to a financial activity, or otherwise permissible for the financial holding company under section 4(c) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)); 
</P>
<P>(B) The financial holding company complies with the notice requirements of § 225.87, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) The company conforms, terminates, or divests, within 2 years of the date the financial holding company acquires shares or control of the company, all activities that are not financial in nature, incidental to a financial activity, or otherwise permissible for the financial holding company under section 4(c) (12 U.S.C. 1843(c))of the BHC Act. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition of “substantially engaged.”</I> Unless the Board determines otherwise, a company will be considered to be “substantially engaged” in activities permissible for a financial holding company for purposes of paragraph (a)(3)(A) of this section if at least 85 percent of the company's consolidated total annual gross revenues is derived from and at least 85 percent of the company's consolidated total assets is attributable to the conduct of activities that are financial in nature, incidental to a financial activity, or otherwise permissible for a financial holding company under section 4(c) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Locations in which a financial holding company may conduct financial activities.</I> A financial holding company may conduct any activity listed in § 225.86 at any location in the United States or at any location outside of the United States subject to the laws of the jurisdiction in which the activity is conducted. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Circumstances under which prior notice to the Board is required</I>—(1) <I>Acquisition of more than 5 percent of the shares of a savings association.</I> A financial holding company must obtain Board approval in accordance with section 4(j) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)) and either § 225.14 or § 225.24, as appropriate, prior to acquiring control or more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of a savings association or of a company that owns, operates, or controls a savings association. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> The Board may, if appropriate in the exercise of its supervisory or other authority, including under § 225.82(g) or § 225.83(d) or other relevant authority, require a financial holding company to provide notice to or obtain approval from the Board prior to engaging in any activity or acquiring shares or control of any company. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.86" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.86   What activities are permissible for any financial holding company?</HEAD>
<P>The following activities are financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Activities determined to be closely related to banking.</I> (1) Any activity that the Board had determined by regulation prior to November 12, 1999, to be so closely related to banking as to be a proper incident thereto, subject to the terms and conditions contained in this part, unless modified by the Board. These activities are listed in § 225.28. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any activity that the Board had determined by an order that was in effect on November 12, 1999, to be so closely related to banking as to be a proper incident thereto, subject to the terms and conditions contained in this part and those in the authorizing orders. These activities are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Providing administrative and other services to mutual funds (<I>Societe Generale,</I> 84 Federal Reserve Bulletin 680 (1998)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Owning shares of a securities exchange (<I>J.P. Morgan &amp; Co, Inc., and UBS AG,</I> 86 Federal Reserve Bulletin 61 (2000)); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions (<I>Bayerische Hypo- und Vereinsbank AG, et al.,</I> 86 Federal Reserve Bulletin 56 (2000)); 
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing employment histories to third parties for use in making credit decisions and to depository institutions and their affiliates for use in the ordinary course of business (<I>Norwest Corporation,</I> 81 Federal Reserve Bulletin 732 (1995)); 
</P>
<P>(v) Check cashing and wire transmission services (<I>Midland Bank, PLC,</I> 76 Federal Reserve Bulletin 860 (1990) (check cashing); <I>Norwest Corporation,</I> 81 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1130 (1995) (money transmission)); 
</P>
<P>(vi) In connection with offering banking services, providing notary public services, selling postage stamps and postage-paid envelopes, providing vehicle registration services, and selling public transportation tickets and tokens (<I>Popular, Inc.,</I> 84 Federal Reserve Bulletin 481 (1998)); and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Real estate title abstracting (<I>The First National Company,</I> 81 Federal Reserve Bulletin 805 (1995)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activities determined to be usual in connection with the transaction of banking abroad.</I> Any activity that the Board had determined by regulation in effect on November 11, 1999, to be usual in connection with the transaction of banking or other financial operations abroad (<I>see</I> § 211.5(d) of this chapter), subject to the terms and conditions in part 211 and Board interpretations in effect on that date regarding the scope and conduct of the activity. In addition to the activities listed in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, these activities are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Providing management consulting services, including to any person with respect to nonfinancial matters, so long as the management consulting services are advisory and do not allow the financial holding company to control the person to which the services are provided; 
</P>
<P>(2) Operating a travel agency in connection with financial services offered by the financial holding company or others; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Organizing, sponsoring, and managing a mutual fund, so long as: 
</P>
<P>(i) The fund does not exercise managerial control over the entities in which the fund invests; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial holding company reduces its ownership in the fund, if any, to less than 25 percent of the equity of the fund within one year of sponsoring the fund or such additional period as the Board permits. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Activities permitted under section 4(k)(4) of the BHC Act</I> (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)). Any activity defined to be financial in nature under sections 4(k)(4)(A) through (E), (H) and (I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(A) through (E), (H) and (I)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Activities determined to be financial in nature or incidental to financial activities by the Board</I>—(1) <I>Acting as a finder</I>—Acting as a finder in bringing together one or more buyers and sellers of any product or service for transactions that the parties themselves negotiate and consummate. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>What is the scope of finder activities?</I> Acting as a finder includes providing any or all of the following services through any means—
</P>
<P>(A) Identifying potential parties, making inquiries as to interest, introducing and referring potential parties to each other, and arranging contacts between and meetings of interested parties; 
</P>
<P>(B) Conveying between interested parties expressions of interest, bids, offers, orders and confirmations relating to a transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Transmitting information concerning products and services to potential parties in connection with the activities described in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) and (B) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>What are some examples of finder services?</I> The following are examples of the services that may be provided by a finder when done in accordance with paragraphs (d)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section. These examples are not exclusive. 
</P>
<P>(A) Hosting an electronic marketplace on the financial holding company's Internet web site by providing hypertext or similar links to the web sites of third party buyers or sellers. 
</P>
<P>(B) Hosting on the financial holding company's servers the Internet web site of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A buyer (or seller) that provides information concerning the buyer (or seller) and the products or services it seeks to buy (or sell) and allows sellers (or buyers) to submit expressions of interest, bids, offers, orders and confirmations relating to such products or services; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A government or government agency that provides information concerning the services or benefits made available by the government or government agency, assists persons in completing applications to receive such services or benefits from the government or agency, and allows persons to transmit their applications for services or benefits to the government or agency. 
</P>
<P>(C) Operating an Internet web site that allows multiple buyers and sellers to exchange information concerning the products and services that they are willing to purchase or sell, locate potential counterparties for transactions, aggregate orders for goods or services with those made by other parties, and enter into transactions between themselves. 
</P>
<P>(D) Operating a telephone call center that provides permissible finder services. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>What limitations are applicable to a financial holding company acting as a finder?</I> (A) A finder may act only as an intermediary between a buyer and a seller. 
</P>
<P>(B) A finder may not bind any buyer or seller to the terms of a specific transaction or negotiate the terms of a specific transaction on behalf of a buyer or seller, except that a finder may—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Arrange for buyers to receive preferred terms from sellers so long as the terms are not negotiated as part of any individual transaction, are provided generally to customers or broad categories of customers, and are made available by the seller (and not by the financial holding company); and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Establish rules of general applicability governing the use and operation of the finder service, including rules that—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Govern the submission of bids and offers by buyers and sellers that use the finder service and the circumstances under which the finder service will match bids and offers submitted by buyers and sellers; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Govern the manner in which buyers and sellers may bind themselves to the terms of a specific transaction. 
</P>
<P>(C) A finder may not—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Take title to or acquire or hold an ownership interest in any product or service offered or sold through the finder service; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide distribution services for physical products or services offered or sold through the finder service; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Own or operate any real or personal property that is used for the purpose of manufacturing, storing, transporting, or assembling physical products offered or sold by third parties; or 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Own or operate any real or personal property that serves as a physical location for the physical purchase, sale or distribution of products or services offered or sold by third parties. 
</P>
<P>(D) A finder may not engage in any activity that would require the company to register or obtain a license as a real estate agent or broker under applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>What disclosures are required?</I> A finder must distinguish the products and services offered by the financial holding company from those offered by a third party through the finder service. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Activities permitted under section 4(k)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(5)).</I> (1) The following types of activities are financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity when conducted pursuant to a determination by the Board under paragraph (e)(2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding financial assets other than money or securities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing any device or other instrumentality for transferring money or other financial assets; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Arranging, effecting, or facilitating financial transactions for the account of third parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of specific activities</I>—(i) <I>Is a specific request required?</I> A financial holding company that wishes to engage on the basis of paragraph (e)(1) of this section in an activity that is not otherwise permissible for a financial holding company must obtain a determination from the Board that the activity is permitted under paragraph (e)(1). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury.</I> After receiving a request under this section, the Board will provide the Secretary of the Treasury with a copy of the request and consult with the Secretary in accordance with section 4(k)(2)(A) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(2)(A)). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Board action on requests.</I> After consultation with the Secretary, the Board will promptly make a written determination regarding whether the specific activity described in the request is included in an activity category listed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and is therefore either financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What factors will the Board consider?</I> In evaluating a request made under this section, the Board will take into account the factors listed in section 4(k)(3) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(3)) that it must consider when determining whether an activity is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>What information must the request contain?</I> Any request by a financial holding company under this section must be in writing and must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and define the activity for which the determination is sought, specifically describing what the activity would involve and how the activity would be conducted; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide information supporting the requested determination, including information regarding how the proposed activity falls into one of the categories listed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and any other information required by the Board concerning the proposed activity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 66 FR 415, Jan. 3, 2001, as amended at 66 FR 19081, Apr. 13, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.87" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.87   Is notice to the Board required after engaging in a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Post-transaction notice generally required to engage in a financial activity.</I> A financial holding company that commences an activity or acquires shares of a company engaged in an activity listed in § 225.86 must notify the appropriate Reserve Bank in writing within 30 calendar days after commencing the activity or consummating the acquisition by using the appropriate form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cases in which notice to the Board is not required</I>—(1) <I>Acquisitions that do not involve control of a company.</I> A notice under paragraph (a) of this section is not required in connection with the acquisition of shares of a company if, following the acquisition, the financial holding company does not control the company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No additional notice required to engage</I> <E T="01">de novo</E> <I>in an activity for which a financial holding company already has provided notice.</I> After a financial holding company provides the appropriate Reserve Bank with notice that the company is engaged in an activity listed in § 225.86, a financial holding company may, unless otherwise notified by the Board, commence the activity <I>de novo</I> through any subsidiary that the financial holding company is authorized to control without providing additional notice under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conduct of certain investment activities.</I> Unless required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a financial holding company is not required to provide notice under paragraph (a) of this section of any individual acquisition of shares of a company as part of the conduct by a financial holding company of securities underwriting, dealing, or market making activities as described in section 4(k)(4)(E) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(E)), merchant banking activities conducted pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)), or insurance company investment activities conducted pursuant to section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)), if the financial holding company previously has notified the Board under paragraph (a) of this section that the company has commenced the relevant securities, merchant banking, or insurance company investment activities, as relevant. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of large merchant banking or insurance company investments.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3) of this section, a financial holding company must provide notice under paragraph (a) of the section if: 
</P>
<P>(i) As part of a merchant banking activity conducted under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)), the financial holding company acquires more than 5 percent of the shares, assets, or ownership interests of any company at a total cost that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the financial holding company's Tier 1 capital or $200 million; 
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of an insurance company investment activity conducted under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)), the financial holding company acquires more than 5 percent of the shares, assets, or ownership interests of any company at a total cost that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the financial holding company's Tier 1 capital or $200 million; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board in the exercise of its supervisory authority notifies the financial holding company that a notice is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), a financial holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) calculates its Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 66 FR 415, Jan. 3, 2001, as amended at 84 FR 61801, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.88" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.88   How to request the Board to determine that an activity is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests regarding activities that may be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity.</I> A financial holding company or other interested party may request a determination from the Board that an activity not listed in § 225.86 is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required information.</I> A request submitted under this section must be in writing and must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and define the activity for which the determination is sought, specifically describing what the activity would involve and how the activity would be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(2) Explain in detail why the activity should be considered financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide information supporting the requested determination and any other information required by the Board concerning the proposed activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board procedures for reviewing requests</I>—(1) <I>Consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury.</I> Upon receipt of the request, the Board will provide the Secretary of the Treasury a copy of the request and consult with the Secretary in accordance with section 4(k)(2)(A) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(2)(A)). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public notice.</I> The Board may, as appropriate and after consultation with the Secretary, publish a description of the proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a request for public comment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board action.</I> The Board will endeavor to make a decision on any request filed under paragraph (a) of this section within 60 calendar days following the completion of both the consultative process described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and the public comment period, if any. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advisory opinions regarding scope of financial activities</I>—(1) <I>Written request.</I> A financial holding company or other interested party may request an advisory opinion from the Board about whether a specific proposed activity falls within the scope of an activity listed in § 225.86 as financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. The request must be submitted in writing and must contain: 
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the particular activity in which the company proposes to engage or the product or service the company proposes to provide; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation supporting an interpretation regarding the scope of the permissible financial activity; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional information requested by the Board regarding the activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board response.</I> The Board will provide an advisory opinion within 45 calendar days of receiving a complete written request under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.89" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.89   How to request approval to engage in an activity that is complementary to a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior Board approval is required.</I> A financial holding company that seeks to engage in or acquire more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of a company engaged in an activity that the financial holding company believes is complementary to a financial activity must obtain prior approval from the Board in accordance with section 4(j) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)). The notice must be in writing and must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and define the proposed complementary activity, specifically describing what the activity would involve and how the activity would be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the financial activity for which the proposed activity would be complementary and provide detailed information sufficient to support a finding that the proposed activity should be considered complementary to the identified financial activity; 
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the scope and relative size of the proposed activity, as measured by the percentage of the projected financial holding company revenues expected to be derived from and assets associated with conducting the activity; 
</P>
<P>(4) Discuss the risks that conducting the activity may reasonably be expected to pose to the safety and soundness of the subsidiary depository institutions of the financial holding company and to the financial system generally; 
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the potential adverse effects, including potential conflicts of interest, decreased or unfair competition, or other risks, that conducting the activity could raise, and explain the measures the financial holding company proposes to take to address those potential effects; 
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the potential benefits to the public, such as greater convenience, increased competition, or gains in efficiency, that the proposal reasonably can be expected to produce; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide any information about the financial and managerial resources of the financial holding company and any other information requested by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors for consideration by the Board.</I> In evaluating a notice to engage in a complementary activity, the Board must consider whether: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed activity is complementary to a financial activity; 
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed activity would pose a substantial risk to the safety or soundness of depository institutions or the financial system generally; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The proposal could be expected to produce benefits to the public that outweigh possible adverse effects. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board action.</I> The Board will inform the financial holding company in writing of the Board's determination regarding the proposed activity within the period described in section 4(j) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.90" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.90   What are the requirements for a foreign bank to be treated as a financial holding company?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Foreign banks as financial holding companies.</I> A foreign bank that operates a branch or agency or owns or controls a commercial lending company in the United States, and any company that owns or controls such a foreign bank, will be treated as a financial holding company if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign bank, any other foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, and any U.S. depository institution subsidiary that is owned or controlled by the foreign bank or company, is and remains well capitalized and well managed; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign bank, and any company that owns or controls the foreign bank, has made an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards for “well capitalized.”</I> A foreign bank will be considered “well capitalized” if either: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Its home country supervisor, as defined in § 211.21 of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21), has adopted risk-based capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (Basel Accord); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign bank maintains a Tier 1 capital to total risk-based assets ratio of 6 percent and a total capital to total risk-based assets ratio of 10 percent, as calculated under its home country standard; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The foreign bank's capital is comparable to the capital required for a U.S. bank owned by a financial holding company; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign bank has obtained a determination from the Board under § 225.91(c) that the foreign bank's capital is otherwise comparable to the capital that would be required of a U.S. bank owned by a financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for “well managed.”</I> A foreign bank will be considered “well managed” if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign bank has received at least a satisfactory composite rating of its U.S. branch, agency, and commercial lending company operations at its most recent assessment; 
</P>
<P>(2) The home country supervisor of the foreign bank consents to the foreign bank expanding its activities in the United States to include activities permissible for a financial holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The management of the foreign bank meets standards comparable to those required of a U.S. bank owned by a financial holding company. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.91" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.91   How may a foreign bank elect to be treated as a financial holding company?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirement.</I> A foreign bank that operates a branch or agency or owns or controls a commercial lending company in the United States, or a company that owns or controls such a foreign bank, may elect to be treated as a financial holding company by filing a written declaration with the appropriate Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of declaration.</I> The declaration must: 
</P>
<P>(1) State that the foreign bank or the company elects to be treated as a financial holding company; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the risk-based capital ratios and amount of Tier 1 capital and total assets of the foreign bank, and of each foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, as of the close of the most recent quarter and as of the close of the most recent audited reporting period; 
</P>
<P>(3) Certify that the foreign bank, and each foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, meets the standards of well capitalized set out in § 225.90(b)(1)(i) and (ii) or § 225.90(b)(2) as of the date the foreign bank or company files its election; 
</P>
<P>(4) Certify that the foreign bank, and each foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, is well managed as defined in § 225.90(c)(1) as of the date the foreign bank or company files its election; 
</P>
<P>(5) Certify that all U.S. depository institution subsidiaries of the foreign bank or company are well capitalized and well managed as of the date the foreign bank or company files its election; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the capital ratios for all relevant capital measures (as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(o))) as of the close of the previous quarter for each U.S. depository institution subsidiary of the foreign bank or company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-clearance process.</I> Before filing an election to be treated as a financial holding company, a foreign bank or company may file a request for review of its qualifications to be treated as a financial holding company. The Board will endeavor to make a determination on such requests within 30 days of receipt. A foreign bank that has not been found, or that is chartered in a country where no bank from that country has been found, by the Board under the Bank Holding Company Act or the International Banking Act to be subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by its home country supervisor is required to use this process. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.92" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.92   How does an election by a foreign bank become effective?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An election described in § 225.91 is effective on the 31st day after the date that an election was received by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank, unless the Board notifies the foreign bank or company prior to that time that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The election is ineffective; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The period is extended with the consent of the foreign bank or company making the election. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Earlier notification that an election is effective.</I> The Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank may notify a foreign bank or company that its election to be treated as a financial holding company is effective prior to the 31st day after the election was filed with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. Such notification must be in writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Under what circumstances will the Board find an election to be ineffective?</I> An election to be treated as a financial holding company shall not be effective if, during the period provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign bank certificant, or any foreign bank that operates a branch or agency or owns or controls a commercial lending company in the United States and is controlled by a foreign bank or company certificant, is not both well capitalized and well managed; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any U.S. insured depository institution subsidiary of the foreign bank or company (except an institution excluded under paragraph (d) of this section) or any U.S. branch of a foreign bank that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation has not achieved at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the institution's most recent examination; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any U.S. depository institution subsidiary of the foreign bank or company is not both well capitalized and well managed; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The Board does not have sufficient information to assess whether the foreign bank or company making the election meets the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How is CRA performance of recently acquired insured depository institutions considered?</I> An insured depository institution will be excluded for purposes of the review of CRA ratings described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section consistent with the provisions of § 225.82(d). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Factors used in the Board's determination regarding comparability of capital and management</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In determining whether a foreign bank is well capitalized and well managed in accordance with comparable capital and management standards, the Board will give due regard to national treatment and equality of competitive opportunity. In this regard, the Board may take into account the foreign bank's composition of capital, Tier 1 capital to total assets leverage ratio, accounting standards, long-term debt ratings, reliance on government support to meet capital requirements, the foreign bank's anti-money laundering procedures, whether the foreign bank is subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis, and other factors that may affect analysis of capital and management. The Board will consult with the home country supervisor for the foreign bank as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment of consolidated supervision.</I> A foreign bank that is not subject to comprehensive supervision on a consolidated basis by its home country authorities may not be considered well capitalized and well managed unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The home country has made significant progress in establishing arrangements for comprehensive supervision on a consolidated basis; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign bank is in strong financial condition as demonstrated, for example, by capital levels that significantly exceed the minimum levels that are required for a well capitalized determination and strong asset quality. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.93" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.93   What are the consequences of a foreign bank failing to continue to meet applicable capital and management requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice by the Board.</I> If a foreign bank or company has made an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company under this subpart and the Board finds that the foreign bank, any foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, or any U.S. depository institution subsidiary controlled by the foreign bank or company, ceases to be well capitalized or well managed, the Board will notify the foreign bank and company, if any, in writing that it is not in compliance with the applicable requirement(s) for a financial holding company and identify the areas of noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification by a financial holding company required</I>—(1) <I>Notice to Board.</I> Promptly upon becoming aware that the foreign bank, any foreign bank that maintains a U.S. branch, agency, or commercial lending company and is controlled by the foreign bank or company, or any U.S. depository institution subsidiary of the foreign bank or company, has ceased to be well capitalized or well managed, the foreign bank and company, if any, must notify the Board and identify the area of noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Triggering events for notice to the Board</I>—(i) <I>Well capitalized.</I> A foreign bank becomes aware that it is no longer well capitalized at the time that the foreign bank or company is required to file a report of condition (or similar supervisory report) with its home country supervisor or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank that indicates that the foreign bank no longer meets the well capitalized standards. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Well managed.</I> A foreign bank becomes aware that it is no longer well managed at the time that the foreign bank receives written notice from the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank that the composite rating of its U.S. branch, agency, and commercial lending company operations is not at least satisfactory. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Execution of agreement acceptable to the Board</I>—(1) <I>Agreement required; time period.</I> Within 45 days after receiving a notice under paragraph (a) of this section, the foreign bank or company must execute an agreement acceptable to the Board to comply with all applicable capital and management requirements. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of time for executing agreement.</I> Upon request by the foreign bank or company, the Board may extend the 45-day period under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the Board determines that granting additional time is appropriate under the circumstances. A request by a foreign bank or company for additional time must include an explanation of why an extension is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agreement requirements.</I> An agreement required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section to correct a capital or management deficiency must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Explain the specific actions that the foreign bank or company will take to correct all areas of noncompliance; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a schedule within which each action will be taken; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide any other information that the Board may require; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Be acceptable to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations during period of noncompliance</I>—Until the Board determines that a foreign bank or company has corrected the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board may impose any limitations or conditions on the conduct or the U.S. activities of the foreign bank or company or any of its affiliates as the Board finds to be appropriate and consistent with the purposes of the Bank Holding Company Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign bank or company and its affiliates may not commence any additional activity in the United States or acquire control or shares of any company under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) without prior approval from the Board. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consequences of failure to correct conditions within 180 days</I>—(1) <I>Termination of Offices and Divestiture.</I> If a foreign bank or company does not correct the conditions described in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section within 180 days of receipt of the notice or such additional time as the Board may permit, the Board may order the foreign bank or company to terminate the foreign bank's U.S. branches and agencies and divest any commercial lending companies owned or controlled by the foreign bank or company. Such divestiture must be done in accordance with the terms and conditions established by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative method of complying with a divestiture order.</I> A foreign bank or company may comply with an order issued under paragraph (e)(1) of this section by ceasing to engage (both directly and through any subsidiary that is not a depository institution or a subsidiary of a depository institution) in any activity that may be conducted only under section 4(k), (n), or (o) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k), (n) and (o)). The termination of activities must be completed within the time period referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section and subject to terms and conditions acceptable to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultation with other agencies.</I> In taking any action under this section, the Board will consult with the relevant Federal and state regulatory authorities and the appropriate home country supervisor(s) of the foreign bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.94" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.94   What are the consequences of an insured branch or depository institution failing to maintain a satisfactory or better rating under the Community Reinvestment Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Insured branch as an “insured depository institution.”</I> A U.S. branch of a foreign bank that is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation shall be treated as an “insured depository institution” for purposes of § 225.84. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of § 225.84, with the modifications contained in this section, shall apply to a foreign bank that operates an insured branch referred to in paragraph (a) of this section or an insured depository institution in the United States, and any company that owns or controls such a foreign bank, that has made an effective election under § 225.92 in the same manner and to the same extent as they apply to a financial holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.101" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.101   Bank holding company's subsidiary banks owning shares of nonbanking companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board's opinion has been requested on the following related matters under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. 
</P>
<P>(b) The question is raised as to whether shares in a nonbanking company which were acquired by a banking subsidiary of the bank holding company many years ago when their acquisition was lawful and are now held as investments, and which do not include more than 5 percent of the outstanding voting securities of such nonbanking company and do not have a value greater than 5 percent of the value of the bank holding company's total assets, are exempted from the divestment requirements of the Act by the provisions of section 4(c)(5) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the Board's opinion, this exemption is as applicable to such shares when held by a banking subsidiary of a bank holding company as when held directly by the bank holding company itself. While the exemption specifically refers only to shares held or acquired by the bank holding company, the prohibition of the Act against retention of nonbanking interests applies to indirect as well as direct ownership of shares of a nonbanking company, and, in the absence of a clear mandate to the contrary, any exception to this prohibition should be given equal breadth with the prohibition. Any other interpretation would lead to unwarranted results. 
</P>
<P>(d) Although certain of the other exemptions in section 4(c) of the Act specifically refer to shares held or acquired by banking subsidiaries, an analysis of those exemptions suggests that such specific reference to banking subsidiaries was for the purpose of excluding nonbanking subsidiaries from such exemptions, rather than for the purpose of providing an inclusionary emphasis on banking subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(e) It should be noted that the Board's view as to this question should not be interpreted as meaning that each banking subsidiary could own up to 5 percent of the stock of the same nonbanking organization. In the Board's opinion the limitations set forth in section 4(c)(5) apply to the aggregate amount of stock held in a particular organization by the bank holding company itself and by all of its subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(f) Secondly, question is raised as to whether shares in a nonbanking company acquired in satisfaction of debts previously contracted (d.p.c.) by a banking subsidiary of the bank holding company may be retained if such shares meet the conditions contained in section 4(c)(5) as to value and amount, notwithstanding the requirement of section 4(c)(2) that shares acquired d.p.c. be disposed of within two years after the date of their acquisition or the date of the Act, whichever is later. In the Board's opinion, the 5 percent exemption provided by section 4(c)(5) covers any shares, including shares acquired d.p.c., that meet the conditions set forth in that exemption, and, consequently, d.p.c. shares held by a banking subsidiary of a bank holding company which meet such conditions are not subject to the two-year disposition requirement prescribed by section 4(c)(2), although any such shares would, of course, continue to be subject to such requirement for disposition as may be prescribed by provisions of any applicable banking laws or by the appropriate bank supervisory authorities. 
</P>
<P>(g) Finally, question is raised as to whether shares held by banking subsidiaries of the bank holding company in companies holding bank premises of such subsidiaries are exempted from the divestment requirements by section 4(c)(1) of the Act. It is the Board's view that section 4(c)(1), exempting shares owned or acquired by a bank holding company in any company engaged solely in holding or operating properties used wholly or substantially by any subsidiary bank, is to be read and interpreted, like section 4(c)(5), as applying to shares owned indirectly by a bank holding company through a banking subsidiary as well as to shares held directly by the bank holding company. A contrary interpretation would impair the right that member banks controlled by bank holding companies would otherwise have to invest, subject to the limitations of section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act, in stock of companies holding their bank premises; and such a result was not, in the Board's opinion, intended by the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[21 FR 10472, Dec. 29, 1956. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.102" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.102   Bank holding company indirectly owning nonbanking company through subsidiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been requested for an opinion regarding the exemptions contained in section 4(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. It is stated that Y Company is an investment company which is not a bank holding company and which is not engaged in any business other than investing in securities, which securities do not include more than 5 per centum of the outstanding voting securities of any company and do not include any asset having a value greater than 5 per centum of the value of the total assets of X Corporation, a bank holding company. It is stated that direct ownership by X Corporation of voting shares of Y Company would be exempt by reason of section 4(c)(5) from the prohibition of section 4 of the Act against ownership by bank holding companies of nonbanking assets. 
</P>
<P>(b) It was asked whether it makes any difference that the shares of Y Company are not owned directly by X Corporation but instead are owned through Subsidiaries A and B. X Corporation owns all the voting shares of Subsidiary A, which owns one-half of the voting shares of Subsidiary B. Subsidiaries A and B each own one-third of the voting shares of Y Company. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4(c)(5) is divided into two parts. The first part exempts the ownership of securities of nonbanking companies when the securities do not include more than 5 percent of the voting securities of the nonbanking company and do not have a value greater than 5 percent of the value of the total assets of the bank holding company. The second part exempts the ownership of securities of an investment company which is not a bank holding company and is not engaged in any business other than investing in securities, provided the securities held by the investment company meet the 5 percent tests mentioned above. 
</P>
<P>(d) In § 225.101, the Board expressed the opinion that the first exemption in section 4(c)(5): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * is as applicable to such shares when held by a banking subsidiary of a bank holding company as when held directly by the bank holding company itself. While the exemption specifically refers only to shares held or acquired by the bank holding company, the prohibition of the Act against retention of nonbanking interests applies to indirect as well as direct ownership of shares of a nonbanking company, and, in the absence of a clear mandate to the contrary, any exception to this prohibition should be given equal breadth with the prohibition. Any other interpretation would lead to unwarranted results.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) The Board is of the view that the principles stated in that opinion are also applicable to the second exemption in section 4(c)(5), and that they apply whether or not the subsidiary owning the shares is a banking subsidiary. Accordingly, on the basis of the facts presented, the Board is of the opinion that the second exemption in section 4(c)(5) applies to the indirect ownership by X Corporation of shares of Y Company through Subsidiaries A and B. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 2533, Apr. 13, 1957. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.103" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.103   Bank holding company acquiring stock by dividends, stock splits or exercise of rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether a bank holding company may receive bank stock dividends or participate in bank stock splits without the Board's prior approval, and whether such a company may exercise, without the Board's prior approval, rights to subscribe to new stock issued by banks in which the holding company already owns stock. 
</P>
<P>(b) Neither a stock dividend nor a stock split results in any change in a stockholder's proportional interest in the issuing company or any increase in the assets of that company. Such a transaction would have no effect upon the extent of a holding company's control of the bank involved; and none of the five factors required by the Bank Holding Company Act to be considered by the Board in approving a stock acquisition would seem to have any application. In view of the objectives and purposes of the act, the word “acquire” would not seem reasonably to include transactions of this kind. 
</P>
<P>(c) On the other hand, the exercise by a bank holding company of the right to subscribe to an issue of additional stock of a bank could result in an increase in the holding company's proportional interest in the bank. The holding company would voluntarily pay additional funds for the extra shares and would “acquire” the additional stock even under a narrow meaning of that term. Moreover, the exercise of such rights would cause the assets of the issuing company to be increased and in a sense, therefore, the “size or extent” of the bank holding company system would be expanded. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the circumstances, it is the Board's opinion that receipt of bank stock by means of a stock dividend or stock split, assuming no change in the class of stock, does not require the Board's prior approval under the act, but that purchase of bank stock by a bank holding company through the exercise of rights does require the Board's prior approval, unless one of the exceptions set forth in section 3(a) is applicable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[22 FR 7461, Sept. 19, 1957. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.104" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.104   “Services” under section 4(c)(1) of Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act, among other things, exempts from the nonbanking divestment requirements of section 4(a) of the Act shares of a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” its bank holding company or subsidiary banks thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board of Governors has had occasion to express opinions as to whether this section of law applies to the following two sets of facts: 
</P>
<P>(1) In the first case, Corporation X, a nonbanking subsidiary of a bank holding company (Holding Company A), was engaged in the business of purchasing installment paper suitable for investment by banking subsidiaries of Holding Company A. All installment paper purchased by Corporation X was sold by it to a bank which is a subsidiary of Holding Company A, without recourse, at a price equal to the cost of the installment paper to Corporation X, and with compensation to the latter based on the earnings from such paper remaining after certain reserves, expenses and charges. The subsidiary bank sold participations in such installment paper to the other affiliated banks of Holding Company A which desired to participate. Purchases by Corporation X consisted mainly of paper insured under title I of the National Housing Act and, in addition, Corporation X purchased time payment contracts covering sales of appliances by dealers under contractual arrangements with utilities, as well as paper covering home improvements which was not insured. Pursuant to certain service agreements, Corporation X made all collections, enforced guaranties, filed claims under title I insurance and performed other services for the affiliated banks. Also Corporation X rendered to banking subsidiaries of Holding Company A various accounting, statistical and advisory services such as payroll, life insurance and budget loan installment account. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the second case, Corporation Y, a nonbanking subsidiary of a bank holding company (Holding Company B, which was also a bank), solicited business on behalf of Holding Company B from dealers, throughout several adjoining or contiguous States, who made time sales and desired to convert their time sales paper into cash; but Corporation Y made no loans or purchases of sales contracts and did not discount or advance money for time sales obligations. Corporation Y investigated credit standings of purchasers obligated on time sale contracts to be acquired by Holding Company B, Corporation Y received from dealers the papers offered by them and inspected such papers to see that they were in order, and transmitted to Holding Company B for its determination to purchase, including, in some cases, issuance of drafts in favor of dealers in order to facilitate their prompt receipt of payment for installment paper purchased by Holding Company B. Corporation Y made collections of delinquent paper or delinquent installments, which sometimes involved repossession and resale of the automobile or other property which secured the paper. Also, upon request of purchasers obligated on paper held by Holding Company B, Corporation Y transmitted installment payments to Holding Company B. Holding Company B reimbursed Corporation Y for its actual costs and expenses in performing the services mentioned above, including the salaries and wages of all Corporation Y officers and employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) While the term “services” is sometimes used in a broad and general sense, the legislative history of the Bank Holding Company Act indicates that in section 4(c)(1) the word was meant to be somewhat more limited in its application. An early version of the bill specifically exempted companies engaged in serving the bank holding company and its subsidiary banks in “auditing, appraising, investment counseling”. The statute as finally enacted does not expressly mention any specific type of servicing activity for exemption. In recommending the change, the Senate Banking and Currency Committee stated that the types of services contemplated are “in the fields of advertising, public relations, developing new business, organizations, operations, preparing tax returns, personnel, and many others”, which indicates that latitude should be given to the range of activities contemplated by this section beyond those specifically set forth in the early draft of the bill. (84th Cong., 2d Sess., Senate Report 1095, Part 2, p. 3.) It nevertheless seems evident that Congress intended such services to be types of activities generally comparable to those mentioned above from the early bill (“auditing, appraising, investment counseling”) and in the excerpt from the Committee Report on the later bill (“advertising, public relations, developing new business, organization, operations, preparing tax returns, personnel, and many others”). This legislative history and the context in which the term “services” is used in section 4(c)(1) seem to suggest that the term was in general intended to refer to servicing operations which a bank could carry on itself, but which the bank or its holding company chooses to have done through another organization. Moreover, the report of the Senate Banking and Currency Committee indicated that the types of servicing permitted under section 4(c)(1) are to be distinguished from activities of a “financial, fiduciary, or insurance nature”, such as those which might be considered for possible exemption under section 4(c)(6) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to the first set of facts, the Board expressed the opinion that certain of the activities of Corporation X, such as the accounting, statistical and advisory services referred to above, may be within the range of servicing activities contemplated by section 4(c)(1), but that this would not appear to be the case with the main activity of Corporation X, which was the purchase of installment paper and the resale of such paper at cost, without recourse, to banking subsidiaries of Holding Company A. This latter and basic activity of Corporation X appeared to involve essentially a financial relationship between it and the banking subsidiaries of Holding Company A and appeared beyond the category of servicing exemptions contemplated by section 4(c)(1) of the Act. Accordingly, it was the Board's view that Corporation X could not be regarded as qualifying under section 4 (c)(1) as a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” Holding Company A or subsidiary banks thereof. 
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to the second set of facts, the Board expressed the opinion that some of the activities engaged in by Corporation Y were clearly within the range of servicing activities contemplated by section 4(c)(1). There was some question as to whether or not some of the other activities of Corporation Y mentioned above could meet the test, but on balance, it seemed that all such activities probably were activities in which Holding Company B, which as already indicated was a bank, could itself engage, at the present locations of Corporation Y, without being engaged in the operation of bank branches at those locations. In the circumstances, while the question was not free from doubt, the Board expressed the opinion that the activities of Corporation Y were those of a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” Holding Company B within the meaning of section 4(c)(1) of the Act, and that, accordingly, the control by Holding Company B of shares in Corporation Y was exempted under that section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[23 FR 2675, May 23, 1958. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.107" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.107   Acquisition of stock in small business investment company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A registered bank holding company requested an opinion by the Board of Governors with respect to whether that company and its banking subsidiaries may acquire stock in a small business investment company organized pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is understood that the bank holding company and its subsidiary banks propose to organize and subscribe for stock in a small business investment company which would be chartered pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 which provides for long-term credit and equity financing for small business concerns. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act authorizes national banks, as well as other member banks and nonmember insured banks to the extent permitted by applicable State law, to invest capital in small business investment companies not exceeding one percent of the capital and surplus of such banks. Section 4(c)(4) of the Bank Holding Company Act exempts from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Act “shares which are of the kinds and amounts eligible for investment by National banking associations under the provisions of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes”. Section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (paragraph “Seventh”) in turn provides, in part, as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Except as hereinafter provided or otherwise permitted by law nothing herein contained shall authorize the purchase by the association for its own account of any shares of stock of any corporation.</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>Since the shares of a small business investment company are of a kind and amount expressly made eligible for investment by a national bank under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, it follows, therefore, that the ownership or control of such shares by a bank holding company would be exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act by virtue of the provisions of section 4(c)(4) of that Act. Accordingly, the ownership or control of such shares by the bank holding company would be exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</FP>
<P>(d) An additional question is presented, however, as to whether section 6 of the Bank Holding Company Act prohibits banking subsidiaries of the bank holding company from purchasing stock in a small business investment company where the latter is a “subsidiary” under that Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) Section 6(a)(1) of the Act makes it unlawful for a bank to invest any of its funds in the capital stock of any other subsidiary of the bank holding company. However, section 6(a)(1) was, in effect, amended by section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 682) as amended by the Act of June 11, 1960 (Pub. L. 86-502) so as to nullify this prohibition when the “subsidiary” is a small business investment company. 
</P>
<P>(f) Accordingly, section 6 of the Bank Holding Company Act does not prohibit banking subsidiaries of the bank holding company from purchasing stock in a small business investment company organized pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, where that company is or will be a subsidiary of the bank holding company. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 7485, Aug. 9, 1960. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.109" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.109   “Services” under section 4(c)(1) of Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been requested by a bank holding company for an interpretation under section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act which, among other things, exempts from the nonbanking divestment requirements of section 4(a) of the Act, shares of a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” its bank holding company or subsidiary banks thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is understood that a nonbanking subsidiary of the holding company engages in writing comprehensive automobile insurance (fire, theft, and collision) which is sold only to customers of a subsidiary bank of the holding company in connection with the bank's retail installment loans; that when payment is made on a loan secured by a lien on a motor vehicle, renewal policies are not issued by the insurance company; and that the insurance company receives the usual agency commissions on all comprehensive automobile insurance written for customers of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) It is also understood that the insurance company writes credit life insurance for the benefit of the bank and its installment-loan customers; that each insured debtor is covered for an amount equal to the unpaid balance of his note to the bank, not to exceed $5,000; that as the note is reduced by regular monthly payments, the amount of insurance is correspondingly reduced so that at all times the debtor is insured for the unpaid balance of his note; that each insurance contract provides for payment in full of the entire loan balance upon the death or permanent disability of the insured borrower; and that this credit life insurance is written only at the request of, and solely for, the bank's borrowing customers. It is further understood that the insurance company engages in no other activity. 
</P>
<P>(d) As indicated in § 225.104 (23 FR 2675), the term “services,” while sometimes used in a broad and general sense, appears to be somewhat more limited in its application in section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act. Unlike an early version of the Senate bill (S. 2577, before amendment), the act as finally enacted does not expressly mention any type of servicing activity for exemption. The legislative history of the Act, however, as indicated in the relevant portion of the record of the Senate Banking and Currency Committee on amended S. 2577 (84th Cong., 2d Sess., Senate Report 1095, Part 2, p. 3) makes it evident that Congress had in mind the exemption of services comparable to the types of activities mentioned expressly in the early Senate bill (“auditing, appraising, investment counseling”) and in the Committee Report on the later bill (“advertising, public relations, developing new business, organization, operations, preparing tax returns, personnel, and many others”). Furthermore, this Committee Report expressly stated that the provision of section 4(c)(1) with respect to “furnishing services to or performing services for” was not intended to supplant the exemption contained under section 4 (c)(6) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) The only activity of the insurance company (writing comprehensive automobile insurance and credit life insurance) appears to involve an insurance relationship between it and a banking subsidiary of the holding company which the legislative history clearly indicates does not come within the meaning of the phrase “furnishing services to or performing services for” a bank holding company or its banking subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(f) Accordingly, it is the Board's view that the insurance company could not be regarded as qualifying as a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” the bank holding company or banks with respect to which the latter is a bank holding company. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[23 FR 9017, Nov. 20, 1958. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.111" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.111   Limit on investment by bank holding company system in stock of small business investment companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the provisions of section 4(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1843), a bank holding company may acquire shares of nonbank companies “which are of the kinds and amounts eligible for investment” by national banks. Pursuant to section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682(b)), as amended by title II of the Small Business Act Amendments of 1967 (Pub. L. 90-104, 81 Stat. 268, 270), a national bank may invest in stock of small business investment companies (SBICs) subject to certain restrictions. 
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the foregoing statutory provisions, it is the position of the Board that a bank holding company may acquire direct or indirect ownership or control of stock of an SBIC subject to the following limits: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total direct and indirect investments of a bank holding company in stock of SBICs may not exceed: 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to all stock of SBICs owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a subsidiary bank, 5 percent of that bank's capital and surplus; 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to all stock of SBICs owned directly by a bank holding company that is a bank, 5 percent of that bank's capital and surplus; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to all stock of SBICs otherwise owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a bank holding company, 5 percent of its proportionate interest in the capital and surplus of each subsidiary bank (that is, the holding company's percentage of that bank's stock times that bank's capital and surplus) less that bank's investment in stock of SBICs; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company may not acquire direct or indirect ownership or control of 50 percent or more of the shares of any class of equity securities of an SBIC that have actual or potential voting rights. 
</P>
<P>(c) A bank holding company or a bank subsidiary that acquired direct or indirect ownership or control of 50 percent or more of any such class of equity securities prior to January 9, 1968, is not required to divest to a level below 50 percent. A bank that acquired 50 percent or more prior to January 9, 1968, may become a subsidiary in a holding company system without any necessity for divesting to a level below 50 percent: <I>Provided,</I> That such action does not result in the bank holding company acquiring control of a percentage greater than that controlled by such bank. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248. Interprets 12 U.S.C. 1843, 15 U.S.C. 682)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 6967, May 9, 1968. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.112" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.112   Indirect control of small business concern through convertible debentures held by small business investment company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A question has been raised concerning the applicability of provisions of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 to the acquisition by a bank holding company of stock of a small business investment company (“SBIC”) organized pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (“SBI Act”). 
</P>
<P>(b) As indicated in the interpretation of the Board (§ 225.107) published at 23 FR 7813, it is the Board's opinion that, since stock of an SBIC is eligible for purchase by national banks and since section 4(c)(4) of the Holding Company Act exempts stock eligible for investment by national banks from the prohibitions of section 4 of that Act, a bank holding company may lawfully acquire stock in such an SBIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) However, section 304 of the SBI Act provides that debentures of a small business concern purchased by a small business investment company may be converted at the option of such company into stock of the small business concern. The question therefore arises as to whether, in the event of such conversion, the parent bank holding company would be regarded as having acquired “direct or indirect ownership or control” of stock of the small business concern in violation of section 4(a) of the Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Small Business Investment Act clearly contemplates that one of the primary purposes of that Act was to enable SBICs to provide needed equity capital to small business concerns through the purchase of debentures convertible into stock. Thus, to the extent that a stockholder in an SBIC might acquire indirect control of stock of a small business concern, such control appears to be a natural and contemplated incident of ownership of stock of the SBIC. The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency has informally indicated concurrence with this interpretation insofar as it affects investments by national banks in stock of an SBIC. 
</P>
<P>(e) Since the exception as to stock eligible for investment by national banks contained in section 4(c)(4) of the Holding Company Act was apparently intended to permit a bank holding company to acquire any stock that would be eligible for purchase by a national bank, it is the Board's view that section 4(a)(1) of the Act does not prohibit a bank holding company from acquiring stock of an SBIC, even though ownership of such stock may result in the acquisition of indirect ownership or control of stock of a small business concern which would not itself be eligible for purchase directly by a national bank or a bank holding company. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[24 FR 1584, Mar. 4, 1959. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.113" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.113   Services under section 4(a) of Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been requested for an opinion as to whether the performance of certain functions by a bank holding company for four banks of which it owns less than 25 percent of the voting shares is in violation of section 4(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is claimed that the holding company is engaged in “managing” four nonsubsidiary banks, for which services it receives “management fees.” Specifically, the company engages in the following activities for the four nonsubsidiary banks: (1) Establishment and supervision of loaning policies; (2) direction of the purchase and sale of investment securities; (3) selection and training of officer personnel; (4) establishment and enforcement of operating policies; and (5) general supervision over all policies and practices. 
</P>
<P>(c) The question raised is whether these activities are prohibited by section 4(a)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act, which permits a bank holding company to engage in only three categories of business: (1) Banking; (2) managing or controlling banks; and (3) furnishing services to or performing services for any bank of which the holding company owns or controls 25 percent or more of the voting shares. 
</P>
<P>(d) Clearly, the activities of the company with respect to the four nonsubsidiary banks do not constitute “banking.” With respect to the business of “managing or controlling” banks, it is the Board's view that such business, within the purview of section 4(a)(2), is essentially the exercise of a broad governing influence of the sort usually exercised by bank stockholders, as distinguished from direct or active participation in the establishment or carrying out of particular policies or operations. The latter kinds of activities fall within the third category of businesses in which a bank holding company is permitted to engage. In the Board's view, the activities enumerated above fall in substantial part within that third category. 
</P>
<P>(e) Section 4(a)(2), like all other sections of the Holding Company Act, must be interpreted in the light of all of its provisions, as well as in the light of other sections of the Act. The expression “managing * * * banks,” if it could be taken by itself, might appear to include activities of the sort enumerated. However, such an interpretation of those words would virtually nullify the last portion of section 4(a)(2), which permits a holding company to furnish services to or perform services for “any bank of which it owns or controls 25 per centum or more of the voting shares.” 
</P>
<P>(f) Since Congress explicitly authorized the performance of services for banks that are at least 25 percent owned by a holding company, it obviously intended that the holding company should not perform services for banks in which it owns less than 25 percent of the voting shares. However, if the second category—“managing or controlling banks”—were interpreted to permit the holding company to perform services for any bank, including a bank in which it held less than 25 percent of the stock (or no stock whatsoever), the last clause of section 4(a)(2) would be meaningless. 
</P>
<P>(g) It is principally for this reason—that is, to give effective meaning to the final clause of section 4(a)(2)—that the Board interprets “managing or controlling banks” in that provision as referring to the exercise of a stockholder's management or control of banks, rather than direct and active participation in their operations. To repeat, such active participation in operations falls within the third category (“furnishing services to or performing services for any bank”) and consequently may be engaged in only with respect to banks in which the holding company “owns or controls 25 per centum or more of the voting shares.” 
</P>
<P>(h) Accordingly, it is the Board's conclusion that, in performing the services enumerated, the bank holding company is “furnishing services to or performing services for” the four banks referred to. Under the Act such furnishing or performing of services is permissible only if the holding company owns or controls 25 percent of the voting shares of each bank receiving such services, and, since the company owns less than 25 percent of the voting shares of these banks, it follows that these activities are prohibited by section 4(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(i) While this conclusion is required, in the Board's opinion, by the language of the statute, it may be noted further that any other conclusion would make it possible for bank holding company or any other corporation, through arrangements for the “managing” of banks in the manner here involved, to acquire effective control of banks without acquiring bank stocks and thus to evade the underlying objectives of section 3 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 281, Jan. 14, 1960. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.115" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.115   Applicability of Bank Service Corporation Act in certain bank holding company situations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Questions have been presented to the Board of Governors regarding the applicability of the recently enacted Bank Service Corporation Act (Pub. L. 87-856, approved October 23, 1962) in cases involving service corporations that are subsidiaries of bank holding companies under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. In addition to being charged with the administration of the latter Act, the Board is named in the Bank Service Corporation Act as the Federal supervisory agency with respect to the performance of bank services for State member banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Holding company-owned corporation serving only subsidiary banks.</I> (1) One question is whether the Bank Service Corporation Act is applicable in the case of a corporation, wholly owned by a bank holding company, which is engaged in performing “bank services”, as defined in section 1(b) of the Act, exclusively for subsidiary banks of the holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as noted below with respect to section 5 thereof, the Bank Service Corporation Act is not applicable in this case. This is true because none of the stock of the corporation performing the services is owned by any bank and the corporation, therefore, is not a “bank service corporation” as defined in section 1(c) of the Act. A corporation cannot meet that definition unless part of its stock is owned by two or more banks. The situation clearly is unaffected by section 2(b) of the Act which permits a corporation that fell within the definition initially to continue to function as a bank service corporation although subsequently only one of the banks remains as a stockholder in the corporation. 
</P>
<P>(3) However, although it is not a bank service corporation, the corporation in question and each of the banks for which it performs bank services are subject to section 5 of the Bank Service Corporation Act. That section, which requires the furnishing of certain assurances to the appropriate Federal supervisory agency in connection with the performance of bank services for a bank, is applicable whether such services are performed by a bank service corporation or by others. 
</P>
<P>(4) Section 4(a)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act prohibits the acquisition by a bank holding company of “direct or indirect ownership or control” of shares of a nonbanking company, subject to certain exceptions. Section 4(c)(1) of the Act exempts from section 4(a)(1) shares of a company engaged “solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for” its bank holding company or subsidiary banks thereof. Assuming that the bank services performed by the corporation in question are “services” of the kinds contemplated by section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act (as would be true, for example, of the electronic data processing of deposit accounts), the holding company's ownership of the corporation's shares in the situation described above clearly is permissible under that section of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank service corporation owned by holding company subsidiaries and serving also other banks.</I> (1) The other question concerns the applicability of the Bank Service Corporation Act and the Bank Holding Company Act in the case of a corporation, all the stock of which is owned either by a bank holding company and its subsidiary banks together or by the subsidiary banks alone, which is engaged in performing “bank services”, as defined in section 1(b) of the Bank Service Corporation Act, for the subsidiary banks and for other banks, as well. 
</P>
<P>(2) In contrast to the situation under paragraph (b) of this section, the corporation in this case is a “bank service corporation” within the meaning of section 1(c) of the Bank Service Corporation Act because of the ownership by each of the subsidiary banks of a part of the corporation's stock. This stock ownership is one of the important facts differentiating this case from the first one. Being a bank service corporation, the corporation in question is subject to section 3 of the Act concerning applications to bank service corporations by competitive banks for bank services, and to section 4 forbidding a bank service corporation from engaging in any activity other than the performance of bank services for banks. Section 5, mentioned previously and relating to “assurances”, also is applicable in this case. 
</P>
<P>(3) The other important difference between this case and the situation in paragraph (b) of this section is that here the bank service corporation performs services for nonsubsidiary banks, as well as for subsidiary banks. This is permissible because section 2(a) of the Bank Service Corporation Act, which authorizes any two or more banks to invest limited amounts in a bank service corporation, removes all limitations and prohibitions of Federal law exclusively relating to banks that otherwise would prevent any such investment. From the legislative history of section 2(a), it is clear that section 6 of the Bank Holding Company Act is among the limitations and prohibitions so removed. But for such removal, section 6(a)(1) of that Act would make it unlawful for any of the subsidiary banks of the bank holding company in question to own stock in the bank service corporation subsidiary of the holding company, as the exemption in section 6(b)(1) would not apply because of the servicing by the bank service corporation of nonsubsidiary banks. 
</P>
<P>(4) Because the bank service corporation referred to in the question is serving banks other than the subsidiary banks, the bank holding company is not exempt under section 4(c)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act from the prohibition of acquisition of nonbanking interests in section 4(a)(1) of that Act. The bank holding company, however, is entitled to the benefit of the exemption in section 4(c)(4) of the Act. That section exempts from section 4(a) “shares which are of the kinds and amounts eligible for investment by National banking associations under the provisions of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes”. Section 5136 provides, in part, that: “Except as hereinafter provided or otherwise permitted by law, nothing herein contained shall authorize the purchase by the association for its own account of any shares of stock of any corporation.” As the provisions of section 2(a) of the Bank Service Corporation Act and its legislative history make it clear that shares of a bank service corporation are of a kind eligible for investment by national banks under section 5136, it follows that the direct or indirect ownership on control of such shares by a bank holding company are permissible within the amount limitation discussed in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on investment by bank holding company system in stock of bank service corporation.</I> (1) In the situation presented by paragraph (c) the bank holding company clearly owns or controls, directly or indirectly, all of the stock of the bank service corporation. The remaining question, therefore, is whether the total direct and indirect investment of the bank holding company in the bank service corporation exceeds the amount permissible under the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) The effect of sections 4(a)(1) and 4(c)(4) of the Bank Holding Company Act is to limit the amount of shares of a bank service corporation that a bank holding company may own or control, directly or indirectly, to the amount eligible for investment by a national bank, as previously indicated. Under section 2(a) of the Bank Service Corporation Act, the amount of shares of a bank service corporation eligible for investment by a national bank may not exceed “10 per centum [of the bank's] * * * paid-in and unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus”. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board's view is that this aspect of the matter should be determined in accordance with the principles set forth in § 225.111, as revised (27 FR 12671), involving the application of sections 4(a)(1) and 4(c)(4) of the Bank Holding Company Act in the light of section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act limiting the amount eligible for investment by a national bank in the shares of a small business investment company to two percent of the bank's “capital and surplus”. 
</P>
<P>(4) Except for the differences in the percentage figures, the investment limitation in section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act is essentially the same as the investment limitation in section 2(a) of the Bank Service Corporation Act since, as an accounting matter and for the purposes under consideration, “capital and surplus” may be regarded as equivalent in meaning to “paid-in and unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus.” Accordingly, the maximum permissible investment by a bank holding company system in the stock of a bank service corporation should be determined in accordance with the formula prescribed in § 222.111. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 12918, Dec. 29, 1962. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.118" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.118   Computer services for customers of subsidiary banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The question has been presented to the Board of Governors whether a wholly-owned nonbanking subsidiary (“service company”) of a bank holding company, which is now exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (“the Act”) because its sole business is the providing of services for the holding company and the latter's subsidiary banks, would lose its exempt status if it should provide data processing services for customers of the subsidiary banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board understood from the facts presented that the service company owns a computer which it utilizes to furnish data processing services for the subsidiary banks of its parent holding company. Customers of these banks have requested that the banks provide for them computerized billing, accounting, and financial records maintenance services. The banks wish to utilize the computer services of the service company in providing these and other services of a similar nature. It is proposed that, in each instance where a subsidiary bank undertakes to provide such services, the bank will enter into a contract directly with the customer and then arrange to have the service company perform the services for it, the bank. In no case will the service company provide services for anyone other than its affiliated banks. Moreover, it will not hold itself out as, nor will its parent corporation or affiliated banks represent it to be, authorized or willing to provide services for others. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 4(c)(1) of the Act permits a holding company to own shares in “any company engaged solely * * * in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for such holding company and banks with respect to which it is a bank holding company * * *.” The Board has ruled heretofore that the term “services” as used in section 4(c)(1) is to be read as relating to those services (excluding “closely related” activities of “a financial, fiduciary, or insurance nature” within the meaning of section 4(c)(6)) which a bank itself can provide for its customers (§ 225.104). A determination as to whether a particular service may legitimately be rendered or performed by a bank for its customers must be made in the light of applicable Federal or State statutory or regulatory provisions. In the case of a State-chartered bank, the laws of the State in which the bank operates, together with any interpretations thereunder rendered by appropriate bank authorities, would govern the right of the bank to provide a particular service. In the case of a national bank, a similar determination would require reference to provisions of Federal law relating to the establishment and operation of national banks, as well as to pertinent rulings or interpretations promulgated thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly, on the assumption that all of the services to be performed are of the kinds that the holding company's subsidiary banks may render for their customers under applicable Federal or State law, the Board concluded that the rendition of such services by the service company for its affiliated banks would not adversely affect its exempt status under section 4(c)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(e) In arriving at the above conclusion, the Board emphasized that its views were premised explicitly upon the facts presented to it, and particularly its understanding that banks are permitted, under applicable Federal or State law to provide the proposed computer services. The Board emphasized also that in respect to the service company's operations, there continues in effect the requirement under section 4(c)(1) that the service company engage solely in the business of furnishing services to or performing services for the bank holding company and its subsidiary banks. The Board added that any substantial change in the facts that had been presented might require re-examination of the service company's status under section 4(c)(1). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 12361, Aug. 28, 1964. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.121" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.121   Acquisition of Edge corporation affiliate by State member banks of registered bank holding company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether it is permissible for the commercial banking affiliates of a bank holding company registered under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended, to acquire and hold the shares of the holding company's Edge corporation subsidiary organized under section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 9 of the Bank Holding Company Act amendments of 1966 (Pub. L. 89-485, approved July 1, 1966) repealed section 6 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956. That rendered obsolete the Board's interpretation of section 6 that was published in the March 1966 Federal Reserve Bulletin, page 339 (§ 225.120). Thus, so far as Federal Banking law applicable to State member banks is concerned, the answer to the foregoing question depends on the provisions of section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the 1966 amendments to the Bank Holding Company Act. By its specific terms, the provisions of section 23A do not apply to an affiliate organized under section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) Accordingly, the Board concludes that, except for such restrictions as may exist under applicable State law, it would be legally permissible by virtue of paragraph 20 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act for any or all of the State member banks that are affiliates of a registered bank holding company to acquire and hold shares of the Edge corporation subsidiary of the bank holding company within the amount limitation in the last sentence of paragraph 12 of section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 24, 248, 335, 371c, 611, 618)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[31 FR 10263, July 29, 1966. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.122" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.122   Bank holding company ownership of mortgage companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors recently considered whether a bank holding may acquire, either directly or through a subsidiary, the stock of a so-called “mortgage company” that would be operated on the following basis: The company would solicit mortgage loans on behalf of a bank in the holding company system, assemble credit information, make property inspections and appraisals, and secure title information. The company would also participate in the preparation of applications for mortgage loans, which it would submit, together with recommendations with respect to action thereon, to the bank, which alone would decide whether to make any or all of the loans requested. The company would in addition solicit investors to purchase mortgage loans from the bank and would seek to have such investors contract with the bank for the servicing of such loans. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), a bank holding company is generally prohibited from acquiring “direct or indirect ownership” of stock of nonbanking corporations. The two exceptions principally involved in the question presented are with respect to (1) stock that is eligible for investment by a national bank (section 4(c)(5) of the Act) and (2) shares of a company “furnishing services to or performing services for such bank holding company or its banking subsidiaries” (section 4(c)(1)(C) of the Act). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has previously indicated its view that a national bank is forbidden by the so-called “stock-purchase prohibition” of paragraph “Seventh” of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24) to purchase “for its own account * * * any shares of stock of any corporation” except (1) to the extent permitted by specific provisions of Federal law or (2) as comprised within the concept of “such incidental powers as shall be necessary to carry on the business of banking” referred to in the first sentence of said paragraph “Seventh”. There is no specific statutory provision authorizing a national bank to purchase stock in a mortgage company, and in the Board's view such purchase may not properly be regarded as authorized under the “incidental powers” clause. (See 1966 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1151; 12 CFR 208.119.) Accordingly, a bank holding company may not acquire stock in a mortgage company on the basis of the section 4(c)(5) exemption. 
</P>
<P>(d) However, the Board does not believe that such conclusion prejudices consideration of the question whether such a company is within the section 4(c)(1)(C) “servicing exemption”. The basic purpose of section 4 of the Act is to confine a bank holding company's activities to the management and control of banks. In determining whether an activity in which a bank could itself engage is within the servicing exemption, the question is simply whether such activity may appropriately be considered as “furnishing services to or performing services for” a bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) As indicated in the Board's interpretation published in the 1958 Federal Reserve Bulletin at page 431 (12 CFR 225.104), the legislative history of the servicing exemption indicates that it includes the following activities: “auditing, appraising, investment counseling” and “advertising, public relations, developing new business, organization, operations, preparing tax returns, and personnel”. The legislative history further indicates that some other activities also are within the scope of the exemption. However, the types of servicing permitted under such exemption must be distinguished from activities of a “financial fiduciary, or insurance nature”, such as those that might be considered for possible exemption under section 4(c)(8) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) In considering the interrelation of these exemptions in the light of the purpose of the prohibition against bank holding company interests in nonbanking organizations, the Board has concluded that the appropriate test for determining whether a mortgage company may be considered as within the servicing exemption is whether the company will perform as principal any banking activities—such as receiving deposits, paying checks, extending credit, conducting a trust department, and the like. In other words, if the mortgage company is to act merely as an adjunct to a bank for the purpose of facilitating the banks operations, the company may appropriately be considered as within the scope of the servicing exemption. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Insofar as the 1958 interpretation referred to above suggested that the branch banking laws are an appropriate general test for determining the scope of the servicing exemption, such interpretation is hereby modified. In view of the different purposes to be served by the branch banking laws and by section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act, the Board has concluded that basing determinations under the latter solely on the basis of determinations under the former is inappropriate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) On this basis the Board concluded that, insofar as the Bank Holding Company Act is concerned, a bank holding company may acquire, either directly or through a subsidiary, the stock of a mortgage company whose functions are as described in the question presented. On the other hand, in the Board's view, a bank holding company may not acquire, on the basis of the servicing exemption, a mortgage company whose functions include such activities as extending credit for its own account, arranging interim financing, entering into mortgage service contracts on a fee basis, or otherwise performing functions other than solely on behalf of a bank. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[32 FR 15004, Oct. 3, 1967, as amended at 35 FR 19662, Dec. 29, 1970. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.123" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.123   Activities closely related to banking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Effective June 15, 1971, the Board of Governors has amended § 225.4(a) of Regulation Y to implement its regulatory authority under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act. In some respects activities determined by the Board to be closely related to banking are described in general terms that will require interpretation from time to time. The Board's views on some questions that have arisen are set forth below. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 225.4(a) states that a company whose ownership by a bank holding company is authorized on the basis of that section may engage solely in specified activities. That limitation refers only to activities the authority for which depends on section 4(c)(8) of the Act. It does not prevent a holding company from establishing one subsidiary to engage, for example, in activities specified in § 225.4(a) and also in activities that fall within the scope of section 4(c)(1)(C) of the Act—the “servicing” exemption. 
</P>
<P>(c) The amendments to § 225.4(a) do not apply to restrict the activities of a company previously approved by the Board on the basis of section 4(c)(8) of the Act. Activities of a company authorized on the basis of section 4(c)(8) either before the 1970 Amendments or pursuant to the amended § 225.4(a) may be shifted in a corporate reorganization to another company within the holding company system without complying with the procedures of § 225.4(b), as long as all the activities of such company are permissible under one of the exemptions in section 4 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) Under the procedures in § 225.4(a)(c), a holding company that wishes to change the location at which it engages in activities authorized pursuant to § 225.4(a) must publish notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the community to be served. The Board does not regard minor changes in location as within the coverage of that requirement. A move from one site to another within a 1-mile radius would constitute such a minor change if the new site is in the same State. 
</P>
<P>(e) Data processing. In providing packaged data processing and transmission services for banking, financial and economic data for installation on the premises of the customer, as authorized by § 225.4(a)(8)(ii), a bank holding company should limit its activities to providing facilities that perform banking functions, such as check collection, or other similar functions for customers that are depository or other similar institutions, such as mortgage companies. In addition, the Board regards the following as incidental activities necessary to carry on the permissible activities in this area:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing excess capacity, not limited to the processing or transmission of banking, financial or economic data on data processing or transmission equipment or facilities used in connection with permissible data processing and data transmission activities, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Equipment is not purchased solely for the purpose of creating excess capacity;
</P>
<P>(B) Hardware is not offered in connection therewith; and
</P>
<P>(C) Facilities for the use of the excess capacity do not include the provision of any software, other than systems software (including language), network communications support, and the operating personnel and documentation necessary for the maintenance and use of these facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) Providing by-products of permissible data processing and data transmission activities, where not designed, or appreciably enhanced, for the purpose of marketability.
</P>
<P>(3) Furnishing any data processing service upon request of a customer if such data processing service is not otherwise reasonably available in the relevant market area; and
</P>
<FP>In order to eliminate or reduce to an insignificant degree any possibility of unfair competition where services, facilities, by-products or excess capacity are provided by a bank holding company's nonbank subsidiary or related entity, the entity providing the services, facilities, by-products and/or excess capacity should have separate books and financial statements, and should provide these books and statements to any new or renewal customer requesting financial data. Consolidated or other financial statements of the bank holding company should not be provided unless specifically requested by the customer.
</FP>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 1843 (c)(8))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 10778, June 3, 1971, as amended at 36 FR 11806, June 19, 1971. Redesignated at 36 FR 21666, Nov. 12, 1971 and amended at 40 FR 13477, Mar. 27, 1975; 47 FR 37372, Aug. 26, 1982; 52 FR 45161, Nov. 25, 1987] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.124" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.124   Foreign bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Effective December 1, 1971, the Board of Governors has added a new § 225.4(g) to Regulation Y implementing its authority under section 4(c)(9) of the Bank Holding Company Act. The Board's views on some questions that have arisen in connection with the meaning of terms used in § 225.4(g) are set forth in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term “activities” refers to nonbanking activities and does not include the banking activities that foreign banks conduct in the United States through branches or agencies licensed under the banking laws of any State of the United States or the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(c) A company (including a bank holding company) will not be deemed to be engaged in “activities” in the United States merely because it exports (or imports) products to (or from) the United States, or furnishes services or finances goods or services in the United States, from locations outside the United States. A company is engaged in “activities” in the United States if it owns, leases, maintains, operates, or controls any of the following types of facilities in the United States: 
</P>
<P>(1) A factory, 
</P>
<P>(2) A wholesale distributor or purchasing agency, 
</P>
<P>(3) A distribution center, 
</P>
<P>(4) A retail sales or service outlet, 
</P>
<P>(5) A network of franchised dealers, 
</P>
<P>(6) A financing agency, or 
</P>
<P>(7) Similar facility for the manufacture, distribution, purchasing, furnishing, or financing of goods or services locally in the United States.
</P>
<FP>A company will not be considered to be engaged in “activities” in the United States if its products are sold to independent importers, or are distributed through independent warehouses, that are not controlled or franchised by it. 
</FP>
<P>(d) In the Board's opinion, section 4 (a)(1) of the Bank Holding Company Act applies to ownership or control of shares of stock as an investment and does not apply to ownership or control of shares of stock in the capacity of an underwriter or dealer in securities. Underwriting or dealing in shares of stock are nonbanking activities prohibited to bank holding companies by section 4(a)(2) of the Act, unless otherwise exempted. Under § 225.4(g) of Regulation Y, foreign bank holding companies are exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Act with respect to their activities outside the United States; thus foreign bank holding companies may underwrite or deal in shares of stock (including shares of United States issuers) to be distributed outside the United States, provided that shares so acquired are disposed of within a reasonable time. 
</P>
<P>(e) A foreign bank holding company does not “indirectly” own voting shares by reason of the ownership or control of such voting shares by any company in which it has a noncontrolling interest. A foreign bank holding company may, however, “indirectly” control such voting shares if its noncontrolling interest in such company is accompanied by other arrangements that, in the Board's judgment, result in control of such shares by the bank holding company. The Board has made one exception to this general approach. A foreign bank holding company will be considered to indirectly own or control voting shares of a bank if that bank holding company acquires more than 5 percent of any class of voting shares of another bank holding company. A bank holding company may make such an acquisition only with prior approval of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(f) A company is “indirectly” engaged in activities in the United States if any of its subsidiaries (whether or not incorporated under the laws of this country) is engaged in such activities. A company is not “indirectly” engaged in activities in the United States by reason of a noncontrolling interest in a company engaged in such activities. 
</P>
<P>(g) Under the foregoing rules, a foreign bank holding company may have a noncontrolling interest in a foreign company that has a U.S. subsidiary (but is not engaged in the securities business in the United States) if more than half of the foreign company's consolidated assets and revenues are located and derived outside the United States. For the purpose of such determination, the assets and revenues of the United States subsidiary would be counted among the consolidated assets and revenues of the foreign company to the extent required or permitted by generally accepted accounting principles in the United States. The foreign bank holding company would not, however, be permitted to “indirectly” control voting shares of the said U.S. subsidiary, as might be the case if there are other arrangements accompanying its noncontrolling interest in the foreign parent company that, in the Board's judgment, result in control of such shares by the bank holding company. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 1843 (a) (1), (2), and (c)(9))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 21808, Nov. 16, 1971] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.125" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.125   Investment adviser activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Effective February 1, 1972, the Board of Governors amended § 225.4(a) of Regulation Y to add “serving as investment adviser, as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, to an investment company registered under that Act” to the list of activities it has determined to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto. During the course of the Board's consideration of this amendment several questions arose as to the scope of such activity, particularly in view of certain restrictions imposed by sections 16, 20, 21, and 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 24, 377, 378, 78) (sometimes referred to hereinafter as the “Glass-Steagall Act provisions”) and the U.S. Supreme Court's decision in Investment Company Institute v. Camp, 401 U.S. 617 (1971). The Board's views with respect to some of these questions are set forth below. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is clear from the legislative history of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (84 Stat. 1760) that the Glass-Steagall Act provisions were not intended to be affected thereby. Accordingly, the Board regards the Glass-Steagall Act provisions and the Board's prior interpretations thereof as applicable to a holding company's activities as an investment adviser. Consistently with the spirit and purpose of the Glass-Steagall Act, this interpretation applies to all bank holding companies registered under the Bank Holding Company Act irrespective of whether they have subsidiaries that are member banks. 
</P>
<P>(c) Under § 225.4(a)(5), as amended, bank holding companies (which term, as used herein, includes both their bank and nonbank subsidiaries) may, in accordance with the provisions of § 225.4 (b), act as investment advisers to various types of investment companies, such as “open-end” investment companies (commonly referred to as “mutual funds”) and “closed-end” investment companies. Briefly, a mutual fund is an investment company which, typically, is continuously engaged in the issuance of its shares and stands ready at any time to redeem the securities as to which it is the issuer; a closed-end investment company typically does not issue shares after its initial organization except at infrequent intervals and does not stand ready to redeem its shares. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Board intends that a bank holding company may exercise all functions that are permitted to be exercised by an “investment adviser” under the Investment Company Act of 1940, except to the extent limited by the Glass-Steagall Act provisions, as described, in part, hereinafter. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board recognizes that presently most mutual funds are organized, sponsored and managed by investment advisers with which they are affiliated and that their securities are distributed to the public by such affiliated investment advisers, or subsidiaries or affiliates thereof. However, the Board believes that (1) The Glass-Steagall Act provisions do not permit a bank holding company to perform all such functions, and (2) It is not necessary for a bank holding company to perform all such functions in order to engage effectively in the described activity. 
</P>
<P>(f) In the Board's opinion, the Glass-Steagall Act provisions, as interpreted by the U.S. Supreme Court, forbid a bank holding company to sponsor, organize, or control a mutual fund. However, the Board does not believe that such restrictions apply to closed-end investment companies as long as such companies are not primarily or frequently engaged in the issuance, sale, and distribution of securities. A bank holding company should not act as investment adviser to an investment company that has a name similar to the name of the holding company or any of its subsidiary banks, unless the prospectus of the investment company contains the disclosures required in paragraph (h) of this section. In no case should a bank holding company act as investment adviser to an investment company that has either the same name as the name of the holding company or any of its subsidiary banks, or a name that contains the word “bank.”
</P>
<P>(g) In view of the potential conflicts of interests that may exist, a bank holding company and its bank and nonbank subsidiaries should not purchase in their sole discretion, in a fiduciary capacity (including as managing agent), securities of any investment company for which the bank holding company acts as investment adviser unless, the purchase is specifically authorized by the terms of the instrument creating the fiduciary relationship, by court order, or by the law of the jurisdiction under which the trust is administered.
</P>
<P>(h) Under section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act, a member bank is prohibited from being affiliated with a company that directly, or through a subsidiary, engages principally in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution of securities. A bank holding company or its nonbank subsidiary may not engage, directly or indirectly, in the underwriting, public sale or distribution of securities of any investment company for which the holding company or any nonbank subsidiary provides investment advice except in compliance with the terms of section 20, and only after obtaining the Board's approval under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act and subject to the limitations and disclosures required by the Board in those cases. The Board has determined, however, that the conduct of securities brokerage activities by a bank holding company or its nonbank subsidiaries, when conducted individually or in combination with investment advisory activities, is not deemed to be the underwriting, public sale, or distribution of securities prohibited by the Glass-Steagall Act, and the U.S. Supreme Court has upheld that determination. <I>See Securities Industry Ass'n</I> v. <I>Board of Governors,</I> 468 U.S. 207 (1984); <I>see also Securities Industry Ass'n</I> v. <I>Board of Governors,</I> 821 F.2d 810 (D.C. Cir. 1987), <I>cert. denied,</I> 484 U.S. 1005 (1988). Accordingly, the Board believes that a bank holding company or any of its nonbank subsidiaries that has been authorized by the Board under the Bank Holding Company Act to conduct securities brokerage activities (either separately or in combination with investment advisory activities) may act as agent, upon the order and for the account of customers of the holding company or its nonbank subsidiary, to purchase or sell shares of an investment company for which the bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries acts as an investment adviser. In addition, a bank holding company or any of its nonbank subsidiaries that has been authorized by the Board under the Bank Holding Company Act to provide investment advice to third parties generally (either separately or in combination with securities brokerage services) may provide investment advice to customers with respect to the purchase or sale of shares of an investment company for which the holding company or any of its subsidiaries acts as an investment adviser. In the event that a bank holding company or any of its nonbank subsidiaries provides brokerage or investment advisory services (either separately or in combination) to customers in the situations described above, at the time the service is provided the bank holding company should instruct its officers and employees to caution customers to read the prospectus of the investment company before investing and must advise customers in writing that the investment company's shares are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and are not deposits, obligations of, or endorsed or guaranteed in any way by, any bank, unless that happens to be the case. The holding company or nonbank subsidiary must also disclose in writing to the customer the role of the company or affiliate as adviser to the investment company. These disclosures may be made orally so long as written disclosure is provided to the customer immediately thereafter. To the extent that a bank owned by a bank holding company engages in providing advisory or brokerage services to bank customers in connection with an investment company advised by the bank holding company or a nonbank affiliate, but is not required by the bank's primary regulator to make disclosures comparable to the disclosures required to be made by bank holding companies providing such services, the bank holding company should require its subsidiary bank to make the disclosures required in this paragraph to be made by a bank holding company that provides such advisory or brokerage services.
</P>
<P>(i) Acting in such capacities as registrar, transfer agent, or custodian for an investment company is not a selling activity and is permitted under § 225.4(a)(4) of Regulation Y. However, in view of potential conflicts of interests, a bank holding company which acts both as custodian and investment adviser for an investment company should exercise care to maintain at a minimal level demand deposit accounts of the investment company which are placed with a bank affiliate and should not invest cash funds of the investment company in time deposit accounts (including certificates of deposit) of any bank affiliate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 1464, Jan. 29, 1972, as amended by Reg. Y, 57 FR 30391, July 9, 1992; 61 FR 45875, Aug. 30, 1996; Reg. Y, 62 FR 9343, Feb. 28, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.126" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.126   Activities not closely related to banking.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act and § 225.4(a) of Regulation Y, the Board of Governors has determined that the following activities are not so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto: 
</P>
<P>(a) Insurance premium funding—that is, the combined sale of mutual funds and insurance. 
</P>
<P>(b) Underwriting life insurance that is not sold in connection with a credit transaction by a bank holding company, or a subsidiary thereof. 
</P>
<P>(c) Real estate brokerage (see 1972 Fed. Res. Bulletin 428). 
</P>
<P>(d) Land development (see 1972 Fed. Res. Bulletin 429). 
</P>
<P>(e) Real estate syndication. 
</P>
<P>(f) Management consulting (see 1972 Fed. Res. Bulletin 571). 
</P>
<P>(g) Property management (see 1972 Fed. Res. Bulletin 652).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 37 FR 20329, Sept. 29, 1972; 37 FR 21938, Oct. 17, 1972, as amended at 54 FR 37302, Sept. 8, 1989] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.127" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.127   Investment in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under § 225.28(b)(12) of Regulation Y, a bank holding company may, in accordance with the provisions of § 225.23 or § 225.24, engage in “making equity and debt investments in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare, such as the economic rehabilitation and development of low-income areas.” The Board included that activity among those the Board has determined to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as be a proper incident thereto, in order to permit bank holding companies to fulfill their civic responsibilities. As indicated hereinafter in this interpretation, the Board intends § 225.28(b)(12) to enable bank holding companies to take an active role in the quest for solutions to the Nation's social problems. Although the interpretation primarily focuses on low- and moderate-income housing, it is not intended to limit projects under § 225.28(b)(12) to that area. Other investments primarily designed to promote community welfare are considered permissible, but have not been defined in order to provide bank holding companies flexibility in approaching community problems. For example, bank holding companies may utilize this flexibility to provide new and creative approaches to the promotion of employment opportunities for low-income persons. Bank holding companies possess a unique combination of financial and managerial resources making them particularly suited for a meaningful and substantial role in remedying our social ills. Section 225.28(b)(12) is intended to provide an opportunity for them to assume such a role. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under the authority of § 225.28(b)(12), a bank holding company may invest in community development corporations established pursuant to Federal or State law. A bank holding company may also participate in other civic projects, such as a municipal parking facility sponsored by a local civic organization as a means to promote greater public use of the community's facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within the category of permissible investments under § 225.28(b)(12) are investments in projects to construct or rehabilitate multifamily low- or moderate-income housing with respect to which a mortgage is insured under section 221(d)(3), 221(d)(4), or 236 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701) and investments in projects to construct or rehabilitate low- or moderate-income housing which is financed or assisted by direct loan, tax abatement, or insurance under provisions of State or local law, similar to the aforementioned Federal programs, provided that, with respect to all such projects the owner is, by statute, regulation, or regulatory authority, limited as to the rate of return on his investment in the project, as to rentals or occupancy charges for units in the project, and in such other respects as would be a “limited dividend corporation” (as defined by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development). 
</P>
<P>(d) Investments in other projects that may be considered to be designed primarily to promote community welfare include but are not limited to: (1) Projects for the construction or rehabilitation of housing for the benefit of persons of low- or moderate-income, (2) projects for the construction or rehabilitation of ancillary local commercial facilities necessary to provide goods or services principally to persons residing in low- or moderate-income housing, and (3) projects designed explicitly to create improved job opportunities for low- or moderate-income groups (for example, minority equity investments, on a temporary basis, in small or medium-sized locally-controlled businesses in low-income urban or other economically depressed areas). In the case of de novo projects, the copy of the notice with respect to such other projects which is to be furnished to Reserve Banks in accordance with the provisions of § 225.23 or § 225.24 should be accompanied by a memorandum which demonstrates that such projects meet the objectives of § 225.28(b)(12). 
</P>
<P>(e) Investments in corporations or projects organized to build or rehabilitate high-income housing, or commercial, office, or industrial facilities that are not designed explicitly to create improved job opportunities for low-income persons shall be presumed not to be designed primarily to promote community welfare, unless there is substantial evidence to the contrary, even though to some extent the investment may benefit the community. 
</P>
<P>(f) Section 6 of the Depository Institutions Disaster Relief Act of 1992 permits state member banks (12 U.S.C. 338a) and national banks (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)) to invest in the stock of community development corporations that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare of low- and moderate-income communities and persons in the areas of housing, services and employment. The Board and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency have adopted rules that permit state member banks and national banks to make certain investments without prior approval. The Board believes that these rules are consistent with the Board's interpretation of, and decisions regarding, the scope of community welfare activities permissible for bank holding companies. Accordingly, approval received by a bank holding company to conduct activities designed to promote the community welfare under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) and § 225.28(b)(12) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)(12)) includes approval to engage, either directly or through a subsidiary, in the following activities, up to five percent of the bank holding company's total consolidated capital stock and surplus, without additional Board or Reserve Bank approval: 
</P>
<P>(1) Invest in and provide financing to a corporation or project or class of corporations or projects that the Board previously has determined is a public welfare project pursuant to paragraph 23 of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a); 
</P>
<P>(2) Invest in and provide financing to a corporation or project that the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency previously has determined, by order or regulation, is a public welfare investment pursuant to section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 (Eleventh)); 
</P>
<P>(3) Invest in and provide financing to a community development financial institution pursuant to section 103(5) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)); 
</P>
<P>(4) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, rehabilitate, manage, sell, and rent residential property if a majority of the units will be occupied by low- and moderate-income persons or if the property is a “qualified low-income building” as defined in section 42(c)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42(c)(2)); 
</P>
<P>(5) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, rehabilitate, manage, sell, and rent nonresidential real property or other assets located in a low- or moderate-income area provided the property is used primarily for low- and moderate-income persons; 
</P>
<P>(6) Invest in and provide financing to one or more small businesses located in a low- or moderate-income area to stimulate economic development; 
</P>
<P>(7) Invest in, provide financing to, develop, and otherwise assist job training or placement facilities or programs designed primarily for low- and moderate-income persons; 
</P>
<P>(8) Invest in and provide financing to an entity located in a low- or moderate-income area if that entity creates long-term employment opportunities, a majority of which (based on full time equivalent positions) will be held by low- and moderate-income persons; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Provide technical assistance, credit counseling, research, and program development assistance to low- and moderate-income persons, small businesses, or nonprofit corporations to help achieve community development. 
</P>
<P>(g) For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, low- and moderate-income persons or areas means individuals and communities whose incomes do not exceed 80 percent of the median income of the area involved, as determined by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development. Small businesses are businesses that are smaller than the maximum size eligibility standards established by the Small Business Administration (SBA) for the Small Business Investment Company and Development Company Programs or the SBA section 7A loan program; and specifically include those businesses that are majority-owned by members of minority groups or by women. 
</P>
<P>(h) For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, five percent of the total consolidated capital stock and surplus of a bank holding company includes its total investment in projects described in paragraph (f) of this section, when aggregated with similar types of investments made by depository institutions controlled by the bank holding company. The term total consolidated capital stock and surplus of the bank holding company means total equity capital and the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, based on the bank holding company's most recent FR Y-9C (Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies) or FR Y-9SP (Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Small Holding Companies).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11316, June 7, 1972; 37 FR 13336, July 7, 1972, as amended at Reg. Y, 59 FR 63713, Dec. 9, 1994; 84 FR 4244, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.129" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.129   Activities closely related to banking.</HEAD>
<P><I>Courier activities.</I> The Board's amendment of § 225.4(a), which adds courier services to the list of closely related activities is intended to permit holding companies to transport time critical materials of limited intrinsic value of the types utilized by banks and bank-related firms in performing their business activities. Such transportation activities are of particular importance in the check clearing process of the banking system, but are also important to the performance of other activities, including the processing of financially-related economic data. The authority is not intended to permit holding companies to engage generally in the provision of transportation services. 
</P>
<P>During the course of the Board's proceedings pertaining to courier services, objections were made that courier activities were not a proper incident to banking because of the possibility that holding companies would or had engaged in unfair competitive practices. The Board believes that adherence to the following principles will eliminate or reduce to an insignificant degree any possibility of unfair competition: 
</P>
<P>a. A holding company courier subsidiary established under section 4(c)(8) should be a separate, independent corporate entity, not merely a servicing arm of a bank. 
</P>
<P>b. As such, the subsidiary should exist as a separate, profit-oriented operation and should not be subsidized by the holding company system. 
</P>
<P>c. Services performed should be explicitly priced, and shall not be paid for indirectly, for example, on the basis of deposits maintained at or loan arrangements with affiliated banks. 
</P>
<FP>Accordingly, entry of holding companies into courier activities on the basis of section 4(c)(8) will be conditioned as follows: 
</FP>
<P>1. <I>The courier subsidiary shall perform services on an explicit fee basis and shall be structured as an individual profit center designed to be operated on a profitable basis.</I> The Board may regard operating losses sustained over an extended period as being inconsistent with continued authority to engage in courier activities. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Courier services performed on behalf of an affiliate's customer</I> (<I>such as the carriage of incoming cash letters</I>) <I>shall be paid for by the customer. Such payments shall not be made indirectly, for example, on the basis of imputed earnings on deposits maintained at or of loan arrangements with subsidiaries of the holding company.</I> Concern has also been expressed that bank-affiliated courier services will be utilized to gain a competitive advantage over firms competing with other holding company affiliates. To reduce the possibility that courier affiliates might be so employed, the Board will impose the following third condition: 
</P>
<P>3. <I>The courier subsidiary shall, when requested by any bank or any data processing firm providing financially-related data processing services which firm competes with a banking or data processing</I> subsidiary of Applicant, furnish comparable service at comparable rates, unless compliance with such request would be beyond the courier subsidiary's practical capacity. In this regard, the courier subsidiary should make known to the public its minimum rate schedule for services and its general pricing policies thereto. The courier subsidiary is also expected to maintain for a reasonable period of time (not less than two years) each request denied with the reasons for such denial. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 32126, Nov. 21, 1973, as amended at 40 FR 36309, Aug. 20, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.130" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.130   Issuance and sale of short-term debt obligations by bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>For text of interpretation, see § 250.221 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 35231, Dec. 26, 1973] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.131" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.131   Activities closely related to banking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank management consulting advice.</I> The Board's amendment of § 225.4(a), which adds bank management consulting advice to the list of closely related activities, described in general terms the nature of such activity. This interpretation is intended to explain in greater detail certain of the terms in the amendment. 
</P>
<P>(b) It is expected that bank management consulting advice would include, but not be limited to, advice concerning: Bank operations, systems and procedures; computer operations and mechanization; implementation of electronic funds transfer systems; site planning and evaluation; bank mergers and the establishment of new branches; operation and management of a trust department; international banking; foreign exchange transactions; purchasing policies and practices; cost analysis, capital adequacy and planning; auditing; accounting procedures; tax planning; investment advice (as authorized in § 225.4(a)(5)); credit policies and administration, including credit documentation, evaluation, and debt collection; product development, including specialized lending provisions; marketing operations, including research, market development and advertising programs; personnel operations, including recruiting, training, evaluation and compensation; and security measures and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(c) In permitting bank holding companies to provide management consulting advice to nonaffiliated “banks”, the Board intends such advice to be given only to an institution that both accepts deposits that the depositor has a legal right to withdraw on demand and engages in the business of making commercial loans. It is also intended that such management consulting advice may be provided to the “operations subsidiaries” of a bank, since such subsidiaries perform functions that a bank is empowered to perform directly at locations at which the bank is authorized to engage in business (§ 250.141 of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(d) Although a bank holding company providing management consulting advice is prohibited by the regulation from owning or controlling, directly or indirectly, any equity securities in a client bank, this limitation does not apply to shares of a client bank acquired, directly or indirectly, as a result of a default on a debt previously contracted. This limitation is also inapplicable to shares of a client bank acquired by a bank holding company, directly or indirectly, in a fiduciary capacity: <I>Provided,</I> That the bank holding company or its subsidiary does not have sole discretionary authority to vote such shares or shares held with sole voting rights constitute not more than five percent of the outstanding voting shares of a client bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 8318, Mar. 5, 1974; 39 FR 21120, June 19, 1974] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.132" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.132   Acquisition of assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) From time to time questions have arisen as to whether and under what circumstances a bank holding company engaged in nonbank activities, directly or indirectly through a subsidiary, pursuant to section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(3)), may acquire the assets and employees of another company, without first obtaining Board approval pursuant to section 4(c) (8) and the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.4(b)). 
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether Board approval is required in connection with the acquisition of assets, it is necessary to determine (a) whether the acquisition is made in the ordinary course of business 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or (b) whether it constitutes the acquisition, in whole or in part, of a going concern. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 225.4(c)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.4(c)(3)) generally prohibits a bank holding company or its subsidiary engaged in activities pursuant to authority of section 4(c)(8) of the Act from being a party to any merger “or acquisition of assets other than in the ordinary course of business” without prior Board approval.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In accordance with the provisions of section 4(c)(8) of the Act and § 225.4(b) of Regulation Y, the acquisition of a going concern requires prior Board approval.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The following examples illustrate transactions where prior Board approval will generally be required: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction involves the acquisition of all or substantially all of the assets of a company, or a subsidiary, division, department or office thereof. 
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction involves the acquisition of less than “substantially all” of the assets of a company, or a subsidiary, division, department or office thereof, the operations of which are being terminated or substantially discontinued by the seller, but such asset acquisition is significant in relation to the size of the same line of nonbank activity of the holding company (e.g., consumer finance mortgage banking, data processing). For purposes of this interpretation, an acquisition would generally be presumed to be significant if the book value of the nonbank assets being acquired exceeds 50 percent of the book value of the nonbank assets of the holding company or nonbank subsidiary comprising the same line of activity.
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction involves the acquisition of assets for resale and the sale of such assets is not a normal business activity of the acquiring holding company. 
</P>
<P>(4) The transaction involves the acquisition of the assets of a company, or a subsidiary, division, department or office thereof, and a major purpose of the transaction is to hire some of the seller's principal employees who are expert, skilled and experienced in the business of the company being acquired. 
</P>
<P>(d) In some cases it may be difficult, due to the wide variety of circumstances involving possible acquisition of assets, to determine whether such acquisitions require prior Board approval. Bank holding companies are encouraged to contact their local Reserve Bank for guidance where doubt exists as to whether such an acquisition is in the ordinary course of business or an acquisition, in whole or in part, of a going concern. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 35128, Sept. 30, 1974, as amended at Reg. Y, 57 FR 28779, June 29, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.133" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.133   Computation of amount invested in foreign corporations under general consent procedures.</HEAD>
<P>For text of this interpretation, see § 211.111 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 43199, Sept. 19, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.134" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.134   Escrow arrangements involving bank stock resulting in a violation of the Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In connection with a recent application to become a bank holding company, the Board considered a situation in which shares of a bank were acquired and then placed in escrow by the applicant prior to the Board's approval of the application. The facts indicated that the applicant company had incurred debt for the purpose of acquiring bank shares and immediately after the purchase the shares were transferred to an unaffiliated escrow agent with instructions to retain possession of the shares pending Board action on the company's application to become a bank holding company. The escrow agreement provided that, if the application were approved by the Board, the escrow agent was to return the shares to the applicant company; and, if the application were denied, the escrow agent was to deliver the shares to the applicant company's shareholders upon their assumption of debt originally incurred by the applicant in the acquisition of the bank shares. In addition, the escrow agreement provided that, while the shares were held in escrow, the applicant could not exercise voting or any other ownership rights with respect to those shares. 
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the above facts, the Board concluded that the company had violated the prior approval provisions of section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (“Act”) at the time that it made the initial acquisition of bank shares and that, for purposes of the Act, the company continued to control those shares in violation of the Act. In view of these findings, individuals and bank holding companies should not enter into escrow arrangements of the type described herein, or any similar arrangement, without securing the prior approval of the Board, since such action could constitute a violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) While the above represents the Board's conclusion with respect to the particular escrow arrangement involved in the proposal presented, the Board does not believe that the use of an escrow arrangement would always result in a violation of the Act. For example, it appears that a transaction whereby bank shares are placed in escrow pending Board action on an application would not involve a violation of the Act so long as title to such shares remains with the seller during the pendency of the application; there are no other indicia that the applicant controls the shares held in escrow; and, in the event of a Board denial of the application, the escrow agreement provides that the shares would be returned to the seller. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 9859, Mar. 8, 1976, as amended at 41 FR 12009, Mar. 23, 1976] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.136" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.136   Utilization of foreign subsidiaries to sell long-term debt obligations in foreign markets and to transfer the proceeds to their United States parent(s) for domestic purposes.</HEAD>
<P>For text of this interpretation, see § 211.112 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 752, Jan. 4, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.137" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.137   Acquisitions of shares pursuant to section 4(c)(6) of the Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has received a request for an interpretation of section 4(c)(6) of the Bank Holding Company Act (“Act”) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in connection with a proposal under which a number of bank holding companies would purchase interests in an insurance company to be formed for the purpose of underwriting or reinsuring credit life and credit accident and health insurance sold in connection with extensions of credit by the stockholder bank holding companies and their affiliates. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> It should be noted that every Board Order granting approval under section 4(c)(8) of the Act contains the following paragraph: 
</P>
<P>“This determination is subject . . . to the Board's authority to require such modification or termination of the activities of a holding company or any of its subsidiaries as the Board finds necessary to assure compliance with the provisions and purposes of the Act and the Board's regulations and orders issued thereunder, or to prevent evasion thereof.” 
</P>
<P>The Board believes that, even apart from this Interpretation, this language preserves the authority of the Board to require the revisions contemplated in this Interpretation.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Each participating holding company would own no more than 5 percent of the outstanding voting shares of the company. However, the investment of each holding company would be represented by a separate class of voting security, so that each stockholder would own 100 percent of its respective class. The participating companies would execute a formal “Agreement Among Stockholders” under which each would agree to use its best efforts at all times to direct or recommend to customers and clients the placement of their life, accident and health insurance directly or indirectly with the company. Such credit-related insurance placed with the company would be identified in the records of the company as having been originated by the respective stockholder. A separate capital account would be maintained for each stockholder consisting of the original capital contribution increased or decreased from time to time by the net profit or loss resulting from the insurance business attributable to each stockholder. Thus, each stockholder would receive a return on its investment based upon the claims experience and profitability of the insurance business that it had itself generated. Dividends declared by the board of directors of the company would be payable to each stockholder only out of the earned surplus reflected in the respective stockholder's capital account. 
</P>
<P>(c) It has been requested that the Board issue an interpretation that section 4(c)(6) of the Act provides an exemption under which participating bank holding companies may acquire such interests in the company without prior approval of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) On the basis of a careful review of the documents submitted, in light of the purposes and provisions of the Act, the Board has concluded that section 4(c)(6) of the Act is inapplicable to this proposal and that a bank holding company must obtain the approval of the Board before participating in such a proposal in the manner described. The Board's conclusion is based upon the following considerations: 
</P>
<P>(1) Section 2(a)(2)(A) of the Act provides that a company is deemed to have control over a second company if it owns or controls “25 per centum or more of any class of voting securities” of the second company. In the case presented, the stock interest of each participant would be evidenced by a different class of stock and each would accordingly, own 100 percent of a class of voting securities of the company. Thus, each of the stockholders would be deemed to “control” the company and prior Board approval would be required for each stockholder's acquisition of stock in the company.
</P>
<FP>The Board believes that this application of section 2(a)(2)(A) of the Act is particularly appropriate on the facts presented here. The company is, in practical effect, a conglomeration of separate business ventures each owned 100 percent by a stockholder the value of whose economic interest in the company is determined by reference to the profits and losses attributable to its respective class of stock. Furthermore, it is the Board's opinion that this application of section 2(a)(2)(A) is not inconsistent with section 4(c)(6). Even assuming that section (4)(c)(6) is intended to refer to all outstanding voting shares, and not merely the outstanding shares of a particular class of securities, section 4(c)(6) must be viewed as permitting ownership of 5 percent of a company's voting stock only when that ownership does not constitute “control” as otherwise defined in the Act. For example, it is entirely possible that a company could exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of a second company, and thus “control” that company under the Act's definitions, even though it held less than 5 percent of the voting stock of the second company. To view section 4(c)(6) as an unqualified exemption for holdings of less than 5 percent would thus create a serious gap in the coverage of the Act. 
</FP>
<P>(2) The Board believes that section 4(c)(6) should properly be interpreted as creating an exemption from the general prohibitions in section 4 on ownership of stock in nonbank companies only for passive investments amounting to not more than 5 percent of a company's outstanding stock, and that the exemption was not intended to allow a group of holding companies, through concerted action, to engage in an activity as entrepreneurs. Section 4 of the Act, of course, prohibits not only owning stock in nonbank companies, but engaging in activities other than banking or those activities permitted by the Board under section 4(c)(8) as being closely related to banking. Thus, if a holding company may be deemed to be engaging in an activity through the medium of a company in which it owns less than 5 percent of the voting stock it may nevertheless require Board approval, despite the section 4(c)(6) exemption. 
</P>
<P>(e) To accept the argument that section 4(c)(6) is an unqualified grant of permission to a bank holding company to own 5 percent of the shares of any nonbanking company irrespective of the nature or extent of the holding company's participation in the affairs of the nonbanking company would, in the Board's view, create the potential for serious and widespread evasion of the Act's controls over nonbanking activities. Such a construction would allow a group of 20 bank holding companies—or even a single bank holding company and one or more nonbank companies—to engage in entrepreneurial joint ventures in businesses prohibited to bank holding companies, a result the Board believes to be contrary to the intent of Congress. 
</P>
<P>(f) In this proposal, each of the participating stockholders must be viewed as engaging in the business of insurance underwriting. Each stockholder would agree to channel to the company the insurance business it generates, and the value of the interest of each stockholder would be determined by reference to the profitability of the business generated by that stockholder itself. There is no sharing or pooling among stockholders of underwriting risks assumed by the company, and profit or loss from investments is allocated on the basis of each bank holding company's allocable underwriting profit or loss. The interest of each stockholder is thus clearly that of an entrepreneur rather than that of an investor. 
</P>
<P>(g) Accordingly, on the basis of the factual situation before the Board, and for the reasons summarized above, the Board has concluded that section 4(c)(6) of the Act cannot be interpreted to exempt the ownership of 5 percent of the voting stock of a company under the circumstances described, and that a bank holding company wishing to become a stockholder in a company under this proposal would be required to obtain the Board's approval to do so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 1263, Jan. 6, 1977; 42 FR 2951, Jan. 14, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.138" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.138   Statement of policy concerning divestitures by bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) From time to time the Board of Governors receives requests from companies subject to the Bank Holding Company Act, or other laws administered by the Board, to extend time periods specified either by statute or by Board order for the divestiture of assets held or activities engaged in by such companies. Such divestiture requirements may arise in a number of ways. For example, divestiture may be ordered by the Board in connection with an acquisition found to have been made in violation of law. In other cases the divestiture may be pursuant to a statutory requirement imposed at the time and amendment to the Act was adopted, or it may be required as a result of a foreclosure upon collateral held by the company or a bank subsidiary in connection with a debt previously contracted in good faith. Certain divestiture periods may be extended in the discretion of the Board, but in other cases the Board may be without statutory authority, or may have only limited authority, to extend a specified divestiture period. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the past, divestitures have taken many different forms, and the Board has followed a variety of procedures in enforcing divestiture requirements. Because divestitures may occur under widely disparate factual circumstances, and because such forced dispositions may have the potential for causing a serious adverse economic impact upon the divesting company, the Board believes it is important to maintain a large measure of flexibility in dealing with divestitures. For these reasons, there can be no fixed rule as to the type of divestiture that will be appropriate in all situations. For example, where divestiture has been ordered to terminate a control relationship created or maintained in violation of the Act, it may be necessary to impose conditions that will assure that the unlawful relationship has been fully terminated and that it will not arise in the future. In other circumstances, however, less stringent conditions may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Avoidance of delays in divestitures.</I> Where a specific time period has been fixed for accomplishing divestiture, the affected company should endeavor and should be encouraged to complete the divestiture as early as possible during the specific period. There will generally be substantial advantages to divesting companies in taking steps to plan for and accomplish divestitures well before the end of the divestiture period. For example, delays may impair the ability of the company to realize full value for the divested assets, for as the end of the divestiture period approaches the “forced sale” aspect of the divestiture may lead potential buyers to withhold firm offers and to bargain for lower prices. In addition, because some prospective purchasers may themselves require regulatory approval to acquire the divested property, delay by the divesting company may—by leaving insufficient time to obtain such approvals—have the effect of narrowing the range of prospective purchases. Thus, delay in planning for divestiture may increase the likelihood that the company will seek an extension of the time for divestiture if difficulty is encountered in securing a purchaser, and in certain situations, of course, the Board may be without statutory authority to grant extensions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submissions and approval of divestiture plans.</I> When a divestiture requirement is imposed, the company affected should generally be asked to submit a divestiture plan promptly for review and approval by the Reserve Bank or the Board. Such a requirement may be imposed pursuant to the Board's authority under section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act to issue such orders as may be necessary to enable the Board to administer and carry out the purposes of the Act and prevent evasions thereof. A divestiture plan should be as specific as possible, and should indicate the manner in which divestiture will be accomplished—for example, by a bulk sale of the assets to a third party, by “spinoff” or distribution of shares to the shareholders of the divesting company, or by termination of prohibited activities. In addition, the plan should specify the steps the company expects to take in effecting the divestiture and assuring its completeness, and should indicate the time schedule for taking such steps. In appropriate circumstances, the divestiture plan should make provision for assuring that “controlling influence” relationships, such as management or financial interlocks, will not continue to exist. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic progress reports.</I> A company subject to a divestiture requirement should generally be required to submit regular periodic reports detailing the steps it has taken to effect divestiture. Such a requirement may be imposed pursuant to the Board's authority under section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act, referred to above, as well as its authority under section 5(c) of the Act to require reports for the purpose of keeping the Board informed as to whether the Act and Board regulations and order thereunder are being complied with. Reports should set forth in detail such matters as the identities of potential buyers who have been approached by the company, the dates of discussions with potential buyers and the identities of the individuals involved in such discussions, the terms of any offers received, and the reasons for rejecting any offers. In addition, the reports should indicate whether the company has employed brokers, investment bankers or others to assist in the divestiture, or its reasons for not doing so, and should describe other efforts by the company to seek out possible purchasers. The purpose of requiring such reports is to insure that substantial and good faith efforts being made by the company to satisfy its divestiture obligations. The frequency of such reports may vary depending upon the nature of the divestiture and the period specified for divestiture. However, such reports should generally not be required less frequently than every three months, and may in appropriate cases be required on a monthly or even more frequent basis. Progress reports as well as divestiture plans should be afforded confidential treatment. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extensions of divestiture periods.</I> Certain divestiture periods—such as December 31, 1980 deadline for divestitures required by the 1970 Amendments to the Bank Holding Company Act—are not extendable. In such cases it is imperative that divestiture be accomplished in a timely manner. In certain other cases, the Board may have discretion to extend a statutorily prescribed divestiture period within specified limits. For example, under section 4(c)(2) of the Act the Board may extend for three one-year periods the two-year period in which a bank subsidiary of a holding company is otherwise required to divest shares acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted in good faith. In such cases, however, when the permissible extensions expire the Board no longer has discretion to grant further extensions. In still other cases, where a divestiture period is prescribed by the Board, in the exercise of its regulatory judgment, the Board may have broader discretion to grant extensions. Where extensions of specified divestiture periods are permitted by law, extensions should not be granted except under compelling circumstances. Neither unfavorable market conditions, nor the possibility that the company may incur some loss, should alone be viewed as constituting such circumstances—particularly if the company has failed to take earlier steps to accomplish a divestiture under more favorable circumstances. Normally, a request for an extension will not be considered unless the company has established that it has made substantial and continued good faith efforts to accomplish the divestiture within the prescribed period. Furthermore, requests for extensions of divestiture periods must be made sufficiently in advance of the expiration of the prescribed period both to enable the Board to consider the request in an orderly manner and to enable the company to effect a timely divestiture in the event the request for extension is denied. Companies subject to divestiture requirements should be aware that a failure to accomplish a divestiture within the prescribed period may in and of itself be viewed as a separate violation of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of trustees.</I> In appropriate cases a company subject to a divestiture requirement may be required to place the assets subject to divestiture with an independent trustee under instructions to accomplish a sale by a specified date, by public auction if necessary. Such a trustee may be given the responsibility for exercising the voting rights with respect to shares being divested. The use of such a trustee may be particularly appropriate where the divestiture is intended to terminate a control relationship established or maintained in violation of law, or where the divesting company has demonstrated an inability or unwillingness to take timely steps to effect a divestiture. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Presumptions of control.</I> Bank holding companies contemplating a divestiture should be mindful of section 2(g)(3) of the Bank Holding Company Act, which creates a presumption of continued control over the transferred assets where the transferee is indebted to the transferor, or where certain interlocks exist, as well as § 225.2 of Regulation Y, which sets forth certain additional control presumptions. Where one of these presumptions has arisen with respect to divested assets, the divestiture will not be considered as complete until the presumption has been overcome. It should be understood that the inquiry into the termination of control relationships is not limited by the statutory and regulatory presumptions of control, and that the Board may conclude that a control relationship still exists even though the presumptions do not apply. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Role of the Reserve Banks.</I> The Reserve Banks have a responsibility for supervising and enforcing divestitures. Specifically, in coordination with Board staff they should review divestiture plans to assure that proposed divestitures will result in the termination of control relationships and will not create unsafe or unsound conditions in any bank or bank holding company; they should monitor periodic progress reports to assure that timely steps are being taken to effect divestitures; and they should prompt companies to take such steps when it appears that progress is not being made. Where Reserve Banks have delegated authority to extend divestiture periods, that authority should be exercised consistently with this policy statement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 10969, Feb. 25, 1977]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.139" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.139   Presumption of continued control under section 2(g)(3) of the Bank Holding Company Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 2(g)(3) of the Bank Holding Company Act (the “Act”) establishes a statutory presumption that where certain specified relationships exist between a transferor and transferee of shares, the transferor (if it is a bank holding company, or a company that would be such but for the transfer) continues to own or control indirectly the transferred shares. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> This presumption arises by operation of law, as of the date of the transfer, without the need for any order or determination by the Board. Operation of the presumption may be terminated only by the issuance of a Board determination, after opportunity for hearing, “that the transferor is not in fact capable of controlling the transferee.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The presumption arises where the transferee “is indebted to the transferor, or has one or more officers, directors, trustees, or beneficiaries in common with or subject to control by the transferor.”</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Board has delegated to its General Counsel the authority to issue such determinations, 12 CFR 265.2(b)(1).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The purpose of section 2(g)(3) is to provide the Board an opportunity to assess the effectiveness of divestitures in certain situations in which there may be a risk that the divestiture will not result in the complete termination of a control relationship. By presuming control to continue as a matter of law, section 2(g)(3) operates to allow the effectiveness of the divestiture to be assessed before the divesting company is permitted to act on the assumption that the divestiture is complete. Thus, for example, if a holding company divests its banking interest under circumstances where the presumption of continued control arises, the divesting company must continue to consider itself bound by the Act until an appropriate order is entered by the Board dispelling the presumption. Section 2(g)(3) does not establish a substantive rule that invalidates transfers to which it applies, and in a great many cases the Board has acted favorably on applications to have the presumption dispelled. It merely provides a procedural opportunity for Board consideration of the effect of such transfers in advance of their being deemed effective. Whether or not the statutory presumption arises, the substantive test for assessing the effectiveness of a divestiture is the same—that is, the Board must be assured that all control relationships between the transferor and the transferred property have been terminated and will not be reestablished. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> It should be noted, however, that the Board will require termination of any interlocking management relationships between the divesting company and the transferee or the divested company as a precondition of finding that a divestiture is complete. Similarly, the retention of an economic interest in the divested company that would create an incentive for the divesting company to attempt to influence the management of the divested company will preclude a finding that the divestiture is complete. (See the Board's Order in the matter of “International Bank”, 1977 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1106, 1113.)</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) In the course of administering section 2(g)(3) the Board has had several occasions to consider the scope of that section. In addition, questions have been raised by and with the Board's staff as to coverage of the section. Accordingly, the Board believes it would be useful to set forth the following interpretations of section 2(g)(3): 
</P>
<P>(1) The terms <I>transferor</I> and <I>transferee,</I> as used in section 2(g)(3), include parents and subsidiaries of each. Thus, for example, where a transferee is indebted to a subsidiary of the transferor, or where a specified interlocking relationship exists between the transferor or transferee and a subsidiary of the other (or between subsidiaries of each), the presumption arises. Similarly, if a parent of the transferee is indebted to a parent of the transferor, the presumption arises. The presumption of continued control also arises where an interlock or debt relationship is retained between the divesting company and the company being divested, since the divested company will be or may be viewed as a <I>subsidiary</I> of the transferee or group of transferees. 
</P>
<P>(2) The terms <I>officers, directors,</I> and <I>trustees,</I> as used in section 2(g)(3), include persons performing functions normally associated with such positions (including general partners in a partnership and limited partners having a right to participate in the management of the affairs of the partnership) as well as persons holding such positions in an advisory or honorary capacity. The presumption arises not only where the transferee or transferred company has an officer, director or trustee <I>in common with</I> the transferor, but where the transferee himself holds such a position with the transferor. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> It should be noted that where a transfer takes the form of a pro-rata distribution, or <I>spin-off,</I> of shares to a company's shareholders, officers and directors of the transferor company are likely to receive a portion of such shares. The presumption of continued control would, of course, attach to any shares transferred to officers and directors of the divesting company, whether by <I>spinoff</I> or outright sale. However, the presumption will be of legal significance—and will thus require an application under section 2(g)(3)—only where the total number of shares subject to the presumption exceeds one of the applicable thresholds in the Act. For example, where officers and directors of a one-bank holding company receive in the aggregate 25 percent or more of the stock of a bank subsidiary being divested by the holding company, the holding company would be presumed to continue to control the <I>divested</I> bank. In such a case it would be necessary for the divesting company to demonstrate that it no longer controls either the divested bank or the officer/director transferees. However, if officers and directors were to receive in the aggregate less than 25 percent of the bank's stock (and no other shares were subject to the presumption), section 2(g)(3) would not have the legal effect of presuming continued control of the bank. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> In the case of a divestiture of nonbank shares, an application under section 2(g)(3) would be required whenever officers and directors of the divesting company received in the aggregate more than 5 percent of the shares of the company being divested. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> It has been suggested that the words <I>in common with</I> in section 2(g)(3) evidence an intent to make the presumption applicable only where the transferee is a <I>company</I> having an interlock with the transferor. Such an interpretation would, in the Board's view, create an unwarranted gap in the coverage of section 2(g)(3). Furthermore, because the presumption clearly arises where the transferee is an individual who is indebted to the transferor such an interpretation would result in an illogical internal inconsistency in the statute.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Of course, the fact that section 2(g)(3) would not operate to presume continued control would not necessarily mean that control had in fact been terminated if control could be exercised through other means.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Although section 2(g)(3) refers to transfers of <I>shares</I> it is not, in the Board's view, limited to disposition of corporate stock. General or limited partnership interests, for example, are included within the term <I>shares.</I> Furthermore, the transfer of all or substantially all of the assets of a company, or the transfer of such a significant volume of assets that the transfer may in effect constitute the disposition of a separate activity of the company, is deemed by the Board to involve a transfer of <I>shares</I> of that company. 
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>indebtedness</I> giving rise to the presumption of continued control under section 2(g)(3) of the Act is not limited to debt incurred in connection with the transfer; it includes any debt outstanding at the time of transfer from the transferee to the transferor or its subsidiaries. However, the Board believes that not every kind of indebtedness was within the contemplation of the Congress when section 2(g)(3) was adopted. Routine business credit of limited amounts and loans for personal or household purposes are generally not the kinds of indebtedness that, standing alone, support a presumption that the creditor is able to control the debtor. Accordingly, the Board does not regard the presumption of section 2(g)(3) as applicable to the following categories of credit, provided the extensions of credit are not secured by the transferred property and are made in the ordinary course of business of the transferor (or its subsidiary) that is regularly engaged in the business of extending credit:
</P>
<P>(i) Consumer credit extended for personal or household use to an individual transferee; (ii) student loans made for the education of the individual transferee or a spouse or child of the transferee; (iii) a home mortgage loan made to an individual transferee for the purchase of a residence for the individual's personal use and secured by the residence; and (iv) loans made to companies (as defined in section 2(b) of the Act) in an aggregate amount not exceeding ten per cent of the total purchase price (or if not sold, the fair market value) of the transferred property. The amounts and terms of the preceding categories of credit should not differ substantially from similar credit extended in comparable circumstances to others who are not transferees. It should be understood that, while the statutory presumption in situations involving these categories of credit may not apply, the Board is not precluded in any case from examining the facts of a particular transfer and finding that the divestiture of control was ineffective based on the facts of record.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 2(g)(3) provides that a Board determination that a transferor is not in fact capable of controlling a transferee shall be made after opportunity for hearing. It has been the Board's routine practice since 1966 to publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of applications filed under section 2(g)(3) and to offer interested parties an opportunity for a hearing. Virtually without exception no comments have been submitted on such applications by parties other than the applicant and, with the exception of one case in which the request was later withdrawn, no hearings have been requested in such cases. Because the Board believes that the hearing provision in section 2(g)(3) was intended as a protection for applicants who are seeking to have the presumption overcome by a Board order, a hearing would not be of use where an application is to be granted. In light of the experience indicating that the publication of <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of such applications has not served a useful purpose, the Board has decided to alter its procedures in such cases. In the future, <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of section 2(g)(3) applications will be published only in cases in which the Board's General Counsel, acting under delegated authority, has determined not to grant such an application and has referred the matter to the Board for decision. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> It should be noted that in the event a third party should take exception to a Board order under section 2(g)(3) finding that control has been terminated, any rights such party might have would not be prejudiced by the order. If such party brought facts to the Board's attention indicating that control had not been terminated the Board would have ample authority to revoke its order and take necessary remedial action. 
</P>
<P>Orders issued under section 2(g)(3) are published in the Federal Reserve “Bulletin.”</P></FTNT>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1841, 1844)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 6214, Feb. 14, 1978; 43 FR 15147, Apr. 11, 1978; 43 FR 15321, Apr. 12, 1978, as amended at 45 FR 8280, Feb. 7, 1980; 45 FR 11125, Feb. 20, 1980] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.140" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.140   Disposition of property acquired in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board recently considered the permissibility, under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act, of a subsidiary of a bank holding company acquiring and holding assets acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted in good faith (a “dpc” acquisition). In the situation presented, a lending subsidiary of a bank holding company made a “dpc” acquisition of assets and transferred them to a wholly-owned subsidiary of the bank holding company for the purpose of effecting an orderly divestiture. The question presented was whether such “dpc” assets could be held indefinitely by a bank holding company subsidiary as incidental to its permissible lending activity.
</P>
<P>(b) While the Board believes that “dpc” acquisitions may be regarded as normal, necessary and incidental to the business of lending, the Board does not believe that the holding of assets acquired “dpc” without any time restrictions is appropriate from the standpoint of prudent banking and in light of the prohibitions in section 4 of the Act against engaging in nonbank activities. If a nonbanking subsidiary of a bank holding company were permitted, either directly or through a subsidiary, to hold “dpc” assets of substantial amount over an extended period of time, the holding of such property could result in an unsafe or unsound banking practice or in the holding company engaging in an impermissible activity in connection with the assets, rather than liquidating them.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board notes that section 4(c)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act provides an exemption from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Act for bank holding company subsidiaries to acquire <I>shares</I> “dpc”. It also provides that such “dpc” shares may be held for a period of two years, subject to the Board's authority to grant three one-year extensions up to a maximum of five years. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Viewed in light of the Congressional policy evidenced by section 4(c)(2), the Board believes that a lending subsidiary of a bank holding company or the holding company itself, should be permitted, as an incident to permissible lending activities, to make acquisitions of “dpc” <I>assets.</I> Consistent with the principles underlying the provisions of section 4(c)(2) of the Act and as a matter of prudent banking practice, such assets may be held for no longer than five years from the date of acquisition. Within the divestiture period it is expected that the company will make good faith efforts to dispose of “dpc” shares or assets at the earliest practicable date. While no specific authorization is necessary to hold such assets for the five-year period, after two years from the date of acquisition of such assets, the holding company should report annually on its efforts to accomplish divestiture to its Reserve Bank. The Reserve Bank will monitor the efforts of the company to effect an orderly divestiture, and may order divestiture before the end of the five-year period if supervisory concerns warrant such action.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Board notes that where the dpc shares or other similar interests represent less than 5 percent of the total of such interests outstanding, they may be retained on the basis of section 4(c)(6), even if originally acquired dpc.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) The Board recognizes that there are instances where a company may encounter particular difficulty in attempting to effect an orderly divestiture of “dpc” real estate holdings within the divestiture period, notwithstanding its persistent good faith efforts to dispose of such property. In the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980, (Pub. L. 96-221) Congress, recognizing that real estate possesses unusual characteristics, amended the National Banking Act to permit national banks to hold real estate for five years and for an additional five-year period subject to certain conditions. Consistent with the policy underlying the recent Congressional enactment, and as a matter of supervisory policy, a bank holding company may be permitted to hold real estate acquired “dpc” beyond the initial five-year period provided that the value of the real estate on the books of the company has been written down to fair market value, the carrying costs are not significant in relation to the overall financial position of the company, and the company has made good faith efforts to effect divestiture. Companies holding real estate for this extended period are expected to make active efforts to dispose of it, and should keep the Reserve Bank advised on a regular basis concerning their ongoing efforts. Fair market value should be derived from appraisals, comparable sales or some other reasonable method. In any case, “dpc” real estate would not be permitted to be held beyond 10 years from the date of its acquisition.
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to the transfer by a subsidiary of other “dpc” shares or assets to another company in the holding company system, including a section 4(c)(1)(D) liquidating subsidiary, or to the holding company itself, such transfers would not alter the original divestiture period applicable to such shares or assets at the time of their acquisition. Moreover, to ensure that assets are not carried at inflated values for extended periods of time, the Board expects, in the case of all such intracompany transfers, that the shares or assets will be transferred at a value no greater than the fair market value at the time of transfer and that the transfer will be made in a normal arms-length transaction.
</P>
<P>(f) With regard to “dpc” assets acquired by a banking subsidiary of a holding company, so long as the assets continue to be held by the bank itself, the Board will regard them as being solely within the regulatory authority of the primary supervisor of the bank. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1843 (c)(1)(d), (c)(2), (c)(8), and 1844 (b); 12 U.S.C. 1818)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 49905, July 28, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.141" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.141   Operations subsidiaries of a bank holding company.</HEAD>
<P>In orders approving the retention by a bank holding company of a 4(c)(8) subsidiary, the Board has stated that it would permit, without any specific regulatory approval, the formation of a wholly owned subsidiary of an approved 4(c)(8) company to engage in activities that such a company could itself engage in directly through a division or department. (<I>Northwestern Financial Corporation,</I> 65 Federal Reserve Bulletin 566 (1979).) Section 4(a)(2) of the Act provides generally that a bank holding company may engage directly in the business of managing and controlling banks and permissible nonbank activities, and in furnishing services directly to its subsidiaries. Even though section 4 of the Act generally prohibits the acquisition of shares of nonbanking organizations, the Board does not believe that such prohibition should apply to the formation by a holding company of a wholly-owned subsidiary to engage in activities that it could engage in directly. Accordingly, as a general matter, the Board will permit without any regulatory approval a bank holding company to form a wholly-owned subsidiary to perform servicing activities for subsidiaries that the holding company itself could perform directly or through a department or a division under section 4(a)(2) of the Act. The Board believes that permitting this type of subsidiary is not inconsistent with the nonbanking prohibitions of section 4 of the Act, and is consistent with the authority in section 4(c)(1)(C) of the Act, which permits a bank holding company, without regulatory approval, to form a subsidiary to perform services for its <I>banking</I> subsidiaries. The Board notes, however, that a servicing subsidiary established by a bank holding company in reliance on this interpretation will be an affiliate of the subsidiary bank of the holding company for the purposes of the lending restrictions of section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act. (12 U.S.C. 371c)
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2) and 1844(b))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 54326, July 15, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.142" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.142   Statement of policy concerning bank holding companies engaging in futures, forward and options contracts on U.S. Government and agency securities and money market instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose of financial contract positions.</I> In supervising the activities of bank holding companies, the Board has adopted and continues to follow the principle that bank holding companies should serve as a source of strength for their subsidiary banks. Accordingly, the Board believes that any positions that bank holding companies or their nonbank subsidiaries take in financial contracts should reduce risk exposure, that is, not be speculative. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of prudent written policies, appropriate limitations and internal controls and audit programs.</I> If the parent organization or nonbank subsidiary is taking or intends to take positions in financial contracts, that company's board of directors should approve prudent written policies and establish appropriate limitations to insure that financial contract activities are performed in a safe and sound manner with levels of activity reasonably related to the organization's business needs and capacity to fulfill obligations. In addition, internal controls and internal audit programs to monitor such activity should be established. The board of directors, a duly authorized committee thereof or the internal auditors should review periodically (at least monthly) all financial contract positions to insure conformity with such policies and limits. In order to determine the company's exposure, all open positions should be reviewed and market values determined at least monthly, or more often, depending on volume and magnitude of positions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formulating policies and recording financial contracts.</I> In formulating its policies and procedures, the parent holding company may consider the interest rate exposure of its nonbank subsidiaries, but not that of its bank subsidiaries. As a matter of policy, the Board believes that any financial contracts executed to reduce the interest rate exposure of a bank affiliate of a holding company should be reflected on the books and records of the bank affiliate (to the extent required by the bank policy statements), rather than on the books and records of the parent company. If a bank has an interest rate exposure that management believes requires hedging with financial contracts, the bank should be the direct beneficiary of any effort to reduce that exposure. The Board also believes that final responsibility for financial contract transactions for the account of each affiliated bank should reside with the management of that bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accounting.</I> The joint bank policy statements of March 12, 1980 include accounting guidelines for banks that engage in financial contract activities. Since the Financial Accounting Standards Board is presently considering accounting standards for contract activities, no specific accounting requirements for financial contracts entered into by parent bank holding companies and nonbank subsidiaries are being mandated at this time. The Board expects to review further developments in this area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board to monitor bank holding company transactions in financial contracts.</I> The Board intends to monitor closely bank holding company transactions in financial contracts to ensure that any such activity is consistent with maintaining a safe and sound banking system. In any cases where bank holding companies are found to be engaging in speculative practices, the Board is prepared to institute appropriate action under the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal Reserve Bank notification.</I> Bank holding companies should furnish written notification to their District Federal Reserve Bank within 10 days after financial contract activities are begun by the parent or a nonbank subsidiary. Holding companies in which the parent or a nonbank subsidiary currently engage in financial contract activity should furnish notice by March 31, 1983.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Secs. 5(b) and 8 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844 and 1847); sec. 8(b) of the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 7720, Feb. 24, 1983] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.143" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.143   Policy statement on nonvoting equity investments by bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> (1) In recent months, a number of bank holding companies have made substantial equity investments in a bank or bank holding company (the “acquiree”) located in states other than the home state of the investing company through acquisition of preferred stock or nonvoting common shares of the acquiree. Because of the evident interest in these types of investments and because they raise substantial questions under the Bank Holding Company Act (the “Act”), the Board believes it is appropriate to provide guidance regarding the consistency of such arrangements with the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) This statement sets out the Board's concerns with these investments, the considerations the Board will take into account in determining whether the investments are consistent with the Act, and the general scope of arrangements to be avoided by bank holding companies. The Board recognizes that the complexity of legitimate business arrangements precludes rigid rules designed to cover all situations and that decisions regarding the existence or absence of control in any particular case must take into account the effect of the combination of provisions and covenants in the agreement as a whole and the particular facts and circumstances of each case. Nevertheless, the Board believes that the factors outlined in this statement provide a framework for guiding bank holding companies in complying with the requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statutory and regulatory provisions.</I> (1) Under section 3(a) of the Act, a bank holding company may not acquire direct or indirect ownership or control of more than 5 per cent of the voting shares of a bank without the Board's prior approval. (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(3)). In addition, this section of the Act provides that a bank holding company may not, without the Board's prior approval, acquire control of a bank: That is, in the words of the statute, “for any action to be taken that causes a bank to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company.” (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(2)). Under the Act, a bank is a subsidiary of a bank holding company if:
</P>
<P>(i) The company directly or indirectly owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 25 per cent or more of the voting shares of the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The company controls in any manner the election of a majority of the board of directors of the bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board determines, after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the company has the power, directly or indirectly, to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of the bank. (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P>(2) In intrastate situations, the Board may approve bank holding company acquisitions of additional banking subsidiaries. However, where the acquiree is located outside the home state of the investing bank holding company, section 3(d) of the Act prevents the Board from approving any application that will permit a bank holding company to “acquire, directly or indirectly, any voting shares of, interest in, or all or substantially all of the assets of any additional bank.” (12 U.S.C. 1842(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of agreements.</I> (1) In apparent expectation of statutory changes that might make interstate banking permissible, bank holding companies have sought to make substantial equity investments in other bank holding companies across state lines, but without obtaining more than 5 per cent of the voting shares or control of the acquiree. These investments involve a combination of the following arrangements:
</P>
<P>(i) Options on, warrants for, or rights to convert nonvoting shares into substantial blocks of voting securities of the acquiree bank holding company or its subsidiary bank(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) Merger or asset acquisition agreements with the out-of-state bank or bank holding company that are to be consummated in the event interstate banking is permitted;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions that limit or restrict major policies, operations or decisions of the acquiree; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provisions that make acquisition of the acquiree or its subsidiary bank(s) by a third party either impossible or economically impracticable.
</P>
<FP>The various warrants, options, and rights are not exercisable by the investing bank holding company unless interstate banking is permitted, but may be transferred by the investor either immediately or after the passage of a period of time or upon the occurrence of certain events.
</FP>
<P>(2) After a careful review of a number of these agreements, the Board believes that investments in nonvoting stock, absent other arrangements, can be consistent with the Act. Some of the agreements reviewed appear consistent with the Act since they are limited to investments of relatively moderate size in nonvoting equity that may become voting equity only if interstate banking is authorized.
</P>
<P>(3) However, other agreements reviewed by the Board raise substantial problems of consistency with the control provisions of the Act because the investors, uncertain whether or when interstate banking may be authorized, have evidently sought to assure the soundness of their investments, prevent takeovers by others, and allow for sale of their options, warrants, or rights to a person of the investor's choice in the event a third party obtains control of the acquiree or the investor otherwise becomes dissatisfied with its investment. Since the Act precludes the investors from protecting their investments through ownership or use of voting shares or other exercise of control, the investors have substituted contractual agreements for rights normally achieved through voting shares.
</P>
<P>(4) For example, various covenants in certain of the agreements seek to assure the continuing soundness of the investment by substantially limiting the discretion of the acquiree's management over major policies and decisions, including restrictions on entering into new banking activities without the investor's approval and requirements for extensive consultations with the investor on financial matters. By their terms, these covenants suggest control by the investing company over the management and policies of the acquiree.
</P>
<P>(5) Similarly, certain of the agreements deprive the acquiree bank holding company, by covenant or because of an option, of the right to sell, transfer, or encumber a majority or all of the voting shares of its subsidiary bank(s) with the aim of maintaining the integrity of the investment and preventing takeovers by others. These long-term restrictions on voting shares fall within the presumption in the Board's Regulation Y that attributes control of shares to any company that enters into any agreement placing long-term restrictions on the rights of a holder of voting securities. (12 CFR 225.2(b)(4)).
</P>
<P>(6) Finally, investors wish to reserve the right to sell their options, warrants or rights to a person of their choice to prevent being locked into what may become an unwanted investment. The Board has taken the position that the ability to control the ultimate disposition of voting shares to a person of the investor's choice and to secure the economic benefits therefrom indicates control of the shares under the Act. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, the ability to transfer rights to large blocks of voting shares, even if nonvoting in the hands of the investing company, may result in such a substantial position of leverage over the management of the acquiree as to involve a structure that inevitably results in control prohibited by the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> Board letter dated March 18, 1982, to C. A. Cavendes, Sociedad Financiera.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Provisions that avoid control.</I> (1) In the context of any particular agreement, provisions of the type described above may be acceptable if combined with other provisions that serve to preclude control. The Board believes that such agreements will not be consistent with the Act unless provisions are included that will preserve management's discretion over the policies and decisions of the acquiree and avoid control of voting shares. 
</P>
<P>(2) As a first step towards avoiding control, covenants in any agreement should leave management free to conduct banking and permissible nonbanking activities. Another step to avoid control is the right of the acquiree to “call” the equity investment and options or warrants to assure that covenants that may become inhibiting can be avoided by the acquiree. This right makes such investments or agreements more like a loan in which the borrower has a right to escape covenants and avoid the lender's influence by prepaying the loan. 
</P>
<P>(3) A measure to avoid problems of control arising through the investor's control over the ultimate disposition of rights to substantial amounts of voting shares of the acquiree would be a provision granting the acquiree a right of first refusal before warrants, options or other rights may be sold and requiring a public and dispersed distribution of these rights if the right of first refusal is not exercised. 
</P>
<P>(4) In this connection, the Board believes that agreements that involve rights to less than 25 percent of the voting shares, with a requirement for a dispersed public distribution in the event of sale, have a much greater prospect of achieving consistency with the Act than agreements involving a greater percentage. This guideline is drawn by analogy from the provision in the Act that ownership of 25 percent or more of the voting securities of a bank constitutes control of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Board expects that one effect of this guideline would be to hold down the size of the nonvoting equity investment by the investing company relative to the acquiree's total equity, thus avoiding the potential for control because the investor holds a very large proportion of the acquiree's total equity. Observance of the 25 percent guideline will also make provisions in agreements providing for a right of first refusal or a public and widely dispersed offering of rights to the acquiree's shares more practical and realistic. 
</P>
<P>(6) Finally, certain arrangements should clearly be avoided regardless of other provisions in the agreement that are designed to avoid control. These are:
</P>
<P>(i) Agreements that enable the investing bank holding company (or its designee) to direct in any manner the voting of more than 5 per cent of the voting shares of the acquiree;
</P>
<P>(ii) Agreements whereby the investing company has the right to direct the acquiree's use of the proceeds of an equity investment by the investing company to effect certain actions, such as the purchase and redemption of the acquiree's voting shares; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The acquisition of more than 5 per cent of the voting shares of the acquiree that “simultaneously” with their acquisition by the investing company become nonvoting shares, remain nonvoting shares while held by the investor, and revert to voting shares when transferred to a third party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review by the Board.</I> This statement does not constitute the exclusive scope of the Board's concerns, nor are the considerations with respect to control outlined in this statement an exhaustive catalog of permissible or impermissible arrangements. The Board has instructed its staff to review agreements of the kind discussed in this statement and to bring to the Board's attention those that raise problems of consistency with the Act. In this regard, companies are requested to notify the Board of the terms of such proposed merger or asset acquisition agreements or nonvoting equity investments prior to their execution or consummation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 30966, July 16, 1982] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.145" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.9.6.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.145   Limitations established by the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987 on the activities and growth of nonbank banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> Effective August 10, 1987, the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987 (“CEBA”) redefined the term “bank” in the Bank Holding Company Act (“BHC Act” or “Act”) to include any bank the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation as well as any other institution that accepts demand or checkable deposit accounts and is engaged in the business of making commercial loans. 12 U.S.C. 1841(c). CEBA also contained a grandfather provision for certain companies affected by this redefinition. CEBA amended section 4 of the BHC Act to permit a company that on March 5, 1987, controlled a nonbank bank (an institution that became a bank as a result of enactment of CEBA) and that was not a bank holding company on August 9, 1987, to retain its nonbank bank and not be treated as a bank holding company for purposes of the BHC Act if the company and its subsidiary nonbank bank observe certain limitations imposed by CEBA. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Certain of these limitations are codified in section 4(f)(3) of the BHC Act and generally restrict nonbank banks from commencing new activities or certain cross-marketing activities with affiliates after March 5, 1987, or permitting overdrafts for affiliates or incurring overdrafts on behalf of affiliates at a Federal Reserve Bank. 12 U.S.C. 1843(f)(3). 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The Board's views regarding the meaning and scope of these limitations are set forth below and in provisions of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.52).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1843(f). Such a company is treated as a bank holding company, however, for purposes of the anti-tying provisions in section 106 of the BHC Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1971 <I>et seq.</I>) and the insider lending limitations of section 22(h) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 375b). The company is also subject to certain examination and enforcement provisions to assure compliance with CEBA.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> CEBA also prohibits, with certain limited exceptions, a company controlling a grandfathered nonbank bank from acquiring control of an additional bank or thrift institution or acquiring, directly or indirectly after March 5, 1987, more than 5 percent of the assets or shares of a bank or thrift institution. 12 U.S.C. 1843(f)(2).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Congressional findings.</I> (1) At the outset, the Board notes that the scope and application of the Act's limitations on nonbank banks must be guided by the Congressional findings set out in section 4(f)(3) of the BHC Act. Congress was aware that these nonbank banks had been acquired by companies that engage in a wide range of nonbanking activities, such as retailing and general securities activities that are forbidden to bank holding companies under section 4 of the BHC Act. In section 4(f)(3), Congress found that nonbank banks controlled by grandfathered nonbanking companies may, because of their relationships with affiliates, be involved in conflicts of interest, concentration of resources, or other effects adverse to bank safety and soundness. Congress also found that nonbank banks may be able to compete unfairly against banks controlled by bank holding companies by combining banking services with financial services not permissible for bank holding companies. Section 4(f)(3) states that the purpose of the nonbank bank limitations is to minimize any such potential adverse effects or inequities by restricting the activities of nonbank banks until further Congressional action in the area of bank powers could be undertaken. Similarly, the Senate Report accompanying CEBA states that the restrictions CEBA places on nonbank banks “will help prevent existing nonbank banks from changing their basic character * * * while Congress considers proposals for comprehensive legislation; from drastically eroding the separation of banking and commerce; and from increasing the potential for unfair competition, conflicts of interest, undue concentration of resources, and other adverse effects.” S. Rep. No. 100-19, 100th Cong., 1st Sess. 12 (1987). <I>See also</I> H. Rep. No. 100-261, 100th Cong., 1st Sess. 124 (1987) (the “Conference Report”).
</P>
<P>(2) Thus, Congress explicitly recognized in the statute itself that nonbanking companies controlling grandfathered nonbank banks, which include the many of the nation's largest commercial and financial organizations, were being accorded a significant competitive advantage that could not be matched by bank holding companies because of the general prohibition against nonbanking activities in section 4 of the BHC Act. Congress recognized that this inequality in regulatory approach could inflict serious competitive harm on regulated bank holding companies as the grandfathered entities sought to exploit potential synergies between banking and commercial products and services. <I>See</I> Conference Report at 125-126. The basic and stated purpose of the restrictions on grandfathered nonbank banks is to minimize these potential anticompetitive effects.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board believes that the specific CEBA limitations should be implemented in light of these Congressional findings and the legislative intent reflected in the plain meaning of the terms used in the statute. In those instances when the language of the statute did not provide clear guidance, legislative materials and the Congressional intent manifested in the overall statutory structure were considered. The Board also notes that prior precedent requires that grandfather exceptions in the BHC Act, such as the nonbank bank limitations and particularly the exceptions thereto, are to be interpreted narrowly in order to ensure the proper implementation of Congressional intent. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>E.g., Maryland National Corporation,</I> 73 Federal Reserve Bulletin 310, 313-314 (1987). <I>Cf., Spokane &amp; Inland Empire Railroad Co.</I> v. <I>United States,</I> 241 U.S. 344, 350 (1915).</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Activity limitation</I>—(1) <I>Scope of activity.</I> (i) The first limitation established under section 4(f)(3) provides that a nonbank bank shall not “engage in any activity in which such bank was not lawfully engaged as of March 5, 1987.” The term <I>activity</I> as used in this provision of CEBA is not defined. The structure and placement of the CEBA activity restriction within section 4 of the BHC Act and its legislative history do, however, provide direction as to certain transactions that Congress intended to treat as separate activities, thereby providing guidance as to the meaning Congress intended to ascribe to the term generally. First, it is clear that the term <I>activity</I> was not meant to refer to banking as a single activity. To the contrary, the term must be viewed as distinguishing between deposit taking and lending activities and treating demand deposit-taking as a separate activity from general deposit-taking and commercial lending as separate from the general lending category.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the activity limitation, a nonbank bank may engage only in activities in which it was “lawfully engaged” as of March 5, 1987. As of that date, a nonbank bank could not have been engaged in both demand deposit-taking and commercial lending activity without placing it and its parent holding company in violation of the BHC Act. Thus, under the activity limitations, a nonbank bank could not after March 5, 1987, commence the demand deposit-taking or commercial lending activity that it did not conduct as of March 5, 1987. The debates and Senate and Conference Reports on CEBA confirm that Congress intended the activity limitation to prevent a grandfathered nonbank bank from converting itself into a full-service bank by both offering demand deposits and engaging in the business of making commercial loans. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, these types of transactions provide a clear guide as to the type of banking transactions that would constitute activities under CEBA and the degree of specificity intended by Congress in interpreting that term.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Conference Report at 124-25; S. Rep. No. 100-19 at 12, 32; H. Rep. No. 99-175, 99th Cong., 1st Sess. 3 (1985) (“the activities limitation is to prevent an institution engaged in a limited range of functions from expanding into new areas and becoming, in essence, a full-service bank”); 133 Cong. Rec. S4054 (daily ed. March 27, 1987); (Comments of Senator Proxmire).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) It is also clear that the activity limitation was not intended simply to prevent a nonbank bank from both accepting demand deposits and making commercial loans; it has a broader scope and purpose. If Congress had meant the term to refer to just these two activities, it would have used the restriction it used in another section of CEBA dealing with nonbank banks owned by bank holding companies which has this result, <I>i.e.,</I> the nonbank bank could not engage in any activity that would have caused it to become a bank under the prior bank definition in the Act. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 1843(g)(1)(A). Indeed, an earlier version of CEBA under consideration by the Senate Banking Committee contained such a provision for nonbank banks owned by commercial holding companies, which was deleted in favor of the broader activity limitation actually enacted. Committee Print No. 1, (Feb. 17, 1987). In this regard, both the Senate Report and Conference Report refer to demand deposit-taking and commercial lending as examples of activities that could be affected by the activity limitation, not as the sole activities to be limited by the provision. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Conference Report at 124-125; S. Rep. No. 100-19 at 32.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) Finally, additional guidance as to the meaning of the term <I>activity</I> is provided by the statutory context in which the term appears. The activity limitation is contained in section 4 of the BHC Act, which regulates the investments and activities of bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries. The Board believes it reasonable to conclude that by placing the CEBA activity limitation in section 4 of the BHC Act, Congress meant that Board and judicial decisions regarding the meaning of the term <I>activity</I> in that section be looked to for guidance. This is particularly appropriate given the fact that grandfathered nonbank banks, whether owned by bank holding companies or unregulated holding companies, were treated as nonbank companies and not banks before enactment of CEBA.
</P>
<P>(v) This interpretation of the term activity draws support from comments by Senator Proxmire during the Senate's consideration of the provision that the term was not intended to apply “on a product-by-product, customer-by-customer basis.” 133 Cong. Rec. S4054-5 (daily ed. March 27, 1987). This is the same manner in which the Board has interpreted the term activity in the nonbanking provision of section 4 as referring to generic categories of activities, not to discrete products and services.
</P>
<P>(vi) Accordingly, consistent with the terms and purposes of the legislation and the Congressional intent to minimize unfair competition and the other adverse effects set out in the CEBA findings, the Board concludes that the term <I>activity</I> as used in section 4(f)(3) means any line of banking or nonbanking business. This definition does not, however, envision a product-by-product approach to the activity limitation. The Board believes it would be helpful to describe the application of the activity limitation in the context of the following major categories of activities: deposit-taking, lending, trust, and other activities engaged in by banks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposit-taking activities.</I> (i) With respect to deposit-taking, the Board believes that the activity limitation in section 4(f)(3) generally refers to three types of activity: demand deposit-taking; non-demand deposit-taking with a third party payment capability; and time and savings deposit-taking without third party payment powers. As previously discussed, it is clear from the terms and intent of CEBA that the activity limitation would prevent, and was designed to prevent, nonbank banks that prior to the enactment of CEBA had refrained from accepting demand deposits in order to avoid coverage as a <I>bank</I> under the BHC Act, from starting to take these deposits after enactment of CEBA and thus becoming full-service banks. Accordingly, CEBA requires that the taking of demand deposits be treated as a separate activity.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board also considers nondemand deposits withdrawable by check or other similar means for payment to third parties or others to constitute a separate line of business for purposes of applying the activity limitation. In this regard, the Board has previously recognized that this line of business constitutes a permissible but separate activity under section 4 of the BHC Act. Furthermore, the offering of accounts with transaction capability requires different expertise and systems than non-transaction deposit-taking and represented a distinct new activity that traditionally separated banks from thrift and similar institutions.
</P>
<P>(iii) Support for this view may also be found in the House Banking Committee report on proposed legislation prior to CEBA that contained a similar prohibition on new activities for nonbank banks. In discussing the activity limitation, the report recognized a distinction between demand deposits and accounts with transaction capability and those without transaction capability:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>With respect to deposits, the Committee recognizes that it is legitimate for an institution currently involved in offering demand deposits or other third party transaction accounts to make use of new technologies that are in the process of replacing the existing check-based, paper payment system. Again, however, the Committee does not believe that technology should be used as a lever for an institution that was only incidentally involved in the payment system to transform itself into a significant offeror of transaction account capability. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/></P></EXTRACT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> H. Rep. No. 99-175, 99th Cong., 1st Sess. 13 (1985).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) Finally, this distinction between demand and nondemand checkable accounts and accounts not subject to withdrawal by check was specifically recognized by Congress in the redefinition of the term <I>bank</I> in CEBA to include an institution that takes demand deposits or “deposits that the depositor may withdraw by check or other means for payment to third parties or others” as well as in various exemptions from that definition for trust companies, credit card banks, and certain industrial banks. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See 12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2) (D), (F), (H), and (I).</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) Thus, an institution that as of March 5, 1987, offered only time and savings accounts that were not withdrawable by check for payment to third parties could not thereafter begin offering accounts with transaction capability, for example, NOW accounts or other types of transaction accounts. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lending.</I> As noted, the CEBA activity limitation does not treat lending as a single activity; it clearly distinguishes between commercial and other types of lending. This distinction is also reflected in the definition of <I>bank</I> in the BHC Act in effect both prior to and after enactment of CEBA as well as in various of the exceptions from this definition. In addition, commercial lending is a specialized form of lending involving different techniques and analysis from other types of lending. Based upon these factors, the Board would view commercial lending as a separate and distinct activity for purposes of the activity limitation in section 4(f)(3). The Board's decisions under section 4 of the BHC Act have not generally differentiated between types of commercial lending, and thus the Board would view commercial lending as a single activity for purposes of CEBA. Thus, a nonbank bank that made commercial loans as of March 5, 1987, could make any type of commercial loan thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial lending.</I> For purposes of the activity limitation, a commercial loan is defined in accordance with the Supreme Court's decision in <I>Board of Governors</I> v. <I>Dimension Financial Corporation,</I> 474 U.S. 361 (1986), as a direct loan to a business customer for the purpose of providing funds for that customer's business. In this regard, the Board notes that whether a particular transaction is a commercial loan must be determined not from the face of the instrument, but from the application of the definition of commercial loan in the <I>Dimension</I> decision to that transaction. Thus, certain transactions of the type mentioned in the Board's ruling at issue in <I>Dimension</I> and in the Senate and Conference Reports in the CEBA legislation 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> would be commercial loans if they meet the test for commercial loans established in <I>Dimension.</I> Under this test, a commercial loan would not include, for example, an open-market investment in a commercial entity that does not involve a borrower-lender relationship or negotiation of credit terms, such as a money market transaction. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> S. Rep. No. 100-19 at 31; Conference Report at 123.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Other lending.</I> Based upon the guidance in the Act as to the degree of specificity required in applying the activity limitation with respect to lending, the Board believes that, in addition to commercial lending, there are three other types of lending activities: consumer mortgage lending, consumer credit card lending, and other consumer lending. Mortgage lending and credit card lending are recognized, discrete lines of banking and business activity, involving techniques and processes that are different from and more specialized than those required for general consumer lending. For example, these activities are, in many cases, conducted by specialized institutions, such as mortgage companies and credit card institutions, or through separate organizational structures within an institution, particularly in the case of mortgage lending. Additionally, the Board's decisions under section 4 of the Act have recognized mortgage banking and credit card lending as separate activities for bank holding companies. The Board's Regulation Y reflects this specialization, noting as examples of permissible lending activity: consumer finance, credit card and mortgage lending. 12 CFR 225.25(b)(1). Finally, CEBA itself recognizes the specialized nature of credit card lending by exempting an institution specializing in that activity from the bank definition. For purpose of the activity limitation, a consumer mortgage loan will mean any loan to an individual that is secured by real estate and that is not a commercial loan. A credit card loan would be any loan made to an individual by means of a credit card that is not a commercial loan. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Trust activities.</I> Under section 4 of the Act, the Board has historically treated trust activities as a single activity and has not differentiated the function on the basis of whether the customer was an individual or a business. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 225.25(b)(3). Similarly, the trust company exemption from the bank definition in CEBA makes no distinction between various types of trust activities. Accordingly, the Board would view trust activities as a separate activity without additional differentiation for purposes of the activity limitation in section 4(f)(3). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other activities.</I> With respect to activities other than the various traditional deposit-taking, lending or trust activities, the Board believes it appropriate, for the reasons discussed above, to apply the activity limitation in section 4(f)(3) as the term <I>activity</I> generally applies in other provisions of section 4 of the BHC Act. Thus, a grandfathered nonbank bank could not, for example, commence after March 5, 1987, any of the following activities (unless it was engaged in such an activity as of that date): discount securities brokerage, full-service securities brokerage investment advisory services, underwriting or dealing in government securities as permissible for member banks, foreign exchange transaction services, real or personal property leasing, courier services, data processing for third parties, insurance agency activities, 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> real estate development, real estate brokerage, real estate syndication, insurance underwriting, management consulting, futures commission merchant, or activities of the general type listed in § 225.25(b) of Regulation Y.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> In this area, section 4 of the Act does not treat all insurance agency activities as a single activity. Thus, for example, the Act treats the sale of credit-related life, accident and health insurance as a separate activity from general insurance agency activities. See 12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8).</P></FTNT>
<P>(6) <I>Meaning of engaged in.</I> In order to be <I>engaged in</I> an activity, a nonbank bank must demonstrate that it had a program in place to provide a particular product or service included within the grandfathered activity to a customer and that it was in fact offering the product or service to customers as of March 5, 1987. Thus, a nonbank bank is not engaged in an activity as of March 5, 1987, if the product or service in question was in a planning state as of that date and had not been offered or delivered to a customer. Consistent with prior Board interpretations of the term activity in the grandfather provisions of section 4, the Board does not believe that a company may be engaged in an activity on the basis of a single isolated transaction that was not part of a program to offer the particular product or to conduct in the activity on an ongoing basis. For example, a nonbank bank that held an interest in a single real estate project would not thereby be engaged in real estate development for purposes of this provision, unless evidence was presented indicating the interest was held under a program to commence a real estate development business.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Meaning of as of</I> The Board believes that the grandfather date “as of March 5, 1987” as used throughout section 4(f)(3) should refer to activities engaged in on March 5, 1987, or a reasonably short period preceding this date not exceeding 13 months. 133 Cong. Rec. S3957 (daily ed. March 26, 1987). (Remarks of Senators Dodd and Proxmire). Activities that the institution had terminated prior to March 5, 1988, however, would not be considered to have been conducted or engaged in <I>as of</I> March 5. For example, if within 13 months of March 5, 1987, the nonbank bank had terminated its commercial lending activity in order to avoid the <I>bank</I> definition in the Act, the nonbank bank could not recommence that activity after enactment of CEBA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cross-marketing limitation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Section 4(f)(3) also limits cross-marketing activities by nonbank banks and their affiliates. Under this provision, a nonbank bank may not offer or market a product or service of an affiliate unless the product or service may be offered by bank holding companies generally under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act. In addition, a nonbank bank may not permit any of its products or services to be offered or marketed by or through a nonbank affiliate unless the affiliate engages only in activities permissible for a bank holding company under section 4(c)(8). These limitations are subject to an exception for products or services that were being so offered or marketed as of March 5, 1987, but only in the same manner in which they were being offered or marketed as of that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of impermissible cross-marketing.</I> The Conference Report illustrates the application of this limitation to the following two covered transactions: (i) products and services of an affiliate that bank holding companies may not offer under the BHC Act, and (ii) products and services of the nonbank bank. In the first case, the restrictions would prohibit, for example, a company from marketing life insurance or automotive supplies through its affiliate nonbank bank because these products are not generally permissible under the BHC Act. Conference Report at 126. In the second case, a nonbank bank may not permit its products or services to be offered or marketed through a life insurance affiliate or automobile parts retailer because these affiliates engage in activities prohibited under the BHC Act. <I>Id.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permissible cross-marketing.</I> On the other hand, a nonbank bank could offer to its customers consumer loans from an affiliated mortgage banking or consumer finance company. These affiliates could likewise offer their customers the nonbank bank's products or services provided the affiliates engaged only in activities permitted for bank holding companies under the closely-related-to-banking standard of section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act. If the affiliate is engaged in both permissible and impermissible activities within the meaning of section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act, however, the affiliate could not offer or market the nonbank bank's products or services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Product approach to cross-marketing restriction.</I> (i) Unlike the activity restrictions, the cross-marketing restrictions of CEBA apply by their terms to individual products and services. Thus, an affiliate of a nonbank bank that was engaged in activities that are not permissible for bank holding companies and that was marketing a particular product or service of a nonbank bank on the grandfather date could continue to market that product and, as discussed below, could change the terms and conditions of the loan. The nonbank affiliate could not, however, begin to offer or market another product or service of the nonbank bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board believes that the term <I>product or service</I> must be interpreted in light of its accepted ordinary commercial usage. In some instances, commercial usage has identified a group of products so closely related that they constitute a product line (<I>e.g.,</I> certificates of deposit) and differences in versions of the product (<I>e.g.,</I> a one-year certificate of deposit) simply represent a difference in the terms of the product. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> This approach is consistent with the treatment in CEBA's legislative history of certificates of deposit as a product line rather than each particular type of CD as a separate product. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> American Bankers Association, <I>Banking Terminology</I> (1981).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> During the Senate debates on CEBA, Senator Proxmire in response to a statement from Senator Cranston that the joint-marketing restrictions do not lock into place the specific terms or conditions of the particular grandfathered product or service, stated:
</P>
<P>That is correct. For example, if a nonbank bank was jointly marketing on March 5, 1987, a 3 year, $5,000 certificate of deposit, this bill would not prohibit offering in the same manner a 1 year, $2,000 certificate of deposit with a different interest rate. 133 Cong. Rec. S3959 (daily ed. March 26, 1987).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) In the area of consumer lending, the Board believes the following provide examples of different consumer loan products: mortgage loans to finance the purchase of the borrower's residence, unsecured consumer loans, consumer installment loans secured by the personal property to be purchased (<I>e.g.</I> automobile, boat or home appliance loans), or second mortgage loans. 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> Under this interpretation, a nonbank bank that offered automobile loans through a nonbank affiliate on the grandfather date could market boat loans, appliance loans or any type of secured consumer installment loan through that affiliate. It could not, however, market unsecured consumer loans, home mortgage loans or other types of consumer loans.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> In this regard, the Supreme Court in <I>United States</I> v. <I>Philadelphia National Bank,</I> noted that “the principal banking products are of course various types of credit, for example: unsecured personal and business loans, mortgage loans, loans secured by securities or accounts receivable, automobile installment and consumer goods, installment loans, tuition financing, bank credit cards, revolving credit funds.” 374 U.S. 321, 326 n.5 (1963).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) In other areas, the Board believes that the determination as to what constitutes a product or service should be made on a case-by-case basis consistent with the principles that the terms <I>product or service</I> must be interpreted in accordance with their ordinary commercial usage and must be narrower in scope than the definition of activity. Essentially, the concept applied in this analysis is one of permitting the continuation of the specific product marketing activity that was undertaken as of March 5, 1987. Thus, for example, while insurance underwriting may constitute a separate activity under CEBA, a nonbank bank could not market a life insurance policy issued by the affiliate if on the grandfather date it had only marketed homeowners' policies issued by the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Change in terms and conditions permitted.</I> (i) The cross-marketing restrictions would not limit the ability of the institution to change the specific terms and conditions of a particular grandfathered product or service. The Conference Report indicates a legislative intent not to lock into place the specific terms or conditions of a grandfathered product or service. Conference Report at 126. For example, a nonbank bank marketing a three-year, $5,000 certificate of deposit through an affiliate under the exemption could offer a one-year $2,000 certificate of deposit with a different interest rate after the grandfather date. <I>See</I> footnote 11 above. Modifications that alter the type of product, however, are not permitted. Thus, a nonbank bank that marketed through affiliates on March 5, 1987, only certificates of deposit could not commence marketing MMDA's or NOW accounts after the grandfather date.
</P>
<P>(ii) General changes in the character of the product or service as the result of market or technological innovation are similarly permitted to the extent that they do not transform a grandfathered product into a new product. Thus, an unsecured line of credit could not be modified to include a lien on the borrower's residence without becoming a new product.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Meaning of offer or market.</I> In the Board's opinion, the terms <I>offer or market</I> in the cross-marketing restrictions refer to the presentation to a customer of an institution's products or service through any type of program, including telemarketing, advertising brochures, direct mailing, personal solicitation, customer referrals, or joint-marketing agreements or presentations. An institution must have offered or actually marketed the product or service on March 5 or shortly before that date (as discussed above) to qualify for the grandfather privilege. Thus, if the cross-marketing program was in the planning stage on March 5, 1987, the program would not quality for grandfather treatment under CEBA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Limitations on cross-marketing to in the same manner.</I> (i) The cross-marketing restriction in section 4(f)(3) contains a grandfather provision that permits products or services that would otherwise be prohibited from being offered or marketed under the provision to continue to be offered or marketed by a particular entity if the products or services were being so offered or marketed as of March 5, 1987, but “only in the same manner in which they were being offered or marketed as of that date.” Thus, to qualify for the grandfather provision, the manner of offering or marketing the otherwise prohibited product or service must remain the same as on the grandfather date.
</P>
<P>(ii) In interpreting this provision, the Board notes that Congress designed the joint-marketing restrictions to prevent the significant risk to the public posed by the conduct of such activities by insured banks affiliated with companies engaged in general commerce, to ensure objectivity in the credit-granting process and to “minimize the unfair competitive advantage that grandfathered commercial companies owning nonbank banks might otherwise engage over regulated bank holding companies and our competing commercial companies that have no subsidiary bank.” Conference Report at 125-126. The Board believes that determinations regarding the manner of cross-marketing of a particular product or service may best be accomplished by applying the limitation to the particular facts in each case consistent with the stated purpose of this provision of CEBA and the general principle that grandfather restrictions and exceptions to general prohibitions must be narrowly construed in order to prevent the exception from nullifying the rule. Essentially, as in the scope of the term “product or service”, the guiding principle of Congressional intent with respect to this term is to permit only the continuation of the specific types of cross-marketing activity that were undertaken as of March 5, 1987.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Eligibility for cross-marketing grandfather exemption.</I> The Conference Report also clarifies that entitlement to an exemption to continue to cross-market products and services otherwise prohibited by the statute applies only to the specific company that was engaged in the activity as of March 5, 1987. Conference Report at 126. Thus, an affiliate that was not engaged in cross-marketing products or services as of the grandfather date may not commence these activities under the exemption even if such activities were being conducted by another affiliate. <I>Id.</I>; <I>see also</I> S. Rep. No. 100-19 at 33-34.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligibility for grandfathered nonbank bank status.</I> In reviewing the reports required by CEBA, the Board notes that a number of institutions that had not commenced business operations on August 10, 1987, the date of enactment of CEBA, claimed grandfather privileges under section 4(f)(3) of CEBA. To qualify for grandfather privileges under section 4(f)(3), the institution must have “bec[o]me a bank as a result of the enactment of [CEBA]” and must have been controlled by a nonbanking company on March 5, 1987. 12 U.S.C. 1843(f)(1)(A). An institution that did not have FDIC insurance on August 10, 1987, and that did not accept demand deposits or transaction accounts or engage in the business of commercial lending on that date, would not have become a <I>bank</I> as a result of enactment of CEBA. Thus, institutions that had not commenced operations on August 10, 1987, could not qualify for grandfather privileges under section 4(f)(3) of CEBA. This view is supported by the activity limitations of section 4(f)(3), which, as noted, limit the activities of grandfathered nonbank banks to those in which they were lawfully engaged as of March 5, 1987. A nonbank bank that had not commenced conducting business activities on March 5, 1987, could not after enactment of CEBA engage in any activities under this provision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 53 FR 37746, Sept. 28, 1988, as amended by Reg. Y, 62 FR 9343, Feb. 28, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Merchant Banking Investments</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 66 FR 8484, Jan. 31, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.170" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.170   What type of investments are permitted by this subpart, and under what conditions may they be made?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What types of investments are permitted by this subpart?</I> Section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) and this subpart authorize a financial holding company, directly or indirectly and as principal or on behalf of one or more persons, to acquire or control any amount of shares, assets or ownership interests of a company or other entity that is engaged in any activity not otherwise authorized for the financial holding company under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act. For purposes of this subpart, shares, assets or ownership interests acquired or controlled under section 4(k)(4)(H) and this subpart are referred to as “merchant banking investments.” A financial holding company may not directly or indirectly acquire or control any merchant banking investment except in compliance with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Must the investment be a bona fide merchant banking investment?</I> The acquisition or control of shares, assets or ownership interests under this subpart is not permitted unless it is part of a bona fide underwriting or merchant or investment banking activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What types of ownership interests may be acquired?</I> Shares, assets or ownership interests of a company or other entity include any debt or equity security, warrant, option, partnership interest, trust certificate or other instrument representing an ownership interest in the company or entity, whether voting or nonvoting. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where in a financial holding company may merchant banking investments be made?</I> A financial holding company and any subsidiary (other than a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution) may acquire or control merchant banking investments. A financial holding company and its subsidiaries may not acquire or control merchant banking investments on behalf of a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>May assets other than shares be held directly?</I> A financial holding company may not under this subpart acquire or control assets, other than debt or equity securities or other ownership interests in a company, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The assets are held by or promptly transferred to a portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(2) The portfolio company maintains policies, books and records, accounts, and other indicia of corporate, partnership or limited liability organization and operation that are separate from the financial holding company and limit the legal liability of the financial holding company for obligations of the portfolio company; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The portfolio company has management that is separate from the financial holding company to the extent required by § 225.171. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>What type of affiliate is required for a financial holding company to make merchant banking investments?</I> A financial holding company may not acquire or control merchant banking investments under this subpart unless the financial holding company qualifies under at least one of the following paragraphs: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Securities affiliate.</I> The financial holding company is or has an affiliate that is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c, 78o, 78o-4) as: 
</P>
<P>(i) A broker or dealer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A municipal securities dealer, including a separately identifiable department or division of a bank that is registered as a municipal securities dealer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insurance affiliate with an investment adviser affiliate.</I> The financial holding company controls: 
</P>
<P>(i) An insurance company that is predominantly engaged in underwriting life, accident and health, or property and casualty insurance (other than credit-related insurance), or providing and issuing annuities; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A company that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>); and 
</P>
<P>(B) Provides investment advice to an insurance company. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.171" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.171   What are the limitations on managing or operating a portfolio company held as a merchant banking investment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>May a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I> Except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section, a financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate any portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When does a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a company?</I>—(1) <I>Examples of routine management or operation</I>—(i) <I>Executive officer interlocks at the portfolio company.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any director, officer or employee of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an executive officer of the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Interlocks by executive officers of the financial holding company. (A) <I>Prohibition.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any executive officer of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an officer or employee of the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, the term “financial holding company” includes the financial holding company and only the following subsidiaries of the financial holding company: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A securities broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An affiliate that engages in merchant banking activities under this subpart or insurance company investment activities under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)); 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A small business investment company (as defined in section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682(b)) controlled by the financial holding company or by any depository institution controlled by the financial holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any other affiliate that engages in significant equity investment activities that are subject to a special capital charge under the capital adequacy rules or guidelines of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covenants regarding ordinary course of business.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any covenant or other contractual arrangement exists between the financial holding company and the portfolio company that would restrict the portfolio company's ability to make routine business decisions, such as entering into transactions in the ordinary course of business or hiring officers or employees other than executive officers. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presumptions of routine management or operation.</I> A financial holding company is presumed to routinely manage or operate a portfolio company if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any director, officer, or employee of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an officer (other than an executive officer) or employee of the portfolio company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer or employee of the portfolio company is supervised by any director, officer, or employee of the financial holding company (other than in that individual's capacity as a director of the portfolio company). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How may a financial holding company rebut a presumption that it is routinely managing or operating a portfolio company?</I> A financial holding company may rebut a presumption that it is routinely managing or operating a portfolio company under paragraph (b)(2) of this section by presenting information to the Board demonstrating to the Board's satisfaction that the financial holding company is not routinely managing or operating the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What arrangements do not involve routinely managing or operating a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>Director representation at portfolio companies.</I> A financial holding company may select any or all of the directors of a portfolio company or have one or more of its directors, officers, or employees serve as directors of a portfolio company if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The portfolio company employs officers and employees responsible for routinely managing and operating the company; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial holding company does not routinely manage or operate the portfolio company, except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covenants or other provisions regarding extraordinary events.</I> A financial holding company may, by virtue of covenants or other written agreements with a portfolio company, restrict the ability of the portfolio company, or require the portfolio company to consult with or obtain the approval of the financial holding company, to take actions outside of the ordinary course of the business of the portfolio company. Examples of the types of actions that may be subject to these types of covenants or agreements include, but are not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition of significant assets or control of another company by the portfolio company or any of its subsidiaries; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal or selection of an independent accountant or auditor or investment banker by the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Significant changes to the business plan or accounting methods or policies of the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Removal or replacement of any or all of the executive officers of the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(v) The redemption, authorization or issuance of any equity or debt securities (including options, warrants or convertible shares) of the portfolio company or any borrowing by the portfolio company outside of the ordinary course of business; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendment of the articles of incorporation or by-laws (or similar governing documents) of the portfolio company; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) The sale, merger, consolidation, spin-off, recapitalization, liquidation, dissolution or sale of substantially all of the assets of the portfolio company or any of its significant subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Providing advisory and underwriting services to, and having consultations with, a portfolio company.</I> A financial holding company may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide financial, investment and management consulting advice to a portfolio company in a manner consistent with and subject to any restrictions on such activities contained in §§ 225.28(b)(6) or 225.86(b)(1) of this part (12 CFR 225.28(b)(6) and 225.86(b)(1)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide assistance to a portfolio company in connection with the underwriting or private placement of its securities, including acting as the underwriter or placement agent for such securities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Meet with the officers or employees of a portfolio company to monitor or provide advice with respect to the portfolio company's performance or activities. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When may a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>Special circumstances required.</I> A financial holding company may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company only when intervention by the financial holding company is necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on the financial holding company's investment in the portfolio company upon resale or other disposition of the investment, such as to avoid or address a significant operating loss or in connection with a loss of senior management at the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration Limited.</I> A financial holding company may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company only for the period of time as may be necessary to address the cause of the financial holding company's involvement, to obtain suitable alternative management arrangements, to dispose of the investment, or to otherwise obtain a reasonable return upon the resale or disposition of the investment. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice required for extended involvement.</I> A financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company for a period greater than nine months without prior written notice to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation required.</I> A financial holding company must maintain and make available to the Board upon request a written record describing its involvement in routinely managing or operating a portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>May a depository institution or its subsidiary routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A depository institution and a subsidiary of a depository institution may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company in which an affiliated company owns or controls an interest under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition applying provisions governing routine management or operation.</I> For purposes of this section other than paragraph (e) and for purposes of § 225.173(d), a financial holding company includes a depository institution controlled by the financial holding company and a subsidiary of such a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for certain subsidiaries of depository institutions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, a financial holding company includes a financial subsidiary held in accordance with section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) or section 46 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w), and a subsidiary that is a small business investment company and that is held in accordance with the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>), and such a subsidiary may, in accordance with the limitations set forth in this section, routinely manage or operate a portfolio company in which an affiliated company owns or controls an interest under this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.172" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.172   What are the holding periods permitted for merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Must investments be made for resale?</I> A financial holding company may own or control shares, assets and ownership interests pursuant to this subpart only for a period of time to enable the sale or disposition thereof on a reasonable basis consistent with the financial viability of the financial holding company's merchant banking investment activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What period of time is generally permitted for holding merchant banking investments?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in this section or § 225.173, a financial holding company may not, directly or indirectly, own, control or hold any share, asset or ownership interest pursuant to this subpart for a period that exceeds 10 years. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ownership interests acquired from or transferred to companies held under this subpart.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shares, assets or ownership interests—
</P>
<P>(i) Acquired by a financial holding company from a company in which the financial holding company held an interest under this subpart will be considered to have been acquired by the financial holding company on the date that the share, asset or ownership interest was acquired by the company; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquired by a company from a financial holding company will be considered to have been acquired by the company on the date that the share, asset or ownership interest was acquired by the financial holding company if—
</P>
<P>(A) The financial holding company held the share, asset, or ownership interest under this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The financial holding company holds an interest in the acquiring company under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interests previously held by a financial holding company under limited authority.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any shares, assets, or ownership interests previously owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by a financial holding company under any other provision of the Federal banking laws that imposes a limited holding period will if acquired under this subpart be considered to have been acquired by the financial holding company under this subpart on the date the financial holding company first acquired ownership or control of the shares, assets or ownership interests under such other provision of law. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), a financial holding company includes a depository institution controlled by the financial holding company and any subsidiary of such a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Approval required to hold interests held in excess of time limit.</I> A financial holding company may seek Board approval to own, control or hold shares, assets or ownership interests of a company under this subpart for a period that exceeds the period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. A request for approval must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the reasons for the request, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (b)(5) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the financial holding company's plan for divesting the shares, assets or ownership interests. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Factors governing Board determinations.</I> In reviewing any proposal under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the investment, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The cost to the financial holding company of disposing of the investment within the applicable period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total exposure of the financial holding company to the company and the risks that disposing of the investment may pose to the financial holding company; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Market conditions; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The nature of the portfolio company's business; 
</P>
<P>(v) The extent and history of involvement by the financial holding company in the management and operations of the company; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The average holding period of the financial holding company's merchant banking investments. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Restrictions applicable to investments held beyond time period.</I> A financial holding company that directly or indirectly owns, controls or holds any share, asset or ownership interest of a company under this subpart for a total period that exceeds the period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of determining the financial holding company's regulatory capital, apply to the financial holding company's adjusted carrying value of such shares, assets, or ownership interests a capital charge determined by the Board that must be: 
</P>
<P>(A) Higher than the maximum marginal tier 1 capital charge applicable under part 217 to merchant banking investments held by that financial holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) In no event less than 25 percent of the adjusted carrying value of the investment; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Abide by any other restrictions that the Board may impose in connection with granting approval under paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9329, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 78 FR 62291, Oct. 11, 2013; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.173" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.173   How are investments in private equity funds treated under this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is a private equity fund?</I> For purposes of this subpart, a “private equity fund” is any company that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is formed for the purpose of and is engaged exclusively in the business of investing in shares, assets, and ownership interests of financial and nonfinancial companies for resale or other disposition; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not an operating company; 
</P>
<P>(3) No more than 25 percent of the total equity of which is held, owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by the financial holding company and its directors, officers, employees and principal shareholders; 
</P>
<P>(4) Has a maximum term of not more than 15 years; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Is not formed or operated for the purpose of making investments inconsistent with the authority granted under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) or evading the limitations governing merchant banking investments contained in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What form may a private equity fund take?</I> A private equity fund may be a corporation, partnership, limited liability company or other type of company that issues ownership interests in any form. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is the holding period permitted for interests in private equity funds?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A financial holding company may own, control or hold any interest in a private equity fund under this subpart and any interest in a portfolio company that is owned or controlled by a private equity fund in which the financial holding company owns or controls any interest under this subpart for the duration of the fund, up to a maximum of 15 years. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request to hold interest for longer period.</I> A financial holding company may seek Board approval to own, control or hold an interest in or held through a private equity fund for a period longer than the duration of the fund in accordance with § 225.172(b) of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application of rules.</I> The rules described in § 225.172(b)(2) and (3) governing holding periods of interests acquired, transferred or previously held by a financial holding company apply to interests in, held through, or acquired from a private equity fund. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do the restrictions on routine management and operation apply to private equity funds and investments held through a private equity fund?</I>—(1) <I>Portfolio companies held through a private equity fund.</I> A financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company that is owned or controlled by a private equity fund in which the financial holding company owns or controls any interest under this subpart, except as permitted under § 225.171(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Private equity funds controlled by a financial holding company.</I> A private equity fund that is controlled by a financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company, except as permitted under § 225.171(e). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Private equity funds that are not controlled by a financial holding company.</I> A private equity fund may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company so long as no financial holding company controls the private equity fund or as permitted under § 225.171(e). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>When does a financial holding company control a private equity fund?</I> A financial holding company controls a private equity fund for purposes of this subpart if the financial holding company, including any director, officer, employee or principal shareholder of the financial holding company: 
</P>
<P>(i) Serves as a general partner, managing member, or trustee of the private equity fund (or serves in a similar role with respect to the private equity fund); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Owns or controls 25 percent or more of any class of voting shares or similar interests in the private equity fund; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In any manner selects, controls or constitutes a majority of the directors, trustees or management of the private equity fund; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Owns or controls more than 5 percent of any class of voting shares or similar interests in the private equity fund and is the investment adviser to the fund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.174" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.174   What aggregate thresholds apply to merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A financial holding company may not, without Board approval, directly or indirectly acquire any additional shares, assets or ownership interests under this subpart or make any additional capital contribution to any company the shares, assets or ownership interests of which are held by the financial holding company under this subpart if the aggregate carrying value of all merchant banking investments held by the financial holding company under this subpart exceeds: 
</P>
<P>(1) 30 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company; or 
</P>
<P>(2) After excluding interests in private equity funds, 20 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do these thresholds apply to a private equity fund?</I> Paragraph (a) of this section applies to the interest acquired or controlled by the financial holding company under this subpart in a private equity fund. Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any interest in a company held by a private equity fund or to any interest held by a person that is not affiliated with the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How long do these thresholds remain in effect?</I> This § 225.174 shall cease to be effective on the date that a final rule issued by the Board that specifically addresses the appropriate regulatory capital treatment of merchant banking investments becomes effective. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this section, a financial holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) calculates its Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 66 FR 8484, Jan. 31, 2001, as amended at 84 FR 61801, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.175" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.175   What risk management, record keeping and reporting policies are required to make merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What internal controls and records are necessary?</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A financial holding company, including a private equity fund controlled by a financial holding company, that makes investments under this subpart must establish and maintain policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to conduct, monitor and manage such investment activities and the risks associated with such investment activities in a safe and sound manner, including policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor and assess the carrying value, market value and performance of each investment and the aggregate portfolio; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify and manage the market, credit, concentration and other risks associated with such investments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify, monitor and assess the terms, amounts and risks arising from transactions and relationships (including contingent fees or contingent interests) with each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the maintenance of corporate separateness between the financial holding company and each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart and protect the financial holding company and its depository institution subsidiaries from legal liability for the operations conducted and financial obligations of each such company; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure compliance with this part and any other provisions of law governing transactions and relationships with companies in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this subpart (<I>e.g.,</I> fiduciary principles or sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1), if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of records.</I> A financial holding company must make the policies, procedures and records required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section available to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank upon request. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What periodic reports must be filed?</I> A financial holding company must provide reports to the appropriate Reserve Bank in such format and at such times as the Board may prescribe. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Is notice required for the acquisition of companies?</I>—(1) <I>Fulfillment of statutory notice requirement.</I> Except as required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, no post-acquisition notice under section 4(k)(6) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(6)) is required by a financial holding company in connection with an investment made under this subpart if the financial holding company has previously filed a notice under § 225.87 indicating that it had commenced merchant banking investment activities under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of large individual investments.</I> A financial holding company must provide written notice to the Board on the appropriate form within 30 days after acquiring more than 5 percent of the voting shares, assets or ownership interests of any company under this subpart, including an interest in a private equity fund, at a total cost to the financial holding company that exceeds the lesser of 5 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company or $200 million. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), a financial holding company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) calculates its Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter) in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 66 FR 8484, Jan. 31, 2001, as amended at 84 FR 61801, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.176" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.176   How do the statutory cross marketing and sections 23A and B limitations apply to merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Are cross marketing activities prohibited?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A depository institution, including a subsidiary of a depository institution, controlled by a financial holding company may not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Offer or market, directly or through any arrangement, any product or service of any company if more than 5 percent of the company's voting shares, assets or ownership interests are owned or controlled by the financial holding company pursuant to this subpart; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Allow any product or service of the depository institution, including any product or service of a subsidiary of the depository institution, to be offered or marketed, directly or through any arrangement, by or through any company described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How are certain subsidiaries treated?</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a subsidiary of a depository institution does not include a financial subsidiary held in accordance with section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) or section 46 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. (12 U.S.C. 1831w), any company held by a company owned in accordance with section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.;</I> 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>), or any company held by a small business investment company owned in accordance with the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How do the cross marketing restrictions apply to private equity funds?</I> The restriction contained in paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Portfolio companies held by a private equity fund that the financial holding company does not control; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The sale, offer or marketing of any interest in a private equity fund, whether or not controlled by the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When are companies held under section 4(k)(4)(H) affiliates under sections 23A and B?</I>—(1) <I>Rebuttable presumption of control.</I> The following rebuttable presumption of control shall apply for purposes of sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1): if a financial holding company directly or indirectly owns or controls more than 15 percent of the total equity of a company pursuant to this subpart, the company shall be presumed to be an affiliate of any member bank that is affiliated with the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request to rebut presumption.</I> A financial holding company may rebut this presumption by providing information acceptable to the Board demonstrating that the financial holding company does not control the company. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Presumptions that control does not exist.</I> Absent evidence to the contrary, the presumption in paragraph (b)(1) of this section will be considered to have been rebutted without Board approval under paragraph (b)(2) of this section if any one of the following requirements are met: 
</P>
<P>(i) No officer, director or employee of the financial holding company serves as a director, trustee, or general partner (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the financial holding company owns or controls a greater percentage of the equity capital of the portfolio company than the amount owned or controlled by the financial holding company, and no more than one officer or employee of the holding company serves as a director or trustee (or individual exercising similar functions) of the company; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A person that is not affiliated or associated with the financial holding company owns or controls more than 50 percent of the voting shares of the portfolio company, and officers and employees of the holding company do not constitute a majority of the directors or trustees (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Convertible instruments.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, equity capital includes options, warrants and any other instrument convertible into equity capital. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Application of presumption to private equity funds.</I> A financial holding company will not be presumed to own or control the equity capital of a company for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section solely by virtue of an investment made by the financial holding company in a private equity fund that owns or controls the equity capital of the company unless the financial holding company controls the private equity fund as described in § 225.173(d)(4). 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Application of sections 23A and B to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks.</I> Sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1) shall apply to all covered transactions between each U.S. branch and agency of a foreign bank that acquires or controls, or that is affiliated with a company that acquires or controls, merchant banking investments and—
</P>
<P>(i) Any portfolio company that the foreign bank or affiliated company controls or is presumed to control under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that the foreign bank or affiliated company controls or is presumed to control under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the company is engaged in acquiring or controlling merchant banking investments and the proceeds of the covered transaction are used for the purpose of funding the company's merchant banking investment activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.177" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.10.7.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.177   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What do references to a financial holding company include?</I> (1) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the term “financial holding company” as used in this subpart means the financial holding company and all of its subsidiaries, including a private equity fund or other fund controlled by the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the term “financial holding company” does not include a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution or any portfolio company controlled directly or indirectly by the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What do references to a depository institution include?</I> For purposes of this subpart, the term “depository institution” includes a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is a portfolio company?</I> A portfolio company is any company or entity: 
</P>
<P>(1) That is engaged in any activity not authorized for the financial holding company under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any shares, assets or ownership interests of which are held, owned or controlled directly or indirectly by the financial holding company pursuant to this subpart, including through a private equity fund that the financial holding company controls. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Who are the executive officers of a company? </I> (1) An executive officer of a company is any person who participates or has the authority to participate (other than in the capacity as a director) in major policymaking functions of the company, whether or not the officer has an official title, the title designates the officer as an assistant, or the officer serves without salary or other compensation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term “executive officer” does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Any person, including a person with an official title, who may exercise a certain measure of discretion in the performance of his duties, including the discretion to make decisions in the ordinary course of the company's business, but who does not participate in the determination of major policies of the company and whose decisions are limited by policy standards fixed by senior management of the company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who is excluded from participating (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the company by resolution of the board of directors or by the bylaws of the company and who does not in fact participate in such policymaking functions.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Proprietary Trading and Relationships With Hedge Funds and Private Equity Funds</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 8275, Feb. 14, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.180" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.11.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.180   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Banking entity</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Any company that controls an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Any company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any affiliate or subsidiary of any of the foregoing entities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hedge fund</I> and <I>private equity fund</I> mean an issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), but for section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act, or such similar funds as the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the Securities and Exchange Commission, and the Commodity Futures Trading Commission may, by rule, as provided in section 13(b)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(b)(2)), determine.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as given that term in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813), except that for purposes of this subpart the term shall not include an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity if—
</P>
<P>(1) All or substantially all of the deposits of such institution are in trust funds and are received in a bona fide fiduciary capacity;
</P>
<P>(2) No deposits of such institution which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation are offered or marketed by or through an affiliate of such institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Such institution does not accept demand deposits or deposits that the depositor may withdraw by check or similar means for payment to third parties or others or make commercial loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such institution does not—
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain payment or payment related services from any Federal Reserve bank, including any service referred to in section 11A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exercise discount or borrowing privileges pursuant to section 19(b)(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 416(b)(7)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board of Governors, as defined in section 102 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5311).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Illiquid fund</I> means a hedge fund or private equity fund that:
</P>
<P>(1) As of May 1, 2010—
</P>
<P>(i) Was principally invested in illiquid assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Was invested in, and contractually committed to principally invest in, illiquid assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Makes all investments pursuant to, and consistent with, an investment strategy to principally invest in illiquid assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Illiquid assets</I> means any real property, security, obligation, or other asset that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is not a liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(2) Because of statutory or regulatory restrictions applicable to the hedge fund, private equity fund or asset, cannot be offered, sold, or otherwise transferred by the hedge fund or private equity fund to a person that is unaffiliated with the relevant banking entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Because of contractual restrictions applicable to the hedge fund, private equity fund or asset, cannot be offered, sold, or otherwise transferred by the hedge fund or private equity fund for a period of 3 years or more to a person that is unaffiliated with the relevant banking entity.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Liquid asset</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash or cash equivalents;
</P>
<P>(2) An asset that is traded on a recognized, established exchange, trading facility or other market on which there exist independent, bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined for the particular asset almost instantaneously;
</P>
<P>(3) An asset for which there are bona fide, competitive bid and offer quotations in a recognized inter-dealer quotation system or similar system or for which multiple dealers furnish bona fide, competitive bid and offer quotations to other brokers and dealers on request;
</P>
<P>(4) An asset the price of which is quoted routinely in a widely disseminated publication that is readily available to the general public or through an electronic service that provides indicative data from real-time financial networks;
</P>
<P>(5) An asset with an initial term of one year or less and the payments on which at maturity may be settled, closed-out, or paid in cash or one or more other liquid assets described in paragraphs (h)(1), (2), (3), or (4); and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other asset that the Board determines, based on all the facts and circumstances, is a liquid asset.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Principally invested</I> and related definitions. A hedge fund or private equity fund:
</P>
<P>(1) Is <I>principally invested</I> in illiquid assets if at least 75 percent of the fund's consolidated total assets are—
</P>
<P>(i) Illiquid assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk-mitigating hedges entered into in connection with and related to individual or aggregated positions in, or holdings of, illiquid assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Is <I>contractually committed to principally invest</I> in illiquid assets if the fund's organizational documents, other documents that constitute a contractual obligation of the fund, or written representations contained in the fund's offering materials distributed to potential investors provide for the fund to be principally invested in assets described in paragraph (i)(1) at all times other than during temporary periods, such as the period prior to the initial receipt of capital contributions from investors or the period during which the fund's investments are being liquidated and capital and profits are being returned to investors; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has an <I>investment strategy to principally invest</I> in illiquid assets if the fund—
</P>
<P>(i) Markets or holds itself out to investors as intending to principally invest in assets described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a documented investment policy of principally investing in assets described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.181" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.11.7.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.181   Conformance Period for Banking Entities Engaged in Prohibited Proprietary Trading or Private Fund Activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conformance Period</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) or (3) of this section, a banking entity shall bring its activities and investments into compliance with the requirements of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart no later than 2 years after the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) July 21, 2012; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Twelve months after the date on which final rules adopted under section 13(b)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(b)(2)) are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New banking entities.</I> A company that was not a banking entity, or a subsidiary or affiliate of a banking entity, as of July 21, 2010, and becomes a banking entity, or a subsidiary or affiliate of a banking entity, after that date shall bring its activities and investments into compliance with the requirements of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart before the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The conformance date determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Two years after the date on which the company becomes a banking entity or a subsidiary or affiliate of a banking entity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extended conformance period.</I> The Board may extend the two-year period under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section by not more than three separate one-year periods, if, in the judgment of the Board, each such one-year extension is consistent with the purposes of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart and would not be detrimental to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Illiquid funds</I>—(1) <I>Extended transition period.</I> The Board may further extend the period provided by paragraph (a) of this section during which a banking entity may acquire or retain an equity, partnership, or other ownership interest in, or otherwise provide additional capital to, a private equity fund or hedge fund if—
</P>
<P>(i) The fund is an illiquid fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or retention of such interest, or provision of additional capital, is necessary to fulfill a contractual obligation of the banking entity that was in effect on May 1, 2010.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration limited.</I> The Board may grant a banking entity only one extension under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and such extension—
</P>
<P>(i) May not exceed 5 years beyond any conformance period granted under paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall terminate automatically on the date during any such extension on which the banking entity is no longer under a contractual obligation described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contractual obligation.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)—
</P>
<P>(i) A banking entity has a contractual obligation to take or retain an equity, partnership, or other ownership interest in an illiquid fund if the banking entity is prohibited from redeeming all of its equity, partnership, or other ownership interests in the fund, and from selling or otherwise transferring all such ownership interests to a person that is not an affiliate of the banking entity—
</P>
<P>(A) Under the terms of the banking entity's equity, partnership, or other ownership interest in the fund or the banking entity's other contractual arrangements with the fund or unaffiliated investors in the fund; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the banking entity is the sponsor of the fund, under the terms of a written representation made by the banking entity in the fund's offering materials distributed to potential investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity has a contractual obligation to provide additional capital to an illiquid fund if the banking entity is required to provide additional capital to such fund—
</P>
<P>(A) Under the terms of its equity, partnership or other ownership interest in the fund or the banking entity's other contractual arrangements with the fund or unaffiliated investors in the fund; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the banking entity is the sponsor of the fund, under the terms of a written representation made by the banking entity in the fund's offering materials distributed to potential investors; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A banking entity shall be considered to have a contractual obligation for purposes of paragraph (b)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section only if—
</P>
<P>(A) The obligation may not be terminated by the banking entity or any of its subsidiaries or affiliates under the terms of its agreement with the fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of an obligation that may be terminated with the consent of other persons, the banking entity and its subsidiaries and affiliates have used their reasonable best efforts to obtain such consent and such consent has been denied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval required to hold interests in excess of time limit.</I> The conformance period in paragraph (a) of this section may be extended in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) or (b) of this section only with the approval of the Board. A banking entity that seeks the Board's approval for an extension of the conformance period under paragraph (a)(3) or for an extended transition period under paragraph (b)(1) must—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request in writing to the Board at least 180 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the reasons why the banking entity believes the extension should be granted, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a detailed explanation of the banking entity's plan for divesting or conforming the activity or investment(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors governing Board determinations</I>—(1) <I>Extension requests generally.</I> In reviewing any application by a specific company for an extension under paragraph (a)(3) or (b)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the activity, investment, or fund, including, to the extent relevant—
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the activity or investment—
</P>
<P>(A) Involves or results in material conflicts of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(B) Would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(C) Would pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity; or
</P>
<P>(D) Would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Market conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature of the activity or investment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date that the banking entity's contractual obligation to make or retain an investment in the fund was incurred and when it expires;
</P>
<P>(v) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the fund;
</P>
<P>(vi) The degree of control held by the banking entity over investment decisions of the fund;
</P>
<P>(vii) The types of assets held by the fund, including whether any assets that were illiquid when first acquired by the fund have become liquid assets, such as, for example, because any statutory, regulatory, or contractual restrictions on the offer, sale, or transfer of such assets have expired;
</P>
<P>(viii) The date on which the fund is expected to wind up its activities and liquidate, or its investments may be redeemed or sold;
</P>
<P>(ix) The total exposure of the banking entity to the activity or investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment or activity may pose to the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States;
</P>
<P>(x) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the activity or investment within the applicable period;
</P>
<P>(xi) Whether the divestiture or conformance of the activity or investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated clients, customers or counterparties to which it owes a duty;
</P>
<P>(xii) The banking entity's prior efforts to divest or conform the activity or investment(s), including, with respect to an illiquid fund, the extent to which the banking entity has made efforts to terminate or obtain a waiver of its contractual obligation to take or retain an equity, partnership, or other ownership interest in, or provide additional capital to, the illiquid fund; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of Board review.</I> The Board will seek to act on any request for an extension under paragraph (a)(3) or (b)(1) of this section no later than 90 calendar days after the receipt of a complete record with respect to such request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consultation.</I> In the case of a banking entity that is primarily supervised by another Federal banking agency, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, the Board will consult with such agency prior to the approval of a request by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (a)(3) or (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investments during any extension period</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (a)(3) or (b)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consultation.</I> In the case of a banking entity that is primarily supervised by another Federal banking agency, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, the Board will consult with such agency prior to imposing conditions on the approval of a request by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (a)(3) or (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.182" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.11.7.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.182   Conformance Period for Nonbank Financial Companies Supervised by the Board Engaged in Proprietary Trading or Private Fund Activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Divestiture requirement.</I> A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board shall come into compliance with all applicable requirements of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart, including any capital requirements or quantitative limitations adopted thereunder and applicable to the company, not later than 2 years after the date the company becomes a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions.</I> The Board may, by rule or order, extend the two-year period under paragraph (a) by not more than three separate one-year periods, if, in the judgment of the Board, each such one-year extension is consistent with the purposes of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart and would not be detrimental to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval required to hold interests in excess of time limit.</I> A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that seeks the Board's approval for an extension of the conformance period under paragraph (b) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a request in writing to the Board at least 180 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the reasons why the nonbank financial company supervised by the Board believes the extension should be granted; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a detailed explanation of the company's plan for conforming the activity or investment(s) to any applicable requirements established under section 13(a)(2) or (f)(4) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(a)(2) and (f)(4)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors governing Board determinations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In reviewing any application for an extension under paragraph (b) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the nonbank financial company and the request including, to the extent determined relevant by the Board, the factors described in § 225.181(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> The Board will seek to act on any request for an extension under paragraph (b) of this section no later than 90 calendar days after the receipt of a complete record with respect to such request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investments during any extension period.</I> The Board may impose conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (b) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the nonbank financial company or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Conditions to Orders</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 8275, Feb. 14, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="7" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.12.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Conditions to Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.200" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.12.7.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.200   Conditions to Board's section 20 orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> Under section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 377) and section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), a nonbank subsidiary of a bank holding company may to a limited extent underwrite and deal in securities for which underwriting and dealing by a member bank is prohibited. Pursuant to the Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, these so-called section 20 subsidiaries are required to register with the SEC as broker-dealers and are subject to all the financial reporting, anti-fraud and financial responsibility rules applicable to broker-dealers. In addition, transactions between insured depository institutions and their section 20 affiliates are restricted by sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1). The Board expects a section 20 subsidiary, like any other subsidiary of a bank holding company, to be operated prudently. Doing so would include observing corporate formalities (such as the maintenance of separate accounting and corporate records), and instituting appropriate risk management, including independent trading and exposure limits consistent with parent company guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions.</I> As a condition of each order approving establishment of a section 20 subsidiary, a bank holding company shall comply with the following conditions. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital.</I> (i) A bank holding company shall maintain adequate capital on a fully consolidated basis. If operating a section 20 authorized to underwrite and deal in all types of debt and equity securities, a bank holding company shall maintain strong capital on a fully consolidated basis. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that a bank or thrift affiliate of a section 20 subsidiary shall become less than well capitalized (as defined in section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831o), and the bank holding company shall fail to restore it promptly to the well capitalized level, the Board may, in its discretion, reimpose the funding, credit extension and credit enhancement firewalls contained in its 1989 order allowing underwriting and dealing in bank-ineligible securities, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or order the bank holding company to divest the section 20 subsidiary. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Firewalls 5-8, 19, 21 and 22 of <I>J.P. Morgan &amp; Co., The Chase Manhattan Corp., Bankers Trust New York Corp., Citicorp, and Security Pacific Corp.,</I> 75 Federal Reserve Bulletin 192, 214-16 (1989).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) A foreign bank that operates a branch or agency in the United States shall maintain strong capital on a fully consolidated basis at levels above the minimum levels required by the Basle Capital Accord. In the event that the Board determines that the foreign bank's capital has fallen below these levels and the foreign bank fails to restore its capital position promptly, the Board may, in its discretion, reimpose the funding, credit extension and credit enhancement firewalls contained in its 1990 order allowing foreign banks to underwrite and deal in bank-ineligible securities, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or order the foreign bank to divest the section 20 subsidiary. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Firewalls 5-8, 19, 21 and 22 of <I>Canadian Imperial Bank of Commerce, The Royal Bank of Canada, Barclays PLC and Barclays Bank PLC,</I> 76 Federal Reserve Bulletin 158, (1990).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Internal controls.</I> (i) Each bank holding company or foreign bank shall cause its subsidiary banks, thrifts, branches or agencies 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> to adopt policies and procedures, including appropriate limits on exposure, to govern their participation in transactions underwritten or arranged by a section 20 affiliate. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The terms “branch” and “agency” refer to a U.S. branch and agency of a foreign bank.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Each bank holding company or foreign bank shall ensure that an independent and thorough credit evaluation has been undertaken in connection with participation by a bank, thrift, or branch or agency in such transactions, and that adequate documentation of that evaluation is maintained for review by examiners of the appropriate federal banking agency and the Federal Reserve. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interlocks restriction.</I> (i) Directors, officers or employees of a bank or thrift subsidiary of a bank holding company, or a bank or thrift subsidiary or branch or agency of a foreign bank, shall not serve as a majority of the board of directors or the chief executive officer of an affiliated section 20 subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Directors, officers or employees of a section 20 subsidiary shall not serve as a majority of the board of directors or the chief executive officer of an affiliated bank or thrift subsidiary or branch or agency, except that the manager of a branch or agency may act as a director of the underwriting subsidiary. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this standard, the manager of a branch or agency of a foreign bank generally will be considered to be the chief executive officer of the branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Customer disclosure</I>—(i) <I>Disclosure to section 20 customers.</I> A section 20 subsidiary shall provide, in writing, to each of its retail customers, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> at the time an investment account is opened, the same minimum disclosures, and obtain the same customer acknowledgment, described in the Interagency Statement on Retail Sales of Nondeposit Investment Products (Statement) as applicable in such situations. These disclosures must be provided regardless of whether the section 20 subsidiary is itself engaged in activities through arrangements with a bank that is covered by the Statement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For purposes of this operating standard, a retail customer is any customer that is not an “accredited investor” as defined in 17 CFR 230.501(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Disclosures accompanying investment advice.</I> A director, officer, or employee of a bank, thrift, branch or agency may not express an opinion on the value or the advisability of the purchase or the sale of a bank-ineligible security that he or she knows is being underwritten or dealt in by a section 20 affiliate unless he or she notifies the customer of the affiliate's role. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Intra-day credit.</I> Any intra-day extension of credit to a section 20 subsidiary by an affiliated bank, thrift, branch or agency shall be on market terms consistent with section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Restriction on funding purchases of securities during underwriting period.</I> No bank, thrift, branch or agency shall knowingly extend credit to a customer secured by, or for the purpose of purchasing, any bank-ineligible security that a section 20 affiliate is underwriting or has underwritten within the past 30 days, unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is made pursuant to, and consistent with any conditions imposed in a preexisting line of credit that was not established in contemplation of the underwriting; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The extension of credit is made in connection with clearing transactions for the section 20 affiliate. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> (i) Each bank holding company or foreign bank shall submit quarterly to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank any FOCUS report filed with the NASD or other self-regulatory organizations, and any information required by the Board to monitor compliance with these operating standards and section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act, on forms provided by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that a section 20 subsidiary is required to furnish notice concerning its capitalization to the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to 17 CFR 240.17a-11, a copy of the notice shall be filed concurrently with the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Foreign banks.</I> A foreign bank shall ensure that any extension of credit by its branch or agency to a section 20 affiliate, and any purchase by such branch or agency, as principal or fiduciary, of securities for which a section 20 affiliate is a principal underwriter, conforms to sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act, and that its branches and agencies not advertise or suggest that they are responsible for the obligations of a section 20 affiliate, consistent with section 23B(c) of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 45306, Aug. 27, 1997, as amended by Reg. Y, 63 FR 14804, Mar. 27, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Minimum Requirements for Appraisal Management Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 32681, June 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.190" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.190   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183 (1989)), 12 U.S.C. 3310, 3331-3351, section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 3353, and section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1844(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement sections 1109, 1117, 1121, and 1124 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338, 3346, 3350, and 3353. Title XI provides protection for Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with Federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This subpart implements the requirements of title XI as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act and applies to all Federally related transactions and to States and to appraisal management companies (AMCs) performing appraisal management services in connection with consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling or securitizations of those transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies which real estate related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of Federally related transactions shall be appraised by a State-certified appraiser and which by a State-licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with Federal related transactions under the jurisdiction of the Board;
</P>
<P>(iv) Prescribes minimum requirements to be applied by participating States in the registration and supervision of AMCs; and
</P>
<P>(v) Prescribes minimum requirements to be applied by participating States to report certain information concerning AMCs registered with the States to a national registry of AMCs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this subpart should be construed to prevent a State from establishing requirements in addition to those in this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart should be construed to alter guidance in, and applicability of, the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or other relevant agency guidance that cautions banks and bank holding companies, that each organization is accountable for overseeing the activities of third-party service providers and ensuring that any services provided by a third party comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance applicable directly to the creditor.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See,</I> Agencies issue final appraisal and evalutation guidelines, <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/press/bcreg/20101202a.htm.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.191" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.191   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning provided in 12 U.S.C. 1841.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AMC National Registry</I> means the registry of State-registered AMCs and Federally regulated AMCs maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Appraisal management company</I> (AMC) means a person that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a 12-month period, as defined in § 225.192(d), oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States, as described in § 225.192;
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appraisal management services</I> means one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;
</P>
<P>(2) Contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;
</P>
<P>(3) Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appraiser panel</I> means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an AMC to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the AMC. Appraisers on an AMC's “appraiser panel” under this part include both appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this part if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the AMC for purposes of Federal income taxation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered transaction</I> means any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<P>(2) A person regularly extends consumer credit if the person extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32) more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dwelling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federally regulated AMC</I> means an AMC that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federally related transaction regulations</I> means regulations established by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Administration, pursuant to sections 1112, 1113, and 1114 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3341-3343.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secondary mortgage market participant</I> means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. Secondary mortgage market participant only includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security if that investor also serves in the capacity of a guarantor, insurer, underwriter, or issuer for the mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>States</I> mean the 50 States and the District of Columbia and the territories of Guam, Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice</I> (USPAP) means the appraisal standards promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.192" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.192   Appraiser panel—annual size calculation.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining whether, within a 12-month period, an AMC oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States pursuant to § 225.191(d)(1)(iii)-
</P>
<P>(a) An appraiser is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel as of the earliest date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the appraiser for the AMC's consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions; or
</P>
<P>(2) Engages the appraiser to perform one or more appraisals on behalf of a creditor for a covered transaction or secondary mortgage market participant in connection with a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) An appraiser who is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is deemed to remain on the panel until the date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Sends written notice to the appraiser removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, with an explanation of its action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receives written notice from the appraiser asking to be removed from the appraiser panel or notice of the death or incapacity of the appraiser.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appraiser is removed from an AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, but the AMC subsequently accepts the appraiser for consideration for future assignments or engages the appraiser at any time during the twelve months after the AMC's removal, the removal will be deemed not to have occurred, and the appraiser will be deemed to have been part of the AMC's appraiser panel without interruption.
</P>
<P>(d) The period for purposes of counting appraisers on an AMC's appraiser panel may be the calendar year or a 12-month period established by law or rule of each State with which the AMC is required to register.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.193" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.193   Appraisal management company registration.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish and maintain within the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency a licensing program that is subject to the limitations set forth in § 225.194 and with the legal authority and mechanisms to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review and approve or deny an AMC's application for initial registration;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and renew or review and deny an AMC's registration periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the books and records of an AMC operating in the State and require the AMC to submit reports, information, and documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that the appraisers on the AMC's appraiser panel hold valid State certifications or licenses, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Conduct investigations of AMCs to assess potential violations of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders;
</P>
<P>(6) Discipline, suspend, terminate, or deny renewal of the registration of an AMC that violates applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders; and
</P>
<P>(7) Report an AMC's violation of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders, as well as disciplinary and enforcement actions and other relevant information about an AMC's operations, to the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose requirements on AMCs that are not owned and controlled by an insured depository institution and not regulated by a Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to:
</P>
<P>(1) Register with and be subject to supervision by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engage only State-certified or State-licensed appraisers for Federally related transactions in conformity with any Federally related transaction regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC, in engaging an appraiser, selects an appraiser who is independent of the transaction and who has the requisite education, expertise, and experience necessary to competently complete the appraisal assignment for the particular market and property type;
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the appraiser to perform the assignment in accordance with USPAP; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC conducts its appraisal management services in accordance with the requirements of section 129E(a)-(i) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639e(a)-(i), and regulations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.194" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.194   Ownership limitations for State-registered appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraiser certification or licensing of owners.</I> (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 225.193 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 225.193 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Good moral character of owners.</I> An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC—
</P>
<P>(1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.195" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.195   Requirements for Federally regulated appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements in providing services.</I> To provide appraisal management services for a creditor or secondary mortgage market participant relating to a covered transaction, a Federally regulated AMC must comply with the requirements in § 225.193(b)(2) through (5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ownership limitations.</I> (1) A Federally regulated AMC shall not be included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the ASC.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federally regulated AMC is not barred by this paragraph (b) from being included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting information for the AMC National Registry.</I> A Federally regulated AMC must report to the State or States in which it operates the information required to be submitted by the State to the Appraisal Subcommittee pursuant to the Appraisal Subcommittee's policies regarding the determination of the AMC National Registry fee, including but not necessarily limited to the collection of information related to the limitations set forth in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.196" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.13.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.196   Information to be presented to the Appraisal Subcommittee by participating States.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs for purposes of permitting AMCs to provide appraisal management services relating to covered transactions in the State must submit to the Appraisal Subcommittee the information required to be submitted by Appraisal Subcommittee regulations or guidance concerning AMCs that operate in the State.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Computer-Security Incident Notification</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 66442, Nov. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.300" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.14.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.300   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1, 321-338a, 1467a(g), 1818(b), 1844(b), 1861-1867, and 3101 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart promotes the timely notification of computer-security incidents that may materially and adversely affect Board-supervised entities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all U.S. bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies; state member banks; the U.S. operations of foreign banking organizations; and Edge and agreement corporations. This subpart also applies to their bank service providers, as defined in § 225.301(b)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.301" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.14.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.301   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as modified in this subpart, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in this subpart have the same meanings as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Banking organization</I> means a U.S. bank holding company; U.S. savings and loan holding company; state member bank; the U.S. operations of foreign banking organizations; and an Edge or agreement corporation; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank service provider</I> means a bank service company or other person that performs covered services; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a bank service provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business line</I> means a product or service offered by a banking organization to serve its customers or support other business needs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computer-security incident</I> is an occurrence that results in actual harm to the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system or the information that the system processes, stores, or transmits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Covered services</I> are services performed, by a person, that are subject to the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861-1867).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 5462(4).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification incident</I> is a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, a banking organization's—
</P>
<P>(i) Ability to carry out banking operations, activities, or processes, or deliver banking products and services to a material portion of its customer base, in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) Business line(s), including associated operations, services, functions, and support, that upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations, including associated services, functions and support, as applicable, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Person</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(8)(A).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.302" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.14.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.302   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>A banking organization must notify the appropriate Board-designated point of contact about a notification incident through email, telephone, or other similar methods that the Board may prescribe. The Board must receive this notification from the banking organization as soon as possible and no later than 36 hours after the banking organization determines that a notification incident has occurred.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.303" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.14.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.303   Bank service provider notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank service provider is required to notify at least one bank-designated point of contact at each affected banking organization customer as soon as possible when the bank service provider determines that it has experienced a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, covered services provided to such banking organization for four or more hours.
</P>
<P>(1) A bank-designated point of contact is an email address, phone number, or any other contact(s), previously provided to the bank service provider by the banking organization customer.
</P>
<P>(2) If the banking organization customer has not previously provided a bank-designated point of contact, such notification shall be made to the Chief Executive Officer and Chief Information Officer of the banking organization customer, or two individuals of comparable responsibilities, through any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification requirement in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any scheduled maintenance, testing, or software update previously communicated to a banking organization customer.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models Used for Mortgage Lending Purposes</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 64573, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 225.350" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.15.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.350   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> (1) <I>In general.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to section 1125 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 2198 (2010)), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5365); and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Board to take action under provisions of law other than 12 U.S.C. 3354, including but not limited to action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or a mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to entities and institutions regulated by the Board (Board-regulated institutions) that are mortgage originators or secondary market issuers.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.351" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.15.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.351   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include any person who is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Discloses to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least 1 unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 225.352" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.15.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 225.352   Quality control standards.</HEAD>
<P>Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 225—Capital Adequacy Guidelines for Bank Holding Companies: Risk-Based Measure 
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Overview
</HD1>
<P>The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has adopted a risk-based capital measure to assist in the assessment of the capital adequacy of bank holding companies (<I>banking organizations</I>). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The principal objectives of this measure are to: (i) Make regulatory capital requirements more sensitive to differences in risk profiles among banking organizations; (ii) factor off-balance sheet exposures into the assessment of capital adequacy; (iii) minimize disincentives to holding liquid, low-risk assets; and (iv) achieve greater consistency in the evaluation of the capital adequacy of major banking organizations throughout the world. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Supervisory ratios that relate capital to total assets for bank holding companies are outlined in appendices B and D of this part.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The risk-based capital measure is based upon a framework developed jointly by supervisory authorities from the countries represented on the Basle Committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices (Basle Supervisors' Committee) and endorsed by the Group of Ten Central Bank Governors. The framework is described in a paper prepared by the BSC entitled “International Convergence of Capital Measurement,” July 1988.</P></FTNT>
<P>The risk-based capital guidelines include both a definition of capital and a framework for calculating weighted risk assets by assigning assets and off-balance sheet items to broad risk categories. An institution's risk-based capital ratio is calculated by dividing its qualifying capital (the numerator of the ratio) by its weighted risk assets (the denominator). 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The definition of qualifying capital is outlined below in section II, and the procedures for calculating weighted risk assets are discussed in section III. Attachment I illustrates a sample calculation of weighted risk assets and the risk-based capital ratio.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Banking organizations will initially be expected to utilize period-end amounts in calculating their risk-based capital ratios. When necessary and appropriate, ratios based on average balances may also be calculated on a case-by-case basis. Moreover, to the extent banking organizations have data on average balances that can be used to calculate risk-based ratios, the Federal Reserve will take such data into account.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, when certain organizations that engage in trading activities calculate their risk-based capital ratio under this appendix A, they must also refer to appendix E of this part, which incorporates capital charges for certain market risks into the risk-based capital ratio. When calculating their risk-based capital ratio under this appendix A, such organizations are required to refer to appendix E of this part for supplemental rules to determine qualifying and excess capital, calculate risk-weighted assets, calculate market risk equivalent assets, and calculate risk-based capital ratios adjusted for market risk. 
</P>
<P>The risk-based capital guidelines also establish a schedule for achieving a minimum supervisory standard for the ratio of qualifying capital to weighted risk assets and provide for transitional arrangements during a phase-in period to facilitate adoption and implementation of the measure at the end of 1992. These interim standards and transitional arrangements are set forth in section IV.
</P>
<P>The risk-based guidelines apply on a consolidated basis to any bank holding company with consolidated assets of $500 million or more. The risk-based guidelines also apply on a consolidated basis to any bank holding company with consolidated assets of less than $500 million if the holding company (i) is engaged in significant nonbanking activities either directly or through a nonbank subsidiary; (ii) conducts significant off-balance sheet activities (including securitization and asset management or administration) either directly or through a nonbank subsidiary; or (iii) has a material amount of debt or equity securities outstanding (other than trust preferred securities) that are registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The Federal Reserve may apply the risk-based guidelines at its discretion to any bank holding company, regardless of asset size, if such action is warranted for supervisory purposes. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>The risk-based guidelines are to be used in the inspection and supervisory process as well as in the analysis of applications acted upon by the Federal Reserve. Thus, in considering an application filed by a bank holding company, the Federal Reserve will take into account the organization's risk-based capital ratio, the reasonableness of its capital plans, and the degree of progress it has demonstrated toward meeting the interim and final risk-based capital standards.
</P>
<P>The risk-based capital ratio focuses principally on broad categories of credit risk, although the framework for assigning assets and off-balance sheet items to risk categories does incorporate elements of transfer risk, as well as limited instances of interest rate and market risk. The risk-based ratio does not, however, incorporate other factors that can affect an organization's financial condition. These factors include overall interest rate exposure; liquidity, funding and market risks; the quality and level of earnings; investment or loan portfolio concentrations; the quality of loans and investments; the effectiveness of loan and investment policies; and management's ability to monitor and control financial and operating risks.
</P>
<P>In addition to evaluating capital ratios, an overall assessment of capital adequacy must take account of these other factors, including, in particular, the level and severity of problem and classified assets. For this reason, the final supervisory judgment on an organization's capital adequacy may differ significantly from conclusions that might be drawn solely from the level of the organization's risk-based capital ratio.
</P>
<P>The risk-based capital guidelines establish <I>minimum</I> ratios of capital to weighted risk assets. In light of the considerations just discussed, banking organizations generally are expected to operate well above the minimum risk-based ratios. In particular, banking organizations contemplating significant expansion proposals are expected to maintain strong capital levels substantially above the minimum ratios and should not allow significant diminution of financial strength below these strong levels to fund their expansion plans. Institutions with high or inordinate levels of risk are also expected to operate above minimum capital standards. In all cases, institutions should hold capital commensurate with the level and nature of the risks to which they are exposed. Banking organizations that do not meet the minimum risk-based standard, or that are otherwise considered to be inadequately capitalized, are expected to develop and implement plans acceptable to the Federal Reserve for achieving adequate levels of capital within a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>The Board will monitor the implementation and effect of these guidelines in relation to domestic and international developments in the banking industry. When necessary and appropriate, the Board will consider the need to modify the guidelines in light of any significant changes in the economy, financial markets, banking practices, or other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>The Federal Reserve may determine that the regulatory capital treatment for a banking organization's exposure or other relationship to an entity not consolidated on the banking organization's balance sheet is not commensurate with the actual risk relationship of the banking organization to the entity. In making this determination, the Federal Reserve may require the banking organization to treat the entity as if it were consolidated onto the balance sheet of the banking organization for risk-based capital purposes and calculate the appropriate risk-based capital ratios accordingly, all as specified by the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definition of Qualifying Capital for the Risk Based Capital Ratio
</HD1>
<P>(i) A banking organization's qualifying total capital consists of two types of capital components: “core capital elements” (tier 1 capital elements) and “supplementary capital elements” (tier 2 capital elements). These capital elements and the various limits, restrictions, and deductions to which they are subject, are discussed below. To qualify as an element of tier 1 or tier 2 capital, an instrument must be fully paid up and effectively unsecured. Accordingly, if a banking organization has purchased, or has directly or indirectly funded the purchase of, its own capital instrument, that instrument generally is disqualified from inclusion in regulatory capital. A qualifying tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument must be subordinated to all senior indebtedness of the organization. If issued by a bank, it also must be subordinated to claims of depositors. In addition, the instrument must not contain or be covered by any covenants, terms, or restrictions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(ii) On a case-by-case basis, the Federal Reserve may determine whether, and to what extent, any instrument that does not fit wholly within the terms of a capital element set forth below, or that does not have the characteristics or the ability to absorb losses commensurate with the capital treatment specified below, will qualify as an element of tier 1 or tier 2 capital. In making such a determination, the Federal Reserve will consider the similarity of the instrument to instruments explicitly addressed in the guidelines; the ability of the instrument to absorb losses, particularly while the organization operates as a going concern; the maturity and redemption features of the instrument; and other relevant terms and factors.
</P>
<P>(iii) The redemption of capital instruments before stated maturity could have a significant impact on an organization's overall capital structure. Consequently, an organization should consult with the Federal Reserve before redeeming any equity or other capital instrument included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital prior to stated maturity if such redemption could have a material effect on the level or composition of the organization's capital base. Such consultation generally would not be necessary when the instrument is to be redeemed with the proceeds of, or replaced by, a like amount of a capital instrument that is of equal or higher quality with regard to terms and maturity and the Federal Reserve considers the organization's capital position to be fully sufficient.
</P>
<HD2>A. The Definition and Components of Qualifying Capital
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Tier 1 capital.</I> Tier 1 capital generally is defined as the sum of core capital elements less any amounts of goodwill, other intangible assets, interest-only strips receivables, deferred tax assets, nonfinancial equity investments, and other items that are required to be deducted in accordance with section II.B. of this appendix. Tier 1 capital must represent at least 50 percent of qualifying total capital.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Core capital elements (tier 1 capital elements).</I> The elements qualifying for inclusion in the tier 1 component of a banking organization's qualifying total capital are:
</P>
<P>i. Qualifying common stockholders' equity;
</P>
<P>ii. Qualifying noncumulative perpetual preferred stock, including related surplus, and senior perpetual preferred stock issued to the United States Department of the Treasury (Treasury) under the Troubled Asset Relief Program (TARP), established by the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008 (EESA), Division A of Public Law 110-343 (which for purposes of this appendix shall be considered qualifying noncumulative perpetual preferred stock), including related surplus;
</P>
<P>iii. Minority interest related to qualifying common or noncumulative perpetual preferred stock directly issued by a consolidated U.S. depository institution or foreign bank subsidiary (Class A minority interest); and
</P>
<P>iv. Restricted core capital elements. The aggregate of these items is limited within tier 1 capital as set forth in section II.A.1.b. of this appendix. These elements are defined to include:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus);
</P>
<P>(2) Minority interest related to qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock directly issued by a consolidated U.S. depository institution or foreign bank subsidiary (Class B minority interest);
</P>
<P>(3) Minority interest related to qualifying common stockholders' equity or perpetual preferred stock issued by a consolidated subsidiary that is neither a U.S. depository institution nor a foreign bank (Class C minority interest);
</P>
<P>(4) Qualifying trust preferred securities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Subordinated debentures issued prior to October 4, 2010, to the Treasury under the TARP (TARP Subordinated Securities) established by the EESA by a bank holding company that has made a valid election to be taxed under Subchapter S of Chapter 1 of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code (S-Corp BHC) or by a bank holding company organized in mutual form (Mutual BHC).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Limits on restricted core capital elements</I>—i. <I>Limits.</I> (1) The aggregate amount of restricted core capital elements that may be included in the tier 1 capital of a banking organization must not exceed 25 percent of the sum of all core capital elements, including restricted core capital elements, net of goodwill less any associated deferred tax liability. Stated differently, the aggregate amount of restricted core capital elements is limited to one-third of the sum of core capital elements, excluding restricted core capital elements, net of goodwill less any associated deferred tax liability. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the full amount of TARP Subordinated Securities issued by an S-Corp BHC or Mutual BHC may be included in its tier 1 capital, provided that the banking organization must include the TARP Subordinated Securities in restricted core capital elements for the purposes of determining the aggregate amount of other restricted core capital elements that may be included in tier 1 capital in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the aggregate amount of restricted core capital elements (other than qualifying mandatory convertible preferred securities 
<SU>5</SU>)
<FTREF/> that may be included in the tier 1 capital of an internationally active banking organization 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> must not exceed 15 percent of the sum of all core capital elements, including restricted core capital elements, net of goodwill less any associated deferred tax liability.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Qualifying mandatory convertible preferred securities generally consist of the joint issuance by a bank holding company to investors of trust preferred securities and a forward purchase contract, which the investors fully collateralize with the securities, that obligates the investors to purchase a fixed amount of the bank holding company's common stock, generally in three years. A bank holding company wishing to issue mandatorily convertible preferred securities and include them in tier 1 capital must consult with the Federal Reserve prior to issuance to ensure that the securities' terms are consistent with tier 1 capital treatment.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> For this purpose, an internationally active banking organization is a banking organization that (1) as of its most recent year-end FR Y-9C reports total consolidated assets equal to $250 billion or more or (2) on a consolidated basis, reports total on-balance-sheet foreign exposure of $10 billion or more on its filings of the most recent year-end FFIEC 009 Country Exposure Report.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Amounts of restricted core capital elements in excess of this limit generally may be included in tier 2 capital. The excess amounts of restricted core capital elements that are in the form of Class C minority interest and qualifying trust preferred securities are subject to further limitation within tier 2 capital in accordance with section II.A.2.d.iv. of this appendix. A banking organization may attribute excess amounts of restricted core capital elements first to any qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock or to Class B minority interest, and second to qualifying trust preferred securities or to Class C minority interest, which are subject to a tier 2 sublimit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Transition.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The quantitative limits for restricted core capital elements set forth in sections II.A.1.b.i. and II.A.2.d.iv. of this appendix become effective on March 31, 2011. Prior to that time, a banking organization with restricted core capital elements in amounts that cause it to exceed these limits must consult with the Federal Reserve on a plan for ensuring that the banking organization is not unduly relying on these elements in its capital base and, where appropriate, for reducing such reliance to ensure that the organization complies with these limits as of March 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>(2) Until March 31, 2011, the aggregate amount of qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) and qualifying trust preferred securities that a banking organization may include in tier 1 capital is limited to 25 percent of the sum of the following core capital elements: qualifying common stockholders' equity, Qualifying noncumulative and cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus), qualifying minority interest in the equity accounts of consolidated subsidiaries, and qualifying trust preferred securities. Amounts of qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) and qualifying trust preferred securities in excess of this limit may be included in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(3) Until March 31, 2011, internationally active banking organizations generally are expected to limit the amount of qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) and qualifying trust preferred securities included in tier 1 capital to 15 percent of the sum of core capital elements set forth in section II.A.1.b.ii.2. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Definitions and requirements for core capital elements</I>—i. <I>Qualifying common stockholders' equity.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition.</I> Qualifying common stockholders' equity is limited to common stock; related surplus; and retained earnings, including capital reserves and adjustments for the cumulative effect of foreign currency translation, net of any treasury stock, less net unrealized holding losses on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values. For this purpose, net unrealized holding gains on such equity securities and net unrealized holding gains (losses) on available-for-sale debt securities are not included in qualifying common stockholders' equity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions on terms and features.</I> A capital instrument that has a stated maturity date or that has a preference with regard to liquidation or the payment of dividends is not deemed to be a component of qualifying common stockholders' equity, regardless of whether or not it is called common equity. Terms or features that grant other preferences also may call into question whether the capital instrument would be deemed to be qualifying common stockholders' equity. Features that require, or provide significant incentives for, the issuer to redeem the instrument for cash or cash equivalents will render the instrument ineligible as a component of qualifying common stockholders' equity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reliance on voting common stockholders' equity.</I> Although section II.A.1. of this appendix allows for the inclusion of elements other than common stockholders' equity within tier 1 capital, voting common stockholders' equity, which is the most desirable capital element from a supervisory standpoint, generally should be the dominant element within tier 1 capital. Thus, banking organizations should avoid over-reliance on preferred stock and nonvoting elements within tier 1 capital. Such nonvoting elements can include portions of common stockholders' equity where, for example, a banking organization has a class of nonvoting common equity, or a class of voting common equity that has substantially fewer voting rights per share than another class of voting common equity. Where a banking organization relies excessively on nonvoting elements within tier 1 capital, the Federal Reserve generally will require the banking organization to allocate a portion of the nonvoting elements to tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Qualifying perpetual preferred stock.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Qualifying requirements.</I> Perpetual preferred stock qualifying for inclusion in tier 1 capital has no maturity date and cannot be redeemed at the option of the holder. Perpetual preferred stock will qualify for inclusion in tier 1 capital only if it can absorb losses while the issuer operates as a going concern.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions on terms and features.</I> Perpetual preferred stock included in tier 1 capital may not have any provisions restricting the banking organization's ability or legal right to defer or waive dividends, other than provisions requiring prior or concurrent deferral or waiver of payments on more junior instruments, which the Federal Reserve generally expects in such instruments consistent with the notion that the most junior capital elements should absorb losses first. Dividend deferrals or waivers for preferred stock, which the Federal Reserve expects will occur either voluntarily or at its direction when an organization is in a weakened condition, must not be subject to arrangements that would diminish the ability of the deferral to shore up the banking organization's resources. Any perpetual preferred stock with a feature permitting redemption at the option of the issuer may qualify as tier 1 capital only if the redemption is subject to prior approval of the Federal Reserve. Features that require, or create significant incentives for the issuer to redeem the instrument for cash or cash equivalents will render the instrument ineligible for inclusion in tier 1 capital. For example, perpetual preferred stock that has a credit-sensitive dividend feature—that is, a dividend rate that is reset periodically based, in whole or in part, on the banking organization's current credit standing—generally does not qualify for inclusion in tier 1 capital. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Similarly, perpetual preferred stock that has a dividend rate step-up or a market value conversion feature—that is, a feature whereby the holder must or can convert the preferred stock into common stock at the market price prevailing at the time of conversion—generally does not qualify for inclusion in tier 1 capital. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Traditional floating-rate or adjustable-rate perpetual preferred stock (that is, perpetual preferred stock in which the dividend rate is not affected by the issuer's credit standing or financial condition but is adjusted periodically in relation to an independent index based solely on general market interest rates), however, generally qualifies for inclusion in tier 1 capital provided all other requirements are met.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Notwithstanding this provision, senior perpetual preferred stock issued to the Treasury under the TARP, established by the EESA, may be included in tier 1 capital. In addition, traditional convertible perpetual preferred stock, which the holder must or can convert into a fixed number of common shares at a preset price, generally qualifies for inclusion in tier 1 capital provided all other requirements are met.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Noncumulative and cumulative features.</I> Perpetual preferred stock that is noncumulative generally may not permit the accumulation or payment of unpaid dividends in any form, including in the form of common stock. Perpetual preferred stock that provides for the accumulation or future payment of unpaid dividends is deemed to be cumulative, regardless of whether or not it is called noncumulative.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Qualifying minority interest.</I> Minority interest in the common and preferred stockholders' equity accounts of a consolidated subsidiary (minority interest) represents stockholders' equity associated with common or preferred equity instruments issued by a banking organization's consolidated subsidiary that are held by investors other than the banking organization. Minority interest is included in tier 1 capital because, as a general rule, it represents equity that is freely available to absorb losses in the issuing subsidiary. Nonetheless, minority interest typically is not available to absorb losses in the banking organization as a whole, a feature that is a particular concern when the minority interest is issued by a subsidiary that is neither a U.S. depository institution nor a foreign bank. For this reason, this appendix distinguishes among three types of qualifying minority interest. Class A minority interest is minority interest related to qualifying common and noncumulative perpetual preferred equity instruments issued directly (that is, not through a subsidiary) by a consolidated U.S. depository institution 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> or foreign bank 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> subsidiary of a banking organization. Class A minority interest is not subject to a formal limitation within tier 1 capital. Class B minority interest is minority interest related to qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred equity instruments issued directly by a consolidated U.S. depository institution or foreign bank subsidiary of a banking organization. Class B minority interest is a restricted core capital element subject to the limitations set forth in section II.A.1.b.i. of this appendix, but is not subject to a tier 2 sub-limit. Class C minority interest is minority interest related to qualifying common or perpetual preferred stock issued by a banking organization's consolidated subsidiary that is neither a U.S. depository institution nor a foreign bank. Class C minority interest is eligible for inclusion in tier 1 capital as a restricted core capital element and is subject to the limitations set forth in sections II.A.1.b.i. and II.A.2.d.iv. of this appendix. Minority interest in small business investment companies, investment funds that hold nonfinancial equity investments (as defined in section II.B.5.b. of this appendix), and subsidiaries engaged in nonfinancial activities are not included in the banking organization's tier 1 or total capital if the banking organization's interest in the company or fund is held under one of the legal authorities listed in section II.B.5.b. of this appendix. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> U.S. depository institutions are defined to include branches (foreign and domestic) of federally insured banks and depository institutions chartered and headquartered in the 50 states of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories and possessions. The definition encompasses banks, mutual or stock savings banks, savings or building and loan associations, cooperative banks, credit unions, and international banking facilities of domestic banks.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> For this purpose, a foreign bank is defined as an institution that engages in the business of banking; is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of its organization or principal banking operations; receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and has the power to accept demand deposits.</P></FTNT>
<P>iv. <I>Qualifying trust preferred securities.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) A banking organization that wishes to issue trust preferred securities and include them in tier 1 capital must first consult with the Federal Reserve. Trust preferred securities are defined as undated preferred securities issued by a trust or similar entity sponsored (but generally not consolidated) by a banking organization that is the sole common equity holder of the trust. Qualifying trust preferred securities must allow for dividends to be deferred for at least twenty consecutive quarters without an event of default, unless an event of default leading to acceleration permitted under section II.A.1.c.iv.(2) has occurred. The required notification period for such deferral must be reasonably short, no more than 15 business days prior to the payment date. Qualifying trust preferred securities are otherwise subject to the same restrictions on terms and features as qualifying perpetual preferred stock under section II.A.1.c.ii.(2) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(2) The sole asset of the trust must be a junior subordinated note issued by the sponsoring banking organization that has a minimum maturity of thirty years, is subordinated with regard to both liquidation and priority of periodic payments to all senior and subordinated debt of the sponsoring banking organization (other than other junior subordinated notes underlying trust preferred securities). Otherwise the terms of a junior subordinated note must mirror those of the preferred securities issued by the trust. 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> The note must comply with section II.A.2.d. of this appendix and the Federal Reserve's subordinated debt policy statement set forth in 12 CFR 250.166 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> except that the note may provide for an event of default and the acceleration of principal and accrued interest upon (a) nonpayment of interest for 20 or more consecutive quarters or (b) termination of the trust without redemption of the trust preferred securities, distribution of the notes to investors, or assumption of the obligation by a successor to the banking organization.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Under generally accepted accounting principles, the trust issuing the preferred securities generally is not consolidated on the banking organization's balance sheet; rather the underlying subordinated note is recorded as a liability on the organization's balance sheet. Only the amount of the trust preferred securities issued, which generally is equal to the amount of the underlying subordinated note less the amount of the sponsoring banking organization's common equity investment in the trust (which is recorded as an asset on the banking organization's consolidated balance sheet), may be included in tier 1 capital. Because this calculation method effectively deducts the banking organization's common stock investment in the trust in computing the numerator of the capital ratio, the common equity investment in the trust should be excluded from the calculation of risk-weighted assets in accordance with footnote 17 of this appendix. Where a banking organization has issued trust preferred securities as part of a pooled issuance, the organization generally must not buy back a security issued from the pool. Where a banking organization does hold such a security (for example, as a result of an acquisition of another banking organization), the amount of the trust preferred securities includable in regulatory capital must, consistent with section II.(i) of this appendix, be reduced by the notional amount of the banking organization's investment in the security issued by the pooling entity.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Trust preferred securities issued before April 15, 2005, generally would be includable in tier 1 capital despite noncompliance with sections II.A.1.c.iv. or II.A.2.d. of this appendix or 12 CFR 250.166 provided the non-complying terms of the instrument (i) have been commonly used by banking organizations, (ii) do not provide an unreasonably high degree of protection to the holder in circumstances other than bankruptcy of the banking organization, and (iii) do not effectively allow a holder in due course of the note to stand ahead of senior or subordinated debt holders in the event of bankruptcy of the banking organization.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) In the last five years before the maturity of the note, the outstanding amount of the associated trust preferred securities is excluded from tier 1 capital and included in tier 2 capital, where the trust preferred securities are subject to the amortization provisions and quantitative restrictions set forth in sections II.A.2.d.iii. and iv. of this appendix as if the trust preferred securities were limited-life preferred stock.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Supplementary capital elements (tier 2 capital elements).</I> The tier 2 component of an institution's qualifying capital may consist of the following items that are defined as supplementary capital elements: 
</P>
<P>(i) Allowance for loan and lease losses (subject to limitations discussed below); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Perpetual preferred stock and related surplus (subject to conditions discussed below); 
</P>
<P>(iii) Hybrid capital instruments (as defined below), perpetual debt, and mandatory convertible debt securities; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock, including related surplus (subject to limitations discussed below); 
</P>
<P>(v) Unrealized holding gains on equity securities (subject to limitations discussed in section II.A.2.e. of this appendix). 
</P>
<P>The maximum amount of tier 2 capital that may be included in an institution's qualifying total capital is limited to 100 percent of tier 1 capital (net of goodwill, other intangible assets, interest-only strips receivables and nonfinancial equity investments that are required to be deducted in accordance with section II.<I>B.</I> of this appendix A).
</P>
<P>The elements of supplementary capital are discussed in greater detail below.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Allowance for loan and lease losses.</I> Allowances for loan and lease losses are reserves that have been established through a charge against earnings to absorb future losses on loans or lease financing receivables. Allowances for loan and lease losses exclude “allocated transfer risk reserves,” 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and reserves created against identified losses. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Allocated transfer risk reserves are reserves that have been established in accordance with Section 905(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983, 12 U.S.C. 3904(a), against certain assets whose value U.S. supervisory authorities have found to be significantly impaired by protracted transfer risk problems.</P></FTNT>
<P>During the transition period, the risk-based capital guidelines provide for reducing the amount of this allowance that may be included in an institution's total capital. Initially, it is unlimited. However, by year-end 1990, the amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses that will qualify as capital will be limited to 1.5 percent of an institution's weighted risk assets. By the end of the transition period, the amount of the allowance qualifying for inclusion in Tier 2 capital may not exceed 1.25 percent of weighted risk assets. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses that may be included in Tier 2 capital is based on a percentage of gross weighted risk assets. A banking organization may deduct reserves for loan and lease losses in excess of the amount permitted to be included in Tier 2 capital, as well as allocated transfer risk reserves, from the sum of gross weighted risk assets and use the resulting net sum of weighted risk assets in computing the denominator of the risk-based capital ratio.</P></FTNT>
<P>b. <I>Perpetual preferred stock.</I> Perpetual preferred stock (and related surplus) that meets the requirements set forth in section II.A.1.c.ii.(1) of this appendix is eligible for inclusion in tier 2 capital without limit. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Long-term preferred stock with an original maturity of 20 years or more (including related surplus) will also qualify in this category as an element of tier 2 capital. If the holder of such an instrument has the right to require the issuer to redeem, repay, or repurchase the instrument prior to the original stated maturity, maturity would be defined for risk-based capital purposes as the earliest possible date on which the holder can put the instrument back to the issuing banking organization. In the last five years before the maturity of the stock, it must be treated as limited-life preferred stock, subject to the amortization provisions and quantitative restrictions set forth in sections II.A.2.d.iii. and iv. of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. <I>Hybrid capital instruments, perpetual debt, and mandatory convertible debt securities.</I> Hybrid capital instruments include instruments that are essentially permanent in nature and that have certain characteristics of both equity and debt. Such instruments may be included in Tier 2 without limit. The general criteria hybrid capital instruments must meet in order to qualify for inclusion in Tier 2 capital are listed below: 
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument must be unsecured; fully paid-up and subordinated to general creditors. If issued by a bank, it must also be subordinated to claims or depositors. 
</P>
<P>(2) The instrument must not be redeemable at the option of the holder prior to maturity, except with the prior approval of the Federal Reserve. (Consistent with the Board's criteria for perpetual debt and mandatory convertible securities, this requirement implies that holders of such instruments may not accelerate the payment of principal except in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or reorganization.)
</P>
<P>(3) The instrument must be available to participate in losses while the issuer is operating as a going concern. (Term subordinated debt would not meet this requirement.) To satisfy this requirement, the instrument must convert to common or perpetual preferred stock in the event that the accumulated losses exceed the sum of the retained earnings and capital surplus accounts of the issuer. 
</P>
<P>(4) The instrument must provide the option for the issuer to defer interest payments if: a) the issuer does not report a profit in the preceding annual period (defined as combined profits for the most recent four quarters), <I>and</I> b) the issuer eliminates cash dividends on common and preferred stock. 
</P>
<P>Perpetual debt and mandatory convertible debt securities that meet the criteria set forth in 12 CFR part 225, appendix B, also qualify as unlimited elements of Tier 2 capital for bank holding companies. 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock</I>—i. <I>Five-year minimum maturity.</I> Subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock must have an original weighted average maturity of at least five years to qualify as tier 2 capital. If the holder has the option to require the issuer to redeem, repay, or repurchase the instrument prior to the original stated maturity, maturity would be defined, for risk-based capital purposes, as the earliest possible date on which the holder can put the instrument back to the issuing banking organization.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Other restrictions on subordinated debt.</I> Subordinated debt included in tier 2 capital must comply with the Federal Reserve's subordinated debt policy statement set forth in 12 CFR 250.166. 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Accordingly, such subordinated debt must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> The subordinated debt policy statement set forth in 12 CFR 250.166 notes that certain terms found in subordinated debt may provide protection to investors without adversely affecting the overall benefits of the instrument to the issuing banking organization and, thus, would be acceptable for subordinated debt included in capital. For example, a provision that prohibits a bank holding company from merging, consolidating, or selling substantially all of its assets unless the new entity redeems or assumes the subordinated debt or that designates the failure to pay principal and interest on a timely basis as an event of default would be acceptable, so long as the occurrence of such events does not allow the debt holders to accelerate the payment of principal or interest on the debt.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The subordinated debt must be unsecured.
</P>
<P>(2) The subordinated debt must clearly state on its face that it is not a deposit and is not insured by a Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The subordinated debt must not have credit-sensitive features or other provisions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practice.
</P>
<P>(4) Subordinated debt issued by a subsidiary U.S. depository institution or foreign bank of a bank holding company must be subordinated in right of payment to the claims of all the institution's general creditors and depositors, and generally must not contain provisions permitting debt holders to accelerate payment of principal or interest upon the occurrence of any event other than receivership of the institution. Subordinated debt issued by a bank holding company or its subsidiaries that are neither U.S. depository institutions nor foreign banks must be subordinated to all senior indebtedness of the issuer; that is, the debt must be subordinated at a minimum to all borrowed money, similar obligations arising from off-balance sheet guarantees and direct credit substitutes, and obligations associated with derivative products such as interest rate and foreign exchange contracts, commodity contracts, and similar arrangements. Subordinated debt issued by a bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries that is not a U.S. depository institution or foreign bank must not contain provisions permitting debt holders to accelerate the payment of principal or interest upon the occurrence of any event other than the bankruptcy of the bank holding company or the receivership of a major subsidiary depository institution. Thus, a provision permitting acceleration in the event that any other affiliate of the bank holding company issuer enters into bankruptcy or receivership makes the instrument ineligible for inclusion in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Discounting in last five years.</I> As a limited-life capital instrument approaches maturity, it begins to take on characteristics of a short-term obligation. For this reason, the outstanding amount of term subordinated debt and limited-life preferred stock eligible for inclusion in tier 2 capital is reduced, or discounted, as these instruments approach maturity: one-fifth of the outstanding amount is excluded each year during the instrument's last five years before maturity. When remaining maturity is less than one year, the instrument is excluded from tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Limits.</I> The aggregate amount of term subordinated debt (excluding mandatory convertible debt) and limited-life preferred stock as well as, beginning March 31, 2011, qualifying trust preferred securities and Class C minority interest in excess of the limits set forth in section II.A.1.b.i. of this appendix that may be included in tier 2 capital is limited to 50 percent of tier 1 capital (net of goodwill and other intangible assets required to be deducted in accordance with section II.B.1.b. of this appendix). Amounts of these instruments in excess of this limit, although not included in tier 2 capital, will be taken into account by the Federal Reserve in its overall assessment of a banking organization's funding and financial condition.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Unrealized gains on equity securities and unrealized gains (losses) on other assets.</I> Up to 45 percent of pretax net unrealized holding gains (that is, the excess, if any, of the fair value over historical cost) on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values may be included in supplementary capital. However, the Federal Reserve may exclude all or a portion of these unrealized gains from Tier 2 capital if the Federal Reserve determines that the equity securities are not prudently valued. Unrealized gains (losses) on other types of assets, such as bank premises and available-for-sale debt securities, are not included in supplementary capital, but the Federal Reserve may take these unrealized gains (losses) into account as additional factors when assessing an institution's overall capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Revaluation reserves.</I> i. Such reserves reflect the formal balance sheet restatement or revaluation for capital purposes of asset carrying values to reflect current market values. The Federal Reserve generally has not included unrealized asset appreciation in capital ratio calculations, although it has long taken such values into account as a separate factor in assessing the overall financial strength of a banking organization. 
</P>
<P>ii. Consistent with long-standing supervisory practice, the excess of market values over book values for assets held by bank holding companies will generally not be recognized in supplementary capital or in the calculation of the risk-based capital ratio. However, all bank holding companies are encouraged to disclose their equivalent of premises (building) and security revaluation reserves. The Federal Reserve will consider any appreciation, as well as any depreciation, in specific asset values as additional considerations in assessing overall capital strength and financial condition.
</P>
<HD2>B. Deductions from Capital and Other Adjustments
</HD2>
<P>Certain assets are deducted from an organization's capital for the purpose of calculating the risk-based capital ratio. 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> These assets include: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> Any assets deducted from capital in computing the numerator of the ratio are not included in weighted risk assets in computing the denominator of the ratio.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i)(a) Goodwill—deducted from the sum of core capital elements.
</P>
<P>(b) Certain identifiable intangible assets, that is, intangible assets other than goodwill—deducted from the sum of core capital elements in accordance with section II.B.1.b. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) Certain credit-enhancing interest-only strips receivables—deducted from the sum of core capital elements in accordance with sections II.B.1.c. through e. of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Investments in banking and finance subsidiaries that are not consolidated for accounting or supervisory purposes, and investments in other designated subsidiaries or associated companies at the discretion of the Federal Reserve—deducted from total capital components (as described in greater detail below). 
</P>
<P>(iii) Reciprocal holdings of capital instruments of banking organizations—deducted from total capital components.
</P>
<P>(iv) Deferred tax assets—portions are deducted from the sum of core capital elements in accordance with section II.B.4. of this appendix A.
</P>
<P>(v) Nonfinancial equity investments—portions are deducted from the sum of core capital elements in accordance with section II.<I>B.</I>5 of this appendix A.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Goodwill and other intangible assets</I>—a. <I>Goodwill.</I> Goodwill is an intangible asset that represents the excess of the cost of an acquired entity over the net of the amounts assigned to assets acquired and liabilities assumed. Goodwill is deducted from the sum of core capital elements in determining tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Other intangible assets.</I> i. All servicing assets, including servicing assets on assets other than mortgages (i.e., nonmortgage servicing assets), are included in this appendix as identifiable intangible assets. The only types of identifiable intangible assets that may be included in, that is, not deducted from, an organization's capital are readily marketable mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships. The total amount of these assets that may be included in capital is subject to the limitations described below in sections II.B.1.d. and e. of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>ii. The treatment of identifiable intangible assets set forth in this section generally will be used in the calculation of a bank holding company's capital ratios for supervisory and applications purposes. However, in making an overall assessment of a bank holding company's capital adequacy for applications purposes, the Board may, if it deems appropriate, take into account the quality and composition of an organization's capital, together with the quality and value of its tangible and intangible assets. 
</P>
<P>c. <I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strips receivables (I/Os)</I> i. Credit-enhancing I/Os are on-balance sheet assets that, in form or in substance, represent a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest due on transferred assets and expose the bank holding company to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with transferred assets that exceeds a <I>pro rata</I> share of the bank holding company's claim on the assets, whether through subordination provisions or other credit enhancement techniques. Such I/Os, whether purchased or retained, including other similar “spread” assets, may be included in, that is, not deducted from, a bank holding company's capital subject to the limitations described below in sections II.B.1.d. and e. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. Both purchased and retained credit-enhancing I/Os, on a non-tax adjusted basis, are included in the total amount that is used for purposes of determining whether a bank holding company exceeds the tier 1 limitation described below in this section. In determining whether an I/O or other types of spread assets serve as a credit enhancement, the Federal Reserve will look to the economic substance of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Fair value limitation.</I> The amount of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships that a bank holding company may include in capital shall be the lesser of 90 percent of their fair value, as determined in accordance with section II.B.1.f. of this appendix, or 100 percent of their book value, as adjusted for capital purposes in accordance with the instructions to the Consolidated Financial Statements for Bank Holding Companies (FR Y-9C Report). The amount of credit-enhancing I/Os that a bank holding company may include in capital shall be its fair value. If both the application of the limits on mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships and the adjustment of the balance sheet amount for these assets would result in an amount being deducted from capital, the bank holding company would deduct only the greater of the two amounts from its core capital elements in determining tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Tier 1 capital limitation.</I> i. The total amount of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships that may be included in capital, in the aggregate, cannot exceed 100 percent of tier 1 capital. Nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships are subject, in the aggregate, to a separate sublimit of 25 percent of tier 1 capital. In addition, the total amount of credit-enhancing I/Os (both purchased and retained) that may be included in capital cannot exceed 25 percent of tier 1 capital. 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> Amounts of servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and credit-enhancing I/Os (both retained and purchased) in excess of these limitations, as well as all other identifiable intangible assets, including core deposit intangibles and favorable leaseholds, are to be deducted from a bank holding company's core capital elements in determining tier 1 capital. However, identifiable intangible assets (other than mortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships) acquired on or before February 19, 1992, generally will not be deducted from capital for supervisory purposes, although they will continue to be deducted for applications purposes.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. For purposes of calculating these limitations on mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and credit-enhancing I/Os, tier 1 capital is defined as the sum of core capital elements, net of goodwill, and net of all identifiable intangible assets other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships, but prior to the deduction of any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, any disallowed credit-enhancing I/Os (both purchased and retained), any disallowed deferred tax assets, and any nonfinancial equity investments.
</P>
<P>iii. Bank holding companies may elect to deduct goodwill, disallowed mortgage servicing assets, disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, and disallowed credit-enhancing I/Os (both purchased and retained) on a basis that is net of any associated deferred tax liability. Deferred tax liabilities netted in this manner cannot also be netted against deferred tax assets when determining the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Valuation.</I> Bank holding companies must review the book value of goodwill and other intangible assets at least quarterly and make adjustments to these values as necessary. The fair value of mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships, and credit-enhancing I/Os also must be determined at least quarterly. This determination shall include adjustments for any significant changes in original valuation assumptions, including changes in prepayment estimates or account attrition rates. Examiners will review both the book value and the fair value assigned to these assets, together with supporting documentation, during the inspection process. In addition, the Federal Reserve may require, on a case-by-case basis, an independent valuation of a bank holding company's goodwill, other intangible assets, or credit-enhancing I/Os.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Growing organizations.</I> Consistent with long-standing Board policy, banking organizations experiencing substantial growth, whether internally or by acquisition, are expected to maintain strong capital positions substantially above minimum supervisory levels, without significant reliance on intangible assets or credit-enhancing I/Os. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Investments in certain subsidiaries</I>— a. <I>Unconsolidated banking or finance subsidiaries.</I> The aggregate amount of investments in banking or finance subsidiaries 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> whose financial statements are not consolidated for accounting or regulatory reporting purposes, regardless of whether the investment is made by the parent bank holding company or its direct or indirect subsidiaries, will be deducted from the consolidated parent banking organization's total capital components. 
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> Generally, investments for this purpose are defined as equity and debt capital investments and any other instruments that are deemed to be capital in the particular subsidiary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> For this purpose, a banking and finance subsidiary generally is defined as any company engaged in banking or finance in which the parent institution holds directly or indirectly more than 50 percent of the outstanding voting stock, or which is otherwise controlled or capable of being controlled by the parent institution. For purposes of this section, the definition of banking and finance subsidiary does not include a trust or other special purpose entity used to issue trust preferred securities.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> An exception to this deduction would be made in the case of shares acquired in the regular course of securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith. The requirements for consolidation are spelled out in the instructions to the FR Y-9C Report.</P></FTNT>
<P>Advances (that is, loans, extensions of credit, guarantees, commitments, or any other forms of credit exposure) to the subsidiary that are not deemed to be capital will generally not be deducted from an organization's capital. Rather, such advances generally will be included in the parent banking organization's consolidated assets and be assigned to the 100 percent risk category, unless such obligations are backed by recognized collateral or guarantees, in which case they will be assigned to the risk category appropriate to such collateral or guarantees. These advances may, however, also be deducted from the consolidated parent banking organization's capital if, in the judgment of the Federal Reserve, the risks stemming from such advances are comparable to the risks associated with capital investments or if the advances involve other risk factors that warrant such an adjustment to capital for supervisory purposes. These other factors could include, for example, the absence of collateral support.
</P>
<P>Inasmuch as the assets of unconsolidated banking and finance subsidiaries are not fully reflected in a banking organization's consolidated total assets, such assets may be viewed as the equivalent of off-balance sheet exposures since the operations of an unconsolidated subsidiary could expose the parent organization and its affiliates to considerable risk. For this reason, it is generally appropriate to view the capital resources invested in these unconsolidated entities as primarily supporting the risks inherent in these off-balance sheet assets, and not generally available to support risks or absorb losses elsewhere in the organization.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Other subsidiaries and investments.</I> The deduction of investments, regardless of whether they are made by the parent bank holding company or by its direct or indirect subsidiaries, from a consolidated banking organization's capital will also be applied in the case of any subsidiaries, that, while consolidated for accounting purposes, are not consolidated for certain specified supervisory or regulatory purposes, such as to facilitate functional regulation. For this purpose, aggregate capital investments (that is, the sum of any equity or debt instruments that are deemed to be capital) in these subsidiaries will be deducted from the consolidated parent banking organization's total capital components. 
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> Investments in unconsolidated subsidiaries will be deducted from both Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital. As a general rule, one-half (50 percent) of the aggregate amount of capital investments will be deducted from the bank holding company's Tier 1 capital and one-half (50 percent) from its Tier 2 capital. However, the Federal Reserve may, on a case-by-case basis, deduct a proportionately greater amount from Tier 1 if the risks associated with the subsidiary so warrant. If the amount deductible from Tier 2 capital exceeds actual Tier 2 capital, the excess would be deducted from Tier 1 capital. Bank holding companies' risk-based capital ratios, net of these deductions, must exceed the minimum standards set forth in section IV.</P></FTNT>
<P>Advances (that is, loans, extensions of credit, guarantees, commitments, or any other forms of credit exposure) to such subsidiaries that are not deemed to be capital will generally not be deducted from capital. Rather, such advances will normally be included in the parent banking organization's consolidated assets and assigned to the 100 percent risk category, unless such obligations are backed by recognized collateral or guarantees, in which case they will be assigned to the risk category appropriate to such collateral or guarantees. These advances may, however, be deducted from the consolidated parent banking organization's capital if, in the judgment of the Federal Reserve, the risks stemming from such advances are comparable to the risks associated with capital investments or if such advances involve other risk factors that warrant such an adjustment to capital for supervisory purposes. These other factors could include, for example, the absence of collateral support. 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> In assessing the overall capital adequacy of a banking organization, the Federal Reserve may also consider the organization's fully consolidated capital position.</P></FTNT>
<P>In general, when investments in a consolidated subsidiary are deducted from a consolidated parent banking organization's capital, the subsidiary's assets will also be excluded from the consolidated assets of the parent banking organization in order to assess the latter's capital adequacy. 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> If the subsidiary's assets are consolidated with the parent banking organization for financial reporting purposes, this adjustment will involve excluding the subsidiary's assets on a line-by-line basis from the consolidated parent organization's assets. The parent banking organization's capital ratio will then be calculated on a consolidated basis with the exception that the assets of the excluded subsidiary will not be consolidated with the remainder of the parent banking organization.</P></FTNT>
<P>The Federal Reserve may also deduct from a banking organization's capital, on a case-by-case basis, investments in certain other subsidiaries in order to determine if the consolidated banking organization meets minimum supervisory capital requirements without reliance on the resources invested in such subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>The Federal Reserve will not automatically deduct investments in other unconsolidated subsidiaries or investments in joint ventures and associated companies. 
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> Nonetheless, the resources invested in these entities, like investments in unconsolidated banking and finance subsidiaries, support assets not consolidated with the rest of the banking organization's activities and, therefore, may not be generally available to support additional leverage or absorb losses elsewhere in the banking organization. Moreover, experience has shown that banking organizations stand behind the losses of affiliated institutions, such as joint ventures and associated companies, in order to protect the reputation of the organization as a whole. In some cases, this has led to losses that have exceeded the investments in such organizations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> The definition of such entities is contained in the instructions to the Consolidated Financial Statements for Bank Holding Companies. Under regulatory reporting procedures, associated companies and joint ventures generally are defined as companies in which the banking organization owns 20 to 50 percent of the voting stock.</P></FTNT>
<P>For this reason, the Federal Reserve will monitor the level and nature of such investments for individual banking organizations and may, on a case-by-case basis, deduct such investments from total capital components, apply an appropriate risk-weighted capital charge against the organization's proportionate share of the assets of its associated companies, require a line-by-line consolidation of the entity (in the event that the parent's control over the entity makes it the functional equivalent of a subsidiary), or otherwise require the organization to operate with a risk-based capital ratio above the minimum.
</P>
<P>In considering the appropriateness of such adjustments or actions, the Federal Reserve will generally take into account whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The parent banking organization has significant influence over the financial or managerial policies or operations of the subsidiary, joint venture, or associated company;
</P>
<P>(2) The banking organization is the largest investor in the affiliated company; or
</P>
<P>(3) Other circumstances prevail that appear to closely tie the activities of the affiliated company to the parent banking organization.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reciprocal holdings of banking organizations' capital instruments.</I> Reciprocal holdings of banking organizations' capital instruments (that is, instruments that qualify as Tier 1 or Tier 2 capital) will be deducted from an organization's total capital components for the purpose of determining the numerator of the risk-based capital ratio.
</P>
<P>Reciprocal holdings are cross-holdings resulting from formal or informal arrangements in which two or more banking organizations swap, exchange, or otherwise agree to hold each other's capital instruments. Generally, deductions will be limited to intentional cross-holdings. At present, the Board does not intend to require banking organizations to deduct non-reciprocal holdings of such capital instruments. 
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> Deductions of holdings of capital securities also would not be made in the case of interstate “stake out” investments that comply with the Board's Policy Statement on Nonvoting Equity Investments, 12 CFR 225.143 (Federal Reserve Regulatory Service 4-172.1; 68 Federal Reserve Bulletin 413 (1982)). In addition, holdings of capital instruments issued by other banking organizations but taken in satisfaction of debts previously contracted would be exempt from any deduction from capital. The Board intends to monitor nonreciprocal holdings of other banking organizations' capital instruments and to provide information on such holdings to the Basle Supervisors' Committee as called for under the Basle capital framework.</P></FTNT>
<P>4. <I>Deferred-tax assets.</I> a. The amount of deferred-tax assets that is dependent upon future taxable income, net of the valuation allowance for deferred-tax assets, that may be included in, that is, not deducted from, a bank holding company's capital may not exceed the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>i. The amount of these deferred-tax assets that the bank holding company is expected to realize within one year of the calendar quarter-end date, based on its projections of future taxable income for that year, 
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> or 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> To determine the amount of expected deferred-tax assets realizable in the next 12 months, an institution should assume that all existing temporary differences fully reverse as of the report date. Projected future taxable income should not include net operating loss carry-forwards to be used during that year or the amount of existing temporary differences a bank holding company expects to reverse within the year. Such projections should include the estimated effect of tax-planning strategies that the organization expects to implement to realize net operating losses or tax-credit carry-forwards that would otherwise expire during the year. Institutions do not have to prepare a new 12-month projection each quarter. Rather, on interim report dates, institutions may use the future-taxable income projections for their current fiscal year, adjusted for any significant changes that have occurred or are expected to occur.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. 10 percent of tier 1 capital. 
</P>
<P>b. The reported amount of deferred-tax assets, net of any valuation allowance for deferred-tax assets, in excess of the lesser of these two amounts is to be deducted from a banking organization's core capital elements in determining tier 1 capital. For purposes of calculating the 10 percent limitation, tier 1 capital is defined as the sum of core capital elements, net of goodwill and net of all identifiable intangible assets other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets, and purchased credit card relationships, but prior to the deduction of any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, any disallowed credit-enhancing I/Os, any disallowed deferred-tax assets, and any nonfinancial equity investments. There generally is no limit in tier 1 capital on the amount of deferred-tax assets that can be realized from taxes paid in prior carry-back years or from future reversals of existing taxable temporary differences.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Nonfinancial equity investments</I>—a. <I>General.</I> A bank holding company must deduct from its core capital elements the sum of the appropriate percentages (as determined below) of the adjusted carrying value of all nonfinancial equity investments held by the parent bank holding company or by its direct or indirect subsidiaries. For purposes of this section II.B.5, investments held by a bank holding company include all investments held directly or indirectly by the bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Scope of nonfinancial equity investments.</I> A nonfinancial equity investment means any equity investment held by the bank holding company: under the merchant banking authority of section 4(k)(4)(H) of the BHC Act and subpart J of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.175 <I>et seq.</I>); under section 4(c)(6) or 4(c)(7) of BHC Act in a nonfinancial company or in a company that makes investments in nonfinancial companies; in a nonfinancial company through a small business investment company (SBIC) under section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958; 
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> in a nonfinancial company under the portfolio investment provisions of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.8(c)(3)); or in a nonfinancial company under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (other than section 24(f)). 
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> A nonfinancial company is an entity that engages in any activity that has not been determined to be financial in nature or incidental to financial activities under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> An equity investment made under section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 in an SBIC that is not consolidated with the parent banking organization is treated as a nonfinancial equity investment.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(6), (c)(7) and (k)(4)(H); 15 U.S.C. 682(b); 12 CFR 211.5(b)(1)(iii); and 12 U.S.C. 1831a. In a case in which the Board of Directors of the FDIC, acting directly in exceptional cases and after a review of the proposed activity, has permitted a lesser capital deduction for an investment approved by the Board of Directors under section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, such deduction shall also apply to the consolidated bank holding company capital calculation so long as the bank's investments under section 24 and SBIC investments represent, in the aggregate, less than 15 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the bank.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. <I>Amount of deduction from core capital.</I> i. The bank holding company must deduct from its core capital elements the sum of the appropriate percentages, as set forth in Table 1, of the adjusted carrying value of all nonfinancial equity investments held by the bank holding company. The amount of the percentage deduction increases as the aggregate amount of nonfinancial equity investments held by the bank holding company increases as a percentage of the bank holding company's Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Deduction for Nonfinancial Equity Investments
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Aggregate adjusted carrying value of all nonfinancial equity investments held directly or indirectly by the bank holding company (as a percentage of the Tier 1 capital of the parent banking organization) 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deduction from Core Capital Elements (as a percentage of the adjusted carrying value of the investment)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 15 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 percent to 24.99 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25 percent and above</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 percent.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For purposes of calculating the adjusted carrying value of nonfinancial equity investments as a percentage of Tier 1 capital, Tier 1 capital is defined as the sum of core capital elements net of goodwill and net of all identifiable intangible assets other than mortgage servicing assets, nonmortgage servicing assets and purchased credit card relationships, but prior to the deduction for any disallowed mortgage servicing assets, any disallowed nonmortgage servicing assets, any disallowed purchased credit card relationships, any disallowed credit enhancing I/Os (both purchased and retained), any disallowed deferred tax assets, and any nonfinancial equity investments.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. These deductions are applied on a marginal basis to the portions of the adjusted carrying value of nonfinancial equity investments that fall within the specified ranges of the parent holding company's Tier 1 capital. For example, if the adjusted carrying value of all nonfinancial equity investments held by a bank holding company equals 20 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the bank holding company, then the amount of the deduction would be 8 percent of the adjusted carrying value of all investments up to 15 percent of the company's Tier 1 capital, and 12 percent of the adjusted carrying value of all investments in excess of 15 percent of the company's Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>iii. The total adjusted carrying value of any nonfinancial equity investment that is subject to deduction under this paragraph is excluded from the bank holding company's risk-weighted assets for purposes of computing the denominator of the company's risk-based capital ratio. 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> For example, if 8 percent of the adjusted carrying value of a nonfinancial equity investment is deducted from Tier 1 capital, the entire adjusted carrying value of the investment will be excluded from risk-weighted assets in calculating the denominator for the risk-based capital ratio.</P></FTNT>
<P>iv. As noted in section I, this appendix establishes <I>minimum</I> risk-based capital ratios and banking organizations are at all times expected to maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of the risks to which they are exposed. The risk to a banking organization from nonfinancial equity investments increases with its concentration in such investments and strong capital levels above the minimum requirements are particularly important when a banking organization has a high degree of concentration in nonfinancial equity investments (<I>e.g.,</I> in excess of 50 percent of Tier 1 capital). The Federal Reserve intends to monitor banking organizations and apply heightened supervision to equity investment activities as appropriate, including where the banking organization has a high degree of concentration in nonfinancial equity investments, to ensure that each organization maintains capital levels that are appropriate in light of its equity investment activities. The Federal Reserve also reserves authority to impose a higher capital charge in any case where the circumstances, such as the level of risk of the particular investment or portfolio of investments, the risk management systems of the banking organization, or other information, indicate that a higher minimum capital requirement is appropriate.
</P>
<P>d. <I>SBIC investments.</I> i. No deduction is required for nonfinancial equity investments that are held by a bank holding company through one or more SBICs that are consolidated with the bank holding company or in one or more SBICs that are not consolidated with the bank holding company to the extent that all such investments, in the aggregate, do not exceed 15 percent of the aggregate of the bank holding company's pro rata interests in the Tier 1 capital of its subsidiary banks. Any nonfinancial equity investment that is held through or in an SBIC and not required to be deducted from Tier 1 capital under this section II.B.5.d. will be assigned a 100 percent risk-weight and included in the parent holding company's consolidated risk-weighted assets. 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> If a bank holding company has an investment in an SBIC that is consolidated for accounting purposes but that is not wholly owned by the bank holding company, the adjusted carrying value of the bank holding company's nonfinancial equity investments through the SBIC is equal to the holding company's proportionate share of the adjusted carrying value of the SBIC's equity investments in nonfinancial companies. The remainder of the SBIC's adjusted carrying value (<I>i.e.</I> the minority interest holders' proportionate share) is excluded from the risk-weighted assets of the bank holding company. If a bank holding company has an investment in a SBIC that is not consolidated for accounting purposes and has current information that identifies the percentage of the SBIC's assets that are equity investments in nonfinancial companies, the bank holding company may reduce the adjusted carrying value of its investment in the SBIC proportionately to reflect the percentage of the adjusted carrying value of the SBIC's assets that are not equity investments in nonfinancial companies. If a bank holding company reduces the adjusted carrying value of its investment in a non-consolidated SBIC to reflect financial investments of the SBIC, the amount of the adjustment will be risk weighted at 100 percent and included in the bank's risk-weighted assets.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. To the extent the adjusted carrying value of all nonfinancial equity investments that a bank holding company holds through one or more SBICs that are consolidated with the bank holding company or in one or more SBICs that are not consolidated with the bank holding company exceeds, in the aggregate, 15 percent of the aggregate Tier 1 capital of the company's subsidiary banks, the appropriate percentage of such amounts (as set forth in Table 1) must be deducted from the bank holding company's core capital elements. In addition, the aggregate adjusted carrying value of <I>all</I> nonfinancial equity investments held through a consolidated SBIC and in a non-consolidated SBIC (including any investments for which no deduction is required) must be included in determining, for purposes of Table 1, the total amount of nonfinancial equity investments held by the bank holding company in relation to its Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Transition provisions.</I> No deduction under this section II.<I>B.</I>5 is required to be made with respect to the adjusted carrying value of any nonfinancial equity investment (or portion of such an investment) that was made by the bank holding company prior to March 13, 2000, or that was made after such date pursuant to a binding written commitment 
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> entered into by the bank holding company prior to March 13, 2000, provided that in either case the bank holding company has continuously held the investment since the relevant investment date. 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> For purposes of this section II.B.5.e., a nonfinancial equity investment made prior to March 13, 2000, includes any shares or other interests received by the bank holding company through a stock split or stock dividend on an investment made prior to March 13, 2000, provided the bank holding company provides no consideration for the shares or interests received and the transaction does not materially increase the bank” holding company's proportional interest in the company. The exercise on or after March 13, 2000, of options or warrants acquired prior to March 13, 2000, is <I>not</I> considered to be an investment made prior to March 13, 2000, if the bank holding company provides any consideration for the shares or interests received upon exercise of the options or warrants. Any nonfinancial equity investment (or portion thereof) that is not required to be deducted from Tier 1 capital under this section II.B.5.e. must be included in determining the total amount of nonfinancial equity investments held by the bank holding company in relation to its Tier 1 capital for purposes of Table 1. In addition, any nonfinancial equity investment (or portion thereof) that is not required to be deducted from Tier 1 capital under this section II.B.5.e. will be assigned a 100-percent risk weight and included in the bank holding company's consolidated risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> A “binding written commitment” means a legally binding written agreement that requires the banking organization to acquire shares or other equity of the company, or make a capital contribution to the company, under terms and conditions set forth in the agreement. Options, warrants, and other agreements that give a banking organization the right to acquire equity or make an investment, but do not require the banking organization to take such actions, are not considered a binding written commitment for purposes of this section II.<I>B.</I>5.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> For example, if a bank holding company made an equity investment in 100 shares of a nonfinancial company prior to March 13, 2000, that investment would not be subject to a deduction under this section II.<I>B.</I>5. However, if the bank holding company made any additional equity investment in the company after March 13, 2000, such as by purchasing additional shares of the company (including through the exercise of options or warrants acquired before or after March 13, 2000) or by making a capital contribution to the company, and such investment was not made pursuant to a binding written commitment entered into before March 13, 2000, the adjusted carrying value of the additional investment would be subject to a deduction under this section II.<I>B.</I>5. In addition, if the bank holding company sold and repurchased shares of the company after March 13, 2000, the adjusted carrying value of the re-acquired shares would be subject to a deduction under this section II.<I>B.</I>5.</P></FTNT>
<P>f. <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> i. For purposes of this section II.<I>B.</I>5., the “adjusted carrying value” of investments is the aggregate value at which the investments are carried on the balance sheet of the consolidated bank holding company reduced by any unrealized gains on those investments that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the bank holding company's Tier 1 capital and associated deferred tax liabilities. For example, for investments held as available-for-sale (AFS), the adjusted carrying value of the investments would be the aggregate carrying value of the investments (as reflected on the consolidated balance sheet of the bank holding company) <I>less</I> any unrealized gains on those investments that are included in other comprehensive income and not reflected in Tier 1 capital, and associated deferred tax liabilities. 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> Unrealized gains on AFS investments may be included in supplementary capital to the extent permitted under section II.A.2.e of this appendix A. In addition, the unrealized losses on AFS equity investments are deducted from Tier 1 capital in accordance with section II.A.1.a of this appendix A.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. As discussed above with respect to consolidated SBICs, some equity investments may be in companies that are consolidated for accounting purposes. For investments in a nonfinancial company that is consolidated for accounting purposes under generally accepted accounting principles, the parent banking organization's adjusted carrying value of the investment is determined under the equity method of accounting (net of any intangibles associated with the investment that are deducted from the consolidated bank holding company's core capital in accordance with section II.B.1 of this appendix). Even though the assets of the nonfinancial company are consolidated for accounting purposes, these assets (as well as the credit equivalent amounts of the company's off-balance sheet items) should be excluded from the banking organization's risk-weighted assets for regulatory capital purposes.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Equity investments.</I> For purposes of this section II.<I>B.</I>5, an equity investment means any equity instrument (including common stock, preferred stock, partnership interests, interests in limited liability companies, trust certificates and warrants and call options that give the holder the right to purchase an equity instrument), any equity feature of a debt instrument (such as a warrant or call option), and any debt instrument that is convertible into equity where the instrument or feature is held under one of the legal authorities listed in section II.<I>B.</I>5.b. of this appendix. An investment in any other instrument (including subordinated debt) may be treated as an equity investment if, in the judgment of the Federal Reserve, the instrument is the functional equivalent of equity or exposes the state member bank to essentially the same risks as an equity instrument.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Attachment II—Summary of Definition of Qualifying Capital for Bank Holding Companies*
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Using the Year-End 1992 Standard]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Components
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum requirements
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CORE CAPITAL (Tier 1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must equal or exceed 4% of weighted-risk assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Common stockholders' equity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Qualifying noncumulative perpetual preferred stock</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limit; bank holding companies should avoid undue reliance on preferred stock in tier 1.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Qualifying cumulative perpetual preferred stock</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited to 25% of the sum of common stock, qualifying perpetual stock, and minority interests.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Minority interest in equity accounts of consolidated subsidiaries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Organizations should avoid using minority interests to introduce elements not otherwise qualifying for tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less: Goodwill, other intangible assets, credit-enhancing interest-only strips and nonfinancial equity investments required to be deducted from capital 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SUPPLEMENTARY CAPITAL (Tier 2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total of tier 2 is limited to 100% of tier 1. 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Allowance for loan and lease losses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limited to 1.25% of weighted-risk assets. 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Perpetual preferred stock</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limit within tier 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Hybrid capital instruments and equity contract notes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limit within tier 2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock (original weighted average maturity of 5 years or more)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock are limited to 50% of tier 1 
<sup>2</sup>; amortized for capital purposes as they approach maturity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Revaluation reserves (equity and building)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not included; organizations encouraged to disclose; may be evaluated on a case-by-case basis for international comparisons; and taken into account in making an overall assessment of capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEDUCTIONS (from sum of tier 1 and tier 2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Investments in unconsolidated subsidiaries</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As a general rule, one-half of the aggregate investments will be deducted from tier 1 capital and one-half from tier 2 capital. 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Reciprocal holdings of banking organizations' capital securities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other deductions (such as other subsidiaries or joint ventures) as determined by supervisory authority</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">On a case-by-case basis or as a matter of policy after a formal rulemaking.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">TOTAL CAPITAL (tier 1 + tier 2− deductions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Must equal or exceed 8% of weighted-risk assets.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Requirements for the deduction of other intangible assets and residual interests are set forth in section II.B.1. of this appendix.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Amounts in excess of limitations are permitted but do not qualify as capital.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A proportionately greater amount may be deducted from tier 1 capital, if the risks associated with the subsidiary so warrant.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">* See discussion in section II of the guidelines for a complete description of the requirements for, and the limitations on, the components of qualifying capital.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>III. Procedures for Computing Weighted Risk Assets and Off-Balance Sheet Items
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Procedures
</HD2>
<P>Assets and credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet items of bank holding companies are assigned to one of several broad risk categories, according to the obligor, or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral. The aggregate dollar value of the amount in each category is then multiplied by the risk weight associated with that category. The resulting weighted values from each of the risk categories are added together, and this sum is the banking organization's total weighted risk assets that comprise the denominator of the risk-based capital ratio. Attachment I provides a sample calculation.
</P>
<P>Risk weights for all off-balance sheet items are determined by a two-step process. First, the “credit equivalent amount” of off-balance sheet items is determined, in most cases, by multiplying the off-balance sheet item by a credit conversion factor. Second, the credit equivalent amount is treated like any balance sheet asset and generally is assigned to the appropriate risk category according to the obligor, or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of the collateral.
</P>
<P>In general, if a particular item qualifies for placement in more than one risk category, it is assigned to the category that has the lowest risk weight. A holding of a U.S. municipal revenue bond that is fully guaranteed by a U.S. bank, for example, would be assigned the 20 percent risk weight appropriate to claims guaranteed by U.S. banks, rather than the 50 percent risk weight appropriate to U.S. municipal revenue bonds. 
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> An investment in shares of a fund whose portfolio consists primarily of various securities or money market instruments that, if held separately, would be assigned to different risk categories, generally is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the highest risk-weighted asset that the fund is permitted to hold in accordance with the stated investment objectives set forth in the prospectus. An organization may, at its option, assign a fund investment on a pro rata basis to different risk categories according to the investment limits in the fund's prospectus. In no case will an investment in shares in any fund be assigned to a total risk weight of less than 20 percent. If an organization chooses to assign a fund investment on a pro rata basis, and the sum of the investment limits of assets in the fund's prospectus exceeds 100 percent, the organization must assign risk weights in descending order. If, in order to maintain a necessary degree of short-term liquidity, a fund is permitted to hold an insignificant amount of its assets in short-term, highly liquid securities of superior credit quality that do not qualify for a preferential risk weight, such securities generally will be disregarded when determining the risk category into which the organization's holding in the overall fund should be assigned. The prudent use of hedging instruments by a fund to reduce the risk of its assets will not increase the risk weighting of the fund investment. For example, the use of hedging instruments by a fund to reduce the interest rate risk of its government bond portfolio will not increase the risk weight of that fund above the 20 percent category. Nonetheless, if a fund engages in any activities that appear speculative in nature or has any other characteristics that are inconsistent with the preferential risk weighting assigned to the fund's assets, holdings in the fund will be assigned to the 100 percent risk category.</P></FTNT>
<P>The Federal Reserve will, on a case-by-case basis, determine the appropriate risk weight for any asset or credit equivalent amount of an off-balance sheet item that does not fit wholly within the terms of one of the risk weight categories set forth below or that imposes risks on a bank holding company that are incommensurate with the risk weight otherwise specified below for the asset or off-balance sheet item. In addition, the Federal Reserve will, on a case-by-case basis, determine the appropriate credit conversion factor for any off-balance sheet item that does not fit wholly within the terms of one of the credit conversion factors set forth below or that imposes risks on a banking organization that are incommensurate with the credit conversion factors otherwise specified below for the off-balance sheet item. In making such a determination, the Federal Reserve will consider the similarity of the asset or off-balance sheet item to assets or off-balance sheet items explicitly treated in the guidelines, as well as other relevant factors. 
</P>
<HD2>B. Collateral, Guarantees, and Other Considerations
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Collateral.</I> The only forms of collateral that are formally recognized by the risk-based capital framework are: Cash on deposit in a subsidiary lending institution; securities issued or guaranteed by the central governments of the OECD-based group of countries, 
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> U.S. Government agencies, or U.S. Government-sponsored agencies; and securities issued by multilateral lending institutions or regional development banks. Claims fully secured by such collateral generally are assigned to the 20 percent risk-weight category. Collateralized transactions meeting all the conditions described in section III.C.1. may be assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> The OECD-based group of countries comprises all full members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) regardless of entry date, as well as countries that have concluded special lending arrangements with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) associated with the IMF's General Arrangements to Borrow, but excludes any country that has rescheduled its external sovereign debt within the previous five years. As of November 1995, the OECD included the following countries: Australia, Austria, Belgium, Canada, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, Mexico, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States; and Saudi Arabia had concluded special lending arrangements with the IMF associated with the IMF's General Arrangements to Borrow. A rescheduling of external sovereign debt generally would include any renegotiation of terms arising from a country's inability or unwillingness to meet its external debt service obligations, but generally would not include renegotiations of debt in the normal course of business, such as a renegotiation to allow the borrower to take advantage of a decline in interest rates or other change in market conditions.</P></FTNT>
<P>With regard to collateralized claims that may be assigned to the 20 percent risk-weight category, the extent to which qualifying securities are recognized as collateral is determined by their current market value. If such a claim is only partially secured, that is, the market value of the pledged securities is less than the face amount of a balance-sheet asset or an off-balance-sheet item, the portion that is covered by the market value of the qualifying collateral is assigned to the 20 percent risk category, and the portion of the claim that is not covered by collateral in the form of cash or a qualifying security is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor. For example, to the extent that a claim on a private sector obligor is collateralized by the current market value of U.S. Government securities, it would be placed in the 20 percent risk category and the balance would be assigned to the 100 percent risk category.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Guarantees.</I> Guarantees of the OECD and non-OECD central governments, U.S. Government agencies, U.S. Government-sponsored agencies, state and local governments of the OECD-based group of countries, multilateral lending institutions and regional development banks, U.S. depository institutions, and foreign banks are also recognized. If a claim is partially guaranteed, that is, coverage of the guarantee is less than the face amount of a balance sheet asset or an off-balance sheet item, the portion that is not fully covered by the guarantee is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor or, if relevant, to any collateral. The face amount of a claim covered by two types of guarantees that have different risk weights, such as a U.S. Government guarantee and a state guarantee, is to be apportioned between the two risk categories appropriate to the guarantors.
</P>
<P>The existence of other forms of collateral or guarantees that the risk-based capital framework does not formally recognize may be taken into consideration in evaluating the risks inherent in an organization's loan portfolio—which, in turn, would affect the overall supervisory assessment of the organization's capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Recourse obligations, direct credit substitutes, residual interests, and asset- and mortgage-backed securities.</I> Direct credit substitutes, assets transferred with recourse, and securities issued in connection with asset securitizations and structured financings are treated as described below. The term “asset securitizations” or “securitizations” in this rule includes structured financings, as well as asset securitization transactions. 
</P>
<P>a. <I>Definitions</I>—i. <I>Credit derivative</I> means a contract that allows one party (the “protection purchaser”) to transfer the credit risk of an asset or off-balance sheet credit exposure to another party (the “protection provider”). The value of a credit derivative is dependent, at least in part, on the credit performance of the “reference asset.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Credit-enhancing representations and warranties</I> means representations and warranties that are made or assumed in connection with a transfer of assets (including loan servicing assets) and that obligate the bank holding company to protect investors from losses arising from credit risk in the assets transferred or the loans serviced. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties include promises to protect a party from losses resulting from the default or nonperformance of another party or from an insufficiency in the value of the collateral. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties do not include:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50 percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a government-sponsored enterprise, provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Warranties that permit the return of assets in instances of misrepresentation, fraud or incomplete documentation.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Direct credit substitute</I> means an arrangement in which a bank holding company assumes, in form or in substance, credit risk associated with an on- or off-balance sheet credit exposure that was not previously owned by the bank holding company (third-party asset) and the risk assumed by the bank holding company exceeds the pro rata share of the bank holding company's interest in the third-party asset. If the bank holding company has no claim on the third-party asset, then the bank holding company's assumption of any credit risk with respect to the third party asset is a direct credit substitute. Direct credit substitutes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Financial standby letters of credit that support financial claims on a third party that exceed a bank holding company's pro rata share of losses in the financial claim;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Guarantees, surety arrangements, credit derivatives, and similar instruments backing financial claims that exceed a bank holding company's pro rata share in the financial claim;
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Purchased subordinated interests or securities that absorb more than their pro rata share of losses from the underlying assets;
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> Credit derivative contracts under which the bank holding company assumes more than its pro rata share of credit risk on a third party exposure;
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Loans or lines of credit that provide credit enhancement for the financial obligations of an account party;
</P>
<P><I>6.</I> Purchased loan servicing assets if the servicer is responsible for credit losses or if the servicer makes or assumes credit-enhancing representations and warranties with respect to the loans serviced. Mortgage servicer cash advances that meet the conditions of section III.B.3.a.viii. of this appendix are not direct credit substitutes;
</P>
<P><I>7.</I> Clean-up calls on third party assets. Clean-up calls that are 10 percent or less of the original pool balance that are exercisable at the option of the bank holding company are not direct credit substitutes; and
</P>
<P><I>8.</I> Liquidity facilities that provide liquidity support to ABCP (other than eligible ABCP liquidity facilities).
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facility</I> means a liquidity facility supporting ABCP, in form or in substance, that is subject to an asset quality test at the time of draw that precludes funding against assets that are 90 days or more past due or in default. In addition, if the assets that an eligible ABCP liquidity facility is required to fund against are externally rated assets or exposures at the inception of the facility, the facility can be used to fund only those assets or exposures that are externally rated investment grade at the time of funding. Notwithstanding the eligibility requirements set forth in the two preceding sentences, a liquidity facility will be considered an eligible ABCP liquidity facility if the assets that are funded under the liquidity facility and which do not meet the eligibility requirements are guaranteed, either conditionally or unconditionally, by the U.S. government or its agencies, or by the central government of an OECD country.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Externally rated</I> means that an instrument or obligation has received a credit rating from a nationally recognized statistical rating organization.
</P>
<P>vi. <I>Face amount</I> means the notional principal, or face value, amount of an off-balance sheet item; the amortized cost of an asset not held for trading purposes; and the fair value of a trading asset.
</P>
<P>vii. <I>Financial asset</I> means cash or other monetary instrument, evidence of debt, evidence of an ownership interest in an entity, or a contract that conveys a right to receive or exchange cash or another financial instrument from another party.
</P>
<P>viii. <I>Financial standby letter of credit</I> means a letter of credit or similar arrangement that represents an irrevocable obligation to a third-party beneficiary:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> To repay money borrowed by, or advanced to, or for the account of, a second party (the account party), or
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> To make payment on behalf of the account party, in the event that the account party fails to fulfill its obligation to the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>ix. <I>Liquidity Facility</I> means a legally binding commitment to provide liquidity support to ABCP by lending to, or purchasing assets from, any structure, program, or conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP.
</P>
<P>x. <I>Mortgage servicer cash advance</I> means funds that a residential mortgage loan servicer advances to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the loan. A mortgage servicer cash advance is not a recourse obligation or a direct credit substitute if:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement and this right is not subordinated to other claims on the cash flows from the underlying asset pool; or
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> For any one loan, the servicer's obligation to make nonreimbursable advances is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that loan.
</P>
<P>xi. <I>Nationally recognized statistical rating organization (NRSRO)</I> means an entity recognized by the Division of Market Regulation of the Securities and Exchange Commission (or any successor Division) (Commission) as a nationally recognized statistical rating organization for various purposes, including the Commission's uniform net capital requirements for brokers and dealers.
</P>
<P>xii. <I>Recourse</I> means the retention, by a bank holding company, in form or in substance, of any credit risk directly or indirectly associated with an asset it has transferred and sold that exceeds a pro rata share of the banking organization's claim on the asset. If a banking organization has no claim on a transferred asset, then the retention of any risk of credit loss is recourse. A recourse obligation typically arises when a bank holding company transfers assets and retains an explicit obligation to repurchase the assets or absorb losses due to a default on the payment of principal or interest or any other deficiency in the performance of the underlying obligor or some other party. Recourse may also exist implicitly if a bank holding company provides credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has sold. The following are examples of recourse arrangements:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Credit-enhancing representations and warranties made on the transferred assets;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Loan servicing assets retained pursuant to an agreement under which the bank holding company will be responsible for credit losses associated with the loans being serviced. Mortgage servicer cash advances that meet the conditions of section III.B.3.a.x. of this appendix are not recourse arrangements;
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Retained subordinated interests that absorb more than their pro rata share of losses from the underlying assets;
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> Assets sold under an agreement to repurchase, if the assets are not already included on the balance sheet;
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Loan strips sold without contractual recourse where the maturity of the transferred loan is shorter than the maturity of the commitment under which the loan is drawn;
</P>
<P><I>6.</I> Credit derivatives issued that absorb more than the bank holding company's pro rata share of losses from the transferred assets;
</P>
<P><I>7.</I> Clean-up calls at inception that are greater than 10 percent of the balance of the original pool of transferred loans. Clean-up calls that are 10 percent or less of the original pool balance that are exercisable at the option of the bank holding company are not recourse arrangements; and
</P>
<P><I>8.</I> Liquidity facilities that provide liquidity support to ABCP (other than eligible ABCP liquidity facilities).
</P>
<P>xiii. <I>Residual interest</I> means any on-balance sheet asset that represents an interest (including a beneficial interest) created by a transfer that qualifies as a sale (in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles) of financial assets, whether through a securitization or otherwise, and that exposes the bank holding company to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the transferred assets that exceeds a pro rata share of the bank holding company's claim on the assets, whether through subordination provisions or other credit enhancement techniques. Residual interests generally include credit-enhancing I/Os, spread accounts, cash collateral accounts, retained subordinated interests, other forms of over-collateralization, and similar assets that function as a credit enhancement. Residual interests further include those exposures that, in substance, cause the bank holding company to retain the credit risk of an asset or exposure that had qualified as a residual interest before it was sold. Residual interests generally do not include interests purchased from a third party, except that purchased credit-enhancing I/Os are residual interests for purposes of this appendix.
</P>
<P>xiv. <I>Risk participation</I> means a participation in which the originating party remains liable to the beneficiary for the full amount of an obligation (<I>e.g.</I>, a direct credit substitute) notwithstanding that another party has acquired a participation in that obligation.
</P>
<P>xv. <I>Securitization</I> means the pooling and repackaging by a special purpose entity of assets or other credit exposures into securities that can be sold to investors. Securitization includes transactions that create stratified credit risk positions whose performance is dependent upon an underlying pool of credit exposures, including loans and commitments.
</P>
<P>xvi. <I>Sponsor</I> means a bank holding company that establishes an ABCP program; approves the sellers permitted to participate in the program; approves the asset pools to be purchased by the program; or administers the program by monitoring the assets, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, or ensuring compliance with the program documents and with the program's credit and investment policy.
</P>
<P>xvii. <I>Structured finance program</I> means a program where receivable interests and asset-backed securities issued by multiple participants are purchased by a special purpose entity that repackages those exposures into securities that can be sold to investors. Structured finance programs allocate credit risks, generally, between the participants and credit enhancement provided to the program.
</P>
<P>xviii. <I>Traded position</I> means a position that is externally rated and is retained, assumed, or issued in connection with an asset securitization, where there is a reasonable expectation that, in the near future, the rating will be relied upon by unaffiliated investors to purchase the position; or an unaffiliated third party to enter into a transaction involving the position, such as a purchase, loan, or repurchase agreement.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Credit equivalent amounts and risk weight of recourse obligations and direct credit substitutes.</I> i. <I>Credit equivalent amount.</I> Except as otherwise provided in sections III.B.3.c. through f. and III.B.5. of this appendix, the credit-equivalent amount for a recourse obligation or direct credit substitute is the full amount of the credit-enhanced assets for which the bank holding company directly or indirectly retains or assumes credit risk multiplied by a 100 percent conversion factor.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Risk-weight factor.</I> To determine the bank holding company's risk-weight factor for off-balance sheet recourse obligations and direct credit substitutes, the credit equivalent amount is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor in the underlying transaction, after considering any associated guarantees or collateral. For a direct credit substitute that is an on-balance sheet asset (<I>e.g.,</I> a purchased subordinated security), a bank holding company must calculate risk-weighted assets using the amount of the direct credit substitute and the full amount of the assets it supports, <I>i.e.,</I> all the more senior positions in the structure. The treatment of direct credit substitutes that have been syndicated or in which risk participations have been conveyed or acquired is set forth in section III.D.1 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Externally-rated positions: credit-equivalent amounts and risk weights of recourse obligations, direct credit substitutes, residual interests, and asset- and mortgage-backed securities (including asset-backed commercial paper)</I>—i. <I>Traded positions.</I> With respect to a recourse obligation, direct credit substitute, residual interest (other than a credit-enhancing I/Ostrip) or asset- and mortgage-backed security (including asset-backed commercial paper) that is a traded position and that has received an external rating on a long-term position that is one grade below investment grade or better or a short-term rating that is investment grade, the bank holding company may multiply the face amount of the position by the appropriate risk weight, determined in accordance with the tables below. Stripped mortgage-backed securities and other similar instruments, such as interest-only or principal-only strips that are not credit enhancements, must be assigned to the 100 percent risk category. If a traded position has received more than one external rating, the lowest single rating will apply. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Long-term rating category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(In percent) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Highest or second highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AAA, AA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Third highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lowest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BBB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One category below investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Short-term rating 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(In percent) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-1, P-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Second highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-2, P-2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lowest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-3, P-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. <I>Non-traded positions.</I> A recourse obligation, direct credit substitute, or residual interest (but not a credit-enhancing I/O strip) extended in connection with a securitization that is not a traded position may be assigned a risk weight in accordance with section III.B.3.c.i. of this appendix if: 
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> It has been externally rated by more than one NRSRO; 
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> It has received an external rating on a long-term position that is one grade below investment grade or better or on a short-term position that is investment grade by all NRSROs providing a rating; 
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> The ratings are publicly available; and 
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> The ratings are based on the same criteria used to rate traded positions. 
</P>
<P>If the ratings are different, the lowest rating will determine the risk category to which the recourse obligation, direct credit substitute, or residual interest will be assigned.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Senior positions not externally rated.</I> For a recourse obligation, direct credit substitute, residual interest, or asset-or mortgage-backed security that is not externally rated but is senior or preferred in all features to a traded position (including collateralization and maturity), a bank holding company may apply a risk weight to the face amount of the senior position in accordance with section III.B.3.c.i. of this appendix, based on the traded position, subject to any current or prospective supervisory guidance and the bank holding company satisfying the Federal Reserve that this treatment is appropriate. This section will apply only if the traded subordinated position provides substantive credit support to the unrated position until the unrated position matures. 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Capital requirement for residual interests</I>—i. <I>Capital requirement for credit-enhancing I/O strips.</I> After applying the concentration limit to credit-enhancing I/O strips (both purchased and retained) in accordance with sections II.B.2.c. through e. of this appendix, a bank holding company must maintain risk-based capital for a credit-enhancing I/O strip (both purchased and retained), regardless of the external rating on that position, equal to the remaining amount of the credit-enhancing I/O (net of any existing associated deferred tax liability), even if the amount of risk-based capital required to be maintained exceeds the full risk-based capital requirement for the assets transferred. Transactions that, in substance, result in the retention of credit risk associated with a transferred credit-enhancing I/O strip will be treated as if the credit-enhancing I/O strip was retained by the bank holding company and not transferred.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Capital requirement for other residual interests. 1.</I> If a residual interest does not meet the requirements of sections III.B.3.c. or d. of this appendix, a bank holding must maintain risk-based capital equal to the remaining amount of the residual interest that is retained on the balance sheet (net of any existing associated deferred tax liability), even if the amount of risk-based capital required to be maintained exceeds the full risk-based capital requirement for the assets transferred. Transactions that, in substance, result in the retention of credit risk associated with a transferred residual interest will be treated as if the residual interest was retained by the bank holding company and not transferred. 
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Where the aggregate capital requirement for residual interests and other recourse obligations in connection with the same transfer of assets exceed the full risk-based capital requirement for those assets, a bank holding company must maintain risk-based capital equal to the greater of the risk-based capital requirement for the residual interest as calculated under section III.B.3.e.ii.<I>1.</I> of this appendix or the full risk-based capital requirement for the assets transferred.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Positions that are not rated by an NRSRO.</I> A position (but not a residual interest) maintained in connection with a securitization and that is not rated by a NRSRO may be risk-weighted based on the bank holding company's determination of the credit rating of the position, as specified in the table below, multiplied by the face amount of the position. In order to obtain this treatment, the bank holding company's system for determining the credit rating of the position must meet one of the three alternative standards set out in sections III.B.3.f.i. through III.B.3.f.iii. of this appendix. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating category 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(In percent) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Highest or second highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AAA, AA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Third highest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Lowest investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BBB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One category below investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>i. <I>Internal risk rating used for asset-backed programs.</I> A direct credit substitute (other than a purchased credit-enhancing I/O) is assumed in connection with an asset-backed commercial paper program sponsored by the bank holding company and the bank holding company is able to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Federal Reserve, prior to relying upon its use, that the bank holding company's internal credit risk rating system is adequate. Adequate internal credit risk rating systems usually contain the following criteria: 
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The internal credit risk system is an integral part of the bank holding company's risk management system, which explicitly incorporates the full range of risks arising from a bank holding company's participation in securitization activities; 
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Internal credit ratings are linked to measurable outcomes, such as the probability that the position will experience any loss, the position's expected loss given default, and the degree of variance in losses given default on that position; 
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> The bank holding company's internal credit risk system must separately consider the risk associated with the underlying loans or borrowers, and the risk associated with the structure of a particular securitization transaction; 
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> The bank holding company's internal credit risk system must identify gradations of risk among “pass” assets and other risk positions; 
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> The bank holding company must have clear, explicit criteria that are used to classify assets into each internal risk grade, including subjective factors; 
</P>
<P><I>6.</I> The bank holding company must have independent credit risk management or loan review personnel assigning or reviewing the credit risk ratings; 
</P>
<P><I>7.</I> The bank holding company must have an internal audit procedure that periodically verifies that the internal credit risk ratings are assigned in accordance with the established criteria; 
</P>
<P><I>8.</I> The bank holding company must monitor the performance of the internal credit risk ratings assigned to nonrated, nontraded direct credit substitutes over time to determine the appropriateness of the initial credit risk rating assignment and adjust individual credit risk ratings, or the overall internal credit risk ratings system, as needed; and 
</P>
<P><I>9.</I> The internal credit risk system must make credit risk rating assumptions that are consistent with, or more conservative than, the credit risk rating assumptions and methodologies of NRSROs. 
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Program Ratings.</I> A direct credit substitute or recourse obligation (other than a residual interest) is assumed or retained in connection with a structured finance program and a NRSRO has reviewed the terms of the program and stated a rating for positions associated with the program. If the program has options for different combinations of assets, standards, internal credit enhancements and other relevant factors, and the NRSRO specifies ranges of rating categories to them, the bank holding company may apply the rating category that corresponds to the bank holding company's position. In order to rely on a program rating, the bank holding company must demonstrate to the Federal Reserve's satisfaction that the credit risk rating assigned to the program meets the same standards generally used by NRSROs for rating traded positions. The bank holding company must also demonstrate to the Federal Reserve's satisfaction that the criteria underlying the NRSRO's assignment of ratings for the program are satisfied for the particular position. If a bank holding company participates in a securitization sponsored by another party, the Federal Reserve may authorize the bank holding company to use this approach based on a programmatic rating obtained by the sponsor of the program.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Computer Program.</I> The bank holding company is using an acceptable credit assessment computer program to determine the rating of a direct credit substitute or recourse obligation (but not residual interest) issued in connection with a structured finance program. A NRSRO must have developed the computer program, and the bank holding company must demonstrate to the Federal Reserve's satisfaction that ratings under the program correspond credibly and reliably with the rating of traded positions.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Limitations on risk-based capital requirements</I>—i. <I>Low-level exposure.</I> If the maximum contractual exposure to loss retained or assumed by a bank holding company in connection with a recourse obligation or a direct credit substitute is less than the effective risk-based capital requirement for the enhanced assets, the risk-based capital requirement is limited to the maximum contractual exposure, less any liability account established in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. This limitation does not apply when a bank holding company provides credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has sold.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Mortgage-related securities or participation certificates retained in a mortgage loan swap.</I> If a bank holding company holds a mortgage-related security or a participation certificate as a result of a mortgage loan swap with recourse, capital is required to support the recourse obligation plus the percentage of the mortgage-related security or participation certificate that is not covered by the recourse obligation. The total amount of capital required for the on-balance sheet asset and the recourse obligation, however, is limited to the capital requirement for the underlying loans, calculated as if the organization continued to hold these loans as on-balance sheet assets. 
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Related on-balance sheet assets.</I> If a recourse obligation or direct credit substitute subject to section III.B.3. of this appendix also appears as a balance sheet asset, the balance sheet asset is not included in an organization's risk-weighted assets to the extent the value of the balance sheet asset is already included in the off-balance sheet credit equivalent amount for the recourse obligation or direct credit substitute, except in the case of loan servicing assets and similar arrangements with embedded recourse obligations or direct credit substitutes. In that case, both the on-balance sheet assets and the related recourse obligations and direct credit substitutes are incorporated into the risk-based capital calculation. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Maturity.</I> Maturity is generally not a factor in assigning items to risk categories with the exception of claims on non-OECD banks, commitments, and interest rate and foreign exchange rate contracts. Except for commitments, short-term is defined as one year or less <I>remaining</I> maturity and long-term is defined as over one year <I>remaining</I> maturity. In the case of commitments, short-term is defined as one year or less <I>original</I> maturity and long-term is defined as over one year <I>original</I> maturity.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Small Business Loans and Leases on Personal Property Transferred with Recourse.</I> a. Notwithstanding other provisions of this appendix A, a qualifying banking organization that has transferred small business loans and leases on personal property (small business obligations) with recourse shall include in weighted-risk assets only the amount of retained recourse, provided two conditions are met. First, the transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP and, second, the banking organization must establish pursuant to GAAP a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the organization's reasonably estimated liability under the recourse arrangement. Only loans and leases to businesses that meet the criteria for a small business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act are eligible for this capital treatment.
</P>
<P>b. For purposes of this appendix A, a banking organization is qualifying if it meets the criteria for well capitalized or, by order of the Board, adequately capitalized, as those criteria are set forth in the Board's prompt corrective action regulation for state member banks (12 CFR 208.40). For purposes of determining whether an organization meets these criteria, its capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small business obligations with recourse specified in section III.B.5.a. of this appendix A. The total outstanding amount of recourse retained by a qualifying banking organization on transfers of small business obligations receiving the preferential capital treatment cannot exceed 15 percent of the organization's total risk-based capital. By order, the Board may approve a higher limit.
</P>
<P>c. If a bank holding company ceases to be qualifying or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation, the preferential capital treatment will continue to apply to any transfers of small business obligations with recourse that were consummated during the time that the organization was qualifying and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Asset-backed commercial paper programs.</I> a. An asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program means a program that primarily issues externally rated commercial paper backed by assets or exposures held in a bankruptcy-remote, special purpose entity.
</P>
<P>b. If a bank holding company has multiple overlapping exposures (such as a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities) to an ABCP program that is not consolidated for risk-based capital purposes, the bank holding company is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital under this appendix against the overlapping position. Instead, the bank holding company should apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest capital charge.
</P>
<HD2>C. Risk Weights
</HD2>
<P>Attachment III contains a listing of the risk categories, a summary of the types of assets assigned to each category and the risk weight associated with each category, that is, 0 percent, 20 percent, 50 percent, and 100 percent. A brief explanation of the components of each category follows.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Category 1: zero percent.</I> This category includes cash (domestic and foreign) owned and held in all offices of subsidiary depository institutions or in transit and gold bullion held in either a subsidiary depository institution's own vaults or in another's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent it is offset by gold bullion liabilities. 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> The category also includes all direct claims (including securities, loans, and leases) on, and the portions of claims that are directly and unconditionally guaranteed by, the central governments 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> of the OECD countries and U.S. Government agencies, 
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/> as well as all direct local currency claims on, and the portions of local currency claims that are directly and unconditionally guaranteed by, the central governments of non-OECD countries, to the extent that subsidiary depository institutions have liabilities booked in that currency. A claim is not considered to be unconditionally guaranteed by a central government if the validity of the guarantee is dependent upon some affirmative action by the holder or a third party. Generally, securities guaranteed by the U.S. Government or its agencies that are actively traded in financial markets, such as GNMA securities, are considered to be unconditionally guaranteed. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> All other holdings of bullion are assigned to the 100 percent risk category.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> A central government is defined to include departments and ministries, including the central bank, of the central government. The U.S. central bank includes the 12 Federal Reserve Banks, and stock held in these banks as a condition of membership is assigned to the zero percent risk category. The definition of central government does not include state, provincial, or local governments; or commercial enterprises owned by the central government. In addition, it does not include local government entities or commercial enterprises whose obligations are guaranteed by the central government, although any claims on such entities guaranteed by central governments are placed in the same general risk category as other claims guaranteed by central governments. OECD central governments are defined as central governments of the OECD-based group of countries; non-OECD central governments are defined as central governments of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> A U.S. Government agency is defined as an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. Such agencies include the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA), the Veterans Administration (VA), the Federal Housing Administration (FHA), the Export-Import Bank (Exim Bank), the Overseas Private Investment Corporation (OPIC), the Commodity Credit Corporation (CCC), and the Small Business Administration (SBA).</P></FTNT>
<P>This category also includes claims collateralized by cash on deposit in the subsidiary lending institution or by securities issued or guaranteed by OECD central governments or U.S. government agencies for which a positive margin of collateral is maintained on a daily basis, fully taking into account any change in the banking organization's exposure to the obligor or counterparty under a claim in relation to the market value of the collateral held in support of that claim. 
</P>
<P>This category also includes ABCP (i) purchased by a bank holding company on or after September 19, 2008, from an SEC-registered open-end investment company that holds itself out as a money market mutual fund under SEC Rule 2a-7 (17 CFR 270.2a-7) and (ii) pledged by the bank holding company to a Federal Reserve Bank to secure financing from the ABCP lending facility (AMLF) established by the Board on September 19, 2008.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Category 2: 20 percent.</I> a. This category includes cash items in the process of collection, both foreign and domestic; short-term claims (including demand deposits) on, and the portions of short-term claims that are guaranteed by, 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/> U.S. depository institutions 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/> and foreign banks 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/>; and long-term claims on, and the portions of long-term claims that are guaranteed by, U.S. depository institutions and OECD banks. 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> Claims guaranteed by U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks include risk participations in both bankers acceptances and standby letters of credit, as well as participations in commitments, that are conveyed to U.S. depository institutions or foreign banks.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> <I>See</I> footnote 9 of this appendix for the definition of a U.S. depository institution. For this purpose, the definition also includes U.S.-chartered depository institutions owned by foreigners. However, branches and agencies of foreign banks located in the U.S., as well as all bank holding companies, are excluded.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> <I>See</I> footnote 10 of this appendix for the definition of a foreign bank. Foreign banks are distinguished as either OECD banks or non-OECD banks. OECD banks include banks and their branches (foreign and domestic) organized under the laws of countries (other than the United States) that belong to the OECD-based group of countries. Non-OECD banks include banks and their branches (foreign and domestic) organized under the laws of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> Long-term claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD banks and all claims on bank holding companies are assigned to the 100 percent risk category, as are holdings of bank-issued securities that qualify as capital of the issuing banks.</P></FTNT>
<P>b. This category also includes the portions of claims that are conditionally guaranteed by OECD central governments and U.S. Government agencies, as well as the portions of local currency claims that are conditionally guaranteed by non-OECD central governments, to the extent that subsidiary depository institutions have liabilities booked in that currency. In addition, this category also includes claims on, and the portions of claims that are guaranteed by, U.S. government-sponsored 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/> agencies and claims on, and the portions of claims guaranteed by, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (World Bank), the International Finance Corporation, the Interamerican Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Investment Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Nordic Investment Bank, and other multilateral lending institutions or regional development banks in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member. General obligation claims on, or portions of claims guaranteed by the full faith and credit of, states or other political subdivisions of the U.S. or other countries of the OECD—based group are also assigned to this category. 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> For this purpose, U.S. government-sponsored agencies are defined as agencies originally established or chartered by the Federal government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose obligations are <I>not explicitly</I> guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government. These agencies include the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC), the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA), the Farm Credit System, the Federal Home Loan Bank System, and the Student Loan Marketing Association (SLMA). Claims on U.S. government-sponsored agencies include capital stock in a Federal Home Loan Bank that is held as a condition of membership in that Bank.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> Claims on, or guaranteed by, states or other political subdivisions of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group of countries are placed in the 100 percent risk category.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. This category also includes the portions of claims (including repurchase transactions) collateralized by cash on deposit in the subsidiary lending institution or by securities issued or guaranteed by OECD central governments or U.S. government agencies that do not qualify for the zero percent risk-weight category; collateralized by securities issued or guaranteed by U.S. government-sponsored agencies; or collateralized by securities issued by multilateral lending institutions or regional development banks in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member.
</P>
<P>d. This category also includes claims 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/> on, or guaranteed by, a qualifying securities firm 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/> incorporated in the United States or other member of the OECD-based group of countries provided that: the qualifying securities firm has a long-term issuer credit rating, or a rating on at least one issue of long-term debt, in one of the three highest investment grade rating categories from a nationally recognized statistical rating organization; or the claim is guaranteed by the firm's parent company and the parent company has such a rating. If ratings are available from more than one rating agency, the lowest rating will be used to determine whether the rating requirement has been met. This category also includes a collateralized claim on a qualifying securities firm in such a country, without regard to satisfaction of the rating standard, provided the claim arises under a contract that: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> Claims on a qualifying securities firm that are instruments the firm, or its parent company, uses to satisfy its applicable capital requirement are not eligible for this risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> With regard to securities firms incorporated in the United States, qualifying securities firms are those securities firms that are broker-dealers registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission and are in compliance with the SEC's net capital rule, 17 CFR 240.15c3-1. With regard to securities firms incorporated in other countries in the OECD-based group of countries, qualifying securities firms are those securities firms that a banking organization is able to demonstrate are subject to consolidated supervision and regulation (covering their direct and indirect subsidiaries, but not necessarily their parent organizations) comparable to that imposed on banks in OECD countries. Such regulation must include risk-based capital requirements comparable to those applied to banks under the Accord on International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards (1988, as amended in 1998) (Basel Accord).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Is a reverse repurchase/repurchase agreement or securities lending/borrowing transaction executed under standard industry documentation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is collateralized by debt or equity securities that are liquid and readily marketable; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is marked-to-market daily; 
</P>
<P>(4) Is subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement under the standard industry documentation; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Can be liquidated, terminated, or accelerated immediately in bankruptcy or similar proceeding, and the security or collateral agreement will not be stayed or avoided, under applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction. 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> For example, a claim is exempt from the automatic stay in bankruptcy in the United States if it arises under a securities contract or repurchase agreement subject to section 555 or 559 of the Bankruptcy Code, respectively (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)), or a netting contract between financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4401-4407), or the Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR Part 231).</P></FTNT>
<P>3. <I>Category 3: 50 percent.</I> This category includes loans fully secured by first liens 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> on 1- to 4-family residential properties, either owner-occupied or rented, or on multifamily residential properties,
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/> that meet certain criteria.
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/> Loans included in this category must have been made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards; 
<SU>51</SU>
<FTREF/> be performing in accordance with their original terms; and not be 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status. For purposes of this 50 percent risk weight category, a loan modified on a permanent or trial basis solely pursuant to the U.S. Department of Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program will be considered to be performing in accordance with its original terms. The following additional criteria must also be applied to a loan secured by a multifamily residential property that is included in this category: all principal and interest payments on the loan must have been made on time for at least the year preceding placement in this category, or in the case where the existing property owner is refinancing a loan on that property, all principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced must have been made on time for at least the year preceding placement in this category; amortization of the principal and interest must occur over a period of not more than 30 years and the minimum original maturity for repayment of principal must not be less than 7 years; and the annual net operating income (before debt service) generated by the property during its most recent fiscal year must not be less than 120 percent of the loan's current annual debt service (115 percent if the loan is based on a floating interest rate) or, in the case of a cooperative or other not-for-profit housing project, the property must generate sufficient cash flow to provide comparable protection to the institution. Also included in this category are privately-issued mortgage-backed securities provided that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> If a banking organization holds the first and junior lien(s) on a residential property and no other party holds an intervening lien, the transaction is treated as a single loan secured by a first lien for the purposes of determining the loan-to-value ratio and assigning a risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> Loans that qualify as loans secured by 1- to 4-family residential properties or multifamily residential properties are listed in the instructions to the FR Y-9C Report. In addition, for risk-based capital purposes, loans secured by 1- to 4-family residential properties include loans to builders with substantial project equity for the construction of 1-to 4-family residences that have been presold under firm contracts to purchasers who have obtained firm commitments for permanent qualifying mortgage loans and have made substantial earnest money deposits. Such loans to builders will be considered prudently underwritten only if the bank holding company has obtained sufficient documentation that the buyer of the home intends to purchase the home (<I>i.e.,</I> has a legally binding written sales contract) and has the ability to obtain a mortgage loan sufficient to purchase the home (<I>i.e.,</I> has a firm written commitment for permanent financing of the home upon completion).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> Residential property loans that do not meet all the specified criteria or that are made for the purpose of speculative property development are placed in the 100 percent risk category.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>51</SU> Prudent underwriting standards include a conservative ratio of the current loan balance to the value of the property. In the case of a loan secured by multifamily residential property, the loan-to-value ratio is not conservative if it exceeds 80 percent (75 percent if the loan is based on a floating interest rate). Prudent underwriting standards also dictate that a loan-to-value ratio used in the case of originating a loan to acquire a property would not be deemed conservative unless the value is based on the lower of the acquisition cost of the property or appraised (or if appropriate, evaluated) value. Otherwise, the loan-to-value ratio generally would be based upon the value of the property as determined by the most current appraisal, or if appropriate, the most current evaluation. All appraisals must be made in a manner consistent with the Federal banking agencies' real estate appraisal regulations and guidelines and with the banking organization's own appraisal guidelines.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The structure of the security meets the criteria described in section III(B)(3) above;
</P>
<P>(2) if the security is backed by a pool of conventional mortgages, on 1- to 4-family residential or multifamily residential properties, each underlying mortgage meets the criteria described above in this section for eligibility for the 50 percent risk category at the time the pool is originated;
</P>
<P>(3) If the security is backed by privately-issued mortgage-backed securities, each underlying security qualifies for the 50 percent risk category; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the security is backed by a pool of multifamily residential mortgages, principal and interest payments on the security are not 30 days or more past due. Privately-issued mortgage-backed securities that do not meet these criteria or that do not qualify for a lower risk weight are generally assigned to the 100 percent risk category.
</P>
<P>Also assigned to this category are <I>revenue</I> (non-general obligation) bonds or similar obligations, including loans and leases, that are obligations of states or other political subdivisions of the U.S. (for example, municipal revenue bonds) or other countries of the OECD-based group, but for which the government entity is committed to repay the debt with revenues from the specific projects financed, rather than from general tax funds.
</P>
<P>Credit equivalent amounts of derivative contracts involving standard risk obligors (that is, obligors whose loans or debt securities would be assigned to the 100 percent risk category) are included in the 50 percent category, unless they are backed by collateral or guarantees that allow them to be placed in a lower risk category. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Category 4: 100 percent.</I> a. All assets not included in the categories above are assigned to this category, which comprises standard risk assets. The bulk of the assets typically found in a loan portfolio would be assigned to the 100 percent category.
</P>
<P>b. This category includes long-term claims on, and the portions of long-term claims that are guaranteed by, non-OECD banks, and all claims on non-OECD central governments that entail some degree of transfer risk. 
<SU>52</SU>
<FTREF/> This category includes all claims on foreign and domestic private-sector obligors not included in the categories above (including loans to nondepository financial institutions and bank holding companies); claims on commercial firms owned by the public sector; customer liabilities to the organization on acceptances outstanding involving standard risk claims;
<SU>53</SU>
<FTREF/> investments in fixed assets, premises, and other real estate owned; common and preferred stock of corporations, including stock acquired for debts previously contracted; all stripped mortgage-backed securities and similar instruments; and commercial and consumer loans (except those assigned to lower risk categories due to recognized guarantees or collateral and loans secured by residential property that qualify for a lower risk weight). This category also includes claims representing capital of a qualifying securities firm.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>52</SU> Such assets include all nonlocal currency claims on, and the portions of claims that are guaranteed by, non-OECD central governments and those portions of local currency claims on, or guaranteed by, non-OECD central governments that exceed the local currency liabilities held by subsidiary depository institutions.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>53</SU> Customer liabilities on acceptances outstanding involving nonstandard risk claims, such as claims on U.S. depository institutions, are assigned to the risk category appropriate to the identity of the obligor or, if relevant, the nature of the collateral or guarantees backing the claims. Portions of acceptances conveyed as risk participations to U.S. depository institutions or foreign banks are assigned to the 20 percent risk category appropriate to short-term claims guaranteed by U.S. depository institutions and foreign banks.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. Also included in this category are industrial-development bonds and similar obligations issued under the auspices of states or political subdivisions of the OECD-based group of countries for the benefit of a private party or enterprise where that party or enterprise, not the government entity, is obligated to pay the principal and interest, and all obligations of states or political subdivisions of countries that do not belong to the OECD-based group. 
</P>
<P>d. The following assets also are assigned a risk weight of 100 percent if they have not been deducted from capital: investments in unconsolidated companies, joint ventures, or associated companies; instruments that qualify as capital issued by other banking organizations; and any intangibles, including those that may have been grandfathered into capital. 
</P>
<HD2>D. Off-Balance Sheet Items
</HD2>
<P>The face amount of an off-balance sheet item is generally incorporated into risk-weighted assets in two steps. The face amount is first multiplied by a credit conversion factor, except for direct credit substitutes and recourse obligations as discussed in section III.D.1. of this appendix. The resultant credit equivalent amount is assigned to the appropriate risk category according to the obligor or, if relevant, the guarantor, the nature of any collateral, or external credit ratings. 
<SU>54</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>54</SU> The sufficiency of collateral and guarantees for off-balance-sheet items is determined by the market value of the collateral or the amount of the guarantee in relation to the face amount of the item, except for derivative contracts, for which this determination is generally made in relation to the credit equivalent amount. Collateral and guarantees are subject to the same provisions noted under section III.B of this appendix A.</P></FTNT>
<P>1. <I>Items with a 100 percent conversion factor.</I> a. Except as otherwise provided in section III.B.3. of this appendix, the full amount of an asset or transaction supported, in whole or in part, by a direct credit substitute or a recourse obligation. Direct credit substitutes and recourse obligations are defined in section III.B.3. of this appendix. 
</P>
<P>b. Sale and repurchase agreements and forward agreements. Forward agreements are legally binding contractual obligations to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date. Such obligations include forward purchases, forward forward deposits placed, 
<SU>55</SU>
<FTREF/> and partly-paid shares and securities; they do not include commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>55</SU> Forward forward deposits accepted are treated as interest rate contracts.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. Securities lent by a banking organization are treated in one of two ways, depending upon whether the lender is at risk of loss. If a banking organization, as agent for a customer, lends the customer's securities and does not indemnify the customer against loss, then the transaction is excluded from the risk-based capital calculation. If, alternatively, a banking organization lends its own securities or, acting as agent for a customer, lends the customer's securities and indemnifies the customer against loss, the transaction is converted at 100 percent and assigned to the risk weight category appropriate to the obligor, or, if applicable, to any collateral delivered to the lending organization, or the independent custodian acting on the lending organization's behalf. Where a banking organization is acting as agent for a customer in a transaction involving the lending or sale of securities that is collateralized by cash delivered to the banking organization, the transaction is deemed to be collateralized by cash on deposit in a subsidiary depository institution for purposes of determining the appropriate risk-weight category, provided that any indemnification is limited to no more than the difference between the market value of the securities and the cash collateral received and any reinvestment risk associated with that cash collateral is borne by the customer. 
</P>
<P>d. In the case of direct credit substitutes in which a risk participation 
<SU>56</SU>
<FTREF/> has been conveyed, the full amount of the assets that are supported, in whole or in part, by the credit enhancement are converted to a credit equivalent amount at 100 percent. However, the <I>pro rata</I> share of the credit equivalent amount that has been conveyed through a risk participation is assigned to whichever risk category is lower: the risk category appropriate to the obligor, after considering any relevant guarantees or collateral, or the risk category appropriate to the institution acquiring the participation. 
<SU>57</SU>
<FTREF/> Any remainder is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the obligor, guarantor, or collateral. For example, the <I>pro rata</I> share of the full amount of the assets supported, in whole or in part, by a direct credit substitute conveyed as a risk participation to a U.S. domestic depository institution or foreign bank is assigned to the 20 percent risk category. 
<SU>58</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>56</SU> That is, a participation in which the originating banking organization remains liable to the beneficiary for the full amount of the direct credit substitute if the party that has acquired the participation fails to pay when the instrument is drawn.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>57</SU> A risk participation in bankers acceptances conveyed to other institutions is also assigned to the risk category appropriate to the institution acquiring the participation or, if relevant, the guarantor or nature of the collateral.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>58</SU> Risk participations with a remaining maturity of over one year that are conveyed to non-OECD banks are to be assigned to the 100 percent risk category, unless a lower risk category is appropriate to the obligor, guarantor, or collateral.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. In the case of direct credit substitutes in which a risk participation has been acquired, the acquiring banking organization's percentage share of the direct credit substitute is multiplied by the full amount of the assets that are supported, in whole or in part, by the credit enhancement and converted to a credit equivalent amount at 100 percent. The credit equivalent amount of an acquisition of a risk participation in a direct credit substitute is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the account party obligor or, if relevant, the nature of the collateral or guarantees. 
</P>
<P>f. In the case of direct credit substitutes that take the form of a syndication where each banking organization is obligated only for its pro rata share of the risk and there is no recourse to the originating banking organization, each banking organization will only include its pro rata share of the assets supported, in whole or in part, by the direct credit substitute in its risk-based capital calculation. 
<SU>59</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>59</SU> For example, if a banking organization has a 10 percent share of a $10 syndicated direct credit substitute that provides credit support to a $100 loan, then the banking organization's $1 <I>pro rata</I> share in the enhancement means that a $10 <I>pro rata</I> share of the loan is included in risk weighted assets.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. <I>Items with a 50 percent conversion factor.</I> a. Transaction-related contingencies are converted at 50 percent. Such contingencies include bid bonds, performance bonds, warranties, standby letters of credit related to particular transactions, and performance standby letters of credit, as well as acquisitions of risk participation in performance standby letters of credit. Peformance standby letters of credit represent obligations backing the performance of nonfinancial or commercial contracts or undertakings. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things, subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P>b. The unused portion of commitments with an <I>original</I> maturity exceeding one year, including underwriting commitments, and commercial and consumer credit commitments also are converted at 50 percent. Original maturity is defined as the length of time between the date the commitment is issued and the earliest date on which: (1) The banking organization can, at its option, unconditionally (without cause) cancel the commitment;
<SU>60</SU>
<FTREF/> and (2) the banking organization is scheduled to (and as a normal practice actually does) review the facility to determine whether or not it should be extended. Such reviews must continue to be conducted at least annually for such a facility to qualify as a short-term commitment.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>60</SU> In the case of consumer home equity or mortgage lines of credit secured by liens on 1-4 family residential properties, the bank is deemed able to unconditionally cancel the commitment for the purpose of this criterion if, at its option, it can prohibit additional extensions of credit, reduce the credit line, and terminate the commitment to the full extent permitted by relevant Federal law.</P></FTNT>
<P>c.i. Commitments are defined as any legally binding arrangements that obligate a banking organization to extend credit in the form of loans or leases; to purchase loans, securities, or other assets; or to participate in loans and leases. They also include overdraft facilities, revolving credit, home equity and mortgage lines of credit, eligible ABCP liquidity facilities, and similar transactions. Normally, commitments involve a written contract or agreement and a commitment fee, or some other form of consideration. Commitments are included in weighted-risk assets regardless of whether they contain “material adverse change” clauses or other provisions that are intended to relieve the issuer of its funding obligation under certain conditions. In the case of commitments structured as syndications, where the banking organization is obligated solely for its <I>pro rata</I> share, only the organization's proportional share of the syndicated commitment is taken into account in calculating the risk-based capital ratio.
</P>
<P>ii. Banking organizations that are subject to the market risk rules are required to convert the notional amount of eligible ABCP liquidity facilities, in form or in substance, with an original maturity of over one year that are carried in the trading account at 50 percent to determine the appropriate credit equivalent amount even though those facilities are structured or characterized as derivatives or other trading book assets. Liquidity facilities that support ABCP, in form or in substance, (including those positions to which the market risk rules may not be applied as set forth in section 2(a) of appendix E of this part) that are not eligible ABCP liquidity facilities are to be considered recourse obligations or direct credit substitutes, and assessed the appropriate risk-based capital treatment in accordance with section III.B.3. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. Once a commitment has been converted at 50 percent, any portion that has been conveyed to U.S. depository institutions or OECD banks as participations in which the originating banking organization retains the full obligation to the borrower if the participating bank fails to pay when the instrument is drawn, is assigned to the 20 percent risk category. This treatment is analogous to that accorded to conveyances of risk participations in standby letters of credit. The acquisition of a participation in a commitment by a banking organization is converted at 50 percent and assigned to the risk category appropriate to the account party obligor or, if relevant, the nature of the collateral or guarantees. 
</P>
<P>e. Revolving underwriting facilities (RUFs), note issuance facilities (NIFs), and other similar arrangements also are converted at 50 percent regardless of maturity. These are facilities under which a borrower can issue on a revolving basis short-term paper in its own name, but for which the underwriting organizations have a legally binding commitment either to purchase any notes the borrower is unable to sell by the roll-over date or to advance funds to the borrower. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Items with a 20 percent conversion factor.</I> Short-term, self-liquidating trade-related contingencies which arise from the movement of goods are converted at 20 percent. Such contingencies generally include commercial letters of credit and other documentary letters of credit collateralized by the underlying shipments. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Items with a 10 percent conversion factor.</I> a. Unused portions of eligible ABCP liquidity facilities with an original maturity of one year or less also are converted at 10 percent.
</P>
<P>b. Banking organizations that are subject to the market risk rules are required to convert the notional amount of eligible ABCP liquidity facilities, in form or in substance, with an original maturity of one year or less that are carried in the trading account at 10 percent to determine the appropriate credit equivalent amount even though those facilities are structured or characterized as derivatives or other trading book assets. Liquidity facilities that support ABCP, in form or in substance, (including those positions to which the market risk rules may not be applied as set forth in section 2(a) of appendix E of this part) that are not eligible ABCP liquidity facilities are to be considered recourse obligations or direct credit substitutes and assessed the appropriate risk-based capital requirement in accordance with section III.B.3. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Items with a zero percent conversion factor.</I> These include unused portions of commitments (with the exception of eligible ABCP liquidity facilities) with an original maturity of one year or less, or which are unconditionally cancelable at any time, provided a separate credit decision is made before each drawing under the facility. Unused portions of lines of credit on retail credit cards and related plans are deemed to be short-term commitments if the banking organization has the unconditional right to cancel the line of credit at any time, in accordance with applicable law. 
</P>
<P><I>E. Derivative Contracts (Interest Rate, Exchange Rate, Commodity- (including precious metals) and Equity-Linked Contracts)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Credit equivalent amounts are computed for each of the following off-balance-sheet derivative contracts: 
</P>
<P>a. Interest Rate Contracts. These include single currency interest rate swaps, basis swaps, forward rate agreements, interest rate options purchased (including caps, collars, and floors purchased), and any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar credit risks (including when-issued securities and forward forward deposits accepted). 
</P>
<P>b. Exchange Rate Contracts. These include cross-currency interest rate swaps, forward foreign exchange contracts, currency options purchased, and any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar credit risks. 
</P>
<P>c. Equity Derivative Contracts. These include equity-linked swaps, equity-linked options purchased, forward equity-linked contracts, and any other instrument linked to equities that gives rise to similar credit risks. 
</P>
<P>d. Commodity (including precious metal) Derivative Contracts. These include commodity-linked swaps, commodity-linked options purchased, forward commodity-linked contracts, and any other instrument linked to commodities that gives rise to similar credit risks. 
</P>
<P>e. Exceptions. Exchange rate contracts with an original maturity of fourteen or fewer calendar days and derivative contracts traded on exchanges that require daily receipt and payment of cash variation margin may be excluded from the risk-based ratio calculation. Gold contracts are accorded the same treatment as exchange rate contracts except that gold contracts with an original maturity of fourteen or fewer calendar days are included in the risk-based ratio calculation. Over-the-counter options purchased are included and treated in the same way as other derivative contracts. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of credit equivalent amounts.</I> a. The credit equivalent amount of a derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract in accordance with section III.E.3. of this appendix A is equal to the sum of (i) the current exposure (sometimes referred to as the replacement cost) of the contract; and (ii) an estimate of the potential future credit exposure of the contract. 
</P>
<P>b. The current exposure is determined by the mark-to-market value of the contract. If the mark-to-market value is positive, then the current exposure is equal to that mark-to-market value. If the mark-to-market value is zero or negative, then the current exposure is zero. Mark-to-market values are measured in dollars, regardless of the currency or currencies specified in the contract and should reflect changes in underlying rates, prices, and indices, as well as counterparty credit quality. 
</P>
<P>c. The potential future credit exposure of a contract, including a contract with a negative mark-to-market value, is estimated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the contract by a credit conversion factor. Banking organizations should use, subject to examiner review, the effective rather than the apparent or stated notional amount in this calculation. The credit conversion factors are: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Conversion Factors 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[In percent] 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exchange rate and gold
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Commodity, excluding precious metals
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precious metals, except gold 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over one to five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. For a contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the market value of the contract is zero, the remaining maturity is equal to the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate contract with a remaining maturity of more than one year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.5 percent. 
</P>
<P>e. For a contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the contract. A derivative contract not included in the definitions of interest rate, exchange rate, equity, or commodity contracts as set forth in section III.<I>E.</I>1. of this appendix A is subject to the same conversion factors as a commodity, excluding precious metals. 
</P>
<P>f. No potential future exposure is calculated for a single currency interest rate swap in which payments are made based upon two floating rate indices (a so called floating/floating or basis swap); the credit exposure on such a contract is evaluated solely on the basis of the mark-to-market value. 
</P>
<P>g. The Board notes that the conversion factors set forth above, which are based on observed volatilities of the particular types of instruments, are subject to review and modification in light of changing volatilities or market conditions. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Netting.</I> a. For purposes of this appendix A, netting refers to the offsetting of positive and negative mark-to-market values when determining a current exposure to be used in the calculation of a credit equivalent amount. Any legally enforceable form of bilateral netting (that is, netting with a single counterparty) of derivative contracts is recognized for purposes of calculating the credit equivalent amount provided that: 
</P>
<P>i. The netting is accomplished under a written netting contract that creates a single legal obligation, covering all included individual contracts, with the effect that the banking organization would have a claim to receive, or obligation to pay, only the net amount of the sum of the positive and negative mark-to-market values on included individual contracts in the event that a counterparty, or a counterparty to whom the contract has been validly assigned, fails to perform due to any of the following events: default, insolvency, liquidation, or similar circumstances. 
</P>
<P>ii. The banking organization obtains a written and reasoned legal opinion(s) representing that in the event of a legal challenge—including one resulting from default, insolvency, liquidation, or similar circumstances—the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the banking organization's exposure to be the net amount under: 
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The law of the jurisdiction in which the counterparty is chartered or the equivalent location in the case of noncorporate entities, and if a branch of the counterparty is involved, then also under the law of the jurisdiction in which the branch is located; 
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The law that governs the individual contracts covered by the netting contract; and 
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> The law that governs the netting contract. 
</P>
<P>iii. The banking organization establishes and maintains procedures to ensure that the legal characteristics of netting contracts are kept under review in the light of possible changes in relevant law. 
</P>
<P>iv. The banking organization maintains in its files documentation adequate to support the netting of derivative contracts, including a copy of the bilateral netting contract and necessary legal opinions. 
</P>
<P>b. A contract containing a walkaway clause is not eligible for netting for purposes of calculating the credit equivalent amount. 
<SU>61</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>61</SU> A walkaway clause is a provision in a netting contract that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make lower payments than it would make otherwise under the contract, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or to the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the contract.</P></FTNT>
<P>c. A banking organization netting individual contracts for the purpose of calculating credit equivalent amounts of derivative contracts represents that it has met the requirements of this appendix A and all the appropriate documents are in the banking organization's files and available for inspection by the Federal Reserve. The Federal Reserve may determine that a banking organization's files are inadequate or that a netting contract, or any of its underlying individual contracts, may not be legally enforceable under any one of the bodies of law described in section III.<I>E.</I>3.a.ii. of this appendix A. If such a determination is made, the netting contract may be disqualified from recognition for risk-based capital purposes or underlying individual contracts may be treated as though they are not subject to the netting contract. 
</P>
<P>d. The credit equivalent amount of contracts that are subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract is calculated by adding (i) the current exposure of the netting contract (net current exposure) and (ii) the sum of the estimates of potential future credit exposures on all individual contracts subject to the netting contract (gross potential future exposure) adjusted to reflect the effects of the netting contract. 
<SU>62</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>62</SU> For purposes of calculating potential future credit exposure to a netting counterparty for foreign exchange contracts and other similar contracts in which notional principal is equivalent to cash flows, total notional principal is defined as the net receipts falling due on each value date in each currency.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. The net current exposure is the sum of all positive and negative mark-to-market values of the individual contracts included in the netting contract. If the net sum of the mark-to-market values is positive, then the net current exposure is equal to that sum. If the net sum of the mark-to-market values is zero or negative, then the net current exposure is zero. The Federal Reserve may determine that a netting contract qualifies for risk-based capital netting treatment even though certain individual contracts included under the netting contract may not qualify. In such instances, the nonqualifying contracts should be treated as individual contracts that are not subject to the netting contract. 
</P>
<P>f. Gross potential future exposure, or A<E T="52">gross</E> is calculated by summing the estimates of potential future exposure (determined in accordance with section III.<I>E.</I>2 of this appendix A) for each individual contract subject to the qualifying bilateral netting contract. 
</P>
<P>g. The effects of the bilateral netting contract on the gross potential future exposure are recognized through the application of a formula that results in an adjusted add-on amount (A<E T="52">net</E>). The formula, which employs the ratio of net current exposure to gross current exposure (NGR), is expressed as: 
</P>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">net</E> = (0.4 × A<E T="52">gross</E>) + 0.6(NGR × A<E T="52">gross</E>) 
</FP-2>
<P>h. The NGR may be calculated in accordance with either the counterparty-by-counterparty approach or the aggregate approach. 
</P>
<P>i. Under the counterparty-by-counterparty approach, the NGR is the ratio of the net current exposure for a netting contract to the gross current exposure of the netting contract. The gross current exposure is the sum of the current exposures of all individual contracts subject to the netting contract calculated in accordance with section III.<I>E.</I>2. of this appendix A. Net negative mark-to-market values for individual netting contracts with the same counterparty may not be used to offset net positive mark-to-market values for other netting contracts with the same counterparty. 
</P>
<P>ii. Under the aggregate approach, the NGR is the ratio of the sum of all of the net current exposures for qualifying bilateral netting contracts to the sum of all of the gross current exposures for those netting contracts (each gross current exposure is calculated in the same manner as in section III.<I>E.</I>3.h.i. of this appendix A). Net negative mark-to-market values for individual counterparties may not be used to offset net positive current exposures for other counterparties. 
</P>
<P>iii. A banking organization must use consistently either the counterparty-by-counterparty approach or the aggregate approach to calculate the NGR. Regardless of the approach used, the NGR should be applied individually to each qualifying bilateral netting contract to determine the adjusted add-on for that netting contract. 
</P>
<P>i. In the event a netting contract covers contracts that are normally excluded from the risk-based ratio calculation—for example, exchange rate contracts with an original maturity of fourteen or fewer calendar days or instruments traded on exchanges that require daily payment and receipt of cash variation margin—an institution may elect to either include or exclude all mark-to-market values of such contracts when determining net current exposure, provided the method chosen is applied consistently. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Risk Weights.</I> Once the credit equivalent amount for a derivative contract, or a group of derivative contracts subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract, has been determined, that amount is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the counterparty, or, if relevant, the guarantor or the nature of any collateral. 
<SU>63</SU>
<FTREF/> However, the maximum risk weight applicable to the credit equivalent amount of such contracts is 50 percent.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>63</SU> For derivative contracts, sufficiency of collateral or guarantees is generally determined by the market value of the collateral or the amount of the guarantee in relation to the credit equivalent amount. Collateral and guarantees are subject to the same provisions noted under section III.<I>B.</I> of this appendix A.</P></FTNT>
<P>5. <I>Avoidance of double counting.</I> a. In certain cases, credit exposures arising from the derivative contracts covered by section III.<I>E.</I> of this appendix A may already be reflected, in part, on the balance sheet. To avoid double counting such exposures in the assessment of capital adequacy and, perhaps, assigning inappropriate risk weights, counterparty credit exposures arising from the derivative instruments covered by these guidelines may need to be excluded from balance sheet assets in calculating a banking organization's risk-based capital ratios. 
</P>
<P>b. Examples of the calculation of credit equivalent amounts for contracts covered under this section III.<I>E.</I> are contained in Attachment V of this appendix A. 
</P>
<HD1>IV. Minimum Supervisory Ratios and Standards
</HD1>
<P>The interim and final supervisory standards set forth below specify <I>minimum</I> supervisory ratios based primarily on broad credit risk considerations. As noted above, the risk-based ratio does not take explicit account of the quality of individual asset portfolios or the range of other types of risks to which banking organizations may be exposed, such as interest rate, liquidity, market or operational risks. For this reason, banking organizations are generally expected to operate with capital positions well above the minimum ratios.
</P>
<P>Institutions with high or inordinate levels of risk are expected to operate well above minimum capital standards. Banking organizations experiencing or anticipating significant growth are also expected to maintain capital, including tangible capital positions, well above the minimum levels. For example, most such organizations generally have operated at capital levels ranging from 100 to 200 basis points above the stated minimums. Higher capital ratios could be required if warranted by the particular circumstances or risk profiles of individual banking organizations. In all cases, organizations should hold capital commensurate with the level and nature of all of the risks, including the volume and severity of problem loans, to which they are exposed.
</P>
<P>Upon adoption of the risk-based framework, any organization that does not meet the interim or final supervisory ratios, or whose capital is otherwise considered inadequate, is expected to develop and implement a plan acceptable to the Federal Reserve for achieving an adequate level of capital consistent with the provisions of these guidelines or with the special circumstances affecting the individual organization. In addition, such organizations should avoid any actions, including increased risk-taking or unwarranted expansion, that would lower or further erode their capital positions.
</P>
<HD2>A. Minimum Risk-Based Ratio After Transition Period
</HD2>
<P>As reflected in Attachment VI, by year-end 1992, all bank holding companies 
<SU>64</SU>
<FTREF/> should meet a minimum ratio of qualifying total capital to weighted risk assets of 8 percent, of which at least 4.0 percentage points should be in the form of Tier 1 capital. For purposes of section IV.A., Tier 1 capital is defined as the sum of core capital elements less goodwill and other intangible assets required to be deducted in accordance with section II.B.1.b. of this appendix. The maximum amount of supplementary capital elements that qualifies as Tier 2 capital is limited to 100 percent of Tier 1 capital. In addition, the combined maximum amount of subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock that qualifies as Tier 2 capital is limited to 50 percent of Tier 1 capital. The maximum amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses that qualifies as Tier 2 capital is limited to 1.25 percent of gross weighted risk assets. Allowances for loan and lease losses in excess of this limit may, of course, be maintained, but would not be included in an organization's total capital. The Federal Reserve will continue to require bank holding companies to maintain reserves at levels fully sufficient to cover losses inherent in their loan portfolios.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>64</SU> As noted in section I, bank holding companies with less than $500 million in consolidated assets would generally be exempt from the calculation and analysis of risk-based ratios on a consolidated holding company basis, subject to certain terms and conditions.</P></FTNT>
<P>Qualifying total capital is calculated by adding Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital (limited to 100 percent of Tier 1 capital) and then deducting from this sum certain investments in banking or finance subsidiaries that are not consolidated for accounting or supervisory purposes, reciprocal holdings of banking organizations' capital securities, or other items at the direction of the Federal Reserve. The conditions under which these deductions are to be made and the procedures for making the deductions are discussed above in section II(B).
</P>
<HD2>B. Transition Arrangements
</HD2>
<P>The transition period for implementing the risk-based capital standard ends on December 31, 1992. Initially, the risk-based capital guidelines do not establish a minimum level of capital. However, by year-end 1990, banking organizations are expected to meet a minimum interim target ratio for qualifying total capital to weighted risk assets of 7.25 percent, at least one-half of which should be in the form of Tier 1 capital. For purposes of meeting the 1990 interim target, the amount of loan loss reserves that may be included in capital is limited to 1.5 percent of weighted risk assets and up to 10 percent of an organization's Tier 1 capital may consist of supplementary capital elements. Thus, the 7.25 percent interim target ratio implies a minimum ratio of Tier 1 capital to weighted risk assets of 3.6 percent (one-half of 7.25) and a minimum ratio of core capital elements to weighted risk assets ratio of 3.25 percent (nine-tenths of the Tier 1 capital ratio).
</P>
<P>Through year-end 1990, banking organizations have the option of complying with the minimum 7.25 percent year-end 1990 risk-based capital standard, in lieu of the minimum 5.5 percent primary and 6 percent total capital to total assets ratios set forth in appendix B of this part. In addition, as more fully set forth in appendix D to this part, banking organizations are expected to maintain a minimum ratio of Tier 1 capital to total assets during this transition period.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Attachment I—Sample Calculation of Risk-Based Capital Ratio for Bank Holding Companies
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Example of a banking organization with $6,000 in total capital and the following assets and off-balance sheet items:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balance Sheet Assets:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cash</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U.S. Treasuries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Balances at domestic banks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans secured by first liens on 1-4 family residential properties</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans to private corporations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total Balance Sheet Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Off-Balance Sheet Items:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Standby letters of credit (“SLCs”) backing general obligation debt issues of U.S. municipalities (“GOs”)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Long-term legally binding commitments to private corporations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total Off/Balance Sheet Items</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$30,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">This bank holding company's total capital to <E T="03">total</E> assets (leverage) ratio would be: ($6,000/$100,000) = 6.00%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">To compute the bank holding company's weighted risk assets:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">1. Compute the credit equivalent amount of each off-balance sheet (“OBS”) item.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OBS item
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Face value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conversion factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit equivalent amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SLCS backing municipal GOs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Long-term commitments to private corporations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$20,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">2. Multiply each balance sheet asset and the credit equivalent amount of each OBS item by the appropriate risk weight.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0% Category:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cash</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">U.S. Treasuries</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20% Category:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Balances at domestic banks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Credit equivalent amounts of SLCs backing GOs of U.S. municipalities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$3,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50% Category:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans secured by first liens on 1-4 family residential properties</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100% Category:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans to private corporations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Credit equivalent amounts of long-term commitments to private corporations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$75,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 6em">Total Risk-weighted Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80,500
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row">This bank holding company's ratio of total capital to weighted risk assets (risk-based capital ratio) would be: ($6,000/$80,500) = 7.45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>C. Optional Transition Provisions Related to the Implementation of Consolidation Requirements under FAS 167
</HD2>
<P>This section IV.C. provides optional transition provisions for a banking organization that is required for financial and regulatory reporting purposes, as a result of its implementation of Statement of Financial Accounting Standards No. 167, <I>Amendments to FASB Interpretation No. 46(R)</I> (FAS 167), to consolidate certain variable interest entities (VIEs) as defined under United States generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). These transition provisions apply through the end of the fourth quarter following the date of a banking organization's implementation of FAS 167 (implementation date).
</P>
<HD3>1. Exclusion Period
</HD3>
<P>a. <I>Exclusion of risk-weighted assets for the first and second quarters.</I> For the first two quarters after the implementation date (exclusion period), including for the two calendar quarter-end regulatory report dates within those quarters, a banking organization may exclude from risk-weighted assets:
</P>
<P>i. Subject to the limitations in section IV.C.3, assets held by a VIE, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The VIE existed prior to the implementation date,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The banking organization did not consolidate the VIE on its balance sheet for calendar quarter-end regulatory report dates prior to the implementation date,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The banking organization must consolidate the VIE on its balance sheet beginning as of the implementation date as a result of its implementation of FAS 167, and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The banking organization excludes all assets held by VIEs described in paragraphs C.1.a.i. (<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) of this section IV.C.1.a.i; and
</P>
<P>ii. Subject to the limitations in section IV.C.3, assets held by a VIE that is a consolidated ABCP program, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The banking organization is the sponsor of the ABCP program,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Prior to the implementation date, the banking organization consolidated the VIE onto its balance sheet under GAAP and excluded the VIE's assets from the banking organization's risk-weighted assets, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The banking organization chooses to exclude all assets held by ABCP program VIEs described in paragraphs (<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section IV.C.1.a.ii.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Risk-weighted assets during exclusion period.</I> During the exclusion period, including the two calendar quarter-end regulatory report dates during the exclusion period, a banking organization adopting the optional provisions in section IV.C.1.a must calculate risk-weighted assets for its contractual exposures to the VIEs referenced in section IV.C.1.a on the implementation date and include this calculated amount in its risk-weighted assets. Such contractual exposures may include direct-credit substitutes, recourse obligations, residual interests, liquidity facilities, and loans.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Inclusion of allowance for loan and lease losses in tier 2 capital for the first and second quarters.</I> During the exclusion period, including for the two calendar quarter-end regulatory report dates within the exclusion period, a banking organization that excludes VIE assets from risk-weighted assets pursuant to section IV.C.1.a may include in tier 2 capital the full amount of the allowance for loan and lease losses (ALLL) calculated as of the implementation date that is attributable to the assets it excludes pursuant to section IV.C.1.a (inclusion amount). The amount of ALLL includable in tier 2 capital in accordance with this paragraph shall not be subject to the limitations set forth in section II.A.2.a of this Appendix.
</P>
<HD3>2. Phase-In Period
</HD3>
<P>a. <I>Exclusion amount.</I> For purposes of this section IV.C., <I>exclusion amount</I> is defined as the amount of risk-weighted assets excluded in section IV.C.1.a as of the implementation date.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Risk-weighted assets for the third and fourth quarters.</I> A banking organization that excludes assets of consolidated VIEs from risk-weighted assets pursuant to section IV.C.1.a. may, for the third and fourth quarters after the implementation date (phase-in period), including for the two calendar quarter-end regulatory report dates within those quarters, exclude from risk-weighted assets 50 percent of the exclusion amount, provided that the banking organization may not include in risk-weighted assets pursuant to this paragraph an amount less than the aggregate risk-weighted assets calculated pursuant to section IV.C.1.b.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Inclusion of ALLL in tier 2 capital for the third and fourth quarters.</I> A banking organization that excludes assets of consolidated VIEs from risk-weighted assets pursuant to section IV.C.2.b. may, for the phase-in period, include in tier 2 capital 50 percent of the inclusion amount it included in tier 2 capital during the exclusion period, notwithstanding the limit on including ALLL in tier 2 capital in section II.A.2.a. of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Implicit recourse limitation.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision in this section IV.C., assets held by a VIE to which the banking organization has provided recourse through credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has sold may not be excluded from risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 54 FR 4209, Jan. 27, 1989]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting appendix A to part 225, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 225 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 225—Small Bank Holding Company and Savings and Loan Holding Company Policy Statement 
</HEAD>
<HD3>Policy Statement on Assessment of Financial and Managerial Factors 
</HD3>
<P>In acting on applications filed under the Bank Holding Company Act, the Board has adopted, and continues to follow, the principle that bank holding companies should serve as a source of strength for their subsidiary banks. When bank holding companies incur debt and rely upon the earnings of their subsidiary banks as the means of repaying such debt, a question arises as to the probable effect upon the financial condition of the holding company and its subsidiary bank or banks.
</P>
<P>The Board believes that a high level of debt at the parent holding company impairs the ability of a bank holding company to provide financial assistance to its subsidiary bank(s) and, in some cases, the servicing requirements on such debt may be a significant drain on the resources of the bank(s). For these reasons, the Board has not favored the use of acquisition debt in the formation of bank holding companies or in the acquisition of additional banks. Nevertheless, the Board has recognized that the transfer of ownership of small banks often requires the use of acquisition debt. The Board, therefore, has permitted the formation and expansion of small bank holding companies with debt levels higher than would be permitted for larger holding companies. Approval of these applications has been given on the condition that small bank holding companies demonstrate the ability to service acquisition debt without straining the capital of their subsidiary banks and, further, that such companies restore their ability to serve as a source of strength for their subsidiary banks within a relatively short period of time.
</P>
<P>In the interest of continuing its policy of facilitating the transfer of ownership in banks without compromising bank safety and soundness, the Board has, as described below, adopted the following procedures and standards for the formation and expansion of small bank holding companies subject to this policy statement.
</P>
<HD1>1. Applicability of Policy Statement 
</HD1>
<P>This policy statement applies only to bank holding companies with <I>pro forma</I> consolidated assets of less than $3 billion that (i) are not engaged in significant nonbanking activities either directly or through a nonbank subsidiary; (ii) do not conduct significant off-balance sheet activities (including securitization and asset management or administration) either directly or through a nonbank subsidiary; and (iii) do not have a material amount of debt or equity securities outstanding (other than trust preferred securities) that are registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission. The Board may in its discretion exclude any bank holding company, regardless of asset size, from the policy statement if such action is warranted for supervisory purposes.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> With the exception of section 4 (Additional Application Requirements for Expedited/Waived Processing), the policy statement applies to savings and loan holding companies as if they were bank holding companies.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> [Reserved].</P></FTNT>
<P>While this policy statement primarily applies to the formation of small bank holding companies, it also applies to existing small bank holding companies that wish to acquire an additional bank or company and to transactions involving changes in control, stock redemptions, or other shareholder transactions. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The appropriate Reserve Bank should be contacted to determine the manner in which a specific situation may qualify for treatment under this policy statement.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>2. Ongoing Requirements 
</HD1>
<P>The following guidelines must be followed on an ongoing basis for all organizations operating under this policy statement.
</P>
<P>A. Reduction in parent company leverage: Small bank holding companies are to reduce their parent company debt consistent with the requirement that all debt be retired within 25 years of being incurred. The Board also expects that these bank holding companies reach a debt to equity ratio of .30:1 or less within 12 years of the incurrence of the debt. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The bank holding company must also comply with debt servicing and other requirements imposed by its creditors.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The term <I>debt,</I> as used in the ratio of debt to equity, means any borrowed funds (exclusive of short-term borrowings that arise out of current transactions, the proceeds of which are used for current transactions), and any securities issued by, or obligations of, the holding company that are the functional equivalent of borrowed funds.
</P>
<P>Subordinated debt associated with trust preferred securities generally would be treated as debt for purposes of paragraphs 2.C., 3.A., 4.A.i., and 4.B.i. of this policy statement. A bank holding company, however, may exclude from debt an amount of subordinated debt associated with trust preferred securities up to 25 percent of the holding company's equity (as defined below) less goodwill on the parent company's balance sheet in determining compliance with the requirements of such paragraphs of the policy statement. In addition, a bank holding company subject to this policy statement that has not issued subordinated debt associated with a new issuance of trust preferred securities after December 31, 2005, may exclude from debt any subordinated debt associated with trust preferred securities until December 31, 2010. Bank holding companies subject to this policy statement also may exclude from debt until December 31, 2010, any subordinated debt associated with refinanced issuances of trust preferred securities originally issued on or prior to December 31, 2005, provided that the refinancing does not increase the bank holding company's outstanding amount of subordinated debt. Subordinated debt associated with trust preferred securities will not be included as debt in determining compliance with any other requirements of this policy statement.
</P>
<P>In addition, notwithstanding any other provision of this policy statement and for purposes of compliance with paragraphs 2.C., 3.A., 4.A.i, and 4.B.i. of this policy statement, both a bank holding company that is organized in mutual form and a bank holding company that has made a valid election to be taxed under Subchapter S of Chapter 1 of the U.S. Internal Revenue Code may exclude from debt subordinated debentures issued to the United States Department of the Treasury under (i) the Troubled Asset Relief Program established by the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008, Division A of Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008), and (ii) the Small Business Lending Fund established by the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, title IV of Public Law 111-240, 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).
</P>
<P>The term <I>equity,</I> as used in the ratio of debt to equity, means the total stockholders' equity of the bank holding company as defined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles. In determining the total amount of stockholders' equity, the bank holding company should account for its investments in the common stock of subsidiaries by the equity method of accounting.
</P>
<P>Ordinarily the Board does not view redeemable preferred stock as a substitute for common stock in a small bank holding company. Nevertheless, to a limited degree and under certain circumstances, the Board will consider redeemable preferred stock as equity in the capital accounts of the holding company if the following conditions are met: (1) The preferred stock is redeemable only at the option of the issuer; and (2) the debt to equity ratio of the holding company would be at or remain below .30:1 following the redemption or retirement of any preferred stock. Preferred stock that is convertible into common stock of the holding company may be treated as equity. </P></FTNT>
<P>B. Capital adequacy: Each insured depository subsidiary of a small bank holding company is expected to be well-capitalized. Any institution that is not well-capitalized is expected to become well-capitalized within a brief period of time.
</P>
<P>C. Dividend restrictions: A small bank holding company whose debt to equity ratio is greater than 1.0:1 is not expected to pay corporate dividends until such time as it reduces its debt to equity ratio to 1.0:1 or less and otherwise meets the criteria set forth in §§ 225.14(c)(1)(ii), 225.14(c)(2), and 225.14(c)(7) of Regulation Y. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Dividends may be paid by small bank holding companies with debt to equity at or below 1.0:1 and otherwise meeting the requirements of §§ 225.14(c)(1)(ii), 225.14(c)(2), and 225.14(c)(7) if the dividends are reasonable in amount, do not adversely affect the ability of the bank holding company to service its debt in an orderly manner, and do not adversely affect the ability of the subsidiary banks to be well-capitalized. It is expected that dividends will be eliminated if the holding company is (1) not reducing its debt consistent with the requirement that the debt to equity ratio be reduced to .30:1 within 12 years of consummation of the proposal or (2) not meeting the requirements of its loan agreement(s).</P></FTNT>
<P>Small bank holding companies formed before the effective date of this policy statement may switch to a plan that adheres to the intent of this statement provided they comply with the requirements set forth above.
</P>
<HD1>3. Core Requirements for All Applicants 
</HD1>
<P>In assessing applications or notices by organizations subject to this policy statement, the Board will continue to take into account a full range of financial and other information about the applicant, and its current and proposed subsidiaries, including the recent trend and stability of earnings, past and prospective growth, asset quality, the ability to meet debt servicing requirements without placing an undue strain on the resources of the bank(s), and the record and competency of management. In addition, the Board will require applicants to meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>A. Minimum down payment: The amount of acquisition debt should not exceed 75 percent of the purchase price of the bank(s) or company to be acquired. When the owner(s) of the holding company incurs debt to finance the purchase of the bank(s) or company, such debt will be considered acquisition debt even though it does not represent an obligation of the bank holding company, unless the owner(s) can demonstrate that such debt can be serviced without reliance on the resources of the bank(s) or bank holding company.
</P>
<P>B. Ability to reduce parent company leverage: The bank holding company must clearly be able to reduce its debt to equity ratio and comply with its loan agreement(s) as set forth in paragraph 2A above.
</P>
<P>Failure to meet the criteria in this section would normally result in denial of an application.
</P>
<HD1>4. Additional Application Requirements for Expedited/Waived Processing
</HD1>
<P>A. Expedited notices under §§ 225.14 and 225.23 of Regulation Y: A small bank holding company proposal will be eligible for the expedited processing procedures set forth in §§ 225.14 and 225.23 of Regulation Y if the bank holding company is in compliance with the ongoing requirements of this policy statement, the bank holding company meets the core requirements for all applicants noted above, and the following requirements are met: 
</P>
<P>i. The parent bank holding company has a <I>pro forma</I> debt to equity ratio of 1.0:1 or less. 
</P>
<P>ii. The bank holding company meets all of the criteria for expedited action set forth in §§ 225.14 or 225.23 of Regulation Y.
</P>
<P>B. Waiver of stock redemption filing: A small bank holding company will be eligible for the stock redemption filing exception for well-capitalized bank holding companies contained in § 225.4(b)(6) if the following requirements are met: 
</P>
<P>i. The parent bank holding company has a <I>pro forma d</I>ebt to equity ratio of 1.0:1 or less. 
</P>
<P>ii. The bank holding company is in compliance with the ongoing requirements of this policy statement and meets the requirements of §§ 225.14(c)(1)(ii), 225.14(c)(2), and 225.14(c)(7) of Regulation Y.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 62 FR 9343, Feb. 28, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 9902, Feb. 28, 2006; 74 FR 26081, June 1, 2009; 80 FR 20158, Apr. 15, 2015; 83 FR 44199, Aug. 30, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes D-E to Part 225 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 225—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards 
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP-1>I. Introduction 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Scope 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Preservation of Existing Authority 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Definitions 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>II. Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Information Security Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Objectives 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>III. Development and Implementation of Customer Information Security Program 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Involve the Board of Directors 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Assess Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Manage and Control Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Adjust the Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Report to the Board 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Implement the Standards 
</FP1-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction 
</HD1>
<P>These Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to sections 501 and 505 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805). These Guidelines address standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information. 
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> The Guidelines apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries or affiliates (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisors), for which the Board has supervisory authority. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority.</I> These Guidelines do not in any way limit the authority of the Board to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The Board may take action under these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement action available to the Board. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Definitions.</I> 1. Except as modified in the Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1). 
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>b. <I>Customer</I> means any customer of the bank holding company as defined in § 1016.3(i) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>c. <I>Customer information</I> means any record containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in § 1016.3(p) of this chapter, about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Customer information systems</I> means any methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information. 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Service provider</I> means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information through its provision of services directly to the bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>f. <I>Subsidiary</I> means any company controlled by a bank holding company, except a broker, dealer, person providing insurance, investment company, investment advisor, insured depository institution, or subsidiary of an insured depository institution. 
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Information Security Program.</I> Each bank holding company shall implement a comprehensive written information security program that includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the bank holding company and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the bank holding company are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated. A bank holding company also shall ensure that each of its subsidiaries is subject to a comprehensive information security program. The bank holding company may fulfill this requirement either by including a subsidiary within the scope of the bank holding company's comprehensive information security program or by causing the subsidiary to implement a separate comprehensive information security program in accordance with the standards and procedures in sections II and III of this appendix that apply to bank holding companies. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> A bank holding company's information security program shall be designed to: 
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information; 
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and 
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. 
</P>
<HD1>III. Development and Implementation of Information Security Program 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Involve the Board of Directors.</I> The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each bank holding company shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Approve the bank holding company's written information security program; and 
</P>
<P>2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the bank holding company's information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Assess Risk.</I> Each bank holding company shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information. 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Manage and Control Risk.</I> Each bank holding company shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the bank holding company's activities. Each bank holding company must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the bank holding company and, if so, adopt those measures the bank holding company concludes are appropriate: 
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means. 
</P>
<P>b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing customer information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals; 
</P>
<P>c. Encryption of electronic customer information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access; 
</P>
<P>d. Procedures designed to ensure that customer information system modifications are consistent with the bank holding company's information security program; 
</P>
<P>e. Dual control procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to customer information; 
</P>
<P>f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into customer information systems; 
</P>
<P>g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the bank holding company suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and 
</P>
<P>h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of customer information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technological failures. 
</P>
<P>2. Train staff to implement the bank holding company's information security program. 
</P>
<P>3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the bank holding company's risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs. 
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oversee Service Provider Arrangements.</I> Each bank holding company shall: 
</P>
<P>1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers; 
</P>
<P>2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these Guidelines; and 
</P>
<P>3. Where indicated by the bank holding company's risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by paragraph D.2. As part of this monitoring, a bank holding company should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Adjust the Program.</I> Each bank holding company shall monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its customer information, internal or external threats to information, and the bank holding company's own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to customer information systems. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Report to the Board.</I> Each bank holding company shall report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the bank holding company's compliance with these Guidelines. The reports should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations and management's responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program. 
</P>
<P>G. <I>Implement the Standards.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> Each bank holding company must implement an information security program pursuant to these Guidelines by July 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Two-year grandfathering of agreements with service providers.</I> Until July 1, 2003, a contract that a bank holding company has entered into with a service provider to perform services for it or functions on its behalf satisfies the provisions of section III.D., even if the contract does not include a requirement that the servicer maintain the security and confidentiality of customer information, as long as the bank holding company entered into the contract on or before March 5, 2001.
</P>
<HD1>Supplement A to Appendix F to Part 225—Interagency Guidance on Response Programs for Unauthorized Access to Customer Information and Customer Notice
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Background
</HD1>
<P>This Guidance 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> interprets section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (“GLBA”) and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (the “Security Guidelines”) 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and describes response programs, including customer notification procedures, that a financial institution should develop and implement to address unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to a customer. The scope of, and definitions of terms used in, this Guidance are identical to those of the Security Guidelines. For example, the term “customer information” is the same term used in the Security Guidelines, and means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, maintained by or on behalf of the institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This Guidance is being jointly issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 CFR part 30, app. B (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, app. D-2 and part 225, app. F (Board); 12 CFR part 364, app. B (FDIC); and 12 CFR part 570, app. B (OTS). The “Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards” were formerly known as “The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards.”</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Interagency Security Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the Agencies to establish appropriate standards for financial institutions subject to their jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards, to protect the security and confidentiality of customer information. Accordingly, the Agencies issued Security Guidelines requiring every financial institution to have an information security program designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Assessment and Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
</P>
<P>a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems;
</P>
<P>b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.B.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. Following the assessment of these risks, the Security Guidelines require a financial institution to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures an institution should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the financial institution is required to consider the specific security measures enumerated in the Security Guidelines, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> and adopt those that are appropriate for the institution, including:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
</P>
<P>b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the financial institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>C. Service Providers
</HD2>
<P>The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, II.B. and III.D. Further, the Agencies note that, in addition to contractual obligations to a financial institution, a service provider may be required to implement its own comprehensive information security program in accordance with the Safeguards Rule promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”), 16 CFR part 314.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Response Program
</HD1>
<P>Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> Identity thieves misuse personal information they obtain from a number of sources, including financial institutions, to perpetrate identity theft. Therefore, financial institutions should take preventative measures to safeguard customer information against attempts to gain unauthorized access to the information. For example, financial institutions should place access controls on customer information systems and conduct background checks for employees who are authorized to access customer information. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> However, every financial institution should also develop and implement a risk-based response program to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> that occur nonetheless. A response program should be a key part of an institution's information security program. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> The program should be appropriate to the size and complexity of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The FTC estimates that nearly 10 million Americans discovered they were victims of some form of identity theft in 2002. <I>See</I> The Federal Trade Commission, <I>Identity Theft Survey Report,</I> (September 2003), available at <I>http://www.ftc.gov/os/2003/09/synovatereport.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Institutions should also conduct background checks of employees to ensure that the institution does not violate 12 U.S.C. 1829, which prohibits an institution from hiring an individual convicted of certain criminal offenses or who is subject to a prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(6).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Under the Guidelines, an institution's <I>customer information systems</I> consist of all of the methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information, including the systems maintained by its service providers. <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, I.C.2.d (I.C.2.c for OTS).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002 available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/ffiecinfobase/html_pages/infosec_book_frame.htm.</I> Federal Reserve SR 97-32, Sound Practice Guidance for Information Security for Networks, Dec. 4, 1997; OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000), for additional guidance on preventing, detecting, and responding to intrusions into financial institution computer systems.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, each institution should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in the Guidelines that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the Agencies, 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> an institution's contract with its service provider should require the service provider to take appropriate actions to address incidents of unauthorized access to the financial institution's customer information, including notification to the institution as soon as possible of any such incident, to enable the institution to expeditiously implement its response program.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> Federal Reserve SR Ltr. 00-04, Outsourcing of Information and Transaction Processing, Feb. 9, 2000; OCC Bulletin 2001-47, “Third-Party Relationships Risk Management Principles,” Nov. 1, 2001; FDIC FIL 68-99, Risk Assessment Tools and Practices for Information System Security, July 7, 1999; OTS Thrift Bulletin 82a, Third Party Arrangements, Sept. 1, 2004.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Components of a Response Program
</HD2>
<P>1. At a minimum, an institution's response program should contain procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what customer information systems and types of customer information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>b. Notifying its primary Federal regulator as soon as possible when the institution becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of <I>sensitive</I> customer information, as defined below;
</P>
<P>c. Consistent with the Agencies' Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations, 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> notifying appropriate law enforcement authorities, in addition to filing a timely SAR in situations involving Federal criminal violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> An institution's obligation to file a SAR is set out in the Agencies' SAR regulations and Agency guidance. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 21.11 (national banks, Federal branches and agencies); 12 CFR 208.62 (State member banks); 12 CFR 211.5(k) (Edge and agreement corporations); 12 CFR 211.24(f) (uninsured State branches and agencies of foreign banks); 12 CFR 225.4(f) (bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries); 12 CFR part 353 (State non-member banks); and 12 CFR 563.180 (savings associations). National banks must file SARs in connection with computer intrusions and other computer crimes. <I>See</I> OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000); Advisory Letter 97-9, “Reporting Computer Related Crimes” (November 19, 1997) (general guidance still applicable though instructions for new SAR form published in 65 FR 1229, 1230 (January 7, 2000)). <I>See also</I> Federal Reserve SR 01-11, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, Apr. 26, 2001; SR 97-28, Guidance Concerning Reporting of Computer Related Crimes by Financial Institutions, Nov. 6, 1997; FDIC FIL 48-2000, Suspicious Activity Reports, July 14, 2000; FIL 47-97, Preparation of Suspicious Activity Reports, May 6, 1997; OTS CEO Memorandum 139, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, May 4, 2001; CEO Memorandum 126, New Suspicious Activity Report Form, July 5, 2000; <I>http://www.ots.treas.gov/BSA</I> (for the latest SAR form and filing instructions required by OTS as of July 1, 2003).</P></FTNT>
<P>d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of customer information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence;
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002, pp. 68-74.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. Notifying customers when warranted.
</P>
<P>2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to customer information involves customer information systems maintained by an institution's service providers, it is the responsibility of the financial institution to notify the institution's customers and regulator. However, an institution may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the institution's customers or regulator on its behalf.
</P>
<HD1>III. Customer Notice
</HD1>
<P>Financial institutions have an affirmative duty to protect their customers' information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying customers of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the customer's information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty. Timely notification of customers is important to manage an institution's reputation risk. Effective notice also may reduce an institution's legal risk, assist in maintaining good customer relations, and enable the institution's customers to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When customer notification is warranted, an institution may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the institution believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
</P>
<HD2>A. Standard for Providing Notice
</HD2>
<P>When a financial institution becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive customer information, the institution should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the institution determines that misuse of its information about a customer has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected customer as soon as possible. Customer notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the institution with a written request for the delay. However, the institution should notify its customers as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>1. Sensitive Customer Information
</HD3>
<P>Under the Guidelines, an institution must protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to <I>sensitive customer information</I> because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft. For purposes of this Guidance, <I>sensitive customer information</I> means a customer's name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the customer's social security number, driver's license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the customer's account. <I>Sensitive customer information</I> also includes any combination of components of customer information that would allow someone to log onto or access the customer's account, such as user name and password or password and account number.
</P>
<HD3>2. Affected Customers
</HD3>
<P>If a financial institution, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which customers' information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those customers with regard to whom the institution determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the institution determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific customers' information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the institution to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all customers in the group.
</P>
<HD2>B. Content of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. Customer notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of customer information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the institution has done to protect the customers' information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that customers can call for further information and assistance. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice also should remind customers of the need to remain vigilant over the next twelve to twenty-four months, and to promptly report incidents of suspected identity theft to the institution. The notice should include the following additional items, when appropriate:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The institution should, therefore, ensure that it has reasonable policies and procedures in place, including trained personnel, to respond appropriately to customer inquiries and requests for assistance.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. A recommendation that the customer review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the institution;
</P>
<P>b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the customer may place a fraud alert in the customer's consumer reports to put the customer's creditors on notice that the customer may be a victim of fraud;
</P>
<P>c. A recommendation that the customer periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
</P>
<P>d. An explanation of how the customer may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
</P>
<P>e. Information about the availability of the FTC's online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the customer to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC's Web site address and toll-free telephone number that customers may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft. 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Currently, the FTC Web site for the ID Theft brochure and the FTC Hotline phone number are <I>http://www.consumer.gov/idtheft</I> and 1-877-IDTHEFT. The institution may also refer customers to any materials developed pursuant to section 151(b) of the FACT Act (educational materials developed by the FTC to teach the public how to prevent identity theft).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. The Agencies encourage financial institutions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of customers that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
</P>
<HD2>C. Delivery of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>Customer notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a customer can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the institution may choose to contact all customers affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those customers for whom it has a valid e-mail address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 8636, Feb. 1, 2001, as amended at 70 FR 15751, 15753, Mar. 29, 2005; 71 FR 5780, Feb. 3, 2006; 79 FR 37167, July 1, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.6.17.8.1.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 225 [Reserved]
</HEAD>
</DIV9>

<P> 
</P>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="226" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 226—TRUTH IN LENDING (REGULATION Z)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3806; 15 U.S.C. 1604, 1637(c)(5), 1639(l), and 1639h; Pub. L. 111-24, section 2, 123 Stat. 1734; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.1   Authority, purpose, coverage, organization, enforcement, and liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This regulation, known as Regulation Z, is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to implement the federal Truth in Lending Act, which is contained in title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). This regulation also implements title XII, section 1204 of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987 (Pub. L. 100-86, 101 Stat. 552). Information-collection requirements contained in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 7100-0199.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this regulation is to promote the informed use of consumer credit by requiring disclosures about its terms and cost. The regulation also includes substantive protections. It gives consumers the right to cancel certain credit transactions that involve a lien on a consumer's principal dwelling, regulates certain credit card practices, and provides a means for fair and timely resolution of credit billing disputes. The regulation does not generally govern charges for consumer credit, except that several provisions in Subpart G set forth special rules addressing certain charges applicable to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The regulation requires a maximum interest rate to be stated in variable-rate contracts secured by the consumer's dwelling. It also imposes limitations on home-equity plans that are subject to the requirements of § 226.5b and mortgages that are subject to the requirements of § 226.32. The regulation prohibits certain acts or practices in connection with credit secured by a dwelling in § 226.36, and credit secured by a consumer's principal dwelling in § 226.35. The regulation also regulates certain practices of creditors who extend private education loans as defined in § 226.46(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) In general, this regulation applies to each individual or business that offers or extends credit when four conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit is offered or extended to consumers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The offering or extension of credit is done regularly; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) The credit is subject to a finance charge or is payable by a written agreement in more than four installments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The credit is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) If a credit card is involved, however, certain provisions apply even if the credit is not subject to a finance charge, or is not payable by a written agreement in more than four installments, or if the credit card is to be used for business purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, certain requirements of § 226.5b apply to persons who are not creditors but who provide applications for home-equity plans to consumers.
</P>
<P>(4) Furthermore, certain requirements of § 226.57 apply to institutions of higher education.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Organization.</I> The regulation is divided into subparts and appendices as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A contains general information. It sets forth:
</P>
<P>(i) The authority, purpose, coverage, and organization of the regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The definitions of basic terms;
</P>
<P>(iii) The transactions that are exempt from coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The method of determining the finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B contains the rules for open-end credit. It requires that account-opening disclosures and periodic statements be provided, as well as additional disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations and for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5a and § 226.5b, respectively. It also describes special rules that apply to credit card transactions, treatment of payments and credit balances, procedures for resolving credit billing errors, annual percentage rate calculations, rescission requirements, and advertising.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C relates to closed-end credit. It contains rules on disclosures, treatment of credit balances, annual percentages rate calculations, rescission requirements, and advertising.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D contains rules on oral disclosures, disclosures in languages other than English, record retention, effect on state laws, state exemptions, and rate limitations.
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart E contains special rules for mortgage transactions. Section 226.32 requires certain disclosures and provides limitations for closed-end loans that have rates or fees above specified amounts. Section 226.33 requires special disclosures, including the total annual loan cost rate, for reverse mortgage transactions. Section 226.34 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with closed-end mortgage transactions that are subject to § 226.32. Section 226.35 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with closed-end higher-priced mortgage loans, as defined in § 226.35(a). Section 226.36 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with an extension of credit secured by a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(6) Subpart F relates to private education loans. It contains rules on disclosures, limitations on changes in terms after approval, the right to cancel the loan, and limitations on co-branding in the marketing of private education loans.
</P>
<P>(7) Subpart G relates to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan (except for § 226.57(c), which applies to all open-end credit plans). Section 226.51 contains rules on evaluation of a consumer's ability to make the required payments under the terms of an account. Section 226.52 limits the fees that a consumer can be required to pay with respect to an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan during the first year after account opening. Section 226.53 contains rules on allocation of payments in excess of the minimum payment. Section 226.54 sets forth certain limitations on the imposition of finance charges as the result of a loss of a grace period. Section 226.55 contains limitations on increases in annual percentage rates, fees, and charges for credit card accounts. Section 226.56 prohibits the assessment of fees or charges for over-the-limit transactions unless the consumer affirmatively consents to the creditor's payment of over-the-limit transactions. Section 226.57 sets forth rules for reporting and marketing of college student open-end credit. Section 226.58 sets forth requirements for the Internet posting of credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(8) Several appendices contain information such as the procedures for determinations about state laws, state exemptions and issuance of staff interpretations, special rules for certain kinds of credit plans, a list of enforcement agencies, and the rules for computing annual percentage rates in closed-end credit transactions and total-annual-loan-cost rates for reverse mortgage transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> Section 108 of the act contains the administrative enforcement provisions. Sections 112, 113, 130, 131, and 134 contain provisions relating to liability for failure to comply with the requirements of the act and the regulation. Section 1204 (c) of title XII of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987, Public Law 100-86, 101 Stat. 552, incorporates by reference administrative enforcement and civil liability provisions of sections 108 and 130 of the act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7792, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 58533, Sept. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.2   Definitions and rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this regulation, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message in any medium that promotes, directly or indirectly, a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved] 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) <I>Billing cycle</I> or <I>cycle</I> means the interval between the days or dates of regular periodic statements. These intervals shall be equal and no longer than a quarter of a year. An interval will be considered equal if the number of days in the cycle does not vary more than four days from the regular day or date of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Business day</I> means a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions. However, for purposes of rescission under §§ 226.15 and 226.23, and for purposes of §§ 226.19(a)(1)(ii), 226.19(a)(2), 226.31, and 226.46(d)(4), the term means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a), such as New Year's Day, the Birthday of Martin Luther King, Jr., Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans Day, Thanksgiving Day, and Christmas Day.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Card issuer</I> means a person that issues a credit card or that person's agent with respect to the card.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cardholder</I> means a natural person to whom a credit card is issued for consumer credit purposes, or a natural person who has agreed with the card issuer to pay consumer credit obligations arising from the issuance of a credit card to another natural person. For purposes of § 226.12(a) and (b), the term includes any person to whom a credit card is issued for any purpose, including business, commercial or agricultural use, or a person who has agreed with the card issuer to pay obligations arising from the issuance of such a credit card to another person.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cash price</I> means the price at which a creditor, in the ordinary course of business, offers to sell for cash property or service that is the subject of the transaction. At the creditor's option, the term may include the price of accessories, services related to the sale, service contracts and taxes and fees for license, title, and registration. The term does not include any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closed-end credit</I> means consumer credit other than “open-end credit” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Consumer</I> means a cardholder or natural person to whom consumer credit is offered or extended. However, for purposes of rescission under §§ 226.15 and 226.23, the term also includes a natural person in whose principal dwelling a security interest is or will be retained or acquired, if that person's ownership interest in the dwelling is or will be subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Consummation</I> means the time that a consumer becomes contractually obligated on a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Credit</I> means the right to defer payment of debt or to incur debt and defer its payment.
</P>
<P>(15)(i) <I>Credit card</I> means any card, plate, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain credit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan</I> means any open-end credit account that is accessed by a credit card, except:
</P>
<P>(A) A home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b that is accessed by a credit card; or
</P>
<P>(B) An overdraft line of credit that is accessed by a debit card or an account number.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charge card</I> means a credit card on an account for which no periodic rate is used to compute a finance charge.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Credit sale</I> means a sale in which the seller is a creditor. The term includes a bailment or lease (unless terminable without penalty at any time by the consumer) under which the consumer—
</P>
<P>(i) Agrees to pay as compensation for use a sum substantially equivalent to, or in excess of, the total value of the property and service involved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Will become (or has the option to become), for no additional consideration or for nominal consideration, the owner of the property upon compliance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who regularly extends consumer credit 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For purposes of §§ 226.4(c)(8) (Discounts), 226.9(d) (Finance charge imposed at time of transaction), and 226.12(e) (Prompt notification of returns and crediting of refunds), a person that honors a credit card.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of subpart B, any card issuer that extends either open-end credit or credit that is not subject to a finance charge and is not payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of subpart B (except for the credit and charge card disclosures contained in §§ 226.5a and 226.9(e) and (f), the finance charge disclosures contained in § 226.6(a)(1) and (b)(3)(i) and § 226.7(a)(4) through (7) and (b)(4) through (6) and the right of rescission set forth in § 226.15) and subpart C, any card issuer that extends closed-end credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(v) A person regularly extends consumer credit only if it extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of § 226.32) more than 25 times (or more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling) in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of § 226.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Downpayment</I> means an amount, including the value of property used as a trade-in, paid to a seller to reduce the cash price of goods or services purchased in a credit sale transaction. A deferred portion of a downpayment may be treated as part of the downpayment if it is payable not later than the due date of the second otherwise regularly scheduled payment and is not subject to a finance charge.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Open-end credit</I> means consumer credit extended by a creditor under a plan in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor reasonably contemplates repeated transactions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor may impose a finance charge from time to time on an outstanding unpaid balance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of credit that may be extended to the consumer during the term of the plan (up to any limit set by the creditor) is generally made available to the extent that any outstanding balance is repaid.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Periodic rate</I> means a rate of finance charge that is or may be imposed by a creditor on a balance for a day, week, month, or other subdivision of a year.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Prepaid finance charge</I> means any finance charge paid separately in cash or by check before or at consummation of a transaction, or withheld from the proceeds of the credit at any time.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Residential mortgage transaction</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in the consumer's principal dwelling to finance the acquisition or initial construction of that dwelling.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Security interest</I> means an interest in property that secures performance of a consumer credit obligation and that is recognized by state or federal law. It does not include incidental interests such as interests in proceeds, accessions, additions, fixtures, insurance proceeds (whether or not the creditor is a loss payee or beneficiary), premium rebates, or interests in after-acquired property. For purposes of disclosures under §§ 226.6 and 226.18, the term does not include an interest that arises solely by operation of law. However, for purposes of the right of rescission under §§ 226.15 and 226.23, the term does include interests that arise solely by operation of law.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of this regulation, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Where appropriate, the singular form of a word includes the plural form and plural includes singular.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the words <I>obligation</I> and <I>transaction</I> are used in the regulation, they refer to a consumer credit obligation or transaction, depending upon the context. Where the word <I>credit</I> is used in the regulation, it means <I>consumer credit</I> unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless defined in this regulation, the words used have the meanings given to them by state law or contract.
</P>
<P>(4) Footnotes have the same legal effect as the text of the regulation.
</P>
<P>(5) Where the word <I>amount</I> is used in this regulation to describe disclosure requirements, it refers to a numerical amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7793, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 22998, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.3   Exempt transactions.</HEAD>
<P>This regulation does not apply to the following: 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational credit.</I> (1) An extension of credit primarily for a business, commercial or agricultural purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of credit to other than a natural person, including credit to government agencies or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit over applicable threshold amount</I>—(1) <I>Exemption</I>—(i) <I>Requirements.</I> An extension of credit in which the amount of credit extended exceeds the applicable threshold amount or in which there is an express written commitment to extend credit in excess of the applicable threshold amount, unless the extension of credit is:
</P>
<P>(A) Secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(B) A private education loan as defined in § 226.46(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Annual adjustments.</I> The threshold amount in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is adjusted annually to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable. See the official staff commentary to this paragraph (b) for the threshold amount applicable to a specific extension of credit or express written commitment to extend credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transition rule for open-end accounts exempt prior to July 21, 2011.</I> An open-end account that is exempt on July 20, 2011 based on an express written commitment to extend credit in excess of $25,000 remains exempt until December 31, 2011 unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor takes a security interest in any real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor reduces the express written commitment to extend credit to $25,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public utility credit.</I> An extension of credit that involves public utility services provided through pipe, wire, other connected facilities, or radio or similar transmission (including extensions of such facilities), if the charges for service, delayed payment, or any discounts for prompt payment are filed with or regulated by any government unit. The financing of durable goods or home improvements by a public utility is not exempt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Securities or commodities accounts.</I> Transactions in securities or commodities accounts in which credit is extended by a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Home fuel budget plans.</I> An installment agreement for the purchase of home fuels in which no finance charge is imposed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Student loan programs.</I> Loans made, insured, or guaranteed pursuant to a program authorized by title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employer-sponsored retirement plans.</I> An extension of credit to a participant in an employer-sponsored retirement plan qualified under Section 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, a tax-sheltered annuity under Section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, or an eligible governmental deferred compensation plan under Section 457(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(a); 26 U.S.C. 403(b); 26 U.S.C. 457(b)), provided that the extension of credit is comprised of fully vested funds from such participant's account and is made in compliance with the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7794, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 18362, Apr. 4, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.4" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.4   Finance charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The finance charge is the cost of consumer credit as a dollar amount. It includes any charge payable directly or indirectly by the consumer and imposed directly or indirectly by the creditor as an incident to or a condition of the extension of credit. It does not include any charge of a type payable in a comparable cash transaction.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Charges by third parties.</I> The finance charge includes fees and amounts charged by someone other than the creditor, unless otherwise excluded under this section, if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires the use of a third party as a condition of or an incident to the extension of credit, even if the consumer can choose the third party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Retains a portion of the third-party charge, to the extent of the portion retained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule; closing agent charges.</I> Fees charged by a third party that conducts the loan closing (such as a settlement agent, attorney, or escrow or title company) are finance charges only if the creditor—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires the particular services for which the consumer is charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires the imposition of the charge; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Retains a portion of the third-party charge, to the extent of the portion retained.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule; mortgage broker fees.</I> Fees charged by a mortgage broker (including fees paid by the consumer directly to the broker or to the creditor for delivery to the broker) are finance charges even if the creditor does not require the consumer to use a mortgage broker and even if the creditor does not retain any portion of the charge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of finance charges.</I> The finance charge includes the following types of charges, except for charges specifically excluded by paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest, time price differential, and any amount payable under an add-on or discount system of additional charges.
</P>
<P>(2) Service, transaction, activity, and carrying charges, including any charge imposed on a checking or other transaction account to the extent that the charge exceeds the charge for a similar account without a credit feature.
</P>
<P>(3) Points, loan fees, assumption fees, finder's fees, and similar charges.
</P>
<P>(4) Appraisal, investigation, and credit report fees.
</P>
<P>(5) Premiums or other charges for any guarantee or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss.
</P>
<P>(6) Charges imposed on a creditor by another person for purchasing or accepting a consumer's obligation, if the consumer is required to pay the charges in cash, as an addition to the obligation, or as a deduction from the proceeds of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(7) Premiums or other charges for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, written in connection with a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(8) Premiums or other charges for insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of property, written in connection with a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(9) Discounts for the purpose of inducing payment by a means other than the use of credit.
</P>
<P>(10) Charges or premiums paid for debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage written in connection with a credit transaction, whether or not the coverage is insurance under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charges excluded from the finance charge.</I> The following charges are not finance charges:
</P>
<P>(1) Application fees charged to all applicants for credit, whether or not credit is actually extended.
</P>
<P>(2) Charges for actual unanticipated late payment, for exceeding a credit limit, or for delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Charges imposed by a financial institution for paying items that overdraw an account, unless the payment of such items and the imposition of the charge were previously agreed upon in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) Fees charged for participation in a credit plan, whether assessed on an annual or other periodic basis.
</P>
<P>(5) Seller's points.
</P>
<P>(6) Interest forfeited as a result of an interest reduction required by law on a time deposit used as security for an extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Real-estate related fees.</I> The following fees in a transaction secured by real property or in a residential mortgage transaction, if the fees are bona fide and reasonable in amount:
</P>
<P>(i) Fees for title examination, abstract of title, title insurance, property survey, and similar purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fees for preparing loan-related documents, such as deeds, mortgages, and reconveyance or settlement documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notary and credit-report fees.
</P>
<P>(iv) Property appraisal fees or fees for inspections to assess the value or condition of the property if the service is performed prior to closing, including fees related to pest-infestation or flood-hazard determinations.
</P>
<P>(v) Amounts required to be paid into escrow or trustee accounts if the amounts would not otherwise be included in the finance charge.
</P>
<P>(8) Discounts offered to induce payment for a purchase by cash, check, or other means, as provided in section 167(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance and debt cancellation and debt suspension coverage</I>—(1) <I>Voluntary credit insurance premiums.</I> Premiums for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance may be excluded from the finance charge if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurance coverage is not required by the creditor, and this fact is disclosed in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The premium for the initial term of insurance coverage is disclosed in writing. If the term of insurance is less than the term of the transaction, the term of insurance also shall be disclosed. The premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 226.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving an insurance plan that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer signs or initials an affirmative written request for the insurance after receiving the disclosures specified in this paragraph, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. Any consumer in the transaction may sign or initial the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Property insurance premiums.</I> Premiums for insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of property, including single interest insurance if the insurer waives all right of subrogation against the consumer,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> may be excluded from the finance charge if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The insurance coverage may be obtained from a person of the consumer's choice,
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> and this fact is disclosed. (A creditor may reserve the right to refuse to accept, for reasonable cause, an insurer offered by the consumer.)
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) If the coverage is obtained from or through the creditor, the premium for the initial term of insurance coverage shall be disclosed. If the term of insurance is less than the term of the transaction, the term of insurance shall also be disclosed. The premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 226.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving an insurance plan that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Voluntary debt cancellation or debt suspension fees.</I> Charges or premiums paid for debt cancellation coverage for amounts exceeding the value of the collateral securing the obligation or for debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage in the event of the loss of life, health, or income or in case of accident may be excluded from the finance charge, whether or not the coverage is insurance, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt cancellation or debt suspension agreement or coverage is not required by the creditor, and this fact is disclosed in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fee or premium for the initial term of coverage is disclosed in writing. If the term of coverage is less than the term of the credit transaction, the term of coverage also shall be disclosed. The fee or premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 226.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving a debt cancellation agreement that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) The following are disclosed, as applicable, for debt suspension coverage: That the obligation to pay loan principal and interest is only suspended, and that interest will continue to accrue during the period of suspension.
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer signs or initials an affirmative written request for coverage after receiving the disclosures specified in this paragraph, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. Any consumer in the transaction may sign or initial the request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Telephone purchases.</I> If a consumer purchases credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage for an open-end (not home-secured) plan by telephone, the creditor must make the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) or (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, orally. In such a case, the creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain evidence that the consumer, after being provided the disclosures orally, affirmatively elected to purchase the insurance or coverage; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Mail the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) or (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, within three business days after the telephone purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain security interest charges.</I> If itemized and disclosed, the following charges may be excluded from the finance charge:
</P>
<P>(1) Taxes and fees prescribed by law that actually are or will be paid to public officials for determining the existence of or for perfecting, releasing, or satisfying a security interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The premium for insurance in lieu of perfecting a security interest to the extent that the premium does not exceed the fees described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section that otherwise would be payable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Taxes on security instruments.</I> Any tax levied on security instruments or on documents evidencing indebtedness if the payment of such taxes is a requirement for recording the instrument securing the evidence of indebtedness.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibited offsets.</I> Interest, dividends, or other income received or to be received by the consumer on deposits or investments shall not be deducted in computing the finance charge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7794, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Open-End Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.5" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.5   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> (i) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart in writing,
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> in a form that the consumer may keep,
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> except that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) The following disclosures need not be written: Disclosures under § 226.6(b)(3) of charges that are imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan that are not required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2) and related disclosures of charges under § 226.9(c)(2)(iii)(B); disclosures under § 226.9(c)(2)(vi); disclosures under § 226.9(d) when a finance charge is imposed at the time of the transaction; and disclosures under § 226.56(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(B) The following disclosures need not be in a retainable form: Disclosures that need not be written under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section; disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations under § 226.5a; home-equity disclosures under § 226.5b(d); the alternative summary billing-rights statement under § 226.9(a)(2); the credit and charge card renewal disclosures required under § 226.9(e); and the payment requirements under § 226.10(b), except as provided in § 226.7(b)(13).
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by §§ 226.5a, 226.5b, and 226.16 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminology.</I> (i) Terminology used in providing the disclosures required by this subpart shall be consistent.
</P>
<P>(ii) For home-equity plans subject to § 226.5b, the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate,</I> when required to be disclosed with a corresponding amount or percentage rate, shall be more conspicuous than any other required disclosure.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> The terms need not be more conspicuous when used for periodic statement disclosures under § 226.7(a)(4) and for advertisements under § 226.16.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) If disclosures are required to be presented in a tabular format pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the term <I>penalty APR</I> shall be used, as applicable. The term <I>penalty APR</I> need not be used in reference to the annual percentage rate that applies with the loss of a promotional rate, assuming the annual percentage rate that applies is not greater than the annual percentage rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period; or if the annual percentage rate that applies with the loss of a promotional rate is a variable rate, the annual percentage rate is calculated using the same index and margin as would have been used to calculate the annual percentage rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period. If credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage is required as part of the plan, the term <I>required</I> shall be used and the program shall be identified by its name. If an annual percentage rate is required to be presented in a tabular format pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the term <I>fixed,</I> or a similar term, may not be used to describe such rate unless the creditor also specifies a time period that the rate will be fixed and the rate will not increase during that period, or if no such time period is provided, the rate will not increase while the plan is open.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Specific formats.</I> (i) Certain disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 226.5a(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain disclosures for home-equity plans must precede other disclosures and must be given in accordance with the requirements of § 226.5b(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Certain account-opening disclosures must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 226.6(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(iv) Certain disclosures provided on periodic statements must be grouped together in accordance with the requirements of § 226.7(b)(6) and (b)(13).
</P>
<P>(v) Certain disclosures provided on periodic statements must be given in accordance with the requirements of § 226.7(b)(12).
</P>
<P>(vi) Certain disclosures accompanying checks that access a credit card account must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 226.9(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(vii) Certain disclosures provided in a change-in-terms notice must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(D).
</P>
<P>(viii) Certain disclosures provided when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or as a penalty must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 226.9(g)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Account-opening disclosures</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> The creditor shall furnish account-opening disclosures required by § 226.6 before the first transaction is made under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan.</I> Charges that are imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan and are not required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2) may be disclosed after account opening but before the consumer agrees to pay or becomes obligated to pay for the charge, provided they are disclosed at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice them. This provision does not apply to charges imposed as part of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Telephone purchases.</I> Disclosures required by § 226.6 may be provided as soon as reasonably practicable after the first transaction if:
</P>
<P>(A) The first transaction occurs when a consumer contacts a merchant by telephone to purchase goods and at the same time the consumer accepts an offer to finance the purchase by establishing an open-end plan with the merchant or third-party creditor;
</P>
<P>(B) The merchant or third-party creditor permits consumers to return any goods financed under the plan and provides consumers with a sufficient time to reject the plan and return the goods free of cost after the merchant or third-party creditor has provided the written disclosures required by § 226.6; and
</P>
<P>(C) The consumer's right to reject the plan and return the goods is disclosed to the consumer as a part of the offer to finance the purchase.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Membership fees</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> In general, a creditor may not collect any fee before account-opening disclosures are provided. A creditor may collect, or obtain the consumer's agreement to pay, membership fees, including application fees excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1), before providing account-opening disclosures if, after receiving the disclosures, the consumer may reject the plan and have no obligation to pay these fees (including application fees) or any other fee or charge. A membership fee for purposes of this paragraph has the same meaning as a fee for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 226.5a(b)(2). If the consumer rejects the plan, the creditor must promptly refund the membership fee if it has been paid, or take other action necessary to ensure the consumer is not obligated to pay that fee or any other fee or charge.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b are not subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Application fees.</I> A creditor may collect an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1) before providing account-opening disclosures. However, if a consumer rejects the plan after receiving account-opening disclosures, the consumer must have no obligation to pay such an application fee, or if the fee was paid, it must be refunded. <I>See</I> § 226.5(b)(1)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic statements</I>—(i) <I>Statement required.</I> The creditor shall mail or deliver a periodic statement as required by § 226.7 for each billing cycle at the end of which an account has a debit or credit balance of more than $1 or on which a finance charge has been imposed. A periodic statement need not be sent for an account if the creditor deems it uncollectible, if delinquency collection proceedings have been instituted, if the creditor has charged off the account in accordance with loan-loss provisions and will not charge any additional fees or interest on the account, or if furnishing the statement would violate federal law.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must adopt reasonable procedures designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 21 days prior to the payment due date disclosed on the statement pursuant to § 226.7(b)(11)(i)(A); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The card issuer does not treat as late for any purpose a required minimum periodic payment received by the card issuer within 21 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement disclosing the due date for that payment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Open-end consumer credit plans.</I> For accounts under an open-end consumer credit plan, a creditor must adopt reasonable procedures designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If a grace period applies to the account:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 21 days prior to the date on which the grace period expires; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The creditor does not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period if a payment that satisfies the terms of the grace period is received by the creditor within 21 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Regardless of whether a grace period applies to the account:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 14 days prior to the date on which the required minimum periodic payment must be received in order to avoid being treated as late for any purpose; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The creditor does not treat as late for any purpose a required minimum periodic payment received by the creditor within 14 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, “grace period” means a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Credit and charge card application and solicitation disclosures.</I> The card issuer shall furnish the disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations in accordance with the timing requirements of § 226.5a.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Disclosures for home-equity plans shall be made in accordance with the timing requirements of § 226.5b(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties. If any information necessary for accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, it shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If the credit plan involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given, and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this regulation imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the account. If the right of rescission under § 226.15 is applicable, however, the disclosures required by §§ 226.6 and 226.15(b) shall be made to each consumer having the right to rescind.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor mails or delivers the disclosures, the resulting inaccuracy is not a violation of this regulation, although new disclosures may be required under § 226.9(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7796, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 22998, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.5a" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.5a   Credit and charge card applications and solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> The card issuer shall provide the disclosures required under this section on or with a solicitation or an application to open a credit or charge card account.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition of solicitation.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>solicitation</I> means an offer by the card issuer to open a credit or charge card account that does not require the consumer to complete an application. A “firm offer of credit” as defined in section 603(l) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(l)) for a credit or charge card is a solicitation for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of disclosures; tabular format.</I> (i) The disclosures in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) (except for (b)(1)(iv)(B)) and (b)(7) through (15) of this section made pursuant to paragraph (c), (d)(2), (e)(1) or (f) of this section generally shall be in the form of a table with headings, content, and format substantially similar to any of the applicable tables found in G-10 in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section shall contain only the information required or permitted by this section. Other information may be presented on or with an application or solicitation, provided such information appears outside the required table.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(B), (b)(1)(iv)(C) and (b)(6) of this section must be placed directly beneath the table.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a tabular format is required, any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any introductory rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, any rate that will apply after a premium initial rate expires required to be disclosed under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, and any fee or percentage amounts or maximum limits on fee amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(4), (b)(8) through (b)(13) of this section must be disclosed in bold text. However, bold text shall not be used for: The amount of any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section that is not an annualized amount; and other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(v) For an application or a solicitation that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required under this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, the table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be provided in a prominent location on or with an application or a solicitation.
</P>
<P>(B) If the table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is provided electronically, it must be provided in close proximity to the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees based on a percentage.</I> If the amount of any fee required to be disclosed under this section is determined on the basis of a percentage of another amount, the percentage used and the identification of the amount against which the percentage is applied may be disclosed instead of the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fees that vary by state.</I> Card issuers that impose fees referred to in paragraphs (b)(8) through (12) of this section that vary by state may, at the issuer's option, disclose in the table required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section: the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account; or the range of the fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to a disclosure provided with the table where the amount of the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A card issuer may not list fees for multiple states in the table.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions.</I> This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Home-equity plans accessible by a credit or charge card that are subject to the requirements of § 226.5b;
</P>
<P>(ii) Overdraft lines of credit tied to asset accounts accessed by check-guarantee cards or by debit cards;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lines of credit accessed by check-guarantee cards or by debit cards that can be used only at automated teller machines;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lines of credit accessed solely by account numbers;
</P>
<P>(v) Additions of a credit or charge card to an existing open-end plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) General purpose applications unless the application, or material accompanying it, indicates that it can be used to open a credit or charge card account; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Consumer-initiated requests for applications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required disclosures.</I> The card issuer shall disclose the items in this paragraph on or with an application or a solicitation in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), (e)(1) or (f) of this section. A credit card issuer shall disclose all applicable items in this paragraph except for paragraph (b)(7) of this section. A charge card issuer shall disclose the applicable items in paragraphs (b)(2), (4), (7) through (12), and (15) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance for purchases, a cash advance, or a balance transfer, expressed as an annual percentage rate (as determined by § 226.14(b)). When more than one rate applies for a category of transactions, the range of balances to which each rate is applicable shall also be disclosed. The annual percentage rate for purchases disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be in at least 16-point type, except for the following: Oral disclosures of the annual percentage rate for purchases; or a penalty rate that may apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Variable rate information.</I> If a rate disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is a variable rate, the card issuer shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discounted initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), the card issuer must disclose in the table the introductory rate, the time period during which the introductory rate will remain in effect, and must use the term “introductory” or “intro” in immediate proximity to the introductory rate. The card issuer also must disclose the rate that would otherwise apply to the account pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Where the rate is not tied to an index or formula, the card issuer must disclose the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires. In a variable-rate account, the card issuer must disclose a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraphs (c)(2), (d)(3), or (e)(4) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Premium initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is temporary and is higher than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, the card issuer must disclose the premium initial rate pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the time period during which the premium initial rate will remain in effect. Consistent with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the premium initial rate for purchases must be in at least 16-point type. The issuer must also disclose in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate expires, in at least 16-point type.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Penalty rates</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B) and (C) of this section, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the card issuer must disclose pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1) the increased rate that may apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Introductory rates.</I> If the issuer discloses an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), in the table or in any written or electronic promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to paragraph (c) or (e) of this section, the issuer must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances, if any, under which the introductory rate may be revoked, and the type of rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> If a card issuer discloses in the table a preferential annual percentage rate for which only employees of the card issuer, employees of a third party, or other individuals with similar affiliations with the card issuer or third party, such as executive officers, directors, or principal shareholders are eligible, the card issuer must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which such preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after such preferential rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Rates that depend on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> If a rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given because the rate depends, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness, the card issuer must disclose the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply and a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness, and other factors if applicable. If the rate that depends, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness is a penalty rate, as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, the card issuer at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>APRs that vary by state.</I> Issuers imposing annual percentage rates that vary by state may, at the issuer's option, disclose in the table: the specific annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account; or the range of the annual percentage rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the annual percentage rate varies by state and refers the consumer to a disclosure provided with the table where the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A card issuer may not list annual percentage rates for multiple states in the table.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees for issuance or availability.</I> (i) Any annual or other periodic fee that may be imposed for the issuance or availability of a credit or charge card, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity; how frequently it will be imposed; and the annualized amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any non-periodic fee that relates to opening an account. A card issuer must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I> Any fixed finance charge and a brief description of the charge. Any minimum interest charge if it exceeds $1.00 that could be imposed during a billing cycle, and a brief description of the charge. The $1.00 threshold amount shall be adjusted periodically by the Board to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index. The Board shall calculate each year a price level adjusted minimum interest charge using the Consumer Price Index in effect on June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current minimum interest charge threshold has risen by a whole dollar, the minimum interest charge will be increased by $1.00. The issuer may, at its option, disclose in the table minimum interest charges below this threshold.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transaction charges.</I> Any transaction charge imposed by the card issuer for the use of the card for purchases.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the period within which any credit extended for purchases may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and any conditions on the availability of the grace period. If no grace period is provided, that fact must be disclosed. If the length of the grace period varies, the card issuer may disclose the range of days, the minimum number of days, or the average number of days in the grace period, if the disclosure is identified as a range, minimum, or average. In disclosing in the tabular format a grace period that applies to all types of purchases, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest on Purchases” shall be used as the heading for the row describing the grace period. If a grace period is not offered on all types of purchases, in disclosing this fact in the tabular format, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing this fact.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Balance computation method.</I> The name of the balance computation method listed in paragraph (g) of this section that is used to determine the balance for purchases on which the finance charge is computed, or an explanation of the method used if it is not listed. In determining which balance computation method to disclose, the card issuer shall assume that credit extended for purchases will not be repaid within the grace period, if any.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Statement on charge card payments.</I> A statement that charges incurred by use of the charge card are due when the periodic statement is received.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cash advance fee.</I> Any fee imposed for an extension of credit in the form of cash or its equivalent.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Late payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed for a late payment.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Over-the-limit fee.</I> Any fee imposed for exceeding a credit limit.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Balance transfer fee.</I> Any fee imposed to transfer an outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Returned-payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed by the card issuer for a returned payment.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Required insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage.</I> (i) A fee for insurance described in § 226.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or suspension coverage described in § 226.4(b)(10), if the insurance or debt cancellation or suspension coverage is required as part of the plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A cross reference to any additional information provided about the insurance or coverage accompanying the application or solicitation, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Available credit.</I> If a card issuer requires fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or requires a security deposit for such credit, and the total amount of those required fees and/or security deposit that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened is 15 percent or more of the minimum credit limit for the card, a card issuer must disclose the available credit remaining after these fees or security deposit are debited to the account, assuming that the consumer receives the minimum credit limit. In determining whether the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer must only consider fees for issuance or availability of credit, or a security deposit, that are required. If fees for issuance or availability are optional, these fees should not be considered in determining whether the disclosure must be given. Nonetheless, if the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer in providing the disclosure must disclose the amount of available credit calculated by excluding those optional fees, and the available credit including those optional fees. This paragraph does not apply with respect to fees or security deposits that are not debited to the account.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Web site reference.</I> A reference to the Web site established by the Board and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit cards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct mail and electronic applications and solicitations</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The card issuer shall disclose the applicable items in paragraph (b) of this section on or with an application or solicitation that is mailed to consumers or provided to consumers in electronic form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accuracy.</I> (i) Disclosures in direct mail applications and solicitations must be accurate as of the time the disclosures are mailed. An accurate variable annual percentage rate is one in effect within 60 days before mailing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosures provided in electronic form must be accurate as of the time they are sent, in the case of disclosures sent to a consumer's e-mail address, or as of the time they are viewed by the public, in the case of disclosures made available at a location such as a card issuer's Web site. An accurate variable annual percentage rate provided in electronic form is one in effect within 30 days before it is sent to a consumer's e-mail address, or viewed by the public, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Telephone applications and solicitations</I>—(1) <I>Oral disclosure.</I> The card issuer shall disclose orally the information in paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) and (b)(14) of this section, to the extent applicable, in a telephone application or solicitation initiated by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative disclosure.</I> The oral disclosure under paragraph (d)(1) of this section need not be given if the card issuer either:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Does not impose a fee described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Imposes such a fee but provides the consumer with a right to reject the plan consistent with § 226.5(b)(1)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The card issuer discloses in writing within 30 days after the consumer requests the card (but in no event later than the delivery of the card) the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicable information in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) As applicable, the fact that the consumer has the right to reject the plan and not be obligated to pay fees described in paragraph (b)(2) or any other fees or charges until the consumer has used the account or made a payment on the account after receiving a billing statement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accuracy.</I> (i) The oral disclosures under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be accurate as of the time they are given.
</P>
<P>(ii) The alternative disclosures under paragraph (d)(2) of this section generally must be accurate as of the time they are mailed or delivered. A variable annual percentage rate is one that is accurate if it was:
</P>
<P>(A) In effect at the time the disclosures are mailed or delivered; or
</P>
<P>(B) In effect as of a specified date (which rate is then updated from time to time, but no less frequently than each calendar month).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applications and solicitations made available to general public.</I> The card issuer shall provide disclosures, to the extent applicable, on or with an application or solicitation that is made available to the general public, including one contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication. The disclosures shall be provided in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure of required credit information.</I> The card issuer may disclose in a prominent location on the application or solicitation the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable information in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the required information was printed, including a statement that the required information was accurate as of that date and is subject to change after that date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer should contact the card issuer for any change in the required information since it was printed, and a toll-free telephone number or a mailing address for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No disclosure of credit information.</I> If none of the items in paragraph (b) of this section is provided on or with the application or solicitation, the card issuer may state in a prominent location on the application or solicitation the following:
</P>
<P>(i) There are costs associated with the use of the card; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer may contact the card issuer to request specific information about the costs, along with a toll-free telephone number and a mailing address for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prompt response to requests for information.</I> Upon receiving a request for any of the information referred to in this paragraph, the card issuer shall promptly and fully disclose the information requested.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accuracy.</I> The disclosures given pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be accurate as of the date of printing. A variable annual percentage rate is accurate if it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>In-person applications and solicitations.</I> A card issuer shall disclose the information in paragraph (b) of this section, to the extent applicable, on or with an application or solicitation that is initiated by the card issuer and given to the consumer in person. A card issuer complies with the requirements of this paragraph if the issuer provides disclosures in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) or (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Balance computation methods defined.</I> The following methods may be described by name. Methods that differ due to variations such as the allocation of payments, whether the finance charge begins to accrue on the transaction date or the date of posting the transaction, the existence or length of a grace period, and whether the balance is adjusted by charges such as late payment fees, annual fees and unpaid finance charges do not constitute separate balance computation methods.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Average daily balance (including new purchases).</I> This balance is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Average daily balance (excluding new purchases).</I> This balance is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted balance.</I> This balance is figured by deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle from the outstanding balance at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Previous balance.</I> This balance is the outstanding balance at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Daily balance.</I> For each day in the billing cycle, this balance is figured by taking the beginning balance each day, adding any new purchases, and subtracting any payment and credits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7797, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 37568, June 26, 2010; 76 FR 22999, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.5b" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.5b   Requirements for home equity plans.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this section apply to open-end credit plans secured by the consumer's dwelling. For purposes of this section, an annual percentage rate is the annual percentage rate corresponding to the periodic rate as determined under § 226.14(b). 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (d) of this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously and shall be grouped together and segregated from all unrelated information. The disclosures may be provided on the application form or on a separate form. The disclosure described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii), the itemization of third-party fees described in paragraph (d)(8), and the variable-rate information described in paragraph (d)(12) of this section may be provided separately from the other required disclosures. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Precedence of certain disclosures.</I> The disclosures described in paragraph (d)(1) through (4)(ii) of this section shall precede the other required disclosures. 
</P>
<P>(3) For an application that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required under this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> The disclosures and brochure required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section shall be provided at the time an application is provided to the consumer. 
<SU>10a</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10a</SU> The disclosures and the brochure may be delivered or placed in the mail not later than three business days following receipt of a consumer's application in the case of applications contained in magazines or other publications, or when the application is received by telephone or through an intermediary agent or broker.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Duties of third parties</I>—Persons other than the creditor who provide applications to consumers for home equity plans must provide the brochure required under paragraph (e) of this section at the time an application is provided. If such persons have the disclosures required under paragraph (d) of this section for a creditor's home equity plan, they also shall provide the disclosures at such time. 
<SU>10a</SU> 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall provide the following disclosures, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retention of information.</I> A statement that the consumer should make or otherwise retain a copy of the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions for disclosed terms.</I> (i) A statement of the time by which the consumer must submit an application to obtain specific terms disclosed and an identification of any disclosed term that is subject to change prior to opening the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that, if a disclosed term changes (other than a change due to fluctuations in the index in a variable-rate plan) prior to opening the plan and the consumer therefore elects not to open the plan, the consumer may receive a refund of all fees paid in connection with the application. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Security interest and risk to home.</I> A statement that the creditor will acquire a security interest in the consumer's dwelling and that loss of the dwelling may occur in the event of default. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Possible actions by creditor.</I> (i) A statement that, under certain conditions, the creditor may terminate the plan and require payment of the outstanding balance in full in a single payment and impose fees upon termination; prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit; and, as specified in the initial agreement, implement certain changes in the plan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the consumer may receive, upon request, information about the conditions under which such actions may occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) In lieu of the disclosure required under paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section, a statement of such conditions. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment terms.</I> The payment terms of the plan, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the draw period and any repayment period. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of how the minimum periodic payment will be determined and the timing of the payments. If paying only the minimum periodic payments may not repay any of the principal or may repay less than the outstanding balance, a statement of this fact, as well as a statement that a balloon payment may result. 
<SU>10b</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10b</SU> A balloon payment results if paying the minimum periodic payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the consumer must repay the entire outstanding balance at such time.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) An example, based on a $10,000 outstanding balance and a recent annual percentage rate, 
<SU>10c</SU>
<FTREF/> showing the minimum periodic payment, any balloon payment, and the time it would take to repay the $10,000 outstanding balance if the consumer made only those payments and obtained no additional extensions of credit. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10c</SU> For fixed-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate is a rate that has been in effect under the plan within the twelve months preceding the date the disclosures are provided to the consumer. For variable-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate is the most recent rate provided in the historical example described in paragraph (d)(12)(xi) of this section or a rate that has been in effect under the plan since the date of the most recent rate in the table.</P></FTNT>
<FP>If different payment terms may apply to the draw and any repayment period, or if different payment terms may apply within either period, the disclosures shall reflect the different payment terms. 
</FP>
<P>(6) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> For fixed-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate 
<SU>10c</SU> imposed under the plan and a statement that the rate does not include costs other than interest. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fees imposed by creditor.</I> An itemization of any fees imposed by the creditor to open, use, or maintain the plan, stated as a dollar amount or percentage, and when such fees are payable. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fees imposed by third parties to open a plan.</I> A good faith estimate, stated as a single dollar amount or range, of any fees that may be imposed by persons other than the creditor to open the plan, as well as a statement that the consumer may receive, upon request, a good faith itemization of such fees. In lieu of the statement, the itemization of such fees may be provided. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Negative amortization.</I> A statement that negative amortization may occur and that negative amortization increases the principal balance and reduces the consumer's equity in the dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Transaction requirements.</I> Any limitations on the number of extensions of credit and the amount of credit that may be obtained during any time period, as well as any minimum outstanding balance and minimum draw requirements, stated as dollar amounts or percentages. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Tax implications.</I> A statement that the consumer should consult a tax advisor regarding the deductibility of interest and charges under the plan. 
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Disclosures for variable-rate plans.</I> For a plan in which the annual percentage rate is variable, the following disclosures, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the annual percentage rate, payment, or term may change due to the variable-rate feature. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the annual percentage rate does not include costs other than interest. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The index used in making rate adjustments and a source of information about the index. 
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how the annual percentage rate will be determined, including an explanation of how the index is adjusted, such as by the addition of a margin. 
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the consumer should ask about the current index value, margin, discount or premium, and annual percentage rate. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the initial annual percentage rate is not based on the index and margin used to make later rate adjustments, and the period of time such initial rate will be in effect. 
</P>
<P>(vii) The frequency of changes in the annual percentage rate. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Any rules relating to changes in the index value and the annual percentage rate and resulting changes in the payment amount, including, for example, an explanation of payment limitations and rate carryover. 
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement of any annual or more frequent periodic limitations on changes in the annual percentage rate (or a statement that no annual limitation exists), as well as a statement of the maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed under each payment option. 
</P>
<P>(x) The minimum periodic payment required when the maximum annual percentage rate for each payment option is in effect for a $10,000 outstanding balance, and a statement of the earliest date or time the maximum rate may be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(xi) An historical example, based on a $10,000 extension of credit, illustrating how annual percentage rates and payments would have been affected by index value changes implemented according to the terms of the plan. The historical example shall be based on the most recent 15 years of index values (selected for the same time period each year) and shall reflect all significant plan terms, such as negative amortization, rate carryover, rate discounts, and rate and payment limitations, that would have been affected by the index movement during the period. 
</P>
<P>(xii) A statement that rate information will be provided on or with each periodic statement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Brochure.</I> The home equity brochure published by the Board or a suitable substitute shall be provided. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations on home equity plans.</I> No creditor may, by contract or otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(1) Change the annual percentage rate unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) Such change is based on an index that is not under the creditor's control; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Such index is available to the general public. 
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate a plan and demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance in advance of the original term (except for reverse mortgage transactions that are subject to paragraph (f)(4) of this section) unless:
</P>
<P>(i) There is fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the plan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement for any outstanding balance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any action or inaction by the consumer adversely affects the creditor's security for the plan, or any right of the creditor in such security; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Federal law dealing with credit extended by a depository institution to its executive officers specifically requires that as a condition of the plan the credit shall become due and payable on demand, provided that the creditor includes such a provision in the initial agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) Change any term, except that a creditor may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide in the initial agreement that it may prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit during any period in which the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor also may provide in the initial agreement that specified changes will occur if a specified event takes place (for example, that the annual percentage rate will increase a specified amount if the consumer leaves the creditor's employment).
</P>
<P>(ii) Change the index and margin used under the plan if the original index is no longer available, the new index has an historical movement substantially similar to that of the original index, and the new index and margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Make a specified change if the consumer specifically agrees to it in writing at that time. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Make a change that will unequivocally benefit the consumer throughout the remainder of the plan. 
</P>
<P>(v) Make an insignificant change to terms. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit applicable to an agreement during any period in which: 
</P>
<P>(A) The value of the dwelling that secures the plan declines significantly below the dwelling's appraised value for purposes of the plan; 
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor reasonably believes that the consumer will be unable to fulfill the repayment obligations under the plan because of a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances; 
</P>
<P>(C) The consumer is in default of any material obligation under the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(D) The creditor is precluded by government action from imposing the annual percentage rate provided for in the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(E) The priority of the creditor's security interest is adversely affected by government action to the extent that the value of the security interest is less than 120 percent of the credit line; or
</P>
<P>(F) The creditor is notified by its regulatory agency that continued advances constitute an unsafe and unsound practice.
</P>
<P>(4) For reverse mortgage transactions that are subject to § 226.33, terminate a plan and demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance in advance of the original term except: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of default; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the consumer transfers title to the property securing the note; 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the consumer ceases using the property securing the note as the primary dwelling; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Refund of fees.</I> A creditor shall refund all fees paid by the consumer to anyone in connection with an application if any term required to be disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section changes (other than a change due to fluctuations in the index in a variable-rate plan) before the plan is opened and, as a result, the consumer elects not to open the plan. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Imposition of nonrefundable fees.</I> Neither a creditor nor any other person may impose a nonrefundable fee in connection with an application until three business days after the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure required under this section. 
<SU>10d</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10d</SU> If the disclosures and brochure are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 54 FR 24686, June 9, 1989, as amended at 55 FR 38312, Sept. 18, 1990; 55 FR 42148, Oct. 17, 1990; 57 FR 34681, Aug. 6, 1992; 60 FR 15471, Mar. 24, 1995; 66 FR 17338, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.6" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.6   Account-opening disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (a) apply only to home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b. A creditor shall disclose the items in this section, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Finance charge.</I> The circumstances under which a finance charge will be imposed and an explanation of how it will be determined, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of when finance charges begin to accrue, including an explanation of whether or not any time period exists within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge when payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A disclosure of each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge, the range of balances to which it is applicable,
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> and the corresponding annual percentage rate.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> If a creditor offers a variable-rate plan, the creditor shall also disclose: the circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase; any limitations on the increase; and the effect(s) of an increase. When different periodic rates apply to different types of transactions, the types of transactions to which the periodic rates shall apply shall also be disclosed. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the method used to determine the balance on which the finance charge may be computed.
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how the amount of any finance charge will be determined,
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> including a description of how any finance charge other than the periodic rate will be determined.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Other charges.</I> The amount of any charge other than a finance charge that may be imposed as part of the plan, or an explanation of how the charge will be determined.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home-equity plan information.</I> The following disclosures described in § 226.5b(d), as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the conditions under which the creditor may take certain action, as described in § 226.5b(d)(4)(i), such as terminating the plan or changing the terms.
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment information described in § 226.5b(d)(5)(i) and (ii) for both the draw period and any repayment period.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that negative amortization may occur as described in § 226.5b(d)(9).
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of any transaction requirements as described in § 226.5b(d)(10).
</P>
<P>(v) A statement regarding the tax implications as described in § 226.5b(d)(11).
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the annual percentage rate imposed under the plan does not include costs other than interest as described in § 226.5b(d)(6) and (d)(12)(ii).
</P>
<P>(vii) The variable-rate disclosures described in § 226.5b(d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi), and (d)(12)(xii), as well as the disclosure described in § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii), unless the disclosures provided with the application were in a form the consumer could keep and included a representative payment example for the category of payment option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security interests.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased under the plan, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Statement of billing rights.</I> A statement that outlines the consumer's rights and the creditor's responsibilities under §§ 226.12(c) and 226.13 and that is substantially similar to the statement found in Model Form G-3 or, at the creditor's option, G-3(A), in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply to plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures; tabular format for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> Creditors must provide the account-opening disclosures specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(v) (except for (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>)) and (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xiv) of this section in the form of a table with the headings, content, and format substantially similar to any of the applicable tables in G-17 in appendix G.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Highlighting.</I> In the table, any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; any introductory rate permitted to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) or required to be disclosed under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, any rate that will apply after a premium initial rate expires permitted to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) or required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F), and any fee or percentage amounts or maximum limits on fee amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iv), (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xii) of this section must be disclosed in bold text. However, bold text shall not be used for: The amount of any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section that is not an annualized amount; and other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location.</I> Only the information required or permitted by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) (except for (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>)) and (b)(2)(vii) through (xiv) of this section shall be in the table. Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>), (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>3</I>), (b)(2)(vi), and (b)(2)(xv) of this section shall be placed directly below the table. Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(3) through (5) of this section that are not otherwise required to be in the table and other information may be presented with the account agreement or account-opening disclosure statement, provided such information appears outside the required table.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fees that vary by state.</I> Creditors that impose fees referred to in paragraphs (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xi) of this section that vary by state and that provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose in the account-opening table the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, or the range of the fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the amount of the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A creditor may not list fees for multiple states in the account-opening summary table.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fees based on a percentage.</I> If the amount of any fee required to be disclosed under this section is determined on the basis of a percentage of another amount, the percentage used and the identification of the amount against which the percentage is applied may be disclosed instead of the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required disclosures for account-opening table for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose the items in this section, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance for purchases, a cash advance, or a balance transfer, expressed as an annual percentage rate (as determined by § 226.14(b)). When more than one rate applies for a category of transactions, the range of balances to which each rate is applicable shall also be disclosed. The annual percentage rate for purchases disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be in at least 16-point type, except for the following: A penalty rate that may apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Variable-rate information.</I> If a rate disclosed under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is a variable rate, the creditor shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the creditor must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases or decreases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Discounted initial rates.</I> If the initial rate is an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), the creditor must disclose the rate that would otherwise apply to the account pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. Where the rate is not tied to an index or formula, the creditor must disclose the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires. In a variable-rate account, the creditor must disclose a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(G) of this section. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, the creditor is not required to, but may disclose in the table the introductory rate along with the rate that would otherwise apply to the account if the creditor also discloses the time period during which the introductory rate will remain in effect, and uses the term “introductory” or “intro” in immediate proximity to the introductory rate.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Premium initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is temporary and is higher than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, the creditor must disclose the premium initial rate pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. Consistent with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the premium initial rate for purchases must be in at least 16-point type. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, the creditor is not required to, but may disclose in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate expires if the creditor also discloses the time period during which the premium initial rate will remain in effect. If the creditor also discloses in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate for purchases expires, that rate also must be in at least 16-point type.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Penalty rates</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>3</I>) of this section, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the creditor must disclose pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section the increased rate that may apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect. If more than one penalty rate may apply, the creditor at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Introductory rates.</I> If the creditor discloses in the table an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), creditors must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which the introductory rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> If a creditor discloses in the table a preferential annual percentage rate for which only employees of the creditor, employees of a third party, or other individuals with similar affiliations with the creditor or third party, such as executive officers, directors, or principal shareholders are eligible, the creditor must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which such preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after such preferential rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Point of sale where APRs vary by state or based on creditworthiness.</I> Creditors imposing annual percentage rates that vary by state or based on the consumer's creditworthiness and providing the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section in the account-opening table:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The specific annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The range of the annual percentage rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the annual percentage rate varies by state or will be determined based on the consumer's creditworthiness and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A creditor may not list annual percentage rates for multiple states in the account-opening table.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(B) and (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section, for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) plan, issuers must disclose in the table—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any introductory rate as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii) that would apply to the account, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any rate that would apply upon the expiration of a premium initial rate, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fees for issuance or availability.</I> (A) Any annual or other periodic fee that may be imposed for the issuance or availability of an open-end plan, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity; how frequently it will be imposed; and the annualized amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(B) Any non-periodic fee that relates to opening the plan. A creditor must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I> Any fixed finance charge and a brief description of the charge. Any minimum interest charge if it exceeds $1.00 that could be imposed during a billing cycle, and a brief description of the charge. The $1.00 threshold amount shall be adjusted periodically by the Board to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index. The Board shall calculate each year a price level adjusted minimum interest charge using the Consumer Price Index in effect on the June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current minimum interest charge threshold has risen by a whole dollar, the minimum interest charge will be increased by $1.00. The creditor may, at its option, disclose in the table minimum interest charges below this threshold.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transaction charges.</I> Any transaction charge imposed by the creditor for use of the open-end plan for purchases.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and any conditions on the availability of the grace period. If no grace period is provided, that fact must be disclosed. If the length of the grace period varies, the creditor may disclose the range of days, the minimum number of days, or the average number of the days in the grace period, if the disclosure is identified as a range, minimum, or average. In disclosing in the tabular format a grace period that applies to all features on the account, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing the grace period. If a grace period is not offered on all features of the account, in disclosing this fact in the tabular format, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing this fact.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Balance computation method.</I> The name of the balance computation method listed in § 226.5a(g) that is used to determine the balance on which the finance charge is computed for each feature, or an explanation of the method used if it is not listed, along with a statement that an explanation of the method(s) required by paragraph (b)(4)(i)(D) of this section is provided with the account-opening disclosures. In determining which balance computation method to disclose, the creditor shall assume that credit extended will not be repaid within any grace period, if any.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Cash advance fee.</I> Any fee imposed for an extension of credit in the form of cash or its equivalent.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Late payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed for a late payment.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Over-the-limit fee.</I> Any fee imposed for exceeding a credit limit.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Balance transfer fee.</I> Any fee imposed to transfer an outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Returned-payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed by the creditor for a returned payment.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Required insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage.</I> (A) A fee for insurance described in § 226.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or suspension coverage described in § 226.4(b)(10), if the insurance, or debt cancellation or suspension coverage is required as part of the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) A cross reference to any additional information provided about the insurance or coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Available credit.</I> If a creditor requires fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, or requires a security deposit for such credit, and the total amount of those required fees and/or security deposit that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened is 15 percent or more of the minimum credit limit for the plan, a creditor must disclose the available credit remaining after these fees or security deposit are debited to the account. The determination whether the 15 percent threshold is met must be based on the minimum credit limit for the plan. However, the disclosure provided under this paragraph must be based on the actual initial credit limit provided on the account. In determining whether the 15 percent threshold test is met, the creditor must only consider fees for issuance or availability of credit, or a security deposit, that are required. If fees for issuance or availability are optional, these fees should not be considered in determining whether the disclosure must be given. Nonetheless, if the 15 percent threshold test is met, the creditor in providing the disclosure must disclose the amount of available credit calculated by excluding those optional fees, and the available credit including those optional fees. The creditor shall also disclose that the consumer has the right to reject the plan and not be obligated to pay those fees or any other fee or charges until the consumer has used the account or made a payment on the account after receiving a periodic statement. This paragraph does not apply with respect to fees or security deposits that are not debited to the account.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Web site reference.</I> For issuers of credit cards that are not charge cards, a reference to the Web site established by the Board and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit cards.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Billing error rights reference.</I> A statement that information about consumers' right to dispute transactions is included in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure of charges imposed as part of open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) For charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan, the circumstances under which the charge may be imposed, including the amount of the charge or an explanation of how the charge is determined. For finance charges, a statement of when the charge begins to accrue and an explanation of whether or not any time period exists within which any credit that has been extended may be repaid without incurring the charge. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, elect not to impose a finance charge when payment is received after the time period expires.
</P>
<P>(ii) Charges imposed as part of the plan are:
</P>
<P>(A) Finance charges identified under § 226.4(a) and § 226.4(b).
</P>
<P>(B) Charges resulting from the consumer's failure to use the plan as agreed, except amounts payable for collection activity after default, attorney's fees whether or not automatically imposed, and post-judgment interest rates permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(C) Taxes imposed on the credit transaction by a state or other governmental body, such as documentary stamp taxes on cash advances.
</P>
<P>(D) Charges for which the payment, or nonpayment, affect the consumer's access to the plan, the duration of the plan, the amount of credit extended, the period for which credit is extended, or the timing or method of billing or payment.
</P>
<P>(E) Charges imposed for terminating a plan.
</P>
<P>(F) Charges for voluntary credit insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension.
</P>
<P>(iii) Charges that are not imposed as part of the plan include:
</P>
<P>(A) Charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system.
</P>
<P>(B) A charge for a package of services that includes an open-end credit feature, if the fee is required whether or not the open-end credit feature is included and the non-credit services are not merely incidental to the credit feature.
</P>
<P>(C) Charges under § 226.4(e) disclosed as specified.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure of rates for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) For each periodic rate that may be used to calculate interest:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Rates.</I> The rate, expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Range of balances.</I> The range of balances to which the rate is applicable; however, a creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Type of transaction.</I> The type of transaction to which the rate applies, if different rates apply to different types of transactions.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Balance computation method.</I> An explanation of the method used to determine the balance to which the rate is applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable-rate accounts.</I> For interest rate changes that are tied to increases in an index or formula (variable-rate accounts) specifically set forth in the account agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) The fact that the annual percentage rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(B) How the rate is determined, including the margin.
</P>
<P>(C) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(D) The frequency with which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(E) Any limitation on the amount the rate may change.
</P>
<P>(F) The effect(s) of an increase.
</P>
<P>(G) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(H) of this section, a rate is accurate if it is a rate as of a specified date and this rate was in effect within the last 30 days before the disclosures are provided.
</P>
<P>(H) Creditors imposing annual percentage rates that vary according to an index that is not under the creditor's control that provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may disclose in the table a rate, or range of rates to the extent permitted by § 226.6(b)(2)(i)(E), that was in effect within the last 90 days before the disclosures are provided, along with a reference directing the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where an annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account in effect within the last 30 days before the disclosures are provided is disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rate changes not due to index or formula.</I> For interest rate changes that are specifically set forth in the account agreement and not tied to increases in an index or formula:
</P>
<P>(A) The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate) required under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) How long the initial rate will remain in effect and the specific events that cause the initial rate to change.
</P>
<P>(C) The rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate) that will apply when the initial rate is no longer in effect and any limitation on the time period the new rate will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(D) The balances to which the new rate will apply.
</P>
<P>(E) The balances to which the current rate at the time of the change will apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional disclosures for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Voluntary credit insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension.</I> The disclosures in §§ 226.4(d)(1)(i) and (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(3)(i) through (d)(3)(iii) if the creditor offers optional credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage that is identified in § 226.4(b)(7) or (b)(10).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Security interests.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased under the plan, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Statement of billing rights.</I> A statement that outlines the consumer's rights and the creditor's responsibilities under §§ 226.12(c) and 226.13 and that is substantially similar to the statement found in Model Form G-3(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7800, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 37568, June 26, 2010; 76 FR 22999, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.7" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.7   Periodic statement.</HEAD>
<P>The creditor shall furnish the consumer with a periodic statement that discloses the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section apply only to home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b. Alternatively, a creditor subject to this paragraph may, at its option, comply with any of the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; however, any creditor that chooses not to provide a disclosure under paragraph (a)(7) of this section must comply with paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Previous balance.</I> The account balance outstanding at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification of transactions.</I> An identification of each credit transaction in accordance with § 226.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credits.</I> Any credit to the account during the billing cycle, including the amount and the date of crediting. The date need not be provided if a delay in accounting does not result in any finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic rates.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge, the range of balances to which it is applicable,
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> and the corresponding annual percentage rate.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> If no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount, the creditor is not required to disclose that fact, or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed. If different periodic rates apply to different types of transactions, the types of transactions to which the periodic rates apply shall also be disclosed. For variable-rate plans, the fact that the periodic rate(s) may vary.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> An annual percentage rate that differs from the rate that would otherwise apply and is offered only for a promotional period need not be disclosed except in periods in which the offered rate is actually applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balance on which finance charge computed.</I> The amount of the balance to which a periodic rate was applied and an explanation of how that balance was determined. When a balance is determined without first deducting all credits and payments made during the billing cycle, the fact and the amount of the credits and payments shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Amount of finance charge and other charges.</I> Creditors may comply with paragraphs (a)(6) of this section, or with paragraph (b)(6) of this section, at their option.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Finance charges.</I> The amount of any finance charge debited or added to the account during the billing cycle, using the term <I>finance charge.</I> The components of the finance charge shall be individually itemized and identified to show the amount(s) due to the application of any periodic rates and the amounts(s) of any other type of finance charge. If there is more than one periodic rate, the amount of the finance charge attributable to each rate need not be separately itemized and identified.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other charges.</I> The amounts, itemized and identified by type, of any charges other than finance charges debited to the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> At a creditor's option, when a finance charge is imposed during the billing cycle, the annual percentage rate(s) determined under § 226.14(c) using the term <I>annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the time period within which the new balance or any portion of the new balance must be paid to avoid additional finance charges. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge if payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Address for notice of billing errors.</I> The address to be used for notice of billing errors. Alternatively, the address may be provided on the billing rights statement permitted by § 226.9(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I> The closing date of the billing cycle and the account balance outstanding on that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply only to plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Previous balance.</I> The account balance outstanding at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification of transactions.</I> An identification of each credit transaction in accordance with § 226.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credits.</I> Any credit to the account during the billing cycle, including the amount and the date of crediting. The date need not be provided if a delay in crediting does not result in any finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic rates.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, each periodic rate that may be used to compute the interest charge expressed as an annual percentage rate and using the term <I>Annual Percentage Rate,</I> along with the range of balances to which it is applicable. If no interest charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount, the creditor is not required to disclose that fact, or the balance below which no interest charge will be imposed. The types of transactions to which the periodic rates apply shall also be disclosed. For variable-rate plans, the fact that the annual percentage rate may vary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> A promotional rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(i), is required to be disclosed only in periods in which the offered rate is actually applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balance on which finance charge computed.</I> The amount of the balance to which a periodic rate was applied and an explanation of how that balance was determined, using the term <I>Balance Subject to Interest Rate.</I> When a balance is determined without first deducting all credits and payments made during the billing cycle, the fact and the amount of the credits and payments shall be disclosed. As an alternative to providing an explanation of how the balance was determined, a creditor that uses a balance computation method identified in § 226.5a(g) may, at the creditor's option, identify the name of the balance computation method and provide a toll-free telephone number where consumers may obtain from the creditor more information about the balance computation method and how resulting interest charges were determined. If the method used is not identified in § 226.5a(g), the creditor shall provide a brief explanation of the method used.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Charges imposed.</I> (i) The amounts of any charges imposed as part of a plan as stated in § 226.6(b)(3), grouped together, in proximity to transactions identified under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interest.</I> Finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates, using the term <I>Interest Charge,</I> must be grouped together under the heading <I>Interest Charged,</I> itemized and totaled by type of transaction, and a total of finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates, using the term <I>Total Interest,</I> must be disclosed for the statement period and calendar year to date, using a format substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fees.</I> Charges imposed as part of the plan other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates must be grouped together under the heading <I>Fees,</I> identified consistent with the feature or type, and itemized, and a total of charges, using the term <I>Fees,</I> must be disclosed for the statement period and calendar year to date, using a format substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Change-in-terms and increased penalty rate summary for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> Creditors that provide a change-in-terms notice required by § 226.9(c), or a rate increase notice required by § 226.9(g), on or with the periodic statement, must disclose the information in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A) and (c)(2)(iv)(B) (if applicable) or § 226.9(g)(3)(i) on the periodic statement in accordance with the format requirements in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and § 226.9(g)(3)(ii). See Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the time period within which the new balance or any portion of the new balance must be paid to avoid additional finance charges. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge if payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Address for notice of billing errors.</I> The address to be used for notice of billing errors. Alternatively, the address may be provided on the billing rights statement permitted by § 226.9(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I> The closing date of the billing cycle and the account balance outstanding on that date. The new balance must be disclosed in accordance with the format requirements of paragraph (b)(13) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Due date; late payment costs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(11)(ii) of this section and in accordance with the format requirements in paragraph (b)(13) of this section, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must provide on each periodic statement:
</P>
<P>(A) The due date for a payment. The due date disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be the same day of the month for each billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of any late payment fee and any increased periodic rate(s) (expressed as an annual percentage rate(s)) that may be imposed on the account as a result of a late payment. If a range of late payment fees may be assessed, the card issuer may state the range of fees, or the highest fee and an indication that the fee imposed could be lower. If the rate may be increased for more than one feature or balance, the card issuer may state the range of rates or the highest rate that could apply and at the issuer's option an indication that the rate imposed could be lower.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b)(11)(i) of this section do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Periodic statements provided solely for charge card accounts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Periodic statements provided for a charged-off account where payment of the entire account balance is due immediately.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Repayment disclosures</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(12)(ii) and (b)(12)(v) of this section, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must provide the following disclosures on each periodic statement:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement with a bold heading: “Minimum Payment Warning: If you make only the minimum payment each period, you will pay more in interest and it will take you longer to pay off your balance;”
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum payment repayment estimate, as described in appendix M1 to this part. If the minimum payment repayment estimate is less than 2 years, the card issuer must disclose the estimate in months. Otherwise, the estimate must be disclosed in years and rounded to the nearest whole year;
</P>
<P>(C) The minimum payment total cost estimate, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The minimum payment total cost estimate must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the minimum payment repayment estimate and the minimum payment total cost estimate are based on the current outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement. A statement that the minimum payment repayment estimate and the minimum payment total cost estimate are based on the assumption that only minimum payments are made and no other amounts are added to the balance;
</P>
<P>(E) A toll-free telephone number where the consumer may obtain from the card issuer information about credit counseling services consistent with paragraph (b)(12)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(F)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(12)(i)(F)(2) of this section, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A statement that the card issuer estimates that the consumer will repay the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement in 3 years if the consumer pays the estimated monthly payment each month for 3 years;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The requirements of paragraph (b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section do not apply to a periodic statement in any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The minimum payment repayment estimate that is disclosed on the periodic statement pursuant to paragraph (b)(12)(i)(B) of this section after rounding is three years or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part, after rounding as set forth in paragraph (b)(12)(f)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section that is calculated for a particular billing cycle is less than the minimum payment required for the plan for that billing cycle; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A billing cycle where an account has both a balance in a revolving feature where the required minimum payments for this feature will not amortize that balance in a fixed amount of time specified in the account agreement and a balance in a fixed repayment feature where the required minimum payment for this fixed repayment feature will amortize that balance in a fixed amount of time specified in the account agreement which is less than 36 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative or no amortization.</I> If negative or no amortization occurs when calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate as described in appendix M1 of this part, a card issuer must provide the following disclosures on the periodic statement instead of the disclosures set forth in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement: “Minimum Payment Warning: Even if you make no more charges using this card, if you make only the minimum payment each month we estimate you will never pay off the balance shown on this statement because your payment will be less than the interest charged each month”;
</P>
<P>(B) The following statement: “If you make more than the minimum payment each period, you will pay less in interest and pay off your balance sooner”;
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the card issuer estimates that the consumer will repay the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement in 3 years if the consumer pays the estimated monthly payment each month for 3 years; and
</P>
<P>(E) A toll-free telephone number where the consumer may obtain from the card issuer information about credit counseling services consistent with paragraph (b)(12)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Format requirements.</I> The due date required by paragraph (b)(11) of this section shall be disclosed on the front of the first page of the periodic statement. The amount of the late payment fee and the annual percentage rate(s) required by paragraph (b)(11) of this section shall be stated in close proximity to the due date. The ending balance required by paragraph (b)(10) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraph (b)(12) of this section shall be disclosed closely proximate to the minimum payment due. The due date, late payment fee and annual percentage rate, ending balance, minimum payment due, and disclosures required by paragraph (b)(12) of this section shall be grouped together. Sample G-18(D) in appendix G to this part sets forth an example of how these terms may be grouped.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> For accounts with an outstanding balance subject to a deferred interest or similar program, the date by which that outstanding balance must be paid in full in order to avoid the obligation to pay finance charges on such balance must be disclosed on the front of any page of each periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period beginning with the first periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period that reflects the deferred interest or similar transaction. The disclosure provided pursuant to this paragraph must be substantially similar to Sample G-18(H) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7804, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 37568, June 26, 2010; 76 FR 23000, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.8" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.8   Identifying transactions on periodic statements.</HEAD>
<P>The creditor shall identify credit transactions on or with the first periodic statement that reflects the transaction by furnishing the following information, as applicable.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Sale credit.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for each credit transaction involving the sale of property or services, the creditor must disclose the amount and date of the transaction, and either:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief identification 
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> of the property or services purchased, for creditors and sellers that are the same or related; 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The seller's name; and the city and state or foreign country where the transaction took place.
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> The creditor may omit the address or provide any suitable designation that helps the consumer to identify the transaction when the transaction took place at a location that is not fixed; took place in the consumer's home; or was a mail, Internet, or telephone order.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Creditors need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section if an actual copy of the receipt or other credit document is provided with the first periodic statement reflecting the transaction, and the amount of the transaction and either the date of the transaction to the consumer's account or the date of debiting the transaction are disclosed on the copy or on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonsale credit.</I> For each credit transaction not involving the sale of property or services, the creditor must disclose a brief identification of the transaction;
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> the amount of the transaction; and at least one of the following dates: The date of the transaction, the date the transaction was debited to the consumer's account, or, if the consumer signed the credit document, the date appearing on the document. If an actual copy of the receipt or other credit document is provided and that copy shows the amount and at least one of the specified dates, the brief identification may be omitted.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative creditor procedures; consumer inquiries for clarification or documentation.</I> The following procedures apply to creditors that treat an inquiry for clarification or documentation as a notice of a billing error, including correcting the account in accordance with § 226.13(e):
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to disclose the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is not a failure to comply with the regulation, provided that the creditor also maintains procedures reasonably designed to obtain and provide the information. This applies to transactions that take place outside a state, as defined in § 226.2(a)(26), whether or not the creditor maintains procedures reasonably adapted to obtain the required information.
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the brief identification for sale or nonsale credit, the creditor may disclose a number or symbol that also appears on the receipt or other credit document given to the consumer, if the number or symbol reasonably identifies that transaction with that creditor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7806, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.9" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.9   Subsequent disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Furnishing statement of billing rights</I>—(1) <I>Annual statement.</I> The creditor shall mail or deliver the billing rights statement required by § 226.6(a)(5) and (b)(5)(iii) at least once per calendar year, at intervals of not less than 6 months nor more than 18 months, either to all consumers or to each consumer entitled to receive a periodic statement under § 226.5(b)(2) for any one billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative summary statement.</I> As an alternative to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the creditor may mail or deliver, on or with each periodic statement, a statement substantially similar to Model Form G-4 or Model Form G-4(A) in appendix G to this part, as applicable. Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b may use either Model Form, at their option.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures for supplemental credit access devices and additional features.</I> (1) If a creditor, within 30 days after mailing or delivering the account-opening disclosures under § 226.6(a)(1) or (b)(3)(ii)(A), as applicable, adds a credit feature to the consumer's account or mails or delivers to the consumer a credit access device, including but not limited to checks that access a credit card account, for which the finance charge terms are the same as those previously disclosed, no additional disclosures are necessary. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after 30 days, if the creditor adds a credit feature or furnishes a credit access device (other than as a renewal, resupply, or the original issuance of a credit card) on the same finance charge terms, the creditor shall disclose, before the consumer uses the feature or device for the first time, that it is for use in obtaining credit under the terms previously disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, whenever a credit feature is added or a credit access device is mailed or delivered to the consumer, and the finance charge terms for the feature or device differ from disclosures previously given, the disclosures required by § 226.6(a)(1) or (b)(3)(ii)(A), as applicable, that are applicable to the added feature or device shall be given before the consumer uses the feature or device for the first time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Checks that access a credit card account</I>—(i) <I>Disclosures.</I> For open-end plans not subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, if checks that can be used to access a credit card account are provided more than 30 days after account-opening disclosures under § 226.6(b) are mailed or delivered, or are provided within 30 days of the account-opening disclosures and the finance charge terms for the checks differ from the finance charge terms previously disclosed, the creditor shall disclose on the front of the page containing the checks the following terms in the form of a table with the headings, content, and form substantially similar to Sample G-19 in appendix G to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) If a promotional rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(i) applies to the checks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The promotional rate and the time period during which the promotional rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The type of rate that will apply (such as whether the purchase or cash advance rate applies) after the promotional rate expires, and the annual percentage rate that will apply after the promotional rate expires. For a variable-rate account, a creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The date, if any, by which the consumer must use the checks in order to qualify for the promotional rate. If the creditor will honor checks used after such date but will apply an annual percentage rate other than the promotional rate, the creditor must disclose this fact and the type of annual percentage rate that will apply if the consumer uses the checks after such date.
</P>
<P>(B) If no promotional rate applies to the checks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of rate that will apply to the checks and the applicable annual percentage rate. For a variable-rate account, a creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(C) Any transaction fees applicable to the checks disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(D) Whether or not a grace period is given within which any credit extended by use of the checks may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. When disclosing whether there is a grace period, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest on Check Transactions” shall be used as the row heading when a grace period applies to credit extended by the use of the checks. When disclosing the fact that no grace period exists for credit extended by use of the checks, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the row heading.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accuracy.</I> The disclosures in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section must be accurate as of the time the disclosures are mailed or delivered. A variable annual percentage rate is accurate if it was in effect within 60 days of when the disclosures are mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Variable rates.</I> If any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section is a variable rate, the card issuer shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans</I>—(i) <I>Written notice required.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, whenever any term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(a) is changed or the required minimum periodic payment is increased, the creditor shall mail or deliver written notice of the change to each consumer who may be affected. The notice shall be mailed or delivered at least 15 days prior to the effective date of the change. The 15-day timing requirement does not apply if the change has been agreed to by the consumer; the notice shall be given, however, before the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice not required.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, a creditor is not required to provide notice under this section when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge or when the change results from an agreement involving a court proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice to restrict credit.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, if the creditor prohibits additional extensions of credit or reduces the credit limit pursuant to § 226.5b(f)(3)(i) or (f)(3)(vi), the creditor shall mail or deliver written notice of the action to each consumer who will be affected. The notice must be provided not later than three business days after the action is taken and shall contain specific reasons for the action. If the creditor requires the consumer to request reinstatement of credit privileges, the notice also shall state that fact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans</I>—(i) <I>Changes where written advance notice is required</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> For plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(B), (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(2)(v) of this section, when a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section is made, a creditor must provide a written notice of the change at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the change to each consumer who may be affected. The 45-day timing requirement does not apply if the consumer has agreed to a particular change as described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section; for such changes, notice must be given in accordance with the timing requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section. Increases in the rate applicable to a consumer's account due to delinquency, default or as a penalty described in paragraph (g) of this section that are not due to a change in the contractual terms of the consumer's account must be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section instead of paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Changes agreed to by the consumer.</I> A notice of change in terms is required, but it may be mailed or delivered as late as the effective date of the change if the consumer agrees to the particular change. This paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) applies only when a consumer substitutes collateral or when the creditor can advance additional credit only if a change relatively unique to that consumer is made, such as the consumer's providing additional security or paying an increased minimum payment amount. The following are not considered agreements between the consumer and the creditor for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B): The consumer's general acceptance of the creditor's contract reservation of the right to change terms; the consumer's use of the account (which might imply acceptance of its terms under state law); the consumer's acceptance of a unilateral term change that is not particular to that consumer, but rather is of general applicability to consumers with that type of account; and the consumer's request to reopen a closed account or to upgrade an existing account to another account offered by the creditor with different credit or other features.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Significant changes in account terms.</I> For purposes of this section, a “significant change in account terms” means a change to a term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), an increase in the required minimum periodic payment, a change to a term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(4), or the acquisition of a security interest.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charges not covered by § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section, if a creditor increases any component of a charge, or introduces a new charge, required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(3) that is not a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a creditor must either, at its option:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provide notice of the amount of the charge before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure of the charge. The notice may be provided orally or in writing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Disclosure requirements</I>—(A) <I>Significant changes in account terms.</I> If a creditor makes a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A summary of the changes made to terms required by § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) or § 226.6(b)(4), a description of any increase in the required minimum periodic payment, and a description of any security interest being acquired by the creditor
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement that changes are being made to the account;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For accounts other than credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan subject to § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(B), a statement indicating the consumer has the right to opt out of these changes, if applicable, and a reference to additional information describing the opt-out right provided in the notice, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The date the changes will become effective;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If applicable, a statement that the consumer may find additional information about the summarized changes, and other changes to the account, in the notice;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) If the creditor is changing a rate on the account, other than a penalty rate, a statement that if a penalty rate currently applies to the consumer's account, the new rate described in the notice will not apply to the consumer's account until the consumer's account balances are no longer subject to the penalty rate;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the change in terms being disclosed is an increase in an annual percentage rate, the balances to which the increased rate will be applied. If applicable, a statement identifying the balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the change in terms; and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If the change in terms being disclosed is an increase in an annual percentage rate for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a statement of no more than four principal reasons for the rate increase, listed in their order of importance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Right to reject for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> In addition to the disclosures in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, if a card issuer makes a significant change in account terms on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the creditor must generally provide the following information on the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. This information is not required to be provided in the case of an increase in the required minimum periodic payment, an increase in a fee as a result of a reevaluation of a determination made under § 226.52(b)(1)(i) or an adjustment to the safe harbors in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index, a change in an annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's account, an increase in a fee previously reduced consistent with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation if the amount of the increased fee does not exceed the amount of that fee prior to the reduction, or when the change results from the creditor not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment:
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Changes resulting from failure to make minimum periodic payment within 60 days from due date for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the significant change required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is an increase in an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must state that the increase will cease to apply to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days of provision of the notice, if the creditor receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date, beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the significant change required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is an increase in a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must also state the reason for the increase.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Format requirements</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Tabular format.</I> The summary of changes described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must be in a tabular format (except for a summary of any increase in the required minimum periodic payment, a summary of a term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(4) that is not required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), or a description of any security interest being acquired by the creditor), with headings and format substantially similar to any of the account-opening tables found in G-17 in appendix G to this part. The table must disclose the changed term and information relevant to the change, if that relevant information is required by § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2). The new terms shall be described in the same level of detail as required when disclosing the terms under § 226.6(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice not required.</I> For open-end plans (other than home equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b) a creditor is not required to provide notice under this section:
</P>
<P>(A) When the change involves charges for documentary evidence; a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge; suspension of future credit privileges (except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section) or termination of an account or plan; when the change results from an agreement involving a court proceeding; when the change is an extension of the grace period; or if the change is applicable only to checks that access a credit card account and the changed terms are disclosed on or with the checks in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) When the change is an increase in an annual percentage rate or fee upon the expiration of a specified period of time, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prior to commencement of that period, the creditor disclosed in writing to the consumer, in a clear and conspicuous manner, the length of the period and the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The disclosure of the length of the period and the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period are set forth in close proximity and in equal prominence to the first listing of the disclosure of the rate or fee that applies during the specified period of time; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The annual percentage rate or fee that applies after that period does not exceed the rate or fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this paragraph or, if the rate disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section was a variable rate, the rate following any such increase is a variable rate determined by the same formula (index and margin) that was used to calculate the variable rate disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>);
</P>
<P>(C) When the change is an increase in a variable annual percentage rate in accordance with a credit card or other account agreement that provides for changes in the rate according to operation of an index that is not under the control of the creditor and is available to the general public; or
</P>
<P>(D) When the change is an increase in an annual percentage rate, a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), (b)(2)(viii), (b)(2)(ix), (b)(2)(ix) or (b)(2)(xii), or the required minimum periodic payment due to the completion of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement by the consumer or the consumer's failure to comply with the terms of such an arrangement, provided that:
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reduction of the credit limit.</I> For open-end plans that are not subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, if a creditor decreases the credit limit on an account, advance notice of the decrease must be provided before an over-the-limit fee or a penalty rate can be imposed solely as a result of the consumer exceeding the newly decreased credit limit. Notice shall be provided in writing or orally at least 45 days prior to imposing the over-the-limit fee or penalty rate and shall state that the credit limit on the account has been or will be decreased.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finance charge imposed at time of transaction.</I> (1) Any person, other than the card issuer, who imposes a finance charge at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card, shall disclose the amount of that finance charge prior to its imposition.
</P>
<P>(2) The card issuer, other than the person honoring the consumer's credit card, shall have no responsibility for the disclosure required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and shall not consider any such charge for the purposes of §§ 226.5a, 226.6 and 226.7.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures upon renewal of credit or charge card</I>—(1) <I>Notice prior to renewal.</I> A card issuer that imposes any annual or other periodic fee to renew a credit or charge card account of the type subject to § 226.5a, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity or any card issuer that has changed or amended any term of a cardholder's account required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) that has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, shall mail or deliver written notice of the renewal to the cardholder. If the card issuer imposes any annual or other periodic fee for renewal, the notice shall be provided at least 30 days or one billing cycle, whichever is less, before the mailing or the delivery of the periodic statement on which any renewal fee is initially charged to the account. If the card issuer has changed or amended any term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) and such changed or amended term has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, the notice shall be provided at least 30 days prior to the scheduled renewal date of the consumer's credit or charge card. The notice shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The disclosures contained in § 226.5a(b)(1) through (b)(7) that would apply if the account were renewed; 
<SU>20a</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20a</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) How and when the cardholder may terminate credit availability under the account to avoid paying the renewal fee, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification on periodic statements.</I> The disclosures required by this paragraph may be made on or with a periodic statement. If any of the disclosures are provided on the back of a periodic statement, the card issuer shall include a reference to those disclosures on the front of the statement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Change in credit card account insurance provider</I>—(1) <I>Notice prior to change.</I> If a credit card issuer plans to change the provider of insurance for repayment of all or part of the outstanding balance of an open-end credit card account of the type subject to § 226.5a, the card issuer shall mail or deliver to the cardholder written notice of the change not less than 30 days before the change in provider occurs. The notice shall also include the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Any increase in the rate that will result from the change;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any substantial decrease in coverage that will result from the change; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the cardholder may discontinue the insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice when change in provider occurs.</I> If a change described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section occurs, the card issuer shall provide the cardholder with a written notice no later than 30 days after the change, including the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the new insurance provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the new policy or group certificate containing the basic terms of the insurance, including the rate to be charged; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the cardholder may discontinue the insurance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substantial decrease in coverage.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, a substantial decrease in coverage is a decrease in a significant term of coverage that might reasonably be expected to affect the cardholder's decision to continue the insurance. Significant terms of coverage include, for example, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Type of coverage provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) Age at which coverage terminates or becomes more restrictive;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maximum insurable loan balance, maximum periodic benefit payment, maximum number of payments, or other term affecting the dollar amount of coverage or benefits provided;
</P>
<P>(iv) Eligibility requirements and number and identity of persons covered;
</P>
<P>(v) Definition of a key term of coverage such as disability;
</P>
<P>(vi) Exclusions from or limitations on coverage; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Waiting periods and whether coverage is retroactive.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Combined notification.</I> The notices required by paragraph (f)(1) and (2) of this section may be combined provided the timing requirement of paragraph (f)(1) of this section is met. The notices may be provided on or with a periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Increase in rates due to delinquency or default or as a penalty</I>—(1) <I>Increases subject to this section.</I> For plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, except as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, a creditor must provide a written notice to each consumer who may be affected when:
</P>
<P>(i) A rate is increased due to the consumer's delinquency or default; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A rate is increased as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as making a late payment or obtaining an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of written notice.</I> Whenever any notice is required to be given pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the creditor shall provide written notice of the increase in rates at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the increase. The notice must be provided after the occurrence of the events described in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section that trigger the imposition of the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Disclosure requirements for rate increases</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> If a creditor is increasing the rate due to delinquency or default or as a penalty, the creditor must provide the following information on the notice sent pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate, as applicable, has been triggered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date on which the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will apply;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The circumstances under which the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate, as applicable, will cease to apply to the consumer's account, or that the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will remain in effect for a potentially indefinite time period;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A statement indicating to which balances the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will be applied;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If applicable, a description of any balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the rate increase, unless a consumer fails to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a statement of no more than four principal reasons for the rate increase, listed in their order of importance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Rate increases resulting from failure to make minimum periodic payment within 60 days from due date.</I> For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, if the rate increase required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section is an increase pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section must also state that the increase will cease to apply to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days of provision of the notice, if the creditor receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date, beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Format requirements.</I> (A) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section is included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section must be in the form of a table and provided on the front of any page of the periodic statement, above the notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section if that notice is provided on the same statement.
</P>
<P>(B) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section is not included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section must be disclosed on the front of the first page of the notice. Only information related to the increase in the rate to a penalty rate may be included with the notice, except that this notice may be combined with a notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) or (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for decrease in credit limit.</I> A creditor is not required to provide a notice pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section prior to increasing the rate for obtaining an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor provides at least 45 days in advance of imposing the penalty rate a notice, in writing, that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the credit limit on the account has been or will be decreased.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement indicating the date on which the penalty rate will apply, if the outstanding balance exceeds the credit limit as of that date;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the penalty rate will not be imposed on the date specified in paragraph (g)(4)(i)(B) of this section, if the outstanding balance does not exceed the credit limit as of that date;
</P>
<P>(D) The circumstances under which the penalty rate, if applied, will cease to apply to the account, or that the penalty rate, if applied, will remain in effect for a potentially indefinite time period;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement indicating to which balances the penalty rate may be applied; and
</P>
<P>(F) If applicable, a description of any balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the rate increase, unless the consumer fails to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor does not increase the rate applicable to the consumer's account to the penalty rate if the outstanding balance does not exceed the credit limit on the date set forth in the notice and described in paragraph (g)(4)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) If a notice provided pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section is included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section must be in the form of a table and provided on the front of any page of the periodic statement; or
</P>
<P>(B) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section is not included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section must be disclosed on the front of the first page of the notice. Only information related to the reduction in credit limit may be included with the notice, except that this notice may be combined with a notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) or (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer rejection of certain significant changes in terms</I>—(1) <I>Right to reject.</I> If paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section requires disclosure of the consumer's right to reject a significant change to an account term, the consumer may reject that change by notifying the creditor of the rejection before the effective date of the change. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of rejection.</I> If a creditor is notified of a rejection of a significant change to an account term as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the creditor must not: 
</P>
<P>(i) Apply the change to the account; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose a fee or charge or treat the account as in default solely as a result of the rejection; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Require repayment of the balance on the account using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the methods listed in § 226.55(c)(2). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> Section 226.9(h) does not apply when the creditor has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7807, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 37568, June 26, 2010; 76 FR 23000, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.10" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.10   Payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor shall credit a payment to the consumer's account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in a finance or other charge or except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements for payments</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor may specify reasonable requirements for payments that enable most consumers to make conforming payments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of reasonable requirements for payments.</I> Reasonable requirements for making payment may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Requiring that payments be accompanied by the account number or payment stub;
</P>
<P>(ii) Setting reasonable cut-off times for payments to be received by mail, by electronic means, by telephone, and in person (except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section), provided that such cut-off times shall be no earlier than 5 p.m. on the payment due date at the location specified by the creditor for the receipt of such payments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specifying that only checks or money orders should be sent by mail;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifying that payment is to be made in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(v) Specifying one particular address for receiving payments, such as a post office box.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>In-person payments on credit card accounts</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding § 226.10(b), payments on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan made in person at a branch or office of a card issuer that is a financial institution prior to the close of business of that branch or office shall be considered received on the date on which the consumer makes the payment. A card issuer that is a financial institution shall not impose a cut-off time earlier than the close of business for any such payments made in person at any branch or office of the card issuer at which such payments are accepted. Notwithstanding § 226.10(b)(2)(ii), a card issuer may impose a cut-off time earlier than 5 p.m. for such payments, if the close of business of the branch or office is earlier than 5 p.m.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Financial institution.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, “financial institution” shall mean a bank, savings association, or credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonconforming payments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, if a creditor specifies, on or with the periodic statement, requirements for the consumer to follow in making payments as permitted under this § 226.10, but accepts a payment that does not conform to the requirements, the creditor shall credit the payment within five days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payment methods promoted by creditor.</I> If a creditor promotes a method for making payments, such payments shall be considered conforming payments in accordance with this paragraph (b) and shall be credited to the consumer's account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in a finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustment of account.</I> If a creditor fails to credit a payment, as required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, in time to avoid the imposition of finance or other charges, the creditor shall adjust the consumer's account so that the charges imposed are credited to the consumer's account during the next billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Crediting of payments when creditor does not receive or accept payments on due date</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if a creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail on the due date for payments, the creditor may generally not treat a payment received the next business day as late for any purpose. For purposes of this paragraph (d), the “next business day” means the next day on which the creditor accepts or receives payments by mail.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments accepted or received other than by mail.</I> If a creditor accepts or receives payments made on the due date by a method other than mail, such as electronic or telephone payments, the creditor is not required to treat a payment made by that method on the next business day as timely, even if it does not accept mailed payments on the due date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on fees related to method of payment.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a creditor may not impose a separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment by any method, such as mail, electronic, or telephone payments, unless such payment method involves an expedited service by a customer service representative of the creditor. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term “creditor” includes a third party that collects, receives, or processes payments on behalf of a creditor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Changes by card issuer.</I> If a card issuer makes a material change in the address for receiving payments or procedures for handling payments, and such change causes a material delay in the crediting of a payment to the consumer's account during the 60-day period following the date on which such change took effect, the card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the credit card account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7811, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23001, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.11   Treatment of credit balances; account termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credit balances.</I> When a credit balance in excess of $1 is created on a credit account (through transmittal of funds to a creditor in excess of the total balance due on an account, through rebates of unearned finance charges or insurance premiums, or through amounts otherwise owed to or held for the benefit of the consumer), the creditor shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Credit the amount of the credit balance to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(2) Refund any part of the remaining credit balance within seven business days from receipt of a written request from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) Make a good faith effort to refund to the consumer by cash, check, or money order, or credit to a deposit account of the consumer, any part of the credit balance remaining in the account for more than six months. No further action is required if the consumer's current location is not known to the creditor and cannot be traced through the consumer's last known address or telephone number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Account termination.</I> (1) A creditor shall not terminate an account prior to its expiration date solely because the consumer does not incur a finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section prohibits a creditor from terminating an account that is inactive for three or more consecutive months. An account is inactive for purposes of this paragraph if no credit has been extended (such as by purchase, cash advance or balance transfer) and if the account has no outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timely settlement of estate debts</I>—(1) <I>General rule</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable policies and procedures required.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, card issuers must adopt reasonable written policies and procedures designed to ensure that an administrator of an estate of a deceased accountholder can determine the amount of and pay any balance on the account in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to joint accounts.</I> Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to the account of a deceased consumer if a joint accountholder remains on the account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timely statement of balance</I>—(i) <I>Requirement.</I> Upon request by the administrator of an estate, a card issuer must provide the administrator with the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, providing the amount of the balance on the account within 30 days of receiving the request is deemed to be timely.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations after receipt of request from administrator</I>—(i) <I>Limitation on fees and increases in annual percentage rates.</I> After receiving a request from the administrator of an estate for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account, a card issuer must not impose any fees on the account (such as a late fee, annual fee, or over-the-limit fee) or increase any annual percentage rate, except as provided by § 226.55(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation on trailing or residual interest.</I> A card issuer must waive or rebate any additional finance charge due to a periodic interest rate if payment in full of the balance disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section is received within 30 days after disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7812, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.12   Special credit card provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of credit cards.</I> Regardless of the purpose for which a credit card is to be used, including business, commercial, or agricultural use, no credit card shall be issued to any person except—
</P>
<P>(1) In response to an oral or written request or application for the card; or
</P>
<P>(2) As a renewal of, or substitute for, an accepted credit card.
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Liability of cardholder for unauthorized use</I>—(1)(i) <I>Definition of unauthorized use.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “unauthorized use” means the use of a credit card by a person, other than the cardholder, who does not have actual, implied, or apparent authority for such use, and from which the cardholder receives no benefit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation on amount.</I> The liability of a cardholder for unauthorized use 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> of a credit card shall not exceed the lesser of $50 or the amount of money, property, labor, or services obtained by the unauthorized use before notification to the card issuer under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of liability.</I> A cardholder shall be liable for unauthorized use of a credit card only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit card is an accepted credit card;
</P>
<P>(ii) The card issuer has provided adequate notice 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> of the cardholder's maximum potential liability and of means by which the card issuer may be notified of loss or theft of the card. The notice shall state that the cardholder's liability shall not exceed $50 (or any lesser amount) and that the cardholder may give oral or written notification, and shall describe a means of notification (for example, a telephone number, an address, or both); and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) The card issuer has provided a means to identify the cardholder on the account or the authorized user of the card.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification to card issuer.</I> Notification to a card issuer is given when steps have been taken as may be reasonably required in the ordinary course of business to provide the card issuer with the pertinent information about the loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use of a credit card, regardless of whether any particular officer, employee, or agent of the card issuer does, in fact, receive the information. Notification may be given, at the option of the person giving it, in person, by telephone, or in writing. Notification in writing is considered given at the time of receipt or, whether or not received, at the expiration of the time ordinarily required for transmission, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of other applicable law or agreement.</I> If state law or an agreement between a cardholder and the card issuer imposes lesser liability than that provided in this paragraph, the lesser liability shall govern.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Business use of credit cards.</I> If 10 or more credit cards are issued by one card issuer for use by the employees of an organization, this section does not prohibit the card issuer and the organization from agreeing to liability for unauthorized use without regard to this section. However, liability for unauthorized use may be imposed on an employee of the organization, by either the card issuer or the organization, only in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Right of cardholder to assert claims or defenses against card issuer</I>
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> When a person who honors a credit card fails to resolve satisfactorily a dispute as to property or services purchased with the credit card in a consumer credit transaction, the cardholder may assert against the card issuer all claims (other than tort claims) and defenses arising out of the transaction and relating to the failure to resolve the dispute. The cardholder may withhold payment up to the amount of credit outstanding for the property or services that gave rise to the dispute and any finance or other charges imposed on that amount.
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I> If, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cardholder withholds payment of the amount of credit outstanding for the disputed transaction, the card issuer shall not report that amount as delinquent until the dispute is settled or judgment is rendered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The rights stated in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section apply only if:
</P>
<P>(A) The cardholder has made a good faith attempt to resolve the dispute with the person honoring the credit card; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of credit extended to obtain the property or services that result in the assertion of the claim or defense by the cardholder exceeds $50, and the disputed transaction occurred in the same state as the cardholder's current designated address or, if not within the same state, within 100 miles from that address.
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusion.</I> The limitations stated in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section shall not apply when the person honoring the credit card:
</P>
<P>(A) Is the same person as the card issuer;
</P>
<P>(B) Is controlled by the card issuer directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(C) Is under the direct or indirect control of a third person that also directly or indirectly controls the card issuer;
</P>
<P>(D) Controls the card issuer directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(E) Is a franchised dealer in the card issuer's products or services; or
</P>
<P>(F) Has obtained the order for the disputed transaction through a mail solicitation made or participated in by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Offsets by card issuer prohibited.</I> (1) A card issuer may not take any action, either before or after termination of credit card privileges, to offset a cardholder's indebtedness arising from a consumer credit transaction under the relevant credit card plan against funds of the cardholder held on deposit with the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) This paragraph does not alter or affect the right of a card issuer acting under state or federal law to do any of the following with regard to funds of a cardholder held on deposit with the card issuer if the same procedure is constitutionally available to creditors generally: Obtain or enforce a consensual security interest in the funds; attach or otherwise levy upon the funds; or obtain or enforce a court order relating to the funds.
</P>
<P>(3) This paragraph does not prohibit a plan, if authorized in writing by the cardholder, under which the card issuer may periodically deduct all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from a deposit account held with the card issuer (subject to the limitations in § 226.13(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prompt notification of returns and crediting of refunds.</I> (1) When a creditor other than the card issuer accepts the return of property or forgives a debt for services that is to be reflected as a credit to the consumer's credit card account, that creditor shall, within 7 business days from accepting the return or forgiving the debt, transmit a credit statement to the card issuer through the card issuer's normal channels for credit statements.
</P>
<P>(2) The card issuer shall, within 3 business days from receipt of a credit statement, credit the consumer's account with the amount of the refund.
</P>
<P>(3) If a creditor other than a card issuer routinely gives cash refunds to consumers paying in cash, the creditor shall also give credit or cash refunds to consumers using credit cards, unless it discloses at the time the transaction is consummated that credit or cash refunds for returns are not given. This section does not require refunds for returns nor does it prohibit refunds in kind.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discounts; tie-in arrangements.</I> No card issuer may, by contract or otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibit any person who honors a credit card from offering a discount to a consumer to induce the consumer to pay by cash, check, or similar means rather than by use of a credit card or its underlying account for the purchase of property or services; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require any person who honors the card issuer's credit card to open or maintain any account or obtain any other service not essential to the operation of the credit card plan from the card issuer or any other person, as a condition of participation in a credit card plan. If maintenance of an account for clearing purposes is determined to be essential to the operation of the credit card plan, it may be required only if no service charges or minimum balance requirements are imposed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E.</I> For guidance on whether Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226) or Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) applies in instances involving both credit and electronic fund transfer aspects, refer to Regulation E, 12 CFR 205.12(a) regarding issuance and liability for unauthorized use. On matters other than issuance and liability, this section applies to the credit aspects of combined credit/electronic fund transfer transactions, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7812, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.13" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.13   Billing error resolution.
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/></HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of billing error.</I> For purposes of this section, the term billing error means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit that is not made to the consumer or to a person who has actual, implied, or apparent authority to use the consumer's credit card or open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit that is not identified in accordance with the requirements of §§ 226.7(a)(2) or (b)(2), as applicable, and 226.8.
</P>
<P>(3) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit for property or services not accepted by the consumer or the consumer's designee, or not delivered to the consumer or the consumer's designee as agreed.
</P>
<P>(4) A reflection on a periodic statement of the creditor's failure to credit properly a payment or other credit issued to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(5) A reflection on a periodic statement of a computational or similar error of an accounting nature that is made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(6) A reflection on a periodic statement of an extension of credit for which the consumer requests additional clarification, including documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(7) The creditor's failure to mail or deliver a periodic statement to the consumer's last known address if that address was received by the creditor, in writing, at least 20 days before the end of the billing cycle for which the statement was required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Billing error notice.</I>
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> A billing error notice is a written notice 
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/> from a consumer that:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Is received by a creditor at the address disclosed under § 226.7(a)(9) or (b)(9), as applicable, no later than 60 days after the creditor transmitted the first periodic statement that reflects the alleged billing error;
</P>
<P>(2) Enables the creditor to identify the consumer's name and account number; and
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent possible, indicates the consumer's belief and the reasons for the belief that a billing error exists, and the type, date, and amount of the error.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time for resolution; general procedures.</I> (1) The creditor shall mail or deliver written acknowledgment to the consumer within 30 days of receiving a billing error notice, unless the creditor has complied with the appropriate resolution procedures of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, as applicable, within the 30-day period; and
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor shall comply with the appropriate resolution procedures of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, as applicable, within 2 complete billing cycles (but in no event later than 90 days) after receiving a billing error notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rules pending resolution.</I> Until a billing error is resolved under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer's right to withhold disputed amount; collection action prohibited.</I> The consumer need not pay (and the creditor may not try to collect) any portion of any required payment that the consumer believes is related to the disputed amount (including related finance or other charges).
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> If the cardholder has enrolled in an automatic payment plan offered by the card issuer and has agreed to pay the credit card indebtedness by periodic deductions from the cardholder's deposit account, the card issuer shall not deduct any part of the disputed amount or related finance or other charges if a billing error notice is received any time up to 3 business days before the scheduled payment date.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I> The creditor or its agent shall not (directly or indirectly) make or threaten to make an adverse report to any person about the consumer's credit standing, or report that an amount or account is delinquent, because the consumer failed to pay the disputed amount or related finance or other charges.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceleration of debt and restriction of account prohibited.</I> A creditor shall not accelerate any part of the consumer's indebtedness or restrict or close a consumer's account solely because the consumer has exercised in good faith rights provided by this section. A creditor may be subject to the forfeiture penalty under 15 U.S.C. 1666(e) for failure to comply with any of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permitted creditor actions.</I> A creditor is not prohibited from taking action to collect any undisputed portion of the item or bill; from deducting any disputed amount and related finance or other charges from the consumer's credit limit on the account; or from reflecting a disputed amount and related finance or other charges on a periodic statement, provided that the creditor indicates on or with the periodic statement that payment of any disputed amount and related finance or other charges is not required pending the creditor's compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures if billing error occurred as asserted.</I> If a creditor determines that a billing error occurred as asserted, it shall within the time limits in paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Correct the billing error and credit the consumer's account with any disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) Mail or deliver a correction notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures if different billing error or no billing error occurred.</I> If, after conducting a reasonable investigation,
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/> a creditor determines that no billing error occurred or that a different billing error occurred from that asserted, the creditor shall within the time limits in paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Mail or deliver to the consumer an explanation that sets forth the reasons for the creditor's belief that the billing error alleged by the consumer is incorrect in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish copies of documentary evidence of the consumer's indebtedness, if the consumer so requests; and
</P>
<P>(3) If a different billing error occurred, correct the billing error and credit the consumer's account with any disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Creditor's rights and duties after resolution.</I> If a creditor, after complying with all of the requirements of this section, determines that a consumer owes all or part of the disputed amount and related finance or other charges, the creditor:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall promptly notify the consumer in writing of the time when payment is due and the portion of the disputed amount and related finance or other charges that the consumer still owes;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall allow any time period disclosed under § 226.6(a)(1) or (b)(2)(v), as applicable, and § 226.7(a)(8) or (b)(8), as applicable, during which the consumer can pay the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of this section without incurring additional finance or other charges;
</P>
<P>(3) May report an account or amount as delinquent because the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of this section remains unpaid after the creditor has allowed any time period disclosed under § 226.6(a)(1) or (b)(2)(v), as applicable, and § 226.7(a)(8) or (b)(8), as applicable or 10 days (whichever is longer) during which the consumer can pay the amount; but
</P>
<P>(4) May not report that an amount or account is delinquent because the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of the section remains unpaid, if the creditor receives (within the time allowed for payment in paragraph (g)(3) of this section) further written notice from the consumer that any portion of the billing error is still in dispute, unless the creditor also:
</P>
<P>(i) Promptly reports that the amount or account is in dispute;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mails or delivers to the consumer (at the same time the report is made) a written notice of the name and address of each person to whom the creditor makes a report; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reports any subsequent resolution of the reported delinquency to all persons to whom the creditor has made a report.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reassertion of billing error.</I> A creditor that has fully complied with the requirements of this section has no further responsibilities under this section (other than as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section) if a consumer reasserts substantially the same billing error.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E.</I> If an extension of credit is incident to an electronic fund transfer, under an agreement between a consumer and a financial institution to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account, the creditor shall comply with the requirements of Regulation E, 12 CFR 205.11 governing error resolution rather than those of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (e), (f), and (h) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7814, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.14" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.14   Determination of annual percentage rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The annual percentage rate is a measure of the cost of credit, expressed as a yearly rate. An annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with this section.
<SU>31a</SU>
<FTREF/> An error in disclosure of the annual percentage rate or finance charge shall not, in itself, be considered a violation of this regulation if:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31a</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The error resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon discovery of the error, the creditor promptly discontinues use of that calculation tool for disclosure purposes, and notifies the Board in writing of the error in the calculation tool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual percentage rate—in general.</I> Where one or more periodic rates may be used to compute the finance charge, the annual percentage rate(s) to be disclosed for purposes of §§ 226.5a, 226.5b, 226.6, 226.7(a)(4) or (b)(4), 226.9, 226.15, 226.16, 226.26, 226.55, and 226.56 shall be computed by multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in a year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional effective annual percentage rate for periodic statements for creditors offering open-end plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.</I> A creditor offering an open-end plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b need not disclose an effective annual percentage rate. Such a creditor may, at its option, disclose an effective annual percentage rate(s) pursuant to § 226.7(a)(7) and compute the effective annual percentage rate as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Solely periodic rates imposed.</I> If the finance charge is determined solely by applying one or more periodic rates, at the creditor's option, either:
</P>
<P>(i) By multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in a year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By dividing the total finance charge for the billing cycle by the sum of the balances to which the periodic rates were applied and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum or fixed charge, but not transaction charge, imposed.</I> If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate, other than a charge with respect to any specific transaction during the billing cycle, by dividing the total finance charge for the billing cycle by the amount of the balance(s) to which it is applicable 
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year.
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> If there is no balance to which the finance charge is applicable, an annual percentage rate cannot be determined under this section. Where the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to opening, renewing, or continuing an account, the amount of such charge shall not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Transaction charge imposed.</I> If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a charge relating to a specific transaction during the billing cycle (even if the total finance charge also includes any other minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate), by dividing the total finance charge imposed during the billing cycle by the total of all balances and other amounts on which a finance charge was imposed during the billing cycle without duplication, and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year,
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/> except that the annual percentage rate shall not be less than the largest rate determined by multiplying each periodic rate imposed during the billing cycle by the number of periods in a year.
<SU>35</SU>
<FTREF/> Where the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to the opening, renewing, or continuing an account, the amount of such charge shall not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate. See appendix F to this part regarding determination of the denominator of the fraction under this paragraph.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>35</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate and the total finance charge imposed during the billing cycle does not exceed 50 cents for a monthly or longer billing cycle, or the pro rata part of 50 cents for a billing cycle shorter than monthly, at the creditor's option, by multiplying each applicable periodic rate by the number of periods in a year, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculations where daily periodic rate applied.</I> If the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) or (c)(2) of this section apply and all or a portion of the finance charge is determined by the application of one or more daily periodic rates, the annual percentage rate may be determined either:
</P>
<P>(1) By dividing the total finance charge by the average of the daily balances and multiplying the quotient by the number of billing cycles in a year; or
</P>
<P>(2) By dividing the total finance charge by the sum of the daily balances and multiplying the quotient by 365.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7815, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.15" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.15   Right of rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer's right to rescind.</I> (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, in a credit plan in which a security interest is or will be retained or acquired in a consumer's principal dwelling, each consumer whose ownership interest is or will be subject to the security interest shall have the right to rescind: each credit extension made under the plan; the plan when the plan is opened; a security interest when added or increased to secure an existing plan; and the increase when a credit limit on the plan is increased.
</P>
<P>(ii) As provided in section 125(e) of the Act, the consumer does not have the right to rescind each credit extension made under the plan if such extension is made in accordance with a previously established credit limit for the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) To exercise the right to rescind, the consumer shall notify the creditor of the rescission by mail, telegram, or other means of written communication. Notice is considered given when mailed, or when filed for telegraphic transmission, or, if sent by other means, when delivered to the creditor's designated place of business.
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer may exercise the right to rescind until midnight of the third business day following the occurrence described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that gave rise to the right of rescission, delivery of the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section, or delivery of all material disclosures, 
<SU>36</SU>
<FTREF/> whichever occurs last. If the required notice and material disclosures are not delivered, the right to rescind shall expire 3 years after the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission, or upon transfer of all of the consumer's interest in the property, or upon sale of the property, whichever occurs first. In the case of certain administrative proceedings, the rescission period shall be extended in accordance with section 125(f) of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36</SU> The term <I>material disclosures</I> means the information that must be provided to satisfy the requirements in § 226.6 with regard to the method of determining the finance charge and the balance upon which a finance charge will be imposed, the annual percentage rate, the amount or method of determining the amount of any membership or participation fee that may be imposed as part of the plan, and the payment information described in § 226.5b(d)(5)(i) and (ii) that is required under § 226.6(e)(2).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the exercise of the right by one consumer shall be effective as to all consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of right to rescind.</I> In any transaction or occurrence subject to rescission, a creditor shall deliver two copies of the notice of the right to rescind to each consumer entitled to rescind (one copy to each if the notice is delivered in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act). The notice shall identify the transaction or occurrence and clearly and conspicuously disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The retention or acquisition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's right to rescind, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) How to exercise the right to rescind, with a form for that purpose, designating the address of the creditor's place of business.
</P>
<P>(4) The effects of rescission, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The date the rescission period expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delay of creditor's performance.</I> Unless a consumer waives the right to rescind under paragraph (e) of this section, no money shall be disbursed other than in escrow, no services shall be performed, and no materials delivered until after the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. A creditor does not violate this section if a third party with no knowledge of the event activating the rescission right does not delay in providing materials or services, as long as the debt incurred for those materials or services is not secured by the property subject to rescission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of rescission.</I> (1) When a consumer rescinds a transaction, the security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void, and the consumer shall not be liable for any amount, including any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 20 calendar days after receipt of a notice of rescission, the creditor shall return any money or property that has been given to anyone in connection with the transaction and shall take any action necessary to reflect the termination of the security interest.
</P>
<P>(3) If the creditor has delivered any money or property, the consumer may retain possession until the creditor has met its obligation under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. When the creditor has complied with that paragraph, the consumer shall tender the money or property to the creditor or, where the latter would be impracticable or inequitable, tender its reasonable value. At the consumer's option, tender of property may be made at the location of the property or at the consumer's residence. Tender of money must be made at the creditor's designated place of business. If the creditor does not take possession of the money or property within 20 calendar days after the consumer's tender, the consumer may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures outlined in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section may be modified by court order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I> (1) The consumer may modify or waive the right to rescind if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the right to rescind, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to rescind. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited, except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The need of the consumer to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during June through September 1993, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, to be a major disaster area because of severe storms and flooding in the Midwest. 
<SU>36a</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36a</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The consumer's need to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during June through September 1994 to be a major disaster area, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, because of severe storms and flooding in the South. 
<SU>36b</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36b</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained and published by the Board. Such areas now include parts of Alabama, Florida, and Georgia.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) The consumer's need to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during October 1994 to be a major disaster area, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, because of severe storms and flooding in Texas. 
<SU>36c</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36c</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained and published by the Board. Such areas now include the following counties in Texas: Angelina, Austin, Bastrop, Brazos, Brazoria, Burleson, Chambers, Fayette, Fort Bend, Galveston, Grimes, Hardin, Harris, Houston, Jackson, Jasper, Jefferson, Lee, Liberty, Madison, Matagorda, Montgomery, Nacagdoches, Orange, Polk, San Augustine, San Jacinto, Shelby, Trinity, Victoria, Washington, Waller, Walker, and Wharton.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The right to rescind does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A credit plan in which a state agency is a creditor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 24688, June 9, 1989; 58 FR 40583, July 29, 1993; 59 FR 40204, Aug. 5, 1994; 59 FR 63715, Dec. 9, 1994; 66 FR 17338, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.16" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.2.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.16   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actually available terms.</I> If an advertisement for credit states specific credit terms, it shall state only those terms that actually are or will be arranged or offered by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I> (1) Any term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(3) set forth affirmatively or negatively in an advertisement for an open-end (not home-secured) credit plan triggers additional disclosures under this section. Any term required to be disclosed under § 226.6(a)(1) or (a)(2) set forth affirmatively or negatively in an advertisement for a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b triggers additional disclosures under this section. If any of the terms that trigger additional disclosures under this paragraph is set forth in an advertisement, the advertisement shall also clearly and conspicuously set forth the following: 
<SU>36d</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36d</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Any minimum, fixed, transaction, activity or similar charge that is a finance charge under § 226.4 that could be imposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any periodic rate that may be applied expressed as an annual percentage rate as determined under § 226.14(b). If the plan provides for a variable periodic rate, that fact shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any membership or participation fee that could be imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) If an advertisement for credit to finance the purchase of goods or services specified in the advertisement states a periodic payment amount, the advertisement shall also state the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation, assuming that the consumer pays only the periodic payment amount advertised. The disclosure of the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation must be equally prominent to the statement of the periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Catalogs or other multiple-page advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I> (1) If a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement, or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), gives information in a table or schedule in sufficient detail to permit determination of the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section, it shall be considered a single advertisement if:
</P>
<P>(i) The table or schedule is clearly and conspicuously set forth; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any statement of terms set forth in § 226.6 appearing anywhere else in the catalog or advertisement clearly refers to the page or location where the table or schedule begins.
</P>
<P>(2) A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) complies with this paragraph if the table or schedule of terms includes all appropriate disclosures for a representative scale of amounts up to the level of the more commonly sold higher-priced property or services offered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional requirements for home-equity plans</I>—(1) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I> If any of the terms required to be disclosed under § 226.6(a)(1) or (a)(2) or the payment terms of the plan are set forth, affirmatively or negatively, in an advertisement for a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, the advertisement also shall clearly and conspicuously set forth the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any loan fee that is a percentage of the credit limit under the plan and an estimate of any other fees imposed for opening the plan, stated as a single dollar amount or a reasonable range.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any periodic rate used to compute the finance charge, expressed as an annual percentage rate as determined under § 226.14(b).
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed in a variable-rate plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discounted and premium rates.</I> If an advertisement states an initial annual percentage rate that is not based on the index and margin used to make later rate adjustments in a variable-rate plan, the advertisement also shall state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the initial rate:
</P>
<P>(i) The period of time such initial rate will be in effect; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonably current annual percentage rate that would have been in effect using the index and margin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Balloon payment.</I> If an advertisement contains a statement of any minimum periodic payment and a balloon payment may result if only the minimum periodic payments are made, even if such a payment is uncertain or unlikely, the advertisement also shall state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum periodic payment statement that a balloon payment may result, if applicable.
<SU>36e</SU>
<FTREF/> A balloon payment results if paying the minimum periodic payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the consumer is required to repay the entire outstanding balance at such time. If a balloon payment will occur when the consumer makes only the minimum payments required under the plan, an advertisement for such a program which contains any statement of any minimum periodic payment shall also state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum periodic payment statement:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>36e</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) That a balloon payment will result; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and timing of the balloon payment that will result if the consumer makes only the minimum payments for the maximum period of time that the consumer is permitted to make such payments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tax implications.</I> An advertisement that states that any interest expense incurred under the home-equity plan is or may be tax deductible may not be misleading in this regard. If an advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) is for a home-equity plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, and the advertisement states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the dwelling, the advertisement shall clearly and conspicuously state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The interest on the portion of the credit extension that is greater than the fair market value of the dwelling is not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer should consult a tax adviser for further information regarding the deductibility of interest and charges.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Misleading terms.</I> An advertisement may not refer to a home-equity plan as “free money” or contain a similarly misleading term.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Promotional rates and payments.</I> (i) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of paragraph (d)(6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Promotional rate.</I> The term “promotional rate” means, in a variable-rate plan, any annual percentage rate that is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make rate adjustments under the plan, if that rate is less than a reasonably current annual percentage rate that would be in effect under the index and margin that will be used to make rate adjustments under the plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Promotional payment.</I> The term “promotional payment” means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For a variable-rate plan, any minimum payment applicable for a promotional period that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Is not derived by applying the index and margin to the outstanding balance when such index and margin will be used to determine other minimum payments under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is less than other minimum payments under the plan derived by applying a reasonably current index and margin that will be used to determine the amount of such payments, given an assumed balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a plan other than a variable-rate plan, any minimum payment applicable for a promotional period if that payment is less than other payments required under the plan given an assumed balance.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Promotional period.</I> A “promotional period” means a period of time, less than the full term of the loan, that the promotional rate or promotional payment may be applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stating the promotional period and post-promotional rate or payments.</I> If any annual percentage rate that may be applied to a plan is a promotional rate, or if any payment applicable to a plan is a promotional payment, the following must be disclosed in any advertisement, other than television or radio advertisements, in a clear and conspicuous manner with equal prominence and in close proximity to each listing of the promotional rate or payment:
</P>
<P>(A) The period of time during which the promotional rate or promotional payment will apply;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a promotional rate, any annual percentage rate that will apply under the plan. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate must be disclosed in accordance with the accuracy standards in §§ 226.5b or 226.16(b)(1)(ii) as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of a promotional payment, the amounts and time periods of any payments that will apply under the plan. In variable-rate transactions, payments that will be determined based on application of an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section do not apply to an envelope in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any of the terms requiring additional disclosures under paragraphs (b)(1) or (d)(1) of this section may alternatively comply with paragraphs (b)(1) or (d)(1) of this section by stating the information required by paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable, and listing a toll-free telephone number, or any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information, along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain the additional cost information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Misleading terms.</I> An advertisement may not refer to an annual percentage rate as “fixed,” or use a similar term, unless the advertisement also specifies a time period that the rate will be fixed and the rate will not increase during that period, or if no such time period is provided, the rate will not increase while the plan is open.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Promotional rates and fees.</I> (1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement of an open-end (not home-secured) plan, including promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 226.5a(c) or accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 226.5a(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) <I>Promotional rate</I> means any annual percentage rate applicable to one or more balances or transactions on an open-end (not home-secured) plan for a specified period of time that is lower than the annual percentage rate that will be in effect at the end of that period on such balances or transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Introductory rate</I> means a promotional rate offered in connection with the opening of an account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Promotional period</I> means the maximum time period for which a promotional rate or promotional fee may be applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Promotional fee</I> means a fee required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (2) applicable to an open-end (not home-secured) plan, or to one or more balances or transactions on an open-end (not home-secured) plan, for a specified period of time that is lower than the fee that will be in effect at the end of that period for such plan or types of balances or transactions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Introductory fee</I> means a promotional fee offered in connection with the opening of an account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stating the term “introductory”.</I> If any annual percentage rate or fee that may be applied to the account is an introductory rate or introductory fee, the term <I>introductory</I> or <I>intro</I> must be in immediate proximity to each listing of the introductory rate or introductory fee in a written or electronic advertisement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stating the promotional period and post-promotional rate or fee.</I> If any annual percentage rate that may be applied to the account is a promotional rate under paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section or any fee that may be applied to the account is a promotional fee under paragraph (g)(2)(iv) of this section, the information in paragraphs (g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section must be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner in the advertisement. If the rate or fee is stated in a written or electronic advertisement, the information in paragraphs (g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section must also be stated in a prominent location closely proximate to the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee.
</P>
<P>(i) When the promotional rate or promotional fee will end;
</P>
<P>(ii) The annual percentage rate that will apply after the end of the promotional period. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate must comply with the accuracy standards in §§ 226.5a(c)(2), 226.5a(d)(3), 226.5a(e)(4), or 226.16(b)(1)(ii), as applicable. If such rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given because the rate depends at least in part on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness, the advertisement must disclose the specific rates or the range of rates that might apply; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The fee that will apply after the end of the promotional period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (g)(4) of this section do not apply to an envelope or other enclosure in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement, linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Deferred interest or similar offers.</I> (1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement of an open-end credit plan not subject to § 226.5b, including promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 226.5a(c) or accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 226.5a(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> “Deferred interest” means finance charges, accrued on balances or transactions, that a consumer is not obligated to pay or that will be waived or refunded to a consumer if those balances or transactions are paid in full by a specified date. The maximum period from the date the consumer becomes obligated for the balance or transaction until the specified date by which the consumer must pay the balance or transaction in full in order to avoid finance charges, or receive a waiver or refund of finance charges, is the “deferred interest period.” “Deferred interest” does not include any finance charges the consumer avoids paying in connection with any recurring grace period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stating the deferred interest period.</I> If a deferred interest offer is advertised, the deferred interest period must be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner in the advertisement. If the phrase “no interest” or similar term regarding the possible avoidance of interest obligations under the deferred interest program is stated, the term “if paid in full” must also be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner preceding the disclosure of the deferred interest period in the advertisement. If the deferred interest offer is included in a written or electronic advertisement, the deferred interest period and, if applicable, the term “if paid in full” must also be stated in immediate proximity to each statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stating the terms of the deferred interest or similar offer.</I> If any deferred interest offer is advertised, the information in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this section must be stated in the advertisement, in language similar to Sample G-24 in appendix G to this part. If the deferred interest offer is included in a written or electronic advertisement, the information in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this section must also be stated in a prominent location closely proximate to the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that interest will be charged from the date the consumer becomes obligated for the balance or transaction subject to the deferred interest offer if the balance or transaction is not paid in full within the deferred interest period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement, if applicable, that interest will be charged from the date the consumer incurs the balance or transaction subject to the deferred interest offer if the account is in default before the end of the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (h)(4) of this section do not apply to an envelope or other enclosure in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7816, Feb. 22, 201, as amended at 76 FR 23002, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Closed-End Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.17" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.17   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> (1) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by §§ 226.17(g), 226.19(b), and 226.24 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. The disclosures shall be grouped together, shall be segregated from everything else, and shall not contain any information not directly related 
<SU>37</SU>
<FTREF/> to the disclosures required under § 226.18 or § 226.47.
<SU>38</SU>
<FTREF/> The itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c)(1) must be separate from the other disclosures under § 226.18, except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>37</SU> The disclosures may include an acknowledgment of receipt, the date of the transaction, and the consumer's name, address, and account number.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>38</SU> The following disclosures may be made together with or separately from other required disclosures: the creditor's identity under § 226.18(a), the variable rate example under § 226.18(f)(1)(iv), insurance or debt cancellation under § 226.18(n), and certain security interest charges under § 226.18(o).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47, the terms “finance charge” and “annual percentage rate,” when required to be disclosed under § 226.18 (d) and (e) together with a corresponding amount or percentage rate, shall be more conspicuous than any other disclosure, except the creditor's identity under § 226.18(a). For private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47, the term “annual percentage rate,” and the corresponding percentage rate must be less conspicuous than the term “finance charge” and corresponding amount under § 226.18(d), the interest rate under §§ 226.47(b)(1)(i) and (c)(1), and the notice of the right to cancel under § 226.47(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall make disclosures before consummation of the transaction. In certain residential mortgage transactions, special timing requirements are set forth in § 226.19(a). In certain variable-rate transactions, special timing requirements for variable-rate disclosures are set forth in §§ 226.19(b) and 226.20(c). For private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47, special timing requirements are set forth in § 226.46(d). In certain transactions involving mail or telephone orders or a series of sales, the timing of disclosures may be delayed in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> (1) The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For a transaction in which a portion of the interest is determined on a per-diem basis and collected at consummation, any disclosure affected by the per-diem interest shall be considered accurate if the disclosure is based on the information known to the creditor at the time that the disclosure documents are prepared for consummation of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(3) The creditor may disregard the effects of the following in making calculations and disclosures.
</P>
<P>(i) That payments must be collected in whole cents.
</P>
<P>(ii) That dates of scheduled payments and advances may be changed because the scheduled date is not a business day.
</P>
<P>(iii) That months have different numbers of days.
</P>
<P>(iv) The occurrence of leap year.
</P>
<P>(4) In making calculations and disclosures, the creditor may disregard any irregularity in the first period that falls within the limits described below and any payment schedule irregularity that results from the irregular first period:
</P>
<P>(i) For transactions in which the term is less than 1 year, a first period not more than 6 days shorter or 13 days longer than a regular period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For transactions in which the term is at least 1 year and less than 10 years, a first period not more than 11 days shorter or 21 days longer than a regular period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For transactions in which the term is at least 10 years, a first period shorter than or not more than 32 days longer than a regular period.
</P>
<P>(5) If an obligation is payable on demand, the creditor shall make the disclosures based on an assumed maturity of 1 year. If an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation between the parties, the disclosures shall be based on that date.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount may be considered as one transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a multiple-advance loan to finance the construction of a dwelling may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as either one transaction or more than one transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this regulation imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation. If the transaction is rescindable under § 226.23, however, the disclosures shall be made to each consumer who has the right to rescind.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of this regulation, although new disclosures may be required under paragraph (f) of this section, § 226.19, § 226.20, or § 226.48(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Early disclosures.</I> Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47, if disclosures required by this subpart are given before the date of consummation of a transaction and a subsequent event makes them inaccurate, the creditor shall disclose before consummation (subject to the provisions of § 226.19(a)(2) and § 226.19(a)(5)(iii)): 
<SU>39</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>39</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Any changed term unless the term was based on an estimate in accordance with § 226.17(c)(2) and was labelled an estimate;
</P>
<P>(2) All changed terms, if the annual percentage rate at the time of consummation varies from the annual percentage rate disclosed earlier by more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point in a regular transaction, or more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point in an irregular transaction, as defined in § 226.22(a).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mail or telephone orders—delay in disclosures.</I> Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47, if a creditor receives a purchase order or a request for an extension of credit by mail, telephone, or facsimile machine without face-to-face or direct telephone solicitation, the creditor may delay the disclosures until the due date of the first payment, if the following information for representative amounts or ranges of credit is made available in written form or in electronic form to the consumer or to the public before the actual purchase order or request:
</P>
<P>(1) The cash price or the principal loan amount.
</P>
<P>(2) The total sale price.
</P>
<P>(3) The finance charge.
</P>
<P>(4) The annual percentage rate, and if the rate may increase after consummation, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any limitations on the increase.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of an increase.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of repayment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Series of sales—delay in disclosures.</I> If a credit sale is one of a series made under an agreement providing that subsequent sales may be added to an outstanding balance, the creditor may delay the required disclosures until the due date of the first payment for the current sale, if the following two conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer has approved in writing the annual percentage rate or rates, the range of balances to which they apply, and the method of treating any unearned finance charge on an existing balance.
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor retains no security interest in any property after the creditor has received payments equal to the cash price and any finance charge attributable to the sale of that property. For purposes of this provision, in the case of items purchased on different dates, the first purchased is deemed the first item paid for; in the case of items purchased on the same date, the lowest priced is deemed the first item paid for.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Interim student credit extensions.</I> For transactions involving an interim credit extension under a student credit program for which an application is received prior to the mandatory compliance date of §§ 226.46, 47, and 48, the creditor need not make the following disclosures: the finance charge under § 226.18(d), the payment schedule under § 226.18(g), the total of payments under § 226.18(h), or the total sale price under § 226.18(j) at the time the credit is actually extended. The creditor must make complete disclosures at the time the creditor and consumer agree upon the repayment schedule for the total obligation. At that time, a new set of disclosures must be made of all applicable items under § 226.18.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 48670, Dec. 24, 1987; 61 FR 49246, Sept. 19, 1996; 66 FR 17338, Mar. 30, 2001; 67 FR 16982, Apr. 9, 2002; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007; 73 FR 44600, July 30, 2008; 74 FR 23301, May 19, 2009; 73 FR 44600, July 30, 2008; 74 FR 41232, Aug. 14, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.18" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.18   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>For each transaction, the creditor shall disclose the following information as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Creditor.</I> The identity of the creditor making the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount financed.</I> The <I>amount financed,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as <I>the amount of credit provided to you or on your behalf.</I> The amount financed is calculated by:
</P>
<P>(1) Determining the principal loan amount or the cash price (subtracting any downpayment); 
</P>
<P>(2) Adding any other amounts that are financed by the creditor and are not part of the finance charge; and
</P>
<P>(3) Subtracting any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Itemization of amount financed.</I> (1) A separate written itemization of the amount financed, including: 
<SU>40</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>40</SU> Good faith estimates of settlement costs provided for transactions subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (c) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The amount of any proceeds distributed directly to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount credited to the consumer's account with the creditor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any amounts paid to other persons by the creditor on the consumer's behalf. The creditor shall identify those persons. 
<SU>41</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>41</SU> The following payees may be described using generic or other general terms and need not be further identified: public officials or government agencies, credit reporting agencies, appraisers, and insurance companies.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) The prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor need not comply with paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the creditor provides a statement that the consumer has the right to receive a written itemization of the amount financed, together with a space for the consumer to indicate whether it is desired, and the consumer does not request it.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finance charge.</I> The <I>finance charge,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as “the dollar amount the credit will cost you.” 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mortgage loans.</I> In a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, the disclosed finance charge and other disclosures affected by the disclosed finance charge (including the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be treated as accurate if the amount disclosed as the finance charge: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is understated by no more than $100; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other credit.</I> In any other transaction, the amount disclosed as the finance charge shall be treated as accurate if, in a transaction involving an amount financed of $1,000 or less, it is not more than $5 above or below the amount required to be disclosed; or, in a transaction involving an amount financed of more than $1,000, it is not more than $10 above or below the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The <I>annual percentage rate,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as “the cost of your credit as a yearly rate.” 
<SU>42</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>42</SU> For any transaction involving a finance charge of $5 or less on an amount financed of $75 or less, or a finance charge of $7.50 or less on an amount financed of more than $75, the creditor need not disclose the annual percentage rate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Variable rate.</I> (1) If the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction not secured by the consumer's principal dwelling or in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term of one year or less, the following disclosures: 
<SU>43</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>43</SU> Information provided in accordance with §§ 226.18(f)(2) and 226.19(b) may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any limitations on the increase.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of an increase.
</P>
<P>(iv) An example of the payment terms that would result from an increase.
</P>
<P>(2) If the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the transaction contains a variable-rate feature.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that variable-rate disclosures have been provided earlier.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payment schedule.</I> Other than for a transaction that is subject to paragraph (s) of this section, the number, amounts, and timing of payments scheduled to repay the obligation.
</P>
<P>(1) In a demand obligation with no alternate maturity date, the creditor may comply with this paragraph by disclosing the due dates or payment periods of any scheduled interest payments for the first year.
</P>
<P>(2) In a transaction in which a series of payments varies because a finance charge is applied to the unpaid principal balance, the creditor may comply with this paragraph by disclosing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar amounts of the largest and smallest payments in the series.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reference to the variations in the other payments in the series.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Total of payments.</I> The <I>total of payments,</I> using that term, and a descriptive explanation such as “the amount you will have paid when you have made all scheduled payments.” 
<SU>44</SU>
<FTREF/>


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>44</SU> In any transaction involving a single payment, the creditor need not disclose the total of payments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) <I>Demand feature.</I> If the obligation has a demand feature, that fact shall be disclosed. When the disclosures are based on an assumed maturity of 1 year as provided in § 226.17(c)(5), that fact shall also be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Total sale price.</I> In a credit sale, the <I>total sale price,</I> using that term, and a descriptive explanation (including the amount of any downpayment) such as “the total price of your purchase on credit, including your downpayment of $____.” The total sale price is the sum of the cash price, the items described in paragraph (b)(2), and the finance charge disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Prepayment.</I> (1) When an obligation includes a finance charge computed from time to time by application of a rate to the unpaid principal balance, a statement indicating whether or not a penalty may be imposed if the obligation is prepaid in full.
</P>
<P>(2) When an obligation includes a finance charge other than the finance charge described in paragraph (k)(1) of this section, a statement indicating whether or not the consumer is entitled to a rebate of any finance charge if the obligation is prepaid in full.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Late payment.</I> Any dollar or percentage charge that may be imposed before maturity due to a late payment, other than a deferral or extension charge.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Security interest.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased as part of the transaction, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Insurance and debt cancellation.</I> The items required by § 226.4(d) in order to exclude certain insurance premiums and debt cancellation fees from the finance charge. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Certain security interest charges.</I> The disclosures required by § 226.4(e) in order to exclude from the finance charge certain fees prescribed by law or certain premiums for insurance in lieu of perfecting a security interest.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Contract reference.</I> A statement that the consumer should refer to the appropriate contract document for information about nonpayment, default, the right to accelerate the maturity of the obligation, and prepayment rebates and penalties. At the creditor's option, the statement may also include a reference to the contract for further information about security interests and, in a residential mortgage transaction, about the creditor's policy regarding assumption of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Assumption policy.</I> In a residential mortgage transaction, a statement whether or not a subsequent purchaser of the dwelling from the consumer may be permitted to assume the remaining obligation on its original terms.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Required deposit.</I> If the creditor requires the consumer to maintain a deposit as a condition of the specific transaction, a statement that the annual percentage rate does not reflect the effect of the required deposit. 
<SU>45</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45</SU> A required deposit need not include, for example: (1) An escrow account for items such as taxes, insurance or repairs; (2) a deposit that earns not less than 5 percent per year; or (3) payments under a Morris Plan.</P></FTNT>
<P>(s) <I>Interest rate and payment summary for mortgage transactions.</I> For a closed-end transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, other than a transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), the creditor shall disclose the following information about the interest rate and payments:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The information in paragraphs (s)(2)-(4) of this section shall be in the form of a table, with no more than five columns, with headings and format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), or H-4(H) in appendix H to this part. The table shall contain only the information required in paragraphs (s)(2)-(4) of this section, shall be placed in a prominent location, and shall be in a minimum 10-point font.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interest rates</I>—(i) <I>Amortizing loans.</I> (A) For a fixed-rate mortgage, the interest rate at consummation.
</P>
<P>(B) For an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The interest rate at consummation and the period of time until the first interest rate adjustment may occur, labeled as the “introductory rate and monthly payment”;
</P>
<P>(<I>2)</I> The maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due and the earliest date on which that rate may apply, labeled as “maximum during first five years”; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maximum interest rate that may apply during the life of the loan and the earliest date on which that rate may apply, labeled as “maximum ever.”
</P>
<P>(C) If the loan provides for payment increases as described in paragraph (s)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the interest rate in effect at the time the first such payment increase is scheduled to occur and the date on which the increase will occur, labeled as “first adjustment” if the loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage or, otherwise, labeled as “first increase.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> For a negative amortization loan—
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate at consummation and, if it will adjust after consummation, the length of time until it will adjust, and the label “introductory” or “intro”;
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum interest rate that could apply when the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments under the terms of the legal obligation;
</P>
<P>(C) If the minimum required payment will increase before the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, the maximum interest rate that could apply at the time of the first payment increase and the date the increase is scheduled to occur; and
</P>
<P>(D) If a second increase in the minimum required payment may occur before the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, the maximum interest rate that could apply at the time of the second payment increase and the date the increase is scheduled to occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Introductory rate disclosure for amortizing adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> For an amortizing adjustable-rate mortgage, if the interest rate at consummation is less than the fully-indexed rate, placed in a box directly beneath the table required by paragraph (s)(1) of this section, in a format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(I) in appendix H to this part—
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate that applies at consummation and the period of time for which it applies;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that, even if market rates do not change, the interest rate will increase at the first adjustment and a designation of the place in sequence of the month or year, as applicable, of such rate adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The fully-indexed rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payments for amortizing loans</I>—(i) <I>Principal and interest payments.</I> If all periodic payments will be applied to accrued interest and principal, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) The corresponding periodic principal and interest payment, labeled as “principal and interest;”
</P>
<P>(B) If the periodic payment may increase without regard to an interest rate adjustment, the payment that corresponds to the first such increase and the earliest date on which the increase could occur;
</P>
<P>(C) If an escrow account will be established, an estimate of the amount of taxes and insurance, including any mortgage insurance, payable with each periodic payment; and
</P>
<P>(D) The sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (s)(3)(i)(A) and (C) of this section or (s)(3)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, as applicable, labeled as “total estimated monthly payment.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interest-only payments.</I> If the loan is an interest-only loan, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section, the corresponding periodic payment and—
</P>
<P>(A) If the payment will be applied to only accrued interest, the amount applied to interest, labeled as “interest payment,” and a statement that none of the payment is being applied to principal;
</P>
<P>(B) If the payment will be applied to accrued interest and principal, an itemization of the amount of the first such payment applied to accrued interest and to principal, labeled as “interest payment” and “principal payment,” respectively;
</P>
<P>(C) The escrow information described in paragraph (s)(3)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The sum of all amounts required to be disclosed under paragraphs (s)(3)(ii)(A) and (C) of this section or (s)(3)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section, as applicable, labeled as “total estimated monthly payment.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payments for negative amortization loans.</I> For negative amortization loans:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The minimum periodic payment required until the first payment increase or interest rate increase, corresponding to the interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum periodic payment that would be due at the first payment increase and the second, if any, corresponding to the interest rates described in paragraphs (s)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the minimum payment pays only some interest, does not repay any principal, and will cause the loan amount to increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fully amortizing periodic payment amount at the earliest time when such a payment must be made, corresponding to the interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicable, in addition to the payments in paragraphs (s)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii) of this section, the amount of the fully amortizing periodic payment, labeled as the “full payment option,” and a statement that these payments pay all principal and all accrued interest.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balloon payments.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (s)(5)(ii) of this section, if the transaction will require a balloon payment, defined as a payment that is more than two times a regular periodic payment, the balloon payment shall be disclosed separately from other periodic payments disclosed in the table under this paragraph (s), outside the table and in a manner substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(J) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the balloon payment is scheduled to occur at the same time as another payment required to be disclosed in the table pursuant to paragraph (s)(3) or (s)(4) of this section, then the balloon payment must be disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Special disclosures for loans with negative amortization.</I> For a negative amortization loan, the following information, in close proximity to the table required in paragraph (s)(1) of this section, with headings, content, and format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(G) in appendix H to this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum interest rate, the shortest period of time in which such interest rate could be reached, the amount of estimated taxes and insurance included in each payment disclosed, and a statement that the loan offers payment options, two of which are shown.
</P>
<P>(ii) The dollar amount of the increase in the loan's principal balance if the consumer makes only the minimum required payments for the maximum possible time and the earliest date on which the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, assuming that the maximum interest rate is reached at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this § 226.18(s):
</P>
<P>(i) The term “adjustable-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling for which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “step-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling for which the interest rate will change after consummation, and the rates that will apply and the periods for which they will apply are known at consummation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “fixed-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling that is not an adjustable-rate mortgage or a step-rate mortgage.
</P>
<P>(iv) The term “interest-only” means that, under the terms of the legal obligation, one or more of the periodic payments may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal; an “interest-only loan” is a loan that permits interest-only payments.
</P>
<P>(v) The term “amortizing loan” means a loan in which payment of the periodic payments does not result in an increase in the principal balance under the terms of the legal obligation; the term “negative amortization” means payment of periodic payments that will result in an increase in the principal balance under the terms of the legal obligation; the term “negative amortization loan” means a loan, other than a reverse mortgage subject to § 226.33, that provides for a minimum periodic payment that covers only a portion of the accrued interest, resulting in negative amortization.
</P>
<P>(vi) The term “fully-indexed rate” means the interest rate calculated using the index value and margin at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>(t) “<I>No-guarantee-to-refinance” statement</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> For a closed-end transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, other than a transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), the creditor shall disclose a statement that there is no guarantee the consumer can refinance the transaction to lower the interest rate or periodic payments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Format.</I> The statement required by paragraph (t)(1) of this section must be in a form substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(K) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981; 46 FR 29246, June 1, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 48670, Dec. 24, 1987; 61 FR 49246, Sept. 19, 1996; 75 FR 58482, Sept. 24, 2010; 75 FR 81841, Dec. 29, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.19" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.19   Certain mortgage and variable-rate transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mortgage transactions subject to RESPA</I>—(1)(i) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> In a mortgage transaction subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) that is secured by the consumer's dwelling, other than a home equity line of credit subject to § 226.5b or mortgage transaction subject to paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the creditor shall make good faith estimates of the disclosures required by § 226.18 and shall deliver or place them in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's written application.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Imposition of fees.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, neither a creditor nor any other person may impose a fee on a consumer in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage transaction subject to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section before the consumer has received the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. If the disclosures are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception to fee restriction.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a fee for obtaining the consumer's credit history before the consumer has received the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, provided the fee is <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable in amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiting periods for early disclosures and corrected disclosures.</I> (i) The creditor shall deliver or place in the mail the good faith estimates required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the annual percentage rate disclosed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section becomes inaccurate, as defined in § 226.22, the creditor shall provide corrected disclosures with all changed terms. The consumer must receive the corrected disclosures no later than three business days before consummation. If the corrected disclosures are mailed to the consumer or delivered to the consumer by means other than delivery in person, the consumer is deemed to have received the corrected disclosures three business days after they are mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> If the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency, the consumer may modify or waive the seven-business-day waiting period or the three-business-day waiting period required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, after receiving the disclosures required by § 226.18. To modify or waive a waiting period, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all the consumers who are primarily liable on the legal obligation. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice.</I> Disclosures made pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall contain the following statement: “You are not required to complete this agreement merely because you have received these disclosures or signed a loan application.” The disclosure required by this paragraph shall be grouped together with the disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Timeshare plans.</I> In a mortgage transaction subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) that is secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53(D)):
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section do not apply;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor shall make good faith estimates of the disclosures required by § 226.18 before consummation, or shall deliver or place them in the mail not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application, whichever is earlier; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the annual percentage rate at the time of consummation varies from the annual percentage rate disclosed under paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section by more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point in a regular transaction or more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point in an irregular transaction, as defined in § 226.22, the creditor shall disclose all the changed terms no later than consummation or settlement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain variable-rate transactions.</I>
<SU>45a</SU>
<FTREF/> If the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, the following disclosures must be provided at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a non-refundable fee, whichever is earlier: 
<SU>45b</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45a</SU> Information provided in accordance with variable-rate regulations of other federal agencies may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45b</SU> Disclosures may be delivered or placed in the mail not later than three business days following receipt of a consumer's application when the application reaches the creditor by telephone, or through an intermediary agent or broker.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The booklet titled <I>Consumer Handbook on Adjustable Rate Mortgages</I> published by the Board and the Federal Home Loan Bank Board, or a suitable substitute.
</P>
<P>(2) A loan program disclosure for each variable-rate program in which the consumer expresses an interest. The following disclosures, as applicable, shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the interest rate, payment, or term of the loan can change.
</P>
<P>(ii) The index or formula used in making adjustments, and a source of information about the index or formula.
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of how the interest rate and payment will be determined, including an explanation of how the index is adjusted, such as by the addition of a margin.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer should ask about the current margin value and current interest rate.
</P>
<P>(v) The fact that the interest rate will be discounted, and a statement that the consumer should ask about the amount of the interest rate discount. 
</P>
<P>(vi) The frequency of interest rate and payment changes. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any rules relating to changes in the index, interest rate, payment amount, and outstanding loan balance including, for example, an explanation of interest rate or payment limitations, negative amortization, and interest rate carryover. 
</P>
<P>(viii) At the option of the creditor, either of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A historical example, based on a $10,000 loan amount, illustrating how payments and the loan balance would have been affected by interest rate changes implemented according to the terms of the loan program disclosure. The example shall reflect the most recent 15 years of index values. The example shall reflect all significant loan program terms, such as negative amortization, interest rate carryover, interest rate discounts, and interest rate and payment limitations, that would have been affected by the index movement during the period.
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum interest rate and payment for a $10,000 loan originated at the initial interest rate (index value plus margin, adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure assuming the maximum periodic increases in rates and payments under the program; and the initial interest rate and payment for that loan and a statement that the periodic payment may increase or decrease substantially depending on changes in the rate.
</P>
<P>(ix) An explanation of how the consumer may calculate the payments for the loan amount to be borrowed based on either:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent payment shown in the historical example in paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(A) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The initial interest rate used to calculate the maximum interest rate and payment in paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) The fact that the loan program contains a demand feature. 
</P>
<P>(xi) The type of information that will be provided in notices of adjustments and the timing of such notices. 
</P>
<P>(xii) A statement that disclosure forms are available for the creditor's other variable-rate loan programs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> For an application that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 52 FR 48670, Dec. 24, 1987; 53 FR 467, Jan. 7, 1988, as amended at 61 FR 49246, Sept. 19, 1996; 62 FR 63443, Dec. 1, 1997; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007; 73 FR 44600, July 30, 2008; 73 FR 44600, July 30, 2008; 74 FR 23301, May 19, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.20" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.20   Subsequent disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Refinancings.</I> A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation that was subject to this subpart is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same consumer. A refinancing is a new transaction requiring new disclosures to the consumer. The new finance charge shall include any unearned portion of the old finance charge that is not credited to the existing obligation. The following shall not be treated as a refinancing:
</P>
<P>(1) A renewal of a single payment obligation with no change in the original terms.
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction in the annual percentage rate with a corresponding change in the payment schedule.
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement involving a court proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) A change in the payment schedule or a change in collateral requirements as a result of the consumer's default or delinquency, unless the rate is increased, or the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid balance plus earned finance charge and premiums for continuation of insurance of the types described in § 226.4(d).
</P>
<P>(5) The renewal of optional insurance purchased by the consumer and added to an existing transaction, if disclosures relating to the initial purchase were provided as required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assumptions.</I> An assumption occurs when a creditor expressly agrees in writing with a subsequent consumer to accept that consumer as a primary obligor on an existing residential mortgage transaction. Before the assumption occurs, the creditor shall make new disclosures to the subsequent consumer, based on the remaining obligation. If the finance charge originally imposed on the existing obligation was an add-on or discount finance charge, the creditor need only disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid balance of the obligation assumed.
</P>
<P>(2) The total charges imposed by the creditor in connection with the assumption.
</P>
<P>(3) The information required to be disclosed under § 226.18(k), (l), (m), and (n). 
</P>
<P>(4) The annual percentage rate originally imposed on the obligation.
</P>
<P>(5) The payment schedule under § 226.18(g) and the total of payments under § 226.18(h) based on the remaining obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Variable-rate adjustments.</I> 
<SU>45c</SU>
<FTREF/> An adjustment to the interest rate with or without a corresponding adjustment to the payment in a variable-rate transaction subject to § 226.19(b) is an event requiring new disclosures to the consumer. At least once each year during which an interest rate adjustment is implemented without an accompanying payment change, and at least 25, but no more than 120, calendar days before a payment at a new level is due, the following disclosures, as applicable, must be delivered or placed in the mail:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45c</SU> Information provided in accordance with variable-rate subsequent disclosure regulations of other federal agencies may be substituted for the disclosure required by paragraph (c) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The current and prior interest rates.
</P>
<P>(2) The index values upon which the current and prior interest rates are based. 
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the creditor has foregone any increase in the interest rate. 
</P>
<P>(4) The contractual effects of the adjustment, including the payment due after the adjustment is made, and a statement of the loan balance. 
</P>
<P>(5) The payment, if different from that referred to in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, that would be required to fully amortize the loan at the new interest rate over the remainder of the loan term.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 52 FR 48671, Dec. 24, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.21   Treatment of credit balances.</HEAD>
<P>When a credit balance in excess of $1 is created in connection with a transaction (through transmittal of funds to a creditor in excess of the total balance due on an account, through rebates of unearned finance charges or insurance premiums, or through amounts otherwise owed to or held for the benefit of a consumer), the creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Credit the amount of the credit balance to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(b) Refund any part of the remaining credit balance, upon the written request of the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(c) Make a good faith effort to refund to the consumer by cash, check, or money order, or credit to a deposit account of the consumer, any part of the credit balance remaining in the account for more than 6 months, except that no further action is required if the consumer's current location is not known to the creditor and cannot be traced through the consumer's last known address or telephone number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.22" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.22   Determination of annual percentage rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accuracy of annual percentage rate.</I> (1) The annual percentage rate is a measure of the cost of credit, expressed as a yearly rate, that relates the amount and timing of value received by the consumer to the amount and timing of payments made. The annual percentage rate shall be determined in accordance with either the actuarial method or the United States Rule method. Explanations, equations and instructions for determining the annual percentage rate in accordance with the actuarial method are set forth in appendix J to this regulation. 
<SU>45d</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>45d</SU> An error in disclosure of the annual percentage rate or finance charge shall not, in itself, be considered a violation of this regulation if: (1) The error resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor; and (2) upon discovery of the error, the creditor promptly discontinues use of that calculation tool for disclosure purposes and notifies the Board in writing of the error in the calculation tool.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) As a general rule, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In an irregular transaction, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
<SU>46</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>46</SU> For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, an irregular transaction is one that includes one or more of the following features: multiple advances, irregular payment periods, or irregular payment amounts (other than an irregular first period or an irregular first or final payment).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) <I>Mortgage loans.</I> If the annual percentage rate disclosed in a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling varies from the actual rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in addition to the tolerances applicable under paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, the disclosed annual percentage rate shall also be considered accurate if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The rate results from the disclosed finance charge; and 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The disclosed finance charge would be considered accurate under § 226.18(d)(1); or 
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of rescission, if the disclosed finance charge would be considered accurate under § 226.23(g) or (h), whichever applies. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional tolerance for mortgage loans.</I> In a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, in addition to the tolerances applicable under paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, if the disclosed finance charge is calculated incorrectly but is considered accurate under § 226.18(d)(1) or § 226.23(g) or (h), the disclosed annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate: 
</P>
<P>(i) If the disclosed finance charge is understated, and the disclosed annual percentage rate is also understated but it is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under paragraph (a)(4) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the disclosed finance charge is overstated, and the disclosed annual percentage rate is also overstated but it is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under paragraph (a)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation tools.</I> (1) The Regulation Z Annual Percentage Rate Tables produced by the Board may be used to determine the annual percentage rate, and any rate determined from those tables in accordance with the accompanying instructions complies with the requirements of this section. Volume I of the tables applies to single advance transactions involving up to 480 monthly payments or 104 weekly payments. It may be used for regular transactions and for transactions with any of the following irregularities: an irregular first period, an irregular first payment, and an irregular final payment. Volume II of the tables applies to transactions involving multiple advances and any type of payment or period irregularity.
</P>
<P>(2) Creditors may use any other computation tool in determining the annual percentage rate if the rate so determined equals the rate determined in accordance with appendix J, within the degree of accuracy set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Single add-on rate transactions.</I> If a single add-on rate is applied to all transactions with maturities up to 60 months and if all payments are equal in amount and period, a single annual percentage rate may be disclosed for all those transactions, so long as it is the highest annual percentage rate for any such transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certain transactions involving ranges of balances.</I> For purposes of disclosing the annual percentage rate referred to in § 226.17(g)(4) (Mail or telephone orders—delay in disclosures) and (h) (Series of sales—delay in disclosures), if the same finance charge is imposed on all balances within a specified range of balances, the annual percentage rate computed for the median balance may be disclosed for all the balances. However, if the annual percentage rate computed for the median balance understates the annual percentage rate computed for the lowest balance by more than 8 percent of the latter rate, the annual percentage rate shall be computed on whatever lower balance will produce an annual percentage rate that does not result in an understatement of more than 8 percent of the rate determined on the lowest balance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 47 FR 756, Jan. 7, 1982; 48 FR 14886, Apr. 6, 1983; 61 FR 49246, Sept. 19, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.23" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.23   Right of rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer's right to rescind.</I> (1) In a credit transaction in which a security interest is or will be retained or acquired in a consumer's principal dwelling, each consumer whose ownership interest is or will be subject to the security interest shall have the right to rescind the transaction, except for transactions described in paragraph (f) of this section. 
<SU>47</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>47</SU> For purposes of this section, the addition to an existing obligation of a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling is a transaction. The right of rescission applies only to the addition of the security interest and not the existing obligation. The creditor shall deliver the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section but need not deliver new material disclosures. Delivery of the required notice shall begin the rescission period.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) To exercise the right to rescind, the consumer shall notify the creditor of the rescission by mail, telegram or other means of written communication. Notice is considered given when mailed, when filed for telegraphic transmission or, if sent by other means, when delivered to the creditor's designated place of business.
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer may exercise the right to rescind until midnight of the third business day following consummation, delivery of the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section, or delivery of all material disclosures, 
<SU>48</SU>
<FTREF/> whichever occurs last. If the required notice or material disclosures are not delivered, the right to rescind shall expire 3 years after consummation, upon transfer of all of the consumer's interest in the property, or upon sale of the property, whichever occurs first. In the case of certain administrative proceedings, the rescission period shall be extended in accordance with section 125(f) of the Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48</SU> The term ‘material disclosures’ means the required disclosures of the annual percentage rate, the finance charge, the amount financed, the total of payments, the payment schedule, and the disclosures and limitations referred to in §§ 226.32(c) and (d) and 226.35(b)(2).</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) When more than one consumer in a transaction has the right to rescind, the exercise of the right by one consumer shall be effective as to all consumers.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Notice of right to rescind.</I> In a transaction subject to rescission, a creditor shall deliver two copies of the notice of the right to rescind to each consumer entitled to rescind (one copy to each if the notice is delivered in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act). The notice shall be on a separate document that identifies the transaction and shall clearly and conspicuously disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The retention or acquisition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer's right to rescind the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) How to exercise the right to rescind, with a form for that purpose, designating the address of the creditor's place of business.
</P>
<P>(iv) The effects of rescission, as described in paragraph (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(v) The date the rescission period expires.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proper form of notice.</I> To satisfy the disclosure requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the creditor shall provide the appropriate model form in appendix H of this part or a substantially similar notice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delay of creditor's performance.</I> Unless a consumer waives the right of rescission under paragraph (e) of this section, no money shall be disbursed other than in escrow, no services shall be performed and no materials delivered until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of rescission.</I> (1) When a consumer rescinds a transaction, the security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void and the consumer shall not be liable for any amount, including any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 20 calendar days after receipt of a notice of rescission, the creditor shall return any money or property that has been given to anyone in connection with the transaction and shall take any action necessary to reflect the termination of the security interest.
</P>
<P>(3) If the creditor has delivered any money or property, the consumer may retain possession until the creditor has met its obligation under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. When the creditor has complied with that paragraph, the consumer shall tender the money or property to the creditor or, where the latter would be impracticable or inequitable, tender its reasonable value. At the consumer's option, tender of property may be made at the location of the property or at the consumer's residence. Tender of money must be made at the creditor's designated place of business. If the creditor does not take possession of the money or property within 20 calendar days after the consumer's tender, the consumer may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures outlined in paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this section may be modified by court order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I> (1) The consumer may modify or waive the right to rescind if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the right to rescind, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to rescind. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited, except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The need of the consumer to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during June through September 1993, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, to be a major disaster area because of severe storms and flooding in the Midwest. 
<SU>48a</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48a</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained by the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The consumer's need to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during June through September 1994 to be a major disaster area, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, because of severe storms and flooding in the South. 
<SU>48b</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48b</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained and published by the Board. Such areas now include parts of Alabama, Florida, and Georgia.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) The consumer's need to obtain funds immediately shall be regarded as a bona fide personal financial emergency provided that the dwelling securing the extension of credit is located in an area declared during October 1994 to be a major disaster area, pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5170, because of severe storms and flooding in Texas. 
<SU>48c</SU>
<FTREF/> In this instance, creditors may use printed forms for the consumer to waive the right to rescind. This exemption to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall expire one year from the date an area was declared a major disaster.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>48c</SU> A list of the affected areas will be maintained and published by the Board. Such areas now include the following counties in Texas: Angelina, Austin, Bastrop, Brazos, Brazoria, Burleson, Chambers, Fayette, Fort Bend, Galveston, Grimes, Hardin, Harris, Houston, Jackson, Jasper, Jefferson, Lee, Liberty, Madison, Matagorda, Montgomery, Nacagdoches, Orange, Polk, San Augustine, San Jacinto, Shelby, Trinity, Victoria, Washington, Waller, Walker, and Wharton.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The right to rescind does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A refinancing or consolidation by the same creditor of an extension of credit already secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. The right of rescission shall apply, however, to the extent the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid principal balance, any earned unpaid finance charge on the existing debt, and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction in which a state agency is a creditor.
</P>
<P>(4) An advance, other than an initial advance, in a series of advances or in a series of single-payment obligations that is treated as a single transaction under § 226.17(c)(6), if the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section and all material disclosures have been given to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(5) A renewal of optional insurance premiums that is not considered a refinancing under § 226.20(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tolerances for accuracy</I>—(1) <I>One-half of 1 percent tolerance.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(2) and (h)(2) of this section, the finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge: 
</P>
<P>(i) is understated by no more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) is greater than the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>One percent tolerance.</I> In a refinancing of a residential mortgage transaction with a new creditor (other than a transaction covered by § 226.32), if there is no new advance and no consolidation of existing loans, the finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge: 
</P>
<P>(i) is understated by no more than 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) is greater than the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special rules for foreclosures</I>—(1) <I>Right to rescind.</I> After the initiation of foreclosure on the consumer's principal dwelling that secures the credit obligation, the consumer shall have the right to rescind the transaction if: 
</P>
<P>(i) A mortgage broker fee that should have been included in the finance charge was not included; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor did not provide the properly completed appropriate model form in appendix H of this part, or a substantially similar notice of rescission. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tolerance for disclosures.</I> After the initiation of foreclosure on the consumer's principal dwelling that secures the credit obligation, the finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge: 
</P>
<P>(i) is understated by no more than $35; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) is greater than the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 51 FR 45299, Dec. 18, 1986; 58 FR 40583, July 29, 1993; 59 FR 40204, Aug. 5, 1994; 59 FR 63715, Dec. 9, 1994; 60 FR 15471, Mar. 24, 1995; 61 FR 49247, Sept. 19, 1996; 66 FR 17338, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007; 73 FR 44601, July 24, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.24" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.3.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.24   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actually available terms.</I> If an advertisement for credit states specific credit terms, it shall state only those terms that actually are or will be arranged or offered by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures required by this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advertisement of rate of finance charge.</I> If an advertisement states a rate of finance charge, it shall state the rate as an “annual percentage rate,” using that term. If the annual percentage rate may be increased after consummation, the advertisement shall state that fact. If an advertisement is for credit not secured by a dwelling, the advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate that is applied to an unpaid balance may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage rate. If an advertisement is for credit secured by a dwelling, the advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate that is applied to an unpaid balance may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Triggering terms.</I> If any of the following terms is set forth in an advertisement, the advertisement shall meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount or percentage of any downpayment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of payments or period of repayment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of any payment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional terms.</I> An advertisement stating any of the terms in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall state the following terms,
<SU>49</SU>
<FTREF/> as applicable (an example of one or more typical extensions of credit with a statement of all the terms applicable to each may be used):
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>49</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The amount or percentage of the downpayment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms of repayment, which reflect the repayment obligations over the full term of the loan, including any balloon payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The “annual percentage rate,” using that term, and, if the rate may be increased after consummation, that fact.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Catalogs or other multiple-page advertisements; electronic advertisements</I>—(1) If a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement, or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), gives information in a table or schedule in sufficient detail to permit determination of the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, it shall be considered a single advertisement if—
</P>
<P>(i) The table or schedule is clearly and conspicuously set forth; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any statement of the credit terms in paragraph (d)(1) of this section appearing anywhere else in the catalog or advertisement clearly refers to the page or location where the table or schedule begins.
</P>
<P>(2) A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the table or schedule of terms includes all appropriate disclosures for a representative scale of amounts up to the level of the more commonly sold higher-priced property or services offered.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of rates and payments in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, other than television or radio advertisements, including promotional materials accompanying applications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of rates</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling states a simple annual rate of interest and more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply over the term of the advertised loan, the advertisement shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(A) Each simple annual rate of interest that will apply. In variable-rate transactions, a rate determined by adding an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin;
</P>
<P>(B) The period of time during which each simple annual rate of interest will apply; and
</P>
<P>(C) The annual percentage rate for the loan. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate shall comply with the accuracy standards in §§ 226.17(c) and 226.22.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear and conspicuous requirement.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, clearly and conspicuously disclosed means that the required information in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(A) through (C) shall be disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to any advertised rate that triggered the required disclosures. The required information in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(C) may be disclosed with greater prominence than the other information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure of payments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, if an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling states the amount of any payment, the advertisement shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of each payment that will apply over the term of the loan, including any balloon payment. In variable-rate transactions, payments that will be determined based on the application of the sum of an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin;
</P>
<P>(B) The period of time during which each payment will apply; and
</P>
<P>(C) In an advertisement for credit secured by a first lien on a dwelling, the fact that the payments do not include amounts for taxes and insurance premiums, if applicable, and that the actual payment obligation will be greater.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear and conspicuous requirement.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in paragraphs (f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) shall be disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to any advertised payment that triggered the required disclosures, and that the required information in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(C) shall be disclosed with prominence and in close proximity to the advertised payments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section do not apply to an envelope in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any of the terms requiring additional disclosures under paragraph (d)(2) of this section may comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section either by:
</P>
<P>(1) Stating clearly and conspicuously each of the additional disclosures required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Stating clearly and conspicuously the information required by paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section and listing a toll-free telephone number, or any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information, along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain additional cost information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tax implications.</I> If an advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) is for a loan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, and the advertisement states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the dwelling, the advertisement shall clearly and conspicuously state that:
</P>
<P>(1) The interest on the portion of the credit extension that is greater than the fair market value of the dwelling is not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer should consult a tax adviser for further information regarding the deductibility of interest and charges.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibited acts or practices in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> The following acts or practices are prohibited in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Misleading advertising of “fixed” rates and payments.</I> Using the word “fixed” to refer to rates, payments, or the credit transaction in an advertisement for variable-rate transactions or other transactions where the payment will increase, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an advertisement solely for one or more variable-rate transactions,
</P>
<P>(A) The phrase “Adjustable-Rate Mortgage,” “Variable-Rate Mortgage,” or “ARM” appears in the advertisement before the first use of the word “fixed” and is at least as conspicuous as any use of the word “fixed” in the advertisement; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each use of the word “fixed” to refer to a rate or payment is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the rate or payment is fixed, and the fact that the rate may vary or the payment may increase after that period;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an advertisement solely for non-variable-rate transactions where the payment will increase (<I>e.g.</I>, a stepped-rate mortgage transaction with an initial lower payment), each use of the word “fixed” to refer to the payment is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the payment is fixed, and the fact that the payment will increase after that period; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of an advertisement for both variable-rate transactions and non-variable-rate transactions,
</P>
<P>(A) The phrase “Adjustable-Rate Mortgage,” “Variable-Rate Mortgage,” or “ARM” appears in the advertisement with equal prominence as any use of the term “fixed,” “Fixed-Rate Mortgage,” or similar terms; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each use of the word “fixed” to refer to a rate, payment, or the credit transaction either refers solely to the transactions for which rates are fixed and complies with paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, if applicable, or, if it refers to the variable-rate transactions, is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the rate or payment is fixed, and the fact that the rate may vary or the payment may increase after that period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Misleading comparisons in advertisements.</I> Making any comparison in an advertisement between actual or hypothetical credit payments or rates and any payment or simple annual rate that will be available under the advertised product for a period less than the full term of the loan, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> The advertisement includes a clear and conspicuous comparison to the information required to be disclosed under sections 226.24(f)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to variable-rate transactions.</I> If the advertisement is for a variable-rate transaction, and the advertised payment or simple annual rate is based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent rate or payment adjustments over the term of the loan, the advertisement includes an equally prominent statement in close proximity to the payment or rate that the payment or rate is subject to adjustment and the time period when the first adjustment will occur.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Misrepresentations about government endorsement.</I> Making any statement in an advertisement that the product offered is a “government loan program”, “government-supported loan”, or is otherwise endorsed or sponsored by any federal, state, or local government entity, unless the advertisement is for an FHA loan, VA loan, or similar loan program that is, in fact, endorsed or sponsored by a federal, state, or local government entity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Misleading use of the current lender's name.</I> Using the name of the consumer's current lender in an advertisement that is not sent by or on behalf of the consumer's current lender, unless the advertisement:
</P>
<P>(i) Discloses with equal prominence the name of the person or creditor making the advertisement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes a clear and conspicuous statement that the person making the advertisement is not associated with, or acting on behalf of, the consumer's current lender.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Misleading claims of debt elimination.</I> Making any misleading claim in an advertisement that the mortgage product offered will eliminate debt or result in a waiver or forgiveness of a consumer's existing loan terms with, or obligations to, another creditor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Misleading use of the term “counselor”.</I> Using the term “counselor” in an advertisement to refer to a for-profit mortgage broker or mortgage creditor, its employees, or persons working for the broker or creditor that are involved in offering, originating or selling mortgages.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Misleading foreign-language advertisements.</I> Providing information about some trigger terms or required disclosures, such as an initial rate or payment, only in a foreign language in an advertisement, but providing information about other trigger terms or required disclosures, such as information about the fully-indexed rate or fully amortizing payment, only in English in the same advertisement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 66 FR 17338, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63474, Nov. 9, 2007; 73 FR 44601, July 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.25" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.25   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor shall retain evidence of compliance with this regulation (other than advertising requirements under §§ 226.16 and 226.24) for 2 years after the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. The administrative agencies responsible for enforcing the regulation may require creditors under their jurisdictions to retain records for a longer period if necessary to carry out their enforcement responsibilities under section 108 of the act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection of records.</I> A creditor shall permit the agency responsible for enforcing this regulation with respect to that creditor to inspect its relevant records for compliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.26" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.26   Use of annual percentage rate in oral disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Open-end credit.</I> In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about the cost of open-end credit, only the annual percentage rate or rates shall be stated, except that the periodic rate or rates also may be stated. If the annual percentage rate cannot be determined in advance because there are finance charges other than a periodic rate, the corresponding annual percentage rate shall be stated, and other cost information may be given.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about the cost of closed-end credit, only the annual percentage rate shall be stated, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate also may be stated if it is applied to an unpaid balance. If the annual percentage rate cannot be determined in advance, the annual percentage rate for a sample transaction shall be stated, and other cost information for the consumer's specific transaction may be given.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.27" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.27   Language of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>Disclosures required by this regulation may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request. This requirement for providing English disclosures on request does not apply to advertisements subject to §§ 226.16 and 226.24.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 17339, Mar. 30, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.28" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.28   Effect on State laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent disclosure requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements contained in chapter 1 (General Provisions), chapter 2 (Credit Transactions), or chapter 3 (Credit Advertising) of the act and the implementing provisions of this regulation are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. A State law is inconsistent if it requires a creditor to make disclosures or take actions that contradict the requirements of the Federal law. A State law is contradictory if it requires the use of the same term to represent a different amount or a different meaning than the Federal law, or if it requires the use of a term different from that required in the Federal law to describe the same item. A creditor, State, or other interested party may request the Board to determine whether a State law requirement is inconsistent. After the Board determines that a State law is inconsistent, a creditor may not make disclosures using the inconsistent term or form.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) State law requirements are inconsistent with the requirements contained in sections 161 (Correction of billing errors) or 162 (Regulation of credit reports) of the Act and the implementing provisions of this regulation and are preempted if they provide rights, responsibilities, or procedures for consumers or creditors that are different from those required by the Federal law. However, a State law that allows a consumer to inquire about an open-end credit account and imposes on the creditor an obligation to respond to such inquiry after the time allowed in the Federal law for the consumer to submit written notice of a billing error shall not be preempted in any situation where the time period for making written notice under this regulation has expired. If a creditor gives written notice of a consumer's rights under such State law, the notice shall state that reliance on the longer time period available under State law may result in the loss of important rights that could be preserved by acting more promptly under Federal law; it shall also explain that the State law provisions apply only after expiration of the time period for submitting a proper written notice of a billing error under the Federal law. If the State disclosures are made on the same side of a page as the required Federal disclosures, the State disclosures shall appear under a demarcation line below the Federal disclosures, and the Federal disclosures shall be identified by a heading indicating that they are made in compliance with Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ii) State law requirements are inconsistent with the requirements contained in chapter 4 (Credit billing) of the Act (other than section 161 or 162) and the implementing provisions of this regulation and are preempted if the creditor cannot comply with State law without violating Federal law.
</P>
<P>(iii) A State may request the Board to determine whether its law is inconsistent with chapter 4 of the Act and its implementing provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equivalent disclosure requirements.</I> If the Board determines that a disclosure required by state law (other than a requirement relating to the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or the disclosures required under § 226.32) is substantially the same in meaning as a disclosure required under the act or this regulation, creditors in that state may make the state disclosure in lieu of the federal disclosure. A creditor, State, or other interested party may request the Board to determine whether a State disclosure is substantially the same in meaning as a Federal disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for determination.</I> The procedures under which a request for a determination may be made under this section are set forth in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for credit and charge cards.</I> State law requirements relating to the disclosure of credit information in any credit or charge card application or solicitation that is subject to the requirements of section 127(c) of chapter 2 of the act (§ 226.5a of the regulation) or in any renewal notice for a credit or charge card that is subject to the requirements of section 127(d) of chapter 2 of the act (§ 226.9(e) of the regulation) are preempted. State laws relating to the enforcement of section 127 (c) and (d) of the act are not preempted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 13867, Apr. 6, 1989; 54 FR 32954, Aug. 11, 1989; 60 FR 15471, Mar. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.29" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.29   State exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any State may apply to the Board to exempt a class of transactions within the State from the requirements of chapter 2 (Credit transactions) or chapter 4 (Credit billing) of the Act and the corresponding provisions of this regulation. The Board shall grant an exemption if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The State law is substantially similar to the Federal law or, in the case of chapter 4, affords the consumer greater protection than the Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is adequate provision for enforcement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil liability.</I> (1) No exemptions granted under this section shall extend to the civil liability provisions of sections 130 and 131 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) If an exemption has been granted, the disclosures required by the applicable State law (except any additional requirements not imposed by Federal law) shall constitute the disclosures required by this Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications.</I> The procedures under which a State may apply for an exemption under this section are set forth in appendix B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981; 46 FR 29246, June 1, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.30" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.4.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.30   Limitation on rates.</HEAD>
<P>A creditor shall include in any consumer credit contract secured by a dwelling and subject to the act and this regulation the maximum interest rate that may be imposed during the term of the obligation 
<SU>50</SU>
<FTREF/> when:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>50</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) In the case of closed-end credit, the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation, or
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of open-end credit, the annual percentage rate may increase during the plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Special Rules for Certain Home Mortgage Transactions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Z, 60 FR 15471, Mar. 24, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 226.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.31   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relation to other subparts in this part.</I> The requirements and limitations of this subpart are in addition to and not in lieu of those contained in other subparts of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. § 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Disclosures for certain closed-end home mortgages.</I> The creditor shall furnish the disclosures required by § 226.32 at least three business days prior to consummation of a mortgage transaction covered by § 226.32. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Change in terms.</I> After complying with paragraph (c)(1) of this section and prior to consummation, if the creditor changes any term that makes the disclosures inaccurate, new disclosures shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Telephone disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide new disclosures by telephone if the consumer initiates the change and if, at consummation: 
</P>
<P>(A) The creditor provides new written disclosures; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer and creditor sign a statement that the new disclosures were provided by telephone at least three days prior to consummation. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> The consumer may, after receiving the disclosures required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section, modify or waive the three-day waiting period between delivery of those disclosures and consummation if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to the waiting period. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited, except when creditors are permitted to use printed forms pursuant to § 226.23(e)(2). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures for reverse mortgages.</I> The creditor shall furnish the disclosures required by § 226.33 at least three business days prior to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Consummation of a closed-end credit transaction; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The first transaction under an open-end credit plan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates</I>—(1) <I>Legal Obligation.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimates.</I> If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Per-diem interest.</I> For a transaction in which a portion of the interest is determined on a per-diem basis and collected at consummation, any disclosure affected by the per-diem interest shall be considered accurate if the disclosure is based on the information known to the creditor at the time that the disclosure documents are prepared. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation. If the transaction is rescindable under § 226.15 or § 226.23, however, the disclosures shall be made to each consumer who has the right to rescind. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), although new disclosures may be required for mortgages covered by § 226.32 under paragraph (c) of this section, § 226.9(c), § 226.19, or § 226.20. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Accuracy of annual percentage rate.</I> For purposes of § 226.32, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate, and may be used in determining whether a transaction is covered by § 226.32, if it is accurate according to the requirements and within the tolerances under § 226.22. The finance charge tolerances for rescission under § 226.23(g) or (h) shall not apply for this purpose. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 60 FR 15471, Mar. 24, 1995, as amended at 60 FR 29969, June 7, 1995; 61 FR 49247, Sept. 19, 1996; 66 FR 17339, Mar. 30, 2001; 72 FR 63475, Nov. 9, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.32" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.32   Requirements for certain closed-end home mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the requirements of this section apply to a consumer credit transaction that is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, and in which either: 
</P>
<P>(i) The annual percentage rate at consummation will exceed by more than 8 percentage points for first-lien loans, or by more than 10 percentage points for subordinate-lien loans, the yield on Treasury securities having comparable periods of maturity to the loan maturity as of the fifteenth day of the month immediately preceding the month in which the application for the extension of credit is received by the creditor; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total points and fees payable by the consumer at or before loan closing will exceed the greater of 8 percent of the total loan amount, or $400; the $400 figure shall be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index that was reported on the preceding June 1. 
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply to the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A residential mortgage transaction. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 226.33. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An open-end credit plan subject to subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, <I>points and fees</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) All items required to be disclosed under § 226.4(a) and 226.4(b), except interest or the time-price differential; 
</P>
<P>(ii) All compensation paid to mortgage brokers; 
</P>
<P>(iii) All items listed in § 226.4(c)(7) (other than amounts held for future payment of taxes) unless the charge is reasonable, the creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation in connection with the charge, and the charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Premiums or other charges for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, or debt-cancellation coverage (whether or not the debt-cancellation coverage is insurance under applicable law) that provides for cancellation of all or part of the consumer's liability in the event of the loss of life, health, or income or in the case of accident, written in connection with the credit transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to other disclosures required by this part, in a mortgage subject to this section, the creditor shall disclose the following in conspicuous type size: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notices.</I> The following statement: “You are not required to complete this agreement merely because you have received these disclosures or have signed a loan application. If you obtain this loan, the lender will have a mortgage on your home. You could lose your home, and any money you have put into it, if you do not meet your obligations under the loan.” 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The annual percentage rate. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regular payment; balloon payment.</I> The amount of the regular monthly (or other periodic) payment and the amount of any balloon payment. The regular payment disclosed under this paragraph shall be treated as accurate if it is based on an amount borrowed that is deemed accurate and is disclosed under paragraph (c)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Variable-rate.</I> For variable-rate transactions, a statement that the interest rate and monthly payment may increase, and the amount of the single maximum monthly payment, based on the maximum interest rate required to be disclosed under § 226.30. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Amount borrowed.</I> For a mortgage refinancing, the total amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected by the face amount of the note; and where the amount borrowed includes premiums or other charges for optional credit insurance or debt-cancellation coverage, that fact shall be stated, grouped together with the disclosure of the amount borrowed. The disclosure of the amount borrowed shall be treated as accurate if it is not more than $100 above or below the amount required to be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> A mortgage transaction subject to this section shall not include the following terms: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Balloon payment.</I> For a loan with a term of less than five years, a payment schedule with regular periodic payments that when aggregated do not fully amortize the outstanding principal balance. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The limitations in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section do not apply to loans with maturities of less than one year, if the purpose of the loan is a “bridge” loan connected with the acquisition or construction of a dwelling intended to become the consumer's principal dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Negative amortization.</I> A payment schedule with regular periodic payments that cause the principal balance to increase. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advance payments.</I> A payment schedule that consolidates more than two periodic payments and pays them in advance from the proceeds. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Increased interest rate.</I> An increase in the interest rate after default. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rebates.</I> A refund calculated by a method less favorable than the actuarial method (as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d)), for rebates of interest arising from a loan acceleration due to default. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> Except as allowed under paragraph (d)(7) of this section, a penalty for paying all or part of the principal before the date on which the principal is due. A prepayment penalty includes computing a refund of unearned interest by a method that is less favorable to the consumer than the actuarial method, as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prepayment penalty exception.</I> A mortgage transaction subject to this section may provide for a prepayment penalty (including a refund calculated according to the rule of 78s) otherwise permitted by law if, under the terms of the loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The penalty will not apply after the two-year period following consummation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or an affiliate of the creditor;
</P>
<P>(iii) At consummation, the consumer's total monthly debt payments (including amounts owed under the mortgage) do not exceed 50 percent of the consumer's monthly gross income, as verified in accordance with § 226.34(a)(4)(ii); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of the periodic payment of principal or interest or both may not change during the four-year period following consummation. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Due-on-demand clause.</I> A demand feature that permits the creditor to terminate the loan in advance of the original maturity date and to demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance, except in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) There is fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the loan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement for any outstanding balance; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) There is any action or inaction by the consumer that adversely affects the creditor's security for the loan, or any right of the creditor in such security. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 60 FR 15472, Mar. 24, 1995, as amended at 60 FR 29969, June 7, 1995; 66 FR 65617, Dec. 20, 2001; 73 FR 44602, July 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.33" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.33   Requirements for reverse mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this subpart, <I>reverse mortgage transaction</I> means a nonrecourse consumer credit obligation in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) A mortgage, deed of trust, or equivalent consensual security interest securing one or more advances is created in the consumer's principal dwelling; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any principal, interest, or shared appreciation or equity is due and payable (other than in the case of default) only after: 
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer dies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The dwelling is transferred; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer ceases to occupy the dwelling as a principal dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> In addition to other disclosures required by this part, in a reverse mortgage transaction the creditor shall provide the following disclosures in a form substantially similar to the model form found in paragraph (d) of appendix K of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice.</I> A statement that the consumer is not obligated to complete the reverse mortgage transaction merely because the consumer has received the disclosures required by this section or has signed an application for a reverse mortgage loan. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total annual loan cost rates.</I> A good-faith projection of the total cost of the credit, determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and expressed as a table of “total annual loan cost rates,” using that term, in accordance with appendix K of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Itemization of pertinent information.</I> An itemization of loan terms, charges, the age of the youngest borrower and the appraised property value. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Explanation of table.</I> An explanation of the table of total annual loan cost rates as provided in the model form found in paragraph (d) of appendix K of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Projected total cost of credit.</I> The projected total cost of credit shall reflect the following factors, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Costs to consumer.</I> All costs and charges to the consumer, including the costs of any annuity the consumer purchases as part of the reverse mortgage transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments to consumer.</I> All advances to and for the benefit of the consumer, including annuity payments that the consumer will receive from an annuity that the consumer purchases as part of the reverse mortgage transaction. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional creditor compensation.</I> Any shared appreciation or equity in the dwelling that the creditor is entitled by contract to receive. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on consumer liability.</I> Any limitation on the consumer's liability (such as nonrecourse limits and equity conservation agreements). 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assumed annual appreciation rates.</I> Each of the following assumed annual appreciation rates for the dwelling: 
</P>
<P>(i) 0 percent. 
</P>
<P>(ii) 4 percent. 
</P>
<P>(iii) 8 percent. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assumed loan period.</I> (i) Each of the following assumed loan periods, as provided in appendix L of this part: 
</P>
<P>(A) Two years. 
</P>
<P>(B) The actuarial life expectancy of the consumer to become obligated on the reverse mortgage transaction (as of that consumer's most recent birthday). In the case of multiple consumers, the period shall be the actuarial life expectancy of the youngest consumer (as of that consumer's most recent birthday). 
</P>
<P>(C) The actuarial life expectancy specified by paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) of this section, multiplied by a factor of 1.4 and rounded to the nearest full year.
</P>
<P>(ii) At the creditor's option, the actuarial life expectancy specified by paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) of this section, multiplied by a factor of .5 and rounded to the nearest full year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.34" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.34   Prohibited acts or practices in connection with credit subject to § 226.32.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited acts or practices for loans subject to § 226.32.</I> A creditor extending mortgage credit subject to § 226.32 shall not—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Home improvement contracts.</I> Pay a contractor under a home improvement contract from the proceeds of a mortgage covered by § 226.32, other than: 
</P>
<P>(i) By an instrument payable to the consumer or jointly to the consumer and the contractor; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) At the election of the consumer, through a third-party escrow agent in accordance with terms established in a written agreement signed by the consumer, the creditor, and the contractor prior to the disbursement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to assignee.</I> Sell or otherwise assign a mortgage subject to § 226.32 without furnishing the following statement to the purchaser or assignee: “Notice: This is a mortgage subject to special rules under the federal Truth in Lending Act. Purchasers or assignees of this mortgage could be liable for all claims and defenses with respect to the mortgage that the borrower could assert against the creditor.” 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refinancings within one-year period.</I> Within one year of having extended credit subject to § 226.32, refinance any loan subject to § 226.32 to the same borrower into another loan subject to § 226.32, unless the refinancing is in the borrower's interest. An assignee holding or servicing an extension of mortgage credit subject to § 226.32, shall not, for the remainder of the one-year period following the date of origination of the credit, refinance any loan subject to § 226.32 to the same borrower into another loan subject to § 226.32, unless the refinancing is in the borrower's interest. A creditor (or assignee) is prohibited from engaging in acts or practices to evade this provision, including a pattern or practice of arranging for the refinancing of its own loans by affiliated or unaffiliated creditors, or modifying a loan agreement (whether or not the existing loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan) and charging a fee. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repayment ability.</I> Extend credit subject to § 226.32 to a consumer based on the value of the consumer's collateral without regard to the consumer's repayment ability as of consummation, including the consumer's current and reasonably expected income, employment, assets other than the collateral, current obligations, and mortgage-related obligations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mortgage-related obligations.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(4), mortgage-related obligations are expected property taxes, premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor as set forth in § 226.35(b)(3)(i), and similar expenses.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Verification of repayment ability.</I> Under this paragraph (a)(4) a creditor must verify the consumer's repayment ability as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) A creditor must verify amounts of income or assets that it relies on to determine repayment ability, including expected income or assets, by the consumer's Internal Revenue Service Form W-2, tax returns, payroll receipts, financial institution records, or other third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets.
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A), a creditor has not violated paragraph (a)(4)(ii) if the amounts of income and assets that the creditor relied upon in determining repayment ability are not materially greater than the amounts of the consumer's income or assets that the creditor could have verified pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) at the time the loan was consummated.
</P>
<P>(C) A creditor must verify the consumer's current obligations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Presumption of compliance.</I> A creditor is presumed to have complied with this paragraph (a)(4) with respect to a transaction if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(A) Verifies the consumer's repayment ability as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii);
</P>
<P>(B) Determines the consumer's repayment ability using the largest payment of principal and interest scheduled in the first seven years following consummation and taking into account current obligations and mortgage-related obligations as defined in paragraph (a)(4)(i); and
</P>
<P>(C) Assesses the consumer's repayment ability taking into account at least one of the following: The ratio of total debt obligations to income, or the income the consumer will have after paying debt obligations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exclusions from presumption of compliance.</I> Notwithstanding the previous paragraph, no presumption of compliance is available for a transaction for which:
</P>
<P>(A) The regular periodic payments for the first seven years would cause the principal balance to increase; or
</P>
<P>(B) The term of the loan is less than seven years and the regular periodic payments when aggregated do not fully amortize the outstanding principal balance.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exemption.</I> This paragraph (a)(4) does not apply to temporary or “bridge” loans with terms of twelve months or less, such as a loan to purchase a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within twelve months. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited acts or practices for dwelling-secured loans; open-end credit.</I> In connection with credit secured by the consumer's dwelling that does not meet the definition in § 226.2(a)(20), a creditor shall not structure a home-secured loan as an open-end plan to evade the requirements of § 226.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 66 FR 65618, Dec. 20, 2001, as amended at 73 FR 44603, July 30, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.35" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.35   Prohibited acts or practices in connection with higher-priced mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Higher-priced mortgage loans</I>—(1) For purposes of this section, except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, a higher-priced mortgage loan is a consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by 1.5 or more percentage points for loans secured by a first lien on a dwelling, or by 3.5 or more percentage points for loans secured by a subordinate lien on a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(2) “Average prime offer rate” means an annual percentage rate that is derived from average interest rates, points, and other loan pricing terms currently offered to consumers by a representative sample of creditors for mortgage transactions that have low-risk pricing characteristics. The Board publishes average prime offer rates for a broad range of types of transactions in a table updated at least weekly as well as the methodology the Board uses to derive these rates.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the term “higher-priced mortgage loan” does not include a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling, a temporary or “bridge” loan with a term of twelve months or less, such as a loan to purchase a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within twelve months, a reverse-mortgage transaction subject to § 226.33, or a home equity line of credit subject to § 226.5b.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules for higher-priced mortgage loans.</I> Higher-priced mortgage loans are subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Repayment ability.</I> A creditor shall not extend credit based on the value of the consumer's collateral without regard to the consumer's repayment ability as of consummation as provided in § 226.34(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> A loan may not include a penalty described by § 226.32(d)(6) unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The penalty is otherwise permitted by law, including § 226.32(d)(7) if the loan is a mortgage transaction described in § 226.32(a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the terms of the loan—
</P>
<P>(A) The penalty will not apply after the two-year period following consummation;
</P>
<P>(B) The penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or an affiliate of the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the periodic payment of principal or interest or both may not change during the four-year period following consummation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Escrows</I>—(i) <I>Failure to escrow for property taxes and insurance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a creditor may not extend a loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling unless an escrow account is established before consummation for payment of property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor, such as insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of the property, or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exemptions for loans secured by shares in a cooperative and for certain condominium units</I>—(A) Escrow accounts need not be established for loans secured by shares in a cooperative; and
</P>
<P>(B) Insurance premiums described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section need not be included in escrow accounts for loans secured by condominium units, where the condominium association has an obligation to the condominium unit owners to maintain a master policy insuring condominium units.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Cancellation.</I> A creditor or servicer may permit a consumer to cancel the escrow account required in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section only in response to a consumer's dated written request to cancel the escrow account that is received no earlier than 365 days after consummation.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Definition of escrow account.</I> For purposes of this section, “escrow account” shall have the same meaning as in 24 CFR 3500.17(b) as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>“Jumbo” loans.</I> For purposes of this § 226.35(b)(3), for a transaction with a principal obligation at consummation that exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac, the coverage threshold set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section for loans secured by a first lien on a dwelling shall be 2.5 or more percentage points greater than the applicable average prime offer rate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Evasion; open-end credit.</I> In connection with credit secured by a consumer's principal dwelling that does not meet the definition of open-end credit in § 226.2(a)(20), a creditor shall not structure a home-secured loan as an open-end plan to evade the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 73 FR 44603, July 30, 2008, as amended at 76 FR 11324, Mar. 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.36" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.36   Prohibited acts or practices in connection with credit secured by a dwelling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loan originator and mortgage broker defined</I>—(1) <I>Loan originator.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “loan originator” means with respect to a particular transaction, a person who for compensation or other monetary gain, or in expectation of compensation or other monetary gain, arranges, negotiates, or otherwise obtains an extension of consumer credit for another person. The term “loan originator” includes an employee of the creditor if the employee meets this definition. The term “loan originator” includes the creditor only if the creditor does not provide the funds for the transaction at consummation out of the creditor's own resources, including drawing on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit, or out of deposits held by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mortgage broker.</I> For purposes of this section, a mortgage broker with respect to a particular transaction is any loan originator that is not an employee of the creditor.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Servicing practices.</I> (1) In connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling, no servicer shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Fail to credit a payment to the consumer's loan account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in any charge to the consumer or in the reporting of negative information to a consumer reporting agency, or except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose on the consumer any late fee or delinquency charge in connection with a payment, when the only delinquency is attributable to late fees or delinquency charges assessed on an earlier payment, and the payment is otherwise a full payment for the applicable period and is paid on its due date or within any applicable grace period; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Fail to provide, within a reasonable time after receiving a request from the consumer or any person acting on behalf of the consumer, an accurate statement of the total outstanding balance that would be required to satisfy the consumer's obligation in full as of a specified date.
</P>
<P>(2) If a servicer specifies in writing requirements for the consumer to follow in making payments, but accepts a payment that does not conform to the requirements, the servicer shall credit the payment as of 5 days after receipt.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this paragraph (c), the terms “servicer” and “servicing” have the same meanings as provided in 24 CFR 3500.2(b), as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited payments to loan originators</I>—(1) <I>Payments based on transaction terms or conditions.</I> (i) In connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, no loan originator shall receive and no person shall pay to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, compensation in an amount that is based on any of the transaction's terms or conditions.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (d)(1), the amount of credit extended is not deemed to be a transaction term or condition, provided compensation received by or paid to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, is based on a fixed percentage of the amount of credit extended; however, such compensation may be subject to a minimum or maximum dollar amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) This paragraph (d)(1) shall not apply to any transaction in which paragraph (d)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments by persons other than consumer.</I> If any loan originator receives compensation directly from a consumer in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling:
</P>
<P>(i) No loan originator shall receive compensation, directly or indirectly, from any person other than the consumer in connection with the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No person who knows or has reason to know of the consumer-paid compensation to the loan originator (other than the consumer) shall pay any compensation to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), affiliates shall be treated as a single “person.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on steering</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, a loan originator shall not direct or “steer” a consumer to consummate a transaction based on the fact that the originator will receive greater compensation from the creditor in that transaction than in other transactions the originator offered or could have offered to the consumer, unless the consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible transactions.</I> A transaction does not violate paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the consumer is presented with loan options that meet the conditions in paragraph (e)(3) of this section for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term “type of transaction” refers to whether:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan has an annual percentage rate that cannot increase after consummation;
</P>
<P>(ii) A loan has an annual percentage rate that may increase after consummation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A loan is a reverse mortgage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan options presented.</I> A transaction satisfies paragraph (e)(2) of this section only if the loan originator presents the loan options required by that paragraph and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan originator must obtain loan options from a significant number of the creditors with which the originator regularly does business and, for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest, must present the consumer with loan options that include:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan with the lowest interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan with the lowest interest rate without negative amortization, a prepayment penalty, interest-only payments, a balloon payment in the first 7 years of the life of the loan, a demand feature, shared equity, or shared appreciation; or, in the case of a reverse mortgage, a loan without a prepayment penalty, or shared equity or shared appreciation; and
</P>
<P>(C) The loan with the lowest total dollar amount for origination points or fees and discount points.
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan originator must have a good faith belief that the options presented to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section are loans for which the consumer likely qualifies.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each type of transaction, if the originator presents to the consumer more than three loans, the originator must highlight the loans that satisfy the criteria specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of loan options presented.</I> The loan originator can present fewer than three loans and satisfy paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3)(i) of this section if the loan(s) presented to the consumer satisfy the criteria of the options in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section and the provisions of paragraph (e)(3) of this section are otherwise met.
</P>
<P>(f) This section does not apply to a home-equity line of credit subject to § 226.5b. Section 226.36(d) and (e) do not apply to a loan that is secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 44604, July 30, 2008, as amended at 75 FR 58533, Sept. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 226.37-226.38" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 226.37-226.38   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.39" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.39   Mortgage transfer disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The disclosure requirements of this section apply to any covered person except as otherwise provided in this section. For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A “<I>covered person”</I> means any person, as defined in § 226.2(a)(22), that becomes the owner of an existing mortgage loan by acquiring legal title to the debt obligation, whether through a purchase, assignment or other transfer, and who acquires more than one mortgage loan in any twelve-month period. For purposes of this section, a servicer of a mortgage loan shall not be treated as the owner of the obligation if the servicer holds title to the loan, or title is assigned to the servicer, solely for the administrative convenience of the servicer in servicing the obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) A “<I>mortgage loan”</I> means any consumer credit transaction that is secured by the principal dwelling of a consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each covered person is subject to the requirements of this section and shall mail or deliver the disclosures required by this section to the consumer on or before the 30th calendar day following the date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall be provided clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The date of transfer.</I> For purposes of this section, the date of transfer to the covered person may, at the covered person's option, be either the date of acquisition recognized in the books and records of the acquiring party, or the date of transfer recognized in the books and records of the transferring party.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multiple consumers.</I> If more than one consumer is liable on the obligation, a covered person may mail or deliver the disclosures to any consumer who is primarily liable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple transfers.</I> If a mortgage loan is acquired by a covered person and subsequently sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another covered person, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple covered persons.</I> If an acquisition involves multiple covered persons who jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered person is not subject to the requirements of this section with respect to a particular mortgage loan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered person sells, or otherwise transfers or assigns legal title to the mortgage loan on or before the 30th calendar day following the date that the covered person acquired the mortgage loan which shall be the date of transfer recognized for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The mortgage loan is transferred to the covered person in connection with a repurchase agreement that obligates the transferor to repurchase the loan. However, if the transferor does not repurchase the loan, the covered person must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered person acquires only a partial interest in the loan and the party authorized to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan does not change as a result of the transfer of the partial interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of required disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall identify the loan that was sold, assigned or otherwise transferred, and state the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the covered person.
</P>
<P>(i) If a single disclosure is provided on behalf of more than one covered person, the information required by this paragraph shall be provided for each of them unless paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a single disclosure is provided on behalf of more than one covered person and one of them has been authorized in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan, the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be provided only for that covered person.
</P>
<P>(2) The date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address and telephone number of an agent or party authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. However, no information is required to be provided under this paragraph if the consumer can use the information provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Where transfer of ownership of the debt to the covered person is or may be recorded in public records, or, alternatively, that the transfer of ownership has not been recorded in public records at the time the disclosure is provided.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Optional disclosures.</I> In addition to the information required to be disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section, a covered person may, at its option, provide any other information regarding the transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 58501, Sept. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 226.40-226.41" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 226.40-226.41   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.42   Valuation independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) “Covered person” means a creditor with respect to a covered transaction or a person that provides “settlement services,” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2602(3) and implementing regulations, in connection with a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) “Covered transaction” means an extension of consumer credit that is or will be secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, as defined in § 226.2(a)(19).
</P>
<P>(3) “Valuation” means an estimate of the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in written or electronic form, other than one produced solely by an automated model or system.
</P>
<P>(4) “Valuation management functions” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Recruiting, selecting, or retaining a person to prepare a valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contracting with or employing a person to prepare a valuation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Managing or overseeing the process of preparing a valuation, including by providing administrative services such as receiving orders for and receiving a valuation, submitting a completed valuation to creditors and underwriters, collecting fees from creditors and underwriters for services provided in connection with a valuation, and compensating a person that prepares valuations; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Reviewing or verifying the work of a person that prepares valuations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Valuation of consumer's principal dwelling</I>—(1) <I>Coercion.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall or shall attempt to directly or indirectly cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on any factor other than the independent judgment of a person that prepares valuations, through coercion, extortion, inducement, bribery, or intimidation of, compensation or instruction to, or collusion with a person that prepares valuations or performs valuation management functions.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of actions that violate paragraph (c)(1) include:
</P>
<P>(A) Seeking to influence a person that prepares a valuation to report a minimum or maximum value for the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(B) Withholding or threatening to withhold timely payment to a person that prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions because the person does not value the consumer's principal dwelling at or above a certain amount;
</P>
<P>(C) Implying to a person that prepares valuations that current or future retention of the person depends on the amount at which the person estimates the value of the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(D) Excluding a person that prepares a valuation from consideration for future engagement because the person reports a value for the consumer's principal dwelling that does not meet or exceed a predetermined threshold; and
</P>
<P>(E) Conditioning the compensation paid to a person that prepares a valuation on consummation of the covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mischaracterization of value</I>—(i) <I>Misrepresentation.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no person that prepares valuations shall materially misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation. A misrepresentation is material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(i) if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling. A <I>bona fide</I> error shall not be a misrepresentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Falsification or alteration.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall falsify and no covered person other than a person that prepares valuations shall materially alter a valuation. An alteration is material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inducement of mischaracterization.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall induce a person to violate paragraph (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permitted actions.</I> Examples of actions that do not violate paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) include:
</P>
<P>(i) Asking a person that prepares a valuation to consider additional, appropriate property information, including information about comparable properties, to make or support a valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesting that a person that prepares a valuation provide further detail, substantiation, or explanation for the person's conclusion about the value of the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(iii) Asking a person that prepares a valuation to correct errors in the valuation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtaining multiple valuations for the consumer's principal dwelling to select the most reliable valuation;
</P>
<P>(v) Withholding compensation due to breach of contract or substandard performance of services; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Taking action permitted or required by applicable federal or state statute, regulation, or agency guidance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on conflicts of interest</I>—(1)(i) <I>In general.</I> No person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions for a covered transaction may have a direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction for which the valuation is or will be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors; providers of multiple settlement services.</I> In any covered transaction, no person violates paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based solely on the fact that the person—
</P>
<P>(A) Is an employee or affiliate of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provides a settlement service in addition to preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions, or based solely on the fact that the person's affiliate performs another settlement service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years.</I> For any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million as of December 31st for both of the past two calendar years, a person subject to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section who is employed by or affiliated with the creditor does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based on the person's employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(i) The compensation of the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions is not based on the value arrived at in any valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions reports to a person who is not part of the creditor's loan production function, as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, and whose compensation is not based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No employee, officer or director in the creditor's loan production function, as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, is directly or indirectly involved in selecting, retaining, recommending or influencing the selection of the person to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions, or to be included in or excluded from a list of approved persons who prepare valuations or perform valuation management functions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years.</I> For any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less as of December 31st for either of the past two calendar years, a person subject to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section who is employed by or affiliated with the creditor does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based on the person's employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(i) The compensation of the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions is not based on the value arrived at in any valuation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor requires that any employee, officer or director of the creditor who orders, performs, or reviews a valuation for a covered transaction abstain from participating in any decision to approve, not approve, or set the terms of that transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Providers of multiple settlement services.</I> For any covered transaction, a person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service for the transaction if:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor had assets of more than $250 million as of December 31st for both of the past two calendar years and the conditions in paragraph (d)(2)(i)-(iii) are met; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor had assets of $250 million or less as of December 31st for either of the past two calendar years and the conditions in paragraph (d)(3)(i)-(ii) are met.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan production function.</I> The term “loan production function” means an employee, officer, director, department, division, or other unit of a creditor with responsibility for generating covered transactions, approving covered transactions, or both.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Settlement service.</I> The term “settlement service” has the same meaning as in the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, 12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Affiliate.</I> The term “affiliate” has the same meaning as in Regulation Y, 12 CFR 225.2(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When extension of credit prohibited.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, a creditor that knows, at or before consummation, of a violation of paragraph (c) or (d) of this section in connection with a valuation shall not extend credit based on the valuation, unless the creditor documents that it has acted with reasonable diligence to determine that the valuation does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling. For purposes of this paragraph (e), a valuation materially misstates or misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling if the valuation contains a misstatement or misrepresentation that affects the credit decision or the terms on which credit is extended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Customary and reasonable compensation</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to provide customary and reasonable compensation to fee appraisers.</I> In any covered transaction, the creditor and its agents shall compensate a fee appraiser for performing appraisal services at a rate that is customary and reasonable for comparable appraisal services performed in the geographic market of the property being appraised. For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, “agents” of the creditor do not include any fee appraiser as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presumption of compliance.</I> A creditor and its agents shall be presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if—
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor or its agents compensate the fee appraiser in an amount that is reasonably related to recent rates paid for comparable appraisal services performed in the geographic market of the property being appraised. In determining this amount, a creditor or its agents shall review the factors below and make any adjustments to recent rates paid in the relevant geographic market necessary to ensure that the amount of compensation is reasonable:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of property,
</P>
<P>(B) The scope of work,
</P>
<P>(C) The time in which the appraisal services are required to be performed,
</P>
<P>(D) Fee appraiser qualifications,
</P>
<P>(E) Fee appraiser experience and professional record, and
</P>
<P>(F) Fee appraiser work quality; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor and its agents do not engage in any anticompetitive acts in violation of state or federal law that affect the compensation paid to fee appraisers, including—
</P>
<P>(A) Entering into any contracts or engaging in any conspiracies to restrain trade through methods such as price fixing or market allocation, as prohibited under section 1 of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, or any other relevant antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(B) Engaging in any acts of monopolization such as restricting any person from entering the relevant geographic market or causing any person to leave the relevant geographic market, as prohibited under section 2 of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 2, or any other relevant antitrust laws.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative presumption of compliance.</I> A creditor and its agents shall be presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if the creditor or its agents determine the amount of compensation paid to the fee appraiser by relying on information about rates that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is based on objective third-party information, including fee schedules, studies, and surveys prepared by independent third parties such as government agencies, academic institutions, and private research firms;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is based on recent rates paid to a representative sample of providers of appraisal services in the geographic market of the property being appraised or the fee schedules of those providers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of information based on fee schedules, studies, and surveys, such fee schedules, studies, or surveys, or the information derived therefrom, excludes compensation paid to fee appraisers for appraisals ordered by appraisal management companies, as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (f), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fee appraiser.</I> The term “fee appraiser” means—
</P>
<P>(A) A natural person who is a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser and receives a fee for performing an appraisal, but who is not an employee of the person engaging the appraiser; or
</P>
<P>(B) An organization that, in the ordinary course of business, employs state-licensed or state-certified appraisers to perform appraisals, receives a fee for performing appraisals, and is not subject to the requirements of section 1124 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appraisal services.</I> The term “appraisal services” means the services required to perform an appraisal, including defining the scope of work, inspecting the property, reviewing necessary and appropriate public and private data sources (for example, multiple listing services, tax assessment records and public land records), developing and rendering an opinion of value, and preparing and submitting the appraisal report.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Appraisal management company.</I> The term “appraisal management company” means any person authorized to perform one or more of the following actions on behalf of the creditor—
</P>
<P>(A) Recruit, select, and retain fee appraisers;
</P>
<P>(B) Contract with fee appraisers to perform appraisal services;
</P>
<P>(C) Manage the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and underwriters, collecting fees from creditors and underwriters for services provided, and compensating fee appraisers for services performed; or
</P>
<P>(D) Review and verify the work of fee appraisers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mandatory reporting</I>—(1) <I>Reporting required.</I> Any covered person that reasonably believes an appraiser has not complied with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice or ethical or professional requirements for appraisers under applicable state or federal statutes or regulations shall refer the matter to the appropriate state agency if the failure to comply is material. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(1), a failure to comply is material if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of reporting.</I> A covered person shall notify the appropriate state agency within a reasonable period of time after the person determines that there is a reasonable basis to believe that a failure to comply required to be reported under paragraph (g)(1) of this section has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), “state agency” means “state appraiser certifying and licensing agency” under 12 U.S.C. 3350(1) and any implementing regulations. The appropriate state agency to which a covered person must refer a matter under paragraph (g)(1) of this section is the agency for the state in which the consumer's principal dwelling is located.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 66580, Oct. 28, 2010, 75 FR 80676, Dec. 23, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.43   Appraisals for higher-priced mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certified or licensed appraiser</I> means a person who is certified or licensed by the State agency in the State in which the property that secures the transaction is located, and who performs the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements applicable to appraisers in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations, in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consummation</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(13).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit risk</I> means the financial risk that a consumer will default on a loan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Higher-priced mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.35(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Manufactured home</I> has the same meaning as in 24 CFR 3280.2.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Manufacturer's invoice</I> means a document issued by a manufacturer and provided with a manufactured home to a retail dealer that separately details the wholesale (base) prices at the factory for specific models or series of manufactured homes and itemized options (large appliances, built-in items and equipment), plus actual itemized charges for freight from the factory to the dealer's lot or the homesite (including any rental of wheels and axles) and for any sales taxes to be paid by the dealer. The invoice may recite such prices and charges on an itemized basis or by stating an aggregate price or charge, as appropriate, for each category.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>National Registry</I> means the database of information about State certified and licensed appraisers maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>New manufactured home</I> means a manufactured home that has not been previously occupied.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>State agency</I> means a “State appraiser certifying and licensing agency” recognized in accordance with section 1118(b) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3347(b)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Unless otherwise specified, the requirements in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section do not apply to the following types of transactions:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan that satisfies the criteria of a qualified mortgage as defined pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1639c;
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of credit for which the amount of credit extended is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount, which is adjusted every year to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable, and published in the official staff commentary to this paragraph (b)(2); 
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction secured by a mobile home, boat, or trailer.
</P>
<P>(4) A transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(5) A loan with a maturity of 12 months or less, if the purpose of the loan is a “bridge” loan connected with the acquisition of a dwelling intended to become the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(6) A reverse-mortgage transaction subject to 12 CFR 1026.33(a).
</P>
<P>(7) An extension of credit that is a refinancing secured by a first lien, with refinancing defined as in 12 CFR 1026.20(a) (except that the creditor need not be the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation), provided that the refinancing meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Either—
</P>
<P>(A) The credit risk of the refinancing is retained by the person that held the credit risk of the existing obligation and there is no commitment, at consummation, to transfer the credit risk to another person; or
</P>
<P>(B) The refinancing is insured or guaranteed by the same Federal government agency that insured or guaranteed the existing obligation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The regular periodic payments under the refinance loan do not—
</P>
<P>(A) Cause the principal balance to increase;
</P>
<P>(B) Allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal; or
</P>
<P>(C) Result in a balloon payment, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proceeds from the refinancing are used only to satisfy the existing obligation and to pay amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing; and
</P>
<P>(8) A transaction secured by:
</P>
<P>(i) A new manufactured home and land, but the exemption shall only apply to the requirement in paragraph (c)(1) of this section that the appraiser conduct a physical visit of the interior of the new manufactured home; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A manufactured home and not land, for which the creditor obtains one of the following and provides a copy to the consumer no later than three business days prior to consummation of the transaction—
</P>
<P>(A) For a new manufactured home, the manufacturer's invoice for the manufactured home securing the transaction, provided that the date of manufacture is no earlier than 18 months prior to the creditor's receipt of the consumer's application for credit;
</P>
<P>(B) A cost estimate of the value of the manufactured home securing the transaction obtained from an independent cost service provider; or
</P>
<P>(C) A valuation, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.42(b)(3), of the manufactured home performed by a person who has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction for which the valuation is performed and has training in valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals required</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer without obtaining, prior to consummation, a written appraisal of the property to be mortgaged. The appraisal must be performed by a certified or licensed appraiser who conducts a physical visit of the interior of the property that will secure the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor obtains a written appraisal that meets the requirements for an appraisal required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Orders that the appraiser perform the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifies through the National Registry that the appraiser who signed the appraiser's certification was a certified or licensed appraiser in the State in which the appraised property is located as of the date the appraiser signed the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(iii) Confirms that the elements set forth in appendix N to this part are addressed in the written appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no actual knowledge contrary to the facts or certifications contained in the written appraisal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional appraisal for certain higher-priced mortgage loans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d)(7) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer to finance the acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling without obtaining, prior to consummation, two written appraisals, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The seller acquired the property 90 or fewer days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 10 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller acquired the property 91 to 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Different certified or licensed appraisers.</I> The two appraisals required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section may not be performed by the same certified or licensed appraiser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship to general appraisal requirements.</I> If two appraisals must be obtained under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, each appraisal shall meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Required analysis in the additional appraisal.</I> One of the two required appraisals must include an analysis of:
</P>
<P>(i) The difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, as specified in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in market conditions between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No charge for the additional appraisal.</I> If the creditor must obtain two appraisals under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the creditor may charge the consumer for only one of the appraisals.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Creditor's determination of prior sale date and price</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> A creditor must obtain two written appraisals under paragraph (d)(1) of this section unless the creditor can demonstrate by exercising reasonable diligence that the requirement to obtain two appraisals does not apply. A creditor acts with reasonable diligence if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as the documents listed in appendix O to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inability to determine prior sale date or price—modified requirements for additional appraisal.</I> If, after exercising reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (d)(1)(ii) are present and therefore must obtain two written appraisals in accordance with paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section, one of the two appraisals shall include an analysis of the factors in paragraph (d)(4) of this section only to the extent that the information necessary for the appraiser to perform the analysis can be determined.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exemptions from the additional appraisal requirement.</I> The additional appraisal required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall not apply to extensions of credit that finance a consumer's acquisition of property:
</P>
<P>(i) From a local, State or Federal government agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) From a person who acquired title to the property through foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure as a result of the person's exercise of rights as the holder of a defaulted mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) From a non-profit entity as part of a local, State, or Federal government program under which the non-profit entity is permitted to acquire title to single-family properties for resale from a seller who acquired title to the property through the process of foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure;
</P>
<P>(iv) From a person who acquired title to the property by inheritance or pursuant to a court order of dissolution of marriage, civil union, or domestic partnership, or of partition of joint or marital assets to which the seller was a party;
</P>
<P>(v) From an employer or relocation agency in connection with the relocation of an employee;
</P>
<P>(vi) From a servicemember, as defined in 50 U.S.C. App. 511(1), who received a deployment or permanent change of station order after the servicemember purchased the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Located in an area designated by the President as a federal disaster area, if and for as long as the Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(6), waive the requirements in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in that area; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Located in a rural county, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall disclose the following statement, in writing, to a consumer who applies for a higher-priced mortgage loan: “We may order an appraisal to determine the property's value and charge you for this appraisal. We will give you a copy of any appraisal, even if your loan does not close. You can pay for an additional appraisal for your own use at your own cost.” Compliance with the disclosure requirement in Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(2), satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> The disclosure required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall be delivered or placed in the mail no later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application for a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section. In the case of a loan that is not a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section at the time of application, but becomes a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section after application, the disclosure shall be delivered or placed in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor determines that the loan is a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Copy of appraisals</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of any written appraisal performed in connection with a higher-priced mortgage loan pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> A creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of each written appraisal pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than three business days prior to consummation of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a loan that is not consummated, no later than 30 days after the creditor determines that the loan will not be consummated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of copy.</I> Any copy of a written appraisal required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No charge for copy of appraisal.</I> A creditor shall not charge the consumer for a copy of a written appraisal required to be provided to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relation to other rules.</I> The rules in this section were adopted jointly by the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Bureau). These rules are substantively identical to the OCC's and the Bureau's higher-priced mortgage loan appraisal rules published separately in 12 CFR part 34, subpart G and 12 CFR part 164, subpart B (for the OCC) and 12 CFR 1026.35(a) and (c) (for the Bureau). The Board's rules apply to all creditors who are State member banks, bank holding companies and their subsidiaries (other than a bank), savings and loan holding companies and their subsidiaries (other than a savings and loan association), and insured branches and agencies of foreign banks. Compliance with the Board's rules satisfies the requirements of 15 U.S.C. 1639h.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10437, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78582, 78583, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 226.44-226.45" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.5.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 226.44-226.45   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Special Rules for Private Education Loans</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 41232, Aug. 14, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 226.46" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.6.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.46   Special disclosure requirements for private education loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> The requirements of this subpart apply to private education loans as defined in § 226.46(b)(5). A creditor may, at its option, comply with the requirements of this subpart for an extension of credit subject to §§ 226.17 and 226.18 that is extended to a consumer for expenses incurred after graduation from a law, medical, dental, veterinary, or other graduate school and related to relocation, study for a bar or other examination, participation in an internship or residency program, or similar purposes.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Relation to other subparts in this part.</I> Except as otherwise specifically provided, the requirements and limitations of this subpart are in addition to and not in lieu of those contained in other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered educational institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An educational institution that meets the definition of an institution of higher education, as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, without regard to the institution's accreditation status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes an agent, officer, or employee of the institution of higher education. An agent means an institution-affiliated organization as defined by section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1019) or an officer or employee of an institution-affiliated organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institution of higher education</I> has the same meaning as in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001-1002) and the implementing regulations published by the U.S. Department of Education.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Postsecondary educational expenses</I> means any of the expenses that are listed as part of the cost of attendance, as defined under section 472 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ll), of a student at a covered educational institution. These expenses include tuition and fees, books, supplies, miscellaneous personal expenses, room and board, and an allowance for any loan fee, origination fee, or insurance premium charged to a student or parent for a loan incurred to cover the cost of the student's attendance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preferred lender arrangement</I> has the same meaning as in section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1019).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Private education loan</I> means an extension of credit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not made, insured, or guaranteed under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is extended to a consumer expressly, in whole or in part, for postsecondary educational expenses, regardless of whether the loan is provided by the educational institution that the student attends;
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not include open-end credit any loan that is secured by real property or a dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not include an extension of credit in which the covered educational institution is the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(A) The term of the extension of credit is 90 days or less; or
</P>
<P>(B) an interest rate will not be applied to the credit balance and the term of the extension of credit is one year or less, even if the credit is payable in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> The disclosures required by this subpart shall be made clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transaction disclosures.</I> (i) The disclosures required under §§ 226.47(b) and (c) shall be made in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures shall be grouped together, shall be segregated from everything else, and shall not contain any information not directly related to the disclosures required under §§ 226.47(b) and (c), which include the disclosures required under § 226.18.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures may include an acknowledgement of receipt, the date of the transaction, and the consumer's name, address, and account number. The following disclosures may be made together with or separately from other required disclosures: the creditor's identity under § 226.18(a), insurance or debt cancellation under § 226.18(n), and certain security interest charges under § 226.18(o).
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “finance charge” and corresponding amount, when required to be disclosed under § 226.18(d), and the interest rate required to be disclosed under §§ 226.47(b)(1)(i) and (c)(1), shall be more conspicuous than any other disclosure, except the creditor's identity under § 228.18(a).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> The disclosures required under §§ 226.47(b) and (c) may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by § 226.47(a) may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with an application or solicitation that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act. The form required to be received under § 226.48(e) may be accepted by the creditor in electronic form as provided for in that section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Application or solicitation disclosures.</I> (i) The disclosures required by § 226.47(a) shall be provided on or with any application or solicitation. For purposes of this subpart, the term solicitation means an offer of credit that does not require the consumer to complete an application. A “firm offer of credit” as defined in section 603(l) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(l)) is a solicitation for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor may, at its option, disclose orally the information in § 226.47(a) in a telephone application or solicitation. Alternatively, if the creditor does not disclose orally the information in § 226.47(a), the creditor must provide the disclosures or place them in the mail no later than three business days after the consumer has applied for the credit, except that, if the creditor either denies the consumer's application or provides or places in the mail the disclosures in § 226.47(b) no later than three business days after the consumer requests the credit, the creditor need not also provide the § 226.47(a) disclosures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(i), for a loan that the consumer may use for multiple purposes including, but not limited to, postsecondary educational expenses, the creditor need not provide the disclosures required by § 226.47(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> The creditor shall provide the disclosures required by § 226.47(b) before consummation on or with any notice of approval provided to the consumer. If the creditor mails notice of approval, the disclosures must be mailed with the notice. If the creditor communicates notice of approval by telephone, the creditor must mail the disclosures within three business days of providing the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates notice of approval electronically, the creditor may provide the disclosures in electronic form in accordance with § 226.46(d)(3); otherwise the creditor must mail the disclosures within three business days of communicating the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates approval in person, the creditor must provide the disclosures to the consumer at that time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 226.47(c) shall be provided after the consumer accepts the loan in accordance with § 226.48(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Receipt of mailed disclosures.</I> If the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2) or (d)(3), are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates</I>—(1) <I>Legal obligation.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimates.</I> If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor will comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of subsequent events</I>—(1) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> If a disclosure under § 226.47(b) becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226), although new disclosures may be required under § 226.48(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Final disclosures.</I> If a disclosure under § 226.47(c) becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.47" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.6.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.47   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application or solicitation disclosures.</I> A creditor shall provide the disclosures required under paragraph (a) of this section on or with a solicitation or an application for a private education loan.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest rates.</I> (i) The interest rate or range of interest rates applicable to the loan and actually offered by the creditor at the time of application or solicitation. If the rate will depend, in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness or other factors, a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the interest rates applicable to the loan are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the interest rate adjustments, or lack thereof; a statement that the consumer's actual rate could be higher or lower than the rates disclosed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, if applicable; and, if the limitation is determined by applicable law, that fact.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the applicable interest rates typically will be higher if the loan is not co-signed or guaranteed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> (i) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any payment deferral options, or, if the consumer does not have the option to defer payments, that fact.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each payment deferral option applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether interest will accrue during the deferral period; and
</P>
<P>(B) If interest accrues, whether payment of interest may be deferred and added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cost estimates.</I> An example of the total cost of the loan calculated as the total of payments over the term of the loan:
</P>
<P>(i) Using the highest rate of interest disclosed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and including all finance charges applicable to loans at that rate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Using an amount financed of $10,000, or $5000 if the creditor only offers loans of this type for less than $10,000; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculated for each payment option.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligibility.</I> Any age or school enrollment eligibility requirements relating to the consumer or co-signer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternatives to private education loans.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>) and whether the rates are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that a covered educational institution may have school-specific education loan benefits and terms not detailed on the disclosure form.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rights of the consumer.</I> A statement that if the loan is approved, the terms of the loan will be available and will not change for 30 days except as a result of adjustments to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Self-certification information.</I> A statement that, before the loan may be consummated, the consumer must complete the self-certification form and that the form may be obtained from the institution of higher education that the student attends.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> On or with any notice of approval provided to the consumer, the creditor shall disclose the information required under § 226.18 and the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest rate.</I> (i) The interest rate applicable to the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the interest rate is fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the rate adjustments, or lack thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> (i) The principal amount of the loan for which the consumer has been approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the payment deferral option chosen by the consumer, if applicable, and any other payment deferral options that the consumer may elect at a later time.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any payments required while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of any unpaid interest that will accrue while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan.
</P>
<P>(vii) An estimate of the total amount of payments calculated based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate applicable to the loan. Compliance with § 226.18(h) constitutes compliance with this requirement.
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum possible rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%.
</P>
<P>(C) If a maximum rate cannot be determined, the estimate of the total amount for repayment must include a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the total amount for repayment disclosed under paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(B) of this section is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<P>(viii) The maximum monthly payment based on the maximum rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. If a maximum cannot be determined, a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the monthly payment amount disclosed is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternatives to private education loans.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>), and whether the rates are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rights of the consumer.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until the acceptance period under § 226.48(c)(1) has expired. The statement must include the specific date on which the acceptance period expires, based on the date upon which the consumer receives the disclosures required under this subsection for the loan. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may communicate acceptance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that, except for changes to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law, the rates and terms of the loan may not be changed by the creditor during the period described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final disclosures.</I> After the consumer has accepted the loan in accordance with § 226.48(c)(1), the creditor shall disclose to the consumer the information required by § 226.18 and the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest rate.</I> Information required to be disclosed under §§ 226.47(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> Information required to be disclosed under § 226.47(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> Information required to be disclosed under § 226.47(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cancellation right.</I> A statement that:
</P>
<P>(i) the consumer has the right to cancel the loan, without penalty, at any time before the cancellation period under § 226.48(d) expires, and
</P>
<P>(ii) loan proceeds will not be disbursed until after the cancellation period under § 226.48(d) expires. The statement must include the specific date on which the cancellation period expires and state that the consumer may cancel by that date. The statement must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may cancel. If the creditor permits cancellation by mail, the statement must specify that the consumer's mailed request will be deemed timely if placed in the mail not later than the cancellation date specified on the disclosure. The disclosures required by this paragraph (c)(4) must be made more conspicuous than any other disclosure required under this section, except for the finance charge, the interest rate, and the creditor's identity, which must be disclosed in accordance with the requirements of § 226.46(c)(2)(iii).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.48" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.6.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.48   Limitations on private education loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Co-branding prohibited.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor, other than the covered educational institution itself, shall not use the name, emblem, mascot, or logo of a covered educational institution, or other words, pictures, or symbols identified with a covered educational institution, in the marketing of private education loans in a way that implies that the covered education institution endorses the creditor's loans.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor's marketing of private education loans does not imply that the covered education institution endorses the creditor's loans if the marketing includes a clear and conspicuous disclosure that is equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution that the covered educational institution does not endorse the creditor's loans and that the creditor is not affiliated with the covered educational institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Endorsed lender arrangements.</I> If a creditor and a covered educational institution have entered into an arrangement where the covered educational institution agrees to endorse the creditor's private education loans, and such arrangement is not prohibited by other applicable law or regulation, paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if the private education loan marketing includes a clear and conspicuous disclosure that is equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution that the creditor's loans are not offered or made by the covered educational institution, but are made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer's right to accept.</I> (1) The consumer has the right to accept the terms of a private education loan at any time within 30 calendar days following the date on which the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 226.47(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Except for changes permitted under paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4), the rate and terms of the private education loan that are required to be disclosed under §§ 226.47(b) and (c) may not be changed by the creditor prior to the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of disbursement of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the 30 calendar day period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the consumer has not accepted the loan within that time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions not requiring re-disclosure.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, nothing in this section prevents the creditor from:
</P>
<P>(A) Withdrawing an offer before consummation of the transaction if the extension of credit would be prohibited by law or if the creditor has reason to believe that the consumer has committed fraud in connection with the loan application;
</P>
<P>(B) Changing the interest rate based on adjustments to the index used for a loan;
</P>
<P>(C) Changing the interest rate and terms if the change will unequivocally benefit the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(D) Reducing the loan amount based upon a certification or other information received from the covered educational institution, or from the consumer, indicating that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the consumer's other financial aid has increased. A creditor may make corresponding changes to the rate and other terms only to the extent that the consumer would have received the terms if the consumer had applied for the reduced loan amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the creditor changes the rate or terms of the loan under this paragraph (c)(3), the creditor need not provide the disclosures required under § 228.47(b) for the new loan terms, nor need the creditor provide an additional 30-day period to the consumer to accept the new terms of the loan under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions requiring re-disclosure.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this section prevents the creditor, at its option, from changing the rate or terms of the loan to accommodate a specific request by the consumer. For example, if the consumer requests a different repayment option, the creditor may, but need not, offer to provide the requested repayment option and make any other changes to the rate and terms.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the creditor changes the rate or terms of the loan under this paragraph (c)(4), the creditor shall provide the disclosures required under § 228.47(b) and shall provide the consumer the 30-day period to accept the loan under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The creditor shall not make further changes to the rates and terms of the loan, except as specified in paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section. Except as permitted under § 226.48(c)(3), unless the consumer accepts the loan offered by the creditor in response to the consumer's request, the creditor may not withdraw or change the rates or terms of the loan for which the consumer was approved prior to the consumer's request for a change in loan terms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer's right to cancel.</I> The consumer may cancel a private education loan, without penalty, until midnight of the third business day following the date on which the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 226.47(c). No funds may be disbursed for a private education loan until the three-business day period has expired.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Self-certification form.</I> For a private education loan intended to be used for the postsecondary educational expenses of a student while the student is attending an institution of higher education, the creditor shall obtain from the consumer or the institution of higher education the form developed by the Secretary of Education under section 155 of the Higher Education Act of 1965, signed by the consumer, in written or electronic form, before consummating the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provision of information by preferred lenders.</I> A creditor that has a preferred lender arrangement with a covered educational institution shall provide to the covered educational institution the information required under § 226.47(a)(1) through (5), for each type of private education loan that the lender plans to offer to consumers for students attending the covered educational institution for the period beginning July 1 of the current year and ending June 30 of the following year. The creditor shall provide the information annually by the later of the 1st day of April, or within 30 days after entering into, or learning the creditor is a party to, a preferred lender arrangement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Special Rules Applicable to Credit Card Accounts and Open-End Credit Offered to College Students</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 226.51" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.51   Ability to Pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule</I>—(1)(i) <I>Consideration of ability to pay.</I> A card issuer must not open a credit card account for a consumer under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, or increase any credit limit applicable to such account, unless the card issuer considers the consumer's independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments under the terms of the account based on the consumer's income or assets and current obligations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable policies and procedures.</I> Card issuers must establish and maintain reasonable written policies and procedures to consider a consumer's independent income or assets and current obligations. Reasonable policies and procedures to consider a consumer's independent ability to make the required payments include the consideration of at least one of the following: The ratio of debt obligations to income; the ratio of debt obligations to assets; or the income the consumer will have after paying debt obligations. It would be unreasonable for a card issuer to not review any information about a consumer's income, assets, or current obligations, or to issue a credit card to a consumer who does not have any independent income or assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum periodic payments</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable method.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a card issuer must use a reasonable method for estimating the minimum periodic payments the consumer would be required to pay under the terms of the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A card issuer complies with paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section if it estimates required minimum periodic payments using the following method:
</P>
<P>(A) The card issuer assumes utilization, from the first day of the billing cycle, of the full credit line that the issuer is considering offering to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The card issuer uses a minimum payment formula employed by the issuer for the product the issuer is considering offering to the consumer or, in the case of an existing account, the minimum payment formula that currently applies to that account, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the applicable minimum payment formula includes interest charges, the card issuer estimates those charges using an interest rate that the issuer is considering offering to the consumer for purchases or, in the case of an existing account, the interest rate that currently applies to purchases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the applicable minimum payment formula includes mandatory fees, the card issuer must assume that such fees have been charged to the account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting young consumers</I>—(1) <I>Applications from young consumers.</I> A card issuer may not open a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for a consumer less than 21 years old, unless the consumer has submitted a written application and the card issuer has:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial information indicating the consumer has an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the proposed extension of credit in connection with the account, consistent with paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A signed agreement of a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old to be either secondarily liable for any debt on the account incurred by the consumer before the consumer has attained the age of 21 or jointly liable with the consumer for any debt on the account, and
</P>
<P>(B) Financial information indicating such cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant has the ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on such debts, consistent with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit line increases for young consumers.</I> If a credit card account has been opened pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, no increase in the credit limit may be made on such account before the consumer attains the age of 21 unless the cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder who assumed liability at account opening agrees in writing to assume liability on the increase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23002, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.52" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.52   Limitations on fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations prior to account opening and during first year after account opening</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the total amount of fees a consumer is required to pay with respect to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan prior to account opening and during the first year after account opening must not exceed 25 percent of the credit limit in effect when the account is opened. For purposes of this paragraph, an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees not subject to limitations.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Late payment fees, over-the-limit fees, and returned-payment fees; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fees that the consumer is not required to pay with respect to the account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the imposition or payment of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on penalty fees.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan unless the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fees based on costs.</I> A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account if the card issuer has determined that the dollar amount of the fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation. A card issuer must reevaluate this determination at least once every twelve months. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a lower fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer must begin imposing the lower fee within 45 days after completing the reevaluation. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a higher fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer may begin imposing the higher fee after complying with the notice requirements in § 226.9.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbors.</I> A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) $25.00;
</P>
<P>(B) $35.00 if the card issuer previously imposed a fee pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section for a violation of the same type that occurred during the same billing cycle or one of the next six billing cycles; or
</P>
<P>(C) Three percent of the delinquent balance on a charge card account that requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle if the card issuer has not received the required payment for two or more consecutive billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(D) The amounts in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section will be adjusted annually by the Board to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibited fees</I>—(i) <I>Fees that exceed dollar amount associated with violation</I>—(A) <I>Generally.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that exceeds the dollar amount associated with the violation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>No dollar amount associated with violation.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan when there is no dollar amount associated with the violation. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, there is no dollar amount associated with the following violations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Transactions that the card issuer declines to authorize;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Account inactivity; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The closure or termination of an account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiple fees based on a single event or transaction.</I> A card issuer must not impose more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan based on a single event or transaction. A card issuer may, at its option, comply with this prohibition by imposing no more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account during a billing cycle.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 37571, June 26, 2010; 76 FR 23002, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.53" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.53   Allocation of payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, when a consumer makes a payment in excess of the required minimum periodic payment for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the card issuer must allocate the excess amount first to the balance with the highest annual percentage rate and any remaining portion to the other balances in descending order based on the applicable annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rules</I>—(1) <I>Accounts with balances subject to deferred interest or similar program.</I> When a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is subject to a deferred interest or similar program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on the balance if the balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Last two billing cycles.</I> The card issuer must allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment consistent with paragraph (a) of this section, except that, during the two billing cycles immediately preceding expiration of the specified period, the excess amount must be allocated first to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar program and any remaining portion allocated to any other balances consistent with paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consumer request.</I> The card issuer may at its option allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment among the balances on the account in the manner requested by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounts with secured balances.</I> When a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is secured, the card issuer may at its option allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment to that balance if requested by the consumer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23003, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.54" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.54   Limitations on the imposition of finance charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations on imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a card issuer must not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if those finance charges are based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Balances for days in billing cycles that precede the most recent billing cycle; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any portion of a balance subject to a grace period that was repaid prior to the expiration of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, “grace period” has the same meaning as in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Adjustments to finance charges as a result of the resolution of a dispute under § 226.12 or § 226.13; or
</P>
<P>(2) Adjustments to finance charges as a result of the return of a payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.55" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.55   Limitations on increasing annual percentage rates, fees, and charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a card issuer must not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to an exception set forth in this paragraph even if that increase would not be permitted under a different exception.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temporary rate, fee, or charge exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) upon the expiration of a specified period of six months or longer, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the commencement of that period, the card issuer disclosed in writing to the consumer, in a clear and conspicuous manner, the length of the period and the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that would apply after expiration of the period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon expiration of the specified period:
</P>
<P>(A) The card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to the period that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to the period;
</P>
<P>(B) If the disclosures required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are provided pursuant to § 226.9(c), the card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred within 14 days after provision of the notice that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to that category of transactions prior to provision of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(C) The card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred during the period that exceeds the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Variable rate exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate when:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual percentage rate varies according to an index that is not under the card issuer's control and is available to the general public; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The increase in the annual percentage rate is due to an increase in the index.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advance notice exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) after complying with the applicable notice requirements in § 226.9(b), (c), or (g), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) If a card issuer discloses an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 226.9(b), the card issuer must not apply that rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to provision of the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a card issuer discloses an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 226.9(c) or (g), the card issuer must not apply that rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) This exception does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) during the first year after the account is opened, while the account is closed, or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. For purposes of this paragraph, an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delinquency exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) due to the card issuer not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The card issuer must disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner in the notice of the increase pursuant to § 226.9(c) or (g):
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the reason for the increase; and
</P>
<P>(B) That the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge will cease to apply if the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase, the card issuer must reduce any annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to this exception to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase with respect to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) or (g) notice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Workout and temporary hardship arrangement exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) due to the consumer's completion of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement or the consumer's failure to comply with the terms of such an arrangement, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to commencement of the arrangement (except as provided in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D)), the card issuer has provided the consumer with a clear and conspicuous written disclosure of the terms of the arrangement (including any increases due to the completion or failure of the arrangement); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the completion or failure of the arrangement, the card issuer must not apply to any transactions that occurred prior to commencement of the arrangement an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to commencement of the arrangement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception.</I> If an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) has been decreased pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation, a card issuer may increase that annual percentage rate, fee, or charge once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar statute or regulation no longer applies, provided that the card issuer must not apply to any transactions that occurred prior to the decrease an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to the decrease.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of protected balances</I>—(1) <I>Definition of protected balance.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, “protected balance” means the amount owed for a category of transactions to which an increased annual percentage rate or an increased fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) cannot be applied after the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge for that category of transactions has been increased pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Repayment of protected balance.</I> The card issuer must not require repayment of the protected balance using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) The method of repayment for the account before the effective date of the increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) An amortization period of not less than five years, beginning no earlier than the effective date of the increase; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A required minimum periodic payment that includes a percentage of the balance that is equal to no more than twice the percentage required before the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Continuing application.</I> This section continues to apply to a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan after:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is closed or acquired by another creditor; or
</P>
<P>(2) The balance is transferred from a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor to another credit account issued by the same creditor or its affiliate or subsidiary (unless the account to which the balance is transferred is subject to § 226.5b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Promotional waivers or rebates of interest, fees, and other charges.</I> If a card issuer promotes the waiver or rebate of finance charges due to a periodic interest rate or fees or charges required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) and applies the waiver or rebate to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, any cessation of the waiver or rebate on that account constitutes an increase in an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge for purposes of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23003, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.56" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.56   Requirements for over-the-limit transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “over-the-limit transaction” means any extension of credit by a card issuer to complete a transaction that causes a consumer's credit card account balance to exceed the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A card issuer shall not assess a fee or charge on a consumer's credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for an over-the-limit transaction unless the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer with an oral, written or electronic notice, segregated from all other information, describing the consumer's right to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of an over-the-limit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtains the consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to the card issuer's payment of such transactions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the consumer with confirmation of the consumer's consent in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provides the consumer notice in writing of the right to revoke that consent following the assessment of an over-the-limit fee or charge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Completion of over-the-limit transactions without consumer consent.</I> Notwithstanding the absence of a consumer's affirmative consent under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a card issuer may pay any over-the-limit transaction on a consumer's account provided that the card issuer does not impose any fee or charge on the account for paying that over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of election.</I> A card issuer may permit a consumer to consent to the card issuer's payment of any over-the-limit transaction in writing, orally, or electronically, at the card issuer's option. The card issuer must also permit the consumer to revoke his or her consent using the same methods available to the consumer for providing consent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing and placement of notices</I>—(1) <I>Initial notice</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be provided prior to the assessment of any over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Oral or electronic consent.</I> If a consumer consents to the card issuer's payment of any over-the-limit transaction by oral or electronic means, the card issuer must provide the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section immediately prior to obtaining that consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confirmation of opt-in.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section may be provided no later than the first periodic statement sent after the consumer has consented to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of right of revocation.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section shall be provided on the front of any page of each periodic statement that reflects the assessment of an over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content</I>—(1) <I>Initial notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall include all applicable items in this paragraph (e)(1) and may not contain any information not specified in or otherwise permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fees.</I> The dollar amount of any fees or charges assessed by the card issuer on a consumer's account for an over-the-limit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>APRs.</I> Any increased periodic rate(s) (expressed as an annual percentage rate(s)) that may be imposed on the account as a result of an over-the-limit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disclosure of opt-in right.</I> An explanation of the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, including the method(s) by which the consumer may consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsequent notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section shall describe the consumer's right to revoke any consent provided under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, including the method(s) by which the consumer may revoke.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe harbor.</I> Use of Model Forms G-25(A) or G-25(B) of appendix G to this part, or substantially similar notices, constitutes compliance with the notice content requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint relationships.</I> If two or more consumers are jointly liable on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the card issuer shall treat the affirmative consent of any of the joint consumers as affirmative consent for that account. Similarly, the card issuer shall treat a revocation of consent by any of the joint consumers as revocation of consent for that account.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Continuing right to opt in or revoke opt-in.</I> A consumer may affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Similarly, the consumer may revoke the consent at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duration of opt-in.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions is effective until revoked by the consumer, or until the card issuer decides for any reason to cease paying over-the-limit transactions for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time to comply with revocation request.</I> A card issuer must comply with a consumer's revocation request as soon as reasonably practicable after the card issuer receives it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Prohibited practices.</I> Notwithstanding a consumer's affirmative consent to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, a card issuer is prohibited from engaging in the following practices:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fees or charges imposed per cycle</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A card issuer may not impose more than one over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's credit card account per billing cycle, and, in any event, only if the credit limit was exceeded during the billing cycle. In addition, except as provided in paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section, a card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for more than three billing cycles for the same over-the-limit transaction where the consumer has not reduced the account balance below the credit limit by the payment due date for either of the last two billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section on imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge in more than three billing cycles for the same over-the-limit transaction(s) does not apply if another over-the-limit transaction occurs during either of the last two billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to promptly replenish.</I> A card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge solely because of the card issuer's failure to promptly replenish the consumer's available credit following the crediting of the consumer's payment under § 226.10.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditioning.</I> A card issuer may not condition the amount of a consumer's credit limit on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions if the card issuer assesses a fee or charge for such service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Over-the-limit fees attributed to fees or interest.</I> A card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge for a billing cycle if a consumer exceeds a credit limit solely because of fees or interest charged by the card issuer to the consumer's account during that billing cycle. For purposes of this paragraph (j)(4), the relevant fees or interest charges are charges imposed as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.57" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.57   Reporting and marketing rules for college student open-end credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>College student credit card.</I> The term “college student credit card” as used in this section means a credit card issued under a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan to any college student.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>College student.</I> The term “college student” as used in this section means a consumer who is a full-time or part-time student of an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Institution of higher education.</I> The term “institution of higher education” as used in this section has the same meaning as in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affiliated organization.</I> The term “affiliated organization” as used in this section means an alumni organization or foundation affiliated with or related to an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>College credit card agreement.</I> The term “college credit card agreement” as used in this section means any business, marketing or promotional agreement between a card issuer and an institution of higher education or an affiliated organization in connection with which college student credit cards are issued to college students currently enrolled at that institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public disclosure of agreements.</I> An institution of higher education shall publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer or creditor for the purpose of marketing a credit card.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited inducements.</I> No card issuer or creditor may offer a college student any tangible item to induce such student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor, if such offer is made:
</P>
<P>(1) On the campus of an institution of higher education;
</P>
<P>(2) Near the campus of an institution of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(3) At an event sponsored by or related to an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual report to the Board</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to report.</I> Any card issuer that was a party to one or more college credit card agreements in effect at any time during a calendar year must submit to the Board an annual report regarding those agreements in the form and manner prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The annual report to the Board must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information about the card issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number);
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of any college credit card agreement to which the card issuer was a party that was in effect at any time during the period covered by the report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of any memorandum of understanding in effect at any time during the period covered by the report between the card issuer and an institution of higher education or affiliated organization that directly or indirectly relates to the college credit card agreement or that controls or directs any obligations or distribution of benefits between any such entities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total dollar amount of any payments pursuant to a college credit card agreement from the card issuer to an institution of higher education or affiliated organization during the period covered by the report, and the method or formula used to determine such amounts;
</P>
<P>(v) The total number of credit card accounts opened pursuant to any college credit card agreement during the period covered by the report; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The total number of credit card accounts opened pursuant to any such agreement that were open at the end of the period covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of reports.</I> Except for the initial report described in this § 226.57(d)(3), a card issuer must submit its annual report for each calendar year to the Board by the first business day on or after March 31 of the following calendar year. Card issuers must submit the first report following the effective date of this section, providing information for the 2009 calendar year, to the Board by February 22, 2010.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.58" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.58   Internet posting of credit card agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to any card issuer that issues credit cards under a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, “agreement” or “credit card agreement” means the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a card issuer and a consumer for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. “Agreement” or “credit card agreement” also includes the pricing information, as defined in § 226.58(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amends.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “amends” an agreement if it makes a substantive change (an “amendment”) to the agreement. A change is substantive if it alters the rights or obligations of the card issuer or the consumer under the agreement. Any change in the pricing information, as defined in § 226.58(b)(7), is deemed to be substantive.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business day.</I> For purposes of this section, “business day” means a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Card issuer.</I> For purposes of this section, “card issuer” or “issuer” means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a credit card agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Offers.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “offers” or “offers to the public” an agreement if the issuer is soliciting or accepting applications for accounts that would be subject to that agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Open account.</I> For purposes of this section, an account is an “open account” or “open credit card account” if it is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and either:
</P>
<P>(i) The cardholder can obtain extensions of credit on the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an outstanding balance on the account that has not been charged off. An account that has been suspended temporarily (for example, due to a report by the cardholder of unauthorized use of the card) is considered an “open account” or “open credit card account.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Pricing information.</I> For purposes of this section, “pricing information” means the information listed in § 226.6(b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(xii) and (b)(4). Pricing information does not include temporary or promotional rates and terms or rates and terms that apply only to protected balances.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Private label credit card account and private label credit card plan.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) “private label credit card account” means a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a credit card that can be used to make purchases only at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “private label credit card plan” means all of the private label credit card accounts issued by a particular issuer with credit cards usable at the same single merchant or affiliated group of merchants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of agreements to Board</I>—(1) <I>Quarterly submissions.</I> A card issuer must make quarterly submissions to the Board, in the form and manner specified by the Board. Quarterly submissions must be sent to the Board no later than the first business day on or after January 31, April 30, July 31, and October 31 of each year. Each submission must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information about the card issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number);
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit card agreements that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter that the card issuer has not previously submitted to the Board;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Board that was amended during the preceding calendar quarter and that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter, as described in § 226.58(c)(3); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notification regarding any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Board that the issuer is withdrawing, as described in § 226.58(c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6), and (c)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amended agreements.</I> If a credit card agreement has been submitted to the Board, the agreement has not been amended and the card issuer continues to offer the agreement to the public, no additional submission regarding that agreement is required. If a credit card agreement that previously has been submitted to the Board is amended and the card issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective, the card issuer must submit the entire amended agreement to the Board, in the form and manner specified by the Board, by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Withdrawal of agreements.</I> If a card issuer no longer offers to the public a credit card agreement that previously has been submitted to the Board, the card issuer must notify the Board, in the form and manner specified by the Board, by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the issuer ceased to offer the agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>De minimis exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit any credit card agreements to the Board if the card issuer had fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts as of the last business day of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an issuer that previously qualified for the de minimis exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must begin making quarterly submissions to the Board no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the issuer ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a card issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception qualifies for the de minimis exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Board until the issuer notifies the Board that the card issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Board.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Private label credit card exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit to the Board a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and
</P>
<P>(B) is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an agreement that previously qualified for the private label credit card exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must submit the agreement to the Board no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the agreement ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an agreement that did not previously qualify for the private label credit card exception qualifies for the exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Board with respect to that agreement until the issuer notifies the Board that the agreement is being withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Product testing exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit to the Board a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) is offered as part of a product test offered to only a limited group of consumers for a limited period of time;
</P>
<P>(B) is used for fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and
</P>
<P>(C) is not offered to the public other than in connection with such a product test.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an agreement that previously qualified for the product testing exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must submit the agreement to the Board no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the agreement ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an agreement that did not previously qualify for the product testing exception qualifies for the exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Board with respect to that agreement until the issuer notifies the Board that the agreement is being withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Form and content of agreements submitted to the Board</I>—(i) <I>Form and content generally.</I> (A) Each agreement must contain the provisions of the agreement and the pricing information in effect as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(B) Agreements must not include any personally identifiable information relating to any cardholder, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number.
</P>
<P>(C) The following are not deemed to be part of the agreement for purposes of § 226.58, and therefore are not required to be included in submissions to the Board:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Disclosures required by State or Federal law, such as affiliate marketing notices, privacy policies, billing rights notices, or disclosures under the E-Sign Act;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Solicitation materials;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Periodic statements;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Ancillary agreements between the issuer and the consumer, such as debt cancellation contracts or debt suspension agreements;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Offers for credit insurance or other optional products and other similar advertisements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Documents that may be sent to the consumer along with the credit card or credit card agreement such as a cover letter, a validation sticker on the card, or other information about card security.
</P>
<P>(D) Agreements must be presented in a clear and legible font.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pricing information.</I> (A) Pricing information must be set forth in a single addendum to the agreement. The addendum must contain all of the pricing information, as defined by § 226.58(b)(7). The addendum may, but is not required to, contain any other information listed in § 226.6(b), provided that information is complete and accurate as of the applicable date under § 226.58. The addendum may not contain any other information.
</P>
<P>(B) Pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors must be disclosed either by setting forth all the possible variations (such as purchase APRs of 13 percent, 15 percent, 17 percent, and 19 percent) or by providing a range of possible variations (such as purchase APRs ranging from 13 percent to 19 percent).
</P>
<P>(C) If a rate included in the pricing information is a variable rate, the issuer must identify the index or formula used in setting the rate and the margin. Rates that may vary from one cardholder to another must be disclosed by providing the index and the possible margins (such as the prime rate plus 5 percent, 8 percent, 10 percent, or 12 percent) or range of margins (such as the prime rate plus from 5 to 12 percent). The value of the rate and the value of the index are not required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Optional variable terms addendum.</I> Provisions of the agreement other than the pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors may be set forth in a single addendum to the agreement separate from the pricing information addendum.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Integrated agreement.</I> Issuers may not provide provisions of the agreement or pricing information in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders (other than the pricing information addendum and the optional variable terms addendum). Changes in provisions or pricing information must be integrated into the text of the agreement, the pricing information addendum or the optional variable terms addendum, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Posting of agreements offered to the public.</I> (1) Except as provided below, a card issuer must post and maintain on its publicly available Web site the credit card agreements that the issuer is required to submit to the Board under § 226.58(c). With respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, an issuer may fulfill this requirement by posting and maintaining the agreement in accordance with the requirements of this section on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which credit cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 226.58(d), agreements posted pursuant to § 226.58(d) must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Board specified in § 226.58(c)(8).
</P>
<P>(3) Agreements posted pursuant to § 226.58(d) may be posted in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public. Agreements must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible by the public and must be accessible without submission of personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(4) The card issuer must update the agreements posted on its Web site pursuant to § 226.58(d) at least as frequently as the quarterly schedule required for submission of agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c). If the issuer chooses to update the agreements on its Web site more frequently, the agreements posted on the issuer's Web site may contain the provisions of the agreement and the pricing information in effect as of a date other than the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements for all open accounts</I>—(1) <I>Availability of individual cardholder's agreement.</I> With respect to any open credit card account, a card issuer must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Post and maintain the cardholder's agreement on its Web site; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly provide a copy of the cardholder's agreement to the cardholder upon the cardholder's request. If the card issuer makes an agreement available upon request, the issuer must provide the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement both by using the issuer's Web site (such as by clicking on a clearly identified box to make the request) and by calling a readily available telephone line the number for which is displayed on the issuer's Web site and clearly identified as to purpose. The card issuer must send to the cardholder or otherwise make available to the cardholder a copy of the cardholder's agreement in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the issuer receives the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for issuers without interactive Web sites.</I> An issuer that does not maintain a Web site from which cardholders can access specific information about their individual accounts, instead of complying with § 226.58(e)(1), may make agreements available upon request by providing the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement by calling a readily available telephone line, the number for which is displayed on the issuer's Web site and clearly identified as to purpose or included on each periodic statement sent to the cardholder and clearly identified as to purpose. The issuer must send to the cardholder or otherwise make available to the cardholder a copy of the cardholder's agreement in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the issuer receives the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form and content of agreements.</I> (i) Except as provided in § 226.58(e), agreements posted on the card issuer's Web site pursuant to § 226.58(e)(1)(i) or made available upon the cardholder's request pursuant to § 226.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2) must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Board specified in § 226.58(c)(8).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the card issuer posts an agreement on its Web site or otherwise provides an agreement to a cardholder electronically under § 226.58(e), the agreement may be posted or provided in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public and must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible to the cardholder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to § 226.58(e) may contain personally identifiable information relating to the cardholder, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number, provided that the issuer takes appropriate measures to make the agreement accessible only to the cardholder or other authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to § 226.58(e) must set forth the specific provisions and pricing information applicable to the particular cardholder. Provisions and pricing information must be complete and accurate as of a date no more than 60 days prior to: (1) the date on which the agreement is posted on the card issuer's Web site under § 226.58(e)(1)(i); or (2) the date the cardholder's request is received under § 226.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements provided upon cardholder request pursuant to § 226.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2) may be provided by the issuer in either electronic or paper form, regardless of the form of the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>E-Sign Act requirements.</I> Card issuers may provide credit card agreements in electronic form under § 226.58(d) and (e) without regard to the consumer notice and consent requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7818, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23003, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 226.59" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.7.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 226.59   Reevaluation of rate increases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule</I>—(1) <I>Evaluation of increased rate.</I> If a card issuer increases an annual percentage rate that applies to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, based on the credit risk of the consumer, market conditions, or other factors, or increased such a rate on or after January 1, 2009, and 45 days' advance notice of the rate increase is required pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2) or (g), the card issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the factors described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on its review of such factors, reduce the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rate reductions</I>—(i) <I>Timing.</I> If a card issuer is required to reduce the rate applicable to an account pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the card issuer must reduce the rate not later than 45 days after completion of the evaluation described in paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicability of rate reduction.</I> Any reduction in an annual percentage rate required pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any outstanding balances to which the increased rate described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section has been applied; and
</P>
<P>(B) New transactions that occur after the effective date of the rate reduction that would otherwise have been subject to the increased rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A card issuer must have reasonable written policies and procedures in place to conduct the review described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A card issuer that is subject to paragraph (a) of this section must conduct the review described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section not less frequently than once every six months after the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a card issuer must review either:
</P>
<P>(i) The factors on which the increase in an annual percentage rate was originally based; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The factors that the card issuer currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> For rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010, an issuer must consider the factors described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) when conducting the first two reviews required under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the rate increase subject to paragraph (a) of this section was based solely upon factors specific to the consumer, such as a decline in the consumer's credit risk, the consumer's delinquency or default, or a violation of the terms of the account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rate increases subject to § 226.55(b)(4).</I> If an issuer increases a rate applicable to a consumer's account pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) based on the card issuer not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date, the issuer is not required to perform the review described in paragraph (a) of this section prior to the sixth payment due date after the effective date of the increase. However, if the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is not reduced pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4)(ii), the card issuer must perform the review described in paragraph (a) of this section. The first such review must occur no later than six months after the sixth payment due following the effective date of the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination of obligation to review factors.</I> The obligation to review factors described in paragraph (a) and (d) of this section ceases to apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If the issuer reduces the annual percentage rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan to the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase, or, if the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase was a variable rate, to a variable rate determined by the same formula (index and margin) that was used to calculate the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the issuer reduces the annual percentage rate to a rate that is lower than the rate described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Acquired accounts</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, this section applies to credit card accounts that have been acquired by the card issuer from another card issuer. A card issuer that complies with this section by reviewing the factors described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) must review the factors considered by the card issuer from which it acquired the accounts in connection with the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of acquired portfolio.</I> If, not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, a card issuer reviews all of the credit card accounts it acquires in accordance with the factors that it currently considers in determining the rates applicable to its similar new credit card accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(iii), the card issuer is required to conduct reviews described in paragraph (a) of this section only for rate increases that are imposed as a result of its review under this paragraph. See §§ 226.9 and 226.55 for additional requirements regarding rate increases on acquired accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section, the card issuer is not required to conduct reviews in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section for any rate increases made prior to the card issuer's acquisition of such accounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) If as a result of the card issuer's review, an account is subject to, or continues to be subject to, an increased rate as a penalty, or due to the consumer's delinquency or default, the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to increases in an annual percentage rate that was previously decreased pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527, provided that such a rate increase is made in accordance with § 226.55(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Charged off accounts.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to accounts that the card issuer has charged off in accordance with loan-loss provisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 37572, June 26, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 226—Effect on State Laws
</HEAD>
<HD1>Request for Determination
</HD1>
<P>A request for a determination that a State law is inconsistent or that a State law is substantially the same as the Act and regulation shall be in writing and addressed to the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request shall be made pursuant to the procedures herein and the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR Part 262).
</P>
<HD1>Supporting Documents
</HD1>
<P>A request for a determination shall include the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) The text of the State statute, regulation, or other document that is the subject of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other statute, regulation, or judicial or administrative opinion that implements, interprets, or applies the relevant provision.
</P>
<P>(3) A comparison of the State law with the corresponding provision of the Federal law, including a full discussion of the basis for the requesting party's belief that the State provision is either inconsistent or substantially the same.
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information that the requesting party believes may assist the Board in its determination.
</P>
<HD1>Public Notice of Determination
</HD1>
<P>Notice that the Board intends to make a determination (either on request or on its own motion) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with an opportunity for public comment, unless the Board finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision.
</P>
<P>Subject to the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR Part 261), all requests made, including any documents and other material submitted in support of the requests, will be made available for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<HD1>Notice After Determination
</HD1>
<P>Notice of a final determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the Board will furnish a copy of such notice to the party who made the request and to the appropriate State official.
</P>
<HD2>Reversal of Determination
</HD2>
<P>The Board reserves the right to reverse a determination for any reason bearing on the coverage or effect of State or Federal law.
</P>
<P>Notice of reversal of a determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a copy furnished to the appropriate State official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981; 46 FR 29246, June 1, 1981]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 226—State Exemptions
</HEAD>
<HD1>Application
</HD1>
<P>Any State may apply to the Board for a determination that a class of transactions subject to State law is exempt from the requirements of the Act and this regulation. An application shall be in writing and addressed to the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551, and shall be signed by the appropriate State official. The application shall be made pursuant to the procedures herein and the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR Part 262).
</P>
<HD1>Supporting Documents
</HD1>
<P>An application shall be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) The text of the State statute or regulation that is the subject of the application, and any other statute, regulation, or judicial or administrative opinion that implements, interprets, or applies it.
</P>
<P>(2) A comparison of the State law with the corresponding provisions of the Federal law.
</P>
<P>(3) The text of the State statute or regulation that provides for civil and criminal liability and administrative enforcement of the State law.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the provisions for enforcement, including an identification of the State office that administers the relevant law, information on the funding and the number and qualifications of personnel engaged in enforcement, and a description of the enforcement procedures to be followed, including information on examination procedures, practices, and policies. If an exemption application extends to federally chartered institutions, the applicant must furnish evidence that arrangements have been made with the appropriate Federal agencies to ensure adequate enforcement of State law in regard to such creditors.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of reasons to support the applicant's claim that an exemption should be granted.
</P>
<HD1>Public Notice of Application
</HD1>
<P>Notice of an application will be published, with an opportunity for public comment, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless the Board finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision.
</P>
<P>Subject to the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR Part 261), all applications made, including any documents and other material submitted in support of the applications, will be made available for public inspection and copying. A copy of the application also will be made available at the Federal Reserve Bank of each district in which the applicant is situated. 
</P>
<HD1>Favorable Determination
</HD1>
<P>If the Board determines on the basis of the information before it that an exemption should be granted, notice of the exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a copy furnished to the applicant and to each Federal official responsible for administrative enforcement.
</P>
<P>The appropriate State official shall inform the Board within 30 days of any change in its relevant law or regulations. The official shall file with the Board such periodic reports as the Board may require.
</P>
<P>The Board will inform the appropriate State official of any subsequent amendments to the Federal law, regulation, interpretations, or enforcement policies that might require an amendment to State law, regulation, interpretations, or enforcement procedures.
</P>
<HD1>Adverse Determination
</HD1>
<P>If the Board makes an initial determination that an exemption should not be granted, the Board will afford the applicant a reasonable opportunity to demonstrate further that an exemption is proper. If the Board ultimately finds that an exemption should not be granted, notice of an adverse determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a copy furnished to the applicant.
</P>
<HD1>Revocation of Exemption
</HD1>
<P>The Board reserves the right to revoke an exemption if at any time it determines that the standards required for an exemption are not met.
</P>
<P>Before taking such action, the Board will notify the appropriate State official of its intent, and will afford the official such opportunity as it deems appropriate in the circumstances to demonstrate that revocation is improper. If the Board ultimately finds that revocation is proper, notice of the Board's intention to revoke such exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a reasonable period of time for interested persons to comment.
</P>
<P>Notice of revocation of an exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A copy of such notice will be furnished to the appropriate State official and to the Federal officials responsible for enforcement. Upon revocation of an exemption, creditors in that State shall then be subject to the requirements of the Federal law.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 226—Issuance of Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD1>Official Staff Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>Officials in the Board's Division of Consumer and Community Affairs are authorized to issue official staff interpretations of this regulation. These interpretations provide the protection afforded under section 130(f) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to the regulation which will be amended periodically.
</P>
<HD1>Requests for Issuance of Official Staff Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>A request for an official staff interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Director, Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
</P>
<HD1>Scope of Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>No staff interpretations will be issued approving creditors' forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods. This restriction does not apply to forms, statements, tools, or methods whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 226—Multiple Advance Construction Loans
</HEAD>
<P>Section 226.17(c)(6) permits creditors to treat multiple advance loans to finance construction of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor either as a single transaction or as more than one transaction. If the actual schedule of advances is not known, the following methods may be used to estimate the interest portion of the finance charge and the annual percentage rate and to make disclosures. If the creditor chooses to disclose the construction phase separately, whether interest is payable periodically or at the end of construction, part I may be used. If the creditor chooses to disclose the construction and the permanent financing as one transaction, part II may be used.
</P>
<HD2>Part I—Construction Period Disclosed Separately
</HD2>
<P>A. If interest is payable only on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding:
</P>
<P>1. Estimated interest—Assume that one-half of the commitment amount is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>2. Estimated annual percentage rate—Assume a single payment loan that matures at the end of the construction period. The finance charge is the sum of the estimated interest and any prepaid finance charge. The amount financed for computation purposes is determined by subtracting any prepaid finance charge from one-half of the commitment amount.
</P>
<P>3. Repayment schedule—The number and amounts of any interest payments may be omitted in disclosing the payment schedule under § 226.18(g). The fact that interest payments are required and the timing of such payments shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>4. Amount financed—The amount financed for disclosure purposes is the entire commitment amount less any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>B. If interest is payable on the entire commitment amount without regard to the dates or amounts of actual disbursement:
</P>
<P>1. Estimated interest—Assume that the entire commitment amount is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>2. Estimated annual percentage rate—Assume a single payment loan that matures at the end of the construction period. The finance charge is the sum of the estimated interest and any prepaid finance charge. The amount financed for computation purposes is determined by subtracting any prepaid finance charge from one-half of the commitment amount.
</P>
<P>3. Repayment schedule—Interest payments shall be disclosed in making the repayment schedule disclosure under § 226.18(g).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.002.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 226—Rules for Card Issuers That Bill on a Transaction-by-Transaction Basis
</HEAD>
<P>The following provisions of Subpart B apply if credit cards are issued and the card issuer and the seller are the same or related persons; no finance charge is imposed; consumers are billed in full for each use of the card on a transaction-by-transaction basis, by means of an invoice or other statement reflecting each use of the card; and no cumulative account is maintained which reflects the transactions by each consumer during a period of time, such as a month. The term “related person” refers to, for example, a franchised or licensed seller of a creditor's product or service or a seller who assigns or sells sales accounts to a creditor or arranges for credit under a plan that allows the consumer to use the credit only in transactions with that seller. A seller is not related to the creditor merely because the seller and the creditor have an agreement authorizing the seller to honor the creditor's credit card.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Section 226.6(a)(5) or § 226.6(b)(5)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Section 226.6(a)(2) or § 226.6(b)(3)(ii)(B), as applicable.</I> The disclosure required by § 226.6(a)(2) or § 226.6(b)(3)(ii)(B) shall be limited to those charges that are or may be imposed as a result of the deferral of payment by use of the card, such as late payment or delinquency charges. A tabular format is not required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Section 226.6(a)(4) or § 226.6(b)(5)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Section 226.7(a)(2) or § 226.7(b)(2), as applicable; § 226.7(a)(9) or § 226.7(b)(9), as applicable.</I> Creditors may comply by placing the required disclosures on the invoice or statement sent to the consumer for each transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Section 226.9(a).</I> Creditors may comply by mailing or delivering the statement required by § 226.6(a)(5) or § 226.6(b)(5)(iii) (see appendix G-3 and G-3(A) to this part) to each consumer receiving a transaction invoice during a one-month period chosen by the card issuer or by sending either the statement prescribed by § 226.6(a)(5) or § 226.6(b)(5)(iii), or an alternative billing error rights statement substantially similar to that in appendix G-4 and G-4(A) to this part, with each invoice sent to a consumer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Section 226.9(c).</I> A tabular format is not required.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Section 226.10.</I>
</P>
<P>8. <I>Section 226.11(a).</I> This section applies when a card issuer receives a payment or other credit that exceeds by more than $1 the amount due, as shown on the transaction invoice. The requirement to credit amounts to an account may be complied with by other reasonable means, such as by a credit memorandum. Since no periodic statement is provided, a notice of the credit balance shall be sent to the consumer within a reasonable period of time following its occurrence unless a refund of the credit balance is mailed or delivered to the consumer within seven business days of its receipt by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Section 226.12 including § 226.12(c) and (d), as applicable.</I> Section 226.12(e) is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Section 226.13, as applicable.</I> All references to “periodic statement” shall be read to indicate the invoice or other statement for the relevant transaction. All actions with regard to correcting and adjusting a consumer's account may be taken by issuing a refund or a new invoice, or by other appropriate means consistent with the purposes of the section.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Section 226.15, as applicable.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7824, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 226—Optional Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Creditors Offering Open-End Plans Subject to the Requirements of § 226.5b
</HEAD>
<P>In determining the denominator of the fraction under § 226.14(c)(3), no amount will be used more than once when adding the sum of the balances 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> subject to periodic rates to the sum of the amounts subject to specific transaction charges. (Where a portion of the finance charge is determined by application of one or more daily periodic rates, the phrase “sum of the balances” shall also mean the “average of daily balances.”) In every case, the full amount of transactions subject to specific transaction charges shall be included in the denominator. Other balances or parts of balances shall be included according to the manner of determining the balance subject to a periodic rate, as illustrated in the following examples of accounts on monthly billing cycles:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> [Reserved]</P></FTNT>
<P>1. Previous balance—none.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs on the first day of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $100. A specific transaction charge of 3 percent is applicable to the specific transaction. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent applicable to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $4.50. The denominator is the amount of the transaction (which is $100), plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the specific transactions (such excess in this case is 0), totaling $100.
</P>
<P>The annual percentage rate is the quotient (which is 4
<FR>1/2</FR> percent) multiplied by 12 (the number of months in a year), i.e., 54 percent.
</P>
<P>2. Previous balance—$100.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $150. A specific transaction charge of 3 percent is applicable to the specific transaction. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent applicable to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge which is $5.25. The denominator is the amount of the transaction (which is $100), plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the specific transaction (such excess in this case is $50), totaling $150. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 3
<FR>1/2</FR> percent × 12 = 42 percent.
</P>
<P>3. If, in example 2, the periodic rate applies only to the previous balance, the numerator is $4.50 and the denominator is $200 (the amount of the transaction, $100, plus the balance subject only to the periodic rate, the $100 previous balance). As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 2
<FR>1/4</FR> percent × 12 = 27 percent.
</P>
<P>4. If, in example 2, the periodic rate applies only to an adjusted balance (previous balance less payments and credits) and the consumer made a payment of $50 at the midpoint of the billing cycle, the numerator is $3.75 and the denominator is $150 (the amount of the transaction, $100, plus the balance subject to the periodic rate, the $50 adjusted balance). As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 2
<FR>1/2</FR> percent × 12 = 30 percent.
</P>
<P>5. Previous balance—$100.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction (check) of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $150. The specific transaction charge is $.25 per check. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent applied to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $2.50 and includes the $.25 check charge and the $2.25 resulting from the application of the periodic rate. The denominator is the full amount of the specific transaction (which is $100) plus the amount by which the average daily balance exceeds the amount of the specific transaction (which in this case is $50), totaling $150. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate would be 1
<FR>2/3</FR> percent × 12 = 20 percent.
</P>
<P>6. Previous balance—none.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $50. The specific transaction charge is 3 percent of the transaction amount or $3.00. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent per month applied to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $3.75, including the $3.00 transaction charge and $.75 resulting from application of the periodic rate. The denominator is the full amount of the specific transaction ($100) plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the transaction ($0). Where the specific transaction amount exceeds the balance subject to the periodic rate, the resulting number is considered to be zero rather than a negative number ($50 − $100 = −$50). The denominator, in this case, is $100. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 3
<FR>3/4</FR> percent × 12 = 45 percent. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7824, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 226—Open-End Model Forms and Clauses 
</HEAD>
<FP-2>G-1 Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Home-equity Plans) (§§ 226.6 and 226.7)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-1(A) Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Plans other than Home-equity Plans) (§§ 226.6 and 226.7)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-2 Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Home-equity Plans) (§ 226.12)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-2(A) Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§ 226.12)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-3 Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-equity Plans) (§§ 226.6 and 226.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-3(A) Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§§ 226.6 and 226.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-4 Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-equity Plans) (§ 226.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-4(A) Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§ 226.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-5 Rescission Model Form (When Opening an Account) (§ 226.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-6 Rescission Model Form (For Each Transaction) (§ 226.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-7 Rescission Model Form (When Increasing the Credit Limit) (§ 226.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-8 Rescission Model Form (When Adding a Security Interest) (§ 226.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-9 Rescission Model Form (When Increasing the Security) (§ 226.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(A) Applications and Solicitations Model Form (Credit Cards) (§ 226.5a(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(B) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Credit Cards) (§ 226.5a(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(C) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Credit Cards) (§ 226.5a(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(D) Applications and Solicitations Model Form (Charge Cards) (§ 226.5a(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(E) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Charge Cards) (§ 226.5a(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-11 Applications and Solicitations Made Available to General Public Model Clauses (§ 226.5a(e))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-12 [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-13(A) Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (Combined Notice) (§ 226.9(f))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-13(B) Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (§ 226.9(f)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-14A Home-equity Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-14B Home-equity Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-15 Home-equity Model Clauses
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-16(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause (§ 226.4(d)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-16(B) Debt Suspension Sample (§ 226.4(d)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(A) Account-opening Model Form (§ 226.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(B) Account-opening Sample (§ 226.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(C) Account-opening Sample (§ 226.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(D) Account-opening Sample (§ 226.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(A) Transactions; Interest Charges; Fees Sample (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(B) Late Payment Fee Sample (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(1) Minimum Payment Warning (When Amortization Occurs and the 36-Month Disclosures Are Required) (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(2) Minimum Payment Warning (When Amortization Occurs and the 36-Month Disclosures Are Not Required) (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(3) Minimum Payment Warning (When Negative or No Amortization Occurs) (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(D) Periodic Statement New Balance, Due Date, Late Payment and Minimum Payment Sample (Credit cards) (§ 226.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(E) [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(F) Periodic Statement Form
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(G) Periodic Statement Form
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(H) Deferred Interest Periodic Statement Clause
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-19 Checks Accessing a Credit Card Account Sample (§ 226.9(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-20 Change-in-Terms Sample (Increase in Annual Percentage Rate) (§ 226.9(c)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-21 Change-in-Terms Sample (Increase in Fees) (§ 226.9(c)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-22 Penalty Rate Increase Sample (Payment 60 or Fewer Days Late) (§ 226.9(g)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-23 Penalty Rate Increase Sample (Payment More Than 60 Days Late) (§ 226.9(g)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-24 Deferred Interest Offer Clauses (§ 226.16(h))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-25(A) Consent Form for Over-the-Limit Transactions (§ 226.56)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-25(B) Revocation Notice for Periodic Statement Regarding Over-the-Limit Transactions (§ 226.56)
</FP-2>
<HD1>G-1—Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<P>(a) Adjusted balance method
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “adjusted balance” of your account. We get the “adjusted balance” by taking the balance you owed at the end of the previous billing cycle and subtracting [any unpaid finance charges and] any payments and credits received during the present billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) Previous balance method
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the beginning of each billing cycle [minus any unpaid finance charges]. We do not subtract any payments or credits received during the billing cycle. [The amount of payments and credits to your account this billing cycle was $ ______.]
</P>
<P>(c) Average daily balance method (excluding current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account (excluding current transactions). To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day and subtract any payments or credits [and any unpaid finance charges]. We do not add in any new [purchases/advances/loans]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add all the daily balances for the billing cycle together and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<P>(d) Average daily balance method (including current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account (including current transactions). To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/loans], and subtract any payments or credits, [and unpaid finance charges]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add up all the daily balances for the billing cycle and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<P>(e) Ending balance method
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the end of each billing cycle (including new purchases and deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle).
</P>
<P>(f) Daily balance method (including current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “daily balance” of your account for each day in the billing cycle. To get the “daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance.
</P>
<HD1>G-1(A)—Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<P>(a) Adjusted balance method
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “adjusted balance” of your account. We get the “adjusted balance” by taking the balance you owed at the end of the previous billing cycle and subtracting [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments and credits received during the present billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(b) Previous balance method
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the beginning of each billing cycle. We do not subtract any payments or credits received during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(c) Average daily balance method (excluding current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account. To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. We do not add in any new [purchases/advances/fees]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add all the daily balances for the billing cycle together and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<P>(d) Average daily balance method (including current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account. To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add up all the daily balances for the billing cycle and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<P>(e) Ending balance method
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the end of each billing cycle (including new [purchases/advances/fees] and deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle).
</P>
<P>(f) Daily balance method (including current transactions)
</P>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “daily balance” of your account for each day in the billing cycle. To get the “daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance.
</P>
<HD1>G-2—Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<P>You may be liable for the unauthorized use of your credit card [or other term that describes the credit card]. You will not be liable for unauthorized use that occurs after you notify [name of card issuer or its designee] at [address], orally or in writing, of the loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]] In any case, your liability will not exceed [insert $50 or any lesser amount under agreement with the cardholder].
</P>
<HD1>G-2(A)—Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<P>If you notice the loss or theft of your credit card or a possible unauthorized use of your card, you should write to us immediately at: [address] [address listed on your bill], 
</P>
<FP>or call us at [telephone number].
</FP>
<P>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]]
</P>
<P>You will not be liable for any unauthorized use that occurs after you notify us. You may, however, be liable for unauthorized use that occurs before your notice to us. In any case, your liability will not exceed [insert $50 or any lesser amount under agreement with the cardholder].
</P>
<HD1>G-3—Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD3>YOUR BILLING RIGHTS
</HD3>
<HD3>KEEP THIS NOTICE FOR FUTURE USE
</HD3>
<P>This notice contains important information about your rights and our responsibilities under the Fair Credit Billing Act.
</P>
<HD1>Notify Us in Case of Errors or Questions About Your Bill
</HD1>
<P>If you think your bill is wrong, or if you need more information about a transaction on your bill, write us [on a separate sheet] at [address] [the address listed on your bill]. Write to us as soon as possible. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the first bill on which the error or problem appeared. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]] You can telephone us, but doing so will not preserve your rights.
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• Describe the error and explain, if you can, why you believe there is an error. If you need more information, describe the item you are not sure about.
</P>
<P>If you have authorized us to pay your credit card bill automatically from your savings or checking account, you can stop the payment on any amount you think is wrong. To stop the payment your letter must reach us three business days before the automatic payment is scheduled to occur.
</P>
<HD1>Your Rights and Our Responsibilities After We Receive Your Written Notice
</HD1>
<P>We must acknowledge your letter within 30 days, unless we have corrected the error by then. Within 90 days, we must either correct the error or explain why we believe the bill was correct.
</P>
<P>After we receive your letter, we cannot try to collect any amount you question, or report you as delinquent. We can continue to bill you for the amount you question, including finance charges, and we can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit. You do not have to pay any questioned amount while we are investigating, but you are still obligated to pay the parts of your bill that are not in question.
</P>
<P>If we find that we made a mistake on your bill, you will not have to pay any finance charges related to any questioned amount. If we didn't make a mistake, you may have to pay finance charges, and you will have to make up any missed payments on the questioned amount. In either case, we will send you a statement of the amount you owe and the date that it is due.
</P>
<P>If you fail to pay the amount that we think you owe, we may report you as delinquent. However, if our explanation does not satisfy you and you write to us within ten days telling us that you still refuse to pay, we must tell anyone we report you to that you have a question about your bill. And, we must tell you the name of anyone we reported you to. We must tell anyone we report you to that the matter has been settled between us when it finally is.
</P>
<P>If we don't follow these rules, we can't collect the first $50 of the questioned amount, even if your bill was correct.
</P>
<HD1>Special Rule for Credit Card Purchases
</HD1>
<P>If you have a problem with the quality of property or services that you purchased with a credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the property or services.
</P>
<P>There are two limitations on this right:
</P>
<P>(a) You must have made the purchase in your home state or, if not within your home state within 100 miles of your current mailing address; and
</P>
<P>(b) The purchase price must have been more than $50.
</P>
<P>These limitations do not apply if we own or operate the merchant, or if we mailed you the advertisement for the property or services.
</P>
<HD1>G-3(A)—Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD2>Your Billing Rights: Keep This Document For Future Use
</HD2>
<P>This notice tells you about your rights and our responsibilities under the Fair Credit Billing Act.
</P>
<HD2>What To Do If You Find A Mistake On Your Statement
</HD2>
<P>If you think there is an error on your statement, write to us at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<FP>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]]
</FP>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• <I>Account information:</I> Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• <I>Dollar amount:</I> The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• <I>Description of problem:</I> If you think there is an error on your bill, describe what you believe is wrong and why you believe it is a mistake.
</P>
<P>You must contact us:
</P>
<P>• Within 60 days after the error appeared on your statement.
</P>
<P>• At least 3 business days before an automated payment is scheduled, if you want to stop payment on the amount you think is wrong.
</P>
<P>You must notify us of any potential errors <I>in writing</I> [or electronically]. You may call us, but if you do we are not required to investigate any potential errors and you may have to pay the amount in question.
</P>
<HD2>What Will Happen After We Receive Your Letter
</HD2>
<FP>When we receive your letter, we must do two things:
</FP>
<P>1. Within 30 days of receiving your letter, we must tell you that we received your letter. We will also tell you if we have already corrected the error.
</P>
<P>2. Within 90 days of receiving your letter, we must either correct the error or explain to you why we believe the bill is correct.
</P>
<FP>While we investigate whether or not there has been an error:
</FP>
<P>• We cannot try to collect the amount in question, or report you as delinquent on that amount.
</P>
<P>• The charge in question may remain on your statement, and we may continue to charge you interest on that amount.
</P>
<P>• While you do not have to pay the amount in question, you are responsible for the remainder of your balance.
</P>
<P>• We can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit.
</P>
<FP>After we finish our investigation, one of two things will happen:
</FP>
<P>• <I>If we made a mistake:</I> You will not have to pay the amount in question or any interest or other fees related to that amount.
</P>
<P>• <I>If we do not believe there was a mistake:</I> You will have to pay the amount in question, along with applicable interest and fees. We will send you a statement of the amount you owe and the date payment is due. We may then report you as delinquent if you do not pay the amount we think you owe.
</P>
<P>If you receive our explanation but still believe your bill is wrong, you must write to us within <I>10 days</I> telling us that you still refuse to pay. If you do so, we cannot report you as delinquent without also reporting that you are questioning your bill. We must tell you the name of anyone to whom we reported you as delinquent, and we must let those organizations know when the matter has been settled between us.
</P>
<P>If we do not follow all of the rules above, you do not have to pay the first $50 of the amount you question even if your bill is correct.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights If You Are Dissatisfied With Your Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you are dissatisfied with the goods or services that you have purchased with your credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the purchase.
</P>
<P>To use this right, all of the following must be true:
</P>
<P>1. The purchase must have been made in your home state or within 100 miles of your current mailing address, and the purchase price must have been more than $50. (Note: Neither of these are necessary if your purchase was based on an advertisement we mailed to you, or if we own the company that sold you the goods or services.)
</P>
<P>2. You must have used your credit card for the purchase. Purchases made with cash advances from an ATM or with a check that accesses your credit card account do not qualify.
</P>
<P>3. You must not yet have fully paid for the purchase.
</P>
<P>If all of the criteria above are met and you are still dissatisfied with the purchase, contact us <I>in writing</I> [or electronically] at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<P>[[Creditor Web or e-mail address]]
</P>
<P>While we investigate, the same rules apply to the disputed amount as discussed above. After we finish our investigation, we will tell you our decision. At that point, if we think you owe an amount and you do not pay, we may report you as delinquent.
</P>
<HD1>G-4—Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD3>BILLING RIGHTS SUMMARY
</HD3>
<HD2>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Bill
</HD2>
<P>If you think your bill is wrong, or if you need more information about a transaction on your bill, write us [on a separate sheet] at [address] [the address shown on your bill] as soon as possible. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or e-mail address]] We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the first bill on which the error or problem appeared. You can telephone us, but doing so will not preserve your rights.
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• Describe the error and explain, if you can, why you believe there is an error. If you need more information, describe the item you are unsure about.
</P>
<P>You do not have to pay any amount in question while we are investigating, but you are still obligated to pay the parts of your bill that are not in question. While we investigate your question, we cannot report you as delinquent or take any action to collect the amount you question.
</P>
<HD2>Special Rule for Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you have a problem with the quality of goods or services that you purchased with a credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may not have to pay the remaining amount due on the goods or services. You have this protection only when the purchase price was more than $50 and the purchase was made in your home state or within 100 miles of your mailing address. (If we own or operate the merchant, or if we mailed you the advertisement for the property or services, all purchases are covered regardless of amount or location of purchase.)
</P>
<HD1>G-4(A)—Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD2>What To Do If You Think You Find A Mistake On Your Statement
</HD2>
<P>If you think there is an error on your statement, write to us at:
</P>
<FP-1>[Creditor Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Creditor Address]
</FP-1>
<P>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or e-mail address]]
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• <I>Account information:</I> Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• <I>Dollar amount:</I> The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• <I>Description of Problem:</I> If you think there is an error on your bill, describe what you believe is wrong and why you believe it is a mistake.
</P>
<P>You must contact us within 60 days after the error appeared on your statement.
</P>
<P>You must notify us of any potential errors <I>in writing</I> [or electronically]. You may call us, but if you do we are not required to investigate any potential errors and you may have to pay the amount in question.
</P>
<P>While we investigate whether or not there has been an error, the following are true:
</P>
<P>• We cannot try to collect the amount in question, or report you as delinquent on that amount.
</P>
<P>• The charge in question may remain on your statement, and we may continue to charge you interest on that amount. But, if we determine that we made a mistake, you will not have to pay the amount in question or any interest or other fees related to that amount.
</P>
<P>• While you do not have to pay the amount in question, you are responsible for the remainder of your balance.
</P>
<P>• We can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights If You Are Dissatisfied With Your Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you are dissatisfied with the goods or services that you have purchased with your credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the purchase.
</P>
<P>To use this right, all of the following must be true:
</P>
<P>1. The purchase must have been made in your home state or within 100 miles of your current mailing address, and the purchase price must have been more than $50. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Neither of these are necessary if your purchase was based on an advertisement we mailed to you, or if we own the company that sold you the goods or services.)
</P>
<P>2. You must have used your credit card for the purchase. Purchases made with cash advances from an ATM or with a check that accesses your credit card account do not qualify.
</P>
<P>3. You must not yet have fully paid for the purchase.
</P>
<P>If all of the criteria above are met and you are still dissatisfied with the purchase, contact us <I>in writing</I> [or electronically] at:
</P>
<FP-1>[Creditor Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Creditor Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[[Creditor Web address]]
</FP-1>
<P>While we investigate, the same rules apply to the disputed amount as discussed above. After we finish our investigation, we will tell you our decision. At that point, if we think you owe an amount and you do not pay we may report you as delinquent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.002.gif"/>
<HD1>G-11—Applications and Solicitations Made Available to the General Public Model Clauses
</HD1>
<HD3>(a) Disclosure of Required Credit Information
</HD3>
<P>The information about the costs of the card described in this [application]/[solicitation] is accurate as of (<I>month/year</I>). This information may have changed after that date. To find out what may have changed, [call us at (<I>telephone number</I>)][write to us at (<I>address</I>)].
</P>
<HD3>(b) No Disclosure of Credit Information
</HD3>
<P>There are costs associated with the use of this card. To obtain information about these costs, call us at (<I>telephone number</I>) or write to us at (<I>address</I>).
</P>
<HD1>G-12 [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>G-13(A)—Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (Combined Notice)
</HD1>
<P>The credit card account you have with us is insured. This is to notify you that we plan to replace your current coverage with insurance coverage from a different insurer.
</P>
<P>If we obtain insurance for your account from a different insurer, you may cancel the insurance.
</P>
<FP-1>[Your premium rate will increase to $ ____ per ____.]
</FP-1>
<P>[Your coverage will be affected by the following:
</P>
<P>[ ] The elimination of a type of coverage previously provided to you. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A lowering of the age at which your coverage will terminate or will become more restrictive. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A decrease in your maximum insurable loan balance, maximum periodic benefit payment, maximum number of payments, or any other decrease in the dollar amount of your coverage or benefits. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A restriction on the eligibility for benefits for you or others. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A restriction in the definition of “disability” or other key term of coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] The addition of exclusions or limitations that are broader or other than those under the current coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] An increase in the elimination (waiting) period or a change to nonretroactive coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details).]
</P>
<P>[The name and mailing address of the new insurer providing the coverage for your account is (name and address).]
</P>
<HD1>G-13(B)—Change in Insurance Provider Model Form
</HD1>
<P>We have changed the insurer providing the coverage for your account. The new insurer's name and address are (name and address). A copy of the new policy or certificate is attached.
</P>
<P>You may cancel the insurance for your account.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.022.gif"/>
<HD1>G-16(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [insert name of program], and bill my account the fee of [how cost is determined]. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<FP-DASH>[To Enroll, Sign Here]/[To Enroll, Initial Here]. X 
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>G-16(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [name of program], and bill my account the fee of $.83 per $100 of my month-end account balance. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<FP-DASH>To Enroll, Initial Here. X 
</FP-DASH>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.010.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(H)—Deferred Interest Periodic Statement Clause
</HD1>
<P>[You must pay your promotional balance in full by [date] to avoid paying accrued interest charges.]
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er29jn10.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22fe10.025.gif"/>
<HD1>G-24—Deferred Interest Offer Clauses
</HD1>
<P>(a) For Credit Card Accounts Under an Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Consumer Credit Plan
</P>
<P>[Interest will be charged to your account from the purchase date if the purchase balance is not paid in full within the/by [deferred interest period/date] or if you make a late payment.]
</P>
<P>(b) For Other Open-End Plans
</P>
<P>[Interest will be charged to your account from the purchase date if the purchase balance is not paid in full within the/by [deferred interest period/date] or if your account is otherwise in default.]
</P>
<P>G-25(A)—Consent Form for Over-the-Credit Limit Transactions
</P>
<HD2>Your choice regarding over-the-credit limit coverage
</HD2>
<P>Unless you tell us otherwise, we will decline any transaction that causes you to go over your credit limit. If you want us to authorize these transactions, you can request over-the-credit limit coverage.
</P>
<P>If you have over-the-credit limit coverage and you go over your credit limit, we will charge you a fee of up to $35. We may also increase your APRs to the Penalty APR of XX.XX%. You will only pay one fee per billing cycle, even if you go over your limit multiple times in the same cycle.
</P>
<P>Even if you request over-the-credit limit coverage, in some cases we may still decline a transaction that would cause you to go over your limit, such as if you are past due or significantly over your credit limit.
</P>
<P>If you want over-the-limit coverage and to allow us to authorize transactions that go over your credit limit, please:
</P>
<FP-1>—Call us at [telephone number]; 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Visit [Web site]; or 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Check or initial the box below, and return the form to us at [address]. 
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>__ I want over-the-limit coverage. I understand that if I go over my credit limit, my APRs may be increased and I will be charged a fee of up to $35. [I have the right to cancel this coverage at any time.]
</P>
<P>[__ I <I>do not</I> want over-the-limit coverage. I understand that transactions that exceed my credit limit will not be authorized.]
</P>
<FP-DASH>Printed Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Account Number]:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>G-25(B)—Revocation Notice for Periodic Statement Regarding Over-the-Credit Limit Transactions
</HD3>
<P>You currently have over-the-credit limit coverage on your account, which means that we pay transactions that cause you go to over your credit limit. If you do go over your credit limit, we will charge you a fee of up to $35. We may also increase your APRs. To remove over-the-credit-limit coverage from your account, call us at 1-800-xxxxxxx or visit [insert web site]. [You may also write us at: [insert address].]
</P>
<P>[You may also check or initial the box below and return this form to us at: [insert address].
</P>
<P>__ I want to cancel over-the-limit coverage for my account.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Printed Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Account Number]:

</FP-DASH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 60191, Dec. 9, 1981; 54 FR 13868, Apr. 6, 1989; 54 FR 24689, June 9, 1989; 55 FR 38312, Sept. 18, 1990; 65 FR 58908, Oct. 3, 2000; 75 FR 7825, Feb. 22, 2010; 75 FR 37573, June 26, 2010]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 226— Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses
</HEAD>
<FP-2>H-1 Credit Sale Model Form (§ 226.18)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-2 Loan Model Form (§ 226.18)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-3 Amount Financed Itemization Model Form (§ 226.18(c))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(A) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 226.18(f)(1))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(B) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 226.18(f)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(C) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 226.19(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(D) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 226.20(c))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(E)—Fixed-Rate Mortgage Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 226.18(s))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(F)—Adjustable-Rate Mortgage or Step-Rate Mortgage Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 226.18(s))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(G)—Mortgage with Negative Amortization Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 226.18(s))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(H)—Fixed-Rate Mortgage with Interest-Only Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 226.18(s))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(I)—Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Introductory Rate Disclosure Model Clause (§ 226.18(s)(2)(iii))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(J)—Balloon Payment Disclosure Model Clause (§ 226.18(s)(5))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-4(K)—No Guarantee to Refinance Statement Model Clause (§ 226.18(t))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-5 Demand Feature Model Clauses (§ 226.18(i))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-6 Assumption Policy Model Clause (§ 226.18(q))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-7 Required Deposit Model Clause (§ 226.18(r))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-8 Rescission Model Form (General) (§ 226.23)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-9 Rescission Model Form (Refinancing (with Original Creditor)) (§ 226.23)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-10 Credit Sale Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-11 Installment Loan Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-12 Refinancing Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-13 Mortgage with Demand Feature Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-14 Variable-Rate Mortgage Sample (§ 226.19(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-15 Graduated-Payment Mortgage Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-16 Mortgage Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-17(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</FP-2>
<FP-2>H-17(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.026.gif"/>
<HD2>H-4(C)—Variable-Rate Model Clauses
</HD2>
<P>This disclosure describes the features of the adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) program you are considering. Information on other ARM programs is available upon request.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate and Payment Are Determined
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate will be based on [an index plus a margin] [a formula].
</P>
<P>• Your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and loan term.
</P>
<FP-1>—[The interest rate will be based on (identification of index) plus our margin. Ask for our current interest rate and margin.]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—[The interest rate will be based on (identification of formula). Ask us for our current interest rate.]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Information about the index [formula for rate adjustments] is published [can be found] ________________.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—[The initial interest rate is not based on the (index) (formula) used to make later adjustments. Ask us for the amount of current interest rate discounts.]
</FP-1>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate can change (frequency).
</P>
<P>• [Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than ______ percentage points at each adjustment.]
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase [or decrease] more than ______ percentage points over the term of the loan.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Payment Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your payment can change (frequency) based on changes in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>• [Your payment cannot increase more than (amount or percentage) at each adjustment.]
</P>
<P>• You will be notified in writing ________ days before the due date of a payment at a new level. This notice will contain information about your interest rates, payment amount, and loan balance.
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified once each year during which interest rate adjustments, but no payment adjustments, have been made to your loan. This notice will contain information about your interest rates, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<P>• [For example, on a $10,000 [term] loan with an initial interest rate of ________ [(the rate shown in the interest rate column below for the year 19 ________)] [(in effect (month) (year)], the maximum amount that the interest rate can rise under this program is ________ percentage points, to ________%, and the monthly payment can rise from a first-year payment of $________ to a maximum of $________ in the __________ year. To see what your payments would be, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × ________ = $________ per month.)]
</P>
<HD2>[Example
</HD2>
<P>The example below shows how your payments would have changed under this ARM program based on actual changes in the index from 1982 to 1996. This does not necessarily indicate how your index will change in the future.
</P>
<P>The example is based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__________
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Change date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">__________
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(frequency)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(frequency)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Margin] *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">________
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Caps ________ [periodic interest rate cap]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">   ________ [lifetime interest rate cap
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">   ________ [payment cap]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Interest rate carryover]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Negative amortization]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Interest rate discount] **
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Index.......(identification of index or formula)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This is a margin we have used recently, your margin may be different.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** This is the amount of a discount we have provided recently; your loan may be discounted by a different amount.]</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Margin
<br/>(Percentage
<br/>points)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest
<br/>Rate
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly
<br/>Payment
<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>Balance
<br/>($)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1982</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1985</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1986</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1987</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1988</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">Note: To see what your payments would have been during that period, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, in 1996 the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 taken out in 1982 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × ________ = $________ per month.)</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc10.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er24se10.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er24se10.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er24se10.002.gif"/>
<HD1>H-4(I)—Introductory Rate Model Clause
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Introductory Rate Notice
</FP-1>
<FP-1>You have a discounted introductory rate of ________ % that ends after (period).
</FP-1>
<FP-1>In the (period in sequence), even if market rates do not change, this rate will increase to ____ %.]
</FP-1>
<HD1>H-4(J)—Balloon Payment Model Clause
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Final Balloon Payment due (date): $________]
</FP-1>
<HD1>H-4(K)—“No-Guarantee-to-Refinance” Statement Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>There is no guarantee that you will be able to refinance to lower your rate and payments.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25oc10.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.030.gif"/>
<HD1>H-9—Rescission Model Form (Refinancing with Original Creditor) 
</HD1>
<HD3>NOTICE OF RIGHT TO CANCEL 
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Right To Cancel
</HD3>
<P>You are entering into a new transaction to increase the amount of credit previously provided to you. Your home is the security for this new transaction. You have a legal right under federal law to cancel this new transaction, without cost, within three business days from whichever of the following events occurs last: 
</P>
<P>(1) the date of this new transaction, which is ________________; or 
</P>
<P>(2) the date you received your new Truth in Lending disclosures; or 
</P>
<P>(3) the date you received this notice of your right to cancel. 
</P>
<P>If you cancel this new transaction, it will not affect any amount that you presently owe. Your home is the security for that amount. Within 20 calendar days after we receive your notice of cancellation of this new transaction, we must take the steps necessary to reflect the fact that your home does not secure the increase of credit. We must also return any money you have given to us or anyone else in connection with this new transaction. 
</P>
<P>You may keep any money we have given you in this new transaction until we have done the things mentioned above, but you must then offer to return the money at the address below.
</P>
<P>If we do not take possession of the money within 20 calendar days of your offer, you may keep it without further obligation. 
</P>
<HD1>How To Cancel 
</HD1>
<P>If you decide to cancel this new transaction, you may do so by notifying us in writing, at 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>(Creditor's name and business address). 
</FP-1>
<P>You may use any written statement that is signed and dated by you and states your intention to cancel, or you may use this notice by dating and signing below. Keep one copy of this notice because it contains important information about your rights. 
</P>
<P>If you cancel by mail or telegram, you must send the notice no later than midnight of
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Date) 
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(or midnight of the third business day following the latest of the three events listed above). 
</FP>
<P>If you send or deliver your written notice to cancel some other way, it must be delivered to the above address no later than that time.
</P>
<FP-1>I WISH TO CANCEL
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-1>Consumer's Signature 
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date 
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.034.gif"/>
<HD2>H-14—Variable-Rate Mortgage Sample
</HD2>
<P>This disclosure describes the features of the adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) program you are considering. Information on other ARM programs is available upon request.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate and Payment Are Determined
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate will be based on an index rate plus a margin.
</P>
<P>• Your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and loan term.
</P>
<FP-1>—The interest rate will be based on the weekly average yield on United States Treasury securities adjusted to a constant maturity of 1 year (your index), plus our margin. Ask us for our current interest rate and margin.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Information about the index rate is published weekly in the Wall Street Journal.
</FP-1>
<P>• Your interest rate will equal the index rate plus our margin unless your interest rate “caps” limit the amount of change in the interest rate.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate can change yearly.
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than 2 percentage points per year.
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than 5 percentage points over the term of the loan.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Monthly Payment Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your monthly payment can increase or decrease substantially based on annual changes in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>• [For example, on a $10,000, 30-year loan with an initial interest rate of 12.41 percent in effect in July 1996, the maximum amount that the interest rate can rise under this program is 5 percentage points, to 17.41 percent, and the monthly payment can rise from a first-year payment of $106.03 to a maximum of $145.34 in the fourth year. To see what your payment is, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × 106.03 = $636.18 per month.)
</P>
<P>• You will be notified in writing 25 days before the annual payment adjustment may be made. This notice will contain information about your interest rates, payment amount and loan balance.]
</P>
<HD2>[Example
</HD2>
<P>The example below shows how your payments would have changed under this ARM program based on actual changes in the index from 1982 to 1996. This does not necessarily indicate how your index will change in the future. The example is based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 years
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Margin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 percentage points
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Caps________ 2 percentage points annual interest rate
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">  ________ 5 percentage points lifetime interest rate
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Index________ Weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year
<br/>(as of 1st week ending in July)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Margin*
<br/>(percentage
<br/>points)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest
<br/>Rate
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly
<br/>Payment
<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>Balance
<br/>($)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1982</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,989.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">**15.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,969.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,945.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1985</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">**13.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,903.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1986</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,848.94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1987</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,786.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1988</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,716.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,637.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,547.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,446.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,331.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,201.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,054.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,888.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">***12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,700.37
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*This is a margin we have used recently; your margin may be different.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">**This interest rate reflects a 2 percentage point annual interest rate cap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">***This interest rate reflects a 5 percentage point lifetime interest rate cap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Note: To see what your payments would have been during that period, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, in 1996 the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 taken out in 1982 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × $106.73 = $640.38.)</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>• You will be notified in writing 25 days before the annual payment adjustment may be made. This notice will contain information about your interest rates, payment amount and loan balance.]
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20de01.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14au09.011.gif"/>
<HD1>H-17(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [insert name of program], and bill my account the fee of [insert charge for the initial term of coverage]. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>[To Enroll, Sign Here]/[To Enroll, Initial Here]. X ____________________
</P>
<HD1>H-17(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [name of program], and bill my account the fee of $200.00. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>To Enroll, Initial Here. X ____________________

</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 29246, June 1, 1981; 52 FR 48671, Dec. 24, 1987; 53 FR 467, Jan. 7, 1988; Reg. Z, 60 FR 15473, Mar. 24, 1995; 61 FR 49247, Sept. 19, 1996; 62 FR 63444, 63445, Dec. 1, 1997; 62 FR 66179, Dec. 17, 1997; Reg. Z, 63 FR 2723, Jan. 16, 1998; 66 FR 65618, Dec. 20, 2001; 74 FR 41236, Aug. 14, 2009; 75 FR 7845, Feb. 22, 2010; 75 FR 58484, Sept. 24, 2010]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 226—Federal Enforcement Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The following list indicates which federal agency enforces Regulation Z for particular classes of businesses. Any questions concerning compliance by a particular business should be directed to the appropriate enforcement agency. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<HD2>National banks and federal branches and federal agencies of foreign banks
</HD2>
<P>District office of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency for the district in which the institution is located.
</P>
<HD2>State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than federal branches, federal agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act
</HD2>
<P>Federal Reserve Bank serving the district in which the institution is located.
</P>
<HD2>Non-member insured banks and insured state branches of foreign banks
</HD2>
<P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Regional director for the region in which the institution is located. 
</P>
<HD1>Savings institutions insured under the Savings Association Insurance Fund of the FDIC and federally chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund of the FDIC (but not including state-chartered savings banks insured under the Bank Insurance Fund).
</HD1>
<P>Office of Thrift Supervision Regional Director for the region in which the institution is located.
</P>
<HD1>Federal Credit Unions
</HD1>
<P>Regional office of the National Credit Union Administration serving the area in which the Federal credit union is located.
</P>
<HD1>Air Carriers
</HD1>
<P>Assistant General Counsel for Aviation Enforcement and Proceedings, Department of Transportation, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Washington, DC 20590.
</P>
<HD1>Creditors Subject to Packers and Stockyards Act
</HD1>
<P>Nearest Packers and Stockyards Administration area supervisor.
</P>
<HD1>Federal Land Banks, Federal Land Bank Associations, Federal Intermediate Credit Banks and Production Credit Associations.
</HD1>
<P>Farm Credit Administration, 490 L'Enfant Plaza, SW., Washington, DC 20578.
</P>
<HD1>Retail, Department Stores, Consumer Finance Companies, All Other Creditors, and All Nonbank Credit Card Issuers (Creditors operating on a local or regional basis should use the address of the FTC Regional Office in which they operate.)
</HD1>
<P>Division of Credit Practices, Bureau of Consumer Protection, Federal Trade Commission, Washington, DC 20580. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 50 FR 8708, Mar. 5, 1985; 54 FR 53539, Dec. 29, 1989; 56 FR 51322, Oct. 11, 1991; 57 FR 20400, May 13, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 226—Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Closed-End Credit Transactions
</HEAD>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) Introduction
</HD1>
<P>(1) Section 226.22(a) of Regulation Z provides that the annual percentage rate for other than open end credit transactions shall be determined in accordance with either the actuarial method or the United States Rule method. This appendix contains an explanation of the actuarial method as well as equations, instructions and examples of how this method applies to single advance and multiple advance transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the actuarial method, at the end of each unit-period (or fractional unit-period) the unpaid balance of the amount financed is increased by the finance charge earned during that period and is decreased by the total payment (if any) made at the end of that period. The determination of unit-periods and fractional unit-periods shall be consistent with the definitions and rules in paragraphs (b) (3), (4) and (5) of this section and the general equation in paragraph (b)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In contrast, under the United States Rule method, at the end of each payment period, the unpaid balance of the amount financed is increased by the finance charge earned during that payment period and is decreased by the payment made at the end of that payment period. If the payment is less than the finance charge earned, the adjustment of the unpaid balance of the amount financed is postponed until the end of the next payment period. If at that time the sum of the two payments is still less than the total earned finance charge for the two payment periods, the adjustment of the unpaid balance of the amount financed is postponed still another payment period, and so forth.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) Instructions and Equations for the Actuarial Method
</HD1>
<HD2>(1) General Rule
</HD2>
<P>The annual percentage rate shall be the nominal annual percentage rate determined by multiplying the unit-period rate by the number of unit-periods in a year.
</P>
<HD2>(2) Term of the Transaction
</HD2>
<P>The term of the transaction begins on the date of its consummation, except that if the finance charge or any portion of it is earned beginning on a later date, the term begins on the later date. The term ends on the date the last payment is due, except that if an advance is scheduled after that date, the term ends on the later date. For computation purposes, the length of the term shall be equal to the time interval between any point in time on the beginning date to the same point in time on the ending date.
</P>
<HD2>(3) Definitions of Time Intervals
</HD2>
<P>(i) A period is the interval of time between advances or between payments and includes the interval of time between the date the finance charge begins to be earned and the date of the first advance thereafter or the date of the first payment thereafter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A common period is any period that occurs more than once in a transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A standard interval of time is a day, week, semimonth, month, or a multiple of a week or a month up to, but not exceeding, 1 year.
</P>
<P>(iv) All months shall be considered equal. Full months shall be measured from any point in time on a given date of a given month to the same point in time on the same date of another month. If a series of payments (or advances) is scheduled for the last day of each month, months shall be measured from the last day of the given month to the last day of another month. If payments (or advances) are scheduled for the 29th or 30th of each month, the last day of February shall be used when applicable.
</P>
<HD2>(4) Unit-period
</HD2>
<P>(i) In all transactions other than a single advance, single payment transaction, the unit-period shall be that common period, not to exceed 1 year, that occurs most frequently in the transaction, except that
</P>
<P>(A) If 2 or more common periods occur with equal frequency, the smaller of such common periods shall be the unit-period; or
</P>
<P>(B) If there is no common period in the transaction, the unit-period shall be that period which is the average of all periods rounded to the nearest whole standard interval of time. If the average is equally near 2 standard intervals of time, the lower shall be the unit-period.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a single advance, single payment transaction, the unit-period shall be the term of the transaction, but shall not exceed 1 year.
</P>
<HD2>(5) Number of Unit-periods Between 2 Given Dates
</HD2>
<P>(i) The number of days between 2 dates shall be the number of 24-hour intervals between any point in time on the first date to the same point in time on the second date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unit-period is a month, the number of full unit-periods between 2 dates shall be the number of months measured back from the later date. The remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be the number of days measured forward from the earlier date to the beginning of the first full unit-period, divided by 30. If the unit-period is a month, there are 12 unit-periods per year. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the unit-period is a semimonth or a multiple of a month not exceeding 11 months, the number of days between 2 dates shall be 30 times the number of full months measured back from the later date, plus the number of remaining days. The number of full unit-periods and the remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be determined by dividing such number of days by 15 in the case of a semimonthly unit-period or by the appropriate multiple of 30 in the case of a multimonthly unit-period. If the unit-period is a semimonth, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 24. If the number of unit-periods is a multiple of a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the unit-period is a day, a week, or a multiple of a week, the number of full unit-periods and the remaining fractions of a unit-period shall be determined by dividing the number of days between the 2 given dates by the number of days per unit-period. If the unit-period is a day, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365. If the unit-period is a week or a multiple of a week, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 52 divided by the number of weeks per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(v) If the unit-period is a year, the number of full unit-periods between 2 dates shall be the number of full years (each equal to 12 months) measured back from the later date. The remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be
</P>
<P>(A) The remaining number of months divided by 12 if the remaining interval is equal to a whole number of months, or
</P>
<P>(B) The remaining number of days divided by 365 if the remaining interval is <I>not</I> equal to a whole number of months.
</P>
<P>(vi) In a single advance, single payment transaction in which the term is less than a year and is equal to a whole number of months, the number of unit-periods in the term shall be 1, and the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months in the term or 365 divided by the number of days in the term.
</P>
<P>(vii) In a single advance, single payment transaction in which the term is less than a year and is <I>not</I> equal to a whole number of months, the number of unit-periods in the term shall be 1, and the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365 divided by the number of days in the term.
</P>
<HD2>(6) Percentage Rate for a Fraction of a Unit-period
</HD2>
<P>The percentage rate of finance charge for a fraction (less than 1) of a unit-period shall be equal to such fraction multiplied by the percentage rate of finance charge per unit-period.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.044.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec27se91.047.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 46 FR 20892, Apr. 7, 1981, as amended at 46 FR 29246, June 1, 1981]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix K" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix K to Part 226—Total Annual Loan Cost Rate Computations for Reverse Mortgage Transactions
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> Creditors are required to disclose a series of total annual loan cost rates for each reverse mortgage transaction. This appendix contains the equations creditors must use in computing the total annual loan cost rate for various transactions, as well as instructions, explanations, and examples for various transactions. This appendix is modeled after appendix J of this part (Annual Percentage Rates Computations for Closed-end Credit Transactions); creditors should consult appendix J of this part for additional guidance in using the formulas for reverse mortgages. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Instructions and equations for the total annual loan cost rate</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The total annual loan cost rate shall be the nominal total annual loan cost rate determined by multiplying the unit-period rate by the number of unit-periods in a year. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Term of the transaction.</I> For purposes of total annual loan cost disclosures, the term of a reverse mortgage transaction is assumed to begin on the first of the month in which consummation is expected to occur. If a loan cost or any portion of a loan cost is initially incurred beginning on a date later than consummation, the term of the transaction is assumed to begin on the first of the month in which that loan cost is incurred. For purposes of total annual loan cost disclosures, the term ends on each of the assumed loan periods specified in § 226.33(c)(6). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions of time intervals.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>period</I> is the interval of time between advances. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A <I>common period</I> is any period that occurs more than once in a transaction. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A <I>standard interval of time</I> is a day, week, semimonth, month, or a multiple of a week or a month up to, but not exceeding, 1 year. 
</P>
<P>(iv) All months shall be considered to have an equal number of days. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unit-period.</I> (i) In all transactions other than single-advance, single-payment transactions, the unit-period shall be that common period, not to exceed one year, that occurs most frequently in the transaction, except that: 
</P>
<P>(A) If two or more common periods occur with equal frequency, the smaller of such common periods shall be the unit-period; or 
</P>
<P>(B) If there is no common period in the transaction, the unit-period shall be that period which is the average of all periods rounded to the nearest whole standard interval of time. If the average is equally near two standard intervals of time, the lower shall be the unit-period. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In a single-advance, single-payment transaction, the unit-period shall be the term of the transaction, but shall not exceed one year. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Number of unit-periods between two given dates.</I> (i) The number of days between two dates shall be the number of 24-hour intervals between any point in time on the first date to the same point in time on the second date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unit-period is a month, the number of full unit-periods between two dates shall be the number of months. If the unit-period is a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the unit-period is a semimonth or a multiple of a month not exceeding 11 months, the number of days between two dates shall be 30 times the number of full months. The number of full unit-periods shall be determined by dividing the number of days by 15 in the case of a semimonthly unit-period or by the appropriate multiple of 30 in the case of a multimonthly unit-period. If the unit-period is a semimonth, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 24. If the number of unit-periods is a multiple of a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months per unit-period. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If the unit-period is a day, a week, or a multiple of a week, the number of full unit-periods shall be determined by dividing the number of days between the two given dates by the number of days per unit-period. If the unit-period is a day, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365. If the unit-period is a week or a multiple of a week, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 52 divided by the number of weeks per unit-period. 
</P>
<P>(v) If the unit-period is a year, the number of full unit-periods between two dates shall be the number of full years (each equal to 12 months). 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Symbols.</I> The symbols used to express the terms of a transaction in the equation set forth in paragraph (b)(8) of this appendix are defined as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">j</E> = The amount of each periodic or lump-sum advance to the consumer under the reverse mortgage transaction. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = Percentage rate of the total annual loan cost per unit-period, expressed as a decimal equivalent. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j = The number of unit-periods until the jth advance. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = The number of unit-periods between consummation and repayment of the debt. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">n</E> = Min (Bal<E T="52">n</E>, Val<E T="52">n</E>). This is the maximum amount that the creditor can be repaid at the specified loan term. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Bal<E T="52">n</E> = Loan balance at time of repayment, including all costs and fees incurred by the consumer (including any shared appreciation or shared equity amount) compounded to time n at the creditor's contract rate of interest. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Val<E T="52">n</E> = Val<E T="52">0</E> (1 + σ)
<SU>y</SU>, where Val<E T="52">0</E> is the property value at consummation, σ is the assumed annual rate of appreciation for the dwelling, and y is the number of years in the assumed term. Val<E T="52">n</E> must be reduced by the amount of any equity reserved for the consumer by agreement between the parties, or by 7 percent (or the amount or percentage specified in the credit agreement), if the amount required to be repaid is limited to the net proceeds of sale. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>σ = The summation operator.
</FP-2>
<P>Symbols used in the examples shown in this appendix are defined as follows:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="32" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.015.gif"/></MATH>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="78" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.007.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-2>w = The number of unit-periods per year. 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I = wi × 100 = the nominal total annual loan cost rate. 
</FP-2>
<P>(7) <I>General equation.</I> The total annual loan cost rate for a reverse mortgage transaction must be determined by first solving the following formula, which sets forth the relationship between the advances to the consumer and the amount owed to the creditor under the terms of the reverse mortgage agreement for the loan cost rate per unit-period (the loan cost rate per unit-period is then multiplied by the number of unit-periods per year to obtain the total annual loan cost rate I; that is, I = wi): 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="32" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.008.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(8) <I>Solution of general equation by iteration process.</I> (i) The general equation in paragraph (b)(7) of this appendix, when applied to a simple transaction for a reverse mortgage loan of equal monthly advances of $350 each, and with a total amount owed of $14,313.08 at an assumed repayment period of two years, takes the special form:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="47" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.009.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>Using the iteration procedures found in steps 1 through 4 of (b)(9)(i) of appendix J of this part, the total annual loan cost rate, correct to two decimals, is 48.53%. 
</FP>
<P>(ii) In using these iteration procedures, it is expected that calculators or computers will be programmed to carry all available decimals throughout the calculation and that enough iterations will be performed to make virtually certain that the total annual loan cost rate obtained, when rounded to two decimals, is correct. Total annual loan cost rates in the examples below were obtained by using a 10-digit programmable calculator and the iteration procedure described in appendix J of this part. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Assumption for discretionary cash advances.</I> If the consumer controls the timing of advances made after consummation (such as in a credit line arrangement), the creditor must use the general formula in paragraph (b)(7) of this appendix. The total annual loan cost rate shall be based on the assumption that 50 percent of the principal loan amount is advanced at closing, or in the case of an open-end transaction, at the time the consumer becomes obligated under the plan. Creditors shall assume the advances are made at the interest rate then in effect and that no further advances are made to, or repayments made by, the consumer during the term of the transaction or plan. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Assumption for variable-rate reverse mortgage transactions.</I> If the interest rate for a reverse mortgage transaction may increase during the loan term and the amount or timing is not known at consummation, creditors shall base the disclosures on the initial interest rate in effect at the time the disclosures are provided. 
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Assumption for closing costs.</I> In calculating the total annual loan cost rate, creditors shall assume all closing and other consumer costs are financed by the creditor. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of total annual loan cost rate computations</I>—(1) <I>Lump-sum advance at consummation.</I> 
</P>
<FP-1>Lump-sum advance to consumer at consummation: $30,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract interest rate: 11.60% 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 78): 10 years 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 4%
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P<E T="52">10</E> = Min (103,385.84, 137,662.72) 
</FP-1>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="32" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er29se95.004.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-1>i = .1317069438 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.1317069438 × 1)) = 13.17% 
</FP-1>
<P>(2) <I>Monthly advance beginning at consummation.</I> 
</P>
<FP-1>Monthly advance to consumer, beginning at consummation: $492.51 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract interest rate: 9.00% 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 78): 10 years 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 8% 
</FP-1>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="60" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.011.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-1>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.009061140 × 12)) = 10.87%
</FP-1>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum advance at consummation and monthly advances thereafter.</I> 
</P>
<FP-1>Lump sum advance to consumer at consummation: $10,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monthly advance to consumer, beginning at consummation: $725 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract rate of interest: 8.5% 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 75): 12 years 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 8% 
</FP-1>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="57" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er24mr95.012.gif"/></MATH>
<FP-1>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.007708844 × 12)) = 9.25% 
</FP-1>
<P>(d) <I>Reverse mortgage model form and sample form</I>—(1) <I>Model form.</I> 
</P>
<HD1>Total Annual Loan Cost Rate 
</HD1>
<HD2>Loan Terms 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Age of youngest borrower: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised property value: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Interest rate: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monthly advance: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Initial draw: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Line of credit: 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Initial Loan Charges 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Closing costs: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mortgage insurance premium: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Annuity cost: 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Monthly Loan Charges
</HD2>
<FP-1>Servicing fee: 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Other Charges: 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Mortgage insurance: 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shared Appreciation: 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Repayment Limits
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Assumed annual appreciation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Total annual loan cost rate 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2-year loan term 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term] 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The cost of any reverse mortgage loan depends on how long you keep the loan and how much your house appreciates in value. Generally, the longer you keep a reverse mortgage, the lower the total annual loan cost rate will be. 
</P>
<P>This table shows the estimated cost of your reverse mortgage loan, expressed as an annual rate. It illustrates the cost for three [four] loan terms: 2 years, [half of life expectancy for someone your age,] that life expectancy, and 1.4 times that life expectancy. The table also shows the cost of the loan, assuming the value of your home appreciates at three different rates: 0%, 4% and 8%. 
</P>
<P>The total annual loan cost rates in this table are based on the total charges associated with this loan. These charges typically include principal, interest, closing costs, mortgage insurance premiums, annuity costs, and servicing costs (but not costs when you sell the home). 
</P>
<P>The rates in this table are estimates. Your actual cost may differ if, for example, the amount of your loan advances varies or the interest rate on your mortgage changes. 
</P>
<HD1>Signing an Application or Receiving These Disclosures Does Not Require You To Complete This Loan 
</HD1>
<P>(2) Sample Form. 
</P>
<HD1>Total Annual Loan Cost Rate 
</HD1>
<HD2>Loan Terms 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Age of youngest borrower: 75 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised property value: $100,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Interest rate: 9% 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monthly advance: $301.80 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Initial draw: $1,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Line of credit: $4,000 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Initial Loan Charges 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Closing costs: $5,000 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Mortgage insurance premium: None 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Annuity cost: None 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Monthly Loan Charges 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Servicing fee: None 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Other Charges 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Mortgage insurance: None 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Shared Appreciation: None 
</FP-1>
<HD2>Repayment Limits 
</HD2>
<FP-1>Net proceeds estimated at 93% of projected home sale
</FP-1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Assumed annual appreciation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Total annual loan cost rate 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2-year loan term 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[6-year loan term] 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12-year loan term 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">17-year loan term 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94%]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.86%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.87% 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94%]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.03%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.14% 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94%]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.03%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.20%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The cost of any reverse mortgage loan depends on how long you keep the loan and how much your house appreciates in value. Generally, the longer you keep a reverse mortgage, the lower the total annual loan cost rate will be. 
</P>
<P>This table shows the estimated cost of your reverse mortgage loan, expressed as an annual rate. It illustrates the cost for three [four] loan terms: 2 years, [half of life expectancy for someone your age,] that life expectancy, and 1.4 times that life expectancy. The table also shows the cost of the loan, assuming the value of your home appreciates at three different rates: 0%,4% and 8%. 
</P>
<P>The total annual loan cost rates in this table are based on the total charges associated with this loan. These charges typically include principal, interest, closing costs, mortgage insurance premiums, annuity costs, and servicing costs (but not disposition costs—costs when you sell the home). 
</P>
<P>The rates in this table are estimates. Your actual cost may differ if, for example, the amount of your loan advances varies or the interest rate on your mortgage changes. 
</P>
<HD1>Signing an Application or Receiving These Disclosures Does Not Require You To Complete This Loan 
</HD1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Z, 60 FR 15474, Mar. 24, 1995, as amended at 60 FR 50400, Sept. 29, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix L" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix L to Part 226—Assumed Loan Periods for Computations of Total Annual Loan Cost Rates
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required tables.</I> In calculating the total annual loan cost rates in accordance with appendix K of this part, creditors shall assume three loan periods, as determined by the following table. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan periods.</I> (1) Loan Period 1 is a two-year loan period. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loan Period 2 is the life expectancy in years of the youngest borrower to become obligated on the reverse mortgage loan, as shown in the U.S. Decennial Life Tables for 1979-1981 for females, rounded to the nearest whole year. 
</P>
<P>(3) Loan Period 3 is the life expectancy figure in Loan Period 3, multiplied by 1.4 and rounded to the nearest full year (life expectancy figures at .5 have been rounded up to 1). 
</P>
<P>(4) At the creditor's option, an additional period may be included, which is the life expectancy figure in Loan Period 2, multiplied by .5 and rounded to the nearest full year (life expectancy figures at .5 have been rounded up to 1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age of youngest borrower 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 1 (in years) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[Optional loan period (in years)] 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 2 (life expectancy) (in years) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 3 (in years) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[11]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[10]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[10]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95 and over</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 15476, Mar. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M1 to Part 226—Repayment Disclosures
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) “Promotional terms” means terms of a cardholder's account that will expire in a fixed period of time, as set forth by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) “Deferred interest or similar plan” means a plan where a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on balances or transactions if those balances or transactions are paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculating minimum payment repayment estimates.</I> (1) <I>Minimum payment formulas.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, card issuers must use the minimum payment formula(s) that apply to a cardholder's account. If more than one minimum payment formula applies to an account, the issuer must apply each minimum payment formula to the portion of the balance to which the formula applies. In this case, the issuer must disclose the longest repayment period calculated. For example, assume that an issuer uses one minimum payment formula to calculate the minimum payment amount for a general revolving feature, and another minimum payment formula to calculate the minimum payment amount for special purchases, such as a “club plan purchase.” Also, assume that based on a consumer's balances in these features and the annual percentage rates that apply to such features, the repayment period calculated pursuant to this Appendix for the general revolving feature is 5 years, while the repayment period calculated for the special purchase feature is 3 years. This issuer must disclose 5 years as the repayment period for the entire balance to the consumer. If any promotional terms related to payments apply to a cardholder's account, such as a deferred billing plan where minimum payments are not required for 12 months, card issuers may assume no promotional terms apply to the account. For example, assume that a promotional minimum payment of $10 applies to an account for six months, and then after the promotional period expires, the minimum payment is calculated as 2 percent of the outstanding balance on the account or $20 whichever is greater. An issuer may assume during the promotional period that the $10 promotional minimum payment does not apply, and instead calculate the minimum payment disclosures based on the minimum payment formula of 2 percent of the outstanding balance or $20, whichever is greater. Alternatively, during the promotional period, an issuer in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate may apply the promotional minimum payment until it expires and then apply the minimum payment formula that applies after the promotional minimum payment expires. In the above example, an issuer could calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period by applying the $10 promotional minimum payment for the first six months and then applying the 2 percent or $20 (whichever is greater) minimum payment formula after the promotional minimum payment expires. In calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate during a promotional period, an issuer may not assume that the promotional minimum payment will apply until the outstanding balance is paid off by making only minimum payments (assuming the repayment estimate is longer than the promotional period). In the above example, the issuer may not calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period by assuming that the $10 promotional minimum payment will apply beyond the six months until the outstanding balance is repaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer must use the annual percentage rates that apply to a cardholder's account, based on the portion of the balance to which the rate applies. If any promotional terms related to annual percentage rates apply to a cardholder's account, other than deferred interest or similar plans, a card issuer in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period must apply the promotional annual percentage rate(s) until it expires and then must apply the rate that applies after the promotional rate(s) expires. If the rate that applies after the promotional rate(s) expires is a variable rate, a card issuer must calculate that rate based on the applicable index or formula. This variable rate is accurate if it was in effect within the last 30 days before the minimum payment repayment estimate is provided. For deferred interest plans or similar plans, if minimum payments under the deferred interest or similar plan will repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer must assume that the consumer will not be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the card issuer must apply a zero percent annual percentage rate to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. If, however, minimum payments under the deferred interest plan or similar plan may not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer must assume that a consumer will not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time and thus the consumer will be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the card issuer must apply the annual percentage rate at which interest is accruing to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beginning balance.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer must use as the beginning balance the outstanding balance on a consumer's account as of the closing date of the last billing cycle. When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer may round the beginning balance as described above to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assumptions.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer for each of the terms below, may either make the following assumption about that term, or use the account term that applies to a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(i) Only minimum monthly payments are made each month. In addition, minimum monthly payments are made each month—for example, a debt cancellation or suspension agreement, or skip payment feature does not apply to the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) No additional extensions of credit are obtained, such as new purchases, transactions, fees, charges or other activity. No refunds or rebates are given.
</P>
<P>(iii) The annual percentage rate or rates that apply to a cardholder's account will not change, through either the operation of a variable rate or the change to a rate, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this Appendix. For example, if a penalty annual percentage rate currently applies to a consumer's account, a card issuer may assume that the penalty annual percentage rate will apply to the consumer's account indefinitely, even if the consumer may potentially return to a non-penalty annual percentage rate in the future under the account agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) There is no grace period.
</P>
<P>(v) The final payment pays the account in full (<I>i.e.,</I> there is no residual finance charge after the final month in a series of payments).
</P>
<P>(vi) The average daily balance method is used to calculate the balance.
</P>
<P>(vii) All months are the same length and leap year is ignored. A monthly or daily periodic rate may be assumed. If a daily periodic rate is assumed, the issuer may either assume (1) a year is 365 days long, and all months are 30.41667 days long, or (2) a year is 360 days long, and all months are 30 days long.
</P>
<P>(viii) Payments are credited either on the last day of the month or the last day of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(ix) Payments are allocated to lower annual percentage rate balances before higher annual percentage rate balances.
</P>
<P>(x) The account is not past due and the account balance does not exceed the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(xi) When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the assumed payments, current balance and interest charges for each month may be rounded to the nearest cent, as shown in Appendix M2 to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tolerance.</I> A minimum payment repayment estimate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 2 months above or below the minimum payment repayment estimate determined in accordance with the guidance in this Appendix (prior to rounding described in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B) and without use of the assumptions listed in paragraph (b)(4) of this Appendix to the extent a card issuer chooses instead to use the account terms that apply to a consumer's account). For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this Appendix is 28 months (2 years, 4 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 30 months (2 years, 6 months). The minimum payment repayment estimate should be disclosed as 2 years, due to the rounding rule set forth in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B). Nonetheless, based on the 30-month estimate, the issuer disclosed 3 years, based on that rounding rule. The issuer would be in compliance with this guidance by disclosing 3 years, instead of 2 years, because the issuer's estimate is within the 2 months' tolerance, prior to rounding. In addition, even if an issuer's estimate is more than 2 months above or below the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this Appendix, so long as the issuer discloses the correct number of years to the consumer based on the rounding rule set forth in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B), the issuer would be in compliance with this guidance. For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this Appendix is 32 months (2 years, 8 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 38 months (3 years, 2 months). Under the rounding rule set forth in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B), both of these estimates would be rounded and disclosed to the consumer as 3 years. Thus, if the issuer disclosed 3 years to the consumer, the issuer would be in compliance with this guidance even though the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is outside the 2 months' tolerance amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculating the minimum payment total cost estimate.</I> When calculating the minimum payment total cost estimate, a card issuer must total the dollar amount of the interest and principal that the consumer would pay if he or she made minimum payments for the length of time calculated as the minimum payment repayment estimate under paragraph (b) of this Appendix. The minimum payment total cost estimate is deemed to be accurate if it is based on a minimum payment repayment estimate that is within the tolerance guidance set forth in paragraph (b)(5) of this Appendix. For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this Appendix is 28 months (2 years, 4 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 30 months (2 years, 6 months). The minimum payment total cost estimate will be deemed accurate even if it is based on the 30 month estimate for length of repayment, because the issuer's minimum payment repayment estimate is within the 2 months' tolerance, prior to rounding. In addition, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated under this Appendix is 32 months (2 years, 8 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 38 months (3 years, 2 months). Under the rounding rule set forth in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B), both of these estimates would be rounded and disclosed to the consumer as 3 years. If the issuer based the minimum payment total cost estimate on 38 months (or any other minimum payment repayment estimate that would be rounded to 3 years), the minimum payment total cost estimate would be deemed to be accurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months.</I> (1) <I>In general.</I> When calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must calculate the estimated monthly payment amount that would be required to pay off the outstanding balance shown on the statement within 36 months, assuming the consumer paid the same amount each month for 36 months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Weighted annual percentage rate.</I> In calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, an issuer may use a weighted annual percentage rate that is based on the annual percentage rates that apply to a cardholder's account and the portion of the balance to which the rate applies, as shown in Appendix M2 to this part. If a card issuer uses a weighted annual percentage rate and any promotional terms related to annual percentage rates apply to a cardholder's account, other than deferred interest plans or similar plans, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the issuer must calculate a weighted average of the promotional rate and the rate that will apply after the promotional rate expires based on the percentage of 36 months each rate will apply, as shown in Appendix M2 to this part. For deferred interest plans or similar plans, if minimum payments under the deferred interest or similar plan will repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, if a card issuer uses a weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must assume that the consumer will not be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must apply a zero percent annual percentage rate to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. If, however, minimum payments under the deferred interest plan or similar plan may not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate must assume that a consumer will not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time and thus the consumer will be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must apply the annual percentage rate at which interest is accruing to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. A card issuer may use a method of calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months other than a weighted annual percentage rate, so long as the calculation results in the same payment amount each month and so long as the total of the payments would pay off the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement within 36 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assumptions.</I> In calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must use the same terms described in paragraph (b) of this Appendix, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tolerance.</I> An estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 10 percent above or below the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months determined in accordance with the guidance in this Appendix (after rounding described in § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculating the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months.</I> When calculating the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must total the dollar amount of the interest and principal that the consumer would pay if he or she made the estimated monthly payment calculated under paragraph (d) of this appendix each month for 36 months. The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is based on the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months that is calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculating the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months.</I> When calculating the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months, if a card issuer chooses under § 226.7(b)(12)(i) to round the disclosures to the nearest whole dollar when disclosing them on the periodic statement, the card issuer must calculate the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months by subtracting the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months calculated under paragraph (e) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest whole dollar) from the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest whole dollar). If a card issuer chooses under § 227.7(b)(12)(i), however, to round the disclosures to the nearest cent when disclosing them on the periodic statement, the card issuer must calculate the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months by subtracting the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months calculated under paragraph (e) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest cent) from the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest cent). The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is based on the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months that is calculated in accordance with paragraph (e) of this appendix and the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7846, Feb. 22, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23004, Apr. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M2 to Part 226—Sample Calculations of Repayment Disclosures
</HEAD>
<P>The following is an example of how to calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate, the minimum payment total cost estimate, the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, and the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months using the guidance in Appendix M1 to this part where three annual percentage rates apply (where one of the rates is a promotional APR), the total outstanding balance is $1000, and the minimum payment formula is 2 percent of the outstanding balance or $20, whichever is greater. The following calculation is written in SAS code.
</P>
<FP-2>data one;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>/*
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="04">Note:</E> pmt01 = estimated monthly payment to repay balance in 36 months sumpmts36 = sum of payments for repayment in 36 months
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = number of months to repay total balance if making only minimum payments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt = minimum monthly payment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>fc = monthly finance charge
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = sum of payments for minimum payments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>*/
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* inputs;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* annual percentage rates; apr1 = 0.0; apr2 = 0.17; apr3 = 0.21; * insert in ascending order;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* outstanding balances; cbal1 = 500; cbal2 = 250; cbal3 = 250;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* dollar minimum payment; dmin = 20;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* percent minimum payment; pmin = 0.02; * (0.02 + perrate);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* promotional rate information;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* last month for promotional rate; expm = 6; * = 0 if no promotional rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* regular rate; rrate = .17; * = 0 if no promotional rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array apr(3); array perrate(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>days = 365/12; * calculate days in month;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* calculate estimated monthly payment to pay off balances in 36 months, and total cost of repaying balance in 36 months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array xperrate(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>xperrate(I) = (apr(I)/365)*days; * calculate periodic rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if expm gt 0 then xperrate1a = (expm/36) * xperrate1 + (1 - (expm/36)) * (rrate/365) * days; else xperrate1a = xperrate1;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tbal = cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>perrate36 = (cbal1 * xperrate1a + cbal2 * xperrate2 + cbal3 * xperrate3) / (cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* months to repay; dmonths = 36;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize counters for sum of payments for repayment in 36 months; Sumpmts36 = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pvaf = (1 - (1 + perrate36) ** -dmonths) / perrate36; * calculate present value of annuity factor;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt01 = round(tbal/pvaf,0.01); * calculate monthly payment for designated number of months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts36 = pmt01 * 36;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* calculate time to repay and total cost of making minimum payments each month;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize counter for months, and sum of payments;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>perrate(I) = (apr(I) / 365) * days; * calculate periodic rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put perrate1 = perrate2 = perrate3 = ;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>eins:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = month + 1; * increment month counter;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt = round(pmin*tbal,0.01); * calculate payment as percentage of balance;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if month ge expm and expm ne 0 then perrate1 = (rrate / 365) * days;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt lt dmin then pmt = dmin; * set dollar minimum payment;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array xxxbal(3); array cbal(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>xxxbal(I) = round(cbal(I) * (1 + perrate(I)),0.01);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>fc = xxxbal1 + xxxbal2 + xxxbal3 − tbal;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt gt (tbal + fc) then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if cbal(I) gt 0 then pmt = round(cbal(I) * (1 + perrate(I)),0.01); * set final payment amount;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt le xxxbal1 then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal1 = xxxbal1 − pmt;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = xxxbal2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt gt xxxbal1 and xxxbal2 gt 0 and pmt le (xxxbal1 + xxxbal2) then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = xxxbal2 − (pmt − xxxbal1);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal1 = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt gt xxxbal2 and xxxbal3 gt 0 then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3 − (pmt − xxxbal1 − xxxbal2);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = sumpmts + pmt; * increment sum of payments;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tbal = cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3; * calculate new total balance;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* print month, balance, payment amount, and finance charge;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put month = tbal = cbal1 = cbal2 = cbal3 = pmt = fc = ;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if tbal gt 0 then go to eins; * go to next month if balance is greater than zero;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize total cost savings;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>savtot = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>savtot = round(sumpmts,1) − round (sumpmts36,1);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* print number of months to repay debt if minimum payments made, final balance (zero), total cost if minimum payments made, estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, total cost for repayment in 36 months, and total savings if repaid in 36 months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘ ’;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘number of months to repay debt if minimum payment made, final balance, total cost if minimum payments made, estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, total cost for repayment in 36 months, and total savings if repaid in 36 months’;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put month = tbal = sumpmts = pmt01 = sumpmts36 = savto t =;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘ ’; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>run;
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 7846, Feb. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 226—Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Safe Harbor Review
</HEAD>
<P>To qualify for the safe harbor provided in § 226.43(c)(2), a creditor must confirm that the written appraisal:
</P>
<P>1. Identifies the creditor who ordered the appraisal and the property and the interest being appraised.
</P>
<P>2. Indicates whether the contract price was analyzed.
</P>
<P>3. Addresses conditions in the property's neighborhood.
</P>
<P>4. Addresses the condition of the property and any improvements to the property.
</P>
<P>5. Indicates which valuation approaches were used, and includes a reconciliation if more than one valuation approach was used.
</P>
<P>6. Provides an opinion of the property's market value and an effective date for the opinion.
</P>
<P>7. Indicates that a physical property visit of the interior of the property was performed, as applicable.
</P>
<P>8. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice.
</P>
<P>9. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10439, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78583, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix O" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix O to Part 226—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HEAD>
<P>A creditor acts with reasonable diligence under § 226.43(d)(6)(i) if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as:
</P>
<P>1. A copy of the recorded deed from the seller.
</P>
<P>2. A copy of a property tax bill.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of any owner's title insurance policy obtained by the seller.
</P>
<P>4. A copy of the RESPA settlement statement from the seller's acquisition (<I>i.e.,</I> the HUD-1 or any successor form).
</P>
<P>5. A property sales history report or title report from a third-party reporting service.
</P>
<P>6. Sales price data recorded in multiple listing services.
</P>
<P>7. Tax assessment records or transfer tax records obtained from local governments.
</P>
<P>8. A written appraisal performed in compliance with § 226.43(c)(1) for the same transaction.
</P>
<P>9. A copy of a title commitment report detailing the seller's ownership of the property, the date it was acquired, or the price at which the seller acquired the property.
</P>
<P>10. A property abstract. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10439, Feb. 13, 2013]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.7.9.8.1.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 226—Official Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> This commentary is the vehicle by which the staff of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs of the Federal Reserve Board issues official staff interpretations of Regulation Z. Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under 130(f) of the Truth in Lending Act. Section 130(f) (15 U.S.C. 1640) protects creditors from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any interpretation issued by a duly authorized official or employee of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure for requesting interpretations.</I> Under appendix C of the regulation, anyone may request an official staff interpretation. Interpretations that are adopted will be incorporated in this commentary following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No official staff interpretations are expected to be issued other than by means of this commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rules of construction.</I> (a) Lists that appear in the commentary may be exhaustive or illustrative; the appropriate construction should be clear from the context. In most cases, illustrative lists are introduced by phrases such as “including, but not limited to,” “among other things,” “for example,” or “such as.”
</P>
<P>(b) Throughout the commentary, reference to “this section” or “this paragraph” means the section or paragraph in the regulation that is the subject of the comment.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph which it interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, some of the comments to § 226.18(b) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 18(b)(1)-1 and comment 18(b)(2)-1. In other cases, comments have more general application and are designated, for example, as comment 18-1 or comment 18(b)-1. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1 through I-4. Comments to the appendices may be cited, for example, as comment app. A-1.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart A—General
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.1—Authority, Purpose, Coverage, Organization, Enforcement and Liability
</HD2>
<P><I>1(c) Coverage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation Z applies to all persons (including branches of foreign banks and sellers located in the United States) that extend consumer credit to residents (including resident aliens) of any state as defined in § 226.2. If an account is located in the United States and credit is extended to a U.S. resident, the transaction is subject to the regulation. This will be the case whether or not a particular advance or purchase on the account takes place in the United States and whether or not the extender of credit is chartered or based in the United States or a foreign country. For example, if a U.S. resident has a credit card account located in the consumer's state issued by a bank (whether U.S. or foreign-based), the account is covered by the regulation, including extensions of credit under the account that occur outside the United States. In contrast, if a U.S. resident residing or visiting abroad, or a foreign national abroad, opens a credit card account issued by a foreign branch of a U.S. bank, the account is not covered by the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>1(d) Organization.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> The Board's amendments to Regulation Z published on May 19, 2009 apply to covered loans (including refinance loans and assumptions considered new transactions under § 226.20) for which the creditor receives an application on or after July 30, 2009.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective dates.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The Board's revisions published on July 30, 2008 (the “final rules”) apply to covered loans (including refinance loans and assumptions considered new transactions under § 226.20) for which the creditor receives an application on or after October 1, 2009, except for the final rules on advertising, escrows, and loan servicing. But see comment 1(d)(3)-1. The final rules on escrow in § 226.35(b)(3) are effective for covered loans (including refinancings and assumptions in § 226.20) for which the creditor receives an application on or after April 1, 2010; but for such loans secured by manufactured housing on or after October 1, 2010. The final rules applicable to servicers in § 226.36(c) apply to all covered loans serviced on or after October 1, 2009. The final rules on advertising apply to advertisements occurring on or after October 1, 2009. For example, a radio ad occurs on the date it is first broadcast; a solicitation occurs on the date it is mailed to the consumer. The following examples illustrate the application of the effective dates for the final rules.
</P>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> A refinancing or assumption as defined in § 226.20(a) or (b) is a new transaction and is covered by a provision of the final rules if the creditor receives an application for the transaction on or after that provision's effective date. For example, if a creditor receives an application for a refinance loan covered by § 226.35(a) on or after October 1, 2009, and the refinance loan is consummated on October 15, 2009, the provision restricting prepayment penalties in § 226.35(b)(2) applies. However, if the transaction were a modification of an existing obligation's terms that does not constitute a refinance loan under § 226.20(a), the final rules, including for example the restriction on prepayment penalties, would not apply.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Escrows.</I> Assume a consumer applies for a refinance loan to be secured by a dwelling (that is not a manufactured home) on March 15, 2010, and the loan is consummated on April 2, 2010. The escrow rule in § 226.35(b)(3) does not apply.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Servicing.</I> Assume that a consumer applies for a new loan on August 1, 2009. The loan is consummated on September 1, 2009. The servicing rules in § 226.36(c) apply to the servicing of that loan as of October 1, 2009.
</P>
<P>(ii) The interim final rule on appraisal independence in § 226.42 published on October 28, 2010 is mandatory on April 1, 2011, for open- and closed-end extensions of consumer credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. Section 226.36(b), which is substantially similar to § 226.42(b) and (e), is removed effective April 1, 2011. Applications for closed-end extensions of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling that are received by creditors before April 1, 2011, are subject to § 226.36(b) regardless of the date on which the transaction is consummated. However, parties subject to § 226.36(b) may, at their option, choose to comply with § 226.42 instead of § 226.36(b), for applications received before April 1, 2011. Thus, an application for a closed-end extension of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling that is received by a creditor on March 20, 2011, and consummated on May 1, 2011, is subject to § 226.36(b), however, the creditor may choose to comply with § 226.42 instead. For an application for open- or closed-end credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling that is received on or after April 1, 2011, the creditor must comply with § 226.42.
</P>
<P>iii. The final rule revising escrow requirements under § 226.35(b)(3) published on March 2, 2011 applies to certain closed-end extensions of consumer credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. <I>See</I> § 226.35(a). Covered transactions for which an application is received by a creditor on or after April 1, 2011 are subject to § 226.35(b)(3), as revised.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mandatory compliance dates.</I> Compliance with the Board's revisions to Regulation Z published on August 14, 2009 is mandatory for private education loans for which the creditor receives an application on or after February 14, 2010. Compliance with the final rules on co-branding in §§ 226.48(a) and (b) is mandatory for marketing occurring on or after February 14, 2010. Compliance with the final rules is optional for private education loan transactions for which an application was received prior to February 14, 2010, even if consummated after the mandatory compliance date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Optional compliance.</I> A creditor may, at its option, provide the approval and final disclosures required under §§ 226.47(b) or (c) for private education loans where an application was received prior to the mandatory compliance date. If the creditor opts to provide the disclosures, the creditor must also comply with the applicable timing and other rules in §§ 226.46 and 226.48 (including providing the consumer with the 30-day acceptance period under § 226.48(c), and the right to cancel under § 226.48(d)). For example if the creditor receives an application on January 25, 2010 and approves the consumer's application on or after February 14, 2010, the creditor may, at its option, provide the approval disclosures under § 226.47(b), the final disclosures under § 226.47(c) and comply with the applicable requirements §§ 226.46 and 226.48. The creditor must also obtain the self-certification form as required in § 226.48(e), if applicable. Or, for example, if the creditor receives an application on January 25, 2010 and approves the consumer's application before February 14, 2010, the creditor may, at its option, provide the final disclosure under § 226.47(c) and comply with the applicable timing and other requirements of §§ 226.46 and 226.48, including providing the consumer with the right to cancel under § 226.48(d). The creditor must also obtain the self-certification form as required in § 226.48(e), if applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(7).</I>
</P>
<P>1. [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.2—Definitions and Rules of Construction
</HD2>
<P><I>2(a)(2) Advertisement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Only commercial messages that promote consumer credit transactions requiring disclosures are advertisements. Messages inviting, offering, or otherwise announcing generally to prospective customers the availability of credit transactions, whether in visual, oral, or print media, are covered by Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226).
</P>
<P>i. Examples include:
</P>
<P>A. Messages in a newspaper, magazine, leaflet, promotional flyer, or catalog.
</P>
<P>B. Announcements on radio, television, or public address system.
</P>
<P>C. Electronic advertisements, such as on the Internet.
</P>
<P>D. Direct mail literature or other printed material on any exterior or interior sign.
</P>
<P>E. Point of sale displays.
</P>
<P>F. Telephone solicitations.
</P>
<P>G. Price tags that contain credit information.
</P>
<P>H. Letters sent to customers or potential customers as part of an organized solicitation of business.
</P>
<P>I. Messages on checking account statements offering auto loans at a stated annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>J. Communications promoting a new open-end plan or closed-end transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>A. Direct personal contacts, such as follow-up letters, cost estimates for individual consumers, or oral or written communication relating to the negotiation of a specific transaction.
</P>
<P>B. Informational material, for example, interest-rate and loan-term memos, distributed only to business entities.
</P>
<P>C. Notices required by federal or state law, if the law mandates that specific information be displayed and only the information so mandated is included in the notice.
</P>
<P>D. News articles the use of which is controlled by the news medium.
</P>
<P>E. Market-research or educational materials that do not solicit business.
</P>
<P>F. Communications about an existing credit account (for example, a promotion encouraging additional or different uses of an existing credit card account).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Persons covered.</I> All <I>persons</I> must comply with the advertising provisions in §§ 226.16 and 226.24, not just those that meet the definition of creditor in § 226.2(a)(17). Thus, home builders, merchants, and others who are not themselves creditors must comply with the advertising provisions of the regulation if they advertise consumer credit transactions. However, under section 145 of the act, the owner and the personnel of the medium in which an advertisement appears, or through which it is disseminated, are not subject to civil liability for violations.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(3) Reserved.</I>
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(4) Billing cycle or cycle.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Intervals.</I> In open-end credit plans, the billing cycle determines the intervals for which periodic disclosure statements are required; these intervals are also used as measuring points for other duties of the creditor. Typically, billing cycles are monthly, but they may be more frequent or less frequent (but not less frequent than quarterly).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditors that do not bill.</I> The term <I>cycle</I> is interchangeable with <I>billing cycle</I> for definitional purposes, since some creditors' cycles do not involve the sending of bills in the traditional sense but only statements of account activity. This is commonly the case with financial institutions when periodic payments are made through payroll deduction or through automatic debit of the consumer's asset account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Equal cycles.</I> Although cycles must be equal, there is a permissible variance to account for weekends, holidays, and differences in the number of days in months. If the actual date of each statement does not vary by more than four days from a fixed “day” (for example, the third Thursday of each month) or “date” (for example, the 15th of each month) that the creditor regularly uses, the intervals between statements are considered equal. The requirement that cycles be equal applies even if the creditor applies a daily periodic rate to determine the finance charge. The requirement that intervals be equal does not apply to the first billing cycle on an open-end account (i.e., the time period between account opening and the generation of the first periodic statement) or to a transitional billing cycle that can occur if the creditor occasionally changes its billing cycles so as to establish a new statement day or date. (<I>See</I> comments 9(c)(1)-3 and 9(c)(2)-3.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Payment reminder.</I> The sending of a regular payment reminder (rather than a late payment notice) establishes a cycle for which the creditor must send periodic statements.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(6) Business day.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Business function test.</I> Activities that indicate that the creditor is open for substantially all of its business functions include the availability of personnel to make loan disbursements, to open new accounts, and to handle credit transaction inquiries. Activities that indicate that the creditor is not open for substantially all of its business functions include a retailer's merely accepting credit cards for purchases or a bank's having its customer-service windows open only for limited purposes such as deposits and withdrawals, bill paying, and related services.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rule for rescission, disclosures for certain mortgage transactions, and private education loans.</I> A more precise rule for what is a business day (all calendar days except Sundays and the Federal legal holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a)) applies when the right of rescission, the receipt of disclosures for certain dwelling-secured mortgage transactions under §§ 226.19(a)(1)(ii), 226.19(a)(2), 226.31(c), or the receipt of disclosures for private education loans under § 226.46(d)(4) is involved. Four Federal legal holidays are identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a) by a specific date: New Year's Day, January 1; Independence Day, July 4; Veterans Day, November 11; and Christmas Day, December 25. When one of these holidays (July 4, for example) falls on a Saturday, Federal offices and other entities might observe the holiday on the preceding Friday (July 3). In cases where the more precise rule applies, the observed holiday (in the example, July 3) is a business day.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(7) Card issuer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Agent.</I> An agent of a card issuer is considered a card issuer. Because agency relationships are traditionally defined by contract and by state or other applicable law, the regulation does not define agent. Merely providing services relating to the production of credit cards or data processing for others, however, does not make one the agent of the card issuer. In contrast, a financial institution may become the agent of the card issuer if an agreement between the institution and the card issuer provides that the cardholder may use a line of credit with the financial institution to pay obligations incurred by use of the credit card.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(8) Cardholder.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> A cardholder is a natural person at whose request a card is issued for consumer credit purposes or who is a co-obligor or guarantor for such a card issued to another. The second category does not include an employee who is a co-obligor or guarantor on a card issued to the employer for business purposes, nor does it include a person who is merely the authorized user of a card issued to another.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limited application of regulation.</I> For the limited purposes of the rules on issuance of credit cards and liability for unauthorized use, a cardholder includes <I>any</I> person, including an organization, to whom a card is issued for <I>any</I> purpose—including a business, agricultural, or commercial purpose.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Issuance.</I> See the commentary to § 226.12(a).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Dual-purpose cards and dual-card systems.</I> Some card issuers offer dual-purpose cards that are for business as well as consumer purposes. If a card is issued to an individual for consumer purposes, the fact that an organization has guaranteed to pay the debt does not make it business credit. On the other hand, if a card is issued for business purposes, the fact that an individual sometimes uses it for consumer purchases does not subject the card issuer to the provisions on periodic statements, billing-error resolution, and other protections afforded to consumer credit. Some card issuers offer dual-card systems—that is, they issue two cards to the same individual, one intended for business use, the other for consumer or personal use. With such a system, the same person may be a cardholder for general purposes when using the card issued for consumer use, and a cardholder only for the limited purposes of the restrictions on issuance and liability when using the card issued for business purposes.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(9) Cash price.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Components.</I> This amount is a starting point in computing the amount financed and the total sale price under § 226.18 for credit sales. Any charges imposed equally in cash and credit transactions may be included in the cash price, or they may be treated as other amounts financed under § 226.18(b)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Service contracts.</I> Service contracts include contracts for the repair or the servicing of goods, such as mechanical breakdown coverage, even if such a contract is characterized as insurance under state law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rebates.</I> The creditor has complete flexibility in the way it treats rebates for purposes of disclosure and calculation. (See the commentary to § 226.18(b).)
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(10) Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The coverage of this term is defined by exclusion. That is, it includes any credit arrangement that does not fall within the definition of open-end credit. Subpart C contains the disclosure rules for closed-end credit when the obligation is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(11) Consumer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Guarantors, endorsers, and sureties are not generally consumers for purposes of the regulation, but they may be entitled to rescind under certain circumstances and they may have certain rights if they are obligated on credit card plans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rescission rules.</I> For purposes of rescission under §§ 226.15 and 226.23, a consumer includes any natural person whose ownership interest in his or her principal dwelling is subject to the risk of loss. Thus, if a security interest is taken in A's ownership interest in a house and that house is A's principal dwelling, A is a consumer for purposes of rescission, even if A is not liable, either primarily or secondarily, on the underlying consumer credit transaction. An ownership interest does not include, for example, leaseholds or inchoate rights, such as dower.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Land trusts.</I> Credit extended to land trusts, as described in the commentary to § 226.3(a), is considered to be extended to a natural person for purposes of the definition of consumer.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(12) Consumer credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Primary purpose.</I> There is no precise test for what constitutes credit offered or extended for personal, family, or household purposes, nor for what constitutes the primary purpose. (See, however, the discussion of business purposes in the commentary to § 226.3(a).)
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(13) Consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law governs.</I> When a contractual obligation on the consumer's part is created is a matter to be determined under applicable law; Regulation Z does not make this determination. A contractual commitment agreement, for example, that under applicable law binds the consumer to the credit terms would be consummation. Consummation, however, does not occur merely because the consumer has made some financial investment in the transaction (for example, by paying a nonrefundable fee) unless, of course, applicable law holds otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit v. sale.</I> Consummation does not occur when the consumer becomes contractually committed to a sale transaction, unless the consumer also becomes legally obligated to accept a particular credit arrangement. For example, when a consumer pays a nonrefundable deposit to purchase an automobile, a purchase contract may be created, but consummation for purposes of the regulation does not occur unless the consumer also contracts for financing at that time.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(14) Credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exclusions.</I> The following situations are not considered credit for purposes of the regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Layaway plans, unless the consumer is contractually obligated to continue making payments. Whether the consumer is so obligated is a matter to be determined under applicable law. The fact that the consumer is not entitled to a refund of any amounts paid towards the cash price of the merchandise does not bring layaways within the definition of credit.
</P>
<P>ii. Tax liens, tax assessments, court judgments, and court approvals of reaffirmation of debts in bankruptcy. However, third-party financing of such obligations (for example, a bank loan obtained to pay off a tax lien) is credit for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<P>iii. Insurance premium plans that involve payment in installments with each installment representing the payment for insurance coverage for a certain future period of time, unless the consumer is contractually obligated to continue making payments.
</P>
<P>iv. Home improvement transactions that involve progress payments, if the consumer pays, as the work progresses, only for work completed and has no contractual obligation to continue making payments.
</P>
<P>v. Borrowing against the accrued cash value of an insurance policy or a pension account, if there is no independent obligation to repay.
</P>
<P>vi. Letters of credit.
</P>
<P>vii. The execution of option contracts. However, there may be an extension of credit when the option is exercised, if there is an agreement at that time to defer payment of a debt.
</P>
<P>viii. Investment plans in which the party extending capital to the consumer risks the loss of the capital advanced. This includes, for example, an arrangement with a home purchaser in which the investor pays a portion of the downpayment and of the periodic mortgage payments in return for an ownership interest in the property, and shares in any gain or loss of property value.
</P>
<P>ix. Mortgage assistance plans administered by a government agency in which a portion of the consumer's monthly payment amount is paid by the agency. No finance charge is imposed on the subsidy amount, and that amount is due in a lump-sum payment on a set date or upon the occurrence of certain events. (If payment is not made when due, a new note imposing a finance charge may be written, which may then be subject to the regulation.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payday loans; deferred presentment.</I> Credit includes a transaction in which a cash advance is made to a consumer in exchange for the consumer's personal check, or in exchange for the consumer's authorization to debit the consumer's deposit account, and where the parties agree either that the check will not be cashed or deposited, or that the consumer's deposit account will not be debited, until a designated future date. This type of transaction is often referred to as a “payday loan” or “payday advance” or “deferred-presentment loan.” A fee charged in connection with such a transaction may be a finance charge for purposes of § 226.4, regardless of how the fee is characterized under state law. Where the fee charged constitutes a finance charge under § 226.4 and the person advancing funds regularly extends consumer credit, that person is a creditor and is required to provide disclosures consistent with the requirements of Regulation Z. (See § 226.2(a)(17).)
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(15) Credit card.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Usable from time to time.</I> A credit card must be usable from time to time. Since this involves the possibility of repeated use of a single device, checks and similar instruments that can be used only once to obtain a single credit extension are not credit cards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. Examples of credit cards include
</P>
<P>A. A card that guarantees checks or similar instruments, if the asset account is also tied to an overdraft line or if the instrument directly accesses a line of credit.
</P>
<P>B. A card that accesses both a credit and an asset account (that is, a debit-credit card).
</P>
<P>C. An identification card that permits the consumer to defer payment on a purchase.
</P>
<P>D. An identification card indicating loan approval that is presented to a merchant or to a lender, whether or not the consumer signs a separate promissory note for each credit extension.
</P>
<P>E. A card or device that can be activated upon receipt to access credit, even if the card has a substantive use other than credit, such as a purchase-price discount card. Such a card or device is a credit card notwithstanding the fact that the recipient must first contact the card issuer to access or activate the credit feature.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, credit card does not include, for example
</P>
<P>A. A check-guarantee or debit card with no credit feature or agreement, even if the creditor occasionally honors an inadvertent overdraft.
</P>
<P>B. Any card, key, plate, or other device that is used in order to obtain petroleum products for business purposes from a wholesale distribution facility or to gain access to that facility, and that is required to be used without regard to payment terms.
</P>
<P>C. An account number that accesses a credit account, unless the account number can access an open-end line of credit to purchase goods or services. For example, if a creditor provides a consumer with an open-end line of credit that can be accessed by an account number in order to transfer funds into another account (such as an asset account with the same creditor), the account number is not a credit card for purposes of § 226.2(a)(15)(i). However, if the account number can also access the line of credit to purchase goods or services (such as an account number that can be used to purchase goods or services on the Internet), the account number is a credit card for purposes of § 226.2(a)(15)(i), regardless of whether the creditor treats such transactions as purchases, cash advances, or some other type of transaction. Furthermore, if the line of credit can also be accessed by a card (such as a debit card), that card is a credit card for purposes of § 226.2(a)(15)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charge card.</I> Generally, charge cards are cards used in connection with an account on which outstanding balances cannot be carried from one billing cycle to another and are payable when a periodic statement is received. Under the regulation, a reference to credit cards generally includes charge cards. In particular, references to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan in Subparts B and G generally include charge cards. The term <I>charge card</I> is, however, distinguished from <I>credit card</I> or <I>credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan</I> in §§ 226.5a, 226.6(b)(2)(xiv), 226.7(b)(11), 226.7(b)(12), 226.9(e), 226.9(f), 226.28(d), 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), and appendices G-10 through G-13.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> An open-end consumer credit account is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for purposes of § 226.2(a)(15)(ii) if
</P>
<P>i. The account is accessed by a credit card, as defined in § 226.2(a)(15)(i); and
</P>
<P>ii. The account is not excluded under § 226.2(a)(15)(ii)(A) or (a)(15)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(16) Credit sale.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Special disclosure.</I> If the seller is a creditor in the transaction, the transaction is a credit sale and the special credit sale disclosures (that is, the disclosures under § 226.18(j)) must be given. This applies even if there is more than one creditor in the transaction and the creditor making the disclosures is not the seller. (See the commentary to § 226.17(d).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Sellers who arrange credit.</I> If the seller of the property or services involved arranged for financing but is not a creditor as to that sale, the transaction is not a credit sale. Thus, if a seller assists the consumer in obtaining a direct loan from a financial institution and the consumer's note is payable to the financial institution, the transaction is a loan and only the financial institution is a creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Refinancings.</I> Generally, when a credit sale is refinanced within the meaning of § 226.20(a), loan disclosures should be made. However, if a new sale of goods or services is also involved, the transaction is a credit sale.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incidental sales.</I> Some lenders <I>sell</I> a product or service—such as credit, property, or health insurance—as part of a loan transaction. Section 226.4 contains the rules on whether the cost of credit life, disability or property insurance is part of the finance charge. If the insurance is financed, it may be disclosed as a separate credit-sale transaction or disclosed as part of the primary transaction; if the latter approach is taken, either loan or credit-sale disclosures may be made. (See the commentary to § 226.17(c)(1) for further discussion of this point.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Credit extensions for educational purposes.</I> A credit extension for educational purposes in which an educational institution is the creditor may be treated as either a credit sale or a loan, regardless of whether the funds are given directly to the student, credited to the student's account, or disbursed to other persons on the student's behalf. The disclosure of the total sale price need not be given if the transaction is treated as a loan.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(17) Creditor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The definition contains four independent tests. If any one of the tests is met, the person is a creditor for purposes of that particular test.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prerequisites.</I> This test is composed of two requirements, both of which must be met in order for a particular credit extension to be subject to the regulation and for the credit extension to count towards satisfaction of the numerical tests mentioned in § 226.2(a)(17)(v).
</P>
<P>i. <I>First,</I> there must be either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>A. A written (rather than oral) agreement to pay in more than four installments. A letter that merely confirms an oral agreement does not constitute a written agreement for purposes of the definition.
</P>
<P>B. A finance charge imposed for the credit. The obligation to pay the finance charge need not be in writing.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Second,</I> the obligation must be payable to the person in order for that person to be considered a creditor. If an obligation is made payable to <I>bearer,</I> the creditor is the one who initially accepts the obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assignees.</I> If an obligation is initially payable to one person, that person is the creditor even if the obligation by its terms is simultaneously assigned to another person. For example:
</P>
<P>i. An auto dealer and a bank have a business relationship in which the bank supplies the dealer with credit sale contracts that are initially made payable to the dealer and provide for the immediate assignment of the obligation to the bank. The dealer and purchaser execute the contract only after the bank approves the creditworthiness of the purchaser. Because the obligation is initially payable on its face to the dealer, the dealer is the only creditor in the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Numerical tests.</I> The examples below illustrate how the numerical tests of § 226.2(a)(17)(v) are applied. The examples assume that consumer credit with a finance charge or written agreement for more than 4 installments was extended in the years in question and that the person did not extend such credit in 2006.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Counting transactions.</I> For purposes of closed-end credit, the creditor counts each credit transaction. For open-end credit, <I>transactions</I> means accounts, so that outstanding accounts are counted instead of individual credit extensions. Normally the number of transactions is measured by the preceding calendar year; if the requisite number is met, then the person is a creditor for all transactions in the current year. However, if the person did not meet the test in the preceding year, the number of transactions is measured by the current calendar year. For example, if the person extends consumer credit 26 times in 2007, it is a creditor for purposes of the regulation for the last extension of credit in 2007 and for all extensions of consumer credit in 2008. On the other hand, if a business begins in 2007 and extends consumer credit 20 times, it is not a creditor for purposes of the regulation in 2007. If it extends consumer credit 75 times in 2008, however, it becomes a creditor for purposes of the regulation (and must begin making disclosures) after the 25th extension of credit in that year and is a creditor for all extensions of consumer credit in 2009.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Relationship between consumer credit in general and credit secured by a dwelling.</I> Extensions of credit secured by a dwelling are counted towards the 25-extensions test. For example, if in 2007 a person extends unsecured consumer credit 23 times and consumer credit secured by a dwelling twice, it becomes a creditor for the succeeding extensions of credit, whether or not they are secured by a dwelling. On the other hand, extensions of consumer credit not secured by a dwelling are <I>not</I> counted towards the number of credit extensions secured by a dwelling. For example, if in 2007 a person extends credit not secured by a dwelling 8 times and credit secured by a dwelling 3 times, it is not a creditor.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Effect of satisfying one test.</I> Once one of the numerical tests is satisfied, the person is also a creditor for the other type of credit. For example, in 2007 a person extends consumer credit secured by a dwelling 5 times. That person is a creditor for all succeeding credit extensions, whether they involve credit secured by a dwelling or not.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Trusts.</I> In the case of credit extended by trusts, each individual trust is considered a separate entity for purposes of applying the criteria. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A bank is the trustee for three trusts. Trust A makes 15 extensions of consumer credit annually; Trust B makes 10 extensions of consumer credit annually; and Trust C makes 30 extensions of consumer credit annually. Only Trust C is a creditor for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(ii).</I> [Reserved]
</P>
<P>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(iii).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Card issuers subject to Subpart B.</I> Section 226.2(a)(17)(iii) makes certain card issuers creditors for purposes of the open-end credit provisions of the regulation. This includes, for example, the issuers of so-called travel and entertainment cards that expect repayment at the first billing and do not impose a finance charge. Since all disclosures are to be made only as applicable, such card issuers would omit finance charge disclosures. Other provisions of the regulation regarding such areas as scope, definitions, determination of which charges are finance charges, Spanish language disclosures, record retention, and use of model forms, also apply to such card issuers.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Card issuers subject to Subparts B and C.</I> Section 226.2(a)(17)(iv) includes as creditors card issuers extending closed-end credit in which there is a finance charge or an agreement to pay in more than four installments. These card issuers are subject to the appropriate provisions of Subparts B and C, as well as to the general provisions.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(18) Downpayment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Allocation.</I> If a consumer makes a lump-sum payment, partially to reduce the cash price and partially to pay prepaid finance charges, only the portion attributable to reducing the cash price is part of the downpayment. (See the commentary to § 226.2(a)(23).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pick-up payments.</I> i. Creditors may treat the deferred portion of the downpayment, often referred to as <I>pick-up payments,</I> in a number of ways. If the pick-up payment is treated as part of the downpayment:
</P>
<P>A. It is subtracted in arriving at the amount financed under § 226.18(b).
</P>
<P>B. It may, but need not, be reflected in the payment schedule under § 226.18(g).
</P>
<P>ii. If the pick-up payment does not meet the definition (for example, if it is payable after the second regularly scheduled payment) or if the creditor chooses not to treat it as part of the downpayment:
</P>
<P>A. It must be included in the amount financed.
</P>
<P>B. It must be shown in the payment schedule.
</P>
<P>iii. Whichever way the pick-up payment is treated, the total of payments under § 226.18(h) must equal the sum of the payments disclosed under § 226.18(g).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of existing liens.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>No cash payment.</I> In a credit sale, the “downpayment” may only be used to reduce the cash price. For example, when a trade-in is used as the downpayment and the existing lien on an automobile to be traded in exceeds the value of the automobile, creditors must disclose a zero on the downpayment line rather than a negative number. To illustrate, assume a consumer owes $10,000 on an existing automobile loan and that the trade-in value of the automobile is only $8,000, leaving a $2,000 deficit. The creditor should disclose a downpayment of $0, not −$2,000.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Cash payment.</I> If the consumer makes a cash payment, creditors may, at their option, disclose the entire cash payment as the downpayment, or apply the cash payment first to any excess lien amount and disclose any remaining cash as the downpayment. In the above example:
</P>
<P>A. If the downpayment disclosed is equal to the cash payment, the $2,000 deficit must be reflected as an additional amount financed under § 226.18(b)(2).
</P>
<P>B. If the consumer provides $1,500 in cash (which does not extinguish the $2,000 deficit), the creditor may disclose a downpayment of $1,500 or of $0.
</P>
<P>C. If the consumer provides $3,000 in cash, the creditor may disclose a downpayment of $3,000 or of $1,000.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(19) Dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> A dwelling need not be the consumer's <I>principal</I> residence to fit the definition, and thus a vacation or second home could be a dwelling. However, for purposes of the definition of residential mortgage transaction and the right to rescind, a dwelling must be the principal residence of the consumer. (<I>See</I> the commentary to §§ 226.2(a)(24), 226.15, and 226.23.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use as a residence.</I> Mobile homes, boats, and trailers are dwellings if they are in fact used as residences, just as are condominium and cooperative units. Recreational vehicles, campers, and the like not used as residences are not dwellings.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to exemptions.</I> Any transaction involving a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling (as well as in any real property) remains subject to the regulation despite the general exemption in § 226.3(b).
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(20) Open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This definition describes the characteristics of open-end credit (for which the applicable disclosure and other rules are contained in Subpart B), as distinct from closed-end credit. Open-end credit is consumer credit that is extended under a plan and meets <I>all 3</I> criteria set forth in the definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existence of a plan.</I> The definition requires that there be a plan, which connotes a contractual arrangement between the creditor and the consumer. Some creditors offer programs containing a number of different credit features. The consumer has a single account with the institution that can be accessed repeatedly via a number of sub-accounts established for the different program features and rate structures. Some features of the program might be used repeatedly (for example, an overdraft line) while others might be used infrequently (such as the part of the credit line available for secured credit). If the program as a whole is subject to prescribed terms and otherwise meets the definition of open-end credit, such a program would be considered a single, multifeatured plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Repeated transactions.</I> Under this criterion, the creditor must reasonably contemplate repeated transactions. This means that the credit plan must be usable from time to time and the creditor must legitimately expect that there will be repeat business rather than a one-time credit extension. The creditor must expect repeated dealings with consumers under the credit plan as a whole and need not believe a consumer will reuse a particular feature of the plan. The determination of whether a creditor can reasonably contemplate repeated transactions requires an objective analysis. Information that much of the creditor's customer base with accounts under the plan make repeated transactions over some period of time is relevant to the determination, particularly when the plan is opened primarily for the financing of infrequently purchased products or services. A standard based on reasonable belief by a creditor necessarily includes some margin for judgmental error. The fact that particular consumers do not return for further credit extensions does not prevent a plan from having been properly characterized as open-end. For example, if much of the customer base of a clothing store makes repeat purchases, the fact that some consumers use the plan only once would not affect the characterization of the store's plan as open-end credit. The criterion regarding repeated transactions is a question of fact to be decided in the context of the creditor's type of business and the creditor's relationship with its customers. For example, it would be more reasonable for a bank or depository institution to contemplate repeated transactions with a customer than for a seller of aluminum siding to make the same assumption about its customers.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Finance charge on an outstanding balance.</I> The requirement that a finance charge may be computed and imposed from time to time on the outstanding balance means that there is no specific amount financed for the plan for which the finance charge, total of payments, and payment schedule can be calculated. A plan may meet the definition of open-end credit even though a finance charge is not normally imposed, provided the creditor has the right, under the plan, to impose a finance charge from time to time on the outstanding balance. For example, in some plans, a finance charge is not imposed if the consumer pays all or a specified portion of the outstanding balance within a given time period. Such a plan could meet the finance charge criterion, if the creditor has the right to impose a finance charge, even though the consumer actually pays no finance charges during the existence of the plan because the consumer takes advantage of the option to pay the balance (either in full or in installments) within the time necessary to avoid finance charges.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reusable line.</I> The total amount of credit that may be extended during the existence of an open-end plan is unlimited because available credit is generally replenished as earlier advances are repaid. A line of credit is self-replenishing even though the plan itself has a fixed expiration date, as long as during the plan's existence the consumer may use the line, repay, and reuse the credit. The creditor may occasionally or routinely verify credit information such as the consumer's continued income and employment status or information for security purposes but, to meet the definition of open-end credit, such verification of credit information may not be done as a condition of granting a consumer's request for a particular advance under the plan. In general, a credit line is self-replenishing if the consumer can take further advances as outstanding balances are repaid without being required to separately apply for those additional advances. A credit card account where the plan as a whole replenishes meets the self-replenishing criterion, notwithstanding the fact that a credit card issuer may verify credit information from time to time in connection with specific transactions. This criterion of unlimited credit distinguishes open-end credit from a series of advances made pursuant to a closed-end credit loan commitment. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Under a closed-end commitment, the creditor might agree to lend a total of $10,000 in a series of advances as needed by the consumer. When a consumer has borrowed the full $10,000, no more is advanced under that particular agreement, even if there has been repayment of a portion of the debt. (<I>See</I> § 226.2(a)(17)(iv) for disclosure requirements when a credit card is used to obtain the advances.)
</P>
<P>ii. This criterion does not mean that the creditor must establish a specific credit limit for the line of credit or that the line of credit must always be replenished to its original amount. The creditor may reduce a credit limit or refuse to extend new credit in a particular case due to changes in the creditor's financial condition or the consumer's creditworthiness. (The rules in § 226.5b(f), however, limit the ability of a creditor to suspend credit advances for home equity plans.) While consumers should have a reasonable expectation of obtaining credit as long as they remain current and within any preset credit limits, further extensions of credit need not be an absolute right in order for the plan to meet the self-replenishing criterion.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Verifications of collateral value.</I> Creditors that otherwise meet the requirements of § 226.2(a)(20) extend open-end credit notwithstanding the fact that the creditor must verify collateral values to comply with federal, state, or other applicable law or verifies the value of collateral in connection with a particular advance under the plan.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Open-end real estate mortgages.</I> Some credit plans call for negotiated advances under so-called open-end real estate mortgages. Each such plan must be independently measured against the definition of open-end credit, regardless of the terminology used in the industry to describe the plan. The fact that a particular plan is called an open-end real estate mortgage, for example, does not, by itself, mean that it is open-end credit under the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(21) Periodic rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Basis.</I> The periodic rate may be stated as a percentage (for example, 1
<FR>1/2</FR>% per month) or as a decimal equivalent (for example, .015 monthly). It may be based on any portion of a year the creditor chooses. Some creditors use 
<FR>1/360</FR> of an annual rate as their periodic rate. These creditors:
</P>
<P>i. May disclose a 
<FR>1/360</FR> rate as a <I>daily</I> periodic rate, without further explanation, if it is in fact only applied 360 days per year. But if the creditor applies that rate for 365 days, the creditor must note that fact and, of course, disclose the true annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Would have to apply the rate to the balance to disclose the annual percentage rate with the degree of accuracy required in the regulation (that is, within 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percentage point of the rate based on the actual 365 days in the year).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transaction charges.</I> <I>Periodic rate</I> does not include initial one-time transaction charges, even if the charge is computed as a percentage of the transaction amount.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(22) Person.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture is an organization and is therefore a person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Attorneys.</I> An attorney and his or her client are considered to be the same person for purposes of this regulation when the attorney is acting within the scope of the attorney-client relationship with regard to a particular transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Trusts.</I> A trust and its trustee are considered to be the same person for purposes of this regulation.
</P>
<P><I>2(a)(23) Prepaid finance charge.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Prepaid finance charges must be taken into account under § 226.18(b) in computing the disclosed amount financed, and must be disclosed if the creditor provides an itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c).
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. Common examples of prepaid finance charges include:
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<P>A. Buyer's points.
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<P>B. Service fees.
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<P>C. Loan fees.
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<P>D. Finder's fees.
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<P>E. Loan-guarantee insurance.
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<P>F. Credit-investigation fees.
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<P>ii. However, in order for these or any other finance charges to be considered prepaid, they must be either paid separately in cash or check or withheld from the proceeds. Prepaid finance charges include any portion of the finance charge paid prior to or at closing or settlement.
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<P>3. <I>Exclusions. Add-on</I> and <I>discount</I> finance charges are not prepaid finance charges for purposes of this regulation. Finance charges are not <I>prepaid</I> merely because they are precomputed, whether or not a portion of the charge will be rebated to the consumer upon prepayment. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.18(b).)
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<P>4. <I>Allocation of lump-sum payments.</I> In a credit sale transaction involving a lump-sum payment by the consumer and a discount or other item that is a finance charge under § 226.4, the discount or other item is a prepaid finance charge to the extent the lump-sum payment is not applied to the cash price. For example, a seller sells property to a consumer for $10,000, requires the consumer to pay $3,000 at the time of the purchase, and finances the remainder as a closed-end credit transaction. The cash price of the property is $9,000. The seller is the creditor in the transaction and therefore the $1,000 difference between the credit and cash prices (the discount) is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 226.4(b)(9) and (c)(5).) If the creditor applies the entire $3,000 to the cash price and adds the $1,000 finance charge to the interest on the $6,000 to arrive at the total finance charge, all of the $3,000 lump-sum payment is a downpayment and the discount is not a prepaid finance charge. However, if the creditor only applies $2,000 of the lump-sum payment to the cash price, then $2,000 of the $3,000 is a downpayment and the $1,000 discount is a prepaid finance charge.
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<P><I>2(a)(24) Residential mortgage transaction.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> This term is important in five provisions in the regulation:
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<P>i. Section 226.4(c)(7)—exclusions from the finance charge.
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<P>ii. Section 226.15(f)—exemption from the right of rescission.
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<P>iii. Section 226.18(q)—whether or not the obligation is assumable.
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<P>iv. Section 226.20(b)—disclosure requirements for assumptions.
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<P>v. Section 226.23(f)—exemption from the right of rescission.
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<P>2. <I>Lien status.</I> The definition is not limited to first lien transactions. For example, a consumer might assume a paid-down first mortgage (or borrow part of the purchase price) and borrow the balance of the purchase price from a creditor who takes a second mortgage. The second mortgage transaction is a <I>residential mortgage transaction</I> if the dwelling purchased is the consumer's principal residence.
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<P>3. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can have only <I>one</I> principal dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of applying this definition to a particular transaction. (<I>See</I> the commentary to §§ 226.15(a) and 226.23(a).)
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<P>4. <I>Construction financing.</I> If a transaction meets the definition of a residential mortgage transaction and the creditor chooses to disclose it as several transactions under § 226.17(c)(6), each one is considered to be a residential mortgage transaction, even if different creditors are involved. For example:
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<P>i. The creditor makes a construction loan to finance the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling, and the loan will be disbursed in five advances. The creditor gives six sets of disclosures (five for the construction phase and one for the permanent phase). Each one is a residential mortgage transaction.
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<P>ii. One creditor finances the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling and another creditor makes a loan to satisfy the construction loan and provide permanent financing. Both transactions are residential mortgage transactions.
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<P>5. <I>Acquisition.</I> i. A residential mortgage transaction finances the acquisition of a consumer's principal dwelling. The term does not include a transaction involving a consumer's principal dwelling if the consumer had previously purchased and acquired some interest to the dwelling, even though the consumer had not acquired full legal title.
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<P>ii. Examples of new transactions involving a previously acquired dwelling include the financing of a balloon payment due under a land sale contract and an extension of credit made to a joint owner of property to buy out the other joint owner's interest. In these instances, disclosures are not required under § 226.18(q) (assumability policies). However, the rescission rules of §§ 226.15 and 226.23 do apply to these new transactions.
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<P>iii. In other cases, the disclosure and rescission rules do not apply. For example, where a buyer enters into a written agreement with the creditor holding the seller's mortgage, allowing the buyer to assume the mortgage, if the buyer had previously purchased the property and agreed with the seller to make the mortgage payments, § 226.20(b) does not apply (assumptions involving residential mortgages).
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<P>6. <I>Multiple purpose transactions.</I> A transaction meets the definition of this section if any part of the loan proceeds will be used to finance the acquisition or initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling. For example, a transaction to finance the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction even if a portion of the funds will be disbursed directly to the consumer or used to satisfy a loan for the purchase of the land on which the dwelling will be built.
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<P>7. <I>Construction on previously acquired vacant land.</I> A residential mortgage transaction includes a loan to finance the construction of a consumer's principal dwelling on a vacant lot previously acquired by the consumer.
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<P><I>2(a)(25) Security interest.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Threshold test.</I> The threshold test is whether a particular interest in property is recognized as a security interest under applicable law. The regulation does not determine whether a particular interest is a security interest under applicable law. If the creditor is unsure whether a particular interest is a security interest under applicable law (for example, if statutes and case law are either silent or inconclusive on the issue), the creditor may at its option consider such interests as security interests for Truth in Lending purposes. However, the regulation and the commentary do exclude specific interests, such as after-acquired property and accessories, from the scope of the definition regardless of their categorization under applicable law, and these named exclusions may not be disclosed as security interests under the regulation. (But see the discussion of exclusions elsewhere in the commentary to § 226.2(a)(25).)
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<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The general definition of security interest excludes three groups of interests: incidental interests, interests in after-acquired property, and interests that arise solely by operation of law. These interests may not be disclosed with the disclosures required under § 226.18, but the creditor is not precluded from preserving these rights elsewhere in the contract documents, or invoking and enforcing such rights, if it is otherwise lawful to do so. If the creditor is unsure whether a particular interest is one of the excluded interests, the creditor may, at its option, consider such interests as security interests for Truth in Lending purposes.
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<P>3. <I>Incidental interests.</I> i. Incidental interests in property that are not security interests include, among other things:
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<P>A. Assignment of rents.
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<P>B. Right to condemnation proceeds.
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<P>C. Interests in accessories and replacements.
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<P>D. Interests in escrow accounts, such as for taxes and insurance.
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<P>E. Waiver of homestead or personal property rights.
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<P>ii. The notion of an <I>incidental interest</I> does not encompass an explicit security interest in an insurance policy if that policy is the primary collateral for the transaction—for example, in an insurance premium financing transaction.
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<P>4. <I>Operation of law.</I> Interests that arise solely by operation of law are excluded from the general definition. Also excluded are interests arising by operation of law that are merely repeated or referred to in the contract. However, if the creditor has an interest that arises by operation of law, such as a vendor's lien, and takes an independent security interest in the same property, such as a UCC security interest, the latter interest is a disclosable security interest unless otherwise provided.
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<P>5. <I>Rescission rules.</I> Security interests that arise solely by operation of law are security interests for purposes of rescission. Examples of such interests are mechanics' and materialmen's liens.
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<P>6. <I>Specificity of disclosure.</I> A creditor need not separately disclose multiple security interests that it may hold in the same collateral. The creditor need only disclose that the transaction is secured by the collateral, even when security interests from prior transactions remain of record and a new security interest is taken in connection with the transaction. In disclosing the fact that the transaction is secured by the collateral, the creditor also need not disclose how the security interest arose. For example, in a closed-end credit transaction, a rescission notice need not specifically state that a new security interest is “acquired” or an existing security interest is “retained” in the transaction. The acquisition or retention of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling instead may be disclosed in a rescission notice with a general statement such as the following: “Your home is the security for the new transaction.”
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<P><I>2(b) Rules of construction.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Footnotes.</I> Footnotes are used extensively in the regulation to provide special exceptions and more detailed explanations and examples. Material that appears in a footnote has the same legal weight as material in the body of the regulation.
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<P>2. <I>Amount.</I> The numerical amount must be a dollar amount unless otherwise indicated. For example, in a closed-end transaction (Subpart C), the amount financed and the amount of any payment must be expressed as a dollar amount. In some cases, an amount should be expressed as a percentage. For example, in disclosures provided before the first transaction under an open-end plan (Subpart B), creditors are permitted to explain how the amount of any finance charge will be determined; where a cash-advance fee (which is a finance charge) is a percentage of each cash advance, the amount of the finance charge for that fee is expressed as a percentage.
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<HD2>Section 226.3—Exempt Transactions
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<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.12.</I> The provisions in § 226.12(a) and (b) governing the issuance of credit cards and the limitations on liability for their unauthorized use apply to all credit cards, even if the credit cards are issued for use in connection with extensions of credit that otherwise are exempt under this section.
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<P><I>3(a) Business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational credit.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Primary purposes.</I> A creditor must determine in each case if the transaction is primarily for an exempt purpose. If some question exists as to the primary purpose for a credit extension, the creditor is, of course, free to make the disclosures, and the fact that disclosures are made under such circumstances is not controlling on the question of whether the transaction was exempt. (See comment 3(a)-2, however, with respect to credit cards.)
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<P>2. <I>Business purpose purchases.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Business-purpose credit cards—extensions of credit for consumer purposes.</I> If a business-purpose credit card is issued to a person, the provisions of the regulation do not apply, other than as provided in §§ 226.12(a) and 226.12(b), even if extensions of credit for consumer purposes are occasionally made using that business-purpose credit card. For example, the billing error provisions set forth in § 226.13 do not apply to consumer-purpose extensions of credit using a business-purpose credit card.
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<P>ii. <I>Consumer-purpose credit cards—extensions of credit for business purposes.</I> If a consumer-purpose credit card is issued to a person, the provisions of the regulation apply, even to occasional extensions of credit for business purposes made using that consumer-purpose credit card. For example, a consumer may assert a billing error with respect to any extension of credit using a consumer-purpose credit card, even if the specific extension of credit on such credit card or open-end credit plan that is the subject of the dispute was made for business purposes.
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<P>3. <I>Factors.</I> In determining whether credit to finance an acquisition—such as securities, antiques, or art—is primarily for business or commercial purposes (as opposed to a consumer purpose), the following factors should be considered:
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<P>i. <I>General.</I>
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<P>A. The relationship of the borrower's primary occupation to the acquisition. The more closely related, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
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<P>B. The degree to which the borrower will personally manage the acquisition. The more personal involvement there is, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
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<P>C. The ratio of income from the acquisition to the total income of the borrower. The higher the ratio, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
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<P>D. The size of the transaction. The larger the transaction, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
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<P>E. The borrower's statement of purpose for the loan.
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<P>ii. <I>Business-purpose examples.</I> Examples of business-purpose credit include:
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<P>A. A loan to expand a business, even if it is secured by the borrower's residence or personal property.
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<P>B. A loan to improve a principal residence by putting in a business office.
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<P>C. A business account used occasionally for consumer purposes.
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<P>iii. <I>Consumer-purpose examples.</I> Examples of consumer-purpose credit include:
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<P>A. Credit extensions by a company to its employees or agents if the loans are used for personal purposes.
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<P>B. A loan secured by a mechanic's tools to pay a child's tuition.
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<P>C. A personal account used occasionally for business purposes.
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<P>4. <I>Non-owner-occupied rental property.</I> Credit extended to acquire, improve, or maintain rental property (regardless of the number of housing units) that is not owner-occupied is deemed to be for business purposes. This includes, for example, the acquisition of a warehouse that will be leased or a single-family house that will be rented to another person to live in. If the owner expects to occupy the property for more than 14 days during the coming year, the property cannot be considered non-owner-occupied and this special rule will not apply. For example, a beach house that the owner will occupy for a month in the coming summer and rent out the rest of the year is owner occupied and is not governed by this special rule. (<I>See</I> comment 3(a)-5, however, for rules relating to owner-occupied rental property.)
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<P>5. <I>Owner-occupied rental property.</I> If credit is extended to acquire, improve, or maintain rental property that is or will be owner-occupied within the coming year, different rules apply:
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<P>i. Credit extended to acquire the rental property is deemed to be for business purposes if it contains more than 2 housing units.
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<P>ii. Credit extended to improve or maintain the rental property is deemed to be for business purposes if it contains more than 4 housing units. Since the amended statute defines dwelling to include 1 to 4 housing units, this rule preserves the right of rescission for credit extended for purposes other than acquisition. Neither of these rules means that an extension of credit for property containing fewer than the requisite number of units is necessarily consumer credit. In such cases, the determination of whether it is business or consumer credit should be made by considering the factors listed in comment 3(a)-3.
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<P>6. <I>Business credit later refinanced.</I> Business-purpose credit that is exempt from the regulation may later be rewritten for consumer purposes. Such a transaction is consumer credit requiring disclosures only if the existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation made for consumer purposes undertaken by the same obligor.
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<P>7. <I>Credit card renewal.</I> A consumer-purpose credit card that is subject to the regulation may be converted into a business-purpose credit card at the time of its renewal, and the resulting business-purpose credit card would be exempt from the regulation. Conversely, a business-purpose credit card that is exempt from the regulation may be converted into a consumer-purpose credit card at the time of its renewal, and the resulting consumer-purpose credit card would be subject to the regulation.
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<P>8. <I>Agricultural purpose.</I> An agricultural purpose includes the planting, propagating, nurturing, harvesting, catching, storing, exhibiting, marketing, transporting, processing, or manufacturing of food, beverages (including alcoholic beverages), flowers, trees, livestock, poultry, bees, wildlife, fish, or shellfish by a natural person engaged in farming, fishing, or growing crops, flowers, trees, livestock, poultry, bees, or wildlife. The exemption also applies to a transaction involving real property that includes a dwelling (for example, the purchase of a farm with a homestead) if the transaction is primarily for agricultural purposes.
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<P>9. <I>Organizational credit.</I> The exemption for transactions in which the borrower is not a natural person applies, for example, to loans to corporations, partnerships, associations, churches, unions, and fraternal organizations. The exemption applies regardless of the purpose of the credit extension and regardless of the fact that a natural person may guarantee or provide security for the credit.
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<P>10. <I>Land trusts.</I> Credit extended for consumer purposes to a land trust is considered to be credit extended to a natural person rather than credit extended to an organization. In some jurisdictions, a financial institution financing a residential real estate transaction for an individual uses a land trust mechanism. Title to the property is conveyed to the land trust for which the financial institution itself is trustee. The underlying installment note is executed by the financial institution in its capacity as trustee and payment is secured by a trust deed, reflecting title in the financial institution as trustee. In some instances, the consumer executes a personal guaranty of the indebtedness. The note provides that it is payable only out of the property specifically described in the trust deed and that the trustee has no personal liability on the note. Assuming the transactions are for personal, family, or household purposes, these transactions are subject to the regulation since in substance (if not form) consumer credit is being extended.


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<P><I>3(b) Credit over applicable threshold amount.</I> 1. <I>Threshold amount.</I> For purposes of § 226.3(b), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in comment 3(b)-3 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 3(b)-3 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
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<P>2. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
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<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
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<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
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<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 226.3(b), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
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<P>i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
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<P>ii. From July 21, 2011, through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
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<P>iii. From January 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
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<P>iv. From January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
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<P>v. From January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
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<P>vi. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
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<P>vii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
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<P>viii. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $54,600.
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<P>ix. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $55,800.
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<P>x. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $57,200.
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<P>xi. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $58,300.
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<P>xii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $58,300.
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<P>xiii. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $61,000.
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<P>xiv. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $66,400.
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<P>xv. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $69,500.
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<P>xvi. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $71,900.
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<P>xvii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $73,400.
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<P>4. <I>Open-end credit.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Qualifying for exemption.</I> An open-end account is exempt under § 226.3(b) (unless secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling) if either of the following conditions is met:
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<P>A. The creditor makes an initial extension of credit at or after account opening that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time the initial extension is made. If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit after account opening that does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made, the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable), including but not limited to the requirements of § 226.6 (account-opening disclosures), § 226.7 (periodic statements), § 226.52 (limitations on fees), and § 226.55 (limitations on increasing annual percentages rates, fees, and charges). For example:
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<P>(1) Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $60,000. In this circumstance, no requirements of this part apply to the account.
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<P>(2) Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $50,000 or less. In this circumstance, the account is not exempt, and the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable).
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<P>B. The creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the account is opened with no requirement of additional credit information for any advances on the account (except as permitted from time to time with respect to open-end accounts pursuant to § 226.2(a)(20)).
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<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes generally.</I> Subsequent changes to an open-end account or the threshold amount may result in the account no longer qualifying for the exemption in § 226.3(b). In these circumstances, the creditor must begin to comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part within a reasonable period of time after the account ceases to be exempt. Once an account ceases to be exempt, the requirements of this part apply to any balances on the account. The creditor, however, is not required to comply with the requirements of this part with respect to the period of time during which the account was exempt. For example, if an open-end credit account ceases to be exempt, the creditor must within a reasonable period of time provide the disclosures required by § 226.6 reflecting the current terms of the account and begin to provide periodic statements consistent with § 226.7. However, the creditor is not required to disclose fees or charges imposed while the account was exempt. Furthermore, if the creditor provided disclosures consistent with the requirements of this part while the account was exempt, it is not required to provide disclosures required by § 226.6 reflecting the current terms of the account. See also comment 3(b)-6.
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<P>iii. <I>Subsequent changes when exemption is based on initial extension of credit.</I> If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at that time, the open-end account remains exempt under § 226.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount, including an increase pursuant to § 226.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. Furthermore, in these circumstances, the account remains exempt even if there are no further extensions of credit, subsequent extensions of credit do not exceed the threshold amount, the account balance is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the extension), or the credit limit for the account is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount. However, if the initial extension of credit on an account does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time of the extension, the account is not exempt under § 226.3(b) even if a subsequent extension exceeds the threshold amount or if the account balance later exceeds the threshold amount (for example, due to the subsequent accrual of interest).
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<P>iv. <I>Subsequent changes when exemption is based on firm commitment.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> If a creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at that time, the open-end account remains exempt under § 226.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount pursuant to § 226.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. However, see comment 3(b)-8 with respect to the increase in the threshold amount from $25,000 to $50,000. If an open-end account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit, the account remains exempt even if the amount of credit actually extended does not exceed the threshold amount. In contrast, if the firm commitment does not exceed the threshold amount at account opening, the account is not exempt under § 226.3(b) even if the account balance later exceeds the threshold amount. In addition, if a creditor reduces a firm commitment, the account ceases to be exempt unless the reduced firm commitment exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of the reduction. For example:
</P>
<P>(1) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $53,000, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b). However, if during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $40,000, the account is no longer exempt under § 226.3(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If the threshold amount is $56,000 on January 1 of year six as a result of increases in the CPI-W, the account remains exempt. However, if the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $54,000 on July 1 of year six, the account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Initial extension of credit.</I> If an open-end account qualifies for a § 226.3(b) exemption at account opening based on a firm commitment, that account may also subsequently qualify for a § 226.3(b) exemption based on an initial extension of credit. However, that initial extension must be a single advance in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made. In addition, the account must continue to qualify for an exemption based on the firm commitment until the initial extension of credit is made. For example:
</P>
<P>(1) Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. The account is not used for an extension of credit during year one. On January 1 of year two, the threshold amount is increased to $51,000 pursuant to § 226.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. On July 1 of year two, the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $52,000. As a result of this extension of credit, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if, after July 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $51,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Same facts as in paragraph 4.iv.B(1) of this section except that the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $30,000 on July 1 of year two and for an extension of $22,000 on July 15 of year two. In these circumstances, the account is not exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the $30,000 initial extension of credit because that extension did not exceed the applicable threshold amount ($51,000), although the account remains exempt based on the firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit.
</P>
<P>(3) Same facts as in paragraph 4.iv.B(1) of this section except that, on April 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $50,000, which is below the $51,000 threshold then in effect. Because the account ceases to qualify for a § 226.3(b) exemption on April 1 of year two, the account does not qualify for a § 226.3(b) exemption based on a $52,000 initial extension of credit on July 1 of year two.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Qualifying for exemption.</I> A closed-end loan is exempt under § 226.3(b) (unless the extension of credit is secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling; or is a private education loan as defined in § 226.46(b)(5)), if either of the following conditions is met.
</P>
<P>A. The creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if the amount owed is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the loan).
</P>
<P>B. The creditor makes a commitment at consummation to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b) even if the total amount of credit extended does not exceed the threshold amount.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes.</I> If a creditor makes a closed-end extension of credit or commitment to extend closed-end credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation, the closed-end loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount. However, a closed-end loan is not exempt under § 226.3(b) merely because it is used to satisfy and replace an existing exempt loan, unless the new extension of credit is itself exempt under the applicable threshold amount. For example, assume a closed-end loan that qualified for a § 226.3(b) exemption at consummation in year one is refinanced in year ten and that the new loan amount is less than the threshold amount in effect in year ten. In these circumstances, the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part with respect to the year ten transaction if the original loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan, which is not exempt under § 226.3(b). See also comment 3(b)-6.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Addition of a security interest in real property or a dwelling after account opening or consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Open-end credit.</I> For open-end accounts, if, after account opening, a security interest is taken in real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, a previously exempt account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b) and the creditor must begin to comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part within a reasonable period of time. See comment 3(b)-4.ii. If a security interest is taken in the consumer's principal dwelling, the creditor must also give the consumer the right to rescind the security interest consistent with § 226.15.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Closed-end credit.</I> For closed-end loans, if, after consummation, a security interest is taken in any real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, an exempt loan remains exempt under § 226.3(b). However, the addition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is a transaction for purposes of § 226.23, and the creditor must give the consumer the right to rescind the security interest consistent with that section. See § 226.23(a)(1) and the accompanying commentary. In contrast, if a closed-end loan that is exempt under § 226.3(b) is satisfied and replaced by a loan that is secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, the new loan is not exempt under § 226.3(b) and the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part. See comment 3(b)-5.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Application to extensions secured by mobile homes.</I> Because a mobile home can be a dwelling under § 226.2(a)(19), the exemption in § 226.3(b) does not apply to a credit extension secured by a mobile home that is used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer. See comment 3(b)-6.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Transition rule for open-end accounts exempt prior to July 21, 2011.</I> Section 226.3(b)(2) applies only to open-end accounts opened prior to July 21, 2011. Section 226.3(b)(2) does not apply if a security interest is taken by the creditor in any real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling. If, on July 20, 2011, an open-end account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit in excess of $25,000, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b)(2) until December 31, 2011 (unless the firm commitment is reduced to $25,000 or less). If the firm commitment is increased on or before December 31, 2011, to an amount in excess of $50,000, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W. If the firm commitment is not increased on or before December 31, 2011, to an amount in excess of $50,000, the account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, on July 20, 2011, the account is exempt under § 226.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $30,000 in credit. On November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $55,000. In these circumstances, the account remains exempt under § 226.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as paragraph 8.i. of this section except, on November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $40,000. In these circumstances, the account ceases to be exempt under § 226.3(b)(2) after December 31, 2011, and the creditor must begin to comply with the applicable requirements of this part.


</P>
<P><I>3(c) Public utility credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of public utility services include:
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Gas, water, or electrical services.
</P>
<P>B. Cable television services.
</P>
<P>C. Installation of new sewer lines, water lines, conduits, telephone poles, or metering equipment in an area not already serviced by the utility.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Extensions of credit not covered.</I> The exemption does not apply to extensions of credit, for example:
</P>
<P>A. To purchase appliances such as gas or electric ranges, grills, or telephones.
</P>
<P>B. To finance home improvements such as new heating or air conditioning systems.
</P>
<P><I>3(d) Securities or commodities accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption does not apply to a transaction with a broker registered solely with the state, or to a separate credit extension in which the proceeds are used to purchase securities.
</P>
<P><I>3(e) Home fuel budget plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Under a typical home fuel budget plan, the fuel dealer estimates the total cost of fuel for the season, bills the customer for an average monthly payment, and makes an adjustment in the final payment for any difference between the estimated and the actual cost of the fuel. Fuel is delivered as needed, no finance charge is assessed, and the customer may withdraw from the plan at any time. Under these circumstances, the arrangement is exempt from the regulation, even if a charge to cover the billing costs is imposed.
</P>
<P><I>3(f) Student loan programs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption applies to loans made, insured, or guaranteed under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>). This exemption does not apply to private education loans as defined by § 226.46(b)(5).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.4—Finance Charge
</HD2>
<P><I>4(a) Definition.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Charges in comparable cash transactions.</I> Charges imposed uniformly in cash and credit transactions are not finance charges. In determining whether an item is a finance charge, the creditor should compare the credit transaction in question with a similar cash transaction. A creditor financing the sale of property or services may compare charges with those payable in a similar cash transaction by the seller of the property or service.
</P>
<P>i. For example, the following items are not finance charges:
</P>
<P>A. Taxes, license fees, or registration fees paid by both cash and credit customers.
</P>
<P>B. Discounts that are available to cash and credit customers, such as quantity discounts.
</P>
<P>C. Discounts available to a particular group of consumers because they meet certain criteria, such as being members of an organization or having accounts at a particular financial institution. This is the case even if an individual must pay cash to obtain the discount, provided that credit customers who are members of the group and do not qualify for the discount pay no more than the nonmember cash customers.
</P>
<P>D. Charges for a service policy, auto club membership, or policy of insurance against latent defects offered to or required of both cash and credit customers for the same price.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, the following items are finance charges:
</P>
<P>A. Inspection and handling fees for the staged disbursement of construction-loan proceeds.
</P>
<P>B. Fees for preparing a Truth in Lending disclosure statement, if permitted by law (for example, the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act prohibits such charges in certain transactions secured by real property).
</P>
<P>C. Charges for a required maintenance or service contract imposed only in a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. If the charge in a credit transaction exceeds the charge imposed in a comparable cash transaction, only the difference is a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>A. If an escrow agent is used in both cash and credit sales of real estate and the agent's charge is $100 in a cash transaction and $150 in a credit transaction, only $50 is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Costs of doing business.</I> Charges absorbed by the creditor as a cost of doing business are not finance charges, even though the creditor may take such costs into consideration in determining the interest rate to be charged or the cash price of the property or service sold. However, if the creditor separately imposes a charge on the consumer to cover certain costs, the charge is a finance charge if it otherwise meets the definition. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A discount imposed on a credit obligation when it is assigned by a seller-creditor to another party is not a finance charge as long as the discount is not separately imposed on the consumer. (<I>See</I> § 226.4(b)(6).)
</P>
<P>ii. A tax imposed by a state or other governmental body on a creditor is not a finance charge if the creditor absorbs the tax as a cost of doing business and does not separately impose the tax on the consumer. (For additional discussion of the treatment of taxes, see other commentary to § 226.4(a).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forfeitures of interest.</I> If the creditor reduces the interest rate it pays or stops paying interest on the consumer's deposit account or any portion of it for the term of a credit transaction (including, for example, an overdraft on a checking account or a loan secured by a certificate of deposit), the interest lost is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 226.4(c)(6).) For example:
</P>
<P>A. A consumer borrows $5,000 for 90 days and secures it with a $10,000 certificate of deposit paying 15% interest. The creditor charges the consumer an interest rate of 6% on the loan and stops paying interest on $5,000 of the $10,000 certificate for the term of the loan. The interest lost is a finance charge and must be reflected in the annual percentage rate on the loan.
</P>
<P>B. However, the consumer must be entitled to the interest that is not paid in order for the lost interest to be a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer wishes to buy from a financial institution a $10,000 certificate of deposit paying 15% interest but has only $4,000. The financial institution offers to lend the consumer $6,000 at an interest rate of 6% but will pay the 15% interest only on the amount of the consumer's deposit, $4,000. The creditor's failure to pay interest on the $6,000 does not result in an additional finance charge on the extension of credit, provided the consumer is entitled by the deposit agreement with the financial institution to interest only on the amount of the consumer's deposit.
</P>
<P>iv. A consumer enters into a combined time deposit/credit agreement with a financial institution that establishes a time deposit account and an open-end line of credit. The line of credit may be used to borrow against the funds in the time deposit. The agreement provides for an interest rate on any credit extension of, for example, 1%. In addition, the agreement states that the creditor will pay 0% interest on the amount of the time deposit that corresponds to the amount of the credit extension(s). The interest that is not paid on the time deposit by the financial institution is not a finance charge (and therefore does not affect the annual percentage rate computation).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Treatment of transaction fees on credit card plans.</I> Any transaction charge imposed on a cardholder by a card issuer is a finance charge, regardless of whether the issuer imposes the same, greater, or lesser charge on withdrawals of funds from an asset account such as a checking or savings account. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Any charge imposed on a credit cardholder by a card issuer for the use of an automated teller machine (ATM) to obtain a cash advance (whether in a proprietary, shared, interchange, or other system) is a finance charge regardless of whether the card issuer imposes a charge on its debit cardholders for using the ATM to withdraw cash from a consumer asset account, such as a checking or savings account.
</P>
<P>ii. Any charge imposed on a credit cardholder for making a purchase or obtaining a cash advance outside the United States, with a foreign merchant, or in a foreign currency is a finance charge, regardless of whether a charge is imposed on debit cardholders for such transactions. The following principles apply in determining what is a foreign transaction fee and the amount of the fee:
</P>
<P>A. Included are (1) fees imposed when transactions are made in a foreign currency and converted to U.S. dollars; (2) fees imposed when transactions are made in U.S. dollars outside the U.S.; and (3) fees imposed when transactions are made (whether in a foreign currency or in U.S. dollars) with a foreign merchant, such as via a merchant's Web site. For example, a consumer may use a credit card to make a purchase in Bermuda, in U.S. dollars, and the card issuer may impose a fee because the transaction took place outside the United States.
</P>
<P>B. Included are fees imposed by the card issuer and fees imposed by a third party that performs the conversion, such as a credit card network or the card issuer's corporate parent. (For example, in a transaction processed through a credit card network, the network may impose a 1 percent charge and the card-issuing bank may impose an additional 2 percent charge, for a total of a 3 percentage point foreign transaction fee being imposed on the consumer.)
</P>
<P>C. Fees imposed by a third party are included only if they are directly passed on to the consumer. For example, if a credit card network imposes a 1 percent fee on the card issuer, but the card issuer absorbs the fee as a cost of doing business (and only passes it on to consumers in the general sense that the interest and fees are imposed on all its customers to recover its costs), then the fee is not a foreign transaction fee and need not be disclosed. In another example, if the credit card network imposes a 1 percent fee for a foreign transaction on the card issuer, and the card issuer imposes this same fee on the consumer who engaged in the foreign transaction, then the fee is a foreign transaction fee and a finance charge.
</P>
<P>D. A card issuer is not required to disclose a fee imposed by a merchant. For example, if the merchant itself performs the currency conversion and adds a fee, this fee need not be disclosed by the card issuer. Under § 226.9(d), a card issuer is not obligated to disclose finance charges imposed by a party honoring a credit card, such as a merchant, although the merchant is required to disclose such a finance charge if the merchant is subject to the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>E. The foreign transaction fee is determined by first calculating the dollar amount of the transaction by using a currency conversion rate outside the card issuer's and third party's control. Any amount in excess of that dollar amount is a foreign transaction fee. Conversion rates outside the card issuer's and third party's control include, for example, a rate selected from the range of rates available in the wholesale currency exchange markets, an average of the highest and lowest rates available in such markets, or a government-mandated or government-managed exchange rate (or a rate selected from a range of such rates).
</P>
<P>F. The rate used for a particular transaction need not be the same rate that the card issuer (or third party) itself obtains in its currency conversion operations. In addition, the rate used for a particular transaction need not be the rate in effect on the date of the transaction (purchase or cash advance).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Taxes.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Generally, a tax imposed by a state or other governmental body solely on a creditor is a finance charge if the creditor separately imposes the charge on the consumer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, a tax is not a finance charge (even if it is collected by the creditor) if applicable law imposes the tax:
</P>
<P>A. Solely on the consumer;
</P>
<P>B. On the creditor and the consumer jointly;
</P>
<P>C. On the credit transaction, without indicating which party is liable for the tax; or
</P>
<P>D. On the creditor, if applicable law directs or authorizes the creditor to pass the tax on to the consumer. (For purposes of this section, if applicable law is silent as to passing on the tax, the law is deemed not to authorize passing it on.)
</P>
<P>iii. For example, a stamp tax, property tax, intangible tax, or any other state or local tax imposed on the consumer, or on the credit transaction, is not a finance charge even if the tax is collected by the creditor.
</P>
<P>iv. In addition, a tax is not a finance charge if it is excluded from the finance charge by another provision of the regulation or commentary (for example, if the tax is imposed uniformly in cash and credit transactions).
</P>
<P><I>4(a)(1) Charges by third parties.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Choosing the provider of a required service.</I> An example of a third-party charge included in the finance charge is the cost of required mortgage insurance, even if the consumer is allowed to choose the insurer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Annuities associated with reverse mortgages.</I> Some creditors offer annuities in connection with a reverse-mortgage transaction. The amount of the premium is a finance charge if the creditor requires the purchase of the annuity incident to the credit. Examples include the following:
</P>
<P>i. The credit documents reflect the purchase of an annuity from a specific provider or providers.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor assesses an additional charge on consumers who do not purchase an annuity from a specific provider.
</P>
<P>iii. The annuity is intended to replace in whole or in part the creditor's payments to the consumer either immediately or at some future date.
</P>
<P><I>4(a)(2) Special rule; closing agent charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This rule applies to charges by a third party serving as the closing agent for the particular loan. An example of a closing agent charge included in the finance charge is a courier fee where the creditor requires the use of a courier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Required closing agent.</I> If the creditor requires the use of a closing agent, fees charged by the closing agent are included in the finance charge only if the creditor requires the particular service, requires the imposition of the charge, or retains a portion of the charge. Fees charged by a third-party closing agent may be otherwise excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4. For example, a fee that would be paid in a comparable cash transaction may be excluded under § 226.4(a). A charge for conducting or attending a closing is a finance charge and may be excluded only if the charge is included in and is incidental to a lump-sum fee excluded under § 226.4(c)(7).
</P>
<P><I>4(a)(3) Special rule; mortgage broker fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A fee charged by a mortgage broker is excluded from the finance charge if it is the type of fee that is also excluded when charged by the creditor. For example, to exclude an application fee from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1), a mortgage broker must charge the fee to all applicants for credit, whether or not credit is extended.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Coverage.</I> This rule applies to charges paid by consumers to a mortgage broker in connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by real property or a dwelling.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensation by lender.</I> The rule requires all mortgage broker fees to be included in the finance charge. Creditors sometimes compensate mortgage brokers under a separate arrangement with those parties. Creditors may draw on amounts paid by the consumer, such as points or closing costs, to fund their payment to the broker. Compensation paid by a creditor to a mortgage broker under an agreement is not included as a separate component of a consumer's total finance charge (although this compensation may be reflected in the finance charge if it comes from amounts paid by the consumer to the creditor that are finance charges, such as points and interest).
</P>
<P><I>4(b) Examples of finance charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to other provisions.</I> Charges or fees shown as examples of finance charges in § 226.4(b) may be excludable under § 226.4(c), (d), or (e). For example:
</P>
<P>i. Premiums for credit life insurance, shown as an example of a finance charge under § 226.4(b)(7), may be excluded if the requirements of § 226.4(d)(1) are met.
</P>
<P>ii. Appraisal fees mentioned in § 226.4(b)(4) are excluded for real property or residential mortgage transactions under § 226.4(c)(7).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Checking account charges.</I> A checking or transaction account charge imposed in connection with a credit feature is a finance charge under § 226.4(b)(2) to the extent the charge exceeds the charge for a similar account without a credit feature. If a charge for an account with a credit feature does not exceed the charge for an account without a credit feature, the charge is not a finance charge under § 226.4(b)(2). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. A $5 service charge is imposed on an account with an overdraft line of credit (where the institution has agreed in writing to pay an overdraft), while a $3 service charge is imposed on an account without a credit feature; the $2 difference is a finance charge. (If the difference is not related to account activity, however, it may be excludable as a participation fee. See the commentary to § 226.4(c)(4).)
</P>
<P>ii. A $5 service charge is imposed for each item that results in an overdraft on an account with an overdraft line of credit, while a $25 service charge is imposed for paying or returning each item on a similar account without a credit feature; the $5 charge is not a finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(b)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assumption fees.</I> The assumption fees mentioned in § 226.4(b)(3) are finance charges only when the assumption occurs and the fee is imposed on the new buyer. The assumption fee is a finance charge in the new buyer's transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(b)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit loss insurance.</I> Common examples of the insurance against credit loss mentioned in § 226.4(b)(5) are mortgage guaranty insurance, holder in due course insurance, and repossession insurance. Such premiums must be included in the finance charge only for the period that the creditor requires the insurance to be maintained.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Residual value insurance.</I> Where a creditor requires a consumer to maintain residual value insurance or where the creditor is a beneficiary of a residual value insurance policy written in connection with an extension of credit (as is the case in some forms of automobile balloon-payment financing, for example), the premiums for the insurance must be included in the finance charge for the period that the insurance is to be maintained. If a creditor pays for residual-value insurance and absorbs the payment as a cost of doing business, such costs are not considered finance charges. (See comment 4(a)-2.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraphs 4(b)(7) and (b)(8).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pre-existing insurance policy.</I> The insurance discussed in § 226.4(b)(7) and (b)(8) does not include an insurance policy (such as a life or an automobile collision insurance policy) that is already owned by the consumer, even if the policy is assigned to or otherwise made payable to the creditor to satisfy an insurance requirement. Such a policy is not “written in connection with” the transaction, as long as the insurance was not purchased for use in that credit extension, since it was previously owned by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance written in connection with a transaction.</I> Credit insurance sold before or after an open-end (not home-secured) plan is opened is considered “written in connection with a credit transaction.” Insurance sold after consummation in closed-end credit transactions or after the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b is not considered “written in connection with” the credit transaction if the insurance is written because of the consumer's default (for example, by failing to obtain or maintain required property insurance) or because the consumer requests insurance after consummation or the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b (although credit-sale disclosures may be required for the insurance sold after consummation if it is financed).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substitution of life insurance.</I> The premium for a life insurance policy purchased and assigned to satisfy a credit life insurance requirement must be included in the finance charge, but only to the extent of the cost of the credit life insurance if purchased from the creditor or the actual cost of the policy (if that is less than the cost of the insurance available from the creditor). If the creditor does not offer the required insurance, the premium to be included in the finance charge is the cost of a policy of insurance of the type, amount, and term required by the creditor.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other insurance.</I> Fees for required insurance not of the types described in § 226.4(b)(7) and (b)(8) are finance charges and are not excludable. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The premium for a hospitalization insurance policy, if it is required to be purchased only in a credit transaction, is a finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(b)(9).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Discounts for payment by other than credit.</I> The discounts to induce payment by other than credit mentioned in § 226.4(b)(9) include, for example, the following situation:
</P>
<P>i. The seller of land offers individual tracts for $10,000 each. If the purchaser pays cash, the price is $9,000, but if the purchaser finances the tract with the seller the price is $10,000. The $1,000 difference is a finance charge for those who buy the tracts on credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception for cash discounts.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Creditors may exclude from the finance charge discounts offered to consumers for using cash or another means of payment instead of using a credit card or an open-end plan. The discount may be in whatever amount the seller desires, either as a percentage of the regular price (as defined in section 103(z) of the act, as amended) or a dollar amount. Pursuant to section 167(b) of the act, this provision applies only to transactions involving an open-end credit plan or a credit card (whether open-end or closed-end credit is extended on the card). The merchant must offer the discount to prospective buyers whether or not they are cardholders or members of the open-end credit plan. The merchant may, however, make other distinctions. For example:
</P>
<P>A. The merchant may limit the discount to payment by cash and not offer it for payment by check or by use of a debit card.
</P>
<P>B. The merchant may establish a discount plan that allows a 15% discount for payment by cash, a 10% discount for payment by check, and a 5% discount for payment by a particular credit card. None of these discounts is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. Pursuant to section 171(c) of the act, discounts excluded from the finance charge under this paragraph are also excluded from treatment as a finance charge or other charge for credit under any state usury or disclosure laws.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination of the regular price.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The <I>regular price</I> is critical in determining whether the difference between the price charged to cash customers and credit customers is a <I>discount</I> or a <I>surcharge,</I> as these terms are defined in amended section 103 of the act. The <I>regular price</I> is defined in section 103 of the act as—
</P>
<P>* * * the tag or posted price charged for the property or service if a single price is tagged or posted, or the price charged for the property or service when payment is made by use of an open-end credit account or a credit card if either (1) no price is tagged or posted, or (2) two prices are tagged or posted. * * *
</P>
<P>ii. For example, in the sale of motor vehicle fuel, the tagged or posted price is the price displayed at the pump. As a result, the higher price (the open-end credit or credit card price) must be displayed at the pump, either alone or along with the cash price. Service station operators may designate separate pumps or separate islands as being for either cash or credit purchases and display only the appropriate prices at the various pumps. If a pump is capable of displaying on its meter either a cash or a credit price depending upon the consumer's means of payment, both the cash price and the credit price must be displayed at the pump. A service station operator may display the cash price of fuel by itself on a curb sign, as long as the sign clearly indicates that the price is limited to cash purchases.
</P>
<P><I>4(b)(10) Debt cancellation and debt suspension fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Debt cancellation coverage provides for payment or satisfaction of all or part of a debt when a specified event occurs. The term “debt cancellation coverage” includes guaranteed automobile protection, or “GAP,” agreements, which pay or satisfy the remaining debt after property insurance benefits are exhausted. Debt suspension coverage provides for suspension of the obligation to make one or more payments on the date(s) otherwise required by the credit agreement, when a specified event occurs. The term “debt suspension” does not include loan payment deferral arrangements in which the triggering event is the bank's unilateral decision to allow a deferral of payment and the borrower's unilateral election to do so, such as by skipping or reducing one or more payments (“skip payments”).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Coverage written in connection with a transaction.</I> Coverage sold after consummation in closed-end credit transactions or after the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b is not “written in connection with” the credit transaction if the coverage is written because the consumer requests coverage after consummation or the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 226.5b (although credit-sale disclosures may be required for the coverage sold after consummation if it is financed). Coverage sold before or after an open-end (not home-secured) plan is opened is considered “written in connection with a credit transaction.”
</P>
<P><I>4(c) Charges excluded from the finance charge.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application fees.</I> An application fee that is excluded from the finance charge is a charge to recover the costs associated with processing applications for credit. The fee may cover the costs of services such as credit reports, credit investigations, and appraisals. The creditor is free to impose the fee in only certain of its loan programs, such as mortgage loans. However, if the fee is to be excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1), it must be charged to all applicants, not just to applicants who are approved or who actually receive credit.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Late payment charges.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Late payment charges can be excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(2) whether or not the person imposing the charge continues to extend credit on the account or continues to provide property or services to the consumer. In determining whether a charge is for actual unanticipated late payment on a 30-day account, for example, factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>A. The terms of the account. For example, is the consumer required by the account terms to pay the account balance in full each month? If not, the charge may be a finance charge.
</P>
<P>B. The practices of the creditor in handling the accounts. For example, regardless of the terms of the account, does the creditor allow consumers to pay the accounts over a period of time without demanding payment in full or taking other action to collect? If no effort is made to collect the full amount due, the charge may be a finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 226.4(c)(2) applies to late payment charges imposed for failure to make payments as agreed, as well as failure to pay an account in full when due.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other excluded charges.</I> Charges for “delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence” include, for example, charges for reinstatement of credit privileges or for submitting as payment a check that is later returned unpaid.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assessing interest on an overdraft balance.</I> A charge on an overdraft balance computed by applying a rate of interest to the amount of the overdraft is not a finance charge, even though the consumer agrees to the charge in the account agreement, unless the financial institution agrees in writing that it will pay such items.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Participation fees—periodic basis.</I> The participation fees described in § 226.4(c)(4) do not necessarily have to be formal membership fees, nor are they limited to credit card plans. The provision applies to any credit plan in which payment of a fee is a condition of access to the plan itself, but it does not apply to fees imposed separately on individual closed-end transactions. The fee may be charged on a monthly, annual, or other periodic basis; a one-time, non-recurring fee imposed at the time an account is opened is not a fee that is charged on a periodic basis, and may not be treated as a participation fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Participation fees—exclusions.</I> Minimum monthly charges, charges for non-use of a credit card, and other charges based on either account activity or the amount of credit available under the plan are not excluded from the finance charge by § 226.4(c)(4). Thus, for example, a fee that is charged and then refunded to the consumer based on the extent to which the consumer uses the credit available would be a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 226.4(b)(2). Also, see comment 14(c)-2 for treatment of certain types of fees excluded in determining the annual percentage rate for the periodic statement.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Seller's points.</I> The seller's points mentioned in § 226.4(c)(5) include any charges imposed by the creditor upon the noncreditor seller of property for providing credit to the buyer or for providing credit on certain terms. These charges are excluded from the finance charge even if they are passed on to the buyer, for example, in the form of a higher sales price. Seller's points are frequently involved in real estate transactions guaranteed or insured by governmental agencies. A <I>commitment fee</I> paid by a noncreditor seller (such as a real estate developer) to the creditor should be treated as seller's points. Buyer's points (that is, points charged to the buyer by the creditor), however, are finance charges.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other seller-paid amounts.</I> Mortgage insurance premiums and other finance charges are sometimes paid at or before consummation or settlement on the borrower's behalf by a noncreditor seller. The creditor should treat the payment made by the seller as seller's points and exclude it from the finance charge if, based on the seller's payment, the consumer is not legally bound to the creditor for the charge. A creditor who gives disclosures before the payment has been made should base them on the best information reasonably available.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Lost interest.</I> Certain federal and state laws mandate a percentage differential between the interest rate paid on a deposit and the rate charged on a loan secured by that deposit. In some situations, because of usury limits the creditor must reduce the interest rate paid on the deposit and, as a result, the consumer loses some of the interest that would otherwise have been earned. Under § 226.4(c)(6), such “lost interest” need not be included in the finance charge. This rule applies only to an interest reduction imposed because a rate differential is required by law and a usury limit precludes compliance by any other means. If the creditor imposes a differential that exceeds that required, only the lost interest attributable to the excess amount is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 226.4(a).)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c)(7).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Real estate or residential mortgage transaction charges.</I> The list of charges in § 226.4(c)(7) applies both to residential mortgage transactions (which may include, for example, the purchase of a mobile home) and to other transactions secured by real estate. The fees are excluded from the finance charge even if the services for which the fees are imposed are performed by the creditor's employees rather than by a third party. In addition, the cost of verifying or confirming information connected to the item is also excluded. For example, credit-report fees cover not only the cost of the report but also the cost of verifying information in the report. In all cases, charges excluded under § 226.4(c)(7) must be bona fide and reasonable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lump-sum charges.</I> If a lump sum charged for several services includes a charge that is not excludable, a portion of the total should be allocated to that service and included in the finance charge. However, a lump sum charged for conducting or attending a closing (for example, by a lawyer or a title company) is excluded from the finance charge if the charge is primarily for services related to items listed in § 226.4(c)(7) (for example, reviewing or completing documents), even if other incidental services such as explaining various documents or disbursing funds for the parties are performed. The entire charge is excluded even if a fee for the incidental services would be a finance charge if it were imposed separately.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges assessed during the loan term.</I> Real estate or residential mortgage transaction charges excluded under § 226.4(c)(7) are those charges imposed solely in connection with the initial decision to grant credit. This would include, for example, a fee to search for tax liens on the property or to determine if flood insurance is required. The exclusion does not apply to fees for services to be performed periodically during the loan term, regardless of when the fee is collected. For example, a fee for one or more determinations during the loan term of the current tax-lien status or flood-insurance requirements is a finance charge, regardless of whether the fee is imposed at closing, or when the service is performed. If a creditor is uncertain about what portion of a fee to be paid at consummation or loan closing is related to the initial decision to grant credit, the entire fee may be treated as a finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>4(d) Insurance and debt cancellation and debt suspension coverage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.4(d) permits insurance premiums and charges and debt cancellation and debt suspension charges to be excluded from the finance charge. The required disclosures must be made in writing, except as provided in § 226.4(d)(4). The rules on location of insurance and debt cancellation and debt suspension disclosures for closed-end transactions are in § 226.17(a). For purposes of § 226.4(d), all references to insurance also include debt cancellation and debt suspension coverage unless the context indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> If disclosures are given early, for example under § 226.17(f) or § 226.19(a), the creditor need not redisclose if the actual premium is different at the time of consummation. If insurance disclosures are not given at the time of early disclosure and insurance is in fact written in connection with the transaction, the disclosures under § 226.4(d) must be made in order to exclude the premiums from the finance charge.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Premium rate increases.</I> The creditor should disclose the premium amount based on the rates currently in effect and need not designate it as an estimate even if the premium rates may increase. An increase in insurance rates after consummation of a closed-end credit transaction or during the life of an open-end credit plan does not require redisclosure in order to exclude the additional premium from treatment as a finance charge.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unit-cost disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Open-end credit.</I> The premium or fee for insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension for the initial term of coverage may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis in open-end credit transactions. The cost per unit should be based on the initial term of coverage, unless one of the options under comment 4(d)-12 is available.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Closed-end credit.</I> One of the transactions for which unit-cost disclosures (such as 50 cents per year for each $100 of the amount financed) may be used in place of the total insurance premium involves a particular kind of insurance plan. For example, a consumer with a current indebtedness of $8,000 is covered by a plan of credit life insurance coverage with a maximum of $10,000. The consumer requests an additional $4,000 loan to be covered by the same insurance plan. Since the $4,000 loan exceeds, in part, the maximum amount of indebtedness that can be covered by the plan, the creditor may properly give the insurance-cost disclosures on the $4,000 loan on a unit-cost basis.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Required credit life insurance; debt cancellation or suspension coverage.</I> Credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, and debt cancellation and suspension coverage described in § 226.4(b)(10), must be voluntary in order for the premium or charges to be excluded from the finance charge. Whether the insurance or coverage is in fact required or optional is a factual question. If the insurance or coverage is required, the premiums must be included in the finance charge, whether the insurance or coverage is purchased from the creditor or from a third party. If the consumer is required to elect one of several options—such as to purchase credit life insurance, or to assign an existing life insurance policy, or to pledge security such as a certificate of deposit—and the consumer purchases the credit life insurance policy, the premium must be included in the finance charge. (If the consumer assigns a preexisting policy or pledges security instead, no premium is included in the finance charge. The security interest would be disclosed under § 226.6(a)(4), § 226.6(b)(5)(ii), or § 226.18(m). See the commentary to § 226.4(b)(7) and (b)(8).)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Other types of voluntary insurance.</I> Insurance is not credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance if the creditor or the credit account of the consumer is not the beneficiary of the insurance coverage. If the premium for such insurance is not imposed by the creditor as an incident to or a condition of credit, it is not covered by § 226.4.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Signatures.</I> If the creditor offers a number of insurance options under § 226.4(d), the creditor may provide a means for the consumer to sign or initial for each option, or it may provide for a single authorizing signature or initial with the options selected designated by some other means, such as a check mark. The insurance authorization may be signed or initialed by any consumer, as defined in § 226.2(a)(11), or by an authorized user on a credit card account.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Property insurance.</I> To exclude property insurance premiums or charges from the finance charge, the creditor must allow the consumer to choose the insurer and disclose that fact. This disclosure must be made whether or not the property insurance is available from or through the creditor. The requirement that an option be given does not require that the insurance be readily available from other sources. The premium or charge must be disclosed only if the consumer elects to purchase the insurance from the creditor; in such a case, the creditor must also disclose the term of the property insurance coverage if it is less than the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Single-interest insurance.</I> Blanket and specific single-interest coverage are treated the same for purposes of the regulation. A charge for either type of single-interest insurance may be excluded from the finance charge if:
</P>
<P>i. The insurer waives any right of subrogation.
</P>
<P>ii. The other requirements of § 226.4(d)(2) are met. This includes, of course, giving the consumer the option of obtaining the insurance from a person of the consumer's choice. The creditor need not ascertain whether the consumer is able to purchase the insurance from someone else.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Single-interest insurance defined.</I> The term <I>single-interest insurance</I> as used in the regulation refers only to the types of coverage traditionally included in the term <I>vendor's single-interest insurance</I> (or <I>VSI</I>), that is, protection of tangible property against normal property damage, concealment, confiscation, conversion, embezzlement, and skip. Some comprehensive insurance policies may include a variety of additional coverages, such as repossession insurance and holder-in-due-course insurance. These types of coverage do not constitute single-interest insurance for purposes of the regulation, and premiums for them do not qualify for exclusion from the finance charge under § 226.4(d). If a policy that is primarily VSI also provides coverages that are not VSI or other property insurance, a portion of the premiums must be allocated to the nonexcludable coverages and included in the finance charge. However, such allocation is not required if the total premium in fact attributable to all of the non-VSI coverages included in the policy is $1.00 or less (or $5.00 or less in the case of a multiyear policy).
</P>
<P>11. <I>Initial term.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The initial term of insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage determines the period for which a premium amount must be disclosed, unless one of the options discussed under comment 4(d)-12 is available. For purposes of § 226.4(d), the initial term is the period for which the insurer or creditor is obligated to provide coverage, even though the consumer may be allowed to cancel the coverage or coverage may end due to nonpayment before that term expires.
</P>
<P>ii. For example:
</P>
<P>A. The initial term of a property insurance policy on an automobile that is written for one year is one year even though premiums are paid monthly and the term of the credit transaction is four years.
</P>
<P>B. The initial term of an insurance policy is the full term of the credit transaction if the consumer pays or finances a single premium in advance.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Initial term; alternative.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> A creditor has the option of providing cost disclosures on the basis of one year of insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage instead of a longer initial term (provided the premium or fee is clearly labeled as being for one year) if:
</P>
<P>A. The initial term is indefinite or not clear, or
</P>
<P>B. The consumer has agreed to pay a premium or fee that is assessed periodically but the consumer is under no obligation to continue the coverage, whether or not the consumer has made an initial payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Open-end plans.</I> For open-end plans, a creditor also has the option of providing unit-cost disclosure on the basis of a period that is less than one year if the consumer has agreed to pay a premium or fee that is assessed periodically, for example monthly, but the consumer is under no obligation to continue the coverage.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> To illustrate:
</P>
<P>A. A credit life insurance policy providing coverage for a 30-year mortgage loan has an initial term of 30 years, even though premiums are paid monthly and the consumer is not required to continue the coverage. Disclosures may be based on the initial term, but the creditor also has the option of making disclosures on the basis of coverage for an assumed initial term of one year.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Loss-of-income insurance.</I> The loss-of-income insurance mentioned in § 226.4(d) includes involuntary unemployment insurance, which provides that some or all of the consumer's payments will be made if the consumer becomes unemployed involuntarily.
</P>
<P><I>4(d)(3) Voluntary debt cancellation or debt suspension fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Fees charged for the specialized form of debt cancellation agreement known as guaranteed automobile protection (“GAP”) agreements must be disclosed according to § 226.4(d)(3) rather than according to § 226.4(d)(2) for property insurance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosures.</I> Creditors can comply with § 226.4(d)(3) by providing a disclosure that refers to debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage whether or not the coverage is considered insurance. Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage constitutes insurance under state law. (See Model Clauses and Samples at G-16 and H-17 in appendix G and appendix H to part 226 for guidance on how to provide the disclosure required by § 226.4(d)(3)(iii) for debt suspension products.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple events.</I> If debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage for two or more events is provided at a single charge, the entire charge may be excluded from the finance charge if at least one of the events is accident or loss of life, health, or income and the conditions specified in § 226.4(d)(3) or, as applicable, § 226.4(d)(4), are satisfied.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosures in programs combining debt cancellation and debt suspension features.</I> If the consumer's debt can be cancelled under certain circumstances, the disclosure may be modified to reflect that fact. The disclosure could, for example, state (in addition to the language required by § 226.4(d)(3)(iii)) that “In some circumstances, my debt may be cancelled.” However, the disclosure would not be permitted to list the specific events that would result in debt cancellation.
</P>
<P><I>4(d)(4) Telephone purchases.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Affirmative request.</I> A creditor would not satisfy the requirement to obtain a consumer's affirmative request if the “request” was a response to a script that uses leading questions or negative consent. A question asking whether the consumer wishes to enroll in the credit insurance or debt cancellation or suspension plan and seeking a yes-or-no response (such as “Do you want to enroll in this optional debt cancellation plan?”) would not be considered leading.
</P>
<P><I>4(e) Certain security interest charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Excludable charges.</I> Sums must be actually paid to public officials to be excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(e)(1) and (e)(3). Examples are charges or other fees required for filing or recording security agreements, mortgages, continuation statements, termination statements, and similar documents, as well as intangible property or other taxes even when the charges or fees are imposed by the state solely on the creditor and charged to the consumer (if the tax must be paid to record a security agreement). (See comment 4(a)-5 regarding the treatment of taxes, generally.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Charges not excludable.</I> If the obligation is between the creditor and a third party (an assignee, for example), charges or other fees for filing or recording security agreements, mortgages, continuation statements, termination statements, and similar documents relating to that obligation are not excludable from the finance charge under this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization.</I> The various charges described in § 226.4(e)(1) and (e)(3) may be totaled and disclosed as an aggregate sum, or they may be itemized by the specific fees and taxes imposed. If an aggregate sum is disclosed, a general term such as security interest fees or filing fees may be used.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notary fees.</I> In order for a notary fee to be excluded under § 226.4(e)(1), all of the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>i. The document to be notarized is one used to perfect, release, or continue a security interest.
</P>
<P>ii. The document is required by law to be notarized.
</P>
<P>iii. A notary is considered a public official under applicable law.
</P>
<P>iv. The amount of the fee is set or authorized by law.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nonfiling insurance.</I> The exclusion in § 226.4(e)(2) is available only if nonfiling insurance is purchased. If the creditor collects and simply retains a fee as a sort of “self-insurance” against nonfiling, it may not be excluded from the finance charge. If the nonfiling insurance premium exceeds the amount of the fees excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(e)(1), only the excess is a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The fee for perfecting a security interest is $5.00 and the fee for releasing the security interest is $3.00. The creditor charges $10.00 for nonfiling insurance. Only $8.00 of the $10.00 is excludable from the finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>4(f) Prohibited offsets.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Earnings on deposits or investments.</I> The rule that the creditor shall not deduct any earnings by the consumer on deposits or investments applies whether or not the creditor has a security interest in the property.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart B—Open-End Credit
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.5—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>5(a) Form of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>5(a)(1) General.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The “clear and conspicuous” standard generally requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form. Disclosures for credit card applications and solicitations under § 226.5a, highlighted account-opening disclosures under § 226.6(b)(1), highlighted disclosure on checks that access a credit card under § 226.9(b)(3), highlighted change-in-terms disclosures under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and highlighted disclosures when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or for a penalty under § 226.9(g)(3)(ii) must also be readily noticeable to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous—reasonably understandable form.</I> Except where otherwise provided, the reasonably understandable form standard does not require that disclosures be segregated from other material or located in any particular place on the disclosure statement, or that numerical amounts or percentages be in any particular type size. For disclosures that are given orally, the standard requires that they be given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. (See comment 5(b)(1)(ii)-1.) Except where otherwise provided, the standard does not prohibit:
</P>
<P>i. Pluralizing required terminology (“finance charge” and “annual percentage rate”).
</P>
<P>ii. Adding to the required disclosures such items as contractual provisions, explanations of contract terms, state disclosures, and translations.
</P>
<P>iii. Sending promotional material with the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Using commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations (such as “mo.” for “month” or “Tx.” for “Texas”) in making any required disclosures.
</P>
<P>v. Using codes or symbols such as “APR” (for annual percentage rate), “FC” (for finance charge), or “Cr” (for credit balance), so long as a legend or description of the code or symbol is provided on the disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous—readily noticeable standard.</I> To meet the readily noticeable standard, disclosures for credit card applications and solicitations under § 226.5a, highlighted account-opening disclosures under § 226.6(b)(1), highlighted disclosures on checks that access a credit card account under § 226.9(b)(3), highlighted change-in-terms disclosures under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and highlighted disclosures when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or penalty pricing under § 226.9(g)(3)(ii) must be given in a minimum of 10-point font. (See special rule for font size requirements for the annual percentage rate for purchases under §§ 226.5a(b)(1) and 226.6(b)(2)(i).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Integrated document.</I> The creditor may make both the account-opening disclosures (§ 226.6) and the periodic-statement disclosures (§ 226.7) on more than one page, and use both the front and the reverse sides, except where otherwise indicated, so long as the pages constitute an integrated document. An integrated document would not include disclosure pages provided to the consumer at different times or disclosures interspersed on the same page with promotional material. An integrated document would include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Multiple pages provided in the same envelope that cover related material and are folded together, numbered consecutively, or clearly labeled to show that they relate to one another; or
</P>
<P>ii. A brochure that contains disclosures and explanatory material about a range of services the creditor offers, such as credit, checking account, and electronic fund transfer features.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Disclosures covered.</I> Disclosures that must meet the “clear and conspicuous” standard include all required communications under this subpart. Therefore, disclosures made by a person other than the card issuer, such as disclosures of finance charges imposed at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card under § 226.9(d), and notices, such as the correction notice required to be sent to the consumer under § 226.13(e), must also be clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(a)(1)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Disclosures that need not be provided in writing under § 226.5(a)(1)(ii)(A) may be provided in writing, orally, or in electronic form. If the consumer requests the service in electronic form, such as on the creditor's Web site, the specified disclosures may be provided in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(a)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures not subject to E-Sign Act.</I> See the commentary to § 226.5(a)(1)(ii)(A) regarding disclosures (in addition to those specified under § 226.5(a)(1)(iii)) that may be provided in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P><I>5(a)(2) Terminology.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When disclosures must be more conspicuous.</I> For home-equity plans subject to § 226.5b, the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate,</I> when required to be used with a number, must be disclosed more conspicuously than other required disclosures, except in the cases provided in § 226.5(a)(2)(ii). At the creditor's option, <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> may also be disclosed more conspicuously than the other required disclosures even when the regulation does not so require. The following examples illustrate these rules:
</P>
<P>i. In disclosing the annual percentage rate as required by § 226.6(a)(1)(ii), the term <I>annual percentage rate</I> is subject to the <I>more conspicuous</I> rule.
</P>
<P>ii. In disclosing the amount of the finance charge, required by § 226.7(a)(6)(i), the term <I>finance charge</I> is subject to the <I>more conspicuous</I> rule.
</P>
<P>iii. Although neither <I>finance charge</I> nor <I>annual percentage rate</I> need be emphasized when used as part of general informational material or in textual descriptions of other terms, emphasis is permissible in such cases. For example, when the terms appear as part of the explanations required under § 226.6(a)(1)(iii) and (a)(1)(iv), they may be equally conspicuous as the disclosures required under §§ 226.6(a)(1)(ii) and 226.7(a)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Making disclosures more conspicuous.</I> In disclosing the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> more conspicuously for home-equity plans subject to § 226.5b, only the words <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> should be accentuated. For example, if the term <I>total finance charge</I> is used, only <I>finance charge</I> should be emphasized. The disclosures may be made more conspicuous by, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Capitalizing the words when other disclosures are printed in lower case.
</P>
<P>ii. Putting them in bold print or a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>iii. Underlining them.
</P>
<P>iv. Setting them off with asterisks.
</P>
<P>v. Printing them in larger type.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of figures—exception to more conspicuous rule.</I> For home-equity plans subject to § 226.5b, the terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>finance charge</I> need not be more conspicuous than figures (including, for example, numbers, percentages, and dollar signs).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consistent terminology.</I> Language used in disclosures required in this subpart must be close enough in meaning to enable the consumer to relate the different disclosures; however, the language need not be identical.
</P>
<P><I>5(b) Time of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>5(b)(1) Account-opening disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>5(b)(1)(i) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure before the first transaction.</I> When disclosures must be furnished “before the first transaction,” account-opening disclosures must be delivered before the consumer becomes obligated on the plan. Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Purchases.</I> The consumer makes the first purchase, such as when a consumer opens a credit plan and makes purchases contemporaneously at a retail store, except when the consumer places a telephone call to make the purchase and opens the plan contemporaneously. (See commentary to § 226.5(b)(1)(iii) below.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Advances.</I> The consumer receives the first advance. If the consumer receives a cash advance check at the same time the account-opening disclosures are provided, disclosures are still timely if the consumer can, after receiving the disclosures, return the cash advance check to the creditor without obligation (for example, without paying finance charges).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivation of suspended account.</I> If an account is temporarily suspended (for example, because the consumer has exceeded a credit limit, or because a credit card is reported lost or stolen) and then is reactivated, no new account-opening disclosures are required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reopening closed account.</I> If an account has been closed (for example, due to inactivity, cancellation, or expiration) and then is reopened, new account-opening disclosures are required. No new account-opening disclosures are required, however, when the account is closed merely to assign it a new number (for example, when a credit card is reported lost or stolen) and the “new” account then continues on the same terms.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Converting closed-end to open-end credit.</I> If a closed-end credit transaction is converted to an open-end credit account under a written agreement with the consumer, account-opening disclosures under § 226.6 must be given before the consumer becomes obligated on the open-end credit plan. (See the commentary to § 226.17 on converting open-end credit to closed-end credit.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Balance transfers.</I> A creditor that solicits the transfer by a consumer of outstanding balances from an existing account to a new open-end plan must furnish the disclosures required by § 226.6 so that the consumer has an opportunity, after receiving the disclosures, to contact the creditor before the balance is transferred and decline the transfer. For example, assume a consumer responds to a card issuer's solicitation for a credit card account subject to § 226.5a that offers a range of balance transfer annual percentage rates, based on the consumer's creditworthiness. If the creditor opens an account for the consumer, the creditor would comply with the timing rules of this section by providing the consumer with the annual percentage rate (along with the fees and other required disclosures) that would apply to the balance transfer in time for the consumer to contact the creditor and withdraw the request. A creditor that permits consumers to withdraw the request by telephone has met this timing standard if the creditor does not effect the balance transfer until 10 days after the creditor has sent account-opening disclosures to the consumer, assuming the consumer has not contacted the creditor to withdraw the request. Card issuers that are subject to the requirements of § 226.5a may establish procedures that comply with both §§ 226.5a and 226.6 in a single disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Substitution or replacement of credit card accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Generally.</I> When a card issuer substitutes or replaces an existing credit card account with another credit card account, the card issuer must either provide notice of the terms of the new account consistent with § 226.6(b) or provide notice of the changes in the terms of the existing account consistent with § 226.9(c)(2). Whether a substitution or replacement results in the opening of a new account or a change in the terms of an existing account for purposes of the disclosure requirements in §§ 226.6(b) and 226.9(c)(2) is determined in light of all the relevant facts and circumstances. For additional requirements and limitations related to the substitution or replacement of credit card accounts, see §§ 226.12(a) and 226.55(d) and comments 12(a)(1)-1 through -8, 12(a)(2)-1 through -9, 55(b)(3)-3, and 55(d)-1 through -3.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Relevant facts and circumstances.</I> Listed below are facts and circumstances that are relevant to whether a substitution or replacement results in the opening of a new account or a change in the terms of an existing account for purposes of the disclosure requirements in §§ 226.6(b) and 226.9(c)(2). When most of the facts and circumstances listed below are present, the substitution or replacement likely constitutes the opening of a new account for which § 226.6(b) disclosures are appropriate. When few of the facts and circumstances listed below are present, the substitution or replacement likely constitutes a change in the terms of an existing account for which § 226.9(c)(2) disclosures are appropriate.
</P>
<P>A. Whether the card issuer provides the consumer with a new credit card;
</P>
<P>B. Whether the card issuer provides the consumer with a new account number;
</P>
<P>C. Whether the account provides new features or benefits after the substitution or replacement (such as rewards on purchases);
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<P>D. Whether the account can be used to conduct transactions at a greater or lesser number of merchants after the substitution or replacement (such as when a retail card is replaced with a cobranded general purpose credit card that can be used at a wider number of merchants);
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<P>E. Whether the card issuer implemented the substitution or replacement on an individualized basis (such as in response to a consumer's request); and
</P>
<P>F. Whether the account becomes a different type of open-end plan after the substitution or replacement (such as when a charge card is replaced by a credit card).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Replacement as a result of theft or unauthorized use.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs i. and ii. above, a card issuer that replaces a credit card or provides a new account number because the consumer has reported the card stolen or because the account appears to have been used for unauthorized transactions is not required to provide a notice under §§ 226.6(b) or 226.9(c)(2) unless the card issuer has changed a term of the account that is subject to §§ 226.6(b) or 226.9(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>5(b)(1)(ii) Charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosing charges before the fee is imposed.</I> Creditors may disclose charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan orally or in writing at any time before a consumer agrees to pay the fee or becomes obligated for the charge, unless the charge is specified under § 226.6(b)(2). (Charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured plan) that are not specified under § 226.6(b)(2) may alternatively be disclosed in electronic form; see the commentary to § 226.5(a)(1)(ii)(A).) Creditors must provide such disclosures at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice them. For example, if a consumer telephones a card issuer to discuss a particular service, a creditor would meet the standard if the creditor clearly and conspicuously discloses the fee associated with the service that is the topic of the telephone call orally to the consumer. Similarly, a creditor providing marketing materials in writing to a consumer about a particular service would meet the standard if the creditor provided a clear and conspicuous written disclosure of the fee for that service in those same materials. A creditor that provides written materials to a consumer about a particular service but provides a fee disclosure for another service not promoted in such materials would not meet the standard. For example, if a creditor provided marketing materials promoting payment by Internet, but included the fee for a replacement card on such materials with no explanation, the creditor would not be disclosing the fee at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice the fee.
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<P><I>5(b)(1)(iii) Telephone purchases.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Return policies.</I> In order for creditors to provide disclosures in accordance with the timing requirements of this paragraph, consumers must be permitted to return merchandise purchased at the time the plan was established without paying mailing or return-shipment costs. Creditors may impose costs to return subsequent purchases of merchandise under the plan, or to return merchandise purchased by other means such as a credit card issued by another creditor. A reasonable return policy would be of sufficient duration that the consumer is likely to have received the disclosures and had sufficient time to make a decision about the financing plan before his or her right to return the goods expires. Return policies need not provide a right to return goods if the consumer consumes or damages the goods, or for installed appliances or fixtures, provided there is a reasonable repair or replacement policy to cover defective goods or installations. If the consumer chooses to reject the financing plan, creditors comply with the requirements of this paragraph by permitting the consumer to pay for the goods with another reasonable form of payment acceptable to the merchant and keep the goods although the creditor cannot require the consumer to do so.
</P>
<P><I>5(b)(1)(iv) Membership fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Membership fees.</I> See § 226.5a(b)(2) and related commentary for guidance on fees for issuance or availability of a credit or charge card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rejecting the plan.</I> If a consumer has paid or promised to pay a membership fee including an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1) before receiving account-opening disclosures, the consumer may, after receiving the disclosures, reject the plan and not be obligated for the membership fee, application fee, or any other fee or charge. A consumer who has received the disclosures and uses the account, or makes a payment on the account after receiving a billing statement, is deemed not to have rejected the plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Using the account.</I> A consumer uses an account by obtaining an extension of credit after receiving the account-opening disclosures, such as by making a purchase or obtaining an advance. A consumer does not “use” the account by activating the account. A consumer also does not “use” the account when the creditor assesses fees on the account (such as start-up fees or fees associated with credit insurance or debt cancellation or suspension programs agreed to as a part of the application and before the consumer receives account-opening disclosures). For example, the consumer does not “use” the account when a creditor sends a billing statement with start-up fees, there is no other activity on the account, the consumer does not pay the fees, and the creditor subsequently assesses a late fee or interest on the unpaid fee balances. A consumer also does not “use” the account by paying an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1) prior to receiving the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b are subject to the requirements of § 226.5b(h) regarding the collection of fees.
</P>
<P><I>5(b)(2) Periodic statements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(b)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements not required.</I> Periodic statements need not be sent in the following cases:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor adjusts an account balance so that at the end of the cycle the balance is less than $1—so long as no finance charge has been imposed on the account for that cycle.
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<P>ii. If a statement was returned as undeliverable. If a new address is provided, however, within a reasonable time before the creditor must send a statement, the creditor must resume sending statements. Receiving the address at least 20 days before the end of a cycle would be a reasonable amount of time to prepare the statement for that cycle. For example, if an address is received 22 days before the end of the June cycle, the creditor must send the periodic statement for the June cycle. (<I>See</I> § 226.13(a)(7).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Termination of draw privileges.</I> When a consumer's ability to draw on an open-end account is terminated without being converted to closed-end credit under a written agreement, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements to those consumers entitled to receive them under § 226.5(b)(2)(i), for example, when the draw period of an open-end credit plan ends and consumers are paying off outstanding balances according to the account agreement or under the terms of a workout agreement that is not converted to a closed-end transaction. In addition, creditors must continue to follow all of the other open-end credit requirements and procedures in subpart B.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Uncollectible accounts.</I> An account is deemed uncollectible for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(i) when a creditor has ceased collection efforts, either directly or through a third party.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Instituting collection proceedings.</I> Creditors institute a delinquency collection proceeding by filing a court action or initiating an adjudicatory process with a third party. Assigning a debt to a debt collector or other third party would not constitute instituting a collection proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mailing or delivery of periodic statements.</I> A creditor is not required to determine the specific date on which a periodic statement is mailed or delivered to an individual consumer for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii). A creditor complies with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii) if it has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than a certain number of days after the closing date of the billing cycle and adds that number of days to the 21-day or 14-day period required by § 226.5(b)(2)(ii) when determining, as applicable, the payment due date for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A), the date on which any grace period expires for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>), or the date after which the payment will be treated as late for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>). For example
</P>
<P>A. If a creditor has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan or an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that provides a grace period are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than three days after the closing date of the billing cycle, the payment due date for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) and the date on which any grace period expires for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) must be no less than 24 days after the closing date of the billing cycle. Similarly, in these circumstances, the limitations in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) on treating a payment as late and imposing finance charges apply for 24 days after the closing date of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. If a creditor has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements for an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that does not provide a grace period are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than five days after the closing date of the billing cycle, the date on which a payment must be received in order to avoid being treated as late for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) must be no less than 19 days after the closing date of the billing cycle. Similarly, in these circumstances, the limitation in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) on treating a payment as late for any purpose applies for 19 days after the closing date of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Treating a payment as late for any purpose.</I> Treating a payment as late for any purpose includes increasing the annual percentage rate as a penalty, reporting the consumer as delinquent to a credit reporting agency, assessing a late fee or any other fee, initiating collection activities, or terminating benefits (such as rewards on purchases) based on the consumer's failure to make a payment within a specified amount of time or by a specified date. The prohibitions in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) on treating a payment as late for any purpose apply only during the 21-day or 14-day period (as applicable) following mailing or delivery of the periodic statement stating the due date for that payment and only if the required minimum periodic payment is received within that period. For example
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a periodic statement mailed on April 4 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $50 is due on April 25. If the card issuer does not receive any payment on or before April 25, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit the card issuer from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in paragraph i. above. On April 20, the card issuer receives a payment of $30 and no additional payment is received on or before April 25. Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit the card issuer from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in paragraph i. above. On May 4, the card issuer has not received the $50 required minimum periodic payment that was due on April 25. The periodic statement mailed on May 4 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $150 is due on May 25. Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not permit the card issuer to treat the $150 required minimum periodic payment as late until April 26. However, the card issuer may continue to treat the $50 required minimum periodic payment as late during this period.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume that, for an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that does not provide a grace period, a periodic statement mailed on September 10 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $100 is due on September 24. If the creditor does not receive any payment on or before September 24, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) does not prohibit the creditor from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Grace periods.</I> i. <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B), “grace period” means a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. A deferred interest or similar promotional program under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time is not a grace period for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B). Similarly, a period following the payment due date during which a late payment fee will not be imposed is not a grace period for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B). <I>See</I> comments 7(b)(11)-1, 7(b)(11)-2, and 54(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Applicability of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(1).</I> Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) applies if an account is eligible for a grace period when the periodic statement is mailed or delivered. Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not require the creditor to provide a grace period or prohibit the creditor from placing limitations and conditions on a grace period to the extent consistent with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 226.54. <I>See</I> comment 54(a)(1)-1. Furthermore, the prohibition in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) applies only during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the periodic statement and applies only when the creditor receives a payment within that 21-day period that satisfies the terms of the grace period.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth of the month. Assume also that, under the terms of the account, the balance at the end of a billing cycle must be paid in full by the following payment due date in order for the account to remain eligible for the grace period. At the end of the April billing cycle, the balance on the account is $500. The grace period applies to the $500 balance because the balance for the March billing cycle was paid in full on April 25. Accordingly, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) requires the creditor to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that the periodic statement reflecting the $500 balance is mailed or delivered on or before May 4. Furthermore, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) requires the creditor to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that the creditor does not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period if a $500 payment is received on or before May 25. However, if the creditor receives a payment of $300 on April 25, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) would not prohibit the creditor from imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period (to the extent permitted by § 226.54).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Application of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii) to charge card and charged-off accounts.</I> i. <I>Charge card accounts.</I> For purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is the date the card issuer is required to disclose on the periodic statement pursuant to § 226.7(b)(11)(i)(A). Because § 226.7(b)(11)(ii) provides that § 226.7(b)(11)(i) does not apply to periodic statements provided solely for charge card accounts, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) also does not apply to the mailing or delivery of periodic statements provided solely for such accounts. However, in these circumstances, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires the card issuer to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that a payment is not treated as late for any purpose during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the statement. A card issuer that complies with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) as discussed above with respect to a charge card account has also complied with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>). Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not apply to charge card accounts because, for purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B), a grace period is a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and, consistent with § 226.2(a)(15)(iii), charge card accounts do not impose a finance charge based on a periodic rate.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Charged-off accounts.</I> For purposes of § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is the date the card issuer is required to disclose on the periodic statement pursuant to § 226.7(b)(11)(i)(A). Because § 226.7(b)(11)(ii) provides that § 226.7(b)(11)(i) does not apply to periodic statements provided for charged-off accounts where full payment of the entire account balance is due immediately, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) also does not apply to the mailing or delivery of periodic statements provided solely for such accounts. Furthermore, although § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires the card issuer to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that a payment is not treated as late for any purpose during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the statement, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit a card issuer from continuing to treat prior payments as late during that period. <I>See</I> comment 5(b)(2)(ii)-2. Similarly, although § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) applies to open-end consumer credit accounts in these circumstances, § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) does not prohibit a creditor from continuing treating prior payments as late during the 14-day period following mailing or delivery of a periodic statement. Section 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not apply to charged-off accounts where full payment of the entire account balance is due immediately because such accounts do not provide a grace period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consumer request to pick up periodic statements.</I> When a consumer initiates a request, the creditor may permit, but may not require, the consumer to pick up periodic statements. If the consumer wishes to pick up a statement, the statement must be made available in accordance with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Deferred interest and similar promotional programs.</I> See comment 7(b)-1.iv.
</P>
<P><I>5(c) Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Legal obligation.</I> The disclosures should reflect the credit terms to which the parties are legally bound at the time of giving the disclosures.
</P>
<P>i. The legal obligation is determined by applicable state or other law.
</P>
<P>ii. The fact that a term or contract may later be deemed unenforceable by a court on the basis of equity or other grounds does not, by itself, mean that disclosures based on that term or contract did not reflect the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>iii. The legal obligation normally is presumed to be contained in the contract that evidences the agreement. But this may be rebutted if another agreement between the parties legally modifies that contract.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimates—obtaining information.</I> Disclosures may be estimated when the exact information is unknown at the time disclosures are made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the creditor at the time disclosures are made. The reasonably available standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. In using estimates, the creditor is not required to disclose the basis for the estimated figures, but may include such explanations as additional information. The creditor normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. For example, the creditor might look to insurance companies for the cost of insurance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Estimates—redisclosure.</I> If the creditor makes estimated disclosures, redisclosure is not required for that consumer, even though more accurate information becomes available before the first transaction. For example, in an open-end plan to be secured by real estate, the creditor may estimate the appraisal fees to be charged; such an estimate might reasonably be based on the prevailing market rates for similar appraisals. If the exact appraisal fee is determinable after the estimate is furnished but before the consumer receives the first advance under the plan, no new disclosure is necessary.
</P>
<P><I>5(d) Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> Under § 226.5(d):
</P>
<P>i. Creditors must choose which of them will make the disclosures.
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<P>ii. A single, complete set of disclosures must be provided, rather than partial disclosures from several creditors.
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<P>iii. All disclosures for the open-end credit plan must be given, even if the disclosing creditor would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> Disclosures may be made to either obligor on a joint account. Disclosure responsibilities are not satisfied by giving disclosures to only a surety or guarantor for a principal obligor or to an authorized user. In rescindable transactions, however, separate disclosures must be given to each consumer who has the right to rescind under § 226.15.
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<P>3. <I>Card issuer and person extending credit not the same person.</I> Section 127(c)(4)(D) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1637(c)(4)(D)) contains rules pertaining to charge card issuers with plans that allow access to an open-end credit plan that is maintained by a person other than the charge card issuer. These rules are not implemented in Regulation Z (although they were formerly implemented in § 226.5a(f)). However, the statutory provisions remain in effect and may be used by charge card issuers with plans meeting the specified criteria.
</P>
<P><I>5(e) Effect of subsequent events.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Events causing inaccuracies.</I> Inaccuracies in disclosures are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made. For example, when the consumer fails to fulfill a prior commitment to keep the collateral insured and the creditor then provides the coverage and charges the consumer for it, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate. The creditor may, however, be required to provide a new disclosure(s) under § 226.9(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of inserts.</I> When changes in a creditor's plan affect required disclosures, the creditor may use inserts with outdated disclosure forms. Any insert:
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<P>i. Should clearly refer to the disclosure provision it replaces.
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<P>ii. Need not be physically attached or affixed to the basic disclosure statement.
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<P>iii. May be used only until the supply of outdated forms is exhausted.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.5a—Credit and Charge Card Applications and Solicitations
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.5a generally requires that credit disclosures be contained in application forms and solicitations initiated by a card issuer to open a credit or charge card account. (See § 226.5a(a)(5) and (e)(2) for exceptions; see § 226.5a(a)(1) and accompanying commentary for the definition of solicitation; see also § 226.2(a)(15) and accompanying commentary for the definition of charge card.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substitution of account-opening summary table for the disclosures required by § 226.5a.</I> In complying with § 226.5a(c), (e)(1) or (f), a card issuer may provide the account-opening summary table described in § 226.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures required by § 226.5a, if the issuer provides the disclosures required by § 226.6 on or with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to § 226.5a disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>5a(a) General rules.</I>
</P>
<P><I>5a(a)(1) Definition of solicitation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Invitations to apply.</I> A card issuer may contact a consumer who has not been preapproved for a card account about opening an account (whether by direct mail, telephone, or other means) and invite the consumer to complete an application. Such a contact does not meet the definition of <I>solicitation,</I> nor is it covered by this section, unless the contact itself includes an application form in a direct mailing, electronic communication or “take-one”; an oral application in a telephone contact initiated by the card issuer; or an application in an in-person contact initiated by the card issuer.
</P>
<P><I>5a(a)(2) Form of disclosures; tabular format.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Location of table.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Except for disclosures given electronically, disclosures in § 226.5a(b) that are required to be provided in a table must be prominently located on or with the application or solicitation. Disclosures are deemed to be prominently located, for example, if the disclosures are on the same page as an application or solicitation reply form. If the disclosures appear elsewhere, they are deemed to be prominently located if the application or solicitation reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that they contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> If the table is provided electronically, the table must be provided in close proximity to the application or solicitation. Card issuers have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. Methods card issuers could use to satisfy the requirement include, but are not limited to, the following examples:
</P>
<P>A. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application or reply form appears;
</P>
<P>B. The disclosures could be located on the same Web page as the application or reply form (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application or reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
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<P>C. Card issuers could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application (or reply form) as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application or reply form. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
</P>
<P>D. The disclosures could be located on the same Web page as the application or reply form without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application or reply.
</P>
<P>Whatever method is used, a card issuer need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple accounts.</I> If a tabular format is required to be used, card issuers offering several types of accounts may disclose the various terms for the accounts in a single table or may provide a separate table for each account.
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<P>3. <I>Information permitted in the table. See</I> the commentary to § 226.5a(b), (d), and (e)(1) for guidance on additional information permitted in the table.
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<P>4. <I>Deletion of inapplicable disclosures.</I> Generally, disclosures need only be given as applicable. Card issuers may, therefore, omit inapplicable headings and their corresponding boxes in the table. For example, if no foreign transaction fee is imposed on the account, the heading <I>Foreign transaction</I> and disclosure may be deleted from the table or the disclosure form may contain the heading <I>Foreign transaction</I> and a disclosure showing <I>none.</I> There is an exception for the grace period disclosure; even if no grace period exists, that fact must be stated.
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<P>5. <I>Highlighting of annual percentage rates and fee amounts.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on providing the disclosures described in § 226.5a(a)(2)(iv) in bold text. Other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table may not be in bold text. Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) also provide guidance to issuers on how to disclose the rates and fees described in § 226.5a(a)(2)(iv) in a clear and conspicuous manner, by including these rates and fees generally as the first text in the applicable rows of the table so that the highlighted rates and fees generally are aligned vertically in the table.
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<P>ii. <I>Maximum limits on fees.</I> Section 226.5a(a)(2)(iv) provides that any maximum limits on fee amounts must be disclosed in bold text. For example, assume that, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), a card issuer's late payment fee will not exceed $35. The maximum limit of $35 for the late payment fee must be highlighted in bold. Similarly, assume an issuer will charge a cash advance fee of $5 or 3 percent of the cash advance transaction amount, whichever is greater, but the fee will not exceed $100. The maximum limit of $100 for the cash advance fee must be highlighted in bold.
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<P>iii. <I>Periodic fees.</I> Section 226.5a(a)(2)(iv) provides that any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to § 226.5a(b)(2) that is not an annualized amount must not be disclosed in bold. For example, if an issuer imposes a $10 monthly maintenance fee for a card account, the issuer must disclose in the table that there is a $10 monthly maintenance fee, and that the fee is $120 on an annual basis. In this example, the $10 fee disclosure would not be disclosed in bold, but the $120 annualized amount must be disclosed in bold. In addition, if an issuer must disclose any annual fee in the table, the amount of the annual fee must be disclosed in bold.
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<P>6. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
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<P>i. If a consumer accesses a credit card application or solicitation electronically (other than as described under ii. below), such as on-line at a home computer, the card issuer must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application or solicitation on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application or solicitation. If the issuer instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
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<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the card issuer's office, and accesses a credit card application or solicitation electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the card issuer to provide applications or solicitations to consumers), the issuer may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the issuer complies with the timing and delivery (“on or with”) requirements of the regulation.
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<P>7. <I>Terminology.</I> Section 226.5a(a)(2)(i) generally requires that the headings, content and format of the tabular disclosures be substantially similar, but need not be identical, to the applicable tables in appendix G-10 to part 226; but <I>see</I> § 226.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to § 226.5a disclosures.
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<P><I>5a(a)(4) Fees that vary by state.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Manner of disclosing range.</I> If the card issuer discloses a range of fees instead of disclosing the amount of the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, the range may be stated as the lowest authorized fee (zero, if there are one or more states where no fee applies) to the highest authorized fee.
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<P><I>5a(a)(5) Exceptions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Noncoverage of consumer-initiated requests.</I> Applications provided to a consumer upon request are not covered by § 226.5a, even if the request is made in response to the card issuer's invitation to apply for a card account. To illustrate, if a card issuer invites consumers to call a toll-free number or to return a response card to obtain an application, the application sent in response to the consumer's request need not contain the disclosures required under § 226.5a. Similarly, if the card issuer invites consumers to call and make an oral application on the telephone, § 226.5a does not apply to the application made by the consumer. If, however, the card issuer calls a consumer or initiates a telephone discussion with a consumer about opening a card account and contemporaneously takes an oral application, such applications are subject to § 226.5a, specifically § 226.5a(d). Likewise, if the card issuer initiates an in-person discussion with a consumer about opening a card account and contemporaneously takes an application, such applications are subject to § 226.5a, specifically § 226.5a(f).
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<P><I>5a(b) Required disclosures.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Tabular format.</I> Provisions in § 226.5a(b) and its commentary provide that certain information must appear or is permitted to appear in a table. The tabular format is required for § 226.5a(b) disclosures given pursuant to § 226.5a(c), (d)(2), (e)(1) and (f). The tabular format does not apply to oral disclosures given pursuant to § 226.5a(d)(1). (See § 226.5a(a)(2).)
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<P>2. <I>Accuracy.</I> Rules concerning accuracy of the disclosures required by § 226.5a(b), including variable rate disclosures, are stated in § 226.5a(c)(2), (d)(3), and (e)(4), as applicable.
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<P><I>5a(b)(1) Annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate accounts—definition.</I> For purposes of § 226.5a(b)(1), a variable-rate account exists when rate changes are part of the plan and are tied to an index or formula. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.6(b)(4)(ii) for examples of variable-rate plans.)
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<P>2. <I>Variable-rate accounts—fact that rate varies and how the rate will be determined.</I> In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify in the table the type of index or formula used, such as the prime rate. In describing the index, the issuer may not include in the table details about the index. For example, if the issuer uses a prime rate, the issuer must disclose the rate as a “prime rate” and may not disclose in the table other details about the prime rate, such as the fact that it is the highest prime rate published in the <I>Wall Street Journal</I> two business days before the closing date of the statement for each billing period. The issuer may not disclose in the table the current value of the index (such as that the prime rate is currently 7.5 percent) or the amount of the margin or spread added to the index or formula in setting the applicable rate. A card issuer may not disclose any applicable limitations on rate increases or decreases in the table, such as describing that the rate will not go below a certain rate or higher than a certain rate. (<I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose the fact that the applicable rate varies and how it is determined.)
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<P>3. <I>Discounted initial rates.</I> i. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> If the term “introductory” is in the same phrase as the introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), it will be deemed to be in immediate proximity of the listing. For example, an issuer that uses the phrase “introductory balance transfer APR X percent” has used the word “introductory” within the same phrase as the rate. (<I>See</I> Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the expiration date of the introductory rate and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires, if an introductory rate is disclosed in the table.)
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<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes in terms.</I> The fact that an issuer may reserve the right to change a rate subsequent to account opening, pursuant to the notice requirements of § 226.9(c) and the limitations in § 226.55, does not, by itself, make that rate an introductory rate. For example, assume an issuer discloses an annual percentage rate for purchases of 12.99% but does not specify a time period during which that rate will be in effect. Even if that issuer subsequently increases the annual percentage rate for purchases to 15.99%, pursuant to a change-in-terms notice provided under § 226.9(c), the 12.99% is not an introductory rate.
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<P>iii. <I>More than one introductory rate.</I> If more than one introductory rate may apply to a particular balance in succeeding periods, the term “introductory” need only be used to describe the first introductory rate. For example, if an issuer offers a rate of 8.99% on purchases for six months, 10.99% on purchases for the following six months, and 14.99% on purchases after the first year, the term “introductory” need only be used to describe the 8.99% rate.
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<P>4. <I>Premium initial rates—subsequent changes in terms.</I> The fact that an issuer may reserve the right to change a rate subsequent to account opening, pursuant to the notice requirements of § 226.9(c) and the limitations in § 226.55 (as applicable), does not, by itself, make that rate a premium initial rate. For example, assume an issuer discloses an annual percentage rate for purchases of 18.99% but does not specify a time period during which that rate will be in effect. Even if that issuer subsequently reduces the annual percentage rate for purchases to 15.99%, the 18.99% is not a premium initial rate. If the rate decrease is the result of a change from a non-variable rate to a variable rate or from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, see comments 9(c)(2)(v)-3 and 9(c)(2)(v)-4 for guidance on the notice requirements under § 226.9(c).
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<P>5. <I>Increased penalty rates.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> For rates that are not introductory rates or employee preferential rates, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the card issuer must disclose the increased rate that would apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect. The description of the specific event or events that may result in an increased rate should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase a rate to the penalty rate because the consumer does not make the minimum payment by 5 p.m., Eastern Time, on its payment due date, the issuer should describe this circumstance in the table as “make a late payment.” Similarly, if an issuer may increase a rate that applies to a particular balance because the account is more than 60 days late, the issuer should describe this circumstance in the table as “make a late payment.” An issuer may not distinguish between the events that may result in an increased rate for existing balances and the events that may result in an increased rate for new transactions. (<I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) for additional guidance on the level of detail in which the specific event or events should be described.) The description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect also should be brief. If a card issuer reserves the right to apply the increased rate to any balances indefinitely, to the extent permitted by §§ 226.55(b)(4) and 226.59, the issuer should disclose that the penalty rate may apply indefinitely. The card issuer may not disclose in the table any limitations imposed by §§ 226.55(b)(4) and 226.59 on the duration of increased rates. For example, if the issuer generally provides that the increased rate will apply until the consumer makes twelve timely consecutive required minimum periodic payments, except to the extent that §§ 226.55(b)(4) and 226.59 apply, the issuer should disclose that the penalty rate will apply until the consumer makes twelve consecutive timely minimum payments. (<I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) for additional guidance on the level of detail which the issuer should use to describe how long the increased rate will remain in effect.) A card issuer will be deemed to meet the standard to clearly and conspicuously disclose the information required by § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv)(A) if the issuer uses the format shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) to disclose this information.
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<P>ii. <I>Introductory rates—general.</I> An issuer is required to disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 226.16(g)(2)(ii), may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the revocation. This information about revocation of an introductory rate and the rate that will apply after revocation must be provided even if the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked is the rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period. In a variable-rate account, the rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period is a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in § 226.5a(c)(2) or (e)(4). In describing the rate that will apply after revocation of the introductory rate, if the rate that will apply after revocation of the introductory rate is already disclosed in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the rate, but may refer to that rate in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the rate that will apply after revocation of an introductory rate is the standard rate that applies to that type of transaction (such as a purchase or balance transfer transaction), and the standard rates are labeled in the table as “standard APRs,” the issuer may refer to the “standard APR” when describing the rate that will apply after revocation of an introductory rate. (<I>See</I> Sample G-10(C) in the disclosure labeled “Loss of Introductory APR” directly beneath the table.) The description of the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase an introductory rate because the account is more than 60 days late, the issuer should describe this circumstance directly beneath the table as “make a late payment.” In addition, if the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked are already listed elsewhere in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the circumstances again, but may refer to those circumstances in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked are the same as the event or events that may trigger a “penalty rate” as described in § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv)(A), the issuer may refer to the actions listed in the Penalty APR row, in describing the circumstances in which the introductory rate could be revoked. (<I>See</I> Sample G-10(C) in the disclosure labeled “Loss of Introductory APR” directly beneath the table for additional guidance on the level of detail in which to describe the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked.) A card issuer will be deemed to meet the standard to clearly and conspicuously disclose the information required by § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv)(B) if the issuer uses the format shown in Sample G-10(C) to disclose this information.
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<P>iii. <I>Introductory rates—limitations on revocation.</I> Issuers that are disclosing an introductory rate are prohibited by § 226.55 from increasing or revoking the introductory rate before it expires unless the consumer fails to make a required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for the payment. In making the required disclosure pursuant to § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv)(B), issuers should describe this circumstance directly beneath the table as “make a late payment.”
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<P>iv. <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> An issuer is required to disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an employee preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the revocation. In describing the rate that will apply after revocation of the employee preferential rate, if the rate that will apply after revocation of the employee preferential rate is already disclosed in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the rate, but may refer to that rate in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the rate that will apply after revocation of an employee preferential rate is the standard rate that applies to that type of transaction (such as a purchase or balance transfer transaction), and the standard rates are labeled in the table as “standard APRs,” the issuer may refer to the “standard APR” when describing the rate that will apply after revocation of an employee preferential rate. The description of the circumstances in which an employee preferential rate could be revoked should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase an employee preferential rate based upon termination of the employee's employment relationship with the issuer or a third party, issuers may describe this circumstance as “if your employment with [issuer or third party] ends.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Rates that depend on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> The card issuer, at its option, may disclose the possible rates that may apply as either specific rates, or a range of rates. For example, if there are three possible rates that may apply (9.99, 12.99 or 17.99 percent), an issuer may disclose specific rates (9.99, 12.99 or 17.99 percent) or a range of rates (9.99 to 17.99 percent). The card issuer may not disclose only the lowest, highest or median rate that could apply. (<I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose a range of rates.)
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<P>ii. <I>Penalty rates.</I> If the rate is a penalty rate, as described in § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv), the card issuer at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply. For example, if the penalty rate could be up to 28.99 percent, but the issuer may impose a penalty rate that is less than that rate depending on factors at the time the penalty rate is imposed, the issuer may disclose the penalty rate as “up to” 28.99 percent. The issuer also must include a statement that the penalty rate for which the consumer may qualify will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness, and other factors if applicable.
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<P>iii. <I>Other factors.</I> Section 226.5a(b)(1)(v) applies even if other factors are used in combination with a consumer's creditworthiness to determine the rate for which a consumer may qualify at account opening. For example, § 226.5a(b)(1)(v) would apply if the issuer considers the type of purchase the consumer is making at the time the consumer opens the account, in combination with the consumer's creditworthiness, to determine the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening. If other factors are considered, the issuer should amend the statement about creditworthiness, to indicate that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors. Nonetheless, § 226.5a(b)(1)(v) does not apply if a consumer's creditworthiness is not one of the factors that will determine the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening (for example, if the rate is based solely on the type of purchase that the consumer is making at the time the consumer opens the account, or is based solely on whether the consumer has other banking relationships with the card issuer).
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<P>7. <I>Rate based on another rate on the account.</I> In some cases, one rate may be based on another rate on the account. For example, assume that a penalty rate as described in § 226.5a(b)(1)(iv)(A) is determined by adding 5 percentage points to the current purchase rate, which is 10 percent. In this example, the card issuer in disclosing the penalty rate must disclose 15 percent as the current penalty rate. If the purchase rate is a variable rate, then the penalty rate also is a variable rate. In that case, the card issuer also must disclose the fact that the penalty rate may vary and how the rate is determined, such as “This APR may vary with the market based on the Prime Rate.” In describing the penalty rate, the issuer shall not disclose in the table the amount of the margin or spread added to the current purchase rate to determine the penalty rate, such as describing that the penalty rate is determined by adding 5 percentage points to the purchase rate. (<I>See</I> § 226.5a(b)(1)(i) and comment 5a(b)(1)-2 for further guidance on describing a variable rate.)
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<P>8. <I>Rates.</I> The only rates that shall be disclosed in the table are annual percentage rates determined under § 226.14(b). Periodic rates shall not be disclosed in the table.
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<P>9. <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> An issuer offering a deferred interest or similar plan, such as a promotional program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time, may not disclose a 0% rate as the rate applicable to deferred interest or similar transactions if there are any circumstances under which the consumer will be obligated for interest on such transactions for the deferred interest or similar period.
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<P><I>5a(b)(2) Fees for issuance or availability.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Membership fees.</I> Membership fees for opening an account must be disclosed under this paragraph. A membership fee to join an organization that provides a credit or charge card as a privilege of membership must be disclosed only if the card is issued automatically upon membership. Such a fee shall not be disclosed in the table if membership results merely in eligibility to apply for an account.
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<P>2. <I>Enhancements.</I> Fees for optional services in addition to basic membership privileges in a credit or charge card account (for example, travel insurance or card-registration services) shall not be disclosed in the table if the basic account may be opened without paying such fees. Issuing a card to each primary cardholder (not authorized users) is considered a basic membership privilege and fees for additional cards, beyond the first card on the account, must be disclosed as a fee for issuance or availability. Thus, a fee to obtain an additional card on the account beyond the first card (so that each cardholder would have his or her own card) must be disclosed in the table as a fee for issuance or availability under § 226.5a(b)(2). This fee must be disclosed even if the fee is optional; that is, if the fee is charged only if the cardholder requests one or more additional cards. (<I>See</I> the available credit disclosure in § 226.5a(b)(14).)
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<P>3. <I>One-time fees.</I> Disclosure of non-periodic fees is limited to fees related to opening the account, such as one-time membership or participation fees, or an application fee that is excludable from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(1). The following are examples of fees that shall not be disclosed in the table
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<P>i. Fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card.
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<P>ii. Statement reproduction fees.
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<P>4. <I>Waived or reduced fees.</I> If fees required to be disclosed are waived or reduced for a limited time, the introductory fees or the fact of fee waivers may be disclosed in the table in addition to the required fees if the card issuer also discloses how long the reduced fees or waivers will remain in effect in accordance with the requirements of §§ 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and 226.55(b)(1).
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<P>5. <I>Periodic fees and one-time fees.</I> A card issuer disclosing a periodic fee must disclose the amount of the fee, how frequently it will be imposed, and the annualized amount of the fee. A card issuer disclosing a non-periodic fee must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee. (<I>See</I> Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to meet these requirements.)
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<P><I>5a(b)(3) Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Example of brief statement. See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to provide a brief description of a minimum interest charge.
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<P>2. <I>Adjustment of $1.00 threshold amount.</I> Consistent with § 226.5a(b)(3), the Board will publish adjustments to the $1.00 threshold amount, as appropriate.
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<P><I>5a(b)(4) Transaction charges.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Charges imposed by person other than card issuer.</I> Charges imposed by a third party, such as a seller of goods, shall not be disclosed in the table under this section; the third party would be responsible for disclosing the charge under § 226.9(d)(1).
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<P>2. <I>Foreign transaction fees.</I> A transaction charge imposed by the card issuer for the use of the card for purchases includes any fee imposed by the issuer for purchases in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant. (See comment 4(a)-4 for guidance on when a foreign transaction fee is considered charged by the card issuer.) If an issuer charges the same foreign transaction fee for purchases and cash advances in a foreign currency, or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant, the issuer may disclose this foreign transaction fee as shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C). Otherwise, the issuer must revise the foreign transaction fee language shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) to disclose clearly and conspicuously the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to purchases and the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to cash advances.
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<P><I>5a(b)(5) Grace period.</I>
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<P>1. <I>How grace period disclosure is made.</I> The card issuer must state any conditions on the applicability of the grace period. An issuer, however, may not disclose under § 226.5a(b)(5) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 226.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on purchases as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some issuers may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest will not be charged on purchases if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 226.5a(b)(5) requires that the issuer disclose the grace period and the conditions for its applicability using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on purchases if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other issuers may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest may be charged on purchases even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 226.5a(b)(5) requires the issuer to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period.
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<P>2. <I>No grace period.</I> The issuer may use the following language to describe that no grace period on any purchases is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on purchases on the transaction date.”
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<P>3. <I>Grace period on some purchases.</I> If the issuer provides a grace period on some types of purchases but no grace period on others, the issuer may combine and revise the language in comments 5a(b)(5)-1 and -2 as appropriate to describe to which types of purchases a grace period applies and to which types of purchases no grace period is offered.
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<P><I>5a(b)(6) Balance computation method.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Form of disclosure.</I> In cases where the card issuer uses a balance computation method that is identified by name in § 226.5a(g), the card issuer must disclose below the table only the name of the method. In cases where the card issuer uses a balance computation method that is not identified by name in § 226.5a(g), the disclosure below the table must clearly explain the method in as much detail as set forth in the descriptions of balance methods in § 226.5a(g). The explanation need not be as detailed as that required for the disclosures under § 226.6(b)(4)(i)(D).
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<P>2. <I>Determining the method.</I> In determining which balance computation method to disclose for purchases, the card issuer must assume that a purchase balance will exist at the end of any grace period. Thus, for example, if the average daily balance method will include new purchases only if purchase balances are not paid within the grace period, the card issuer would disclose the name of the average daily balance method that includes new purchases. The card issuer must not assume the existence of a purchase balance, however, in making other disclosures under § 226.5a(b).
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<P><I>5a(b)(7) Statement on charge card payments.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Applicability and content.</I> The disclosure that charges are payable upon receipt of the periodic statement is applicable only to charge card accounts. In making this disclosure, the card issuer may make such modifications as are necessary to more accurately reflect the circumstances of repayment under the account. For example, the disclosure might read, “Charges are due and payable upon receipt of the periodic statement and must be paid no later than 15 days after receipt of such statement.”
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<P><I>5a(b)(8) Cash advance fee.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Content. See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the cash advance fee.
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<P>2. <I>Foreign cash advances.</I> Cash advance fees required to be disclosed under § 226.5a(b)(8) include any charge imposed by the card issuer for cash advances in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant. (<I>See</I> comment 4(a)-4 for guidance on when a foreign transaction fee is considered charged by the card issuer.) If an issuer charges the same foreign transaction fee for purchases and cash advances in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant, the issuer may disclose this foreign transaction fee as shown in Samples G-10(B) and (C). Otherwise, the issuer must revise the foreign transaction fee language shown in Samples G-10(B) and (C) to disclose clearly and conspicuously the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to purchases and the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to cash advances.
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<P>3. <I>ATM fees.</I> An issuer is not required to disclose pursuant to § 226.5a(b)(8) any charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system.
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<P><I>5a(b)(9) Late payment fee.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure of the fee for a late payment includes only those fees that will be imposed for actual, unanticipated late payments. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.4(c)(2) for additional guidance on late payment fees. <I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the late payment fee.)
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<P><I>5a(b)(10) Over-the-limit fee.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure of fees for exceeding a credit limit does not include fees for other types of default or for services related to exceeding the limit. For example, no disclosure is required of fees for reinstating credit privileges or fees for the dishonor of checks on an account that, if paid, would cause the credit limit to be exceeded. (<I>See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the over-the-limit fee.)
</P>
<P><I>5a(b)(13) Required insurance, debt cancellation, or debt suspension coverage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Content. See</I> Sample G-10(B) for guidance on how to comply with the requirements in § 226.5a(b)(13).
</P>
<P><I>5a(b)(14) Available credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculating available credit.</I> If the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer must disclose the available credit excluding optional fees, and the available credit including optional fees. In calculating the available credit to disclose in the table, the issuer must consider all fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 226.5a(b)(2), and any security deposit, that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened, such as one-time issuance and set-up fees. For example, in calculating the available credit, issuers must consider the first year's annual fee and the first month's maintenance fee (as applicable) if they are charged to the account on the first billing statement. In calculating the amount of the available credit including optional fees, if optional fees could be charged multiple times, the issuer shall assume that the optional fee is only imposed once. For example, if an issuer charges a fee for each additional card issued on the account, the issuer in calculating the amount of the available credit including optional fees may assume that the cardholder requests only one additional card. In disclosing the available credit, the issuer shall round down the available credit amount to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content. See</I> Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to provide the disclosure required by § 226.5a(b)(14) clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P><I>5a(b)(15) Web site reference.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Content. See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on disclosing a reference to the Web site established by the Board and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit card accounts.
</P>
<P><I>5a(c) Direct mail and electronic applications and solicitations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mailed publications.</I> Applications or solicitations contained in generally available publications mailed to consumers (such as subscription magazines) are subject to the requirements applicable to <I>take-ones</I> in § 226.5a(e), rather than the direct mail requirements of § 226.5a(c). However, if a primary purpose of a card issuer's mailing is to offer credit or charge card accounts—for example, where a card issuer “prescreens” a list of potential cardholders using credit criteria, and then mails to the targeted group its catalog containing an application or a solicitation for a card account—the direct mail rules apply. In addition, a card issuer may use a single application form as a <I>take-one</I> (in racks in public locations, for example) and for direct mailings, if the card issuer complies with the requirements of § 226.5a(c) even when the form is used as a <I>take-one</I>—that is, by presenting the required § 226.5a disclosures in a tabular format. When used in a direct mailing, the credit term disclosures must be accurate as of the mailing date whether or not the § 226.5a(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) disclosures are included; when used in a <I>take-one,</I> the disclosures must be accurate for as long as the <I>take-one</I> forms remain available to the public if the § 226.5a(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) disclosures are omitted. (If those disclosures are included in the take-one, the credit term disclosures need only be accurate as of the printing date.)
</P>
<P><I>5a(d) Telephone applications and solicitations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. This paragraph applies if:
</P>
<P>A. A telephone conversation between a card issuer and consumer may result in the issuance of a card as a consequence of an issuer-initiated offer to open an account for which the issuer does not require any application (that is, a <I>prescreened</I> telephone solicitation).
</P>
<P>B. The card issuer initiates the contact and at the same time takes application information over the telephone.
</P>
<P>ii. This paragraph does not apply to:
</P>
<P>A. Telephone applications initiated by the consumer.
</P>
<P>B. Situations where no card will be issued—because, for example, the consumer indicates that he or she does not want the card, or the card issuer decides either during the telephone conversation or later not to issue the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Right to reject the plan.</I> The right to reject the plan referenced in this paragraph is the same as the right to reject the plan described in § 226.5(b)(1)(iv). If an issuer substitutes the account-opening summary table described in § 226.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures specified in § 226.5a(d)(2)(ii), the disclosure specified in § 226.5a(d)(2)(ii)(B) must appear in the table, if the issuer is required to do so pursuant to § 226.6(b)(2)(xiii). Otherwise, the disclosure specified in § 226.5a(d)(2)(ii)(B) may appear either in or outside the table containing the required credit disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substituting account-opening table for alternative written disclosures.</I> An issuer may substitute the account-opening summary table described in § 226.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures specified in § 226.5a(d)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>5a(e) Applications and solicitations made available to general public.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Applications and solicitations made available to the general public include what are commonly referred to as <I>take-one</I> applications typically found at counters in banks and retail establishments, as well as applications contained in catalogs, magazines and other generally available publications. In the case of credit unions, this paragraph applies to applications and solicitations to open card accounts made available to those in the general field of membership.
</P>
<P>2. <I>In-person applications and solicitations.</I> In-person applications and solicitations initiated by a card issuer are subject to § 226.5a(f), not § 226.5a(e). (<I>See</I> § 226.5a(f) and accompanying commentary for rules relating to in-person applications and solicitations.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> If a card issuer, in complying with any of the disclosure options of § 226.5a(e), provides a telephone number for consumers to call to obtain credit information, the number must be toll-free for nonlocal calls made from an area code other than the one used in the card issuer's dialing area. Alternatively, a card issuer may provide any telephone number that allows a consumer to call for information and reverse the telephone charges.
</P>
<P><I>5a(e)(1) Disclosure of required credit information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Date of printing.</I> Disclosure of the month and year fulfills the requirement to disclose the date an application was printed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures specified in § 226.5a(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) may appear either in or outside the table containing the required credit disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>5a(e)(2) No disclosure of credit information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When disclosure option available.</I> A card issuer may use this option only if the issuer does not include on or with the application or solicitation any statement that refers to the credit disclosures required by § 226.5a(b). Statements such as <I>no annual fee, low interest</I> <I>rate,</I> <I>favorable rates,</I> and <I>low costs</I> are deemed to refer to the required credit disclosures and, therefore, may not be included on or with the solicitation or application, if the card issuer chooses to use this option.
</P>
<P><I>5a(e)(3) Prompt response to requests for information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prompt disclosure.</I> Information is promptly disclosed if it is given within 30 days of a consumer's request for information but in no event later than delivery of the credit or charge card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information disclosed.</I> When a consumer requests credit information, card issuers need not provide all the required credit disclosures in all instances. For example, if disclosures have been provided in accordance with § 226.5a(e)(1) and a consumer calls or writes a card issuer to obtain information about changes in the disclosures, the issuer need only provide the items of information that have changed from those previously disclosed on or with the application or solicitation. If a consumer requests information about particular items, the card issuer need only provide the requested information. If, however, the card issuer has made disclosures in accordance with the option in § 226.5a(e)(2) and a consumer calls or writes the card issuer requesting information about costs, all the required disclosure information must be given.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Manner of response.</I> A card issuer's response to a consumer's request for credit information may be provided orally or in writing, regardless of the manner in which the consumer's request is received by the issuer. Furthermore, the card issuer must provide the information listed in § 226.5a(e)(1). Information provided in writing need not be in a tabular format.
</P>
<P><I>5a(f) In-person applications and solicitations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. This paragraph applies if:
</P>
<P>A. An in-person conversation between a card issuer and a consumer may result in the issuance of a card as a consequence of an issuer-initiated offer to open an account for which the issuer does not require any application (that is, a <I>preapproved</I> in-person solicitation).
</P>
<P>B. The card issuer initiates the contact and at the same time takes application information in person. For example, the following are covered:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> A consumer applies in person for a car loan at a financial institution and the loan officer invites the consumer to apply for a credit or charge card account; the consumer accepts the invitation and submits an application.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> An employee of a retail establishment, in the course of processing a sales transaction using a bank credit card, asks a customer if he or she would like to apply for the retailer's credit or charge card; the customer responds affirmatively and submits an application.
</P>
<P>ii. This paragraph does not apply to:
</P>
<P>A. In-person applications initiated by the consumer.
</P>
<P>B. Situations where no card will be issued—because, for example, the consumer indicates that he or she does not want the card, or the card issuer decides during the in-person conversation not to issue the card.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.5b—Requirements for Home-equity Plans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This section applies to all open-end credit plans secured by the consumer's <I>dwelling,</I> as defined in § 226.2(a)(19), and is not limited to plans secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. (See the commentary to § 226.3(a), which discusses whether transactions are consumer or business-purpose credit, for guidance on whether a home equity plan is subject to Regulation Z.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes to home equity plans entered into on or after November 7, 1989.</I> Section 226.9(c) applies if, by written agreement under § 226.5b(f)(3)(iii), a creditor changes the terms of a home equity plan—entered into on or after November 7, 1989—at or before its scheduled expiration, for example, by renewing a plan on different terms. A new plan results, however, if the plan is renewed (with or without changes to the terms) after the scheduled expiration. The new plan is subject to all open-end credit rules, including §§ 226.5b, 226.6, and 226.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transition rules and renewals of preexistinq plans.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to home equity plans entered into before November 7, 1989. The requirements of this section also do not apply if the original consumer, on or after November 7, 1989, renews a plan entered into prior to that date (with or without changes to the terms). If, on or after November 7, 1989, a security interest in the consumer's dwelling is added to a line of credit entered into before that date, the substantive restrictions of this section apply for the remainder of the plan, but no new disclosures are required under this section.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosure of repayment phase—applicability of requirements.</I> Some plans provide in the initial agreement for a period during which no further draws may be taken and repayment of the amount borrowed is made. All of the applicable disclosures in this section must be given for the repayment phase. Thus, for example, a creditor must provide payment information about the repayment phase as well as about the draw period, as required by § 226.5b(d)(5). If the rate that will apply during the repayment phase is fixed at a known amount, the creditor must provide an annual percentage rate under § 226.5b(d)(6) for that phase. If, however, a creditor uses an index to determine the rate that will apply at the time of conversion to the repayment phase—even if the rate will thereafter be fixed—the creditor must provide the information in § 226.5b(d)(12), as applicable.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Payment terms—applicability of closed-end provisions and substantive rules.</I> All payment terms that are provided for in the initial agreement are subject to the requirements of subpart B and not subpart C of the regulation. Payment terms that are subsequently added to the agreement may be subject to subpart B or to subpart C, depending on the circumstances. The following examples apply these general rules to different situations:
</P>
<P>• If the initial agreement provides for a repayment phase or for other payment terms such as options permitting conversion of part or all of the balance to a fixed rate during the draw period, these terms must be disclosed pursuant to §§ 226.5b and 226.6, and not under subpart C. Furthermore, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements under § 226.7 and comply with other provisions of subpart B (such as the substantive requirements of § 226.5b(f)) throughout the plan, including the repayment phase.
</P>
<P>• If the consumer and the creditor enter into an agreement during the draw period to repay all or part of the principal balance on different terms (for example, with a fixed rate of interest) and the amount of available credit will be replenished as the principal balance is repaid, the creditor must continue to comply with subpart B. For example, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements and comply with the substantive requirements of § 226.5b(f) throughout the plan.
</P>
<P>• If the consumer and creditor enter into an agreement during the draw period to repay all or part of the principal balance and the amount of available credit will not be replenished as the principal balance is repaid, the creditor must give closed-end credit disclosures pursuant to subpart C for that new agreement. In such cases, subpart B, including the substantive rules, does not apply to the closed-end credit transaction, although it will continue to apply to any remaining open-end credit available under the plan. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Spreader clause.</I> When a creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a <I>spreader clause</I> (also known as a <I>dragnet</I> or cross-collateralization clause), subsequent occurrences such as the opening of an open-end plan are subject to the rules applicable to home equity plans to the same degree as if a security interest were taken directly to secure the plan, unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent open-end credit extensions.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Appraisals and other valuations.</I> For consumer credit transactions subject to § 226.5b and secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, creditors and other persons must comply with the requirements for appraisals and other valuations under § 226.42.
</P>
<HD2>5b(a) Form of Disclosure
</HD2>
<HD2>5b(a)(1) General
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Written disclosures.</I> The disclosures required under this section must be clear and conspicuous and in writing, but need not be in a form the consumer can keep. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.6(a)(3) for special rules when disclosures required under § 226.5b(d) are given in a retainable form.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of annual percentage rate—more conspicuous requirement.</I> As provided in § 226.5(a)(2), when the term <I>annual percentage rate</I> is required to be disclosed with a number, it must be more conspicuous than other required disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Segregation of disclosures.</I> While most of the disclosures must be grouped together and segregated from all unrelated information, the creditor is permitted to include information that explains or expands on the required disclosures, including, for example:
</P>
<P>• Any prepayment penalty
</P>
<P>• How a substitute index may be chosen
</P>
<P>• Actions the creditor may take short of terminating and accelerating an outstanding balance
</P>
<P>• Renewal terms
</P>
<P>• Rebate of fees
</P>
<FP>An example of information that does not explain or expand on the required disclosures and thus cannot be included is the creditor's underwriting criteria, although the creditor could provide such information separately from the required disclosures.
</FP>
<P>4. <I>Method of providing disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide a single disclosure form for all of its home equity plans, as long as the disclosure describes all aspects of the plans. For example, if the creditor offers several payment options, all such options must be disclosed. (See, however, the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12) (x) and (xi) for disclosure requirements relating to these provisions.) If any aspects of a plan are linked together, the creditor must disclose clearly the relationship of the terms to each other. For example, if the consumer can only obtain a particular payment option in conjunction with a certain variable-rate feature, this fact must be disclosed. A creditor has the option of providing separate disclosure forms for multiple options or variations in features. For example, a creditor that offers different payment options for the draw period may prepare separate disclosure forms for the two payment options. A creditor using this alternative, however, must include a statement on each disclosure form that the consumer should ask about the creditor's other home equity programs. (This disclosure is required only for those programs available generally to the public. Thus, if the only other programs available are employee preferred-rate plans, for example, the creditor would not have to provide this statement.) A creditor that receives a request for information about other available programs must provide the additional disclosures as soon as reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Form of electronic disclosures provided on or with electronic applications.</I> Creditors must provide the disclosures required by this section (including the brochure) on or with a blank application that is made available to the consumer in electronic form, such as on a creditor's Internet Web site. Creditors have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. Methods creditors could use to satisfy the requirement include, but are not limited to, the following examples:
</P>
<P>i. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application appears;
</P>
<P>ii. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
</P>
<P>iii. Creditors could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
</P>
<P>iv. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application.
</P>
<P>Whatever method is used, a creditor need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>5b(a)(2) Precedence of Certain Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Precedence rule.</I> The list of conditions provided at the creditor's option under § 226.5b(d)(4)(iii) need not precede the other disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(a)(3)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If a consumer accesses a home equity credit line application electronically (other than as described under ii. below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses a home equity credit line application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>5b(b) Time of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Mail and telephone applications.</I> If the creditor sends applications through the mail, the disclosures and a brochure must accompany the application. If an application is taken over the telephone, the disclosures and brochure may be delivered or mailed within three business days of taking the application. If an application is mailed to the consumer following a telephone request, however, the creditor also must send the disclosures and a brochure along with the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General purpose applications.</I> The disclosures and a brochure need not be provided when a general purpose application is given to a consumer unless (1) the application or materials accompanying it indicate that it can be used to apply for a home equity plan or (2) the application is provided in response to a consumer's specific inquiry about a home equity plan. On the other hand, if a general purpose application is provided in response to a consumer's specific inquiry only about credit other than a home equity plan, the disclosures and brochure need not be provided even if the application indicates it can be used for a home equity plan, unless it is accompanied by promotional information about home equity plans.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Publicly-available applications.</I> Some creditors make applications for home equity plans, such as <I>take-ones,</I> available without the need for a consumer to request them. These applications must be accompanied by the disclosures and a brochure, such as by attaching the disclosures and brochure to the application form.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Response cards.</I> A creditor may solicit consumers for its home equity plan by mailing a <I>response card</I> which the consumer returns to the creditor to indicate interest in the plan. If the only action taken by the creditor upon receipt of the response card is to send the consumer an application form or to telephone the consumer to discuss the plan, the creditor need not send the disclosures and brochure with the response card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Denial or withdrawal of application.</I> In situations where footnote 10a permits the creditor a three-day delay in providing disclosures and the brochure, if the creditor determines within that period that an application will not be approved, the creditor need not provide the consumer with the disclosures or brochure. Similarly, if the consumer withdraws the application within this three-day period, the creditor need not provide the disclosures or brochure.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> In determining whether or not an application involves an <I>intermediary agent or broker</I> as discussed in footnote 10a, creditors should consult the provisions in comment 19(b)-3.
</P>
<HD2>5b(c) Duties of Third Parties
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> Although third parties who give applications to consumers for home equity plans must provide the brochure required under § 226.5b(e) in all cases, such persons need provide the disclosures required under § 226.5b(d) only in certain instances. A third party has no duty to obtain disclosures about a creditor's home equity plan or to create a set of disclosures based on what it knows about a creditor's plan. If, however, a creditor provides the third party with disclosures along with its application form, the third party must give the disclosures to the consumer with the application form. The duties under this section are those of the third party; the creditor is not responsible for ensuring that a third party complies with those obligations. If an intermediary agent or broker takes an application over the telephone or receives an application contained in a magazine or other publication, footnote 10a permits that person to mail the disclosures and brochure within three business days of receipt of the application. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(h) about imposition of nonrefundable fees.)
</P>
<HD2>5b(d) Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures given as applicable.</I> The disclosures required under this section need be made only as applicable. Thus, for example, if negative amortization cannot occur in a home equity plan, a reference to it need not be made.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Duty to respond to requests for information.</I> If the consumer, prior to the opening of a plan, requests information as suggested in the disclosures (such as the current index value or margin), the creditor must provide this information as soon as reasonably possible after the request.
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(1) Retention of Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>When disclosure not required.</I> The creditor need not disclose that the consumer should make or otherwise retain a copy of the disclosures if they are retainable—for example, if the disclosures are not part of an application that must be returned to the creditor to apply for the plan. 
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(2) Conditions for Disclosed Terms 
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(2)(i) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Guaranteed terms.</I> The requirement that the creditor disclose the time by which an application must be submitted to obtain the disclosed terms does not require the creditor to guarantee any terms. If a creditor chooses not to guarantee any terms, it must disclose that all of the terms are subject to change prior to opening the plan. The creditor also is permitted to guarantee some terms and not others, but must indicate which terms are subject to change. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date for obtaining disclosed terms.</I> The creditor may disclose either a specific date or a time period for obtaining the disclosed terms. If the creditor discloses a time period, the consumer must be able to determine from the disclosure the specific date by which an application must be submitted to obtain any guaranteed terms. For example, the disclosure might read, “To obtain the following terms, you must submit your application within 60 days after the date appearing on this disclosure,” provided the disclosure form also shows the date. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(2)(ii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relation to other provisions.</I> Creditors should consult the rules in § 226.5b(g) regarding refund of fees. 
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(4) Possible Actions by Creditor 
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(4)(i) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed upon termination.</I> This disclosure applies only to fees (such as penalty or prepayment fees) that the creditor imposes if it terminates the plan prior to normal expiration. The disclosure does not apply to fees that are imposed either when the plan expires in accordance with the agreement or if the consumer terminates the plan prior to its scheduled maturity. In addition, the disclosure does not apply to fees associated with collection of the debt, such as attorneys fees and court costs, or to increases in the annual percentage rate linked to the consumer's failure to make payments. The actual amount of the fee need not be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes specified in the initial agreement.</I> If changes may occur pursuant to § 226.5b(f)(3)(i), a creditor must state that certain changes will be implemented as specified in the initial agreement. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(4)(iii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of conditions.</I> In making this disclosure, the creditor may provide a highlighted copy of the document that contains such information, such as the contract or security agreement. The relevant items must be distinguished from the other information contained in the document. For example, the creditor may provide a cover sheet that specifically points out which contract provisions contain the information, or may mark the relevant items on the document itself. As an alternative to disclosing the conditions in this manner, the creditor may simply describe the conditions using the language in §§ 226.5b(f)(2)(i)-(iii), 226.5b(f)(3)(i) (regarding freezing the line when the maximum annual percentage rate is reached), and 226.5b(f)(3)(vi) or language that is substantially similar. The condition contained in § 226.5b(f)(2)(iv) need not be stated. In describing specified changes that may be implemented during the plan, the creditor may provide a disclosure such as “Our agreement permits us to make certain changes to the terms of the line at specified times or upon the occurrence of specified events.” 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosure.</I> The list of conditions under § 226.5b(d)(4)(iii) may appear with the segregated disclosures or apart from them. If the creditor elects to provide the list of conditions with the segregated disclosures, the list need not comply with the precedence rule in § 226.5b(a)(2). 
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(5) Payment Terms 
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(5)(i) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Length of the plan.</I> The combined length of the draw period and any repayment period need not be stated. If the length of the repayment phase cannot be determined because, for example, it depends on the balance outstanding at the beginning of the repayment period, the creditor must state that the length is determined by the size of the balance. If the length of the plan is indefinite (for example, because there is no time limit on the period during which the consumer can take advances), the creditor must state that fact. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewal provisions.</I> If, under the credit agreement, a creditor retains the right to review a line at the end of the specified draw period and determine whether to renew or extend the draw period of the plan, the possibility of renewal or extension—regardless of its likelihood—should be ignored for purposes of the disclosures. For example, if an agreement provides that the draw period is five years and that the creditor may renew the draw period for an additional five years, the possibility of renewal should be ignored and the draw period should be considered five years. (See the commentary accompanying § 226.9(c)(1) dealing with change in terms requirements.) 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(5)(ii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determination of the minimum periodic payment.</I> This disclosure must reflect how the minimum periodic payment is determined, but need only describe the principal and interest components of the payment. Other charges that may be part of the payment (as well as the balance computation method) may, but need not, be described under this provision. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fixed rate and term payment options during draw period.</I> If the home equity plan permits the consumer to repay all or part of the balance during the draw period at a fixed rate (rather than a variable rate) and over a specified time period, this feature must be disclosed. To illustrate, a variable-rate plan may permit a consumer to elect during a ten-year draw period to repay all or a portion of the balance over a three-year period at a fixed rate. The creditor must disclose the rules relating to this feature including the period during which the option can be selected, the length of time over which repayment can occur, any fees imposed for such a feature, and the specific rate or a description of the index and margin that will apply upon exercise of this choice. For example, the index and margin disclosure might state: “If you choose to convert any portion of your balance to a fixed rate, the rate will be the highest prime rate published in the ‘Wall Street Journal’ that is in effect at the date of conversion plus a margin.” If the fixed rate is to be determined according to an index, it must be one that is outside the creditor's control and is publicly available in accordance with § 226.5b(f)(1). The effect of exercising the option should not be reflected elsewhere in the disclosures, such as in the historical example required in § 226.5b(d)(12)(xi). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balloon payments.</I> In programs where the occurrence of a balloon payment is possible, the creditor must disclose the possibility of a balloon payment even if such a payment is uncertain or unlikely. In such cases, the disclosure might read, “Your minimum payments may not be sufficient to fully repay the principal that is outstanding on your line. If they are not, you will be required to pay the entire outstanding balance in a single payment.” In programs where a balloon payment will occur, such as programs with interest-only payments during the draw period and no repayment period, the disclosures must state that fact. For example, the disclosure might read, “Your minimum payments will not repay the principal that is outstanding on your line. You will be required to pay the entire outstanding balance in a single payment.” In making this disclosure, the creditor is not required to use the term “balloon payment.” The creditor also is not required to disclose the amount of the balloon payment. (See, however, the requirement under § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii).) The balloon payment disclosure does not apply in cases where repayment of the entire outstanding balance would occur only as a result of termination and acceleration. The creditor also need not make a disclosure about balloon payments if the final payment could not be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(5)(iii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Minimum periodic payment example.</I> In disclosing the payment example, the creditor may assume that the credit limit as well as the outstanding balance is $10,000 if such an assumption is relevant to calculating payments. (If the creditor only offers lines of credit for less than $10,000, the creditor may assume an outstanding balance of $5,000 instead of $10,000 in making this disclosure.) The example should reflect the payment comprised only of principal and interest. Creditors may provide an additional example reflecting other charges that may be included in the payment, such as credit insurance premiums. Creditors may assume that all months have an equal number of days, that payments are collected in whole cents, and that payments will fall on a business day even though they may be due on a non-business day. For variable-rate plans, the example must be based on the last rate in the historical example required in § 226.5b(d)(12)(xi), or a more recent rate. In cases where the last rate shown in the historical example is different from the index value and margin (for example, due to a rate cap), creditors should calculate the rate by using the index value and margin. A discounted rate may not be considered a more recent rate in calculating this payment example for either variable- or fixed-rate plans. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Representative examples.</I> In plans with multiple payment options within the draw period or within any repayment period, the creditor may provide representative examples as an alternative to providing examples for each payment option. The creditor may elect to provide representative payment examples based on three categories of payment options. The first category consists of plans that permit minimum payment of only accrued finance charges (<I>interest only</I> plans). The second category includes plans in which a fixed percentage or a fixed fraction of the outstanding balance or credit limit (for example, 2% of the balance or 
<FR>1/180</FR>th of the balance) is used to determine the minimum payment. The third category includes all other types of minimum payment options, such as a specified dollar amount plus any accrued finance charges. Creditors may classify their minimum payment arrangements within one of these three categories even if other features exist, such as varying lengths of a draw or repayment period, required payment of past due amounts, late charges, and minimum dollar amounts. The creditor may use a single example within each category to represent the payment options in that category. For example, if a creditor permits minimum payments of 1%, 2%, 3% or 4% of the outstanding balance, it may pick one of these four options and provide the example required under § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) for that option alone. 
</P>
<P>The example used to represent a category must be an option commonly chosen by consumers, or a typical or representative example. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(12) (x) and (xi) for a discussion of the use of representative examples for making those disclosures. Creditors using a representative example within each category must use the same example for purposes of the disclosures under § 226.5b (d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12) (x) and (xi).) Creditors may use representative examples under § 226.5b(d)(5) only with respect to the payment example required under paragraph (d)(5)(iii). Creditors must provide a full narrative description of all payment options under § 226.5b(d)(5) (i) and (ii). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples for draw and repayment periods.</I> Separate examples must be given for the draw and repayment periods unless the payments are determined the same way during both periods. In setting forth payment examples for any repayment period under this section (and the historical example under § 226.5b(d)(12)(xi)), creditors should assume a $10,000 advance is taken at the beginning of the draw period and is reduced according to the terms of the plan. Creditors should not assume an additional advance is taken at any time, including at the beginning of any repayment period. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> Reverse mortgages, also known as reverse annuity or home equity conversion mortgages, in addition to permitting the consumer to obtain advances, may involve the disbursement of monthly advances to the consumer for a fixed period or until the occurrence of an event such as the consumer's death. Repayment of the reverse mortgage (generally a single payment of principal and accrued interest) may be required to be made at the end of the disbursements or, for example, upon the death of the consumer. In disclosing these plans, creditors must apply the following rules, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>• If the reverse mortgage has a specified period for advances and disbursements but repayment is due only upon occurrence of a future event such as the death of the consumer, the creditor must assume that disbursements will be made until they are scheduled to end. The creditor must assume repayment will occur when disbursements end (or within a period following the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval between disbursements). This assumption should be used even though repayment may occur before or after the disbursements are scheduled to end. In such cases, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume that you will repay the line at the time the draw period and our payments to you end. As provided in your agreement, your repayment may be rquired at a different time.” The single payment should be considered the “minimum periodic payment” and consequently would not be treated as a balloon payment. The example of the minimum payment under § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) should assume a single $10,000 draw.
</P>
<P>• If the reverse mortgage has neither a specified period for advances or disbursements nor a specified repayment date and these terms will be determined solely by reference to future events, including the consumer's death, the creditor may assume that the draws and disbursements will end upon the consumer's death (estimated by using actuarial tables, for example) and that repayment will be required at the same time (or within a period following the date of the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval for disbursements). Alternatively, the creditor may base the disclosures upon another future event it estimates will be most likely to occur first. (If terms will be determined by reference to future events which do not include the consumer's death, the creditor must base the disclosures upon the occurrence of the event estimated to be most likely to occur first.)
</P>
<P>• In making the disclosures, the creditor must assume that all draws and disbursements and accrued interest will be paid by the consumer. For example, if the note has a non-recourse provision providing that the consumer is not obligated for an amount greater than the value of the house, the creditor must nonetheless assume that the full amount to be drawn or disbursed will be repaid. In this case, however, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume full repayment of the amount advanced plus accrued interest, although the amount you may be required to pay is limited by your agreement.”
</P>
<P>• Some reverse mortgages provide that some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property will be shared between the consumer and the creditor. The creditor must disclose the appreciation feature, including describing how the creditor's share will be determined, any limitations, and when the feature may be exercised.
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(6) Annual Percentage Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preferred-rate plans.</I> If a creditor offers a preferential fixed-rate plan in which the rate will increase a specified amount upon the occurrence of a specified event, the creditor must disclose the specific amount the rate will increase.
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(7) Fees Imposed by Creditor
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The fees referred to in § 226.5b(d)(7) include items such as application fees, points, annual fees, transaction fees, fees to obtain checks to access the plan, and fees imposed for converting to a repayment phase that is provided for in the original agreement. This disclosure includes any fees that are imposed by the creditor to use or maintain the plan, whether the fees are kept by the creditor or a third party. For example, if a creditor requires an annual credit report on the consumer and requires the consumer to pay this fee to the creditor or directly to the third party, the fee must be specifically stated. Third party fees to open the plan that are initially paid by the consumer to the creditor may be included in this disclosure or in the disclosure under § 226.5b(d)(8).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manner of describing fees.</I> Charges may be stated as an estimated dollar amount for each fee, or as a percentage of a typical or representative amount of credit. The creditor may provide a stepped fee schedule in which a fee will increase a specified amount at a specified date. (See the discussion contained in the commentary to § 226.5b(f)(3)(i).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees not required to be disclosed.</I> Fees that are not imposed to open, use, or maintain a plan, such as fees for researching an account, photocopying, paying late, stopping payment, having a check returned, exceeding the credit limit, or closing out an account do not have to be disclosed under this section. Credit report and appraisal fees imposed to investigate whether a condition permitting a freeze continues to exist—as discussed in the commentary to § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)—are not required to be disclosed under this section or § 226.5b(d)(8).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates of closing costs.</I> If closing costs are imposed they must be disclosed, regardless of whether such costs may be rebated later (for example, rebated to the extent of any interest paid during the first year of the plan).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> Creditors need not use the terms <I>finance charge</I> or <I>other charge</I> in describing the fees imposed by the creditor under this section or those imposed by third parties under § 226.5b(d)(8).
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(8) Fees Imposed by Third Parties to Open a Plan
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> Section 226.5b(d)(8) applies only to fees imposed by third parties to open the plan. Thus, for example, this section does not require disclosure of a fee imposed by a government agency at the end of a plan to release a security interest. Fees to be disclosed include appraisal, credit report, government agency, and attorneys fees. In cases where property insurance is required by the creditor, the creditor either may disclose the amount of the premium or may state that property insurance is required. For example, the disclosure might state, “You must carry insurance on the property that secures this plan.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization of third-party fees.</I> In all cases creditors must state the total of third-party fees as a single dollar amount or a range except that the total need not include costs for property insurance if the creditor discloses that such insurance is required. A creditor has two options with regard to providing the more detailed information about third party fees. Creditors may provide a statement that the consumer may request more specific cost information about third party fees from the creditor. As an alternative to including this statement, creditors may provide an itemization of such fees (by type and amount) with the early disclosures. Any itemization provided upon the consumer's request need not include a disclosure about property insurance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Manner of describing fees.</I> A good faith estimate of the amount of fees must be provided. Creditors may provide, based on a typical or representative amount of credit, a range for such fees or state the dollar amount of such fees. Fees may be expressed on a unit cost basis, for example, $5 per $1,000 of credit.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates of third party fees.</I> Even if fees imposed by third parties may be rebated, they must be disclosed. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(7).)
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(9) Negative Amortization
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In transactions where the minimum payment will not or may not be sufficient to cover the interest that accrues on the outstanding balance, the creditor must disclose that negative amortization will or may occur. This disclosure is required whether or not the unpaid interest is added to the outstanding balance upon which interest is computed. A disclosure is not required merely because a loan calls for non-amortizing or partially amortizing payments.
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(10) Transaction Requirements 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> A limitation on automated teller machine usage need not be disclosed under this paragraph unless that is the only means by which the consumer can obtain funds.
</P>
<HD2>5b(d)(12) Disclosures for Variable-Rate Plans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate provisions.</I> Sample forms in appendix G-14 provide illustrative guidance on the variable-rate rules.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(12)(iv)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determination of annual percentage rate.</I> If the creditor adjusts its index through the addition of a margin, the disclosure might read, “Your annual percentage rate is based on the index plus a margin.” The creditor is not required to disclose a specific value for the margin.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(12)(viii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preferred-rate provisions.</I> This paragraph requires disclosure of preferred-rate provisions, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the borrower-employee leaving the creditor's employ or the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Provisions on conversion to fixed rates.</I> The commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5)(ii) discusses the disclosure requirements for options permitting the consumer to convert from a variable rate to a fixed rate.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(12)(ix)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic limitations on increases in rates.</I> The creditor must disclose any annual limitations on increases in the annual percentage rate. If the creditor bases its rate limitation on 12 monthly billing cycles, such a limitation should be treated as an annual cap. Rate limitations imposed on less than an annual basis must be stated in terms of a specific amount of time. For example, if the creditor imposes rate limitations on only a semiannual basis, this must be expressed as a rate limitation for a six-month time period. If the creditor does not impose periodic limitations (annual or shorter) on rate increases, the fact that there are no annual rate limitations must be stated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maximum limitations on increases in rates.</I> The maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed under each payment option over the term of the plan (including the draw period and any repayment period provided for in the initial agreement) must be provided. The creditor may disclose this rate as a specific number (for example, 18%) or as a specific amount above the initial rate. For example, this disclosure might read, “The maximum annual percentage rate that can apply to your line will be 5 percentage points above your initial rate.” If the creditor states the maximum rate as a specific amount above the initial rate, the creditor must include a statement that the consumer should inquire about the rate limitations that are currently available. If an initial discount is not taken into account in applying maximum rate limitations, that fact must be disclosed. If separate overall limitations apply to rate increases resulting from events such as the exercise of a fixed-rate conversion option or leaving the creditor's employ, those limitations also must be stated. Limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or federal statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The creditor need not disclose each periodic or maximum rate limitation that is currently available. Instead, the creditor may disclose the range of the lowest and highest periodic and maximum rate limitations that may be applicable to the creditor's home equity plans. Creditors using this alternative must include a statement that the consumer should inquire about the rate limitations that are currently available.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(12)(x)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Maximum rate payment example.</I> In calculating the payment creditors should assume the maximum rate is in effect. Any discounted or premium initial rates or periodic rate limitations should be ignored for purposes of this disclosure. If a range is used to disclose the maximum cap under § 226.5b(d)(12)(ix), the highest rate in the range must be used for the disclosure under this paragraph. As an alternative to making disclosures based on each payment option, the creditor may choose a representative example within the three categories of payment options upon which to base this disclosure. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5).) However, separate examples must be provided for the draw period and for any repayment period unless the payment is determined the same way in both periods. Creditors should calculate the example for the repayment period based on an assumed $10,000 balance. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5) for a discussion of the circumstances in which a creditor may use a lower outstanding balance.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Time the maximum rate could be reached.</I> In stating the date or time when the maximum rate could be reached, creditors should assume the rate increases as rapidly as possible under the plan. In calculating the date or time, creditors should factor in any discounted or premium initial rates and periodic rate limitations. This disclosure must be provided for the draw phase and any repayment phase. Creditors should assume the index and margin shown in the last year of the historical example (or a more recent rate) is in effect at the beginning of each phase.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(d)(12)(xi)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Index movement.</I> Index values and annual percentage rates must be shown for the entire 15 years of the historical example and must be based on the most recent 15 years. The example must be updated annually to reflect the most recent 15 years of index values as soon as reasonably possible after the new index value becomes available. If the values for an index have not been available for 15 years, a creditor need only go back as far as the values have been available and may start the historical example at the year for which values are first available.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Selection of index values.</I> The historical example must reflect the method of choosing index values for the plan. For example, if an average of index values is used in the plan, averages must be used in the example, but if an index value as of a particular date is used, a single index value must be shown. The creditor is required to assume one date (or one period, if an average is used) within a year on which to base the history of index values. The creditor may choose to use index values as of any date or period as long as the index value as of this date or period is used for each year in the example. Only one index value per year need be shown, even if the plan provides for adjustments to the annual percentage rate or payment more than once in a year. In such cases, the creditor can assume that the index rate remained constant for the full year for the purpose of calculating the annual percentage rate and payment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Selection of margin.</I> A value for the margin must be assumed in order to prepare the example. A creditor may select a representative margin that it has used with the index during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures and state that the margin is one that it has used recently. The margin selected may be used until the creditor annually updates the disclosure form to reflect the most recent 15 years of index values.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amount of discount or premium.</I> In reflecting any discounted or premium initial rate, the creditor may select a discount or premium that it has used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the discount or premium is one that the creditor has used recently. The discount or premium should be reflected in the example for as long as it is in effect. The creditor may assume that a discount or premium that would have been in effect for any part of a year was in effect for the full year for purposes of reflecting it in the historical example.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rate limitations.</I> Limitations on both periodic and maximum rates must be reflected in the historical example. If ranges of rate limitations are provided under § 226.5b(d)(12)(ix), the highest rates provided in those ranges must be used in the example. Rate limitations that may apply more often than annually should be treated as if they were annual limitations. For example, if a creditor imposes a 1% cap every six months, this should be reflected in the example as if it were a 2% annual cap. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Assumed advances.</I> The creditor should assume that the $10,000 balance is an advance taken at the beginning of the first billing cycle and is reduced according to the terms of the plan, and that the consumer takes no subsequent draws. As discussed in the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5), creditors should not assume an additional advance is taken at the beginning of any repayment period. If applicable, the creditor may assume the $10,000 is both the advance and the credit limit. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5) for a discussion of the circumstances in which a creditor may use a lower outstanding balance.) 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Representative payment options.</I> The creditor need not provide an historical example for all of its various payment options, but may select a representative payment option within each of the three categories of payments upon which to base its disclosure. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5).) 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Payment information.</I> The payment figures in the historical example must reflect all significant program terms. For example, features such as rate and payment caps, a discounted initial rate, negative amortization, and rate carryover must be taken into account in calculating the payment figures if these would have applied to the plan. The historical example should include payments for as much of the length of the plan as would occur during a 15-year period. For example: 
</P>
<P>• If the draw period is 10 years and the repayment period is 15 years, the example should illustrate the entire 10-year draw period and the first 5 years of the repayment period. 
</P>
<P>• If the length of the draw period is 15 years and there is a 15-year repayment phase, the historical example must reflect the payments for the 15-year draw period and would not show any of the repayment period. No additional historical example would be required to reflect payments for the repayment period. 
</P>
<P>• If the length of the plan is less than 15 years, payments in the historical example need only be shown for the number of years in the term. In such cases, however, the creditor must show the index values, margin and annual percentage rates and continue to reflect all significant plan terms such as rate limitations for the entire 15 years.
</P>
<FP>A creditor need show only a single payment per year in the example, even though payments may vary during a year. The calculations should be based on the actual payment computation formula, although the creditor may assume that all months have an equal number of days. The creditor may assume that payments are made on the last day of the billing cycle, the billing date or the payment due date, but must be consistent in the manner in which the period used to illustrate payment information is selected. Information about balloon payments and remaining balance may, but need not, be reflected in the example. 
</FP>
<P>9. <I>Disclosures for repayment period.</I> The historical example must reflect all features of the repayment period, including the appropriate index values, margin, rate limitations, length of the repayment period, and payments. For example, if different indices are used during the draw and repayment periods, the index values for that portion of the 15 years that reflect the repayment period must be the values for the appropriate index. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> The historical example for reverse mortgages should reflect 15 years of index values and annual percentage rates, but the payment column should be blank until the year that the single payment will be made, assuming that payment is estimated to occur within 15 years. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5) for a discussion of reverse mortgages.) 
</P>
<HD2>5b(e) Brochure 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Substitutes.</I> A brochure is a suitable substitute for the Board's home equity brochure if it is, at a minimum, comparable to the Board's brochure in substance and comprehensiveness. Creditors are permitted to provide more detailed information than is contained in the Board's brochure. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effect of third party delivery of brochure.</I> If a creditor determines that a third party has provided a consumer with the required brochure pursuant to § 226.5b(c), the creditor need not give the consumer a second brochure. 
</P>
<HD2>5b(f) Limitations on Home Equity Plans 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 226.5b(f) limits both actions that may be taken and language that may be included in contracts, and applies to any assignee or holder as well as to the original creditor. The limitations apply to the draw period and any repayment period, and to any renewal or modification of the original agreement. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(1) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>External index.</I> A creditor may change the annual percentage rate for a plan only if the change is based on an index outside the creditor's control. Thus, a creditor may not make rate changes based on its own prime rate or cost of funds and may not reserve a contractual right to change rates at its discretion. A creditor is permitted, however, to use a published prime rate, such as that in the Wall Street Journal, even if the bank's own prime rate is one of several rates used to establish the published rate. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Publicly available.</I> The index must be available to the public. A publicly available index need not be published in a newspaper, but it must be one the consumer can independently obtain (by telephone, for example) and use to verify rates imposed under the plan. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Provisions not prohibited.</I> This paragraph does not prohibit rate changes that are specifically set forth in the agreement. For example, stepped-rate plans, in which specified rates are imposed for specified periods, are permissible. In addition, preferred-rate provisions, in which the rate increases by a specified amount upon the occurrence of a specified event, also are permissible. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(2) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Limitations on termination and acceleration.</I> In general, creditors are prohibited from terminating and accelerating payment of the outstanding balance before the scheduled expiration of a plan. However, creditors may take these actions in the four circumstances specified in § 226.5b(f)(2). Creditors are not permitted to specify in their contracts any other events that allow termination and acceleration beyond those permitted by the regulation. Thus, for example, an agreement may not provide that the balance is payable on demand nor may it provide that the account will be terminated and the balance accelerated if the rate cap is reached.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other actions permitted.</I> If an event permitting termination and acceleration occurs, a creditor may instead take actions short of terminating and accelerating. For example, a creditor could temporarily or permanently suspend further advances, reduce the credit limit, change the payment terms, or require the consumer to pay a fee. A creditor also may provide in its agreement that a higher rate or higher fees will apply in circumstances under which it would otherwise be permitted to terminate the plan and accelerate the balance. A creditor that does not immediately terminate an account and accelerate payment or take another permitted action may take such action at a later time, provided one of the conditions permitting termination and acceleration exists at that time. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(2)(i) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fraud or material misrepresentation.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance if there has been fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the plan. This exception includes fraud or misrepresentation at any time, either during the application process or during the draw period and any repayment period. What constitutes fraud or misrepresentation is determined by applicable state law and may include acts of omission as well as overt acts, as long as any necessary intent on the part of the consumer exists. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(2)(ii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Failure to meet repayment terms.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance when the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms provided for in the agreement. However, a creditor may terminate and accelerate under this provision only if the consumer actually fails to make payments. For example, a creditor may not terminate and accelerate if the consumer, in error, sends a payment to the wrong location, such as a branch rather than the main office of the creditor. If a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy, the creditor may terminate and accelerate under this provision if the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement. This section does not override any state or other law that requires a right-to-cure notice, or otherwise places a duty on the creditor before it can terminate a plan and accelerate the balance. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(2)(iii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Impairment of security.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance if the consumer's action or inaction adversely affects the creditor's security for the plan, or any right of the creditor in that security. Action or inaction by third parties does not, in itself, permit the creditor to terminate and accelerate. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> A creditor may terminate and accelerate, for example, if: 
</P>
<P>• The consumer transfers title to the property or sells the property without the permission of the creditor 
</P>
<P>• The consumer fails to maintain required insurance on the dwelling 
</P>
<P>• The consumer fails to pay taxes on the property 
</P>
<P>• The consumer permits the filing of a lien senior to that held by the creditor 
</P>
<P>• The sole consumer obligated on the plan dies 
</P>
<P>• The property is taken through eminent domain 
</P>
<P>• A prior lienholder forecloses
</P>
<FP>By contrast, the filing of a judgment against the consumer would permit termination and acceleration only if the amount of the judgment and collateral subject to the judgment is such that the creditor's security is adversely affected. If the consumer commits waste or otherwise destructively uses or fails to maintain the property such that the action adversely affects the security, the plan may be terminated and the balance accelerated. Illegal use of the property by the consumer would permit termination and acceleration if it subjects the property to seizure. If one of two consumers obligated on a plan dies the creditor may terminate the plan and accelerate the balance if the security is adversely affected. If the consumer moves out of the dwelling that secures the plan and that action adversely affects the security, the creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance. 
</FP>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of provision.</I> In general, a creditor may not change the terms of a plan after it is opened. For example, a creditor may not increase any fee or impose a new fee once the plan has been opened, even if the fee is charged by a third party, such as a credit reporting agency, for a service. The change of terms prohibition applies to all features of a plan, not only those required to be disclosed under this section. For example, this provision applies to charges imposed for late payment, although this fee is not required to be disclosed under § 226.5b(d)(7). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges not covered.</I> There are three charges not covered by this provision. A creditor may pass on increases in taxes since such charges are imposed by a governmental body and are beyond the control of the creditor. In addition, a creditor may pass on increases in premiums for property insurance that are excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(d)(2), since such insurance provides a benefit to the consumer independent of the use of the line and is often maintained notwithstanding the line. A creditor also may pass on increases in premiums for credit insurance that are excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(d)(1), since the insurance is voluntary and provides a benefit to the consumer. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(i) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Changes provided for in agreement.</I> A creditor may provide in the initial agreement that further advances will be prohibited or the credit line reduced during any period in which the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor also may provide for other specific changes to take place upon the occurrence of specific events. Both the triggering event and the resulting modification must be stated with specificity. For example, in home equity plans for employees, the agreement could provide that a specified higher rate or margin will apply if the borrower's employment with the creditor ends. A contract could contain a stepped-rate or stepped-fee schedule providing for specified changes in the rate or the fees on certain dates or after a specified period of time. A creditor also may provide in the initial agreement that it will be entitled to a share of the appreciation in the value of the property as long as the specific appreciation share and the specific circumstances which require the payment of it are set forth. A contract may permit a consumer to switch among minimum payment options during the plan. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prohibited provisions.</I> A creditor may not include a general provision in its agreement permitting changes to any or all of the terms of the plan. For example, creditors may not include “boilerplate” language in the agreement stating that they reserve the right to change the fees imposed under the plan. In addition, a creditor may not include any “triggering events” or responses that the regulation expressly addresses in a manner different from that provided in the regulation. For example, an agreement may not provide that the margin in a variable-rate plan will increase if there is a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances, because the regulation specifies that temporarily freezing the line or lowering the credit limit is the permissible response to a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances. Similarly a contract cannot contain a provision allowing the creditor to freeze a line due to an insignificant decline in property value since the regulation allows that response only for a significant decline. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(ii) 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Substitution of index.</I> A creditor may change the index and margin used under the plan if the original index becomes unavailable, as long as historical fluctuations in the original and replacement indices were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index and margin will produce a rate similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if it produces a rate substantially similar to the rate in effect when the original index became unavailable. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Changes by written agreement.</I> A creditor may change the terms of a plan if the consumer expressly agrees in writing to the change at the time it is made. For example, a consumer and a creditor could agree in writing to change the repayment terms from interest-only payments to payments that reduce the principal balance. The provisions of any such agreement are governed by the limitations in § 226.5b(f). For example, a mutual agreement could not provide for future annual percentage rate changes based on the movement of an index controlled by the creditor or for termination and acceleration under circumstances other than those specified in the regulation. By contrast, a consumer could agree to a new credit limit for the plan, although the agreement could not permit the creditor to later change the credit limit except by a subsequent written agreement or in the circumstances described in § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written agreement.</I> The change must be agreed to in writing by the consumer. Creditors are not permitted to assume consent because the consumer uses an account, even if use of an account would otherwise constitute acceptance of a proposed change under state law.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(iv)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Beneficial changes.</I> After a plan is opened, a creditor may make changes that unequivocally benefit the consumer. Under this provision, a creditor may offer more options to consumers, as long as existing options remain. For example, a creditor may offer the consumer the option of making lower monthly payments or could increase the credit limit. Similarly, a creditor wishing to extend the length of the plan on the same terms may do so. Creditors are permitted to temporarily reduce the rate or fees charged during the plan (though a change in terms notice may be required under § 226.9(c) when the rate or fees are returned to their original level). Creditors also may offer an additional means of access to the line, even if fees are associated with using the device, provided the consumer retains the ability to use prior access devices on the original terms.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(v)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Insignificant changes.</I> A creditor is permitted to make insignificant changes after a plan is opened. This rule accommodates operational and similar problems, such as changing the address of the creditor for purposes of sending payments. It does not permit a creditor to change a term such as a fee charged for late payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of insignificant changes.</I> Creditors may make minor changes to features such as the billing cycle date, the payment due date (as long as the consumer does not have a diminished grace period if one is provided), and the day of the month on which index values are measured to determine changes to the rate for variable-rate plans. A creditor also may change its rounding practice in accordance with the tolerance rules set forth in § 226.14 (for example, stating an exact APR of 14.3333 percent as 14.3 percent, even if it had previously been stated as 14.33 percent). A creditor may change the balance computation method it uses only if the change produces an insignificant difference in the finance charge paid by the consumer. For example, a creditor may switch from using the average daily balance method (including new transactions) to the daily balance method (including new transactions).
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5b(f)(3)(vi)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Suspension of credit privileges or reduction of credit limit.</I> A creditor may prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit in the circumstances specified in this section of the regulation. In addition, as discussed under § 226.5b(f)(3)(i), a creditor may contractually reserve the right to take such actions when the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor may not take these actions under other circumstances, unless the creditor would be permitted to terminate the line and accelerate the balance as described in § 226.5b(f)(2). The creditor's right to reduce the credit limit does not permit reducing the limit below the amount of the outstanding balance if this would require the consumer to make a higher payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Temporary nature of suspension or reduction.</I> Creditors are permitted to prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit only while one of the designated circumstances exists. When the circumstance justifying the creditor's action ceases to exist, credit privileges must be reinstated, assuming that no other circumstance permitting such action exists at that time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Imposition of fees.</I> If not prohibited by state law, a creditor may collect only bona fide and reasonable appraisal and credit report fees if such fees are actually incurred in investigating whether the condition permitting the freeze continues to exist. A creditor may not, in any circumstances, impose a fee to reinstate a credit line once the condition has been determined not to exist.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reinstatement of credit privileges.</I> Creditors are responsible for ensuring that credit privileges are restored as soon as reasonably possible after the condition that permitted the creditor's action ceases to exist. One way a creditor can meet this responsibility is to monitor the line on an ongoing basis to determine when the condition ceases to exist. The creditor must investigate the condition frequently enough to assure itself that the condition permitting the freeze continues to exist. The frequency with which the creditor must investigate to determine whether a condition continues to exist depends upon the specific condition permitting the freeze. As an alternative to such monitoring, the creditor may shift the duty to the consumer to request reinstatement of credit privileges by providing a notice in accordance with § 226.9(c)(1)(iii). A creditor may require a reinstatement request to be in writing if it notifies the consumer of this requirement on the notice provided under § 226.9(c)(1)(iii). Once the consumer requests reinstatement, the creditor must promptly investigate to determine whether the condition allowing the freeze continues to exist. Under this alternative, the creditor has a duty to investigate only upon the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Suspension of credit privileges following request by consumer.</I> A creditor may honor a specific request by a consumer to suspend credit privileges. If the consumer later requests that the creditor reinstate credit privileges, the creditor must do so provided no other circumstance justifying a suspension exists at that time. If two or more consumers are obligated under a plan and each has the ability to take advances, the agreement may permit any of the consumers to direct the creditor not to make further advances. A creditor may require that all persons obligated under a plan request reinstatement.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Significant decline defined.</I> What constitutes a significant decline for purposes of § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)(A) will vary according to individual circumstances. In any event, if the value of the dwelling declines such that the initial difference between the credit limit and the available equity (based on the property's appraised value for purposes of the plan) is reduced by fifty percent, this constitutes a significant decline in the value of the dwelling for purposes of § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)(A). For example, assume that a house with a first mortgage of $50,000 is appraised at $100,000 and the credit limit is $30,000. The difference between the credit limit and the available equity is $20,000, half of which is $10,000. The creditor could prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit if the value of the property declines from $100,000 to $90,000. This provision does not require a creditor to obtain an appraisal before suspending credit privileges although a significant decline must occur before suspension can occur. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Material change in financial circumstances.</I> Two conditions must be met for § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)(B) to apply. First, there must be a “material change” in the consumer's financial circumstances, such as a significant decrease in the consumer's income. Second, as a result of this change, the creditor must have a reasonable belief that the consumer will be unable to fulfill the payment obligations of the plan. A creditor may, but does not have to, rely on specific evidence (such as the failure to pay other debts) in concluding that the second part of the test has been met. A creditor may prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit under this section if a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Default of a material obligation.</I> Creditors may specify events that would qualify as a default of a material obligation under § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)(C). For example, a creditor may provide that default of a material obligation will exist if the consumer moves out of the dwelling or permits an intervening lien to be filed that would take priority over future advances made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Government limits on the annual percentage rate.</I> Under § 226.5b(f)(3)(vi)(D), a creditor may prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit if, for example, a state usury law is enacted which prohibits a creditor from imposing the agreed-upon annual percentage rate.
</P>
<HD2>5b(g) Refund of Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Refund of fees required.</I> If any disclosed term, including any term provided upon request pursuant to § 226.5b(d), changes between the time the early disclosures are provided to the consumer and the time the plan is opened, and the consumer as a result decides to not enter into the plan, a creditor must refund all fees paid by the consumer in connection with the application. All fees, including credit report fees and appraisal fees, must be refunded whether such fees are paid to the creditor or directly to third parties. A consumer is entitled to a refund of fees under these circumstances whether or not terms are guaranteed by the creditor under § 226.5b(d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> The right to a refund of fees does not apply to changes in the annual percentage rate resulting from fluctuations in the index value in a variable-rate plan. Also, if the maximum annual percentage rate is expressed as an amount over the initial rate, the right to refund of fees would not apply to changes in the cap resulting from fluctuations in the index value.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes in terms.</I> If a term, such as the maximum rate, is stated as a range in the early disclosures, and the term ultimately applicable to the plan falls within that range, a change does not occur for purposes of this section. If, however, no range is used and the term is changed (for example, a rate cap of 6 rather than 5 percentage points over the initial rate), the change would permit the consumer to obtain a refund of fees. If a fee imposed by the creditor is stated in the early disclosures as an estimate and the fee changes, the consumer could elect to not enter into the agreement and would be entitled to a refund of fees. On the other hand, if fees imposed by third parties are disclosed as estimates and those fees change, the consumer is not entitled to a refund of fees paid in connection with the application. Creditors must, however, use the best information reasonably available in providing disclosures about such fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Timing of refunds and relation to other provisions.</I> The refund of fees must be made as soon as reasonably possible after the creditor is notified that the consumer is not entering into the plan because of the changed term, or that the consumer wants a refund of fees. The fact that an application fee may be refunded to some applicants under this provision does not render such fees finance charges under § 226.4(c)(1) of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>5b(h) Imposition of Nonrefundable Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Collection of fees after consumer receives disclosures.</I> A fee may be collected after the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure and before the expiration of three days, although the fee must be refunded if, within three days of receiving the required information, the consumer decides to not enter into the agreement. In such a case, the consumer must be notified that the fee is refundable for three days. The notice must be clear and conspicuous and in writing, and may be included with the disclosures required under § 226.5b(d) or as an attachment to them. If disclosures and brochure are mailed to the consumer, footnote 10d of the regulation provides that a nonrefundable fee may not be imposed until six business days after the mailing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Collection of fees before consumer receives disclosures.</I> An application fee may be collected before the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure (for example, when an application contained in a magazine is mailed in with an application fee) provided that it remains refundable until three business days after the consumer receives the § 226.5b disclosures. No other fees except a refundable membership fee may be collected until after the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 226.5b.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to other provisions.</I> A fee collected before disclosures are provided may become nonrefundable except that, under § 226.5b(g), it must be refunded if the consumer elects to not enter into the plan because of a change in terms. (Of course, all fees must be refunded if the consumer later rescinds under § 226.15.)
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.6—Account-Opening Disclosures
</HD2>
<P><I>6(a) Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>6(a)(1) Finance charge.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When finance charges accrue.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose a specific date when finance charges will begin to accrue. Creditors may provide a general explanation such as that the consumer has 30 days from the closing date to pay the new balance before finance charges will accrue on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Grace periods.</I> In disclosing whether or not a grace period exists, the creditor need not use “free period,” “free-ride period,” “grace period” or any other particular descriptive phrase or term. For example, a statement that “the finance charge begins on the date the transaction is posted to your account” adequately discloses that no grace period exists. In the same fashion, a statement that “finance charges will be imposed on any new purchases only if they are not paid in full within 25 days after the close of the billing cycle” indicates that a grace period exists in the interim.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Range of balances.</I> The range of balances disclosure is inapplicable:
</P>
<P>i. If only one periodic rate may be applied to the entire account balance.
</P>
<P>ii. If only one periodic rate may be applied to the entire balance for a feature (for example, cash advances), even though the balance for another feature (purchases) may be subject to two rates (a 1.5% monthly periodic rate on purchase balances of $0-$500, and a 1% monthly periodic rate for balances above $500). In this example, the creditor must give a range of balances disclosure for the purchase feature.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate disclosures—coverage.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples.</I> This section covers open-end credit plans under which rate changes are specifically set forth in the account agreement and are tied to an index or formula. A creditor would use variable-rate disclosures for plans involving rate changes such as the following:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are tied to the rate the creditor pays on its six-month certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are tied to Treasury bill rates.
</P>
<P>C. Rate changes that are tied to changes in the creditor's commercial lending rate.
</P>
<P>ii. An open-end credit plan in which the employee receives a lower rate contingent upon employment (that is, with the rate to be increased upon termination of employment) is not a variable-rate plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate plan—rate(s) in effect.</I> In disclosing the rate(s) in effect at the time of the account-opening disclosures (as is required by § 226.6(a)(1)(ii)), the creditor may use an insert showing the current rate; may give the rate as of a specified date and then update the disclosure from time to time, for example, each calendar month; or may disclose an estimated rate under § 226.5(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Variable-rate plan—additional disclosures required.</I> In addition to disclosing the rates in effect at the time of the account-opening disclosures, the disclosures under § 226.6(a)(1)(ii) also must be made.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Variable-rate plan—index.</I> The index to be used must be clearly identified; the creditor need not give, however, an explanation of how the index is determined or provide instructions for obtaining it.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Variable-rate plan—circumstances for increase.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. An increase in the Treasury bill rate.
</P>
<P>B. An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor must disclose when the increase will take effect; for example:
</P>
<P>A. “An increase will take effect on the day that the Treasury bill rate increases,” or
</P>
<P>B. “An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate will take effect on the first day of the creditor's billing cycle.”
</P>
<P>7. <I>Variable-rate plan—limitations on increase.</I> In disclosing any limitations on rate increases, limitations such as the maximum increase per year or the maximum increase over the duration of the plan must be disclosed. When there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact. (A maximum interest rate must be included in dwelling-secured open-end credit plans under which the interest rate may be changed. <I>See</I> § 226.30 and the commentary to that section.) Legal limits such as usury or rate ceilings under state or federal statutes or regulations need not be disclosed. Examples of limitations that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. “The rate on the plan will not exceed 25% annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>ii. “Not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR>% increase in the annual percentage rate per year will occur.”
</P>
<P>8. <I>Variable-rate plan—effects of increase.</I> Examples of effects of rate increases that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. Any requirement for additional collateral if the annual percentage rate increases beyond a specified rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Any increase in the scheduled minimum periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Variable-rate plan—change-in-terms notice not required.</I> No notice of a change in terms is required for a rate increase under a variable-rate plan as defined in comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-2.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Discounted variable-rate plans.</I> In some variable-rate plans, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula.
</P>
<P>i. For example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the current Treasury bill rate is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent, or the creditor may disregard the index or formula and set the initial rate at 9 percent.
</P>
<P>ii. When creditors use an initial rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the account-opening disclosure statement should reflect:
</P>
<P>A. The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate), together with a statement of how long the initial rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>B. The current rate that would have been applied using the index or formula (also expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate); and
</P>
<P>C. The other variable-rate information required in § 226.6(a)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>iii. In disclosing the current periodic and annual percentage rates that would be applied using the index or formula, the creditor may use any of the disclosure options described in comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-3.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Increased penalty rates.</I> If the initial rate may increase upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the creditor must disclose the initial rate and the increased penalty rate that may apply. If the penalty rate is based on an index and an increased margin, the issuer must disclose the index and the margin. The creditor must also disclose the specific event or events that may result in the increased rate, such as “22% APR, if 60 days late.” If the penalty rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given, the creditor must provide an explanation of the specific event or events that may result in the increased rate. At the creditor's option, the creditor may disclose the period for which the increased rate will remain in effect, such as “until you make three timely payments.” The creditor need not disclose an increased rate that is imposed when credit privileges are permanently terminated.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> A shorthand phrase such as “previous balance method” does not suffice in explaining the balance computation method. (See Model Clauses G-1 and G-1(A) to part 226.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Allocation of payments.</I> Creditors may, but need not, explain how payments and other credits are allocated to outstanding balances. For example, the creditor need not disclose that payments are applied to late charges, overdue balances, and finance charges before being applied to the principal balance; or in a multifeatured plan, that payments are applied first to finance charges, then to purchases, and then to cash advances. (<I>See</I> comment 7-1 for definition of multifeatured plan.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Finance charges.</I> In addition to disclosing the periodic rate(s) under § 226.6(a)(1)(ii), creditors must disclose any other type of finance charge that may be imposed, such as minimum, fixed, transaction, and activity charges; required insurance; or appraisal or credit report fees (unless excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(7)). Creditors are not required to disclose the fact that no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>6(a)(2) Other charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General; examples of other charges.</I> Under § 226.6(a)(2), significant charges related to the plan (that are not finance charges) must also be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Late-payment and over-the-credit-limit charges.
</P>
<P>ii. Fees for providing documentary evidence of transactions requested under § 226.13 (billing error resolution).
</P>
<P>iii. Charges imposed in connection with residential mortgage transactions or real estate transactions such as title, appraisal, and credit-report fees (see § 226.4(c)(7)).
</P>
<P>iv. A tax imposed on the credit transaction by a state or other governmental body, such as a documentary stamp tax on cash advances. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.4(a)).
</P>
<P>v. A membership or participation fee for a package of services that includes an open-end credit feature, unless the fee is required whether or not the open-end credit feature is included. For example, a membership fee to join a credit union is not an “other charge,” even if membership is required to apply for credit. For example, if the primary benefit of membership in an organization is the opportunity to apply for a credit card, and the other benefits offered (such as a newsletter or a member information hotline) are merely incidental to the credit feature, the membership fee would be disclosed as an “other charge.”
</P>
<P>vi. Charges imposed for the termination of an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The following are examples of charges that are not “other charges”
</P>
<P>i. Fees charged for documentary evidence of transactions for income tax purposes.
</P>
<P>ii. Amounts payable by a consumer for collection activity after default; attorney's fees, whether or not automatically imposed; foreclosure costs; post-judgment interest rates imposed by law; and reinstatement or reissuance fees.
</P>
<P>iii. Premiums for voluntary credit life or disability insurance, or for property insurance, that are not part of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>iv. Application fees under § 226.4(c)(1).
</P>
<P>v. A monthly service charge for a checking account with overdraft protection that is applied to all checking accounts, whether or not a credit feature is attached.
</P>
<P>vi. Charges for submitting as payment a check that is later returned unpaid (See commentary to § 226.4(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>vii. Charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system. (<I>See</I> also comment 7(a)(2)-2.)
</P>
<P>viii. Taxes and filing or notary fees excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(e).
</P>
<P>ix. A fee to expedite delivery of a credit card, either at account opening or during the life of the account, provided delivery of the card is also available by standard mail service (or other means at least as fast) without paying a fee for delivery.
</P>
<P>x. A fee charged for arranging a single payment on the credit account, upon the consumer's request (regardless of how frequently the consumer requests the service), if the credit plan provides that the consumer may make payments on the account by another reasonable means, such as by standard mail service, without paying a fee to the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>6(a)(3) Home-equity plan information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional disclosures required.</I> For home-equity plans, creditors must provide several of the disclosures set forth in § 226.5b(d) along with the disclosures required under § 226.6. Creditors also must disclose a list of the conditions that permit the creditor to terminate the plan, freeze or reduce the credit limit, and implement specified modifications to the original terms. (<I>See</I> comment 5b(d)(4)(iii)-1.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The home-equity disclosures provided under this section must be in a form the consumer can keep, and are governed by § 226.5(a)(1). The segregation standard set forth in § 226.5b(a) does not apply to home-equity disclosures provided under § 226.6.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of payment and variable-rate examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The payment-example disclosure in § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) and the variable-rate information in § 226.5b(d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi), and (d)(12)(xii) need not be provided with the disclosures under § 226.6 if the disclosures under § 226.5b(d) were provided in a form the consumer could keep; and the disclosures of the payment example under § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii), the maximum-payment example under § 226.5b(d)(12)(x) and the historical table under § 226.5b(d)(12)(xi) included a representative payment example for the category of payment options the consumer has chosen.
</P>
<P>ii. For example, if a creditor offers three payment options (one for each of the categories described in the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5)), describes all three options in its early disclosures, and provides all of the disclosures in a retainable form, that creditor need not provide the § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) or (d)(12) disclosures again when the account is opened. If the creditor showed only one of the three options in the early disclosures (which would be the case with a separate disclosure form rather than a combined form, as discussed under § 226.5b(a)), the disclosures under § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii), (d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi) and (d)(12)(xii) must be given to any consumer who chooses one of the other two options. If the § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12) disclosures are provided with the second set of disclosures, they need not be transaction-specific, but may be based on a representative example of the category of payment option chosen.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosures for the repayment period.</I> The creditor must provide disclosures about both the draw and repayment phases when giving the disclosures under § 226.6. Specifically, the creditor must make the disclosures in § 226.6(a)(3), state the corresponding annual percentage rate, and provide the variable-rate information required in § 226.6(a)(1)(ii) for the repayment phase. To the extent the corresponding annual percentage rate, the information in § 226.6(a)(1)(ii), and any other required disclosures are the same for the draw and repayment phase, the creditor need not repeat such information, as long as it is clear that the information applies to both phases.
</P>
<P><I>6(a)(4) Security interests.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors are not required to use specific terms to describe a security interest, or to explain the type of security or the creditor's rights with respect to the collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of property.</I> Creditors sufficiently identify collateral by type by stating, for example, <I>motor vehicle</I> or <I>household appliances.</I> (Creditors should be aware, however, that the federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) The creditor may, at its option, provide a more specific identification (for example, a model and serial number.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> If collateral for preexisting credit with the creditor will secure the plan being opened, the creditor must disclose that fact. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) The creditor need not specifically identify the collateral; a reminder such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan” is sufficient. At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional collateral.</I> If collateral is required when advances reach a certain amount, the creditor should disclose the information available at the time of the account-opening disclosures. For example, if the creditor knows that a security interest will be taken in household goods if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, the creditor should disclose accordingly. If the creditor knows that security will be required if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, but the creditor does not know what security will be required, the creditor must disclose on the initial disclosure statement that security will be required if the balance exceeds $1,000, and the creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 226.9(c) at the time the security is taken. (See comment 6(a)(4)-2.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> Security interests taken in connection with the plan must be disclosed, whether the collateral is owned by the consumer or a third party.
</P>
<P><I>6(a)(5) Statement of billing rights.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>See</I> the commentary to Model Forms G-3, G-3(A), G-4, and G-4(A).
</P>
<P><I>6(b) Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P>6(b)(1) Form of disclosures; tabular format for open-end (not home-secured) plans.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relation to tabular summary for applications and solicitations.</I> See commentary to § 226.5a(a), (b), and (c) regarding format and content requirements, except for the following:
</P>
<P>i. Creditors must use the accuracy standard for annual percentage rates in § 226.6(b)(4)(ii)(G).
</P>
<P>ii. Generally, creditors must disclose the specific rate for each feature that applies to the account. If the rates on an open-end (not home-secured) plan vary by state and the creditor is providing the account-opening table in person at the time the plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services the creditor may, at its option, disclose in the account-opening table (A) the rate applicable to the consumer's account, or (B) the range of rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the rate varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed.
</P>
<P>iii. Creditors must explain whether or not a grace period exists for all features on the account. The row heading “Paying Interest” must be used if any one feature on the account does not have a grace period.
</P>
<P>iv. Creditors must name the balance computation method used for each feature of the account and state that an explanation of the balance computation method(s) is provided in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>v. Creditors must state that consumers' billing rights are provided in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>vi. If fees on an open-end (not home-secured) plan vary by state and the creditor is providing the account-opening table in person at the time the plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services the creditor may, at its option, disclose in the account-opening table (A) the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, or (B) the range of fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed.
</P>
<P>vii. Creditors that must disclose the amount of available credit must state the initial credit limit provided on the account.
</P>
<P>viii. Creditors must disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked. Issuers of credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan are subject to limitations on the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked. (See comment 5a(b)(1)-5 for guidance on how a card issuer may disclose the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked.)
</P>
<P>ix. The applicable forms providing safe harbors for account-opening tables are under appendix G-17 to part 226.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to § 226.6 disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> Section 226.6(b)(1) generally requires that the headings, content, and format of the tabular disclosures be substantially similar, but need not be identical, to the tables in appendix G to part 226; but see § 226.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to § 226.6(b).
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(2) Required disclosures for account-opening table for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(2)(iii) Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example of brief statement. See</I> Samples G-17(B), G-17(C), and G-17(D) for guidance on how to provide a brief description of a minimum interest charge.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(2)(v) Grace period.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Grace period.</I> Creditors must state any conditions on the applicability of the grace period. A creditor, however, may not disclose under § 226.6(b)(2)(v) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 226.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some creditors may offer a grace period on all types of transactions under which interest will not be charged on transactions if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 226.6(b)(2)(v) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period and the conditions for its applicability using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on your account if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on all types of transactions under which interest may be charged on transactions even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 226.6(b)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No grace period.</I> Creditors may use the following language to describe that no grace period is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on [applicable transactions] on the transaction date.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Grace period on some features.</I> Some creditors do not offer a grace period on cash advances and balance transfers, but offer a grace period for all purchases under which interest will not be charged on purchases if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 226.6(b)(2)(v) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period for purchases and the conditions for its applicability, and the lack of a grace period for cash advances and balance transfers using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on purchases if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month. We will begin charging interest on cash advances and balance transfers on the transaction date.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest may be charged on purchases even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 226.6(a)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period. Also, some creditors may not offer a grace period on cash advances and balance transfers, and will begin charging interest on these transactions from a date other than the transaction date, such as the posting date. In these circumstances, § 226.6(a)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to be accurate.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(2)(vi) Balance computation method.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Use of same balance computation method for all features.</I> In cases where the balance for each feature is computed using the same balance computation method, a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is sufficient. In this case, a creditor may use an appropriate name listed in § 226.5a(g) (<I>e.g.,</I> “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)”</I>) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the method for all features on the account, even though the name only refers to purchases. For example, if a creditor uses the average daily balance method including new transactions for all features, a creditor may use the name “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)”</I> listed in § 226.5a(g)(i) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the balance computation method for all features. As an alternative, in this situation, a creditor may revise the balance computation names listed in § 226.5a(g) to refer more broadly to all new credit transactions, such as using the language “new transactions” or “current transactions” (<I>e.g., “average daily balance (including new transactions)”</I>), rather than simply referring to new purchases when the same method is used to calculate the balances for all features of the account. <I>See</I> Samples G-17(B) and G-17(C) for guidance on how to disclose the balance computation method where the same method is used for all features on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of balance computation names in § 226.5a(g) for balances other than purchases.</I> The names of the balance computation methods listed in § 226.5a(g) describe balance computation methods for purchases. When a creditor is disclosing the name of the balance computation methods separately for each feature, in using the names listed in § 226.5a(g) to satisfy the requirements of § 226.6(b)(2)(vi) for features other than purchases, a creditor must revise the names listed in § 226.5a(g) to refer to the other features. For example, when disclosing the name of the balance computation method applicable to cash advances, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 226.5a(g)(i) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (including new cash advances)”</I> when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. Similarly, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 226.5a(g)(ii) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (excluding new cash advances)”</I> when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. <I>See</I> comment 6(b)(2)(vi)-1 for guidance on the use of one balance computation name when the same balance computation method is used for all features on the account.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(2)(xiii) Available credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Right to reject the plan.</I> Creditors may use the following language to describe consumers' right to reject a plan after receiving account-opening disclosures: “You may still reject this plan, provided that you have not yet used the account or paid a fee after receiving a billing statement. If you do reject the plan, you are not responsible for any fees or charges.”
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(3) Disclosure of charges imposed as part of open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When finance charges accrue.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose a specific date when a cost that is a finance charge under § 226.4 will begin to accrue.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Grace periods.</I> In disclosing in the account agreement or disclosure statement whether or not a grace period exists, the creditor need not use any particular descriptive phrase or term. However, the descriptive phrase or term must be sufficiently similar to the disclosures provided pursuant to §§ 226.5a(b)(5) and 226.6(b)(2)(v) to satisfy a creditor's duty to provide consistent terminology under § 226.5(a)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>No finance charge imposed below certain balance.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose the fact that no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Failure to use the plan as agreed.</I> Late payment fees, over-the-limit fees, and fees for payments returned unpaid are examples of charges resulting from consumers' failure to use the plan as agreed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of fees that affect the plan.</I> Examples of charges the payment, or nonpayment, of which affects the consumer's account are:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Access to the plan.</I> Fees for using the card at the creditor's ATM to obtain a cash advance, fees to obtain additional cards including replacements for lost or stolen cards, fees to expedite delivery of cards or other credit devices, application and membership fees, and annual or other participation fees identified in § 226.4(c)(4).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> Fees for increasing the credit limit on the account, whether at the consumer's request or unilaterally by the creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Timing or method of billing or payment.</I> Fees to pay by telephone or via the Internet.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold test.</I> If the creditor is unsure whether a particular charge is a cost imposed as part of the plan, the creditor may at its option consider such charges as a cost imposed as part of the plan for purposes of the Truth in Lending Act.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees for package of services.</I> A fee to join a credit union is an example of a fee for a package of services that is not imposed as part of the plan, even if the consumer must join the credit union to apply for credit. In contrast, a membership fee is an example of a fee for a package of services that is considered to be imposed as part of a plan where the primary benefit of membership in the organization is the opportunity to apply for a credit card, and the other benefits offered (such as a newsletter or a member information hotline) are merely incidental to the credit feature.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(4) Disclosure of rates for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(4)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Range of balances.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose the range of balances:
</P>
<P>i. If only one periodic interest rate may be applied to the entire account balance.
</P>
<P>ii. If only one periodic interest rate may be applied to the entire balance for a feature (for example, cash advances), even though the balance for another feature (purchases) may be subject to two rates (a 1.5% monthly periodic interest rate on purchase balances of $0-$500, and a 1% periodic interest rate for balances above $500). In this example, the creditor must give a range of balances disclosure for the purchase feature.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(4)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> Creditors do not provide a sufficient explanation of a balance computation method by using a shorthand phrase such as “previous balance method” or the name of a balance computation method listed in § 226.5a(g). (<I>See</I> Model Clauses G-1(A) in appendix G to part 226. <I>See</I> § 226.6(b)(2)(vi) regarding balance computation descriptions in the account-opening summary.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Allocation of payments.</I> Creditors may, but need not, explain how payments and other credits are allocated to outstanding balances.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(4)(ii) Variable-rate accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate disclosures—coverage.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of open-end plans that permit the rate to change and are considered variable-rate plans include:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are tied to the rate the creditor pays on its six-month certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are tied to Treasury bill rates.
</P>
<P>C. Rate changes that are tied to changes in the creditor's commercial lending rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Examples of open-end plans that permit the rate to change and are not considered variable-rate include:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are invoked under a creditor's contract reservation to increase the rate without reference to such an index or formula (for example, a plan that simply provides that the creditor reserves the right to raise its rates).
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are triggered by a specific event such as an open-end credit plan in which the employee receives a lower rate contingent upon employment, and the rate increases upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate plan—circumstances for increase.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The following are examples that comply with the requirement to disclose circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase:
</P>
<P>A. “The Treasury bill rate increases.”
</P>
<P>B. “The Federal Reserve discount rate increases.”
</P>
<P>ii. Disclosing the frequency with which the rate may increase includes disclosing when the increase will take effect; for example:
</P>
<P>A. “An increase will take effect on the day that the Treasury bill rate increases.”
</P>
<P>B. “An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate will take effect on the first day of the creditor's billing cycle.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate plan—limitations on increase.</I> In disclosing any limitations on rate increases, limitations such as the maximum increase per year or the maximum increase over the duration of the plan must be disclosed. When there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact. Legal limits such as usury or rate ceilings under state or federal statutes or regulations need not be disclosed. Examples of limitations that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. “The rate on the plan will not exceed 25% annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>ii. “Not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of 1% increase in the annual percentage rate per year will occur.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Variable-rate plan—effects of increase.</I> Examples of effects of rate increases that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. Any requirement for additional collateral if the annual percentage rate increases beyond a specified rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Any increase in the scheduled minimum periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Discounted variable-rate plans.</I> In some variable-rate plans, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula.
</P>
<P>i. For example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the current Treasury bill rate is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent, or the creditor may disregard the index or formula and set the initial rate at 9 percent.
</P>
<P>ii. When creditors disclose in the account-opening disclosures an initial rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the disclosure should reflect:
</P>
<P>A. The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate), together with a statement of how long the initial rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>B. The current rate that would have been applied using the index or formula (also expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate); and
</P>
<P>C. The other variable-rate information required by § 226.6(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(4)(iii) Rate changes not due to index or formula.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Events that cause the initial rate to change.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Changes based on expiration of time period.</I> If the initial rate will change at the expiration of a time period, creditors that disclose the initial rate in the account-opening disclosure must identify the expiration date and the fact that the initial rate will end at that time.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Changes based on specified contract terms.</I> If the account agreement provides that the creditor may change the initial rate upon the occurrence of a specified event or events, the creditor must identify the events or events. Examples include the consumer not making the required minimum payment when due, or the termination of an employee preferred rate when the employment relationship is terminated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rate that will apply after initial rate changes.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Increased margins.</I> If the initial rate is based on an index and the rate may increase due to a change in the margin applied to the index, the creditor must disclose the increased margin. If more than one margin could apply, the creditor may disclose the highest margin.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Risk-based pricing.</I> In some plans, the amount of the rate change depends on how the creditor weighs the occurrence of events specified in the account agreement that authorize the creditor to change rates, as well as other factors. Creditors must state the increased rate that may apply. At the creditor's option, the creditor may state the possible rates as a range, or by stating only the highest rate that could be assessed. The creditor must disclose the period for which the increased rate will remain in effect, such as “until you make three timely payments,” or if there is no limitation, the fact that the increased rate may remain indefinitely.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of rate change on balances.</I> Creditors must disclose information to consumers about the balance to which the new rate will apply and the balance to which the current rate at the time of the change will apply. Card issuers subject to § 226.55 may be subject to certain restrictions on the application of increased rates to certain balances.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(5) Additional disclosures for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(5)(i) Voluntary credit insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> Under § 226.4(d), disclosures required to exclude the cost of voluntary credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage from the finance charge must be provided before the consumer agrees to the purchase of the insurance or coverage. Creditors comply with § 226.6(b)(5)(i) if they provide those disclosures in accordance with § 226.4(d). For example, if the disclosures required by § 226.4(d) are provided at application, creditors need not repeat those disclosures at account opening.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(5)(ii) Security interests.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors are not required to use specific terms to describe a security interest, or to explain the type of security or the creditor's rights with respect to the collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of property.</I> Creditors sufficiently identify collateral by type by stating, for example, <I>motor vehicle</I> or <I>household appliances.</I> (Creditors should be aware, however, that the federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) The creditor may, at its option, provide a more specific identification (for example, a model and serial number.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> If collateral for preexisting credit with the creditor will secure the plan being opened, the creditor must disclose that fact. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) The creditor need not specifically identify the collateral; a reminder such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan” is sufficient. At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional collateral.</I> If collateral is required when advances reach a certain amount, the creditor should disclose the information available at the time of the account-opening disclosures. For example, if the creditor knows that a security interest will be taken in household goods if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, the creditor should disclose accordingly. If the creditor knows that security will be required if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, but the creditor does not know what security will be required, the creditor must disclose on the initial disclosure statement that security will be required if the balance exceeds $1,000, and the creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 226.9(c) at the time the security is taken. (See comment 6(b)(5)(ii)-2.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> Security interests taken in connection with the plan must be disclosed, whether the collateral is owned by the consumer or a third party.
</P>
<P><I>6(b)(5)(iii) Statement of billing rights.</I>
</P>
<P>1. See the commentary to Model Forms G-3(A) and G-4(A).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.7—Periodic Statement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> Some plans involve a number of different features, such as purchases, cash advances, or overdraft checking. Groups of transactions subject to different finance charge terms because of the dates on which the transactions took place are treated like different features for purposes of disclosures on the periodic statements. The commentary includes additional guidance for multifeatured plans.
</P>
<P><I>7(a) Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(1) Previous balance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> If the previous balance is a credit balance, it must be disclosed in such a way so as to inform the consumer that it is a credit balance, rather than a debit balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the previous balance may be disclosed either as an aggregate balance for the account or as separate balances for each feature (for example, a previous balance for purchases and a previous balance for cash advances). If separate balances are disclosed, a total previous balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some open-end credit plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the previous balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(2) Identification of transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In identifying transactions under § 226.7(a)(2) for multifeatured plans, creditors may, for example, choose to arrange transactions by feature (such as disclosing sale transactions separately from cash advance transactions) or in some other clear manner, such as by arranging the transactions in general chronological order.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated teller machine (ATM) charges imposed by other institutions in shared or interchange systems.</I> A charge imposed on the cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system and included by the terminal-operating institution in the amount of the transaction need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(3) Credits.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification—sufficiency.</I> The creditor need not describe each credit by type (returned merchandise, rebate of finance charge, etc.)—“credit” would suffice—except if the creditor is using the periodic statement to satisfy the billing-error correction notice requirement. (See the commentary to § 226.13(e) and (f).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> A creditor may list credits relating to credit extensions (payments, rebates, etc.) together with other types of credits (such as deposits to a checking account), as long as the entries are identified so as to inform the consumer which type of credit each entry represents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date.</I> If only one date is disclosed (that is, the crediting date as required by the regulation), no further identification of that date is necessary. More than one date may be disclosed for a single entry, as long as it is clear which date represents the date on which credit was given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Totals.</I> A total of amounts credited during the billing cycle is not required.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(4) Periodic rates.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of periodic rates—whether or not actually applied.</I> Except as provided in § 226.7(a)(4)(ii), any periodic rate that may be used to compute finance charges (and its corresponding annual percentage rate) must be disclosed whether or not it is applied during the billing cycle. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer's account has both a purchase feature and a cash advance feature, the creditor must disclose the rate for each, even if the consumer only makes purchases on the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. If the rate varies (such as when it is tied to a particular index), the creditor must disclose each rate in effect during the cycle for which the statement was issued.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of periodic rates required only if imposition possible.</I> With regard to the periodic rate disclosure (and its corresponding annual percentage rate), only rates that <I>could have</I> been imposed during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement need to be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor is changing rates effective during the next billing cycle (because of a variable-rate plan), the rates required to be disclosed under § 226.7(a)(4) are only those in effect during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement. For example, if the monthly rate applied during May was 1.5%, but the creditor will increase the rate to 1.8% effective June 1, 1.5% (and its corresponding annual percentage rate) is the only required disclosure under § 226.7(a)(4) for the periodic statement reflecting the May account activity.
</P>
<P>ii. If rates applicable to a particular type of transaction changed after a certain date and the old rate is only being applied to transactions that took place prior to that date, the creditor need not continue to disclose the old rate for those consumers that have no outstanding balances to which that rate could be applied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple rates—same transaction.</I> If two or more periodic rates are applied to the same balance for the <I>same</I> type of transaction (for example, if the finance charge consists of a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the outstanding balance and a required credit life insurance component calculated at 0.1% per month on the same outstanding balance), the creditor may do either of the following:
</P>
<P>i. Disclose each periodic rate, the range of balances to which it is applicable, and the corresponding annual percentage rate for each. (For example, 1.5% monthly, 18% annual percentage rate; 0.1% monthly, 1.2% annual percentage rate.)
</P>
<P>ii. Disclose one composite periodic rate (that is, 1.6% per month) along with the applicable range of balances and the corresponding annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Corresponding annual percentage rate.</I> In disclosing the annual percentage rate that corresponds to each periodic rate, the creditor may use “corresponding annual percentage rate,” “nominal annual percentage rate,” “corresponding nominal annual percentage rate,” or similar phrases.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rate same as actual annual percentage rate.</I> When the corresponding rate is the same as the annual percentage rate disclosed under § 226.7(a)(7), the creditor need disclose only one annual percentage rate, but must use the phrase “annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Range of balances.</I> See comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-1. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(5) Balance on which finance charge computed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limitation to periodic rates.</I> Section 226.7(a)(5) only requires disclosure of the balance(s) to which a periodic rate was applied and does not apply to balances on which other kinds of finance charges (such as transaction charges) were imposed. For example, if a consumer obtains a $1,500 cash advance subject to both a 1% transaction fee and a 1% monthly periodic rate, the creditor need only disclose the balance subject to the monthly rate (which might include portions of earlier cash advances not paid off in previous cycles).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Split rates applied to balance ranges.</I> If split rates were applied to a balance because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, the creditor need not separately disclose the portions of the balance subject to such different rates since the range of balances to which the rates apply has been separately disclosed. For example, a creditor could disclose a balance of $700 for purchases even though a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the first $500, and a monthly periodic rate of 1% to the remainder. This option to disclose a combined balance does not apply when the finance charge is computed by applying the split rates to each day's balance (in contrast, for example, to applying the rates to the average daily balance). In that case, the balances must be disclosed using any of the options that are available if two or more daily rates are imposed. (<I>See</I> comment 7(a)(5)-5.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Monthly rate on average daily balance.</I> Creditors may apply a monthly periodic rate to an average daily balance.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the creditor must disclose a separate balance (or balances, as applicable) to which a periodic rate was applied for each feature or group of features subject to different periodic rates or different balance computation methods. Separate balances are not required, however, merely because a grace period is available for some features but not others. A total balance for the entire plan is optional. This does not affect how many balances the creditor must disclose—or may disclose—within each feature. (<I>See,</I> for example, comment 7(a)(5)-5.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Daily rate on daily balances.</I> i. If the finance charge is computed on the balance each day by application of one or more daily periodic rates, the balance on which the finance charge was computed may be disclosed in any of the following ways for each feature:
</P>
<P>ii. If a single daily periodic rate is imposed, the balance to which it is applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. The sum of the daily balances during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>D. The average daily balance during the billing cycle, in which case the creditor shall explain that the average daily balance is or can be multiplied by the number of days in the billing cycle and the periodic rate applied to the product to determine the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>iii. If two or more daily periodic rates may be imposed, the balances to which the rates are applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. Two or more average daily balances, each applicable to the daily periodic rates imposed for the time that those rates were in effect, as long as the creditor explains that the finance charge is or may be determined by (<I>1</I>) multiplying each of the average balances by the number of days in the billing cycle (or if the daily rate varied during the cycle, by multiplying by the number of days the applicable rate was in effect), (<I>2</I>) multiplying each of the results by the applicable daily periodic rate, and (<I>3</I>) adding these products together.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> See the commentary to 6(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Information to compute balance.</I> In connection with disclosing the finance charge balance, the creditor need not give the consumer all of the information necessary to compute the balance if that information is not otherwise required to be disclosed. For example, if current purchases are included from the date they are posted to the account, the posting date need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Non-deduction of credits.</I> The creditor need not specifically identify the total dollar amount of credits not deducted in computing the finance charge balance. Disclosure of the amount of credits not deducted is accomplished by listing the credits (§ 226.7(a)(3)) and indicating which credits will not be deducted in determining the balance (for example, “credits after the 15th of the month are not deducted in computing the finance charge.”).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Use of one balance computation method explanation when multiple balances disclosed.</I> Sometimes the creditor will disclose more than one balance to which a periodic rate was applied, even though each balance was computed using the same balance computation method. For example, if a plan involves purchases and cash advances that are subject to different rates, more than one balance must be disclosed, even though the same computation method is used for determining the balance for each feature. In these cases, one explanation of the balance computation method is sufficient. Sometimes the creditor separately discloses the portions of the balance that are subject to different rates because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, even when a combined balance disclosure would be permitted under comment 7(a)(5)-2. In these cases, one explanation of the balance computation method is also sufficient (assuming, of course, that all portions of the balance were computed using the same method).
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(6) Amount of finance charge and other charges.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(a)(6)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Total.</I> A total finance charge amount for the plan is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization—types of finance charges.</I> Each type of finance charge (such as periodic rates, transaction charges, and minimum charges) imposed during the cycle must be separately itemized; for example, disclosure of only a combined finance charge attributable to both a minimum charge and transaction charges would not be permissible. Finance charges of the same type may be disclosed, however, individually or as a total. For example, five transaction charges of $1 may be listed separately or as $5.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Itemization—different periodic rates.</I> Whether different periodic rates are applicable to different types of transactions or to different balance ranges, the creditor may give the finance charge attributable to each rate or may give a total finance charge amount. For example, if a creditor charges 1.5% per month on the first $500 of a balance and 1% per month on amounts over $500, the creditor may itemize the two components ($7.50 and $1.00) of the $8.50 charge, or may disclose $8.50.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, in disclosing the amount of the finance charge attributable to the application of periodic rates no total periodic rate disclosure for the entire plan need be given.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Finance charges not added to account.</I> A finance charge that is not included in the new balance because it is payable to a third party (such as required life insurance) must still be shown on the periodic statement as a finance charge.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Finance charges other than periodic rates.</I> See comment 6(a)(1)(iv)-1 for examples.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, no disclosure is required of finance charges that have accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Start-up fees.</I> Points, loan fees, and similar finance charges relating to the opening of the account that are paid prior to the issuance of the first periodic statement need not be disclosed on the periodic statement. If, however, these charges are financed as part of the plan, including charges that are paid out of the first advance, the charges must be disclosed as part of the finance charge on the first periodic statement. However, they need not be factored into the annual percentage rate. (<I>See</I> § 226.14(c)(3).)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(a)(6)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification.</I> In identifying any <I>other charges</I> actually imposed during the billing cycle, the type is adequately described as <I>late charge</I> or <I>membership fee,</I> for example. Similarly, <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs,</I> for example, may be used to describe charges imposed in connection with real estate transactions that are excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(7), if the same term (such as <I>closing costs</I>) was used in the initial disclosures and if the creditor chose to itemize and individually disclose the costs included in that term. Even though the taxes and filing or notary fees excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(e) are not required to be disclosed as <I>other charges</I> under § 226.6(a)(2), these charges may be included in the amount shown as <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs</I> on the periodic statement, if the charges were itemized and disclosed as part of the <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs</I> on the initial disclosure statement. (<I>See</I> comment 6(a)(2)-1 for examples of <I>other charges.</I>)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date.</I> The date of imposing or debiting <I>other charges</I> need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total.</I> Disclosure of the total amount of other charges is optional.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Itemization—types of other charges.</I> Each type of <I>other charge</I> (such as late-payment charges, over-the-credit-limit charges, and membership fees) imposed during the cycle must be separately itemized; for example, disclosure of only a total of <I>other charges</I> attributable to both an over-the-credit-limit charge and a late-payment charge would not be permissible. <I>Other charges</I> of the same type may be disclosed, however, individually or as a total. For example, three fees of $3 for providing copies related to the resolution of a billing error could be listed separately or as $9.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(7) Annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, creditors are not required to disclose an effective annual percentage rate. Creditors that state an annualized rate in addition to the corresponding annual percentage rate required by § 226.7(a)(4) must calculate that rate in accordance with § 226.14(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Labels.</I> Creditors that choose to disclose an annual percentage rate calculated under § 226.14(c) and label the figure as “annual percentage rate” must label the periodic rate expressed as an annualized rate as the “corresponding APR,” “nominal APR,” or a similar phrase as provided in comment 7(a)(4)-4. Creditors also comply with the label requirement if the rate calculated under § 226.14(c) is described as the “effective APR” or something similar. For those creditors, the periodic rate expressed as an annualized rate could be labeled “annual percentage rate,” consistent with the requirement under § 226.7(b)(4). If the two rates represent different values, creditors must label the rates differently to meet the clear and conspicuous standard under § 226.5(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(8) Grace period.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> Although the creditor is required to indicate any time period the consumer may have to pay the balance outstanding without incurring additional finance charges, no specific wording is required, so long as the language used is consistent with that used on the account-opening disclosure statement. For example, “To avoid additional finance charges, pay the new balance before ________” would suffice.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(9) Address for notice of billing errors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> The periodic statement should indicate the general purpose for the address for billing-error inquiries, although a detailed explanation or particular wording is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Telephone number.</I> A telephone number, e-mail address, or Web site location may be included, but the mailing address for billing-error inquiries, which is the required disclosure, must be clear and conspicuous. The address is deemed to be clear and conspicuous if a precautionary instruction is included that telephoning or notifying the creditor by e-mail or Web site will not preserve the consumer's billing rights, unless the creditor has agreed to treat billing error notices provided by electronic means as written notices, in which case the precautionary instruction is required only for telephoning.
</P>
<P><I>7(a)(10) Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> See comment 7(a)(1)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the new balance may be disclosed for each feature or for the plan as a whole. If separate new balances are disclosed, a total new balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the new balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<P><I>7(b) Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> Creditors offer a variety of payment plans for purchases that permit consumers to avoid interest charges if the purchase balance is paid in full by a certain date. “Deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 226.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. The following provides guidance for a deferred interest or similar plan where, for example, no interest charge is imposed on a $500 purchase made in January if the $500 balance is paid by July 31.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Annual percentage rates.</I> Under § 226.7(b)(4), creditors must disclose each annual percentage rate that may be used to compute the interest charge. Under some plans with a deferred interest or similar feature, if the deferred interest balance is not paid by a certain date, July 31 in this example, interest charges applicable to the billing cycles between the date of purchase in January and July 31 may be imposed. Annual percentage rates that may apply to the deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) if the balance is not paid in full by July 31 must appear on periodic statements for the billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31. However, if the consumer does not pay the deferred interest balance by July 31, the creditor is not required to identify, on the periodic statement disclosing the interest charge for the deferred interest balance, annual percentage rates that have been disclosed in previous billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Balances subject to periodic rates.</I> Under § 226.7(b)(5), creditors must disclose the balances subject to interest during a billing cycle. The deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) is not subject to interest for billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31 in this example. Periodic statements sent for those billing cycles should not include the deferred interest balance in the balance disclosed under § 226.7(b)(5). This amount must be separately disclosed on periodic statements and identified by a term other than the term used to identify the balance disclosed under § 226.7(b)(5) (such as “deferred interest balance”). During any billing cycle in which an interest charge on the deferred interest balance is debited to the account, the balance disclosed under § 226.7(b)(5) should include the deferred interest balance for that billing cycle.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Amount of interest charge.</I> Under § 226.7(b)(6)(ii), creditors must disclose interest charges imposed during a billing cycle. For some deferred interest purchases, the creditor may impose interest from the date of purchase if the deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) is not paid in full by July 31 in this example, but otherwise will not impose interest for billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31. Periodic statements for billing cycles preceding July 31 in this example should not include in the interest charge disclosed under § 226.7(b)(6)(ii) the amounts a consumer may owe if the deferred interest balance is not paid in full by July 31. In this example, the February periodic statement should not identify as interest charges interest attributable to the $500 January purchase. This amount must be separately disclosed on periodic statements and identified by a term other than “interest charge” (such as “contingent interest charge” or “deferred interest charge”). The interest charge on a deferred interest balance should be reflected on the periodic statement under § 226.7(b)(6)(ii) for the billing cycle in which the interest charge is debited to the account.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Due date to avoid obligation for finance charges under a deferred interest or similar program.</I> Section 226.7(b)(14) requires disclosure on periodic statements of the date by which any outstanding balance subject to a deferred interest or similar program must be paid in full in order to avoid the obligation for finance charges on such balance. This disclosure must appear on the front of any page of each periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period beginning with the first periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period that reflects the deferred interest or similar transaction.
</P>
<P><I>7(b)(1) Previous balance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> If the previous balance is a credit balance, it must be disclosed in such a way so as to inform the consumer that it is a credit balance, rather than a debit balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the previous balance may be disclosed either as an aggregate balance for the account or as separate balances for each feature (for example, a previous balance for purchases and a previous balance for cash advances). If separate balances are disclosed, a total previous balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some open-end credit plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the previous balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<P><I>7(b)(2) Identification of transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> Creditors may, but are not required to, arrange transactions by feature (such as disclosing purchase transactions separately from cash advance transactions). Pursuant to § 226.7(b)(6), however, creditors must group all fees and all interest separately from transactions and may not disclose any fees or interest charges with transactions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated teller machine (ATM) charges imposed by other institutions in shared or interchange systems.</I> A charge imposed on the cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system and included by the terminal-operating institution in the amount of the transaction need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P><I>7(b)(3) Credits.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification—sufficiency.</I> The creditor need not describe each credit by type (returned merchandise, rebate of finance charge, <I>etc.</I>)—“credit” would suffice—except if the creditor is using the periodic statement to satisfy the billing-error correction notice requirement. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.13(e) and (f).) Credits may be distinguished from transactions in any way that is clear and conspicuous, for example, by use of debit and credit columns or by use of plus signs and/or minus signs.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date.</I> If only one date is disclosed (that is, the crediting date as required by the regulation), no further identification of that date is necessary. More than one date may be disclosed for a single entry, as long as it is clear which date represents the date on which credit was given.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Totals.</I> A total of amounts credited during the billing cycle is not required.
</P>
<P><I>7(b)(4) Periodic rates.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of periodic interest rates—whether or not actually applied.</I> Except as provided in § 226.7(b)(4)(ii), any periodic interest rate that may be used to compute finance charges, expressed as and labeled “Annual Percentage Rate,” must be disclosed whether or not it is applied during the billing cycle. For example
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer's account has both a purchase feature and a cash advance feature, the creditor must disclose the annual percentage rate for each, even if the consumer only makes purchases on the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. If the annual percentage rate varies (such as when it is tied to a particular index), the creditor must disclose each annual percentage rate in effect during the cycle for which the statement was issued.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of periodic interest rates required only if imposition possible.</I> With regard to the periodic interest rate disclosure (and its corresponding annual percentage rate), only rates that could have been imposed during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement need to be disclosed. For example
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor is changing annual percentage rates effective during the next billing cycle (either because it is changing terms or because of a variable-rate plan), the annual percentage rates required to be disclosed under § 226.7(b)(4) are only those in effect during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement. For example, if the annual percentage rate applied during May was 18%, but the creditor will increase the rate to 21% effective June 1, 18% is the only required disclosure under § 226.7(b)(4) for the periodic statement reflecting the May account activity.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer has an overdraft line that might later be expanded upon the consumer's request to include secured advances, the rates for the secured advance feature need not be given until such time as the consumer has requested and received access to the additional feature.
</P>
<P>iii. If annual percentage rates applicable to a particular type of transaction changed after a certain date and the old rate is only being applied to transactions that took place prior to that date, the creditor need not continue to disclose the old rate for those consumers that have no outstanding balances to which that rate could be applied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple rates—same transaction.</I> If two or more periodic rates are applied to the same balance for the same type of transaction (for example, if the interest charge consists of a monthly periodic interest rate of 1.5% applied to the outstanding balance and a required credit life insurance component calculated at 0.1% per month on the same outstanding balance), creditors must disclose the periodic interest rate, expressed as an 18% annual percentage rate and the range of balances to which it is applicable. Costs attributable to the credit life insurance component must be disclosed as a fee under § 226.7(b)(6)(iii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees.</I> Creditors that identify fees in accordance with § 226.7(b)(6)(iii) need not identify the periodic rate at which a fee would accrue if the fee remains unpaid. For example, assume a fee is imposed for a late payment in the previous cycle and that the fee, unpaid, would be included in the purchases balance and accrue interest at the rate for purchases. The creditor need not separately disclose that the purchase rate applies to the portion of the purchases balance attributable to the unpaid fee.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Ranges of balances. See</I> comment 6(b)(4)(i)(B)-1. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Deferred interest transactions. See</I> comment 7(b)-1.i.
</P>
<P><I>7(b)(5) Balance on which finance charge computed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Split rates applied to balance ranges.</I> If split rates were applied to a balance because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, the creditor need not separately disclose the portions of the balance subject to such different rates since the range of balances to which the rates apply has been separately disclosed. For example, a creditor could disclose a balance of $700 for purchases even though a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the first $500, and a monthly periodic rate of 1% to the remainder. This option to disclose a combined balance does not apply when the interest charge is computed by applying the split rates to each day's balance (in contrast, for example, to applying the rates to the average daily balance). In that case, the balances must be disclosed using any of the options that are available if two or more daily rates are imposed. (<I>See</I> comment 7(b)(5)-4.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Monthly rate on average daily balance.</I> Creditors may apply a monthly periodic rate to an average daily balance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the creditor must disclose a separate balance (or balances, as applicable) to which a periodic rate was applied for each feature. Separate balances are not required, however, merely because a grace period is available for some features but not others. A total balance for the entire plan is optional. This does not affect how many balances the creditor must disclose—or may disclose—within each feature. (See, for example, comments 7(b)(5)-4 and 7(b)(4)-5.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Daily rate on daily balance.</I> i. If a finance charge is computed on the balance each day by application of one or more daily periodic interest rates, the balance on which the interest charge was computed may be disclosed in any of the following ways for each feature
</P>
<P>ii. If a single daily periodic interest rate is imposed, the balance to which it is applicable may be stated as
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. The sum of the daily balances during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>D. The average daily balance during the billing cycle, in which case the creditor may, at its option, explain that the average daily balance is or can be multiplied by the number of days in the billing cycle and the periodic rate applied to the product to determine the amount of interest.
</P>
<P>iii. If two or more daily periodic interest rates may be imposed, the balances to which the rates are applicable may be stated as
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. Two or more average daily balances, each applicable to the daily periodic interest rates imposed for the time that those rates were in effect. The creditor may, at its option, explain that interest is or may be determined by (<I>1</I>) multiplying each of the average balances by the number of days in the billing cycle (or if the daily rate varied during the cycle, by multiplying by the number of days the applicable rate was in effect), (<I>2</I>) multiplying each of the results by the applicable daily periodic rate, and (<I>3</I>) adding these products together.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Information to compute balance.</I> In connection with disclosing the interest charge balance, the creditor need not give the consumer all of the information necessary to compute the balance if that information is not otherwise required to be disclosed. For example, if current purchases are included from the date they are posted to the account, the posting date need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Non-deduction of credits.</I> The creditor need not specifically identify the total dollar amount of credits not deducted in computing the finance charge balance. Disclosure of the amount of credits not deducted is accomplished by listing the credits (§ 226.7(b)(3)) and indicating which credits will not be deducted in determining the balance (for example, “credits after the 15th of the month are not deducted in computing the interest charge.”).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Use of one balance computation method explanation when multiple balances disclosed.</I> Sometimes the creditor will disclose more than one balance to which a periodic rate was applied, even though each balance was computed using the same balance computation method. For example, if a plan involves purchases and cash advances that are subject to different rates, more than one balance must be disclosed, even though the same computation method is used for determining the balance for each feature. In these cases, one explanation or a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is sufficient. Sometimes the creditor separately discloses the portions of the balance that are subject to different rates because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, even when a combined balance disclosure would be permitted under comment 7(b)(5)-1. In these cases, one explanation or a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is also sufficient (assuming, of course, that all portions of the balance were computed using the same method). In these cases, a creditor may use an appropriate name listed in § 226.5a(g) (<I>e.g.,</I> “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>”) as the single identification of the name of the balance computation method applicable to all features, even though the name only refers to purchases. For example, if a creditor uses the average daily balance method including new transactions for all features, a creditor may use the name “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>” listed in § 226.5a(g)(i) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the balance computation method for all features. As an alternative, in this situation, a creditor may revise the balance computation names listed in § 226.5a(g) to refer more broadly to all new credit transactions, such as using the language “new transactions” or “current transactions” (<I>e.g.,</I> “<I>average daily balance (including new transactions)</I>”), rather than simply referring to new purchases, when the same method is used to calculate the balances for all features of the account.
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<P>8. <I>Use of balance computation names in § 226.5a(g) for balances other than purchases.</I> The names of the balance computation methods listed in § 226.5a(g) describe balance computation methods for purchases. When a creditor is disclosing the name of the balance computation methods separately for each feature, in using the names listed in § 226.5a(g) to satisfy the requirements of § 226.7(b)(5) for features other than purchases, a creditor must revise the names listed in § 226.5a(g) to refer to the other features. For example, when disclosing the name of the balance computation method applicable to cash advances, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 226.5a(g)(i) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (including new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. Similarly, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 226.5a(g)(ii) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (excluding new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. <I>See</I> comment 7(b)(5)-7 for guidance on the use of one balance computation method explanation or name when multiple balances are disclosed.
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<P><I>7(b)(6) Charges imposed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of charges. See</I> commentary to § 226.6(b)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees.</I> Costs attributable to periodic rates other than interest charges shall be disclosed as a fee. For example, if a consumer obtains credit life insurance that is calculated at 0.1% per month on an outstanding balance and a monthly interest rate of 1.5% applies to the same balance, the creditor must disclose the dollar cost attributable to interest as an “interest charge” and the credit insurance cost as a “fee.”
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<P>3. <I>Total fees and interest charged for calendar year to date.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Monthly statements.</I> Some creditors send monthly statements but the statement periods do not coincide with the calendar month. For creditors sending monthly statements, the following comply with the requirement to provide calendar year-to-date totals.
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<P>A. A creditor may disclose calendar-year-to-date totals at the end of the calendar year by separately aggregating finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates and fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during January and finishing with the period that begins during December. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering December 10, 2011 through January 9, 2012, may disclose the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed from January 10, 2011, through January 9, 2012. Alternatively, the creditor could provide a statement for the cycle ending January 9, 2012, showing the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed January 1, 2011, through December 31, 2011.
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<P>B. A creditor may disclose calendar-year-to-date totals at the end of the calendar year by separately aggregating finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates and fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during December and finishing with the period that begins during November. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering November 10, 2011 through December 9, 2011, may disclose the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed from December 10, 2010, through December 9, 2011.
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<P>ii. <I>Quarterly statements.</I> Creditors issuing quarterly statements may apply the guidance set forth for monthly statements to comply with the requirement to provide calendar year-to-date totals on quarterly statements.
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<P>4. <I>Minimum charge in lieu of interest.</I> A minimum charge imposed if a charge would otherwise have been determined by applying a periodic rate to a balance except for the fact that such charge is smaller than the minimum must be disclosed as a fee. For example, assume a creditor imposes a minimum charge of $1.50 in lieu of interest if the calculated interest for a billing period is less than that minimum charge. If the interest calculated on a consumer's account for a particular billing period is 50 cents, the minimum charge of $1.50 would apply. In this case, the entire $1.50 would be disclosed as a fee; the periodic statement would reflect the $1.50 as a fee, and $0 in interest.
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<P>5. <I>Adjustments to year-to-date totals.</I> In some cases, a creditor may provide a statement for the current period reflecting that fees or interest charges imposed during a previous period were waived or reversed and credited to the account. Creditors may, but are not required to, reflect the adjustment in the year-to-date totals, nor, if an adjustment is made, to provide an explanation about the reason for the adjustment. Such adjustments should not affect the total fees or interest charges imposed for the current statement period.
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<P>6. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> An institution that acquires an account or plan must include, as applicable, fees and charges imposed on the account or plan prior to the acquisition in the aggregate disclosures provided under § 226.7(b)(6) for the acquired account or plan. Alternatively, the institution may provide separate totals reflecting activity prior and subsequent to the account or plan acquisition. For example, a creditor that acquires an account or plan on August 12 of a given calendar year may provide one total for the period from January 1 to August 11 and a separate total for the period beginning on August 12.
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<P>7. <I>Account upgrades.</I> A creditor that upgrades, or otherwise changes, a consumer's plan to a different open-end credit plan must include, as applicable, fees and charges imposed for that portion of the calendar year prior to the upgrade or change in the consumer's plan in the aggregate disclosures provided pursuant to § 226.7(b)(6) for the new plan. For example, assume a consumer has incurred $125 in fees for the calendar year to date for a retail credit card account, which is then replaced by a cobranded credit card account also issued by the creditor. In this case, the creditor must reflect the $125 in fees incurred prior to the replacement of the retail credit card account in the calendar year-to-date totals provided for the cobranded credit card account. Alternatively, the institution may provide two separate totals reflecting activity prior and subsequent to the plan upgrade or change.
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<P><I>7(b)(7) Change-in-terms and increased penalty rate summary for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Location of summary tables.</I> If a change-in-terms notice required by § 226.9(c)(2) is provided on or with a periodic statement, a tabular summary of key changes must appear on the front of the statement. Similarly, if a notice of a rate increase due to delinquency or default or as a penalty required by § 226.9(g)(1) is provided on or with a periodic statement, information required to be provided about the increase, presented in a table, must appear on the front of the statement.
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<P><I>7(b)(8) Grace period.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> In describing the grace period, the language used must be consistent with that used on the account-opening disclosure statement. (<I>See</I> § 226.5(a)(2)(i).)
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<P>2. <I>Deferred interest transactions. See</I> comment 7(b)-1.iv.
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<P>3. <I>Limitation on the imposition of finance charges in § 226.54.</I> Section 226.7(b)(8) does not require a card issuer to disclose the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 226.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period.
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<P><I>7(b)(9) Address for notice of billing errors.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> The periodic statement should indicate the general purpose for the address for billing-error inquiries, although a detailed explanation or particular wording is not required.
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<P>2. <I>Telephone number.</I> A telephone number, e-mail address, or Web site location may be included, but the mailing address for billing-error inquiries, which is the required disclosure, must be clear and conspicuous. The address is deemed to be clear and conspicuous if a precautionary instruction is included that telephoning or notifying the creditor by e-mail or Web site will not preserve the consumer's billing rights, unless the creditor has agreed to treat billing error notices provided by electronic means as written notices, in which case the precautionary instruction is required only for telephoning.
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<P><I>7(b)(10) Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Credit balances. See</I> comment 7(b)(1)-1.
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<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the new balance may be disclosed for each feature or for the plan as a whole. If separate new balances are disclosed, a total new balance is optional.
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<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the new balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
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<P><I>7(b)(11) Due date; late payment costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Informal periods affecting late payments.</I> Although the terms of the account agreement may provide that a card issuer may assess a late payment fee if a payment is not received by a certain date, the card issuer may have an informal policy or practice that delays the assessment of the late payment fee for payments received a brief period of time after the date upon which a card issuer has the contractual right to impose the fee. A card issuer must disclose the due date according to the legal obligation between the parties, and need not consider the end of an informal “courtesy period” as the due date under § 226.7(b)(11).
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<P>2. <I>Assessment of late payment fees.</I> Some state or other laws require that a certain number of days must elapse following a due date before a late payment fee may be imposed. In addition, a card issuer may be restricted by the terms of the account agreement from imposing a late payment fee until a payment is late for a certain number of days following a due date. For example, assume a payment is due on March 10 and the account agreement or state law provides that a late payment fee cannot be assessed before March 21. A card issuer must disclose the due date under the terms of the legal obligation (March 10 in this example), and not a date different than the due date, such as when the card issuer is restricted by the account agreement or state or other law from imposing a late payment fee unless a payment is late for a certain number of days following the due date (March 21 in this example). Consumers' rights under state law to avoid the imposition of late payment fees during a specified period following a due date are unaffected by the disclosure requirement. In this example, the card issuer would disclose March 10 as the due date for purposes of § 226.7(b)(11), but could not, under state law, assess a late payment fee before March 21.
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<P>3. <I>Fee or rate triggered by multiple events.</I> If a late payment fee or penalty rate is triggered after multiple events, such as two late payments in six months, the card issuer may, but is not required to, disclose the late payment and penalty rate disclosure each month. The disclosures must be included on any periodic statement for which a late payment could trigger the late payment fee or penalty rate, such as after the consumer made one late payment in this example. For example, if a cardholder has already made one late payment, the disclosure must be on each statement for the following five billing cycles.
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<P>4. <I>Range of late fees or penalty rates.</I> A card issuer that imposes a range of late payment fees or rates on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan may state the highest fee or rate along with an indication lower fees or rates could be imposed. For example, a phrase indicating the late payment fee could be “up to $29” complies with this requirement.
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<P>5. <I>Penalty rate in effect.</I> If the highest penalty rate has previously been triggered on an account, the card issuer may, but is not required to, delete the amount of the penalty rate and the warning that the rate may be imposed for an untimely payment, as not applicable. Alternatively, the card issuer may, but is not required to, modify the language to indicate that the penalty rate has been increased due to previous late payments (if applicable).
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<P>6. <I>Same day each month.</I> The requirement that the due date be the same day each month means that the due date must generally be the same numerical date. For example, a consumer's due date could be the 25th of every month. In contrast, a due date that is the same relative date but not numerical date each month, such as the third Tuesday of the month, generally would not comply with this requirement. However, a consumer's due date may be the last day of each month, even though that date will not be the same numerical date. For example, if a consumer's due date is the last day of each month, it will fall on February 28th (or February 29th in a leap year) and on August 31st.
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<P>7. <I>Change in due date.</I> A creditor may adjust a consumer's due date from time to time provided that the new due date will be the same numerical date each month on an ongoing basis. For example, a creditor may choose to honor a consumer's request to change from a due date that is the 20th of each month to the 5th of each month, or may choose to change a consumer's due date from time to time for operational reasons. See comment 2(a)(4)-3 for guidance on transitional billing cycles.
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<P>8. <I>Billing cycles longer than one month.</I> The requirement that the due date be the same day each month does not prohibit billing cycles that are two or three months, provided that the due date for each billing cycle is on the same numerical date of the month. For example, a creditor that establishes two-month billing cycles could send a consumer periodic statements disclosing due dates of January 25, March 25, and May 25.
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<P>9. <I>Payment due date when the creditor does not accept or receive payments by mail.</I> If the due date in a given month falls on a day on which the creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail and the creditor is required to treat a payment received the next business day as timely pursuant to § 226.10(d), the creditor must disclose the due date according to the legal obligation between the parties, not the date as of which the creditor is permitted to treat the payment as late. For example, assume that the consumer's due date is the 4th of every month and the creditor does not accept or receive payments by mail on Thursday, July 4. Pursuant to § 226.10(d), the creditor may not treat a mailed payment received on the following business day, Friday, July 5, as late for any purpose. The creditor must nonetheless disclose July 4 as the due date on the periodic statement and may not disclose a July 5 due date.
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<P><I>7(b)(12) Repayment disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rounding.</I> In disclosing on the periodic statement the minimum payment total cost estimate, the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, and the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months under § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) as applicable, a card issuer, at its option, must either round these disclosures to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent. Nonetheless, an issuer's rounding for all of these disclosures must be consistent. An issuer may round all of these disclosures to the nearest whole dollar when disclosing them on the periodic statement, or may round all of these disclosures to the nearest cent. An issuer may not, however, round some of the disclosures to the nearest whole dollar, while rounding other disclosures to the nearest cent.
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<P><I>Paragraph 7(b)(12)(i)(F).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed on the periodic statement is three years or less.</I> Section 226.7(b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>2</I>)(i) provides that a credit card issuer is not required to provide the disclosures related to repayment in 36 months if the minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed under § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B) after rounding is 3 years or less. For example, if the minimum payment repayment estimate is 2 years 6 months to 3 years 5 months, issuers would be required under § 226.7(b)(12)(i)(B) to disclose that it would take 3 years to pay off the balance in full if making only the minimum payment. In these cases, an issuer would not be required to disclose the 36-month disclosures on the periodic statement because the minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed to the consumer on the periodic statement (after rounding) is 3 years or less.
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<P><I>7(b)(12)(iv) Provision of information about credit counseling services.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Approved organizations.</I> Section 226.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) requires card issuers to provide information regarding at least three organizations that have been approved by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 111(a)(1) to provide credit counseling services in, at the card issuer's option, either the state in which the billing address for the account is located or the state specified by the consumer. A card issuer does not satisfy the requirements in § 226.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) by providing information regarding providers that have been approved pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 111(a)(2) to offer personal financial management courses.
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<P>2. <I>Information regarding approved organizations.</I> i. <I>Provision of information obtained from United States Trustee or bankruptcy administrator.</I> A card issuer complies with the requirements of § 226.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) if, through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii), it provides the consumer with information obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator, such as information obtained from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee. Section 226.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) does not require a card issuer to provide information that is not available from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. If, for example, the Web site address for an organization approved by the United States Trustee is not available from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee, a card issuer is not required to provide a Web site address for that organization. However, § 226.7(b)(12)(iv)(B) requires the card issuer to, at least annually, update the information it provides for consistency with the information provided by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator.
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<P>ii. <I>Provision of information consistent with request of approved organization.</I> If requested by an approved organization, a card issuer may at its option provide, in addition to the name of the organization obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator, another name used by that organization through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii). In addition, if requested by an approved organization, a card issuer may at its option provide through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) a street address, telephone number, or Web site address for the organization that is different than the street address, telephone number, or Web site address obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. However, if requested by an approved organization, a card issuer must not provide information regarding that organization through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii).
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<P>iii. <I>Information regarding approved organizations that provide credit counseling services in a language other than English.</I> A card issuer may at its option provide through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) information regarding approved organizations that provide credit counseling services in languages other than English. In the alternative, a card issuer may at its option state that such information is available from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee. Disclosing this Web site address does not by itself constitute a statement that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee for purposes of comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-2.iv.
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<P>iv. <I>Statements regarding approval by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator.</I> Section 226.7(b)(12)(iv) does not require a card issuer to disclose through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. However, if a card issuer chooses to make such a disclosure, § 226.7(b)(12)(iv) requires that the card issuer also disclose that
</P>
<P>A. The United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator has determined that the organizations meet the minimum requirements for nonprofit pre-bankruptcy budget and credit counseling;
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<P>B. The organizations may provide other credit counseling services that have not been reviewed by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator; and
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<P>C. The United States Trustee or the bankruptcy administrator does not endorse or recommend any particular organization.
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<P>3. <I>Automated response systems or devices.</I> At their option, card issuers may use toll-free telephone numbers that connect consumers to automated systems, such as an interactive voice response system, through which consumers may obtain the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv) by inputting information using a touch-tone telephone or similar device.
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<P>4. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> A card issuer may provide a toll-free telephone number that is designed to handle customer service calls generally, so long as the option to receive the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv) is prominently disclosed to the consumer. For automated systems, the option to receive the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv) is prominently disclosed to the consumer if it is listed as one of the options in the first menu of options given to the consumer, such as “Press or say ‘3’ if you would like information about credit counseling services.” If the automated system permits callers to select the language in which the call is conducted and in which information is provided, the menu to select the language may precede the menu with the option to receive information about accessing credit counseling services.
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<P>5. <I>Third parties.</I> At their option, card issuers may use a third party to establish and maintain a toll-free telephone number for use by the issuer to provide the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv).
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<P>6. <I>Web site address.</I> When making the repayment disclosures on the periodic statement pursuant to § 226.7(b)(12), a card issuer at its option may also include a reference to a Web site address (in addition to the toll-free telephone number) where its customers may obtain the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv), so long as the information provided on the Web site complies with § 226.7(b)(12)(iv). The Web site address disclosed must take consumers directly to the Web page where information about accessing credit counseling may be obtained. In the alternative, the card issuer may disclose the Web site address for the Web page operated by the United States Trustee where consumers may obtain information about approved credit counseling organizations. Disclosing this Web site address does not by itself constitute a statement that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee for purposes of comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-2.iv.
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<P>7. <I>Advertising or marketing information.</I> If a consumer requests information about credit counseling services, the card issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials to the consumer (except for providing the name of the issuer) prior to providing the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv). Educational materials that do not solicit business are not considered advertisements or marketing materials for this purpose. Examples
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<P>i. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> As described in comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-4, an issuer may provide a toll-free telephone number that is designed to handle customer service calls generally, so long as the option to receive the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv) through that toll-free telephone number is prominently disclosed to the consumer. Once the consumer selects the option to receive the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv), the issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials to the consumer (except for providing the name of the issuer) prior to providing the required information.
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<P>ii. <I>Web page.</I> If the issuer discloses a link to a Web site address as part of the disclosures pursuant to comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-6, the issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials (except for providing the name of the issuer) on the Web page accessed by the address prior to providing the information required by § 226.7(b)(12)(iv).
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<P><I>7(b)(12)(v) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Billing cycle where paying the minimum payment due for that billing cycle will pay the outstanding balance on the account for that billing cycle.</I> Under § 226.7(b)(12)(v)(C), a card issuer is exempt from the repayment disclosure requirements set forth in § 226.7(b)(12) for a particular billing cycle where paying the minimum payment due for that billing cycle will pay the outstanding balance on the account for that billing cycle. For example, if the entire outstanding balance on an account for a particular billing cycle is $20 and the minimum payment is $20, an issuer would not need to comply with the repayment disclosure requirements for that particular billing cycle. In addition, this exemption would apply to a charged-off account where payment of the entire account balance is due immediately.
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<P><I>7(b)(13) Format requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Combined deposit account and credit account statements.</I> Some financial institutions provide information about deposit account and open-end credit account activity on one periodic statement. For purposes of providing disclosures on the front of the first page of the periodic statement pursuant to § 226.7(b)(13), the first page of such a combined statement shall be the page on which credit transactions first appear.
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<HD2>Section 226.8—Identifying Transactions on Periodic Statements
</HD2>
<P><I>8(a) Sale credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Sale credit.</I> The term “sale credit” refers to a purchase in which the consumer uses a credit card or otherwise directly accesses an open-end line of credit (see comment 8(b)-1 if access is by means of a check) to obtain goods or services from a merchant, whether or not the merchant is the card issuer or creditor. “Sale credit” includes:
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<P>i. The purchase of funds-transfer services (such as a wire transfer) from an intermediary.
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<P>ii. The purchase of services from the card issuer or creditor. For the purchase of services that are costs imposed as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3), card issuers and creditors comply with the requirements for identifying transactions under this section by disclosing the fees in accordance with the requirements of § 226.7(b)(6). For the purchases of services that are not costs imposed as part of the plan, card issuers and creditors may, at their option, identify transactions under this section or in accordance with the requirements of § 226.7(b)(6).
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<P>2. <I>Amount—transactions not billed in full.</I> If sale transactions are not billed in full on any single statement, but are billed periodically in precomputed installments, the first periodic statement reflecting the transaction must show either the full amount of the transaction together with the date the transaction actually took place; or the amount of the first installment that was debited to the account together with the date of the transaction or the date on which the first installment was debited to the account. In any event, subsequent periodic statements should reflect each installment due, together with either any other identifying information required by § 226.8(a) (such as the seller's name and address in a three-party situation) or other appropriate identifying information relating the transaction to the first billing. The debiting date for the particular installment, or the date the transaction took place, may be used as the date of the transaction on these subsequent statements.
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<P>3. <I>Date—when a transaction takes place.</I>
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<P>i. If the consumer conducts the transaction in person, the date of the transaction is the calendar date on which the consumer made the purchase or order, or secured the advance.
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<P>ii. For transactions billed to the account on an ongoing basis (other than installments to pay a precomputed amount), the date of the transaction is the date on which the amount is debited to the account. This might include, for example, monthly insurance premiums.
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<P>iii. For mail, Internet, or telephone orders, a creditor may disclose as the transaction date either the invoice date, the debiting date, or the date the order was placed by telephone or via the Internet.
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<P>iv. In a foreign transaction, the debiting date may be considered the transaction date.
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<P>4. <I>Date—sufficiency of description.</I>
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<P>i. If the creditor discloses only the date of the transaction, the creditor need not identify it as the “transaction date.” If the creditor discloses more than one date (for example, the transaction date and the posting date), the creditor must identify each.
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<P>ii. The month and day sufficiently identify the transaction date, unless the posting of the transaction is delayed so long that the year is needed for a clear disclosure to the consumer.
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<P>5. <I>Same or related persons.</I> i. For purposes of identifying transactions, the term <I>same or related persons</I> refers to, for example:
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<P>A. Franchised or licensed sellers of a creditor's product or service.
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<P>B. Sellers who assign or sell open-end sales accounts to a creditor or arrange for such credit under a plan that allows the consumer to use the credit only in transactions with that seller.
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<P>ii. A seller is not related to the creditor merely because the seller and the creditor have an agreement authorizing the seller to honor the creditor's credit card.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Brief identification—sufficiency of description.</I> The “brief identification” provision in § 226.8(a)(1)(i) requires a designation that will enable the consumer to reconcile the periodic statement with the consumer's own records. In determining the sufficiency of the description, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. While item-by-item descriptions are not necessary, reasonable precision is required. For example, “merchandise,” “miscellaneous,” “second-hand goods,” or “promotional items” would not suffice.
</P>
<P>ii. A reference to a department in a sales establishment that accurately conveys the identification of the types of property or services available in the department is sufficient—for example, “jewelry,” or “sporting goods.”
</P>
<P>iii. A number or symbol that is related to an identification list printed elsewhere on the statement that reasonably identifies the transaction with the creditor is sufficient.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Seller's name—sufficiency of description.</I> The requirement contemplates that the seller's name will appear on the periodic statement in essentially the same form as it appears on transaction documents provided to the consumer at the time of the sale. The seller's name may also be disclosed as, for example:
</P>
<P>i. A more complete spelling of the name that was alphabetically abbreviated on the receipt or other credit document.
</P>
<P>ii. An alphabetical abbreviation of the name on the periodic statement even if the name appears in a more complete spelling on the receipt or other credit document. Terms that merely indicate the form of a business entity, such as “Inc.,” “Co.,” or “Ltd.,” may always be omitted.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Location of transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>i. If the seller has multiple stores or branches within a city, the creditor need not identify the specific branch at which the sale occurred.
</P>
<P>ii. When no meaningful address is available because the consumer did not make the purchase at any fixed location of the seller, the creditor may omit the address, or may provide some other identifying designation, such as “aboard plane,” “ABC Airways Flight,” “customer's home,” “telephone order,” “Internet order” or “mail order.”
</P>
<P><I>8(b) Nonsale credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nonsale credit.</I> The term “nonsale credit” refers to any form of loan credit including, for example:
</P>
<P>i. A cash advance.
</P>
<P>ii. An advance on a credit plan that is accessed by overdrafts on a checking account.
</P>
<P>iii. The use of a “supplemental credit device” in the form of a check or draft or the use of the overdraft credit plan accessed by a debit card, even if such use is in connection with a purchase of goods or services.
</P>
<P>iv. Miscellaneous debits to remedy mispostings, returned checks, and similar entries.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount—overdraft credit plans.</I> If credit is extended under an overdraft credit plan tied to a checking account or by means of a debit card tied to an overdraft credit plan:
</P>
<P>i. The amount to be disclosed is that of the credit extension, not the face amount of the check or the total amount of the debit/credit transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor may disclose the amount of the credit extensions on a cumulative daily basis, rather than the amount attributable to each check or each use of the debit card that accesses the credit plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date of transaction.</I> See comment 8(a)-4.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nonsale transaction—sufficiency of identification.</I> The creditor sufficiently identifies a nonsale transaction by describing the type of advance it represents, such as cash advance, loan, overdraft loan, or any readily understandable trade name for the credit program.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.9—Subsequent Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>9(a) Furnishing statement of billing rights.</I>
</P>
<P><I>9(a)(1) Annual statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The creditor may provide the annual billing rights statement:
</P>
<P>i. By sending it in one billing period per year to each consumer that gets a periodic statement for that period; or
</P>
<P>ii. By sending a copy to all of its accountholders sometime during the calendar year but not necessarily all in one billing period (for example, sending the annual notice in connection with renewal cards or when imposing annual membership fees).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See the commentary to Model Forms G-3 and G-3(A) in appendix G to part 226.
</P>
<P><I>9(a)(2) Alternative summary statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Changing from long-form to short form statement and vice versa.</I> If the creditor has been sending the long-form annual statement, and subsequently decides to use the alternative summary statement, the first summary statement must be sent no later than 12 months after the last long-form statement was sent. Conversely, if the creditor wants to switch to the long-form, the first long-form statement must be sent no later than 12 months after the last summary statement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See the commentary to Model Forms G-4 and G-4(A) in appendix G to part 226.
</P>
<P><I>9(b) Disclosures for supplemental credit access devices and additional features.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit access device—examples. Credit access device</I> includes, for example, a blank check, payee-designated check, blank draft or order, or authorization form for issuance of a check; it does not include a check issued payable to a consumer representing loan proceeds or the disbursement of a cash advance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit account feature—examples.</I> A new credit account <I>feature</I> would include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The addition of overdraft checking to an existing account (although the regular checks that could trigger the overdraft feature are not themselves “devices”).
</P>
<P>ii. The option to use an existing credit card to secure cash advances, when previously the card could only be used for purchases.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Different finance charge terms.</I> Except as provided in § 226.9(b)(3) for checks that access a credit card account, if the finance charge terms are different from those previously disclosed, the creditor may satisfy the requirement to give the finance charge terms either by giving a complete set of new account-opening disclosures reflecting the terms of the added device or feature or by giving only the finance charge disclosures for the added device or feature.
</P>
<P><I>9(b)(3) Checks that access a credit card account.</I>
</P>
<P><I>9(b)(3)(i) Disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Front of the page containing the checks.</I> The following would comply with the requirement that the tabular disclosures provided pursuant to § 226.9(b)(3) appear on the front of the page containing the checks
</P>
<P>i. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of the first page on which checks appear, for an offer where checks are provided on multiple pages;
</P>
<P>ii. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of a mini-book or accordion booklet containing the checks; or
</P>
<P>iii. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of the solicitation letter, when the checks are printed on the front of the same page as the solicitation letter even if the checks can be separated by the consumer from the solicitation letter using perforations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Combined disclosures for checks and other transactions subject to the same terms.</I> A card issuer may include in the tabular disclosure provided pursuant to § 226.9(b)(3) disclosures regarding the terms offered on non-check transactions, provided that such transactions are subject to the same terms that are required to be disclosed pursuant to § 226.9(b)(3)(i) for the checks that access a credit card account. However, a card issuer may not include in the table information regarding additional terms that are not required disclosures for checks that access a credit card account pursuant to § 226.9(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(b)(3)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Grace period.</I> A creditor may not disclose under § 226.9(b)(3)(i)(D) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 226.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some creditors may offer a grace period on credit extended by the use of an access check under which interest will not be charged on the check transactions if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 226.9(b)(3)(i)(D) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on check transactions if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on check transactions under which interest may be charged on check transactions even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 226.9(b)(3)(i)(D) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period. Creditors may use the following language to describe that no grace period on check transactions is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on these checks on the transaction date.”
</P>
<P>9(c) Change in terms.
</P>
<P><I>9(c) Change in terms.</I>
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(1) Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Changes initially disclosed.</I> No notice of a change in terms need be given if the specific change is set forth initially, such as: rate increases under a properly disclosed variable-rate plan, a rate increase that occurs when an employee has been under a preferential rate agreement and terminates employment, or an increase that occurs when the consumer has been under an agreement to maintain a certain balance in a savings account in order to keep a particular rate and the account balance falls below the specified minimum. The rules in § 226.5b(f) relating to home-equity plans limit the ability of a creditor to change the terms of such plans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State law issues.</I> Examples of issues not addressed by § 226.9(c) because they are controlled by state or other applicable law include:
</P>
<P>i. The types of changes a creditor may make. (But see § 226.5b(f))
</P>
<P>ii. How changed terms affect existing balances, such as when a periodic rate is changed and the consumer does not pay off the entire existing balance before the new rate takes effect.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Change in billing cycle.</I> Whenever the creditor changes the consumer's billing cycle, it must give a change-in-terms notice if the change either affects any of the terms required to be disclosed under § 226.6(a) or increases the minimum payment, unless an exception under § 226.9(c)(1)(ii) applies; for example, the creditor must give advance notice if the creditor initially disclosed a 25-day grace period on purchases and the consumer will have fewer days during the billing cycle change.
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(1)(i) Written notice required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Affected consumers.</I> Change-in-terms notices need only go to those consumers who may be affected by the change. For example, a change in the periodic rate for check overdraft credit need not be disclosed to consumers who do not have that feature on their accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing—effective date of change.</I> The rule that the notice of the change in terms be provided at least 15 days before the change takes effect permits mid-cycle changes when there is clearly no retroactive effect, such as the imposition of a transaction fee. Any change in the balance computation method, in contrast, would need to be disclosed at least 15 days prior to the billing cycle in which the change is to be implemented.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing—advance notice not required.</I> Advance notice of 15 days is not necessary—that is, a notice of change in terms is required, but it may be mailed or delivered as late as the effective date of the change—in two circumstances:
</P>
<P>i. If there is an increased periodic rate or any other finance charge attributable to the consumer's delinquency or default.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer agrees to the particular change. This provision is intended for use in the unusual instance when a consumer substitutes collateral or when the creditor can advance additional credit only if a change relatively unique to that consumer is made, such as the consumer's providing additional security or paying an increased minimum payment amount. Therefore, the following are not “agreements” between the consumer and the creditor for purposes of § 226.9(c)(1)(i): The consumer's general acceptance of the creditor's contract reservation of the right to change terms; the consumer's use of the account (which might imply acceptance of its terms under state law); and the consumer's acceptance of a unilateral term change that is not particular to that consumer, but rather is of general applicability to consumers with that type of account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Form of change-in-terms notice.</I> A complete new set of the initial disclosures containing the changed term complies with § 226.9(c)(1)(i) if the change is highlighted in some way on the disclosure statement, or if the disclosure statement is accompanied by a letter or some other insert that indicates or draws attention to the term change.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Security interest change—form of notice.</I> A copy of the security agreement that describes the collateral securing the consumer's account may be used as the notice, when the term change is the addition of a security interest or the addition or substitution of collateral.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Changes to home-equity plans entered into on or after November 7, 1989.</I> Section 226.9(c)(1) applies when, by written agreement under § 226.5b(f)(3)(iii), a creditor changes the terms of a home-equity plan—entered into on or after November 7, 1989—at or before its scheduled expiration, for example, by renewing a plan on terms different from those of the original plan. In disclosing the change:
</P>
<P>i. If the index is changed, the maximum annual percentage rate is increased (to the limited extent permitted by § 226.30), or a variable-rate feature is added to a fixed-rate plan, the creditor must include the disclosures required by § 226.5b(d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi), unless these disclosures are unchanged from those given earlier.
</P>
<P>ii. If the minimum payment requirement is changed, the creditor must include the disclosures required by § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii) (and, in variable-rate plans, the disclosures required by § 226.5b(d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi)) unless the disclosures given earlier contained representative examples covering the new minimum payment requirement. (See the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(5)(iii), (d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi) for a discussion of representative examples.)
</P>
<P>iii. When the terms are changed pursuant to a written agreement as described in § 226.5b(f)(3)(iii), the advance-notice requirement does not apply.
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(1)(ii) Notice not required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following are examples of changes that do not require a change-in-terms notice:
</P>
<P>i. A change in the consumer's credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. A change in the name of the credit card or credit card plan.
</P>
<P>iii. The substitution of one insurer for another.
</P>
<P>iv. A termination or suspension of credit privileges. (But see § 226.5b(f).)
</P>
<P>v. Changes arising merely by operation of law; for example, if the creditor's security interest in a consumer's car automatically extends to the proceeds when the consumer sells the car.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Skip features.</I> If a credit program allows consumers to skip or reduce one or more payments during the year, or involves temporary reductions in finance charges, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction or upon resumption of the higher rates or payments if these features are explained on the initial disclosure statement (including an explanation of the terms upon resumption). For example, a merchant may allow consumers to skip the December payment to encourage holiday shopping, or a teachers' credit union may not require payments during summer vacation. Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original schedule or rate, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The change-in-terms notice may be combined with the notice offering the reduction. For example, the periodic statement reflecting the reduction or skip feature may also be used to notify the consumer of the resumption of the original schedule or rate, either by stating explicitly when the higher payment or charges resume, or by indicating the duration of the skip option. Language such as “You may skip your October payment,” or “We will waive your finance charges for January,” may serve as the change-in-terms notice.
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(1)(iii) Notice to restrict credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written request for reinstatement.</I> If a creditor requires the request for reinstatement of credit privileges to be in writing, the notice under § 226.9(c)(1)(iii) must state that fact.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice not required.</I> A creditor need not provide a notice under this paragraph if, pursuant to the commentary to § 226.5b(f)(2), a creditor freezes a line or reduces a credit line rather than terminating a plan and accelerating the balance.
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(2) Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Changes initially disclosed.</I> Except as provided in § 226.9(g)(1), no notice of a change in terms need be given if the specific change is set forth initially consistent with any applicable requirements, such as rate or fee increases upon expiration of a specific period of time that were disclosed in accordance with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or rate increases under a properly disclosed variable-rate plan in accordance with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(C). In contrast, notice must be given if the contract allows the creditor to increase a rate or fee at its discretion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State law issues.</I> Some issues are not addressed by § 226.9(c)(2) because they are controlled by state or other applicable laws. These issues include the types of changes a creditor may make, to the extent otherwise permitted by this regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Change in billing cycle.</I> Whenever the creditor changes the consumer's billing cycle, it must give a change-in-terms notice if the change affects any of the terms described in § 226.9(c)(2)(i), unless an exception under § 226.9(c)(2)(v) applies; for example, the creditor must give advance notice if the creditor initially disclosed a 28-day grace period on purchases and the consumer will have fewer days during the billing cycle change. <I>See also</I> § 226.7(b)(11)(i)(A) regarding the general requirement that the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan must be the same day each month.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relationship to § 226.9(b).</I> If a creditor adds a feature to the account on the type of terms otherwise required to be disclosed under § 226.6, the creditor must satisfy: The requirement to provide the finance charge disclosures for the added feature under § 226.9(b); and any applicable requirement to provide a change-in-terms notice under § 226.9(c), including any advance notice that must be provided. For example, if a creditor adds a balance transfer feature to an account more than 30 days after account-opening disclosures are provided, it must give the finance charge disclosures for the balance transfer feature under § 226.9(b) as well as comply with the change-in-terms notice requirements under § 226.9(c), including providing notice of the change at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the change. Similarly, if a creditor makes a balance transfer offer on finance charge terms that are higher than those previously disclosed for balance transfers, it would also generally be required to provide a change-in-terms notice at least 45 days in advance of the effective date of the change. A creditor may provide a single notice under § 226.9(c) to satisfy the notice requirements of both paragraphs (b) and (c) of § 226.9. For checks that access a credit card account subject to the disclosure requirements in § 226.9(b)(3), a creditor is not subject to the notice requirements under § 226.9(c) even if the applicable rate or fee is higher than those previously disclosed for such checks. Thus, for example, the creditor need not wait 45 days before applying the new rate or fee for transactions made using such checks, but the creditor must make the required disclosures on or with the checks in accordance with § 226.9(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(2)(i) Changes where written advance notice is required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Affected consumers.</I> Change-in-terms notices need only go to those consumers who may be affected by the change. For example, a change in the periodic rate for check overdraft credit need not be disclosed to consumers who do not have that feature on their accounts. If a single credit account involves multiple consumers that may be affected by the change, the creditor should refer to § 226.5(d) to determine the number of notices that must be given.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing—effective date of change.</I> The rule that the notice of the change in terms be provided at least 45 days before the change takes effect permits mid-cycle changes when there is clearly no retroactive effect, such as the imposition of a transaction fee. Any change in the balance computation method, in contrast, would need to be disclosed at least 45 days prior to the billing cycle in which the change is to be implemented.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes agreed to by the consumer.</I> <I>See also</I> comment 5(b)(1)(i)-6.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Form of change-in-terms notice.</I> Except if § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) applies, a complete new set of the initial disclosures containing the changed term complies with § 226.9(c)(2)(i) if the change is highlighted on the disclosure statement, or if the disclosure statement is accompanied by a letter or some other insert that indicates or draws attention to the term being changed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Security interest change—form of notice.</I> A creditor must provide a description of any security interest it is acquiring under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv). A copy of the security agreement that describes the collateral securing the consumer's account may also be used as the notice, when the term change is the addition of a security interest or the addition or substitution of collateral.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples. See</I> comment 55(a)-1 and 55(b)-3 for examples of how a card issuer that is subject to § 226.55 may comply with the timing requirements for notices required by § 226.9(c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(2)(iii) Charges not covered by § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> Generally, if a creditor increases any component of a charge, or introduces a new charge, that is imposed as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3) but is not required to be disclosed as part of the account-opening summary table under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), the creditor must either, at its option (i) provide at least 45 days' written advance notice before the change becomes effective to comply with the requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(i), or (ii) provide notice orally or in writing, or electronically if the consumer requests the service electronically, of the amount of the charge to an affected consumer before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure. (<I>See</I> the commentary under § 226.5(a)(1)(iii) regarding disclosure of such changes in electronic form.) For example, a fee for expedited delivery of a credit card is a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3) but is not required to be disclosed in the account-opening summary table under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2). If a creditor changes the amount of that expedited delivery fee, the creditor may provide written advance notice of the change to affected consumers at least 45 days before the change becomes effective. Alternatively, the creditor may provide oral or written notice, or electronic notice if the consumer requests the service electronically, of the amount of the charge to an affected consumer before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure. (<I>See</I> comment 5(b)(1)(ii)-1 for examples of disclosures given at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice them.)
</P>
<P><I>9(c)(2)(iv) Disclosure requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Changing margin for calculating a variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a margin used to calculate a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new margin) in the table described in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv), and include a reminder that the rate is a variable rate. For example, if a creditor is changing the margin for a variable rate that uses the prime rate as an index, the creditor must disclose in the table the new rate (as calculated using the new margin) and indicate that the rate varies with the market based on the prime rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changing index for calculating a variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing the index used to calculate a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new index) and indicate that the rate varies and how the rate is determined, as explained in § 226.6(b)(2)(i)(A). For example, if a creditor is changing from using a prime rate to using the LIBOR in calculating a variable rate, the creditor would disclose in the table the new rate (using the new index) and indicate that the rate varies with the market based on the LIBOR.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a rate applicable to a consumer's account from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, the creditor generally must provide a notice as otherwise required under § 226.9(c) even if the variable rate at the time of the change is higher than the non-variable rate. However, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) if the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (c)(2)(v)(D) in connection with changing a variable rate to a lower non-variable rate. Similarly, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) when changing a variable rate to a lower non-variable rate in order to comply with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation. Finally, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) when changing a variable rate to a lower non-variable rate in order to comply with § 226.55(b)(4).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a rate applicable to a consumer's account from a non-variable rate to a variable rate, the creditor generally must provide a notice as otherwise required under § 226.9(c) even if the non-variable rate is higher than the variable rate at the time of the change. However, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) if the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (c)(2)(v)(D) in connection with changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate. Similarly, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) when changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate in order to comply with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation. Finally, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 226.9(c) when changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate in order to comply with § 226.55(b)(4). <I>See</I> comment 55(b)(2)-4 regarding the limitations in § 226.55(b)(2) on changing the rate that applies to a protected balance from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Changes in the penalty rate, the triggers for the penalty rate, or how long the penalty rate applies.</I> If a creditor is changing the amount of the penalty rate, the creditor must also redisclose the triggers for the penalty rate and the information about how long the penalty rate applies even if those terms are not changing. Likewise, if a creditor is changing the triggers for the penalty rate, the creditor must redisclose the amount of the penalty rate and information about how long the penalty rate applies. If a creditor is changing how long the penalty rate applies, the creditor must redisclose the amount of the penalty rate and the triggers for the penalty rate, even if they are not changing.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Changes in fees.</I> If a creditor is changing part of how a fee that is disclosed in a tabular format under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) is determined, the creditor must redisclose all relevant information related to that fee regardless of whether this other information is changing. For example, if a creditor currently charges a cash advance fee of “Either $5 or 3% of the transaction amount, whichever is greater. (Max: $100),” and the creditor is only changing the minimum dollar amount from $5 to $10, the issuer must redisclose the other information related to how the fee is determined. For example, the creditor in this example would disclose the following: “Either $10 or 3% of the transaction amount, whichever is greater. (Max: $100).”
</P>
<P>7. <I>Combining a notice described in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) with a notice described in § 226.9(g)(3).</I> If a creditor is required to provide a notice described in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) and a notice described in § 226.9(g)(3) to a consumer, the creditor may combine the two notices. This would occur if penalty pricing has been triggered, and other terms are changing on the consumer's account at the same time.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Content.</I> Sample G-20 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) when a variable rate is being changed to a non-variable rate on a credit card account. The sample explains when the new rate will apply to new transactions and to which balances the current rate will continue to apply. Sample G-21 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) when the late payment fee on a credit card account is being increased, and the returned payment fee is also being increased. The sample discloses the consumer's right to reject the changes in accordance with § 226.9(h).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard. See</I> comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to disclosures required under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>10. <I>Terminology. See</I> § 226.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to disclosures required under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>11. <I>Reasons for increase.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> Section 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>) requires card issuers to disclose the principal reason(s) for increasing an annual percentage rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The regulation does not mandate a minimum number of reasons that must be disclosed. However, the specific reasons disclosed under § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>) are required to relate to and accurately describe the principal factors actually considered by the card issuer in increasing the rate. A card issuer may describe the reasons for the increase in general terms. For example, the notice of a rate increase triggered by a decrease of 100 points in a consumer's credit score may state that the increase is due to “a decline in your creditworthiness” or “a decline in your credit score.” Similarly, a notice of a rate increase triggered by a 10% increase in the card issuer's cost of funds may be disclosed as “a change in market conditions.” In some circumstances, it may be appropriate for a card issuer to combine the disclosure of several reasons in one statement. However, § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>) requires that the notice specifically disclose any violation of the terms of the account on which the rate is being increased, such as a late payment or a returned payment, if such violation of the account terms is one of the four principal reasons for the rate increase.
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<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that a consumer made a late payment on the credit card account on which the rate increase is being imposed, made a late payment on a credit card account with another card issuer, and the consumer's credit score decreased, in part due to such late payments. The card issuer may disclose the reasons for the rate increase as a decline in the consumer's credit score and the consumer's late payment on the account subject to the increase. Because the late payment on the credit card account with the other issuer also likely contributed to the decline in the consumer's credit score, it is not required to be separately disclosed. However, the late payment on the credit card account on which the rate increase is being imposed must be specifically disclosed even if that late payment also contributed to the decline in the consumer's credit score.
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<P><I>9(c)(2)(v) Notice not required.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following are examples of changes that do not require a change-in-terms notice
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<P>i. A change in the consumer's credit limit except as otherwise required by § 226.9(c)(2)(vi).
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<P>ii. A change in the name of the credit card or credit card plan.
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<P>iii. The substitution of one insurer for another.
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<P>iv. A termination or suspension of credit privileges.
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<P>v. Changes arising merely by operation of law; for example, if the creditor's security interest in a consumer's car automatically extends to the proceeds when the consumer sells the car.
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<P>2. <I>Skip features.</I> i. <I>Skipped or reduced payments.</I> If a credit program allows consumers to skip or reduce one or more payments during the year, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction in payments or upon resumption of the higher payments if these features are explained on the account-opening disclosure statement (including an explanation of the terms upon resumption). For example, a merchant may allow consumers to skip the December payment to encourage holiday shopping, or a teacher's credit union may not require payments during summer vacation. Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original payment schedule, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The change-in-terms notice may be combined with the notice offering the reduction. For example, the periodic statement reflecting the skip feature may also be used to notify the consumer of the resumption of the original payment schedule, either by stating explicitly when the higher resumes or by indicating the duration of the skip option. Language such as “You may skip your October payment” may serve as the change-in-terms notice.
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<P>ii. <I>Temporary reductions in interest rates or fees.</I> If a credit program involves temporary reductions in an interest rate or fee, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction or upon resumption of the original rate or fee if these features are disclosed in advance in accordance with the requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B). Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original rate or fee, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The notice provided prior to resuming the original rate or fee must comply with the timing requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(i) and the content and format requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(A), (B) (if applicable), (C) (if applicable), and (D). <I>See</I> comment 55(b)-3 for guidance regarding the application of § 226.55 in these circumstances.
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<P>3. <I>Changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate. See</I> comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-3.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate. See</I> comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-4.
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<P>5. <I>Temporary rate or fee reductions offered by telephone.</I> The timing requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) are deemed to have been met, and written disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) may be provided as soon as reasonably practicable after the first transaction subject to a rate that will be in effect for a specified period of time (a temporary rate) or the imposition of a fee that will be in effect for a specified period of time (a temporary fee) if
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<P>i. The consumer accepts the offer of the temporary rate or temporary fee by telephone;
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<P>ii. The creditor permits the consumer to reject the temporary rate or temporary fee offer and have the rate or rates or fee that previously applied to the consumer's balances reinstated for 45 days after the creditor mails or delivers the written disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B), except that the creditor need not permit the consumer to reject a temporary rate or temporary fee offer if the rate or rates or fee that will apply following expiration of the temporary rate do not exceed the rate or rates or fee that applied immediately prior to commencement of the temporary rate or temporary fee; and
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<P>iii. The disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and the consumer's right to reject the temporary rate or temporary fee offer and have the rate or rates or fee that previously applied to the consumer's account reinstated, if applicable, are disclosed to the consumer as part of the temporary rate or temporary fee offer.
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<P>6. <I>First listing.</I> The disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) are only required to be provided in close proximity and in equal prominence to the first listing of the temporary rate or fee in the disclosure provided to the consumer. For purposes of § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B), the first statement of the temporary rate or fee is the most prominent listing on the front side of the first page of the disclosure. If the temporary rate or fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of the disclosure, then the first listing of the temporary rate or fee is the most prominent listing of the temporary rate on the subsequent pages of the disclosure. For advertising requirements for promotional rates, see § 226.16(g).
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<P>7. <I>Close proximity—point of sale.</I> Creditors providing the disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) of this section in person in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period on a separate page or document from the temporary rate or fee and the length of the period, provided that the disclosure of the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after the expiration of the period is equally prominent to, and is provided at the same time as, the disclosure of the temporary rate or fee and length of the period.
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<P>8. <I>Disclosure of annual percentage rates.</I> If a rate disclosed pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (c)(2)(v)(D) is a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. For example, a creditor could state “After October 1, 2009, your APR will be 14.99%. This APR will vary with the market based on the Prime Rate.”
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<P>9. <I>Deferred interest or similar programs.</I> If the applicable conditions are met, the exception in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) applies to deferred interest or similar promotional programs under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. For purposes of this comment and § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B), “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 226.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. For such programs, a creditor must disclose pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) the length of the deferred interest period and the rate that will apply to the balance subject to the deferred interest program if that balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the deferred interest period. Examples of language that a creditor may use to make the required disclosures under § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) include
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<P>i. “No interest if paid in full in 6 months. If the balance is not paid in full in 6 months, interest will be imposed from the date of purchase at a rate of 15.99%.”
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<P>ii. “No interest if paid in full by December 31, 2010. If the balance is not paid in full by that date, interest will be imposed from the transaction date at a rate of 15%.”
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<P>10. <I>Relationship between §§ 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and 226.6(b).</I> A disclosure of the information described in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) provided in the account-opening table in accordance with § 226.6(b) complies with the requirements of § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>), if the listing of the introductory rate in such tabular disclosure also is the first listing as described in comment 9(c)(2)(v)-6.
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<P>11. <I>Disclosure of the terms of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement.</I> In order for the exception in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D) to apply, the disclosure provided to the consumer pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) must set forth
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<P>i. The annual percentage rate that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
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<P>ii. The annual percentage rate that will apply to such balances if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of, the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
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<P>iii. Any reduced fee or charge of a type required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), (b)(2)(viii), (b)(2)(ix), (b)(2)(xi), or (b)(2)(xii) that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, as well as the fee or charge that will apply if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
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<P>iv. Any reduced minimum periodic payment that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, as well as the minimum periodic payment that will apply if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement; and
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<P>v. If applicable, that the consumer must make timely minimum payments in order to remain eligible for the workout or temporary hardship arrangement.
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<P>12. <I>Index not under creditor's control. See</I> comment 55(b)(2)-2 for guidance on when an index is deemed to be under a creditor's control.
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<P>13. <I>Temporary rates—relationship to § 226.59.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Section 226.59 requires a card issuer to review rate increases imposed due to the revocation of a temporary rate. In some circumstances, § 226.59 may require an issuer to reinstate a reduced temporary rate based on that review. If, based on a review required by § 226.59, a creditor reinstates a temporary rate that had been revoked, the card issuer is not required to provide an additional notice to the consumer when the reinstated temporary rate expires, if the card issuer provided the disclosures required by § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) prior to the original commencement of the temporary rate. <I>See</I> § 226.55 and the associated commentary for guidance on the permissibility and applicability of rate increases.
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<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> A consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on January 1, 2011. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 18%. The card issuer offers the consumer a 15% rate on purchases made between January 1, 2012 and January 1, 2014. Prior to January 1, 2012, the card issuer discloses, in accordance with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B), that the rate on purchases made during that period will increase to the standard 18% rate on January 1, 2014. In March 2012, the consumer makes a payment that is ten days late. The card issuer, upon providing 45 days' advance notice of the change under § 226.9(g), increases the rate on new purchases to 18% effective as of June 1, 2012. On December 1, 2012, the issuer performs a review of the consumer's account in accordance with § 226.59. Based on that review, the card issuer is required to reduce the rate to the original 15% temporary rate as of January 15, 2013. On January 1, 2014, the card issuer may increase the rate on purchases to 18%, as previously disclosed prior to January 1, 2012, without providing an additional notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>9(d) Finance charge imposed at time of transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure prior to imposition.</I> A person imposing a finance charge at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card must disclose the amount of the charge, or an explanation of how the charge will be determined, prior to its imposition. This must be disclosed before the consumer becomes obligated for property or services that may be paid for by use of a credit card. For example, disclosure must be given before the consumer has dinner at a restaurant, stays overnight at a hotel, or makes a deposit guaranteeing the purchase of property or services.
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<P><I>9(e) Disclosures upon renewal of credit or charge card.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This paragraph applies to credit and charge card accounts of the type subject to § 226.5a. (<I>See</I> § 226.5a(a)(5) and the accompanying commentary for discussion of the types of accounts subject to § 226.5a.) The disclosure requirements are triggered when a card issuer imposes any annual or other periodic fee on such an account or if the card issuer has changed or amended any term of a cardholder's account required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) that has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, whether or not the card issuer originally was required to provide the application and solicitation disclosures described in § 226.5a.
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<P>2. <I>Form.</I> The disclosures under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous, but need not appear in a tabular format or in a prominent location. The disclosures need not be in a form the cardholder can retain.
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<P>3. <I>Terms at renewal.</I> Renewal notices must reflect the terms actually in effect at the time of renewal. For example, a card issuer that offers a preferential annual percentage rate to employees during their employment must send a renewal notice to employees disclosing the lower rate actually charged to employees (although the card issuer also may show the rate charged to the general public).
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<P>4. <I>Variable rate.</I> If the card issuer cannot determine the rate that will be in effect if the cardholder chooses to renew a variable-rate account, the card issuer may disclose the rate in effect at the time of mailing or delivery of the renewal notice. Alternatively, the card issuer may use the rate as of a specified date within the last 30 days before the disclosure is provided.
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<P>5. <I>Renewals more frequent than annual.</I> If a renewal fee is billed more often than annually, the renewal notice should be provided each time the fee is billed. In this instance, the fee need not be disclosed as an annualized amount. Alternatively, the card issuer may provide the notice no less than once every 12 months if the notice explains the amount and frequency of the fee that will be billed during the time period covered by the disclosure, and also discloses the fee as an annualized amount. The notice under this alternative also must state the consequences of a cardholder's decision to terminate the account after the renewal-notice period has expired. For example, if a $2 fee is billed monthly but the notice is given annually, the notice must inform the cardholder that the monthly charge is $2, the annualized fee is $24, and $2 will be billed to the account each month for the coming year unless the cardholder notifies the card issuer. If the cardholder is obligated to pay an amount equal to the remaining unpaid monthly charges if the cardholder terminates the account during the coming year but after the first month, the notice must disclose the fact.
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<P>6. <I>Terminating credit availability.</I> Card issuers have some flexibility in determining the procedures for how and when an account may be terminated. However, the card issuer must clearly disclose the time by which the cardholder must act to terminate the account to avoid paying a renewal fee, if applicable. State and other applicable law govern whether the card issuer may impose requirements such as specifying that the cardholder's response be in writing or that the outstanding balance be repaid in full upon termination.
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<P>7. <I>Timing of termination by cardholder.</I> When a card issuer provides notice under § 226.9(e)(1), a cardholder must be given at least 30 days or one billing cycle, whichever is less, from the date the notice is mailed or delivered to make a decision whether to terminate an account.
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<P>8. <I>Timing of notices.</I> A renewal notice is deemed to be provided when mailed or delivered. Similarly, notice of termination is deemed to be given when mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Prompt reversal of renewal fee upon termination.</I> In a situation where a cardholder has provided timely notice of termination and a renewal fee has been billed to a cardholder's account, the card issuer must reverse or otherwise withdraw the fee promptly. Once a cardholder has terminated an account, no additional action by the cardholder may be required.
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<P>10. <I>Disclosure of changes in terms required to be disclosed pursuant to § 226.6(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I> Clear and conspicuous disclosure of a changed term on a periodic statement provided to a consumer prior to renewal of the consumer's account constitutes prior disclosure of that term for purposes of § 226.9(e)(1). Card issuers should refer to § 226.9(c)(2) for additional timing, content, and formatting requirements that apply to certain changes in terms under that paragraph.
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<P><I>9(e)(2) Notification on periodic statements.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Combined disclosures.</I> If a single disclosure is used to comply with both §§ 226.9(e) and 226.7, the periodic statement must comply with the rules in §§ 226.5a and 226.7. For example, a description substantially similar to the heading describing the grace period required by § 226.5a(b)(5) must be used and the name of the balance-calculation method must be identified (if listed in § 226.5a(g)) to comply with the requirements of § 226.5a. A card issuer may include some of the renewal disclosures on a periodic statement and others on a separate document so long as there is some reference indicating that the disclosures relate to one another. All renewal disclosures must be provided to a cardholder at the same time.
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<P>2. <I>Preprinted notices on periodic statements.</I> A card issuer may preprint the required information on its periodic statements. A card issuer that does so, however, must make clear on the periodic statement when the preprinted renewal disclosures are applicable. For example, the card issuer could include a special notice (not preprinted) at the appropriate time that the renewal fee will be billed in the following billing cycle, or could show the renewal date as a regular (preprinted) entry on all periodic statements.
</P>
<P><I>9(f) Change in credit card account insurance provider.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This paragraph applies to credit card accounts of the type subject to § 226.5a if credit insurance (typically life, disability, and unemployment insurance) is offered on the outstanding balance of such an account. (Credit card accounts subject to § 226.9(f) are the same as those subject to § 226.9(e); <I>see</I> comment 9(e)-1.) Charge card accounts are not covered by this paragraph. In addition, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph apply only where the card issuer initiates the change in insurance provider. For example, if the card issuer's current insurance provider is merged into or acquired by another company, these disclosures would not be required. Disclosures also need not be given in cases where card issuers pay for credit insurance themselves and do not separately charge the cardholder.
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<P>2. <I>No increase in rate or decrease in coverage.</I> The requirement to provide the disclosure arises when the card issuer changes the provider of insurance, even if there will be no increase in the premium rate charged to the consumer and no decrease in coverage under the insurance policy.
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<P>3. <I>Form of notice.</I> If a substantial decrease in coverage will result from the change in provider, the card issuer either must explain the decrease or refer to an accompanying copy of the policy or group certificate for details of the new terms of coverage. (<I>See</I> the commentary to appendix G-13 to part 226.)
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<P>4. <I>Discontinuation of insurance.</I> In addition to stating that the cardholder may cancel the insurance, the card issuer may explain the effect the cancellation would have on the consumer's credit card plan.
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<P>5. <I>Mailing by third party.</I> Although the card issuer is responsible for the disclosures, the insurance provider or another third party may furnish the disclosures on the card issuer's behalf.
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<P><I>9(f)(3) Substantial decrease in coverage.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Determination.</I> Whether a substantial decrease in coverage will result from the change in provider is determined by the two-part test in § 226.9(f)(3): First, whether the decrease is in a significant term of coverage; and second, whether the decrease might reasonably be expected to affect a cardholder's decision to continue the insurance. If both conditions are met, the decrease must be disclosed in the notice.
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<P><I>9(g) Increase in rates due to delinquency or default or as a penalty.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between § 226.9(c) and (g) and § 226.55—examples.</I> Card issuers subject to § 226.55 are prohibited from increasing the annual percentage rate for a category of transactions on any consumer credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). See comments 55(a)-1 and 55(b)-3 and the commentary to § 226.55(b)(4) for examples that illustrate the relationship between the notice requirements of § 226.9(c) and (g) and § 226.55.
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<P>2. <I>Affected consumers.</I> If a single credit account involves multiple consumers that may be affected by the change, the creditor should refer to § 226.5(d) to determine the number of notices that must be given.
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<P>3. <I>Combining a notice described in § 226.9(g)(3) with a notice described in § 226.9(c)(2)(iv).</I> If a creditor is required to provide notices pursuant to both § 226.9(c)(2)(iv) and (g)(3) to a consumer, the creditor may combine the two notices. This would occur when penalty pricing has been triggered, and other terms are changing on the consumer's account at the same time.
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<P>4. <I>Content.</I> Sample G-22 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 226.9(g)(3)(i) when the rate on a consumer's credit card account is being increased to a penalty rate as described in § 226.9(g)(1)(ii), based on a late payment that is not more than 60 days late. Sample G-23 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 226.9(g)(3)(i) when the rate increase is triggered by a delinquency of more than 60 days.
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<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to disclosures required under § 226.9(g).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terminology.</I> See § 226.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to disclosures required under § 226.9(g).
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<P>7. <I>Reasons for increase.</I> See comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-11 for guidance on disclosure of the reasons for a rate increase for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
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<P><I>9(g)(4) Exception for decrease in credit limit.</I>
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<P>1. The following illustrates the requirements of § 226.9(g)(4). Assume that a creditor decreased the credit limit applicable to a consumer's account and sent a notice pursuant to § 226.9(g)(4) on January 1, stating among other things that the penalty rate would apply if the consumer's balance exceeded the new credit limit as of February 16. If the consumer's balance exceeded the credit limit on February 16, the creditor could impose the penalty rate on that date. However, a creditor could not apply the penalty rate if the consumer's balance did not exceed the new credit limit on February 16, even if the consumer's balance had exceeded the new credit limit on several dates between January 1 and February 15. If the consumer's balance did not exceed the new credit limit on February 16 but the consumer conducted a transaction on February 17 that caused the balance to exceed the new credit limit, the general rule in § 226.9(g)(1)(ii) would apply and the creditor would be required to give an additional 45 days' notice prior to imposition of the penalty rate (but under these circumstances the consumer would have no ability to cure the over-the-limit balance in order to avoid penalty pricing).
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<P><I>9(h) Consumer rejection of certain significant changes in terms.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Circumstances in which § 226.9(h) does not apply.</I> Section 226.9(h) applies when § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) requires disclosure of the consumer's right to reject a significant change to an account term. Thus, for example, § 226.9(h) does not apply to changes to the terms of home equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b that are accessible by a credit or charge card because § 226.9(c)(2) does not apply to such plans. Similarly, § 226.9(h) does not apply in the following circumstances because § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require disclosure of the right to reject in those circumstances: (i) An increase in the required minimum periodic payment; (ii) a change in an annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's account (such as changing the margin or index for calculating a variable rate, changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, or changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate); (iii) a change in the balance computation method necessary to comply with § 226.54; and (iv) when the change results from the creditor not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
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<P><I>9(h)(1) Right to reject.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable requirements for submission of rejections.</I> A creditor may establish reasonable requirements for the submission of rejections pursuant to § 226.9(h)(1). For example:
</P>
<P>i. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be made by the primary account holder and that the consumer identify the account number.
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<P>ii. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be made only using the toll-free telephone number disclosed pursuant to § 226.9(c). It would also be reasonable for a creditor to designate additional channels for the submission of rejections (such as an address for rejections submitted by mail) so long as the creditor does not require that rejections be submitted through such additional channels.
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<P>iii. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be received before the effective date disclosed pursuant to § 226.9(c) and to treat the account as not subject to § 226.9(h) if a rejection is received on or after that date. It would not, however, be reasonable to require that rejections be submitted earlier than the day before the effective date. If a creditor is unable to process all rejections received before the effective date, the creditor may delay implementation of the change in terms until all rejections have been processed. In the alternative, the creditor could implement the change on the effective date and then, on any account for which a timely rejection was received, reverse the change and remove or credit any interest charges or fees imposed as a result of the change. For example, if the effective date for a change in terms is June 15 and the creditor cannot process all rejections received by telephone on June 14 until June 16, the creditor may delay imposition of the change until June 17. Alternatively, the creditor could implement the change for all affected accounts on June 15 and then, once all rejections have been processed, return any account for which a timely rejection was received to the prior terms and ensure that the account is not assessed any additional interest or fees as a result of the change or that the account is credited for such interest or fees.
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<P>2. <I>Use of account following provision of notice.</I> A consumer does not waive or forfeit the right to reject a significant change in terms by using the account for transactions prior to the effective date of the change. Similarly, a consumer does not revoke a rejection by using the account for transactions after the rejection is received.
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<P><I>9(h)(2)(ii) Prohibition on penalties.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Termination or suspension of credit availability.</I> Section 226.9(h)(2)(ii) does not prohibit a creditor from terminating or suspending credit availability as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms.
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<P>2. <I>Solely as a result of rejection.</I> A creditor is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge or treating an account as in default solely as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms. For example, if credit availability is terminated or suspended as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms, a creditor is prohibited from imposing a periodic fee that was not charged before the consumer rejected the change (such as a closed account fee). <I>See</I> also comment 55(d)-1. However, regardless of whether credit availability is terminated or suspended as a result of the consumer's rejection, a creditor is not prohibited from continuing to charge a periodic fee that was charged before the rejection. Similarly, a creditor that charged a fee for late payment before a change was rejected is not prohibited from charging that fee after rejection of the change.
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<P><I>9(h)(2)(iii) Repayment of outstanding balance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relevant date for repayment methods.</I> Once a consumer has rejected a significant change in terms, § 226.9(h)(2)(iii) prohibits the creditor from requiring repayment of the balance on the account using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the methods listed in § 226.55(c)(2). When applying the methods listed in § 226.55(c)(2) pursuant to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii), a creditor may utilize the date on which the creditor was notified of the rejection or a later date (such as the date on which the change would have gone into effect but for the rejection). For example, assume that on April 16 a creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the monthly maintenance fee for the account will increase effective June 1. The notice also states that the consumer may reject the increase by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before June 1 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On May 5, the consumer calls the toll-free number and exercises the right to reject. If the creditor chooses to establish a five-year amortization period for the balance on the account consistent with § 226.55(c)(2)(ii), that period may begin no earlier than the date on which the creditor was notified of the rejection (May 5). However, the creditor may also begin the amortization period on the date on which the change would have gone into effect but for the rejection (June 1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Balance on the account.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>In general.</I> When applying the methods listed in § 226.55(c)(2) pursuant to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii), the provisions in § 226.55(c)(2) and the guidance in the commentary to § 226.55(c)(2) regarding protected balances also apply to a balance on the account subject to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii). If a creditor terminates or suspends credit availability based on a consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms, the balance on the account that is subject to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii) is the balance at the end of the day on which credit availability is terminated or suspended. However, if a creditor does not terminate or suspend credit availability based on the consumer's rejection, the balance on the account subject to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii) is the balance at the end of the day on which the creditor was notified of the rejection or, at the creditor's option, a later date.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that on June 16 a creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the annual fee for the account will increase effective August 1. The notice also states that the consumer may reject the increase by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before August 1 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On July 20, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 and the consumer calls the toll-free number and exercises the right to reject. On July 22, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. If the creditor terminates credit availability on July 25 as a result of the rejection, the balance subject to the repayment limitations in § 226.9(h)(2)(iii) is the $1,200 purchase balance at the end of the day on July 25. However, if the creditor does not terminate credit availability as a result of the rejection, the balance subject to the repayment limitations in § 226.9(h)(2)(iii) is the $1,000 purchase balance at the end of the day on the date the creditor was notified of the rejection (July 20), although the creditor may, at its option, treat the $200 purchase as part of the balance subject to § 226.9(h)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>9(h)(3) Exception.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 226.9(h)(3) provides that § 226.9(h) does not apply when the creditor has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment. The following examples illustrate the application of this exception:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent before notice provided.</I> Assume that a credit card account is opened on January 1 of year one and that the payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month. On June 20 of year two, the creditor has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on April 15, May 15, and June 15. On June 20, the creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that a monthly maintenance fee of $10 will be charged beginning on August 4. However, § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require the creditor to notify the consumer of the right to reject because the creditor has not received the April 15 minimum payment within 60 days after the due date. Furthermore, the exception in § 226.9(h)(3) applies and the consumer may not reject the fee.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent after rejection.</I> Assume that a credit card account is opened on January 1 of year one and that the payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month. On April 20 of year two, the creditor has not received the required minimum periodic payment due on April 15. On April 20, the creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that an annual fee of $100 will be charged beginning on June 4. The notice further states that the consumer may reject the fee by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before June 4 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On May 5, the consumer calls the toll-free telephone number and rejects the fee. Section 226.9(h)(2)(i) prohibits the creditor from charging the $100 fee to the account. If, however, the creditor does not receive the minimum payments due on April 15 and May 15 by June 15, § 226.9(h)(3) permits the creditor to charge the $100 fee. The creditor must provide a second notice of the fee pursuant to § 226.9(c), but § 226.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require the creditor to disclose the right to reject and § 226.9(h)(3) does not allow the consumer to reject the fee. Similarly, the restrictions in § 226.9(h)(2)(ii) and (iii) no longer apply.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.10—Payments
</HD2>
<P><I>10(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Crediting date.</I> Section 226.10(a) does not require the creditor to post the payment to the consumer's account on a particular date; the creditor is only required to credit the payment <I>as of</I> the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date of receipt.</I> The “date of receipt” is the date that the payment instrument or other means of completing the payment reaches the creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Payment by check is received when the creditor gets it, not when the funds are collected.
</P>
<P>ii. In a payroll deduction plan in which funds are deposited to an asset account held by the creditor, and from which payments are made periodically to an open-end credit account, payment is received on the date when it is debited to the asset account (rather than on the date of the deposit), provided the payroll deduction method is voluntary and the consumer retains use of the funds until the contractual payment date.
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer elects to have payment made by a third party payor such as a financial institution, through a preauthorized payment or telephone bill-payment arrangement, payment is received when the creditor gets the third party payor's check or other transfer medium, such as an electronic fund transfer, as long as the payment meets the creditor's requirements as specified under § 226.10(b).
</P>
<P>iv. Payment made via the creditor's Web site is received on the date on which the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment, even if the consumer gives the instruction authorizing that payment in advance of the date on which the creditor is authorized to effect the payment. If the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment immediately, but the consumer's instruction is received after 5 p.m. or any later cut-off time specified by the creditor, the date on which the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment is deemed to be the next business day.
</P>
<P><I>10(b) Specific requirements for payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment by electronic fund transfer.</I> A creditor may be prohibited from specifying payment by preauthorized electronic fund transfer. (See section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment methods promoted by creditor.</I> If a creditor promotes a specific payment method, any payments made via that method (prior to any cut-off time specified by the creditor, to the extent permitted by § 226.10(b)(2)) are generally conforming payments for purposes of § 226.10(b). For example
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor promotes electronic payment via its Web site (such as by disclosing on the Web site itself that payments may be made via the Web site), any payments made via the creditor's Web site prior to the creditor's specified cut-off time, if any, would generally be conforming payments for purposes of § 226.10(b).
</P>
<P>ii. If a creditor promotes payment by telephone (for example, by including the option to pay by telephone in a menu of options provided to consumers at a toll-free number disclosed on its periodic statement), payments made by telephone would generally be conforming payments for purposes of § 226.10(b).
</P>
<P>iii. If a creditor promotes in-person payments, for example by stating in an advertisement that payments may be made in person at its branch locations, such in-person payments made at a branch or office of the creditor generally would be conforming payments for purposes of § 226.10(b).
</P>
<P>iv. If a creditor promotes that payments may be made through an unaffiliated third party, such as by disclosing the Web site address of that third party on the periodic statement, payments made via that third party's Web site generally would be conforming payments for purposes of § 226.10(b). In contrast, if a customer service representative of the creditor confirms to a consumer that payments may be made via an unaffiliated third party, but the creditor does not otherwise promote that method of payment, § 226.10(b) permits the creditor to treat payments made via such third party as nonconforming payments in accordance with § 226.10(b)(4).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acceptance of nonconforming payments.</I> If the creditor accepts a nonconforming payment (for example, payment mailed to a branch office, when the creditor had specified that payment be sent to a different location), finance charges may accrue for the period between receipt and crediting of payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Implied guidelines for payments.</I> In the absence of specified requirements for making payments (see § 226.10(b)):
</P>
<P>i. Payments may be made at any location where the creditor conducts business.
</P>
<P>ii. Payments may be made any time during the creditor's normal business hours.
</P>
<P>iii. Payment may be by cash, money order, draft, or other similar instrument in properly negotiable form, or by electronic fund transfer if the creditor and consumer have so agreed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Payments made at point of sale.</I> If a card issuer that is a financial institution issues a credit card under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that can be used only for transactions with a particular merchant or merchants or a credit card that is cobranded with the name of a particular merchant or merchants, and a consumer is able to make a payment on that credit card account at a retail location maintained by such a merchant, that retail location is not considered to be a branch or office of the card issuer for purposes of § 226.10(b)(3).
</P>
<P>6. <I>In-person payments on credit card accounts.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(b)(3), payments made in person at a branch or office of a financial institution include payments made with the direct assistance of, or to, a branch or office employee, for example a teller at a bank branch. A payment made at the bank branch without the direct assistance of a branch or office employee, for example a payment placed in a branch or office mail slot, is not a payment made in person for purposes of § 226.10(b)(3).
</P>
<P>7. <I>In-person payments at affiliate of card issuer.</I> If an affiliate of a card issuer that is a financial institution shares a name with the card issuer, such as “ABC,” and accepts in-person payments on the card issuer's credit card accounts, those payments are subject to the requirements of § 226.10(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>10(d) Crediting of payments when creditor does not receive or accept payments on due date.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> A day on which the creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail may occur, for example, if the U.S. Postal Service does not deliver mail on that date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Treating a payment as late for any purpose.</I> See comment 5(b)(2)(ii)-2 for guidance on treating a payment as late for any purpose. When an account is not eligible for a grace period, imposing a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate does not constitute treating a payment as late.
</P>
<P><I>10(e) Limitations on fees related to method of payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(e), the term “separate fee” means a fee imposed on a consumer for making a payment to the consumer's account. A fee or other charge imposed if payment is made after the due date, such as a late fee or finance charge, is not a separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment for purposes of § 226.10(e).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expedited.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(e), the term “expedited” means crediting a payment the same day or, if the payment is received after any cut-off time established by the creditor, the next business day.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Service by a customer service representative.</I> Service by a customer service representative of a creditor means any payment made to the consumer's account with the assistance of a live representative or agent of the creditor, including those made in person, on the telephone, or by electronic means. A customer service representative does not include automated means of making payment that do not involve a live representative or agent of the creditor, such as a voice response unit or interactive voice response system. Service by a customer service representative includes any payment transaction which involves the assistance of a live representative or agent of the creditor, even if an automated system is required for a portion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(e), the term “creditor” includes a third party that collects, receives, or processes payments on behalf of a creditor. For example
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a creditor uses a service provider to receive, collect, or process on the creditor's behalf payments made through the creditor's Web site or made through an automated telephone payment service. In these circumstances, the service provider would be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a consumer pays a fee to a money transfer or payment service in order to transmit a payment to the creditor on the consumer's behalf. In these circumstances, the money transfer or payment service would not be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a consumer has a checking account at a depository institution. The consumer makes a payment to the creditor from the checking account using a bill payment service provided by the depository institution. In these circumstances, the depository institution would not be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<P><I>10(f) Changes by card issuer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Address for receiving payment.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(f), “address for receiving payment” means a mailing address for receiving payment, such as a post office box, or the address of a branch or office at which payments on credit card accounts are accepted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Materiality.</I> For purposes of § 226.10(f), a “material change” means any change in the address for receiving payment or procedures for handling cardholder payments which causes a material delay in the crediting of a payment. “Material delay” means any delay in crediting payment to a consumer's account which would result in a late payment and the imposition of a late fee or finance charge. A delay in crediting a payment which does not result in a late fee or finance charge would be immaterial.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Safe harbor.</I> i. <I>General.</I> A card issuer may elect not to impose a late fee or finance charge on a consumer's account for the 60-day period following a change in address for receiving payment or procedures for handling cardholder payments which could reasonably be expected to cause a material delay in crediting of a payment to the consumer's account. For purposes of § 226.10(f), a late fee or finance charge is not imposed if the fee or charge is waived or removed, or an amount equal to the fee or charge is credited to the account.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Retail location.</I> For a material change in the address of a retail location or procedures for handling cardholder payments at a retail location, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge on a consumer's account for a late payment during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect. However, if a card issuer is notified by a consumer no later than 60 days after the card issuer transmitted the first periodic statement that reflects the late fee or finance charge for a late payment that the late payment was caused by such change, the card issuer must waive or remove any late fee or finance charge, or credit an amount equal to any late fee or finance charge, imposed on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer changes the mailing address for receiving payments by mail from a five-digit postal zip code to a nine-digit postal zip code. A consumer mails a payment using the five-digit postal zip code. The change in mailing address is immaterial and it does not cause a delay. Therefore, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the account.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer changes the mailing address for receiving payments by mail from one post office box number to another post office box number. For a 60-day period following the change, the card issuer continues to use both post office box numbers for the collection of payments received by mail. The change in mailing address would not cause a material delay in crediting a payment because payments would be received and credited at both addresses. Therefore, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as paragraph ii. above, except the prior post office box number is no longer valid and mail sent to that address during the 60-day period following the change would be returned to sender. The change in mailing address is material and the change could cause a material delay in the crediting of a payment because a payment sent to the old address could be delayed past the due date. If, as a result, a consumer makes a late payment on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect, a card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge for the late payment.
</P>
<P>iv. A card issuer permanently closes a local branch office at which payments are accepted on credit card accounts. The permanent closing of the local branch office is a material change in address for receiving payment. Relying on the safe harbor, the card issuer elects not to impose a late fee or finance charge for the 60-day period following the local branch closing for late payments on consumer accounts which the issuer reasonably determines are associated with the local branch and which could reasonably be expected to have been caused by the branch closing.
</P>
<P>v. A consumer has elected to make payments automatically to a credit card account, such as through a payroll deduction plan or a third party payor's preauthorized payment arrangement. A card issuer changes the procedures for handling such payments and as a result, a payment is delayed and not credited to the consumer's account before the due date. In these circumstances, a card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect for a late payment on the account.
</P>
<P>vi. A card issuer no longer accepts payments in person at a retail location as a conforming method of payment, which is a material change in the procedures for handling cardholder payment. In the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect, a consumer attempts to make a payment in person at a retail location of a card issuer. As a result, the consumer makes a late payment and the issuer charges a late fee on the consumer's account. The consumer notifies the card issuer of the late fee for the late payment which was caused by the material change. In order to comply with § 226.10(f), the card issuer must waive or remove the late fee or finance charge, or credit the consumer's account in an amount equal to the late fee or finance charge.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Finance charge due to periodic interest rate.</I> When an account is not eligible for a grace period, imposing a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate does not constitute imposition of a finance charge for a late payment for purposes of § 226.10(f).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.11—Treatment of Credit Balances; Account Termination
</HD2>
<P><I>11(a) Credit balances.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing of refund.</I> The creditor may also fulfill its obligations under § 226.11 by:
</P>
<P>i. Refunding any credit balance to the consumer immediately.
</P>
<P>ii. Refunding any credit balance prior to receiving a written request (under § 226.11(a)(2)) from the consumer.
</P>
<P>iii. Refunding any credit balance upon the consumer's oral or electronic request.
</P>
<P>iv. Making a good faith effort to refund any credit balance before 6 months have passed. If that attempt is unsuccessful, the creditor need not try again to refund the credit balance at the end of the 6-month period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount of refund.</I> The phrases <I>any part of the remaining credit balance</I> in § 226.11(a)(2) and <I>any part of the credit balance remaining in the account</I> in § 226.11(a)(3) mean the amount of the credit balance at the time the creditor is required to make the refund. The creditor may take into consideration intervening purchases or other debits to the consumer's account (including those that have not yet been reflected on a periodic statement) that decrease or eliminate the credit balance.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 11(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written requests</I>—<I>standing orders.</I> The creditor is not required to honor standing orders requesting refunds of any credit balance that may be created on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 11(a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Good faith effort to refund.</I> The creditor must take positive steps to return any credit balance that has remained in the account for over 6 months. This includes, if necessary, attempts to trace the consumer through the consumer's last known address or telephone number, or both.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Good faith effort unsuccessful.</I> Section 226.11 imposes no further duties on the creditor if a good faith effort to return the balance is unsuccessful. The ultimate disposition of the credit balance (or any credit balance of $1 or less) is to be determined under other applicable law.
</P>
<P><I>11(b) Account termination.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 11(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Expiration date.</I> The credit agreement determines whether or not an open-end plan has a stated expiration (maturity) date. Creditors that offer accounts with no stated expiration date are prohibited from terminating those accounts solely because a consumer does not incur a finance charge, even if credit cards or other access devices associated with the account expire after a stated period. Creditors may still terminate such accounts for inactivity consistent with § 226.11(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>11(c) Timely settlement of estate debts</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Administrator of an estate.</I> For purposes of § 226.11(c), the term “administrator” means an administrator, executor, or any personal representative of an estate who is authorized to act on behalf of the estate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of reasonable procedures that satisfy this rule:
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer may decline future transactions and terminate the account upon receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer may credit the account for fees and charges imposed after the date of receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>iii. A card issuer may waive the estate's liability for all charges made to the account after receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>iv. A card issuer may authorize an agent to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>v. A card issuer may require administrators of an estate to provide documentation indicating authority to act on behalf of the estate.
</P>
<P>vi. A card issuer may establish or designate a department, business unit, or communication channel for administrators, such as a specific mailing address or toll-free number, to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>vii. A card issuer may direct administrators, who call a general customer service toll-free number or who send correspondence by mail to an address for general correspondence, to an appropriate customer service representative, department, business unit, or communication channel to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Request by an administrator of an estate.</I> A card issuer may receive a request for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account in writing or by telephone call from the administrator of an estate. If a request is made in writing, such as by mail, the request is received on the date the card issuer receives the correspondence.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timely statement of balance.</I> A card issuer must disclose the balance on a deceased consumer's account, upon request by the administrator of the decedent's estate. A card issuer may provide the amount, if any, by a written statement or by telephone. This does not preclude a card issuer from providing the balance amount to appropriate persons, other than the administrator, such as the spouse or a relative of the decedent, who indicate that they may pay any balance. This provision does not relieve card issuers of the requirements to provide a periodic statement, under § 226.5(b)(2). A periodic statement, under § 226.5(b)(2), may satisfy the requirements of § 226.11(c)(2), if provided within 30 days of receiving a request by an administrator of the estate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Imposition of fees and interest charges.</I> Section 226.11(c)(3) does not prohibit a card issuer from imposing fees and finance charges due to a periodic interest rate based on balances for days that precede the date on which the card issuer receives a request pursuant to § 226.11(c)(2). For example, if the last day of the billing cycle is June 30 and the card issuer receives a request pursuant to § 226.11(c)(2) on June 25, the card issuer may charge interest that accrued prior to June 25.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Example.</I> A card issuer receives a request from an administrator for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account on March 1. The card issuer discloses to the administrator on March 25 that the balance is $1,000. If the card issuer receives payment in full of the $1,000 on April 24, the card issuer must waive or rebate any additional interest that accrued on the $1,000 balance between March 25 and April 24. If the card issuer receives a payment of $1,000 on April 25, the card issuer is not required to waive or rebate interest charges on the $1,000 balance in respect of the period between March 25 and April 25. If the card issuer receives a partial payment of $500 on April 24, the card issuer is not required to waive or rebate interest charges on the $1,000 balance in respect of the period between March 25 and April 25.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Application to joint accounts.</I> A card issuer may impose fees and charges on an account of a deceased consumer if a joint accountholder remains on the account. If only an authorized user remains on the account of a deceased consumer, however, then a card issuer may not impose fees and charges.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.12—Special Credit Card Provisions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Sections 226.12(a) and (b) deal with the issuance and liability rules for credit cards, whether the card is intended for consumer, business, or any other purposes. Sections 226.12(a) and (b) are exceptions to the general rule that the regulation applies only to consumer credit. (See §§ 226.1 and 226.3.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definition of “accepted credit card”.</I> For purposes of this section, “accepted credit card” means any credit card that a cardholder has requested or applied for and received, or has signed, used, or authorized another person to use to obtain credit. Any credit card issued as a renewal or substitute in accordance with § 226.12(a) becomes an accepted credit card when received by the cardholder.
</P>
<P><I>12(a) Issuance of credit cards.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Explicit request.</I> A request or application for a card must be explicit. For example, a request for an overdraft plan tied to a checking account does not constitute an application for a credit card with overdraft checking features.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Addition of credit features.</I> If the consumer has a non-credit card, the addition of credit features to the card (for example, the granting of overdraft privileges on a checking account when the consumer already has a check guarantee card) constitutes issuance of a credit card.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variance of card from request.</I> The request or application need not correspond exactly to the card that is issued. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The name of the card requested may be different when issued.
</P>
<P>ii. The card may have features in addition to those reflected in the request or application.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Permissible form of request.</I> The request or application may be oral (in response to a telephone solicitation by a card issuer, for example) or written.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Time of issuance.</I> A credit card may be issued in response to a request made before any cards are ready for issuance (for example, if a new program is established), even if there is some delay in issuance.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Persons to whom cards may be issued.</I> A card issuer may issue a credit card to the person who requests it, and to anyone else for whom that person requests a card and who will be an authorized user on the requester's account. In other words, cards may be sent to consumer A on A's request, and also (on A's request) to consumers B and C, who will be authorized users on A's account. In these circumstances, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. The additional cards may be imprinted in either A's name or in the names of B and C.
</P>
<P>ii. No liability for unauthorized use (by persons other than B and C), not even the $50, may be imposed on B or C since they are merely users and not cardholders as that term is defined in § 226.2 and used in § 226.12(b); of course, liability of up to $50 for unauthorized use of B's and C's cards may be imposed on A.
</P>
<P>iii. Whether B and C may be held liable for their own use, or on the account generally, is a matter of state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Issuance of non-credit cards.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> Under § 226.12(a)(1), a credit card cannot be issued except in response to a request or an application. (<I>See</I> comment 2(a)(15)-2 for examples of cards or devices that are and are not credit cards.) A non-credit card may be sent on an unsolicited basis by an issuer that does not propose to connect the card to any credit plan; a credit feature may be added to a previously issued non-credit card only upon the consumer's specific request.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A purchase-price discount card may be sent on an unsolicited basis by an issuer that does not propose to connect the card to any credit plan. An issuer demonstrates that it proposes to connect the card to a credit plan by, for example, including promotional materials about credit features or account agreements and disclosures required by § 226.6. The issuer will violate the rule against unsolicited issuance if, for example, at the time the card is sent a credit plan can be accessed by the card or the recipient of the unsolicited card has been preapproved for credit that the recipient can access by contacting the issuer and activating the card.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Unsolicited issuance of PINs.</I> A card issuer may issue personal identification numbers (PINs) to existing credit cardholders without a specific request from the cardholders, provided the PINs cannot be used alone to obtain credit. For example, the PINs may be necessary if consumers wish to use their existing credit cards at automated teller machines or at merchant locations with point of sale terminals that require PINs.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Renewal.</I> Renewal generally contemplates the regular replacement of existing cards because of, for example, security reasons or new technology or systems. It also includes the re-issuance of cards that have been suspended temporarily, but does not include the opening of a new account after a previous account was closed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substitution—examples.</I> Substitution encompasses the replacement of one card with another because the underlying account relationship has changed in some way—such as when the card issuer has:
</P>
<P>i. Changed its name.
</P>
<P>ii. Changed the name of the card.
</P>
<P>iii. Changed the credit or other features available on the account. For example, the original card could be used to make purchases and obtain cash advances at teller windows. The substitute card might be usable, in addition, for obtaining cash advances through automated teller machines. (If the substitute card constitutes an access device, as defined in Regulation E, then the Regulation E issuance rules would have to be followed.) The substitution of one card with another on an unsolicited basis is not permissible, however, where in conjunction with the substitution an additional credit card account is opened and the consumer is able to make new purchases or advances under both the original and the new account with the new card. For example, if a retail card issuer replaces its credit card with a combined retailer/bank card, each of the creditors maintains a separate account, and both accounts can be accessed for new transactions by use of the new credit card, the card cannot be provided to a consumer without solicitation.
</P>
<P>iv. Substituted a card user's name on the substitute card for the cardholder's name appearing on the original card.
</P>
<P>v. Changed the merchant base, provided that the new card is honored by at least one of the persons that honored the original card. However, unless the change in the merchant base is the addition of an affiliate of the existing merchant base, the substitution of a new card for another on an unsolicited basis is not permissible where the account is inactive. A credit card cannot be issued in these circumstances without a request or application. For purposes of § 226.12(a), an account is inactive if no credit has been extended and if the account has no outstanding balance for the prior 24 months. (See § 226.11(b)(2).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substitution—successor card issuer.</I> Substitution also occurs when a successor card issuer replaces the original card issuer (for example, when a new card issuer purchases the accounts of the original issuer and issues its own card to replace the original one). A permissible substitution exists even if the original issuer retains the existing receivables and the new card issuer acquires the right only to future receivables, provided use of the original card is cut off when use of the new card becomes possible.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Substitution—non-credit-card plan.</I> A credit card that replaces a retailer's open-end credit plan not involving a credit card is not considered a substitute for the retailer's plan—even if the consumer used the retailer's plan. A credit card cannot be issued in these circumstances without a request or application.
</P>
<P>5. <I>One-for-one rule.</I> An accepted card may be replaced by no more than one renewal or substitute card. For example, the card issuer may not replace a credit card permitting purchases and cash advances with two cards, one for the purchases and another for the cash advances.
</P>
<P>6. <I>One-for-one rule—exceptions.</I> The regulation does not prohibit the card issuer from:
</P>
<P>i. Replacing a debit/credit card with a credit card and another card with only debit functions (or debit functions plus an associated overdraft capability), since the latter card could be issued on an unsolicited basis under Regulation E.
</P>
<P>ii. Replacing an accepted card with more than one renewal or substitute card, provided that:
</P>
<P>A. No replacement card accesses any account not accessed by the accepted card;
</P>
<P>B. For terms and conditions required to be disclosed under § 226.6, all replacement cards are issued subject to the same terms and conditions, except that a creditor may vary terms for which no change in terms notice is required under § 226.9(c); and
</P>
<P>C. Under the account's terms the consumer's total liability for unauthorized use with respect to the account does not increase.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Methods of terminating replaced card.</I> The card issuer need not physically retrieve the original card, provided the old card is voided in some way, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The issuer includes with the new card a notification that the existing card is no longer valid and should be destroyed immediately.
</P>
<P>ii. The original card contained an expiration date.
</P>
<P>iii. The card issuer, in order to preclude use of the card, reprograms computers or issues instructions to authorization centers.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Incomplete replacement.</I> If a consumer has duplicate credit cards on the same account (Card A—one type of bank credit card, for example), the card issuer may not replace the duplicate cards with one Card A and one Card B (Card B—another type of bank credit card) unless the consumer requests Card B.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Multiple entities.</I> Where multiple entities share responsibilities with respect to a credit card issued by one of them, the entity that issued the card may replace it on an unsolicited basis, if that entity terminates the original card by voiding it in some way, as described in comment 12(a)(2)-7. The other entity or entities may not issue a card on an unsolicited basis in these circumstances.
</P>
<P><I>12(b) Liability of cardholder for unauthorized use.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of cardholder.</I> For purposes of this provision, cardholder includes any person (including organizations) to whom a credit card is issued for any purpose, including business. When a corporation is the cardholder, required disclosures should be provided to the corporation (as opposed to an employee user).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Imposing liability.</I> A card issuer is not required to impose liability on a cardholder for the unauthorized use of a credit card; if the card issuer does not seek to impose liability, the issuer need not conduct any investigation of the cardholder's claim.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reasonable investigation.</I> If a card issuer seeks to impose liability when a claim of unauthorized use is made by a cardholder, the card issuer must conduct a reasonable investigation of the claim. In conducting its investigation, the card issuer may reasonably request the cardholder's cooperation. The card issuer may not automatically deny a claim based solely on the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request, including providing an affidavit or filing a police report; however, if the card issuer otherwise has no knowledge of facts confirming the unauthorized use, the lack of information resulting from the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the card issuer reasonably to terminate the investigation. The procedures involved in investigating claims may differ, but actions such as the following represent steps that a card issuer may take, as appropriate, in conducting a reasonable investigation:
</P>
<P>i. Reviewing the types or amounts of purchases made in relation to the cardholder's previous purchasing pattern.
</P>
<P>ii. Reviewing where the purchases were delivered in relation to the cardholder's residence or place of business.
</P>
<P>iii. Reviewing where the purchases were made in relation to where the cardholder resides or has normally shopped.
</P>
<P>iv. Comparing any signature on credit slips for the purchases to the signature of the cardholder or an authorized user in the card issuer's records, including other credit slips.
</P>
<P>v. Requesting documentation to assist in the verification of the claim.
</P>
<P>vi. Requiring a written, signed statement from the cardholder or authorized user. For example, the creditor may include a signature line on a billing rights form that the cardholder may send in to provide notice of the claim. However, a creditor may not require the cardholder to provide an affidavit or signed statement under penalty of perjury as part of a reasonable investigation.
</P>
<P>vii. Requesting a copy of a police report, if one was filed.
</P>
<P>viii. Requesting information regarding the cardholder's knowledge of the person who allegedly used the card or of that person's authority to do so.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Checks that access a credit card account.</I> The liability provisions for unauthorized use under § 226.12(b)(1) only apply to transactions involving the use of a credit card, and not if an unauthorized transaction is made using a check accessing the credit card account. However, the billing error provisions in § 226.13 apply to both of these types of transactions.
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(1)(ii) Limitation on amount.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of authority.</I> Section 226.12(b)(1)(i) defines unauthorized use in terms of whether the user has actual, implied, or apparent authority. Whether such authority exists must be determined under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Liability limits—dollar amounts.</I> As a general rule, the cardholder's liability for a series of unauthorized uses cannot exceed either $50 or the value obtained through the unauthorized use before the card issuer is notified, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Implied or apparent authority.</I> If a cardholder furnishes a credit card and grants authority to make credit transactions to a person (such as a family member or coworker) who exceeds the authority given, the cardholder is liable for the transaction(s) unless the cardholder has notified the creditor that use of the credit card by that person is no longer authorized.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit card obtained through robbery or fraud.</I> An unauthorized use includes, but is not limited to, a transaction initiated by a person who has obtained the credit card from the consumer, or otherwise initiated the transaction, through fraud or robbery.
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(2) Conditions of liability.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Issuer's option not to comply.</I> A card issuer that chooses not to impose any liability on cardholders for unauthorized use need not comply with the disclosure and identification requirements discussed in § 226.12(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of liability and means of notifying issuer.</I> The disclosures referred to in § 226.12(b)(2)(ii) may be given, for example, with the initial disclosures under § 226.6, on the credit card itself, or on periodic statements. They may be given at any time preceding the unauthorized use of the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Meaning of “adequate notice.”</I> For purposes of this provision, “adequate notice” means a printed notice to a cardholder that sets forth clearly the pertinent facts so that the cardholder may reasonably be expected to have noticed it and understood its meaning. The notice may be given by any means reasonably assuring receipt by the cardholder.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(b)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Means of identifying cardholder or user.</I> To fulfill the condition set forth in § 226.12(b)(2)(iii), the issuer must provide some method whereby the cardholder or the authorized user can be identified. This could include, for example, a signature, photograph, or fingerprint on the card or other biometric means, or electronic or mechanical confirmation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification by magnetic strip.</I> Unless a magnetic strip (or similar device not readable without physical aids) must be used in conjunction with a secret code or the like, it would not constitute sufficient means of identification. Sufficient identification also does not exist if a “pool” or group card, issued to a corporation and signed by a corporate agent who will not be a user of the card, is intended to be used by another employee for whom no means of identification is provided.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions not involving card.</I> The cardholder may not be held liable under § 226.12(b) when the card itself (or some other sufficient means of identification of the cardholder) is not presented. Since the issuer has not provided a means to identify the user under these circumstances, the issuer has not fulfilled one of the conditions for imposing liability. For example, when merchandise is ordered by telephone or the Internet by a person without authority to do so, using a credit card account number by itself or with other information that appears on the card (for example, the card expiration date and a 3- or 4-digit cardholder identification number), no liability may be imposed on the cardholder.
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(3) Notification to card issuer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>How notice must be provided.</I> Notice given in a normal business manner—for example, by mail, telephone, or personal visit—is effective even though it is not given to, or does not reach, some particular person within the issuer's organization. Notice also may be effective even though it is not given at the address or phone number disclosed by the card issuer under § 226.12(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Who must provide notice.</I> Notice of loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use need not be initiated by the cardholder. Notice is sufficient so long as it gives the “pertinent information” which would include the name or card number of the cardholder and an indication that unauthorized use has or may have occurred.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to § 226.13.</I> The liability protections afforded to cardholders in § 226.12 do not depend upon the cardholder's following the error resolution procedures in § 226.13. For example, the written notification and time limit requirements of § 226.13 do not affect the § 226.12 protections. (See also comment 12(b)-4.)
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(5) Business use of credit cards.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Agreement for higher liability for business use cards.</I> The card issuer may not rely on § 226.12(b)(5) if the business is clearly not in a position to provide 10 or more cards to employees (for example, if the business has only 3 employees). On the other hand, the issuer need not monitor the personnel practices of the business to make sure that it has at least 10 employees at all times.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unauthorized use by employee.</I> The protection afforded to an employee against liability for unauthorized use in excess of the limits set in § 226.12(b) applies only to unauthorized use by someone other than the employee. If the employee uses the card in an unauthorized manner, the regulation sets no restriction on the employee's potential liability for such use.
</P>
<P><I>12(c) Right of cardholder to assert claims or defenses against card issuer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.13.</I> The § 226.12(c) credit card “holder in due course” provision deals with the consumer's right to assert against the card issuer a claim or defense concerning property or services purchased with a credit card, if the merchant has been unwilling to resolve the dispute. Even though certain merchandise disputes, such as non-delivery of goods, may also constitute “billing errors” under § 226.13, that section operates independently of § 226.12(c). The cardholder whose asserted billing error involves undelivered goods may institute the error resolution procedures of § 226.13; but whether or not the cardholder has done so, the cardholder may assert claims or defenses under § 226.12(c). Conversely, the consumer may pay a disputed balance and thus have no further right to assert claims and defenses, but still may assert a billing error if notice of that billing error is given in the proper time and manner. An assertion that a particular transaction resulted from unauthorized use of the card could also be both a “defense” and a billing error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Claims and defenses assertible.</I> Section 226.12(c) merely preserves the consumer's right to assert against the card issuer any claims or defenses that can be asserted against the merchant. It does not determine what claims or defenses are valid as to the merchant; this determination must be made under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions excluded.</I> Section 226.12(c) does not apply to the use of a check guarantee card or a debit card in connection with an overdraft credit plan, or to a check guarantee card used in connection with cash-advance checks.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Method of calculating the amount of credit outstanding.</I> The amount of the claim or defense that the cardholder may assert shall not exceed the amount of credit outstanding for the disputed transaction at the time the cardholder first notifies the card issuer or the person honoring the credit card of the existence of the claim or defense. However, when a consumer has asserted a claim or defense against a creditor pursuant to § 226.12(c), the creditor must apply any payment or other credit in a manner that avoids or minimizes any reduction in the amount subject to that claim or defense. Accordingly, to determine the amount of credit outstanding for purposes of this section, payments and other credits must be applied first to amounts other than the disputed transaction.
</P>
<P>i. For examples of how to comply with §§ 226.12 and 226.53 for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, see comment 53-3.
</P>
<P>ii. For other types of credit card accounts, creditors may, at their option, apply payments consistent with § 226.53 and comment 53-3. In the alternative, payments and other credits may be applied to: Late charges in the order of entry to the account; then to finance charges in the order of entry to the account; and then to any debits other than the transaction subject to the claim or defense in the order of entry to the account. In these circumstances, if more than one item is included in a single extension of credit, credits are to be distributed pro rata according to prices and applicable taxes.
</P>
<P><I>12(c)(1) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Situations excluded and included.</I> The consumer may assert claims or defenses only when the goods or services are “purchased with the credit card.” This could include mail, the Internet or telephone orders, if the purchase is charged to the credit card account. But it would exclude:
</P>
<P>i. Use of a credit card to obtain a cash advance, even if the consumer then uses the money to purchase goods or services. Such a transaction would not involve “property or services purchased with the credit card.”
</P>
<P>ii. The purchase of goods or services by use of a check accessing an overdraft account and a credit card used solely for identification of the consumer. (On the other hand, if the credit card is used to make partial payment for the purchase and not merely for identification, the right to assert claims or defenses would apply to credit extended via the credit card, although not to the credit extended on the overdraft line.)
</P>
<P>iii. Purchases made by use of a check guarantee card in conjunction with a cash advance check (or by cash advance checks alone). (<I>See</I> comment 12(c)-3.) A cash advance check is a check that, when written, does not draw on an asset account; instead, it is charged entirely to an open-end credit account.
</P>
<P>iv. Purchases effected by use of either a check guarantee card or a debit card when used to draw on overdraft credit plans. (<I>See</I> comment 12(c)-3.) The debit card exemption applies whether the card accesses an asset account via point of sale terminals, automated teller machines, or in any other way, and whether the card qualifies as an “access device” under Regulation E or is only a paper based debit card. If a card serves both as an ordinary credit card and also as check guarantee or debit card, a transaction will be subject to this rule on asserting claims and defenses when used as an ordinary credit card, but not when used as a check guarantee or debit card.
</P>
<P><I>12(c)(2) Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope of prohibition.</I> Although an amount in dispute may not be reported as delinquent until the matter is resolved:
</P>
<P>i. That amount may be reported as disputed.
</P>
<P>ii. Nothing in this provision prohibits the card issuer from undertaking its normal collection activities for the delinquent and undisputed portion of the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Settlement of dispute.</I> A card issuer may not consider a dispute settled and report an amount disputed as delinquent or begin collection of the disputed amount until it has completed a reasonable investigation of the cardholder's claim. A reasonable investigation requires an independent assessment of the cardholder's claim based on information obtained from both the cardholder and the merchant, if possible. In conducting an investigation, the card issuer may request the cardholder's reasonable cooperation. The card issuer may not automatically consider a dispute settled if the cardholder fails or refuses to comply with a particular request. However, if the card issuer otherwise has no means of obtaining information necessary to resolve the dispute, the lack of information resulting from the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the card issuer reasonably to terminate the investigation.
</P>
<P><I>12(c)(3) Limitations.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(c)(3)(i)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Resolution with merchant.</I> The consumer must have tried to resolve the dispute with the merchant. This does not require any special procedures or correspondence between them, and is a matter for factual determination in each case. The consumer is not required to seek satisfaction from the manufacturer of the goods involved. When the merchant is in bankruptcy proceedings, the consumer is not required to file a claim in those proceedings, and may instead file a claim for the property or service purchased with the credit card with the card issuer directly.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(c)(3)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Geographic limitation.</I> The question of where a transaction occurs (as in the case of mail, Internet, or telephone orders, for example) is to be determined under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(c)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Merchant honoring card.</I> The exceptions (stated in § 226.12(c)(3)(ii)) to the amount and geographic limitations in § 226.12(c)(3)(i)(B) do not apply if the merchant merely honors, or indicates through signs or advertising that it honors, a particular credit card.
</P>
<P><I>12(d) Offsets by card issuer prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Holds on accounts.</I> “Freezing” or placing a hold on funds in the cardholder's deposit account is the functional equivalent of an offset and would contravene the prohibition in § 226.12(d)(1), unless done in the context of one of the exceptions specified in § 226.12(d)(2). For example, if the terms of a security agreement permitted the card issuer to place a hold on the funds, the hold would not violate the offset prohibition. Similarly, if an order of a bankruptcy court required the card issuer to turn over deposit account funds to the trustee in bankruptcy, the issuer would not violate the regulation by placing a hold on the funds in order to comply with the court order.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Funds intended as deposits.</I> If the consumer tenders funds as a deposit (to a checking account, for example), the card issuer may not apply the funds to repay indebtedness on the consumer's credit card account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Types of indebtedness; overdraft accounts.</I> The offset prohibition applies to any indebtedness arising from transactions under a credit card plan, including accrued finance charges and other charges on the account. The prohibition also applies to balances arising from transactions not using the credit card itself but taking place under plans that involve credit cards. For example, if the consumer writes a check that accesses an overdraft line of credit, the resulting indebtedness is subject to the offset prohibition since it is incurred through a credit card plan, even though the consumer did not use an associated check guarantee or debit card.
</P>
<P>4. <I>When prohibition applies in case of termination of account.</I> The offset prohibition applies even after the card issuer terminates the cardholder's credit card privileges, if the indebtedness was incurred prior to termination. If the indebtedness was incurred after termination, the prohibition does not apply.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Security interest—limitations.</I> In order to qualify for the exception stated in § 226.12(d)(2), a security interest must be affirmatively agreed to by the consumer and must be disclosed in the issuer's account-opening disclosures under § 226.6. The security interest must not be the functional equivalent of a right of offset; as a result, routinely including in agreements contract language indicating that consumers are giving a security interest in any deposit accounts maintained with the issuer does not result in a security interest that falls within the exception in § 226.12(d)(2). For a security interest to qualify for the exception under § 226.12(d)(2) the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer must be aware that granting a security interest is a condition for the credit card account (or for more favorable account terms) and must specifically intend to grant a security interest in a deposit account. Indicia of the consumer's awareness and intent include at least one of the following (or a substantially similar procedure that evidences the consumer's awareness and intent):
</P>
<P>A. Separate signature or initials on the agreement indicating that a security interest is being given.
</P>
<P>B. Placement of the security agreement on a separate page, or otherwise separating the security interest provisions from other contract and disclosure provisions.
</P>
<P>C. Reference to a specific amount of deposited funds or to a specific deposit account number.
</P>
<P>ii. The security interest must be obtainable and enforceable by creditors generally. If other creditors could not obtain a security interest in the consumer's deposit accounts to the same extent as the card issuer, the security interest is prohibited by § 226.12(d)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Security interest—after-acquired property.</I> As used in § 226.12(d)(2), the term “security interest” does not exclude (as it does for other Regulation Z purposes) interests in after-acquired property. Thus, a consensual security interest in deposit-account funds, including funds deposited after the granting of the security interest would constitute a permissible exception to the prohibition on offsets.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Court order.</I> If the card issuer obtains a judgment against the cardholder, and if state and other applicable law and the terms of the judgment do not so prohibit, the card issuer may offset the indebtedness against the cardholder's deposit account.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Automatic payment plans—scope of exception.</I> With regard to automatic debit plans under § 226.12(d)(3), the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. The cardholder's authorization must be in writing and signed or initialed by the cardholder.
</P>
<P>ii. The authorizing language need not appear directly above or next to the cardholder's signature or initials, provided it appears on the same document and that it clearly spells out the terms of the automatic debit plan.
</P>
<P>iii. If the cardholder has the option to accept or reject the automatic debit feature (such option may be required under section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act), the fact that the option exists should be clearly indicated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automatic payment plans—additional exceptions.</I> The following practices are not prohibited by § 226.12(d)(1):
</P>
<P>i. Automatically deducting charges for participation in a program of banking services (one aspect of which may be a credit card plan).
</P>
<P>ii. Debiting the cardholder's deposit account on the cardholder's specific request rather than on an automatic periodic basis (for example, a cardholder might check a box on the credit card bill stub, requesting the issuer to debit the cardholder's account to pay that bill).
</P>
<P><I>12(e) Prompt notification of returns and crediting of refunds.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(e)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Normal channels.</I> The term normal channels refers to any network or interchange system used for the processing of the original charge slips (or equivalent information concerning the transaction).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(e)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Crediting account.</I> The card issuer need not actually post the refund to the consumer's account within three business days after receiving the credit statement, provided that it credits the account as of a date within that time period.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.13—Billing Error Resolution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Creditor's failure to comply with billing error provisions.</I> Failure to comply with the error resolution procedures may result in the forfeiture of disputed amounts as prescribed in section 161(e) of the act. (Any failure to comply may also be a violation subject to the liability provisions of section 130 of the act.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges for error resolution.</I> If a billing error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the creditor may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation) and must credit the consumer's account if such a charge was assessed pending resolution. Since the act grants the consumer error resolution rights, the creditor should avoid any chilling effect on the good faith assertion of errors that might result if charges are assessed when no billing error has occurred.
</P>
<P><I>13(a) Definition of billing error.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Actual, implied, or apparent authority.</I> Whether use of a credit card or open-end credit plan is authorized is determined by state or other applicable law. (<I>See</I> comment 12(b)(1)(ii)-1.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. Section 226.13(a)(3) covers disputes about goods or services that are “not accepted” or “not delivered * * * as agreed”; for example:
</P>
<P>A. The appearance on a periodic statement of a purchase, when the consumer refused to take delivery of goods because they did not comply with the contract.
</P>
<P>B. Delivery of property or services different from that agreed upon.
</P>
<P>C. Delivery of the wrong quantity.
</P>
<P>D. Late delivery.
</P>
<P>E. Delivery to the wrong location.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 226.13(a)(3) does not apply to a dispute relating to the quality of property or services that the consumer accepts. Whether acceptance occurred is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to purchases made using a third-party payment intermediary.</I> Section 226.13(a)(3) generally applies to disputes about goods and services that are purchased using a third-party payment intermediary, such as a person-to-person Internet payment service, funded through use of a consumer's open-end credit plan when the goods or services are not accepted by the consumer or not delivered to the consumer as agreed. However, the extension of credit must be made at the time the consumer purchases the good or service and match the amount of the transaction to purchase the good or service (including ancillary taxes and fees). Under these circumstances, the property or service for which the extension of credit is made is not the payment service, but rather the good or service that the consumer has purchased using the payment service. Thus, for example, § 226.13(a)(3) would not apply to purchases using a third party payment intermediary that is funded through use of an open-end credit plan if:
</P>
<P>i. The extension of credit is made to fund the third-party payment intermediary “account,” but the consumer does not contemporaneously use those funds to purchase a good or service at that time.
</P>
<P>ii. The extension of credit is made to fund only a portion of the purchase amount, and the consumer uses other sources to fund the remaining amount.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notice to merchant not required.</I> A consumer is not required to first notify the merchant or other payee from whom he or she has purchased goods or services and attempt to resolve a dispute regarding the good or service before providing a billing-error notice to the creditor under § 226.13(a)(3) asserting that the goods or services were not accepted or delivered as agreed.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(a)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Computational errors.</I> In periodic statements that are combined with other information, the error resolution procedures are triggered only if the consumer asserts a computational billing error in the credit-related portion of the periodic statement. For example, if a bank combines a periodic statement reflecting the consumer's credit card transactions with the consumer's monthly checking statement, a computational error in the checking account portion of the combined statement is not a billing error.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(a)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Documentation requests.</I> A request for documentation such as receipts or sales slips, unaccompanied by an allegation of an error under § 226.13(a) or a request for additional clarification under § 226.13(a)(6), does not trigger the error resolution procedures. For example, a request for documentation merely for purposes such as tax preparation or recordkeeping does not trigger the error resolution procedures.
</P>
<P><I>13(b) Billing error notice.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawal of billing error notice by consumer.</I> The creditor need not comply with the requirements of § 226.13(c) through (g) of this section if the consumer concludes that no billing error occurred and voluntarily withdraws the billing error notice. The consumer's withdrawal of a billing error notice may be oral, electronic or written.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of written notice.</I> The creditor may require that the written notice not be made on the payment medium or other material accompanying the periodic statement if the creditor so stipulates in the billing rights statement required by §§ 226.6(a)(5) or (b)(5)(iii), and 226.9(a). In addition, if the creditor stipulates in the billing rights statement that it accepts billing error notices submitted electronically, and states the means by which a consumer may electronically submit a billing error notice, a notice sent in such manner will be deemed to satisfy the written notice requirement for purposes of § 226.13(b).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Failure to send periodic statement—timing.</I> If the creditor has failed to send a periodic statement, the 60-day period runs from the time the statement should have been sent. Once the statement is provided, the consumer has another 60 days to assert any billing errors reflected on it.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Failure to reflect credit—timing.</I> If the periodic statement fails to reflect a credit to the account, the 60-day period runs from transmittal of the statement on which the credit should have appeared.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transmittal.</I> If a consumer has arranged for periodic statements to be held at the financial institution until called for, the statement is “transmitted” when it is first made available to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identity of the consumer.</I> The billing error notice need not specify both the name and the account number if the information supplied enables the creditor to identify the consumer's name and account.
</P>
<P><I>13(c) Time for resolution; general procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Temporary or provisional corrections.</I> A creditor may temporarily correct the consumer's account in response to a billing error notice, but is not excused from complying with the remaining error resolution procedures within the time limits for resolution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Correction without investigation.</I> A creditor may correct a billing error in the manner and amount asserted by the consumer without the investigation or the determination normally required. The creditor must comply, however, with all other applicable provisions. If a creditor follows this procedure, no presumption is created that a billing error occurred.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship with § 226.12.</I> The consumer's rights under the billing error provisions in § 226.13 are independent of the provisions set forth in § 226.12(b) and (c). (<I>See</I> comments 12(b)-4, 12(b)(3)-3, and 12(c)-1.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Time for resolution.</I> The phrase two complete billing cycles means two actual billing cycles occurring after receipt of the billing error notice, not a measure of time equal to two billing cycles. For example, if a creditor on a monthly billing cycle receives a billing error notice mid-cycle, it has the remainder of that cycle plus the next two full billing cycles to resolve the error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Finality of error resolution procedure.</I> A creditor must comply with the error resolution procedures and complete its investigation to determine whether an error occurred within two complete billing cycles as set forth in § 226.13(c)(2). Thus, for example, § 226.13(c)(2) prohibits a creditor from reversing amounts previously credited for an alleged billing error even if the creditor obtains evidence after the error resolution time period has passed indicating that the billing error did not occur as asserted by the consumer. Similarly, if a creditor fails to mail or deliver a written explanation setting forth the reason why the billing error did not occur as asserted, or otherwise fails to comply with the error resolution procedures set forth in § 226.13(f), the creditor generally must credit the disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable, to the consumer's account. However, if a consumer receives more than one credit to correct the same billing error, § 226.13 does not prevent a creditor from reversing amounts it has previously credited to correct that error, provided that the total amount of the remaining credits is equal to or more than the amount of the error and that the consumer does not incur any fees or other charges as a result of the timing of the creditor's reversal. For example, assume that a consumer asserts a billing error with respect to a $100 transaction and that the creditor posts a $100 credit to the consumer's account to correct that error during the time period set forth in § 226.13(c)(2). However, following that time period, a merchant or other person honoring the credit card issues a $100 credit to the consumer to correct the same error. In these circumstances, § 226.13(c)(2) does not prohibit the creditor from reversing its $100 credit once the $100 credit from the merchant or other person has posted to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P><I>13(d) Rules pending resolution.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disputed amount.</I> Disputed amount is the dollar amount alleged by the consumer to be in error. When the allegation concerns the description or identification of the transaction (such as the date or the seller's name) rather than a dollar amount, the disputed amount is the amount of the transaction or charge that corresponds to the disputed transaction identification. If the consumer alleges a failure to send a periodic statement under § 226.13(a)(7), the disputed amount is the entire balance owing.
</P>
<P><I>13(d)(1) Consumer's right to withhold disputed amount; collection action prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited collection actions.</I> During the error resolution period, the creditor is prohibited from trying to collect the disputed amount from the consumer. Prohibited collection actions include, for example, instituting court action, taking a lien, or instituting attachment proceedings.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Right to withhold payment.</I> If the creditor reflects any disputed amount or related finance or other charges on the periodic statement, and is therefore required to make the disclosure under § 226.13(d)(4), the creditor may comply with that disclosure requirement by indicating that payment of any disputed amount is not required pending resolution. Making a disclosure that only refers to the disputed amount would, of course, in no way affect the consumer's right under § 226.13(d)(1) to withhold related finance and other charges. The disclosure under § 226.13(d)(4) need not appear in any specific place on the periodic statement, need not state the specific amount that the consumer may withhold, and may be preprinted on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Imposition of additional charges on undisputed amounts.</I> The consumer's withholding of a disputed amount from the total bill cannot subject undisputed balances (including new purchases or cash advances made during the present or subsequent cycles) to the imposition of finance or other charges. For example, if on an account with a grace period (that is, an account in which paying the new balance in full allows the consumer to avoid the imposition of additional finance charges), a consumer disputes a $2 item out of a total bill of $300 and pays $298 within the grace period, the consumer would not lose the grace period as to any undisputed amounts, even if the creditor determines later that no billing error occurred. Furthermore, finance or other charges may not be imposed on any new purchases or advances that, absent the unpaid disputed balance, would not have finance or other charges imposed on them. Finance or other charges that would have been incurred even if the consumer had paid the disputed amount would not be affected.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automatic payment plans—coverage.</I> The coverage of this provision is limited to the card issuer's automatic payment plans, whether or not the consumer's asset account is held by the card issuer or by another financial institution. It does not apply to automatic or bill-payment plans offered by financial institutions other than the credit card issuer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Automatic payment plans—time of notice.</I> While the card issuer does not have to restore or prevent the debiting of a disputed amount if the billing error notice arrives after the three-business-day cut-off, the card issuer must, however, prevent the automatic debit of any part of the disputed amount that is still outstanding and unresolved at the time of the next scheduled debit date.
</P>
<P><I>13(d)(2) Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Report of dispute.</I> Although the creditor must not issue an adverse credit report because the consumer fails to pay the disputed amount or any related charges, the creditor may report that the amount or the account is in dispute. Also, the creditor may report the account as delinquent if undisputed amounts remain unpaid.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Person.</I> During the error resolution period, the creditor is prohibited from making an adverse credit report about the disputed amount to any person—including employers, insurance companies, other creditors, and credit bureaus.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Creditor's agent.</I> Whether an agency relationship exists between a creditor and an issuer of an adverse credit report is determined by State or other applicable law.
</P>
<P><I>13(e) Procedures if billing error occurred as asserted.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Correction of error.</I> The phrase as applicable means that the necessary corrections vary with the type of billing error that occurred. For example, a misidentified transaction (or a transaction that is identified by one of the alternative methods in § 226.8) is cured by properly identifying the transaction and crediting related finance and any other charges imposed. The creditor is not required to cancel the amount of the underlying obligation incurred by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of correction notice.</I> The written correction notice may take a variety of forms. It may be sent separately, or it may be included on or with a periodic statement that is mailed within the time for resolution. If the periodic statement is used, the amount of the billing error must be specifically identified. If a separate billing error correction notice is provided, the accompanying or subsequent periodic statement reflecting the corrected amount may simply identify it as credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Discovery of information after investigation period. See</I> comment 13(c)(2)-2.
</P>
<P><I>13(f) Procedures if different billing error or no billing error occurred.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Different billing error.</I> Examples of a different billing error include:
</P>
<P>i. Differences in the amount of an error (for example, the customer asserts a $55.00 error but the error was only $53.00).
</P>
<P>ii. Differences in other particulars asserted by the consumer (such as when a consumer asserts that a particular transaction never occurred, but the creditor determines that only the seller's name was disclosed incorrectly).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of creditor's explanation.</I> The written explanation (which also may notify the consumer of corrections to the account) may take a variety of forms. It may be sent separately, or it may be included on or with a periodic statement that is mailed within the time for resolution. If the creditor uses the periodic statement for the explanation and correction(s), the corrections must be specifically identified. If a separate explanation, including the correction notice, is provided, the enclosed or subsequent periodic statement reflecting the corrected amount may simply identify it as a credit. The explanation may be combined with the creditor's notice to the consumer of amounts still owing, which is required under § 226.13(g)(1), provided it is sent within the time limit for resolution. (See commentary to § 226.13(e).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reasonable investigation.</I> A creditor must conduct a reasonable investigation before it determines that no billing error occurred or that a different billing error occurred from that asserted. In conducting its investigation of an allegation of a billing error, the creditor may reasonably request the consumer's cooperation. The creditor may not automatically deny a claim based solely on the consumer's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request, including providing an affidavit or filing a police report. However, if the creditor otherwise has no knowledge of facts confirming the billing error, the lack of information resulting from the consumer's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the creditor reasonably to terminate the investigation. The procedures involved in investigating alleged billing errors may differ depending on the billing error type.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Unauthorized transaction.</I> In conducting an investigation of a notice of billing error alleging an unauthorized transaction under § 226.13(a)(1), actions such as the following represent steps that a creditor may take, as appropriate, in conducting a reasonable investigation:
</P>
<P>A. Reviewing the types or amounts of purchases made in relation to the consumer's previous purchasing pattern.
</P>
<P>B. Reviewing where the purchases were delivered in relation to the consumer's residence or place of business.
</P>
<P>C. Reviewing where the purchases were made in relation to where the consumer resides or has normally shopped.
</P>
<P>D. Comparing any signature on credit slips for the purchases to the signature of the consumer (or an authorized user in the case of a credit card account) in the creditor's records, including other credit slips.
</P>
<P>E. Requesting documentation to assist in the verification of the claim.
</P>
<P>F. Requiring a written, signed statement from the consumer (or authorized user, in the case of a credit card account). For example, the creditor may include a signature line on a billing rights form that the consumer may send in to provide notice of the claim. However, a creditor may not require the consumer to provide an affidavit or signed statement under penalty of perjury as a part of a reasonable investigation.
</P>
<P>G. Requesting a copy of a police report, if one was filed.
</P>
<P>H. Requesting information regarding the consumer's knowledge of the person who allegedly obtained an extension of credit on the account or of that person's authority to do so.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Nondelivery of property or services.</I> In conducting an investigation of a billing error notice alleging the nondelivery of property or services under § 226.13(a)(3), the creditor shall not deny the assertion unless it conducts a reasonable investigation and determines that the property or services were actually delivered, mailed, or sent as agreed.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Incorrect information.</I> In conducting an investigation of a billing error notice alleging that information appearing on a periodic statement is incorrect because a person honoring the consumer's credit card or otherwise accepting an access device for an open-end plan has made an incorrect report to the creditor, the creditor shall not deny the assertion unless it conducts a reasonable investigation and determines that the information was correct.
</P>
<P><I>13(g) Creditor's rights and duties after resolution.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(g)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts owed by consumer.</I> Amounts the consumer still owes may include both minimum periodic payments and related finance and other charges that accrued during the resolution period. As explained in the commentary to § 226.13(d)(1), even if the creditor later determines that no billing error occurred, the creditor may not include finance or other charges that are imposed on undisputed balances solely as a result of a consumer's withholding payment of a disputed amount.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Time of notice.</I> The creditor need not send the notice of amount owed within the time period for resolution, although it is under a duty to send the notice promptly after resolution of the alleged error. If the creditor combines the notice of the amount owed with the explanation required under § 226.13(f)(1), the combined notice must be provided within the time limit for resolution.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(g)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Grace period if no error occurred.</I> If the creditor determines, after a reasonable investigation, that a billing error did not occur as asserted, and the consumer was entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer provided the billing error notice, the consumer must be given a period of time equal to the grace period disclosed under § 226.6(a)(1) or (b)(2) and § 226.7(a)(8) or (b)(8) to pay any disputed amounts due without incurring additional finance or other charges. However, the creditor need not allow a grace period disclosed under the above-mentioned sections to pay the amount due under § 226.13(g)(1) if no error occurred and the consumer was not entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer asserted the error. For example, assume that a creditor provides a consumer a grace period of 20 days to pay a new balance to avoid finance charges, and that the consumer did not carry an outstanding balance from the prior month. If the consumer subsequently asserts a billing error for the current statement period within the 20-day grace period, and the creditor determines that no billing error in fact occurred, the consumer must be given at least 20 days (i.e., the full disclosed grace period) to pay the amount due without incurring additional finance charges. Conversely, if the consumer was not entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer asserted the billing error, for example, if the consumer did not pay the previous monthly balance of undisputed charges in full, the creditor may assess finance charges on the disputed balance for the entire period the item was in dispute.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(g)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Time for payment.</I> The consumer has a minimum of 10 days to pay (measured from the time the consumer could reasonably be expected to have received notice of the amount owed) before the creditor may issue an adverse credit report; if an initially disclosed grace period allows the consumer a longer time in which to pay, the consumer has the benefit of that longer period.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 13(g)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit reporting.</I> Under § 226.13(g)(4)(i) and (iii) the creditor's additional credit reporting responsibilities must be accomplished promptly. The creditor need not establish costly procedures to fulfill this requirement. For example, a creditor that reports to a credit bureau on scheduled updates need not transmit corrective information by an unscheduled computer or magnetic tape; it may provide the credit bureau with the correct information by letter or other commercially reasonable means when using the scheduled update would not be “prompt.” The creditor is not responsible for ensuring that the credit bureau corrects its information immediately.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adverse report to credit bureau.</I> If a creditor made an adverse report to a credit bureau that disseminated the information to other creditors, the creditor fulfills its § 226.13(g)(4)(ii) obligations by providing the consumer with the name and address of the credit bureau.
</P>
<P><I>13(i) Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Credit extended directly from a non-overdraft credit line is governed solely by Regulation Z, even though a combined credit card/access device is used to obtain the extension.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Incidental credit under agreement.</I> Credit extended incident to an electronic fund transfer under an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution is governed by § 226.13(i), which provides that certain error resolution procedures in both this regulation and Regulation E apply. Incidental credit that is not extended under an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution is governed solely by the error resolution procedures in Regulation E. For example, credit inadvertently extended incident to an electronic fund-transfer, such as under an overdraft service not subject to Regulation Z, is governed solely by the Regulation E error resolution procedures, if the bank and the consumer do not have an agreement to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Application to debit/credit transactions-examples.</I> If a consumer withdraws money at an automated teller machine and activates an overdraft credit feature on the checking account:
</P>
<P>i. An error asserted with respect to the transaction is subject, for error resolution purposes, to the applicable Regulation E provisions (such as timing and notice) for the entire transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor need not provisionally credit the consumer's account, under § 205.11(c)(2)(i) of Regulation E, for any portion of the unpaid extension of credit.
</P>
<P>iii. The creditor must credit the consumer's account under § 205.11(c) with any finance or other charges incurred as a result of the alleged error.
</P>
<P>iv. The provisions of §§ 226.13(d) and (g) apply only to the credit portion of the transaction.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.14—Determination of Annual Percentage Rate
</HD2>
<P><I>14(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Tolerance.</I> The tolerance of 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate applies to any required disclosure of the annual percentage rate. The disclosure of the annual percentage rate is required in §§ 226.5a, 226.5b, 226.6, 226.7, 226.9, 226.15, 226.16, 226.26, 226.55, and 226.56.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding.</I> The regulation does not require that the annual percentage rate be calculated to any particular number of decimal places; rounding is permissible within the 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percent tolerance. For example, an exact annual percentage rate of 14.33333% may be stated as 14.33% or as 14.3%, or even as 14
<FR>1/4</FR>%; but it could not be stated as 14.2% or 14%, since each varies by more than the permitted tolerance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Periodic rates.</I> No explicit tolerance exists for any periodic rate as such; a disclosed periodic rate may vary from precise accuracy (for example, due to rounding) only to the extent that its annualized equivalent is within the tolerance permitted by § 226.14(a). Further, a periodic rate need not be calculated to any particular number of decimal places.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Finance charges.</I> The regulation does not prohibit creditors from assessing finance charges on balances that include prior, unpaid finance charges; state or other applicable law may do so, however.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Good faith reliance on faulty calculation tools.</I> The regulation relieves a creditor of liability for an error in the annual percentage rate or finance charge that resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor. Whether or not the creditor's use of the tool was in good faith must be determined on a case-by-case basis, but the creditor must in any case have taken reasonable steps to verify the accuracy of the tool, including any instructions, before using it. Generally, the safe harbor from liability is available only for errors directly attributable to the calculation tool itself, including software programs; it is not intended to absolve a creditor of liability for its own errors, or for errors arising from improper use of the tool, from incorrect data entry, or from misapplication of the law.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Effect of leap year.</I> Any variance in the annual percentage rate that occurs solely by reason of the addition of February 29 in a leap year, may be disregarded, and such a rate may be disclosed without regard to such variance.
</P>
<P><I>14(b) Annual percentage rate—in general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Corresponding annual percentage rate computation.</I> For purposes of §§ 226.5a, 226.5b, 226.6, 226.7(a)(4) or (b)(4), 226.9, 226.15, 226.16, 226.26, 226.55, and 226.56, the annual percentage rate is determined by multiplying the periodic rate by the number of periods in the year. This computation reflects the fact that, in such disclosures, the rate (known as the corresponding annual percentage rate) is prospective and does not involve any particular finance charge or periodic balance.
</P>
<P><I>14(c) Optional effective annual percentage rate for periodic statements for creditors offering open-end plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> The periodic statement may reflect (under § 226.7(a)(7)) the annualized equivalent of the rate actually applied during a particular cycle; this rate may differ from the corresponding annual percentage rate because of the inclusion of, for example, fixed, minimum, or transaction charges. Sections 226.14(c)(1) through (c)(4) state the computation rules for the effective rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges related to opening, renewing, or continuing an account.</I> Sections 226.14(c)(2) and (c)(3) exclude from the calculation of the effective annual percentage rate finance charges that are imposed during the billing cycle such as a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to opening, renewing, or continuing an account. The charges involved here do not relate to a specific transaction or to specific activity on the account, but relate solely to the opening, renewing, or continuing of the account. For example, an annual fee to renew an open-end credit account that is a percentage of the credit limit on the account, or that is charged only to consumers that have not used their credit card for a certain dollar amount in transactions during the preceding year, would not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate, even though the fee may not be excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4(c)(4). (See comment 4(c)(4)-2.) This rule applies even if the loan fee, points, or similar charges are billed on a subsequent periodic statement or withheld from the proceeds of the first advance on the account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Classification of charges.</I> If the finance charge includes a charge not due to the application of a periodic rate, the creditor must use the annual percentage rate computation method that corresponds to the type of charge imposed. If the charge is tied to a specific transaction (for example, 3 percent of the amount of each transaction), then the method in § 226.14(c)(3) must be used. If a fixed or minimum charge is applied, that is, one not tied to any specific transaction, then the formula in § 226.14(c)(2) is appropriate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Small finance charges.</I> Section 226.14(c)(4) gives the creditor an alternative to § 226.14(c)(2) and (c)(3) if small finance charges (50 cents or less) are involved; that is, if the finance charge includes minimum or fixed fees not due to the application of a periodic rate and the total finance charge for the cycle does not exceed 50 cents. For example, while a monthly activity fee of 50 cents on a balance of $20 would produce an annual percentage rate of 30 percent under the rule in § 226.14(c)(2), the creditor may disclose an annual percentage rate of 18 percent if the periodic rate generally applicable to all balances is 1
<FR>1/2</FR> percent per month.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prior-cycle adjustments.</I> i. The annual percentage rate reflects the finance charges imposed during the billing cycle. However, finance charges imposed during the billing cycle may relate to activity in a prior cycle. Examples of circumstances when this may occur are:
</P>
<P>A. A cash advance occurs on the last day of a billing cycle on an account that uses the transaction date to figure finance charges, and it is impracticable to post the transaction until the following cycle.
</P>
<P>B. An adjustment to the finance charge is made following the resolution of a billing error dispute.
</P>
<P>C. A consumer fails to pay the purchase balance under a deferred payment feature by the payment due date, and finance charges are imposed from the date of purchase.
</P>
<P>ii. Finance charges relating to activity in prior cycles should be reflected on the periodic statement as follows:
</P>
<P>A. If a finance charge imposed in the current billing cycle is attributable to periodic rates applicable to prior billing cycles (such as when a deferred payment balance was not paid in full by the payment due date and finance charges from the date of purchase are now being debited to the account, or when a cash advance occurs on the last day of a billing cycle on an account that uses the transaction date to figure finance charges and it is impracticable to post the transaction until the following cycle), and the creditor uses the quotient method to calculate the annual percentage rate, the numerator would include the amount of any transaction charges plus any other finance charges posted during the billing cycle. At the creditor's option, balances relating to the finance charge adjustment may be included in the denominator if permitted by the legal obligation, if it was impracticable to post the transaction in the previous cycle because of timing, or if the adjustment is covered by comment 14(c)-5.ii.B.
</P>
<P>B. If a finance charge that is posted to the account relates to activity for which a finance charge was debited or credited to the account in a previous billing cycle (for example, if the finance charge relates to an adjustment such as the resolution of a billing error dispute, or an unintentional posting error, or a payment by check that was later returned unpaid for insufficient funds or other reasons), the creditor shall at its option:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Calculate the annual percentage rate in accordance with ii.A. of this paragraph, or
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Disclose the finance charge adjustment on the periodic statement and calculate the annual percentage rate for the current billing cycle without including the finance charge adjustment in the numerator and balances associated with the finance charge adjustment in the denominator.
</P>
<P><I>14(c)(1) Solely periodic rates imposed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic rates.</I> Section 226.14(c)(1) applies if the only finance charge imposed is due to the application of a periodic rate to a balance. The creditor may compute the annual percentage rate either:
</P>
<P>i. By multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in the year; or
</P>
<P>ii. By the “quotient” method. This method refers to a composite annual percentage rate when different periodic rates apply to different balances. For example, a particular plan may involve a periodic rate of 
<FR>1/2</FR> percent on balances up to $500, and 1 percent on balances over $500. If, in a given cycle, the consumer has a balance of $800, the finance charge would consist of $7.50 (500 × .015) plus $3.00 (300 × .01), for a total finance charge of $10.50. The annual percentage rate for this period may be disclosed either as 18% on $500 and 12 percent on $300, or as 15.75 percent on a balance of $800 (the quotient of $10.50 divided by $800, multiplied by 12).
</P>
<P><I>14(c)(2) Minimum or fixed charge, but not transaction charge, imposed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Certain charges not based on periodic rates.</I> Section 226.14(c)(2) specifies use of the quotient method to determine the annual percentage rate if the finance charge imposed includes a certain charge not due to the application of a periodic rate (other than a charge relating to a specific transaction). For example, if the creditor imposes a minimum $1 finance charge on all balances below $50, and the consumer's balance was $40 in a particular cycle, the creditor would disclose an annual percentage rate of 30 percent (1/40 × 12).
</P>
<P>2. <I>No balance.</I> If there is no balance to which the finance charge is applicable, an annual percentage rate cannot be determined under § 226.14(c)(2). This could occur not only when minimum charges are imposed on an account with no balance, but also when a periodic rate is applied to advances from the date of the transaction. For example, if on May 19 the consumer pays the new balance in full from a statement dated May 1, and has no further transactions reflected on the June 1 statement, that statement would reflect a finance charge with no account balance.
</P>
<P><I>14(c)(3) Transaction charge imposed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transaction charges.</I> i. Section 226.14(c)(3) transaction charges include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. A loan fee of $10 imposed on a particular advance.
</P>
<P>B. A charge of 3 percent of the amount of each transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The reference to avoiding duplication in the computation requires that the amounts of transactions on which transaction charges were imposed not be included both in the amount of total balances and in the “other amounts on which a finance charge was imposed” figure. In a multifeatured plan, creditors may consider each bona fide feature separately in the calculation of the denominator. A creditor has considerable flexibility in defining features for open-end plans, as long as the creditor has a reasonable basis for the distinctions. For further explanation and examples of how to determine the components of this formula, see appendix F to part 226.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> Section 226.14(c)(3) sets forth an acceptable method for calculating the annual percentage rate if the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate. This section includes the requirement that the creditor follow the rules in appendix F to part 226 in calculating the annual percentage rate, especially the provision in the introductory section of appendix F which addresses the daily rate/transaction charge situation by providing that the “average of daily balances” shall be used instead of the “sum of the balances.”
</P>
<P><I>14(d) Calculations where daily periodic rate applied.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Quotient method.</I> Section 226.14(d) addresses use of a daily periodic rate(s) to determine some or all of the finance charge and use of the quotient method to determine the annual percentage rate. Since the quotient formula in § 226.14(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2) cannot be used when a daily rate is being applied to a series of daily balances, § 226.14(d) provides two alternative ways to calculate the annual percentage rate—either of which satisfies the provisions of § 226.7(a)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> If the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate, see comment 14(c)(3)-2 for guidance on an appropriate calculation method.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.15—Right of Rescission
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> Credit extensions that are not subject to the regulation are not covered by § 226.15 even if the customer's principal dwelling is the collateral securing the credit. For this purpose, <I>credit extensions</I> also would include the occurrences listed in Comment 15(a)(1)-1. For example, the right of rescission does not apply to the opening of a business-purpose credit line, even though the loan is secured by the customer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>15(a) Consumer's right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Occurrences subject to right.</I> Under an open-end credit plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the right of rescission generally arises with each of the following occurrences:
</P>
<P>• Opening the account.
</P>
<P>• Each credit extension.
</P>
<P>• Increasing the credit limit.
</P>
<P>• Adding to an existing account a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>• Increasing the dollar amount of the security interest taken in the dwelling to secure the plan. For example, a consumer may open an account with a $10,000 credit limit, $5,000 of which is initially secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. The consumer has the right to rescind at that time and (except as noted in § 226.15(a)(1)(ii)) with each extension on the account. Later, if the creditor decides that it wants the credit line fully secured, and increases the amount of its interest in the consumer's dwelling, the consumer has the right to rescind the increase.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exceptions.</I> Although the consumer generally has the right to rescind with each transaction on the account, section 125(e) of the Act provides an exception: the creditor need not provide the right to rescind at the time of each credit extension made under an open-end credit plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling to the extent that the credit extended is in accordance with a previously established credit limit for the plan. This limited rescission option is available whether or not the plan existed prior to the effective date of the Act.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Security interest arising from transaction.</I> In order for the right of rescission to apply, the security interest must be retained as part of the credit transaction. For example:
</P>
<P>• A security interest that is acquired by a contractor who is also extending the credit in the transaction.
</P>
<P>• A mechanic's or materialman's lien that is retained by a subcontractor or supplier of a contractor-creditor, even when the latter has waived its own security interest in the consumer's home.
</P>
<P>The security interest is not part of the credit transaction, and therefore the transaction is not subject to the right of rescission when, for example:
</P>
<P>• A mechanic's or materialman's lien is obtained by a contractor who is not a party to the credit transaction but merely is paid with the proceeds of the consumer's cash advance.
</P>
<P>• All security interests that may arise in connection with the credit transaction are validly waived.
</P>
<P>• The creditor obtains a lien and completion bond that in effect satisfies all liens against the consumer's principal dwelling as a result of the credit transaction.
</P>
<P>Although liens arising by operation of law are not considered security interests for purposes of disclosure under § 226.2, that section specifically includes them in the definition for purposes of the right of rescission. Thus, even though an interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is not a required disclosure under § 226.6(c), it may still give rise to the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consumer.</I> To be a consumer within the meaning of § 226.2, that person must at least have an ownership interest in the dwelling that is encumbered by the creditor's security interest, although that person need not be a signatory to the credit agreement. For example, if only one spouse enters into a secured plan, the other spouse is a consumer if the ownership interest of that spouse is subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can only have one principal dwelling at a time. (But see comment 15(a)(1)-6.) A vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. A transaction secured by a second home (such as a vacation home) that is not currently being used as the consumer's principal dwelling is not rescindable, even if the consumer intends to reside there in the future. When a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within one year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling if it secures the open-end credit line. In that case, the transaction secured by the new dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction and is not rescindable. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, an advance on an open-end line to finance B and secured by B is a residential mortgage transaction. Dwelling, as defined in § 226.2, includes structures that are classified as personalty under state law. For example, a transaction secured by a mobile home, trailer, or houseboat used as the consumer's principal dwelling may be rescindable.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Special rule for principal dwelling.</I> Notwithstanding the general rule that consumers may have only one principal dwelling, when the consumer is acquiring or constructing a new principal dwelling, a credit plan or extension that is subject to Regulation Z and is secured by the equity in the consumer's current principal dwelling is subject to the right of rescission regardless of the purpose of that loan (for example, an advance to be used as a bridge loan). For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a loan to finance B and secured by A is subject to the right of rescission. Moreover, a loan secured by both A and B is, likewise, rescindable.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's exercise of right.</I> The consumer must exercise the right of rescission in writing but not necessarily on the notice supplied under § 226.15(b). Whatever the means of sending the notification of rescission—mail, telegram or other written means—the time period for the creditor's performance under § 226.15(d)(2) does not begin to run until the notification has been received. The creditor may designate an agent to receive the notification so long as the agent's name and address appear on the notice provided to the consumer under § 226.15(b). Where the creditor fails to provide the consumer with a designated address for sending the notification of rescission, delivery of the notification to the person or address to which the consumer has been directed to send payments constitutes delivery to the creditor or assignee. State law determines whether delivery of the notification to a third party other than the person to whom payments are made is delivery to the creditor or assignee, in the case where the creditor fails to designate an address for sending the notification of rescission. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15 (a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rescission period.</I> the period within which the consumer may exercise the right to rescind runs for 3 business days from the last of 3 events:
</P>
<P>• The occurrence that gives rise to the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>• Delivery of <I>all</I> material disclosures that are relevant to the plan.
</P>
<P>• Delivery to the consumer of the required rescission notice.
</P>
<P>For example, an account is opened on Friday, June 1, and the disclosures and notice of the right to rescind were given on Thursday, May 31; the rescission period will expire at midnight of the third business day after June 1—that is, Tuesday June 5. In another example, if the disclosures are given and the account is opened on Friday, June 1, and the rescission notice is given on Monday, June 4, the rescission period expires at midnight of the third business day after June 4—that is Thursday, June 7. The consumer must place the rescission notice in the mail, file it for telegraphic transmission, or deliver it to the creditor's place of business within that period in order to exercise the right.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Material disclosures.</I> Footnote 36 sets forth the material disclosures that must be provided before the rescission period can begin to run. The creditor must provide sufficient information to satisfy the requirements of § 226.6 for these disclosures. A creditor may satisfy this requirement by giving an initial disclosure statement that complies with the regulation. Failure to give the other required initial disclosures (such as the billing rights statement) or the information required under section 226.5b. does not prevent the running of the rescission period, although that failure may result in civil liability or administrative sanctions. The payment terms set forth in footnote 36 apply to any repayment phase set forth in the agreement. Thus, the payment terms described in § 226.6(e)(2) for any repayment phase as well as for the draw period are “material disclosures.” 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Material disclosures—variable rate program.</I> For a variable rate program, the material disclosures also include the disclosures listed in footnote 12 to § 226.6(a)(2): the circumstances under which the rate may increase; the limitations on the increase; and the effect of an increase. The disclosures listed in footnote 12 to section 226.6(a)(2) for any repayment phase also are material disclosures for variable-rate programs.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unexpired right of rescission.</I> When the creditor has failed to take the action necessary to start the three-day rescission period running the right to rescind automatically lapses on the occurrence of the earliest of the following three events:
</P>
<P>• The expiration of three years after the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>• Transfer of all the consumer's interest in the property.
</P>
<P>• Sale of the consumer's interest in the property, including a transaction in which the consumer sells the dwelling and takes back a purchase money note and mortgage or retains legal title through a device such as an installment sale contract.
</P>
<P>Transfer of all the consumer's interest includes such transfers as bequests and gifts. A sale or transfer of the property need not be voluntary to terminate the right to rescind. For example, a foreclosure sale would terminate an unexpired right to rescind. As provided in section 125 of the act, the three-year limit may be extended by an administrative proceeding to enforce the provisions of § 226.15. A partial transfer of the consumer's interest, such as a transfer bestowing co-ownership on a spouse, does not terminate the right of rescission. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(a)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint owners.</I> When more than one consumer has the right to rescind a transaction, any one of them may exercise that right and cancel the transaction on behalf of all. For example, if both a husband and wife have the right to rescind a transaction, either spouse acting alone may exercise the right and both are bound by the rescission.
</P>
<P><I>15(b) Notice of right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Who receives notice.</I> Each consumer entitled to rescind must be given:
</P>
<P>• Two copies of the rescission notice.
</P>
<P>• The material disclosures.
</P>
<P>In a transaction involving joint owners, both of whom are entitled to rescind, both must receive the notice of the right to rescind and disclosures. For example, if both spouses are entitled to rescind a transaction, each must receive two copies of the rescission notice (one copy to each if the notice is provided in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act) and one copy of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> The rescission notice may be physically separated from the material disclosures or combined with the material disclosures, so long as the information required to be included on the notice is set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner. See the model notices in appendix G.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all of the information outlined in § 226.15(b)(1) through (5). The requirement in § 226.15(b) that the transaction or occurrence be identified may be met by providing the date of the transaction or occurrence. The notice may include additional information related to the required information, such as:
</P>
<P>• A description of the property subject to the security interest. 
</P>
<P>• A statement that joint owners may have the right to rescind and that a rescission by one is effective for all.
</P>
<P>• The name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of rescission.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Time of providing notice.</I> The notice required by § 226.15(b) need not be given before the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission. The creditor may deliver the notice after the occurrence, but the rescission period will not begin to run until the notice is given. For example, if the creditor provides the notice on May 15, but disclosures were given and the credit limit was raised on May 10, the 3-business-day rescission period will run from May 15.
</P>
<P><I>15(c) Delay of creditor's performance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded, the creditor must not, either directly or through a third party: 
</P>
<P>• Disburse advances to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>• Begin performing services for the consumer. 
</P>
<P>• Deliver materials to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>A creditor may, however, continue to allow transactions under an existing open-end credit plan during a rescission period that results solely from the addition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling. (See comment 15(c)-3 for other actions that may be taken during the delay period.) 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Escrow.</I> The creditor may disburse advances during the rescission period in a valid escrow arrangement. The creditor may not, however, appoint the consumer as “trustee” or “escrow agent” and distribute funds to the consumer in that capacity during the delay period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Actions during the delay period.</I> Section 226.15(c) does not prevent the creditor from taking other steps during the delay, short of beginning actual performance. Unless otherwise prohibited, such as by state law, the creditor may, for example: 
</P>
<P>• Prepare the cash advance check. 
</P>
<P>• Perfect the security interest. 
</P>
<P>• Accrue finance charges during the delay period. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Performance by third party.</I> The creditor is relieved from liability for failure to delay performance if a third party with no knowledge that the rescission right has been activated provides materials or services, as long as any debt incurred for materials or services obtained by the consumer during the rescission period is not secured by the security interest in the consumer's dwelling. For example, if a consumer uses a bank credit card to purchase materials from a merchant in an amount below the floor limit, the merchant might not contact the card issuer for authorization and therefore would not know that materials should not be provided.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Delay beyond rescission period.</I> The creditor must wait until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by doing one of the following:
</P>
<P>• Waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the rescission period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice.
</P>
<P>• Obtaining a written statement from the consumer that the right has not been exercised.
</P>
<P>When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the creditor cannot reasonably rely on the assurance of only one consumer, because other consumers may exercise the right.
</P>
<P><I>15(d) Effects of rescission.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Termination of security interest.</I> Any security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void when the consumer exercises the right of rescission. The security interest is automatically negated, regardless of its status and whether or not it was recorded or perfected. Under § 226.15(d)(2), however, the creditor must take any action necessary to reflect the fact that the security interest no longer exists.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extent of termination.</I> The creditor's security interest is void to the extent that it is related to the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission. For example, upon rescission:
</P>
<P>• If the consumer's right to rescind is activated by the opening of a plan, any security interest in the principal dwelling is void.
</P>
<P>• If the right arises due to an increase in the credit limit, the security interest is void as to the amount of credit extensions over the prior limit, but the security interest in amounts up to the original credit limit is unaffected.
</P>
<P>• If the right arises with each individual credit extension, then the interest is void as to that extension, and other extensions are unaffected.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Refunds to consumer.</I> The consumer cannot be required to pay any amount in the form of money or property either to the creditor or to a third party as part of the occurrence subject to the right of rescission. Any amounts of this nature already paid by the consumer must be refunded. “Any amount” includes finance charges already accrued, as well as other charges such as broker fees, application and commitment fees, or fees for a title search or appraisal, whether paid to the creditor, paid by the consumer directly to a third party, or passed on from the creditor to the third party. It is irrelevant that these amounts may not represent profit to the creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>• If the occurrence is the opening of the plan, the creditor must return any membership or application fee paid.
</P>
<P>• If the occurrence is the increase in a credit limit or the addition of a security interest, the creditor must return any fee imposed for a new credit report or filing fees.
</P>
<P>• If the occurrence is a credit extension, the creditors must return fees such as application, title, and appraisal or survey fees, as well as any finance charges related to the credit extension.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts not refundable to consumer.</I> Creditors need not return any money given by the consumer to a third party outside of the occurrence, such as costs incurred for a building permit or for a zoning variance. Similarly, the term <I>any amount</I> does not apply to money or property given by the creditor to the consumer; those amounts must be tendered by the consumer to the creditor under § 226.15(d)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reflection of security interest termination.</I> The creditor must take whatever steps are necessary to indicate that the security interest is terminated. Those steps include the cancellation of documents creating the security interest, and the filing of release or termination statements in the public record. In a transaction involving subcontractors or suppliers that also hold security interests related to the occurrence rescinded by the consumer, the creditor must insure that the termination of their security interests is also reflected. The 20-day period for the creditor's action refers to the time within which the creditor must begin the process. It does not require all necessary steps to have been completed within that time, but the creditor is responsible for seeing the process through to completion.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Property exchange.</I> Once the creditor has fulfilled its obligation under § 226.15(d)(2), the consumer must tender to the creditor any property or money the creditor has already delivered to the consumer. At the consumer's option, property may be tendered at the location of the property. For example, if fixtures or furniture have been delivered to the consumer's home, the consumer may tender them to the creditor by making them available for pick-up at the home, rather than physically returning them to the creditor's premises. Money already given to the consumer <I>must</I> be tendered at the creditor's place of business. For purpose of property exchange, the following additional rules apply:
</P>
<P>• A cash advance is considered money for purposes of this section even if the creditor knows what the consumer intends to purchase with the money.
</P>
<P>• In a 3-party open-end credit plan (that is, if the creditor and seller are not the same or related persons), extensions by the creditor that are used by the consumer for purchases from third-party sellers are considered to be the same as cash advances for purposes of tendering value to the creditor, even though the transaction is a purchase for other purposes under the regulation. For example, if a consumer exercises the unexpired right to rescind after using a 3-party credit card for one year, the consumer would tender the amount of the purchase price for the items charged to the account, rather than tendering the items themselves to the creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable value.</I> If returning the property would be extremely burdensome to the consumer, the consumer may offer the creditor its reasonable value rather than returning the property itself. For example, if building materials have already been incorporated into the consumer's dwelling, the consumer may pay their reasonable value.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> The procedures outlined in § 226.15(d)(2) and (3) may be modified by a court. For example, when a consumer is in bankruptcy proceedings and prohibited from returning anything to the creditor, or when the equities dictate, a modification might be made. The sequence of procedures under § 226.15(d)(2) and (3), or a court's modification of those procedures under § 226.15(d)(4), does not affect a consumer's substantive right to rescind and to have the loan amount adjusted accordingly. Where the consumer's right to rescind is contested by the creditor, a court would normally determine whether the consumer has a right to rescind and determine the amounts owed before establishing the procedures for the parties to tender any money or property. 
</P>
<P><I>15(e) Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Need for waiver.</I> To waive the right to rescind, the consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that must be met before the end of the rescission period. The existence of the consumer's waiver will not, of itself, automatically insulate the creditor from liability for failing to provide the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> To waive or modify the right to rescind, the consumer must give a written statement that specifically waives or modifies the right, and also includes a brief description of the emergency. Each consumer entitled to rescind must sign the waiver statement. In a transaction involving multiple consumers, such as a husband and wife using their home as collateral, the waiver must bear the signatures of both spouses.
</P>
<P><I>15(f) Exempt transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> Although residential mortgage transactions would seldom be made on bona fide open-end credit plans (under which repeated transactions must be reasonably contemplated), an advance on an open-end plan could be for a downpayment for the purchase of a dwelling that would then secure the remainder of the line. In such a case, only the particular advance for the downpayment would be exempt from the rescission right.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State creditors.</I> Cities and other political subdivisions of states acting as creditors are not exempt from § 226.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> When the creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's principal dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a “spreader clause” (also known as a “dragnet” or cross-collateralization clause), subsequent occurrences such as the opening of a plan or individual credit extensions are subject to the right of rescission to the same degree as if the security interest were taken directly to secure the open-end plan, unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent open-end credit extensions. 
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 113, 125, 130, and the Housing and Community Development Technical Amendments Act of 1984, Sec. 205 (Pub. L. 98-479).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.2 and appendix G.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.9.
</P>
<P><I>1981 Changes:</I> Section 226.15 reflects the statutory amendments of 1980, providing for a limited right of rescission when individual credit extensions are made in accordance with a previously established credit limit for an open-end credit plan. The 1980 amendments provided that this limited rescission right be available for a three-year trial period. However, Pub. L. 98-479 now permanently exempts such individual credit extensions from the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>The right to rescind applies not only to real property used as the consumer's principal dwelling, but to personal property as well. The regulation provides no specific text or format for the rescission notice.
</P>
<P>When a consumer exercises the right to rescind, the creditor now has 20 days to return a consumer's money or property and take the necessary action to terminate the security interest. The creditor has 20 days to take possession of the money or property after the consumer's tender before the consumer may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<P>Under the revised regulation, the waiver provision has been relaxed. The lien status of the mortgage is irrelevant for purposes of the residential mortgage transaction exemption. The exemption for agricultural loans from the right to rescind has been deleted.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.16—Advertising
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—general.</I> Section 226.16 is subject to the general “clear and conspicuous” standard for subpart B (<I>see</I> § 226.5(a)(1)) but prescribes no specific rules for the format of the necessary disclosures, other than the format requirements related to the disclosure of a promotional rate or payment under § 226.16(d)(6), a promotional rate or promotional fee under § 226.16(g), or a deferred interest or similar offer under § 226.16(h). Other than the disclosure of certain terms described in §§ 226.16(d)(6), (g), or (h), the credit terms need not be printed in a certain type size nor need they appear in any particular place in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—promotional rates or payments; deferred interest or similar offers.</I> i. For purposes of § 226.16(d)(6), a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in § 226.16(d)(6)(ii)(A)-(C) is disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the promotional rate or payment to which it applies. If the information in § 226.16(d)(6)(ii)(A)-(C) is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the promotional rate or payment to which it applies, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent and in close proximity. Notwithstanding the above, for electronic advertisements that disclose promotional rates or payments, compliance with the requirements of § 226.16(c) is deemed to satisfy the clear and conspicuous standard.
</P>
<P>ii. For purposes of § 226.16(g)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements only, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means the required information in § 226.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) must be equally prominent to the promotional rate or promotional fee to which it applies. If the information in § 226.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) is the same type size as the promotional rate or promotional fee to which it applies, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent. For purposes of § 226.16(h)(3) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements only, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means the required information in § 226.16(h)(3) must be equally prominent to each statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period. If the information required to be disclosed under § 226.16(h)(3) is the same type size as the statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period, the disclosure would be deemed to be equally prominent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—Internet advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure for visual text advertisements on the Internet for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 226.16(d). (See also comment 16(c)(1)-2.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—televised advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 226.16(e), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of visual text advertisements on television for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices, are displayed in a manner that allows for a consumer to read the information required to be disclosed, and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 226.16(d). For example, very fine print in a television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read the information required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—oral advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 226.16(e), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of an oral advertisement for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, whether by radio, television, the Internet, or other medium, means that the required disclosures are given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. For example, information stated very rapidly at a low volume in a radio or television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot hear and comprehend the information required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Expressing the annual percentage rate in abbreviated form.</I> Whenever the annual percentage rate is used in an advertisement for open-end credit, it may be expressed using a readily understandable abbreviation such as APR.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Effective date.</I> For guidance on the applicability of the Board's revisions to § 226.16 published on July 30, 2008, see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P><I>16(a) Actually available terms.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> To the extent that an advertisement mentions specific credit terms, it may state only those terms that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not advertise a very low annual percentage rate that will not in fact be available at any time. Section 226.16(a) is not intended to inhibit the promotion of new credit programs, but to bar the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. For example, a creditor may advertise terms that will be offered for only a limited period, or terms that will become available at a future date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Specific credit terms. Specific credit terms</I> is not limited to the disclosures required by the regulation but would include any specific components of a credit plan, such as the minimum periodic payment amount or seller's points in a plan secured by real estate.
</P>
<P><I>16(b) Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph (b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Triggering terms.</I> Negative as well as affirmative references trigger the requirement for additional information. For example, if a creditor states <I>no interest</I> or <I>no annual membership fee</I> in an advertisement, additional information must be provided. Other examples of terms that trigger additional disclosures are:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Small monthly service charge on the remaining balance,</I> which describes how the amount of a finance charge will be determined.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>12 percent Annual Percentage Rate</I> or <I>A $15 annual membership fee buys you $2,000 in credit,</I> which describe required disclosures under § 226.6.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Implicit terms.</I> Section 226.16(b) applies even if the triggering term is not stated explicitly, but may be readily determined from the advertisement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Membership fees.</I> A membership fee is not a triggering term nor need it be disclosed under § 226.16(b)(1)(iii) if it is required for participation in the plan whether or not an open-end credit feature is attached. (See comment 6(a)(2)-1 and § 226.6(b)(3)(iii)(B).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deferred billing and deferred payment programs.</I> Statements such as “Charge it—you won't be billed until May” or “You may skip your January payment” are not in themselves triggering terms, since the timing for initial billing or for monthly payments are not terms required to be disclosed under § 226.6. However, a statement such as “No interest charges until May” or any other statement regarding when interest or finance charges begin to accrue is a triggering term, whether appearing alone or in conjunction with a description of a deferred billing or deferred payment program such as the examples above.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> In disclosing the annual percentage rate in an advertisement for a variable-rate plan, as required by § 226.16(b)(1)(ii), the creditor may use an insert showing the current rate; or may give the rate as of a specified recent date. The additional requirement in § 226.16(b)(1)(ii) to disclose the variable-rate feature may be satisfied by disclosing that the annual percentage rate may vary or a similar statement, but the advertisement need not include the information required by § 226.6(a)(1)(ii) or (b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Membership fees for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> For purposes of § 226.16(b)(1)(iii), membership fees that may be imposed on open-end (not home-secured) plans shall have the same meaning as in § 226.5a(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph (b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assumptions.</I> In stating the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation, assuming that the consumer pays only the periodic payment amounts advertised, as required under § 226.16(b)(2), the following additional assumptions may be made:
</P>
<P>i. Payments are made timely so as not to be considered late by the creditor;
</P>
<P>ii. Payments are made each period, and no debt cancellation or suspension agreement, or skip payment feature applies to the account;
</P>
<P>iii. No interest rate changes will affect the account;
</P>
<P>iv. No other balances are currently carried or will be carried on the account;
</P>
<P>v. No taxes or ancillary charges are or will be added to the obligation;
</P>
<P>vi. Goods or services are delivered on a single date; and
</P>
<P>vii. The consumer is not currently and will not become delinquent on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Positive periodic payment amounts.</I> Only positive periodic payment amounts trigger the additional disclosures under § 226.16(b)(2). Therefore, if the periodic payment amount advertised is not a positive amount (<I>e.g.,</I> “No payments”), the advertisement need not state the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation.
</P>
<P><I>16(c) Catalogs or other multiple-page advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The multiple-page advertisements to which § 226.16(c) refers are advertisements consisting of a series of sequentially numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing consisting of several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope does not constitute a single multiple-page advertisement for purposes of § 226.16(c).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 16(c)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.16(c)(1) permits creditors to put credit information together in one place in a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site). The rule applies only if the advertisement contains one or more of the triggering terms from § 226.16(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic advertisement.</I> If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) contains the table or schedule permitted under § 226.16(c)(1), any statement of terms set forth in § 226.6 appearing anywhere else in the advertisement must clearly direct the consumer to the location where the table or schedule begins. For example, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 16(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Table or schedule if credit terms depend on outstanding balance.</I> If the credit terms of a plan vary depending on the amount of the balance outstanding, rather than the amount of any property purchased, a table or schedule complies with § 226.16(c)(2) if it includes the required disclosures for representative balances. For example, a creditor would disclose that a periodic rate of 1.5% is applied to balances of $500 or less, and a 1% rate is applied to balances greater than $500.
</P>
<P><I>16(d) Additional requirements for home-equity plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Trigger terms.</I> Negative as well as affirmative references trigger the requirement for additional information. For example, if a creditor states <I>no annual fee, no points,</I> or <I>we waive closing costs</I> in an advertisement, additional information must be provided. (<I>See</I> comment 16(d)-4 regarding the use of a phrase such as <I>no closing costs.</I>) Inclusion of a statement such as <I>low fees,</I> however, would not trigger the need to state additional information. References to payment terms include references to the draw period or any repayment period, to the length of the plan, to how the minimum payments are determined and to the timing of such payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees to open the plan.</I> Section 226.16(d)(1)(i) requires a disclosure of any fees imposed by the creditor or a third party to open the plan. In providing the fee information required under this paragraph, the corresponding rules for disclosure of this information apply. For example, fees to open the plan may be stated as a range. Similarly, if property insurance is required to open the plan, a creditor either may estimate the cost of the insurance or provide a statement that such insurance is required. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.5b(d)(7) and (d)(8).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements of tax deductibility.</I> An advertisement that refers to deductibility for tax purposes is not misleading if it includes a statement such as “consult a tax advisor regarding the deductibility of interest.” An advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) that states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the consumer's dwelling is not misleading if it clearly and conspicuously states the required information in §§ 226.16(d)(4)(i) and (d)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Misleading terms prohibited.</I> Under § 226.16(d)(5), advertisements may not refer to home-equity plans as <I>free money</I> or use other misleading terms. For example, an advertisement could not state “no closing costs” or “we waive closing costs” if consumers may be required to pay any closing costs, such as recordation fees. In the case of property insurance, however, a creditor may state, for example, “no closing costs” even if property insurance may be required, as long as the creditor also provides a statement that such insurance may be required. (<I>See</I> the commentary to this section regarding fees to open a plan.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Promotional rates and payments in advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> Section 226.16(d)(6) requires additional disclosures for promotional rates or payments.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate plans, if the advertised annual percentage rate is based on (or the advertised payment is derived from) the index and margin that will be used to make rate (or payment) adjustments over the term of the loan, then there is no promotional rate or promotional payment. If, however, the advertised annual percentage rate is not based on (or the advertised payment is not derived from) the index and margin that will be used to make rate (or payment) adjustments, and a reasonably current application of the index and margin would result in a higher annual percentage rate (or, given an assumed balance, a higher payment) then there is a promotional rate or promotional payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Equal prominence, close proximity.</I> Information required to be disclosed in § 226.16(d)(6)(ii) that is immediately next to or directly above or below the promotional rate or payment (but not in a footnote) is deemed to be closely proximate to the listing. Information required to be disclosed in § 226.16(d)(6)(ii) that is in the same type size as the promotional rate or payment is deemed to be equally prominent.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Amounts and time periods of payments.</I> Section 226.16(d)(6)(ii)(C) requires disclosure of the amount and time periods of any payments that will apply under the plan. This section may require disclosure of several payment amounts, including any balloon payment. For example, if an advertisement for a home-equity plan offers a $100,000 five-year line of credit and assumes that the entire line is drawn resulting in a minimum payment of $800 per month for the first six months, increasing to $1,000 per month after month six, followed by a $50,000 balloon payment after five years, the advertisement must disclose the amount and time period of each of the two monthly payment streams, as well as the amount and timing of the balloon payment, with equal prominence and in close proximity to the promotional payment. However, if the final payment could not be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments, the final payment need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Plans other than variable-rate plans.</I> For a plan other than a variable-rate plan, if an advertised payment is calculated in the same way as other payments based on an assumed balance, the fact that the minimum payment could increase solely if the consumer made an additional draw does not make the payment a promotional payment. For example, if a payment of $500 results from an assumed $10,000 draw, and the payment would increase to $1,000 if the consumer made an additional $10,000 draw, the payment is not a promotional payment.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Conversion option.</I> Some home-equity plans permit the consumer to repay all or part of the balance during the draw period at a fixed rate (rather than a variable rate) and over a specified time period. The fixed-rate conversion option does not, by itself, make the rate or payment that would apply if the consumer exercised the fixed-rate conversion option a promotional rate or payment.
</P>
<P>vi. <I>Preferred-rate provisions.</I> Some home-equity plans contain a preferred-rate provision, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the consumer-employee leaving the creditor's employ, the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor, or the consumer revoking an election to make automated payments. A preferred-rate provision does not, by itself, make the rate or payment under the preferred-rate provision a promotional rate or payment.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reasonably current index and margin.</I> For the purposes of this section, an index and margin is considered reasonably current if:
</P>
<P>i. For direct mail advertisements, it was in effect within 60 days before mailing;
</P>
<P>ii. For advertisements in electronic form it was in effect within 30 days before the advertisement is sent to a consumer's e-mail address, or in the case of an advertisement made on an Internet Web site, when viewed by the public; or
</P>
<P>iii. For printed advertisements made available to the general public, including ones contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication, it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> Advertisements for home-equity plans must comply with all provisions in § 226.16, not solely the rules in § 226.16(d). If an advertisement contains information (such as the payment terms) that triggers the duty under § 226.16(d) to state the annual percentage rate, the additional disclosures in § 226.16(b) must be provided in the advertisement. While § 226.16(d) does not require a statement of fees to use or maintain the plan (such as membership fees and transaction charges), such fees must be disclosed under § 226.16(b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Inapplicability of closed-end rules.</I> Advertisements for home-equity plans are governed solely by the requirements in § 226.16, except § 226.16(g), and not by the closed-end advertising rules in § 226.24. Thus, if a creditor states payment information about the repayment phase, this will trigger the duty to provide additional information under § 226.16, but not under § 226.24.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Balloon payment. See</I> comment 5b(d)(5)(ii)-3 for information not required to be stated in advertisements, and on situations in which the balloon payment requirement does not apply.
</P>
<P><I>16(e) Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multi-purpose telephone number.</I> When an advertised telephone number provides a recording, disclosures must be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several options—such as providing directions to the advertiser's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement accompanying toll free number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the telephone number, such as “call 1-800-000-0000 for details about credit costs and terms.”
</P>
<P><I>16(g) Promotional rates.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate in effect at the end of the promotional period.</I> If the annual percentage rate that will be in effect at the end of the promotional period (<I>i.e.,</I> the post-promotional rate) is a variable rate, the post-promotional rate for purposes of § 226.16(g)(2)(i) is the rate that would have applied at the time the promotional rate was advertised if the promotional rate was not offered, consistent with the accuracy requirements in § 226.5a(c)(2) and (e)(4), as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, including the term “introductory” or “intro” in the same phrase as the listing of the introductory rate or introductory fee is deemed to be in immediate proximity of the listing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prominent location closely proximate.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, information required to be disclosed in § 226.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) that is in the same paragraph as the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is deemed to be in a prominent location closely proximate to the listing. Information disclosed in a footnote will not be considered in a prominent location closely proximate to the listing.
</P>
<P>4. <I>First listing.</I> For purposes of § 226.16(g)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements, the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document. The principal promotional document is the document designed to be seen first by the consumer in a mailing, such as a cover letter or solicitation letter. If the promotional rate or promotional fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document, then the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the subsequent pages of the principal promotional document. If the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document, the first listing is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the front side of the first page of each document listing the promotional rate or promotional fee. If the promotional rate or promotional fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of a document, then the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the subsequent pages of the document. If the listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee with the largest type size on the front side of the first page (or subsequent pages if the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the front side of the first page) of the principal promotional document (or each document listing the promotional rate or promotional fee if the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document) is used as the most prominent listing, it will be deemed to be the first listing. Consistent with comment 16(c)-1, a catalog or multiple-page advertisement is considered one document for purposes of § 226.16(g)(4).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Post-promotional rate depends on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> For purposes of disclosing the rate that may apply after the end of the promotional rate period, at the advertiser's option, the advertisement may disclose the rates that may apply as either specific rates, or a range of rates. For example, if there are three rates that may apply (9.99%, 12.99% or 17.99%), an issuer may disclose these three rates as specific rates (9.99%, 12.99% or 17.99%) or as a range of rates (9.99%-17.99%).
</P>
<P><I>16(h) Deferred interest or similar offers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Deferred interest or similar offers clarified.</I> Deferred interest or similar offers do not include offers that allow a consumer to skip payments during a specified period of time, and under which the consumer is not obligated under any circumstances for any interest or other finance charges that could be attributable to that period. Deferred interest or similar offers also do not include 0% annual percentage rate offers where a consumer is not obligated under any circumstances for interest attributable to the time period the 0% annual percentage rate was in effect, though such offers may be considered promotional rates under § 226.16(g)(2)(i). Deferred interest or similar offers also do not include skip payment programs that have no required minimum payment for one or more billing cycles but where interest continues to accrue and is imposed during that period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Deferred interest period clarified.</I> Although the terms of an advertised deferred interest or similar offer may provide that a creditor may charge the accrued interest if the balance is not paid in full by a certain date, creditors sometimes have an informal policy or practice that delays charging the accrued interest for payment received a brief period of time after the date upon which a creditor has the contractual right to charge the accrued interest. The advertisement need not include the end of an informal “courtesy period” in disclosing the deferred interest period under § 226.16(h)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, including the deferred interest period in the same phrase as the statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” or “same as cash” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is deemed to be in immediate proximity of the statement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prominent location closely proximate.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, information required to be disclosed in § 226.16(h)(4)(i) and (ii) that is in the same paragraph as the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” or “same as cash” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is deemed to be in a prominent location closely proximate to the statement. Information disclosed in a footnote is not considered in a prominent location closely proximate to the statement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>First listing.</I> For purposes of § 226.16(h)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements, the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is the most prominent listing of one of these statements on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document. The principal promotional document is the document designed to be seen first by the consumer in a mailing, such as a cover letter or solicitation letter. If one of the statements does not appear on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document, then the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of a statement on the subsequent pages of the principal promotional document. If one of the statements is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document, the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of the statement on the front side of the first page of each document containing one of these statements. If one of the statements does not appear on the front side of the first page of a document, then the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of a statement on the subsequent pages of the document. If the listing of one of these statements with the largest type size on the front side of the first page (or subsequent pages if one of these statements is not listed on the front side of the first page) of the principal promotional document (or each document listing one of these statements if a statement is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document) is used as the most prominent listing, it will be deemed to be the first listing. Consistent with comment 16(c)-1, a catalog or multiple-page advertisement is considered one document for purposes of § 226.16(h)(4).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional information.</I> Consistent with comment 5(a)-2, the information required under § 226.16(h)(4) need not be segregated from other information regarding the deferred interest or similar offer. Advertisements may also be required to provide additional information pursuant to § 226.16(b) though such information need not be integrated with the information required under § 226.16(h)(4).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of disclosures that could be used to comply with the requirements of § 226.16(h)(3) include: “no interest if paid in full within 6 months” and “no interest if paid in full by December 31, 2010.”
</P>
<HD1>Subpart C—Closed-End Credit
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.17—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>17(a) Form of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> This standard requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form. For example, while the regulation requires no mathematical progression or format, the disclosures must be presented in a way that does not obscure the relationship of the terms to each other. In addition, although no minimum type size is mandated (except for the interest rate and payment summary for mortgage transactions required by § 228.18(s)), the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Segregation of disclosures.</I> The disclosures may be grouped together and segregated from other information in a variety of ways. For example, the disclosures may appear on a separate sheet of paper or may be set off from other information on the contract or other documents: 
</P>
<P>• By outlining them in a box 
</P>
<P>• By bold print dividing lines 
</P>
<P>• By a different color background 
</P>
<P>• By a different type style
</P>
<FP>(The general segregation requirement described in this subparagraph does not apply to the disclosures required under §§ 226.19(b) and 226.20(c) although the disclosures must be clear and conspicuous.) 
</FP>
<P>3. <I>Location.</I> The regulation imposes no specific location requirements on the segregated disclosures. For example:
</P>
<P>• They may appear on a disclosure statement separate from all other material.
</P>
<P>• They may be placed on the same document with the credit contract or other information, so long as they are segregated from that information.
</P>
<P>• They may be shown on the front or back of a document.
</P>
<P>• They need not begin at the top of a page.
</P>
<P>• They may be continued from one page to another.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Content of segregated disclosures.</I> Footnotes 37 and 38 contain exceptions to the requirement that the disclosures under § 226.18 be segregated from material that is not directly related to those disclosures. Footnote 37 lists the items that may be added to the segregated disclosures, even though not directly related to those disclosures. Footnote 38 lists the items required under § 226.18 that may be deleted from the segregated disclosures and appear elsewhere. Any one or more of these additions or deletions may be combined and appear either together with or separate from the segregated disclosures. The itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c), however, must be separate from the other segregated disclosures under § 226.18, except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47. If a creditor chooses to include the security interest charges required to be itemized under § 226.4(e) and § 226.18(o) in the amount financed itemization, it need not list these charges elsewhere. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Directly related.</I> The segregated disclosures may, at the creditor's option, include any information that is directly related to those disclosures. The following is directly related information: 
</P>
<P>i. A description of a grace period after which a late payment charge will be imposed. For example, the disclosure given under § 226.18(l) may state that a late charge will apply to “any payment received more than 15 days after the due date.” 
</P>
<P>ii. A statement that the transaction is not secured. For example, the creditor may add a category labelled “unsecured” or “not secured” to the security interest disclosures given under § 226.18(m). 
</P>
<P>iii. The basis for any estimates used in making disclosures. For example, if the maturity date of a loan depends solely on the occurrence of a future event, the creditor may indicate that the disclosures assume that event will occur at a certain time. 
</P>
<P>iv. The conditions under which a demand feature may be exercised. For example, in a loan subject to demand after five years, the disclosures may state that the loan will become payable on demand in five years. 
</P>
<P>v. An explanation of the use of pronouns or other references to the parties to the transaction. For example, the disclosures may state, “‘You’ refers to the customer and ‘we’ refers to the creditor.” 
</P>
<P>vi. Instructions to the creditor or its employees on the use of a multiple-purpose form. For example, the disclosures may state, “Check box if applicable.” 
</P>
<P>vii. A statement that the borrower may pay a minimum finance charge upon prepayment in a simple-interest transaction. For example, when state law prohibits penalties, but would allow a minimum finance charge in the event of prepayment, the creditor may make the § 226.18(k)(1) disclosure by stating, “You may be charged a minimum finance charge.” 
</P>
<P>viii. A brief reference to negative amortization in variable-rate transactions. For example, in the variable-rate disclosure, the creditor may include a short statement such as “Unpaid interest will be added to principal.” (See the commentary to § 226.18(f)(1)(iii).) 
</P>
<P>ix. A brief caption identifying the disclosures. For example, the disclosures may bear a general title such as “Federal Truth in Lending Disclosures” or a descriptive title such as “Real Estate Loan Disclosures.” 
</P>
<P>x. A statement that a due-on-sale clause or other conditions on assumption are contained in the loan document. For example, the disclosure given under § 226.18(q) may state, “Someone buying your home may, subject to conditions in the due-on-sale clause contained in the loan document, assume the remainder of the mortgage on the original terms.” 
</P>
<P>xi. If a state or Federal law prohibits prepayment penalties and excludes the charging of interest after prepayment from coverage as a penalty, a statement that the borrower may have to pay interest for some period after prepayment in full. The disclosure given under § 226.18(k) may state, for example, “If you prepay your loan on other than the regular installment date, you may be assessed interest charges until the end of the month.” 
</P>
<P>xii. More than one hypothetical example under § 226.18(f)(1)(iv) in transactions with more than one variable-rate feature. For example, in a variable-rate transaction with an option permitting consumers to convert to a fixed-rate transaction, the disclosures may include an example illustrating the effects on the payment terms of an increase resulting from conversion in addition to the example illustrating an increase resulting from changes in the index. 
</P>
<P>xiii. The disclosures set forth under § 226.18(f)(1) for variable-rate transactions subject to § 226.18(f)(2). 
</P>
<P>xiv. A statement whether or not a subsequent purchaser of the property securing an obligation may be permitted to assume the remaining obligation on its original terms. 
</P>
<P>xv. A late-payment fee disclosure under § 226.18(l) on a single payment loan.
</P>
<P>xvi. The notice set forth in § 226.19(a)(4), in a closed-end transaction not subject to § 226.19(a)(1)(i). In a mortgage transaction subject to § 226.19(a)(1)(i), the creditor must disclose the notice contained in § 226.19(a)(4) grouped together with the disclosures made under § 226.18. <I>See</I> comment 19(a)(4)-1.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple-purpose forms.</I> The creditor may design a disclosure statement that can be used for more than one type of transaction, so long as the required disclosures for individual transactions are clear and conspicuous. (See the Commentary to appendices G and H for a discussion of the treatment of disclosures that do not apply to specific transactions.) Any disclosure listed in § 226.18 (except the itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c) for transactions other than private education loans) may be included on a standard disclosure statement even though not all of the creditor's transactions include those features. For example, the statement may include:
</P>
<P>• The variable rate disclosure under § 226.18(f).
</P>
<P>• The demand feature disclosure under § 226.18(i).
</P>
<P>• A reference to the possibility of a security interest arising from a spreader clause, under § 226.18(m).
</P>
<P>• The assumption policy disclosure under § 226.18(q).
</P>
<P>• The required deposit disclosure under § 226.18(r).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Balloon payment financing with leasing characteristics.</I> In certain credit sale or loan transactions, a consumer may reduce the dollar amount of the payments to be made during the course of the transaction by agreeing to make, at the end of the loan term, a large final payment based on the expected residual value of the property. The consumer may have a number of options with respect to the final payment, including, among other things, retaining the property and making the final payment, refinancing the final payment, or transferring the property to the creditor in lieu of the final payment. Such transactions may have some of the characteristics of lease transactions subject to Regulation M, but are considered credit transactions where the consumer assumes the indicia of ownership, including the risks, burdens and benefits of ownership upon consummation. These transactions are governed by the disclosure requirements of this regulation instead of Regulation M. Creditors should not include in the segregated Truth in Lending disclosures additional information. Thus, disclosures should show the large final payment in the payment schedule and should not, for example, reflect the other options available to the consumer at maturity. 
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 17(a)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>When disclosures must be more conspicuous.</I> The following rules apply to the requirement that the terms “annual percentage rate” (except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47) and “finance charge” be shown more conspicuously:
</P>
<P>• The terms must be more conspicuous only in relation to the other required disclosures under § 226.18. For example, when the disclosures are included on the contract document, those two terms need not be more conspicuous as compared to the heading on the contract document or information required by state law.
</P>
<P>• The terms need not be more conspicuous except as part of the finance charge and annual percentage rate disclosures under § 226.18 (d) and (e), although they may, at the creditor's option, be highlighted wherever used in the required disclosures. For example, the terms may, but need not, be highlighted when used in disclosing a prepayment penalty under § 226.18(k) or a required deposit under § 226.18(r).
</P>
<P>• The creditor's identity under § 226.18(a) may, but need not, be more prominently displayed than the finance charge and annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>• The terms need not be more conspicuous than figures (including, for example, numbers, percentages, and dollar signs).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Making disclosures more conspicuous.</I> The terms “finance charge” and (except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 226.47) “annual percentage rate” may be made more conspicuous in any way that highlights them in relation to the other required disclosures. For example, they may be:
</P>
<P>• Capitalized when other disclosures are printed in capital and lower case.
</P>
<P>• Printed in larger type, bold print or different type face.
</P>
<P>• Printed in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>• Underlined.
</P>
<P>• Set off with asterisks.
</P>
<HD2>17(b) Time of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> As a general rule, disclosures must be made before “consummation” of the transaction. The disclosures need not be given by any particular time before consummation, except in certain mortgage transactions and variable-rate transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year under § 226.19, and in private education loan transactions disclosed in compliance with §§ 226.46 and 226.47. (See the commentary to § 226.2(a)(13) regarding the definition of consummation.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Converting open-end to closed-end credit.</I> Except for home equity plans subject to § 226.5b in which the agreement provides for a repayment phase, if an open-end credit account is converted to a closed-end transaction under a written agreement with the consumer, the creditor must provide a set of closed-end credit disclosures before consummation of the closed-end transaction. (See the commentary to § 226.19(b) for the timing rules for additional disclosures required upon the conversion to a variable-rate transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year.) If consummation of the closed-end transaction occurs at the same time as the consumer enters into the open-end agreement, the closed-end credit disclosures may be given at the time of conversion. If disclosures are delayed until conversion and the closed-end transaction has a variable-rate feature, disclosures should be based on the rate in effect at the time of conversion. (See the commentary to § 226.5 regarding conversion of closed-end to open-end credit.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosures provided on credit contracts.</I> Creditors must give the required disclosures to the consumer in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep, before consummation of the transaction. <I>See</I> § 226.17(a)(1) and (b). Sometimes the disclosures are placed on the same document with the credit contract. Creditors are not required to give the consumer two separate copies of the document before consummation, one for the consumer to keep and a second copy for the consumer to execute. The disclosure requirement is satisfied if the creditor gives a copy of the document containing the unexecuted credit contract and disclosures to the consumer to read and sign; and the consumer receives a copy to keep at the time the consumer becomes obligated. It is not sufficient for the creditor merely to show the consumer the document containing the disclosures before the consumer signs and becomes obligated. The consumer must be free to take possession of and review the document in its entirety before signing. 
</P>
<P>i. <I>Example.</I> To illustrate: 
</P>
<P>A. A creditor gives a consumer a multiple-copy form containing a credit agreement and TILA disclosures. The consumer reviews and signs the form and returns it to the creditor, who separates the copies and gives one copy to the consumer to keep. The creditor has satisfied the disclosure requirement. 
</P>
<P><I>17(c) Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(1).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Legal obligation.</I> The disclosures shall reflect the credit terms to which the parties are legally bound as of the outset of the transaction. In the case of disclosures required under § 226.20(c), the disclosures shall reflect the credit terms to which the parties are legally bound when the disclosures are provided. The legal obligation is determined by applicable state law or other law. (Certain transactions are specifically addressed in this commentary. See, for example, the discussion of buydown transactions elsewhere in the commentary to § 226.17(c).)
</P>
<P>• The fact that a term or contract may later be deemed unenforceable by a court on the basis of equity or other grounds does not, by itself, mean that disclosures based on that term or contract did not reflect the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Modification of obligation.</I> The legal obligation normally is presumed to be contained in the note or contract that evidences the agreement. But this presumption is rebutted if another agreement between the parties legally modifies that note or contract. If the parties informally agree to a modification of the legal obligation, the modification should not be reflected in the disclosures unless it rises to the level of a change in the terms of the legal obligation. For example:
</P>
<P>• If the creditor offers a preferential rate, such as an employee preferred rate, the disclosures should reflect the terms of the legal obligation. (See the commentary to § 226.19(b) for an example of a preferred-rate transaction that is a variable-rate transaction.)
</P>
<P>• If the contract provides for a certain monthly payment schedule but payments are made on a voluntary payroll deduction plan or an informal principal-reduction agreement, the disclosures should reflect the schedule in the contract.
</P>
<P>• If the contract provides for regular monthly payments but the creditor informally permits the consumer to defer payments from time to time, for instance, to take account of holiday seasons or seasonal employment, the disclosures should reflect the regular monthly payments.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, a seller or other third party may pay an amount, either to the creditor or to the consumer, in order to reduce the consumer's payments or buy down the interest rate for all or a portion of the credit term. For example, a consumer and a bank agree to a mortgage with an interest rate of 15% and level payments over 25 years. By a separate agreement, the seller of the property agrees to subsidize the consumer's payments for the first 2 years of the mortgage, giving the consumer an effective rate of 12% for that period.
</P>
<P>• If the lower rate is reflected in the credit contract between the consumer and the bank, the disclosures must take the buydown into account. For example, the annual percentage rate must be a composite rate that takes account of both the lower initial rate and the higher subsequent rate, and the payment schedule disclosures must reflect the 2 payment levels. However, the amount paid by the seller would not be specifically reflected in the disclosures given by the bank, since that amount constitutes seller's points and thus is not part of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>• If the lower rate is not reflected in the credit contract between the consumer and the bank and the consumer is legally bound to the 15% rate from the outset, the disclosures given by the bank must not reflect the seller buydown in any way. For example, the annual percentage rate and payment schedule would not take into account the reduction in the interest rate and payment level for the first 2 years resulting from the buydown.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consumer buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, the consumer may pay an amount to the creditor to reduce the payments or obtain a lower interest rate on the transaction. Consumer buydowns must be reflected in the disclosures given for that transaction. To illustrate, in a mortgage transaction, the creditor and consumer agree to a note specifying a 14 percent interest rate. However, in a separate document, the consumer agrees to pay an amount to the creditor at consummation in return for a reduction in the interest rate to 12 percent for a portion of the mortgage term. The amount paid by the consumer may be deposited in an escrow account or may be retained by the creditor. Depending upon the buydown plan, the consumer's prepayment of the obligation may or may not result in a portion of the amount being credited or refunded to the consumer. In the disclosures given for the mortgage, the creditor must reflect the terms of the buydown agreement. For example:
</P>
<P>• The amount paid by the consumer is a prepaid finance charge (even if deposited in an escrow account).
</P>
<P>• A composite annual percentage rate must be calculated, taking into account both interest rates, as well as the effect of the prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>• The payment schedule must reflect the multiple payment levels resulting from the buydown.
</P>
<P>The rules regarding consumer buydowns do not apply to transactions known as “lender buydowns,” In lender buydowns. a creditor pays an amount (either into an account or to the party to whom the obligation is sold) to reduce the consumer's payments or interest rate for all or a portion of the credit term. Typically, these transactions are structured as a buydown of the interest rate during an initial period of the transaction with a higher than usual rate for the remainder of the term. The disclosures for lender buydowns should be based on the terms of the legal obligation between the consumer and the creditor. (See comment 17(c)(1)-3 for the analogous rules concerning third-party buydowns.) 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Split buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, a third party (such as a seller) and a consumer both pay an amount to the creditor to reduce the interest rate. The creditor must include the portion paid by the consumer in the finance charge and disclose the corresponding multiple payment levels and composite annual percentage rate. The portion paid by the third party and the corresponding reduction in interest rate, however, should not be reflected in the disclosures unless the lower rate is reflected in the credit contract. (See the discussion on third-party and consumer buydown transactions elsewhere in the commentary to § 226.17(c).)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Wrap-around financing.</I> Wrap-around transactions, usually loans, involve the creditor's wrapping the outstanding balance on an existing loan and advancing additional funds to the consumer. The pre-existing loan, which is wrapped, may be to the same consumer or to a different consumer. In either case, the consumer makes a single payment to the new creditor, who makes the payments on the pre-existing loan to the original creditor. Wrap-around loans or sales are considered new single-advance transactions, with an amount financed equalling the sum of the new funds advanced by the wrap creditor and the remaining principal owed to the original creditor on the pre-existing loan. In disclosing the itemization of the amount financed, the creditor may use a label such as “the amount that will be paid to creditor X” to describe the remaining principal balance on the pre-existing loan. This approach to Truth in Lending calculations has no effect on calculations required by other statutes, such as state usury laws.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Wrap-around financing with balloon payments.</I> For wrap-around transactions involving a large final payment of the new funds before the maturity of the pre-existing loan, the amount financed is the sum of the new funds and the remaining principal on the pre-existing loan. The disclosures should be based on the shorter term of the wrap loan, with a large final payment of both the new funds and the total remaining principal on the pre-existing loan (although only the wrap loan will actually be paid off at that time).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Basis of disclosures in variable-rate transactions.</I> The disclosures for a variable-rate transaction must be given for the full term of the transaction and must be based on the terms in effect at the time of consummation. Creditors should base the disclosures only on the initial rate and should not assume that this rate will increase. For example, in a loan with an initial rate of 10 percent and a 5 percentage points rate cap, creditors should base the disclosures on the initial rate and should not assume that this rate will increase 5 percentage points. However, in a variable-rate transaction with a seller buydown that is reflected in the credit contract, a consumer buydown, or a discounted or premium rate, disclosures should not be based solely on the initial terms. In those transactions, the disclosed annual percentage rate should be a composite rate based on the rate in effect during the initial period and the rate that is the basis of the variable-rate feature for the remainder of the term. (See the commentary to § 226.17(c) for a discussion of buydown, discounted, and premium transactions and the commentary to § 226.19(a)(2) for a discussion of the redisclosure in certain mortgage transactions with a variable-rate feature.)
</P>
<P>9. <I>Use of estimates in variable-rate transactions.</I> The variable-rate feature does not, by itself, make the disclosures estimates.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Discounted and premium variable-rate transactions.</I> In some variable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula. However, in some cases the initial rate may be higher. In a discounted transaction, for example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the Treasury bill rate at consummation is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent. 
</P>
<P>i. When creditors use an initial interest rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate based on the initial rate for as long as it is charged and, for the remainder of the term, the rate that would have been applied using the index or formula at the time of consummation. The rate at consummation need not be used if a contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, creditors may use any index value in effect during the 45 day period before consummation in calculating a composite annual percentage rate. 
</P>
<P>ii. The effect of the multiple rates must also be reflected in the calculation and disclosure of the finance charge, total of payments, and payment schedule. 
</P>
<P>iii. If a loan contains a rate or payment cap that would prevent the initial rate or payment, at the time of the first adjustment, from changing to the rate determined by the index or formula at consummation, the effect of that rate or payment cap should be reflected in the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>iv. Because these transactions involve irregular payment amounts, an annual percentage rate tolerance of 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percent applies, in accordance with § 226.22(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>v. Examples of discounted variable-rate transactions include: 
</P>
<P>A. A 30-year loan for $100,000 with no prepaid finance charges and rates determined by the Treasury bill rate plus 2 percent. Rate and payment adjustments are made annually. Although the Treasury bill rate at the time of consummation is 10 percent, the creditor sets the interest rate for one year at 9 percent, instead of 12 percent according to the formula. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.63 percent based on 9 percent for one year and 12 percent for 29 years. Reflecting those two rate levels, the payment schedule should show 12 payments of $804.62 and 348 payments of $1,025.31. The finance charge should be $266,463.32 and the total of payments $366,463.32. 
</P>
<P>B. Same loan as above, except with a 2 percent rate cap on periodic adjustments. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.53 percent based on 9 percent for the first year, 11 percent for the second year, and 12 percent for the remaining 28 years. Reflecting those three rate levels, the payment schedule should show 12 payments of $804.62, 12 payments of $950.09, and 336 payments of $1,024.34. The finance charge should be $265,234.76 and the total of payments $365,234.76. 
</P>
<P>C. Same loan as above, except with a 7
<FR>1/2</FR> percent cap on payment adjustments. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.64 percent, based on 9 percent for one year and 12 percent for 29 years. Because of the payment cap, five levels of payments should be reflected. The payment schedule should show 12 payments of $804.62, 12 payments of $864.97, 12 payments of $929.84, 12 payments of $999.58, and 312 payments of $1,070.04. The finance charge should be $277,040.60, and the total of payments $377,040.60. 
</P>
<P>vi. A loan in which the initial interest rate is set according to the index or formula used for later adjustments but is not set at the value of the index or formula at consummation is not a discounted variable-rate loan. For example, if a creditor commits to an initial rate based on the formula on a date prior to consummation, but the index has moved during the period between that time and consummation, a creditor should base its disclosures on the initial rate. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Examples of variable-rate transactions.</I> Variable-rate transactions include:
</P>
<P>• Renewable balloon-payment instruments where the creditor is both unconditionally obligated to renew the balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control) and has the option of increasing the interest rate at the time of renewal. Disclosures must be based on the payment amortization (unless the specified term of the obligation with renewals is shorter) and on the rate in effect at the time of consummation of the transaction. (Examples of conditions within a consumer's control include requirements that a consumer be current in payments or continue to reside in the mortgaged property. In contrast, setting a limit on the rate at which the creditor would be obligated to renew or reserving the right to change the credit standards at the time of renewal are examples of conditions outside a consumer's control.) If, however, a creditor is not obligated to renew as described above, disclosures must be based on the term of the balloon-payment loan. Disclosures also must be based on the term of the balloon-payment loan in balloon-payment instruments in which the legal obligation provides that the loan will be renewed by a “refinancing” of the obligation, as that term is defined by § 226.20(a). If it cannot be determined from the legal obligation that the loan will be renewed by a “refinancing,” disclosures must be based either on the term of the balloon-payment loan or on the payment amortization, depending on whether the creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew the loan as described above. (This discussion does not apply to construction loans subject to § 226.17(c)(6).) 
</P>
<P>• “Shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest and an appreciation share based on the consumer's equity in the mortgaged property. The appreciation share is payable in a lump sum at a specified time. Disclosures must be based on the fixed interest rate. (As discussed in the commentary to § 226.2, other types of shared-equity arrangements are not considered “credit” and are not subject to Regulation Z.)
</P>
<P>• Preferred-rate loans where the terms of the legal obligation provide that the initial underlying rate is fixed but will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the employ of the creditor, and the note reflects the preferred rate. The disclosures are to be based on the preferred rate. 
</P>
<P>• Graduated-payment mortgages and step-rate transactions without a variable-rate feature are not considered variable-rate transactions.
</P>
<P>• “Price level adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation. Disclosures are to be based on the fixed interest rate. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Graduated payment adjustable rate mortgages.</I> These mortgages involve both a variable interest rate and scheduled variations in payment amounts during the loan term. For example, under these plans, a series of graduated payments may be scheduled before rate adjustments affect payment amounts, or the initial scheduled payment may remain constant for a set period before rate adjustments affect the payment amount. In any case, the initial payment amount may be insufficient to cover the scheduled interest, causing negative amortization from the outset of the transaction. In these transactions, the disclosures should treat these features as follows:
</P>
<P>• The finance charge includes the amount of negative amortization based on the assumption that the rate in effect at consummation remains unchanged.
</P>
<P>• The amount financed does not include the amount of negative amortization.
</P>
<P>• As in any variable-rate transaction, the annual percentage rate is based on the terms in effect at consummation.
</P>
<P>• The schedule of payments discloses the amount of any scheduled initial payments followed by an adjusted level of payments based on the initial interest rate. Since some mortgage plans contain limits on the amount of the payment adjustment, the payment schedule may require several different levels of payments, even with the assumption that the original interest rate does not increase.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Growth-equity mortgages.</I> Also referred to as payment-escalated mortgages, these mortgage plans involve scheduled payment increases to prematurely amortize the loan. The initial payment amount is determined as for a long-term loan with a fixed interest rate. Payment increases are scheduled periodically, based on changes in an index. The larger payments result in accelerated amortization of the loan. In disclosing these mortgage plans, creditors may either:
</P>
<P>• Estimate the amount of payment increases, based on the best information reasonably available; or
</P>
<P>• Disclose by analogy to the variable-rate disclosures in 226.18(f)(1).
</P>
<FP>(This discussion does not apply to growth-equity mortgages in which the amount of payment increases can be accurately determined at the time of disclosure. For these mortgages, as for graduated-payment mortgages, disclosures should reflect the scheduled increases in payments.)
</FP>
<P>14. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> Reverse mortgages, also known as reverse annuity or home equity conversion mortgages, typically involve the disbursement of monthly advances to the consumer for a fixed period or until the occurrence of an event such as the consumer's death. Repayment of the loan (generally a single payment of principal and accrued interest) may be required to be made at the end of the disbursements or, for example, upon the death of the consumer. In disclosing these transactions, creditors must apply the following rules, as applicable:
</P>
<P>• If the reverse mortgage has a specified period for disbursements but repayment is due only upon the occurrence of a future event such as the death of the consumer, the creditor must assume that disbursements will be made until they are scheduled to end. The creditor must assume repayment will occur when disbursements end (or within a period following the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval between disbursements). This assumption should be used even though repayment may occur before or after the disbursements are scheduled to end. In such cases, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume that you will repay the loan at the time our payments to you end. As provided in your agreement, your repayment may be required at a different time.”
</P>
<P>• If the reverse mortgage has neither a specified period for disbursements nor a specified repayment date and these terms will be determined solely by reference to future events including the consumer's death, the creditor may assume that the disbursements will end upon the consumer's death (estimated by using actuarial tables, for example) and that repayment will be required at the same time (or within a period following the date of the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval for disbursements). Alternatively, the creditor may base the disclosures upon another future event it estimates will be most likely to occur first. (If terms will be determined by reference to future events which do not include the consumer's death, the creditor must base the disclosures upon the occurance of the event estimated to be most likely to occur first.) 
</P>
<P>• In making the disclosures, the creditor must assume that all disbursements and accrued interest will be paid by the consumer. For example, if the note has a nonrecourse provision providing that the consumer is not obligated for an amount greater than the value of the house, the creditor must nonetheless assume that the full amount to be disbursed will be repaid. In this case, however, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume full repayment of the amount advanced plus accrued interest, although the amount you may be required to pay is limited by your agreement.”
</P>
<P>• Some reverse mortgages provide that some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property will be shared between the consumer and the creditor. Such loans are considered variable-rate mortgages, as described in comment 17(c)(1)-11, and the appreciation feature must be disclosed in accordance with § 226.18(f)(1). If the reverse mortgage has a variable interest rate, is written for a term greater than one year, and is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the shared appreciation feature must be described under § 226.19(b)(2)(vii).
</P>
<P>15. <I>Morris Plan transactions.</I> When a deposit account is created for the sole purpose of accumulating payments and then is applied to satisfy entirely the consumer's obligation in the transaction, each deposit made into the account is considered the same as a payment on a loan for purposes of making disclosures.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Number of transactions.</I> Creditors have flexibility in handling credit extensions that may be viewed as multiple transactions. For example:
</P>
<P>• When a creditor finances the credit sale of a radio and a television on the same day, the creditor may disclose the sales as either 1 or 2 credit sale transactions.
</P>
<P>• When a creditor finances a loan along with a credit sale of health insurance, the creditor may disclose in one of several ways: a single credit sale transaction, a single loan transaction, or a loan and a credit sale transaction.
</P>
<P>• The separate financing of a downpayment in a credit sale transaction may, but need not, be disclosed as 2 transactions (a credit sale and a separate transaction for the financing of the downpayment).
</P>
<P>17. <I>Special rules for tax refund anticipation loans.</I> Tax refund loans, also known as refund anticipation loans (RALs), are transactions in which a creditor will lend up to the amount of a consumer's expected tax refund. RAL agreements typically require repayment upon demand, but also may provide that repayment is required when the refund is made. The agreements also typically provide that if the amount of the refund is less than the payment due, the consumer must pay the difference. Repayment often is made by a preauthorized offset to a consumer's account held with the creditor when the refund has been deposited by electronic transfer. Creditors may charge fees for RALs in addition to fees for filing the consumer's tax return electronically. In RAL transactions subject to the regulation the following special rules apply: 
</P>
<P>• If, under the terms of the legal obligation, repayment of the loan is required when the refund is received by the consumer (such as by deposit into the consumer's account), the disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time the refund will be delivered even if the loan also contains a demand clause. The practice of a creditor to demand repayment upon delivery of refunds does not determine whether the legal obligation requires that repayment be made at that time; this determination must be made according to applicable state or other law. (See comment 17(c)(5)-1 for the rules regarding disclosures if the loan is payable solely on demand or is payable either on demand or on an alternate maturity date.) 
</P>
<P>• If the consumer is required to repay more than the amount borrowed, the difference is a finance charge unless excluded under § 226.4. In addition, to the extent that any fees charged in connection with the loan (such as for filing the tax return electronically) exceed those fees for a comparable cash transaction (that is, filing the tax return electronically without a loan), the difference must be included in the finance charge.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Pawn Transactions.</I> When, in connection with an extension of credit, a consumer pledges or sells an item to a pawnbroker creditor in return for a sum of money and retains the right to redeem the item for a greater sum (the redemption price) within a specified period of time, disclosures are required. In addition to other disclosure requirements that may be applicable under § 226.18, for purposes of pawn transactions: 
</P>
<P>i. The amount financed is the initial sum paid to the consumer. The pawnbroker creditor need not provide a separate itemization of the amount financed if that entire amount is paid directly to the consumer and the disclosed description of the amount financed is “the amount of cash given directly to you” or a similar phrase. 
</P>
<P>ii. The finance charge is the difference between the initial sum paid to the consumer and the redemption price plus any other finance charges paid in connection with the transaction. (See § 226.4.) 
</P>
<P>iii. The term of the transaction, for calculating the annual percentage rate, is the period of time agreed to by the pawnbroker creditor and the consumer. The term of the transaction does not include a grace period (including any statutory grace period) after the agreed redemption date. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Basis for estimates.</I> Disclosures may be estimated when the exact information is unknown at the time disclosures are made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosures are made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. For example, the creditor must at a minimum utilize generally accepted calculation tools, but need not invest in the most sophisticated computer program to make a particular type of calculation. The creditor normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. For example, the creditor might look to the consumer for the time of consummation, to insurance companies for the cost of insurance, or to realtors for taxes and escrow fees. The creditor may utilize estimates in making disclosures even though the creditor knows that more precise information will be available by the point of consummation. However, new disclosures may be required under § 226.17(f) or § 226.19.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Labelling estimates.</I> Estimates must be designated as such in the segregated disclosures. Even though other disclosures are based on the same assumption on which a specific estimated disclosure was based, the creditor has some flexibility in labelling the estimates. Generally, only the particular disclosure for which the exact information is unknown is labelled as an estimate. However, when several disclosures are affected because of the unknown information, the creditor has the option of labelling either every affected disclosure or only the disclosure primarily affected. For example, when the finance charge is unknown because the date of consummation is unknown, the creditor must label the finance charge as an estimate and may also label as estimates the total of payments and the payment schedule. When many disclosures are estimates, the creditor may use a general statement, such as “all numerical disclosures except the late payment disclosure are estimates,” as a method to label those disclosures as estimates.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Simple-interest transactions.</I> If consumers do not make timely payments in a simple-interest transaction, some of the amounts calculated for Truth in Lending disclosures will differ from amounts that consumers will actually pay over the term of the transaction. Creditors may label disclosures as estimates in these transactions. For example, because the finance charge and total of payments may be larger than disclosed if consumers make late payments, creditors may label the finance charge and total of payments as estimates. On the other hand, creditors may choose not to label disclosures as estimates and may base all disclosures on the assumption that payments will be made on time, disregarding any possible inaccuracies resulting from consumers' payment patterns.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Per-diem interest.</I> This paragraph applies to any numerical amount (such as the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or payment amount) that is affected by the amount of the per-diem interest charge that will be collected at consummation. If the amount of per-diem interest used in preparing the disclosures for consummation is based on the information known to the creditor at the time the disclosure document is prepared, the disclosures are considered accurate under this rule, and affected disclosures are also considered accurate, even if the disclosures are not labeled as estimates. For example, if the amount of per-diem interest used to prepare disclosures is less than the amount of per-diem interest charged at consummation, and as a result the finance charge is understated by $200, the disclosed finance charge is considered accurate even though the understatement is not within the $100 tolerance of § 226.18(d)(1), and the finance charge was not labeled as an estimate. In this example, if in addition to the understatement related to the per-diem interest, a $90 fee is incorrectly omitted from the finance charge, causing it to be understated by a total of $290, the finance charge is considered accurate because the $90 fee is within the tolerance in § 226.18(d)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(3)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Minor variations.</I> Section 226.17(c)(3) allows creditors to disregard certain factors in calculating and making disclosures. For example:
</P>
<P>• Creditors may ignore the effects of collecting payments in whole cents. Because payments cannot be collected in fractional cents, it is often difficult to amortize exactly an obligation with equal payments; the amount of the last payment may require adjustment to account for the rounding of the other payments to whole cents.
</P>
<P>• Creditors may base their disclosures on calculation tools that assume that all months have an equal number of days, even if their practice is to take account of the variations in months for purposes of collecting interest. For example, a creditor may use a calculation tool based on a 360-day year, when it in fact collects interest by applying a factor of 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the annual rate to 365 days. This rule does not, however, authorize creditors to ignore, for disclosure purposes, the effects of applying 
<FR>1/360</FR> of an annual rate to 365 days.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of special rules.</I> A creditor may utilize the special rules in § 226.17(c)(3) for purposes of calculating and making all disclosures for a transaction or may, at its option, use the special rules for some disclosures and not others.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment schedule irregularities.</I> When one or more payments in a transaction differ from the others because of a long or short first period, the variations may be ignored in disclosing the payment schedule, finance charge, annual percentage rate, and other terms. For example:
</P>
<P>• A 36-month auto loan might be consummated on June 8 with payments due on July 1 and the first of each succeeding month. The creditor may base its calculations on a payment schedule that assumes 36 equal intervals and 36 equal installment payments, even though a precise computation would produce slightly different amounts because of the shorter first period. 
</P>
<P>• By contrast, in the same example, if the first payment were not scheduled until August 1, the irregular first period would exceed the limits in § 226.17(c)(4); the creditor could not use the special rule and could not ignore the extra days in the first period in calculating its disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Measuring odd periods.</I> In determining whether a transaction may take advantage of the rule in § 226.17(c)(4), the creditor must measure the variation against a regular period. For purposes of that rule:
</P>
<P>• The first period is the period from the date on which the finance charge begins to be earned to the date of the first payment.
</P>
<P>• The term is the period from the date on which the finance charge begins to be earned to the date of the final payment.
</P>
<P>• The regular period is the most common interval between payments in the transaction.
</P>
<P>In transactions involving regular periods that are monthly, semimonthly or multiples of a month, the length of the irregular and regular periods may be calculated on the basis of either the actual number of days or an assumed 30-day month. In other transactions, the length of the periods is based on the actual number of days.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Use of special rules.</I> A creditor may utilize the special rules in § 226.17(c)(4) for purposes of calculating and making some disclosures but may elect not to do so for all of the disclosures. For example, the variations may be ignored in calculating and disclosing the annual percentage rate but taken into account in calculating and disclosing the finance charge and payment schedule.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relation to prepaid finance charges.</I> Prepaid finance charges, including “odd-days” or “per-diem” interest, paid prior to or at closing may not be treated as the first payment on a loan. Thus, creditors may not disregard an irregularity in disclosing such finance charges.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Demand disclosures.</I> Disclosures for demand obligations are based on an assumed 1-year term, unless an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation. Whether an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation is determined by applicable law. An alternate maturity date is not inferred from an informal principal reduction agreement or a similar understanding between the parties. However, when the note itself specifies a principal reduction schedule (for example, “payable on demand or $2,000 plus interest quarterly”), an alternate maturity is stated and the disclosures must reflect that date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Future event as maturity date.</I> An obligation whose maturity date is determined solely by a future event, as for example, a loan payable only on the sale of property, is not a demand obligation. Because no demand feature is contained in the obligation, demand disclosures under § 226.18(i) are inapplicable. The disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time at which the specified event will occur, and may indicate the basis for the creditor's estimate, as noted in the commentary to § 226.17(a).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Demand after stated period.</I> Most demand transactions contain a demand feature that may be exercised at any point during the term, but certain transactions convert to demand status only after a fixed period. For example, in States prohibiting due-on-sale clauses, the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) requires mortgages that it purchases to include a call option rider that may be exercised after 7 years. These mortgages are generally written as long-term obligations, but contain a demand feature that may be exercised only within a 30-day period at 7 years. The disclosures for these transactions should be based upon the legally agreed-upon maturity date. Thus, if a mortgage containing the 7-year FNMA call option is written as a 20-year obligation, the disclosures should be based on the 20-year term, with the demand feature disclosed under § 226.18(i).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balloon mortgages.</I> Balloon payment mortgages, with payments based on a long-term amortization schedule and a large final payment due after a shorter term, are not demand obligations unless a demand feature is specifically contained in the contract. For example, a mortgage with a term of 5 years and a payment schedule based on 20 years would not be treated as a mortgage with a demand feature, in the absence of any contractual demand provisions. In this type of mortgage, disclosures should be based on the 5-year term.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(c)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Series of advances.</I> Section 226.17(c)(6)(i) deals with a series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount. A creditor may treat all of the advances as a single transaction or disclose each advance as a separate transaction. If these advances are treated as 1 transaction and the timing and amounts of advances are unknown, creditors must make disclosures based on estimates, as provided in § 226.17(c)(2). If the advances are disclosed separately, disclosures must be provided before each advance occurs, with the disclosures for the first advance provided by consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Construction loans.</I> Section 226.17(c)(6)(ii) provides a flexible rule for disclosure of construction loans that may be permanently financed. These transactions have 2 distinct phases, similar to 2 separate transactions. The construction loan may be for initial construction or subsequent construction, such as rehabilitation or remodelling. The construction period usually involves several disbursements of funds at times and in amounts that are unknown at the beginning of that period, with the consumer paying only accrued interest until construction is completed. Unless the obligation is paid at that time, the loan then converts to permanent financing in which the loan amount is amortized just as in a standard mortgage transaction. Section 226.17(c)(6)(ii) permits the creditor to give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for the 2 phases. This rule is available whether the consumer is initially obligated to accept construction financing only or is obligated to accept both construction and permanent financing from the outset. If the consumer is obligated on both phases and the creditor chooses to give 2 sets of disclosures, both sets must be given to the consumer initially, because both transactions would be consummated at that time. (appendix D provides a method of calculating the annual percentage rate and other disclosures for construction loans, which may be used, at the creditor's option, in disclosing construction financing.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple-advance construction loans.</I> Section 226.17(c)(6)(i) and (ii) are not mutually exclusive. For example, in a transaction that finances the construction of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase may consist of a series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount. In these cases, the creditor may disclose the construction phase as either 1 or more than 1 transaction and also disclose the permanent financing as a separate transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> See the commentary to § 226.2(a)(24) for a discussion of the effect of § 226.17(c)(6) on the definition of a residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Allocation of points.</I> When a creditor utilizes the special rule in § 226.17(c)(6) to disclose credit extensions as multiple transactions, buyers points or similar amounts imposed on the consumer must be allocated for purposes of calculating disclosures. While such amounts should not be taken into account more than once in making calculations, they may be allocated between the transactions in any manner the creditor chooses. For example, if a construction-permanent loan is subject to 5 points imposed on the consumer and the creditor chooses to disclose the 2 phases separately, the 5 points may be allocated entirely to the construction loan, entirely to the permanent loan, or divided in any manner between the two. However, the entire 5 points may not be applied twice, that is, to both the construction and the permanent phases.
</P>
<P><I>17(d) Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> If a credit transaction involves more than one creditor:
</P>
<FP-1>• The creditors must choose which of them will make the disclosures.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• A single, complete set of disclosures must be provided, rather than partial disclosures from several creditors.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• All disclosures for the transaction must be given, even if the disclosing creditor would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure. For example, if one of the creditors is the seller, the total sale price disclosure under § 226.18(j) must be made, even though the disclosing creditor is not the seller.
</FP-1>
<P>2. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> When two consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, the disclosures may be given to either one of them. If one consumer is merely a surety or guarantor, the disclosures must be given to the principal debtor. In rescindable transactions, however, separate disclosures must be given to each consumer who has the right to rescind under § 226.23, although the disclosures required under § 226.19(b) need only be provided to the consumer who expresses an interest in a variable-rate loan program.
</P>
<P><I>17(e) Effect of subsequent events.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Events causing inaccuracies.</I> Inaccuracies in disclosures are not violations if attributable to events occurring after the disclosures are made. For example, when the consumer fails to fulfill a prior commitment to keep the collateral insured and the creditor then provides the coverage and charges the consumer for it, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate. The creditor may, however, be required to make new disclosures under § 226.17(f) or § 226.19 if the events occurred between disclosure and consummation or under § 226.20 if the events occurred after consummation. 
</P>
<P><I>17(f) Early disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Change in rate or other terms.</I> Redisclosure is required for changes that occur between the time disclosures are made and consummation if the annual percentage rate in the consummated transaction exceeds the limits prescribed in this section, even if the initial disclosures would be considered accurate under the tolerances in § 226.18(d) or 226.22(a). To illustrate: 
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> A. If disclosures are made in a regular transaction on July 1, the transaction is consummated on July 15, and the actual annual percentage rate varies by more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point from the disclosed annual percentage rate, the creditor must either redisclose the changed terms or furnish a complete set of new disclosures before consummation. Redisclosure is required even if the disclosures made on July 1 are based on estimates and marked as such.
</P>
<P>B. In a regular transaction, if early disclosures are marked as estimates and the disclosed annual percentage rate is within 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point of the rate at consummation, the creditor need not redisclose the changed terms (including the annual percentage rate). 
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Nonmortgage loan.</I> If disclosures are made on July 1, the transaction is consummated on July 15, and the finance charge increased by $35 but the disclosed annual percentage rate is within the permitted tolerance, the creditor must at least redisclose the changed terms that were not marked as estimates. (See § 226.18(d)(2) of this part.)
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Mortgage loan.</I> At the time TILA disclosures are prepared in July, the loan closing is scheduled for July 31 and the creditor does not plan to collect per-diem interest at consummation. Consummation actually occurs on August 5, and per-diem interest for the remainder of August is collected as a prepaid finance charge. Assuming there were no other changes requiring redisclosure, the creditor may rely on the disclosures prepared in July that were accurate when they were prepared. However, if the creditor prepares new disclosures in August that will be provided at consummation, the new disclosures must take into account the amount of the per-diem interest known to the creditor at that time. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable rate.</I> The addition of a variable rate feature to the credit terms, after early disclosures are given, requires new disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content of new disclosures.</I> If redisclosure is required, the creditor has the option of either providing a complete set of new disclosures, or providing disclosures of only the terms that vary from those originally disclosed. (See the commentary to § 226.19(a)(2).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Special rules.</I> In mortgage transactions subject to § 226.19, the creditor must redisclose if, between the delivery of the required early disclosures and consummation, the annual percentage rate changes by more than a stated tolerance. When subsequent events occur after consummation, new disclosures are required only if there is a refinancing or an assumption within the meaning of § 226.20.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 17(f)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Irregular transactions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, a transaction is deemed to be “irregular” according to the definition in footnote 46 of § 226.22(a)(3). 
</P>
<P><I>17(g) Mail or telephone orders—delay in disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Conditions for use.</I> When the creditor receives a mail or telephone request for credit, the creditor may delay making the disclosures until the first payment is due if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>• The credit request is initiated without face-to-face or direct telephone solicitation. (Creditors may, however, use the special rule when credit requests are solicited by mail.)
</P>
<P>• The creditor has supplied the specified credit information about its credit terms either to the individual consumer or to the public generally. That information may be distributed through advertisements, catalogs, brochures, special mailers, or similar means.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance.</I> The location requirements for the insurance disclosures under § 226.18(n) permit them to appear apart from the other disclosures. Therefore, a creditor may mail an insurance authorization to the consumer and then prepare the other disclosures to reflect whether or not the authorization is completed by the consumer. Creditors may also disclose the insurance cost on a unit-cost basis, if the transaction meets the requirements of § 226.17(g).
</P>
<P><I>17(h) Series of sales—delay in disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The creditor may delay the disclosures for individual credit sales in a series of such sales until the first payment is due on the current sale, assuming the 2 conditions in this paragraph are met. If those conditions are not met, the general timing rules in § 266.17(b) apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Creditors structuring disclosures for a series of sales under § 226.17(h) may compute the total sale price as either:
</P>
<FP-1>• The cash price for the sale plus that portion of the finance charge and other charges applicable to that sale; or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• The cash price for the sale, other charges applicable to the sale, and the total finance charge and outstanding principal.
</FP-1>
<P><I>17(i) Interim student credit extensions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Student credit plans involve extensions of credit for education purposes where the repayment amount and schedule are not known at the time credit is advanced. These plans include loans made under any student credit plan, whether government or private, where the repayment period does not begin immediately. (Certain student credit plans that meet this definition are exempt from Regulation Z. See § 226.3(f).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> For disclosures made before the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under §§ 226.46, 47, and 48, paragraph 17(i) permitted creditors to omit from the disclosures the terms set forth in that paragraph at the time the credit was actually extended. However, creditors were required to make complete disclosures at the time the creditor and consumer agreed upon the repayment schedule for the total obligation. At that time, a new set of disclosures of all applicable items under § 226.18 was required. Most student credit plans are subject to the requirements in §§ 226.46, 47, and 48. Consequently, for applications for student credit plans received on or after the mandatory compliance date of §§ 226.46, 47, and 48, the creditor may not omit from the disclosures the terms set forth in paragraph 17(i). Instead, the creditor must comply with §§ 226.46, 47, and 48, if applicable, or with §§ 226.17 and 226.18.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> The disclosures given at the time of execution of the interim note should reflect two annual percentage rates, one for the interim period and one for the repayment period. The use of § 226.17(i) in making disclosures does not, by itself, make those disclosures estimates. Any portion of the finance charge, such as statutory interest, that is attributable to the interim period and is paid by the student (either as a prepaid finance charge, periodically during the interim period, in one payment at the end of the interim period, or capitalized at the beginning of the repayment period) must be reflected in the interim annual percentage rate. Interest subsidies, such as payments made by either a state or the Federal government on an interim loan, must be excluded in computing the annual percentage rate on the interim obligation, when the consumer has no contingent liability for payment of those amounts. Any finance charges that are paid separately by the student at the outset or withheld from the proceeds of the loan are prepaid finance charges. An example of this type of charge is the loan guarantee fee. The sum of the prepaid finance charges is deducted from the loan proceeds to determine the amount financed and included in the calculation of the finance charge. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consolidation.</I> Consolidation of the interim student credit extensions through a renewal note with a set repayment schedule is treated as a new transaction with disclosures made as they would be for a refinancing. Any unearned portion of the finance charge must be reflected in the new finance charge and annual percentage rate, and is not added to the new amount financed. In itemizing the amount financed under § 226.18(c), the creditor may combine the principal balances remaining on the interim extensions at the time of consolidation and categorize them as the amount paid on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Approved student credit forms.</I> See the commentary to appendix H regarding disclosure forms approved for use in certain student credit programs for which applications were received prior to the mandatory compliance date of §§ 226.46, 47, and 48.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 121, 122, 124, and 128, and the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1071) as amended by Pub. L. 97-35, August 13, 1981.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.2 and appendix H.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Sections 226.6 and 226.8.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> With few exceptions, the disclosures must now appear apart from all other information, and may not be interspersed with that information. The disclosures must be based on the legal obligation between the parties, rather than any side agreement.
</P>
<P>The assumed maturity period for demand loans has been increased from 6 months to 1 year. Any alternate maturity date must be stated in the legal obligation rather than inferred from the documents, in order to form a basis for disclosures.
</P>
<P>In multiple-advance transactions, a series of advances up to a certain amount and construction loans that may be permanently financed may be disclosed, at the creditor's option, as either a single transaction or several transactions. Appendix D is applicable only to multiple advances for the construction of a dwelling, whereas its predecessor, Interpretation § 226.813, could be used for all multiple-advance transactions.
</P>
<P>If disclosures are made before the date of consummation, the creditor need not provide updated disclosures at consummation unless the annual percentage rate has changed beyond certain limits or a variable rate feature has been added.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.18—Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>As applicable.</I> The disclosures required by this section need be made only as applicable. Any disclosure not relevant to a particular transaction may be eliminated entirely. For example:
</P>
<P>• In a loan transaction, the creditor may delete disclosure of the total sale price.
</P>
<P>• In a credit sale requiring disclosure of the total sale price under § 226.18(j), the creditor may delete any reference to a downpayment where no downpayment is involved.
</P>
<P>Where the amounts of several numerical disclosures are the same, the “as applicable” language also permits creditors to combine the terms, so long as it is done in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example:
</P>
<P>• In a transaction in which the amount financed equals the total of payments, the creditor may disclose “amount financed/total of payments,” together with descriptive language, followed by a single amount.
</P>
<P>• However, if the terms are separated on the disclosure statement and separate space is provided for each amount, both disclosures must be completed, even though the same amount is entered in each space.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> See the commentary to § 226.17 and appendix H for a discussion of the format to be used in making these disclosures, as well as acceptable modifications.
</P>
<P><I>18(a) Creditor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification of creditor.</I> The creditor making the disclosures must be identified. This disclosure may, at the creditor's option, appear apart from the other disclosures. Use of the creditor's name is sufficient, but the creditor may also include an address and/or telephone number. In transactions with multiple creditors, any one of them may make the disclosures; the one doing so must be identified.
</P>
<P><I>18(b) Amount financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The net amount of credit extended must be disclosed using the term <I>amount financed</I> and a descriptive explanation similar to the phrase in the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rebates and loan premiums.</I> In a loan transaction, the creditor may offer a premium in the form of cash or merchandise to prospective borrowers. Similarly, in a credit sale transaction, a seller's or manufacturer's rebate may be offered to prospective purchasers of the creditor's goods or services. At the creditor's option, these amounts may be either reflected in the Truth in Lending disclosures or disregarded in the disclosures. If the creditor chooses to reflect them in the § 226.18 disclosures, rather than disregard them, they may be taken into account in any manner as part of those disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Downpayments.</I> A downpayment is defined in § 226.2(a)(18) to include, at the creditor's option, certain deferred downpayments or pick-up payments. A deferred downpayment that meets the criteria set forth in the definition may be treated as part of the downpayment, at the creditor's option.
</P>
<P>• Deferred downpayments that are not treated as part of the downpayment (either because they do not meet the definition or because the creditor simply chooses not to treat them as downpayments) are included in the amount financed.
</P>
<P>• Deferred downpayments that are treated as part of the downpayment are not part of the amount financed under § 226.18(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adding other amounts.</I> Fees or other charges that are not part of the finance charge and that are financed rather than paid separately at consummation of the transaction are included in the amount financed. Typical examples are real estate settlement charges and premiums for voluntary credit life and disability insurance excluded from the finance charge under § 226.4. This paragraph does not include any amounts already accounted for under § 226.18(b)(1), such as taxes, tag and title fees, or the costs of accessories or service policies that the creditor includes in the cash price.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(b)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid finance charges.</I> Prepaid finance charges that are paid separately in cash or by check should be deducted under § 226.18(b)(3) in calculating the amount financed. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>• A consumer applies for a loan of $2,500 with a $40 loan fee. The face amount of the note is $2,500 and the consumer pays the loan fee separately by cash or check at closing. The principal loan amount for purposes of § 226.18(b)(1) is $2,500 and $40 should be deducted under § 226.18(b(3), thereby yielding an amount financed of $2,460.
</P>
<P>In some instances, as when loan fees are financed by the creditor, finance charges are incorporated in the face amount of the note. Creditors have the option, when the charges are not add-on or discount charges, of determining a principal loan amount under § 226.18(b)(1) that either includes or does not include the amount of the finance charges. (Thus the principal loan amount may, but need not, be determined to equal the face amount of the note.) When the finance charges are included in the principal loan amount, they should be deducted as prepaid finance charges under § 226.18(b)(3). When the finance charges are not included in the principal loan amount, they should not be deducted under § 226.18(b)(3). The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.18(b) to this type of transaction. Each example assumes a loan request of $2,500 with a loan fee of $40; the creditor assesses the loan fee by increasing the face amount of the note to $2,540. 
</P>
<P>• If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 226.18(b)(1) to be $2,540, it has included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should deduct $40 as a prepaid finance charge under § 226.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,500.
</P>
<P>• If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 226.18(b)(1) to be $2,500, it has not included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should not deduct any amount under § 226.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,500.
</P>
<FP>The same rules apply when the creditor does not increase the face amount of the note by the amount of the charge but collects the charge by withholding it from the amount advanced to the consumer. To illustrate, the following examples assume a loan request of $2,500 with a loan fee of $40; the creditor prepares a note for $2,500 and advances $2,460 to the consumer.
</FP>
<P>• If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 226.18(b)(1) to be $2,500, it has included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should deduct $40 as a prepaid finance charge under § 226.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,460.
</P>
<P>• If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 226.18(b)(1) to be $2,460, it has not included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should not deduct any amount under § 226.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,460.
</P>
<FP>Thus in the examples where the creditor derives the net amount of credit by determining a principal loan amount that does not include the amount of the finance charge, no subtraction is appropriate. Creditors should note, however, that although the charges are not subtracted as <I>prepaid</I> finance charges in those examples, they are nonetheless finance charges and must be treated as such.
</FP>
<P>2. <I>Add-on or discount charges.</I> All finance charges must be deducted from the amount of credit in calculating the amount financed. If the principal loan amount reflects finance charges that meet the definition of a prepaid finance charge in § 226.2, those charges are included in the § 226.18(b)(1) amount and deducted under § 226.18(b)(3). However, if the principal loan amount includes finance charges that do not meet the definition of a prepaid finance charge, the § 226.18(b)(1) amount must exclude those finance charges. The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.18(b) to these types of transactions. Each example assumes a loan request of $1000 for 1 year, subject to a 6 percent precomputed interest rate, with a $10 loan fee paid separately at consummation.
</P>
<P>• The creditor assesses add-on interest of $60 which is added to the $1000 in loan proceeds for an obligation with a face amount of $1060. The principal for purposes of § 226.18(b)(1) is $1000, no amounts are added under § 226.18(b)(2), and the $10 loan fee is a prepaid finance charge to be deducted under § 226.18(b)(3). The amount financed is $990.
</P>
<P>• The creditor assesses discount interest of $60 and distributes $940 to the consumer, who is liable for an obligation with a face amount of $1000. The principal under § 226.18(b)(1) is $940, which results in an amount financed of $930, after deduction of the $10 prepaid finance charge under § 226.18(b)(3).
</P>
<P>• The creditor assesses $60 in discount interest by increasing the face amount of the obligation to $1060, with the consumer receiving $1000. The principal under § 226.18(b)(1) is thus $1000 and the amount financed $990, after deducting the $10 prepaid finance charge under § 226.18(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>18(c) Itemization of amount financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor has 2 alternatives in complying with § 226.18(c):
</P>
<P>• The creditor may inform the consumer, on the segregated disclosures, that a written itemization of the amount financed will be provided on request, furnishing the itemization only if the customer in fact requests it.
</P>
<P>• The creditor may provide an itemization as a matter of course, without notifying the consumer of the right to receive it or waiting for a request.
</P>
<P>Whether given as a matter of course or only on request, the itemization must be provided at the same time as the other disclosures required by § 226.18, although separate from those disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Additional information.</I> Section 226.18(c) establishes only a minimum standard for the material to be included in the itemization of the amount financed. Creditors have considerable flexibility in revising or supplementing the information listed in § 226.18(c) and shown in model form H-3, although no changes are required. The creditor may, for example, do one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>i. Include amounts that reflect payments not part of the amount financed. For example, escrow items and certain insurance premiums may be included, as discussed in the commentary to § 226.18(g).
</P>
<P>ii. Organize the categories in any order. For example, the creditor may rearrange the terms in a mathematical progression that depicts the arithmetic relationship of the terms.
</P>
<P>iii. Add categories. For example, in a credit sale, the creditor may include the cash price and the downpayment. If the credit sale involves a trade-in of the consumer's car and an existing lien on that car exceeds the value of the trade-in amount, the creditor may disclose the consumer's trade-in value, the creditor's payoff of the existing lien, and the resulting additional amount financed.
</P>
<P>iv. Further itemize each category. For example, the amount paid directly to the consumer may be subdivided into the amount given by check and the amount credited to the consumer's savings account.
</P>
<P>v. Label categories with different language from that shown in § 226.18(c). For example, an amount paid on the consumer's account may be revised to specifically identify the account as “your auto loan with us.”
</P>
<P>vi. Delete, leave blank, mark “N/A” or otherwise not inapplicable categories in the itemization. For example, in a credit sale with no prepaid finance charges or amounts paid to others, the amount financed may consist of only the cash price less downpayment. In this case, the itemization may be composed of only a single category and all other categories may be eliminated.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amounts appropriate to more than one category.</I> When an amount may appropriately be placed in any of several categories and the creditor does not wish to revise the categories shown in § 226.18(c), the creditor has considerable flexibility in determining where to show the amount. For example:
</P>
<P>• In a credit sale, the portion of the purchase price being financed by the creditor may be viewed as either an amount paid to the consumer or an amount paid on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>RESPA transactions.</I> The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) requires creditors to provide a good faith estimate of closing costs and a settlement statement listing the amounts paid by the consumer. Transactions subject to RESPA are exempt from the requirements of § 226.18(c) if the creditor complies with RESPA's requirements for a good faith estimate and settlement statement. The itemization of the amount financed need not be given, even though the content and timing of the good faith estimate and settlement statement under RESPA differ from the requirements of §§ 226.18(c) and 226.19(a)(2). If a creditor chooses to substitute RESPA's settlement statement for the itemization when redisclosure is required under § 226.19(a)(2), the statement must be delivered to the consumer at or prior to consummation. The disclosures required by §§ 226.18(c) and 226.19(a)(2) may appear on the same page or on the same document as the good faith estimate or the settlement statement, so long as the requirements of § 226.17(a) are met. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(i).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts paid to consumer.</I> This encompasses funds given to the consumer in the form of cash or a check, including joint proceeds checks, as well as funds placed in an asset account. It may include money in an interest-bearing account even if that amount is considered a required deposit under § 226.18(r). For example, in a transaction with total loan proceeds of $500, the consumer receives a check for $300 and $200 is required by the creditor to be put into an interest-bearing account. Whether or not the $200 is a required deposit, it is part of the amount financed. At the creditor's option, it may be broken out and labeled in the itemization of the amount financed. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(ii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts credited to consumer's account.</I> The term <I>consumer's account</I> refers to an account in the nature of a debt with that creditor. It may include, for example, an unpaid balance on a prior loan, a credit sale balance or other amounts owing to that creditor. It does not include asset accounts of the consumer such as savings or checking accounts. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(iii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts paid to others.</I> This includes, for example, tag and title fees; amounts paid to insurance companies for insurance premiums; security interest fees, and amounts paid to credit bureaus, appraisers or public officials. When several types of insurance premiums are financed, they may, at the creditor's option, be combined and listed in one sum, labeled “insurance” or similar term. This includes, but is not limited to, different types of insurance premiums paid to one company and different types of insurance premiums paid to different companies. Except for insurance companies and other categories noted in footnote 41, third parties must be identified by name. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges added to amounts paid to others.</I> A sum is sometimes added to the amount of a fee charged to a consumer for a service provided by a third party (such as for an extended warranty or a service contract) that is payable in the same amount in comparable cash and credit transactions. In the credit transaction, the amount is retained by the creditor. Given the flexibility permitted in meeting the requirements of the amount financed itemization (see the commentary to § 226.18(c)), the creditor in such cases may reflect that the creditor has retained a portion of the amount paid to others. For example, the creditor could add to the category “amount paid to others” language such as “(we may be retaining a portion of this amount).” 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(iv).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid finance charge.</I> Prepaid finance charges that are deducted under § 226.18(b)(3) must be disclosed under this section. The prepaid finance charges must be shown as a total amount but may, at the creditor's option, also be further itemized and described. All amounts must be reflected in this total, even if portions of the prepaid finance charge are also reflected elsewhere. For example, if at consummation the creditor collects interim interest of $30 and a credit report fee of $10, a total prepaid finance charge of $40 must be shown. At the creditor's option, the credit report fee paid to a third party may also be shown elsewhere as an amount included in § 226.18(c)(1)(iii). The creditor may also further describe the 2 components of the prepaid finance charge, although no itemization of this element is required by § 226.18(c)(1)(iv). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid mortgage insurance premiums.</I> RESPA requires creditors to give consumers a settlement statement disclosing the costs associated with mortgage loan transactions. Included on the settlement statement are mortgage insurance premiums collected at settlement, which are prepaid finance charges. In calculating the total amount of prepaid finance charges, creditors should use the amount for mortgage insurance listed on the line for mortgage insurance on the settlement statement (line 1002 on HUD-1 or HUD 1-A), without adjustment, even if the actual amount collected at settlement may vary because of RESPA's escrow accounting rules. Figures for mortgage insurance disclosed in conformance with RESPA shall be deemed to be accurate for purposes of Regulation Z. 
</P>
<P><I>18(d) Finance charge.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must disclose the finance charge as a dollar amount, using the term <I>finance charge,</I> and must include a brief description similar to that in § 226.18(d). The creditor may, but need not, further modify the descriptor for variable rate transactions with a phrase such as <I>which is subject to change.</I> The finance charge must be shown on the disclosures only as a total amount; the elements of the finance charge must not be itemized in the segregated disclosures, although the regulation does not prohibit their itemization elsewhere. 
</P>
<P>2. [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>18(d)(2) Other credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Tolerance.</I> When a finance charge error results in a misstatement of the amount financed, or some other dollar amount for which the regulation provides no specific tolerance, the misstated disclosure does not violate the act or the regulation if the finance charge error is within the permissible tolerance under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P><I>18(e) Annual percentage rate.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must disclose the cost of the credit as an annual rate, using the term <I>annual percentage rate,</I> plus a brief descriptive phrase comparable to that used in § 226.18(e). For variable rate transactions, the descriptor may be further modified with a phrase such as <I>which is subject to change.</I> Under § 226.17(a), the terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>finance charge</I> must be more conspicuous than the other required disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception.</I> Footnote 42 provides an exception for certain transactions in which no annual percentage rate disclosure is required. 
</P>
<P><I>18(f) Variable rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The requirements of § 226.18(f) apply to all transactions in which the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the rate originally disclosed to the consumer. It includes not only increases in the interest rate but also increases in other components, such as the rate of required credit life insurance. The provisions, however, do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, acceleration or transfer of the collateral. Section 226.18(f)(1) applies to variable-rate transactions that are not secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and to those that are secured by the principal dwelling but have a term of one year or less. Section 226.18(f)(2) applies to variable-rate transactions that are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and have a term greater than one year. Moreover, transactions subject to § 226.18(f)(2) are subject to the special early disclosure requirements of § 226.19(b). (However, “shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 226.18(f)(1) and not to the requirements of §§ 226.18(f)(2) and 226.19(b) regardless of the general coverage of those sections.) Creditors are permitted under footnote 43 to substitute in any variable-rate transaction the disclosures required under § 226.19(b) for those disclosures ordinarily required under 226.18(f)(1). Creditors who provide variable-rate disclosures under § 226.19(b) must comply with all of the requirements of that section, including the timing of disclosures, and must also provide the disclosures required under § 226.18(f)(2). Creditors utilizing footnote 43 may, but need not, also provide disclosures pursuant to § 226.20(c). (Substitution of disclosures under § 226.18(f)(1) in transactions subject to § 226.19(b) is not permitted under the footnote.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> In describing the variable rate feature, the creditor need not use any prescribed terminology. For example, limitations and hypothetical examples may be described in terms of interest rates rather than annual percentage rates. The model forms in appendix H provide examples of ways in which the variable rate disclosures may be made. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Conversion feature.</I> In variable-rate transactions with an option permitting consumers to convert to a fixed-rate transaction, the conversion option is a variable-rate feature that must be disclosed. In making disclosures under § 226.18(f)(1), creditors should disclose the fact that the rate may increase upon conversion; identify the index or formula used to set the fixed rate; and state any limitations on and effects of an increase resulting from conversion that differ from other variable-rate features. Because § 226.18(f)(1)(iv) requires only one hypothetical example (such as an example of the effect on payments resulting from changes in the index), a second hypothetical example need not be given.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Circumstances.</I> The circumstances under which the rate may increase include identification of any index to which the rate is tied, as well as any conditions or events on which the increase is contingent.
</P>
<P>• When no specific index is used, any identifiable factors used to determine whether to increase the rate must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>• When the increase in the rate is purely discretionary, the fact that any increase is within the creditor's discretion must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>• When the index is internally defined (for example, by that creditor's prime rate), the creditor may comply with this requirement by either a brief description of that index or a statement that any increase is in the discretion of the creditor. An externally defined index, however, must be identified.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limitations.</I> This includes any maximum imposed on the amount of an increase in the rate at any time, as well as any maximum on the total increase over the life of the transaction. Except for private education loans disclosures, when there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact, and limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under State or Federal statutes or regulations. (See § 226.30 for the rule requiring that a maximum interest rate be included in certain variable-rate transactions.) For disclosures with respect to private education loan disclosures, see comment 47(b)(1)-2.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(iii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effects.</I> Disclosure of the effect of an increase refers to an increase in the number or amount of payments or an increase in the final payment. In addition, the creditor may make a brief reference to negative amortization that may result from a rate increase. (See the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1) regarding directly related information.) If the effect cannot be determined, the creditor must provide a statement of the possible effects. For example, if the exercise of the variable-rate feature may result in either more or larger payments, both possibilities must be noted.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(iv).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Hypothetical example.</I> The example may, at the creditor's option appear apart from the other disclosures. The creditor may provide either a standard example that illustrates the terms and conditions of that type of credit offered by that creditor or an example that directly reflects the terms and conditions of the particular transaction. In transactions with more than one variable-rate feature, only one hypothetical example need be provided. (See the commentary to section 226.17(a)(1) regarding disclosure of more than one hypothetical example as directly related information.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Hypothetical example not required.</I> The creditor need not provide a hypothetical example in the following transactions with a variable-rate feature:
</P>
<P>• Demand obligations with no alternate maturity date.
</P>
<P>• Private education loans as defined in § 226.46(b)(5).
</P>
<P>• Multiple-advance construction loans disclosed pursuant to appendix D, Part I.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(f)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In variable-rate transactions that have a term greater than one year and are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the creditor must give special early disclosures under § 226.19(b) in addition to the later disclosures required under § 226.18(f)(2). The disclosures under § 226.18(f)(2) must state that the transaction has a variable-rate feature and that variable-rate disclosures have been provided earlier. (See the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1) regarding the disclosure of certain directly related information in addition to the variable-rate disclosures required under § 226.18(f)(2).)
</P>
<P><I>18(g) Payment schedule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts included in repayment schedule.</I> The repayment schedule should reflect all components of the finance charge, not merely the portion attributable to interest. A prepaid finance charge, however, should not be shown in the repayment schedule as a separate payment. The payments may include amounts beyond the amount financed and finance charge. For example, the disclosed payments may, at the creditor's option, reflect certain insurance premiums where the premiums are not part of either the amount financed or the finance charge, as well as real estate escrow amounts such as taxes added to the payment in mortage transactions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Deferred downpayments.</I> As discussed in the commentary to § 226.2(a)(18), deferred downpayments or pick-up payments that meet the conditions set forth in the definition of downpayment may be treated as part of the downpayment. Even if treated as a downpayment, that amount may nevertheless be disclosed as part of the payment schedule, at the creditor's option.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total number of payments.</I> In disclosing the number of payments for transactions with more than one payment level, creditors may but need not disclose as a single figure the total number of payments for all levels. For example, in a transaction calling for 108 payments of $350, 240 payments of $335, and 12 payments of $330, the creditor need not state that there will be a total of 360 payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Timing of payments.</I> i. <I>General rule.</I> Section 226.18(g) requires creditors to disclose the timing of payments. To meet this requirement, creditors may list all of the payment due dates. They also have the option of specifying the “period of payments” scheduled to repay the obligation. As a general rule, creditors that choose this option must disclose the payment intervals or frequency, such as “monthly”or “bi-weekly,” and the calendar date that the beginning payment is due. For example, a creditor may disclose that payments are due “monthly beginning on July 1, 1998.” This information, when combined with the number of payments, is necessary to define the repayment period and enable a consumer to determine all of the payment due dates.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Exception.</I> In a limited number of circumstances, the beginning-payment date is unknown and difficult to determine at the time disclosures are made. For example, a consumer may become obligated on a credit contract that contemplates the delayed disbursement of funds based on a contingent event, such as the completion of home repairs. Disclosures may also accompany loan checks that are sent by mail, in which case the initial disbursement and repayment dates are solely within the consumer's control. In such cases, if the beginning-payment date is unknown the creditor may use an estimated date and label the disclosure as an estimate pursuant to § 226.17(c). Alternatively, the disclosure may refer to the occurrence of a particular event, for example, by disclosing that the beginning payment is due “30 days after the first loan disbursement.” This information also may be included with an estimated date to explain the basis for the creditor's estimate. See Comment 17(a)(1)-5(iii).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Mortgage insurance.</I> The payment schedule should reflect the consumer's mortgage insurance payments until the date on which the creditor must automatically terminate coverage under applicable law, even though the consumer may have a right to request that the insurance be cancelled earlier. The payment schedule must reflect the legal obligation, as determined by applicable state or other law. For example, assume that under applicable law, mortgage insurance must terminate after the 130th scheduled monthly payment, and the creditor collects at closing and places in escrow two months of premiums. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will include mortgage insurance premiums in 130 payments and refund the escrowed payments when the insurance is terminated, the payment schedule should reflect 130 premium payments. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will apply the amount escrowed to the two final insurance payments, the payment schedule should reflect 128 monthly premium payments. (For assumptions in calculating a payment schedule that includes mortgage insurance that must be automatically terminated, see comments 17(c)(1)-8 and 17(c)(1)-10.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Mortgage transactions.</I> Section 226.18(g) applies only to closed-end transactions other than transactions that are subject to § 226.18(s). Section 226.18(s) applies to closed-end transactions secured by real property or a dwelling. Thus, if a closed-end consumer credit transaction is secured by real property or a dwelling, the creditor discloses an interest rate and payment summary table in accordance with § 226.18(s) and does not observe the requirements of § 226.18(g). On the other hand, if a closed-end consumer credit transaction is not secured by real property or a dwelling, the creditor discloses a payment schedule in accordance with § 226.18(g) and does not observe the requirements of § 226.18(s).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(g)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Demand obligations.</I> In demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor has the option of disclosing only the due dates or periods of scheduled interest payments in the first year (for example, “interest payable quarterly” or “interest due the first of each month”). The amounts of the interest payments need not be shown.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(g)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Abbreviated disclosure.</I> The creditor may disclose an abbreviated payment schedule when the amount of each regularly scheduled payment (other than the first or last payment) includes an equal amount to be applied on principal and a finance charge computed by application of a rate to the decreasing unpaid balance. This option is also available when mortgage-guarantee insurance premiums, paid either monthly or annually, cause variations in the amount of the scheduled payments, reflecting the continual decrease or increase in the premium due. In addition, in transactions where payments vary because interest and principal are paid at different intervals, the two series of payments may be disclosed separately and the abbreviated payment schedule may be used for the interest payments. For example, in transactions with fixed quarterly principal payments and monthly interest payments based on the outstanding principal balance, the amount of the interest payments will change quarterly as principal declines. In such cases the creditor may treat the interest and principal payments as two separate series of payments, separately disclosing the number, amount, and due dates of principal payments, and, using the abbreviated payment schedule, the number, amount, and due dates of interest payments. This option may be used when interest and principal are scheduled to be paid on the same date of the month as well as on different dates of the month. The creditor using this alternative must disclose the dollar amount of the highest and lowest payments and make reference to the variation in payments. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Combined payment schedule disclosures.</I> Creditors may combine the option in this paragraph with the general payment schedule requirements in transactions where only a portion of the payment schedule meets the conditions of § 226.18(g)(2). For example, in a graduated payment mortgage where payments rise sharply for 5 years and then decline over the next 25 years because of decreasing mortgage insurance premiums, the first 5 years would be disclosed under the general rule in § 226.18(g) and the next 25 years according to the abbreviated schedule in § 226.18(g)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect on other disclosures.</I> Section 226.18(g)(2) applies only to the payment schedule disclosure. The actual amounts of payments must be taken into account in calculating and disclosing the finance charge and the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(h) Total of payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The total of payments must be disclosed using that term, along with a descriptive phrase similar to the one in the regulation. The descriptive explanation may be revised to reflect a variable rate feature with a brief phrase such as “based on the current annual percentage rate which may change.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of total of payments.</I> The total of payments is the sum of the payments disclosed under § 226.18(g). For example, if the creditor disclosed a deferred portion of the downpayment as part of the payment schedule, that payment must be reflected in the total disclosed under this paragraph. To calculate the total of payments amount for transactions subject to § 226.18(s), creditors should use the rules in § 226.18(g) and associated commentary and, for adjustable-rate transactions, comments 17(c)(1)-8 and -10.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exception.</I> Footnote 44 permits creditors to omit disclosure of the total of payments in single-payment transactions. This exception does not apply to a transaction calling for a single payment of principal combined with periodic payments of interest.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Demand obligations.</I> In demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor may omit disclosure of payment amounts under § 226.18(g)(1). In those transactions, the creditor need not disclose the total of payments.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(i) Demand feature.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosure requirements of this provision apply not only to transactions payable on demand from the outset, but also to transactions that are not payable on demand at the time of consummation but convert to a demand status after a stated period. In demand obligations in which the disclosures are based on an assumed maturity of 1 year under § 226.17(c)(5), that fact must also be stated. Appendix H contains model clauses that may be used in making this disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Covered demand features.</I> The type of demand feature triggering the disclosures required by § 226.18(i) includes only those demand features contemplated by the parties as part of the legal obligation. For example, this provision does not apply to transactions that covert to a demand status as a result of the consumer's default. A due-on-sale clause is not considered a demand feature. A creditor may, but need not, treat its contractual right to demand payment of a loan made to its executive officers as a demand feature to the extent that the contractual right is required by Regulation O (12 CFR 215.5) or other federal law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to payment schedule disclosures.</I> As provided in § 226.18(g)(1), in demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor need only disclose the due dates or payment periods of any scheduled interest payments for the first year. If the demand obligation states an alternate maturity, however, the disclosed payment schedule must reflect that stated term; the special rule in § 226.18(g)(1) is not available.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(j) Total sale price.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In a credit sale transaction, the <I>total sale price</I> must be disclosed using that term, along with a descriptive explanation similar to the one in the regulation. For variable rate transactions, the descriptive phrase may, at the creditor's option, be modified to reflect the variable rate feature. For example, the descriptor may read: “The total cost of your purchase on credit, which is subject to change, including your downpayment of * * *.” The reference to a downpayment may be eliminated in transactions calling for no downpayment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of total sale price.</I> The figure to be disclosed is the sum of the cash price, other charges added under § 226.18(b)(2), and the finance charge disclosed under § 226.18(d).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of existing liens.</I> When a credit sale transaction involves property that is being used as a trade-in (an automobile, for example) and that has a lien exceeding the value of the trade-in, the total sale price is affected by the amount of any cash provided. (See comment 2(a)(18)-3.) To illustrate, assume a consumer finances the purchase of an automobile with a cash price of $20,000. Another vehicle used as a trade-in has a value of $8,000 but has an existing lien of $10,000, leaving a $2,000 deficit that the consumer must finance.
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer pays $1,500 in cash, the creditor may apply the cash first to the lien, leaving a $500 deficit, and reflect a downpayment of $0. The total sale price would include the $20,000 cash price, an additional $500 financed under § 226.18(b)(2), and the amount of the finance charge. Alternatively, the creditor may reflect a downpayment of $1,500 and finance the $2,000 deficit. In that case, the total sale price would include the sum of the $20,000 cash price, the $2,000 lien payoff amount as an additional amount financed, and the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer pays $3,000 in cash, the creditor may apply the cash first to extinguish the lien and reflect the remainder as a downpayment of $1,000. The total sale price would reflect the $20,000 cash price and the amount of the finance charge. (The cash payment extinguishes the trade-in deficit and no charges are added under § 226.18(b)(2).) Alternatively, the creditor may elect to reflect a downpayment of $3,000 and finance the $2,000 deficit. In that case, the total sale price would include the sum of the $20,000 cash price, the $2,000 lien payoff amount as an additional amount financed, and the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(k) Prepayment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must give a definitive statement of whether or not a penalty will be imposed or a rebate will be given.
</P>
<P>• The fact that no penalty will be imposed may not simply be inferred from the absence of a penalty disclosure; the creditor must indicate that prepayment will not result in a penalty.
</P>
<P>• If a penalty or refund is possible for one type of prepayment, even though not for all, a positive disclosure is required. This applies to any type of prepayment, whether voluntary or involuntary as in the case of prepayments resulting from acceleration.
</P>
<P>• Any difference in rebate or penalty policy, depending on whether prepayment is voluntary or not, must not be disclosed with the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rebate-penalty disclosure.</I> A single transaction may involve both a precomputed finance charge and a finance charge computed by application of a rate to the unpaid balance (for example, mortgages with mortgage-guarantee insurance). In these cases, disclosures about both prepayment rebates and penalties are required. Sample form H-15 in appendix H illustrates a mortgage transaction in which both rebate and penalty disclosures are necessary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prepaid finance charge.</I> The existence of a prepaid finance charge in a transaction does not, by itself, require a disclosure under § 226.18(k). A prepaid finance charge is not considered a penalty under § 226.18(k)(1), nor does it require a disclosure under § 226.18(k)(2). At its option, however, a creditor may consider a prepaid finance charge to be under § 226.18(k)(2). If a disclosure is made under § 226.18(k)(2) with respect to a prepaid finance charge or other finance charge, the creditor may further identify that finance charge. For example, the disclosure may state that the borrower “will not be entitled to a refund of the prepaid finance charge” or some other term that describes the finance charge. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(k)(1).</I>
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 18(k)(1)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Penalty.</I> This applies only to those transactions in which the interest calculation takes account of all scheduled reductions in principal, as well as transactions in which interest calculations are made daily. The term penalty as used here encompasses only those charges that are assessed strictly because of the prepayment in full of a simple-interest obligation, as an addition to all other amounts. Items which are penalties include, for example:
</P>
<P>• Interest charges for any period after prepayment in full is made. (See the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1) regarding disclosure of interest charges assessed for periods after prepayment in full as directly related information.)
</P>
<P>• A minimum finance charge in a simple-interest transaction. (See the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1) regarding the disclosure of a minimum finance charge as directly related information.) Items which are not penalties include, for example, loan guarantee fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(k)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rebate of finance charge.</I> This applies to any finance charges that do not take account of each reduction in the principal balance of an obligation. This category includes, for example:
</P>
<FP-1>• Precomputed finance charges such as add-on charges.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Charges that take account of some but not all reductions in principal, such as mortgage guarantee insurance assessed on the basis of an annual declining balance, when the principal is reduced on a monthly basis.
</FP-1>
<FP>No description of the method of computing earned or unearned finance charges is required or permitted as part of the segregated disclosures under this section. 
</FP>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(l) Late payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> This paragraph requires a disclosure only if charges are added to individual delinquent installments by a creditor who otherwise considers the transaction ongoing on its original terms. Late payment charges do not include:
</P>
<P>• The right of acceleration.
</P>
<P>• Fees imposed for actual collection costs, such as repossession charges or attorney's fees.
</P>
<P>• Deferral and extension charges.
</P>
<P>• The continued accrual of simple interest at the contract rate after the payment due date. However, an increase in the interest rate is a late payment charge to the extent of the increase.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of disclosure.</I> Many state laws authorize the calculation of late charges on the basis of either a percentage or a specified dollar amount, and permit imposition of the lesser or greater of the 2 charges. The disclosure made under § 226.18(l) may reflect this alternative. For example, stating that the charge in the event of a late payment is 5% of the late amount, not to exceed $5.00, is sufficient. Many creditors also permit a grace period during which no late charge will be assessed; this fact may be disclosed as directly related information. (See the commentary to § 226.17(a).)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(m) Security interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Purchase money transactions.</I> When the collateral is the item purchased as part of, or with the proceeds of, the credit transaction, section 226.18(m) requires only a general identification such as “the property purchased in this transaction.” However, the creditor may identify the property by item or type instead of identifying it more generally with a phrase such as “the property purchased in this transaction.” For example, a creditor may identify collateral as “a motor vehicle,” or as “the property purchased in this transaction.” Any transaction in which the credit is being used to purchase the collateral is considered a purchase money transaction and the abbreviated identification may be used, whether the obligation is treated as a loan or a credit sale.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Nonpurchase money transactions.</I> In nonpurchase money transactions, the property subject to the security interest must be identified by item or type. This disclosure is satisfied by a general disclosure of the category of property subject to the security interest, such as “motor vehicles,” “securities,” “certain household items,” or “household goods.” (Creditors should be aware, however, that the Federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) At the creditor's option, however, a more precise identification of the property or goods may be provided. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mixed collateral.</I> In some transactions in which the credit is used to purchase the collateral, the creditor may also take other property of the consumer as security. In those cases, a combined disclosure must be provided, consisting of an identification of the purchase money collateral consistent with comment 18(m)-1 and a specific identification of the other collateral consistent with comment 18(m)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>After-acquired property.</I> An after-acquired property clause is not a security interest to be disclosed under § 226.18(m).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Spreader clause.</I> The fact that collateral for pre-existing credit with the institution is being used to secure the present obligation constitutes a security interest and must be disclosed. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) A specific identification of that collateral is unnecessary but a reminder of the interest arising from the prior indebtedness is required. The disclosure may be made by using language such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan.” At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> No specified terminology is required in disclosing a security interest. Although the disclosure may, at the creditor's option, use the term <I>security interest,</I> the creditor may designate its interest by using, for example, <I>pledge, lien,</I> or <I>mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>7. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> In certain transactions, the consumer's obligation may be secured by collateral belonging to a third party. For example, a loan to a student may be secured by an interest in the property of the student's parents. In such cases, the security interest is taken in connection with the transaction and must be disclosed, even though the property encumbered is owned by someone other than the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>18(n) Insurance and debt cancellation.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Location.</I> This disclosure may, at the creditor's option, appear apart from the other disclosures. It may appear with any other information, including the amount financed itemization, any information prescribed by state law, or other supplementary material. When this information is disclosed with the other segregated disclosures, however, no additional explanatory material may be included.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt cancellation.</I> Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation coverage constitutes insurance under state law. Otherwise, they may provide a parallel disclosure that refers to debt cancellation coverage. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(o) Certain security interest charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Format.</I> No special format is required for these disclosures; under § 226.4(e), taxes and fees paid to government officials with respect to a security interest may be aggregated, or may be broken down by individual charge. For example, the disclosure could be labelled “filing fees and taxes” and all funds disbursed for such purposes may be aggregated in a single disclosure. This disclosure may appear, at the creditor's option, apart from the other required disclosures. The inclusion of this information on a statement required under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act is sufficient disclosure for purposes of Truth in Lending. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(p) Contract reference.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> Creditors may substitute, for the phrase “appropriate contract document,” a reference to specific transaction documents in which the additional information is found, such as “promissory note” or “retail installment sale contract.” A creditor may, at its option, delete inapplicable items in the contract reference, as for example when the contract documents contain no information regarding the right of acceleration.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(q) Assumption policy.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Policy statement.</I> In many mortgages, the creditor cannot determine, at the time disclosure must be made, whether a loan may be assumable at a future date on its original terms. For example, the assumption clause commonly used in mortgages sold to the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation conditions an assumption on a variety of factors such as the creditworthiness of the subsequent borrower, the potential for impairment of the lender's security, and execution of an assumption agreement by the subsequent borrower. In cases where uncertainty exists as to the future assumability of a mortgage, the disclosure under § 226.18(q) should reflect that fact. In making disclosures in such cases, the creditor may use phrases such as “subject to conditions,” “under certain circumstances,” or “depending on future conditions.” The creditor may provide a brief reference to more specific criteria such as a due-on-sale clause, although a complete explanation of all conditions is not appropriate. For example, the disclosure may state, “Someone buying your home may be allowed to assume the mortgage on its original terms, subject to certain conditions, such as payment of an assumption fee.” See comment 17(a)(1)-5 for an example for a reference to a due-on-sale clause. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Original terms.</I> The phrase <I>original terms</I> for purposes of § 226.18(q) does not preclude the imposition of an assumption fee, but a modification of the basic credit agreement, such as a change in the contract interest rate, represents different terms.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(r) Required deposit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must inform the consumer of the existence of a required deposit. (appendix H provides a model clause that may be used in making that disclosure.) Footnote 45 describes 3 types of deposits that need not be considered required deposits. Use of the phrase “need not” permits creditors to include the disclosure even in cases where there is doubt as to whether the deposit constitutes a required deposit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pledged account mortgages.</I> In these transactions, a consumer pledges as collateral funds that the consumer deposits in an account held by the creditor. The creditor withdraws sums from that account to supplement the consumer's periodic payments. Creditors may treat these pledged accounts as required deposits or they may treat them as consumer buydowns in accordance with the commentary to § 226.17(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Escrow accounts.</I> The escrow exception in footnote 45 applies, for example, to accounts for such items as maintenance fees, repairs, or improvements, whether in a realty or a nonrealty transaction. (See the commentary to § 226.17(c)(1) regarding the use of escrow accounts in consumer buydown transactions.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Interest-bearing accounts.</I> When a deposit earns at least 5 percent interest per year, no disclosure is required under § 226.18(r). This exception applies whether the deposit is held by the creditor or by a third party. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Morris Plan transactions.</I> A deposit under a Morris Plan, in which a deposit account is created for the sole purpose of accumulating payments and this is applied to satisfy entirely the consumer's obligation in the transaction, is not a required deposit.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples of amounts excluded.</I> The following are among the types of deposits that need not be treated as required deposits:
</P>
<P>• Requirement that a borrower be a customer or a member even if that involves a fee or a minimum balance.
</P>
<P>• Required property insurance escrow on a mobile home transaction.
</P>
<P>• Refund of interest when the obligation is paid in full.
</P>
<P>• Deposits that are immediately available to the consumer.
</P>
<P>• Funds deposited with the creditor to be disbursed (for example, for construction) before the loan proceeds are advanced.
</P>
<P>• Escrow of condominium fees.
</P>
<P>• Escrow of loan proceeds to be released when the repairs are completed.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 128, the Garn-St Germain Depository Institutions Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-320) and the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2602).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.2, 226.17, and appendix H.
</P>
<P><I>Other regulations:</I> 12 CFR 545.6-2(a) and 12 CFR Part 29.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Sections 226.4 and 226.8.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> Five of the required disclosures must be explained to the consumer in a manner similar to the descriptive phrases shown in the regulation. A written itemization of the amount financed need not be provided unless the consumer requests it. The finance charge must be provided in all transactions, including real estate transactions, but must be shown only as a total amount. The disclosed finance charge is considered accurate if it is within a specified range.
</P>
<P>The variable rate hypothetical is required in all variable rate transactions and may be either general or transaction-specific. The penalty and rebate disclosures in the event of prepayment have been modified and combined. The requirement of an explanation of how the rebates or penalties are computed has been eliminated. The late payment disclosure has also been narrowed to include only charges imposed before maturity for late payments.
</P>
<P>The information required in the security interest disclosure has been decreased by the deletion of the type of security interest and a reduction in the property description requirement. The disclosure of the required deposit is limited to a statement that the annual percentage rate does not reflect the required deposit; the presence of a required deposit has no effect on the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>Two disclosure requirements have been added: A reference to the contract documents for additional information and, in a residential mortgage transaction, a statement of the creditor's assumption policy.
</P>
<P><I>18(s) Interest rate and payment summary for mortgage transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 226.18(s) prescribes format and content for disclosure of interest rates and monthly (or other periodic) payments for mortgage loans. The information in § 226.18(s)(2)-(4) is required to be in the form of a table, except as otherwise provided, with headings and format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), or H-4(H) in Appendix H to this part. A disclosure that does not include the shading shown in a model clause but otherwise follows the model clause's headings and format is substantially similar to that model clause. Where § 226.18(s)(2)-(4) or the applicable model clause requires that a column or row of the table be labeled using the word “monthly” but the periodic payments are not due monthly, the creditor should use the appropriate term, such as “bi-weekly” or “quarterly.” In all cases, the table should have no more than five vertical columns corresponding to applicable interest rates at various times during the loan's term; corresponding payments would be shown in horizontal rows. Certain loan types and terms are defined for purposes of § 226.18(s) in § 226.18(s)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amortizing loans.</I> Loans described as amortizing in §§ 226.18(s)(2)(i) and 226.18(s)(3) include interest-only loans if they do not also permit negative amortization. (For rules relating to loans with balloon payments, see § 226.18(s)(5)). If an amortizing loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory rate (less than the fully-indexed rate), creditors must provide a special explanation of introductory rates. <I>See</I> § 226.18(s)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Negative amortization.</I> For negative amortization loans, creditors must follow the rules in §§ 226.18(s)(2)(ii) and 226.18(s)(4) in disclosing interest rates and monthly payments. Loans with negative amortization also require special explanatory disclosures about rates and payments. <I>See</I> § 226.18(s)(6). Loans with negative amortization include “payment option” loans, in which the consumer is permitted to make minimum payments that will cover only some of the interest accruing each month. <I>See also</I> comment 17(c)(1)-12, regarding graduated-payment adjustable-rate mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(2) Interest rates.</I>
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(2)(i) Amortizing loans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fixed rate loans—payment increases.</I> Although the interest rate will not change after consummation for a fixed-rate loan, some fixed-rate loans may have periodic payments that increase after consummation. For example, the terms of the legal obligation may permit the consumer to make interest-only payments for a specified period such as the first five years after consummation. In such cases, the creditor must include the increased payment under § 226.18(s)(3)(ii)(B) in the payment row, and must show the interest rate in the column for that payment, even though the rate has not changed since consummation. See also comment 17(c)(1)-13, regarding growth equity mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(B</I>).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages.</I> Creditors must disclose more than one interest rate for adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages, in accordance with § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(B). Creditors must assume that an adjustable-rate mortgage's interest rate will increase after consummation as rapidly as possible, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maximum interest rate during first five years—adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum rate that could apply during the first five years after consummation. If there are no interest rate caps other than the maximum rate required under § 226.30, then the creditor should disclose only the rate at consummation and the maximum rate. Such a table would have only two columns.
</P>
<P>i. For an adjustable-rate mortgage, the creditor must take into account any interest rate caps when disclosing the maximum interest rate during the first five years. The creditor must also disclose the earliest date on which that adjustment may occur.
</P>
<P>ii. If the transaction is a step-rate mortgage, the creditor should disclose the rate that will apply after consummation. For example, the legal obligation may provide that the rate is 6 percent for the first two years following consummation, and then increases to 7 percent for at least the next three years. The creditor should disclose the maximum rate during the first five years as 7 percent and the date on which the rate is scheduled to increase to 7 percent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Maximum interest rate at any time.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum rate that could apply at any time during the term of the loan and the earliest date on which the maximum rate could apply.
</P>
<P>i. For an adjustable-rate mortgage, the creditor must take into account any interest rate caps in disclosing the maximum interest rate. For example, if the legal obligation provides that at each annual adjustment the rate may increase by no more than 2 percentage points, the creditor must take this limit into account in determining the earliest date on which the maximum possible rate may be reached.
</P>
<P>ii. For a step-rate mortgage, the creditor should disclose the highest rate that could apply under the terms of the legal obligation and the date on which that rate will first apply.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment increases.</I> For some loans, the payment may increase following consummation for reasons unrelated to an interest rate adjustment. For example, an adjustable-rate mortgage may have an introductory fixed-rate for the first five years following consummation and permit the borrower to make interest-only payments for the first three years. The disclosure requirement of § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(C) applies to all amortizing loans, including interest-only loans, if the consumer's payment can increase in the manner described in § 226.18(s)(3)(i)(B), even if it is not the type of loan covered by § 226.18(s)(3)(i). Thus, § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(C) requires that the creditor disclose the interest rate that corresponds to the first payment that includes principal as well as interest, even though the interest rate will not adjust at that time. In such cases, if the loan is an interest-only loan, the creditor also must disclose the corresponding periodic payment pursuant to § 226.18(s)(3)(ii). The table would show, from left to right: The interest rate and payment at consummation with the payment itemized to show that the payment is being applied to interest only; the interest rate and payment when the interest-only option ends; the maximum interest rate and payment during the first five years; and the maximum possible interest rate and payment. The disclosure requirements of § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(C) do not apply to minor payment variations resulting solely from the fact that months have different numbers of days.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(2)(ii) Negative amortization loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate at consummation.</I> In all cases the interest rate in effect at consummation must be disclosed, even if it will apply only for a short period such as one month.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rates for adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> The creditor must assume that interest rates rise as quickly as possible after consummation, in accordance with any interest rate caps under the legal obligation. For adjustable-rate mortgages with no rate caps except a life-time maximum, creditors must assume that the interest rate reaches the maximum at the first adjustment. For example, assume that the legal obligation provides for an interest rate at consummation of 1.5 percent. One month after consummation, the interest rate adjusts and will adjust monthly thereafter, according to changes in the index. The consumer may make payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month, until the date the principal balance reaches 115 percent of its original balance, or until the end of the fifth year after consummation, whichever comes first. The maximum possible rate is 10.5 percent. No other limits on interest rates apply. The minimum required payment adjusts each year, and may increase by no more than 7.5 percent over the previous year's payment. The creditor should disclose the following rates and the dates when they are scheduled to occur: A rate of 1.5 percent for the first month following consummation and the minimum payment; a rate of 10.5 percent, and the corresponding minimum payment taking into account the 7.5 percent limit on payment increases, at the beginning of the second year; and a rate of 10.5 percent and the corresponding minimum payment taking into account the 7.5 percent payment increase limit, at the beginning of the third year. The creditor also must disclose the rate of 10.5 percent, the fully amortizing payment, and the date on which the consumer must first make such a payment under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(2)(iii) Introductory rate disclosure for amortizing adjustable-rate mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Introductory rate.</I> In some adjustable-rate mortgages, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is lower than the fully-indexed rate at consummation. For amortizing loans with an introductory rate, creditors must disclose the information required in § 226.18(s)(2)(iii) directly below the table.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Place in sequence.</I> “Designation of the place in sequence” refers to identifying the month or year, as applicable, of the change in the rate resulting from the expiration of an introductory rate by its place in the sequence of months or years, as applicable, of the transaction's term. For example, if a transaction has a discounted rate for the first three years, § 226.18(s)(2)(iii)(B) requires a statement such as, “In the fourth year, even if market rates do not change, this rate will increase to ____%.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(iii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fully-indexed rate.</I> The fully-indexed rate is defined in § 226.18(s)(7) as the index plus the margin at consummation. For purposes of § 226.18(s)(2)(iii)(C), “at consummation” refers to disclosures delivered at consummation, or three business days before consummation pursuant to § 226.19(a)(2)(ii); for early disclosures delivered within three business days after receipt of a consumer's application pursuant to § 226.19(a)(1), the fully-indexed rate disclosed under § 226.18(s)(2)(iii)(C) may be based on the index in effect at the time the disclosures are provided. The index in effect at consummation (or at the time of early disclosures) need not be used if a contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, creditors may use any index value in effect during the 45 days before consummation (or any earlier date of disclosure) in calculating the fully-indexed rate to be disclosed.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(3) Payments for amortizing loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payments corresponding to interest rates.</I> Creditors must disclose the periodic payment that corresponds to each interest rate disclosed under § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(A)-(C). The corresponding periodic payment is the regular payment for each such interest rate, without regard to any final payment that differs from others because of the rounding of periodic payments to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents. Balloon payments, however, must be disclosed as provided in § 226.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Principal and interest payment amounts; examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. For fixed-rate interest-only transactions, § 226.18(s)(3)(ii)(B) requires scheduled increases in the regular periodic payment amounts to be disclosed along with the date of the increase. For example, in a fixed-rate interest-only loan, a scheduled increase in the payment amount from an interest-only payment to a fully amortizing payment must be disclosed. Similarly, in a fixed-rate balloon loan, the balloon payment must be disclosed in accordance with § 226.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. For adjustable-rate mortgage transactions, § 226.18(s)(3)(i)(A) requires that for each interest rate required to be disclosed under § 226.18(s)(2)(i) (the interest rate at consummation, the maximum rate during the first five years, and the maximum possible rate) a corresponding payment amount must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>iii. The format of the payment disclosure varies depending on whether all regular periodic payment amounts will include principal and interest, and whether there will be an escrow account for taxes and insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Taxes and insurance.</I> An estimated payment amount for taxes and insurance must be disclosed if the creditor will establish an escrow account for such amounts. If the escrow account will include amounts for items other than taxes and insurance, such as homeowners association dues, the creditor may but is not required to include such items in the estimate. When such estimated escrow payments must be disclosed in multiple columns of the table, such as for adjustable- and step-rate transactions, each column should use the same estimate for taxes and insurance except that the estimate should reflect changes in periodic mortgage insurance premiums that are known to the creditor at the time the disclosure is made. The estimated amounts of mortgage insurance premiums should be based on the declining principal balance that will occur as a result of changes to the interest rate that are assumed for purposes of disclosing those rates under § 226.18(s)(2) and accompanying commentary. The payment amount must include estimated amounts for property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor, such as insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of the property, or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss. Premiums for credit insurance, debt suspension and debt cancellation agreements, however, should not be included. Except for periodic mortgage insurance premiums included in the escrow payment under § 226.18(s)(3)(i)(C), amounts included in the escrow payment disclosure such as property taxes and homeowner's insurance generally are not finance charges under § 226.4 and, therefore, do not affect other disclosures, including the finance charge and annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage insurance.</I> Payment amounts under § 226.18(s)(3)(i) should reflect the consumer's mortgage insurance payments until the date on which the creditor must automatically terminate coverage under applicable law, even though the consumer may have a right to request that the insurance be cancelled earlier. The payment amount must reflect the terms of the legal obligation, as determined by applicable state or other law. For example, assume that under applicable law, mortgage insurance must terminate after the 130th scheduled monthly payment, and the creditor collects at closing and places in escrow two months of premiums. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will include mortgage insurance premiums in 130 payments and refund the escrowed payments when the insurance is terminated, payment amounts disclosed through the 130th payment should reflect premium payments. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will apply the amount escrowed to the two final insurance payments, payments disclosed through the 128th payment should reflect premium payments. The escrow amount reflected on the disclosure should include mortgage insurance premiums even if they are not escrowed and even if there is no escrow account established for the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Total monthly payment.</I> For amortizing loans, each column should add up to a total estimated payment. The total estimated payment amount should be labeled. If periodic payments are not due monthly, the creditor should use the appropriate term such as “quarterly” or “annually.”
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(3)(ii) Interest-only payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Interest-only loans that are also negative amortization loans.</I> The rules in § 226.18(s)(3)(ii) for disclosing payments on interest-only loans apply only if the loan is not also a negative amortization loan. If the loan is a negative amortization loan, even if it also has an interest-only feature, payments are disclosed under the rules in § 226.18(s)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(ii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Escrows.</I> See the commentary under § 226.18(s)(3)(i)(C) for guidance on escrows for purposes of § 226.18(s)(3)(ii)(C).
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(4) Payments for negative amortization loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Table.</I> Section 226.18(s)(1) provides that tables shall include only the information required in § 226.18(s)(2)-(4). Thus, a table for a negative amortization loan must contain no more than two horizontal rows of payments and no more than five vertical columns of interest rates.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment amounts.</I> The payment amounts disclosed under § 226.18(s)(4) are the minimum or fully amortizing periodic payments, as applicable, corresponding to the interest rates disclosed under § 226.18(s)(2)(ii). The corresponding periodic payment is the regular payment for each such interest rate, without regard to any final payment that differs from the rest because of the rounding of periodic payments to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(4)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Minimum required payments.</I> In one row of the table, the creditor must disclose the minimum required payment in each column of the table, corresponding to each interest rate or adjustment required in § 226.18(s)(2)(ii). The payments in this row must be calculated based on an assumption that the consumer makes the minimum required payment for as long as possible under the terms of the legal obligation. This row should be identified as the minimum payment option, and the statement required by § 226.18(s)(4)(i)(C) should be included in the heading for the row.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 18(s)(4)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fully amortizing payments.</I> In one row of the table, the creditor must disclose the fully amortizing payment in each column of the table, corresponding to each interest rate required in § 226.18(s)(2)(ii). The creditor must assume, for purposes of calculating the amounts in this row that the consumer makes only fully amortizing payments starting with the first scheduled payment.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(5) Balloon payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A balloon payment is one that is more than two times the regular periodic payment. In a reverse mortgage transaction, the single payment is not considered a balloon payment. A balloon payment must be disclosed outside and below the table, unless the balloon payment coincides with an interest rate adjustment or a scheduled payment increase. In those cases, the balloon payment must be disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(6) Special disclosures for loans with negative amortization.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Escrows.</I> See the commentary under § 226.18(s)(3)(i)(C) for guidance on escrows for purposes of § 226.18(s)(6). Under that guidance, because mortgage insurance payments decline over a loan's term, the payment amounts shown in the table should reflect the mortgage insurance payment that will be applicable at the time each disclosed periodic payment will be in effect. Accordingly, the disclosed mortgage insurance payment will be zero if it corresponds to a periodic payment that will occur after the creditor will be legally required to terminate mortgage insurance. On the other hand, because only one escrow amount is disclosed under § 226.18(s)(6) for negative amortization loans and escrows are not itemized in the payment amounts, the single escrow amount disclosed should reflect the mortgage insurance amount that will be collected at the outset of the loan's term, even though that amount will decline in the future and ultimately will be discontinued pursuant to the terms of the mortgage insurance policy.
</P>
<P><I>18(s)(7) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> Under § 226.18(s)(7)(v), a negative amortization loan is one that requires only a minimum periodic payment that covers only a portion of the accrued interest, resulting in negative amortization. For such a loan, § 226.18(s)(4)(iii) requires creditors to disclose the fully amortizing periodic payment for each interest rate disclosed under § 226.18(s)(2)(ii), in addition to the minimum periodic payment, regardless of whether the legal obligation explicitly recites that the consumer may make the fully amortizing payment. Some loan types that result in negative amortization do not meet the definition of negative amortization loan for purposes of § 226.18(s). These include, for example, loans requiring level, amortizing payments but having a payment schedule containing gaps during which interest accrues and is added to the principal balance before regular, amortizing payments begin (or resume). For example, “seasonal income” loans may provide for amortizing payments during nine months of the year and no payments for the other three months; the required minimum payments (when made) are amortizing payments, thus such loans are not negative amortization loans under § 226.18(s)(7)(v). An adjustable-rate loan that has fixed periodic payments that do not adjust when the interest rate adjusts also would not be disclosed as a negative amortization loan under § 226.18(s). For example, assume the initial rate is 4%, for which the fully amortizing payment is $1500. Under the terms of the legal obligation, the consumer will make $1500 monthly payments even if the interest rate increases, and the additional interest is capitalized. The possibility (but not certainty) of negative amortization occurring after consummation does not make this transaction a negative amortization loan for purposes of § 226.18(s). Loans that do not meet the definition of negative amortization loan, even if they may have negative amortization, are amortizing loans and are disclosed under §§ 226.18(s)(2)(i) and 226.18(s)(3).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.19—Certain Mortgage and Variable-Rate Transactions
</HD2>
<P><I>19(a)(1)(i) Time of disclosure</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This section requires early disclosure of credit terms in mortgage transactions that are secured by a consumer's dwelling (other than home equity lines of credit subject to § 226.5b or mortgage transactions secured by an interest in a timeshare plan) that are also subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) and its implementing Regulation X, administered by the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD). To be covered by § 226.19, a transaction must be a Federally related mortgage loan under RESPA. “Federally related mortgage loan” is defined under RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602) and Regulation X (24 CFR 3500.2), and is subject to any interpretations by HUD.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing and use of estimates.</I> The disclosures required by § 226.19(a)(1)(i) must be delivered or mailed not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application. The general definition of “business day” in § 226.2(a)(6)—a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for substantially all of its business functions—is used for purposes of § 226.19(a)(1)(i). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-1. This general definition is consistent with the definition of “business day” in HUD's Regulation X—a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions. <I>See</I> 24 CFR 3500.2. Accordingly, the three-business-day period in § 226.19(a)(1)(i) for making early disclosures coincides with the time period within which creditors subject to RESPA must provide good faith estimates of settlement costs. If the creditor does not know the precise credit terms, the creditor must base the disclosures on the best information reasonably available and indicate that the disclosures are estimates under § 226.17(c)(2). If many of the disclosures are estimates, the creditor may include a statement to that effect (such as “all numerical disclosures except the late-payment disclosure are estimates”) instead of separately labelling each estimate. In the alternative, the creditor may label as an estimate only the items primarily affected by unknown information. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.17(c)(2).) The creditor may provide explanatory material concerning the estimates and the contingencies that may affect the actual terms, in accordance with the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written application.</I> Creditors may rely on RESPA and Regulation X (including any interpretations issued by HUD) in deciding whether a “written application” has been received. In general, Regulation X defines “application” to mean the submission of a borrower's financial information in anticipation of a credit decision relating to a Federally related mortgage loan. <I>See</I> 24 CFR 3500.2(b). An application is received when it reaches the creditor in any of the ways applications are normally transmitted—by mail, hand delivery, or through an intermediary agent or broker. (<I>See</I> comment 19(b)-3 for guidance in determining whether or not the transaction involves an intermediary agent or broker.) If an application reaches the creditor through an intermediary agent or broker, the application is received when it reaches the creditor, rather than when it reaches the agent or broker.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Denied or withdrawn applications.</I> The creditor may determine within the three-business-day period that the application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested, as, for example, when a consumer applies for a type or amount of credit that the creditor does not offer, or the consumer's application cannot be approved for some other reason. In that case, or if the consumer withdraws the application within the three-business-day period, the creditor need not make the disclosures under this section. If the creditor fails to provide early disclosures and the transaction is later consummated on the original terms, the creditor will be in violation of this provision. If, however, the consumer amends the application because of the creditor's unwillingness to approve it on its original terms, no violation occurs for not providing disclosures based on the original terms. But the amended application is a new application subject to § 226.19(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Itemization of amount financed.</I> In many mortgage transactions, the itemization of the amount financed required by § 226.18(c) will contain items, such as origination fees or points, that also must be disclosed as part of the good faith estimates of settlement costs required under RESPA. Creditors furnishing the RESPA good faith estimates need not give consumers any itemization of the amount financed.
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(1)(ii) Imposition of fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing of fees.</I> The consumer must receive the disclosures required by this section before paying or incurring any fee imposed by a creditor or other person in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage transaction that is subject to § 226.19(a)(1)(i), except as provided in § 226.19(a)(1)(iii). If the creditor delivers the disclosures to the consumer in person, a fee may be imposed anytime after delivery. If the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the creditor may impose a fee after the consumer receives the disclosures or, in all cases, after midnight on the third business day following mailing of the disclosures. For purposes of § 226.19(a)(1)(ii), the term “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and legal public holidays referred to in § 226.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> Comment 2(a)(6)-2. For example, assuming that there are no intervening legal public holidays, a creditor that receives the consumer's written application on Monday and mails the early mortgage loan disclosure on Tuesday may impose a fee on the consumer after midnight on Friday.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees restricted.</I> A creditor or other person may not impose any fee, such as for an appraisal, underwriting, or broker services, until the consumer has received the disclosures required by § 226.19(a)(1)(i). The only exception to the fee restriction allows the creditor or other person to impose a <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, such as for a credit report(s).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Collection of fees.</I> A creditor complies with § 226.19(a)(1)(ii) if—
</P>
<P>i. The creditor receives a consumer's written application directly from the consumer and does not collect any fee, other than a fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, until the consumer receives the early mortgage loan disclosure.
</P>
<P>ii. A third party submits a consumer's written application to a creditor and both the creditor and third party do not collect any fee, other than a fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, until the consumer receives the early mortgage loan disclosure from the creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. A third party submits a consumer's written application to a second creditor following a prior creditor's denial of an application made by the same consumer (or following the consumer's withdrawal), and, if a fee already has been assessed, the new creditor or third party does not collect or impose any additional fee until the consumer receives an early mortgage loan disclosure from the new creditor.
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(1)(iii) Exception to fee restriction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a fee before the consumer receives the required disclosures if it is for obtaining the consumer's credit history, such as by purchasing a credit report(s) on the consumer. The fee also must be <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable in amount. For example, a creditor may collect a fee for obtaining a credit report(s) if it is in the creditor's ordinary course of business to obtain a credit report(s). If the criteria in § 226.19(a)(1)(iii) are met, the creditor may describe or refer to this fee, for example, as an “application fee.”
</P>
<HD1>19(<E T="01">a</E>)(2) Waiting period(s) required.
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Business day definition.</I> For purposes of § 226.19(a)(2), “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 226.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consummation after both waiting periods expire.</I> Consummation may not occur until both the seven-business-day waiting period and the three-business-day waiting period have expired. For example, assume a creditor delivers the early disclosures to the consumer in person or places them in the mail on Monday, June 1, and the creditor then delivers corrected disclosures in person to the consumer on Wednesday, June 3. Although Saturday, June 6 is the third business day after the consumer received the corrected disclosures, consummation may not occur before Tuesday, June 9, the seventh business day following delivery or mailing of the early disclosures.
</P>
<HD1>19(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>) Seven-business-day waiting period.
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The disclosures required by § 226.19(a)(1)(i) must be delivered or placed in the mail no later than the seventh business day before consummation. The seven-business-day waiting period begins when the creditor delivers the early disclosures or places them in the mail, not when the consumer receives or is deemed to have received the early disclosures. For example, if a creditor delivers the early disclosures to the consumer in person or places them in the mail on Monday, June 1, consummation may occur on or after Tuesday, June 9, the seventh business day following delivery or mailing of the early disclosures.
</P>
<HD1>19(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>) Three-business-day waiting period.
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Conditions for redisclosure.</I> If, at the time of consummation, the annual percentage rate disclosed is accurate under § 226.22, the creditor does not have to make corrected disclosures under § 226.19(a)(2). If, on the other hand, the annual percentage rate disclosed is not accurate under § 226.22, the creditor must make corrected disclosures of all changed terms (including the annual percentage rate) so that the consumer receives them not later than the third business day before consummation. For example, assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 11 and the early disclosures for a regular mortgage transaction disclose an annual percentage rate of 7.00%:
</P>
<P>i. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.10%. The creditor is not required to make corrected disclosures under § 226.19(a)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.15%. The creditor must make corrected disclosures so that the consumer receives them on or before Monday, June 8.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of new disclosures.</I> If redisclosure is required, the creditor may provide a complete set of new disclosures, or may redisclose only the changed terms. If the creditor chooses to provide a complete set of new disclosures, the creditor may but need not highlight the new terms, provided that the disclosures comply with the format requirements of § 226.17(a). If the creditor chooses to disclose only the new terms, all the new terms must be disclosed. For example, a different annual percentage rate will almost always produce a different finance charge, and often a new schedule of payments; all of these changes would have to be disclosed. If, in addition, unrelated terms such as the amount financed or prepayment penalty vary from those originally disclosed, the accurate terms must be disclosed. However, no new disclosures are required if the only inaccuracies involve estimates other than the annual percentage rate, and no variable rate feature has been added. For a discussion of the requirement to redisclose when a variable-rate feature is added, <I>see</I> comment 17(f)-2. For a discussion of redisclosure requirements in general, <I>see</I> the commentary on § 226.17(f).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing.</I> When redisclosures are necessary because the annual percentage rate has become inaccurate, they must be received by the consumer no later than the third business day before consummation. (For redisclosures triggered by other events, the creditor must provide corrected disclosures before consummation. <I>See</I> § 226.17(f).) If the creditor delivers the corrected disclosures to the consumer in person, consummation may occur any time on the third business day following delivery. If the creditor provides the corrected disclosures by mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are placed in the mail, for purposes of determining when the three-business-day waiting period required under § 226.19(a)(2)(ii) begins. Creditors that use electronic mail or a courier other than the postal service may also follow this approach.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Basis for annual percentage rate comparison.</I> To determine whether a creditor must make corrected disclosures under § 226.22, a creditor compares (a) what the annual percentage rate will be at consummation to (b) the annual percentage rate stated in the most recent disclosures the creditor made to the consumer. For example, assume consummation for a regular mortgage transaction is scheduled for Thursday, June 11, the early disclosures provided in May stated an annual percentage rate of 7.00%, and corrected disclosures received by the consumer on Friday, June 5 stated an annual percentage rate of 7.15%:
</P>
<P>i. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.25%, which exceeds the most recently disclosed annual percentage rate by less than the applicable tolerance. The creditor is not required to make additional corrected disclosures or wait an additional three business days under § 226.19(a)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.30%, which exceeds the most recently disclosed annual percentage rate by more than the applicable tolerance. The creditor must make corrected disclosures such that the consumer receives them on or before Monday, June 8.
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(3) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to a waiting period required by § 226.19(a)(2) only after the creditor makes the disclosures required by § 226.18. The consumer must have a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency that necessitates consummating the credit transaction before the end of the waiting period. Whether these conditions are met is determined by the facts surrounding individual situations. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure, where the foreclosure sale will proceed unless loan proceeds are made available to the consumer during the waiting period, is one example of a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency. Each consumer who is primarily liable on the legal obligation must sign the written statement for the waiver to be effective.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of waivers within the seven-business-day waiting period.</I> Assume the early disclosures are delivered to the consumer in person on Monday, June 1, and at that time the consumer executes a waiver of the seven-business-day waiting period (which would end on Tuesday, June 9) so that the loan can be consummated on Friday, June 5:
</P>
<P>i. If the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures is inaccurate under § 226.22, the creditor must provide a corrected disclosure to the consumer before consummation, which triggers the three-business-day waiting period in § 226.19(a)(2)(ii). After the consumer receives the corrected disclosure, the consumer must execute a waiver of the three-business-day waiting period in order to consummate the transaction on Friday, June 5.
</P>
<P>ii. If a change occurs that does not render the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures inaccurate under § 226.22, the creditor must disclose the changed terms before consummation, consistent with § 226.17(f). Disclosure of the changed terms does not trigger an additional waiting period, and the transaction may be consummated on June 5 without the consumer giving the creditor an additional modification or waiver.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of waivers made after the seven-business-day waiting period.</I> Assume the early disclosures are delivered to the consumer in person on Monday, June 1 and consummation is scheduled for Friday, June 19. On Wednesday, June 17, a change to the annual percentage rate occurs:
</P>
<P>i. If the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures is inaccurate under § 226.22, the creditor must provide a corrected disclosure to the consumer before consummation, which triggers the three-business-day waiting period in § 226.19(a)(2). After the consumer receives the corrected disclosure, the consumer must execute a waiver of the three-business-day waiting period in order to consummate the transaction on Friday, June 19.
</P>
<P>ii. If a change occurs that does not render the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures inaccurate under § 226.22, the creditor must disclose the changed terms before consummation, consistent with § 226.17(f). Disclosure of the changed terms does not trigger an additional waiting period, and the transaction may be consummated on Friday, June 19 without the consumer giving the creditor an additional modification or waiver.
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(4) Notice.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Inclusion in other disclosures.</I> The notice required by § 226.19(a)(4) must be grouped together with the disclosures required by § 226.19(a)(1)(i) or § 226.19(a)(2). <I>See</I> comment 17(a)(1)-2 for a discussion of the rules for segregating disclosures. In other cases, the notice set forth in § 226.19(a)(4) may be disclosed together with or separately from the disclosures required under § 226.18. <I>See</I> comment 17(a)(1)-5(xvi).
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(5)(ii) Time of disclosures for timeshare plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> A mortgage transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a “timeshare plan,” as defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), that is also a Federally related mortgage loan under RESPA is subject to the requirements of § 226.19(a)(5) instead of the requirements of § 226.19(a)(1) through § 226.19(a)(4). <I>See</I> comment 19(a)(1)(i)-1. Early disclosures for transactions subject to § 226.19(a)(5) must be given (a) before consummation or (b) within three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application, whichever is earlier. The general definition of “business day” in § 226.2(a)(6)—a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for substantially all of its business functions—applies for purposes of § 226.19(a)(5)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-1. These timing requirements are different from the timing requirements under § 226.19(a)(1)(i). Timeshare transactions covered by § 226.19(a)(5) may be consummated any time after the disclosures required by § 226.19(a)(5)(ii) are provided.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of estimates.</I> If the creditor does not know the precise credit terms, the creditor must base the disclosures on the best information reasonably available and indicate that the disclosures are estimates under § 226.17(c)(2). If many of the disclosures are estimates, the creditor may include a statement to that effect (such as “all numerical disclosures except the late-payment disclosure are estimates”) instead of separately labelling each estimate. In the alternative, the creditor may label as an estimate only the items primarily affected by unknown information. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 226.17(c)(2).) The creditor may provide explanatory material concerning the estimates and the contingencies that may affect the actual terms, in accordance with the commentary to § 226.17(a)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written application.</I> For timeshare transactions, creditors may rely on comment 19(a)(1)(i)-3 in determining whether a “written application” has been received.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Denied or withdrawn applications.</I> For timeshare transactions, creditors may rely on comment 19(a)(1)(i)-4 in determining that disclosures are not required by § 226.19(a)(5)(ii) because the consumer's application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested or the consumer has withdrawn the application.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Itemization of amount financed.</I> For timeshare transactions, creditors may rely on comment 19(a)(1)(i)-5 in determining whether providing the good faith estimates of settlement costs required by RESPA satisfies the requirement of § 226.18(c) to provide an itemization of the amount financed.
</P>
<P><I>19(a)(5)(iii) Redisclosure for timeshare plans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consummation or settlement.</I> For extensions of credit secured by a consumer's timeshare plan, when corrected disclosures are required, they must be given no later than “consummation or settlement.” “Consummation” is defined in § 226.2(a). “Settlement” is defined in Regulation X (24 CFR 3500.2(b)) and is subject to any interpretations issued by HUD. In some cases, a creditor may delay redisclosure until settlement, which may be at a time later than consummation. If a creditor chooses to redisclose at settlement, disclosures may be based on the terms in effect at settlement, rather than at consummation. For example, in a variable-rate transaction, a creditor may choose to base disclosures on the terms in effect at settlement, despite the general rule in comment 17(c)(1)-8 that variable-rate disclosures should be based on the terms in effect at consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of new disclosures.</I> Creditors may rely on comment 19(a)(2)(ii)-2 in determining the content of corrected disclosures required under § 226.19(a)(5)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>19(b) Certain variable-rate transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 226.19(b) applies to all closed-end variable-rate transactions that are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and have a term greater than one year. The requirements of this section apply not only to transactions financing the initial acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling, but also to any other closed-end variable-rate transaction secured by the principal dwelling. Closed-end variable-rate transactions that are not secured by the principal dwelling, or are secured by the principal dwelling but have a term of one year or less, are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 226.18(f)(1) rather than those of § 226.19(b). (Furthermore, “shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 226.18(f)(1) rather than those of § 226.19(b) regardless of the general coverage of those sections.) For purposes of this section, the term of a variable-rate demand loan is determined in accordance with the commentary to § 226.17(c)(5). In determining whether a construction loan that may be permanently financed by the same creditor is covered under this section, the creditor may treat the construction and the permanent phases as separate transactions with distinct terms to maturity or as a single combined transaction. For purposes of the disclosures required under § 226.18, the creditor may nevertheless treat the two phases either as separate transactions or as a single combined transaction in accordance with § 226.17(c)(6). Finally, in any assumption of a variable-rate transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, disclosures need not be provided under §§ 226.18(f)(2)(ii) or 226.19(b). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing.</I> A creditor must give the disclosures required under this section at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a nonrefundable fee, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> In cases where a creditor receives a written application through an intermediary agent or broker, however, footnote 45b provides a substitute timing rule requiring the creditor to deliver the disclosures or place them in the mail not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application. (See comment 19(b)-3 for guidance in determining whether or not the transaction involves an intermediary agent or broker.) This three-day rule also applies where the creditor takes an application over the telephone.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Telephone request.</I> In cases where the consumer merely requests an application over the telephone, the creditor must include the early disclosures required under this section with the application that is sent to the consumer.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Mail solicitations.</I> In cases where the creditor solicits applications through the mail, the creditor must also send the disclosures required under this section if an application form is included with the solicitation.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Conversion.</I> In cases where an open-end credit account will convert to a closed-end transaction subject to this section under a written agreement with the consumer, disclosures under this section may be given at the time of conversion. (See the commentary to § 226.20(a) for information on the timing requirements for § 226.19(b)(2) disclosures when a variable-rate feature is later added to a transaction.)
</P>
<P>v. <I>Form of electronic disclosures provided on or with electronic applications.</I> Creditors must provide the disclosures required by this section (including the brochure) on or with a blank application that is made available to the consumer in electronic form, such as on a creditor's Internet Web site. Creditors have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. Methods creditors could use to satisfy the requirement include, but are not limited to, the following examples:
</P>
<P>A. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application appears;
</P>
<P>B. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
</P>
<P>C. Creditors could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
</P>
<P>D. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application.
</P>
<P>Whatever method is used, a creditor need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> In certain transactions involving an “intermediary agent or broker,” a creditor may delay providing disclosures. A creditor may not delay providing disclosures in transactions involving either a legal agent (as determined by applicable law) or any other third party that is not an “intermediary agent or broker.” In determining whether or not a transaction involves an “intermediary agent or broker” the following factors should be considered:
</P>
<P>• The number of applications submitted by the broker to the creditor as compared to the total number of applications received by the creditor. The greater the percentage of total loan applications submitted by the broker in any given period of time, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor during the next period.
</P>
<P>• The number of applications submitted by the broker to the creditor as compared to the total number of applications received by the broker. (This factor is applicable only if the creditor has such information.) The greater the percentage of total loan applications received by the broker that is submitted to a creditor in any given period of time, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor during the next period.
</P>
<P>• The amount of work (such as document preparation) the creditor expects to be done by the broker on an application based on the creditor's prior dealings with the broker and on the creditor's requirements for accepting applications, taking into consideration the customary practice of brokers in a particular area. The more work that the creditor expects the broker to do on an application, in excess of what is usually expected of a broker in that area, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor.
</P>
<P>An example of an “intermediary agent or broker” is a broker who, customarily within a brief period of time after receiving an application, inquires about the credit terms of several creditors with whom the broker does business and submits the application to one of them. The broker is responsible for only a small percentage of the applications received by that creditor. During the time the broker has the application, it might request a credit report and an appraisal (or even prepare an entire loan package if customary in that particular area). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other variable-rate regulations.</I> Transactions in which the creditor is required to comply with and has complied with the disclosure requirements of the variable-rate regulations of other Federal agencies are exempt from the requirements of § 226.19(b), by virtue of footnote 45a, and are exempt from the requirements of § 226.20(c), by virtue of footnote 45c. Those variable-rate regulations include the regulations issued by the Federal Home Loan Bank Board and those issued by the Department of Housing and Urban Development. The exception in footnotes 45a and 45c is also available to creditors that are required by state law to comply with the federal variable-rate regulations noted above and to creditors that are authorized by title VIII of the Depository Institutions Act of 1982 (12 U.S.C. 3801 <I>et seq.</I>) to make loans in accordance with those regulations. Creditors using this exception should comply with the timing requirements of those regulations rather than the timing requirements of Regulation Z in making the variable-rate disclosures. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples of variable-rate transactions.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) The following transactions, if they have a term greater than one year and are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, constitute variable-rate transactions subject to the disclosure requirements of § 226.19(b). 
</P>
<P>(A) Renewable balloon-payment instruments where the creditor is both unconditionally obligated to renew the balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control) and has the option of increasing the interest rate at the time of renewal. (See comment 17(c)(1)-11 for a discussion of conditions within a consumer's control in connection with renewable balloon-payment loans.) 
</P>
<P>(B) Preferred-rate loans where the terms of the legal obligation provide that the initial underlying rate is fixed but will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the employ of the creditor, and the note reflects the preferred rate. The disclosures under §§ 226.19(b)(1) and 226.19(b)(2)(v), (viii), (ix), and (xii) are not applicable to such loans. 
</P>
<P>(C) “Price-level-adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation. The disclosures under § 226.19(b)(1) are not applicable to such loans, nor are the following provisions to the extent they relate to the determination of the interest rate by the addition of a margin, changes in the interest rate, or interest rate discounts: Section 226.19(b)(2) (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii), (viii), and (ix). (See comments 20(c)-2 and 30-1 regarding the inapplicability of variable-rate adjustment notices and interest rate limitations to price-level-adjusted or similar mortgages.)
</P>
<P>(ii) Graduated-payment mortgages and step-rate transactions without a variable-rate feature are not considered variable-rate transactions. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substitute.</I> Creditors who wish to use publications other than the <I>Consumer Handbook on Adjustable Rate Mortgages</I> must make a good faith determination that their brochures are suitable substitutes to the <I>Consumer Handbook.</I> A substitute is suitable if it is, at a minimum, comparable to the Consumer Handbook in substance and comprehensiveness. Creditors are permitted to provide more detailed information than is contained in the <I>Consumer Handbook.</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability.</I> The <I>Consumer Handbook</I> need not be given for variable-rate transactions subject to this section in which the underlying interest rate is fixed. (See comment 19(b)-5 for an example of a variable-rate transaction where the underlying interest rate is fixed.) 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure for each variable-rate program.</I> A creditor must provide disclosures to the consumer that fully describe each of the creditor's variable-rate loan programs in which the consumer expresses an interest. If a program is made available only to certain customers of an institution, a creditor need not provide disclosures for that program to other consumers who express a general interest in a creditor's ARM programs. Disclosures must be given at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a nonrefundable fee, whichever is earlier. If program disclosures cannot be provided because a consumer expresses an interest in individually negotiating loan terms that are not generally offered, disclosures reflecting those terms may be provided as soon as reasonably possible after the terms have been decided upon, but not later than the time a non-refundable fee is paid. If a consumer who has received program disclosures subsequently expresses an interest in other available variable-rate programs subject to 226.19(b)(2), or the creditor and consumer decide on a program for which the consumer has not received disclosures, the creditor must provide appropriate disclosures as soon as reasonably possible. The creditor, of course, is permitted to give the consumer information about additional programs subject to § 226.19(b) initially.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate loan program defined.</I> i. Generally, if the identification, the presence or absence, or the exact value of a loan feature must be disclosed under this section, variable-rate loans that differ as to such features constitute separate loan programs. For example, separate loan programs would exist based on differences in any of the following loan features:
</P>
<P>A. The index or other formula used to calculate interest rate adjustments.
</P>
<P>B. The rules relating to changes in the index value, interest rate, payments, and loan balance.
</P>
<P>C. The presence or absence of, and the amount of, rate or payment caps.
</P>
<P>D. The presence of a demand feature.
</P>
<P>E. The possibility of negative amortization.
</P>
<P>F. The possibility of interest rate carryover.
</P>
<P>G. The frequency of interest rate and payment adjustments.
</P>
<P>H. The presence of a discount feature.
</P>
<P>I. In addition, if a loan feature must be taken into account in preparing the disclosures required by § 226.19(b)(2)(viii), variable-rate loans that differ as to that feature constitute separate programs under § 226.19(b)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. If, however, a representative value may be given for a loan feature or the feature need not be disclosed under § 226.19(b)(2), variable-rate loans that differ as to such features do not constitute separate loan programs. For example, separate programs would not exist based on differences in the following loan features:
</P>
<P>A. The amount of a discount.
</P>
<P>B. The amount of a margin.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of program disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide separate program disclosure forms for each ARM program it offers or a single disclosure form that describes multiple programs. A disclosure form may consist of more than one page. For example, a creditor may attach a separate page containing the historical payment example for a particular program. A disclosure form describing more than one program need not repeat information applicable to each program that is described. For example, a form describing multiple programs may disclose the information applicable to all of the programs in one place with the various program features (such as options permitting conversion to a fixed rate) disclosed separately. The form, however, must state if any program feature that is described is available only in conjunction with certain other program features. Both the separate and multiple program disclosures may illustrate more than one loan maturity or payment amortization—for example, by including multiple payment and loan balance columns in the historical payment example. Disclosures may be inserted or printed in the <I>Consumer Handbook</I> (or a suitable substitute) as long as they are identified as the creditor's loan program disclosures.
</P>
<P>4. <I>As applicable.</I> The disclosures required by this section need only be made as applicable. Any disclosure not relevant to a particular transaction may be eliminated. For example, if the transaction does not contain a demand feature, the disclosure required under § 226.19(b)(2)(x) need not be given. As used in this section, <I>payment</I> refers only to a payment based on the interest rate, loan balance and loan term, and does not refer to payment of other elements such as mortgage insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Revisions.</I> A creditor must revise the disclosures required under this section once a year as soon as reasonably possible after the new index value becomes available. Revisions to the disclosures also are required when the loan program changes.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Change in interest rate, payment, or term.</I> A creditor must disclose the fact that the terms of the legal obligation permit the creditor, after consummation of the transaction, to increase (or decrease) the interest rate, payment, or term of the loan initially disclosed to the consumer. For example, the disclosures for a variable-rate program in which the interest rate and payment (but not loan term) can change might read, “Your interest rate and payment can change yearly.” In transactions where the term of the loan may change due to rate fluctuations, the creditor must state that fact.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification of index or formula.</I> If a creditor ties interest rate changes to a particular index, this fact must be disclosed, along with a source of information about the index. For example, if a creditor uses the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity as its index, the disclosure might read, “Your index is the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year published weekly in the <I>Wall Street Journal.”</I> If no particular index is used, the creditor must briefly describe the formula used to calculate interest rate changes.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes at creditor's discretion.</I> If interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion, this fact must be disclosed. If an index is internally defined, such as by a creditor's prime rate, the creditor should either briefly describe that index or state that interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determination of interest rate and payment.</I> This provision requires an explanation of how the creditor will determine the consumer's interest rate and payment. In cases where a creditor bases its interest rate on a specific index and adjusts the index through the addition of a margin, for example, the disclosure might read, “Your interest rate is based on the index plus a margin, and your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and remaining loan term.” In transactions where paying the periodic payments will not fully amortize the outstanding balance at the end of the loan term and where the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, the creditor must disclose this fact. For example, the disclosure might read, “Your periodic payments will not fully amortize your loan and you will be required to make a single payment of the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance at the end of the loan term.” The creditor, however, need not reflect any irregular final payment in the historical example or in the disclosure of the initial and maximum rates and payments. If applicable, the creditor should also disclose that the rate and payment will be rounded. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Current margin value and interest rate.</I> Because the disclosures can be prepared in advance, the interest rate and margin may be several months old when the disclosures are delivered. A statement, therefore, is required alerting consumers to the fact that they should inquire about the current margin value applied to the index and the current interest rate. For example, the disclosure might state, “Ask us for our current interest rate and margin.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Discounted and premium interest rate.</I> In some variable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula. However, in some cases the initial rate may be higher. If the initial interest rate will be a discount or a premium rate, creditors must alert the consumer to this fact. For example, if a creditor discounted a consumer's initial rate, the disclosure might state, “Your initial interest rate is not based on the index used to make later adjustments.” (See the commentary to § 226.17(c)(1) for a further discussion of discounted and premium variable-rate transactions.) In addition, the disclosure must suggest that consumers inquire about the amount that the program is currently discounted. For example, the disclosure might state, “Ask us for the amount our adjustable rate mortgages are currently discounted.” In a transaction with a consumer buydown or with a third-party buydown that will be incorporated in the legal obligation, the creditor should disclose the program as a discounted variable-rate transaction, but need not disclose additional information regarding the buydown in its program disclosures. (See the commentary to § 226.19(b)(2)(viii) for a discussion of how to reflect the discount or premium in the historical example or the maximum rate and payment disclosure).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Frequency.</I> The frequency of interest rate and payment adjustments must be disclosed. If interest rate changes will be imposed more frequently or at different intervals than payment changes, a creditor must disclose the frequency and timing of both types of changes. For example, in a variable-rate transaction where interest rate changes are made monthly, but payment changes occur on an annual basis, this fact must be disclosed. In certain ARM transactions, the interval between loan closing and the initial adjustment is not known and may be different from the regular interval for adjustments. In such cases, the creditor may disclose the initial adjustment period as a range of the minimum and maximum amount of time from consummation or closing. For example, the creditor might state: “The first adjustment to your interest rate and payment will occur no sooner than 6 months and no later than 18 months after closing. Subsequent adjustments may occur once each year after the first adjustment.” (See comments 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-7 and 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-4 for guidance on other disclosures when this alternative disclosure rule is used.) 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate and payment caps.</I> The creditor must disclose limits on changes (increases or decreases) in the interest rate or payment. If an initial discount is not taken into account in applying overall or periodic rate limitations, that fact must be disclosed. If separate overall or periodic limitations apply to interest rate increases resulting from other events, such as the exercise of a fixed-rate conversion option or leaving the creditor's employ, those limitations must also be stated. Limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. (See § 226.30 for the rule requiring that a maximum interest rate be included in certain variable-rate transactions.) The creditor need not disclose each periodic or overall rate limitation that is currently available. As an alternative, the creditor may disclose the range of the lowest and highest periodic and overall rate limitations that may be applicable to the creditor's ARM transactions. For example, the creditor might state: “The limitation on increases to your interest rate at each adjustment will be set at an amount in the following range: Between 1 and 2 percentage points at each adjustment. The limitation on increases to your interest rate over the term of the loan will be set at an amount in the following range: Between 4 and 7 percentage points above the initial interest rate.” A creditor using this alternative rule must include a statement in its program disclosures suggesting that the consumer ask about the overall rate limitations currently offered for the creditor's ARM programs. (See comments 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-6 and 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-3 for an explanation of the additional requirements for a creditor using this alternative rule for disclosure of periodic and overall rate limitations.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative amortization and interest rate carryover.</I> A creditor must disclose, where applicable, the possibility of negative amortization. For example, the disclosure might state, “If any of your payments is not sufficient to cover the interest due, the difference will be added to your loan amount.” Loans that provide for more than one way to trigger negative amortization are separate variable-rate programs requiring separate disclosures. (See the commentary to § 226.19(b)(2) for a discussion on the definition of a variable-rate loan program and the format for disclosure.) If a consumer is given the option to cap monthly payments that may result in negative amortization, the creditor must fully disclose the rules relating to the option, including the effects of exercising the option (such as negative amortization will occur and the principal loan balance will increase); however, the disclosure in § 226.19(b)(2)(viii) need not be provided.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Conversion option.</I> If a loan program permits consumers to convert their variable-rate loans to fixed-rate loans, the creditor must disclose that the interest rate may increase if the consumer converts the loan to a fixed-rate loan. The creditor must also disclose the rules relating to the conversion feature, such as the period during which the loan may be converted, that fees may be charged at conversion, and how the fixed rate will be determined. The creditor should identify any index or other measure or formula used to determine the fixed rate and state any margin to be added. In disclosing the period during which the loan may be converted and the margin, the creditor may use information applicable to the conversion feature during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures and state that the information is representative of conversion features recently offered by the creditor. The information may be used until the program disclosures are otherwise revised. Although the rules relating to the conversion option must be disclosed, the effect of exercising the option should not be reflected elsewhere in the disclosures, such as in the historical example or in the calculation of the initial and maximum interest rate and payments. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Preferred-rate loans.</I> Section 226.19(b) applies to preferred-rate loans, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the creditor's employ, whether or not the underlying rate is fixed or variable. In these transactions, the creditor must disclose the event that would allow the creditor to increase the rate such as that the rate may increase if the employee leaves the creditor's employ. The creditor must also disclose the rules relating to termination of the preferred rate, such as that fees may be charged when the rate is changed and how the new rate will be determined. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Historical example and initial and maximum interest rates and payments.</I> A creditor may disclose both the historical example and the initial and maximum interest rates and payments.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii)(A).
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Index movement.</I> This section requires a creditor to provide an historical example, based on a $10,000 loan amount originating in 1977, showing how interest rate changes implemented according to the terms of the loan program would have affected payments and the loan balance at the end of each year during a 15-year period. (In all cases, the creditor need only calculate the payments and loan balance for the term of the loan. For example, in a five-year loan, a creditor would show the payments and loan balance for the five-year term, from 1977 to 1981, with a zero loan balance reflected for 1981. For the remaining ten years, 1982-1991, the creditor need only show the remaining index values, margin and interest rate and must continue to reflect all significant loan program terms such as rate limitations affecting them.) Pursuant to this section, the creditor must provide a history of index values for the preceding 15 years. Initially, the disclosures would give the index values from 1977 to the present. Each year thereafter, the revised program disclosures should include an additional year's index value until 15 years of values are shown. If the values for an index have not been available for 15 years, a creditor need only go back as far as the values are available in giving a history and payment example. In all cases, only one index value per year need be shown. Thus, in transactions where interest rate adjustments are implemented more frequently than once per year, a creditor may assume that the interest rate and payment resulting from the index value chosen will stay in effect for the entire year for purposes of calculating the loan balance as of the end of the year and for reflecting other loan program terms. In cases where interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion (see the commentary to § 226.19(b)(2)(ii)), the creditor must provide a history of the rates imposed for the preceding 15 years, beginning with the rates in 1977. In giving this history, the creditor need only go back as far as the creditor's rates can reasonably be determined. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Selection of index values.</I> The historical example must reflect the method by which index values are determined under the program. If a creditor uses an average of index values or any other index formula, the history given should reflect those values. The creditor should select one date or, when an average of single values is used as an index, one period and should base the example on index values measured as of that same date or period for each year shown in the history. A date or period at any time during the year may be selected, but the same date or period must be used for each year in the historical example. For example, a creditor could use values for the first business day in July or for the first week ending in July for each of the 15 years shown in the example. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Selection of margin.</I> For purposes of the disclosure required under § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), a creditor may select a representative margin that has been used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the margin is one that the creditor has used recently. The margin selected may be used until a creditor revises the disclosure form. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amount of discount or premium.</I> For purposes of the disclosure required under § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), a creditor may select a discount or premium (amount and term) that has been used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the discount or premium is one that the creditor has used recently. The discount or premium should be reflected in the historical example for as long as the discount or premium is in effect. A creditor may assume that a discount that would have been in effect for any part of a year was in effect for the full year for purposes of reflecting it in the historical example. For example, a 3-month discount may be treated as being in effect for the entire first year of the example; a 15-month discount may be treated as being in effect for the first two years of the example. In illustrating the effect of the discount or premium, creditors should adjust the value of the interest rate in the historical example, and should not adjust the margin or index values. For example, if during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures the fully indexed rate would have been 10% but the first year's rate under the program was 8%, the creditor would discount the first interest rate in the historical example by 2 percentage points. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Term of the loan.</I> In calculating the payments and loan balances in the historical example, a creditor need not base the disclosures on each term to maturity or payment amortization that it offers. Instead, disclosures for ARMs may be based upon terms to maturity or payment amortizations of 5, 15 and 30 years, as follows: ARMs with terms or amortizations from over 1 year to 10 years may be based on a 5-year term or amortization; ARMs with terms or amortizations from over 10 years to 20 years may be based on a 15-year term or amortization; and ARMs with terms or amortizations over 20 years may be based on a 30-year term or amortization. Thus, disclosures for ARMs offered with any term from over 1 year to 40 years may be based solely on terms of 5, 15 and 30 years. Of course, a creditor may always base the disclosures on the actual terms or amortizations offered. If the creditor bases the disclosures on 5-, 15- or 30-year terms or payment amortization as provided above, the term or payment amortization used in making the disclosure must be stated. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Rate caps.</I> A creditor using the alternative rule described in comment 19(b)(2)(vii)-1 for disclosure of rate limitations must base the historical example upon the highest periodic and overall rate limitations disclosed under section 226.19(b)(2)(vii). In addition, the creditor must state the limitations used in the historical example. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-3 for an explanation of the use of the highest rate limitation in other disclosures.)
</P>
<P>7. <I>Frequency of adjustments.</I> In certain transactions, creditors may use the alternative rule described in comment 19(b)(2)(vi)-1 for disclosure of the frequency of rate and payment adjustments. In such cases, the creditor may assume for purposes of the historical example that the first adjustment occurred at the end of the first full year in which the adjustment could occur. For example, in an ARM in which the first adjustment may occur between 6 and 18 months after closing and annually thereafter, the creditor may assume that the first adjustment occurred at the end of the first year in the historical example. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-4 for an explanation of how to compute the maximum interest rate and payment when the initial adjustment period is not known.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Initial and maximum interest rates and payments.</I> The disclosure form must state the initial and maximum interest rates and payments for a $10,000 loan originated at an initial interest rate (index value plus margin adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure. (See comment 19(b)(2)-5 on revisions to the loan program disclosure.) In calculating the maximum payment under this paragraph, a creditor should assume that the interest rate increases as rapidly as possible under the loan program, and the maximum payment disclosed should reflect the amortization of the loan during this period. Thus, in a loan with 2 percentage point annual (and 5 percentage point overall) interest rate limitations or “caps,” the maximum interest rate would be 5 percentage points higher than the initial interest rate disclosed. Moreover, the loan would not reach the maximum interest rate until the fourth year because of the 2 percentage point annual rate limitations, and the maximum payment disclosed would reflect the amortization of the loan during this period. If the loan program includes a discounted or premium initial interest rate, the initial interest rate should be adjusted by the amount of the discount or premium.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Term of the loan.</I> In calculating the initial and maximum payments, the creditor need not base the disclosures on each term to maturity or payment amortization offered under the program. Instead, the creditor may follow the rules set out in comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-5.
</P>
<P>If a historical example is provided under § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), the terms to maturity or payment amortization used in the historical example must be used in calculating the initial and maximum payment. In addition, creditors must state the term or payment amortization used in making the disclosures under this section.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate caps.</I> A creditor using the alternative rule for disclosure of interest rate limitations described in comment 19(b)(2)(vii)-1 must calculate the maximum interest rate and payment based upon the highest periodic and overall rate limitations disclosed under § 226.19(b)(2)(vii). In addition, the creditor must state the rate limitations used in calculating the maximum interest rate and payment. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-6 for an explanation of the use of the highest rate limitation in other disclosures.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Frequency of adjustments.</I> In certain transactions, a creditor may use the alternative rule for disclosure of the frequency of rate and payment adjustments described in comment 19(b)(2)(vi)-1. In such cases, the creditor must base the calculations of the initial and maximum rates and payments upon the earliest possible first adjustment disclosed under § 226.19(b)(2)(vi). (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-7 for an explanation of how to disclose the historical example when the initial adjustment period is not known.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic payment statement.</I> The statement that the periodic payment may increase or decrease substantially may be satisfied by the disclosure in paragraph 19(b)(2)(vi) if it states for example, “your monthly payment can increase or decrease substantially based on annual changes in the interest rate.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(ix).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of payments.</I> A creditor is required to include a statement on the disclosure form that explains how a consumer may calculate his or her actual monthly payments for a loan amount other than $10,000. The example should be based upon the most recent payment shown in the historical example or upon the initial interest rate reflected in the maximum rate and payment disclosure. In transactions in which the latest payment shown in the historical example is not for the latest year of index values shown (such as in a five-year loan), a creditor may provide additional examples based on the initial and maximum payments disclosed under § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(B). The creditor, however, is not required to calculate the consumer's payments. (See the model clauses in appendix H-4(C).)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(x).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Demand feature.</I> If a variable-rate loan subject to § 226.19(b) requirements contains a demand feature as discussed in the commentary to § 226.18(i), this fact must be disclosed. (Pursuant to § 226.18(i), creditors would also disclose the demand feature in the standard disclosures given later.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(xi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustment notices.</I> A creditor must disclose to the consumer the type of information that will be contained in subsequent notices of adjustments and when such notices will be provided. (See the commentary to § 226.20(c) regarding notices of adjustments.) For example, the disclosure might state, “You will be notified at least 25, but no more than 120, days before the due date of a payment at a new level. This notice will contain information about the index and interest rates, payment amount, and loan balance.” In transactions where there may be interest rate adjustments without accompanying payment adjustments in a year, the disclosure might read, “You will be notified once each year during which interest rate adjustments, but no payment adjustments, have been made to your loan. This notice will contain information about the index and interest rates, payment amount, and loan balance.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(xii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple loan programs.</I> A creditor that offers multiple variable-rate loan programs is required to have disclosures for each variable-rate loan program subject to § 226.19(b)(2). Unless disclosures for all of its variable-rate programs are provided initially, the creditor must inform the consumer that other closed-end variable-rate programs exist, and that disclosure forms are available for these additional loan programs. For example, the disclosure form might state, “Information on other adjustable rate mortgage programs is available upon request.”
</P>
<P><I>19(c) Electronic disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If a consumer accesses an ARM loan application electronically (other than as described under ii. below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses an ARM loan application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 128(b)(2) and the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2602).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.2, 226.17, and 226.22.
</P>
<P><I>Other regulations:</I> Regulation X (24 CFR 3500.2(a), 3500.5(b), and 3500.6(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> None. 
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> This section implements section 128(b)(2), a new provision that requires early disclosure of credit terms in certain mortgage transactions.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.20 Subsequent Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a) Refinancings.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> A refinancing is a new transaction requiring a complete new set of disclosures. Whether a refinancing has occurred is determined by reference to whether the original obligation has been satisfied or extinguished and replaced by a new obligation, based on the parties' contract and applicable law. The refinancing may involve the consolidation of several existing obligations, disbursement of new money to the consumer or on the consumer's behalf, or the rescheduling of payments under an existing obligation. In any form, the new obligation must completely replace the prior one.
</P>
<P>• Changes in the terms of an existing obligation, such as the deferral of individual installments, will not constitute a refinancing unless accomplished by the cancellation of that obligation and the substitution of a new obligation. 
</P>
<P>• A substitution of agreements that meets the refinancing definition will require new disclosures, even if the substitution does not substantially alter the prior credit terms. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exceptions.</I> A transaction is subject to § 226.20(a) only if it meets the general definition of a refinancing. Section 226.20(a) (1) through (5) lists 5 events that are not treated as refinancings, even if they are accomplished by cancellation of the old obligation and substitution of a new one. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate.</I> 
</P>
<P>i. If a variable-rate feature was properly disclosed under the regulation, a rate change in accord with those disclosures is not a refinancing. For example, no new disclosures are required when the variable-rate feature is invoked on a renewable balloon-payment mortgage that was previously disclosed as a variable-rate transaction. 
</P>
<P>ii. Even if it is not accomplished by the cancellation of the old obligation and substitution of a new one, a new transaction subject to new disclosures results if the creditor either: 
</P>
<P>A. Increases the rate based on a variable-rate feature that was not previously disclosed; or 
</P>
<P>B. Adds a variable-rate feature to the obligation. A creditor does not add a variable-rate feature by changing the index of a variable-rate transaction to a comparable index, whether the change replaces the existing index or substitutes an index for one that no longer exists. 
</P>
<P>iii. If either of the events in paragraph 20(a)3.ii.A. or ii.B. occurs in a transaction secured by a principal dwelling with a term longer than one year, the disclosures required under § 226.19(b) also must be given at that time. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unearned finance charge.</I> In a transaction involving precomputed finance charges, the creditor must include in the finance charge on the refinanced obligation any unearned portion of the original finance charge that is not rebated to the consumer or credited against the underlying obligation. For example, in a transaction with an add-on finance charge, a creditor advances new money to a consumer in a fashion that extinguishes the original obligation and replaces it with a new one. The creditor neither refunds the unearned finance charge on the original obligation to the consumer nor credits it to the remaining balance on the old obligation. Under these circumstances, the unearned finance charge must be included in the finance charge on the new obligation and reflected in the annual percentage rate disclosed on refinancing. Accrued but unpaid finance charges are included in the amount financed in the new obligation. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 226.20(a) applies only to refinancings undertaken by the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation. A “refinancing” by any other person is a new transaction under the regulation, not a refinancing under this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a)(1).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Renewal.</I> This exception applies both to obligations with a single payment of principal and interest and to obligations with periodic payments of interest and a final payment of principal. In determining whether a new obligation replacing an old one is a renewal of the original terms or a refinancing, the creditor may consider it a renewal even if:
</P>
<P>• Accrued unpaid interest is added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>• Changes are made in the terms of renewal resulting from the factors listed in § 226.17(c)(3).
</P>
<P>• The principal at renewal is reduced by a curtailment of the obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a)(2).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Annual percentage rate reduction.</I> A reduction in the annual percentage rate with a corresponding change in the payment schedule is not a refinancing. If the annual percentage rate is subsequently increased (even though it remains below its original level) and the increase is effected in such a way that the old obligation is satisfied and replaced, new disclosures must then be made. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Corresponding change.</I> A corresponding change in the payment schedule to implement a lower annual percentage rate would be a shortening of the maturity, or a reduction in the payment amount or the number of payments of an obligation. The exception in § 226.20(a)(2) does not apply if the maturity is lengthened, or if the payment amount or number of payments is increased beyond that remaining on the existing transaction. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a)(3).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Court agreements.</I> This exception includes, for example, agreements such as reaffirmations of debts discharged in bankruptcy, settlement agreements, and post-judgment agreements. (See the commentary to § 226.2(a)(14) for a discussion of court-approved agreements that are not considered “credit.”) 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a)(4).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Workout agreements.</I> A workout agreement is not a refinancing unless the annual percentage rate is increased or additional credit is advanced beyond amounts already accrued plus insurance premiums. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(a)(5).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Insurance renewal.</I> The renewal of optional insurance added to an existing credit transaction is not a refinancing, assuming that appropriate Truth in Lending disclosures were provided for the initial purchase of the insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(b) Assumptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General definition.</I> An assumption as defined in § 226.20(b) is a new transaction and new disclosures must be made to the subsequent consumer. An assumption under the regulation requires the following three elements:
</P>
<FP-1>• A residential mortgage transaction.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• An express acceptance of the subsequent consumer by the creditor.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• A written agreement.
</FP-1>
<P>The assumption of a nonexempt consumer credit obligation requires no disclosures unless all three elements are present. For example, an automobile dealer need not provide Truth in Lending disclosures to a customer who assumes an existing obligation secured by an automobile. However, a residential mortgage transaction with the elements described in § 226.20(b) is an assumption that calls for new disclosures; the disclosures must be given whether or not the assumption is accompanied by changes in the terms of the obligation. (See comment 2(a)(24)-5 for a discussion of assumptions that are not considered residential mortgage transactions.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existing residential mortgage transaction.</I> A transaction may be a residential mortgage transaction as to one consumer and not to the other consumer. In that case, the creditor must look to the assuming consumer in determining whether a residential mortgage transaction exists. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>• The original consumer obtained a mortgage to purchase a home for vacation purposes. The loan was not a residential mortgage transaction as to that consumer. The mortgage is assumed by a consumer who will use the home as a principal dwelling. As to that consumer, the loan is a residential mortgage transaction. For purposes of § 226.20(b), the assumed loan is an “existing residential mortgage transaction” requiring disclosures, if the other criteria for an assumption are met. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Express agreement. Expressly agrees</I> means that the creditor's agreement must relate specifically to the new debtor and must unequivocally accept that debtor as a primary obligor. The following events are not construed to be express agreements between the creditor and the subsequent consumer:
</P>
<P>• Approval of creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>• Notification of a change in records.
</P>
<P>• Mailing of a coupon book to the subsequent consumer.
</P>
<P>• Acceptance of payments from the new consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Retention of original consumer.</I> The retention of the original consumer as an obligor in some capacity does not prevent the change from being an assumption, provided the new consumer becomes a primary obligor. But the mere addition of a guarantor to an obligation for which the original consumer remains primarily liable does not give rise to an assumption. However, if neither party is designated as the primary obligor but the creditor accepts payment from the subsequent consumer, an assumption exists for purposes of § 226.20(b).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Status of parties.</I> Section 226.20(b) applies only if the previous debtor was a consumer and the obligation is assumed by another consumer. It does not apply, for example, when an individual takes over the obligation of a corporation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Disclosures.</I> For transactions that are assumptions within this provision, the creditor must make disclosures based on the “remaining obligation.” For example: 
</P>
<P>• The amount financed is the remaining principal balance plus any arrearages or other accrued charges from the original transaction. 
</P>
<P>• If the finance charge is computed from time to time by application of a percentage rate to an unpaid balance, in determining the amount of the finance charge and the annual percentage rate to be disclosed, the creditor should disregard any prepaid finance charges paid by the original obligor, but must include in the finance charge any prepaid finance charge imposed in connection with the assumption. 
</P>
<P>• If the creditor requires the assuming consumer to pay any charges as a condition of the assumption, those sums are prepaid finance charges as to that consumer, unless exempt from the finance charge under § 226.4. If a transaction involves add-on or discount finance charges, the creditor may make abbreviated disclosures, as outlined in § 226.20(b) (1) through (5). Creditors providing disclosures pursuant to this section for assumptions of variable-rate transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term longer than one year need not provide new disclosures under § 226.18(f)(2)(ii) or § 226.19(b). In such transactions, a creditor may disclose the variable-rate feature solely in accordance with § 226.18(f)(1).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Abbreviated disclosures.</I> The abbreviated disclosures permitted for assumptions of transactions involving add-on or discount finance charges must be made clearly and conspicuously in writing in a form that the consumer may keep. However, the creditor need not comply with the segregation requirement of § 226.17(a)(1). The terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>total of payments,</I> when disclosed according to § 226.20(b) (4) and (5), are not subject to the description requirements of § 226.18 (e) and (h). The term <I>annual percentage rate</I> disclosed under § 226.20(b)(4) need not be more conspicuous than other disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c) Variable-rate adjustments.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing of adjustment notices.</I> This section requires a creditor (or a subsequent holder) to provide certain disclosures in cases where an adjustment to the interest rate is made in a variable-rate transaction subject to § 226.19(b). There are two timing rules, depending on whether payment changes accompany interest rate changes. A creditor is required to provide at least one notice each year during which interest rate adjustments have occurred without accompanying payment adjustments. For payment adjustments, a creditor must deliver or place in the mail notices to borrowers at least 25, but not more than 120, calendar days before a payment at a new level is due. The timing rules also apply to the notice required to be given in connection with the adjustment to the rate and payment that follows conversion of a transaction subject to § 226.19(b) to a fixed-rate transaction. (In cases where an open-end account is converted to a closed-end transaction subject to § 226.19(b), the requirements of this section do not apply until adjustments are made following conversion.) 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exceptions.</I> Section 226.20(c) does not apply to “shared-equity,” “shared-appreciation,” or “price level adjusted” or similar mortgages.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required under this section shall reflect the terms of the parties' legal obligation, as required under § 226.17(c)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(1).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Current and prior interest rates.</I> The requirements under this paragraph are satisfied by disclosing the interest rate used to compute the new adjusted payment amount (“current rate”) and the adjusted interest rate that was disclosed in the last adjustment notice, as well as all other interest rates applied to the transaction in the period since the last notice (“prior rates”). (If there has been no prior adjustment notice, the prior rates are the interest rate applicable to the transaction at consummation, as well as all other interest rates applied to the transaction in the period since consummation.) If no payment adjustment has been made in a year, the current rate is the new adjusted interest rate for the transaction, and the prior rates are the adjusted interest rate applicable to the loan at the time of the last adjustment notice, and all other rates applied to the transaction in the period between the current and last adjustment notices. In disclosing all other rates applied to the transaction during the period between notices, a creditor may disclose a range of the highest and lowest rates applied during that period. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Current and prior index values.</I> This section requires disclosure of the index or formula values used to compute the current and prior interest rates disclosed in § 226.20(c)(1). The creditor need not disclose the margin used in computing the rates. If the prior interest rate was not based on an index or formula value, the creditor also need not disclose the value of the index that would otherwise have been used to compute the prior interest rate. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(3).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Unapplied index increases.</I> The requirement that the consumer receive information about the extent to which the creditor has foregone any increase in the interest rate is applicable only to those transactions permitting interest rate carryover. The amount of increase that is foregone at an adjustment is the amount that, subject to rate caps, can be applied to future adjustments independently to increase, or offset decreases in, the rate that is determined according to the index or formula. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Contractual effects of the adjustment.</I> The contractual effects of an interest rate adjustment must be disclosed including the payment due after the adjustment is made whether or not the payment has been adjusted. A contractual effect of a rate adjustment would include, for example, disclosure of any change in the term or maturity of the loan if the change resulted from the rate adjustment. In transactions where paying the periodic payments will not fully amortize the outstanding balance at the end of the loan term and where the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, the amount of the adjusted payment must be disclosed if such payment has changed as a result of the rate adjustment. A statement of the loan balance also is required. The balance required to be disclosed is the balance on which the new adjusted payment is based. If no payment adjustment is disclosed in the notice, the balance disclosed should be the loan balance on which the payment disclosed under § 226.20(c)(5) is based, if applicable, or the balance at the time the disclosure is prepared.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(5).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fully-amortizing payment.</I> This paragraph requires a disclosure only when negative amortization occurs as a result of the adjustment. A disclosure is not required simply because a loan calls for non-amortizing or partially amortizing payments. For example, in a transaction with a five-year term and payments based on a longer amortization schedule, and where the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, the creditor would not have to disclose the payment necessary to fully amortize the loan in the remainder of the five-year term. A disclosure is required, however, if the payment disclosed under § 226.20(c)(4) is not sufficient to prevent negative amortization in the loan. The adjustment notice must state the payment required to prevent negative amortization. (This paragraph does not apply if the payment disclosed in § 226.20(c)(4) is sufficient to prevent negative amortization in the loan but the final payment will be a different amount due to rounding.)
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.2.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.8(j) through (l), and Interpretation Sections 226.807, 226.811, 226.814, and 226.817.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> While the previous regulation treated virtually any change in terms as a refinancing requiring new disclosures, this regulation limits refinancings to transactions in which the entire original obligation is extinguished and replaced by a new one. Redisclosure is no longer required for deferrals or extensions.
</P>
<P>The assumption provision retains the substance of § 226.8(k) and Interpretation § 226.807 of the previous regulation, but limits its scope to residential mortgage transactions.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.21—Treatment of Credit Balances
</HD2>
<P><I>Paragraph 21(a).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit balance.</I> A credit balance arises whenever the creditor receives or holds funds in an account in excess of the total balance due from the consumer on that account. A balance might result, for example, from the debtor's paying off a loan by transmitting funds in excess of the total balance owed on the account, or from the early payoff of a loan entitling the consumer to a rebate of insurance premiums and finance charges. However, § 226.21 does not determine whether the creditor in fact owes or holds sums for the consumer. For example, if a creditor has no obligation to rebate any portion of precomputed finance charges on prepayment, the consumer's early payoff would not create a credit balance with respect to those charges. Similarly, nothing in this provision interferes with any rights the creditor may have under the contract or under state law with respect to set-off, cross collateralization, or similar provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Total balance due.</I> The phrase <I>total balance due</I> refers to the total outstanding balance. Thus, this provision does not apply where the consumer has simply paid an amount in excess of the payment due for a given period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing of refund.</I> The creditor may also fulfill its obligation under this section by:
</P>
<P>• Refunding any credit balance to the consumer immediately.
</P>
<P>• Refunding any credit balance prior to a written request from the consumer.
</P>
<P>• Making a good faith effort to refund any credit balance before 6 months have passed. If that attempt is unsuccessful, the creditor need not try again to refund the credit balance at the end of the 6-month period.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 21(b).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written requests—standing orders.</I> The creditor is not required to honor standing orders requesting refunds of any credit balance that may be created on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 21(c).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Good faith effort to refund.</I> The creditor must take positive steps to return any credit balance that has remained in the account for over 6 months. This includes, if necessary, attempts to trace the consumer through the consumer's last known address or telephone number, or both. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Good faith effort unsuccessful.</I> Section 226.21 imposes no further duties on the creditor if a good faith effort to return the balance is unsuccessful. The ultimate disposition of the credit balance (or any credit balance of $1 or less) is to be determined under other applicable law.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 165.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> This section implements section 165 of the Act, which was expanded by the 1980 statutory amendments to apply to closed-end as well as open-end credit.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.22—Determination of the Annual Percentage Rate
</HD2>
<P><I>22(a) Accuracy of the annual percentage rate.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 22(a)(1).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation method.</I> The regulation recognizes both the actuarial method and the United States Rule Method (U.S. Rule) as measures of an exact annual percentage rate. Both methods yield the same annual percentage rate when payment intervals are equal. They differ in their treatment of unpaid accrued interest. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Actuarial method.</I> When no payment is made, or when the payment is insufficient to pay the accumulated finance charge, the actuarial method requires that the unpaid finance charge be added to the amount financed and thereby capitalized. Interest is computed on interest since in succeeding periods the interest rate is applied to the unpaid balance including the unpaid finance charge. Appendix J provides instructions and examples for calculating the annual percentage rate using the actuarial method.
</P>
<P>3. <I>U.S. Rule.</I> The U.S. Rule produces no compounding of interest in that any unpaid accrued interest is accumulated separately and is not added to principal. In addition, under the U.S. Rule, no interest calculation is made until a payment is received. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Basis for calculations.</I> When a transaction involves “step rates” or “split rates”—that is, different rates applied at different times or to different portions of the principal balance—a single composite annual percentage rate must be calculated and disclosed for the entire transaction. Assume, for example, a step-rate transaction in which a $10,000 loan is repayable in 5 years at 10 percent interest for the first 2 years, 12 percent for years 3 and 4, and 14 percent for year 5. The monthly payments are $210.71 during the first 2 years of the term, $220.25 for years 3 and 4, and $222.59 for year 5. The composite annual percentage rate, using a calculator with a “discounted cash flow analysis” or “internal rate of return” function, is 10.75 percent.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Good faith reliance on faulty calculation tools.</I> Footnote 45d absolves a creditor of liability for an error in the annual percentage rate or finance charge that resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor. Whether or not the creditor's use of the tool was in good faith must be determined on a case-by-case basis, but the creditor must in any case have taken reasonable steps to verify the accuracy of the tool, including any instructions, before using it. Generally, the footnote is available only for errors directly attributable to the calculation tool itself, including software programs; it is not intended to absolve a creditor of liability for its own errors, or for errors arising from improper use of the tool, from incorrect data entry, or from misapplication of the law.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 22(a)(2).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Regular transactions.</I> The annual percentage rate for a regular transaction is considered accurate if it varies in either direction by not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point from the actual annual percentage rate. For example, when the exact annual percentage rate is determined to be 10
<FR>1/8</FR>%, a disclosed annual percentage rate from 10% to 10
<FR>1/4</FR>%, or the decimal equivalent, is deemed to comply with the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 22(a)(3).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Irregular transactions.</I> The annual percentage rate for an irregular transaction is considered accurate if it varies in either direction by not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point from the actual annual percentage rate. This tolerance is intended for more complex transactions that do not call for a single advance and a regular series of equal payments at equal intervals. The 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point tolerance may be used, for example, in a construction loan where advances are made as construction progresses, or in a transaction where payments vary to reflect the consumer's seasonal income. It may also be used in transactions with graduated payment schedules where the contract commits the consumer to several series of payments in different amounts. It does not apply, however, to loans with variable rate features where the initial disclosures are based on a regular amortization schedule over the life of the loan, even though payments may later change because of the variable rate feature.
</P>
<P><I>22(a)(4) Mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> If a creditor improperly omits a $75 fee from the finance charge on a regular transaction, the understated finance charge is considered accurate under § 226.18(d)(1), and the annual percentage rate corresponding to that understated finance charge also is considered accurate even if it falls outside the tolerance of 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point provided under § 226.22(a)(2). Because a $75 error was made, an annual percentage rate corresponding to a $100 understatement of the finance charge would not be considered accurate. 
</P>
<P><I>22(a)(5) Additional tolerance for mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> This paragraph contains an additional tolerance for a disclosed annual percentage rate that is incorrect but is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under the tolerance in § 226.22(a)(4). To illustrate: in an irregular transaction subject to a 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point tolerance, if the actual annual percentage rate is 9.00 percent and a $75 omission from the finance charge corresponds to a rate of 8.50 percent that is considered accurate under § 226.22(a)(4), a disclosed APR of 8.65 percent is within the tolerance in § 226.22(a)(5). In this example of an understated finance charge, a disclosed annual percentage rate below 8.50 or above 9.25 percent will not be considered accurate. 
</P>
<P><I>22(b) Computation tools.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 22(b)(1).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Board tables.</I> Volumes I and II of the Board's Annual Percentage Rate Tables provide a means of calculating annual percentage rates for regular and irregular transactions, respectively. An annual percentage rate computed in accordance with the instructions in the tables is deemed to comply with the regulation, even where use of the tables produces a rate that falls outside the general standard of accuracy. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>• Volume I may be used for single advance transactions with completely regular payment schedules or with payment schedules that are regular except for an odd first payment, odd first period or odd final payment. When used for a transaction with a large final balloon payment, Volume I may produce a rate that is considerably higher than the exact rate produced using a computer program based directly on appendix J. However, the Volume I rate—produced using certain adjustments in that volume—is considered to be in compliance. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 22(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Other calculation tools.</I> Creditors need not use the Board tables in calculating the annual percentage rates. Any computation tools may be used, so long as they produce annual percentage rates within 
<FR>1/8</FR> or 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point, as applicable, of the precise actuarial or U.S. Rule annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P><I>22(c) Single add-on rate transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Creditors applying a single add-on rate to all transactions up to 60 months in length may disclose the same annual percentage rate for all those transactions, although the actual annual percentage rate varies according to the length of the transaction. Creditors utilizing this provision must show the highest of those rates. For example:
</P>
<P>• An add-on rate of 10 percent converted to an annual percentage rate produce the following actual annual percentage rates at various maturities: at 3 months, 14.94 percent; at 21 months, 18.18 percent; and at 60 months, 17.27 percent. The creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate of 18.18 percent (the highest annual percentage rate) for any transaction up to 5 years, even though that rate is precise only for a transaction of 21 months.
</P>
<P><I>22(d) Certain transactions involving ranges of balances.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Creditors applying a fixed dollar finance charge to all balances within a specified range of balances may understate the annual percentage rate by up to 8 percent of that rate, by disclosing for all those balances the annual percentage rate computed on the median balance within that range. For example:
</P>
<P>• If a finance charge of $9 applies to all balances between $91 and $100, an annual percentage rate of 10 percent (the rate on the median balance) may be disclosed as the annual percentage rate for all balances, even though a $9 finance charge applied to the lowest balance ($91) would actually produce an annual percentage rate of 10.7 percent.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 107.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.17(c)(4) and appendix J.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation: Section 226.5(b) through (e).</I>
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The section now provides a larger tolerance (
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point) for irregular transactions.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.23—Right of Rescission
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> Credit extensions that are not subject to the regulation are not covered by § 226.23 even if a customer's principal dwelling is the collateral securing the credit. For example, the right of rescission does not apply to a business purpose loan, even though the loan is secured by the customer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>23(a) Consumer's right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Security interest arising from transaction.</I> In order for the right of rescission to apply, the security interest must be retained as part of the credit transaction. For example:
</P>
<P>• A security interest that is acquired by a contractor who is also extending the credit in the transaction.
</P>
<P>• A mechanic's or materialman's lien that is retained by a subcontractor or supplier of the contractor-creditor, even when the latter has waived its own security interest in the consumer's home.
</P>
<P>The security interest is not part of the credit transaction and therefore the transaction is not subject to the right of rescission when, for example:
</P>
<P>• A mechanic's or materialman's lien is obtained by a contractor who is not a party to the credit transaction but is merely paid with the proceeds of the consumer's unsecured bank loan.
</P>
<P>• All security interests that may arise in connection with the credit transaction are validly waived.
</P>
<P>• The creditor obtains a lien and completion bond that in effect satisfies all liens against the consumer's principal dwelling as a result of the credit transaction.
</P>
<P>Although liens arising by operation of law are not considered security interests for purposes of disclosure under § 226.2, that section specifically includes them in the definition for purposes of the right of rescission. Thus, even though an interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is not a required disclosure under § 226.18(m), it may still give rise to the right of rescission. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer.</I> To be a consumer within the meaning of § 226.2, that person must at least have an ownership interest in the dwelling that is encumbered by the creditor's security interest, although that person need not be a signatory to the credit agreement. For example, if only one spouse signs a credit contract, the other spouse is a consumer if the ownership interest of that spouse is subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can only have one principal dwelling at a time. (But see comment 23(a)(1)-4.) A vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. A transaction secured by a second home (such as a vacation home) that is not currently being used as the consumer's principal dwelling is not rescindable, even if the consumer intends to reside there in the future. When a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within one year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling if it secures the acquisition or construction loan. In that case, the transaction secured by the new dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction and is not rescindable. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a construction loan to finance B and secured by B is a residential mortgage transaction. Dwelling, as defined in § 226.2, includes structures that are classified as personalty under state law. For example, a transaction secured by a mobile home, trailer, or houseboat used as the consumer's principal dwelling may be rescindable. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Special rule for principal dwelling.</I> Notwithstanding the general rule that consumers may have only one principal dwelling, when the consumer is acquiring or constructing a new principal dwelling, any loan subject to Regulation Z and secured by the equity in the consumer's current principal dwelling (for example, a bridge loan) is subject to the right of rescission regardless of the purpose of that loan. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a construction loan to finance B and secured by A is subject to the right of rescission. A loan secured by both A and B is, likewise, rescindable.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Addition of a security interest.</I> Under footnote 47, the addition of a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling to an existing obligation is rescindable even if the existing obligation is not satisfied and replaced by a new obligation, and even if the existing obligation was previously exempt under § 226.3(b). The right of rescission applies only to the added security interest, however, and not to the original obligation. In those situations, only the § 226.23(b) notice need be delivered, not new material disclosures; the rescission period will begin to run from the delivery of the notice.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's exercise of right.</I> The consumer must exercise the right of rescission in writing but not necessarily on the notice supplied under § 226.23(b). Whatever the means of sending the notification of rescission—mail, telegram or other written means—the time period for the creditor's performance under § 226.23(d)(2) does not begin to run until the notification has been received. The creditor may designate an agent to receive the notification so long as the agent's name and address appear on the notice provided to the consumer under § 226.23(b). Where the creditor fails to provide the consumer with a designated address for sending the notification of rescission, delivering notification to the person or address to which the consumer has been directed to send, payments constitutes delivery to the creditor or assignee. State law determines whether delivery of the notification to a third party other than the person to whom payments are made is delivery to the creditor or assignee, in the case where the creditor fails to designate an address for sending the notification of rescission. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rescission period.</I> The period within which the consumer may exercise the right to rescind runs for 3 business days from the last of 3 events:
</P>
<P>• Consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>• Delivery of all material disclosures.
</P>
<P>• Delivery to the consumer of the required rescission notice.
</P>
<P>For example, if a transaction is consummated on Friday, June 1, and the disclosures and notice of the right to rescind were given on Thursday, May 31, the rescission period will expire at midnight of the third business day after June 1—that is, Tuesday, June 5. In another example, if the disclosures are given and the transaction consummated on Friday, June 1, and the rescission notice is given on Monday, June 4, the rescission period expires at midnight of the third business day after June 4—that is, Thursday, June 7. The consumer must place the rescission notice in the mail, file it for telegraphic transmission, or deliver it to the creditor's place of business within that period in order to exercise the right.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Material disclosures.</I> Footnote 48 sets forth the material disclosures that must be provided before the rescission period can begin to run. Failure to provide information regarding the annual pecentage rate also includes failure to inform the consumer of the existence of a variable rate feature. Failure to give the other required disclosures does not prevent the running of the rescission period, although that failure may result in civil liability or administrative sanctions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Unexpired right of rescission.</I> When the creditor has failed to take the action necessary to start the three-business day rescission period running, the right to rescind automatically lapses on the occurrence of the earliest of the following three events:
</P>
<FP-1>• The expiration of three years after consummation of the transaction.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Transfer of all the consumer's interest in the property.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sale of the consumer's interest in the property, including a transaction in which the consumer sells the dwelling and takes back a purchase money note and mortgage or retains legal title through a device such as an installment sale contract.
</FP-1>
<P>Transfer of all the consumers' interest includes such transfers as bequests and gifts. A sale or transfer of the property need not be voluntary to terminate the right to rescind. For example, a foreclosure sale would terminate an unexpired right to rescind. As provided in section 125 of the Act, the three-year limit may be extended by an administrative proceeding to enforce the provisions of this section. A partial transfer of the consumer's interest, such as a transfer bestowing co-ownership on a spouse, does not terminate the right of rescission.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(a)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint owners.</I> When more than one consumer has the right to rescind a transaction, any of them may exercise that right and cancel the transaction on behalf of all. For example, if both husband and wife have the right to rescind a transaction, either spouse acting alone may exercise the right and both are bound by the rescission.
</P>
<P><I>23(b) Notice of right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Who receives notice.</I> Each consumer entitled to rescind must be given:
</P>
<P>• Two copies of the rescission notice.
</P>
<P>• The material disclosures.
</P>
<P>In a transaction involving joint owners, both of whom are entitled to rescind, both must receive the notice of the right to rescind and disclosures. For example, if both spouses are entitled to rescind a transaction, each must receive two copies of the rescission notice (one copy to each if the notice is provided in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act) and one copy of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> The notice must be on a separate piece of paper, but may appear with other information such as the itemization of the amount financed. The material must be clear and conspicuous, but no minimum type size or other technical requirements are imposed. The notices in appendix H provide models that creditors may use in giving the notice.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all of the information outlined in Section 226.23(b)(1)(i) through (v). The requirement in § 226.23(b) that the transaction be identified may be met by providing the date of the transaction. The creditor may provide a separate form that the consumer may use to exercise the right of rescission, or that form may be combined with the other rescission disclosures, as illustrated in appendix H. The notice may include additional information related to the required information, such as:
</P>
<P>• A description of the property subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>• A statement that joint owners may have the right to rescind and that a rescission by one is effective for all.
</P>
<P>• The name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of rescission.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Time of providing notice.</I> The notice required by § 226.23(b) need not be given before consummation of the transaction. The creditor may deliver the notice after the transaction is consummated, but the rescission period will not begin to run until the notice is given. For example, if the creditor provides the notice on May 15, but disclosures were given and the transaction was consummated on May 10, the 3-business day rescission period will run from May 15.
</P>
<P><I>23(c) Delay of creditor's performance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded, the creditor must not, either directly or through a third party:
</P>
<P>• Disburse loan proceeds to the consumer.
</P>
<P>• Begin performing services for the consumer.
</P>
<P>• Deliver materials to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Escrow.</I> The creditor may disburse loan proceeds during the rescission period in a valid escrow arrangement. The creditor may not, however, appoint the consumer as “trustee” or “escrow agent” and distribute funds to the consumer in that capacity during the delay period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Actions during the delay period.</I> Section 226.23(c) does not prevent the creditor from taking other steps during the delay, short of beginning actual performance. Unless otherwise prohibited, such as by state law, the creditor may, for example: 
</P>
<P>• Prepare the loan check. 
</P>
<P>• Perfect the security interest. 
</P>
<P>• Prepare to discount or assign the contract to a third party. 
</P>
<P>• Accrue finance charges during the delay period. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Delay beyond rescission period.</I> The creditor must wait until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by doing one of the following:
</P>
<P>• Waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the rescission period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice.
</P>
<P>• Obtaining a written statement from the consumer that the right has not been exercised.
</P>
<P>When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the creditor cannot reasonably rely on the assurance of only one consumer, because other consumers may exercise the right.
</P>
<P><I>23(d) Effects of rescission.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Termination of security interest.</I> Any security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void when the consumer exercises the right of rescission. The security interest is automatically negated regardless of its status and whether or not it was recorded or perfected. Under § 226.23(d)(2), however, the creditor must take any action necessary to reflect the fact that the security interest no longer exists.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Refunds to consumer.</I> The consumer cannot be required to pay any amount in the form of money or property either to the creditor or to a third party as part of the credit transaction. Any amounts of this nature already paid by the consumer must be refunded. “Any amount” includes finance charges already accrued, as well as other charges, such as broker fees, application and commitment fees, or fees for a title search or appraisal, whether paid to the creditor, paid directly to a third party, or passed on from the creditor to the third party. It is irrelevant that these amounts may not represent profit to the creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts not refundable to consumer.</I> Creditors need not return any money given by the consumer to a third party outside of the credit transaction, such as costs incurred for a building permit or for a zoning variance. Similarly, the term <I>any amount</I> does not apply to any money or property given by the creditor to the consumer; those amounts must be tendered by the consumer to the creditor under § 226.23(d)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reflection of security interest termination.</I> The creditor must take whatever steps are necessary to indicate that the security interest is terminated. Those steps include the cancellation of documents creating the security interest, and the filing of release or termination statements in the public record. In a transaction involving subcontractors or suppliers that also hold security interests related to the credit transaction, the creditor must insure that the termination of their security interests is also reflected. The 20-day period for the creditor's action refers to the time within which the creditor must begin the process. It does not require all necessary steps to have been completed within that time, but the creditor is responsible for seeing the process through to completion.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Property exchange.</I> Once the creditor has fulfilled its obligations under § 226.23(d)(2), the consumer must tender to the creditor any property or money the creditor has already delivered to the consumer. At the consumer's option, property may be tendered at the location of the property. For example, if lumber or fixtures have been delivered to the consumer's home, the consumer may tender them to the creditor by making them available for pick-up at the home, rather than physically returning them to the creditor's premises. Money already given to the consumer <I>must</I> be tendered at the creditor's place of business.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable value.</I> If returning the property would be extremely burdensome to the consumer, the consumer may offer the creditor its reasonable value rather than returning the property itself. For example, if building materials have already been incorporated into the consumer's dwelling, the consumer may pay their reasonable value.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(d)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> The procedures outlined in § 226.23(d)(2) and (3) may be modified by a court. For example, when a consumer is in bankruptcy proceedings and prohibited from returning anything to the creditor, or when the equities dictate, a modification might be made. The sequence of procedures under § 226.23(d)(2) and (3), or a court's modification of those procedures under § 226.23(d)(4), does not affect a consumer's substantive right to rescind and to have the loan amount adjusted accordingly. Where the consumer's right to rescind is contested by the creditor, a court would normally determine whether the consumer has a right to rescind and determine the amounts owed before establishing the procedures for the parties to tender any money or property. 
</P>
<P><I>23(e) Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Need for waiver.</I> To waive the right to rescind, the consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that must be met before the end of the rescission period. The existence of the consumer's waiver will not, of itself, automatically insulate the creditor from liability for failing to provide the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> To waive or modify the right to rescind, the consumer must give a written statement that specifically waives or modifies the right, and also includes a brief description of the emergency. Each consumer entitled to rescind must sign the waiver statement. In a transaction involving multiple consumers, such as a husband and wife using their home as collateral, the waiver must bear the signatures of both spouses.
</P>
<P><I>23(f) Exempt transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> Any transaction to construct or acquire a principal dwelling, whether considered real or personal property, is exempt. (See the commentary to § 226.23(a).) For example, a credit transaction to acquire a mobile home or houseboat to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling would not be rescindable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lien status.</I> The lien status of the mortgage is irrelevant for purposes of the exemption in § 226.23(f)(1); the fact that a loan has junior lien status does not by itself preclude application of this exemption. For example, a home buyer may assume the existing first mortgage and create a second mortgage to finance the balance of the purchase price. Such a transaction would not be rescindable. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combined-purpose transaction.</I> A loan to acquire a principal dwelling and make improvements to that dwelling is exempt if treated as one transaction. If, on the other hand, the loan for the acquisition of the principal dwelling and the subsequent advances for improvements are treated as more than one transaction, then only the transaction that finances the acquisition of that dwelling is exempt.
</P>
<P>4. <I>New advances.</I> The exemption in § 226.23(f)(2) applies only to refinancings (including consolidations) by the original creditor. The original creditor is the creditor to whom the written agreement was initially made payable. In a merger, consolidation or acquisition, the successor institution is considered the original creditor for purposes of the exemption in § 226.23(f)(2). If the refinancing involves a new advance of money, the amount of the new advance is rescindable. In determining whether there is a new advance, a creditor may rely on the amount financed, refinancing costs, and other figures stated in the latest Truth in Lending disclosures provided to the consumer and is not required to use, for example, more precise information that may only become available when the loan is closed. For purposes of the right of rescission, a new advance does not include amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. These amounts would include § 226.4(c)(7) charges (such as attorneys fees and title examination and insurance fees, if bona fide and reasonable in amount), as well as insurance premiums and other charges that are not finance charges. (Finance charges on the new transaction—points, for example—would not be considered in determining whether there is a new advance of money in a refinancing since finance charges are not part of the amount financed.) To illustrate, if the sum of the outstanding principal balance plus the earned unpaid finance charge is $50,000 and the new amount financed is $51,000, then the refinancing would be exempt if the extra $1,000 is attributed solely to costs financed in connection with the refinancing that are not finance charges. Of course, if new advances of money are made (for example, to pay for home improvements) and the consumer exercises the right of rescission, the consumer must be placed in the same position as he or she was in prior to entering into the new credit transaction. Thus, all amounts of money (which would include all the costs of the refinancing) already paid by the consumer to the creditor or to a third party as part of the refinancing would have to be refunded to the consumer. (See the commentary to § 226.23(d)(2) for a discussion of refunds to consumers.) A model rescission notice applicable to transactions involving new advances appears in appendix H. The general rescission notice (model form H-8) is the appropriate form for use by creditors not considered original creditors in refinancing transactions.
</P>
<P>5. <I>State creditors.</I> Cities and other political subdivisions of states acting as creditors are not exempted from this section.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple advances.</I> Just as new disclosures need not be made for subsequent advances when treated as one transaction, no new rescission rights arise so long as the appropriate notice and disclosures are given at the outset of the transaction. For example, the creditor extends credit for home improvements secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, with advances made as repairs progress. As permitted by § 226.17(c)(6), the creditor makes a single set of disclosures at the beginning of the construction period, rather than separate disclosures for each advance. The right of rescission does not arise with each advance. However, if the advances are treated as separate transactions, the right of rescission applies to each advance.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Spreader clauses.</I> When the creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's principal dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a “spreader clause,” subsequent loans made are separate transactions and are subject to the right of rescission. Those loans are rescindable unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent transactions.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Converting open-end to closed-end credit.</I> Under certain state laws, consummation of a closed-end credit transaction may occur at the time a consumer enters into the intitial open-end credit agreement. As provided in the commentary to § 226.17(b), closed-end credit disclosures may be delayed under these circumstances until the conversion of the open-end account to a closed-end transaction. In accounts secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, no new right of rescission arises at the time of conversion. Rescission rights under § 226.15 are unaffected.
</P>
<P><I>23(g) Tolerances for accuracy.</I>
</P>
<P><I>23(g)(2) One percent tolerance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>New advance.</I> The phrase “new advance” has the same meaning as in comment 23(f)-4.
</P>
<P><I>23(h) Special Rules for Foreclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rescission.</I> Section 226.23(h) applies only to transactions that are subject to rescission under § 226.23(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 23(h)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage broker fees.</I> A consumer may rescind a loan in foreclosure if a mortgage broker fee that should have been included in the finance charge was omitted, without regard to the dollar amount involved. If the amount of the mortgage broker fee is included but misstated the rule in § 226.23(h)(2) applies.
</P>
<P><I>23(h)(2) Tolerance for disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This section is based on the accuracy of the total finance charge rather than its component charges. 
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 113, 125, and 130.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.2 and appendix H.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.9.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The right to rescind applies not only to real property used as the consumer's principal dwelling, but to personal property as well. The regulation provides no specific text or format for the notice of the right to rescind.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.24—Advertising
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> For guidance on the applicability of the Board's changes to § 226.24 published on July 30, 2008, see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P><I>24(a) Actually available terms.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> To the extent that an advertisement mentions specific credit terms, it may state only those terms that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not advertise a very low annual percentage rate that will not in fact be available at any time. This provision is not intended to inhibit the promotion of new credit programs, but to bar the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. For example, a creditor may advertise terms that will be offered for only a limited period, or terms that will become available at a future date.
</P>
<P><I>24(b) Clear and conspicuous standard.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—general.</I> This section is subject to the general “clear and conspicuous” standard for this subpart, <I>see</I> § 226.17(a)(1), but prescribes no specific rules for the format of the necessary disclosures, other than the format requirements related to the advertisement of rates and payments as described in comment 24(b)-2 below. The credit terms need not be printed in a certain type size nor need they appear in any particular place in the advertisement. For example, a merchandise tag that is an advertisement under the regulation complies with this section if the necessary credit terms are on both sides of the tag, so long as each side is accessible.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—rates and payments in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of § 226.24(f), a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in §§ 226.24(f)(2)(i) and 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) is disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, and that the required information in § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(C) is disclosed prominently and in close proximity to the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures. If the required information in §§ 226.24(f)(2)(i) and 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) is the same type size as the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, the disclosures are deemed to be equally prominent. The information in § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(C) must be disclosed prominently, but need not be disclosed with equal prominence or be the same type size as the payments triggering the required disclosures. If the required information in §§ 226.24(f)(2)(i) and 226.24(f)(3)(i) is located immediately next to or directly above or below the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures are deemed to be in close proximity. Notwithstanding the above, for electronic advertisements that disclose rates or payments, compliance with the requirements of § 226.24(e) is deemed to satisfy the clear and conspicuous standard.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—Internet advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure for visual text advertisements on the Internet for credit secured by a dwelling means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 226.24. <I>See also</I> comment 24(e)-4.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—televised advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 226.24(g), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of visual text advertisements on television for credit secured by a dwelling means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices, are displayed in a manner that allows a consumer to read the information required to be disclosed, and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 226.24. For example, very fine print in a television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read the information required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—oral advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 226.24(g), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of an oral advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, whether by radio, television, or other medium, means that the required disclosures are given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. For example, information stated very rapidly at a low volume in a radio or television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot hear and comprehend the information required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P><I>24(c) Advertisment of rate of finance charge.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Advertised rates must be stated in terms of an <I>annual percentage rate,</I> as defined in § 226.22. Even though state or local law permits the use of add-on, discount, time-price differential, or other methods of stating rates, advertisements must state them as annual percentage rates. Unlike the transactional disclosure of an annual percentage rate under § 226.18(e), the advertised annual percentage rate need not include a descriptive explanation of the term and may be expressed using the abbreviation <I>APR.</I> The advertisement must state that the rate is subject to increase after consummation if that is the case, but the advertisement need not describe the rate increase, its limits, or how it would affect the payment schedule. As under § 226.18(f), relating to disclosure of a variable rate, the rate increase disclosure requirement in this provision does not apply to any rate increase due to delinquency (including late payment), default, acceleration, assumption, or transfer of collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Simple or periodic rates.</I> The advertisement may not simultaneously state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate applicable to an unpaid balance may appear along with (but not more conspicuously than) the annual percentage rate. An advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling may not state a periodic rate, other than a simple annual rate, that is applied to an unpaid balance. For example, in an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, a simple annual interest rate may be shown in the same type size as the annual percentage rate for the advertised credit, subject to the requirements of section 226.24(f). A simple annual rate or periodic rate that is applied to an unpaid balance is the rate at which interest is accruing; those terms do not include a rate lower than the rate at which interest is accruing, such as an effective rate, payment rate, or qualifying rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Buydowns.</I> When a third party (such as a seller) or a creditor wishes to promote the availability of reduced interest rates (consumer or seller buydowns), the advertised annual percentage rate must be determined in accordance with the commentary to § 226.17(c) regarding the basis of transactional disclosures for buydowns. The seller or creditor may advertise the reduced simple interest rate, provided the advertisement shows the limited term to which the reduced rate applies and states the simple interest rate applicable to the balance of the term. The advertisement may also show the effect of the buydown agreement on the payment schedule for the buydown period, but this will trigger the additional disclosures under § 226.24(d)(2).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Discounted variable-rate transactions.</I> The advertised annual percentage rate for discounted variable-rate transactions must be determined in accordance with comment 17(c)(1)-10 regarding the basis of transactional disclosures for such financing.
</P>
<P>i. A creditor or seller may promote the availability of the initial rate reduction in such transactions by advertising the reduced simple annual rate, provided the advertisement shows with equal prominence and in close proximity the limited term to which the reduced rate applies and the annual percentage rate that will apply after the term of the initial rate reduction expires. <I>See</I> § 226.24(f).
</P>
<P>ii. Limits or caps on periodic rate or payment adjustments need not be stated. To illustrate using the second example in comment 17(c)(1)-10, the fact that the rate is presumed to be 11 percent in the second year and 12 percent for the remaining 28 years need not be included in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>iii. The advertisement may also show the effect of the discount on the payment schedule for the discount period, but this will trigger the additional disclosures under § 226.24(d).
</P>
<P><I>24(d) Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Under § 226.24(d)(1), whenever certain triggering terms appear in credit advertisements, the additional credit terms enumerated in § 226.24(d)(2) must also appear. These provisions apply even if the triggering term is not stated explicitly but may be readily determined from the advertisement. For example, an advertisement may state “80 percent financing available,” which is in fact indicating that a 20 percent downpayment is required.
</P>
<P><I>24(d) Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Under § 226.24(c)(1), whenever certain triggering terms appear in credit advertisements, the additional credit terms enumerated in § 226.24(c)(2) must also appear. These provisions apply even if the triggering term is not stated explicitly, but may be readily determined from the advertisement. For example, an advertisement may state “80% financing available,” which is in fact indicating that a 20% downpayment is required.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 24(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Downpayment.</I> The dollar amount of a downpayment or a statement of the downpayment as a percentage of the price requires further information. By virtue of the definition of <I>downpayment</I> in § 226.2, this triggering term is limited to credit sale transactions. It includes such statements as:
</P>
<P>• <I>Only 5% down.</I>
</P>
<P>• <I>As low as $100 down.</I>
</P>
<P>• <I>Total move-in costs of $800.</I>
</P>
<P>This provision applies only if a downpayment is actually required; statements such as <I>no downpayment</I> or <I>no trade-in required</I> do not trigger the additional disclosures under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment period.</I> The number of payments required or the total period of repayment includes such statements as:
</P>
<P>• <I>48-month payment terms.</I>
</P>
<P>• <I>30-year mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>• <I>Repayment in as many as 36 monthly installments.</I>
</P>
<P>But it does not include such statements as “pay weekly,” “monthly payment terms arranged,” or “take years to repay,” since these statements do not indicate a time period over which a loan may be financed.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment amount.</I> The dollar amount of any payment includes statements such as:
</P>
<P>• “Payable in installments of $103”.
</P>
<P>• “$25 weekly”.
</P>
<P>• “$500,000 loan for just $1,650 per month”.
</P>
<P>• “$1,200 balance payable in 10 equal installments”.
</P>
<FP>In the last example, the amount of each payment is readily determinable, even though not explicitly stated. But statements such as “monthly payments to suit your needs” or “regular <I>monthly</I> payments” are not deemed to be statements of the amount of any payment.
</FP>
<P>4. <I>Finance charge.</I> The dollar amount of the finance charge or any portion of it includes statements such as:
</P>
<P>• “$500 total cost of credit.”
</P>
<P>• “$2 monthly carrying charge.”
</P>
<P>• “$50,000 mortgages, 2 points to the borrower.”
</P>
<P>In the last example, the $1,000 prepaid finance charge can be readily determined from the information given. Statements of the annual percentage rate or statements that there is no particular charge for credit (such as “no closing costs”) are not triggering terms under this paragraph.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 24(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of downpayment.</I> The total downpayment as a dollar amount or percentage must be shown, but the word “downpayment” need not be used in making this disclosure. For example, “10% cash required from buyer” or “credit terms require minimum $100 trade-in” would suffice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of repayment terms.</I> The phrase “terms of repayment” generally has the same meaning as the “payment schedule” required to be disclosed under § 226.18(g). Section 226.24(d)(2)(ii) provides flexibility to creditors in making this disclosure for advertising purposes. Repayment terms may be expressed in a variety of ways in addition to an exact repayment schedule; this is particularly true for advertisements that do not contemplate a single specific transaction. Repayment terms, however, must reflect the consumer's repayment obligations over the full term of the loan, including any balloon payment, <I>see</I> comment 24(d)(2)-3, not just the repayment terms that will apply for a limited period of time. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A creditor may use a unit-cost approach in making the required disclosure, such as “48 monthly payments of $27.83 per $1,000 borrowed.”
</P>
<P>ii. In an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, when any series of payments varies because of the inclusion of mortgage insurance premiums, a creditor may state the number and timing of payments, the fact that payments do not include amounts for mortgage insurance premiums, and that the actual payment obligation will be higher.
</P>
<P>iii. In an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, when one series of monthly payments will apply for a limited period of time followed by a series of higher monthly payments for the remaining term of the loan, the advertisement must state the number and time period of each series of payments, and the amounts of each of those payments. For this purpose, the creditor must assume that the consumer makes the lower series of payments for the maximum allowable period of time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balloon payment; disclosure of repayment terms.</I> In some transactions, a balloon payment will occur when the consumer only makes the minimum payments specified in an advertisement. A balloon payment results if paying the minimum payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, usually the end of the term of the loan, and the consumer must repay the entire outstanding balance at such time. If a balloon payment will occur when the consumer only makes the minimum payments specified in an advertisement, the advertisement must state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum payment statement the amount and timing of the balloon payment that will result if the consumer makes only the minimum payments for the maximum period of time that the consumer is permitted to make such payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The advertised annual percentage rate may be expressed using the abbreviation “APR.” The advertisement must also state, if applicable, that the annual percentage rate is subject to increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Use of examples.</I> A creditor may use illustrative credit transactions to make the necessary disclosures under § 226.24(d)(2). That is, where a range of possible combinations of credit terms is offered, the advertisement may use examples of typical transactions, so long as each example contains all of the applicable terms required by § 226.24(d). The examples must be labeled as such and must reflect representative credit terms made available by the creditor to present and prospective customers.
</P>
<P><I>24(e) Catalogs or Other Multiple-page Advertisements; Electronic Advertisements</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The multiple-page advertisements to which this section refers are advertisements consisting of a series of sequentially numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing consisting of several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope does not constitute a single multiple-page advertisement for purposes of § 226.24(e).
</P>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Section 226.24(e) permits creditors to put credit information together in one place in a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or in an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site). The rule applies only if the advertisement contains one or more of the triggering terms from § 226.24(d)(1). A list of different annual percentage rates applicable to different balances, for example, does not trigger further disclosures under § 226.24(d)(2) and so is not covered by § 226.24(e).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Representative examples.</I> The table or schedule must state all the necessary information for a representative sampling of amounts of credit. This must reflect amounts of credit the creditor actually offers, up to and including the higher-priced items. This does not mean that the chart must make the disclosures for the single most expensive item the seller offers, but only that the chart cannot be limited to information about less expensive sales when the seller commonly offers a distinct level of more expensive goods or services. The range of transactions shown in the table or schedule in a particular catalog or multiple-page advertisement need not exceed the range of transactions actually offered in that advertisement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Electronic advertisement.</I> If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) contains the table or schedule permitted under § 226.24(e)(1), any statement of terms set forth in § 226.24(d)(1) appearing anywhere else in the advertisement must clearly direct the consumer to the location where the table or schedule begins. For example, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<P><I>24(f) Disclosure of rates and payments in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of § 226.24(f)(2) apply to advertisements for loans where more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply. The requirements of § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A) require a clear and conspicuous disclosure of each payment that will apply over the term of the loan. In determining whether a payment will apply when the consumer may choose to make a series of lower monthly payments that will apply for a limited period of time, the creditor must assume that the consumer makes the series of lower payments for the maximum allowable period of time. <I>See</I> comment 24(d)(2)-2.iii. However, for purposes of § 226.24(f), the creditor may, but need not, assume that specific events which trigger changes to the simple annual rate of interest or to the applicable payments will occur. For example:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate conversion loans.</I> If a loan program permits consumers to convert their variable-rate loans to fixed rate loans, the creditor need not assume that the fixed-rate conversion option, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 226.24(f)(2) and need not disclose as a separate payment under § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A) the payment that would apply if the consumer exercised the fixed-rate conversion option.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Preferred-rate loans.</I> Some loans contain a preferred-rate provision, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the consumer-employee leaving the creditor's employ or the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor or the consumer revoking an election to make automated payments. A creditor need not assume that the preferred-rate provision, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 226.24(f)(2) and the payments that would apply upon occurrence of the event that triggers the rate increase need not be disclosed as a separate payments under § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Rate reductions.</I> Some loans contain a provision where the rate will decrease upon the occurrence of some event, such as if the consumer makes a series of payments on time. A creditor need not assume that the rate reduction provision, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 226.24(f)(2) and need not disclose the payments that would apply upon occurrence of the event that triggers the rate reduction as a separate payments under § 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Equal prominence, close proximity.</I> Information required to be disclosed under §§ 226.24(f)(2)(i) and 226.24(f)(3)(i) that is immediately next to or directly above or below the simple annual rate or payment amount (but not in a footnote) is deemed to be closely proximate to the listing. Information required to be disclosed under §§ 226.24(f)(2)(i) and 226.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) that is in the same type size as the simple annual rate or payment amount is deemed to be equally prominent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> For more information about the applicable clear and conspicuous standard, see comment 24(b)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Comparisons in advertisements.</I> When making any comparison in an advertisement between actual or hypothetical credit payments or rates and the payments or rates available under the advertised product, the advertisement must state all applicable payments or rates for the advertised product and the time periods for which those payments or rates will apply, as required by this section.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Application to variable-rate transactions—disclosure of rates.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate transactions, if a simple annual rate that applies at consummation is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent rate adjustments over the term of the loan, the requirements of § 226.24(f)(2)(i) apply.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reasonably current index and margin.</I> For the purposes of this section, an index and margin is considered reasonably current if:
</P>
<P>i. For direct mail advertisements, it was in effect within 60 days before mailing;
</P>
<P>ii. For advertisements in electronic form it was in effect within 30 days before the advertisement is sent to a consumer's e-mail address, or in the case of an advertisement made on an Internet Web site, when viewed by the public; or
</P>
<P>iii. For printed advertisements made available to the general public, including ones contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication, it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<P><I>24(f)(3) Disclosure of payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts and time periods of payments.</I> Section 226.24(f)(3)(i) requires disclosure of the amounts and time periods of all payments that will apply over the term of the loan. This section may require disclosure of several payment amounts, including any balloon payment. For example, if an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling offers $300,000 of credit with a 30-year loan term for a payment of $600 per month for the first six months, increasing to $1,500 per month after month six, followed by a balloon payment of $30,000 at the end of the loan term, the advertisement must disclose the amount and time periods of each of the two monthly payment streams, as well as the amount and timing of the balloon payment, with equal prominence and in close proximity to each other. However, if the final scheduled payment of a fully amortizing loan is not greater than two times the amount of any other regularly scheduled payment, the final payment need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to variable-rate transactions—disclosure of payments.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate transactions, if the payment that applies at consummation is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent payment adjustments over the term of the loan, the requirements of § 226.24(f)(3)(i) apply.
</P>
<P><I>24(g) Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multi-purpose telephone number.</I> When an advertised telephone number provides a recording, disclosures should be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several options—such as providing directions to the advertiser's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement accompanying telephone number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the telephone number, such as “call 1-800-000-0000 for details about credit costs and terms.”
</P>
<P><I>24(i) Prohibited acts or practices in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Comparisons in advertisements.</I> The requirements of § 226.24(i)(2) apply to all advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling, including radio and television advertisements. A comparison includes a claim about the amount a consumer may save under the advertised product. For example, a statement such as “save $300 per month on a $300,000 loan” constitutes an implied comparison between the advertised product's payment and a consumer's current payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Misrepresentations about government endorsement.</I> A statement that the federal Community Reinvestment Act entitles the consumer to refinance his or her mortgage at the low rate offered in the advertisement is prohibited because it conveys a misleading impression that the advertised product is endorsed or sponsored by the federal government.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Misleading claims of debt elimination.</I> The prohibition against misleading claims of debt elimination or waiver or forgiveness does not apply to legitimate statements that the advertised product may reduce debt payments, consolidate debts, or shorten the term of the debt. Examples of misleading claims of debt elimination or waiver or forgiveness of loan terms with, or obligations to, another creditor of debt include: “Wipe-Out Personal Debts!”, “New DEBT-FREE Payment”, “Set yourself free; get out of debt today”, “Refinance today and wipe your debt clean!”, “Get yourself out of debt * * * Forever!”, and “Pre-payment Penalty Waiver.”
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 141, 142, and 144.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.2, 226.4, and 226.22.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.10 (a), (b), and (d).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> This section retains the advertising rules in a form very similar to the previous regulation, but with certain changes to reflect the 1980 statutory amendments. For example, if triggering terms appear in any advertisement, the additional disclosures required no longer include the cash price. The special rule for FHA section 235 financing has been eliminated, as well as the rule for advertising credit payable in more than four installments with no identified finance charge. Interpretation § 226.1002, requiring disclosure of representative amounts of credit in catalogs and multiple-page advertisements, has been incorporated in simplified form in § 226.24(d).
</P>
<P>Unlike the previous regulation, if the advertised annual percentage rate is subject to increase, that fact must now be disclosed.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart D—Miscellaneous 
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.25—Record Retention
</HD2>
<P><I>25(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of required actions.</I> The creditor must retain evidence that it performed the required actions as well as made the required disclosures. This includes, for example, evidence that the creditor properly handled adverse credit reports in connection with amounts subject to a billing dispute under § 226.13, and properly handled the refunding of credit balances under §§ 226.11 and 226.21. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methods of retaining evidence.</I> Adequate evidence of compliance does not necessarily mean actual paper copies of disclosure statements or other business records. The evidence may be retained on microfilm, microfiche, or by any other method that reproduces records accurately (including computer programs). The creditor need retain only enough information to reconstruct the required disclosures or other records. Thus, for example, the creditor need not retain each open-end periodic statement, so long as the specific information on each statement can be retrieved. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Certain variable-rate transactions.</I> In variable-rate transactions that are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 226.19(b), written procedures for compliance with those requirements as well as a sample disclosure form for each loan program represent adequate evidence of compliance. (See comment 25(a)-2 pertaining to permissible methods of retaining the required disclosures.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Home equity plans.</I> In home equity plans that are subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, written procedures for compliance with those requirements as well as a sample disclosure form and contract for each home equity program represent adequate evidence of compliance. (See comment 25(a)-2 pertaining to permissible methods of retaining the required disclosures.) 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prohibited payments to loan originators.</I> For each transaction subject to the loan originator compensation provisions in § 226.36(d)(1), a creditor should maintain records of the compensation it provided to the loan originator for the transaction as well as the compensation agreement in effect on the date the interest rate was set for the transaction. See § 226.35(a) and comment 35(a)(2)(iii)-3 for additional guidance on when a transaction's rate is set. For example, where a loan originator is a mortgage broker, a disclosure of compensation or other broker agreement required by applicable state law that complies with § 226.25 would be presumed to be a record of the amount actually paid to the loan originator in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 105 and 108.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Appendix I.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.6(i).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> Section 226.25 substitutes a uniform 2-year record-retention rule for the previous requirement that certain creditors retain records through at least one compliance examination. It also states more explicitly that the record-retention requirements apply to evidence of required actions.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.26—Use of Annual Percentage Rate in Oral Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of rules.</I> The restrictions of § 226.26 apply only if the creditor chooses to respond orally to the consumer's request for credit cost information. Nothing in the regulation requires the creditor to supply rate information orally. If the creditor volunteers information (including rate information) through oral solicitations directed generally to prospective customers, as through a telephone solicitation, those communications may be advertisements subject to the rules in §§ 226.16 and 226.24. 
</P>
<P><I>26(a) Open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Information that may be given.</I> The creditor may state periodic rates in addition to the required annual percentage rate, but it need not do so. If the annual percentage rate is unknown because transaction charges, loan fees, or similar finance charges may be imposed, the creditor must give the corresponding annual percentage rate (that is, the periodic rate multiplied by the number of periods in a year, as described in §§ 226.6(a)(1)(ii) and (b)(4)(i)(A) and 226.7(a)(4) and (b)(4)). In such cases, the creditor may, but need not, also give the consumer information about other finance charges and other charges.
</P>
<P><I>26(b) Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Information that may be given.</I> The creditor may state other annual or periodic rates that are applied to an unpaid balance, along with the required annual percentage rate. This rule permits disclosure of a simple interest rate, for example, but not an add-on, discount, or similar rate. If the creditor cannot give a precise annual percentage rate in its oral response because of variables in the transaction, it must give the annual percentage rate for a comparable sample transaction; in this case, other cost information may, but need not, be given. For example, the creditor may be unable to state a precise annual percentage rate for a mortgage loan without knowing the exact amount to be financed, the amount of loan fees or mortgage insurance premiums, or similar factors. In this situation, the creditor should state an annual percentage rate for a sample transaction; it may also provide information about the consumer's specific case, such as the contract interest rate, points, other finance charges, and other charges.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 146.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.6(a)(2) and 226.7(d).
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Interpretation § 226.101.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> This section implements amended section 146 of the Act, which added a provision dealing with oral disclosures, and incorporates Interpretation § 226.101.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.27—Language of Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent disclosures.</I> If a creditor provides account-opening disclosures in a language other than English, subsequent disclosures need not be in that other language. For example, if the creditor gave Spanish-language account-opening disclosures, periodic statements and change-in-terms notices may be made in English. 
</P>
<P>2. [Reserved] 
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.6(a).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> No substantive change.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.28—Effect on State Laws
</HD2>
<P><I>28(a) Inconsistent disclosure requirements</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> There are 3 sets of preemption criteria: 1 applies to the general disclosure and advertising rules of the regulation, and 2 apply to the credit billing provisions. Section 226.28 also provides for Board determinations of preemption.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rules for chapters 1, 2, and 3.</I> The standard for judging whether State laws that cover the types of requirements in chapters 1 (General provisions), 2 (Credit transactions), and 3 (Credit advertising) of the Act are inconsistent and therefore preempted, is contradiction of the Federal law. Examples of laws that would be preempted include:
</P>
<P>• A State law that requires use of the term <I>finance charge,</I> but defines the term to include fees that the Federal law excludes, or to exclude fees the Federal law includes.
</P>
<P>• A State law that requires a label such as <I>nominal annual interest rate</I> to be used for what the Federal law calls the <I>annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Laws not contradictory to chapters 1, 2, and 3.</I> Generally, State law requirements that call for the disclosure of items of information not covered by the Federal law, or that require more detailed disclosures, do not contradict the Federal requirements. Examples of laws that are not preempted include:
</P>
<P>• A State law that requires disclosure of the minimum periodic payment for open-end credit, even though not required by § 226.7.
</P>
<P>• A State law that requires contracts to contain warnings such as: “Read this contract before you sign. Do not sign if any spaces are left blank. You are entitled to a copy of this contract.”
</P>
<P>Similarly, a State law that requires itemization of the amount financed does not automatically contradict the permissive itemization under § 226.18(c). However, a State law requirement that the itemization appear with the disclosure of the amount financed in the segregated closed-end credit disclosures is inconsistent, and this location requirement would be preempted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor's options.</I> Before the Board makes a determination about a specific State law, the creditor has certain options. Since the prohibition against giving the State disclosures does not apply until the Board makes its determination, the creditor may choose to give State disclosures until the Board formally determines that the State law is inconsistent. (The Board will provide sufficient time for creditors to revise forms and procedures as necessary to conform to its determinations.)
</P>
<P>• Under this first approach, as in all cases, the Federal disclosures must be clear and conspicuous, and the closed-end disclosures must be properly segregated in accordance with § 226.17(a)(1).
</P>
<P>• This ability to give State disclosures relieves any uncertainty that the creditor might have prior to Board determinations of inconsistency.
</P>
<P>As a second option, the creditor may apply the preemption standards to a State law, conclude that it is inconsistent, and choose not to give the state-required disclosures. However, nothing in § 226.28(a) provides the creditor with immunity for violations of State law if the creditor chooses <I>not</I> to make State disclosures and the Board later determines that the State law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rules for correction of billing errors and regulation of credit reports.</I> The preemption criteria for the fair credit billing provisions set forth in § 226.28 have 2 parts. With respect to the rules on correction of billing errors and regulation of credit reports (which are in § 226.13), § 226.28(a)(2)(i) provides that a State law is inconsistent and preempted if its requirements are different from the Federal law. An exception is made, however, for State laws that allow the consumer to inquire about an account and require the creditor to respond to such inquiries beyond the time limits in the Federal law. Such a State law is not preempted with respect to the extra time period. For example, § 226.13 requires the consumer to submit a written notice of billing error within 60 days after transmittal of the periodic statement showing the alleged error. If a State law allows the consumer 90 days to submit a notice, the State law remains in effect to provide the extra 30 days. Any State law disclosures concerning this extended state time limit must reflect the qualifications and conform to the format specified in § 226.28(a)(2)(i). Examples of laws that would be preempted include:
</P>
<P>• A State law that has a narrower or broader definition of <I>billing error.</I>
</P>
<P>• A State law that requires the creditor to take different steps to resolve errors.
</P>
<P>• A State law that provides different timing rules for error resolution (subject to the exception discussed above).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Rules for other fair credit billing provisions.</I> The second part of the criteria for fair credit billing relates to the other rules implementing chapter 4 of the act (addressed in §§ 226.4(c)(8), 226.5(b)(2)(ii), 226.6(a)(5) and (b)(5)(iii), 226.7(a)(9) and (b)(9), 226.9(a), 226.10, 226.11, 226.12(c) through (f), 226.13, and 226.21). Section 226.28(a)(2)(ii) provides that the test of inconsistency is whether the creditor can comply with state law without violating Federal law. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A state law that allows the card issuer to offset the consumer's credit-card indebtedness against funds held by the card issuer would be preempted, since § 226.12(d) prohibits such action.
</P>
<P>ii. A state law that requires periodic statements to be sent more than 14 days before the end of a free-ride period would not be preempted.
</P>
<P>iii. A state law that permits consumers to assert claims and defenses against the card issuer without regard to the $50 and 100-mile limitations of § 226.12(c)(3)(ii) would not be preempted.
</P>
<P>iv. In paragraphs ii. and iii. of this comment, compliance with state law would involve no violation of the Federal law.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Who may receive a chapter 4 determination.</I> Only states (through their authorized officials) may request and receive determinations on inconsistency with respect to the fair credit billing provisions.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Preemption determination—Arizona.</I> Effective October 1, 1983, the Board has determined that the following provisions in the State law of Arizona are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<FP-1>• Section 44-287 B.5—Disclosure of final cash price balance. This provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the final cash price balance is the same as the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Section 44-287 B.6—Disclosure of finance charge. This provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the finance charge is different from the amount of the Federal finance charge, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Section 44-287 B.7—Disclosure of the time balance. The time balance disclosure provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount.
</FP-1>
<P>9. <I>Preemption determination—Florida.</I> Effective October 1, 1983, the Board has determined that the following provisions in the State law of Florida are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<FP-1>• Sections 520.07(2)(f) and 520.34(2)(f)—Disclosure of amount financed. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is different from the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 520.07(2)(g), 520.34(2)(g), and 520.35(2)(d)—Disclosure of finance charge and a description of its components. The finance charge disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the finance charge is different from the Federal amount, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount. The requirement to describe or itemize the components of the finance charge, which is also included in these provisions, is not preempted.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 520.07(2)(h) and 520.34(2)(h)—Disclosure of total of payments. The total of payments disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount differs from the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount than the Federal law.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 520.07(2)(i) and 520.34(2)(i)—Disclosure of deferred payment price. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal total sale price, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a different term than the Federal law to represent the same amount as the Federal law.
</FP-1>
<P>10. <I>Preemption determination—Missouri.</I> Effective October 1, 1983, the Board has determined that the following provisions in the State law of Missouri are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<FP-1>• Sections 365.070-6(9) and 408.260-5(6)—Disclosure of principal balance. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the principal balance is the same as the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 365.070-6(10) and 408.260-5(7)—Disclosure of time price differential and time charge, respectively. These disclosures are preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal finance charge, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a term different from the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 365.070-2 and 408.260-2—Use of the terms <I>time price differential</I> and <I>time charge</I> in certain notices to the buyer. In those transactions in which the State disclosure of the time price differential or time charge is preempted, the use of the terms in this notice also is preempted. The notice itself is not preempted.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 365.070-6(11) and 408.260-5(8)—Disclosure of time balance. The time balance disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a different term than the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Sections 365.070-6(12) and 408.260-5(9)—Disclosure of time sale price. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal total sale price, since in such transactions the State law requires the use of a different term from the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</FP-1>
<P>11. <I>Preemption determination—Mississippi.</I> Effective October 1, 1984, the Board has determined that the following provision in the State law of Mississippi is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>• Section 63-19-31(2)(g)—Disclosure of finance charge. This disclosure is preempted in those cases in which the term <I>finance charge</I> would be used under State law to describe a different amount than the finance charge disclosed under Federal law.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Preemption determination—South Carolina.</I> Effective October 1, 1984, the Board has determined that the following provision in the State law of South Carolina is preempted by the Federal law.
</P>
<P>• Section 37-10-102(c)—Disclosure of due-on-sale clause. This provision is preempted, but only to the extent that the creditor is required to include the disclosure with the segregated Federal disclosures. If the creditor may comply with the State law by placing the due-on-sale notice apart from the Federal disclosures, the state law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Preemption determination—Arizona.</I> Effective October 1, 1986, the Board has determined that the following provision in the State law of Arizona is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>• Section 6-621A.2—Use of the term <I>the total sum of</I> $________ in certain notices provided to borrowers. This term describes the same item that is disclosed under Federal law as the <I>total of payments.</I> Since the State law requires the use of a different term than Federal law to describe the same item, the State-required term is preempted. The notice itself is not preempted.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The State disclosure notice that incorporated the above preempted term was amended on May 4, 1987, to provide that disclosures must now be made pursuant to the Federal disclosure provisions.)</P></NOTE>
<P>14. <I>Preemption determination—Indiana.</I> Effective October 1, 1988, the Board has determined that the following provision in the State law of Indiana is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>• Section 23-2-5-8—Inclusion of the loan broker's fees and charges in the calculation of, among other items, the finance charge and annual percentage rate disclosed to potential borrowers. This disclosure is inconsistent with sections 106(a) and § 226.4(a) of the Federal statute and regulation, respectively, and is preempted in those instances where the use of the same term would disclose a different amount than that required to be disclosed under Federal law.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Preemption determination—Wisconsin.</I> Effective October 1, 1991, the Board has determined that the following provisions in the state law of Wisconsin are preempted by the federal law: 
</P>
<P>• Section 422.308(1)—the disclosure of the annual percentage rate in cases where the amount of the annual percentage rate disclosed to consumers under the state law differs from the amount that would be disclosed under federal law, since in those cases the state law requires the use of the same term as the federal law to represent a different amount than the federal law. 
</P>
<P>• Section 766.565(5)—the provision permitting a creditor to include in an open-end home equity agreement authorization to declare the account balance due and payable upon receiving notice of termination from a non-obligor spouse, since such provision is inconsistent with the purpose of the federal law. 
</P>
<P><I>28(b) Equivalent disclosure requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A state disclosure may be substituted for a Federal disclosure only <I>after</I> the Board has made a finding of substantial similarity. Thus, the creditor may not unilaterally choose to make a state disclosure in place of a Federal disclosure, even if it believes that the state disclosure is substantially similar. Since the rule stated in § 226.28(b) does not extend to any requirement relating to the finance charge or annual percentage rate, no state provision on computation, description, or disclosure of these terms may be substituted for the Federal provision.
</P>
<HD2>28(d) Special Rule for Credit and Charge Cards 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The standard that applies to preemption of state laws as they affect transactions of the type subject to §§ 226.5a and 226.9(e) differs from the preemption standards generally applicable under the Truth in Lending Act. The Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act fully preempts state laws relating to the disclosure of credit information in consumer credit or charge card applications or solicitations. (For purposes of this section, a single credit or charge card application or solicitation that may be used to open either an account for consumer purposes or an account for business purposes is deemed to be a “consumer credit or charge card application or solicitation.”) For example, a state law requiring disclosure of credit terms in direct mail solicitations for consumer credit card accounts is preempted. A state law requiring disclosures in telephone applications for consumer credit card accounts also is preempted, even if it applies to applications initiated by the consumer rather than the issuer, because the state law relates to the disclosure of credit information in applications or solicitations within the general field of preemption, that is, consumer credit and charge cards. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limitations on field of preemption.</I> Preemption under the Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act does not extend to state laws applying to types of credit other than open-end consumer credit and charge card accounts. Thus, for example, a state law is not preempted as it applies to disclosures in credit and charge card applications and solicitations solely for business-purpose accounts. On the other hand, state credit disclosure laws will not apply to a single application or solicitation to open either an account for consumer purposes or an account for business purposes. Such “dual purpose” applications and solicitations are treated as “consumer credit or charge card applications or solicitations” under this section and state credit disclosure laws applicable to them are preempted. Preemption under this statute does not extend to state laws applicable to home equity plans; preemption determinations in this area are based on the Home Equity Loan Consumer Protection Act, as implemented in § 226.5b of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Laws not preempted.</I> State laws relating to disclosures concerning credit and charge cards other than in applications, solicitations, or renewal notices are not preempted under § 226.28(d). In addition, state laws regulating the terms of credit and charge card accounts are not preempted, nor are laws preempted that regulate the form or content of information unrelated to the information required to be disclosed under §§ 226.5a and 226.9(e). Finally, state laws concerning the enforcement of the requirements of §§ 226.5a and 226.9(e) and state laws prohibiting unfair or deceptive acts or practices concerning credit and charge card applications, solicitations and renewals are not preempted. Examples of laws that are not preempted include: 
</P>
<P>• A state law that requires card issuers to offer a grace period or that prohibits certain fees in credit and charge card transactions. 
</P>
<P>• A state retail installment sales law or a state plain language law, except to the extent that it regulates the disclosure of credit information in applications, solicitations and renewals of accounts of the type subject to §§ 226.5a and 226.9(e). 
</P>
<P>• A state law requiring notice of a consumer's rights under antidiscrimination or similar laws or a state law requiring notice about credit information available from state authorities. 
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 111 and 171 (a) and (c).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Appendix A.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.6 (b) and (c), and Interpretation § 226.604.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> Section 226.28 implements amended section 111 of the Act. The test for preemption of state laws relating to disclosure and advertising is now whether the state law “contradicts” the Federal, rather than whether state requirements are “different.” 
</P>
<P>The revised regulation contains no counterpart to § 226.6(c) of the previous regulation concerning placement of inconsistent disclosures. It also reflects the statutory amendment providing that once the Board determines that a state-required disclosure is inconsistent with Federal law, the creditor may not make the state disclosure.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.29—State Exemptions
</HD2>
<P><I>29(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Classes eligible.</I> The state determines the classes of transactions for which it will request an exemption, and makes its application for those classes. Classes might be, for example, all open-end credit transactions, all open-end and closed-end transactions, or all transactions in which the creditor is a bank.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantial similarity.</I> The “substantially similar” standard requires that state statutory or regulatory provisions and state interpretations of those provisions be generally the same as the Federal Act and Regulation Z. This includes the requirement that state provisions for reimbursement to consumers for overcharges be at least equivalent to those required in section 108 of the act. A State will be eligible for an exemption even if its law covers classes of transactions not covered by the Federal law. For example, if a state's law covers agricultural credit, this will not prevent the Board from granting an exemption for consumer credit, even though agricultural credit is not covered by the Federal law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Adequate enforcement.</I> The standard requiring adequate provision for enforcement generally means that appropriate state officials must be authorized to enforce the state law through procedures and sanctions comparable to those available to Federal enforcement agencies. Furthermore, state law must make adequate provision for enforcement of the reimbursement rules.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Exemptions granted.</I> Effective October 1, 1982, the Board has granted the following exemptions from portions of the revised Truth in Lending Act:
</P>
<P>• <I>Maine.</I> Credit or lease transactions subject to the Maine Consumer Credit Code and its implementing regulations are exempt from chapters 2, 4 and 5 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a creditor or lessor.)
</P>
<P>• <I>Connecticut.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Connecticut Truth in Lending Act are exempt from chapters 2 and 4 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P>• <I>Massachusetts.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Massachusetts Truth in Lending Act are exempt from chapters 2 and 4 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P>• <I>Oklahoma.</I> Credit or lease transactions subject to the Oklahoma Consumer Credit Code are exempt from chapters 2 and 5 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to sections 132 through 135 of the Federal Act, nor does it apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a creditor or lessor.)
</P>
<P>• <I>Wyoming.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Wyoming Consumer Credit Code are exempt from chapter 2 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P><I>29(b) Civil liability.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Not eligible for exemption.</I> The provision that an exemption may not extend to sections 130 and 131 of the Act assures that consumers retain access to both Federal and State courts in seeking damages or civil penalties for violations, while creditors retain the defenses specified in those sections.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 108, 123, and 171(b).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Appendix B.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.12.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The procedures that states must follow to seek exemptions are now located in an appendix. Exemptions under the previous regulation will be automatically revoked on April 1, 1982, when compliance with the new regulation is mandatory.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.30—Limitation on Rates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of coverage.</I> The requirement of this section applies to consumer credit obligations secured by a dwelling (as dwelling is defined in § 226.2(a)(19)) in which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation (or during the term of the plan, in the case of open-end credit) as a result of an increase in the interest rate component of the finance charge—whether those increases are tied to an index or formula or are within a creditor's discretion. The section applies to credit sales as well as loans. Examples of credit obligations subject to this section include:
</P>
<P>• Dwelling-secured credit obligations that require variable-rate disclosures under the regulation because the interest rate may increase during the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>• Dwelling-secured open-end credit plans entered into before November 7, 1989 (the effective date of the home equity rules) that are not considered variable-rate obligations for purposes of disclosure under the regulation but where the creditor reserves the contractual right to increase the interest rate—periodic rate and corresponding annual percentage rate—during the term of the plan.
</P>
<FP>In contrast, credit obligations in which there is no contractual right to increase the interest rate during the term of the obligation are not subject to this section. Examples include:
</FP>
<P>• “Shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgage loans that have a fixed rate of interest and a shared-appreciation feature based on the consumer's equity in the mortgaged property. (The appreciation share is payable in a lump sum at a specified time.)
</P>
<P>• Dwelling-secured fixed-rate closed-end balloon-payment mortgage loans and dwelling-secured fixed-rate open-end plans with a stated term that the creditor may renew at maturity. (Contrast with the renewable balloon-payment mortgage instrument described in comment 17(c)(1)-11.) 
</P>
<P>• Dwelling-secured fixed rate closed-end multiple advance transactions in which each advance is disclosed as a separate transaction.
</P>
<P>• “Price level adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation.
</P>
<FP>The requirement of this section does not apply to credit obligations entered into prior to December 9, 1987. Consequently, new advances under open-end credit plans existing prior to December 9, 1987, are not subject to this section.
</FP>
<P>2. <I>Refinanced obligations.</I> On or after December 9, 1987, when a credit obligation is refinanced, as defined in § 226.20(a), the new obligation is subject to this section if it is dwelling-secured and allows for increases in the interest rate. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assumptions.</I> On or after December 9, 1987, when a credit obligation is assumed, as defined in § 226.20(b), the obligation becomes subject to this section if it is dwelling-secured and allows for increases in the interest rate. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Modifications of obligations.</I> The modification of an obligation, regardless of when the obligation was entered into, is generally not covered by this section. For example, increasing the credit limit on a dwelling-secured, open-end plan with a variable interest rate entered into before the effective date of the rule does not make the obligation subject to this section. If, however, a security interest in a dwelling is added on or after December 9, 1987, to a credit obligation that allows for interest rate increases, the obligation becomes subject to this section. Similarly, if a variable interest rate feature is added to a dwelling-secured credit obligation, the obligation becomes subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Land trusts.</I> In some states, a land trust is used in residential real estate transactions. (See discussion in comment 3(a)-8).) If a consumer-purpose loan that allows for interest rate increases is secured by an assignment of a beneficial interest in a land trust that holds title to a consumer's dwelling, that loan is subject to this section. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relationship to other sections.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the commentary to this section, other provisions of the regulation such as definitions, exemptions, rules and interpretations also apply to this section where appropriate. To illustrate: 
</P>
<P>• An adjustable interest rate business-purpose loan is not subject to this section even if the loan is secured by a dwelling because such credit extensions are not subject to the regulation. (See generally § 226.3(a).)
</P>
<P>• Creditors subject to this section are only those that fall within the definition of a creditor in § 226.2(a)(17). 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Consumer credit contract.</I> Creditors are required to specify a lifetime maximum interest rate in their credit contracts—the instrument that creates personal liability and generally contains the terms and conditions of the agreement (for example, a promissory note or home-equity line of credit agreement). In some states, the signing of a commitment letter may create a binding obligation, for example, constituting <I>consummation</I> as defined in § 226.2(a)(13). The maximum interest rate must be included in the credit contract, but a creditor may include the rate ceiling in the commitment instrument as well. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Manner of stating the maximum interest rate.</I> The maximum interest rate must be stated in the credit contract either as a specific amount or in any other manner that would allow the consumer to easily ascertain, at the time of entering into the obligation, what the rate ceiling will be over the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>i. For example, the following statements would be sufficiently specific
</P>
<P>A. The maximum interest rate will not exceed X%.
</P>
<P>B. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points above the initial rate of Y%.
</P>
<P>C. The interest rate will not exceed X%, or X percentage points above [a rate to be determined at some future point in time], whichever is less.
</P>
<P>D. The maximum interest rate will not exceed X%, or the state usury ceiling, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>ii. The following statements would not comply with this section
</P>
<P>A. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points over the prevailing market rate.
</P>
<P>B. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points above [a rate to be determined at some future point in time].
</P>
<P>C. The interest rate will not exceed the state usury ceiling which is currently X%.
</P>
<P>iii. A creditor may state the maximum rate in terms of a maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed. Under an open-end credit plan, this normally would be the corresponding annual percentage rate. (<I>See</I> generally § 226.6(a)(1)(ii) and (b)(4)(i)(A).)
</P>
<P>9. <I>Multiple interest rate ceilings.</I> Creditors are not prohibited from setting multiple interest rate ceilings. For example, on loans with multiple variable-rate features, creditors may establish a maximum interest rate for each feature. To illustrate, in a variable-rate loan that has an option to convert to a fixed rate, a creditor may set one maximum interest rate for the initially imposed index-based variable-rate feature and another for the conversion option. Of course, a creditor may establish one maximum interest rate applicable to all features. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Interest rate charged after default.</I> State law may allow an interest rate after default higher than the contract rate in effect at the time of default; however, the interest rate after default is subject to a maximum interest rate set forth in a credit obligation that is otherwise subject to this section. This rule applies only in situations in which a post-default agreement is still considered part of the original obligation. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Increasing the maximum interest rate—general rule.</I> Generally, a creditor may not increase the maximum interest rate originally set on a credit obligation subject to this section unless the consumer and the creditor enter into a new obligation. Therefore, under an open-end plan, a creditor may not increase the rate ceiling imposed merely because there is an increase in the credit limit. If an open-end plan is closed and another opened, a new rate ceiling may be imposed. Furthermore, where an open-end plan has a fixed maturity and a creditor renews the plan at maturity, or enters into a closed-end credit transaction, a new maximum interest rate may be set at that time. If the open-end plan provides for a repayment phase, the maximum interest rate cannot be increased when the repayment phase begins unless the agreement provided for such an increase. For a closed-end credit transaction, a new maximum interest rate may be set only if the transaction is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation. (The exceptions in § 226.20(a)(1)-(5) which limit what transactions are considered refinancings for purposes of disclosure do not apply with respect to increasing a rate ceiling that has been imposed; if a transaction is satisfied and replaced, the rate ceiling may be increased.) 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Increasing the maximum interest rate—assumption of an obligation.</I> If an obligation subject to this section is assumed by a new obligor and the original obligor is released from liability, the maximum interest rate set on the obligation may be increased as part of the assumption agreement. (This rule applies whether or not the transaction constitutes an assumption as defined in § 226.20(b).) 
</P>
<HD3>References 
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987, Pub. L. No. 100-86, 101 Stat. 552 
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.6, 226.18, and 226.19 
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> None 
</P>
<P><I>1987 changes:</I> This section implements section 1204 of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987, Pub. L. No. 100-86, 101 Stat. 552 which provides that, effective December 9, 1987, adjustable-rate mortgages must include a limitation on the interest rate that may apply during the term of the mortgage loan. An adjustable-rate mortgage loan is defined in section 1204 as “any loan secured by a lien on a one-to-four family dwelling unit, including a condominium unit, cooperative housing unit, or mobile home, where the loan is made pursuant to an agreement under which the creditor may, from time to time, adjust the rate of interest.” The rule in this section incorporates section 1204 into Regulation Z and limits the scope of section 1204 to dwelling-secured consumer credit subject to the Truth in Lending Act, in which a creditor has the contractual right to increase the interest rate during the term of the credit obligation.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart E—Special Rules for Certain Home Mortgage Transactions 
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.31—General Rules 
</HD2>
<P><I>31(c) Timing of disclosure.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Furnishing disclosures.</I> Disclosures are considered furnished when received by the consumer. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 31(c)(1) Disclosures for certain closed-end home mortgages.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pre-consummation waiting period.</I> A creditor must furnish § 226.32 disclosures at least three business days prior to consummation. Under § 226.32, “business day” has the same meaning as the rescission rule in comment 2(a)(6)-2—all calendar days except Sundays and the federal legal holidays listed in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). However, while the disclosure rule under §§ 226.15 and 226.23 extends to midnight of the third business day, the rule under § 226.32 does not. For example, under § 226.32, if disclosures were provided on a Friday, consummation could occur any time on Tuesday, the third business day following receipt of the disclosures. If the timing of the rescission rule were to be used, consummation could not occur until after midnight on Tuesday. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 31(c)(1)(i) Change in terms.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Redisclosure required.</I> Creditors must provide new disclosures when a change in terms makes disclosures previously provided under § 226.32(c) inaccurate, including disclosures based on and labeled as an estimate. A change in terms may result from a formal written agreement or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Sale of optional products at consummation.</I> If the consumer finances the purchase of optional products such as credit insurance and as a result the monthly payment differs from what was previously disclosed under § 226.32, redisclosure is required and a new three-day waiting period applies. (See comment 32(c)(3)-1 on when optional items may be included in the regular payment disclosure.) 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 31(c)(1)(ii) Telephone disclosures.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Telephone disclosures.</I> Disclosures by telephone must be furnished at least three business days prior to consummation, calculated in accord with the timing rules under § 226.31(c)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 31(c)(1)(iii) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to the three-day waiting period only after receiving the disclosures required by § 226.32 and only if the circumstances meet the criteria for establishing a bona fide personal financial emergency under § 226.23(e). Whether these criteria are met is determined by the facts surrounding individual situations. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure during the three-day period is one example of a bona fide personal financial emergency. Each consumer entitled to the three-day waiting period must sign the handwritten statement for the waiver to be effective. 
</P>
<P><I>31(c)(2) Disclosures for reverse mortgages.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Business days.</I> For purposes of providing reverse mortgage disclosures, “business day” has the same meaning as in comment 31(c)(1)-1—all calendar days except Sundays and the Federal legal holidays listed in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). This means if disclosures are provided on a Friday, consummation could occur any time on Tuesday, the third business day following receipt of the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Open-end plans.</I> Disclosures for open-end reverse mortgages must be provided at least three business days before the first transaction under the plan (see § 226.5(b)(1)). 
</P>
<P><I>31(d) Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Redisclosure.</I> Section 226.31(d) allows the use of estimates when information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, provided that the disclosure is clearly identified as an estimate. For purposes of Subpart E, the rule in § 226.31(c)(1)(i) requiring new disclosures when the creditor changes terms also applies to disclosures labeled as estimates. 
</P>
<P><I>31(d)(3) Per-diem interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Per-diem interest.</I> This paragraph applies to the disclosure of any numerical amount (such as the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or payment amount) that is affected by the amount of the per-diem interest charge that will be collected at consummation. If the amount of per-diem interest used in preparing the disclosures for consummation is based on the information known to the creditor at the time the disclosure document is prepared, the disclosures are considered accurate under this rule, and affected disclosures are also considered accurate, even if the disclosures were not labeled as estimates. (See comment 17(c)(2)(ii)-1 generally.) 
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.32—Requirements for Certain Closed-End Home Mortgages 
</HD2>
<P><I>32(a) Coverage.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(i).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application date.</I> An application is deemed received when it reaches the creditor in any of the ways applications are normally transmitted. (See § 226.19(a).) For example, if a borrower applies for a 10-year loan on September 30 and the creditor counteroffers with a 7-year loan on October 10, the application is deemed received in September and the creditor must measure the annual percentage rate against the appropriate Treasury security yield as of August 15. An application transmitted through an intermediary agent or broker is received when it reaches the creditor, rather than when it reaches the agent or broker. (See comment 19(b)-3 to determine whether a transaction involves an intermediary agent or broker.) 
</P>
<P>2. <I>When fifteenth not a business day.</I> If the 15th day of the month immediately preceding the application date is not a business day, the creditor must use the yield as of the business day immediately preceding the 15th. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculating annual percentage rates for variable-rate loans and discount loans.</I> Creditors must use the rules set out in the commentary to § 226.17(c)(1) in calculating the annual percentage rate for variable-rate loans (assume the rate in effect at the time of disclosure remains unchanged) and for discount, premium, and stepped-rate transactions (which must reflect composite annual percentage rates). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Treasury securities.</I> To determine the yield on comparable Treasury securities for the annual percentage rate test, creditors may use the yield on actively traded issues adjusted to constant maturities published in the Board's “Selected Interest Rates” (statistical release H-15). Creditors must use the yield corresponding to the constant maturity that is closest to the loan's maturity. If the loan's maturity is exactly halfway between security maturities, the annual percentage rate on the loan should be compared with the yield for Treasury securities having the lower yield. In determining the loan's maturity, creditors may rely on the rules in § 226.17(c)(4) regarding irregular first payment periods. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the H-15 contains a yield for Treasury securities with constant maturities of 7 years and 10 years and no maturity in between, the annual percentage rate for an 8-year mortgage loan is compared with the yield of securities having a 7-year maturity, and the annual percentage rate for a 9-year mortgage loan is compared with the yield of securities having a 10-year maturity.
</P>
<P>ii. If a mortgage loan has a term of 15 years, and the H-15 contains a yield of 5.21 percent for constant maturities of 10 years, and also contains a yield of 6.33 percent for constant maturities of 20 years, then the creditor compares the annual percentage rate for a 15-year mortgage loan with the yield for constant maturities of 10 years.
</P>
<P>iii. If a mortgage loan has a term of 30 years, and the H-15 does not contain a yield for 30-year constant maturities, but contains a yield for 20-year constant maturities, and an average yield for securities with remaining terms to maturity of 25 years and over, then the annual percentage rate on the loan is compared with the yield for 20-year constant maturities.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(ii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Total loan amount.</I> For purposes of the “points and fees” test, the total loan amount is calculated by taking the amount financed, as determined according to § 226.18(b), and deducting any cost listed in § 226.32(b)(1)(iii) and § 226.32(b)(1)(iv) that is both included as points and fees under § 226.32(b)(1) and financed by the creditor. Some examples follow, each using a $10,000 amount borrowed, a $300 appraisal fee, and $400 in points. A $500 premium for optional credit life insurance is used in one example. 
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for a creditor-conducted appraisal and pays $400 in points at closing, the amount financed under § 226.18(b) is $9,900 ($10,000 plus the $300 appraisal fee that is paid to and financed by the creditor, less $400 in prepaid finance charges). The $300 appraisal fee paid to the creditor is added to other points and fees under § 226.32(b)(1)(iii). It is deducted from the amount financed ($9,900) to derive a total loan amount of $9,600. 
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer pays the $300 fee for the creditor-conducted appraisal in cash at closing, the $300 is included in the points and fees calculation because it is paid to the creditor. However, because the $300 is not financed by the creditor, the fee is not part of the amount financed under § 226.18(b). In this case, the amount financed is the same as the total loan amount: $9,600 ($10,000, less $400 in prepaid finance charges). 
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for an appraisal conducted by someone other than the creditor or an affiliate, the $300 fee is not included with other points and fees under § 226.32(b)(1)(iii). The amount financed under § 226.18(b) is $9,900 ($10,000 plus the $300 fee for an independently-conducted appraisal that is financed by the creditor, less the $400 paid in cash and deducted as prepaid finance charges). 
</P>
<P>iv. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for a creditor-conducted appraisal and a $500 single premium for optional credit life insurance, and pays $400 in points at closing, the amount financed under § 226.18(b) is $10,400 ($10,000, plus the $300 appraisal fee that is paid to and financed by the creditor, plus the $500 insurance premium that is financed by the creditor, less $400 in prepaid finance charges). The $300 appraisal fee paid to the creditor is added to other points and fees under § 226.32(b)(1)(iii), and the $500 insurance premium is added under 226.32(b)(1)(iv). The $300 and $500 costs are deducted from the amount financed ($10,400) to derive a total loan amount of $9,600. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Annual adjustment of $400 amount.</I> A mortgage loan is covered by § 226.32 if the total points and fees payable by the consumer at or before loan consummation exceed the greater of $400 or 8 percent of the total loan amount. The $400 figure is adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI that was in effect on the preceding June 1. The Board will publish adjustments after the June figures become available each year. The adjustment for the upcoming year will be included in any proposed commentary published in the fall, and incorporated into the commentary the following spring. The adjusted figures are:
</P>
<P>i. For 1996, $412, reflecting a 3.00 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1994 to June 1995, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ii. For 1997, $424, reflecting a 2.9 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1995 to June 1996, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iii. For 1998, $435, reflecting a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1996 to June 1997, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iv. For 1999, $441, reflecting a 1.4 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1997 to June 1998, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>v. For 2000, $451, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1998 to June 1999, rounded to the nearest whole dollar. 
</P>
<P>vi. For 2001, $465, reflecting a 3.1 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1999 to June 2000, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vii. For 2002, $480, reflecting a 3.27 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2000 to June 2001, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>viii. For 2003, $488, reflecting a 1.64 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2001 to June 2002, rounded to the nearest whole dollar. 
</P>
<P>ix. For 2004, $499, reflecting a 2.22 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2002 to June 2003, rounded to the nearest whole dollar. 
</P>
<P>x. For 2005, $510, reflecting a 2. 29 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2003 to June 2004, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xi. For 2006, $528, reflecting a 3.51 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2004 to June 2005, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xii. For 2007, $547, reflecting a 3.55 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2005 to June 2006, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xiii. For 2008, $561, reflecting a 2.56 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2006 to June 2007, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xiv. For 2009, $583, reflecting a 3.94 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2007 to June 2008, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xv. For 2010, $579, reflecting a 0.74 percent decrease in the CPI-U from June 2008 to June 2009, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xvi. For 2011, $592, reflecting a 2.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2009 to June 2010, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xvii. For 2012, $611, reflecting a 3.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2010 to June 2011, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exemption limited.</I> Section 226.32(a)(2) lists certain transactions exempt from the provisions of § 226.32. Nevertheless, those transactions may be subject to the provisions of § 226.35, including any provisions of § 226.32 to which § 226.35 refers. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 226.35(a).
</P>
<HD2>32(b) Definitions 
</HD2>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.32(b)(1)(i) includes in the total “points and fees” items defined as finance charges under §§ 226.4(a) and 226.(4)(b). Items excluded from the finance charge under other provisions of § 226.4 are not included in the total “points and fees” under paragraph 32(b)(1)(i), but may be included in “points and fees” under paragraphs 32(b)(1)(ii) and 32(b)(1)(iii). Interest, including per-diem interest, is excluded from “points and fees” under § 226.32(b)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(ii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage broker fees.</I> In determining “points and fees” for purposes of this section, compensation paid by a consumer to a mortgage broker (directly or through the creditor for delivery to the broker) is included in the calculation whether or not the amount is disclosed as a finance charge. Mortgage broker fees that are not paid by the consumer are not included. Mortgage broker fees already included in the calculation as finance charges under § 226.32(b)(1)(i) need not be counted again under § 226.32(b)(1)(ii). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Section 226.32(b)(1)(iii) defines “points and fees” to include all items listed in § 226.4(c)(7), other than amounts held for the future payment of taxes. An item listed in § 226.4(c)(7) may be excluded from the “points and fees” calculation, however, if the charge is reasonable, the creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation from the charge, and the charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor. For example, a reasonable fee paid by the consumer to an independent, third-party appraiser may be excluded from the “points and fees” calculation (assuming no compensation is paid to the creditor). A fee paid by the consumer for an appraisal performed by the creditor must be included in the calculation, even though the fee may be excluded from the finance charge if it is bona fide and reasonable in amount. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(iv).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Premium amount.</I> In determining “points and fees” for purposes of this section, premiums paid at or before closing for credit insurance are included whether they are paid in cash or financed, and whether the amount represents the entire premium for the coverage or an initial payment. 
</P>
<P><I>32(c) Disclosures.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Format.</I> The disclosures must be clear and conspicuous but need not be in any particular type size or typeface, nor presented in any particular manner. The disclosures need not be a part of the note or mortgage document. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(c)(3) Regular payment; balloon payment.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The regular payment is the amount due from the borrower at regular intervals, such as monthly, bimonthly, quarterly, or annually. There must be at least two payments, and the payments must be in an amount and at such intervals that they fully amortize the amount owed. In disclosing the regular payment, creditors may rely on the rules set forth in § 226.18(g); however, the amounts for voluntary items, such as credit life insurance, may be included in the regular payment disclosure only if the consumer has previously agreed to the amounts. 
</P>
<P>i. If the loan has more than one payment level, the regular payment for each level must be disclosed. For example: 
</P>
<P>A. In a 30-year graduated payment mortgage where there will be payments of $300 for the first 120 months, $400 for the next 120 months, and $500 for the last 120 months, each payment amount must be disclosed, along with the length of time that the payment will be in effect. 
</P>
<P>B. If interest and principal are paid at different times, the regular amount for each must be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>C. In discounted or premium variable-rate transactions where the creditor sets the initial interest rate and later rate adjustments are determined by an index or formula, the creditor must disclose both the initial payment based on the discount or premium and the payment that will be in effect thereafter. Additional explanatory material which does not detract from the required disclosures may accompany the disclosed amounts. For example, if a monthly payment is $250 for the first six months and then increases based on an index and margin, the creditor could use language such as the following: “Your regular monthly payment will be $250 for six months. After six months your regular monthly payment will be based on an index and margin, which currently would make your payment $350. Your actual payment at that time may be higher or lower.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(c)(4) Variable-rate.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculating “worst-case” payment example.</I> Creditors may rely on instructions in § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(B) for calculating the maximum possible increases in rates in the shortest possible timeframe, based on the face amount of the note (not the hypothetical loan amount of $10,000 required by § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(B)). The creditor must provide a maximum payment for each payment level, where a payment schedule provides for more than one payment level and more than one maximum payment amount is possible. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(c)(5) Amount borrowed.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Optional insurance; debt-cancellation coverage.</I> This disclosure is required when the amount borrowed in a refinancing includes premiums or other charges for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, or debt-cancellation coverage (whether or not the debt-cancellation coverage is insurance under applicable law) that provides for cancellation of all or part of the consumer's liability in the event of the loss of life, health, or income or in the case of accident. See comment 4(d)(3)-2 and comment app. G and H-2 regarding terminology for debt-cancellation coverage. 
</P>
<P><I>32(d) Limitations.</I> 
</P>
<HD2>32(d) Limitations 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Additional prohibitions applicable under other sections.</I> Section 226.34 sets forth certain prohibitions in connection with mortgage credit subject to § 226.32, in addition to the limitations in § 226.32(d). Further, § 226.35(b) prohibits certain practices in connection with transactions that meet the coverage test in § 226.35(a). Because the coverage test in § 226.35(a) is generally broader than the coverage test in § 226.32(a), most § 226.32 mortgage loans are also subject to the prohibitions set forth in § 226.35(b) (such as escrows), in addition to the limitations in § 226.32(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effective date.</I> For guidance on the application of the Board's revisions published on July 30, 2008 to § 226.32, see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(1)(i) Balloon payment.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> The repayment schedule for a § 226.32 mortgage loan with a term of less than five years must fully amortize the outstanding principal balance through “regular periodic payments.” A payment is a “regular periodic payment” if it is not more than twice the amount of other payments. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(2) Negative amortization.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Negative amortization.</I> The prohibition against negative amortization in a mortgage covered by § 226.32 does not preclude reasonable increases in the principal balance that result from events permitted by the legal obligation unrelated to the payment schedule. For example, when a consumer fails to obtain property insurance and the creditor purchases insurance, the creditor may add a reasonable premium to the consumer's principal balance, to the extent permitted by the legal obligation. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(4) Increased interest rate.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate transactions.</I> The limitation on interest rate increases does not apply to rate increases resulting from changes in accordance with the legal obligation in a variable-rate transaction, even if the increase occurs after default by the consumer. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(5) Rebates.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of refunds.</I> The limitation applies only to refunds of precomputed (such as add-on) interest and not to any other charges that are considered finance charges under § 226.4 (for example, points and fees paid at closing). The calculation of the refund of interest includes odd-days interest, whether paid at or after consummation. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(6) Prepayment penalties.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law.</I> For purposes of computing a refund of unearned interest, if using the actuarial method defined by applicable state law results in a refund that is greater than the refund calculated by using the method described in section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, creditors should use the state law definition in determining if a refund is a prepayment penalty. 
</P>
<P><I>32(d)(7) Prepayment penalty exception.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(7)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculating debt-to-income ratio.</I> “Debt” does not include amounts paid by the borrower in cash at closing or amounts from the loan proceeds that directly repay an existing debt. Creditors may consider combined debt-to-income ratios for transactions involving joint applicants. For more information about obligations and inflows that may constitute “debt” or “income” for purposes of § 226.32(d)(7)(iii), see comment 34(a)(4)-6 and comment 34(a)(4)(iii)(C)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Verification.</I> Creditors shall verify income in the manner described in § 226.34(a)(4)(ii) and the related comments. Creditors may verify debt with a credit report. However, a credit report may not reflect certain obligations undertaken just before or at consummation of the transaction and secured by the same dwelling that secures the transaction. Section 226.34(a)(4) may require creditors to consider such obligations; see comment 34(a)(4)-3 and comment 34(a)(4)(ii)(C)-1.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interaction with Regulation B.</I> Section 226.32(d)(7)(iii) does not require or permit the creditor to make inquiries or verifications that would be prohibited by Regulation B, 12 CFR part 202.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(7)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment change.</I> Section 226.32(d)(7) sets forth the conditions under which a mortgage transaction subject to this section may have a prepayment penalty. Section 226.32(d)(7)(iv) lists as a condition that the amount of the periodic payment of principal or interest or both may not change during the four-year period following consummation. The following examples show whether prepayment penalties are permitted or prohibited under § 226.32(d)(7)(iv) in particular circumstances.
</P>
<P>i. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month. Under the loan agreement, the first possible date that a payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014. A prepayment penalty is permitted with this mortgage transaction provided that the other § 226.32(d)(7) conditions are met, that is: provided that the prepayment penalty is permitted by other applicable law, the penalty expires on or before Dec. 31, 2011, the penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or its affiliate, and at consummation the consumer's total monthly debts do not exceed 50 percent of the consumer's monthly gross income, as verified.
</P>
<P>ii. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month. Under the loan agreement, the first possible date that a payment in a different amount may be due is December 31, 2013. A prepayment penalty is prohibited with this mortgage transaction because the payment may change within the four-year period following consummation.
</P>
<P>iii. Initial payments for a graduated-payment transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month. Under the loan agreement, the first possible date that a payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014. A prepayment penalty is permitted with this mortgage transaction provided that the other § 226.32(d)(7) conditions are met, that is: provided that the prepayment penalty is permitted by other applicable law, the penalty expires on or before December 31, 2011, the penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or its affiliate, and at consummation the consumer's total monthly debts do not exceed 50 percent of the consumer's monthly gross income, as verified.
</P>
<P>iv. Initial payments for a step-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month. Under the loan agreement, the first possible date that a payment in a different amount may be due is December 31, 2013. A prepayment penalty is prohibited with this mortgage transaction because the payment may change within the four-year period following consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment changes excluded.</I> Payment changes due to the following circumstances are not considered payment changes for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>i. A change in the amount of a periodic payment that is allocated to principal or interest that does not change the total amount of the periodic payment.
</P>
<P>ii. The borrower's actual unanticipated late payment, delinquency, or default; and
</P>
<P>iii. The borrower's voluntary payment of additional amounts (for example when a consumer chooses to make a payment of interest and principal on a loan that only requires the consumer to pay interest).
</P>
<P><I>32(d)(8) Due-on-demand clause.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(8)(ii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Failure to meet repayment terms.</I> A creditor may terminate a loan and accelerate the balance when the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms provided for in the agreement; a creditor may do so, however, only if the consumer actually fails to make payments. For example, a creditor may not terminate and accelerate if the consumer, in error, sends a payment to the wrong location, such as a branch rather than the main office of the creditor. If a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy, the creditor may terminate and accelerate under this provision if the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement. Section 226.32(d)(8)(ii) does not override any state or other law that requires a creditor to notify a borrower of a right to cure, or otherwise places a duty on the creditor before it can terminate a loan and accelerate the balance. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(8)(iii).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Impairment of security.</I> A creditor may terminate a loan and accelerate the balance if the consumer's action or inaction adversely affects the creditor's security for the loan, or any right of the creditor in that security. Action or inaction by third parties does not, in itself, permit the creditor to terminate and accelerate. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. A creditor may terminate and accelerate, for example, if: 
</P>
<P>A. The consumer transfers title to the property or sells the property without the permission of the creditor. 
</P>
<P>B. The consumer fails to maintain required insurance on the dwelling. 
</P>
<P>C. The consumer fails to pay taxes on the property. 
</P>
<P>D. The consumer permits the filing of a lien senior to that held by the creditor. 
</P>
<P>E. The sole consumer obligated on the credit dies. 
</P>
<P>F. The property is taken through eminent domain. 
</P>
<P>G. A prior lienholder forecloses. 
</P>
<P>ii. By contrast, the filing of a judgment against the consumer would permit termination and acceleration only if the amount of the judgment and collateral subject to the judgment is such that the creditor's security is adversely affected. If the consumer commits waste or otherwise destructively uses or fails to maintain the property such that the action adversely affects the security, the loan may be terminated and the balance accelerated. Illegal use of the property by the consumer would permit termination and acceleration if it subjects the property to seizure. If one of two consumers obligated on a loan dies, the creditor may terminate the loan and accelerate the balance if the security is adversely affected. If the consumer moves out of the dwelling that secures the loan and that action adversely affects the security, the creditor may terminate a loan and accelerate the balance. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(e)(1) Repayment ability.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining repayment ability.</I> The information provided to the creditor in connection with § 226.32(d)(7) may be used to show that the creditor considered the consumer's income and obligations before extending the credit. Any expected income can be considered by the creditor, except equity income that the consumer would obtain through the foreclosure of a mortgage covered by § 226.32. For example, a creditor may use information about income other than regular salary or wages such as gifts, expected retirement payments, or income from housecleaning or childcare. The creditor also may use unverified income, as long as the creditor has a reasonable basis for believing that the income exists and will support the loan. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(e)(2) Home-Improvement Contracts.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(e)(2)(i).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint payees.</I> If a creditor pays a contractor with an instrument jointly payable to the contractor and the consumer, the instrument must name as payee each consumer who is primarily obligated on the note. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(e)(3) Notice to Assignee.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent sellers or assignors.</I> Any person, whether or not the original creditor, that sells or assigns a mortgage subject to this section must furnish the notice of potential liability to the purchaser or assignee. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> While the notice of potential liability need not be in any particular format, the notice must be prominent. Placing it on the face of the note, such as with a stamp, is one means of satisfying the prominence requirement. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.33—Requirements for Reverse Mortgages 
</HD2>
<P><I>33(a) Definition.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nonrecourse transaction.</I> A nonrecourse reverse mortgage transaction limits the homeowner's liability to the proceeds of the sale of the home (or any lesser amount specified in the credit obligation). If a transaction structured as a closed-end reverse mortgage transaction allows recourse against the consumer, and the annual percentage rate or the points and fees exceed those specified under § 226.32(a)(1), the transaction is subject to all the requirements of § 226.32, including the limitations concerning balloon payments and negative amortization. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(a)(2).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Default.</I> Default is not defined by the statute or regulation, but rather by the legal obligation between the parties and state or other law. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definite term or maturity date.</I> To meet the definition of a reverse mortgage transaction, a creditor cannot require any principal, interest, or shared appreciation or equity to be due and payable (other than in the case of default) until after the consumer's death, transfer of the dwelling, or the consumer ceases to occupy the dwelling as a principal dwelling. Some state laws require legal obligations secured by a mortgage to specify a definite maturity date or term of repayment in the instrument. An obligation may state a definite maturity date or term of repayment and still meet the definition of a reverse-mortgage transaction if the maturity date or term of repayment used would not operate to cause maturity prior to the occurrence of any of the maturity events recognized in the regulation. For example, some reverse mortgage programs specify that the final maturity date is the borrower's 150th birthday; other programs include a shorter term but provide that the term is automatically extended for consecutive periods if none of the other maturity events has yet occurred. These programs would be permissible. 
</P>
<P><I>33(c) Projected total cost of credit.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(c)(1) Costs to consumer.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Costs and charges to consumer—relation to finance charge.</I> All costs and charges to the consumer that are incurred in a reverse mortgage transaction are included in the projected total cost of credit, and thus in the total annual loan cost rates, whether or not the cost or charge is a finance charge under § 226.4. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Annuity costs.</I> As part of the credit transaction, some creditors require or permit a consumer to purchase an annuity that immediately—or at some future time—supplements or replaces the creditor's payments. The amount paid by the consumer for the annuity is a cost to the consumer under this section, regardless of whether the annuity is purchased through the creditor or a third party, or whether the purchase is mandatory or voluntary. For example, this includes the costs of an annuity that a creditor offers, arranges, assists the consumer in purchasing, or that the creditor is aware the consumer is purchasing as a part of the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disposition costs excluded.</I> Disposition costs incurred in connection with the sale or transfer of the property subject to the reverse mortgage are not included in the costs to the consumer under this paragraph. (However, see the definition of Val<E T="52">n</E> in appendix K to the regulation to determine the effect certain disposition costs may have on the total annual loan cost rates.) 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(c)(2) Payments to consumer.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payments upon a specified event.</I> The projected total cost of credit should not reflect contingent payments in which a credit to the outstanding loan balance or a payment to the consumer's estate is made upon the occurrence of an event (for example, a “death benefit” payable if the consumer's death occurs within a certain period of time). Thus, the table of total annual loan cost rates required under § 226.33(b)(2) would not reflect such payments. At its option, however, a creditor may put an asterisk, footnote, or similar type of notation in the table next to the applicable total annual loan cost rate, and state in the body of the note, apart from the table, the assumption upon which the total annual loan cost is made and any different rate that would apply if the contingent benefit were paid. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(c)(3) Additional creditor compensation.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Shared appreciation or equity.</I> Any shared appreciation or equity that the creditor is entitled to receive pursuant to the legal obligation must be included in the total cost of a reverse mortgage loan. For example, if a creditor agrees to a reduced interest rate on the transaction in exchange for a portion of the appreciation or equity that may be realized when the dwelling is sold, that portion is included in the projected total cost of credit. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(c)(4) Limitations on consumer liability.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Creditors must include any limitation on the consumer's liability (such as a nonrecourse limit or an equity conservation agreement) in the projected total cost of credit. These limits and agreements protect a portion of the equity in the dwelling for the consumer or the consumer's estate. For example, the following are limitations on the consumer's liability that must be included in the projected total cost of credit: 
</P>
<P>i. A limit on the consumer's liability to a certain percentage of the projected value of the home. 
</P>
<P>ii. A limit on the consumer's liability to the net proceeds from the sale of the property subject to the reverse mortgage. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Uniform assumption for “net proceeds” recourse limitations.</I> If the legal obligation between the parties does not specify a percentage for the “net proceeds” liability of the consumer, for purposes of the disclosures required by § 226.33, a creditor must assume that the costs associated with selling the property will equal 7 percent of the projected sale price (see the definition of the Val<E T="52">n</E> symbol under appendix K(b)(6)). 
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.34—Prohibited Acts or Practices in Connection with Credit Subject to § 226.32 
</HD2>
<P><I>34(a) Prohibited acts or practices for loans subject to § 226.32.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(1) Home-improvement contracts.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(1)(i).</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint payees.</I> If a creditor pays a contractor with an instrument jointly payable to the contractor and the consumer, the instrument must name as payee each consumer who is primarily obligated on the note. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(2) Notice to Assignee.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent sellers or assignors.</I> Any person, whether or not the original creditor, that sells or assigns a mortgage subject to § 226.32 must furnish the notice of potential liability to the purchaser or assignee. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> While the notice of potential liability need not be in any particular format, the notice must be prominent. Placing it on the face of the note, such as with a stamp, is one means of satisfying the prominence requirement. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assignee liability.</I> Pursuant to section 131(d) of the act, the act's general holder-in-due course protections do not apply to purchasers and assignees of loans covered by § 226.32. For such loans, a purchaser's or other assignee's liability for all claims and defenses that the consumer could assert against the creditor is not limited to violations of the act. 
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(3) Refinancings within one-year period.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>In the borrower's interest.</I> The determination of whether or not a refinancing covered by § 226.34(a)(3) is in the borrower's interest is based on the totality of the circumstances, at the time the credit is extended. A written statement by the borrower that “this loan is in my interest” alone does not meet this standard. 
</P>
<P>i. A refinancing would be in the borrower's interest if needed to meet the borrower's “bona fide personal financial emergency” (see generally § 226.23(e) and § 226.31(c)(1)(iii)). 
</P>
<P>ii. In connection with a refinancing that provides additional funds to the borrower, in determining whether a loan is in the borrower's interest consideration should be given to whether the loan fees and charges are commensurate with the amount of new funds advanced, and whether the real estate-related charges are bona fide and reasonable in amount (see generally § 226.4(c)(7)). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application of the one-year refinancing prohibition to creditors and assignees.</I> The prohibition in § 226.34(a)(3) applies where an extension of credit subject to § 226.32 is refinanced into another loan subject to § 226.32. The prohibition is illustrated by the following examples. Assume that Creditor A makes a loan subject to § 226.32 on January 15, 2003, secured by a first lien; this loan is assigned to Creditor B on February 15, 2003: 
</P>
<P>i. Creditor A is prohibited from refinancing the January 2003 loan (or any other loan subject to § 226.32 to the same borrower) into a loan subject to § 226.32, until January 15, 2004. Creditor B is restricted until January 15, 2004, or such date prior to January 15, 2004 that Creditor B ceases to hold or service the loan. During the prohibition period, Creditors A and B may make a subordinate lien loan that does not refinance a loan subject to § 226.32. Assume that on April 1, 2003, Creditor A makes but does not assign a second-lien loan subject to § 226.32. In that case, Creditor A would be prohibited from refinancing either the first-lien or second-lien loans (or any other loans to that borrower subject to § 226.32) into another loan subject to § 226.32 until April 1, 2004. 
</P>
<P>ii. The loan made by Creditor A on January 15, 2003 (and assigned to Creditor B) may be refinanced by Creditor C at any time. If Creditor C refinances this loan on March 1, 2003 into a new loan subject to § 226.32, Creditor A is prohibited from refinancing the loan made by Creditor C (or any other loan subject to § 226.32 to the same borrower) into another loan subject to § 226.32 until January 15, 2004. Creditor C is similarly prohibited from refinancing any loan subject to § 226.32 to that borrower into another until March 1, 2004. (The limitations of § 226.34(a)(3) no longer apply to Creditor B after Creditor C refinanced the January 2003 loan and Creditor B ceased to hold or service the loan.) 
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(4) Repayment ability.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application of repayment ability rule.</I> The § 226.34(a)(4) prohibition against making loans without regard to consumers' repayment ability applies to mortgage loans described in § 226.32(a). In addition, the § 226.34(a)(4) prohibition applies to higher-priced mortgage loans described in § 226.35(a). <I>See</I> 12 CFR 226.35(b)(1). For guidance on the application of the Board's revisions to § 226.34(a)(4) published on July 30, 2008, see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General prohibition.</I> Section 226.34(a)(4) prohibits a creditor from extending credit subject to § 226.32 to a consumer based on the value of the consumer's collateral without regard to the consumer's repayment ability as of consummation, including the consumer's current and reasonably expected income, employment, assets other than the collateral, current obligations, and property tax and insurance obligations. A creditor may base its determination of repayment ability on current or reasonably expected income from employment or other sources, on assets other than the collateral, or both.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other dwelling-secured obligations.</I> For purposes of § 226.34(a)(4), current obligations include another credit obligation of which the creditor has knowledge undertaken prior to or at consummation of the transaction and secured by the same dwelling that secures the transaction subject to § 226.32 or § 226.35. For example, where a transaction subject to § 226.35 is a first-lien transaction for the purchase of a home, a creditor must consider a “piggyback” second-lien transaction of which it has knowledge that is used to finance part of the down payment on the house.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Discounted introductory rates and non-amortizing or negatively-amortizing payments.</I> A credit agreement may determine a consumer's initial payments using a temporarily discounted interest rate or permit the consumer to make initial payments that are non-amortizing or negatively amortizing. (Negative amortization is permissible for loans covered by § 226.35(a), but not § 226.32). In such cases the creditor may determine repayment ability using the assumptions provided in § 226.34(a)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Repayment ability as of consummation.</I> Section 226.34(a)(4) prohibits a creditor from disregarding repayment ability based on the facts and circumstances known to the creditor as of consummation. In general, a creditor does not violate this provision if a consumer defaults because of a significant reduction in income (for example, a job loss) or a significant obligation (for example, an obligation arising from a major medical expense) that occurs after consummation. However, if a creditor has knowledge as of consummation of reductions in income, for example, if a consumer's written application states that the consumer plans to retire within twelve months without obtaining new employment, or states that the consumer will transition from full-time to part-time employment, the creditor must consider that information.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Income, assets, and employment.</I> Any current or reasonably expected assets or income may be considered by the creditor, except the collateral itself. For example, a creditor may use information about current or expected salary, wages, bonus pay, tips, and commissions. Employment may be full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment. Other sources of income could include interest or dividends; retirement benefits; public assistance; and alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. A creditor may also take into account assets such as savings accounts or investments that the consumer can or will be able to use.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Interaction with Regulation B.</I> Section 226.34(a)(4) does not require or permit the creditor to make inquiries or verifications that would be prohibited by Regulation B, 12 CFR part 202.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(4)(i) Mortgage-related obligations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage-related obligations.</I> A creditor must include in its repayment ability analysis the expected property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor as set forth in § 226.35(b)(3)(i), as well as similar mortgage-related expenses. Similar mortgage-related expenses include homeowners' association dues and condominium or cooperative fees.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(4)(ii) Verification of repayment ability.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Income and assets relied on.</I> A creditor must verify the income and assets the creditor relies on to evaluate the consumer's repayment ability. For example, if a consumer earns a salary and also states that he or she is paid an annual bonus, but the creditor only relies on the applicant's salary to evaluate repayment ability, the creditor need only verify the salary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Income and assets—co-applicant.</I> If two persons jointly apply for credit and both list income or assets on the application, the creditor must verify repayment ability with respect to both applicants unless the creditor relies only on the income or assets of one of the applicants in determining repayment ability.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Expected income.</I> If a creditor relies on expected income, the expectation must be reasonable and it must be verified with third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's expected income. For example, if the creditor relies on an expectation that a consumer will receive an annual bonus, the creditor may verify the basis for that expectation with documents that show the consumer's past annual bonuses and the expected bonus must bear a reasonable relationship to past bonuses. Similarly, if the creditor relies on a consumer's expected salary following the consumer's receipt of an educational degree, the creditor may verify that expectation with a written statement from an employer indicating that the consumer will be employed upon graduation at a specified salary.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form W-2.</I> A creditor may verify a consumer's income using a consumer's IRS Form W-2 (or any subsequent revisions or similar IRS Forms used for reporting wages and tax withholding). The creditor may also use an electronic retrieval service for obtaining the consumer's W-2 information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Tax returns.</I> A creditor may verify a consumer's income or assets using the consumer's tax return. A creditor may also use IRS Form 4506 “Request for Copy of Tax Return,” Form 4506-T “Request for Transcript of Tax Return,” or Form 8821 “Tax Information Authorization” (or any subsequent revisions or similar IRS Forms appropriate for obtaining tax return information directly from the IRS) to verify the consumer's income or assets. The creditor may also use an electronic retrieval service for obtaining tax return information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of consumer's income or assets.</I> Creditors may verify income and assets using documents produced by third parties. Creditors may not rely on information provided orally by third parties, but may rely on correspondence from the third party, such as by letter or e-mail. The creditor may rely on any third-party document that provides reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets. For example, creditors may verify the consumer's income using receipts from a check-cashing or remittance service, or by obtaining a written statement from the consumer's employer that states the consumer's income.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Information specific to the consumer.</I> Creditors must verify a consumer's income or assets using information that is specific to the individual consumer. Creditors may use third-party databases that contain individual-specific data about a consumer's income or assets, such as a third-party database service used by the consumer's employer for the purpose of centralizing income verification requests, so long as the information is reasonably current and accurate. Information about average incomes for the consumer's occupation in the consumer's geographic location or information about average incomes paid by the consumer's employer, however, would not be specific to the individual consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Duplicative collection of documentation.</I> A creditor that has made a loan to a consumer and is refinancing or extending new credit to the same consumer need not collect from the consumer a document the creditor previously obtained if the creditor has no information that would reasonably lead the creditor to believe that document has changed since it was initially collected. For example, if the creditor has obtained the consumer's 2006 tax return to make a home purchase loan in May 2007, the creditor may rely on the 2006 tax return if the creditor makes a home equity loan to the same consumer in August 2007. Similarly, if the creditor has obtained the consumer's bank statement for May 2007 in making the first loan, the creditor may rely on that bank statement for that month in making the subsequent loan in August 2007.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>No violation if income or assets relied on not materially greater than verifiable amounts.</I> A creditor that does not verify income or assets used to determine repayment ability with reasonably reliable third-party documents does not violate § 226.34(a)(4)(ii) if the creditor demonstrates that the income or assets it relied upon were not materially greater than the amounts that the creditor would have been able to verify pursuant to § 226.34(a)(4)(ii). For example, if a creditor determines a consumer's repayment ability by relying on the consumer's annual income of $40,000 but fails to obtain documentation of that amount before extending the credit, the creditor will not have violated this section if the creditor later obtains evidence that would satisfy § 226.34(a)(4)(ii)(A), such as tax return information, showing that the creditor could have documented, at the time the loan was consummated, that the consumer had an annual income not materially less than $40,000.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Materially greater than.</I> Amounts of income or assets relied on are not materially greater than amounts that could have been verified at consummation if relying on the verifiable amounts would not have altered a reasonable creditor's decision to extend credit or the terms of the credit.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A credit report may be used to verify current obligations. A credit report, however, might not reflect an obligation that a consumer has listed on an application. The creditor is responsible for considering such an obligation, but the creditor is not required to independently verify the obligation. Similarly, a creditor is responsible for considering certain obligations undertaken just before or at consummation of the transaction and secured by the same dwelling that secures the transaction (for example, a “piggy back” loan), of which the creditor knows, even if not reflected on a credit report. <I>See</I> comment 34(a)(4)-3.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(4)(iii) Presumption of compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor is presumed to have complied with § 226.34(a)(4) if the creditor follows the three underwriting procedures specified in paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii) for verifying repayment ability, determining the payment obligation, and measuring the relationship of obligations to income. The procedures for verifying repayment ability are required under paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii); the other procedures are not required but, if followed along with the required procedures, create a presumption that the creditor has complied with § 226.34(a)(4). The consumer may rebut the presumption with evidence that the creditor nonetheless disregarded repayment ability despite following these procedures. For example, evidence of a very high debt-to-income ratio and a very limited residual income could be sufficient to rebut the presumption, depending on all of the facts and circumstances. If a creditor fails to follow one of the non-required procedures set forth in paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii), then the creditor's compliance is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without there being a presumption of either compliance or violation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determination of payment schedule.</I> To retain a presumption of compliance under § 226.34(a)(4)(iii), a creditor must determine the consumer's ability to pay the principal and interest obligation based on the maximum scheduled payment in the first seven years following consummation. In general, a creditor should determine a payment schedule for purposes of § 226.34(a)(4)(iii)(B) based on the guidance in the staff commentary to § 226.17(c)(1). Examples of how to determine the maximum scheduled payment in the first seven years are provided as follows (all payment amounts are rounded):
</P>
<P>i. <I>Balloon-payment loan; fixed interest rate.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 with a fixed interest rate of 8.0 percent (no points) has a 7-year term but is amortized over 30 years. The monthly payment scheduled for 7 years is $733 with a balloon payment of remaining principal due at the end of 7 years. The creditor will retain the presumption of compliance if it assesses repayment ability based on the payment of $733.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Fixed-rate loan with interest-only payment for five years.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 with a fixed interest rate of 8.0 percent (no points) has a 30-year term. The monthly payment of $667 scheduled for the first 5 years would cover only the interest due. After the fifth year, the scheduled payment would increase to $772, an amount that fully amortizes the principal balance over the remaining 25 years. The creditor will retain the presumption of compliance if it assesses repayment ability based on the payment of $772.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Fixed-rate loan with interest-only payment for seven years.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 with a fixed interest rate of 8.0 percent (no points) has a 30-year term. The monthly payment of $667 scheduled for the first 7 years would cover only the interest due. After the seventh year, the scheduled payment would increase to $793, an amount that fully amortizes the principal balance over the remaining 23 years. The creditor will retain the presumption of compliance if it assesses repayment ability based on the interest-only payment of $667.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Variable-rate loan with discount for five years.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 has a 30-year term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7.0 percent for an initial period of 5 years. Accordingly, the payment scheduled for the first 5 years is $665. The agreement provides that, after 5 years, the interest rate will adjust each year based on a specified index and margin. As of consummation, the sum of the index value and margin (the fully-indexed rate) is 8.0 percent. Accordingly, the payment scheduled for the remaining 25 years is $727. The creditor will retain the presumption of compliance if it assesses repayment ability based on the payment of $727.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Variable-rate loan with discount for seven years.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 has a 30-year term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7.125 percent for an initial period of 7 years. Accordingly, the payment scheduled for the first 7 years is $674. After 7 years, the agreement provides that the interest rate will adjust each year based on a specified index and margin. As of consummation, the sum of the index value and margin (the fully-indexed rate) is 8.0 percent. Accordingly, the payment scheduled for the remaining years is $725. The creditor will retain the presumption of compliance if it assesses repayment ability based on the payment of $674.
</P>
<P>vi. <I>Step-rate loan.</I> A loan in an amount of $100,000 has a 30-year term. The agreement provides that the interest rate will be 5 percent for two years, 6 percent for three years, and 7 percent thereafter. Accordingly, the payment amounts are $537 for two years, $597 for three years, and $654 thereafter. To retain the presumption of compliance, the creditor must assess repayment ability based on the payment of $654.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>“Income” and “debt”.</I> To determine whether to classify particular inflows or obligations as “income” or “debt,” creditors may look to widely accepted governmental and non-governmental underwriting standards, including, for example, those set forth in the Federal Housing Administration's handbook on Mortgage Credit Analysis for Mortgage Insurance on One- to Four-Unit Mortgage Loans.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(4)(iv) Exclusions from the presumption of compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The exclusions from the presumption of compliance should be interpreted consistent with staff comments 32(d)(1)(i)-1 and 32(d)(2)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewable balloon loan.</I> If a creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew a balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control), the full term resulting from such renewal is the relevant term for purposes of the exclusion of certain balloon-payment loans. See comment 17(c)(1)-11 for a discussion of conditions within a consumer's control in connection with renewable balloon-payment loans.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(b) Prohibited acts or practices for dwelling-secured loans; open-end credit.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> Where a loan is documented as open-end credit but the features and terms or other circumstances demonstrate that it does not meet the definition of open-end credit, the loan is subject to the rules for closed-end credit, including § 226.32 if the rate or fee trigger is met. In applying the triggers under § 226.32, the “amount financed,” including the “principal loan amount” must be determined. In making the determination, the amount of credit that would have been extended if the loan had been documented as a closed-end loan is a factual determination to be made in each case. Factors to be considered include the amount of money the consumer originally requested, the amount of the first advance or the highest outstanding balance, or the amount of the credit line. The full amount of the credit line is considered only to the extent that it is reasonable to expect that the consumer might use the full amount of credit. 
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.35—Prohibited Acts or Practices in Connection With Higher-priced Mortgage Loans
</HD2>
<P>35(a) <I>Higher-priced mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> Average prime offer rates are annual percentage rates derived from average interest rates, points, and other loan pricing terms currently offered to consumers by a representative sample of creditors for mortgage transactions that have low-risk pricing characteristics. Other pricing terms include commonly used indices, margins, and initial fixed-rate periods for variable-rate transactions. Relevant pricing characteristics include a consumer's credit history and transaction characteristics such as the loan-to-value ratio, owner-occupant status, and purpose of the transaction. To obtain average prime offer rates, the Board uses a survey of creditors that both meets the criteria of § 226.35(a)(2) and provides pricing terms for at least two types of variable-rate transactions and at least two types of non-variable-rate transactions. An example of such a survey is the Freddie Mac Primary Mortgage Market Survey ®.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Comparable transaction.</I> A higher-priced mortgage loan is a consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the specified margin. The table of average prime offer rates published by the Board indicates how to identify the comparable transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate set.</I> A transaction's annual percentage rate is compared to the average prime offer rate as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set (or “locked”) before consummation. Sometimes a creditor sets the interest rate initially and then re-sets it at a different level before consummation. The creditor should use the last date the interest rate is set before consummation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Board table.</I> The Board publishes on the Internet, in table form, average prime offer rates for a wide variety of transaction types. The Board calculates an annual percentage rate, consistent with Regulation Z (see § 226.22 and appendix J), for each transaction type for which pricing terms are available from a survey. The Board estimates annual percentage rates for other types of transactions for which direct survey data are not available based on the loan pricing terms available in the survey and other information. The Board publishes on the Internet the methodology it uses to arrive at these estimates.
</P>
<P><I>35(b) Rules for higher-priced mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> For guidance on the applicability of the rules in § 226.35(b), see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(ii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment change.</I> Section 226.35(b)(2) provides that a loan subject to this section may not have a penalty described by § 226.32(d)(6) unless certain conditions are met. Section 226.35(b)(2)(ii)(C) lists as a condition that the amount of the periodic payment of principal or interest or both may not change during the four-year period following consummation. For examples showing whether a prepayment penalty is permitted or prohibited in connection with particular payment changes, see comment 32(d)(7)(iv)-1. Those examples, however, include a condition that § 226.35(b)(2) does not include: the condition that, at consummation, the consumer's total monthly debt payments may not exceed 50 percent of the consumer's monthly gross income. For guidance about circumstances in which payment changes are not considered payment changes for purposes of this section, see comment 32(d)(7)(iv)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative amortization.</I> Section 226.32(d)(2) provides that a loan described in § 226.32(a) may not have a payment schedule with regular periodic payments that cause the principal balance to increase. Therefore, the commentary to § 226.32(d)(7)(iv) does not include examples of payment changes in connection with negative amortization. The following examples show whether, under § 226.35(b)(2), prepayment penalties are permitted or prohibited in connection with particular payment changes, when a loan agreement permits negative amortization:
</P>
<P>i. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month and the loan agreement permits negative amortization to occur. Under the loan agreement, the first date that a scheduled payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014 and the creditor does not have the right to change scheduled payments prior to that date even if negative amortization occurs. A prepayment penalty is permitted with this mortgage transaction provided that the other § 226.35(b)(2) conditions are met, that is: provided that the prepayment penalty is permitted by other applicable law, the penalty expires on or before December 31, 2011, and the penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or its affiliate.
</P>
<P>ii. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month and the loan agreement permits negative amortization to occur. Under the loan agreement, the first date that a scheduled payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014, but the creditor has the right to change scheduled payments prior to that date if negative amortization occurs. A prepayment penalty is prohibited with this mortgage transaction because the payment may change within the four-year period following consummation.
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<P><I>35(b)(3) Escrows.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. Section 226.35(b)(3) applies to principal dwellings, including structures that are classified as personal property under state law. For example, an escrow account must be established on a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a first-lien on a mobile home, boat or a trailer used as the consumer's principal dwelling. <I>See</I> the commentary under §§ 226.2(a)(19), 226.2(a)(24), 226.15 and 226.23. Section 226.35(b)(3) also applies to higher-priced mortgage loans secured by a first lien on a condominium or a cooperative unit if it is in fact used as principal residence.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Administration of escrow accounts.</I> Section 226.35(b)(3) requires creditors to establish before the consummation of a loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling an escrow account for payment of property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by creditor. Section 6 of RESPA, 12 U.S.C. 2605, and Regulation X address how escrow accounts must be administered.
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<P>3. <I>Optional insurance items.</I> Section 226.35(b)(3) does not require that escrow accounts be established for premiums for mortgage-related insurance that the creditor does not require in connection with the credit transaction, such as an earthquake insurance or debt-protection insurance.
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<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(3)(ii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limited exception.</I> A creditor is required to escrow for payment of property taxes for all first lien loans secured by condominium units regardless of whether the creditors escrows insurance premiums for condominium unit.
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<P><I>35(b)(3)(v) “Jumbo” loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Special threshold for “jumbo” loans.</I> For purposes of the escrow requirement in § 226.35(b)(3) only, the coverage threshold stated in § 226.35(a)(1) for first-lien loans (1.5 or more percentage points greater than the average prime offer rate) does not apply to a loan with a principal obligation that exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the loan's rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac (“jumbo” loans). The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) establishes and adjusts the maximum principal obligation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1454(a)(2) and other provisions of federal law. Adjustments to the maximum principal obligation made by FHFA apply in determining whether a mortgage loan is a “jumbo” loan to which the separate coverage threshold in § 226.35(b)(3)(v) applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Escrow requirements only.</I> Under § 226.35(b)(3)(v), for “jumbo” loans, the annual percentage rate threshold is 2.5 or more percentage points greater than the average prime offer rate. This threshold applies solely in determining whether a “jumbo” loan is subject to the escrow requirement of § 226.35(b)(3). The determination of whether “jumbo” first-lien loans are subject to the other protections in § 226.35, such as the ability to repay requirements under § 226.35(b)(1) and the restrictions on prepayment penalties under § 226.35(b)(2), is based on the 1.5 percentage point threshold stated in § 226.35(a)(1).
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<HD2>Section 226.36—Prohibited Acts or Practices in Connection with Credit Secured by a Dwelling
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of coverage.</I> Sections 226.36(b) and (c) apply to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. Sections 226.36(d) and (e) apply to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling. Sections 226.36(d) and (e) apply to closed-end loans secured by first or subordinate liens, and reverse mortgages that are not home-equity lines of credit under § 226.5b. <I>See</I> § 226.36(f) for additional restrictions on the scope of this section, and §§ 226.1(c) and 226.3(a) and corresponding commentary for further discussion of extensions of credit subject to Regulation Z.
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<P>2. <I>Mandatory compliance date for §§ 226.36(d) and (e).</I> The final rules on loan originator compensation in § 226.36 apply to transactions for which the creditor receives an application on or after the effective date. For example, assume a mortgage broker takes an application on March 10, 2011, which the creditor receives on March 25, 2011. This transaction is not covered. If, however, the creditor does not receive the application until April 8, 2011, the transaction is covered.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effective date.</I> For guidance on the applicability of the rules in § 226.36, see comment 1(d)(5)-1.
</P>
<P><I>36(a) Loan originator and mortgage broker defined.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of loan originator.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Section 226.36(a) provides that a loan originator is any person who for compensation or other monetary gain arranges, negotiates, or otherwise obtains an extension of consumer credit for another person. Thus, the term “loan originator” includes employees of a creditor as well as employees of a mortgage broker that satisfy this definition. In addition, the definition of loan originator expressly includes any creditor that satisfies the definition of loan originator but makes use of “table funding” by a third party. <I>See</I> comment 36(a)-1.ii below discussing table funding. Although consumers may sometimes arrange, negotiate, or otherwise obtain extensions of consumer credit on their own behalf, in such cases they do not do so for another person or for compensation or other monetary gain, and therefore are not loan originators under this section. (Under § 226.2(a)(22), the term “person” means a natural person or an organization.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Table funding.</I> Table funding occurs when the creditor does not provide the funds for the transaction at consummation out of the creditor's own resources, including drawing on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit, or out of deposits held by the creditor. Accordingly, a table-funded transaction is consummated with the debt obligation initially payable by its terms to one person, but another person provides the funds for the transaction at consummation and receives an immediate assignment of the note, loan contract, or other evidence of the debt obligation. Although § 226.2(a)(17)(i)(B) provides that a person to whom a debt obligation is initially payable on its face generally is a creditor, § 226.36(a)(1) provides that, solely for the purposes of § 226.36, such a person is also considered a loan originator. The creditor is not considered a loan originator unless table funding occurs. For example, if a person closes a loan in its own name but does not fund the loan from its own resources or deposits held by it because it assigns the loan at consummation, it is considered a creditor for purposes of Regulation Z and also a loan originator for purposes of § 226.36. However, if a person closes a loan in its own name and draws on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit to make the loan at consummation, it is considered a creditor, not a loan originator, for purposes of Regulation Z, including § 226.36.
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<P>iii. <I>Servicing.</I> The definition of “loan originator” does not apply to a loan servicer when the servicer modifies an existing loan on behalf of the current owner of the loan. The rule only applies to extensions of consumer credit and does not apply if a modification of an existing obligation's terms does not constitute a refinancing under § 226.20(a).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Meaning of mortgage broker.</I> For purposes of § 226.36, with respect to a particular transaction, the term “mortgage broker” refers to a loan originator who is not an employee of the creditor. Accordingly, the term “mortgage broker” includes companies that engage in the activities described in § 226.36(a) and also includes employees of such companies that engage in these activities. Section 226.36(d) prohibits certain payments to a loan originator. These prohibitions apply to payments made to all loan originators, including payments made to mortgage brokers, and payments made by a company acting as a mortgage broker to its employees who are loan originators.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Meaning of creditor.</I> For purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e), a creditor means a creditor that is not deemed to be a loan originator on the transaction under this section. Thus, a person that closes a loan in its own name (but another person provides the funds for the transaction at consummation and receives an immediate assignment of the note, loan contract, or other evidence of the debt obligation) is deemed a loan originator, not a creditor, for purposes of § 226.36. However, that person is still a creditor for all other purposes of Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Managers and administrative staff.</I> For purposes of § 226.36, managers, administrative staff, and similar individuals who are employed by a creditor or loan originator but do not arrange, negotiate, or otherwise obtain an extension of credit for a consumer, and whose compensation is not based on whether any particular loan is originated, are not loan originators.
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<P><I>36(c) Servicing practices.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Crediting of payments.</I> Under § 226.36(c)(1)(i), a mortgage servicer must credit a payment to a consumer's loan account as of the date of receipt. This does not require that a mortgage servicer post the payment to the consumer's loan account on a particular date; the servicer is only required to credit the payment <I>as of</I> the date of receipt. Accordingly, a servicer that receives a payment on or before its due date (or within any grace period), and does not enter the payment on its books or in its system until after the payment's due date (or expiration of any grace period), does not violate this rule as long as the entry does not result in the imposition of a late charge, additional interest, or similar penalty to the consumer, or in the reporting of negative information to a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payments to be credited.</I> Payments should be credited based on the legal obligation between the creditor and consumer. The legal obligation is determined by applicable state or other law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date of receipt.</I> The “date of receipt” is the date that the payment instrument or other means of payment reaches the mortgage servicer. For example, payment by check is received when the mortgage servicer receives it, not when the funds are collected. If the consumer elects to have payment made by a third-party payor such as a financial institution, through a preauthorized payment or telephone bill-payment arrangement, payment is received when the mortgage servicer receives the third-party payor's check or other transfer medium, such as an electronic fund transfer.
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pyramiding of late fees.</I> The prohibition on pyramiding of late fees in this subsection should be construed consistently with the “credit practices rule” of Regulation AA, 12 CFR 227.15.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable time.</I> The payoff statement must be provided to the consumer, or person acting on behalf of the consumer, within a reasonable time after the request. For example, it would be reasonable under most circumstances to provide the statement within five business days of receipt of a consumer's request. This time frame might be longer, for example, when the servicer is experiencing an unusually high volume of refinancing requests.
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<P>2. <I>Person acting on behalf of the consumer.</I> For purposes of § 226.36(c)(1)(iii), a person acting on behalf of the consumer may include the consumer's representative, such as an attorney representing the individual, a non-profit consumer counseling or similar organization, or a creditor with which the consumer is refinancing and which requires the payoff statement to complete the refinancing. A servicer may take reasonable measures to verify the identity of any person acting on behalf of the consumer and to obtain the consumer's authorization to release information to any such person before the “reasonable time” period begins to run.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment requirements.</I> The servicer may specify reasonable requirements for making payoff requests, such as requiring requests to be in writing and directed to a mailing address, e-mail address or fax number specified by the servicer or orally to a telephone number specified by the servicer, or any other reasonable requirement or method. If the consumer does not follow these requirements, a longer time frame for responding to the request would be reasonable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Accuracy of payoff statements.</I> Payoff statements must be accurate when issued.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment requirements.</I> The servicer may specify reasonable requirements for making payments in writing, such as requiring that payments be accompanied by the account number or payment coupon; setting a cut-off hour for payment to be received, or setting different hours for payment by mail and payments made in person; specifying that only checks or money orders should be sent by mail; specifying that payment is to be made in U.S. dollars; or specifying one particular address for receiving payments, such as a post office box. The servicer may be prohibited, however, from requiring payment solely by preauthorized electronic fund transfer. (<I>See</I> section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693k.)
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<P>2. <I>Payment requirements—limitations.</I> Requirements for making payments must be reasonable; it should not be difficult for most consumers to make conforming payments. For example, it would be reasonable to require a cut-off time of 5 p.m. for receipt of a mailed check at the location specified by the servicer for receipt of such check.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Implied guidelines for payments.</I> In the absence of specified requirements for making payments, payments may be made at any location where the servicer conducts business; any time during the servicer's normal business hours; and by cash, money order, draft, or other similar instrument in properly negotiable form, or by electronic fund transfer if the servicer and consumer have so agreed.
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<P><I>36(d) Prohibited payments to loan originators.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Persons covered.</I> Section 226.36(d) prohibits any person (including the creditor) from paying compensation to a loan originator in connection with a covered credit transaction, if the amount of the payment is based on any of the transaction's terms or conditions. For example, a person that purchases a loan from the creditor may not compensate the loan originator in a manner that violates § 226.36(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage brokers.</I> The payments made by a company acting as a mortgage broker to its employees who are loan originators are subject to the section's prohibitions. For example, a mortgage broker may not pay its employee more for a transaction with a 7 percent interest rate than for a transaction with a 6 percent interest rate.
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<P><I>36(d)(1) Payments based on transaction terms and conditions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compensation.</I> i. <I>General.</I> For purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e), the term “compensation” includes salaries, commissions, and any financial or similar incentive provided to a loan originator that is based on any of the terms or conditions of the loan originator's transactions. See comment 36(d)(1)-3 for examples of types of compensation that are not covered by § 226.36(d) and (e). For example, the term “compensation” includes
</P>
<P>A. An annual or other periodic bonus; or
</P>
<P>B. Awards of merchandise, services, trips, or similar prizes.
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<P>ii. <I>Name of fee.</I> Compensation includes amounts the loan originator retains and is not dependent on the label or name of any fee imposed in connection with the transaction. For example, if a loan originator imposes a “processing fee” in connection with the transaction and retains such fee, it is deemed compensation for purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e), whether the originator expends the time to process the consumer's application or uses the fee for other expenses, such as overhead.
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<P>iii. <I>Amounts for third-party charges.</I> Compensation includes amounts the loan originator retains, but does not include amounts the originator receives as payment for <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable third-party charges, such as title insurance or appraisals. In some cases, amounts received for payment for third-party charges may exceed the actual charge because, for example, the originator cannot determine with accuracy what the actual charge will be before consummation. In such a case, the difference retained by the originator is not deemed compensation if the third-party charge imposed on the consumer was <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable, and also complies with state and other applicable law. On the other hand, if the originator marks up a third-party charge (a practice known as “upcharging”), and the originator retains the difference between the actual charge and the marked-up charge, the amount retained is compensation for purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e). For example
</P>
<P>A. Assume a loan originator charges the consumer a $400 application fee that includes $50 for a credit report and $350 for an appraisal. Assume that $50 is the amount the creditor pays for the credit report. At the time the loan originator imposes the application fee on the consumer, the loan originator is uncertain of the cost of the appraisal because the originator may choose from appraisers that charge between $300 to $350 for appraisals. Later, the cost for the appraisal is determined to be $300 for this consumer's transaction. In this case, the $50 difference between the $400 application fee imposed on the consumer and the actual $350 cost for the credit report and appraisal is not deemed compensation for purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e), even though the $50 is retained by the loan originator.
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<P>B. Using the same example in comment 36(d)(1)-1.iii.A above, the $50 difference would be compensation for purposes of § 226.36(d) and (e) if the appraisers from whom the originator chooses charge fees between $250 and $300.
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<P>2. <I>Examples of compensation that is based on transaction terms or conditions.</I> Section 226.36(d)(1) prohibits loan originator compensation that is based on the terms or conditions of the loan originator's transactions. For example, the rule prohibits compensation to a loan originator for a transaction based on that transaction's interest rate, annual percentage rate, loan-to-value ratio, or the existence of a prepayment penalty. The rule also prohibits compensation based on a factor that is a proxy for a transaction's terms or conditions. For example, a consumer's credit score or similar representation of credit risk, such as the consumer's debt-to-income ratio, is not one of the transaction's terms or conditions. However, if a loan originator's compensation varies in whole or in part with a factor that serves as a proxy for loan terms or conditions, then the originator's compensation is based on a transaction's terms or conditions. To illustrate, assume that consumer A and consumer B receive loans from the same loan originator and the same creditor. Consumer A has a credit score of 650, and consumer B has a credit score of 800. Consumer A's loan has a 7 percent interest rate, and consumer B's loan has a 6
<FR>1/2</FR> percent interest rate because of the consumers' different credit scores. If the creditor pays the loan originator $1,500 in compensation for consumer A's loan and $1,000 in compensation for consumer B's loan because the creditor varies compensation payments in whole or in part with a consumer's credit score, the originator's compensation would be based on the transactions' terms or conditions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of compensation not based on transaction terms or conditions.</I> The following are only illustrative examples of compensation methods that are permissible (unless otherwise prohibited by applicable law), and not an exhaustive list. Compensation is not based on the transaction's terms or conditions if it is based on, for example
</P>
<P>i. The loan originator's overall loan volume (<I>i.e.,</I> total dollar amount of credit extended or total number of loans originated), delivered to the creditor.
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<P>ii. The long-term performance of the originator's loans.
</P>
<P>iii. An hourly rate of pay to compensate the originator for the actual number of hours worked.
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<P>iv. Whether the consumer is an existing customer of the creditor or a new customer.
</P>
<P>v. A payment that is fixed in advance for every loan the originator arranges for the creditor (<I>e.g.,</I> $600 for every loan arranged for the creditor, or $1,000 for the first 1,000 loans arranged and $500 for each additional loan arranged).
</P>
<P>vi. The percentage of applications submitted by the loan originator to the creditor that result in consummated transactions.
</P>
<P>vii. The quality of the loan originator's loan files (<I>e.g.,</I> accuracy and completeness of the loan documentation) submitted to the creditor.
</P>
<P>viii. A legitimate business expense, such as fixed overhead costs.
</P>
<P>ix. Compensation that is based on the amount of credit extended, as permitted by § 226.36(d)(1)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 36(d)(1)-9 discussing compensation based on the amount of credit extended.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor's flexibility in setting loan terms.</I> Section 226.36(d)(1) does not limit a creditor's ability to offer a higher interest rate in a transaction as a means for the consumer to finance the payment of the loan originator's compensation or other costs that the consumer would otherwise be required to pay directly (either in cash or out of the loan proceeds). Thus, a creditor may charge a higher interest rate to a consumer who will pay fewer of the costs of the transaction directly, or it may offer the consumer a lower rate if the consumer pays more of the costs directly. For example, if the consumer pays half of the transaction costs directly, a creditor may charge an interest rate of 6 percent but, if the consumer pays none of the transaction costs directly, the creditor may charge an interest rate of 6.5 percent. Section 226.36(d)(1) also does not limit a creditor from offering or providing different loan terms to the consumer based on the creditor's assessment of the credit and other transactional risks involved. A creditor could also offer different consumers varying interest rates that include a constant interest rate premium to recoup the loan originator's compensation through increased interest paid by the consumer (such as by adding a constant 0.25 percent to the interest rate on each loan).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Effect of modification of loan terms.</I> Under § 226.36(d)(1), a loan originator's compensation may not vary based on any of a credit transaction's terms or conditions. Thus, a creditor and originator may not agree to set the originator's compensation at a certain level and then subsequently lower it in selective cases (such as where the consumer is able to obtain a lower rate from another creditor). When the creditor offers to extend a loan with specified terms and conditions (such as the rate and points), the amount of the originator's compensation for that transaction is not subject to change (increase or decrease) based on whether different loan terms are negotiated. For example, if the creditor agrees to lower the rate that was initially offered, the new offer may not be accompanied by a reduction in the loan originator's compensation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Periodic changes in loan originator compensation and transactions' terms and conditions.</I> This section does not limit a creditor or other person from periodically revising the compensation it agrees to pay a loan originator. However, the revised compensation arrangement must result in payments to the loan originator that do not vary based on the terms or conditions of a credit transaction. A creditor or other person might periodically review factors such as loan performance, transaction volume, as well as current market conditions for originator compensation, and prospectively revise the compensation it agrees to pay to a loan originator. For example, assume that during the first 6 months of the year, a creditor pays $3,000 to a particular loan originator for each loan delivered, regardless of the loan terms or conditions. After considering the volume of business produced by that originator, the creditor could decide that as of July 1, it will pay $3,250 for each loan delivered by that particular originator, regardless of the loan terms or conditions. No violation occurs even if the loans made by the creditor after July 1 generally carry a higher interest rate than loans made before that date, to reflect the higher compensation.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Compensation received directly from the consumer.</I> The prohibition in § 226.36(d)(1) does not apply to transactions in which any loan originator receives compensation directly from the consumer, in which case no other person may provide any compensation to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, in connection with that particular transaction pursuant to § 226.36(d)(2). Payments to a loan originator made out of loan proceeds are considered compensation received directly from the consumer, while payments derived from an increased interest rate are not considered compensation received directly from the consumer. However, points paid on the loan by the consumer to the creditor are not considered payments received directly from the consumer whether they are paid in cash or out of the loan proceeds. That is, if the consumer pays origination points to the creditor and the creditor compensates the loan originator, the loan originator may not also receive compensation directly from the consumer. Compensation includes amounts retained by the loan originator, but does not include amounts the loan originator receives as payment for <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable third-party charges, such as title insurance or appraisals. <I>See</I> comment 36(d)(1)-1.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Record retention.</I> See comment 25(a)-5 for guidance on complying with the record retention requirements of § 226.25(a) as they apply to § 226.36(d)(1).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> A loan originator's compensation may be based on the amount of credit extended, subject to certain conditions. Section 226.36(d)(1) does not prohibit an arrangement under which a loan originator is paid compensation based on a percentage of the amount of credit extended, provided the percentage is fixed and does not vary with the amount of credit extended. However, compensation that is based on a fixed percentage of the amount of credit extended may be subject to a minimum and/or maximum dollar amount, as long as the minimum and maximum dollar amounts do not vary with each credit transaction. For example
</P>
<P>i. A creditor may offer a loan originator 1 percent of the amount of credit extended for all loans the originator arranges for the creditor, but not less than $1,000 or greater than $5,000 for each loan.
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor may <I>not</I> offer a loan originator 1 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans of $300,000 or more, 2 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans between $200,000 and $300,000, and 3 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans of $200,000 or less.
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<P><I>36(d)(2) Payments by persons other than consumer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compensation in connection with a particular transaction.</I> Under § 226.36(d)(2), if any loan originator receives compensation directly from a consumer in a transaction, no other person may provide any compensation to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, in connection with that particular credit transaction. <I>See</I> comment 36(d)(1)-7 discussing compensation received directly from the consumer. The restrictions imposed under § 226.36(d)(2) relate only to payments, such as commissions, that are specific to, and paid solely in connection with, the transaction in which the consumer has paid compensation directly to a loan originator. Thus, payments by a mortgage broker company to an employee in the form of a salary or hourly wage, which is not tied to a specific transaction, do not violate § 226.36(d)(2) even if the consumer directly pays a loan originator a fee in connection with a specific credit transaction. However, if any loan originator receives compensation directly from the consumer in connection with a specific credit transaction, neither the mortgage broker company nor an employee of the mortgage broker company can receive compensation from the creditor in connection with that particular credit transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compensation received directly from a consumer.</I> Under Regulation X, which implements the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA), a yield spread premium paid by a creditor to the loan originator may be characterized on the RESPA disclosures as a “credit” that will be applied to reduce the consumer's settlement charges, including origination fees. A yield spread premium disclosed in this manner is not considered to be received by the loan originator directly from the consumer for purposes of § 226.36(d)(2).
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<P><I>36(d)(3) Affiliates.</I>
</P>
<P>1. For purposes of § 226.36(d), affiliates are treated as a single “person.” The term “affiliate” is defined in § 226.32(b)(2). For example, assume a parent company has two mortgage lending subsidiaries. Under § 226.36(d)(1), subsidiary “A” could not pay a loan originator greater compensation for a loan with an interest rate of 8 percent than it would pay for a loan with an interest rate of 7 percent. If the loan originator may deliver loans to both subsidiaries, they must compensate the loan originator in the same manner. Accordingly, if the loan originator delivers the loan to subsidiary “B” and the interest rate is 8 percent, the originator must receive the same compensation that would have been paid by subsidiary A for a loan with a rate of either 7 or 8 percent.
</P>
<P><I>36(e) Prohibition on steering.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compensation.</I> See comment 36(d)(1)-1 for guidance on compensation that is subject to § 226.36(e).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(e)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Steering.</I> For purposes of § 226.36(e), directing or “steering” a consumer to consummate a particular credit transaction means advising, counseling, or otherwise influencing a consumer to accept that transaction. For such actions to constitute steering, the consumer must actually consummate the transaction in question. Thus, § 226.36(e)(1) does not address the actions of a loan originator if the consumer does not actually obtain a loan through that loan originator.
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<P>2. <I>Prohibited conduct.</I> Under § 226.36(e)(1), a loan originator may not direct or steer a consumer to consummate a transaction based on the fact that the loan originator would increase the amount of compensation that the loan originator would receive for that transaction compared to other transactions, unless the consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest.
</P>
<P>i. In determining whether a consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest, that transaction must be compared to other possible loan offers available through the originator, if any, and for which the consumer was likely to qualify, at the time that transaction was offered to the consumer. Possible loan offers are available through the loan originator if they could be obtained from a creditor with which the loan originator regularly does business. Section 226.36(e)(1) does not require a loan originator to establish a business relationship with any creditor with which the loan originator does not already do business. To be considered a possible loan offer available through the loan originator, an offer need not be extended by the creditor; it need only be an offer that the creditor likely would extend upon receiving an application from the applicant, based on the creditor's current credit standards and its current rate sheets or other similar means of communicating its current credit terms to the loan originator. An originator need not inform the consumer about a potential transaction if the originator makes a good faith determination that the consumer is not likely to qualify for it.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 226.36(e)(1) does not require a loan originator to direct a consumer to the transaction that will result in a creditor paying the least amount of compensation to the originator. However, if the loan originator reviews possible loan offers available from a significant number of the creditors with which the originator regularly does business, and the originator directs the consumer to the transaction that will result in the least amount of creditor-paid compensation for the loan originator, the requirements of § 226.36(e)(1) are deemed to be satisfied. In the case where a loan originator directs the consumer to the transaction that will result in a greater amount of creditor-paid compensation for the loan originator, § 226.36(e)(1) is not violated if the terms and conditions on that transaction compared to the other possible loan offers available through the originator, and for which the consumer likely qualifies, are the same. A loan originator who is an employee of the creditor on a transaction may not obtain compensation that is based on the transaction's terms or conditions pursuant to § 226.36(d)(1), and compliance with that provision by such a loan originator also satisfies the requirements of § 226.36(e)(1) for that transaction with the creditor. However, if a creditor's employee acts as a broker by forwarding a consumer's application to a creditor <I>other than</I> the loan originator's employer, such as when the employer does not offer any loan products for which the consumer would qualify, the loan originator is not an employee of the creditor in that transaction and is subject to § 226.36(e)(1) if the originator is compensated for arranging the loan with the other creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. See the commentary under § 226.36(e)(3) for additional guidance on what constitutes a “significant number of creditors with which a loan originator regularly does business” and guidance on the determination about transactions for which “the consumer likely qualifies.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> Assume a loan originator determines that a consumer likely qualifies for a loan from Creditor A that has a fixed interest rate of 7 percent, but the loan originator directs the consumer to a loan from Creditor B having a rate of 7.5 percent. If the loan originator receives more in compensation from Creditor B than the amount that would have been paid by Creditor A, the prohibition in § 226.36(e) is violated unless the higher-rate loan is in the consumer's interest. For example, a higher-rate loan might be in the consumer's interest if the lower-rate loan has a prepayment penalty, or if the lower-rate loan requires the consumer to pay more in up-front charges that the consumer is unable or unwilling to pay or finance as part of the loan amount.
</P>
<P><I>36(e)(2) Permissible transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbors.</I> A loan originator that satisfies § 226.36(e)(2) is deemed to comply with § 226.36(e)(1). A loan originator that does not satisfy § 226.36(e)(2) is not subject to any presumption regarding the originator's compliance or noncompliance with § 226.36(e)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum number of loan options.</I> To obtain the safe harbor, § 226.36(e)(2) requires that the loan originator present loan options that meet the criteria in § 226.36(e)(3)(i) for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest. As required by § 226.36(e)(3)(ii), the loan originator must have a good faith belief that the options presented are loans for which the consumer likely qualifies. If the loan originator is not able to form such a good faith belief for loan options that meet the criteria in § 226.36(e)(3)(i) for a given type of transaction, the loan originator may satisfy § 226.36(e)(2) by presenting all loans for which the consumer likely qualifies and that meet the other requirements in § 226.36(e)(3) for that given type of transaction. A loan originator may present to the consumer any number of loan options, but presenting a consumer more than four loan options for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest and for which the consumer likely qualifies would not likely help the consumer make a meaningful choice.
</P>
<P><I>36(e)(3) Loan options presented.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Significant number of creditors.</I> A significant number of the creditors with which a loan originator regularly does business is three or more of those creditors. If the loan originator regularly does business with fewer than three creditors, the originator is deemed to comply by obtaining loan options from all the creditors with which it regularly does business. Under § 226.36(e)(3)(i), the loan originator must obtain loan options from a significant number of creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business, but the loan originator need not present loan options from all such creditors to the consumer. For example, if three loans available from one of the creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business satisfy the criteria in § 226.36(e)(3)(i), presenting those and no options from any other creditor satisfies that section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditors with which loan originator regularly does business.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor in § 226.36(e)(2), the loan originator must obtain and review loan options from a significant number of the creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business. For this purpose, a loan originator regularly does business with a creditor if
</P>
<P>i. There is a written agreement between the originator and the creditor governing the originator's submission of mortgage loan applications to the creditor;
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor has extended credit secured by a dwelling to one or more consumers during the current or previous calendar month based on an application submitted by the loan originator; or
</P>
<P>iii. The creditor has extended credit secured by a dwelling twenty-five or more times during the previous twelve calendar months based on applications submitted by the loan originator. For this purpose, the previous twelve calendar months begin with the calendar month that precedes the month in which the loan originator accepted the consumer's application.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lowest interest rate.</I> To qualify under the safe harbor in § 226.36(e)(2), for each type of transaction in which the consumer has expressed an interest, the loan originator must present the consumer with loan options that meet the criteria in § 226.36(e)(3)(i). The criteria are: The loan with the lowest interest rate; the loan with the lowest total dollar amount for discount points and origination points or fees; and a loan with the lowest interest rate without negative amortization, a prepayment penalty, a balloon payment in the first seven years of the loan term, shared equity, or shared appreciation, or, in the case of a reverse mortgage, a loan without a prepayment penalty, shared equity, or shared appreciation. To identify the loan with the lowest interest rate, for any loan that has an initial rate that is fixed for at least five years, the loan originator shall use the initial rate that would be in effect at consummation. For a loan with an initial rate that is not fixed for at least five years
</P>
<P>i. If the interest rate varies based on changes to an index, the originator shall use the fully-indexed rate that would be in effect at consummation without regard to any initial discount or premium.
</P>
<P>ii. For a step-rate loan, the originator shall use the highest rate that would apply during the first five years.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which the consumer likely qualifies.</I> To qualify under the safe harbor in § 226.36(e)(2), the loan originator must have a good faith belief that the loan options presented to the consumer pursuant to § 226.36(e)(3) are transactions for which the consumer likely qualifies. The loan originator's belief that the consumer likely qualifies should be based on information reasonably available to the loan originator at the time the loan options are presented. In making this determination, the loan originator may rely on information provided by the consumer, even if it subsequently is determined to be inaccurate. For purposes of § 226.36(e)(3), a loan originator is not expected to know all aspects of each creditor's underwriting criteria. But pricing or other information that is routinely communicated by creditors to loan originators is considered to be reasonably available to the loan originator, for example, rate sheets showing creditors' current pricing and the required minimum credit score or other eligibility criteria.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.39—Mortgage transfer disclosures.
</HD2>
<P>39(a) Scope.
</P>
<P>Paragraph 39(a)(1).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Covered persons.</I> The disclosure requirements of this section apply to any “covered person” that becomes the legal owner of an existing mortgage loan, whether through a purchase, or other transfer or assignment, regardless of whether the person also meets the definition of a “creditor” in Regulation Z. The fact that a person purchases or acquires mortgage loans and provides the disclosures under this section does not by itself make that person a “creditor” as defined in the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquisition of legal title.</I> To become a “covered person” subject to this section, a person must become the owner of an existing mortgage loan by acquiring legal title to the debt obligation.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Partial interest.</I> A person may become a covered person by acquiring a partial interest in the mortgage loan. If the original creditor transfers a partial interest in the loan to one or more persons, all such transferees are covered persons under this section.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Joint acquisitions.</I> All persons that jointly acquire legal title to the loan are covered persons under this section, and under § 226.39(b)(5), a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all such covered persons. Multiple persons are deemed to jointly acquire legal title to the loan if each acquires a partial interest in the loan pursuant to the same agreement or by otherwise acting in concert. <I>See</I> comments 39(b)(5)-1 and 39(d)(1)(ii)-1 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple persons that jointly acquire a loan.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Affiliates.</I> An acquiring party that is a separate legal entity from the transferor must provide the disclosures required by this section even if the parties are affiliated entities.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exclusions.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Beneficial interest.</I> Section 226.39 does not apply to a party that acquires only a beneficial interest or a security interest in the loan, or to a party that assumes the credit risk without acquiring legal title to the loan. For example, an investor that acquires mortgage-backed securities, pass-through certificates, or participation interests and does not acquire legal title in the underlying mortgage loans is not covered by this section.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Loan servicers.</I> Pursuant to TILA Section 131(f)(2), the servicer of a mortgage loan is not the owner of the obligation for purposes of this section if the servicer holds title to the loan as a result of the assignment of the obligation to the servicer solely for the administrative convenience of the servicer in servicing the obligation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mergers, corporate acquisitions, or reorganizations.</I> Disclosures are required under this section when, as a result of a merger, corporate acquisition, or reorganization, the ownership of a mortgage loan is transferred to a different legal entity.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(a)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage transactions covered.</I> Section 226.39 applies to closed-end or open-end consumer credit transactions secured by the principal dwelling of a consumer.
</P>
<P><I>39(b) Disclosure required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> A covered person must mail or deliver the disclosures required by this section on or before the 30th calendar day following the date of transfer, unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. For example, if a covered person acquires a mortgage loan on March 15, the disclosure must be mailed or delivered on or before April 14.
</P>
<P><I>39(b)(1) Form of disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Combining disclosures.</I> The disclosures under this section can be combined with other materials or disclosures, including the transfer of servicing notices required by the Real Estate Settlement Procedure Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) so long as the combined disclosure satisfies the timing and other requirements of this section.
</P>
<P><I>39(b)(4) Multiple transfers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Single disclosure for multiple transfers.</I> A mortgage loan might be acquired by a covered person and subsequently transferred to another entity that is also a covered person required to provide the disclosures under this section. In such cases, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons instead of providing two separate disclosures if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person. For example, if a covered person acquires a loan on March 15 with the intent to assign the loan to another entity on April 30, the covered person could mail the disclosure on or before April 14 to provide the required information for both entities and indicate when the subsequent transfer is expected to occur.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimating the date.</I> When a covered person provides the disclosure required by this section that also describes a subsequent transfer, the date of the subsequent transfer may be estimated when the exact date is unknown at the time the disclosure is made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the covered person at the time the disclosure is made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the covered person, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. The covered person normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. The covered person might make the disclosure using an estimated date even though the covered person knows that more precise information will be available in the future. For example, a covered person may provide a disclosure on March 31 stating that it acquired the loan on March 15 and that a transfer to another entity is expected to occur “on or around” April 30, even if more precise information will be available by April 14.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Duty to comply.</I> Even though one covered person provides the disclosures for another covered person, each has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P><I>39(b)(5) Multiple covered person.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Single disclosure required.</I> If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons instead of providing separate disclosures. <I>See</I> comment 39(a)(1)-2(ii) regarding a joint acquisition of legal title, and comment 39(d)(1)(ii)-1 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple persons that jointly acquire a loan. If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan and complete the acquisition on separate dates, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all persons on or before the 30th day following the earliest acquisition date. For examples, if covered persons A and B enter into an agreement with the original creditor to jointly acquire the loan, and complete the acquisition on March 15 and March 25, respectively, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of both persons on or before April 14. If the two acquisition dates are more than 30 days apart, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of both persons on or before the 30th day following the earlier acquisition date, even though one person has not completed its acquisition. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-2 regarding use of an estimated date of transfer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Single disclosure not required.</I> If multiple covered persons each acquire a partial interest in the loan pursuant to separate and unrelated agreements and not jointly, each covered person has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. The parties may, but are not required to, provide a single disclosure that satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing requirements.</I> A single disclosure provided on behalf of multiple covered persons must satisfy the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Duty to comply.</I> Even though one covered person provides the disclosures for another covered person, each has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. <I>See</I> comments 39(c)(1)-2, 39(c)(3)-1 and 39(c)(3)-2 regarding transfers of a partial interest in the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>39(c) Exceptions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(c)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transfer of all interest.</I> A covered person is not required to provide the disclosures required by this section if it sells, assigns or otherwise transfers all of its interest in the mortgage loan on or before the 30th calendar day following the date that it acquired the loan. For example, if covered person A acquires the loan on March 15 and subsequently transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person B on April 1, person A is not required to provide the disclosures required by this section. Person B, however, must provide the disclosures required by this section unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfer of partial interests.</I> A covered person that subsequently transfers a partial interest in the loan is required to provide the disclosures required by this section if the covered person retains a partial interest in the loan on the 30th calendar day after it acquired the loan, unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. For example, if covered person A acquires the loan on March 15 and subsequently transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B on April 1, person A is required to provide the disclosures under this section if it retains a partial interest in the loan on April 14. Person B in this example must also provide the disclosures required under this section unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. Either person A or person B could provide the disclosure on behalf of both of them if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each of them. In this example, a single disclosure for both covered persons would have to be provided on or before April 14 to satisfy the timing requirements for person A's acquisition of the loan on March 15. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-1 regarding a single disclosure for multiple transfers.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> The original creditor or owner of the mortgage loan might sell, assign or otherwise transfer legal title to the loan to secure temporary business financing under an agreement that obligates the original creditor or owner to repurchase the loan. The covered person that acquires the loan in connection with such a repurchase agreement is not required to provide disclosures under this section. However, if the transferor does not repurchase the mortgage loan, the acquiring party must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediary parties.</I> The exception in § 226.39(c)(2) applies regardless of whether the repurchase arrangement involves an intermediary party. For example, legal title to the loan may transfer from the original creditor to party A through party B as an intermediary. If the original creditor is obligated to repurchase the loan, neither party A nor party B is required to provide the disclosures under this section. However, if the original creditor does not repurchase the loan, party A must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records unless another exception in § 226.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(c)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acquisition of partial interests.</I> This exception applies if the covered person acquires only a partial interest in the loan, and there is no change in the agent or person authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments. If, as a result of the transfer of a partial interest in the loan, a different agent or party is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments, the disclosures under this section must be provided.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. A covered person is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if it acquires a partial interest in the loan from the original creditor who remains authorized to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments after the transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. The original creditor transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person A. Person A does not provide the disclosures under this section because the exception in § 226.39(c)(3) applies. The creditor then transfers the remaining fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B and does not retain any interest in the loan. Person B must provide the disclosures under this section.
</P>
<P>iii. The original creditor transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person A and also authorizes party X as its agent to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. Since there is a change in an agent or party authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments, person A is required to provide the disclosures under this section. Person A then transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person B. Person B is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if the original creditor retains a partial interest in the loan and party X retains the same authority.
</P>
<P>iv. The original creditor transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person A. Person A provides the disclosures under this section and notifies the consumer that party X is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. Person A then transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B. Person B is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if person A retains a partial interest in the loan and party X retains the same authority.
</P>
<P><I>39(d) Content of required disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identifying the loan.</I> The disclosures required by this section must identify the loan that was acquired or transferred. The covered person has flexibility in determining what information to provide for this purpose and may use any information that would reasonably inform a consumer which loan was acquired or transferred. For example, the covered person may identify the loan by stating
</P>
<P>i. The address of the mortgaged property along with the account number or loan number previously disclosed to the consumer, which may appear in a truncated format;
</P>
<P>ii. The account number alone, or other identifying number, if that number has been previously provided to the consumer, such as on a statement that the consumer receives monthly; or
</P>
<P>iii. The date on which the credit was extended and the original amount of the loan or credit line.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification of covered person.</I> Section 226.39(d)(1) requires a covered person to provide its name, address, and telephone number. The party identified must be the covered person who owns the mortgage loan, regardless of whether another party services the loan or is the covered person's agent. In addition to providing its name, address and telephone number, the covered person may, at its option, provide an address for receiving electronic mail or an internet Web site address, but is not required to do so.
</P>
<HD3>39(d)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple transfers, single disclosure.</I> If a mortgage loan is acquired by a covered person and subsequently transferred to another covered person, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons instead of providing two separate disclosures as long as the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-1 regarding multiple transfers. A single disclosure for multiple transfers must state the name, address, and telephone number of each covered person unless § 226.39(d)(1)(ii) applies.
</P>
<HD3>39(d)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple covered persons, single disclosure.</I> If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons instead of providing separate disclosures. The single disclosure must provide the name, address, and telephone number of each covered person unless § 226.39(d)(1)(ii) applies and one of the covered persons has been authorized in accordance with § 226.39(d)(3) of this section to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. In such cases, the information required by § 226.39(d)(1) may be provided only for that covered person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple covered persons, multiple disclosures.</I> If multiple covered persons each acquire a partial interest in the loan in separate transactions and not jointly, each covered person must comply with the disclosure requirements of this section unless an exception in § 226.39(c) applies. <I>See</I> comment 39(a)(1)-2(ii) regarding a joint acquisition of legal title, and comment 39(b)(5)-2 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple covered persons.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identifying agents.</I> Under § 226.39(d)(3), the covered person must provide the name, address and telephone number for the agent or other party having authority to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. If multiple persons are identified under this paragraph, the disclosure shall provide the name, address and telephone number for each and indicate the extent to which the authority of each person differs. Section 226.39(d)(3) does not require that a covered person designate an agent or other party, but if the consumer cannot contact the covered person for these purposes, the disclosure must provide the name, address and telephone number for an agent or other party that can address these matters. If an agent or other party is authorized to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan, the disclosure can state that the consumer may contact that agent regarding any questions concerning the consumer's account without specifically mentioning rescission or payment issues. However, if multiple agents are listed on the disclosure, the disclosure shall state the extent to which the authority of each agent differs by indicating if only one of the agents is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind, or only one of the agents is authorized to resolve issues concerning payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other contact information.</I> The covered person may also provide an agent's electronic mail address or internet Web site address, but is not required to do so.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(d)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Where recorded.</I> Section 226.39(d)(4) requires the covered person to disclose where transfer of ownership of the debt to the covered person is recorded if it has been recorded in public records. Alternatively, the disclosure can state that the transfer of ownership of the debt has not been recorded in public records at the time the disclosure is provided, if that is the case, or the disclosure can state where the transfer may later be recorded. An exact address is not required and it would be sufficient, for example, to state that the transfer of ownership is recorded in the office of public land records or the recorder of deeds office for the county or local jurisdiction where the property is located.
</P>
<P><I>39(e) Optional disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> Section 226.39(e) provides that covered persons may, at their option, include additional information about the mortgage transaction that they consider relevant or helpful to consumers. For example, the covered person may choose to inform consumers that the location where they should send mortgage payments has not changed. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(1)-1 regarding combined disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.42—Valuation Independence
</HD2>
<P><I>42(a) Scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Open- and closed-end credit.</I> Section 226.42 applies to both open-end and closed-end transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer's principal dwelling.</I> Section 226.42 applies only if the dwelling that will secure a consumer credit transaction is the principal dwelling of the consumer who obtains credit.
</P>
<P><I>42(b) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 42(b)(1</I>).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of covered persons.</I> “Covered persons” include creditors, mortgage brokers, appraisers, appraisal management companies, real estate agents, and other persons that provide “settlement services” as defined under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act and implementing regulations. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 2602(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of persons not covered.</I> The following persons are not “covered persons” (unless, of course, they are creditors with respect to a covered transaction or perform “settlement services” in connection with a covered transaction)
</P>
<P>i. The consumer who obtains credit through a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. A person secondarily liable for a covered transaction, such as a guarantor.
</P>
<P>iii. A person that resides in or will reside in the consumer's principal dwelling but will not be liable on the covered transaction, such as a non-obligor spouse.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 42(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> The term “principal dwelling” has the same meaning under § 226.42(b) as under §§ 226.2(a)(24), 226.15(a), and 226.23(a). <I>See</I> comments 2(a)(24)-3, 15(a)-5, and 23(a)-3.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 42(b)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Valuation.</I> A “valuation” is an estimate of value prepared by a natural person, such as an appraisal report prepared by an appraiser or an estimate of market value prepared by a real estate agent. The term includes photographic or other information included with a written estimate of value. A “valuation” includes an estimate provided or viewed electronically, such as an estimate transmitted via electronic mail or viewed using a computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated model or system.</I> A “valuation” does not include an estimate of value produced exclusively using an automated model or system. However, a “valuation” includes an estimate of value developed by a natural person based in part on an estimate of value produced using an automated model or system.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Estimate.</I> An estimate of the value of the consumer's principal dwelling includes an estimate of a range of values for the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>42(c) Valuation for consumer's principal dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P><I>42(c)(1) Coercion.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law.</I> The terms “coercion,” “extortion,” “inducement,” “bribery,” “intimidation,” “compensation,” “instruction,” and “collusion” have the meanings given to them by applicable state law or contract. <I>See</I> § 226.2(b)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purpose.</I> A covered person does not violate § 226.42(c)(1) if the person does not engage in an act or practice set forth in § 226.42(c)(1) for the purpose of causing the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of a person that prepares valuations. For example, requesting that a person that prepares a valuation take certain actions, such as consider additional, appropriate property information, does not violate § 226.42(c), because such request does not supplant the independent judgment of the person that prepares a valuation. <I>See</I> § 226.42(c)(3)(i). A covered person also may provide incentives, such as additional compensation, to a person that prepares valuations or performs valuation management functions under § 226.42(c)(1), as long as the covered person does not cause or attempt to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the person that prepares valuations.
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<P>3. <I>Person that prepares valuations.</I> For purposes of § 226.42, the term “valuation” includes an estimate of value regardless of whether it is an appraisal prepared by a state-certified or -licensed appraiser. See comment 42(b)(3)-1. A person that prepares valuations may or may not be a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser. Thus a person violates § 226.42(c)(1) by engaging in prohibited acts or practices directed towards any person that prepares or may prepare a valuation of the consumer's principal dwelling for a covered transaction. For example, a person violates § 226.42(c)(1) by seeking to coerce a real estate agent to assign a value to the consumer's principal dwelling based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the real estate agent, in connection with a covered transaction.
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<P>4. <I>Indirect acts or practices.</I> Section 226.42(c)(1) prohibits both direct and indirect attempts to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the person that prepares the valuation, through coercion and certain other acts and practices. For example, a creditor violates § 226.42(c)(1) if the creditor attempts to cause the value an appraiser engaged by an appraisal management company assigns to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the appraiser's independent judgment, by threatening to withhold future business from a title company affiliated with the appraisal management company unless the appraiser assigns a value to the dwelling that meets or exceeds a minimum threshold.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(c)(1)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Applicability of examples.</I> Section 226.42(c)(1)(i) provides examples of coercion of a person that prepares valuations. However, § 226.42(c)(1)(i) also applies to coercion of a person that performs valuation management functions or its affiliate. <I>See</I> § 226.42(c)(1); comment 42(c)(1)-4.
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<P>2. <I>Specific value or predetermined threshold.</I> As used in the examples of actions prohibited under § 226.42(c)(1), a “specific value” and a “predetermined threshold” include a predetermined minimum, maximum, or range of values. Further, although the examples assume a covered person's prohibited actions are designed to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to equal or exceed a certain amount, the rule applies equally to cases where a covered person's prohibited actions are designed to cause the value assigned to the dwelling to be below a certain amount.
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<P><I>42(c)(2) Mischaracterization of value.</I>
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<P><I>42(c)(2)(i) Misrepresentation.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Opinion of value.</I> Section 226.42(c)(2)(i) prohibits a person that performs valuations from misrepresenting the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation. Such person misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling by assigning a value to such dwelling that does not reflect the person's opinion of the value of such dwelling. For example, an appraiser misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling if the appraiser estimates that the value of such dwelling is $250,000 applying the standards required by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Standards but assigns a value of $300,000 to such dwelling in a Uniform Residential Appraisal Report.
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<P><I>42(c)(2)(iii) Inducement of mischaracterization.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Inducement.</I> A covered person may not induce a person to materially misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation or to falsify or alter a valuation. For example, a loan originator may not coerce a loan underwriter to alter an appraisal report to increase the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
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<P><I>42(d) Prohibition on conflicts of interest.</I>
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<P><I>42(d)(1)(i) In general.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Prohibited interest in the property.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions for a covered transaction has a prohibited interest in the property under paragraph (d)(1)(i) if the person has any ownership or reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property. For example, a person who seeks a mortgage to purchase a home has a reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property securing the mortgage, and therefore is not permitted to prepare the valuation or perform valuation management functions for that mortgage transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Prohibited interest in the transaction.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions has a prohibited interest in the transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i) if that person or an affiliate of that person also serves as a loan officer of the creditor, mortgage broker, real estate broker, or other settlement service provider for the transaction and the conditions under paragraph (d)(4) are not satisfied. A person also has a prohibited interest in the transaction if the person is compensated or otherwise receives financial or other benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated. Under these circumstances, the person is not permitted to prepare the valuation or perform valuation management functions for that transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i).
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<P><I>42(d)(1)(ii) Employees and affiliates of creditors; providers of multiple settlement services.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors.</I> In general, a creditor may use employees or affiliates to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions without violating paragraph (d)(1)(i). However, whether an employee or affiliate has a direct or indirect interest in the property or transaction that creates a prohibited conflict of interest under paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on the facts and circumstances of a particular case, including the structure of the employment or affiliate relationship.
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<P>2. <I>Providers of multiple settlement services.</I> In general, a person who prepares a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a covered transaction may perform another settlement service for the same transaction, or the person's affiliate may perform another settlement service, without violating paragraph (d)(1)(i). However, whether the person has a direct or indirect interest in the property or transaction that creates a prohibited conflict of interest under paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on the facts and circumstances of a particular case.
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<P><I>42(d)(2) Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A person who a prepares valuation or performs valuation management functions for a covered transaction and is an employee or affiliate of the creditor will not be deemed to have an interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) on the basis of the employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two years, the creditor may use its own employee or affiliate to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a particular transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(d)(2)(ii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Prohibition on reporting to a person who is part of the creditor's loan production function.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2), the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions may not report to a person who is part of the creditor's loan production function (as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) and comment 42(d)(5)(i)-1). For example, if a person preparing a valuation is directly supervised or managed by a loan officer or other person in the creditor's loan production function, or by a person who is directly supervised or managed by a loan officer, the condition under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<P>2. <I>Prohibition on reporting to a person whose compensation is based on the transaction closing.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2), the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions may not report to a person whose compensation is based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates. For example, assume an appraisal management company performs valuation management functions for a transaction in which the creditor is an affiliate of the appraisal management company. If the employee of the appraisal management company who is in charge of valuation management functions for that transaction is supervised by a person who earns a commission or bonus based on the percentage of closed transactions for which the appraisal management company provides valuation management functions, the condition under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(d)(2)(iii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Direct or indirect involvement in selection of person who prepares a valuation.</I> In any covered transaction, the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2) is available if, among other things, no employee, officer or director in the creditor's loan production function (as defined in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) and comment 42(d)(4)(ii)-1) is directly or indirectly involved in selecting, retaining, recommending or influencing the selection of the person to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions, or to be included in or excluded from a list or panel of approved persons who prepare valuations or perform valuation management functions. For example, if the person who selects the person to prepare the valuation for a covered transaction is supervised by an employee of the creditor who also supervises loan officers, the condition in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) is not met.
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<P><I>42(d)(3) Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions for a covered transaction and is an employee or affiliate of the creditor will not be deemed to have interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) on the basis of the employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years, the creditor may use its own employee or affiliate to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a particular transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<P><I>42(d)(4) Providers of multiple settlement services.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(d)(4)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor in transactions in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the same transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, will not be deemed to have interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction with a creditor that had assets of more than $250 million for the past two years, a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions, or its affiliate, may provide another settlement service for the same transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<P>2. <I>Reporting.</I> The safe harbor under paragraph (d)(4)(i) is available if the condition specified in paragraph (d)(2)(ii), among others, is met. Paragraph (d)(2)(ii) prohibits a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions from reporting to a person whose compensation is based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates. For example, assume an appraisal management company performs both valuation management functions and title services, including providing title insurance, for the same covered transaction. If the appraisal management company employee in charge of valuation management functions for the transaction is supervised by the title insurance agent in the transaction, whose compensation depends in whole or in part on whether title insurance is sold at the loan closing, the condition in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(d)(4)(ii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor in transactions in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the same transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, will not be deemed to have an interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two years, a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions, or its affiliate, may provide other settlement services for the same transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<P><I>42(d)(5) Definitions.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(d)(5)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Loan production function.</I> One condition of the safe harbors under paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(4)(i), involving transactions in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years, is that the person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions must report to a person who is not part of the creditor's “loan production function.” A creditor's “loan production function” includes retail sales staff, loan officers, and any other employee of the creditor with responsibility for taking a loan application, offering or negotiating loan terms or whose compensation is based on loan processing volume. A person is not considered part of a creditor's loan production function solely because part of the person's compensation includes a general bonus not tied to specific transactions or a specific percentage of transactions closing, or a profit sharing plan that benefits all employees. A person solely responsible for credit administration or risk management is also not considered part of a creditor's loan production function. Credit administration and risk management includes, for example, loan underwriting, loan closing functions (<I>e.g.,</I> loan documentation), disbursing funds, collecting mortgage payments and otherwise servicing the loan (<I>e.g.,</I> escrow management and payment of taxes), monitoring loan performance, and foreclosure processing.
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<P><I>42(e) When extension of credit prohibited.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> A creditor will be deemed to have acted with reasonable diligence under § 226.42(e) if the creditor extends credit based on a valuation other than the valuation subject to the restriction in § 226.42(e). A creditor need not obtain a second valuation to document that the creditor has acted with reasonable diligence to determine that the valuation does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling, however. For example, assume an appraiser notifies a creditor before consummation that a loan originator attempted to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the appraiser's independent judgment, through coercion. If the creditor reasonably determines and documents that the appraisal does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling, for purposes of § 226.42(e), the creditor may extend credit based on the appraisal.
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<P><I>42(f) Customary and reasonable compensation.</I>
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<P><I>42(f)(1) Requirement to provide customary and reasonable compensation to fee appraisers.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Agents of the creditor.</I> Whether a person is an agent of the creditor is determined by applicable law; however, a “fee appraiser” as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(i) is not an agent of the creditor for purposes of paragraph (f), and therefore is not required to pay other fee appraisers customary and reasonable compensation under paragraph (f).
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<P>2. <I>Geographic market.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f), the “geographic market of the property being appraised” means the geographic market relevant to compensation levels for appraisal services. Depending on the facts and circumstances, the relevant geographic market may be a state, metropolitan statistical area (MSA), metropolitan division, area outside of an MSA, county, or other geographic area. For example, assume that fee appraisers who normally work only in County A generally accept $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. Assume also that <I>very few or no</I> fee appraisers who work only in contiguous County B will accept a rate comparable to $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. The relevant geographic market for an attached single-family property in County A may reasonably be defined as County A. On the other hand, assume that fee appraisers who normally work only in County A generally accept $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. Assume also that <I>many</I> fee appraisers who normally work only in contiguous County B will accept a rate comparable to $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. The relevant geographic market for an attached single-family property in County A may reasonably be defined to include both County A and County B.
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<P>3. <I>Failure to perform contractual obligations.</I> Paragraph (f)(1) does not prohibit a creditor or its agent from withholding compensation from a fee appraiser for failing to meet contractual obligations, such as failing to provide the appraisal report or violating state or federal appraisal laws in performing the appraisal.
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<P>4. <I>Agreement that fee is “customary and reasonable.”</I> A document signed by a fee appraiser indicating that the appraiser agrees that the fee paid to the appraiser is “customary and reasonable” does not by itself create a presumption of compliance with § 226.42(f) or otherwise satisfy the requirement to pay a fee appraiser at a customary and reasonable rate.
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<P>5. <I>Volume-based discounts.</I> Section 226.42(f)(1) does not prohibit a fee appraiser and a creditor (or its agent) from agreeing to compensation based on transaction volume, so long as the compensation is customary and reasonable. For example, assume that a fee appraiser typically receives $300 for appraisals from creditors with whom it does business; the fee appraiser, however, agrees to reduce the fee to $280 for a particular creditor, in exchange for a minimum number of assignments from the creditor.
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<P><I>42(f)(2) Presumption of compliance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor and its agent are presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if the creditor or its agent meets the conditions specified in paragraph (f)(2) in determining the compensation paid to a fee appraiser. These conditions are not requirements for compliance but, if met, create a presumption that the creditor or its agent has complied with § 226.42(f)(1). A person may rebut this presumption with evidence that the amount of compensation paid to a fee appraiser was not customary and reasonable for reasons unrelated to the conditions in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii). If a creditor or its agent does not meet one of the non-required conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2), the creditor's and its agent's compliance with paragraph (f)(1) is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without a presumption of either compliance or violation.
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<P><I>42(f)(2)(i) Presumption of compliance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Two-step process for determining customary and reasonable rates.</I> Paragraph (f)(2)(i) sets forth a two-step process for a creditor or its agent to determine the amount of compensation that is customary and reasonable in a given transaction. First, the creditor or its agent must identify recent rates paid for comparable appraisal services in the relevant geographic market. Second, once recent rates have been identified, the creditor or its agent must review the factors listed in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A)-(F) and make any appropriate adjustments to the rates to ensure that the amount of compensation is reasonable.
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<P>2. <I>Identifying recent rates.</I> Whether rates may reasonably be considered “recent” depends on the facts and circumstances. Generally, “recent” rates would include rates charged within one year of the creditor's or its agent's reliance on this information to qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2). For purposes of the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2), a creditor or its agent may gather information about recent rates by using a reasonable method that provides information about rates for appraisal services in the geographic market of the relevant property; a creditor or its agent may, but is not required to, use or perform a fee survey.
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<P>3. <I>Accounting for factors.</I> Once recent rates in the relevant geographic market have been identified, the creditor or its agent must review the factors listed in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A)-(F) to determine the appropriate rate for the current transaction. For example, if the recent rates identified by the creditor or its agent were solely for appraisal assignments in which the scope of work required consideration of two comparable properties, but the current transaction required an appraisal that considered three comparable properties, the creditor or its agent might reasonably adjust the rate by an amount that accounts for the increased scope of work, in addition to making any other appropriate adjustments based on the remaining factors.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(A).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Type of property.</I> The type of property may include, for example, detached or attached single-family property, condominium or cooperative unit, or manufactured home.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(B).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Scope of work.</I> The scope of work may include, for example, the type of inspection (such as exterior only or both interior and exterior) or number of comparables required for the appraisal.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(D).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser qualifications.</I> The fee appraiser qualifications may include, for example, a state license or certification in accordance with the minimum criteria issued by the Appraisal Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation, or completion of continuing education courses on effective appraisal methods and related topics.
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<P>2. <I>Membership in professional appraisal organization.</I> Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(D) does not override state or federal laws prohibiting the exclusion of an appraiser from consideration for an assignment solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization. <I>See, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 225.66(a).
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(E).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser experience and professional record.</I> The fee appraiser's level of experience may include, for example, the fee appraiser's years of service as a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser, or years of service appraising properties in a particular geographical area or of a particular type. The fee appraiser's professional record may include, for example, whether the fee appraiser has a past record of suspensions, disqualifications, debarments, or judgments for waste, fraud, abuse or breach of legal or professional standards.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(F).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser work quality.</I> The fee appraiser's work quality may include, for example, the past quality of appraisals performed by the appraiser based on the written performance and review criteria of the creditor or agent of the creditor.
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<P><I>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(ii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Restraining trade.</I> Under § 226.42(f)(2)(ii)(A), creditor or its agent would not qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2) if it engaged in any acts to restrain trade such as entering into a price fixing or market allocation agreement that affect the compensation of fee appraisers. For example, if appraisal management company A and appraisal management company B agreed to compensate fee appraisers at no more than a specific rate or range of rates, neither appraisal management company would qualify for the presumption of compliance. Likewise, if appraisal management company A and appraisal management company B agreed that appraisal management company A would limit its business to a certain portion of the relevant geographic market and appraisal management company B would limit its business to a different portion of the relevant geographic market, and as a result each appraisal management company unilaterally set the fees paid to fee appraisers in their respective portions of the market, neither appraisal management company would qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2).
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<P>2. <I>Acts of monopolization.</I> Under § 226.42(f)(2)(ii)(B), a creditor or its agent would not qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2) if it engaged in any act of monopolization such as restricting entry into the relevant geographic market or causing any person to leave the relevant geographic market, resulting in anticompetitive effects that affect the compensation paid to fee appraisers. For example, if only one appraisal management company exists or is predominant in a particular market area, that appraisal management company might not qualify for the presumption of compliance if it entered into exclusivity agreements with all creditors in the market or all fee appraisers in the market, such that other appraisal management companies had to leave or could not enter the market. Whether this behavior would be considered an anticompetitive act that affects the compensation paid to fee appraisers depends on all of the facts and circumstances, including applicable law.
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<P><I>42(f)(3) Alternative presumption of compliance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor and its agent are presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if the creditor or its agent determine the compensation paid to a fee appraiser based on information about customary and reasonable rates that satisfies the conditions in paragraph (f)(3) for that information. Reliance on information satisfying the conditions in paragraph (f)(3) is not a requirement for compliance with paragraph (f)(1), but creates a presumption that the creditor or its agent has complied. A person may rebut this presumption with evidence that the rate of compensation paid to a fee appraiser by the creditor or its agent is not customary and reasonable based on facts or information other than third-party information satisfying the conditions of this paragraph (f)(3). If a creditor or its agent does not rely on information that meets the conditions in paragraph (f)(3), the creditor's and its agent's compliance with paragraph (f)(1) is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without a presumption of either compliance or violation.
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<P>2. <I>Geographic market.</I> The meaning of “geographic market” for purposes of paragraph (f) is explained in comment (f)(1)-1.
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<P>3. <I>Recent rates.</I> Whether rates may reasonably be considered “recent” depends on the facts and circumstances. Generally, “recent” rates would include rates charged within one year of the creditor's or its agent's reliance on this information to qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(3).
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<P><I>42(f)(4) Definitions.</I>
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<P><I>42(f)(4)(i) Fee appraiser.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Organization.</I> The term “organization” in paragraph 42(d)(4)(i)(B) includes a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, or other business entity and does not include a natural person.
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<P><I>42(g) Mandatory reporting.</I>
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<P><I>42(g)(1) Reporting required.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable basis.</I> A person reasonably believes that an appraiser has materially failed to comply with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) established by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(9)) or ethical or professional requirements for appraisers under applicable state or federal statutes or regulations if the person possesses knowledge or information that would lead a reasonable person in the same circumstances to conclude that the appraiser has materially failed to comply with USPAP or such statutory or regulatory requirements.
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<P>2. <I>Material failure to comply.</I> For purposes of § 226.42(g)(1), a material failure to comply is one that is likely to affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling. The following are examples of a material failure to comply with USPAP or ethical or professional requirements
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<P>i. Mischaracterizing the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in violation of § 226.42(c)(2)(i).
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<P>ii. Performing an assignment in a grossly negligent manner, in violation of a rule under USPAP.
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<P>iii. Accepting an appraisal assignment on the condition that the appraiser will report a value equal to or greater than the purchase price for the consumer's principal dwelling, in violation of a rule under USPAP.
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<P>3. <I>Other matters.</I> Section 226.42(g)(1) does not require reporting of a matter that is not material under § 226.42(g)(1), for example
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<P>i. An appraiser's disclosure of confidential information in violation of applicable state law.
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<P>ii. An appraiser's failure to maintain errors and omissions insurance in violation of applicable state law.
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<P>4. <I>Examples of covered persons.</I> “Covered persons” include creditors, mortgage brokers, appraisers, appraisal management companies, real estate agents, and other persons that provide “settlement services” as defined under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act and implementing regulations. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 2602(3); § 226.42(b)(1).
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<P>5. <I>Examples of persons not covered.</I> The following persons are not “covered persons” (unless, of course, they are creditors with respect to a covered transaction or perform “settlement services” in connection with a covered transaction)
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<P>i. The consumer who obtains credit through a covered transaction.
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<P>ii. A person secondarily liable for a covered transaction, such as a guarantor.
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<P>iii. A person that resides in or will reside in the consumer's principal dwelling but will not be liable on the covered transaction, such as a non-obligor spouse.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Appraiser.</I> For purposes of § 226.42(g)(1), an “appraiser” is a natural person who provides opinions of the value of dwellings and is required to be licensed or certified under the laws of the state in which the consumer's principal dwelling is located or otherwise is subject to the jurisdiction of the appraiser certifying and licensing agency for that state. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 3350(1).


</P>
<HD2>Section 226.43—Appraisals for Higher-Risk Mortgage Loans
</HD2>
<P><I>43(a) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(a)(1) Certified or licensed appraiser.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>USPAP.</I> The Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) are established by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(9)). Under § 226.43(a)(1), the relevant USPAP standards are those found in the edition of USPAP in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> The appraiser's certification refers to the certification that must be signed by the appraiser for each appraisal assignment. This requirement is specified in USPAP Standards Rule 2-3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>FIRREA title XI and implementing regulations.</I> The relevant regulations are those prescribed under section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA), as amended (12 U.S.C. 3339), that relate to an appraiser's development and reporting of the appraisal in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification. Paragraph (3) of FIRREA section 1110 (12 U.S.C. 3339(3)), which relates to the review of appraisals, is not relevant for determining whether an appraiser is a certified or licensed appraiser under § 226.43(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>43(a)(3) Higher-priced mortgage loan.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> The term “principal dwelling” has the same meaning under § 226.43(a)(3) as under 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(24). <I>See</I> the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z (Supplement I to Part 1026), comment 2(a)(24)-3.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> For guidance on average prime offer rates, see the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comments 35(a)(2)-1 and -3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Comparable transaction.</I> For guidance on determining the average prime offer rate for comparable transactions, see the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comments 35(a)(1)-1 and 35(a)(2)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rate set.</I> For guidance on the date the annual percentage rate is set, see the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 35(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Threshold for “jumbo” loans.</I> For guidance on determining whether a transaction's principal balance exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac, see the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 35(a)(1)-3.
</P>
<P><I>43(b) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compliance with title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA).</I> Section 226.43(b) provides exemptions solely from the requirements of § 226.43(c) through (f). Institutions subject to the requirements of FIRREA and its implementing regulations that make a loan qualifying for an exemption under § 226.43(b) must still comply with appraisal and evaluation requirements under FIRREA and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(1)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Qualified mortgage criteria.</I> Under § 226.43(b)(1), a loan is exempt from the appraisal requirements of § 226.43 if either:
</P>
<P>i. The loan is—(1) subject to the ability-to-repay requirements of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) in 12 CFR 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in 12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1)) and (2) a qualified mortgage pursuant to the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), or Rural Housing Service (RHS), a qualified mortgage pursuant to applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's definition of a qualified mortgage applies to those loans); or
</P>
<P>ii. The loan is—(1) not subject to the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in 12 CFR 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in 12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1)), but (2) meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). To explain further, loans enumerated in 12 CFR 1026.43(a) are not “covered transactions” under the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in 12 CFR 1026.43, and thus cannot be qualified mortgages (entitled to a rebuttable presumption or safe harbor of compliance with the ability-to-repay requirements of 12 CFR 1026.43, <I>see, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(1)). These include an extension of credit made pursuant to a program administered by a Housing Finance Agency, as defined under 24 CFR 266.5, or pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (vi). They also include extensions of credit made by a creditor identified in 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(v). However, these loans are eligible for the exemption in § 226.43(b)(1) if they meet the Bureau's qualified mortgage criteria in § 1026.43(e)(2), (4), (5), or (6) or § 1026.43(f) (including limits on when loans must be consummated) or, for loans that are insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, in applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). For example, assume that HUD has prescribed rules to define loans insured under its programs that are qualified mortgages and those rules are in effect. Assume further that a creditor designated as a Community Development Financial Institution, as defined under 12 CFR 1805.104(h), originates a loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration, which is a part of HUD. The loan is not a “covered transaction” and thus is not a qualified mortgage. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(A) and (b)(1). Nonetheless, the transaction is eligible for an exemption from the appraisal requirements of § 226.43 if it meets the qualified mortgage criteria in HUD's rules. Nothing in § 226.43(b)(1) alters the definition of a qualified mortgage under regulations of the Bureau, HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS.


</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(2)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Threshold amount.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(b)(2), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in comment 43(b)(2)-3 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 43(b)(2)-3 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(b)(2), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $26,000.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $26,700.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $28,500.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $31,000.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $32,400.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $33,500.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $34,200.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Qualifying for exemption—in general.</I> A transaction is exempt under § 226.43(b)(2) if the creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that is equal to or below the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Qualifying for exemption—subsequent changes.</I> A transaction does not meet the condition for an exemption under § 226.43(b)(2) merely because it is used to satisfy and replace an existing exempt loan unless the amount of the new extension of credit is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount. For example, assume a closed-end loan that qualified for a § 226.43(b)(2) exemption at consummation in year one is refinanced in year ten and that the new loan amount is greater than the threshold amount in effect in year ten. In these circumstances, the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 226.43 with respect to the year ten transaction if the original loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan unless another exemption from the requirements of § 226.43 applies. <I>See</I> § 226.43(b) and (d)(7).


</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(3)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a mobile home.</I> For purposes of the exemption in § 226.43(b)(3), a mobile home does not include a manufactured home, as defined in § 226.43(a)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(4)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Construction-to-permanent loans.</I> Section 226.43 does not apply to a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. This exclusion applies to a construction-only loan as well as to the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan. Section 226.43 does apply, however, to permanent financing that replaces a construction loan, whether the permanent financing is extended by the same or a different creditor, unless the permanent financing is otherwise exempt from the requirements of § 226.43. <I>See</I> § 226.43(b). When a construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the general disclosure requirements for closed-end credit pursuant to Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.17) provide that the creditor may give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) and the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 17(c)(6)-2. Which disclosure option a creditor elects under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) does not affect the determination of whether the permanent phase of the transaction is subject to § 226.43. When the creditor discloses the two phases as separate transactions, the annual percentage rate for the permanent phase must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 226.43. When the creditor discloses the two phases as a single transaction, a single annual percentage rate, reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases, must be calculated for the transaction in accordance with § 226.43(a)(3) and appendix D to 12 CFR part 1026. The annual percentage rate must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 226.43. If the transaction is determined to be a higher-priced mortgage loan not otherwise exempt under § 226.43(b), only the permanent phase is subject to the requirements of § 226.43.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Financing initial construction.</I> The exemption for construction loans in § 226.43(b)(4) applies to temporary financing of the construction of a dwelling that will be replaced by permanent financing once construction is complete. The exemption does not apply, for example, to loans to finance the purchase of manufactured homes that have not been or are in the process of being built when the financing obtained by the consumer at that time is permanent. <I>See</I> § 226.43(b)(8).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(7)(i)(A)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Same credit risk holder.</I> The requirement that the holder of the credit risk on the existing obligation and the refinancing be the same applies to situations in which an entity bears the financial responsibility for the default of a loan by either holding the loan in its portfolio or guaranteeing payments of principal and any interest to investors in a mortgage-backed security in which the loan is pooled. <I>See</I> § 226.43(a)(4) (defining “credit risk”). For example, a credit risk holder could be a bank that bears the credit risk on the existing obligation by holding the loan in the bank's portfolio. Another example of a credit risk holder would be a government-sponsored enterprise that bears the risk of default on a loan by guaranteeing the payment of principal and any interest on a loan to investors in a mortgage-backed security. The holder of credit risk under § 226.43(b)(7)(i)(A) does not mean individual investors in a mortgage-backed security or providers of private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Same credit risk holder—illustrations.</I>
</P>
<P>Illustrations of the credit risk holder of the existing obligation continuing to be the credit risk holder of the refinancing include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a bank, thus the bank holds the credit risk. The bank arranges to refinance the loan and also will hold the refinancing in its portfolio. If the refinancing otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 226.43(b)(7), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the bank arranged to refinance the loan directly or indirectly, such as through the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation.
</P>
<P>ii. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a government-sponsored enterprise (GSE), thus the GSE holds the credit risk. The existing obligation is then refinanced by the servicer of the loan and immediately transferred to the GSE. The GSE pools the refinancing in a mortgage-backed security guaranteed by the GSE, thus the GSE holds the credit risk on the refinance loan. If the refinance transaction otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 226.43(b)(7), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the existing obligation was refinanced by the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation (acting as a “creditor” under § 1026.2(a)(17)) or by a different creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be sold or otherwise transferred pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the transaction is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” A refinance loan does not satisfy the requirement of § 226.43(b)(7)(i)(A) if the loan will be acquired pursuant to a forward commitment, such that the credit risk on the refinance loan will transfer to a person who did not hold the credit risk on the existing obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(7)</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(7)(ii)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> Under § 226.43(b)(7)(ii), the regular periodic payments on the refinance loan must not: result in an increase of the principal balance (negative amortization); allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal (<I>see</I> 12 CFR 1026.43 and the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 43(e)(2)(i)-2); or result in a balloon payment. Thus, the terms of the legal obligation must require the consumer to make payments of principal and interest on a monthly or other periodic basis that will repay the loan amount over the loan term. Except for payments resulting from any interest rate changes after consummation in an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage, the periodic payments must be substantially equal. For an explanation of the term “substantially equal,” see 12 CFR 1026.43 and the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. In addition, a single-payment transaction is not a refinancing meeting the requirements of § 226.43(b)(7) because it does not require “regular periodic payments.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(7)(iii)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permissible use of proceeds.</I> The exemption for a refinancing under § 226.43(b)(7) is available only if the proceeds from the refinancing are used exclusively for the existing obligation and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. The existing obligation includes the unpaid principal balance of the existing first lien loan, any earned unpaid finance charges, and any other lawful charges related to the existing loan. For guidance on the meaning of refinancing costs, see 12 CFR 1026.23, the Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulations Z, comment 23(f)-4. If the proceeds of a refinancing are used for other purposes, such as to pay off other liens or to provide additional cash to the consumer for discretionary spending, the transaction does not qualify for the exemption for a refinancing under § 226.43(b)(7) from the appraisal requirements in § 226.43.
</P>
<P>For applications received on or after July 18, 2015
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(b)(8)
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(b)(8)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by new manufactured home and land—physical visit of the interior.</I> A transaction secured by a new manufactured home and land is subject to the requirements of § 226.43(c) through (f) except for the requirement in § 226.43(c)(1) that the appraiser conduct a physical inspection of the interior of the property. Thus, for example, a creditor of a loan secured by a new manufactured home and land could comply with § 226.43(c)(1) by obtaining an appraisal conducted by a state-certified or -licensed appraiser based on plans and specifications for the new manufactured home and an inspection of the land on which the property will be sited, as well as any other information necessary for the appraiser to complete the appraisal assignment in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements of FIRREA and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(b)(8)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a manufactured home and not land.</I> Section 226.43(b)(8)(ii) applies to a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a manufactured home and not land, regardless of whether the home is titled as realty by operation of State law.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(b)(8)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Independent.</I> A cost service provider from which the creditor obtains a manufactured home unit cost estimate under § 226.43(b)(8)(ii)(B) is “independent” if that person is not affiliated with the creditor in the transaction, such as by common corporate ownership, and receives no direct or indirect financial benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustments.</I> The requirement that the cost estimate be from an independent cost service provider does not prohibit a creditor from providing a cost estimate that reflects adjustments to account for factors such as special features, condition or location. However, the requirement that the estimate be obtained from an independent cost service provider means that any adjustments to the estimate must be based on adjustment factors available as part of the independent cost service used, with associated values that are determined by the independent cost service.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(b)(8)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Interest in the property.</I> A person has a direct or indirect in the property if, for example, the person has any ownership or reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the manufactured home. To illustrate, a person who seeks a loan to purchase the manufactured home to be valued has a reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest in the transaction.</I> A person has a direct or indirect interest in the transaction if, for example, the person or an affiliate of that person also serves as a loan officer of the creditor or otherwise arranges the credit transaction, or is the retail dealer of the manufactured home. A person also has a prohibited interest in the transaction if the person is compensated or otherwise receives financial or other benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Training in valuing manufactured homes.</I> Training in valuing manufactured homes includes, for example, successfully completing a course in valuing manufactured homes offered by a State or national appraiser association or receiving job training from an employer in the business of valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manufactured home valuation—example.</I> A valuation in compliance with § 226.43(b)(8)(ii)(C) would include, for example, an appraisal of the manufactured home in accordance with the appraisal requirements for a manufactured home classified as personal property under the Title I Manufactured Home Loan Insurance Program of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, pursuant to section 2(b)(10) of the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1703(b)(10).
</P>
<P><I>43(c) Appraisals required.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(c)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written appraisal—electronic transmission.</I> To satisfy the requirement that the appraisal be “written,” a creditor may obtain the appraisal in paper form or via electronic transmission.
</P>
<P><I>43(c)(2) Safe harbor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor that satisfies the safe harbor conditions in § 226.43(c)(2)(i) through (iv) complies with the appraisal requirements of § 226.43(c)(1). A creditor that does not satisfy the safe harbor conditions in § 226.43(c)(2)(i) through (iv) does not necessarily violate the appraisal requirements of § 226.43(c)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(c)(2), the appraiser's certification refers to the certification specified in item 9 of appendix N. <I>See also</I> comment 43(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Confirming elements in the appraisal.</I> To confirm that the elements in appendix N to this part are included in the written appraisal, a creditor need not look beyond the face of the written appraisal and the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P><I>43(d) Additional appraisal for certain higher-priced mortgage loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acquisition.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(d), the terms “acquisition” and “acquire” refer to the acquisition of legal title to the property pursuant to applicable State law, including by purchase.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Appraisal from a previous transaction.</I> An appraisal that was previously obtained in connection with the seller's acquisition or the financing of the seller's acquisition of the property does not satisfy the requirements to obtain two written appraisals under § 226.43(d)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>90-day, 180-day calculation.</I> The time periods described in § 226.43(d)(1)(i) and (ii) are calculated by counting the day after the date on which the seller acquired the property, up to and including the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property that secures the transaction. For example, assume that the creditor determines that date of the consumer's acquisition agreement is October 15, 2012, and that the seller acquired the property on April 17, 2012. The first day to be counted in the 180-day calculation would be April 18, 2012, and the last day would be October 15, 2012. In this case, the number of days from April 17 would be 181, so an additional appraisal is not required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date seller acquired the property.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(d)(1)(i) and (ii), the date on which the seller acquired the property is the date on which the seller became the legal owner of the property pursuant to applicable State law.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.</I> For the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property under § 226.43(d)(1)(i) and (ii), the creditor should use the date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement provided to the creditor by the consumer. The date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement might not be the date on which the consumer became contractually obligated under State law to acquire the property. For purposes of § 226.43(d)(1)(i) and (ii), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. If the dates on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement differ, the creditor should use the later of the two dates.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Price at which the seller acquired the property.</I> The price at which the seller acquired the property refers to the amount paid by the seller to acquire the property. The price at which the seller acquired the property does not include the cost of financing the property.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.</I> The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property is the price indicated on the consumer's agreement with the seller to acquire the property. The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property from the seller does not include the cost of financing the property. For purposes of § 226.43(d)(1)(i) and (ii), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. <I>See also</I> comment 43(d)(1)-4.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(2) Different certified or licensed appraisers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Independent appraisers.</I> The requirements that a creditor obtain two separate appraisals under § 226.43(d)(1), and that each appraisal be conducted by a different licensed or certified appraiser under § 226.43(d)(2), indicate that the two appraisals must be conducted independently of each other. If the two certified or licensed appraisers are affiliated, such as by being employed by the same appraisal firm, then whether they have conducted the appraisal independently of each other must be determined based on the facts and circumstances of the particular case known to the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(3) Relationship to general appraisal requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> When a creditor is required to obtain an additional appraisal under § 226(d)(1), the creditor must comply with the requirements of both § 226.43(c)(1) and § 226.43(d)(2) through (5) for that appraisal. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 226.43(c)(1) for the additional appraisal if the creditor meets the safe harbor conditions in § 226.43(c)(2) for that appraisal.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(4) Required analysis in the additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining acquisition dates and prices used in the analysis of the additional appraisal.</I> For guidance on identifying the date on which the seller acquired the property, see comment 43(d)(1)-3. For guidance on identifying the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property, see comment 43(d)(1)-4. For guidance on identifying the price at which the seller acquired the property, see comment 43(d)(1)-5. For guidance on identifying the price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, see comment 43(d)(1)-6.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(5) No charge for additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for the performance of one of the two appraisals required under § 226.43(d)(1), including by imposing a fee specifically for that appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(6) Creditor's determination of prior sale date and price.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(6)(i) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated sales price.</I> If a written source document describes the seller's acquisition price in a manner that indicates that the price described is an estimated or assumed amount and not the actual price, the creditor should look at an alternative document to satisfy the reasonable diligence standard in determining the price at which the seller acquired the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable diligence—oral statements insufficient.</I> Reliance on oral statements of interested parties, such as the consumer, seller, or mortgage broker, does not constitute reasonable diligence under § 226.43(d)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lack of information and conflicting information—two appraisals required.</I> If a creditor is unable to demonstrate that the requirement to obtain two appraisals under § 226.43(d)(1) does not apply, the creditor must obtain two written appraisals before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the requirements of § 226.43. <I>See also</I> comment 43(d)(6)(ii)-1. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a creditor orders and reviews the results of a title search, which shows that a prior sale occurred between 91 and 180 days ago, but not the price paid in that sale. Thus, based on the title search, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the price the consumer is obligated to pay under the consumer's acquisition agreement is more than 20 percent higher than the seller's acquisition price, pursuant to § 226.43(d)(1)(ii). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 226.43, the creditor must either: perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition price and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 226.43(d). <I>See also</I> comment 43(d)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a creditor reviews the results of a title search indicating that the last recorded purchase was more than 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. Assume also that the creditor subsequently receives a written appraisal indicating that the seller acquired the property between 91 and 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. In this case, unless one of these sources is clearly wrong on its face, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the seller acquired the property within 180 days of the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller, pursuant to § 226.43(d)(1)(ii). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 226.43, the creditor must either: (1) Perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition date and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or (2) obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 226.43(d). <I>See also</I> comment 43(d)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(6)(ii) Inability to determine prior sales date or price—modified requirements for additional appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Required analysis.</I> In general, the additional appraisal required under § 226.43(d)(1) should include an analysis of the factors listed in § 226.43(d)(4)(i) through (iii). However, if, following reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in § 226.43(d)(1)(i) or (ii) are present due to a lack of information or conflicting information, the required additional appraisal must include the analyses required under § 226.43(d)(4)(i) through (iii) only to the extent that the information necessary to perform the analyses is known. For example, assume that a creditor is able, following reasonable diligence, to determine that the date on which the seller acquired the property occurred between 91 and 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is unable, following reasonable diligence, to determine the price at which the seller acquired the property. In this case, the creditor is required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes an analysis under § 226.43(d)(4)(ii) and (iii) of the changes in market conditions and any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is not required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes analysis under § 226.43(d)(4)(i) of the difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(7) Exemptions from the additional appraisal requirement.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(7)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-profit entity.</I> For purposes of § 226.43(d)(7)(iii), a “non-profit entity” is a person with a tax exemption ruling or determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (12 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(7)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bureau table of rural counties.</I> The Bureau publishes on its Web site a table of rural counties under § 226.43(d)(7)(viii) for each calendar year by the end of the calendar year. <I>See</I> Official Staff Interpretations to the Bureau's Regulation Z, comment 35(b)(2)(iv)-1. A property securing an HPML subject to § 226.43 is in a rural county under § 226.43(d)(7)(viii) if the county in which the property is located is on the table of rural counties most recently published by the Bureau. For example, for a transaction occurring in 2015, assume that the Bureau most recently published a table of rural counties at the end of 2014. The property securing the transaction would be located in a rural county for purposes of § 226.43(d)(7)(viii) if the county is on the table of rural counties published by the Bureau at the end of 2014.
</P>
<P><I>43(e) Required disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(e)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the disclosure to only one of the consumers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraisal independence requirements not affected.</I> Nothing in the text of the consumer notice required by § 226.43(e)(1) should be construed to affect, modify, limit, or supersede the operation of any legal, regulatory, or other requirements or standards relating to independence in the conduct of appraisers or restrictions on the use of borrower-ordered appraisals by creditors.
</P>
<P><I>43(f) Copy of appraisals.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(f)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the copy of each required appraisal to only one of the consumers.
</P>
<P><I>43(f)(2) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>“Provide.”</I> For purposes of the requirement to provide a copy of the appraisal within a specified time under § 226.43(f)(2), “provide” means “deliver.” Delivery occurs three business days after mailing or delivering the copies to the last-known address of the applicant, or when evidence indicates actual receipt by the applicant (which, in the case of electronic receipt, must be based upon consent that complies with the E-Sign Act), whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No waiver.</I> Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(1), allowing the consumer to waive the requirement that the appraisal copy be provided three business days before consummation, does not apply to higher-priced mortgage loans subject to § 226.43. A consumer of a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to § 226.43 may not waive the timing requirement to receive a copy of the appraisal under § 226.43(f)(2).
</P>
<P><I>43(f)(4) No charge for copy of appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for any copy of an appraisal required to be provided under § 226.43(f)(1), including by imposing a fee specifically for a required copy of an appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart F—Special Rules for Private Education Loans
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 226.46—Special Disclosure Requirements for Private Education Loans
</HD2>
<HD2>46(a) Coverage
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This subpart applies to all private education loans as defined in § 226.46(b)(5). Coverage under this subpart is optional for certain extensions of credit that do not meet the definition of “private education loan” because the credit is not extended, in whole or in part, for “postsecondary educational expenses” defined in § 226.46(b)(3). If a transaction is not covered and a creditor opts to comply with any section of this subpart, the creditor must comply with all applicable sections of this subpart. If a transaction is not covered and a creditor opts not to comply with this subpart, the creditor must comply with all applicable requirements under §§ 226.17 and 226.18. Compliance with this subpart is optional for an extension of credit for expenses incurred after graduation from a law, medical, dental, veterinary, or other graduate school and related to relocation, study for a bar or other examination, participation in an internship or residency program, or similar purposes. However, if any part of such loan is used for postsecondary educational expenses as defined in § 226.46(b)(3), then compliance with Subpart F is mandatory not optional.
</P>
<HD2>46(b) Definitions
</HD2>
<HD2>46(b)(1) Covered Educational Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A covered educational institution includes any educational institution that meets the definition of an institution of higher education in § 226.46(b)(2). An institution is also a covered educational institution if it otherwise meets the definition of an institution of higher education, except for its lack of accreditation. Such an institution may include, for example, a university or community college. It may also include an institution, whether accredited or unaccredited, offering instruction to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized profession, such as flying, culinary arts, or dental assistance. A covered educational institution does not include elementary or secondary schools.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Agent.</I> For purposes of § 226.46(b)(1), the term agent means an institution-affiliated organization as defined by section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C 1019) or an officer or employee of an institution-affiliated organization. Under section 151 of the Higher Education Act, an institution-affiliated organization means any organization that is directly or indirectly related to a covered institution and is engaged in the practice of recommending, promoting, or endorsing education loans for students attending the covered institution or the families of such students. An institution-affiliated organization may include an alumni organization, athletic organization, foundation, or social, academic, or professional organization, of a covered institution, but does not include any creditor with respect to any private education loan made by that creditor.
</P>
<P><I>46(b)(2) Institution of higher education.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> An institution of higher education includes any institution that meets the definitions contained in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001-1002) and implementing Department of Education regulations (34 CFR 600). Such an institution may include, for example, a university or community college. It may also include an institution offering instruction to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized profession, such as flying, culinary arts, or dental assistance. An institution of higher education does not include elementary or secondary schools.
</P>
<P><I>46(b)(3) Postsecondary educational expenses.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The examples listed in § 226.46(b)(3) are illustrative only. The full list of postsecondary educational expenses is contained in section 472 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ll).
</P>
<P><I>46(b)(4) Preferred lender arrangement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The term “preferred lender arrangement” is defined in section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C 1019). The term refers to an arrangement or agreement between a creditor and a covered educational institution (or an institution-affiliated organization as defined by section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C 1019)) under which a creditor provides private education loans to consumers for students attending the covered educational institution and the covered educational institution recommends, promotes, or endorses the private education loan products of the creditor. It does not include arrangements or agreements with respect to Federal Direct Stafford/Ford loans, or Federal PLUS loans made under the Federal PLUS auction pilot program.
</P>
<P><I>46(b)(5) Private education loan.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Extended expressly for postsecondary educational expenses.</I> A private education loan is one that is extended expressly for postsecondary educational expenses. The term includes loans extended for postsecondary educational expenses incurred while a student is enrolled in a covered educational institution as well as loans extended to consolidate a consumer's pre-existing private education loans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple-purpose loans.</I> i. <I>Definition.</I> A private education loan may include an extension of credit not excluded under § 226.46(b)(5) that the consumer may use for multiple purposes including, but not limited to, postsecondary educational expenses. If the consumer expressly indicates that the proceeds of the loan will be used to pay for postsecondary educational expenses by indicating the loan's purpose on an application, the loan is a private education loan.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Coverage.</I> A creditor generally will not know before an application is received whether the consumer intends to use the loan for postsecondary educational expenses. For this reason, the creditor need not provide the disclosures required by § 226.47(a) on or with the application or solicitation for a loan that may be used for multiple purposes. <I>See</I> § 226.47(d)(1)(i). However, if the consumer expressly indicates that the proceeds of the loan will be used to pay for postsecondary educational expenses, the creditor must comply with §§ 226.47(b) and (c) and § 226.48. For purposes of the required disclosures, the creditor must calculate the disclosures based on the entire amount of the loan, even if only a part of the proceeds is intended for postsecondary educational expenses. The creditor may rely solely on a check-box, or a purpose line, on a loan application to determine whether or not the applicant intends to use loan proceeds for postsecondary educational expenses.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> The creditor must comply only if the extension of credit also meets the other parts of the definition of private education loan. For example, if the creditor uses a single application form for both open-end and closed-end credit, and the consumer applies for open-end credit to be used for postsecondary educational expenses, the extension of credit is not covered. Similarly, if the consumer indicates the extension of credit will be used for educational expenses that are not postsecondary educational expenses, such as elementary or secondary educational expenses, the extension of credit is not covered. These examples are only illustrative, not exhaustive.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short-term loans.</I> Some covered educational institutions offer loans to students with terms of 90 days or less to assist the student in paying for educational expenses, usually while the student waits for other funds to be disbursed. Under § 226.46(b)(5)(iv)(A) such loans are not considered private education loans, even if interest is charged on the credit balance. (Because these loans charge interest, they are not covered by the exception under § 226.46(b)(5)(iv)(B).) However, these loans are extensions of credit subject to the requirements of §§ 226.17 and 18. The legal agreement may provide that repayment is required when the consumer or the educational institution receives certain funds. If, under the terms of the legal obligation, repayment of the loan is required when the certain funds are received by the consumer or the educational institution (such as by deposit into the consumer's or educational institution's account), the disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time the funds will be delivered.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Billing plans.</I> Some covered educational institutions offer billing plans that permit a consumer to make payments in installments. Such plans are not considered private education loans, if an interest rate will not be applied to the credit balance and the term of the extension of credit is one year or less, even if the plan is payable in more than four installments. However, such plans may be extensions of credit subject to the requirements of §§ 226.17 and 18.
</P>
<HD2>46(c) Form of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures—relation to other sections.</I> Creditors must make the disclosures required under this subpart in accordance with § 226.46(c). Section 226.46(c)(2) requires that the disclosures be grouped together and segregated from everything else. In complying with this requirement, creditors may follow the rules in § 226.17, except where specifically provided otherwise. For example, although § 226.17(b) requires creditors to provide only one set of disclosures before consummation of the transaction, §§ 226.47(b) and (c) require that the creditor provide the disclosures under § 226.18 both upon approval and after the consumer accepts the loan.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 46(c)(3)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application and solicitation disclosures—electronic disclosures.</I> If the disclosures required under § 226.47(a) are provided electronically, they must be provided on or with the application or solicitation reply form. Electronic disclosures are deemed to be on or with an application or solicitation if they meet one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>i. They automatically appear on the screen when the application or solicitation reply form appears;
</P>
<P>ii. They are located on the same Web “page” as the application or solicitation reply form without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, if the application or reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>iii. They are posted on a Web site and the application or solicitation reply form is linked to the disclosures in a manner that prevents the consumer from by passing the disclosures before submitting the application or reply form.
</P>
<HD2>46(d) Timing of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of disclosures.</I> Under § 226.46(d)(4), if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed. For purposes of § 226.46(d)(4), “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 226.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2. For example, if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on Thursday, June 4, the disclosures are considered received on Monday, June 8.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 46(d)(1)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Invitations to apply.</I> A creditor may contact a consumer who has not been pre-selected for a private education loan about taking out a loan (whether by direct mail, telephone, or other means) and invite the consumer to complete an application. Such a contact does not meet the definition of solicitation, nor is it covered by this subpart, unless the contact itself includes the following:
</P>
<P>i. An application form in a direct mailing, electronic communication or a single application form as a “take-one” (in racks in public locations, for example);
</P>
<P>ii. An oral application in a telephone contact; or
</P>
<P>iii. An application in an in-person contact.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 46(d)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The creditor must provide the disclosures required by § 226.47(b) at the time the creditor provides to the consumer any notice that the loan has been approved. However, nothing in this section prevents the creditor from communicating to the consumer that additional information is required from the consumer before approval may be granted. In such a case, a creditor is not required to provide the disclosures at that time. If the creditor communicates notice of approval to the consumer by mail, the disclosures must be mailed at the same time as the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates notice of approval by telephone, the creditor must place the disclosures in the mail within three business days of the telephone call. If the creditor communicates notice of approval in electronic form, the creditor may provide the disclosures in electronic form. If the creditor has complied with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>) the creditor may provide the disclosures solely in electronic form; otherwise, the creditor must place the disclosures in the mail within three business days of the communication.
</P>
<HD2>46(g) Effect of subsequent events
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Approval disclosures.</I> Inaccuracies in the disclosures required under § 226.47(b) are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made, although creditors are restricted under § 226.48(c)(2) from making certain changes to the loan's rate or terms after the creditor provides an approval disclosure to a consumer. Since creditors are required provide the final disclosures under § 226.47(c), they need not make new approval disclosures in response to an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required approval disclosures, except as specified under § 226.48(c)(4). For example, at the time the approval disclosures are provided, the creditor may not know the precise disbursement date of the loan funds and must provide estimated disclosures based on the best information reasonably available and labelled as an estimate. If, after the approval disclosures are provided, the creditor learns from the educational institution the precise disbursement date, new approval disclosures would not be required, unless specifically required under § 226.48(c)(4) if other changes are made. Similarly, the creditor may not know the precise amounts of each loan to be consolidated in a consolidation loan transaction and information about the precise amounts would not require new approval disclosures, unless specifically required under § 226.48(c)(4) if other changes are made.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Final disclosures.</I> Inaccuracies in the disclosures required under § 226.47(c) are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made. For example, if the consumer initially chooses to defer payment of principal and interest while enrolled in a covered educational institution, but later chooses to make payments while enrolled, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.47—Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>As applicable.</I> The disclosures required by this subpart need be made only as applicable, unless specifically required otherwise. The creditor need not provide any disclosure that is not applicable to a particular transaction. For example, in a transaction consolidating private education loans, or in transactions under § 226.46(a) for which compliance with this subpart is optional, the creditor need not disclose the information under §§ 226.47(a)(6), and (b)(4), and any other information otherwise required to be disclosed under this subpart that is not applicable to the transaction. Similarly, creditors making loans to consumers where the student is not attending an institution of higher education, as defined in § 226.46(b)(2), need not provide the disclosures regarding the self-certification form in § 226.47(a)(8).
</P>
<HD2>47(a) Application or Solicitation Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rates actually offered.</I> The disclosure may state only those rates that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not disclose a very low interest rate that will not in fact be offered at any time. For a loan with variable interest rates, the ranges of rates will be considered actually offered if:
</P>
<P>i. For disclosures in applications or solicitations sent by direct mail, the rates were in effect within 60 days before mailing;
</P>
<P>ii. For disclosures in applications or solicitations in electronic form, the rates were in effect within 30 days before the disclosures are sent to a consumer, or for disclosures made on an Internet Web site, within 30 days before being viewed by the public;
</P>
<P>iii. For disclosures in printed applications or solicitations made available to the general public, the rates were in effect within 30 days before printing; or
</P>
<P>iv. For disclosures provided orally in telephone applications or solicitations, the rates are currently available at the time the disclosures are provided.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditworthiness and other factors.</I> If the rate will depend, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness or other factors, the disclosure must include a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at approval will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors. The creditor may, but is not required to, specify any additional factors that it will use to determine the interest rate. For example, if the creditor will determine the interest rate based on information in the consumer's or co-signer's credit report and the type of school the consumer attends, the creditor may state, “Your interest rate will be based on your credit history and other factors (co-signer credit and school type).”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rates applicable to the loan.</I> For a variable-rate private education loan, the disclosure of the interest rate or range of rates must reflect the rate or rates calculated based on the index and margin that will be used to make interest rate adjustments for the loan. The creditor may provide a description of the index and margin or range of margins used to make interest rate adjustments, including a reference to a source, such as a newspaper, where the consumer may look up the index.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The interest rate is considered variable if the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the interest rate originally disclosed to the consumer and the requirements of section 226.47(a)(1)(iii) apply to all such transactions. The provisions do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, or acceleration.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limitations.</I> The creditor must disclose how often the rate may change and any limit on the amount that the rate may increase at any one time. The creditor must also disclose any maximum rate over the life of the transaction. If the legal obligation between the parties does specify a maximum rate, the creditor must disclose any legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. However, if the applicable maximum rate is in the form of a legal limit, such as a state's usury cap (rather than a maximum rate specified in the legal obligation between the parties), the creditor must disclose that the maximum rate is determined by applicable law. The creditor must also disclose that the consumer's actual rate may be higher or lower than the initial rates disclosed under § 226.47(a)(1)(i), if applicable.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(iv)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Co-signer or guarantor—changes in applicable interest rate.</I> The creditor must state whether the interest rate typically will be higher if the loan is not co-signed or guaranteed by a third party. The creditor is required to provide a statement of the effect on the interest rate and is not required to provide a numerical estimate of the effect on the interest rate. For example, a creditor may state: “Rates are typically higher without a co-signer.”
</P>
<HD2>47(a)(2) Fees and Default or Late Payment Costs
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees or range of fees.</I> The creditor must itemize fees required to obtain the private education loan. The creditor must give a single dollar amount for each fee, unless the fee is based on a percentage, in which case a percentage must be stated. If the exact amount of the fee is not known at the time of disclosure, the creditor may disclose the dollar amount or percentage for each fee as an estimated range.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees required to obtain the private education loan.</I> The creditor must itemize the fees that the consumer must pay to obtain the private education loan. Fees disclosed include all finance charges under § 226.4, such as loan origination fees, credit report fees, and fees charged upon entering repayment, as well as fees not considered finance charges but required to obtain credit, such as application fees that are charged whether or not credit is extended. Fees disclosed include those paid by the consumer directly to the creditor and fees paid to third parties by the creditor on the consumer's behalf. Creditors are not required to disclose fees that apply if the consumer exercises an option under the loan agreement after consummation, such as fees for deferment, forbearance, or loan modification.
</P>
<HD2>47(a)(3) Repayment Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Loan term.</I> The term of the loan is the maximum period of time during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due on the loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment deferral options—general.</I> The creditor must describe the options that the consumer has under the loan agreement to defer payment on the loan. When there is no deferment option provided for the loan, the creditor must disclose that fact. Payment deferral options required to be disclosed include options for immediate deferral of payments, such as when the student is currently enrolled at a covered educational institution. The description may include of the length of the maximum initial in-school deferment period, the types of payments that may be deferred, and a description of any payments that are required during the deferment period. The creditor may, but need not, disclose any conditions applicable to the deferment option, such as that deferment is permitted only while the student is continuously enrolled in school. If payment deferral is not an option while the student is enrolled in school, the creditor may disclose that the consumer must begin repayment upon disbursement of the loan and that the consumer may not defer repayment while enrolled in school. If the creditor offers payment deferral options that may apply during the repayment period, such as an option to defer payments if the student returns to school to pursue an additional degree, the creditor must include a statement referring the consumer to the contract document or promissory note for more information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment deferral options—in school deferment.</I> For each payment deferral option applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution the creditor must disclose whether interest will accrue while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution and, if interest does accrue, whether payment of interest may be deferred and added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Combination with cost estimate disclosure.</I> The disclosures of the loan term under § 226.47(a)(3)(i) and of the payment deferral options applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution under §§ 226.47(a)(3)(ii) and (iii) may be combined with the disclosure of cost estimates required in § 226.47(a)(4). For example, the creditor may describe each payment deferral option in the same chart or table that provides the cost estimates for each payment deferral option. <I>See</I> Appendix H-21.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Bankruptcy limitations.</I> The creditor may comply with § 226.47(a)(3)(iv) by disclosing the following statement: “If you file for bankruptcy you may still be required to pay back this loan.”
</P>
<HD2>47(a)(4) Cost Estimates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Total cost of the loan.</I> For purposes of § 226.47(a)(4), the creditor must calculate the example of the total cost of the loan in accordance with the rules in § 226.18(h) for calculating the loan's total of payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Basis for estimates.</I> i. The creditor must calculate the total cost estimate by determining all finance charges that would be applicable to loans with the highest rate of interest required to be disclosed under § 226.47(a)(1)(i). For example, if a creditor charges a range of origination fees from 0% to 3%, but the 3% origination fee would apply to loans with the highest initial rate, the lender must assume the 3% origination fee is charged. The creditor must base the total cost estimate on a total loan amount that includes all prepaid finance charges and results in a $10,000 amount financed. For example, if the prepaid finance charges are $600, the creditor must base the estimate on a $10,600 total loan amount and an amount financed of $10,000. The example must reflect an amount provided of $10,000. If the creditor only offers a particular private education loan for less than $10,000, the creditor may assume a loan amount that results in a $5,000 amount financed for that loan.
</P>
<P>ii. If a prepaid finance charge is determined as a percentage of the amount financed, for purposes of the example, the creditor should assume that the fee is determined as a percentage of the total loan amount, even if this is not the creditor's usual practice. For example, suppose the consumer requires a disbursement of $10,000 and the creditor charges a 3% origination fee. In order to calculate the total cost example, the creditor must determine the loan amount that will result in a $10,000 amount financed after the 3% fee is assessed. In this example, the resulting loan amount would be $10,309.28. Assessing the 3% origination fee on the loan amount of $10,309.28 results in an origination fee of $309.28, which is withheld from the loan funds disbursed to the consumer. The principal loan amount of $10,309.28 minus the prepaid finance charge of $309.28 results in an amount financed of $10,000.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculated for each option to defer interest payments.</I> The example must include an estimate of the total cost of the loan for each in-school deferral option disclosed in § 226.47(a)(3)(iii). For example, if the creditor provides the consumer with the option to begin making principal and interest payments immediately, to defer principal payments but begin making interest-only payments immediately, or to defer all principal and interest payments while in school, the creditor is required to disclose three estimates of the total cost of the loan, one for each deferral option. If the creditor adds accrued interest to the loan balance (<I>i.e.,</I> interest is capitalized), the estimate of the total loan cost should be based on the capitalization method that the creditor actually uses for the loan. For instance, for each deferred payment option where the creditor would capitalize interest on a quarterly basis, the total loan cost must be calculated assuming interest capitalizes on a quarterly basis.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deferment period assumptions.</I> Creditors may use either of the following two methods for estimating the duration of in-school deferment periods:
</P>
<P>i. For loan programs intended for educational expenses of undergraduate students, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for a four-year matriculation period, plus the loan's maximum applicable grace period, if any. For all other loans, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers for a two-year matriculation period, plus the maximum applicable grace period, if any, or the maximum time the consumer may defer payments under the loan program, whichever is shorter.
</P>
<P>ii. Alternatively, if the creditor knows that the student will be enrolled in a program with a standard duration, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for the full duration of the program (plus any grace period). For example, if a creditor makes loans intended for students enrolled in a four-year medical school degree program, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for four years plus the loan's maximum applicable grace period, if any. However, the creditor may not modify the disclosure to correspond to a particular student's situation. For example, even if the creditor knows that a student will be a second-year medical school student, the creditor must assume a four-year deferral period.
</P>
<HD2>47(a)(6)(ii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Terms of Federal student loans.</I> The creditor must disclose the interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 and whether the rates are fixed or variable, as prescribed in the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1077a). Where the fixed interest rate for a loan varies by statute depending on the date of disbursement or receipt of application, the creditor must disclose only the interest rate as of the time the disclosure is provided.
</P>
<HD2>47(a)(6)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Web site address.</I> The creditor must include with this disclosure an appropriate U.S. Department of Education Web site address such as “Federalstudentaid.ed.gov.”
</P>
<HD2>47(b) Approval Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>47(b)(1) Interest Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Variable rate disclosures.</I> The interest rate is considered variable if the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the interest rate originally disclosed to the consumer. The provisions do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, or acceleration. In addition to disclosing the information required under §§ 226.47(b)(ii) and (iii), the creditor must disclose the information required under §§ 226.18(f)(1)(i) and (iii)—the circumstances under which the rate may increase and the effect of an increase, respectively. The creditor is required to disclose the maximum monthly payment based on the maximum possible rate in § 226.47(b)(3)(viii), and the creditor need not disclose a separate example of the payment terms that would result from an increase under § 226.18(f)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limitations on rate adjustments.</I> The creditor must disclose how often the rate may change and any limit on the amount that the rate may increase at any one time. The creditor must also disclose any maximum rate over the life of the transaction. If the legal obligation between the parties does provide a maximum rate, the creditor must disclose any legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. However, if the applicable maximum rate is in the form of a legal limit, such as a State's usury cap (rather than a maximum rate specified in the legal obligation between the parties), the creditor must disclose that the maximum rate is determined by applicable law. Compliance with § 226.18(f)(1)(ii) (requiring disclosure of any limitations on the increase of the interest rate) does not necessarily constitute compliance with this section. Specifically, this section requires that if there are no limitations on interest rate increases, the creditor must disclose that fact. By contrast, comment 18(f)(1)(ii)-1 states that if there are no limitations the creditor need not disclose that fact. In addition, under this section, limitations on rate increases include, rather than exclude, legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rates applicable to the loan.</I> For a variable-rate loan, the disclosure of the interest rate must reflect the index and margin that will be used to make interest rate adjustments for the loan. The creditor may provide a description of the index and margin or range of margins used to make interest rate adjustments, including a reference to a source, such as a newspaper, where the consumer may look up the index.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 47(b)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> Creditors may follow the commentary for § 226.47(a)(2) in complying with § 226.47(b)(2). Creditors must disclose the late payment fees required to be disclosed under § 226.18(l) as part of the disclosure required under § 226.47(b)(2)(ii). If the creditor includes the itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c)(1), any fees disclosed as part of the itemization need not be separately disclosed elsewhere.
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<HD2>47(b)(3) Repayment Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Principal amount.</I> The principal amount must equal what the face amount of the note would be as of the time of approval, and it must be labeled “Total Loan Amount.” <I>See</I> Appendix H-18. This amount may be different from the “principal loan amount” used to calculate the amount financed under comment 18(b)(3)-1, because the creditor has the option under that comment of using a “principal loan amount” that is different from the face amount of the note. If the creditor elects to provide an itemization of the amount financed under § 226.18(c)(1) the creditor need not disclose the amount financed elsewhere.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan term.</I> The term of the loan is the maximum period of time during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest are due on the loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment deferral options applicable to the consumer.</I> Creditors may follow the commentary for § 226.47(a)(3)(ii) in complying with § 226.47(b)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Payments required during enrollment.</I> Required payments that must be disclosed include payments of interest and principal, interest only, or other payments that the consumer must make during the time that the student is enrolled. Compliance with § 226.18(g) constitutes compliance with § 226.47(b)(3)(iv).
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<P>5. <I>Bankruptcy limitations.</I> The creditor may comply with § 226.47(b)(3)(vi) by disclosing the following statement: “If you file for bankruptcy you may still be required to pay back this loan.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>An estimate of the total amount for repayment.</I> The creditor must disclose an estimate of the total amount for repayment at two interest rates:
</P>
<P>i. The interest rate in effect on the date of approval. Compliance with the total of payments disclosure requirement of § 226.18(h) constitutes compliance with this requirement.
</P>
<P>ii. The maximum possible rate of interest applicable to the loan or, if the maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. If the legal obligation between the parties specifies a maximum rate of interest, the creditor must calculate the total amount for repayment based on that rate. If the legal obligation does not specify a maximum rate but a usury or rate ceiling under State or Federal statutes or regulations applies, the creditor must use that rate. If a there is no maximum rate in the legal obligation or under a usury or rate ceiling, the creditor must base the disclosure on a rate of 25% and must disclose that there is no maximum rate and that the total amount for repayment disclosed under § 226.47(b)(3)(vii)(B) is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<P>iii. If terms of the legal obligation provide a limitation on the amount that the interest rate may increase at any one time, the creditor may reflect the effect of the interest rate limitation in calculating the total cost example. For example, if the legal obligation provides that the interest rate may not increase by more than three percentage points each year, the creditor may assume that the rate increases by three percentage points each year until it reaches that maximum possible rate, or if a maximum rate cannot be determined, an interest rate of 25%.
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<P>7. <I>The maximum monthly payment.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum payment that the consumer could be required to make under the loan agreement, calculated using the maximum rate of interest applicable to the loan, or if the maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. The creditor must determine and disclose the maximum rate of interest in accordance with comments 47(b)(3)-6.ii and 47(b)(3)-6.iii. In addition, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, the creditor must state that there is no maximum rate and that the monthly payment amounts disclosed under § 226.47(b)(3)(viii) are estimates and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<HD2>47(b)(4) Alternatives to Private Education Loans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors may use the guidance provided in the commentary for § 226.47(a)(6) in complying with § 226.47(b)(4).
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<HD2>47(b)(5) Rights of the Consumer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice of acceptance period.</I> The disclosure that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until the acceptance period under § 226.48(c)(1) has expired must include the specific date on which the acceptance period expires and state that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until that date. Under § 226.48(c)(1), the date on which the acceptance period expires is based on when the consumer receives the disclosures. If the creditor mails the disclosures, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after the creditor places the disclosures in the mail <I>See</I> § 226.46(d)(4). If the creditor provides an acceptance period longer than the minimum 30 calendar days, the disclosure must reflect the later date. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may communicate acceptance.
</P>
<HD2>47(c) Final Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice of right to cancel.</I> The disclosure of the right to cancel must include the specific date on which the three-day cancellation period expires and state that the consumer has a right to cancel by that date. <I>See</I> comments 48(d)-1 and 2. For example, if the disclosures were mailed to the consumer on Friday, June 1, and the consumer is deemed to receive them on Tuesday, June 5, the creditor could state: “You have a right to cancel this transaction, without penalty, by midnight on June 8, 2009. No funds will be disbursed to you or to your school until after this time. You may cancel by calling us at 800-XXX-XXXX.” If the creditor permits cancellation by mail, the statement must specify that the consumer's mailed request will be deemed timely if placed in the mail not later than the cancellation date specified on the disclosure. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may cancel.
</P>
<P>2. <I>More conspicuous.</I> The statement of the right to cancel must be more conspicuous than any other disclosure required under this section except for the finance charge, the interest rate, and the creditor's identity. <I>See</I> § 226.46(c)(2)(iii). The statement will be deemed to be made more conspicuous if it is segregated from other disclosures, placed near or at the top of the disclosure document, and highlighted in relation to other required disclosures. For example, the statement may be outlined with a prominent, noticeable box; printed in contrasting color; printed in larger type, bold print, or different type face; underlined; or set off with asterisks.
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.48—Limitations on Private Education Loans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Co-branding—definition of marketing.</I> The prohibition on co-branding in §§ 226.48(a) and (b) applies to the marketing of private education loans. The term marketing includes any advertisement under § 226.2(a)(2). In addition, the term marketing includes any document provided by the creditor to the consumer related to a specific transaction, such as an application or solicitation, a promissory note or a contract provided to the consumer. For example, prominently displaying the name of the educational institution at the top of the application form or promissory note without mentioning the name of the creditor, such as by naming the loan product the “University of ABC Loan,” would be prohibited.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Implied endorsement.</I> A suggestion that a private education loan is offered or made by the covered educational institution instead of by the creditor is included in the prohibition on implying that the covered educational institution endorses the private education loan under § 226.48(a)(1). For example, naming the loan the “University of ABC Loan,” suggests that the loan is offered by the educational institution. However, the use of a creditor's full name, even if that name includes the name of a covered educational institution, does not imply endorsement. For example, a credit union whose name includes the name of a covered educational institution is not prohibited from using its own name. In addition, the authorized use of a state seal by a state or an institution of higher education in the marketing of state education loan products does not imply endorsement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure.</I> i. A creditor is considered to have complied with § 226.48(a)(2) if the creditor's marketing contains a clear and conspicuous statement, equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution, using the name of the creditor and the name of the covered educational institution that the covered educational institution does not endorse the creditor's loans and that the creditor is not affiliated with the covered educational institution. For example, “[Name of creditor]'s loans are not endorsed by [name of school] and [name of creditor] is not affiliated with [name of school].” The statement is considered to be equally prominent and closely proximate if it is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the reference to the educational institution, without any intervening text or graphical displays.
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor is considered to have complied with § 226.48(b) if the creditor's marketing contains a clear and conspicuous statement, equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution, using the name of the creditor's loan or loan program, the name of the covered educational institution, and the name of the creditor, that the creditor's loans are not offered or made by the covered educational institution, but are made by the creditor. For example, “[Name of loan or loan program] is not being offered or made by [name of school], but by [name of creditor].” The statement is considered to be equally prominent and closely proximate if it is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the reference to the educational institution, without any intervening text or graphical displays.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 48(c)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>30 day acceptance period.</I> The creditor must provide the consumer with at least 30 calendar days from the date the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 226.47(b) to accept the terms of the loan. The creditor may provide the consumer with a longer period of time. If the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed under § 226.46(d)(4). For purposes of determining when a consumer receives mailed disclosures, “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 226.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 46(d)-1. The consumer may accept the loan at any time before the end of the 30 day period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of acceptance.</I> The creditor must specify a method or methods by which the consumer can accept the loan at any time within the 30-day acceptance period. The creditor may require the consumer to communicate acceptance orally or in writing. Acceptance may also be communicated electronically, but electronic communication must not be the only means provided for the consumer to communicate acceptance unless the creditor has provided the approval disclosure electronically in compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. § 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). If acceptance by mail is allowed, the consumer's communication of acceptance is considered timely if placed in the mail within the 30-day period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prohibition on changes to rates and terms.</I> The prohibition on changes to the rates and terms of the loan applies to changes that affect those terms that are required to be disclosed under §§ 226.47(b) and (c). The creditor is permitted to make changes that do not affect any of the terms disclosed to the consumer under those sections.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—re-disclosure not required.</I> Creditors are not required to consummate a loan where the extension of credit would be prohibited by law or where the creditor has reason to believe that the consumer has committed fraud. A creditor may make changes to the rate based on adjustments to the index used for the loan and changes that will unequivocally benefit the consumer. For example, a creditor is permitted to reduce the interest rate or lower the amount of a fee. A creditor may also reduce the loan amount based on a certification or other information received from a covered educational institution or from the consumer indicating that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the amount of other financial aid has increased. A creditor may also withdraw the loan approval based on a certification or other information received from a covered educational institution or from the consumer indicating that the student is not enrolled in the institution. For these changes permitted by § 226.48(c)(3), the creditor is not required to provide a new set of approval disclosures required under § 226.47(b) or provide the consumer with a new 30-day acceptance period under § 226.48(c)(1). The creditor must provide the final disclosures under § 226.47(c).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—school certification.</I> If the creditor reduces the loan amount based on information that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the amount of other financial aid has increased, the creditor may make certain corresponding changes to the rate and terms. The creditor may change the rate or terms to those that the consumer would have received if the consumer had applied for the reduced loan amount. For example, assume a consumer applies for, and is approved for, a $10,000 loan at a 7% interest rate. However, after the consumer receives the approval disclosures, the consumer's school certifies that the consumer's financial need is only $8,000. The creditor may reduce the loan amount for which the consumer is approved to $8,000. The creditor may also, for example, increase the interest rate on the loan to 7.125%, but only if the consumer would have received a rate of 7.125% if the consumer had originally applied for an $8,000 loan.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—re-disclosure required.</I> A creditor may make changes to the interest rate or terms to accommodate a request from a consumer. For example, assume a consumer applies for a $10,000 loan and is approved for the $10,000 amount at an interest rate of 6%. After the creditor has provided the approval disclosures, the consumer's financial need increases, and the consumer requests to a loan amount of $15,000. In this situation, the creditor is permitted to offer a $15,000 loan, and to make any other changes such as raising the interest rate to 7%, in response to the consumer's request. The creditor must provide a new set of disclosures under § 226.47(b) and provide the consumer with 30 days to accept the offer under § 226.48(c) for the $15,000 loan offered in response to the consumer's request. However, because the consumer may choose not to accept the offer for the $15,000 loan at the higher interest rate, the creditor may not withdraw or change the rate or terms of the offer for the $10,000 loan, except as permitted under § 226.48(c)(3), unless the consumer accepts the $15,000 loan.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 48(d)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Right to cancel.</I> If the creditor mails the disclosures, the disclosures are considered received by the consumer three business days after the disclosures were mailed. For purposes of determining when the consumer receives the disclosures, the term “business day” is defined as all calendar days except Sunday and the legal public holidays referred to in § 226.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> § 226.46(d)(4). The consumer has three business days from the date on which the disclosures are deemed received to cancel the loan. For example, if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on Thursday, June 4, the disclosures are considered received on Monday, June 8. The consumer may cancel any time before midnight Thursday, June 11. The creditor may provide the consumer with more time to cancel the loan than the minimum three business days required under this section. If the creditor provides the consumer with a longer period of time in which to cancel the loan, the creditor may disburse the funds three business days after the consumer has received the disclosures required under this section, but the creditor must honor the consumer's later timely cancellation request.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of cancellation.</I> The creditor must specify a method or methods by which the consumer may cancel. For example, the creditor may require the consumer to communicate cancellation orally or in writing. Cancellation may also be communicated electronically, but electronic communication must not be the only means by which the consumer may cancel unless the creditor provided the final disclosure electronically in compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). If the creditor allows cancellation by mail, the creditor must specify an address or the name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of cancellation. The creditor must wait to disburse funds until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not canceled. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the cancellation period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice. The creditor may also satisfy itself by obtaining a written statement from the consumer, which must be provided to and signed by the consumer only at the end of the three-day period, that the right has not been exercised.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Cancellation without penalty.</I> The creditor may not charge the consumer a fee for exercising the right to cancel under § 226.48(d). The prohibition extends only to fees charged specifically for canceling the loan. The creditor is not required to refund fees, such as an application fee, that are charged to all consumers whether or not the consumer cancels the loan.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 48(e)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.48(e) requires that the creditor obtain the self-certification form, signed by the consumer, before consummating the private education loan. The rule applies only to private education loans that will be used for the postsecondary educational expenses of a student while that student is attending an institution of higher education as defined in § 226.46(b)(2). It does not apply to all covered educational institutions. The requirement applies even if the student is not currently attending an institution of higher education, but will use the loan proceeds for postsecondary educational expenses while attending such institution. For example, a creditor is required to obtain the form before consummating a private education loan provided to a high school senior for expenses to be incurred during the consumer's first year of college. This provision does not require that the creditor obtain the self-certification form in instances where the loan is not intended for a student attending an institution of higher education, such as when the consumer is consolidating loans after graduation. Section 155(a)(2) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 provides that the form shall be made available to the consumer by the relevant institution of higher education. However, § 226.48(e) provides flexibility to institutions of higher education and creditors as to how the completed self-certification form is provided to the lender. The creditor may receive the form directly from the consumer, or the creditor may receive the form from the consumer through the institution of higher education. In addition, the creditor may provide the form, and the information the consumer will require to complete the form, directly to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic signature.</I> Under Section 155(a)(2) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the institution of higher education may provide the self-certification form to the consumer in written or electronic form. Under Section 155(a)(5) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the form may be signed electronically by the consumer. A creditor may accept the self-certification form from the consumer in electronic form. A consumer's electronic signature is considered valid if it meets the requirements issued by the Department of Education under Section 155(a)(5) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 48(f)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 226.48(f) does not specify the format in which creditors must provide the required information to the covered educational institution. Creditors may choose to provide only the required information or may provide copies of the form or forms the lender uses to comply with § 226.47(a). A creditor is only required to provide the required information if the creditor is aware that it is a party to a preferred lender arrangement. For example, if a creditor is placed on a covered educational institution's preferred lender list without the creditor's knowledge, the creditor is not required to comply with § 226.48(f).
</P>
<HD1>Subpart G—Special Rules Applicable to Credit Card Accounts and Open-End Credit Offered to College Students
</HD1>
<HD2>§ 226.51—Ability To Pay
</HD2>
<P><I>51(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P><I>51(a)(1) Consideration of ability to pay.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consideration of additional factors.</I> Section 226.51(a) requires a card issuer to consider a consumer's independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments under the terms of an account based on the consumer's independent income or assets and current obligations. The card issuer may also consider consumer reports, credit scores, and other factors, consistent with Regulation B (12 CFR part 202).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ability to pay as of application or consideration of increase.</I> A card issuer complies with § 226.51(a) if it bases its determination regarding a consumer's independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the facts and circumstances known to the card issuer at the time the consumer applies to open the credit card account or when the card issuer considers increasing the credit line on an existing account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credit line increase.</I> When a card issuer considers increasing the credit line on an existing account, § 226.51(a) applies whether the consideration is based upon a request of the consumer or is initiated by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Income and assets.</I> i. <I>Sources of information.</I> For purposes of § 226.51(a), a card issuer may consider the consumer's income and assets based on
</P>
<P>A. Information provided by the consumer in connection with the credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan;
</P>
<P>B. Information provided by the consumer in connection with any other financial relationship the card issuer or its affiliates have with the consumer (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules);
</P>
<P>C. Information obtained through third parties (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules); and
</P>
<P>D. Information obtained through any empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound model that reasonably estimates a consumer's income and assets.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Income and assets of persons liable for debts incurred on account.</I> For purposes of § 226.51(a), a card issuer may consider any current or reasonably expected income and assets of the consumer or consumers who are applying for a new account and will be liable for debts incurred on that account. Similarly, when a card issuer is considering whether to increase the credit limit on an existing account, the card issuer may consider any current or reasonably expected income and assets of the consumer or consumers who are accountholders and are liable for debts incurred on that account. A card issuer may also consider any current or reasonably expected income and assets of a cosigner or guarantor who is or will be liable for debts incurred on the account. However, a card issuer may not use the income and assets of an authorized user or other person who is not liable for debts incurred on the account to satisfy the requirements of § 226.51, unless a Federal or State statute or regulation grants a consumer who is liable for debts incurred on the account an ownership interest in such income and assets. Information about current or reasonably expected income and assets includes, for example, information about current or expected salary, wages, bonus pay, tips, and commissions. Employment may be full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment. Other sources of income could include interest or dividends, retirement benefits, public assistance, alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. A card issuer may also take into account assets such as savings accounts or investments.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Household income and assets.</I> Consideration of information regarding a consumer's household income does not by itself satisfy the requirement in § 226.51(a) to consider the consumer's independent ability to pay. For example, if a card issuer requests on its application forms that applicants provide their “household income,” the card issuer may not rely solely on the information provided by applicants to satisfy the requirements of § 226.51(a). Instead, the card issuer would need to obtain additional information about an applicant's independent income (such as by contacting the applicant). However, if a card issuer requests on its application forms that applicants provide their income without reference to household income (such as by requesting “income” or “salary”), the card issuer may rely on the information provided by applicants to satisfy the requirements of § 226.51(a).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Current obligations.</I> A card issuer may consider the consumer's current obligations based on information provided by the consumer or in a consumer report. In evaluating a consumer's current obligations, a card issuer need not assume that credit lines for other obligations are fully utilized.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Joint applicants and joint accountholders.</I> With respect to the opening of a joint account for two or more consumers or a credit line increase on such an account, the card issuer may consider the collective ability of all persons who are or will be liable for debts incurred on the account to make the required payments.
</P>
<P><I>51(a)(2) Minimum periodic payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicable minimum payment formula.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 226.51(a)(2)(ii), if the account has or may have a promotional program, such as a deferred payment or similar program, where there is no applicable minimum payment formula during the promotional period, the issuer must estimate the required minimum periodic payment based on the minimum payment formula that will apply when the promotion ends.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest rate for purchases.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 226.51(a)(2)(ii), if the interest rate for purchases is or may be a promotional rate, the issuer must use the post-promotional rate to estimate interest charges.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mandatory fees.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 226.51(a)(2)(ii), mandatory fees that must be assumed to be charged include those fees the card issuer knows the consumer will be required to pay under the terms of the account if the account is opened, such as an annual fee. If a mandatory fee is a promotional fee (as defined in § 226.16(g)), the issuer must use the post-promotional fee amount for purposes of § 226.51(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>51(b) Rules affecting young consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Age as of date of application or consideration of credit line increase.</I> Sections 226.51(b)(1) and (b)(2) apply only to a consumer who has not attained the age of 21 as of the date of submission of the application under § 226.51(b)(1) or the date the credit line increase is requested by the consumer (or if no request has been made, the date the credit line increase is considered by the card issuer) under § 226.51(b)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Liability of cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder.</I> Sections 226.51(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) require the signature or written consent of a cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder agreeing either to be secondarily liable for any debt on the account incurred by the consumer before the consumer has attained the age of 21 or to be jointly liable with the consumer for any debt on the account. Sections 226.51(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) do not prohibit a card issuer from also requiring the cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder to assume liability for debts incurred after the consumer has attained the age of 21, consistent with any agreement made between the parties.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Authorized users exempt.</I> If a consumer who has not attained the age of 21 is being added to another person's account as an authorized user and has no liability for debts incurred on the account, § 226.51(b)(1) and (b)(2) do not apply.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Electronic application.</I> Consistent with § 226.5(a)(1)(iii), an application may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>) in the circumstances set forth in § 226.5a. The electronic submission of an application from a consumer or a consent to a credit line increase from a cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder to a card issuer would constitute a written application or consent for purposes of § 226.51(b) and would not be considered a consumer disclosure for purposes of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P><I>51(b)(1) Applications from young consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation B.</I> In considering an application or credit line increase on the credit card account of a consumer who is less than 21 years old, creditors must comply with the applicable rules in Regulation B (12 CFR part 202).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Financial information.</I> Information regarding income and assets that satisfies the requirements of § 226.51(a) also satisfies the requirements of § 226.51(b)(1). <I>See</I> comment 51(a)(1)-4.
</P>
<P><I>51(b)(2) Credit line increases for young consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation B.</I> In considering an application or credit line increase on the credit card account of a consumer who is less than 21 years old, creditors must comply with the applicable rules in Regulation B (12 CFR part 202).
</P>
<HD2>§ 226.52—Limitations on Fees
</HD2>
<P><I>52(a) Limitations prior to account opening and during first year after account opening.</I>
</P>
<P><I>52(a)(1) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application.</I> The 25 percent limit in § 226.52(a)(1) applies to fees that the card issuer charges to the account as well as to fees that the card issuer requires the consumer to pay with respect to the account through other means (such as through a payment from the consumer's asset account to the card issuer or from another credit account provided by the card issuer). For example
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, under the terms of a credit card account, a consumer is required to pay $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. The consumer is also required to pay a cash advance fee that is equal to five percent of the cash advance and a late payment fee of $15 if the required minimum periodic payment is not received by the payment due date (which is the twenty-fifth of the month). At account opening on January 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500. Section 226.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account the $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. On February 1 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $100 cash advance. Section 226.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge a $5 cash-advance fee to the account. On March 26 of year one, the card issuer has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment. Section 226.52(a)(2) permits the card issuer to charge a $15 late payment fee to the account. On July 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $50 cash advance. Section 226.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to charge a $2.50 cash advance fee to the account. Furthermore, § 225.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from collecting the $2.50 cash advance fee from the consumer by other means.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that, under the terms of a credit card account, a consumer is required to pay $125 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit during the first year after account opening. At account opening on January 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500. Section 226.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge the $125 in fees to the account. However, § 226.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to make payments to the card issuer for additional non-exempt fees with respect to the account prior to account opening or during the first year after account opening. Section 226.52(a)(1) also prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to open a separate credit account with the card issuer to fund the payment of additional non-exempt fees prior to the opening of the credit card account or during the first year after the credit card account is opened.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that, on January 1 of year one, a consumer is required to pay a $100 fee in order to apply for a credit card account. On January 5, the card issuer approves the consumer's application, assigns the account a credit limit of $1,000, and provides the consumer with account-opening disclosures consistent with § 226.6. The date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions is January 5. The consumer is required to pay $150 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit, which § 226.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account on January 5. However, because the $100 application fee is subject to the 25 percent limit in § 226.52(a)(1), the card issuer is prohibited from requiring the consumer to pay any additional non-exempt fees with respect to the account until January 5 of year two.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees that exceed 25 percent limit.</I> A card issuer that charges a fee to a credit card account that exceeds the 25 percent limit complies with § 226.52(a)(1) if the card issuer waives or removes the fee and any associated interest charges or credits the account for an amount equal to the fee and any associated interest charges within a reasonable amount of time but no later than the end of the billing cycle following the billing cycle during which the fee was charged. For example, assuming the facts in the example in comment 52(a)(1)-1.i. above, the card issuer complies with § 226.52(a)(1) if the card issuer charged the $2.50 cash advance fee to the account on July 15 of year one but waived or removed the fee or credited the account for $2.50 (plus any interest charges on that $2.50) at the end of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes in credit limit during first year.</I> i. <I>Increases in credit limit.</I> If a card issuer increases the credit limit during the first year after the account is opened, § 226.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to require the consumer to pay additional fees that would otherwise be prohibited (such as a fee for increasing the credit limit). For example, assume that, at account opening on January 1, the credit limit for a credit card account is $400 and the consumer is required to pay $100 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit. On July 1, the card issuer increases the credit limit for the account to $600. Section 226.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to require the consumer to pay additional fees based on the increased credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Decreases in credit limit.</I> If a card issuer decreases the credit limit during the first year after the account is opened, § 226.52(a)(1) requires the card issuer to waive or remove any fees charged to the account that exceed 25 percent of the reduced credit limit or to credit the account for an amount equal to any fees the consumer was required to pay with respect to the account that exceed 25 percent of the reduced credit limit within a reasonable amount of time but no later than the end of the billing cycle following the billing cycle during which the credit limit was reduced. For example
</P>
<P>A. Assume that, at account opening on January 1, the credit limit for a credit card account is $1,000 and the consumer is required to pay $250 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit. The billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. On July 30, the card issuer decreases the credit limit for the account to $500. Section 226.52(a)(1) requires the card issuer to waive or remove $175 in fees from the account or to credit the account for an amount equal to $175 within a reasonable amount of time but no later than August 31.
</P>
<P>B. Assume that, on June 25 of year one, a consumer is required to pay a $75 fee in order to apply for a credit card account. At account opening on July 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500 and the consumer is required to pay $50 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit. The billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. On February 15 of year two, the card issuer decreases the credit limit for the account to $250. Section 226.52(a)(1) requires the card issuer to waive or remove fees from the account or to credit the account for an amount equal to $62.50 within a reasonable amount of time but no later than March 31 of year two.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date on which account may first be used by consumer to engage in transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Methods of compliance.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(a)(1), an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions. A card issuer may consider an account open for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1) on any of the following dates
</P>
<P>A. The date the account is first used by the consumer for a transaction (such as when an account is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services).
</P>
<P>B. The date the consumer complies with any reasonable activation procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use of a new account (such as requiring the consumer to provide information that verifies his or her identity), provided that the account may be used for transactions on that date.
</P>
<P>C. The date that is seven days after the card issuer mails or delivers to the consumer account-opening disclosures that comply with § 226.6, provided that the consumer may use the account for transactions after complying with any reasonable activation procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use of the new account (such as requiring the consumer to provide information that verifies his or her identity). If a card issuer has reasonable procedures designed to ensure that account-opening disclosures that comply with § 226.6 are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than a certain number of days after the card issuer establishes the account, the card issuer may add that number of days to the seven-day period for purposes of determining the date on which the account was opened.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Assume that, on July 1 of year one, a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services and a $500 transaction is charged to the account by the consumer. The card issuer may consider the account open on July 1 of year one for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 226.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 1 of year two.
</P>
<P>B. Assume that, on July 1 of year one, a card issuer approves a consumer's application for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and establishes the account on its internal systems. On July 5, the card issuer mails or delivers to the consumer account-opening disclosures that comply with § 226.6. If the consumer may use the account for transactions on the date the consumer complies with any reasonable procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use, the card issuer may consider the account open on July 12 of year one for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 226.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 12 of year two.
</P>
<P>C. Same facts as in paragraph B above except that the card issuer has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that account-opening disclosures that comply with § 226.6 are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than three days after an account is established on its systems. If the consumer may use the account for transactions on the date the consumer complies with any reasonable procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use, the card issuer may consider the account open on July 11 of year one for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 226.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 11 of year two. However, if the consumer uses the account for a transaction or complies with the card issuer's reasonable procedures for preventing fraud or unauthorized use on July 8 of year one, the card issuer may, at its option, consider the account open on that date for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1) and § 226.52(a)(1) therefore ceases to apply to the account on July 8 of year two.
</P>
<P><I>52(a)(2) Fees not subject to limitations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Covered fees.</I> Except as provided in § 226.52(a)(2), § 226.52(a) applies to any fees or other charges that a card issuer will or may require the consumer to pay with respect to a credit card account prior to account opening and during the first year after account opening, other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates. For example, § 226.52(a) applies to
</P>
<P>i. Fees that the consumer is required to pay for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 226.5a(b)(2), including any fee based on account activity or inactivity and any fee that a consumer is required to pay in order to receive a particular credit limit;
</P>
<P>ii. Fees for insurance described in § 226.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage described in § 226.4(b)(10) written in connection with a credit transaction, if the insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage is required by the terms of the account;
</P>
<P>iii. Fees that the consumer is required to pay in order to engage in transactions using the account (such as cash advance fees, balance transfer fees, foreign transaction fees, and fees for using the account for purchases);
</P>
<P>iv. Fees that the consumer is required to pay for violating the terms of the account (except to the extent specifically excluded by § 226.52(a)(2)(i));
</P>
<P>v. Fixed finance charges; and
</P>
<P>vi. Minimum charges imposed if a charge would otherwise have been determined by applying a periodic interest rate to a balance except for the fact that such charge is smaller than the minimum.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees the consumer is not required to pay.</I> Section 226.52(a)(2)(ii) provides that § 226.52(a) does not apply to fees that the consumer is not required to pay with respect to the account. For example, § 226.52(a) generally does not apply to fees for making an expedited payment (to the extent permitted by § 226.10(e)), fees for optional services (such as travel insurance), fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card, or statement reproduction fees.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Security deposits.</I> A security deposit that is charged to a credit card account is a fee for purposes of § 226.52(a). In contrast, however, a security deposit is not subject to the 25 percent limit in § 226.52(a)(1) if it is not charged to the account. For example, § 226.52(a)(1) does not prohibit a card issuer from requiring a consumer to provide funds at account opening pledged as security for the account that exceed 25 percent of the credit limit at account opening so long as those funds are not obtained from the account.
</P>
<P><I>52(a)(3) Rule of construction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law.</I> Section 226.52(a) does not authorize the imposition or payment of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law. For example, see 16 CFR 310.4(a)(4).
</P>
<P><I>52(b) Limitations on penalty fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees for violating the account terms or other requirements.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b), a fee includes any charge imposed by a card issuer based on an act or omission that violates the terms of the account or any other requirements imposed by the card issuer with respect to the account, other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates. Accordingly, for purposes of § 226.52(b), a fee does not include charges attributable to an increase in an annual percentage rate based on an act or omission that violates the terms or other requirements of an account.
</P>
<P>i. The following are examples of fees that are subject to the limitations in § 226.52(b) or are prohibited by § 226.52(b)
</P>
<P>A. Late payment fees and any other fees imposed by a card issuer if an account becomes delinquent or if a payment is not received by a particular date.
</P>
<P>B. Returned payment fees and any other fees imposed by a card issuer if a payment received via check, automated clearing house, or other payment method is returned.
</P>
<P>C. Any fee or charge for an over-the-limit transaction as defined in § 226.56(a), to the extent the imposition of such a fee or charge is permitted by § 226.56.
</P>
<P>D. Any fee imposed by a card issuer if payment on a check that accesses a credit card account is declined.
</P>
<P>E. Any fee or charge for a transaction that the card issuer declines to authorize. <I>See</I> § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>F. Any fee imposed by a card issuer based on account inactivity (including the consumer's failure to use the account for a particular number or dollar amount of transactions or a particular type of transaction). <I>See</I> § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>G. Any fee imposed by a card issuer based on the closure or termination of an account. <I>See</I> § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>ii. The following are examples of fees to which § 226.52(b) does not apply
</P>
<P>A. Balance transfer fees.
</P>
<P>B. Cash advance fees.
</P>
<P>C. Foreign transaction fees.
</P>
<P>D. Annual fees and other fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 226.5a(b)(2), except to the extent that such fees are based on account inactivity. <I>See</I> § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>E. Fees for insurance described in § 226.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage described in § 226.4(b)(10) written in connection with a credit transaction, provided that such fees are not imposed as a result of a violation of the account terms or other requirements of an account.
</P>
<P>F. Fees for making an expedited payment (to the extent permitted by § 226.10(e)).
</P>
<P>G. Fees for optional services (such as travel insurance).
</P>
<P>H. Fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding to nearest whole dollar.</I> A card issuer may round any fee that complies with § 226.52(b) to the nearest whole dollar. For example, if § 226.52(b) permits a card issuer to impose a late payment fee of $21.50, the card issuer may round that amount up to the nearest whole dollar and impose a late payment fee of $22. However, if the late payment fee permitted by § 226.52(b) were $21.49, the card issuer would not be permitted to round that amount up to $22, although the card issuer could round that amount down and impose a late payment fee of $21.
</P>
<P><I>52(b)(1) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between § 226.52(b)(1)(i), (b)(1)(ii), and (b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Relationship between § 226.52(b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii).</I> A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account pursuant to either § 226.52(b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>A. A card issuer that complies with the safe harbors in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) is not required to determine that its fees represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of a type of violation under § 226.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer may impose a fee for one type of violation pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(i) and may impose a fee for a different type of violation pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii). For example, a card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $30 based on a cost determination pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(i) but impose returned payment and over-the-limit fees of $25 or $35 pursuant to the safe harbors in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer that previously based the amount of a penalty fee for a particular type of violation on a cost determination pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(i) may begin to impose a penalty fee for that type of violation that is consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) at any time (subject to the notice requirements in § 226.9), provided that the first fee imposed pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) is consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). For example, assume that a late payment occurs on January 15 and that, based on a cost determination pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(i), the card issuer imposes a $30 late payment fee. Another late payment occurs on July 15. The card issuer may impose another $30 late payment fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(i) or may impose a $25 late payment fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). However, the card issuer may not impose a $35 late payment fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B). If the card issuer imposes a $25 fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) for the July 15 late payment and another late payment occurs on September 15, the card issuer may impose a $35 fee for the September 15 late payment pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Relationship between § 226.52(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I> Section 226.52(b)(1) does not permit a card issuer to impose a fee that is inconsistent with the prohibitions in § 226.52(b)(2). For example, if § 226.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee that exceeds $15, § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to impose a higher late payment fee.
</P>
<P><I>52(b)(1)(i) Fees based on costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Costs incurred as a result of violations.</I> Section 226.52(b)(1)(i) does not require a card issuer to base a fee on the costs incurred as a result of a specific violation of the terms or other requirements of an account. Instead, for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a card issuer must have determined that a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account represents a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation. A card issuer may make a single determination for all of its credit card portfolios or may make separate determinations for each portfolio. The factors relevant to this determination include
</P>
<P>i. The number of violations of a particular type experienced by the card issuer during a prior period of reasonable length (for example, a period of twelve months).
</P>
<P>ii. The costs incurred by the card issuer during that period as a result of those violations.
</P>
<P>iii. At the card issuer's option, the number of fees imposed by the card issuer as a result of those violations during that period that the card issuer reasonably estimates it will be unable to collect. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(1)(i)-5.
</P>
<P>iv. At the card issuer's option, reasonable estimates for an upcoming period of changes in the number of violations of that type, the resulting costs, and the number of fees that the card issuer will be unable to collect. <I>See</I> illustrative examples in comments 52(b)(1)(i)-6 through -9.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts excluded from cost analysis.</I> The following amounts are not costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of violations of the terms or other requirements of an account for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i)
</P>
<P>i. Losses and associated costs (including the cost of holding reserves against potential losses and the cost of funding delinquent accounts).
</P>
<P>ii. Costs associated with evaluating whether consumers who have not violated the terms or other requirements of an account are likely to do so in the future (such as the costs associated with underwriting new accounts). However, once a violation of the terms or other requirements of an account has occurred, the costs associated with preventing additional violations for a reasonable period of time are costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of violations of the terms or other requirements of an account for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third party charges.</I> As a general matter, amounts charged to the card issuer by a third party as a result of a violation of the terms or other requirements of an account are costs incurred by the card issuer for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i). For example, if a card issuer is charged a specific amount by a third party for each returned payment, that amount is a cost incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments. However, if the amount is charged to the card issuer by an affiliate or subsidiary of the card issuer, the card issuer must have determined that the charge represents a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the affiliate or subsidiary as a result of the type of violation. For example, if an affiliate of a card issuer provides collection services to the card issuer on delinquent accounts, the card issuer must have determined that the amounts charged to the card issuer by the affiliate for such services represent a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the affiliate as a result of late payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amounts charged by other card issuers.</I> The fact that a card issuer's fees for violating the terms or other requirements of an account are comparable to fees assessed by other card issuers does not satisfy the requirements of § 226.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Uncollected fees.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a card issuer may consider fees that it is unable to collect when determining the appropriate fee amount. Fees that the card issuer is unable to collect include fees imposed on accounts that have been charged off by the card issuer, fees that have been discharged in bankruptcy, and fees that the card issuer is required to waive in order to comply with a legal requirement (such as a requirement imposed by 12 CFR part 226 or 50 U.S.C. app. 527). However, fees that the card issuer chooses not to impose or chooses not to collect (such as fees the card issuer chooses to waive at the request of the consumer or under a workout or temporary hardship arrangement) are not relevant for purposes of this determination. <I>See</I> illustrative examples in comments 52(b)(2)(i)-6 through -9.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Late payment fees.</I> i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of late payments.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of late payments include the costs associated with the collection of late payments, such as the costs associated with notifying consumers of delinquencies and resolving delinquencies (including the establishment of workout and temporary hardship arrangements).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Late payment fee based on past delinquencies and costs. Assume that, during year one, a card issuer experienced 1 million delinquencies and incurred $26 million in costs as a result of those delinquencies. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $26 late payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>B. Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect. Same facts as above except that the card issuer imposed a late payment fee for each of the 1 million delinquencies experienced during year one but was unable to collect 25% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 250,000 fees, leaving a total of 750,000 late payments for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), a late payment fee of $35 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>C. Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes. Same facts as paragraphs A. and B. above except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past delinquency rates and other factors relevant to potential delinquency rates for year two—it will experience a 2% decrease in delinquencies during year two (in other words, 20,000 fewer delinquencies for a total of 980,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect the same percentage of fees (25%) during year two as during year one (in other words, the card issuer will be unable to collect 245,000 fees, leaving a total of 735,000 late payments for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of delinquencies and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 5% increase in costs during year two (in other words, $1.3 million in additional costs for a total of $27.3 million). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $37 late payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Returned payment fees.</I> i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of returned payments.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of returned payments include
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with processing returned payments and reconciling the card issuer's systems and accounts to reflect returned payments;
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with investigating potential fraud with respect to returned payments; and
</P>
<P>C. Costs associated with notifying the consumer of the returned payment and arranging for a new payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Returned payment fee based on past returns and costs. Assume that, during year one, a card issuer experienced 150,000 returned payments and incurred $3.1 million in costs as a result of those returned payments. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $21 returned payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>B. Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect. Same facts as above except that the card issuer imposed a returned payment fee for each of the 150,000 returned payments experienced during year one but was unable to collect 15% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 22,500 fees, leaving a total of 127,500 returned payments for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), a returned payment fee of $24 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>C. Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes. Same facts as paragraphs A. and B. above except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past returned payment rates and other factors relevant to potential returned payment rates for year two—it will experience a 2% increase in returned payments during year two (in other words, 3,000 additional returned payments for a total of 153,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect 25% of returned payment fees during year two (in other words, the card issuer will be unable to collect 38,250 fees, leaving a total of 114,750 returned payments for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of returned payments and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 1% decrease in costs during year two (in other words, a $31,000 reduction in costs for a total of $3.069 million). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $27 returned payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Over-the-limit fees.</I> i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions include
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with determining whether to authorize over-the-limit transactions; and
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with notifying the consumer that the credit limit has been exceeded and arranging for payments to reduce the balance below the credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Costs not incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), costs associated with obtaining the affirmative consent of consumers to the card issuer's payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit consistent with § 226.56 are not costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Over-the-limit fee based on past fees and costs. Assume that, during year one, a card issuer authorized 600,000 over-the-limit transactions and incurred $4.5 million in costs as a result of those over-the-limit transactions. However, because of the affirmative consent requirements in § 226.56, the card issuer was only permitted to impose 200,000 over-the-limit fees during year one. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $23 over-the-limit fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>B. Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect. Same facts as above except that the card issuer was unable to collect 30% of the 200,000 over-the-limit fees imposed during year one (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 60,000 fees, leaving a total of 140,000 over-the-limit transactions for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), an over-the-limit fee of $32 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>C. Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes. Same facts as paragraphs A. and B. above except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past over-the-limit transaction rates, the percentages of over-the-limit transactions that resulted in an over-the-limit fee in the past (consistent with § 226.56), and factors relevant to potential changes in those rates and percentages for year two—it will authorize approximately the same number of over-the-limit transactions during year two (600,000) and impose approximately the same number of over-the-limit fees (200,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect the same percentage of fees (30%) during year two as during year one (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 60,000 fees, leaving a total of 140,000 over-the-limit transactions for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 6% decrease in costs during year two (in other words, a $270,000 reduction in costs for a total of $4.23 million). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $30 over-the-limit fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Declined access check fees.</I> i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of declined access checks.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of declining payment on a check that accesses a credit card account include
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with determining whether to decline payment on access checks;
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with processing declined access checks and reconciling the card issuer's systems and accounts to reflect declined access checks;
</P>
<P>C. Costs associated with investigating potential fraud with respect to declined access checks; and
</P>
<P>D. Costs associated with notifying the consumer and the merchant or other party that accepted the access check that payment on the check has been declined.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that, during year one, a card issuer declined 100,000 access checks and incurred $2 million in costs as a result of those declined checks. The card issuer imposed a fee for each declined access check but was unable to collect 10% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 10,000 fees, leaving a total of 90,000 declined access checks for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i), a $22 declined access check fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of declined access checks during year two.
</P>
<P><I>52(b)(1)(ii) Safe harbors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple violations of same type.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Same billing cycle or next six billing cycles.</I> A card issuer cannot impose a fee for a violation pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) unless a fee has previously been imposed for the same type of violation pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). Once a fee has been imposed for a violation pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer may impose a fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) for any subsequent violation of the same type until that type of violation has not occurred for a period of six consecutive complete billing cycles. A fee has been imposed for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) even if the card issuer waives or rebates all or part of the fee.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Late payments.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), a late payment occurs during the billing cycle in which the payment may first be treated as late consistent with the requirements of 12 CFR Part 226 and the terms or other requirements of the account.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Returned payments.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), a returned payment occurs during the billing cycle in which the payment is returned to the card issuer.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Transactions that exceed the credit limit.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), a transaction that exceeds the credit limit for an account occurs during the billing cycle in which the transaction occurs or is authorized by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Declined access checks.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), a check that accesses a credit card account is declined during the billing cycle in which the card issuer declines payment on the check.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Relationship to §§ 226.52(b)(2)(ii) and 226.56(j)(1).</I> If multiple violations are based on the same event or transaction such that § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing more than one fee, the event or transaction constitutes a single violation for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii). Furthermore, consistent with § 226.56(j)(1)(i), no more than one violation for exceeding an account's credit limit can occur during a single billing cycle for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii). However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit a card issuer from imposing fees for exceeding the credit limit in consecutive billing cycles based on the same over-the-limit transaction to the extent permitted by § 226.56(j)(1). In these circumstances, the second and third over-the-limit fees permitted by § 226.56(j)(1) may be imposed pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B). <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B) with respect to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that are not charge card accounts. For purposes of these examples, assume that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Violations of same type (late payments).</I> A required minimum periodic payment of $50 is due on March 25. On March 26, a late payment has occurred because no payment has been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer imposes a $25 late payment fee on March 26. In order for the card issuer to impose a $35 late payment fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), a second late payment must occur during the April, May, June, July, August, or September billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(1) The card issuer does not receive any payment during the March billing cycle. A required minimum periodic payment of $100 is due on April 25. On April 20, the card issuer receives a $50 payment. No further payment is received during the April billing cycle. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), the card issuer may impose a $35 late payment fee on April 26. Furthermore, the card issuer may impose a $35 late payment fee for any late payment that occurs during the May, June, July, August, September, or October billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(2) Same facts as in paragraph A. above. On March 30, the card issuer receives a $50 payment and the required minimum periodic payments for the April, May, June, July, August, and September billing cycles are received on or before the payment due date. A required minimum periodic payment of $60 is due on October 25. On October 26, a late payment has occurred because the required minimum periodic payment due on October 25 has not been received. However, because this late payment did not occur during the six billing cycles following the March billing cycle, § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) only permits the card issuer to impose a late payment fee of $25.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Violations of different types (late payment and over the credit limit).</I> The credit limit for an account is $1,000. Consistent with § 226.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. A required minimum periodic payment of $30 is due on August 25. On August 26, a late payment has occurred because no payment has been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer imposes a $25 late payment fee on August 26. On August 30, the card issuer receives a $30 payment. On September 10, a transaction causes the account balance to increase to $1,150, which exceeds the account's $1,000 credit limit. On September 11, a second transaction increases the account balance to $1,350. On September 23, the card issuer receives the $50 required minimum periodic payment due on September 25, which reduces the account balance to $1,300. On September 30, the card issuer imposes a $25 over-the-limit fee, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). On October 26, a late payment has occurred because the $60 required minimum periodic payment due on October 25 has not been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), the card issuer imposes a $35 late payment fee on October 26.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Violations of different types (late payment and returned payment).</I> A required minimum periodic payment of $50 is due on July 25. On July 26, a late payment has occurred because no payment has been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer imposes a $25 late payment fee on July 26. On July 30, the card issuer receives a $50 payment. A required minimum periodic payment of $50 is due on August 25. On August 24, a $50 payment is received. On August 27, the $50 payment is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds. In these circumstances, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) permits the card issuer to impose either a late payment fee or a returned payment fee but not both because the late payment and the returned payment result from the same event or transaction. Accordingly, for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii), the event or transaction constitutes a single violation. However, if the card issuer imposes a late payment fee, § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) permits the issuer to impose a fee of $35 because the late payment occurred during the six billing cycles following the July billing cycle. In contrast, if the card issuer imposes a returned payment fee, the amount of the fee may be no more than $25 pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustments based on Consumer Price Index.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B), the Board shall calculate each year price level adjusted amounts using the Consumer Price Index in effect on June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current amounts in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B) has risen by a whole dollar, those amounts will be increased by $1.00. Similarly, when the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current amounts in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B) has decreased by a whole dollar, those amounts will be decreased by $1.00. The Board will publish adjustments to the amounts in § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Delinquent balance for charge card accounts.</I> Section 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) provides that, when a charge card issuer that requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle has not received the required payment for two or more consecutive billing cycles, the card issuer may impose a late payment fee that does not exceed three percent of the delinquent balance. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the delinquent balance is any previously billed amount that remains unpaid at the time the late payment fee is imposed pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C). Consistent with § 226.52(b)(2)(ii), a charge card issuer that imposes a fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) with respect to a late payment may not impose a fee pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) with respect to the same late payment. The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C)
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a charge card issuer requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle and that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. At the end of the June billing cycle, the account has a balance of $1,000. On July 5, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing the $1,000 balance consistent with § 226.7. During the July billing cycle, the account is used for $300 in transactions, increasing the balance to $1,300. At the end of the July billing cycle, no payment has been received and the card issuer imposes a $25 late payment fee consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). On August 5, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing the $1,325 balance consistent with § 226.7. During the August billing cycle, the account is used for $200 in transactions, increasing the balance to $1,525. At the end of the August billing cycle, no payment has been received. Consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $40, which is 3% of the $1,325 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle. Section 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) does not permit the card issuer to include the $200 in transactions that occurred during the August billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on August 25, a $100 payment is received. Consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $37, which is 3% of the unpaid portion of the $1,325 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle ($1,225).
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in paragraph A. above except that, on August 25, a $200 payment is received. Consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $34, which is 3% of the unpaid portion of the $1,325 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle ($1,125). In the alternative, the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $35 consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B). However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees.
</P>
<P><I>52(b)(2) Prohibited fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.52(b)(1).</I> A card issuer does not comply with § 226.52(b) if it imposes a fee that is inconsistent with the prohibitions in § 226.52(b)(2). Thus, the prohibitions in § 226.52(b)(2) apply even if a fee is consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii). For example, even if a card issuer has determined for purposes of § 226.52(b)(1)(i) that a $27 fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of a particular type of violation, § 226.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing that fee if the dollar amount associated with the violation is less than $27. Similarly, even if § 226.52(b)(1)(ii) permits a card issuer to impose a $25 fee, § 226.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing that fee if the dollar amount associated with the violation is less than $25.
</P>
<P><I>52(b)(2)(i) Fees that exceed dollar amount associated with violation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Late payment fees.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with a late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due immediately prior to assessment of the late payment fee. Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a late payment fee that exceeds the amount of that required minimum periodic payment. For example
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a $15 required minimum periodic payment is due on September 25. The card issuer does not receive any payment on or before September 25. On September 26, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on September 25 ($15). Thus, under § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of that fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on September 25, the card issuer receives a $10 payment. No further payments are received. On September 26, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the full amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on September 25 ($15), rather than the unpaid portion of that payment ($5). Thus, under § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of the late payment fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a $15 required minimum periodic payment is due on October 28 and the billing cycle for the account closes on October 31. The card issuer does not receive any payment on or before November 3. On November 3, the card issuer determines that the required minimum periodic payment due on November 28 is $50. On November 5, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on October 28 ($15), rather than the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on November 28 ($50). Thus, under § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of that fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Returned payment fees.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with a returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due immediately prior to the date on which the payment is returned to the card issuer. Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds the amount of that required minimum periodic payment. However, if a payment has been returned and is submitted again for payment by the card issuer, there is no additional dollar amount associated with a subsequent return of that payment and § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an additional returned payment fee. For example
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. A minimum payment of $15 is due on March 25. The card issuer receives a check for $100 on March 23, which is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds on March 26. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 ($15). Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)). Furthermore, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from assessing both a late payment fee and a returned payment fee in these circumstances. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that the card issuer receives the $100 check on March 31 and the check is returned for insufficient funds on April 2. The minimum payment due on April 25 is $30. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 ($15), rather than the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on April 25 ($30). Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)). Furthermore, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from assessing both a late payment fee and a returned payment fee in these circumstances. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as paragraph i. above except that, on March 28, the card issuer presents the $100 check for payment a second time. On April 1, the check is again returned for insufficient funds. Section 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee based on the return of the payment on April 1.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. A minimum payment of $15 is due on August 25. The card issuer receives a check for $15 on August 23, which is not returned. The card issuer receives a check for $50 on September 5, which is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds on September 7. Section 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee in these circumstances. Instead, for purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on August 25 ($15). Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Over-the-limit fees.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit for an account is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the billing cycle in which the over-the-limit fee is imposed. Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee that exceeds that amount. Nothing in § 226.52(b) permits a card issuer to impose an over-the-limit fee if imposition of the fee is inconsistent with § 226.56. The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) to over-the-limit fees
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account with a credit limit of $5,000 begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. Assume also that, consistent with § 226.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On March 1, the account has a $4,950 balance. On March 6, a $60 transaction is charged to the account, increasing the balance to $5,010. On March 25, a $5 transaction is charged to the account, increasing the balance to $5,015. On the last day of the billing cycle (March 31), the card issuer imposes an over-the-limit fee. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the March billing cycle ($15). Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 226.52(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on March 26, the card issuer receives a payment of $20, reducing the balance below the credit limit to $4,995. Nevertheless, for purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the March billing cycle ($15). Thus, consistent with § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $15.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Declined access check fees.</I> For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with declining payment on a check that accesses a credit card account is the amount of the check. Thus, when a check that accesses a credit card account is declined, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee that exceeds the amount of that check. For example, assume that a check that accesses a credit card account is used as payment for a $50 transaction, but payment on the check is declined by the card issuer because the transaction would have exceeded the credit limit for the account. For purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the declined check is the amount of the check ($50). Thus, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a fee that exceeds $50. However, the amount of this fee must also comply with § 226.52(b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Inactivity fees.</I> Section 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee with respect to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan based on inactivity on that account (including the consumer's failure to use the account for a particular number or dollar amount of transactions or a particular type of transaction). For example, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a $50 fee when a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is not used for at least $2,000 in purchases over the course of a year. Similarly, § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a $50 annual fee on all accounts of a particular type but waiving the fee on any account that is used for at least $2,000 in purchases over the course of a year if the card issuer promotes the waiver or rebate of the annual fee for purposes of § 226.55(e). However, if the card issuer does not promote the waiver or rebate of the annual fee for purposes of § 226.55(e), § 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit a card issuer from considering account activity along with other factors when deciding whether to waive or rebate annual fees on individual accounts (such as in response to a consumer's request).
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<P>6. <I>Closed account fees.</I> Section 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee based on the closure or termination of an account. For example, 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) prohibits a card issuer from
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<P>i. Imposing a one-time fee to consumers who close their accounts.
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<P>ii. Imposing a periodic fee (such as an annual fee, a monthly maintenance fee, or a closed account fee) after an account is closed or terminated if that fee was not imposed prior to closure or termination. This prohibition applies even if the fee was disclosed prior to closure or termination. <I>See also</I> comment 55(d)-1.
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<P>iii. Increasing a periodic fee (such as an annual fee or a monthly maintenance fee) after an account is closed or terminated. However, a card issuer is not prohibited from continuing to impose a periodic fee that was imposed before the account was closed or terminated.
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<P><I>52(b)(2)(ii) Multiple fees based on single event or transaction.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Single event or transaction.</I> Section 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits a card issuer from imposing more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account based on a single event or transaction. If § 226.56(j)(1) permits a card issuer to impose fees for exceeding the credit limit in consecutive billing cycles based on the same over-the-limit transaction, those fees are not based on a single event or transaction for purposes of § 226.52(b)(2)(ii). The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.52(b)(2)(ii). Assume for purposes of these examples that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month.
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<P>i. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $20. On March 26, the card issuer has not received any payment and imposes a late payment fee. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i), the card issuer may impose a $20 late payment fee on March 26. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an additional late payment fee if the $20 minimum payment has not been received by a subsequent date (such as March 31).
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<P>A. On April 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $70 required minimum periodic payment is due on April 25. This minimum payment includes the $20 minimum payment due on March 25 and the $20 late payment fee imposed on March 26. On April 20, the card issuer receives a $20 payment. No additional payments are received during the April billing cycle. Section 226.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee based on the consumer's failure to make the $70 required minimum periodic payment on or before April 25. Accordingly, consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) and (b)(2)(i), the card issuer may impose a $35 late payment fee on April 26.
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<P>B. On April 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $20 required minimum periodic payment is due on April 25. This minimum payment does not include the $20 minimum payment due on March 25 or the $20 late payment fee imposed on March 26. On April 20, the card issuer receives a $20 payment. No additional payments are received during the April billing cycle. Because the card issuer has received the required minimum periodic payment due on April 25 and because § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a second late payment fee based on the consumer's failure to make the $20 minimum payment due on March 25, the card issuer cannot impose a late payment fee in these circumstances.
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<P>ii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $30.
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<P>A. On March 25, the card issuer receives a check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 27. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $25 or a returned payment fee of $25. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>B. Same facts as paragraph ii.A. above except that that card issuer receives the $50 check on March 27 and the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 29. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $25 or a returned payment fee of $25. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction. If no payment is received on or before the next payment due date (April 25), § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee.
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<P>iii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on July 25 is $30. On July 10, the card issuer receives a $50 payment, which is not returned. On July 20, the card issuer receives a $100 payment, which is returned for insufficient funds on July 24. Consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25. Nothing in § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the imposition of this fee.
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<P>iv. Assume that the credit limit for an account is $1,000 and that, consistent with § 226.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On March 31, the balance on the account is $970 and the card issuer has not received the $35 required minimum periodic payment due on March 25. On that same date (March 31), a $70 transaction is charged to the account, which increases the balance to $1,040. Consistent with § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $25 and an over-the-limit fee of $25. Section 226.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the imposition of both fees because those fees are based on different events or transactions. No additional transactions are charged to the account during the March, April, or May billing cycles. If the account balance remains more than $35 above the credit limit on April 26, the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), to the extent consistent with § 226.56(j)(1). Furthermore, if the account balance remains more than $35 above the credit limit on May 26, the card issuer may again impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), to the extent consistent with § 226.56(j)(1). Thereafter, § 226.56(j)(1) does not permit the card issuer to impose additional over-the-limit fees unless another over-the-limit transaction occurs. However, if an over-the-limit transaction occurs during the six billing cycles following the May billing cycle, the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(B).
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<P>v. Assume that the credit limit for an account is $5,000 and that, consistent with § 226.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On July 23, the balance on the account is $4,950. On July 24, the card issuer receives the $100 required minimum periodic payment due on July 25, reducing the balance to $4,850. On July 26, a $75 transaction is charged to the account, which increases the balance to $4,925. On July 27, the $100 payment is returned for insufficient funds, increasing the balance to $5,025. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25 or an over-the-limit fee of $25. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>vi. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $50. On March 20, the card issuer receives a check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 22. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25. On March 25, the card issuer receives a second check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 27. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), (b)(1)(ii)(B), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $25 or a returned payment fee of $35. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>vii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on February 25 is $100. On February 25, the card issuer receives a check for $100. On March 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $120 required minimum periodic payment is due on March 25. On March 4, the $100 check is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds. Consistent with §§ 226.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $25 or a returned payment fee of $25 with respect to the $100 payment. However, § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction. On March 20, the card issuer receives a $120 check, which is not returned. No additional payments are received during the March billing cycle. Because the card issuer has received the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 and because § 226.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a second fee based on the $100 payment that was returned for insufficient funds, the card issuer cannot impose a late payment fee in these circumstances.
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<HD2>Section 226.53—Allocation of Payments
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<P>1. <I>Required minimum periodic payment.</I> Section 226.53 addresses the allocation of amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the minimum periodic payment required by the card issuer. Section 226.53 does not limit or otherwise address the card issuer's ability to determine, consistent with applicable law and regulatory guidance, the amount of the required minimum periodic payment or how that payment is allocated. A card issuer may, but is not required to, allocate the required minimum periodic payment consistent with the requirements in § 226.53 to the extent consistent with other applicable law or regulatory guidance.
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<P>2. <I>Applicable rates and balances.</I> Section 226.53 permits a card issuer to allocate an amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment based on the annual percentage rates and balances on the day the preceding billing cycle ends, on the day the payment is credited to the account, or on any day in between those two dates. The day used by the card issuer to determine the applicable annual percentage rates and balances for purposes of § 226.53 generally must be consistent from billing cycle to billing cycle, although the card issuer may adjust this day from time to time. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account start on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. On the date the March billing cycle ends (March 31), the account has a purchase balance of $500 at a promotional annual percentage rate of 5% and another purchase balance of $200 at a non-promotional annual percentage rate of 15%. On April 5, a $100 purchase to which the 15% rate applies is charged to the account. On April 15, the promotional rate expires and § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to the $500 balance from 5% to 18%. On April 25, the card issuer credits to the account $400 paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. If the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the last day of the prior billing cycle, the card issuer would allocate the $400 payment to pay in full the $200 balance to which the 15% rate applied on March 31 and then allocate the remaining $200 to the $500 balance to which the 5% rate applied on March 31. In the alternative, if the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the day a payment is credited to the account, the card issuer would allocate the $400 payment to the $500 balance to which the 18% rate applied on April 25.
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on April 25, the card issuer credits to the account $750 paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. If the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the last day of the prior billing cycle, the card issuer would allocate the $750 payment to pay in full the $200 balance to which the 15% rate applied on March 31 and the $500 balance to which the 5% rate applied on March 31 and then allocate the remaining $50 to the $100 purchase made on April 5. In the alternative, if the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the day a payment is credited to the account, the card issuer would allocate the $750 payment to pay in full the $500 balance to which the 18% rate applied on April 25 and then allocate the remaining $250 to the $300 balance to which the 15% rate applied on April 25.
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<P>3. <I>Claims or defenses under § 226.12(c) and billing error disputes under § 226.13.</I> When a consumer has asserted a claim or defense against the card issuer pursuant to § 226.12(c) or alleged a billing error under § 226.13, the card issuer must apply the consumer's payment in a manner that avoids or minimizes any reduction in the amount subject to that claim, defense, or dispute. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a credit card account has a $500 cash advance balance at an annual percentage rate of 25% and a $1,000 purchase balance at an annual percentage rate of 17%. Assume also that $200 of the cash advance balance is subject to a claim or defense under § 226.12(c) or a billing error dispute under § 226.13. If the consumer pays $900 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment, the card issuer must allocate $300 of the excess payment to pay in full the portion of the cash advance balance that is not subject to the claim, defense, or dispute and then allocate the remaining $600 to the $1,000 purchase balance.
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that the consumer pays $1,400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. The card issuer must allocate $1,300 of the excess payment to pay in full the $300 cash advance balance that is not subject to the claim, defense, or dispute and the $1,000 purchase balance. If there are no new transactions or other amounts to which the remaining $100 can be allocated, the card issuer may apply that amount to the $200 cash advance balance that is subject to the claim, defense, or dispute. However, if the card issuer subsequently determines that a billing error occurred as asserted by the consumer, the card issuer must credit the account for the disputed amount and any related finance or other charges and send a correction notice consistent with § 226.13(e).
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<P>4. <I>Balances with the same rate.</I> When the same annual percentage rate applies to more than one balance on an account and a different annual percentage rate applies to at least one other balance on that account, § 226.53 generally does not require that any particular method be used when allocating among the balances with the same annual percentage rate. Under these circumstances, a card issuer may treat the balances with the same rate as a single balance or separate balances. <I>See</I> example in comment 53-5.iv. However, when a balance on a credit card account is subject to a deferred interest or similar program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on the balance if the balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time, that balance must be treated as a balance with an annual percentage rate of zero for purposes of § 226.53 during that period of time. For example, if an account has a $1,000 purchase balance and a $2,000 balance that is subject to a deferred interest program that expires on July 1 and a 15% annual percentage rate applies to both, the balances must be treated as balances with different rates for purposes of § 226.53 until July 1. In addition, unless the card issuer allocates amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment in the manner requested by the consumer pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii), § 226.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to apply any excess payments first to the $1,000 purchase balance except during the last two billing cycles of the deferred interest period (when it must be applied first to any remaining portion of the $2,000 balance). <I>See</I> example in comment 53-5.v.
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<P>5. <I>Examples.</I> For purposes of the following examples, assume that none of the required minimum periodic payment is allocated to the balances discussed (unless otherwise stated).
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<P>i. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and a purchase balance of $1,500 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and that the consumer pays $800 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 226.53(a), the card issuer must allocate $500 to pay off the cash advance balance and then allocate the remaining $300 to the purchase balance.
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<P>ii. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and a purchase balance of $1,500 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and that the consumer pays $400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 226.53(a), the card issuer must allocate the entire $400 to the cash advance balance.
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<P>iii. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $100 at an annual percentage rate of 20%, a purchase balance of $300 at an annual percentage rate of 18%, and a $600 protected balance on which the 12% annual percentage rate cannot be increased pursuant to § 226.55. If the consumer pays $500 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment, § 226.53(a) requires the card issuer to allocate $100 to pay off the cash advance balance, $300 to pay off the purchase balance, and $100 to the protected balance.
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<P>iv. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20%, a purchase balance of $1,000 at an annual percentage rate of 15%, and a transferred balance of $2,000 that was previously at a discounted annual percentage rate of 5% but is now at an annual percentage rate of 15%. Assume also that the consumer pays $800 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 226.53(a), the card issuer must allocate $500 to pay off the cash advance balance and allocate the remaining $300 among the purchase balance and the transferred balance in the manner the card issuer deems appropriate.
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<P>v. Assume that on January 1 a consumer uses a credit card account to make a $1,200 purchase subject to a deferred interest program under which interest accrues at an annual percentage rate of 15% but the consumer will not be obligated to pay that interest if the balance is paid in full on or before June 30. The billing cycles for this account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. Each month from January through June, the consumer uses the account to make $200 in purchases that are not subject to the deferred interest program but are subject to the 15% rate
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<P>A. Each month from February through June, the consumer pays $400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment on the payment due date, which is the twenty-fifth of the month. Any interest that accrues on the purchases not subject to the deferred interest program is paid by the required minimum periodic payment. The card issuer does not accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii). Thus, § 226.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the $400 excess payments received on February 25, March 25, and April 25 consistent with § 226.53(a). In other words, the card issuer must allocate those payments as follows: $200 to pay off the balance not subject to the deferred interest program (which is subject to the 15% rate) and the remaining $200 to the deferred interest balance (which is treated as a balance with a rate of zero). However, § 226.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the entire $400 excess payment received on May 25 to the deferred interest balance. Similarly, § 226.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the $400 excess payment received on June 25 as follows: $200 to the deferred interest balance (which pays that balance in full) and the remaining $200 to the balance not subject to the deferred interest program.
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<P>B. Same facts as above, except that the card issuer does accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii). In addition, on April 25, the card issuer receives an excess payment of $800, which the consumer requests be allocated to pay off the $800 balance subject to the deferred interest program. Section 226.53(b)(1)(ii) permits the card issuer to allocate the $800 excess payment in the manner requested by the consumer.
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<P><I>53(b) Special rules.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Deferred interest and similar programs.</I> Section 226.53(b)(1) applies to deferred interest or similar programs under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. For purposes of § 226.53(b)(1), “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 226.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. Section 226.53(b)(1) applies regardless of whether the consumer is required to make payments with respect to that balance during the specified period. However, a grace period during which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate is not a deferred interest or similar program for purposes of § 226.53(b)(1). Similarly, a temporary annual percentage rate of zero percent that applies for a specified period of time consistent with § 226.55(b)(1) is not a deferred interest or similar program for purposes of § 226.53(b)(1) unless the consumer may be obligated to pay interest that accrues during the period if a balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the period.
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<P>2. <I>Expiration of deferred interest or similar program during billing cycle.</I> For purposes of § 226.53(b)(1)(i), a billing cycle does not constitute one of the two billing cycles immediately preceding expiration of a deferred interest or similar program if the expiration date for the program precedes the payment due date in that billing cycle. For example, assume that a credit card account has a balance subject to a deferred interest program that expires on June 15. Assume also that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the required minimum periodic payment is due on the twenty-fifth day of the month. The card issuer does not accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii). Because the expiration date for the deferred interest program (June 15) precedes the due date in the June billing cycle (June 25), § 226.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate first to the deferred interest balance any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment during the April and May billing cycles (as well as any amount paid by the consumer before June 15). However, if the deferred interest program expired on June 25 or on June 30 (or on any day in between), § 226.53(b)(1)(i) would apply only to the May and June billing cycles.
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<P>3. <I>Consumer requests.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> Section 226.53(b) does not require a card issuer to allocate amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment in the manner requested by the consumer, provided that the card issuer instead allocates such amounts consistent with § 226.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable. For example, a card issuer may decline consumer requests regarding payment allocation as a general matter or may decline such requests when a consumer does not comply with requirements set by the card issuer (such as submitting the request in writing or submitting the request prior to or contemporaneously with submission of the payment), provided that amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment are allocated consistent with § 226.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable. Similarly, a card issuer that accepts requests pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) must allocate amounts paid by a consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment consistent with § 226.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, if the consumer does not submit a request. Furthermore, a card issuer that accepts requests pursuant to § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) must allocate consistent with § 226.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, if the consumer submits a request with which the card issuer cannot comply (such as a request that contains a mathematical error), unless the consumer submits an additional request with which the card issuer can comply.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples of consumer requests that satisfy § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2).</I> A consumer has made a request for purposes of § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) if
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<P>A. The consumer contacts the card issuer orally, electronically, or in writing and specifically requests that a payment or payments be allocated in a particular manner during the period of time that the deferred interest or similar program applies to a balance on the account or the period of time that a balance on the account is secured.
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<P>B. The consumer completes and submits to the card issuer a form or payment coupon provided by the card issuer for the purpose of requesting that a payment or payments be allocated in a particular manner during the period of time that the deferred interest or similar program applies to a balance on the account or the period of time that a balance on the account is secured.
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<P>C. The consumer contacts the card issuer orally, electronically, or in writing and specifically requests that a payment that the card issuer has previously allocated consistent with § 226.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, instead be allocated in a different manner.
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<P>iii. <I>Examples of consumer requests that do not satisfy § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2).</I> A consumer has not made a request for purposes of § 226.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) if
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<P>A. The terms and conditions of the account agreement contain preprinted language stating that by applying to open an account, by using that account for transactions subject to a deferred interest or similar program, or by using the account to purchase property in which the card issuer holds a security interest the consumer requests that payments be allocated in a particular manner.
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<P>B. The card issuer's on-line application contains a preselected check box indicating that the consumer requests that payments be allocated in a particular manner and the consumer does not deselect the box.
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<P>C. The payment coupon provided by the card issuer contains preprinted language or a preselected check box stating that by submitting a payment the consumer requests that the payment be allocated in a particular manner.
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<P>D. The card issuer requires a consumer to accept a particular payment allocation method as a condition of using a deferred interest or similar program, purchasing property in which the card issuer holds a security interest, making a payment, or receiving account services or features.
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<HD2>Section 226.54—Limitations on the Imposition of Finance Charges
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<P><I>54(a) Limitations on imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period.</I>
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<P><I>54(a)(1) General rule.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Eligibility for grace period.</I> Section 226.54 prohibits the imposition of finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period in certain specified circumstances. Section 226.54 does not require the card issuer to provide a grace period. Furthermore, § 226.54 does not prohibit the card issuer from placing limitations and conditions on a grace period (such as limiting application of the grace period to certain types of transactions or conditioning eligibility for the grace period on certain transactions being paid in full by a particular date), provided that such limitations and conditions are consistent with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 226.54. Finally, § 226.54 does not limit the imposition of finance charges with respect to a transaction when the consumer is not eligible for a grace period on that transaction at the end of the billing cycle in which the transaction occurred. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. Assume also that, for purchases made during the current billing cycle (for purposes of this example, the June billing cycle), the grace period applies from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle (July 25), subject to two conditions. First, the purchase balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle (the May billing cycle) must have been paid in full by the payment due date in the current billing cycle (June 25). Second, the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) must be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). Finally, assume that the consumer was eligible for a grace period at the start of the June billing cycle (in other words, assume that the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25).
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<P>A. If the consumer pays the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, then at the end of the June billing cycle the consumer is eligible for a grace period with respect to purchases made during that billing cycle. Therefore, § 226.54 limits the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle if the consumer does not pay the purchase balance for the June billing cycle in full by July 25. Specifically, § 226.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on the purchase balance at the end of the June billing cycle for days that precede the July billing cycle. Furthermore, § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on any portion of the balance at the end of the June billing cycle that was paid on or before July 25.
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<P>B. If the consumer does not pay the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, then the consumer is not eligible for a grace period with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle at the end of that cycle. Therefore, § 226.54 does not limit the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle regardless of whether the consumer pays the purchase balance for the June billing cycle in full by July 25.
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that the card issuer places only one condition on the provision of a grace period for purchases made during the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle): that the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). In these circumstances, § 226.54 applies to the same extent as discussed in paragraphs i.A. and i.B. above regardless of whether the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25.
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<P>2. <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of §§ 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and 226.54, a grace period is a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. The following are not grace periods for purposes of § 226.54:
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<P>i. <I>Deferred interest and similar programs.</I> A deferred interest or similar promotional program under which a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time is not a grace period for purposes of § 226.54. Thus, § 226.54 does not prohibit the card issuer from charging accrued interest to an account upon expiration of a deferred interest or similar program if the balance was not paid in full prior to expiration (to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law and regulatory guidance).
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<P>ii. <I>Waivers or rebates of interest.</I> As a general matter, a card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to transactions for purposes of § 226.54 if, on an individualized basis (such as in response to a consumer's request), the card issuer waives or rebates finance charges that have accrued on transactions. In addition, when a balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle is paid in full on or before the payment due date in the current billing cycle, a card issuer that waives or rebates trailing or residual interest accrued on that balance or any other transactions during the current billing cycle has not provided a grace period with respect to that balance or any other transactions for purposes of § 226.54. However, if the terms of the account provide that all interest accrued on transactions will be waived or rebated if the balance for those transactions at the end of the billing cycle during which the transactions occurred is paid in full by the following payment due date, the card issuer is providing a grace period with respect to those transactions for purposes of § 226.54. For example:
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<P>A. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. On March 31, the balance on the account is $1,000 and the consumer is not eligible for a grace period with respect to that balance because the balance at the end of the prior billing cycle was not paid in full on March 25. On April 15, the consumer uses the account for a $500 purchase. On April 25, the card issuer receives a payment of $1,000. On May 3, the card issuer mails or delivers a periodic statement reflecting trailing or residual interest that accrued on the $1,000 balance from April 1 through April 24 as well as interest that accrued on the $500 purchase from April 15 through April 30. On May 10, the consumer requests that the trailing or residual interest charges be waived and the card issuer complies. By waiving these interest charges, the card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to the $1,000 balance or the $500 purchase.
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<P>B. Same facts as in paragraph ii.A. above except that the terms of the account state that trailing or residual interest will be waived in these circumstances or it is the card issuer's practice to waive trailing or residual interest in these circumstances. By waiving these interest charges, the card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to the $1,000 balance or the $500 purchase.
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<P>C. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. Assume also that, for purchases made during the current billing cycle (for purposes of this example, the June billing cycle), the terms of the account provide that interest accrued on those purchases from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle (July 25) will be waived or rebated, subject to two conditions. First, the purchase balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle (the May billing cycle) must have been paid in full by the payment due date in the current billing cycle (June 25). Second, the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) must be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). Under these circumstances, the card issuer is providing a grace period on purchases for purposes of § 226.54. Therefore, assuming that the consumer was eligible for this grace period at the start of the June billing cycle (in other words, assuming that the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25) and assuming that the consumer pays the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, § 226.54 applies to the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle. Specifically, § 226.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on the purchase balance at the end of the June billing cycle for days that precede the July billing cycle. Furthermore, § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on any portion of the balance at the end of the June billing cycle that was paid on or before July 25.
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<P>3. <I>Relationship to payment allocation requirements in § 226.53.</I> Card issuers must comply with the payment allocation requirements in § 226.53 even if doing so will result in the loss of a grace period.
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<P>4. <I>Prohibition on two-cycle balance computation method.</I> When a consumer ceases to be eligible for a grace period, § 226.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from computing the finance charge using the two-cycle average daily balance computation method. This method calculates the finance charge using a balance that is the sum of the average daily balances for two billing cycles. The first balance is for the current billing cycle, and is calculated by adding the total balance (including or excluding new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. The second balance is for the preceding billing cycle.
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<P>5. <I>Prohibition on imposing finance charges on amounts paid within grace period.</I> When a balance on a credit card account is eligible for a grace period and the card issuer receives payment for some but not all of that balance prior to the expiration of the grace period, § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges on the portion of the balance paid. Card issuers are not required to use a particular method to comply with § 226.54(a)(1)(ii). However, when § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) applies, a card issuer is in compliance if, for example, it applies the consumer's payment to the balance subject to the grace period at the end of the preceding billing cycle (in a manner consistent with the payment allocation requirements in § 226.53) and then calculates interest charges based on the amount of the balance that remains unpaid.
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<P>6. <I>Examples.</I> Assume that the annual percentage rate for purchases on a credit card account is 15%. The billing cycle starts on the first day of the month and ends on the last day of the month. The payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month. For purchases made during the current billing cycle, the card issuer provides a grace period from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle, provided that the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle is paid in full by the following payment due date. For purposes of this example, assume that none of the required minimum periodic payment is allocated to the balances discussed. During the March billing cycle, the following transactions are charged to the account: A $100 purchase on March 10, a $200 purchase on March 15, and a $300 purchase on March 20. On March 25, the purchase balance for the February billing cycle is paid in full. Thus, for purposes of § 226.54, the consumer is eligible for a grace period on the March purchases. At the end of the March billing cycle (March 31), the consumer's total purchase balance is $600 and the consumer will not be charged interest on that balance if it is paid in full by the following due date (April 25).
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<P>i. On April 10, a $150 purchase is charged to the account. On April 25, the card issuer receives $500 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Section 226.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from reaching back and charging interest on any of the March transactions from the date of the transaction through the end of the March billing cycle (March 31). In these circumstances, the card issuer may comply with § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) by applying the $500 excess payment to the $600 purchase balance and then charging interest only on the portion of the $600 purchase balance that remains unpaid ($100) from the start of the April billing cycle (April 1) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 30). In addition, the card issuer may charge interest on the $150 purchase from the date of the transaction (April 10) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 31).
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<P>ii. Same facts as in paragraph 6. above except that, on March 18, a $250 cash advance is charged to the account at an annual percentage rate of 25%. The card issuer's grace period does not apply to cash advances, but the card issuer does provide a grace period on the March purchases because the purchase balance for the February billing cycle is paid in full on March 25. On April 25, the card issuer receives $600 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. As required by § 226.53, the card issuer allocates the $600 excess payment first to the balance with the highest annual percentage rate (the $250 cash advance balance). Although § 226.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from charging interest on the March purchases based on days in the March billing cycle, the card issuer may charge interest on the $250 cash advance from the date of the transaction (March 18) through April 24. In these circumstances, the card issuer may comply with § 226.54(a)(1)(ii) by applying the remainder of the excess payment ($350) to the $600 purchase balance and then charging interest only on the portion of the $600 purchase balance that remains unpaid ($250) from the start of the April billing cycle (April 1) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 30).
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<P>iii. Same facts as in paragraph 6. above except that the consumer does not pay the balance for the February billing cycle in full on March 25 and therefore is not eligible for a grace period on the March purchases. Under these circumstances, § 226.54 does not apply and the card issuer may charge interest from the date of each transaction through April 24 and interest on the remaining $100 from April 25 through the end of the April billing cycle (April 25).
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<HD2>Section 226.55—Limitations on Increasing Annual Percentage Rates, Fees, and Charges
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<P><I>55(a) General rule.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Increase in rate, fee, or charge.</I> Section 226.55(a) prohibits card issuers from increasing an annual percentage rate or any fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on a credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). Except as specifically provided in § 226.55(b), this prohibition applies even if the circumstances under which an increase will occur are disclosed in advance. The following examples illustrate the general application of § 226.55(a) and (b). Additional examples illustrating specific aspects of the exceptions in § 226.55(b) are provided in the commentary to those exceptions.
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<P>i. <I>Account-opening disclosure of non-variable rate for six months, then variable rate.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases is a non-variable rate of 15% and will apply for six months. The card issuer also discloses that, after six months, the annual percentage rate for purchases will be a variable rate that is currently 18% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 8 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. Furthermore, the card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for cash advances is the same variable rate that will apply to purchases after six months. Finally, the card issuer discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer makes a late payment. The payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month and the required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase and cash advance balances.
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<P>A. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year.</I> On January 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account to make a $2,000 purchase and a $500 cash advance. No other transactions are made on the account. At the start of each quarter, the card issuer may adjust the variable rate that applies to the $500 cash advance consistent with changes in the index (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2)). All required minimum periodic payments are received on or before the payment due date until May of year one, when the payment due on May 25 is received by the creditor on May 28. At this time, the card issuer is prohibited by § 226.55 from increasing the rates that apply to the $2,000 purchase, the $500 cash advance, or future purchases and cash advances. Six months after account opening (July 1), the card issuer may begin to accrue interest on the $2,000 purchase at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using an 8-point margin (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). Because no other increases in rate were disclosed at account opening, the card issuer may not subsequently increase the variable rate that applies to the $2,000 purchase and the $500 cash advance (except due to increases in the index pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2)). On November 16, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two (calculated using the same index and an increased margin of 12 percentage points). On December 15, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer may increase the margin used to determine the variable rate that applies to new purchases to 12 percentage points (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3)). However, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to the $2,000 purchase balance. Furthermore, although the $100 purchase occurred more than 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) notice, § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to that purchase because it occurred during the first year after account opening. On January 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $300 purchase. The card issuer may apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to the $300 purchase.
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<P>B. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent during first year.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on May 25 of year one is not received by the card issuer until July 30 of year one. Because the card issuer received the required minimum periodic payment more than 60 days after the payment due date, § 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to increase the annual percentage rate applicable to the $2,000 purchase, the $500 cash advance, and future purchases and cash advances. However, § 226.55(b)(4)(i) requires the card issuer to first comply with the notice requirements in § 226.9(g). Thus, if the card issuer provided a § 226.9(g) notice on July 25 stating that all rates on the account would be increased to the 30% penalty rate, the card issuer could apply that rate beginning on September 8 to all balances and to future transactions.
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<P>ii. <I>Account-opening disclosure of non-variable rate for six months, then increased non-variable rate for six months, then variable rate; change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases will increase as follows: A non-variable rate of 5% for six months; a non-variable rate of 10% for an additional six months; and thereafter a variable rate that is currently 15% and will be adjusted monthly by adding a margin of 5 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month and the required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance. On January 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account to make a $1,500 purchase. Six months after account opening (July 1), the card issuer may begin to accrue interest on the $1,500 purchase at the previously-disclosed 10% non-variable rate (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). On September 15, the consumer uses the account for a $700 purchase. On November 16, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two (calculated using the same index and an increased margin of 8 percentage points). One year after account opening (January 1 of year two), the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $2,200 purchase balance at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using a 5-point margin (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin to the $2,200 purchase balance. Furthermore, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to subsequently increase the variable rate determined using the 5-point margin that applies to the $2,200 purchase balance (except due to increases in the index pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2)). The card issuer may, however, apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin to purchases made on or after January 1 of year two (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3)).
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<P>iii. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year; penalty rate increase after first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases is a variable rate determined by adding a margin of 6 percentage points to a publicly-available index outside of the card issuer's control. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 28% may apply if the consumer makes a late payment. The due date for the account is the fifteenth of the month. On May 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000. On May 31, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on July 16 for all purchases made on or after June 15 (calculated by using the same index and an increased margin of 8 percentage points). On June 14, the consumer makes a $500 purchase. On June 15, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On July 1, the card issuer has not received the payment due on June 15 and provides the consumer with a notice pursuant to § 226.9(g) stating that the 28% penalty rate will apply as of August 15 to all transactions made on or after July 16 and that, if the consumer becomes more than 60 days late, the penalty rate will apply to all balances on the account. On July 17, the consumer makes a $300 purchase.
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<P>A. <I>Account does not become more than 60 days delinquent.</I> The payment due on June 15 of year two is received on July 2. On July 16, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin disclosed in the § 226.9(c) notice to the $200 purchase made on June 15 but does not permit the card issuer to apply this rate to the $1,500 purchase balance. On August 15, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% penalty rate disclosed at account opening and in the § 226.9(g) notice to the $300 purchase made on July 17 but does not permit the card issuer to apply this rate to the $1,500 purchase balance (which remains at the variable rate determined using the 6-point margin) or the $200 purchase (which remains at the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin).
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<P>B. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent after provision of § 226.9(g) notice.</I> Same facts as above except the payment due on June 15 of year two has not been received by August 15. Section 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% penalty rate to the $1,500 purchase balance and the $200 purchase because it has not received the June 15 payment within 60 days after the due date. However, in order to do so, § 226.55(b)(4)(i) requires the card issuer to first provide an additional notice pursuant to § 226.9(g). This notice must be sent no earlier than August 15, which is the first day the account became more than 60 days' delinquent. If the notice is sent on August 15, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $1,500 purchase balance and the $200 purchase at the 28% penalty rate beginning on September 29.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to grace period.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 prohibits a card issuer from assessing interest due to the loss of a grace period to the extent consistent with § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 226.54. In addition, a card issuer has not reduced an annual percentage rate on a credit card account for purposes of § 226.55 if the card issuer does not charge interest on a balance or a portion thereof based on a payment received prior to the expiration of a grace period. For example, if the annual percentage rate for purchases on an account is 15% but the card issuer does not charge any interest on a $500 purchase balance because that balance was paid in full prior to the expiration of the grace period, the card issuer has not reduced the 15% purchase rate to 0% for purposes of § 226.55.
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<P><I>55(b) Exceptions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Exceptions not mutually exclusive.</I> A card issuer generally may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to an exception set forth in § 226.55(b) even if that increase would not be permitted under a different exception. For example, although a card issuer cannot increase an annual percentage rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1) unless that rate is provided for a specified period of at least six months, the card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate during a specified period due to an increase in an index consistent with § 226.55(b)(2). Similarly, although § 226.55(b)(3) does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate during the first year after account opening, the card issuer may increase the rate during the first year after account opening pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) if the required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days after the due date. However, if § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires a card issuer to decrease the rate, fee, or charge that applies to a balance while the account is subject to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement or subject to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation, the card issuer may not impose a higher rate, fee, or charge on that balance pursuant to § 226.55(b)(5) or (b)(6) upon completion or failure of the arrangement or once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar Federal or State statute or regulation no longer applies. For example, assume that, on January 1, the annual percentage rate that applies to a $1,000 balance is increased from 12% to 30% pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4). On February 1, the rate on that balance is decreased from 30% to 15% consistent with § 226.55(b)(5) as a part of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement. On July 1, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance from 15% to 12%. If the consumer subsequently completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, the card issuer may not increase the 12% rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance pursuant to § 226.55(b)(5).
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<P><I>55(b) Exceptions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Exceptions not mutually exclusive.</I> A card issuer generally may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to an exception set forth in § 226.55(b) even if that increase would not be permitted under a different exception. For example, although a card issuer cannot increase an annual percentage rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1) unless that rate is provided for a specified period of at least six months, the card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate during a specified period due to an increase in an index consistent with § 226.55(b)(2). Similarly, although § 226.55(b)(3) does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate during the first year after account opening, the card issuer may increase the rate during the first year after account opening pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) if the required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days after the due date. However, if § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires a card issuer to decrease the rate, fee, or charge that applies to a balance while the account is subject to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement or subject to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or State statute or regulation, the card issuer may not impose a higher rate, fee, or charge on that balance pursuant to § 226.55(b)(5) or (b)(6) upon completion or failure of the arrangement or once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar Federal or State statute or regulation no longer applies. For example, assume that, on January 1, the annual percentage rate that applies to a $1,000 balance is increased from 12% to 30% pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4). On February 1, the rate on that balance is decreased from 30% to 15% consistent with § 226.55(b)(5) as a part of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement. On July 1, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance from 15% to 12%. If the consumer subsequently completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, the card issuer may not increase the 12% rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance pursuant to § 226.55(b)(5).
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<P>2. <I>Relationship between exceptions in § 226.55(b) and notice requirements in § 226.9.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 alters the requirements in § 226.9(c) and (g) that creditors provide written notice at least 45 days prior to the effective date of certain increases in annual percentage rates, fees, and charges.
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<P>i. <I>14-day rule in § 226.55(b)(3)(ii).</I> Although § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) permits a card issuer that discloses an increased rate pursuant to § 226.9(c) or (g) to apply that rate to transactions that occur more than 14 days after provision of the notice, the card issuer cannot begin to accrue interest at the increased rate until that increase goes into effect, consistent with § 226.9(c) or (g). For example, if on May 1 a card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) stating that a rate will increase from 15% to 18% on June 15, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to transactions that occur on or after May 16. However, neither § 226.55 nor § 226.9(c) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 18% rate on those transactions until June 15. See additional examples in comment 55(b)(3)-4.
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<P>ii. <I>Mid-cycle increases; application of balance computation methods.</I> Once an increased rate has gone into effect, the card issuer cannot calculate interest charges based on that increased rate for days prior to the effective date. Assume that, in the example in paragraph i. above, the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. If, for example, the card issuer uses the average daily balance computation method, it cannot apply the 18% rate to the average daily balance for the entire June billing cycle because that rate did not become effective until June 15. However, the card issuer could apply the 15% rate to the average daily balance from June 1 through June 14 and the 18% rate to the average daily balance from June 15 through June 30. Similarly, if the card issuer that uses the daily balance computation method, it could apply the 15% rate to the daily balance for each day from June 1 through June 14 and the 18% rate to the daily balance for each day from June 15 through June 30.
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<P>iii. <I>Mid-cycle increases; delayed implementation of increase.</I> If § 226.55(b) and § 226.9(b), (c), or (g) permit a card issuer to apply an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge on a date that is not the first day of a billing cycle, the card issuer may delay application of the increased rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle without relinquishing the ability to apply that rate, fee, or charge. Thus, in the example in paragraphs i. and ii. above, the card issuer could delay application of the 18% rate until the start of the next billing cycle (April 1) without relinquishing its ability to apply that rate under § 226.55(b)(3). Similarly, assume that, at account opening on January 1, a card issuer discloses that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 10% will apply to purchases for six months and a non-variable rate of 15% will apply thereafter. The first day of each billing cycle for the account is the fifteenth of the month. If the six-month period expires on July 1, the card issuer may delay application of the 15% rate until the start of the next billing cycle (July 15) without relinquishing its ability to apply that rate under § 226.55(b)(1).
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<P>3. <I>Application of a lower rate, fee, or charge.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 prohibits a card issuer from lowering an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii). However, a card issuer that does so cannot subsequently increase the rate, fee, or charge unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). The following examples illustrate the application of the rule
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<P>i. <I>Application of lower rate during first year.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% will apply to purchases. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the tenth of the month. The required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance.
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<P>A. <I>Temporary rate returns to standard rate at expiration.</I> On September 30 of year one, the account has a purchase balance of $1,400 at the 15% rate. On October 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from October 1 through March 31 of year two) and that, beginning on April 1 of year two, the rate for purchases will increase to the 15% non-variable rate disclosed at account opening. The card issuer does not apply the 5% rate to the $1,400 purchase balance. On October 14 of year one, the consumer makes a $300 purchase at the 5% rate. On January 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $150 purchase at the 5% rate. On April 1 of year two, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $300 purchase and the $150 purchase at 15% as disclosed in the § 226.9(c) notice (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)).
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<P>B. <I>Penalty rate increase.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on November 10 of year one is not received until November 15. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to increase any annual percentage rate on the account at this time. The card issuer may apply the 30% penalty rate to new transactions beginning on April 1 of year two pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3) by providing a § 226.9(g) notice informing the consumer of this increase no later than February 14 of year two. The card issuer may not, however, apply the 30% penalty rate to the $1,400 purchase balance as of September 30 of year one, the $300 purchase on October 15 of year one, or the $150 purchase on January 15 of year two.
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<P>ii. <I>Application of lower rate at end of first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% will apply to purchases for one year and discloses that, after the first year, the card issuer will apply a variable rate that is currently 20% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. On December 31 of year one, the account has a purchase balance of $3,000.
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<P>A. <I>Notice of extension of existing temporary rate provided consistent with § 226.55(b)(1)(i).</I> On December 15 of year one, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the existing 15% rate will continue to apply until July 1 of year two. The notice further states that, on July 1 of year two, the variable rate disclosed at account opening will apply. On July 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to apply that variable rate to any remaining portion of the $3,000 balance and to new transactions.
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<P>B. <I>Notice of new temporary rate provided consistent with § 226.55(b)(1)(i).</I> On December 15 of year one, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two that is lower than the variable rate disclosed at account opening. The new variable rate is calculated using the same index and a reduced margin of 8 percentage points. The notice further states that, on July 1 of year two, the margin will increase to the margin disclosed at account opening (10 percentage points). On July 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to increase the margin used to determine the variable rate that applies to new purchases to 10 percentage points and to apply that rate to any remaining portion of the $3,000 purchase balance.
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<P>C. <I>No notice provided.</I> Same facts as in paragraph ii.B. above except that the card issuer does not send a notice on December 15 of year one. Instead, on January 1 of year two, the card issuer lowers the margin used to determine the variable rate to 8 percentage points and applies that rate to the $3,000 purchase balance and to new purchases. Section 226.9 does not require advance notice in these circumstances. However, unless the account becomes more than 60 days' delinquent, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to subsequently increase the rate that applies to the $3,000 purchase balance except due to increases in the index (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2)).
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<P>iii. <I>Application of lower rate after first year.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 10% will apply to purchases for one year, after which that rate will increase to a non-variable rate of 15%. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the tenth of the month. The required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance.
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<P>A. <I>Effect of 14-day period.</I> On June 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at the 15% rate. On July 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from July 1 through December 31 of year two) and that, beginning on January 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 17%. On July 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On July 16, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On January 1 of year three, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $100 purchase at 17% (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). However, § 226.55(b)(1)(ii)(B) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 17% rate to the $200 purchase because that transaction occurred within 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) notice. Instead, the card issuer may apply the 15% rate that applied to purchases prior to provision of the § 226.9(c) notice. In addition, if the card issuer applied the 5% rate to the $1,000 purchase balance, § 226.55(b)(ii)(A) would not permit the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to that balance on January 1 of year three to a rate that is higher than 15% that previously applied to the balance.
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<P>B. <I>Penalty rate increase.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on August 25 is received on August 30. At this time, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to increase the annual percentage rates that apply to the $1,000 purchase balance, the $200 purchase, or the $100 purchase. Instead, those rates can only be increased as discussed in paragraph iii.A. above. However, if the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) or (g) on September 1, § 226.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to apply an increased rate (such as the 17% purchase rate or the 30% penalty rate) to transactions that occur on or after September 16 beginning on October 16.
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<P>C. <I>Application of lower temporary rate during specified period.</I> Same facts as in paragraph iii. above. On June 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at the 15% non-variable rate. On July 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for the $1,000 balance and new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 12% for six months (from July 1 through December 31 of year two) and that, beginning on January 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a variable rate that is currently 20% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. On August 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $500 purchase. On October 1, the card issuer provides another notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for the $1,000 balance, the $500 purchase, and new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from October 1 of year two through March 31 of year three) and that, beginning on April 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a variable rate that is currently 23% and is determined by adding a margin of 13 percentage points to the previously-disclosed index. On November 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $300 purchase. On April 1 of year three, § 226.55 permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest using the following rates for any remaining portion of the following balances: The 15% non-variable rate for the $1,000 balance; the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin for the $500 purchase; and the variable rate determined using the 13-point margin for the $300 purchase.
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<P>4. <I>Date on which transaction occurred.</I> When a transaction occurred for purposes of § 226.55 is generally determined by the date of the transaction. However, if a transaction that occurred within 14 days after provision of a § 226.9(c) or (g) notice is not charged to the account prior to the effective date of the change or increase, the card issuer may treat the transaction as occurring more than 14 days after provision of the notice for purposes of § 226.55. See example in comment 55(b)(3)-4.iii.B. In addition, when a merchant places a “hold” on the available credit on an account for an estimated transaction amount because the actual transaction amount will not be known until a later date, the date of the transaction for purposes of § 226.55 is the date on which the card issuer receives the actual transaction amount from the merchant. See example in comment 55(b)(3)-4.iii.A.
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<P>5. <I>Category of transactions.</I> For purposes of § 226.55, a “category of transactions” is a type or group of transactions to which an annual percentage rate applies that is different than the annual percentage rate that applies to other transactions. Similarly, a type or group of transactions is a “category of transactions” for purposes of § 226.55 if a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) applies to those transactions that is different than the fee or charge that applies to other transactions. For example, purchase transactions, cash advance transactions, and balance transfer transactions are separate categories of transactions for purposes of § 226.55 if a card issuer applies different annual percentage rates to each. Furthermore, if, for example, the card issuer applies different annual percentage rates to different types of purchase transactions (such as one rate for purchases of gasoline or purchases over $100 and a different rate for all other purchases), each type constitutes a separate category of transactions for purposes of § 226.55.
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<P><I>55(b)(1) Temporary rate, fee, or charge exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.55(b)(1)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Period of six months or longer.</I> A temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge must apply for a specified period of six months or longer before a card issuer can increase that rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1). The specified period must expire no less than six months after the date on which the card issuer provides the consumer with the disclosures required by § 226.55(b)(1)(i) or, if later, the date on which the account can be used for transactions to which the temporary rate, fee, or charge applies. Section 226.55(b)(1) does not prohibit a card issuer from limiting the application of a temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to a particular category of transactions (such as to balance transfers or to purchases over $100). However, in circumstances where the card issuer limits application of the temporary rate, fee, or charge to a single transaction, the specified period must expire no less than six months after the date on which that transaction occurred. The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.55(b)(1)
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<P>i. Assume that on January 1 a card issuer offers a consumer a 5% annual percentage rate on purchases made during the months of January through June. A 15% rate will apply thereafter. On February 15, a $500 purchase is charged to the account. On June 15, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. On July 1, the card issuer may begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $500 purchase and the $200 purchase (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)).
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that on January 1 the card issuer offered the 5% rate on purchases beginning in the month of February. Section 226.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $500 purchase and the $200 purchase until August 1.
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<P>iii. Assume that on October 31 of year one the annual percentage rate for purchases is 17%. On November 1, the card issuer offers the consumer a 0% rate for six months on purchases made during the months of November and December. The 17% rate will apply thereafter. On November 15, a $500 purchase is charged to the account. On December 15, a $300 purchase is charged to the account. On January 15 of year two, a $150 purchase is charged to the account. Section 226.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 17% rate on the $500 purchase and the $300 purchase until May 1 of year two. However, the card issuer may accrue interest at the 17% rate on the $150 purchase beginning on January 15 of year two.
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<P>iv. Assume that on June 1 of year one a card issuer offers a consumer a 0% annual percentage rate for six months on the purchase of an appliance. An 18% rate will apply thereafter. On September 1, a $5,000 transaction is charged to the account for the purchase of an appliance. Section 226.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 18% rate on the $5,000 transaction until March 1 of year two.
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<P>v. Assume that on May 31 of year one the annual percentage rate for purchases is 15%. On June 1, the card issuer offers the consumer a 5% rate for six months on a balance transfer of at least $1,000. The 15% rate will apply thereafter. On June 15, a $3,000 balance is transferred to the account. On July 15, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. Section 226.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $3,000 transferred balance until December 15. However, the card issuer may accrue interest at the 15% rate on the $200 purchase beginning on July 15.
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<P>vi. Same facts as in paragraph v. above except that the card issuer offers the 5% rate for six months on all balance transfers of at least $1,000 during the month of June and a $2,000 balance is transferred to the account on June 30 (in addition to the $3,000 balance transfer on June 15). Because the 5% rate is not limited to a particular transaction, § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest on the $3,000 and $2,000 transferred balances on December 1.
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<P>vii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for the account is $0 until January 1 of year two, when the fee will increase to $50. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer may impose the $50 annual fee. However, the issuer must also comply with the notice requirements in § 226.9(e).
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<P>viii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the monthly maintenance fee for the account is $0 until July 1 of year one, when the fee will increase to $10. Beginning on July 1 of year one, the card issuer may impose the $10 monthly maintenance fee (to the extent consistent with § 226.52(a)).
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<P>3. <I>Deferred interest and similar promotional programs.</I> i. <I>Application of § 226.55.</I> The general prohibition in § 226.55(a) applies to the imposition of accrued interest upon the expiration of a deferred interest or similar promotional program under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. However, the exception in § 226.55(b)(1) also applies to these programs, provided that the specified period is six months or longer and that, prior to the commencement of the period, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the rate at which interest will accrue on the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar program if that balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the period. See comment 9(c)(2)(v)-9. For purposes of § 226.55, “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 226.16(h)(2) and associated commentary.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I>
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<P>A. <I>Deferred interest offer at account opening.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, the card issuer discloses the following with respect to a deferred interest program: “No interest on purchases made in January of year one if paid in full by December 31 of year one. If the balance is not paid in full by that date, interest will be imposed from the transaction date at a rate of 20%.” On January 15 of year one, the consumer makes a purchase of $2,000. No other transactions are made on the account. The terms of the deferred interest program require the consumer to make minimum periodic payments with respect to the deferred interest balance, and the payment due on April 1 is not received until April 10. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account interest that has accrued on the $2,000 purchase at this time. Furthermore, if the consumer pays the $2,000 purchase in full on or before December 31 of year one, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account any interest that has accrued on that purchase. If, however, the $2,000 purchase has not been paid in full by January 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account the interest accrued on that purchase at the 20% rate during year one (to the extent consistent with other applicable law).
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<P>B. <I>Deferred interest offer after account opening.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the rate that applies to purchases is a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 18% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 8 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 226.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the first of the month. On June 30 of year two, the consumer uses the account for a $1,000 purchase in response to an offer of a deferred interest program. Under the terms of this program, interest on the purchase will accrue at the variable rate for purchases but the consumer will not be obligated to pay that interest if the purchase is paid in full by December 31 of year three. The terms of the deferred interest program require the consumer to make minimum periodic payments with respect to the deferred interest balance, and the payment due on September 1 of year two is not received until September 6. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account interest that has accrued on the $1,000 purchase at this time. Furthermore, if the consumer pays the $1,000 purchase in full on or before December 31 of year three, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account any interest that has accrued on that purchase. On December 31 of year three, the $1,000 purchase has been paid in full. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not charge any interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase.
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<P>C. <I>Application of § 226.55(b)(4) to deferred interest programs.</I> Same facts as in paragraph ii.B. above except that, on November 2 of year two, the card issuer has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on September 1, October 1, or November 1 of year two and sends a § 226.9(c) or (g) notice stating that interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two will be charged to the account on December 17 of year two and thereafter interest will be charged on the $1,000 purchase consistent with the variable rate for purchases. On December 17 of year two, § 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to charge to the account interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two and § 226.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to begin charging interest on the $1,000 purchase consistent with the variable rate for purchases. However, if the card issuer receives the required minimum periodic payments due on January 1, February 1, March 1, April 1, May 1, and June 1 of year three, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to cease charging the account for interest on the $1,000 purchase no later than the first day of the next billing cycle. See comment 55(b)(4)-3.iii. However, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) does not require the card issuer to waive or credit the account for interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two. If the $1,000 purchase is paid in full on December 31 of year three, the card issuer is not permitted to charge to the account interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase after June 1 of year three.
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<P>4. <I>Contingent or discretionary increases.</I> Section 226.55(b)(1) permits a card issuer to increase a temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge upon the expiration of a specified period of time. However, § 226.55(b)(1) does not permit a card issuer to apply an increased rate, fee, or charge that is contingent on a particular event or occurrence or that may be applied at the card issuer's discretion. The following examples illustrate rate increases that are not permitted by § 226.55
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<P>i. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% applies to purchases but that all rates on an account may be increased to a non-variable penalty rate of 30% if a consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the fifteenth of the month. On March 1, the account has a $2,000 purchase balance. The payment due on March 15 is not received until March 20. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the 30% penalty rate to the $2,000 purchase balance. However, pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3), the card issuer could provide a § 226.9(c) or (g) notice on or before November 16 informing the consumer that, on January 1 of year two, the 30% rate (or a different rate) will apply to new transactions.
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<P>ii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 5% applies to transferred balances but that this rate will increase to a non-variable rate of 18% if the consumer does not use the account for at least $200 in purchases each billing cycle. On July 1, the consumer transfers a balance of $4,000 to the account. During the October billing cycle, the consumer uses the account for $150 in purchases. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to the $4,000 transferred balance or the $150 in purchases. However, pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3), the card issuer could provide a § 226.9(c) or (g) notice on or before November 16 informing the consumer that, on January 1 of year two, the 18% rate (or a different rate) will apply to new transactions.
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<P>iii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for the account is $10 but may be increased to $50 if a consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the fifteenth of the month. The payment due on July 15 is not received until July 23. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to impose the $50 annual fee at this time. Furthermore, § 226.55(b)(3) does not permit the card issuer to increase the $10 annual fee during the first year after account opening. However, § 226.55(b)(3) does permit the card issuer to impose the $50 fee (or a different fee) on January 1 of year two if, on or before November 16 of year one, the issuer informs the consumer of the increased fee consistent with § 226.9(c) and the consumer does not reject that increase pursuant to § 226.9(h).
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<P>iv. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is $0 but may be increased to $100 if the consumer's balance in a deposit account provided by the card issuer or its affiliate or subsidiary falls below $5,000. On June 1 of year one, the balance on the deposit account is $4,500. Section 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to impose the $100 annual fee at this time. Furthermore, § 226.55(b)(3) does not permit the card issuer to increase the $0 annual fee during the first year after account opening. However, § 226.55(b)(3) does permit the card issuer to impose the $100 fee (or a different fee) on January 1 of year two if, on or before November 16 of year one, the issuer informs the consumer of the increased fee consistent with § 226.9(c) and the consumer does not reject that increase pursuant to § 226.9(h).
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<P>5. <I>Application of increased fees and charges.</I> Section 226.55(b)(1)(ii) limits the ability of a card issuer to apply an increased fee or charge to certain transactions. However, to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(3), (c), and (d), a card issuer generally is not prohibited from increasing a fee or charge that applies to the account as a whole. <I>See</I> comments 55(c)(1)-3 and 55(d)-1.
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<P><I>55(b)(2) Variable rate exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Increases due to increase in index.</I> Section 226.55(b)(2) provides that an annual percentage rate that varies according to an index that is not under the card issuer's control and is available to the general public may be increased due to an increase in the index. This section does not permit a card issuer to increase the rate by changing the method used to determine a rate that varies with an index (such as by increasing the margin), even if that change will not result in an immediate increase. However, from time to time, a card issuer may change the day on which index values are measured to determine changes to the rate.
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<P>2. <I>Index not under card issuer's control.</I> A card issuer may increase a variable annual percentage rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2) only if the increase is based on an index or indices outside the card issuer's control. For purposes of § 226.55(b)(2), an index is under the card issuer's control if:
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<P>i. The index is the card issuer's own prime rate or cost of funds. A card issuer is permitted, however, to use a published prime rate, such as that in the <I>Wall Street Journal,</I> even if the card issuer's own prime rate is one of several rates used to establish the published rate.
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<P>ii. The variable rate is subject to a fixed minimum rate or similar requirement that does not permit the variable rate to decrease consistent with reductions in the index. A card issuer is permitted, however, to establish a fixed maximum rate that does not permit the variable rate to increase consistent with increases in an index. For example, assume that, under the terms of an account, a variable rate will be adjusted monthly by adding a margin of 5 percentage points to a publicly-available index. When the account is opened, the index is 10% and therefore the variable rate is 15%. If the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will not decrease below 15% even if the index decreases below 10%, the card issuer cannot increase that rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(2). However, § 226.55(b)(2) does not prohibit the card issuer from providing in the terms of the account that the variable rate will not increase above a certain amount (such as 20%).
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<P>iii. The variable rate can be calculated based on any index value during a period of time (such as the 90 days preceding the last day of a billing cycle). A card issuer is permitted, however, to provide in the terms of the account that the variable rate will be calculated based on the average index value during a specified period. In the alternative, the card issuer is permitted to provide in the terms of the account that the variable rate will be calculated based on the index value on a specific day (such as the last day of a billing cycle). For example, assume that the terms of an account provide that a variable rate will be adjusted at the beginning of each quarter by adding a margin of 7 percentage points to a publicly-available index. At account opening at the beginning of the first quarter, the variable rate is 17% (based on an index value of 10%). During the first quarter, the index varies between 9.8% and 10.5% with an average value of 10.1%. On the last day of the first quarter, the index value is 10.2%. At the beginning of the second quarter, § 226.55(b)(2) does not permit the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.5% based on the first quarter's maximum index value of 10.5%. However, if the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will be calculated based on the average index value during the prior quarter, § 226.55(b)(2) permits the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.1% (based on the average index value of 10.1% during the first quarter). In the alternative, if the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will be calculated based on the index value on the last day of the prior quarter, § 226.55(b)(2) permits the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.2% (based on the index value of 10.2% on the last day of the first quarter).
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<P>3. <I>Publicly available.</I> The index or indices must be available to the public. A publicly-available index need not be published in a newspaper, but it must be one the consumer can independently obtain (by telephone, for example) and use to verify the annual percentage rate applied to the account.
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<P>4. <I>Changing a non-variable rate to a variable rate.</I> Section 226.55 generally prohibits a card issuer from changing a non-variable annual percentage rate to a variable annual percentage rate because such a change can result in an increase. However, a card issuer may change a non-variable rate to a variable rate to the extent permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). For example, § 226.55(b)(1) permits a card issuer to change a non-variable rate to a variable rate upon expiration of a specified period of time. Similarly, following the first year after the account is opened, § 226.55(b)(3) permits a card issuer to change a non-variable rate to a variable rate with respect to new transactions (after complying with the notice requirements in § 226.9(b), (c) or (g)).
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<P>5. <I>Changing a variable rate to a non-variable rate.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 prohibits a card issuer from changing a variable annual percentage rate to an equal or lower non-variable rate. Whether the non-variable rate is equal to or lower than the variable rate is determined at the time the card issuer provides the notice required by § 226.9(c). For example, assume that on March 1 a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 15% applies to a balance of $2,000 and the card issuer sends a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the variable rate will be converted to a non-variable rate of 14% effective April 15. On April 15, the card issuer may apply the 14% non-variable rate to the $2,000 balance and to new transactions even if the variable rate on March 2 or a later date was less than 14%.
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<P>6. <I>Substitution of index.</I> A card issuer may change the index and margin used to determine the annual percentage rate under § 226.55(b)(2) if the original index becomes unavailable, as long as historical fluctuations in the original and replacement indices were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index and margin will produce a rate similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if it produces a rate substantially similar to the rate in effect when the original index became unavailable.
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<P><I>55(b)(3) Advance notice exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.9(h).</I> A card issuer may not increase a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3) if the consumer has rejected the increased fee or charge pursuant to § 226.9(h).
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<P>2. <I>Notice provided pursuant to § 226.9(b) and (c).</I> If an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge is disclosed pursuant to both § 226.9(b) and (c), that rate, fee, or charge may only be applied to transactions that occur more than 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) notice as provided in § 226.55(b)(3)(ii).
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<P>3. <I>Account opening.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Multiple accounts with same card issuer.</I> When a consumer has a credit card account with a card issuer and the consumer opens a new credit card account with the same card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary), the opening of the new account constitutes the opening of a credit card account for purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) if, more than 30 days after the new account is opened, the consumer has the option to obtain additional extensions of credit on each account. For example, assume that, on January 1 of year one, a consumer opens a credit card account with a card issuer. On July 1 of year one, the consumer opens a second credit card account with that card issuer. On July 15, a $1,000 balance is transferred from the first account to the second account. The opening of the second account constitutes the opening of a credit card account for purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) so long as, on August 1, the consumer has the option to engage in transactions using either account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer could not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on the second account pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3) until July 1 of year two (which is one year after the second account was opened).
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<P>ii. <I>Substitution, replacement or consolidation.</I>
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<P>A. <I>Generally.</I> A credit card account has not been opened for purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) when a credit card account issued by a card issuer is substituted, replaced, or consolidated with another credit card account issued by the same card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary). Circumstances in which a credit card account has not been opened for purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) include when:
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<P>(1) A retail credit card account is replaced with a cobranded general purpose credit card account that can be used at a wider number of merchants;
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<P>(2) A credit card account is replaced with another credit card account offering different features;
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<P>(3) A credit card account is consolidated or combined with one or more other credit card accounts into a single credit card account; or
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<P>(4) A credit card account acquired through merger or acquisition is replaced with a credit card account issued by the acquiring card issuer.
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<P>B. <I>Limitation.</I> A card issuer that replaces or consolidates a credit card account with another credit card account issued by the card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary) may not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) in a manner otherwise prohibited by § 226.55. For example, assume that, on January 1 of year one, a consumer opens a credit card account with an annual percentage rate of 15% for purchases. On July 1 of year one, the account is replaced with a credit card account that offers different features (such as rewards on purchases). Under these circumstances, § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) prohibits the card issuer from increasing the annual percentage rate for new purchases to a rate that is higher than 15% pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3) until January 1 of year two (which is one year after the first account was opened).
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<P>4. <I>Examples.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase; temporary rate increase; 14-day period.</I> Assume that an account is opened on January 1 of year one. On March 14 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15%. On March 15, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 18% on May 1. The notice further states that the 18% rate will apply for six months (until November 1) and that thereafter the card issuer will apply a variable rate that is currently 22% and is determined by adding a margin of 12 percentage points to a publicly-available index that is not under the card issuer's control. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is March 29 and, on that date, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On March 30, the consumer makes a $1,000 purchase. On May 1, the card issuer may begin accruing interest at 18% on the $1,000 purchase made on March 30 (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3)). Section 226.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to the $2,200 purchase balance as of March 29 because that balance reflects transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after the provision of the § 226.9(c) notice. After six months (November 2), the card issuer may begin accruing interest on any remaining portion of the $1,000 purchase at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using the 12-point margin (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1) and (b)(3)).
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<P>ii. <I>Checks that access an account.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual percentage rate that applies to cash advances is a variable rate that is currently 24% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 14 percentage points to a publicly available index not under the card issuer's control. On July 1 of year two, the card issuer provides checks that access the account and, pursuant to § 226.9(b)(3)(i)(A), discloses that a promotional rate of 15% will apply to credit extended by use of the checks until January 1 of year three, after which the cash advance rate determined using the 14-point margin will apply. On July 9 of year two, the consumer uses one of the checks to pay for a $500 transaction. Beginning on January 1 of year three, the card issuer may apply the cash advance rate determined using the 14-point margin to any remaining portion of the $500 transaction (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1) and (b)(3)).
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<P>iii. <I>Hold on available credit; 14-day period.</I> Assume that an account is opened on January 1 of year one. On September 14 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 17%. On September 15, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 20% on October 30. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is September 29. On September 28, the consumer uses the credit card to check into a hotel and the hotel obtains authorization for a $1,000 hold on the account to ensure there is adequate available credit to cover the anticipated cost of the stay.
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<P>A. The consumer checks out of the hotel on October 2. The actual cost of the stay is $1,100 because of additional incidental costs. On October 2, the hotel charges the $1,100 transaction to the account. For purposes of § 226.55(b)(3), the transaction occurred on October 2. Therefore, on October 30, § 226.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to apply the 20% rate to new purchases and to the $1,100 transaction. However, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 20% rate to any remaining portion of the $2,000 purchase balance.
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<P>B. Same facts as above except that the consumer checks out of the hotel on September 29. The actual cost of the stay is $250, but the hotel does not charge this amount to the account until November 1. For purposes of § 226.55(b)(3), the card issuer may treat the transaction as occurring more than 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) notice (<I>i.e.,</I> after September 29). Accordingly, the card issuer may apply the 20% rate to the $250 transaction.
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<P>5. <I>Application of increased fees and charges. See</I> comment 55(c)(1)-3.
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<P>6. <I>Delayed implementation of increase.</I> Section 226.55(b)(3)(iii) does not prohibit a card issuer from notifying a consumer of an increase in an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge consistent with § 226.9(b), (c), or (g). However, § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) does prohibit application of an increased rate, fee, or charge during the first year after the account is opened, while the account is closed, or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. If § 226.9(b), (c), or (g) permits a card issuer to apply an increased rate, fee, or charge on a particular date and the account is closed on that date or the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions on that date, the card issuer may delay application of the increased rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle without relinquishing the ability to apply that rate, fee, or charge (assuming the increase is otherwise consistent with § 226.55). <I>See</I> examples in comment 55(b)-2.iii. However, if the account is closed or the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions on the first day of the following billing cycle, then the card issuer must provide a new notice of the increased rate, fee, or charge consistent with § 226.9(b), (c), or (g).
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<P>7. <I>Date on which account may first be used by consumer to engage in transactions.</I> For purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii), an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions. An account is considered open for purposes of § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) on any date that the card issuer may consider the account open for purposes of § 226.52(a)(1). <I>See</I> comment 52(a)(1)-4.
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<P><I>55(b)(4) Delinquency exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Receipt of required minimum periodic payment within 60 days of due date.</I> Section 226.55(b)(4) applies when a card issuer has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment. In order to satisfy this condition, a card issuer that requires monthly minimum payments generally must not have received two consecutive required minimum periodic payments. Whether a required minimum periodic payment has been received for purposes of § 226.55(b)(4) depends on whether the amount received is equal to or more than the first outstanding required minimum periodic payment. For example, assume that the required minimum periodic payments for a credit card account are due on the fifteenth day of the month. On May 13, the card issuer has not received the $50 required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 or the $150 required minimum periodic payment due on April 15. The sixtieth day after the March 15 payment due date is May 14. If the card issuer receives a $50 payment on May 14, § 226.55(b)(4) does not apply because the payment is equal to the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 and therefore the account is not more than 60 days delinquent. However, if the card issuer instead received a $40 payment on May 14, § 226.55(b)(4) would apply beginning on May 15 because the payment is less than the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15. Furthermore, if the card issuer received the $50 payment on May 15, § 226.55(b)(4) would apply because the card issuer did not receive the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 226.9(g)(3)(i)(B).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.9(g)(3)(i)(B) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.55(b)(4)(i).
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<P>3. <I>Reduction in rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4)(ii).</I> Section 226.55(b)(4)(ii) provides that, if the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase, the card issuer must reduce any annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase with respect to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the § 226.9(c) or (g) notice.
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<P>i. <I>Six consecutive payments immediately following effective date of increase.</I> Section 226.55(b)(4)(ii) does not apply if the card issuer does not receive six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the payment due immediately following the effective date of the increase, even if, at some later point in time, the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date.
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<P>ii. <I>Rate, fee, or charge that does not exceed rate, fee, or charge that applied before increase.</I> Although § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4) to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase, this provision does not prohibit the card issuer from applying an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge consistent with any of the other exceptions in § 226.55(b). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to the § 226.55(b)(4) increase and the temporary rate expired before a reduction in rate pursuant to § 226.55(b)(4)(ii), the card issuer may apply an increased rate to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to the § 226.55(b)(4) increase, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(2).
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<P>iii. <I>Delayed implementation of reduction.</I> If § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires a card issuer to reduce an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge on a date that is not the first day of a billing cycle, the card issuer may delay application of the reduced rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle.
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<P>iv. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of § 226.55(b)(4)(ii):
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<P>A. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the required minimum periodic payments are due on the fifteenth day of the month. Assume also that the account has a $5,000 purchase balance to which a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% applies. On May 16 of year one, the card issuer has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on the fifteenth day of March, April, or May and sends a § 226.9(c) or (g) notice stating that the annual percentage rate applicable to the $5,000 balance and to new transactions will increase to 28% effective July 1. On July 1, § 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% rate to the $5,000 balance and to new transactions. The card issuer receives the required minimum periodic payments due on the fifteenth day of July, August, September, October, November, and December. On January 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 15%. The card issuer is not required to reduce the rate that applies to any transactions that occurred on or after May 31 (which is the fifteenth day after provision of the § 226.9(c) or (g) notice).
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<P>B. Same facts as paragraph iv.A. above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 226.55(b)(4) increase was scheduled to increase to 20% on August 1 of year one (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). On January 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 20%.
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<P>C. Same facts as paragraph iv.A. above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 226.55(b)(4) increase was scheduled to increase to 20% on March 1 of year two (pursuant to § 226.55(b)(1)). On January 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 15%.
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<P>D. Same facts as paragraph iv.A. above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 226.55(b)(4) increase was a variable rate that was determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control (consistent with § 226.55(b)(2)). On January 1 of year two, § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin.
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<P>E. For an example of the application of § 226.55(b)(4)(ii) to deferred interest or similar programs, see comment 55(b)(1)-3.ii.C.
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<P><I>55(b)(5) Workout and temporary hardship arrangement exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Scope of exception.</I> Nothing in § 226.55(b)(5) permits a card issuer to alter the requirements of § 226.55 pursuant to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement. For example, a card issuer cannot increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement unless otherwise permitted by § 226.55. In addition, a card issuer cannot require the consumer to make payments with respect to a protected balance that exceed the payments permitted under § 226.55(c).
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 226.55(b)(5)(i). See comment 9(c)(2)(v)-10. Thus, although the disclosures required by § 226.55(b)(5)(i) must generally be provided in writing prior to commencement of the arrangement, a card issuer may comply with § 226.55(b)(5)(i) by complying with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(D), which states that the disclosure of the terms of the arrangement may be made orally by telephone, provided that the card issuer mails or delivers a written disclosure of the terms of the arrangement to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the oral disclosure is provided.
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<P>3. <I>Rate, fee, or charge that does not exceed rate, fee, or charge that applied before workout or temporary hardship arrangement.</I> Upon the completion or failure of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement, § 226.55(b)(5)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from applying to any transactions that occurred prior to commencement of the arrangement an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to commencement of the arrangement. However, this provision does not prohibit the card issuer from applying an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge upon completion or failure of the arrangement, to the extent consistent with any of the other exceptions in § 226.55(b). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to the arrangement and that rate expired during the arrangement, the card issuer may apply an increased rate upon completion or failure of the arrangement to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to the arrangement, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate upon completion or failure of the arrangement to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(2).
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<P>4. <I>Examples.</I>
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<P>i. Assume that an account is subject to a $50 annual fee and that, consistent with § 226.55(b)(4), the margin used to determine a variable annual percentage rate that applies to a $5,000 balance is increased from 5 percentage points to 15 percentage points. Assume also that the card issuer and the consumer subsequently agree to a workout arrangement that reduces the annual fee to $0 and reduces the margin back to 5 points on the condition that the consumer pay a specified amount by the payment due date each month. If the consumer does not pay the agreed-upon amount by the payment due date, § 226.55(b)(5) permits the card issuer to increase the annual fee to $50 and increase the margin for the variable rate that applies to the $5,000 balance up to 15 percentage points.
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<P>ii. Assume that a consumer fails to make four consecutive monthly minimum payments totaling $480 on a consumer credit card account with a balance of $6,000 and that, consistent with § 226.55(b)(4), the annual percentage rate that applies to that balance is increased from a non-variable rate of 15% to a non-variable penalty rate of 30%. Assume also that the card issuer and the consumer subsequently agree to a temporary hardship arrangement that reduces all rates on the account to 0% on the condition that the consumer pay an amount by the payment due date each month that is sufficient to cure the $480 delinquency within six months. If the consumer pays the agreed-upon amount by the payment due date during the six-month period and cures the delinquency, § 226.55(b)(5) permits the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $6,000 balance to 15% or any other rate up to the 30% penalty rate.
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<P><I>55(b)(6) Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Rate that does not exceed rate that applied before decrease.</I> Once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies, § 226.55(b)(6) prohibits a card issuer from applying an annual percentage rate to any transactions that occurred prior to a decrease in rate pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 that exceeds the rate that applied to those transactions prior to the decrease. However, this provision does not prohibit the card issuer from applying an increased annual percentage rate once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies, to the extent consistent with any of the other exceptions in § 226.55(b). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to the decrease and that rate expired during the period that 50 U.S.C. app. 527 applied to the account, the card issuer may apply an increased rate once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to the decrease, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies to the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(2).
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<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume that on December 31 of year one the annual percentage rate that applies to a $5,000 balance on a credit card account is a variable rate that is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index that is not under the card issuer's control. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer reduces the rate that applies to the $5,000 balance to a non-variable rate of 6% pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527. On January 1 of year three, 50 U.S.C. app. 527 ceases to apply and the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that on February 15 of year three the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin will apply to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance. On February 15 of year three, § 226.55(b)(6) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest on any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance at the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin.
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<P><I>55(c) Treatment of protected balances.</I>
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<P><I>55(c)(1) Definition of protected balance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Example of protected balance.</I> Assume that, on March 15 of year two, an account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 12% and that, on March 16, the card issuer sends a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) informing the consumer that the annual percentage rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 15% on May 1. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is March 29. On March 29, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On March 30, the consumer makes a $150 purchase. On May 1, § 226.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest at 15% on the $150 purchase made on March 30 but does not permit the card issuer to apply that 15% rate to the $1,100 purchase balance as of March 29. Accordingly, the protected balance for purposes of § 226.55(c) is the $1,100 purchase balance as of March 29. The $150 purchase made on March 30 is not part of the protected balance.
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<P>2. <I>First year after account opening.</I> Section 226.55(c) applies to amounts owed for a category of transactions to which an increased annual percentage rate or an increased fee or charge cannot be applied after the rate, fee, or charge for that category of transactions has been increased pursuant to § 226.55(b)(3). Because § 226.55(b)(3)(iii) does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) during the first year after account opening, § 226.55(c) does not apply to balances during the first year after account opening.
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<P>3. <I>Increased fees and charges.</I> Except as provided in § 226.55(b)(3)(iii), § 226.55(b)(3) permits a card issuer to increase a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) after complying with the applicable notice requirements in § 226.9(b) or (c), provided that the increased fee or charge is not applied to a protected balance. To the extent consistent with § 226.55(b)(3)(iii), a card issuer is not prohibited from increasing a fee or charge that applies to the account as a whole or to balances other than the protected balance. For example, after the first year following account opening, a card issuer generally may add or increase an annual or a monthly maintenance fee for an account after complying with the notice requirements in § 226.9(c), including notifying the consumer of the right to reject the new or increased fee under § 226.9(h). However, except as otherwise provided in § 226.55(b), an increased fee or charge cannot be applied to an account while the account is closed or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. <I>See</I> § 226.55(b)(3)(iii); <I>see also</I> §§ 226.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) and 226.55(d)(1). Furthermore, if the consumer rejects an increase in a fee or charge pursuant to § 226.9(h), the card issuer is prohibited from applying the increased fee or charge to the account and from imposing any other fee or charge solely as a result of the rejection. <I>See</I> § 226.9(h)(2)(i) and (ii); comment 9(h)(2)(ii)-2.
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<P>4. <I>Changing balance computation method.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 prohibits a card issuer from changing the balance computation method that applies to new transactions as well as protected balances.
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<P><I>55(c)(2) Repayment of protected balance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>No less beneficial to the consumer.</I> A card issuer may provide a method of repaying the protected balance that is different from the methods listed in § 226.55(c)(2) so long as the method used is no less beneficial to the consumer than one of the listed methods. A method is no less beneficial to the consumer if the method results in a required minimum periodic payment that is equal to or less than a minimum payment calculated using the method for the account before the effective date of the increase. Similarly, a method is no less beneficial to the consumer if the method amortizes the balance in five years or longer or if the method results in a required minimum periodic payment that is equal to or less than a minimum payment calculated consistent with § 226.55(c)(2)(iii). For example:
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<P>i. If at account opening the cardholder agreement stated that the required minimum periodic payment would be either the total of fees and interest charges plus 1% of the total amount owed or $20 (whichever is greater), the card issuer may require the consumer to make a minimum payment of $20 even if doing so would pay off the balance in less than five years or constitute more than 2% of the balance plus fees and interest charges.
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<P>ii. A card issuer could increase the percentage of the balance included in the required minimum periodic payment from 2% to 5% so long as doing so would not result in amortization of the balance in less than five years.
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<P>iii. A card issuer could require the consumer to make a required minimum periodic payment that amortizes the balance in four years so long as doing so would not more than double the percentage of the balance included in the minimum payment prior to the date on which the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge became effective.
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<P><I>55(c)(2)(ii) Five-year amortization period.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Amortization period starting from effective date of increase.</I> Section 226.55(c)(2)(ii) provides for an amortization period for the protected balance of no less than five years, starting from the date on which the increased annual percentage rate or fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) became effective. A card issuer is not required to recalculate the required minimum periodic payment for the protected balance if, during the amortization period, that balance is reduced as a result of the allocation of payments by the consumer in excess of that minimum payment consistent with § 226.53 or any other practice permitted by these rules and other applicable law.
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<P>2. <I>Amortization when applicable rate is variable.</I> If the annual percentage rate that applies to the protected balance varies with an index, the card issuer may adjust the interest charges included in the required minimum periodic payment for that balance accordingly in order to ensure that the balance is amortized in five years. For example, assume that a variable rate that is currently 15% applies to a protected balance and that, in order to amortize that balance in five years, the required minimum periodic payment must include a specific amount of principal plus all accrued interest charges. If the 15% variable rate increases due to an increase in the index, the creditor may increase the required minimum periodic payment to include the additional interest charges.
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<P><I>55(c)(2)(iii) Doubling repayment rate.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Portion of required minimum periodic payment on other balances.</I> Section 226.55(c)(2)(iii) addresses the portion of the required minimum periodic payment based on the protected balance. Section 226.55(c)(2)(iii) does not limit or otherwise address the card issuer's ability to determine the portion of the required minimum periodic payment based on other balances on the account or the card issuer's ability to apply that portion of the minimum payment to the balances on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume that the method used by a card issuer to calculate the required minimum periodic payment for a credit card account requires the consumer to pay either the total of fees and accrued interest charges plus 2% of the total amount owed or $50, whichever is greater. Assume also that the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and that the card issuer increases the rate for purchases to 18% but does not increase the rate for cash advances. Under § 226.55(c)(2)(iii), the card issuer may require the consumer to pay fees and interest plus 4% of the $2,000 purchase balance. Section 226.55(c)(2)(iii) does not limit the card issuer's ability to increase the portion of the required minimum periodic payment that is based on the cash advance balance.
</P>
<P><I>55(d) Continuing application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Closed accounts.</I> If a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a balance is closed, § 226.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a card issuer or a consumer closes a credit card account with a balance, § 226.55(d)(1) prohibits the card issuer from increasing the annual percentage rate that applies to that balance or imposing a periodic fee based solely on that balance that was not charged before the account was closed (such as a closed account fee) unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> If, through merger or acquisition (for example), a card issuer acquires a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a balance, § 226.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a credit card account has a $1,000 purchase balance with an annual percentage rate of 15% and the card issuer that acquires that account applies an 18% rate to purchases, § 226.55(d)(1) prohibits the card issuer from applying the 18% rate to the $1,000 balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balance transfers.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Between accounts issued by the same creditor.</I> If a balance is transferred from a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor to another credit account issued by the same creditor or its affiliate or subsidiary, § 226.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a credit card account has a $2,000 purchase balance with an annual percentage rate of 15% and that balance is transferred to another credit card account issued by the same creditor that applies an 18% rate to purchases, § 226.55(d)(2) prohibits the creditor from applying the 18% rate to the $2,000 balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). However, the creditor would not generally be prohibited from charging a new periodic fee (such as an annual fee) on the second account so long as the fee is not based solely on the $2,000 balance and the creditor has notified the consumer of the fee either by providing written notice 45 days before imposing the fee pursuant to § 226.9(c) or by providing account-opening disclosures pursuant to § 226.6(b). See also § 226.55(b)(3)(iii); comment 55(b)(3)-3; comment 5(b)(1)(i)-6. Additional circumstances in which a balance is considered transferred for purposes of § 226.55(d)(2) include when:
</P>
<P>A. A retail credit card account with a balance is replaced or substituted with a cobranded general purpose credit card account that can be used with a broader merchant base;
</P>
<P>B. A credit card account with a balance is replaced or substituted with another credit card account offering different features;
</P>
<P>C. A credit card account with a balance is consolidated or combined with one or more other credit card accounts into a single credit card account; and
</P>
<P>D. A credit card account is replaced or substituted with a line of credit that can be accessed solely by an account number.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Between accounts issued by different creditors.</I> If a balance is transferred to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor from a credit card account issued by a different creditor or an institution that is not an affiliate or subsidiary of the creditor that issued the account to which the balance is transferred, § 226.55(d)(2) does not prohibit the creditor to which the balance is transferred from applying its account terms to that balance, provided that those terms comply with this part. For example, if a credit card account issued by creditor A has a $1,000 purchase balance at an annual percentage rate of 15% and the consumer transfers that balance to a credit card account with a purchase rate of 17% issued by creditor B, creditor B may apply the 17% rate to the $1,000 balance. However, creditor B may not subsequently increase the rate on that balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b).
</P>
<P><I>55(e) Promotional waivers or rebates of interest, fees, and other charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> Nothing in § 226.55 prohibits a card issuer from waiving or rebating finance charges due to a periodic interest rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 226.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii). However, if a card issuer promotes and applies the waiver or rebate to an account, the card issuer cannot temporarily or permanently cease or terminate any portion of the waiver or rebate on that account unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 226.55(b). For example
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer applies an annual percentage rate of 15% to balance transfers but promotes a program under which all of the interest accrued on transferred balances will be waived or rebated for one year. If, prior to the commencement of the one-year period, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the annual percentage rate that will apply to transferred balances after expiration of that period consistent with § 226.55(b)(1)(i), § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances after one year. Furthermore, if, during the one-year period, a required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days of the payment due date, § 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances (after providing a notice consistent with § 226.9(g) and § 226.55(b)(4)(i)). However, if a required minimum periodic payment is not more than 60 days delinquent or if the consumer otherwise violates the terms or other requirements of the account, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances until the expiration of the one-year period.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer imposes a monthly maintenance fee of $10 but promotes a program under which the fee will be waived or rebated for the six months following account opening. If, prior to account opening, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the monthly maintenance fee that will be imposed after expiration of that period consistent with § 226.55(b)(1)(i), § 226.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee six months after account opening. Furthermore, if, during the six-month period, a required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days of the payment due date, § 226.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee (after providing a notice consistent with § 226.9(c) and § 226.55(b)(4)(i)). However, if a required minimum periodic payment is not more than 60 days delinquent or if the consumer otherwise violates the terms or other requirements of the account, § 226.55 does not permit the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee until the expiration of the six-month period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Promotion of waiver or rebate.</I> For purposes of § 226.55(e), a card issuer generally promotes a waiver or rebate if the card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in an advertisement (as defined in § 226.2(a)(2)). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(2)-1. In addition, a card issuer generally promotes a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 226.55(e) if the card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in communications regarding existing accounts (such as communications regarding a promotion that encourages additional or different uses of an existing account). However, a card issuer does not promote a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 226.55(e) if the advertisement or communication relates to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge or to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples of promotional communications.</I> The following are examples of circumstances in which a card issuer is promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 226.55(e)
</P>
<P>A. A card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in a newspaper, magazine, leaflet, promotional flyer, catalog, sign, or point-of-sale display, unless the disclosure relates to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived.
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate on radio or television or through electronic advertisements (such as on the Internet), unless the disclosure relates to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer discloses a waiver or rebate to individual consumers, such as by telephone, letter, or electronic communication, through direct mail literature, or on or with account statements, unless the disclosure relates to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge or to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples of non-promotional communications.</I> The following are examples of circumstances in which a card issuer is not promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 226.55(e)
</P>
<P>A. After a card issuer has waived or rebated interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 226.55 with respect to an account, the issuer discloses the waiver or rebate to the accountholder on the periodic statement or by telephone, letter, or electronic communication. However, if the card issuer also discloses prospective waivers or rebates in the same communication, the issuer is promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 226.55(e).
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer communicates with a consumer about a waiver or rebate of interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 226.55 in relation to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge, including a dispute under §§ 226.12 or 226.13.
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer waives or rebates interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 226.55 in order to comply with a legal requirement (such as the limitations in § 226.52(a)).
</P>
<P>D. A card issuer discloses a grace period, as defined in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>E. A card issuer provides a period after the payment due date during which interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 226.55 are waived or rebated even if a payment has not been received.
</P>
<P>F. A card issuer provides benefits (such as rewards points or cash back on purchases or finance charges) that can be applied to the account as credits, provided that the benefits are not promoted as reducing interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 226.55.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship of § 226.55(e) to grace period.</I> Section 226.55(e) does not apply to the waiver of finance charges due to a periodic rate consistent with a grace period, as defined in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.56—Requirements for Over-the-Limit Transactions
</HD2>
<P><I>56(b) Opt-in requirement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Policy and practice of declining over-the-limit transactions.</I> Section 226.56(b)(1)(i)-(v), including the requirements to provide notice and obtain consumer consent, do not apply to any card issuer that has a policy and practice of declining to pay any over-the-limit transactions for the consumer's credit card account when the card issuer has a reasonable belief that completing a transaction will cause the consumer to exceed the consumer's credit limit for that account. For example, if a card issuer only authorizes those transactions which, at the time of authorization, would not cause the consumer to exceed a credit limit, it is not subject to the requirement to provide consumers notice and an opportunity to affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. However, if an over-the-limit transaction is paid without the consumer providing affirmative consent, the card issuer may not charge a fee for paying the transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Over-the-limit transactions not required to be authorized or paid.</I> Section 226.56 does not require a card issuer to authorize or pay an over-the-limit transaction even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent.</I> A card issuer provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to provide affirmative consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions when, among other things, it provides reasonable methods by which the consumer may affirmatively consent. A card issuer provides such reasonable methods if—
</P>
<P>i. <I>On the application.</I> The card issuer provides the notice on the application form that the consumer can fill out to request the service as part of the application;
</P>
<P>ii. <I>By mail.</I> The card issuer provides a form with the account-opening disclosures or the periodic statement for the consumer to fill out and mail to affirmatively request the service;
</P>
<P>iii. <I>By telephone.</I> The card issuer provides a readily available telephone line that consumers may call to provide affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>By electronic means.</I> The card issuer provides an electronic means for the consumer to affirmatively consent. For example, a card issuer could provide a form that can be accessed and processed at its Web site, where the consumer can check a box to opt in and confirm that choice by clicking on a button that affirms the consumer's consent.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Separate consent required.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions must be obtained separately from other consents or acknowledgments obtained by the card issuer. For example, a consumer's signature on a credit application to request a credit card would not by itself sufficiently evidence the consumer's consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. However, a card issuer may obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a blank signature line or a check box on the application that the consumer can sign or select to request the over-the-limit service, provided that the signature line or check box is used solely for purposes of evidencing the choice and not for any other purpose, such as to also obtain consumer consents for other account services or features or to receive disclosures electronically.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Written confirmation.</I> A card issuer may comply with the requirement in § 226.56(b)(1)(iv) to provide written confirmation of the consumer's decision to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions by providing the consumer a copy of the consumer's completed opt-in form or by sending a letter or notice to the consumer acknowledging that the consumer has elected to opt into the card issuer's service. A card issuer may also satisfy the written confirmation requirement by providing the confirmation on the first periodic statement sent after the consumer has opted in. For example, a card issuer could provide a written notice consistent with § 226.56(e)(2) on the periodic statement. A card issuer may not, however, assess any over-the-limit fees or charges on the consumer's credit card account unless and until the card issuer has sent the written confirmation. Thus, if a card issuer elects to provide written confirmation on the first periodic statement after the consumer has opted in, it would not be permitted to assess any over-the-limit fees or charges until the next statement cycle.
</P>
<P><I>56(b)(2) Completion of over-the-limit transactions without consumer consent.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of over-the-limit transactions paid without consumer consent.</I> Section 226.56(b)(2) provides that a card issuer may pay an over-the-limit transaction even if the consumer has not provided affirmative consent, so long as the card issuer does not impose a fee or charge for paying the transaction. The prohibition on imposing fees for paying an over-the-limit transaction applies even in circumstances where the card issuer is unable to avoid paying a transaction that exceeds the consumer's credit limit.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Transactions not submitted for authorization.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer purchases a $3 cup of coffee using his credit card. Because of the small dollar amount of the transaction, the merchant does not submit the transaction to the card issuer for authorization. The transaction causes the consumer to exceed the credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Settlement amount exceeds authorization amount.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer uses his credit card at a pay-at-the-pump fuel dispenser to purchase $50 of fuel. Before permitting the consumer to use the fuel pump, the merchant verifies the validity of the card by requesting an authorization hold of $1. The subsequent $50 transaction amount causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Intervening charges.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer makes a $50 purchase using his credit card. However, before the $50 transaction is charged to the consumer's account, a separate recurring charge is posted to the account. The $50 purchase then causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible fees or charges when a consumer has not consented.</I> Section 226.56(b)(2) does not preclude a card issuer from assessing fees or charges other than over-the-limit fees when an over-the-limit transaction is completed. For example, if a consumer has not opted in, the card issuer may assess a balance transfer fee in connection with a balance transfer, provided such a fee is assessed whether or not the transfer exceeds the credit limit. Section 226.56(b)(2) does not limit the card issuer's ability to debit the consumer's account for the amount of the over-the-limit transaction if the card issuer is permitted to do so under applicable law. The card issuer may also assess interest charges in connection with the over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<P><I>56(c) Method of election.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Card issuer-determined methods.</I> A card issuer may determine the means available to consumers to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. For example, a card issuer may decide to obtain consents in writing, electronically, or orally, or through some combination of these methods. Section 226.56(c) further requires, however, that such methods must be made equally available for consumers to revoke a prior consent. Thus, for example, if a card issuer allows a consumer to consent in writing or electronically, it must also allow the consumer to revoke that consent in writing or electronically.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic requests.</I> A consumer consent or revocation request submitted electronically is not considered a consumer disclosure for purposes of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P><I>56(d) Timing and placement of notices.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Contemporaneous notice for oral or electronic consent.</I> Under § 226.56(d)(1)(ii), if a card issuer seeks to obtain consent from the consumer orally or by electronic means, the card issuer must provide a notice containing the disclosures in § 226.56(e)(1) prior to and as part of the process of obtaining the consumer's consent.
</P>
<P><I>56(e) Content.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amount of over-the-limit fee.</I> See Model Forms G-25(A) and G-25(B) for guidance on how to disclose the amount of the over-the-limit fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice content.</I> In describing the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the card issuer may explain that any transactions that exceed the consumer's credit limit will be declined if the consumer does not consent to the service. In addition, the card issuer should explain that even if a consumer consents, the payment of over-the-limit transactions is at the discretion of the card issuer. For example, the card issuer may indicate that it may decline a transaction for any reason, such as if the consumer is past due or significantly over the limit. The card issuer may also disclose the consumer's right to revoke consent.
</P>
<P><I>56(f) Joint relationships.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Authorized users.</I> Section 226.56(f) does not permit a card issuer to treat a request to opt in to or to revoke a prior request for the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions from an authorized user that is not jointly liable on a credit card account as a consent or revocation request for that account.
</P>
<P><I>56(g) Continuing right to opt in or revoke opt-in.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges for over-the-limit transactions incurred prior to revocation.</I> Section 226.56(g) provides that a consumer may revoke his or her prior consent at any time. If a consumer does so, this provision does not require the card issuer to waive or reverse any over-the-limit fees or charges assessed to the consumer's account for transactions that occurred prior to the card issuer's implementation of the consumer's revocation request. Nor does this requirement prevent the card issuer from assessing over-the-limit fees in subsequent cycles if the consumer's account balance continues to exceed the credit limit after the payment due date as a result of an over-the-limit transaction that occurred prior to the consumer's revocation of consent.
</P>
<P><I>56(h) Duration of opt-in.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Card issuer ability to stop paying over-the-limit transactions after consumer consent.</I> A card issuer may cease paying over-the-limit transactions for consumers that have previously opted in at any time and for any reason. For example, a card issuer may stop paying over-the-limit transactions for a consumer to respond to changes in the credit risk presented by the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>56(j) Prohibited practices.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic fees or charges.</I> A card issuer may charge an over-the-limit fee or charge only if the consumer has exceeded the credit limit during the billing cycle. Thus, a card issuer may not impose any recurring or periodic fees for paying over-the-limit transactions (for example, a monthly “over-the-limit protection” service fee), even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to or opted in to the service, unless the consumer has in fact exceeded the credit limit during that cycle.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of limits on fees or charges imposed per billing cycle.</I> Section 226.56(j)(1) generally prohibits a card issuer from assessing a fee or charge due to the same over-the-limit transaction for more than three billing cycles. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a consumer has opted into a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer exceeds the credit limit during the December billing cycle and does not make sufficient payment to bring the account balance back under the limit for four consecutive cycles. The consumer does not engage in any additional transactions during this period. In this case, § 226.56(j)(1) would permit the card issuer to charge a maximum of three over-the-limit fees for the December over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same facts as above except that the consumer makes sufficient payment to reduce his account balance by the payment due date during the February billing cycle. The card issuer may charge over-the-limit fees for the December and January billing cycles. However, because the consumer's account balance was below the credit limit by the payment due date for the February billing cycle, the card issuer may not charge an over-the-limit fee for the February billing cycle.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume the same facts as in paragraph i., except that the consumer engages in another over-the-limit transaction during the February billing cycle. Because the consumer has obtained an additional extension of credit which causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit, the card issuer may charge over-the-limit fees for the December transaction on the January, February and March billing statements, and additional over-the-limit fees for the February transaction on the April and May billing statements. The card issuer may not charge an over-the-limit fee for each of the December and the February transactions on the March billing statement because it is prohibited from imposing more than one over-the-limit fee during a billing cycle.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Replenishment of credit line.</I> Section 226.56(j)(2) does not prevent a card issuer from delaying replenishment of a consumer's available credit where appropriate, for example, where the card issuer may suspect fraud on the credit card account. However, a card issuer may not assess an over-the-limit fee or charge if the over-the-limit transaction is caused by the card issuer's decision not to promptly replenish the available credit after the consumer's payment is credited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of conditioning.</I> Section 226.56(j)(3) prohibits a card issuer from conditioning or otherwise tying the amount of a consumer's credit limit on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions where the card issuer assesses an over-the-limit fee for the transaction. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Amount of credit limit.</I> Assume that a card issuer offers a credit card with a credit limit of $1,000. The consumer is informed that if the consumer opts in to the payment of the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the initial credit limit would be increased to $1,300. If the card issuer would have offered the credit card with the $1,300 credit limit but for the fact that the consumer did not consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the card issuer would not be in compliance with § 226.56(j)(3). Section 226.56(j)(3) prohibits the card issuer from tying the consumer's opt-in to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions as a condition of obtaining the credit card with the $1,300 credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Access to credit.</I> Assume the same facts as above, except that the card issuer declines the consumer's application altogether because the consumer has not affirmatively consented or opted in to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The card issuer is not in compliance with § 226.56(j)(3) because the card issuer has required the consumer's consent as a condition of obtaining credit.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Over-the-limit fees caused by accrued fees or interest.</I> Section 226.56(j)(4) prohibits a card issuer from imposing any over-the-limit fees or charges on a consumer's account if the consumer has exceeded the credit limit solely because charges imposed as part of the plan as described in § 226.6(b)(3) were charged to the consumer's account during the billing cycle. For example, a card issuer may not assess an over-the-limit fee or charge even if the credit limit was exceeded due to fees for services requested by the consumer if such fees would constitute charges imposed as part of the plan (such as fees for voluntary debt cancellation or suspension coverage). Section 226.56(j)(4) does not, however, restrict card issuers from assessing over-the-limit fees or charges due to accrued finance charges or fees from prior cycles that have subsequently been added to the account balance. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a consumer has opted in to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer's account has a credit limit of $500. The billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. The account is not eligible for a grace period as defined in § 226.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>). On December 31, the only balance on the account is a purchase balance of $475. On that same date, $50 in fees charged as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3)(i) and interest charges are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance at the end of the December billing cycle to $525. Although the total balance exceeds the $500 credit limit, § 226.56(j)(4) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge for the December billing cycle in these circumstances because the consumer's credit limit was exceeded solely because of the imposition of fees and interest charges during that cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on December 31, the only balance on the account is a purchase balance of $400. On that same date, $50 in fees imposed as part of the plan under § 226.6(b)(3)(i), including interest charges, are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance at the end of the December billing cycle to $450. The consumer makes a $25 payment by the January payment due date and the remaining $25 in fees imposed as part of the plan in December is added to the outstanding balance. On January 25, an $80 purchase is charged to the account. At the close of the cycle on January 31, an additional $20 in fees imposed as part of the plan are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance to $525. Because § 226.56(j)(4) does not require the issuer to consider fees imposed as part of the plan for the prior cycle in determining whether an over-the-limit fee may be properly assessed for the current cycle, the issuer need not take into account the remaining $25 in fees and interest charges from the December cycle in determining whether fees imposed as part of the plan caused the consumer to exceed the credit limit during the January cycle. Thus, under these circumstances, § 226.56(j)(4) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge for the January billing cycle because the $20 in fees imposed as part of the plan for the January billing cycle did not cause the consumer to exceed the credit limit during that cycle.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional restrictions on over-the-limit fees.</I> See § 226.52(b).
</P>
<HD2>Section 226.57—Reporting and Marketing Rules for College Student Open-End Credit
</HD2>
<P><I>57(a) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>57(a)(1) College student credit card.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The definition of college student credit card excludes home-equity lines of credit accessed by credit cards and overdraft lines of credit accessed by debit cards. A college student credit card includes a college affinity card within the meaning of TILA Section 127(r)(1)(A). In addition, a card may fall within the scope of the definition regardless of the fact that it is not intentionally targeted at or marketed to college students. For example, an agreement between a college and a card issuer may provide for marketing of credit cards to alumni, faculty, staff, and other non-student consumers who have a relationship with the college, but also contain provisions that contemplate the issuance of cards to students. A credit card issued to a student at the college in connection with such an agreement qualifies as a college student credit card.
</P>
<P><I>57(a)(5) College credit card agreement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Section 226.57(a)(5) defines “college credit card agreement” to include any business, marketing or promotional agreement between a card issuer and a college or university (or an affiliated organization, such as an alumni club or a foundation) if the agreement provides for the issuance of credit cards to full-time or part-time students. Business, marketing or promotional agreements may include a broad range of arrangements between a card issuer and an institution of higher education or affiliated organization, including arrangements that do not meet the criteria to be considered college affinity card agreements as discussed in TILA Section 127(r)(1)(A). For example, TILA Section 127(r)(1)(A) specifies that under a college affinity card agreement, the card issuer has agreed to make a donation to the institution or affiliated organization, the card issuer has agreed to offer discounted terms to the consumer, or the credit card will display pictures, symbols, or words identified with the institution or affiliated organization; even if these conditions are not met, an agreement may qualify as a college credit card agreement, if the agreement is a business, marketing or promotional agreement that contemplates the issuance of college student credit cards to college students currently enrolled (either full-time or part-time) at the institution. An agreement may qualify as a college credit card agreement even if marketing of cards under the agreement is targeted at alumni, faculty, staff, and other non-student consumers, as long as cards may also be issued to students in connection with the agreement.
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<P><I>57(b) Public disclosure of agreements.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Public disclosure.</I> Section 226.57(b) requires an institution of higher education to publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer or creditor for the purpose of marketing a credit card. Examples of publicly disclosing such contracts or agreements include, but are not limited to, posting such contracts or agreements on the institution's Web site or making such contracts or agreements available upon request, provided the procedures for requesting the documents are reasonable and free of cost to the requestor, and the requested contracts or agreements are provided within a reasonable time frame.
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<P>2. <I>Redaction prohibited.</I> An institution of higher education must publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer for the purpose of marketing a credit card in its entirety and may not redact any portion of such contract or agreement. Any clause existing in such contracts or agreements, providing for the confidentiality of any portion of the contract or agreement, would be invalid to the extent it restricts the ability of the institution of higher education to publicly disclose the contract or agreement in its entirety.
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<P><I>57(c) Prohibited inducements.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Tangible item clarified.</I> A tangible item includes any physical item, such as a gift card, a t-shirt, or a magazine subscription, that a card issuer or creditor offers to induce a college student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor. Tangible items do not include non-physical inducements such as discounts, rewards points, or promotional credit terms.
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<P>2. <I>Inducement clarified.</I> If a tangible item is offered to a person whether or not that person applies for or opens an open-end consumer credit plan, the tangible item has not been offered to induce the person to apply for or open the plan. For example, refreshments offered to a college student on campus that are not conditioned on whether the student has applied for or agreed to open an open-end consumer credit plan would not violate § 226.57(c).
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<P>3. <I>Near campus clarified.</I> A location that is within 1,000 feet of the border of the campus of an institution of higher education, as defined by the institution of higher education, is considered near the campus of an institution of higher education.
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<P>4. <I>Mailings included.</I> The prohibition in § 226.57(c) on offering a tangible item to a college student to induce such student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor applies to any solicitation or application mailed to a college student at an address on or near the campus of an institution of higher education.
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<P>5. <I>Related event clarified.</I> An event is related to an institution of higher education if the marketing of such event uses the name, emblem, mascot, or logo of an institution of higher education, or other words, pictures, symbols identified with an institution of higher education in a way that implies that the institution of higher education endorses or otherwise sponsors the event.
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<P>6. <I>Reasonable procedures for determining if applicant is a student.</I> Section 226.57(c) applies solely to offering a tangible item to a college student. Therefore, a card issuer or creditor may offer any person who is not a college student a tangible item to induce such person to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor, on campus, near campus, or at an event sponsored by or related to an institution of higher education. The card issuer or creditor must have reasonable procedures for determining whether an applicant is a college student before giving the applicant the tangible item. For example, a card issuer or creditor may ask whether the applicant is a college student as part of the application process. The card issuer or creditor may rely on the representations made by the applicant.
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<P><I>57(d) Annual report to the Board.</I>
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<P><I>57(d)(2) Contents of report.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Memorandum of understanding.</I> Section 226.57(d)(2) requires that the report to the Board include, among other items, a copy of any memorandum of understanding between the card issuer and the institution (or affiliated organization) that “directly or indirectly relates to the college credit card agreement or that controls or directs any obligations or distribution of benefits between any such entities.” Such a memorandum of understanding includes any document that amends the college credit card agreement, or that constitutes a further agreement between the parties as to the interpretation or administration of the agreement. For example, a memorandum of understanding required to be included in the report would include a document that provides details on the dollar amounts of payments from the card issuer to the university, to supplement the original agreement which only provided for payments in general terms (e.g., as a percentage). A memorandum of understanding for these purposes would not include email (or other) messages that merely discuss matters such as the addresses to which payments should be sent or the names of contact persons for carrying out the agreement.
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<HD2>Section 226.58—Internet Posting of Credit Card Agreements
</HD2>
<P><I>58(b) Definitions.</I>
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<P><I>58(b)(1) Agreement.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Inclusion of pricing information.</I> For purposes of this section, a credit card agreement is deemed to include certain information, such as annual percentage rates and fees, even if the issuer does not otherwise include this information in the basic credit contract. This information is listed under the defined term “pricing information” in § 226.58(b)(7). For example, the basic credit contract may not specify rates, fees and other information that constitutes pricing information as defined in § 226.58(b)(7); instead, such information may be provided to the cardholder in a separate document sent along with the card. However, this information nevertheless constitutes part of the agreement for purposes of § 226.58.
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<P>2. <I>Provisions contained in separate documents included.</I> A credit card agreement is defined as the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a card issuer and a consumer for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. An agreement therefore may consist of several documents that, taken together, define the legal obligation between the issuer and consumer. For example, provisions that mandate arbitration or allow an issuer to unilaterally alter the terms of the card issuer's or consumer's obligation are part of the agreement even if they are provided to the consumer in a document separate from the basic credit contract.
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<P><I>58(b)(2) Amends.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Substantive changes.</I> A change to an agreement is substantive, and therefore is deemed an amendment of the agreement, if it alters the rights or obligations of the parties. Section 226.58(b)(2) provides that any change in the pricing information, as defined in § 226.58(b)(7), is deemed to be substantive. Examples of other changes that generally would be considered substantive include: (i) Addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer a right under the agreement, such as a clause that allows an issuer to unilaterally change the terms of an agreement; (ii) addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer an obligation under the agreement, such as a clause requiring the consumer to pay an additional fee; (iii) changes that may affect the cost of credit to the consumer, such as changes in a provision describing how the minimum payment will be calculated; (iv) changes that may affect how the terms of the agreement are construed or applied, such as changes in a choice-of-law provision; and (v) changes that may affect the parties to whom the agreement may apply, such as provisions regarding authorized users or assignment of the agreement.
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<P>2. <I>Non-substantive changes.</I> Changes that generally would not be considered substantive include, for example: (i) Correction of typographical errors that do not affect the meaning of any terms of the agreement; (ii) changes to the card issuer's corporate name, logo, or tagline; (iii) changes to the format of the agreement, such as conversion to a booklet from a full-sheet format, changes in font, or changes in margins; (iv) changes to the name of the credit card to which the program applies; (v) reordering sections of the agreement without affecting the meaning of any terms of the agreement; (vi) adding, removing, or modifying a table of contents or index; and (vii) changes to titles, headings, section numbers, or captions.
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<P><I>58(b)(4) Card issuer.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Card issuer clarified.</I> Section 226.58(b)(4) provides that, for purposes of § 226.58, card issuer or issuer means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a credit card agreement. For example, Bank X and Bank Y work together to issue credit cards. A consumer that obtains a credit card issued pursuant to this arrangement between Bank X and Bank Y is subject to an agreement that states “This is an agreement between you, the consumer, and Bank X that governs the terms of your Bank Y Credit Card.” The card issuer in this example is Bank X, because the agreement creates a legally enforceable obligation between the consumer and Bank X. Bank X is the issuer even if the consumer applied for the card through a link on Bank Y's Web site and the cards prominently feature the Bank Y logo on the front of the card.
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<P>2. <I>Use of third-party service providers.</I> An institution that is the card issuer as defined in § 226.58(b)(4) has a legal obligation to comply with the requirements of § 226.58. However, a card issuer generally may use a third-party service provider to satisfy its obligations under § 226.58, provided that the issuer acts in accordance with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance. In some cases, an issuer may wish to arrange for the institution with which it partners to issue credit cards to fulfill the requirements of § 226.58 on the issuer's behalf. For example, Retailer and Bank work together to issue credit cards. Under the § 226.58(b)(4) definition, Bank is the issuer of these credit cards for purposes of § 226.58. However, Retailer services the credit card accounts, including mailing account opening materials and periodic statements to cardholders. While Bank is responsible for ensuring compliance with § 226.58, Bank may arrange for Retailer (or another appropriate third-party service provider) to submit credit card agreements to the Board under § 226.58 on Bank's behalf. Bank must comply with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance.
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<P>3. <I>Partner institution Web sites.</I> As explained in comments 58(d)-2 and 58(e)-3, if an issuer provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party Web site, the issuer is deemed to maintain that Web site for purposes of § 226.58. Such a Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 226.58 even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. A partner institution's Web site is an example of a third-party Web site that may be deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 226.58. For example, Retailer and Bank work together to issue credit cards. Under the § 226.58(b)(4) definition, Bank is the issuer of these credit cards for purposes of § 226.58. Bank does not have a Web site. However, cardholders can access information about their individual accounts, such as balance information and copies of statements, through a Web site maintained by Retailer. Retailer designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site. The Web site is branded and held out to the public as belonging to Retailer. Because cardholders can access information about their individual accounts through this Web site, the Web site is deemed to be maintained by Bank for purposes of § 226.58. Bank therefore may comply with § 226.58(d) by ensuring that agreements offered to the public are posted on Retailer's Web site in accordance with § 226.58(d). Bank may comply with § 226.58(e) by ensuring that cardholders can request copies of their individual agreements through Retailer's Web site in accordance with § 226.58(e)(1). Bank need not create and maintain a Web site branded and held out to the public as belonging to Bank in order to comply with §§ 226.58(d) and (e) as long as Bank ensures that Retailer's Web site complies with these sections.
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<P>In addition, § 226.58(d)(1) provides that, with respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, an issuer may comply with § 226.58(d) by posting the agreement on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which credit cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used. This rule is not conditioned on cardholders' ability to access account-specific information through the merchant's Web site.
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<P><I>58(b)(5) Offers.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Cards offered to limited groups.</I> A card issuer is deemed to offer a credit card agreement to the public even if the issuer solicits, or accepts applications from, only a limited group of persons. For example, a card issuer may market affinity cards to students and alumni of a particular educational institution, or may solicit only high-net-worth individuals for a particular card; in these cases, the agreement would be considered to be offered to the public. Similarly, agreements for credit cards issued by a credit union are considered to be offered to the public even though such cards are available only to credit union members.
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<P>2. <I>Individualized agreements.</I> A card issuer is deemed to offer a credit card agreement to the public even if the terms of the agreement are changed immediately upon opening of an account to terms not offered to the public.
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<P><I>58(b)(6) Open account.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Open account clarified.</I> The definition of open account includes a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if either: (i) The cardholder can obtain extensions of credit on the account; or (ii) there is an outstanding balance on the account that has not been charged off. Under this definition, an account that meets either of these criteria is considered to be open even if the account is inactive. Similarly, if an account has been closed for new activity (for example, due to default by the cardholder), but the cardholder is still making payments to pay off the outstanding balance, the account is considered open.
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<P><I>58(b)(8) Private label credit card account and private label credit card plan.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Private label credit card account.</I> The term private label credit card account means a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a credit card that can be used to make purchases only at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants. This term applies to any such credit card account, regardless of whether it is issued by the merchant or its affiliate or by an unaffiliated third party.
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<P>2. <I>Co-branded credit cards.</I> The term private label credit card account does not include accounts with so-called co-branded credit cards. Credit cards that display the name, mark, or logo of a merchant or affiliated group of merchants as well as the mark, logo, or brand of payment network are generally referred to as co-branded cards. While these credit cards may display the brand of the merchant or affiliated group of merchants as the dominant brand on the card, such credit cards are usable at any merchant that participates in the payment network. Because these credit cards can be used at multiple unaffiliated merchants, accounts with such credit cards are not considered private label credit card accounts under § 226.58(b)(8).
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<P>3. <I>Affiliated group of merchants.</I> The term “affiliated group of merchants” means two or more affiliated merchants or other persons that are related by common ownership or common corporate control. For example, the term would include franchisees that are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses. The term also applies to two or more merchants or other persons that agree among each other, by contract or otherwise, to accept a credit card bearing the same name, mark, or logo (other than the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network), for the purchase of goods or services solely at such merchants or persons. For example, several local clothing retailers jointly agree to issue credit cards called the “Main Street Fashion Card” that can be used to make purchases only at those retailers. For purposes of this section, these retailers would be considered an affiliated group of merchants.
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<P>4. <I>Private label credit card plan.</I> Which credit card accounts issued by a particular issuer constitute a private label credit card plan is determined by where the credit cards can be used. All of the private label credit card accounts issued by a particular card issuer with credit cards usable at the same merchant or affiliated group of merchants constitute a single private label credit card plan, regardless of whether the rates, fees, or other terms applicable to the individual credit card accounts differ. For example, a card issuer has 3,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 5,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and its affiliates. The card issuer has two separate private label credit card plans, as defined by § 226.58(b)(8)—one plan consisting of 3,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and another plan consisting of 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and its affiliates.
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<P>The example above remains the same regardless of whether (or the extent to which) the terms applicable to the individual open accounts differ. For example, assume that, with respect to the card issuer's 3,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A in the example above, 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 12 percent, 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 15 percent, and 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 18 percent. All of the 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates have the same 15 percent purchase APR. The card issuer still has only two separate private label credit card plans, as defined by § 226.58(b)(8). The open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A do not constitute three separate private label credit card plans under § 226.58(b)(8), even though the accounts are subject to different terms.
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<P><I>58(c) Submission of agreements to Board.</I>
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<P><I>58(c)(1) Quarterly submissions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Quarterly submission requirement.</I> Section 226.58(c)(1) requires card issuers to send quarterly submissions to the Board no later than the first business day on or after January 31, April 30, July 31, and October 31 of each year. For example, a card issuer has already submitted three credit card agreements to the Board. On October 15, the card issuer stops offering agreement A. On November 20, the card issuer amends agreement B. On December 1, the issuer starts offering a new agreement D. The card issuer must submit to the Board no later than the first business day on or after January 31: (i) Notification that the card issuer is withdrawing agreement A, because it is no longer offered to the public; (ii) the amended version of agreement B; and (iii) agreement D.
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<P>2. <I>No quarterly submission required.</I> Under § 226.58(c)(1), a card issuer is not required to make any submission to the Board at a particular quarterly submission deadline if, during the previous calendar quarter, the card issuer did not take any of the following actions: (i) Offering a new credit card agreement that was not submitted to the Board previously; (ii) amending an agreement previously submitted to the Board; and (iii) ceasing to offer an agreement previously submitted to the Board. For example, a card issuer offers five agreements to the public as of September 30 and submits these to the Board by October 31, as required by § 226.58(c)(1). Between September 30 and December 31, the card issuer continues to offer all five of these agreements to the public without amending them and does not begin offering any new agreements. The card issuer is not required to make any submission to the Board by the following January 31.
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<P>3. <I>Quarterly submission of complete set of updated agreements.</I> Section 226.58(c)(1) permits a card issuer to submit to the Board on a quarterly basis a complete, updated set of the credit card agreements the card issuer offers to the public. For example, a card issuer offers agreements A, B, and C to the public as of March 31. The card issuer submits each of these agreements to the Board by April 30 as required by § 226.58(c)(1). On May 15, the card issuer amends agreement A, but does not make any changes to agreements B or C. As of June 30, the card issuer continues to offer amended agreement A and agreements B and C to the public. At the next quarterly submission deadline, July 31, the card issuer must submit the entire amended agreement A and is not required to make any submission with respect to agreements B and C. The card issuer may either: (i) Submit the entire amended agreement A and make no submission with respect to agreements B and C; or (ii) submit the entire amended agreement A and also resubmit agreements B and C. A card issuer may choose to resubmit to the Board all of the agreements it offered to the public as of a particular quarterly submission deadline even if the card issuer has not introduced any new agreements or amended any agreements since its last submission and continues to offer all previously submitted agreements.
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<P><I>58(c)(3) Amended agreements.</I>
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<P>1. <I>No requirement to resubmit agreements not amended.</I> Under § 226.58(c)(3), if a credit card agreement has been submitted to the Board, the agreement has not been amended, and the card issuer continues to offer the agreement to the public, no additional submission regarding that agreement is required. For example, a credit card issuer begins offering an agreement in October and submits the agreement to the Board the following January 31, as required by § 226.58(c)(1). As of March 31, the card issuer has not amended the agreement and is still offering the agreement to the public. The card issuer is not required to submit anything to the Board regarding that agreement by April 30.
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<P>2. <I>Submission of amended agreements.</I> If a card issuer amends a credit card agreement previously submitted to the Board, § 226.58(c)(3) requires the card issuer to submit the entire amended agreement to the Board. The issuer must submit the amended agreement to the Board by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective. However, the issuer is required to submit the amended agreement to the Board only if the issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective. For example, a card issuer submits an agreement to the Board on October 31. On November 15, the issuer changes the balance computation method used under the agreement. Because an element of the pricing information has changed, the agreement has been amended for purposes of § 226.58(c)(3). On December 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change in the balance computation method became effective, the issuer still offers the agreement to the public as amended on November 15. The issuer must submit the entire amended agreement to the Board no later than January 31.
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<P>3. <I>Agreements amended but no longer offered to the public.</I> A card issuer should submit an amended agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(3) only if the issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the amendment became effective. Agreements that are not offered to the public as of the last day of the calendar quarter should not be submitted to the Board. For example, on December 31 a card issuer offers two agreements, Agreement A and Agreement B. The issuer submits these agreements to the Board by January 31 as required by § 226.58. On February 15, the issuer amends both Agreement A and Agreement B. On February 28, the issuer stops offering Agreement A to the public. On March 15, the issuer amends Agreement B a second time. As a result, on March 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter, the issuer offers to the public one agreement—Agreement B as amended on March 15. By the April 30 quarterly submission deadline, the issuer must: (1) Notify the Board that it is withdrawing Agreement A because Agreement A is no longer offered to the public; and (2) submit to the Board Agreement B as amended on March 15. The issuer should not submit to the Board either Agreement A as amended on February 15 or the earlier version of Agreement B (as amended on February 15), as neither was offered to the public on March 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter.
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<P>4. <I>Change-in-terms notices not permissible.</I> Section 226.58(c)(3) requires that if an agreement previously submitted to the Board is amended, the card issuer must submit the entire revised agreement to the Board. A card issuer may not fulfill this requirement by submitting a change-in-terms or similar notice covering only the terms that have changed. In addition, amendments must be integrated into the text of the agreement (or the addenda described in § 226.58(c)(8)), not provided as separate riders. For example, a card issuer changes the purchase APR associated with an agreement the issuer has previously submitted to the Board. The purchase APR for that agreement was included in the addendum of pricing information, as required by § 226.58(c)(8). The card issuer may not submit a change-in-terms or similar notice reflecting the change in APR, either alone or accompanied by the original text of the agreement and original pricing information addendum. Instead, the card issuer must revise the pricing information addendum to reflect the change in APR and submit to the Board the entire text of the agreement and the entire revised addendum, even though no changes have been made to the provisions of the agreement and only one item on the pricing information addendum has changed.
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<P><I>58(c)(4) Withdrawal of agreements.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Notice of withdrawal of agreement.</I> Section 226.58(c)(4) requires a card issuer to notify the Board if any agreement previously submitted to the Board by that issuer is no longer offered to the public by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the card issuer ceased to offer the agreement. For example, on January 5 a card issuer stops offering to the public an agreement it previously submitted to the Board. The card issuer must notify the Board that the agreement is being withdrawn by April 30, the first quarterly submission deadline after March 31, the last day of the calendar quarter in which the card issuer stopped offering the agreement.
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<P><I>58(c)(5) De minimis exception.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relationship to other exceptions.</I> The de minimis exception is distinct from the private label credit card exception under § 226.58(c)(6) and the product testing exception under § 226.58(c)(7). The de minimis exception provides that a card issuer with fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts is not required to submit any agreements to the Board, regardless of whether those agreements qualify for the private label credit card exception or the product testing exception. In contrast, the private label credit card exception and the product testing exception provide that a card issuer is not required to submit to the Board agreements offered solely in connection with certain types of credit card plans with fewer than 10,000 open accounts, regardless of the card issuer's total number of open accounts.
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<P>2. <I>De minimis exception.</I> Under § 226.58(c)(5), a card issuer is not required to submit any credit card agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) if the card issuer has fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts as of the last business day of the calendar quarter. For example, a card issuer offers five credit card agreements to the public as of September 30. However, the card issuer has only 2,000 open credit card accounts as of September 30. The card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Board by October 31 because the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception.
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<P>3. <I>Date for determining whether card issuer qualifies clarified.</I> Whether a card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception is determined as of the last business day of each calendar quarter. For example, as of December 31, a card issuer offers three agreements to the public and has 9,500 open credit card accounts. As of January 30, the card issuer still offers three agreements, but has 10,100 open accounts. As of March 31, the card issuer still offers three agreements, but has only 9,700 open accounts. Even though the card issuer had 10,100 open accounts at one time during the calendar quarter, the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception because the number of open accounts was less than 10,000 as of March 31. The card issuer therefore is not required to submit any agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) by April 30.
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<P>4. <I>Date for determining whether card issuer ceases to qualify clarified.</I> Whether a card issuer has ceased to qualify for the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5) is determined as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, For example, as of June 30, a card issuer offers three agreements to the public and has 9,500 open credit card accounts. The card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) because the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception. As of July 15, the card issuer still offers the same three agreements, but now has 10,000 open accounts. The card issuer is not required to take any action at this time, because whether a card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5) is determined as of the last business day of the calendar quarter. As of September 30, the card issuer still offers the same three agreements and still has 10,000 open accounts. Because the card issuer had 10,000 open accounts as of September 30, the card issuer ceased to qualify for the de minimis exception and must submit the three agreements it offers to the Board by October 31, the next quarterly submission deadline.
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<P>5. <I>Option to withdraw agreements clarified.</I> Section 226.58(c)(5) provides that if a card issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception qualifies for the de minimis exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Board as required by § 226.58(c)(1) until the card issuer notifies the Board that the issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Board. For example, a card issuer has 10,001 open accounts and offers three agreements to the public as of December 31. The card issuer has submitted each of the three agreements to the Board as required under § 226.58(c)(1). As of March 31, the card issuer has only 9,999 open accounts. The card issuer has two options. First, the card issuer may notify the Board that the card issuer is withdrawing each of the three agreements it previously submitted. Once the card issuer has notified the Board, the card issuer is no longer required to make quarterly submissions to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1). Alternatively, the card issuer may choose not to notify the Board that it is withdrawing its agreements. In this case, the card issuer must continue making quarterly submissions to the Board as required by § 226.58(c)(1). The card issuer might choose not to withdraw its agreements if, for example, the card issuer believes that it likely will cease to qualify for the de minimis exception again in the near future.
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<P><I>58(c)(6) Private label credit card exception.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Private label credit card exception.</I> Under § 226.58(c)(6)(i), a card issuer is not required to submit to the Board a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement: (A) Is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and (B) is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan. For example, a card issuer offers to the public a credit card agreement offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards that can be used only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 8,000 open accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer is not required to submit this agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) because the agreement is offered for a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts, and the credit card agreement is not offered to the public other than for accounts under that private label credit card plan.
</P>
<P>In contrast, assume the same card issuer also offers to the public a different credit card agreement that is offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The card issuer has 12,000 open accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The private label credit card exception does not apply. Although this agreement is offered for a private label credit card plan (<I>i.e.,</I> the 12,000 private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B), and the agreement is not offered to the public other than for accounts under that private label credit card plan, the private label credit card plan has more than 10,000 open accounts. (The card issuer still is not required to submit to the Board the agreement offered in connection with credit cards usable only at Merchant A, as each agreement is evaluated separately under the private label credit card exception.)
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<P>2. <I>Card issuers with small private label and other credit card plans.</I> Whether the private label credit card exception applies is determined on an agreement-by-agreement basis. Therefore, some agreements offered by a card issuer may qualify for the private label credit card exception even though the card issuer also offers other agreements that do not qualify, such as agreements offered for accounts with cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants or agreements offered for accounts under private label plans with 10,000 or more open accounts.
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<P>3. <I>De minimis exception distinguished.</I> The private label credit card exception under § 226.58(c)(6) is distinct from the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5). The private label credit card exception exempts card issuers from submitting certain agreements to the Board regardless of the card issuer's overall size as measured by total number of open accounts. In contrast, the de minimis exception exempts a particular card issuer from submitting any credit card agreements to the Board if the card issuer has fewer than 10,000 total open accounts. For example, a card issuer offers to the public two credit card agreements. Agreement A is offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 5,000 open credit card accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant A. Agreement B is offered solely for credit card accounts with cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants that participate in a major payment network. The card issuer has 40,000 open credit card accounts with such payment network cards. The card issuer is not required to submit agreement A to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) because agreement A qualifies for the private label credit card exception under § 226.58(c)(6). Agreement A is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts (<I>i.e.,</I> the 5,000 accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A) and is not otherwise offered to the public. The card issuer is required to submit agreement B to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1). The card issuer does not qualify for the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5) because it has more than 10,000 open accounts, and agreement B does not qualify for the private label credit card exception under § 226.58(c)(6) because it is not offered solely for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts.
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<P>4. <I>Agreement otherwise offered to the public.</I> An agreement qualifies for the private label exception only if it is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans with fewer than 10,000 open accounts and is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan. For example, a card issuer offers a single agreement to the public. The agreement is offered for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 9,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The agreement also is offered for credit card accounts with credit cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants that participate in a major payment network. The agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception. The agreement is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts. However, the agreement also is offered to the public for accounts that are not part of a private label credit card plan and therefore does not qualify for the private label credit card exception.
</P>
<P>Similarly, an agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception if it is offered in connection with one private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts and one private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts. For example, a card issuer offers a single credit card agreement to the public. The agreement is offered for two types of accounts. The first type of account is a private label credit card account with a credit card usable only at Merchant A. The second type of account is a private label credit card account with a credit card usable only at Merchant B. The card issuer has 10,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 5,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception. While the agreement is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts (<I>i.e.,</I> the 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B), the agreement is also offered for accounts not under such a plan (<I>i.e.,</I> the 10,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A).
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<P>5. <I>Agreement used for multiple small private label plans.</I> The private label exception applies even if the same agreement is used for more than one private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts. For example, a card issuer has 15,000 total open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 7,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A, 5,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B, and 3,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant C. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for all three types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account. The card issuer is not required to submit the agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1). The agreement is used for three different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A, the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B, and the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant C), each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts, and the card issuer does not offer the agreement for any other type of account. The agreement therefore qualifies for the private label credit card exception under § 226.58(c)(6).
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<P>6. <I>Multiple agreements used for one private label credit card plan.</I> The private label credit card exception applies even if a card issuer offers more than one agreement in connection with a particular private label credit card plan. For example, a card issuer has 5,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer offers to the public three different agreements each of which may be used in connection with private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The agreements are not offered for any other type of credit card account. The card issuer is not required to submit any of the three agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1) because each of the agreements is used for a private label credit card plan which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts and none of the three is offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan.
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<P><I>58(c)(8) Form and content of agreements submitted to the Board.</I>
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<P>1. <I>“As of” date clarified.</I> Agreements submitted to the Board must contain the provisions of the agreement and pricing information in effect as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter. For example, on June 1, a card issuer decides to decrease the purchase APR associated with one of the agreements it offers to the public. The change in the APR will become effective on August 1. If the card issuer submits the agreement to the Board on July 31 (for example, because the agreement has been otherwise amended), the agreement submitted should not include the new lower APR because that APR was not in effect on June 30, the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
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<P>2. <I>Pricing agreement addendum.</I> Pricing information must be set forth in the separate addendum described in § 226.58(c)(8)(ii)(A) even if it is also stated elsewhere in the agreement.
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<P>3. <I>Pricing agreement variations do not constitute separate agreements.</I> Pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors must be disclosed by setting forth all the possible variations or by providing a range of possible variations. Two agreements that differ only with respect to variations in the pricing information do not constitute separate agreements for purposes of this section. For example, a card issuer offers two types of credit card accounts that differ only with respect to the purchase APR. The purchase APR for one type of account is 15 percent, while the purchase APR for the other type of account is 18 percent. The provisions of the agreement and pricing information for the two types of accounts are otherwise identical. The card issuer should not submit to the Board one agreement with a pricing information addendum listing a 15 percent purchase APR and another agreement with a pricing information addendum listing an 18 percent purchase APR. Instead, the card issuer should submit to the Board one agreement with a pricing information addendum listing possible purchase APRs of 15 or 18 percent.
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<P>4. <I>Optional variable terms addendum.</I> Examples of provisions that might be included in the variable terms addendum include a clause that is required by law to be included in credit card agreements in a particular state but not in other states (unless, for example, a clause is included in the agreement used for all cardholders under a heading such as “For State X Residents”), the name of the credit card plan to which the agreement applies (if this information is included in the agreement), or the name of a charitable organization to which donations will be made in connection with a particular card (if this information is included in the agreement).
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<P>5. <I>Integrated agreement requirement.</I> Card issuers may not provide provisions of the agreement or pricing information in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders. The only two addenda that may be submitted as part of an agreement are the pricing information addendum and optional variable terms addendum described in § 226.58(c)(8). Changes in provisions or pricing information must be integrated into the body of the agreement, pricing information addendum, or optional variable terms addendum described in § 226.58(c)(8). For example, it would be impermissible for a card issuer to submit to the Board an agreement in the form of a terms and conditions document dated January 1, 2005, four subsequent change in terms notices, and 2 addenda showing variations in pricing information. Instead, the card issuer must submit a document that integrates the changes made by each of the change in terms notices into the body of the original terms and conditions document and a single addendum displaying variations in pricing information.
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<P><I>58(d) Posting of agreements offered to the public.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement applies only to agreements submitted to the Board.</I> Card issuers are only required to post and maintain on their publicly available Web site the credit card agreements that the card issuer must submit to the Board under § 226.58(c). If, for example, a card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Board because the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5), the card issuer is not required to post and maintain any agreements on its Web site under § 226.58(d). Similarly, if a card issuer is not required to submit a specific agreement to the Board, such as an agreement that qualifies for the private label exception under § 226.58(c)(6), the card issuer is not required to post and maintain that agreement under § 226.58(d) (either on the card issuer's publicly available Web site or on the publicly available Web sites of merchants at which private label credit cards can be used). (The card issuer in both of these cases is still required to provide each individual cardholder with access to his or her specific credit card agreement under § 226.58(e) by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's Web site or by providing a copy of the agreement upon the cardholder's request.)
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<P>2. <I>Card issuers that do not otherwise maintain Web sites.</I> Unlike § 226.58(e), § 226.58(d) does not include a special rule for card issuers that do not otherwise maintain a Web site. If a card issuer is required to submit one or more agreements to the Board under § 226.58(c), that card issuer must post those agreements on a publicly available Web site it maintains (or, with respect to an agreement for a private label credit card, on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which the card may be used, as provided in § 226.58(d)(1)).
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<P>If an issuer provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party Web site, the issuer is considered to maintain that Web site for purposes of § 226.58. Such a third-party Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 226.58(d) even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. Therefore, issuers that provide cardholders with access to account-specific information through a third-party Web site can comply with § 226.58(d) by ensuring that the agreements the issuer submits to the Board are posted on the third-party Web site in accordance with § 226.58(d). (In contrast, the § 226.58(d)(1) rule regarding agreements for private label credit cards is not conditioned on cardholders' ability to access account-specific information through the merchant's Web site.)
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<P>3. <I>Private label credit card plans.</I> Section 226.58(d) provides that, with respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, a card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the Web site of at least one of the merchants at which the cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used. For example, a card issuer has 100,000 open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 75,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 25,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates, Merchants C and D. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for both of these types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account.
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<P>The card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1). (The card issuer has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 226.58(c)(5) de minimis exception does not apply. The agreement is offered solely for two different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A and one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B and its affiliates, Merchants C and D), but both of these plans have more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 226.58(c)(6) private label credit card exception does not apply. Finally, the agreement is not offered solely in connection with a product test by the card issuer, so the § 226.58(c)(7) product test exception does not apply.)
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<P>Because the card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1), the card issuer is required to post and maintain the agreement on the card issuer's publicly available Web site under § 226.58(d). However, because the agreement is offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, the card issuer may comply with § 226.58(d) in either of two ways. First, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's own publicly available Web site. Alternatively, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the publicly available Web site of Merchant A <I>and</I> the publicly available Web site of at least one of Merchants B, C and D. It would not be sufficient for the card issuer to post the agreement on Merchant A's Web site alone because § 226.58(d) requires the card issuer to post the agreement on the publicly available Web site of “at least one of the merchants at which cards issued under <I>each</I> private label credit card plan may be used” (emphasis added).
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<P>In contrast, assume that a card issuer has 100,000 open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 5,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 95,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates, Merchants C and D. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for both of these types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account.
</P>
<P>The card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1). (The card issuer has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 226.58(c)(5) de minimis exception does not apply. The agreement is offered solely for two different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A and one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B and its affiliates, Merchants C and D), but one of these plans has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 226.58(c)(6) private label credit card exception does not apply. Finally, the agreement is not offered solely in connection with a product test by the card issuer, so the § 226.58(c)(7) product test exception does not apply.)
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<P>Because the card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Board under § 226.58(c)(1), the card issuer is required to post and maintain the agreement on the card issuer's publicly available Web site under § 226.58(d). However, because the agreement is offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, the card issuer may comply with § 226.58(d) in either of two ways. First, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's own publicly available Web site. Alternatively, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the publicly available Web site of at least one of Merchants B, C and D. The card issuer is not required to post and maintain the agreement on the publicly available Web site of Merchant A because the card issuer's private label credit card plan consisting of accounts with cards usable only at Merchant A has fewer than 10,000 open accounts.
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<P><I>58(e) Agreements for all open accounts.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement applies to all open accounts.</I> The requirement to provide access to credit card agreements under § 226.58(e) applies to all open credit card accounts, regardless of whether such agreements are required to be submitted to the Board pursuant to § 226.58(c) (or posted on the card issuer's Web site pursuant to § 226.58(d)). For example, a card issuer that is not required to submit agreements to the Board because it qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 226.58(c)(5)) would still be required to provide cardholders with access to their specific agreements under § 226.58(e). Similarly, an agreement that is no longer offered to the public would not be required to be submitted to the Board under § 226.58(c), but would still need to be provided to the cardholder to whom it applies under § 226.58(e).
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<P>2. <I>Readily available telephone line.</I> Section 226.58(e) provides that card issuers that provide copies of cardholder agreements upon request must provide the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of their agreement by calling a readily available telephone line. To satisfy the readily available standard, the financial institution must provide enough telephone lines so that consumers get a reasonably prompt response. The institution need only provide telephone service during normal business hours. Within its primary service area, an institution must provide a local or toll-free telephone number. It need not provide a toll-free number or accept collect long-distance calls from outside the area where it normally conducts business.
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<P>3. <I>Issuers without interactive Web sites.</I> Section 226.58(e)(2) provides that a card issuer that does not maintain a Web site from which cardholders can access specific information about their individual accounts is not required to provide a cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement by using the card issuer's Web site. A card issuer without a Web site of any kind could comply by disclosing the telephone number on each periodic statement; a card issuer with a non-interactive Web site could comply in the same way, or alternatively could comply by displaying the telephone number on the card issuer's Web site. An issuer is considered to maintain an interactive Web site for purposes of the § 226.58(e)(2) special rule if the issuer provide cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party interactive Web site. Such a Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 226.58(e)(2) even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. An issuer that provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts through such a Web site is not permitted to comply with the special rule in § 226.58(e)(2). Instead, such an issuer must comply with § 226.58(e)(1).
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<P>4. <I>Deadline for providing requested agreements clarified.</I> Sections 226.58(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(2) require that credit card agreements provided upon request must be sent to the cardholder or otherwise made available to the cardholder in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the cardholder's request is received. For example, if a card issuer chooses to respond to a cardholder's request by mailing a paper copy of the cardholder's agreement, the card issuer must mail the agreement no later than 30 days after receipt of the cardholder's request. Alternatively, if a card issuer chooses to respond to a cardholder's request by posting the cardholder's agreement on the card issuer's Web site, the card issuer must post the agreement on its Web site no later than 30 days after receipt of the cardholder's request. Section 226.58(e)(3)(v) provides that a card issuer may provide cardholder agreements in either electronic or paper form regardless of the form of the cardholder's request.
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<HD2>Section 226.59-Reevaluation of Rate Increases.
</HD2>
<P><I>59(a) General rule.</I>
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<P><I>59(a)(1) Evaluation of increased rate.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Types of rate increases covered.</I> Section 226.59(a) applies both to increases in annual percentage rates imposed on a consumer's account based on that consumer's credit risk or other circumstances specific to that consumer and to increases in annual percentage rates imposed based on factors that are not specific to the consumer, such as changes in market conditions or the issuer's cost of funds.
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<P>2. <I>Rate increases actually imposed.</I> Under § 226.59(a), a card issuer must review changes in factors only if the increased rate is actually imposed on the consumer's account. For example, if a card issuer increases the penalty rate for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and the consumer's account has no balances that are currently subject to the penalty rate, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) of the change in terms, but the requirements of § 226.59 do not apply. However, if the consumer's account later becomes subject to the penalty rate, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 226.9(g) and the requirements of § 226.59 begin to apply upon imposition of the penalty rate. Similarly, if a card issuer raises the cash advance rate applicable to a consumer's account but the consumer engages in no cash advance transactions to which that increased rate is applied, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 226.9(c) of the change in terms, but the requirements of § 226.59 do not apply. If the consumer subsequently engages in a cash advance transaction, the requirements of § 226.59 begin to apply at that time.
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<P>3. <I>Change in type of rate.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> A change from a variable rate to a non-variable rate or from a non-variable rate to a variable rate is not a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59, if the rate in effect immediately prior to the change in type of rate is equal to or greater than the rate in effect immediately after the change. For example, a change from a variable rate of 15.99% to a non-variable rate of 15.99% is not a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59 at the time of the change. <I>See</I> § 226.55 for limitations on the permissibility of changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.
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<P>ii. <I>Change from non-variable rate to variable rate.</I> A change from a non-variable to a variable rate constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59 if the variable rate exceeds the non-variable rate that would have applied if the change in type of rate had not occurred. For example, assume a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is opened on January 1 of year 1 and that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 12% applies to all transactions on the account. On January 1 of year 2, upon 45 days' advance notice pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2), the rate on all new transactions is changed to a variable rate that is currently 12% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The change from the 12% non-variable rate to the 12% variable rate on January 1 of year 2 is not a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59(a). On April 1 of year 2, the value of the variable rate increases to 12.5%. The increase in the rate from 12% to 12.5% is a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59, and the card issuer must begin periodically conducting reviews of the account pursuant to § 226.59. The increase that must be evaluated for purposes of § 226.59 is the increase from a non-variable rate of 12% to a variable rate of 12.5%.
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<P>iii. <I>Change from variable rate to non-variable rate.</I> A change from a variable to a non-variable rate constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59 if the non-variable rate exceeds the variable rate that would have applied if the change in type of rate had not occurred. For example, assume a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is opened on January 1 of year 1 and that a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 15% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control applies to all transactions on the account. On January 1 of year 2, upon 45 days' advance notice pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2), the rate on all existing balances and new transactions is changed to a non-variable rate that is currently 15%. The change from the 15% variable rate to the 15% non-variable rate on January 1 of year 2 is not a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59(a). On April 1 of year 2, the value of the variable rate that would have applied to the account decreases to 12.5%. Accordingly, on April 1 of year 2, the non-variable rate of 15% exceeds the 12.5% variable rate that would have applied but for the change in type of rate. At this time, the change to the non-variable rate of 15% constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 226.59, and the card issuer must begin periodically conducting reviews of the account pursuant to § 226.59. The increase that must be evaluated for purposes of § 226.59 is the increase from a variable rate of 12.5% to a non-variable rate of 15%.
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<P>4. <I>Rate increases prior to effective date of rule.</I> For increases in annual percentage rates made on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to August 22, 2010, § 226.59(a) requires the card issuer to review the factors described in § 226.59(d) and reduce the rate, as appropriate, if the rate increase is of a type for which 45 days' advance notice would currently be required under § 226.9(c)(2) or (g). For example, 45 days' notice is not required under § 226.9(c)(2) if the rate increase results from the increase in the index by which a properly-disclosed variable rate is determined in accordance with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(C) or if the increase occurs upon expiration of a specified period of time and disclosures complying with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) have been provided. The requirements of § 226.59 do not apply to such rate increases.
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<P>5. <I>Amount of rate decrease.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Even in circumstances where a rate reduction is required, § 226.59 does not require that a card issuer decrease the rate that applies to a credit card account to the rate that was in effect prior to the rate increase subject to § 226.59(a). The amount of the rate decrease that is required must be determined based upon the card issuer's reasonable policies and procedures under § 226.59(b) for consideration of factors described in § 226.59(a) and (d). For example, assume a consumer's rate on new purchases is increased from a variable rate of 15.99% to a variable rate of 23.99% based on the consumer's making a required minimum periodic payment five days late. The consumer makes all of the payments required on the account on time for the six months following the rate increase. Assume that the card issuer evaluates the account by reviewing the factors on which the increase in an annual percentage rate was originally based, in accordance with § 226.59(d)(1)(i). The card issuer is not required to decrease the consumer's rate to the 15.99% that applied prior to the rate increase. However, the card issuer's policies and procedures for performing the review required by § 226.59(a) must be reasonable, as required by § 226.59(b), and must take into account any reduction in the consumer's credit risk based upon the consumer's timely payments.
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<P>ii. <I>Change in type of rate.</I> If the rate increase subject to § 226.59 involves a change from a variable rate to a non-variable rate or from a non-variable rate to a variable rate, § 226.59 does not require that the issuer reinstate the same type of rate that applied prior to the change. However, the amount of any rate decrease that is required must be determined based upon the card issuer's reasonable policies and procedures under § 226.59(b) for consideration of factors described in § 226.59(a) and (d).
</P>
<P><I>59(a)(2) Rate reductions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>59(a)(2)(ii) Applicability of rate reduction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of reduced rate to new transactions.</I> Section 226.59(a)(2)(ii) requires, in part, that any reduction in rate required pursuant to § 226.59(a)(1) must apply to new transactions that occur after the effective date of the rate reduction, if those transactions would otherwise have been subject to the increased rate described in § 226.59(a)(1). A credit card account may have multiple types of balances, for example, purchases, cash advances, and balance transfers, to which different rates apply. For example, assume a new credit card account opened on January 1 of year one has a rate applicable to purchases of 15% and a rate applicable to cash advances and balance transfers of 20%. Effective March 1 of year two, consistent with the limitations in § 226.55 and upon giving notice required by § 226.9(c)(2), the card issuer raises the rate applicable to new purchases to 18% based on market conditions. The only transaction in which the consumer engages in year two is a $1,000 purchase made on July 1. The rate for cash advances and balance transfers remains at 20%. Based on a subsequent review required by § 226.59(a)(1), the card issuer determines that the rate on purchases must be reduced to 16%. Section 226.59(a)(2)(ii) requires that the 16% rate be applied to the $1,000 purchase made on July 1 and to all new purchases. The rate for new cash advances and balance transfers may remain at 20%, because there was no rate increase applicable to those types of transactions and, therefore, the requirements of § 226.59(a) do not apply.
</P>
<P><I>59(c) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The issuer may review all of its accounts subject to § 226.59(a) at the same time once every six months, may review each account once each six months on a rolling basis based on the date on which the rate was increased for that account, or may otherwise review each account not less frequently than once every six months.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> A card issuer increases the rates applicable to one half of its credit card accounts on June 1, 2011. The card issuer increases the rates applicable to the other half of its credit card accounts on September 1, 2011. The card issuer may review the rate increases for all of its credit card accounts on or before December 1, 2011, and at least every six months thereafter. In the alternative, the card issuer may first review the rate increases for the accounts that were repriced on June 1, 2011 on or before December 1, 2011, and may first review the rate increases for the accounts that were repriced on September 1, 2011 on or before March 1, 2012.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate increases prior to effective date of rule.</I> For increases in annual percentage rates applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on or after January 1, 2009 and prior to August 22, 2010, § 226.59(c) requires that the first review for such rate increases be conducted prior to February 22, 2011.
</P>
<P><I>59(d) Factors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Change in factors.</I> A creditor that complies with § 226.59(a) by reviewing the factors it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts may change those factors from time to time. When a creditor changes the factors it considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts from time to time, it may comply with § 226.59(a) by reviewing the set of factors it considered immediately prior to the change in factors for a brief transition period, or may consider the new factors. For example, a creditor changes the factors it uses to determine the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts on January 1, 2012. The creditor reviews the rates applicable to its existing accounts that have been subject to a rate increase pursuant to § 226.59(a) on January 25, 2012. The creditor complies with § 226.59(a) by reviewing, at its option, either the factors that it considered on December 31, 2011 when determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts or the factors that it considers as of January 25, 2012. For purposes of compliance with § 226.59(d), a transition period of 60 days from the change of factors constitutes a brief transition period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Comparison of existing account to factors used for similar new accounts.</I> Under § 226.59(a), if a creditor evaluates an existing account using the same factors that it considers in determining the rates applicable to similar new accounts, the review of factors need not result in existing accounts being subject to exactly the same rates and rate structure as a creditor imposes on similar new accounts. For example, a creditor may offer variable rates on similar new accounts that are computed by adding a margin that depends on various factors to the value of the LIBOR index. The account that the creditor is required to review pursuant to § 226.59(a) may have variable rates that were determined by adding a different margin, depending on different factors, to a published prime rate. In performing the review required by § 226.59(a), the creditor may review the factors it uses to determine the rates applicable to similar new accounts. If a rate reduction is required, however, the creditor need not base the variable rate for the existing account on the LIBOR index but may continue to use the published prime rate. Section 226.59(a) requires, however, that the rate on the existing account after the reduction, as determined by adding the published prime rate and margin, be comparable to the rate, as determined by adding the margin and LIBOR, charged on a new account for which the factors are comparable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Similar new credit card accounts.</I> A card issuer complying with § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) is required to consider the factors that the card issuer currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. For example, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to credit card plans for which the consumer pays an annual fee and receives rewards points than it reviews in determining the rates for credit card plans with no annual fee and no rewards points. Similarly, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to private label credit cards than it reviews in determining the rates applicable to credit cards that can be used at a wider variety of merchants. In addition, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to private label credit cards usable only at Merchant A than it may review for private label credit cards usable only at Merchant B. However, § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) requires a card issuer to review the factors it considers when determining the rates for new credit card accounts with similar features that are offered for similar purposes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>No similar new credit card accounts.</I> In some circumstances, a card issuer that complies with § 226.59(a) by reviewing the factors that it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new accounts may not be able to identify a class of new accounts that are similar to the existing accounts on which a rate increase has been imposed. For example, consumers may have existing credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan but the card issuer may no longer offer a product to new consumers with similar characteristics, such as the availability of rewards, size of credit line, or other features. Similarly, some consumers' accounts may have been closed and therefore cannot be used for new transactions, while all new accounts can be used for new transactions. In those circumstances, § 226.59 requires that the card issuer nonetheless perform a review of the rate increase on the existing customers' accounts. A card issuer does not comply with § 226.59 by maintaining an increased rate without performing such an evaluation. In such circumstances, § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) requires that the card issuer compare the existing accounts to the most closely comparable new accounts that it offers.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consideration of consumer's conduct on existing account.</I> A card issuer that complies with § 226.59(a) by reviewing the factors that it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new accounts may consider the consumer's payment or other account behavior on the existing account only to the same extent and in the same manner that the issuer considers such information when one of its current cardholders applies for a new account with the card issuer. For example, a card issuer might obtain consumer reports for all of its applicants. The consumer reports contain certain information regarding the applicant's past performance on existing credit card accounts. However, the card issuer may have additional information about an existing cardholder's payment history or account usage that does not appear in the consumer report and that, accordingly, it would not generally have for all new applicants. For example, a consumer may have made a payment that is five days late on his or her account with the card issuer, but this information does not appear on the consumer report. The card issuer may consider this additional information in performing its review under § 226.59(a), but only to the extent and in the manner that it considers such information if a current cardholder applies for a new account with the issuer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple rate increases between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Section 226.59(d)(2) applies if an issuer increased the rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010, and the increase was not based solely upon factors specific to the consumer. In some cases, a credit card account may have been subject to multiple rate increases during the period from January 1, 2009 to February 21, 2010. Some such rate increases may have been based solely upon factors specific to the consumer, while others may have been based on factors not specific to the consumer, such as the issuer's cost of funds or market conditions. In such circumstances, when conducting the first two reviews required under § 226.59, the card issuer may separately review: (i) Rate increases imposed based on factors not specific to the consumer, using the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) (as required by § 226.59(d)(2)); and (ii) rate increases imposed based on consumer-specific factors, using the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(i). If the review of factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(i) indicates that it is appropriate to continue to apply a penalty or other increased rate to the account as a result of the consumer's payment history or other factors specific to the consumer, § 226.59 permits the card issuer to continue to impose the penalty or other increased rate, even if the review of the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) would otherwise require a rate decrease.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume a credit card account was subject to a rate of 15% on all transactions as of January 1, 2009. On May 1, 2009, the issuer increased the rate on existing balances and new transactions to 18%, based upon market conditions or other factors not specific to the consumer or the consumer's account. Subsequently, on September 1, 2009, based on a payment that was received five days after the due date, the issuer increased the applicable rate on existing balances and new transactions from 18% to a penalty rate of 25%. When conducting the first review required under § 226.59, the card issuer reviews the rate increase from 15% to 18% using the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) (as required by § 226.59(d)(2)), and separately but concurrently reviews the rate increase from 18% to 25% using the factors described in paragraph § 226.59(d)(1)(i). The review of the rate increase from 15% to 18% based upon the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(ii) indicates that a similarly situated new consumer would receive a rate of 17%. The review of the rate increase from 18% to 25% based upon the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(i) indicates that it is appropriate to continue to apply the 25% penalty rate based upon the consumer's late payment. Section 226.59 permits the rate on the account to remain at 25%.
</P>
<P><I>59(f) Termination of obligation to review factors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Revocation of temporary rates.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> If an annual percentage rate is increased due to revocation of a temporary rate, § 226.59(a) requires that the card issuer periodically review the increased rate. In contrast, if the rate increase results from the expiration of a temporary rate previously disclosed in accordance with § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B), the review requirements in § 226.59(a) do not apply. If a temporary rate is revoked such that the requirements of § 226.59(a) apply, § 226.59(f) permits an issuer to terminate the review of the rate increase if and when the applicable rate is the same as the rate that would have applied if the increase had not occurred.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> Assume that on January 1, 2011, a consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 15%. The card issuer offers the consumer a 10% rate on purchases made between February 1, 2012 and August 1, 2013 and discloses pursuant to § 226.9(c)(2)(v)(B) that on August 1, 2013 the rate on purchases will revert to the original 15% rate. The consumer makes a payment that is five days late in July 2012.
</P>
<P>A. Upon providing 45 days' advance notice and to the extent permitted under § 226.55, the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to 15%, effective on September 1, 2012. The card issuer must review that rate increase under § 226.59(a) at least once each six months during the period from September 1, 2012 to August 1, 2013, unless and until the card issuer reduces the rate to 10%. The card issuer performs reviews of the rate increase on January 1, 2013 and July 1, 2013. Based on those reviews, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 15%. Beginning on August 1, 2013, the card issuer is not required to continue periodically reviewing the rate increase, because if the temporary rate had expired in accordance with its previously disclosed terms, the 15% rate would have applied to purchase balances as of August 1, 2013 even if the rate increase had not occurred on September 1, 2012.
</P>
<P>B. Same facts as above except that the review conducted on July 1, 2013 indicates that a reduction to the original temporary rate of 10% is appropriate. Section 226.59(a)(2)(i) requires that the rate be reduced no later than 45 days after completion of the review, or no later than August 15, 2013. Because the temporary rate would have expired prior to the date on which the rate decrease is required to take effect, the card issuer may, at its option, reduce the rate to 10% for any portion of the period from July 1, 2013, to August 1, 2013, or may continue to impose the 15% rate for that entire period. The card issuer is not required to conduct further reviews of the 15% rate on purchases.
</P>
<P>C. Same facts as above except that on September 1, 2012 the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to the penalty rate on the consumer's account, which is 25%. The card issuer conducts reviews of the increased rate in accordance with § 226.59 on January 1, 2013 and July 1, 2013. Based on those reviews, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 25%. The card issuer's obligation to review the rate increase continues to apply after August 1, 2013, because the 25% penalty rate exceeds the 15% rate that would have applied if the temporary rate expired in accordance with its previously disclosed terms. The card issuer's obligation to review the rate terminates if and when the annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is reduced to the 15% rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example—relationship to § 226.59(a).</I> Assume that on January 1, 2011, a consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 15%. Upon providing 45 days' advance notice and to the extent permitted under § 226.55, the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to 18%, effective on September 1, 2012. The card issuer conducts reviews of the increased rate in accordance with § 226.59 on January 1, 2013 and July 1, 2013, based on the factors described in § 226.59(d)(1)(ii). Based on the January 1, 2013 review, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 18%. In the review conducted on July 1, 2013, the card issuer determines that, based on the relevant factors, the rate it would offer on a comparable new account would be 14%. Consistent with § 226.59(f), § 226.59(a) requires that the card issuer reduce the rate on the existing account to the 15% rate that was in effect prior to the September 1, 2012 rate increase.
</P>
<P><I>59(g) Acquired accounts.</I>
</P>
<P><I>59(g)(1) General.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 226.59(d)(2) for rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> Section 226.59(d)(2) applies to acquired accounts. Accordingly, if a card issuer acquires accounts on which a rate increase was imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010 that was not based solely upon consumer-specific factors, that acquiring card issuer must consider the factors that it currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts, if it conducts either or both of the first two reviews of such accounts that are required after August 22, 2010 under § 226.59(a).
</P>
<P><I>59(g)(2) Review of acquired portfolio.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example—general.</I> A card issuer acquires a portfolio of accounts that currently are subject to annual percentage rates of 12%, 15%, and 18%. Not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, the card issuer reviews all of these accounts in accordance with the factors that it currently uses in determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts. As a result of that review, the card issuer decreases the rate on the accounts that are currently subject to a 12% annual percentage rate to 10%, leaves the rate applicable to the accounts currently subject to a 15% annual percentage rate at 15%, and increases the rate applicable to the accounts currently subject to a rate of 18% to 20%. Section 226.59(g)(2) requires the card issuer to review, no less frequently than once every six months, the accounts for which the rate has been increased to 20%. The card issuer is not required to review the accounts subject to 10% and 15% rates pursuant to § 226.59(a), unless and until the card issuer makes a subsequent rate increase applicable to those accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example—penalty rates.</I> A card issuer acquires a portfolio of accounts that currently are subject to standard annual percentage rates of 12% and 15%. In addition, several acquired accounts are subject to a penalty rate of 24%. Not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, the card issuer reviews all of these accounts in accordance with the factors that it currently uses in determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts. As a result of that review, the card issuer leaves the standard rates applicable to the accounts at 12% and 15%, respectively. The card issuer decreases the rate applicable to the accounts currently at 24% to its penalty rate of 23%. Section 226.59(g)(2) requires the card issuer to review, no less frequently than once every six months, the accounts that are subject to a penalty rate of 23%. The card issuer is not required to review the accounts subject to 12% and 15% rates pursuant to § 226.59(a), unless and until the card issuer makes a subsequent rate increase applicable to those accounts.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix A—Effect on State Laws
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Who may make requests.</I> Appendix A sets forth the procedures for preemption determinations. As discussed in § 226.28, which contains the standards for preemption, a request for a determination of whether a state law is inconsistent with the requirements of chapters 1, 2, or 3 may be made by creditors, states, or any interested party. However, only states may request and receive determinations in connection with the fair credit billing provisions of chapter 4.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 111 and 171(a).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.28.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Sections 226.6(b) and 226.70 (Supplement V, Section II).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The procedures in appendix A were largely adapted from Supplement V, Section II of the previous regulation (§ 226.70), with changes made to streamline the procedures.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix B—State Exemptions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Appendix B sets forth the procedures for exemption applications. The exemption standards are found in § 226.29 and are discussed in the commentary to that section.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 123 and 171(b).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.29.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Sections 226.12, 226.50 (Supplement II), 226.60 (Supplement IV), and 226.70 (Supplement V, Section I).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The procedures in appendix B represent a combination and streamlining of the procedures set forth in the supplements to the previous regulation.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix C—Issuance of Staff Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This commentary is the vehicle for providing official staff interpretations. Individual interpretations generally will not be issued separately from the commentary.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Sections 105 and 130(f).
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> Appendix C reflects the Board's intention that this commentary serve as the vehicle for interpreting the regulation, rather than individual interpretive letters.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix D—Multiple-Advance Construction Loans
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Appendix D provides a special procedure that creditors may use, at their option, to estimate and disclose the terms of multiple-advance construction loans when the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at consummation of the transaction. This appendix reflects the approach taken in § 226.17(c)(6)(ii), which permits creditors to provide separate or combined disclosures for the construction period and for the permanent financing, if any; i.e., the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as one transaction or more than one transaction. Appendix D may also be used in multiple-advance transactions other than construction loans, when the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at consummation. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate multiple-advance loans.</I> The hypothetical disclosure required in variable-rate transactions by § 226.18(f)(1)(iv) is not required for multiple-advance loans disclosed pursuant to appendix D, part I.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculation of the total of payments.</I> When disclosures are made pursuant to appendix D, the total of payments may reflect either the sum of the payments or the sum of the amount financed and the finance charge.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Appendix D does not require the use of Volume I of the Board's Annual Percentage Rate Tables for calculation of the annual percentage rate. Creditors utilizing appendix D in making calculations and disclosures may use other computation tools to determine the estimated annual percentage rate, based on the finance charge and payment schedule obtained by use of the appendix.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Interest reserves.</I> In a multiple-advance construction loan, a creditor may establish an “interest reserve” to ensure that interest is paid as it accrues by designating a portion of the loan to be used for paying the interest that accrues on the loan. An interest reserve is not treated as a prepaid finance charge, whether the interest reserve is the same as or different from the estimated interest figure calculated under appendix D. 
</P>
<P>• If a creditor permits a consumer to make interest payments as they become due, the interest reserve should be disregarded in the disclosures and calculations under appendix D. 
</P>
<P>• If a creditor requires the establishment of an interest reserve and automatically deducts interest payments from the reserve amount rather than allow the consumer to make interest payments as they become due, the fact that interest will accrue on those interest payments as well as the other loan proceeds must be reflected in the calculations and disclosures. To reflect the effects of such compounding, a creditor should first calculate interest on the commitment amount (exclusive of the interest reserve) and then add the figure obtained by assuming that one-half of that interest is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period. For example, using the example shown under paragraph A, part I of appendix D, the estimated interest would be $1,117.68 ($1093.75 plus an additional $23.93 calculated by assuming half of $1093.75 is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period), and the estimated annual percentage rate would be 21.18%. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relation to § 226.18(s).</I> A creditor must disclose an interest rate and payment summary table for transactions secured by real property or a dwelling, pursuant to § 226.18(s), instead of the general payment schedule required by § 226.18(g). Accordingly, home construction loans that are secured by real property or a dwelling are subject to § 226.18(s) and not § 226.18(g). Under § 226.176(c)(6)(ii), when a multiple-advance construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as either one transaction or more than one transaction.
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor uses Appendix D and elects pursuant to § 226.17(c)(6)(ii) to disclose the construction and permanent phases as separate transactions, the construction phase must be disclosed according to the rules in § 226.18(s). Under § 226.18(s), the creditor must disclose the applicable interest rates and corresponding periodic payments during the construction phase in an interest rate and payment summary table. The provision in Appendix D, Part I.A.3, which allows the creditor to omit the number and amounts of any interest payments “in disclosing the payment schedule under § 226.18(g)” does not apply because the transaction is governed by § 226.18(s) rather than § 226.18(g). Also, because the construction phase is being disclosed as a separate transaction and its terms do not repay all principal, the creditor must disclose a balloon payment, pursuant to § 226.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. On the other hand, if the creditor elects to disclose the construction and permanent phases as a single transaction, the construction phase must be disclosed pursuant to Appendix D, Part II.C, which provides that the creditor shall disclose the repayment schedule without reflecting the number or amounts of payments of interest only that are made during the construction phase. Appendix D also provides, however, that creditors must disclose (outside of the table) the fact that interest payments must be made and the timing of such payments. The rate and payment summary table disclosed under § 226.18(s) must reflect only the permanent phase of the transaction. Therefore, in determining the rates and payments that must be disclosed in the columns of the table, creditors should apply the requirements of § 226.18(s) to the permanent phase only. For example, under § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(A) or § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>), as applicable, the creditor should disclose the interest rate corresponding to the first installment due under the permanent phase and not any rate applicable during the construction phase.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.17 and 226.22.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Interpretation § 226.813.
</P>
<P><I>1981 Changes:</I> The use of appendix D is limited to multiple-advance loans for construction purposes or analogous types of transactions.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix E—Rules for Card Issuers That Bill on a Transaction-by-Transaction Basis
</HD1>
<P><I>Statute:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Interpretation § 226.709. 
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Sections 226.6 through 226.13, and 226.15.
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> The rules in this appendix have been streamlined and clarified to indicate how certain card issuers that bill on a transaction basis may comply with the requirements of Subpart B.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix F—Optional Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Creditors Offering Open-End Plans Subject to the Requirements of § 226.5b
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> If the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate, see comment 14(c)(3)-2 for guidance on an appropriate calculation method.
</P>
<HD1>Appendices G and H—Open-End and Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Although use of the model forms and clauses is not required, creditors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to those disclosures. Creditors may make certain changes in the format or content of the forms and clauses and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable to a transaction or a plan without losing the act's protection from liability, except formatting changes may not be made to model forms and samples in H-18, H-19, H-20, H-21, H-22, H-23, G-2(A), G-3(A), G-4(A), G-10(A)-(E), G-17(A)-(D), G-18(A) (except as permitted pursuant to § 226.7(b)(2)), G-18(B)-(C), G-19, G-20, and G-21, or to the model clauses in H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), and H-4(H). Creditors may modify the heading of the second column shown in Model Clause H-4(H) to read “first adjustment” or “first increase,” as applicable, pursuant to § 226.18(s)(2)(i)(C). The rearrangement of the model forms and clauses may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the forms and clauses. Creditors making revisions with that effect will lose their protection from civil liability. Except as otherwise specifically required, acceptable changes include, for example
</P>
<P>i. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the borrower.
</P>
<P>ii. Using “borrower” and “creditor” instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>iii. Rearranging the sequences of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Not using bold type for headings.
</P>
<P>v. Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>vi. Deleting inapplicable disclosures by whiting out, blocking out, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items. (This should permit use of multipurpose standard forms.)
</P>
<P>vii. Using a vertical, rather than a horizontal, format for the boxes in the closed-end disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt-cancellation coverage.</I> This regulation does not authorize creditors to characterize debt-cancellation fees as insurance premiums for purposes of this regulation. Creditors may provide a disclosure that refers to debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage whether or not the coverage is considered insurance. Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation coverage constitutes insurance under state law.
</P>
<HD1>Appendixes G and H—Open-End and Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Although use of the model forms and clauses is not required, creditors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to those disclosures. Creditors may make certain changes in the format or content of the forms and clauses and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable to a transaction or a plan without losing the act's protection from liability, except formatting changes may not be made to model forms and samples in H-18, H-19, H-20, H-21, H-22, H-23, G-2(A), G-3(A), G-4(A), G-10(A)-(E), G-17(A)-(D), G-18(A) (except as permitted pursuant to § 226.7(b)(2)), G-18(B)-(C), G-19, G-20, and G-21. The rearrangement of the model forms and clauses may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the forms and clauses. Creditors making revisions with that effect will lose their protection from civil liability. Except as otherwise specifically required, acceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the borrower.
</P>
<P>ii. Using “borrower” and “creditor” instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>iii. Rearranging the sequences of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Not using bold type for headings.
</P>
<P>v. Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>vi. Deleting inapplicable disclosures by whiting out, blocking out, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items. (This should permit use of multipurpose standard forms.)
</P>
<P>vii. Using a vertical, rather than a horizontal, format for the boxes in the closed-end disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt cancellation coverage.</I> This regulation does not authorize creditors to characterize debt cancellation fees as insurance premiums for purposes of this regulation. Creditors may provide a disclosure that refers to debt cancellation coverage whether or not the coverage is considered insurance. Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation coverage constitutes insurance under state law. 
</P>
<HD1>Appendix G—Open-End Model Forms and Clauses
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Models G-1 and G-1(A).</I> The model disclosures in G-1 and G-1(A) (different balance computation methods) may be used in both the account-opening disclosures under § 226.6 and the periodic disclosures under § 226.7. As is clear from the models given, “shorthand” descriptions of the balance computation methods are not sufficient, except where § 226.7(b)(5) applies. For creditors using model G-1, the phrase “a portion of” the finance charge should be included if the total finance charge includes other amounts, such as transaction charges, that are not due to the application of a periodic rate. If unpaid interest or finance charges are subtracted in calculating the balance, that fact must be stated so that the disclosure of the computation method is accurate. Only model G-1(b) contains a final sentence appearing in brackets, which reflects the total dollar amount of payments and credits received during the billing cycle. The other models do not contain this language because they reflect plans in which payments and credits received during the billing cycle are subtracted. If this is not the case, however, the language relating to payments and credits should be changed, and the creditor should add either the disclosure of the dollar amount as in model G-1(b) or an indication of which credits (disclosed elsewhere on the periodic statement) will not be deducted in determining the balance. (Such an indication may also substitute for the bracketed sentence in model G-1(b).) (See the commentary to § 226.7(a)(5) and (b)(5).) For open-end plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, creditors may, at their option, use the clauses in G-1 or G-1(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Models G-2 and G-2(A).</I> These models contain the notice of liability for unauthorized use of a credit card. For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, at the creditor's option, a creditor either may use G-2 or G-2(A). For open-end plans not subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, creditors properly use G-2(A).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Models G-3, G-3(A), G-4 and G-4(A).</I>
</P>
<P>i. These set out models for the long-form billing-error rights statement (for use with the account-opening disclosures and as an annual disclosure or, at the creditor's option, with each periodic statement) and the alternative billing-error rights statement (for use with each periodic statement), respectively. For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, at the creditor's option, a creditor either may use G-3 or G-3(A), and for creditors that use the short form, G-4 or G-4(A). For open-end (not home-secured) plans that not subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, creditors properly use G-3(A) and G-4(A). Creditors must provide the billing-error rights statements in a form substantially similar to the models in order to comply with the regulation. The model billing-rights statements may be modified in any of the ways set forth in the first paragraph to the commentary on appendices G and H. The models may, furthermore, be modified by deleting inapplicable information, such as:
</P>
<P>A. The paragraph concerning stopping a debit in relation to a disputed amount, if the creditor does not have the ability to debit automatically the consumer's savings or checking account for payment.
</P>
<P>B. The rights stated in the special rule for credit card purchases and any limitations on those rights.
</P>
<P>ii. The model billing rights statements also contain optional language that creditors may use. For example, the creditor may:
</P>
<P>A. Include a statement to the effect that notice of a billing error must be submitted on something other than the payment ticket or other material accompanying the periodic disclosures.
</P>
<P>B. Insert its address or refer to the address that appears elsewhere on the bill.
</P>
<P>C. Include instructions for consumers, at the consumer's option, to communicate with the creditor electronically or in writing.
</P>
<P>iii. Additional information may be included on the statements as long as it does not detract from the required disclosures. For instance, information concerning the reporting of errors in connection with a checking account may be included on a combined statement as long as the disclosures required by the regulation remain clear and conspicuous. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Models G-5 through G-9.</I> These models set out notices of the right to rescind that would be used at different times in an open-end plan. The last paragraph of each of the rescission model forms contains a blank for the date by which the consumer's notice of cancellation must be sent or delivered. A parenthetical is included to address the situation in which the consumer's right to rescind the transaction exists beyond 3 business days following the date of the transaction, for example, when the notice or material disclosures are delivered late or when the date of the transaction in paragraph 1 of the notice is an estimate. The language of the parenthetical is not optional. See the commentary to section 226.2(a)(25) regarding the specificity of the security interest disclosure for model form G-7.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Model G-10(A), samples G-10(B) and G-10(C), model G-10(D), sample G-10(E), model G-17(A), and samples G-17(B), 17(C) and 17(D).</I> i. Model G-10(A) and Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) illustrate, in the tabular format, the disclosures required under § 226.5a for applications and solicitations for credit cards other than charge cards. Model G-10(D) and Sample G-10(E) illustrate the tabular format disclosure for charge card applications and solicitations and reflect the disclosures in the table. Model G-17(A) and Samples G-17(B), G-17(C) and G-17(D) illustrate, in the tabular format, the disclosures required under § 226.6(b)(2) for account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. Except as otherwise permitted, disclosures must be substantially similar in sequence and format to Models G-10(A), G-10(D) and G-17(A). While proper use of the model forms will be deemed in compliance with the regulation, card issuers and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are permitted to disclose the annual percentage rates for purchases, cash advances, or balance transfers in the same row in the table for any transaction types for which the issuer or creditor charges the same annual percentage rate. Similarly, card issuer and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are permitted to disclose fees of the same amount in the same row if the fees are in the same category. Fees in different categories may not be disclosed in the same row. For example, a transaction fee and a penalty fee that are of the same amount may not be disclosed in the same row. Card issuers and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are also permitted to use headings other than those in the forms if they are clear and concise and are substantially similar to the headings contained in model forms, with the following exceptions. The heading “penalty APR” must be used when describing rates that may increase due to default or delinquency or as a penalty, and in relation to required insurance, or debt cancellation or suspension coverage, the term “required” and the name of the product must be used. (See also §§ 226.5a(b)(5) and 226.6(b)(2)(v) for guidance on headings that must be used to describe the grace period, or lack of grace period, in the disclosures required under § 226.5a for applications and solicitations for credit cards other than charge cards, and the disclosures required under § 226.6(b)(2) for account-opening disclosures, respectively.)
</P>
<P>iii. Models G-10(A) and G-17(A) contain two alternative headings (“Minimum Interest Charge” and “Minimum Charge”) for disclosing a minimum interest or fixed finance charge under §§ 226.5a(b)(3) and 226.6(b)(2)(iii). If a creditor imposes a minimum charge in lieu of interest in those months where a consumer would otherwise incur an interest charge but that interest charge is less than the minimum charge, the creditor should disclose this charge under the heading “Minimum Interest Charge” or a substantially similar heading. Other minimum or fixed finance charges should be disclosed under the heading “Minimum Charge” or a substantially similar heading.
</P>
<P>iv. Models G-10(A), G-10(D) and G-17(A) contain two alternative headings (“Annual Fees” and “Set-up and Maintenance Fees”) for disclosing fees for issuance or availability of credit under § 226.5a(b)(2) or § 226.6(b)(2)(ii). If the only fee for issuance or availability of credit disclosed under § 226.5a(b)(2) or § 226.6(b)(2)(ii) is an annual fee, a creditor should use the heading “Annual Fee” or a substantially similar heading to disclose this fee. If a creditor imposes fees for issuance or availability of credit disclosed under § 226.5a(b)(2) or § 226.6(b)(2)(ii) other than, or in addition to, an annual fee, the creditor should use the heading “Set-up and Maintenance Fees” or a substantially similar heading to disclose fees for issuance or availability of credit, including the annual fee.
</P>
<P>v. Although creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the §§ 226.5a or 226.6(b)(1) and (2) disclosures, samples G-10(B), G-10(C), G-17(B), G-17(C) and G-17(D) are designed to be printed on an 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inch sheet of paper. A creditor may use a smaller sheet of paper, such as 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch sheet of paper. If the table is not provided on a single side of a sheet of paper, the creditor must include a reference or references, such as “SEE BACK OF PAGE for more important information about your account.” at the bottom of each page indicating that the table continues onto an additional page or pages. A creditor that splits the table onto two or more pages must disclose the table on consecutive pages and may not include any intervening information between portions of the table. In addition, the following formatting techniques were used in presenting the information in the sample tables to ensure that the information is readable:
</P>
<P>A. A readable font style and font size (10-point Arial font style, except for the purchase annual percentage rate which is shown in 16-point type).
</P>
<P>B. Sufficient spacing between lines of the text.
</P>
<P>C. Adequate spacing between paragraphs when several pieces of information were included in the same row of the table, as appropriate. For example, in the samples in the row of the tables with the heading “APR for Balance Transfers,” the forms disclose two components: the applicable balance transfer rate and a cross reference to the balance transfer fee. The samples show these two components on separate lines with adequate space between each component. On the other hand, in the samples, in the disclosure of the late payment fee, the forms disclose two components: the late payment fee, and the cross reference to the penalty rate. Because the disclosure of both these components is short, these components are disclosed on the same line in the tables.
</P>
<P>D. Standard spacing between words and characters. In other words, the text was not compressed to appear smaller than 10-point type.
</P>
<P>E. Sufficient white space around the text of the information in each row, by providing sufficient margins above, below and to the sides of the text.
</P>
<P>F. Sufficient contrast between the text and the background. Generally, black text was used on white paper.
</P>
<P>vi. While the Board is not requiring issuers to use the above formatting techniques in presenting information in the table (except for the 10-point and 16-point font requirement), the Board encourages issuers to consider these techniques when deciding how to disclose information in the table, to ensure that the information is presented in a readable format.
</P>
<P>vii. Creditors are allowed to use color, shading and similar graphic techniques with respect to the table, so long as the table remains substantially similar to the model and sample forms in appendix G.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Model G-11.</I> Model G-11 contains clauses that illustrate the general disclosures required under § 226.5a(e) in applications and solicitations made available to the general public.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Models G-13(A) and G-13(B).</I> These model forms illustrate the disclosures required under § 226.9(f) when the card issuer changes the entity providing insurance on a credit card account. Model G-13(A) contains the items set forth in § 226.9(f)(3) as examples of significant terms of coverage that may be affected by the change in insurance provider. The card issuer may either list all of these potential changes in coverage and place a check mark by the applicable changes, or list only the actual changes in coverage. Under either approach, the card issuer must either explain the changes or refer to an accompanying copy of the policy or group certificate for details of the new terms of coverage. Model G-13(A) also illustrates the permissible combination of the two notices required by § 226.9(f)—the notice required for a planned change in provider and the notice required once a change has occurred. This form may be modified for use in providing only the disclosures required before the change if the card issuer chooses to send two separate notices. Thus, for example, the references to the attached policy or certificate would not be required in a separate notice prior to a change in the insurance provider since the policy or certificate need not be provided at that time. Model G-13(B) illustrates the disclosures required under § 226.9(f)(2) when the insurance provider is changed.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Samples G-18(A)-(D).</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 226.5b, if a creditor chooses to comply with the requirements in § 226.7(b), the creditor may use Samples G-18(A) through G-18(D) to comply with these requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Samples G-18(D).</I> Sample G-18(D) illustrates how credit card issuers may comply with proximity requirements for payment information on periodic statements. Creditors that offer card accounts with a charge card feature and a revolving feature may change the disclosure to make clear to which feature the disclosures apply.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Forms G-18(F)-(G).</I> Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) are intended as a compliance aid to illustrate front sides of a periodic statement, and how a periodic statement for open-end (not home-secured) plans might be designed to comply with the requirements of § 226.7. The samples contain information that is not required by Regulation Z. The samples also present information in additional formats that are not required by Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>i. Creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the § 226.7 disclosures. However, Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) are designed to be printed on an 8 × 14 inch sheet of paper.
</P>
<P>ii. The due date for a payment, if a late payment fee or penalty rate may be imposed, must appear on the front of the first page of the statement. See Sample G-18(D) that illustrates how a creditor may comply with proximity requirements for other disclosures. The payment information disclosures appear in the upper right-hand corner on Samples G-18(F) and G-18(G), but may be located elsewhere, as long as they appear on the front of the first page of the periodic statement. The summary of account activity presented on Samples G-18(F) and G-18(G) is not itself a required disclosure, although the previous balance and the new balance, presented in the summary, must be disclosed in a clear and conspicuous manner on periodic statements.
</P>
<P>iii. Additional information not required by Regulation Z may be presented on the statement. The information need not be located in any particular place or be segregated from disclosures required by Regulation Z, although the effect of proximity requirements for required disclosures, such as the due date, may cause the additional information to be segregated from those disclosures required to be disclosed in close proximity to one another. Any additional information must be presented consistent with the creditor's obligation to provide required disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner.
</P>
<P>iv. Model Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) demonstrate two examples of ways in which transactions could be presented on the periodic statement. Model Form G-18(G) presents transactions grouped by type and Model Form G-18(F) presents transactions in a list in chronological order. Neither of these approaches to presenting transactions is required; a creditor may present transactions differently, such as in a list grouped by authorized user or other means.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Model Form G-19.</I> See § 226.9(b)(3) regarding the headings required to be disclosed when describing in the tabular disclosure a grace period (or lack of a grace period) offered on check transactions that access a credit card account.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Sample G-24.</I> Sample G-24 includes two model clauses for use in complying with § 226.16(h)(4). Model clause (a) is for use in connection with credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. Model clause (b) is for use in connection with other open-end credit plans.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix H—Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Models H-1 and H-2.</I> Creditors may make several types of changes to closed-end model forms H-1 (credit sale) and H-2 (loan) and still be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation, provided that the required disclosures are made clearly and conspicuously. Permissible changes include the addition of the information permitted by footnote 37 to § 226.17 and “directly related” information as set forth in the commentary to § 226.17(a). 
</P>
<P>The creditor may also delete or, on multi-purpose forms, indicate inapplicable disclosures, such as:
</P>
<P>• The itemization of the amount financed option. (See Samples H-12 through H-15.) 
</P>
<P>• The credit life and disability insurance disclosures. (See Samples H-11 and H-12.)
</P>
<P>• The property insurance disclosures. (See Samples H-10 through H-12, and H-14.)
</P>
<P>• The “filing fees” and “non-filing insurance” disclosures. (See Samples H-11 and H-12.)
</P>
<P>• The prepayment penalty or rebate disclosures. (See Samples H-12 and H-14.)
</P>
<P>• The total sale price. (See Samples H-11 through H-15.)
</P>
<P>Other permissible changes include:
</P>
<P>• Adding the creditor's address or telephone number. (See the commentary to § 226.18(a).)
</P>
<P>• Combining required terms where several numerical disclosures are the same, for instance, if the “total of payments” equals the “total sale price.” (See the commentary to § 226.18.)
</P>
<P>• Rearranging the sequence or location of the disclosures—for instance, by placing the descriptive phrases outside the boxes containing the corresponding disclosures, or by grouping the descriptors together as a glossary of terms in a separate section of the segregated disclosures; by placing the payment schedule at the top of the form; or by changing the order of the disclosures in the boxes, including the annual percentage rate and finance charge boxes.
</P>
<P>• Using brackets, instead of checkboxes, to indicate inapplicable disclosures.
</P>
<P>• Using a line for the consumer to initial, rather than a checkbox, to indicate an election to receive an itemization of the amount financed.
</P>
<P>• Deleting captions for disclosures.
</P>
<P>• Using a symbol, such as an asterisk, for estimated disclosures, instead of an “e.”
</P>
<P>• Adding a signature line to the insurance disclosures to reflect joint policies.
</P>
<P>• Separately itemizing the filing fees.
</P>
<P>• Revising the late charge disclosure in accordance with the commentary to § 226.18(l).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Model H-3.</I> Creditors have considerable flexibility in filling out Model H-3 (itemization of the amount financed). Appropriate revisions, such as those set out in the commentary to § 226.18(c), may be made to this form without loss of protection from civil liability for proper use of the model forms.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Models H-4 through H-7.</I> The model clauses are not included in the model forms although they are mandatory for certain transactions. Creditors using the model clauses when applicable to a transaction are deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to that disclosure.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model H-4(A).</I> This model contains the variable rate model clauses applicable to transactions subject to § 226.18(f)(1) and is intended to give creditors considerable flexibility in structuring variable rate disclosures to fit individual plans. The information about circumstances, limitations, and effects of an increase may be given in terms of the contract interest rate or the annual percentage rate. Clauses are shown for hypothetical examples based on the specific amount of the transaction and based on a representative amount. Creditors may preprint the variable rate disclosures based on a representative amount for similar types of transactions, instead of constructing an individualized example for each transaction. In both representative examples and transaction-specific examples, creditors may refer either to the incremental change in rate, payment amount, or number of payments, or to the resulting rate, payment amount, or number of payments. For example, creditors may state that the rate will increase by 2%, with a corresponding $150 increase in the payment, or creditors may state that the rate will increase to 16%, with a corresponding payment of $850.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Model H-4(B).</I> This model clause illustrates the variable-rate disclosure required under § 226.18(f)(2), which would alert consumers to the fact that the transaction contains a variable-rate feature and that disclosures were provided earlier.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Model H-4(C).</I> This model clause illustrates the early disclosures required generally under § 226.19(b). It includes information on how the consumer's interest rate is determined and how it can change over the term of the loan, and explains changes that may occur in the borrower's monthly payment. It contains an example of how to disclose historical changes in the index or formula values used to compute interest rates for the preceding 15 years. The model clause also illustrates the disclosure of the initial and maximum interest rates and payments based on an initial interest rate (index value plus margin, adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure and illustrates how to provide consumers with a method for calculating the monthly payment for the loan amount to be borrowed.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Models H-4(D) through H-4(J).</I> These model clauses illustrate certain notices, statements, and other disclosures required as follows
</P>
<P>i. Model H-4(D) illustrates the adjustment notice required under § 226.20(c), and provides examples of payment change notices and annual notices of interest rate changes.
</P>
<P>ii. Model H-4(E) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 226.18(s) for a fixed-rate mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. Model H-4(F) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 226.18(s) for an adjustable-rate or a step-rate mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>iv. Model H-4(G) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 226.18(s) for a mortgage transaction with negative amortization.
</P>
<P>v. Model H-4(H) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 226.18(s) for a fixed-rate, interest-only mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>vi. Model H-4(I) illustrates the introductory rate disclosure required by § 226.18(s)(2)(iii) for an adjustable-rate mortgage transaction with an introductory rate.
</P>
<P>vii. Model H-4(J) illustrates the balloon payment disclosure required by § 226.18(s)(5) for a mortgage transaction with a balloon payment term.
</P>
<P>viii. Model H-4(K) illustrates the no-guarantee-to-refinance statement required by § 226.18(t) for a mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Model H-5.</I> This contains the demand feature clause.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Model H-6.</I> This contains the assumption clause.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Model H-7.</I> This contains the required deposit clause.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Models H-8 and H-9.</I> These models contain the rescission notices for a typical closed-end transaction and a refinancing, respectively. The last paragraph of each model form contains a blank for the date by which the consumer's notice of cancellation must be sent or delivered. A parenthetical is included to address the situation in which the consumer's right to rescind the transaction exists beyond 3 business days following the date of the transaction, for example, where the notice or material disclosures are delivered late or where the date of the transaction in paragraph 1 of the notice is an estimate. The language of the parenthetical is not optional. See the commentary to section 226.2(a)(25) regarding the specificity of the security interest disclosure for model form H-9. The prior version of model form H-9 is substantially similar to the current version and creditors may continue to use it, as appropriate. Creditors are encouraged, however, to use the current version when reordering or reprinting forms. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Sample forms.</I> The sample forms (H-10 through H-15) serve a different purpose than the model forms. The samples illustrate various ways of adapting the model forms to the individual transactions described in the commentary to appendix H. The deletions and rearrangments shown relate only to the specific transactions described. As a result, the samples do not provide the general protection from civil liability provided by the model forms and clauses.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Sample H-10.</I> This sample illustrates an automobile credit sale. The cash price is $7,500 with a downpayment of $1,500. There is an 8% add-on interest rate and a term of 3 years, with 36 equal monthly payments. The credit life insurance premium and the filing fees are financed by the creditor. There is a $25 credit report fee paid by the consumer before consummation, which is a prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Sample H-11.</I> This sample illustrates an installment loan. The amount of the loan is $5,000. There is a 12% simple interest rate and a term of 2 years. The date of the transaction is expected to be April 15, 1981, with the first payment due on June 1, 1981. The first payment amount is labelled as an estimate since the transaction date is uncertain. The odd days' interest ($26.67) is collected with the first payment. The remaining 23 monthly payments are equal.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Sample H-12.</I> This sample illustrates a refinancing and consolidation loan. The amount of the loan is $5,000. There is a 15% simple interest rate and a term of 3 years. The date of the transaction is April 1, 1981, with the first payment due on May 1, 1981. The first 35 monthly payments are equal, with an odd final payment. The credit disability insurance premium is financed. In calculating the annual percentage rate, the U.S. Rule has been used. Since an itemization of the amount financed is included with the disclosures, the statement regarding the consumer's option to receive an itemization is deleted.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Samples H-13 through H-15.</I> These samples illustrate various mortgage transactions. They assume that the mortgages are subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA). As a result, no option regarding the itemization of the amount financed has been included in the samples, because providing the good faith estimates of settlement costs required by RESPA satisfies Truth in Lending's amount financed itemization requirement. (See footnote 39 to § 226.18(c).)
</P>
<P>17. <I>Sample H-13.</I> This sample illustrates a mortgage with a demand feature. The loan amount is $44,900, payable in 360 monthly installments at a simple interest rate of 14.75%. The 15 days of interim interest ($294.34) is collected as a prepaid finance charge at the time of consummation of the loan (April 15, 1981). In calculating the disclosure amounts, the minor irregularities provision in § 226.17(c)(4) has been used. The property insurance premiums are not included in the payment schedule. This disclosure statement could be used for notes with the 7-year call option required by the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) in states where due-on-sale clauses are prohibited.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Sample H-14.</I> This sample disclosure form illustrates the disclosures under § 226.19(b) for a variable-rate transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year. The sample form shows a creditor how to adapt the model clauses in appendix H-4(C) to the creditor's own particular variable-rate program. The sample disclosure form describes the features of a specific variable-rate mortgage program and alerts the consumer to the fact that information on the creditor's other closed-end variable-rate programs is available upon request. It includes information on how the interest rate is determined and how it can change over time. Section 226.19(b)(2)(viii) permits creditors the option to provide either a historical example or an initial and maximum interest rates and payments disclosure; both are illustrated in the sample disclosure. The historical example explains how the monthly payment can change based on a $10,000 loan amount, payable in 360 monthly installments, based on historical changes in the values for the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year. Index values are measured for 15 years, as of the first week ending in July. This reflects the requirement that the index history be based on values for the same date or period each year in the example. The sample disclosure also illustrates the alternative disclosure under § 226.19(b)(2)(viii)(B) that the initial and the maximum interest rates and payments be shown for a $10,000 loan originated at an initial interest rate of 12.41 percent (which was in effect July 1996) and to have 2 percentage point annual (and 5 percentage point overall) interest rate limitations or caps. Thus, the maximum amount that the interest rate could rise under this program is 5 percentage points higher than the 12.41 percent initial rate to 17.41 percent, and the monthly payment could rise from $106.03 to a maximum of $145.34. The loan would not reach the maximum interest rate until its fourth year because of the 2 percentage point annual rate limitations, and the maximum payment disclosed reflects the amortization of the loan during that period. The sample form also illustrates how to provide consumers with a method for calculating their actual monthly payment for a loan amount other than $10,000.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Sample H-15.</I> This sample illustrates a graduated payment mortgage with a 5-year graduation period and a 7
<FR>1/2</FR> percent yearly increase in payments. The loan amount is $44,900, payable in 360 monthly installments at a simple interest rate of 14.75%. Two points ($898), as well as an initial mortgage guarantee insurance premium of $225.00, are included in the prepaid finance charge. The mortgage guarantee insurance premiums are calculated on the basis of 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1% of the outstanding principal balance under an annual reduction plan. The abbreviated disclosure permitted under § 226.18(g)(2) is used for the payment schedule for years 6 through 30. The prepayment disclosure refers to both penalties and rebates because information about penalties is required for the simple interest portion of the obligation and information about rebates is required for the mortgage insurance portion of the obligation.
</P>
<P>20. <I>Sample H-16.</I> This sample illustrates the disclosures required under § 226.32(c). The sample illustrates the amount borrowed and the disclosures about optional insurance that are required for mortgage refinancings under § 226.32(c)(5). Creditors may, at their option, include these disclosures for all loans subject to § 226.32. The sample also includes disclosures required under § 226.32(c)(3) when the legal obligation includes a balloon payment. 
</P>
<P>21. <I>HRSA-500-1 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-500-1 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all Health Education Assistance Loans (HEAL) with a variable interest rate that were considered interim student credit extensions as defined in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>22. <I>HRSA-500-2 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-500-2 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a fixed interest rate that were considered interim student credit extensions as defined in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>23. <I>HRSA-502-1 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-502-1 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a variable interest rate in which the borrower has reached repayment status and is making payments of both interest and principal.
</P>
<P>24. <I>HRSA-502-2 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-502-2 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a fixed interest rate in which the borrower has reached repayment status and is making payments of both interest and principal.
</P>
<P>25. <I>Models H-18, H-19, H-20.</I>
</P>
<P>i. These model forms illustrate disclosures required under § 226.47 on or with an application or solicitation, at approval, and after acceptance of a private education loan. Although use of the model forms is not required, creditors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to private education loan disclosures. Creditors may make certain types of changes to private education loan model forms H-18 (application and solicitation), H-19 (approval), and H-20 (final) and still be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation, provided that the required disclosures are made clearly and conspicuously. The model forms aggregate disclosures into groups under specific headings. Changes may not include rearranging the sequence of disclosures, for instance, by rearranging which disclosures are provided under each heading or by rearranging the sequence of the headings and grouping of disclosures. Changes to the model forms may not be so extensive as to affect the substance or clarity of the forms. Creditors making revisions with that effect will lose their protection from civil liability.
</P>
<P>The creditor may delete inapplicable disclosures, such as:
</P>
<P>• The Federal student financial assistance alternatives disclosures
</P>
<P>• The self-certification disclosure
</P>
<P>Other permissible changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>• Adding the creditor's address, telephone number, or Web site
</P>
<P>• Adding loan identification information, such as a loan identification number
</P>
<P>• Adding the date on which the form was printed or produced
</P>
<P>• Placing the notice of the right to cancel in the top left or top right of the disclosure to accommodate a window envelope
</P>
<P>• Combining required terms where several numerical disclosures are the same. For instance, if the itemization of the amount financed is provided, the amount financed need not be separately disclosed
</P>
<P>• Combining the disclosure of loan term and payment deferral options required in § 226.47(a)(3) with the disclosure of cost estimates required in § 226.47(a)(4) in the same chart or table (<I>See</I> comment 47(a)(3)-4.)
</P>
<P>• Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the borrower
</P>
<P>• Using “borrower” and “creditor” instead of pronouns
</P>
<P>• Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements
</P>
<P>• Deleting inapplicable disclosures by whiting out, blocking out, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items
</P>
<P>ii. Although creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the §§ 226.47(a), (b) and (c) disclosures, samples H-21, H-22, and H-23 are designed to be printed on two 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch sheets of paper. A creditor may use a larger sheet of paper, such as 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inch sheets of paper, or may use multiple pages. If the disclosures are provided on two sides of a single sheet of paper, the creditor must include a reference or references, such as “SEE BACK OF PAGE” at the bottom of each page indicating that the disclosures continue onto the back of the page. If the disclosures are on two or more pages, a creditor may not include any intervening information between portions of the disclosure. In addition, the following formatting techniques were used in presenting the information in the sample tables to ensure that the information is readable:
</P>
<P>A. A readable font style and font size (10-point Helvetica font style for body text).
</P>
<P>B. Sufficient spacing between lines of the text.
</P>
<P>C. Standard spacing between words and characters. In other words, the body text was not compressed to appear smaller than the 10-point type size.
</P>
<P>D. Sufficient white space around the text of the information in each row, by providing sufficient margins above, below and to the sides of the text.
</P>
<P>E. Sufficient contrast between the text and the background. Generally, black text was used on white paper.
</P>
<P>iii. While the Board is not requiring issuers to use the above formatting techniques in presenting information in the disclosure, the Board encourages issuers to consider these techniques when deciding how to disclose information in the disclosure to ensure that the information is presented in a readable format.
</P>
<P>iv. Creditors are allowed to use color, shading and similar graphic techniques in the disclosures, so long as the disclosures remain substantially similar to the model and sample forms in appendix H.
</P>
<P>26. <I>Sample H-21.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 226.47(a). The sample assumes a range of interest rates between 7.375% and 17.375%. The sample assumes a variable interest rate that will never exceed 25% over the life of the loan. The term of the sample loan is 20 years for an amount up to $20,000 and 30 years for an amount more than $20,000. The repayment options and sample costs have been combined into a single table, as permitted in the commentary to § 226.47(a)(3). It demonstrates the loan amount, interest rate, and total paid when a consumer makes loan payments while in school, pays only interest while in school, and defers all payments while in school.
</P>
<P>27. <I>Sample H-22.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 226.47(b). The sample assumes the consumer financed $10,000 at an 8.23% annual percentage rate. The sample assumes a variable interest rate that will never exceed 25% over the life of the loan. The payment schedule and terms assumes a 20-year loan term and that the consumer elected to defer payments while enrolled in school. This includes a sample disclosure of a total loan amount of $10,600 and prepaid finance charges totaling $600, for a total amount financed of $10,000.
</P>
<P>28. <I>Sample H-22.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 226.47(c). The sample assumes the consumer financed $10,000 at an 8.23% annual percentage rate. The sample assumes a variable annual percentage rate in an instance where there is no maximum interest rate. The sample demonstrates disclosure of an assumed maximum rate, and the statement that the consumer's actual maximum rate and payment amount could be higher. The payment schedule and terms assumes a 20-year loan term, the assumed maximum interest rate, and that the consumer elected to defer payments while enrolled in school. This includes a sample disclosure of a total loan amount of $10,600 and prepaid finance charges totaling $600, for a total amount financed of $10,000.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix I—Federal Enforcement Agencies
</HD1>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 108.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> None.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.1(b).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> None.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix J—Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Closed-End Credit Transactions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Use of appendix J.</I> Appendix J sets forth the actuarial equations and instructions for calculating the annual percentage rate in closed-end credit transactions. While the formulas contained in this appendix may be directly applied to calculate the annual percentage rate for an individual transaction, they may also be utilized to program calculators and computers to perform the calculations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to Board tables.</I> The Board's Annual Percentage Rate Tables also provide creditors with a calculation tool that applies the technical information in appendix J. An annual percentage rate computed in accordance with the instructions in the tables is deemed to comply with the regulation. Volume I of the tables may be used for credit transactions involving equal payment amounts and periods, as well as for transactions involving any of the following irregularities: odd first period, odd first payment and odd last payment. Volume II of the tables may be used for transactions that involve any type of irregularities. These tables may be obtained from any Federal Reserve Bank or from the Board in Washington, DC 20551, upon request.
</P>
<HD3>References
</HD3>
<P><I>Statute:</I> Section 107.
</P>
<P><I>Other sections:</I> Section 226.22.
</P>
<P><I>Previous regulation:</I> Section 226.40 (Supplement I).
</P>
<P><I>1981 changes:</I> Paragraph (b)(2) has been revised to clarify that the term of the transaction never begins earlier than consummation of the transaction. Paragraph (b)(5)(vi) has been revised to permit creditors in single-advance, single-payment transactions in which the term is less than a year and is equal to a whole number of months, to use either the 12-month method or the 365-day method to compute the number of unit-periods per year.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix K—Total Annual Loan Cost Rate Computations for Reverse Mortgage Transactions 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The calculation of total annual loan cost rates under appendix K is based on the principles set forth and the estimation or “iteration” procedure used to compute annual percentage rates under appendix J. Rather than restate this iteration process in full, the regulation cross-references the procedures found in appendix J. In other aspects the appendix reflects the special nature of reverse mortgage transactions. Special definitions and instructions are included where appropriate. 
</P>
<P><I>(b) Instructions and equations for the total annual loan cost rate.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>(b)(5) Number of unit-periods between two given dates.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assumption as to when transaction begins.</I> The computation of the total annual loan cost rate is based on the assumption that the reverse mortgage transaction begins on the first day of the month in which consummation is estimated to occur. Therefore, fractional unit-periods (used under appendix J for calculating annual percentage rates) are not used. 
</P>
<P><I>(b)(9) Assumption for discretionary cash advances.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amount of credit.</I> Creditors should compute the total annual loan cost rates for transactions involving discretionary cash advances by assuming that 50 percent of the initial amount of the credit available under the transaction is advanced at closing or, in an open-end transaction, when the consumer becomes obligated under the plan. (For the purposes of this assumption, the initial amount of the credit is the principal loan amount less any costs to the consumer under section 226.33(c)(1).) 
</P>
<P><I>(b)(10) Assumption for variable-rate reverse mortgage transactions.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>Initial discount or premium rate.</I> Where a variable-rate reverse mortgage transaction includes an initial discount or premium rate, the creditor should apply the same rules for calculating the total annual loan cost rate as are applied when calculating the annual percentage rate for a loan with an initial discount or premium rate (see the commentary to § 226.17(c)). 
</P>
<P><I>(d) Reverse mortgage model form and sample form.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>(d)(2) Sample form.</I> 
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The “clear and conspicuous” standard for reverse mortgage disclosures does not require disclosures to be printed in any particular type size. Disclosures may be made on more than one page, and use both the front and the reverse sides, as long as the pages constitute an integrated document and the table disclosing the total annual loan cost rates is on a single page. 
</P>
<HD1>Appendix L—Assumed Loan Periods for Computations of Total Annual Loan Cost Rates 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The life expectancy figures used in appendix L are those found in the U.S. Decennial Life Tables for women, as rounded to the nearest whole year and as published by the U. S. Department of Health and Human Services. The figures contained in appendix L must be used by creditors for all consumers (men and women). Appendix L will be revised periodically by the Board to incorporate revisions to the figures made in the Decennial Tables.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix O—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Title commitment report.</I> The “title commitment report” is a document from a title insurance company describing the property interest and status of its title, parties with interests in the title and the nature of their claims, issues with the title that must be resolved prior to closing of the transaction between the parties to the transfer, amount and disposition of the premiums, and endorsements on the title policy. This document is issued by the title insurance company prior to the company's issuance of an actual title insurance policy to the property's transferee and/or creditor financing the transaction. In different jurisdictions, this instrument may be referred to by different terms, such as a title commitment, title binder, title opinion, or title report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 50288, Oct. 9, 1981] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting supplement I to part 226, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="228" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 228—COMMUNITY REINVESTMENT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 321, 325, 1828(c), 1842, 1843, 1844, and 2901 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. BB, 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.11   Authority, purposes, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) issues this part to implement the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA). The regulations comprising this part are issued under the authority of the CRA and under the provisions of the United States Code authorizing the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) To conduct examinations of State-chartered banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (12 U.S.C. 325);
</P>
<P>(2) To conduct examinations of bank holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1844) and savings and loan holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1467a); and
</P>
<P>(3) To consider applications for:
</P>
<P>(i) Domestic branches by State member banks (12 U.S.C. 321);
</P>
<P>(ii) Mergers in which the resulting bank would be a State member bank (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(iii) Formations of, acquisitions of banks by, and mergers of, bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquisition of savings associations by bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1843); and
</P>
<P>(v) Formations of, acquisitions of savings associations by, conversions of, and mergers of, savings and loan holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> This part implements the requirement in the CRA that the Board assess a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the bank is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the bank. Accordingly, this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes the framework and criteria by which the Board assesses a bank's record of responding to the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides that the Board takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This part applies to all banks except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign bank acquisitions.</I> This part also applies to an uninsured State branch (other than a limited branch) of a foreign bank that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)). The terms “State branch” and “foreign bank” have the same meanings as given to those terms in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>); the term “uninsured State branch” means a State branch the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; the term “limited branch” means a State branch that accepts only deposits that are permissible for a corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain exempt banks.</I> This part does not apply to banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations and done on an accommodation basis. These banks include bankers' banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. BB, 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="63">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term “control” has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), as implemented by the Board in 12 CFR part 225, and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable housing</I> means activities described in § 228.13(b).
</P>
<P><I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA (as defined in this section), if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has not been subdivided into metropolitan divisions, or for the metropolitan division, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in a nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P><I>Assets</I> means a bank's total assets as reported in Schedule RC of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income as filed under 12 U.S.C. 161, 324, 1464, or 1817, as applicable (Call Report), or Schedule RAL of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a), 3102(b), or 3105(c)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means a State member bank as that term is defined in section 3(d)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(d)(2)), except as provided in § 228.11(c)(3), and includes an uninsured State branch (other than a limited branch) of a foreign bank described in § 228.11(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility, whether shared or unshared, that the Board approved or authorized as a branch and that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Census tract</I> means a census tract delineated by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Closed-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning given to the term “closed-end mortgage loan” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination of loan dollars and loan count</I> means, when applied to a particular ratio, the average of:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio calculated using loans measured in dollar volume; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ratio calculated using loans measured in number of loans.
</P>
<P><I>Community development</I> means activities described in § 228.13(b) through (l).
</P>
<P>Community Development Financial Institution (CDFI) means an entity that satisfies the definition in section 103(5)(A) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)) and is certified by the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Community Development Financial Institutions Fund as meeting the requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Community development investment</I> means a lawful investment, including a legally binding commitment to invest, that is reported on Schedule RC-L of the Call Report or on Schedule L of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable; deposit; membership share; grant; or monetary or in-kind donation that supports community development, as described in § 228.13.
</P>
<P><I>Community development loan</I> means a loan, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit, such as a standby letter of credit, that supports community development, as described in § 228.13. A community development loan does not include any home mortgage loan considered under the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, with the exception of one-to-four family home mortgage loans for rental housing with affordable rents in nonmetropolitan areas under § 228.13(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Community development services</I> means the performance of volunteer services by a bank's or its affiliate's board members or employees, performed on behalf of the bank, where those services:
</P>
<P>(1) Support community development, as described in § 228.13; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are related to the provision of financial services, which include credit, deposit, and other personal and business financial services, or services that reflect a board member's or an employee's expertise at the bank or affiliate, such as human resources, information technology, and legal services.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures and that is one of the following types of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Automobile loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> as reported as “credit card” in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other revolving credit plan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other consumer loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>County</I> means any county, county equivalent, or statistically equivalent entity as used by the U.S. Census Bureau pursuant to title 13 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit location</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 228.42, the address on file with the bank for purposes of the Customer Identification Program required by 31 CFR 1020.220 or another documented address at which the depositor resides or is located.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 228.42, the county of the bank facility to which the deposits are assigned in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any institution subject to the CRA, as described in § 228.11 and 12 CFR 25.11 and 345.11.
</P>
<P><I>Deposits</I> has the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 228.42, <I>deposits</I> means deposits in domestic offices of individuals, partnerships, and corporations, and of commercial banks and other depository institutions in the United States as defined in Schedule RC-E of the Call Report; deposits does not include U.S. Government deposits, State and local government deposits, domestically held deposits of foreign governments or official institutions, or domestically held deposits of foreign banks or other foreign financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 228.42, <I>deposits</I> means a bank's deposits as reported in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits as required under 12 CFR 304.3(c).
</P>
<P><I>Digital delivery system</I> means a channel through which banks offer retail banking services electronically, such as online banking or mobile banking.
</P>
<P><I>Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract</I> means a census tract publicly designated as such by the Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), based on the criteria in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, compiled in a list, and published annually by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC).
</P>
<P>(1) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as distressed if it is in a county that meets one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) An unemployment rate of at least 1.5 times the national average;
</P>
<P>(ii) A poverty rate of 20 percent or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A population loss of 10 percent or more between the previous and most recent decennial census or a net population loss of five percent or more over the five-year period preceding the most recent census.
</P>
<P>(2) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as underserved if it meets the criteria for population size, density, and dispersion that indicate the area's population is sufficiently small, thin, and distant from a population center that the census tract is likely to have difficulty financing the fixed costs of meeting essential community needs. The criteria for these designations are based on the Urban Influence Codes established by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Economic Research Service numbered “7,” “10,” “11,” or “12.”
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation period</I> means the period, generally in calendar years, during which a bank conducted the activities that the Board evaluates in a CRA examination, in accordance with the Board's guidelines and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Facility-based assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 228.16.
</P>
<P><I>High Opportunity Area</I> means an area identified by the Federal Housing Finance Agency for purposes of the Duty to Serve Underserved Markets regulation in 12 CFR part 1282, subpart C.
</P>
<P><I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end home mortgage loan or an open-end home mortgage loan as these terms are defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Income level</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 228.26, that had assets of at least $600 million as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and less than $2 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The Board adjusts and publishes the figures in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 228.26, that had assets of at least $2 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years. The Board adjusts and publishes the figure in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large depository institution</I> means any depository institution, excluding depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) and depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 228.26(a) or 12 CFR 345.26(a), that meets the asset size threshold of a large bank.
</P>
<P><I>Limited purpose bank</I> means a bank that is not in the business of extending closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans evaluated under § 228.22 to retail customers, except on an incidental and accommodation basis, and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank is in effect, pursuant to § 228.26.
</P>
<P><I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the census tract where the borrower resides at the time that the borrower submits the loan application;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan is located in the census tract where the property securing the loan is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business loan or small farm loan is located in the census tract where the main business facility or farm is located or where the borrower will otherwise apply the loan proceeds, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Low-cost education loan</I> means any private education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(8)) (including a loan under a State or local education loan program), originated by the bank for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002), implemented in 34 CFR part 600, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P><I>Low-income credit union (LICU</I>) has the same meaning given to that term in 12 CFR 701.34.
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit for housing persons of low income pursuant to section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 42).
</P>
<P><I>Major product line</I> means a product line that the Board evaluates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, pursuant to § 228.22(d)(2) and paragraphs II.b.1 and II.b.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Majority automobile lender</I> means a bank for which more than 50 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans were automobile loans, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.3 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means any MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan division</I> has the same meaning as that term is defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Military bank</I> means a bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel who serve or have served in the U.S. Armed Forces (including the U.S. Air Force, U.S. Army, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Marine Corps, U.S. Navy, and U.S. Space Force) or their dependents. A bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents means a bank whose most important customer group is military personnel or their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Minority depository institution (MDI) means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of activities conducted pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2907(a), “minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(2) For all other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) “Minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) “Minority depository institution” as defined in section 308 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 1463 note); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A depository institution considered to be a minority depository institution by the appropriate Federal banking agency. For purposes of this paragraph (2)(iii), “appropriate Federal banking agency” has the meaning given to it in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Mission-driven nonprofit organization</I> means an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that benefits or serves primarily low- or moderate-income individuals or communities, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area delineated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e)(3) and (10), 31 U.S.C. 1104(d), and Executive Order 10253 (June 11, 1951).
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily loan</I> means an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a “multifamily dwelling” as defined in 12 CFR 1003.2.
</P>
<P><I>Multistate MSA</I> means an MSA that crosses a State boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Nationwide area</I> means the entire United States and its territories.
</P>
<P><I>Native Land Area means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) All land within the limits of any Indian reservation under the jurisdiction of the United States, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(a);
</P>
<P>(2) All dependent Indian communities within the borders of the United States whether within the original or subsequently acquired territory thereof, and whether within or without the limits of a State, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(b);
</P>
<P>(3) All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through the same, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Any land held in trust by the United States for tribes or Native Americans or tribally-held restricted fee land;
</P>
<P>(5) Reservations established by a State government for a tribe or tribes recognized by the State;
</P>
<P>(6) Any Native village, as defined in 43 U.S.C. 1602(c), in Alaska;
</P>
<P>(7) Lands that have the status of Hawaiian Home Lands as defined in section 204 of the Hawaiian Homes Commission Act, 1920 (42 Stat. 108), as amended;
</P>
<P>(8) Areas defined by the U.S. Census Bureau as Alaska Native Village Statistical Areas, Oklahoma Tribal Statistical Areas, Tribal-Designated Statistical Areas, or American Indian Joint-Use Areas; and
</P>
<P>(9) Land areas of State-recognized Indian tribes and heritage groups that are defined and recognized by individual States and included in the U.S. Census Bureau's annual Boundary and Annexation Survey.
</P>
<P><I>New Markets Tax Credit (NMTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit pursuant to section 45D of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 45D).
</P>
<P><I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Open-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning as given to the term “open-end line of credit” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Operations subsidiary</I> means an organization designed to serve, in effect, as a separately incorporated department of the bank, performing, at locations at which the bank is authorized to engage in business, functions that the bank is empowered to perform directly.
</P>
<P><I>Other delivery system</I> means a channel, other than branches, remote services facilities, or digital delivery systems, through which banks offer retail banking services.
</P>
<P><I>Outside retail lending area</I> means the geographic area delineated pursuant to § 228.18.
</P>
<P><I>Persistent poverty county</I> means a county that has had poverty rates of 20 percent or more for 30 years, as publicly designated by the Board, FDIC, and OCC, compiled in a list, and published annually by the FFIEC.
</P>
<P><I>Product line</I> means a bank's loans in one of the following, separate categories in a particular Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Closed-end home mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(2) Small business loans;
</P>
<P>(3) Small farm loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) Automobile loans, if a bank is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 228.22.
</P>
<P><I>Remote service facility</I> means an automated, virtually staffed, or unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, a bank, such as an automated teller machine (ATM), interactive teller machine, cash dispensing machine, or other remote electronic facility, that is open to the general public and at which deposits are accepted, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P><I>Reported loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan reported by a bank pursuant to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, as implemented by 12 CFR part 1003; or
</P>
<P>(2) A small business loan or a small farm loan reported by a bank pursuant to § 228.42.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking products</I> means credit and deposit products or programs that facilitate a lending or depository relationship between the bank and consumers, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking services</I> means retail financial services provided by a bank to consumers, small businesses, or small farms and include a bank's systems for delivering retail financial services.
</P>
<P><I>Retail lending assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 228.17.
</P>
<P><I>Retail Lending Test Area</I> means a facility-based assessment area, a retail lending assessment area, or an outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Small bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 228.26, that had assets of less than $600 million as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The Board adjusts and publishes the dollar figure in this definition annually based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a business, other than a farm, that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small business loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small business” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm</I> means a farm that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small farm” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small farms” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a U.S. State or territory, and includes the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted census tract</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A low-income census tract or a moderate-income census tract; or
</P>
<P>(2) A distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract.
</P>
<P><I>Tribal government</I> means the recognized governing body of any Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, community, component band, or component reservation, individually identified (including parenthetically) in the list most recently published pursuant to section 104 of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 5131).
</P>
<P><I>Women's depository institution (WDI)</I> means “women's depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.13" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.13   Consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>As provided in paragraph (a) of this section, a bank may receive consideration for a loan, investment, or service that supports community development as described in paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Full and partial credit for community development loans, community development investments, and community development services</I>—(1) <I>Full credit.</I> A bank will receive credit for its entire loan, investment, or service if it meets the majority standard in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; meets the bona fide intent standard in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section; involves an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section; or involves a LIHTC as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Majority standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the majority standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan, investment, or service supports community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, the majority of the housing units are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) and (d) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (c) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, small businesses or small farms;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (e), (f), (g), and (i) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (h) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of designated disaster areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (j) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of Native Land Areas; or
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (l) of this section, the loan, investment, or service primarily supports community development under paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bona fide intent standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the bona fide intent standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing units, beneficiaries, or proportion of dollars necessary to meet the majority standard are not reasonably quantifiable pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan, investment, or service has the express, bona fide intent of community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The loan, investment, or service is specifically structured to achieve community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports community development under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>LIHTC.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports LIHTC-financed affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial credit.</I> If a loan, investment, or service supporting affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not meet the majority standard under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a bank will receive partial credit for the loan, investment, or service in proportion to the percentage of total housing units in any development that are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affordable housing.</I> Affordable housing comprises the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rental housing in conjunction with a government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.</I> Rental housing for low- or moderate-income individuals purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in conjunction with a Federal, State, local, or tribal government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multifamily rental housing with affordable rents.</I> Multifamily rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved if:
</P>
<P>(i) For the majority of units, the monthly rent as underwritten by the bank, reflecting post-construction or post-renovation changes as applicable, does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the following additional criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing is located in a low- or moderate-income census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) The housing is located in a census tract in which the median income of renters is low- or moderate-income and the median rent does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income;
</P>
<P>(C) The housing is purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved by any nonprofit organization with a stated mission of, or that otherwise directly supports, providing affordable housing; or
</P>
<P>(D) The bank provides documentation that a majority of the housing units are occupied by low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One-to-four family rental housing with affordable rents in a nonmetropolitan area.</I> One-to-four family rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in a nonmetropolitan area that meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affordable owner-occupied housing for low- or moderate-income individuals.</I> Assistance for low- or moderate-income individuals to obtain, maintain, rehabilitate, or improve affordable owner-occupied housing, excluding loans by a bank directly to one or more owner-occupants of such housing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mortgage-backed securities.</I> Purchases of mortgage-backed securities where a majority of the underlying loans are not loans that the bank originated or purchased and:
</P>
<P>(i) Are home mortgage loans made to low- or moderate-income individuals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are loans that finance multifamily affordable housing that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Economic development.</I> Economic development comprises:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government-related support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services undertaken in conjunction or in syndication with Federal, State, local, or tribal government plans, programs, or initiatives that support small businesses or small farms, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loans, investments, and services other than direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services that support small businesses or small farms in accordance with how small businesses and small farms are defined in the applicable plan, program, or initiative, but excluding loans by a bank directly to small businesses or small farms (either as defined in a government plan, program, or initiative or in § 228.12). If the government plan, program, or initiative does not identify a standard for the size of the small businesses or small farms supported by the plan, program, or initiative, the small businesses or small farms supported must meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 228.12. Loans to, investments in, or services provided to the following are presumed to meet the criteria of this paragraph (c)(1)(i):
</P>
<P>(A) Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107);
</P>
<P>(B) New Markets Venture Capital Company (13 CFR part 108);
</P>
<P>(C) Qualified Community Development Entity (26 U.S.C. 45D(c)); or
</P>
<P>(D) U.S. Department of Agriculture Rural Business Investment Company (7 CFR 4290.50).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans by a bank directly to businesses or farms, including, but not limited to, loans in conjunction or syndicated with a U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) Certified Development Company (13 CFR 120.10) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107), that meet the following size and purpose criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Size eligibility standard.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must be to businesses and farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the U.S. Small Business Administration Development Company (13 CFR 121.301) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR 121.301 and 121.201) programs or that meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 228.12.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Purpose test.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must have the purpose of promoting permanent job creation or retention for low- or moderate-income individuals or in low- or moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediary support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, or services provided to intermediaries that lend to, invest in, or provide assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community supportive services.</I> Community supportive services are activities that assist, benefit, or contribute to the health, stability, or well-being of low- or moderate-income individuals, such as childcare, education, workforce development and job training programs, health services programs, and housing services programs. Community supportive services include, but are not limited to, activities that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are conducted with a mission-driven nonprofit organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Are conducted with a nonprofit organization located in and serving low- or moderate-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(3) Are conducted in a low- or moderate-income census tract and targeted to the residents of the census tract;
</P>
<P>(4) Are offered to individuals at a workplace where the majority of employees are low- or moderate-income, based on U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics data for the average wage for workers in that particular occupation or industry;
</P>
<P>(5) Are provided to students or their families through a school at which the majority of students qualify for free or reduced-price meals under the U.S. Department of Agriculture's National School Lunch Program;
</P>
<P>(6) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Medicaid;
</P>
<P>(7) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Federal Supplemental Security Income, Social Security Disability Insurance, or support through other Federal disability assistance programs; or
</P>
<P>(8) Primarily benefit or serve recipients of government assistance plans, programs, or initiatives that have income qualifications equivalent to, or stricter than, the definitions of low- and moderate-income as defined in this part. Examples include, but are not limited to, the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development's section 8, 202, 515, and 811 programs or the U.S. Department of Agriculture's section 514, 516, and Supplemental Nutrition Assistance programs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revitalization or stabilization</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Revitalization or stabilization comprises activities that support revitalization or stabilization of targeted census tracts, including adaptive reuse of vacant or blighted buildings, brownfield redevelopment, support of a plan for a business improvement district or main street program, or any other activity that supports revitalization or stabilization, and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on revitalizing or stabilizing targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed-use revitalization or stabilization project.</I> Projects to revitalize or stabilize a targeted census tract that include both commercial and residential components qualify as revitalization or stabilization activities under this paragraph (e)(2), if:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 50 percent of the project is non-residential as measured by the percentage of total square footage or dollar amount of the project.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Essential community facilities.</I> Essential community facilities are public facilities that provide essential services generally accessible by a local community, including, but not limited to, schools, libraries, childcare facilities, parks, hospitals, healthcare facilities, and community centers that benefit or serve targeted census tracts, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Essential community infrastructure.</I> Essential community infrastructure comprises activities benefitting or serving targeted census tracts, including, but not limited to, broadband, telecommunications, mass transit, water supply and distribution, and sewage treatment and collection systems, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recovery of designated disaster areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Activities that promote recovery of a designated disaster area are those that revitalize or stabilize geographic areas subject to a Major Disaster Declaration administered by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a disaster plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving the designated disaster area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of the designated disaster area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in the designated disaster area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility limitations for loans, investments, or services supporting recovery of a designated disaster area.</I> (i) Loans, investments, or services that support recovery from a designated disaster in counties designated to receive only FEMA Public Assistance Emergency Work Category A (Debris Removal) and/or Category B (Emergency Protective Measures) are not eligible for consideration under this paragraph (h)(2), unless the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC announce a temporary exception.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board will consider loans, investments, and services that support recovery from a designated disaster under this paragraph (h)(2) for 36 months after a Major Disaster Declaration, unless that time period is extended by the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency.</I> Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities assist individuals and communities to prepare for, adapt to, and withstand natural disasters or weather-related risks or disasters. Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities benefit or serve targeted census tracts and:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency in Native Land Areas.</I> (1) Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are activities specifically targeted to and conducted in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Revitalization or stabilization activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraph (e) of this section, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on revitalizing or stabilizing Native Land Areas and a particular focus on low- or moderate-income households;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents in Native Land Areas, with substantial benefits for low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(3) Essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraphs (f), (g), and (i) of this section, respectively, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on benefitting or serving Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs.</I> Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs are loans, investments, or services undertaken by any bank, including by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank evaluated under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 345, in cooperation with an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI. Such activities do not include investments by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank in itself.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Financial literacy.</I> Activities that promote financial literacy are those that assist individuals, families, and households, including low- or moderate-income individuals, families, and households, to make informed financial decisions regarding managing income, savings, credit, and expenses, including with respect to homeownership.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.14" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.14   Community development illustrative list; Confirmation of eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Illustrative list</I>—(1) <I>Issuing and maintaining the illustrative list.</I> The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC jointly issue and maintain a publicly available illustrative list of non-exhaustive examples of loans, investments, and services that qualify for community development consideration as provided in § 228.13.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modifying the illustrative list.</I> (i) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC update the illustrative list in paragraph (a)(1) of this section periodically.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC determine that a loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration, the owner of the loan or investment at the time of the determination will continue to receive community development consideration for the remaining term or period of the loan or investment. However, these loans or investments will not be considered eligible for community development consideration for any new purchasers of that loan or investment after the agencies make a determination that the loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>Request for confirmation of eligibility.</I> A bank subject to this part may request that the Board confirm that a loan, investment, or service is eligible for community development consideration by submitting a request to, and in a format prescribed by, the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of eligibility.</I> (i) To determine the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service for which a request has been submitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Board considers:
</P>
<P>(A) Information that describes and supports the request; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any other information that the Board deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC expect and are presumed to jointly determine eligibility of a loan, investment, or service under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section to promote consistency. Before making a determination under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the Board consults with the OCC and FDIC regarding the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board may impose limitations or requirements on a determination of the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service to ensure consistency with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of eligibility.</I> The Board notifies the requestor and the OCC and FDIC in writing of any determination under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as the rationale for such determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.15" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.1.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.15   Impact and responsiveness review of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Impact and responsiveness review, in general.</I> Under the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26, the Board evaluates the extent to which a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services are impactful and responsive in meeting community development needs in each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area. The Board evaluates the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans, community development investments, or community development services based on paragraph (b) of this section, and may take into account performance context information pursuant to § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Impact and responsiveness review factors.</I> Factors considered in evaluating the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services include, but are not limited to, whether the community development loan, community development investment, or community development service:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(3) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(4) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(5) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(6) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(7) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(8) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(9) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(10) Is an investment in projects financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(11) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(12) Is a new community development financing product or service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Geographic Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.16" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.16   Facility-based assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank must delineate one or more facility-based assessment areas within which the Board evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the performance tests and strategic plan described in § 228.21.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for facility-based assessment areas.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a bank's facility-based assessment areas must include each county in which a bank has a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility, as well as the surrounding counties in which the bank has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans).
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas must consist of a single MSA, one or more contiguous counties within an MSA, or one or more contiguous counties within the nonmetropolitan area of a State.
</P>
<P>(3) An intermediate bank or a small bank may adjust the boundaries of its facility-based assessment areas to include only the portion of a county that it reasonably can be expected to serve, subject to paragraph (c) of this section. A facility-based assessment area that includes a partial county must consist of contiguous whole census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other limitations on the delineation of a facility-based assessment area.</I> Each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas:
</P>
<P>(1) May not reflect illegal discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(2) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income census tracts. In determining whether a bank has arbitrarily excluded low- or moderate-income census tracts from a facility-based assessment area, the Board takes into account the bank's capacity and constraints, including its size and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Military banks.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a military bank whose customers are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The Board uses the facility-based assessment areas delineated by a bank in its evaluation of the bank's CRA performance unless the Board determines that the facility-based assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.17" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.17   Retail lending assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Based upon the criteria described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a large bank must delineate retail lending assessment areas within which the Board evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to § 228.22.
</P>
<P>(2) A large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas for a particular calendar year if, in the prior two calendar years, the large bank originated or purchased within its facility-based assessment areas more than 80 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank as described in paragraph II.a.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If, in a retail lending assessment area delineated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the large bank did not originate or purchase any reported loans in any of the product lines that formed the basis of the retail lending assessment area delineation pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, the Board will not consider the retail lending assessment area to have been delineated for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for retail lending assessment areas.</I> (1) A large bank's retail lending assessment area must consist of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The entirety of a single MSA (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding any counties inside the large bank's facility-based assessment areas; or
</P>
<P>(ii) All of the counties in the nonmetropolitan area of a State (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any counties included in the large bank's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any counties in which the large bank did not originate any closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are reported loans during that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) A retail lending assessment area may not extend beyond a State boundary unless the retail lending assessment area consists of counties in a multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delineation of retail lending assessment areas.</I> Subject to the geographic requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, a large bank must delineate, for a particular calendar year, a retail lending assessment area in any MSA or in the nonmetropolitan area of any State in which it originated:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 150 closed-end home mortgage loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years; or
</P>
<P>(2) At least 400 small business loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of retail lending assessment areas.</I> The Board uses the retail lending assessment areas delineated by a large bank in its evaluation of the bank's closed-end home mortgage lending and small business lending performance unless the Board determines that the retail lending assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.18" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.18   Outside retail lending areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Large banks.</I> The Board evaluates a large bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 228.22. However, the Board will not evaluate a large bank in its outside retail lending area if it did not originate or purchase loans in any product lines in the outside retail lending area during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> The Board evaluates the record of an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 228.22, for a particular calendar year, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the prior two calendar years, the bank originated or purchased outside the bank's facility-based assessment areas more than 50 percent of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, as described in paragraph II.a.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements of outside retail lending areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank's outside retail lending area consists of the nationwide area, excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any county in a nonmetropolitan area in which the bank did not originate or purchase any closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component geographic area.</I> The outside retail lending area is comprised of component geographic areas. A component geographic area is any MSA or the nonmetropolitan area of any State, or portion thereof, included within the outside retail lending area.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.19" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.19   Areas for eligible community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may consider a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services provided outside of its facility-based assessment areas, as provided in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.20" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.2.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards for Assessing Performance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.21   Evaluation of CRA performance in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of performance tests and strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>Large banks.</I> To evaluate the performance of a large bank, the Board applies the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, and the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of an intermediate bank, the Board applies the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 and either the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2) or, at the bank's option, the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated under § 228.24.</I> If an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Board evaluates the intermediate bank for the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 and continues evaluations pursuant to this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank opts out. If an intermediate bank opts out of the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Board reverts to evaluating the bank pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> An intermediate bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 228.30(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of a small bank, the Board applies the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2), unless the bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks evaluated under the Retail Lending Test.</I> If a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board evaluates the small bank using the same provisions used to evaluate intermediate banks pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22.
</P>
<P>(B) The Board evaluates the small bank for the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 and continues evaluations under this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank opts out. If a small bank opts out of the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Board reverts to evaluating the bank pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A small bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 228.29(b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited purpose banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Board evaluates a limited purpose bank pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A limited purpose bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 228.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Military banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Board evaluates a military bank pursuant to the applicable performance tests described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Evaluation approach for military banks operating under § 228.16(d).</I> If a military bank delineates the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area pursuant to § 228.16(d), the Board evaluates the bank exclusively at the institution level based on its performance in its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Banks operating under a strategic plan.</I> The Board evaluates the performance of a bank that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 228.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of operations subsidiaries and other affiliates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In the performance evaluation of a bank, the Board considers the loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's operations subsidiaries and other affiliates, as applicable, as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, so long as no other depository institution claims the loan, investment, service, or product for purposes of this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 345.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of operations subsidiaries.</I> The Board considers the loans, investment, services, and products of a bank's operations subsidiaries under this part, unless an operations subsidiary is independently subject to the CRA. The bank must collect, maintain, and report data on the loans, investments, services, and products of its operations subsidiaries as provided in § 228.42(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of other affiliates.</I> The Board considers the loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank that are not operations subsidiaries, at the bank's option, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The affiliate is not independently subject to the CRA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank collects, maintains, and reports data on the loans, investments, services, or products of the affiliate as provided in § 228.42(d).
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, if a bank opts to have the Board consider the closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans that are originated or purchased by one or more of the bank's affiliates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, the Board will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, all of the loans in that product line originated or purchased by all of the bank's affiliates in the particular Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, if a large bank opts to have the Board consider the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are originated or purchased by any of the bank's affiliates in any Retail Lending Test Area, the Board will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans originated by all of the bank's affiliates in the nationwide area when delineating retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 228.17(c).
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26, the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2), or pursuant to an approved strategic plan in § 228.27, the Board will consider, at the bank's option, community development loans or community development investments that are originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by one or more of the bank's affiliates, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development lending and community development investment by a consortium or a third party.</I> If a bank invests in or participates in a consortium that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, or if a bank invests in a third party that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, the Board may consider, at the bank's option, either those loans or investments, subject to the limitations in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, or the investment in the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(1) The bank must collect, maintain, and report the data pertaining to the community development loans and community development investments as provided in § 228.42(e), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) If the participants or investors choose to allocate community development loans or community development investments among themselves for consideration under this section, no participant or investor may claim a loan origination, loan purchase, or investment for community development consideration if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination, loan purchase, or investment; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank may not claim community development loans or community development investments accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans or investments made by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance context information considered.</I> When applying performance tests and strategic plans pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and when determining whether to approve a strategic plan pursuant to § 228.27(h), the Board may consider the following performance context information to the extent that it is not considered as part of the performance tests as provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information regarding a bank's institutional capacity or constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank, safety and soundness limitations, or any other bank-specific factors that significantly affect the bank's ability to provide retail lending, retail banking services and retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) Any information regarding the bank's past performance;
</P>
<P>(3) Demographic data on income levels and income distribution, nature of housing stock, housing costs, economic climate, or other relevant data;
</P>
<P>(4) Any information about retail banking and community development needs and opportunities provided by the bank or other relevant sources, including, but not limited to, members of the community, community organizations, State, local, and tribal governments, and economic development agencies;
</P>
<P>(5) Data and information provided by the bank regarding the bank's business strategy and product offerings;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's public file, as provided in § 228.43, including any written comments about the bank's CRA performance submitted to the bank or the Board and the bank's responses to those comments; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The Board assigns conclusions to a large bank's or limited purpose bank's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part. The Board assigns conclusions to a small bank's or intermediate bank's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 228.28 and appendices C and E to this part. The Board assigns conclusions to a bank that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 228.28 and paragraph g of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The Board assigns an overall CRA performance rating to a bank in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution pursuant to § 228.28 and appendices D and E to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> The CRA and this part do not require a bank to originate or purchase loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices, including underwriting standards. Banks are permitted to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income individuals, small businesses or small farms, and low- or moderate-income census tracts, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.22" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.22   Retail lending test.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="67">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7189, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Lending Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's origination and purchase of home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Automobile loans.</I> The Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's origination and purchase of automobile loans if the bank is a majority automobile lender. A bank that is not a majority automobile lender may opt to have automobile loans evaluated under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology overview</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen.</I> The Board evaluates whether a bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in each facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Volume Screen as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending distribution analysis.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the Board evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of each of a bank's major product lines in each Retail Lending Test Area, as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the Board develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section for each Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the Board's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area is informed by the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area, performance context factors provided in § 228.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>No major product line.</I> If a bank has no major product line in a facility-based assessment area, the Board assigns the bank a Retail Lending Test conclusion for that facility-based assessment area based upon its performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context factors provided in § 228.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks that lack an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> A bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the bank has a Bank Volume Metric of 30 percent or greater of the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area. The Board calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark pursuant to section I of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks that meet or surpass the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If a bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Banks that do not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(i) <I>Acceptable basis factors.</I> If a bank does not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board determines whether the bank has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in the facility-based assessment area by considering:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank's dollar volume of non-automobile consumer loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The bank's institutional capacity and constraints, including the financial condition of the bank;
</P>
<P>(C) The presence or lack of other lenders in the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(D) Safety and soundness limitations;
</P>
<P>(E) The bank's business strategy; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other factors that limit the bank's ability to lend in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks that have an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If, after reviewing the factors described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the Board determines that a bank has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the Board develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area in the same manner as for a bank that meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks that lack an acceptable basi</I>s <I>for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(A) <I>Large banks.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the Board determines that a large bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the Board assigns the bank a Retail Lending Test conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for that facility-based assessment area. In determining whether “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” is the appropriate conclusion, the Board considers:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's distribution analysis pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 228.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the Board determines that an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the Board develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section. The Board's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the facility-based assessment area is informed by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 228.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of Retail Lending Test distribution analysis</I>—(1) <I>Product lines evaluated in a Retail Lending Test Area.</I> In each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the Board evaluates originated and purchased loans in each of the following product lines that is a major product line, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small farm loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Automobile loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major product line standards</I>—(i) <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> In a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, a product line is a major product line if the bank's loans in that product line comprise 15 percent or more of the bank's loans across all of the bank's product lines in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Major product line standards for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(A) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 228.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(B) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 228.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retail Lending Test distribution analysis.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each of its Retail Lending Test Areas by considering the geographic and borrower distributions of a bank's loans in its major product lines.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Distribution analysis in general</I>—(i) <I>Distribution analysis for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> For closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, respectively, the Board compares a bank's geographic and borrower distributions to performance ranges based on the applicable market and community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section V of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Distribution analysis for automobile loans.</I> For automobile loans, the Board compares a bank's geographic and borrower distributions to the applicable community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categories of lending evaluated</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board evaluates the geographic distributions separately for the following categories of census tracts:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board evaluates the borrower distributions separately for, as applicable, the following categories of borrowers:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(C) Businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(D) Businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(E) Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(F) Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the geographic distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the Board considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Geographic Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Geographic Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Geographic Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Borrower distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the borrower distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the Board considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Borrower Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Borrower Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Borrower Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as described in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, the Board develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for each of a bank's Retail Lending Test Areas based on the distribution analysis described in paragraph (e) of this section and using performance ranges, supporting conclusions, and product line scores as provided in sections V through VII of appendix A to this part. For each major product line, the Board develops a separate supporting conclusion for each category of census tracts and each category of borrowers described in paragraphs V.a and VI.a of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the Board evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Geographic Market Benchmark, the Geographic Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.b and V.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions for automobile loans, the Board evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to the Geographic Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.b of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the Board evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Borrower Market Benchmark, Borrower Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.d and V.e of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions for automobile loans, the Board evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to the Borrower Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Development of Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Assignment of performance scores.</I> For each supporting conclusion developed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board assigns a corresponding performance score as described in sections V and VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combination of performance scores.</I> As described in section VII of appendix A to this part, for each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board:
</P>
<P>(A) Combines the performance scores for each supporting conclusion for each major product line into a product line score; and
</P>
<P>(B) Calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> For each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board develops the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion that corresponds to the weighted average of product line scores developed pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as described in section VII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional factors considered when evaluating retail lending performance.</I> The factors in paragraphs (g)(1) through (7) of this section, as appropriate, inform the Board's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Information indicating that a bank purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing its retail lending performance, including, but not limited to, information indicating subsequent resale of such loans or any indication that such loans have been considered in multiple depository institutions' CRA evaluations, in which case the Board does not consider such loans in the bank's performance evaluation;
</P>
<P>(2) The dispersion of a bank's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending within a facility-based assessment area to determine whether there are gaps in lending that are not explained by performance context;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of lenders whose home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans and deposits data are used to establish the applicable Retail Lending Volume Threshold, geographic distribution market benchmarks, and borrower distribution market benchmarks;
</P>
<P>(4) Missing or faulty data that would be necessary to calculate the relevant metrics and benchmarks or any other factors that prevent the Board from calculating a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion. If unable to calculate a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, the Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion based on consideration of the relevant available data;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion does not accurately reflect the bank's performance in a Retail Lending Test Area in which one or more of the bank's major product lines consists of fewer than 30 loans;
</P>
<P>(6) A bank's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending in distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts where a bank's nonmetropolitan facility-based assessment area or nonmetropolitan retail lending assessment area includes very few or no low- and moderate-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information indicating that the credit needs of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area are not being met by lenders in the aggregate, such that the relevant benchmarks do not adequately reflect community credit needs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Retail Lending Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28, section VIII of appendix A to this part, and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail Lending Test Area conclusions.</I> The Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for each Retail Lending Test Area based on the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, performance context factors provided in § 228.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (h)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facility-based assessment areas with no major product line.</I> The Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank has no major product line based on the bank's performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context information provided in § 228.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Facility-based assessment areas in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.23" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.23   Retail services and products test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Services and Products Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Retail Services and Products Test evaluates the availability of a bank's retail banking services and retail banking products and the responsiveness of those services and products to the credit needs of the bank's entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms. The Board evaluates the bank's retail banking services, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, and the bank's retail banking products, as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Main offices.</I> For purposes of this section, references to a branch also include a main office that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion.</I> If the Board considers services under the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25, the Board does not consider those services under the Retail Services and Products Test.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retail banking services</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> To evaluate a bank's retail banking services, the Board considers a bank's branch availability and services provided at branches, remote service facility availability, and digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The Board considers the branch availability and services provided at branches of banks that operate one or more branches pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The Board considers the remote service facility availability of banks that operate one or more remote service facilities pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The Board considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of banks pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The Board considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of the following banks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Large banks that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that do not operate branches.
</P>
<P>(B) For a large bank that had assets less than or equal $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that operates at least one branch, the Board considers the bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems at the bank's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's branch availability and services in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch distribution.</I> The Board considers a bank's branch distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Branch distribution metrics.</I> The Board considers the number and percentage of the bank's branches within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The Board's consideration of the branch distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Percentage of all full-service depository institution branches in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The Board considers the availability of branches in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a branch delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Branch openings and closings.</I> The Board considers a bank's record of opening and closing branches since the previous CRA examination to inform the degree of accessibility of services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, small businesses, and small farms, and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Branch hours of operation and services.</I> The Board considers the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The reasonableness of branch hours in low- and moderate-income census tracts compared to middle- and upper-income census tracts, including, but not limited to, whether branches offer extended and weekend hours.
</P>
<P>(B) The range of services provided at branches in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, respectively, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Bilingual and translation services;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Free or low-cost check cashing services, including, but not limited to, check cashing services for government-issued and payroll checks;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Reasonably priced international remittance services; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Electronic benefit transfers.
</P>
<P>(C) The degree to which branch-provided retail banking services are responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households in a bank's facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's remote service facility availability in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Remote service facility distribution.</I> The Board considers a bank's remote service facility distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Remote service facility distribution metrics.</I> The Board considers the number and percentage of the bank's remote service facilities within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The Board's consideration of the remote service facility distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The Board considers the availability of remote service facilities in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a remote service facility delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access to out-of-network ATMs.</I> The Board considers whether the bank offers customers fee-free access to out-of-network ATMs in low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The Board evaluates the availability and responsiveness of a bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, including to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households at the institution level by considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's strategy and initiatives to serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households with digital delivery systems and other delivery systems as reflected by, for example, the costs, features, and marketing of the delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of checking and savings accounts opened each calendar year during the evaluation period digitally and through other delivery systems in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems and that are active at the end of each calendar year during the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other bank data that demonstrates digital delivery systems and other delivery systems are available to individuals and in census tracts of different income levels, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail banking products evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's retail banking products offered in the bank's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, at the institution level as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's credit products and programs pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Deposit products.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's deposit products pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(B) For large banks that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years, the Board considers a bank's deposit products only at the bank's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The Board evaluates whether a bank's credit products and programs are, consistent with safe and sound operations, responsive to the credit needs of the bank's entire community, including the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, or small farms. Responsive credit products and programs may include, but are not limited to, credit products and programs that:
</P>
<P>(i) Facilitate home mortgage and consumer lending targeted to low- or moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meet the needs of small businesses and small farms, including small businesses and small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are conducted in cooperation with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Are low-cost education loans; or
</P>
<P>(v) Are special purpose credit programs pursuant to 12 CFR 1002.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposit products.</I> The Board evaluates the availability and usage of a bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households.</I> The Board considers the availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the extent to which a bank offers deposit products that, consistent with safe and sound operations, have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households. Deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households include but are not limited to, deposit products with the following types of features:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-cost features, including, but not limited to, deposit products with no overdraft or insufficient funds fees, no or low minimum opening balance, no or low monthly maintenance fees, or free or low-cost check-cashing and bill-pay services;
</P>
<P>(B) Features facilitating broad functionality and accessibility, including, but not limited to, deposit products with in-network ATM access, debit cards for point-of-sale and bill payments, and immediate access to funds for customers cashing government, payroll, or bank-issued checks; or
</P>
<P>(C) Features facilitating inclusivity of access by individuals without banking or credit histories or with adverse banking histories.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Usage of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.</I> The Board considers the usage of a bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) In connection with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period;
</P>
<P>(C) Marketing, partnerships, and other activities that the bank has undertaken to promote awareness and use of responsive deposit accounts by low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households; and
</P>
<P>(D) Optionally, any other information the bank provides that demonstrates usage of the bank's deposit products that have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for a bank's Retail Services and Products Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d). The evaluation of a bank's retail banking products under paragraph (c) of this section may only contribute positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates a bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.24" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.24   Community development financing test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Financing Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Community Development Financing Test evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The Board considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area using the metric in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, benchmarks in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph d.1 of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area compared to deposits in the bank that are located in the facility-based assessment area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The Board compares the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> (A) For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas within an MSA, the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(B) For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas within a nonmetropolitan area, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(C) The Board calculates the MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks pursuant to paragraph II.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The Board reviews the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a State, pursuant to §§ 228.19 and 228.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for each State based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State.</I> The Board considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the State, pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State performance.</I> The Board considers a bank's community development financing performance in a State using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank State Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State compared to deposits in the bank that are located in the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The Board compares the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the State for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.f of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The Board reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA, pursuant to §§ 228.19 and 228.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion in each multistate MSA based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a multistate MSA.</I> The Board considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—multistate MSA performance.</I> The Board considers a bank's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA compared to deposits in the bank located in the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.g of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The Board compares the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the multistate MSA for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.h of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.i of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The Board reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 228.19, using the two components in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in the nationwide area.</I> The Board considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's conclusions for the Community Development Financing Test for its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The Board considers a bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area using the metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to deposits in the bank located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.j of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The Board compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to the deposits located in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.k of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.l of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the deposits in the bank located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.m of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Board compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years compared to deposits located in the nationwide area for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.n of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The Board reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community Development Financing Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for a bank's Community Development Financing Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates a bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.25" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.25   Community development services test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Services Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Community Development Services Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the community development services needs of its entire community.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The Board considers information provided by the bank and may consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development service benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development services performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area, by considering one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of community development services attributable to each type of community development described in § 228.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(2) The capacities in which a bank's or its affiliate's board members or employees serve (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer);
</P>
<P>(3) Total hours of community development services performed by the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence demonstrating that the bank's community development services are responsive to community development needs, such as the number of low- and moderate-income individuals that are participants, or number of organizations served; and
</P>
<P>(5) The impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development services that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's community development services performance in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or nationwide area, and assigns a conclusion for those areas, based on the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> The Board considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Services Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within a State, multistate MSA, or the institution pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—evaluation of community development services outside of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The Board may adjust upwards the conclusion based on the weighted average derived under paragraph (c)(1) of this section and an evaluation of the bank's community development services performed outside of its facility-based assessment areas pursuant to § 228.19, which may consider one or more of the factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community Development Services Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for a bank's Community Development Services Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates a bank's Community Development Services Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.26" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.26   Limited purpose banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank request for designation as a limited purpose bank.</I> To receive a designation as a limited purpose bank, a bank must file a written request with the Board at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the Board approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the Board notifies a limited purpose bank that the Board has revoked the designation on the Board's own initiative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate a limited purpose bank, the Board applies the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks as described in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(i) <I>Community development services.</I> The Board may adjust a limited purpose bank's institution rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” where a bank requests and receives additional consideration for services that would qualify under the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> A limited purpose bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the limited purpose bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks evaluates a limited purpose bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The Board considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion in the facility-based assessment area based on the Board's:
</P>
<P>(1) Consideration of the dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(2) A review of the impact and responsiveness of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State or multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to §§ 228.19 and 228.28(c), and assigns a conclusion for the bank's performance in the State or multistate MSA based on the Board's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State or multistate MSA.</I> A limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in its facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State or multistate MSA performance.</I> The dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSA and a review of the impact and responsiveness of those loans and investments, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 228.19, and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on the Board's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area based on the following metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to the bank's assets calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The Board compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or 12 CFR 345.26(a) reported pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit and serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix B to this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a limited purpose bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the bank's assets, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a limited purpose bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Board compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The Board reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for a limited purpose bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates a limited purpose bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.27" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.27   Strategic plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> Pursuant to § 228.21, the Board evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community under a strategic plan, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board has approved the plan pursuant to this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data requirements.</I> The Board's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's obligation, if any, to collect, maintain, and report data as required by § 228.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of not more than five years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance tests in plan.</I> (i) A bank's plan must include the same performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan, except as provided in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with paragraph (g) of this section, a bank's plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessment areas and other geographic areas</I>—(i) <I>Multiple geographic areas.</I> A bank may prepare a single plan or separate plans for its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic areas not included in a plan.</I> Any facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, or other geographic area that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan, but is not included in an approved plan, will be evaluated pursuant to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operations subsidiaries and affiliates</I>—(i) <I>Operations subsidiaries.</I> The loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's operations subsidiary must be included in the bank's plan, unless the operations subsidiary is independently subject to CRA requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliates</I>—(A) <I>Optional inclusion of other affiliates' loans, investments, services, and products.</I> Consistent with § 228.21(b)(3), a bank may include loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank that are not operations subsidiaries in a plan, if those loans, investments, services, and products are not included in the CRA performance evaluation of any other depository institution.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Joint plans.</I> Affiliated depository institutions supervised by the same Federal financial supervisory agency may prepare a joint plan, provided that the plan includes, for each bank, the applicable performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan. The joint plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Allocation.</I> The inclusion of an affiliate's loans, investments, services, and products in a bank's plan, or in a joint plan of affiliated depository institutions, is subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The loans, investments, services, and products may not be included in the CRA performance evaluation of another depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The allocation of loans, investments, services, and products to a bank, or among affiliated banks, must reflect a reasonable basis for the allocation and may not be for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing any bank's CRA evaluation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Justification and appropriateness of plan election</I>—(1) <I>Justification requirements.</I> A bank's plan must provide a justification that demonstrates the need for the following aspects of a plan due to the bank's business model (<I>e.g.,</I> its retail banking services and retail banking products):
</P>
<P>(i) Optional evaluation components pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible modifications or additions to the applicable performance tests pursuant to paragraph (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional geographic areas pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions and ratings methodology pursuant to paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Justification elements.</I> Each justification must specify the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the bank's business model is outside the scope of, or inconsistent with, one or more aspects of the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Why an evaluation of the bank pursuant to any aspect of a plan in paragraph (d)(1) of this section would more meaningfully reflect a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community than if it were evaluated under the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Why the optional performance components and eligible modifications or additions meet the standards of paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public participation in initial draft plan development</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Before submitting a draft plan to the Board for approval pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, a bank must:
</P>
<P>(i) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the bank has developed its initial draft plan, formally solicit public comment on the initial draft plan for at least 60 days by:
</P>
<P>(A) Submitting the initial draft plan for publication on the Board's website and by publishing the initial draft plan on the bank's website, if the bank maintains one; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation (if available, otherwise a digital publication) in each facility-based assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a military bank, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation targeted to members of the military (if available, otherwise a digital publication targeted to members of the military); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include in the notice required under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section a means by which members of the public can electronically submit and mail comments to the bank on its initial draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of initial draft plan.</I> During the period when the bank is formally soliciting public comment on its initial draft plan, the bank must make copies of the initial draft plan available for review at no cost at all offices of the bank in any facility-based assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the initial draft plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Submission of a draft plan.</I> The bank must submit its draft plan to the Board at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank must also submit with its draft plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of notice publication and a description of its efforts to seek input from members of the public, including individuals and organizations the bank contacted and how the bank gathered information;
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comments or other public input received;
</P>
<P>(3) If the bank revised the initial draft plan in response to the public input received, the initial draft plan as released for public comment with an explanation of the relevant changes; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the bank did not revise the initial draft plan in response to suggestions or concerns from public input received, an explanation for why any suggestion or concern was not addressed in the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan content.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the plan must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components.</I> A bank must include in its plan a focus on the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, and small businesses and small farms. The bank must describe how its plan is responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas served by the bank, considering public comment and the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy. As applicable, a bank must specify components in its plan for helping to meet:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail lending needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and outside retail lending area that are covered by the plan. A bank that originates or purchases loans in a product line evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 or originates or purchases loans evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2) must include the applicable test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The retail banking services and retail banking products needs of its facility-based assessment areas and at the institution level that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank that maintains delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23(b) must include this component of the test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank that does not maintain delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23(b) may include retail banking products components in § 228.23(c) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank other than a large bank may include components of retail banking services or retail banking products and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The community development loan and community development investment needs of its facility-based assessment areas, States, or multistate MSAs, as applicable, and the nationwide area that are covered by the plan. Subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank must include the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank must include either the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 or the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2) in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A limited purpose bank must include the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank may include a community development loan or community development investment component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The community development services needs of its facility-based assessment areas served by the bank that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank must include the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25 in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, for each facility-based assessment area where the bank has employees.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank other than a large bank may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible modifications or additions to applicable performance tests</I>—(i) <I>Retail lending.</I> (A) For a bank that the Board would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank may omit, as applicable, the evaluation of performance criteria related to the loan-to-deposit ratio or the percentage of loans located in the bank's facility-based assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A bank may add annual measurable goals for any aspect of the bank's retail lending.
</P>
<P>(B) For a bank the Board would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank may add additional loan products, such as non-automobile consumer loans or open-end home mortgage loans, or additional goals for major product lines, such as closed-end home mortgage loans to first-time homebuyers, with accompanying annual measurable goals.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where annual measurable goals for additional loan products or additional goals for major product lines have been added pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, a bank may provide different weights for averaging together the performance across these loan products and may include those loan products in the numerator of the Bank Volume Metric.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A bank may use alternative weights for combining the borrower and geographic distribution analyses for major product line(s) or other loan products.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products.</I> (A) A large bank may add annual measurable goals for any component of the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank may modify the Retail Services and Products Test by removing a component of the test.
</P>
<P>(C) A large bank may assign specific weights to applicable components in paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(A) of this section in reaching a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(D) A bank other than a large bank may include retail banking services or retail banking products component(s) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Community development loans and community development investments.</I> (A) A bank may specify annual measurable goals for community development loans, community development investments, or both. The bank must base any annual measurable goals as a percentage or ratio of the bank's community development loans and community development investments for all or certain types of community development described in § 228.13(b) through (l), presented either on a combined or separate basis, relative to the bank's capacity and should account for community development needs and opportunities.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank may specify using assets as an alternative denominator for a community development financing metric if it better measures a bank's capacity.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank may specify additional benchmarks to evaluate a community development financing metric.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank may include community development loans, community development investments, or both, and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Community development services.</I> (A) A bank may specify annual measurable goals for community development services activity, by number of activity hours, number of hours per full-time equivalent employee, or some other measure.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank other than a large bank may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Weights for assessing performance across geographic areas.</I> A bank may specify alternative weights for averaging test performance across assessment areas or other geographic areas. These alternative weights must be based on the bank's capacity and community needs and opportunities in specific geographic areas.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Test weights.</I> For ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels pursuant to § 228.28(b) and paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A bank may request an alternate weighting method for combining performance under the applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components. In specifying alternative test weights for each applicable test, a bank must emphasize retail lending, community development financing, or both. Alternative weights must be responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of a bank's assessment areas and public comments and must be based on the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank that requests an alternate weighting method pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(vi)(A) of this section must compensate for decreasing the weight under one test by committing to enhance its efforts to help meet the credit needs of its community under another performance test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic coverage of plan.</I> (i) A bank may incorporate performance evaluation components and accompanying annual measurable goals for additional geographic areas but may not eliminate the evaluation of its performance in any geographic area that would be included in its performance evaluation in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank is no longer required to delineate a retail lending assessment area previously identified in the plan as a result of not meeting the required retail lending assessment area thresholds pursuant to § 228.17, the Board will not evaluate the bank for its performance in that area for the applicable years of the plan in which the area is no longer a retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>(iii) A bank that includes additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify the geographic areas where those components and goals apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank may submit additional information to the Board on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the Board to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“Satisfactory” and “Outstanding” performance goals.</I> A bank that includes modified or additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify in its plan annual measurable goals that constitute “Satisfactory” performance and may specify annual measurable goals that constitute “Outstanding” performance.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conclusions and rating methodology.</I> A bank must specify in its plan how all elements of a plan covered in paragraphs (g)(1) through (5) of this section, in conjunction with any other applicable performance tests not included in an approved strategic plan, should be considered to assign:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix C to this part, the Board assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution. In assigning conclusions under a strategic plan, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 228.28 and paragraph f of appendix D to this part, the Board incorporates the conclusions of a bank evaluated under an approved plan into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating, accounting for paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Draft plan evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The Board seeks to act upon a draft plan within 90 calendar days after the Board receives the complete draft plan and other materials required pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. If the Board does not act within this time period, the Board will communicate to the bank the rationale for the delay and an expected timeframe for a decision on the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the draft plan, the Board considers:
</P>
<P>(i) The public's involvement in formulating the draft plan, including specific information regarding the members of the public and organizations the bank contacted and how the bank collected information relevant to the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Written public comments and other public input on the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any response by the bank to public input on the draft plan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether to solicit additional public input or require the bank to provide any additional response to public input already received.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan for approval.</I> (i) The Board evaluates all plans using the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The extent to which the plan meets the standards set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extent to which the plan has adequately justified the need for a plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board evaluates a plan under the following criteria, as applicable, considering performance context information pursuant to § 228.21(d):
</P>
<P>(A) The extent and breadth of retail lending or retail lending-related activities to address credit needs, including the distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, pursuant to §§ 228.22, and 228.29, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The effectiveness of the bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the availability and responsiveness of the bank's retail banking products, pursuant to § 228.23, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent, breadth, impact, and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments, pursuant to §§ 228.24, 228.26, and 228.30, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(D) The number, hours, and types of community development services performed and the extent to which the bank's community development services are impactful and responsive, pursuant to §§ 228.25 and 228.30, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plan decisions</I>—(i) <I>Approval.</I> The Board may approve a plan after considering the criteria in paragraph (h)(3) of this section and if it determines that the bank has provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Denial.</I> The Board may deny a bank's request to be evaluated under a plan for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) The Agency determines that the bank has not provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The Board determines that evaluation under the plan would not provide a more meaningful reflection of the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the bank's community;
</P>
<P>(C) The plan is not responsive to public comment received pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) The Board determines that the plan otherwise fails to meet the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(E) The bank fails to provide information requested by the Board that is necessary for the Board to make an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication of approved plan.</I> The Board will publish an approved plan on the Board's website.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan amendment</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank must submit to the Board for approval an amendment to its plan if a material change in circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Impedes its ability to perform at a satisfactory level under the plan, such as financial constraints caused by significant events that impact the local or national economy; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly increases its financial capacity and ability to engage in retail lending, retail banking services, retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services referenced in an approved plan, such as a merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elective plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank may request the Board to approve an amendment to the plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for plan amendments</I>—(i) <I>Amendment explanation.</I> When submitting a plan amendment for approval, a bank must explain:
</P>
<P>(A) The material change in circumstances necessitating the amendment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Why it is necessary and appropriate to amend its plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compliance requirement.</I> An amendment to a plan must comply with all relevant requirements of this section, unless the Board waives a requirement as not applicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Performance evaluation under a plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's performance under an approved plan based on the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan and any optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the applicable performance tests set forth in the bank's approved plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Goal considerations.</I> If a bank established annual measurable goals and does not meet one or more of its satisfactory goals, the Board will consider the following factors to determine the effect on a bank's CRA performance evaluation:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree to which the goal was not met;
</P>
<P>(ii) The importance of the unmet goals to the plan as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any circumstances beyond the control of the bank, such as economic conditions or other market factors or events, that have adversely impacted the bank's ability to perform.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ratings.</I> The Board rates the performance of a bank under this section pursuant to appendix D to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. BB, 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.28" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.28   Assigned conclusions and ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conclusions</I>—(1) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution test conclusions and performance scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For each of the applicable performance tests pursuant to §§ 228.22 through 228.26 and 228.30, the Board assigns conclusions and associated test performance scores of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a bank in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks.</I> The Board assigns conclusions of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a small bank evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2) in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution pursuant to § 228.29 and appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks operating under a strategic plan.</I> The Board assigns conclusions for the performance of a bank operating under a strategic plan pursuant to § 228.27 in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution in accordance with the methodology of the plan and appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank performance in metropolitan and nonmetropolitan areas.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2906, the Board provides conclusions derived under this part separately for metropolitan areas in which a bank maintains one or more domestic branch offices and for the nonmetropolitan area of a State if a bank maintains one or more domestic branch offices in such nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratings</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board assigns a rating for a bank's overall CRA performance of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution, as provided in this section and appendices D and E to this part. The ratings assigned by the Board reflect the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings and overall performance scores.</I> (i) For large banks, intermediate banks, small banks that opt into the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, and limited purpose banks, the Board calculates and discloses the bank's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. The Board uses a bank's overall performance scores described in this section to assign a rating for the bank's overall performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Overall performance scores are based on the bank's performance score for each applicable performance test and derived as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, as applicable, and appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weighting of performance scores.</I> In calculating a large bank's or intermediate bank's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the Board weights the performance scores for the bank for each applicable performance test as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Large bank performance test weights.</I> The Board weights the bank's performance score for the performance tests applicable to a large bank as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 40 percent;
</P>
<P>(B) Retail Services and Products Test, 10 percent;
</P>
<P>(C) Community Development Financing Test, 40 percent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Community Development Services Test, 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate bank performance test weights.</I> The Board weights the bank's performance score for the performance tests applicable to an intermediate bank as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intermediate Bank Community Development Test or Community Development Financing Test, as applicable, 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum conclusion requirements</I>—(i) <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or a large bank must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or institution to receive, respectively, a State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum of “Low Satisfactory” overall facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area conclusion.</I> (A) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A), the Board assigns a large bank an overall conclusion for each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area, as provided in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in § 228.51(e), a large bank with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution, unless the bank receives an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conclusions and ratings for States and multistate MSAs</I>—(1) <I>States</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the Board evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings for any State in which the bank maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>States with rated multistate MSAs.</I> The Board evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings for a State only if the bank maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility outside the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. In evaluating a bank and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the Board does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>States with non-rated multistate MSAs.</I> If a facility-based assessment area of a bank comprises a geographic area spanning two or more States within a multistate MSA that is not identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board considers activities in the entire facility-based assessment area to be in the State in which the bank maintains, within the multistate MSA, a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility. In evaluating a bank and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the Board does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in any facility-based assessment area that is considered to be in another State pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>States with multistate retail lending assessment areas.</I> In assigning Retail Lending Test conclusions for a State pursuant to § 228.22(h), the Board does not consider a bank's activities to be in the State if those activities take place in a retail lending assessment area consisting of counties in more than one State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated multistate MSAs.</I> The Board evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings under this part in any multistate MSA in which the bank maintains a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility in two or more States within that multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> For each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the Board's evaluation of a bank's performance under this part is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices, as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The Board considers evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in this section by:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank, including by an operations subsidiary of the bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other affiliate related to any activities considered in the evaluation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, discriminatory or other illegal credit practices consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination on a prohibited basis, including in violation of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1639);
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45);
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 1031 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5531, 5536);
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vi) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) Violations of the Military Lending Act (10 U.S.C. 987);
</P>
<P>(viii) Violations of the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other violation of a law, rule, or regulation consistent with the types of violations in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as determined by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agency considerations.</I> In determining the effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section on the bank's assigned State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings, the Board will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The root cause or causes of any such violations of law, rule, or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The severity of any harm to any communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms resulting from such violations;
</P>
<P>(iii) The duration of time over which the violations occurred;
</P>
<P>(iv) The pervasiveness of the violations;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree to which the bank, operations subsidiary, or affiliate, as applicable, has established an effective compliance management system across the institution to self-identify risks and to take the necessary actions to reduce the risk of noncompliance and harm to communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of past performance.</I> When assigning ratings, the Board considers a bank's past performance. If a bank's prior rating was “Needs to Improve,” the Board may determine that a “Substantial Noncompliance” rating is appropriate where the bank failed to improve its performance since the previous evaluation period, with no acceptable basis for such failure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.29" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.29   Small bank performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Small bank performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board evaluates a small bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless the small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small Bank Lending Test.</I> A small bank's retail lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities located in the bank's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other retail and community development lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(iv) The geographic distribution of the bank's loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) The bank's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Small banks evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test.</I> The Board may adjust a small bank rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for the following activities, without regard to whether the activity is in one or more of the bank's facility-based assessment areas, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Making community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing branches and other services, digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, and deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small banks that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22.</I> The Board may adjust a small bank rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, or the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs, and for providing low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a small bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(b) and 2907(a) and for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the small bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small bank performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Except for a small bank that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Board assigns conclusions for the performance of a small bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test, the Board assigns conclusions for the bank's Retail Lending Test performance as provided in appendix C to this part. In assigning conclusions for a small bank, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> For a small bank evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test, the Board rates the bank's performance under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a small bank opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Board rates the performance of a small bank as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.30" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.30   Intermediate bank performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Intermediate bank performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board evaluates an intermediate bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate Bank Community Development Test.</I> (i) An intermediate bank's community development performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The number and dollar amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The number and dollar amount of community development investments;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(D) The bank's responsiveness through such community development loans, community development investments, and community development services to community development needs. The Board's evaluation of the responsiveness of the bank's activities is informed by information provided by the bank, and may be informed by the impact and responsiveness review factors described in § 228.15(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board considers an intermediate bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services without regard to whether the activity is made in one or more of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. The extent of the Board's consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services outside of the bank's facility-based assessment areas will depend on the adequacy of the bank's responsiveness to community development needs and opportunities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and applicable performance context information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test.</I> The Board may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank evaluated as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test.</I> The Board may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25, or both.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, an intermediate bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the intermediate bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Intermediate bank performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The Board assigns a conclusion for the performance of an intermediate bank evaluated pursuant to this section as provided in appendices C and E to this part. In assigning conclusions for an intermediate bank, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The Board rates the performance of an intermediate bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.3.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.31   Effect of CRA performance on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the Board takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of:
</P>
<P>(1) Each applicant bank for the:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishment of a domestic branch by a State member bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Merger, consolidation, acquisition of assets, or assumption of liabilities requiring approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) if the acquiring, assuming, or resulting bank is to be a State member bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813) controlled by an applicant and subsidiary bank or savings association proposed to be controlled by an applicant:
</P>
<P>(i) To become a bank holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(ii) To acquire ownership or control of shares or all or substantially all of the assets of a bank, to cause a bank to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company, or to merge or consolidate a bank holding company with any other bank holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(iii) To own, control, or operate a savings association in a transaction that requires approval under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843);
</P>
<P>(iv) To become a savings and loan holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a); and
</P>
<P>(v) To acquire ownership or control of shares or all or substantially all of the assets of a savings association, to cause a savings association to become a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company, or to merge or consolidate a savings and loan holding company with any other savings and loan holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interested parties.</I> In considering CRA performance in an application described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure set forth in 12 CFR part 262.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank or savings association's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, “bank,” “bank holding company,” “subsidiary,” and “savings association” have the same meanings given to those terms in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841). For purposes of paragraphs (a)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section, “savings and loan holding company” and “subsidiary” have the same meaning given to those terms in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reporting, Disclosure, and Public Engagement Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.42   Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="71">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7189, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information required to be collected and maintained</I>—(1) <I>Small business loans and small farm loans data.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data for each small business loan or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) An indicator for the loan type as reported on the bank's Call Report or Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(vi) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(viii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(ix) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(x) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer loans data</I>—<I>automobile loans</I>—(i) <I>Large banks.</I> A large bank for which automobile loans are a product line must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data is evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> An intermediate bank or a small bank for which automobile loans are a product line may collect and maintain in a format of the bank's choosing, including in an electronic form prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data collected and maintained.</I> Data collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(F) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> (i) If a large bank is subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003, the bank must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) pursuant to the requirements in 12 CFR 1003.4(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank is not subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003 due to the location of its branches, but would otherwise meet the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) size and lending activity requirements pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the bank must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data, for each closed-end home mortgage loan, excluding multifamily loans, originated or purchased during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The location of each home mortgage loan origination or purchase, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision; and
</P>
<P>(F) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products data</I>—(i) <I>Branches and remote service facilities.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data with respect to retail banking services and retail banking products offered and provided by the bank during each calendar year:
</P>
<P>(A) Location of branches, main offices described in § 228.23(a)(2), and remote service facilities. Location information must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) An indicator for whether each branch is full-service or limited-service, and for each remote service facility whether it is deposit-taking, cash-advancing, or both;
</P>
<P>(C) Locations and dates of branch, main office described in § 228.23(a)(2), and remote service facility openings and closings, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) Hours of operation of each branch, main office described in § 228.23(a)(2), and remote service facility, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(E) Services offered at each branch or main office described in § 228.23(a)(2) that are responsive to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems data</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that does not operate any branches or a main office described in § 228.23(a)(2), and a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 228.23(b)(4), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section. A bank may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's own choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families, or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems by census tract income level for each calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems that are active at the end of each calendar year by census tract income level for each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank may collect and maintain any additional information not required in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section that demonstrates that digital delivery systems and other delivery systems serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households pursuant to § 228.23(c)(3), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B) of this section. A bank may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank may collect and maintain any other information that demonstrates the availability and usage of the bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> (i)(A) A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank, must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank that opts to be evaluated under the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 must collect and maintain in the format used by the bank in the normal course of business, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain, on an annual basis, the following data for community development loans and community development investments:
</P>
<P>(A) General information on the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Date of origination, purchase, refinance, or renewal of the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Date the loan or investment was sold or paid off; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The dollar amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A community development loan originated or purchased, or a community development investment made, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit or a legally binding commitment to invest, in the calendar year, as described in paragraph I.a.1.i of appendix B to this part;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed or to an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The outstanding balance of a community development loan originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed in previous years or community development investment made or renewed in previous years, as of December 31 for each year that the loan or investment remains on the bank's balance sheet; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The outstanding balance, less any increase reported in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section in the same calendar year, of a community development loan refinanced or renewed in a year subsequent to the year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 of the calendar year for each year that the loan remains on the bank's balance sheet; or an existing community development investment renewed in a year subsequent to the year the investment was made as of December 31 for each year that the investment remains on the bank's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(B) Community development loan or community development investment information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Activity type (loan or investment);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The type of community development described in § 228.13(b) through (l); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Community development loan or community development investment detail, such as the specific type of financing and type of entity supported (<I>e.g.,</I> LIHTC, NMTC, Small Business Investment Company, multifamily mortgage, private business, or mission-driven nonprofit organization, mortgage-backed security, or other).
</P>
<P>(C) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development loan or community development investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is an investment in a project financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Is a new community development financing product that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(D) Specific location information, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract.
</P>
<P>(E) Allocation of the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment to geographic areas served by the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A list of the geographic areas served by the community development loan or community development investment, specifying any county, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Specific information about the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment that was allocated to each county served by the loan or investment, if available.
</P>
<P>(F) Other information relevant to determining that the community development loan or community development investment meets the standards pursuant to § 228.13.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Community development services data.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain, in a format of the bank's choosing or in a standardized format, as provided by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following community development services data:
</P>
<P>(i) Community development services information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Date of service;
</P>
<P>(B) Number of board member or employee service hours;
</P>
<P>(C) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of community development described in § 228.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(E) Capacity in which a bank's or its affiliate's board member or employee serves (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer); and
</P>
<P>(F) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development service:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is a new community development service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(ii) Location information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Location list.</I> A list of the geographic areas served by the activity, specifying any census tracts, counties, States, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Geographic-level.</I> Whether the bank is seeking consideration in a facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Deposits data.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must collect and maintain annually, in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the dollar amount of its deposits at the county level based on deposit location. The bank allocates the deposits for which a deposit location is not available to the nationwide area. Annual deposits must be calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements. Any other bank that opts to collect and maintain the data in this paragraph (a)(7) must do so in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information required to be reported</I>—(1) <I>Small business loan and small farm loan data.</I> A large bank must report annually by April 1 to the Board in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, the small business loan and small farm loan data described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section for the prior calendar year. For each census tract in which the bank originated or purchased a small business loan or small farm loan, the bank must report the aggregate number and dollar amount of small business loans and small farm loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With an amount at origination of greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of greater than $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(v) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(vi) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(vii) To businesses and farms for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank must report annually by April 1 to the Board in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, the community development loan and community development investment data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for the prior calendar year, except for the data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section and paragraphs (a)(5)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposits data.</I> (i) A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must report annually by April 1 to the Board in electronic form, as prescribed by the Board, the deposits data for the prior calendar year collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section. This reporting must include, for each county, State, and multistate MSA, and for the institution overall, the average annual deposit balances (calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements, as applicable), in aggregate, of deposit accounts with associated addresses located in such county, State, or multistate MSA, where available, and for the institution overall. Any other bank that opts to collect and maintain the data in paragraph (a)(7) of this section must report these data in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (b)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that reports deposits data pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section for which a deposit location is not available must report these deposits at the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data on operations subsidiaries.</I> To the extent that its operations subsidiaries engage in retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services, a bank must collect, maintain, and report these loans, investments, services, and products of its operations subsidiaries pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, for purposes of evaluating the bank's performance. For home mortgage loans, the bank must identify the home mortgage loans reported by its operations subsidiary under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by its operations subsidiary that the bank would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section had the bank originated or purchased the loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on other affiliates.</I> A bank that elects to have the Board consider retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services engaged in by affiliates of a bank (other than an operations subsidiary), for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section had the loans, investments, services, or products been engaged in by the bank. For home mortgage loans, the bank must identify the home mortgage loans reported by bank affiliates under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by the affiliate that the bank would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraphs (a)(3) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank that elects to have the Board consider community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or third party for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the loans and investments data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5) and (b)(2) of this section had the bank originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed the loans or investments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assessment area data</I>—(1) <I>Facility-based assessment areas.</I> A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank must collect and report to the Board annually by April 1 a list of each facility-based assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the facility-based assessment area, as of December 31 of the prior calendar year or the last date the facility-based assessment area was in effect, provided the facility-based assessment area was delineated for at least six months of the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending assessment areas.</I> A large bank must collect and report to the Board annually by April 1 a list of each retail lending assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the retail lending assessment area for the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The Board or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each bank that reports data pursuant to this section, a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a State-by-State basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract according to whether the census tract is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(v) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in census tracts with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract in the county, facility-based assessment area, or retail lending assessment area according to whether the median income in the census tract relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located inside each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area reported by the bank and the number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located outside of the facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas reported by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments reported as originated or purchased inside each facility-based assessment area, each State in which the bank has a branch, each multistate MSA in which a bank has a branch in two or more States of the multistate MSA, and nationwide area outside of these States and multistate MSAs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The Board or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a State boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each State, an aggregate disclosure statement of reported small business lending, small farm lending, community development lending, and community development investments by all depository institutions subject to reporting under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 345. These disclosure statements indicate the number and dollar amount of all small business loans and small farm loans originated or purchased for each census tract and the number and dollar amount of all community development loans and community development investments for each county by reporting banks, except that the Board may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of a bank.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of disclosure statements.</I> The Board makes the individual bank CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (g) of this section, and the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>HMDA data disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For a large bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the Board will publish on the Board's website the data required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section concerning the distribution of a large bank's originations and applications of home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity in each of the bank's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas. This information is published annually based on data reported pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data to be published on the Board's website.</I> For each of the large bank's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas, the Board publishes on the Board's website:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage of originations and applications of the large bank's home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage of originations and applications of aggregate mortgage lending of all lenders reporting HMDA data in the facility-based assessment area and as applicable, the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demographic data of the geographic area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Announcement of data publication.</I> Upon publishing the data required pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section, the Board will publicly announce that the information is available on the Board's public website.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect on CRA conclusions and ratings.</I> The race and ethnicity information published pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section does not impact the conclusions or ratings of the large bank.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.43   Content and availability of public file.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="73">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7190, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank must maintain a public file, in either paper or digital format, that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA performance evaluation prepared by the Board. The bank must include this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the Board;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's branches, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank during the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of retail banking services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. A bank may elect to include information regarding the availability of other systems for delivering retail banking services (for example, mobile or online banking, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or mobile branch programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the census tracts contained in the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 228.42.</I> A bank subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 228.42 must include in its public file a written notice that the CRA Disclosure Statement pertaining to the bank, its operations subsidiaries, and its other affiliates, if applicable, may be obtained on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>. The bank must include the written notice in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks required to report HMDA data</I>—(i) <I>HMDA Disclosure Statement.</I> A bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the bank's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (CFPB's) website at: <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>. In addition, if the Board considered the home mortgage lending of a bank's operations subsidiaries or, at a bank's election, the Board considered the home mortgage lending of other bank affiliates, the bank must include in its public file the names of the operations subsidiaries and the names of the affiliates and a written notice that the operations subsidiaries' and other affiliates' HMDA Disclosure Statements may be obtained at the CFPB's website. The bank must include the written notices in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability of bank HMDA data.</I> A large bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the home mortgage loan data published by the Board under § 228.42(j) are available at the Board's website.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks.</I> A small bank, or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, must include in its public file the bank's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks with strategic plans.</I> A bank that has been approved to be evaluated under a strategic plan must include in its public file a copy of that plan while it is in effect. A bank need not include information submitted to the Board on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks with less than “Satisfactory” ratings.</I> A bank that received a less than “Satisfactory” institution rating during its most recent examination must include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank must update the description quarterly by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank must make available to the public for inspection, upon request and at no cost, the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that maintain a website, all information required for the bank's public file under this section must be maintained on the bank's website.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not maintain a website:
</P>
<P>(i) All the information required for the bank's public file must be maintained at the main office and, if an interstate bank, at one branch office in each State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At each branch, the following must be maintained:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA performance evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information that the bank is required to maintain under this section in the public file relating to the facility-based assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank must provide copies, either on paper or in digital form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if not provided in digital form).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing requirements.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank must ensure that its public file contains the information required by this section for each of the previous three calendar years, with the most recent calendar year included in its file annually by April 1 of the current calendar year.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.44" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.44   Public notice by banks.</HEAD>
<P>A bank must provide in the public area of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in appendix F to this part. Only a branch of a bank having more than one facility-based assessment area must include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only a bank that is an affiliate of a holding company must include the next to the last sentence of the notices. A bank must include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional depository institutions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.45" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.45   Publication of planned examination schedule.</HEAD>
<P>The Board publishes on its public website, at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter, a list of banks scheduled for CRA examinations for the next two quarters.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.46" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.4.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.46   Public engagement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Board encourages communication between members of the public and banks, including through members of the public submitting written public comments regarding community credit needs and opportunities as well as a bank's record of helping to meet community credit needs. The Board will take these comments into account in connection with the bank's next scheduled CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of public comments.</I> Members of the public may submit public comments regarding community credit needs and a bank's CRA performance by submitting comments to the Board at Staff Group: Community Reinvestment Act at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov/apps/ContactUs/feedback.aspx</I>, by mail to Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551, or by facsimile at (202) 452-3819.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of public comments.</I> If the Board receives a public comment before the close date of a bank's CRA examination, the public comment will be considered in connection with that CRA examination. If the Board receives a public comment after the close date of a bank's CRA examination, it will be considered in connection with the bank's subsequent CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution of public comments.</I> The Board will forward all public comments received regarding a bank's CRA performance to the bank.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Transition Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 228.51" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.5.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 228.51   Applicability dates and transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), and (d) of this section, this part is applicable, beginning on April 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific applicability dates.</I> The following sections are applicable as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On January 1, 2026, §§ 228.12 through 228.30, 228.42(a), 228.43, and 228.44; the data collection and maintenance requirements in § 228.42(c) through (f); and appendices A through F to this part become applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) On January 1, 2027, § 228.42(b) and (g) through (i) and the reporting requirements in § 228.42(c) through (f) become applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rules during transition period.</I> Prior to the applicability dates in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, banks must comply with the relevant provisions of this part in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. The relevant provisions set forth in appendix G to this part are applicable to CRA performance evaluations pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(a)(1) that assess activities that a bank conducted prior to the dates set forth in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HMDA data disclosures.</I> The Board will publish the data pursuant to § 228.42(j) beginning January 1, 2027.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of bank activities.</I> (1) In assessing a bank's CRA performance, the Board will consider any loan, investment, service, or product that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time the bank conducted the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in assessing a bank's CRA performance, the Board will consider any loan or investment that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time that the bank entered into a legally binding commitment to make the loan or investment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>New and replaced strategic plans.</I> The CRA regulatory requirements in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part, apply to any new strategic plan, including a plan that replaces an expired strategic plan, submitted to the Board for approval on or after April 1, 2024, but before November 1, 2025, and that the agency has determined is a complete plan consistent with the requirements under 12 CFR 228.27 in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. These strategic plans remain in effect until the expiration date of the plan. The Board will not accept any strategic plan submitted on or after November 1, 2025, and before January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing strategic plans.</I> A strategic plan in effect as of April 1, 2024, remains in effect until the expiration date of the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>First evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024.</I> In its first performance evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024, a large bank that has a total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable, and that was a bank subject to evaluation under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 345 prior to February 1, 2024, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, or for the institution, unless the bank received an overall facility-based assessment area conclusion, calculated as described in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part, of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. BB, 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 228—Calculations for the Retail Lending Test
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="77">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7190, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 228.22 and 228.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Retail Lending Test Distribution Metrics—Scope of Evaluation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution


</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</HD1>
<P>The Board calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark for a facility-based assessment area and determines whether the bank has met or surpassed the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in that facility-based assessment area.


</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Volume Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank Volume Metric for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of loans included in the Bank Volume Metric (<I>i.e., volume metric loans</I>). The bank's annual dollar volume of volume metric loans is the total dollar amount of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans originated or purchased by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in that year. Automobile loans are included in the bank's annual dollar amount of volume metric loans only if automobile loans are a product line for the bank.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area. For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar amounts of <I>volume metric loans</I> are $300,000 (year 1), $300,000 (year 2), and $400,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar amount of <I>volume metric loans</I> in a facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $1 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits in the bank located in the facility-based assessment area are $1.7 million (year 1), $1.6 million (year 2), and $1.7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $5 million. The Bank Volume Metric for the facility-based assessment area would be $1 million divided by $5 million, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.064.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Market Volume Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Market Volume Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area. For purposes of calculating the Market Volume Benchmark, a <I>benchmark depository institution</I> for a particular year is a depository institution that, in that year, was subject to reporting pursuant to § 228.42(b)(1), 12 CFR 25.42(b)(1) or 345.42(b)(1), or 12 CFR part 1003, and operated a facility included in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits data in the facility-based assessment area. The Board calculates the Market Volume Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans. The annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is the total dollar volume of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the facility-based assessment area in that year that are reported loans originated by benchmark depository institutions.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area is the sum across benchmark depository institutions of: (i) for a benchmark depository institution that reports data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 25.42(b)(3) or 345.42(b)(3), the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year; and (ii) for a benchmark depository institution that does not report data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 25.42(b)(3) or 345.42(b)(3), the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-2:</I> With reference to example A-1 to this appendix, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is $6 million (year 1), $7 million (year 2), and $7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $20 million. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions is $17 million (year 1), $15 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $50 million. The Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area would be $20 million divided by $50 million, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.065.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the Board calculates a Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area by 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent). A bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the Bank Volume Metric is equal to or greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-3:</I> Based on examples A-1 and A-2 to this appendix, the Board calculates the Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark of 40 percent by 0.3, equal to 0.12 (equivalently, 12 percent). The Bank Volume Metric, 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent), is greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold. Accordingly, the bank surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<FP-2><I>Bank Volume Metric (20%) &gt; Retail Lending Volume Threshold [(40%) × 0.3 = 12%]</I>
</FP-2>
<HD1>II. Retail Lending Distribution Metrics—Scope Of Evaluation
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Retail Lending Test Areas evaluated.</I> A bank's major product lines are evaluated in its Retail Lending Test Areas, as provided in § 228.22(d) and as described in paragraphs II.a.1 and 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Large banks exempt from evaluation in retail lending assessment areas.</I> Pursuant to § 228.17(a)(2), a large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas in a particular calendar year if the following ratio exceeds 80 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank, originated or purchased in its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-4:</I> A large bank (for which automobile loans are not a product line) originated or purchased 20,000 closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the prior two calendar years, representing $6 billion in loan dollars. Of these loans, 18,000 loans, representing $4.5 billion in loan dollars, were originated or purchased in the large bank's facility-based assessment areas. As such, the large bank originated or purchased 75 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans ($4.5 billion/$6 billion) by loan dollars and 90 percent (18,000/20,000) of these loans by loan count within its facility-based assessment areas. The combination of loan dollars and loan count is 82.5 percent, or (75 + 90)/2. Thus, this large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 228.17(a)(2) in the current calendar year because the 82.5 percent exceeds the 80 percent threshold.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small banks and intermediate banks evaluated in outside retail lending areas.</I> Pursuant to § 228.18(a)(2), the Board evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of the major product lines of an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, in the bank's outside retail lending area if either:
</P>
<P>i. The bank opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>ii. The following ratio exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, originated or purchased outside of its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Product lines and major product lines.</I> In each of a bank's Retail Lending Test Areas, the Board evaluates each of a bank's major product lines, as provided in § 228.22(d)(2) and as described in paragraphs II.b.1 through 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> Except as provided in paragraph II.b.1.iii of this appendix, a product line is a major product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area if the following ratio is 15 percent or more, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's loans in the product line originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's loans in all product lines originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>iii. If a bank has not collected, maintained, or reported loan data on a product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area for one or more years of an evaluation period, the product line is a major product line if the Board determines that the product line is material to the bank's business in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Major product line standard for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 228.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 228.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Banks for which automobile loans are a product line.</I>
</P>
<P>i. If a bank's automobile loans are a product line (either because the bank is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 228.22), automobile loans are a product line for the bank for the entire evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. A bank is a majority automobile lender if the following ratio, calculated at the institution level, exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's automobile loans originated or purchased overall; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's automobile loans, home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<HD1>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The Board calculates the Geographic Bank Metric, the Geographic Market Benchmark, and the Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, as set forth in this section. For each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, and component geographic area of the bank's outside retail lending area, the Board includes either low-income census tracts or moderate-income census tracts (<I>i.e., designated census tracts</I>) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks calculations for a particular year. To evaluate small banks and intermediate banks without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the Board will use data collected by the bank in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Geographic Bank Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Geographic Bank Metric for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area. The Board calculates the Geographic Bank Metric by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and small farm loans are a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area (FBAA-1). The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased small farm loans) are 100 (year 1), 75 (year 2), and 75 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans is therefore 250 in the evaluation period. In the low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 25 small farm loans (year 1), 15 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 50 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in low-income census tracts would be 50 divided by 250, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In the moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 30 small farm loans (year 1), 20 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 60 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts would be 60 divided by 250, or 0.24 (equivalently, 24 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.066.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the Board calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line, excluding automobile loans. The Board calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-6:</I> The Geographic Market Benchmarks for small farm loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 500 small farm loans (year 1), 250 small farm loans (year 2), and 250 small farm loans (year 3) within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 200 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2) and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 400. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 400 divided by 1,000, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 100 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2), and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 300. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 300 divided by 1,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.067.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The Board calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.4.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the Board calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-7:</I> The Geographic Community Benchmarks for small business loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 1), 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 1,400 non-farm businesses (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of non-farm businesses in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. In low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 200 non-farm businesses (year 1), 150 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 150 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 500 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 500 divided by 4,000, or 0.125 (equivalently, 12.5 percent).
</P>
<P>In moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 400 non-farm businesses (year 1), 300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 300 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 1,000 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.068.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the Board calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated census tracts by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 228.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Market Benchmark described in paragraph III.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the Board calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for each category of designated census tract and for each major product line by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 228.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Community Benchmark described in paragraph III.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The Board calculates the Borrower Bank Metric, the Borrower Market Benchmark, and the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of borrowers (<I>i.e., designated borrowers</I>), as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>For closed-end home mortgage loans, the Board calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate-income borrowers.
</P>
<P>For small business loans, the Board calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For small farm loans, the Board calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For automobile loans, the Board calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate income borrowers.
</P>
<P>To evaluate small banks and intermediate banks without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the Board will use data collected by the bank in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Borrower Bank Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Borrower Bank Metric for each major product line and category of designated borrowers in each Retail Lending Test Area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line for the bank in FBAA-1. The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans) are 30 (year 1), 40 (year 2), and 30 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 100 in the evaluation period. In FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 10 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 3 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 7 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 20 divided by 100, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In FBAA-1, the bank also originated and purchased 12 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 1), 5 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 2), and 13 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers would be 30 divided by 100, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.069.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the Board calculates the Borrower Market Metric for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-9:</I> The Borrower Market Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 500 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 1), 275 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 2), and 225 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 3). The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 50 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 100. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 100 divided by 1,000, or 0.1 (equivalently, 10 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 100 loans (year 1), 75 loans (year 2), and 25 loans (year 3) to moderate-income borrowers. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 200. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers in FBAA-1 would be 200 divided by 1,000, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.070.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The Board calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of designated borrowers for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the Board calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-10:</I> The Borrower Community Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 families (year 1), 1,300 families (year 2), and 1,400 families (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of families in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. There were 300 low-income families (year 1), 300 low-income families (year 2), and 400 low-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,000 low-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income families within the FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<P>There were 350 moderate-income families (year 1), 400 moderate-income families (year 2), and 450 moderate-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,200 moderate-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income families in FBAA-1 would be 1,200 divided by 4,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.071.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmark for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the Board calculates the Borrower Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 228.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Market Benchmark described in section IV.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph IV.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the Board calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each major product line and for each category of designated borrowers in the bank's outside retail lending area by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating the benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 228.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Community Benchmark described in paragraph IV.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings calculated in paragraph IV.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>The Board evaluates a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area by comparing the bank's distribution metrics to sets of performance ranges determined by, as applicable, the market and community benchmarks, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the Board develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 1 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's geographic distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the Board compares the relevant Geographic Bank Metric for each category of designated census tracts to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Geographic Market Benchmark and the Geographic Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of the 0.8 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The Board compares each Geographic Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.b.1 through V.b.5 of this appendix. The geographic distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated census tracts is determined by the performance range within which the Geographic Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding points values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. <I>Borrower distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's borrower distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the Board compares the relevant Borrower Bank Metric for each category of designated borrowers to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Borrower Market Benchmark and Borrower Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The Board compares each Borrower Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.d.1 through V.d.5 of this appendix. The borrower distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated borrowers is determined by the performance range within which the Borrower Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For any bank for which automobile lending is evaluated under § 228.22, the Board develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 2 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix A—Automobile Loans: Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Lending</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The Board develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's geographic distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Geographic Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated census tracts to the corresponding Geographic Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Borrower distribution.</I> The Board develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's borrower distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Borrower Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated borrowers to the corresponding Borrower Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Performance scores.</I> Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</HD1>
<P>a. The Board determines a bank's Retail Lending Test performance conclusion for a major product line in a Retail Lending Test Area by calculating a weighted performance score for each major product line:
</P>
<P>1. The Board develops a weighted average performance score for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The Board creates a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated census tracts (<I>i.e., geographic distribution average</I>) and a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated borrowers (<I>i.e., borrower distribution average</I>).
</P>
<P>ii. For the geographic distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated census tracts is based on the demographics of the Retail Testing Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Appendix A—Retail Lending, Test Geographic Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of


<br/>designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>In the case of a Retail Lending Test Area that contains no low-income census tracts and no moderate-income census tracts, the bank will not receive a geographic distribution average for that assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-11:</I> A large bank's closed-end home mortgage loans constitute a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area. The bank's geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “High Satisfactory” (performance score of 7 points) for low-income census tracts and “Needs to Improve” (performance score of 3 points) for moderate-income census tracts. Owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts represents 20 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area, and owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts represents 5 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the moderate-income geographic distribution performance score is 80 percent [20 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 80 percent] and the weight assigned to the low-income geographic distribution performance score is 20 percent [5 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 20 percent]. The bank's geographic distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 3.8 [(7 points × 0.2 weight = 1.4) + (3 points × 0.8 weight = 2.4)].
</P>
<P>iii. For the borrower distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated borrowers is based on the demographics of the Retail Lending Test Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test, Borrower Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Categories of designated borrowers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,00 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income households.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income households.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-12:</I> Building on example A-11 to this appendix, the bank's borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “Outstanding” (performance score of 10 points) for low-income borrowers and “Low Satisfactory” (performance score of 6 points) for moderate-income borrowers. Low-income families represent 14 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area and moderate-income families represent 6 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the low-income borrower distribution performance score is 70 percent [14 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 70 percent] and the weight assigned to the moderate-income borrower distribution performance score is 30 percent [6 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 30 percent]. The bank's borrower distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 8.8 [(10 points × 0.7 weight = 7.0) + (6 points × 0.3 weight = 1.8)].
</P>
<P>2. For each major product line, the Board calculates the average of the geographic distribution average and the borrower distribution average (<I>i.e., product line score</I>). If a bank has no geographic distribution average for a product (due to the absence of both low-income census tracts and moderate-income census tracts in the geographic area), the product line score is the borrower distribution average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-13:</I> Based on examples A-11 and A-12 to this appendix, the bank's product line score for closed-end home mortgage loans is 6.3 [(3.8 geographic distribution average × 0.5 weight = 1.9) + (8.8 borrower distribution average × 0.5 weight = 4.4)].
</P>
<P>b. For each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines (<I>i.e., Retail Lending Test Area Score</I>). For each Retail Lending Test Area, the Board uses a ratio of the bank's loan originations and purchases in each major product line to its loan originations and purchases in all major product lines during the evaluation period, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12, as weights in the weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-14:</I> In addition to the product line score of 6.3 for closed-end home mortgage loans in example A-13 to this appendix, the bank has a product line score of 4.2 for small business lending in the same facility-based assessment area. Among major product lines, 60 percent of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area are closed-end home mortgages and 40 percent are small business loans based upon the combination of loan dollars and loan count. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the closed-end home mortgage product line score is 60 percent and the weight assigned to the small business product line score is 40 percent. The bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score for this facility-based assessment area is 5.46 [(6.3 closed-end home mortgage loan product line score × 0.6 weight = 3.78) + (4.2 small business loan product line score × 0.4 weight = 1.68)].
</P>
<P>c. The Board then develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the Retail Lending Test Area Score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Recommended


<br/>conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test area score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-15:</I> Based on example A-14 to this appendix, the bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score is associated with a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion, so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for this facility-based assessment area is “Low Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>d. Once a recommended conclusion is determined for a Retail Lending Test Area, the performance context information provided in § 228.21(d) and the additional factors provided in § 228.22(g) inform the Board's determination of the Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area. The agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution
</HD1>
<P>The Board develops the Retail Lending Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The Board translates Retail Lending Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and as applicable, the outside retail lending area into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The Board calculates the weighted average of Retail Lending Test Area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution (<I>i.e., performance score for the Retail Lending Test</I>). For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the Board considers facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 228.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the Board considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas and, as applicable, the bank's outside retail lending area. Each Retail Lending Test Area performance score is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the Retail Lending Test Area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the Retail Lending Test Area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the Retail Lending Test Area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the Retail Lending Test Area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>c. The Board develops a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Retail Lending Test for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. The agency considers relevant performance context information provided in § 228.21(d) to inform the Board's determination of the bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-16:</I> A large bank operates in one State only, and has two facility-based assessment areas and one retail lending assessment area in that state and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as it is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 75 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (based on dollar amount) and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12). The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2) is associated with 15 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 20 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12). The bank received a “Low Satisfactory” (6 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>iii. The Retail lending assessment area is associated with 8 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 68 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12). The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>iv. The bank's outside retail lending area, is associated with 2 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 2 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 228.12). The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For facility-based assessment area 1: weight = 42.5 percent [(75 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For facility-based assessment area 2: weight = 17.5 percent [(15 percent of deposits + 20 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>iii. For the retail lending assessment area: weight = 38 percent [(8 percent of deposits + 68 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iv. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 2 percent [(2 percent of deposits + 2 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-16, the bank's Retail Lending Test performance score for the institution is 6.3 [(0.425 weight × 3 points in facility-based assessment area 1) + (0.175 weight × 6 points in facility-based assessment area 2) + (0.38 weight × 10 points in retail lending assessment area) + (0.02 weight × 7 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 6.3 corresponds with the conclusion category “Low Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “Low Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 228.21(d) may inform the Board's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-17:</I> An intermediate bank operates in a single State, has two facility-based assessment areas, and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as automobile lending is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 60 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 30 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2 is) associated with 40 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2; and
</P>
<P>iii. The bank's outside retail lending area is associated with 0 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (the bank did not voluntarily collect and maintain depositor location data, so all deposits in the bank are attributed to its branches within facility-based assessment areas) and 60 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For FBAA-1: weight = 45 percent [(60 percent of deposits + 30 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For FBAA-2: weight = 25 percent [(40 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iii. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 30 percent [(0 percent of deposits + 60 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-17, the bank's recommended Retail Lending Test performance score at the institution level is 7.2 [(0.45 weight × 10 points in FBAA-1) + (0.25 weight × 7 points in FBAA-2) + (0.3 weight × 3 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 7.2 corresponds with the conclusion category “High Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “High Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 228.21(d) may inform the Board's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 228—Calculations for the Community Development Tests


</HEAD>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 228.24 through 228.26 and 228.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Weighting of Conclusions


</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</HD1>
<P>For purposes of the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 and Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26, the Board identifies the community development loans and community development investments included in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks and the deposits or assets included in the denominator of the metrics and benchmarks, as applicable, pursuant to paragraph I.a of this appendix. The Board determines whether to include a community development loan or community development investment in the numerator for a particular metric or benchmark pursuant to the allocation provisions in paragraph I.b of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Community development loans and community development investments, deposits, and assets included in the community development financing metrics and benchmarks—in general.</I> The Board calculates the community development financing metrics and benchmarks in §§ 228.24 and 228.26 using community development loans and community development investments and deposits or assets, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Numerator</I>—i. <I>Community development loans and community development investments considered.</I> The Board includes community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by a depository institution or attributed to a depository institution pursuant to § 228.21(b) and (c) (<I>e.g.,</I> an affiliate community development loan) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks. The Board calculates the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments by summing the dollar volume of the following community development loans and community development investments for each calendar year in an evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments</I>):
</P>
<P>A. The dollar volume of all community development loans originated or purchased and community development investments made, including legally binding commitments to extend credit or legally binding commitments to invest,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in that calendar year;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The dollar volume of a legally binding commitment to extend credit or legally binding commitment to invest in any given year is: (1) the full dollar volume committed; or (2) if drawn upon, the combined dollar volume of the outstanding commitment and any drawn portion of the commitment.</P></FTNT>
<P>B. The dollar volume of any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed and in an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>C. The outstanding dollar volume of community development loans originated or purchased in previous calendar years and community development investments made in previous calendar years, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan or investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet; and
</P>
<P>D. The outstanding dollar volume, less any increase reported in paragraph I.a.1.B of this appendix in the same calendar year, of a community development loan the depository institution refinanced or renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan remains on the depository institution's balance sheet, and an existing community development investment renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of the investment, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Community development loan and community development investment allocation.</I> To calculate the metrics and benchmarks provided in §§ 228.24 and _.26, the Board includes all community development loans and community development investments that are allocated to the specific facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, respectively, in the numerator for the metric and benchmarks applicable to that geographic area. <I>See</I> paragraph I.b of this appendix for the community development financing allocation provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Denominator.</I> i. <I>Annual dollar volume of deposits.</I> For purposes of metrics and benchmarks in § 228.24, the Board calculates an annual dollar volume of deposits in a depository institution that is specific to each metric or benchmark for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of deposits</I>). For a depository institution that collects, maintains, and reports deposits data as provided in § 228.42 or 12 CFR 25.42 or 345.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the annual average daily balance of deposits in the depository institution as provided in statements (<I>e.g.,</I> monthly or quarterly statements) based on the deposit location. For a depository institution that does not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 228.42 or 12 CFR 25.42 or 345.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the deposits assigned to each facility pursuant to the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Annual dollar volume of assets.</I> For purposes of the metrics and benchmarks in § 228.26, the Board calculates an annual dollar volume of assets for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., the annual dollar volume of assets</I>). The annual dollar volume of assets is calculated by averaging the assets for each quarter end in the calendar year.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Allocation of community development loans and community development investments.</I> 1. <I>In general.</I> For the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26, the Board considers community development loans and community development investments in the evaluation of a bank's performance in a facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, based on the data provided by the bank pursuant to § 228.42(a)(5)(ii)(E) and the specific location, if available, pursuant to § 228.42(a)(5)(ii)(D). As appropriate, the Board may also consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>2. A bank may allocate a community development loan or community development investment as follows:
</P>
<P>i. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves only one county, and not any areas beyond that one county, would have the full dollar amount of the activity allocated to that county.
</P>
<P>ii. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves multiple counties, a State, a multistate MSA, multiple States, multiple multistate MSAs, or the nationwide area is allocated according to either specific documentation that the bank can provide regarding the dollar amount allocated to each county or based on the geographic scope of the activity, as follows:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Allocation approach if specific documentation is available.</I> A bank may allocate a community development loan or community development investment or portion of a loan or investment based on documentation that specifies the appropriate dollar volume to assign to each county, such as specific addresses and dollar volumes associated with each address, or other information that indicates the specific dollar volume of the loan or investment that benefits or serves each county.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Allocation approach based on geographic scope of a community development loan or community development investment.</I>
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In the absence of specific documentation, the Board will allocate a community development loan or community development investment based on the geographic scope of the loan or investment as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the purposes of allocating community development loans and community development investments, the Board considers low- or moderate-income families to be located in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, consistent with § 228.28(c).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>1.</I> Allocate at the county level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one county;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Allocate at the county level based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each county for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of less than an entire State or multistate MSA;
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one or more State(s) or multistate MSA(s), but not the entire nation; and
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Allocate at the nationwide area level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire Nation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix B—Community Development Loan or Community Development Investment Allocation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach if specific documentation is available
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach based on geographic scope of activity
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple counties that are part of one State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties in proportions equivalent to the distribution of low- and moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple States or multistate MSAs, less than the entire nation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the States or multistate MSAs, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nationwide area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to nationwide area.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics, benchmarks, and combination of performance scores for Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric in § 228.24(b)(1) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area are $35,000 (year 1), $25,000 (year 2), and $40,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area is therefore $100,000. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area are $3.1 million (year 1), $3.3 million (year 2), and $3.6 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment is therefore $10 million. For the evaluation period, the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric would be $100,000 divided by $10 million, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.072.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(b)(2)(i) for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-2:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions are $3.25 million (year 1), $3 million (year 2), and $3.75 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions are $330 million (year 1), $330 million (year 2), and $340 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 billion. For the evaluation period, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area would be $10 million divided by $1 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.073.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The Board calculates an MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each MSA in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area in the MSA. The Board calculates a Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each nonmetropolitan area in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area in the nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>1. <I>MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(b)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-3:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $98 billion (year 1), $100 billion (year 2), and $102 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $300 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $14.9 trillion (year 1), $15 trillion (year 2), and $15.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $45 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Metropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $300 billion divided by $45 trillion, or 0.007 (equivalently, 0.7 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.074.gif"/>
<P>2. <I>Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(b)(2)(ii)(B) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-4:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $3 billion (year 1), $3.2 billion (year 2), and $3.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in all large depository institutions are $330 billion (year 1), $334 billion (year 2), and $336 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $10 billion divided by $1 trillion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.075.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric in § 228.24(c)(2)(i) for each State in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the State) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraphs II.d.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State are $15 million (year 1), $17 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by a bank is therefore $50 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State are $1.5 billion (year 1), $1.6 billion (year 2), and $1.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State is therefore $5 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric would be $50 million divided by $5 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.076.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the State Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(c)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-6:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions are $2.3 billion (year 1), $2.5 billion (year 2), and $2.7 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $7.5 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions are $160 billion (year 1), $170 billion (year 2), and $170 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions is therefore $500 billion. For the evaluation period, the State Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $7.5 billion divided by $500 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.077.gif"/>
<P>f. <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(c)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the applicable Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a State for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-7:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas (FBAAs) in a State (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The Board does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of number of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.078.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.079.gif"/>
<P>• Calculating weights for FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.080.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.081.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights for FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>o The bank's State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight for FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (Weight for FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>g. <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric in § 228.24(d)(2)(i) for each multistate MSA in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the multistate MSA) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.g.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.g.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA are $47 million (year 1), $51 million (year 2), and $52 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by the bank is therefore $150 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA are $3.1 billion (year 1), $3.3 billion (year 2), and $3.6 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA is therefore $10 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric would be $150 million divided by $10 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.082.gif"/>
<P>h. <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(d)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.h.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.h.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-9:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions are $135 million (year 1), $140 million (year 2), and $145 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $420 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions are $4 billion (year 1), $5 billion (year 2), and $6 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions is therefore $15 billion. For the evaluation period, the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $420 million divided by $15 billion, or 0.028 (equivalently, 2.8 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.083.gif"/>
<P>i. <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(c)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) by averaging all of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a multistate MSA for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-10:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas in a multistate MSA (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The Board does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.084.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.085.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.086.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.087.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>j. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric in § 228.24(e)(2)(i) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.j.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.j.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-11:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $60 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $75 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $2.5 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.088.gif"/>
<P>k. <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(e)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.k.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.k.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-12:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $100 billion (year 1), $103 billion (year 2), and $107 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $310 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $15.2 trillion (year 1), $15.3 trillion (year 2), and $15.5 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is $46 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $310 billion divided by $46 trillion, or 0.0067 (equivalently, 0.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.089.gif"/>
<P>l. <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 228.24(e)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in the nationwide area, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-13:</I> The bank has three facility-based assessment areas in the nationwide area (FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3).
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 40 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-3, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 4.0 percent. FBAA-3 represents 10 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 15 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 5 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-1 is 50 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.090.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 55 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.091.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.092.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.093.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-3:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.094.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.095.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.55 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1(0.55) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (2%)) + (Weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark FBAA-2 (3%)) + (Weight of FBAA-3 (0.10) × Benchmark in FBAA-3 (4%)) = Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (2.55%)
</P>
<P>m. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric in § 228.24(e)(2)(iii) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.m.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.m.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-14:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $600 million (year 1), $680 million (year 2), and $720 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $2 billion. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $24 billion (year 1), $27 billion (year 2), and $29 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $80 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $2 billion divided by $80 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.096.gif"/>
<P>n. <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark in § 228.24(e)(2)(iv) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of deposits in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.n.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.n.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-15:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $350 billion (year 1), $360 billion (year 2), and $390 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $1.1 trillion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $21.9 trillion (year 1), $22 trillion (year 2), and $22.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $66 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $1.1 trillion divided by $66 trillion, or 0.0167 (equivalently, 1.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.097.gif"/>
<P>o. <I>Weighting of benchmarks.</I> The Board calculates a weighted average of the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for a bank's facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the Board considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 228.28(c). For the weighted average for the nationwide area, the Board considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.o.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.o.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>p. <I>Combined score for facility-based assessment area conclusions and the metrics and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> 1. As described in § 228.24(c) through (e), the Board assigns a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score calculated in paragraph p.2.iii of this appendix for a bank's performance under the Community Development Financing Test in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. The Board bases a Community Development Financing Test combined performance score on the following:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Component one—Weighted average of the bank's performance scores corresponding to facility-based assessment area conclusions.</I> The Board derives a performance score based on a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to conclusions for facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Component two—Bank score for metric and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, the Board determines a performance score (as shown in paragraph IV.a of this appendix) corresponding to a conclusion category by considering the relevant metric and benchmarks and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments. In the nationwide area, for large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Board also considers whether the bank's performance under the Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, compared to the Community Development Investment Benchmark, contributes positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Combined score.</I> The Board associates the performance score calculated pursuant to this paragraph II.p.2.iii with a conclusion category. The Board derives the combined performance score corresponding to a conclusion category as follows:
</P>
<P>A. The Board calculates the average of two components to determine weighting:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The percentage, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, of the bank's total originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The percentage of the total dollar volume of deposits in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the deposits in the bank in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period. For purposes of this paragraph II.p.2.iii.A.<I>2,</I> “deposits” excludes deposits reported under § 228.42(b)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>B. If the average is:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> At least 80 percent, then component one receives a 50 percent weight and component two receives a 50 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> At least 60 percent but less than 80 percent, then component one receives a 40 percent weight and component two receives a 60 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> At least 40 percent but less than 60 percent, then component one receives a 30 percent weight and component two receives a 70 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> At least 20 percent but less than 40 percent, then component one receives a 20 percent weight and component two receives an 80 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Below 20 percent, then component one receives a 10 percent weight and component two receives a 90 percent weight.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix B—Component Weights for Combined Performance Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average of the percentage of deposits and percentage of loans
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on
<br/>component 1
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on
<br/>component 2
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 20% but less than 40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 20%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example B-16:</I>
</P>
<P>• Assume that the weighted average of the bank's performance scores corresponding to its facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide is 7.5. Assume further that the bank score for the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide is 6.
</P>
<P>• Assume further that 95 percent of the deposits in the bank and 75 percent of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile loans (calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12) during the evaluation period are associated with its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>• The Board assigns weights for component one and component two based on the share of deposits in the bank and the share of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, associated with its facility-based assessment areas: (95 percent of deposits + 75 percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count)/2 = 85 percent, which is between 80 percent and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>• Thus, the weighted average of the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions in the nationwide area (component one—paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent, and the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in the nationwide area (component two—paragraph II.p.2.ii of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>• Using the point values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion at the institution level is a “High Satisfactory”: (0.50 weight × 7.5 points for the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide) + (0.50 weight × 6 points for the bank score for metrics and benchmarks analysis and review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide) results in a performance score of 6.75, which is closest to the point value (7) associated with “High Satisfactory.”


</P>
<HD1>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics and benchmarks for Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric provided in § 228.26 by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of the assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 228.26(a) or 12 CFR 345.26(a) reported pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 228.26(a) or 12 CFR 345.26(a) that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to § 228.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 345.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The Board calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, provided in § 228.26(f)(2)(iii), for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-17:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $62 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $73 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank are $2.4 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank over the evaluation period is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.098.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The Board calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark, provided in § 228.26(f)(2)(iv), by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-18:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $35 billion (year 1), $37 million (year 2), and $38 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $110 billion. The annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $1.8 trillion (year 1), $2.1 trillion (year 2), and $2.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $6 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $110 billion divided by $6 trillion, or 0.0183 (equivalently, 1.83 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.099.gif"/>
<HD1>IV. Weighting of Conclusions
</HD1>
<P>The Board calculates component one of the combined performance score, as set forth in paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix, for the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24 and a performance score for the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25 in each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area, as applicable, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The Board translates the Community Development Financing Test and the Community Development Services Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The Board calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the Board considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 228.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the Board considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. BB, 89 FR 7188, Feb. 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 228—Performance Test Conclusions
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Performance test conclusions, in general.</I> For a bank evaluated under, as applicable, the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 228.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 228.26, the Board assigns conclusions for the bank's CRA performance pursuant to these tests and this appendix. In assigning conclusions, the Board may consider performance context information as provided in § 228.21(d).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> The Board assigns Retail Lending Test conclusions for each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Retail Lending Test Area.</I> For each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the Board assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion and corresponding performance score pursuant to § 228.22(h)(1), as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The Board assigns the Retail Lending Test conclusions for a bank's performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, as set forth in section VIII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Retail Services and Products Test conclusions.</I> The Board assigns Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution. For a bank that does not operate any branches, a main office described in § 228.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the Board assigns the bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion as the Retail Services and Product Test conclusion for the State or multistate MSA, as applicable.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> The Board assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for a bank's performance in a facility-based assessment area based on an evaluation of the bank's branch availability and services and remote services facilities availability, if applicable, pursuant to § 228.23(b)(2) and (3), respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The Board develops the Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this paragraph c.2.
</P>
<P>i. The Board translates Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The Board calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the Board considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 228.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the Board considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>A. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's deposits in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Dividing the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix by the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>2</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 228.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>B. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 228.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. For a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, the Board assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the weighted average for the State or multistate MSA calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> the performance score for the Retail Services and Products Test for the State or multistate MSA).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the retail services and products test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>iv. For the institution, the Board assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion based on the bank's combined retail banking services conclusion, developed pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix, and an evaluation of the bank's retail banking products, pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.B of this appendix. The Board translates the Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for the institution into a numerical performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A. <I>Combined retail banking services conclusion. 1. In general.</I> The Board evaluates the bank's retail banking services, as applicable, and assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based the weighted average for the institution calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix and a digital and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix. For a large bank without branches, a main office described in § 228.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the Board assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based only on a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion.</I> The Board assigns a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion based on an evaluation of a bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 228.23(b)(4).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Retail banking products evaluation.</I> The Board evaluates the bank's retail banking products offered in the bank's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<P><I>1. Credit products and programs.</I> The Board evaluates the bank's performance regarding its credit products and programs pursuant to § 228.23(c)(2) and determines whether the bank's performance contributes positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Deposit products.</I> The Board evaluates the bank's performance regarding its deposit products pursuant to § 228.23(c)(3), as applicable, and determines whether the bank's performance contributes positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the combined retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>3. Impact of retail banking products on Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.</I> The bank's retail banking products evaluated pursuant to § 228.23(c) may positively impact the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion. The bank's lack of responsive retail banking products does not adversely affect the bank's Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusion.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Community Development Financing Test conclusions.</I> The Board assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the Board assigns a Community Development Financing Test conclusion and corresponding performance score based on the metric and benchmarks as provided in § 228.24 and a review of the impact and responsiveness of a bank's activities as provided in § 228.15 as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The Board assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for a bank's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution as set forth in paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Community Development Services Test conclusions.</I> The Board assigns Community Development Services Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the Board develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion based on the extent to which a bank provided community development services, considering the factors in § 228.25(b). The Board translates the conclusion for each facility-based assessment area into a numerical performance score as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and the nationwide area, the Board develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The Board calculates a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the performance test conclusions pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part. The resulting number is the Community Development Services Test performance score for a State, multistate MSA, or the institution. Subject to paragraph e.2.ii of this appendix, the Board assigns a Community Development Services Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Community Development Services Test as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the community
<br/>development services test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The Board may adjust upwards the Community Development Services Test conclusion assigned under paragraph e.2.i of this appendix, based on Community Development Services Test activities performed outside of facility-based assessment areas as provided in § 228.19. If there is no upward adjustment, the performance score used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part is the Community Development Services Test performance score discussed in paragraph e.2.i of this appendix. If there is an upward adjustment, the Board translates the Community Development Services Test conclusion into a numerical performance score, which will be used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>f. <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions.</I> The Board assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the Board assigns one of the following Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions based on consideration of the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area over the evaluation period, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in the facility-based assessment area as provided in § 228.15: “Outstanding”; “High Satisfactory”; “Low Satisfactory”; “Needs to Improve”; or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>State or multistate MSA.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), the Board assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's facility-based assessment area performance test conclusions in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P>ii. The dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSAs, as applicable, over the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P>iii. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in the State or multistate MSAs, as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Institution.</I> For the institution, the Board assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>ii. The Board's comparison of the bank's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to both the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark and the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark;
</P>
<P>iii. The Board's comparison of the bank's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark; and
</P>
<P>iv. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in a nationwide area as provided in § 228.15.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Strategic Plan conclusions.</I> The Board assigns conclusions for a bank that operates under an approved plan in facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending areas, State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution. The Board assigns conclusions consistent with the methodology set forth by the bank in its plan. For elements of the plan that correspond to performance tests that would apply to the bank in the absence of an approved plan, the plan should include a conclusion methodology that is generally consistent with paragraphs b through f of this appendix.




</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 228—Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Ratings, in general.</I> In assigning a rating, the Board evaluates a bank's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, pursuant to §§ 228.21 and 228.28. The agency calculates an overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution. The Board assigns a rating of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the bank's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution that is nearest to the overall performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The Board also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 228.28(d) and the bank's past performance pursuant to § 228.28(e).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Large bank ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the Board combines a large bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance under the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 228.25 to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. The Board weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The Board multiplies each of these weights by the bank's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance score.
</P>
<P>2. The Board assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example D-1:</I> A large bank received the following performance scores and conclusions in a State:
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Lending Test, the bank received a 7.3 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “High Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Services and Products Test, the bank received a 6.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Financing Test, the bank received a 5.7 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;” and
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Services Test, the bank received a 3.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Needs to Improve.”
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Lending Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4);
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Services and Products Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1);
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Financing Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4); and
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Services Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1).
</P>
<P><I>State Performance Score:</I> Based on the illustration in this example D-1, the bank's State performance score is 6.1.
</P>
<FP-2>(0.4 weight × 7.3 performance score on the Retail Lending Test = 2.92) + (0.1 weight × 6.0 performance score on the Retail Services and Products Test = 0.6) + (0.4 weight × 5.7 performance score on the Community Development Financing Test = 2.28) + (0.1 weight × 3.0 performance score on the Community Development Services Test = 0.3).
</FP-2>
<P><I>State Rating:</I> A State performance score of 6.1 is greater than 4.5 but less than 8.5, resulting in a rating of “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>c. <I>Intermediate bank ratings.</I> 1. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the Board combines an intermediate bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution performance under the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The Board weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Community Development Financing Test (50 percent). The Board multiplies each of these weights by the bank's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score.
</P>
<P>ii. The Board assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The Board may adjust an intermediate bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 228.30(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2).</I> The Board combines an intermediate bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution conclusions under the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30(a)(2) to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The Board weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Intermediate Bank Community Development Test (50 percent). The Board multiplies each of these weights by the bank's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score. For purposes of this paragraph c.2.i, the performance score for the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test corresponds to the conclusion assigned, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The Board assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The Board may adjust an intermediate bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 228.30(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Small bank ratings.</I> 1. <I>Ratings for small banks that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22.</I> The Board determines a small bank's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Retail Lending Test conclusions for the State, multistate MSA or institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The Board assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. The Board may adjust a small bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 228.29(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ratings for small banks evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test pursuant to § 228.29(a)(2).</I> The Board assigns a rating for small banks evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test pursuant to § 228.29(a)(2) as provided in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Limited purpose banks.</I> The Board determines a limited purpose bank's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or the institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>1. The Board assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, respectively, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. The Board may adjust a limited purpose bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 228.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>f. <I>Ratings for banks operating under an approved strategic plan.</I> The Board evaluates the performance of a bank operating under an approved plan consistent with the rating methodology that is specified in the plan pursuant to § 228.27(g)(6). The Board assigns a rating according to the category assigned under the rating methodology specified in the plan: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>g. <I>Minimum performance test conclusion requirements.</I> 1. <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or a large bank must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion at, respectively, the State, multistate MSA, or institution level to receive an overall State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum of “low satisfactory” overall conclusion for 60 percent of facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> i. Except as provided in § 228.51(e), a large bank with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State, multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State, multistate MSA, or for the institution unless the bank received an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Overall conclusion in facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For purposes of the requirement in paragraph g.2 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>A. The Board calculates an overall conclusion in a facility-based assessment area by combining a large bank's performance scores for its conclusions in the facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 228.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 228.25.
</P>
<P>The Board weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The Board multiplies each of these weights by the bank's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a facility-based assessment area performance score.
</P>
<P>The Board assigns a conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. An overall conclusion in a retail lending assessment area is the retail lending assessment area conclusion assigned pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 as provided in appendix C to this part.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 228—Small Bank and Intermediate Bank Performance Evaluation Conclusions and Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Small banks evaluated under the small bank performance evaluation.</I> 1. <I>Small Bank Lending Test conclusions.</I> Unless a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Board assigns conclusions for a small bank's performance pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 228.29(a)(2) for each facility-based assessment area, in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Small Bank Lending Test conclusion.</I> The Board assigns a small bank's performance pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test a conclusion of “Satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>A. A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, and community development investments;
</P>
<P>B. A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>C. A distribution of retail lending to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>D. A reasonable geographic distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels in the bank's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>E. A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Small Bank Lending Test conclusion.</I> A small bank that meets each of the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion under this paragraph a.1.ii. and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending evaluation conclusion of “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>iii. “<I>Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Small Bank Lending Test conclusions.</I> A small bank may also receive a lending evaluation conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small bank ratings.</I> Unless a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22, the Board determines a small bank's rating for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution based on its Small Bank Lending Test conclusions at the State, multistate MSA, and institution level, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The Board assigns a rating based on the lending evaluation conclusion according to the category of the conclusion assigned: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>ii. The Board may adjust a small bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 228.29(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>iii. The Board also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 228.28(d) and the bank's past performance pursuant to § 228.28(e).
</P>
<P>3. The Board assigns a rating for small banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 228.22 as provided in appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30.</I> Unless an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 228.24, the Board assigns conclusions for an intermediate bank's performance pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 228.30 for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 228.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>1. <I>Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusions.</I> i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The Board assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank demonstrates adequate responsiveness, and a “High Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank demonstrates good responsiveness, to the community development needs of its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The Board assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance an “Outstanding” conclusion if the bank demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>“Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusions.</I> The Board assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance a “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” conclusion depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate bank ratings.</I> The Board rates an intermediate bank's performance as provided in appendix D to this part.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 228—CRA Notice
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank, one branch office in each State.
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Reserve Board (Board) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The Board also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the Federal Reserve Bank of ____(Reserve Bank); and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the Federal Reserve System publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the Reserve Bank for the next two quarters. This list is available from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), or through the Board's website at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), or through the Board's website at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov</I>. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the Federal Reserve System in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the Reserve Bank. You may also request from the Reserve Bank an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the Reserve Bank. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]
</P>
<P>(b) Notice for branch offices.
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Reserve Board (Board) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The Board also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA evaluation, prepared by the Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us: (1) a map showing the assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the Board evaluates our CRA performance in this community; (2) information about our branches in this assessment area; (3) a list of services we provide at those locations; (4) data on our lending performance in this assessment area; and (5) copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire bank is available at (name of office located in state), located at (address).]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the Federal Reserve System publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the Reserve Bank for the next two quarters. This list is available from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), or through the Board's website at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), or through the Board's website at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov</I>. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the Federal Reserve System in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the Reserve Bank. You may also request from the Reserve Bank an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the Reserve Bank. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]




</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.8.7.8.1.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 228—Community Reinvestment Act (Regulation BB)
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The content of this appendix reproduces part 228 implementing the Community Reinvestment Act as of March 31, 2024. Cross-references to CFR parts (as well as to included sections, subparts, and appendices) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix and the CFR as of March 31, 2024.</P></NOTE>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—General</B>


</HD3>
<P><B>§ 228.11 Authority, purposes, and scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) issues this part to implement the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA). The regulations comprising this part are issued under the authority of the CRA and under the provisions of the United States Code authorizing the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) To conduct examinations of State-chartered banks that are members of the Federal Reserve System (12 U.S.C. 325);
</P>
<P>(2) To conduct examinations of bank holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1844) and savings and loan holding companies and their subsidiaries (12 U.S.C. 1467a); and(3) To consider applications for:
</P>
<P>(i) Domestic branches by State member banks (12 U.S.C. 321);
</P>
<P>(ii) Mergers in which the resulting bank would be a State member bank (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(iii) Formations of, acquisitions of banks by, and mergers of, bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(iv) The acquisition of savings associations by bank holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1843); and
</P>
<P>(v) Formations of, acquisitions of savings associations by, conversions of, and mergers of, savings and loan holding companies (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> In enacting the CRA, the Congress required each appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency to assess an institution's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the institution is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the institution. This part is intended to carry out the purposes of the CRA by:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing the framework and criteria by which the Board assesses a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing that the Board takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> This part applies to all banks except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign bank acquisitions.</I> This part also applies to an uninsured State branch (other than a limited branch) of a foreign bank that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)). The terms “State branch” and “foreign bank” have the same meanings as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>); the term “uninsured State branch” means a State branch the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; the term “limited branch” means a State branch that accepts only deposits that are permissible for a corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain special purpose banks.</I> This part does not apply to special purpose banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.12 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term “control” has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA, if a person or geography is located in an MSA, or for the metropolitan division, if a person or geography is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a person or geography is located outside an MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated in accordance with § 228.41.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Automated teller machine (ATM)</I> means an automated, unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, the bank at which deposits are received, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bank</I> means a State member bank as that term is defined in section 3(d)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(d)(2)), except as provided in § 228.11(c)(3), and includes an uninsured State branch (other than a limited branch) of a foreign bank described in § 228.11(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility approved as a branch, whether shared or unshared, including, for example, a mini-branch in a grocery store or a branch operated in conjunction with any other local business or nonprofit organization.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community development</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Affordable housing (including multifamily rental housing) for low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Community services targeted to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) Activities that promote economic development by financing businesses or farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the Small Business Administration's Development Company or Small Business Investment Company programs (13 CFR 121.301) or have gross annual revenues of $1 million or less; or
</P>
<P>(4) Activities that revitalize or stabilize—
</P>
<P>(i) Low-or moderate-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated disaster areas; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income geographies designated by the Board, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, based on—
</P>
<P>(A) Rates of poverty, unemployment, and population loss; or
</P>
<P>(B) Population size, density, and dispersion. Activities revitalize and stabilize geographies designated based on population size, density, and dispersion if they help to meet essential community needs, including needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Community development loan</I> means a loan that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development; and
</P>
<P>(2) Except in the case of a wholesale or limited purpose bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not been reported or collected by the bank or an affiliate for consideration in the bank's assessment as a home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loan, unless the loan is for a multifamily dwelling (as defined in § 1003.2(n) of this title); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefits the bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development service</I> means a service that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development;
</P>
<P>(2) Is related to the provision of financial services; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has not been considered in the evaluation of the bank's retail banking services under § 228.24(d).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures. A consumer loan does not include a home mortgage, small business, or small farm loan. Consumer loans include the following categories of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Motor vehicle loan,</I> which is a consumer loan extended for the purchase of and secured by a motor vehicle;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> which is a line of credit for household, family, or other personal expenditures that is accessed by a borrower's use of a “credit card,” as this term is defined in § 1026.2 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other secured consumer loan,</I> which is a secured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other unsecured consumer loan,</I> which is an unsecured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Geography</I> means a census tract delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census in the most recent decennial census.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit as these terms are defined under § 1003.2 of this title and that is not an excluded transaction under § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) of this title.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Income level</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is less than 50 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is at least 50 and less than 80 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income, or a median family income that is at least 80 and less than 120 percent, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means an individual income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income, or a median family income that is 120 percent or more, in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Limited purpose bank</I> means a bank that offers only a narrow product line (such as credit card or motor vehicle loans) to a regional or broader market and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank is in effect, in accordance with § 228.25(b).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the geography where the borrower resides;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan is located in the geography where the property to which the loan relates is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business or small farm loan is located in the geography where the main business facility or farm is located or where the loan proceeds otherwise will be applied, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Loan production office</I> means a staffed facility, other than a branch, that is open to the public and that provides lending-related services, such as loan information and applications.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Metropolitan division</I> means a metropolitan division as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Qualified investment</I> means a lawful investment, deposit, membership share, or grant that has as its primary purpose community development.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Small bank</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> <I>Small bank</I> means a bank that, as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years, had assets of less than $1.564 billion. <I>Intermediate small bank</I> means a small bank with assets of at least $391 million as of December 31 of both of the prior two calendar years and less than $1.564 billion as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjustment.</I> The dollar figures in paragraph (u)(1) of this section shall be adjusted annually and published by the Board, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each twelve-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Small business loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Small farm loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small farms” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Wholesale bank</I> means a bank that is not in the business of extending home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loans to retail customers, and for which a designation as a wholesale bank is in effect, in accordance with § 228.25(b).


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Standards for Assessing Performance</B>


</HD3>
<P><B>§ 228.21 Performance tests, standards, and ratings, in general.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance tests and standards.</I> The Board assesses the CRA performance of a bank in an examination as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The Board applies the lending, investment, and service tests, as provided in §§ 228.22 through 228.24, in evaluating the performance of a bank, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The Board applies the community development test for a wholesale or limited purpose bank, as provided in § 228.25, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small bank performance standards.</I> The Board applies the small bank performance standards as provided in § 228.26 in evaluating the performance of a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, unless the bank elects to be assessed as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section. The bank may elect to be assessed as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if it collects and reports the data required for other banks under § 228.42.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Strategic plan.</I> The Board evaluates the performance of a bank under a strategic plan if the bank submits, and the Board approves, a strategic plan as provided in § 228.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance context.</I> The Board applies the tests and standards in paragraph (a) of this section and also considers whether to approve a proposed strategic plan in the context of:
</P>
<P>(1) Demographic data on median income levels, distribution of household income, nature of housing stock, housing costs, and other relevant data pertaining to a bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Any information about lending, investment, and service opportunities in the bank's assessment area(s) maintained by the bank or obtained from community organizations, state, local, and tribal governments, economic development agencies, or other sources;
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's product offerings and business strategy as determined from data provided by the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Institutional capacity and constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank, the economic climate (national, regional, and local), safety and soundness limitations, and any other factors that significantly affect the bank's ability to provide lending, investments, or services in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's past performance and the performance of similarly situated lenders;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's public file, as described in § 228.43, and any written comments about the bank's CRA performance submitted to the bank or the Board; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assigned ratings.</I> The Board assigns to a bank one of the following four ratings pursuant to § 228.28 and appendix A of this part: “outstanding”; “satisfactory”; “needs to improve”; or “substantial noncompliance” as provided in 12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2). The rating assigned by the Board reflects the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> This part and the CRA do not require a bank to make loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound operations. To the contrary, the Board anticipates banks can meet the standards of this part with safe and sound loans, investments, and services on which the banks expect to make a profit. Banks are permitted and encouraged to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income geographies or individuals, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a bank under this part, the Board considers, as a factor, low-cost education loans originated by the bank to borrowers, particularly in its assessment area(s), who have an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income. For purposes of this paragraph, “low-cost education loans” means any education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(7)) (including a loan under a state or local education loan program), originated by the bank for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as that term is generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002) and the implementing regulations published by the U.S. Department of Education, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a nonminority-owned and nonwomen-owned bank under this part, the Board considers as a factor capital investment, loan participation, and other ventures undertaken by the bank in cooperation with minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions. Such activities must help meet the credit needs of local communities in which the minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions are chartered. To be considered, such activities need not also benefit the bank's assessment area(s) or the broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.22 Lending test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> (1) The lending test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through its lending activities by considering a bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and community development lending. If consumer lending constitutes a substantial majority of a bank's business, the Board will evaluate the bank's consumer lending in one or more of the following categories: motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured loans. In addition, at a bank's option, the Board will evaluate one or more categories of consumer lending, if the bank has collected and maintained, as required in § 228.42(c)(1), the data for each category that the bank elects to have the Board evaluate.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board considers originations and purchases of loans. The Board will also consider any other loan data the bank may choose to provide, including data on loans outstanding, commitments and letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) A bank may ask the Board to consider loans originated or purchased by consortia in which the bank participates or by third parties in which the bank has invested only if the loans meet the definition of community development loans and only in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. The Board will not consider these loans under any criterion of the lending test except the community development lending criterion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The Board evaluates a bank's lending performance pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending activity.</I> The number and amount of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The geographic distribution of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on the loan location, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The proportion of the bank's lending in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) The dispersion of lending in the bank's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and amount of loans in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower characteristics.</I> The distribution, particularly in the bank's assessment area(s), of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on borrower characteristics, including the number and amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Home mortgage loans to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small business and small farm loans by loan amount at origination; and(iv) Consumer loans, if applicable, to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Community development lending.</I> The bank's community development lending, including the number and amount of community development loans, and their complexity and innovativeness; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Innovative or flexible lending practices.</I> The bank's use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate lending.</I> (1) At a bank's option, the Board will consider loans by an affiliate of the bank, if the bank provides data on the affiliate's loans pursuant to § 228.42.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board considers affiliate lending subject to the following constraints:
</P>
<P>(i) No affiliate may claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another institution claims the same loan origination or purchase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a bank elects to have the Board consider loans within a particular lending category made by one or more of the bank's affiliates in a particular assessment area, the bank shall elect to have the Board consider, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all the loans within that lending category in that particular assessment area made by all of the bank's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board does not consider affiliate lending in assessing a bank's performance under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> Community development loans originated or purchased by a consortium in which the bank participates or by a third party in which the bank has invested:
</P>
<P>(1) Will be considered, at the bank's option, if the bank reports the data pertaining to these loans under § 228.42(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(2) May be allocated among participants or investors, as they choose, for purposes of the lending test, except that no participant or investor:
</P>
<P>(i) May claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination or purchase; or
</P>
<P>(ii) May claim loans accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans originated by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.23 Investment test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The investment test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through qualified investments that benefit its assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion.</I> Activities considered under the lending or service tests may not be considered under the investment test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate investment.</I> At a bank's option, the Board will consider, in its assessment of a bank's investment performance, a qualified investment made by an affiliate of the bank, if the qualified investment is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition of branch premises.</I> Donating, selling on favorable terms, or making available on a rent-free basis a branch of the bank that is located in a predominantly minority neighborhood to a minority depository institution or women's depository institution (as these terms are defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)) will be considered as a qualified investment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The Board evaluates the investment performance of a bank pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The dollar amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness or complexity of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The responsiveness of qualified investments to credit and community development needs; and
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which the qualified investments are not routinely provided by private investors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.24 Service test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The service test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) by analyzing both the availability and effectiveness of a bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of its community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area(s) benefitted.</I> Community development services must benefit a bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate service.</I> At a bank's option, the Board will consider, in its assessment of a bank's service performance, a community development service provided by an affiliate of the bank, if the community development service is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance criteria—retail banking services.</I> The Board evaluates the availability and effectiveness of a bank's systems for delivering retail banking services, pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The current distribution of the bank's branches among low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) In the context of its current distribution of the bank's branches, the bank's record of opening and closing branches, particularly branches located in low- or moderate-income geographies or primarily serving low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) The availability and effectiveness of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> ATMs, ATMs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs) in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(4) The range of services provided in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies and the degree to which the services are tailored to meet the needs of those geographies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria—community development services.</I> The Board evaluates community development services pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness and responsiveness of community development services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance as provided in appendix A of this part.


</P>
<P><B>§ 228.25 Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The Board assesses a wholesale or limited purpose bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under the community development test through its community development lending, qualified investments, or community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank.</I> In order to receive a designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank, a bank shall file a request, in writing, with the Board, at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the Board approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the Board notifies the bank that the Board has revoked the designation on its own initiative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The Board evaluates the community development performance of a wholesale or limited purpose bank pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans (including originations and purchases of loans and other community development loan data provided by the bank, such as data on loans outstanding, commitments, and letters of credit), qualified investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services and the extent to which the investments are not routinely provided by private investors; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indirect activities.</I> At a bank's option, the Board will consider in its community development performance assessment:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified investments or community development services provided by an affiliate of the bank, if the investments or services are not claimed by any other institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Community development lending by affiliates, consortia and third parties, subject to the requirements and limitations in § 228.22(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefit to assessment area(s)</I>—(1) <I>Benefit inside assessment area(s).</I> The Board considers all qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas within the bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit outside assessment area(s).</I> The Board considers the qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas outside the bank's assessment area(s), if the bank has adequately addressed the needs of its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community development performance rating.</I> The Board rates a bank's community development performance as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.26 Small bank performance standards.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance criteria</I>—(1) <I>Small banks that are not intermediate small banks.</I> The Board evaluates the record of a small bank that is not, or that was not during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate small banks.</I> The Board evaluates the record of a small bank that is, or that was during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending test.</I> A small bank's lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities located in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(4) The geographic distribution of the bank's loans; and
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development test.</I> An intermediate small bank's community development performance also is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(2) The number and amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank's responsiveness through such activities to community development lending, investment, and services needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Small bank performance rating.</I> The Board rates the performance of a bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix A of this part.


</P>
<P><B>§ 228.27 Strategic plan.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> The Board will assess a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under a strategic plan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank has submitted the plan to the Board as provided for in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board has approved the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data reporting.</I> The Board's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's obligation, if any, to report data as required by §  228.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of no more than five years, and any multi-year plan must include annual interim measurable goals under which the Board will evaluate the bank's performance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple assessment areas.</I> A bank with more than one assessment area may prepare a single plan for all of its assessment areas or one or more plans for one or more of its assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment of affiliates.</I> Affiliated institutions may prepare a joint plan if the plan provides measurable goals for each institution. Activities may be allocated among institutions at the institutions' option, provided that the same activities are not considered for more than one institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public participation in plan development.</I> Before submitting a plan to the Board for approval, a bank shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public in its assessment area(s) covered by the plan while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Once the bank has developed a plan, formally solicit public comment on the plan for at least 30 days by publishing notice in at least one newspaper of general circulation in each assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) During the period of formal public comment, make copies of the plan available for review by the public at no cost at all offices of the bank in any assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of plan.</I> The bank shall submit its plan to the Board at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank shall also submit with its plan a description of its informal efforts to seek suggestions from members of the public, any written public comment received, and, if the plan was revised in light of the comment received, the initial plan as released for public comment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan content</I>—(1) <I>Measurable goals.</I> (i) A bank shall specify in its plan measurable goals for helping to meet the credit needs of each assessment area covered by the plan, particularly the needs of low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals, through lending, investment, and services, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank shall address in its plan all three performance categories and, unless the bank has been designated as a wholesale or limited purpose bank, shall emphasize lending and lending-related activities. Nevertheless, a different emphasis, including a focus on one or more performance categories, may be appropriate if responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its assessment area(s), considering public comment and the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank may submit additional information to the Board on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the Board to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Satisfactory and outstanding goals.</I> A bank shall specify in its plan measurable goals that constitute “satisfactory” performance. A plan may specify measurable goals that constitute “outstanding” performance. If a bank submits, and the Board approves, both “satisfactory” and “outstanding” performance goals, the Board will consider the bank eligible for an “outstanding” performance rating.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Election if satisfactory goals not substantially met.</I> A bank may elect in its plan that, if the bank fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the Board will evaluate the bank's performance under the lending, investment, and service tests, the community development test, or the small bank performance standards, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan approval</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The Board will act upon a plan within 60 calendar days after the Board receives the complete plan and other material required under paragraph (e) of this section. If the Board fails to act within this time period, the plan shall be deemed approved unless the Board extends the review period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the plan's goals, the Board considers the public's involvement in formulating the plan, written public comment on the plan, and any response by the bank to public comment on the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan.</I> The Board evaluates a plan's measurable goals using the following criteria, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent and breadth of lending or lending-related activities, including, as appropriate, the distribution of loans among different geographies, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, the extent of community development lending, and the use of innovative or flexible lending practices to address credit needs;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and innovativeness, complexity, and responsiveness of the bank's qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability and effectiveness of the bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of the bank's community development services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank may request the Board to approve an amendment to the plan on grounds that there has been a material change in circumstances. The bank shall develop an amendment to a previously approved plan in accordance with the public participation requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan assessment.</I> The Board approves the goals and assesses performance under a plan as provided for in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.28 Assigned ratings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the Board assigns to a bank a rating of “outstanding,” “satisfactory,” “needs to improve,” or “substantial noncompliance” based on the bank's performance under the lending, investment and service tests, the community development test, the small bank performance standards, or an approved strategic plan, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The Board assigns a rating for a bank assessed under the lending, investment, and service tests in accordance with the following principles:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on the lending test receives an assigned rating of at least “satisfactory”;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on both the service test and the investment test and a rating of at least “high satisfactory” on the lending test receives an assigned rating of “outstanding”; and
</P>
<P>(3) No bank may receive an assigned rating of “satisfactory” or higher unless it receives a rating of at least “low satisfactory” on the lending test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> (1) The Board's evaluation of a bank's CRA performance is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices in any geography by the bank or in any assessment area by any affiliate whose loans have been considered as part of the bank's lending performance. In connection with any type of lending activity described in § 228.22(a), evidence of discriminatory or other credit practices that violate an applicable law, rule, or regulation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination against applicants on a prohibited basis in violation, for example, of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act or the Fair Housing Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act provisions regarding a consumer's right of rescission.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining the effect of evidence of practices described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section on the bank's assigned rating, the Board considers the nature, extent, and strength of the evidence of the practices; the policies and procedures that the bank (or affiliate, as applicable) has in place to prevent the practices; any corrective action that the bank (or affiliate, as applicable) has taken or has committed to take, including voluntary corrective action resulting from self-assessment; and any other relevant information.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.29 Effect of CRA performance on applications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the Board takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of:
</P>
<P>(1) Each applicant bank for the:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishment of a domestic branch by a State member bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Merger, consolidation, acquisition of assets, or assumption of liabilities requiring approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) if the acquiring, assuming, or resulting bank is to be a State member bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813) controlled by an applicant and subsidiary bank or savings association proposed to be controlled by an applicant:
</P>
<P>(i) To become a bank holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(ii) To acquire ownership or control of shares or all or substantially all of the assets of a bank, to cause a bank to become a subsidiary of a bank holding company, or to merge or consolidate a bank holding company with any other bank holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(iii) To own, control or operate a savings association in a transaction that requires approval under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843);
</P>
<P>(iv) To become a savings and loan holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a); and
</P>
<P>(v) To acquire ownership or control of shares or all or substantially all of the assets of a savings association, to cause a savings association to become a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company, or to merge or consolidate a savings and loan holding company with any other savings and loan holding company in a transaction that requires approval under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interested parties.</I> In considering CRA performance in an application described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure set forth in part 262 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank or savings association's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a)(2)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section, “bank,” “bank holding company,” “subsidiary,” and “savings association” have the meanings given to those terms in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841). For purposes of paragraphs (a)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section, “savings and loan holding company” and “subsidiary” has the meaning given to that term in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart C—Records, Reporting, and Disclosure Requirements</B>


</HD3>
<P><B>§ 228.41 Assessment area delineation.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank shall delineate one or more assessment areas within which the Board evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community. The Board does not evaluate the bank's delineation of its assessment area(s) as a separate performance criterion, but the Board reviews the delineation for compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic area(s) for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The assessment area(s) for a wholesale or limited purpose bank must consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns, in which the bank has its main office, branches, and deposit-taking ATMs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Geographic area(s) for other banks.</I> The assessment area(s) for a bank other than a wholesale or limited purpose bank must:
</P>
<P>(1) Consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include the geographies in which the bank has its main office, its branches, and its deposit-taking ATMs, as well as the surrounding geographies in which the bank has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, small business and small farm loans, and any other loans the bank chooses, such as those consumer loans on which the bank elects to have its performance assessed).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustments to geographic area(s).</I> A bank may adjust the boundaries of its assessment area(s) to include only the portion of a political subdivision that it reasonably can be expected to serve. An adjustment is particularly appropriate in the case of an assessment area that otherwise would be extremely large, of unusual configuration, or divided by significant geographic barriers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on the delineation of an assessment area.</I> Each bank's assessment area(s):
</P>
<P>(1) Must consist only of whole geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) May not reflect illegal discrimination;
</P>
<P>(3) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income geographies, taking into account the bank's size and financial condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) May not extend substantially beyond an MSA boundary or beyond a state boundary unless the assessment area is located in a multistate MSA. If a bank serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond a state boundary, the bank shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas in each state. If a bank serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond an MSA boundary, the bank shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas inside and outside the MSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Banks serving military personnel.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents who are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate its entire deposit customer base as its assessment area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of assessment area(s).</I> The Board uses the assessment area(s) delineated by a bank in its evaluation of the bank's CRA performance unless the Board determines that the assessment area(s) do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.42 Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Loan information required to be collected and maintained.</I> A bank, except a small bank, shall collect, and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the Board) until the completion of its next CRA examination, the following data for each small business or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank:
</P>
<P>(1) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(2) The loan amount at origination;
</P>
<P>(3) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(4) An indicator whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan information required to be reported.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall report annually by March 1 to the Board in machine readable form (as prescribed by the Board) the following data for the prior calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Small business and small farm loan data.</I> For each geography in which the bank originated or purchased a small business or small farm loan, the aggregate number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With amount at origination of more than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of more than $250,000; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less (using the revenues that the bank considered in making its credit decision);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loan data.</I> The aggregate number and aggregate amount of community development loans originated or purchased; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> If the bank is subject to reporting under part 1003 of this chapter, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) in accordance with the requirements of part 1003 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional data collection and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Consumer loans.</I> A bank may collect and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the Board) data for consumer loans originated or purchased by the bank for consideration under the lending test. A bank may maintain data for one or more of the following categories of consumer loans: motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured. If the bank maintains data for loans in a certain category, it shall maintain data for all loans originated or purchased within that category. The bank shall maintain data separately for each category, including for each loan:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iii) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The gross annual income of the borrower that the bank considered in making its credit decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other loan data.</I> At its option, a bank may provide other information concerning its lending performance, including additional loan distribution data.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on affiliate lending.</I> A bank that elects to have the Board consider loans by an affiliate, for purposes of the lending or community development test or an approved strategic plan, shall collect, maintain, and report for those loans the data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank. For home mortgage loans, the bank shall also be prepared to identify the home mortgage loans reported under part 1003 of this chapter by the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank that elects to have the Board consider community development loans by a consortium or third party, for purposes of the lending or community development tests or an approved strategic plan, shall report for those loans the data that the bank would have reported under paragraph (b)(2) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Small banks electing evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests.</I> A bank that qualifies for evaluation under the small bank performance standards but elects evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests shall collect, maintain, and report the data required for other banks pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assessment area data.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall collect and report to the Board by March 1 of each year a list for each assessment area showing the geographies within the area.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The Board prepares annually for each bank that reports data pursuant to this section a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a state-by-state basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography according to whether the geography is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in geographies with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography in the county or assessment area according to whether the median income in the geography relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans located inside each assessment area reported by the bank and the number and amount of small business and small farm loans located outside the assessment area(s) reported by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and amount of community development loans reported as originated or purchased.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The Board, in conjunction with the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a state boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each state, an aggregate disclosure statement of small business and small farm lending by all institutions subject to reporting under this part or parts 25, 195, or 345 of this title. These disclosure statements indicate, for each geography, the number and amount of all small business and small farm loans originated or purchased by reporting institutions, except that the Board may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of an institution.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Central data depositories.</I> The Board makes the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (i) of this section, and the individual bank CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available to the public at central data depositories. The Board publishes a list of the depositories at which the statements are available.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.43 Content and availability of public file.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank shall maintain a public file that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation prepared by the Board. The bank shall place this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the Board;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's branches, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank during the current year and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. At its option, a bank may include information regarding the availability of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> ATMs, ATMs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the geographies contained within the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks other than small banks.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall include in its public file the following information pertaining to the bank and its affiliates, if applicable, for each of the prior two calendar years:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank has elected to have one or more categories of its consumer loans considered under the lending test, for each of these categories, the number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(A) To low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) Located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Located inside the bank's assessment area(s) and outside the bank's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's CRA Disclosure Statement. The bank shall place the statement in the public file within three business days of its receipt from the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks required to report Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data.</I> A bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant part 1003 of this title shall include in its public file a written notice that the institution's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (Bureau's) website at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>. In addition, a bank that elected to have the Board consider the mortgage lending of an affiliate shall include in its public file the name of the affiliate and a written notice that the affiliate's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained at the Bureau's website. The bank shall place the written notice(s) in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council of the availability of the disclosure statement(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks.</I> A small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year shall include in its public file:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The information required for other banks by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the bank has elected to be evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks with strategic plans.</I> A bank that has been approved to be assessed under a strategic plan shall include in its public file a copy of that plan. A bank need not include information submitted to the Board on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks with less than satisfactory ratings.</I> A bank that received a less than satisfactory rating during its most recent examination shall include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank shall update the description quarterly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank shall make available to the public for inspection upon request and at no cost the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At the main office and, if an interstate bank, at one branch office in each state, all information in the public file; and
</P>
<P>(2) At each branch:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information in the public file relating to the assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank shall provide copies, either on paper or in another form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Updating.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank shall ensure that the information required by this section is current as of April 1 of each year.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.44 Public notice by banks.</B>
</P>
<P>A bank shall provide in the public lobby of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in appendix B of this part. Only a branch of a bank having more than one assessment area shall include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only a bank that is an affiliate of a holding company shall include the next to the last sentence of the notices. A bank shall include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional banks.




</P>
<P><B>§ 228.45 Publication of planned examination schedule.</B>
</P>
<P>The Board publishes at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter a list of banks scheduled for CRA examinations in that quarter.




</P>
<HD1>Appendix A to Part 228—Ratings
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> (1) In assigning a rating, the Board evaluates a bank's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, in accordance with §§ 228.21 and 228.28. This includes consideration of low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers and activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions, as well as adjustments on the basis of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank's performance need not fit each aspect of a particular rating profile in order to receive that rating, and exceptionally strong performance with respect to some aspects may compensate for weak performance in others. The bank's overall performance, however, must be consistent with safe and sound banking practices and generally with the appropriate rating profile as follows.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banks evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests</I>—(1) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The Board assigns each bank's lending performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Excellent responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A substantial majority of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An excellent geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An excellent distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) An excellent record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Extensive use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It is a leader in making community development loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Good responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A high percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A good geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A good distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A good record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a relatively high level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) An adequate percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An adequate geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) An adequate record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Limited use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made an adequate level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Little use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a low level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The Board rates a bank's lending performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A very poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A very small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A very poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A very poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A very poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) No use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made few, if any, community development loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The Board assigns each bank's investment performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An excellent level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, often in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A significant level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, occasionally in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Significant use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Good responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An adequate level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, although rarely in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A poor level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The Board rates a bank's investment performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Few, if any, qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The Board assigns each bank's service performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance “outstanding” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are readily accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has improved the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) are tailored to the convenience and needs of its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It is a leader in providing community development services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a relatively high level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are reasonably accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has generally not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides an adequate level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance “needs to improve” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has adversely affected the accessibility its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a limited level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The Board rates a bank's service performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to significant portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has significantly adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that significantly inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides few, if any, community development services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The Board assigns each wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance one of the four following ratings.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outstanding.</I> The Board rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A high level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfactory.</I> The Board rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance “satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) An adequate level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The Board rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance as “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A poor level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The Board rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) Few, if any, community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Banks evaluated under the small bank performance standards</I>—(1) <I>Lending test ratings.</I> (i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory lending test rating.</I> The Board rates a small bank's lending performance “satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its assessment area(s), and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets and community development loans and qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(B) A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its assessment area;
</P>
<P>(C) A distribution of loans to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(E) A reasonable geographic distribution of loans given the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an “outstanding” lending test rating.</I> A small bank that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under this paragraph and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending test rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> A small bank may also receive a lending test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test ratings for intermediate small banks</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory community development test rating.</I> The Board rates an intermediate small bank's community development performance “satisfactory” if the bank demonstrates adequate responsiveness to the community development needs of its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, its assessment area's need for such community development activities, and the availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding community development test rating.</I> The Board rates an intermediate small bank's community development performance “outstanding” if the bank demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services, as appropriate, considering the bank's capacity and the need and availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> An intermediate small bank may also receive a community development test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overall rating</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory overall rating.</I> No intermediate small bank may receive an assigned overall rating of “satisfactory” unless it receives a rating of at least “satisfactory” on both the lending test and the community development test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding overall rating.</I> (A) An intermediate small bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on one test and at least “satisfactory” on the other test may receive an assigned overall rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(B) A small bank that is not an intermediate small bank that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under the lending test and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for an overall rating of “outstanding.” In assessing whether a bank's performance is “outstanding,” the Board considers the extent to which the bank exceeds each of the performance standards for a “satisfactory” rating and its performance in making qualified investments and its performance in providing branches and other services and delivery systems that enhance credit availability in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance overall ratings.</I> A small bank may also receive a rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Strategic plan assessment and rating</I>—(1) <I>Satisfactory goals.</I> The Board approves as “satisfactory” measurable goals that adequately help to meet the credit needs of the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outstanding goals.</I> If the plan identifies a separate group of measurable goals that substantially exceed the levels approved as “satisfactory,” the Board will approve those goals as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rating.</I> The Board assesses the performance of a bank operating under an approved plan to determine if the bank has met its plan goals:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank substantially achieves its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the Board will rate the bank's performance under the plan as “satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank exceeds its plan goals for a satisfactory rating and substantially achieves its plan goals for an outstanding rating, the Board will rate the bank's performance under the plan as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If the bank fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the Board will rate the bank as either “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance,” depending on the extent to which it falls short of its plan goals, unless the bank elected in its plan to be rated otherwise, as provided in § 228.27(f)(4).




</P>
<HD1>Appendix B to Part 228—CRA Notice
</HD1>
<P>(a) Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank, one branch office in each state.
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Reserve Board (Board) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The Board also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the Federal Reserve Bank of ____(Reserve Bank); and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the Federal Reserve System publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the Reserve Bank in that quarter. This list is available from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address). Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the Federal Reserve System in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the Reserve Bank. You may also request from the Reserve Bank an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the Reserve Bank. We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) Notice for branch offices.


</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Reserve Board (Board) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The Board also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA evaluation, prepared by the Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address), and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us: (1) a map showing the assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the Board evaluates our CRA performance in this community; (2) information about our branches in this assessment area; (3) a list of services we provide at those locations; (4) data on our lending performance in this assessment area; and (5) copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire bank is available at (name of office located in state), located at (address).]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the Federal Reserve System publishes a list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination by the Reserve Bank in that quarter. This list is available from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address). Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the Federal Reserve System in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the Reserve Bank. You may also request from the Reserve Bank an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the Reserve Bank. We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ____(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. BB, 89 FR 7193, Feb. 1, 2024, as amended at 89 FR 22068, Mar. 29, 2024]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7193, Feb. 1, 2024, appendix G to part 228 was added, effective Apr. 1, 2024, through Jan. 1, 2031.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="229" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 229—AVAILABILITY OF FUNDS AND COLLECTION OF CHECKS (REGULATION CC)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4001-4010, 12 U.S.C. 5001-5018.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.1" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.1.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.1   Authority and purpose; organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) to implement the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001-4010) (EFA Act) and the Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (12 U.S.C. 5001-5018) (Check 21 Act).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint authority of the Bureau.</I> The Board issues regulations under Sections 603(d)(1), 604, 605, and 609(a) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(d)(1), 4003, 4004, 4008(a)) jointly with the Director of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organization.</I> This part is divided into subparts and appendices as follows— 
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A contains general information. It sets forth— 
</P>
<P>(i) The authority, purpose, and organization; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Definition of terms; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Authority for administrative enforcement of this part's provisions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B of this part contains rules regarding the duty of banks to make funds deposited into accounts available for withdrawal, including availability schedules. Subpart B of this part also contains rules regarding exceptions to the schedules, disclosure of funds availability policies, payment of interest, liability of banks for failure to comply with subpart B of this part, and other matters.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C of this part contains rules to expedite the collection and return of checks and electronic checks by banks. These rules cover the direct return of checks and electronic checks, the manner in which the paying bank and returning banks must return checks and electronic checks to the depositary bank, notification of nonpayment by the paying bank, indorsement and presentment of checks and electronic checks, same-day settlement for certain checks, the liability of banks for failure to comply with subpart C of this part, and other matters.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D of this part contains rules relating to substitute checks. These rules address the creation and legal status of substitute checks; the substitute check warranties and indemnity; expedited recredit procedures for resolving improper charges and warranty claims associated with substitute checks provided to consumers; and the disclosure and notices that banks must provide.
</P>
<P>(5) Appendix A of this part contains a routing number guide to next day-availability checks. The guide lists the routing numbers of checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks, and U.S. Treasury checks and Postal money orders that are subject to next-day availability.
</P>
<P>(6) Appendix B of this part is reserved.
</P>
<P>(7) Appendix C of this part contains model funds-availability policy disclosures, clauses, and notices and a model disclosure and notices related to substitute-check policies.
</P>
<P>(8) Appendix D of this part is reserved.
</P>
<P>(9) Appendix E of this part contains Board interpretations, which are labeled

“Commentary,” of the provisions of this part. The Commentary provides background material to explain the Board's intent in adopting a particular part of the regulation and provides examples to aid in understanding how a particular requirement is to work. The Commentary is an official Board interpretation under section 611(e) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4010(e)).
</P>
<P>(10) Appendix F of this part contains the Board's determinations of the EFA Act and Regulation CC's preemption of state laws that were in effect on September 1, 1989.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 36598, Aug. 14, 1992; 57 FR 46972, Oct. 14, 1992; Reg. CC, 60 FR 51670, Oct. 3, 1995; 69 FR 47309, Aug. 4, 2004; 82 FR 27578, June 15, 2017; 84 FR 31695, July 3, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.2" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.1.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, and unless the context requires otherwise, the following terms have the meanings set forth in this section, and the terms not defined in this section have the meanings set forth in the Uniform Commercial Code: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, <I>account</I> means a deposit as defined in 12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(i) that is a transaction account as described in 12 CFR 204.2(e). As defined in these sections, <I>account</I> generally includes accounts at a bank from which the account holder is permitted to make transfers or withdrawals by negotiable or transferable instrument, payment order of withdrawal, telephone transfer, electronic payment, or other similar means for the purpose of making payments or transfers to third persons or others. <I>Account</I> also includes accounts at a bank from which the account holder may make third party payments at an ATM, remote service unit, or other electronic device, including by debit card, but the term does not include savings deposits or accounts described in 12 CFR 204.2(d)(2) even though such accounts permit third party transfers. An account may be in the form of— 
</P>
<P>(i) A demand deposit account, 
</P>
<P>(ii) A negotiable order of withdrawal account, 
</P>
<P>(iii) A share draft account, 
</P>
<P>(iv) An automatic transfer account, or 
</P>
<P>(v) Any other transaction account described in 12 CFR 204.2(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of subpart B of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, <I>account</I> does not include an account where the account holder is a bank, where the account holder is an office of an institution described in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(6) of this section or an office of a “foreign bank” as defined in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3101) that is located outside the United States, or where the direct or indirect account holder is the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of subpart D of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, <I>account</I> means any deposit, as defined in 12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(i), at a bank, including a demand deposit or other transaction account and a savings deposit or other time deposit, as those terms are defined in 12 CFR 204.2. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automated clearinghouse</I> or <I>ACH</I> means a facility that processes debit and credit transfers under rules established by a Federal Reserve Bank operating circular on automated clearinghouse items or under rules of an automated clearinghouse association. 


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Automated teller machine</I> or <I>ATM</I> means an electronic device located in the United States at which a natural person may make deposits to an account by cash or check and perform other account transactions.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Available for withdrawal</I> with respect to funds deposited means available for all uses generally permitted to the customer for actually and finally collected funds under the bank's account agreement or policies, such as for payment of checks drawn on the account, certification of checks drawn on the account, electronic payments, withdrawals by cash, and transfers between accounts. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bank</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>insured bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 18I3) or a bank that is eligible to apply to become an insured bank under section 5 of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1815); 
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>mutual savings bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813); 
</P>
<P>(3) A <I>savings bank</I> as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813); 
</P>
<P>(4) An <I>insured credit union</I> as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752) or a credit union that is eligible to make application to become an insured credit union under section 201 of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1781); 
</P>
<P>(5) A <I>member</I> as defined in section 2 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422); 
</P>
<P>(6) A <I>savings association</I> as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813) that is an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) or that is eligible to apply to become an insured depository institution under section 5 of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1815); or
</P>
<P>(7) An <I>agency</I> or a <I>branch</I> of a <I>foreign bank</I> as defined in section l(b) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3101). 
</P>
<FP>For purposes of subparts C and D of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, the term <I>bank</I> also includes any person engaged in the business of banking, as well as a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal Home Loan Bank, and a state or unit of general local government to the extent that the state or unit of general local government acts as a paying bank. Unless otherwise specified, the term <I>bank</I> includes all of a bank's offices in the United States, but not offices located outside the United States. 
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For purposes of subpart D of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, <I>bank</I> also includes the Treasury of the United States or the United States Postal Service to the extent that the Treasury or the Postal Service acts as a paying bank.</P></NOTE>
<P>(f) <I>Banking day</I> means that part of any business day on which an office of a bank is open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its banking functions. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Business day</I> means a calendar day other than a Saturday or a Sunday, January 1, the third Monday in January, the third Monday in February, the last Monday in May, July 4, the first Monday in September, the second Monday in October, November 11, the fourth Thursday in November, or December 25. If January 1, July 4, November 11, or December 25 fall on a Sunday, the next Monday is not a business day. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Cash</I> means United States coins and currency. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cashier's check</I> means a check that is— 
</P>
<P>(1) Drawn on a bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) Signed by an officer or employee of the bank on behalf of the bank as drawer; 
</P>
<P>(3) A direct obligation of the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Provided to a customer of the bank or acquired from the bank for remittance purposes. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Certified check</I> means a check with respect to which the drawee bank certifies by signature on the check of an officer or other authorized employee of the bank that— 
</P>
<P>(1) (i) The signature of the drawer on the check is genuine; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank has set aside funds that— 
</P>
<P>(A) Are equal to the amount of the check, and 
</P>
<P>(B) Will be used to pay the check; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank will pay the check upon presentment. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Check</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) A negotiable demand draft drawn on or payable through or at an office of a bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) A negotiable demand draft drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or a Federal Home Loan Bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) A negotiable demand draft drawn on the Treasury of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(4) A demand draft drawn on a state government or unit of general local government that is not payable through or at a bank; 
</P>
<P>(5) A United States Postal Service money order; or 
</P>
<P>(6) A traveler's check drawn on or payable through or at a bank. 
</P>
<P>(7) The term check includes an original check and a substitute check. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The term <I>check</I> does not include a noncash item or an item payable in a medium other than United States money. A draft may be a <I>check</I> even though it is described on its face by another term, such as <I>money order.</I> For purposes of subparts C and D, and in connection therewith, subpart A, of this part, the term <I>check</I> also includes a demand draft of the type described above that is nonnegotiable.</P></NOTE>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Check processing region</I> means the geographical area served by an office of a Federal Reserve Bank for purposes of its check processing activities. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Consumer account</I> means any account used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Depositary bank</I> means the first bank to which a check is transferred even though it is also the paying bank or the payee. A check deposited in an account is deemed to be transferred to the bank holding the account into which the check is deposited, even though the check is physically received and indorsed first by another bank. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Electronic payment</I> means a wire transfer or an ACH credit transfer. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Forward collection</I> means the process by which a bank sends a check on a cash basis to a collecting bank for settlement or to the paying bank for payment. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Local check</I> means a check payable by or at a local paying bank, or a check payable by a nonbank payor and payable through a local paying bank. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Local paying bank</I> means a paying bank that is located in the same check-processing region as the physical location of the branch, contractual branch, or proprietary ATM of the depositary bank in which that check was deposited. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Merger transaction</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) A merger or consolidation of two or more banks; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The transfer of substantially all of the assets of one or more banks or branches to another bank in consideration of the assumption by the acquiring bank of substantially all of the liabilities of the transferring banks, including the deposit liabilities. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Noncash item</I> means an item that would otherwise be a check, except that— 
</P>
<P>(1) A passbook, certificate, or other document is attached; 
</P>
<P>(2) It is accompanied by special instructions, such as a request for special advice of payment or dishonor; 
</P>
<P>(3) It consists of more than a single thickness of paper, except a check that qualifies for handling by automated check processing equipment; or 
</P>
<P>(4) It has not been preprinted or post-encoded in magnetic ink with the routing number of the paying bank. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Nonlocal check</I> means a check payable by, through, or at a nonlocal paying bank. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Nonlocal paying bank</I> means a paying bank that is not a local paying bank with respect to the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Nonproprietary ATM</I> means an ATM that is not a proprietary ATM. 
</P>
<P>(y) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Paying bank</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) The bank by which a check is payable, unless the check is payable at another bank and is sent to the other bank for payment or collection; 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank at which a check is payable and to which it is sent for payment or collection; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Home Loan Bank by which a check is payable; 
</P>
<P>(4) The bank through which a check is payable and to which it is sent for payment or collection, if the check is not payable by a bank; or 
</P>
<P>(5) The state or unit of general local government on which a check is drawn and to which it is sent for payment or collection. 
</P>
<FP>For purposes of subparts C and D, and in connection therewith, subpart A, <I>paying bank</I> includes the bank through which a check is payable and to which the check is sent for payment or collection, regardless of whether the check is payable by another bank, and the bank whose routing number appears on a check in fractional or magnetic form and to which the check is sent for payment or collection.
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>For purposes of subpart D of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, <I>paying bank</I> also includes the Treasury of the United States or the United States Postal Service for a check that is payable by that entity and that is sent to that entity for payment or collection.</P></NOTE>
<P>(aa) <I>Proprietary ATM</I> means an ATM that is— 
</P>
<P>(1) Owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, the depositary bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) Located on the premises (including the outside wall) of the depositary bank; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Located within 50 feet of the premises of the depositary bank, and not identified as being owned or operated by another entity. 
</P>
<P>If more than one bank meets the owned or operated criterion of paragraph (aa)(1) of this section, the ATM is considered proprietary to the bank that operates it. 
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Qualified returned check</I> means a returned check that is prepared for automated return to the depositary bank by placing the check in a carrier envelope or placing a strip on the check and encoding the strip or envelope in magnetic ink. A qualified returned check need not contain other elements of a check drawn on the depositary bank, such as the name of the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Returning bank</I> means a bank (other than the paying or depositary bank) handling a returned check or notice in lieu of return. A returning bank is also a collecting bank for purposes of UCC 4-202(b).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Routing number</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The number printed on the face of a check in fractional form on in nine-digit form;
</P>
<P>(2) The number in a bank's indorsement in fractional or nine-digit form; or
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of subpart C and subpart D, the bank-identification number contained in an electronic check or electronic returned check.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Similarly situated bank</I> means a bank of similar size, located in the same community, and with similar check handling activities as the paying bank or returning bank. 


</P>
<P>(ff) <I>State</I> means a state, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, or the U.S. Virgin Islands. For purposes of subpart D of this part and, in connection therewith, this subpart A, <I>state</I> also means the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands and any other territory of the United States.


</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Teller's check</I> means a check provided to a customer of a bank or acquired from a bank for remittance purposes, that is drawn by the bank, and drawn on another bank or payable through or at a bank. 
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Traveler's check</I> means an instrument for the payment of money that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Is drawn on or payable through or at a bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is designated on its face by the term <I>traveler's check</I> or by any substantially similar term or is commonly known and marketed as a traveler's check by a corporation or bank that is an issuer of traveler's checks; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provides for a specimen signature of the purchaser to be completed at the time of purchase; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Provides for a countersignature of the purchaser to be completed at the time of negotiation. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Uniform Commercial Code, Code,</I> or <I>U.C.C.</I> means the Uniform Commercial Code as adopted in a state. 


</P>
<P>(jj) <I>United States</I> means the states, including the District of Columbia, the U.S. Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, and Puerto Rico.


</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Unit of general local government</I> means any city, county, parish, town, township, village, or other general purpose political subdivision of a state. The term does not include special purpose units of government, such as school districts or water districts. 
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Wire transfer</I> means an unconditional order to a bank to pay a fixed or determinable amount of money to a beneficiary upon receipt or on a day stated in the order, that is transmitted by electronic or other means through Fedwire, the Clearing House Interbank Payments System, other similar network, between banks, or on the books of a bank. <I>Wire transfer</I> does not include an electronic fund transfer as defined in section 903(6) of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693a(6)).
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Fedwire</I> has the same meaning as that set forth in § 210.26(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Good faith</I> means honesty in fact and observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing.
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Interest compensation</I> means an amount of money calculated at the average of the Federal Funds rates published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York for each of the days for which interest compensation is payable, divided by 360. The Federal Funds rate for any day on which a published rate is not available is the same as the published rate for the last preceding day for which there is a published rate.
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Contractual branch,</I> with respect to a bank, means a branch of another bank that accepts a deposit on behalf of the first bank. 
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>Claimant bank</I> means a bank that submits a claim for a recredit for a substitute check to an indemnifying bank under § 229.55.
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>Collecting bank</I> means any bank handling a check for forward collection, except the paying bank.
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Consumer</I> means a natural person who—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a check handled for forward collection, draws the check on a consumer account; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a check handled for return, deposits the check into or cashes the check against a consumer account.
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Customer</I> means a person having an account with a bank.
</P>
<P>(uu) <I>Indemnifying bank.</I> Indemnifying bank means—
</P>
<P>(1) For the purposes of § 229.34, a bank that provides an indemnity under § 229.34 with respect to remote deposit capture or an electronically-created item, or
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of § 229.53, a bank that provides an indemnity under § 229.53 with respect to a substitute check.
</P>
<P>(vv) <I>Magnetic ink character recognition line</I> and <I>MICR line</I> mean the numbers, which may include the routing number, account number, check number, check amount, and other information, that are (unless the Board by rule or order determines that different standards apply)—
</P>
<P>(1) Printed near the bottom of a check in magnetic ink in accordance with American National Standard Specifications for Placement and Location of MICR Printing, X9.13 (hereinafter ANS X9.13) for an original check and American National Standard Specifications for an Image Replacement Document— IRD, X9.100-140 (hereinafter ANS X9.100-140) for a substitute check, or
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of subpart C and subpart D, contained in a record specified for MICR line data in an electronic check or electronic returned check in accordance with American National Standard Specifications for Electronic Exchange of Check Image Data—Domestic, X9.100-187 (hereinafter ANS X9.100—187).
</P>
<P>(ww) <I>Original check</I> means the first paper check issued with respect to a particular payment transaction.
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Paper or electronic representation of a substitute check</I> means any copy of or information related to a substitute check that a bank handles for forward collection or return, charges to a customer's account, or provides to a person as a record of a check payment made by the person.
</P>
<P>(yy) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, unincorporated company, partnership, government unit or instrumentality, trust, or any other entity or organization.
</P>
<P>(zz) <I>Reconverting bank</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank that creates a substitute check; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a substitute check that was created by a person that is not a bank, the first bank that transfers, presents, or returns that substitute check or, in lieu thereof, the first paper or electronic representation of that substitute check.
</P>
<P>(aaa) <I>Substitute check</I> means a paper reproduction of an original check that—
</P>
<P>(1) Contains an image of the front and back of the original check;
</P>
<P>(2) Bears a MICR line that, except as provided under ANS X9.100-140 (unless the Board by rule or order determines that a different standard applies), contains all the information appearing on the MICR line of the original check at the time that the original check was issued and any additional information that was encoded on the original check's MICR line before an image of the original check was captured;
</P>
<P>(3) Conforms in paper stock, dimension, and otherwise with ANS X9.100-140 (unless the Board by rule or order determines that a different standard applies); and
</P>
<P>(4) Is suitable for automated processing in the same manner as the original check.
</P>
<P>(bbb) <I>Copy and sufficient copy.</I> (1) A <I>copy of an original check</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any paper reproduction of an original check, including a paper printout of an electronic image of the check, a photocopy of the original check, or a substitute check; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any electronic reproduction of a check that a recipient has agreed to receive from the sender instead of a paper reproduction.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>sufficient copy</I> is a copy of an original check that accurately represents all of the information on the front and back of the original check as of the time the original check was truncated or is otherwise sufficient to determine whether or not a claim is valid.
</P>
<P>(ccc) <I>Transfer and consideration.</I> The terms <I>transfer</I> and <I>consideration</I> have the meanings set forth in the Uniform Commercial Code and in addition, for purposes of subpart D—
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>transfer</I> with respect to a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check means delivery of the substitute check or other representation of the substitute check by a bank to a person other than a bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that transfers a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check directly to a person other than a bank has received <I>consideration</I> for the substitute check or other paper or electronic representation of the substitute check if it has charged, or has the right to charge, the person's account or otherwise has received value for the original check, a substitute check, or a representation of the original check or substitute check.
</P>
<P>(ddd) <I>Truncate</I> means to remove an original check from the forward collection or return process and send to a recipient, in lieu of such original check, a substitute check or, by agreement, information relating to the original check (including data taken from the MICR line of the original check or an electronic image of the original check), whether with or without the subsequent delivery of the original check.
</P>
<P>(eee) <I>Truncating bank</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank that truncates the original check; or
</P>
<P>(2) If a person other than a bank truncates the original check, the first bank that transfers, presents, or returns, in lieu of such original check, a substitute check or, by agreement with the recipient, information relating to the original check (including data taken from the MICR line of the original check or an electronic image of the original check), whether with or without the subsequent delivery of the original check.
</P>
<P>(fff) <I>Remotely created check</I> means a check that is not created by the paying bank and that does not bear a signature applied, or purported to be applied, by the person on whose account the check is drawn. For purposes of this definition, “account” means an account as defined in paragraph (a) of this section as well as a credit or other arrangement that allows a person to draw checks that are payable by, through, or at a bank.
</P>
<P>(ggg) <I>Electronic check</I> and <I>electronic returned check</I> mean an electronic image of, and electronic information derived from, a paper check or paper returned check, respectively,

that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is sent to a receiving bank pursuant to an agreement between the sender and the receiving bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Conforms with ANS X9.100-187, unless the Board by rule or order determines that a different standard applies or the parties otherwise agree.
</P>
<P>(hhh) <I>Electronically-created item</I> means an electronic image that has all the attributes of an electronic check or electronic returned check but was created electronically and not derived from a paper check.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 31292, Aug. 18, 1988; 53 FR 44324, Nov. 2, 1988; Reg. CC, 54 FR 13850, Apr. 6, 1989; 57 FR 46972, Oct. 14, 1992; 58 FR 2, Jan. 4, 1993; 60 FR 51670, Oct. 3, 1995; 62 FR 13809, Mar. 24, 1997; 69 FR 47309, 47310, Aug. 4, 2004; 70 FR 71225, Nov. 28, 2005; 82 FR 27578, June 15, 2017; 84 FR 31696, July 3, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.3" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.1.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.3   Administrative enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement agencies.</I> Compliance with this part is enforced under—
</P>
<P>(1) Section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818 <I>et seq.</I>) in the case of—
</P>
<P>(i) National banks, and Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks, by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks), and offices, branches, and agencies of foreign banks located in the United States (other than Federal branches, Federal agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Banks insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (other than members of the Federal Reserve System) and insured State branches of foreign banks, by the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, by the Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision in the case of savings associations the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>) by the National Credit Union Administration Board with respect to any federal credit union or credit union insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<FP>The terms used in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are not defined in this part or otherwise defined in section 3(s) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Additional powers.</I> (1) For the purposes of the exercise by any agency referred to in paragraph (a) of this section of its powers under any statute referred to in that paragraph, a violation of any requirement imposed under the EFA Act is deemed to be a violation of a requirement imposed under that statute. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to its powers under any provision of law specifically referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, each of the agencies referred to in that paragraph may exercise, for purposes of enforcing compliance with any requirement imposed under this part, any other authority conferred on it by law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement by the Board.</I> (1) Except to the extent that enforcement of the requirements imposed under this part is specifically committed to some other government agency, the Board shall enforce such requirements. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board determines that— 
</P>
<P>(i) Any bank that is not a bank described in paragraph (a) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person subject to the authority of the Board under the EFA Act and this part,
</P>
<FP>has failed to comply with any requirement imposed by this part, the Board may issue an order prohibiting any bank, any Federal Reserve Bank, or any other person subject to the authority of the Board from engaging in any activity or transaction that directly or indirectly involves such noncomplying bank or person (including any activity or transaction involving the receipt, payment, collection, and clearing of checks, and any related function of the payment system with respect to checks).
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended by Reg. CC, 55 FR 21855, May 30, 1990; 57 FR 36600, Aug. 14, 1992; 69 FR 47310, Aug. 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Availability of Funds and Disclosure of Funds Availability Policies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.10" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.10   Next-day availability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cash deposits.</I> (1) A bank shall make funds deposited in an account by cash available for withdrawal not later than the business day after the banking day on which the cash is deposited, if the deposit is made in person to an employee of the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) A bank shall make funds deposited in an account by cash available for withdrawal not later than the second business day after the banking day on which the cash is deposited, if the deposit is not made in person to an employee of the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic payments</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank shall make funds received for deposit in an account by an electronic payment available for withdrawal not later than the business day after the banking day on which the bank received the electronic payment. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When an electronic payment is received.</I> An electronic payment is received when the bank receiving the payment has received both— 
</P>
<P>(i) Payment in actually and finally collected funds; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the account and amount to be credited. 
</P>
<P>A bank receives an electronic payment only to the extent that the bank has received payment in actually and finally collected funds. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certain check deposits</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A depositary bank shall make funds deposited in an account by check available for withdrawal not later than the business day after the banking day on which the funds are deposited, in the case of— 
</P>
<P>(i) A check drawn on the Treasury of the United States and deposited in an account held by a payee of the check; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. Postal Service money order deposited— 
</P>
<P>(A) In an account held by a payee of the money order; and 
</P>
<P>(B) In person to an employee of the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A check drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Home Loan Bank and deposited— 
</P>
<P>(A) In an account held by a payee of the check; and 
</P>
<P>(B) In person to an employee of the depositary bank; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A check drawn by a state or a unit of general local government and deposited— 
</P>
<P>(A) In an account held by a payee of the check; 
</P>
<P>(B) In a depositary bank located in the state that issued the check, or the same state as the unit of general local government that issued the check; 
</P>
<P>(C) In person to an employee of the depositary bank; and 
</P>
<P>(D) With a special deposit slip or deposit envelope, if such slip or envelope is required by the depositary bank under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(v) A cashier's, certified, or teller's check deposited— 
</P>
<P>(A) In an account held by a payee of the check; 
</P>
<P>(B) In person to an employee of the depositary bank; and 
</P>
<P>(C) With a special deposit slip or deposit envelope, if such slip or envelope is required by the depositary bank under paragraph (c)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(vi) A check deposited in a branch of the depositary bank and drawn on the same or another branch of the same bank if both branches are located in the same state or the same check processing region; and, 
</P>
<P>(vii) The lesser of— 
</P>
<P>(A) $275, or 
</P>
<P>(B) The aggregate amount deposited on any one banking day to all accounts of the customer by check or checks not subject to next-day availability under paragraphs (c)(1) (i) through (vi) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Checks not deposited in person.</I> A depositary bank shall make funds deposited in an account by check or checks available for withdrawal not later than the second business day after the banking day on which funds are deposited, in the case of a check deposit described in and that meets the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) (ii), (iii), (iv), and (v), of this section, except that it is not deposited in person to an employee of the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special deposit slip.</I> (i) As a condition to making the funds available for withdrawal in accordance with this section, a depositary bank may require that a state or local government check or a cashier's, certified, or teller's check be deposited with a special deposit slip or deposit envelope that identifies the type of check. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a depositary bank requires the use of a special deposit slip or deposit envelope, the bank must either provide the special deposit slip or deposit envelope to its customers or inform its customers how the slip or envelope may be prepared or obtained and make the slip or envelope reasonably available. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 84 FR 31696, July 3, 2019; 89 FR 43738, May 20, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.11" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.11   Adjustment of dollar amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dollar amounts indexed.</I> The dollar amounts specified in §§ 229.10(c)(1)(vii), 229.12(d), 229.13(a), 229.13(b), 229.13(d), and 229.21(a) shall be adjusted effective on July 1, 2020, on July 1, 2025, and on July 1 of every fifth year after 2025, in accordance with the procedure set forth in paragraph (b) of this section using the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W), as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indexing procedure</I>—(1) <I>Inflation measurement periods.</I> For dollar amount adjustments that are effective on July 1, 2020, the inflation measurement period begins in July 2011 and ends in July 2018. For dollar amount adjustments that are effective on July 1, 2025, the inflation measurement period begins in July 2018 and ends in July 2023. For dollar amount adjustments that are effective on July 1 of every fifth year after 2025, the inflation measurement period begins in July of every fifth year after 2018 and ends in July of every fifth year after 2023. Following each inflation measurement period, the dollar amount adjustments will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Percentage change.</I> Any dollar amount adjustment under this section shall be calculated across an inflation measurement period by the aggregate percentage change in the CPI-W, including both positive and negative percentage changes. The aggregate percentage change over the inflation measurement period will be rounded to one decimal place, using the CPI-W value for July (which is generally released by the Bureau of Labor Statistics in August).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustment amount.</I> The adjustment amount for each dollar amount listed in paragraph (a) of this section shall be equal to the aggregate percentage change multiplied by the existing dollar amount listed in paragraph (c) of this section and rounded to the nearest multiple of $25. The adjusted dollar amount will be equal to the sum of the existing dollar amount and the adjustment amount. No dollar adjustment will be made when the aggregate percentage change is zero or a negative percentage change, or when the aggregate percentage change multiplied by the existing dollar amount listed in paragraph (c) and rounded to the nearest multiple of $25 results in no change.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Carry-forward.</I> When there is an aggregate negative percentage change over an inflation measurement period, or when an aggregate positive percentage change over an inflation measurement period multiplied by the existing dollar amount listed in paragraph (c) of this section and rounded to the nearest multiple of $25 results in no change, the aggregate percentage change over the inflation measurement period will be included in the calculation to determine the percentage change at the end of the subsequent inflation measurement period. That is, the cumulative change in the CPI-W over the two (or more) inflation measurement periods will be used in the calculation until the cumulative change results in publication of an adjusted dollar amount in the regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amounts.</I> (1) For purposes of § 229.10(c)(1)(vii), the dollar amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in this paragraph (c)(1) for that period.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to July 21, 2011, the amount is $100.
</P>
<P>(ii) From July 21, 2011, through June 30, 2020, by operation of section 603(a)(2)(D) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(a)(2)(D)) the amount is $200.
</P>
<P>(iii) From July 1, 2020, through June 30, 2025, the amount is $225.
</P>
<P>(iv) Effective July 1, 2025, the amount is $275.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of § 229.12(d), the dollar amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in this paragraph (c)(2) for that period.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to July 1, 2020, the amount is $400.
</P>
<P>(ii) From July 1, 2020, through June 30, 2025, the amount is $450.
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective July 1, 2025, the amount is $550.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of §§ 229.13(a), (b), and (d), the dollar amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in this paragraph (c)(3) for that period.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to July 1, 2020, the amount is $5,000.
</P>
<P>(ii) From July 1, 2020, through June 30, 2025, the amount is $5,525.
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective July 1, 2025, the amount is $6,725.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of § 229.21(a), the dollar amounts in effect during a particular period are the amounts stated in this paragraph (c)(4) for the period.
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to July 1, 2020, the amounts are $100, $1,000, and $500,000 respectively.
</P>
<P>(ii) From July 1, 2020, through June 30, 2025, the amounts are $100, $1,100, and $552,500 respectively.
</P>
<P>(iii) Effective July 1, 2025, the amounts are $125, $1,350, and $672,950 respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31696, July 3, 2019, as amended at 89 FR 43738, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.12" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.12   Availability schedule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> The availability schedule contained in this section is effective September 1, 1990.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Local checks and certain other checks.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a depository bank shall make funds deposited in an account by a check available for withdrawal not later than the second business day following the banking day on which funds are deposited, in the case of— 
</P>
<P>(1) A local check; 
</P>
<P>(2) A check drawn on the Treasury of the United States that is not governed by the availability requirements of § 229.10(c); 
</P>
<P>(3) A U.S. Postal Service money order that is not governed by the availability requirements of § 229.10(c); and 
</P>
<P>(4) A check drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Home Loan Bank; a check drawn by a state or unit of general local government; or a cashier's, certified, or teller's check; if any check referred to in this paragraph (b)(4) is a local check that is not governed by the availability requirements of § 229.10(c). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonlocal checks</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, a depositary bank shall make funds deposited in an account by a check available for withdrawal not later than the fifth business day following the banking day on which funds are deposited, in the case of— 
</P>
<P>(i) A nonlocal check; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A check drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or Federal Home Loan Bank; a check drawn by a state or unit of general local government; a cashier's, certified, or teller's check; or a check deposited in a branch of the depositary bank and drawn on the same or another branch of the same bank, if any check referred to in this paragraph (c)(1)(ii) is a nonlocal check that is not governed by the availability requirements of § 229.10(c). 
</P>
<P>(2) Nonlocal checks specified in appendix B-2 to this part must be made available for withdrawal not later than the times prescribed in that appendix. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period adjustment for withdrawal by cash or similar means.</I> A depositary bank may extend by one business day the time that funds deposited in an account by one or more checks subject to paragraphs (b), (c), or (f) of this section are available for withdrawal by cash or similar means. Similar means include electronic payment, issuance of a cashier's or teller's check, or certification of a check, or other irrevocable commitment to pay, but do not include the granting of credit to a bank, a Federal Reserve Bank, or a Federal Home Loan Bank that presents a check to the depositary bank for payment. A depositary bank shall, however, make $550 of these funds available for withdrawal by cash or similar means not later than 5:00 p.m. on the business day on which the funds are available under paragraphs (b), (c), or (f) of this section. This $550 is in addition to the $275 available under § 229.10(c)(1)(vii). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension of schedule for certain deposits in Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.</I> The depositary bank may extend the time periods set forth in this section by one business day in the case of any deposit, other than a deposit described in § 229.10, that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Deposited in an account at a branch of a depositary bank if the branch is located in Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, or the U.S. Virgin Islands; and
</P>
<P>(2) Deposited by a check drawn on or payable at or through a paying bank not located in the same state as the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deposits at nonproprietary ATMs.</I> A depositary bank shall make funds deposited in an account at a nonproprietary ATM by cash or check available for withdrawal not later than the fifth business day following the banking day on which the funds are deposited.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended by Reg. CC, 55 FR 50818, Dec. 11, 1990; 56 FR 7801, Feb. 26, 1991; 56 FR 66343, Dec. 23, 1991; 57 FR 36601, Aug. 14, 1992; 60 FR 51670, Oct. 3, 1995; 84 FR 31696, July 3, 2019; 84 FR 45403, Aug. 29, 2019; 89 FR 43739, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.13" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.13   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New accounts.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, checks subject to § 229.10(c)(1)(v) include traveler's checks. 
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit in a new account— 
</P>
<P>(i) Is subject to the requirements of § 229.10 (a) and (b) to make funds from deposits by cash and electronic payments available for withdrawal on the business day following the banking day of deposit or receipt; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject to the requirements of § 229.10(c)(1)(i) through (v) and § 229.10(c)(2) only with respect to the first $6,725 of funds deposited on any one banking day; but the amount of the deposit in excess of $6,725 shall be available for withdrawal not later than the ninth business day following the banking day on which funds are deposited; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not subject to the availability requirements of §§ 229.10(c)(1)(vi) and (vii) and 229.12.
</P>
<P>(2) An account is considered a new account during the first 30 calendar days after the account is established. An account is not considered a new account if each customer on the account has had, within 30 calendar days before the account is established, another account at the depositary bank for at least 30 calendar days. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Large deposits.</I> Sections 229.10(c) and 229.12 do not apply to the aggregate amount of deposits by one or more checks to the extent that the aggregate amount is in excess of $6,725 on any one banking. day. For customers that have multiple accounts at a depositary bank, the bank may apply this exception to the aggregate deposits to all accounts held by the customer, even if the customer is not the sole holder of the accounts and not all of the holders of the accounts are the same. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redeposited checks.</I> Sections 229.10(c) and 229.12 do not apply to a check that has been returned unpaid and redeposited by the customer or the depositary bank. This exception does not apply— 
</P>
<P>(1) To a check that has been returned due to a missing indorsement and redeposited after the missing indorsement has been obtained, if the reason for return indication on the check states that it was returned due to a missing indorsement; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To a check that has been returned because it was post dated, if the reason for return indicated on the check states that it was returned because it was post dated, and if the check is no longer postdated when redeposited. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Repeated overdrafts.</I> If any account or combination of accounts of a depositary bank's customer has been repeatedly overdrawn, then for a period of six months after the last such overdraft, §§ 229.10(c) and 229.12 do not apply to any of the accounts. A depositary bank may consider a customer's account to be repeatedly overdrawn if— 
</P>
<P>(1) On six or more banking days within the preceding six months, the account balance is negative, or the account balance would have become negative if checks or other charges to the account had been paid; or
</P>
<P>(2) On two or more banking days within the preceding six months, the account balance is negative, or the account balance would have become negative, in the amount of $6,725 or more, if checks or other charges to the account had been paid. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reasonable cause to doubt collectibility</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Sections 229.10(c) and 229.12 do not apply to a check deposited in an account at a depositary bank if the depositary bank has reasonable cause to believe that the check is uncollectible from the paying bank. Reasonable cause to believe a check is uncollectible requires the existence of facts that would cause a well-grounded belief in the mind of a reasonable person. Such belief shall not be based on the fact that the check is of a particular class or is deposited by a particular class of persons. The reason for the bank's belief that the check is uncollectible shall be included in the notice required under paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overdraft and returned check fees.</I> A depositary bank that extends the time when funds will be available for withdrawal as described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and does not furnish the depositor with written notice at the time of deposit shall not assess any fees for any subsequent overdrafts (including use of a line of credit) or return of checks of other debits to the account, if— 
</P>
<P>(i) The overdraft or return of the check would not have occurred except for the fact that the deposited funds were delayed under paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The deposited check was paid by the paying bank.
</P>
<FP>Notwithstanding the foregoing, the depositary bank may assess an overdraft or returned check fee if it includes a notice concerning overdraft and returned check fees with the notice of exception required in paragraph (g) of this section and, when required, refunds any such fees upon the request of the customer. The notice must state that the customer may be entitled to a refund of overdraft or returned check fees that are assessed if the check subject to the exception is paid and how to obtain a refund. 
</FP>
<P>(f) <I>Emergency conditions.</I> Sections 229.10(c) and 229.12 do not apply to funds deposited by check in a depositary bank in the case of— 
</P>
<P>(1) An interruption of communications or computer or other equipment facilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) A suspension of payments by another bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) A war; or 
</P>
<P>(4) An emergency condition beyond the control of the depositary bank,
</P>
<FP>if the depositary bank exercises such diligence as the circumstances require. 
</FP>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of exception</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section, when a depositary bank extends the time when funds will be available for withdrawal based on the application of an exception contained in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section, it must provide the depositor with a written notice.
</P>
<P>(i) The notice shall include the following information—
</P>
<P>(A) A number or code, which need not exceed four digits, that identifies the customer's account;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the deposit;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the deposit that is being delayed;
</P>
<P>(D) The reason the exception was invoked; and
</P>
<P>(E) The time period within which the funds will be available for withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The notice shall be provided to the depositor at the time of the deposit, unless the deposit is not made in person to an employee of the depositary bank, or, if the facts upon which a determination to invoke one of the exceptions in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section to delay a deposit only become known to the depositary bank after the time of the deposit. If the notice is not given at the time of the deposit, the depositary bank shall mail or deliver the notice to the customer as soon as practicable, but no later than the first business day following the day the facts become known to the depositary bank, or the deposit is made, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>One-time exception notice.</I> In lieu of providing notice pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, a depositary bank that extends the time when the funds deposited in a nonconsumer account will be available for withdrawal based on an exception contained in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section may provide a single notice to the customer that includes the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) The reason(s) the exception may be invoked; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The time period within which deposits subject to the exception generally will be available for withdrawal.
</P>
<FP>This one-time notice shall be provided only if each type of exception cited in the notice will be invoked for most check deposits in the account to which the exception could apply. This notice shall be provided at or prior to the time notice must be provided under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of repeated overdrafts exception.</I> In lieu of providing notice pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, a depositary bank that extends the time when funds deposited in an account will be available for withdrawal based on the exception contained in paragraph (d) of this section may provide a notice to the customer for each time period during which the exception will be in effect. The notice shall include the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) The account number of the customer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fact that the availability of funds deposited in the customer's account will be delayed because the repeated overdrafts exception will be invoked;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time period within which deposits subject to the exception generally will be available for withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The time period during which the exception will apply.
</P>
<FP>This notice shall be provided at or prior to the time notice must be provided under paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section and only if the exception cited in the notice will be invoked for most check deposits in the account.
</FP>
<P>(4) <I>Emergency conditions exception notice.</I> When a depositary bank extends the time when funds will be available for withdrawal based on the application of the emergency conditions exception contained in paragraph (f) of this section, it must provide the depositor with notice in a reasonable form and within a reasonable time given the circumstances. The notice shall include the reason the exception was invoked and the time period within which funds shall be made available for withdrawal, unless the depositary bank, in good faith, does not know at the time the notice is given the duration of the emergency and, consequently, when the funds must be made available. The depositary bank is not required to provide a notice if the funds subject to the exception become available before the notice must be sent. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record retention.</I> A depositary bank shall retain a record, in accordance with § 229.21(g), of each notice provided pursuant to its application of the reasonable cause exception under paragraph (e) of this section, together with a brief statement of the facts giving rise to the bank's reason to doubt the collectibility of the check. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Availability of deposits subject to exceptions.</I> (1) If an exception contained in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section applies, the depositary bank may extend the time periods established under §§ 229.10(c) and 229.12 by a reasonable period of time. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a depositary bank invokes an exception contained in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section with respect to a check described in § 229.10(c)(1) (i) through (v) or § 229.10(c)(2), it shall make the funds available for withdrawal not later than a reasonable period after the day the funds would have been required to be made available had the check been subject to 229.12.
</P>
<P>(3) If a depositary bank invokes an exception under paragraph (f) of this section based on an emergency condition, the depositary bank shall make the funds available for withdrawal not later than a reasonable period after the emergency has ceased or the period established in §§ 229.10(c) and 229.12, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of this section, a “reasonable period” is an extension of up to one business day for checks described in § 229.10(c)(1)(vi), five business days for checks described in § 229.12(b) (1) through (4), and six business days for checks described in § 229.12(c) (1) and (2) or § 229.12(f). A longer extension may be reasonable, but the bank has the burden of so establishing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended by Reg. CC, 54 FR 13850, Apr. 6, 1989; Reg. CC, 55 FR 21855, May 30, 1990; 57 FR 3279, Jan. 29, 1992; 57 FR 36598, Aug. 14, 1992; 60 FR 51671, Oct. 3, 1995; Reg. CC, 62 FR 13809, Mar. 24, 1997; 69 FR 47310, Aug. 4, 2004; 84 FR 45403, Aug. 29, 2019; 89 FR 43739, May 20, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.14" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.14   Payment of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A depositary bank shall begin to accrue interest or dividends on funds deposited in an interest-bearing account not later than the business day on which the depositary bank receives credit for the funds. For the purposes of this section, the depositary bank may— 
</P>
<P>(1) Rely on the availability schedule of its Federal Reserve Bank, Federal Home Loan Bank, or correspondent bank to determine the time credit is actually received; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Accrue interest or dividends on funds deposited in interest-bearing accounts by checks that the depositary bank sends to paying banks or subsequent collecting banks for payment or collection based on the availability of funds the depositary bank receives from the paying or collecting banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for credit unions.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any account at a bank described in § 229.2(e)(4), if the bank— 
</P>
<P>(1) Begins the accrual of interest or dividends at a later date than the date described in paragraph (a) of this section with respect to all funds, including cash, deposited in the account; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Provides notice of its interest or dividend payment policy in the manner required under § 229.16(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for checks returned unpaid.</I> This subpart does not require a bank to pay interest or dividends on funds deposited by a check that is returned unpaid. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.15" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.15   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> A bank shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously in writing. Disclosures, other than those posted at locations where employees accept consumer deposits and ATMs and the notice on preprinted deposit slips, must be in a form that the customer may keep. The disclosures shall be grouped together and shall not contain any information not related to the disclosures required by this subpart. If contained in a document that sets forth other account terms, the disclosures shall be highlighted within the document by, for example, use of a separate heading. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Uniform reference to day of availability.</I> In its disclosure, a bank shall describe funds as being available for withdrawal on “the __________ business day after” the day of deposit. In this calculation, the first business day is the business day following the banking day the deposit was received, and the last business day is the day on which the funds are made available. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple accounts and multiple account holders.</I> A bank need not give multiple disclosures to a customer that holds multiple accounts if the accounts are subject to the same availability policies. Similarly, a bank need not give separate disclosures to each customer on a jointly held account. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Dormant or inactive accounts.</I> A bank need not give availability disclosures to a customer that holds a dormant or inactive account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.16" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.16   Specific availability policy disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> To meet the requirements of a specific availability policy disclosure under §§ 229.17 and 229.18(d), a bank shall provide a disclosure describing the bank's policy as to when funds deposited in an account are available for withdrawal. The disclosure must reflect the policy followed by the bank in most cases. A bank may impose longer delays on a case-by-case basis or by invoking one of the exceptions in § 229.l3, provided this is reflected in the disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of specific availability policy disclosure.</I> The specific availability policy disclosure shall contain the following, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the bank's availability policy; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any categories of deposits or checks used by the bank when it delays availability (such as local or nonlocal checks); how to determine the category to which a particular deposit or check belongs; and when each category will be available for withdrawal (including a description of the bank's business days and when a deposit is considered received);
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> A bank that distinguishes in its disclosure between local and nonlocal checks based on the routing number on the check must disclose that certain checks, such as some credit union share drafts that are payable by one bank but payable through another bank, will be treated as local or nonlocal checks based upon the location of the bank by which they are payable and not on the basis of the location of the bank whose routing number appears on the check. A bank that makes funds from nonlocal checks available for withdrawal within the time periods required for local checks under §§ 229.12 and 229.13 is not required to provide this disclosure on payable-through checks to its customers. The statement concerning payable-through checks must describe how the customer can determine whether these checks will be treated as local or nonlocal, or state that special rules apply to such checks and that the customer may ask about the availability of these checks.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A description of any of the exceptions in § 229.13 that may be invoked by the bank, including the time following a deposit that funds generally will be available for withdrawal and a statement that the bank will notify the customer if the bank invokes one of the exceptions;
</P>
<P>(4) A description, as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, of any case-by-case policy of delaying availability that may result in deposited funds being available for withdrawal later than the time periods stated in the bank's availability policy; and 
</P>
<P>(5) A description of how the customer can differentiate between a proprietary and a nonproprietary ATM, if the bank makes funds from deposits at nonproprietary ATMs available for withdrawal later than funds from deposits at proprietary ATMs. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Longer delays on a case-by-case basis</I>—(1) <I>Notice in specific policy disclosure.</I> A bank that has a policy of making deposited funds available for withdrawal sooner than required by this subpart may extend the time when funds are available up to the time periods allowed under this subpart on a case-by-case basis, provided the bank includes the following in its specific policy disclosure—
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the time when deposited funds are available for withdrawal may be extended in some cases, and the latest time following a deposit that funds will be available for withdrawal; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the bank will notify the customer if funds deposited in the customer's account will not be available for withdrawal until later than the time periods stated in the bank's availability policy; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that customers should ask if they need to be sure about when a particular deposit will be available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice at time of case-by-case delay</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When a depositary bank extends the time when funds will be available for withdrawal on a case-by-case basis, it must provide the depositor with a written notice. The notice shall include the following information—
</P>
<P>(A) A number or code, which need not exceed four digits, that identifies the customer's account.
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the deposit; 
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the deposit that is being delayed; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The day the funds will be available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The notice shall be provided to the depositor at the time of the deposit, unless the deposit is not made in person to an employee of the depositary bank or the decision to extend the time when the deposited funds will be available is made after the time of the deposit. If notice is not given at the time of the deposit, the depositary bank shall mail or deliver the notice to the customer not later than the first business day following the banking day the deposit is made. 
</P>
<P>(3) Overdraft and returned check fees. A depositary bank that extends the time when funds will be available for withdrawal on a case-by-case basis and does not furnish the depositor with written notice at the time of deposit shall not assess any fees for any subsequent overdrafts (including use of a line of credit) or return of checks or other debits to the account, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The overdraft or return of the check or other debit would not have occurred except for the fact that the deposited funds were delayed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The deposited check was paid by the paying bank. 
</P>
<P>Notwithstanding the foregoing, the depositary bank may assess an overdraft or returned check fee if it includes a notice concerning overdraft and returned check fees with the notice required in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and, when required, refunds any such fees upon the request of the customer. The notice must state that the customer may be entitled to a refund of overdraft or returned check fees that are assessed if the check subject to the delay is paid and how to obtain a refund. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Credit union notice of interest payment policy.</I> If a bank described in § 229.2(e)(4) begins to accrue interest or dividends on all deposits made in an interest-bearing account, including cash deposits, at a later time than the day specified in § 229.14(a), the bank's specific policy disclosures shall contain an explanation of when interest or dividends on deposited funds begin to accrue. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 31292, Aug. 18, 1988; 53 FR 44324, Nov. 2, 1988; Reg. CC, 54 FR 13850, Apr. 6, 1989; 60 FR 51671, Oct. 3, 1995; Reg. CC, 62 FR 13810, Mar. 24, 1997; 69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.17" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.17   Initial disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>Before opening a new account, a bank shall provide a potential customer with the applicable specific availability policy disclosure described in § 229.16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. CC, 60 FR 51671, Oct. 3, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.18" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.18   Additional disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deposit slips.</I> A bank shall include on all preprinted deposit slips furnished to its customers a notice that deposits may not be available for immediate withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Locations where employees accept consumer deposits.</I> A bank shall post in a conspicuous place in each location where its employees receive deposits to consumer accounts a notice that sets forth the time periods applicable to the availability of funds deposited in a consumer account. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Automated teller machines.</I> (1) A depositary bank shall post or provide a notice at each ATM location that funds deposited in the ATM may not be available for immediate withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(2) A depositary bank that operates an off-premises ATM from which deposits are removed not more than two times each week, as described in § 229.19(a)(4), shall disclose at or on the ATM the days on which deposits made at the ATM will be considered received. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Upon request.</I> A bank shall provide to any person, upon oral or written request, a notice containing the applicable specific availability policy disclosure described in § 229.l6. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Changes in policy.</I> A bank shall send a notice to holders of consumer accounts at least 30 days before implementing a change to the bank's availability policy regarding such accounts, except that a change that expedites the availability of funds may be disclosed not later than 30 days after implementation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.19" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.19   Miscellaneous.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When funds are considered deposited.</I> For the purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(1) Funds deposited at a staffed facility, ATM, or contractual branch are considered deposited when they are received at the staffed facility, ATM, or contractual branch; 
</P>
<P>(2) Funds mailed to the depositary bank are considered deposited on the day they are received by the depositary bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) Funds deposited to a night depository, lock box, or similar facility are considered deposited on the day on which the deposit is removed from such facility and is available for processing by the depositary bank; 
</P>
<P>(4) Funds deposited at an ATM that is not on, or within 50 feet of, the premises of the depositary bank are considered deposited on the day the funds are removed from the ATM, if funds normally are removed from the ATM not more than two times each week; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Funds may be considered deposited on the next banking day, in the case of funds that are deposited—
</P>
<P>(i) On a day that is not a banking day for the depositary bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) After a cut-off hour set by the depositary bank for the receipt of deposits of 2:00 p.m. or later, or, for the receipt of deposits at ATMs, contractual branches, or off-premise facilities, of 12:00 noon or later. Different cut-off hours later than these times may be established for the receipt of different types of deposits, or receipt of deposits at different locations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability at start of business day.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 229.12(d), if any provision of this subpart requires that funds be made available for withdrawal on any business day, the funds shall be available for withdrawal by the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) 9:00 a.m. (local time of the depositary bank); or 
</P>
<P>(2) The time the depositary bank's teller facilities (including ATMs) are available for customer account withdrawals. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect on policies of depositary bank.</I> This part does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibit a depositary bank from making funds available to a customer for withdrawal in a shorter period of time than the time required by this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(2) Affect a depositary bank's right—
</P>
<P>(i) To accept or reject a check for deposit; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To revoke any settlement made by the depositary bank with respect to a check accepted by the bank for deposit, to charge back the customer's account for the amount of a check based on the return of the check or receipt of a notice of nonpayment of the check, or to claim a refund of such credit; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) To charge back funds made available to its customer for an electronic payment for which the bank has not received payment in actually and finally collected funds; 
</P>
<P>(3) Require a depositary bank to open or otherwise to make its facilities available for customer transactions on a given business day; or
</P>
<P>(4) Supersede any policy of a depositary bank that limits the amount of cash a customer may withdraw from its account on any one day, if that policy—
</P>
<P>(i) Is not dependent on the time the funds have been deposited in the account, as long as the funds have been on deposit for the time period specified in §§ 229.10, 229.12, or 229.13; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of withdrawals made in person to an employee of the depositary bank—
</P>
<P>(A) Is applied without discrimination to all customers of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is related to security, operating, or bonding requirements of the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of calculated availability.</I> A depositary bank may provide availability to its nonconsumer accounts based on a sample of checks that represents the average composition of the customer's deposits, if the terms for availability based on the sample are equivalent to or more prompt than the availability requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holds on other funds.</I> (1) A depositary bank that receives a check for deposit in an account may not place a hold on any funds of the customer at the bank, where—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of funds that are held exceeds the amount of the check; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The funds are not made available for withdrawal within the times specified in §§ 229.10, 229.12, and 229.13.
</P>
<P>(2) A depositary bank that cashes a check for a customer over the counter, other than a check drawn on the depositary bank, may not place a hold on funds in an account of the customer at the bank, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of funds that are held exceeds the amount of the check; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The funds are not made available for withdrawal within the times specified in §§ 229.10, 229.12, and 229.13.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Employee training and compliance.</I> Each bank shall establish procedures to ensure that the bank complies with the requirements of this subpart, and shall provide each employee who performs duties subject to the requirements of this subpart with a statement of the procedures applicable to that employee.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of merger transaction</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, except for the purposes of the new accounts exception of § 229.13(a), and when funds are considered deposited under § 229.19(a), two or more banks that have engaged in a merger transaction may be considered to be separate banks for a period of one year following the consummation of the merger transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Merger transactions on or after July 1, 1998, and before March 1, 2000.</I> If banks have consummated a merger transaction on or after July 1, 1998, and before March 1, 2000, the merged banks may be considered separate banks until March 1, 2001.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. CC, 53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended by 54 FR 13850, Apr. 6, 1989; 60 FR 51671, Oct. 3, 1995; 62 FR 13810, Mar. 24, 1997; 64 FR 14577, Mar. 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.20" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.20   Relation to state law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any provision of a law or regulation of any state in effect on or before September 1, 1989, that requires funds deposited in an account at a bank chartered by the state to be made available for withdrawal in a shorter time than the time provided in subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Supersede the provisions of the EFA Act and subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, to the extent the provisions relate to the time by which funds deposited or received for deposit in an account are available for withdrawal; and
</P>
<P>(2) Apply to all federally insured banks located within the state.
</P>
<FP>No amendment to a state law or regulation governing the availability of funds that becomes effective after September 1, 1989, shall supersede the EFA Act and subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, but unamended provisions of state law shall remain in effect.
</FP>
<P>(b) <I>Preemption of inconsistent law.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a), the EFA Act and subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, supersede any provision of inconsistent state law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards for preemption.</I> A provision of a state law in effect on or before September 2, 1989, is not inconsistent with the EFA Act, or subpart B, or in connection therewith, subpart A, if it requires that funds shall be available in a shorter period of time than the time provided in this subpart. Inconsistency with the EFA Act and subpart B, and in connection therewith, subpart A, may exist when state law—
</P>
<P>(1) Permits a depositary bank to make funds deposited in an account by cash, electronic payment, or check available for withdrawal in a longer period of time than the maximum period of time permitted under subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides for disclosures or notices concerning funds availability relating to accounts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption determinations.</I> The Board may determine, upon the request of any state, bank, or other interested party, whether the EFA Act and subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, preempt provisions of state laws relating to the availability of funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for preemption determinations.</I> A request for a preemption determination shall include the following—
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the full text of the state law in question, including any implementing regulations or judicial interpretations of that law; and
</P>
<P>(2) A comparison of the provisions of state law with the corresponding provisions in the EFA Act and subparts A and B of this part, together with a discussion of the reasons why specific provisions of state law are either consistent or inconsistent with corresponding sections of the EFA Act and subparts A and B of this part.
</P>
<P>A request for a preemption determination shall be addressed to the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.21" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.2.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.21   Civil liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Civil liability.</I> A bank that fails to comply with any requirement imposed under subpart B, and in connection therewith, subpart A, of this part or any provision of state law that supersedes any provision of subpart B, and in connection therewith, subpart A, with respect to any person is liable to that person in an amount equal to the sum of—
</P>
<P>(1) Any actual damage sustained by that person as a result of the failure;
</P>
<P>(2) Such additional amount as the court may allow, except that—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an individual action, liability under this paragraph shall not be less than $125 nor greater than $1,350; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a class action—
</P>
<P>(A) No minimum recovery shall be applicable to each member of the class; and
</P>
<P>(B) The total recovery under this paragraph in any class action or series of class actions arising out of the same failure to comply by the same depositary bank shall not be more than the lesser of $672,950 or 1 percent of the net worth of the bank involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a successful action to enforce the foregoing liability, the costs of the action, together with a reasonable attorney's fee as determined by the court.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Class action awards.</I> In determining the amount of any award in any class action, the court shall consider, among other relevant factors—
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any damages awarded;
</P>
<P>(2) The frequency and persistence of failures of compliance;
</P>
<P>(3) The resources of the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) The number of persons adversely affected; and
</P>
<P>(5) The extent to which the failure of compliance was intentional.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bona fide errors</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A bank is not liable in any action brought under this section for a violation of this subpart if the bank demonstrates by a preponderance of the evidence that the violation was not intentional and resulted from a bona fide error, notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid any such error.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> Examples of a bona fide error include clerical, calculation, computer malfunction and programming, and printing errors, except that an error of legal judgment with respect to the bank's obligation under this subpart is not a bona fide error.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> Any action under this section may be brought in any United States district court or in any other court of competent jurisdiction, and shall be brought within one year after the date of the occurrence of the violation involved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reliance on Board rulings.</I> No provision of this subpart imposing any liability shall apply to any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any rule, regulation, or interpretation thereof by the Board, regardless of whether such rule, regulation, or interpretation is amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial or other authority to be invalid for any reason after the act or omission has occurred.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusions.</I> This section does not apply to claims that arise under subpart C of this part or to actions for wrongful dishonor. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) A bank shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by this subpart for not less than two years. Records may be stored by use of microfiche, microfilm, magnetic tape, or other methods capable of accurately retaining and reproducing information. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a bank has actual notice that it is being investigated, or is subject to an enforcement proceeding by an agency charged with monitoring that bank's compliance with the EFA Act and this subpart, or has been served with notice of an action filed under this section, it shall retain the records pertaining to the action or proceeding pending final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by order of the agency or court. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004; 84 FR 45403, Aug. 29, 2019; 89 FR 43739, May 20, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Collection of Checks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.30" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.30   Electronic checks and electronic information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Checks under this subpart.</I> Electronic checks and electronic returned checks are subject to this subpart as if they were checks or returned checks, except where “paper check” or “paper returned check” is specified. For the purposes of this subpart, the term “check” or “returned check” as used in Subpart A includes “electronic check” or “electronic returned check,” except where “paper check” or “paper returned check” is specified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Writings.</I> If a bank is required to provide information in writing under this subpart, the bank may satisfy that requirement by providing the information electronically if the receiving bank agrees to receive that information electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27579, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.31" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.31   Paying bank's responsibility for return of checks and notices of nonpayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Return of checks.</I> (1) Subject to the requirement of expeditious return under paragraph (b) of this section, a paying bank may send a returned check to the depositary bank, to any other bank agreeing to handle the returned check, or as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A paying bank that is unable to identify the depositary bank with respect to a check may send the returned check to any bank that handled the check for forward collection and must advise the bank to which the check is sent that the paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(3) A paying bank may convert a check to a qualified returned check. A qualified returned check shall be encoded in magnetic ink with the routing number of the depositary bank, the amount of the returned check, and a “2” in the case of an original check (or a “5” in the case of a substitute check) in position 44 of the qualified return MICR line as a return identifier. A qualified returned original check shall be encoded in accordance with ANS X9.13, and a qualified returned substitute check shall be encoded in accordance with ANS X9.100-140.
</P>
<P>(4) Except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section, this section does not affect a paying bank's responsibility to return a check within the deadlines required by the UCC or Regulation J (12 CFR part 210).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expeditious return of checks.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, if a paying bank determines not to pay a check, it shall return the check in an expeditious manner such that the check would normally be received by the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank is not a banking day for the depositary bank, the paying bank satisfies the expeditious return requirement if it sends the returned check in a manner such that the depositary bank would normally receive the returned check not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the depositary bank's next banking day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of nonpayment.</I> (1) If a paying bank determines not to pay a check in the amount of $5,000 or more, it shall provide notice of nonpayment such that the notice would normally be received by the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank. If the day the paying bank is required to provide notice is not a banking day for the depositary bank, receipt of notice not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the depositary bank's next banking day constitutes timely notice. Notice may be provided by any reasonable means, including the returned check, a writing (including a copy of the check), or telephone.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) To the extent available to the paying bank, notice must include the information contained in the check's MICR line when the check is received by the paying bank, as well as—
</P>
<P>(A) Name of the payee(s);
</P>
<P>(B) Amount;
</P>
<P>(C) Date of the indorsement of the depositary bank;
</P>
<P>(D) The bank name, routing number, and trace or sequence number associated with the indorsement of the depositary bank; and
</P>
<P>(E) Reason for nonpayment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the paying bank is not sure of the accuracy of an item of information, it shall include the information required by this paragraph to the extent possible, and identify any item of information for which the bank is not sure of the accuracy.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notice may include other information from the check that may be useful in identifying the check being returned and the customer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to the expeditious return of checks and notice of nonpayment requirements.</I> The expeditious return and notice of nonpayment requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply if—
</P>
<P>(1) The check is deposited in a depositary bank that is not subject to subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) A paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank with respect to the check.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Identification of returned check.</I> A paying bank returning a check shall clearly indicate on the front of the check that it is a returned check and the reason for return. If the paying bank is returning a substitute check or an electronic returned check, the paying bank shall include this information such that the information would be retained on any subsequent substitute check.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice in Lieu of Return.</I> If a check is unavailable for return, the paying bank may send in its place a copy of the front and back of the returned check, or, if no such copy is available, a written notice of nonpayment containing the information specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The copy or written notice shall clearly state that it constitutes a notice in lieu of return. A notice in lieu of return is considered a returned check subject to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Extension of deadline.</I> The deadline for return or notice of dishonor or nonpayment under the UCC or Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), or § 229.36(d)(3) and (4) is extended to the time of dispatch of such return or notice if the depositary bank (or the receiving bank, if the depositary bank is unidentifiable) receives the returned check or notice—
</P>
<P>(1) On or before the depositary bank's (or receiving bank's) next banking day following the otherwise applicable deadline by the earlier of the close of that banking day or a cutoff hour of 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank or receiving bank) or later set by the depositary bank (or receiving bank) under UCC 4-108, for all deadlines other than those described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to the cut-off hour for the next processing cycle (if sent to a returning bank), or on the next banking day (if sent to the depositary bank), for a deadline falling on a Saturday that is a banking day (as defined in the UCC) for the paying bank.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Payable-through and payable-at checks.</I> A check payable at or through a paying bank is considered to be drawn on that bank for purposes of the expeditious return and notice of nonpayment requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reliance on routing number.</I> A paying bank may return a returned check based on any routing number designating the depositary bank appearing on the returned check in the depositary bank's indorsement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27579, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.32" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.32   Returning bank's responsibility for return of checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Return of checks.</I> (1) Subject to the requirement of expeditious return under paragraph (b) of this section, a returning bank may send a returned check to the depositary bank, to any other bank agreeing to handle the returned check, or as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A returning bank that is unable to identify the depositary bank with respect to a check may send the returned check to any collecting bank that handled the returned check for forward collection if the returning bank was not a collecting bank with respect to the returned check, or to a prior collecting bank, if the returning bank was a collecting bank with respect to the returned check. A returning bank sending a returned check under this paragraph to a bank must advise the bank to which the returned check is sent that the returning bank is unable to identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(3) A returning bank may convert a check to a qualified returned check. A qualified returned check shall be encoded in magnetic ink with the routing number of the depositary bank, the amount of the returned check, and a “2” in the case of an original check (or a “5” in the case of a substitute check) in position 44 of the qualified return MICR line as a return identifier. A qualified returned original check shall be encoded in accordance with ANS X9.13, and a qualified returned substitute check shall be encoded in accordance with ANS X9.100-140.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expeditious return of checks.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a returning bank shall return a returned check in an expeditious manner such that the check would normally be received by the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank is not a banking day for the depositary bank, the returning bank satisfies the expeditious return requirement if it sends the returned check in a manner such that the depositary bank would normally receive the returned check not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the depositary bank's next banking day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to the expeditious return of checks.</I> The expeditious return requirement of paragraph (b) of this section does not apply if—
</P>
<P>(1) The check is deposited in a depositary bank that is not subject to subpart B of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank with respect to the check; or
</P>
<P>(3) The bank handles a misrouted returned check pursuant to § 229.33(f).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice in Lieu of Return.</I> If a check is unavailable for return, the returning bank may send in its place a copy of the front and back of the returned check, or, if no such copy is available, a written notice of nonpayment containing the information specified in § 229.31(c). The copy or written notice shall clearly state that it constitutes a notice in lieu of return. A notice in lieu of return is considered a returned check subject to the requirements of this section and the other requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Settlement.</I> A returning bank shall settle with a bank sending a returned check to it for return by the same means that it settles or would settle with the sending bank for a check received for forward collection drawn on the depositary bank. This settlement is final when made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Charges.</I> A returning bank may impose a charge on a bank sending a returned check for handling the returned check.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reliance on routing number.</I> A returning bank may return a returned check based on any routing number designating the depositary bank appearing on the returned check in the depositary bank's indorsement or in magnetic ink on a qualified returned check.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27580, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.33" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.33   Depositary bank's responsibility for returned checks and notices of nonpayment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to assert claim.</I> (1) A paying bank or returning bank may be liable to a depositary bank under § 229.38 for failing to return a check in an expeditious manner only if the depositary bank has arrangements in place such that the paying bank or returning bank could return a returned check to the depositary bank electronically, directly or indirectly, by commercially reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the depositary bank that has asserted a claim has the burden of proof for demonstrating that the depositary bank's arrangements meet the standard of paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of electronic returned checks and electronic notices of nonpayment.</I> A depositary bank's agreement with the transferor bank governs the terms under which the depositary bank will accept electronic returned checks and electronic written notices of nonpayment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acceptance of paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment.</I> (1) A depositary bank shall accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment during its banking day—
</P>
<P>(i) At a location, if any, at which presentment of paper checks for forward collection is requested by the depositary bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) At a branch, head office, or other location consistent with the name and address of the bank in its indorsement on the check;
</P>
<P>(B) If no address appears in the indorsement, at a branch or head office associated with the routing number of the bank in its indorsement on the check; or
</P>
<P>(C) If no routing number or address appears in its indorsement on the check, at any branch or head office of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) A depositary bank may require that paper returned checks be separated from paper forward collection checks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceptance of oral notices of nonpayment.</I> A depositary bank shall accept oral notices of nonpayment during its banking day—
</P>
<P>(1) At the telephone number indicated in the indorsement; and
</P>
<P>(2) At any other number held out by the bank for receipt of notice of nonpayment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment.</I> (1) A depositary bank shall pay the returning bank or paying bank returning the check to it for the amount of the check prior to the close of business on the depositary bank's banking day on which it received the check (“payment date”) by—
</P>
<P>(i) Debit to an account of the depositary bank on the books of the returning bank or paying bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash;
</P>
<P>(iii) Wire transfer; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other form of payment acceptable to the returning bank or paying bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The proceeds of the payment must be available to the returning bank or paying bank in cash or by credit to an account of the returning bank or paying bank on or as of the payment date. If the payment date is not a banking day for the returning bank or paying bank or the depositary bank is unable to make the payment on the payment date, payment shall be made by the next day that is a banking day for the returning bank or paying bank. These payments are final when made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Misrouted returned checks and written notices of nonpayment.</I> If a bank receives a returned check or written notice of nonpayment on the basis that it is the depositary bank, and the bank determines that it is not the depositary bank with respect to the check or notice, it shall either promptly send the returned check or notice to the depositary bank directly or by means of a returning bank agreeing to handle the returned check or notice, or send the check or notice back to the bank from which it was received.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Charges.</I> A depositary bank may not impose a charge for accepting and paying checks being returned to it.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notification to customer.</I> If the depositary bank receives a returned check, notice of nonpayment, or notice of recovery under § 229.35(b), it shall send or give notice to its customer of the facts by midnight of the banking day following the banking day on which it received the returned check, notice of nonpayment, or notice of recovery, or within a longer reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Depositary bank without accounts.</I> The requirements of this section with respect to notices of nonpayment do not apply to checks deposited in a depositary bank that does not maintain accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27580, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.34" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.34   Warranties and indemnities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Warranties with respect to electronic checks and electronic returned checks.</I> (1) Each bank that transfers or presents an electronic check or electronic returned check and receives a settlement or other consideration for it warrants that—
</P>
<P>(i) The electronic image accurately represents all of the information on the front and back of the original check as of the time that the original check was truncated and the electronic information includes an accurate record of all MICR line information required for a substitute check under § 229.2(aaa) and the amount of the check, and
</P>
<P>(ii) No person will receive a transfer, presentment, or return of, or otherwise be charged for an electronic check or electronic returned check, the original check, a substitute check, or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check such that the person will be asked to make payment based on a check it has already paid.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bank that makes the warranties under paragraph (a)(1) of this section makes the warranties to—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of transfers for collection or presentment, the transferee bank, any subsequent collecting bank, the paying bank, and the drawer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of transfers for return, the transferee returning bank, any subsequent returning bank, the depositary bank, and the owner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer and presentment warranties with respect to a remotely created check.</I> (1) A bank that transfers or presents a remotely created check and receives a settlement or other consideration warrants to the transferee bank, any subsequent collecting bank, and the paying bank that the person on whose account the remotely created check is drawn authorized the issuance of the check in the amount stated on the check and to the payee stated on the check. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), “account” includes an account as defined in § 229.2(a) as well as a credit or other arrangement that allows a person to draw checks that are payable by, through, or at a bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If a paying bank asserts a claim for breach of warranty under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the warranting bank may defend by proving that the customer of the paying bank is precluded under UCC 4-406, as applicable, from asserting against the paying bank the unauthorized issuance of the check.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Settlement amount, encoding, and offset warranties.</I> (1) Each bank that presents one or more checks to a paying bank and in return receives a settlement or other consideration warrants to the paying bank that the total amount of the checks presented is equal to the total amount of the settlement demanded by the presenting bank from the paying bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Each bank that transfers one or more checks or returned checks to a collecting bank, returning bank, or depositary bank and in return receives a settlement or other consideration warrants to the transferee bank that the accompanying information, if any, accurately indicates the total amount of the checks or returned checks transferred.
</P>
<P>(3) Each bank that presents or transfers a check or returned check warrants to any bank that subsequently handles it that, at the time of presentment or transfer, the information encoded after issue regarding the check or returned check is accurate. For purposes of this paragraph, the information encoded after issue regarding the check or returned check means any information that could be encoded in the MICR line of a paper check.
</P>
<P>(4) If a bank settles with another bank for checks presented, or for returned checks for which it is the depositary bank, in an amount exceeding the total amount of the checks, the settling bank may set off the excess settlement amount against subsequent settlements for checks presented, or for returned checks for which it is the depositary bank, that it receives from the other bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Returned check warranties.</I> (1) Each paying bank or returning bank that transfers a returned check and receives a settlement or other consideration for it warrants to the transferee returning bank, to any subsequent returning bank, to the depositary bank, and to the owner of the check, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The paying bank, or in the case of a check payable by a bank and payable through another bank, the bank by which the check is payable, returned the check within its deadline under the UCC or § 229.31(g) of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is authorized to return the check;
</P>
<P>(iii) The check has not been materially altered; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a notice in lieu of return, the check has not and will not be returned.
</P>
<P>(2) These warranties are not made with respect to checks drawn on the Treasury of the United States, U.S. Postal Service money orders, or checks drawn on a state or a unit of general local government that are not payable through or at a bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of nonpayment warranties.</I> (1) Each paying bank that gives a notice of nonpayment warrants to the transferee bank, to any subsequent transferee bank, to the depositary bank, and to the owner of the check that—
</P>
<P>(i) The paying bank, or in the case of a check payable by a bank and payable through another bank, the bank by which the check is payable, returned or will return the check within its deadline under the UCC or § 229.31(g) of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is authorized to send the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The check has not been materially altered.
</P>
<P>(2) These warranties are not made with respect to checks drawn on the Treasury of the United States, U.S. Postal Service money orders, or check drawn on a state or a unit of general local government that are not payable through or at a bank.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Remote deposit capture indemnity.</I> (1) The indemnity described in paragraph (f)(2) of this section is provided by a depositary bank that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is a truncating bank under § 229.2(eee)(2) because it accepts deposit of an electronic image or other electronic information related to an original check;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not receive the original check;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receives settlement or other consideration for an electronic check or substitute check related to the original check; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not receive a return of the check unpaid.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall indemnify, as set forth in § 229.34(i), a depositary bank that accepts the original check for deposit for losses incurred by that depositary bank if the loss is due to the check having already been paid.
</P>
<P>(3) A depositary bank may not make an indemnity claim under paragraph (f)(2) of this section if the original check it accepted for deposit bore a restrictive indorsement inconsistent with the means of deposit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indemnities with respect to electronically-created items.</I> Each bank that transfers or presents an electronically-created item and receives a settlement or other consideration for it shall indemnify, as set forth in § 229.34(i), each transferee bank, any subsequent collecting bank, the paying bank, and any subsequent returning bank against losses that result from the fact that—
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic image or electronic information is not derived from a paper check;
</P>
<P>(2) The person on whose account the electronically-created item is drawn did not authorize the issuance of the item in the amount stated on the item or to the payee stated on the item (for purposes of this paragraph (g)(2), “account” includes an account as defined in section 229.2(a) as well as a credit or other arrangement that allows a person to draw checks that are payable by, through, or at a bank); or
</P>
<P>(3) A person receives a transfer, presentment, or return of, or otherwise is charged for an electronically-created item such that the person is asked to make payment based on an item or check it has already paid.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Damages.</I> Damages for breach of the warranties in this section shall not exceed the consideration received by the bank that presents or transfers a check or returned check, plus interest compensation and expenses related to the check or returned check, if any.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Indemnity amounts.</I> (1) The amount of the indemnity in paragraphs (f)(2) and (g) of this section shall not exceed the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the loss of the indemnified bank, up to the amount of the settlement or other consideration received by the indemnifying bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest and expenses of the indemnified bank (including costs and reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses of representation).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If a loss described in paragraph (f)(2) or (g) of this section results in whole or in part from the indemnified bank's negligence or failure to act in good faith, then the indemnity amount described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section shall be reduced in proportion to the amount of negligence or bad faith attributable to the indemnified bank.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this paragraph (i)(2) affects the rights of a person under the UCC or other applicable provision of state or federal law.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Tender of defense.</I> If a bank is sued for breach of a warranty or for indemnity under this section, it may give a prior bank in the collection or return chain written notice of the litigation, and the bank notified may then give similar notice to any other prior bank. If the notice states that the bank notified may come in and defend and that failure to do so will bind the bank notified in an action later brought by the bank giving the notice as to any determination of fact common to the two litigations, the bank notified is so bound unless after seasonable receipt of the notice the bank notified does come in and defend.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice of claim.</I> Unless a claimant gives notice of a claim for breach of warranty or for indemnity under this section to the bank that made the warranty or indemnification within 30 days after the claimant has reason to know of the breach or facts and circumstances giving rise to the indemnity and the identity of the warranting or indemnifying bank, the warranting or indemnifying bank is discharged to the extent of any loss caused by the delay in giving notice of the claim.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27581, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.35" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.35   Indorsements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Indorsement standards.</I> A bank (other than a paying bank) that handles a check during forward collection or a returned check shall indorse the check in a manner that permits a person to interpret the indorsement, in accordance with American National Standard (ANS) Specifications for Physical Check Endorsements, X9.100-111 (ANS X9.100-111), for a paper check other than a substitute check; ANS Specifications for an Image Replacement Document, X9.100-140 (ANS X9.100-140), for a substitute check; and ANS Specifications for Electronic Exchange of Check and Image Data—Domestic, X9.100-187 (ANS X9.100-187), for an electronic check; unless the Board by rule or order determines that different standards apply or the parties otherwise agree.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability of bank handling check.</I> A bank that handles a check for forward collection or return is liable to any bank that subsequently handles the check to the extent that the subsequent bank does not receive payment for the check because of suspension of payments by another bank or otherwise. This paragraph applies whether or not a bank has placed its indorsement on the check. This liability is not affected by the failure of any bank to exercise ordinary care, but any bank failing to do so remains liable. A bank seeking recovery against a prior bank shall send notice to that prior bank reasonably promptly after it learns the facts entitling it to recover. A bank may recover from the bank with which it settled for the check by revoking the settlement, charging back any credit given to an account, or obtaining a refund. A bank may have the rights of a holder with respect to each check it handles.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indorsement by a bank.</I> After a check has been indorsed by a bank, only a bank may acquire the rights of a holder—
</P>
<P>(1) Until the check has been returned to the person initiating collection; or
</P>
<P>(2) Until the check has been specially indorsed by a bank to a person who is not a bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indorsement for depositary bank.</I> A depositary bank may arrange with another bank to apply the other bank's indorsement as the depositary bank indorsement, provided that any indorsement of the depositary bank on the check avoids the area reserved for the depositary bank indorsement as specified in the indorsement standard applicable to the check under paragraph (a) of this section. The other bank indorsing as depositary bank is considered the depositary bank for purposes of subpart C of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 82 FR 27582, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.36" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.36   Presentment and issuance of checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of electronic checks.</I> The terms under which a paying bank will accept presentment of an electronic check is governed by the paying bank's agreement with the presenting bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt of paper checks.</I> (1) A paper check is considered received by the paying bank when it is received—
</P>
<P>(i) At a location to which delivery is requested by the paying bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) At an address of the bank associated with the routing number on the check, whether contained in the MICR line or in fractional form;
</P>
<P>(iii) At a branch, head office, or other location consistent with the name and address of the bank on the check if the bank is identified on the check by name and address; or
</P>
<P>(iv) At any branch or head office, if the bank is identified on the check by name without address.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank may require that checks presented to it as a paying bank be separated from returned checks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liability of bank during forward collection.</I> Settlements between banks for the forward collection of a check are final when made; however, a collecting bank handling a check for forward collection may be liable to a prior collecting bank, including the depositary bank, and the depositary bank's customer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Same-day settlement.</I> (1) A paper check is considered presented, and a paying bank must settle for or return the check pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if a presenting bank delivers the check in accordance with reasonable delivery requirements established by the paying bank and demands payment under this paragraph (d)—
</P>
<P>(i) At a location designated by the paying bank for receipt of paper checks under this paragraph (d) at which the paying bank would be considered to have received the paper check under paragraph (b) of this section or, if no location is designated, at any location described in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By 8 a.m. on a business day (local time of the location described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) A paying bank may require that paper checks presented for settlement pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section be separated from other forward-collection checks or returned checks.
</P>
<P>(3) If presentment of a paper check meets the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the paying bank is accountable to the presenting bank for the amount of the check unless, by the close of Fedwire on the business day it receives the check, it either—
</P>
<P>(i) Settles with the presenting bank for the amount of the check by credit to an account at a Federal Reserve Bank designated by the presenting bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Returns the check.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(3) of this section, if a paying bank closes on a business day and receives presentment of a paper check on that day in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section—
</P>
<P>(i) The paying bank is accountable to the presenting bank for the amount of the check unless, by the close of Fedwire on its next banking day, it either—
</P>
<P>(A) Settles with the presenting bank for the amount of the check by credit to an account at a Federal Reserve Bank designated by the presenting bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) Returns the check.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the closing is voluntary, unless the paying bank settles for or returns the check in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section, it shall pay interest compensation to the presenting bank for each day after the business day on which the check was presented until the paying bank settles for the check, including the day of settlement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27583, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.37" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.37   Variation by agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The effect of the provisions of subpart C may be varied by agreement, except that no agreement can disclaim the responsibility of a bank for its own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care, or can limit the measure of damages for such lack or failure; but the parties may determine by agreement the standards by which such responsibility is to be measured if such standards are not manifestly unreasonable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.38" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.38   Liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard of care; liability; measure of damages.</I> A bank shall exercise ordinary care and act in good faith in complying with the requirements of this subpart. A bank that fails to exercise ordinary care or act in good faith under this subpart may be liable to the depositary bank, the depositary bank's customer, the owner of a check, or another party to the check. The measure of damages for failure to exercise ordinary care is the amount of the loss incurred, up to the amount of the check, reduced by the amount of the loss that party would have incurred even if the bank had exercised ordinary care. A bank that fails to act in good faith under this subpart may be liable for other damages, if any, suffered by the party as a proximate consequence. Subject to a bank's duty to exercise ordinary care or act in good faith in choosing the means of return or notice of nonpayment, the bank is not liable for the insolvency, neglect, misconduct, mistake, or default of another bank or person, or for loss or destruction of a check or notice of nonpayment in transit or in the possession of others. This section does not affect a paying bank's liability to its customer under the U.C.C. or other law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Paying bank's failure to make timely return.</I> If a paying bank fails both to comply with its expeditious return requirements under § 229.31(b) and with the deadline for return under the UCC, Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), or the extension of deadline under § 229.31(g) in connection with a single nonpayment of a check, the paying bank shall be liable under either § 229.31(b) or such other provision, but not both.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comparative negligence.</I> If a person, including a bank, fails to exercise ordinary care or act in good faith under this subpart in indorsing a check (§ 229.35), accepting a returned check or notice of nonpayment (§ 229.33(b), (c), and (d)), or otherwise, the damages incurred by that person under § 229.38(a) shall be diminished in proportion to the amount of negligence or bad faith attributable to that person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibility for certain aspects of checks.</I> (1) A paying bank, or in the case of a check payable through the paying bank and payable by another bank, the bank by which the check is payable, is responsible for damages under paragraph (a) of this section to the extent that the condition of the check when issued by it or its customer adversely affects the ability of a bank to indorse the check legibly in accordance with § 229.35. A depositary bank is responsible for damages under paragraph (a) of this section to the extent that the condition of the back of a check arising after the issuance of the check and prior to acceptance of the check by it adversely affects the ability of a bank to indorse the check legibly in accordance with § 229.35. A reconverting bank is responsible for damages under paragraph (a) of this section to the extent that the condition of the back of a substitute check transferred, presented, or returned by it—
</P>
<P>(i) Adversely affects the ability of a subsequent bank to indorse the check legibly in accordance with § 229.35; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Causes an indorsement that previously was applied in accordance with § 229.35 to become illegible.
</P>
<P>(2) Responsibility under this paragraph (d) shall be treated as negligence of the paying bank, depositary bank, or reconverting bank for purposes of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timeliness of action.</I> If a bank is delayed in acting beyond the time limits set forth in this subpart because of interruption of communication or computer facilities, suspension of payments by a bank, war, emergency conditions, failure of equipment, or other circumstances beyond its control, its time for acting is extended for the time necessary to complete the action, if it exercises such diligence as the circumstances require.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusion.</I> Section 229.21 of this part and section 611 (a), (b), and (c) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4010 (a), (b), and (c)) do not apply to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> Any action under this subpart may be brought in any United States district court, or in any other court of competent jurisdiction, and shall be brought within one year after the date of the occurrence of the violation involved.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reliance on Board rulings.</I> No provision of this subpart imposing any liability shall apply to any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any rule, regulation, or interpretation thereof by the Board, regardless of whether the rule, regulation, or interpretation is amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial or other authority to be invalid for any reason after the act or omission has occurred.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Presumption of Alteration</I>—(1) <I>Presumption.</I> Subject to paragraphs (i)(2) and (3) of this section and in the absence of a Federal statute or regulation to the contrary, the presumption in this paragraph applies with respect to any dispute between banks arising under Federal or State law as to whether a substitute check or electronic check transferred between those banks contains an alteration or is derived from an original check that was issued with an unauthorized signature of the drawer. When such a dispute arises, there is a rebuttable presumption that the substitute check or electronic check contains an alteration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttal of presumption.</I> The presumption of alteration may be overcome by proving by a preponderance of evidence that either the substitute check or electronic check does not contain an alteration, or that the substitute check or electronic check is derived from an original check that was issued with an unauthorized signature of the drawer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of producing original check.</I> If the original check is made available for examination by all banks involved in the dispute, the presumption in paragraph (i)(1) of this section shall no longer apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 82 FR 27583, June 15, 2017; 83 FR 46853, Sept. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.39" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.39   Insolvency of bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Duty of receiver to return unpaid checks.</I> A check or returned check in, or coming into, the possession of a paying bank, collecting bank, depositary bank, or returning bank that suspends payment, and which is not paid, shall be returned by the receiver, trustee, or agent in charge of the closed bank to the bank or customer that transferred the check to the closed bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims against banks for checks not returned by receiver.</I> If a check or returned check is not returned by the receiver, trustee, or agent in charge of the closed bank under paragraph (a) of this section, a bank shall have claims with respect to the check or returned check as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the paying bank has finally paid the check, or if a depositary bank is obligated to pay the returned check, and suspends payment without making a settlement for the check or returned check with the prior bank that is or becomes final, the prior bank has a claim against the paying bank or the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If a collecting bank, paying bank, or returning bank receives settlement from a subsequent bank for a check or returned check, which settlement is or becomes final, and suspends payments without making a settlement for the check with the prior bank, which is or becomes final, the prior bank has a claim against the collecting bank or returning bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preferred claim against presenting bank for breach of warranty.</I> If a paying bank settles with a presenting bank for one or more checks, and if the presenting bank breaches a warranty specified in § 229.34(c)(1) or (3) with respect to those checks and suspends payments before satisfying the paying bank's warranty claim, the paying bank has a preferred claim against the presenting bank for the amount of the warranty claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finality of settlement.</I> If a paying bank or depositary bank gives, or a collecting bank, paying bank, or returning bank gives or receives, a settlement for a check or returned check and thereafter suspends payment, the suspension does not prevent or interfere with the settlement becoming final if such finality occurs automatically upon the lapse of a certain time or the happening of certain events.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27583, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.40" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.40   Effect of merger transaction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, two or more banks that have engaged in a merger transaction may be considered to be separate banks for a period of one year following the consummation of the merger transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27584, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.41" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.41   Relation to State law.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart supersede any inconsistent provisions of the U.C.C. as adopted in any state, or of any other state law, but only to the extent of the inconsistency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.42" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.42   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>The expeditious return (§§ 229.31(b) and 229.32(b)), notice of nonpayment (§ 229.31(c)), and same-day settlement (§ 229.36(d)) requirements of this subpart do not apply to a check drawn upon the United States Treasury, to a U.S. Postal Service money order, or to a check drawn on a state or a unit of general local government that is not payable through or at a bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 27584, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.43" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.3.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.43   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Substitute Checks</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5001-5018. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 229.51" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.51   General provisions governing substitute checks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Legal equivalence.</I> A substitute check for which a bank has provided the warranties described in § 229.52 is the legal equivalent of an original check for all persons and all purposes, including any provision of federal or state law, if the substitute check—
</P>
<P>(1) Accurately represents all of the information on the front and back of the original check as of the time the original check was truncated; and
</P>
<P>(2) Bears the legend, “This is a legal copy of your check. You can use it the same way you would use the original check.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reconverting bank duties.</I> A bank shall ensure that a substitute check for which it is the reconverting bank—
</P>
<P>(1) Bears all indorsements applied by parties that previously handled the check in any form (including the original check, a substitute check, or another paper or electronic representation of such original check or substitute check) for forward collection or return;
</P>
<P>(2) Identifies the reconverting bank in a manner that preserves any previous reconverting-bank identifications, in accordance with ANS X9.100-140; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identifies the bank that truncated the original check, in accordance with ANS X9.100-140.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicable law.</I> A substitute check that is the legal equivalent of an original check under paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to any provision, including any provision relating to the protection of customers, of this part, the U.C.C., and any other applicable federal or state law as if such substitute check were the original check, to the extent such provision of law is not inconsistent with the Check 21 Act or this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004, as amended at 82 FR 27584, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.52" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.52   Substitute check warranties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content and provision of substitute-check warranties.</I> (1) A bank that transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) for which it receives consideration warrants to the parties listed in paragraph (b) of this section that—
</P>
<P>(i) The substitute check meets the requirements for legal equivalence described in § 229.51(a)(1) and (2); and
</P>
<P>(ii) No depositary bank, drawee, drawer, or indorser will receive presentment or return of, or otherwise be charged for, the substitute check, the original check, or a paper or electronic representation of the substitute check or original check such that that person will be asked to make a payment based on a check that it already has paid.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that rejects a check submitted for deposit and returns to its customer a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) makes the warranties in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regardless of whether the bank received consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Warranty recipients.</I> A bank makes the warranties described in paragraph (a) of this section to the person to which the bank transfers, presents, or returns the substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of such substitute check and to any subsequent recipient, which could include a collecting or returning bank, the depositary bank, the drawer, the drawee, the payee, the depositor, and any indorser. These parties receive the warranties regardless of whether they received the substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004, as amended at 82 FR 27584, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.53" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.53   Substitute check indemnity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of indemnity.</I> (1) A bank that transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check for which it receives consideration shall indemnify the recipient and any subsequent recipient (including a collecting or returning bank, the depositary bank, the drawer, the drawee, the payee, the depositor, and any indorser) for any loss incurred by any recipient of a substitute check if that loss occurred due to the receipt of a substitute check instead of the original check.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that rejects a check submitted for deposit and returns to its customer a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) shall indemnify the recipient as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section regardless of whether the bank received consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Indemnity amount</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Unless otherwise indicated by paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of this section, the amount of the indemnity under paragraph (a) of this section is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the loss resulted from a breach of a substitute check warranty provided under § 229.52, the amount of the indemnity shall be the amount of any loss (including interest, costs, reasonable attorney's fees, and other expenses of representation) proximately caused by the warranty breach.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the loss did not result from a breach of a substitute check warranty provided under § 229.52, the amount of the indemnity shall be the sum of—
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the loss, up to the amount of the substitute check; and
</P>
<P>(B) Interest and expenses (including costs and reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses of representation) related to the substitute check.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Comparative negligence.</I> (i) If a loss described in paragraph (a) of this section results in whole or in part from the indemnified person's negligence or failure to act in good faith, then the indemnity amount described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be reduced in proportion to the amount of negligence or bad faith attributable to the indemnified person.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this paragraph (b)(2) reduces the rights of a consumer or any other person under the U.C.C. or other applicable provision of state or federal law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect of producing the original check or a sufficient copy</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) If an indemnifying bank produces the original check or a sufficient copy, the indemnifying bank shall—
</P>
<P>(A) Be liable under this section only for losses that are incurred up to the time that the bank provides that original check or sufficient copy to the indemnified person; and
</P>
<P>(B) Have a right to the return of any funds it has paid under this section in excess of those losses.
</P>
<P>(ii) The production by the indemnifying bank of the original check or a sufficient copy under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section shall not absolve the indemnifying bank from any liability under any warranty that the bank has provided under § 229.52 or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subrogation of rights</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An indemnifying bank shall be subrogated to the rights of the person that it indemnifies to the extent of the indemnity it has provided and may attempt to recover from another person based on a warranty or other claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duty of indemnified person for subrogated claims.</I> Each indemnified person shall have a duty to comply with all reasonable requests for assistance from an indemnifying bank in connection with any claim the indemnifying bank brings against a warrantor or other person related to a check that forms the basis for the indemnification. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 47311, Aug. 4, 2004, as amended at 82 FR 27585, June 15, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.54" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.54   Expedited recredit for consumers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances giving rise to a claim.</I> A consumer may make a claim under this section for a recredit with respect to a substitute check if the consumer asserts in good faith that—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank holding the consumer's account charged that account for a substitute check that was provided to the consumer (although the consumer need not be in possession of that substitute check at the time he or she submits a claim);
</P>
<P>(2) The substitute check was not properly charged to the consumer account or the consumer has a warranty claim with respect to the substitute check;
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer suffered a resulting loss; and
</P>
<P>(4) Production of the original check or a sufficient copy is necessary to determine whether or not the substitute check in fact was improperly charged or whether the consumer's warranty claim is valid.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for making claims.</I> A consumer shall make his or her claim for a recredit under this section with the bank that holds the consumer's account in accordance with the timing, content, and form requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing of claim.</I> (i) The consumer shall submit his or her claim such that the bank receives the claim by the end of the 40th calendar day after the later of the calendar day on which the bank mailed or delivered, by a means agreed to by the consumer—
</P>
<P>(A) The periodic account statement that contains information concerning the transaction giving rise to the claim; or
</P>
<P>(B) The substitute check giving rise to the claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the consumer cannot submit his or her claim by the time specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section because of extenuating circumstances, the bank shall extend the 40-calendar-day period by an additional reasonable amount of time.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a consumer makes a claim orally and the bank requires the claim to be in writing, the consumer's claim is timely if the oral claim was received within the time described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i)-(ii) of this section and the written claim was received within the time described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of claim.</I> (i) The consumer's claim shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the consumer's claim, including the reason why the consumer believes his or her account was improperly charged for the substitute check or the nature of his or her warranty claim with respect to such check;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the consumer suffered a loss and an estimate of the amount of that loss;
</P>
<P>(C) The reason why production of the original check or a sufficient copy is necessary to determine whether or not the charge to the consumer's account was proper or the consumer's warranty claim is valid; and
</P>
<P>(D) Sufficient information to allow the bank to identify the substitute check and investigate the claim.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a consumer attempts to make a claim but fails to provide all the information in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section that is required to constitute a claim, the bank shall inform the consumer that the claim is not complete and identify the information that is missing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form and submission of claim; computation of time for bank action.</I> The bank holding the account that is the subject of the consumer's claim may, in its discretion, require the consumer to submit the information required by this section in writing. A bank that requires a written submission—
</P>
<P>(i) May permit the consumer to submit the written claim electronically;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall inform a consumer who submits a claim orally of the written claim requirement at the time of the oral claim and may require such consumer to submit the written claim such that the bank receives the written claim by the 10th business day after the banking day on which the bank received the oral claim; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall compute the time periods for acting on the consumer's claim described in paragraph (c) of this section from the date on which the bank received the written claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on claims.</I> A bank that receives a claim that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section shall act as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Valid consumer claim.</I> If the bank determines that the consumer's claim is valid, the bank shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Recredit the consumer's account for the amount of the consumer's loss, up to the amount of the substitute check, plus interest if the account is an interest-bearing account, no later than the end of the business day after the banking day on which the bank makes that determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Send to the consumer the notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Invalid consumer claim.</I> If a bank determines that the consumer's claim is not valid, the bank shall send to the consumer the notice described in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recredit pending investigation.</I> If the bank has not taken an action described in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section before the end of the 10th business day after the banking day on which the bank received the claim, the bank shall—
</P>
<P>(i) By the end of that business day—
</P>
<P>(A) Recredit the consumer's account for the amount of the consumer's loss, up to the lesser of the amount of the substitute check or $2,500, plus interest on that amount if the account is an interest-bearing account; and
</P>
<P>(B) Send to the consumer the notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Recredit the consumer's account for the remaining amount of the consumer's loss, if any, up to the amount of the substitute check, plus interest if the account is an interest-bearing account, no later than the end of the 45th calendar day after the banking day on which the bank received the claim and send to the consumer the notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section, unless the bank prior to that time has determined that the consumer's claim is or is not valid in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reversal of recredit.</I> A bank may reverse a recredit that it has made to a consumer account under paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(3) of this section, plus interest that the bank has paid, if any, on that amount, if the bank—
</P>
<P>(i) Determines that the consumer's claim was not valid; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notifies the consumer in accordance with paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of recredit</I>—(1) <I>Next-day availability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a bank shall make any amount that it recredits to a consumer account under this section available for withdrawal no later than the start of the business day after the banking day on which the bank provides the recredit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safeguard exceptions.</I> A bank may delay availability to a consumer of a recredit provided under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section until the start of the earlier of the business day after the banking day on which the bank determines the consumer's claim is valid or the 45th calendar day after the banking day on which the bank received the oral or written claim, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, if—
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer submits the claim during the 30-calendar-day period beginning on the banking day on which the consumer account was established;
</P>
<P>(ii) Without regard to the charge that gave rise to the recredit claim—
</P>
<P>(A) On six or more business days during the six-month period ending on the calendar day on which the consumer submitted the claim, the balance in the consumer account was negative or would have become negative if checks or other charges to the account had been paid; or
</P>
<P>(B) On two or more business days during such six-month period, the balance in the consumer account was negative or would have become negative in the amount of $5,000 or more if checks or other charges to the account had been paid; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank has reasonable cause to believe that the claim is fraudulent, based on facts that would cause a well-grounded belief in the mind of a reasonable person that the claim is fraudulent. The fact that the check in question or the consumer is of a particular class may not be the basis for invoking this exception.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overdraft fees.</I> A bank that delays availability as permitted in paragraph (d)(2) of this section may not impose an overdraft fee with respect to drafts drawn by the consumer on such recredited funds until the fifth calendar day after the calendar day on which the bank sent the notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notices relating to consumer expedited recredit claims</I>—(1) <I>Notice of recredit.</I> A bank that recredits a consumer account under paragraph (c) of this section shall send notice to the consumer of the recredit no later than the business day after the banking day on which the bank recredits the consumer account. This notice shall describe—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the recredit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the recredited funds will be available for withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice that the consumer's claim is not valid.</I> If a bank determines that a substitute check for which a consumer made a claim under this section was in fact properly charged to the consumer account or that the consumer's warranty claim for that substitute check was not valid, the bank shall send notice to the consumer no later than the business day after the banking day on which the bank makes that determination. This notice shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Include the original check or a sufficient copy, except as provided in § 229.58;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate to the consumer that the substitute check was properly charged or the consumer's warranty claim is not valid; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the information or documents (in addition to the original check or sufficient copy), if any, on which the bank relied in making its determination or a statement that the consumer may request copies of such information or documents.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of a reversal of recredit.</I> A bank that reverses an amount it previously recredited to a consumer account shall send notice to the consumer no later than the business day after the banking day on which the bank made the reversal. This notice shall include the information listed in paragraph (e)(2) of this section and also describe—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the reversal, including both the amount of the recredit (including the interest component, if any) and the amount of interest paid on the recredited amount, if any, being reversed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the bank made the reversal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other claims not affected.</I> Providing a recredit in accordance with this section shall not absolve the bank from liability for a claim made under any other provision of law, such as a claim for wrongful dishonor of a check under the U.C.C., or from liability for additional damages, such as damages under § 229.53 or § 229.56 of this subpart or U.C.C. 4-402. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.55" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.55   Expedited recredit for banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Circumstances giving rise to a claim.</I> A bank that has an indemnity claim under § 229.53 with respect to a substitute check may make an expedited recredit claim against an indemnifying bank if—
</P>
<P>(1) The claimant bank or a bank that the claimant bank has indemnified—
</P>
<P>(i) Has received a claim for expedited recredit from a consumer under § 229.54; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Would have been subject to such a claim if the consumer account had been charged for the substitute check;
</P>
<P>(2) The claimant bank is obligated to provide an expedited recredit with respect to such substitute check under § 229.54 or otherwise has suffered a resulting loss; and
</P>
<P>(3) The production of the original check or a sufficient copy is necessary to determine the validity of the charge to the consumer account or the validity of any warranty claim connected with such substitute check.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for making claims.</I> A claimant bank shall send its claim to the indemnifying bank, subject to the timing, content, and form requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing of claim.</I> The claimant bank shall submit its claim such that the indemnifying bank receives the claim by the end of the 120th calendar day after the date of the transaction that gave rise to the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of claim.</I> The claimant bank's claim shall include the following information—
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the consumer's claim or the warranty claim related to the substitute check, including why the bank believes that the substitute check may not be properly charged to the consumer account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the claimant bank is obligated to recredit a consumer account under § 229.54 or otherwise has suffered a loss and an estimate of the amount of that recredit or loss, including interest if applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) The reason why production of the original check or a sufficient copy is necessary to determine the validity of the charge to the consumer account or the warranty claim; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Sufficient information to allow the indemnifying bank to identify the substitute check and investigate the claim.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements relating to copies of substitute checks.</I> If the information submitted by a claimant bank under paragraph (b)(2) of this section includes a copy of any substitute check, the claimant bank shall take reasonable steps to ensure that the copy cannot be mistaken for the legal equivalent of the check under § 229.51(a) or sent or handled by any bank, including the indemnifying bank, for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form and submission of claim; computation of time.</I> The indemnifying bank may, in its discretion, require the claimant bank to submit the information required by this section in writing, including a copy of the paper or electronic claim submitted by the consumer, if any. An indemnifying bank that requires a written submission—
</P>
<P>(i) May permit the claimant bank to submit the written claim electronically;
</P>
<P>(ii) Shall inform a claimant bank that submits a claim orally of the written claim requirement at the time of the oral claim; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall compute the 10-day time period for acting on the claim described in paragraph (c) of this section from the date on which the bank received the written claim.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on claims.</I> No later than the 10th business day after the banking day on which the indemnifying bank receives a claim that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, the indemnifying bank shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Recredit the claimant bank for the amount of the claim, up to the amount of the substitute check, plus interest if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide to the claimant bank the original check or a sufficient copy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Provide information to the claimant bank regarding why the indemnifying bank is not obligated to comply with paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recredit does not abrogate other liabilities.</I> Providing a recredit to a claimant bank under this section does not absolve the indemnifying bank from liability for claims brought under any other law or from additional damages under § 229.53 or § 229.56.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indemnifying bank's right to a refund.</I> (1) If a claimant bank reverses a recredit it previously made to a consumer account under § 229.54 or otherwise receives reimbursement for a substitute check that formed the basis of its claim under this section, the claimant bank shall provide a refund promptly to any indemnifying bank that previously advanced funds to the claimant bank. The amount of the refund to the indemnifying bank shall be the amount of the reversal or reimbursement obtained by the claimant bank, up to the amount previously advanced by the indemnifying bank.
</P>
<P>(2) If the indemnifying bank provides the claimant bank with the original check or a sufficient copy under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, § 229.53(b)(3) governs the indemnifying bank's entitlement to repayment of any amount provided to the claimant bank that exceeds the amount of losses the claimant bank incurred up to that time. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.56" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.56   Liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Measure of damages</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section or § 229.53, any person that breaches a warranty described in § 229.52 or fails to comply with any requirement of this subpart with respect to any other person shall be liable to that person for an amount equal to the sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the loss suffered by the person as a result of the breach or failure, up to the amount of the substitute check; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest and expenses (including costs and reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses of representation) related to the substitute check.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Offset of recredits.</I> The amount of damages a person receives under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be reduced by any amount that the person receives and retains as a recredit under § 229.54 or § 229.55.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comparative negligence.</I> (i) If a person incurs damages that resulted in whole or in part from that person's negligence or failure to act in good faith, then the amount of any damages due to that person under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be reduced in proportion to the amount of negligence or bad faith attributable to that person.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nothing in this paragraph (a)(3) reduces the rights of a consumer or any other person under the U.C.C. or other applicable provision of federal or state law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timeliness of action.</I> Delay by a bank beyond any time limits prescribed or permitted by this subpart is excused if the delay is caused by interruption of communication or computer facilities, suspension of payments by another bank, war, emergency conditions, failure of equipment, or other circumstances beyond the control of the bank and if the bank uses such diligence as the circumstances require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> A person may bring an action to enforce a claim under this subpart in any United States district court or in any other court of competent jurisdiction. Such claim shall be brought within one year of the date on which the person's cause of action accrues. For purposes of this paragraph, a cause of action accrues as of the date on which the injured person first learns, or by which such person reasonably should have learned, of the facts and circumstances giving rise to the cause of action, including the identity of the warranting or indemnifying bank against which the action is brought.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of claims.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d), unless a person gives notice of a claim under this section to the warranting or indemnifying bank within 30 calendar days after the person has reason to know of both the claim and the identity of the warranting or indemnifying bank, the warranting or indemnifying bank is discharged from liability in an action to enforce a claim under this subpart to the extent of any loss caused by the delay in giving notice of the claim. A timely recredit claim by a consumer under § 229.54 constitutes timely notice under this paragraph. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.57" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.57   Consumer awareness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General disclosure requirement and content.</I> Each bank shall provide, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, a brief disclosure to each of its consumer customers that describes—
</P>
<P>(1) That a substitute check is the legal equivalent of an original check; and
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer recredit rights that apply when a consumer in good faith believes that a substitute check was not properly charged to his or her account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure to consumers who receive paid checks with periodic account statements.</I> A bank shall provide the disclosure described in paragraph (a) of this section to a consumer customer who receives paid original checks or paid substitute checks with his or her periodic account statement—
</P>
<P>(i) No later than the first regularly scheduled communication with the consumer after October 28, 2004, for each consumer who is a customer of the bank on that date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the customer relationship is initiated, for each customer relationship established after October 28, 2004.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to consumers who receive substitute checks on an occasional basis</I>—(i) The bank shall provide the disclosure described in paragraph (a) of this section to a consumer customer of the bank who requests an original check or a copy of a check and receives a substitute check. If feasible, the bank shall provide this disclosure at the time of the consumer's request; otherwise, the bank shall provide this disclosure no later than the time at which the bank provides a substitute check in response to the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank shall provide the disclosure described in paragraph (a) of this section to a consumer customer of the bank who receives a returned substitute check, at the time the bank provides such substitute check.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multiple account holders.</I> A bank need not give separate disclosures to each customer on a jointly held account. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.58" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.58   Mode of delivery of information.</HEAD>
<P>A bank may deliver any notice or other information that it is required to provide under this subpart by United States mail or by any other means through which the recipient has agreed to receive account information. If a bank is required to provide an original check or a sufficient copy, the bank instead may provide an electronic image of the original check or sufficient copy if the recipient has agreed to receive that information electronically. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.59" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.59   Relation to other law.</HEAD>
<P>The Check 21 Act and this subpart supersede any provision of federal or state law, including the Uniform Commercial Code, that is inconsistent with the Check 21 Act or this subpart, but only to the extent of the inconsistency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 229.60" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.4.8.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 229.60   Variation by agreement.</HEAD>
<P>Any provision of § 229.55 may be varied by agreement of the banks involved. No other provision of this subpart may be varied by agreement by any person or persons.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 229—Routing Number Guide to Next-Day Availability Checks and Local Checks
</HEAD>
<P>A. Each bank is assigned a routing number by an agent of the American Bankers Association. The routing number takes two forms: a fractional form and a nine-digit form. A paying bank generally is identified on the face of a check by its routing number in both the fractional form (which generally appears in the upper right-hand corner of the check) and the nine-digit form (which is printed in magnetic ink along the bottom of the check). Where a check is payable by one bank but payable through another bank, the routing number appearing on the check is that of the payable-through bank, not the payor bank.
</P>
<P>B. The first four digits of the nine-digit routing number (and the denominator of the fractional routing number) form the “Federal Reserve routing symbol,” and the first two digits of the routing number identify the Federal Reserve District in which the bank is located. Thus, 01 will be the first two digits of the routing number of a bank in the First Federal Reserve District (Boston), and 12 will be the first two digits of the routing number of a bank in the Twelfth District (San Francisco). Adding 2 to the first digit denotes a thrift institution. Thus, 21 identifies a thrift in the First District, and 32 denotes a thrift in the Twelfth District.
</P>
<HD1>Fourth Federal Reserve District
</HD1>
<HD3>[Federal Reserve Bank of Cleveland]
</HD3>
<HD2>Head Office
</HD2>
<SCOL2>
<LI>
<SU>1</SU> 0110</LI>
<LI>0111</LI>
<LI>0112</LI>
<LI>0113</LI>
<LI>0114</LI>
<LI>0115</LI>
<LI>0116</LI>
<LI>0117</LI>
<LI>0118</LI>
<LI>0119</LI>
<LI>0210</LI>
<LI>0211</LI>
<LI>0212</LI>
<LI>0213</LI>
<LI>0214</LI>
<LI>0215</LI>
<LI>0216</LI>
<LI>0219</LI>
<LI>0220</LI>
<LI>0223</LI>
<LI>0260</LI>
<LI>0280</LI>
<LI>0310</LI>
<LI>0311</LI>
<LI>0312</LI>
<LI>0313</LI>
<LI>0319</LI>
<LI>0360</LI>
<LI>0410</LI>
<LI>0412</LI>
<LI>0420</LI>
<LI>0421</LI>
<LI>0422</LI>
<LI>0423</LI>
<LI>0430</LI>
<LI>0432</LI>
<LI>0433</LI>
<LI>0434</LI>
<LI>0440</LI>
<LI>0441</LI>
<LI>0442</LI>
<LI>0510</LI>
<LI>0514</LI>
<LI>0515</LI>
<LI>0519</LI>
<LI>0520</LI>
<LI>0521</LI>
<LI>0522</LI>
<LI>0530</LI>
<LI>0531</LI>
<LI>0532</LI>
<LI>0539</LI>
<LI>0540</LI>
<LI>0550</LI>
<LI>0560</LI>
<LI>0570</LI>
<LI>0610</LI>
<LI>0611</LI>
<LI>0612</LI>
<LI>0613</LI>
<LI>0620</LI>
<LI>0621</LI>
<LI>0622</LI>
<LI>0630</LI>
<LI>0631</LI>
<LI>0632</LI>
<LI>0640</LI>
<LI>0641</LI>
<LI>0642</LI>
<LI>0650</LI>
<LI>0651</LI>
<LI>0652</LI>
<LI>0653</LI>
<LI>0654</LI>
<LI>0655</LI>
<LI>0660</LI>
<LI>0670</LI>
<LI>0710</LI>
<LI>0711</LI>
<LI>0712</LI>
<LI>0719</LI>
<LI>0720</LI>
<LI>0724</LI>
<LI>0730</LI>
<LI>0739</LI>
<LI>0740</LI>
<LI>0749</LI>
<LI>0750</LI>
<LI>0759</LI>
<LI>0810</LI>
<LI>0812</LI>
<LI>0813</LI>
<LI>0815</LI>
<LI>0819</LI>
<LI>0820</LI>
<LI>0829</LI>
<LI>0830</LI>
<LI>0839</LI>
<LI>0840</LI>
<LI>0841</LI>
<LI>0842</LI>
<LI>0843</LI>
<LI>0863</LI>
<LI>0865</LI>
<LI>0910</LI>
<LI>0911</LI>
<LI>0912</LI>
<LI>0913</LI>
<LI>0914</LI>
<LI>0915</LI>
<LI>0918</LI>
<LI>0919</LI>
<LI>0920</LI>
<LI>0921</LI>
<LI>0929</LI>
<LI>0960</LI>
<LI>1010</LI>
<LI>1011</LI>
<LI>1012</LI>
<LI>1019</LI>
<LI>1020</LI>
<LI>1021</LI>
<LI>1022</LI>
<LI>1023</LI>
<LI>1030</LI>
<LI>1031</LI>
<LI>1039</LI>
<LI>1040</LI>
<LI>1041</LI>
<LI>1049</LI>
<LI>1070</LI>
<LI>1110</LI>
<LI>1111</LI>
<LI>1113</LI>
<LI>1119</LI>
<LI>1120</LI>
<LI>1122</LI>
<LI>1123</LI>
<LI>1130</LI>
<LI>1131</LI>
<LI>1140</LI>
<LI>1149</LI>
<LI>1163</LI>
<LI>1210</LI>
<LI>1211</LI>
<LI>1212</LI>
<LI>1213</LI>
<LI>1220</LI>
<LI>1221</LI>
<LI>1222</LI>
<LI>1223</LI>
<LI>1224</LI>
<LI>1230</LI>
<LI>1231</LI>
<LI>1232</LI>
<LI>1233</LI>
<LI>1240</LI>
<LI>1241</LI>
<LI>1242</LI>
<LI>1243</LI>
<LI>1250</LI>
<LI>1251</LI>
<LI>1252</LI>
<LI>2111</LI>
<LI>2112</LI>
<LI>2113</LI>
<LI>2114</LI>
<LI>2115</LI>
<LI>2116</LI>
<LI>2117</LI>
<LI>2118</LI>
<LI>2119</LI>
<LI>2210</LI>
<LI>2211</LI>
<LI>2212</LI>
<LI>2213</LI>
<LI>2214</LI>
<LI>2215</LI>
<LI>2216</LI>
<LI>2219</LI>
<LI>2220</LI>
<LI>2223</LI>
<LI>2260</LI>
<LI>2280</LI>
<LI>2310</LI>
<LI>2311</LI>
<LI>2312</LI>
<LI>2313</LI>
<LI>2319</LI>
<LI>2360</LI>
<LI>2410</LI>
<LI>2412</LI>
<LI>2420</LI>
<LI>2421</LI>
<LI>2422</LI>
<LI>2423</LI>
<LI>2430</LI>
<LI>2432</LI>
<LI>2433</LI>
<LI>2434</LI>
<LI>2440</LI>
<LI>2441</LI>
<LI>2442</LI>
<LI>2510</LI>
<LI>2514</LI>
<LI>2515</LI>
<LI>2519</LI>
<LI>2520</LI>
<LI>2521</LI>
<LI>2522</LI>
<LI>2530</LI>
<LI>2531</LI>
<LI>2532</LI>
<LI>2539</LI>
<LI>2540</LI>
<LI>2550</LI>
<LI>2560</LI>
<LI>2570</LI>
<LI>2610</LI>
<LI>2611</LI>
<LI>2612</LI>
<LI>2613</LI>
<LI>2620</LI>
<LI>2621</LI>
<LI>2622</LI>
<LI>2630</LI>
<LI>2631</LI>
<LI>2632</LI>
<LI>2640</LI>
<LI>2641</LI>
<LI>2642</LI>
<LI>2650</LI>
<LI>2651</LI>
<LI>2652</LI>
<LI>2653</LI>
<LI>2654</LI>
<LI>2655</LI>
<LI>2660</LI>
<LI>2670</LI>
<LI>2710</LI>
<LI>2711</LI>
<LI>2712</LI>
<LI>2719</LI>
<LI>2720</LI>
<LI>2724</LI>
<LI>2730</LI>
<LI>2739</LI>
<LI>2740</LI>
<LI>2749</LI>
<LI>2750</LI>
<LI>2759</LI>
<LI>2810</LI>
<LI>2812</LI>
<LI>2813</LI>
<LI>2815</LI>
<LI>2819</LI>
<LI>2820</LI>
<LI>2829</LI>
<LI>2830</LI>
<LI>2839</LI>
<LI>2840</LI>
<LI>2841</LI>
<LI>2842</LI>
<LI>2843</LI>
<LI>2863</LI>
<LI>2865</LI>
<LI>2910</LI>
<LI>2911</LI>
<LI>2912</LI>
<LI>2913</LI>
<LI>2914</LI>
<LI>2915</LI>
<LI>2918</LI>
<LI>2919</LI>
<LI>2920</LI>
<LI>2921</LI>
<LI>2929</LI>
<LI>2960</LI>
<LI>3010</LI>
<LI>3011</LI>
<LI>3012</LI>
<LI>3019</LI>
<LI>3020</LI>
<LI>3021</LI>
<LI>3022</LI>
<LI>3023</LI>
<LI>3030</LI>
<LI>3031</LI>
<LI>3039</LI>
<LI>3040</LI>
<LI>3041</LI>
<LI>3049</LI>
<LI>3070</LI>
<LI>3110</LI>
<LI>3111</LI>
<LI>3113</LI>
<LI>3119</LI>
<LI>3120</LI>
<LI>3122</LI>
<LI>3123</LI>
<LI>3130</LI>
<LI>3131</LI>
<LI>3140</LI>
<LI>3149</LI>
<LI>3163</LI>
<LI>3210</LI>
<LI>3211</LI>
<LI>3212</LI>
<LI>3213</LI>
<LI>3220</LI>
<LI>3221</LI>
<LI>3222</LI>
<LI>3223</LI>
<LI>3224</LI>
<LI>3230</LI>
<LI>3231</LI>
<LI>3232</LI>
<LI>3233</LI>
<LI>3240</LI>
<LI>3241</LI>
<LI>3242</LI>
<LI>3243</LI>
<LI>3250</LI>
<LI>3251</LI>
<LI>3252
</LI></SCOL2>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The first two digits identify the bank's Federal Reserve District. For example, 01 identifies the First Federal Reserve District (Boston), and 12 identifies the Twelfth District (San Francisco). Adding 2 to the first digit denotes a thrift institution. For example, 21 identifies a thrift in the First District, and 32 denotes a thrift in the Twelfth District.
</P>
<HD1>Federal Reserve Banks
</HD1>
<SCOL2>
<LI>0110 0001 5</LI>
<LI>0111 0048 1</LI>
<LI>0210 0120 8</LI>
<LI>0212 0400 5</LI>
<LI>0213 0500 1</LI>
<LI>0220 0026 6</LI>
<LI>0310 0004 0</LI>
<LI>0410 0001 4</LI>
<LI>0420 0043 7</LI>
<LI>0430 0030 0</LI>
<LI>0440 0050 3</LI>
<LI>0510 0003 3</LI>
<LI>0519 0002 3</LI>
<LI>0520 0027 8</LI>
<LI>0530 0020 6</LI>
<LI>0539 0008 9</LI>
<LI>0610 0014 6</LI>
<LI>0620 0019 0</LI>
<LI>0630 0019 9</LI>
<LI>0640 0010 1</LI>
<LI>0650 0021 0</LI>
<LI>0660 0010 9</LI>
<LI>0710 0030 1</LI>
<LI>0711 0711 0</LI>
<LI>0720 0029 0</LI>
<LI>0730 0033 8</LI>
<LI>0740 0020 1</LI>
<LI>0750 0012 9</LI>
<LI>0810 0004 5</LI>
<LI>0820 0013 8</LI>
<LI>0830 0059 3</LI>
<LI>0840 0003 9</LI>
<LI>0910 0008 0</LI>
<LI>0920 0026 7</LI>
<LI>1010 0004 8</LI>
<LI>1020 0019 9</LI>
<LI>1030 0024 0</LI>
<LI>1040 0012 6</LI>
<LI>1110 0003 8</LI>
<LI>1120 0001 1</LI>
<LI>1130 0004 9</LI>
<LI>1140 0072 1</LI>
<LI>1210 0037 4</LI>
<LI>1220 0016 6</LI>
<LI>1230 0001 3</LI>
<LI>1240 0031 3</LI>
<LI>1250 0001 1
</LI></SCOL2>
<HD1>Federal Home Loan Banks
</HD1>
<SCOL2>
<LI>0110 0053 6</LI>
<LI>0212 0639 1</LI>
<LI>0260 0973 9</LI>
<LI>0410 0291 5</LI>
<LI>0420 0091 6</LI>
<LI>0430 0143 5</LI>
<LI>0430 1862 2</LI>
<LI>0610 0876 6</LI>
<LI>0710 0450 1</LI>
<LI>0730 0091 4</LI>
<LI>0740 0101 9</LI>
<LI>0810 0091 9</LI>
<LI>0910 0091 2</LI>
<LI>1010 0091 2</LI>
<LI>1011 0194 7</LI>
<LI>1110 1083 7</LI>
<LI>1119 1083 0</LI>
<LI>1210 0070 1</LI>
<LI>1240 0287 4</LI>
<LI>1250 0050 3
</LI></SCOL2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting appendix A to part 229, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 229 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 229—Model Availability Policy Disclosures, Clauses, and Notices; Model Substitute Check Policy Disclosure and Notices 
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix contains model availability policy and substitute check policy disclosures, clauses, and notices to facilitate compliance with the disclosure and notice requirements of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229). Although use of these models is not required, banks using them properly (with the exception of models C-22 through C-25) to make disclosures required by Regulation CC are deemed to be in compliance.
</P>
<HD2>Model Availability Policy Disclosures 
</HD2>
<FP-2>C-1 Next-day availability 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-2 Next-day availability and § 229.13 exceptions 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-3 Next-day availability, case-by-case holds to statutory limits, and § 229.13 exceptions 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-4 Holds to statutory limits on all deposits (includes chart) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-5 Holds to statutory limits on all deposits 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-5A Substitute check policy disclosure
</FP-2>
<HD2>Model Clauses 
</HD2>
<FP-2>C-6 Holds on other funds (check cashing) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-7 Holds on other funds (other account) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-8 Appendix B availability (nonlocal checks) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-9 Automated teller machine deposits (extended hold) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-10 Cash withdrawal limitation 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-11 Credit union interest payment policy
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-11A Availability of Funds Deposited at Other Locations 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Model Notices 
</HD2>
<FP-2>C-12 Exception hold notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-13 Reasonable cause hold notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-14 One-time notice for large deposit and redeposited check exception holds 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-15 One-time notice for repeated overdraft exception holds 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-16 Case-by-case hold notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-17 Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-18 Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits (case-by-case holds) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-19 Notice at automated teller machines 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-20 Notice at automated teller machines (delayed receipt) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-21 Deposit slip notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-22 Expedited Recredit Claim, Valid Claim Refund Notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-23 Expedited Recredit Claim, Provisional Refund Notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-24 Expedited Recredit Claim, Denial Notice 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C-25 Expedited Recredit Claim, Reversal Notice
</FP-2>
<HD2>Model Availability Policy Disclosures 
</HD2>
<HD3>C-1—Next-Day Availability 
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Ability To Withdraw Funds 
</HD3>
<P>Our policy is to make funds from your cash and check deposits available to you on the first business day after the day we receive your deposit. Electronic direct deposits will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Once the funds are available, you can withdraw them in cash and we will use them to pay checks that you have written. 
</P>
<P>For determining the availability of your deposits, every day is a business day, except Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If you make a deposit before (<I>time of day</I>) on a business day that we are open, we will consider that day to be the day of your deposit. However, if you make a deposit after (<I>time of day</I>) or on a day we are not open, we will consider that the deposit was made on the next business day we are open. 
</P>
<HD3>C-2—Next-day availability and § 229.13 exceptions 
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Ability To Withdraw Funds 
</HD3>
<P>Our policy is to make funds from your cash and check deposits available to you on the first business day after the day we receive your deposit. Electronic direct deposits will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Once they are available, you can withdraw the funds in cash and we will use the funds to pay checks that you have written. 
</P>
<P>For determining the availability of your deposits, every day is a business day, except Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If you make a deposit before (<I>time of day</I>) on a business day that we are open, we will consider that day to be the day of your deposit. However, if you make a deposit after (<I>time of day</I>) or on a day we are not open, we will consider that the deposit was made on the next business day we are open. 
</P>
<HD3>Longer Delays May Apply 
</HD3>
<P>Funds you deposit by check may be delayed for a longer period under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>• We believe a check you deposit will not be paid. 
</P>
<P>• You deposit checks totaling more than $5,000 on any one day. 
</P>
<P>• You redeposit a check that has been returned unpaid. 
</P>
<P>• You have overdrawn your account repeatedly in the last six months. 
</P>
<P>• There is an emergency, such as failure of computer or communications equipment. 
</P>
<P>We will notify you if we delay your ability to withdraw funds for any of these reasons, and we will tell you when the funds will be available. They will generally be available no later than the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Special Rules for New Accounts 
</HD3>
<P>If you are a new customer, the following special rules will apply during the first 30 days your account is open. 
</P>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Funds from deposits of cash, wire transfers, and the first $5,000 of a day's total deposits of cashier's, certified, teller's, traveler's, and federal, state and local government checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit if the deposit meets certain conditions. For example, the checks must be payable to you (and you may have to use a special deposit slip). The excess over $5,000 will be available on the ninth business day after the day of your deposit. If your deposit of these checks (other than a U.S. Treasury check) is not made in person to one of our employees, the first $5,000 will not be available until the second business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<P>Funds from all other check deposits will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>C-3—Next-Day Availability, Case-by-Case Holds to Statutory Limits, and § 229.13 Exceptions 
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Ability To Withdraw Funds 
</HD3>
<P>Our policy is to make funds from your cash and check deposits available to you on the first business day after the day we receive your deposit. Electronic direct deposits will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Once they are available, you can withdraw the funds in cash and we will use the funds to pay checks that you have written. 
</P>
<P>For determining the availability of your deposits, every day is a business day, except Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If you make a deposit before (<I>time of day</I>) on a business day that we are open, we will consider that day to be the day of your deposit. However, if you make a deposit after (<I>time of day</I>) or on a day we are not open, we will consider that the deposit was made on the next business day we are open. 
</P>
<HD3>Longer Delays May Apply
</HD3>
<P>In some cases, we will not make all of the funds that you deposit by check available to you on the first business day after the day of your deposit. Depending on the type of check that you deposit, funds may not be available until the fifth business day after the day of your deposit. The first $100 of your deposits, however, may be available on the first business day. 
</P>
<P>If we are not going to make all of the funds from your deposit available on the first business day, we will notify you at the time you make your deposit. We will also tell you when the funds will be available. If your deposit is not made directly to one of our employees, or if we decide to take this action after you have left the premises, we will mail you the notice by the day after we receive your deposit. 
</P>
<P>If you will need the funds from a deposit right away, you should ask us when the funds will be available. 
</P>
<P>In addition, funds you deposit by check may be delayed for a longer period under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>• We believe a check you deposit will not be paid. 
</P>
<P>• You deposit checks totaling more than $5,000 on any one day. 
</P>
<P>• You redeposit a check that has been returned unpaid. 
</P>
<P>• You have overdrawn your account repeatedly in the last six months. 
</P>
<P>• There is an emergency, such as failure of computer or communications equipment. 
</P>
<P>We will notify you if we delay your ability to withdraw funds for any of these reasons, and we will tell you when the funds will be available. They will generally be available no later than the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Special Rules for New Accounts
</HD3>
<P>If you are a new customer, the following special rules will apply during the first 30 days your account is open. 
</P>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Funds from deposits of cash, wire transfers, and the first $5,000 of a day's total deposits of cashier's, certified, teller's, traveler's, and federal, state and local government checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit if the deposit meets certain conditions. For example, the checks must be payable to you (and you may have to use a special deposit slip). The excess over $5,000 will be available on the ninth business day after the day of your deposit. If your deposit of these checks (other than a U.S. Treasury check) is not made in person to one of our employees, the first $5,000 will not be available until the second business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<P>Funds from all other check deposits will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>C-4—Holds to Statutory Limits On All Deposits (Includes Chart) 
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Ability To Withdraw Funds 
</HD3>
<P>Our policy is to delay the availability of funds from your cash and check deposits. During the delay, you may not withdraw the funds in cash and we will not use the funds to pay checks that you have written. 
</P>
<HD3>Determining the Availability of a Deposit
</HD3>
<P>The length of the delay is counted in business days from the day of your deposit. Every day is a business day except Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If you make a deposit before (<I>time of day</I>) on a business day that we are open, we will consider that day to be the day of your deposit. However, if you make a deposit after (<I>time of day</I>) or on a day we are not open, we will consider that the deposit was made on the next business day we are open. 
</P>
<P>The length of the delay varies depending on the type of deposit and is explained below. 
</P>
<HD3>Same-Day Availability 
</HD3>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Next-Day Availability 
</HD3>
<P>Funds from the following deposits are available on the first business day after the day of your deposit: 
</P>
<P>• U.S. Treasury checks that are payable to you. 
</P>
<P>• Wire transfers. 
</P>
<P>• Checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>) [unless (<I>any limitations related to branches in different states or check processing regions</I>)]. 
</P>
<P>If you make the deposit in person to one of our employees, funds from the following deposits are also available on the first business day after the day of your deposit: 
</P>
<P>• Cash. 
</P>
<P>• State and local government checks that are payable to you [if you use a special deposit slip available from (<I>where deposit slip may be obtained</I>)]. 
</P>
<P>• Cashier's, certified, and teller's checks that are payable to you [if you use a special deposit slip available from (<I>where deposit slip may be obtained</I>)]. 
</P>
<P>• Federal Reserve Bank checks, Federal Home Loan Bank checks, and postal money orders, if these items are payable to you. 
</P>
<P>If you do not make your deposit in person to one of our employees (for example, if you mail the deposit), funds from these deposits will be available on the second business day after the day we receive your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Other Check Deposits 
</HD3>
<P>To find out when funds from other check deposits will be available, look at the first four digits of the routing number on the check: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24mr97.000.gif"/>
<P>Some checks are marked “payable through” and have a four-or nine-digit number nearby. For these checks, use this four-digit number (or the first four digits of the nine-digit number), not the routing number on the bottom of the check, to determine if these checks are local or nonlocal. Once you have determined the first four digits of the routing number (1234 in the examples above), the following chart will show you when funds from the check will be available: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">First four digits from routing
<br/>number
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When funds are available
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When funds are available if a deposit is made on a Monday
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[local numbers]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100 on the first business day after the day of your deposit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuesday.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining funds on the second business day after the day of your deposit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Wednesday. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other numbers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100 on the first business day after the day of your deposit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tuesday. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining funds on the fifth business day after the day of your deposit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Monday of the following week.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>If you deposit both categories of checks, $100 from the checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit, not $100 from each category of check. 
</P>
<HD3>Longer Delays May Apply
</HD3>
<P>Funds you deposit by check may be delayed for a longer period under the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>• We believe a check you deposit will not be paid. 
</P>
<P>• You deposit checks totaling more than $5,000 on any one day. 
</P>
<P>• You redeposit a check that has been returned unpaid. 
</P>
<P>• You have overdrawn your account repeatedly in the last six months. 
</P>
<P>• There is an emergency, such as failure of computer or communications equipment. 
</P>
<P>We will notify you if we delay your ability to withdraw funds for any of these reasons, and we will tell you when the funds will be available. They will generally be available no later than the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Special Rules for New Accounts 
</HD3>
<P>If you are a new customer, the following special rules will apply during the first 30 days your account is open. 
</P>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Funds from deposits of cash, wire transfers, and the first $5,000 of a day's total deposits of cashier's, certified, teller's, traveler's, and federal, state and local government checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit if the deposit meets certain conditions. For example, the checks must be payable to you (and you may have to use a special deposit slip). The excess over $5,000 will be available on the ninth business day after the day of your deposit. If your deposit of these checks (other than a U.S. Treasury check) is not made in person to one of our employees, the first $5,000 will not be available until the second business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<P>Funds from all other check deposits will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>C-5—Holds to Statutory Limits on All Deposits
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Ability To Withdraw Funds
</HD3>
<P>Our policy is to delay the availability of funds from your cash and check deposits. During the delay, you may not withdraw the funds in cash and we will not use the funds to pay checks that you have written.
</P>
<HD3>Determining the Availability Of A Deposit
</HD3>
<P>The length of the delay is counted in business days from the day of your deposit. Every day is a business day except Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If you make a deposit before (<I>time of day</I>) on a business day that we are open, we will consider that day to be the day of your deposit. However, if you make a deposit after (<I>time of day</I>) or on a day we are not open, we will consider that the deposit was made on the next business day we are open.
</P>
<P>The length of the delay varies depending on the type of deposit and is explained below.
</P>
<HD3>Same-Day Availability
</HD3>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit.
</P>
<HD3>Next-Day Availability
</HD3>
<P>Funds from the following deposits are available on the first business day after the day of your deposit:
</P>
<P>• U.S. Treasury checks that are payable to you.
</P>
<P>• Wire transfers.
</P>
<P>• Checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>) [unless (<I>any limitations related to branches in different states or check processing regions</I>)].
</P>
<P>If you make the deposit in person to one of our employees, funds from the following deposits are also available on the first business day after the day of your deposit:
</P>
<P>• Cash.
</P>
<P>• State and local government checks that are payable to you [if you use a special deposit slip available from (<I>where deposit slip may be obtained</I>)].
</P>
<P>• Cashier's, certified, and teller's checks that are payable to you [if you use a special deposit slip available from (<I>where deposit slip may be obtained</I>)].
</P>
<P>• Federal Reserve Bank checks, Federal Home Loan Bank checks, and postal money orders, if these items are payable to you.
</P>
<P>If you do not make your deposit in person to one of our employees (for example, if you mail the deposit), funds from these deposits will be available on the second business day after the day we receive your deposit.
</P>
<HD3>Other Check Deposits
</HD3>
<P>The delay for other check deposits depends on whether the check is a local or a nonlocal check. To see whether a check is a local or a nonlocal check, look at the routing number on the check:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se97.000.gif"/>
<P>If the first four digits of the routing number (1234 in the examples above) are (<I>list of local numbers</I>), then the check is a local check. Otherwise, the check is a nonlocal check. Some checks are marked “payable through” and have a four- or nine-digit number nearby. For these checks, use the four-digit number (or the first four digits of the nine-digit number), not the routing number on the bottom of the check, to determine if these checks are local or nonlocal. Our policy is to make funds from local and nonlocal checks available as follows.
</P>
<P>1. Local checks. The first $100 from a deposit of local checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit. The remaining funds will be available on the second business day after the day of your deposit.
</P>
<P>For example, if you deposit a local check of $700 on a Monday, $100 of the deposit is available on Tuesday. The remaining $600 is available on Wednesday.
</P>
<P>2. Nonlocal checks. The first $100 from a deposit of nonlocal checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit. The remaining funds will be available on the fifth business day after the day of your deposit.
</P>
<P>For example, if you deposit a $700 nonlocal check on a Monday, $100 of the deposit is available on Tuesday. The remaining $600 is available on Monday of the following week.
</P>
<P>3. Local and nonlocal checks. If you deposit both categories of checks, $100 from the checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit, not $100 from each category of check.
</P>
<HD3>Longer Delays May Apply
</HD3>
<P>Funds you deposit by check may be delayed for a longer period under the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>• We believe a check you deposit will not be paid.
</P>
<P>• You deposit checks totaling more than $5,000 on any one day.
</P>
<P>• You redeposit a check that has been returned unpaid.
</P>
<P>• You have overdrawn your account repeatedly in the last six months.
</P>
<P>• There is an emergency, such as failure of computer or communications equipment.
</P>
<P>We will notify you if we delay your ability to withdraw funds for any of these reasons, and we will tell you when the funds will be available. They will generally be available no later than the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit.
</P>
<HD3>Special Rules For New Accounts
</HD3>
<P>If you are a new customer, the following special rules will apply during the first 30 days your account is open.
</P>
<P>Funds from electronic direct deposits to your account will be available on the day we receive the deposit. Funds from deposits of cash, wire transfers, and the first $5,000 of a day's total deposits of cashier's, certified, teller's, traveler's, and federal, state and local government checks will be available on the first business day after the day of your deposit if the deposit meets certain conditions. For example, the checks must be payable to you (and you may have to use a special deposit slip). The excess over $5,000 will be available on the ninth business day after the day of your deposit. If your deposit of these checks (other than a U.S. Treasury check) is not made in person to one of our employees, the first $5,000 will not be available until the second business day after the day of your deposit.
</P>
<P>Funds from all other check deposits will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit.
</P>
<HD3>C-5A—Substitute Check Policy Disclosure 
</HD3>
<HD3>Substitute Checks and Your Rights—[Important Information About Your Checking Account] 
</HD3>
<HD3>Substitute Checks and Your Rights 
</HD3>
<HD3>What Is a Substitute Check?
</HD3>
<P>To make check processing faster, federal law permits banks to replace original checks with “substitute checks.” These checks are similar in size to original checks with a slightly reduced image of the front and back of the original check. The front of a substitute check states: “This is a legal copy of your check. You can use it the same way you would use the original check.” You may use a substitute check as proof of payment just like the original check.
</P>
<P>Some or all of the checks that you receive back from us may be substitute checks. This notice describes rights you have when you receive substitute checks from us. The rights in this notice do not apply to original checks or to electronic debits to your account. However, you have rights under other law with respect to those transactions. 
</P>
<HD3>What Are My Rights Regarding Substitute Checks?
</HD3>
<P>In certain cases, federal law provides a special procedure that allows you to request a refund for losses you suffer if a substitute check is posted to your account (for example, if you think that we withdrew the wrong amount from your account or that we withdrew money from your account more than once for the same check). The losses you may attempt to recover under this procedure may include the amount that was withdrawn from your account and fees that were charged as a result of the withdrawal (for example, bounced check fees).
</P>
<P>The amount of your refund under this procedure is limited to the amount of your loss or the amount of the substitute check, whichever is less. You also are entitled to interest on the amount of your refund if your account is an interest-bearing account. If your loss exceeds the amount of the substitute check, you may be able to recover additional amounts under other law.
</P>
<P>If you use this procedure, you may receive up to (<I>amount, not lower than $2,500</I>) of your refund (plus interest if your account earns interest) within (<I>number of days, not more than 10</I>) business days after we received your claim and the remainder of your refund (plus interest if your account earns interest) not later than (<I>number of days, not more than 45</I>) calendar days after we received your claim.
</P>
<P>We may reverse the refund (including any interest on the refund) if we later are able to demonstrate that the substitute check was correctly posted to your account. 
</P>
<HD3>How Do I Make a Claim for a Refund?
</HD3>
<P>If you believe that you have suffered a loss relating to a substitute check that you received and that was posted to your account, please contact us at (<I>contact information, for example phone number, mailing address, e-mail address</I>). You must contact us within (<I>number of days, not less than 40</I>) calendar days of the date that we mailed (or otherwise delivered by a means to which you agreed) the substitute check in question or the account statement showing that the substitute check was posted to your account, whichever is later. We will extend this time period if you were not able to make a timely claim because of extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<P>Your claim must include—
</P>
<P>• A description of why you have suffered a loss (for example, you think the amount withdrawn was incorrect);
</P>
<P>• An estimate of the amount of your loss;
</P>
<P>• An explanation of why the substitute check you received is insufficient to confirm that you suffered a loss; and
</P>
<P>• A copy of the substitute check [and/or] the following information to help us identify the substitute check: (<I>identifying information, for example the check number, the name of the person to whom you wrote the check, the amount of the check</I>).
</P>
<HD2>Model Clauses 
</HD2>
<HD3>C-6—Holds on Other Funds (Check Cashing) 
</HD3>
<P>If we cash a check for you that is drawn on another bank, we may withhold the availability of a corresponding amount of funds that are already in your account. Those funds will be available at the time funds from the check we cashed would have been available if you had deposited it.
</P>
<HD3>C-7—Holds on Other Funds (Other Account) 
</HD3>
<P>If we accept for deposit a check that is drawn on another bank, we may make funds from the deposit available for withdrawal immediately but delay your availability to withdraw a corresponding amount of funds that you have on deposit in another account with us. The funds in the other account would then not be available for withdrawal until the time periods that are described elsewhere in this disclosure for the type of check that you deposited. 
</P>
<HD3>C-8—Appendix B Availability (Nonlocal Checks) 
</HD3>
<P><I>3. Certain other checks.</I> We can process nonlocal checks drawn on financial institutions in certain areas faster than usual. Therefore, funds from deposits of checks drawn on institutions in those areas will be available to you more quickly. Call us if you would like a list of the routing numbers for these institutions. 
</P>
<HD3>C-9—Automated Teller Machine Deposits (Extended Hold) 
</HD3>
<HD3>Deposits at Automated Teller Machines 
</HD3>
<P>Funds from any deposits (cash or checks) made at automated teller machines (ATMs) we do not own or operate will not be available until the fifth business day after the day of your deposit. This rule does not apply at ATMs that we own or operate. 
</P>
<P>(<I>A list of our ATMs is enclosed.</I> or <I>A list of ATMs where you can make deposits but that are not owned or operated by us is enclosed.</I> or <I>All ATMs that we own or operate are identified as our machines.</I>) 
</P>
<HD3>C-10—Cash Withdrawal Limitation 
</HD3>
<HD3>Cash Withdrawal Limitation
</HD3>
<P>We place certain limitations on withdrawals in cash. In general, $100 of a deposit is available for withdrawal in cash on the first business day after the day of deposit. In addition, a total of $400 of other funds becoming available on a given day is available for withdrawal in cash at or after (<I>time no later than 5:00 p.m.</I>) on that day. Any remaining funds will be available for withdrawal in cash on the following business day. 
</P>
<HD3>C-11—Credit Union Interest Payment Policy
</HD3>
<HD2>Interest Payment Policy
</HD2>
<P>If we receive a deposit to your account on or before the tenth of the month, you begin earning interest on the deposit (whether it was a deposit of cash or checks) as of the first day of that month. If we receive the deposit after the tenth of the month, you begin earning interest on the deposit as of the first of the following month. For example, a deposit made on June 7 earns interest from June l, while a deposit made on June 17 earns interest from July 1.
</P>
<HD3>C-11A—Availability of Funds Deposited at Other Locations
</HD3>
<HD3>Deposits at Other Locations
</HD3>
<P>This availability policy only applies to funds deposited at (<I>location</I>). Please inquire for information about the availability of funds deposited at other locations.
</P>
<HD2>Model Notices 
</HD2>
<HD3>C-12—Exception Hold Notice 
</HD3>
<HD3>Notice of Hold
</HD3>
<FP-1>Account number: (<I>number</I>) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Date of deposit: (<I>date</I>)
</FP-1>
<P>We are delaying the availability of (<I>amount being held</I>) from this deposit. These funds will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. 
</P>
<P>We are taking this action because:
</P>
<FP-1>—A check you deposited was previously returned unpaid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—You have overdrawn your account repeatedly in the last six months. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The checks you deposited on this day exceed $5,000. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—An emergency, such as failure of computer or communications equipment, has occurred. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—We believe a check you deposited will not be paid for the following reasons [*]: 
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[*If you did not receive this notice at the time you made the deposit and the check you deposited is paid, we will refund to you any fees for overdrafts or returned checks that result solely from the additional delay that we are imposing. To obtain a refund of such fees, (<I>description of procedure for obtaining refund).</I>] 
</FP>
<HD3>C-13—Reasonable Cause Hold Notice 
</HD3>
<HD3>Notice of Hold 
</HD3>
<FP-1>Account number: (<I>number</I>) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Date of deposit: (<I>date</I>)
</FP-1>
<P>We are delaying the availability of the funds you deposited by the following check: (<I>description of check, such as amount and drawer.</I>) 
</P>
<P>These funds will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit. The reason for the delay is explained below:
</P>
<FP-1>—We received notice that the check is being returned unpaid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—We have confidential information that indicates that the check may not be paid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The check is drawn on an account with repeated overdrafts. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—We are unable to verify the endorsement of a joint payee. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Some information on the check is not consistent with other information on the check. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—There are erasures or other apparent alterations on the check. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The routing number of the paying bank is not a current routing number. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—The check is postdated or has a stale date. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Information from the paying bank indicates that the check may not be paid. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—We have been notified that the check has been lost or damaged in collection. 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Other:
</FP-1>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>[If you did not receive this notice at the time you made the deposit and the check you deposited is paid, we will refund to you any fees for overdrafts or returned checks that result solely from the additional delay that we are imposing. To obtain a refund of such fees, (<I>description of procedure for obtaining refund</I>).] 
</P>
<HD3>C-14—One-Time Notice for Large Deposit and Redeposited Check Exception Holds 
</HD3>
<HD3>Notice of Hold 
</HD3>
<P>If you deposit into your account: 
</P>
<P>• Checks totaling more than $5,000 on any one day, the first $5,000 deposited on any one banking day will be available to you according to our general policy. The amount in excess of $5,000 will generally be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>), the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for local checks and (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for nonlocal checks. If checks (not drawn on us) that otherwise would receive next-day availability exceed $5,000, the excess will be treated as either local or nonlocal checks depending on the location of the paying bank. If your check deposit, exceeding $5,000 on any one day, is a mix of local checks, nonlocal checks, checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>), or checks that generally receive next-day availability, the excess will be calculated by first adding together the (<I>type of check</I>), then the (<I>type of check</I>), then the (<I>type of check</I>), then the (<I>type of check</I>). 
</P>
<P>• A check that has been returned unpaid, the funds will generally be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>), the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for local checks and the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for nonlocal checks. Checks (not drawn on us) that otherwise would receive next-day availability will be treated as either local or nonlocal checks depending on the location of the paying bank. 
</P>
<HD3>C-15—One-Time Notice for Repeated Overdraft Exception Hold 
</HD3>
<HD3>Notice of Hold
</HD3>
<FP-1>Account Number: (<I>number</I>) Date of Notice: (<I>date</I>) 
</FP-1>
<P>We are delaying the availability of checks deposited into your account due to repeated overdrafts of your account. For the next six months, deposits will generally be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit for checks drawn on (<I>bank name</I>), the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit for local checks, and the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of deposit for nonlocal checks. Checks (not drawn on us) that otherwise would have received next-day availability will be treated as either local or nonlocal checks depending on the location of the paying bank. 
</P>
<HD3>C-16—Case-by-Case Hold Notice 
</HD3>
<HD3>Notice of Hold 
</HD3>
<FP-1>Account number: (<I>number</I>) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Date of deposit: (<I>date</I>)
</FP-1>
<P>We are delaying the availability of (<I>amount being held</I>) from this deposit. These funds will be available on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day of your deposit [(<I>subject to our cash withdrawal limitation policy</I>)]. 
</P>
<P>[If you did not receive this notice at the time you made the deposit and the check you deposited is paid, we will refund to you any fees for overdrafts or returned checks that result solely from the additional delay that we are imposing. To obtain a refund of such fees, (<I>description of procedure for obtaining refund</I>).] 
</P>
<HD3>C-17—Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits 
</HD3>
<HD2>FUNDS AVAILABILITY POLICY
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description of deposit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">When funds can be withdrawn by cash or check 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct deposits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The day we receive the deposit 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash, wire transfers, cashier's, certified, teller's, or government checks, checks on (<E T="03">bank name</E>) [unless (<E T="03">any limitation reIated to branches in different check processing regions</E>)], and the first $100 of a day's deposits of other checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The first business day after the day of deposit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Local checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The second business day after the day of deposit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonlocal checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The fifth business day after the day of deposit.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>C-18—Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits (case-by-case holds)
</HD3>
<HD2>FUNDS AVAILABILITY POLICY 
</HD2>
<P>Our general policy is to allow you to withdraw funds deposited in your account on the (<I>number</I>) business day after the day we receive your deposit. Funds from electronic direct deposits will be available on the day we receive the deposit. In some cases, we may delay your ability to withdraw funds beyond the (<I>number</I>) business day. Then, the funds will generally be available by the fifth business day after the day of deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>C-19—Notice at Automated Teller Machines
</HD3>
<HD2>AVAILABILITY OF DEPOSITS
</HD2>
<P>Funds from deposits may not be available for immediate withdrawal. Please refer to your institution's rules governing funds availability for details.
</P>
<HD3>C-20—Notice at Automated Teller Machines (Delayed Receipt)
</HD3>
<HD2>NOTICE 
</HD2>
<P>Deposits at this ATM between (<I>day</I>) and (<I>day</I>) will not be considered received until (<I>day</I>). The availability of funds from the deposit may be delayed as a result.
</P>
<HD3>C-21—Deposit Slip Notice
</HD3>
<P>Deposits may not be available for immediate withdrawal.
</P>
<HD3>C-22—Expedited Recredit Claim, Valid Claim Refund Notice 
</HD3>
<HD2>Notice of Valid Claim and Refund
</HD2>
<P>We have determined that your substitute check claim is valid. We are refunding (<I>amount</I>) [of which [(<I>amount</I>) represents fees] [and] [(<I>amount</I>) represents accrued interest]] to your account. You may withdraw these funds as of (<I>date</I>). [This refund is the amount in excess of the $2,500 [plus interest] that we credited to your account on (<I>date</I>).] 
</P>
<HD3>C-23—Expedited Recredit Claim, Provisional Refund Notice 
</HD3>
<HD2>Notice of Provisional Refund
</HD2>
<P>In response to your substitute check claim, we are refunding (<I>amount</I>) [of which [(<I>amount</I>) represents fees] [and] [(<I>amount</I>) represents accrued interest]] to your account, while we complete our investigation of your claim. You may withdraw these funds as of (<I>date</I>). [Unless we determine that your claim is not valid, we will credit the remaining amount of your refund to your account no later than the 45th calendar day after we received your claim.]
</P>
<P>If, based on our investigation, we determine that your claim is not valid, we will reverse the refund by withdrawing the amount of the refund [plus interest that we have paid you on that amount] from your account. We will notify you within one day of any such reversal. 
</P>
<HD3>C-24—Expedited Recredit Claim, Denial Notice 
</HD3>
<HD2>Denial of Claim
</HD2>
<P>Based on our review, we are denying your substitute check claim. As the enclosed (<I>type of document, for example original check or sufficient) shows, (describe reason for denial, for example the check was properly posted, the signature is authentic, there was no warranty breach</I>).
</P>
<P>[We have also enclosed a copy of the other information we used to make our decision.] [Upon your request, we will send you a copy of the other information that we used to make our decision.] 
</P>
<HD3>C-25—Expedited Recredit Claim, Reversal Notice 
</HD3>
<HD2>Reversal of Refund
</HD2>
<P>In response to your substitute check claim, we provided a refund of (<I>amount</I>) by crediting your account on (<I>date(s)</I>). We now have determined that your substitute check claim was not valid. As the enclosed (<I>type of document, for example original check or sufficient copy</I>) shows, (<I>describe reason for reversal, for example the check was properly posted, the signature is authentic, there was no warranty breach</I>). As a result, we have reversed the refund to your account [plus interest that we have paid you on that amount] by withdrawing (<I>amount</I>) from your account on (<I>date</I>).
</P>
<P>[We have also enclosed a copy of the other information we used to make our decision.] [Upon your request, we will send you a copy of the information we used to make our decision.]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19433, May 27, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 31293, Aug. 18, 1988; Reg. CC, 55 FR 21855, May 30, 1990; 55 FR 50818, Dec. 11, 1990; 56 FR 7802, Feb. 26, 1991; 57 FR 3280, Jan. 29, 1992; 60 FR 51671, Oct. 3, 1995; 62 FR 13811, Mar. 24, 1997; 62 FR 48752, Sept. 17, 1997; 69 FR 47315, 47316, Aug. 4, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.43" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 229 [Reserved] 


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.44" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 229—Commentary


</HEAD>
<HD2>I. Introduction 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Background
</HD3>
<P>1. The Board interpretations, which are labeled “Commentary” and follow each section of Regulation CC (12 CFR Part 229), provide background material to explain the Board's intent in adopting a particular part of the regulation; the Commentary also provides examples to aid in understanding how a particular requirement is to work. Under section 611(e) of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4010(e)), no provision of section 611 imposing any liability shall apply to any act done or omitted in good faith conformity with any rule, regulation, or interpretation thereof by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, notwithstanding the fact that after such act or omission has occurred, such rule, regulation, or interpretation is amended, rescinded, or determined by judicial or other authority to be invalid for any reason. The Commentary is an “interpretation” of a regulation by the Board within the meaning of section 611. 


</P>
<HD2>II. Section 229.2 Definitions 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Background 
</HD3>
<P>1. Section 229.2 defines the terms used in the regulation. For the most part, terms are defined as they are in section 602 of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4001). The Board has made a number of changes for the sake of clarity, to conform the terminology to that which is familiar to the banking industry, to define terms that are not defined in the EFA Act, and to carry out the purposes of the EFA Act. The Board also has incorporated by reference the definitions of the Uniform Commercial Code where appropriate. Some of Regulation CC's definitions are self-explanatory and therefore are not discussed in this Commentary. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.2(a) Account 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act defines account to mean “a demand deposit account or similar transaction account at a depository institution.” The regulation defines account, for purposes other than subpart D, in terms of the definition of “transaction account” in the Board's Regulation D (12 CFR part 204). This definition of account, however, excludes certain deposits, such as nondocumentary obligations (see 12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)), that are covered under the definition of “transaction account” in Regulation D. The definition applies to accounts with general third party payment powers but does not cover time deposits or savings deposits, including money market deposit accounts, even though they may have limited third party payment powers. The Board believes that it is appropriate to exclude these accounts because of the reference to demand deposits in the EFA Act, which suggests that the EFA Act is intended to apply only to accounts that permit unlimited third party transfers. 
</P>
<P>2. The term account also differs from the definition of transaction account in Regulation D because the term account refers to accounts held at banks. Under Subparts A and C, the term bank includes not only any depository institution, as defined in the EFA Act, but also any person engaged in the business of banking, such as a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or a private banker that is not subject to Regulation D. Thus, accounts at these institutions benefit from the expeditious return requirements of Subpart C. 
</P>
<P>3. Interbank deposits, including accounts of offices of domestic banks or foreign banks located outside the United States, and direct and indirect accounts of the United States Treasury (including Treasury General Accounts and Treasury Tax and Loan deposits) are exempt from subpart B and, in connection therewith, subpart A. However, interbank deposits are included as accounts for purposes of subparts C and D and, in connection therewith, subpart A.
</P>
<P>4. The Check 21 Act defines account to mean any deposit account at a bank. Therefore, for purposes of subpart D and, in connection therewith, subpart A, account means any deposit, as that term is defined by § 204.2(a)(1)(i) of Regulation D, at a bank. Many deposits that are not accounts for purposes of the other subparts of Regulation CC, such as savings deposits, are accounts for purposes of subpart D.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.2(b) Automated Clearinghouse (ACH) 
</HD3>
<P>1. The Board has defined automated clearinghouse as a facility that processes debit and credit transfers under rules established by a Federal Reserve Bank operating circular governing automated clearinghouse items or the rules of an ACH association. ACH credit transfers are included in the definition of electronic payment. 
</P>
<P>2. The reference to “debit and credit transfers” does not refer to the corresponding debit and credit entries that are part of the same transaction, but to different kinds of ACH payments. In an ACH credit transfer, the originator orders that its account be debited and another account credited. In an ACH debit transfer, the originator, with prior authorization, orders another account to be debited and the originator's account to be credited. 
</P>
<P>3. A facility that handles only wire transfers (defined elsewhere) is not an ACH. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.2(c) Automated Teller Machine (ATM) 
</HD3>
<P>1. ATM is not defined in the EFA Act. The regulation defines an ATM as an electronic device located in the United States at which a natural person may make deposits to an account by cash or check and perform other account transactions. Point-of-sale terminals, machines that only dispense cash, night depositories, and lobby deposit boxes are not ATMs within the meaning of the definition, either because they do not accept deposits of cash or checks (<I>e.g.,</I> point-of-sale terminals and cash dispensers) or because they only accept deposits (<I>e.g.,</I> night depositories and lobby boxes) and cannot perform other transactions. A lobby deposit box or similar receptacle in which written payment orders or deposits may be placed is not an ATM.
</P>
<P>2. A facility may be an ATM within this definition even if it is a branch under state or federal law, although an ATM is not a branch as that term is used in this regulation. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.2(d) Available for Withdrawal 
</HD3>
<P>1. Under this definition, when funds become available for withdrawal, the funds may be put to all uses for which the customer may use actually and finally collected funds in the customer's account under the customer's account agreement with the bank. Examples of such uses include payment of checks drawn on the account, certification of checks, electronic payments, and cash withdrawals. Funds are available for these uses notwithstanding provisions of other law that may restrict the use of uncollected funds (e.g., 18 U.S.C. 1004; 12 U.S.C. 331). 
</P>
<P>2. If a bank makes funds available to a customer for a specific purpose (such as paying checks that would otherwise overdraw the customer's account and be returned for insufficient funds) before the funds must be made available under the bank's policy or this regulation, it may nevertheless apply a hold consistent with this regulation to those funds for other purposes (such as cash withdrawals). For purposes of this regulation, funds are considered available for withdrawal even though they are being held by the bank to satisfy an obligation of the customer other than the customer's potential liability for the return of the check. For example, a bank does not violate its obligations under this subpart by holding funds to satisfy a garnishment, tax levy, or court order restricting disbursements from the account; or to satisfy the customer's liability arising from the certification of a check, sale of a cashier's or teller's check, guaranty or acceptance of a check, or similar transaction to be debited from the customer's account. 
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.2(e) Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act uses the term depository institution, which it defines by reference to section 19(b)(1)(A)(i) through (vi) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)(1)(A)(i) through (vi)). This regulation uses the term bank, a term that conforms to the usage the Board has previously adopted in Regulation J. Bank is also used in Articles 4 and 4A of the Uniform Commercial Code. 
</P>
<P>2. Bank is defined to include depository institutions, such as commercial banks, savings banks, savings and loan associations, and credit unions as defined in the EFA Act, and U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks. For purposes of Subpart B, the term does not include corporations organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 611-631 (Edge corporations) or corporations having an agreement or undertaking with the Board under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 601-604a (agreement corporations). For purposes of Subparts C and D, and in connection therewith, Subpart A, any Federal Reserve Bank, Federal Home Loan Bank, or any other person engaged in the business of banking is regarded as a bank. The phrase “any other person engaged in the business of banking” is derived from U.C.C. 1-201(4), and is intended to cover entities that handle checks for collection and payment, such as Edge and agreement corporations, commercial lending companies under 12 U.S.C. 3101, certain industrial banks, and private bankers, so that virtually all checks will be covered by the same rules for forward collection and return, even though they may not be covered by the requirements of Subpart B. For the purposes of Subparts C and D, and in connection therewith, Subpart A, the term also may include a state or a unit of general local government to the extent that it pays warrants or other drafts drawn directly on the state or local government itself, and the warrants or other drafts are sent to the state or local government for payment or collection. 
</P>
<P>3. Unless otherwise specified, the term bank includes all of a bank's offices in the United States. The regulation does not cover foreign offices of U.S. banks. 
</P>
<P>4. For purposes of subpart D and, in connection therewith, subpart A, the term bank also includes the Treasury of the United States and the United States Postal Service to the extent that they act as paying banks because the Check 21 Act includes these two entities in the definition of the term bank to the extent that they act as payors.
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.2(f) Banking Day and (g) Business Day 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act defines business day as any day excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. Legal holiday, however, is not defined, and the variety of local holidays, together with the practice of some banks to close midweek, makes the EFA Act's definition difficult to apply. The Board believes that two kinds of business days are relevant. First, when determining the day when funds are deposited or when a bank must perform certain actions (such as returning a check), the focus should be on a day that the bank is actually open for business. Second, when counting days for purposes of determining when funds must be available under the regulation or when notice of nonpayment must be received by the depositary bank, there would be confusion and uncertainty in trying to follow the schedule of a particular bank, and there is less need to identify a day when a particular bank is open. Most banks that act as intermediaries (large correspondents and Federal Reserve Banks) follow the same holiday schedule. Accordingly, the regulation has two definitions: Business day generally follows the standard Federal Reserve Bank holiday schedule (which is followed by most large banks), and banking day is defined to mean that part of a business day on which a bank is open for substantially all of its banking activities. 
</P>
<P>2. The definition of banking day corresponds to the definition of banking day in U.C.C. 4-104(a)(3), except that a banking day is defined in terms of a business day. Thus, if a bank is open on Saturday, Saturday might be a banking day for purposes of the U.C.C., but it would not be a banking day for purposes of Regulation CC because Saturday is never a business day under the regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. The definition of banking day is phrased in terms of when “an office of a bank is open” to indicate that a bank may observe a banking day on a per-branch basis. A deposit made at an ATM or off-premise facility (such as a remote depository or a lock box) is considered made at the branch holding the account into which the deposit is made for the purpose of determining the day of deposit. All other deposits are considered made at the branch at which the deposit is received. For example, under § 229.19(a)(1), funds deposited at an ATM are considered deposited at the time they are received at the ATM. On a calendar day that is a banking day for the branch or other location of the depositary bank at which the account is maintained, a deposit received at an ATM before the ATM's cut-off hour is considered deposited on that banking day, and a deposit received at an ATM after the ATM's cut-off hour is considered deposited on the next banking day of the branch or other location where the account is maintained. On a calendar day that is not a banking day for the account-holding location, all ATM deposits are considered deposited on that location's next banking day. This rule for determining the day of deposit also would apply to a deposit to an off-premise facility, such as a night depository or lock box, which is considered deposited when removed from the facility and available for processing under § 229.19(a)(3). If an unstaffed facility, such as a night depository or lock box, is on branch premises, the day of deposit is determined by the banking day at the branch at which the deposit is received, whether or not it is the branch at which the account is maintained. 
</P>
<HD3>H. 229.2(h) Cash 
</HD3>
<P>1. Cash means U.S. coins and currency. The phrase in the EFA Act “including Federal Reserve notes” has been deleted as unnecessary. (See 31 U.S.C. 5103.) 
</P>
<HD3>I. 229.2(i) Cashier's Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. The regulation adds to the second item in the EFA Act's definition of cashier's check the phrase, “on behalf of the bank as drawer,” to clarify that the term cashier's check is intended to cover only checks that a bank draws on itself. The definition of cashier's check includes checks provided to a customer of the bank in connection with customer deposit account activity, such as account disbursements and interest payments. The definition also includes checks acquired from a bank by noncustomers for remittance purposes, such as certain loan disbursement checks. Cashier's checks provided to customers or others are often labeled as “cashier's check,” “officer's check,” or “official check.” The definition excludes checks that a bank draws on itself for other purposes, such as to pay employees and vendors, and checks issued by the bank in connection with a payment service, such as a payroll or a bill-paying service. Cashier's checks generally are sold by banks to substitute the bank's credit for the customer's credit and thereby enhance the collectibility of the checks. A check issued in connection with a payment service generally is provided as a convenience to the customer rather than as a guarantee of the check's collectibility. In addition, such checks are often more difficult to distinguish from other types of checks than are cashier's checks as defined by this regulation. 
</P>
<HD3>J. 229.2(j) Certified Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act defines a certified check as one to which a bank has certified that the drawer's signature is genuine and that the bank has set aside funds to pay the check. Under the Uniform Commercial Code, certification of a check means the bank's signed agreement that it will honor the check as presented (U.C.C. 3-409). The regulation defines certified check to include both the EFA Act's and U.C.C.'s definitions. 
</P>
<HD3>K. 229.2(k) Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. Check is defined in section 602(7) of the EFA Act as a negotiable demand draft drawn on or payable through an office of a depository institution located in the United States, excluding noncash items. The regulation includes six categories of instruments within the definition of check. 
</P>
<P>2. The first category is negotiable demand drafts drawn on, or payable through or at, an office of a bank. As the definition of bank includes only offices located in the United States, this category is limited to checks drawn on, or payable through or at, a banking office located in the United States. 
</P>
<P>3. The EFA Act treats drafts payable through a bank as checks, even though under the U.C.C. the payable-through bank is a collecting bank to make presentment and generally is not authorized to make payment (U.C.C. 4-106(a)). The EFA Act does not expressly address items that are payable at a bank. This regulation treats both payable-through and payable-at demand drafts as checks. The Board believes that treating demand drafts payable at a bank as checks will not have a substantial effect on the operations of payable-at banks—by far the largest proportion of payable-at items are not negotiable demand drafts, but time items, such as commercial paper, bonds, notes, bankers' acceptances, and securities. These time items are not covered by the requirements of the EFA Act or this regulation. (The treatment of payable-through drafts is discussed in greater detail in connection with the definitions of local check and paying bank.) 
</P>
<P>4. The second category is checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks. Principal and interest payments on federal debt instruments often are paid with checks drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank as fiscal agent of the United States, and these fiscal agency checks are indistinguishable from other checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks. (See 31 CFR Part 355.) Federal Reserve Bank checks also are used by some banks as substitutes for cashier's or teller's checks. Similarly, savings and loan associations often use checks drawn on Federal Home Loan Banks as teller's checks. The definition of check includes checks drawn on Federal Home Loan Banks and Federal Reserve Banks because in many cases they are the functional equivalent of Treasury checks or teller's checks. 
</P>
<P>5. The third and fourth categories of instrument included in the definition of check refer to government checks. The EFA Act refers to checks drawn on the U.S. Treasury, even though these instruments are not drawn on or payable through an office of a depository institution, and checks drawn by state and local governments. The EFA Act also gives the Board authority to define functionally equivalent instruments as depository checks. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, the EFA Act is intended to apply to instruments other than those that meet the strict definition of check in section 602(7) of the EFA Act. Checks and warrants drawn by states and local governments often are used for the purposes of making unemployment compensation payments and other payments that are important to the recipients. Consequently, the Board has expressly defined check to include drafts drawn on the U.S. Treasury and drafts or warrants drawn by a state or a unit of general local government on itself. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 602(11) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4001(11)) defines “depository check” as “any cashier's check, certified check, teller's check, and any other functionally equivalent instrument as determined by the Board.”</P></FTNT>
<P>6. The fifth category of instrument included in the definition of check is U.S. Postal Service money orders. These instruments are defined as checks because they often are used as a substitute for checks by consumers, even though money orders are not negotiable under Postal Service regulations. The Board has not provided specific rules for other types of money orders; these instruments generally are drawn on or payable through or payable at banks and are treated as checks on that basis. 
</P>
<P>7. The sixth and final category of instrument included in the definition of check is traveler's checks drawn on or payable through or at a bank. Traveler's check is defined in paragraph (hh) of this section. 
</P>
<P>8. Finally, for the purposes of Subparts C and D, and in connection therewith, Subpart A, the definition of check includes nonnegotiable demand drafts because these instruments are often handled as cash items in the forward collection process. 
</P>
<P>9. A substitute check as defined in § 229.2(aaa) is a check for purposes of Regulation CC and the U.C.C., even if that substitute check does not meet the requirements for legal equivalence set forth in § 229.51(a).
</P>
<P>10. The definition of check does not include an instrument payable in a foreign currency (i.e., other than in United States money as defined in 31 U.S.C. 5101) or a credit card draft (i.e., a sales draft used by a merchant or a draft generated by a bank as a result of a cash advance), or an ACH debit transfer. The definition of check includes a check that a bank may supply to a customer as a means of accessing a credit line without the use of a credit card. 
</P>
<HD3>L. 229.2(l) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>M. 229.2(m) Check Processing Region 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act defines this term as “the geographic area served by a Federal Reserve bank check processing center or such larger area as the Board may prescribe by regulations.” The Board has defined check processing region as the territory served by one of the Federal Reserve head offices, branches, or regional check processing centers. Appendix A includes a list of routing numbers arranged by Federal Reserve Bank office. The definition of check processing region is key to determining whether a check is considered local or nonlocal. 
</P>
<HD3>N. 229.2(n) Consumer Account 
</HD3>
<P>1. Consumer account is defined as an account used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. An account that does not meet the definition of consumer account is a nonconsumer account. A clearing account maintained at a bank directly by a brokerage firm is not a consumer account, even if the account is used to pay checks drawn by consumers using the funds in that account. The bank's relationship is with the brokerage firm, and the account is used by the brokerage firm to facilitate the clearing of its customers' checks. Because for purposes of Regulation CC the term account includes only deposit accounts, a consumer's revolving credit relationship or other line of credit with a bank is not a consumer account, even if the consumer draws on such credit lines by using a check. Both consumer and nonconsumer accounts are subject to the requirements of this regulation, including the requirement that funds be made available according to specific schedules and that the bank make specified disclosures of its availability policies. Section 229.18(b) (notices at branch locations) and § 229.18(e) (notice of changes in policy) apply only to consumer accounts. Section 229.13(g)(2) (one-time exception notice) and § 229.19(d) (use of calculated availability) apply only to nonconsumer accounts. 
</P>
<HD3>O. 229.2(o) Depositary Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. The regulation uses the term depositary bank rather than the term receiving depository institution. Receiving depository institution is a term unique to the EFA Act, while depositary bank is the term used in Article 4 of the U.C.C. and Regulation J. 
</P>
<P>2. A depositary bank includes the bank in which the check is first deposited. If a foreign office of a U.S. or foreign bank sends checks to its U.S. correspondent bank for forward collection, the U.S. correspondent is the depositary bank because foreign offices of banks are not included in the definition of bank. 
</P>
<P>3. If a customer deposits a check in its account at a bank, the customer's bank is the depositary bank with respect to the check. For example, if a person deposits a check into an account at a nonproprietary ATM, the bank holding the account into which the check is deposited is the depositary bank even though another bank may service the nonproprietary ATM and send the check for collection. (Under § 229.35 the depositary bank may agree with the bank servicing the nonproprietary ATM to have the servicing bank place its own indorsement on the check as the depositary bank. For the purposes of Subpart C, the bank applying its indorsement as the depositary bank indorsement on the check is the depositary bank.) 
</P>
<P>4. For purposes of Subpart B, a bank may act as both the depositary bank and the paying bank with respect to a check, if the check is payable by the bank in which it was deposited, or if the check is payable by a nonbank payor and payable through or at the bank in which it was deposited. A bank also is considered a depositary bank with respect to checks it receives as payee. For example, a bank is a depositary bank with respect to checks it receives for loan repayment, even though these checks are not deposited in an account at the bank. Because these checks would not be “deposited to accounts,” they would not be subject to the availability or disclosure requirements of Subpart B. 
</P>
<HD3>P. 229.2(p) Electronic Payment 
</HD3>
<P>1. Electronic payment is defined to mean a wire transfer as defined in § 229.2(11) or an ACH credit transfer. The EFA Act requires that funds deposited by wire transfer be made available for withdrawal on the business day following deposit but expressly leaves the definition of the term wire transfer to the Board. Because ACH credit transfers frequently involve important consumer payments, such as wages, the regulation requires that funds deposited by ACH credit transfers be available for withdrawal on the business day following deposit. 
</P>
<P>2. ACH debit transfers, even though they may be transmitted electronically, are not defined as electronic payments because the receiver of an ACH debit transfer has the right to return the transfer, which would reverse the credit given to the originator. Thus, ACH debit transfers are more like checks than wire transfers. Further, bank customers that receive funds by originating ACH debit transfers are primarily large corporations, which generally would be able to negotiate with their banks for prompt availability. 
</P>
<P>3. A point-of-sale transaction would not be considered an electronic payment unless the transaction was effected by means of an ACH credit transfer or wire transfer. 
</P>
<HD3>Q. 229.2(q) Forward Collection 
</HD3>
<P>1. Forward collection is defined to mean the process by which a bank sends a check to the paying bank for collection, including sending the check to an intermediary collecting bank for settlement, as distinguished from the process by which the check is returned unpaid. Noncash collections are not included in the term forward collection. 
</P>
<HD3>R. 229.2(r) Local Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. Local check is defined as a check payable by or at a local paying bank, or, in the case of nonbank payors, payable through a local paying bank. A check payable by a local bank but payable through a nonlocal bank is a local check. Conversely, a check payable through a local bank but payable by a nonlocal bank is a nonlocal check. Where two banks are named on a check and neither is designated as a payable-through bank, the check is considered payable by either bank and may be considered local or nonlocal depending on the bank to which it is sent for payment. Generally, the depositary bank may rely on the routing number to determine whether a check is local or nonlocal. Appendix A includes a list of routing numbers arranged by Federal Reserve Bank Office to assist persons in determining whether or not such a check is local. If, however, a check is payable by one bank but payable through another bank, the routing number appearing on the check will be that of the payable-through bank, not the paying bank. Many credit union share drafts and certain other checks payable by banks are payable through other banks. In such cases, the routing number cannot be relied on to determine whether the check is local or nonlocal. For payable-through checks that meet the labeling requirements of § 229.36(e), the depositary bank may rely on the four-digit routing symbol of the paying bank that is printed on the face of the check as required by that section, e.g., in the title plate, but not on the first four digits of the payable-through bank's routing number printed in magnetic ink in the MICR line or in fractional form, to determine whether the check is local or nonlocal. 
</P>
<HD3>S. 229.2(s) Local Paying Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. “Local paying bank” is defined as a paying bank located in the same check-processing region as the branch, contractual branch, or proprietary ATM of the depositary bank. For example, a check deposited at a contractual branch would be deemed local or nonlocal based on the location of the contractual branch with respect to the location of the paying bank. 
</P>
<P>Examples.
</P>
<P>a. If a check that is payable by a bank that is located in the same check processing region as the depositary bank is payable through a bank located in another check processing region, the check is considered local or nonlocal depending on the location of the bank by which it is payable even if the check is sent to the nonlocal bank for collection. 
</P>
<P>b. The location of the depositary bank is determined by the physical location of the branch or proprietary ATM at which a check is deposited, regardless of whether the deposit is made in person, by mail, or otherwise. For example, if a branch of the depositary bank located in one check-processing region sends a check that was deposited at that branch to the depositary bank's central facility in another check-processing region, and the central facility is in the same check-processing region as the paying bank, the check is still considered nonlocal. (<I>See</I> the commentary to the definition of “paying bank.”)
</P>
<P>c. If a person deposits a check to an account by mailing or otherwise sending the check to a facility or office that is not a bank, the check is considered local or nonlocal depending on the location of the bank whose indorsement appears on the check as the depositary bank. 
</P>
<HD3>T. 229.2(t) Merger Transaction 
</HD3>
<P>1. Merger transaction is a term used in Subparts B and C in connection with transition rules for merged banks. It encompasses mergers, consolidations, and purchase/assumption transactions of the type that usually must be approved under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) or similar statutes; it does not encompass acquisitions of a bank under the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842) where an acquired bank maintains its separate corporate existence. 
</P>
<P>2. Regulation CC adopts a one-year transition period for banks that are party to a merger transaction during which the merged banks will continue to be treated as separate entities. (See §§ 229.19(g) and 229.40.) 
</P>
<HD3>U. 229.2(u) Noncash Item 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act defines the term check to exclude noncash items, and defines noncash items to include checks to which another document is attached, checks accompanied by special instructions, or any similar item classified as a noncash item in the Board's regulation. To qualify as a noncash item, an item must be handled as such and may not be handled as a cash item by the depositary bank. 
</P>
<P>2. The regulation's definition of noncash item also includes checks that consist of more than a single thickness of paper (except checks that qualify for handling by automated check processing equipment, e.g. those placed in carrier envelopes) and checks that have not been preprinted or post-encoded in magnetic ink with the paying bank's routing number, as well as checks with documents attached or accompanied by special instructions. (In the context of this definition, paying bank refers to the paying bank as defined for purposes of Subpart C.) 
</P>
<P>3. A check that has been preprinted or post-encoded with a routing number that has been retired (e.g., because of a merger) for at least three years is a noncash item unless the current number is added for processing purposes by placing the check in an encoded carrier envelope or adding a strip to the check. 
</P>
<P>4. Checks that are accompanied by special instructions are also noncash items. For example, a person concerned about whether a check will be paid may request the depositary bank to send a check for collection as a noncash item with an instruction to the paying bank to notify the depositary bank promptly when the check is paid or dishonored. 
</P>
<P>5. For purposes of forward collection, a copy of a check is neither a check nor a noncash item, but may be treated as either. For purposes of return, a copy is generally a notice in lieu of return. (See §§ 229.30(f) and 229.31(f).) 
</P>
<HD3>V. 229.2(v) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>W. 229.2(w) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>X. 229.2(x) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>Y. 229.2(y) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>Z. 229.2(z) Paying Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. The regulation uses this term in lieu of the EFA Act's “originating depository institution.” For purposes of all subparts of Regulation CC, the term paying bank includes the bank by which a check is payable, the payable-at bank to which a check is sent, or, if the check is payable by a nonbank payor, the bank through which the check is payable and to which it is sent for payment or collection. For purposes of subparts C and D, the term paying bank also includes the payable-through bank and the bank whose routing number appears on the check, regardless of whether the check is payable by a different bank, provided that the check is sent for payment or collection to the payable through bank or the bank whose routing number appears on the check. 
</P>
<P>2. Under § 229.31, a bank designated as a payable-through bank or payable-at bank and to which the check is sent for payment or collection is responsible for the expedited return of checks and notice of nonpayment requirements of Subpart C. The payable-through or payable-at bank may contract with the payor with respect to its liability in discharging these responsibilities. The Board believes that the EFA Act makes a clear connection between availability and the time it takes for checks to be cleared and returned. Allowing the payable-through bank additional time to forward checks to the payor and await return or pay instructions from the payor may delay the return of these checks, increasing the risks to depositary banks. Subpart C of this part requires payable-through and payable-at banks to return a check expeditiously based on the time the payable-through or payable-at bank received the check for forward collection.
</P>
<P>3. If a check is sent for forward collection based on the routing number, the bank associated with the routing number is a paying bank for the purposes of Subparts C and D requirements, including notice of nonpayment, even if the check is not drawn by a customer of that bank or the check is fraudulent. 
</P>
<P>4. The phrase “and to which [the check] is sent for payment or collection” includes sending not only the physical check, but information regarding the check under a truncation arrangement. 
</P>
<P>5. Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks are also paying banks under all subparts of the regulation with respect to checks payable by them, even though such banks are not defined as banks for purposes of Subpart B. 
</P>
<P>6. In accordance with the Check 21 Act, for purposes of subpart D and, in connection therewith, subpart A, paying bank includes the Treasury of the United States or the United States Postal Service with respect to a check payable by that entity and sent to that entity for payment or collection, even though the Treasury and Postal Service are not defined as banks for purposes of subparts B and C. Because the Federal Reserve Banks act as fiscal agents for the Treasury and the U.S. Postal Service and in that capacity are designated as presentment locations for Treasury checks and U.S. Postal Service money orders, a Treasury check or U.S. Postal Service money order presented to a Federal Reserve Bank is considered to be presented to the Treasury or U.S. Postal Service, respectively.
</P>
<HD3>AA. 229.2(aa) Proprietary ATM 
</HD3>
<P>1. All deposits at nonproprietary ATMs are treated as deposits of nonlocal checks, and deposits at proprietary ATMs generally are treated as deposits at banking offices. The Conference Report on the EFA Act indicates that the special availability rules for deposits received through nonproprietary ATMs are provided because “nonproprietary ATMs today do not distinguish among check deposits or between check and cash deposits” (H.R. Rep. No. 261, 100th Cong., 1st Sess. at 179 (1987)). Thus, a deposit of any combination of cash and checks at a nonproprietary ATM may be treated as if it were a deposit of nonlocal checks, because the depositary bank does not know the makeup of the deposit and consequently is unable to place different holds on cash, local check, and nonlocal check deposits made at the ATM. 
</P>
<P>2. A colloquy between Senators Proxmire and Dodd during the floor debate on the Competitive Equality Banking Act (133 Cong. Rec. S11289 (Aug. 4, 1987)) indicates that whether a bank operates the ATM is the primary criterion in determining whether the ATM is proprietary to that bank. Because a bank should be capable of ascertaining the composition of deposits made to an ATM operated by that bank, an exception to the availability schedules is not warranted for these deposits. If more than one bank meets the “owns or operates” criterion, the ATM is considered proprietary to the bank that operates it. For the purpose of this definition, the bank that operates an ATM is the bank that puts checks deposited into the ATM into the forward collection stream. An ATM owned by one or more banks, but operated by a nonbank servicer, is considered proprietary to the bank or banks that own it. 
</P>
<P>3. The EFA Act also includes location as a factor in determining whether an ATM that is either owned or operated by a bank is proprietary to that bank. The definition of proprietary ATM includes an ATM located on the premises of the bank, either inside the branch or on its outside wall, regardless of whether the ATM is owned or operated by that bank. Because the EFA Act also defines a proprietary ATM as one that is “in close proximity” to the bank, the regulation defines an ATM located within 50 feet of a bank to be proprietary to that bank unless it is identified as being owned or operated by another entity. The Board believes that the statutory proximity test was designed to apply to situations where it would appear to the depositor that the ATM is run by his or her bank, because of the proximity of the ATM to the bank. The Board believes that an ATM located within 50 feet of a banking office would be presumed proprietary to that bank unless it is clearly identified as being owned or operated by another entity. 
</P>
<HD3>BB. 229.2(bb) Qualified Returned Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. Subpart C requires the paying bank and returning bank(s) to return checks in an expeditious manner. The banks may meet this responsibility by returning a check to the depositary bank by the same general means used for forward collection of a check from the depositary bank to the paying bank. One way to speed the return process is to prepare the returned check for automated processing. Qualified returned checks are identified by placing a “2” in the case of an original check (or a “5” in the case of a substitute check) in position 44 of the qualified return MICR line as a return identifier in accordance with American National Standard Specifications for Placement and Location of MICR Printing, X9.13 (hereinafter “ANS X9.13”) for original checks or American National Standard Specifications for an Image Replacement Document—IRD, X9.100-140 (hereinafter “ANS X9.100-140”) for substitute checks.
</P>
<P>2. Generally, under the standard of care imposed by § 229.38, a paying or returning bank would be liable for any damages incurred due to misencoding of the routing number, the amount of the check, or return identifier on a qualified returned check unless the error was due to problems with the depositary bank's indorsement. (See also discussion of § 229.38(c).) A qualified returned check that contains an encoding error would still be a qualified returned check for purposes of the regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. A qualified returned check need not contain the elements of a check drawn on the depositary bank, such as the name of the depositary bank. Because indorsements and other information on carrier envelopes or strips will not appear on a returned check itself, banks will wish to retain carrier envelopes and/or microfilm or other records of carrier envelopes or strips with their check records. 
</P>
<HD3>CC. 229.2(cc) Returning Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. Returning bank is defined to mean any bank (excluding the paying bank and the depositary bank) handling a returned check. A returning bank may or may not be a bank that handled the returned check in the forward collection process. A returning bank includes a bank that agrees to handle a returned check for expeditious return to the depositary bank under § 229.31(a). A returning bank is also a collecting bank for the purpose of a collecting bank's duty to exercise ordinary care under U.C.C. 4-202(b) and is analogous to a collecting bank for purposes of final settlement. (See Commentary to § 229.35(b).) 
</P>
<HD3>DD. 229.2(dd) Routing Number
</HD3>
<P>1. Each bank is assigned a routing number by an agent of the American Bankers Association. The routing number takes two forms—a fractional form and a nine-digit form. A paying bank is identified by both the fractional form routing number (which normally appears in the upper right hand corner of the check) and the nine-digit form. The nine-digit form of the routing number of the paying bank generally is printed in magnetic ink near the bottom of the check (the MICR line; see ANS X9.13). In the case of an electronic check, the routing number of the paying bank is contained in the electronic image of the check (in nine-digit form and fractional form) and in the electronic information related to the check (in nine-digit form). When a check is payable by one bank but payable through another bank, the routing number appearing on the check is that of the payable-through bank, not the payor bank. Industry standards require depositary banks, subsequent collecting banks, and returning banks to place their routing numbers in nine-digit form in their indorsements. (See § 229.35 and commentary thereto).
</P>
<HD3>EE. 229.2(ee) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>FF. 229.2(ff) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>GG. 229.2(gg) Teller's Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. Teller's check is defined in the EFA Act to mean a check issued by a depository institution and drawn on another depository institution. The definition in the regulation includes not only checks drawn by a bank on another bank, but also checks payable through or at a bank. This would include checks drawn on a nonbank, as long as the check is payable through or at a bank. The definition does not include checks that are drawn by a nonbank on a nonbank even if payable through or at a bank. The definition includes checks provided to a customer of the bank in connection with customer deposit account activity, such as account disbursements and interest payments. The definition also includes checks acquired from a bank by a noncustomer for remittance purposes, such as certain loan disbursement checks. The definition excludes checks used by the bank to pay employees or vendors and checks issued by the bank in connection with a payment service, such as a payroll or a bill-paying service. Teller's checks generally are sold by banks to substitute the bank's credit for the customer's credit and thereby enhance the collectibility of the checks. A check issued in connection with a payment service generally is provided as a convenience to the customer rather than as a guarantee of the check's collectibility. In addition, such checks are often more difficult to distinguish from other types of checks than are teller's checks as defined by this regulation. 
</P>
<HD3>HH. 229.2(hh) Traveler's Check 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act and regulation require that traveler's checks be treated as cashier's, teller's, or certified checks when a new depositor opens an account. (See § 229.13(a); 12 U.S.C. 4003(a)(1)(C).) The EFA Act does not define traveler's check. 
</P>
<P>2. One element of the definition states that a traveler's check is “drawn on or payable through or at a bank.” Sometimes traveler's checks that are not issued by banks do not have any words on them identifying a bank as drawee or paying agent, but instead bear unique routing numbers with an 8000 prefix that identifies a bank as paying agent. 
</P>
<P>3. Because a traveler's check is payable by, at, or through a bank, it is also a check for purposes of this regulation. When not subject to the next-day availability requirement for new accounts, a traveler's check should be treated as a local or nonlocal check depending on the location of the paying bank. The depositary bank may rely on the designation of the paying bank by the routing number to determine whether local or nonlocal treatment is required. 
</P>
<HD3>II. 229.2(ii) Uniform Commercial Code 
</HD3>
<P>1. Uniform Commercial Code is defined as the version of the Code adopted by the individual states. For purposes of uniform citation, all citations to the U.C.C. in this part refer to the Official Text as approved by the American Law Institute and the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws. 
</P>
<HD3>JJ. 229.2(jj) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>KK. 229.2(kk) Unit of General Local Government 
</HD3>
<P>1. Unit of general local government is defined to include a city, county, parish, town, township, village, or other general purpose political subdivision of a state. The term does not include special purpose units, such as school districts, water districts, or Indian nations. 
</P>
<HD3>LL. 229.2(ll) Wire Transfer 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act delegates to the Board the authority to define the term wire transfer. The regulation defines wire transfer as an unconditional order to a bank to pay a fixed or determinable amount of money to a beneficiary, upon receipt or on a day stated in the order, that is transmitted by electronic or other means over certain networks or on the books of banks and that is used primarily to transfer funds between commercial accounts. “Unconditional” means that no condition, such as presentation of documents, must be met before the bank receiving the order is to make payment. A wire transfer may be transmitted by electronic or other means. “Electronic means” include computer-to-computer links, on-line terminals, telegrams (including TWX, TELEX, or similar methods of communication), telephone calls, or other similar methods. Fedwire (the Federal Reserve's wire transfer network), CHIPS (Clearing House Interbank Payments System, operated by the New York Clearing House), and book transfers among banks or within one bank are covered by this definition. Credits for credit and debit card transactions are not wire transfers. The term wire transfer excludes electronic fund transfers as that term is defined by the Electronic Fund Transfer Act. 
</P>
<HD3>MM. 229.2(mm) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>NN. 229.2(nn) Good Faith 
</HD3>
<P>1. This definition of good faith derives from U.C.C. 3-103(a)(4). 
</P>
<HD3>OO. 229.2(oo) Interest Compensation
</HD3>
<P>1. This calculation of <I>interest compensation</I> derives from U.C.C. 4A-506(b). (See §§ 229.34(e) and 229.36(f).) 
</P>
<HD3>PP. 229.2(pp) Contractual Branch 
</HD3>
<P>1. When one bank arranges for another bank to accept deposits on its behalf, the second bank is a contractual branch of the first bank. For further discussion of contractual branch deposits and related disclosures, see §§ 229.2(s) and 229.19(a) of the regulation and the commentary to §§ 229.2(s), 229.10(c), 229.14(a), 229.16(a), 229.18(b), and 229.19(a). 
</P>
<HD3>QQ. 229.2(qq) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>RR. 229.2(rr) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>SS. 229.2(ss) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>TT. 229.2(tt) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>UU. 229.2(uu) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>VV. 229.2(vv) MICR Line
</HD3>
<P>1. Information in the MICR line of a check must be printed in accordance with ANS X9.13 for original checks and in accordance with ANS X9.100-140 for substitute checks, and must be contained in electronic checks in accordance with ANS X9.100-187. These standards could vary the requirements for printing the MICR line, such as by indicating circumstances under which the use of magnetic ink is not required. Banks that exchange checks electronically may agree to other standards for including MICR line information in the checks that they exchange electronically.
</P>
<HD3>WW. 229.2(ww) Original Check
</HD3>
<P>1. The definition of original check distinguishes the first paper check signed or otherwise authorized by the drawer to effect a particular payment transaction from a substitute check or other paper or electronic representation that is derived from an original check or substitute check. There is only one original check for any particular payment transaction. However, multiple substitute checks could be created to represent that original check at various points in the check collection and return process. 
</P>
<HD3>XX. 229.2(xx) Paper or Electronic Representation of a Substitute Check
</HD3>
<P>1. Receipt of a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check does not trigger indemnity or expedited recredit rights, although the recipient nonetheless could have a warranty claim or a claim under other check law with respect to that document or the underlying payment transaction. A paper or electronic representation of a substitute check would include a representation of a substitute check that was drawn on an account, as well as a representation of a substitute traveler's check, credit card check, or other item that meets the substitute check definition. The following examples illustrate the scope of the definition. 
</P>
<HD2>Examples.
</HD2>
<P>a. A bank receives electronic presentment of a substitute check that has been converted to electronic form and charges the customer's account for that electronic item. The periodic account statement that the bank provides to the customer includes information about the electronically-presented substitute check in a line-item list describing all the checks the bank charged to the customer's account during the previous month. The electronic file that the bank received for presentment and charged to the customer's account would be an electronic representation of a substitute check, and the line-item appearing on the customer's account statement would be a paper representation of a substitute check.
</P>
<P>b. A paying bank receives and settles for a substitute check and then realizes that its settlement was for the wrong amount. The paying bank sends an adjustment request to the presenting bank to correct the error. The adjustment request is not a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check under the definition because it is not being handled for collection or return as a check. Rather, it is a separate request that is related to a check. As a result, no substitute check warranty, indemnity, or expedited recredit rights attach to the adjustment. 
</P>
<HD3>YY. 229.2(yy) [Reserved] 
</HD3>
<HD3>ZZ. 229.2(zz) Reconverting Bank
</HD3>
<P>1. A substitute check is “created” when and where a paper reproduction of an original check that meets the requirements of § 229.2(aaa) is physically printed. A bank is a reconverting bank if it creates a substitute check directly or if another person by agreement creates a substitute check on the bank's behalf. A bank also is a reconverting bank if it is the first bank that receives a substitute check created by a nonbank and transfers, presents, or returns that substitute check or, in lieu thereof, the first paper or electronic representation of such substitute check. 
</P>
<HD2>Examples.
</HD2>
<P>a. Bank A, by agreement, sends an electronic check file for collection to Bank B. Bank B chooses to use that file to print a substitute check that meets the requirements of § 229.2(aaa). Bank B is the reconverting bank as of the time it prints the substitute check.
</P>
<P>b. Company A, which is not a bank, by agreement receives check information electronically from Bank A. Bank A becomes the reconverting bank when Company A prints a substitute check on behalf of Bank A in accordance with that agreement.
</P>
<P>c. A depositary bank's customer, which is a nonbank business, receives a check for payment, truncates that original check, and creates a substitute check to deposit with its bank. The depositary bank receives that substitute check from its customer and is the first bank to handle the substitute check. The depositary bank becomes the reconverting bank as of the time that it transfers or presents the substitute check (or in lieu thereof the first paper or electronic representation of the substitute check) for forward collection.
</P>
<P>d. A bank is the payable-through bank for checks that are drawn on a nonbank payor, which is the bank's customer. When the customer decides not to pay a check that is payable through the bank, the customer creates a substitute check for purposes of return. The payable-through bank becomes the reconverting bank when it returns the substitute check (or in lieu thereof the first paper or electronic representation of the substitute check) to a returning bank or the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>e. A paying bank returns a substitute check to the depositary bank, which in turn gives that substitute check back to its nonbank customer. That customer then redeposits the substitute check for collection at a different bank. Because the substitute check was already transferred by a bank, the second depositary bank does not become a reconverting bank when it transfers or presents that substitute check for collection.
</P>
<P>2. In some cases there will be one or more banks between the truncating bank and the reconverting bank. 
</P>
<HD2>Example.
</HD2>
<P>A depositary bank truncates the original check and sends an electronic representation of the original check for collection to an intermediary bank. The intermediary bank sends the electronic representation of the original check to the presenting bank, which creates a substitute check to present to the paying bank. The presenting bank is the reconverting bank.
</P>
<P>3. A check could move from electronic form to substitute check form several times during the collection and return process. It therefore is possible that there could be multiple substitute checks, and thus multiple reconverting banks, with respect to the same underlying payment. 
</P>
<HD3>AAA. 229.2(aaa) Substitute Check
</HD3>
<P>1. “A paper reproduction of an original check” could include a reproduction created directly from the original check or a reproduction of the original check that is created from some other source that contains an image of the original check, such as an electronic representation of an original check or substitute check, or a previous substitute check.
</P>
<P>2. Because a substitute check must be a piece of paper, an electronic file or electronic check image that has not yet been printed in accordance with the substitute check definition is not a substitute check.
</P>
<P>3. Because a substitute check must be a representation of a check, a paper reproduction of something that is not a check cannot be a substitute check. For example, a savings bond or a check drawn on a non-U.S. branch of a foreign bank cannot be reconverted to a substitute check.
</P>
<P>4. As described in § 229.51(b) and the commentary thereto, a reconverting bank is required to ensure that a substitute check contains all indorsements applied by previous parties that handled the check in any form. Therefore, the image of the original check that appears on the back of a substitute check would include indorsements that were physically applied to the original check before an image of the original check was captured. An indorsement that was applied physically to the original check after an image of the original check was captured would be conveyed as an electronic indorsement (see paragraph 3 of the commentary to § 229.35(a)). The back of the substitute check would contain a physical representation of any indorsements that were applied electronically to the check after an image of the check was captured but before creation of the substitute check. 
</P>
<HD2>Example.
</HD2>
<P>Bank A, which is the depositary bank, captures an image of an original check, indorses it electronically and, by agreement, transmits to Bank B an electronic image of the check accompanied by the electronic indorsement. Bank B then creates a substitute check to send to Bank C. The back of the substitute check created by Bank B must contain a representation of the indorsement previously applied electronically by Bank A and Bank B's own indorsement. (For more information on indorsement requirements, see § 229.35, appendix D, and the commentary thereto.)
</P>
<P>5. Some substitute checks will not be created directly from the original check, but rather will be created from a previous substitute check. The back of a subsequent substitute check will contain an image of the full length of the back of the previous substitute check. ANS X9.100-140 requires preservation of the full length of the back of the previous substitute check in order to preserve previous indorsements and reconverting bank identifications. By contrast, the front of a subsequent substitute check will not contain an image of the entire previous substitute check. Rather, the image field of the subsequent substitute check will contain the image of the front of the original check that appeared on the previous substitute check at the time the previous substitute check was converted to electronic form. The portions of the front of the subsequent substitute check other than the image field will contain information applied by the subsequent reconverting bank, such as its reconverting bank identification, the MICR line, the legal equivalence legend, and optional security information. 
</P>
<HD2>Examples.
</HD2>
<P>a. The back of a subsequent substitute check would contain the following indorsements, all of which would be preserved through the image of the back of the previous substitute check: (1) The indorsements that were applied physically to the original check before an image of the original check was captured; (2) a physical representation of indorsements that were applied electronically to the original check after an image of the original check was captured but before creation of the first substitute check; and (3) indorsements that were applied physically to the previous substitute check. In addition, the reconverting bank for the subsequent substitute check must overlay onto the back of that substitute check a physical representation of any indorsements that were applied electronically after the previous substitute check was converted to electronic form but before creation of the subsequent substitute check.
</P>
<P>b. Because information could have been physically added to the image of the front of the original check that appeared on the previous substitute check, the original check image that appears on the front of a subsequent substitute check could contain information in addition to that which appeared on the original check at the time it was truncated.
</P>
<P>6. The MICR line applied to a substitute check must contain information in all fields of the MICR line that were encoded on the original check at any time before an image of the original check was captured. This includes all the MICR-line information that was preprinted on the original check, plus any additional information that was added to the MICR line before the image of the original check was captured (for example, the amount of the check). The information in each field of the substitute check's MICR line must be the same information as in the corresponding field of the MICR line of the original check, except as provided by ANS X9.100-140 (unless the Board by rule or order determines that a different standard applies). Industry standards may not, however, vary the requirement that a substitute check at the time of its creation must bear a full-field MICR line.
</P>
<P>7. ANS X9.100-140, provides that a substitute check must have a “4” in position 44 and that a qualified returned substitute check must have a “4” in position 44 of the forward-collection MICR line as well as a “5” in position 44 of the qualified return MICR line. The “4” and “5” indicate that the document is a substitute check so that the size of the check image remains constant throughout the collection and return process, regardless of the number of substitute checks created that represent the same original check (<I>see also</I> §§ 229.30(a)(2) and 229.31(a)(2) and the commentary thereto regarding requirements for qualified returned substitute checks). An original check generally has a blank position 44 for forward collection. Because a reconverting bank must encode position 44 of a substitute check's forward collection MICR line with a “4,” the reconverting bank must vary any character that appeared in position 44 of the forward-collection MICR line of the original check. A bank that misencodes or fails to encode position 44 at the time it attempts to create a substitute check has failed to create a substitute check. A bank that receives a properly-encoded substitute check may further encode that item but does so subject to the encoding warranties in Regulation CC and the U.C.C.
</P>
<P>8. A substitute check's MICR line could contain information in addition to the information required at the time the substitute check is created. For example, if the amount field of the original check was not encoded and the substitute check therefore did not, when created, have an encoded amount field, the MICR line of the substitute check later could be amount-encoded.
</P>
<P>9. A bank may receive a substitute check that contains a MICR-line variation but nonetheless meets the MICR-line replication requirements of § 229.2(aaa)(2) because that variation is permitted by ANS X9.100-140. If such a substitute check contains a MICR-line error, a bank that receives it may, but is not required to, repair that error. Such a repair must be made in accordance with ANS X9.100-140 for repairing a MICR line, which generally allows a bank to correct an error by applying a strip that may or may not contain information in all fields encoded on the check's MICR line. A bank's repair of a MICR-line error on a substitute check is subject to the encoding warranties in Regulation CC and the U.C.C.
</P>
<P>10. A substitute check must conform to all the generally applicable industry standards for substitute checks set forth in ANS X9.100-140, which incorporates other industry standards by reference. Thus, multiple substitute check images contained on the same page of an account statement are not substitute checks. 
</P>
<HD3>BBB. 229.2(bbb) Sufficient Copy and Copy
</HD3>
<P>1. A “copy” or a “sufficient copy” as defined in 229.2(bbb) must be a paper reproduction of a check, unless the parties sending and receiving the copy otherwise agree. Therefore, an electronic image of a check is not a “copy” or a “sufficient copy” absent an agreement to that effect. If a customer has agreed to receive such information electronically, however, a bank that is required to provide a copy or sufficient copy may satisfy that requirement by providing an electronic image. (See § 229.58).
</P>
<P>2. A sufficient copy, which is used to resolve claims related to the receipt of a substitute check, must be a copy of the original check.
</P>
<P>3. A bank under § 229.53(b)(3) may limit its liability for an indemnity claim and under §§ 229.54(e)(2) and 229.55(c)(2) may respond to an expedited recredit claim by providing the claimant with a copy of a check that accurately represents all of the information on the front and back of the original check as of the time the original check was truncated or that otherwise is sufficient to determine the validity of the claim against the bank.
</P>
<HD2>Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. A copy of an original check that accurately represents all the information on the front and back of the original check as of the time of truncation would constitute a sufficient copy if that copy resolved the claim. For example, if resolution of the claim required accurate payment and indorsement information, an accurate copy of the front and back of a legible original check (including but not limited to a substitute check) would be a sufficient copy.
</P>
<P>b. A copy of the original check that does not accurately represent all the information on both the front and back of the original check also could be a sufficient copy if such copy contained all the information necessary to determine the validity of the relevant claim. For instance, if a consumer received a substitute check that contained a blurry image of a legible original check, the consumer might seek an expedited recredit because his or her account was charged for $1,000, but he or she believed that the check was written for only $100. If the amount that appeared on the front of the original check was legible, an accurate copy of only the front of the original check that showed the amount of the check would be sufficient to determine whether or not the consumer's claim regarding the amount of the check was valid.
</P>
<HD3>CCC. 229.2(ccc) Transfer and Consideration
</HD3>
<P>1. Under §§ 229.52 and 229.53, a bank is responsible for the warranties and indemnity when it transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation thereof) for consideration. Drawers and other nonbank persons that receive checks from a bank are not transferees that receive consideration as those terms are defined in the U.C.C. However, the Check 21 Act clearly contemplates that such nonbank persons that receive substitute checks (or representations thereof) from a bank will receive the warranties and indemnity from all previous banks that handled the check. To ensure that these parties are covered by the substitute check warranties and indemnity in the manner contemplated by the Check 21 Act, § 229.2(ccc) incorporates the U.C.C. definitions of the term transfer and consideration by reference and expands those definitions to cover a broader range of situations. Delivering a check to a nonbank that is acting on behalf of a bank (such as a third-party check processor or presentment point) is a transfer of the check to that bank. 
</P>
<HD2>Examples.
</HD2>
<P>a. A paying bank pays a substitute check and then provides that paid substitute check (or a representation thereof) to a drawer with a periodic statement. Under the expanded definitions, the paying bank thereby transfers the substitute check (or representation thereof) to the drawer for consideration and makes the substitute check warranties described in § 229.52. A drawer that suffers a loss due to receipt of a substitute check may have warranty, indemnity, and, if the drawer is a consumer, expedited recredit rights under the Check 21 Act and subpart D. A drawer that suffers a loss due to receipt of a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check would receive the substitute check warranties but would not have indemnity or expedited recredit rights.
</P>
<P>b. The expanded definitions also operate such that a paying bank that pays an original check (or a representation thereof) and then creates a substitute check to provide to the drawer with a periodic statement transfers the substitute check for consideration and thereby provides the warranties and indemnity.
</P>
<P>c. The expanded definitions ensure that a bank that receives a returned check in any form and then provides a substitute check to the depositor gives the substitute check warranties and indemnity to the depositor.
</P>
<P>d. The expanded definitions apply to substitute checks representing original checks that are not drawn on deposit accounts, such as checks used to access a credit card or a home equity line of credit.
</P>
<HD3>DDD. 229.2(ddd) Truncate
</HD3>
<P>1. Truncate means to remove the original check from the forward collection or return process and to send in lieu of the original check either a substitute check or, by agreement, information relating to the original check. Truncation does not include removal of a substitute check from the check collection or return process.
</P>
<HD3>EEE. 229.2(eee) Truncating Bank
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank is a truncating bank if it truncates an original check or if it is the first bank to transfer, present, or return another form of an original check that was truncated by a person that is not a bank. 
</P>
<HD2>Example.
</HD2>
<P>a. A bank's customer that is a nonbank business receives a check for payment and deposits either a substitute check or an electronic representation of the original check with its depositary bank instead of the original check. That depositary bank is the truncating bank when it transfers, presents, or returns the substitute check or electronic representation in lieu of the original check. That bank also would be the reconverting bank if it were the first bank to transfer, present, or return a substitute check that it received from (or created from the information given by) its nonbank customer (see § 229.2(yy) and the commentary thereto).
</P>
<P>2. A truncating bank does not make the subpart D warranties and indemnity unless it also is the reconverting bank. Therefore, a bank that truncates the original check and sends an electronic file to a collecting bank does not provide subpart D protections to the recipient of that electronic item. However, a recipient of an electronic item may protect itself against losses associated with that item by agreement with the truncating bank.
</P>
<HD3>FFF. 229.2(fff) Remotely Created Check
</HD3>
<P>1. A check authorized by a consumer over the telephone that is not created by the paying bank and bears a legend on the signature line, such as “Authorized by Drawer,” is an example of a remotely created check. A check that bears the signature applied, or purported to be applied, by the person on whose account the check is drawn is not a remotely created check. A typical forged check, such as a stolen personal check fraudulently signed by a person other than the drawer, is not covered by the definition of a remotely created check.
</P>
<P>2. The term signature as used in this definition has the meaning set forth at U.C.C. 3-401. The term “applied by” refers to the physical act of placing the signature on the check.
</P>
<P>3. The definition of a “remotely created check” differs from the definition of a “remotely created consumer item” under the U.C.C. A “remotely created check” may be drawn on an account held by a consumer, corporation, unincorporated company, partnership, government unit or instrumentality, trust, or any other entity or organization. A “remotely created consumer item” under the U.C.C., however, must be drawn on a consumer account.
</P>
<P>4. Under Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), the term “check” includes a negotiable demand draft drawn on or payable through or at an office of a bank. In the case of a “payable through” or “payable at” check, the signature of the person on whose account the check is drawn would include the signature of the payor institution or the signatures of the customers who are authorized to draw checks on that account, depending on the arrangements between the “payable through” or “payable at” bank, the payor institution, and the customers.
</P>
<P>5. The definition of a remotely created check includes a remotely created check that has been reconverted to a substitute check.
</P>
<HD3>GGG. 229.2(ggg) Electronic Check and Electronic Returned Check
</HD3>
<P>1. Banks often enter into agreements under which a check may be transferred, returned, or presented electronically instead of transferring, returning, or presenting the paper check. For example, an agreement may provide that either an electronic image of the check or electronic information related to the check may be sent instead of the paper check. In order to satisfy Regulation CC's definition of “electronic check” (or “electronic returned check”), however, both the electronic image of the check and electronic information derived from the check must be sent. A sending bank and receiving bank may also agree, for example, that instead of sending the electronic check or electronic returned check directly to the receiving bank, the electronic check or electronic returned check may be sent to an intermediary that stores the electronic check or electronic returned check on the receiving bank's behalf and makes the electronic check or electronic returned check available for the receiving bank to retrieve.
</P>
<P>2. A sending bank must have an agreement with the receiving bank in order to send an electronic check instead of a paper check. The agreement to receive an electronic check or electronic returned check may be either bilateral or through a Federal Reserve Bank operating circular, clearinghouse rule, or other interbank agreement. (See UCC 4-110).
</P>
<P>3. ANS X9.100-187 is the most prevalent industry standard for electronic checks and electronic returned checks that will enable banks to create substitute checks. Multiple standards, however, exist that would enable a bank to create a substitute check from an electronic check. Therefore, the banks exchanging electronic checks may agree that a different standard applies to electronic checks exchanged between the two banks. Additionally, banks that exchange checks electronically may agree to transfer, present, or return only electronic images of checks or only electronic information related to checks. In these situations, the sending bank and receiving bank will have agreed to a different standard as ANS X9.100-187 requires both an electronic image and electronic information.
</P>
<P>4. Electronic checks and electronic returned checks as defined in Regulation CC are subject to subpart C, except as otherwise provided in that subpart. (See § 229.30 and commentary thereto).
</P>
<HD3>HHH. 229.2(hhh) Electronically-Created Item
</HD3>
<P>1. Electronically-created items are also sometimes referred to in the industry as “electronic payment orders” or “EPOs.”
</P>
<P>2. Because an electronically-created item as defined in Regulation CC never existed in paper form, it does not meet the definition of “electronic check” in 229.2(ggg) and therefore an electronically-created item cannot be used to create a substitute check that is the legal equivalent of the original paper check.
</P>
<P>3. An electronically-created item can resemble an electronic image of a paper check or an electronic image of a remotely created check. (See 229.2(fff) (definition of remotely created check)).
</P>
<HD2>Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. A corporate customer of a bank, rather than printing and mailing a paper check to a payee, electronically creates an image that looks like an image of the corporate customer's paper checks and emails the image to the payee.
</P>
<P>b. A consumer uses a smart-phone application through which the consumer provides the payee name, amount, and the consumer's signature. The application electronically sends this information, appearing formatted as a check, to the payee.
</P>
<P>c. A consumer calls his utility company to make an emergency bill payment, and provides his bank account information. The utility company uses this information to create an electronically-created item and deposits the electronically-created item with its bank to obtain payment from the consumer.


</P>
<HD2>III. Section 229.3 Administrative Enforcement [Reserved] 


</HD2>
<HD2>IV. Section 229.10 Next-Day Availability 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Business Days and Banking Days 
</HD3>
<P>1. This section, as well as other provisions of this subpart governing the availability of funds, provides that funds must be made available for withdrawal not later than a specified number of business days following the banking day on which the funds are deposited. Thus, a deposit is considered made only on a banking day, i.e., a day that the bank is open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its banking functions. For example, if a deposit is made at an ATM on a Saturday, Sunday, or other day on which the bank is closed to the public, the deposit is considered received on that bank's next banking day. 
</P>
<P>2. Nevertheless, business days are used to determine the number of days following the banking day of deposit that funds must be available for withdrawal. For example, if a deposit of a local check were made on a Monday, the availability schedule requires that funds be available for withdrawal on the second business day after deposit. Therefore, funds must be made available on Wednesday regardless of whether the bank was closed on Tuesday for other than a standard legal holiday as specified in the definition of business day. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.10(a) Cash Deposits 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph implements the EFA Act's requirement for next-day availability for cash deposits to accounts at a depositary bank “staffed by individuals employed by such institution.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Under this paragraph, cash deposited in an account at a staffed teller station on a Monday must become available for withdrawal by the start of business on Tuesday. It must become available for withdrawal by the start of business on Wednesday if it is deposited by mail, at a proprietary ATM, or by other means other than at a staffed teller station. 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Nothing in the EFA Act or this regulation affects terms of account arrangements, such as negotiable order of withdrawal accounts, which may require prior notice of withdrawal. (See 12 CFR 204.2(e)(2).)</P></FTNT>
<HD3>C. 229.10(b) Electronic Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act provides next-day availability for funds received for deposit by wire transfer. The regulation uses the term electronic payment, rather than wire transfer, to include both wire transfers and ACH credit transfers under the next-day availability requirement. (See discussion of definitions of automated clearinghouse, electronic payment, and wire transfer in § 229.2.) 
</P>
<P>2. The EFA Act requires that funds received by wire transfer be available for withdrawal not later than the business day following the day a wire transfer is received. This paragraph clarifies what constitutes receipt of an electronic payment. For the purposes of this paragraph, a bank receives an electronic payment when the bank receives both payment in finally collected funds and the payment instructions indicating the customer accounts to be credited and the amount to be credited to each account. For example, in the case of Fedwire, the bank receives finally collected funds at the time the payment is made. (See 12 CFR 210.31.) Finally collected funds generally are received for an ACH credit transfer when they are posted to the receiving bank's account on the settlement day. In certain cases, the bank receiving ACH credit payments will not receive the specific payment instructions indicating which accounts to credit until after settlement day. In these cases, the payments are not considered received until the information on the account and amount to be credited is received. 
</P>
<P>3. This paragraph also establishes the extent to which an electronic payment is considered made. Thus, if a participant on a private network fails to settle and the receiving bank receives finally settled funds representing only a partial amount of the payment, it must make only the amount that it actually received available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>4. The availability requirements of this regulation do not preempt or invalidate other rules, regulations, or agreements which require funds to be made available on a more prompt basis. For example, the next-day availability requirement for ACH credits in this section does not preempt ACH association rules and Treasury regulations (31 CFR part 210), which provide that the proceeds of these credit payments be available to the recipient for withdrawal on the day the bank receives the funds. 


</P>
<HD3>D. 229.10(c) Certain Check Deposits 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act generally requires that funds be made available on the business day following the banking day of deposit for Treasury checks, state and local government checks, cashier's checks, certified checks, teller's checks, and “on us” checks, under specified conditions. (Treasury checks are checks drawn on the Treasury of the United States and have a routing number beginning with the digits “0000.”) This section also requires next-day availability for additional types of checks not addressed in the EFA Act. Checks drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or a Federal Home Loan Bank and U.S. Postal Service money orders also must be made available on the first business day following the day of deposit under specified conditions. For the purposes of this section, all checks drawn on a Federal Reserve Bank or a Federal Home Loan Bank that contain in the MICR line a routing number that is listed in appendix A are subject to the next-day availability requirement if they are deposited in an account held by a payee of the check and in person to an employee of the depositary bank, regardless of the purposes for which the checks were issued. For all new accounts, even if the new account exception is not invoked, traveler's checks must be included in the $6,725 aggregation of checks deposited on any one banking day that are subject to the next-day availability requirement. (<I>See</I> § 229.13(a).) 
</P>
<P>2. Deposit in Account of Payee. One statutory condition to receipt of next-day availability of Treasury checks, state and local government checks, cashier's checks, certified checks, and teller's checks is that the check must be “endorsed only by the person to whom it was issued.” The EFA Act could be interpreted to include a check that has been indorsed in blank and deposited into an account of a third party that is not named as payee. The Board believes that such a check presents greater risks than a check deposited by the payee and that Congress did not intend to require next-day availability for such checks. The regulation, therefore, provides that funds must be available on the business day following deposit only if the check is deposited in an account held by a payee of the check. For the purposes of this section, payee does not include transferees other than named payees. The regulation also applies this condition to Postal Service money orders and checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks. 
</P>
<P>3. Deposits Made to an Employee of the Depositary Bank. 
</P>
<P>a. In most cases, next-day availability of the proceeds of checks subject to this section is conditioned on the deposit of these checks in person to an employee of the depositary bank. If the deposit is not made to an employee of the depositary bank on the premises of such bank, the proceeds of the deposit must be made available for withdrawal by the start of business on the second business day after deposit, under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. For example, second-day availability rather than next-day availability would be allowed for deposits of checks subject to this section made at a proprietary ATM, night depository, through the mail or a lock box, or at a teller station staffed by a person who is not an employee of the depositary bank. Second-day availability also may be allowed for deposits picked up by an employee of the depositary bank at the customer's premises; such deposits would be considered made upon receipt at the branch or other location of the depositary bank. Employees of a contractual branch would not be considered employees of the depositary bank for the purposes of this regulation, and deposits at contractual branches would be treated the same as deposits to a proprietary ATM for the purposes of this regulation. (See also, Commentary to § 229.19(a).) 
</P>
<P>b. In the case of Treasury checks, the EFA Act and regulation do not condition the receipt of next-day availability to deposits at staffed teller stations. Therefore, Treasury checks deposited at a proprietary ATM must be accorded next-day availability, if the check is deposited to an account of a payee of the check. 
</P>
<P>4. “On Us” Checks. The EFA Act and regulation require next-day availability for “on us” checks, i.e., checks deposited in a branch of the depositary bank and drawn on the same or another branch of the same bank, if both branches are located in the same state or check processing region. Thus, checks deposited in one branch of a bank and drawn on another branch of the same bank must receive next-day availability even if the branch on which the checks are drawn is located in another check processing region but in the same state as the branch in which the check is deposited. For the purposes of this requirement, deposits at facilities that are not located on the premises of a brick-and-mortar branch of the bank, such as off-premise ATMs and remote depositories, are not considered deposits made at branches of the depositary bank. 


</P>
<P>5. First $275
</P>
<P>a. The EFA Act and regulation also require that up to $275 of the aggregate deposit by check or checks not subject to next-day availability on any one banking day be made available on the next business day. For example, if $70 were deposited in an account by check(s) on a Monday, the entire $70 must be available for withdrawal at the start of business on Tuesday. If $400 were deposited by check(s) on a Monday, this section requires that $275 of the funds be available for withdrawal at the start of business on Tuesday. The portion of the customer's deposit to which the $275 must be applied is at the discretion of the depositary bank, as long as it is not applied to any checks subject to next-day availability. The $275 next-day availability rule does not apply to deposits at nonproprietary ATMs.
</P>
<P>b. The $275 that must be made available under this rule is in addition to the amount that must be made available for withdrawal on the business day after deposit under other provisions of this section. For example, if a customer deposits a $1,000 Treasury check and a $1,000 local check in its account on Monday, $1,275 must be made available for withdrawal on Tuesday—the proceeds of the $1,000 Treasury check, as well as the first $275 of the local check.
</P>
<P>c. A depositary bank may aggregate all local and nonlocal check deposits made by a customer on a given banking day for the purposes of the $275 next-day availability rule. Thus, if a customer has two accounts at the depositary bank, and on a particular banking day makes deposits to each account, $275 of the total deposited to the two accounts must be made available on the business day after deposit. Banks may aggregate deposits to individual and joint accounts for the purposes of this provision.
</P>
<P>d. If the customer deposits a $550 local check and gets $275 cash back at the time of deposit, the bank need not make an additional $275 available for withdrawal on the following day. Similarly, if the customer depositing the local check has a negative book balance, or negative available balance in its account at the time of deposit, the $275 that must be available on the next business day may be made available by applying the $275 to the negative balance, rather than making the $275 available for withdrawal by cash or check on the following day.






</P>
<P>6. Special Deposit Slips. 
</P>
<P>a. Under the EFA Act, a depositary bank may require the use of a special deposit slip as a condition to providing next-day availability for certain types of checks. This condition was included in the EFA Act because many banks determine the availability of their customers' check deposits in an automated manner by reading the MICR-encoded routing number on the deposited checks. Using these procedures, a bank can determine whether a check is a local or nonlocal check, a check drawn on the Treasury, a Federal Reserve Bank, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or a branch of the depositary bank, or a U.S. Postal Service money order. Appendix A includes the routing numbers of certain categories of checks that are subject to next-day availability. The bank cannot require a special deposit slip for these checks. 
</P>
<P>b. A bank cannot distinguish whether the check is a state or local government check, cashier's check, certified check, or teller's check by reading the MICR-encoded routing number, because these checks bear the same routing number as other checks drawn on the same bank that are not accorded next-day availability. Therefore, a bank may require a special deposit slip for these checks. 
</P>
<P>c. The regulation specifies that if a bank decides to require the use of a special deposit slip (or a special deposit envelope in the case of a deposit at an ATM or other unstaffed facility) as a condition to granting next-day availability under paragraphs (c)(1)(iv) or (c)(1)(v) of this section or second-day availability under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and if the deposit slip that must be used is different from the bank's regular deposit slips, the bank must either provide the special slips to its customers or inform its customers how such slips may be obtained and make the slips reasonably available to the customers. 
</P>
<P>d. A bank may meet this requirement by providing customers with an order form for the special deposit slips and allowing sufficient time for the customer to order and receive the slips before this condition is imposed. If a bank provides deposit slips in its branches for use by its customers, it also must provide the special deposit slips in the branches. If special deposit envelopes are required for deposits at an ATM, the bank must provide such envelopes at the ATM. 
</P>
<P>e. Generally, a teller is not required to advise depositors of the availability of special deposit slips merely because checks requiring special deposit slips for next-day availability are deposited without such slips. If a bank provides the special deposit slips only upon the request of a depositor, however, the teller must advise the depositor of the availability of the special deposit slips, or the bank must post a notice advising customers that the slips are available upon request. Such notice need not be posted at each teller window, but the notice must be posted in a place where consumers seeking to make deposits are likely to see it before making their deposits. For example, the notice might be posted at the point where the line forms for teller service in the lobby. The notice is not required at any drive-through teller windows nor is it required at night depository locations, or at locations where consumer deposits are not accepted. If a bank prepares a deposit for a depositor, it must use a special deposit slip where appropriate. A bank may require the customer to segregate the checks subject to next-day availability for which special deposit slips could be required, and to indicate on a regular deposit slip that such checks are being deposited, if the bank so instructs its customers in its initial disclosure. 
</P>
<P>7. Dollar Amount Adjustment—See section 229.11 for the rules regarding adjustments for inflation every five years to the dollar amounts used in this section.


</P>
<HD2>V. Section 229.11 Adjustment of Dollar Amounts
</HD2>
<P>1. Example of a positive adjustment. If the CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year and the adjustment year were 100 and 114.7, respectively, the aggregate percentage change for the period would be 14.7%. If the applicable dollar amount was $200 for the prior period, then the adjusted figure would become $225, as the change of $29.40 results in rounding to $25.
</P>
<P>2. Example of no adjustment. If the CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year and the adjustment year were 100 and 104, respectively, the aggregate percentage change would be 4.0%. If the applicable dollar amount was $200 for the prior period, then the adjusted figure would remain $200, as the change of $8.00 does not result in rounding to $25.
</P>
<P>3. Example of accounting for aggregate decrease in subsequent period. If the CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year and the adjustment year were 100 and 95, respectively, the aggregate percentage change would be −5%, and no adjustment to the dollar amounts would occur. The CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year would be the starting point for calculating any CPI-W increase across subsequent five-year periods. Therefore, if the CPI-W in July (and released in August) of the base year and the CPI-W in July (and released in August) of the years at the end of the next two five-year periods were 100, 95, and 109, respectively, the aggregate percentage change for the entire period would be 9.0%. If the applicable dollar amount was $5,000 for the prior period, then the adjusted figure would become $5,450 as the change of $450 does not require rounding because it is a multiple of $25.
</P>
<P>4. Example of accounting for aggregate lack of dollar amount change in subsequent period. If the CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year and the year at the end of the subsequent five-year period were 100 and 105, respectively, the aggregate change over the five-year period would be 5%, and no adjustment to the $200 amount would occur, as the change of $10 does not result in rounding to $225. Nonetheless, the CPI-W for July (and released in August) of the base year would be the starting point for calculating any CPI-W percentage increase across the subsequent five-year period. Therefore, if the CPI-W in July (and released in August) of the base year and the CPI-W in July (and released in August) of the years at the end of the next two five-year periods were 100, 105, and 112.6, respectively, the aggregate percentage change for the entire period would be 12.6%. If the applicable dollar amount was $200 for the prior period, then the adjusted figure would become $225 as the change of $25.20 results in rounding to $225, the nearest multiple of $25.


</P>
<HD2>VI. Section 229.12 Availability Schedule 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.12(a) Effective Date 
</HD3>
<P>1. The availability schedule set forth in this section supersedes the temporary schedule that was effective September 1, 1988, through August 31, 1990. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.12(b) Local Checks and Certain Other Checks 
</HD3>
<P>1. Local checks must be made available for withdrawal not later than the second business day following the banking day on which the checks were deposited. 
</P>
<P>2. In addition, the proceeds of Treasury checks and U.S. Postal Service money orders not subject to next-day (or second-day) availability under § 229.10(c), checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks, checks drawn by a state or unit of general local government, cashier's checks, certified checks, and teller's checks not subject to next-day (or second-day) availability under § 229.10(c) and payable in the same check processing region as the depositary bank, must be made available for withdrawal by the second business day following deposit. 
</P>
<P>3. Exceptions are made for withdrawals by cash or similar means and for deposits in banks located outside the 48 contiguous states. Thus, the proceeds of a local check deposited on a Monday generally must be made available for withdrawal on Wednesday. 
</P>
<P>4. Dollar Amount Adjustment—See section 229.11 for the rules regarding adjustments for inflation every five years to the dollar amounts in this section.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.12(c) Nonlocal Checks 
</HD3>
<P>1. Nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal not later than the fifth business day following deposit, i.e., proceeds of a nonlocal check deposited on a Monday must be made available for withdrawal on the following Monday. In addition, a check described in § 229.10(c) that does not meet the conditions for next-day availability (or second-day availability) is treated as a nonlocal check, if the check is drawn on or payable through or at a nonlocal paying bank. Adjustments are made to the schedule for withdrawals by cash or similar means and deposits in banks located outside the 48 contiguous states. 
</P>
<P>2. Reduction in Schedules. 
</P>
<P>a. Section 603(d)(1) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(d)(1)) requires the Board to reduce the statutory schedules for any category of checks where most of those checks would be returned in a shorter period of time than provided in the schedules. The conferees indicated that “if the new system makes it possible for two-thirds of the items of a category of checks to meet this test in a shorter period of time, then the Federal Reserve must shorten the schedules accordingly.” H.R. Rep. No. 261, 100th Cong., 1st Sess. at 179 (1987). 
</P>
<P>b. Reduced schedules are provided for certain nonlocal checks where significant improvements can be made to the EFA Act's schedules due to transportation arrangements or proximity between the check processing regions of the depositary bank and the paying bank, allowing for faster collection and return. Appendix B sets forth the specific reduction of schedules applicable to banks located in certain check processing regions. 
</P>
<P>c. A reduction in schedules may apply even in those cases where the determination that the check is nonlocal cannot be made based on the routing number on the check. For example, a nonlocal credit union payable-through share draft may be subject to a reduction in schedules if the routing number of the payable-through bank that appears on the draft is included in appendix B, even though the determination that the payable-through share draft is nonlocal is based on the location of the credit union and not the routing number on the draft. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.12(d) Time Period Adjustment for Withdrawal by Cash or Similar Means 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act provides an adjustment to the availability rules for cash withdrawals. Funds from local and nonlocal checks need not be available for cash withdrawal until 5:00 p.m. on the day specified in the schedule. At 5:00 p.m., $550 of the deposit must be made available for cash withdrawal. This $550 is in addition to the first $275 of a day's deposit, which must be made available for withdrawal at the start of business on the first business day following the banking day of deposit. If the proceeds of local and nonlocal checks become available for withdrawal on the same business day, the $550 withdrawal limitation applies to the aggregate amount of the funds that became available for withdrawal on that day. The remainder of the funds must be available for cash withdrawal at the start of business on the business day following the business day specified in the schedule. 
</P>
<P>2. The EFA Act recognizes that the $550 that must be provided on the day specified in the schedule may exceed a bank's daily ATM cash withdrawal limit, and explicitly provides that the EFA Act does not supersede the bank's policy in this regard. The Board believes that the rationale for accommodating a bank's ATM withdrawal limit also applies to other cash withdrawal limits established by that bank. Section 229.19(c)(4) of the regulation addresses the relation between a bank's cash withdrawal limit (for over-the-counter cash withdrawals as well as ATM cash withdrawals) and the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>3. The Board believes that the Congress included this special cash withdrawal rule to provide a depositary bank with additional time to learn of the nonpayment of a check before it must make funds available to its customer. If a customer deposits a local check on a Monday, and that check is returned by the paying bank, the depositary bank may not receive the returned check until Thursday, the day after funds for a local check ordinarily must be made available for withdrawal. The intent of the special cash withdrawal rule is to minimize this risk to the depositary bank. For this rule to minimize the depositary bank's risk, it must apply not only to cash withdrawals, but also to withdrawals by other means that result in an irrevocable debit to the customer's account or commitment to pay by the bank on the customer's behalf during the day. Thus, the cash withdrawal rule also includes withdrawals by electronic payment, issuance of a cashier's or teller's check, certification of a check, or other irrevocable commitment to pay, such as authorization of an on-line point-of-sale debit. The rule also would apply to checks presented over the counter for payment on the day of presentment by the depositor or another person. Such checks could not be dishonored for insufficient funds if an amount sufficient to cover the check had became available for cash withdrawal under this rule; however, payment of such checks would be subject to the bank's cut-off hour established under U.C.C. 4-108. The cash withdrawal rule does not apply to checks and other provisional debits presented to the bank for payment that the bank has the right to return. 


</P>
<HD3>E. 229.12(e) Extension of Schedule for Certain Deposits in Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands 


</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act and regulation provide an extension of the availability schedules for check deposits at a branch of a bank if the branch is located in Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, or the U.S. Virgin Islands. The schedules for local checks, nonlocal checks (including nonlocal checks subject to the reduced schedules of appendix B), and deposits at nonproprietary ATMs are extended by one business day for checks deposited to accounts in banks located in these jurisdictions that are drawn on or payable at or through a paying bank not located in the same jurisdiction as the depositary bank. For example, a check deposited in a bank in Hawaii and drawn on a San Francisco paying bank must be made available for withdrawal not later than the third business day following deposit. This extension does not apply to deposits that must be made available for withdrawal on the next business day.
</P>
<P>2. The Congress did not provide this extension of the schedules to checks drawn on a paying bank located in Alaska, Hawaii, Puerto Rico, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, or the U.S. Virgin Islands and deposited in an account at a depositary bank in the 48 contiguous states. Therefore, a check deposited in a San Francisco bank drawn on a Hawaii paying bank must be made available for withdrawal not later than the second rather than the third business day following deposit.




</P>
<HD3>F. 229.12(f) Deposits at Nonproprietary ATMs 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act and regulation provide a special rule for deposits made at nonproprietary ATMs. This paragraph does not apply to deposits made at proprietary ATMs. All deposits at a nonproprietary ATM must be made available for withdrawal by the fifth business day following the banking day of deposit. For example, a deposit made at a nonproprietary ATM on a Monday, including any deposit by cash or checks that would otherwise be subject to next-day (or second-day) availability, must be made available for withdrawal not later than Monday of the following week. The provisions of § 229.10(c)(1)(vii) requiring a depositary bank to make up to $275 of an aggregate daily deposit available for withdrawal on the first business day after the banking day of deposit do not apply to deposits at a nonproprietary ATM. 


</P>
<HD2>VII. Section 229.13 Exceptions 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Introduction 
</HD3>
<P>1. While certain safeguard exceptions (such as those for new accounts and checks the bank has reasonable cause to believe are uncollectible) are established in the EFA Act, the Congress gave the Board the discretion to determine whether certain other exceptions should be included in its regulations. Specifically, the EFA Act gives the Board the authority to establish exceptions to the schedules for large or redeposited checks and for accounts that have been repeatedly overdrawn. These exceptions apply to local and nonlocal checks as well as to checks that must otherwise be accorded next-day (or second-day) availability under § 229.10(c). 
</P>
<P>2. Many checks will not be returned to the depositary bank by the time funds must be made available for withdrawal under the next-day (or second-day), local, and nonlocal schedules. In order to reduce risk to depositary banks, the Board has exercised its statutory authority to adopt these exceptions to the schedules in the regulation to allow the depositary bank to extend the time within which it is required to make funds available. 
</P>
<P>3. The EFA Act also gives the Board the authority to suspend the schedules for any classification of checks, if the schedules result in an unacceptable level of fraud losses. The Board will adopt regulations or issue orders to implement this statutory authority if and when circumstances requiring its implementation arise. 
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<HD3>B. 229.13(a) New Accounts 
</HD3>
<P>1. Definition of New Account. 
</P>
<P>a. The EFA Act provides an exception to the availability schedule for new accounts. An account is defined as a new account during the first 30 calendar days after the account is opened. An account is opened when the first deposit is made to the account. An account is not considered a new account, however, if each customer on the account has a transaction account relationship with the depositary bank, including a dormant account, that is at least 30 calendar days old or if each customer has had an established transaction account with the depositary bank within the 30 calendar days prior to opening the second account. 
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<P>b. The following are examples of what constitutes, and does not constitute, a new account: 
</P>
<P>i. If the customer has an established account with a bank and opens a second account with the bank, the second account is not subject to the new account exception. 
</P>
<P>ii. If a customer's account were closed and another account opened as a successor to the original account (due, for example, to the theft of checks or a debit card used to access the original account), the successor account is not subject to the new account exception, assuming the previous account relationship is at least 30 days old. Similarly, if a customer closes an established account and opens a separate account within 30 days, the new account is not subject to the new account exception. 
</P>
<P>iii. If a customer has a savings deposit or other deposit that is not an account (as that term is defined in § 229.2(a)) at the bank, and opens an account, the account is subject to the new account exception. 
</P>
<P>iv. If a person that is authorized to sign on a corporate account (but has no other relationship with the bank) opens a personal account, the personal account is subject to the new account exception. 
</P>
<P>v. If a customer has an established joint account at a bank, and subsequently opens an individual account with that bank, the individual account is not subject to the new account exception. 
</P>
<P>vi. If two customers that each have an established individual account with the bank open a joint account, the joint account is not subject to the new account exception. If one of the customers on the account has no current or recent established account relationship with the bank, however, the joint account is subject to the new account exception, even if the other individual on the account has an established account relationship with the bank. 


</P>
<P>2. Rules Applicable to New Accounts. 
</P>
<P>a. During the new account exception period, the schedules for local and nonlocal checks do not apply, and, unlike the other exceptions provided in this section, the regulation provides no maximum time frames within which the proceeds of these deposits must be made available for withdrawal. Maximum times within which funds must be available for withdrawal during the new account period are provided, however, for certain other deposits. Deposits received by cash and electronic payments must be made available for withdrawal in accordance with § 229.10. 


</P>
<P>b. Special rules also apply to deposits of Treasury checks, U.S. Postal Service money orders, checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks and Federal Home Loan Banks, state and local government checks, cashier's checks, certified checks, teller's checks, and, for the purposes of the new account exception only, traveler's checks. The first $5,000 of funds deposited to a new account on any one banking day by these check deposits must be made available for withdrawal in accordance with § 229.10(c). Thus, the first $6,725 of the proceeds of these check deposits must be made available on the first business day following deposit, if the deposit is made in person to an employee of the depositary bank and the other conditions of next-day availability are met. Funds must be made available on the second business day after deposit for deposits that are not made over the counter, in accordance with § 229.10(c)(2). (Proceeds of Treasury check deposits must be made available on the first business day after deposit, even if the check is not deposited in person to an employee of the depositary bank.) Funds in excess of the first $6,725 deposited by these types of checks on a banking day must be available for withdrawal not later than the ninth business day following the banking day of deposit. The requirements of § 229.10(c)(1)(vi) and (vii) that “on us” checks and the first $275 of a day's deposit be made available for withdrawal on the next business day do not apply during the new account period. 
</P>
<P>3. Representation by Customer. The depositary bank may rely on the representation of the customer that the customer has no established account relationship with the bank, and has not had any such account relationship within the past 30 days, to determine whether an account is subject to the new account exception. 


</P>
<HD3>C. 229.13(b) Large Deposits 
</HD3>
<P>1. Under the large deposit exception, a depositary bank may extend the hold placed on check deposits to the extent that the amount of the aggregate deposit on any banking day exceeds $6,725. This exception applies to local and nonlocal checks, as well as to checks that otherwise would be made available on the next (or second) business day after the day of deposit under § 229.10(c). Although the first $6,725 of a day's deposit is subject to the availability otherwise provided for checks, the amount in excess of $6,725 may be held for an additional period of time as provided in § 229.13(h). When the large deposit exception is applied to deposits composed of a mix of checks that would otherwise be subject to differing availability schedules, the depositary bank has the discretion to choose the portion of the deposit to which it applies the exception. Deposits by cash or electronic payment are not subject to this exception for large deposits. 


</P>
<P>2. The following example illustrates the operation of the large-deposit exception. If a customer deposits $2,000 in cash and a $9,000 local check on a Monday, $2,275 (the proceeds of the cash deposit and $275 from the local-check deposit) must be made available for withdrawal on Tuesday. An additional $6,450 of the proceeds of the local check must be available for withdrawal on Wednesday in accordance with the local schedule, and the remaining $2,275 may be held for an additional period of time under the large-deposit exception.




</P>
<P>3. Where a customer has multiple accounts with a depositary bank, the bank may apply the large deposit exception to the aggregate deposits to all of the customer's accounts, even if the customer is not the sole holder of the accounts and not all of the holders of the customer's accounts are the same. Thus, a depositary bank may aggregate the deposits made to two individual accounts in the same name, to an individual and a joint account with one common name, or to two joint accounts with at least one common name for the purpose of applying the large deposit exception. Aggregation of deposits to multiple accounts is permitted because the Board believes that the risk to the depositary bank associated with large deposits is similar regardless of how the deposits are allocated among the customer's accounts. 


</P>
<P>4. Dollar Amount Adjustment—See section 229.11 for the rules regarding adjustments for inflation every five years to the dollar amounts in this section.






</P>
<HD3>D. 229.13(c) Redeposited Checks 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act gives the Board the authority to promulgate an exception to the schedule for checks that have been returned unpaid and redeposited. Section 229.13(c) provides such an exception for checks that have been returned unpaid and redeposited by the customer or the depositary bank. This exception applies to local and nonlocal checks, as well as to checks that would otherwise be made available on the next (or second) business day after the day of deposit under § 229.10(c). 
</P>
<P>2. This exception addresses the increased risk to the depositary bank that checks that have been returned once will be uncollectible when they are presented to the paying bank a second time. The Board, however, does not believe that this increased risk is present for checks that have been returned due to a missing indorsement. Thus, the exception does not apply to checks returned unpaid due to missing indorsements and redeposited after the missing indorsement has been obtained, if the reason for return indicated on the check (see § 229.30(d)) states that it was returned due to a missing indorsement. For the same reason, this exception does not apply to a check returned because it was postdated (future dated), if the reason for return indicated on the check states that it was returned because it was postdated, and if it is no longer postdated when redeposited. 


</P>
<P>3. To determine when funds must be made available for withdrawal, the banking day on which the check is redeposited is considered to be the day of deposit. A depositary bank that made $275 of a check available for withdrawal under § 229.10(c)(1)(vii) can charge back the full amount of the check, including the $275, if the check is returned unpaid, and the $275 need not be made available again if the check is redeposited. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.13(d) Repeated Overdrafts 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act gives the Board the authority to establish an exception for “deposit accounts which have been overdrawn repeatedly.” This paragraph provides two tests to determine what constitutes repeated overdrafts. Under the first test, a customer's accounts are considered repeatedly overdrawn if, on six banking days within the preceding six months, the available balance in any account held by the customer is negative, or the balance would have become negative if checks or other charges to the account had been paid, rather than returned. This test can be met based on separate occurrences (e.g., checks that are returned for insufficient funds on six different days), or based on one occurrence (e.g., a negative balance that remains on the customer's account for six banking days). If the bank dishonors a check that otherwise would have created a negative balance, however, the incident is considered an overdraft only on that day. 
</P>
<P>2. The second test addresses substantial overdrafts. Such overdrafts increase the risk to the depositary bank of dealing with the repeated overdrafter. Under this test, a customer incurs repeated overdrafts if, on two banking days within the preceding six months, the available balance in any account held by the customer is negative in an amount of $6,725 or more, or would have become negative in an amount of $6,725 or more if checks or other charges to the account had been paid. 
</P>
<P>3. The exception relates not only to overdrafts caused by checks drawn on the account, but also overdrafts caused by other debit charges (e.g. ACH debits, point-of-sale transactions, returned checks, account fees, etc.). If the potential debit is in excess of available funds, the exception applies regardless of whether the items were paid or returned unpaid. An overdraft resulting from an error on the part of the depositary bank, or from the imposition of overdraft charges for which the customer is entitled to a refund under §§ 229.13(e) or 229.16(c), cannot be considered in determining whether the customer is a repeated overdrafter. The exception excludes accounts with overdraft lines of credit, unless the credit line has been exceeded or would have been exceeded if the checks or other charges to the account had been paid. 
</P>
<P>4. This exception applies to local and nonlocal checks, as well as to checks that otherwise would be made available on the next (or second) business day after the day of deposit under § 229.10(c). When a bank places or extends a hold under this exception, it need not make the first $275 of a deposit available for withdrawal on the next business day, as otherwise would be required by § 229.10(c)(1)(vii). 


</P>
<P>5. Dollar Amount Adjustment—See section 229.11 for the calculation method used to adjust the dollar amounts in this section every five years.




</P>
<HD3>F. 229.13(e) Reasonable Cause To Doubt Collectibility 
</HD3>
<P>1. In the case of certain check deposits, if the bank has reasonable cause to believe the check is uncollectible, it may extend the time funds must be made available for withdrawal. This exception applies to local and nonlocal checks, as well as to checks that would otherwise be made available on the next (or second) business day after the day of deposit under § 229.10(c). When a bank places or extends a hold under this exception, it need not make the first $275 of a deposit available for withdrawal on the next business day, as otherwise would be required by § 229.10(c)(1)(vii). If the reasonable cause exception is invoked, the bank must include in the notice to its customer, required by § 229.13(g), the reason that the bank believes that the check is uncollectible. 
</P>
<P>2. The following are several examples of circumstances under which the reasonable cause exception may be invoked: 
</P>
<P>a. If a bank received a notice from the paying bank that a check was not paid and is being returned to the depositary bank, the depositary bank could place a hold on the check or extend a hold previously placed on that check, and notify the customer that the bank had received notice that the check is being returned. The exception could be invoked even if the notice were incomplete, if the bank had reasonable cause to believe that the notice applied to that particular check. 
</P>
<P>b. The depositary bank may have received information from the paying bank, prior to the presentment of the check, that gives the bank reasonable cause to believe that the check is uncollectible. For example, the paying bank may have indicated that payment has been stopped on the check, or that the drawer's account does not currently have sufficient funds to honor the check. Such information may provide sufficient basis to invoke this exception. In these cases, the depositary bank could invoke the exception and disclose as the reason the exception is being invoked the fact that information from the paying bank indicates that the check may not be paid. 
</P>
<P>c. The fact that a check is deposited more than six months after the date on the check (<I>i.e.</I> a stale check) is a reasonable indication that the check may be uncollectible, because under U.C.C. 4-404 a bank has no duty to its customer to pay a check that is more than six months old. Similarly, if a check being deposited is postdated (future dated), the bank may have a reasonable cause to believe the check is uncollectible, because the check may not be properly payable under U.C.C. 4-401. The bank, in its notice, should specify that the check is stale-dated or postdated. 
</P>
<P>d. There are reasons that may cause a bank to believe that a check is uncollectible that are based on confidential information. For example, a bank could conclude that a check being deposited is uncollectible based on its reasonable belief that the depositor is engaging in kiting activity. Reasonable belief as to the insolvency or pending insolvency of the drawer of the check or the drawee bank and that the checks will not be paid also may justify invoking this exception. In these cases, the bank may indicate, as the reason it is invoking the exception, that the bank has confidential information that indicates that the check might not be paid. 
</P>
<P>3. The Board has included a reasonable cause exception notice as a model notice in appendix C (C-13). The model notice includes several reasons for which this exception may be invoked. The Board does not intend to provide a comprehensive list of reasons for which this exception may be invoked; another reason that does not appear on the model notice may be used as the basis for extending a hold, if the reason satisfies the conditions for invoking this exception. A depositary bank may invoke the reasonable cause exception based on a combination of factors that give rise to a reasonable cause to doubt the collectibility of a check. In these cases, the bank should disclose the primary reasons for which the exception was invoked in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>4. The regulation provides that the determination that a check is uncollectible shall not be based on a class of checks or persons. For example, a depositary bank cannot invoke this exception simply because the check is drawn on a paying bank in a rural area and the depositary bank knows it will not have the opportunity to learn of nonpayment of that check before funds must be made available under the availability schedules. Similarly, a depositary bank cannot invoke the reasonable cause exception based on the race or national origin of the depositor. 
</P>
<P>5. If a depositary bank invokes this exception with respect to a particular check and does not provide a written notice to the depositor at the time of deposit, the depositary bank may not assess any overdraft fee (such as an “NSF” charge) or charge interest for use of overdraft credit, if the check is paid by the paying bank and these charges would not have occurred had the exception not been invoked. A bank may assess an overdraft fee under these circumstances, however, if it provides notice to the customer, in the notice of exception required by paragraph (g) of this section, that the fee may be subject to refund, and refunds the charges upon the request of the customer. The notice must state that the customer may be entitled to a refund of any overdraft fees that are assessed if the check being held is paid, and indicate where such requests for a refund of overdraft fees should be directed. 
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.13(f) Emergency Conditions 
</HD3>
<P>1. Certain emergency conditions may arise that delay the collection or return of checks, or delay the processing and updating of customer accounts. In the circumstances specified in this paragraph, the depositary bank may extend the holds that are placed on deposits of checks that are affected by such delays, if the bank exercises such diligence as the circumstances require. For example, if a bank learns that a check has been delayed in the process of collection due to severe weather conditions or other causes beyond its control, an emergency condition covered by this section may exist and the bank may place a hold on the check to reflect the delay. This exception applies to local and nonlocal checks, as well as checks that would otherwise be made available on the next (or second) business day after the day of deposit under § 229.10(c). When a bank places or extends a hold under this exception, it need not make the first $275 of a deposit available for withdrawal on the next business day, as otherwise would be required by § 229.10(c)(1)(vii). In cases where the emergency conditions exception does not apply, as in the case of deposits of cash or electronic payments under § 229.10 (a) and (b), the depositary bank may not be liable for a delay in making funds available for withdrawal if the delay is due to a bona fide error such as an unavoidable computer malfunction. 
</P>
<HD3>H. 229.13(g) Notice of Exception 
</HD3>
<P>1. In general. 
</P>
<P>a. If a depositary bank invokes any of the safeguard exceptions to the schedules listed above, other than the new account or emergency conditions exception, and extends the hold on a deposit beyond the time periods permitted in §§ 229.10(c) and 229.12, it must provide a notice to its customer. Except in the cases described in paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section, notices must be given each time an exception hold is invoked and must state the customer's account number, the date of deposit, the reason the exception was invoked, and the time period within which funds will be available for withdrawal. For a customer that is not a consumer, a depositary bank satisfies the written-notice requirement by sending an electronic notice that displays the text and is in a form that the customer may keep, if the customer agrees to such means of notice. Information is in a form that the customer may keep if, for example, it can be downloaded or printed. For a customer who is a consumer, a depositary bank satisfies the written-notice requirement by sending an electronic notice in compliance with the requirements of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>), which include obtaining the consumer's affirmative consent to such means of notice. 
</P>
<P>b. With respect to paragraph (g)(1), the requirement that the notice state the time period within which the funds shall be made available may be satisfied if the notice identifies the date the deposit is received and information sufficient to indicate when funds will be available and the amounts that will be available at those times. For example, for a deposit involving more than one check, the bank need not provide a notice that discloses when funds from each individual check in the deposit will be available for withdrawal; instead, the bank may provide a total dollar amount for each of the time periods when funds will be available, or provide the customer with an explanation of how to determine the amount of the deposit that will be held and when the funds will be available for deposit. Appendix C (C-12) contains a model notice. 
</P>
<P>c. For deposits made in person to an employee of the depositary bank, the notice generally must be given to the person making the deposit, i.e., the “depositor”, at the time of deposit. The depositor need not be the customer holding the account. For other deposits, such as deposits received at an ATM, lobby deposit box, night depository, or through the mail, notice must be mailed to the customer not later than the close of the business day following the banking day on which the deposit was made. 
</P>
<P>d. Notice to the customer also may be provided at a later time, if the facts upon which the determination to invoke the exception do not become known to the depositary bank until after notice would otherwise have to be given. In these cases, the bank must mail the notice to the customer as soon as practicable, but not later than the business day following the day the facts become known. A bank is deemed to have knowledge when the facts are brought to the attention of the person or persons in the bank responsible for making the determination, or when the facts would have been brought to their attention if the bank had exercised due diligence. 
</P>
<P>e. In those cases described in paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3), the depositary bank need not provide a notice every time an exception hold is applied to a deposit. When paragraph (g)(2) or (g)(3) requires disclosure of the time period within which deposits subject to the exception generally will be available for withdrawal, the requirement may be satisfied if the one-time notice states when “on us,” local, and nonlocal checks will be available for withdrawal if an exception is invoked. 
</P>
<P>2. One-time exception notice. 
</P>
<P>a. Under paragraph (g)(2), if a nonconsumer account (see Commentary to § 229.2(n)) is subject to the large deposit or redeposited check exception, the depositary bank may give its customer a single notice at or prior to the time notice must be provided under paragraph (g)(1). Notices provided under paragraph (g)(2) must contain the reason the exception may be invoked and the time period within which deposits subject to the exception will be available for withdrawal (see Model Notice C-14). A depositary bank may provide a one-time notice to a nonconsumer customer under paragraph (g)(2) only if each exception cited in the notice (the large deposit and/or the redeposited check exception) will be invoked for most check deposits to the customer's account to which the exception could apply. A one-time notice may state that the depositary bank will apply exception holds to certain subsets of deposits to which the large deposit or redeposited check exception may apply, and the notice should identify such subsets. For example, the depositary bank may apply the redeposited check exception only to checks that were redeposited automatically by the depositary bank in accordance with an agreement with the customer, rather than to all redeposited checks. In lieu of sending the one-time notice, a depositary bank may send individual hold notices for each deposit subject to the large deposit or redeposited check exception in accordance with § 229.13(g)(1) (see Model Notice C-12). 


</P>
<P>b. In the case of a deposit of multiple checks, the depositary bank has the discretion to place an exception hold on any combination of checks in excess of $6,725. The notice should enable a customer to determine the availability of the deposit in the case of a deposit of multiple checks. For example, if a customer deposits a $6,725 local check and a $6,725 nonlocal check, under the large-deposit exception, the depositary bank may make funds available in the amount of (1) $275 on the first business day after deposit, $6,450 on the second business day after deposit (local check), and $6,725 on the eleventh business day after deposit (nonlocal check with six-day exception hold), or (2) $275 on the first business day after deposit, $6,450 on the fifth business day after deposit (nonlocal check), and $6,725 on the seventh business day after deposit (local check with five-day exception hold). The notice should reflect the bank's priorities in placing exception holds on next-day (or second-day), local, and nonlocal checks.




</P>
<P>3. Notice of repeated overdraft exception. Under paragraph (g)(3), if an account is subject to the repeated overdraft exception, the depositary bank may provide one notice to its customer for each time period during which the exception will apply. Notices sent pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) must state the customer's account number, the fact the exception was invoked under the repeated overdraft exception, the time period within which deposits subject to the exception will be made available for withdrawal, and the time period during which the exception will apply (see Model Notice C-15). A depositary bank may provide a one-time notice to a customer under paragraph (g)(3) only if the repeated overdraft exception will be invoked for most check deposits to the customer's account. 
</P>
<P>4. Emergency conditions exception notice. 
</P>
<P>a. If an account is subject to the emergency conditions exception under § 229.13(f), the depositary bank must provide notice in a reasonable form within a reasonable time, depending on the circumstances. For example, a depositary bank may learn of a weather emergency or a power outage that affects the paying bank's operations. Under these circumstances, it likely would be reasonable for the depositary bank to provide an emergency conditions exception notice in the same manner and within the same time as required for other exception notices. On the other hand, if a depositary bank experiences a weather or power outage emergency that affects its own operations, it may be reasonable for the depositary bank to provide a general notice to all depositors via postings at branches and ATMs, or through newspaper, television, or radio notices. 
</P>
<P>b. If the depositary bank extends the hold placed on a deposit due to an emergency condition, the bank need not provide a notice if the funds would be available for withdrawal before the notice must be sent. For example, if on the last day of a hold period the depositary bank experiences a computer failure and customer accounts cannot be updated in a timely fashion to reflect the funds as available balances, notices are not required if the funds are made available before the notices must be sent. 
</P>
<P>5. Record retention. A depositary bank must retain a record of each notice of a reasonable cause exception for a period of two years, or such longer time as provided in the record retention requirements of § 229.21. This record must contain a brief description of the facts on which the depositary bank based its judgment that there was reasonable cause to doubt the collectibility of a check. In many cases, such as where the exception was invoked on the basis of a notice of nonpayment received, the record requirement may be met by retaining a copy of the notice sent to the customer. In other cases, such as where the exception was invoked on the basis of confidential information, a further description to the facts, such as insolvency of drawer, should be included in the record. 
</P>
<HD3>I. 229.13(h) Availability of Deposits Subject to Exceptions 
</HD3>
<P>1. If a depositary bank invokes any exception other than the new account exception, the bank may extend the time within which funds must be made available under the schedule by a reasonable period of time. This provision establishes that an extension of up to one business day for “on us” checks, five business days for local checks, and six business days for nonlocal checks and checks deposited in a nonproprietary ATM is reasonable. Under certain circumstances, however, a longer extension of the schedules may be reasonable. In these cases, the burden is placed on the depositary bank to establish that a longer period is reasonable. 
</P>
<P>2. For example, assume a bank extended the hold on a local check deposit by five business days based on its reasonable cause to believe that the check is uncollectible. If, on the day before the extended hold is scheduled to expire, the bank receives a notification from the paying bank that the check is being returned unpaid, the bank may determine that a longer hold is warranted, if it decides not to charge back the customer's account based on the notification. If the bank decides to extend the hold, the bank must send a second notice, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, indicating the new date that the funds will be available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>3. With respect to Treasury checks, U.S. Postal Service money orders, checks drawn on Federal Reserve Banks or Federal Home Loan Banks, state and local government checks, cashier's checks, certified checks, and teller's checks subject to the next-day (or second-day) availability requirement, the depositary bank may extend the time funds must be made available for withdrawal under the large deposit, redeposited check, repeated overdraft, or reasonable cause exception by a reasonable period beyond the delay that would have been permitted under the regulation had the checks not been subject to the next-day (or second-day) availability requirement. The additional hold is added to the local or nonlocal schedule that would apply based on the location of the paying bank. 
</P>
<P>4. One business day for “on us” checks, five business days for local checks, and six business days for nonlocal checks or checks deposited in a nonproprietary ATM, in addition to the time period provided in the schedule, should provide adequate time for the depositary bank to learn of the nonpayment of virtually all checks that are returned. For example, if a customer deposits a $7,000 cashier's check drawn on a nonlocal bank, and the depositary bank applies the large deposit exception to that check, $6,725 must be available for withdrawal on the first business day after the day of deposit and the remaining $275 must be available for withdrawal on the eleventh business day following the day of deposit (six business days added to the five-day schedule for nonlocal checks), unless the depositary bank establishes that a longer hold is reasonable. 
</P>
<P>5. In the case of the application of the emergency conditions exception, the depositary bank may extend the hold placed on a check by not more than a reasonable period following the end of the emergency or the time funds must be available for withdrawal under §§ 229.10(c) or 229.12, whichever is later. 
</P>
<P>6. This provision does not apply to holds imposed under the new account exception. Under that exception, the maximum time period within which funds must be made available for withdrawal is specified for deposits that generally must be accorded next-day availability under § 229.10. This subpart does not specify the maximum time period within which the proceeds of local and nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal during the new account period. 


</P>
<HD2>VIII. Section 229.14 Payment of Interest 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.14(a) In General 
</HD3>
<P>1. This section requires that a depositary bank begin accruing interest on interest-bearing accounts not later than the day on which the depositary bank receives credit for the funds deposited. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> A depositary bank generally receives credit on checks within one or two days following deposit. A bank receives credit on a cash deposit, an electronic payment, and the deposit of a check that is drawn on the depositary bank itself on the day the cash, electronic payment, or check is received. In the case of a deposit at a nonproprietary ATM, credit generally is received on the day the bank that operates the ATM credits the depositary bank for the amount of the deposit. In the case of a deposit at a contractual branch, credit is received on the day the depositary bank receives credit for the amount of the deposit, which may be different from the day the contractual branch receives credit for the deposit. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> This section implements section 606 of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4005). The EFA Act keys the requirement to pay interest to the time the depositary bank receives provisional credit for a check. Provisional credit is a term used in the U.C.C. that is derived from the Code's concept of provisional settlement. (See U.C.C. 4-214 and 4-215.) Provisional credit is credit that is subject to charge-back if the check is returned unpaid; once the check is finally paid, the right to charge back expires and the provisional credit becomes final. Under Subpart C, a paying bank no longer has an automatic right to charge back credits given in settlement of a check, and the concept of provisional settlement is no longer useful and has been eliminated by the regulation. Accordingly, this section uses the term credit rather than provisional credit, and this section applies regardless of whether a credit would be provisional or final under the U.C.C. Credit does not include a bookkeeping entry (sometimes referred to as deferred credit) that does not represent funds actually available for the bank's use.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. Because account includes only transaction accounts, other interest-bearing accounts of the depositary bank, such as money market deposit accounts, savings deposits, and time deposits, are not subject to this requirement; however, a bank may accrue interest on such deposits in the same way that it accrues interest under this paragraph for simplicity of operation. The Board intends the term interest to refer to payments to or for the account of any customer as compensation for the use of funds, but to exclude the absorption of expenses incident to providing a normal banking function or a bank's forbearance from charging a fee in connection with such a service. (See 12 CFR 217.2(d).) Thus, earnings credits often applied to corporate accounts are not interest payments for the purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>3. It may be difficult for a depositary bank to track which day the depositary bank receives credit for specific checks in order to accrue interest properly on the account to which the check is deposited. This difficulty may be pronounced if the bank uses different means of collecting checks based on the time of day the check is received, the dollar amount of the check, and/or the paying bank to which it must be sent. Thus, for the purpose of the interest accrual requirement, a bank may rely on an availability schedule from its Federal Reserve Bank, Federal Home Loan Bank, or correspondent to determine when the depositary bank receives credit. If availability is delayed beyond that specified in the availability schedule, a bank may charge back interest erroneously accrued or paid on the basis of that schedule. 
</P>
<P>4. This paragraph also permits a depositary bank to accrue interest on checks deposited to all of its interest-bearing accounts based on when the bank receives credit on all checks sent for payment or collection. For example, if a bank receives credit on 20 percent of the funds deposited in the bank by check as of the business day of deposit (e.g., “on us” checks), 70 percent as of the business day following deposit, and 10 percent on the second business day following deposit, the bank can apply these percentages to determine the day interest must begin to accrue on check deposits to all interest-bearing accounts, regardless of when the bank received credit on the funds deposited in any particular account. Thus, a bank may begin accruing interest on a uniform basis for all interest-bearing accounts, without the need to track the type of check deposited to each account. 
</P>
<P>5. This section is not intended to limit a policy of a depositary bank that provides that interest accrues only on balances that exceed a specified amount, or on the minimum balance maintained in the account during a given period, provided that the balance is determined based on the date that the depositary bank receives credit for the funds. This section also is not intended to limit any policy providing that interest accrues sooner than required by this paragraph. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.14(b) Special Rule for Credit Unions 
</HD3>
<P>1. This provision implements a requirement in section 606(b) of the EFA Act, and provides an exemption from the payment-of-interest requirements for credit unions that do not begin to accrue interest or dividends on their customer accounts until a later date than the day the credit union receives credit for those deposits, including cash deposits. These credit unions are exempt from the payment-of-interest requirements, as long as they provide notice of their interest accrual policies in accordance with § 229.16(d). For example, if a credit union has a policy of computing interest on all deposits received by the 10th of the month from the first of that month, and on all deposits received after the 10th of the month from the first of the next month, that policy is not superseded by this regulation, if the credit union provides proper disclosure of this policy to its customers. 
</P>
<P>2. The EFA Act limits this exemption to credit unions; other types of banks must comply with the payment-of-interest requirements. In addition, credit unions that compute interest from the day of deposit or day of credit should not change their existing practices in order to avoid compliance with the requirement that interest accrue from the day the credit union receives credit. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.14(c) Exception for Checks Returned Unpaid 
</HD3>
<P>1. This provision is based on section 606(c) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4005(c)) and provides that interest need not be paid on funds deposited in an interest-bearing account by check that has been returned unpaid, regardless of the reason for return. 


</P>
<HD2>IX. Section 229.15 General Disclosure Requirements 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.15(a) Form of Disclosures 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the general requirements for the disclosures required under Subpart B. All of the disclosures must be given in a clear and conspicuous manner, must be in writing, and, in most cases, must be in a form the customer may keep. A disclosure is in a form that the customer may keep if, for example, it can be downloaded or printed. For a customer that is not a consumer, a depositary bank satisfies the written-disclosure requirement by sending an electronic disclosure that displays the text and is in a form that the customer may keep, if the customer agrees to such means of disclosure. For a customer who is a consumer, a depositary bank satisfies the written-notice requirement by sending an electronic notice in compliance with the requirements of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>), which include obtaining the consumer's affirmative consent to such means of notice. Disclosures posted at locations where employees accept consumer deposits, at ATMs, and on preprinted deposit slips need not be in a form that the customer may keep. Appendix C of the regulation contains model forms, clauses, and notices to assist banks in preparing disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. Disclosures concerning availability must be grouped together and may not contain any information that is not related to the disclosures required by this subpart. Therefore, banks may not intersperse the required disclosures with other account disclosures, and may not include other account information that is not related to their availability policy within the text of the required disclosures. Banks may, however, include information that is related to their availability policies. For example, a bank may inform its customers that, even when the bank has already made funds available for withdrawal, the customer is responsible for any problem with the deposit, such as the return of a deposited check. 
</P>
<P>3. The regulation does not require that the disclosures be segregated from other account terms and conditions. For example, banks may include the disclosure of their specific availability policy in a booklet or pamphlet that sets out all of the terms and conditions of the bank's accounts. The required disclosures must, however, be grouped together and highlighted or identified in some manner, for example, by use of a separate heading for the disclosures, such as “When Deposits are Available for Withdrawal.” 
</P>
<P>4. A bank may, by agreement or at the consumer's request, provide any disclosure or notice required by subpart B in a language other than English, provided that the bank makes a complete disclosure available in English at the customer's request.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.15(b) Uniform Reference to Day of Availability 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires banks to disclose in a uniform manner when deposited funds will be available for withdrawal. Banks must disclose when deposited funds are available for withdrawal by stating the business day on which the customer may begin to withdraw funds. The business day funds will be available must be disclosed as “the ________________ business day after” the day of deposit, or substantially similar language. The business day of availability is determined by counting the number of business days starting with the business day following the banking day on which the deposit is received, as determined under § 229.19(a), and ending with the business day on which the customer may begin to withdraw funds. For example, a bank that imposes delays of four intervening business days for nonlocal checks must describe those checks as being available on “the fifth business day after” the day of the deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.15(c) Multiple Accounts and Multiple Account Holders 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph clarifies that banks need not provide multiple disclosures under the regulation. A single disclosure to a customer that holds multiple accounts, or a single disclosure to one of the account holders of a jointly held account, satisfies the disclosure requirements of the regulation. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.15(d) Dormant or Inactive Accounts 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph makes clear that banks need not provide disclosure of their specific availability policies to customers that hold accounts that are either dormant or inactive. The determination that certain accounts are dormant or inactive must be made by the bank. If a bank considers an account dormant or inactive for purposes other than this regulation and no longer provides statements and other mailings to an account for this reason, such an account is considered dormant or inactive for purposes of this regulation. 


</P>
<HD2>X. Section 229.16 Specific Availability Policy Disclosure 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.16(a) General 
</HD3>
<P>1. This section describes the information that must be disclosed by banks to comply with §§ 229.17 and 229.18(d), which require that banks furnish notices of their specific policy regarding availability of deposited funds. The disclosure provided by a bank must reflect the availability policy followed by the bank in most cases, even though a bank may in some cases make funds available sooner or impose a longer delay. 
</P>
<P>2. The disclosure must reflect the policy and practice of the bank regarding availability as to most accounts and most deposits into those accounts. In disclosing the availability policy that it follows in most cases, a bank may provide a single disclosure that reflects one policy to all its transaction account customers, even though some of its customers may receive faster availability than that reflected in the policy disclosure. Thus, a bank need not disclose to some customers that they receive faster availability than indicated in the disclosure. If, however, a bank has a policy of imposing delays in availability on any customers longer than those specified in its disclosure, those customers must receive disclosures that reflect the longer applicable availability periods. A bank may establish different availability policies for different groups of customers, such as customers in a particular geographic area or customers of a particular branch. For purposes of providing a specific availability policy, the bank may allocate customers among groups through good faith use of a reasonable method. A bank may also establish different availability policies for deposits at different locations, such as deposits at a contractual branch. 
</P>
<P>3. A bank may disclose that funds are available for withdrawal on a given day notwithstanding the fact that the bank uses the funds to pay checks received before that day. For example, a bank may disclose that its policy is to make funds available from deposits of local checks on the second business day following the day of deposit, even though it may use the deposited funds to pay checks prior to the second business day; the funds used to pay checks in this example are not available for withdrawal until the second business day after deposit because the funds are not available for all uses until the second business day. (See the definition of available for withdrawal in § 229.2(d).) 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.16(b) Content of Specific Policy Disclosure 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the items that must be included, as applicable, in a bank's specific availability policy disclosure. The information that must be disclosed by a particular bank will vary considerably depending upon the bank's availability policy. For example, a bank that makes deposited funds available for withdrawal on the business day following the day of deposit need simply disclose that deposited funds will be available for withdrawal on the first business day after the day of deposit, the bank's business days, and when deposits are considered received. 
</P>
<P>2. On the other hand, a bank that has a policy of routinely delaying on a blanket basis the time when deposited funds are available for withdrawal would have a more detailed disclosure. Such blanket hold policies might be for the maximum time allowed under the federal law or might be for shorter periods. These banks must disclose the types of deposits that will be subject to delays, how the customer can determine the type of deposit being made, and the day that funds from each type of deposit will be available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>3. Some banks may have a combination of next-day availability and blanket delays. For example, a bank may provide next-day availability for all deposits except for one or two categories, such as deposits at nonproprietary ATMs and nonlocal personal checks over a specified dollar amount. The bank would describe the categories that are subject to delays in availability and tell the customer when each category would be available for withdrawal, and state that other deposits will be available for withdrawal on the first business day after the day of deposit. Similarly, a bank that provides availability on the second business day for most of its deposits would need to identify the categories of deposits which, under the regulation, are subject to next-day availability and state that all other deposits will be available on the second business day. 
</P>
<P>4. Because many banks' availability policies may be complex, a bank must give a brief summary of its policy at the beginning of the disclosure. In addition, the bank must describe any circumstances when actual availability may be longer than the schedules disclosed. Such circumstances would arise, for example, when the bank invokes one of the exceptions set forth in § 229.13 of the regulation, or when the bank delays or extends the time when deposited funds are available for withdrawal up to the time periods allowed by the regulation on a case-by-case basis. Also, a bank that must make certain checks available faster under appendix B (reduction of schedules for certain nonlocal checks) must state that some check deposits will be available for withdrawal sooner because of special rules and that a list of the pertinent routing numbers is available upon request. 
</P>
<P>5. Generally, a bank that distinguishes in its disclosure between local and nonlocal checks based on the routing number on the check must disclose to its customers that certain checks, such as some credit union payable-through drafts, will be treated as local or nonlocal based on the location of the bank by which they are payable (e.g., the credit union), and not on the basis of the location of the bank whose routing number appears on the check. A bank is not required to provide this disclosure, however, if it makes the proceeds of both local and nonlocal checks available for withdrawal within the time periods required for local checks in §§ 229.12 and 229.13. 
</P>
<P>6. The business day cut-off time used by the bank must be disclosed and if some locations have different cut-off times the bank must note this in the disclosure and state the earliest time that might apply. A bank need not list all of the different cut-off times that might apply. If a bank does not have a cut-off time prior to its closing time, the bank need not disclose a cut-off time. 
</P>
<P>7. A bank taking advantage of the extended time period for making deposits at nonproprietary ATMs available for withdrawal under § 229.12(f) must explain this in the initial disclosure. In addition, the bank must provide a list (on or with the initial disclosure) of either the bank's proprietary ATMs or those ATMs that are nonproprietary at which customers may make deposits. As an alternative to providing such a list, the bank may label all of its proprietary ATMs with the bank's name and state in the initial disclosure that this has been done. Similarly, a bank taking advantage of the cash withdrawal limitations of § 229.12(d), or the provision in § 229.19(e) allowing holds to be placed on other deposits when a deposit is made or a check is cashed, must explain this in the initial disclosure. 
</P>
<P>8. A bank that provides availability based on when the bank generally receives credit for deposited checks need not disclose the time when a check drawn on a specific bank will be available for withdrawal. Instead, the bank may disclose the categories of deposits that must be available on the first business day after the day of deposit (deposits subject to § 229.10) and state the other categories of deposits and the time periods that will be applicable to those deposits. For example, a bank might disclose the four-digit Federal Reserve routing symbol for local checks and indicate that such checks as well as certain nonlocal checks will be available for withdrawal on the first or second business day following the day of deposit, depending on the location of the particular bank on which the check is drawn, and disclose that funds from all other checks will be available on the second or third business day. The bank must also disclose that the customer may request a copy of the bank's detailed schedule that would enable the customer to determine the availability of any check and must provide such schedule upon request. A change in the bank's detailed schedule would not trigger the change in policy disclosure requirement of § 229.18(e). 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.16(c) Longer Delays on a Case-by-Case Basis 
</HD3>
<P>1. Notice in specific policy disclosure. 
</P>
<P>a. Banks that make deposited funds available for withdrawal sooner than required by the regulation—for example, providing their customers with immediate or next-day availability for deposited funds—and delay the time when funds are available for withdrawal only from time to time determined on a case-by-case basis, must provide notice of this in their specific availability policy disclosure. This paragraph outlines the requirements for that notice. 
</P>
<P>b. In addition to stating what their specific availability policy is in most cases, banks that may delay or extend the time when deposits are available on a case-by-case basis must: state that from time to time funds may be available for withdrawal later than the time periods in their specific policy disclosure, disclose the latest time that a customer may have to wait for deposited funds to be available for withdrawal when a case-by-case hold is placed, state that customers will be notified when availability of a deposit is delayed on a case-by-case basis, and advise customers to ask if they need to be sure of the availability of a particular deposit. 
</P>
<P>c. A bank that imposes delays on a case-by-case basis is still subject to the availability requirements of this regulation. If the bank imposes a delay on a particular deposit that is not longer than the availability required by § 229.12 for local and nonlocal checks, the reason for the delay need not be based on the exceptions provided in § 229.13. If the delay exceeds the time periods permitted under § 229.12, however, then it must be based on an exception provided in § 229.13, and the bank must comply with the § 229.13 notice requirements. A bank that imposes delays on a case-by-case basis may avail itself of the one-time notice provisions in § 229.13(g)(2) and (3) for deposits to which those provisions apply. 
</P>
<P>2. Notice at time of case-by-case delay. 
</P>
<P>a. In addition to including the disclosures required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section in their specific availability policy disclosure, banks that delay or extend the time period when funds are available for withdrawal on a case-by-case basis must give customers a notice when availability of funds from a particular deposit will be delayed or extended beyond the time when deposited funds are generally available for withdrawal. The notice must state that a delay is being imposed and indicate when the funds will be available. In addition, the notice must include the account number, the date of the deposit, and the amount of the deposit being delayed. 
</P>
<P>b. If notice of the delay was not given at the time the deposit was made and the bank assesses overdraft or returned check fees on accounts when a case-by-case hold has been placed, the case-by-case hold notice provided to the customer must include a notice concerning overdraft or returned check fees. The notice must state that the customer may be entitled to a refund of any overdraft or returned check fees that result from the deposited funds not being available if the check that was deposited was in fact paid by the payor bank, and explain how to request a refund of any fees. (See § 229.16(c)(3).) 
</P>
<P>c. The requirement that the case-by-case hold notice state the day that funds will be made available for withdrawal may be met by stating the date or the number of business days after deposit that the funds will be made available. This requirement is satisfied if the notice provides information sufficient to indicate when funds will be available and the amounts that will be available at those times. For example, for a deposit involving more than one check, the bank need not provide a notice that discloses when funds from each individual item in the deposit will be available for withdrawal. Instead, the bank may provide a total dollar amount for each of the time periods when funds will be available, or provide the customer with an explanation of how to determine the amount of the deposit that will be held and when the held funds will be available for withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>d. For deposits made in person to an employee of the depositary bank, the notice generally must be given at the time of the deposit. The notice at the time of the deposit must be given to the person making the deposit, that is, the “depositor.” The depositor need not be the customer holding the account. For other deposits, such as deposits received at an ATM, lobby deposit box, night depository, through the mail, or by armored car, notice must be mailed to the customer not later than the close of the business day following the banking day on which the deposit was made. Notice to the customer also may be provided not later than the close of the business day following the banking day on which the deposit was made if the decision to delay availability is made after the time of the deposit. 
</P>
<P>3. Overdraft and returned check fees. If a depositary bank delays or extends the time when funds from a deposited check are available for withdrawal on a case-by-case basis and does not provide a written notice to its depositor at the time of deposit, the depositary bank may not assess any overdraft or returned check fees (such as an insufficient funds charge) or charge interest for use of an overdraft line of credit, if the deposited check is paid by the paying bank and these fees would not have occurred had the additional case-by-case delay not been imposed. A bank may assess an overdraft or returned check fee under these circumstances, however, if it provides notice to the customer in the notice required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section that the fee may be subject to refund, and refunds the fee upon the request of the customer when required to do so. The notice must state that the customer may be entitled to a refund of any overdraft or returned check fees that are assessed if the deposited check is paid, and indicate where such requests for a refund of overdraft fees should be directed. Paragraph (c)(3) applies when a bank provides a case-by-case notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) and does not apply if the bank has provided an exception hold notice in accordance with § 229.13. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.16(d) Credit Union Notice of Interest Payment Policy 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the special disclosure requirement for credit unions that delay accrual of interest or dividends for all cash and check deposits beyond the date of receiving provisional credit for checks being deposited. (The interest payment requirement is set forth in § 229.14(a).) Such credit unions are required to describe their policy with respect to accrual of interest or dividends on deposits in their specific availability policy disclosure. 


</P>
<HD2>XI. Section 229.17 Initial Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>A. This paragraph requires banks to provide a notice of their availability policy to all potential customers prior to opening an account. The requirement of a notice prior to opening an account requires banks to provide disclosures prior to accepting a deposit to open an account. Disclosures must be given at the time the bank accepts an initial deposit regardless of whether the bank has opened the account yet for the customer. If a bank, however, receives a written request by mail from a person asking that an account be opened and the request includes an initial deposit, the bank may open the account with the deposit, provided the bank mails the required disclosures to the customer not later than the business day following the banking day on which the bank receives the deposit. Similarly, if a bank receives a telephone request from a customer asking that an account be opened with a transfer from a separate account of the customer's at the bank, the disclosure may be mailed not later than the business day following the banking day of the request. 


</P>
<HD2>XII. Section 229.18 Additional Disclosure Requirements 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.18(a) Deposit Slips 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires banks to include a notice on all preprinted deposit slips. The deposit slip notice need only state, somewhere on the front of the deposit slip, that deposits may not be available for immediate withdrawal. The notice is required only on preprinted deposit slips—those printed with the customer's account number and name and furnished by the bank in response to a customer's order to the bank. A bank need not include the notice on deposit slips that are not preprinted and supplied to the customer—such as counter deposit slips—or on those special deposit slips provided to the customer under § 229.10(c). A bank is not responsible for ensuring that the notice appear on deposit slips that the customer does not obtain from or through the bank. This paragraph applies to preprinted deposit slips furnished to customers on or after September 1, 1988. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.18(b) Locations Where Employees Accept Consumer Deposits 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph describes the statutory requirement that a bank post in each location where its employees accept consumer deposits a notice of its availability policy pertaining to consumer accounts. The notice that is required must specifically state the availability periods for the various deposits that may be made to consumer accounts. The notice need not be posted at each teller window, but the notice must be posted in a place where consumers seeking to make deposits are likely to see it before making their deposits. For example, the notice might be posted at the point where the line forms for teller service in the lobby. The notice is not required at any drive-through teller windows nor is it required at night depository locations, or at locations where consumer deposits are not accepted. A bank that acts as a contractual branch at a particular location must include the availability policy that applies to its own customers but need not include the policy that applies to the customers of the bank for which it is acting as a contractual branch.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.18(c) Automated Teller Machines 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the required notices for ATMs. Paragraph (c)(1) provides that the depositary bank is responsible for posting a notice on all ATMs at which deposits can be made to accounts at the depositary bank. The depositary bank may arrange for a third party, such as the owner or operator of the ATM, to post the notice and indemnify the depositary bank from liability if the depositary bank is liable under § 229.21 for the owner or operator failing to provide the required notice. 
</P>
<P>2. The notice may be posted on a sign, shown on the screen, or included on deposit envelopes provided at the ATM. This disclosure must be given before the customer has made the deposit. Therefore, a notice provided on the customer's deposit receipt or appearing on the ATM's screen after the customer has made the deposit would not satisfy this requirement. 
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (c)(2) requires a depositary bank that operates an off-premise ATM from which deposits are removed not more than two times a week to make a disclosure of this fact on the off-premise ATM. The notice must disclose to the customer the days on which deposits made at the ATM will be considered received. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.18(d) Upon Request 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires banks to provide written notice of their specific availability policy to any person upon that person's oral or written request. The notice must be sent within a reasonable period of time following receipt of the request. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.18(e) Changes in Policy 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires banks to send notices to their customers when the banks change their availability policies with regard to consumer accounts. A notice may be given in any form as long as it is clear and conspicuous. If the bank gives notice of a change by sending the customer a complete new availability disclosure, the bank must direct the customer to the changed terms in the disclosure by use of a letter or insert, or by highlighting the changed terms in the disclosure. 
</P>
<P>2. Generally, a bank must send a notice at least 30 calendar days before implementing any change in its availability policy. If the change results in faster availability of deposits—for example, if the bank changes its availability for nonlocal checks from the fifth business day after deposit to the fourth business day after deposit—the bank need not send advance notice. The bank must, however, send notice of the change no later than 30 calendar days after the change is implemented. A bank is not required to give a notice when there is a change in appendix B (reduction of schedules for certain nonlocal checks). 
</P>
<P>3. A bank that has provided its customers with a list of ATMs under § 229.16(b)(5) shall provide its customers with an updated list of ATMs once a year if there are changes in the list of ATMs previously disclosed to the customers. 


</P>
<HD2>XIII. Section 229.19 Miscellaneous 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.19(a) When Funds Are Considered Deposited 
</HD3>
<P>1. The time funds must be made available for withdrawal under this subpart is determined by the day the deposit is made. This paragraph provides rules to determine the day funds are considered deposited in various circumstances. 
</P>
<P>2. Staffed facilities and ATMs. Funds received at a staffed teller station or ATM are considered deposited when received by the teller or placed in the ATM. Funds received at a contractual branch are considered deposited when received by a teller at the contractual branch or deposited into a proprietary ATM of the contractual branch. (See also, Commentary to § 229.10(c) on deposits made to an employee of the depositary bank.) Funds deposited to a deposit box in a bank lobby that is accessible to customers only during regular business hours generally are considered deposited when placed in the lobby box; a bank may, however, treat deposits to lobby boxes the same as deposits to night depositories (as provided in § 229.19(a)(3)), provided a notice appears on the lobby box informing the customer when such funds will be considered deposited. 
</P>
<P>3. Mail. Funds mailed to the depositary bank are considered deposited on the banking day they are received by the depositary bank. The funds are received by the depositary bank at the time the mail is delivered to the bank, even if it is initially delivered to a mail room, rather than the check processing area. 
</P>
<P>4. Other facilities. 
</P>
<P>a. In addition to deposits at staffed facilities, at ATMs, and by mail, funds may be deposited at a facility such as a night depository or a lock box. A night depository is a receptacle for receipt of deposits, typically used by corporate depositors when the branch is closed. Funds deposited at a night depository are considered deposited on the banking day the deposit is removed, and the contents of the deposit are accessible to the depositary bank for processing. For example, some businesses deposit their funds in a locked bag at the night depository late in the evening, and return to the bank the following day to open the bag. Other depositors may have an agreement with their bank that the deposit bag must be opened under the dual control of the bank and the depositor. In these cases, the funds are considered deposited when the customer returns to the bank and opens the deposit bag. 
</P>
<P>b. A lock box is a post office box used by a corporation for the collection of bill payments or other check receipts. The depositary bank generally assumes the responsibility for collecting the mail from the lock box, processing the checks, and crediting the corporation for the amount of the deposit. Funds deposited through a lock box arrangement are considered deposited on the day the deposit is removed from the lock box and are accessible to the depositary bank for processing. 
</P>
<P>5. Certain off-premise ATMs. A special provision is made for certain off-premise ATMs that are not serviced daily. Funds deposited at such an ATM are considered deposited on the day they are removed from the ATM, if the ATM is not serviced more than two times each week. This provision is intended to address the practices of some banks of servicing certain remote ATMs infrequently. If a depositary bank applies this provision with respect to an ATM, a notice must be posted at the ATM informing depositors that funds deposited at the ATM may not be considered deposited until a future day, in accordance with § 229.18. 
</P>
<P>6. Banking day of deposit. 
</P>
<P>a. This paragraph also provides that a deposit received on a day that the depositary bank is closed, or after the bank's cut-off hour, may be considered made on the next banking day. Generally, for purposes of the availability schedules of this subpart, a bank may establish a cut-off hour of 2 p.m. or later for receipt of deposits at its head office or branch offices. For receipt of deposits at ATMs, contractual branches, or other off-premise facilities, such as night depositories or lock boxes, the depositary bank may establish a cut-off hour of 12:00 noon or later (either local time of the branch or other location of the depositary bank at which the account is maintained or local time of the ATM, contractual branch, or other off-premise facility). The depositary bank must use the same timing method for establishing the cut-off hour for all ATMs, contractual branches, and other off-premise facilities used by its customers. The choice of cut-off hour must be reflected in the bank's internal procedures, and the bank must inform its customers of the cut-off hour upon request. This earlier cut-off for ATM, contractual branch, or other off-premise deposits is intended to provide greater flexibility in the servicing of these facilities. 
</P>
<P>b. Different cut-off hours may be established for different types of deposits. For example, a bank may establish a 2 p.m. cut-off for the receipt of check deposits, but a later cut-off for the receipt of wire transfers. Different cut-off hours also may be established for deposits received at different locations. For example, a different cut-off may be established for ATM deposits than for over-the-counter deposits, or for different teller stations at the same branch. With the exception of the 12 noon cut-off for deposits at ATMs and off-premise facilities, no cut-off hour for receipt of deposits for purposes of this subpart can be established earlier than 2 p.m. 
</P>
<P>c. A bank is not required to remain open until 2 p.m. If a bank closes before 2 p.m., deposits received after the closing may be considered deposited on the next banking day. Further, as § 229.2(f) defines the term banking day as the portion of a business day on which a bank is open to the public for substantially all of its banking functions, a day, or a portion of a day, is not necessarily a banking day merely because the bank is open for only limited functions, such as keeping drive-in or walk-up teller windows open, when the rest of the bank is closed to the public. For example, a banking office that usually provides a full range of banking services may close at 12 noon but leave a drive-in teller window open for the limited purpose of receiving deposits and making cash withdrawals. Under those circumstances, the bank is considered closed and may consider deposits received after 12 noon as having been received on the next banking day. The fact that a bank may reopen for substantially all of its banking functions after 2 p.m., or that it continues its back office operations throughout the day, would not affect this result. A bank may not, however, close individual teller stations and reopen them for next-day's business before 2 p.m. during a banking day. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.19(b) Availability at Start of Business Day 
</HD3>
<P>1. If funds must be made available for withdrawal on a business day, the funds must be available for withdrawal by the later of 9 a.m. or the time the depositary bank's teller facilities, including ATMs, are available for customer account withdrawals, except under the special rule for cash withdrawals set forth in § 229.12(d). Thus, if a bank has no ATMs and its branch facilities are available for customer transactions beginning at 10 a.m., funds must be available for customer withdrawal beginning at 10 a.m. If the bank has ATMs that are available 24 hours a day, rather than establishing 12:01 a.m. as the start of the business day, this paragraph sets 9 a.m. as the start of the day with respect to ATM withdrawals. The Board believes that this rule provides banks with sufficient time to update their accounting systems to reflect the available funds in customer accounts for that day. 
</P>
<P>2. The start of business is determined by the local time of the branch or other location of the depositary bank at which the account is maintained. For example, if funds in a customer's account at a west coast bank are first made available for withdrawal at the start of business on a given day, and the customer attempts to withdraw the funds at an east coast ATM, the depositary bank is not required to make the funds available until 9 a.m. west coast time (12 noon east coast time). 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.19(c) Effect on Policies of Depositary Bank 
</HD3>
<P>1. This subpart establishes the maximum hold that may be placed on customer deposits. A depositary bank may provide availability to its customers in a shorter time than prescribed in this subpart. A depositary bank also may adopt different funds availability policies for different segments of its customer base, as long as each policy meets the schedules in the regulation. For example, a bank may differentiate between its corporate and consumer customers, or may adopt different policies for its consumer customers based on whether a customer has an overdraft line of credit associated with the account. 
</P>
<P>2. This regulation does not affect a depositary bank's right to accept or reject a check for deposit, to charge back the customer's account based on a returned check or notice of nonpayment, or to claim a refund for any credit provided to the customer. For example, even if a check is returned or a notice of nonpayment is received after the time by which funds must be made available for withdrawal in accordance with this regulation, the depositary bank may charge back the customer's account for the full amount of the check. (See § 229.33(d) and Commentary.) 
</P>
<P>3. Nothing in the regulation requires a depositary bank to have facilities open for customers to make withdrawals at specified times or on specified days. For example, even though the special cash withdrawal rule set forth in § 229.12(d) states that a bank must make up to $550 available for cash withdrawals no later than 5 p.m. on specific business days, if a bank does not participate in an ATM system and does not have any teller windows open at or after 5 p.m., the bank need not join an ATM system or keep offices open. In this case, the bank complies with this rule if the funds that are required to be available for cash withdrawal at 5 p.m. on a particular day are available for withdrawal at the start of business on the following day. Similarly, if a depositary bank is closed for customer transactions, including ATMs, on a day funds must be made available for withdrawal, the regulation does not require the bank to open. 
</P>
<P>4. The special cash withdrawal rule in the EFA Act recognizes that the $550 that must be made available for cash withdrawal by 5 p.m. on the day specified in the schedule may exceed a bank's daily ATM cash withdrawal limit and explicitly provides that the EFA Act does not supersede a bank's policy in this regard. As a result, if a bank has a policy of limiting cash withdrawals from automated teller machines to $250 per day, the regulation would not require that the bank dispense $550 of the proceeds of the customer's deposit that must be made available for cash withdrawal on that day. 
</P>
<P>5. Even though the EFA Act clearly provides that the bank's ATM withdrawal limit is not superseded by the federal availability rules on the day funds must first be made available, the EFA Act does not specifically permit banks to limit cash withdrawals at ATMs on subsequent days when the entire amount of the deposit must be made available for withdrawal. The Board believes that the rationale behind the EFA Act's provision that a bank's ATM withdrawal limit is not superseded by the requirement that funds be made available for cash withdrawal applies on subsequent days. Nothing in the regulation prohibits a depositary bank from establishing ATM cash withdrawal limits that vary among customers of the bank, as long as the limit is not dependent on the length of time funds have been in the customer's account (provided that the permissible hold has expired). 
</P>
<P>6. Some small banks, particularly credit unions, due to lack of secure facilities, keep no cash on their premises and hence offer no cash withdrawal capability to their customers. Other banks limit the amount of cash on their premises due to bonding requirements or cost factors, and consequently reserve the right to limit the amount of cash each customer can withdraw over-the-counter on a given day. For example, some banks require advance notice for large cash withdrawals in order to limit the amount of cash needed to be maintained on hand at any time. 
</P>
<P>7. Nothing in the regulation is intended to prohibit a bank from limiting the amount of cash that may be withdrawn at a staffed teller station if the bank has a policy limiting the amount of cash that may be withdrawn, and if that policy is applied equally to all customers of the bank, is based on security, operating, or bonding requirements, and is not dependent on the length of time the funds have been in the customer's account (as long as the permissible hold has expired). The regulation, however, does not authorize such policies if they are otherwise prohibited by statutory, regulatory, or common law. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.19(d) Use of Calculated Availability 
</HD3>
<P>1. A depositary bank may provide availability to its nonconsumer accounts on a calculated availability basis. Under calculated availability, a specified percentage of funds from check deposits may be made available to the customer on the next business day, with the remaining percentage deferred until subsequent days. The determination of the percentage of deposited funds that will be made available each day is based on the customer's typical deposit mix as determined by a sample of the customer's deposits. Use of calculated availability is permitted only if, on average, the availability terms that result from the sample are equivalent to or more prompt than the requirements of this subpart. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.19(e) Holds on Other Funds 
</HD3>
<P>1. Section 607(d) of the EFA Act (12 U.S.C. 4006(d)) provides that once funds are available for withdrawal under the EFA Act, such funds shall not be frozen solely due to the subsequent deposit of additional checks that are not yet available for withdrawal. This provision of the EFA Act is designed to prevent evasion of the EFA Act's availability requirements. 
</P>
<P>2. This paragraph clarifies that if a customer deposits a check in an account (as defined in § 229.2(a)), the bank may not place a hold on any of the customer's funds so that the funds that are held exceed the amount of the check deposited or the total amount of funds held are not made available for withdrawal within the times required in this subpart. For example, if a bank places a hold on funds in a customer's non transaction account, rather than a transaction account, for deposits made to the customer's transaction account, the bank may place such a hold only to the extent that the funds held do not exceed the amount of the deposit and the length of the hold does not exceed the time periods permitted by this regulation. 
</P>
<P>3. These restrictions also apply to holds placed on funds in a customer's account (as defined in § 229.2(a)) if a customer cashes a check at a bank (other than a check drawn on that bank) over the counter. The regulation does not prohibit holds that may be placed on other funds of the customer for checks cashed over the counter, to the extent that the transaction does not involve a deposit to an account. A bank may not, however, place a hold on any account when an “on us” check is cashed over the counter. “On us” checks are considered finally paid when cashed (see U.C.C. 4-215(a)(1)). When a customer cashes a check over the counter and the bank places a hold on an account of the customer, the bank must give whatever notice would have been required under §§ 229.13 or 229.16 had the check been deposited in the account. 
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.19(f) Employee Training and Compliance 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act requires banks to take such actions as may be necessary to inform fully each employee that performs duties subject to the EFA Act of the requirements of the EFA Act, and to establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor employee compliance with such requirements. 
</P>
<P>2. This paragraph requires a bank to establish procedures to ensure compliance with these requirements and provide these procedures to the employees responsible for carrying them out. 
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.19(g) Effect of Merger Transaction 
</HD3>
<P>1. After banks merge, there is often a period of adjustment before their operations are consolidated. This paragraph accommodates this adjustment period by allowing merged banks to be treated as separate banks for purposes of this subpart for a period of up to one year after consummation of the merger transaction, except that a customer of any bank that is a party to the transaction that has an established account with that bank may not be treated as a new account holder for any other party to the transaction for purposes of the new account exception of § 229.13(a), and a deposit in any branch of the merged bank is considered deposited in the bank for purposes of the availability schedules in accordance with § 229.19(a). 
</P>
<P>2. This rule affects the status of the combined entity in several areas. For example, this rule would affect when an ATM is a proprietary ATM (§ 229.2(aa) and § 229.12(b)) and when a check is considered drawn on a branch of the depositary bank (§ 229.10(c)(1)(vi)). 
</P>
<P>3. Merger transaction is defined in § 229.2(t). 


</P>
<HD2>XIV. Section 229.20 Relation to State Law 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.20(a) In General 
</HD3>
<P>1. Several states have enacted laws that govern when banks in those states must make funds available to their customers. The EFA Act provides that any state law in effect on September 1, 1989, that provides that funds be made available in a shorter period of time than provided in this regulation, will supersede the time periods in the EFA Act and the regulation. The Conference Report on the EFA Act clarifies this provision by stating that any state law enacted on or before September 1, 1989, may supersede federal law to the extent that the law relates to the time funds must be made available for withdrawal. H.R. Rep. No. 261, 100th Cong. 1st Sess. at 182 (1987). 
</P>
<P>2. Thus, if a state had wished to adopt a law governing funds availability, it had to have made that law effective on or before September 1, 1989. Laws adopted after that date do not supersede federal law, even if they provide for shorter availability periods than are provided under federal law. If a state that had a law governing funds availability in effect before September 1, 1989, amended its law after that date, the amendment would not supersede federal law, but an amendment deleting a state requirement would be effective. 
</P>
<P>3. If a state provides for a shorter hold for a certain category of checks than is provided for under federal law, that state requirement will supersede the federal provision. For example, most state laws base some hold periods on whether the check being deposited is drawn on an in-state or out-of-state bank. If a state contains more than one check processing region, the state's hold period for in-state checks may be shorter than the federal maximum hold period for nonlocal checks. Thus, the state schedule would supersede the federal schedule to the extent that it applies to in-state, nonlocal checks. 
</P>
<P>4. The EFA Act also provides that any state law that provides for availability in a shorter period of time than required by federal law is applicable to all federally insured institutions in that state, including federally chartered institutions. If a state law provides shorter availability only for deposits in accounts in certain categories of banks, such as commercial banks, the superseding state law continues to apply only to those categories of banks, rather than to all federally insured banks in the state. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.20(b) Preemption of Inconsistent Law 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph reflects the statutory provision that other provisions of state law that are inconsistent with federal law are preempted. Preemption does not require a determination by the Board to be effective. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.20(c) Standards for Preemption 
</HD3>
<P>1. This section describes the standards the Board uses in making determinations on whether federal law will preempt state laws governing funds availability. A provision of state law is considered inconsistent with federal law if it permits a depositary bank to make funds available to a customer in a longer period of time than the maximum period permitted by the EFA Act and this regulation. For example, a state law that permits a hold of four business days or longer for local checks permits a hold that is longer than that permitted under the EFA Act and this regulation, and therefore is inconsistent and preempted. State availability schedules that provide for availability in a shorter period of time than required under Regulation CC supersede the federal schedule. 




</P>
<P>2. Under a state law, some categories of deposits could be available for withdrawal sooner or later than the time required by this subpart, depending on the composition of the deposit. For example, the EFA Act and this regulation (§ 229.10(c)(1)(vii)) require next-day availability for the first $275 of the aggregate deposit of local or nonlocal checks on any day, and a state law could require next-day availability for any check of $200 or less that is deposited. Under the EFA Act and this regulation, if either one $300 check or three $100 checks are deposited on a given day, $275 must be made available for withdrawal on the next business day, and $25 must be made available in accordance with the local or nonlocal schedule. Under the state law, however, the two deposits would be subject to different availability rules. In the first case, none of the proceeds of the deposit would be subject to next-day availability; in the second case, the entire proceeds of the deposit would be subject to next-day availability. In this example, because the state law would, in some situations, permit a hold longer than the maximum permitted by the EFA Act, this provision of state law is inconsistent and preempted in its entirety.




</P>
<P>3. In addition to the differences between state and federal availability schedules, a number of state laws contain exceptions to the state availability schedules that are different from those provided under the EFA Act and this regulation. The state exceptions continue to apply only in those cases where the state schedule is shorter than or equal to the federal schedule, and then only up to the limit permitted by the Regulation CC schedule. Where a deposit is subject to a state exception under a state schedule that is not preempted by Regulation CC and is also subject to a federal exception, the hold on the deposit cannot exceed the hold permissible under the federal exception in accordance with Regulation CC. In such cases, only one exception notice is required, in accordance with § 229.13(g). This notice need only include the applicable federal exception as the reason the exception was invoked. For those categories of checks for which the state schedule is preempted by the federal schedule, only the federal exceptions may be used. 
</P>
<P>4. State laws that provide maximum availability periods for categories of deposits that are not covered by the EFA Act would not be preempted. Thus, state funds availability laws that apply to funds in time and savings deposits are not affected by the EFA Act or this regulation. In addition, the availability schedules of several states apply to “items” deposited to an account. The term items may encompass deposits, such as nonnegotiable instruments, that are not subject to the Regulation CC availability schedules. Deposits that are not covered by Regulation CC continue to be subject to the state availability schedules. State laws that provide maximum availability periods for categories of institutions that are not covered by the EFA Act also would not be preempted. For example, a state law that governs money market mutual funds would not be affected by the EFA Act or this regulation. 
</P>
<P>5. Generally, state rules governing the disclosure or notice of availability policies applicable to accounts also are preempted, if they are different from the federal rules. Nevertheless, a state law requiring disclosure of funds availability policies that apply to deposits other than “accounts,” such as savings or time deposits, are not inconsistent with the EFA Act and this subpart. Banks in these states would have to follow the state disclosure rules for these deposits. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.20(d) Preemption Determinations 
</HD3>
<P>1. The Board may issue preemption determinations upon the request of an interested party in a state. The determinations will relate only to the provisions of Subparts A and B; generally the Board will not issue individual preemption determinations regarding the relation of state U.C.C. provisions to the requirements of Subpart C. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.20(e) Procedures for Preemption Determinations 
</HD3>
<P>1. This provision sets forth the information that must be included in a request by an interested party for a preemption determination by the Board. 


</P>
<HD2>XV. Section 229.21 Civil Liability 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.21(a) Civil Liability 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the statutory penalties for failure to comply with the requirements of this subpart. These penalties apply to provisions of state law that supersede provisions of this regulation, such as requirements that funds deposited in accounts at banks be made available more promptly than required by this regulation, but they do not apply to other provisions of state law. (See Commentary to § 229.20.) 
</P>
<P>2. Dollar Amount Adjustment—See section 229.11 for the rules regarding adjustments for inflation every five years to the dollar amounts in this section.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.21(b) Class Action Awards 
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the provision in the EFA Act concerning the factors that should be considered by the court in establishing the amount of a class action award. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.21(c) Bona Fide Errors 
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank is shielded from liability under this section for a violation of a requirement of this subpart if it can demonstrate, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the violation resulted from a bona fide error and that it maintains procedures designed to avoid such errors. For example, a bank may make a bona fide error if it fails to give next-day availability on a check drawn on the Treasury because the bank's computer system malfunctions in a way that prevents the bank from updating its customer's account; or if it fails to identify whether a payable-through check is a local or nonlocal check despite procedures designed to make this determination accurately. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.21(d) Jurisdiction 
</HD3>
<P>1. The EFA Act confers subject matter jurisdiction on courts of competent jurisdiction and provides a time limit for civil actions for violations of this subpart. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.21(e) Reliance on Board Rulings 
</HD3>
<P>1. This provision shields banks from civil liability if they act in good faith in reliance on any rule, regulation, model form, notice, or clause (if the disclosure actually corresponds to the bank's availability policy), or interpretation of the Board, even if it were subsequently determined to be invalid. Banks may rely on this Commentary, which is issued as an official Board interpretation, as well as on the regulation itself. 
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.21(f) Exclusions 
</HD3>
<P>1. This provision clarifies that liability under this section does not apply to violations of the requirements of Subpart C of this regulation, or to actions for wrongful dishonor of a check by a paying bank's customer. 
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.21(g) Record Retention 
</HD3>
<P>1. Banks must keep records to show compliance with the requirements of this subpart for at least two years. This record retention period is extended in the case of civil actions and enforcement proceedings. Generally, a bank is not required to retain records showing that it actually has given disclosures or notices required by this subpart to each customer, but it must retain evidence demonstrating that its procedures reasonably ensure the customers' receipt of the required disclosures and notices. A bank must, however, retain a copy of each notice provided pursuant to its use of the reasonable cause exception under § 229.13(g) as well as a brief description of the facts giving rise to the availability of that exception. 


</P>
<HD2>XVI. Section 229.30 Electronic Checks and Electronic Information
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.30(a) Checks Under This Subpart
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank may agree to receive an electronic check or electronic returned check from another bank instead of a paper check or returned check. (See § 229.2(bbb) and commentary thereto). Section 229.30(a) does not give a bank the right to send an electronic check or electronic returned check absent an agreement to do so with the receiving bank.
</P>
<P>2. Electronic checks and electronic returned checks are subject to subpart C of this part as if they were checks or returned checks, unless otherwise provided in subpart C. For example, § 229.31(c), which requires a paying bank to provide a notice of nonpayment if the paying bank determines not to pay a check in the amount of $5,000 or more, also applies when a paying bank determines not to pay an electronic check in the amount of $5,000 or more. A depositary bank's obligation to pay for a returned check (§ 229.33(e)) also applies with respect to an electronic returned check.
</P>
<P>Additionally, §§ 229.33(b) and 229.36(a) specify that the parties' agreements govern the receipt of electronic returned checks and electronic written notices of nonpayment, and electronic checks, respectively. Section 229.34(a) sets forth warranties that are given only with respect to electronic checks and electronic returned checks and section 229.34(f) sets forth an indemnity given only with respect to remote deposit capture. Warranties that apply to paper checks or paper returned checks also apply to electronic checks and electronic returned checks, including § 229.34(b) (transfer and presentment warranties with respect to remotely created checks), § 229.34(c) (settlement amount, encoding, and offset warranties), § 229.34(d) (returned check warranties), and § 229.34(e) (notice of nonpayment warranties). The parties may, by agreement, vary the effect of the provisions in subpart C of this part as they apply to electronic checks and electronic returned checks, except that as set forth in § 229.37, no agreement can disclaim the responsibility of a bank for its own lack of good faith or failure to exercise ordinary care. (See § 229.37 and commentary thereto).
</P>
<P>3. Certain provisions of subpart C relate solely to paper checks or paper returned checks, as specified, such as § 229.33(c) (acceptance of paper returned checks) and § 229.36(d) (same-day settlement).
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.30(b) Writings
</HD3>
<P>1. Provisions in subpart C of this part require that a paying bank or returning bank send information in writing. For example, § 229.31(f) requires that a notice in lieu be either a copy of the check or a written notice of nonpayment. A bank may send information required to be in writing in electronic form if the bank sending the information has an agreement with the bank receiving the information to do so.


</P>
<HD2>XVII. Section 229.31 Paying Bank's Responsibility for Return of Checks and Notices of Nonpayment
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.31(a) Return of Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. Routing of returned checks.
</P>
<P>a. This subsection is subject to the requirements of expeditious return provided in § 229.31(b).
</P>
<P>b. The paying bank acts, in effect, as an agent or subagent of the depositary bank in selecting a means of return. Under § 229.31(a), a paying bank is authorized to route the returned check in a variety of ways:
</P>
<P>i. It may send the returned check directly to the depositary bank by sending an electronic returned check directly to the depositary bank if the paying bank has an agreement with the depositary bank to do so, or by using a courier or other means of delivery, bypassing returning banks; or
</P>
<P>ii. It may send the returned check or electronic returned check to any returning bank agreeing to handle the returned check or electronic returned check, regardless of whether or not the returning bank handled the check for forward collection.
</P>
<P>c. If the paying bank elects to return the check directly to the depositary bank, it is not necessarily required to return the check to the branch of first deposit. A paper check may be returned to the depositary bank at any physical location permitted under § 229.33(c).
</P>
<P>2. a. In some cases, a paying bank will be unable to identify the depositary bank through the use of ordinary care and good faith. These cases are now rare as depositary banks generally apply their indorsements electronically. A paying bank, for example, would be unable to identify the depositary bank if the depositary bank's indorsement is neither in an addenda record nor within the image of the check that was presented electronically. A paying bank, however, would not be “unable” to identify the depositary bank merely because the depositary bank's indorsement is available within the image rather than attached as an addenda record.
</P>
<P>b. In cases where the paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank, the paying bank may send the returned check to a returning bank that agrees to handle the returned check. The returning bank may be better able to identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>c. In the alternative, the paying bank may send the check back up the path used for forward collection of the check. The presenting bank and prior collecting banks normally will be able to trace the collection path of the check through the use of their internal records in conjunction with the indorsements on the returned check. In these limited cases, the presenting bank or a prior collecting bank is required to accept the returned check and send it to another prior collecting bank in the path used for forward collection or to the depositary bank. If the paying bank has an agreement to send electronic returned checks to a bank that handled the check for forward collection, the paying bank may send the electronic returned check to that bank.
</P>
<P>d. A paying bank returning a check to a prior collecting bank because it is unable to identify the depositary bank must advise that bank that it is unable to identify the depositary bank. This advice must be conspicuous, such as a stamp on each check for which the depositary bank is unknown if such checks are commingled with other returned checks, or, if such checks are sent in a separate cash letter, by one notice on the cash letter. In the case of an electronic returned check, the advice requirement may be satisfied as agreed to by the parties. The advice will warn the bank that this check will require special research and handling in accordance with § 229.32(a)(2). The returned check may not be prepared as a qualified return.
</P>
<P>e. A paying bank also may send a check to a prior collecting bank to make a claim against that bank under § 229.35(b) where the depositary bank is insolvent or in other cases as provided in § 229.35(b). Finally, a paying bank may make a claim against a prior collecting bank based on a breach of warranty under UCC 4-208.
</P>
<P>3. Midnight deadline. Except for the extension permitted by § 229.31(g), discussed below, this section does not relieve a paying bank from the requirement for timely return (<I>i.e.,</I> midnight deadline) under UCC 4-301 and 4-302, which continue to apply. Under UCC 4-302, a paying bank is “accountable” for the amount of a demand item, other than a documentary draft, if it does not pay or return the item or send notice of dishonor by its midnight deadline. Under UCC 3-418(c) and 4-215(a), late return constitutes payment and would be final in favor of a holder in due course or a person who has in good faith changed his position in reliance on the payment. Thus, the UCC midnight deadline gives the paying bank an incentive to make a prompt return.
</P>
<P>4. UCC provisions affected. This paragraph directly affects the following provisions of the UCC, and may affect other sections or provisions:
</P>
<P>a. Section 4-301(d), in that instead of returning a check through a clearinghouse or to the presenting bank, a paying bank may send a returned check to the depositary bank or to a returning bank.
</P>
<P>b. Section 4-301(a), in that settlement for returned checks is made under § 229.32(e), not by revocation of settlement.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.31(b) Expeditious Return of Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. This section requires a paying bank (which, for purposes of subpart C, may include a payable-through and payable-at bank (see § 229.2(z)) that determines not to pay a check to return the check expeditiously. Section 229.31(d) sets forth exceptions to this general rule. If a paying bank is not subject to the requirement for expeditious return under § 229.31(b), the paying bank, nonetheless, must return the check within its deadlines under the UCC, Regulation J (12 CFR part 210) or §§ 229.36(d)(3) and (f)(4), as extended by § 229.31(g), for returning the item or sending notice.
</P>
<HD3>2. Two-Day Test
</HD3>
<P>a. A returned check, including the original check, substitute check, or electronic returned check, is returned expeditiously if a paying bank sends the returned check in a manner such that the returned check would normally be received by the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the second business day following the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank.
</P>
<P>b. A paying bank may satisfy its expeditious return requirement by returning either an electronic returned check or a paper check. For example, a paying bank could meet the expeditious return test by sending an electronic returned check directly to the depositary bank, if the paying bank has an agreement with the depositary bank to do so, such that it normally would reach the depositary bank by the specified deadline, or sending an electronic returned check to a returning bank, if the paying bank has an agreement with the returning bank to do so, within the returning bank's timeframe for delivering electronic returned checks to the depositary bank within the return deadline. A paying bank that sends a returned check in paper form would typically need a highly expeditious means of delivery to meet the expeditious return test.
</P>
<P>c. This test does not require actual receipt of the returned check by the depositary bank within the specified deadline. In determining whether an electronic returned check would normally reach a depositary bank within the specified deadline, a paying bank may rely on a returning bank's return deadlines and availability schedules for electronic returned checks and returned checks destined for the depositary bank. A paying bank may not rely on the availability schedules if the paying bank has reason to believe that these schedules do not reflect the actual time for return of an electronic returned check to the depositary bank to which the paying bank is returning the check. The paying bank is not responsible for unforeseeable delays in the return of the check, such as communication failures or transportation delays.
</P>
<P>d. Where the second business day following presentment of the check to the paying bank is not a banking day for the depositary bank, the depositary bank might not process checks on that day. Consequently, if the last day of the time limit is not a banking day for the depositary bank, the check may be delivered to the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the depositary bank's next banking day and the return will still be considered expeditious.
</P>
<P>e. Paying banks and returning banks are subject to the expeditious return rule, however, under section 229.33(a) a paying or returning bank may be liable to a depositary bank for failing to return a check in an expeditious manner only if the depositary bank has arrangements in place such that the paying or returning bank could return a returned check to the depositary bank electronically by commercially reasonable means. The depositary bank has the burden of proof for demonstrating that its arrangements are commercially reasonable.
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<HD2>3. Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. The paying bank and depositary bank have a bilateral agreement under which the depositary bank agrees to receive electronic returned checks directly from the paying bank. If a check is presented to a paying bank on Monday, the paying bank should send the returned check such that an electronic returned check normally would be received by the depositary bank by 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on Wednesday. This result is the same if, instead of a bilateral agreement, the paying bank and depositary bank are members of the same clearinghouse and agree to exchange electronic returned checks under clearinghouse rules.
</P>
<P>b. The depositary bank has an agreement to receive electronic returned checks from Returning Bank A but not from the paying bank. The paying bank, however, has an agreement with Returning Bank A to send electronic returned checks to Returning Bank A. If a check is presented to the paying bank on Monday, the paying bank should send the returned check such that the depositary bank normally would receive the returned check by 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on Wednesday. A paying bank may satisfy this requirement by sending either an electronic returned check or a paper returned check to Returning Bank A in a manner that permits Returning Bank A to send an electronic returned check to the depositary bank by 2 p.m. on Wednesday. The paying bank may also send a paper returned check to the depositary bank if a paper returned check would normally be received by the depositary bank by 2 p.m. on Wednesday.
</P>
<P>c. The paying bank has an agreement to send electronic returned checks to Returning Bank A. The depositary bank has an agreement to receive electronic returned checks from Returning Bank B. The paying bank does not have an agreement to send electronic returned checks to Returning Bank B. Returning Bank A, however, has an agreement to send electronic returned checks to Returning Bank B. If a check is presented to the paying bank on Monday, the paying bank should send the returned check such that the depositary bank normally would receive the returned check by 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on Wednesday.
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<HD3>C. 229.31(c) Notice of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<HD3>1. Requirement
</HD3>
<P>a. The paying bank must send a notice of nonpayment if it decides not to pay a check in the amount of $5,000 or more. Except in the case where the returned check or a notice in lieu of return serves as the notice of nonpayment, the notice of nonpayment carries no value, and the check or substitute check must be returned in addition to the notice of nonpayment. The paying bank must send the notice of nonpayment such that it would normally be received by the depositary bank not later than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on the second business day following presentment. In determining whether the notice requirement is satisfied, the paying bank may rely on the availability schedules of a third party that provides the notice on behalf of the paying bank as the time that the notice is expected to be delivered to the depositary bank, unless the paying bank has reason to know the availability schedules are inaccurate.
</P>
<P>b. A bank identified by routing number as the paying bank is considered the paying bank under this subpart and would be required to provide a notice of nonpayment even though that bank determined that the check was not drawn by a customer of that bank. (See commentary to the definition of paying bank in § 229.2(z)). A bank designated as a payable-through or payable-at bank and to which the check is sent for payment or collection is responsible for the notice of nonpayment requirement. The payable-through or payable-at bank may contract with the payor with respect to its liability in discharging these responsibilities.
</P>
<P>c. The paying bank should not send a notice of nonpayment until it has finally determined not to pay the check. Under § 229.34(e), by sending the notice the paying bank warrants that it has returned or will return the check. If a paying bank sends a notice and subsequently decides to pay the check, the paying bank may mitigate its liability on this warranty by notifying the depositary bank that the check has been paid.
</P>
<P>d. The return of the check itself may serve as the required notice of nonpayment. In some cases, the returned check may be received by the depositary bank within the time requirements of § 229.31(c)(1) and no notice other than the return of the check will be necessary. If the check is not received by the depositary bank within the time limits for notice, the return of the check may not satisfy the notice requirement. In determining whether the returned check will satisfy the notice requirement, the paying bank may rely on the availability schedules of returning banks as the time that the returned check is expected to be delivered to the depositary bank, unless the paying bank has reason to know the availability schedules are inaccurate.
</P>
<P>e. The requirement for notice does not affect the requirements for return of the check under the UCC (or § 229.31(b)). A paying bank is not responsible for failure to give notice of nonpayment to a party that has breached a presentment warranty under UCC 4-208, notwithstanding that the paying bank may have returned the check. (See UCC 4-208 and 4-302).
</P>
<HD3>2. Content of Notices
</HD3>
<P>a. This paragraph provides that, to the extent the information is available to the paying bank, the notice must at a minimum contain the information contained in the check's MICR line when the check was received by the paying bank. The MICR line information includes the paying bank's routing number, the account number of the paying bank's customer, the check number, and auxiliary on-us fields for corporate checks, and may include the amount of the check.
</P>
<P>b. Although it has no duty to do so, a paying bank that cannot identify the depositary bank from the check itself may wish to send the notice to the earliest collecting bank it can identify and indicate that the notice is not being sent to the depositary bank. The collecting bank may be able to identify the depositary bank and forward the notice, but is under no duty to do so. In addition, the collecting bank may actually be the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>c. A bank must identify an item of information if the bank is uncertain as to that item's accuracy. A bank may make this identification in accordance with general industry practices, or by other reasonable means. For example, where the paying bank receives a handwritten check with a payee name that the paying bank cannot decipher using a good faith effort, the paying bank could include a “?” symbol in the payee's name field of the notice to indicate its uncertainty as to that particular element.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.31(d) Exceptions to the Expeditious Return of Checks and Notice of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<HD3>1. Depositary Banks Not Subject to Subpart B of This Part
</HD3>
<P>a. Subpart B of this part applies only to “checks” deposited in transaction “accounts.” A depositary bank with only time or savings accounts or credit card accounts need not comply with the availability requirements of subpart B of Regulation CC. Thus, the expeditious return requirement of § 229.31(b) and the notice of nonpayment requirement of § 229.31(c) do not apply to checks being returned to banks that do not hold accounts. The paying bank's midnight deadline in UCC 4-301 and 4-302 and § 210.12 of Regulation J (12 CFR 210.12), and the extension in § 229.31(g), would continue to apply to these checks.
</P>
<P>b. The expeditious return requirement and the notice of nonpayment requirement apply only to “checks” deposited in a bank that is a “depository institution” under the EFA Act. Federal Reserve Banks, Federal Home Loan Banks, private bankers, and possibly certain industrial banks are not “depository institutions” within the meaning of the EFA Act and therefore are not subject to the expedited-availability requirements of subpart B of this regulation. Thus, the expeditious return and notice of nonpayment requirements of this section would not apply to a paying bank returning a check that was deposited in one of these banks.
</P>
<HD3>2. Unidentifiable Depositary Banks
</HD3>
<P>a. A paying bank that sends a check to a bank that handled the check for forward collection because the paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank is not subject to the requirement for expeditious return by the paying bank or to the requirement for notice of nonpayment. Although the lack of requirement for notice of nonpayment under this paragraph will create risks for the depositary bank, the inability to identify the depositary bank will generally be due to the depositary bank's, or a collecting bank's, failure to indorse as required by § 229.35(a). If the depositary bank failed to use the proper indorsement, it should bear the risks of less- than-expeditious return or not receiving notice of nonpayment in a timely manner. Similarly, where the inability to identify the depositary bank is due to indorsements or other information placed on the back of the check by the depositary bank's customer or other prior indorser, the depositary bank should bear the risk that it cannot charge a returned check back to that customer.
</P>
<P>b. This paragraph does not relieve a paying bank from the liability for the lack of expeditious return or not providing notice of nonpayment in cases where the paying bank is itself responsible for the inability to identify the depositary bank, such as when the paying bank's customer has used a check with printing or other material on the back in the area reserved for the depositary bank's indorsement, and the depositary bank placed its indorsement on the original check making the indorsement unreadable. (See § 229.38(c)).
</P>
<P>c. A paying bank's return of a check to an unidentifiable depositary bank is subject to its midnight deadline under UCC 4-301, Regulation J (if the check is returned through a Federal Reserve Bank), and the extension provided in § 229.31(g).
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.31(e) Identification of Returned Check
</HD3>
<P>1. The reason for the return must be clearly indicated. A check is identified as a returned check if the front of that check indicates the reason for return, even though it does not specifically state that the check is a returned check. A reason such as “Refer to Maker” may be appropriate in certain cases, such as when a drawer with a positive pay arrangement instructs the bank to return the check. By contrast, a reason such as “Refer to Maker” would be inappropriate in cases where a check is being returned due to the paying bank having already paid the item, where a check has been altered, or where a check is unauthorized. In such cases, the payee and not the drawer would generally have more information as to why the check is being returned.
</P>
<P>2. If the returned check is a substitute check or electronic returned check, the reason for return information must be included such that it is retained on any subsequent substitute check. For substitute checks, this requirement could be met by placing the information (1) in the location on the front of the substitute check that is specified by ANS X9.100-140 or (2) within the image of the original check that appears on the front of the substitute check so that the information is retained on any subsequent substitute check. For electronic returned checks, this requirement could be met by including the reason for return in accordance with ANS X9.100-187. If the paying bank places the returned check in a carrier envelope, the carrier envelope should indicate that it is a returned check but need not repeat the reason for return stated on the check if it in fact appears on the check.
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.31(f) Notice in Lieu of Return
</HD3>
<P>1. A notice in lieu of return may be used by a bank handling a returned check that has been lost or destroyed, including when the original returned check has been charged back as lost or destroyed as provided in § 229.35(b). Notice in lieu of return is permitted only when a bank does not have and cannot obtain possession of the check (or must retain possession of the check for protest) and does not have sufficient information to create a substitute check. For example, a bank that does not have the original check may have an image of both sides of the check, but the image may be insufficient or may not be in the proper format such that the bank cannot create a substitute check or provide required substitute check warranties. In that case, the check would be unavailable for return. A bank using a notice in lieu of return gives a warranty under § 229.34(d)(1)(iv) that the check, in any form, has not been and will not be returned.
</P>
<P>2. A notice in lieu of return must be in writing (either in paper form, or if agreed to by the parties electronic form), but not provided by telephone or other oral transmission. The requirement for a writing and the indication that the notice is a substitute for the returned check is necessary so that any returning bank and the depositary bank are informed that the notice carries value. A check that is lost or otherwise unavailable for return may be returned by sending a legible copy of both sides of the check or, if such a copy is not available to the paying bank, a written notice of nonpayment containing the information specified in § 229.31(c)(2). The copy or written notice must clearly indicate it is a notice in lieu of return. Notice by a legible facsimile of both sides of the check may satisfy the requirements for a notice in lieu of return.
</P>
<P>The paying bank may send an electronic image of both sides of the check as a notice in lieu of return only if it has an agreement to do so with the receiving bank. (See § 229.30(b)).
</P>
<P>3. The requirement of this paragraph supersedes the requirement of UCC 4-301(a) as to the form and information required of a notice of dishonor or nonpayment.
</P>
<P>4. The notice in lieu of return is subject to the provisions of this subpart relating to returned checks and is treated like a returned check for purposes of this subpart. Reference in the regulation and this commentary to a returned check includes a notice in lieu of return unless the context indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>5. If not all of the information required by § 229.31(c)(2) is available, the paying bank may make a claim against any prior bank handling the check as provided in § 229.35(b).
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.31(g) Extension of Deadline
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph permits extension of the deadlines in the UCC, Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), and § 229.36(d)(3) and (4) for returning a check for which the paying bank previously has settled (generally midnight of the banking day following the banking day on which the check is received by the paying bank) and for returning a check without settling for it (generally midnight of the banking day on which the check is received by the paying bank, or such other time provided by § 210.9 of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210), or § 229.36(d)(3) or (4)), in two circumstances:
</P>
<P>a. A paying bank may, by agreement, send an electronic returned check instead of a paper returned check or may have a courier that leaves after midnight (or after any other applicable deadline) to deliver its forward-collection checks. This paragraph removes the constraint of the midnight deadline for returned checks if the returned check reaches the depositary bank (or receiving bank, if the depositary bank is unidentifiable) on or before the depositary bank's (or receiving bank's) next banking day following the otherwise applicable deadline by the earlier of the close of that banking day or a cutoff hour of 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank or receiving bank) or later set by the depositary bank (or receiving bank) under UCC 4-108. This paragraph applies to the extension of all midnight deadlines except Saturday midnight deadlines (see the following paragraph).
</P>
<P>b. A paying bank may observe a banking day, as defined in the applicable UCC, on a Saturday, which is not a business day and therefore not a banking day under Regulation CC. In such a case, the UCC deadline for returning checks received and settled for on Friday, or for returning checks received on Saturday without settling for them, might require the bank to return the checks by midnight Saturday. However, the bank may not have its back-office operations staff available on Saturday to prepare and send the electronic returned checks, and the returning bank or depositary bank that would be receiving this electronic information may not have staff available to process it until Sunday night or Monday morning. This paragraph extends the midnight deadline if the returned checks reach the returning bank by a cut-off hour (usually on Sunday night or Monday morning) that permits processing during its next processing cycle or reach the depositary bank (or receiving bank) by the cut-off hour on its next banking day following the Saturday midnight deadline. This paragraph applies exclusively to the extension of Saturday midnight deadlines.
</P>
<P>2. The time limits that are extended in each case are the paying bank's midnight deadline for returning a check for which it has already settled and the paying bank's deadline for returning a check without settling for it in UCC 4-301 and 4-302, §§ 210.9 and 210.12 of Regulation J (12 CFR 210.9 and 210.12), and § 229.36(d)(3) and (4).
</P>
<P>3. If the paying bank has an agreement to do so with the receiving bank (such as through bilateral agreements, clearinghouse rules, or operating circular), the paying bank may satisfy its midnight or other return deadline by sending an electronic returned check prior to the expiration of the deadline. The time when the electronic returned check is considered to be received by the depositary bank is determined by the agreement. The paying bank satisfies its midnight or other return deadline by dispatching paper returned checks to another bank by courier, including a courier under contract with the paying bank, prior to expiration of the deadline.
</P>
<P>4. This paragraph directly affects UCC 4-301 and 4-302 and §§ 210.9 and 210.12 of Regulation J (12 CFR 210.9 and 210.12) to the extent that this paragraph applies by its terms, and may affect other provisions.
</P>
<HD3>H. 229.31(h) Payable Through and Payable at Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. For purposes of subpart C of this part, the regulation defines a payable-through or payable-at bank (which could be designated the collectible-through or collectible-at bank) as a paying bank. The requirements of subpart C are imposed on a payable-through or payable-at bank and are based on the time of receipt of the forward collection check by the payable-through or payable-at bank. This provision is intended to speed the return of checks and receipt of notices of nonpayment for checks that are payable through or at a bank to the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>2. A check sent for payment or collection to a payable-through or payable-at bank is not considered to be drawn on that bank for purposes of the midnight deadline provision of UCC 4-301.
</P>
<HD3>I. 229.31(i) Reliance on Routing Number
</HD3>
<P>1. Although § 229.35 requires that the depositary bank indorsement contain its nine-digit routing number, it is possible that a returned check will bear the routing number of the depositary bank in fractional, nine-digit, or other form. This paragraph permits a paying bank to rely on the routing number of the depositary bank as it appears on the check (in the depositary bank's indorsement) or in the electronic check sent pursuant to an agreement when the check, or electronic check, is received by the paying bank.
</P>
<P>2. If there are inconsistent routing numbers, the paying bank may rely on any routing number designating the depositary bank. The paying bank is not required to resolve the inconsistency prior to processing the check. The paying bank remains subject to the requirement to act in good faith and use ordinary care under § 229.38(a).


</P>
<HD2>XVIII. Section 229.32 Returning Bank's Responsibility for Returned Checks
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.32(a) Return of Checks
</HD3>
<HD3>1. Routing of Returned Check
</HD3>
<P>a. Under § 229.32(a), the returning bank is authorized to route the returned check in a variety of ways:
</P>
<P>i. It may send the returned check directly to the depositary bank by sending an electronic returned check directly to the depositary bank if the returning bank has an agreement with the depositary bank to do so, or by using a courier or other means of delivery; or
</P>
<P>ii. It may send the returned check or electronic returned check to any returning bank agreeing to handle the returned check regardless of whether or not the returning bank handled the check for forward collection.
</P>
<P>b. If the returning bank elects to send the returned check directly to the depositary bank, it is not required to send the check to the branch of the depositary bank that first handled the check. A paper returned check may be sent to the depositary bank at any physical location permitted under § 229.33(b).
</P>
<HD3>2. Unidentifiable Depositary Bank
</HD3>
<P>a. Returning banks agreeing to handle checks for return to depositary banks under § 229.32(a) are expected to be expert in identifying depositary bank indorsements. In the limited cases where the returning bank cannot identify the depositary bank, if the returning bank did not handle the check for forward collection, it may send the returned check to any collecting bank that handled the check for forward collection.
</P>
<P>b. If, on the other hand, the returning bank itself handled the check for forward collection, it may send the returned check to a collecting bank that was prior to it in the forward-collection process, which will be better able to identify the depositary bank. If there are no prior collecting banks, the returning bank must research the collection of the check and identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>c. The returning bank's return of a check under this paragraph is subject to the requirement to use ordinary care under UCC 4-202(b). (See definition of returning bank in § 229.2(cc)).
</P>
<P>d. As in the case of a paying bank returning a check under § 229.31(a)(2), a returning bank returning a check under § 229.32(a)(2) must advise the bank to which it sends the returned check that it is unable to identify the depositary bank. This advice must be conspicuous, such as a stamp on the check or a notice on the cash letter. The returned check may not be prepared as a qualified return. In the case of an electronic returned check, the advice requirement may be satisfied as agreed to by the parties.
</P>
<P>3. A returning bank agrees to handle a returned check if it—
</P>
<P>a. Publishes or distributes availability schedules for the return of returned checks and accepts the returned check for return;
</P>
<P>b. Handles a returned check for return that it did not handle for forward collection;
</P>
<P>c. Agrees with the paying bank or returning bank to handle electronic returned checks sent by that bank; or
</P>
<P>d. Otherwise agrees to handle a returned check.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Cut-off hours.</I> A returning bank may establish earlier cut-off hours for receipt of returned checks than for receipt of forward collection checks, but, unless the sending bank and returning bank agree otherwise, the cut-off hour for returned checks may not be earlier than 2 p.m. (local time of the returning bank). The returning bank also may set different sorting requirements for returned checks than those applicable to other checks. Thus, a returning bank may allow itself more processing time for returns than for forward collection checks.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Qualified returned checks.</I> A qualified returned check will be handled by subsequent returning banks more efficiently than a raw return. The qualified returned check must include the routing number of the depositary bank, the amount of the check, and a return identifier encoded on the check in magnetic ink. A check that is converted to a qualified returned check must be encoded in accordance with ANS X9.13 for original checks or ANS X9.100-140 for substitute checks. If the returning bank makes an encoding error in creating a qualified returned check, it may be liable under § 229.38 for losses caused by any negligence or under § 229.34(c)(3) for breach of an encoding warranty.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Responsibilities of returning bank.</I> In meeting the requirements of this section, the returning bank is responsible for its own actions, but not those of the paying bank, other returning banks, or the depositary bank. (See UCC 4-202(c) regarding the responsibility of collecting banks).
</P>
<P>7. <I>UCC sections affected.</I> Section 229.32 directly affects UCC Section 4-214(a) and may affect other sections or provisions. (See UCC 4-202(b)). Section 4-214(a) is affected in that settlement for returned checks is made under § 229.32(e) and not by charge-back of provisional credit.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.32(b) Expeditious Return of Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. The standards for return of checks established by this section are similar to those for paying banks in § 229.31(b). This section requires a returning bank to return a returned check expeditiously, subject to the exceptions set forth in § 229.32(c). In effect, the returning bank is an agent or subagent of the paying bank and a subagent of the depositary bank for the purposes of returning the check.
</P>
<P>2. A returning bank that agrees to handle a returned check (see commentary to § 229.32(a)) is subject to the expeditious return requirement with respect to the returned check except as provided in § 229.32(c)).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Two-day test.</I> As in the case of a paying bank, a returning bank's return of a returned check is expeditious if it is sent in a manner such that the depositary bank would normally receive the returned check by 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) of the second business day after the banking day on which the check was presented to the paying bank. Although a returning bank will not have firsthand knowledge of the day on which a check was presented to the paying bank, returning banks may, by agreement, allocate with paying banks liability for late return based on the delays caused by each. Paying banks and returning banks are subject to the expeditious return rule, however, under section 229.33(a) a paying or returning bank may be liable to a depositary bank for failing to return a check in an expeditious manner only if the depositary bank has arrangements in place such that the paying bank or returning bank could return a returned check to the depositary bank electronically by commercially reasonable means. The depositary bank has the burden of proof for demonstrating that its arrangements are commercially reasonable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Example.</I> Returning Bank A does not have an agreement to send electronic returned checks to the depositary bank but has an agreement to send electronic returned checks to Returning Bank B, which, in turn, has an agreement to send electronic returned checks to the depositary bank. If a check is presented to the paying bank on Monday, each returning bank would need to send the returned check in a manner such that the depositary bank normally would receive the returned check by 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank) on Wednesday.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.32(c) Exceptions to the Expeditious Return of Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the circumstances under which a returning bank is not required to return the check to the depositary bank in accordance with § 229.32(b).
</P>
<P>2. Depositary bank not subject to subpart B. This paragraph is similar to § 229.31(d)(1) and relieves a returning bank of its obligation to make expeditious return to a depositary bank that does not hold “accounts” under subpart B of this regulation or is not a “depository institution” within the meaning of the EFA Act. (See commentary to § 229.31(d)).
</P>
<P>3. Unidentifiable depositary bank. A returning bank is not subject to the expeditious return requirements of § 229.32(b) in handling a returned check for which the paying bank cannot identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>4. Misrouted returned check. A returning bank is not subject to the expeditious return requirements of § 229.32(b) in handling a misrouted returned check pursuant to § 229.33(f). A bank acting as a returning bank because it received a returned check on the basis that it was the depositary bank and sends the misrouted returned check to the correct depositary bank, directly or through subsequent returning banks, is similarly not subject to the expeditious return requirements of § 229.32(b). (See commentary to § 229.33(f)).
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.32(d) Notice in Lieu of Return
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph is similar to § 229.31(f) and authorizes a returning bank to originate a notice in lieu of return if the returned check is unavailable for return. Notice in lieu of return is permitted only when a bank does not have and cannot obtain possession of the check (or when the bank must retain possession of the check for protest) and does not have sufficient information to create a substitute check. (See commentary to § 229.31(f)).
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.32(e) Settlement
</HD3>
<P>1. Under the UCC, a paying bank settles with a presenting bank after the check is presented to the paying bank. The paying bank may recover the settlement when the paying bank returns the check to the presenting bank. Under this regulation, however, the paying bank may return the check directly to the depositary bank or through returning banks that did not handle the check for forward collection. On these more efficient return paths, the paying bank does not recover the settlement made to the presenting bank. Thus, this paragraph requires the returning bank to settle for a returned check (either with the paying bank or another returning bank) in the same way that it would settle for a similar check for forward collection. To achieve uniformity, this paragraph applies even if the returning bank handled the check for forward collection.
</P>
<P>2. Any returning bank, including one that handled the check for forward collection, may provide availability for returned checks pursuant to an availability schedule as it does for forward collection checks. These settlements by returning banks, as well as settlements between banks made during the forward collection of a check, are considered final when made subject to any deferment of availability. (See § 229.36(c) and commentary to § 229.35(b)).
</P>
<P>3. A returning bank may vary the settlement method it uses by agreement with paying banks or other returning banks. Special rules apply in the case of insolvency of banks. (See § 229.39). If payment cannot be obtained from a depositary bank or returning bank because of its insolvency or otherwise, recovery can be had by returning banks, paying banks, and collecting banks from prior banks on this basis of the liability of prior banks under § 229.35(b).
</P>
<P>4. This paragraph affects UCC 4-214(a) in that a paying bank or collecting bank does not ordinarily have a right to charge back against the bank from which it received the returned check, although it is entitled to settlement if it returns the returned check to that bank, and may affect other sections or provisions. Under § 229.36(c), a bank collecting a check remains liable to prior collecting banks and the depositary bank's customer under the UCC.
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.32(f) Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph permits any returning bank, even one that handled the check for forward collection, to impose a fee on the paying bank or other returning bank for its service in handling a returned check. Where a claim is made under § 229.35(b), the bank on which the claim is made is not authorized by this paragraph to impose a charge for taking up a check. This paragraph preempts state laws to the extent that these laws prevent returning banks from charging fees for handling returned checks.
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.32(g) Reliance on Routing Number
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph is similar to § 229.31(i) and permits a returning bank to rely on routing numbers appearing on a returned check such as routing numbers in the depositary bank's indorsement, or in the electronic returned check received by the returning bank pursuant to an agreement, or on qualified returned checks. (See commentary to § 229.31(i)).


</P>
<HD2>XIX. Section 229.33 Depositary Bank's Responsibility for Returned Checks and Notices of Nonpayment
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.33(a) Right To Assert Claim
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth the circumstances under which a paying bank or returning bank may be liable to a depositary bank for failing to return a check in an expeditious manner in accordance with §§ 229.31(b) and 229.32(b) respectively.
</P>
<P>2. This paragraph does not require a depositary bank to establish arrangements to accept returned checks electronically, either directly from the paying bank or indirectly from a returning bank. Most depositary banks, however, have arrangements in place to accept returned checks electronically. (See commentary to §§ 229.31(b) and 229.32(b) for examples of direct and indirect arrangements).
</P>
<P>3. The depositary bank has the burden of proof for demonstrating that its arrangements for accepting returned checks electronically are commercially reasonable. The standard allows for case-by-case flexibility and can change over time to reflect market practices. The standard is intended to prevent a depositary bank from establishing electronic return arrangements that are very limited in scope or that provide unreasonable barriers to return such that, in practice, the depositary bank would accept only a small proportion of its returns electronically.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.33(b) Acceptance of Electronic Returned Checks and Electronic Notices of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<P>1. A depositary bank may agree directly with a returning bank or a paying bank (or through clearinghouse rules) to accept electronic returned checks. Likewise, a depositary bank may agree directly with a paying bank (or through clearinghouse rules) to accept electronic written notices of nonpayment. (See §§ 229.2(ggg), 229.30(b), and 229.31(c) and commentary thereto). The depositary bank's acceptance of electronic returned checks and electronic written notices of nonpayment is governed by the depositary bank's agreement with the banks sending the electronic returned check or electronic written notice of nonpayment to the depositary bank (or through the applicable clearinghouse rules). The agreement normally would specify the electronic address or receipt point at which the depositary bank accepts returned checks and written notices of nonpayment electronically, as well as what constitutes receipt of the returned checks and written notices of nonpayment. The agreement also may specify whether electronic returned checks must be separated from electronic checks sent for forward collection.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.33(c) Acceptance of Paper Returned Checks and Paper Notices of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph states where the depositary bank is required to accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment during its banking day. (These locations differ from locations at which a depositary bank must accept oral notices or electronic notices. (See § 229.33(b) and (d) and commentary thereto). This paragraph is derived from UCC 3-111, which specifies that presentment for payment may be made at the place specified in the instrument or, if there is none, at the place of business of the party to pay. In the case of returned checks, the depositary bank does not print the check and can only specify the place of “payment” of the returned check in its indorsement.
</P>
<P>2. The paragraph specifies four locations at which the depositary bank must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment:
</P>
<P>a. The depositary bank must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment at any location at which it requests presentment of forward collection paper checks, such as a processing center. A depositary bank does not request presentment of forward collection checks at a branch of the bank merely by paying checks presented over the counter.
</P>
<P>b. i. If the depositary bank indorsement states the name and address of the depositary bank, it must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment at the branch, head office, or other location, such as a processing center, indicated by the address. If the address is too general to identify a particular location, then the depositary bank must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment at any branch or head office consistent with the address. If, for example, the address is “New York, New York,” each branch in New York City must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment. Accordingly, a depositary bank may limit the locations at which it must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment by specifying a branch or head office in its indorsement.
</P>
<P>ii. If no address appears in the depositary bank's indorsement, the depositary bank must accept paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment at any branch or head office associated with the depositary bank's routing number. The offices associated with the routing number of a bank are found in <I>American Bankers Association Key to Routing Numbers,</I> published by an agent of the American Bankers Association, which lists a city and state address for each routing number.
</P>
<P>iii. If no routing number or address appears in its indorsement, the depositary bank must accept a paper returned check at any branch or head office of the bank. Section 229.35 and applicable industry standards require that the indorsement contain a routing number, a name, and a location. Consequently paragraphs (c)(1)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section apply only where the depositary bank has failed to comply with the indorsement requirement.
</P>
<P>3. For ease of processing, a depositary bank may require that returning banks or paying banks returning checks to it separate returned checks from forward collection checks being presented.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.33(d) Acceptance Oral Notices of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<P>In the case of telephone notices, the depositary bank may not refuse to accept notices at the telephone numbers identified in this section, but may transfer calls or use a recording device.
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.33(e) Payment
</HD3>
<P>1. As discussed in the commentary to § 229.32(e), under this regulation a paying bank or returning bank does not obtain credit for a returned check by charge-back but by, in effect, “presenting” the returned check to the depositary bank. This paragraph imposes an obligation to “pay” a returned check that is similar to the obligation to pay a forward collection check by a paying bank, except that the depositary bank may not return a returned check for which it is the depositary bank. Also, certain means of payment, such as remittance drafts, may be used only by agreement.
</P>
<P>2. The depositary bank must pay for a returned check by the close of the banking day on which it received the returned check. The day on which a returned check is received is determined pursuant to UCC 4-108, which permits the bank to establish a cut-off hour, generally not earlier than 2 p.m. (local time of the depositary bank), and treat checks received after that hour as being received on the next banking day. If the depositary bank is unable to make payment to a returning bank or paying bank on the banking day that it receives the returned check, because the returning bank or paying bank is closed for a holiday or because the time when the depositary bank received the check is after the close of Fedwire, e.g., west coast banks with late cut-off hours, payment may be made on the next banking day of the bank receiving payment.
</P>
<P>3. Payment must be made so that the funds are available for use by the bank returning the check to the depositary bank on the day the check is received by the depositary bank. For example, a depositary bank meets this requirement if it sends a wire transfer to the returning bank or paying bank on the day it receives the returned check, even if the returning bank or paying bank has closed for the day. A wire transfer should indicate the purpose of the payment.
</P>
<P>4. The depositary bank may use a net settlement arrangement to settle for a returned check. Banks with net settlement agreements could net the appropriate credits and debits for returned checks with the accounting entries for forward collection checks if they so desired. If, for purposes of establishing additional controls or for other reasons, the banks involved desired a separate settlement for returned checks, a separate net settlement agreement could be established.
</P>
<P>5. The bank sending the returned check to the depositary bank may agree to accept payment at a later date if, for example, it does not believe that the amount of the returned check or checks warrants the costs of same-day payment. Thus, a returning bank or paying bank may agree to accept payment through an ACH credit or debit transfer that settles the day after the returned check is received instead of a wire transfer that settles on the same day.
</P>
<P>6. This paragraph and this subpart do not affect the depositary bank's right to recover a provisional settlement with its nonbank customer for a check that is returned. (See also §§ 229.19(c)(2)(ii), 229.33(h), and 229.35(b)).
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.33(f) Misrouted Returned Checks and Written Notices of Nonpayment
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph permits a bank receiving a check or written notice of nonpayment (either in paper form or electronic form) on the basis that it is the depositary bank to send the misrouted returned check or written notice of nonpayment to the correct depositary bank, if it can identify the correct depositary bank, either directly or through a returning bank agreeing to handle the check or written notice of nonpayment. When sending a returned check under this paragraph, the bank receiving the misrouted check is acting as a returning bank. Alternatively, the bank receiving the misrouted returned check or written notice of nonpayment must send the check or notice back to the bank from which it was received.
</P>
<P>2. In sending a misrouted returned check, the bank to which the returned check was misrouted (the incorrect depositary bank) could receive settlement from the bank to which it sends the misrouted check under § 229.33(f) (the correct depositary bank, a returning bank that agrees to handle it, or the bank from which the misrouted check was received). The correct depositary bank would be required to pay for the returned check under § 229.33(e), and any other bank to which the check is sent under this paragraph would be required to settle for the check as a returning bank under § 229.32(e). The bank to which the returned check was misrouted is required to act promptly, <I>i.e.,</I> within its midnight deadline. This paragraph does not affect a bank's duties under § 229.35(b).
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.33(g) Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph prohibits a depositary bank from charging the equivalent of a presentment fee for returned checks. A returning bank, however, may charge a fee for handling returned checks. If the returning bank receives a mixed cash letter of returned checks, which includes some checks for which the returning bank also is the depositary bank, the fee may be applied to all the returned checks in the cash letter. In the case of a sorted cash letter containing only returned checks for which the returning bank is the depositary bank, however, no fee may be charged.
</P>
<HD3>H. 229.33(h) Notification to Customer
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires a depositary bank to notify its customer of nonpayment upon receipt of a returned check or notice of nonpayment. Notice also must be given if a depositary bank receives a notice of recovery under § 229.35(b). A bank that chooses to provide the notice required by § 229.33(h) in writing may send the notice by email or facsimile if the bank sends the notice to the email address or facsimile number specified by the customer for that purpose. The notice to the customer required under this paragraph also may satisfy the notice requirement of § 229.13(g) if the depositary bank invokes the reasonable-cause exception of § 229.13(e) due to the receipt of a notice of nonpayment, provided the notice meets all the requirements of § 229.13(g).


</P>
<HD2>XX. Section 229.34 Warranties and Indemnities
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Introduction
</HD3>
<P>1. Unless otherwise specified, warranties that apply to checks or returned checks also apply to electronic checks and electronic returned checks, including under paragraphs (b) (transfer and presentment warranties with respect to remotely created checks), (c) (settlement amount, encoding, and offset warranties), (d) (returned check warranties), and (e) (notice of nonpayment warranties). (See § 229.30(a) and commentary thereto). Paragraph (f), however, sets forth remote deposit capture indemnities provided to banks that accept an original check for deposit for losses incurred by that depositary bank if the loss is due to the check having already been paid. Paragraph (a) sets forth warranties that are given only with respect to electronic checks and electronic returned checks. Paragraph (g) sets forth indemnities with respect to electronically created items.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.34(a) Warranties With Respect to Electronic Checks and Electronic Returned Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. Paragraph (a) of § 229.34 sets forth the warranties that a bank makes when transferring or presenting an electronic check or electronic returned check and receiving settlement or other consideration for it. Electronic checks and electronic returned checks sent pursuant to an agreement with the receiving bank are treated as checks subject to subpart C. Therefore, the warranties in § 229.34(a) are in addition to any warranties a bank makes under paragraphs (b), (c), (d), and (e) with respect to an electronic check or electronic returned check. For example, a bank that transfers and receives consideration for an electronic check that is derived from a remotely created check warrants that the remotely created check, from which the electronic check is derived, is authorized by the person on whose account the check is drawn.
</P>
<P>2. The warranties in § 229.34(a)(1) relate to a subsequent bank's ability to create a substitute check. This paragraph provides a bank that creates a substitute check from an electronic check or electronic returned check with a warranty claim against any prior bank that transferred the electronic check or electronic returned check. The warranties in this paragraph correspond to the warranties made by a bank that transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check (a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) for which it receives consideration. (See § 229.52 and commentary thereto). A bank that transfers an electronic check or electronic returned check that is an electronic representation of a substitute check also makes the warranties and indemnities in §§ 229.52 and 229.53.
</P>
<P>3. By agreement, a sending and receiving bank may vary the warranties the sending bank makes to the receiving bank for electronic images of or electronic information related to checks, for example, to provide that the bank transferring the check does not warrant that the electronic image or information is sufficient for creating a substitute check. (See § 229.37(a)). The variation by agreement, however, would not affect the rights of banks and persons that are not bound by the agreement.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.34(b) Transfer and Presentment Warranties With Respect to a Remotely Created Check
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank that transfers or presents a remotely created check and receives a settlement or other consideration warrants that the person on whose account the check is drawn authorized the issuance of the check in the amount stated on the check and to the payee stated on the check. The warranties are given only by banks and only to subsequent banks in the collection chain. The warranties ultimately shift liability for the loss created by an unauthorized remotely created check to the depositary bank. The depositary bank cannot assert the transfer and presentment warranties against a depositor. However, a depositary bank may, by agreement, allocate liability for such an item to the depositor and also may have a claim under other laws against that person. The Federal Trade Commission's Telemarketing Sales Rule (16 CFR part 310) contains further regulatory provisions regarding remotely created checks.
</P>
<P>2. The scope of the transfer and presentment warranties for remotely created checks differs from that of the corresponding UCC warranty provisions in two respects. The UCC warranties are given by any person, including a nonbank depositor, that transfers a remotely created check and not just to a bank, as is the case under § 229.34(b). In addition, the UCC warranties state that the person on whose account the item is drawn authorized the issuance of the item in the amount for which the item is drawn. The § 229.34(b) warranties specifically cover the amount as well as the payee stated on the check. Neither the UCC warranties, nor the § 229.34(b) warranties, apply to the date stated on the remotely created check.
</P>
<P>3. A bank making the § 229.34(b) warranties may defend a claim asserting violation of the warranties by proving that the customer of the paying bank is precluded by UCC 4-406 from making a claim against the paying bank. This may be the case, for example, if the customer failed to discover the unauthorized remotely created check in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>4. The transfer and presentment warranties for a remotely created check apply to a remotely created check that has been converted to an electronic check or reconverted to a substitute check.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.34(c) Settlement Amount, Encoding, and Offset Warranties
</HD3>
<P>1. Paragraph (c)(1) provides that a bank that presents and receives settlement for checks warrants to the paying bank that the settlement it demands (e.g., as noted on the cash letter or in the electronic cash letter file) equals the total amount of the checks it presents. This paragraph gives the paying bank a warranty claim against the presenting bank for the amount of any excess settlement made on the basis of the amount demanded, plus expenses. If the amount demanded is understated, a paying bank discharges its settlement obligation under UCC 4-301 by paying the amount demanded, but remains liable for the amount by which the demand is understated; the presenting bank is nevertheless liable for expenses in resolving the adjustment.
</P>
<P>2. When checks or returned checks are transferred to a collecting bank, returning bank, or depositary bank, the transferor bank is not required to demand settlement, as is required upon presentment to the paying bank. However, often the checks or returned checks will be accompanied by information (such as a cash letter listing or cash letter control record) that will indicate the total of the checks or returned checks. Paragraph (c)(2) provides that if the transferor bank includes information indicating the total amount of checks or returned checks transferred, it warrants that the information is correct (<I>i.e.,</I> equals the actual total of the items).
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (c)(3) provides that a bank that presents or transfers a check or returned check warrants the accuracy of information encoded regarding the check after issue, and that exists at the time of presentment or transfer, to any bank that subsequently handles the check or returned check. Paragraph (c)(3) applies to all MICR-line encoding on a paper check, substitute check, or contained in an electronic check or electronic returned check. Under UCC 4-209(a), only the encoder (or the encoder and the depositary bank, if the encoder is a customer of the depositary bank) warrants the encoding accuracy, thus any claims on the warranty must be directed to the encoder. Paragraph (c)(3) expands on the UCC by providing that all banks that transfer or present a check or returned check make the encoding warranty. In addition, under the UCC, the encoder makes the warranty to subsequent collecting banks and the paying bank, while paragraph (c)(3) provides that the warranty is made to banks in the return chain as well.
</P>
<P>4. A paying bank that settles for an overstated cash letter because of a misencoded check may make a warranty claim against the presenting bank under paragraph (c)(1) (which would require the paying bank to show that the check was part of the overstated cash letter) or an encoding warranty claim under paragraph (c)(3) against the presenting bank or any preceding bank that handled the misencoded check.
</P>
<P>5. Paragraph (c)(4) provides that a paying bank or a depositary bank may set off excess settlement paid to another bank against settlement owed to that bank for checks presented or returned checks received (for which it is the depositary bank) subsequent to the excess settlement.
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.34(d) Returned Check Warranties
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph includes warranties that a returned check, including a notice in lieu of return or an electronic returned check, was returned by the paying bank, or in the case of a check payable by a bank and payable through another bank, the bank by which the check is payable, within the deadline under the UCC (subject to any claims or defenses under the UCC, such as breach of a presentment warranty) or § 229.31(g); that the paying bank or returning bank is authorized to return the check; that the returned check has not been materially altered; and that, in the case of a notice in lieu of return, the check has not been and will not be returned for payment. (See commentary to § 229.31(f)). The warranty does not include a warranty that the bank complied with the expeditious return requirements of §§ 229.31(b) and 229.32(b). These warranties do not apply to checks drawn on the United States Treasury, to U.S. Postal Service money orders, or to checks drawn on a state or a unit of general local government that are not payable through or at a bank. (See § 229.42).
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.34(e) Notice of Nonpayment Warranties
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph sets forth warranties for notices of nonpayment. This warranty does not include a warranty that the notice is accurate and timely under § 229.31(c). The requirements of § 229.31(c) that are not covered by the warranty are subject to the liability provisions of § 229.38. These warranties are designed to protect depositary banks that rely on notices of nonpayment. This paragraph imposes liability on a paying bank that gives notice of nonpayment and then subsequently does not return the check. (See commentary to § 229.31(c)).
</P>
<HD3>G. 229.34(f) Remote Deposit Capture Indemnity
</HD3>
<P>1. This indemnity provides for a depositary bank's potential liability when it permits a customer to deposit checks by remote deposit capture (<I>i.e.,</I> to truncate checks and deposit an electronic image of the original check instead of the original check). Because the depositary bank's customer retains the original check, that customer might, intentionally or mistakenly, deposit the original check in another depositary bank. The depositary bank that accepts the original check, in turn, may make funds available to the customer before it learns that the check is being returned unpaid and, in some cases, may be unable to recover the funds from its customer. Section 229.34(f) provides the depositary bank that accepts the original check for deposit with a claim against the depositary bank that did not receive the original check because it permitted its customer to truncate it, received settlement or other consideration for the check, and did not receive a return of the check unpaid. This claim exists only if the check is returned to the depositary bank that accepted the original check due to the fact that the check had already been paid.
</P>
<HD2>2. Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. Depositary Bank A offers its customers a remote deposit capture service that permits customers to take pictures of the front and back of their checks and send the image to the bank for deposit. Depositary Bank A accepts an image of the check from its customer and sends an electronic check for collection to Paying Bank. Paying Bank, in turn, pays the check. Depositary Bank A receives settlement for the check. The same customer who sent Depositary Bank A the electronic image of the check then deposits the original check in Depositary Bank B. There is no restrictive indorsement on the check. Depositary Bank B sends the original check (or a substitute check or electronic check) for collection and makes funds from the deposited check available to its customer. The customer withdraws the funds. Paying Bank returns the check to Depositary Bank B indicating that the check already had been paid. Depositary Bank B may be unable to charge back funds from its customer's account. Depositary Bank B may make an indemnity claim against Depositary Bank A for the amount of the funds Depositary Bank B is unable to recover from its customer.
</P>
<P>b. The facts are the same as above with respect to Depositary Bank A and B; however, the original check deposited in Depositary Bank B bears a restrictive indorsement “for mobile deposit at Depositary Bank A only” and the customer's account number at Depositary Bank A. Depositary Bank B may not make an indemnity claim against Depositary Bank A because Depositary Bank B accepted the original check bearing a restrictive indorsement inconsistent with the means of deposit.
</P>
<P>c. The facts are the same as above with respect to Depositary Bank A; however, Depositary Bank B also offers a remote deposit capture service to its customer. The customer uses Depositary Bank B's remote deposit capture service to send an electronic image of the front and back of the check, after sending the same image to Depositary Bank A. The customer deposits the original check into Depositary Bank C without a restrictive indorsement. Paying Bank pays the check based on the image presented by Depositary Bank A, and Depositary Bank A receives settlement for the check without the check being returned unpaid to it. Paying Bank returns the checks presented by Depositary Bank B and Depositary Bank C. Neither Depositary Bank B nor Depositary Bank C can recover the funds from the deposited check from the customer. Depositary Bank B does not have an indemnity claim against Depositary Bank A because Depositary Bank B did not receive the original check for deposit. Depositary Bank C, however, would be able to bring an indemnity claim against Depositary Bank A.
</P>
<P>3. A depositary bank may, by agreement, allocate liability for loss incurred from subsequent deposit of the original check to its customer that sent the electronic check related to the original check to the depositary bank.
</P>
<HD3>H. 229.34(g) Indemnities With Respect to Electronically-Created Items
</HD3>
<P>1. As a practical matter a bank receiving an electronic image generally cannot distinguish an image that is derived from a paper check from an electronically-created item. Nonetheless, the bank receiving the electronically-created item often handles the electronically-created image as if it were derived from a paper check.
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (g) of § 229.34 sets forth the indemnities that a bank provides when transferring or presenting an electronically-created item and receiving settlement or other consideration for it. The indemnities set forth in § 229.34(g) are provided only by banks and only to subsequent banks in the collection chain. The indemnities ultimately shift liability for losses to the depositary bank due to the fact the electronically created item is not derived from a paper check, was unauthorized, or was transferred or presented for payment more than once. (See § 229.34(i) and commentary thereto). The depositary bank cannot assert the indemnities set forth in § 229.34(g) against a depositor. However, a depositary bank may, by agreement, allocate liability for such an item to the depositor and also may have a claim under other laws against that person.
</P>
<P>2. The paying bank's losses in paragraph (g)(1) of this section include losses arising from Regulation E non-compliance caused by the receipt of an electronically-created item.
</P>
<P>3. Under paragraphs (g)(2) and (3), indemnified banks have a claim for damages pursuant to § 229.34(i) regardless of whether the damages would have occurred if the item transferred had been derived from a paper check.
</P>
<HD2>3. Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. A paying bank pays an electronically-created item, which the paying bank's customer subsequently claims is unauthorized. The paying bank may incur liability on the item due to the fact the item is electronically created and not derived from a paper check. For example, the paying bank may have no means of disputing the customer's claim without examining the physical check, which does not exist. The indemnity in § 229.34(g) enables the paying bank to recover from the presenting bank or any prior transferor bank for the amount of its loss, as permitted under § 229.34(i), due to receiving the electronically-created item.
</P>
<P>b. A bank receives an electronic image of and electronic information related to an electronically-created item and, in turn, produces a paper item that is indistinguishable from a substitute check. The paper item is not a substitute check because the item is not derived from an original, paper check. That bank may incur a loss because it cannot produce the legal equivalent of a check (See § 229.53 and commentary thereto). The indemnity in § 229.34(g) enables a bank that received the electronically-created item to recover from the bank sending the check for the amount of the loss permitted under § 229.34(i).
</P>
<P>c. A paying bank is not required by § 229.31(b) to return an electronically-created item expeditiously. The depositary bank incurs a loss because it receives the return of the electronically-created item unexpeditiously and is unable to recover funds previously made available to its customer. The depositary bank is not an indemnified party under § 229.34(g) and therefore cannot recover its loss pursuant to that indemnity.
</P>
<HD3>I. 229.34(h) Damages
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph adopts for the warranties in § 229.34(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) the damages provided in UCC 4-207(c) and 4A-506(b). (See definition of interest compensation in § 229.2(oo)).
</P>
<HD3>J. 229.34(i) Indemnity Amounts
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph adopts for the amount of the indemnities provided for in § 229.34(f)(2) and (g) an amount comparable to the damages provided in § 229.53(b)(1)(ii) of subpart D of this regulation.
</P>
<P>2. The amount of an indemnity would be reduced in proportion to the amount of any loss attributable to the indemnified person's negligence or bad faith. This comparative-negligence standard is intended to allocate liability in the same manner as the comparative negligence provision of § 229.38(c).
</P>
<P>3. An indemnified bank may be able to make an indemnity claim against more than one indemnifying depositary bank. However, an indemnified bank may not recover in the aggregate across all indemnifying banks more than the amount described in this paragraph. Therefore, an indemnified bank that recovers the amount of its the loss from one indemnifying depositary bank under this paragraph no longer has a loss that it can collect from a different indemnifying depositary bank.
</P>
<HD3>K. 229.34(j) Tender of Defense
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph adopts for this regulation the vouching-in provisions of UCC 3-119.
</P>
<HD3>L. 229.34(k) Notice of Claim
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph adopts the notice provisions of UCC sections 4-207(d) and 4-208(e) and applies them to this section's indemnities and warranties. The time limit set forth in this paragraph applies to notices of claims for warranty breaches and for indemnities. As provided in § 229.38(g), all actions under this section must be brought within one year after the date of the occurrence of the violation involved.


</P>
<HD2>XXI. Section 229.35 Indorsements
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.35(a) Indorsement Standards
</HD3>
<P>1. This section requires banks to use a standard form of indorsement when indorsing checks during the forward collection and return process. It is designed to facilitate the identification of the depositary bank and the prompt return of checks. The indorsement standard a bank must use depends on the type of check being indorsed. Paper checks must be indorsed in accordance with ANS X9.100-111. Substitute checks must be indorsed in accordance with ANS X9.100-140. Electronic checks must be indorsed in accordance ANS X9.100-187. The Board, however, may by rule or order determine that different standards apply.
</P>
<P>2. The parties sending and receiving a check may agree that different indorsement standards will apply to such checks. For example, although ANS X9.100-187 is an industry standard for banks' exchange of electronic checks, the parties may agree to send and receive electronic checks that conform to a different standard.
</P>
<P>3. Banks generally apply indorsements to a paper check in one of two ways: (1) In accordance with ANS X9.100-111, banks print or “spray” indorsements onto a paper check when the check is processed through the banks' automated check sorters (regardless of whether the checks are original checks or substitute checks), and (2) in accordance with ANS X9.100-140, reconverting banks print or “overlay” previously applied electronic indorsements and their own indorsements and identifications onto a substitute check at the time that the substitute check is created. If a subsequent substitute check is created in the course of collection or return, that substitute check will contain, in its image of the back of the previous substitute check, reproductions of indorsements that were sprayed or overlaid onto the previous item.
</P>
<P>4. A bank might use check-processing equipment that captures an image of a check prior to spraying an indorsement onto that item. If the bank truncates that item, it should ensure that it also applies an indorsement to the item electronically. A reconverting bank satisfies its obligation to preserve all previously applied indorsements by overlaying a bank's indorsement that previously was applied electronically onto a substitute check that the reconverting bank creates. (See commentary to § 229.51(b)).
</P>
<P>5. A depositary bank may want to include an address in its indorsement in order to limit the number of locations at which it must receive paper returned checks and paper notices of nonpayment. Banks should note, however, that § 229.33(c) requires a depositary bank to receive paper returned checks at the location(s) at which it receives paper forward-collection checks, as well as the other locations enumerated in § 229.33(c). (See § 229.33(c) and commentary thereto).
</P>
<P>6. Under the UCC, a specific guarantee of prior indorsement is not necessary. (See UCC 4-207(a) and 4-208(a)). Use of guarantee language in indorsements of paper checks, such as “P.E.G.” (“prior endorsements guaranteed”), may result in reducing the type size used in bank indorsements, thereby making them more difficult to read. Use of this language may make it more difficult for other banks to identify the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>7. If the bank maintaining the account into which a check is deposited agrees with another bank (a correspondent, ATM operator, or lock box operator) to have the other bank accept returns and notices of nonpayment for the bank of account, the indorsement placed on the check as the depositary bank indorsement may be the indorsement of the bank that acts as correspondent, ATM operator, or lock box operator as provided in paragraph (d) of § 229.35.
</P>
<P>8. In general, paper checks will be handled more efficiently if depositary banks place their indorsement so that the nine-digit routing number is not obscured by pre-existing matter on the back of the check. Indorsing parties other than banks, e.g., corporations, will benefit from the faster return of checks if they protect the identifiability and legibility of the depositary bank indorsement by staying clear of the area on the back of the paper check reserved for the depositary bank indorsement.
</P>
<P>9. A paying bank is not required to indorse the check; however, if a paying bank does indorse a check that is returned, it should follow the indorsement standards for collecting banks and returning banks. Collecting banks and returning banks are required to indorse the check for tracing purposes. With respect to the identification of a paying bank that is also a reconverting bank, see commentary to § 229.51(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.35(b) Liability of Bank Handling Check
</HD3>
<P>1. When a check is sent for forward collection, the collection process results in a chain of indorsements extending from the depositary bank through any subsequent collecting banks to the paying bank. This paragraph extends the indorsement chain through the paying bank to the returning banks, and would permit each bank to recover from any prior indorser if the claimant bank does not receive payment for the check from a subsequent bank in the collection or return chain. For example, if a returning bank returned a check to an insolvent depositary bank, and did not receive the full amount of the check from the failed bank, the returning bank could obtain the unrecovered amount of the check from any bank prior to it in the collection and return chain including the paying bank. Because each bank in the collection and return chain could recover from a prior bank, any loss would fall on the first intermediary collecting bank that received the check from the depositary bank. To avoid circuity of actions, the returning bank could recover directly from the first collecting bank. Under the UCC, the first collecting bank might ultimately recover from the depositary bank's customer or from the other parties on the check.
</P>
<P>2. Where a check is returned through the same banks used for the forward collection of the check, priority during the forward collection process controls over priority in the return process for the purpose of determining prior and subsequent banks under this regulation.
</P>
<P>3. Where a returning bank is insolvent and fails to pay the paying bank or a prior returning bank for a returned check, § 229.39(a) requires the receiver of the failed bank to return the check to the bank that transferred the check to the failed bank. That bank then either could continue the return to the depositary bank or recover based on this paragraph. Where the paying bank is insolvent, and fails to pay the collecting bank, the collecting bank also could recover from a prior collecting bank under this paragraph, and the bank from which it recovered could in turn recover from its prior collecting bank until the loss settled on the depositary bank (which could recover from its customer).
</P>
<P>4. A bank is not required to make a claim against an insolvent bank before exercising its right to recovery under this paragraph. Recovery may be made by charge-back or by other means. This right of recovery also is permitted even where nonpayment of the check is the result of the claiming bank's negligence such as failure to make expeditious return, but the claiming bank remains liable for its negligence under § 229.38.
</P>
<P>5. This liability to a bank that subsequently handles the check and does not receive payment for the check is imposed on a bank handling a check for collection or return regardless of whether the bank's indorsement appears on the check. Notice must be sent under this paragraph to a prior bank from which recovery is sought reasonably promptly after a bank learns that it did not receive payment from another bank, and learns the identity of the prior bank. Written notice reasonably identifying the check and the basis for recovery is sufficient if the check is not available. Receipt of notice by the bank against which the claim is made is not a precondition to recovery by charge-back or other means; however, a bank may be liable for negligence for failure to provide timely notice. A paying bank or returning bank also may recover from a prior collecting bank as provided in §§ 229.31(a) and 229.32(b) (in those cases where the paying bank is unable to identify the depositary bank). This paragraph does not affect a paying bank's accountability for a check under UCC 4-215(a) and 4-302. Nor does this paragraph affect a collecting bank's accountability under UCC 4-214 and 4-215(d). A collecting bank becomes accountable upon receipt of final settlement as provided in the foregoing UCC sections. Final settlement in §§ 229.32(e), 229.33(e), and 229.36(c) is intended to be consistent with final settlement in the UCC (e.g., UCC 4-213, 4-214, and 4-215). (See also § 229.2(cc) (definition of returning bank) and commentary thereto).
</P>
<P>6. This paragraph also provides that a bank may have the rights of a holder based on the handling of a check for collection or return. A bank may become a holder or a holder in due course regardless of whether prior banks have complied with the indorsement standard in § 229.35(a).
</P>
<P>7. This paragraph affects the following provisions of the UCC, and may affect other provisions depending on circumstance:
</P>
<P>a. Section 4-214(a), in that the right to recovery is not based on provisional settlement, and recovery may be had from any prior bank. Section 4-214(a) would continue to permit a depositary bank to recover a provisional settlement from its customer. (See § 229.33(h)).
</P>
<P>b. Section 3-415 and related provisions (such as section 3-503), in that such provisions would not apply as between banks, or as between the depositary bank and its customer.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.35(c) Indorsement by Bank
</HD3>
<P>1. This section protects the rights of a customer depositing a check in a bank without requiring the words “pay any bank,” as required by the UCC (See UCC 4-201(b)). Use of this language in a depositary bank's indorsement will make it more difficult for other banks to identify the depositary bank. The applicable industry standard prohibits such material in subsequent collecting bank indorsements. The existence of a bank indorsement provides notice of the restrictive indorsement without any additional words.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.35(d) Indorsement for Depositary Bank
</HD3>
<P>1. This section permits a depositary bank to arrange with another bank to indorse checks. This practice may occur when a correspondent indorses for a respondent, or when the bank servicing an ATM or lock box indorses for the bank maintaining the account in which the check is deposited—<I>i.e.,</I> the depositary bank. If the indorsing bank applies the depositary bank's indorsement, checks will be returned to the depositary bank. An indorsing bank may by agreement with the depositary bank apply its own indorsement as the depositary bank indorsement. In that case, the actual depositary bank's own indorsement on the check (if any) should avoid the location reserved for the depositary bank. The actual depositary bank remains responsible for the availability and other requirements of subpart B, but the bank indorsing as depositary bank is considered the depositary bank for purposes of subpart C (e.g., for purposes of determining the right to assert a claim under § 229.33(a) for failure to return a check expeditiously and accepting paper checks under § 229.33(c)). The check will be returned, and notice of nonpayment will be given, to the bank indorsing as depositary bank.
</P>
<P>2. Because the depositary bank for subpart B purposes will desire prompt notice of nonpayment, its arrangement with the indorsing bank should provide for prompt notice of nonpayment. The bank indorsing as depositary bank may require the depositary bank to agree to take up the check if the check is not paid even if the depositary bank's indorsement does not appear on the check and it did not handle the check. The arrangement between the banks may constitute an agreement varying the effect of provisions of subpart C under § 229.37.


</P>
<HD2>XXII. Section 229.36 Presentment and Issuance of Checks
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.36(a) Receipt of Electronic Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. A paying bank may agree to accept presentment of electronic checks. (See § 229.2(ggg) and commentary thereto). The paying bank's acceptance of such electronic checks is governed by the paying bank's agreement with the bank sending the electronic check to the paying bank. The terms of these agreements are determined by the parties and may include, for example, the electronic address or electronic receipt point at which the paying bank agrees to accept electronic checks, as well as when presentment occurs. The agreement also may specify whether electronic checks sent for forward collection must be separated from electronic returned checks.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.36(b) Receipt of Paper Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. The paragraph specifies four locations at which the paying bank must accept presentment of paper checks. Where the check is payable through a bank and the check is sent to that bank, the payable-through bank is the paying bank for purposes of this subpart, regardless of whether the paying bank must present the check to another bank or to a nonbank payor for payment.
</P>
<P>a. Delivery of paper checks may be made, and presentment is considered to occur, at a location (including a processing center) requested by the paying bank. This provision adopts the common law rule that the processing center acts as the agent of the paying bank to accept presentment and to begin the time for processing of the check. (See also UCC 4-204(c)). If a bank designates different locations for the presentment of forward collection paper checks bearing different routing numbers, for purposes of this paragraph it requests presentment of paper checks bearing a particular routing number only at the location designated for receipt of forward collection paper checks bearing that routing number.
</P>
<P>b. If the check specifies the name and address of a branch or head office, or other location (such as a processing center), the paper check may be delivered to that office or other location. If the address is too general to identify a particular office, delivery may be made at any office consistent with the address. For example, if the address is “San Francisco, California,” each office in San Francisco must accept presentment of paper checks. The designation of an address on the check generally is in the control of the paying bank.
</P>
<P>c. i. Delivery of a paper check may be made at an office of the bank associated with the routing number on the check. In the case of a substitute check, delivery may be made at an office of the bank associated with the routing number in the electronic check from which it was derived. The office associated with the routing number of a bank is found in <I>American Bankers Association Key to Routing Numbers,</I> published by an agent of the American Bankers Association, which lists a city and state address for each routing number. Paper checks generally are handled by collecting banks on the basis of the nine-digit routing number contained in the MICR line (or on the basis of the fractional form routing number if the MICR line is obliterated) on the check, rather than the printed name or address. The definition of a paying bank in § 229.2(z) includes a bank designated by routing number, whether or not there is a name on the check, and whether or not any name is consistent with the routing number. Where a check is payable by one bank, but payable through another, the routing number is that of the payable-through bank, not that of the payor bank. In these cases, the payor bank has selected the payable-through bank as the point through which presentment of paper checks is to be made.
</P>
<P>ii. There is no requirement in the regulation that the name and address on the check agree with the address associated with the routing number on the check. A bank generally may control the use of its routing number, just as it does the use of its name. The address associated with the routing number may be a processing center.
</P>
<P>iii. In some cases, a paying bank may have several offices in the city associated with the routing number. In such case, it would not be reasonable or efficient to require the presenting bank to sort paper checks by more specific branch addresses that might be printed on the checks, and to deliver paper checks to each branch. A collecting bank normally would deliver all paper checks to one location. In cases where paper checks are delivered to a branch other than the branch on which they may be drawn, computer and courier communication among branches should permit the paying bank to determine quickly whether to pay the check.
</P>
<P>d. If the paper check specifies the name of the paying bank but no address, the bank must accept delivery at any office. Where delivery is made by a person other than a bank, or where the routing number is not readable, delivery will be made based on the name and address of the paying bank on the check. If there is no address, delivery may be made at any office of the paying bank. This provision is consistent with UCC 3-111, which states that presentment for payment may be made at the place specified in the instrument, or, if there is none, at the place of business of the party to pay.
</P>
<P>2. This paragraph may affect UCC 3-111 to the extent that the UCC requires presentment to occur at a place specified in the instrument.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.36(c) Liability of Bank During Forward Collection
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph makes settlement between banks during forward collection final when made, subject to any deferment of credit, just as settlements between banks during the return of checks are final. In addition, this paragraph clarifies that this change does not affect the liability scheme under UCC 4-201 during forward collection of a check. That UCC section provides that, unless a contrary intent clearly appears, a bank is an agent or subagent of the owner of a check, but that Article 4 of the UCC applies even though a bank may have purchased an item and is the owner of it. This paragraph preserves the liability of a collecting bank to prior collecting banks and the depositary bank's customer for negligence during the forward collection of a check under the UCC, even though this paragraph provides that settlement between banks during forward collection is final rather than provisional. Settlement by a paying bank is not considered to be final payment for the purposes of UCC 4-215(a)(2) or (3), because a paying bank has the right to recover settlement from a returning bank or depositary bank to which it returns a check under this subpart. Other provisions of the UCC not superseded by this subpart, such as section 4-202, also continue to apply to the forward collection of a check and may apply to the return of a check. (See definition of returning bank in § 229.2(cc)).
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.36(d) Same-Day Settlement
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph governs settlement for presentment of paper checks. Settlement for presentment of electronic checks is governed by the agreement of the parties. (See § 229.36(a) and commentary thereto). This paragraph provides that, under certain conditions, a paying bank must settle with a presenting bank for a paper check on the same day the paper check is presented in order to avail itself of the ability to return the paper check on its next banking day under UCC 4-301 and 4-302. This paragraph does not apply to paper checks presented for immediate payment over the counter. Settling for a paper check under this paragraph does not constitute final payment of the paper check under the UCC. This paragraph does not supersede or limit the rules governing collection and return of paper checks through Federal Reserve Banks that are contained in subpart A of Regulation J (12 CFR part 210).
</P>
<HD3>2. Presentment Requirements
</HD3>
<HD3>a. Location and Time
</HD3>
<P>i. For presented paper checks to qualify for mandatory same-day settlement, information accompanying the paper checks must indicate that presentment is being made under this paragraph—e.g., “these checks are being presented for same-day settlement”—and must include a demand for payment of the total amount of the checks together with appropriate payment instructions in order to enable the paying bank to discharge its settlement responsibilities under this paragraph. In addition, the paper check or checks must be presented at a location designated by the paying bank for receipt of paper checks for same-day settlement by 8 a.m. local time of that location. The designated presentment location must be a location at which the paying bank would be considered to have received a paper check under § 229.36(b). The paying bank may not designate a location solely for presentment of paper checks subject to settlement under this paragraph; by designating a location for the purposes of § 229.36(d), the paying bank agrees to accept paper checks at that location for the purposes of § 229.36(b).
</P>
<P>ii. If the paying bank does not designate a presentment location, it must accept presentment of paper check for same-day settlement at any location identified in § 229.36(b), <I>i.e.,</I> at an address of the bank associated with the routing number on the check, at any branch or head office if the bank is identified on the check by name without address, or at a branch, head office, or other location consistent with the name and address of the bank on the check if the bank is identified on the check by name and address. A paying bank and a presenting bank may agree that paper checks will be accepted for same-day settlement at an alternative location or that the cut-off time for same-day settlement be earlier or later than 8 a.m. local time of the presentment location.
</P>
<P>iii. In the case of a paper check payable through a bank but payable by another bank, this paragraph does not authorize direct presentment to the bank by which the paper check is payable. The requirements of same-day settlement under this paragraph would apply to a payable-through or payable-at bank to which the paper check is sent for payment or collection.
</P>
<P>b. Reasonable delivery requirements. A paper check is considered presented when it is delivered to and payment is demanded at a location specified in paragraph (d)(1). Ordinarily, a presenting bank will find it necessary to contact the paying bank to determine the appropriate presentment location and any delivery instructions. Further, because presentment might not take place during the paying bank's banking day, a paying bank may establish reasonable delivery requirements to safeguard the paper checks presented, such as use of a night depository. If a presenting bank fails to follow reasonable delivery requirements established by the paying bank, it runs the risk that it will not have presented the paper checks. However, if no reasonable delivery requirements are established or if the paying bank does not make provisions for accepting delivery of checks during its non-business hours, leaving the paper checks at the presentment location constitutes effective presentment.
</P>
<P>c. Sorting of checks. A paying bank may require that paper checks presented to it for same-day settlement be sorted separately from other forward collection paper checks it receives as a collecting bank or paper returned checks it receives as a returning bank or depositary bank. For example, if a bank provides correspondent check collection services and receives unsorted paper checks from a respondent bank that include paper checks for which it is the paying bank and that would otherwise meet the requirements for same-day settlement under this section, the collecting bank need not make settlement in accordance with paragraph (d)(3). If the collecting bank receives sorted paper checks from its respondent bank, consisting only of paper checks for which the collecting bank is the paying bank and that meet the requirements for same-day settlement under this paragraph, the collecting bank may not charge a fee for handling those paper checks and must make settlement in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<HD3>3. Settlement
</HD3>
<P>a. If a bank presents a paper check in accordance with the time and location requirements for presentment under paragraph (d)(1), the paying bank either must settle for the paper check on the business day it receives the paper check without charging a presentment fee or return the paper check prior to the time for settlement. (This return deadline is subject to extension under § 229.31(g).) The settlement must be in the form of a credit to an account designated by the presenting bank at a Federal Reserve Bank (e.g., a Fedwire transfer), unless the presenting bank agrees with the paying bank to accept settlement in another form (e.g., credit to an account of the presenting bank at the paying bank or debit to an account of the paying bank at the presenting bank). The settlement must occur by the close of Fedwire on the business day the paper check is received by the paying bank. Under the provisions of § 229.34(c), a settlement owed to a presenting bank may be set off by adjustments for previous settlements with the presenting bank. (See also § 229.39(d)).
</P>
<P>b. Paper checks that are presented after the 8 a.m. (local time of the location at which the paper checks are presented) presentment deadline for same-day settlement and before the paying bank's cut-off hour are treated as if they were presented under other applicable law and settled for or returned accordingly. However, for purposes of settlement only, the presenting bank may require the paying bank to treat such paper checks as presented for same-day settlement on the next business day in lieu of accepting settlement by cash or other means on the business day the paper checks are presented to the paying bank. Paper checks presented after the paying bank's cut-off hour or on non-business days, but otherwise in accordance with this paragraph, are considered presented for same-day settlement on the next business day.
</P>
<HD3>4. Closed Paying Bank
</HD3>
<P>a. There may be certain business days that are not banking days for the paying bank. Some paying banks may continue to settle for paper checks presented on these days (e.g., by opening their back office operations). In other cases, a paying bank may be unable to settle for paper checks presented on a day it is closed. If the paying bank closes on a business day and paper checks are presented to the paying bank in accordance with paragraph (d)(1), the paying bank is accountable for the paper checks unless it settles for or returns the paper checks by the close of Fedwire on its next banking day. In addition, paper checks presented on a business day on which the paying bank is closed are considered received on the paying bank's next banking day for purposes of the UCC midnight deadline (UCC 4-301 and 4-302) and this regulation's expeditious return and notice of nonpayment provisions.
</P>
<P>b. If the paying bank is closed on a business day voluntarily, the paying bank must pay interest compensation, as defined in § 229.2(oo), to the presenting bank for the value of the float associated with the paper check from the day of the voluntary closing until the day of settlement. Interest compensation is not required in the case of an involuntary closing on a business day, such as a closing required by state law. In addition, if the paying bank is closed on a business day due to emergency conditions, settlement delays and interest compensation may be excused under § 229.38(e) or UCC 4-109(b).
</P>
<P>5. Good faith. Under § 229.38(a), both the presenting bank and paying bank are held to a standard of good faith, defined in § 229.2(nn) to mean honesty in fact and the observance of reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing. For example, designating a presentment location or changing presentment locations for the primary purpose of discouraging banks from presenting paper checks for same-day settlement might not be considered good faith on the part of the paying bank. Similarly, presenting a large volume of paper checks without prior notice could be viewed as not meeting reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing and therefore may not constitute presentment in good faith. In addition, if banks, in the general course of business, regularly agree to certain practices related to same-day settlement, it might not be considered consistent with reasonable commercial standards of fair dealing, and therefore might not be considered good faith, for a bank to refuse to agree to those practices if agreeing would not cause it harm.
</P>
<P>6. UCC sections affected. This paragraph directly affects the following provisions of the UCC and may affect other sections or provisions:
</P>
<P>a. Section 4-204(b)(1), in that a presenting bank may not send a paper check for same-day settlement directly to the paying bank, if the paying bank designates a different location in accordance with paragraph (d)(1).
</P>
<P>b. Section 4-213(a), in that the medium of settlement for paper checks presented under this paragraph is limited to a credit to an account at a Federal Reserve Bank and that, for paper checks presented after the deadline for same-day settlement and before the paying bank's cut-off hour, the presenting bank may require settlement on the next business day in accordance with this paragraph rather than accept settlement on the business day of presentment by cash.
</P>
<P>c. Section 4-301(a), in that, to preserve the ability to exercise deferred posting, the time limit specified in that section for settlement or return by a paying bank on the banking day a paper check is received is superseded by the requirement to settle for paper checks presented under this paragraph by the close of Fedwire.
</P>
<P>d. Section 4-302(a), in that, to avoid accountability, the time limit specified in that section for settlement or return by a paying bank on the banking day a paper check is received is superseded by the requirement to settle for paper checks presented under this paragraph by the close of Fedwire.


</P>
<HD2>XXIII. Section 229.37 Variations by Agreement
</HD2>
<P>A. This section is similar to UCC 4-103, and permits consistent treatment of agreements varying Article 4 or Subpart C, given the substantial interrelationship of the two documents. To achieve consistency, the official comment to UCC 4-103(a) (which in turn follows UCC 1-201(3)) should be followed in construing this section. For example, as stated in Official Comment 2 to UCC 4-103, owners of items and other interested parties are not affected by agreements under this section unless they are parties to the agreement or are bound by adoption, ratification, estoppel, or the like. In particular, agreements varying this subpart that delay the return of a check beyond the times required by this subpart may result in liability under § 229.38 to entities not party to the agreement.
</P>
<P>B. The Board has not followed UCC 4-103(b), which permits Federal Reserve regulations and operating letters, clearinghouse rules, and the like to apply to parties that have not specifically assented. Nevertheless, this section does not affect the status of such agreements under the UCC.
</P>
<P>C. The following are examples of situations where variation by agreement is permissible, subject to the limitations of this section:
</P>
<P>1. A depositary bank may authorize another bank to apply the other bank's indorsement to a check as the depositary bank. (See § 229.35(d)).
</P>
<P>2. A depositary bank may authorize returning banks to commingle paper qualified returned checks with paper forward collection checks. (See § 229.33(c)).
</P>
<P>3. A depositary bank may limit its liability to its customer in connection with the late return of a deposited check where the lateness is caused by markings on the check by the depositary bank's customer or prior indorser in the area of the depositary bank indorsement. (See § 229.38(d)).
</P>
<P>4. A paying bank may require its customer to assume the paying bank's liability for delayed or missent checks where the delay or missending is caused by markings placed on the check by the paying bank's customer that obscured a properly placed indorsement of the depositary bank. (See § 229.38(d)).
</P>
<P>5. A collecting bank or paying bank may agree to accept forward collection checks without the indorsement of a prior intermediary collecting bank. (See § 229.35(a)).
</P>
<P>6. A bank may agree to accept returned checks without the indorsement of a prior bank. (See § 229.35(a)).
</P>
<P>7. A presenting bank may agree with a paying bank to present paper checks for same-day settlement by a deadline earlier or later than 8 a.m. (See § 229.36(d)(1)(ii)).
</P>
<P>8. A presenting bank and a paying bank may agree that presentment takes place when the paying bank receives an electronic transmission of information describing the check rather than upon delivery of the physical check. (See § 229.36(b)).
</P>
<P>9. A depositary bank may agree with a paying bank or returning bank to accept an image or other notice in lieu of a returned check even when the check is available for return under this part. Except to the extent that other parties interested in the check assent to or are bound by the variation of the notice-in-lieu provisions of this part, a depositary bank entering into such an agreement may be responsible under this part or other applicable law to other interested parties for any losses caused by the acceptance of an image or notice in lieu of a returned check. (See §§ 229.31(f) and 229.38(a)).
</P>
<P>D. The Board expects to review the types of variation by agreement that develop under this section and will consider whether it is necessary to limit certain variations.


</P>
<HD2>XXIV. Section 229.38 Liability
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.38(a) Standard of Care; Liability; Measure of Damages
</HD3>
<P>1. The standard of care established by this section applies to any bank covered by the requirements of subpart C of the regulation. Thus, the standard of care applies to a paying bank under §§ 229.31, to a returning bank under § 229.32, to a depositary bank under §§ 229.33, to a bank erroneously receiving a returned check or written notice of nonpayment as depositary bank under § 229.33(f), and to a bank indorsing a check under § 229.35. The standard of care is similar to the standard imposed by UCC 1-203 and 4-103(a) and includes a duty to act in good faith, as defined in § 229.2(nn) of this regulation.
</P>
<P>2. A bank not meeting this standard of care is liable to the depositary bank, the depositary bank's customer, the owner of the check, or another party to the check. The depositary bank's customer is usually a depositor of a check in the depositary bank (but see § 229.35(d)). The measure of damages provided in this section (loss incurred up to amount of check, less amount of loss party would have incurred even if bank had exercised ordinary care) is based on UCC 4-103(e) (amount of the item reduced by an amount that could not have been realized by the exercise of ordinary care), as limited by 4-202(c) (bank is liable only for its own negligence and not for actions of subsequent banks in chain of collection). This subpart does not absolve a collecting bank of liability to prior collecting banks under UCC 4-201.
</P>
<P>3. Under this measure of damages, a depositary bank or other person must show that the damage incurred results from the negligence proved. For example, the depositary bank may not simply claim that its customer will not accept a charge-back of a returned check, but must prove that it could not charge back when it received the returned check and could have charged back if no negligence had occurred, and must first attempt to collect from its customer. (See <I>Marcoux</I> v. <I>Van Wyk,</I> 572 F.2d 651 (8th Cir. 1978); <I>Appliance Buyers Credit Corp.</I> v. <I>Prospect Nat'l Bank,</I> 708 F.2d 290 (7th Cir. 1983)). Generally, a paying or returning bank's liability would not be reduced because the depositary bank did not place a hold on its customer's deposit before it learned of nonpayment of the check.
</P>
<P>4. This paragraph also states that it does not affect a paying bank's liability to its customer. Under UCC 4-402, for example, a paying bank is liable to its customer for wrongful dishonor, which is different from failure to exercise ordinary care and has a different measure of damages.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.38(b) Paying Bank's Failure To Make Timely Return
</HD3>
<P>1. Section 229.31(b) imposes requirements on the paying bank for expeditious return of a check and leaves in place the UCC deadlines (as they may be modified by § 229.31(g)), which may allow return at a different time. This paragraph clarifies that the paying bank could be liable for failure to meet either standard, but not for failure to meet both. The regulation intends to preserve the paying bank's accountability for missing its midnight or other deadline under the UCC (e.g., sections 4-215 and 4-302), provisions that are not incorporated in this regulation, but may be useful in establishing the time of final payment by the paying bank.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.38(c) Comparative Negligence
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph establishes a “pure” comparative negligence standard for liability under subpart C of this regulation. This comparative negligence rule may have particular application where a paying bank or returning bank delays in returning a check because of difficulty in identifying the depositary bank, where the depositary bank has failed to exercise ordinary care in applying its indorsement.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.38(d) Responsibility for Certain Aspects of Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. ANS X9.100-140 provides that an image of an original check must be reduced in size when placed on the first substitute check associated with that original check. (The image thereafter would be constant in size on any subsequent substitute check that might be created.) Because of this size reduction, the location of an indorsement, particularly a depositary bank indorsement, applied to an original paper check likely will change when the first reconverting bank creates a substitute check that contains that indorsement within the image of the original paper check. If the indorsement was applied to the original paper check in accordance with ANS X9.100-111's location requirements for indorsements applied to existing paper checks, and if the size reduction of the image causes the placement of the indorsement to no longer be consistent with ANS X9.100-111's requirements, then the reconverting bank bears the liability for any loss that results from the shift in the placement of the indorsement. Such a loss could result either because the original indorsement applied in accordance with ANS X9.100-111 is rendered illegible by a subsequent indorsement that a reconverting bank later applies to the substitute check in accordance with ANS X9.100-140, or because a subsequent bank receiving a substitute check cannot apply its indorsement to the substitute check legibly in accordance with ANS X9.100-111 as a result of the shift in the previous indorsement.
</P>
<P>2. Responsibility under paragraph (d)(1) is treated as negligence for comparative negligence purposes, and the contribution to damages under paragraph (d)(1) is treated in the same way as the degree of negligence under paragraph (c) of this section.


</P>
<HD3>E through H [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD3>I. 229.38(i) Presumption of Alteration
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph applies to disputes between banks where one bank has sent an electronic check or a substitute check for collection to the other bank. The presumption of alteration does not apply to a dispute between banks where one bank sent the original check to the other bank, even if that check is subsequently truncated and destroyed. The presumption of alteration applies with respect to claims that the original check or to the electronic check or substitute check was altered or contained an unauthorized signature.
</P>
<P>2. The presumption of alteration applies when the original check is unavailable for review by the banks in context of the dispute. If the original check is produced, through discovery or other means, and is made available for examination by all the parties, the presumption no longer applies.
</P>
<P>3. This paragraph does not alter the transfer and presentment warranties under the UCC that allocate liability among the parties to a check transaction with respect to an item that has been altered or that was issued with an unauthorized signature of the drawer. The UCC or other applicable check law continues to apply with respect to other rights, duties, and obligations related to altered or unauthorized checks. In addition, the presumption does not apply if it is contrary to another Federal statute or regulation, such as the U.S. Treasury's rules regarding U.S. Treasury checks. The presumption of alteration may be varied by agreement to the extent permitted under § 229.37.
</P>
<P>4. As stated in § 229.2, terms that are not defined in that section have the meanings set forth in the Uniform Commercial Code. “Alteration” is defined in UCC 3-407 and includes both (i) an unauthorized change in a check that purports to modify in any respect the obligation of a party, and (ii) an unauthorized addition of words or numbers or other change to an incomplete check relating to the obligation of a party. Alterations could include, for example, an unauthorized change to a payee name or a change to the date on a post-dated check that purports to make the check currently payable. “Unauthorized signature” is defined in UCC 1-201 and further discussed in UCC 3-403. An unauthorized signature could include a forgery as well as a signature made without actual or apparent authority.


</P>
<HD2>XXV. Section 229.39 Insolvency of Bank
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Introduction
</HD3>
<P>1. These provisions cover situations where a bank becomes insolvent during collection or return of a check. Paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of § 229.39 are derived from UCC 4-216. They are intended to apply to all banks. Like UCC 4-216, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of § 229.39 are intended to establish the point in the collection process at which collection or return of a check should be either stopped or continued when a particular bank suspends payments. Section 229.39(a) sets forth the circumstances under which the receiver must stop collection or return and, instead, send the check back to the bank or customer that transferred the check. Section 229.39(b) sets forth the circumstances under which the collection or return of the check should continue. Paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 229.39 are not intended to confer upon banks preferential positions in the event of bank failures over general depositors or any other creditor of the failed bank. (See UCC 4-216, cmt. 1).
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.39(a) Duty of Receiver To Return Unpaid Checks
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph requires a receiver of a closed bank to return a check to the prior bank if the paying bank or the receiver did not pay for the check. This permits the prior bank, as holder, to pursue its claims against the closed bank or prior indorsers on the check.
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.39(b) Claims Against Banks for Checks Not Returned by the Receiver
</HD3>
<P>1. This section sets forth the claims available to banks in situations in which a receiver does not return a check under § 229.39(a). In those situations, the prior bank would not be a holder of the check and would be unable to pursue claims as a holder.
</P>
<P>2. Paragraph (b)(1) of § 229.39 gives a bank a claim against a closed paying bank that finally pays a check without settling for it or a closed depositary bank that becomes obligated to pay a returned check without settling for it. If the bank with a claim under this paragraph recovers from a prior bank or other party to the check, the prior bank or other party to the check is subrogated to the claim.
</P>
<P>3. Paragraph (b)(2) of § 229.39 gives a bank a claim against a closed collecting bank, paying bank, or returning bank that receives settlement for but does not make settlement for a check. (See commentary to § 229.35(b) for discussion of prior and subsequent banks). As in the case of § 229.39(b)(1), if the bank with a claim under this paragraph recovers from a prior bank or other party to the check, the prior bank or other party to the check is subrogated to the claim.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.39(c) Preferred Claim Against Presenting Bank for Breach of Warranty
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph gives a paying bank a preferred claim against a closed presenting bank in the event that the presenting bank breaches an amount or encoding warranty as provided in § 229.34(c)(1) or (3) and does not reimburse the paying bank for adjustments for a settlement made by the paying bank in excess of the value of the checks presented. This preferred claim is intended to have the effect of a perfected security interest and is intended to put the paying bank in the position of a secured creditor for purposes of the receivership provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and similar provisions of state law.
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.39(d) Finality of Settlement
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph provides that insolvency does not interfere with the finality of a settlement, such as a settlement by a paying bank that becomes final by expiration of the midnight deadline.


</P>
<HD2>XXVI. Section 229.40 Effect on Merger Transaction
</HD2>
<P>A. When banks merge, there is normally a period of adjustment before their operations are consolidated. To allow for this adjustment period, the regulation provides that the merged banks may be treated as separate banks for a period of up to one year after the consummation of the transaction. The term merger transaction is defined in § 229.2(t). This rule affects the status of the combined entity in a number of areas in this subpart, such as the following:
</P>
<P>1. The paying bank's responsibility for notice of nonpayment (§ 229.31(c)).
</P>
<P>2. Where the depositary bank must accept returned checks (§ 229.33(b) and (c)).
</P>
<P>3. Where the depositary bank must accept notice of nonpayment (§ 229.33(b) and (c)).
</P>
<P>4. Where a paying bank must accept presentment of paper checks (§ 229.36(b)).


</P>
<HD2>XXVII. Section 229.41 Relation to State Law
</HD2>
<P>A. This section specifies that state law relating to the collection of checks is preempted only to the extent that it is inconsistent with this regulation. Thus, this regulation is not a complete replacement for state laws relating to the collection or return of checks.


</P>
<HD2>XXVIII. Section 229.42 Exclusions
</HD2>
<P>A. Checks drawn on the United States Treasury, U.S. Postal Service money orders, and checks drawn on states and units of general local government that are presented directly to the state or unit of general local government and that are not payable through or at a bank are excluded from the coverage of the expeditious-return, notice-of-nonpayment, and same-day settlement requirements of subpart C of this part. Other provisions of this subpart continue to apply to the checks. This exclusion does not apply to checks drawn by the U.S. government on banks.


</P>
<HD2>XXIX. [Reserved] 


</HD2>
<HD2>XXX. § 229.51 General provisions governing substitute checks 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. § 229.51(a) Legal Equivalence
</HD3>
<P>1. Section 229.51(a) states that a substitute check for which a bank has provided the substitute check warranties is the legal equivalent of the original check for all purposes and all persons if it meets the accuracy and legend requirements. Where the law (or a contract) requires production of the original check, production of a legally equivalent substitute check would satisfy that requirement. A person that receives a substitute check cannot be assessed costs associated with the creation of the substitute check, absent agreement to the contrary. 
</P>
<HD3>Examples.
</HD3>
<P>a. A presenting bank presents a substitute check that meets the legal equivalence requirements to a paying bank. The paying bank cannot refuse presentment of the substitute check on the basis that it is a substitute check, because the substitute check is the legal equivalent of the original check.
</P>
<P>b. A depositor's account agreement with a bank provides that the depositor is entitled to receive original cancelled checks back with his or her periodic account statement. The bank may honor that agreement by providing original checks, substitute checks, or a combination thereof. However, a bank may not honor such an agreement by providing something other than an original check or a substitute check.
</P>
<P>c. A mortgage company argues that a consumer missed a monthly mortgage payment that the consumer believes she made. A legally equivalent substitute check concerning that mortgage payment could be used in the same manner as the original check to prove the payment.
</P>
<P>2. A person other than a bank that creates a substitute check could transfer, present, or return that check only by agreement unless and until a bank provided the substitute check warranties.
</P>
<P>3. To be the legal equivalent of the original check, a substitute check must accurately represent all the information on the front and back of the check as of the time the original check was truncated. An accurate representation of information that was illegible on the original check would satisfy this requirement. The payment instructions placed on the check by, or as authorized by, the drawer, such as the amount of the check, the payee, and the drawer's signature, must be accurately represented, because that information is an essential element of a negotiable instrument. Other information that must be accurately represented includes (1) the information identifying the drawer and the paying bank that is preprinted on the check, including the MICR line; and (2) other information placed on the check prior to the time an image of the check is captured, such as any required identification written on the front of the check and any indorsements applied to the back of the check. A substitute check need not capture other characteristics of the check, such as watermarks, microprinting, or other physical security features that cannot survive the imaging process or decorative images, in order to meet the accuracy requirement. Conversely, some security features that are latent on the original check might become visible as a result of the check imaging process. For example, the original check might have a faint representation of the word “void” that will appear more clearly on a photocopied or electronic image of the check. Provided the inclusion of the clearer version of the word on the image used to create a substitute check did not obscure the required information listed above, a substitute check that contained such information could be the legal equivalent of an original check under § 229.51(a). However, if a person suffered a loss due to receipt of such a substitute check instead of the original check, that person could have an indemnity claim under § 229.53 and, in the case of a consumer, an expedited recredit claim under § 229.54.
</P>
<P>4. To be the legal equivalent of the original check, a substitute check must bear the legal equivalence legend described in § 229.51(a)(2). A bank may not vary the language of the legal equivalence legend and must place the legend on the substitute check as specified by generally applicable industry standards for substitute checks contained in ANS X9.100-140.
</P>
<P>5. In some cases, the original check used to create a substitute check could be forged or otherwise fraudulent. A substitute check created from a fraudulent original check would have the same status under Regulation CC and the U.C.C. as the original fraudulent check. For example, a substitute check of a fraudulent original check would not be properly payable under U.C.C. 4-401 and would be subject to the transfer and presentment warranties in U.C.C. 4-207 and 4-208. 


</P>
<HD3>B. 229.51(b) Reconverting Bank Duties
</HD3>
<P>1. In accordance with ANS X9.100-140, a reconverting bank must indorse (or, if it is a paying bank with respect to the check or a bank that rejected a check submitted for deposit, identify itself on) the back of a substitute check in a manner that preserves all indorsements applied, whether physically or electronically, by persons that previously handled the check in any form for forward collection or return. Indorsements applied physically to the original check before an image of the check was captured would be preserved through the image of the back of the original check that a substitute check must contain. If a bank sprays an indorsement onto a paper check <I>after</I> it captures an image of the check, it should ensure that it applies an indorsement to the item electronically, if it transfers the check as an electronic check or electronic returned check. (See paragraph 4 of commentary to section 229.35(a)). A reconverting bank satisfies its obligation to preserve all previously applied indorsements by physically applying (overlaying) electronic indorsements onto a substitute check that the reconverting bank creates. A reconverting bank is not responsible for obtaining indorsements that persons that previously handled the check in any form should have applied but did not apply.
</P>
<P>2. A reconverting bank must identify itself and the truncating bank by applying its routing number and the routing number of the truncating bank to the front of a substitute check in accordance with ANS X9.100-140.
</P>
<P>3. If the reconverting bank is the paying bank or a bank that rejected a check submitted for deposit, it also must identify itself by applying its routing number to the back of the check. A reconverting bank also must preserve on the back of the substitute check, in accordance with ANS X9.100-140, the identifications of any previous reconverting banks. The reconverting-bank and truncating-bank routing numbers on the front of a substitute check and, if the reconverting bank is the paying bank or a bank that rejected a check submitted for deposit, the reconverting bank's routing number on the back of a substitute check are for identification only and are not indorsements or acceptances.
</P>
<P><I>Example.</I> A bank's customer, which is a nonbank business, receives checks for payment and by agreement deposits substitute checks instead of the original checks with its depositary bank. The depositary bank is the reconverting bank with respect to the substitute checks and the truncating bank with respect to the original checks. In accordance with ANS X9.100-140, the bank must therefore be identified on the front of the substitute checks as a reconverting bank and as the truncating bank, and on the back of the substitute checks as the depositary bank and a reconverting bank.
</P>
<P>4. The location of an indorsement applied to a paper check in accordance with ANS X9.100-111 may shift if that check is truncated and later reconverted to a substitute check. If an indorsement applied to an original check in accordance with ANS X9.100-111 is overwritten by a subsequent indorsement applied to a substitute check in accordance with industry standards, then one or both of those indorsements could be rendered illegible. As explained in § 229.38(c) and the commentary thereto, a reconverting bank is liable for losses associated with indorsements that are rendered illegible as a result of check substitution.


</P>
<HD3>C. 229.51(c) Applicable Law
</HD3>
<P>1. A substitute check that meets the requirements for legal equivalence set forth in this section is subject to any provision of federal or state law that applies to original checks, except to the extent such provision is inconsistent with the Check 21 Act or subpart D. A legally equivalent substitute check is subject to all laws that are not preempted by the Check 21 Act in the same manner and to the same extent as is an original check. Thus, any person could satisfy a law that requires production of an original check by producing a substitute check that is derived from the relevant original check and that meets the legal equivalence requirements of § 229.51(a).
</P>
<P>2. A law is not inconsistent with the Check 21 Act or subpart D merely because it allows for the recovery of a greater amount of damages. 
</P>
<HD3>Example.
</HD3>
<P>A drawer that suffers a loss with respect to a substitute check that was improperly charged to its account and for which the drawer has an indemnity claim but not a warranty claim would be limited under the Check 21 Act to recovery of the amount of the substitute check plus interest and expenses. However, if the drawer also suffered damages that were proximately caused because the bank wrongfully dishonored subsequently presented checks as a result of the improper substitute check charge, the drawer could recover those losses under U.C.C. 4-402. 


</P>
<HD2>XXXI. Section 229.52 Substitute Check Warranties
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.52(a) Warranty Content and Provision
</HD3>
<P>1. The responsibility for providing the substitute-check warranties begins with the reconverting bank. In the case of a substitute check created by a bank, the reconverting bank starts the flow of warranties when it transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check for which it receives consideration or when it rejects a check submitted for deposit and returns to its customer a substitute check. A bank that receives a substitute check created by a nonbank starts the flow of warranties when it transfers, presents, or returns for consideration either the substitute check it received or an electronic or paper representation of that substitute check.
</P>
<P>2. To ensure that warranty protections flow all the way through to the ultimate recipient of a substitute check or paper or electronic representation thereof, any subsequent bank that transfers, presents, or returns for consideration either the substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of the substitute check is responsible to subsequent transferees for the warranties. Any warranty recipient could bring a claim for a breach of a substitute-check warranty if it received either the actual substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check.
</P>
<P>3. The substitute-check warranties and indemnity are not given under sections 229.52 and 229.53 by a bank that truncates the original check and by agreement transfers an electronic check to a subsequent bank for consideration. However, the warranties in § 229.34(a) would apply to the transfer of an electronic check, and those warranties may be varied by agreement between the parties. A bank that is a truncating bank under § 229.2(eee)(2) because it accepts a deposit of a check electronically might be subject to a claim by another depositary bank that accepts the original check for deposit. (See § 229.34(f) and commentary thereto).
</P>
<P><I>Example.</I> A bank that receives an electronic check and uses it to create substitute checks is the reconverting bank and, when it transfers, presents, or returns that substitute check, becomes the first warrantor with respect to the substitute check warranties. That bank, however, may have similar warranty claims with respect to the electronic check under § 229.34(a) against the bank that transferred the electronic check.
</P>
<P>4. A bank need not affirmatively make the warranties because they attach automatically when a bank transfers, presents, or returns the substitute check (or a representation thereof) for which it receives consideration. Because a substitute check transferred, presented, or returned for consideration is warranted to be the legal equivalent of the original check and thereby subject to existing laws as if it were the original check, all UCC and other Regulation CC warranties that apply to the original check also apply to the substitute check.
</P>
<P>5. The legal-equivalence warranty by definition must be linked to a particular substitute check. When an original check is truncated, the check may move from electronic form to substitute-check form and then back again, such that there would be multiple substitute checks associated with one original check. When a check changes form multiple times in the collection or return process, the first reconverting bank and subsequent banks that transfer, present, or return the first substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of the first substitute check) warrant the legal equivalence of only the first substitute check. If a bank receives an electronic representation of a substitute check and uses that representation to create a second substitute check, the second reconverting bank and subsequent transferees of the second substitute check (or a representation thereof) warrant the legal equivalence of both the first and second substitute checks. A reconverting bank would not be liable for a warranty breach under section 229.52 if the legal-equivalence defect is the fault of a subsequent bank that handled the substitute check, either as a substitute check or in other paper or electronic form.
</P>
<P>6. The warranty in § 229.52(a)(1)(ii), which addresses multiple payment requests for the same check, is not linked to a particular substitute check but rather is given by each bank handling the substitute check, an electronic representation of a substitute check, or a subsequent substitute check created from an electronic representation of a substitute check. All banks that transfer, present, or return a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation thereof) therefore provide the warranty regardless of whether the ultimate demand for double payment is based on the original check, the substitute check, or some other electronic or paper representation of the substitute or original check, and regardless of the order in which the duplicative payment requests occur. This warranty is given by the banks that transfer, present, or return a substitute check even if the demand for duplicative payment results from a fraudulent substitute check about which the warranting bank had no knowledge. (See also § 229.34(a)(1)(ii)).
</P>
<P><I>Example.</I> A nonbank depositor truncates a check and in lieu of the check sends an electronic check to both Bank A and Bank B. Bank A and Bank B each use the check information that it received electronically to create a substitute check, which it presents to Bank C for payment. Bank A and Bank B are both reconverting banks and each made the substitute-check warranties when it presented a substitute check to and received payment from Bank C. Bank C could pursue a warranty claim for the loss it suffered as a result of the duplicative payment against either Bank A or Bank B.
</P>
<P>7. A bank that rejects a check submitted for deposit and, instead of the original check, provides its customer with a substitute check makes the warranties in § 229.52(a)(1). As noted in the commentary to § 229.2(ccc), the Check 21 Act contemplates that nonbank persons that receive substitute checks (or representations thereof) from a bank will receive warranties and indemnities with respect to the checks. A reconverting bank that provides a substitute check to its depositor after it has rejected the check submitted for deposit may not have received consideration for the substitute check. In order to prevent banks from being able to transfer a check the bank truncated and then reconverted without providing substitute check warranties, the regulation provides that a bank that rejects a check submitted for deposit but provides its customer with a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) makes the warranties set forth in § 229.52(a)(1) regardless of whether the bank received consideration.
</P>
<P><I>Example.</I> A bank's customer submits a check for deposit at an ATM that captures an image of the check and sends the image electronically to the bank. After reviewing the item, the bank rejects the item submitted for deposit. Instead of providing the original check to its customer, the bank provides a substitute check to its customer. This bank is the reconverting bank with respect to the substitute check and makes the warranties described in § 229.52(a)(1) regardless of whether the bank previously extended credit to its customer. (See commentary to § 229.2(ccc)).
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.52(b) Warranty Recipients
</HD3>
<P>1. A reconverting bank makes the warranties to the person to which it transfers, presents, or returns the substitute check for consideration and to any subsequent recipient that receives either the substitute check or a paper or electronic representation derived from the substitute check. These subsequent recipients could include a subsequent collecting or returning bank, the depositary bank, the drawer, the drawee, the payee, the depositor, and any indorser. The paying bank would be included as a warranty recipient, for example because it would be the drawee of a check or a transferee of a check that is payable through it.
</P>
<P>2. The warranties flow with the substitute check to persons that receive a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check. The warranties do not flow to a person that receives only the original check or a representation of an original check that was not derived from a substitute check. However, a person that initially handled only the original check could become a warranty recipient if that person later receives a returned substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check that was derived from that original check. (See § 229.34(f) regarding claims by a depositary bank that accepts deposit of an original check).
</P>
<P>3. A reconverting bank also makes the warranties to a person to whom the bank transfers a substitute check that the bank has rejected for deposit regardless of whether the bank received consideration.


</P>
<HD2>XXXII. § 229.53 Substitute Check Indemnity 


</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.53(a) Scope of Indemnity
</HD3>
<P>1. Each bank that for consideration transfers, presents, or returns a substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check is responsible for providing the substitute-check indemnity.
</P>
<P>2. The indemnity covers losses due to any subsequent recipient's receipt of the substitute check instead of the original check. The indemnity therefore covers the loss caused by receipt of the substitute check as well as the loss that a bank incurs because it pays an indemnity to another person. A bank that pays an indemnity would in turn have an indemnity claim regardless of whether it received the substitute check or a paper or electronic representation of the substitute check. The indemnity would not apply to a person that handled only the original check or a paper or electronic image of the original check that was not derived from a substitute check.
</P>
<P>3. A reconverting bank also provides the substitute check indemnity to a person to whom the bank transfers a substitute check (or a paper or electronic representation of a substitute check) derived from a check that the bank has rejected for deposit regardless of whether the bank providing the indemnity has received consideration.


</P>
<HD3>B. 229.53(b) Indemnity Amount
</HD3>
<P>1. If a recipient of a substitute check is making an indemnity claim because a bank has breached one of the substitute-check warranties, the recipient can recover any losses proximately caused by that warranty breach.
</P>
<HD2>Examples
</HD2>
<P>a. A drawer discovers that its account has been charged for two different substitute checks that were provided to the drawer and that were associated with the same original check. As a result of this duplicative charge, the paying bank dishonored several subsequently presented checks that it otherwise would have paid and charged the drawer returned-check fees. The payees of the returned checks also charged the drawer returned-check fees. The drawer would have a warranty claim against any of the warranting banks, including its bank, for breach of the warranty described in § 229.52(a)(1)(ii). The drawer also could assert an indemnity claim. Because there is only one original check for any payment transaction, if the collecting bank and presenting bank had collected the original check instead of using a substitute check the bank would have been asked to make only one payment. The drawer could assert its warranty and indemnity claims against the paying bank, because that is the bank with which the drawer has a customer relationship and the drawer has received an indemnity from that bank. The drawer could recover from the indemnifying bank the amount of the erroneous charge, as well as the amount of the returned-check fees charged by both the paying bank and the payees of the returned checks. If the drawer's account were an interest-bearing account, the drawer also could recover any interest lost on the erroneously debited amount and the erroneous returned-check fees. The drawer also could recover its expenditures for representation in connection with the claim. Finally, the drawer could recover any other losses that were proximately caused by the warranty breach.
</P>
<P>b. In the example above, the paying bank that received the duplicate substitute checks also would have a warranty claim against the previous transferor(s) of those substitute checks and could seek an indemnity from that bank (or either of those banks). The indemnifying bank would be responsible for compensating the paying bank for all the losses proximately caused by the warranty breach, including representation expenses and other costs incurred by the paying bank in settling the drawer's claim.
</P>
<P>2. If the recipient of the substitute check does not have a substitute check warranty claim with respect to the substitute check, the amount of the loss the recipient may recover under § 229.53 is limited to the amount of the substitute check, plus interest and expenses. However, the indemnified person might be entitled to additional damages under some other provision of law. 
</P>
<HD3>Examples.
</HD3>
<P>a. A drawer received a substitute check that met all the legal equivalence requirements and for which the drawer was only charged once, but the drawer believed that the underlying original check was a forgery. If the drawer suffered a loss because it could not prove the forgery based on the substitute check, for example because proving the forgery required analysis of pen pressure that could be determined only from the original check, the drawer would have an indemnity claim. However, the drawer would not have a substitute check warranty claim because the substitute check was the legal equivalent of the original check and no person was asked to pay the substitute check more than once. In that case, the amount of the drawer's indemnity under § 229.53 would be limited to the amount of the substitute check, plus interest and expenses. However, the drawer could attempt to recover additional losses, if any, under other law.
</P>
<P>b. As described more fully in the commentary to § 229.53(a) regarding the scope of the indemnity, a paying bank could have an indemnity claim if it paid a legally equivalent substitute check that was created from a fraudulent cashier's check that the paying bank's fraud detection procedures would have caught and that the bank would have returned by its midnight deadline had it received the original check. However, if the substitute check was not subject to a warranty claim (because it met the legal equivalence requirements and there was only one payment request) the paying bank's indemnity would be limited to the amount of the substitute check plus interest and expenses.
</P>
<P>3. The amount of an indemnity would be reduced in proportion to the amount of any loss attributable to the indemnified person's negligence or bad faith. This comparative-negligence standard is intended to allocate liability in the same manner as the comparative-negligence provision of section 229.38(c).
</P>
<P>4. An indemnifying bank may limit the losses for which it is responsible under § 229.53 by producing the original check or a sufficient copy. However, production of the original check or a sufficient copy does not absolve the indemnifying bank from liability claims relating to a warranty the bank has provided under § 229.52 or any other law, including but not limited to subpart C of this part or the U.C.C. 


</P>
<HD3>C. 229.53(c) Subrogation of Rights
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank that pays an indemnity claim is subrogated to the rights of the person it indemnified, to the extent of the indemnity it provided, so that it may attempt to recover that amount from another person based on an indemnity, warranty, or other claim. The person that the bank indemnified must comply with reasonable requests from the indemnifying bank for assistance with respect to the subrogated claim. 
</P>
<HD3>Example.
</HD3>
<P>A paying bank indemnifies a drawer for a substitute check that the drawer alleged was a forgery that would have been detected had the original check instead been presented. The bank that provided the indemnity could pursue its own indemnity claim against the bank that presented the substitute check, could attempt to recover from the forger, or could pursue any claim that it might have under other law. The bank also could request from the drawer any information that the drawer might possess regarding the possible identity of the forger. 


</P>
<HD2>XXXIII. § 229.54 Expedited Recredit for Consumers 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.54(a) Circumstances Giving Rise to a Claim
</HD3>
<P>1. A consumer may make a claim for expedited recredit under this section only for a substitute check that he or she has received and for which the bank charged his or her deposit account. As a result, checks used to access loans, such as credit card checks or home equity line of credit checks, that are reconverted to substitute checks would not give rise to an expedited recredit claim, unless such a check was returned unpaid and the bank charged the consumer's deposit account for the amount of the returned check. In addition, a consumer who received only a statement that contained images of multiple substitute checks per page would not be entitled to make an expedited recredit claim, although he or she could seek redress under other provisions of law, such as § 229.52 or U.C.C. 4-401. However, a consumer who originally received only a statement containing images of multiple substitute checks per page but later received a substitute check, such as in response to a request for a copy of a check shown in the statement, could bring a claim if the other expedited recredit criteria were met. Although a consumer must at some point have received a substitute check to make an expedited recredit claim, the consumer need not be in possession of the substitute check at the time he or she submits the claim.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer must in good faith assert that the bank improperly charged the consumer's account for the substitute check or that the consumer has a warranty claim for the substitute check (or both). The warranty in question could be a substitute-check warranty described in section 229.52 or any other warranty that a bank provides with respect to a check under other law. A consumer could, for example, have a warranty claim under section 229.34(a) or (d), which contain returned-check warranties that are made to the owner of the check.
</P>
<P>3. A consumer's recovery under the expedited recredit section is limited to the amount of his or her loss, up to the amount of the substitute check subject to the claim, plus interest if the consumer's account is an interest-bearing account. The consumer's loss could include fees that resulted from the allegedly incorrect charge, such as bounced check fees that were imposed because the improper charge caused the bank to dishonor subsequently presented checks that it otherwise would have honored. A consumer who suffers a total loss greater than the amount of the substitute check plus interest could attempt to recover the remainder of that loss by bringing warranty, indemnity, or other claim under this subpart or other applicable law. 
</P>
<HD3>Examples.
</HD3>
<P>a. A consumer who received a substitute check believed that he or she wrote the check for $150, but the bank charged his or her account for $1,500. The amount on the substitute check the consumer received is illegible. If the substitute check contained a blurry image of what was a legible original check, the consumer could have a claim for a breach of the legal equivalence warranty in addition to an improper charge claim. Because the amount of the check cannot be determined from the substitute check provided to the consumer, the consumer, if acting in good faith, could assert that the production of the original check or a better copy of the original check is necessary to determine the validity of the claim. The consumer in this case could attempt to recover his or her losses by using the expedited recredit procedure. The consumer's losses recoverable under § 229.54 could include the $1,350 he or she believed was incorrectly charged plus any improperly charged fees associated with that charge, up to $150 (plus foregone interest on the amount of the consumer's loss if the account was an interest-bearing account). The consumer could recover any additional losses, if any, under other law, such as U.C.C. 4-401 and 4-402.
</P>
<P>b. A consumer received a substitute check for which his or her account was charged and believed that the original check from which the substitute was derived was a forgery. The forgery was good enough that analysis of the original check was necessary to verify whether the signature is that of the consumer. Under those circumstances, the consumer, if acting in good faith, could assert that the charge was improper, that he or she therefore had incurred a loss in the amount of the check (plus foregone interest if the account was an interest-bearing account), and that he or she needed the original check to determine the validity of the forgery claim. By contrast, if the signature on the substitute check obviously was forged (for example, if the forger signed a name other than that of the account holder) and there was no other defect with the substitute check, the consumer would not need the original check or a sufficient copy to determine the fact of the forgery and thus would not be able to make an expedited recredit claim under this section. However, the consumer would have a claim under U.C.C. 4-401 if the item was not properly payable.
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.54(b) Procedures for Making Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. The consumer must submit his or her expedited recredit claim to the bank within 40 calendar days of the later of the day on which the bank mailed or delivered, by a means agreed to by the consumer, (1) the periodic account statement containing information concerning the transaction giving rise to the claim, or (2) the substitute check giving rise to the claim. The mailing or delivery of a substitute check could be in connection with a regular account statement, in response to a consumer's specific request for a copy of a check, or in connection with the return of a substitute check to the payee.
</P>
<P>2. Section 229.54(b) contemplates more than one possible means of delivering an account statement or a substitute check to the consumer. The time period for making a claim thus could be triggered by the mailed, in-person, or electronic delivery of an account statement or by the mailed or in-person delivery of a substitute check. In-person delivery would include, for example, making an account statement or substitute check available at the bank for the consumer's retrieval under an arrangement agreed to by the consumer. In the case of a mailed statement or substitute check, the 40-day period should be calculated from the postmark on the envelope. In the case of in-person delivery, the 40-day period should be calculated from the earlier of the calendar day on which delivery occurred or the bank first made the statement or substitute check available for the consumer's retrieval.
</P>
<P>3. A bank must extend the consumer's time for submitting a claim for a reasonable period if the consumer is prevented from submitting his or her claim within 40 days because of extenuating circumstances. Extenuating circumstances could include, for example, the extended travel or illness of the consumer.
</P>
<P>4. For purposes of determining the timeliness of a consumer's actions, a consumer's claim is considered received on the banking day on which the consumer's bank receives a complete claim in person or by telephone or on the banking day on which the consumer's bank receives a letter or e-mail containing a complete claim. (But see paragraphs 9-11 of this section for a discussion of time periods related to oral claims that the bank requires to be put in writing.)
</P>
<P>5. A consumer who makes an untimely claim would not be entitled to recover his or her losses using the expedited recredit procedure. However, he or she still could have rights under other law, such as a warranty or indemnity claim under subpart D, a claim for an improper charge to his or her account under U.C.C. 4-401, or a claim for wrongful dishonor under U.C.C. 4-402.
</P>
<P>6. A consumer's claim must include the reason why the consumer believes that his or her account was charged improperly or why he or she has a warranty claim. A charge could be improper, for example, if the bank charged the consumer's account for an amount different than the consumer believes he or she authorized or charged the consumer more than once for the same check, or if the check in question was a forgery or otherwise fraudulent.
</P>
<P>7. A consumer also must provide a reason why production of the original check or a sufficient copy is necessary to determine the validity of the claim identified by the consumer. For example, if the consumer believed that the bank charged his or her account for the wrong amount, the original check might be necessary to prove this claim if the amount of the substitute check were illegible. Similarly, if the consumer believed that his or her signature had been forged, the original check might be necessary to confirm the forgery if, for example, pen pressure or similar analysis were necessary to determine the genuineness of the signature.
</P>
<P>8. The information that the consumer is required to provide under § 229.54(b)(2)(iv) to facilitate the bank's investigation of the claim could include, for example, a copy of the allegedly defective substitute check or information related to that check, such as the number, amount, and payee.
</P>
<P>9. A bank may accept an expedited recredit claim in any form but could in its discretion require the consumer to submit the claim in writing. A bank that requires a recredit claim to be in writing must inform the consumer of that requirement and provide a location to which such a written claim should be sent. If the consumer attempts to make a claim orally, the bank must inform the consumer at that time of the written notice requirement. A bank that receives a timely oral claim and then requires the consumer to submit the claim in writing may require the consumer to submit the written claim within 10 business days of the bank's receipt of the timely oral claim. If the consumer's oral claim was timely and the consumer's written claim was received within the 10-day period for submitting the claim in writing, the consumer would satisfy the requirement of § 229.54(b)(1) to submit his or her claim within 40 days, even if the bank received the written claim after that 40-day period.
</P>
<P>10. A bank may permit but may not require a consumer to submit a written claim electronically.
</P>
<P>11. If a bank requires a consumer to submit a claim in writing, the bank may compute time periods for the bank's action on the claim from the date that the bank received the written claim. Thus, if a consumer called the bank to make an expedited recredit claim and the bank required the consumer to submit the claim in writing, the time at which the bank must take action on the claim would be determined based on the date on which the bank received the written claim, not the date on which the consumer made the oral claim.
</P>
<P>12. Regardless of whether the consumer's communication with the bank is oral or written, a consumer complaint that does not contain all the elements described in § 229.54(b) is not a claim for purposes of § 229.54. If the consumer attempts to submit a claim but does not provide all the required information, then the bank has a duty to inform the consumer that the complaint does not constitute a claim under § 229.54 and identify what information is missing. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.54(c) Action on Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. If the bank has not determined whether or not the consumer's claim is valid by the end of the 10th business day after the banking day on which the consumer submitted the claim, the bank must by that time recredit the consumer's account for the amount of the consumer's loss, up to the lesser of the amount of the substitute check or $2,500, plus interest if the account is an interest-bearing account. A bank must provide the recredit pending investigation for each substitute check for which the consumer submitted a claim, even if the consumer submitted multiple substitute check claims in the same communication.
</P>
<P>2. A bank that provides a recredit to the consumer, either provisionally or after determining that the consumer's claim is valid, may reverse the amount of the recredit if the bank later determines that the claim in fact was not valid. A bank that reverses a recredit also may reverse the amount of any interest that it has paid on the previously recredited amount. A bank's time for reversing a recredit may be limited by a statute of limitations.
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.54(d) Availability of Recredit
</HD3>
<P>1. The availability of a recredit provided by a bank under § 229.54(c) is governed solely by § 229.54(d) and therefore is not subject to the availability provisions of subpart B. A bank generally must make a recredit available for withdrawal no later than the start of the business day after the banking day on which the bank provided the recredit. However, a bank may delay the availability of up to the first $2,500 that it provisionally recredits to a consumer account under § 229.54(c)(3)(i) if (1) the account is a new account, (2) without regard to the substitute check giving rise to the recredit claim, the account has been repeatedly overdrawn during the six month period ending on the date the bank received the claim, or (3) the bank has reasonable cause to believe that the claim is fraudulent. These first two exceptions are meant to operate in the same manner as the corresponding new account and repeated overdraft exceptions in subpart B, as described in § 229.13(a) and (d) and the commentary thereto regarding application of the exceptions. When a recredit amount for which a bank delays availability contains an interest component, that component also is subject to the delay because it is part of the amount recredited under § 229.54(c)(3)(i). However, interest continues to accrue during the hold period.
</P>
<P>2. Section 229.54(d)(2) describes the maximum period of time that a bank may delay availability of a recredit provided under § 229.54(c). The bank may delay availability under one of the three listed exceptions until the business day after the banking day on which the bank determines that the consumer's claim is valid or the 45th calendar day after the banking day on which the bank received the consumer's claim, whichever is earlier. The only portion of the recredit that is subject to delay under § 229.54(d)(2) is the amount that the bank recredits under § 229.54(c)(3)(i) (including the interest component, if any) pending its investigation of a claim. 
</P>
<HD3>E. 229.54(e) Notices Relating to Consumer Expedited Recredit Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank must notify a consumer of its action regarding a recredit claim no later than the business day after the banking day that the bank makes a recredit, determines a claim is not valid, or reverses a recredit, as appropriate. As provided in § 229.58, a bank may provide any notice required by this section by U.S. mail or by any other means through which the consumer has agreed to receive account information.
</P>
<P>2. A bank that denies the consumer's recredit claim must demonstrate to the consumer that the substitute check was properly charged or that the warranty claim was not valid, such as by explaining the reason that the substitute check charge was proper or the consumer's warranty claim was not valid. For example, if a consumer has claimed that the bank charged its account for an improper amount, the bank denying that claim must explain why it determined that the charged amount was proper.
</P>
<P>3. A bank denying a recredit claim also must provide the original check or a sufficient copy, unless the bank is providing the claim denial notice electronically and the consumer has agreed to receive that type of information electronically. In that case, § 229.58 allows the bank instead to provide an image of the original check or an image of the sufficient copy that the bank would have sent to the consumer had the bank provided the notice by mail.
</P>
<P>4. A bank that relies on information or documents in addition to the original check or sufficient copy when denying a consumer expedited recredit claim also must either provide such information or documents to the consumer or inform the consumer that he or she may request copies of such information or documents. This requirement does not apply to a bank that relies only on the original check or a sufficient copy to make its determination.
</P>
<P>5. Models C-22 through C-25 in appendix C contain model language for each of three notices described in § 229.54(e). A bank may, but is not required to, use the language listed in the appendix. The Check 21 Act does not provide banks that use these models with a safe harbor. However, the Board has published these models to aid banks' efforts to comply with § 229.54(e). 
</P>
<HD3>F. 229.54(f) Recredit Does Not Abrogate Other Liabilities
</HD3>
<P>1. The amount that a consumer may recover under § 229.54 is limited to the lesser of the amount of his or her loss or the amount of the substitute check, plus interest on that amount if his or her account earns interest. However, a consumer's total loss associated with the substitute check could exceed that amount, and the consumer could be entitled to additional damages under other law. For example, if a consumer's loss exceeded the amount of the substitute check plus interest and he or she had both a warranty and an indemnity claim with respect to the substitute check, he or she would be entitled to additional damages under § 229.53 of this subpart. Similarly, if a consumer was charged bounced check fees as a result of an improperly charged substitute check and could not recover all of those fees because of the § 229.54's limitation on recovery, he or she could attempt to recover additional amounts under U.C.C. 4-402. 


</P>
<HD2>XXXIV. § 229.55 Expedited Recredit Procedures for Banks 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.55(a) Circumstances Giving Rise to a Claim
</HD3>
<P>1. This section allows a bank to make an expedited recredit claim under two sets of circumstances: first, because it is obligated to provide a recredit, either to the consumer or to another bank that is obligated to provide a recredit in connection with the consumer's claim; and second, because the bank detected a problem with the substitute check that, if uncaught, could have given rise to a consumer claim.
</P>
<P>2. The loss giving rise to an interbank recredit claim could be the recredit that the claimant bank provided directly to its consumer customer under § 229.54 or a loss incurred because the claimant bank was required to indemnify another bank that provided an expedited recredit to either a consumer or a bank.
</P>
<HD3>Examples.
</HD3>
<P>a. A paying bank charged a consumer's account based on a substitute check that contained a blurry image of a legible original check, and the consumer whose account was charged made an expedited recredit claim against the paying bank because the consumer suffered a loss and needed the original check or a sufficient copy to determine the validity of his or her claim. The paying bank would have a warranty claim against the presenting bank that transferred the defective substitute check to it and against any previous transferring bank(s) that handled that substitute check or another paper or electronic representation of the check. The paying bank therefore would meet each of the requirements necessary to bring an interbank expedited recredit claim.
</P>
<P>b. Continuing with the example in paragraph a, if the presenting bank determined that the paying bank's claim was valid and provided a recredit, the presenting bank would have suffered a loss in the amount of the recredit it provided and could, in turn, make an expedited recredit claim against the bank that transferred the defective substitute check to it. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.55(b) Procedures for Making Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. An interbank recredit claim under this section must be brought within 120 calendar days of the transaction giving rise to the claim. For purposes of computing this period, the transaction giving rise to the claim is the claimant bank's settlement for the substitute check in question.
</P>
<P>2. When estimating the amount of its loss, § 229.55(b)(2)(ii) states that the claimant bank should include “interest if applicable.” The quoted phrase refers to any interest that the claimant bank or a bank that the claimant bank indemnified paid to a consumer who has an interest-bearing account in connection with an expedited recredit under § 229.54.
</P>
<P>3. The information that the claimant bank is required to provide under § 229.55(b)(2)(iv) to facilitate investigation of the claim could include, for example, a copy of any written claim that a consumer submitted under § 229.54 or any written record the bank may have of a claim the consumer submitted orally. The information also could include a copy of the defective substitute check or information relating to that check, such as the number, amount, and payee of the check. However, a claimant bank that provides a copy of the substitute check must take reasonable steps to ensure that the copy is not mistaken for a legal equivalent of the original check or handled for forward collection or return.
</P>
<P>4. The indemnifying bank's right to require a claimant bank to submit a claim in writing and the computation of time from the date of the written submission parallel the corresponding provision in the consumer recredit section (§ 229.54(b)(3)). However, the indemnifying bank also may require the claimant bank to submit a copy of the written or electronic claim submitted by the consumer under that section, if any. 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.55(c) Action on Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. An indemnifying bank that responds to an interbank expedited recredit claim by providing the original check or a sufficient copy of the original check need not demonstrate why that claim or the underlying consumer expedited recredit claim is or is not valid. 


</P>
<HD2>XXXV. § 229.56 Liability 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.56(a) Measure of Damages
</HD3>
<P>1. In general, a person's recovery under this section is limited to the amount of the loss up to the amount of the substitute check that is the subject of the claim, plus interest and expenses (including costs and reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses of representation) related to that substitute check. However, a person that is entitled to an indemnity under § 229.53 because of a breach of a substitute check warranty also may recover under § 229.53 any losses proximately caused by the warranty breach, including interest, costs, wrongfully-charged fees imposed as a result of the warranty breach, reasonable attorney's fees, and other expenses of representation.
</P>
<P>2. A reconverting bank also may be liable under § 229.38 for damages associated with the illegibility of indorsements applied to substitute checks if that illegibility results because the reduction of the original check image and its placement on the substitute check shifted a previously-applied indorsement that, when applied, complied with appendix D. For more detailed discussion of this topic, see § 229.38 and the accompanying commentary. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.56(b) Timeliness of Action
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank's delay beyond the time limits prescribed or permitted by any provision of subpart D is excused if the delay is caused by certain circumstances beyond the bank's control. This parallels the standard of U.C.C. 4-109(b). 
</P>
<HD3>C. 229.56(c) Jurisdiction
</HD3>
<P>1. The Check 21 Act confers subject matter jurisdiction on courts of competent jurisdiction and provides a time limit for civil actions for violations of subpart D. 
</P>
<HD3>D. 229.56(d) Notice of Claims
</HD3>
<P>1. This paragraph is designed to adopt the notice of claim provisions of U.C.C. 4-207(d) and 4-208(e), with an added provision that a timely § 229.54 expedited recredit claim satisfies the generally-applicable notice requirement. The time limit described in this paragraph applies only to notices of warranty and indemnity claims. As provided in § 229.56(c), all actions under § 229.56 must be brought within one year of the date that the cause of action accrues.


</P>
<HD2>XXXVI. Consumer Awareness 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. 229.57(a) General Disclosure Requirement and Content
</HD3>
<P>1. A bank must provide the disclosure required by § 229.57 under two circumstances. First, each bank must provide the disclosure to each of its consumer customers who receives paid checks with his or her account statement. This requirement does not apply if the bank provides with the account statement something other than paid original checks, paid substitute checks, or a combination thereof. For example, this requirement would not apply if a bank provided with the account statement only a document that contained multiple check images per page. Second, a bank also must provide the disclosure when it (a) provides a substitute check to a consumer in response to that consumer's request for a check or check copy or (b) returns a substitute check to a consumer depositor. A bank must provide the disclosure each time it provides a substitute check to a consumer on an occasional basis, regardless of whether the bank previously provided the disclosure to that consumer.
</P>
<P>2. A bank may, but is not required to, use the model disclosure in appendix C-5A to satisfy the disclosure content requirements of this section. A bank that uses the model language is deemed to comply with the disclosure content requirement(s) for which it uses the model language, provided the information in the disclosure accurately describes the bank's policies and practices. A bank also may include in its disclosure additional information relating to substitute checks that is not required by this section.
</P>
<P>3. A bank may, by agreement or at the consumer's request, provide the disclosure required by this section in a language other than English, provided that the bank makes a complete English notice available at the consumer's request. 
</P>
<HD3>B. 229.57(b) Distribution
</HD3>
<P>1. A consumer may request a check or a copy of a check on an occasional basis, such as to prove that he or she made a particular payment. A bank that responds to the consumer's request by providing a substitute check must provide the required disclosure at the time of the consumer's request if feasible. Otherwise, the bank must provide the disclosure no later than the time at which the bank provides a substitute check in response to the consumer's request. It would not be feasible for a bank to provide notice to the consumer at the time of the request if, for example, the bank did not know at the time of the request whether it would provide a substitute check in response to that request, regardless of the form of the consumer's request. It also would not be feasible for a bank to provide notice at the time of the request if the consumer's request was mailed to the bank or made by telephone, even if the bank knew when it received the request that it would provide a substitute check in response. A bank's provision to the consumer of something other a substitute check, such as a photocopy of a check or a statement containing images of multiple substitute checks per page, does not trigger the notice requirement.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer who does not routinely receive paid checks might receive a returned substitute check. For example, a consumer deposits an original check that is payable to him or her into his or her deposit account. The paying bank returns the check unpaid and the depositary bank returns the check to the depositor in the form of a substitute check. A depositary bank that provides a returned substitute check to a consumer depositor must provide the substitute check disclosure at that time. 


</P>
<HD2>XXXVII. Variation by Agreement
</HD2>
<P>Section 229.60 provides that banks involved in an interbank expedited recredit claim under § 229.55 may vary the terms of that section by agreement, but otherwise no person may vary the terms of subpart D by agreement. A bank's decision to provide more generous protections for consumers than this subpart requires, such as by providing consumers additional time to submit expedited claims under § 229.54 under non-exigent circumstances, would not be a variation prohibited by § 229.60.


</P>
<HD2>XXXVIII. Appendix C—Model Availability Policy Disclosures, Clauses, and Notices; and Model Substitute Check Policy Disclosure and Notices 
</HD2>
<HD3>A. Introduction
</HD3>
<P>1. Appendix C contains model disclosure, clauses, and notices that may be used by banks to meet their disclosure and notice responsibilities under the regulation. Banks using the models (except models C-22 through C-25) properly will be deemed in compliance with the regulation's disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>2. Information that must be inserted by a bank using the models is italicized within parentheses in the text of the models. Optional information is enclosed in brackets. 
</P>
<P>3. Banks may make certain changes to the format or content of the models, including deleting material that is inapplicable, without losing the EFA Act's protection from liability for banks that use the models properly. For example, if a bank does not have a cut-off hour prior to it's closing time, or if a bank does not take advantage of the § 229.13 exceptions, it may delete the references to those provisions. Changes to the models may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the models. Acceptable changes include, for example: 
</P>
<P>a. Using “customer” and “bank” instead of pronouns. 
</P>
<P>b. Changing the typeface or size. 
</P>
<P>c. Incorporating certain state law “plain English” requirements. 
</P>
<P>4. Shorter time periods for availability may always be substituted for time periods used in the models. 
</P>
<P>5. Banks may also add related information. For example, a bank may indicate that although funds have been made available to a customer and the customer has withdrawn them, the customer is still responsible for problems with the deposit, such as checks that were deposited being returned unpaid. Or a bank could include a telephone number to be used if a customer has an inquiry regarding a deposit. 
</P>
<P>6. Banks are cautioned against using the models without reviewing their own policies and practices, as well as state and federal laws regarding the time periods for availability of specific types of checks. A bank using the models will be in compliance with the EFA Act and the regulation only if the bank's disclosures correspond to its availability policy. 
</P>
<P>7. Banks that have used earlier versions of the models (such as those models that gave Social Security benefits and payroll payments as examples of preauthorized credits available the day after deposit, or that did not address the cash withdrawal limitation) are protected from civil liability under § 229.21(e). Banks are encouraged, however, to use current versions of the models when reordering or reprinting supplies. 
</P>
<HD3>B. Model Availability Policy and Substitute Check Policy Disclosures, Models C-1 through C-5A
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Models C-1 through C-5 generally.</I> 
</P>
<P>a. Models C-1 through C-5A are models for the availability policy disclosures described in § 229.16 and substitute check policy disclosure described in § 229.57. The models accommodate a variety of availability policies, ranging from next-day availability to holds to statutory limits on all deposits. Model C-3 reflects the additional disclosures discussed in §§ 229.16 (b) and (c) for banks that have a policy of extending availability times on a case-by-case basis. 
</P>
<P>b. As already noted, there are several places in the models where information must be inserted. This information includes the bank's cut-off times, limitations relating to next-day availability, and the first four digits of routing numbers for local banks. In disclosing when funds will be available for withdrawal, the bank must insert the ordinal number (such as first, second, etc.) of the business day after deposit that the funds will become available. 
</P>
<P>c. Models C-1 through C-5A generally do not reflect any optional provisions of the regulation, or those that apply only to certain banks. Instead, disclosures for these provisions are included in Models C-6 through C-11A. A bank using one of the model availability policy disclosures should also consider whether it must incorporate one or more of Models C-6 through C-11A. 
</P>
<P>d. While § 229.10(b) requires next-day availability for electronic payments, Treasury regulations (31 CFR part 210) and ACH association rules require that preauthorized credits (”direct deposits”) be made available on the day the bank receives the funds. Models C-1 through C-5 reflect these rules. Wire transfers, however, are not governed by Treasury or ACH rules, but banks generally make funds from wire transfers available on the day received or on the business day following receipt. Banks should ensure that their disclosures reflect the availability given in most cases for wire transfers. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Model C-1 Next-day availability.</I> A bank may use this model when its policy is to make funds from all deposits available on the first business day after a deposit is made. This model may also be used by banks that provide immediate availability by substituting the word “immediately” in place of “on the first business day after the day we receive your deposit.” 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model C-2 Next-day availability and § 229.13 exceptions.</I> A bank may use this model when its policy is to make funds from all deposits available to its customers on the first business day after the deposit is made, and to reserve the right to invoke the new account and other exceptions in § 229.13. In disclosing that a longer delay may apply, a bank may disclose when funds will generally be available based on when the funds would be available if the deposit were of a nonlocal check. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model C-3 Next-day availability, case-by-case holds to statutory limits, and § 229.13 exceptions.</I> A bank may use this model when its policy, in most cases, is to make funds from all types of deposits available the day after the deposit is made, but to delay availability on some deposits on a case-by-case basis up to the maximum time periods allowed under the regulation. A bank using this model also reserves the right to invoke the exceptions listed in § 229.13. In disclosing that a longer delay may apply, a bank may disclose when funds will generally be available based on when the funds would be available if the deposit were of a nonlocal check. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Model C-4 Holds to statutory limits on all deposits.</I> A bank may use this model when its policy is to impose delays to the full extent allowed under § 229.12 and to reserve the right to invoke the § 229.13 exceptions. In disclosing that a longer delay may apply, a bank may disclose when funds will generally be available based on when the funds would be available if the deposit were of a nonlocal check. Model C-4 uses a chart to show the bank's availability policy for local and nonlocal checks and Model C-5 uses a narrative description. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Model C-5 Holds to statutory limits on all deposits.</I> A bank may use this model when its policy is to impose delays to the full extent allowed under § 229.12 and to reserve the right to invoke the § 229.13 exceptions. In disclosing that a longer delay may apply, a bank may disclose when funds will generally be available based on when the funds would be available if the deposit were of a nonlocal check. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Model C-5A</I> A bank may use this form when it is providing the disclosure to its consumers required by § 229.57 explaining that a substitute check is the legal equivalent of an original check and the circumstances under which the consumer may make a claim for expedited recredit.
</P>
<HD3>C. Model Clauses, Models C-6 Through C-11A 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Models C-6 through C-11A generally.</I> Certain clauses like those in the models must be incorporated into a bank's availability policy disclosure under certain circumstances. The commentary to each clause indicates when a clause similar to the model clause is required. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Model C-6 Holds on other funds (check cashing).</I> A bank that reserves the right to place a hold on funds already on deposit when it cashes a check for a customer, as addressed in § 229.19(e), must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model C-7 Holds on other funds (other account).</I> A bank that reserves the right to place a hold on funds in an account of the customer other than the account into which the deposit is made, as addressed in § 229.19(e), must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model C-8 Appendix B availability (nonlocal checks).</I> A bank in a check processing region where the availability schedules for certain nonlocal checks have been reduced, as described in appendix B of Regulation CC, must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. Banks using Model C-5 may insert this clause at the conclusion of the discussion titled “Nonlocal checks.” 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Model C-9 Automated teller machine deposits (extended holds).</I> A bank that reserves the right to delay availability of deposits at nonproprietary ATMs until the fifth business day following the date of deposit, as permitted by § 229.12(f), must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. A bank must choose among the alternative language based on how it chooses to differentiate between proprietary and nonproprietary ATMs, as required under § 229.16(b)(5). 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Model C-10 Cash withdrawal limitation.</I> A bank that imposes cash withdrawal limitations under § 229.12 must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. Banks reserving the right to impose the cash withdrawal limitation and using Model C-3 should disclose that funds may not be available until the sixth (rather than fifth) business day in the first paragraph under the heading “Longer Delays May Apply.” 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Model C-11 Credit union interest payment policy.</I> A credit union subject to the notice requirement of § 229.14(b)(2) must incorporate this type of clause in its availability policy disclosure. This model clause is only an example of a hypothetical policy. Credit unions may follow any policy for accrual provided the method of accruing interest is the same for cash and check deposits. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Model C-11A Availability of funds deposited at other locations.</I> A clause similar to Model C-11A should be used if a bank bases the availability of funds on the location where the funds are deposited (for example, at a contractual or other branch located in a different check processing region). Similarly, a clause similar to Model C-11A should be used if a bank distinguishes between local and non-local checks (for example, a bank using model availability policy disclosure C-4 or C-5), and accepts deposits in more than one check processing region. 
</P>
<HD3>D. Model Notices, Models C-12 through C-25
</HD3>
<P><I>1. Models C-12 through C-25 generally.</I> Models C-12 through C-25 provide models of the various notices required by the regulation. A bank that cashes a check and places a hold on funds in an account of the customer (see § 229.19(e)) should modify the model hold notice accordingly. For example, the bank could replace the word “deposit” with the word “transaction” and could add the phrase “or cashed” after the word “deposited.” 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Model C-12 Exception hold notice.</I> This model satisfies the written notice required under § 229.13(g) when a bank places a hold based on a § 229.13 exception. If a hold is being placed on more than one check in a deposit, each check need not be described, but if different reasons apply, each reason must be indicated. A bank may use the actual date when funds will be available for withdrawal rather than the number of the business day following the day of deposit. A bank must incorporate in the notice the material set out in brackets if it imposes overdraft or returned check fees after invoking the reasonable cause exception under § 229.13(e). 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model C-13 Reasonable cause hold notice.</I> This notice satisfies the written notice required under § 229.13(g) when a bank invokes the reasonable cause exception under § 229.13(e). The notice provides the bank with a list of specific reasons that may be given for invoking the exception. If a hold is being placed on more than one check in a deposit, each check must be described separately, and if different reasons apply, each reason must be indicated. A bank may disclose its reason for doubting collectibility by checking the appropriate reason on the model. If the “Other” category is checked, the reason must be given. A bank may use the actual date when funds will be available for withdrawal rather than the number of the business day following the day of deposit. A bank must incorporate in the notice the material set out in brackets if it imposes overdraft or returned check fees after invoking the reasonable cause exception under § 229.13(e). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model C-14 One-time notice for large deposit and redeposited check exception holds.</I> This model satisfies the notice requirements of § 229.13(g)(2) concerning nonconsumer accounts. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Model C-15 One-time notice for repeated overdraft exception hold.</I> This model satisfies the notice requirements of § 229.13(g)(3). 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Model C-16 Case-by-case hold notice.</I> This model satisfies the notice required under § 229.16(c)(2) when a bank with a case-by-case hold policy imposes a hold on a deposit. This notice does not require a statement of the specific reason for the hold, as is the case when a § 229.13 exception hold is placed. A bank may specify the actual date when funds will be available for withdrawal rather than the number of the business day following the day of deposit when funds will be available. A bank must incorporate in the notice the material set out in brackets if it imposes overdraft fees after invoking a case-by-case hold. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Model C-17 Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits and Model C-18 Notice at locations where employees accept consumer deposits (case-by-case holds).</I> These models satisfy the notice requirement of § 229.18(b). Model C-17 reflects an availability policy of holds to statutory limits on all deposits, and Model C-18 reflects a case-by-case availability policy. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Model C-19 Notice at automated teller machines.</I> This model satisfies the ATM notice requirement of § 229.18(c)(1). 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Model C-20 Notice at automated teller machines (delayed receipt).</I> This model satisfies the ATM notice requirement of § 229.18(c)(2) when receipt of deposits at off-premises ATMs is delayed under § 229.19(a)(4). It is based on collection of deposits once a week. If collections occur more or less frequently, the description of when deposits are received must be adjusted accordingly. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Model C-21 Deposit slip notice.</I> This model satisfies the notice requirements of § 229.18(a) for deposit slips. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Models C-22 through C-25 generally.</I> Models C-22 through C-25 provide models for the various notices required when a consumer who receives substitute checks makes an expedited recredit claim under § 229.54 for a loss related to a substitute check. The Check 21 Act does not provide banks that use these models with a safe harbor. However, the Board has published these models to aid banks' efforts to comply with § 229.54(e).
</P>
<P>12. <I>Model C-22 Valid Claim Refund Notice.</I> A bank may use this model when crediting the entire amount or the remaining amount of a consumer's expedited recredit claim after determining that the consumer's claim is valid. This notice could be used when the bank provides the consumer a full recredit based on a valid claim determination within ten days of the receipt of the consumer's claim or when the bank recredits the remaining amount of a consumer's expedited recredit claim by the 45th calendar day after receiving the consumer's claim, as required under § 229.54(e)(1).
</P>
<P>13. <I>Model C-23 Provisional Refund Notice.</I> A bank may use this model when providing a full or partial expedited recredit to a consumer pending further investigation of the consumer's claim, as required under § 229.54(e)(1).
</P>
<P>14. <I>Model C-24 Denial Notice.</I> A bank may use this model when denying a claim for an expedited recredit under § 229.54(e)(2).
</P>
<P>15. <I>Model C-25 Reversal Notice.</I> A bank may use this model when reversing an expedited recredit that was credited to a consumer's account under § 229.54(e)(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. CC, 60 FR 51672, Oct. 3, 1995, as amended by Reg. CC, 62 FR 13816, Mar. 24, 1997; 64 FR 59613, Nov. 3, 1999; 68 FR 52078, Sept. 2, 2003; 68 FR 53672, Sept. 12, 2003; 69 FR 47317, Aug. 4, 2004; 70 FR 71225, Nov. 28, 2005; 82 FR 27585, June 15, 2017; 83 FR 46853, Sept. 17, 2018; 84 FR 31697, July 3, 2019; 89 FR 43739, May 20, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:3.0.1.1.9.6.8.1.45" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 229—Official Board Interpretations; Preemption Determinations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Uniform Commercial Code, Section 4-213(5)
</HD2>
<P>Section 4-213(5) of the Uniform Commercial Code (“U.C.C.”) provides that money deposited in a bank is available for withdrawal as of right at the opening of business of the banking day after deposit. Although the language “deposited in a bank” is unclear, arguably it is broader than the language “made in person to an employee of the depositary bank”, which conditions the next-day availability of cash under Regulation CC (§ 229.10(a)(1)). Under Regulation CC, deposits of cash that are not made in person to an employee of the depositary bank must be made available by the second business day after the banking day of deposit (§ 229.10(a)(2)). Therefore, this provision of the U.C.C. may call for the availability of certain cash deposits in a shorter time than provided in Regulation CC.
</P>
<P>This provision of the U.C.C., however, is subject to Section 4-103(1), which provides, in part, that “the effect of the provisions of this Article may be varied by agreement * * *.” (The Regulation CC funds availability requirements may not be varied by agreement.) U.C.C. Section 4-213(5) supersedes the Regulation CC provision in § 229.10(a)(2), but a depositary bank may not agree with its customer under section 4-103(1) of the Code to extend availability beyond the time periods provided in § 229.10(a) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD2>California
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC preempt the provisions of California law concerning availability of funds. This preemption determination specifies those provisions of the California funds availability law that supersede the Act and Regulation CC. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>California has four separate sets of regulations establishing maximum availability schedules. The regulations applicable to commercial banks and branches of foreign banks located in California (Cal. Admin. Code tit. 10, §§ 10.190401-10.190402) were promulgated by the Superintendent of Banks. The regulations applicable to savings banks and savings and loan associations (Cal. Admin. Code tit. 10, §§ 106.200-106.202) were adopted by the Savings and Loan Commissioner. The regulations applicable to credit unions (Cal. Admin. Code tit. 10, section 901) and to industrial loan companies (Cal. Admin. Code tit. 10, section 1101) were adopted by the Commissioner of Corporations.
</P>
<P>All the regulations were adopted pursuant to California Financial Code section 866.5 and California Commercial Code section 4213(4)(a), under which the appropriate state regulatory agency for each depository institution must issue administrative regulations to define a reasonable time for permitting customers to draw on items received for deposit in the customer's account. California Financial Code section 867 also establishes availability periods for funds deposited by cashier's check, certified check, teller's check, or depository check under certain circumstances. Finally, California Financial Code section 866.2 establishes disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>The Board's determination with respect to these California laws and regulations governing the funds availability requirements applicable to depository institutions in California are as follows.
</P>
<HD3>Commercial Banks and Branches of Foreign Banks
</HD3>
<HD3>Coverage 
</HD3>
<P>The California State Banking Department regulations, which apply to California state commercial banks, California national banks, and California branch offices of foreign banks, provide that a depositary bank shall make funds deposited into a deposit account available for withdrawal as provided in Regulation CC with certain exceptions. The funds availability schedules in Regulation CC apply only to <I>accounts</I> as defined in Regulation CC, which generally consist of transaction accounts. The California funds availability law and regulations apply to accounts as defined by Regulation CC as well as savings accounts (other than time accounts), as defined in the Board's Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(d)). (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC in certain circumstances.) 
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules 
</HD3>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> Regulation CC provides that, until September 1, 1990, nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal by the seventh business day after the banking day of deposit, except for certain nonlocal checks listed in appendix B-1, which must be made available within a shorter time (by the fifth business day following deposit for those California checks listed). Under the temporary schedule in the California regulations, a depositary bank with a four-digit routing symbol of 1210 (“1210 bank”) or of 1220 (“1220 bank”) that receives for deposit a check drawn on a nonlocal, in-state commercial bank or foreign bank branch 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> must make the funds available for withdrawal by the fourth business day after the day of deposit. The California regulations provide that 1210 and 1220 banks must make deposited checks drawn on nonlocal in-state thrifts (defined as savings and loan associations, savings banks, and credit unions) available by the fifth business day after deposit. In addition, California law provides that all other depositary banks must make deposited checks drawn on a nonlocal in-state commercial bank or foreign bank branch available by the fifth business day after deposit and checks drawn on nonlocal in-state thrifts available by the sixth business day after deposit. To the extent that these schedules provide for shorter holds than Regulation CC and its appendix B-1, the state schedules supersede the federal schedules. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> For example, the California four-day schedule that applies to checks drawn on in-state nonlocal commercial banks or foreign bank branches and deposited in a 1210 or 1220 bank would be shorter than and would supersede the federal schedules. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The California regulation uses the term <I>paying bank</I> when describing the institution on which these checks are drawn, but does not define <I>paying bank</I> or <I>bank.</I> Regulation CC's definitions of <I>paying bank</I> and <I>bank</I> include savings institutions and credit unions as well as commercial banks and branches of foreign banks. However, because the California regulation makes separate provisions for checks drawn on savings institutions and credit unions, the Board concludes that the term <I>paying bank,</I> as used in the California regulation, includes only commercial banks and foreign bank branches.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Appendix B-1 of Regulation CC provides that the federal schedules will be the same as the California schedules (5 days) in the following cases: A depositary bank bearing a 1210 routing number receiving for deposit checks bearing a 3220 or a 3223 routing number, and a depositary bank bearing a 1220 routing number receiving for deposit checks bearing a 3210 routing number. In the cases where federal and state law are the same, the state law is not preempted by, nor does it supersede, the federal law.</P></FTNT>
<P>The California regulations do not specify whether the state schedules apply to deposits of checks at nonproprietary ATMs. Under the temporary schedules in Regulation CC, deposits at nonproprietary ATMs must be made available for withdrawal by the seventh business day following deposit. To the extent that the California schedules provide for shorter availability for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs, they would supersede the temporary schedule in Regulation CC for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs specified in § 229.11(d). 
</P>
<P><I>Permanent schedule.</I> Regulation CC provides that, as of September 1, 1990, nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal by the fifth business day after the banking day of deposit. Under the permanent schedule in the California regulations, a depositary bank with a four-digit routing symbol of 1210 or of 1220 that receives for deposit a check drawn on a nonlocal, in-state commercial bank or foreign bank branch must make the funds available for withdrawal by the fourth business day after the day of deposit. These state schedules provide for shorter hold periods than and thus supersede the federal schedules. 
</P>
<P><I>Second-day availability.</I> Section 867 of the California Financial Code requires depository institutions to make funds deposited by cashier's check, teller's check, certified check, or depository check available for withdrawal on the second business day following deposit, if certain conditions are met. The Regulation CC next-day availability requirement for cashier's checks and teller's checks applies only to those checks issued to a customer of the bank or acquired from the bank for remittance purposes. To the extent that the state second-day availability requirement applies to cashier's and teller's checks issued to a non-customer of the bank for other than remittance purposes, the state two-day requirement supersedes the federal local and nonlocal schedules. 
</P>
<P><I>Availability at start of day.</I> The California regulations do not specify when during the day funds must be made available for withdrawal. Section 229.19(b) of Regulation CC provides that funds must be made available at the start of the business day. In those cases where federal and state law provide for holds for the same number of days, to the extent that the California regulations allow funds to be made available later in the day than does Regulation CC, the federal law would preempt state law. 
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the availability schedules.</I> Under the state preemption standards of Regulation CC (see § 229.20(c) and accompanying Commentary), for deposits subject to the state availability schedules, a state exception may be used to extend the state availability schedule up to the federal availability schedule. Once the deposit is held up to the federal availability schedule limit under a state exception, the depositary bank may further extend the hold under any federal exception that can be applied to the deposit. If no state exceptions exist, then no exceptions holds may be placed on deposits covered by state schedules. Thus, to the extent that California law provides for exceptions to the California schedules that supersede Regulation CC, those exceptions may be applied in order to extend the state availability schedules up to the federal availability schedules or such later time as is permitted by a federal exception. 
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures 
</HD3>
<P>California law (Cal. Fin. Code § 866.2) requires depository institutions to provide written disclosures of their general availability policies to potential customers prior to opening any deposit account. The law also requires that preprinted deposit slips and ATM deposit envelopes contain a conspicuous summary of the general policy. Finally, the law requires depository institutions to provide specific notice of the time the customer may withdraw funds deposited by check or similar instrument into a deposit account if the funds are not available for immediate withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>Section 229.20(c)(2) of Regulation CC provides that inconsistency may exist when a state law provides for disclosures or notices concerning funds availability relating to accounts. California Financial Code § 866.2 requires disclosures that differ from those required by Regulation CC and, therefore, is preempted to the extent that it applies to <I>accounts</I> as defined in Regulation CC. The state law continues to apply to savings accounts and other accounts not governed by Regulation CC disclosure requirements. 
</P>
<HD3>Savings Institutions
</HD3>
<HD3>Coverage 
</HD3>
<P>The California Department of Savings and Loan regulations, which apply to California savings and loan associations and California savings banks, provide that a depositary bank shall make funds deposited into a transaction or non-transaction account available for withdrawal as provided in Regulation CC. The funds availability schedules in Regulation CC apply only to <I>accounts</I> as defined in Regulation CC, which generally consist of transaction accounts. The California funds availability law and regulations apply to accounts as defined by Regulation CC as well as savings accounts as defined in the Board's Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(d)). (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC in certain circumstances.) 
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules 
</HD3>
<P><I>Second-day availability.</I> Section 867 of the California Financial Code requires depository institutions to make funds deposited by cashier's check, teller's check, certified check, or depository check available for withdrawal on the second business day following deposit, if certain conditions are met. The Regulation CC next-day availability requirement for cashier's checks and teller's checks applies only to those checks issued to a customer of the bank or acquired from the bank for remittance purposes. To the extent that the state second-day availability requirement applies to cashier's and teller's checks issued to a non-customer of the bank for other than remittance purposes, the state two-day requirement supersedes the federal local and nonlocal schedules. 
</P>
<P><I>Temporary and permanent schedules.</I> Other than the provisions of Section 867 discussed above, California law incorporates the Regulation CC availability requirements with respect to deposits to accounts covered by Regulation CC. Because the state requirements are consistent with the federal requirements, the California regulation is not preempted by, nor does it supersede, the federal law. 
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures 
</HD3>
<P>California law (Cal. Fin. Code § 866.2) requires depository institutions to provide written disclosures of their general availability policies to potential customers prior to opening any deposit account. The law also requires that preprinted deposit slips and ATM deposit envelopes contain a conspicuous summary of the general policy. Finally, the law requires depository institutions to provide specific notice of the time the customer may withdraw funds deposited by check or similar instrument into a deposit account if the funds are not available for immediate withdrawal. Section 229.20(c)(2) of Regulation CC provides that inconsistency may exist when a state law provides for disclosures or notices concerning funds availability relating to accounts. To the extent that California Financial Code § 866.2 requires disclosures that differ from those required by Regulation CC and apply to <I>accounts</I> as defined in Regulation CC (generally, transaction accounts), the California law is preempted by Regulation CC. 
</P>
<P>The Department of Savings and Loan regulations provide that for those non-transaction accounts covered by state law but not by federal law, disclosures in accordance with Regulation CC will be deemed to comply with the state law disclosure requirements. To the extent that the Department of Savings and Loan regulations permit reliance on Regulation CC disclosures for transaction accounts and to the extent the state regulations survive the preemption of California Financial Code § 866.2, they are not preempted by, nor do they supersede, the federal law. The state law continues to apply to savings accounts and other non-transaction accounts not governed by Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<HD3>Credit Unions and Industrial Loan Companies
</HD3>
<P>Each credit union and federally-insured industrial loan company that maintains an office in California for the acceptance of deposits must make funds deposited by check available for withdrawal in accordance with the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Availability
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit Union
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Industrial Loan Company
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100 or less checks; U.S. Treasury checks; state/local gov't checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1st day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1st day
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On us checks; cashier's/certifies/teller's/depository checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd day
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-state checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6th day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6th day
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">out-of-state checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10th day</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12th day
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> These time periods are stated in terms of availability for withdrawal not later than the Xth business day following the banking day of deposit to facilitate comparison with Regulation CC. State regulations are stated in terms of availability at the start of the business day subsequent to the number of days specified in the regulation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The California law and regulations govern the availability of funds to “demand deposits, negotiable order of withdrawal draft accounts, savings deposits subject to automatic transfers, share draft accounts, and all savings deposits and share accounts, other than time deposits.” (California Financial Code section 886(b)) The federal preemption of state funds availability laws only applies to <I>accounts</I> subject to Regulation CC, which generally includes transaction accounts. Thus, the California funds availability regulations continue to apply to deposits in savings and other accounts (such as accounts in which the account-holder is another bank) that are no <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<P>The California law applies to any <I>Item</I> (California Financial Code section 866.5 and California Commercial Code section 4213(4)(a)). The California Commercial Code defines <I>item</I> to mean <I>any instrument for the payment of money even though it is not negotiable * * *</I> (Cal. Com. Code section 4104(g)). This term is broader in scope than the definition of <I>check</I> in the Act and Regulation CC. The Commissioner's regulations, however, define the term <I>item</I> to include checks, negotiable orders of withdrawal, share drafts, warrants, and money orders. As limited by the state regulations, the state law applies only to instruments that are also <I>checks</I> as defined in § 229.2(k) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules
</HD3>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> The California regulations provide that in-state nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal not later than the sixth business day following deposit. This time period is shorter than the seventh business day availability required for nonlocal checks under § 229.11(c) of Regulation CC, although it is not shorter than the schedules for nonlocal checks set forth in § 229.11(c)(2) and appendix B-1 of Regulation CC. Thus, the state scheduled for in-state nonlocal checks supersede the federal schedule to the extent that they apply to an item payable by a California institution that is defined as a nonlocal check under Regulation CC, and is not subject to reduced schedules under § 229.11(c)(2) and appendix B-1.
</P>
<P>Under the California regulations, credit unions and industrial loan companies must provide next-day availability to first-indorsed items issued by any federally-insured institution. This regulatory requirement, however, has been superseded by section 867 of the California Financial Code, which requires depository institutions to make funds deposited by cashier's check, teller's check, certified checks, or depository check available for withdrawal on the second business day following deposit, if certain conditions are met. This requirement became effective January 1, 1988.
</P>
<P>The Regulation CC next-day availability requirement for cashier's checks and teller's checks applies only to those checks issued for remittance purposes. To the extent that the state second business day availability requirement applies to cashier's and teller's checks issued for other than remittance purposes, the state two-day requirement supersedes the federal local and nonlocal schedules.
</P>
<P>The California regulations do not specify whether they apply to deposits of checks at nonproprietary ATMs. Under the temporary schedule in Regulation CC, deposits at nonproprietary ATMs must be made available for withdrawal at the start of the seventh business day after deposit. To the extent that the California schedules provide for shorter availability for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs, they would supersede the temporary schedule in Regulation CC for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs specified in § 229.11(d).
</P>
<P><I>Permanent schedule.</I> Under the California regulations, credit unions and industrial loan companies must provide next-day availability to first-indorsed items issued by any federally-insured institution. This regulatory requirement, however, has been superseded by section 867 of the California Financial Code, which requires depository institutions to make funds deposited by cashier's check, teller's check, certified check, or depository check available for withdrawal on the second business day following deposit, if certain conditions are met. This requirement became effective January 1, 1988.
</P>
<P>The Regulation CC next-day availability requirement for cashier's and teller's checks applies only to those checks issued for remittance purposes. To the extent that the state second business day availability requirement applies to cashier's and teller's checks issued for other than remittance purposes, the state two-day requirement supersedes the federal local and nonlocal schedules.
</P>
<P><I>Next-day availability.</I> Credit unions and industrial loan companies in California are required to give next-day availability to items drawn by the State of California or any of its departments, agencies, or political subdivisions. California law supersedes the fedeal law in that the state law does not condition next-day availability on receipt at a staffed teller station or use of a special deposit slip.
</P>
<P>California credit unions and industrial loan companies must provide second business day availability to checks drawn on the depositary bank. Regulation CC requires next-day availability for checks deposited in a branch of the depositary bank and drawn on the same or another branch of the same bank if both branches are located in the same state or the same check processing region. Thus, generally, the Regulation CC rule for availability of on us checks preempts the California regulations. To the extent, however, that an on us check is (1) drawn on an out-of-state branch of the depositary bank that is not in the same check processing region as the branch in which it was deposited, or (2) deposited at an off-premises ATM or another facility of the depositary bank that is not considered a branch under federal law, the state regulation supersedes the Regulation CC availability requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the availability schedules.</I> California law provides exceptions to the state availability schedules for large deposits, new accounts, repeated overdrafters, doubtful collectibility, foreign items, and emergency conditions. In all cases where the federal availability schedule preempts the state schedule, only the federal exceptions will apply. For deposits that are covered by the state availability schedule (e.g., in-state nonlocal checks under the temporary schedule; cashier's or teller's checks that are not deposited with a special deposit slip or at a staff teller station), the state exceptions may be used to extend the state availability schedule up to the federal availability schedule. Once the deposit is held up to the federal availability limit under a state exception, the depositary bank may further extend the hold under any federal exception that can be applied to the deposit. Any time a depositary bank invokes an exception to extend a hold beyond the time periods otherwise permitted by law, it must give notice of the extended hold to its customer in accordance with § 229.13(g) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<P><I>Business day/banking day.</I> The definitions of <I>business day</I> and <I>banking day</I> in the California regulations are preempted by the Regulation CC definition of those terms. Thus, for determining the permissible hold under the California schedules that supersede the Regulation CC schedule, deposits are considered made on the specified number of <I>business days</I> following the <I>banking day</I> of deposit.
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>California law (Cal. Fin. Code section 866.2) requires depository institutions to provide written disclosures of their general availability policies to potential customers prior to opening any deposit account. The law also requires that preprinted deposit slips and ATM deposit envelopes contain a conspicuous summary of the general policy. Finally, the law requires a depository institution to provide specific notice of the time the customer may withdraw funds deposited by check or similar instrument into a deposit account if the funds are not available for immediate withdrawal.
</P>
<P>Section 229.20(c)(2) of Regulation CC provides that inconsistency may exist when a state law provides for disclosures or notices concerning funds availability relating to accounts. California Financial Code section 866.2 requires disclosures that differ from those required by Regulation CC, and therefore is preempted to the extent that it applies to <I>accounts</I> as defined in Regulation CC. The state law continues to apply to savings accounts and other accounts not governed by Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<HD2>Connecticut
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC, preempt provisions of Connecticut law relating to the availability of funds. This preemption determination specifies those provisions of the Connecticut funds availability law that supersede the Act and Regulation CC. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>In 1987, Connecticut amended its statute governing funds availability (Conn. Gen. Stat. section 36-9v), which requires Connecticut depository institutions to make funds deposited in a checking, time, interest, or savings account available for withdrawal with specified periods.
</P>
<P>Generally, the Connecticut statute, as amended, provides that items deposited in a checking, time, interest, or savings account at a depository institution must be available for withdrawal in accordance with the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="03">Availability</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On us checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd day
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-state checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4th day
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Out-of-state checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6th day</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Exceptions to the schedules are provided for items received for deposit for the purpose of opening an account and for items that the depositary bank has reason to believe will not clear. The Connecticut statute also requires availability policy disclosures to depositors in the form of written notices and notices posted conspicuously at each branch.
</P>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The Connecticut statute governs the availability of funds deposited in savings and time accounts, as well as <I>accounts</I> as defined in § 229.2(a) of Regulation CC. The federal preemption of state funds availability requirements only applies to <I>accounts</I> subject to Regulation CC, which generally consist of trasaction accounts. Regulation CC does not affect the Connecticut statute to the extent that the state law applies to deposits in savings and other accounts (including transaction accounts where the account holder is a bank, foreign bank or the U.S. Treasury) that are not <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC, in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<P>The Connecticut statute applies to <I>items</I> deposited in accounts. This term encompasses instruments that are not defined as <I>checks</I> in Regulation CC (§ 229.2(k)), such as nonnegotiable instruments, and are therefore not subject to Regulation CC's provisions governing funds availability. Those items that are subject to Connecticut law but are not subject to Regulation CC will continue to be covered by the state availability schedules and exceptions.
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules
</HD3>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> Connecticut law provides that certain checks that are nonlocal under Regulation CC must be available in a shorter time (sixth business day after deposit for checks payable by depository institutions not located in Connecticut) than under the federal regulation (seventh business day after deposit under the temporary schedule for nonlocal checks). Accordingly, the Connecticut law supersedes Regulation CC with respect to nonlocal checks (other than checks covered by appendix B-1) deposited in <I>accounts</I> until the federal permanent availability schedules take effect on September 1, 1990.
</P>
<P>The Connecticut statute does not specify whether it applies to deposits of checks at nonproprietary ATMs. Under the temporary schedule in Regulation CC, deposits at nonproprietary ATMs must be made available for withdrawal at the start of the seventh business day after deposit. To the extent that the Connecticut schedules provide for shorter availability for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs, they would supersede the temporary schedule in Regulation CC for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs specified in § 229.11(d).
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the availability schedule.</I> The Connecticut law provides exceptions for items received for deposit for the purpose of opening new accounts and for items that the depositary bank has reason to believe will not clear. In all cases where the federal availability schedule preempts the state schedule, only the federal exceptions will apply. For deposits that are covered by the state availability schedule (e.g., nonlocal out-of-state checks under the temporary schedule), the state exceptions may be used to extend the state availability schedule (of six business days) to meet the federal availability schedule (of seven business days). Once the deposit is held up to the federal availability schedule limit under a state exception, the depositary bank may further extend the hold under any federal exception that can be applied to the deposit. Any time a depositary bank invokes an exception to extend a hold beyond the time periods otherwise permitted by law, it must give notice of the extended hold to its customer, in accordance with § 229.13(g) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The Connecticut statute (Conn. Gen. Stat. Section 36-9v(b)) requires written notice to depositors of an institution's check hold policy and requires a notice of the policy to be posted in each branch.
</P>
<P>Regulation CC preempts state disclosure requirements concerning funds availability that relate to <I>accounts</I> that are inconsistent with the federal requirements. The state requriements are different from, and therefore inconsistent with, the federal disclosure rules. (§ 229.20(c)(2)). Thus, the Connecticut statute is preempted by Regulation CC to the extent that these disclosure provisions apply to <I>accounts</I> as defined by Regulation CC. The Connecticut disclosure rules would continue to apply to accounts, such as savings and time accounts, not governed by the Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<HD2>Illinois
</HD2>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act and subpart B, and, in connection therewith, subpart A, of Regulation CC, preempt provisions of Illinois law relating to the availability of funds. Section 4-213(5) of the Uniform Commercial Code as adopted in Illinois (Illinois Revised Statutes Chapter 26, paragraph 4-213(5), enacted July 26, 1988) provides that:
</P>
<P>Time periods after which deposits must be available for withdrawal shall be determined by the provisions of the federal Expedited Funds Availability Act (Title VI of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987) and the regulations promulgated by the Federal Reserve Board for the implementation of that Act.
</P>
<P>Section 4-213(5) of the Illinois law does not supersede Regulation CC; and, because this provision of Illinois law does not permit funds to be made available for withdrawal in a longer period of time than required under the Act and Regulation, it is not preempted by Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD2>Maine
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC, preempt the provisions of Maine law concerning the availability of funds. This preemption determination addresses the relation of the Act and Regulation CC to the Maine funds availability law. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>In 1985, Maine adopted a statute governing funds availability (Title 9-B MRSA section 241(5)), which requires Maine financial institutions to make funds deposited in a transaction account, savings account, or time account available for withdrawal within a reasonable period. The Maine statute gives the Superintendent of Banking for the State of Maine the authority to promulgate rules setting forth time limitations and disclosure requirements governing funds availability.
</P>
<P>The Superintendent of Banking issued regulations implementing the Maine funds availability statute, effective July 1, 1987 (Regulation 18(IV)), and adopted amendments to this regulation, effective September 1, 1988. Under the revised regulation, funds deposited to any deposit account in a Maine financial institution must be made available for withdrawal in accordance with the Act and Regulation CC (Regulation 18-IV(A)(1)). The state regulation provides that an institution's funds availability policies for accounts subject to Regulation CC be disclosed in a manner consistent with the Regulation CC requirements. Funds availability policies for accounts not subject to Regulation CC must be disclosed in accordance with the state regulation (Regulation 18-IV(A)(2)).
</P>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The Maine law and regulation govern the availability of funds to any deposit account, as defined in the Board's Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(a)). This coverage is broader than the <I>accounts</I> covered in Regulation CC. The Maine law continues to apply to all deposit accounts, including those that are not accounts under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC, in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules and Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The Maine regulation incorporates the Regulation CC availability and disclosure requirements with respect to deposits to accounts covered by Regulation CC. Because the state requirements are consistent with the federal requirements, the Maine regulation is not preempted by, nor does it supersede, the federal law.
</P>
<HD2>Massachusetts
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC, preempt provisions of Massachusetts law relating to the availability of funds. This preemption determination addresses the relationship of the Act and Regulation CC to the Massachusetts funds availability law. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>In 1988, Massachusetts amended its statute governing funds availability (Mass. Gen. L. ch. 167D, section 35), to require Massachusetts banking institutions to make funds available for withdrawal and disclose their availability policies in accordance with the Act and Regulation CC. The Massachusetts law, however, provides that “local originating depository institution” is to be defined as any originating depository institution located in the Commonwealth.
</P>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The Massachusetts statute governs the availability of funds deposited in “any demand deposit, negotiable order of withdrawal account, savings deposit, share account or other asset account.” Regulation CC applies only to <I>accounts</I> as defined in § 229.2(a). Regulation CC does not affect the Massachusetts statute to the extent that the state law applies to deposits in savings and other accounts (including transaction accounts where the account holder is a bank, foreign bank, or the U.S. Treasury) that are not <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC, in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules
</HD3>
<P>The Massachusetts definition of <I>local originating depository institution</I> (local paying bank in Regulation CC terminology) requires that in-state checks that are nonlocal checks under Regulation CC be made available in accordance with the Regulation CC local schedule. The Massachusetts law supersedes Regulation CC under the temporary and permanent schedule with respect to nonlocal checks payable by banks located in Massachusetts and deposited into <I>accounts.</I> Regulation CC preempts the Massachusetts law, however, to the extent the state law does not define banks located outside of Massachusetts, but in the same check processing region as the paying bank, as <I>local originating depository institutions.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The Massachusetts regulation incorporates the Regulation CC disclosure requirements with respect to both accounts covered by Regulation CC and savings and other accounts not governed by the federal regulation. Because the state requirements are consistent with the federal requirements, the Massachusetts regulation is not preempted by, nor does it supersede, the federal law. The Massachusetts disclosure rules would continue to apply to accounts not governed by the Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<HD2>New Jersey
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC preempt the provisions of New Jersey law concerning disclosure of a bank's funds availability policy. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>New Jersey does not have a law or regulation establishing the maximum time periods within which funds deposited by check or electronic payment must be made available for withdrawal. New Jersey does, however, have regulations concerning the disclosure of a banking institution's availability policy (N.J.A.C. 3:1-15.1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>New Jersey law requires every banking institution (defined as any state or federally chartered commercial bank, savings bank, or savings and loan association) to provide written disclosure to all holders of and applicants for deposit accounts which describes the institution's funds availability policy. Institutions must also disclose to their customers any significant changes to their availability policy.
</P>
<P>Regulation CC preempts state disclosure requirements concerning funds availability that relates to <I>accounts</I> that are inconsistent with the federal requirements. The state requirements are different from, and therefore inconsistent with, the federal disclosure rules. (§ 229.20(c)(2)). Thus, the New Jersey statute (N.J.A.C. sections 3:1-15.1 <I>et seq.</I>) is preempted by Regulation CC to the extent that these disclosure provisions apply to <I>accounts</I> as defined by Regulation CC. The New Jersey disclosure rules would continue to apply to other <I>deposit accounts,</I> as defined by New Jersey law, including money market accounts and savings accounts established by a natural person for personal or family purposes, which are not governed by the Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<HD2>New York
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC, preempt the provisions of New York law concerning the availability of funds. This preemption determination addresses the relation of the Act and Regulation CC to the New York funds availability law. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>In 1983, the New York State Banking Department, pursuant to section 14-d of the New York Banking law, issued regulations requiring that funds deposited in an account be made available for withdrawal within specified time periods, and provided certain exceptions to those availability schedules. Part 34 of the New York State Banking Department's General Regulations established time frames within which commercial banks, trust companies, and branches of foreign banks (<I>banks</I>); and savings banks, savings and loan associations, and credit unions (<I>savings institutions</I>) must make funds deposited in customer accounts available for withdrawal.
</P>
<P>The Banking Department amended part 34, effective September 1, 1988, generally to exclude accounts covered by Regulation CC from the scope of the state regulation. Part 34.4 (a)(2) and (b)(2) of the revised New York rules, however, continue to apply to checks deposited to accounts, as defined in Regulation CC. These provisions require that the proceeds of nonlocal checks payable by a New York institution be made available for withdrawal not later than the start of the fourth business day following deposit, if deposited in a bank, or the fifth business day following deposit, if deposited in a savings institution. The revised regulation also provides that, with respect to savings accounts and time deposits, New York institutions could elect to comply with either the state or federal availability and disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>This preemption determination supersedes the determination issued by the Board on August 18, 1988 (53 FR 32357 (August 24, 1988)).
</P>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The New York law and regulation govern the availability of funds in savings accounts and time deposits, as well as <I>accounts</I> as defined in § 229.2(a) of Regulation CC. The New York law continues to apply to deposits to savings accounts and time deposits that are not accounts under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Hold on other funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC, in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<P>The New York law and regulation apply to <I>items</I> deposited to accounts. Part 34.3(e) defines <I>item</I> as <I>a check, negotiable order of withdrawal or money order deposited into an account.</I> The Board interprets the definition of <I>item</I> in New York law to be consistent with the definition of <I>check</I> in Regulation CC (§ 229.2(k)).
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules
</HD3>
<P>The provisions of New York law governing the availability of in-state nonlocal items provide for shorter hold than is provided under Regulation CC, and supersede that federal availability requirements. With the exception of these provisions, the New York regulation does not apply to deposits to accounts covered by Regulation CC.
</P>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> The time periods for the availability of in-state nonlocal checks, contained in part 34.4 (a)(2) and (b)(2), are shorter that the seventh business day availability required for nonlocal checks under § 229.11(c) of Regulation CC, although they are not necessarily shorter than the schedules for nonlocal checks set forth in § 229.11(c)(2) and appendix B-1 of Regulation CC. Thus, these state schedules supersede the federal schedule to the extent that they apply to an item payable by a New York bank or savings institution that is defined as a nonlocal checks under Regulation CC and the applicable state schedule is less than the applicable schedule specified in § 229.11(c) and appendix B-1.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent schedule.</I> The New York schedule for banks supersedes the Regulation CC requirement in the permanent schedule, effective September 1, 1990, that nonlocal checks be made available for withdrawal by the start of the fifth business day following deposit, to the extent that the in-state checks are defined as nonlocal under Regulation CC, and the Regulation CC schedule for nonlocal checks is not shortened under § 229.12(c)(2) and appendix B-2 of Regulation CC. In addition, the New York schedule for savings institutions supersedes the Regulation CC time period adjustment for withdrawal by cash or similar means in the permanent schedule, to the extent that the in-state checks are defined as nonlocal under Regulation CC, and the Regulation CC schedule for nonlocal checks is not shortened under § 229.12(c)(2) and appendix B-2.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the availability schedules.</I> New York law provides exceptions to the state availability schedules for large deposits, new accounts, repeated overdrafters, doubtful collectibility, foreign items, and emergency conditions (part 34.4). The state exceptions apply only with respect to deposits of in-state nonlocal checks that are subject to the state availability schedule. For these deposits, the depositary bank may invoke a state exception and place a hold on the deposit up to the federal availability schedule limit for that type of deposit. Once the federal availability schedule limit is reached, the depositary bank may further extend the hold under any of the federal exceptions that apply to that deposit. Any time a depositary bank invokes an exception to extend a hold beyond the time periods otherwise permitted by law, it must give notice of the extended hold to its customer in accordance with § 229.12(g) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The revised New York regulation does not contain funds availability disclosure requirements applicable to accounts subject to Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD2>Rhode Island
</HD2>
<HD3>Background
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the “Act”) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC, supersede provisions of Rhode Island law relating to the availability of funds. This preemption determination specifies those provisions in the Rhode Island funds availability law that supersede the Act and Regulation CC. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.)
</P>
<P>In 1986, Rhode Island adopted a statute governing funds availability (R.I. Gen. Laws tit. 6A, sections 4-601 through 4-608), which requires Rhode Island depository institutions to make checks deposited in a personal transaction account available for withdrawal within certain specific periods. Commercial banks and thrift institutions (mutual savings banks, savings banks, savings and loan institutions and credit unions) must make funds available for withdrawal in accordance with the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Commercial banks 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thrift institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Treasury checks, Rhode Island Government checks, first-indorsed</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-state cashier's checks less than $2,500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On-us checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2nd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3rd
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-state clearinghouse checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3rd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4th
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">In-state nonclearinghouse checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5th</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6th
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1st or 2nd Federal Reserve District checks (out-of-state)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7th</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7th
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other checks</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9th</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10th
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="04">Note:</E> These time periods are stated in terms of availability for withdrawal not later than the Xth business day following the banking day of deposit to facilitate comparison with Regulation CC. State regulations are stated in terms of availability at the start of the business day subsequent to the number of days specified in the regulation.</P></DIV></DIV>
<FP>The Rhode Island statute also provides restrictions and exceptions to the schedules and requires institutions to make certain disclosures to their customers.
</FP>
<HD3>Coverage
</HD3>
<P>The Rhode Island statute governing the availability of funds deposited in <I>personal transaction accounts,</I> a term not defined in the statute. The federal law would continue to apply to <I>accounts,</I> as defined in § 229.2(a), that are not <I>personal transaction accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>The Rhode Island statute applies to <I>items,</I> defined as checks, negotiable orders of withdrawal, or money orders. The Board interprets the definition of item to be consistent with the definition of <I>check</I> in Regulation CC (§ 299.2(k)).
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules
</HD3>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> Rhode Island law requires availability for certain checks in the same time as does Regulation CC. Thus, in these instances, the federal law does not preempt the state law. Rhode Island law requires commercial banks (but not thrift institutions) to make checks payable by a depositary institution that uses the same in-state clearing facility as the depositary bank available for withdrawal on the third business day following the day of the deposit. This is the same time period contained in Regulation CC for local checks payable by a bank that is a member of the same local clearinghouse as the depositary bank. (The Board views the definition of <I>the same in-state clearing facility</I> as having the same meaning as the term <I>the same check clearinghouse association</I> in the federal law's provision that allows banks to limit the customer's ability to withdraw cash on the third business day if the local check being deposited is payable by a bank that is not a member of the same local clearinghouse as the depositary bank.) Since the Rhode Island law and the federal law both require the funds to be made available no later than the third business day, the state law is not preempted by the federal law.
</P>
<P>The Rhode Island law also requires commercial banks and savings institutions to make checks payable by a depository institution located in the First or Second Federal Reserve District (outside of Rhode Island) available on the seventh business day following deposit. To the extent that this provision applies to checks payable by institutions located outside the Boston check processing region, it provides for availability in the same time as required for nonlocal checks under the temporary federal schedule, and thus is not preempted by the federal law.
</P>
<P>The Rhode Island statute does not specify whether it applies to deposits of checks at nonproprietary ATMs. Under the temporary schedule in Regulation CC, deposits at nonproprietary ATMs must be made available for withdrawal at the opening of the seventh business day after deposit. To the extent that the Rhode Island schedules provide for shorter availability for deposits at nonproprietary ATMs, they would supersede the temporary schedule. 
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the availability schedules.</I> The Rhode Island law contains exceptions for reason to doubt collectibility or ability of the depositor to reimburse the depositary bank, for new accounts, for large checks, and for foreign checks. In all cases where the federal availability schedule preempts the state schedule, only the federal exceptions will apply. For deposits that are covered by the state availability schedule, the state exceptions may be used to extend the state availability schedule to meet the federal availability schedule. Once the deposit is held up to the federal availability schedule limit under a state exception, the depositary bank may further extend the hold under any federal exception that can be applied to the deposit. Thus, if the state and federal availability schedules are the same for a particular deposit, both a state and a federal exception must be applicable to that deposit in order to extend the hold beyond the schedule. Any time a depositary bank invokes an exception to extend a hold beyond the time periods otherwise permitted by law, it must give notice of the extended hold to its customer, in accordance with § 229.13(g) of Regulation CC. 
</P>
<P><I>Business day/banking day.</I> The Rhode Island statute defines <I>business day</I> as excluding Saturday, Sunday and legal holidays. This definition is preempted by the Regulation CC definitions of <I>business day</I> and <I>banking day.</I> Thus, for determining the permissible hold under the Rhode Island schedules that supersede the Regulation CC schedule, deposits are considered made on the specified number of <I>business days</I> following the <I>banking day</I> of deposit. 
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The Rhode Island statute requires written notice to depositors of an institution's check hold policy and requires a notice on deposit slips. Regulation CC preempts state disclosure requirements concerning funds availability that relate to accounts that are inconsistent with the federal requirements. The state reuirements are different from, and therefore inconsistent with, the federal rules. (§ 229.20(c)(2)) Thus, Regulation CC preempts the Rhode Island disclosure requirements concerning funds availability.
</P>
<HD2>Wisconsin
</HD2>
<HD3>Background 
</HD3>
<P>The Board has been requested, in accordance with § 229.20(d) of Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229), to determine whether the Expedited Funds Availability Act (the Act) and subpart B (and in connection therewith, subpart A) of Regulation CC preempt the provisions of Wisconsin law concerning availability of funds. This preemption determination specifies those provisions of the Wisconsin funds availability law that are not preempted by the Act and Regulation CC. (See also the Board's preemption determination regarding the Uniform Commercial Code, section 4-213(5), pertaining to availability of cash deposits.) 
</P>
<P>Wisconsin Statutes sections 404.213(4m), 215.136, and 186.117 require Wisconsin banks, savings and loan associations, and credit unions, respectively, to make funds deposited in accounts available for withdrawal within specified time frames. Generally, checks drawn on the U.S. Treasury, the State of Wisconsin, or on a local government located in Wisconsin must be made available for withdrawal by the second day following deposit. (The law governing commercial banks determines availability based on banking day; the laws governing savings and loan associations and credit unions determine availability based on business days.) In-state and out-of-state checks must be made available for withdrawal within five days and eight days following deposit, respectively. Exceptions are provided for new accounts and reason to doubt collectibility. In addition, Wisconsin Statutes section 404.103 permits commercial banks to vary these availability requirements by agreement. 
</P>
<HD3>Coverage 
</HD3>
<P>Wisconsin law defines <I>account,</I> with respect to the rules governing commercial banks, as <I>any account with a bank and includes a checking, time, interest or savings account</I> (Wisconsin Statutes section 404.104(1)(a)). The statutes relating to the funds availability requirements applicable to savings and loan associations and credit unions do not define the term <I>account.</I> The Federal preemption of state funds availability requirements applies only to <I>accounts</I> subject to Regulation CC, which generally consist of transaction accounts. Regulation CC does not affect the Wisconsin law to the extent that the state law applies to deposits in savings, time, and other accounts (including transaction accounts where the account holder is a bank, foreign bank, or the U.S. Treasury) that are not <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC. (Note, however, that under § 229.19(e) of Regulation CC, <I>Holds on Other Funds,</I> the federal availability schedules may apply to savings, time, and other accounts not defined as <I>accounts</I> under Regulation CC in certain circumstances.) 
</P>
<P>The Wisconsin statute applies to <I>items</I> deposited in accounts. This term encompasses instruments that are not defined as <I>checks</I> in Regulation CC (§ 229.2(k)), such as nonnegotiable instruments, and are therefore not subject to Regulation CC's provisions governing funds availability. Those items that are subject to Wisconsin law but are not subject to Regulation CC will continue to be covered by the state availability schedules and exceptions. 
</P>
<HD3>Availability Schedules 
</HD3>
<P><I>Temporary schedule.</I> The Wisconsin statute requires that in-state nonlocal checks be made available for withdrawal not later than the fifth day following deposit (Wisconsin Statutes sections 404.213(4m)(b)(2); 215.136(2)(b); 186.117(2)(b)). This time period is shorter than the seventh business day availability required for nonlocal checks under § 229.11(c) of Regulation CC, although it is not shorter than the schedules for nonlocal checks set forth in § 229.11(c)(2) and appendix B-1 of Regulation CC. Thus, the state schedule for in-state nonlocal checks supersedes the Federal schedule to the extent that it applies to an item payable by a Wisconsin bank that is defined as a nonlocal check under Regulation CC and is not subject to reduced schedules under § 229.11(c)(2) and appendix B-1. 
</P>
<P><I>Permanent Schedule.</I> Under the Federal permanent availability schedule, nonlocal checks must be made available for withdrawal not later than the fifth business day following deposit. The fifth day availability requirement for in-state items in the Wisconsin statute supersedes the Regulation CC time period adjustment for withdrawal by cash or similar means in the permanent schedule, to the extent that the in-state checks are defined as nonlocal under Regulation CC.
</P>
<P><I>Next-day availability.</I> Under the Wisconsin statute, the proceeds of state and local government checks must be made available for withdrawal by the second day following deposit, if the check is endorsed only by the person to whom it was issued (Wisconsin Statutes sections 404.213(4m)(b)(1); 215.136(2)(b); and 186.117(2)(a)). Regulation CC requires next-day availability for these checks if they are (1) deposited in an account of a payee of the check, (2) deposited in a depositary bank located in the same state as the state or local government that issued the check, (3) deposited in person to an employee of the depositary bank, and (4) deposited with a special deposit slip, if the depositary bank informed its customers that use of such a slip is a condition to next-day availability. Under the Federal law, if a state or local government check is not deposited in person to an employee of the depositary bank, but meets the other conditions set forth in § 229.10(c)(1)(iv), the funds must be made available for withdrawal not later than the second business day following deposit. The Wisconsin statute supersedes Regulation CC to the extent that the state law does not permit the use of a special deposit slip as a condition to receipt of second-day availability.
</P>
<P><I>Exceptions to the schedules.</I> Wisconsin law provides exceptions to the state availability schedules for new accounts (those opened less than 90 days) and reason to doubt collectibility (Wisconsin Statutes sections 404.213(4m)(b); 215.136(2); and 186.117(2)). The state availability law also permits commercial banks to vary the funds availability requirements by agreement (Wisconsin Statute section 404.103(1)). In all cases where the Federal schedule preempts the state schedule, only the Federal exceptions apply. For deposits that are covered by the state availability schedule (e.g., in-state nonlocal checks), a state exception must apply in order to extend the state availability schedule up to the Federal availability schedule. Once the deposit is held up to the Federal availability limit under a state exception, the depositary bank may further extend the hold only if a Federal exception can be applied to the deposit. Any time a depositary bank invokes an exception to extend a hold beyond the time periods otherwise permitted by law, it must give notice of the extended hold to its customer in accordance with § 229.13(g) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<P><I>Business day/banking day.</I> The definitions of <I>business day</I> and <I>banking day</I> in the Wisconsin statutes are preempted by the Regulation CC definition of those terms. For determining the permissible hold under the Wisconsin schedules that supersede the Regulation CC schedule, deposits are considered available for withdrawal on the specified number of <I>business days</I> following the <I>banking day</I> of deposit.
</P>
<P>Wisconsin law considers funds to be deposited, for the purpose of determining when they must be made available for withdrawal, when an item is “received at the proof and transit facility of the depository.” For the purposes of this preemption determination, funds are considered deposited under Wisconsin law in accordance with the rules set forth in § 229.19(a) of Regulation CC.
</P>
<HD3>Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>The Wisconsin statute does not require disclosure of a bank's funds availability policy. The state law does require, however, that a bank give notice to its customer if it extends the time within which funds will be available for withdrawal due to the bank's doubt as to the collectibility of the item (Wisconsin Statutes sections 404.213(4m)(b); 215.136(2); and 186.117(2)).
</P>
<P>Regulation CC preempts state disclosure requirements concerning funds availability that relate to <I>accounts</I> that are inconsistent with the Federal requirements. The state requirement is different from, and therefore inconsistent with, the Federal disclosure rules (§ 229.20(c)(2)). Thus, the Wisconsin statute is preempted by Regulation CC to the extent that the state notice requirement applies to <I>accounts</I> as defined by Regulation CC. The Wisconsin requirement would continue to apply to accounts, such as savings and time accounts, not governed by the Regulation CC disclosure requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 32356, Aug. 24, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 44328, Nov. 2, 1988; 53 FR 47524, Nov. 22, 1988; 53 FR 51748, Dec. 23, 1988; Reg. CC, 54 FR 13838, Apr. 6, 1989; 55 FR 11358, Mar. 28, 1990; 60 FR 51703, Oct. 3, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 25, 2026,fm 
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="4" NODE="12:4" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 4</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter ii</E>—Federal Reserve System (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>220


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="II" NODE="12:4.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER II—FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—BOARD OF GOVERNORS OF THE FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM (CONTINUED) 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="230" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 230 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="231" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 231—NETTING ELIGIBILITY FOR FINANCIAL INSTITUTION (REGULATION EE)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4402(1)(B) and 4402(9).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. EE, 59 FR 4784, Feb. 2, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 231.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part (Regulation EE; 12 CFR part 231) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under the authority of sections 402(1)(B) and 402(9) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4402(1)(B) and 4402(9)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The purpose of the Act and this part is to enhance efficiency and reduce systemic risk in the financial markets. This part expands the Act's definition of “financial institution” to allow more financial market participants to avail themselves of the netting provisions set forth in sections 401-407 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 4401-4407). This part does not affect the status of those financial institutions specifically defined in the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236), as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate,</I> with respect to a person, means any other person that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the person.


</P>
<P>(c) Bridge institution means a legal entity that has been established by a governmental authority to take over, transfer, or continue operating critical functions and viable operations of an entity in resolution. A bridge institution could include a bridge depository institution or a bridge financial company organized by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1821(n) or 5390(h), respectively, or a similar entity organized under foreign law.

 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial contract</I> means a qualified financial contract as defined in section 11(e)(8)(D) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)), as amended, except that a forward contract includes a contract with a maturity date two days or less after the date the contract is entered into (i.e., a “spot” contract). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial market</I> means a market for a financial contract. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Gross mark-to-market positions</I> in one or more financial contracts means the sum of the absolute values of positions in those contracts, adjusted to reflect the market values of those positions in accordance with the methods used by the parties to each contract to value the contract. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Person</I> means any legal entity, foreign or domestic, including a corporation, unincorporated company, partnership, government unit or instrumentality, trust, natural person, or any other entity or organization. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. EE, 59 FR 4784, Feb. 2, 1994, as amended at 86 FR 11622, Feb. 26, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 231.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 231.3   Qualification as a financial institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person qualifies as a financial institution for purposes of sections 401-407 of the Act if it represents, orally or in writing, that it will engage in financial contracts as a counterparty on both sides of one or more financial markets and either—
</P>
<P>(1) Had one or more financial contracts of a total gross dollar value of at least $1 billion in notional principal amount outstanding at such time or on any day during the previous 15-month period with counterparties that are not its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) Had total gross mark-to-market positions of at least $100 million (aggregated across counterparties) in one or more financial contracts at such time or on any day during the previous 15-month period with counterparties that are not its affiliates.


</P>
<P>(b) After two or more persons consolidate, such as through a merger or acquisition, the surviving person meets the quantitative thresholds under paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) if, on the same, single calendar day during the previous 15-month period, the aggregate financial contracts of the consolidated persons would have met such quantitative thresholds.




</P>
<P>(c) If a person qualifies as a financial institution under paragraph (a) of this section, that person will be considered a financial institution for the purposes of any contract entered into during the period it qualifies, even if the person subsequently fails to qualify. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a person qualifies as a financial institution under paragraph (a) of this section on March 7, 1994, that person will be considered a financial institution for the purposes of any outstanding contract entered into prior to March 7, 1994. 


</P>
<P>(e) A person qualifies as a financial institution for purposes of sections 401-407 of the Act if it is—
</P>
<P>(1) A swap dealer or major swap participant registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s);
</P>
<P>(2) A security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10);
</P>
<P>(3) A derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or a derivatives clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h));
</P>
<P>(4) A clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(b)) or a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A(k) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(k));
</P>
<P>(5) A financial market utility that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has designated as, or as likely to become, systemically important pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5463;
</P>
<P>(6) A qualifying central counterparty under 12 CFR 217.2;
</P>
<P>(7) A nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined shall be supervised by the Board and subject to prudential standards, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5323;
</P>
<P>(8) A foreign bank as defined in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101), including a foreign bridge bank;
</P>
<P>(9) A bridge institution established for the purpose of resolving a financial institution;
</P>
<P>(10) A Federal Reserve Bank or a foreign central bank; or
</P>
<P>(11) The Bank for International Settlements.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. EE, 59 FR 4784, Feb. 2, 1994, as amended at 61 FR 1274, Jan. 19, 1996; 86 FR 11622, Feb. 26, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="232" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 232—OBTAINING AND USING MEDICAL INFORMATION IN CONNECTION WITH CREDIT (REGULATION FF)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1681b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 70682, Nov. 22, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 232.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.1   Scope, general prohibition and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to creditors, as defined in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, except for creditors that are subject to §§ 41.30, 222.30, 334.30, 571.30, or 717.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may not obtain or use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit</I> means the consumer's qualification or fitness to receive, or continue to receive, credit, including the terms on which credit is offered. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any determination of the consumer's qualification or fitness for employment, insurance (other than a credit insurance product), or other non-credit products or services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorizing, processing, or documenting a payment or transaction on behalf of the consumer in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintaining or servicing the consumer's account in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Medical information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Information or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer, that relates to—
</P>
<P>(A) The past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual;
</P>
<P>(B) The provision of health care to an individual; or
</P>
<P>(C) The payment for the provision of health care to an individual.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) The age or gender of a consumer;
</P>
<P>(B) Demographic information about the consumer, including a consumer's residence address or e-mail address;
</P>
<P>(C) Any other information about a consumer that does not relate to the physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of a consumer, including the existence or value of any insurance policy; or
</P>
<P>(D) Information that does not identify a specific consumer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate cooperative, association, government or governmental subdivision or agency, or other entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.2   Rule of construction for obtaining and using unsolicited medical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if it receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit without specifically requesting medical information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of unsolicited medical information.</I> A creditor that receives unsolicited medical information in the manner described in paragraph (a) of this section may use that information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to the extent the creditor can rely on at least one of the exceptions in § 232.3 or § 232.4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to a general question regarding a consumer's debts or expenses, the creditor receives information that the consumer owes a debt to a hospital.
</P>
<P>(2) In a conversation with the creditor's loan officer, the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer has a particular medical condition.
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with a consumer's application for an extension of credit, the creditor requests a consumer report from a consumer reporting agency and receives medical information in the consumer report furnished by the agency even though the creditor did not specifically request medical information from the consumer reporting agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.3   Financial information exception for obtaining and using medical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit so long as:
</P>
<P>(1) The information is the type of information routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations, such as information relating to debts, expenses, income, benefits, assets, collateral, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds;
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor uses the medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable information that is not medical information in a credit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(3) The creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account as part of any such determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Examples of the types of information routinely used in making credit eligibility determinations.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section permits a creditor, for example, to obtain and use information about:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar amount, repayment terms, repayment history, and similar information regarding medical debts to calculate, measure, or verify the repayment ability of the consumer, the use of proceeds, or the terms for granting credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) The value, condition, and lien status of a medical device that may serve as collateral to secure a loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The dollar amount and continued eligibility for disability income, workers' compensation income, or other benefits related to health or a medical condition that is relied on as a source of repayment; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The identity of creditors to whom outstanding medical debts are owed in connection with an application for credit, including but not limited to, a transaction involving the consolidation of medical debts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of uses of medical information consistent with the exception.</I> (i) A consumer includes on an application for credit information about two $20,000 debts. One debt is to a hospital; the other debt is to a retailer. The creditor contacts the hospital and the retailer to verify the amount and payment status of the debts. The creditor learns that both debts are more than 90 days past due. Any two debts of this size that are more than 90 days past due would disqualify the consumer under the creditor's established underwriting criteria. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the consumer has a poor repayment history on outstanding debts. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer indicates on an application for a $200,000 mortgage loan that she receives $15,000 in long-term disability income each year from her former employer and has no other income. Annual income of $15,000, regardless of source, would not be sufficient to support the requested amount of credit. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the projected debt-to-income ratio of the consumer does not meet the creditor's underwriting criteria. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer includes on an application for a $10,000 home equity loan that he has a $50,000 debt to a medical facility that specializes in treating a potentially terminal disease. The creditor contacts the medical facility to verify the debt and obtain the repayment history and current status of the loan. The creditor learns that the debt is current. The applicant meets the income and other requirements of the creditor's underwriting guidelines. The creditor grants the application. The creditor has used medical information in accordance with the exception.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of uses of medical information inconsistent with the exception.</I> (i) A consumer applies for $25,000 of credit and includes on the application information about a $50,000 debt to a hospital. The creditor contacts the hospital to verify the amount and payment status of the debt, and learns that the debt is current and that the consumer has no delinquencies in her repayment history. If the existing debt were instead owed to a retail department store, the creditor would approve the application and extend credit based on the amount and repayment history of the outstanding debt. The creditor, however, denies the application because the consumer is indebted to a hospital. The creditor has used medical information, here the identity of the medical creditor, in a manner and to an extent that is less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer meets with a loan officer of a creditor to apply for a mortgage loan. While filling out the loan application, the consumer informs the loan officer orally that she has a potentially terminal disease. The consumer meets the creditor's established requirements for the requested mortgage loan. The loan officer recommends to the credit committee that the consumer be denied credit because the consumer has that disease. The credit committee follows the loan officer's recommendation and denies the application because the consumer has a potentially terminal disease. The creditor has used medical information in a manner inconsistent with the exception by taking into account the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition, or history, type of treatment, or prognosis as part of a determination of eligibility or continued eligibility for credit.
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer who has an apparent medical condition, such as a consumer who uses a wheelchair or an oxygen tank, meets with a loan officer to apply for a home equity loan. The consumer meets the creditor's established requirements for the requested home equity loan and the creditor typically does not require consumers to obtain a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product in connection with such loans. However, based on the consumer's apparent medical condition, the loan officer recommends to the credit committee that credit be extended to the consumer only if the consumer obtains a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product from a nonaffiliated third party. The credit committee agrees with the loan officer's recommendation. The loan officer informs the consumer that the consumer must obtain a debt cancellation contract, debt suspension agreement, or credit insurance product from a nonaffiliated third party to qualify for the loan. The consumer obtains one of these products and the creditor approves the loan. The creditor has used medical information in a manner inconsistent with the exception by taking into account the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition, or history, type of treatment, or prognosis in setting conditions on the consumer's eligibility for credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 232.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 232.4   Specific exceptions for obtaining and using medical information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit:
</P>
<P>(1) To determine whether the use of a power of attorney or legal representative that is triggered by a medical condition or event is necessary and appropriate or whether the consumer has the legal capacity to contract when a person seeks to exercise a power of attorney or act as legal representative for a consumer based on an asserted medical condition or event;
</P>
<P>(2) To comply with applicable requirements of local, state, or Federal laws;
</P>
<P>(3) To determine, at the consumer's request, whether the consumer qualifies for a legally permissible special credit program or credit-related assistance program that is—
</P>
<P>(i) Designed to meet the special needs of consumers with medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Established and administered pursuant to a written plan that—
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit; and
</P>
<P>(B) Sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit or providing other credit-related assistance under the program;
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent necessary for purposes of fraud prevention or detection;
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of credit for the purpose of financing medical products or services, to determine and verify the medical purpose of a loan and the use of proceeds;
</P>
<P>(6) Consistent with safe and sound practices, if the consumer or the consumer's legal representative specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, and such request is documented by the creditor;
</P>
<P>(7) Consistent with safe and sound practices, to determine whether the provisions of a forbearance practice or program that is triggered by a medical condition or event apply to a consumer;
</P>
<P>(8) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the contract or agreement; or
</P>
<P>(9) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a credit insurance product if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the product.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Example of determining eligibility for a special credit program or credit assistance program.</I> A not-for-profit organization establishes a credit assistance program pursuant to a written plan that is designed to assist disabled veterans in purchasing homes by subsidizing the down payment for the home purchase mortgage loans of qualifying veterans. The organization works through mortgage lenders and requires mortgage lenders to obtain medical information about the disability of any consumer that seeks to qualify for the program, use that information to verify the consumer's eligibility for the program, and forward that information to the organization. A consumer who is a veteran applies to a creditor for a home purchase mortgage loan. The creditor informs the consumer about the credit assistance program for disabled veterans and the consumer seeks to qualify for the program. Assuming that the program complies with all applicable law, including applicable fair lending laws, the creditor may obtain and use medical information about the medical condition and disability, if any, of the consumer to determine whether the consumer qualifies for the credit assistance program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of verifying the medical purpose of the loan or the use of proceeds.</I> (1) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing vision correction surgery, the creditor may verify with the surgeon that the procedure will be performed. If the surgeon reports that surgery will not be performed on the consumer, the creditor may use that medical information to deny the consumer's application for credit, because the loan would not be used for the stated purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing cosmetic surgery, the creditor may confirm the cost of the procedure with the surgeon. If the surgeon reports that the cost of the procedure is $5,000, the creditor may use that medical information to offer the consumer only $5,000 of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) A creditor has an established medical loan program for financing particular elective surgical procedures. The creditor receives a loan application from a consumer requesting $10,000 of credit under the established loan program for an elective surgical procedure. The consumer indicates on the application that the purpose of the loan is to finance an elective surgical procedure not eligible for funding under the guidelines of the established loan program. The creditor may deny the consumer's application because the purpose of the loan is not for a particular procedure funded by the established loan program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples of obtaining and using medical information at the request of the consumer.</I> (1) If a consumer applies for a loan and specifically requests that the creditor consider the consumer's medical disability at the relevant time as an explanation for adverse payment history information in his credit report, the creditor may consider such medical information in evaluating the consumer's willingness and ability to repay the requested loan to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, consistent with safe and sound practices. The creditor may also decline to consider such medical information to accommodate the consumer, but may evaluate the consumer's application in accordance with its otherwise applicable underwriting criteria. The creditor may not deny the consumer's application or otherwise treat the consumer less favorably because the consumer specifically requested a medical accommodation, if the creditor would have extended the credit or treated the consumer more favorably under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(2) If a consumer applies for a loan by telephone and explains that his income has been and will continue to be interrupted on account of a medical condition and that he expects to repay the loan liquidating assets, the creditor may, but is not required to, evaluate the application using the sale of assets as the primary source of repayment, consistent with safe and sound practices, provided that the creditor documents the consumer's request by recording the oral conversation or making a notation of the request in the consumer's file.
</P>
<P>(3) If a consumer applies for a loan and the application form provides a space where the consumer may provide any other information or special circumstances, whether medical or non-medical, that the consumer would like the creditor to consider in evaluating the consumer's application, the creditor may use medical information provided by the consumer in that space on that application to accommodate the consumer's application for credit, consistent with safe and sound practices, or may disregard that information.
</P>
<P>(4) If a consumer specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit and provides the creditor with medical information for that purpose, and the creditor determines that it needs additional information regarding the consumer's circumstances, the creditor may request, obtain, and use additional medical information about the consumer as necessary to verify the information provided by the consumer or to determine whether to make an accommodation for the consumer. The consumer may decline to provide additional information, withdraw the request for an accommodation, and have the application considered under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(5) If a consumer completes and signs a credit application that is not for medical purpose credit and the application contains boilerplate language that routinely requests medical information from the consumer or that indicates that by applying for credit the consumer authorizes or consents to the creditor obtaining and using medical information in connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, the consumer has not specifically requested that the creditor obtain and use medical information to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Example of a forbearance practice or program.</I> After an appropriate safety and soundness review, a creditor institutes a program that allows consumers who are or will be hospitalized to defer payments as needed for up to three months, without penalty, if the credit account has been open for more than one year and has not previously been in default, and the consumer provides confirming documentation at an appropriate time. A consumer is hospitalized and does not pay her bill for a particular month. This consumer has had a credit account with the creditor for more than one year and has not previously been in default. The creditor attempts to contact the consumer and speaks with the consumer's adult child, who is not the consumer's legal representative. The adult child informs the creditor that the consumer is hospitalized and is unable to pay the bill at that time. The creditor defers payments for up to three months, without penalty, for the hospitalized consumer and sends the consumer a letter confirming this practice and the date on which the next payment will be due. The creditor has obtained and used medical information to determine whether the provisions of a medically-triggered forbearance practice or program apply to a consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="233" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 233—PROHIBITION ON FUNDING OF UNLAWFUL INTERNET GAMBLING (REGULATION GG) 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>31 U.S.C. 5364.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. GG, 73 FR 69405, Nov. 18, 2008, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 233.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.1   Authority, purpose, collection of information, and incorporation by reference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued jointly by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) and the Secretary of the Department of the Treasury (Treasury) under section 802 of the Unlawful Internet Gambling Enforcement Act of 2006 (Act) (enacted as title VIII of the Security and Accountability For Every Port Act of 2006, Pub. L. No. 109-347, 120 Stat. 1884, and codified at 31 U.S.C. 5361-5367). The Act states that none of its provisions shall be construed as altering, limiting, or extending any Federal or State law or Tribal-State compact prohibiting, permitting, or regulating gambling within the United States. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 5361(b). In addition, the Act states that its provisions are not intended to change which activities related to horseracing may or may not be allowed under Federal law, are not intended to change the existing relationship between the Interstate Horseracing Act of 1978 (IHA) (15 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.</I>) and other Federal statutes in effect on October 13, 2006, the date of the Act's enactment, and are not intended to resolve any existing disagreements over how to interpret the relationship between the IHA and other Federal statutes. <I>See</I> 31 U.S.C. 5362(10)(D)(iii). This part is intended to be consistent with these provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to issue implementing regulations as required by the Act. The part sets out necessary definitions, designates payment systems subject to the requirements of this part, exempts certain participants in designated payment systems from certain requirements of this part, provides nonexclusive examples of policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify and block, or otherwise prevent and prohibit, restricted transactions, and sets out the Federal entities that have exclusive regulatory enforcement authority with respect to the designated payments systems and non-exempt participants therein.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collection of information.</I> The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) has approved the collection of information requirements in this part for the Department of the Treasury and assigned OMB control number 1505-0204. The Board has approved the collection of information requirements in this part under the authority delegated to the Board by OMB, and assigned OMB control number 7100-0317.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Incorporation by reference—relevant definitions from ACH rules.</I> (1) This part incorporates by reference the relevant definitions of ACH terms as published in the “2008 ACH Rules: A Complete Guide to Rules &amp; Regulations Governing the ACH Network” (the “ACH Rules”). The Director of the Federal Register approves this incorporation by reference in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR part 51. Copies of the “2008 ACH Rules” are available from the National Automated Clearing House Association, Suite 100, 13450 Sunrise Valley Drive, Herndon, Virginia 20171, <I>http://nacha.org</I>, (703) 561-1100. Copies also are available for public inspection at the Department of Treasury Library, Room 1428, Main Treasury Building, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20220, and the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). Before visiting the Treasury library, you must call (202) 622-0990 for an appointment. For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call (202) 741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html 20002.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Any amendment to definitions of the relevant ACH terms in the ACH Rules shall not apply to this part unless the Treasury and the Board jointly accept such amendment by publishing notice of acceptance of the amendment to this part in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> An amendment to the definition of a relevant ACH term in the ACH Rules that is accepted by the Treasury and the Board shall apply to this part on the effective date of the rulemaking specified by the Treasury and the Board in the joint <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice expressly accepting such amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply solely for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Actual knowledge</I> with respect to a transaction or commercial customer means when a particular fact with respect to that transaction or commercial customer is known by or brought to the attention of:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual in the organization responsible for the organization's compliance function with respect to that transaction or commercial customer; or
</P>
<P>(2) An officer of the organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automated clearing house system</I> or <I>ACH system</I> means a funds transfer system, primarily governed by the ACH Rules, which provides for the clearing and settlement of batched electronic entries for participating financial institutions. When referring to ACH systems, the terms in this regulation (such as “originating depository financial institution,” “operator,” “originating gateway operator,” “receiving depository financial institution,” “receiving gateway operator,” and “third-party sender”) are defined as those terms are defined in the ACH Rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bet or wager:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) Means the staking or risking by any person of something of value upon the outcome of a contest of others, a sporting event, or a game subject to chance, upon an agreement or understanding that the person or another person will receive something of value in the event of a certain outcome;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes the purchase of a chance or opportunity to win a lottery or other prize (which opportunity to win is predominantly subject to chance);
</P>
<P>(3) Includes any scheme of a type described in 28 U.S.C. 3702;
</P>
<P>(4) Includes any instructions or information pertaining to the establishment or movement of funds by the bettor or customer in, to, or from an account with the business of betting or wagering (which does not include the activities of a financial transaction provider, or any interactive computer service or telecommunications service); and
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Any activity governed by the securities laws (as that term is defined in section 3(a)(47) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(47)) for the purchase or sale of securities (as that term is defined in section 3(a)(10) of that act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any transaction conducted on or subject to the rules of a registered entity or exempt board of trade under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Any over-the-counter derivative instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other transaction that—
</P>
<P>(A) Is excluded or exempt from regulation under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is exempt from State gaming or bucket shop laws under section 12(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 16(e)) or section 28(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78bb(a));
</P>
<P>(v) Any contract of indemnity or guarantee;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any contract for insurance;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any deposit or other transaction with an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Participation in any game or contest in which participants do not stake or risk anything of value other than—
</P>
<P>(A) Personal efforts of the participants in playing the game or contest or obtaining access to the Internet; or
</P>
<P>(B) Points or credits that the sponsor of the game or contest provides to participants free of charge and that can be used or redeemed only for participation in games or contests offered by the sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Participation in any fantasy or simulation sports game or educational game or contest in which (if the game or contest involves a team or teams) no fantasy or simulation sports team is based on the current membership of an actual team that is a member of an amateur or professional sports organization (as those terms are defined in 28 U.S.C. 3701) and that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) All prizes and awards offered to winning participants are established and made known to the participants in advance of the game or contest and their value is not determined by the number of participants or the amount of any fees paid by those participants.
</P>
<P>(B) All winning outcomes reflect the relative knowledge and skill of the participants and are determined predominantly by accumulated statistical results of the performance of individuals (athletes in the case of sports events) in multiple real-world sporting or other events.
</P>
<P>(C) No winning outcome is based—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) On the score, point-spread, or any performance or performances of any single real-world team or any combination of such teams, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Solely on any single performance of an individual athlete in any single real-world sporting or other event.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Block</I> means to reject a particular transaction before or during processing, but it does not require freezing or otherwise prohibiting subsequent transfers or transactions regarding the proceeds or account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Card issuer</I> means any person who issues a credit card, debit card, pre-paid card, or stored value card, or the agent of such person with respect to such card.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Card system</I> means a system for authorizing, clearing and settling transactions in which credit cards, debit cards, pre-paid cards, or stored value cards (such cards being issued or authorized by the operator of the system), are used to purchase goods or services or to obtain a cash advance. The term includes systems both in which the merchant acquirer, card issuer, and system operator are separate entities and in which more than one of these roles are performed by the same entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Check clearing house</I> means an association of banks or other payors that regularly exchange checks for collection or return.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Check collection system</I> means an interbank system for collecting, presenting, returning, and settling for checks or intrabank system for settling for checks deposited in and drawn on the same bank. When referring to check collection systems, the terms in this regulation (such as “paying bank,” “collecting bank,” “depositary bank,” “returning bank,” and “check”) are defined as those terms are defined in 12 CFR 229.2. For purposes of this part, “check” also includes an electronic representation of a check that a bank agrees to handle as a check.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial customer</I> means a person that is not a consumer and that contracts with a non-exempt participant in a designated payment system to receive, or otherwise accesses, payment transaction services through that non-exempt participant.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Consumer</I> means a natural person.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Designated payment system</I> means a system listed in § 233.3.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I> has the same meaning given the term in section 903 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693a), except that such term includes transfers that would otherwise be excluded under section 903(6)(E) of that act (15 U.S.C. 1693a(6)(E)), and includes any funds transfer covered by Article 4A of the Uniform Commercial Code, as in effect in any State.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Financial institution</I> means a State or national bank, a State or Federal savings and loan association, a mutual savings bank, a State or Federal credit union, or any other person that, directly or indirectly, holds an account belonging to a consumer. The term does not include a casino, sports book, or other business at or through which bets or wagers may be placed or received.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Financial transaction provider</I> means a creditor, credit card issuer, financial institution, operator of a terminal at which an electronic fund transfer may be initiated, money transmitting business, or international, national, regional, or local payment network utilized to effect a credit transaction, electronic fund transfer, stored value product transaction, or money transmitting service, or a participant in such network, or other participant in a designated payment system.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign banking office</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any non-U.S. office of a financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S. office of a foreign bank as described in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Interactive computer service</I> means any information service, system, or access software provider that provides or enables computer access by multiple users to a computer server, including specifically a service or system that provides access to the Internet and such systems operated or services offered by libraries or educational institutions.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Internet</I> means the international computer network of interoperable packet switched data networks.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Internet gambling business</I> means the business of placing, receiving or otherwise knowingly transmitting a bet or wager by any means which involves the use, at least in part, of the Internet, but does not include the performance of the customary activities of a financial transaction provider, or any interactive computer service or telecommunications service.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Intrastate transaction</I> means placing, receiving, or otherwise transmitting a bet or wager where—
</P>
<P>(1) The bet or wager is initiated and received or otherwise made exclusively within a single State;
</P>
<P>(2) The bet or wager and the method by which the bet or wager is initiated and received or otherwise made is expressly authorized by and placed in accordance with the laws of such State, and the State law or regulations include—
</P>
<P>(i) Age and location verification requirements reasonably designed to block access to minors and persons located out of such State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate data security standards to prevent unauthorized access by any person whose age and current location has not been verified in accordance with such State's law or regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bet or wager does not violate any provision of—
</P>
<P>(i) The Interstate Horseracing Act of 1978 (15 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) 28 U.S.C. chapter 178 (professional and amateur sports protection);
</P>
<P>(iii) The Gambling Devices Transportation Act (15 U.S.C. 1171 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (25 U.S.C. 2701 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Intratribal transaction</I> means placing, receiving or otherwise transmitting a bet or wager where—
</P>
<P>(1) The bet or wager is initiated and received or otherwise made exclusively—
</P>
<P>(i) Within the Indian lands of a single Indian tribe (as such terms are defined under the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (25 U.S.C. 2703)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Between the Indian lands of two or more Indian tribes to the extent that intertribal gaming is authorized by the Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (25 U.S.C. 2701 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) The bet or wager and the method by which the bet or wager is initiated and received or otherwise made is expressly authorized by and complies with the requirements of—
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable tribal ordinance or resolution approved by the Chairman of the National Indian Gaming Commission; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to class III gaming, the applicable Tribal-State compact;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable tribal ordinance or resolution or Tribal-State compact includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Age and location verification requirements reasonably designed to block access to minors and persons located out of the applicable Tribal lands; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate data security standards to prevent unauthorized access by any person whose age and current location has not been verified in accordance with the applicable tribal ordinance or resolution or Tribal-State Compact; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bet or wager does not violate any provision of—
</P>
<P>(i) The Interstate Horseracing Act of 1978 (15 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) 28 U.S.C. chapter 178 (professional and amateur sports protection);
</P>
<P>(iii) The Gambling Devices Transportation Act (15 U.S.C. 1171 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Indian Gaming Regulatory Act (25 U.S.C. 2701 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Money transmitting business</I> has the meaning given the term in 31 U.S.C. 5330(d)(1) (determined without regard to any regulations prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury thereunder).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Operator</I> of a designated payment system means an entity that provides centralized clearing and delivery services between participants in the designated payment system and maintains the operational framework for the system. In the case of an automated clearinghouse system, the term “operator” has the same meaning as provided in the ACH Rules.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Participant in a designated payment system</I> means an operator of a designated payment system, a financial transaction provider that is a member of, or has contracted for financial transaction services with, or is otherwise participating in, a designated payment system, or a third-party processor. This term does not include a customer of the financial transaction provider, unless the customer is also a financial transaction provider otherwise participating in the designated payment system on its own behalf.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Reasoned legal opinion</I> means a written expression of professional judgment by a State-licensed attorney that addresses the facts of a particular client's business and the legality of the client's provision of its services to relevant customers in the relevant jurisdictions under applicable federal and State law, and, in the case of intratribal transactions, applicable tribal ordinances, tribal resolutions, and Tribal-State compacts. A written legal opinion will not be considered “reasoned” if it does nothing more than recite the facts and express a conclusion.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Restricted transaction</I> means any of the following transactions or transmittals involving any credit, funds, instrument, or proceeds that the Act prohibits any person engaged in the business of betting or wagering (which does not include the activities of a financial transaction provider, or any interactive computer service or telecommunications service) from knowingly accepting, in connection with the participation of another person in unlawful Internet gambling—
</P>
<P>(1) Credit, or the proceeds of credit, extended to or on behalf of such other person (including credit extended through the use of a credit card);
</P>
<P>(2) An electronic fund transfer, or funds transmitted by or through a money transmitting business, or the proceeds of an electronic fund transfer or money transmitting service, from or on behalf of such other person; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any check, draft, or similar instrument that is drawn by or on behalf of such other person and is drawn on or payable at or through any financial institution.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any commonwealth, territory, or other possession of the United States, including the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Third-party processor</I> means a service provider that—
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a debit transaction payment, such as an ACH debit entry or card system transaction, has a direct relationship with the commercial customer that is initiating the debit transfer transaction and acts as an intermediary between the commercial customer and the first depository institution to handle the transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a credit transaction payment, such as an ACH credit entry, has a direct relationship with the commercial customer that is to receive the proceeds of the credit transfer and acts as an intermediary between the commercial customer and the last depository institution to handle the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a cross-border ACH debit or check collection transaction, is the first service provider located within the United States to receive the ACH debit instructions or check for collection.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Unlawful Internet gambling</I> means to place, receive, or otherwise knowingly transmit a bet or wager by any means which involves the use, at least in part, of the Internet where such bet or wager is unlawful under any applicable Federal or State law in the State or Tribal lands in which the bet or wager is initiated, received, or otherwise made. The term does not include placing, receiving, or otherwise transmitting a bet or wager that is excluded from the definition of this term by the Act as an intrastate transaction or an intra-tribal transaction, and does not include any activity that is allowed under the Interstate Horseracing Act of 1978 (15 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.;</I> <I>see</I> § 233.1(a)). The intermediate routing of electronic data shall not determine the location or locations in which a bet or wager is initiated, received, or otherwise made.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Wire transfer system</I> means a system through which an unconditional order to a bank to pay a fixed or determinable amount of money to a beneficiary upon receipt, or on a day stated in the order, is transmitted by electronic or other means through the network, between banks, or on the books of a bank. When referring to wire transfer systems, the terms in this regulation (such as “bank,” “originator's bank,” “beneficiary's bank,” and “intermediary bank”) are defined as those terms are defined in 12 CFR part 210, appendix B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.3   Designated payment systems.</HEAD>
<P>The following payment systems could be used by participants in connection with, or to facilitate, a restricted transaction:
</P>
<P>(a) Automated clearing house systems;
</P>
<P>(b) Card systems;
</P>
<P>(c) Check collection systems;
</P>
<P>(d) Money transmitting businesses solely to the extent they
</P>
<P>(1) Engage in the transmission of funds, which does not include check cashing, currency exchange, or the issuance or redemption of money orders, travelers' checks, and other similar instruments; and
</P>
<P>(2) Permit customers to initiate transmission of funds transactions remotely from a location other than a physical office of the money transmitting business; and
</P>
<P>(e) Wire transfer systems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.4   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Automated clearing house systems.</I> The participants processing a particular transaction through an automated clearing house system are exempt from this regulation's requirements for establishing written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent or prohibit restricted transactions with respect to that transaction, except for—
</P>
<P>(1) The receiving depository financial institution and any third-party processor receiving the transaction on behalf of the receiver in an ACH credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) The originating depository financial institution and any third-party processor initiating the transaction on behalf of the originator in an ACH debit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(3) The receiving gateway operator and any third-party processor that receives instructions for an ACH debit transaction directly from a foreign sender (which could include a foreign banking office, a foreign third-party processor, or a foreign originating gateway operator).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Check collection systems.</I> The participants in a particular check collection through a check collection system are exempt from this regulation's requirements for establishing written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent or prohibit restricted transactions with respect to that check collection, except for the depositary bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Money transmitting businesses.</I> The participants in a money transmitting business are exempt from this regulation's requirements for establishing written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent or prohibit restricted transactions, except for the operator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Wire transfer systems.</I> The participants in a particular wire transfer through a wire transfer system are exempt from this regulation's requirements for establishing written policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent or prohibit restricted transactions with respect to that transaction, except for the beneficiary's bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.5   Policies and procedures required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All non-exempt participants in designated payment systems shall establish and implement written policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) A non-exempt financial transaction provider participant in a designated payment system shall be considered to be in compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section if—
</P>
<P>(1) It relies on and complies with the written policies and procedures of the designated payment system that are reasonably designed to—
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and block restricted transactions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Otherwise prevent or prohibit the acceptance of the products or services of the designated payment system or participant in connection with restricted transactions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such policies and procedures of the designated payment system comply with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2) in this section, a participant in a designated payment system may rely on a written statement or notice by the operator of that designated payment system to its participants that states that the operator has designed or structured the system's policies and procedures for identifying and blocking or otherwise preventing or prohibiting restricted transactions to comply with the requirements of this part as conclusive evidence that the system's policies and procedures comply with the requirements of this part, unless the participant is notified otherwise by its Federal functional regulator or, in the case of participants that are not directly supervised by a Federal functional regulator, the Federal Trade Commission.
</P>
<P>(d) As provided in the Act, a person that identifies and blocks a transaction, prevents or prohibits the acceptance of its products or services in connection with a transaction, or otherwise refuses to honor a transaction, shall not be liable to any party for such action if—
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is a restricted transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) Such person reasonably believes the transaction to be a restricted transaction; or
</P>
<P>(3) The person is a participant in a designated payment system and blocks or otherwise prevents the transaction in reliance on the policies and procedures of the designated payment system in an effort to comply with this regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this part requires or is intended to suggest that designated payment systems or participants therein must or should block or otherwise prevent or prohibit any transaction in connection with any activity that is excluded from the definition of “unlawful Internet gambling” in the Act as an intrastate transaction, an intratribal transaction, or a transaction in connection with any activity that is allowed under the Interstate Horseracing Act of 1978 (15 U.S.C. 3001 <I>et seq.;</I> see § 233.1(a)).
</P>
<P>(f) Nothing in this part modifies any requirement imposed on a participant by other applicable law or regulation to file a suspicious activity report to the appropriate authorities.
</P>
<P>(g) The requirement of this part to establish and implement written policies and procedures applies only to the U.S. offices of participants in designated payment systems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.6   Non-exclusive examples of policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The examples of policies and procedures to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions set out in this section are non-exclusive. In establishing and implementing written policies and procedures to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions, a non-exempt participant in a designated payment system is permitted to design and implement policies and procedures tailored to its business that may be different than the examples provided in this section. In addition, non-exempt participants may use different policies and procedures with respect to different business lines or different parts of the organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Due diligence.</I> If a non-exempt participant in a designated payment system establishes and implements procedures for due diligence of its commercial customer accounts or commercial customer relationships in order to comply, in whole or in part, with the requirements of this regulation, those due diligence procedures will be deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if the procedures include the steps set out in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), and (b)(3) of this section and subject to paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) At the establishment of the account or relationship, the participant conducts due diligence of a commercial customer and its activities commensurate with the participant's judgment of the risk of restricted transactions presented by the customer's business.
</P>
<P>(2) Based on its due diligence, the participant makes a determination regarding the risk the commercial customer presents of engaging in an Internet gambling business and follows either paragraph (b)(2)(i) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The participant determines that the commercial customer presents a minimal risk of engaging in an Internet gambling business.
</P>
<P>(ii) The participant cannot determine that the commercial customer presents a minimal risk of engaging in an Internet gambling business, in which case it obtains the documentation in either paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) or (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) Certification from the commercial customer that it does not engage in an Internet gambling business; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the commercial customer does engage in an Internet gambling business, each of the following—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Evidence of legal authority to engage in the Internet gambling business, such as—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A copy of the commercial customer's license that expressly authorizes the customer to engage in the Internet gambling business issued by the appropriate State or Tribal authority or, if the commercial customer does not have such a license, a reasoned legal opinion that demonstrates that the commercial customer's Internet gambling business does not involve restricted transactions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A written commitment by the commercial customer to notify the participant of any changes in its legal authority to engage in its Internet gambling business.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A third-party certification that the commercial customer's systems for engaging in the Internet gambling business are reasonably designed to ensure that the commercial customer's Internet gambling business will remain within the licensed or otherwise lawful limits, including with respect to age and location verification.
</P>
<P>(3) The participant notifies all of its commercial customers, through provisions in the account or commercial customer relationship agreement or otherwise, that restricted transactions are prohibited from being processed through the account or relationship.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to the determination in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, participants may deem the following commercial customers to present a minimal risk of engaging in an Internet gambling business—
</P>
<P>(i) An entity that is directly supervised by a Federal functional regulator as set out in § 233.7(a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An agency, department, or division of the Federal government or a State government.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Automated clearing house system examples.</I> (1) The policies and procedures of the originating depository financial institution and any third party processor in an ACH debit transaction, and the receiving depository financial institution and any third party processor in an ACH credit transaction, are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if they—
</P>
<P>(i) Address methods to conduct due diligence in establishing a commercial customer account or relationship as set out in § 233.6(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Address methods to conduct due diligence as set out in § 233.6(b)(2)(ii)(B) in the event that the participant has actual knowledge that an existing commercial customer of the participant engages in an Internet gambling business; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include procedures to be followed with respect to a commercial customer if the originating depository financial institution or third-party processor has actual knowledge that its commercial customer has originated restricted transactions as ACH debit transactions or if the receiving depository financial institution or third-party processor has actual knowledge that its commercial customer has received restricted transactions as ACH credit transactions, such as procedures that address—
</P>
<P>(A) The circumstances under which the commercial customer should not be allowed to originate ACH debit transactions or receive ACH credit transactions; and
</P>
<P>(B) The circumstances under which the account should be closed.
</P>
<P>(2) The policies and procedures of a receiving gateway operator and third-party processor that receives instructions to originate an ACH debit transaction directly from a foreign sender are deemed to be reasonably designed to prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if they include procedures to be followed with respect to a foreign sender if the receiving gateway operator or third-party processor has actual knowledge, obtained through notification by a government entity, such as law enforcement or a regulatory agency, that such instructions included instructions for restricted transactions. Such procedures may address sending notification to the foreign sender, such as in the form of the notice contained in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Card system examples.</I> The policies and procedures of a card system operator, a merchant acquirer, third-party processor, or a card issuer, are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions, if the policies and procedures—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for either—
</P>
<P>(i) Methods to conduct due diligence—
</P>
<P>(A) In establishing a commercial customer account or relationship as set out in § 233.6(b); and
</P>
<P>(B) As set out in § 233.6(b)(2)(ii)(B) in the event that the participant has actual knowledge that an existing commercial customer of the participant engages in an Internet gambling business; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Implementation of a code system, such as transaction codes and merchant/business category codes, that are required to accompany the authorization request for a transaction, including—
</P>
<P>(A) The operational functionality to enable the card system operator or the card issuer to reasonably identify and deny authorization for a transaction that the coding procedure indicates may be a restricted transaction; and
</P>
<P>(B) Procedures for ongoing monitoring or testing by the card system operator to detect potential restricted transactions, including—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Conducting testing to ascertain whether transaction authorization requests are coded correctly; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Monitoring and analyzing payment patterns to detect suspicious payment volumes from a merchant customer; and
</P>
<P>(2) For the card system operator, merchant acquirer, or third-party processor, include procedures to be followed when the participant has actual knowledge that a merchant has received restricted transactions through the card system, such as—
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the access to the card system for the merchant, merchant acquirer, or third-party processor should be denied; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The circumstances under which the merchant account should be closed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Check collection system examples.</I> (1) The policies and procedures of a depositary bank are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions, if they—
</P>
<P>(i) Address methods for the depositary bank to conduct due diligence in establishing a commercial customer account or relationship as set out in § 233.6(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Address methods for the depositary bank to conduct due diligence as set out in § 233.6(b)(2)(ii)(B) in the event that the depositary bank has actual knowledge that an existing commercial customer engages in an Internet gambling business; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include procedures to be followed if the depositary bank has actual knowledge that a commercial customer of the depositary bank has deposited checks that are restricted transactions, such as procedures that address—
</P>
<P>(A) The circumstances under which check collection services for the customer should be denied; and
</P>
<P>(B) The circumstances under which the account should be closed.
</P>
<P>(2) The policies and procedures of a depositary bank that receives checks for collection from a foreign banking office are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if they include procedures to be followed by the depositary bank when it has actual knowledge, obtained through notification by a government entity, such as law enforcement or a regulatory agency, that a foreign banking office has sent checks to the depositary bank that are restricted transactions. Such procedures may address sending notification to the foreign banking office, such as in the form of the notice contained in the appendix to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Money transmitting business examples.</I> The policies and procedures of an operator of a money transmitting business are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if they—
</P>
<P>(1) Address methods for the operator to conduct due diligence in establishing a commercial customer relationship as set out in § 233.6(b);
</P>
<P>(2) Address methods for the operator to conduct due diligence as set out in § 233.6(b)(2)(ii)(B) in the event that the operator has actual knowledge that an existing commercial customer engages in an Internet gambling business;
</P>
<P>(3) Include procedures regarding ongoing monitoring or testing by the operator to detect potential restricted transactions, such as monitoring and analyzing payment patterns to detect suspicious payment volumes to any recipient; and
</P>
<P>(4) Include procedures when the operator has actual knowledge that a commercial customer of the operator has received restricted transactions through the money transmitting business, that address—
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which money transmitting services should be denied to that commercial customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The circumstances under which the commercial customer account should be closed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Wire transfer system examples.</I> The policies and procedures of the beneficiary's bank in a wire transfer are deemed to be reasonably designed to identify and block or otherwise prevent or prohibit restricted transactions if they—
</P>
<P>(1) Address methods for the beneficiary's bank to conduct due diligence in establishing a commercial customer account as set out in § 233.6(b);
</P>
<P>(2) Address methods for the beneficiary's bank to conduct due diligence as set out in § 233.6(b)(2)(ii)(B) in the event that the beneficiary's bank has actual knowledge that an existing commercial customer of the bank engages in an Internet gambling business;
</P>
<P>(3) Include procedures to be followed if the beneficiary's bank obtains actual knowledge that a commercial customer of the bank has received restricted transactions through the wire transfer system, such as procedures that address
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the beneficiary bank should deny wire transfer services to the commercial customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The circumstances under which the commercial customer account should be closed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 233.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 233.7   Regulatory enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements under this part are subject to the exclusive regulatory enforcement of—
</P>
<P>(a) The Federal functional regulators, with respect to the designated payment systems and participants therein that are subject to the respective jurisdiction of such regulators under section 505(a) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6805(a)) and section 5g of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7b-2); and
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Trade Commission, with respect to designated payment systems and participants therein not otherwise subject to the jurisdiction of any Federal functional regulators (including the Commission) as described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.4.0.1.8.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 233—Model Notice 
</HEAD>
<FP-1>[Date] 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Name of foreign sender or foreign banking office] 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Address] 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Re: <I>U.S. Unlawful Internet Gambling Enforcement Act Notice</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [Name of foreign counterparty]:
</FP-1>
<P>On [date], U.S. government officials informed us that your institution processed payments through our facilities for Internet gambling transactions restricted by U.S. law on [dates, recipients, and other relevant information if available].
</P>
<P>We provide this notice to comply with U.S. Government regulations implementing the Unlawful Internet Gambling Enforcement Act of 2006 (Act), a U.S. federal law. Our policies and procedures established in accordance with those regulations provide that we will notify a foreign counterparty if we learn that the counterparty has processed payments through our facilities for Internet gambling transactions restricted by the Act. This notice ensures that you are aware that we have received information that your institution has processed payments for Internet gambling restricted by the Act.
</P>
<P>The Act is codified in subchapter IV, chapter 53, title 31 of the U.S. Code (31 U.S.C. 5361 <I>et seq.</I>). Implementing regulations that duplicate one another can be found at part 233 of title 12 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (12 CFR part 233) and part 132 of title 31 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (31 CFR part 132).


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="234" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 234—DESIGNATED FINANCIAL MARKET UTILITIES (REGULATION HH)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5461 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 45919, Aug. 2, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 234.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of sections 805, 806, and 810 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376; 12 U.S.C. 5464, 5465, and 5469).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part establishes risk-management standards governing the operations related to the payment, clearing, and settlement activities of designated financial market utilities. In addition, this part sets out requirements and procedures for a designated financial market utility that proposes to make a change to its rules, procedures, or operations that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the designated financial market utility and for which the Board is the Supervisory Agency (as defined below). The risk management standards do not apply, however, to a designated financial market utility that is a derivatives clearing organization registered under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1) or a clearing agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1), which are governed by the risk-management standards promulgated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or the Securities and Exchange Commission, respectively, for which each is the Supervisory Agency. This part also sets out standards, restrictions, and guidelines regarding a Federal Reserve Bank establishing and maintaining an account for, and providing services to, a designated financial market utility. In addition, this part sets forth the terms under which a Reserve Bank may pay a designated financial market utility interest on the designated financial market utility's balances held at the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45919, Aug. 2, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 76979, Dec. 20, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Backtest</I> means the <I>ex post</I> comparison of realized outcomes with margin model forecasts to analyze and monitor model performance and overall margin coverage.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Central counterparty</I> means an entity that interposes itself between counterparties to contracts traded in one or more financial markets, becoming the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Central securities depository</I> means an entity that provides securities accounts and central safekeeping services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Critical operations</I> and <I>critical services</I> refer to any operations or services that the designated financial market utility identifies under § 234.3(a)(3)(iii)(A).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> means a financial market utility that is currently designated by the Financial Stability Oversight Council under section 804 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5463).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as the term is defined in section 803(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462(6)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Link</I> means, for purposes of § 234.3(a)(20), a set of contractual and operational arrangements between two or more central counterparties, central securities depositories, or securities settlement systems, or between one or more of these financial market utilities and one or more trade repositories, that connect them directly or indirectly, such as for the purposes of participating in settlement, cross margining, or expanding their services to additional instruments and participants.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Operational risk</I> means the risk that deficiencies in information systems or internal processes, human errors, management failures, or disruptions from external events will result in the reduction, deterioration, or breakdown of services provided by the designated financial market utility.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Orderly wind-down</I> means the actions of a designated financial market utility to effect the permanent cessation, sale, or transfer of one or more of its critical operations or services in a manner that would not increase the risk of significant liquidity or credit problems spreading among financial institutions or markets and thereby threaten the stability of the U.S. financial system.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Recovery</I> means, for purposes of § 234.3(a)(3) and (15), the actions of a designated financial market utility, consistent with its rules, procedures, and other <I>ex ante</I> contractual arrangements, to address any uncovered loss, liquidity shortfall, or capital inadequacy, whether arising from participant default or other causes (such as business, operational, or other structural weaknesses), including actions to replenish any depleted prefunded financial resources and liquidity arrangements, as necessary to maintain the designated financial market utility's viability as a going concern and to continue its provision of critical services.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Securities settlement system</I> means an entity that enables securities to be transferred and settled by book entry and allows transfers of securities free of or against payment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Stress test</I> means the estimation of credit or liquidity exposures that would result from the realization of potential stress scenarios, such as extreme price changes, multiple defaults, and changes in other valuation inputs and assumptions.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Supervisory Agency</I> has the same meaning as the term is defined in section 803(8) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462(8)).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Third party</I> means any entity, other than a participant of a designated financial market utility acting in that capacity, with which a designated financial market utility maintains a business arrangement, by contract or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Trade repository</I> means an entity that maintains a centralized electronic record of transaction data, such as a swap data repository or a security-based swap data repository.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. HH, 89 FR 18765, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.3   Standards for designated financial market utilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A designated financial market utility must implement rules, procedures, or operations designed to ensure that it meets or exceeds the following risk-management standards with respect to its payment, clearing, and settlement activities.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Legal basis.</I> The designated financial market utility has a well-founded, clear, transparent, and enforceable legal basis for each material aspect of its activities in all relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Governance.</I> The designated financial market utility has governance arrangements that—
</P>
<P>(i) Are clear, transparent, and documented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Promote the safety and efficiency of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Support the stability of the broader financial system, other relevant public interest considerations such as fostering fair and efficient markets, and the legitimate interests of relevant stakeholders, including the designated financial market utility's owners, participants, and participants' customers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Are designed to ensure—
</P>
<P>(A) Lines of responsibility and accountability are clear and direct;
</P>
<P>(B) The roles and responsibilities of the board of directors and senior management are clearly specified;
</P>
<P>(C) The board of directors consists of suitable individuals having appropriate skills to fulfill its multiple roles;
</P>
<P>(D) The board of directors includes a majority of individuals who are not executives, officers, or employees of the designated financial market utility or an affiliate of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(E) The board of directors establishes policies and procedures to identify, address, and manage potential conflicts of interest of board members and to review its performance and the performance of individual board members on a regular basis;
</P>
<P>(F) The board of directors establishes a clear, documented risk-management framework that includes the designated financial market utility's risk-tolerance policy, assigns responsibilities and accountability for risk decisions, and addresses decisionmaking in crises and emergencies;
</P>
<P>(G) Senior management has the appropriate experience, skills, and integrity necessary to discharge operational and risk-management responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(H) The risk-management function has sufficient authority, resources, and independence from other operations of the designated financial market utility, and has a direct reporting line to and is overseen by a committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(I) The internal audit function has sufficient authority, resources, and independence from management, and has a direct reporting line to and is overseen by a committee of the board of directors; and
</P>
<P>(J) Major decisions of the board of directors are clearly disclosed to relevant stakeholders, including the designated financial market utility's owners, participants, and participants' customers, and, where there is a broad market impact, the public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Framework for the comprehensive management of risks.</I> The designated financial market utility has a sound risk-management framework for comprehensively managing legal, credit, liquidity, operational, general business, custody, investment, and other risks that arise in or are borne by the designated financial market utility. This framework is subject to periodic review and includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Risk-management policies, procedures, and systems that enable the designated financial market utility to identify, measure, monitor, and manage the risks that arise in or are borne by the designated financial market utility, including those posed by other entities as a result of interdependencies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk-management policies, procedures, and systems that enable the designated financial market utility to identify, measure, monitor, and manage the material risks that it poses to other entities, such as other financial market utilities, trade repositories, settlement banks, liquidity providers, or service providers, as a result of interdependencies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Integrated plans for the designated financial market utility's recovery and orderly wind-down that—
</P>
<P>(A) Identify the designated financial market utility's critical operations and services related to payment, clearing, and settlement;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify scenarios that may potentially prevent it from being able to provide its critical operations and services as a going concern, including uncovered credit losses (as described in paragraph (a)(4)(vi)(A) of this section), uncovered liquidity shortfalls (as described in paragraph (a)(7)(viii)(A) of this section), and general business losses (as described in paragraph (a)(15) of this section);
</P>
<P>(C) Identify criteria that could trigger the implementation of the recovery or orderly wind-down plan;
</P>
<P>(D) Include rules, procedures, policies, and any other tools the designated financial market utility would use in a recovery or orderly wind-down to address the scenarios identified under paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Include procedures to ensure timely implementation of the recovery and orderly wind-down plans in the scenarios identified under paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Include procedures for informing the Board, as soon as practicable, if the designated financial market utility is considering initiating recovery or orderly wind-down; and
</P>
<P>(G) Are reviewed the earlier of every two years or after changes to the system or the environment in which the designated financial market utility operates that would significantly affect the viability or execution of the plans.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit risk.</I> The designated financial market utility effectively measures, monitors, and manages its credit exposures to participants and those arising from its payment, clearing, and settlement processes. In this regard, the designated financial market utility maintains sufficient financial resources to cover its credit exposure to each participant fully with a high degree of confidence. In addition, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) If it operates as a central counterparty, maintains additional prefunded financial resources that are sufficient to cover its credit exposure under a wide range of significantly different stress scenarios that includes the default of the participant and its affiliates that would potentially cause the largest aggregate credit exposure to the designated financial market utility in extreme but plausible market conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) If it operates as a central counterparty, may be directed by the Board to maintain additional prefunded financial resources that are sufficient to cover its credit exposure under a wide range of significantly different stress scenarios that includes the default of the two participants and their affiliates that would potentially cause the largest aggregate credit exposure to the designated financial market utility in extreme but plausible market conditions. The Board may consider such a direction if the central counterparty—
</P>
<P>(A) Is involved in activities with a more-complex risk profile, such as clearing financial instruments characterized by discrete jump-to-default price changes or that are highly correlated with potential participant defaults, or
</P>
<P>(B) Has been determined by another jurisdiction to be systemically important in that jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) If it operates as a central counterparty, determines the amount and regularly tests the sufficiency of the total financial resources available to meet the requirements of this paragraph by—
</P>
<P>(A) On a daily basis, conducting a stress test of its total financial resources using standard and predetermined stress scenarios, parameters, and assumptions;
</P>
<P>(B) On at least a monthly basis, and more frequently when the products cleared or markets served experience high volatility or become less liquid, or when the size or concentration of positions held by the central counterparty's participants increases significantly, conducting a comprehensive and thorough analysis of the existing stress scenarios, models, and underlying parameters and assumptions such that the designated financial market utility meets its required level of default protection in light of current and evolving market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Having clear procedures to report the results of its stress tests to decisionmakers at the central counterparty and using these results to evaluate the adequacy of and adjust its total financial resources;
</P>
<P>(iv) If it operates as a central counterparty, excludes assessments for additional default or guaranty fund contributions (that is, default or guaranty fund contributions that are not prefunded) in its calculation of financial resources available to meet the total financial resource requirement under this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(v) At least annually, provides for a validation of the designated financial market utility's risk-management models used to determine the sufficiency of its total financial resources that—
</P>
<P>(A) Includes the designated financial market utility's models used to comply with the collateral provisions under paragraph (a)(5) of this section and models used to determine initial margin under paragraph (a)(6) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is performed by a qualified person who does not perform functions associated with the model (except as part of the annual model validation), does not report to such a person, and does not have a financial interest in whether the model is determined to be valid; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Establishes rules and procedures that explicitly—
</P>
<P>(A) Address allocation of credit losses the designated financial market utility may face if its collateral and other financial resources are insufficient to cover fully its credit exposures, including the repayment of any funds a designated financial market utility may borrow from liquidity providers; and
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the designated financial market utility's process to replenish any financial resources that the designated financial market utility may employ during a stress event, including a participant default.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Collateral.</I> If it requires collateral to manage its or its participants' credit exposure, the designated financial market utility accepts collateral with low credit, liquidity, and market risks and sets and enforces conservative haircuts and concentration limits, in order to ensure the value of the collateral in the event of liquidation and that the collateral can be used in a timely manner. In this regard, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Establishes prudent valuation practices and develops haircuts that are tested regularly and take into account stressed market conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes haircuts that are calibrated to include relevant periods of stressed market conditions to reduce the need for procyclical adjustments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for annual validation of its haircut procedures, as part of its risk-management model validation under paragraph (a)(4)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Avoids concentrated holdings of any particular type of asset where the concentration could significantly impair the ability to liquidate such assets quickly without significant adverse price effects;
</P>
<P>(v) Uses a collateral management system that is well-designed and operationally flexible such that it, among other things,—
</P>
<P>(A) Accommodates changes in the ongoing monitoring and management of collateral; and
</P>
<P>(B) Allows for the timely valuation of collateral and execution of any collateral or margin calls.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Margin.</I> If it operates as a central counterparty, the designated financial market utility covers its credit exposures to its participants for all products by establishing a risk-based margin system that—
</P>
<P>(i) Is conceptually and methodologically sound for the risks and particular attributes of each product, portfolio, and markets it serves, as demonstrated by documented and empirical evidence supporting design choices, methods used, variables selected, theoretical bases, key assumptions, and limitations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes margin levels commensurate with the risks and particular attributes of each product, portfolio, and market it serves;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a reliable source of timely price data;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has procedures and sound valuation models for addressing circumstances in which pricing data are not readily available or reliable;
</P>
<P>(v) Marks participant positions to market and collects variation margin at least daily and has the operational capacity to make intraday margin calls and payments, both scheduled and unscheduled, to participants;
</P>
<P>(vi) Generates initial margin requirements sufficient to cover potential changes in the value of each participant's position during the interval between the last margin collection and the closeout of positions following a participant default by—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensuring that initial margin meets an established single-tailed confidence level of at least 99 percent with respect to the estimated distribution of future exposure; and
</P>
<P>(B) Using a conservative estimate of the time horizons for the effective hedging or closeout of the particular types of products cleared, including in stressed market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Is monitored on an ongoing basis and regularly reviewed, tested, and verified through—
</P>
<P>(A) Daily backtests;
</P>
<P>(B) Monthly sensitivity analyses, performed more frequently during stressed market conditions or significant fluctuations in participant positions, with this analysis taking into account a wide range of parameters and assumptions that reflect possible market conditions that captures a variety of historical and hypothetical conditions, including the most volatile periods that have been experienced by the markets the designated financial market utility serves; and
</P>
<P>(C) Annual model validations of the designated financial market utility's margin models and related parameters and assumptions, as part of its risk-management model validation under paragraph (a)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Liquidity risk.</I> The designated financial market utility effectively measures, monitors, and manages the liquidity risk that arises in or is borne by the designated financial market utility. In this regard, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Has effective operational and analytical tools to identify, measure, and monitor its settlement and funding flows on an ongoing and timely basis, including its use of intraday liquidity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains sufficient liquid resources in all relevant currencies to effect same-day and, where applicable, intraday and multiday settlement of payment obligations with a high degree of confidence under a wide range of significantly different potential stress scenarios that includes the default of the participant and its affiliates that would generate the largest aggregate liquidity obligation for the designated financial market utility in extreme but plausible market conditions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Holds, for purposes of meeting the minimum liquid resource requirement under paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section,—
</P>
<P>(A) cash in each relevant currency at the central bank of issue or creditworthy commercial banks;
</P>
<P>(B) assets that are readily available and convertible into cash, through committed arrangements without material adverse change conditions, such as collateralized lines of credit, foreign exchange swaps, and repurchase agreements; or
</P>
<P>(C) subject to the determination of the Board, highly marketable collateral and investments that are readily available and convertible into cash with prearranged and highly reliable funding arrangements, even in extreme but plausible market conditions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Evaluates and confirms, at least annually, whether each provider of the arrangements as described in paragraphs (a)(7)(iii)(B) and (C) of this section has sufficient information to understand and manage that provider's associated liquidity risks, and whether the provider has the capacity to perform;
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains and tests its procedures and operational capacity for accessing each type of liquid resource required under this paragraph at least annually;
</P>
<P>(vi) Determines the amount and regularly tests the sufficiency of the liquid resources necessary to meet the minimum liquid resource requirement under this paragraph by—
</P>
<P>(A) On a daily basis, conducting a stress test of its liquid resources using standard and predetermined stress scenarios, parameters, and assumptions;
</P>
<P>(B) On at least a monthly basis, and more frequently when products cleared or markets served experience high volatility or become less liquid, or when the size or concentration of positions held by the designated financial market utility's participants increases significantly, conducting a comprehensive and thorough analysis of the existing stress scenarios, models, and underlying parameters and assumptions such that the designated financial market utility meets its identified liquidity needs and resources in light of current and evolving market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Having clear procedures to report the results of its stress tests to decisionmakers at the designated financial market utility and using these results to evaluate the adequacy of and make adjustments to its liquidity risk-management framework;
</P>
<P>(vii) At least annually, provides for a validation of its liquidity risk-management model by a qualified person who does not perform functions associated with the model (except as part of the annual model validation), does not report to such a person, and does not have a financial interest in whether the model is determined to be valid; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Establishes rules and procedures that explicitly—
</P>
<P>(A) Address potential liquidity shortfalls that would not be covered by the designated financial market utility's liquid resources and avoid unwinding, revoking, or delaying the same-day settlement of payment obligations; and
</P>
<P>(B) Describe the designated financial market utility's process to replenish any liquid resources that it may employ during a stress event, including a participant default.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Settlement finality.</I> The designated financial market utility provides clear and certain final settlement intraday or in real time as appropriate, and at a minimum, by the end of the value date. The designated financial market utility clearly defines the point at which settlement is final and the point after which unsettled payments, transfer instructions, or other settlement instructions may not be revoked by a participant.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Money settlements.</I> The designated financial market utility conducts its money settlements in central bank money where practical and available. If central bank money is not used, the designated financial market utility minimizes and strictly controls the credit and liquidity risks arising from conducting its money settlements in commercial bank money, including settlement on its own books. If it conducts its money settlements at a commercial bank, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Establishes and monitors adherence to criteria based on high standards for its settlement banks that take account of, among other things, their applicable regulatory and supervisory frameworks, creditworthiness, capitalization, access to liquidity, and operational reliability;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitors and manages the concentration of credit and liquidity exposures to its commercial settlement banks; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensures that its legal agreements with its settlement banks state clearly—
</P>
<P>(A) When transfers on the books of individual settlement banks are expected to occur;
</P>
<P>(B) That transfers are final when funds are credited to the recipient's account; and
</P>
<P>(C) That the funds credited to the recipient are available immediately for retransfer or withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Physical deliveries.</I> A designated financial market utility that operates as a central counterparty, securities settlement system, or central securities depository clearly states its obligations with respect to the delivery of physical instruments or commodities and identifies, monitors, and manages the risks associated with such physical deliveries.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Central securities depositories.</I> A designated financial market utility that operates as a central securities depository has appropriate rules and procedures to help ensure the integrity of securities issues and minimizes and manages the risks associated with the safekeeping and transfer of securities. In this regard, the designated financial market utility maintains securities in an immobilized or dematerialized form for their transfer by book entry.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Exchange-of-value settlement systems.</I> If it settles transactions that involve the settlement of two linked obligations, such as a transfer of securities against payment or the exchange of one currency for another, the designated financial market utility eliminates principal risk by conditioning the final settlement of one obligation upon the final settlement of the other.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Participant-default rules and procedures.</I> The designated financial market utility has effective and clearly defined rules and procedures to manage a participant default that are designed to ensure that the designated financial market utility can take timely action to contain losses and liquidity pressures so that it can continue to meet its obligations. In this regard, the designated financial market utility tests and reviews its default procedures, including any closeout procedures, at least annually or following material changes to these rules and procedures.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Segregation and portability.</I> A designated financial market utility that operates as a central counterparty has rules and procedures that enable the segregation and portability of positions of a participant's customers and the collateral provided to the designated financial market utility with respect to those positions.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>General business risk.</I> The designated financial market utility identifies, monitors, and manages its general business risk, which is the risk of losses that may arise from its administration and operation as a business enterprise (including losses from execution of business strategy, negative cash flows, or unexpected and excessively large operating expenses) that are neither related to participant default nor separately covered by financial resources maintained for credit or liquidity risk. In this regard, in addition to holding financial resources required to manage credit risk (paragraph (a)(4) of this section) and liquidity risk (paragraph (a)(7) of this section), the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains liquid net assets funded by equity that are at all times sufficient to ensure a recovery or orderly wind-down of critical operations and services such that it—
</P>
<P>(A) Holds unencumbered liquid financial assets, such as cash or highly liquid securities, that are sufficient to cover the greater of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The cost to implement the plans to address general business losses as required under paragraph (a)(3)(iii) of this section and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Six months of current operating expenses or as otherwise determined by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(B) Holds equity, such as common stock, disclosed reserves, and other retained earnings, that is at all times greater than or equal to the amount of unencumbered liquid financial assets that are required to be held under paragraph (a)(15)(i)(A) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains a viable plan, approved by the board of directors, for raising additional equity should the designated financial market utility's equity fall below the amount required under paragraph (a)(15)(i) of this section, and updates the plan the earlier of every two years or following changes to the designated financial market utility or the environment in which it operates that would significantly affect the viability or execution of the plan.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Custody and investment risks.</I> The designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Safeguards its own and its participants' assets and minimizes the risk of loss on and delay in access to these assets by—
</P>
<P>(A) Holding its own and its participants' assets at supervised and regulated entities that have accounting practices, safekeeping procedures, and internal controls that fully protect these assets; and
</P>
<P>(B) Evaluating its exposures to its custodian banks, taking into account the full scope of its relationships with each; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Invests its own and its participants' assets—
</P>
<P>(A) In instruments with minimal credit, market, and liquidity risks, such as investments that are secured by, or are claims on, high-quality obligors and investments that allow for timely liquidation with little, if any, adverse price effect; and
</P>
<P>(B) Using an investment strategy that is consistent with its overall risk-management strategy and fully disclosed to its participants.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Operational risk.</I> The designated financial market utility manages its operational risks by establishing a robust operational risk-management framework that is approved by the board of directors. In this regard, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the plausible sources of operational risk, both internal and external, and mitigates their impact through the use of appropriate systems, policies, procedures, and controls—including those specific systems, policies, procedures, or controls required pursuant to this paragraph (a)(17)—that are reviewed, audited, and tested periodically and after major changes such that—
</P>
<P>(A) The designated financial market utility conducts tests—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In accordance with a documented testing framework that addresses, at a minimum, scope, frequency, participation, interdependencies, and reporting; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That assess whether the designated financial market utility's systems, policies, procedures, or controls function as intended;
</P>
<P>(B) The designated financial market utility reviews the design, implementation, and testing of affected and similar systems, policies, procedures, and controls, after material operational incidents, including the material operational incidents described in paragraph (a)(17)(vi)(A) of this section, or after changes to the environment in which the designated financial market utility operates that could significantly affect the plausible sources or mitigants of operational risk; and
</P>
<P>(C) The designated financial market utility remediates as soon as possible, following established governance processes, deficiencies in systems, policies, procedures, or controls identified in the process of review or testing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies, monitors, and manages the risks its operations might pose to other entities such as those referenced in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has systems, policies, procedures, and controls that are designed to achieve clearly defined objectives to ensure a high degree of security and operational reliability;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has systems that have adequate, scalable capacity to handle increasing stress volumes and achieve the designated financial market utility's service-level objectives;
</P>
<P>(v) Has comprehensive physical, information, and cyber security policies, procedures, and controls that enable the designated financial market utility to identify, monitor, and manage potential and evolving vulnerabilities and threats;
</P>
<P>(vi) Has a documented framework for incident management that provides for the prompt detection, analysis, and escalation of an incident, appropriate procedures for addressing an incident, and incorporation of lessons learned following an incident. This framework includes a plan for notification and communication of material operational incidents to identified relevant entities that ensures the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(A) Immediately notifies the Board, in accordance with the process established by the Board, when the designated financial market utility activates its business continuity plan or has a reasonable basis to conclude that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) There is an actual or likely disruption, or material degradation, to any critical operations or services, or to its ability to fulfill its obligations on time; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) There is unauthorized entry or a vulnerability that could allow unauthorized entry into the designated financial market utility's computer, network, electronic, technical, automated, or similar systems that affects or has the potential to affect its critical operations or services; and
</P>
<P>(B) Establishes criteria and processes providing for timely communication and responsible disclosure of material operational incidents to the designated financial market utility's participants and other relevant entities, such that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Affected participants are notified immediately of actual disruptions or material degradations to any critical operations or services, or to the designated financial market utility's ability to fulfill its obligations on time; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Participants and other relevant entities, as identified in the designated financial market utility's plan for notification and communication, are notified in a timely manner of material operational incidents described in paragraph (a)(17)(vi)(A) of this section, as appropriate, taking into account the risks and benefits of the disclosure to the designated financial market utility and such participants and other relevant entities;
</P>
<P>(vii) Has business continuity management that provides for rapid recovery and timely resumption of critical operations and services and fulfillment of its obligations, including in the event of a wide-scale disruption or a major disruption;
</P>
<P>(viii) Has a business continuity plan that—
</P>
<P>(A) Incorporates the use of two sites providing for sufficient redundancy supporting critical operations that are located at a sufficient geographical distance from each other to have a distinct risk profile;
</P>
<P>(B) Is designed to enable critical systems, including information technology systems, to recover and resume critical operations and services no later than two hours following disruptive events;
</P>
<P>(C) Is designed to enable it to complete settlement by the end of the day of the disruption, even in case of extreme circumstances;
</P>
<P>(D) Sets out criteria and processes by which the designated financial market utility will reestablish availability for affected participants and other entities following a disruption to the designated financial market utility's critical operations or services;
</P>
<P>(E) Provides for testing, pursuant to the requirements under paragraphs (a)(17)(i)(A) and (C) of this section, at least annually, of the designated financial market utility's business continuity arrangements, including the people, processes, and technologies of the sites required under paragraph (a)(17)(viii)(A) of this section, such that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The designated financial market utility can demonstrate that it can run live production at the sites required under paragraph (a)(17)(viii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The designated financial market utility assesses the capability of its systems and effectiveness of its procedures for data recovery and data reconciliation to meet the recovery and resumption objectives under paragraphs (a)(17)(viii)(B) and (C) of this section, even in case of extreme circumstances, including in the event of data loss or data corruption; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The designated financial market utility can demonstrate that it has geographically dispersed staff who can effectively run the operations and manage the business of the designated financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(F) Is reviewed, pursuant to the requirements under paragraphs (a)(17)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, at least annually, in order to—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Incorporate lessons learned from actual and averted disruptions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Update scenarios and assumptions in order to ensure responsiveness to the evolving risk environment and incorporate new and evolving sources of operational risk; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Has systems, policies, procedures, and controls that effectively identify, monitor, and manage risks associated with third-party relationships, and that ensure that, for any service that is performed for the designated financial market utility by a third party, risks are identified, monitored, and managed to the same extent as if the designated financial market utility were performing the service itself. In this regard, the designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(A) Regularly conducts risk assessments of third parties;
</P>
<P>(B) Establishes information-sharing arrangements, as appropriate, with third parties that provide services material to any of the designated financial market utility's critical operations or services; and
</P>
<P>(C) Addresses in its business continuity management and testing, as appropriate, third parties that provide services material to any of the designated financial market utility's critical operations or services.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Access and participation requirements.</I> The designated financial market utility has objective, risk-based, and publicly disclosed criteria for participation, which permit fair and open access. The designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Monitors compliance with its participation requirements on an ongoing basis and has the authority to impose more-stringent restrictions or other risk controls on a participant in situations where the designated financial market utility determines the participant poses heightened risk to the designated financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has clearly defined and publicly disclosed procedures for facilitating the suspension and orderly exit of a participant that fails to meet the participation requirements.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Tiered participation arrangements.</I> The designated financial market utility identifies, monitors, and manages the material risks arising from arrangements in which firms that are not direct participants in the designated financial market utility rely on the services provided by direct participants to access the designated financial market utility's payment, clearing, or settlement facilities, whether the risks are borne by the designated financial market utility or by its participants as a result of their participation. The designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Conducts an analysis to determine whether material risks arise from tiered participation arrangements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where material risks are identified, mitigates or manages such risks; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviews and updates the analysis conducted under paragraph (a)(19)(i) of this section the earlier of every two years or following material changes to the system design or operations or the environment in which the designated financial market utility operates if those changes could affect the analysis conducted under paragraph (a)(19)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Links.</I> If it operates as a central counterparty, securities settlement system, or central securities depository and establishes a link with one or more of these types of financial market utilities or trade repositories, the designated financial market utility identifies, monitors, and manages risks related to this link. In this regard, each central counterparty in a link arrangement with another central counterparty covers, at least on a daily basis, its current and potential future exposures to the linked central counterparty and its participants, if any, fully with a high degree of confidence without reducing the central counterparty's ability to fulfill its obligations to its own participants.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Efficiency and effectiveness.</I> The designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Is efficient and effective in meeting the requirements of its participants and the markets it serves, in particular, with regard to its—
</P>
<P>(A) Clearing and settlement arrangement;
</P>
<P>(B) Risk-management policies, procedures, and systems;
</P>
<P>(C) Scope of products cleared and settled; and
</P>
<P>(D) Use of technology and communication procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has clearly defined goals and objectives that are measurable and achievable, such as minimum service levels, risk-management expectations, and business priorities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has policies and procedures for the regular review of its efficiency and effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Communication procedures and standards.</I> The designated financial market utility uses, or at a minimum accommodates, relevant internationally accepted communication procedures and standards in order to facilitate efficient payment, clearing, and settlement.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Disclosure of rules, key procedures, and market data.</I> The designated financial market utility—
</P>
<P>(i) Has clear and comprehensive rules and procedures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly discloses all rules and key procedures, including key aspects of its default rules and procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides sufficient information to enable participants to have an accurate understanding of the risks, fees, and other material costs they incur by participating in the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides a comprehensive public disclosure of its legal, governance, risk management, and operating framework, that includes—
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Executive summary.</I> An executive summary of the key points from paragraphs (a)(23)(iv)(B) through (D) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Summary of major changes since the last update of the disclosure.</I> A summary of the major changes since the last update of paragraph (a)(23)(iv)(C), (D), or (E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) <I>General background on the designated financial market utility.</I> A description of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The designated financial market utility's function and the markets it serves,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Basic data and performance statistics on its services and operations, such as basic volume and value statistics by product type, average aggregate intraday exposures to its participants, and statistics on the designated financial market utility's operational reliability, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The designated financial market utility's general organization, legal and regulatory framework, and system design and operations;
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Standard-by-standard summary narrative.</I> A comprehensive narrative disclosure for each applicable standard set forth in this paragraph (a) with sufficient detail and context to enable a reader to understand the designated financial market utility's approach to controlling the risks and addressing the requirements in each standard; and
</P>
<P>(E) <I>List of publicly available resources.</I> A list of publicly available resources, including those referenced in the disclosure, that may help a reader understand how the designated financial market utility controls its risks and addresses the requirements set forth in this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(v) Updates the public disclosure under paragraph (a)(23)(iv) of this section the earlier of every two years or to reflect changes to its system or the environment in which it operates that would significantly change the accuracy of the statements provided under paragraph (a)(23)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board, by order, may apply heightened risk-management standards to a particular designated financial market utility in accordance with the risks presented by that designated financial market utility. The Board, by order, may waive the application of a standard or standards to a particular designated financial market utility where the risks presented by or the design of that designated financial market utility would make the application of the standard or standards inappropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45919, Aug. 2, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 65558, Nov. 5, 2014; Reg. HH, 89 FR 18766, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.4   Changes to rules, procedures, or operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advance notice.</I> (1) A designated financial market utility shall provide at least 60-days advance notice to the Board of any proposed change to its rules, procedures, or operations that could materially affect the nature or level of risks presented by the designated financial market utility.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of the proposed change shall describe—
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the change and expected effects on risks to the designated financial market utility, its participants, or the market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) How the designated financial market utility plans to manage any identified risks.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may require the designated financial market utility to provide additional information necessary to assess the effect the proposed change would have on the nature or level of risks associated with the utility's payment, clearing, or settlement activities and the sufficiency of any proposed risk-management techniques.
</P>
<P>(4) A designated financial market utility shall not implement a change to which the Board has an objection.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board will notify the designated financial market utility of any objection before the end of 60 days after the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The date the Board receives the notice of proposed change; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the Board receives any further information it requests for consideration of the notice.
</P>
<P>(6) A designated financial market utility may implement a change if it has not received an objection to the proposed change before the end of 60 days after the later of—
</P>
<P>(i) The date the Board receives the notice of proposed change; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the Board receives any further information it requests for consideration of the notice.
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to proposed changes that raise novel or complex issues, the Board may, by written notice during the 60-day review period, extend the review period for an additional 60 days. Any extension under this paragraph will extend the time periods under paragraphs (a)(5) and (a)(6) of this section to 120 days.
</P>
<P>(8) A designated financial market utility may implement a proposed change before the expiration of the applicable review period if the Board notifies the designated financial market utility in writing that the Board does not object to the proposed change and authorizes the designated financial market utility to implement the change on an earlier date, subject to any conditions imposed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency changes.</I> (1) A designated financial market utility may implement a change that would otherwise require advance notice under this section if it determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) An emergency exists; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Immediate implementation of the change is necessary for the designated financial market utility to continue to provide its services in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(2) The designated financial market utility shall provide notice of any such emergency change to the Board as soon as practicable and no later than 24 hours after implementation of the change.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the information required for changes requiring advance notice in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the notice of an emergency change shall describe—
</P>
<P>(i) The nature of the emergency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reason the change was necessary for the designated financial market utility to continue to provide its services in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may require modification or rescission of the change if it finds that the change is not consistent with the purposes of the Dodd-Frank Act or any applicable rules, order, or standards prescribed under section 805(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Materiality.</I> (1) The term “materially affect the nature or level of risks presented” in paragraph (a)(1) of this section means matters as to which there is a reasonable possibility that the change would materially affect the overall nature or level of risk presented by the designated financial market utility, including risk arising in the performance of payment, clearing, or settlement functions.
</P>
<P>(2) A change to rules, procedures, or operations that would materially affect the nature or level of risks presented includes, but is not limited to, changes that materially affect any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Participant eligibility or access criteria;
</P>
<P>(ii) Product eligibility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk management;
</P>
<P>(iv) Settlement failure or default procedures;
</P>
<P>(v) Financial resources;
</P>
<P>(vi) Business continuity and disaster recovery plans;
</P>
<P>(vii) Daily or intraday settlement procedures;
</P>
<P>(viii) The scope of services, including the addition of a new service or discontinuation of an existing service;
</P>
<P>(ix) Technical design or operating platform, which results in non-routine changes to the underlying technological framework for payment, clearing, or settlement functions; or
</P>
<P>(x) Governance.
</P>
<P>(3) A change to rules, procedures, or operations that does not meet the conditions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section and would not materially affect the nature or level of risks presented includes, but is not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A routine technology systems upgrade;
</P>
<P>(ii) A change in a fee, price, or other charge for services provided by the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iii) A change related solely to the administration of the designated financial market utility or related to the routine, daily administration, direction, and control of employees; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A clerical change and other non-substantive revisions to rules, procedures, or other documentation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 45919, Aug. 2, 2012. Redesignated at 79 FR 65562, Nov. 5, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.5   Access to Federal Reserve Bank accounts and services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This section applies to any designated financial market utility for which the Board may authorize a Federal Reserve Bank to open an account or provide services in accordance with section 806(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act. Upon receipt of Board authorization and subject to any limitations, restrictions, or other requirements established by the Board, a Federal Reserve Bank may enter into agreements governing the details of its accounts and services with a designated financial market utility, consistent with this section and any other applicable Board direction. The agreements may include, among other things, provisions regarding documentation to establish the account and receive services, conditions imposed on the account and services, service charges, reporting, accounting for activity in the account, liability and duty of care, and termination.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal Reserve Bank should ensure that its establishment and maintenance of an account for or provision of services to a designated financial market utility does not create undue credit, settlement, or other risk to the Reserve Bank. In order to establish and maintain an account with a Federal Reserve Bank or receive financial services from a Federal Reserve Bank, the designated financial market utility must be in compliance with the Supervisory Agency's regulatory and supervisory requirements regarding financial resources, liquidity, participant default management, and other aspects of risk management, as determined by the Supervisory Agency. In addition, at a minimum, the designated financial market utility must, in the Federal Reserve Bank's judgment—
</P>
<P>(1) Be in generally sound financial condition, including maintenance of sufficient working capital and cash flow to permit the designated financial market utility to continue as a going concern and to meet its current and projected operating expenses under a range of scenarios;
</P>
<P>(2) Be in compliance with Board orders and policies, Federal Reserve Bank account agreements and, as applicable, operating circulars, and other applicable Federal Reserve requirements regarding the establishment and maintenance of an account at a Federal Reserve Bank and the receipt of financial services from a Federal Reserve Bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) Have an ongoing ability, including during periods of market stress or a participant default, to meet all of its obligations under its agreement for a Federal Reserve Bank account and services, including by maintaining—
</P>
<P>(i) Sufficient liquid resources to meet its obligations under the account agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The operational capacity to ensure that such liquid resources are available to satisfy the account obligations on a timely basis in accordance with the account agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sound money settlement processes designed to adequately monitor its Federal Reserve Bank account on an intraday basis, process money transfers through its account in an orderly manner, and complete final money settlement no later than the value date.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board will consult with the Supervisory Agency of a designated financial market utility prior to authorizing a Federal Reserve Bank to open an account, and periodically thereafter, to ascertain the views of the Supervisory Agency regarding the designated financial market utility's compliance with the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) In addition to any right that a Reserve Bank has to limit or terminate an account or the use of a service pursuant to its account agreement, the Board may direct the Federal Reserve Bank to impose limits, restrictions, or other conditions on the availability or use of a Federal Reserve Bank account or service by a designated financial market utility, including directing the Reserve Bank to terminate the use of a particular service or to close the account. If the Reserve Bank determines that a designated financial market utility no longer complies with one or more of the minimum conditions in subsection (b), the Reserve Bank will consult with the Board regarding continued maintenance of the account and provision of services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 76979, Dec. 20, 2013. Redesignated and amended at 79 FR 65562, Nov. 5, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 234.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 234.6   Interest on balances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal Reserve Bank may pay interest on balances maintained by a designated financial market utility at the Federal Reserve Bank in accordance with this section and under such other terms and conditions as the Board may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(b) Interest on balances paid under this section shall be at the rate paid on balances maintained by depository institutions or another rate determined by the Board from time to time, not to exceed the general level of short-term interest rates.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, “short-term interest rates” shall have the same meaning as the meaning provided for that term in § 204.10(b)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 76979, Dec. 20, 2013. Redesignated at 79 FR 65562, Nov. 5, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="235" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 235—DEBIT CARD INTERCHANGE FEES AND ROUTING (REGULATION II)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1693o-2.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. II, 76 FR 43466, July 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 235.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 920 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (EFTA) (15 U.S.C. 1693o-2, as added by section 1075 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements the provisions of section 920 of the EFTA, including standards for reasonable and proportional interchange transaction fees for electronic debit transactions, standards for receiving a fraud-prevention adjustment to interchange transaction fees, exemptions from the interchange transaction fee limitations, prohibitions on evasion and circumvention, prohibitions on payment card network exclusivity arrangements and routing restrictions for debit card transactions, and reporting requirements for debit card issuers and payment card networks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> (1) Means a transaction, savings, or other asset account (other than an occasional or incidental credit balance in a credit plan) established for any purpose and that is located in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include an account held under a bona fide trust agreement that is excluded by section 903(2) of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act and rules prescribed thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquirer</I> means a person that contracts directly or indirectly with a merchant to provide settlement for the merchant's electronic debit transactions over a payment card network. An acquirer does not include a person that acts only as a processor for the services it provides to the merchant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cardholder</I> means the person to whom a debit card is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> of a company means—
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of the company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company; or
</P>
<P>(3) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the company, as the Board determines.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debit card</I> (1) Means any card, or other payment code or device, issued or approved for use through a payment card network to debit an account, regardless of whether authorization is based on signature, personal identification number (PIN), or other means, and regardless of whether the issuer holds the account, and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any general-use prepaid card; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Any card, or other payment code or device, that is redeemable upon presentation at only a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A check, draft, or similar paper instrument, or an electronic representation thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designated automated teller machine (ATM) network</I> means either—
</P>
<P>(1) All ATMs identified in the name of the issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any network of ATMs identified by the issuer that provides reasonable and convenient access to the issuer's customers.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic debit transaction</I> (1) Means the use of a debit card by a person as a form of payment in the United States to initiate a debit to an account, and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include transactions initiated at an ATM, including cash withdrawals and balance transfers initiated at an ATM.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General-use prepaid card</I> means a card, or other payment code or device, that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Issued on a prepaid basis in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(2) Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interchange transaction fee</I> means any fee established, charged, or received by a payment card network and paid by a merchant or an acquirer for the purpose of compensating an issuer for its involvement in an electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Issuer</I> means any person that authorizes the use of a debit card to perform an electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Merchant</I> means any person that accepts debit cards as payment.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Payment card network</I> means an entity that—
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly provides the proprietary services, infrastructure, and software that route information and data to an issuer from an acquirer to conduct the authorization, clearance, and settlement of electronic debit transactions; and
</P>
<P>(2) A merchant uses in order to accept as a form of payment a brand of debit card or other device that may be used to carry out electronic debit transactions.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, government agency, estate, trust, partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, or association.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Processor</I> means a person that processes or routes electronic debit transactions for issuers, acquirers, or merchants.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Route</I> means to direct and send information and data to an unaffiliated entity or to an affiliated entity acting on behalf of an unaffiliated entity.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>United States</I> means the States, territories, and possessions of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any political subdivision of any of the foregoing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.3   Reasonable and proportional interchange transaction fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The amount of any interchange transaction fee that an issuer may receive or charge with respect to an electronic debit transaction shall be reasonable and proportional to the cost incurred by the issuer with respect to the electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of reasonable and proportional fees.</I> An issuer complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section only if each interchange transaction fee received or charged by the issuer for an electronic debit transaction is no more than the sum of—
</P>
<P>(1) 21 cents and;
</P>
<P>(2) 5 basis points multiplied by the value of the transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.4   Fraud-prevention adjustment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, an issuer may receive or charge an amount of no more than 1 cent per transaction in addition to any interchange transaction fee it receives or charges in accordance with § 235.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuer standards.</I> (1) To be eligible to receive or charge the fraud-prevention adjustment in paragraph (a) of this section, an issuer must develop and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to take effective steps to reduce the occurrence of, and costs to all parties from, fraudulent electronic debit transactions, including through the development and implementation of cost-effective fraud-prevention technology.
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer's policies and procedures must address—
</P>
<P>(i) Methods to identify and prevent fraudulent electronic debit transactions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitoring of the volume and value of its fraudulent electronic debit transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Appropriate responses to suspicious electronic debit transactions in a manner designed to limit the costs to all parties from and prevent the occurrence of future fraudulent electronic debit transactions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Methods to secure debit card and cardholder data; and
</P>
<P>(v) Such other factors as the issuer considers appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) An issuer must review, at least annually, its fraud-prevention policies and procedures, and their implementation and update them as necessary in light of—
</P>
<P>(i) Their effectiveness in reducing the occurrence of, and cost to all parties from, fraudulent electronic debit transactions involving the issuer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Their cost-effectiveness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Changes in the types of fraud, methods used to commit fraud, and available methods for detecting and preventing fraudulent electronic debit transactions that the issuer identifies from—
</P>
<P>(A) Its own experience or information;
</P>
<P>(B) Information provided to the issuer by its payment card networks, law enforcement agencies, and fraud-monitoring groups in which the issuer participates; and
</P>
<P>(C) Applicable supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> To be eligible to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment, an issuer must annually notify its payment card networks that it complies with the standards in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in status.</I> An issuer is not eligible to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment if the issuer is substantially non-compliant with the standards set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, as determined by the issuer or the appropriate agency under § 235.9. Such an issuer must notify its payment card networks that it is no longer eligible to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment no later than 10 days after determining or receiving notification from the appropriate agency under § 235.9 that the issuer is substantially non-compliant with the standards set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. The issuer must stop receiving and charging the fraud-prevention adjustment no later than 30 days after notifying its payment card networks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 46280, Aug. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption for small issuers</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, §§ 235.3, 235.4, and 235.6 do not apply to an interchange transaction fee received or charged by an issuer with respect to an electronic debit transaction if—
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer holds the account that is debited; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer, together with its affiliates, has assets of less than $10 billion as of the end of the calendar year preceding the date of the electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of issuer asset size.</I> A person may rely on lists published by the Board to determine whether an issuer, together with its affiliates, has assets of less than $10 billion as of the end of the calendar year preceding the date of the electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Change in status.</I> If an issuer qualifies for the exemption in paragraph (a)(1) in a particular calendar year, but, as of the end of that calendar year no longer qualifies for the exemption because at that time it, together with its affiliates, has assets of $10 billion or more, the issuer must begin complying with §§ 235.3, 235.4, and 235.6 no later than July 1 of the succeeding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) <I>Temporary relief for 2020 and 2021.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, for purposes of determining eligibility for the exemption for small issuers described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issuer asset size that is calculated as of the end of the calendar year 2020 shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The assets of the issuer, together with its affiliates, as of the end of the calendar year 2019; and
</P>
<P>(B) The assets of the issuer, together with its affiliates, as of the end of the calendar year 2020.
</P>
<P>(ii) The relief provided under this paragraph (a)(4) does not apply to an issuer if the Board determines that permitting the issuer to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the asset profile of the issuer. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the issuer since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the issuer has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the issuer. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (a)(4)(ii), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for government-administered programs.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, §§ 235.3, 235.4, and 235.6 do not apply to an interchange transaction fee received or charged by an issuer with respect to an electronic debit transaction if—
</P>
<P>(1) The electronic debit transaction is made using a debit card that has been provided to a person pursuant to a Federal, State, or local government-administered payment program; and
</P>
<P>(2) The cardholder may use the debit card only to transfer or debit funds, monetary value, or other assets that have been provided pursuant to such program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for certain reloadable prepaid cards</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, §§ 235.3, 235.4, and 235.6 do not apply to an interchange transaction fee received or charged by an issuer with respect to an electronic debit transaction using a general-use prepaid card that is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not issued or approved for use to access or debit any account held by or for the benefit of the cardholder (other than a subaccount or other method of recording or tracking funds purchased or loaded on the card on a prepaid basis);
</P>
<P>(ii) Reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The only means of access to the underlying funds, except when all remaining funds are provided to the cardholder in a single transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Temporary cards.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the term “reloadable” includes a temporary non-reloadable card issued solely in connection with a reloadable general-use prepaid card.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exception.</I> The exemptions in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section do not apply to any interchange transaction fee received or charged by an issuer on or after July 21, 2012, with respect to an electronic debit transaction if any of the following fees may be charged to a cardholder with respect to the card:
</P>
<P>(1) A fee or charge for an overdraft, including a shortage of funds or a transaction processed for an amount exceeding the account balance, unless the fee or charge is imposed for transferring funds from another asset account to cover a shortfall in the account accessed by the card; or
</P>
<P>(2) A fee imposed by the issuer for the first withdrawal per calendar month from an ATM that is part of the issuer's designated ATM network.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. II, 76 FR 43466, July 20, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 77362, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.6   Prohibition on circumvention, evasion, and net compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition of circumvention or evasion.</I> No person shall circumvent or evade the interchange transaction fee restrictions in §§ 235.3 and 235.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of net compensation.</I> An issuer may not receive net compensation from a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card-related activities within a calendar year. Net compensation occurs when the total amount of payments or incentives received by an issuer from a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card-related activities, other than interchange transaction fees passed through to the issuer by the network, during a calendar year exceeds the total amount of all fees paid by the issuer to the network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card-related activities during that calendar year. Payments and incentives paid by a network to an issuer, and fees paid by an issuer to a network, with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card related activities are not limited to volume-based or transaction-specific payments, incentives, or fees, but also include other payments, incentives or fees related to an issuer's provision of debit card services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.7   Limitations on payment card restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition on network exclusivity</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An issuer or payment card network shall not directly or through any agent, processor, or licensed member of a payment card network, by contract, requirement, condition, penalty, or otherwise, restrict the number of payment card networks on which an electronic debit transaction may be processed to less than two unaffiliated networks.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permitted arrangements.</I> An issuer satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if the issuer enables at least two unaffiliated payment card networks to process an electronic debit transaction—
</P>
<P>(i) Where such networks in combination do not, by their respective rules or policies or by contract with or other restriction imposed by the issuer, result in the operation of only one network or only multiple affiliated networks for a geographic area, specific merchant, particular type of merchant, or particular type of transaction, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where each of these networks has taken steps reasonably designed to be able to process the electronic debit transactions that it would reasonably expect will be routed to it, based on expected transaction volume.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibited exclusivity arrangements by networks.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a payment card network may not restrict or otherwise limit an issuer's ability to contract with any other payment card network that may process an electronic debit transaction involving the issuer's debit cards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsequent affiliation.</I> If unaffiliated payment card networks become affiliated as a result of a merger or acquisition such that an issuer is no longer in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the issuer must add an unaffiliated payment card network through which electronic debit transactions on the relevant debit card may be processed no later than six months after the date on which the previously unaffiliated payment card networks consummate the affiliation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on routing restrictions.</I> An issuer or payment card network shall not, directly or through any agent, processor, or licensed member of the network, by contract, requirement, condition, penalty, or otherwise, inhibit the ability of any person that accepts or honors debit cards for payments to direct the routing of electronic debit transactions for processing over any payment card network that may process such transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance dates</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c)(2), (c)(3), and (c)(4) of this section, the compliance date of paragraph (a) of this section is April 1, 2012.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restrictions by payment card networks.</I> The compliance date of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(3) of this section for payment card networks is October 1, 2011.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Debit cards that use transaction qualification or substantiation systems.</I> Issuers shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by April 1, 2013, for electronic debit transactions using debit cards that use point-of-sale transaction qualification or substantiation systems for verifying the eligibility of purchased goods or services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>General-use prepaid cards.</I> Issuers shall comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section with respect to general-use prepaid cards as set out below.
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to non-reloadable general-use prepaid cards, the compliance date is April 1, 2013. Non-reloadable general-use prepaid cards sold prior to April 1, 2013 are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to reloadable general-use prepaid cards, the compliance date is April 1, 2013. Reloadable general-use prepaid cards sold prior to April 1, 2013 are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section unless and until they are reloaded, in which case the following compliance dates apply:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to reloadable general-use prepaid cards sold and reloaded prior to April 1, 2013, the compliance date is May 1, 2013.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to reloadable general-use prepaid cards sold prior to April 1, 2013, and reloaded on or after April 1, 2013, the compliance date is 30 days after the date of reloading.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. II, 76 FR 43466, July 20, 2011, as amended at  87 FR 61230, Oct. 11, 2022]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.8   Reporting requirements and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Entities required to report.</I> Each issuer that is not otherwise exempt from the requirements of this part under § 235.5(a) and each payment card network shall file a report with the Board in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Report.</I> Each entity required to file a report with the Board shall submit data in a form prescribed by the Board for that entity. Data required to be reported may include, but may not be limited to, data regarding costs incurred with respect to an electronic debit transaction, interchange transaction fees, network fees, fraud-prevention costs, fraud losses, and transaction value, volume, and type.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) An issuer subject to this part shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by this part for a period of not less than five years after the end of the calendar year in which the electronic debit transaction occurred.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person subject to this part having actual notice that it is the subject of an investigation or an enforcement proceeding by its enforcement agency shall retain the records that pertain to the investigation, action, or proceeding until final disposition of the matter unless an earlier time is allowed by court or agency order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.9   Administrative enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) (1) Compliance with the requirements of this part shall be enforced under—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, by the appropriate Federal banking agency, as defined in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), with respect to—
</P>
<P>(A) National banks, federal savings associations, and federal branches and federal agencies of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(B) Member banks of the Federal Reserve System (other than national banks), branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than federal branches, federal Agencies, and insured state branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act;
</P>
<P>(C) Banks and state savings associations insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (other than members of the Federal Reserve System), and insured state branches of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>), by the Administrator of the National Credit Union Administration (National Credit Union Administration Board) with respect to any federal credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 40101 <I>et seq.</I>), by the Secretary of Transportation, with respect to any air carrier or foreign air carrier subject to that Act; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), by the Securities and Exchange Commission, with respect to any broker or dealer subject to that Act.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms used in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that are not defined in this part or otherwise defined in section 3(s) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional powers.</I> (1) For the purpose of the exercise by any agency referred to in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section of its power under any statute referred to in those paragraphs, a violation of this part is deemed to be a violation of a requirement imposed under that statute.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to its powers under any provision of law specifically referred to in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section, each of the agencies referred to in those paragraphs may exercise, for the purpose of enforcing compliance under this part, any other authority conferred on it by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement authority of Federal Trade Commission.</I> Except to the extent that enforcement of the requirements imposed under this title is specifically granted to another government agency under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(iv) of this section, and subject to subtitle B of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, the Federal Trade Commission has the authority to enforce such requirements. For the purpose of the exercise by the Federal Trade Commission of its functions and powers under the Federal Trade Commission Act, a violation of this part shall be deemed a violation of a requirement imposed under the Federal Trade Commission Act. All of the functions and powers of the Federal Trade Commission under the Federal Trade Commission Act are available to the Federal Trade Commission to enforce compliance by any person subject to the jurisdiction of the Federal Trade Commission with the requirements of this part, regardless of whether that person is engaged in commerce or meets any other jurisdictional tests under the Federal Trade Commission Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 235.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 235.10   Effective and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 235.7, this part becomes effective and compliance is mandatory on October 1, 2011.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.6.0.1.11.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 235—Official Board Commentary on Regulation II










</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The following commentary to Regulation II (12 CFR part 235) provides background material to explain the Board's intent in adopting a particular part of the regulation. The commentary also provides examples to aid in understanding how a particular requirement is to work.
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.2 Definitions
</HD1>
<HD2>2(a) Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Types of accounts.</I> The term “account” includes accounts held by any person, including consumer accounts (<I>i.e.,</I> those established primarily for personal, family or household purposes) and business accounts. Therefore, the limitations on interchange transaction fees and the prohibitions on network exclusivity arrangements and routing restrictions apply to all electronic debit transactions, regardless of whether the transaction involves a debit card issued primarily for personal, family, or household purposes or for business purposes. For example, an issuer of a business-purpose debit card is subject to the restrictions on interchange transaction fees and is also prohibited from restricting the number of payment card networks on which an electronic debit transaction may be processed under § 235.7.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Bona fide trusts.</I> This part does not define the term bona fide trust agreement; therefore, institutions must look to state or other applicable law for interpretation. An account held under a custodial agreement that qualifies as a trust under the Internal Revenue Code, such as an individual retirement account, is considered to be held under a trust agreement for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Account located in the United States.</I> This part applies only to electronic debit transactions that are initiated to debit (or credit, for example, in the case of returned goods or cancelled services) an account located in the United States. If a cardholder uses a debit card to debit an account held outside the United States, then the electronic debit transaction is not subject to this part.
</P>
<HD2>2(b) Acquirer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The term “acquirer” includes only the institution that contracts, directly or indirectly, with a merchant to provide settlement for the merchant's electronic debit transactions over a payment card network (referred to as acquiring the merchant's electronic debit transactions). In some acquiring relationships, an institution provides processing services to the merchant and is a licensed member of the payment card network, but does not settle the transactions with the merchant (by crediting the merchant's account) or with the issuer. These institutions are not “acquirers” because they do not provide credit to the merchant for the transactions or settle the merchant's transactions with the issuer. These institutions are considered processors and in some circumstances may be considered payment card networks for purposes of this part (<I>See</I> §§ 235.2(m), 235.2(o), and commentary thereto).
</P>
<HD2>2(c) Affiliate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Types of entities.</I> The term “affiliate” includes any bank and nonbank affiliates located in the United States or a foreign country.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other affiliates.</I> For commentary on whether merchants are affiliated, see comment 2(f)-7.
</P>
<HD2>2(d) Cardholder
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> In the case of debit cards that access funds in transaction, savings, or other similar asset accounts, “the person to whom a card is issued” generally will be the named person or persons holding the account. If the account is a business account, multiple employees (or other persons associated with the business) may have debit cards that can access the account. Each employee that has a debit card that can access the account is a cardholder. In the case of a prepaid card, the cardholder generally is either the purchaser of the card or a person to whom the purchaser gave the card, such as a gift recipient.
</P>
<HD2>2(e) Control [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>2(f) Debit Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Card, or other payment code or device.</I> The term “debit card” as defined in § 235.2(f) applies to any card, or other payment code or device, even if it is not issued in a physical form. Debit cards include, for example, an account number or code that can be used to access funds in an account to make Internet purchases. Similarly, the term “debit card” includes a device with a chip or other embedded mechanism, such as a mobile phone or sticker containing a contactless chip that links the device to funds stored in an account, and enables an account to be debited. The term “debit card,” however, does not include a one-time password or other code if such password or code is used for the purposes of authenticating the cardholder and is used in addition to another card, or other payment code or device, rather than as the payment code or device.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Deferred debit cards.</I> The term “debit card” includes a card, or other payment code or device, that is used in connection with deferred debit card arrangements in which transactions are not immediately posted to and funds are not debited from the underlying transaction, savings, or other asset account upon settlement of the transaction. Instead, the funds in the account typically are held and made unavailable for other transactions for a period of time specified in the issuer-cardholder agreement. After the expiration of the time period, the cardholder's account is debited for the value of all transactions made using the card that have been submitted to the issuer for settlement during that time period. For example, under some deferred debit card arrangements, the issuer may debit the consumer's account for all debit card transactions that occurred during a particular month at the end of the month. Regardless of the time period between the transaction and account posting, a card, or other payment code or device, that is used in connection with a deferred debit arrangement is considered a debit card for purposes of the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Decoupled debit cards.</I> Decoupled debit cards are issued by an entity other than the financial institution holding the cardholder's account. In a decoupled debit arrangement, transactions that are authorized by the card issuer settle against the cardholder's account held by an entity other than the issuer, generally via a subsequent ACH debit to that account. The term “debit card” includes any card, or other payment code or device, issued or approved for use through a payment card network to debit an account, regardless of whether the issuer holds the account. Therefore, decoupled debit cards are debit cards for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Hybrid cards.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Some cards, or other payment codes or devices, may have both credit- and debit-like features (“hybrid cards”). For example, these cards may enable a cardholder to access a line of credit, but select certain transactions for immediate repayment (<I>i.e.,</I> prior to the end of a billing cycle) via a debit to the cardholder's account, as the term is defined in § 235.2(a), held either with the issuer or at another institution. If a card permits a cardholder to initiate transactions that debit an account or funds underlying a prepaid card, the card is considered a debit card for purposes of this part. Not all transactions initiated by such a hybrid card, however, are electronic debit transactions. Rather, only those transactions that debit an account as defined in this part or funds underlying a prepaid card are electronic debit transactions. If the transaction posts to a line of credit, then the transaction is a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. If an issuer conditions the availability of a credit or charge card that permits pre-authorized repayment of some or all transactions on the cardholder maintaining an account at the issuer, such a card is considered a debit card for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Virtual wallets.</I> A virtual wallet is a device (<I>e.g.,</I> a mobile phone) that stores several different payment codes or devices (“virtual cards”) that access different accounts, funds underlying the card, or lines of credit. At the point of sale, the cardholder may select from the virtual wallet the virtual card he or she wishes to use for payment. The virtual card that the cardholder uses for payment is considered a debit card under this part if the virtual card that initiates a transaction meets the definition of debit card, notwithstanding the fact that other cards in the wallet may not be debit cards.
</P>
<P>6. <I>General-use prepaid card.</I> The term “debit card” includes general-use prepaid cards. See § 235.2(i) and related commentary for information on general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Store cards.</I> The term “debit card” does not include prepaid cards that may be used at a single merchant or affiliated merchants. Two or more merchants are affiliated if they are related by either common ownership or by common corporate control. For purposes of the “debit card” definition, franchisees are considered to be under common corporate control if they are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Checks, drafts, and similar instruments.</I> The term “debit card” does not include a check, draft, or similar paper instrument or a transaction in which the check is used as a source of information to initiate an electronic payment. For example, if an account holder provides a check to buy goods or services and the merchant takes the account number and routing number information from the MICR line at the bottom of a check to initiate an ACH debit transfer from the cardholder's account, the check is not a debit card, and such a transaction is not considered an electronic debit transaction. Likewise, the term “debit card” does not include an electronic representation of a check, draft, or similar paper instrument.
</P>
<P>9. <I>ACH transactions.</I> The term “debit card” does not include an account number when it is used by a person to initiate an ACH transaction that debits that person's account. For example, if an account holder buys goods or services over the Internet using an account number and routing number to initiate an ACH debit, the account number is not a debit card, and such a transaction is not considered an electronic debit transaction. However, the use of a card to purchase goods or services that debits the cardholder's account that is settled by means of a subsequent ACH debit initiated by the card issuer to the cardholder's account, as in the case of a decoupled debit card arrangement, involves the use of a debit card for purposes of this part.
</P>
<HD2>2(g) Designated Automated Teller Machine (ATM) Network
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable and convenient access clarified.</I> Under § 235.2(g)(2), a designated ATM network includes any network of ATMs identified by the issuer that provides reasonable and convenient access to the issuer's cardholders. Whether a network provides reasonable and convenient access depends on the facts and circumstances, including the distance between ATMs in the designated network and each cardholder's last known home or work address, or if a home or work address is not known, where the card was first issued.
</P>
<HD2>2(h) Electronic Debit Transaction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Debit an account.</I> The term “electronic debit transaction” includes the use of a card to debit an account. The account debited could be, for example, the cardholder's asset account or the account that holds the funds used to settle prepaid card transactions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of payment.</I> The term “electronic debit transaction” includes the use of a card as a form of payment that may be made in exchange for goods or services, as a charitable contribution, to satisfy an obligation (<I>e.g.,</I> tax liability), or for other purposes.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Subsequent transactions.</I> The term “electronic debit transaction” includes both the cardholder's use of a debit card for the initial payment and any subsequent use by the cardholder of the debit card in connection with the initial payment. For example, the term “electronic debit transaction” includes using the debit card to return merchandise or cancel a service that then results in a debit to the merchant's account and a credit to the cardholder's account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Cash withdrawal at the point of sale.</I> The term “electronic debit transaction” includes a transaction in which a cardholder uses the debit card both to make a purchase and to withdraw cash (known as a “cash-back transaction”).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Geographic limitation.</I> This regulation applies only to electronic debit transactions that are initiated at a merchant located in the United States. If a cardholder uses a debit card at a merchant located outside the United States to debit an account held in the United States, the electronic debit transaction is not subject to this part.
</P>
<HD2>2(i) General-Use Prepaid Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.</I> A prepaid card is redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants if such merchants agree to honor the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Selective authorization cards.</I> Selective authorization cards, (<I>e.g.,</I> mall cards) are generally intended to be used or redeemed for goods or services at participating retailers within a shopping mall or other limited geographic area. Selective authorization cards are considered general-use prepaid cards, regardless of whether they carry the mark, logo, or brand of a payment card network, if they are redeemable at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.
</P>
<HD2>2(j) Interchange Transaction fee
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Generally, the payment card network is the entity that establishes and charges the interchange transaction fee to the acquirers or merchants. The acquirers then pay to the issuers any interchange transaction fee established and charged by the network. Acquirers typically pass the interchange transaction fee through to merchant-customers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compensating an issuer.</I> The term “interchange transaction fee” is limited to those fees that a payment card network establishes, charges, or receives to compensate the issuer for its role in the electronic debit transaction. By contrast, payment card networks generally charge issuers and acquirers fees for services the network performs. Such fees are not interchange transaction fees because the payment card network is charging and receiving the fee as compensation for services it provides.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Established, charged, or received.</I> Interchange transaction fees are not limited to those fees for which a payment card network sets the value. A fee that compensates an issuer is an interchange transaction fee if the fee is set by the issuer but charged to acquirers by virtue of the network determining each participant's net settlement position.
</P>
<HD2>2(k) Issuer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A person issues a debit card by authorizing the use of debit card by a cardholder to perform electronic debit transactions. That person may provide the card directly to the cardholder or indirectly by using a third party (such as a processor, or a telephone network or manufacturer) to provide the card, or other payment code or device, to the cardholder. The following examples illustrate the entity that is the issuer under various card program arrangements. For purposes of determining whether an issuer is exempted under § 235.5(a), however, the term issuer is limited to the entity that holds the account being debited.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Traditional debit card arrangements.</I> In a traditional debit card arrangement, the bank or other entity holds the cardholder's funds and authorizes the cardholder to use the debit card to access those funds through electronic debit transactions, and the cardholder receives the card directly or indirectly (<I>e.g.,</I> through an agent) from the bank or other entity that holds the funds (except for decoupled debit cards, discussed below). In this system, the bank or entity holding the cardholder's funds is the issuer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>BIN-sponsor arrangements.</I> Payment card networks assign Bank Identification Numbers (BINs) to member-institutions for purposes of issuing cards, authorizing, clearing, settling, and other processes. In exchange for a fee or other financial considerations, some members of payment card networks permit other entities to issue debit cards using the member's BIN. The entity permitting the use of its BIN is referred to as the “BIN sponsor” and the entity that uses the BIN to issue cards is often referred to as the “affiliate member.” BIN sponsor arrangements can follow at least two different models:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Sponsored debit card model.</I> In some cases, a community bank or credit union may provide debit cards to its account holders through a BIN sponsor arrangement with a member institution. In general, the bank or credit union will authorize its account holders to use debit cards to perform electronic debit transactions that access funds in accounts at the bank or credit union. The bank or credit union's name typically will appear on the debit card. The bank or credit union may directly or indirectly provide the cards to cardholders. Under these circumstances, the bank or credit union is the issuer for purposes of this part. If that bank or credit union, together with its affiliates, has assets of less than $10 billion, then that bank or credit union is exempt from the interchange transaction fee restrictions. Although the bank or credit union may distribute cards through the BIN sponsors, the BIN sponsor does not enter into the agreement with the cardholder that authorizes the cardholder to use the card to perform electronic debit transactions that access funds in the account at the bank or credit union, and therefore the BIN sponsor is not the issuer.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Prepaid card model.</I> A member institution may also serve as the BIN sponsor for a prepaid card program. Under these arrangements, a program manager distributes prepaid cards to the cardholders and the BIN-sponsoring institution generally holds the funds for the prepaid card program in an omnibus or pooled account. Either the BIN sponsor or the prepaid card program manager may keep track of the underlying funds for each individual prepaid card through subaccounts. While the cardholder may receive the card directly from the program manager or at a retailer, the BIN sponsor authorizes the cardholder to use the card to perform electronic debit transactions that access the funds in the pooled account and the cardholder's relationship generally is with the BIN sponsor. Accordingly, under these circumstances, the BIN sponsor, or the bank holding the pooled account, is the issuer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Decoupled debit cards.</I> In the case of decoupled debit cards, an entity other than the bank holding the cardholder's account enters into a relationship with the cardholder authorizing the use of the card to perform electronic debit transactions. The entity authorizing the use of the card to perform electronic debit transaction typically arranges for the card to be provided directly or indirectly to the cardholder and has a direct relationship with the cardholder with respect to the card. The bank holding the cardholder's account has agreed generally to permit ACH debits to the account, but has not authorized the use of the debit card to access the funds through electronic debit transactions. Under these circumstances, the entity authorizing the use of the debit card, and not the account-holding institution, is considered the issuer. An issuer of a decoupled debit card is not exempt under § 235.5(a), even if, together with its affiliates, it has assets of less than $10 billion, because it is not the entity holding the account to be debited.
</P>
<HD2>2(l) Merchant [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>2(m) Payment Card Network
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> An entity is a considered a payment card network with respect to an electronic debit transaction for purposes of this rule if it routes information and data to the issuer from the acquirer to conduct authorization, clearance, and settlement of the electronic debit transaction. By contrast, if an entity receives transaction information and data from a merchant and authorizes and settles the transaction without routing the information and data to another entity (<I>i.e.,</I> the issuer or the issuer's processor) for authorization, clearance, or settlement, that entity is not considered a payment card network with respect to the electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Three-party systems.</I> In the case of a three-party system, electronic debit transactions are processed by an entity that acts as system operator and issuer, and may also act as the acquirer. The entity acting as system operator and issuer that receives the transaction information from the merchant or acquirer also holds the cardholder's funds. Therefore, rather than directing the transaction information to a separate issuer, the entity authorizes and settles the transaction based on the information received from the merchant. As these entities do not connect (or “network”) multiple issuers and do not route information to conduct the transaction, they are not “payment card networks” with respect to these transactions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Processors as payment card networks.</I> A processor is considered a payment card network if, in addition to acting as processor for an acquirer and issuer, the processor routes transaction information and data received from a merchant or the merchant's acquirer to an issuer. For example, if a merchant uses a processor in order to accept any, some, or all brands of debit cards and the processor routes transaction information and data to the issuer or issuer's processor, the merchant's processor is considered a payment card network with respect to the electronic debit transaction. If the processor establishes, charges, or receives a fee for the purpose of compensating an issuer, that fee is considered an interchange transaction fee for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automated clearing house (ACH) operators.</I> An ACH operator is not considered a payment card network for purposes of this part. While an ACH operator processes transactions that debit an account and provides for interbank clearing and settlement of such transactions, a person does not use the ACH system to accept as a form of payment a brand of debit card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>ATM networks.</I> An ATM network is not considered a payment card network for purposes of this part. While ATM networks process transactions that debit an account and provide for interbank clearing and settlement of such transactions, a cash withdrawal from an ATM is not a payment because there is no exchange of money for goods or services, or payment made as a charitable contribution, to satisfy an obligation (<I>e.g.,</I> tax liability), or for other purposes.
</P>
<HD2>2(n) Person [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>2(o) Processor
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Distinction from acquirers.</I> A processor may perform all transaction-processing functions for a merchant or acquirer, but if it does not acquire (that is, settle with the merchant for the transactions), it is not an acquirer. The entity that acquirers electronic debit transactions is the entity that is responsible to other parties to the electronic debit transaction for the amount of the transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuers.</I> A processor may perform services related to authorization, clearance, and settlement of transactions for an issuer without being considered to be an issuer for purposes of this part.
</P>
<HD2>2(p) Route
</HD2>
<P>1. An entity routes information if it both directs and sends the information to an unaffiliated entity (or affiliated entity acting on behalf of the unaffiliated entity). This other entity may be a payment card network or processor (if the entity directing and sending the information is a merchant or an acquirer) or an issuer or processor (if the entity directing and sending the information is a payment card network).
</P>
<HD2>2(q) United States [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD1>Section 235.3 Reasonable and Proportional Interchange Transaction Fees
</HD1>
<HD2>3(a) [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>3(b) Determining Reasonable and Proportional Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Two components.</I> The standard for the maximum permissible interchange transaction fee that an issuer may receive consists of two components: a base component that does not vary with a transaction's value and an <I>ad valorem</I> component. The amount of any interchange transaction fee received or charged by an issuer may not exceed the sum of the maximum permissible amounts of each component and any fraud-prevention adjustment the issuer is permitted to receive under § 235.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variation in interchange fees.</I> An issuer is permitted to charge or receive, and a network is permitted to establish, interchange transaction fees that vary in their base component and <I>ad valorem</I> component based on, for example, the type of transaction or merchant, provided the amount of any interchange transaction fee for any transaction does not exceed the sum of the maximum permissible base component of 21 cents and 5 basis points of the value of the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Example.</I> For a $39 transaction, the maximum permissible interchange transaction fee is 22.95 cents (21 cents plus 5 basis points of $39). A payment card network may, for example, establish an interchange transaction fee of 22 cents without any <I>ad valorem</I> component.
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.4 Fraud-Prevention Adjustment
</HD1>
<HD2>4(b) Issuer Standards
</HD2>
<HD1>Section 235.4 Fraud-prevention adjustment
</HD1>
<HD2>4(a) [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>4(b)(1) Issuer standards
</HD2>
<P>1. An issuer's policies and procedures should address fraud related to debit card use by unauthorized persons. Examples of use by unauthorized persons include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. A thief steals a cardholder's wallet and uses the debit card to purchase goods, without the authority of the cardholder.
</P>
<P>ii. A cardholder makes a purchase at a merchant. Subsequently, the merchant's employee uses information from the debit card to initiate a subsequent transaction, without the authority of the cardholder.
</P>
<P>iii. A hacker steals cardholder account information from the issuer or a merchant processor and uses the stolen information to make unauthorized card-not-present purchases or to create a counterfeit card to make unauthorized card-present purchases.
</P>
<P>2. An issuer's policies and procedures must be designed to reduce fraud, where cost effective, across all types of electronic debit transactions in which its cardholders engage. Therefore, an issuer should consider whether its policies and procedures are effective for each method used to authenticate the card (<I>e.g.,</I> a chip or a code embedded in the magnetic stripe) and the cardholder (<I>e.g.,</I> a signature or a PIN), and for different sales channels (e.g., card-present and card-not-present).
</P>
<P>3. An issuer's policies and procedures must be designed to take effective steps to reduce both the occurrence of and costs to all parties from fraudulent electronic debit transactions. An issuer should take steps reasonably designed to reduce the number and value of its fraudulent electronic debit transactions relative to its non-fraudulent electronic debit transactions. These steps should reduce the costs from fraudulent transactions to all parties, not merely the issuer. For example, an issuer should take steps to reduce the number and value of its fraudulent electronic debit transactions relative to its non-fraudulent transactions whether or not it bears the fraud losses as a result of regulations or network rules.
</P>
<P>4. For any given issuer, the number and value of fraudulent electronic debit transactions relative to non-fraudulent transactions may vary materially from year to year. Therefore, in certain circumstances, an issuer's policies and procedures may be effective notwithstanding a relative increase in the transactions that are fraudulent in a particular year. However, continuing increases in the share of fraudulent transactions would warrant further scrutiny.
</P>
<P>5. In determining which fraud-prevention technologies to implement or retain, an issuer must consider the cost-effectiveness of the technology, that is, the expected cost of the technology relative to its expected effectiveness in controlling fraud. In evaluating the cost of a particular technology, an issuer should consider whether and to what extent other parties will incur costs to implement the technology, even though an issuer may not have complete information about the costs that may be incurred by other parties, such as the cost of new merchant terminals. In evaluating the costs, an issuer should consider both initial implementation costs and ongoing costs of using the fraud-prevention method.
</P>
<P>6. An issuer need not develop fraud-prevention technologies itself to satisfy the standards in § 235.4(b). An issuer may implement fraud-prevention technologies that have been developed by a third party that the issuer has determined are appropriate under its own policies and procedures.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2) Elements of fraud-prevention policies and procedures.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> An issuer may tailor its policies and procedures to address its particular debit card program, including the size of the program, the types of transactions in which its cardholders commonly engage, fraud types and methods experienced by the issuer, and the cost of implementing new fraud-prevention methods in light of the expected fraud reduction.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2)(i). Methods to identify and prevent fraudulent debit card transactions.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Examples of policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify and prevent fraudulent electronic debit transactions include the following:
</P>
<P>i. Practices to help determine whether a card is authentic and whether the user is authorized to use the card at the time of a transaction. For example, an issuer may specify the use of particular authentication technologies or methods, such as dynamic data, to better authenticate a card and cardholder at the time of the transaction, to the extent doing so does not inhibit the ability of a merchant to direct the routing of electronic debit transactions for processing over any payment card network that may process such transactions. (<I>See</I> § 235.7 and commentary thereto.)
</P>
<P>ii. An automated mechanism to assess the risk that a particular electronic debit transaction is fraudulent during the authorization process (<I>i.e.,</I> before the issuer approves or declines an authorization request). For example, an issuer may use neural networks to identify transactions that present increased risk of fraud. As a result of this analysis, the issuer may decide to decline to authorize these transactions. An issuer may not be able to determine whether a given transaction in isolation is fraudulent at the time of authorization, and therefore may have implemented policies and procedures that monitor sets of transactions initiated with a cardholder's debit card. For example, an issuer could compare a set of transactions initiated with the card to a customer's typical transactions in order to determine whether a transaction is likely to be fraudulent. Similarly, an issuer could compare a set of transactions initiated with a debit card and common fraud patterns in order to determine whether a transaction or future transaction is likely to be fraudulent.
</P>
<P>iii. Practices to support reporting of lost and stolen cards or suspected incidences of fraud by cardholders or other parties to a transaction. As an example, an issuer may promote customer awareness by providing text alerts of transactions in order to detect fraudulent transactions in a timely manner. An issuer may also report debit cards suspected of being fraudulent to their networks for inclusion in a database of potentially compromised cards.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2)(ii). Monitoring of the issuer's volume and value of fraudulent electronic debit transactions.
</HD2>
<P>1. Tracking its fraudulent electronic debit transactions over time enables an issuer to assess whether its policies and procedures are effective. Accordingly, an issuer must include policies and procedures designed to monitor trends in the number and value of its fraudulent electronic debit transactions. An effective monitoring program would include tracking issuer losses from fraudulent electronic debit transactions, fraud-related chargebacks to acquirers, losses passed on to cardholders, and any other reimbursements from other parties. Other reimbursements could include payments made to issuers as a result of fines assessed to merchants for noncompliance with Payment Card Industry (PCI) Data Security Standards or other industry standards. An issuer should also establish procedures to track fraud-related information necessary to perform its reviews under § 235.4(b)(3) and to retain and report information as required under § 235.8.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2)(iii). Appropriate responses to suspicious electronic debit transactions.
</HD2>
<P>1. An issuer may identify transactions that it suspects to be fraudulent after it has authorized or settled the transaction. For example, a cardholder may inform the issuer that the cardholder did not initiate a transaction or transactions, or the issuer may learn of a fraudulent transaction or possibly compromised debit cards from the network, the acquirer, or other parties. An issuer must implement policies and procedures designed to provide an appropriate response once an issuer has identified suspicious transactions to reduce the occurrence of future fraudulent electronic debit transactions and the costs associated with such transactions. The appropriate response may differ depending on the facts and circumstances, including the issuer's assessment of the risk of future fraudulent electronic debit transactions. For example, in some circumstances, it may be sufficient for an issuer to monitor more closely the account with the suspicious transactions. In other circumstances, it may be necessary to contact the cardholder to verify a transaction, reissue a card, or close an account. An appropriate response may also require coordination with industry organizations, law enforcement agencies, and other parties, such as payment card networks, merchants, and issuer or merchant processors.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2)(iv). Methods to secure debit card and cardholder data.
</HD2>
<P>1. An issuer must implement policies and procedures designed to secure debit card and cardholder data. These policies and procedures should apply to data that are transmitted by the issuer (or its service provider) during transaction processing, that are stored by the issuer (or its service provider), and that are carried on media (<I>e.g.,</I> laptops, transportable data storage devices) by employees or agents of the issuer. This standard may be incorporated into an issuer's information security program, as required by Section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(3) Review of and updates to policies and procedures.
</HD2>
<P>1. i. An issuer's assessment of the effectiveness of its policies and procedures should consider whether they are reasonably designed to reduce the number and value of fraudulent electronic debit transactions relative to non-fraudulent electronic debit transactions and are cost effective. (<I>See</I> comment 4(b)(1)-3 and comment 4(b)(1)-5).
</P>
<P>ii. An issuer must also assess its policies and procedures in light of changes in fraud types (<I>e.g.,</I> the use of counterfeit cards, lost or stolen cards) and methods (<I>e.g.,</I> common purchase patterns indicating possible fraudulent behavior), as well as changes in the available methods of detecting and preventing fraudulent electronic debit transactions (<I>e.g.,</I> transaction monitoring, authentication methods) as part of its periodic review of its policies and procedures. An issuer's review of its policies and procedures must consider information from the issuer's own experience and that the issuer otherwise identified itself; information from payment card networks, law enforcement agencies, and fraud-monitoring groups in which the issuer participates; and supervisory guidance. For example, an issuer should consider warnings and alerts it receives from payment card networks regarding compromised cards and data breaches.
</P>
<P>2. An issuer should review its policies and procedures and their implementation more frequently than annually if the issuer determines that more frequent review is appropriate based on information obtained from monitoring its fraudulent electronic debit transactions, changes in the types or methods of fraud, or available methods of detecting and preventing fraudulent electronic debit transactions. (<I>See</I> § 235.4(b)(1)(ii) and commentary thereto.)
</P>
<P>3. In light of an issuer's review of its policies and procedures, and their implementation, the issuer may determine that updates to its policies and procedures, and their implementation, are necessary. Merely determining that updates are necessary does not render an issuer ineligible to receive or charge the fraud-prevention adjustment. To remain eligible to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment, however, an issuer should develop and implement such updates as soon as reasonably practicable, in light of the facts and circumstances.
</P>
<HD2>4(c) Notification.
</HD2>
<P>1. Payment card networks that plan to allow issuers to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment can develop processes for identifying issuers eligible for this adjustment. Each issuer that wants to be eligible to receive or charge a fraud-prevention adjustment must notify annually the payment card networks in which it participates of its compliance through the networks' processes. 


</P>
<HD1>Section 235.5 Exemptions for Certain Electronic Debit Transactions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility for multiple exemptions.</I> An electronic debit transaction may qualify for one or more exemptions. For example, a debit card that has been provided to a person pursuant to a Federal, State, or local government-administered payment program may be issued by an entity that, together with its affiliates, has assets of less than $10 billion as of the end of the preceding calendar year. In this case, an electronic debit transaction made using that card may qualify for the exemption under § 235.5(a) for small issuers or for the exemption under § 235.5(b) for government-administered payment programs. A payment card network establishing interchange fees for transactions that qualify for more than one exemption need only satisfy itself that the issuer's transactions qualify for at least one of the exemptions in order to exempt the electronic debit transaction from the interchange fee restrictions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Certification process.</I> Payment card networks that plan to allow issuers to receive higher interchange fees than permitted under §§ 235.3 and 235.4 pursuant to one of the exemptions in § 235.5 could develop their own processes for identifying issuers and products eligible for such exemptions. Section 235.5(a)(2) permits payment card networks to rely on lists published by the Board to help determine eligibility for the small issuer exemption set forth in § 235.5(a)(1).
</P>
<HD2>5(a) Exemption for Small Issuers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Asset size determination.</I> An issuer would qualify for the small-issuer exemption if its total worldwide banking and nonbanking assets, including assets of affiliates, other than trust assets under management, are less than $10 billion, as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Change in status.</I> If an exempt issuer becomes covered based on its and its affiliates assets at the end of a calendar year, that issuer must begin complying with the interchange fee standards (§ 235.3), the fraud-prevention adjustment standards (to the extent the issuer wishes to receive a fraud-prevention adjustment) (§ 235.4), and the provisions prohibiting circumvention, evasion, and net compensation (§ 235.6) no later than July 1.
</P>
<HD2>5(b) Exemption for Government-Administered Payment Programs
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Government-administered payment program.</I> A program is considered government-administered regardless of whether a Federal, State, or local government agency operates the program or outsources some or all functions to third parties so long as the program is operated on behalf of the government agency. In addition, a program may be government-administered even if a Federal, State, or local government agency is not the source of funds for the program it administers. For example, child support programs are government-administered programs even though a Federal, State, or local government agency is not the source of funds. A tribal government is considered a local government for purposes of this exemption.
</P>
<HD2>5(c) Exemption for Certain Reloadable Prepaid Cards
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subaccount clarified.</I> A subaccount is an account within an account, opened in the name of an agent, nominee, or custodian for the benefit of two or more cardholders, where the transactions and balances of individual cardholders are tracked in such subaccounts. An account that is opened solely in the name of a single cardholder is not a subaccount.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reloadable.</I> A general-use prepaid card is “reloadable” if the terms and conditions of the agreement permit funds to be added to the general-use prepaid card at any time after the initial purchase or issuance. A general-use prepaid card is not “reloadable” merely because the issuer or processor is technically able to add functionality that would otherwise enable the general-use prepaid card to be reloaded.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I> i. Electronic debit transactions made using a reloadable general-use prepaid card are not exempt from the interchange fee restrictions if the card is marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate. The term “marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate” means directly or indirectly offering, advertising or otherwise suggesting the potential use of a general-use prepaid card as a gift for another person. Whether the exclusion applies generally does not depend on the type of entity that makes the promotional message. For example, a card may be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if anyone (other than the purchaser of the card), including the issuer, the retailer, the program manager that may distribute the card, or the payment network on which a card is used, promotes the use of the card as a gift card or gift certificate. A general-use prepaid card is marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate even if it is only occasionally marketed as a gift card or gift certificate. For example, a network-branded general purpose reloadable card would be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if the issuer principally advertises the card as a less costly alternative to a bank account but promotes the card in a television, radio, newspaper, or Internet advertisement, or on signage as “the perfect gift” during the holiday season.
</P>
<P>ii. The mere mention of the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in an advertisement or on a sign that also indicates the availability of exempted general-use prepaid cards does not by itself cause the general-use prepaid card to be marketed as a gift card or a gift certificate. For example, the posting of a sign in a store that refers to the availability of gift cards does not by itself constitute the marketing of otherwise exempted general-use prepaid cards that may also be sold in the store along with gift cards or gift certificates, provided that a person acting reasonably under the circumstances would not be led to believe that the sign applies to all cards sold in the store. (<I>See, however,</I> comment 5(c)-4.ii.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The following are examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate:
</P>
<P>A. Using the word “gift” or “present” on a card or accompanying material, including documentation, packaging and promotional displays;
</P>
<P>B. Representing or suggesting that a card can be given to another person, for example, as a “token of appreciation” or a “stocking stuffer,” or displaying a congratulatory message on the card or accompanying material;
</P>
<P>C. Incorporating gift-giving or celebratory imagery or motifs, such as a bow, ribbon, wrapped present, candle, or a holiday or congratulatory message, on a card, accompanying documentation, or promotional material;
</P>
<P>ii. The term does not include the following:
</P>
<P>A. Representing that a card can be used as a substitute for a checking, savings, or deposit account;
</P>
<P>B. Representing that a card can be used to pay for a consumer's health-related expenses—for example, a card tied to a health savings account;
</P>
<P>C. Representing that a card can be used as a substitute for travelers checks or cash;
</P>
<P>D. Representing that a card can be used as a budgetary tool, for example, by teenagers, or to cover emergency expenses.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reasonable policies and procedures to avoid marketing as a gift card.</I> The exemption for a general-use prepaid card that is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate in § 235.5(c) applies if a reloadable general-use prepaid card is not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate and if persons involved in the distribution or sale of the card, including issuers, program managers, and retailers, maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid such marketing. Such policies and procedures may include contractual provisions prohibiting a reloadable general-use prepaid card from being marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate, merchandising guidelines or plans regarding how the product must be displayed in a retail outlet, and controls to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the general-use prepaid card is not being marketed as a gift card. Whether a general-use prepaid card has been marketed as a gift card or gift certificate will depend on the facts and circumstances, including whether a reasonable person would be led to believe that the general-use prepaid card is a gift card or gift certificate. The following examples illustrate the application of § 235.5(c):
</P>
<P>i. An issuer or program manager of prepaid cards agrees to sell general-purpose reloadable cards through a retailer. The contract between the issuer or program manager and the retailer establishes the terms and conditions under which the cards may be sold and marketed at the retailer. The terms and conditions prohibit the general-purpose reloadable cards from being marketed as a gift card or gift certificate, and require policies and procedures to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the cards are not being marketed as such. The issuer or program manager sets up one promotional display at the retailer for gift cards and another physically separated display for exempted products under § 235.5(c), including general-purpose reloadable cards, such that a reasonable person would not believe that the exempted cards are gift cards. The exemption in § 235.5(c) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in comment 5(c)-5.i, except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid cards are sold, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards. A sign stating “Gift Cards” appears prominently at the top of the display. The exemption in § 235.5(c) does not apply with respect to the general-purpose reloadable cards because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of exempted cards as gift cards or gift certificates are not maintained.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in comment 5(c)-5.i, except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional multi-sided display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards are sold. Gift cards are segregated from exempted cards, with gift cards on one side of the display and exempted cards on a different side of a display. Signs of equal prominence at the top of each side of the display clearly differentiate between gift cards and the other types of prepaid cards that are available for sale. The retailer does not use any more conspicuous signage suggesting the general availability of gift cards, such as a large sign stating “Gift Cards” at the top of the display or located near the display. The exemption in § 235.5(c) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
</P>
<P>iv. Same facts as in comment 5(c)-5.i, except that the retailer sells a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards, arranged side-by-side in the same checkout lane. The retailer does not affirmatively indicate or represent that gift cards are available, such as by displaying any signage or other indicia at the checkout lane suggesting the general availability of gift cards. The exemption in § 235.5(c) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid marketing the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained.
</P>
<P>6. <I>On-line sales of prepaid cards.</I> Some web sites may prominently advertise or promote the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in a manner that suggests to a consumer that the web site exclusively sells gift cards or gift certificates. For example, a web site may display a banner advertisement or a graphic on the home page that prominently states “Gift Cards,” “Gift Giving,” or similar language without mention of other available products, or use a web address that includes only a reference to gift cards or gift certificates in the address. In such a case, a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances could be led to believe that all prepaid products sold on the web site are gift cards or gift certificates. Under these facts, the web site has marketed all such products as gift cards or gift certificates, and the exemption in § 235.5(c) does not apply to any products sold on the web site.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Temporary non-reloadable cards issued in connection with a general-use reloadable card.</I> Certain general-purpose prepaid cards that are typically marketed as an account substitute initially may be sold or issued in the form of a temporary non-reloadable card. After the card is purchased, the cardholder is typically required to call the issuer to register the card and to provide identifying information in order to obtain a reloadable replacement card. In most cases, the temporary non-reloadable card can be used for purchases until the replacement reloadable card arrives and is activated by the cardholder. Because the temporary non-reloadable card may only be obtained in connection with the reloadable card, the exemption in § 235.5(c) applies so long as the card is not marketed as a gift card or gift certificate.
</P>
<HD2>5(d) Exception
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Additional ATM access.</I> Some debit cards may be used to withdraw cash from ATMs that are not part of the issuer's designated ATM network. An electronic debit card transaction may still qualify for the exemption under §§ 235.5(b) or (c) with a respect to a card for which a fee may be imposed for a withdrawal from an ATM that is outside of the issuer's designated ATM network as long as the card complies with the condition set forth in § 235.5(d)(2) for withdrawals within the issuer's designated ATM network. The condition with respect to ATM fees does not apply to cards that do not provide ATM access.
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.6 Prohibition on Circumvention, Evasion, and Net Compensation
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>No applicability to exempt issuers or electronic debit transactions.</I> The prohibition against circumventing or evading the interchange transaction fee restrictions or against net compensation does not apply to issuers or electronic debit transactions that qualify for an exemption under § 235.5 from the interchange transaction fee restrictions.
</P>
<HD2>6(a) Prohibition of Circumvention or Evasion
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Finding of circumvention or evasion.</I> A finding of evasion or circumvention will depend on all relevant facts and circumstances. Although net compensation may be one form of circumvention or evasion prohibited under § 235.6(a), it is not the only form.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of circumstances that may constitute circumvention or evasion.</I>
</P>
<P>The following examples do not constitute per se circumvention or evasion, but may warrant additional supervisory scrutiny to determine whether the totality of the facts and circumstances constitute circumvention or evasion:
</P>
<P>i. A payment card network decreases network processing fees paid by issuers for electronic debit transactions by 50 percent and increases the network processing fees charged to merchants or acquirers with respect to electronic debit transactions by a similar amount. Because the requirements of this subpart do not restrict or otherwise establish the amount of fees that a network may charge for its services, the increase in network fees charged to merchants or acquirers and decrease in fees charged to issuers is not a per se circumvention or evasion of the interchange transaction fee standards, but may warrant additional supervisory scrutiny to determine whether the facts and circumstances constitute circumvention or evasion.
</P>
<P>ii. An issuer replaces its debit cards with prepaid cards that are exempt from the interchange limits of §§ 235.3 and 235.4. The exempt prepaid cards are linked to its customers' transaction accounts and funds are swept from the transaction accounts to the prepaid accounts as needed to cover transactions made. Again, this arrangement is not per se circumvention or evasion, but may warrant additional supervisory scrutiny to determine whether the facts and circumstances constitute circumvention or evasion.
</P>
<HD2>6(b) Prohibition of Net Compensation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Net compensation.</I> Net compensation to an issuer through the use of network fees is prohibited.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consideration of payments or incentives provided by the network in net compensation determination.</I>
</P>
<P>i. For purposes of the net compensation determination, payments or incentives paid by a payment card network to an issuer with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card related activities could include, but are not limited to, marketing incentives; payments or rebates for meeting or exceeding a specific transaction volume, percentage share, or dollar amount of transactions processed; or other payments for debit card related activities. For example, signing bonuses paid by a network to an issuer for the issuer's debit card portfolio would also be included in the total amount of payments or incentives received by an issuer from a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions. A signing bonus for an entire card portfolio, including credit cards, may be allocated to the issuer's debit card business based on the proportion of the cards or transactions that are debit cards or electronic debit transactions, as appropriate to the situation, for purposes of the net compensation determination.
</P>
<P>ii. Incentives paid by the network with respect to multiple-year contracts may be allocated over the life of the contract.
</P>
<P>iii. For purposes of the net compensation determination, payments or incentives paid by a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card-related activities do not include interchange transaction fees that are passed through to the issuer by the network, or discounts or rebates provided by the network or an affiliate of the network for issuer-processor services. In addition, funds received by an issuer from a payment card network as a result of chargebacks, fines paid by merchants or acquirers for violations of network rules, or settlements or recoveries from merchants or acquirers to offset the costs of fraudulent transactions or a data security breach do not constitute incentives or payments made by a payment card network.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consideration of fees paid by an issuer in net compensation determination.</I>
</P>
<P>i. For purposes of the net compensation determination, fees paid by an issuer to a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card related activities include, but are not limited to, membership or licensing fees, network administration fees, and fees for optional network services, such as risk management services.
</P>
<P>ii. For purposes of the net compensation determination, fees paid by an issuer to a payment card network with respect to electronic debit transactions or debit card-related activities do not include network processing fees (such as switch fees and network connectivity fees) or fees paid to an issuer processor affiliated with the network for authorizing, clearing, or settling an electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Example of circumstances not involving net compensation to the issuer.</I> The following example illustrates circumstances that would not indicate net compensation by the payment card network to the issuer:
</P>
<P>i. Because of an increase in debit card transactions that are processed through a payment card network during a calendar year, an issuer receives an additional volume-based incentive payment from the network for that period. Over the same period, however, the total network fees (other than processing fees) the issuer pays the payment card network with respect to debit card transactions also increase so that the total amount of fees paid by the issuer to the network continue to exceed incentive payments by the network to the issuer. Under these circumstances, the issuer does not receive net compensation from the network for electronic debit transactions or debit card related activities.
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.7 Limitations on Payment Card Restrictions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Application of small issuer, government-administered payment program, and reloadable card exemptions to payment card network restrictions.</I> The exemptions under § 235.5 for small issuers, cards issued pursuant to government-administered payment programs, and certain reloadable prepaid cards do not apply to the limitations on payment card network restrictions. For example, debit cards for government-administered payment programs, although exempt from the restrictions on interchange transaction fees, are subject to the requirement that electronic debit transactions made using such cards must be capable of being processed on at least two unaffiliated payment card networks and to the prohibition on inhibiting a merchant's ability to determine the routing for electronic debit transactions.
</P>
<HD2>7(a) Prohibition on Network Exclusivity


</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of restriction.</I> Section 235.7(a) requires an issuer to configure each of its debit cards so that each electronic debit transaction performed with such card can be processed on at least two unaffiliated payment card networks. In particular, § 235.7(a) requires this condition to be satisfied for each geographic area, specific merchant, particular type of merchant, and particular type of transaction for which the issuer's debit card can be used to perform an electronic debit transaction. As long as the condition is satisfied for each such case, § 235.7(a) does not require the condition to be satisfied for each method of cardholder authentication (<I>e.g.,</I> signature, PIN, biometrics, any other method of cardholder authentication that may be developed in the future, or the lack of a method of cardholder authentication). For example, it is sufficient for an issuer to issue a debit card that can perform signature-authenticated transactions only over one payment card network and PIN-authenticated transactions only over another payment card network, as long as the two payment card networks are not affiliated and each network can be used to process electronic debit transactions for every geographic area, specific merchant, particular type of merchant, and particular type of transaction for which the issuer's debit card can be used to perform an electronic debit transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuer's role.</I> Section 235.7(a) does not require an issuer to ensure that two or more unaffiliated payment card networks will actually be available to the merchant to process every electronic debit transaction. To comply with the requirement in § 235.7(a), it is sufficient for an issuer to configure each of its debit cards so that each electronic debit transaction performed with such card can be processed on at least two unaffiliated payment card networks, even if the networks that are actually available to the merchant for a particular transaction are limited by, for example, the card acceptance technologies that a merchant adopts, or the networks that the merchant accepts.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Permitted networks.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Network volume capabilities.</I> A payment card network could be used to satisfy the requirement that an issuer enable two unaffiliated payment card networks for each electronic debit transaction if the network was either (a) capable of processing the volume of electronic debit transactions that it would reasonably expect to be routed to it or (b) willing to expand its capabilities to meet such expected transaction volume. If, however, the network's policy or practice is to limit such expansion, it would not qualify as one of the two unaffiliated payment card networks.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Reasonable volume expectations.</I> One of the steps a payment card network can take to form a reasonable expectation of its transaction volume is to consider factors such as the number of cards expected to be issued that are enabled by an issuer on the network and expected card usage patterns.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples of permitted arrangements.</I> For each geographic area (<I>e.g.,</I> New York State), specific merchant (<I>e.g.,</I> a specific fast food restaurant chain), particular type of merchant (<I>e.g.,</I> fast food restaurants), and particular type of transaction (<I>e.g.,</I> card-not-present transaction) for which the issuer's debit card can be used to perform an electronic debit transaction, an issuer must enable at least two unaffiliated payment card networks, but those payment card networks do not necessarily have to be the same two payment card networks for every transaction.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Geographic area:</I> An issuer complies with the rule only if, for each geographic area in which the issuer's debit card can be used to perform an electronic debit transaction, the issuer enables at least two unaffiliated payment card networks. For example, an issuer could comply with the rule by enabling two unaffiliated payment card networks that can each process transactions in all 50 U.S. states. Alternatively, the issuer could comply with the rule by enabling three unaffiliated payment card networks, A, B, and C, where network A can process transactions in all 50 U.S. states, network B can process transactions in the 48 contiguous United States, and network C can process transactions in Alaska and Hawaii.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Particular type of transaction:</I> An issuer complies with the rule only if, for each particular type of transaction for which the issuer's debit card can be used to perform an electronic debit transaction, the issuer enables at least two unaffiliated payment card networks. For example, an issuer could comply with the rule by enabling two unaffiliated payment card networks that can each process both card-present and card-not-present transactions. Alternatively, the issuer could comply with the rule by enabling three unaffiliated payment card networks, A, B, and C, where network A can process both card-present and card-not-present transactions, network B can process card-present transactions, and network C can process card-not-present transactions.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of prohibited network restrictions on an issuer's ability to contract with other payment card networks.</I> The following are examples of prohibited network restrictions on an issuer's ability to contract with other payment card networks:
</P>
<P>i. Network rules or contract provisions limiting or otherwise restricting the other payment card networks that an issuer may enable on a particular debit card, or network rules or contract provisions that specify the other networks that an issuer may enable on a particular debit card.
</P>
<P>ii. Network rules or guidelines that allow only that payment card network's (or its affiliated networks') brand, mark, or logo to be displayed on a particular debit card, or that otherwise limit the ability of brands, marks, or logos of other payment card networks to appear on the debit card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Network logos or symbols on card not required.</I> Section 235.7(a) does not require that a debit card display the brand, mark, or logo of each payment card network over which an electronic debit transaction may be processed. For example, the rule does not require a debit card that an issuer enables on two or more unaffiliated payment card networks to bear the brand, mark, or logo of each such payment card network.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Voluntary exclusivity arrangements prohibited.</I> Section 235.7(a) requires that an issuer enable at least two unaffiliated payment card networks to process an electronic debit transaction, even if the issuer is not subject to any rule of, or contract or other agreement with, a payment card network requiring that all or a specified minimum percentage of electronic debit transactions be processed on the network or its affiliated networks.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Affiliated payment card networks.</I> Section 235.7(a) does not prohibit an issuer from enabling two affiliated payment card networks among the networks on a particular debit card, as long as at least two of the networks that can be used to process each electronic debit transaction are unaffiliated.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Application of rule regardless of form.</I> The network exclusivity provisions in § 235.7(a) apply to electronic debit transactions performed with any debit card as defined in § 235.2, regardless of the form of such debit card. For example, the requirement applies to electronic debit transactions performed using a plastic card, a supplemental device such as a fob, information stored inside an e-wallet on a mobile phone or other device, or any other form of debit card, as defined in § 235.2, that may be developed in the future.
</P>
<HD2>7(b) Prohibition on Routing Restrictions


</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to the network exclusivity restrictions.</I> An issuer or payment card network is prohibited from inhibiting a merchant's ability to direct the routing of an electronic debit transaction over any of the payment card networks that the issuer has enabled to process electronic debit transactions performed with a particular debit card. The rule does not require that an issuer allow a merchant to route a transaction over a payment card network that the issuer did not enable to process transactions performed with that debit card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of prohibited merchant restrictions.</I> The following are examples of issuer or network practices that would inhibit a merchant's ability to direct the routing of an electronic debit transaction and that are therefore prohibited under § 235.7(b):
</P>
<P>i. Prohibiting a merchant from encouraging or discouraging a cardholder's use of a particular method of cardholder authentication, for example prohibiting merchants from favoring a cardholder's use of one cardholder authentication method over another, or from discouraging the cardholder's use of any given cardholder authentication method, as further described in comment 7(a)-1.
</P>
<P>ii. Establishing network rules or designating issuer priorities directing the processing of an electronic debit transaction on a specified payment card network or its affiliated networks, or directing the processing of the transaction away from a specified payment card network or its affiliates, except as:
</P>
<P>(A) A default rule in the event the merchant, or its acquirer or processor, does not designate a routing preference; or
</P>
<P>(B) If required by state law.
</P>
<P>iii. Requiring a specific payment card network to be used based on the form of debit card presented by the cardholder to the merchant (<I>e.g.,</I> plastic card, payment code, or any other form of debit card as defined in § 235.2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Merchant payments not prohibited.</I> A payment card network does not restrict a merchant's ability to route transactions over available payment card networks in violation of § 235.7(b) by offering payments or other incentives to encourage the merchant to route electronic debit card transactions to the network for processing.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Real-time routing decision not required.</I> A merchant need not make network routing decisions on a transaction-by-transaction basis. A merchant and its acquirer or processor may agree to a pre-determined set of routing choices that apply to all electronic debit transactions that are processed by the acquirer or processor on behalf of the merchant.


</P>
<P>5. <I>No effect on network rules governing the routing of subsequent transactions.</I> Section 235.7 does not supersede a payment card network rule that requires a chargeback or return of an electronic debit transaction to be processed on the same network that processed the original transaction.
</P>
<HD2>7(c) Effective Date
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Health care and employee benefit cards.</I> Section 235.7(c)(1) delays the effective date of the network exclusivity provisions for certain debit cards issued in connection with a health care or employee benefit account to the extent such cards use (even if not required) transaction substantiation or qualification authorization systems at point of sale to verify that the card is only used for eligible goods and services for purposes of qualifying for favorable tax treatment under Internal Revenue Code requirements. Debit cards that may qualify for the delayed effective date include, but may not be limited to, cards issued in connection with flexible spending accounts established under section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code for health care related expenses and health reimbursement accounts established under section 105 of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.8 Reporting Requirements and Record Retention
</HD1>
<P>[Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.9 Administrative Enforcement
</HD1>
<P>[Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>Section 235.10 Effective and Compliance Dates
</HD1>
<P>[Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. II, 76 FR 43466, July 20, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 43467, July 20, 2011; 77 FR 46280, Aug. 3, 2012; 87 FR 61231, Oct. 11, 2022]












</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="237" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 237—SWAPS MARGIN AND SWAPS PUSH-OUT (REGULATION KK)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 15 U.S.C. 8305, 12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 343-350, 12 U.S.C. 1818, 12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> and 12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 34549, June 10, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Margin and Capital Requirements for Covered Swap Entities (Regulation KK)</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 1818, 12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to subpart A of part 237 appear at 80 FR 74898, 74910, Nov. 30, 2015.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 237.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.1   Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart (Regulation KK) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936, as amended (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), and section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>), and the Home Owners' Loan Act, as amended (1461<I> et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the Board to establish capital and margin requirements for any state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g)), bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a (on or after the transfer established under Section 311 of the Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5411)), foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o)), foreign bank that does not operate an insured branch, state branch or state agency of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)(11) and (12)), or Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3)) that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this subpart with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this subpart is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Swaps.</I> The requirements of this subpart (except for § 237.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security-based swaps.</I> The requirements of this subpart (except for § 237.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this subpart on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin and § 237.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 237.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 237.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this subpart with respect to that counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Legacy swaps.</I> Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this subpart if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:
</P>
<P>(A) A covered swap entity, or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;
</P>
<P>(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:
</P>
<P>(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);
</P>
<P>(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.
</P>
<P>(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or
</P>
<P>(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74911, 74923, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50811, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9948, Mar. 19, 2019; 85 FR 39773, 39469, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> A company is an affiliate of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(4) The Board has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on Board's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Covered swap entity</I> means any swap entity that is a:
</P>
<P>(1) State member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g));
</P>
<P>(2) Bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841);
</P>
<P>(3) Savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a);
</P>
<P>(4) Foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o));
</P>
<P>(5) Foreign bank that does not operate an insured branch;
</P>
<P>(6) State branch or state agency of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)(11) and (12));
</P>
<P>(7) Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3)); or
</P>
<P>(8) Covered swap entity as determined by the Board. Covered swap entity would not include an affiliate of an entity listed in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this definition for which the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the prudential regulator or that is required to be registered with the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant or with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P><I>Currency of settlement</I> means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.
</P>
<P><I>Day of execution</I> means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral described in § 237.6.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of title 12, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Financial end user</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange forward</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin</I> means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 237.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin collection amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 237.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin model</I> means an internal risk management model that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been approved by the Board pursuant to § 237.8.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin threshold amount</I> means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 237.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Major currency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) United States Dollar (USD);
</P>
<P>(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);
</P>
<P>(3) Euro (EUR);
</P>
<P>(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);
</P>
<P>(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);
</P>
<P>(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);
</P>
<P>(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);
</P>
<P>(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);
</P>
<P>(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);
</P>
<P>(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);
</P>
<P>(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or
</P>
<P>(12) Any other currency as determined by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means initial margin and variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Market intermediary</I> means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P><I>Material swaps exposure</I> for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 237.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the Board determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared security-based swap</I> means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared swap</I> means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).
</P>
<P><I>Prudential regulator</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P><I>Security-based swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a subsidiary of another company if<I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Board has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on Board's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).
</P>
<P><I>Swap entity</I> means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74911, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50812, Oct. 10, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.3   Initial margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap <I>less</I> the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 237.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.4   Variation margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 237.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Netting arrangements.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § 237.3 using an initial margin model as described in § 237.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 237.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this subpart on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 237.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this subpart and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 237.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 237.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this subpart. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 237.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this subpart to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this subpart to post margin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum transfer amount.</I> Notwithstanding § 237.3 or § 237.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this subpart with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this subpart to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</I> A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 237.3, § 237.4, or § 237.6(e) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity has:
</P>
<P>(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of the Board that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.6   Eligible collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this subpart solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to initial margin only:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 237.12;
</P>
<P>(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the Board; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 237.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Gold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this subpart solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 237.12;
</P>
<P>(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the Board; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 237.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(10) Gold.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this subpart is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this subpart does not include a security issued by:
</P>
<P>(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).
</P>
<P>(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this subpart. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this subpart. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 237.3(d) or § 237.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this subpart in any form of collateral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.7   Segregation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 237.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 237.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 237.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 237.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 237.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 237.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this subpart would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 237.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 237.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this subpart would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 237.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.8   Initial margin models and standardized amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized amounts.</I> Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 237.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of initial margin models.</I> A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 237.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for initial margin model.</I> (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of the Board before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered swap entity must notify the Board in writing 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that the Board has approved under this section to an additional product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by the Board under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if the Board determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative requirements.</I> (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.
</P>
<P>(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.
</P>
<P>(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.
</P>
<P>(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.
</P>
<P>(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board that such omission is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.
</P>
<P>(15) The Board may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if the Board determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic review.</I> A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.
</P>
<P>(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify the Board of the problems, describe to the Board any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.
</P>
<P>(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.9   Cross-border application of margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions to which this rule does not apply.</I> The requirements of §§ 237.3 through 237.8 and §§ 237.10 through 237.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign non-cleared swap</I> or <I>foreign non-cleared security-based swap</I> is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign covered swap entity</I> is any covered swap entity that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply</I>—(1) <I>Determinations and reliance.</I> For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this subpart by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 237.3 through 237.8 and §§ 237.10 through 237.12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard.</I> In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this subpart and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance.</I> A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement.</I> A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 237.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for determinations.</I> (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:
</P>
<P>(A) The scope of transactions covered;
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;
</P>
<P>(C) The timing of margin requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) Any documentation requirements;
</P>
<P>(E) The forms of eligible collateral;
</P>
<P>(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Segregation unavailable.</I> Sections 237.3(b) and 237.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 237.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 237.7;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 237.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 237.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 237.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 237.6(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) The Board provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarantee</I> means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section is not subject to the requirements of § 237.3(a) or § 237.11(a) for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in 12 CFR 237.11(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39774, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.10   Documentation of margin matters.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this subpart, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 237.3 or § 237.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and
</P>
<P>(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74911, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39774, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.11   Special rules for affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 237.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 237.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 237.3(c), until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or
</P>
<P>(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 237.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (a), “tier 1 capital” means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 217.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 217.20(c), as reported in the institution's most recent Consolidated Reports of Income and Condition (Call Report).
</P>
<P>(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 237.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent affiliated covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 237.3(a) from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 237.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 237.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section,
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An affiliate as defined in § 237.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>subsidiary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 237.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39774, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.12   Capital.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall comply with:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of a covered swap entity that is a state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g)), the provisions of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) applicable to the state member bank;
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a covered swap entity that is a bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842) or a savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), the provisions of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) applicable to the covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of a covered swap entity that is a foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o)), a U.S. intermediate holding company subsidiary of a foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 252.3(y)) or any state branch or state agency of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(b)(11) and (12)), the capital standards that are applicable to such covered swap entity under § 225.2(r)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(r)(3)) or the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252); and
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of a covered swap entity that is an Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3)), the capital standards applicable to an Edge corporation under § 211.12(c) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.12(c)) and to an agreement corporation under §§ 211.5(g) and 211.12(c) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(g) and 211.12(c)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]

</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.13.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A to Part 237—Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-Cleared Swaps and Non—Cleared Security-Based Swaps

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-Cleared Swaps and Non-Cleared Security-Based Swaps
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gross initial margin
<br/>(% of notional exposure)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Exchange/Currency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">where;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.1.1.13.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart A to Part 237—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral



</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 237.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Prohibition Against Federal Assistance to Swaps Entities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 343, Jan. 3, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 237.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign bank</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(n) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(n)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Major security-based swap participant</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(67) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(67)) and as implemented in rules and orders issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Major swap participant</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(33) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(33)) and as implemented in rules and orders issued by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Security-based swap</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)) and as implemented in rules and orders issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Security-based swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)) and as implemented in rules and orders issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)) and as implemented in rules and orders issued by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Swaps entity</I> means a person that is registered as a swap dealer, security-based swap dealer, major swap participant, or major security-based swap participant under the Commodity Exchange Act or Securities Exchange Act of 1934, other than an insured depository institution that is registered as a major swap participant or major security-based swap participant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.21   Definition of insured depository institution for purposes of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) and this rule, the term “insured depository institution” includes any insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813) and any uninsured U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank. The terms branch, agency, and foreign bank are defined in section 1 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 237.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 237.22   Transition period for insured depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval of transition period.</I> (1) To the extent an insured depository institution for which the Board is the appropriate Federal banking agency qualifies as a “swaps entity” and would be subject to the Federal assistance prohibition in section 716(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305(a)), the insured depository institution may request a transition period of up to 24 months from the later of July 16, 2013, or the date on which it becomes a swaps entity, during which to conform its swaps activities to the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) by submitting a request in writing to the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Any request submitted pursuant to this paragraph (a) of this section shall, at a minimum, include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the transition period requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the quantitative and qualitative impacts of divestiture or cessation of swap or security-based swaps activities on the insured depository institution, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A detailed explanation of the insured depository institution's plan for conforming its activities to the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) and this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may, at any time, request additional information that it believes is necessary for its decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period for insured depository institutions.</I> Following review of a written request submitted under paragraph (a) of this section, the Board shall permit an insured depository institution for which it is the appropriate Federal banking agency up to 24 months after the later of July 16, 2013, or the date on which the insured depository institution becomes a swaps entity, to comply with the requirements of section 716 of the Dodd-Frank Act (15 U.S.C. 8305) and this subpart based on its consideration of the factors in paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors governing Board determinations.</I> In establishing an appropriate transition period pursuant to any request under this section, the Board will take into account and make written findings regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential impact of divestiture or cessation of swap or security-based swaps activities on the insured depository institution's:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgage lending;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business lending;
</P>
<P>(iii) Job creation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Capital formation versus the potential negative impact on insured depositors and the Deposit Insurance Fund of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of Board review.</I> The Board will seek to act on a request under paragraph (a) of this section expeditiously after the receipt of a complete request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension of transition period.</I> The Board may extend a transition period provided under this section for a period of up to one additional year. To request an extension of the transition period, an insured depository institution must submit a written request containing the information set forth in paragraph (a) of this section no later than 60 days before the end of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Authority to impose restrictions during any transition period.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on any transition period granted under this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consultation.</I> The Board shall consult with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission or the Securities and Exchange Commission, as appropriate, prior to the approval of a request by an insured depository institution for a transition period under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="238" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 238—SAVINGS AND LOAN HOLDING COMPANIES (REGULATION LL)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 559; 12 U.S.C. 1462, 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1468, 5365; 1813, 1817, 1829e, 1831i, 1972, 15 U.S.C. 78 <I>l.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (<I>Board</I>) under section 10(g) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (<I>HOLA</I>); section 7(j)(13) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended by the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(13)) (<I>Bank Control Act</I>); sections 8(b), 19 and 32 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b), 1829, and 1831i); and section 914 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The principal purposes of this part are to:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulate the acquisition of control of savings associations by companies and individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Define and regulate the activities in which savings and loan holding companies may engage;
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the procedures for securing approval for these transactions and activities; and
</P>
<P>(4) Set forth the procedures under which directors and executive officers may be appointed or employed by savings and loan holding companies in certain circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part and in the forms under this part, the following definitions apply, unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any person or company which controls, is controlled by or is under common control with a person, savings association or company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means any national bank, state bank, state-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or industrial bank, the deposits of which are insured by the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning found in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(c)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, unincorporated organization, joint-stock company or similar organization, as defined in paragraph (o) of this section; but a company does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Resolution Trust Corporation, or any Federal Home Loan Bank, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any company the majority of shares of which is owned by:
</P>
<P>(i) The United States or any State,
</P>
<P>(ii) An officer of the United States or any State in his or her official capacity, or
</P>
<P>(iii) An instrumentality of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) A person shall be deemed to have <I>control</I> of:
</P>
<P>(1) A savings association if the person directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 25 percent of the voting shares of such savings association, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of such association;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other company if the person directly or indirectly or acting in concert with one or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 25 percent of the voting shares or rights of such other company, or controls in any manner the election or appointment of a majority of the directors or trustees of such other company, or is a general partner in or has contributed more than 25 percent of the capital of such other company;
</P>
<P>(3) A trust if the person is a trustee thereof;
</P>
<P>(4) A company if the Board determines, after reasonable notice and opportunity for hearing, that such person directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of such association or other company; or
</P>
<P>(5) Voting securities or assets owned, controlled, or held, directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(i) By the company, or by any subsidiary of the company;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the company has power to vote or to dispose of;
</P>
<P>(iii) In a fiduciary capacity for the benefit of the company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(iv) In a fiduciary capacity (including by pension and profit-sharing trusts) for the benefit of the shareholders, members, or employees (or individuals serving in similar capacities) of the company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(v) According to the standards under § 238.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Director</I> means any director of a corporation or any individual who performs similar functions in respect of any company, including a trustee under a trust.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Management official</I> means any president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, vice president, director, partner, or trustee, or any other person who performs or has a representative or nominee performing similar policymaking functions, including executive officers of principal business units or divisions or subsidiaries who perform policymaking functions, for a savings association or a company, whether or not incorporated.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Multiple savings and loan holding company</I> means any savings and loan holding company which directly or indirectly controls two or more savings associations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Officer</I> means the chairman of the board, president, vice president, treasurer, secretary, or comptroller of any company, or any other person who participates in its major policy decisions.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, bank, corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Qualified thrift lender</I> means a financial institution that meets the appropriate qualified thrift lender test set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Savings Association</I> means a Federal savings and loan association or a Federal savings bank chartered under section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, a building and loan, savings and loan or homestead association or a cooperative bank (other than a cooperative bank described in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(2)) the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and any corporation (other than a bank) the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation jointly determine to be operating in substantially the same manner as a savings association, and shall include any savings bank or any cooperative bank which is deemed by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency to be a savings association under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(1).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means any company (including a savings association) that directly or indirectly controls a savings association, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any company by virtue of its ownership or control of voting stock of a savings association acquired in connection with the underwriting of securities if such stock is held only for such period of time (not exceeding 120 days unless extended by the Board) as will permit the sale thereof on a reasonable basis;
</P>
<P>(2) Any trust (other than a pension, profit-sharing, stockholders', voting, or business trust) which controls a savings association if such trust by its terms must terminate within 25 years or not later than 21 years and 10 months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust, and:
</P>
<P>(i) Was in existence and in control of a savings association on June 26, 1967, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a testamentary trust;
</P>
<P>(3) A bank holding company that is registered under, and subject to, the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, or any company directly or indirectly controlled by such company (other than a savings association);
</P>
<P>(4) A company that controls a savings association that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as provided in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act; or
</P>
<P>(5) A company described in section 10(c)(9)(C) of HOLA solely by virtue of such company's control of an intermediate holding company established under section 10A of the Home Owners' Loan Act.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Shareholder</I>—(1) <I>Controlling shareholder</I> means a person that owns or control, directly or indirectly, more than 25 percent of any class of voting securities of a savings association or other company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Principal shareholder</I> means a person that owns or controls, directly or indirectly, 10 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a savings association or other company, or any person that the Board determines has the power, directly or indirectly, to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a savings association or other company.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Stock</I> means common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a person, and includes any service corporation owned in whole or in part by a savings association, or a subsidiary of such service corporation.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Uninsured institution</I> means any financial institution the deposits of which are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(r)(1) <I>Voting securities</I> means shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests if the shares or interest, by statute, charter, or in any manner, entitle the holder:
</P>
<P>(i) To vote for or to select directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions of the issuing company); or
</P>
<P>(ii) To vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of the issuing company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonvoting securities.</I> Common shares, preferred shares, limited partnership interests, limited liability company interests, or similar interests are not <I>voting securities</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any voting rights associated with the securities are limited solely to the type customarily provided by statute with regard to matters that would significantly and adversely affect the rights or preference of the security, such as the issuance of additional amounts or classes of senior securities, the modification of the terms of the security, the dissolution of the issuing company, or the payment of dividends by the issuing company when preferred dividends are in arrears;
</P>
<P>(ii) The securities represent an essentially passive investment or financing device and do not otherwise provide the holder with control over the issuing company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The securities do not entitle the holder, by statute, charter, or in any manner, to select or to vote for the selection of directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions) of the issuing company; except that limited partnership interests or membership interests in limited liability companies are not voting securities due to voting rights that are limited solely to voting for the removal of a general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company) for cause, to replace a general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company) due to incapacitation or following the removal of such person, or to continue or dissolve the company after removal of the general partner or managing member (or persons exercising similar functions at the company).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Class of voting shares.</I> Shares of stock issued by a single issuer are deemed to be the same class of voting shares, regardless of differences in dividend rights or liquidation preference, if the shares are voted together as a single class on all matters for which the shares have voting rights other than matters described in paragraph (r)(2)(i) of this section that affect solely the rights or preferences of the shares.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Well capitalized.</I> (1) A savings and loan holding company is well capitalized if:
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the savings and loan holding company's depository institutions is well capitalized; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The savings and loan holding company is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the Board to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a savings association, “well capitalized” takes the meaning provided in § 225.2(r)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Well managed.</I> The term “well managed” takes the meaning provided in § 225.2(s) of this chapter except that a “satisfactory rating for management” refers to a management rating, if such rating is given, or otherwise a risk-management rating, if such rating is given.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Depository institution.</I> For purposes of this part, the term “depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means GAAP, international financial reporting standards, or such other accounting standards that a company uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Average cross-jurisdictional activity</I> means the average of cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the cross-jurisdictional activity for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Average off-balance sheet exposure</I> means the average of off-balance sheet exposure for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total exposure and total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the off-balance sheet exposure for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Average total consolidated assets</I> means the average of total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total consolidated assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Average total nonbank assets</I> means the average of total nonbank assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total nonbank assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Average weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> means the average of weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the weighted short-term wholesale funding for the most recent quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Banking organization.</I> Banking organization means a covered savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not a consolidated subsidiary of a covered savings and loan holding company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Category II savings and loan holding company</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 238.10.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Category III savings and loan holding company</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 238.10.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Category IV savings and loan holding company</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 238.10.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Covered savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(C) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (ff)(3)(i) of this section, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Cross-jurisdictional activity.</I> The cross-jurisdictional activity of a banking organization is equal to the cross-jurisdictional activity of the banking organization as reported on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(o) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>FR Y-9C</I> means the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies reporting form.
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements of Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Off-balance sheet exposure.</I> The off-balance sheet exposure of a banking organization is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The total exposure of the banking organization, as reported by the banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus
</P>
<P>(2) The total consolidated assets of the banking organization for the same calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Total consolidated assets.</I> Total consolidated assets of a banking organization are equal to its total consolidated assets calculated based on the average of the balances as of the close of business for each day for the calendar quarter or an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, as reported on the FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Total nonbank assets.</I> Total nonbank assets of a banking organization is equal to the total nonbank assets of such banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-9LP.
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>U.S. government agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of the United States whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States.
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>U.S. government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity originally established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress, but whose obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States.
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> is equal to the weighted short-term wholesale funding of a banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Voting percentage.</I> For purposes of this part, the percentage of a class of a company's voting securities controlled by a person is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The quotient, expressed as a percentage, of the number of shares of the class of voting securities controlled by the person, divided by the number of shares of the class of voting securities that are issued and outstanding, both as adjusted by § 238.9 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The quotient, expressed as a percentage, of the number of votes that may be cast by the person on the voting securities controlled by the person, divided by the total votes that are legally entitled to be cast by the issued and outstanding shares of the class of voting securities, both as adjusted by § 238.9 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 59076, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 12426, Mar. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.3   Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegation of authority.</I> Designated Board members and officers and the Federal Reserve Banks are authorized by the Board to exercise various functions prescribed in this regulation, in the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR part 265), the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR part 262), and in Board orders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.</I> In administering this regulation, unless a different Federal Reserve Bank is designated by the Board, the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For a savings and loan holding company (or a company applying to become a savings and loan holding company): the Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve district in which the company's banking operations are principally conducted, as measured by total domestic deposits in its subsidiary savings association on the date it became (or will become) a savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) For an individual or company submitting a notice under subpart D of this part: The Reserve Bank of the Federal Reserve district in which the banking operations of the savings and loan holding company to be acquired are principally conducted, as measured by total domestic deposits on the date the notice is filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.4   Records, reports, and inspections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> Each savings and loan holding company shall maintain such books and records as may be prescribed by the Board. Each savings and loan holding company and its non-depository affiliates shall maintain accurate and complete records of all business transactions. Such records shall support and be readily reconcilable to any regulatory reports submitted to the Board and financial reports prepared in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>The records shall be maintained in the United States and be readily accessible for examination and other supervisory purposes within 5 business days upon request by the Board, at a location acceptable to the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports.</I> Each savings and loan holding company and each subsidiary thereof, other than a savings association, shall file with the Board such reports as may be required by the Board. Such reports shall be made under oath or otherwise, and shall be in such form and for such periods, as the Board may prescribe. Each report shall contain information concerning the operations of such savings and loan holding company and its subsidiaries as the Board may require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Registration statement</I>—(1) <I>Filing of registration statement.</I> Not later than 90 days after becoming a savings and loan holding company, each savings and loan holding company shall register with the Board by furnishing information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Date of registration.</I> The date of registration of a savings and loan holding company shall be the date on which its registration statement is received by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of time for registration.</I> For timely and good cause shown, the Board may extend the time within which a savings and loan holding company shall register.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Release from registration.</I> The Board may at any time, upon its own motion or upon application, release a registered savings and loan holding company from any registration theretofore made by such company, if the Board shall determine that such company no longer has control of any savings association or no longer qualifies as a savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examinations.</I> Each savings and loan holding company and each subsidiary thereof shall be subject to such examinations as the Board may prescribe. The Board shall, to the extent deemed feasible, use for the purposes of this section reports filed with or examinations made by other Federal agencies or the appropriate State supervisory authority.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appointment of agent.</I> The Board may require any savings and loan holding company, or persons connected therewith if it is not a corporation, to execute and file a prescribed form of irrevocable appointment of agent for service of process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.5   Audit of savings association holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board may require, at any time, an independent audit of the financial statements of, or the application of procedures agreed upon by the Board to a savings and loan holding company, or nondepository affiliate by qualified independent public accountants when needed for any safety and soundness reason identified by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audits required for safety and soundness purposes.</I> (1) The Board requires an independent audit for safety and soundness purposes if, as of the beginning of its fiscal year, a savings and loan holding company controls savings association subsidiary(ies) with aggregate consolidated assets of $500 million or more.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, with regard to a savings and loan holding company's fiscal year beginning in the calendar years 2020 or 2021, the applicability of the requirement in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate consolidated assets of the savings and loan holding company as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate consolidated assets of the savings and loan holding company as of the end of its fiscal year ending in calendar year 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) The relief provided under paragraph (b)(2) of this section does not apply to a savings and loan holding company if the Board determines that permitting the savings and loan holding company to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the savings and loan holding company. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the savings and loan holding company since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the savings and loan holding company has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the savings and loan holding company. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (b)(3), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) When the Board requires an independent audit because such an audit is needed for safety and soundness purposes, the Board shall determine whether the audit was conducted and filed in a manner satisfactory to the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) When the Board requires the application of procedures agreed upon by the Board for safety and soundness purposes, the Board shall identify the procedures to be performed. The Board shall also determine whether the agreed upon procedures were conducted and filed in a manner satisfactory to the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifications for independent public accountants.</I> The audit shall be conducted by an independent public accountant who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is registered or licensed to practice as a public accountant, and is in good standing, under the laws of the state or other political subdivision of the United States in which the savings association's or holding company's principal office is located;
</P>
<P>(2) Agrees in the engagement letter to provide the Board with access to and copies of any work papers, policies, and procedures relating to the services performed;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Is in compliance with the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants' (AICPA) Code of Professional Conduct; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the independence requirements and interpretations of the Securities and Exchange Commission and its staff; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has received, or is enrolled in, a peer review program that meets guidelines acceptable to the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voluntary audits.</I> When a savings and loan holding company or nondepository affiliate obtains an independent audit voluntarily, it must be performed by an independent public accountant who satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2), and (d)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 77362, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.6   Penalties for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal and civil penalties.</I> (1) Section 10 of the HOLA provides criminal penalties for willful violation, and civil penalties for violation, by any company or individual, of HOLA or any regulation or order issued under it, or for making a false entry in any book, report, or statement of a savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) Civil money penalty assessments for violations of HOLA shall be made in accordance with subpart C of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263, subpart C). For any willful violation of the Bank Control Act or any regulation or order issued under it, the Board may assess a civil penalty as provided in 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cease-and-desist proceedings.</I> For any violation of HOLA, the Bank Control Act, this regulation, or any order or notice issued thereunder, the Board may institute a cease-and-desist proceeding in accordance with the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.7   Tying restriction exception.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safe harbor for combined-balance discounts.</I> A savings and loan holding company or any savings association or any affiliate of either may vary the consideration for any product or package of products based on a customer's maintaining a combined minimum balance in certain products specified by the company varying the consideration (eligible products), if:
</P>
<P>(1) That company (if it is a savings association) or a savings association affiliate of that company (if it is not a savings association) offers deposits, and all such deposits are eligible products; and
</P>
<P>(2) Balances in deposits count at least as much as non-deposit products toward the minimum balance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on exception.</I> This exception shall terminate upon a finding by the Board that the arrangement is resulting in anti-competitive practices. The eligibility of a savings and loan holding company or savings association or affiliate of either to operate under this exception shall terminate upon a finding by the Board that its exercise of this authority is resulting in anti-competitive practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.8   Safe and sound operations, and Small Bank Holding Company Policy Statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Savings and loan holding company policy and operations.</I> (1) A savings and loan holding company shall serve as a source of financial and managerial strength to its subsidiary savings associations and shall not conduct its operations in an unsafe or unsound manner.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Board believes an activity of a savings and loan holding company or control of a nonbank subsidiary (other than a nonbank subsidiary of a savings association) constitutes a serious risk to the financial safety, soundness, or stability of a subsidiary savings association of the savings and loan holding company and is inconsistent with sound banking principles or the purposes of HOLA or the Financial Institutions Supervisory Act of 1966, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) <I>et seq.</I>), the Board may require the savings and loan holding company to terminate the activity or to terminate control of the subsidiary, as provided in section 10(g)(5) of the HOLA.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board's Small Bank Holding Company Policy Statement (12 CFR part 225, appendix C) (Policy Statement) applies to savings and loan holding companies as if they were bank holding companies. To qualify or rely on the Policy Statement, savings and loan holding companies must meet all qualifying requirements in the Policy Statement as if they were a bank holding company. For purposes of applying the Policy Statement, the term “nonbank subsidiary” as used in the Policy Statement refers to a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company other than a savings association or a subsidiary of a savings association.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board may exclude any savings and loan holding company, regardless of asset size, from the Policy Statement under paragraph (b) of this section if the Board determines that such action is warranted for supervisory purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 12426, Mar. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.9   Control over securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contingent rights, convertible securities, options, and warrants.</I> (1) A person that controls a security, option, warrant, or other financial instrument that is convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or otherwise may become a security controls each security that could be acquired as a result of such conversion, exercise, exchange, or similar occurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) If a financial instrument of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or otherwise may become a number of securities that varies according to a formula, rate, or other variable metric, the number of securities controlled under paragraph (a)(1) of this section is the maximum number of securities that the financial instrument could be converted into, be exercised for, be exchanged for, or otherwise become under the formula, rate, or other variable metric.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person does not control voting securities due to controlling a financial instrument if the financial instrument:
</P>
<P>(i) By its terms is not convertible into, is not exercisable for, is not exchangeable for, and may not otherwise become voting securities in the hands of the person or an affiliate of the person; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By its terms is only convertible into, exercisable for, exchangeable for, or may otherwise become voting securities in the hands of a transferee after a transfer:
</P>
<P>(A) In a widespread public distribution;
</P>
<P>(B) To the issuing company;
</P>
<P>(C) In transfers in which no transferee (or group of associated transferees) would receive 2 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the issuing company; or
</P>
<P>(D) To a transferee that would control more than 50 percent of every class of voting securities of the issuing company without any transfer from the person.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a person that has agreed to acquire securities or other financial instruments pursuant to a securities purchase agreement does not control such securities or financial instruments until the person acquires the securities or financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a right that provides a person the ability to acquire securities in future issuances or to convert nonvoting securities into voting securities does not cause the person to control the securities that could be acquired under the right, so long as the right does not allow the person to acquire a higher percentage of the class of securities than the person controlled immediately prior to the future acquisition.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a preferred security that would be a nonvoting security but for a right to vote on directors that activates only after six or more quarters of unpaid dividends is not considered to be a voting security until the security holder is entitled to exercise the voting right.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of determining the percentage of a class of voting securities of a company controlled by a person that controls a financial instrument of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The securities controlled by the person under paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section are deemed to be issued and outstanding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any securities controlled by anyone other than the person under paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section are not deemed to be issued and outstanding, unless by the terms of the financial instruments the securities controlled by the other persons must be issued and outstanding in order for the securities of the person to be issued and outstanding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction on securities.</I> A person that enters into an agreement or understanding with a second person under which the rights of the second person are restricted in any manner with respect to securities that are controlled by the second person, controls the securities of the second person, unless the restriction is:
</P>
<P>(1) A requirement that the second person offer the securities for sale to the first person for a reasonable period of time prior to transferring the securities to a third party;
</P>
<P>(2) A requirement that, if the second person agrees to sell the securities, the second person provide the first person with the opportunity to participate in the sale of the securities by the second person;
</P>
<P>(3) A requirement under which the second person agrees to sell its securities to a third party if a majority of security holders agrees to sell their securities to the third party;
</P>
<P>(4) Incident to a bona fide loan transaction in which the securities serve as collateral;
</P>
<P>(5) A short-term and revocable proxy;
</P>
<P>(6) A restriction on transferability that continues only for a reasonable amount of time necessary to complete an acquisition by the first person of the securities from the second person, including the time necessary to obtain required approval from an appropriate government authority with respect to the acquisition;
</P>
<P>(7) A requirement that the second person vote the securities in favor of a specific acquisition of control of the issuing company, or against competing transactions, if the restriction continues only for a reasonable amount of time necessary to complete the transaction, including the time necessary to obtain required approval from an appropriate government authority with respect to an acquisition or merger; or
</P>
<P>(8) An agreement among security holders of the issuing company intended to preserve the tax status or tax benefits of the company, such as qualification of the issuing company as a Subchapter S corporation, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1361(a)(1) or any successor statute, or prevention of events that could impair deferred tax assets, such as net operating loss carryforwards, as described in 26 U.S.C. 382 or any successor statute.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Securities held by senior management officials or controlling equity holders of a company.</I> A company that controls 5 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another company controls all securities issued by the second company that are controlled by senior management officials, directors, or controlling shareholders of the first company, or by immediate family members of such persons, unless the first company controls less than 15 percent of each class of voting securities of the second company and the senior management officials, directors, and controlling shareholders of the first company, and immediate family members of such persons, control 50 percent or more of each class of voting securities of the second company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, the Board may determine that securities are or are not controlled by a company based on the facts and circumstances presented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 12426, Mar. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.10   Categorization of banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the three categories described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Category II.</I> (1) A banking organization is a Category II banking organization if the banking organization has:
</P>
<P>(i) $700 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) $75 billion or more in average cross-jurisdictional activity; and
</P>
<P>(B) $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category II banking organization until the banking organization has:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Category III.</I> (1) A banking organization is a Category III banking organization if the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) $250 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
</P>
<P>(B) $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets and at least:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) $75 billion in average total nonbank assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) $75 billion in average off-balance sheet exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a Category II banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category III banking organization until the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(C) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(D) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Category IV.</I> (1) A banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more is a Category IV banking organization if the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a Category II banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a Category III banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category IV banking organization until the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a Category III banking organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59077, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Acquisitions of Saving Association Securities or Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.11   Transactions requiring Board approval.</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions require the Board's prior approval under section 10 of HOLA except as exempted under § 238.12:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Formation of savings and loan holding company.</I> Any action that causes a savings association or other company to become a savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acquisition of subsidiary savings association.</I> Any action that causes a savings association to become a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisition of control of savings association or savings and loan holding company securities.</I> (1) The acquisition by a savings and loan holding company of direct or indirect ownership or control of any voting securities of a savings association or savings and loan holding company, that is not a subsidiary, if the acquisition results in the company's control of more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the savings association or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) An acquisition includes the purchase of additional securities through the exercise of preemptive rights, but does not include securities received in a stock dividend or stock split that does not alter the savings and loan holding company's proportional share of any class of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a multiple savings and loan holding company, acquisition of direct or indirect ownership or control of any voting securities of a savings association or savings and loan holding company, that is not a subsidiary, if the acquisition results in the company's control of more than 5 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the savings association or savings and loan holding company that is engaged in any business activity other than those specified in § 238.51 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquisition of savings association or savings and loan holding company assets.</I> The acquisition by a savings and loan holding company or by a subsidiary thereof (other than a savings association) of all or substantially all of the assets of a savings association, or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Merger of savings and loan holding companies.</I> The merger or consolidation of savings and loan holding companies, and the acquisition of a savings association through a merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acquisition of control by certain individuals.</I> The acquisition, by a director or officer of a savings and loan holding company, or by any individual who owns, controls, or holds the power to vote (or holds proxies representing) more than 25 percent of the voting shares of such savings and loan holding company, of control of any savings association that is not a subsidiary of such savings and loan holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.12   Transactions not requiring Board approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The requirements of § 238.11(a), (b), (d), (e) and (f) do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Control of a savings association acquired by devise under the terms of a will creating a trust which is excluded from the definition of savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) Control of a savings association acquired in connection with a reorganization that involves solely the acquisition of control of that association by a newly formed company that is controlled by the same acquirors that controlled the savings association for the immediately preceding three years, and entails no other transactions, such as an assumption of the acquirors' debt by the newly formed company: Provided, that the acquirors have filed the designated form with the appropriate Reserve Bank and have provided all additional information requested by the Board or Reserve Bank, and the Board nor the appropriate Reserve Bank object to the acquisition within 30 days of the filing date;
</P>
<P>(3) Control of a savings association acquired by a bank holding company that is registered under and subject to, the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, or any company controlled by such bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(4) Control of a savings association acquired solely as a result of a pledge or hypothecation of stock to secure a loan contracted for in good faith or the liquidation of a loan contracted for in good faith, in either case where such loan was made in the ordinary course of the business of the lender: <I>Provided, further,</I> That acquisition of control pursuant to such pledge, hypothecation or liquidation is reported to the Board within 30 days, and <I>Provided, further,</I> That the acquiror shall not retain such control for more than one year from the date on which such control was acquired; however, the Board may, upon application by an acquiror, extend such one-year period from year to year, for an additional period of time not exceeding three years, if the Board finds such extension is warranted and would not be detrimental to the public interest;
</P>
<P>(5) Control of a savings association acquired through a percentage increase in stock ownership following a <I>pro rata</I> stock dividend or stock split, if the proportional interests of the recipients remain substantially the same;
</P>
<P>(6) Acquisitions of up to twenty-five percent (25%) of a class of stock by a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan; and
</P>
<P>(7) Acquisitions of up to 15 percent of the voting stock of any savings association by a savings and loan holding company (other than a bank holding company) in connection with a qualified stock issuance if such acquisition is approved by the Board pursuant to subpart E.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of § 238.11(c) do not apply to voting shares of a savings association or of a savings and loan holding company—
</P>
<P>(1) Held as a <I>bona fide</I> fiduciary (whether with or without the sole discretion to vote such shares);
</P>
<P>(2) Held temporarily pursuant to an underwriting commitment in the normal course of an underwriting business;
</P>
<P>(3) Held in an account solely for trading purposes or over which no control is held other than control of voting rights acquired in the normal course of a proxy solicitation;
</P>
<P>(4) Acquired in securing or collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, for two years after the date of acquisition or for such additional time (not exceeding three years) as the Board may permit if, in the Board's judgment, such an extension would not be detrimental to the public interest;
</P>
<P>(5) Acquired under section 13(k)(1)(A)(i) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (or section 408(m) of the National Housing Act as in effect immediately prior to the enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989);
</P>
<P>(6) Held by any insurance companies as defined in section 2(a)(17) of the Investment Company Act of 1940: <I>Provided,</I> That all shares held by all insurance company affiliates of such savings association or savings and loan holding company may not, in the aggregate, exceed five percent of all outstanding shares or of the voting power of the savings association or savings and loan holding company, and such shares are not acquired or retained with a view to acquiring, exercising, or transferring control of the savings association or savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(7) Acquired pursuant to a qualified stock issuance if such a purchase is approved pursuant to subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The aggregate amount of shares held under paragraph (b) of this section (other than pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) through (4) and (b)(6)) may not exceed 15 percent of all outstanding shares or the voting power of a savings association or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquisitions involving savings association mergers and internal corporate reorganizations.</I> The requirements of § 238.11 do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certain transactions subject to the Bank Merger Act.</I> The acquisition by a savings and loan holding company of shares of a savings association or company controlling a savings association or the merger of a company controlling a savings association with the savings and loan holding company, if the transaction is part of the merger or consolidation of the savings association with a subsidiary savings association (other than a nonoperating subsidiary savings association) of the acquiring savings and loan holding company, or is part of the purchase of substantially all of the assets of the savings association by a subsidiary savings association (other than a nonoperating subsidiary savings association) of the acquiring savings and loan holding company, and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The savings association merger, consolidation, or asset purchase occurs simultaneously with the acquisition of the shares of the savings association or savings and loan holding company or the merger of holding companies, and the savings association is not operated by the acquiring savings and loan holding company as a separate entity other than as the survivor of the merger, consolidation, or asset purchase;
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction requires the prior approval of a federal supervisory agency under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of any company that would require prior notice or approval under section 10(c) of the HOLA;
</P>
<P>(iv) The transaction does not involve a depository institution organized in mutual form, a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, a subsidiary holding company of a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, or a bank holding company organized in mutual form;
</P>
<P>(v) The transaction will not have a material adverse impact on the financial condition of the acquiring savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(vi) At least 10 days prior to the transaction, the acquiring savings and loan holding company has provided to the Reserve Bank written notice of the transaction that contains:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the filing made to the appropriate federal banking agency under the Bank Merger Act; and
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the holding company's involvement in the transaction, the purchase price, and the source of funding for the purchase price; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Prior to expiration of the period provided in paragraph (d)(1)(vi) of this section, neither the Board nor the Reserve Bank has informed the savings and loan holding company that an application under § 238.11 is required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Internal corporate reorganizations.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, any of the following transactions performed in the United States by a savings and loan holding company:
</P>
<P>(A) The merger of holding companies that are subsidiaries of the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) The formation of a subsidiary holding company; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In the case of a transaction that results in the formation or designation of a new savings and loan holding company, the new savings and loan holding company must complete the registration requirements described in section 238.11.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) The transfer of control or ownership of a subsidiary savings association or a subsidiary holding company between one subsidiary holding company and another subsidiary holding company or the savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section qualifies for this exception if—
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction represents solely a corporate reorganization involving companies and insured depository institutions that, both preceding and following the transaction, are lawfully controlled and operated by the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction does not involve the acquisition of additional voting shares of an insured depository institution that, prior to the transaction, was less than majority owned by the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(C) The transaction does not involve a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, a subsidiary holding company of a savings and loan holding company organized in mutual form, or a bank holding company organized in mutual form; and
</P>
<P>(D) The transaction will not have a material adverse impact on the financial condition of the holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.13   Prohibited acquisitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No savings and loan holding company may, directly or indirectly, or through one or more subsidiaries or through one or more transactions, acquire control of an uninsured institution or retain, for more than one year after the date any savings association subsidiary becomes uninsured, control of such association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control of mutual savings association.</I> No savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof, or any director, officer, or employee of a savings and loan holding company or subsidiary thereof, or person owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, or holding proxies representing, more than 25 percent of the voting shares of such holding company or subsidiary, may hold, solicit, or exercise any proxies in respect of any voting rights in a mutual savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.14   Procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing application.</I> An application for the Board's prior approval under § 238.11 shall be governed by the provisions of this section and shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank on the designated form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for confidential treatment.</I> An applicant may request confidential treatment for portions of its application pursuant to 12 CFR 261.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public notice</I>—(1) <I>Newspaper publication</I>—(i) <I>Location of publication.</I> In the case of each application, the applicant shall publish a notice in a newspaper of general circulation, in the form and at the locations specified in § 262.3 of the Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3) in this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A newspaper notice under this paragraph shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the proposal for a period of at least 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing of publication.</I> Each newspaper notice published in connection with a proposal under this paragraph shall be published no more than 15 calendar days before and no later than 7 calendar days following the date that an application is filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> <I>Notice</I>—(i) <I>Publication by Board.</I> Upon receipt of an application, the Board shall promptly publish notice of the proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall provide an opportunity for interested persons to comment on the proposal for a period of no more than 30 days;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for advance publication.</I> An applicant may request that, during the 15-day period prior to filing an application, the Board publish notice of a proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A request for advance <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice publication shall be made in writing to the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain the identifying information prescribed by the Board for <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice publication.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver or shortening of notice.</I> The Board may waive or shorten the required notice periods under this section if the Board determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action on the proposal, or if the Board finds that immediate action is necessary to prevent the probable failure of an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comment</I>—(1) <I>Timely comments.</I> Interested persons may submit information and comments regarding a proposal filed under this subpart. A comment shall be considered timely for purposes of this subpart if the comment, together with all supplemental information, is submitted in writing in accordance with the Board's Rules of Procedure and received by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank prior to the expiration of the latest public comment period provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of comment period</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Board may, in its discretion, extend the public comment period regarding any proposal submitted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requests in connection with obtaining application or notice.</I> In the event that an interested person has requested a copy of a notice or application submitted under this subpart, the Board may, in its discretion and based on the facts and circumstances, grant such person an extension of the comment period for up to 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Joint requests by interested person and applicant.</I> The Board will grant a joint request by an interested person and the applicant for an extension of the comment period for a reasonable period for a purpose related to the statutory factors the Board must consider under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substantive comment.</I> A comment will be considered substantive for purposes of this subpart unless it involves individual complaints, or raises frivolous, previously-considered or wholly unsubstantiated claims or irrelevant issues.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Hearings.</I> The Board may order a formal or informal hearing or other proceeding on the application, as provided in § 262.3(i)(2) of this chapter. Any request for a hearing (other than from the primary supervisor) shall comply with § 262.3(e) in this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accepting application for processing.</I> Within 7 calendar days after the Reserve Bank receives an application under this section, the Reserve Bank shall accept it for processing as of the date the application was filed or return the application if it is substantially incomplete. Upon accepting an application, the Reserve Bank shall immediately send copies to the Board and to the primary banking supervisor of the savings association to be acquired and to the Attorney General, and shall request from the Attorney General a report on the competitive factors involved. The Reserve Bank or the Board may request additional information necessary to complete the record of an application at any time after accepting the application for processing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Action on applications</I>—(1) <I>Action under delegated authority.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, unless the Reserve Bank, upon notice to the applicant, refers the application to the Board for decision because action under delegated authority is not appropriate, the Reserve Bank shall approve an application under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Not earlier than the third business day following the close of the public comment period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not later than the later of the fifth business day following the close of the public comment period or the 30th calendar day after the acceptance date for the application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board action.</I> The Board shall act on an application under this section that is referred to it for decision within 60 calendar days after the acceptance date for the application, unless the Board notifies the applicant that the 60-day period is being extended for a specified period and states the reasons for the extension. The Board may, at any time, request additional information that it believes is necessary for its decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval through failure to act</I>—(i) <I>Ninety-one day rule.</I> An application shall be deemed approved if the Board fails to act on the application within 91 calendar days after the date of submission to the Board of the complete record on the application. For this purpose, the Board acts when it issues an order stating that the Board has approved or denied the application or notice, reflecting the votes of the members of the Board, and indicating that a statement of the reasons for the decision will follow promptly.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Complete record.</I> For the purpose of computing the commencement of the 91-day period, the record is complete on the latest of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of receipt by the Board of an application that has been accepted by the Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(B) The last day provided in any notice for receipt of comments and hearing requests on the application or notice;
</P>
<P>(C) The date of receipt by the Board of the last relevant material regarding the application that is needed for the Board's decision, if the material is received from a source outside of the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(D) The date of completion of any hearing or other proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expedited reorganization</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall act on an application of a reorganization that meets the requirements of § 238.15(f):
</P>
<P>(A) Not earlier than the third business day following the close of the public comment period; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not later than the fifth business day following the close of the public comment period, except that the Board may extend the period for action under this paragraph (g)(4) for up to 5 business days.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Acceptance of notice in event expedited procedure not available.</I> In the event that the Board or the Reserve Bank determines that an application filed pursuant to § 238.15(f) does not meet one or more of the requirements of § 238.15(f), paragraph (g)(4) of this section shall not apply and the Board or Reserve Bank will act on the application according to the other provisions of paragraph (g) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.15   Factors considered in acting on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The Board may not approve any application under this subpart if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction would result in a monopoly or would further any combination or conspiracy to monopolize, or to attempt to monopolize, the savings and loan business in any part of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) The effect of the transaction may be substantially to lessen competition in any section of the country, tend to create a monopoly, or in any other manner be in restraint of trade, unless the Board finds that the transaction's anti-competitive effects are clearly outweighed by its probable effect in meeting the convenience and needs of the community;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant has failed to provide the Board with adequate assurances that it will make available such information on its operations or activities, and the operations or activities of any affiliate of the applicant, that the Board deems appropriate to determine and enforce compliance with HOLA and other applicable federal banking statutes, and any regulations thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an application involving a foreign banking organization, the foreign banking organization is not subject to comprehensive supervision or regulation on a consolidated basis by the appropriate authorities in its home country, as provided in § 211.24(c)(1)(ii) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(c)(1)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of an application by a savings and loan holding company to acquire an insured depository institution, section 10(e)(2)(E) of HOLA prohibits the Board from approving the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other factors.</I> In deciding applications under this subpart, the Board also considers the following factors with respect to the acquiror, its subsidiaries, any savings associations or banks related to the acquiror through common ownership or management, and the savings association or associations to be acquired:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial condition.</I> Their financial condition and future prospects, including whether current and projected capital positions and levels of indebtedness conform to standards and policies established by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Managerial resources.</I> The competence, experience, and integrity of the officers, directors, and principal shareholders of the acquiror, its subsidiaries, and the savings association and savings and loan holding companies concerned; their record of compliance with laws and regulations; and the record of the applicant and its affiliates of fulfilling any commitments to, and any conditions imposed by, the Board in connection with prior applications.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convenience and needs of community.</I> In the case of an application required under § 238.11(c), (d), or (e), (or an application by a savings and loan holding company under § 238.11(b)), the convenience and needs of the communities to be served, including the record of performance under the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) and regulations issued thereunder, including the Board's Regulation BB (12 CFR part 228).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presumptive disqualifiers</I>—(1) <I>Integrity factors.</I> The following factors shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that an acquiror may fail to satisfy the managerial resources and future prospects tests of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) During the 10-year period immediately preceding filing of the application or notice, criminal, civil or administrative judgments, consents or orders, and any indictments, formal investigations, examinations, or civil or administrative proceedings (excluding routine or customary audits, inspections and investigations) that terminated in any agreements, undertakings, consents or orders, issued against, entered into by, or involving the acquiror or affiliates of the acquiror by any federal or state court, any department, agency, or commission of the U.S. Government, any state or municipality, any Federal Home Loan Bank, any self-regulatory trade or professional organization, or any foreign government or governmental entity, which involve:
</P>
<P>(A) Fraud, moral turpitude, dishonesty, breach of trust or fiduciary duties, organized crime or racketeering;
</P>
<P>(B) Violation of securities or commodities laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(C) Violation of depository institution laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(D) Violation of housing authority laws or regulations; or
</P>
<P>(E) Violation of the rules, regulations, codes of conduct or ethics of a self-regulatory trade or professional organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Denial, or withdrawal after receipt of formal or informal notice of an intent to deny, by the acquiror or affiliates of the acquiror, of
</P>
<P>(A) Any application relating to the organization of a financial institution,
</P>
<P>(B) An application to acquire any financial institution or holding company thereof under HOLA or the Bank Holding Company Act or otherwise,
</P>
<P>(C) A notice relating to a change in control of any of the foregoing under the CIC Act; or
</P>
<P>(D) An application or notice under a state holding company or change in control statute;
</P>
<P>(iii) The acquiror or affiliates of the acquiror were placed in receivership or conservatorship during the preceding 10 years, or any management official of the acquiror was a management official or director (other than an official or director serving at the request of the Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Resolution Trust Corporation, the former Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation, or their predecessors) or principal shareholder of a company or savings association that was placed into receivership, conservatorship, or a management consignment program, or was liquidated during his or her tenure or control or within two years thereafter;
</P>
<P>(iv) Felony conviction of the acquiror, an affiliate of the acquiror or a management official of the acquiror or an affiliate of the acquiror;
</P>
<P>(v) Knowingly making any written or oral statement to the Board or any predecessor agency (or its delegate) in connection with an application, notice or other filing under this part that is false or misleading with respect to a material fact or omits to state a material fact with respect to information furnished or requested in connection with such an application, notice or other filing;
</P>
<P>(vi) Acquisition and retention at the time of submission of an application or notice, of stock in the savings association by the acquiror in violation of this part or its predecessor regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial factors.</I> The following shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that an acquiror may fail to satisfy the financial-resources and future-prospects tests of paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Liability for amounts of debt which, in the opinion of the Board, create excessive risks of default and pressure on the savings association to be acquired; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Failure to furnish a business plan or furnishing a business plan projecting activities which are inconsistent with economical home financing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Competitive factor.</I> Before approving any such acquisition, except a transaction under section 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the Board shall consider any report rendered by the Attorney General within 30 days of such request under § 238.14(f) on the competitive factors involved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited reorganizations.</I> An application by a savings association solely for the purpose of obtaining approval for the creation of a savings and loan holding company by such savings association shall be eligible for expedited processing under § 238.14(g)(4) if it satisfies the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The holding company shall not be capitalized initially in an amount exceeding the amount the savings association is permitted to pay in dividends to its holding company as of the date of the reorganization pursuant to applicable regulations or, in the absence thereof, pursuant to the then current policy guidelines;
</P>
<P>(2) The creation of the savings and loan holding company by the association is the sole transaction contained in the application, and there are no other transactions requiring approval incident to the creation of the holding company (other than the creation of an interim association that will disappear upon consummation of the reorganization and the merger of the savings association with such interim association to effect the reorganization), and the holding company is not also seeking any regulatory waivers, regulatory forbearances, or resolution of legal or supervisory issues;
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors and executive officers of the holding company are composed of persons who, at the time of acquisition, are executive officers and directors of the association;
</P>
<P>(4) The acquisition raises no significant issues of law or policy;
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to consummation of the reorganization transaction, the holding company shall enter into any dividend limitation, regulatory capital maintenance, or prenuptial agreement required by Board regulations, or in the absence thereof, required pursuant to policy guidelines issued by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conditional approvals.</I> The Board may impose conditions on any approval, including conditions to address competitive, financial, managerial, safety and soundness, convenience and needs, compliance or other concerns, to ensure that approval is consistent with the relevant statutory factors and other provisions of HOLA.
</P>
<P>(g) No acquisition shall be approved by the Board pursuant to § 238.11 which would result in the formation by any company, through one or more subsidiaries or through one or more transactions, of a multiple savings and loan holding company controlling savings associations in more than one state where the acquisition causes a savings association to become an affiliate of another savings association with which it was not previously affiliated unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Such company, or a savings association subsidiary of such company, is authorized to acquire control of a savings association subsidiary, or to operate a home or branch office, in the additional state or states pursuant to section 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1823(k) (or section 408(m) of the National Housing Act as in effect immediately prior to enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989);
</P>
<P>(2) Such company controls a savings association subsidiary which operated a home or branch office in the additional state or states as of March 5, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(3) The statute laws of the state in which the savings association, control of which is to be acquired, is located are such that a savings association chartered by such state could be acquired by a savings association chartered by the state where the acquiring savings association or savings and loan holding company is located (or by a holding company that controls such a state chartered savings association), and such statute laws specifically authorize such an acquisition by language to that effect and not merely by implication.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Control Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 12427, Mar. 2, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.21   Control proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary determination of control.</I> (1) The Board in its sole discretion may issue a preliminary determination of control under the procedures set forth in this section in any case in which the Board determines, based on consideration of the facts and circumstances presented, that a first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a second company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board makes a preliminary determination of control under this section, the Board shall send notice to the first company containing a statement of the facts upon which the preliminary determination is based.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to preliminary determination of control.</I> (1) Within 30 calendar days after issuance by the Board of a preliminary determination of control or such longer period permitted by the Board in its discretion, the first company against whom the preliminary determination has been made shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Consent to the preliminary determination of control and either:
</P>
<P>(A) Submit for the Board's approval a specific plan for the prompt termination of the control relationship; or
</P>
<P>(B) File an application or notice under this part, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Contest the preliminary determination by filing a response, setting forth the facts and circumstances in support of its position that no control exists, and, if desired, requesting a hearing or other proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) If the first company fails to respond to the preliminary determination of control within 30 days or such longer period permitted by the Board in its discretion, the first company will be deemed to have waived its right to present additional information to the Board or to request a hearing or other proceeding regarding the preliminary determination of control.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing and final determination.</I> (1) The Board shall order a hearing or other appropriate proceeding upon the petition of a first company that contests a preliminary determination of control if the Board finds that material facts are in dispute. The Board may, in its discretion, order a hearing or other appropriate proceeding without a petition for such a proceeding by the first company.
</P>
<P>(2) At a hearing or other proceeding, any applicable presumptions established under this subpart shall be considered in accordance with the Federal Rules of Evidence and the Board's Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings (12 CFR part 263).
</P>
<P>(3) After considering the submissions of the first company and other evidence, including the record of any hearing or other proceeding, the Board will issue a final order determining whether the first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of the second company. If a controlling influence is found, the Board may direct the first company to terminate the control relationship or to file an application or notice for the Board's approval to retain the control relationship.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of evidence.</I> (1) In connection with contesting a preliminary determination of control under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, a first company may submit to the Board evidence or any other relevant information related to its control of a second company.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence or other relevant information submitted to the Board pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be in writing and may include a description of all current and proposed relationships between the first company and the second company, including relationships of the type that are identified under any of the rebuttable presumptions in §§ 238.22 and 238.23 of this part, copies of any formal agreements related to such relationships, and a discussion regarding why the Board should not determine the first company to control the second company.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors</I> means the board of directors of a company or a set of individuals exercising similar functions at a company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Director representative</I> means any individual that represents the interests of a first company through service on the board of directors of a second company. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2), examples of persons who are directors of a second company and generally would be considered director representatives of a first company include:
</P>
<P>(i) A current officer, employee, or director of the first company;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who was an officer, employee, or director of the first company within the prior two years; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who was nominated or proposed to be a director of the second company by the first company.
</P>
<P>(iv) A director representative does not include a nonvoting observer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>First company</I> means the company whose potential control of a second company is the subject of determination by the Board under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investment adviser</I> means a company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered as an investment adviser with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is registered as a commodity trading advisor with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Is a foreign equivalent of an investment adviser or commodity trading advisor, as described in paragraph (e)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Engages in any of the activities set forth in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(6)(i) through (iv).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Limiting contractual right</I> means a contractual right of the first company that would allow the first company to restrict significantly, directly or indirectly, the discretion of the second company, including its senior management officials and directors, over operational and policy decisions of the second company.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of limiting contractual rights may include, but are not limited to, a right that allows the first company to restrict or to exert significant influence over decisions related to:
</P>
<P>(A) Activities in which the second company may engage, including a prohibition on entering into new lines of business, making substantial changes to or discontinuing existing lines of business, or entering into a contractual arrangement with a third party that imposes significant financial obligations on the second company;
</P>
<P>(B) How the second company directs the proceeds of the first company's investment;
</P>
<P>(C) Hiring, firing, or compensating one or more senior management officials of the second company, or modifying the second company's policies or budget concerning the salary, compensation, employment, or benefits plan for its employees;
</P>
<P>(D) The second company's ability to merge or consolidate, or its ability to acquire, sell, lease, transfer, spin-off, recapitalize, liquidate, dissolve, or dispose of subsidiaries or assets;
</P>
<P>(E) The second company's ability to make investments or expenditures;
</P>
<P>(F) The second company achieving or maintaining a financial target or limit, including, for example, a debt-to-equity ratio, a fixed charges ratio, a net worth requirement, a liquidity target, a working capital target, or a classified assets or nonperforming loans limit;
</P>
<P>(G) The second company's payment of dividends on any class of securities, redemption of senior instruments, or voluntary prepayment of indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(H) The second company's ability to authorize or issue additional junior equity or debt securities, or amend the terms of any equity or debt securities issued by the second company;
</P>
<P>(I) The second company's ability to engage in a public offering or to list or de-list securities on an exchange, other than a right that allows the securities of the first company to have the same status as other securities of the same class;
</P>
<P>(J) The second company's ability to amend its articles of incorporation or by-laws, other than in a way that is solely defensive for the first company;
</P>
<P>(K) The removal or selection of any independent accountant, auditor, investment adviser, or investment banker employed by the second company; or
</P>
<P>(L) The second company's ability to significantly alter accounting methods and policies, or its regulatory, tax, or liability status (<I>e.g.,</I> converting from a stock corporation to a limited liability company); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A limiting contractual right does not include a contractual right that would not allow the first company to significantly restrict, directly or indirectly, the discretion of the second company over operational and policy decisions of the second company. Examples of contractual rights that are not limiting contractual rights may include:
</P>
<P>(A) A right that allows the first company to restrict or to exert significant influence over decisions relating to the second company's ability to issue securities senior to securities owned by the first company;
</P>
<P>(B) A requirement that the first company receive financial reports or other information of the type ordinarily available to common stockholders;
</P>
<P>(C) A requirement that the second company maintain its corporate existence;
</P>
<P>(D) A requirement that the second company consult with the first company on a reasonable periodic basis;
</P>
<P>(E) A requirement that the second company provide notices of the occurrence of material events affecting the second company;
</P>
<P>(F) A requirement that the second company comply with applicable statutory and regulatory requirements;
</P>
<P>(G) A market standard requirement that the first company receive similar contractual rights as those held by other investors in the second company;
</P>
<P>(H) A requirement that the first company be able to purchase additional securities issued by the second company in order to maintain the first company's percentage ownership in the second company;
</P>
<P>(I) A requirement that the second company ensure that any security holder who intends to sell its securities of the second company provide other security holders of the second company or the second company itself the opportunity to purchase the securities before the securities can be sold to a third party; or
</P>
<P>(J) A requirement that the second company take reasonable steps to ensure the preservation of tax status or tax benefits, such as status of the second company as a Subchapter S corporation or the protection of the value of net operating loss carry-forwards.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Second company</I> means the company whose potential control by a first company is the subject of determination by the Board under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Senior management official</I> means any person who participates or has the authority to participate (other than in the capacity as a director) in major policymaking functions of a company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall limit the authority of the Board to take any supervisory or enforcement action otherwise permitted by law, including an action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.22   Rebuttable presumptions of control of a company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) In any proceeding under § 238.21(b) or (c) of this part, a first company is presumed to control a second company in the situations described in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section. The Board also may find that a first company controls a second company based on other facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the presumptions in this section, any company that is a subsidiary of the first company and also a subsidiary of the second company is considered to be a subsidiary of the first company and not a subsidiary of the second company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management contract or similar agreement.</I> The first company enters into any agreement, understanding, or management contract (other than to serve as investment adviser) with the second company, under which the first company directs or exercises significant influence or discretion over the general management, overall operations, or core business or policy decisions of the second company. Examples of such agreements include where the first company is a managing member, trustee, or general partner of the second company, or exercises similar powers and functions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ownership or control of 5 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries comprise 25 percent or more of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries are able to make or block the making of major operational or policy decisions of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Two or more employees or directors of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serve as senior management officials of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) An employee or director of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serves as the chief executive officer, or serves in a similar capacity, of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that generate in the aggregate 10 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis; or
</P>
<P>(5) The first company or any of its subsidiaries has any limiting contractual right with respect to the second company or any of its subsidiaries, unless such limiting contractual right is part of an agreement to merge with or make a controlling investment in the second company that is reasonably expected to close within one year and such limiting contractual right is designed to ensure that the second company continues to operate in the ordinary course until the merger or investment is consummated or such limiting contractual right requires the second company to take an action necessary for the merger or investment to be consummated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ownership or control of 10 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 10 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The first company or any of its subsidiaries propose a number of director representatives to the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries in opposition to nominees proposed by the management or board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries that, together with any director representatives of the first company or any of its subsidiaries on the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries, would comprise 25 percent or more of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Director representatives of the first company and its subsidiaries comprise more than 25 percent of any committee of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries that can take action that binds the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(3) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not on market terms; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Generate in the aggregate 5 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ownership or control of 15 percent or more of voting securities.</I> The first company controls 15 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, and:
</P>
<P>(1) A director representative of the first company or of any of its subsidiaries serves as the chair of the board of directors of the second company or any of its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) One or more employees or directors of the first company or any of its subsidiaries serves as a senior management official of the second company or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(3) The first company or any of its subsidiaries enters into transactions or has business relationships with the second company or any of its subsidiaries that generate in the aggregate 2 percent or more of the total annual revenues or expenses of the second company, each on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accounting consolidation.</I> The first company consolidates the second company on its financial statements prepared under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Control of an investment fund.</I> (1) The first company serves as an investment adviser to the second company, the second company is an investment fund, and the first company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons, controls 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company.
</P>
<P>(2) The presumption of control in paragraph (g)(1) of this section does not apply if the first company organized and sponsored the second company within the preceding 12 months.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Divestiture of control.</I> (1) The first company controlled the second company under § 238.2(e)(1) or (2) of this part at any time during the prior two years and the first company controls 15 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (h)(1) of this section, a first company will not be presumed to control a second company under this paragraph if 50 percent or more of the outstanding securities of each class of voting securities of the second company is controlled by a person that is not a senior management official or director of the first company, or by a company that is not an affiliate of the first company.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Securities held in a fiduciary capacity.</I> For purposes of the presumptions of control in this section, the first company does not control securities of the second company that the first company holds in a fiduciary capacity, except that if the second company is a depository institution or a depository institution holding company, this paragraph (i) only applies to securities held in a fiduciary capacity without sole discretionary authority to exercise the voting rights of the securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.23" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.23   Rebuttable presumption of noncontrol of a company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any proceeding under § 238.21(b) or (c) of this part, a first company is presumed not to control a second company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The first company controls less than 10 percent of the outstanding securities of each class of voting securities of the second company; and
</P>
<P>(2) The first company is not presumed to control the second company under § 238.22 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) In any proceeding under this subpart, or judicial proceeding under the Home Owners' Loan Act, other than a proceeding in which the Board has made a preliminary determination that a first company has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of a second company, a first company may not be held to have had control over a second company at any given time, unless the first company, at the time in question, controlled 5 percent or more of the outstanding securities of any class of voting securities of the second company, or had already been found to have control on the basis of the existence of a controlling influence relationship.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Change in Bank Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.31" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.31   Transactions requiring prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice requirement.</I> Any person acting directly or indirectly, or through or in concert with one or more persons, shall give the Board 60 days' written notice, as specified in § 238.33 of this subpart, before acquiring control of a savings and loan holding company, unless the acquisition is exempt under § 238.32.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Acquisition</I> includes a purchase, assignment, transfer, or pledge of voting securities, or an increase in percentage ownership of a savings and loan holding company resulting from a redemption of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acting in concert</I> includes knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control of a savings and loan holding company whether or not pursuant to an express agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Immediate family</I> includes a person's father, mother, stepfather, stepmother, brother, sister, stepbrother, stepsister, son, daughter, stepson, stepdaughter, grandparent, grandson, granddaughter, father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law, daughter-in-law, the spouse of any of the foregoing, and the person's spouse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisitions requiring prior notice</I>—(1) <I>Acquisition of control.</I> The acquisition of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company constitutes the acquisition of control under the Bank Control Act, requiring prior notice to the Board, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person (or persons acting in concert) will own, control, or hold with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttable presumption of control.</I> The Board presumes that an acquisition of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company constitutes the acquisition of control under the Bank Control Act, requiring prior notice to the Board, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person (or persons acting in concert) will own, control, or hold with power to vote 10 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution, and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution has registered securities under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l); or
</P>
<P>(ii) No other person will own, control, or hold the power to vote a greater percentage of that class of voting securities immediately after the transaction.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If two or more persons, not acting in concert, each propose to acquire simultaneously equal percentages of 10 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the savings and loan holding company, each person must file prior notice to the Board.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Rebuttable presumption of concerted action.</I> The following persons shall be presumed to be acting in concert for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) A company and any principal shareholder, partner, trustee, or management official of the company, if both the company and the person own voting securities of the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) An individual and the individual's immediate family;
</P>
<P>(3) Companies under common control;
</P>
<P>(4) Persons that are parties to any agreement, contract, understanding, relationship, or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise, regarding the acquisition, voting, or transfer of control of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company, other than through a revocable proxy as described in § 238.32(a)(5) of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Persons that have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under sections 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n), and the rules promulgated thereunder by the Securities and Exchange Commission; and
</P>
<P>(6) A person and any trust for which the person serves as trustee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acquisitions of loans in default.</I> The Board presumes an acquisition of a loan in default that is secured by voting securities of a savings and loan holding company to be an acquisition of the underlying securities for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other transactions.</I> Transactions other than those set forth in paragraph (c) of this section resulting in a person's control of less than 25 percent of a class of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company are not deemed by the Board to constitute control for purposes of the Bank Control Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rebuttal of presumptions.</I> Prior notice to the Board is not required for any acquisition of voting securities under the presumption of control set forth in this section, if the Board finds that the acquisition will not result in control. The Board shall afford any person seeking to rebut a presumption in this section an opportunity to present views in writing or, if appropriate, orally before its designated representatives at an informal conference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.32" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.32   Transactions not requiring prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The following transactions do not require notice to the Board under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Existing control relationships.</I> The acquisition of additional voting securities of a savings and loan holding company by a person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Continuously since March 9, 1979 (or since the institution commenced business, if later), held power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is presumed, under § 238.31(c)(2), to have controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979, if the aggregate amount of voting securities held does not exceed 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution or, in other cases, where the Board determines that the person has controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Increase of previously authorized acquisitions.</I> Unless the Board or the Reserve Bank otherwise provides in writing, the acquisition of additional shares of a class of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company by any person (or persons acting in concert) who has lawfully acquired and maintained control of the institution (for purposes of § 238.31(c)), after complying with the procedures and receiving approval to acquire voting securities of the institution under this subpart, or in connection with an application approved under section 10(e) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e) and § 238.11 or section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acquisitions subject to approval under HOLA or Bank Merger Act.</I> Any acquisition of voting securities subject to approval under section 10(e) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e) and § 238.11), or section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions exempt under HOLA.</I> Any transaction described in sections 10(a)(3)(A) or 10(e)(1)(B)(ii) of HOLA by a person described in those provisions;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proxy solicitation.</I> The acquisition of the power to vote securities of a savings and loan holding company through receipt of a revocable proxy in connection with a proxy solicitation for the purposes of conducting business at a regular or special meeting of the institution, if the proxy terminates within a reasonable period after the meeting;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Stock dividends.</I> The receipt of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company through a stock dividend or stock split if the proportional interest of the recipient in the institution remains substantially the same; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Acquisition of foreign banking organization.</I> The acquisition of voting securities of a qualifying foreign banking organization. (This exemption does not extend to the reports and information required under paragraphs 9, 10, and 12 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j) (9), (10), and (12)) and § 238.34.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior notice exemption.</I> (1) The following acquisitions of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company, which would otherwise require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person notifies the appropriate Reserve Bank within 90 calendar days after the acquisition and provides any relevant information requested by the Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquisition of voting securities through inheritance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquisition of voting securities as a <I>bona fide</I> gift; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Acquisition of voting securities in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted (DPC) in good faith.
</P>
<P>(2) The following acquisitions of voting securities of a savings and loan holding company, which would otherwise require prior notice under this subpart, are not subject to the prior notice requirements if the acquiring person does not reasonably have advance knowledge of the transaction, and provides the written notice required under § 238.33 to the appropriate Reserve Bank within 90 calendar days after the transaction occurs:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquisition of voting securities resulting from a redemption of voting securities by the issuing savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquisition of voting securities as a result of actions (including the sale of securities) by any third party that is not within the control of the acquiror.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section limits the authority of the Board to disapprove a notice pursuant to § 238.33(h).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.33" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.33   Procedures for filing, processing, publishing, and acting on notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing notice.</I> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain all the information required by paragraph 6 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)), or prescribed in the designated Board form.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may waive any of the informational requirements of the notice if the Board determines that it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) A notificant shall notify the appropriate Reserve Bank or the Board immediately of any material changes in a notice submitted to the Reserve Bank, including changes in financial or other conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) When the acquiring person is an individual, or group of individuals acting in concert, the requirement to provide personal financial data may be satisfied by a current statement of assets and liabilities and an income summary, as required in the designated Board form, together with a statement of any material changes since the date of the statement or summary. The Reserve Bank or the Board, nevertheless, may request additional information, if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of notice.</I> The 60-day notice period specified in § 238.31 of this subpart begins on the date of receipt of a complete notice. The Reserve Bank shall notify the person or persons submitting a notice under this subpart in writing of the date the notice is or was complete and thereby accepted for processing. The Reserve Bank or the Board may request additional relevant information at any time after the date of acceptance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publication</I>—(1) <I>Newspaper Announcement.</I> Any person(s) filing a notice under this subpart shall publish, in a form prescribed by the Board, an announcement soliciting public comment on the proposed acquisition. The announcement shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the head office of the savings and loan holding company is located and in the community in which the head office of each of its subsidiary savings associations is located. The announcement shall be published no earlier than 15 calendar days before the filing of the notice with the appropriate Reserve Bank and no later than 10 calendar days after the filing date; and the publisher's affidavit of a publication shall be provided to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of newspaper announcement.</I> The newspaper announcement shall state:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of each person identified in the notice as a proposed acquiror of the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the savings and loan holding company to be acquired, including the name of each of the savings and loan holding company's subsidiary savings association; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that interested persons may submit comments on the notice to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank for a period of 20 days, or such shorter period as may be provided, pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <E T="04">Federal Register</E> <I>Announcement.</I> The Board shall, upon filing of a notice under this subpart, publish announcement in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of receipt of the notice. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcement shall contain the information required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section and a statement that interested persons may submit comments on the proposed acquisition for a period of 15 calendar days, or such shorter period as may be provided, pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section. The Board may waive publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if the Board determines that such action is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delay of publication.</I> The Board may permit delay in the publication required under paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(3) of this section if the Board determines, for good cause shown, that it is in the public interest to grant such delay. Requests for delay of publication may be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Shortening or waiving notice.</I> The Board may shorten or waive the public comment or newspaper publication requirements of this paragraph, or act on a notice before the expiration of a public comment period, if it determines in writing that an emergency exists, or that disclosure of the notice, solicitation of public comment, or delay until expiration of the public comment period would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of the savings and loan holding company to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Consideration of public comments.</I> In acting upon a notice filed under this subpart, the Board shall consider all public comments received in writing within the period specified in the newspaper or <E T="04">Federal Register</E> announcement, whichever is later. At the Board's option, comments received after this period may, but need not, be considered.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Standing.</I> No person (other than the acquiring person) who submits comments or information on a notice filed under this subpart shall thereby become a party to the proceeding or acquire any standing or right to participate in the Board's consideration of the notice or to appeal or otherwise contest the notice or the Board's action regarding the notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period for Board action</I>—(1) <I>Consummation of acquisition</I>—(i) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed acquisition 60 days after submission to the Reserve Bank of a complete notice under paragraph (a) of this section, unless within that period the Board disapproves the proposed acquisition or extends the 60-day period, as provided under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed transaction before the expiration of the 60-day period if the Board notifies the notificant(s) in writing of the Board's intention not to disapprove the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensions of time period.</I> (i) The Board may extend the 60-day period in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for an additional 30 days by notifying the acquiring person(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may further extend the period during which it may disapprove a notice for two additional periods of not more than 45 days each, if the Board determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) Any acquiring person has not furnished all the information required under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Any material information submitted is substantially inaccurate;
</P>
<P>(C) The Board is unable to complete the investigation of an acquiring person because of inadequate cooperation or delay by that person; or
</P>
<P>(D) Additional time is needed to investigate and determine that no acquiring person has a record of failing to comply with the requirements of the Bank Secrecy Act, subchapter II of Chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board extends the time period under this paragraph, it shall notify the acquiring person(s) of the reasons therefor and shall include a statement of the information, if any, deemed incomplete or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advice to bank supervisory agencies.</I> The Reserve Bank shall send a copy of any notice to the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigation and report.</I> (1) After receiving a notice under this subpart, the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall conduct an investigation of the competence, experience, integrity, and financial ability of each person by and for whom an acquisition is to be made. The Board shall also make an independent determination of the accuracy and completeness of any information required to be contained in a notice under paragraph (a) of this section. In investigating any notice accepted under this subpart, the Board or Reserve Bank may solicit information or views from any person, including any savings and loan holding company involved in the notice, and any appropriate state, federal, or foreign governmental authority.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank shall prepare a written report of its investigation, which shall contain, at a minimum, a summary of the results of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Factors considered in acting on notices.</I> In reviewing a notice filed under this subpart, the Board shall consider the information in the record, the views and recommendations of the appropriate bank supervisor, and any other relevant information obtained during any investigation of the notice.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disapproval and hearing</I>—(1) <I>Disapproval of notice.</I> The Board may disapprove an acquisition if it finds adverse effects with respect to any of the factors set forth in paragraph 7 of the Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(7)) (<I>i.e.,</I> competitive, financial, managerial, banking, or incompleteness of information).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disapproval notification.</I> Within three days after its decision to issue a notice of intent to disapprove any proposed acquisition, the Board shall notify the acquiring person in writing of the reasons for the action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing.</I> Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the notice of the Board's intent to disapprove, the acquiring person may submit a written request for a hearing. Any hearing conducted under this paragraph shall be in accordance with the Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings (12 CFR part 263). At the conclusion of the hearing, the Board shall, by order, approve or disapprove the proposed acquisition on the basis of the record of the hearing. If the acquiring person does not request a hearing, the notice of intent to disapprove becomes final and unappealable.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Qualified Stock Issuances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.41" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.41   Qualified stock issuances by undercapitalized savings associations or holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acquisitions by savings and loan holding companies.</I> No savings and loan holding company shall be deemed to control a savings association solely by reason of the purchase by such savings and loan holding company of shares issued by such savings association, or issued by any savings and loan holding company (other than a bank holding company) which controls such savings association, in connection with a qualified stock issuance if prior approval of such acquisition is granted by the Board under this subpart, unless the acquiring savings and loan holding company, directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with 1 or more other persons, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 15 percent of the voting shares of such savings association or holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualification.</I> For purposes of this section, any issuance of shares of stock shall be treated as a qualified stock issuance if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The shares of stock are issued by—
</P>
<P>(i) An undercapitalized savings association, which for purposes of this paragraph (b)(1)(i) shall mean any savings association—
</P>
<P>(A) The assets of which exceed the liabilities of such association; and
</P>
<P>(B) Which does not comply with one or more of the capital standards in effect under section 5(t) of HOLA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A savings and loan holding company which is not a bank holding company but which controls an undercapitalized savings association if, at the time of issuance, the savings and loan holding company is legally obligated to contribute the net proceeds from the issuance of such stock to the capital of an undercapitalized savings association subsidiary of such holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) All shares of stock issued consist of previously unissued stock or treasury shares.
</P>
<P>(3) All shares of stock issued are purchased by a savings and loan holding company that is registered, as of the date of purchase, with the Board in accordance with the provisions of section 10(b) of the HOLA and the Board's regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the Board approves the purchase of the shares of stock by the acquiring savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(5) The entire consideration for the stock issued is paid in cash by the acquiring savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(6) At the time of the stock issuance, each savings association subsidiary of the acquiring savings and loan holding company (other than an association acquired in a transaction pursuant to section 13(c) or 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or section 408(m) of the National Housing Act, as in effect immediately prior to enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989) has capital (after deducting any subordinated debt, intangible assets, and deferred, unamortized gains or losses) of not less than 6
<FR>1/2</FR> percent of the total assets of such savings association.
</P>
<P>(7) Immediately after the stock issuance, the acquiring savings and loan holding company holds not more than 15 percent of the outstanding voting stock of the issuing undercapitalized savings association or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(8) Not more than one of the directors of the issuing association or company is an officer, director, employee, or other representative of the acquiring company or any of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(9) Transactions between the savings association or savings and loan holding company that issues the shares pursuant to this section and the acquiring company and any of its affiliates shall be subject to the provisions of section 11 of HOLA and the Board's regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval of acquisitions</I>—(1) <I>Criteria.</I> The Board, in deciding whether to approve or deny an application filed on the basis that it is a qualified stock issuance, shall apply the application criteria set forth in § 238.15(a), (b), and (c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional capital commitments not required.</I> The Board shall not disapprove any application for the purchase of stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance on the grounds that the acquiring savings and loan holding company has failed to undertake to make subsequent additional capital contributions to maintain the capital of the undercapitalized savings association at or above the minimum level required by the Board or any other Federal agency having jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other conditions.</I> The Board shall impose such conditions on any approval of an application for the purchase of stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance as the Board determines to be appropriate, including—
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement that any savings association subsidiary of the acquiring savings and loan holding company limit dividends paid to such holding company for such period of time as the Board may require; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such other conditions as the Board deems necessary or appropriate to prevent evasions of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Application deemed approved if not disapproved within 90 days.</I> (i) An application for approval of a purchase of stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance shall be deemed to have been approved by the Board if such application has not been disapproved by the Board before the end of the 90-day period beginning on the date of submission to the Board of the complete record on the application as defined in § 238.14(g)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No limitation on class of stock issued.</I> The shares of stock issued in connection with a qualified stock issuance may be shares of any class.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Application form.</I> A savings and loan holding company making application to acquire a qualified stock issuance pursuant to this subpart shall submit the appropriate form to the appropriate Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Savings and Loan Holding Company Activities and Acquisitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.51" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.51   Prohibited activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evasion of law or regulation.</I> No savings and loan holding company or subsidiary thereof which is not a savings association shall, for or on behalf of a subsidiary savings association, engage in any activity or render any services for the purpose or with the effect of evading any law or regulation applicable to such savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unrelated business activity.</I> No savings and loan holding company or subsidiary thereof that is not a savings association shall commence any business activity at any time, or continue any business activity after the end of the two-year period beginning on the date on which such company received approval to become a savings and loan holding company that is subject to the limitations of this paragraph (b), except (in either case) the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Furnishing or performing management services for a savings association subsidiary of such company;
</P>
<P>(2) Conducting an insurance agency or an escrow business;
</P>
<P>(3) Holding, managing, or liquidating assets owned by or acquired from a subsidiary savings association of such company;
</P>
<P>(4) Holding or managing properties used or occupied by a subsidiary savings association of such company;
</P>
<P>(5) Acting as trustee under deed of trust;
</P>
<P>(6) Any other activity:
</P>
<P>(i) That the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has permitted for bank holding companies pursuant to regulations promulgated under section 4(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is set forth in § 238.53, subject to the limitations therein; or
</P>
<P>(7) (i) In the case of a savings and loan holding company, purchasing, holding, or disposing of stock acquired in connection with a qualified stock issuance if prior approval for the acquisition of such stock by such savings and loan holding company is granted by the Board pursuant to § 238.41.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (b), any savings and loan holding company that, between March 5, 1987 and August 10, 1987, received approval pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1730a(e), as then in effect, to acquire control of a savings association shall not continue any business activity other than those activities set forth in this paragraph (b) after August 10, 1987.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of certain holding companies.</I> If a director or officer of a savings and loan holding company, or an individual who owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote (or proxies representing) more than 25 percent of the voting shares of a savings and loan holding company, directly or indirectly controls more than one savings association, any savings and loan holding company controlled by such individual shall be subject to the activities limitations contained in paragraph (b) of this section, to the same extent such limitations apply to multiple savings and loan holding companies pursuant to §§ 238.51, 238.52, 238.53, and 238.54.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.52" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.52   Exempt savings and loan holding companies and grandfathered activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt savings and loan holding companies.</I> (1) The following savings and loan holding companies are exempt from the limitations of § 238.51(b):
</P>
<P>(i) Any savings and loan holding company (or subsidiary of such company) that controls only one savings association, if the savings association subsidiary of such company is a qualified thrift lender as defined in § 238.2(k).
</P>
<P>(ii) Any savings and loan holding company (or subsidiary thereof) that controls more than one savings association if all, or all but one of the savings association subsidiaries of such company were acquired pursuant to an acquisition under section 13(c) or 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or section 408(m) of the National Housing Act, as in effect immediately prior to the date of enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, and all of the savings association subsidiaries of such company are qualified thrift lenders as defined in § 238.2(k).
</P>
<P>(2) Any savings and loan holding company whose subsidiary savings association(s) fails to qualify as a qualified thrift lender pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(m) may not commence, or continue, any service or activity other than those permitted under § 238.51(b) of this part, except that, the Board may allow, for good cause shown, such company (or subsidiary of such company which is not a savings association) up to 3 years to comply with the limitations set forth in § 238.51(b) of this part: <I>Provided,</I> That effective August 9, 1990, any company that controls a savings association that should have become or ceases to be a qualified thrift lender, except a savings association that requalified as a qualified thrift lender pursuant to section 10(m)(3)(D) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, shall within one year after the date on which the savings association fails to qualify as a qualified thrift lender, register as and be deemed to be a bank holding company, subject to all of the provisions of the Bank Holding Company Act, section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and other statutes applicable to bank holding companies in the same manner and to the same extent as if the company were a bank holding company and the savings association were a bank, as those terms are defined in the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grandfathered activities for certain savings and loan holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding § 238.51(b) and subject to paragraph (c) of this section, any savings and loan holding company that received approval prior to March 5, 1987 to acquire control of a savings association may engage, directly or indirectly or through any subsidiary (other than a subsidiary savings association of such company) in any activity in which it was lawfully engaged on March 5, 1987, <I>provided,</I> that:
</P>
<P>(1) The holding company does not, after August 10, 1987, acquire control of a bank or an additional savings association, other than a savings association acquired pursuant to section 13(c) or 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or section 406(f) or 408(m) of the National Housing Act, as in effect immediately prior to the date of enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989;
</P>
<P>(2) Any savings association subsidiary of the holding company continues to qualify as a domestic building and loan association under section 7701(a)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 after August 10, 1987;
</P>
<P>(3) The holding company does not engage in any business activity other than those permitted under § 238.51(b) or in which it was engaged on March 5, 1987;
</P>
<P>(4) Any savings association subsidiary of the holding company does not increase the number of locations from which such savings association conducts business after March 5, 1987, other than an increase due to a transaction under section 13(c) or 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or under section 408(m) of the National Housing Act, as in effect immediately prior to the date of enactment of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any savings association subsidiary of the holding company does not permit any overdraft (including an intra-day overdraft) or incur any such overdraft in its account at a Federal Reserve bank, on behalf of an affiliate, unless such overdraft results from an inadvertent computer or accounting error that is beyond the control of both the savings association subsidiary and the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination by the Board of grandfathered activities.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Board may, after opportunity for hearing, terminate any activity engaged in under paragraph (b) of this section upon determination that such action is necessary:
</P>
<P>(1) To prevent conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(2) To prevent unsafe or unsound practices; or
</P>
<P>(3) To protect the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign holding company.</I> Any savings and loan holding company organized under the laws of a foreign country as of June 1, 1984 (including any subsidiary thereof that is not a savings association) that controlled a single savings association on August 10, 1987, shall not be subject to the restrictions set forth in § 238.51(b) with respect to any activities of such holding company that are conducted exclusively in a foreign country.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.53" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.53   Prescribed services and activities of savings and loan holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For the purpose of § 238.51(b)(6)(ii), the activities set forth in paragraph (b) of this section are, and were as of March 5, 1987, permissible services and activities for savings and loan holding companies or subsidiaries thereof that are neither savings associations nor service corporation subsidiaries of subsidiary savings associations. Services and activities of service corporation subsidiaries of savings and loan holding company subsidiary savings associations are prescribed by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prescribed services and activities.</I> Subject to the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section, a savings and loan holding company subject to restrictions on its activities pursuant to § 238.51(b), or a subsidiary thereof which is neither a savings association nor a service corporation of a subsidiary savings association, may furnish or perform the following services and engage in the following activities to the extent that it has legal power to do so:
</P>
<P>(1) Originating, purchasing, selling and servicing any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Loans, and participation interests in loans, on a prudent basis and secured by real estate, including brokerage and warehousing of such real estate loans, except that such a company or subsidiary shall not invest in a loan secured by real estate as to which a subsidiary savings association of such company has a security interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) Manufactured home chattel paper (written evidence of both a monetary obligation and a security interest of first priority in one or more manufactured homes, and any equipment installed or to be installed therein), including brokerage and warehousing of such chattel paper;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loans, with or without security, for the altering, repairing, improving, equipping or furnishing of any residential real estate;
</P>
<P>(iv) Educational loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) Consumer loans, as defined in § 160.3 of this title, <I>Provided,</I> That, no subsidiary savings association of such holding company or service corporation of such savings association shall engage directly or indirectly, in any transaction with any affiliate involving the purchase or sale, in whole or in part, of any consumer loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1468, furnishing or performing clerical accounting and internal audit services primarily for its affiliates;
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1468, furnishing or performing the following services primarily for its affiliates, and for any savings association and service corporation subsidiary thereof, and for other multiple holding companies and affiliates thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) Data processing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit information, appraisals, construction loan inspections, and abstracting;
</P>
<P>(iii) Development and administration of personnel benefit programs, including life insurance, health insurance, and pension or retirement plans;
</P>
<P>(iv) Research, studies, and surveys;
</P>
<P>(v) Purchase of office supplies, furniture and equipment;
</P>
<P>(vi) Development and operation of storage facilities for microfilm or other duplicate records; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Advertising and other services to procure and retain both savings accounts and loans;
</P>
<P>(4) Acquisition of unimproved real estate lots, and acquisition of other unimproved real estate for the purpose of prompt development and subdivision, for:
</P>
<P>(i) Construction of improvements,
</P>
<P>(ii) Resale to others for such construction, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Use as mobile home sites;
</P>
<P>(5) Development, subdivision and construction of improvements on real estate acquired pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, for sale or rental;
</P>
<P>(6) Acquisition of improved real estate and mobile homes to be held for rental;
</P>
<P>(7) Acquisition of improved real estate for remodeling, rehabilitation, modernization, renovation, or demolition and rebuilding for sale or for rental;
</P>
<P>(8) Maintenance and management of improved real estate;
</P>
<P>(9) Underwriting or reinsuring contract of credit life or credit health and accident insurance in connection with extensions of credit by the savings and loan holding company or any of its subsidiaries, or extensions of credit by any savings association or service corporation subsidiary thereof, or any other savings and loan holding company or subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(10) Preparation of State and Federal tax returns for accountholders of or borrowers from (including immediate family members of such accountholders or borrowers but not including an accountholder or borrower which is a corporation operated for profit) an affiliated savings association;
</P>
<P>(11) Purchase and sale of gold coins minted and issued by the United States Treasury pursuant to Public Law 99-185, 99 Stat. 1177 (1985), and activities reasonably incident thereto; and
</P>
<P>(12) Any services or activities approved by order of the former Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation prior to March 5, 1987, pursuant to its authority under section 408(c)(2)(F) of the National Housing Act, as in effect at the time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for commencing services or activities.</I> A notice to engage in or acquire a company engaged in a service or activity prescribed by paragraph (b) of this section (other than purchase or sale of a government debt security) shall be filed by a savings and loan holding company (including a company seeking to become a savings and loan holding company) with the appropriate Reserve Bank in accordance with this paragraph and the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Engaging de novo in services or activities.</I> A savings and loan holding company seeking to commence or to engage de novo in a service or activity pursuant to this section, either directly or through a subsidiary, shall file a notice containing a description of the activities to be conducted and the identity of the company that will conduct the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquiring company engaged in services or activities.</I> A savings and loan holding company seeking to acquire or control voting securities or assets of a company engaged in a service or activity pursuant to this section, shall file a notice containing the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the proposal, including a description of each proposed service or activity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of any entity involved in the proposal, and, if the notificant proposes to conduct the service or activity through an existing subsidiary, a description of the existing activities of the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the savings and loan holding company has consolidated assets of $150 million or more:
</P>
<P>(A) Parent company and consolidated pro forma balance sheets for the acquiring savings and loan holding company as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Consolidated pro forma risk-based capital and leverage ratio calculations for the acquiring savings and loan holding company as of the most recent quarter (or, in the case of a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), consolidated pro forma leverage ratio calculations for the acquiring savings and loan holding company as of the most recent quarter); and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the savings and loan holding company has consolidated assets of less than $150 million:
</P>
<P>(A) A pro forma parent-only balance sheet as of the most recent quarter showing credit and debit adjustments that reflect the proposed transaction; and
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the purchase price and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction and, if the transaction is debt funded, one-year income statement and cash flow projections for the parent company, and the sources and schedule for retiring any debt incurred in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(v)(A) For each insured depository institution (that is not a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)) whose Tier 1 capital, total capital, total assets or risk-weighted assets change as a result of the transaction, the total risk-weighted assets, total assets, Tier 1 capital, and total capital of the institution on a pro forma basis; and
</P>
<P>(B) For each insured depository institution that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), whose Tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter) or total assets change as a result of the transaction, the total assets and Tier 1 capital of the institution on a pro forma basis;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the management expertise, internal controls and risk management systems that will be utilized in the conduct of the proposed service or activity; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A copy of the purchase agreements, and balance sheet and income statements for the most recent quarter and year-end for any company to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, from December 2, 2020, until December 31, 2021, the determination of whether a savings and loan holding company must comply with the filing requirements in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) or (iv) of this section shall be made based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The consolidated assets of the savings and loan holding company as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consolidated assets of the savings and loan holding company as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) The relief provided under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to a savings and loan holding company if the Board determines that permitting the savings and loan holding company to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the savings and loan holding company. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the savings and loan holding company since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the savings and loan holding company has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the savings and loan holding company. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (c)(3)(ii), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice provided to Board.</I> The Reserve Bank shall immediately send to the Board a copy of any notice received under paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to public</I>. (1) The Reserve Bank shall notify the Board for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> immediately upon receipt by the Reserve Bank of:
</P>
<P>(i) A notice under paragraph (c) of this section or
</P>
<P>(ii) A written request that notice of a proposal under paragraph (c) of this section be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Such a request may request that <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication occur up to 15 calendar days prior to submission of a notice under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice published under this paragraph (e) shall invite public comment on the proposal, generally for a period of 15 days.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action on notices</I>—(1) <I>Reserve Bank action</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receipt by the Reserve Bank of a notice filed pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section, the Reserve Banks shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Approve the notice; or
</P>
<P>(B) Refer the notice to the Board for decision because action under delegated authority is not appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Return of incomplete notice.</I> Within 7 calendar days of receipt, the Reserve Bank may return any notice as informationally incomplete that does not contain all of the information required by this section. The return of such a notice shall be deemed action on the notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice of action.</I> The Reserve Bank shall promptly notify the savings and loan holding company of any action or referral under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Close of public comment period.</I> The Reserve Bank shall not approve any notice under this paragraph (e)(1) of this section prior to the third business day after the close of the public comment period, unless an emergency exists that requires expedited or immediate action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board action; internal schedule.</I> The Board seeks to act on every notice referred to it for decision within 60 days of the date that the notice is filed with the Reserve Bank. If the Board is unable to act within this period, the Board shall notify the notificant and explain the reasons and the date by which the Board expects to act.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Required time limit for System action.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank shall act on any notice under this section within 60 days after the submission of a complete notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) Extension of required period for action. The Board may extend the 60-day period required for Board action under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section for an additional 30 days upon notice to the notificant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Requests for additional information.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank may modify the information requirements under this section or at any time request any additional information that either believes is needed for a decision on any notice under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tolling of period.</I> The Board or the Reserve Bank may at any time extend or toll the time period for action on a notice for any period with the consent of the notificant.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Modification or termination of service or activity.</I> The Board may require a savings and loan holding company or subsidiary thereof which has commenced a service or activity pursuant to this section to modify or terminate, in whole or in part, such service or activity as the Board finds necessary in order to ensure compliance with the provisions and purposes of this part and of section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, as amended, or to prevent evasions thereof.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Alterations.</I> Except as may be otherwise provided in a resolution by or on behalf of the Board in a particular case, a service or activity commenced pursuant to this section shall not be altered in any material respect from that described in the notice filed under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, unless before making such alteration notice of intent to do so is filed in compliance with the appropriate procedures of said paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Service corporation subsidiaries of savings associations.</I> The Board hereby approves without application the furnishing or performing of such services or engaging in such activities as permitted by the OTS pursuant to § 545.74 of this title, as in effect on March 5, 1987, if such service or activity is conducted by a service corporation subsidiary of a subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company and if such service corporation has legal power to do so.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 61801, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 77363, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.54" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.54   Permissible bank holding company activities of savings and loan holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For purposes of § 238.51(b)(6)(i), the services and activities permissible for bank holding companies pursuant to regulations that the Board has promulgated pursuant to section 4(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act are permissible for savings and loan holding companies, or subsidiaries thereof that are neither savings associations nor service corporation subsidiaries of subsidiary savings associations: <I>Provided,</I> That no savings and loan holding company shall commence any activity described in this paragraph (a) without the prior approval of this Board pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, unless—
</P>
<P>(1) The holding company received a rating of satisfactory or above prior to January 1, 2008, or thereafter, either received a composite rating of “1” or “2” or be considered satisfactory under the applicable rating system in its most recent examination, and is not in a troubled condition as defined in § 238.72, and the holding company does not propose to commence the activity by an acquisition (in whole or in part) of a going concern; or
</P>
<P>(2) The activity is permissible under authority other than section 10(c)(2)(F)(i) of the HOLA without prior notice or approval. Where an activity is within the scope of both § 238.53 and this section, the procedures of § 238.53 shall govern.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for applications.</I> Applications to commence any activity prescribed under paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank on the designated form. The Board must act upon such application according to the procedures of § 238.53(d), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors considered in acting on applications.</I> In evaluating an application filed under paragraph (b) of this section, the Board shall consider whether the performance by the applicant of the activity can reasonably be expected to produce benefits to the public (such as greater convenience, increased competition, or gains in efficiency) that outweigh possible adverse effects (such as undue concentration of resources, decreased or unfair competition, conflicts of interest, or unsound financial practices). This consideration includes an evaluation of the financial and managerial resources of the applicant, including its subsidiaries, and of any company to be acquired, and the effect of the proposed transaction on those resources.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 58734, Nov. 21, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Financial Holding Company Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.61" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.61   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Section 10(c)(2)(H) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(H)) permits a savings and loan holding company to engage in activities that are permissible for a financial holding company if the savings and holding company meets the criteria to qualify as a financial holding company and complies with all of the requirements applicable to a financial holding company under sections 4(l) and 4(m) of the BHC Act as if the savings and loan holding company was a bank holding company. This subpart provides the requirements and restrictions for a savings and holding company to be treated as a financial holding company for the purpose of engaging in financial holding company activities. This subpart does not apply to savings and loan holding companies described in section 10(c)(9)(C) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(9)(C)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.62" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.62   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Financial holding company activities</I> refers to activities permissible under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) and § 225.86 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.63" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.63   Requirements to engage in financial holding company activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In order for a savings and loan holding company to engage in financial holding company activities:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings and loan holding company and all depository institutions controlled by the savings and loan holding company must be and remain well capitalized;
</P>
<P>(2) The savings and loan holding company and all depository institutions controlled by the savings and loan company must be and remain well managed; and
</P>
<P>(3) The savings and loan holding company must have made an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.64" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.64   Election required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided below, a savings and loan holding company that wishes to engage in financial holding company activities must have an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activities performed under separate HOLA authority.</I> A savings and loan holding company that conducts only the following activities is not required to elect to be treated as a financial holding company:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>BHC Act section 4(c)(8) activities.</I> Activities permissible under section 10(c)(2)(F)(i) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(F)(i)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insurance agency or escrow business activities.</I> Activities permissible under section 10(c)(2)(B) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(B)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>“1987 List” activities.</I> Activities permissible under section 10(c)(2)(F)(ii) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2)(F)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Existing requirements apply.</I> A savings and loan holding company that has not made an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company and that conducts the activities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section remains subject to any rules and requirements applicable to the conduct of such activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.65" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.65   Election procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirement.</I> A savings and loan holding company may elect to be treated as a financial holding company by filing a written declaration with the appropriate Reserve Bank. A declaration by a savings and loan holding company is considered to be filed on the date that all information required by paragraph (b) of this section is received by the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of declaration.</I> To be deemed complete, a declaration must:
</P>
<P>(1) State that the savings and loan holding company elects to be treated as a financial holding company in order to engage in financial holding company activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the name and head office address of the savings and loan holding company and of each depository institution controlled by the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) Certify that the savings and loan holding company and each depository institution controlled by the savings and loan holding company is well capitalized as of the date the savings and loan holding company submits its declaration;
</P>
<P>(4) Certify that the savings and loan holding company and each savings association controlled by the savings and loan holding company is well managed as of the date the savings and loan holding company submits its declaration;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effectiveness of election.</I> An election by a savings and loan holding company to be treated as a financial holding company shall not be effective if, during the period provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Board finds that, as of the date the declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Any insured depository institution controlled by the savings and loan holding company (except an institution excluded under paragraph (d) of this section) has not achieved at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the savings association's most recent examination; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any depository institution controlled by the bank holding company is not both well capitalized and well managed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consideration of the CRA performance of a recently acquired savings association.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, a savings association will be excluded for purposes of the review of the Community Reinvestment Act rating provisions of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The savings and loan holding company acquired the savings association during the 12-month period preceding the filing of an election under paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The savings and loan holding company has submitted an affirmative plan to the appropriate Federal banking agency for the savings association to take actions necessary for the institution to achieve at least a rating of “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” under the Community Reinvestment Act at the next examination of the savings association; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agency for the savings association has accepted the plan described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date of election</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An election filed by a savings and loan holding company under paragraph (a) of this section is effective on the 31st calendar day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board notifies the savings and loan holding company prior to that time that the election is ineffective.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Earlier notification that an election is effective.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank may notify a savings and loan holding company that its election to be treated as a financial holding company is effective prior to the 31st day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank. Such a notification must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special effective date rules for the OTS transfer date</I>—(i) <I>Deadline for filing declaration.</I> For savings and loan holding companies that meet the requirements of § 238.63 and that are engaged in financial holding company activities pursuant to existing authority as of July 21, 2011, an election under paragraph (a) must be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank by December 31, 2011. The election must be accompanied by a description of the financial holding company activities conducted by the savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective date of election.</I> An election filed under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section is effective on the 61st calendar day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank, unless the Board notifies the savings and loan holding company prior to that time that the election is ineffective.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Earlier notification that an election is effective.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank may notify a savings and loan holding company that its election under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section to be treated as a financial holding company is effective prior to the 61st day after the date that a complete declaration was filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank. Such notification must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Filings by savings and loan holding companies that do not meet requirements.</I> (A) For savings and loan holding companies that are engaged in financial holding company activities as of July 21, 2011 but do not meet the requirements of § 238.63, a declaration must be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank by December 31, 2011, specifying:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name and head office address of the savings and loan holding company and of each despoitory institution controlled by the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The financial holding company activities that the savings and loan holding company is engaged in;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The requirements of § 238.63 that the savings and loan holding company does not meet; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A description of how the savings and loan holding company will achieve compliance with § 238.63 prior to June 30, 2012.
</P>
<P>(B) A savings and loan holding company covered by this subparagraph will be subject to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The notice, remediation agreement, divestiture, and any other requirements described in § 225.83 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The activities limitations and any other requirements described in § 225.84 of this chapter, depending on which requirements of § 238.63 the savings and loan holding company does not meet.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests to be treated as a financial holding company submitted as part of an application to become a savings and loan holding company.</I> A company that is not a savings and loan holding company and has applied for the Board's approval to become a savings and loan holding company under section 10(e) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)) may as part of that application submit a request to be treated as a financial holding company. Such requests shall be made and reviewed by the Board as described in § 225.82(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Board's authority to exercise supervisory authority over a savings and loan holding company treated as a financial holding company.</I> An effective election to be treated as a financial holding company does not in any way limit the Board's statutory authority under the HOLA, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or any other relevant Federal statute to take appropriate action, including imposing supervisory limitations, restrictions, or prohibitions on the activities and acquisitions of a savings and loan holding company that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, or enforcing compliance with applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.66" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.66   Ongoing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A savings and loan holding company with an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company is subject to the same requirements applicable to a financial holding company, under sections 4(l) and 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act and section 804(c) of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2903(c)) as if the savings and loan holding company was a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consequences of failing to continue to meet applicable capital and management requirements.</I> A savings and loan holding company with an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company that fails to meet applicable capital and management requirements at § 238.63 is subject to the notice, remediation agreement, divestiture, and any other requirements described in § 225.83 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consequences of failing to continue to maintain a satisfactory or better rating under the Community Reinvestment Act at all insured depository institution subsidiaries.</I> A savings and loan holding company with an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company that fails to maintain a satisfactory or better rating under the Community Reinvestment Act at all insured deposit institution subsidiaries is subject to the activities limitations and any other requirements described in § 225.84 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice and approval requirements for conducting financial holding company activities; permissible activities.</I> A savings and loan holding company with an effective election to be treated as a financial holding company may conduct the activities listed in § 225.86 of this chapter subject to the notice, approval, and any other requirements described in §§ 225.85 through 225.89 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Notice of Change of Director or Senior Executive Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.71" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.71   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements 12 U.S.C. 1831i, which requires certain savings and loan holding companies to notify the Board before appointing or employing directors and senior executive officers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.72" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.72   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Director</I> means an individual who serves on the board of directors of a savings and loan holding company. This term does not include an advisory director who:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not elected by the shareholders;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not authorized to vote on any matters before the board of directors or any committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides only general policy advice to the board of directors or any committee of the board of directors; and
</P>
<P>(4) Has not been identified by the Board or Reserve Bank in writing as an individual who performs the functions of a director, or who exercises significant influence over, or participates in, major policymaking decisions of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Senior executive officer</I> means an individual who holds the title or performs the function of one or more of the following positions (without regard to title, salary, or compensation): president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief lending officer, or chief investment officer. <I>Senior executive officer</I> also includes any other person identified by the Board or Reserve Bank in writing as an individual who exercises significant influence over, or participates in, major policymaking decisions, whether or not hired as an employee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Troubled condition</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A savings and loan holding company that has an unsatisfactory rating under the applicable holding company rating system, or that is informed in writing by the Board or Reserve Bank that it has an adverse effect on its subsidiary savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) A savings and loan holding company that is subject to a capital directive, a cease-and-desist order, a consent order, a formal written agreement, or a prompt corrective action directive relating to the safety and soundness or financial viability of the savings association, unless otherwise informed in writing by the Board or Reserve Bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company that is informed in writing by the Board or Reserve Bank that it is in troubled condition based on information available to the Board or Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.73" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.73   Prior notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Savings and loan holding company.</I> Except as provided under § 238.78, a savings and loan holding company must give the Board 30 days' written notice, as specified in § 238.74, before adding or replacing any member of its board of directors, employing any person as a senior executive officer, or changing the responsibilities of any senior executive officer so that the person would assume a different senior executive position if the savings and loan holding company is in troubled condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice by individual.</I> An individual seeking election to the board of directors of a savings and loan holding company described in paragraph (a) of this section that has not been nominated by management, must either provide the prior notice required under paragraph (a) of this section or follow the process under § 238.78(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.74" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.74   Filing and processing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing notice</I>—(1) <I>Content.</I> The notice required in § 238.73 shall be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(i) The information required by paragraph 6(A) of the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)(A)) as may be prescribed in the designated Board form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional information consistent with the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council's Joint Statement of Guidelines on Conducting Background Checks and Change in Control Investigations, as set forth in the designated Board form; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other information as may be required by the Board or Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification.</I> The Reserve Bank may modify or accept other information in place of the requirements of this section for a notice filed under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceptance and processing of notice.</I> The 30-day notice period specified in section 238.73 shall begin on the date all information required to be submitted by the notificant pursuant to this section is received by the appropriate Reserve Bank. The Reserve Bank shall notify the savings and loan holding company or individual submitting the notice of the date on which all required information is received and the notice is accepted for processing, and of the date on which the 30-day notice period will expire. The Board or Reserve Bank may extend the 30-day notice period for an additional period of not more than 60 days by notifying the savings and loan holding company or individual filing the notice that the period has been extended and stating the reason for not processing the notice within the 30-day notice period.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.75" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.75   Standards for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank will disapprove a notice if, pursuant to the standard set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1831i(e), the Board or Reserve Bank finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the proposed individual indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the savings and loan holding company or of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the savings and loan holding company. If the Board or Reserve Bank disapproves a notice, it will issue a written notice that explains why the Board or Reserve Bank disapproved the notice. The Board or Reserve Bank will send the notice to the savings and loan holding company and the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeal of a notice of disapproval.</I> (1) A disapproved individual or a regulated institution that has submitted a notice that is disapproved under this section may appeal the disapproval to the Board within 15 days of the effective date of the notice of disapproval. An appeal shall be in writing and explain the reasons for the appeal and include all facts, documents, and arguments that the appealing party wishes to be considered in the appeal, and state whether the appealing party is requesting an informal hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be sent to the appealing party within 60 days of the receipt of an appeal, unless the appealing party's request for an informal hearing is granted.
</P>
<P>(3) The disapproved individual may not serve as a director or senior executive officer of the state member bank or bank holding company while the appeal is pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informal hearing.</I> (1) An individual or regulated institution whose notice under this section has been disapproved may request an informal hearing on the notice. A request for an informal hearing shall be in writing and shall be submitted within 15 days of a notice of disapproval. The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that oral argument is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(2) An informal hearing shall be held within 30 days of a request, if granted, unless the requesting party agrees to a later date.
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be given to the individual and the regulated institution within 60 days of the conclusion of any informal hearing ordered by the Board, unless the requesting party agrees to a later date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.76" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.76   Waiting period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>At expiration of period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service at the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under § 238.74 unless the Board or Reserve Bank notifies you that it has disapproved the notice before the end of the period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior to expiration of period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service before the end of the 30-day period and any extension as provided under section 238.74 of this section, if the Board or the Reserve Bank notifies in writing the savings and loan holding company or individual submitting the notice of the Board's or Reserve Bank's intention not to disapprove the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.77" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.77   Waiver of prior notice requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver request.</I> An individual may serve as a director or senior executive officer before filing a notice under this subpart if the Board or Reserve Bank finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Delay would threaten the safety or soundness of the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) Delay would not be in the public interest; or
</P>
<P>(3) Other extraordinary circumstances exist that justify waiver of prior notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic waiver.</I> An individual may serve as a director upon election to the board of directors before filing a notice under this subpart, if the individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not proposed by the management of the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) Is elected as a new member of the board of directors at a meeting of the savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides to the appropriate Reserve Bank all the information required in § 238.74 within two (2) business days after the individual's election.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subsequent Board or Reserve Bank action.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank may disapprove a notice within 30 days after the Board or Reserve Bank issues a waiver under paragraph (a) of this section or within 30 days after the election of an individual who has filed a notice and is serving pursuant to an automatic waiver under paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Prohibited Service at Savings and Loan Holding Companies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.81" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.81   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 19(e)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA), which prohibits persons who have been convicted of certain criminal offenses or who have agreed to enter into a pre-trial diversion or similar program in connection with a prosecution for such criminal offenses from occupying various positions with a savings and loan holding company. This part also implements section 19(e)(2) of the FDIA, which permits the Board to provide exemptions, by regulation or order, from the application of the prohibition. This subpart provides an exemption for savings and loan holding company employees whose activities and responsibilities are limited solely to agriculture, forestry, retail merchandising, manufacturing, or public utilities operations, and a temporary exemption for certain persons who held positions with respect to a savings and loan holding company as of October 13, 2006. The subpart also describes procedures for applying to the Board for an exemption.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.82" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.82   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> is defined at 12 U.S.C. 1813(u), except that the phrase “savings and loan holding company” is substituted for “insured depository institution” each place that it appears in that definition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance to serve as counsel on behalf of the Board in the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Person</I> means an individual and does not include a corporation, firm or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> is defined at § 238.2(m), but excludes a subsidiary of a savings and loan holding company that is not itself a savings and loan holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.83" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.83   Prohibited actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Person.</I> If a person was convicted of a criminal offense described in § 238.84, or agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with a prosecution for such a criminal offense, he or she may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Become, or continue as, an institution-affiliated party with respect to any savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) Own or control, directly or indirectly, any savings and loan holding company. A person will own or control a savings and loan holding company if he or she owns or controls that company under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of the affairs of any savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Savings and loan holding company.</I> A savings and loan holding company may not permit any person described in paragraph (a) of this section to engage in any conduct or to continue any relationship prohibited under that paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.84" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.84   Covered convictions or agreements to enter into pre-trial diversions or similar programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered convictions and agreements.</I> Except as described in § 238.85, this subpart covers:
</P>
<P>(1) Any conviction of a criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering. Convictions do not cover arrests, pending cases not brought to trial, acquittals, convictions reversed on appeal, pardoned convictions, or expunged convictions.
</P>
<P>(2) Any agreement to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with a prosecution for a criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust or money laundering. A pretrial diversion or similar program is a program involving a suspension or eventual dismissal of charges or of a criminal prosecution based upon an agreement for treatment, rehabilitation, restitution, or other non-criminal or non-punitive alternative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dishonesty or breach of trust.</I> A determination whether a criminal offense involves dishonesty or breach of trust is based on the statutory elements of the crime.
</P>
<P>(1) “Dishonesty” means directly or indirectly to cheat or defraud, to cheat or defraud for monetary gain or its equivalent, or to wrongfully take property belonging to another in violation of any criminal statute. Dishonesty includes acts involving a want of integrity, lack of probity, or a disposition to distort, cheat, or act deceitfully or fraudulently, and may include crimes which federal, state or local laws define as dishonest.
</P>
<P>(2) “Breach of trust” means a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission with respect to any property or fund which has been committed to a person in a fiduciary or official capacity, or the misuse of one's official or fiduciary position to engage in a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.85" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.85   Adjudications and offenses not covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Youthful offender or juvenile delinquent.</I> This subpart does not cover any adjudication by a court against a person as:
</P>
<P>(1) A youthful offender under any youthful offender law; or
</P>
<P>(2) A juvenile delinquent by a court with jurisdiction over minors as defined by state law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>De minimis criminal offense.</I> This subpart does not cover <I>de minimis</I> criminal offenses. A criminal offense is <I>de minimis</I> if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person has only one conviction or pretrial diversion or similar program of record;
</P>
<P>(2) The offense was punishable by imprisonment for a term of less than one year, a fine of less than $1,000, or both, and the person did not serve time in jail.
</P>
<P>(3) The conviction or program was entered at least five years before the date the person first held a position described in § 238.83(a); and
</P>
<P>(4) The offense did not involve an insured depository institution, insured credit union, or other banking organization (including a savings and loan holding company, bank holding company, or financial holding company).
</P>
<P>(5) The person must disclose the conviction or pretrial diversion or similar program to all insured depository institutions and other banking organizations the affairs of which he or she participates.
</P>
<P>(6) The person must be covered by a fidelity bond to the same extent as others in similar positions with the savings and loan holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.86" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.86   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employees.</I> An employee of a savings and loan holding company is exempt from the prohibition in § 238.83, if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The employee's responsibilities and activities are limited solely to agriculture, forestry, retail merchandising, manufacturing, or public utilities operations.
</P>
<P>(2) The savings and loan holding company maintains a list of all policymaking positions and reviews this list annually.
</P>
<P>(3) The employee's position does not appear on the savings and loan holding company's list of policymaking positions, and the employee does not, in fact, exercise any policymaking function with the savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(4) The employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not an institution-affiliated party of the savings and loan holding company other than by virtue of the employment described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not own or control, directly or indirectly, the savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of the affairs of the savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Temporary exemption.</I> (1) Any prohibited person who was an institution affiliated party with respect to a savings and loan holding company, who owned or controlled, directly or indirectly a savings and loan holding company, or who otherwise participated directly or indirectly in the conduct of the affairs of a savings and loan holding company on October 13, 2006, may continue to hold the position with the savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) This exemption expires on December 31, 2012, unless the savings and loan holding company or the person files an application seeking a case-by-case exemption for the person under § 238.87 by that date. If the savings and loan holding company or the person files such an application, the temporary exemption expires on:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of issuance of a Board approval of the application under § 238.89(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the 20-day period for filing a request for hearing under § 238.90(a) provided there is no timely request for hearing following the issuance by the Board of a denial of the application under that section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date that the Board denies a timely request for hearing under § 238.90(b) following the issuance of a Board denial of the application under § 238.89(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) The date that the Board issues a decision under § 238.90(d); or
</P>
<P>(v) The date an applicant withdraws the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.87" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.87   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who may file.</I> (1) A savings and loan holding company or a person who was convicted of a criminal offense described in § 238.84 or who has agreed to enter into a pre-trial diversion or similar program in connection with a prosecution for such a criminal offense may file an application with the Board seeking an exemption from the prohibitions in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A savings and loan holding company or a person may seek an exemption only for a designated position (or positions) with respect to a named savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company or a person may not file an application less than one year after the latter of the date of a denial of the same exemption under § 238.89(b), § 238.90(a) or § 238.90(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition pending Board action.</I> Unless a savings and loan holding company or a person is exempt under § 238.86(b), the prohibitions in § 238.83 continue to apply pending Board action on the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.88" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.88   Factors for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board review.</I> (1) In determining whether to approve an exemption application filed under § 238.87, the Board will consider the extent to which the position that is the subject of the application enables a person to:
</P>
<P>(i) Participate in the major policymaking functions of the savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Threaten the safety and soundness of any insured depository institution that is controlled by the savings and loan holding company, the interests of its depositors, or the public confidence in the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will also consider whether the applicant has demonstrated the person's fitness to hold the described position. Some positions may be approved without an extensive review of a person's fitness because the position does not enable a person to take the actions described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors.</I> In making the determinations under paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The position;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of influence and control a person holding the position will be able to exercise over the affairs and operations of the savings and loan holding company and the insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(3) The ability of the management of the savings and loan holding company to supervise and control the activities of a person holding the position;
</P>
<P>(4) The level of ownership that the person will have at the savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(5) The specific nature and circumstances of the criminal offense. The question whether a person who was convicted of a crime or who agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program for a crime was guilty of that crime is not relevant;
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence of rehabilitation; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other relevant factor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.89" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.89   Board action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval.</I> The Board will notify an applicant if an application under this subpart is approved. An approval by the Board may include such conditions as the Board determines to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Denial.</I> If Board denies an application, the Board will notify an applicant promptly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.90" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.90   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing requests.</I> Within 20 days of the date of issuance of a denial of an application filed under this subpart, a savings and loan holding company or a person whose application the Board has denied may file a written request demonstrating good cause for a hearing on the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board review of hearing request.</I> The Board will review the hearing request to determine if the savings and loan holding company or person has demonstrated good cause for a hearing on the application. Within 30 days after the filing of a timely request for a hearing, the Board will notify the savings and loan holding company or person in writing of its decision to grant or deny the hearing request. If the Board grants the request for a hearing, it will order a hearing to be commenced within 60 days of the issuance of the notification. Upon the request of a party, the Board may at its discretion order a later hearing date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> The following procedures apply to hearings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant may elect in writing to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions, rather than an oral hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties to the hearing are Enforcement Counsel and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) The provisions of §§ 263.2, 263.4, 263.6 through 263.12, and 263.16 of this chapter apply to the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) Discovery is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(6) A party may introduce relevant and material documents and make oral argument at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(7) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses must be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party may cross-examine any witness presented by the opposing party. The Board will furnish a transcript of the proceedings upon an applicant's request and upon the payment of the costs of the transcript.
</P>
<P>(8) The presiding officer has the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas <I>duces tecum.</I> If the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees are paid in accordance with section 263.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(9) Upon the request of a party, the record will remain open for five business days following the hearing for additional submissions to the record.
</P>
<P>(10) Enforcement Counsel has the burden of proving a <I>prima facie</I> case that a person is prohibited from a position under section 19(e) of the FDIA. The applicant has the burden of proof on all other matters.
</P>
<P>(11) The presiding officer must make recommendations to the Board, where possible, within 20 days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.
</P>
<P>(12) The presiding officer must forward his or her recommendation to the Board who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the presiding officer's recommendations. The Board's certification will close the record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision.</I> After the certification of the record, the Board will notify the parties of its decision by issuing an order approving or denying the application.
</P>
<P>(1) An approval order will require fidelity bond coverage for the position to the same extent as similar positions with the savings and loan holding company. The approval order may include such other conditions as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A denial order will include a summary of the relevant factors under § 238.88(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Management Official Interlocks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.91" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.91   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (Interlocks Act) (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the Interlocks Act and this subpart is to foster competition by generally prohibiting a management official from serving two nonaffiliated depository organizations in situations where the management interlock likely would have an anticompetitive effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to management officials of savings and loan holding companies, and their affiliates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.92" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.92   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term <I>affiliate</I> has the meaning given in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201). For purposes of that section 202, shares held by an individual include shares held by members of his or her immediate family. “Immediate family” means spouse, mother, father, child, grandchild, sister, brother, or any of their spouses, whether or not any of their shares are held in trust.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(3)(B) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(3)(B)), an affiliate relationship involving a savings and loan holding company based on common ownership does not exist if the Board determines, after giving the affected persons the opportunity to respond, that the asserted affiliation was established in order to avoid the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act and does not represent a true commonality of interest between the depository organizations. In making this determination, the Board considers, among other things, whether a person, including members of his or her immediate family, whose shares are necessary to constitute the group owns a nominal percentage of the shares of one of the organizations and the percentage is substantially disproportionate to that person's ownership of shares in the other organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the metropolitan statistical area (MSA), if a depository organization is located in an MSA; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a depository organization is located outside an MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community</I> means a city, town, or village, and contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages</I> means cities, towns, or villages whose borders touch each other or whose borders are within 10 road miles of each other at their closest points. The property line of an office located in an unincorporated city, town, or village is the boundary line of that city, town, or village for the purpose of this definition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository holding company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company (as more fully defined in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201)) having its principal office located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depository institution</I> means a commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union, chartered under the laws of the United States and having a principal office located in the United States. Additionally, a United States office, including a branch or agency, of a foreign commercial bank is a depository institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution affiliate</I> means a depository institution that is an affiliate of a depository organization.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depository organization</I> means a depository institution or a depository holding company.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Low- and moderate-income areas</I> means census tracts (or, if an area is not in a census tract, block numbering areas delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census) where the median family income is less than 100 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Management official.</I> (1) The term <I>management official</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A director;
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory or honorary director of a depository institution with total assets of $100 million or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) A senior executive officer as that term is defined in § 225.71(c) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) A branch manager;
</P>
<P>(v) A trustee of a depository organization under the control of trustees; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person who has a representative or nominee serving in any of the capacities in this paragraph (j)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>management official</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose management functions relate exclusively to the business of retail merchandising or manufacturing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A person whose management functions relate principally to the business outside the United States of a foreign commercial bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A person described in the provisos of section 202(4) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(4)) (referring to an officer of a State-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or trust company that neither makes real estate mortgage loans nor accepts savings).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Office</I> means a principal or branch office of a depository institution located in the United States. <I>Office</I> does not include a representative office of a foreign commercial bank, an electronic terminal, or a loan production office.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Relevant metropolitan statistical area (RMSA)</I> means an MSA, a primary MSA, or a consolidated MSA that is not comprised of designated Primary MSAs to the extent that these terms are defined and applied by the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Representative or nominee</I> means a natural person who serves as a management official and has an obligation to act on behalf of another person with respect to management responsibilities. The Board will find that a person has an obligation to act on behalf of another person only if the first person has an agreement, express or implied, to act on behalf of the second person with respect to management responsibilities. The Board will determine, after giving the affected persons an opportunity to respond, whether a person is a <I>representative or nominee.</I>
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Savings association</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any Federal savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(2)));
</P>
<P>(2) Any state savings association (as defined in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3))) the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any corporation (other than a bank as defined in section 3(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1))) the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, that the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the Comptroller of the Currency jointly determine to be operating in substantially the same manner as a savings association.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Total assets.</I> (1) The term <I>total assets</I> means assets measured on a consolidated basis and reported in the most recent fiscal year-end Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>total assets</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Assets of a diversified savings and loan holding company as defined by section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of a bank holding company that is exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 pursuant to an order issued under section 4(d) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(d)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Assets of offices of a foreign commercial bank other than the assets of its United States branch or agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temporary relief for 2020 and 2021.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (p)(1) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of this subpart J, the term <I>total assets,</I> with respect to a depository organization, means the lesser of assets of the depository organization reported on a consolidated basis as of December 31, 2019, and assets reported on a consolidated basis as of the end of the most recent fiscal year. The relief provided under this paragraph (p)(3) does not apply to a depository organization if the Board determines that permitting the depository organization to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk profile of the depository organization. When making this determination, the Board will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the depository organization since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the depository organization has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; the asset size of any parent companies; and the type of assets held by the depository organization. In making a determination pursuant to this paragraph (p)(3), the Board will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>United States</I> means the United States of America, any State or territory of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 77363, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.93" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.93   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RMSA.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same RMSA and each depository organization has total assets of $50 million or more.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major assets.</I> A management official of a depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization) may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization), regardless of the location of the two depository organizations. The Board will adjust these thresholds, as necessary, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for the Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, with rounding to the nearest $100 million. The Board will announce the revised thresholds by publishing a final rule without notice and comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. LL, 76 FR 56532, Sept. 13, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 54472, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.94" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.94   Interlocking relationships permitted by statute.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions of § 238.93 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof:
</P>
<P>(a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function;
</P>
<P>(b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.,</I> respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations);
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union;
</P>
<P>(d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation;
</P>
<P>(f) A Federal Home Loan Bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies;
</P>
<P>(g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired;
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) with respect to the service of a director of such company who also is a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if:
</P>
<P>(i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (h) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period; and
</P>
<P>(i) Any savings association or any savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(D) of the Home Owners' Loan Act) which has issued stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance pursuant to section 10(q) of such Act, except that this paragraph (i) shall apply only with regard to service by a single management official of such savings association or holding company, or any subsidiary of such savings association or holding company, by a single management official of the savings and loan holding company which purchased the stock issued in connection with such qualified stock issuance, and shall apply only when the Board has determined that such service is consistent with the purposes of the Interlocks Act and the Home Owners' Loan Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.95" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.95   Small market share exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A management interlock that is prohibited by § 238.93 is permissible, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The interlock is not prohibited by § 238.93(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The depository organizations (and their depository institution affiliates) hold, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the deposits in each RMSA or community in which both depository organizations (or their depository institution affiliates) have offices. The amount of deposits shall be determined by reference to the most recent annual Summary of Deposits published by the FDIC for the RMSA or community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation and records.</I> Each depository organization must maintain records sufficient to support its determination of eligibility for the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, and must reconfirm that determination on an annual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.96" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.96   General exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> The Board may by agency order exempt an interlock from the prohibitions in § 238.93 if the Board finds that the interlock would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition and would not present safety and soundness concerns. A depository organization may apply to the Board for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> In reviewing an application for an exemption under this section, the Board will apply a rebuttable presumption that an interlock will not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition if the depository organization seeking to add a management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily serves low- and moderate-income areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Is controlled or managed by persons who are members of a minority group, or women;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a depository institution that has been chartered for less than two years; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is deemed to be in “troubled condition” as defined in § 238.72.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> Unless a shorter expiration period is provided in the Board approval, an exemption permitted by paragraph (a) of this section may continue so long as it does not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, or is unsafe or unsound. If the Board grants an interlock exemption in reliance upon a presumption under paragraph (b) of this section, the interlock may continue for three years, unless otherwise provided by the Board in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.97" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.97   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A management official shall terminate his or her service or apply for an exemption if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the depository organization involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. The Board may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.98" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.98   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, the Board administers and enforces the Interlocks Act with respect to savings and loan holding companies and its affiliates, and may refer any case of a prohibited interlocking relationship involving these entities to the Attorney General of the United States to enforce compliance with the Interlocks Act and this part. If an affiliate of a savings and loan holding company is subject to the primary regulation of another Federal depository organization supervisory agency, then the Board does not administer and enforce the Interlocks Act with respect to that affiliate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.99" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.99   Interlocking relationships permitted pursuant to Federal Deposit Insurance Act.</HEAD>
<P>A management official or prospective management official of a depository organization may enter into an otherwise prohibited interlocking relationship with another depository organization for a period of up to 10 years if such relationship is approved by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation pursuant to section 13(k)(1)(A)(v) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)(1)(A)(v)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Dividends by Subsidiary Savings Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.101" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.101   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 10(f) of HOLA which requires savings associations with holding companies to provide the Board not less than 30 days' notice of a proposed declaration of a dividend. This subpart applies to all declarations of dividends by a subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.102" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q) and includes, with respect to agreements entered into and conditions imposed prior to July 21, 2011, the Office of Thrift Supervision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dividend</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A distribution of cash or other property to owners of a savings association made on account of their ownership, but not any dividend consisting only of shares or rights to purchase shares; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any transaction that the Board determines, by order or regulation, to be in substance a dividend.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shares</I> means common and preferred stock, and any options, warrants, or other rights for the acquisition of such stock. The term “share” also includes convertible securities upon their conversion into common or preferred stock. The term does not include convertible debt securities prior to their conversion into common or preferred stock or other securities that are not equity securities at the time of a dividend.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.103" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.103   Filing requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> A subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company must file a notice with the appropriate Reserve Bank on the designated form at least 30 days before the proposed declaration of a dividend by its board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Schedules.</I> A notice may include a schedule proposing dividends over a specified period, not to exceed 12 months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.104" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.104   Board action and criteria for review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board action.</I> (1) A subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company may declare a proposed dividend after the end of a 30-day review period commencing on the date of submission to the Federal Reserve System of the complete record on the notice, unless the Board or Reserve Bank disapproves the notice before the end of the period.
</P>
<P>(2) A subsidiary savings association of a savings and loan holding company may declare a proposed dividend before the end of the 30-day period if the Board or Reserve Bank notifies the applicant in writing of the Board's or Reserve Bank's intention not to disapprove the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria.</I> The Board or Reserve Bank may disapprove a notice, in whole or in part, if the Board or Reserve Bank makes any of the following determinations.
</P>
<P>(1) Following the dividend the subsidiary savings association will be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized as set forth in applicable regulations under 12 U.S.C. 1831o.
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed dividend raises safety or soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed dividend violates a prohibition contained in any statute, regulation, enforcement action, or agreement between the subsidiary savings association or any savings and loan holding company of which it is a subsidiary and an appropriate Federal banking agency, a condition imposed on the subsidiary savings association or any savings and loan holding company of which it is a subsidiary in an application or notice approved by an appropriate Federal banking agency, or any formal or informal enforcement action involving the subsidiary savings association or any savings and loan holding company of which it is a subsidiary. If so, the Board will determine whether it may permit the dividend notwithstanding the prohibition, condition, or enforcement action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Risk Committee Requirement for Covered Savings and Loan Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $50 Billion or More and Less Than $100 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59077, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.118" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.118   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> A covered savings and loan bank holding company must comply with the risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart until the earlier of the date on which:
</P>
<P>(1) Its total consolidated assets are below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(2) It becomes subject to the requirements of subpart N of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.119" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.119   Risk committee requirement for covered savings and loan holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk committee</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the covered savings and loan holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the company's global risk-management framework.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
</P>
<P>(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
</P>
<P>(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the covered savings and loan holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the covered savings and loan holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the company's global risk-management framework;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the covered savings and loan holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receive and review regular reports on a not less than a quarterly basis from the covered savings and loan holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an officer or employee of the covered savings and loan holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the covered savings and loan holding company during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 238.31(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the covered savings and loan holding company, as defined in § 215.2(e)(1) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the covered savings and loan holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the covered savings and loan holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> (i) The covered savings and loan holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Risk Committee, Liquidity Risk Management, and Liquidity Buffer Requirements for Covered Savings and Loan Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59078, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.120" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.120   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to covered savings and loan holding companies with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.121" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.121   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Initial applicability.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company must comply with the risk-management and risk-committee requirements set forth in § 238.122 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 238.123 and 238.124 no later than the first day of the fifth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $100 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in requirements following a change in category.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more that changes from one category of covered savings and loan holding company described in § 238.10(b) through (d) to another such category must comply with the requirements applicable to the new category no later than on the first day of the second calendar quarter following the change in the covered savings and loan holding company's category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company is subject to the risk-management and risk committee requirements set forth in § 238.122 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 238.123 and 238.124 until its total consolidated assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.122" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.122   Risk-management and risk committee requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk committee</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the covered savings and loan holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the covered savings and loan holding company's global risk-management framework. The risk committee's responsibilities include liquidity risk-management as set forth in § 238.123(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
</P>
<P>(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
</P>
<P>(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the covered savings and loan holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the covered savings and loan holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the covered savings and loan holding company's global risk-management framework;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the covered savings and loan holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receive and review regular reports on not less than a quarterly basis from the covered savings and loan holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an officer or employee of the covered savings and loan holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the covered savings and loan holding company during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 238.31(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the covered savings and loan holding company, as defined in § 215.2(e)(1) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the covered savings and loan holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the covered savings and loan holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> (i) The covered savings and loan holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the covered savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.123" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.123   Liquidity risk-management requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the board of directors</I>—(1) <I>Liquidity risk tolerance.</I> The board of directors of a covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the covered savings and loan holding company may assume in connection with its operating strategies (liquidity risk tolerance) at least annually, taking into account the covered savings and loan holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive and review at least semi-annually information provided by senior management to determine whether the covered savings and loan holding company is operating in accordance with its established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures.</I> The board of directors must approve and periodically review the liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures established by senior management pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the risk committee.</I> The risk committee (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors) must approve the contingency funding plan described in paragraph (f) of this section at least annually, and must approve any material revisions to the plan prior to the implementation of such revisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of senior management</I>—(1) <I>Liquidity risk.</I> (i) Senior management of a covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must establish and implement strategies, policies, and procedures designed to effectively manage the risk that the covered savings and loan holding company's financial condition or safety and soundness would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk). The board of directors must approve the strategies, policies, and procedures pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Senior management must oversee the development and implementation of liquidity risk measurement and reporting systems, including those required by this section and § 238.124.
</P>
<P>(iii) Senior management must determine at least quarterly whether the covered savings and loan holding company is operating in accordance with such policies and procedures and whether the covered savings and loan holding company is in compliance with this section and § 238.124 (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition warrant), and establish procedures regarding the preparation of such information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk tolerance.</I> Senior management must report to the board of directors or the risk committee regarding the covered savings and loan holding company's liquidity risk profile and liquidity risk tolerance at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business lines or products.</I> (i) Senior management must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product that could have a significant effect on the company's liquidity risk profile. The approval is required before the company implements the business line or offers the product. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, senior management must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Senior management must review at least annually significant business lines and products to determine whether any line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> Senior management must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (e) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the covered savings and loan holding company warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk is within the established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Liquidity risk limits.</I> Senior management must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section and review the company's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Liquidity stress testing.</I> Senior management must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 238.124(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the covered savings and loan holding company materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 238.124(a) at least quarterly;
</P>
<P>(iii) Review the independent review of the liquidity stress tests under § 238.123(d) periodically; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 238.124(b) at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent review function.</I> (1) A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function that is independent of management functions that execute funding to evaluate its liquidity risk management.
</P>
<P>(2) The independent review function must:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the company's liquidity risk management processes, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess whether the company's liquidity risk-management function complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report material liquidity risk management issues to the board of directors or the risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> (1) A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The covered savings and loan holding company must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered savings and loan holding company must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections that results in projections that:
</P>
<P>(i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash flow mismatches over these time periods; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the covered savings and loan holding company and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered savings and loan holding company must adequately document its methodology for making cash flow projections and the included assumptions and submit such documentation to the risk committee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contingency funding plan</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan that sets out the company's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and established liquidity risk tolerance. The company must update the contingency funding plan at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Components of the contingency funding plan</I>—(i) <I>Quantitative assessment.</I> The contingency funding plan must:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the covered savings and loan holding company's liquidity;
</P>
<P>(B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the covered savings and loan holding company's liquidity that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(C) Identify the circumstances in which the covered savings and loan holding company would implement its action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board;
</P>
<P>(D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and
</P>
<P>(F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 238.124(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity event management process.</I> The contingency funding plan must include an event management process that sets out the covered savings and loan holding company's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events. The liquidity event management process must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies the company will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the company will use to access alternative funding sources;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the covered savings and loan holding company and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Monitoring.</I> The contingency funding plan must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must periodically test:
</P>
<P>(A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and
</P>
<P>(C) The methods the covered savings and loan holding company will use to access alternative funding sources to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Liquidity risk limits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the company's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk limits established by a Category II savings and loan holding company, or Category III savings and loan holding company.</I> If the covered savings and loan holding company is a Category II savings and loan holding company or Category III savings and loan holding company, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section by must include limits on:
</P>
<P>(i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Collateral.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which it or its affiliates are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the covered savings and loan holding company:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculates all of its collateral positions according to the frequency specified in paragraphs (h)(1)(i)(A) and (B) of this section or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged:
</P>
<P>(A) If the covered savings and loan holding company is not a Category IV savings and loan holding company, on at least a weekly basis;
</P>
<P>(B) If the covered savings and loan holding company is a Category IV savings and loan holding company, on at least a monthly basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitors shifts in the covered savings and loan holding company's funding patterns, such as shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal entities, currencies and business lines.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines, taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intraday exposures.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposures that are consistent with the covered savings and loan holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size. If the covered savings and loan holding company is a Category II savings and loan holding company or a Category III savings and loan holding company, these procedures must address how the management of the covered savings and loan holding company will:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor and measure expected daily gross liquidity inflows and outflows;
</P>
<P>(ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the covered savings and loan holding company can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;
</P>
<P>(iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and
</P>
<P>(v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the covered savings and loan holding company's overall liquidity needs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.124" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.14.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.124   Liquidity stress testing and buffer requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidity stress testing requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must conduct stress tests to assess the potential impact of the liquidity stress scenarios set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section on its cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency, taking into account its current liquidity condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P>(i) The covered savings and loan holding company must take into consideration its balance sheet exposures, off-balance sheet exposures, size, risk profile, complexity, business lines, organizational structure, and other characteristics of the covered savings and loan holding company that affect its liquidity risk profile in conducting its stress test.
</P>
<P>(ii) In conducting a liquidity stress test using the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the covered savings and loan holding company must address the potential direct adverse impact of associated market disruptions on the covered savings and loan holding company and incorporate the potential actions of other market participants experiencing liquidity stresses under the market disruptions that would adversely affect the covered savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must perform the liquidity stress tests required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section according to the frequency specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section or as directed by the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) If the covered savings and loan holding company is not a Category IV savings and loan holding company, at least monthly; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the covered savings and loan holding company is a Category IV savings and loan holding company, at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stress scenarios.</I> (i) Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) A scenario reflecting adverse market conditions;
</P>
<P>(B) A scenario reflecting an idiosyncratic stress event for the covered savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) A scenario reflecting combined market and idiosyncratic stresses.
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered savings and loan holding company must incorporate additional liquidity stress scenarios into its liquidity stress test, as appropriate, based on its financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities. The Board may require the covered savings and loan holding company to vary the underlying assumptions and stress scenarios.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Planning horizon.</I> Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include an overnight planning horizon, a 30-day planning horizon, a 90-day planning horizon, a one-year planning horizon, and any other planning horizons that are relevant to the covered savings and loan holding company's liquidity risk profile. For purposes of this section, a “planning horizon” is the period over which the relevant stressed projections extend. The covered savings and loan holding company must use the results of the stress test over the 30-day planning horizon to calculate the size of the liquidity buffer under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for assets used as cash-flow sources in a stress test.</I> (i) To the extent an asset is used as a cash flow source to offset projected funding needs during the planning horizon in a liquidity stress test, the fair market value of the asset must be discounted to reflect any credit risk and market volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets used as cash-flow sources during a planning horizon must be diversified by collateral, counterparty, borrowing capacity, and other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) A line of credit does not qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon of 30 days or less. A line of credit may qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon that exceeds 30 days.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tailoring.</I> Stress testing must be tailored to, and provide sufficient detail to reflect, a covered savings and loan holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Governance</I>—(i) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain policies and procedures governing its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions that provide for the incorporation of the results of liquidity stress tests in future stress testing and for the enhancement of stress testing practices over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Controls and oversight.</I> A covered savings and loan holding subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a system of controls and oversight that is designed to ensure that its liquidity stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements of this section. The controls and oversight must ensure that each liquidity stress test appropriately incorporates conservative assumptions with respect to the stress scenario in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and other elements of the stress test process, taking into consideration the covered savings and loan holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, business lines, legal entity or jurisdiction, and other relevant factors. The assumptions must be approved by the chief risk officer and be subject to the independent review under § 238.123(d).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Management information systems.</I> The covered savings and loan holding company must maintain management information systems and data processes sufficient to enable it to effectively and reliably collect, sort, and aggregate data and other information related to liquidity stress testing.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notice and response.</I> If the Board determines that a covered savings and loan holding company must conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Board will notify the covered savings and loan holding company before the change in frequency takes effect, and describe the basis for its determination. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the covered savings and loan holding company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the company's request for reconsideration prior to requiring that the company conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity buffer requirement.</I> (1) A covered savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a liquidity buffer that is sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon of a liquidity stress test conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under each scenario set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) through (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Net stressed cash-flow need.</I> The net stressed cash-flow need for a covered savings and loan holding company is the difference between the amount of its cash-flow need and the amount of its cash flow sources over the 30-day planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The liquidity buffer must consist of highly liquid assets that are unencumbered, as defined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Highly liquid asset.</I> A highly liquid asset includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash;
</P>
<P>(B) Assets that meet the criteria for high quality liquid assets as defined in 12 CFR 249.20; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other asset that the covered savings and loan holding company demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has low credit risk and low market risk;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unencumbered.</I> An asset is unencumbered if it:
</P>
<P>(A) Is free of legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restrictions on the ability of such company promptly to liquidate, sell or transfer the asset; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not pledged or used to secure or provide credit enhancement to any transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, to the extent potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended by such central bank or U.S. government-sponsored enterprise or any of its consolidated subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset.</I> In calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset included in the liquidity buffer, the covered savings and loan holding company must discount the fair market value of the asset to reflect any credit risk and market price volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Operational requirements.</I> With respect to the liquidity buffer, the bank holding company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Establish and implement policies and procedures that require highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer to be under the control of the management function in the covered savings and loan holding company that is charged with managing liquidity risk; and
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate the capability to monetize a highly liquid asset under each scenario required under § 238.124(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Diversification.</I> The liquidity buffer must not contain significant concentrations of highly liquid assets by issuer, business sector, region, or other factor related to the covered savings and loan holding company's risk, except with respect to cash and securities issued or guaranteed by the United States, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Supervisory Stress Test Requirements for Covered Savings and Loan Holding Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59083, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.130" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.130   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company (other than a foreign banking organization) subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and,
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the covered savings and loan holding company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the supervisory stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in § 225.2(o) of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.131" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.131   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered savings and loan holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $100 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transitional arrangements.</I> (1) A covered savings and loan holding company that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the covered savings and loan holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered savings and loan holding company that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the covered savings and loan holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.132" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.132   Analysis conducted by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The Board will conduct an analysis of each covered company's capital, on a total consolidated basis, taking into account all relevant exposures and activities of that covered company, to evaluate the ability of the covered company to absorb losses in specified economic and financial conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The analysis will include an assessment of the projected losses, net income, and pro forma capital levels and regulatory capital ratios and other capital ratios for the covered company and use such analytical techniques that the Board determines are appropriate to identify, measure, and monitor risks of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(3) In conducting the analyses, the Board will coordinate with the appropriate primary financial regulatory agencies and the Federal Insurance Office, as appropriate.


</P>
<P>(4) In conducting the analysis, the Board will not incorporate changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile in its projections of losses, net income, pro forma capital levels, and capital ratios.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Economic and financial scenarios related to the Board's analysis.</I> The Board will conduct its analysis using a minimum of two different scenarios, including a baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario. The Board will notify covered companies of the scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis for each stress test cycle to which the covered company is subject by no later than February 15 of that year, except with respect to trading or any other components of the scenarios and any additional scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis, which will be communicated by no later than March 1 of that year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of analysis conducted by the Board</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board will conduct its analysis of a covered company according to the frequency in Table 1 to § 238.132(c)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 238.132(<E T="01">c</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the covered company is a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the Board will conduct its analysis
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II savings and loan holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III savings and loan holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category IV savings and loan holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, occurring in each year ending in an even number.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Change in frequency.</I> (i) The Board may conduct a stress test of a covered company on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.


</P>
<P>(ii) A Category IV savings and loan holding company may elect to have the Board conduct a stress test with respect to the company in a year ending in an odd number by providing notice to the Board and the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank by January 15 of that year.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of change in frequency.</I> If the Board determines to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (c)(2), the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital Action Assumptions.</I> In conducting a stress test under this section, the Board will make the following assumptions regarding a covered company's capital actions over the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59083, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 7943, Feb. 3, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.133" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.133   Data and information required to be submitted in support of the Board's analyses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regular submissions.</I> Each covered company must submit to the Board such data, on a consolidated basis, that the Board determines is necessary in order for the Board to derive the relevant pro forma estimates of the covered company over the planning horizon under the scenarios described in § 238.132(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional submissions required by the Board.</I> The Board may require a covered company to submit any other information on a consolidated basis that the Board deems necessary in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) Project a company's pre-provision net revenue, losses, provision for credit losses, and net income; and pro forma capital levels, regulatory capital ratios, and any other capital ratio specified by the Board under the scenarios described in § 238.132(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.134" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.134   Review of the Board's analysis; publication of summary results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of results.</I> Based on the results of the analysis conducted under this subpart, the Board will conduct an evaluation to determine whether the covered company has the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses and continue its operation by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary under baseline and severely adverse scenarios, and any additional scenarios.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication of results by the Board.</I> (1) The Board will publicly disclose a summary of the results of the Board's analyses of a covered company by June 30 of the calendar year in which the stress test was conducted pursuant to § 238.132.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will notify companies of the date on which it expects to publicly disclose a summary of the Board's analyses pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section at least 14 calendar days prior to the expected disclosure date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.135" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.15.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.135   Corporate use of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis conducted by the Board under this subpart, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(a) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); and
</P>
<P>(b) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for Savings and Loan Holding Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59085, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.140" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.140   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 1467; 1467a, 1818, 5361, 5365.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.141" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.141   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Capital action</I> means any issuance or redemption of a debt or equity capital instrument, any capital distribution, and any similar action that the Federal Reserve determines could impact a savings and loan holding company's consolidated capital.
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Category II savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) A Category III savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company with average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the savings and loan holding company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered company over the planning horizon, taking into account its current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.142" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.142   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered company, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any Category II savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any Category III savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any savings and loan holding company with average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A savings and loan holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until the savings and loan holding company:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a Category II savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a Category III savings and loan holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has $250 billion or less in total consolidated assets in each of four consecutive calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insurance savings and loan holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph (a), this subpart does not apply to a covered company that is subject to part 217, subpart J, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transitional arrangements.</I> (1) A savings and loan holding company that is subject to minimum capital requirements and that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the savings and loan holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A savings and loan holding company that is subject to minimum capital requirements and that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the savings and loan holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59085, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 82979, Nov. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.143" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.143   Stress test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stress test requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered company must conduct a stress test as required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a covered company must conduct a stress test according to the frequency in Table 1 of § 238.143(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 of § 238.143(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the covered company is a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the stress test must be conducted
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II savings and loan holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III savings and loan holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Savings and loan holding company that is not:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodically, as determined by rule or order.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(A) A Category II savings and loan holding company; or
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(B) A Category III savings and loan holding company.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in frequency.</I> The Board may require a covered company to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraphs (a)(2)(i) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of change in frequency.</I> If the Board requires a covered company to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph (a)(3), a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by the Board</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In conducting a stress test under this section, a covered company must, at a minimum, use the scenarios provided by the Board. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board will provide a description of the scenarios to each covered company no later than February 15 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional components.</I> (i) The Board may require a covered company with significant trading activity, as determined by the Board and specified in the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing report (FR Y-14), to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The data used in this component must be as-of a date selected by the Board between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section, and the Board will communicate the as-of date and a description of the component to the company no later than March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may require a covered company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional scenarios.</I> The Board may require a covered company to use one or more additional scenarios in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of additional component.</I> If the Board requires a covered company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or to use one or more additional scenarios under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and include a discussion of the basis for its determination. The Board will provide such notification no later than December 31 of the preceding calendar year. The notification will include a general description of the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) and the basis for requiring the company to include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement that the company include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s), including an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Description of component.</I> The Board will provide the covered company with a description of any additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) by March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.144" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.144   Methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> In conducting a stress test under § 238.143, for each quarter of the planning horizon, a covered company must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income; and


</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on pro forma regulatory capital levels and pro forma capital ratios (including regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board), and in so doing must:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate the effects of any capital actions over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for credit losses appropriate for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclude the impacts of changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assumptions regarding capital actions.</I> In conducting a stress test under § 238.143, a covered company is required to make the following assumptions regarding its capital actions over the planning horizon:


</P>
<P>(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.








</P>
<P>(c) <I>Controls and oversight of stress testing processes</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The senior management of a covered company must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements in this subpart. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the covered company's stress testing practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the company's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oversight of stress testing processes.</I> The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a covered company must review and approve the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the covered company may warrant, but no less than each year a stress test is conducted. The board of directors and senior management of the covered company must receive a summary of the results of any stress test conducted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Role of stress testing results.</I> The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis it conducts under this subpart, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); and
</P>
<P>(ii) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59085, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 7943, Feb. 3, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.145" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.145   Reports of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports to the Board of stress test results.</I> A covered company must report the results of the stress test required under § 238.143 to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board. Such results must be submitted by April 5 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to § 238.143, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.146" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.16.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.146   Disclosure of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public disclosure of results</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) A covered company that is subject to a supervisory stress test under 12 CFR 238.132 must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under § 238.143 within the period that is 15 calendar days after the Board publicly discloses the results of its supervisory stress test of the covered company pursuant to § 238.134, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered company that is not subject to a supervisory stress test under § 238.132 must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under § 238.143 in the period beginning on June 15 and ending on June 30 in the year in which the stress test is conducted, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure method.</I> The summary required under this section may be disclosed on the website of a covered company, or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary of results.</I> The summary results must, at a minimum, contain the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the methodologies used in the stress test, including those employed to estimate losses, revenues, provision for credit losses, and changes in capital positions over the planning horizon;
</P>
<P>(3) Estimates of—
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, and other losses or gains;
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income before taxes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Loan losses (dollar amount and as a percentage of average portfolio balance) in the aggregate and by subportfolio, including: Domestic closed-end first-lien mortgages; domestic junior lien mortgages and home equity lines of credit; commercial and industrial loans; commercial real estate loans; credit card exposures; other consumer loans; and all other loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios; and
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to any depository institution subsidiary that is subject to stress testing requirements pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), 12 CFR part 46 (OCC), or 12 CFR part 325, subpart C (FDIC), changes over the planning horizon in regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board and an explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of results.</I> (1) The following disclosures required under paragraph (b) of this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, and other losses or gains;
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income before taxes; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Loan losses in the aggregate and by subportfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure of pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must include the beginning value, ending value, and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59085, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 7943, Feb. 3, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Single Counterparty Credit Limits for Covered Savings and Loan Holding Companies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59087, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.150" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.150   Applicability and general provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This subpart establishes single counterparty credit limits for a covered company. For purposes of this subpart, covered company means:
</P>
<P>(i) A Category II savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A Category III savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit exposure limits.</I> (1) Section 238.152 establishes credit exposure limits for a covered company.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company is required to calculate its aggregate net credit exposure, gross credit exposure, and net credit exposure to a counterparty using the methods in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of this subpart.</I> (1) A covered company that becomes subject to this subpart must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth calendar quarter after it becomes a covered company, unless that time is accelerated or extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> Any company that becomes a covered company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until it is not a Category II savings and loan holding company or a Category III savings and loan holding company.


</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 84 FR 59087, Nov. 1, 2019, subpart Q was added, and within that subpart, § 238.150 was added with incorrect paragraph coding in paragraph (a).</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.151" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.151   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 238.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 238.2. For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjusted market value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered company to a counterparty, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in table 1 to § 217.132 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered company from a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in table 1 to § 217.132 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of this chapter, the covered company would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in table 1 to § 217.132 of this chapter by the square root of 1/2.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means, with respect to a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate net credit exposure</I> means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bank-eligible investments</I> means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to a credit transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a natural person, the natural person, and, if the credit exposure of the covered company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any company that is not a subsidiary of the covered company, the company and its affiliates collectively;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision) collectively; and
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In addition, under § 238.156, under certain circumstances, a covered company is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Covered company</I> is defined in § 238.150(a)
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit derivative</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit transaction</I> means, with respect to a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation or order, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Derivative transaction</I> means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered company has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash on deposit with the covered company or a subsidiary of the covered company (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered company by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);
</P>
<P>(2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company; or
</P>
<P>(5) Gold bullion.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Eligible equity derivative</I> means an equity derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Eligible guarantee</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Eligible guarantor</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Equity derivative</I> has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Exempt counterparty</I> means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 238.157, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in 12 CFR part 217, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Financial entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (r)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Foreign sovereign entity</I> means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank collectively.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Gross credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered company before adjusting, pursuant to § 238.154, for the effect of any eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Immediate family</I> means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Intraday credit exposure</I> means credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Investment grade</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Multilateral development bank</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Net credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 238.153, as adjusted in accordance with § 238.154.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Qualifying central counterparty</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Securities financing transaction</I> means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Short sale</I> means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a <I>subsidiary</I> of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (ee)(1) of this section, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in 12 CFR part 217 and as reported by the covered savings and loan holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C report on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Total consolidated assets.</I> A company's total consolidated assets are determined based on:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.152" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.152   Credit exposure limits.</HEAD>
<P><I>General limit on aggregate net credit exposure.</I> No covered company may have an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the covered company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.153" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.153   Gross credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of gross credit exposure.</I> The amount of gross credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty with respect to a credit transaction is, in the case of:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of the covered company held by the counterparty, loan by a covered company to the counterparty, and lease in which the covered company is the lessor and the counterparty is the lessee, equal to the amount owed by the counterparty to the covered company under the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A debt security or debt investment held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the securities, for trading and available-for-sale securities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amortized purchase price of the securities or investments, for securities or investments held to maturity.
</P>
<P>(3) An equity security held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equity investment in a counterparty, and other direct investments in a counterparty, equal to the market value.
</P>
<P>(4) A securities financing transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under 12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is not subject to a bilateral netting agreement or does not meet the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is subject to a bilateral netting agreement with that counterparty and meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the covered company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Assign a value of zero to any security received from the counterparty that does not meet the definition of “eligible collateral” in § 238.151; and
</P>
<P>(B) Include the value of securities that are eligible collateral received by the covered company from the counterparty (including any exempt counterparty), calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the issuer of those securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and with respect to each credit transaction, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (a)(4) is limited to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In cases where the covered company receives eligible collateral from a counterparty in addition to the cash or securities received from that counterparty, the counterparty may reduce its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with § 238.154(b).
</P>
<P>(5) A committed credit line extended by a covered company to a counterparty, equal to the face amount of the committed credit line.
</P>
<P>(6) A guarantee or letter of credit issued by a covered company on behalf of a counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) A derivative transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under 12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases where a covered company is required to recognize an exposure to an eligible guarantor pursuant to § 238.154(d), the covered company must exclude the relevant derivative transaction when calculating its gross exposure to the original counterparty under this section.
</P>
<P>(8) A credit derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or debt security of the counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered company must calculate pursuant to § 238.155 its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attribution rule.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a covered company must treat any transaction with any natural person or entity as a credit transaction with another party, to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the other party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.154" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.154   Net credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered company must calculate its net credit exposure to a counterparty by adjusting its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with the rules set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible collateral.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction other than a securities financing transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure on the transaction by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include the adjusted market value of the eligible collateral, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the collateral issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (b) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction if valued in accordance with § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible guarantees.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the amount of any eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor that covers the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the amount of eligible guarantees when calculating its gross credit exposure to the eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible guarantee under this paragraph (c) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee if valued in accordance with § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible credit and equity derivatives.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 238.153(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include, when calculating its net credit exposure to the eligible guarantor, including in instances where the underlying credit transaction would not be subject to the credit limits of § 238.152 (for example, due to an exempt counterparty), either
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 238.153(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, in cases where the eligible credit derivative or eligible equity derivative is used to hedge covered positions that are subject to the Board's market risk rule (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) and the counterparty on the hedged transaction is not a financial entity, the amount of credit exposure that a company must recognize to the eligible guarantor is the amount that would be calculated pursuant to § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible credit derivative or an eligible equity derivative this paragraph (d) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative if valued in accordance with § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other eligible hedges.</I> In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the face amount of a short sale of the counterparty's debt security or equity security, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position is junior to, or <I>pari passu</I> with, the instrument in which the covered company has the long position; and
</P>
<P>(2) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position and the instrument in which the covered company has the long position are either both treated as trading or available-for-sale exposures or both treated as held-to-maturity exposures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unused portion of certain extensions of credit.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for a committed credit line or revolving credit facility under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the amount of the unused portion of the credit extension to the extent that the covered company does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit and the used portion of the credit extension has been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the used portion of a credit extension has been secured by eligible collateral, the covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral received from the counterparty, even if the used portion has not been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(3) To qualify for the reduction in net credit exposure under this paragraph, the credit contract must specify that any used portion of the credit extension must be fully secured by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit transactions involving exempt counterparties.</I> (1) A covered company's credit transactions with an exempt counterparty are not subject to the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 238.152.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in cases where a covered company has a credit transaction with an exempt counterparty and the covered company has obtained eligible collateral from that exempt counterparty or an eligible guarantee or eligible credit or equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the covered company must include (for purposes of this subpart) such exposure to the issuer of such eligible collateral or the eligible guarantor, as calculated in accordance with the rules set forth in this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to that issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Currency mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral and calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.37(c)(3)(ii) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor and calculating its gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable, the maturity mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(d) of this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral or any eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, or eligible credit derivatives from an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; provided that
</P>
<P>(3) The eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative subject to paragraph (i)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a shorter maturity than the credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an original maturity equal to or greater than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a residual maturity of not less than three months; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The adjustment approach is otherwise applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.155" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.155   Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries of the covered company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SPV</I> means a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SPV exposure</I> means an investment in the debt or equity of an SPV, or a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, an SPV.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A covered company must determine whether the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV, due to an SPV exposure, is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of all of the issuer's assets (with each asset valued in accordance with § 238.153(a)) in the SPV; or
</P>
<P>(B) The application of the look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to the determination required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, a covered company must use the same method to calculate gross credit exposure to each issuer of assets in a particular SPV.
</P>
<P>(iii) In making a determination under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the covered company must consider only the credit exposure to the issuer arising from the covered company's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure to all unidentified issuers and calculate such gross credit exposure using one method in either paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) or (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the amount of the covered company's gross credit exposure to that issuer may be attributed to either that issuer of assets or the SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) If attributed to the issuer of assets, the issuer of assets must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section to that issuer of assets must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 238.153) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(B) If attributed to the SPV, the covered company's gross credit exposure is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, valued in accordance with § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital or the covered company is unable to determine that the amount of the gross credit exposure is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered company must calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets in the SPV using the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The issuer of assets in the SPV must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 238.153) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(C) When applying the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to all unidentified issuers.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this section, a covered company must aggregate all gross credit exposures to unknown counterparties for all SPVs as if the exposures related to a single unknown counterparty; this single unknown counterparty is subject to the limits of § 238.152 as if it were a single counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Look-through approach.</I> A covered company that is required to calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure with respect to an issuer of assets in accordance with this paragraph (b) must calculate the amount as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all investors in the SPV rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to the covered company's pro rata share of the SPV multiplied by the value of the underlying asset in the SPV, valued in accordance with § 238.153(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Where all investors in the SPV do not rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The pro rata share of the covered company's investment in the tranche of the SPV; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The market value of the tranche in which the covered company has invested, except in the case of a debt security that is held to maturity, in which case the tranche must be valued at the amortized purchase price of the securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) The value of each underlying asset attributed to the issuer in the SPV, each as calculated pursuant to § 238.153(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to third parties.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, a covered company must recognize, for purposes of this subpart, a gross credit exposure to each third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to an SPV whose failure or material financial distress would cause a loss in the value of the covered company's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of any gross credit exposure that is required to be recognized to a third party under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, up to the maximum contractual obligation of that third party to the SPV, valued in accordance with § 238.153(a). (This gross credit exposure is in addition to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the SPV or the issuers of assets of the SPV, calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(3) A covered company must aggregate the gross credit exposure to a third party recognized in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with its other gross credit exposures to that third party (that are unrelated to the SPV) for purposes of compliance with the limits of § 238.152.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.156" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.156   Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) If a covered company has an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 5 percent of its tier 1 capital, the covered company must assess its relationship with the counterparty under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is economically interdependent with one or more other counterparties of the covered company and under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is connected by a control relationship with one or more other counterparties.
</P>
<P>(2) If, pursuant to an assessment required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the covered company determines that one or more of the factors of paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section are met with respect to one or more counterparties, or the Board determines pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are economically interdependent or that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are connected by a control relationship, the covered company must aggregate its net credit exposure to the counterparties for all purposes under this subpart, including, but not limited to, § 238.152.
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with any request pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) or (c)(2) of this section, the Board may require the covered company to provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence.</I> (1) For purposes of this paragraph, two counterparties are economically interdependent if the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of one counterparty would cause the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of the other counterparty, taking into account the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company must assess whether the financial distress of one counterparty (counterparty A) would prevent the ability of the other counterparty (counterparty B) to fully and timely repay counterparty B's liabilities and whether the insolvency or default of counterparty A is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of counterparty B and, therefore, these counterparties are economically interdependent, by evaluating the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether 50 percent or more of one counterparty's gross revenue is derived from, or gross expenditures are directed to, transactions with the other counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether counterparty A has fully or partly guaranteed the credit exposure of counterparty B, or is liable by other means, in an amount that is 50 percent or more of the covered company's net credit exposure to counterparty A;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether 25 percent or more of one counterparty's production or output is sold to the other counterparty, which cannot easily be replaced by other customers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the expected source of funds to repay the loans of both counterparties is the same and neither counterparty has another independent source of income from which the loans may be serviced and fully repaid; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) Whether two or more counterparties rely on the same source for the majority of their funding and, in the event of the common provider's default, an alternative provider cannot be found.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (b)(2) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that those counterparties are not economically interdependent and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate one counterparty with another counterparty provided that the counterparty could promptly modify its business relationships, such as by reducing its reliance on the other counterparty, to address any economic interdependence concerns, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to certain control relationships.</I> (1) For purposes of this subpart, one counterparty (counterparty A) is deemed to control the other counterparty (counterparty B) if:
</P>
<P>(i) Counterparty A owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of counterparty B; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Counterparty A controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (c)(1) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that counterparty A does not control counterparty B and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate counterparty A with counterparty B provided that, taking into account the specific facts and circumstances, such indicia of control does not result in the entities being connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</I> The Board may determine, after notice to the covered company and opportunity for hearing, that one or more counterparties of a covered company are:
</P>
<P>(1) Economically interdependent for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as any other indicia of economic interdependence that the Board determines in its discretion to be relevant; or
</P>
<P>(2) Connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and whether counterparty A:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of Counterparty B pursuant to a voting agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has significant influence on the appointment or dismissal of counterparty B's administrative, management, or governing body, or the fact that a majority of members of such body have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of counterparty A's voting rights; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties to prevent evasion.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a covered company must aggregate its exposures to a counterparty with the covered company's exposures to another counterparty if the Board determines in writing after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the exposures to the two counterparties must be aggregated to prevent evasions of the purposes of this subpart, including, but not limited to § 238.156.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.157" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.157   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempted exposure categories.</I> The following categories of credit transactions are exempt from the limits on credit exposure under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct claim on, and the portion of a claim that is directly and fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, only while operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and any additional obligation issued by a U.S. government-sponsored entity as determined by the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) Intraday credit exposure to a counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any trade exposure to a qualifying central counterparty related to the covered company's clearing activity, including potential future exposure arising from transactions cleared by the qualifying central counterparty and pre-funded default fund contributions;
</P>
<P>(4) Any credit transaction with the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, or the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes;
</P>
<P>(5) Any credit transaction with the European Commission or the European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any transaction that the Board exempts if the Board finds that such exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for Federal Home Loan Banks.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered company does not include any Federal Home Loan Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional exemptions by the Board.</I> The Board may, by regulation or order, exempt transactions, in whole or in part, from the definition of the term “credit exposure,” if the Board finds that the exemption is in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.158" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.17.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.158   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of compliance.</I> (1) Using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a covered company must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a daily basis at the end of each business day.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company must report its compliance to the Federal Reserve as of the end of the quarter, unless the Board determines and notifies that company in writing that more frequent reporting is required.
</P>
<P>(3) In reporting its compliance, a covered company must calculate and include in its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor the amounts of eligible collateral, eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, and eligible credit derivatives that were provided to the covered company in connection with credit transactions with exempt counterparties, valued in accordance with and as required by § 238.154(b) through (d) and § 238.154 (g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> With respect to any qualifying master netting agreement, a covered company must establish and maintain procedures that meet or exceed the requirements of § 217.3(d) of this chapter to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncompliance.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a covered company is not in compliance with this subpart with respect to a counterparty solely due to the circumstances listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the covered company will not be subject to enforcement actions for a period of 90 days (or, with prior notice to the company, such shorter or longer period determined by the Board, in its sole discretion, to be appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company), if the covered company uses reasonable efforts to return to compliance with this subpart during this period. The covered company may not engage in any additional credit transactions with such a counterparty in contravention of this rule during the period of noncompliance, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company may request a special temporary credit exposure limit exemption from the Board. The Board may grant approval for such exemption in cases where the Board determines that such credit transactions are necessary or appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company. In acting on a request for an exemption, the Board will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A decrease in the covered company's capital stock and surplus;
</P>
<P>(ii) The merger of the covered company with another covered company;
</P>
<P>(iii) A merger of two counterparties; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An unforeseen and abrupt change in the status of a counterparty as a result of which the covered company's credit exposure to the counterparty becomes limited by the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other factor(s) the Board determines, in its discretion, is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other measures.</I> The Board may impose supervisory oversight and additional reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with this subpart. Covered companies must furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, such information to monitor compliance with this subpart and the limits therein as the Board may require.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for Foreign Savings and Loan Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets Over $250 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59095, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.160" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.18.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.160   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Foreign savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)) that is incorporated or organized under the laws of a country other than the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means revenue less expenses before adjusting for total loan loss provisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stress test cycle</I> has the same meaning as in subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Total loan loss provisions</I> means the amount needed to make reserves adequate to absorb estimated credit losses, based upon management's evaluation of the loans and leases that the company has the intent and ability to hold for the foreseeable future or until maturity or payoff, as determined under applicable accounting standards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.161" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.18.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.161   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability for foreign savings and loan holding companies with total consolidated assets of more than $250 billion</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign savings and loan holding company must comply with the stress test requirements set forth in this section beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets exceed $250 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> A foreign savings and loan holding company will remain subject to requirements of this subpart until the date on which the foreign savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets are below $250 billion for each of four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 238.162" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.18.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.162   Capital stress testing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) A foreign savings and loan holding company subject to this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests.
</P>
<P>(2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign savings and loan holding company's home-country supervisor must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the relevant home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign savings and loan holding company, conducted on at least a biennial basis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional standards.</I> (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign savings and loan holding company that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct an annual stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Report on at least a biennial basis a summary of the results of the stress test to the Board that includes a description of the types of risks included in the stress test, a description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test, a summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, total loan loss provisions, net income before taxes and pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign savings and loan holding company and any other relevant capital ratios, and an explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Capital Planning and Stress Capital Buffer Requirement</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 7943, Feb. 3, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 238.170" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.8.19.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 238.170   Capital planning and stress capital buffer requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes capital planning and prior notice and approval requirements for capital distributions by certain savings and loan holding companies. This section also establishes the Board's process for determining the stress capital buffer requirement applicable to these savings and loan holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in § 238.170(c), this section applies to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any top-tier covered savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more ($100 billion asset threshold); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other covered savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States that is made subject to this section, in whole or in part, by order of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Average total consolidated assets.</I> For purposes of this section, average total consolidated assets means the average of the total consolidated assets as reported by a covered savings and loan holding company on its Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies (FR Y-9C) for the four most recent consecutive quarters. If the covered savings and loan holding company has not filed the FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, average total consolidated assets means the average of the company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable. Average total consolidated assets are measured on the as-of date of the most recent FR Y-9C used in the calculation of the average.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company (including any successor covered savings and loan holding company) that is subject to any requirement in this section shall remain subject to such requirements unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $100 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as reported on the FR Y-9C and effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall limit the authority of the Federal Reserve to issue or enforce a capital directive or take any other supervisory or enforcement action, including an action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations of law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Application of this section by order.</I> The Board may apply this section, in whole or in part, to a covered savings and loan holding company by order based on the institution's size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transition periods for certain covered savings and loan holding companies.</I> (1) A covered savings and loan holding company that meets the $100 billion asset threshold (as measured under paragraph (b) of this section) on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this section beginning on January 1 of the next calendar year, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will not provide a covered savings and loan holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement until the first year in which the Board conducts an analysis of the covered savings and loan company pursuant to 12 CFR 238.132.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered savings and loan holding company that meets the $100 billion asset threshold after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this section beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the covered savings and loan holding company meets the $100 billion asset threshold, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will not provide a covered savings and loan holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement until the first year in which the Board conducts an analysis of the covered savings and loan holding company pursuant to 12 CFR 238.132.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with the concurrence of the Board, may require a covered savings and loan holding company described in paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section to comply with any or all of the requirements of this section if the Board, or appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, determines that the requirement is appropriate on a different date based on the company's risk profile, scope of operation, or financial condition and provides prior notice to the company of the determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Average total nonbank assets</I> means the average of the total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP, for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the covered savings and loan holding company has not filed the FR Y-9LP for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital action</I> means any issuance of a debt or equity capital instrument, any capital distribution, and any similar action that the Federal Reserve determines could impact a covered savings and loan holding company's consolidated capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital distribution</I> means a redemption or repurchase of any debt or equity capital instrument, a payment of common or preferred stock dividends, a payment that may be temporarily or permanently suspended by the issuer on any instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of any minimum regulatory capital ratio, and any similar transaction that the Federal Reserve determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Capital plan</I> means a written presentation of a covered savings and loan holding company's capital planning strategies and capital adequacy process that includes the mandatory elements set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Capital plan cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Capital policy</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company's written principles and guidelines used for capital planning, capital issuance, capital usage and distributions, including internal capital goals; the quantitative or qualitative guidelines for capital distributions; the strategies for addressing potential capital shortfalls; and the internal governance procedures around capital policy principles and guidelines.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Category IV savings and loan holding company</I> means a covered savings and loan holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 238.10.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR part 217.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Effective capital distribution limitations</I> means any limitations on capital distributions established by the Board by order or regulation, including pursuant to 12 CFR 217.11, provided that, for any limitations based on risk-weighted assets, such limitations must be calculated using the standardized approach, as set forth in 12 CFR part 217, subpart D.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Final planned capital distributions</I> means the planned capital distributions included in a capital plan that include the adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, if any.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Internal baseline scenario</I> means a scenario that reflects the covered savings and loan holding company's expectation of the economic and financial outlook, including expectations related to the covered saving and loan holding company's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Internal stress scenario</I> means a scenario designed by a covered savings and loan holding company that stresses the specific vulnerabilities of the covered savings and loan holding company's risk profile and operations, including those related to the covered savings and loan holding company's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning with the quarter preceding the quarter in which the covered savings and loan holding company submits its capital plan, over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the covered savings and loan holding company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the covered savings and loan holding company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the covered savings and loan holding company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Stress capital buffer requirement</I> means the amount calculated under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Supervisory stress test</I> means a stress test conducted using a severely adverse scenario and the assumptions contained in 12 CFR part 238, subpart O.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital planning requirements and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Annual capital planning.</I> (i) A covered savings and loan holding company must develop and maintain a capital plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered savings and loan holding company must submit its complete capital plan to the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank by April 5 of each calendar year, or such later date as directed by the Board or by the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) The covered savings and loan holding company's board of directors or a designated committee thereof must at least annually and prior to submission of the capital plan under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the robustness of the covered savings and loan holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any deficiencies in the covered savings and loan holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy are appropriately remedied; and
</P>
<P>(C) Approve the covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory elements of capital plan.</I> A capital plan must contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the expected uses and sources of capital over the planning horizon that reflects the covered savings and loan holding company's size, complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations, assuming both expected and stressful conditions, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Estimates of projected revenues, losses, reserves, and pro forma capital levels, including regulatory capital ratios, and any additional capital measures deemed relevant by the covered savings and loan holding company, over the planning horizon under a range of scenarios, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the covered savings and loan holding company is a Category IV savings and loan holding company, the Internal baseline scenario and at least one Internal stress scenario, as well as any additional scenarios, based on financial conditions or the macroeconomic outlook, or based on the covered savings and loan holding company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy, that the Federal Reserve may provide the covered savings and loan holding company after giving notice to the covered savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the covered savings and loan holding company is not a Category IV savings and loan holding company, any scenarios provided by the Federal Reserve, the Internal baseline scenario, and at least one Internal stress scenario;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of the results of any stress test required by law or regulation, and an explanation of how the capital plan takes these results into account; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of all planned capital actions over the planning horizon. Planned capital actions must be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations, except as may be adjusted pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section. In determining whether a covered savings and loan holding company's planned capital distributions are consistent with effective capital distribution limitations, a covered savings and loan holding company must assume that any countercyclical capital buffer amount currently applicable to the covered savings and loan holding company remains at the same level, except that the covered savings and loan holding company must reflect any increases or decreases in the countercyclical capital buffer amount that have been announced by the Board at the times indicated by the Board's announcement for when such increases or decreases will take effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the covered savings and loan holding company's process for assessing capital adequacy, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of how the covered savings and loan holding company will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain capital commensurate with its risks, maintain capital above the regulatory capital ratios, and serve as a source of strength to its subsidiary depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of how the covered savings and loan holding company will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain sufficient capital to continue its operations by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary;
</P>
<P>(iii) The covered savings and loan holding company's capital policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A discussion of any expected changes to the covered savings and loan holding company's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered savings and loan holding company's capital adequacy or liquidity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Data collection.</I> Upon the request of the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank, the covered savings and loan holding company shall provide the Federal Reserve with information regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered savings and loan holding company's financial condition, including its capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered savings and loan holding company's structure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amount and risk characteristics of the covered savings and loan holding company's on- and off-balance sheet exposures, including exposures within the covered savings and loan holding company's trading account, other trading-related exposures (such as counterparty-credit risk exposures) or other items sensitive to changes in market factors, including, as appropriate, information about the sensitivity of positions to changes in market rates and prices;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered savings and loan holding company's relevant policies and procedures, including risk management policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(v) The covered savings and loan holding company's liquidity profile and management;
</P>
<P>(vi) The loss, revenue, and expense estimation models used by the covered savings and loan holding company for stress scenario analysis, including supporting documentation regarding each model's development and validation; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other relevant qualitative or quantitative information requested by the Board or by the appropriate Reserve Bank to facilitate review of the covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> (i) A covered savings and loan holding company must update and resubmit its capital plan to the appropriate Reserve Bank within 30 calendar days of the occurrence of one of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered savings and loan holding company determines there has been or will be a material change in the covered savings and loan holding company's risk profile, financial condition, or corporate structure since the covered savings and loan holding company last submitted the capital plan to the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank under this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, directs the covered savings and loan holding company in writing to revise and resubmit its capital plan for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The capital plan is incomplete or the capital plan, or the covered savings and loan holding company's internal capital adequacy process, contains material weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) There has been, or will likely be, a material change in the covered savings and loan holding company's risk profile (including a material change in its business strategy or any risk exposure), financial condition, or corporate structure;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Internal stress scenario(s) are not appropriate for the covered savings and loan holding company's business model and portfolios, or changes in financial markets or the macro-economic outlook that could have a material impact on a covered savings and loan holding company's risk profile and financial condition require the use of updated scenarios; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, may extend the 30-day period in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section for up to an additional 60 calendar days, or such longer period as the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank, with concurrence of the Board, determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any updated capital plan must satisfy all the requirements of this section; however, a covered savings and loan holding company may continue to rely on information submitted as part of a previously submitted capital plan to the extent that the information remains accurate and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this section and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of the stress capital buffer requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The Board will determine the stress capital buffer requirement that applies under 12 CFR 217.11 pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. For each covered savings and loan holding company that is not a Category IV savings and loan holding company, the Board will calculate the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement annually. For each Category IV savings and loan holding company, the Board will calculate the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement biennially, occurring in each calendar year ending in an even number, and will adjust the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement biennially, occurring in each calendar year ending in an odd number. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the Board will calculate the stress capital buffer requirement of a Category IV savings and loan holding company in a year ending in an odd number with respect to which that company makes an election pursuant to 12 CFR 238.132(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stress capital buffer requirement calculation.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement is equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The following calculation:
</P>
<P>(A) The ratio of a covered savings and loan holding company's common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, as of the final quarter of the previous capital plan cycle, unless otherwise determined by the Board; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The lowest projected ratio of the covered savings and loan holding company's common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; plus
</P>
<P>(C) The ratio of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sum of the covered savings and loan holding company's planned common stock dividends (expressed as a dollar amount) for each of the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon; to
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-weighted assets of the covered savings and loan holding company in the quarter in which the covered savings and loan holding company had its lowest projected ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets, as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 2.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recalculation of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> If a covered savings and loan holding company resubmits its capital plan pursuant to paragraph (e)(4) of this section, the Board may recalculate the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement. The Board will provide notice of whether the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement will be recalculated within 75 calendar days after the date on which the capital plan is resubmitted, unless the Board provides notice to the company that it is extending the time period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjustment of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> In each calendar year in which the Board does not calculate a Category IV savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the Board will adjust the Category IV savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement to be equal to the result of the calculation set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, using the same values that were used to calculate the stress capital buffer requirement most recently provided to the covered savings and loan holding company, except that the value used in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) of the calculation will be equal to the covered savings and loan holding company's planned common stock dividends (expressed as a dollar amount) for each of the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon as set forth in the capital plan submitted by the covered savings and loan holding company in the calendar year in which the Board adjusts the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review of capital plans by the Federal Reserve.</I> The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will consider the following factors in reviewing a covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The comprehensiveness of the capital plan, including the extent to which the analysis underlying the capital plan captures and addresses potential risks stemming from activities across the covered savings and loan holding company and the covered savings and loan holding company's capital policy;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasonableness of the covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan, the assumptions and analysis underlying the capital plan, and the robustness of its capital adequacy process;
</P>
<P>(3) Relevant supervisory information about the covered savings and loan holding company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) The covered savings and loan holding company's regulatory and financial reports, as well as supporting data that would allow for an analysis of the covered savings and loan holding company's loss, revenue, and reserve projections;
</P>
<P>(5) The results of any stress tests conducted by the covered savings and loan holding company or the Federal Reserve; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other information requested or required by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank, as well as any other information relevant, or related, to the savings and loan holding company's capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federal Reserve notice of stress capital buffer requirement; final planned capital distributions</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The Board will provide a covered savings and loan holding company with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test. Unless otherwise determined by the Board, notice will be provided by June 30 of the calendar year in which the capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section or within 90 calendar days of receiving notice that the Board will recalculate the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to notice</I>—(i) <I>Request for reconsideration of stress capital buffer requirement.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company may request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement provided under paragraph (h)(1) of this section. To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, a covered savings and loan holding company must submit to the Board a request pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustments to planned capital distributions.</I> Within two business days of receipt of notice of a stress capital buffer requirement under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, a covered savings and loan holding company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine whether the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect; and
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would not be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect, the covered savings and loan holding company must adjust its planned capital distributions such that its planned capital distributions would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer requirement in effect, the covered savings and loan holding company may adjust its planned capital distributions. A covered savings and loan holding company may not adjust its planned capital distributions to be inconsistent with the effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer requirement provided by the Board under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify the Board of any adjustments made to planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final planned capital distributions.</I> The Board will consider the planned capital distributions, including any adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section, to be the covered savings and loan holding company's final planned capital distributions on the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration of the time for requesting reconsideration under paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the time for adjusting planned capital distributions pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effective date of final stress capital buffer requirement.</I> (i) The Board will provide a savings and loan holding company with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of the covered savings and loan holding company's final planned capital distributions by August 31 of the calendar year that a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, unless otherwise determined by the Board. A stress capital buffer requirement will not be considered final so as to be agency action subject to judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 704 during the pendency of a request for reconsideration made pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section or before the time for requesting reconsideration has expired.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise determined by the Board, a covered savings and loan holding company's final planned capital distributions and final stress capital buffer requirement shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be effective on October 1 of the calendar year in which a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Remain in effect until superseded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication.</I> With respect to any covered savings and loan holding company subject to this section, the Board may disclose publicly any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The stress capital buffer requirement provided to a covered savings and loan holding company under paragraph (h)(1) or (i)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii);
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the results of the supervisory stress test; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other information.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Administrative remedies; request for reconsideration.</I> The following requirements and procedures apply to any request under this paragraph (i):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, provided under paragraph (h) of this section, a covered savings and loan holding company must submit a written request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of request.</I> A request for reconsideration of a stress capital buffer requirement, provided under paragraph (h) of this section, must be received within 15 calendar days of receipt of a notice of a covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of request.</I> (i) A request for reconsideration must include a detailed explanation of why reconsideration should be granted (that is, why a stress capital buffer requirement should be reconsidered). With respect to any information that was not previously provided to the Federal Reserve in the covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan, the request should include an explanation of why the information should be considered.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for reconsideration may include a request for an informal hearing on the covered savings and loan holding company's request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing.</I> (i) The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(ii) An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Response to request.</I> Within 30 calendar days of receipt of the covered savings and loan holding company's request for reconsideration of its stress capital buffer requirement submitted under paragraph (i)(2) of this section or within 30 days of the conclusion of an informal hearing conducted under paragraph (i)(4) of this section, the Board will notify the company of its decision to affirm or modify the covered savings and loan holding company's stress capital buffer requirement, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the covered savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Distributions during the pendency of a request for reconsideration.</I> During the pendency of the Board's decision under paragraph (i)(5) of this section, the covered savings and loan holding company may make capital distributions that are consistent with effective distribution limitations, unless prior approval is required under paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Approval requirements for certain capital actions</I>—(1) <I>Circumstances requiring approval</I>—<I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> Unless it receives prior approval pursuant to paragraph (j)(3) of this section, a covered savings and loan holding company may not make a capital distribution (excluding any capital distribution arising from the issuance of a capital instrument eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio) if the capital distribution would occur after the occurrence of an event requiring resubmission under paragraph (e)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for a capital distribution under this section must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan or a discussion of changes to the covered savings and loan holding company's capital plan since it was last submitted to the Federal Reserve;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the capital distribution, including for redemptions or repurchases of securities, the gross consideration to be paid and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and for dividends, the amount of the dividend(s); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any additional information requested by the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank (which may include, among other things, an assessment of the covered savings and loan holding company's capital adequacy under a severely adverse scenario, a revised capital plan, and supporting data).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval of certain capital distributions.</I> (i) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will act on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution within 30 calendar days after the receipt of all the information required under paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In acting on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution, the Board, or appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will apply the considerations and principles in paragraph (g) of this section, as appropriate. In addition, the Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, may disapprovethe transaction if the covered savings and loan holding company does not provide all of the information required to be submitted under paragraph (j)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disapproval and hearing.</I> (i) The Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, will notify the covered savings and loan holding company in writing of the reasons for a decision to disapprove any proposed capital distribution. Within 15 calendar days after receipt of a disapproval by the Board, the covered savings and loan holding company may submit a written request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if the Board finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact. An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice of the final decision of the Board shall be given to the covered savings and loan holding company within 60 calendar days of the conclusion of any informal hearing ordered by the Board, provided that the Board may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iv) While the Board's decision is pending and until such time as the Board, or the appropriate Reserve Bank with concurrence of the Board, approves the capital distribution at issue, the covered savings and loan holding company may not make such capital distribution.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Post notice requirement.</I> A covered savings and loan holding company must notify the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank within 15 days of making a capital distribution if:
</P>
<P>(1) The capital distribution was approved pursuant to paragraph (j)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The dollar amount of the capital distribution will exceed the dollar amount of the covered savings and loan holding company's final planned capital distributions, as measured on an aggregate basis beginning in the fourth quarter of the planning horizon through the quarter at issue.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="239" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 239—MUTUAL HOLDING COMPANIES (REGULATION MM)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462, 1462a, 1464, 1467a, 1828, and 2901.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. MM, 76 FR 56357, Sept. 13, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) under section 10(g) and (o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The principal purposes of this part are to:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulate the reorganization of mutual savings associations to mutual holding companies and the creation of subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies;
</P>
<P>(2) Define and regulate the operations of mutual holding companies and subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies; and
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the procedures for securing approval for these transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Except as the Board may otherwise determine, the reorganization of mutual savings associations into mutual holding companies, any related stock issuances by subsidiary holding companies, and the conversion of mutual holding companies into stock form are exclusively governed by the provisions of this part, and no mutual savings association shall reorganize to a mutual holding company, no subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company shall issue minority stock, and no mutual holding company shall convert into stock form without the prior written approval of the Board. The Board may grant a waiver in writing from any requirement of this part for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part and in the forms under this part, the following definitions apply, unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acquiree association</I> means any savings association, other than a resulting association, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is acquired by a mutual holding company as part of, and concurrently with, a mutual holding company reorganization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is in the mutual form immediately prior to such acquisition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acting in concert</I> has the same meaning as in § 238.31(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in § 238.2(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Associate</I> of a person is:
</P>
<P>(1) A corporation or organization (other than the mutual holding company, subsidiary holding company, or any majority-owned subsidiaries of such holding companies), if the person is a senior officer or partner, or beneficially owns, directly or indirectly, 10 percent or more of any class of equity securities of the corporation or organization.
</P>
<P>(2) A trust or other estate, if the person has a substantial beneficial interest in the trust or estate or is a trustee or fiduciary of the trust or estate. For purposes of §§ 239.59(k), 239.59(m), 239.59(n), 239.59(o), 239.59(p), 239.63(b), a person who has a substantial beneficial interest in the mutual holding company or subsidiary holding company's tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan, or who is a trustee or a fiduciary of the plan, is not an associate of the plan. For the purposes of § 239.59(k), the mutual holding company or subsidiary holding company's tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan is not an associate of a person.
</P>
<P>(3) Any natural person who is related by blood or marriage to such person and:
</P>
<P>(i) Who lives in the same home as the person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who is a director or senior officer of the mutual holding company, subsidiary holding company, or other subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, unincorporated organization, joint-stock company or similar organization, as defined in paragraph (u) of this section; but a company does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Resolution Trust Corporation, or any Federal Home Loan Bank, or
</P>
<P>(2) Any company the majority of shares of which is owned by:
</P>
<P>(i) The United States or any State,
</P>
<P>(ii) An officer of the United States or any State in his or her official capacity, or
</P>
<P>(iii) An instrumentality of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in § 238.2(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Default</I> means any adjudication or other official determination of a court of competent jurisdiction or other public authority pursuant to which a conservator, receiver, or other legal custodian is appointed for a mutual holding company or subsidiary savings association of a mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Demand accounts</I> mean non-interest-bearing demand deposits that are subject to check or to withdrawal or transfer on negotiable or transferable order to the savings association and that are permitted to be issued by statute, regulation, or otherwise and are payable on demand.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insider</I> means any officer or director of a company or of any affiliate of such company, and any person acting in concert with any such officer or director.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Member</I> means any depositor or borrower of a mutual savings association that is entitled, under the charter of the savings association, to vote on matters affecting the association, and any depositor or borrower of a subsidiary savings association of a mutual holding company that is entitled, under the charter of the mutual holding company, to vote on matters affecting the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Mutual holding company</I> means a holding company organized in mutual form under this part, and unless otherwise indicated, a subsidiary holding company controlled by a mutual holding company, organized under this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Parent</I> means any company which directly or indirectly controls any other company or companies.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> includes an individual, bank, corporation, partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reorganization Notice</I> means a notice of a proposed mutual holding company reorganization that is in the form and contains the information required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Reorganization Plan</I> means a plan to reorganize into the mutual holding company format containing the information required by § 239.6.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Reorganizing association</I> means a mutual savings association that proposes to reorganize to become a mutual holding company pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Resulting association</I> means a savings association in the stock form that is organized as a subsidiary of a reorganizing association to receive the substantial part of the assets and liabilities (including all deposit accounts) of the reorganizing association upon consummation of the reorganization.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Savings account</I> means any withdrawable account, except a demand account, a tax and loan account, a note account, a United States Treasury general account, or a United States Treasury time deposit-open account.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Savings Association</I> has the same meaning as in § 238.2(l) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the same meaning as specified in section 10(a)(1) of the HOLA and § 238.2(m) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Similar organization</I> for purposes of paragraph (e) of this section means a combination of parties with the potential for or practical likelihood of continuing rather than temporary existence, where the parties thereto have knowingly and voluntarily associated for a common purpose pursuant to identifiable and binding relationships which govern the parties with respect to either:
</P>
<P>(1) The transferability and voting of any stock or other indicia of participation in another entity, or
</P>
<P>(2) Achievement of a common or shared objective, such as to collectively manage or control another entity.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Stock</I> means common or preferred stock, or any other type of equity security, including (without limitation) warrants or options to acquire common or preferred stock, or other securities that are convertible into common or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Stock Issuance Plan</I> means a plan, submitted pursuant to § 239.24 and containing the information required by § 239.25, providing for the issuance of stock by a subsidiary holding company.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a person, and includes any service corporation owned in whole or in part by a savings association, or a subsidiary of such service corporation.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Subsidiary holding company</I> means a federally chartered stock holding company controlled by a mutual holding company that owns the stock of a savings association whose depositors have membership rights in the parent mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Tax and loan account</I> means an account, the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, established for receipt of payments of Federal taxes and certain United States obligations. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan</I> means any defined benefit plan or defined contribution plan, such as an employee stock ownership plan, stock bonus plan, profit-sharing plan, or other plan, and a related trust, that is qualified under sec. 401 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>United States Treasury General Account</I> means an account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, except in the case of the closure of the member, and in which a zero balance may be maintained. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Account</I> means a non-interest-bearing account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury which may not be withdrawn prior to the expiration of 30 days' written notice from the United States Treasury, or such other period of notice as the Treasury may require. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Mutual Holding Companies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.3   Mutual holding company reorganizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A mutual savings association may not reorganize to become a mutual holding company, or join in a mutual holding company reorganization as an acquiree association, unless it satisfies the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) A Reorganization Plan is approved by a majority of the board of directors of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association;
</P>
<P>(2) A Reorganization Notice is filed with the Board pursuant to § 238.14 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) The Reorganization Plan is submitted to the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association pursuant and is approved by a majority of the total votes of the members of each association eligible to be cast at a meeting held at the call of each association's directors in accordance with the procedures prescribed by each association's charter and bylaws; and
</P>
<P>(4) All necessary regulatory approvals have been obtained and all conditions imposed by the Board have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of an application under this section, the Reserve Bank will promptly furnish notice and a copy of the Reorganization Plan to the primary federal supervisor of any savings association involved in the transaction. The primary supervisor will have 30 calendar days from the date of the letter giving notice in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.4   Grounds for disapproval of reorganizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic standards.</I> The Board may disapprove a proposed mutual holding company reorganization filed pursuant to § 239.3(a) if:
</P>
<P>(1) Disapproval is necessary to prevent unsafe or unsound practices;
</P>
<P>(2) The financial or managerial resources of the reorganizing association or any acquiree association warrant disapproval;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed capitalization of the mutual holding company fails to meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) A stock issuance is proposed in connection with the reorganization pursuant to § 239.24 that fails to meet the standards established by that section;
</P>
<P>(5) The reorganizing association or any acquiree association fails to furnish the information required to be included in the Reorganization Notice or any other information requested by the Board in connection with the proposed reorganization; or
</P>
<P>(6) The proposed reorganization would violate any provision of law, including (without limitation) § 239.3(a) and (c) (regarding board of directors and membership approval) or § 239.5(a) (regarding continuity of membership rights).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capitalization.</I> (1) The Board shall disapprove a proposal by a reorganizing association or any acquiree association to capitalize a mutual holding company in an amount in excess of a nominal amount if immediately following the reorganization, the resulting association or the acquiree association would fail to be “adequately capitalized” under the regulatory capital requirements applicable to the savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposals by reorganizing associations and acquiree associations to capitalize mutual holding companies shall also comply with any applicable statutes, and with regulations or written policies of the Comptroller of the Currency or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, as applicable, governing capital distributions by savings associations in effect at the time of the reorganization.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presumptive disqualifiers</I>—(1) <I>Managerial resources.</I> The factors specified in § 238.15(d)(1)(i) through (vi) of this chapter shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that the managerial resources test of paragraph (a)(2) of this section is not met. For this purpose, each place the term <I>acquiror</I> appears in § 238.15(d)(1)(i) through (vi) of this chapter, it shall be read to mean the reorganizing association or any acquiree association, and the reference in § 238.15(d)(1)(v) of this chapter to filings under this part shall be deemed to include filings under either part 238 of this chapter or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safety and soundness and financial resources.</I> Failure by a reorganizing association and any acquiree association to submit a business plan in connection with a Reorganization Notice, or submission of a business plan that projects activities that are inconsistent with the credit and lending needs of the reorganizing association or acquiree association's proposed market area or that fails to demonstrate that the capital of the mutual holding company will be deployed in a safe and sound manner, shall give rise to a rebuttable presumption that the safety and soundness and financial resources tests of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure of the Board to act on a Reorganization Notice within the prescribed time period.</I> A proposed reorganization that obtains regulatory clearance from the Board due to the operation of § 238.14 of this chapter may take place in the manner proposed, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The reorganization shall be consummated within one year of the date of the expiration of the Board's review period under § 238.14 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company shall not be capitalized in an amount in excess of what is permissible under § 239.4(b);
</P>
<P>(3) No request for regulatory waivers or forbearances shall be deemed granted;
</P>
<P>(4) The following information shall be submitted within the specified time frames:
</P>
<P>(i) On the business day prior to the date of the reorganization, the chief financial officers of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association shall certify to the Board in writing that no material adverse events or material adverse changes have occurred with respect to the financial condition or operations of their respective associations since the date of the financial statements submitted with the Reorganization Notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than thirty days after the reorganization, the mutual holding company shall file with the Board a certification by legal counsel stating the effective date of the reorganization, the exact number of shares of stock of the resulting association and any acquiree association acquired by the mutual holding company and by any other persons, and that the reorganization has been consummated in accordance with § 239.3 and all other applicable laws and regulations and the Reorganization Notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) No later than thirty days after the reorganization, the mutual holding company shall file with the Board an opinion from its independent auditors certifying that the reorganization was consummated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; and
</P>
<P>(iv) No later than thirty days after the reorganization, the mutual holding company shall file with the Board a certification stating that the mutual holding company will not deviate materially, or cause its subsidiary savings associations to deviate materially, from the business plan submitted in connection with the Reorganization Notice, unless prior written approval from the Board is obtained.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.5   Membership rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Depositors and borrowers of resulting associations, acquiree associations, and associations in mutual form when acquired.</I> The charter of a mutual holding company must:
</P>
<P>(1) Confer upon existing and future depositors of the resulting association the same membership rights in the mutual holding company as were conferred upon depositors by the charter of the reorganizing association as in effect immediately prior to the reorganization;
</P>
<P>(2) Confer upon existing and future depositors of any acquiree association or any association that is in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company the same membership rights in the mutual holding company as were conferred upon depositors by the charter of the acquired association immediately prior to acquisition, <I>provided that</I> if the acquired association is merged into another association from which the mutual holding company draws members, the depositors of the acquired association shall receive the same membership rights as the depositors of the association into which the acquired association is merged;
</P>
<P>(3) Confer upon the borrowers of the resulting association who are borrowers at the time of reorganization the same membership rights in the mutual holding company as were conferred upon them by the charter of the reorganizing association immediately prior to reorganization, but shall not confer any membership rights in connection with any borrowings made after the reorganization; and
</P>
<P>(4) Confer upon the borrowers of any acquiree association or any association that is in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company who are borrowers at the time of the acquisition the same membership rights in the mutual holding company as were conferred upon them by the charter of the acquired association immediately prior to acquisition, but shall not confer any membership rights in connection with any borrowings made after the acquisition, <I>provided that</I> if the acquired association is merged into another association from which the mutual holding company draws members, the borrowers of the acquired association shall instead receive the same grandfathered membership rights as the borrowers of the association into which the acquired association is merged received at the time that association became a subsidiary of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Depositors and borrowers of associations in the stock form when acquired.</I> A mutual holding company that acquires a savings association in the stock form, other than a resulting association or an acquiree association, shall not confer any membership rights upon the depositors and borrowers of such association, unless such association is merged into an association from which the mutual holding company draws members, in which case the depositors of the stock association shall receive the same membership rights as other depositors of the association into which the stock association is merged.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.6   Contents of Reorganization Plans.</HEAD>
<P>Each Reorganization Plan shall contain a complete description of all significant terms of the proposed reorganization, shall attach and incorporate any Stock Issuance Plan proposed in connection with the Reorganization Plan, and shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide for amendment of the charter and bylaws of the reorganizing association to read in the form of the charter and bylaws of a mutual holding company, and attach and incorporate such charter and bylaws;
</P>
<P>(b) Provide for the organization of the resulting association, which shall be an interim federal or state subsidiary savings association of the reorganizing association, and attach and incorporate the proposed charter and bylaws of such association;
</P>
<P>(c) If the reorganizing association proposes to form a subsidiary holding company, provide for the organization of a subsidiary holding company and attach and incorporate the proposed charter and bylaws of such subsidiary holding company.
</P>
<P>(d) Provide for amendment of the charter and bylaws of any acquiree association to read in the form of the charter and bylaws of a state or federal savings association in the stock form, and attach and incorporate such charter and bylaws;
</P>
<P>(e) Provide that, upon consummation of the reorganization, substantially all of the assets and liabilities (including all savings accounts, demand accounts, tax and loan accounts, United States Treasury General Accounts, or United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Accounts, as those terms are defined in this part) of the reorganizing association shall be transferred to the resulting association, which shall thereupon become an operating subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company;
</P>
<P>(f) Provide that all assets, rights, obligations, and liabilities of whatever nature of the reorganizing association that are not expressly retained by the mutual holding company shall be deemed transferred to the resulting association;
</P>
<P>(g) Provide that each depositor in the reorganizing association or any acquiree association immediately prior to the reorganization shall upon consummation of the reorganization receive, without payment, an identical account in the resulting association or the acquiree association, as the case may be (Appropriate modifications should be made to this provision if savings associations are being merged as a part of the reorganization);
</P>
<P>(h) Provide that the Reorganization Plan as adopted by the boards of directors of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association may be substantively amended by those boards of directors as a result of comments from regulatory authorities or otherwise prior to the solicitation of proxies from the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association to vote on the Reorganization Plan and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board; and that the reorganization may be terminated by the board of directors of the reorganizing association or any acquiree association at any time prior to the meeting of the members of the association called to consider the Reorganization Plan and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board;
</P>
<P>(i) Provide that the Reorganization Plan shall be terminated if not completed within a specified period of time (The time period shall not be more than 24 months from the date upon which the members of the reorganizing association or the date upon which the members of any acquiree association, whichever is earlier, approve the Reorganization Plan and may not be extended by the reorganizing or acquiree association); and
</P>
<P>(j) Provide that the expenses incurred in connection with the reorganization shall be reasonable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.7   Acquisition and disposition of savings associations, savings and loan holding companies, and other corporations by mutual holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acquisitions</I>—(1) <I>Stock savings associations.</I> A mutual holding company may not acquire control of a savings association that is in the stock form unless the necessary approvals are obtained from the Board, including approval pursuant to § 238.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mutual savings associations.</I> A mutual holding company may not acquire a savings association in the mutual form by merger of such association into any subsidiary savings association of such holding company from which the parent mutual holding company draws members or into an interim subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed acquisition is approved by a majority of the board of directors of the mutual association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed acquisition is submitted to the mutual association's members and is approved by a majority of the total votes of the association's members eligible to be cast at a meeting held at the call of the association's directors in accordance with the procedures prescribed by the association's charter and bylaws;
</P>
<P>(iii) The necessary approvals are obtained from the Board, including approval pursuant to § 238.11 of this chapter, and any other approvals required to form an interim association, to amend the charter and bylaws of the association being acquired, and/or to amend the charter and bylaws of the mutual holding company consistent with § 239.6(a); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The approval of the members of the mutual holding company is obtained, if the Board advises the mutual holding company in writing that such approval will be required.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mutual holding companies.</I> A mutual holding company that is not a subsidiary holding company may not acquire control of another mutual holding company, including a subsidiary holding company, by merging with or into such company, unless the necessary approvals are obtained from the Board, including approval pursuant to § 238.11 of this chapter. The approval of the members of the mutual holding companies shall also be obtained if the Board advises the mutual holding companies in writing that such approval will be required.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stock holding companies.</I> A mutual holding company may not acquire control of a savings and loan holding company in the stock form that is not a subsidiary holding company, unless the necessary approvals are obtained from the Board, including approval pursuant to § 238.11 of this chapter. The acquired holding company may be held as a subsidiary of the mutual holding company or merged into the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-controlling acquisitions of savings association stock.</I> A mutual holding company may acquire non-controlling amounts of the stock of savings associations and savings and loan holding companies subject to the restrictions imposed by 12 U.S.C. 1467a(e) and (q) and §§ 238.41 and 238.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other corporations.</I> A mutual holding company may not acquire control of, or make non-controlling investments in the stock of, any corporation other than a savings association or savings and loan holding company unless:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Such corporation is engaged exclusively in activities that are permissible for mutual holding companies pursuant to § 239.8(a); or
</P>
<P>(B) It is lawful for the stock of such corporation to be purchased by a federal savings association under the applicable regulations of the Comptroller of the Currency or by a state savings association under the applicable regulations of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the laws of any state where any subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company has its home office; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such corporation is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dispositions.</I> (1) A mutual holding company shall provide written notice to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the effective date of any direct or indirect transfer of any of the stock that it holds in a subsidiary holding company, a resulting association, an acquiree association, or any subsidiary savings association that was in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company, including stock transferred in connection with a pledge pursuant to § 239.8(b) or any transfer of all or a substantial portion of the assets or liabilities of any such subsidiary holding company or association. Any such disposition shall comply with the requirements of this part, as appropriate, and with any other applicable statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) A mutual holding company may, subject to applicable laws and regulations, transfer any or all of the stock or cause or permit the transfer of any or all of the assets and liabilities of:
</P>
<P>(i) Any subsidiary savings association that was in the stock form when acquired, provided such association is not a resulting association or an acquiree association;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any subsidiary holding company acquired pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any corporation other than a savings association or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) A mutual holding company may, subject to applicable laws and regulations, transfer any stock acquired pursuant to paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) No transfer authorized by this section may be made to any insider of the mutual holding company, any associate of an insider of the mutual holding company, or any tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the mutual holding company unless the mutual holding company provides notice to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the effective date of the proposed transfer. This notice shall be in addition to any other application or notice required under applicable laws or regulations, including those imposed by this part or Regulation LL.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.8   Operating restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Activities restrictions.</I> A mutual holding company may engage in any business activity specified in 12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(2) or (c)(9)(A)(ii). In addition, the business activities of subsidiaries of mutual holding companies may include the activities specified in § 239.7(a)(6). A mutual holding company or its subsidiaries may engage in the foregoing activities only upon compliance with the procedures specified in §§ 238.53(c) or 238.54(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pledging stock.</I> (1) No mutual holding company may pledge the stock of its resulting association, an acquiree association, or any subsidiary savings association that was in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company (or its parent mutual holding company), unless the proceeds of the loan secured by the pledge are infused into the association whose stock is pledged. No mutual holding company may pledge the stock of its subsidiary holding company unless the proceeds of the loan secured by the pledge are infused into any subsidiary savings association of the subsidiary holding company that is a resulting association, an acquiree association, or a subsidiary savings association that was in the mutual form when acquired by the subsidiary holding company (or its parent mutual holding company). In the event the subsidiary holding company has more than one subsidiary savings association, the loan proceeds shall, unless otherwise approved by the Board, be infused in equal amounts to each subsidiary savings association. Any amount of the stock of such association or subsidiary holding company may be pledged for these purposes. Nothing in this paragraph shall be deemed to prohibit:
</P>
<P>(i) The payment of dividends from a subsidiary savings association to its mutual holding company parent to the extent otherwise permissible; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment of dividends from a subsidiary holding company to its mutual holding company parent to the extent otherwise permissible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A mutual holding company from pledging the stock of more than one subsidiary savings association provided that the stock pledged of each such subsidiary association is proportionate to the proceeds of the loan infused into each subsidiary association.
</P>
<P>(2) Any mutual holding company that fails to make any payment on a loan secured by the pledge of stock pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section on or before the date on which such payment is due shall, on the first day after such payment is due, provide written notice of nonpayment to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on stock repurchases.</I> (1) No subsidiary holding company that has any stockholders other than its parent mutual holding company may repurchase any share of stock within one year of its date of issuance (which may include the time period the shares issued by the savings association were outstanding if the subsidiary holding company was formed after the initial issuance by the savings association), unless the repurchase:
</P>
<P>(i) Is in compliance with the requirements set forth in § 239.63;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is part of a general repurchase made on a pro rata basis pursuant to an offer approved by the Board and made to all stockholders of the association or subsidiary holding company (except that the parent mutual holding company may be excluded from the repurchase with the Board's approval);
</P>
<P>(iii) Is limited to the repurchase of qualifying shares of a director; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is purchased in the open market by a tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the savings association (or of a subsidiary holding company) in an amount reasonable and appropriate to fund such plan.
</P>
<P>(2) No mutual holding company may purchase shares of its subsidiary savings association or subsidiary holding company within one year after a stock issuance, except if the purchase complies with § 239.63. For purposes of this section, the reference in § 239.63 to five percent refers to minority shareholders.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions on waiver of dividends.</I> (1) A mutual holding company may waive the right to receive any dividend declared by a subsidiary of the mutual holding company, if—
</P>
<P>(i) No insider of the mutual holding company, associate of an insider, or tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the mutual holding company holds any share of the stock in the class of stock to which the waiver would apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company gives written notice to the Board of the intent of the mutual holding company to waive the right to receive dividends, not later than 30 days before the date of the proposed date of payment of the dividend, and the Board does not object to the waiver.
</P>
<P>(2) A notice of a waiver under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section shall include a copy of the resolution of the board of directors of the mutual holding company together with any supporting materials relied upon by the board of directors of the mutual holding company, concluding that the proposed dividend waiver is consistent with the fiduciary duties of the board of directors to the mutual members of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>The resolution shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the conflict of interest that exists because of a mutual holding company director's ownership of stock in the subsidiary declaring dividends and any actions the mutual holding company and board of directors have taken to eliminate the conflict of interest, such as waiver by the directors of their right to receive dividends;
</P>
<P>(ii) A finding by the mutual holding company's board of directors that the waiver of dividends is consistent with the board of directors' fiduciary duties despite any conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the mutual holding company has pledged the stock of a subsidiary holding company or subsidiary savings association as collateral for a loan made to the mutual holding company, or is subject to any other loan agreement, an affirmation that the mutual holding company is able to meet the terms of the loan agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An affirmation that a majority of the mutual members of the mutual holding company eligible to vote have, within the 12 months prior to the declaration date of the dividend by the subsidiary of the mutual holding company, approved a waiver of dividends by the mutual holding company, and any proxy statement used in connection with the member vote contained—
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the proposed waiver of dividends by the mutual holding company and the reasons the board of directors requested the waiver of dividends;
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure of any mutual holding company director's ownership of stock in the subsidiary declaring dividends and any actions the mutual holding company and board of directors have taken to eliminate the conflict of interest, such as the directors waiving their right to receive dividends; and
</P>
<P>(C) A provision providing that the proxy concerning the waiver of dividends given by the mutual members may be used for no more than 12 months from the date it is given.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may not object to a waiver of dividends under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The waiver would not be detrimental to the safe and sound operation of the savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The board of directors of the mutual holding company expressly determines that a waiver of the dividend by the mutual holding company is consistent with the fiduciary duties of the board of directors to the mutual members of the mutual holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The mutual holding company has, prior to December 1, 2009—
</P>
<P>(A) Reorganized into a mutual holding company under section 10(o) of HOLA;
</P>
<P>(B) Issued minority stock either from its mid-tier stock holding company or its subsidiary stock savings association; and
</P>
<P>(C) Waived dividends it had a right to receive from the subsidiary stock savings association.
</P>
<P>(4) For a mutual holding company that does not meet each of the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Board will not object to a waiver of dividends under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section if—:
</P>
<P>(i) The savings association currently operates in a manner consistent with the safe and sound operation of a savings association, and the waiver is not detrimental to the safe and sound operation of the savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mutual holding company has pledged the stock of a subsidiary holding company or subsidiary savings association as collateral for a loan made to the mutual holding company, or is subject to any other loan agreement, an affirmation that the mutual holding company is able to meet the terms of the loan agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Within the 12 months prior to the declaration date of the dividend by the subsidiary of the mutual holding company, a majority of the mutual members of the mutual holding company has approved the waiver of dividends by the mutual holding company. Any proxy statement used in connection with the member vote must contain—
</P>
<P>(A) A detailed description of the proposed waiver of dividends by the mutual holding company and the reasons the board of directors requested the waiver of dividends;
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure of any mutual holding company director's ownership of stock in the subsidiary declaring dividends and any actions the mutual holding company and board of directors have taken to eliminate the conflict of interest, such as the directors waiving their right to receive dividends; and
</P>
<P>(C) A provision providing that the proxy concerning the waiver of dividends given by the mutual members may be used for no more than 12 months from the date it is given;
</P>
<P>(iv) The board of directors of the mutual holding company expressly determines that the waiver of dividends is consistent with the board of directors' fiduciary duties despite any conflict of interest;
</P>
<P>(v)(A) A majority of the entire board of directors of the mutual holding company approves the waiver of dividends and any director with direct or indirect ownership, control, or the power to vote shares of the subsidiary declaring the dividend, or who otherwise directly or indirectly benefits through an associate from the waiver of dividends, has abstained from the board vote; or
</P>
<P>(B) Each officer or director of the mutual holding company or its affiliates, associate of such officer or director, and any tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan in which such officer or director participates that holds any share of the stock in the class of stock to which the waiver would apply waives the right to receive any dividend declared by a subsidiary of the mutual holding company;
</P>
<P>(vi) The Board does not object to the amount of dividends declared by a subsidiary of the mutual holding company. In reviewing whether a declaration by a subsidiary of the mutual holding company is appropriate, the Board may consider, among other factors, the reasonableness of the entire dividend distribution declared if the waiver is not approved;
</P>
<P>(vii) The waived dividends are excluded from the capital accounts of the subsidiary holding company or savings association, as applicable, for purposes of calculating any future dividend payments;
</P>
<P>(viii) The mutual holding company appropriately accounts for all waived dividends in a manner that permits the Board to consider the waived dividends in evaluating the proposed exchange ratio in the event of a full conversion of the mutual holding company to stock form; and
</P>
<P>(ix) The mutual holding company complies with such other conditions as the Board may require to prevent conflicts of interest or actions detrimental to the safe and sound operation of the savings association.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Valuation.</I> (i) The Board will consider waived dividends in determining an appropriate exchange ratio in the event of a full conversion to stock form.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a savings association that has reorganized into a mutual holding company, has issued minority stock from a mid-tier stock holding company or a subsidiary stock savings association of the mutual holding company, and has waived dividends it had a right to receive from a subsidiary savings association before December 1, 2009, the Board shall not consider waived dividends in determining an appropriate exchange ratio in the event of a full conversion to stock form.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on issuance of stock to insiders.</I> A subsidiary of a mutual holding company that is not a savings association or subsidiary holding company may issue stock to any insider, associate of an insider or tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the mutual holding company or any subsidiary of the mutual holding company, provided that such persons or plans provide written notice to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the stock issuance, and the Reserve Bank or the Board does not object to the subsequent stock issuance. Subsidiary holding companies may issue stock to such persons only in accordance with § 239.24.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Applicability of rules governing savings and loan holding companies.</I> Except as expressly provided in this part, mutual holding companies shall be subject to the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1467a and 3201 <I>et seq.</I> and the provisions of parts 207, 228, and 238 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Separate vote for charitable organization contribution.</I> In a mutual holding company stock issuance, a separate vote of a majority of the outstanding shares of common stock held by stockholders other than the mutual holding company or subsidiary holding company must approve any charitable organization contribution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.9   Conversion or liquidation of mutual holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conversion</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> A mutual holding company may convert to the stock form in accordance with the rules and regulations set forth in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Exchange of subsidiary savings association or subsidiary holding company stock. Any stock issued by a subsidiary savings association, or by a subsidiary holding company pursuant to § 239.24, of a mutual holding company to persons other than the parent mutual holding company may be exchanged for the stock issued by the successor to parent mutual holding company in connection with the conversion of the parent mutual holding company to stock form. The parent mutual holding company and the subsidiary holding company must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the basis for the exchange is fair and reasonable.
</P>
<P>(3) If a subsidiary holding company or subsidiary savings association has issued shares to an entity other than the mutual holding company, the conversion of the mutual holding company to stock form may not be consummated unless a majority of the shares issued to entities other than the mutual holding company vote in favor of the conversion. This requirement applies in addition to any otherwise required account holder or shareholder votes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Involuntary liquidation.</I> (1) The Board may file a petition with the federal bankruptcy courts requesting the liquidation of a mutual holding company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)(9) and title 11, United States Code, upon the occurrence of any of the following events:
</P>
<P>(i) The default of the resulting association, any acquiree association, or any subsidiary savings association of the mutual holding company that was in the mutual form when acquired by the mutual holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The default of the parent mutual holding company or its subsidiary holding company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreclosure on any pledge by the mutual holding company of subsidiary savings association stock or subsidiary holding company stock.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the net proceeds of any liquidation of any mutual holding company shall be transferred to the members of the mutual holding company and, if applicable, the stock holders of the subsidiary holding company in accordance with the charter of the mutual holding company and, if applicable, the charter of the subsidiary holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC incurs a loss as a result of the default of any subsidiary savings association of a mutual holding company and that mutual holding company is liquidated pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the FDIC shall succeed to the membership interests of the depositors of such savings association in the mutual holding company to the extent of the FDIC's loss.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voluntary liquidation.</I> The provisions of § 239.16 shall apply to mutual holding companies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.10   Procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proxies and proxy statements</I>—(1) <I>Solicitation of proxies.</I> The provisions of §§ 239.56 and 239.57(a) through (d) and (f) through (h) shall apply to all solicitations of proxies by any person in connection with any membership vote required by this part. Proxy materials must be in the form specified by the Board and contain the information specified in §§ 239.57(b) and 239.57(d), to the extent such information is relevant to the action that members are being asked to approve, with such additions, deletions, and other modifications as are required under this part, or as are necessary or appropriate under the disclosure standard set forth in § 239.57(f). File proxies and proxy statements in accordance with § 239.55(c) and address them to the appropriate Reserve Bank. For purposes of this paragraph, the term <I>conversion,</I> as it appears in the provisions of part subpart E of this part, refers to <I>the reorganization, the stock issuance,</I> or <I>other corporate action,</I> as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional proxy disclosure requirements.</I> In addition to the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, all proxies requesting accountholder approval of a mutual holding company reorganization shall address in detail:
</P>
<P>(i) The reasons for the reorganization, including the relative advantages and disadvantages of undertaking the transaction proposed instead of a standard conversion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether management believes the reorganization is in the best interests of the association and its accountholders and the basis of that belief;
</P>
<P>(iii) The fiduciary duties owed to accountholders by the association's officers and directors and why the reorganization is in accord with those duties and is otherwise equitable to the accountholders and the association;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any compensation agreements that will be entered into by management in connection with the reorganization; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the mutual holding company intends to waive dividends, the implications to accountholders, and the reasons such waivers are consistent with the fiduciary duties of the directors of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonconforming minority stock issuances.</I> Subsidiary holding companies proposing non-conforming minority stock issuances pursuant to § 239.24(c)(6)(ii) must include in the proxy materials to accountholders seeking approval of a proposed reorganization an additional disclosure statement that serves as a cover sheet that clearly addresses:
</P>
<P>(i) The consequences to accountholders of voting to approve a reorganization in which their subscription rights are prioritized differently and potentially eliminated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any intent by the mutual holding company to waive dividends, and the implications to accountholders.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use of “running” proxies.</I> Unless otherwise prohibited, a mutual holding company may make use of any proxy conferring general authority to vote on any and all matters at any meeting of members, provided that the member granting such proxy has been furnished a proxy statement regarding the matters and the member does not grant a later-dated proxy to vote at the meeting at which the matter will be considered or attend such meeting and vote in person, and further provided that “running” proxies or similar proxies may not be used to vote for a mutual holding company reorganization, mutual-to-stock conversion undertaken by a mutual holding company, dividend waiver, or any other material transaction. Subject to the limitations set forth in this paragraph, any proxy conferring on the board of directors or officers of a mutual savings association general authority to cast a member's votes on any and all matters presented to the members shall be deemed to cover the member's votes as a member of the mutual holding company and such authority shall be conferred on the board of directors or officers of a mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applications under this part.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, any application, notice or certification required to be filed with the Board under this part must be filed in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter. The Board will review any filing made under this part in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reorganization Notices and stock issuance applications</I>—(1) <I>Contents.</I> Each Reorganization Notice submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank pursuant to § 239.3(a) and each application for approval of the issuance of stock submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank pursuant to § 239.24(a) shall be in the form and contain the information specified by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing instructions.</I> Any Reorganization Notice submitted under § 239.3(a) must be filed in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter. Any stock issuance application submitted pursuant to § 239.24(a) shall be filed in accordance with § 239.55.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public notice, public comment, and meetings.</I> Mutual holding company reorganizations are subject to applicable public notice, public comment, and meeting requirements under the Bank Merger Act regulations at § 238.11(e) of this chapter and the Savings and Loan Holding Company Act regulations at § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendments.</I> Any mutual holding company may amend any notice or application submitted pursuant to this part or file additional information with respect thereto upon request of the Board or upon the mutual holding company's own initiative.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time-frames.</I> All Reorganization Notices and applications filed pursuant to this part must be processed in accordance with the processing procedures at § 238.14 of this chapter. Any related approvals requested in connection with Reorganization Notices or applications for approval of stock issuances (including, without limitation, requests for approval to transfer assets to resulting associations, to acquire acquiree associations, and to organize resulting associations or interim associations, and requests for approval of charters, bylaws, and stock forms) shall be processed pursuant to the procedures specified in this section in conjunction with the Reorganization Notice or stock issuance application to which they pertain, rather than pursuant to any inconsistent procedures specified elsewhere in this chapter. The approval standards for all such related applications, however, shall remain unchanged. The review by the Board of any materials used in connection with the issuance of stock under § 239.24 must not be subject to the applications processing time-frames set forth in §§ 238.14(f) and (g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure.</I> The rules governing disclosure of any notice or application submitted pursuant to this part, or any public comment submitted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, shall be the same as set forth in § 238.14(b) of this chapter for notices, applications, and public comments filed under § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appeals.</I> Any party aggrieved by a final action by the Board which approves or disapproves any application or notice pursuant to this part may obtain review of such action in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1467a(j).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Federal preemption.</I> This part preempts state law with regard to the creation and regulation of mutual holding companies.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.11   Subsidiary holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Subsidiary holding companies.</I> A mutual holding company may establish a subsidiary holding company as a direct subsidiary to hold 100 percent of the stock of its subsidiary savings association. The formation and operation of the subsidiary holding company may not be utilized as a means to evade or frustrate the purposes of this part. The subsidiary holding company may be established either at the time of the initial mutual holding company reorganization or at a subsequent date, subject to the approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stock issuances.</I> §§ 239.24 and 239.25 apply to issuance of stock by a subsidiary holding company. In the case of a stock issuance by a subsidiary holding company, the aggregate amount of outstanding common stock of the association owned or controlled by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance shall be less than 50 percent of the subsidiary holding company's total outstanding common stock.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charters and bylaws for subsidiary holding companies.</I> The charter and bylaws of a subsidiary holding company shall be in the form set forth in Appendices B and D, respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.12   Communication between members of a mutual holding company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of communication with other members.</I> A member of a mutual holding company has the right to communicate, as prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, with other members of the mutual holding company regarding any matter related to the mutual holding company's affairs, except for “improper” communications, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section. The mutual holding company may not defeat that right by redeeming a savings member's savings account in the subsidiary savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member communication procedures.</I> If a member of a mutual holding company desires to communicate with other members, the following procedures shall be followed:
</P>
<P>(1) The member shall give the mutual holding company a written request to communicate;
</P>
<P>(2) If the proposed communication is in connection with a meeting of the mutual holding company's members, the request shall be given at least thirty days before the annual meeting or 10 days before a special meeting;
</P>
<P>(3) The request shall contain—
</P>
<P>(i) The member's full name and address;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nature and extent of the member's interest in the mutual holding company at the time the information is given;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the proposed communication; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the communication is in connection with a meeting of the members, the date of the meeting;
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company shall reply to the request within either—
</P>
<P>(i) Fourteen days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ten days, if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Three days, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting;
</P>
<P>(5) The reply shall provide either—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of the mutual holding company's members and the estimated reasonable cost to the mutual holding company of mailing to them the proposed communication; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notification that the mutual holding company has determined not to mail the communication because it is “improper”, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(6) After receiving the amount of the estimated costs of mailing and sufficient copies of the communication, the mutual holding company shall mail the communication to all members, by a class of mail specified by the requesting member, either—
</P>
<P>(i) Within fourteen days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Within seven days, if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting;
</P>
<P>(iii) As soon as practicable before the meeting, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On a later date specified by the member;
</P>
<P>(7) If the mutual holding company refuses to mail the proposed communication, it shall return the requesting member's materials together with a written statement of the specific reasons for refusal, and shall simultaneously send to the appropriate Reserve Bank a copy of each of the requesting member's materials, the mutual holding company's written statement, and any other relevant material. The materials shall be sent within:
</P>
<P>(i) Fourteen days,
</P>
<P>(ii) Ten days if the communication is in connection with the annual meeting, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Three days, if the communication is in connection with a special meeting, after the mutual holding company receives the request for communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Improper communication.</I> A communication is an “improper communication” if it contains material which:
</P>
<P>(1) At the time and in the light of the circumstances under which it is made:
</P>
<P>(i) Is false or misleading with respect to any material fact; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Omits a material fact necessary to make the statements therein not false or misleading, or necessary to correct a statement in an earlier communication on the same subject which has become false or misleading;
</P>
<P>(2) Relates to a personal claim or a personal grievance, or is solicitous of personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;
</P>
<P>(3) Relates to any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause, that is not significantly related to the business of the mutual holding company or is not within the control of the mutual holding company; or
</P>
<P>(4) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation:
</P>
<P>(i) Impugns character, integrity, or personal reputation,
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Makes statements impugning the stability and soundness of the mutual holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.13   Charters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charters.</I> The charter of a mutual holding company shall be in the form set forth in appendix A of this part and may be amended pursuant to this paragraph. The Board may amend the form of charter set forth in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corporate title.</I> The corporate title of each mutual holding company shall include the term “mutual” or the abbreviation “M.H.C.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of charter.</I> A mutual holding company shall make available to its members at all times in the offices of each subsidiary savings association from which the mutual holding company draws members a true copy of its charter, including any amendments, and shall deliver such a copy to any member upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.14   Charter amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In order to adopt a charter amendment, a mutual holding company must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors approval.</I> The board of directors of the mutual holding company must adopt a resolution proposing the charter amendment that states the text of such amendment;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of filing</I>—

(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> If the proposed charter amendment would render more difficult or discourage a merger, proxy contest, the assumption of control by a mutual account holder of the mutual holding company, or the removal of incumbent management; or involve a significant issue of law or policy; then, the mutual holding shall submit the charter amendment to the appropriate Reserve Bank for approval. Applications submitted under this paragraph are subject to the processing procedures at § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice requirement.</I> If the proposed charter amendment does not implicate paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and is permissible under all applicable laws, rules and regulations, the mutual holding company shall submit the proposed amendment to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the effective date of the proposed charter amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval.</I> Any charter amendment filed pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section shall automatically be approved 30 days from the date of filing of such amendment with the appropriate Reserve Bank, provided that the mutual holding company follows the requirements of its charter in adopting such amendment, unless the Reserve Bank or the Board notifies the mutual holding company prior to the expiration of such 30-day period that such amendment is rejected or is deemed to be filed under the provisions of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. Notwithstanding anything in paragraph (a) of this section to the contrary, the following charter amendments, including the adoption of the Federal mutual holding company charter as set forth in appendix A, shall be effective and deemed approved at the time of adoption, if adopted without change and filed with Board, within 30 days after adoption, provided the mutual holding company follows the requirements of its charter in adopting such amendments.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Title change.</I> (i) Subject to § 239.13 and this paragraph (b), a mutual holding company may amend its charter by substituting a new corporate title in section 1 of its charter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to changing its corporate title, a mutual holding company must file with the Board a written notice indicating the intended change. The Board shall provide to the mutual holding company a timely written acknowledgment stating when the notice was received. If, within 30 days of receipt of notice, the Board does not notify the mutual holding company of its objection to the corporate title change on the grounds that the title misrepresents the nature of the institution or the services it offers, the mutual holding company may change its title by amending its charter in accordance with § 239.14(b) or § 239.22 and the amendment provisions of its charter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum number of votes.</I> A mutual holding company may amend section 5 of its charter by substituting the maximum number of votes per member to any number from 1 to 1000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reissuance of charter.</I> A mutual holding company that has amended its charter may apply to have its charter, including the amendments, reissued by the Board. Such request for reissuance should be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.15   Bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A mutual holding company shall operate under bylaws that contain provisions that comply with all requirements specified by the Board, the provisions of this section, the mutual holding company's charter, and all other applicable laws, rules, and regulations <I>provided that,</I> a bylaw provision inconsistent with the provisions of this section may be adopted with the approval of the Board. Bylaws may be adopted, amended or repealed by a majority of the votes cast by the members at a legal meeting or a majority of the mutual holding company's board of directors. Throughout this section, the term “trustee” may be substituted for the term “director” as relevant.
</P>
<P>(b) The following requirements are applicable to mutual holding companies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual meetings of members.</I> A mutual holding company shall provide for and conduct an annual meeting of its members for the election of directors and at which any other business of the mutual holding company may be conducted. Such meeting shall be held, as designated by its board of directors, at a location within the state that constitutes the principal place of business of the subsidiary savings association, or at any other convenient place the board of directors may designate, and at a date and time within 150 days after the end of the mutual holding company's fiscal year. At each annual meeting, the officers shall make a full report of the financial condition of the mutual holding company and of its progress for the preceding year and shall outline a program for the succeeding year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special meetings of members.</I> Procedures for calling any special meeting of the members and for conducting such a meeting shall be set forth in the bylaws. The subject matter of such special meeting must be established in the notice for such meeting. The board of directors of the mutual holding company or the holders of 10 percent or more of the voting capital shall be entitled to call a special meeting. For purposes of this section, “voting capital” means FDIC-insured deposits as of the voting record date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of meeting of members.</I> Notice specifying the date, time, and place of the annual or any special meeting and adequately describing any business to be conducted shall be published for two successive weeks immediately prior to the week in which such meeting shall convene in a newspaper of general circulation in the city or county in which the principal place of business of the subsidiary savings association is located, or mailed postage prepaid at least 15 days and not more than 45 days prior to the date on which such meeting shall convene to each of its members of record at the last address appearing on the books of the mutual holding company. A similar notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place in each of the offices of the subsidiary savings association during the 14 days immediately preceding the date on which such meeting shall convene. The bylaws may permit a member to waive in writing any right to receive personal delivery of the notice. When any meeting is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjournment and reconvening of the meeting shall be given as in the case of the original meeting.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fixing of record date.</I> For the purpose of determining members entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of members or any adjournment thereof, or in order to make a determination of members for any other proper purpose, the bylaws shall provide for the fixing of a record date and a method for determining from the books of the subsidiary savings association the members entitled to vote. Such date shall be not more than 60 days or fewer than 10 days prior to the date on which the action, requiring such determination of members, is to be taken. The same determination shall apply to any adjourned meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Member quorum.</I> Any number of members present and voting, represented in person or by proxy, at a regular or special meeting of the members shall constitute a quorum. A majority of all votes cast at any meeting of the members shall determine any question, unless otherwise required by regulation. At any adjourned meeting, any business may be transacted that might have been transacted at the meeting as originally called. Members present at a duly constituted meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Voting by proxy.</I> Procedures shall be established for voting at any annual or special meeting of the members by proxy pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Board, including the placing of such proxies on file with the secretary of the mutual holding company, for verification, prior to the convening of such meeting. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the member. All proxies with a term greater than eleven months or solicited at the expense of the subsidiary savings association must run to the board of directors as a whole, or to a committee appointed by a majority of such board.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Communications between members.</I> Provisions relating to communications between members shall be consistent with § 239.12. No member, however, shall have the right to inspect or copy any portion of any books or records of a mutual holding company containing:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of depositors in or borrowers from the subsidiary savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) Their addresses;
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual deposit or loan balances or records; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any data from which such information could be reasonably constructed.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Number of directors, membership.</I> The bylaws shall set forth a specific number of directors, not a range. The number of directors shall be not fewer than five nor more than fifteen, unless a higher or lower number has been authorized by the Board. Each director of the mutual holding company shall be a member of the mutual holding company. Directors may be elected for periods of one to three years and until their successors are elected and qualified, but if a staggered board is chosen, provision shall be made for the election of approximately one-third or one-half of the board each year, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Meetings of the board.</I> The board of directors shall determine the place, frequency, time, procedure for notice, which shall be at least 24 hours unless waived by the directors, and waiver of notice for all regular and special meetings. The meetings shall be under the direction of a chairman, appointed annually by the board; or in the absence of the chairman, the meetings shall be under the direction of the president. The board also may permit telephonic participation at meetings. The bylaws may provide for action to be taken without a meeting if unanimous written consent is obtained for such action. A majority of the authorized directors shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The act of a majority of the directors present at any meeting at which there is a quorum shall be the act of the board.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Officers, employees, and agents.</I> (i) The bylaws shall contain provisions regarding the officers of the mutual holding company, their functions, duties, and powers. The officers of the mutual holding company shall consist of a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller, each of whom shall be elected annually by the board of directors. Such other officers and assistant officers and agents as may be deemed necessary may be elected or appointed by the board of directors or chosen in such other manner as may be prescribed in the bylaws. Any two or more offices may be held by the same person, except the offices of president and secretary.
</P>
<P>(ii) All officers and agents of the mutual holding company, as between themselves and the mutual holding company, shall have such authority and perform such duties in the management of the mutual holding company as may be provided in the bylaws, or as may be determined by resolution of the board of directors not inconsistent with the bylaws. In the absence of any such provision, officers shall have such powers and duties as generally pertain to their respective offices. Any officer may be removed by the board of directors with or without cause, but such removal, other than for cause, shall be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the officer so removed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any indemnification provision must provide that any indemnification is subject to applicable Federal law, rules, and regulations.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Vacancies, resignation or removal of directors.</I> Members of the mutual holding company shall elect directors by ballot: Provided, that in the event of a vacancy on the board, the board of directors may, by their affirmative vote, fill such vacancy, even if the remaining directors constitute less than a quorum. A director elected to fill a vacancy shall be elected to serve only until the next election of directors by the members. The bylaws shall set out the procedure for the resignation of a director, which shall be by written notice or by any other procedure established in the bylaws. Directors may be removed only for cause as defined in § 239.41, by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Powers of the board.</I> The board of directors shall have the power:
</P>
<P>(i) By resolution, to appoint from among its members and remove an executive committee and one or more other committees, which committee[s] shall have and may exercise all the powers of the board between the meetings or the board; but no such committee shall have the authority of the board to amend the charter or bylaws, adopt a plan of merger, consolidation, dissolution, or provide for the disposition of all or substantially all the property and assets of the mutual holding company. Such committee shall not operate to relieve the board, or any member thereof, of any responsibility imposed by law;
</P>
<P>(ii) To fix the compensation of directors, officers, and employees; and to remove any officer or employee at any time with or without cause;
</P>
<P>(iii) To exercise any and all of the powers of the mutual holding company not expressly reserved by the charter to the members.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Nominations for directors.</I> The bylaws shall provide that nominations for directors may be made at the annual meeting by any member and shall be voted upon, except, however, the bylaws may require that nominations by a member must be submitted to the secretary and then prominently posted in the principal place of business, at least 10 days prior to the date of the annual meeting. However, if such provision is made for prior submission of nominations by a member, then the bylaws must provide for a nominating committee, which, except in the case of a nominee substituted as a result of death or other incapacity, must submit nominations to the secretary and have such nominations similarly posted at least 15 days prior to the date of the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>New business.</I> The bylaws shall provide procedures for the introduction of new business at the annual meeting. Those provisions may require that such new business be stated in writing and filed with the secretary prior to the annual meeting at least 30 days prior to the date of the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Amendment.</I> Bylaws may include any provision for their amendment that would be consistent with applicable law, rules, and regulations and adequately addresses its subject and purpose.
</P>
<P>(i) Amendments shall be effective:
</P>
<P>(A) After approval by a majority vote of the authorized board, or by a majority of the vote cast by the members of the mutual holding company at a legal meeting; and
</P>
<P>(B) After receipt of any applicable regulatory approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a mutual holding company fails to meet its quorum requirement, solely due to vacancies on the board, the bylaws may be amended by an affirmative vote of a majority of the sitting board.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Miscellaneous.</I> The bylaws may also address the subject of age limitations for directors or officers as long as they are consistent with applicable Federal law, rules or regulations, and any other subjects necessary or appropriate for effective operation of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of filing</I>—(1) <I>Application requirement.</I> (i) Any bylaw amendment shall be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank for approval if it would:
</P>
<P>(A) Render more difficult or discourage a merger, proxy contest, the assumption of control by a mutual account holder of the mutual holding company, or the removal of incumbent management;
</P>
<P>(B) Involve a significant issue of law or policy, including indemnification, conflicts of interest, and limitations on director or officer liability; or
</P>
<P>(C) Be inconsistent with the requirements of this section or with applicable laws, rules, regulations, or the mutual holding company's charter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applications submitted under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section are subject to the processing procedures at § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (c), bylaw provisions that adopt the language of the model bylaws contained in appendix C to this part, if adopted without change, and filed with Board within 30 days after adoption, are effective upon adoption. The Board may amend the model bylaws provided in appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing requirement.</I> If the proposed bylaw amendment does not implicate paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(3) of this section, then the mutual holding company shall submit the amendment to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the date the bylaw amendment is to be adopted by the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance procedures.</I> A mutual holding company may elect to follow the corporate governance procedures of the laws of the state where the main office of the institution is located, provided that such procedures may be elected only to the extent not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes, regulations, and safety and soundness, and such procedures are not of the type described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. If this election is selected, a mutual holding company shall designate in its bylaws the provision or provisions from the body of law selected for its corporate governance procedures, and shall file a copy of such bylaws, which are effective upon adoption, within 30 days after adoption. The submission shall indicate, where not obvious, why the bylaw provisions do not require an application under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effectiveness.</I> Any bylaw amendment filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section shall automatically be effective 30 days from the date of filing of such amendment, provided that the mutual holding company follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting such amendment, unless the Board notifies the mutual holding company prior to the expiration of the 30-day period that such amendment is rejected or that such amendment requires an application to be filed pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Availability of bylaws.</I> A mutual holding company shall make available to its members at all times in the offices of each subsidiary savings association from which the mutual holding company draws members a true copy of its bylaws, including any amendments, and shall deliver such a copy to any member upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.16   Voluntary dissolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A mutual holding company's board of directors may propose a plan for dissolution of the mutual holding company. All references in this section to mutual holding company shall also apply to a subsidiary holding company organized under this part. The plan may provide for either:
</P>
<P>(1) Transfer of all the mutual holding company's assets to another mutual holding company or home-financing institutions under Federal charter either for cash sufficient to pay all obligations of the mutual holding company and retire all outstanding accounts or in exchange for that mutual holding company's payment of all the mutual holding company's outstanding obligations and issuance of share accounts or other evidence of interest to the mutual holding company's members on a <I>pro rata</I> basis; or
</P>
<P>(2) Dissolution in a manner proposed by the directors which they consider best for all concerned.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan, and a statement of reasons for proposing dissolution and for proposing the plan, shall be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank for approval. The Board will approve the plan if the Board believes dissolution is advisable and the plan is best for all concerned. If the Board considers the plan inadvisable, the Board may either make recommendations to the mutual holding company concerning the plan or disapprove it. When the plan is approved by the mutual holding company's board of directors and by the Board, it shall be submitted to the mutual holding company's members at a duly called meeting and, when approved by a majority of votes cast at that meeting, shall become effective. After dissolution in accordance with the plan, a certificate evidencing dissolution, supported by such evidence as the Board may require, shall immediately be filed with the Board. When the Board receives such evidence satisfactory to the Board, it will terminate the corporate existence of the dissolved mutual holding company and the mutual holding company's charter shall thereby be canceled.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Subsidiary Holding Companies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.20   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies only to a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.21   Charters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Charters.</I> The charter of a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company shall be in the form set forth in appendix B of this part and may be amended pursuant to § 239.22. The Board may amend the form of charter provided in appendix B.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional charter provision limiting minority stock ownership.</I> (1) A subsidiary holding company that engages in its initial minority stock issuance after October 1, 2008 may, before it conducts its initial minority stock issuance, at the time it conducts its initial minority stock issuance, or, subject to the condition below, at any time during the five years following a minority stock issuance that such subsidiary holding company conducts in accordance with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part, include in its charter the provision set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. For purposes of the charter provision set forth in paragraph (b)(2), the definitions set forth at § 239.22(b)(8) apply. This charter provision expires a maximum of five years from the date of the minority stock issuance. The subsidiary holding company may adopt the charter provision set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section after a minority stock issuance only if it provided, in the offering materials related to its previous minority stock issuance or issuances, full disclosure of the possibility that the subsidiary holding company might adopt such a charter provision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Beneficial ownership limitation.</I> No person may directly or indirectly offer to acquire or acquire the beneficial ownership of more than 10 percent of the outstanding stock of any class of voting stock of the subsidiary holding company held by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent. This limitation expires on [insert date within five years of minority stock issuance] and does not apply to a transaction in which an underwriter purchases stock in connection with a public offering, or the purchase of stock by an employee stock ownership plan or other tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan which is exempt from the approval requirements under § 238.12(a)(7) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event a person acquires stock in violation of this section, all stock beneficially owned in excess of 10 percent shall be considered “excess stock” and shall not be counted as stock entitled to vote and shall not be voted by any person or counted as voting stock in connection with any matters submitted to the stockholders for a vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.22   Charter amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In order to adopt a charter amendment, a subsidiary holding company must comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board of directors approval.</I> The board of directors of the subsidiary holding company must adopt a resolution proposing the charter amendment that states the text of such amendment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of filing</I>—(i) <I>Application requirement.</I> If the proposed charter amendment would render more difficult or discourage a merger, tender offer, or proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a block of the subsidiary holding company's stock, the removal of incumbent management, or involve a significant issue of law or policy, the subsidiary holding company shall file the proposed amendment with and shall obtain the prior approval of the Board pursuant to § 238.14 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice requirement.</I> If the proposed charter amendment does not implicate paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and such amendment is permissible under all applicable laws, rules or regulations, the subsidiary holding company shall submit the proposed amendments to the appropriate Reserve Bank, at least 30 days prior to the date the proposed charter amendment is to be mailed for consideration by the subsidiary holding company's shareholders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval.</I> Any charter amendment filed pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section shall automatically be approved 30 days from the date of filing of such amendment, provided that the subsidiary holding company follows the requirements of its charter in adopting such amendment, unless the Board notifies the mutual holding company prior to the expiration of such 30-day period that such amendment is rejected or is deemed to be filed under the provisions of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. In addition, the following charter amendments, including the adoption of the charter as set forth in appendix B of this part, shall be approved at the time of adoption, if adopted without change and filed with the Board within 30 days after adoption, provided the subsidiary holding company follows the requirements of its charter in adopting such amendments.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Title change.</I> Prior to changing its corporate title, a subsidiary holding company must file with the appropriate Reserve Bank a written notice indicating the intended change. The Reserve Bank shall provide to the subsidiary holding company a timely written acknowledgment stating when the notice was received. If, within 30 days of receipt of notice, the Reserve Bank or the Board does not notify the subsidiary holding company of its objection on the grounds that the title misrepresents the nature of the institution or the services it offers, the subsidiary holding company may change its title by amending section 1 of its charter in accordance with this section and the amendment provisions of its charter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Home office.</I> A subsidiary holding company may amend its charter by substituting a new domicile in section 2 of its charter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Number of shares of stock and par value.</I> A subsidiary holding company may amend Section 5 of its charter to change the number of authorized shares of stock, the number of shares within each class of stock, and the par or stated value of such shares.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital stock.</I> A subsidiary holding company may amend its charter by revising Section 5 to read as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Section 5. Capital stock.</I> The total number of shares of all classes of capital stock that the subsidiary holding company has the authority to issue is ___, of which ___ shall be common stock of par [or if no par value is specified the stated] value of ___ per share and of which [list the number of each class of preferred and the par or if no par value is specified the stated value per share of each such class]. The shares may be issued from time to time as authorized by the board of directors without further approval of shareholders, except as otherwise provided in this Section 5 or to the extent that such approval is required by governing law, rule, or regulation. The consideration for the issuance of the shares shall be paid in full before their issuance and shall not be less than the par [or stated] value. Neither promissory notes nor future services shall constitute payment or part payment for the issuance of shares of the subsidiary holding company. The consideration for the shares shall be cash, tangible or intangible property (to the extent direct investment in such property would be permitted), labor, or services actually performed for the subsidiary holding company, or any combination of the foregoing. In the absence of actual fraud in the transaction, the value of such property, labor, or services, as determined by the board of directors of the subsidiary holding company, shall be conclusive. Upon payment of such consideration, such shares shall be deemed to be fully paid and nonassessable. In the case of a stock dividend, that part of the retained earnings of the subsidiary holding company that is transferred to common stock or paid-in capital accounts upon the issuance of shares as a stock dividend shall be deemed to be the consideration for their issuance.
</P>
<P>Except for shares issued in the initial organization of the subsidiary holding company, no shares of capital stock (including shares issuable upon conversion, exchange, or exercise of other securities) shall be issued, directly or indirectly, to officers, directors, or controlling persons of the association or subsidiary holding company other than as part of a general public offering or as qualifying shares to a director, unless their issuance or the plan under which they would be issued has been approved by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting.
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections hereto) shall entitle the holders of any class of a series of capital stock to vote as a separate class or series or to more than one vote per share, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter otherwise provides that there shall be no such cumulative voting: <I>Provided,</I> That this restriction on voting separately by class or series shall not apply:
</P>
<P>(i) To any provision which would authorize the holders of preferred stock, voting as a class or series, to elect some members of the board of directors, less than a majority thereof, in the event of default in the payment of dividends on any class or series of preferred stock;
</P>
<P>(ii) To any provision that would require the holders of preferred stock, voting as a class or series, to approve the merger or consolidation of the subsidiary holding company with another corporation or the sale, lease, or conveyance (other than by mortgage or pledge) of properties or business in exchange for securities of a corporation other than the subsidiary holding company if the preferred stock is exchanged for securities of such other corporation: <I>Provided,</I> That no provision may require such approval for transactions undertaken with the assistance or pursuant to the direction of the Board or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(iii) To any amendment which would adversely change the specific terms of any class or series of capital stock as set forth in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections hereto), including any amendment which would create or enlarge any class or series ranking prior thereto in rights and preferences. An amendment which increases the number of authorized shares of any class or series of capital stock, or substitutes the surviving subsidiary holding company in a merger or consolidation for the subsidiary holding company, shall not be considered to be such an adverse change.
</P>
<P>A description of the different classes and series (if any) of the subsidiary holding company's capital stock and a statement of the designations, and the relative rights, preferences, and limitations of the shares of each class of and series (if any) of capital stock are as follows:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Common stock.</I> Except as provided in this Section 5 (or in any supplementary sections thereto) the holders of the common stock shall exclusively possess all voting power. Each holder of shares of the common stock shall be entitled to one vote for each share held by each holder, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter otherwise provides that there shall be no such cumulative voting.
</P>
<P>Whenever there shall have been paid, or declared and set aside for payment, to the holders of the outstanding shares of any class of stock having preference over the common stock as to the payment of dividends, the full amount of dividends and of sinking fund, retirement fund, or other retirement payments, if any, to which such holders are respectively entitled in preference to the common stock, then dividends may be paid on the common stock and on any class or series of stock entitled to participate therewith as to dividends out of any assets legally available for the payment of dividends.
</P>
<P>In the event of any liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the subsidiary holding company, the holders of the common stock (and the holders of any class or series of stock entitled to participate with the common stock in the distribution of assets) shall be entitled to receive, in cash or in kind, the assets of the subsidiary holding company available for distribution remaining after: (i) Payment or provision for payment of the subsidiary holding company's debts and liabilities; (ii) distributions or provision for distributions in settlement of its liquidation account; and (iii) distributions or provision for distributions to holders of any class or series of stock having preference over the common stock in the liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the subsidiary holding company. Each share of common stock shall have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of common stock.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preferred stock.</I> The subsidiary holding company may provide in supplementary sections to its charter for one or more classes of preferred stock, which shall be separately identified. The shares of any class may be divided into and issued in series, with each series separately designated so as to distinguish the shares thereof from the shares of all other series and classes. The terms of each series shall be set forth in a supplementary section to the charter. All shares of the same class shall be identical except as to the following relative rights and preferences, as to which there may be variations between different series:
</P>
<P>(a) The distinctive serial designation and the number of shares constituting such series;
</P>
<P>(b) The dividend rate or the amount of dividends to be paid on the shares of such series, whether dividends shall be cumulative and, if so, from which date(s), the payment date(s) for dividends, and the participating or other special rights, if any, with respect to dividends;
</P>
<P>(c) The voting powers, full or limited, if any, of shares of such series;
</P>
<P>(d) Whether the shares of such series shall be redeemable and, if so, the price(s) at which, and the terms and conditions on which, such shares may be redeemed;
</P>
<P>(e) The amount(s) payable upon the shares of such series in the event of voluntary or involuntary liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the subsidiary holding company;
</P>
<P>(f) Whether the shares of such series shall be entitled to the benefit of a sinking or retirement fund to be applied to the purchase or redemption of such shares, and if so entitled, the amount of such fund and the manner of its application, including the price(s) at which such shares may be redeemed or purchased through the application of such fund;
</P>
<P>(g) Whether the shares of such series shall be convertible into, or exchangeable for, shares of any other class or classes of stock of the subsidiary holding company and, if so, the conversion price(s) or the rate(s) of exchange, and the adjustments thereof, if any, at which such conversion or exchange may be made, and any other terms and conditions of such conversion or exchange.
</P>
<P>(h) The price or other consideration for which the shares of such series shall be issued; and
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the shares of such series which are redeemed or converted shall have the status of authorized but unissued shares of serial preferred stock and whether such shares may be reissued as shares of the same or any other series of serial preferred stock.
</P>
<P>Each share of each series of serial preferred stock shall have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of the same series.
</P>
<P>The board of directors shall have authority to divide, by the adoption of supplementary charter sections, any authorized class of preferred stock into series, and, within the limitations set forth in this section and the remainder of this charter, fix and determine the relative rights and preferences of the shares of any series so established.
</P>
<P>Prior to the issuance of any preferred shares of a series established by a supplementary charter section adopted by the board of directors, the subsidiary holding company shall file with the appropriate Reserve Bank a dated copy of that supplementary section of this charter established and designating the series and fixing and determining the relative rights and preferences thereof.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Limitations on subsequent issuances.</I> A subsidiary holding company may amend its charter to require shareholder approval of the issuance or reservation of common stock or securities convertible into common stock under circumstances which would require shareholder approval under the rules of the New York or American Stock Exchange if the shares were then listed on the New York or American Stock Exchange.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cumulative voting.</I> A subsidiary holding company may amend its charter by substituting the following sentence for the second sentence in the third paragraph of Section 5: “Each holder of shares of common stock shall be entitled to one vote for each share held by such holder and there shall be no right to cumulate votes in an election of directors.”
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Anti-takeover provisions following mutual to stock conversion.</I> Notwithstanding the law of the state in which the subsidiary holding company is located, a subsidiary holding company may amend its charter by renumbering existing sections as appropriate and adding a new section 8 as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Section 8. Certain Provisions Applicable for Five Years.</I> Notwithstanding anything contained in the subsidiary holding company's charter or bylaws to the contrary, for a period of [specify number of years up to five] years from the date of completion of the conversion of the subsidiary holding company from mutual to stock form, the following provisions shall apply:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Beneficial Ownership Limitation.</I> No person shall directly or indirectly offer to acquire or acquire the beneficial ownership of more than 10 percent of any class of an equity security of the subsidiary holding company. This limitation shall not apply to a transaction in which the subsidiary holding company forms a holding company without change in the respective beneficial ownership interests of its stockholders other than pursuant to the exercise of any dissenter and appraisal rights, the purchase of shares by underwriters in connection with a public offering, or the purchase of shares by a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan which is exempt from the approval requirements under § 238.12(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>In the event shares are acquired in violation of this section 8, all shares beneficially owned by any person in excess of 10 percent shall be considered “excess shares” and shall not be counted as shares entitled to vote and shall not be voted by any person or counted as voting shares in connection with any matters submitted to the stockholders for a vote.
</P>
<P>For purposes of this section 8, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “person” includes an individual, a group acting in concert, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint stock company, a trust, an unincorporated organization or similar company, a syndicate or any other group formed for the purpose of acquiring, holding or disposing of the equity securities of the subsidiary holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “offer” includes every offer to buy or otherwise acquire, solicitation of an offer to sell, tender offer for, or request or invitation for tenders of, a security or interest in a security for value.
</P>
<P>(3) The term “acquire” includes every type of acquisition, whether effected by purchase, exchange, operation of law or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “acting in concert” means (a) knowing participation in a joint activity or conscious parallel action towards a common goal whether or not pursuant to an express agreement, or (b) a combination or pooling of voting or other interests in the securities of an issuer for a common purpose pursuant to any contract, understanding, relationship, agreement or other arrangements, whether written or otherwise.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Cumulative Voting Limitation.</I> Stockholders shall not be permitted to cumulate their votes for election of directors.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Call for Special Meetings.</I> Special meetings of stockholders relating to changes in control of the subsidiary holding company or amendments to its charter shall be called only upon direction of the board of directors.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Anti-takeover provisions.</I> The Board may grant approval to a charter amendment not listed in paragraph (b) of this section regarding the acquisition by any person or persons of its equity securities provided that the subsidiary holding company shall file as part of its application for approval an opinion, acceptable to the Board, of counsel independent from the subsidiary holding company that the proposed charter provision would be permitted to be adopted by a corporation chartered by the state in which the principal office of the subsidiary holding company is located. Any such provision must be consistent with applicable statutes, regulations, and Board policies. Further, any such provision that would have the effect of rendering more difficult a change in control of the subsidiary holding company and would require for any corporate action (other than the removal of directors) the affirmative vote of a larger percentage of shareholders than is required by this part, shall not be effective unless adopted by a percentage of shareholder vote at least equal to the highest percentage that would be required to take any action under such provision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reissuance of charter.</I> A subsidiary holding company that has amended its charter may apply to have its charter, including the amendments, reissued by the Board. Such requests for reissuance should be filed with the appropriate Reserve Bank, and contain signatures required by the charter in appendix B to this part, together with such supporting documents as needed to demonstrate that the amendments were properly adopted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.23" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.23   Bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> At its first organizational meeting, the board of directors of a subsidiary holding company shall adopt a set of bylaws for the administration and regulation of its affairs. Bylaws may be adopted, amended or repealed by either a majority of the votes cast by the shareholders at a legal meeting or a majority of the board of directors. The bylaws shall contain sufficient provisions to govern the subsidiary holding company in accordance with the requirements of §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29 and shall not contain any provision that is inconsistent with those sections or with applicable laws, rules, regulations or the subsidiary holding company's charter, except that a bylaw provision inconsistent with §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29 may be adopted with the approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of filing</I>—(1) <I>Application requirement.</I> (i) Any bylaw amendment shall be submitted to the appropriate Reserve Bank for approval if it would:
</P>
<P>(A) Render more difficult or discourage a merger, tender offer, or proxy contest, the assumption of control by a holder of a large block of the subsidiary holding company's stock, or the removal of incumbent management; or
</P>
<P>(B) Be inconsistent with §§ 239.26, 239.27, 239.28, and 239.29, with applicable laws, rules, regulations or the subsidiary holding company's charter or involve a significant issue of law or policy, including indemnification, conflicts of interest, and limitations on director or officer liability.
</P>
<P>(ii) Applications submitted under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are subject to the processing procedures under § 238.14 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (b), bylaw provisions that adopt the language of the model bylaws contained in appendix D to this part, if adopted without change and filed with Board within 30 days after adoption, are effective upon adoption. The Board may amend the model bylaws provided in appendix D.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing requirement.</I> If the proposed bylaw amendment does not implicate paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(3) of this section and is permissible under all applicable laws, rules, or regulations, the subsidiary holding company shall submit the amendment to the appropriate Reserve Bank at least 30 days prior to the date the bylaw amendment is to be adopted by the subsidiary holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance procedures.</I> A subsidiary holding company may elect to follow the corporate governance procedures of: The laws of the state where the main office of the subsidiary holding company is located; Delaware General Corporation law; or The Model Business Corporation Act, provided that such procedures may be elected to the extent not inconsistent with applicable Federal statutes and regulations and safety and soundness, and such procedures are not of the type described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. If this election is selected, a subsidiary holding company shall designate in its bylaws the provision or provisions from the body or bodies of law selected for its corporate governance procedures, and shall file a copy of such bylaws, which are effective upon adoption, within 30 days after adoption. The submission shall indicate, where not obvious, why the bylaw provisions do not require an application under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effectiveness.</I> Any bylaw amendment filed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall automatically be effective 30 days from the date of filing of such amendment, provided that the subsidiary holding company follows the requirements of its charter and bylaws in adopting such amendment, unless the Board notifies the subsidiary holding company prior to the expiration of such 30-day period that such amendment is rejected or requires an application to be filed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of subsequent charter or bylaw change.</I> Notwithstanding any subsequent change to its charter or bylaws, the authority of a subsidiary holding company to engage in any transaction shall be determined only by the subsidiary holding company's charter or bylaws then in effect, unless otherwise provided by Federal law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.24" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.24   Issuances of stock by subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> No subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company may issue stock to persons other than its mutual holding company parent in connection with a mutual holding company reorganization, or at any time subsequent to the subsidiary holding company's acquisition by the mutual holding company, unless the subsidiary holding company obtains advance approval of each such issuance from the Board. Approval of a mutual holding company reorganization filed pursuant to § 239.3(a) shall be deemed to constitute approval of any stock issuance specifically applied for pursuant to this section in connection with the reorganization, unless otherwise specified by the Board. The Board shall approve any proposed issuance that meets each of the criteria set forth below in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed issuance is to be made pursuant to a Stock Issuance Plan that contains all the provisions required by § 239.25.
</P>
<P>(2) The Stock Issuance Plan is consistent with the terms of the subsidiary holding company's charter (or any proposed amendments thereto), including terms governing the type and amount of stock that may be issued.
</P>
<P>(3) The Stock Issuance Plan would provide the subsidiary holding company, its mutual holding company parent, and any subsidiary savings associations of the subsidiary holding company with fully sufficient capital and would not be inequitable or detrimental to the subsidiary holding company or its mutual holding company parent or to members of the mutual holding company parent.
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed price or price range of the stock to be issued is reasonable. The Board shall review the reasonableness of the proposed price or price range.
</P>
<P>(5) The aggregate amount of outstanding common stock of the subsidiary holding company owned or controlled by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance shall be less than 50 percent of the subsidiary holding company's total outstanding common stock, unless the subsidiary holding company was a stock holding company when acquired by the mutual holding company, in which case the foregoing restriction shall not apply. Any amount of preferred stock may be issued by any subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company to persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company, consistent with any other applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(6) The subsidiary holding company furnishes the information required by the Board in connection with the proposed issuance.
</P>
<P>(7) The proposed stock issuance meets the convenience and needs standard of § 239.55(g).
</P>
<P>(8) The proposed issuance complies with all other applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(9) Unless otherwise determined by the Board, the limitations on the minimum and maximum amounts of the estimated price range required by § 239.59(c) shall apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related approvals.</I> Approval by the Board of any stock issuance pursuant to this section shall also be deemed to constitute:
</P>
<P>(1) Approval of the form of stock certificate proposed to be utilized in connection with the stock issuance, provided such form was included in the application materials filed pursuant to this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Approval of any charter or bylaw amendment required to authorize issuance of the stock, provided such amendment was proposed in the application materials filed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offering restrictions.</I> (1) No representations may be made in any manner in connection with the offer or sale of any stock issued pursuant to this section that the price, price range or any other pricing information related to such stock issuance has been approved by the Board or that the stock has been approved or disapproved by the Board or that the Board has endorsed the accuracy or adequacy of any securities offering documents disseminated in connection with such stock.
</P>
<P>(2) The sale of minority stock of the subsidiary holding company to be made under the minority stock issuance plan, including any sale in a public offering or direct community marketing, shall be completed as promptly as possible and within 45 calendar days after the last day of the subscription period, unless extended by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) In the offer, sale, or purchase of stock issued pursuant to this section, no person shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Employ any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made, in the light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Engage in any act, practice, or course of business which operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon a purchaser or seller.
</P>
<P>(4) Prior to the completion of a stock issuance pursuant to this section, no person shall transfer, or enter into any agreement or understanding to transfer, the legal or beneficial ownership of the stock to be issued to any other person.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to the completion of a stock issuance pursuant to this section, no person shall make any offer, or any announcement of any offer, to purchase any stock to be issued, or knowingly acquire any stock in the issuance, in excess of the maximum purchase limitations established in the Stock Issuance Plan.
</P>
<P>(6) All stock issuances pursuant to this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with § 239.59 and, to the extent applicable, the form or forms specified by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide that the offering be structured in a manner similar to a standard conversion under subpart E of this part, including the stock purchase priorities accorded members of the issuing subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company, unless the subsidiary holding company would qualify for a supervisory conversion if it were to undertake a conversion under subpart E of this part; or demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that a non-conforming issuance would be more beneficial to the savings association and subsidiary holding company compared to a conforming offering, considering, in the aggregate, the effect of each on the savings association and subsidiary holding company's financial and managerial resources and future prospects, the effect of the issuance upon the savings association and subsidiary holding company, the insurance risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund, and the convenience and needs of the community to be served.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding the restrictions in paragraph (c)(6)(ii) of this section, a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company may issue stock as part of a stock benefit plan to any insider, associate of an insider, or tax qualified or non-tax qualified employee stock benefit plan of the mutual holding company or subsidiary of the mutual holding company without including the purchase priorities of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) As part of a reorganization, a reasonable amount of shares or proceeds may be contributed to a charitable organization that complies with §§ 239.64(b) to 239.64(f), provided such contribution does not result in any taxes on excess business holdings under section 4943 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 4943).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedural and substantive requirements.</I> The procedural and substantive requirements of subpart E of this part shall apply to all mutual holding company stock issuances and subsidiary holding company stock issuances under this section, unless clearly inapplicable, as determined by the Board. For purposes of this paragraph, the term <I>conversion</I> as it appears in the provisions of subpart E of this part shall refer to the stock issuance, and the term <I>mutual holding company</I> shall refer to the subsidiary holding company undertaking the stock issuance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.25" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.25   Contents of Stock Issuance Plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory provisions.</I> Each of the provisions mandatory for all stock issuance plans under this paragraph (a) shall be deemed regulatory requirements. Each Stock Issuance Plan shall contain a complete description of all significant terms of the proposed stock issuance (including the information specified in § 239.65(f) to the extent known), shall attach and incorporate the proposed form of stock certificate, the proposed stock order form, and any agreements or other documents defining the rights of the stockholders, and shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide that the stock shall be sold at a total price equal to the estimated <I>pro forma</I> market value of such stock, based upon an independent valuation;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that the aggregate amount of outstanding common stock of the subsidiary holding company owned or controlled by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance shall be less than fifty percent of the subsidiary holding company's total outstanding common stock (This provision may be omitted if the proposed issuance will be conducted by a subsidiary holding company that was in the stock form when acquired by its mutual holding company parent);
</P>
<P>(3) Provide that all employee stock ownership plans or other tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans (collectively, ESOPs) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide that all ESOPs and management recognition plans (MRPs) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance. However, if the subsidiary holding company's tangible capital equals at least ten percent at the time of implementation of the plan, the Board may permit such ESOPs and MRPs to encompass, in the aggregate, up to 5.88 percent of the outstanding common stock or stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that all MRPs must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 1.47 percent of the common stock of the subsidiary holding company or 1.47 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance. However, if the subsidiary holding company's tangible capital is at least ten percent at the time of implementation of the plan, the Board may permit MRPs to encompass, in the aggregate, up to 1.96 percent of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company's common stock or 1.96 percent of the savings subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(6) Provide that all stock option plans (Option Plans) must not encompass, in the aggregate, more than either 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's outstanding common stock at the close of the proposed issuance or 4.9 percent of the subsidiary holding company's stockholders' equity at the close of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide that an ESOP, a MRP or an Option Plan modified or adopted no earlier than one year after the close of: the proposed issuance, or any subsequent issuance that is made in substantial conformity with the purchase priorities § 239.59(a) set forth in subpart E of this part, may exceed the percentage limitations contained in paragraphs (a)(3) through (6) of this section (plan expansion), subject to the following two requirements. First, all common stock awarded in connection with any plan expansion must be acquired for such awards in the secondary market. Second, such acquisitions must begin no earlier than when such plan expansion is permitted to be made;
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Provide that the aggregate amount of common stock that may be encompassed under all Option Plans and MRPs, or acquired by all insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association and associates of insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association, must not exceed the following percentages of common stock or stockholders' equity of the subsidiary holding company, held by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Institution size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Officer and
<br/>director
<br/>purchases
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$ 50,000,000 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$ 50,000,001-100,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100,000,001-150,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$150,000,001-200,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$200,000,001-250,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$250,000,001-300,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$300,000,001-350,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$350,000,001-400,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$400,000,001-450,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$450,000,001-500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over $500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The percentage limitations contained in paragraph 8(i) of this section may be exceeded provided that all stock acquired by insiders and associates of insiders or awarded under all MRPs and Option Plans in excess of those limitations is acquired in the secondary market. If acquired for such awards on the secondary market, such acquisitions must begin no earlier than one year after the close of the proposed issuance or any subsequent issuance that is made in substantial conformity with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the number of shares held by insiders and their associates under this provision, shares awarded but not delivered under an ESOP, MRP, or Option Plan that are attributable to such persons shall not be counted as being acquired by such persons.
</P>
<P>(9) Provide that the amount of common stock that may be encompassed under all Option Plans and MRPs must not exceed, in the aggregate, 25 percent of the outstanding common stock held by persons other than the subsidiary holding company's mutual holding company parent at the close of the proposed issuance;
</P>
<P>(10) Provide that the issuance shall be conducted in compliance with, to the extent applicable, the forms required by the Board;
</P>
<P>(11) Provide that the sales price of the shares of stock to be sold in the issuance shall be a uniform price determined in accordance with § 239.24;
</P>
<P>(12) Provide that, if at the close of the stock issuance the subsidiary holding company has more than thirty-five shareholders of any class of stock, the subsidiary holding company shall promptly register that class of stock pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78a-78jj), and undertake not to deregister such stock for a period of three years thereafter;
</P>
<P>(13) Provide that, if at the close of the stock issuance the subsidiary holding company has more than one hundred shareholders of any class of stock, the subsidiary holding company shall use its best efforts to:
</P>
<P>(i) Encourage and assist a market maker to establish and maintain a market for that class of stock; and
</P>
<P>(ii) List that class of stock on a national or regional securities exchange or on the NASDAQ quotation system;
</P>
<P>(14) Provide that, for a period of three years following the proposed issuance, no insider of the subsidiary holding company or his or her associates shall purchase, without the prior written approval of the Board, any stock of the subsidiary holding company except from a broker dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, except that the foregoing restriction shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Negotiated transactions involving more than one percent of the outstanding stock in the class of stock; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchases of stock made by and held by any tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan of the subsidiary holding company even if such stock is attributable to insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association or their associates;
</P>
<P>(15) Provide that stock purchased by insiders of the subsidiary holding company and subsidiary savings association and their associates in the proposed issuance shall not be sold for a period of at least one year following the date of purchase, except in the case of death of the insider or associate;
</P>
<P>(16) Provide that, in connection with stock subject to restriction on sale for a period of time:
</P>
<P>(i) Each certificate for such stock shall bear a legend giving appropriate notice of such restriction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate instructions shall be issued to the subsidiary holding company's transfer agent with respect to applicable restrictions on transfer of such stock; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any shares issued as a stock dividend, stock split, or otherwise with respect to any such restricted stock shall be subject to the same restrictions as apply to the restricted stock;
</P>
<P>(17) Provide that the subsidiary holding company will not offer or sell any of the stock proposed to be issued to any person whose purchase would be financed by funds loaned, directly or indirectly, to the person by the subsidiary holding company;
</P>
<P>(18) Provide that, if necessary, the subsidiary holding company's charter will be amended to authorize issuance of the stock and attach and incorporate by reference the text of any such amendment;
</P>
<P>(19) Provide that the expenses incurred in connection with the issuance shall be reasonable;
</P>
<P>(20) Provide that the Stock Issuance Plan, if proposed as part of a Reorganization Plan, may be amended or terminated in the same manner as the Reorganization Plan. Otherwise, the Stock Issuance Plan shall provide that it may be substantively amended by the board of directors of the issuing subsidiary holding company as a result of comments from regulatory authorities or otherwise prior to approval of the Plan by the Board, and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board; and that the Stock Issuance Plan may be terminated by the board of directors at any time prior to approval of the Plan by the Board, and at any time thereafter with the concurrence of the Board;
</P>
<P>(21) Provide that, unless an extension is granted by the Board, the Stock Issuance Plan shall be terminated if not completed within 90 days of the date of such approval; or
</P>
<P>(22) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may make scheduled discretionary contributions to a tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan provided such contributions do not cause the subsidiary holding company to fail to meet any of its regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Optional provisions.</I> A Stock Issuance Plan may:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide that, in the event the proposed stock issuance is part of a Reorganization Plan, the stock offering may be commenced concurrently with or at any time after the mailing to the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association of any proxy statement(s). The offering may be closed before the required membership vote(s), provided the offer and sale of the stock shall be conditioned upon the approval of the Reorganization Plan and Stock Issuance Plan by the members of the reorganizing association and any acquiree association;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide that any insignificant residue of stock of the subsidiary holding company not sold in the offering may be sold in such other manner as provided in the Stock Issuance Plan, with the Board's approval;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may issue and sell, in lieu of shares of its stock, units of securities consisting of stock and long-term warrants or other equity securities, in which event any reference in the provisions of this section and in § 239.24 to stock shall apply to such units of equity securities unless the context otherwise requires; or
</P>
<P>(4) Provide that the subsidiary holding company may reserve shares representing up to ten percent of the proposed offering for issuance in connection with an employee stock benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of provisions of § 239.63(a)(1) to minority stock issuances.</I> Notwithstanding § 239.24(d), § 239.63(a)(1)(ii) do not apply to minority stock issuances, because the permissible sizes of ESOPs, MRPs, and Option Plans in minority stock issuances are subject to each of the requirements set forth at paragraphs (a)(3) through (a)(9) of this section. Section 239.63(a)(4) through (a)(14), apply for one year after the subsidiary holding company engages in a minority stock issuance that is conducted in accordance with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part. In addition to the shareholder vote requirement for Option Plans and MRPs set forth at § 239.63(a)(1)(vi), any Option Plans and MRPs put to a shareholder vote after a minority stock issuance that is conducted in accordance with the purchase priorities set forth in subpart E of this part must be approved by a majority of the votes cast by stockholders other than the mutual holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.26" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.26   Shareholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Shareholder meetings.</I> An annual meeting of the shareholders of the subsidiary holding company for the election of directors and for the transaction of any other business of the subsidiary holding company shall be held annually within 150 days after the end of the subsidiary holding company's fiscal year. Unless otherwise provided in the subsidiary holding company's charter, special meetings of the shareholders may be called by the board of directors or on the request of the holders of 10 percent or more of the shares entitled to vote at the meeting, or by such other persons as may be specified in the bylaws of the subsidiary holding company. All annual and special meetings of shareholders shall be held at such place as the board of directors may determine in the state in which the subsidiary savings association has its principal place of business, or at any other convenient place the board of directors may designate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of shareholder meetings.</I> Written notice stating the place, day, and hour of the meeting and the purpose or purposes for which the meeting is called shall be delivered not fewer than 20 nor more than 50 days before the date of the meeting, either personally or by mail, by or at the direction of the chairman of the board, the president, the secretary, or the directors, or other natural persons calling the meeting, to each shareholder of record entitled to vote at such meeting. If mailed, such notice shall be deemed to be delivered when deposited in the mail, addressed to the shareholder at the address appearing on the stock transfer books or records of the subsidiary holding company as of the record date prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section, with postage thereon prepaid. When any shareholders' meeting, either annual or special, is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjourned meeting shall be given as in the case of an original meeting. Notwithstanding anything in this section, however, a subsidiary holding company that is wholly owned shall not be subject to the shareholder notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fixing of record date.</I> For the purpose of determining shareholders entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of shareholders or any adjournment thereof, or shareholders entitled to receive payment of any dividend, or in order to make a determination of shareholders for any other proper purpose, the board of directors shall fix in advance a date as the record date for any such determination of shareholders. Such date in any case shall be not more than 60 days and, in case of a meeting of shareholders, not less than 10 days prior to the date on which the particular action, requiring such determination of shareholders, is to be taken. When a determination of shareholders entitled to vote at any meeting of shareholders has been made as provided in this section, such determination shall apply to any adjournment thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voting lists.</I> (1) At least 20 days before each meeting of the shareholders, the officer or agent having charge of the stock transfer books for the shares of the subsidiary holding company shall make a complete list of the stockholders of record entitled to vote at such meeting, or any adjournments thereof, arranged in alphabetical order, with the address and the number of shares held by each. This list of shareholders shall be kept on file at the home office of the subsidiary holding company and shall be subject to inspection by any shareholder of record or the stockholder's agent during the entire time of the meeting. The original stock transfer book shall constitute <I>prima facie</I> evidence of the stockholders entitled to examine such list or transfer books or to vote at any meeting of stockholders. Notwithstanding anything in this section, however, a subsidiary holding company that is wholly owned shall not be subject to the voting list requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) In lieu of making the shareholders list available for inspection by any shareholders as provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the board of directors may perform such acts as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of Rule 14a-7 of the General Rules and Regulations under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (17 CFR 240.14a-7) as may be duly requested in writing, with respect to any matter which may be properly considered at a meeting of shareholders, by any shareholder who is entitled to vote on such matter and who shall defray the reasonable expenses to be incurred by the subsidiary holding company in performance of the act or acts required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Shareholder quorum.</I> A majority of the outstanding shares of the subsidiary holding company entitled to vote, represented in person or by proxy, shall constitute a quorum at a meeting of shareholders. The shareholders present at a duly organized meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment, notwithstanding the withdrawal of enough shareholders to leave less than a quorum. If a quorum is present, the affirmative vote of the majority of the shares represented at the meeting and entitled to vote on the subject matter shall be the act of the stockholders, unless the vote of a greater number of stockholders voting together or voting by classes is required by law or the charter. Directors, however, are elected by a plurality of the votes cast at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Shareholder voting</I>— (1) <I>Proxies.</I> Unless otherwise provided in the subsidiary holding company's charter, at all meetings of shareholders, a shareholder may vote in person or by proxy executed in writing by the shareholder or by a duly authorized attorney in fact. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the shareholder. A proxy may designate as holder a corporation, partnership or company, or other person. Proxies solicited on behalf of the management shall be voted as directed by the shareholder or, in the absence of such direction, as determined by a majority of the board of directors. No proxy shall be valid more than eleven months from the date of its execution except for a proxy coupled with an interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Shares controlled by subsidiary holding company.</I> Neither treasury shares of its own stock held by the subsidiary holding company nor shares held by another corporation, if a majority of the shares entitled to vote for the election of directors of such other corporation are held by the subsidiary holding company, shall be voted at any meeting or counted in determining the total number of outstanding shares at any given time for purposes of any meeting.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nominations and new business submitted by shareholders.</I> Nominations for directors and new business submitted by shareholders shall be voted upon at the annual meeting if such nominations or new business are submitted in writing and delivered to the secretary of the subsidiary holding company at least five days prior to the date of the annual meeting. Ballots bearing the names of all the natural persons nominated shall be provided for use at the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Informal action by stockholders.</I> If the bylaws of the subsidiary holding company so provide, any action required to be taken at a meeting of the stockholders, or any other action that may be taken at a meeting of the stockholders, may be taken without a meeting if consent in writing has been given by all the stockholders entitled to vote with respect to the subject matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.27" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.27   Board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General powers and duties.</I> The business and affairs of the subsidiary holding company shall be under the direction of its board of directors. The board of directors shall annually elect a chairman of the board from among its members and shall designate the chairman of the board, when present, to preside at its meeting. Directors need not be stockholders unless the bylaws so require.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Number and term.</I> The bylaws shall set forth a specific number of directors, not a range. The number of directors shall be not fewer than five nor more than fifteen, unless a higher or lower number has been authorized by the Board. Directors shall be elected for a term of one to three years and until their successors are elected and qualified. If a staggered board is chosen, the directors shall be divided into two or three classes as nearly equal in number as possible and one class shall be elected by ballot annually. In the case of a converting or newly chartered subsidiary holding company where all directors shall be elected at the first election of directors, if a staggered board is chosen, the terms shall be staggered in length from one to three years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regular meetings.</I> A regular meeting of the board of directors shall be held immediately after, and at the same place as, the annual meeting of shareholders. The board of directors shall determine the place, frequency, time and procedure for notice of regular meetings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quorum.</I> A majority of the number of directors shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting of the board of directors. The act of the majority of the directors present at a meeting at which a quorum is present shall be the act of the board of directors, unless a greater number is prescribed by regulation of the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Vacancies.</I> Any vacancy occurring in the board of directors may be filled by the affirmative vote of a majority of the remaining directors although less than a quorum of the board of directors. A director elected to fill a vacancy shall be elected to serve only until the next election of directors by the shareholders. Any directorship to be filled by reason of an increase in the number of directors may be filled by election by the board of directors for a term of office continuing only until the next election of directors by the shareholders.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Removal or resignation of directors.</I> (1) At a meeting of shareholders called expressly for that purpose, any director may be removed only for cause, as defined in § 239.41, by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors. Subsidiary holding companies may provide for procedures regarding resignations in the bylaws.
</P>
<P>(2) If less than the entire board is to be removed, no one of the directors may be removed if the votes cast against the removal would be sufficient to elect a director if then cumulatively voted at an election of the class of directors of which such director is a part.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the holders of the shares of any class are entitled to elect one or more directors by the provisions of the charter or supplemental sections thereto, the provisions of this section shall apply, in respect to the removal of a director or directors so elected, to the vote of the holders of the outstanding shares of that class and not to the vote of the outstanding shares as a whole.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Executive and other committees.</I> The board of directors, by resolution adopted by a majority of the full board, may designate from among its members an executive committee and one or more other committees each of which, to the extent provided in the resolution or bylaws of the subsidiary holding company, shall have and may exercise all of the authority of the board of directors, except no committee shall have the authority of the board of directors with reference to: the declaration of dividends; the amendment of the charter or bylaws of the subsidiary holding company; recommending to the stockholders a plan of merger, consolidation, or conversion; the sale, lease, or other disposition of all, or substantially all, of the property and assets of the subsidiary holding company otherwise than in the usual and regular course of its business; a voluntary dissolution of the subsidiary holding company; a revocation of any of the foregoing; or the approval of a transaction in which any member of the executive committee, directly or indirectly, has any material beneficial interest. The designation of any committee and the delegation of authority thereto shall not operate to relieve the board of directors, or any director, of any responsibility imposed by law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of special meetings.</I> Written notice of at least 24 hours regarding any special meeting of the board of directors or of any committee designated thereby shall be given to each director in accordance with the bylaws, although such notice may be waived by the director. The attendance of a director at a meeting shall constitute a waiver of notice of such meeting, except where a director attends a meeting for the express purpose of objecting to the transaction of any business because the meeting is not lawfully called or convened. Neither the business to be transacted at, nor the purpose of, any meeting need be specified in the notice or waiver of notice of such meeting. The bylaws may provide for telephonic participation at a meeting.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Action without a meeting.</I> Any action required or permitted to be taken by the board of directors at a meeting may be taken without a meeting if a consent in writing, setting forth the actions so taken, shall be signed by all of the directors.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Presumption of assent.</I> A director of the subsidiary holding company who is present at a meeting of the board of directors at which action on any subsidiary holding company matter is taken shall be presumed to have assented to the action taken unless his or her dissent or abstention shall be entered in the minutes of the meeting or unless a written dissent to such action shall be filed with the individual acting as the secretary of the meeting before the adjournment thereof or shall be forwarded by registered mail to the secretary of the subsidiary holding company within five days after the date on which a copy of the minutes of the meeting is received. Such right to dissent shall not apply to a director who voted in favor of such action.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Age limitation on directors.</I> A subsidiary holding company may provide a bylaw on age limitation for directors. Bylaws on age limitations must comply with all Federal laws, rules and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.28" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.28   Officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Positions.</I> The officers of the subsidiary holding company shall be a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller, each of whom shall be elected by the board of directors. The board of directors may also designate the chairman of the board as an officer. The offices of the secretary and treasurer or comptroller may be held by the same individual and the vice president may also be either the secretary or the treasurer or comptroller. The board of directors may designate one or more vice presidents as executive vice president or senior vice president. The board of directors may also elect or authorize the appointment of such other officers as the business of the subsidiary holding company may require. The officers shall have such authority and perform such duties as the board of directors may from time to time authorize or determine. In the absence of action by the board of directors, the officers shall have such powers and duties as generally pertain to their respective offices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Removal.</I> Any officer may be removed by the board of directors whenever in its judgment the best interests of the subsidiary holding company will be served thereby; but such removal, other than for cause, shall be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the individual so removed. Employment contracts shall conform with § 239.41.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Age limitation on officers.</I> A subsidiary holding company may provide a bylaw on age limitation for officers. Bylaws on age limitations must comply with all Federal laws, rules, and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.29" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.29   Certificates for shares and their transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certificates for shares.</I> Certificates representing shares of capital stock of the subsidiary holding company shall be in such form as shall be determined by the board of directors and approved by the Board. The certificates shall be signed by the chief executive officer or by any other officer of the subsidiary holding company authorized by the board of directors, attested by the secretary or an assistant secretary, and sealed with the corporate seal or a facsimile thereof. The signatures of such officers upon a certificate may be facsimiles if the certificate is manually signed on behalf of a transfer agent or a registrar other than the subsidiary holding company itself or one of its employees. Each certificate for shares of capital stock shall be consecutively numbered or otherwise identified. The name and address of the person to whom the shares are issued, with the number of shares and date of issue, shall be entered on the stock transfer books of the subsidiary holding company. All certificates surrendered to the subsidiary holding company for transfer shall be cancelled and no new certificate shall be issued until the former certificate for a like number of shares shall have been surrendered and cancelled, except that in the case of a lost or destroyed certificate a new certificate may be issued upon such terms and indemnity to the subsidiary holding company as the board of directors may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer of shares.</I> Transfer of shares of capital stock of the subsidiary holding company shall be made only on its stock transfer books. Authority for such transfer shall be given only by the holder of record or by a legal representative, who shall furnish proper evidence of such authority, or by an attorney authorized by a duly executed power of attorney and filed with the subsidiary holding company. The transfer shall be made only on surrender for cancellation of the certificate for the shares. The person in whose name shares of capital stock stand on the books of the subsidiary holding company shall be deemed by the subsidiary holding company to be the owner for all purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.30" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.30   Annual reports; books and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual reports to stockholders.</I> A subsidiary holding company not wholly-owned by a holding company shall, within 130 days after the end of its fiscal year, mail to each of its stockholders entitled to vote at its annual meeting an annual report containing financial statements that satisfy the requirements of rule 14a-3 under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. (17 CFR 240.14a-3). Concurrently with such mailing a certification of such mailing signed by the chairman of the board, the president or a vice president of the subsidiary holding company, together with a copy of the report, shall be transmitted by the subsidiary holding company to the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Books and records.</I> (1) Each subsidiary holding company shall keep correct and complete books and records of account; shall keep minutes of the proceedings of its stockholders, board of directors, and committees of directors; and shall keep at its home office or at the office of its transfer agent or registrar, a record of its stockholders, giving the names and addresses of all stockholders, and the number, class and series, if any, of the shares held by each.
</P>
<P>(2) Any stockholder or group of stockholders of a subsidiary holding company, holding of record the number of voting shares of such subsidiary holding company specified below, upon making written demand stating a proper purpose, shall have the right to examine, in person or by agent or attorney, at any reasonable time or times, nonconfidential portions of its books and records of account, minutes and record of stockholders and to make extracts therefrom. Such right of examination is limited to a stockholder or group of stockholders holding of record:
</P>
<P>(i) Voting shares having a cost of not less than $100,000 or constituting not less than one percent of the total outstanding voting shares, provided in either case such stockholder or group of stockholders have held of record such voting shares for a period of at least six months before making such written demand, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Not less than five percent of the total outstanding voting shares.
</P>
<P>No stockholder or group of stockholders of a subsidiary holding company shall have any other right under this section or common law to examine its books and records of account, minutes and record of stockholders, except as provided in its bylaws with respect to inspection of a list of stockholders.
</P>
<P>(3) The right to examination authorized by paragraph (b)(2) of this section and the right to inspect the list of stockholders provided by a subsidiary holding company's bylaws may be denied to any stockholder or group of stockholders upon the refusal of any such stockholder or group of stockholders to furnish such subsidiary holding company, its transfer agent or registrar an affidavit that such examination or inspection is not desired for any purpose which is in the interest of a business or object other than the business of the subsidiary holding company, that such stockholder has not within the five years preceding the date of the affidavit sold or offered for sale, and does not now intend to sell or offer for sale, any list of stockholders of the subsidiary holding company or of any other corporation, and that such stockholder has not within said five-year period aided or abetted any other person in procuring any list of stockholders for purposes of selling or offering for sale such list.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or common law, no stockholder or group of stockholders shall have the right to obtain, inspect or copy any portion of any books or records of a subsidiary holding company containing:
</P>
<P>(i) A list of depositors in or borrowers from such subsidiary holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Their addresses;
</P>
<P>(iii) Individual deposit or loan balances or records; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any data from which such information could be reasonably constructed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.31" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.31   Indemnification; employment contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions on indemnification.</I> The provisions of § 239.40 shall apply to subsidiary holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on employment contracts.</I> The provisions of § 239.41 and any policies of the Board thereunder shall apply to subsidiary holding companies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Indemnification; Employment Contracts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.40" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.40   Indemnification of directors, officers and employees.</HEAD>
<P>A mutual holding company shall indemnify its directors, officers, and employees in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions and rules of construction.</I> (1) Definitions for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Action</I> means any judicial or administrative proceeding, or threatened proceeding, whether civil, criminal, or otherwise, including any appeal or other proceeding for review;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Court</I> includes, without limitation, any court to which or in which any appeal or any proceeding for review is brought.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Final judgment</I> means a judgment, decree, or order which is not appealable or as to which the period for appeal has expired with no appeal taken.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Settlement</I> includes entry of a judgment by consent or confession or a plea of guilty or <I>nolo contendere.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) References in this section to any individual or other person, including any mutual holding company, shall include legal representatives, successors, and assigns thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c) and (g) of this section, a mutual holding company shall indemnify any person against whom an action is brought or threatened because that person is or was a director, officer, or employee of the mutual holding company, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Any amount for which that person becomes liable under a judgment if such action; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable costs and expenses, including reasonable attorney's fees, actually paid or incurred by that person in defending or settling such action, or in enforcing his or her rights under this section if he or she attains a favorable judgment in such enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> Indemnification shall be made to such period under paragraph (b) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(1) Final judgment on the merits is in his or her favor; or
</P>
<P>(2) In case of:
</P>
<P>(i) Settlement,
</P>
<P>(ii) Final judgment against him or her, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Final judgment in his or her favor, other than on the merits, if a majority of the disinterested directors of the mutual holding company determine that he or she was acting in good faith within the scope of his or her employment or authority as he or she could reasonably have perceived it under the circumstances and for a purpose he or she could reasonably have believed under the circumstances was in the best interests of the mutual holding company or its members.
</P>
<P>However, no indemnification shall be made unless the mutual holding company gives the Board at least 60 days' notice of its intention to make such indemnification. Such notice shall state the facts on which the action arose, the terms of any settlement, and any disposition of the action by a court. Such notice, a copy thereof, and a certified copy of the resolution containing the required determination by the board of directors shall be sent to the appropriate Reserve Bank, who shall promptly acknowledge receipt thereof. The notice period shall run from the date of such receipt. No such indemnification shall be made if the Board advises the mutual holding company in writing, within such notice period, of its objection to the indemnification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance.</I> A mutual holding company may obtain insurance to protect it and its directors, officers, and employees from potential losses arising from claims against any of them for alleged wrongful acts, or wrongful acts, committed in their capacity as directors, officers, or employees. However, no mutual holding company may obtain insurance which provides for payment of losses of any individual incurred as a consequence of his or her willful or criminal misconduct.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment of expenses.</I> If a majority of the directors of a mutual holding company concludes that, in connection with an action, any person ultimately may become entitled to indemnification under this section, the directors may authorize payment of reasonable costs and expenses, including reasonable attorneys' fees, arising from the defense or settlement of such action. Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent the directors of a mutual holding company from imposing such conditions on a payment of expenses as they deem warranted and in the interests of the mutual holding company. Before making advance payment of expenses under this paragraph, the mutual holding company shall obtain an agreement that the mutual holding company will be repaid if the person on whose behalf payment is made is later determined not to be entitled to such indemnification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusiveness of provisions.</I> No mutual holding company shall indemnify any person referred to in paragraph (b) of this section or obtain insurance referred to in paragraph (d) of the section other than in accordance with this section. However, a mutual holding company which has a bylaw in effect relating to indemnification of its personnel shall be governed solely by that bylaw, except that its authority to obtain insurance shall be governed by paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The indemnification provided for in paragraph (b) of this section is subject to and qualified by 12 U.S.C. 1821(k).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.41" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.41   Employment contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A mutual holding company may enter into an employment contract with its officers and other employees only in accordance with the requirements of this section. All employment contracts shall be in writing and shall be approved specifically by the respective mutual holding company's board of directors. A mutual holding company shall not enter into an employment contract with any of its officers or other employees if such contract would constitute an unsafe or unsound practice. The making of such an employment contract would be an unsafe or unsound practice if such contract could lead to material financial loss or damage to the mutual holding company or could interfere materially with the exercise by the members of its board of directors of their duty or discretion provided by law, charter, bylaw or regulation as to the employment or termination of employment of an officer or employee of the mutual holding company. This may occur, depending upon the circumstances of the case, where an employment contract provides for an excessive term.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required provisions.</I> Each employment contract shall provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) The mutual holding company's board of directors may terminate the officer or employee's employment at any time, but any termination by the mutual holding company's board of directors other than termination for cause, shall not prejudice the officer or employee's right to compensation or other benefits under the contract. The officer or employee shall have no right to receive compensation or other benefits for any period after termination for cause. Termination for cause shall include termination because of the officer or employee's personal dishonesty, incompetence, willful misconduct, breach of fiduciary duty involving personal profit, intentional failure to perform stated duties, willful violation of any law, rule, or regulation (other than traffic violations or similar offenses) or final cease-and-desist order, or material breach of any provision of the contract.
</P>
<P>(2) If the officer or employee is suspended and/or temporarily prohibited from participating in the conduct of the mutual holding company's affairs by a notice served under section 8 (e)(3) or (g)(1) of Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818 (e)(3) and (g)(1)) the mutual holding company's obligations under the contract shall be suspended as of the date of service unless stayed by appropriate proceedings. If the charges in the notice are dismissed, the mutual holding company may in its discretion:
</P>
<P>(i) Pay the officer or employee all or part of the compensation withheld while its contract obligations were suspended, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reinstate (in whole or in part) any of its obligations which were suspended.
</P>
<P>(3) If the officer or employee is removed and/or permanently prohibited from participating in the conduct of the mutual holding company's affairs by an order issued under section 8 (e)(4) or (g)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818 (e)(4) or (g)(1)), all obligations of the mutual holding company under the contract shall terminate as of the effective date of the order, but vested rights of the contracting parties shall not be affected.
</P>
<P>(4) If the subsidiary savings association is in default (as defined in section 3(x)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act), all obligations under the contract shall terminate as of the date of default, but this paragraph (b) shall not affect any vested rights of the contracting parties: <I>Provided,</I> that this paragraph (b) need not be included in an employment contract if prior written approval is secured from the Board.
</P>
<P>(5) If the mutual holding company is subject to bankruptcy proceedings under title 11 of the United States Code, all obligations of the mutual holding company under the contract shall terminate as of the date that the petition is filed, but vested rights of the contracting parties shall not be affected: <I>Provided,</I> that this paragraph (b) need not be included in an employment contract if prior written approval is secured from the Board.
</P>
<P>(6) All obligations under the contract shall be terminated, except to the extent determined that continuation of the contract is necessary to the continued operation of the mutual holding company—
</P>
<P>(i) By the Board, at the time the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation enters into an agreement to provide assistance to or on behalf of the subsidiary savings association under the authority contained in 13(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By the Board, at the time the Board approves a supervisory merger to resolve problems related to operation of the mutual holding company or when the mutual holding company is determined by the Board to be in an unsafe or unsound condition.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Conversions From Mutual to Stock Form</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.50" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.50   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart governs how a mutual holding company may convert from the mutual to the stock form of ownership. This subpart supersedes all inconsistent charter and bylaw provisions of mutual holding companies converting to stock form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prescribed forms.</I> A mutual holding company must use the forms prescribed under this subpart and provide such information as the Board may require under the forms by regulation or otherwise. The forms required under this subpart include: Form AC (Application for Conversion); Form PS (Proxy Statement); Form OC (Offering Circular); and Form OF (Order Form).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers.</I> The Board may waive any requirement of this subpart or a provision in any prescribed form. To obtain a waiver, a mutual holding company must file a written request with the Board that:
</P>
<P>(1) Specifies the requirement(s) or provision(s) that the mutual holding company wants the Board to waive;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrates that the waiver is equitable; is not detrimental to the mutual holding company, mutual members, or other mutual holding companies or savings associations; and is not contrary to the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes an opinion of counsel demonstrating that applicable law does not conflict with the waiver of the requirement or provision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.51" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.51   Acquiring another insured stock depository institution as part of a conversion.</HEAD>
<P>When a mutual holding company converts to stock form, the subsidiary savings association may acquire for cash or stock another insured depository institution that is already in the stock form of ownership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.52" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.52   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this subpart and the forms prescribed under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Association members</I> or <I>members</I> are persons who, under applicable law, are eligible to vote at the meeting on conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility record date</I> is the date for determining eligible account holders. The eligibility record date must be at least one year before the date that the board of directors adopts the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible account holders</I> are any persons holding qualifying deposits on the eligibility record date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>IRS</I> is the United States Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Local community</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Every county, parish, or similar governmental subdivision in which the mutual holding company has a home or branch office;
</P>
<P>(2) Each county's, parish's, or subdivision's metropolitan statistical area;
</P>
<P>(3) All zip code areas in the mutual holding company's Community Reinvestment Act assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other area or category the mutual holding company sets out in its plan of conversion, as approved by the Board.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mutual holding company</I> has the same meaning in this subpart as that term is given in subpart A. For purposes of this subpart, references to mutual holding company shall also include a resulting stock holding company, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Offer, offer to sell,</I> or <I>offer for sale</I> is an attempt or offer to dispose of, or a solicitation of an offer to buy, a security or interest in a security for value. Preliminary negotiations or agreements with an underwriter, or among underwriters who are or will be in privity of contract with the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company, are not offers, offers to sell, or offers for sale.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Proxy soliciting material</I> includes a proxy statement, form of proxy, or other written or oral communication regarding the conversion.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase</I> or <I>buy</I> includes every contract to acquire a security or interest in a security for value.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Qualifying deposit</I> is the total balance in an account holder's savings accounts at the close of business on the eligibility or supplemental eligibility record date. The mutual holding company's plan of conversion may provide that only savings accounts with total deposit balances of $50 or more will qualify.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Resulting stock holding company</I> means the stock savings and loan holding company that is issuing stock in connection with conversion of a mutual holding company pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Sale</I> or <I>sell</I> includes every contract to dispose of a security or interest in a security for value. An exchange of securities in a merger or acquisition approved by the Board is not a sale.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Solicitation</I> and <I>solicit</I> is a request for a proxy, whether or not accompanied by or included in a form of proxy; a request to execute, not execute, or revoke a proxy; or the furnishing of a form of proxy or other communication reasonably calculated to cause the members to procure, withhold, or revoke a proxy. Solicitation or solicit does not include providing a form of proxy at the unsolicited request of a member, the acts required to mail communications for members, or ministerial acts performed on behalf of a person soliciting a proxy.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Subscription offering</I> is the offering of shares through nontransferable subscription rights to:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible account holders under § 239.59(h);
</P>
<P>(2) Tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans under § 239.59(m);
</P>
<P>(3) Supplemental eligible account holders under § 239.59(h); and
</P>
<P>(4) Other voting members under § 239.59(j).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Supplemental eligibility record date</I> is the date for determining supplemental eligible account holders. The supplemental eligibility record date is the last day of the calendar quarter before the Board approves the conversion and will occur only if the Board has not approved the conversion within 15 months of the eligibility record date.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Supplemental eligible account holders</I> are any persons, except officers, directors, and their associates of the mutual holding company or subsidiary savings association, holding qualifying deposits on the supplemental eligibility record date.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Underwriter</I> is any person who purchases any securities from the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company with a view to distributing the securities, offers or sells securities for the mutual stock holding company or resulting stock holding company in connection with the securities' distribution, or participates or has a direct or indirect participation in the direct or indirect underwriting of any such undertaking. Underwriter does not include a person whose interest is limited to a usual and customary distributor's or seller's commission from an underwriter or dealer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.53" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.53   Prior to conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pre-filing meeting and consultation.</I> (1) The mutual holding company's board, or a subcommittee of the board, may meet with the staff of the appropriate Reserve Bank or Board staff before the mutual holding company's board of directors votes on the plan of conversion. At that meeting the mutual holding company may provide the Reserve Bank or Board staff with a written strategic plan that outlines the objectives of the proposed conversion and the intended use of the conversion proceeds.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company should also consult with the Board or appropriate Reserve Bank before it files its application for conversion. The Reserve Bank or Board will discuss the information that the mutual holding company must include in the application for conversion, general issues that the mutual holding company may confront in the conversion process, and any other pertinent issues.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business plan.</I> (1) Prior to filing an application for conversion, the mutual holding company must adopt a business plan reflecting the mutual holding company's intended plans for deployment of the proposed conversion proceeds. The business plan is required, under § 239.55(b), to be included in the mutual holding company's conversion application. At a minimum, the business plan must address:
</P>
<P>(i) The subsidiary savings association's projected operations and activities for three years following the conversion. The business plan must describe how the conversion proceeds will be deployed at the savings association (and holding company, if applicable), what opportunities are available to reasonably achieve the planned deployment of conversion proceeds in the relevant proposed market areas, and how its deployment will provide a reasonable return on investment commensurate with investment risk, investor expectations, and industry norms, by the final year of the business plan. The business plan must include three years of projected financial statements. The business plan must provide that the subsidiary savings associations receive at least 50 percent of the net conversion proceeds. The Board may require that a larger percentage of proceeds be contributed to the subsidiary savings associations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company's plan for deploying conversion proceeds to meet credit and lending needs in the proposed market areas. The Board strongly discourages business plans that provide for a substantial investment in mortgage securities or other securities, except as an interim measure to facilitate orderly, prudent deployment of proceeds during the three years following the conversion, or as part of a properly managed leverage strategy.
</P>
<P>(iii) The risks associated with the plan for deployment of conversion proceeds, and the effect of this plan on management resources, staffing, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(iv) The expertise of the mutual holding company and saving association subsidiary's management and board of directors, or that the mutual holding company has planned for adequate staffing and controls to prudently manage the growth, expansion, new investment, and other operations and activities proposed in its business plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may not project returns of capital or special dividends in any part of the business plan. A newly converted company may not plan on stock repurchases in the first year of the business plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Management and board review of business plan.</I> (1) The chief executive officer and members of the board of directors of the mutual holding company must review, and at least two-thirds of the board of directors must approve, the business plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The chief executive officer and at least two-thirds of the board of directors of the mutual holding company must certify that the business plan accurately reflects the intended plans for deployment of conversion proceeds, and that any new initiatives reflected in the business plan are reasonably achievable. The mutual holding company must submit these certifications with its business plan, as part of the conversion application under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board review of the business plan.</I> (1) The Board will review the business plan to determine whether it demonstrates a safe and sound deployment of conversion proceeds, as part of its review of the conversion application. In making its determination, the Board will consider how the mutual holding company has addressed the applicable factors of paragraph (b) of this section. No single factor will be determinative. The Board will review every case on its merits.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must file its business plan with the appropriate Reserve Bank. The Board or appropriate Reserve Bank may request additional information, if necessary, to support its determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The mutual holding company must file its business plan as a confidential exhibit to the Form AC.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board approves the application for conversion and the mutual holding company completes the conversion, the resulting stock holding company must operate within the parameters of the business plan. The Board must approve any material deviation from the business plan in writing prior to such material deviation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure of business plan.</I> (1) The mutual holding company may discuss information about the conversion with individuals that it authorizes to prepare documents for the conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as permitted under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the mutual holding company must keep all information about the conversion confidential until the board of directors adopts the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) If the mutual holding company violates this section, the Board may require it to take remedial action. For example, the Board may require the mutual holding company to take any or all of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly announce that the mutual holding company is considering a conversion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Set an eligibility record date acceptable to the Board;
</P>
<P>(iii) Limit the subscription rights of any person who violates or aids in a violation of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Take any other action to ensure that the conversion is fair and equitable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.54" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.54   Plan of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption by the board of directors.</I> Prior to filing an application for conversion, the board of directors of the mutual holding company must adopt a plan of conversion that conforms to §§ 239.59 through 239.62 and 239.63(b). The board of directors must adopt the plan by at least a two-thirds vote. The plan of conversion is required, under § 239.55(b), to be included in the conversion application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of the plan of conversion.</I> The mutual holding company must include the information included in §§ 239.59 through 239.62 and 239.63(b) in the plan of conversion. The Board may require the mutual holding company to delete or revise any provision in the plan of conversion if the Board determines the provision is inequitable; is detrimental to the mutual holding company, the account holders, other mutual holding companies, or other savings associations; or is contrary to public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of board of directors' approval of the plan of conversion</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The mutual holding company must promptly notify its members that the board of directors adopted a plan of conversion and that a copy of the plan is available for the members' inspection in the mutual holding company's home office and in each of the subsidiary savings association's branch offices. The mutual holding company must mail a letter to each member or publish a notice in the local newspaper in every local community where the savings association has an office. The mutual holding company may also issue a press release. The Board may require broader publication, if necessary, to ensure adequate notice to the members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The mutual holding company may include any of the following statements and descriptions in the letter, notice, or press release.
</P>
<P>(i) The board of directors adopted a proposed plan to convert from mutual to stock form.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company will send its members a proxy statement with detailed information on the proposed conversion before the mutual holding company convenes a members' meeting to vote on the conversion.
</P>
<P>(iii) The members will have an opportunity to approve or disapprove the proposed conversion at a meeting. At least a majority of the eligible votes must approve the conversion.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mutual holding company will not vote existing proxies to approve or disapprove the conversion. The mutual holding company will solicit new proxies for voting on the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>(v) The Board must approve the conversion before the conversion will be effective. The members will have an opportunity to file written comments, including objections and materials supporting the objections, with the Board.
</P>
<P>(vi) The IRS must issue a favorable tax ruling, or a tax expert must issue an appropriate tax opinion, on the tax consequences of the conversion before the Board will approve the conversion. The ruling or opinion must indicate the conversion will be a tax-free reorganization.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Board might not approve the conversion, and the IRS or a tax expert might not issue a favorable tax ruling or tax opinion.
</P>
<P>(viii) Savings account holders will continue to hold accounts in the savings association with the same dollar amounts, rates of return, and general terms as existing deposits. The FDIC will continue to insure the accounts.
</P>
<P>(ix) The mutual holding company's conversion will not affect borrowers' loans, including the amount, rate, maturity, security, and other contractual terms.
</P>
<P>(x) The savings association's business of accepting deposits and making loans will continue without interruption.
</P>
<P>(xi) The current management and staff will continue to conduct current services for depositors and borrowers under current policies and in existing offices.
</P>
<P>(xii) The subsidiary savings association may continue to be a member of the Federal Home Loan Bank System.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The mutual holding company may substantively amend the proposed plan of conversion before the members' meeting.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The mutual holding company may terminate the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>(xv) After the Board approves the proposed conversion, the mutual holding company will send proxy materials providing additional information. After the mutual holding company sends proxy materials, members may telephone or write to the mutual holding company with additional questions.
</P>
<P>(xvi) The proposed record date for determining the eligible account holders who are entitled to receive subscription rights to purchase the shares.
</P>
<P>(xvii) A brief description of the circumstances under which supplemental eligible account holders will receive subscription rights to purchase the shares.
</P>
<P>(xviii) A brief description of how voting members may participate in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(xix) A brief description of how directors, officers, and employees will participate in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(xx) A brief description of the proposed plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(xxi) The par value (if any) and approximate number of shares that will be issued and sold in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other requirements.</I> (i) The mutual holding company may not solicit proxies, provide financial statements, describe the benefits of conversion, or estimate the value of the shares upon conversion in the letter, notice, or press release.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the mutual holding company responds to inquiries about the conversion, it may address only the matters listed in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amending a plan of conversion.</I> The mutual holding company may amend its plan of conversion before it solicits proxies. After the mutual holding company solicits proxies, it may amend the plan of conversion only if the Board concurs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.55" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.55   Filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applications under this subpart.</I> Any filing with the Board required under this subpart must be filed in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter. The Board will review any filing made under this subpart in accordance with § 238.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The application for conversion must include all of the following information.
</P>
<P>(i) A plan of conversion meeting the requirements of § 239.54(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) Pricing materials meeting the requirements paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Proxy soliciting materials under § 239.57(d), including:
</P>
<P>(A) A preliminary proxy statement with signed financial statements;
</P>
<P>(B) A form of proxy meeting the requirements of § 239.57(b); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any additional proxy soliciting materials, including press releases, personal solicitation instructions, radio or television scripts that the mutual holding company plans to use or furnish to the members, and a legal opinion indicating that any marketing materials comply with all applicable securities laws.
</P>
<P>(iv) An offering circular described in § 239.58(a).
</P>
<P>(v) The documents and information required by Form AC. The mutual holding company may obtain Form AC from the appropriate Reserve Bank and the Board's Web site (<I>http://www.federalreserve.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(vi) Where indicated, written consents, signed and dated, of any accountant, attorney, investment banker, appraiser, or other professional who prepared, reviewed, passed upon, or certified any statement, report, or valuation for use. See Form AC, instruction B(7).
</P>
<P>(vii) The business plan, submitted as a separately bound, confidential exhibit. See paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any additional information the Board requests.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will not accept for filing, and will return, any application for conversion that is improperly executed, materially deficient, substantially incomplete, or that provides for unreasonable conversion expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing an application for conversion.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must file the application for conversion on Form AC with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an application under this subpart, the Reserve Bank will promptly furnish notice and a copy of the application to the primary federal supervisor of any subsidiary savings association. The primary supervisor will have 30 calendar days from the date of the letter giving notice in which to submit its views and recommendations to the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidential treatment of portions of an application for conversion.</I> (1) The Board makes all filings under this subpart available to the public, but may keep portions of the application for conversion confidential under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may request the Board keep portions of the application confidential. To do so, the mutual holding company must separately bind and clearly designate as “confidential” any portion of the application for conversion that the mutual holding company deems confidential. The mutual holding company must provide a written statement specifying the grounds supporting the request for confidentiality. The Board will not treat as confidential the portion of the application describing how the mutual holding company plans to meet the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) objectives. The CRA portion of the application may not incorporate by reference information contained in the confidential portion of the application.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board will determine whether confidential information must be made available to the public under 5 U.S.C. 552 and part 261 of this chapter. The Board will advise the mutual holding company before it makes information the mutual holding company designated as “confidential” available to the public.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amending an application for conversion.</I> To amend an application for conversion, the mutual holding company must:
</P>
<P>(1) File an amendment with an appropriate facing sheet;
</P>
<P>(2) Number each amendment consecutively;
</P>
<P>(3) Respond to all issues raised by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate that the amendment conforms to all applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of filing of application and comment process</I>—(1) <I>Public notice of an application for conversion.</I> (i) The mutual holding company must publish a public notice of the application for conversion in accordance with the procedures in § 238.14 of this chapter. The mutual holding company must simultaneously prominently post the notice in its home office and in all of the branch offices of its subsidiary savings associations.
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly after publication, the mutual holding company must file a copy of any public notice and an affidavit of publication from each publisher with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board does not accept the application for conversion under § 239.55(g) and requires the mutual holding company to file a new application, the mutual holding company must publish and post a new notice and allow an additional 30 days for comment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public comments.</I> Commenters may submit comments on the application in accordance with the procedures in § 238.14 of this chapter. A commenter must file any comments with the appropriate Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Board review of the application for conversion</I>—(1) <I>Board action on a conversion application.</I> The Board may approve an application for conversion only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The conversion complies with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company will meet all applicable regulatory capital requirements after the conversion; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The conversion will not result in a taxable reorganization under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Board review of appraisal.</I> The Board will review the appraisal required by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining whether to approve the application. The Board will review the appraisal under the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) Independent persons experienced and expert in corporate appraisal, and acceptable to the Board, must prepare the appraisal report.
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate of the appraiser may serve as an underwriter or selling agent, if the mutual holding company ensures that the appraiser is separate from the underwriter or selling agent affiliate and the underwriter or selling agent affiliate does not make recommendations or affect the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(iii) The appraiser may not receive any fee in connection with the conversion other than for appraisal services.
</P>
<P>(iv) The appraisal report must include a complete and detailed description of the elements of the appraisal, a justification for the appraisal methodology, and sufficient support for the conclusions.
</P>
<P>(v) If the appraisal is based on a capitalization of the pro forma income, it must indicate the basis for determining the income to be derived from the sale of shares, and demonstrate that the earnings multiple used is appropriate, including future earnings growth assumptions.
</P>
<P>(vi) If the appraisal is based on a comparison of the shares with outstanding shares of existing stock associations, the existing stock associations must be reasonably comparable in size, market area, competitive conditions, risk profile, profit history, and expected future earnings.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Board may decline to process the application for conversion and deem it materially deficient or substantially incomplete if the initial appraisal report is materially deficient or substantially incomplete.
</P>
<P>(viii) The mutual holding company may not represent or imply that the Board has approved the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board review of compliance record.</I> The Board will review the compliance record of the subsidiary savings association under the regulations applicable to the savings association and the business plan to determine how the conversion will affect the convenience and needs of its communities.
</P>
<P>(i) Based on this review, the Board may approve the application, deny the application, or approve the application on the condition that the resulting stock holding company will improve the CRA performance or will address the particular credit or lending needs of the communities that it will serve.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may deny the application if the business plan does not demonstrate that the proposed use of conversion proceeds will help the resulting stock holding company to meet the credit and lending needs of the communities that the resulting stock holding company will serve.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may request that the mutual holding company amend the application if further explanation is necessary, material is missing, or material must be corrected.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board will deny the application if the application does not meet the requirements of this subpart, unless the Board waives the requirement under § 239.50(c).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Judicial review.</I> (1) Any person aggrieved by the Board's final action on the application for conversion may ask the court of appeals of the United States for the circuit in which the principal office or residence of such person is located, or the U.S. Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit, to review the action under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(j), which provisions shall apply in all respects as if such final action were an order, subject to paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) To obtain court review of the action, the aggrieved person must file a written petition requesting that the court modify, terminate, or set aside the final Board action. The aggrieved person must file the petition with the court within the later of 30 days after the Board publishes notice of its final action in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or 30 days after the mutual holding company mails the proxy statement to its members under § 239.56(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.56" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.56   Vote by members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mutual member approval of the plan of conversion.</I> (1) After the Board approves the plan of conversion, the mutual holding company must submit the plan of conversion to its members for approval. The mutual holding company must obtain this approval at a meeting of its members.
</P>
<P>(2) The members must approve the plan of conversion by a majority of the total outstanding votes.
</P>
<P>(3) The members may vote in person or by proxy.
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company may notify eligible account holders or supplemental eligible account holders who are not voting members of the proposed conversion. The mutual holding company may include only the information in § 239.54(c) in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility to vote for the plan of conversion.</I> The mutual holding company determines members' eligibility to vote by setting a voting record date. The mutual holding company must set a voting record date that is not more than 60 days nor less than 20 days before the meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notifying members of the meeting.</I> The mutual holding company must notify the members of the meeting to consider the conversion by sending the members a proxy statement.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must notify its members 20 to 45 days before the meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company must also notify each beneficial holder of an account at any subsidiary savings association held in a fiduciary capacity:
</P>
<P>(i) If the subsidiary savings association is a federal association and the name of the beneficial holder is disclosed on the records of the subsidiary savings association; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary savings association is a state-chartered association and the beneficial holder possesses voting rights under state law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submissions to the Board after the members' meeting.</I> (1) Promptly after the members' meeting, the mutual holding company must file all of the following information with the appropriate Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) A certified copy of each adopted resolution on the conversion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total votes eligible to be cast.
</P>
<P>(iii) The total votes represented in person or by proxy.
</P>
<P>(iv) The total votes cast in favor of and against each matter.
</P>
<P>(v) The percentage of votes necessary to approve each matter.
</P>
<P>(vi) An opinion of counsel that the mutual holding company conducted the members' meeting in compliance with all applicable state or federal laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Promptly after completion of the conversion, the mutual holding company must submit to the appropriate Reserve Bank an opinion of counsel that the mutual holding company has complied with all laws applicable to the conversion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.57" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.57   Proxy solicitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of proxy solicitation provisions.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must comply with these proxy solicitation provisions when the mutual holding company provides proxy solicitation material to members for the meeting to vote on the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) Members of the mutual holding company must comply with these proxy solicitation provisions when they provide proxy solicitation materials to members for the meeting to vote on the conversion, pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section except where:
</P>
<P>(i) The member solicits 50 people or fewer and does not solicit proxies on behalf of the mutual holding company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The member solicits proxies through newspaper advertisements after the board of directors adopts the plan of conversion. Any newspaper advertisements may include only the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the mutual holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) The reason for the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(C) The proposal or proposals to be voted upon;
</P>
<P>(D) Where a member may obtain a copy of the proxy solicitation material; and
</P>
<P>(E) A request for the members of the mutual holding company to vote at the meeting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of proxy.</I> The form of proxy must include all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement in bold face type stating that management is soliciting the proxy.
</P>
<P>(2) Blank spaces where the member must date and sign the proxy.
</P>
<P>(3) Clear and impartial identification of each matter or group of related matters that members will vote upon. It must include any proposed charitable contribution as an item to be voted on separately.
</P>
<P>(4) The phrase “Revocable Proxy” in bold face type (at least 18 point).
</P>
<P>(5) A description of any charter or state law requirement that restricts or conditions votes by proxy.
</P>
<P>(6) An acknowledgment that the member received a proxy statement before he or she signed the form of proxy.
</P>
<P>(7) The date, time, and the place of the meeting, when available.
</P>
<P>(8) A way for the member to specify by ballot whether he or she approves or disapproves of each matter that members will vote upon.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that management will vote the proxy in accordance with the member's specifications.
</P>
<P>(10) A statement in bold face type indicating how management will vote the proxy if the member does not specify a choice for a matter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permissible use of proxies.</I> (1) The mutual holding company may not use previously executed proxies for the plan of conversion vote. If members consider the plan of conversion at an annual meeting, the mutual holding company may vote proxies obtained through other proxy solicitations only on matters not related to the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may vote a proxy obtained under this subpart on matters that are incidental to the conduct of the meeting. The mutual holding company or its management may not vote a proxy obtained under this subpart at any meeting other than the meeting (or any adjournment of the meeting) to vote on the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proxy statement requirements</I>—(1) <I>Content requirements.</I> The mutual holding company must prepare the proxy statement in compliance with this subpart and Form PS. The mutual holding company may obtain Form PS from the appropriate Reserve Bank and the Board's Web site (<I>http://www.federalreserve.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other requirements.</I> (i) The Board will review the proxy solicitation material in its review of the application for conversion.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company must provide a written proxy statement to the members before or at the same time the mutual holding company provides any other soliciting material. The mutual holding company must mail proxy solicitation material to the members no later than ten days after the Board approves the conversion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Filing revised proxy materials.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must file revised proxy materials as an amendment to the application for conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) To revise the proxy solicitation materials, the mutual holding company must file:
</P>
<P>(i) Revised proxy materials as required by Form PS;
</P>
<P>(ii) Revised form of proxy, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional proxy solicitation material subject to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company must clearly indicate changes from the prior filing.
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company must file a definitive copy of all proxy solicitation material, in the form in which the mutual holding company furnishes the material to the members. The mutual holding company must file no later than the date that it sends or gives the proxy solicitation material to the members. The mutual holding company must indicate the date that it plans to release the materials.
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the Board requests the mutual holding company to do so, the mutual holding company does not have to file copies of replies to inquiries from the members or copies of communications that merely request members to sign and return proxy forms.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mailing proxy solicitation material.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must mail the member's proxy solicitation material if:
</P>
<P>(i) The board of directors adopted a plan of conversion;
</P>
<P>(ii) A member requests in writing that the mutual holding company mail the proxy solicitation material; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The member agrees to defray reasonable expenses of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) As soon as practicable after the mutual holding company receives a request under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the mutual holding company must mail or otherwise furnish the following information to the member:
</P>
<P>(i) The approximate number of members that the mutual holding company solicited or will solicit, or the approximate number of members of any group of account holders that the member designates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The estimated cost of mailing the proxy solicitation material for the member.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company must mail proxy solicitation material to the designated members promptly after the member furnishes the materials, envelopes (or other containers), and postage (or payment for postage) to the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company is not responsible for the content of a member's proxy solicitation material.
</P>
<P>(5) A member may furnish other members its own proxy solicitation material, subject to the rules in this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prohibited solicitations.</I> (1) False or misleading statements. (i) No one may use proxy solicitation material for the members' meeting if the material contains any statement which, considering the time and the circumstances of the statement:
</P>
<P>(A) Is false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
</P>
<P>(B) Omits any material fact that is necessary to make the statements not false or misleading; or
</P>
<P>(C) Omits any material fact that is necessary to correct a statement in an earlier communication that has become false or misleading.
</P>
<P>(ii) No one may represent or imply that the Board determined that the proxy solicitation material is accurate, complete, not false or not misleading, or passed upon the merits of or approved any proposal.
</P>
<P>(2) Other prohibited solicitations. No person may solicit:
</P>
<P>(i) An undated or post-dated proxy;
</P>
<P>(ii) A proxy that states it will be dated after the date it is signed by a member;
</P>
<P>(iii) A proxy that is not revocable at will by the member; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A proxy that is part of another document or instrument.
</P>
<P>(3) If a solicitation violates this section, the Board may require remedial measures, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Correction of the violation by a retraction and a new solicitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rescheduling the members' meeting; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other actions necessary to ensure a fair vote.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may also bring an enforcement action against the violator for violations of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Re-soliciting proxies.</I> If the mutual holding company amends its application for conversion, the Board may require it to re-solicit proxies for the members' meeting as a condition of approval of the amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.58" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.58   Offering circular.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirements.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must prepare and file the offering circular with the appropriate Reserve Bank in compliance with this subpart and Form OC. The mutual holding company may obtain Form OC from the Reserve Bank and the Board's Web site (<I>http://www.federalreserve.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must condition the stock offering upon member approval of the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board will review the Form OC and may comment on the included disclosures and financial statements.
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company must file a revised offering circular, final offering circular, and any post-effective amendment to the final offering circular.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board will not approve the adequacy or accuracy of the offering circular or the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution of the offering circular.</I> (1) The mutual holding company may distribute a preliminary offering circular at the same time as or after the mutual holding company mails the proxy statement to its members.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must distribute the offering circular in accordance with this subpart and with all applicable securities laws.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company must distribute the offering circular to persons listed in the plan of conversion no later than ten days after the Board approves the conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-effective amendments to the offering circular.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must file a post-effective amendment to the offering circular with the Board when a material event or change of circumstance occurs.
</P>
<P>(2) After the Securities and Exchange Commission declares the post-effective amendment effective, the mutual holding company must immediately deliver the amendment to each person who subscribed for or ordered shares in the offering.
</P>
<P>(3) The post-effective amendment must indicate that each person may increase, decrease, or rescind their subscription or order.
</P>
<P>(4) The post-effective offering period must remain open no less than 10 days nor more than 20 days, unless the Board approves a longer rescission period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.59" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.59   Offers and sales of stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purchase priorities.</I> The mutual holding company must offer to sell the conversion shares in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(2) Tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans.
</P>
<P>(3) Supplemental eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(4) Other voting members who have subscription rights.
</P>
<P>(5) The community, the community and the general public, or the general public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offering conversion shares.</I> (1) The mutual holding company may offer to sell the conversion shares if the Board approves the conversion, subject to compliance with requirements of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(2) The offer may commence at the same time as the proxy solicitation of the members begins.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pricing conversion shares.</I> (1) The conversion shares must be sold at a uniform price per share and at a total price that is equal to the estimated pro forma market value of the shares after conversion.
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum price must be no more than 15 percent above the midpoint of the estimated price range in the offering circular.
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum price must be no more than 15 percent below the midpoint of the estimated price range in the offering circular.
</P>
<P>(4) If the Board permits, the maximum price of conversion shares sold may be increased. The maximum price, as adjusted, must be no more than 15 percent above the maximum price computed under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The maximum price must be between $5 and $50 per share.
</P>
<P>(6) The mutual holding company must include the estimated price in any preliminary offering circular.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selling conversion shares.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must distribute order forms to all eligible account holders, supplemental eligible account holders, and other voting members to enable them to subscribe for the conversion shares they are permitted under the plan of conversion. The mutual holding company may either send the order forms with the offering circular or after it distributes the offering circular.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may sell the conversion shares in a community offering, a public offering, or both. The mutual holding company may begin the community offering, the public offering, or both at any time during the subscription offering or upon conclusion of the subscription offering.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company may pay underwriting commissions (including underwriting discounts). The Board may object to the payment of unreasonable commissions. The mutual holding company may reimburse an underwriter for accountable expenses in a subscription offering if the public offering is limited. If no public offering occurs, the mutual holding company may pay an underwriter a consulting fee. The Board may object to the payment of unreasonable consulting fees.
</P>
<P>(4) If the mutual holding company conducts the community offering, the public offering, or both at the same time as the subscription offering, it must fill all subscription orders first.
</P>
<P>(5) The mutual holding company must prepare the order form in compliance with this subpart and Form OF. The mutual holding company may obtain Form OF from the Reserve Bank and from the Board's Web site (<I>www.federalreserve.gov</I>).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited sales practices.</I> (1) In connection with offers, sales, or purchases of conversion shares under this subpart, the mutual holding company and its directors, officers, agents, or employees may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Employ any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtain money or property by means of any untrue statement of a material fact or any omission of a material fact necessary to make the statements, in light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Engage in any act, transaction, practice, or course of business that operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon a purchaser or seller.
</P>
<P>(2) During the conversion, no person may:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfer, or enter into any agreement or understanding to transfer, the legal or beneficial ownership of subscription rights for the conversion shares or the underlying securities to the account of another;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make any offer, or any announcement of an offer, to purchase any of the conversion shares from anyone but the mutual holding company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Knowingly acquire more than the maximum purchase allowable under the plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) The restrictions in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (e)(2)(ii) of this section do not apply to offers for more than 10 percent of any class of conversion shares by:
</P>
<P>(i) An underwriter or a selling group, acting on behalf of the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company, that makes the offer with a view toward public resale; or
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans so long as the plan or plans do not beneficially own more than 25 percent of any class of the equity securities in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(4) Any person that violates the restrictions in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (e)(2)(ii) of this section may face prosecution or other legal action.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment for conversion shares.</I> (1) A subscriber may purchase conversion shares with cash, by a withdrawal from a savings account, or a withdrawal from a certificate of deposit. If a subscriber purchases conversion shares by a withdrawal from a certificate of deposit, the mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association may not assess a penalty for the withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may not extend credit to any person to purchase the conversion shares.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest on payments for conversion shares.</I> (1) The mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association must pay interest from the date it receives a payment for conversion shares until the date it completes or terminates the conversion. The mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association must pay interest at no less than the passbook rate for amounts paid in cash, check, or money order.
</P>
<P>(2) If a subscriber withdraws money from a savings account to purchase conversion shares, the mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association must pay interest on the payment until the mutual holding company completes or terminates the conversion as if the withdrawn amount remained in the account.
</P>
<P>(3) If a depositor fails to maintain the applicable minimum balance requirement because he or she withdraws money from a certificate of deposit to purchase conversion shares, the mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association may cancel the certificate and pay interest at no less than the passbook rate on any remaining balance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Subscription rights for each eligible account holder and each supplemental eligible account holder.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must give each eligible account holder subscription rights to purchase conversion shares in an amount equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum purchase limitation established for the community offering or the public offering under paragraph (p) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) One-tenth of one percent of the total stock offering; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Fifteen times the following number: The total number of conversion shares that the mutual holding company will issue, multiplied by the following fraction: the numerator is the total qualifying deposit of the eligible account holder, and the denominator is the total qualifying deposits of all eligible account holders. The mutual holding company must round down the product of this multiplied fraction to the next whole number.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must give subscription rights to purchase shares to each supplemental eligible account holder in the same amount as described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, except that the mutual holding company must compute the fraction described in paragraph (h)(1)(iii) of this section as follows: the numerator is the total qualifying deposit of the supplemental eligible account holder, and the denominator is the total qualifying deposits of all supplemental eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Officers, directors, and their associates as eligible account holders.</I> The officers, directors, and their associates of the mutual holding company and subsidiary savings association may be eligible account holders. However, if an officer, director, or his or her associate receives subscription rights based on increased deposits in the year before the eligibility record date, the mutual holding company must subordinate subscription rights for these deposits to subscription rights exercised by other eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other voting members eligible to purchase conversion shares.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must give rights to purchase the conversion shares in the conversion to voting members who are neither eligible account holders nor supplemental eligible account holders. The mutual holding company must allocate rights to each voting member that are equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum purchase limitation established for the community offering and the public offering under paragraph (p) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) One-tenth of one percent of the total stock offering.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company must subordinate the voting members' rights to the rights of eligible account holders, tax-qualified employee stock ownership plans, and supplemental eligible account holders.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Purchase limitations for officers, directors, and their associates.</I> (1) When the mutual holding company converts, the officers, directors, and their associates of the mutual holding company and subsidiary savings association may not purchase, in the aggregate, more than the following percentage of the total stock offering:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Institution size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Officer and
<br/>director
<br/>purchases
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50,000,000 or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50,000,001-100,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100,000,001-150,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$150,000,001-200,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$200,000,001-250,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">31
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$250,000,001-300,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$300,000,001-350,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$350,000,001-400,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$400,000,001-450,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$450,000,001-500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over $500,000,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The purchase limitations in this section do not apply to shares held in tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans that are attributable to the officers, directors, and their associates.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Allocating conversion shares in the event of oversubscription.</I> (1) If the conversion shares are oversubscribed by the eligible account holders, the mutual holding company must allocate shares among the eligible account holders so that each, to the extent possible, may purchase 100 shares.
</P>
<P>(2) If the conversion shares are oversubscribed by the supplemental eligible account holders, the mutual holding company must allocate shares among the supplemental eligible account holders so that each, to the extent possible, may purchase 100 shares.
</P>
<P>(3) If a person is an eligible account holder and a supplemental eligible account holder, the mutual holding company must include the eligible account holder's allocation in determining the number of conversion shares that the mutual holding company may allocate to the person as a supplemental eligible account holder.
</P>
<P>(4) For conversion shares that the mutual holding company does not allocate under paragraphs (l)(1) and (l)(2) of this section, the mutual holding company must allocate the shares among the eligible or supplemental eligible account holders equitably, based on the amounts of qualifying deposits. The mutual holding company must describe this method of allocation in its plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(5) If shares remain after the mutual holding company has allocated shares as provided in paragraphs (l)(1) and (l)(2) of this section, and if the voting members oversubscribe, the mutual holding company must allocate the conversion shares among those members equitably. The mutual holding company must describe the method of allocation in its plan of conversion.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Employee stock ownership plan purchase of conversion shares.</I> (1) The tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan of the mutual holding company may purchase up to 10 percent of the total offering of the conversion shares.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board approves a revised stock valuation range as described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, and the final conversion stock valuation range exceeds the former maximum stock offering range, the mutual holding company may allocate conversion shares to the tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan, up to the 10 percent limit in paragraph (m)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan is not able to or chooses not to purchase stock in the offering, it may, with prior Board approval and appropriate disclosure in the offering circular, purchase stock in the open market, or purchase authorized but unissued conversion shares.
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company may include stock contributed to a charitable organization in the conversion in the calculation of the total offering of conversion shares under paragraphs (m)(1) and (m)(2) of this section, unless the Board objects on supervisory grounds.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Purchase limitations.</I> (1) The mutual holding company may limit the number of shares that any person, group of associated persons, or persons otherwise acting in concert, may subscribe to up to five percent of the total stock sold.
</P>
<P>(2) If the mutual holding company sets a limit of five percent under paragraph (n)(1) of this section, it may modify that limit with Board approval to provide that any person, group of associated persons, or persons otherwise acting in concert subscribing for five percent, may purchase between five and ten percent as long as the aggregate amount that the subscribers purchase does not exceed 10 percent of the total stock offering.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company may require persons exercising subscription rights to purchase a minimum number of conversion shares. The minimum number of shares must equal the lesser of the number of shares obtained by a $500 subscription or 25 shares.
</P>
<P>(4) In setting purchase limitations under this section, the mutual holding company may not aggregate conversion shares attributed to a person in the tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan with shares purchased directly by, or otherwise attributable to, that person.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Purchase preference for persons in the local community.</I> (1) In the subscription offering, subject to the purchase priorities set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, the mutual holding company may give a purchase preference to eligible account holders, supplemental eligible account holders, and voting members residing in the local community.
</P>
<P>(2) In the community offering, the mutual holding company must give a purchase preference to natural persons residing in the local community.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Conditions on community offerings and public offerings.</I> (1) If the mutual holding company offers conversion shares in a community offering, a public offering, or both, it must offer and sell the stock to achieve a widespread distribution of the stock.
</P>
<P>(2) If the mutual holding company offers shares in a community offering, a public offering, or both, it must first fill orders for the stock up to a maximum of two percent of the conversion stock on a basis that will promote a widespread distribution of stock. The mutual holding company must allocate any remaining shares on an equal number of shares per order basis until it fills all orders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.60" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.60   Completion of the offering.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deadline for completing the sale of stock.</I> The mutual holding company must complete all sales of the stock within 45 calendar days after the last day of the subscription period, unless the offering is extended under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offering period extension.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must request, in writing, an extension of any offering period.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may grant extensions of time to sell the shares. The Board will not grant any single extension of more than 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board grants the request for an extension of time, the mutual holding company must provide a post-effective amendment to the offering circular under § 239.58(c) to each person who subscribed for or ordered stock. The amendment must indicate that the Board extended the offering period and that each person who subscribed for or ordered stock may increase, decrease, or rescind their subscription or order within the time remaining in the extension period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.61" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.61   Completion of the conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Completion of the conversion.</I> (1) In the plan of conversion, the mutual holding company must set a date by which the conversion must be completed. This date must not be more than 24 months from the date that the members approve the plan of conversion. The date, once set, may not be extended by the mutual holding company or by the Board. The mutual holding company must terminate the conversion if it is not completed by that date.
</P>
<P>(2) The conversion is complete on the date that the mutual holding company accepts the offers for stock of the resulting stock holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of the conversion.</I> (1) The members may terminate the conversion by failing to approve the conversion at the members' meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The mutual holding company may terminate the conversion before the members' meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company may terminate the conversion after the members' meeting only if the Board concurs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting rights for stockholders following conversion.</I> The resulting stock holding company must provide the stockholders with exclusive voting rights.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rights of savings account holders.</I> The resulting stock holding company must provide a liquidation account for each eligible and supplemental eligible account holder under § 239.62(a)(1)-(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.62" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.62   Liquidation accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidation account.</I> (1) A liquidation account represents the potential interest of eligible account holders and supplemental eligible account holders in the mutual holding company's net worth at the time of conversion. The resulting stock holding company must maintain a sub-account to reflect the interest of each account holder.
</P>
<P>(2) Before the resulting stock holding company may provide a liquidation distribution to common stockholders, the resulting stock holding company must give a liquidation distribution to those eligible account holders and supplemental eligible account holders who hold savings accounts from the time of conversion until liquidation.
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting stock holding company may not record the liquidation account in the financial statements. The resulting stock holding company must disclose the liquidation account in the footnotes to the financial statements.
</P>
<P>(4) The initial balance of the liquidation account is the net worth in the statement of financial condition included in the final offering circular.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidation sub-accounts.</I> (1)(i) The resulting stock holding company determines the initial sub-account balance for a savings account held by an eligible account holder by multiplying the initial balance of the liquidation account by the following fraction: The numerator is the qualifying deposit in the savings account on the eligibility record date. The denominator is total qualifying deposits of all eligible account holders on that date.
</P>
<P>(ii) The resulting stock holding company determines the initial sub-account balance for a savings account held by a supplemental eligible account holder by multiplying the initial balance of the liquidation account by the following fraction: The numerator is the qualifying deposit in the savings account on the supplemental eligibility record date. The denominator is total qualifying deposits of all supplemental eligible account holders on that date.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an account holder holds a savings account on the eligibility record date and a separate savings account on the supplemental eligibility record date, the resulting stock holding company must compute separate sub-accounts for the qualifying deposits in the savings account on each record date.
</P>
<P>(2) The resulting stock holding company may not increase the initial sub-account balances. The resulting stock holding company must decrease the initial balance under § 239.62(d) as depositors reduce or close their accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retention of voting rights based on liquidation sub-accounts.</I> Eligible account holders or supplemental eligible account holders do not retain any voting rights based on their liquidation sub-accounts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjusting liquidation sub-accounts.</I> (1)(i) The resulting stock holding company must reduce the balance of an eligible account holder's or supplemental eligible account holder's sub-account if the deposit balance in the account holder's savings account at the close of business on any annual closing date, which for purposes of this section is the fiscal year end, after the relevant eligibility record dates is less than:
</P>
<P>(A) The deposit balance in the account holder's savings account at the close of business on any other annual closing date after the relevant eligibility record date; or
</P>
<P>(B) The qualifying deposits in the account holder's savings account on the relevant eligibility record date.
</P>
<P>(ii) The reduction must be proportionate to the reduction in the deposit balance.
</P>
<P>(2) If the resulting stock holding company reduces the balance of a liquidation sub-account, the resulting stock holding company may not subsequently increase it if the deposit balance increases.
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting stock holding company is not required to adjust the liquidation account and sub-account balances at each annual closing date if it maintains sufficient records to make the computations if a liquidation subsequently occurs.
</P>
<P>(4) The resulting stock holding company must maintain the liquidation sub-account for each account holder as long as the account holder maintains an account with the same social security number or tax identification number, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) If there is a complete liquidation, the resulting stock holding company must provide each account holder with a liquidation distribution in the amount of the sub-account balance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liquidation defined.</I> (1) For purposes of this subpart, a liquidation is a sale of the assets and settlement of the liabilities with the intent to cease operations and close. Upon liquidation, the resulting stock holding company must return the charter to the governmental agency that issued it. The government agency must cancel the charter.
</P>
<P>(2) A merger, consolidation, or similar combination or transaction with another depository institution, is not a liquidation. If the resulting stock holding company is involved in such a transaction, the surviving institution must assume the liquidation account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of liquidation on net worth.</I> The liquidation account does not affect the net worth.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.63" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.63   Post-conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management stock benefit plans.</I> (1) During the 12 months after the conversion, the resulting stock holding company may implement a stock option plan (Option Plan), an employee stock ownership plan or other tax-qualified employee stock benefit plan (collectively, ESOP), and a management recognition plan (MRP), provided the resulting stock holding company meets all of the following requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) The resulting stock holding company discloses the plans in the proxy statement and offering circular and indicates in the offering circular that there will be a separate shareholder vote on the Option Plan and the MRP at least six months after the conversion. No shareholder vote is required to implement the ESOP. The ESOP must be tax-qualified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Option Plan does not exceed more than ten percent of the number of shares that the resulting stock holding company issued in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) The ESOP and MRP do not exceed, in the aggregate, more than ten percent of the number of shares that the resulting stock holding company issued in the conversion. If the resulting stock holding company has tangible capital of ten percent or more following the conversion, the Board may permit the ESOP and MRP to represent, in the aggregate, up to 12 percent of the number of shares issued in the conversion; and
</P>
<P>(B) The MRP does not exceed more than three percent of the number of shares that the resulting stock holding company issued in the conversion. If the resulting stock holding company has tangible capital of ten percent or more after the conversion, the Board may permit the MRP to represent up to four percent of the number of shares that the resulting stock holding company issued in the conversion.
</P>
<P>(iv) No individual receives more than 25 percent of the shares under any plan.
</P>
<P>(v) The directors who are not the officers do not receive more than five percent of the shares of the MRP or Option Plan individually, or 30 percent of any such plan in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(vi) The shareholders approve each of the Option Plan and the MRP by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a duly called meeting before the resulting stock holding company establishes or implements the plan. The resulting stock holding company may not hold this meeting until six months after the conversion.
</P>
<P>(vii) When the resulting stock holding company distributes proxies or related material to shareholders in connection with the vote on a plan, the resulting stock holding company states that the plan complies with Board regulations and that the Board does not endorse or approve the plan in any way. The resulting stock holding company may not make any written or oral representations to the contrary.
</P>
<P>(viii) The resulting stock holding company does not grant stock options at less than the market price at the time of grant.
</P>
<P>(ix) The resulting stock holding company does not fund the Option Plan or the MRP at the time of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(x) The plan does not begin to vest earlier than one year after shareholders approve the plan, and does not vest at a rate exceeding 20 percent per year.
</P>
<P>(xi) The plan permits accelerated vesting only for disability or death, or if the resulting stock holding company undergoes a change of control.
</P>
<P>(xii) The plan provides that the executive officers or directors must exercise or forfeit their options in the event the institution becomes critically undercapitalized under the applicable regulatory capital requirements, is subject to Board enforcement action, or receives a capital directive under § 263.83 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(xiii) The resulting stock holding company files a copy of the proposed Option Plan or MRP with the Board and certifies to the Board that the plan approved by the shareholders is the same plan that the resulting stock holding company filed with, and disclosed in, the proxy materials distributed to shareholders in connection with the vote on the plan.
</P>
<P>(xiv) The resulting stock holding company files the plan and the certification with the Board within five calendar days after the shareholders approve the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The resulting stock holding company may provide dividend equivalent rights or dividend adjustment rights to allow for stock splits or other adjustments to the stock in the ESOP, MRP, and Option Plan.
</P>
<P>(3) The restrictions in paragraph (a)(1) of this section do not apply to plans implemented more than 12 months after the conversion, provided that materials pertaining to any shareholder vote regarding such plans are not distributed within the 12 months after the conversion. If a plan adopted in conformity with paragraph (a)(1) of this section is amended more than 12 months following the conversion, the shareholders must ratify any material deviations to the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on the sale of conversion shares by directors, officers, and their associates.</I> (1) Directors and officers who purchase conversion shares may not sell the shares for one year after the date of purchase, except that in the event of the death of the officer or director, the successor in interest may sell the shares.
</P>
<P>(2) The resulting stock holding company must include notice of the restriction described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section on each certificate of stock that a director or officer purchases during the conversion or receives in connection with a stock dividend, stock split, or otherwise with respect to such restricted shares.
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting stock holding company must instruct the stock transfer agent about the transfer restrictions in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For three years after the resulting stock holding company converts, the officers, directors, and their associates may purchase stock of the resulting stock holding company only from a broker or dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission. However, the officers, directors, and their associates may engage in a negotiated transaction involving more than one percent of the outstanding stock, and may purchase stock through any of the management or employee stock benefit plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repurchase of conversion shares.</I> (1) The resulting stock holding company may not repurchase its shares in the first year after the conversion except:
</P>
<P>(i) In extraordinary circumstances, the resulting stock holding company may make open market repurchases of up to five percent of the outstanding stock in the first year after the conversion if the resulting stock holding company files a notice under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the Board does not disapprove the repurchase. The Board will not approve such repurchases unless the repurchase meets the standards in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, and the repurchase is consistent with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The resulting stock holding company may repurchase qualifying shares of a director or conduct a Board approved repurchase pursuant to an offer made to all shareholders of the stock holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) Repurchases to fund management recognition plans that have been ratified by shareholders do not count toward the repurchase limitations in this section. Repurchases in the first year to fund such plans require prior written notification to the Board.
</P>
<P>(iv) Purchases to fund tax qualified employee stock benefit plans do not count toward the repurchase limitations in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) After the first year, the resulting stock holding company may repurchase the shares, subject to all other applicable regulatory and supervisory restrictions and paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) All stock repurchases are subject to the following restrictions.
</P>
<P>(i) The resulting stock holding company may not repurchase the shares if the repurchase will reduce its applicable capital levels below the amount required for the liquidation account under § 239.62(a). The resulting stock holding company must comply with the capital distribution requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) The restrictions on share repurchases apply to a charitable organization under § 239.64(b). The resulting stock holding company must aggregate purchases of shares by the charitable organization with the repurchases.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board review of repurchase of conversion shares.</I> (1) To repurchase stock in the first year following conversion, other than repurchases under paragraphs (c)(1)(iii) or (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the resulting stock holding company must file a written notice with the appropriate Reserve Bank. The resulting stock holding company must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed repurchase program;
</P>
<P>(ii) The effect of the repurchases on the regulatory capital and other capital levels; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purpose of the repurchases and, if applicable, an explanation of the extraordinary circumstances necessitating the repurchases.
</P>
<P>(2) The resulting stock holding company must file the notice with the appropriate Reserve Bank at least thirty days before the resulting stock holding company begins the repurchase program. The Board may extend its review of the notice for an additional sixty days.
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting stock holding company may not repurchase the shares if the Board objects to the repurchase program. The Board will not object to the repurchase program if:
</P>
<P>(i) The repurchase program will not adversely affect the financial condition of the resulting savings association;
</P>
<P>(ii) The resulting stock holding company submits sufficient information to evaluate the proposed repurchases;
</P>
<P>(iii) The resulting stock holding company demonstrate extraordinary circumstances and a compelling and valid business purpose for the share repurchases; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The repurchase program would not be contrary to other applicable regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Declaring and paying dividends following conversion.</I> The resulting stock holding company may declare or pay a dividend on its shares after it converts if:
</P>
<P>(1) The dividend will not reduce the regulatory capital below the amount required for the liquidation account under § 239.62(a);
</P>
<P>(2) The resulting stock holding company complies with all applicable regulatory capital requirements after it declares or pays dividends;
</P>
<P>(3) The resulting stock holding company complies with the capital distribution requirements under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(4) The resulting stock holding company does not return any capital, other than ordinary dividends, to purchasers during the term of the business plan submitted with the conversion.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligibility to acquire shares after conversion.</I> (1) For three years after the resulting stock holding company converts, no person may, directly or indirectly, acquire or offer to acquire the beneficial ownership of more than ten percent of any class of the equity securities without the Board's prior written approval. If a person violates this prohibition, the resulting stock holding company may not permit the person to vote shares in excess of ten percent, and may not count the shares in excess of ten percent in any shareholder vote.
</P>
<P>(2) A person acquires beneficial ownership of more than ten percent of a class of shares when he or she holds any combination of the stock or revocable or irrevocable proxies under circumstances that give rise to a conclusive control determination or rebuttable control determination under §§ 238.21(a) and (d) of this chapter. The Board will presume that a person has acquired shares if the acquiror entered into a binding written agreement for the transfer of shares. For purposes of this section, an offer is made when it is communicated. An offer does not include non-binding expressions of understanding or letters of intent regarding the terms of a potential acquisition.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the restrictions in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(2) of this section do not apply to any offer with a view toward public resale made exclusively to the resulting stock holding company, to the underwriters, or to a selling group acting on behalf of the resulting savings association.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the Board objects in writing, any person may offer or announce an offer to acquire up to one percent of any class of shares. In computing the one percent limit, the person must include all of his or her acquisitions of the same class of shares during the prior 12 months.
</P>
<P>(iii) A corporation whose ownership is, or will be, substantially the same as the ownership may acquire or offer to acquire more than ten percent of the common stock, if it makes the offer or acquisition more than one year after the resulting stock holding company converts.
</P>
<P>(iv) One or more of the tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans may acquire the shares, if the plan or plans do not beneficially own more than 25 percent of any class of shares of the resulting savings association in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(v) An acquiror does not have to file a separate application to obtain Board approval under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, if the acquiror files an application under part 238 of this chapter that specifically addresses the criteria listed under paragraph (f)(4) of this section and the resulting stock holding company does not oppose the proposed acquisition.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may deny an application under paragraph (f)(1) of this section if the proposed acquisition:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contrary to the purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is manipulative or deceptive;
</P>
<P>(iii) Subverts the fairness of the conversion;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is likely to injure the resulting stock holding company;
</P>
<P>(v) Is inconsistent with the plan to meet the credit and lending needs of the proposed market area;
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise violates laws or regulations; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Does not prudently deploy the conversion proceeds.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional requirements that apply following conversion.</I> After conversion, the resulting stock holding company must:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly register the shares under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a-78jj, as amended). The resulting stock holding company may not deregister the shares for three years.
</P>
<P>(2) Encourage and assist a market maker to establish and to maintain a market for the shares. A market maker for a security is a dealer who:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly publishes bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations for the security in a recognized inter-dealer quotation system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Furnishes bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations for the security on request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) May effect transactions for the security in reasonable quantities at quoted prices with other brokers or dealers.
</P>
<P>(3) Use the best efforts to list the shares on a national or regional securities exchange or on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation system.
</P>
<P>(4) File all post-conversion reports that the Board requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.64" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.64   Contributions to charitable organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Forming a charitable organization as part of a conversion.</I> When a mutual holding company converts to the stock form, it may form a charitable organization. Its contributions to the charitable organization are governed by the requirements of paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Donating conversion shares or conversion proceeds to a charitable organization.</I> Some of the conversion shares or proceeds may be contributed to a charitable organization if:
</P>
<P>(1) The plan of conversion provides for the proposed contribution;
</P>
<P>(2) The members approve the proposed contribution; and
</P>
<P>(3) The IRS either has approved, or approves within two years after formation, the charitable organization as a tax-exempt charitable organization under the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Member approval of charitable contributions.</I> At the meeting to consider conversion of the mutual holding company, the members must separately approve by at least a majority of the total eligible votes, a contribution of conversion shares or proceeds. If the mutual holding company has a subsidiary holding company with minority shareholders, or if the subsidiary savings association has minority shareholders, and the mutual holding company is adding a charitable contribution as part of a second step stock conversion, it must also have the minority shareholders separately approve the charitable contribution by a majority of their total eligible votes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charitable organization contribution limits.</I> A reasonable amount of conversion shares or proceeds may be contributed to a charitable organization, if the contribution will not exceed limits for charitable deductions under the Internal Revenue Code and the Board does not object on supervisory grounds. If the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company is well-capitalized pursuant to § 238.62 of this chapter, the Board generally will not object if it contributes an aggregate amount of eight percent or less of the conversion shares or proceeds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Charitable organization requirements.</I> The charitable organization's charter (or trust agreement) and gift instrument must provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) The charitable organization's primary purpose is to serve and make grants in the local community;
</P>
<P>(2) As long as the charitable organization controls shares, it must vote those shares in the same ratio as all other shares voted on each proposal considered by the shareholders;
</P>
<P>(3) For at least five years after its organization, one seat on the charitable organization's board of directors (or board of trustees) is reserved for an independent director (or trustee) from the local community. This director may not be the officer, director, or employee, or the affiliate's officer, director, or employee, and should have experience with local community charitable organizations and grant making; and
</P>
<P>(4) For at least five years after its organization, one seat on the charitable organization's board of directors (or board of trustees) is reserved for a director from the board of directors or the board of directors of an acquiror or resulting institution in the event of a merger or acquisition of the organization.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board may examine the charitable organization at the charitable organization's expense;
</P>
<P>(6) The charitable organization must comply with all supervisory directives that the Board imposes;
</P>
<P>(7) The charitable organization must annually provide the Board with a copy of the annual report that the charitable organization submitted to the IRS;
</P>
<P>(8) The charitable organization must operate according to written policies adopted by its board of directors (or board of trustees), including a conflict of interest policy; and
</P>
<P>(9) The charitable organization may not engage in self-dealing, and must comply with all laws necessary to maintain its tax-exempt status under the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conflicts of interest involving the directors of the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company.</I> (1) An individual who is the director, officer, or employee, or a person who has the power to direct the management or policies, or otherwise owes a fiduciary duty to the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company and who will serve as an officer, director, or employee of the charitable organization, is subject to the following obligations:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual must not advance their own personal or business interests, or those of others with whom the individual has a personal or business relationship, at the expense of the mutual holding company or resulting stock holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the individual has an interest in a matter or transaction before the board of directors, the individual must:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclose to the board all material nonprivileged information relevant to the board's decision on the matter or transaction, including the existence, nature and extent of the individual's interests, and the facts known to the individual as to the matter or transaction under consideration;
</P>
<P>(B) Refrain from participating in the board's discussion of the matter or transaction; and
</P>
<P>(C) Recuse themselves from voting on the matter or transaction (if the individual is a director). <I>See</I> Form AC, which provides further information or operating plans and conflict of interest plans. The mutual holding company may obtain Form AC from the appropriate Reserve Bank and the Board's Web site at <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Before the board of directors may adopt a plan of conversion that includes a charitable organization, the mutual holding company must identify the directors that will serve on the charitable organization's board. These directors may not participate in the board's discussions concerning contributions to the charitable organization, and may not vote on the matter.
</P>
<P>(3) The stock certificates of shares contributed to the charitable organization or that the charitable organization otherwise acquires must bear the following legend: “The board of directors must consider the shares that this stock certificate represents as voted in the same ratio as all other shares voted on each proposal considered by the shareholders, as long as the shares are controlled by the charitable organization.”
</P>
<P>(4) As long as the charitable organization controls shares, the resulting stock holding company must consider those shares as voted in the same ratio as all of the shares voted on each proposal considered by the shareholders.
</P>
<P>(5) After the stock offering is complete, the resulting stock holding company must submit an executed copy of the following documents to the appropriate Reserve Bank: the charitable organization's charter and bylaws (or trust agreement), operating plan (within six months after the stock offering), conflict of interest policy, and the gift instrument for the contributions of either stock or cash to the charitable organization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.65" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.65   Voluntary supervisory conversions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary supervisory conversion.</I> (1) The mutual holding company must comply with this section and § 239.66 to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion. This subpart applies to all voluntary supervisory conversions under sections 10(o)(7) and 10(p) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o) and (p)).
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 239.50 through 239.64 also apply to a voluntary supervisory conversion, unless a requirement is clearly inapplicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conducting a voluntary supervisory conversion.</I> In conducting a voluntary supervisory conversion, the mutual holding company may:
</P>
<P>(1) Sell its shares to the public;
</P>
<P>(2) Convert into stock form by merging into a state-chartered corporation; or
</P>
<P>(3) Sell its shares directly to an acquiror, who may be an individual, company, depository institution, or depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Member rights in a voluntary supervisory conversion.</I> Members of the mutual holding company do not have the right to approve or participate in a voluntary supervisory conversion, and will not have any legal or beneficial ownership interests in the converted association, unless the Board provides otherwise. The members may have interests in a liquidation account, if one is established.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligibility for a voluntary supervisory conversion.</I> A mutual holding company may be eligible to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either the mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association is significantly undercapitalized under applicable regulatory capital requirements (or the mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association is undercapitalized under applicable regulatory capital requirements and a standard conversion that would make it adequately capitalized is not feasible) and will be a viable entity following the conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) Severe financial conditions threaten stability of the mutual holding company, and a conversion is likely to improve its financial condition.
</P>
<P>(e) A mutual holding company or its subsidiary savings association will be a viable entity following the conversion if it satisfies all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) It will be adequately capitalized as a result of the conversion;
</P>
<P>(2) It, the proposed conversion, and its acquiror(s) comply with applicable supervisory policies;
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is in the best interest of the mutual holding company and its subsidiary savings associations, and the best interest of the Deposit Insurance Fund and the public; and
</P>
<P>(4) The transaction will not injure or be detrimental to the mutual holding company and its subsidiary savings associations, the Deposit Insurance Fund, or the public interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan of voluntary supervisory conversion.</I> A majority of the board of directors of the mutual holding company must approve a plan of voluntary supervisory conversion. The mutual holding company must include all of the following information in the plan of voluntary supervisory conversion.
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, date and place of birth, and social security number or tax identification number, as applicable, of each proposed purchaser of conversion shares and a description of that purchaser's relationship to the mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) The title, per-unit par value, number, and per-unit and aggregate offering price of shares that the mutual holding company will issue.
</P>
<P>(4) The number and percentage of shares that each investor will purchase.
</P>
<P>(5) The aggregate number and percentage of shares that each director, officer, and any affiliates or associates of the director or officer will purchase.
</P>
<P>(6) A description of any liquidation account.
</P>
<P>(7) Certified copies of all resolutions of the board of directors relating to the conversion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Voluntary supervisory conversion application.</I> The mutual holding company must include all of the following information and documents in a voluntary supervisory conversion application to the Board under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> (i) Evidence establishing that the mutual holding company meets the eligibility requirements under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An opinion of qualified, independent counsel or an independent, certified public accountant regarding the tax consequences of the conversion, or an IRS ruling indicating that the transaction qualifies as a tax-free reorganization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan of conversion.</I> A plan of voluntary supervisory conversion that complies with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business plan.</I> A business plan that complies with § 239.53(b), when required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Financial data.</I> (i) The most recent audited financial statements and Thrift Financial Report. The mutual holding company must explain how its current capital levels or the capital levels of its subsidiary savings associations make it eligible to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the estimated conversion expenses.
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence supporting the value of any non-cash asset contributions. Appraisals must be acceptable to the Board and the non-cash asset must meet all other Board policy guidelines.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pro forma financial statements that reflect the effects of the transaction. The mutual holding company must identify the tangible, core, and risk-based capital levels and show the adjustments necessary to compute the capital levels. The mutual holding company must prepare the pro forma statements in conformance with Board regulations and policy.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proposed documents.</I> (i) The proposed charter and bylaws.
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed stock certificate form.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Agreements.</I> (i) A copy of any agreements between the mutual holding company and proposed purchasers.
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy and description of all existing and proposed employment contracts. The mutual holding company must describe the term, salary, and severance provisions of the contract, the identity and background of the officer or employee to be employed, and the amount of any conversion shares to be purchased by the officer or employee or his or her affiliates or associates.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Related applications.</I> (i) All filings required under the securities offering rules of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any required Holding Company Act application or Control Act notice under part 238 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) A subordinated debt application, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) Applications for permission to organize a stock savings and loan holding company and for approval of a merger.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement describing any other applications required under federal or state banking laws for all transactions related to the conversion, copies of all dispositive documents issued by regulatory authorities relating to the applications, and, if requested by the Board, copies of the applications and related documents.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Waiver request.</I> A description of any of the features of the application that do not conform to the requirements of this subpart, including any request for waiver of any of these requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Offers and sales of stock.</I> If the mutual holding company converts under this subpart, the conversion shares must be offered and sold in compliance with § 239.59.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Post-conversion acquisition of shares.</I> For three years after the completion of a voluntary supervisory conversion, neither the resulting stock holding company nor the principal shareholder(s) may acquire shares from minority shareholders without the Board's prior approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 239.66" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 239.66   Board review of the voluntary supervisory conversion application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board review of a voluntary supervisory conversion application.</I> The Board will generally approve the application to engage in a voluntary supervisory conversion unless it determines:
</P>
<P>(1) The mutual holding company does not meet the eligibility requirements for a voluntary supervisory conversion under §§ 239.65(d) or because the proceeds from the sale of the conversion stock, less the expenses of the conversion, would be insufficient to satisfy any applicable viability requirement;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is detrimental to or would cause potential injury to the mutual holding company, its subsidiary savings association, or the Deposit Insurance Fund or is contrary to the public interest;
</P>
<P>(3) The mutual holding company or the acquiror, or the controlling parties or directors and officers of the mutual holding company or the acquiror, have engaged in unsafe or unsound practices in connection with the voluntary supervisory conversion; or
</P>
<P>(4) The mutual holding company fails to justify an employment contract incidental to the conversion, or the employment contract will be an unsafe or unsound practice or represent a sale of control. In a voluntary supervisory conversion, the Board generally will not approve employment contracts of more than one year for the existing management.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conditions the Board may impose on an approval.</I> (1) The Board will condition approval of a voluntary supervisory conversion application on all of the following.
</P>
<P>(i) The conversion stock sale must be complete within three months after the Board approves the application. The Board may grant an extension for good cause.
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must comply with all filing requirements of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The mutual holding company must submit an opinion of independent legal counsel indicating that the sale of the shares complies with all applicable state securities law requirements.
</P>
<P>(iv) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must comply with all applicable laws, rules, and regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must satisfy any other requirements or conditions the Board may impose.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may condition approval of a voluntary supervisory conversion application on either of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company must satisfy any conditions and restrictions the Board imposes to prevent unsafe or unsound practices, to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund and the public interest, and to prevent potential injury or detriment to the mutual holding company before and after the conversion. The Board may impose these conditions and restrictions on the mutual holding company and the resulting stock holding company (before and after the conversion), the acquiror, controlling parties, or directors and officers of the mutual holding company or the acquiror; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The mutual holding company or the resulting stock holding company must infuse a larger amount of capital, if necessary, for safety and soundness reasons.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.7.1.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 239—Mutual Holding Company Model Charter
</HEAD>
<HD1>FEDERAL MUTUAL HOLDING COMPANY CHARTER
</HD1>
<P><I>Section 1: Corporate title.</I> The name of the mutual holding company is __(the “Mutual Holding Company”).
</P>
<P><I>Section 2: Duration.</I> The duration of the Mutual Holding Company is perpetual.
</P>
<P><I>Section 3: Purpose and powers.</I> The purpose of the Mutual Holding Company is to pursue any or all of the lawful objectives of a federal mutual savings and loan holding company chartered under section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o), and to exercise all of the express, implied, and incidental powers conferred thereby and all acts amendatory thereof and supplemental thereto, subject to the Constitution and the laws of the United States as they are now in effect, or as they may hereafter be amended, and subject to all lawful and applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Federal Reserve Board (“Board”).
</P>
<P><I>Section 4: Capital.</I> The Mutual Holding Company shall have no capital stock.
</P>
<P><I>Section 5: Members.</I> [The content of this section 5 shall be identical to the content of the parallel section in the charter of the reorganizing association, with the following exceptions: (A) Any provisions conferring membership rights upon borrowers of the reorganizing association shall be eliminated and replaced with provisions grandfathering those rights in accordance with 12 CFR 239.5; and (B) appropriate changes shall be made to indicate that membership rights in the mutual holding company derive from deposit accounts in and, to the extent of any grandfather provisions, borrowings from the resulting association. Set forth below is an example of how section 5 should appear in the charter of a mutual holding company formed by a reorganizing association whose charter conforms to the model charter prescribed for federal mutual savings associations for calendar year 1989. Additional changes to this section 5 may be required whenever a mutual holding company reorganization involves an acquiree association, or a mutual holding company makes a post-reorganization acquisition of a mutual savings association, so as to preserve the membership rights of the members of the acquired association consistent with 12 CFR 239.5.]
</P>
<P>All holders of the savings, demand, or other authorized accounts of __[insert the name of the resulting association] (the “Association”) are members of the Mutual Holding Company. With respect to all questions requiring action by the members of the Mutual Holding Company, each holder of an account in the Association shall be permitted to cast one vote for each $100, or fraction thereof, of the withdrawal value of the member's account. In addition, borrowers from the Association as of __[insert the date of the reorganization or any earlier date as of which new borrowings ceased to result in membership rights] shall be entitled to one vote for the period of time during which such borrowings are in existence. [The foregoing sentence should be included only if the charter of the reorganizing association confers voting rights on any borrowers.] No member, however, shall cast more than one thousand votes. All accounts shall be nonassessable.
</P>
<P><I>Section 6. Directors.</I> The Mutual Holding Company shall be under the direction of a board of directors. The authorized number of directors shall not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen, as fixed in the Mutual Holding Company's bylaws, except that the number of directors may be decreased to a number less than five or increased to a number greater than fifteen with the prior approval of the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Section 7: Capital, surplus, and distribution of earnings.</I> [The content of this section 7 shall be identical to the content of the parallel section in the charter of the reorganizing association, except for changes made to indicate that distribution rights in the mutual holding company derive from deposit accounts in the resulting association, any changes required to provide that the Board shall be the approving authority in instances where the charter requires regulatory approval of distributions, and any other changes necessary to accommodate the mutual holding company format. Set forth below is an example of how section 7 should appear in the charter of a mutual holding company formed by a reorganizing association whose charter conforms to the model charter prescribed for federal mutual savings associations for calendar year 1989. Additional changes to this section 7 may be required whenever a mutual holding company reorganization involves an acquiree association, or a mutual holding company makes a post-reorganization acquisition of a mutual savings association, so as to preserve the membership rights of the members of the acquired association consistent with 12 CFR 239.5].
</P>
<P>The Mutual Holding Company shall distribute net earnings to account holders of the Association on such basis and in accordance with such terms and conditions as may from time to time be authorized by the Board, provided that the Mutual Holding Company may establish minimum account balance requirements for account holders to be eligible for distributions of earnings.
</P>
<P>All holders of accounts of the Association shall be entitled to equal distribution of the assets of the Mutual Holding Company, <I>pro rata</I> to the value of their accounts in the Association, in the event of voluntary or involuntary liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the Mutual Holding Company.
</P>
<P><I>Section 8. Amendment.</I> Adoption of any preapproved charter amendment shall be effective after such preapproved amendment has been approved by the members at a legal meeting. Any other amendment, addition, change, or repeal of this charter must be approved by the Board prior to approval by the members at a legal meeting and shall be effective upon filing with the Board in accordance with regulatory procedures.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>President or Chief Executive Officer of the Association
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date:


</FP-DASH>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.7.1.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 239—Subsidiary Holding Company of a Mutual Holding Company Model Charter
</HEAD>
<HD1>FEDERAL MHC SUBSIDIARY HOLDING COMPANY CHARTER
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Corporate title. The full corporate title of the mutual holding company (“MHC”) subsidiary holding company is XXX.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Domicile. The domicile of the MHC subsidiary holding company shall be in the city of _, in the State of _.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Duration. The duration of the MHC subsidiary holding company is perpetual.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Purpose and powers. The purpose of the MHC subsidiary holding company is to pursue any or all of the lawful objectives of a federal mutual holding company chartered under section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1467a(o), and to exercise all of the express, implied, and incidental powers conferred thereby and by all acts amendatory thereof and supplemental thereto, subject to the Constitution and laws of the United States as they are now in effect, or as they may hereafter be amended, and subject to all lawful and applicable rules, regulations, and orders of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”).
</P>
<P>Section 5. Capital stock. The total number of shares of all classes of the capital stock that the MHC subsidiary holding company has the authority to issue is _, all of which shall be common stock of par [or if no par is specified then shares shall have a stated] value of _ per share. The shares may be issued from time to time as authorized by the board of directors without the approval of its shareholders, except as otherwise provided in this section 5 or to the extent that such approval is required by governing law, rule, or regulation. The consideration for the issuance of the shares shall be paid in full before their issuance and shall not be less than the par [or stated] value. Neither promissory notes nor future services shall constitute payment or part payment for the issuance of shares of the MHC subsidiary holding company. The consideration for the shares shall be cash, tangible or intangible property (to the extent direct investment in such property would be permitted to the MHC subsidiary holding company), labor, or services actually performed for the MHC subsidiary holding company, or any combination of the foregoing. In the absence of actual fraud in the transaction, the value of such property, labor, or services, as determined by the board of directors of the MHC subsidiary holding company, shall be conclusive. Upon payment of such consideration, such shares shall be deemed to be fully paid and nonassessable. In the case of a stock dividend, that part of the retained earnings of the MHC subsidiary holding company that is transferred to common stock or paid-in capital accounts upon the issuance of shares as a stock dividend shall be deemed to be the consideration for their issuance.
</P>
<P>Except for shares issued in the initial organization of the MHC subsidiary holding company, no shares of capital stock (including shares issuable upon conversion, exchange, or exercise of other securities) shall be issued, directly or indirectly, to officers, directors, or controlling persons (except for shares issued to the parent mutual holding company) of the MHC subsidiary holding company other than as part of a general public offering or as qualifying shares to a director, unless the issuance or the plan under which they would be issued has been approved by a majority of the total votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting.
</P>
<P>The holders of the common stock shall exclusively possess all voting power. Each holder of shares of common stock shall be entitled to one vote for each share held by such holder, except as to the cumulation of votes for the election of directors, unless the charter provides that there shall be no such cumulative voting. Subject to any provision for a liquidation account, in the event of any liquidation, dissolution, or winding up of the MHC subsidiary holding company, the holders of the common stock shall be entitled, after payment or provision for payment of all debts and liabilities of the MHC subsidiary holding company, to receive the remaining assets of the MHC subsidiary holding company available for distribution, in cash or in kind. Each share of common stock shall have the same relative rights as and be identical in all respects with all the other shares of common stock.
</P>
<P>Section 6. Preemptive rights. Holders of the capital stock of the MHC subsidiary holding company shall not be entitled to preemptive rights with respect to any shares of the MHC subsidiary holding company which may be issued.
</P>
<P>Section 7. Directors. The MHC subsidiary holding company shall be under the direction of a board of directors. The authorized number of directors, as stated in the MHC subsidiary holding company's bylaws, shall not be fewer than five nor more than fifteen except when a greater or lesser number is approved by the Board, or his or her delegate.
</P>
<P>Section 8. Amendment of charter. Except as provided in Section 5, no amendment, addition, alteration, change or repeal of this charter shall be made, unless such is proposed by the board of directors of the MHC subsidiary holding company, approved by the shareholders by a majority of the votes eligible to be cast at a legal meeting, unless a higher vote is otherwise required, and approved or preapproved by the Board.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Attest:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Subsidiary Holding Company
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>President or Chief Executive Officer of the Subsidiary Holding Company
</FP>
<FP-DASH>By:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Effective Date:


</FP-DASH>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.7.1.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 239—Mutual Holding Company Model Bylaws
</HEAD>
<HD1>MODEL BYLAWS FOR MUTUAL HOLDING COMPANIES
</HD1>
<P>The term “trustees” may be substituted for the term “directors.”
</P>
<P>1. Annual meeting of members. The annual meeting of the members of the mutual holding company for the election of directors and for the transaction of any other business of the mutual holding company shall be held, as designated by the board of directors, at a location within the state that constitutes the principal place of business of the mutual holding company, or at any other convenient place the board of directors may designate, at (insert date and time within 150 days after the end of the mutual holding company's fiscal year, if not a legal holiday, or if a legal holiday then on the next succeeding day not a legal holiday). At each annual meeting, the officers shall make a full report of the financial condition of the mutual holding company and of its progress for the preceding year and shall outline a program for the succeeding year.
</P>
<P>2. Special meetings of members. Special meetings of the members of the mutual holding company may be called at any time by the president or the board of directors and shall be called by the president, a vice president, or the secretary upon the written request of members of record, holding in the aggregate at least one-tenth of the voting capital of the mutual holding company. Such written request shall state the purpose of the meeting and shall be delivered at the principal place of business of the mutual holding company addressed to the president. For purposes of this section, “voting capital” means FDIC-insured deposits as of the voting record date. Annual and special meetings shall be conducted in accordance with the most current edition of Robert's Rules of Order or any other set of written procedures agreed to by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>3. Notice of meeting of members. Notice of each meeting shall be either published once a week for the two successive calendar weeks (in each instance on any day of the week) immediately prior to the week in which such meeting shall convene, in a newspaper printed in the English language and of general circulation in the city or county in which the principal place of business of the mutual holding company is located, or mailed postage prepaid at least (insert number no less than 15) days and not more than (insert number not more than 45) days prior to the date on which such meeting shall convene, to each of its members of record at the last address appearing on the books of the mutual holding company. Such notice shall state the name of the mutual holding company, the place of the meeting, the date and time when it shall convene, and the matters to be considered. A similar notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place in each of the offices of the mutual holding company during the 14 days immediately preceding the date on which such meeting shall convene. If any member, in person or by authorized attorney, shall waive in writing notice of any meeting of members, notice thereof need not be given to such member. When any meeting is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjournment and reconvening of the meeting shall be given as in the case of the original meeting.
</P>
<P>4. Fixing of record date. For the purpose of determining members entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of members or any adjournment thereof, or in order to make a determination of members for any other proper purpose, the board of directors shall fix in advance a record date for any such determination of members. Such date shall be not more than 60 days nor fewer than 10 days prior to the date on which the action, requiring such determination of members, is to be taken. The member entitled to participate in any such action shall be the member of record on the books of the mutual holding company on such record date. The number of votes which each member shall be entitled to cast at any meeting of the members shall be determined from the books of the mutual holding company as of such record date. Any member of such record date who ceases to be a member prior to such meeting shall not be entitled to vote at that meeting. The same determination shall apply to any adjourned meeting.
</P>
<P>5. Member quorum. Any number of members present and voting, represented in person or by proxy, at a regular or special meeting of the members shall constitute a quorum. A majority of all votes cast at any meeting of the members shall determine any question, unless otherwise required by regulation. Directors, however, are elected by a plurality of the votes cast at an election of directors. At any adjourned meeting any business may be transacted which might have been transacted at the meeting as originally called. Members present at a duly constituted meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment.
</P>
<P>6. Voting by proxy. Voting at any annual or special meeting of the members may be by proxy pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), provided, that no proxies shall be voted at any meeting unless such proxies shall have been placed on file with the secretary of the mutual holding company, for verification, prior to the convening of such meeting. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the member. All proxies with a term greater than eleven months or solicited at the expense of the mutual holding company must run to the board of directors as a whole, or to a committee appointed by a majority of such board. Accounts held by an administrator, executor, guardian, conservator or receiver may be voted in person or by proxy by such person. Accounts held by a trustee may be voted by such trustee either in person or by proxy, in accordance with the terms of the trust agreement, but no trustee shall be entitled to vote accounts without a transfer of such accounts into the trustee name. Accounts held in trust in an IRA or Keogh Account, however, may be voted by the mutual holding company if no other instructions are received. Joint accounts shall be entitled to no more than 1000 votes, and any owner may cast all the votes unless the mutual holding company has otherwise been notified in writing.
</P>
<P>7. Communication between members. Communication between members shall be subject to any applicable rules or regulations of the Board. No member, however, shall have the right to inspect or copy any portion of any books or records of a mutual holding company containing: (i) a list of depositors in or borrowers from such mutual holding company; (ii) their addresses; (iii) individual deposit or loan balances or records; or (iv) any data from which such information could reasonably be constructed.
</P>
<P>8. Number of directors, membership. The number of directors shall be __[not fewer than five nor more than fifteen], except where authorized by the Board. Each director shall be a member of the mutual holding company. Directors shall be elected for periods of one to three years and until their successors are elected and qualified, but if a staggered board is chosen, provision shall be made for the election of approximately one-third or one-half of the board each year, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>9. Meetings of the board. The board of directors shall meet regularly without notice at the principal place of business of the mutual holding company at least once each month at an hour and date fixed by resolution of the board, provided that the place of meeting may be changed by the directors. Special meetings of the board may be held at any place specified in a notice of such meeting and shall be called by the secretary upon the written request of the chairman or of three directors. All special meetings shall be held upon at least 24 hours written notice to each director unless notice is waived in writing before or after such meeting. Such notice shall state the place, date, time, and purposes of such meeting. A majority of the authorized directors shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. The act of a majority of the directors present at any meeting at which there is a quorum shall be the act of the board. Action may be taken without a meeting if unanimous written consent is obtained for such action. The board may also permit telephonic participation at meetings. The meetings shall be under the direction of a chairman, appointed annually by the board, or in the absence of the chairman, the meetings shall be under the direction of the president.
</P>
<P>10. Officers, employees, and agents. Annually at the meeting of the board of directors of the mutual holding company following the annual meeting of the members of the mutual holding company, the board shall elect a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller: Provided, that the offices of president and secretary may not be held by the same person and a vice president may also be the treasurer or comptroller. The board may appoint such additional officers, employees, and agents as it may from time to time determine. The term of office of all officers shall be one year or until their respective successors are elected and qualified. Any officer may be removed at any time by the board with or without cause, but such removal, other than for cause, shall be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the person so removed. In the absence of designation from time to time of powers and duties by the board, the officers shall have such powers and duties as generally pertain to their respective offices. Any indemnification by the mutual holding company of the mutual holding company's personnel is subject to any applicable rules or regulations of the Board.
</P>
<P>11. Vacancies, resignation or removal of directors. Members of the mutual holding company shall elect directors by ballot: Provided, that in the event of a vacancy on the board between meetings of members, the board of directors may, by their affirmative vote, fill such vacancy, even if the remaining directors constitute less than a quorum. A director elected to fill a vacancy shall be elected to serve only until the next election of directors by the members. Any director may resign at any time by sending a written notice of such resignation to the mutual holding company delivered to the secretary. Unless otherwise specified therein such resignation shall take effect upon receipt by the secretary. More than three consecutive absences from regular meetings of the board, unless excused by resolution of the board, shall automatically constitute a resignation, effective when such resignation is accepted by the board. At a meeting of members called expressly for that purpose, directors or the entire board may be removed, only with cause, by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>12. Powers of the board. The board of directors shall have the power: (a) By resolution, to appoint from among its members and remove an executive committee, which committee shall have and may exercise the powers of the board between the meetings of the board, but no such committee shall have the authority of the board to amend the charter or bylaws, adopt a plan of merger, consolidation, dissolution, or provide for the disposition of all or substantially all the property and assets of the mutual holding company. Such committee shall not operate to relieve the board, or any member thereof, of any responsibility imposed by law; (b) To appoint and remove by resolution the members of such other committees as may be deemed necessary and prescribe the duties thereof; (c) To fix the compensation of directors, officers, and employees; and to remove any officer or employee at any time with or without cause; (d) To limit payments on capital which may be accepted; and (e) To exercise any and all of the powers of the mutual holding company not expressly reserved by the charter to the members.
</P>
<P>13. Execution of instruments, generally. All documents and instruments or writings of any nature shall be signed, executed, verified, acknowledged, and delivered by such officers, agents, or employees of the mutual holding company or any one of them and in such manner as from time to time may be determined by resolution of the board. All notes, drafts, acceptances, checks, endorsements, and all evidences of indebtedness of the mutual holding company whatsoever shall be signed by such officer or officers or such agent or agents of the mutual holding company and in such manner as the board may from time to time determine. Endorsements for deposit to the credit of the mutual holding company in any of its duly authorized depositories shall be made in such manner as the board may from time to time determine. Proxies to vote with respect to shares or accounts of other mutual holding companies or stock of other corporations owned by, or standing in the name of, the mutual holding company may be executed and delivered from time to time on behalf of the mutual holding company by the president or a vice president and the secretary or an assistant secretary of the mutual holding company or by any other persons so authorized by the board.
</P>
<P>14. Nominating committee. The chairman, at least 30 days prior to the date of each annual meeting, shall appoint a nominating committee of three individuals who are members of the mutual holding company. Such committee shall make nominations for directors in writing and deliver to the secretary such written nominations at least 15 days prior to the date of the annual meeting, which nominations shall then be posted in a prominent place in the principal place of business for the 15-day period prior to the date of the annual meeting, except in the case of a nominee substituted as a result of death or other incapacity. Provided such committee is appointed and makes such nominations, no nominations for directors except those made by the nominating committee shall be voted upon at the annual meeting unless other nominations by members are made in writing and delivered to the secretary of the mutual holding company at least 10 days prior to the date of the annual meeting, which nominations shall then be posted in a prominent place in the principal place of business for the 10-day period prior to the date of the annual meeting, except in the case of a nominee substituted as a result of death or other incapacity. Ballots bearing the names of all individuals nominated by the nominating committee and by other members prior to the annual meeting shall be provided for use by the members at the annual meeting. If at any time the chairman shall fail to appoint such nominating committee, or the nominating committee shall fail or refuse to act at least 15 days prior to the annual meeting, nominations for directors may be made at the annual meeting by any member and shall be voted upon.
</P>
<P>15. New business. Any new business to be taken up at the annual meeting, including any proposal to increase or decrease the number of directors of the mutual holding company, shall be stated in writing and filed with the secretary of the mutual holding company at least 30 days before the date of the annual meeting, and all business so stated, proposed, and filed shall be considered at the annual meeting; but no other proposal shall be acted upon at the annual meeting. Any member may make any other proposal at the annual meeting and the same may be discussed and considered; but unless stated in writing and filed with the secretary 30 days before the meeting, such proposal shall be laid over for action at an adjourned, special, or regular meeting of the members taking place at least 30 days thereafter. This provision shall not prevent the consideration and approval or disapproval at the annual meeting of the reports of officers and committees, but in connection with such reports no new business shall be acted upon at such annual meeting unless stated and filed as herein provided.
</P>
<P>16. Seal. The seal shall be two concentric circles between which shall be the name of the mutual holding company. The year of incorporation, the word “Incorporated” or an emblem may appear in the center.
</P>
<P>17. Amendment. Adoption of any bylaw amendment pursuant to § 239.15 of the Board's regulations, as long as consistent with applicable law, rules and regulations, and which adequately addresses the subject and purpose of the stated by law section, shall be effective after (i) approval of the amendment by a majority vote of the authorized board, or by a vote of the members of the mutual holding company at a legal meeting; and (ii) receipt of any applicable regulatory approval. When a mutual holding company fails to meet its quorum requirement solely due to vacancies on the board, the bylaws may be amended by an affirmative vote of a majority of the sitting board.
</P>
<P>18. Age limitations. [Bylaws on age limitations must comply with all Federal laws, such as the Age Discrimination in Employment Act and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act.]
</P>
<P>(a) Directors. No individual __ years of age shall be eligible for election, reelection, appointment, or reappointment to the board of the mutual holding company. No director shall serve as such beyond the annual meeting of the mutual holding company immediately following the director becoming __(fill in age used above), except that a director serving on __(fill in bylaw adoption date) may complete the term as director. This age limitation does not apply to an advisory director.
</P>
<P>(b) Officers. No individual __ years of age shall be eligible for election, reelection, appointment, or reappointment as an officer of the mutual holding company. No officer shall serve beyond the annual meeting of the mutual holding company immediately following the officer becoming __(fill in age used above), except that an officer serving on __(fill in bylaw adoption date) may complete the term. However, an officer shall, at the option of the board, retire at age __ if the officer has served in an executive or high policy-making post for at least two years immediately prior to retirement and is immediately entitled to nonforfeitable annual retirement benefits of at least __.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.9.7.1.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 239—Subsidiary Holding Company of a Mutual Holding Company Model Bylaws
</HEAD>
<HD1>MHC Subsidiary Holding Company Bylaws
</HD1>
<HD1>Article I—Home Office
</HD1>
<P>The home office of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be at ________ [set forth the full address] in the County of ________ , in the State of ________ .
</P>
<HD1>Article II—Shareholders
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Place of Meetings. All annual and special meetings of shareholders shall be held at the home office of the Subsidiary Holding Company or at such other convenient place as the board of directors may determine.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Annual Meeting. A meeting of the shareholders of the Subsidiary Holding Company for the election of directors and for the transaction of any other business of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be held annually within 150 days after the end of the Subsidiary Holding Company's fiscal year on the __of __ if not a legal holiday, and if a legal holiday, then on the next day following which is not a legal holiday, at __, or at such other date and time within such 150-day period as the board of directors may determine.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Special Meetings. Special meetings of the shareholders for any purpose or purposes, unless otherwise prescribed by the regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”), may be called at any time by the chairman of the board, the president, or a majority of the board of directors, and shall be called by the chairman of the board, the president, or the secretary upon the written request of the holders of not less than one-tenth of all of the outstanding capital stock of the Subsidiary Holding Company entitled to vote at the meeting. Such written request shall state the purpose or purposes of the meeting and shall be delivered to the home office of the Subsidiary Holding Company addressed to the chairman of the board, the president, or the secretary.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Conduct of Meetings. Annual and special meetings shall be conducted in accordance with the most current edition of Robert's Rules of Order unless otherwise prescribed by regulations of the Board or these bylaws or the board of directors adopts another written procedure for the conduct of meetings. The board of directors shall designate, when present, either the chairman of the board or president to preside at such meetings.
</P>
<P>Section 5. Notice of Meetings. Written notice stating the place, day, and hour of the meeting and the purpose(s) for which the meeting is called shall be delivered not fewer than 20 nor more than 50 days before the date of the meeting, either personally or by mail, by or at the direction of the chairman of the board, the president, or the secretary, or the directors calling the meeting, to each shareholder of record entitled to vote at such meeting. If mailed, such notice shall be deemed to be delivered when deposited in the mail, addressed to the shareholder at the address as it appears on the stock transfer books or records of the Subsidiary Holding Company as of the record date prescribed in section 6 of this article II with postage prepaid. When any shareholders' meeting, either annual or special, is adjourned for 30 days or more, notice of the adjourned meeting shall be given as in the case of an original meeting. It shall not be necessary to give any notice of the time and place of any meeting adjourned for less than 30 days or of the business to be transacted at the meeting, other than an announcement at the meeting at which such adjournment is taken.
</P>
<P>Section 6. Fixing of Record Date. For the purpose of determining shareholders entitled to notice of or to vote at any meeting of shareholders or any adjournment, or shareholders entitled to receive payment of any dividend, or in order to make a determination of shareholders for any other proper purpose, the board of directors shall fix in advance a date as the record date for any such determination of shareholders. Such date in any case shall be not more than 60 days and, in case of a meeting of shareholders, not fewer than 10 days prior to the date on which the particular action, requiring such determination of shareholders, is to be taken. When a determination of shareholders entitled to vote at any meeting of shareholders has been made as provided in this section, such determination shall apply to any adjournment.
</P>
<P>Section 7. Voting Lists. At least 20 days before each meeting of the shareholders, the officer or agent having charge of the stock transfer books for shares of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall make a complete list of the shareholders of record entitled to vote at such meeting, or any adjournment thereof, arranged in alphabetical order, with the address and the number of shares held by each. This list of shareholders shall be kept on file at the home office of the Subsidiary Holding Company and shall be subject to inspection by any shareholder of record or the shareholder's agent at any time during usual business hours for a period of 20 days prior to such meeting. Such list shall also be produced and kept open at the time and place of the meeting and shall be subject to inspection by any shareholder of record or any shareholder's agent during the entire time of the meeting. The original stock transfer book shall constitute prima facie evidence of the shareholders entitled to examine such list or transfer books or to vote at any meeting of shareholders. In lieu of making the shareholder list available for inspection by shareholders as provided in the preceding paragraph, the board of directors may elect to follow the procedures prescribed in § 239.26(d) of the Board's regulations as now or hereafter in effect.
</P>
<P>Section 8. Quorum. A majority of the outstanding shares of the Subsidiary Holding Company entitled to vote, represented in person or by proxy, shall constitute a quorum at a meeting of shareholders. If less than a majority of the outstanding shares is represented at a meeting, a majority of the shares so represented may adjourn the meeting from time to time without further notice. At such adjourned meeting at which a quorum shall be present or represented, any business may be transacted which might have been transacted at the meeting as originally notified. The shareholders present at a duly organized meeting may continue to transact business until adjournment, notwithstanding the withdrawal of enough shareholders to constitute less than a quorum. If a quorum is present, the affirmative vote of the majority of the shares represented at the meeting and entitled to vote on the subject matter shall be the act of the shareholders, unless the vote of a greater number of shareholders voting together or voting by classes is required by law or the charter. Directors, however, are elected by a plurality of the votes cast at an election of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 9. Proxies. At all meetings of shareholders, a shareholder may vote by proxy executed in writing by the shareholder or by his or her duly authorized attorney in fact. Proxies may be given telephonically or electronically as long as the holder uses a procedure for verifying the identity of the shareholder. Proxies solicited on behalf of the management shall be voted as directed by the shareholder or, in the absence of such direction, as determined by a majority of the board of directors. No proxy shall be valid more than eleven months from the date of its execution except for a proxy coupled with an interest.
</P>
<P>Section 10. Voting of Shares in the Name of Two or More Persons. When ownership stands in the name of two or more persons, in the absence of written directions to the Subsidiary Holding Company to the contrary, at any meeting of the shareholders of the Subsidiary Holding Company any one or more of such shareholders may cast, in person or by proxy, all votes to which such ownership is entitled. In the event an attempt is made to cast conflicting votes, in person or by proxy, by the several persons in whose names shares of stock stand, the vote or votes to which those persons are entitled shall be cast as directed by a majority of those holding such and present in person or by proxy at such meeting, but no votes shall be cast for such stock if a majority cannot agree.
</P>
<P>Section 11. Voting of Shares by Certain Holders. Shares standing in the name of another corporation may be voted by any officer, agent, or proxy as the bylaws of such corporation may prescribe, or, in the absence of such provision, as the board of directors of such corporation may determine. Shares held by an administrator, executor, guardian, or conservator may be voted by him or her, either in person or by proxy, without a transfer of such shares into his or her name. Shares standing in the name of a trustee may be voted by him or her, either in person or by proxy, but no trustee shall be entitled to vote shares held by him or her without a transfer of such shares into his or her name. Shares held in trust in an IRA or Keogh Account, however, may by voted by the Subsidiary Holding Company if no other instructions are received. Shares standing in the name of a receiver may be voted by such receiver, and shares held by or under the control of a receiver may be voted by such receiver without the transfer into his or her name if authority to do so is contained in an appropriate order of the court or other public authority by which such receiver was appointed. A shareholder whose shares are pledged shall be entitled to vote such shares until the shares have been transferred into the name of the pledgee, and thereafter the pledgee shall be entitled to vote the shares so transferred. Neither treasury shares of its own stock held by the Subsidiary Holding Company nor shares held by another corporation, if a majority of the shares entitled to vote for the election of directors of such other corporation are held by the Subsidiary Holding Company, shall be voted at any meeting or counted in determining the total number of outstanding shares at any given time for purposes of any meeting. [If charter authorizes cumulative voting, the following Section 12 shall apply, otherwise renumber Sections 13-16 as Sections 12-15.]
</P>
<P>Section 12. Cumulative Voting. Every shareholder entitled to vote at an election for directors shall have the right to vote, in person or by proxy, the number of shares owned by the shareholder for as many persons as there are directors to be elected and for whose election the shareholder has a right to vote, or to cumulate the votes by giving one candidate as many votes as the number of such directors to be elected multiplied by the number of shares shall equal or by distributing such votes on the same principle among any number of candidates.
</P>
<P>Section 13. Inspectors of Election. In advance of any meeting of shareholders, the board of directors may appoint any individual other than nominees for office as inspectors of election to act at such meeting or any adjournment. The number of inspectors shall be either one or three. Any such appointment shall not be altered at the meeting. If inspectors of election are not so appointed, the chairman of the board or the president may, or on the request of not fewer than 10 percent of the votes represented at the meeting shall, make such appointment at the meeting. If appointed at the meeting, the majority of the votes present shall determine whether one or three inspectors are to be appointed. In case any individual appointed as inspector fails to appear or fails or refuses to act, the vacancy may be filled by appointment by the board of directors in advance of the meeting or at the meeting by the chairman of the board or the president. Unless otherwise prescribed by regulations of the Board, the duties of such inspectors shall include: determining the number of shares and the voting power of each share, the shares represented at the meeting, the existence of a quorum, and the authenticity, validity and effect of proxies; receiving votes, ballots, or consents; hearing and determining all challenges and questions in any way arising in connection with the rights to vote; counting and tabulating all votes or consents; determining the result; and such acts as may be proper to conduct the election or vote with fairness to all shareholders.
</P>
<P>Section 14. Nominating Committee. The board of directors shall act as a nominating committee for selecting the management nominees for election as directors. Except in the case of a nominee substituted as a result of the death or other incapacity of a management nominee, the nominating committee shall deliver written nominations to the secretary at least 20 days prior to the date of the annual meeting. Upon delivery, such nominations shall be posted in a conspicuous place in each office of the Subsidiary Holding Company. No nominations for directors except those made by the nominating committee shall be voted upon at the annual meeting unless other nominations by shareholders are made in writing and delivered to the secretary of the Subsidiary Holding Company at least five days prior to the date of the annual meeting. Upon delivery, such nominations shall be posted in a conspicuous place in each office of the Subsidiary Holding Company. Ballots bearing the names of all persons nominated by the nominating committee and by shareholders shall be provided for use at the annual meeting. However, if the nominating committee shall fail or refuse to act at least 20 days prior to the annual meeting, nominations for directors may be made at the annual meeting by any shareholder entitled to vote and shall be voted upon.
</P>
<P>Section 15. New Business. Any new business to be taken up at the annual meeting shall be stated in writing and filed with the secretary of the Subsidiary Holding Company at least five days before the date of the annual meeting, and all business so stated, proposed, and filed shall be considered at the annual meeting; but no other proposal shall be acted upon at the annual meeting. Any shareholder may make any other proposal at the annual meeting and the same may be discussed and considered, but unless stated in writing and filed with the secretary at least five days before the meeting, such proposal shall be laid over for action at an adjourned, special, or annual meeting of the shareholders taking place 30 days or more thereafter. This provision shall not prevent the consideration and approval or disapproval at the annual meeting of reports of officers, directors, and committees; but in connection with such reports, no new business shall be acted upon at such annual meeting unless stated and filed as herein provided.
</P>
<P>Section 16. Informal Action by Shareholders. Any action required to be taken at a meeting of the shareholders, or any other action which may be taken at a meeting of shareholders, may be taken without a meeting if consent in writing, setting forth the action so taken, shall be given by all of the shareholders entitled to vote with respect to the subject matter.
</P>
<HD1>Article III—Board of Directors
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. General Powers. The business and affairs of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be under the direction of its board of directors. The board of directors shall annually elect a chairman of the board and a president from among its members and shall designate, when present, either the chairman of the board or the president to preside at its meetings.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Number and Term. The board of directors shall consist of __ [not fewer than five nor more than fifteen] members, and shall be divided into three classes as nearly equal in number as possible. The members of each class shall be elected for a term of three years and until their successors are elected and qualified. One class shall be elected by ballot annually.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Regular Meetings. A regular meeting of the board of directors shall be held without other notice than this bylaw following the annual meeting of shareholders. The board of directors may provide, by resolution, the time and place, for the holding of additional regular meetings without other notice than such resolution. Directors may participate in a meeting by means of a conference telephone or similar communications device through which all individuals participating can hear each other at the same time. Participation by such means shall constitute presence in person for all purposes.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Qualification. Each director shall at all times be the beneficial owner of not less than 100 shares of capital stock of the Subsidiary Holding Company unless the Subsidiary Holding Company is a wholly owned subsidiary of a holding company.
</P>
<P>Section 5. Special Meetings. Special meetings of the board of directors may be called by or at the request of the chairman of the board, the president, or one-third of the directors. The persons authorized to call special meetings of the board of directors may fix any place, within the Subsidiary Holding Company's normal lending territory, as the place for holding any special meeting of the board of directors called by such persons. Members of the board of directors may participate in special meetings by means of conference telephone or similar communications equipment by which all persons participating in the meeting can hear each other. Such participation shall constitute presence in person for all purposes.
</P>
<P>Section 6. Notice. Written notice of any special meeting shall be given to each director at least 24 hours prior thereto when delivered personally or by telegram or at least five days prior thereto when delivered by mail at the address at which the director is most likely to be reached. Such notice shall be deemed to be delivered when deposited in the mail so addressed, with postage prepaid if mailed, when delivered to the telegraph company if sent by telegram, or when the Subsidiary Holding Company receives notice of delivery if electronically transmitted. Any director may waive notice of any meeting by a writing filed with the secretary. The attendance of a director at a meeting shall constitute a waiver of notice of such meeting, except where a director attends a meeting for the express purpose of objecting to the transaction of any business because the meeting is not lawfully called or convened. Neither the business to be transacted at, nor the purpose of, any meeting of the board of directors need be specified in the notice of waiver of notice of such meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 7. Quorum. A majority of the number of directors fixed by section 2 of this article III shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting of the board of directors; but if less than such majority is present at a meeting, a majority of the directors present may adjourn the meeting from time to time. Notice of any adjourned meeting shall be given in the same manner as prescribed by section 5 of this article III.
</P>
<P>Section 8. Manner of Acting. The act of the majority of the directors present at a meeting at which a quorum is present shall be the act of the board of directors, unless a greater number is prescribed by regulation of the Board or by these bylaws.
</P>
<P>Section 9. Action Without a Meeting. Any action required or permitted to be taken by the board of directors at a meeting may be taken without a meeting if a consent in writing, setting forth the action so taken, shall be signed by all of the directors.
</P>
<P>Section 10. Resignation. Any director may resign at any time by sending a written notice of such resignation to the home office of the Subsidiary Holding Company addressed to the chairman of the board or the president. Unless otherwise specified, such resignation shall take effect upon receipt by the chairman of the board or the president. More than three consecutive absences from regular meetings of the board of directors, unless excused by resolution of the board of directors, shall automatically constitute a resignation, effective when such resignation is accepted by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 11. Vacancies. Any vacancy occurring on the board of directors may be filled by the affirmative vote of a majority of the remaining directors although less than a quorum of the board of directors. A director elected to fill a vacancy shall be elected to serve only until the next election of directors by the shareholders. Any directorship to be filled by reason of an increase in the number of directors may be filled by election by the board of directors for a term of office continuing only until the next election of directors by the shareholders.
</P>
<P>Section 12. Compensation. Directors, as such, may receive a stated salary for their services. By resolution of the board of directors, a reasonable fixed sum, and reasonable expenses of attendance, if any, may be allowed for attendance at each regular or special meeting of the board of directors. Members of either standing or special committees may be allowed such compensation for attendance at committee meetings as the board of directors may determine.
</P>
<P>Section 13. Presumption of Assent. A director of the Subsidiary Holding Company who is present at a meeting of the board of directors at which action on any Subsidiary Holding Company matter is taken shall be presumed to have assented to the action taken unless his or her dissent or abstention shall be entered in the minutes of the meeting or unless he or she shall file a written dissent to such action with the individual acting as the secretary of the meeting before the adjournment thereof or shall forward such dissent by registered mail to the secretary of the Subsidiary Holding Company within five days after the date a copy of the minutes of the meeting is received. Such right to dissent shall not apply to a director who voted in favor of such action.
</P>
<P>Section 14. Removal of Directors. At a meeting of shareholders called expressly for that purpose, any director may be removed only for cause by a vote of the holders of a majority of the shares then entitled to vote at an election of directors. If less than the entire board is to be removed, no one of the directors may be removed if the votes cast against the removal would be sufficient to elect a director if then cumulatively voted at an election of the class of directors of which such director is a part. [If cumulative voting has been deleted, the preceding sentence should be deleted.] Whenever the holders of the shares of any class are entitled to elect one or more directors by the provisions of the charter or supplemental sections thereto, the provisions of this section shall apply, in respect to the removal of a director or directors so elected, to the vote of the holders of the outstanding shares of that class and not to the vote of the outstanding shares as a whole.
</P>
<HD1>Article IV—Executive and Other Committees
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Appointment. The board of directors, by resolution adopted by a majority of the full board, may designate the chief executive officer and two or more of the other directors to constitute an executive committee. The designation of any committee pursuant to this Article IV and the delegation of authority shall not operate to relieve the board of directors, or any director, of any responsibility imposed by law or regulation.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Authority. The executive committee, when the board of directors is not in session, shall have and may exercise all of the authority of the board of directors except to the extent, if any, that such authority shall be limited by the resolution appointing the executive committee; and except also that the executive committee shall not have the authority of the board of directors with reference to: the declaration of dividends; the amendment of the charter or bylaws of the Subsidiary Holding Company, or recommending to the shareholders a plan of merger, consolidation, or conversion; the sale, lease, or other disposition of all or substantially all of the property and assets of the Subsidiary Holding Company otherwise than in the usual and regular course of its business; a voluntary dissolution of the Subsidiary Holding Company; a revocation of any of the foregoing; or the approval of a transaction in which any member of the executive committee, directly or indirectly, has any material beneficial interest.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Tenure. Subject to the provisions of section 8 of this article IV, each member of the executive committee shall hold office until the next regular annual meeting of the board of directors following his or her designation and until a successor is designated as a member of the executive committee.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Meetings. Regular meetings of the executive committee may be held without notice at such times and places as the executive committee may fix from time to time by resolution. Special meetings of the executive committee may be called by any member thereof upon not less than one day's notice stating the place, date, and hour of the meeting, which notice may be written or oral. Any member of the executive committee may waive notice of any meeting and no notice of any meeting need be given to any member thereof who attends in person. The notice of a meeting of the executive committee need not state the business proposed to be transacted at the meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 5. Quorum. A majority of the members of the executive committee shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting thereof, and action of the executive committee must be authorized by the affirmative vote of a majority of the members present at a meeting at which a quorum is present.
</P>
<P>Section 6. Action Without a Meeting. Any action required or permitted to be taken by the executive committee at a meeting may be taken without a meeting if a consent in writing, setting forth the action so taken, shall be signed by all of the members of the executive committee.
</P>
<P>Section 7. Vacancies. Any vacancy in the executive committee may be filled by a resolution adopted by a majority of the full board of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 8. Resignations and Removal. Any member of the executive committee may be removed at any time with or without cause by resolution adopted by a majority of the full board of directors. Any member of the executive committee may resign from the executive committee at any time by giving written notice to the president or secretary of the Subsidiary Holding Company. Unless otherwise specified, such resignation shall take effect upon its receipt; the acceptance of such resignation shall not be necessary to make it effective. No notice of any meeting need be given to any member thereof who attends in person. The notice of a meeting of the executive committee need not state the business proposed to be transacted at the meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 9. Procedure. The executive committee shall elect a presiding officer from its members and may fix its own rules of procedure, which shall not be inconsistent with these bylaws. It shall keep regular minutes of its proceedings and report the same to the board of directors for its information at the meeting held next after the proceedings shall have occurred.
</P>
<P>Section 10. Other Committees. The board of directors may by resolution establish an audit, loan, or other committee composed of directors as they may determine to be necessary or appropriate for the conduct of the business of the Subsidiary Holding Company and may prescribe the duties, constitution, and procedures thereof.
</P>
<HD1>Article V—Officers
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Positions. The officers of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be a president, one or more vice presidents, a secretary, and a treasurer or comptroller, each of whom shall be elected by the board of directors. The board of directors may also designate the chairman of the board as an officer. The offices of the secretary and treasurer or comptroller may be held by the same individual and a vice president may also be either the secretary or the treasurer or comptroller. The board of directors may designate one or more vice presidents as executive vice president or senior vice president. The board of directors may also elect or authorize the appointment of such other officers as the business of the Subsidiary Holding Company may require. The officers shall have such authority and perform such duties as the board of directors may from time to time authorize or determine. In the absence of action by the board of directors, the officers shall have such powers and duties as generally pertain to their respective offices.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Election and Term of Office. The officers of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be elected annually at the first meeting of the board of directors held after each annual meeting of the shareholders. If the election of officers is not held at such meeting, such election shall be held as soon thereafter as possible. Each officer shall hold office until a successor has been duly elected and qualified or until the officer's death, resignation, or removal in the manner hereinafter provided. Election or appointment of an officer, employee, or agent shall not of itself create contractual rights. The board of directors may authorize the Subsidiary Holding Company to enter into an employment contract with any officer in accordance with regulations of the Board; but no such contract shall impair the right of the board of directors to remove any officer at any time in accordance with section 3 of this article V.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Removal. Any officer may be removed by the board of directors whenever in its judgment the best interests of the Subsidiary Holding Company will be served thereby, but such removal, other than for cause, shall be without prejudice to the contractual rights, if any, of the officer so removed.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Vacancies. A vacancy in any office because of death, resignation, removal, disqualification, or otherwise may be filled by the board of directors for the unexpired portion of the term.
</P>
<P>Section 5. Remuneration. The remuneration of the officers shall be fixed from time to time by the board of directors.
</P>
<HD1>Article VI—Contracts, Loans, Checks, and Deposits
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Contracts. To the extent permitted by regulations of the Board, and except as otherwise prescribed by these bylaws with respect to certificates for shares, the board of directors may authorize any officer, employee, or agent of the Subsidiary Holding Company to enter into any contract or execute and deliver any instrument in the name of and on behalf of the Subsidiary Holding Company. Such authority may be general or confined to specific instances.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Loans. No loans shall be contracted on behalf of the Subsidiary Holding Company and no evidence of indebtedness shall be issued in its name unless authorized by the board of directors. Such authority may be general or confined to specific instances.
</P>
<P>Section 3. Checks; Drafts. <I>etc.</I> All checks, drafts, or other orders for the payment of money, notes, or other evidences of indebtedness issued in the name of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be signed by one or more officers, employees or agents of the Subsidiary Holding Company in such manner as shall from time to time be determined by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Deposits. All funds of the Subsidiary Holding Company not otherwise employed shall be deposited from time to time to the credit of the Subsidiary Holding Company in any duly authorized depositories as the board of directors may select.
</P>
<HD1>Article VII—Certificates for Shares and Their Transfer
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. Certificates for Shares. Certificates representing shares of capital stock of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be in such form as shall be determined by the board of directors and approved by the Board. Such certificates shall be signed by the chief executive officer or by any other officer of the Subsidiary Holding Company authorized by the board of directors, attested by the secretary or an assistant secretary, and sealed with the corporate seal or a facsimile thereof. The signatures of such officers upon a certificate may be facsimiles if the certificate is manually signed on behalf of a transfer agent or a registrar other than the Subsidiary Holding Company itself or one of its employees. Each certificate for shares of capital stock shall be consecutively numbered or otherwise identified. The name and address of the person to whom the shares are issued, with the number of shares and date of issue, shall be entered on the stock transfer books of the Subsidiary Holding Company. All certificates surrendered to the Subsidiary Holding Company for transfer shall be canceled and no new certificate shall be issued until the former certificate for a like number of shares has been surrendered and canceled, except that in the case of a lost or destroyed certificate, a new certificate may be issued upon such terms and indemnity to the Subsidiary Holding Company as the board of directors may prescribe.
</P>
<P>Section 2. Transfer of Shares. Transfer of shares of capital stock of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be made only on its stock transfer books. Authority for such transfer shall be given only by the holder of record or by his or her legal representative, who shall furnish proper evidence of such authority, or by his or her attorney authorized by a duly executed power of attorney and filed with the Subsidiary Holding Company. Such transfer shall be made only on surrender for cancellation of the certificate for such shares. The person in whose name shares of capital stock stand on the books of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall be deemed by the Subsidiary Holding Company to be the owner for all purposes.
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII—Fiscal Year
</HD1>
<P>The fiscal year of the Subsidiary Holding Company shall end on the ________of________each year. The appointment of accountants shall be subject to annual ratification by the shareholders.
</P>
<HD1>Article IX—Dividends
</HD1>
<P>Subject to the terms of the Subsidiary Holding Company's charter and the regulations and orders of the Board, the board of directors may, from time to time, declare, and the Subsidiary Holding Company may pay, dividends on its outstanding shares of capital stock.
</P>
<HD1>Article X—Corporate Seal
</HD1>
<P>The board of directors shall provide a Subsidiary Holding Company seal, which shall be two concentric circles between which shall be the name of the Subsidiary Holding Company. The year of incorporation or an emblem may appear in the center.
</P>
<HD1>Article XI—Amendments
</HD1>
<P>These bylaws may be amended in a manner consistent with regulations of the Board and shall be effective after: (i) approval of the amendment by a majority vote of the authorized board of directors, or by a majority vote of the votes cast by the shareholders of the Subsidiary Holding Company at any legal meeting, and (ii) receipt of any applicable regulatory approval. When a Subsidiary Holding Company fails to meet its quorum requirements, solely due to vacancies on the board, then the affirmative vote of a majority of the sitting board will be required to amend the bylaws.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="240" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 240—RETAIL FOREIGN EXCHANGE TRANSACTIONS (REGULATION NN)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E), 12 U.S.C. 248, 321-338, 1813(q), 1818, 1844(b), 3106a, 3108.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 21027, Apr. 9, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 240.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under the authority of section 2(c)(2)(E) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E)), sections 9 and 11 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338 and 248), section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1844(b)), sections 9 and 13a of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106a and 3108), and sections 3(q) and 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q) and 1818).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes rules applicable to retail foreign exchange transactions engaged in by banking institutions on or after May 13, 2013.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, this part applies to banking institutions, as defined in section 240.2(b) of this part, and any branches or offices of those institutions wherever located. This part applies to subsidiaries of banking institutions organized under the laws of the United States or any U.S. state that are not subject to the jurisdiction of another federal regulatory agency authorized to prescribe rules or regulations under section 2(c)(2)(E) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. (2)(c)(2)(E)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International applicability.</I> Sections 240.3 and 240.5 through 240.16 do not apply to retail foreign exchange transactions between a foreign branch or office of a banking institution and a non-U.S. customer. With respect to those transactions, the foreign branch or office remains subject to any disclosure, recordkeeping, capital, margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, and other requirements of applicable foreign law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms have the same meaning as in the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>): “affiliated person of a futures commission merchant”; “associated person”; “contract of sale”; “commodity”; “futures commission merchant”; “future delivery”; “option”; “security”; and “security futures product.”
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2);
</P>
<P>(2) An uninsured state-licensed U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(3) A financial holding company (as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956; 12 U.S.C. 1841);
</P>
<P>(4) A bank holding company (as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956; 12 U.S.C. 1841);
</P>
<P>(5) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners Loan Act; 12 U.S.C. 1467a)
</P>
<P>(6) A corporation operating under the fifth undesignated paragraph of section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 603), commonly known as “an agreement corporation;” and
</P>
<P>(7) A corporation organized under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>), commonly known as an “Edge Act corporation.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible contract participant</I> has the same meaning as in the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.,</I> as implemented in 17 CFR 1.3(m).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Forex</I> means foreign exchange.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Identified banking product</I> has the same meaning as in section 401(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> or <I>IAP</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(u)(1), (2), or (3).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Introducing broker</I> means any person who solicits or accepts orders from a retail forex customer in connection with retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Related person,</I> when used in reference to a retail forex counterparty, means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any general partner, officer, director, or owner of ten percent or more of the capital stock of the retail forex counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) An associated person or employee of the retail forex counterparty, if the retail forex counterparty is not an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(3) An IAP, if the retail forex counterparty is an insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any relative or spouse of any of the foregoing persons, or any relative of such spouse, who shares the same home as any of the foregoing persons.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Retail foreign exchange dealer</I> means any person other than a retail forex customer that is, or that offers to be, the counterparty to a retail forex transaction, except for a person described in item (aa), (bb), (cc)(AA), (dd), or (ff) of section 2(c)(2)(B)(i)(II) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(B)(i)(II)).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Retail forex account</I> means the account of a retail forex customer, established with a banking institution, in which retail forex transactions with the banking institution as counterparty are undertaken, or the account of a retail forex customer that is established in order to enter into such transactions.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Retail forex account agreement</I> means the contractual agreement between a banking institution and a retail forex customer that contains the terms governing the customer's retail forex account with the banking institution.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Retail forex business</I> means engaging in one or more retail forex transactions with the intent to derive income from those transactions, either directly or indirectly.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Retail forex counterparty</I> includes, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) A banking institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A retail foreign exchange dealer;
</P>
<P>(3) A futures commission merchant;
</P>
<P>(4) An affiliated person of a futures commission merchant; and
</P>
<P>(5) A broker or dealer registered under section 15(b) (except paragraph (11) thereof) or 15C of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o(b), 78o-5) or a U.S. financial institution other than a banking institution, provided the counterparty is subject to a rule or regulation of a Federal regulatory agency covering retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Retail forex customer</I> means a customer that is not an eligible contract participant, acting on his, her, or its own behalf and engaging in retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Retail forex proprietary account</I> means a retail forex account carried on the books of a banking institution for one of the following persons; a retail forex account of which 10 percent or more is owned by one of the following persons; or a retail forex account of which an aggregate of 10 percent or more of which is owned by more than one of the following persons:
</P>
<P>(1) The banking institution;
</P>
<P>(2) An officer, director or owner of ten percent or more of the capital stock of the banking institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) An employee of the banking institution, whose duties include:
</P>
<P>(i) The management of the banking institution's business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The handling of the banking institution's retail forex transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The keeping of records, including without limitation the software used to make or maintain those records, pertaining to the banking institution's retail forex transactions; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The signing or co-signing of checks or drafts on behalf of the banking institution;
</P>
<P>(4) A spouse or minor dependent living in the same household as of any of the foregoing persons; or
</P>
<P>(5) An affiliate of the banking institution;
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Retail forex transaction</I> means an agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency, other than an identified banking product or a part of an identified banking product, that is offered or entered into by a banking institution with a person that is not an eligible contract participant and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract; or
</P>
<P>(2) An option, other than an option executed or traded on a national securities exchange registered pursuant to section 6(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f(a)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Offered or entered into on a leveraged or margined basis, or financed by a banking institution, its affiliate, or any person acting in concert with the banking institution or its affiliate on a similar basis, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is not a security futures product as defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contract of sale that—
</P>
<P>(A) Results in actual delivery within two days; or
</P>
<P>(B) Creates an enforceable obligation to deliver between a seller and buyer that have the ability to deliver and accept delivery, respectively, in connection with their line of business; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An agreement, contract, or transaction that the Board determines is not functionally or economically similar to an agreement, contract, or transaction described in paragraph (p)(1) or (p)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.3   Prohibited transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fraudulent conduct prohibited.</I> No banking institution or its related persons may, directly or indirectly, in or in connection with any retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Cheat or defraud or attempt to cheat or defraud any person;
</P>
<P>(2) Knowingly make or cause to be made to any person any false report or statement or cause to be entered for any person any false record; or
</P>
<P>(3) Knowingly deceive or attempt to deceive any person by any means whatsoever.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acting as counterparty and exercising discretion prohibited.</I> A banking institution that has authority to cause retail forex transactions to be effected for a retail forex customer without the retail forex customer's specific authorization may not (and an affiliate of such an institution may not) act as the counterparty for any retail forex transaction with that retail forex customer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.4   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification required.</I> Before commencing a retail forex business, a banking institution shall provide the Board with prior written notice in compliance with this section. The notice will become effective 60 days after a complete notice is received by the Board, provided the Board does not request additional information or object in writing. In the event the Board requests additional information, the notice will become effective 60 days after all information requested by the Board is received by the Board unless the Board objects in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification requirements.</I> A banking institution shall provide the following in its written notification:
</P>
<P>(1) Information concerning customer due diligence, including without limitation credit evaluations, customer appropriateness, and “know your customer” documentation;
</P>
<P>(2) The haircuts to be applied to noncash margin as provided in 240.9(b)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Information concerning new product approvals;
</P>
<P>(4) Information on addressing conflicts of interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) A resolution by the banking institution's Board of Directors that the banking institution has established and implemented written policies, procedures, and risk measurement and management systems and controls for the purpose of ensuring that it conducts retail forex transactions in a safe and sound manner and in compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of existing retail forex businesses.</I> A banking institution that is engaged in a retail forex business on the effective date of this part may continue to do so, until and unless the Board objects in writing, so long as the institution submits the information required to be submitted under paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section within 30 days of the effective date of this part, subject to an extension of time by the Board, and such additional information as requested by the Board thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance with the Commodity Exchange Act.</I> A banking institution that is engaged in a retail forex business on the effective date of this part and complies with paragraph (c) of this section shall be deemed to be acting pursuant to a rule or regulation described in section 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.5   Application and closing out of offsetting long and short positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of purchases and sales.</I> Any banking institution that—
</P>
<P>(1) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the purchase of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has an open retail forex transaction for the sale of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the sale of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has an open retail forex transaction for the purchase of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has a short put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that purchased; or
</P>
<P>(4) Sells a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has a long put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that sold shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately apply such purchase or sale against such previously held opposite transaction with the same customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly furnish such retail forex customer with a statement showing the financial result of the transactions involved and the name of any introducing broker to the account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Close-out against oldest open position.</I> In all instances in which the short or long position in a customer's retail forex account immediately prior to an offsetting purchase or sale is greater than the quantity purchased or sold, the banking institution shall apply such offsetting purchase or sale to the oldest portion of the previously held short or long position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transactions to be applied as directed by customer.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the offsetting transaction shall be applied as directed by a retail forex customer's specific instructions. These instructions may not be made by the banking institution or a related person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.6   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk disclosure statement required.</I> No banking institution may open or maintain an account for a retail forex customer for the purpose of engaging in retail forex transactions unless the banking institution has furnished the retail forex customer with a separate written disclosure statement containing only the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement of risk disclosure statement required.</I> The banking institution must receive from the retail forex customer a written acknowledgement signed and dated by the customer that the customer received and understood the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Placement of risk disclosure statement.</I> The disclosure statement may be attached to other documents as the initial page(s) of such documents and as the only material on such page(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of risk disclosure statement.</I> The language set forth in the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Risk Disclosure Statement
</HD1>
<P>Retail forex transactions generally involve the leveraged trading of contracts denominated in foreign currency with a banking institution as your counterparty. Because of the leverage and the other risks disclosed here, you can rapidly lose all of the funds or property you give the banking institution as margin for such trading and you may lose more than you pledge as margin. You should be aware of and carefully consider the following points before determining whether such trading is appropriate for you.
</P>
<P>(1) Trading foreign currencies is a not on a regulated market or exchange—your banking institution is your trading counterparty and has conflicting interests. The retail forex transaction you are entering into is not conducted on an interbank market, nor is it conducted on a futures exchange subject to regulation by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission. The foreign currency trades you transact are trades with your banking institution as the counterparty. When you sell, the banking institution is the buyer. When you buy, the banking institution is the seller. As a result, when you lose money trading, your banking institution is making money on such trades, in addition to any fees, commissions, or spreads the banking institution may charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Any electronic trading platform that you may use for retail foreign currency transactions with your banking institution is not a regulated exchange. It is an electronic connection for accessing your banking institution. The terms of availability of such a platform are governed only by your contract with your banking institution. Any trading platform that you may use to enter into off-exchange foreign currency transactions is only connected to your banking institution. You are accessing that trading platform only to transact with your banking institution. You are not trading with any other entities or customers of the banking institution by accessing such platform. The availability and operation of any such platform, including the consequences of the unavailability of the trading platform for any reason, is governed only by the terms of your account agreement with the banking institution.
</P>
<P>(3) You may be able to offset or liquidate any trading positions only through your banking institution because the transactions are not made on an exchange, and your banking institution may set its own prices. Your ability to close your transactions or offset positions is limited to what your banking institution will offer to you, as there is no other market for these transactions. Your banking institution may offer any prices it wishes. Your banking institution may establish its prices by offering spreads from third party prices, but it is under no obligation to do so or to continue to do so. Your banking institution may offer different prices to different customers at any point in time on its own terms. The terms of your account agreement alone govern the obligations your banking institution has to you to offer prices and offer offset or liquidating transactions in your account and make any payments to you. The prices offered by your banking institution may or may not reflect prices available elsewhere at any exchange, interbank, or other market for foreign currency.
</P>
<P>(4) Paid solicitors may have undisclosed conflicts. The banking institution may compensate introducing brokers for introducing your account in ways that are not disclosed to you. Such paid solicitors are not required to have, and may not have, any special expertise in trading, and may have conflicts of interest based on the method by which they are compensated. You should thoroughly investigate the manner in which all such solicitors are compensated and be very cautious in granting any person or entity authority to trade on your behalf. You should always consider obtaining dated written confirmation of any information you are relying on from your banking institution in making any trading or account decisions.
</P>
<P>(5) Retail forex transactions are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(6) Retail forex transactions are not a deposit in, or guaranteed by, a banking institution.
</P>
<P>(7) Retail forex transactions are subject to investment risks, including possible loss of all amounts invested.
</P>
<P>Finally, you should thoroughly investigate any statements by any banking institution that minimize the importance of, or contradict, any of the terms of this risk disclosure. Such statements may indicate sales fraud.
</P>
<P>This brief statement cannot, of course, disclose all the risks and other aspects of trading off-exchange foreign currency with a banking institution. I hereby acknowledge that I have received and understood this risk disclosure statement.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Customer</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Disclosure of profitable accounts ratio.</I> Immediately following the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include, for each of the most recent four calendar quarters during which the banking institution maintained retail forex customer accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of retail forex customer accounts maintained by the banking institution over which the banking institution does not exercise investment discretion;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of such accounts that were profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of profitable trades.</I> (i) The banking institution's statement of profitable trades shall include the following legend: Past performance is not necessarily indicative of future results.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each banking institution shall provide, upon request, to any retail forex customer or prospective retail forex customer the total number of retail forex accounts maintained by the banking institution for which the banking institution does not exercise investment discretion, the percentage of such accounts that were profitable, and the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for each calendar quarter during the most recent five-year period during which the banking institution maintained such accounts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of fees and other charges.</I> Immediately following the language required by paragraph (e) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any fee, charge, spread, or commission that the banking institution may impose on the retail forex customer in connection with a retail forex account or retail forex transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of how the banking institution will determine the amount of such fees, charges, spreads, or commissions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The circumstances under which the banking institution may impose such fees, charges, spreads, or commissions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Set-off.</I> Immediately following the language required by paragraph (f) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement as to whether the banking institution will or will not retain the right to set off obligations of the retail forex customer arising from the customer's retail forex transactions, including margin calls and losses, against the customer's other assets held by the banking institution;
</P>
<P>(2) If the banking institution states that it reserves its right to set off obligations of the retail forex customer arising from the customer's retail forex transactions against the customer's other assets, the banking institution must receive from the retail forex customer a written acknowledgement signed and dated by the customer that the customer received and understood the written disclosure required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Future disclosure requirements.</I> If, with regard to a retail forex customer, the banking institution changes any fee, charge, or commission required to be disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section, then the banking institution shall mail or deliver to the retail forex customer a notice of the changes at least 15 days prior to the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Form of disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall be clear and conspicuous and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other disclosure requirements unaffected.</I> This section does not relieve a banking institution from any other disclosure obligation it may have under applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.7   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall keep full, complete and systematic records, together with all pertinent data and memoranda, of all transactions relating to its retail forex business, including:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail forex account records.</I> For each retail forex account:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the person for whom such retail forex account is carried or introduced and the principal occupation or business of the person;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of any other person guaranteeing the account or exercising trading control with respect to the account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The establishment or termination of the account;
</P>
<P>(iv) A means to identify the person who has solicited and is responsible for the account or assign account numbers in such a manner as to identify that person;
</P>
<P>(v) The funds in the account, net of any commissions and fees;
</P>
<P>(vi) The account's net profits and losses on open trades;
</P>
<P>(vii) The funds in the account plus or minus the net profits and losses on open trades, adjusted for the net option value in the case of open options positions;
</P>
<P>(viii) Financial ledger records that show separately for each retail forex customer all charges against and credits to such retail forex customer's account, including but not limited to retail forex customer funds deposited, withdrawn, or transferred, and charges or credits resulting from losses or gains on closed transactions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A list of all retail forex transactions executed for the account, with the details specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail forex transaction records.</I> For each retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The date and time the banking institution received the order;
</P>
<P>(ii) The price at which the banking institution placed the order, or, in the case of an option, the premium that the retail forex customer paid;
</P>
<P>(iii) The customer account identification information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The currency pair;
</P>
<P>(v) The size or quantity of the order;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the order was a buy or sell order;
</P>
<P>(vii) The type of order, if the order was not a market order;
</P>
<P>(viii) The size and price at which the order is executed, or in the case of an option, the amount of the premium paid for each option purchased, or the amount credited for each option sold;
</P>
<P>(ix) For options, whether the option is a put or call, expiration date, quantity, underlying contract for future delivery or underlying physical, strike price, and details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission, and fees;
</P>
<P>(x) For futures, the delivery date; and
</P>
<P>(xi) If the order was made on a trading platform:
</P>
<P>(A) The price quoted on the trading platform when the order was placed, or, in the case of an option, the premium quoted;
</P>
<P>(B) The date and time the order was transmitted to the trading platform; and
</P>
<P>(C) The date and time the order was executed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Price changes on a trading platform.</I> If a trading platform is used, daily logs showing each price change on the platform, the time of the change to the nearest second, and the trading volume at that time and price.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Methods or algorithms.</I> Any method or algorithm used to determine the bid or asked price for any retail forex transaction or the prices at which customers orders are executed, including, but not limited to, any mark-ups, fees, commissions or other items which affect the profitability or risk of loss of a retail forex customer's transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Daily records</I> which show for each business day complete details of:
</P>
<P>(i) All retail forex transactions that are futures transactions executed on that day, including the date, price, quantity, market, currency pair, delivery date, and the person for whom such transaction was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) All retail forex transactions that are option transactions executed on that day, including the date, whether the transaction involved a put or call, the expiration date, quantity, currency pair, delivery date, strike price, details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission and fees, and the person for whom the transaction was made; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All other retail forex transactions executed on that day for such account, including the date, price, quantity, currency and the person for whom such transaction was made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other records.</I> Written acknowledgements of receipt of the risk disclosure statement required by § 240.6(b), offset instructions pursuant to § 240.5(c), records required under paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section, trading cards, signature cards, street books, journals, ledgers, payment records, copies of statements of purchase, and all other records, data and memoranda that have been prepared in the course of the banking institution's retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratio of profitable accounts.</I> (1) With respect to its active retail forex customer accounts over which it did not exercise investment discretion and that are not retail forex proprietary accounts open for any period of time during the quarter, a banking institution shall prepare and maintain on a quarterly basis (calendar quarter):
</P>
<P>(i) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were profitable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Data supporting the calculations described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating whether a retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter, the banking institution shall compute the realized and unrealized gains or losses on all retail forex transactions carried in the retail forex account at any time during the quarter, and subtract all fees, commissions, and any other charges posted to the retail forex account during the quarter, and add any interest income and other income or rebates credited to the retail forex account during the quarter. All deposits and withdrawals of funds made by the retail forex customer during the quarter must be excluded from the computation of whether the retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter. Computations that result in a zero or negative number shall be considered a retail forex account that was not profitable. Computations that result in a positive number shall be considered a retail forex account that was profitable.
</P>
<P>(3) A retail forex account shall be considered “active” for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section if and only if, for the relevant calendar quarter, a retail forex transaction was executed in that account or the retail forex account contained an open position resulting from a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records related to possible violations of law.</I> A banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall make a record of all communications received by the banking institution or its related persons concerning facts giving rise to possible violations of law related to the banking institution's retail forex business. The record shall contain: the name of the complainant, if provided; the date of the communication; the relevant agreement, contract, or transaction; the substance of the communication; and the name of the person who received the communication and the final disposition of the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records for noncash margin.</I> A banking institution shall maintain a record of all noncash margin collected pursuant to § 240.9. The record shall show separately for each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the securities or property received;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of such retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) The dates when the securities or property were received;
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the depositories or other places where such securities or property are segregated or held, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) The dates on which the banking institution placed or removed such securities or property into or from such depositories; and
</P>
<P>(6) The dates of return of such securities or property to such retail forex customer, or other disposition thereof, together with the facts and circumstances of such other disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order tickets.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, immediately upon the receipt of a retail forex transaction order, a banking institution shall prepare an order ticket for the order (whether unfulfilled, executed or canceled). The order ticket shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Account identification (account or customer name with which the retail forex transaction was effected);
</P>
<P>(ii) Order number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of order (market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions);
</P>
<P>(iv) Date and time, to the nearest minute, the retail forex transaction order was received (as evidenced by timestamp or other timing device);
</P>
<P>(v) Time, to the nearest minute, the retail forex transaction order was executed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Price at which the retail forex transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-execution allocation of bunched orders.</I> Specific identifiers for retail forex accounts included in bunched orders need not be recorded at time of order placement or upon report of execution as required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking institution placing and directing the allocation of an order eligible for post-execution allocation has been granted written investment discretion with regard to participating customer accounts and makes the following information available to customers upon request:
</P>
<P>(A) The general nature of the post-execution allocation methodology the banking institution will use;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the banking institution has any interest in accounts which may be included with customer accounts in bunched orders eligible for post-execution allocation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Summary or composite data sufficient for that customer to compare the customer's results with those of other comparable customers and, if applicable, any account in which the banking institution has an interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Post-execution allocations are made as soon as practicable after the entire transaction is executed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Post-execution allocations are fair and equitable, with no account or group of accounts receiving consistently favorable or unfavorable treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The post-execution allocation methodology is sufficiently objective and specific to permit the Board to verify fairness of the allocations using that methodology.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Record of monthly statements and confirmations.</I> A banking institution shall retain a copy of each monthly statement and confirmation required by § 240.10.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Form of record and manner of maintenance.</I> The records required by this section must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. A banking institution must create and maintain audio recordings of oral orders and oral offset instructions. Record maintenance may include the use of automated or electronic records provided that the records are easily retrievable, and readily available for inspection.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Length of maintenance.</I> A banking institution shall keep each record required by this section for at least five years from the date the record is created.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.8   Capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital required for a state member bank.</I> A banking institution defined in section 240.2(b)(1) offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well-capitalized as defined in section 208.43 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.43).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital required for an uninsured state-licensed branch of a foreign bank.</I> A banking institution defined in § 240.2(b)(2) offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well-capitalized under the capital rules made applicable to it pursuant to § 225.2(r)(3) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(r)(3)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital required for financial holding companies and bank holding companies.</I> A banking institution defined in § 240.2(b)(3) or (4) offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well-capitalized as defined in § 225.2(r) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(r)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital required for savings and loan holding companies.</I> A banking institution defined in § 240.2(b)(5) offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well-capitalized as defined in § 238.2(s) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.2(s)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital required for an agreement corporation or Edge Act corporation.</I> A banking institution defined in § 240.2(b)(6) or (7) offering or entering into retail forex transactions must maintain capital in compliance with the capital adequacy guidelines that are made applicable to an Edge corporation engaged in banking pursuant to § 211.12 (c)(2) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.12(c)(2)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.9   Margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Margin required.</I> A banking institution engaging, or offering to engage, in retail forex transactions must collect from each retail forex customer an amount of margin not less than:
</P>
<P>(1) Two percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for major currency pairs and 5 percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for all other currency pairs;
</P>
<P>(2) For short options, 2 percent for major currency pairs and 5 percent for all other currency pairs of the notional value of the retail forex transaction, plus the premium received by the retail forex customer; or
</P>
<P>(3) For long options, the full premium charged and received by the banking institution.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Form of margin.</I> Margin collected under paragraph (a) of this section or pledged by a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions in excess of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must be in the form of cash or the following financial instruments:
</P>
<P>(i) Obligations of the United States and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) General obligations of any State or of any political subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(iii) General obligations issued or guaranteed by any enterprise, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(10);
</P>
<P>(iv) Certificates of deposit issued by an insured depository institution, as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2));
</P>
<P>(v) Commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(vi) Corporate notes or bonds;
</P>
<P>(vii) General obligations of a sovereign nation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Interests in money market mutual funds; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Such other financial instruments as the Board deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Haircuts.</I> A banking institution shall establish written policies and procedures that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Haircuts for noncash margin collected under this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual evaluation, and, if appropriate, modification of the haircuts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major currencies.</I> (1) for the purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, major currency means:
</P>
<P>(i) United States Dollar (USD)
</P>
<P>(ii) Canadian Dollar (CAD)
</P>
<P>(iii) Euro (EUR)
</P>
<P>(iv) United Kingdom Pound (GBP)
</P>
<P>(v) Japanese Yen (JPY)
</P>
<P>(vi) Swiss Franc (CHF)
</P>
<P>(vii) New Zealand Dollar (NZD)
</P>
<P>(viii) Australian Dollar (AUD)
</P>
<P>(ix) Swedish Kronor (SEK)
</P>
<P>(x) Danish Kroner (DKK)
</P>
<P>(xi) Norwegian Krone (NOK), and
</P>
<P>(xii) Any other currency as determined by the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Margin calls; liquidation of position.</I> For each retail forex customer, at least once per day, a banking institution shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Mark the value of the retail forex customer's open retail forex positions to market;
</P>
<P>(2) Mark the value of the margin collected under this section from the retail forex customer to market;
</P>
<P>(3) Determine whether, based on the marks in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the banking institution has collected margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If, pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the banking institution determines that it has not collected margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section then, within a reasonable period of time, the banking institution shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Collect margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquidate the retail forex customer's retail forex transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.10   Required reporting to customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monthly statements.</I> Each banking institution must promptly furnish to each retail forex customer, as of the close of the last business day of each month or as of any regular monthly date selected, except for accounts in which there are neither open positions at the end of the statement period nor any changes to the account balance since the prior statement period, but in any event not less frequently than once every three months, a statement that clearly shows:
</P>
<P>(1) For each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(i) The open retail forex transactions with prices at which acquired;
</P>
<P>(ii) The net unrealized profits or losses in all open retail forex transactions marked to the market;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any money, securities or other property held as margin for retail forex transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; and fees, charges, and commissions.
</P>
<P>(2) For each retail forex customer engaging in retail forex transactions that are options:
</P>
<P>(i) All such options purchased, sold, exercised, or expired during the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(ii) The open option positions carried for such customer and arising as of the end of the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(iii) All such option positions marked to the market and the amount each position is in the money, if any;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any money, securities or other property held as margin for retail forex transactions; and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; premiums and mark-ups; and fees, charges, and commissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation statement.</I> Each banking institution must, not later than the next business day after any retail forex transaction, send:
</P>
<P>(1) To each retail forex customer, a written confirmation of each retail forex transaction caused to be executed by it for the customer, including offsetting transactions executed during the same business day and the rollover of an open retail forex transaction to the next business day;
</P>
<P>(2) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, a written confirmation of each forex option transaction, containing at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail forex customer's account identification number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate listing of the actual amount of the premium, as well as each mark-up thereon, if applicable, and all other commissions, costs, fees and other charges incurred in connection with the forex option transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The strike price;
</P>
<P>(iv) The underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency;
</P>
<P>(v) The final exercise date of the forex option purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date the forex option transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(3) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, upon the expiration or exercise of any option, a written confirmation statement thereof, which statement shall include the date of such occurrence, a description of the option involved, and, in the case of exercise, the details of the retail forex or physical currency position which resulted therefrom including, if applicable, the final trading date of the retail forex transaction underlying the option.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, a retail forex transaction that is caused to be executed for a pooled investment vehicle that engages in retail forex transactions need be confirmed only to the operator of such pooled investment vehicle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Controlled accounts.</I> With respect to any account controlled by any person other than the retail forex customer for whom such account is carried, each banking institution shall promptly furnish in writing to such other person the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Introduced accounts.</I> Each statement provided pursuant to the provisions of this section must, if applicable, show that the account for which the banking institution was introduced by an introducing broker and the name of the introducing broker.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.11   Unlawful representations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No implication or representation of limiting losses.</I> No banking institution engaged in retail foreign exchange transactions or its related persons may imply or represent that it will, with respect to any retail customer forex account, for or on behalf of any person:
</P>
<P>(1) Guarantee such person or account against loss;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit the loss of such person or account; or
</P>
<P>(3) Not call for or attempt to collect margin as established for retail forex customers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No implication of representation of engaging in prohibited acts.</I> No banking institution or its related persons may in any way imply or represent that it will engage in any of the acts or practices described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No Federal government endorsement.</I> No banking institution or its related persons may represent or imply in any manner whatsoever that any retail forex transaction or retail forex product has been sponsored, recommended, or approved by the Board, the Federal government, or any agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assuming or sharing of liability from bank error.</I> This section shall not be construed to prevent a banking institution from assuming or sharing in the losses resulting from the banking institution's error or mishandling of a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain guaranties unaffected.</I> This section shall not affect any guarantee entered into prior to the effective date of this part, but this section shall apply to any extension, modification or renewal thereof entered into after such date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.12   Authorization to trade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specific authorization required.</I> No banking institution may directly or indirectly effect a retail forex transaction for the account of any retail forex customer unless, before the transaction occurs, the retail forex customer specifically authorized the banking institution to effect the retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) A retail forex transaction is “specifically authorized” for purposes of this section if the retail forex customer specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The precise retail forex transaction to be effected;
</P>
<P>(2) The exact amount of the foreign currency to be purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an option, the identity of the foreign currency or contract that underlies the option.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.13   Trading and operational standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Internal rules, procedures, and controls required.</I> A banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall establish and implement internal rules, procedures, and controls designed, at a minimum, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure, to the extent reasonable, that each order received from a retail forex customer that is executable at or near the price that the banking institution has quoted to the customer is entered for execution before any order in any retail forex transaction for:
</P>
<P>(i) A proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(ii) An account in which a related person has an interest, or any account for which such a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(iii) An account in which a related person has an interest, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An account in which a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent banking institution related persons from placing orders, directly or indirectly, with another person in a manner designed to circumvent the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Fairly and objectively establish settlement prices for retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of retail forex transactions.</I> No banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions may disclose that an order of another person is being held by the banking institution, unless the disclosure is necessary to the effective execution of such order or the disclosure is made at the request of the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handling of retail forex accounts of related persons of retail forex counterparties.</I> No banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall knowingly handle the retail forex account of any related person of another retail forex counterparty unless the banking institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization from a person designated by such other retail forex counterparty with responsibility for the surveillance over such account;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepares immediately upon receipt of an order for the account a written record of the order, including the account identification and order number, and records thereon to the nearest minute, by time-stamp or other timing device, the date and time the order is received; and
</P>
<P>(3) Transmits on a regular basis to the other retail forex counterparty copies of all statements for the account and of all written records prepared upon the receipt of orders for the account pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related person of banking institution establishing account at another retail forex counterparty.</I> No related person of a banking institution working in the banking institution's retail forex business may have an account, directly or indirectly, with another retail forex counterparty unless the other retail forex counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization to open and maintain the account from a person designated by the banking institution of which it is a related person with responsibility for the surveillance over the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepares immediately upon receipt of an order for the account a written record of the order, including the account identification and order number, and records thereon to the nearest minute, by time-stamp or other timing device, the date and time the order is received; and
</P>
<P>(3) Transmits on a regular basis to the banking institution copies of all statements for the account and of all written records prepared by the other retail forex counterparty upon receipt of orders for such account pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited trading practices.</I> No banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions may:
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into a retail forex transaction, to be executed pursuant to a market or limit order at a price that is not at or near the price at which other retail forex customers, during that same time period, have executed retail forex transactions with the banking institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Adjust or alter prices for a retail forex transaction after the transaction has been confirmed to the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is higher than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also higher than its previous asked price by a similar amount;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is lower than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also lower than its previous asked price by a similar amount; or
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a new position for a retail forex customer (except one that offsets an existing position for that retail forex customer) where the banking institution holds outstanding orders of other retail forex customers for the same currency pair at a comparable price.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.14   Supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision by the banking institution.</I> A banking institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall diligently supervise the handling by its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) of all retail forex accounts carried, operated, or advised by the banking institution and all activities of its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) relating to its retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervision by officers, employees, or agents.</I> An officer, employee, or agent of a banking institution must diligently supervise his or her subordinates' handling of all retail forex accounts at the banking institution and all the subordinates' activities relating to the banking institution's retail forex business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.15   Notice of transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice generally required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a banking institution must provide a retail forex customer with 30 days' prior notice of any assignment of any position or transfer of any account of the retail forex customer. The notice must include a statement that the retail forex customer is not required to accept the proposed assignment or transfer and may direct the banking institution to liquidate the positions of the retail forex customer or transfer the account to a retail forex counterparty of the retail forex customer's selection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to transfers:
</P>
<P>(1) Requested by the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(2) Made by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation as receiver or conservator under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or other law; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise authorized by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligations of transferee banking institution.</I> A banking institution to which retail forex accounts or positions are assigned or transferred under paragraph (a) of this section must provide to the affected retail forex customers the risk disclosure statements and forms of acknowledgment required by this part and receive the required signed acknowledgments within sixty days of such assignments or transfers. This requirement shall not apply if the banking institution has clear written evidence that the retail forex customer has received and acknowledged receipt of the required disclosure statements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.16   Customer dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No banking institution shall enter into any agreement or understanding with a retail forex customer in which the customer agrees, prior to the time a claim or grievance arises, to submit any claim or grievance regarding any retail forex transaction or disclosure to any settlement procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Election of forum.</I> (1) Within 10 business days after the receipt of notice from the retail forex customer that the customer intends to submit a claim to arbitration, the banking institution shall provide the customer with a list of persons qualified in dispute resolution.
</P>
<P>(2) The customer must, within 45 days after receipt of such list, notify the banking institution of the person selected. The customer's failure to provide such notice shall give the banking institution the right to select a person from the list.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforceability.</I> A dispute settlement procedure may require parties using the procedure to agree, under applicable state law, submission agreement, or otherwise, to be bound by an award rendered in the procedure if the agreement to submit the claim or grievance to the procedure was made after the claim or grievance arose. Any award so rendered by the procedure will be enforceable in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits for submission of claims.</I> The dispute settlement procedure used by the parties may not include any unreasonably short limitation period foreclosing submission of a customer's claims or grievances or counterclaims.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterclaims.</I> A procedure for the settlement of a retail forex customer's claims or grievances against a banking institution or employee thereof may permit the submission of a counterclaim in the procedure by a person against whom a claim or grievance is brought if the counterclaim:
</P>
<P>(1) Arises out of the transaction or occurrence that is the subject of the retail forex customer's claim or grievance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not require for adjudication the presence of essential witnesses, parties, or third persons over which the settlement process lacks jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cross-border transactions.</I> This section shall not apply to transactions within the scope of sections 202, 302, and 305 of the Federal Arbitration Act (9 U.S.C. 202, 302, and 305).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 240.17" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.10.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 240.17   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may modify the disclosure, recordkeeping, capital and margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, or other standards or requirements under this part for a specific retail forex transaction or a class of retail forex transactions if the Board determines that the modification is consistent with safety and soundness and the protection of retail forex customers.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="241" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 241—SECURITIES HOLDING COMPANIES (REGULATION OO)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1850a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 32884, June 5, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 241.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board pursuant to section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes the procedures by which a securities holding company may elect to register to be supervised by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as defined below, terms used in this part have the same meaning given them in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Securities holding company.</I> (1) A securities holding company means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any company that directly or indirectly owns or controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, one or more brokers or dealers registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is required by a foreign regulator or provision of foreign law to be subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision.
</P>
<P>(2) A securities holding company does not include a company that is—
</P>
<P>(i) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board pursuant to title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) An insured bank (other than an institution described in subparagraphs (D), (F), or (H) of section 2(c)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2))) or a savings association;
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliate of an insured bank (other than an institution described in subparagraphs (D), (F), or (H) of section 2(c)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2))) or an affiliate of a savings association;
</P>
<P>(iv) A foreign bank, foreign company, or company that is described in section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a));
</P>
<P>(v) A foreign bank that controls, directly or indirectly, a corporation chartered under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(vi) Currently subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision by a foreign regulator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervised securities holding company</I> means a securities holding company that is supervised by the Board pursuant to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 241.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 241.3   Registration as a supervised securities holding company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Registration</I>—(1) <I>Filing requirement.</I> A securities holding company may elect to register to become a supervised securities holding company by filing the appropriate form with the responsible Reserve Bank. The responsible Reserve Bank is determined by the Director of Banking Supervision and Regulation at the Board, or the Director's delegee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for additional information.</I> The Board may, at any time, request additional information that it believes is necessary to complete the registration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Complete filing.</I> A registration by a securities holding company is considered to be filed on the date that all information required on the appropriate form is received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of registration</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A registration filed by a securities holding company under paragraph (a) of this section is effective on the 45th calendar day after the date that a complete filing is received by the responsible Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Earlier notification that a registration is effective.</I> The Board may notify a securities holding company that its registration to become a supervised securities holding company is effective prior to the 45th calendar day after the date that a complete filing is received by the responsible Reserve Bank. Such a notification must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supervision and regulation of securities holding companies.</I> (i) Upon an effective registration and except as otherwise provided by order of the Board, a supervised securities holding company shall be treated, and shall be subject to supervision and regulation by the Board, as if it were a bank holding company, or as otherwise appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the supervised securities holding company and address the risks posed by such company to financial stability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>) do not apply to a supervised securities holding company.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="242" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 242—DEFINITIONS RELATING TO TITLE I OF THE DODD-FRANK ACT (REGULATION PP)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5311.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 20776, Apr. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 242.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 242.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board pursuant to sections 102(a)(7) and (b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5311(a)(7) and (b)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This part establishes the criteria for determining if a company is “predominantly engaged in financial activities” as required under section 102(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(b)) for purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(2) This part defines the terms “significant nonbank financial company” and “significant bank holding company” as provided in section 102(a)(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act for purposes of—
</P>
<P>(i) Section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) relating to the designation of nonbank financial companies by the Financial Stability Oversight Council (Council) for supervision by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 165(d)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(2)) relating to the credit exposure reports required to be filed by—
</P>
<P>(A) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company or foreign bank subject to the Bank Holding Company Act (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>) that is a bank holding company described in section 165(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 20776, Apr. 5, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 242.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 242.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Applicable accounting standards.</I> The term “applicable accounting standards” with respect to a company means:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), if the company uses GAAP in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements;
</P>
<P>(2) International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS), if the company uses IFRS in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements, or
</P>
<P>(3) Such other accounting standards that the Council, with respect to the definition of a nonbank financial company for purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (other than with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company), or the Board, with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company, determines are appropriate on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign nonbank financial company.</I> The term “foreign nonbank financial company” means a company (other than a company that is, or is treated in the United States, as a bank holding company) that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) Predominantly engaged in (including through a branch in the United States) financial activities as defined in § 242.3 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company.</I> The term “nonbank financial company” means a U.S. nonbank financial company and a foreign nonbank financial company.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.</I> The term “nonbank financial company supervised by the Board” means a nonbank financial company or other company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) should be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>State.</I> The term “State” includes any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. nonbank financial company.</I> The term “U.S. nonbank financial company” means a company that—
</P>
<P>(1) Is incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(2) Is predominantly engaged in financial activities as defined in § 242.3 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is not—
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Farm Credit System institution chartered and subject to the provisions of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) A national securities exchange (or parent thereof), clearing agency (or parent thereof, unless the parent is a bank holding company), security-based swap execution facility, or security-based swap data repository that, in each case, is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as such; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A board of trade designated as a contract market (or parent thereof), a derivatives clearing organization (or parent thereof, unless the parent is a bank holding company), a swap execution facility, or a swap data repository that, in each case, is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as such.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 242.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 242.3   Nonbank companies “predominantly engaged” in financial activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A company is “predominantly engaged in financial activities” for purposes of this section if—
</P>
<P>(1) The consolidated annual gross financial revenues of the company in either of its two most recently completed fiscal years represent 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated annual gross revenues (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) in that fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) The consolidated total financial assets of the company as of the end of either of its two most recently completed fiscal years represent 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated total assets (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) as of the end of that fiscal year; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Council, with respect to the definition of a nonbank financial company for purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (other than with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company), or the Board, with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company, determines, based on all the facts and circumstances, that—
</P>
<P>(i) The consolidated annual gross financial revenues of the company represent 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated annual gross revenues; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The consolidated total financial assets of the company represent 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated total assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidated annual gross financial revenues.</I> For purposes of this section, the “consolidated annual gross financial revenues” of a company means that portion of the consolidated annual gross revenues of the company (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) that are derived, directly or indirectly, by the company or any of its subsidiaries from—
</P>
<P>(1) Activities that are financial in nature; or
</P>
<P>(2) The ownership, control, or activities of an insured depository institution or any subsidiary of an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consolidated total financial assets.</I> For purposes of this section, the “consolidated total financial assets” of a company means that portion of the consolidated total assets of the company (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) that are related to—
</P>
<P>(1) Activities that are financial in nature; or
</P>
<P>(2) The ownership, control, or activities of an insured depository institution or any subsidiary of an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Activities that are financial in nature</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of determining whether a company is predominantly engaged in financial activities under this section, activities that are financial in nature are set forth in the appendix to this part. Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to modify the activities determined to be financial in nature for purposes of this section or for purposes of the BHC Act or to provide interpretations of section 4(k) of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of other authority.</I> Any activity described in the appendix is financial in nature for purposes of this part regardless of whether—
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company (including a financial holding company or a company that is, or is treated in the United States as, a bank holding company) may be authorized to engage in the activity, or own or control shares of a company engaged in such activity, under any other provisions of the BHC Act or other Federal law including, but not limited to, section 4(a)(2), section 4(c)(5), section 4(c)(6), section 4(c)(7), section 4(c)(9), or section 4(c)(13) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), (c)(7), (c)(9), or (c)(13)) and the Board's implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other provisions of Federal or state law or regulations prohibit, restrict, or otherwise place conditions on the conduct of the activity by a bank holding company (including a financial holding company or a company that is, or is treated in the United States, as a bank holding company) or bank holding companies generally.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of determining whether a company is predominantly engaged in financial activities under this section—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unconsolidated investments.</I> (i) Unless otherwise determined by the Council or the Board in accordance with paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section, revenues derived from, and assets related to, an investment by the company in an entity whose financial statements are not consolidated with those of the company are presumed to be financial in nature.
</P>
<P>(ii) A company may seek to rebut the presumption described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section by providing evidence to the Council, with respect to the definition of a nonbank financial company for purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (other than with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company), or the Board, with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company, that the shares or ownership interests are not held in connection with a bona fide merchant or investment banking activity, are not held in connection with the activity of investing for others, do not represent an investment in an entity engaged in activities that are financial in nature as defined in the appendix, or are not otherwise related to a financial activity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounts receivable.</I> (i) Unless otherwise determined by the Council or the Board in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, an account receivable is presumed to be an asset related to the financial activity of extending credit.
</P>
<P>(ii) A company may seek to rebut the presumption described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section by providing evidence to the Council, with respect to the definition of a nonbank financial company for purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (other than with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company), or the Board, with respect to the definition of a significant nonbank financial company, that the account receivable is not related to a financial activity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Goodwill.</I> Goodwill is excluded from a company's consolidated total assets and consolidated total financial assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cash and cash equivalents.</I> (i) Cash is excluded from a company's consolidated total assets and consolidated total financial assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash equivalents are assets related to a financial activity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Intangible assets.</I> Intangible assets are treated in the same manner as the transaction or asset that gives rise to the intangible asset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 242.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 242.4   Significant nonbank financial companies and significant bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Significant nonbank financial company.</I> A “significant nonbank financial company” means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other nonbank financial company that had $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) as of the end of its most recently completed fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Significant bank holding company.</I> A “significant bank holding company” means any bank holding company or company that is, or is treated in the United States as, a bank holding company, that had $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets as of the end of the most recently completed calendar year, as reported on either the Federal Reserve's FR Y-9C (Consolidated Financial Statement for Holding Companies), or any successor form thereto, or the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q (Capital and Asset Report for Foreign Banking Organizations), or any successor form thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.12.0.1.5.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 242—Financial Activities for Purposes of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act
</HEAD>
<P>(a) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding money or securities.
</P>
<P>(b) Insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, or death, or providing and issuing annuities, and acting as principal, agent, or broker for purposes of the foregoing, in any state.
</P>
<P>(c) Providing financial, investment, or economic advisory services, including advising an investment company (as defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940).
</P>
<P>(d) Issuing or selling instruments representing interests in pools of assets permissible for a bank to hold directly.
</P>
<P>(e) Underwriting, dealing in, or making a market in securities.
</P>
<P>(f) Engaging in any activity that the Board has determined to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, which include—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Extending credit and servicing loans.</I> Making, acquiring, brokering, or servicing loans or other extensions of credit (including factoring, issuing letters of credit and accepting drafts) for the company's account or for the account of others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities related to extending credit.</I> Any activity usual in connection with making, acquiring, brokering or servicing loans or other extensions of credit, including the following activities:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate and personal property appraising.</I> Performing appraisals of real estate and tangible and intangible personal property, including securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Arranging commercial real estate equity financing.</I> Acting as intermediary for the financing of commercial or industrial income-producing real estate by arranging for the transfer of the title, control, and risk of such a real estate project to one or more investors.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Check-guaranty services.</I> Authorizing a subscribing merchant to accept personal checks tendered by the merchant's customers in payment for goods and services, and purchasing from the merchant validly authorized checks that are subsequently dishonored.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Collection agency services.</I> Collecting overdue accounts receivable, either retail or commercial.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Credit bureau services.</I> Maintaining information related to the credit history of consumers and providing the information to a credit grantor who is considering a borrower's application for credit or who has extended credit to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Asset management, servicing, and collection activities.</I> Engaging under contract with a third party in asset management, servicing, and collection 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of assets of a type that an insured depository institution may originate and own.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Asset management services include acting as agent in the liquidation or sale of loans and collateral for loans, including real estate and other assets acquired through foreclosure or in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vii) <I>Acquiring debt in default.</I> Acquiring debt that is in default at the time of acquisition.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Real estate settlement servicing.</I> Providing real estate settlement services.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For purposes of this section, real estate settlement services do not include providing title insurance as principal, agent, or broker.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) <I>Leasing personal or real property.</I> Leasing personal or real property or acting as agent, broker, or adviser in leasing such property if:
</P>
<P>(i) The lease is on a nonoperating basis; 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The requirement that the lease is on a nonoperating basis means that the company does not, directly or indirectly, engage in operating, servicing, maintaining, or repairing leased property during the lease term. For purposes of the leasing of automobiles, the requirement that the lease is on a nonoperating basis means that the company does not, directly or indirectly: (1) Provide servicing, repair, or maintenance of the leased vehicle during the lease term; (2) purchase parts and accessories in bulk or for an individual vehicle after the lessee has taken delivery of the vehicle; (3) provide the loan of an automobile during servicing of the leased vehicle; (4) purchase insurance for the lessee; or (5) provide for the renewal of the vehicle's license merely as a service to the lessee where the lessee could renew the license without authorization from the lessor.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The initial term of the lease is at least 90 days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of leases involving real property:
</P>
<P>(A) At the inception of the initial lease, the effect of the transaction will yield a return that will compensate the lessor for not less than the lessor's full investment in the property plus the estimated total cost of financing the property over the term of the lease from rental payments, estimated tax benefits, and the estimated residual value of the property at the expiration of the initial lease; and
</P>
<P>(B) The estimated residual value of property for purposes of paragraph (f)(3)(iii)(A) of this section shall not exceed 25 percent of the acquisition cost of the property to the lessor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating nonbank depository institutions.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Industrial banking.</I> Owning, controlling, or operating an industrial bank, Morris Plan bank, or industrial loan company that is not a bank for purposes of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Operating savings associations.</I> Owning, controlling, or operating a savings association.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Trust company functions.</I> Performing functions or activities that may be performed by a trust company (including activities of a fiduciary, agency, or custodial nature), in the manner authorized by federal or state law that is not a bank for purposes of section 2(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Financial and investment advisory activities.</I> Acting as investment or financial advisor to any person, including (without, in any way, limiting the foregoing):
</P>
<P>(i) Serving as investment adviser (as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(20)), to an investment company registered under that act, including sponsoring, organizing, and managing a closed-end investment company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Furnishing general economic information and advice, general economic statistical forecasting services, and industry studies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing advice in connection with mergers, acquisitions, divestitures, investments, joint ventures, leveraged buyouts, recapitalizations, capital structurings, financing transactions and similar transactions, and conducting financial feasibility studies; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Feasibility studies do not include assisting management with the planning or marketing for a given project or providing general operational or management advice.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) Providing information, statistical forecasting, and advice with respect to any transaction in foreign exchange, swaps, and similar transactions, commodities, and any forward contract, option, future, option on a future, and similar instruments;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing educational courses, and instructional materials to consumers on individual financial management matters; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Providing tax-planning and tax-preparation services to any person.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Agency transactional services for customer investments.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Securities brokerage.</I> Providing securities brokerage services (including securities clearing and/or securities execution services on an exchange), whether alone or in combination with investment advisory services, and incidental activities (including related securities credit activities and custodial services).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> Buying and selling in the secondary market all types of securities on the order of customers as a “riskless principal” to the extent of engaging in a transaction in which the company, after receiving an order to buy (or sell) a security from a customer, purchases (or sells) the security for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Private placement services.</I> Acting as agent for the private placement of securities in accordance with the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 (1933 Act) and the rules of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Futures commission merchant.</I> Acting as a futures commission merchant for unaffiliated persons in the execution, clearance, or execution and clearance of any futures contract and option on a futures contract.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other transactional services.</I> Providing to customers as agent transactional services with respect to swaps and similar transactions, any transaction described in paragraph (f)(8) of this appendix, any transaction that is permissible for a state member bank, and any other transaction involving a forward contract, option, futures, option on a futures or similar contract (whether traded on an exchange or not) relating to a commodity that is traded on an exchange.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Investment transactions as principal.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Underwriting and dealing in government obligations and money market instruments.</I> Underwriting and dealing in obligations of the United States, general obligations of states and their political subdivisions, and other obligations that state member banks of the Federal Reserve System may be authorized to underwrite and deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335, including banker's acceptances and certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Investing and trading activities.</I> Engaging as principal in:
</P>
<P>(A) Foreign exchange;
</P>
<P>(B) Forward contracts, options, futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on any rate, price, financial asset (including gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, or any other metal), nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, other than a bank-ineligible security,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> if—
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> A bank-ineligible security is any security that a state member bank is not permitted to underwrite or deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A state member bank is authorized to invest in the asset underlying the contract;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The contract requires cash settlement;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The contract allows for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration, and the company—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The contract does not allow for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration and is based on an asset for which futures contracts or options on futures contracts have been approved for trading on a U.S. contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the company—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset.
</P>
<P>(C) Forward contracts, options,
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on an index of a rate, a price, or the value of any financial asset, nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, if the contract requires cash settlement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> This reference does not include acting as a dealer in options based on indices of bank-ineligible securities when the options are traded on securities exchanges. These options are securities for purposes of the federal securities laws and bank-ineligible securities for purposes of section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act, 12 U.S.C. 337. Similarly, this reference does not include acting as a dealer in any other instrument that is a bank-ineligible security for purposes of section 20. Bank holding companies that deal in these instruments must do so in accordance with the Board's orders on dealing in bank-ineligible securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Buying and selling bullion, and related activities.</I> Buying, selling and storing bars, rounds, bullion, and coins of gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, and any other metal for the company's own account and the account of others, and providing incidental services such as arranging for storage, safe custody, assaying, and shipment.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Management consulting and counseling activities.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Management consulting.</I> (A) Providing management consulting advice: 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> In performing this activity, companies are not authorized to perform tasks or operations or provide services to client institutions either on a daily or continuing basis, except as necessary to instruct the client institution on how to perform such services for itself. <I>See also</I> the Board's interpretation of bank management consulting advice (12 CFR 225.131).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>1</I>) On any matter to unaffiliated depository institutions, including commercial banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, credit unions, industrial banks, Morris Plan banks, cooperative banks, industrial loan companies, trust companies, and branches or agencies of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On any financial, economic, accounting, or audit matter to any other company.
</P>
<P>(B) Revenues derived from, or assets related to, a company's management consulting activities under this subparagraph will not be considered to be financial if the company:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Owns or controls, directly or indirectly, more than 5 percent of the voting securities of the client institution; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allows a management official, as defined in 12 CFR 212.2(h), of the company or any of its affiliates to serve as a management official of the client institution, except where such interlocking relationship is permitted pursuant to an exemption permitted by the Board.
</P>
<P>(C) Up to 30 percent of a nonbank company's assets or revenues related to management consulting services provided to customers not described in paragraph (f)(9)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) or regarding matters not described in paragraph (f)(9)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this appendix will be included in the company's financial assets or revenues.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employee benefits consulting services.</I> Providing consulting services to employee benefit, compensation and insurance plans, including designing plans, assisting in the implementation of plans, providing administrative services to plans, and developing employee communication programs for plans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Career counseling services.</I> Providing career counseling services to:
</P>
<P>(A) A financial organization 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> and individuals currently employed by, or recently displaced from, a financial organization;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Financial organization refers to insured depository institution holding companies and their subsidiaries, other than nonbanking affiliates of diversified savings and loan holding companies that engage in activities not permissible under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)(8)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Individuals who are seeking employment at a financial organization; and
</P>
<P>(C) Individuals who are currently employed in or who seek positions in the finance, accounting, and audit departments of any company.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Support services.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Courier services.</I> Providing courier services for:
</P>
<P>(A) Checks, commercial papers, documents, and written instruments (excluding currency or bearer-type negotiable instruments) that are exchanged among banks and financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(B) Audit and accounting media of a banking or financial nature and other business records and documents used in processing such media.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> See also the Board's interpretation on courier activities (12 CFR 225.129), which sets forth conditions for company entry into the activity.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Printing and selling MICR-encoded items.</I> Printing and selling checks and related documents, including corporate image checks, cash tickets, voucher checks, deposit slips, savings withdrawal packages, and other forms that require Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) encoding.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Insurance agency and underwriting.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit insurance.</I> Acting as principal, agent, or broker for insurance (including home mortgage redemption insurance) that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly related to an extension of credit by the company or any of its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) Limited to ensuring the repayment of the outstanding balance due on the extension of credit 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> in the event of the death, disability, or involuntary unemployment of the debtor.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Extension of credit includes direct loans to borrowers, loans purchased from other lenders, and leases of real or personal property so long as the leases are nonoperating and full-payout leases that meet the requirements of paragraph (f)(3) of this appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) <I>Finance company subsidiary.</I> Acting as agent or broker for insurance directly related to an extension of credit by a finance company 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> that is a subsidiary of a company, if:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Finance company includes all non-deposit-taking financial institutions that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending (excluding lending secured by first mortgages) and all financial institutions specifically defined by individual states as finance companies and that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) The insurance is limited to ensuring repayment of the outstanding balance on such extension of credit in the event of loss or damage to any property used as collateral for the extension of credit; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extension of credit is not more than $10,000, or $25,000 if it is to finance the purchase of a residential manufactured home 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> and the credit is secured by the home; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> These limitations increase at the end of each calendar year, beginning with 1982, by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) The applicant commits to notify borrowers in writing that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) They are not required to purchase such insurance from the applicant;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such insurance does not insure any interest of the borrower in the collateral; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The applicant will accept more comprehensive property insurance in place of such single-interest insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Insurance in small towns.</I> Engaging in any insurance agency activity in a place where the company or a subsidiary has a lending office and that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a population not exceeding 5,000 (as shown in the preceding decennial census); or
</P>
<P>(B) Has inadequate insurance agency facilities, as determined by the Board, after notice and opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Insurance-agency activities conducted on May 1, 1982.</I> Engaging in any specific insurance-agency activity 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> if the company, or subsidiary conducting the specific activity, conducted such activity on May 1, 1982, or received Board approval to conduct such activity on or before May 1, 1982.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> Revenues derived from, or assets related to, a company's specific insurance agency activity under this clause will be considered financial only if the company:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Nothing contained in this provision precludes a subsidiary that is authorized to engage in a specific insurance-agency activity under this clause from continuing to engage in the particular activity after merger with an affiliate, if the merger is for legitimate business purposes.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> For the purposes of this paragraph, activities engaged in on May 1, 1982, include activities carried on subsequently as the result of an application to engage in such activities pending before the Board on May 1, 1982, and approved subsequently by the Board or as the result of the acquisition by such company pursuant to a binding written contract entered into on or before May 1, 1982, of another company engaged in such activities at the time of the acquisition.</P></FTNT>
<P>(A) Engages in such specific insurance agency activity only at locations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In the state in which the company has its principal place of business (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842(d));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In any state or states immediately adjacent to such state; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In any state in which the specific insurance-agency activity was conducted (or was approved to be conducted) by such company or subsidiary thereof or by any other subsidiary of such company on May 1, 1982; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides other insurance coverages that may become available after May 1, 1982, so long as those coverages insure against the types of risks as (or are otherwise functionally equivalent to) coverages sold or approved to be sold on May 1, 1982, by the company or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Supervision of retail insurance agents.</I> Supervising on behalf of insurance underwriters the activities of retail insurance agents who sell:
</P>
<P>(A) Fidelity insurance and property and casualty insurance on the real and personal property used in the operations of the company or its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(B) Group insurance that protects the employees of the company or its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Small companies.</I> Engaging in any insurance-agency activity if the company has total consolidated assets of $50 million or less. Revenues derived from, or assets related to, a company's insurance-agency activities under this paragraph will be considered financial only if the company does not engage in the sale of life insurance or annuities except as provided in paragraphs (f)(11) (i) and (iii) of this appendix, and does not continue to engage in insurance-agency activities pursuant to this provision more than 90 days after the end of the quarterly reporting period in which total assets of the company and its subsidiaries exceed $50 million.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Insurance-agency activities conducted before 1971.</I> Engaging in any insurance-agency activity performed at any location in the United States directly or indirectly by a company that was engaged in insurance-agency activities prior to January 1, 1971, as a consequence of approval by the Board prior to January 1, 1971.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Community development activities.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financing and investment activities.</I> Making equity and debt investments in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare, such as the economic rehabilitation and development of low-income areas by providing housing, services, or jobs for residents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Advisory activities.</I> Providing advisory and related services for programs designed primarily to promote community welfare.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Money orders, savings bonds, and traveler's checks.</I> The issuance and sale at retail of money orders and similar consumer-type payment instruments; the sale of U.S. savings bonds; and the issuance and sale of traveler's checks.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Data processing.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Providing data processing, data storage and data transmission services, facilities (including data processing, data storage and data transmission hardware, software, documentation, or operating personnel), databases, advice, and access to such services, facilities, or data-bases by any technological means, if the data to be processed, stored or furnished are financial, banking or economic.
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to 30 percent of a nonbank company's assets or revenues related to providing general purpose hardware in connection with providing data processing products or services described in paragraph (f)(14)(i) of this appendix will be included in the company's financial assets or revenues.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Administrative services.</I> Providing administrative and other services to mutual funds.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Securities exchange.</I> Owning shares of a securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Certification authority.</I> Acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Employment histories.</I> Providing employment histories to third parties for use in making credit decisions and to depository institutions and their affiliates for use in the ordinary course of business.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Check cashing and wire transmission.</I> Check cashing and wire transmission services.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Services offered in connection with banking services.</I> In connection with offering banking services, providing notary public services, selling postage stamps and postage-paid envelopes, providing vehicle registration services, and selling public transportation tickets and tokens.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Real estate title abstracting.</I>
</P>
<P>(g) Engaging, in the United States, in any activity that a bank holding company may engage in outside of the United States; and the Board has determined, under regulations prescribed or interpretations issued pursuant to section 4(c)(13) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) to be usual in connection with the transaction of banking or other financial operations abroad. Those activities include—
</P>
<P>(1) Providing management consulting services, including to any person with respect to nonfinancial matters, so long as the management consulting services are advisory and do not allow the company to control the person to which the services are provided.
</P>
<P>(2) Operating a travel agency in connection with financial services.
</P>
<P>(3) Organizing, sponsoring, and managing a mutual fund.
</P>
<P>(4) Commercial banking and other banking activities.
</P>
<P>(h) Directly, or indirectly acquiring or controlling, whether as principal, on behalf of 1 or more entities, or otherwise, shares, assets, or ownership interests (including debt or equity securities, partnership interests, trust certificates, or other instruments representing ownership) of a company or other entity, whether or not constituting control of such company or entity, engaged in any activity not financial in nature as defined in this appendix if:
</P>
<P>(1) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are acquired and held as part of a bona fide underwriting or merchant or investment banking activity, including investment activities engaged in for the purpose of appreciation and ultimate resale or disposition of the investment;
</P>
<P>(2) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held for a period of time to enable the sale or disposition thereof on a reasonable basis consistent with the financial viability of the activities described in paragraph (h)(1) of this appendix; and
</P>
<P>(3) During the period such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held, the company does not routinely manage or operate such company or entity except as may be necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on investment upon resale or disposition.
</P>
<P>(i) Directly or indirectly acquiring or controlling, whether as principal, on behalf of 1 or more entities, or otherwise, shares, assets, or ownership interests (including debt or equity securities, partnership interests, trust certificates or other instruments representing ownership) of a company or other entity, whether or not constituting control of such company or entity, engaged in any activity not financial in nature as defined in this appendix if—
</P>
<P>(1) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are acquired and held by an insurance company that is predominantly engaged in underwriting life, accident and health, or property and casualty insurance (other than credit-related insurance) or providing and issuing annuities;
</P>
<P>(2) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests represent an investment made in the ordinary course of business of such insurance company in accordance with relevant state law governing such investments; and
</P>
<P>(3) During the period such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held, the company does not routinely manage or operate such company except as may be necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on investment.
</P>
<P>(j) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding financial assets other than money or securities.
</P>
<P>(k) Providing any device or other instrumentality for transferring money or other financial assets.
</P>
<P>(l) Arranging, effecting, or facilitating financial transactions for the account of third parties.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="243" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 243—RESOLUTION PLANS (REGULATION QQ)
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59216, 59227, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5265.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 243.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.1   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to section 165(d)(8) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1426-1427), as amended by the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296) (the <I>Dodd-Frank Act</I>), 12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(8), which requires the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Corporation) to jointly issue rules implementing the provisions of section 165(d) of the Dodd-Frank Act. The Board is also issuing this part pursuant to section 165(a)(2)(C) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to each covered company and establishes rules and requirements regarding the submission and content of a resolution plan, as well as procedures for review by the Board and Corporation of a resolution plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59216, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 84 FR 59227, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy Code</I> means Title 11 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Biennial filer</I> is defined in § 243.4(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Category II banking organization</I> means a covered company that is a category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Category III banking organization</I> means a covered company that is a category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization, but does not include any organization, the majority of the voting securities of which are owned by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> A company controls another company when the first company, directly or indirectly, owns, or holds with power to vote, 25 percent or more of any class of the second company's outstanding voting securities.
</P>
<P><I>Core business lines</I> means those business lines of the covered company, including associated operations, services, functions and support, that, in the view of the covered company, upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value.
</P>
<P><I>Core elements</I> mean the information required to be included in a full resolution plan pursuant to § 243.5(c), (d)(1)(i), (iii), and (iv), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2), (3), and (5), (f)(1)(v), and (g) regarding capital, liquidity, and the covered company's plan for executing any recapitalization contemplated in its resolution plan, including updated quantitative financial information and analyses important to the execution of the covered company's resolution strategy.
</P>
<P><I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered company means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any bank holding company, as that term is defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841), and part 225 of this title (the Board's Regulation Y), that has $250 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined based on the average of the company's four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C; provided that in the case of a company whose total consolidated assets have increased as the result of a merger, acquisition, combination, or similar transaction, the Board and the Corporation may alternatively consider, in their discretion, to the extent and in the manner the Board and the Corporation jointly consider to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q of the companies that were party to the merger, acquisition, combination or similar transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any foreign bank or company that is a bank holding company or is treated as a bank holding company under section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)), and that has $250 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined annually based on the foreign bank's or company's most recent annual or, as applicable, quarterly based on the average of the foreign bank's or company's four most recent quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q; provided that in the case of a company whose total consolidated assets have increased as the result of a merger, acquisition, combination, or similar transaction, the Board and the Corporation may alternatively consider, in their discretion, to the extent and in the manner the Board and the Corporation jointly consider to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q of the companies that were party to the merger, acquisition, combination or similar transaction; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any additional covered company as determined pursuant to § 243.13.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cessation of covered company status for nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board and global systemically important BHCs.</I> Once a covered company meets the requirements described in paragraph (1)(i) or (ii) of this definition of covered company, the company shall remain a covered company until it no longer meets any of the requirements described in paragraph (1) of this definition of covered company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cessation of covered company status for other covered companies.</I> Once a company meets the requirements described in paragraph (1)(iii) or (iv) of this definition of covered company, the company shall remain a covered company until—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iii) of this definition of covered company or a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iv) of this definition of covered company that files quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, the company has reported total consolidated assets that are below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as determined based on its total consolidated assets as reported on each of its four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iv) of this definition of covered company that does not file quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, the company has reported total consolidated assets that are below $250 billion for each of two consecutive years, as determined based on its total consolidated assets as reported on each of its two most recent annual Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, or such earlier time as jointly determined by the Board and the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multi-tiered holding company.</I> In a multi-tiered holding company structure, covered company means the top-tier of the multi-tiered holding company unless the Board and the Corporation jointly identify a different holding company to satisfy the requirements that apply to the covered company. In making this determination, the Board and the Corporation shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The ownership structure of the foreign banking organization, including whether the foreign banking organization is owned or controlled by a foreign government;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the action would be consistent with the purposes of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other factors that the Board and the Corporation determine are relevant.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Asset threshold for bank holding companies and foreign banking organizations.</I> The Board may, pursuant to a recommendation of the Council, raise any asset threshold specified in paragraph (1)(iii) or (iv) of this definition of covered company.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exclusion.</I> A bridge financial company chartered pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(h) shall not be deemed to be a covered company hereunder.
</P>
<P><I>Critical operations</I> means those operations of the covered company, including associated services, functions and support, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Deficiency</I> is defined in § 243.8(b).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1)) and includes a state-licensed uninsured branch, agency, or commercial lending subsidiary of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign banking organization</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that:
</P>
<P>(i) Operates a branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary in the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls a bank in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Controls an Edge corporation acquired after March 5, 1987; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any company of which the foreign bank is a subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign-based covered company</I> means any covered company that is not incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Full resolution plan</I> means a full resolution plan described in § 243.5.
</P>
<P><I>Functionally regulated subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a covered company that is a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Identified critical operations</I> means the critical operations of the covered company identified by the covered company or jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 243.3(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Material change</I> means an event, occurrence, change in conditions or circumstances, or other change that results in, or could reasonably be foreseen to have, a material effect on:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolvability of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company's resolution strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) How the covered company's resolution strategy is implemented. Such changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of a new critical operation or core business line;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification of a new material entity or the de-identification of a material entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Significant increases or decreases in the business, operations, or funding or interconnections of a material entity; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in the primary regulatory authorities of a material entity or the covered company on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P><I>Material entity</I> means a subsidiary or foreign office of the covered company that is significant to the activities of an identified critical operation or core business line, or is financially or operationally significant to the resolution of the covered company.
</P>
<P><I>Material financial distress</I> with regard to a covered company means that:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company has incurred, or is likely to incur, losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital, and there is no reasonable prospect for the company to avoid such depletion;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets of the covered company are, or are likely to be, less than its obligations to creditors and others; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company is, or is likely to be, unable to pay its obligations (other than those subject to a bona fide dispute) in the normal course of business.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a nonbank financial company or other company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Rapid and orderly resolution</I> means a reorganization or liquidation of the covered company (or, in the case of a covered company that is incorporated or organized in a jurisdiction other than the United States, the subsidiaries and operations of such foreign company that are domiciled in the United States) under the Bankruptcy Code that can be accomplished within a reasonable period of time and in a manner that substantially mitigates the risk that the failure of the covered company would have serious adverse effects on financial stability in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Reduced resolution plan</I> means a reduced resolution plan described in § 243.7.
</P>
<P><I>Shortcoming</I> is defined in § 243.8(e).
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means a company that is controlled by another company, and an indirect subsidiary is a company that is controlled by a subsidiary of a company.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted resolution plan</I> means a targeted resolution plan described in § 243.6.
</P>
<P><I>Triennial full filer</I> is defined in § 243.4(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Triennial reduced filer</I> is defined in § 243.4(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the United States and includes any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.3   Critical operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification of critical operations by covered companies</I>—(1) <I>Process and methodology required.</I> (i) Each biennial filer and triennial full filer shall establish and implement a process designed to identify each of its critical operations. After July 1, 2022, each triennial reduced filer that has any identified critical operation shall establish and implement a process designed to identify each of its critical operations. The scale of the process must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the covered company's operations. The covered company must review its process periodically and update it as necessary to ensure its continued effectiveness. The covered company shall describe its process and how it is applied as part of its corporate governance relating to resolution planning under § 243.5(d)(1). The covered company must conduct the process described in this paragraph (a)(1) sufficiently in advance of its next resolution plan submission so that the covered company is prepared to submit the information required under §§ 243.5 through 243.7 for each identified critical operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The process required under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section must include a methodology for evaluating the covered company's participation in activities and markets that may be critical to the financial stability of the United States. The methodology must be designed, taking into account the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the covered company's operations, to identify and assess:
</P>
<P>(A) The markets and activities in which the covered company participates or has operations;
</P>
<P>(B) The significance of those markets and activities with respect to the financial stability of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(C) The significance of the covered company as a provider or other participant in those markets and activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver requests.</I> A covered company that has previously submitted a resolution plan under this part may request a waiver of the requirement to have a process and methodology under paragraph (a)(1) of this section by submitting a waiver request in accordance with this paragraph (a)(2) if the covered company does not have an identified critical operation as of the date it submits the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(i) Each waiver request shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. A covered company shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section. A covered company shall include in the confidential section of a waiver request its rationale for why a waiver of the requirement would be appropriate, including an explanation of why the process and methodology are not likely to identify any critical operation given its business model, operations, and organizational structure. A covered company shall describe in the public section of a waiver request that it is seeking to waive the requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 18 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, with respect to any resolution plan that a covered company is required to submit on or before July 1, 2021, any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 17 months before that date.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board and Corporation may jointly approve or deny a waiver request in their discretion. Unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly approved a waiver request, the waiver request will be deemed denied on the date that is 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan that immediately follows submission of the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(iv) An approved waiver request under this paragraph (a)(2) is effective for the resolution plan submission that immediately follows submission of the waiver request and for any resolution plan submitted thereafter until, but not including, the covered company's next full resolution plan submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited exemption.</I> A foreign-based covered company is exempt from the requirement to have a process and methodology under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in connection with any requirement to submit a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2021 if the foreign-based covered company does not have an identified critical operation as of the date that is 17 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint identification of critical operations by the Board and the Corporation.</I> (1) The Board and the Corporation shall, not less frequently than every six years, jointly review the operations of covered companies to determine whether to jointly identify critical operations of any covered company in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or to jointly rescind any currently effective joint identification in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board and the Corporation jointly identify a covered company's operation as a critical operation, the Board and the Corporation shall jointly notify the covered company in writing. A covered company is not required to include the information required under §§ 243.5 through 243.7 for the identified critical operation in any resolution plan that the covered company is required to submit within 12 months after the joint notification unless the operation had been identified by the covered company as a critical operation on or before the date the Board and the Corporation jointly notified the covered company.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board and the Corporation may jointly rescind a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section by providing the covered company with joint notice of the rescission. Upon the notification, the covered company is not required to include the information regarding the operation required for identified critical operations under §§ 243.5 through 243.7 in any subsequent resolution plan unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered company identifies the operation as a critical operation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board and the Corporation subsequently provide a joint notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the covered company regarding the operation.
</P>
<P>(4) A joint notification provided by the Board and the Corporation to a covered company before [effective date of final rule] that identifies any of its operations as a critical operation and not previously jointly rescinded is deemed to be a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for reconsideration of jointly identified critical operations.</I> A covered company may request that the Board and the Corporation reconsider a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section in accordance with this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written request for reconsideration.</I> The covered company must submit a written request for reconsideration to the Board and the Corporation that includes a clear and complete statement of all arguments and all relevant, material information that the covered company expects to have considered. If a covered company has previously requested reconsideration regarding the operation, the written request must also describe the material differences between the new request and the most recent prior request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> (i) If a covered company submits a request for reconsideration on or before the date that is 18 months before the date by which it is required to submit its next resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation will complete their reconsideration no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, if the Board and the Corporation jointly find that additional information from the covered company is required to complete their reconsideration, the Board and the Corporation will jointly request in writing the additional information from the covered company. The Board and the Corporation will then complete their reconsideration no later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Ninety (90) days after receipt of all additional information from the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Twelve (12) months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a covered company submits a request for reconsideration less than 18 months before the date by which it is required to submit its next resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation may, in their discretion, defer reconsideration of the joint identification until after the submission of that resolution plan, with the result that the covered company must include the identified critical operation in that resolution plan and the Board and the Corporation will complete their reconsideration in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section as though the covered company had submitted the request after the date by which the covered company is required to submit that resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint communication following reconsideration.</I> The Board and the Corporation will communicate jointly the results of their reconsideration in writing to the covered company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>De-identification by covered company of self-identified critical operations.</I> A covered company may cease to include in its resolution plans the information required under §§ 243.5 through 243.7 regarding an operation previously identified only by the covered company (and not also jointly by the Board and the Corporation) as a critical operation only in accordance with this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of de-identification.</I> If a covered company ceases to identify an operation as a critical operation, the covered company must notify the Board and the Corporation of its de-identification. The notice must be in writing and include a clear and complete explanation of:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the covered company previously identified the operation as a critical operation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Why the covered company no longer identifies the operation as a critical operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> Notwithstanding a covered company's de-identification, and unless otherwise notified in writing jointly by the Board and the Corporation, a covered company shall include the applicable information required under §§ 243.5 through 243.7 regarding an operation previously identified by the covered company as a critical operation in any resolution plan the covered company is required to submit during the period ending 12 months after the covered company notifies the Board and the Corporation in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No effect on joint identifications.</I> Neither a covered company's de-identification nor notice thereof under paragraph (d)(1) of this section rescinds a joint identification made by the Board and the Corporation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.4   Resolution plan required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Biennial filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Biennial filer means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any global systemically important BHC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that has not been jointly designated a triennial full filer by the Board and Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section or that has been jointly re-designated a biennial filer by the Board and the Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonbank financial companies.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly designate a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board as a triennial full filer in their discretion, taking into account facts and circumstances that each of the Board and the Corporation in its discretion determines to be relevant. The Board and the Corporation may in their discretion jointly re-designate as a biennial filer a nonbank financial company that the Board and the Corporation had previously designated as a triennial filer, taking into account facts and circumstances that each of the Board and the Corporation in its discretion determines to be relevant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Biennial filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every two years.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Submission date.</I> Biennial filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Biennial filers shall alternate submitting a full resolution plan and a targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>New covered companies that are biennial filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a biennial filer after [effective date of final rule] shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other biennial filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be of the type required to be submitted by the other biennial filers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Triennial full filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Triennial full filer means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any category II banking organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any category III banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is jointly designated a triennial full filer by the Board and Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Triennial full filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every three years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission date.</I> Triennial full filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Triennial full filers shall alternate submitting a full resolution plan and a targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New covered companies that are triennial full filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a triennial full filer after [effective date of final rule] shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other triennial full filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be of the type required to be submitted by the other triennial full filers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Triennial reduced filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Triennial reduced filer means any covered company that is not a global systemically important BHC, nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, category II banking organization, or category III banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every three years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission date.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall submit a reduced resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New covered companies that are triennial reduced filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a triennial reduced filer after December 31, 2019 shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other triennial reduced filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be reduced resolution plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Changing filing groups.</I> If a covered company that is a member of a filing group specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (“original group filer”) becomes a member of a different filing group specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (“new group filer”), then the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the next date by which the original group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans is the same date by which the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans and:
</P>
<P>(A) That date is less than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer, the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan on or before that date. The resolution plan may be the type of resolution plan that the original group filers are required to submit on or before that date or the type of resolution plan that the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(B) That date is 12 months or more after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer, the covered company shall submit on or before that date the type of resolution plan the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the next date by which the original group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans is different from the date by which the new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans, the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other new group filers are required to submit a resolution plan that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer. The covered company shall submit the type of resolution plan that the other new group filers are required to submit on or before the date the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, any triennial reduced filer that becomes a biennial filer or a triennial full filer shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer. After submitting a full resolution plan, the covered company shall submit, on or before the next date that the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans, the type of resolution plan the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Altering submission dates.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, the Board and Corporation may jointly determine that a covered company shall submit its resolution plan on or before a date other than as provided in paragraphs (a) through (c) or paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The Board and the Corporation shall provide a covered company with written notice of a determination under this paragraph (d)(2) no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to require interim updates.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly require that a covered company submit an update to a resolution plan submitted under this part, within a reasonable amount of time, as jointly determined by the Board and Corporation. The Board and the Corporation shall notify the covered company of its requirement to submit an update under this paragraph (d)(3) in writing, and shall specify the portions or aspects of the resolution plan the covered company shall update.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of extraordinary events</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Each covered company shall provide the Board and the Corporation with a notice no later than 45 days after any material merger, acquisition of assets, or similar transaction or fundamental change to the covered company's resolution strategy. Such notice must describe the event and explain how the event affects the resolvability of the covered company. The covered company shall address any event with respect to which it has provided notice pursuant to this paragraph (d)(4)(i) in the following resolution plan submitted by the covered company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> A covered company shall not be required to submit a notice under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section if the date by which the covered company would be required to submit the notice under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section would be within 90 days before the date by which the covered company is required to submit a resolution plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Authority to require a full resolution plan submission.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, the Board and Corporation may jointly require a covered company to submit a full resolution plan instead of a targeted resolution plan or a reduced resolution plan that the covered company is otherwise required to submit under this section. The Board and the Corporation shall provide a covered company with written notice of a determination under this paragraph (d)(5) no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the full resolution plan. The date on or before which a full resolution plan must be submitted under this paragraph (d)(5) will be the date by which the covered company would otherwise be required to submit its upcoming targeted resolution plan or reduced resolution plan under paragraphs (a) through (c), or (d)(1) or (2) of this section. The requirement to submit a full resolution plan under this paragraph (d)(5) does not alter the type of resolution plan the covered company will subsequently be required to submit under this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Waivers</I>—(i) <I>Authority to waive requirements.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly waive one or more of the resolution plan requirements of § 243.5, § 243.6, or § 243.7 for one or more covered companies for any number of resolution plan submissions. A request pursuant to paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section is not required for the Board and Corporation to exercise their authority under this paragraph (d)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Waiver requests by covered companies.</I> In connection with the submission of a full resolution plan, a triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer that has previously submitted a resolution plan under this part may request a waiver of one or more of the informational content requirements of § 243.5 in accordance with this paragraph (d)(6)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) A requirement to include any of the following information is not eligible for a waiver at the request of a triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information specified in section 165(d)(1)(A) through (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A) through (C));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any core element;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information required to be included in the public section of a full resolution plan under § 243.11(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information about the remediation of any previously identified deficiency or shortcoming unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly determined that the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer has satisfactorily remedied the deficiency or addressed the shortcoming before its submission of the waiver request; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Information about changes to the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer's last submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Any material change experienced by the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer since it submitted that resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Each waiver request shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. A triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall include in the confidential section of a waiver request a clear and complete explanation of why:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Each requirement sought to be waived is not a requirement described in paragraph (d)(6)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The information sought to be waived would not be relevant to the Board's and Corporation's review of the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer's next full resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A waiver of each requirement would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall include in the public section of a waiver request a list of the requirements that it is requesting be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) A triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer may not make more than one waiver request for any full resolution plan submission and any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 18 months before the date by which the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer is required to submit the full resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(D) The Board and Corporation may jointly approve or deny a waiver request, in whole or in part, in their discretion. Unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly approved a waiver request, the waiver request will be deemed denied on the date that is 12 months before the date by which the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer is required to submit the full resolution plan to which the waiver request relates.
</P>
<P>(E) An approved waiver request under this paragraph (d)(6)(ii) is effective for only the full resolution plan that immediately follows submission of the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to information.</I> In order to allow evaluation of a resolution plan, each covered company must provide the Board and the Corporation such information and access to personnel of the covered company as the Board and the Corporation jointly determine during the period for reviewing the resolution plan is necessary to assess the credibility of the resolution plan and the ability of the covered company to implement the resolution plan. In order to facilitate review of any waiver request by a covered company under § 243.3(a)(2) or paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section, or any joint identification of a critical operation of a covered company under § 243.3(b), each covered company must provide such information and access to personnel of the covered company as the Board and the Corporation jointly determine is necessary to evaluate the waiver request or whether the operation is a critical operation. The Board and the Corporation will rely to the fullest extent possible on examinations conducted by or on behalf of the appropriate Federal banking agency for the relevant company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Board of directors approval of resolution plan.</I> Before submission of a resolution plan under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, the resolution plan of a covered company shall be approved by:
</P>
<P>(1) The board of directors of the covered company and noted in the minutes; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a foreign-based covered company only, a delegee acting under the express authority of the board of directors of the covered company to approve the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resolution plans provided to the Council.</I> The Board shall make the resolution plans and updates submitted by the covered company pursuant to this section available to the Council upon request.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Required and prohibited assumptions.</I> In preparing its resolution plan, a covered company shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Take into account that the material financial distress or failure of the covered company may occur under the severely adverse economic conditions provided to the covered company by the Board pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(1)(B);
</P>
<P>(2) Not rely on the provision of extraordinary support by the United States or any other government to the covered company or its subsidiaries to prevent the failure of the covered company, including any resolution actions taken outside the United States that would eliminate the need for any of a covered company's U.S. subsidiaries to enter into resolution proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to foreign banking organizations, not assume that the covered company takes resolution actions outside of the United States that would eliminate the need for any U.S. subsidiaries to enter into resolution proceedings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Point of contact.</I> Each covered company shall identify a senior management official at the covered company responsible for serving as a point of contact regarding the resolution plan of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Incorporation of previously submitted resolution plan information by reference.</I> Any resolution plan submitted by a covered company may incorporate by reference information from a resolution plan previously submitted by the covered company to the Board and the Corporation, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolution plan seeking to incorporate information by reference clearly indicates:
</P>
<P>(i) The information the covered company is incorporating by reference; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan(s) originally contained the information the covered company is incorporating by reference and the specific location of the information in the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company certifies that the information the covered company is incorporating by reference remains accurate in all respects that are material to the covered company's resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Initial resolution plans after effective date.</I> (1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in paragraphs (a) through (c) or (d)(1) of this section, each company that is a covered company as of December 31, 2019 is required to submit its initial resolution plan after December 31, 2019, as provided in this paragraph (k). The submission date and resolution plan type for each subsequent resolution plan will be determined pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Biennial filers.</I> Each covered company that is a biennial filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a biennial filer as of July 1, 2021, is required to submit a targeted resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section on or before July 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Triennial full filers.</I> Each covered company that is a triennial full filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a triennial full filer as of July 1, 2021 is required to submit a targeted resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section on or before July 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Triennial reduced filers.</I> Each covered company that is a triennial reduced filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a triennial reduced filer as of July 1, 2022 is required to submit a reduced resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section on or before July 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any company that is a covered company as of December 31, 2019, and changes filings groups specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section after October 1, 2020 and before the date by which it would be required to submit a resolution plan under paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the requirements for its initial resolution plan after it changes filing groups will be determined pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this paragraph (k), a covered company that has been jointly directed by the Board and the Corporation before December 31, 2019, to submit a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 describing changes it has made to its most recent resolution plan submission to address each shortcoming the agencies identified in that resolution plan shall submit a responsive resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 in addition to any resolution plan that such covered company is otherwise required to submit under this section. The requirement to submit such a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 does not alter the timing or type of resolution plan any such covered company is required to submit under this section after July 1, 2020.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.5   Informational content of a full resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Domestic covered companies.</I> A full resolution plan of a covered company that is organized or incorporated in the United States shall include the information specified in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section with respect to the subsidiaries and operations that are domiciled in the United States as well as the foreign subsidiaries, offices, and operations of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign-based covered companies.</I> A full resolution plan of a covered company that is organized or incorporated in a jurisdiction other than the United States (other than a bank holding company) or that is a foreign banking organization shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The information specified in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section with respect to the subsidiaries, branches and agencies, and identified critical operations and core business lines, as applicable, that are domiciled in the United States or conducted in whole or material part in the United States. With respect to the information specified in paragraph (g) of this section, the resolution plan of a foreign-based covered company shall also identify, describe in detail, and map to legal entity the interconnections and interdependencies among the U.S. subsidiaries, branches, and agencies, and between those entities and:
</P>
<P>(A) The identified critical operations and core business lines of the foreign-based covered company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any foreign-based affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of how resolution planning for the subsidiaries, branches and agencies, and identified critical operations and core business lines of the foreign-based covered company that are domiciled in the United States or conducted in whole or material part in the United States is integrated into the foreign-based covered company's overall resolution or other contingency planning process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Executive summary.</I> Each full resolution plan of a covered company shall include an executive summary describing:
</P>
<P>(1) The key elements of the covered company's strategic plan for rapid and orderly resolution in the event of material financial distress at or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred);
</P>
<P>(3) Changes to the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any actions taken by the covered company since filing of the previous resolution plan to improve the effectiveness of the covered company's resolution plan or remediate or otherwise mitigate any material weaknesses or impediments to effective and timely execution of the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Strategic analysis.</I> Each full resolution plan shall include a strategic analysis describing the covered company's plan for rapid and orderly resolution in the event of material financial distress or failure of the covered company. Such analysis shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include detailed descriptions of the:
</P>
<P>(i) Key assumptions and supporting analysis underlying the covered company's resolution plan, including any assumptions made concerning the economic or financial conditions that would be present at the time the covered company sought to implement such plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Range of specific actions to be taken by the covered company to facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution of the covered company, its material entities, and its identified critical operations and core business lines in the event of material financial distress or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(iii) Funding, liquidity and capital needs of, and resources available to, the covered company and its material entities, which shall be mapped to its identified critical operations and core business lines, in the ordinary course of business and in the event of material financial distress at or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Covered company's strategy for maintaining operations of, and funding for, the covered company and its material entities, which shall be mapped to its identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(v) Covered company's strategy in the event of a failure or discontinuation of a material entity, core business line or identified critical operation, and the actions that will be taken by the covered company to prevent or mitigate any adverse effects of such failure or discontinuation on the financial stability of the United States; provided, however, if any such material entity is subject to an insolvency regime other than the Bankruptcy Code, a covered company may exclude that entity from its strategic analysis unless that entity either has $50 billion or more in total assets or conducts an identified critical operation; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Covered company's strategy for ensuring that any insured depository institution subsidiary of the covered company will be adequately protected from risks arising from the activities of any nonbank subsidiaries of the covered company (other than those that are subsidiaries of an insured depository institution);
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the time period(s) the covered company expects would be needed for the covered company to successfully execute each material aspect and step of the covered company's plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe any potential material weaknesses or impediments to effective and timely execution of the covered company's plan;
</P>
<P>(4) Discuss the actions and steps the covered company has taken or proposes to take to remediate or otherwise mitigate the weaknesses or impediments identified by the covered company, including a timeline for the remedial or other mitigatory action; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a detailed description of the processes the covered company employs for:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the current market values and marketability of the core business lines, identified critical operations, and material asset holdings of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the feasibility of the covered company's plans (including timeframes) for executing any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions contemplated in the covered company's resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assessing the impact of any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions on the value, funding, and operations of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corporate governance relating to resolution planning.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include a detailed description of:
</P>
<P>(i) How resolution planning is integrated into the corporate governance structure and processes of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered company's policies, procedures, and internal controls governing preparation and approval of the covered company's resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity and position of the senior management official(s) of the covered company that is primarily responsible for overseeing the development, maintenance, implementation, and filing of the covered company's resolution plan and for the covered company's compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The nature, extent, and frequency of reporting to senior executive officers and the board of directors of the covered company regarding the development, maintenance, and implementation of the covered company's resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the nature, extent, and results of any contingency planning or similar exercise conducted by the covered company since the date of the covered company's most recently filed resolution plan to assess the viability of or improve the resolution plan of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe the relevant risk measures used by the covered company to report credit risk exposures both internally to its senior management and board of directors, as well as any relevant risk measures reported externally to investors or to the covered company's appropriate Federal regulator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Organizational structure and related information.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a detailed description of the covered company's organizational structure, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A hierarchical list of all material entities within the covered company's organization (including legal entities that directly or indirectly hold such material entities) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies the direct holder and the percentage of voting and nonvoting equity of each legal entity and foreign office listed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The location, jurisdiction of incorporation, licensing, and key management associated with each material legal entity and foreign office identified;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the covered company's identified critical operations and core business lines, including material asset holdings and liabilities related to such identified critical operations and core business lines, to material entities;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide an unconsolidated balance sheet for the covered company and a consolidating schedule for all material entities that are subject to consolidation by the covered company;
</P>
<P>(3) Include a description of the material components of the liabilities of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines that, at a minimum, separately identifies types and amounts of the short-term and long-term liabilities, the secured and unsecured liabilities, and subordinated liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify and describe the processes used by the covered company to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine to whom the covered company has pledged collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the person or entity that holds such collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the jurisdiction in which the collateral is located, and, if different, the jurisdiction in which the security interest in the collateral is enforceable against the covered company;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe any material off-balance sheet exposures (including guarantees and contractual obligations) of the covered company and its material entities, including a mapping to its identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the practices of the covered company, its material entities and its core business lines related to the booking of trading and derivatives activities;
</P>
<P>(7) Identify material hedges of the covered company, its material entities, and its core business lines related to trading and derivative activities, including a mapping to legal entity;
</P>
<P>(8) Describe the hedging strategies of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(9) Describe the process undertaken by the covered company to establish exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(10) Identify the major counterparties of the covered company and describe the interconnections, interdependencies and relationships with such major counterparties;
</P>
<P>(11) Analyze whether the failure of each major counterparty would likely have an adverse impact on or result in the material financial distress or failure of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(12) Identify each trading, payment, clearing, or settlement system of which the covered company, directly or indirectly, is a member and on which the covered company conducts a material number or value amount of trades or transactions. Map membership in each such system to the covered company's material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Management information systems.</I> (1) Each full resolution plan shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed inventory and description of the key management information systems and applications, including systems and applications for risk management, accounting, and financial and regulatory reporting, used by the covered company and its material entities. The description of each system or application provided shall identify the legal owner or licensor, the use or function of the system or application, service level agreements related thereto, any software and system licenses, and any intellectual property associated therewith;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the key management information systems and applications to the material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines of the covered company that use or rely on such systems and applications;
</P>
<P>(iii) An identification of the scope, content, and frequency of the key internal reports that senior management of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines use to monitor the financial health, risks, and operation of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the process for the appropriate supervisory or regulatory agencies to access the management information systems and applications identified in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description and analysis of:
</P>
<P>(A) The capabilities of the covered company's management information systems to collect, maintain, and report, in a timely manner to management of the covered company, and to the Board, the information and data underlying the resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any gaps or weaknesses in such capabilities, and a description of the actions the covered company intends to take to promptly address such gaps, or weaknesses, and the time frame for implementing such actions.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will use its examination authority to review the demonstrated capabilities of each covered company to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section. The Board will share with the Corporation information regarding the capabilities of the covered company to collect, maintain, and report in a timely manner information and data underlying the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interconnections and interdependencies.</I> To the extent not provided elsewhere in this part, each full resolution plan shall identify and map to the material entities the interconnections and interdependencies among the covered company and its material entities, and among the identified critical operations and core business lines of the covered company that, if disrupted, would materially affect the funding or operations of the covered company, its material entities, or its identified critical operations or core business lines. Such interconnections and interdependencies may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Common or shared personnel, facilities, or systems (including information technology platforms, management information systems, risk management systems, and accounting and recordkeeping systems);
</P>
<P>(2) Capital, funding, or liquidity arrangements;
</P>
<P>(3) Existing or contingent credit exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) Cross-guarantee arrangements, cross-collateral arrangements, cross-default provisions, and cross-affiliate netting agreements;
</P>
<P>(5) Risk transfers; and
</P>
<P>(6) Service level agreements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Supervisory and regulatory information.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal, state, or foreign agency or authority (other than a Federal banking agency) with supervisory authority or responsibility for ensuring the safety and soundness of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other Federal, state, or foreign agency or authority (other than a Federal banking agency) with significant supervisory or regulatory authority over the covered company, and its material entities and identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify any foreign agency or authority responsible for resolving a foreign-based material entity and identified critical operations or core business lines of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include contact information for each agency identified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.6   Informational content of a targeted resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A targeted resolution plan is a subset of a full resolution plan and shall include core elements of a full resolution plan and information concerning key areas of focus as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Targeted resolution plan content.</I> Each targeted resolution plan of a covered company shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The core elements;
</P>
<P>(2) Such targeted information as the Board and Corporation may jointly identify pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred); and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of changes to the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any;
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Targeted information requests.</I> No less than 12 months before the date by which a covered company is required to submit a targeted resolution plan, the Board and Corporation may jointly identify in writing resolution-related key areas of focus, questions, and issues that must also be addressed in the covered company's targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deemed incorporation by reference.</I> If a covered company does not include in its targeted resolution plan a description of changes to any information set forth in section 165(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C)) since its previously submitted resolution plan, such information from its previously submitted resolution plan are incorporated by reference into its targeted resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.7   Informational content of a reduced resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reduced resolution plan content.</I> Each reduced resolution plan of a covered company shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred); and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of changes to the strategic analysis that was presented in the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deemed incorporation by reference.</I> If a covered company does not include in its reduced resolution plan a description of changes to any information set forth in section 165(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C)) since its previously submitted resolution plan, such information from its previously submitted resolution plan are incorporated by reference into its reduced resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.8   Review of resolution plans; resubmission of deficient resolution plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of resolution plans.</I> The Board and Corporation will seek to coordinate their activities concerning the review of resolution plans, including planning for, reviewing, and assessing the resolution plans, as well as such activities that occur during the periods between resolution plan submissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint determination regarding deficient resolution plans.</I> If the Board and Corporation jointly determine that the resolution plan of a covered company submitted under § 243.4 is not credible or would not facilitate an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code, the Board and Corporation shall jointly notify the covered company in writing of such determination. Any joint notice provided under this paragraph (b) shall be provided pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section and shall identify the deficiencies identified by the Board and Corporation in the resolution plan. A deficiency is an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan that the Board and Corporation jointly determine presents a weakness that individually or in conjunction with other aspects could undermine the feasibility of the covered company's resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resubmission of a resolution plan.</I> Within 90 days of receiving a notice of deficiencies issued pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or such shorter or longer period as the Board and Corporation may jointly determine, a covered company shall submit a revised resolution plan to the Board and Corporation that addresses the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and Corporation, and that discusses in detail:
</P>
<P>(1) The revisions made by the covered company to address the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) Any changes to the covered company's business operations and corporate structure that the covered company proposes to undertake to facilitate implementation of the revised resolution plan (including a timeline for the execution of such planned changes); and
</P>
<P>(3) Why the covered company believes that the revised resolution plan is credible and would result in an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extensions of time.</I> Upon their own initiative or a written request by a covered company, the Board and Corporation may jointly extend any time period under this section. Each extension request shall be supported by a written statement of the covered company describing the basis and justification for the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint determination regarding shortcomings in resolution plans.</I> The Board and Corporation may also jointly identify one or more shortcomings in a covered company's resolution plan. A shortcoming is a weakness or gap that raises questions about the feasibility of a covered company's resolution plan, but does not rise to the level of a deficiency for both the Board and Corporation. If a shortcoming is not satisfactorily explained or addressed before or in the submission of the covered company's next resolution plan, it may be found to be a deficiency in the covered company's next resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation may identify an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan as a deficiency even if such aspect was not identified as a shortcoming in an earlier resolution plan submission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Feedback.</I> Following their review of a resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation will jointly send a notification to each covered company that identifies any deficiencies or shortcomings in the covered company's resolution plan (or confirms that no deficiencies or shortcomings were identified) and provides any feedback on the resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation will jointly send the notification no later than 12 months after the later of the date on which the covered company submitted the resolution plan and the date by which the covered company was required to submit the resolution plan, unless the Board and the Corporation jointly determine in their discretion that extenuating circumstances exist that require delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.9   Failure to cure deficiencies on resubmission of a resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Board and Corporation may jointly determine that a covered company or any subsidiary of a covered company shall be subject to more stringent capital, leverage, or liquidity requirements, or restrictions on the growth, activities, or operations of the covered company or the subsidiary if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company fails to submit a revised resolution plan under § 243.8(c) within the required time period; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Board and the Corporation jointly determine that a revised resolution plan submitted under § 243.8(c) does not adequately remedy the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 243.8(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of requirements or restrictions.</I> Any requirements or restrictions imposed on a covered company or a subsidiary thereof pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall cease to apply to the covered company or subsidiary, respectively, on the date that the Board and the Corporation jointly determine the covered company has submitted a revised resolution plan that adequately remedies the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 243.8(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Divestiture.</I> The Board and Corporation, in consultation with the Council, may jointly, by order, direct the covered company to divest such assets or operations as are jointly identified by the Board and Corporation if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board and Corporation have jointly determined that the covered company or a subsidiary thereof shall be subject to requirements or restrictions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company has failed, within the 2-year period beginning on the date on which the determination to impose such requirements or restrictions under paragraph (a) of this section was made, to submit a revised resolution plan that adequately remedies the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 243.8(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) The Board and Corporation jointly determine that the divestiture of such assets or operations is necessary to facilitate an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code in the event the company was to fail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.10   Consultation.</HEAD>
<P>Before issuing any notice of deficiencies under § 243.8(b), determining to impose requirements or restrictions under § 243.9(a), or issuing a divestiture order pursuant to § 243.9(c) with respect to a covered company that is likely to have a significant impact on a functionally regulated subsidiary or a depository institution subsidiary of the covered company, the Board—
</P>
<P>(a) Shall consult with each Council member that primarily supervises any such subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(b) May consult with any other Federal, state, or foreign supervisor as the Board considers appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.11   No limiting effect or private right of action; confidentiality of resolution plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No limiting effect on bankruptcy or other resolution proceedings.</I> A resolution plan submitted pursuant to this part shall not have any binding effect on:
</P>
<P>(1) A court or trustee in a proceeding commenced under the Bankruptcy Code;
</P>
<P>(2) A receiver appointed under title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) A bridge financial company chartered pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(h); or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other authority that is authorized or required to resolve a covered company (including any subsidiary or affiliate thereof) under any other provision of Federal, state, or foreign law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No private right of action.</I> Nothing in this part creates or is intended to create a private right of action based on a resolution plan prepared or submitted under this part or based on any action taken by the Board or the Corporation with respect to any resolution plan submitted under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of resolution plans</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Each full, targeted, and reduced resolution plan of a covered company shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. Each covered company shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public section of full and targeted resolution plans.</I> The public section of a full or targeted resolution plan shall consist of an executive summary of the resolution plan that describes the business of the covered company and includes, to the extent material to an understanding of the covered company:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of material entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iii) Consolidated or segment financial information regarding assets, liabilities, capital and major funding sources;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of derivative activities and hedging activities;
</P>
<P>(v) A list of memberships in material payment, clearing and settlement systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of foreign operations;
</P>
<P>(vii) The identities of material supervisory authorities;
</P>
<P>(viii) The identities of the principal officers;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the corporate governance structure and processes related to resolution planning;
</P>
<P>(x) A description of material management information systems; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A description, at a high level, of the covered company's resolution strategy, covering such items as the range of potential purchasers of the covered company, its material entities, and its core business lines.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public section of reduced resolution plans.</I> The public section of a reduced resolution plan shall consist of an executive summary of the resolution plan that describes the business of the covered company and includes, to the extent material to an understanding of the covered company:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of material entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identities of the principal officers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description, at a high level, of the covered company's resolution strategy, referencing the applicable resolution regimes for its material entities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidential treatment of resolution plans.</I> (1) The confidentiality of resolution plans and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)), 12 CFR part 261 (the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information), and 12 CFR part 309 (the Corporation's Disclosure of Information rules).
</P>
<P>(2) Any covered company submitting a resolution plan or related materials pursuant to this part that desires confidential treatment of the information under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), 12 CFR part 261 (the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information), and 12 CFR part 309 (the Corporation's Disclosure of Information rules) may file a request for confidential treatment in accordance with those rules.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent permitted by law, information comprising the Confidential Section of a resolution plan will be treated as confidential.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent permitted by law, the submission of any nonpublic data or information under this part shall not constitute a waiver of, or otherwise affect, any privilege arising under Federal or state law (including the rules of any Federal or state court) to which the data or information is otherwise subject. Privileges that apply to resolution plans and related materials are protected pursuant to section 18(x) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(x)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.12   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The Board and Corporation may jointly enforce an order jointly issued by the Board and Corporation under § 243.9(a) or (c). The Board, in consultation with the Corporation, may take any action to address any violation of this part by a covered company under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 243.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.13.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 243.13   Additional covered companies.</HEAD>
<P>An additional covered company is any bank holding company or any foreign bank or company that is a bank holding company or is treated as a bank holding company under section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)) that is:
</P>
<P>(a) Identified as a category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title;
</P>
<P>(b) Identified as a category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title; or
</P>
<P>(c) Made subject to this part by order of the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59227, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="244" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 244—CREDIT RISK RETENTION (REGULATION RR)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> 1461 <I>et seq.,</I> 1818, 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> 3103 <I>et seq.,</I> and 15 U.S.C. 78o-11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 77740, 77764, Dec. 24, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority, Purpose, Scope and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This part (Regulation RR) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (BHC Act) (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); the Home Owners' Loan Act of 1933 (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5365); and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Board to take action under provisions of law other than 15 U.S.C. 78o-11, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part requires any securitizer to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to any securitizer that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A state member bank (as defined in 12 CFR 208.2(g)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any subsidiary of a state member bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Section 15G of the Exchange Act and the rules issued thereunder apply to any securitizer that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842);
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign banking organization (as defined in 12 CFR 211.21(o));
</P>
<P>(iii) An Edge or agreement corporation (as defined in 12 CFR 211.1(c)(2) and (3));
</P>
<P>(iv) A nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect; or
</P>
<P>(v) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any subsidiary of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance with this part is required:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to any securitization transaction collateralized by residential mortgages on December 24, 2015; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any other securitization transaction on December 24, 2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77764, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>ABS interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any type of interest or obligation issued by an issuing entity, whether or not in certificated form, including a security, obligation, beneficial interest or residual interest (other than an uncertificated regular interest in a REMIC that is held by another REMIC, where both REMICs are part of the same structure and a single REMIC in that structure issues ABS interests to investors, or a non-economic residual interest issued by a REMIC), payments on which are primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral owned or held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include common or preferred stock, limited liability interests, partnership interests, trust certificates, or similar interests that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are issued primarily to evidence ownership of the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payments, if any, on which are not primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include the right to receive payments for services provided by the holder of such right, including servicing, trustee services and custodial services.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> of, or a person <I>affiliated</I> with, a specified person means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Asset</I> means a self-liquidating financial asset (including but not limited to a loan, lease, mortgage, or receivable).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(79) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79)).
</P>
<P><I>Collateral</I> means, with respect to any issuance of ABS interests, the assets that provide the cash flow and the servicing assets that support such cash flow for the ABS interests irrespective of the legal structure of issuance, including security interests in assets or other property of the issuing entity, fractional undivided property interests in the assets or other property of the issuing entity, or any other property interest in or rights to cash flow from such assets and related servicing assets. Assets or other property <I>collateralize</I> an issuance of ABS interests if the assets or property serve as collateral for such issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate loan</I> has the same meaning as in § 244.14.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> including the terms “controlling,” “controlled by” and “under common control with”:
</P>
<P>(1) Means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) Without limiting the foregoing, a person shall be considered to control another person if the first person:
</P>
<P>(i) Owns, controls or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees or persons performing similar functions of the other person.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk of loss that could result from the failure of the borrower in the case of a securitized asset, or the issuing entity in the case of an ABS interest in the issuing entity, to make required payments of principal or interest on the asset or ABS interest on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(2) The risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding with respect to the borrower or issuing entity, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(3) The effect that significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the asset or ABS interest may have on the market value of the asset or ABS interest.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(g).
</P>
<P><I>Depositor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor, in the case of a securitization transaction where there is not an intermediate transfer of the assets from the sponsor to the issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity in the case of a securitization transaction where the person transferring or selling the securitized assets directly to the issuing entity is itself a trust.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal residual interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest in the issuing entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That is an interest in a single class or multiple classes in the issuing entity, provided that each interest meets, individually or in the aggregate, all of the requirements of this definition;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to which, on any payment date or allocation date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds to satisfy its obligation to pay all contractual interest or principal due, any resulting shortfall will reduce amounts payable to the eligible horizontal residual interest prior to any reduction in the amounts payable to any other ABS interest, whether through loss allocation, operation of the priority of payments, or any other governing contractual provision (until the amount of such ABS interest is reduced to zero); and
</P>
<P>(3) That, with the exception of any non-economic REMIC residual interest, has the most subordinated claim to payments of both principal and interest by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal cash reserve account</I> means an account meeting the requirements of § 244.4(b).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible vertical interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, a single vertical security or an interest in each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as part of the securitization transaction that constitutes the same proportion of each such class.
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing entity</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the trust or other entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That owns or holds the pool of assets to be securitized; and
</P>
<P>(2) In whose name the asset-backed securities are issued.
</P>
<P><I>Majority-owned affiliate</I> of a person means an entity (other than the issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, such person. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means a person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Through an extension of credit or otherwise, creates an asset that collateralizes an asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sells the asset directly or indirectly to a securitizer or issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>REMIC</I> has the same meaning as in 26 U.S.C. 860D.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A transaction that is a covered transaction as defined in § 1026.43(b) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(2) Any transaction that is exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loan secured by a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium or cooperative unit and, if used as a residence, a mobile home or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Retaining sponsor</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the sponsor that has retained or caused to be retained an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization transaction</I> means a transaction involving the offer and sale of asset-backed securities by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitized asset</I> means an asset that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is transferred, sold, or conveyed to an issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralizes the ABS interests issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitizer</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, either:
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor of the asset-backed securities (if the depositor is not the sponsor); or
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor of the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means any person responsible for the management or collection of the securitized assets or making allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests, but does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the asset-backed securities that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Servicing assets</I> means rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to ABS interest holders and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the issuing entity's securitized assets. Servicing assets include amounts received by the issuing entity as proceeds of securitized assets, including proceeds of rights or other assets, whether as remittances by obligors or as other recoveries.
</P>
<P><I>Single vertical security</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest entitling the sponsor to a specified percentage of the amounts paid on each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity (other than such single vertical security).
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who organizes and initiates a securitization transaction by selling or transferring assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the same meaning as in Section 3(a)(16) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(16)).
</P>
<P><I>United States or U.S.</I> means the United States of America, including its territories and possessions, any State of the United States, and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Wholly-owned affiliate</I> means a person (other than an issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, wholly controls, is wholly controlled by, or is wholly under common control with, another person. For purposes of this definition, “wholly controls” means ownership of 100 percent of the equity of an entity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Credit Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.3   Base risk retention requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Base risk retention requirement.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 244.4 through 244.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multiple sponsors.</I> If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of § 244.4, § 244.5, § 244.8, § 244.9, or § 244.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.4   Standard risk retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as provided in §§ 244.5 through 244.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account.</I> In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and
</P>
<P>(3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or
</P>
<P>(B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Horizontal interest.</I> With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Discount rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Loss given default (recovery);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prepayment rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Lag time between default and recovery; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The basis of forward interest rates used.
</P>
<P>(F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vertical interest.</I> With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;
</P>
<P>(B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.5   Revolving pool securitizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Revolving pool securitization</I> means an issuing entity that is established to issue on multiple issuance dates more than one series, class, subclass, or tranche of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of securitized assets that will change in composition over time, and that does not monetize excess interest and fees from its securitized assets.
</P>
<P><I>Seller's interest</I> means an ABS interest or ABS interests:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized by the securitized assets and servicing assets owned or held by the issuing entity, other than the following that are not considered a component of seller's interest:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing assets that have been allocated as collateral only for a specific series in connection with administering the revolving pool securitization, such as a principal accumulation or interest reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets that are not eligible under the terms of the securitization transaction to be included when determining whether the revolving pool securitization holds aggregate securitized assets in specified proportions to aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) That is <I>pari passu</I> with each series of investor ABS interests issued, or partially or fully subordinated to one or more series in identical or varying amounts, with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets prior to early amortization of the revolving securitization (as specified in the securitization transaction documents); and
</P>
<P>(3) That adjusts for fluctuations in the outstanding principal balance of the securitized assets in the pool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 244.3 with respect to a securitization transaction for which the issuing entity is a revolving pool securitization if the sponsor maintains a seller's interest of not less than 5 percent of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests in the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Measuring the seller's interest.</I> In measuring the seller's interest for purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets for the numerator of the 5 percent ratio shall not include assets of the types excluded from the definition of seller's interest in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator of the 5 percent ratio may be reduced by the amount of funds held in a segregated principal accumulation account for the repayment of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the securitization transaction documents prevent funds in the principal accumulation account from being applied for any purpose other than the repayment of the unpaid principal of outstanding investor ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Funds in that account are invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 244.4 are permitted to be invested;
</P>
<P>(3) If the terms of the securitization transaction documents set minimum required seller's interest as a proportion of the unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, rather than as a proportion of the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests in all outstanding series combined, the percentage of the seller's interest for each such series must, when combined with the percentage of any minimum seller's interest set by reference to the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests, equal at least 5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) The 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied at the closing of each issuance of ABS interests to investors by the issuing entity, and
</P>
<P>(i) At least monthly at a seller's interest measurement date specified under the securitization transaction documents, until no ABS interest in the issuing entity is held by any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the revolving pool securitization fails to meet the 5 percent test as of any date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, and the securitization transaction documents specify a cure period, the 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied within the earlier of the cure period, or one month after the date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measuring outstanding investor ABS interests.</I> In measuring the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for purposes of this section, ABS interests held for the life of such ABS interests by the sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates may be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holding and retention of the seller's interest; legacy trusts.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 244.12(a), the seller's interest, and any offsetting horizontal retention interest retained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, must be retained by the sponsor or by one or more wholly-owned affiliates of the sponsor, including one or more depositors of the revolving pool securitization.
</P>
<P>(2) If one revolving pool securitization issues collateral certificates representing a beneficial interest in all or a portion of the securitized assets held by that securitization to another revolving pool securitization, which in turn issues ABS interests for which the collateral certificates are all or a portion of the securitized assets, a sponsor may satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section by retaining the seller's interest for the assets represented by the collateral certificates through either of the revolving pool securitizations, so long as both revolving pool securitizations are retained at the direction of the same sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains the seller's interest associated with the collateral certificates at the level of the revolving pool securitization that issues those collateral certificates, the proportion of the seller's interest required by paragraph (b) of this section retained at that level must equal the proportion that the principal balance of the securitized assets represented by the collateral certificates bears to the principal balance of the securitized assets in the revolving pool securitization that issues the ABS interests, as of each measurement date required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offset for pool-level excess funding account.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced on a dollar-for-dollar basis by the balance, as of such date, of an excess funding account in the form of a segregated account that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is funded in the event of a failure to meet the minimum seller's interest requirements or other requirement to maintain a minimum balance of securitized assets under the securitization transaction documents by distributions otherwise payable to the holder of the seller's interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Is invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in a horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 244.4 are permitted to be invested; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of an early amortization, makes payments of amounts held in the account to holders of investor ABS interests in the same manner as payments to holders of investor ABS interests of amounts received on securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combined seller's interests and horizontal interest retention.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced to a percentage lower than 5 percent to the extent that, for all series of investor ABS interests issued after the applicable effective date of this § 244.5, the sponsor, or notwithstanding § 244.12(a) a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, retains, at a minimum, a corresponding percentage of the fair value of ABS interests issued in each series, in the form of one or more of the horizontal residual interests meeting the requirements of paragraphs (h) or (i).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Residual ABS interests in excess interest and fees.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for a residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, whether certificated or uncertificated, in a single or multiple classes, subclasses, or tranches, that meets, individually or in the aggregate, the requirements of this paragraph (h);
</P>
<P>(1) Each series of the revolving pool securitization distinguishes between the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows and the series' share of the principal repayment cash flows from the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization, which may according to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, include not only the series' ratable share of such cash flows but also excess cash flows available from other series;
</P>
<P>(2) The residual ABS interest's claim to any part of the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows for any interest payment period is subordinated to all accrued and payable interest due on the payment date to more senior ABS interests in the series for that period, and further reduced by the series' share of losses, including defaults on principal of the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization (whether incurred in that period or carried over from prior periods) to the extent that such payments would have been included in amounts payable to more senior interests in the series;
</P>
<P>(3) The revolving pool securitization continues to revolve, with one or more series, classes, subclasses, or tranches of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of assets that change in composition over time; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, and the fair value of the series of outstanding investor ABS interests to which it is subordinated and supports using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP, as of:
</P>
<P>(i) The closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller's interest measurement dates described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except that for these periodic determinations the sponsor must update the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees for the numerator of the percentage ratio, but may at the sponsor's option continue to use the fair values determined in (h)(4)(i) for the outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Offsetting eligible horizontal residual interest.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for ABS interests that would meet the definition of eligible horizontal residual interests in § 244.2 but for the sponsor's simultaneous holding of subordinated seller's interests, residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, or a combination of the two, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor complies with all requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section for its holdings of subordinated seller's interest, and paragraph (h) for its holdings of residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests in the series supported by the eligible horizontal residual interest, determined using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Without including in the numerator of the percentage ratio any fair value based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The subordinated seller's interest or residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees;
</P>
<P>(B) the interest payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section in taking the offset in paragraph (g) of this section; and,
</P>
<P>(C) the principal payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of the seller's interest pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and distributions on that seller's interest are available to reduce charge-offs that would otherwise be allocated to reduce principal payable to the offset eligible horizontal residual interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Specified dates.</I> A sponsor using data about the revolving pool securitization's collateral, or ABS interests previously issued, to determine the closing-date percentage of a seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this § 244.5 may use such data prepared as of specified dates if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor describes the specified dates in the disclosures required by paragraph (k) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dates are no more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors of disclosures required for the interest by paragraph (k) of this section, or for revolving pool securitizations that make distributions to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, no more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors of such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Disclosure and record maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” the following disclosure in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (k):
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security, a description of the material terms of the seller's interest, and the percentage of the seller's interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction, measured in accordance with the requirements of this § 244.5, as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests issued, or as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, as required by the terms of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of seller's interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the material terms of any horizontal residual interests offsetting the seller's interest in accordance with paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure of the fair value of those horizontal residual interests retained by the sponsor for the series being offered to investors and described in the disclosures, as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests issued, described in the same manner and within the same timeframes required for disclosure of the fair values of eligible horizontal residual interests specified in § 244.4(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted data.</I> Disclosures required by this paragraph (k) to be made a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security of the amount of seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest may include adjustments to the amount of securitized assets for additions or removals the sponsor expects to make before the closing date and adjustments to the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for expected increases and decreases of those interests under the control of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraph (k)(1) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Early amortization of all outstanding series.</I> A sponsor that organizes a revolving pool securitization that relies on this § 244.5 to satisfy the risk retention requirements of § 244.3, does not violate the requirements of this part if its seller's interest falls below the level required by § 244. 5 after the revolving pool securitization commences early amortization, pursuant to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, of all series of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor was in full compliance with the requirements of this section on all measurement dates specified in paragraph (c) of this section prior to the commencement of early amortization;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the seller's interest continue to make it <I>pari passu</I> with or subordinate in identical or varying amounts to each series of outstanding investor ABS interests issued with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any horizontal interest relied upon by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (g) to offset the minimum seller's interest amount continue to require the interests to absorb losses in accordance with the terms of paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) The revolving pool securitization issues no additional ABS interests after early amortization is initiated to any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, either at the time of issuance or during the amortization period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.6   Eligible ABCP conduits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>100 percent liquidity coverage</I> means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP</I> means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP conduit</I> means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP conduit</I> means an ABCP conduit, <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:
</P>
<P>(i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,
</P>
<P>(B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or
</P>
<P>(C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section).
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate SPV</I> means a special purpose vehicle that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Originator-seller</I> means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 244.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated liquidity provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 244.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 244.4 or § 244.5; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Originator-seller compliance with risk retention.</I> The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Periodic disclosures to investors.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits.</I> At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.7   Commercial mortgage-backed securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Special servicer</I> means, with respect to any securitization of commercial real estate loans, any servicer that, upon the occurrence of one or more specified conditions in the servicing agreement, has the right to service one or more assets in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third-party purchaser.</I> A sponsor may satisfy some or all of its risk retention requirements under § 244.3 with respect to a securitization transaction if a third party (or any majority-owned affiliate thereof) purchases and holds for its own account an eligible horizontal residual interest in the issuing entity in the same form, amount, and manner as would be held by the sponsor under § 244.4 and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Number of third-party purchasers.</I> At any time, there are no more than two third-party purchasers of an eligible horizontal residual interest. If there are two third-party purchasers, each third-party purchaser's interest must be <I>pari passu</I> with the other third-party purchaser's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composition of collateral.</I> The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by commercial real estate loans and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Source of funds.</I> (i) Each third-party purchaser pays for the eligible horizontal residual interest in cash at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) No third-party purchaser obtains financing, directly or indirectly, for the purchase of such interest from any other person that is a party to, or an affiliate of a party to, the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer other than a special servicer affiliated with the third-party purchaser), other than a person that is a party to the transaction solely by reason of being an investor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Third-party review.</I> Each third-party purchaser conducts an independent review of the credit risk of each securitized asset prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction that includes, at a minimum, a review of the underwriting standards, collateral, and expected cash flows of each commercial real estate loan that is collateral for the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Affiliation and control rights.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, no third-party purchaser is affiliated with any party to the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer) other than investors in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a third-party purchaser may be affiliated with:
</P>
<P>(A) The special servicer for the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) One or more originators of the securitized assets, as long as the assets originated by the affiliated originator or originators collectively comprise less than 10 percent of the unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets included in the securitization transaction at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operating Advisor.</I> The underlying securitization transaction documents shall provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The appointment of an operating advisor (the Operating Advisor) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with other parties to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not directly or indirectly have any financial interest in the securitization transaction other than in fees from its role as Operating Advisor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is required to act in the best interest of, and for the benefit of, investors as a collective whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) Standards with respect to the Operating Advisor's experience, expertise and financial strength to fulfill its duties and responsibilities under the applicable transaction documents over the life of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation with respect to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the eligible horizontal residual interest has been reduced by principal payments, realized losses, and appraisal reduction amounts (which reduction amounts are determined in accordance with the applicable transaction documents) to a principal balance of 25 percent or less of its initial principal balance, the special servicer for the securitized assets must consult with the Operating Advisor in connection with, and prior to, any material decision in connection with its servicing of the securitized assets, including, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) Any material modification of, or waiver with respect to, any provision of a loan agreement (including a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement);
</P>
<P>(B) Foreclosure upon or comparable conversion of the ownership of a property; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any acquisition of a property.
</P>
<P>(v) The Operating Advisor shall have adequate and timely access to information and reports necessary to fulfill its duties under the transaction documents, including all reports made available to holders of ABS interests and third-party purchasers, and shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(A) Reviewing the actions of the special servicer;
</P>
<P>(B) Reviewing all reports provided by the special servicer to the issuing entity or any holder of ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(C) Reviewing for accuracy and consistency with the transaction documents calculations made by the special servicer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Issuing a report to investors (including any third-party purchasers) and the issuing entity on a periodic basis concerning:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that the special servicer is operating in compliance with any standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which, if any, standards the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, the special servicer has failed to comply.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) The Operating Advisor shall have the authority to recommend that the special servicer be replaced by a successor special servicer if the Operating Advisor determines, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The special servicer has failed to comply with a standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such replacement would be in the best interest of the investors as a collective whole; and
</P>
<P>(B) If a recommendation described in paragraph (b)(6)(vi)(A) of this section is made, the special servicer shall be replaced upon the affirmative vote of a majority of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests voting on the matter, with a minimum of a quorum of ABS interests voting on the matter. For purposes of such vote, the applicable transaction documents shall specify the quorum and may not specify a quorum of more than the holders of 20 percent of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests in the issuing entity, with such quorum including at least three ABS interest holders that are not affiliated with each other.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of each initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each initial third-party purchaser's experience in investing in commercial mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information regarding each initial third-party purchaser or each initial third-party purchaser's retention of the eligible horizontal residual interest that is material to investors in light of the circumstances of the particular securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that will be retained (or was retained) by each initial third-party purchaser, as well as the amount of the purchase price paid by each initial third-party purchaser for such interest;
</P>
<P>(v) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction that the sponsor would have retained pursuant to § 244.4 if the sponsor had relied on retaining an eligible horizontal residual interest in that section to meet the requirements of § 244.3 with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by each initial third-party purchaser, including the same information as is required to be disclosed by sponsors retaining horizontal interests pursuant to § 244.4;
</P>
<P>(vii) The material terms of the applicable transaction documents with respect to the Operating Advisor, including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and form of organization of the Operating Advisor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of any material conflict of interest or material potential conflict of interest between the Operating Advisor and any other party to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) The standards required by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section and a description of how the Operating Advisor satisfies each of the standards; and
</P>
<P>(D) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The representations and warranties concerning the securitized assets, a schedule of any securitized assets that are determined not to comply with such representations and warranties, and what factors were used to make the determination that such securitized assets should be included in the pool notwithstanding that the securitized assets did not comply with such representations and warranties, such as compensating factors or a determination that the exceptions were not material.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging, transfer and pledging</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, each third-party purchaser and its affiliates must comply with the hedging and other restrictions in § 244.12 as if it were the retaining sponsor with respect to the securitization transaction and had acquired the eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to § 244.4; provided that, the hedging and other restrictions in § 244.12 shall not apply on or after the date that each CRE loan (as defined in § 244.14) that serves as collateral for outstanding ABS interests has been defeased. For purposes of this section, a loan is deemed to be defeased if:
</P>
<P>(A) cash or cash equivalents of the types permitted for an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 244.4 whose maturity corresponds to the remaining debt service obligations, have been pledged to the issuing entity as collateral for the loan and are in such amounts and payable at such times as necessary to timely generate cash sufficient to make all remaining debt service payments due on such loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) the issuing entity has an obligation to release its lien on the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions</I>—(A) <I>Transfer by initial third-party purchaser or sponsor.</I> An initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, or a sponsor that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, may, on or after the date that is five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction, transfer that interest to a subsequent third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The initial third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the subsequent third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Transfer by subsequent third-party purchaser.</I> At any time, a subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this section may transfer its interest to a different third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The transferring third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the acquiring third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Requirements applicable to subsequent third-party purchasers.</I> A subsequent third-party purchaser is subject to all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section applicable to third-party purchasers, provided that obligations under paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section that apply to initial third-party purchasers at or before the time of closing of the securitization transaction shall apply to successor third-party purchasers at or before the time of the transfer of the eligible horizontal residual interest to the successor third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section by itself and for compliance by each initial or subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures to monitor each third-party purchaser's compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the sponsor determines that a third-party purchaser no longer complies with one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), or (b)(8) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such third-party purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.8   Federal National Mortgage Association and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation ABS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies its risk retention requirement under this part if the sponsor fully guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on all ABS interests issued by the issuing entity in the securitization transaction and is:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617) with capital support from the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any limited-life regulated entity succeeding to the charter of either the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 1367(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617(i)), provided that the entity is operating with capital support from the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain provisions not applicable.</I> The provisions of § 244.12(b), (c), and (d) shall not apply to a sponsor described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, its affiliates, or the issuing entity with respect to a securitization transaction for which the sponsor has retained credit risk in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide to investors, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” and, upon request, to the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Commission, a description of the manner in which it has met the credit risk retention requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.9   Open market CLOs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>CLO</I> means a special purpose entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Issues debt and equity interests, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose assets consist primarily of loans that are securitized assets and servicing assets.
</P>
<P><I>CLO-eligible loan tranche</I> means a term loan of a syndicated facility that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>CLO manager</I> means an entity that manages a CLO, which entity is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>), or is an affiliate of such a registered investment adviser and itself is managed by such registered investment adviser.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial borrower</I> means an obligor under a corporate credit obligation (including a loan).
</P>
<P><I>Initial loan syndication transaction</I> means a transaction in which a loan is syndicated to a group of lenders.
</P>
<P><I>Lead arranger</I> means, with respect to a CLO-eligible loan tranche, an institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is active in the origination, structuring and syndication of commercial loan transactions (as defined in § 244.14) and has played a primary role in the structuring, underwriting and distribution on the primary market of the CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has taken an allocation of the funded portion of the syndicated credit facility under the terms of the transaction that includes the CLO-eligible loan tranche of at least 20 percent of the aggregate principal balance at origination, and no other member (or members affiliated with each other) of the syndication group that funded at origination has taken a greater allocation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is identified in the applicable agreement governing the CLO-eligible loan tranche; represents therein to the holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche and to any holders of participation interests in such CLO-eligible loan tranche that such lead arranger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i) of this definition and, at the time of initial funding of the CLO-eligible tranche, will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (ii) of this definition; further represents therein (solely for the purpose of assisting such holders to determine the eligibility of such CLO-eligible loan tranche to be held by an open market CLO) that in the reasonable judgment of such lead arranger, the terms of such CLO-eligible loan tranche are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section; and covenants therein to such holders that such lead arranger will fulfill the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Open market CLO</I> means a CLO:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose assets consist of senior, secured syndicated loans acquired by such CLO directly from the sellers thereof in open market transactions and of servicing assets,
</P>
<P>(ii) That is managed by a CLO manager, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That holds less than 50 percent of its assets, by aggregate outstanding principal amount, in loans syndicated by lead arrangers that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager or originated by originators that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager.
</P>
<P><I>Open market transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Either an initial loan syndication transaction or a secondary market transaction in which a seller offers senior, secured syndicated loans to prospective purchasers in the loan market on market terms on an arm's length basis, which prospective purchasers include, but are not limited to, entities that are not affiliated with the seller, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A reverse inquiry from a prospective purchaser of a senior, secured syndicated loan through a dealer in the loan market to purchase a senior, secured syndicated loan to be sourced by the dealer in the loan market.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market transaction</I> means a purchase of a senior, secured syndicated loan not in connection with an initial loan syndication transaction but in the secondary market.
</P>
<P><I>Senior, secured syndicated loan</I> means a loan made to a commercial borrower that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not subordinate in right of payment to any other obligation for borrowed money of the commercial borrower,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is secured by a valid first priority security interest or lien in or on specified collateral securing the commercial borrower's obligations under the loan, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The value of the collateral subject to such first priority security interest or lien, together with other attributes of the obligor (including, without limitation, its general financial condition, ability to generate cash flow available for debt service and other demands for that cash flow), is adequate (in the commercially reasonable judgment of the CLO manager exercised at the time of investment) to repay the loan and to repay all other indebtedness of equal seniority secured by such first priority security interest or lien in or on the same collateral, and the CLO manager certifies, on or prior to each date that it acquires a loan constituting part of a new CLO-eligible tranche, that it has policies and procedures to evaluate the likelihood of repayment of loans acquired by the CLO and it has followed such policies and procedures in evaluating each CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 244.3 with respect to an open market CLO transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) The open market CLO does not acquire or hold any assets other than CLO-eligible loan tranches that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) The governing documents of such open market CLO require that, at all times, the assets of the open market CLO consist of senior, secured syndicated loans that are CLO-eligible loan tranches and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The open market CLO does not invest in ABS interests or in credit derivatives other than hedging transactions that are servicing assets to hedge risks of the open market CLO;
</P>
<P>(4) All purchases of CLO-eligible loan tranches and other assets by the open market CLO issuing entity or through a warehouse facility used to accumulate the loans prior to the issuance of the CLO's ABS interests are made in open market transactions on an arms-length basis;
</P>
<P>(5) The CLO manager of the open market CLO is not entitled to receive any management fee or gain on sale at the time the open market CLO issues its ABS interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CLO-eligible loan tranche.</I> To qualify as a CLO-eligible loan tranche, a term loan of a syndicated credit facility to a commercial borrower must have the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum of 5 percent of the face amount of the CLO-eligible loan tranche is retained by the lead arranger thereof until the earliest of the repayment, maturity, involuntary and unscheduled acceleration, payment default, or bankruptcy default of such CLO-eligible loan tranche, provided that such lead arranger complies with limitations on hedging, transferring and pledging in § 244.12 with respect to the interest retained by the lead arranger.
</P>
<P>(2) Lender voting rights within the credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranche are defined so as to give holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche consent rights with respect to, at minimum, any material waivers and amendments of such applicable documents, including but not limited to, adverse changes to the calculation or payments of amounts due to the holders of the CLO-eligible tranche, alterations to <I>pro rata</I> provisions, changes to voting provisions, and waivers of conditions precedent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The pro rata provisions, voting provisions, and similar provisions applicable to the security associated with such CLO-eligible loan tranches under the CLO credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranches are not materially less advantageous to the holder(s) of such CLO-eligible tranche than the terms of other tranches of comparable seniority in the broader syndicated credit facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction and at least annually with respect to the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Open market CLOs.</I> A complete list of every asset held by an open market CLO (or before the CLO's closing, in a warehouse facility in anticipation of transfer into the CLO at closing), including the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The full legal name, Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) category code, and legal entity identifier (LEI) issued by a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee or the Global LEI Foundation (if an LEI has been obtained by the obligor) of the obligor of the loan or asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name of the specific loan tranche held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iii) The face amount of the entire loan tranche held by the CLO, and the face amount of the portion thereof held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iv) The price at which the loan tranche was acquired by the CLO; and
</P>
<P>(v) For each loan tranche, the full legal name of the lead arranger subject to the sales and hedging restrictions of § 244.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CLO manager.</I> The full legal name and form of organization of the CLO manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.10   Qualified tender option bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Municipal security</I> or <I>municipal securities</I> shall have the same meaning as the term “municipal securities” in Section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)) and any rules promulgated pursuant to such section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tender option bond entity</I> means an issuing entity with respect to tender option bonds for which each of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Such entity is collateralized solely by servicing assets and by municipal securities that have the same municipal issuer and the same underlying obligor or source of payment (determined without regard to any third-party credit enhancement), and such municipal securities are not subject to substitution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such entity issues no securities other than:
</P>
<P>(A) A single class of tender option bonds with a preferred variable return payable out of capital that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) One or more residual equity interests that, in the aggregate, are entitled to all remaining income of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(C) The types of securities referred to in paragraphs (ii)(A) and (B) of this definition must constitute asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The municipal securities held as assets by such entity are issued in compliance with Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “IRS Code”, 26 U.S.C. 103), such that the interest payments made on those securities are excludable from the gross income of the owners under Section 103 of the IRS Code.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms of all of the securities issued by the entity are structured so that all holders of such securities who are eligible to exclude interest received on such securities will be able to exclude that interest from gross income pursuant to Section 103 of the IRS Code or as “exempt-interest dividends” pursuant to Section 852(b)(5) of the IRS Code (26 U.S.C. 852(b)(5)) in the case of regulated investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) Such entity has a legally binding commitment from a regulated liquidity provider as defined in § 244.6(a), to provide a 100 percent guarantee or liquidity coverage with respect to all of the issuing entity's outstanding tender option bonds.
</P>
<P>(vi) Such entity qualifies for monthly closing elections pursuant to IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Tender option bond</I> means a security which has features which entitle the holders to tender such bonds to the issuing entity for purchase at any time upon no more than 397 days' notice, for a purchase price equal to the approximate amortized cost of the security, plus accrued interest, if any, at the time of tender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention options.</I> Notwithstanding anything in this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds may retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 244.4. In order to satisfy its risk retention requirements under this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 244.4; or
</P>
<P>(2) An interest that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal security that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any combination of interests and securities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section such that the sum of the percentages held in each form equals at least five.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tender option termination event.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain an interest that upon issuance meets the requirements of an eligible horizontal residual interest but that upon the occurrence of a “tender option termination event” as defined in Section 4.01(5) of IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time will meet the requirements of an eligible vertical interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of a municipal security outside of the qualified tender option bond entity.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may satisfy its risk retention requirements under this Section by holding municipal securities from the same issuance of municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity, the face value of which retained municipal securities is equal to 5 percent of the face value of the municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the form and subordination features of such retained interest in accordance with the disclosure obligations in § 244.4(c);
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible horizontal residual interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 244.10(c)), the fair value of that interest (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and as a dollar amount);
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible vertical interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 244.10(c)), the percentage of ABS interests issued represented by the eligible vertical interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent any portion of the retained interest claimed by the sponsor is a municipal security held outside of the qualified tender option bond entity, the name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity, the identity of the issuer of the municipal securities, the face value of the municipal securities deposited into the qualified tender option bond entity, and the face value of the municipal securities retained by the sponsor or its majority-owned affiliates and subject to the transfer and hedging prohibition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on Hedging and Transfer.</I> The prohibitions on transfer and hedging set forth in § 244.12, apply to any interests or municipal securities retained by the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity pursuant to of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Transfer of Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.11   Allocation of risk retention to an originator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor choosing to retain an eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest (including an eligible horizontal cash reserve account), or combination thereof under § 244.4, with respect to a securitization transaction may offset the amount of its risk retention requirements under § 244.4 by the amount of the eligible interests, respectively, acquired by an originator of one or more of the securitized assets if:
</P>
<P>(1) At the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator acquires the eligible interest from the sponsor and retains such interest in the same manner and proportion (as between horizontal and vertical interests) as the sponsor under § 244.4, as such interest was held prior to the acquisition by the originator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the percentage of eligible interests acquired and retained by the originator to the percentage of eligible interests otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 244.4, does not exceed the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets originated by the originator; to
</P>
<P>(B) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets in the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator acquires and retains at least 20 percent of the aggregate risk retention amount otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 244.4; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The originator purchases the eligible interests from the sponsor at a price that is equal, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the amount by which the sponsor's required risk retention is reduced in accordance with this section, by payment to the sponsor in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash; or
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction in the price received by the originator from the sponsor or depositor for the assets sold by the originator to the sponsor or depositor for inclusion in the pool of securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to the disclosures required pursuant to § 244.4(c), the sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, the name and form of organization of any originator that will acquire and retain (or has acquired and retained) an interest in the transaction pursuant to this section, including a description of the form and amount (expressed as a percentage and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) and nature (<I>e.g.,</I> senior or subordinated) of the interest, as well as the method of payment for such interest under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hedging, transferring and pledging.</I> The originator and each of its affiliates complies with the hedging and other restrictions in § 244.12 with respect to the interests retained by the originator pursuant to this section as if it were the retaining sponsor and was required to retain the interest under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A retaining sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor the compliance by each originator that is allocated a portion of the sponsor's risk retention obligations with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the sponsor determines that any such originator no longer complies with any of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such originator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.12   Hedging, transfer and financing prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer.</I> Except as permitted by § 244.7(b)(8), and subject to § 244.5, a retaining sponsor may not sell or otherwise transfer any interest or assets that the sponsor is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part to any person other than an entity that is and remains a majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor and each such majority-owned affiliate shall be subject to the same restrictions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited hedging by sponsor and affiliates.</I> A retaining sponsor and its affiliates may not purchase or sell a security, or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or other position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited hedging by issuing entity.</I> The issuing entity in a securitization transaction may not purchase or sell a security or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor for the transaction (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to the securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted hedging activities.</I> The following activities shall not be considered prohibited hedging activities under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Hedging the interest rate risk (which does not include the specific interest rate risk, known as spread risk, associated with the ABS interest that is otherwise considered part of the credit risk) or foreign exchange risk arising from one or more of the particular ABS interests required to be retained by the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) under subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that underlie the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Purchasing or selling a security or other financial instrument or entering into an agreement, derivative, or other position with any third party where payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are based, directly or indirectly, on an index of instruments that includes asset-backed securities if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any class of ABS interests in the issuing entity that were issued in connection with the securitization transaction and that are included in the index represents no more than 10 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All classes of ABS interests in all issuing entities that were issued in connection with any securitization transaction in which the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain an interest pursuant to subpart B of this part and that are included in the index represent, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited non-recourse financing.</I> Neither a retaining sponsor nor any of its affiliates may pledge as collateral for any obligation (including a loan, repurchase agreement, or other financing transaction) any ABS interest that the sponsor is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part unless such obligation is with full recourse to the sponsor or affiliate, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duration of the hedging and transfer restrictions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance (if applicable) of the securitized assets that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the total unpaid principal obligations under the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal obligations of the ABS interests at closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Two years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Securitizations of residential mortgages.</I> (i) If all of the assets that collateralize a securitization transaction subject to risk retention under this part are residential mortgages, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance of the residential mortgages that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 25 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of such residential mortgages at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire with respect to the sponsor of a securitization transaction described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section on or after the date that is seven years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conservatorship or receivership of sponsor.</I> A conservator or receiver of the sponsor (or any other person holding risk retention pursuant to this part) of a securitization transaction is permitted to sell or hedge any economic interest in the securitization transaction if the conservator or receiver has been appointed pursuant to any provision of federal or State law (or regulation promulgated thereunder) that provides for the appointment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or an agency or instrumentality of the United States or of a State as conservator or receiver, including without limitation any of the following authorities:
</P>
<P>(i) 12 U.S.C. 1811;
</P>
<P>(ii) 12 U.S.C. 1787;
</P>
<P>(iii) 12 U.S.C. 4617; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 12 U.S.C. 5382.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Revolving pool securitizations.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) are not available to sponsors of revolving pool securitizations with respect to the forms of risk retention specified in § 244.5.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exceptions and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.13   Exemption for qualified residential mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Currently performing</I> means the borrower in the mortgage transaction is not currently thirty (30) days or more past due, in whole or in part, on the mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified residential mortgage</I> means a “qualified mortgage” as defined in section 129C of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C.1639c) and regulations issued thereunder, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction, if:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) None of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(3) As of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, each qualified residential mortgage collateralizing the asset-backed securities is currently performing; and
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The depositor with respect to the securitization transaction certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed security are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls must be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security in reliance on this section, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repurchase of loans subsequently determined to be non-qualified after closing.</I> A sponsor that has relied on the exemption provided in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a securitization transaction shall not lose such exemption with respect to such transaction if, after closing of the securitization transaction, it is determined that one or more of the residential mortgage loans collateralizing the asset-backed securities does not meet all of the criteria to be a qualified residential mortgage <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining aggregate unpaid principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) no later than 90 days after the determination that the loans do not satisfy the requirements to be a qualified residential mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor promptly notifies, or causes to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is (or are) required to be repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, including the amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.14   Definitions applicable to qualifying commercial loans, qualifying commercial real estate loans, and qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of §§ 244.15 through 244.18:
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Standards Board</I> means the board of the Appraisal Foundation that develops, interprets, and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), establishing generally accepted standards for the appraisal profession.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile loan:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means any loan to an individual to finance the purchase of, and that is secured by a first lien on, a passenger car or other passenger vehicle, such as a minivan, van, sport-utility vehicle, pickup truck, or similar light truck for personal, family, or household use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan to finance fleet sales;
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal cash loan secured by a previously purchased automobile;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan to finance the purchase of a commercial vehicle or farm equipment that is not used for personal, family, or household purposes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lease financing;
</P>
<P>(v) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle with a salvage title; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle intended to be used for scrap or parts.
</P>
<P><I>Combined loan-to-value (CLTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the sum of the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property, plus the principal balance of any junior-lien mortgage loan that, to the creditor's knowledge, would exist at the closing of the transaction and that is secured by the same property, divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 244.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 244.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial loan</I> means a secured or unsecured loan to a company or an individual for business purposes, other than any:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan to purchase or refinance a one-to-four family residential property;
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial real estate loan.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate (CRE) loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan secured by a property with five or more single family units, or by nonfarm nonresidential real property, the primary source (50 percent or more) of repayment for which is expected to be:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the sale, refinancing, or permanent financing of the property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Rental income associated with the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans secured by improved land if the obligor owns the fee interest in the land and the land is leased to a third party who owns all improvements on the land, and the improvements are nonresidential or residential with five or more single family units; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A land development and construction loan (including 1- to 4-family residential or commercial construction loans);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other land loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unsecured loan to a developer.
</P>
<P><I>Debt service coverage (DSC) ratio</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying leased CRE loans, qualifying multi-family loans, and other CRE loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual NOI less the annual replacement reserve of the CRE property at the time of origination of the CRE loan(s) divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest (calculated at the fully-indexed rate) on any debt obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) For commercial loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower's EBITDA as of the most recently completed fiscal year divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest on all debt obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Debt to income (DTI) ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan, divided by the borrower's monthly income.
</P>
<P><I>Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA)</I> means the annual income of a business before expenses for interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization are deducted, as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental risk assessment</I> means a process for determining whether a property is contaminated or exposed to any condition or substance that could result in contamination that has an adverse effect on the market value of the property or the realization of the collateral value.
</P>
<P><I>First lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that has priority over all other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Junior lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that is lower in priority relative to other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Leverage ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt divided by the borrower's EBITDA.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 244.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 244.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Model year</I> means the year determined by the manufacturer and reflected on the vehicle's Motor Vehicle Title as part of the vehicle description.
</P>
<P><I>Net operating income (NOI)</I> refers to the income a CRE property generates for the owner after all expenses have been deducted for federal income tax purposes, except for depreciation, debt service expenses, and federal and state income taxes, and excluding any unusual and nonrecurring items of income.
</P>
<P><I>Operating affiliate</I> means an affiliate of a borrower that is a lessor or similar party with respect to the commercial real estate securing the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Payments-in-kind</I> means payments of accrued interest that are not paid in cash when due, and instead are paid by increasing the principal balance of the loan or by providing equity in the borrowing company.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money security interest</I> means a security interest in property that secures the obligation of the obligor incurred as all or part of the price of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase price</I> means the amount paid by the borrower for the vehicle net of any incentive payments or manufacturer cash rebates.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tenant</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A tenant with a lease who has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner; or
</P>
<P>(2) A tenant who originally had a lease that subsequently expired and currently is leasing the property on a month-to-month basis, has occupied the property for at least three years prior to the date of origination, and has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying leased CRE loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by commercial nonfarm real property, other than a multi-family property or a hotel, inn, or similar property:
</P>
<P>(1) That is occupied by one or more qualified tenants pursuant to a lease agreement with a term of no less than one (1) month; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where no more than 20 percent of the aggregate gross revenue of the property is payable from one or more tenants who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are subject to a lease that will terminate within six months following the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not qualified tenants.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying multi-family loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by any residential property (excluding a hotel, motel, inn, hospital, nursing home, or other similar facility where dwellings are not leased to residents):
</P>
<P>(1) That consists of five or more dwelling units (including apartment buildings, condominiums, cooperatives and other similar structures) primarily for residential use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where at least 75 percent of the NOI is derived from residential rents and tenant amenities (including income from parking garages, health or swim clubs, and dry cleaning), and not from other commercial uses.
</P>
<P><I>Rental income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Income derived from a lease or other occupancy agreement between the borrower or an operating affiliate of the borrower and a party which is not an affiliate of the borrower for the use of real property or improvements serving as collateral for the applicable loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other income derived from hotel, motel, dormitory, nursing home, assisted living, mini-storage warehouse or similar properties that are used primarily by parties that are not affiliates or employees of the borrower or its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement reserve</I> means the monthly capital replacement or maintenance amount based on the property type, age, construction and condition of the property that is adequate to maintain the physical condition and NOI of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Salvage title</I> means a form of vehicle title branding, which notes that the vehicle has been severely damaged and/or deemed a total loss and uneconomical to repair by an insurance company that paid a claim on the vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Total debt,</I> with respect to a borrower, means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an automobile loan, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) All monthly housing payments (rent- or mortgage-related, including property taxes, insurance and home owners association fees); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the following that is dependent upon the borrower's income for payment:
</P>
<P>(A) Monthly payments on other debt and lease obligations, such as credit card loans or installment loans, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan;
</P>
<P>(B) Estimated monthly amortizing payments for any term debt, debts with other than monthly payments and debts not in repayment (such as deferred student loans, interest-only loans); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any required monthly alimony, child support or court-ordered payments; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a commercial loan, the outstanding balance of all long-term debt (obligations that have a remaining maturity of more than one year) and the current portion of all debt that matures in one year or less.
</P>
<P><I>Total liabilities ratio</I> means the borrower's total liabilities divided by the sum of the borrower's total liabilities and equity, less the borrower's intangible assets, with each component determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Trade-in allowance</I> means the amount a vehicle purchaser is given as a credit at the purchase of a vehicle for the fair exchange of the borrower's existing vehicle to compensate the dealer for some portion of the vehicle purchase price, not to exceed the highest trade-in value of the existing vehicle, as determined by a nationally recognized automobile pricing agency and based on the manufacturer, year, model, features, mileage, and condition of the vehicle, less the payoff balance of any outstanding debt collateralized by the existing vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)</I> means generally accepted standards for professional appraisal practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.15   Qualifying commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exception for qualifying assets.</I> Commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans that are securitized through a securitization transaction shall be subject to a 0 percent risk retention requirement under subpart B, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets meet the underwriting standards set forth in § 244.16 (qualifying commercial loans), § 244.17 (qualifying CRE loans), or § 244.18 (qualifying automobile loans) of this part, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by loans of the same asset class and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization transaction does not permit reinvestment periods; and
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities of the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission, and to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a description of the manner in which the sponsor determined the aggregate risk retention requirement for the securitization transaction after including qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans with 0 percent risk retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention requirement.</I> For any securitization transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section, the percentage of risk retention required under § 244.3(a) is reduced by the percentage evidenced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans (as applicable) to the total unpaid principal balance of commercial loans, CRE loans, or automobile loans (as applicable) that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the qualifying asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The qualifying asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the qualifying asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the qualifying asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section also includes descriptions of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, and qualifying automobile loans (qualifying assets) and descriptions of the assets that are not qualifying assets, and the material differences between the group of qualifying assets and the group of assets that are not qualifying assets with respect to the composition of each group's loan balances, loan terms, interest rates, borrower credit information, and characteristics of any loan collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for securitizations of qualifying assets only.</I> Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, the risk retention requirements of subpart B of this part shall not apply to securitization transactions where the transaction is collateralized solely by servicing assets and either qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the certifications required in §§ 244.16(a)(8), 244.17(a)(10), and 244.18(a)(8), as applicable, in its records until three years after all ABS interests issued in the securitization are no longer outstanding. The sponsor must provide the disclosures and certifications upon request to the Commission and the sponsor's appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.16   Underwriting standards for qualifying commercial loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the commercial loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the financial condition of the borrower:
</P>
<P>(A) As of the end of the borrower's two most recently completed fiscal years; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the period, if any, since the end of its most recently completed fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined that, based on the previous two years' actual performance, the borrower had:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater;
</P>
<P>(iv) Determined that, based on the two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the closing date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to, upon or promptly following the inception of the loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) If the loan is originated on a secured basis, obtains a perfected security interest (by filing, title notation or otherwise) or, in the case of real property, a recorded lien, on all of the property pledged to collateralize the loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the loan documents indicate the purpose of the loan is to finance the purchase of tangible or intangible property, or to refinance such a loan, obtains a first lien on the property.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the commercial loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide to the servicer of the commercial loan the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit the borrower from retaining or entering into a debt arrangement that permits payments-in-kind;
</P>
<P>(iii) Impose limits on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest or lien with respect to any of the borrower's property that serves as collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any of the borrower's assets that serve as collateral for the loan; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of the borrower, or any other party that pledges collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower and any other party that pledges collateral for the loan to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on the collateral for the commercial loan at least up to the amount of the loan, and that names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on any collateral;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to perfect or protect the security interest and first lien (as applicable) of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any collateral for the commercial loan or the priority thereof, and to defend any collateral against claims adverse to the lender's interest;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer of the loan, to inspect any collateral for the commercial loan and the books and records of the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of any collateral for the commercial loan.
</P>
<P>(4) Loan payments required under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) that fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed five years from the date of origination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than quarterly over a term that does not exceed five years.
</P>
<P>(5) The primary source of repayment for the loan is revenue from the business operations of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) The loan was funded within the six (6) months prior to the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying commercial loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 244.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 244.15 with respect to a qualifying commercial loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the commercial loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.17" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.17   Underwriting standards for qualifying CRE loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) The CRE loan must be secured by the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An enforceable first lien, documented and recorded appropriately pursuant to applicable law, on the commercial real estate and improvements;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) An assignment of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Leases and rents and other occupancy agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor or similar party and all payments under such leases and occupancy agreements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All franchise, license and concession agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor, licensor, concession granter or similar party and all payments under such other agreements, whether the assignments described in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) are absolute or are stated to be made to the extent permitted by the agreements governing the applicable franchise, license or concession agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) An assignment of all other payments due to the borrower or due to any operating affiliate in connection with the operation of the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The right to enforce the agreements described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the agreements under which payments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are due against, and collect amounts due from, each lessee, occupant or other obligor whose payments were assigned pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section upon a breach by the borrower of any of the terms of, or the occurrence of any other event of default (however denominated) under, the loan documents relating to such CRE loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A security interest:
</P>
<P>(A) In all interests of the borrower and any applicable operating affiliate in all tangible and intangible personal property of any kind, in or used in the operation of or in connection with, pertaining to, arising from, or constituting, any of the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the form of a perfected security interest if the security interest in such property can be perfected by the filing of a financing statement, fixture filing, or similar document pursuant to the law governing the perfection of such security interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to origination of the CRE loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the current financial condition of the borrower and each operating affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtained a written appraisal of the real property securing the loan that:
</P>
<P>(A) Had an effective date not more than six months prior to the origination date of the loan by a competent and appropriately State-certified or State-licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(B) Conforms to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the USPAP and the appraisal requirements 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Federal banking agencies; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 CFR part 34, subpart C (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E, and 12 CFR part 225, subpart G (Board); and 12 CFR part 323 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Provides an “as is” opinion of the market value of the real property, which includes an income approach; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See USPAP, Standard 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Qualified the borrower for the CRE loan based on a monthly payment amount derived from level monthly payments consisting of both principal and interest (at the fully-indexed rate) over the term of the loan, not exceeding 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multi-family property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducted an environmental risk assessment to gain environmental information about the property securing the loan and took appropriate steps to mitigate any environmental liability determined to exist based on this assessment;
</P>
<P>(v) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections (including operating income projections for the property);
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Determined that based on the two years' actual performance immediately preceding the origination of the loan, the borrower would have had:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(B) If the borrower did not own the property for any part of the last two years prior to origination, the calculation of the DSC ratio, for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, shall include the property's operating income for any portion of the two-year period during which the borrower did not own the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Determined that, based on two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the origination date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the CRE loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules to the servicer on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly, including information on existing, maturing and new leasing or rent-roll activity for the property securing the loan, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose prohibitions on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest with respect to the collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section or of any other collateral consisting of fixtures, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment other than any such fixture, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment that is obsolete or surplus; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of any borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor unless such borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor shall have given the holder of the loan at least 30 days advance notice and, pursuant to applicable law governing perfection and priority, the holder of the loan is able to take all steps necessary to continue its perfection and priority during such 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Require each borrower and each operating affiliate to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for an amount no less than the replacement cost of the property improvements, and names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or lender loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Protect the security interest and the enforceability and priority thereof in the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and defend such collateral against claims adverse to the originator's or any subsequent holder's interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perfect the security interest of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any other collateral for the CRE loan to the extent that such security interest is required by this section to be perfected;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer, to inspect any collateral for the CRE loan and the books and records of the borrower or other party relating to any collateral for the CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Comply with all environmental, zoning, building code, licensing and other laws, regulations, agreements, covenants, use restrictions, and proffers applicable to collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Comply with leases, franchise agreements, condominium declarations, and other documents and agreements relating to the operation of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and to not modify any material terms and conditions of such agreements over the term of the loan without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer; and
</P>
<P>(H) Not materially alter collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer.
</P>
<P>(4) The loan documentation for the CRE loan prohibits the borrower and each operating affiliate from obtaining a loan secured by a junior lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the principal amount of such junior lien loan, plus the principal amount of all other loans secured by collateral described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, does not exceed the applicable CLTV ratio in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, based on the appraisal at origination of such junior lien loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such loan is a purchase money obligation that financed the acquisition of machinery or equipment and the borrower or operating affiliate (as applicable) pledges such machinery and equipment as additional collateral for the CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(5) At origination, the applicable loan-to-value ratios for the loan are:
</P>
<P>(i) LTV less than or equal to 65 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 70 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) LTV less than or equal to 60 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 65 percent, if an appraisal used to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section used a direct capitalization rate, and that rate is less than or equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The 10-year swap rate, as reported in the Federal Reserve's H.15 Report (or any successor report) as of the date concurrent with the effective date of such appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(B) 300 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the appraisal required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section included a direct capitalization method using an overall capitalization rate, that rate must be disclosed to potential investors in the securitization.
</P>
<P>(6) All loan payments required to be made under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) to fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multifamily loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than monthly over a term of at least ten years.
</P>
<P>(7) Under the terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Any maturity of the note occurs no earlier than ten years following the date of origination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is not permitted to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The interest rate on the loan is:
</P>
<P>(A) A fixed interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that effectively results in a fixed interest rate; or
</P>
<P>(C) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that established a cap on the interest rate for the term of the loan, and the loan meets the underwriting criteria in paragraphs (a)(2)(vi) and (vii) of this section using the maximum interest rate allowable under the interest rate cap.
</P>
<P>(8) The originator does not establish an interest reserve at origination to fund all or part of a payment on the loan.
</P>
<P>(9) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying CRE loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 244.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any; and
</P>
<P>(11) Within two weeks of the closing of the CRE loan by its originator or, if sooner, prior to the transfer of such CRE loan to the issuing entity, the originator shall have obtained a UCC lien search from the jurisdiction of organization of the borrower and each operating affiliate, that does not report, as of the time that the security interest of the originator in the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section was perfected, other higher priority liens of record on any property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, other than purchase money security interests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 244.15 with respect to a qualifying CRE loan and it is subsequently determined that the CRE loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the CRE loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section is not material; or;
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) or (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, restoring conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.18" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.18   Underwriting standards for qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the automobile loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented that within 30 days of the date of origination:
</P>
<P>(A) The borrower was not currently 30 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(B) Within the previous 24 months, the borrower has not been 60 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(C) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Been a debtor in a proceeding commenced under Chapter 7 (Liquidation), Chapter 11 (Reorganization), Chapter 12 (Family Farmer or Family Fisherman plan), or Chapter 13 (Individual Debt Adjustment) of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Been the subject of any federal or State judicial judgment for the collection of any unpaid debt;
</P>
<P>(D) Within the previous 36 months, no one-to-four family property owned by the borrower has been the subject of any foreclosure, deed in lieu of foreclosure, or short sale; or
</P>
<P>(E) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not had any personal property repossessed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determined and documented that the borrower has at least 24 months of credit history; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined and documented that, upon the origination of the loan, the borrower's DTI ratio is less than or equal to 36 percent.
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of making the determination under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, the originator must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Verify and document all income of the borrower that the originator includes in the borrower's effective monthly income (using payroll stubs, tax returns, profit and loss statements, or other similar documentation); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On or after the date of the borrower's written application and prior to origination, obtain a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintain files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p)) and verify that all outstanding debts reported in the borrower's credit report are incorporated into the calculation of the borrower's DTI ratio under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) An originator will be deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator, no more than 30 days before the closing of the loan, obtains a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p));
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the information in such credit report, the borrower meets all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and no information in a credit report subsequently obtained by the originator before the closing of the loan contains contrary information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator obtains electronic or hard copies of the credit report.
</P>
<P>(3) At closing of the automobile loan, the borrower makes a down payment from the borrower's personal funds and trade-in allowance, if any, that is at least equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The full cost of the vehicle title, tax, and registration fees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dealer-imposed fees;
</P>
<P>(iii) The full cost of any additional warranties, insurance or other products purchased in connection with the purchase of the vehicle; and
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 percent of the vehicle purchase price.
</P>
<P>(4) The originator records a first lien securing the loan on the purchased vehicle in accordance with State law.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of the loan agreement provide a maturity date for the loan that does not exceed the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) Six years from the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 years minus the difference between the current model year and the vehicle's model year.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify a fixed rate of interest for the life of the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for a level monthly payment amount that fully amortizes the amount financed over the loan term;
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not permit the borrower to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower to make the first payment on the automobile loan within 45 days of the loan's contract date.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current; and
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying automobile loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 244.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 244.15 with respect to a qualifying automobile loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the automobile loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than ninety (90) days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.19" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.19   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Community-focused residential mortgage</I> means a residential mortgage exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (v) of the CFPB's Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)).
</P>
<P><I>First pay class</I> means a class of ABS interests for which all interests in the class are entitled to the same priority of payment and that, at the time of closing of the transaction, is entitled to repayments of principal and payments of interest prior to or pro-rata with all other classes of securities collateralized by the same pool of first-lien residential mortgages, until such class has no principal or notional balance remaining.
</P>
<P><I>Inverse floater</I> means an ABS interest issued as part of a securitization transaction for which interest or other income is payable to the holder based on a rate or formula that varies inversely to a reference rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan</I> means a mortgage loan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured by a dwelling (as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19)) that is owner occupied and contains three-to-four housing units;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is deemed to be for business purposes for purposes of Regulation Z under 12 CFR part 1026, supplement I, paragraph 3(a)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise meets all of the requirements to qualify as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) and (f) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(e) and (f)) as if the loan were a covered transaction under that section.
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S. Government-backed securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets that are insured or guaranteed (in whole or in part) as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States, and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves the issuance of asset-backed securities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Are insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Are collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets or interests in such assets, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain agricultural loan securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by loans or other assets made, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by any institution that is subject to the supervision of the Farm Credit Administration, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State and municipal securitizations.</I> Any asset-backed security that is a security issued or guaranteed by any State, or by any political subdivision of a State, or by any public instrumentality of a State that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of section 3(a)(2) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified scholarship funding bonds.</I> Any asset-backed security that meets the definition of a qualified scholarship funding bond, as set forth in section 150(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 150(d)(2)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pass-through resecuritizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by asset-backed securities:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is structured so that it involves the issuance of only a single class of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for the pass-through of all principal and interest payments received on the underlying asset-backed securities (net of expenses of the issuing entity) to the holders of such class.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First-pay-class securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by first-pay classes of asset-backed securities collateralized by first-lien residential mortgages on properties located in any state:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not provide for any ABS interest issued in the securitization transaction to share in realized principal losses other than pro rata with all other ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction based on the current unpaid principal balance of such ABS interests at the time the loss is realized;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is structured to reallocate prepayment risk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not reallocate credit risk (other than as a consequence of reallocation of prepayment risk); and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not include any inverse floater or similarly structured ABS interest.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Seasoned loans.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by seasoned loans that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The loans have not been modified since origination; and
</P>
<P>(B) None of the loans have been delinquent for 30 days or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a <I>seasoned loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of five years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 25 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, any residential mortgage loan that has been outstanding and performing for a period of at least seven years shall be deemed a seasoned loan.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to all other classes of asset-backed securities, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of at least two years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 33 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certain public utility securitizations.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction where the asset-back securities issued in the transaction are secured by the intangible property right to collect charges for the recovery of specified costs and such other assets, if any, of an issuing entity that is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by an investor owned utility company that is subject to the regulatory authority of a State public utility commission or other appropriate State agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specified cost</I> means any cost identified by a State legislature as appropriate for recovery through securitization pursuant to specified cost recovery legislation; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Specified cost recovery legislation</I> means legislation enacted by a State that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Authorizes the investor owned utility company to apply for, and authorizes the public utility commission or other appropriate State agency to issue, a financing order determining the amount of specified costs the utility will be allowed to recover;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides that pursuant to a financing order, the utility acquires an intangible property right to charge, collect, and receive amounts necessary to provide for the full recovery of the specified costs determined to be recoverable, and assures that the charges are non-bypassable and will be paid by customers within the utility's historic service territory who receive utility goods or services through the utility's transmission and distribution system, even if those customers elect to purchase these goods or services from a third party; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Guarantees that neither the State nor any of its agencies has the authority to rescind or amend the financing order, to revise the amount of specified costs, or in any way to reduce or impair the value of the intangible property right, except as may be contemplated by periodic adjustments authorized by the specified cost recovery legislation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for securitizations of assets issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized solely by obligations issued by the United States or an agency of the United States and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralized solely by assets that are fully insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States (other than those referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the United States or any agency of the United States;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation securitizations.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction that is sponsored by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting as conservator or receiver under any provision of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reduced requirement for certain student loan securitizations.</I> The 5 percent risk retention requirement set forth in § 244.4 shall be modified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by student loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan Program (“FFELP loans”) that are guaranteed as to 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 0 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans that are guaranteed as to at least 98 percent but less than 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community-focused lending securitizations.</I> (1) This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by community-focused residential mortgages and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) For any securitization transaction that includes both community-focused residential mortgages and residential mortgages that are not exempt from risk retention under this part, the percent of risk retention required under § 244.4(a) is reduced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the community-focused residential mortgages to the total unpaid principal balance of residential mortgages that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the pool assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions for securitizations of certain three-to-four unit mortgage loans.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages as defined in § 244.13, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor with respect to the securitization provides the certifications set forth in § 244.13(b)(4) with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages, or servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor of the securitization complies with the repurchase requirements in § 244.13(c) with respect to a loan if, after closing, it is determined that the loan does not meet all of the criteria to be either a qualified residential mortgage or a qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Securitization transactions involving the issuance of asset-backed securities that are either issued, insured, or guaranteed by, or are collateralized by obligations issued by, or loans that are issued, insured, or guaranteed by, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or a Federal home loan bank shall not on that basis qualify for exemption under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.20   Safe harbor for certain foreign-related transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>U.S. person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any natural person resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;
</P>
<P>(C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The estate is governed by foreign law;
</P>
<P>(C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;
</P>
<P>(F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:
</P>
<P>(i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evasions prohibited.</I> In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.21   Additional exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization transactions.</I> The federal agencies with rulewriting authority under section 15G(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)) with respect to the type of assets involved may jointly provide a total or partial exemption of any securitization transaction as such agencies determine may be appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions, exemptions, and adjustments.</I> The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, may jointly adopt or issue exemptions, exceptions or adjustments to the requirements of this part, including exemptions, exceptions or adjustments for classes of institutions or assets in accordance with section 15G(e) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 244.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.14.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 244.22   Periodic review of the QRM definition, exempted three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, and community-focused residential mortgage exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, shall commence a review of the definition of qualified residential mortgage in § 244.13, a review of the community-focused residential mortgage exemption in § 244.19(f), and a review of the exemption for qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans in § 244.19(g):
</P>
<P>(1) No later than four years after the effective date of the rule (as it relates to securitizers and originators of asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages), five years following the completion of such initial review, and every five years thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(2) At any time, upon the request of any Federal banking agency, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency or the Department of Housing and Urban Development, specifying the reason for such request, including as a result of any amendment to the definition of qualified mortgage or changes in the residential housing market.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal banking agencies, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the commencement of a review and, in the case of a review commenced under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the reason an agency is requesting such review. After completion of any review, but no later than six months after the publication of the notice announcing the review, unless extended by the agencies, the agencies shall jointly publish a notice disclosing the determination of their review. If the agencies determine to amend the definition of qualified residential mortgage, the agencies shall complete any required rulemaking within 12 months of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of such notice disclosing the determination of their review, unless extended by the agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="246" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 246—SUPERVISION AND REGULATION ASSESSMENTS OF FEES (REGULATION TT)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1526 (2010), Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296 (2018), and section 11(s) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(s)).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 52402, Aug. 23, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 246.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part (Regulation TT) is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under section 318 of Title III of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1423-32, 12 U.S.C. 5365 and 5366), section 401 of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (EGRRCPA) (Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296), and section 11(s) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(s)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bank holding company having total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Any savings and loan holding company having total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, as defined below; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, as defined § 246.2.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements provisions of section 318 of the Dodd-Frank Act and section 401 of EGRRCPA that direct the Board to collect assessments, fees, or other charges from companies identified in subsection (b) that are equal to the total expenses the Board estimates are necessary or appropriate to carry out the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities of the Board with respect to these assessed companies and to adjust the amount charged to assessed companies with total consolidated assets between $100 billion and $250 billion to reflect any changes in supervisory and regulatory responsibilities resulting from EGRRCPA.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> In exceptional circumstances, for the purpose of avoiding inequitable or inconsistent application of the rule, the Board may require an assessed company to pay a lesser amount of assessments than would otherwise be provided for under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of comparable financial information.</I> The Board may use, at its discretion, any comparable financial information that the Board may require from a company in considering whether the company must pay to the Board an assessment and the amount of such assessment, pursuant to section 318 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 52492, Aug. 23, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 78953, Dec. 8, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 246.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment period</I> means January 1 through December 31 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank holding company</I> is defined as in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841), and the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign bank holding company</I> means a foreign bank that is a bank holding company and any foreign company that owns such foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Foreign savings and loan holding company</I> means a foreign bank or foreign company that is a savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles, as used in the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company described in section 10(c)(9)(C) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)(9)(C)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a company that the Council has determined pursuant to section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is in effect.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice of assessment</I> means the notice in which the Board informs a company that it is an assessed company and states the assessed company's total assessable assets and the amount of its assessment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> is defined as in section 10 of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Savings association</I> is defined as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Category I, II, and III firms</I> are assessed companies subject to Category I, II, or III standards as defined and determined under 12 CFR parts 238 and 252 as of December 31 of the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Category IV firms</I> are assessed companies subject to Category IV standards as defined and determined under 12 CFR parts 238 and 252 as of December 31 of the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>“Other” firms</I> are assessed companies not subject to the Category I, II, III, or IV standards as defined and determined under 12 CFR parts 238 and 252 as of December 31 of the assessment period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 52492, Aug. 23, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 78953, Dec. 8, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 246.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.3   Assessed companies.</HEAD>
<P>An assessed company is any company that:
</P>
<P>(a) Is a top-tier company that, on December 31 of the assessment period:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a bank holding company, other than a foreign bank holding company, with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined based on the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets reported for the assessment period on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C (“FR Y-9C”),
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is a savings and loan holding company, other than a foreign savings and loan holding company, with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, based on the average of the savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on the FR Y-9C or on the Quarterly Savings and Loan Holding Company Report (FR 2320), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may request that the Board permit the company to file a quarterly estimate of its total consolidated assets. The Board may, in its discretion and subject to Board review and adjustment, permit the company to provide estimated total consolidated assets on a quarterly basis. For purposes of this part, the company's total consolidated assets will be the average of the estimated total consolidated assets provided for the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(b) Is a top-tier foreign bank holding company on December 31 of the assessment period, with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined based on the average of the foreign bank holding company's total consolidated assets reported for the assessment period on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q (“FR Y-7Q”), provided, however, that if any such company has filed only one FR Y-7Q during the assessment period, the Board shall use an average of the foreign bank holding company's total consolidated assets reported on that FR Y-7Q and on the FR Y-7Q for the corresponding period in the year prior to the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(c) Is a top-tier foreign savings and loan holding company on December 31 of the assessment period, with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined based on the average of the foreign savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets reported for the assessment period on the reporting forms applicable during the assessment period, provided, however, that if any such company has filed only one reporting form during the assessment period, the Board shall use an average of the foreign savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets reported on that reporting form and on the reporting form for the corresponding period in the year prior to the assessment period, or
</P>
<P>(d) Is a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 78953, Dec. 8, 2020]


</CITA>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 246.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.4   Assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment.</I> Each assessed company shall pay to the Board an assessment for any assessment period for which the Board determines the company to be an assessed company.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Assessment formula.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the assessment will be calculated according to the Assessment Formula, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Column D
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Base Amount ($50,000)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(Total Assessable Assets</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"> × </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assessment Rate)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assessment</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) In any assessment period, if, at the time a company becomes a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, it also becomes an assessed company, as defined in § 246.3, the Board shall pro-rate that company's assessment for that assessment period based on the number of quarters in which such company is an assessed company. For a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, for the assessment period that the company is designated for Board supervision, Board shall pro-rate that company's assessment for that assessment period based on the number of quarters the company has been a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment rate.</I> Assessment rate means, with regard to a given assessment period, the rate published by the Board on its Web site for the calculation of assessments for that period.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The assessment rate for Category IV and “other” firms will be calculated according to this formula:


</P>
<P> 


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Assessment rate = [(Net Assessment Basis</E> × <E T="03">Category IV and “other” firms' share of total assessable assets of all assessed companies)</E> × <E T="03">(1−S)]</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category IV and “other” firms' total assessable assets</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P> 


</P>
<P>(ii) The assessment rate for Category I, II, and III firms will be calculated according to this formula:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Assessment rate = [(Net Assessment Basis</E> × <E T="03">Category I, II, and III firms' share of total assessable assets of all assessed companies)</E> + <E T="03">(Net Assessment Basis</E> × <E T="03">Category IV and “other” firms' share of total assessable assets</E> × <E T="03">S)]</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">Category I, II, and III firms' total assessable assets</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) For the calculation set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the number of assessed companies and the total assessable assets of all assessed companies will each be that of the relevant assessment period, provided, however, that for the assessment periods corresponding to 2012, 2013 and 2014, the Board shall use the number of assessed companies and the total assessable assets of the 2012 assessment period to calculate the assessment rate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assessment basis.</I> (1) For the 2012, 2013, and 2014 assessment periods, the assessment basis is the amount of total expenses the Board estimates is necessary or appropriate to carry out the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities of the Board with respect to assessed companies for 2012.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The categories of operating expenses that the Board believes are necessary or appropriate include but are not limited to (1) direct operating expenses for supervising and regulating assessed companies such as conducting examinations, conducting stress tests, communicating with the company regarding supervisory matters and laws and regulations, <I>etc.;</I> and (2) operating expenses for activities integral to carrying out supervisory and regulatory responsibilities such as training staff in the supervisory function, research and analysis functions including library subscription services, collecting and processing regulatory reports filed by supervised institutions, <I>etc.</I> All operating expenses include applicable support, overhead, and pension expenses.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) For the 2015 assessment period and for each assessment period thereafter, the assessment basis is the average of the amount of total expenses the Board estimates is necessary or appropriate to carry out the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities of the Board with respect to assessed companies for that assessment period and the two prior assessment periods.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The categories of operating expenses that the Board believes are necessary or appropriate include but are not limited to (1) direct operating expenses for supervising and regulating assessed companies such as conducting examinations, conducting stress tests, communicating with the company regarding supervisory matters and laws and regulations, <I>etc.;</I> and (2) operating expenses for activities integral to carrying out supervisory and regulatory responsibilities such as training staff in the supervisory function, research and analysis functions including library subscription services, collecting and processing regulatory reports filed by supervised institutions, <I>etc.</I> All operating expenses include applicable support, overhead, and pension expenses.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) Net Assessment Basis is the assessment basis, as defined by paragraph (d)(2), net of the total $50,000 base amount charged to all assessed companies. <I>Net Assessment Basis</I> = assessment basis−(number of assessed companies × $50,000).
</P>
<P>(4) The variable <I>S</I> represents the estimated share of total costs attributable to changes in supervisory and regulatory responsibilities resulting from EGRRCPA for Category IV and “other” firms. <I>S</I> = 0.1 (10 percent).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Total assessable assets.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, total assessable assets are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank holding companies.</I> For any bank holding company, other than a foreign bank holding company, total assessable assets will be the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on the bank holding company's FR Y-9C or such other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the bank holding company,
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign bank holding companies and foreign savings and loan holding companies</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For any foreign bank holding company or any foreign savings and loan holding company, with the exception of the 2012 and 2013 assessment periods, total assessable assets will be the average of the foreign bank holding company's or foreign savings and loan holding company's total combined assets of its U.S. operations, net of intercompany balances and transactions between U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches and agencies, as reported for the assessment period on the Part 1 of the FR Y-7Q or such other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the foreign bank holding company or foreign savings and loan holding company,
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>2012 and 2013 assessment periods.</I> For the 2012 and 2013 assessment periods, for any foreign bank holding company, total assessable assets will be the average of the sum of the line items set forth in this section reported quarterly, plus any line items set forth in this section reported annually for the assessment period on an applicable regulatory reporting form for the assessment period for all of the foreign bank holding company's majority-owned:
</P>
<P>(A) Top-tier, U.S.-domiciled bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies, calculated as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule HC of the FR Y-9C and, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total assets (line item 1, column B) as reported on FR 2320;
</P>
<P>(B) Related branches and agencies of Foreign Banks in the United States, calculated as: total claims on nonrelated parties (line item 1.i from column A on Schedule RAL) plus net due from related institutions in foreign countries (line items 2.a, 2.b(1), 2.b(2), and 2.c from column A, minus line items 2.a, 2.b(1), 2.b(2) and 2.c from column B, part 1 on Schedule M), minus transactions with related nondepository majority-owned subsidiaries in the U.S. (line item 1 from column A, part 3 on Schedule M), as reported on the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks (FFIEC 002);
</P>
<P>(C) U.S.-domiciled nonbank subsidiaries, calculated as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For FR Y-7N filers: total assets (line item 10) as reported for each nonbank subsidiary reported on Schedule BS—Balance Sheet of the Financial Statements of U.S. Nonbank Subsidiaries Held by Foreign Banking Organizations (FR Y-7N); minus balances due from related institutions located in the United States, gross (line item 4.a), as reported on Schedule BS-M—Memoranda, and, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For FR Y-7NS (annual) filers: total assets (line item 2) as reported for each nonbank subsidiary reported on abbreviated financial statements (page 3) of the Abbreviated Financial Statements of U.S. Nonbank Subsidiaries Held by Foreign Banking Organizations (FR Y-7NS);
</P>
<P>(D) Edge Act and agreement corporations that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as claims on nonrelated organizations (line item 9, “consolidated total” column on Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income for Edge and Agreement Corporations (FR 2886b)), plus claims on related organizations domiciled outside the United States (line items 2.a and 2.b, column A on Schedule RC-M), as reported on FR 2886b;
</P>
<P>(E) Banks and savings associations that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as: total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule RC—Balance Sheet of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic and Foreign Offices (FFIEC 031), or total assets (line item 12) as reported on Schedule RC—Balance Sheet of the Consolidated reports of Condition and Income for a Bank with Domestic Offices Only (FFIEC 041), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(F) Broker-dealers that are not reflected in the assets of a U.S.-domiciled parent's regulatory reporting form submission, calculated as: total assets as reported on statement of financial condition of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Form X-17A-5 (FOCUS REPORT), Part II line item 16, Part IIa, line item 12, or Part II CSE, line item 18, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Savings and loan holding companies.</I> For any savings and loan holding company, other than a foreign savings and loan holding company, total assessable assets will be, except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, the average of the savings and loan holding company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on the regulatory reports on the savings and loan holding company's Form FR Y-9C, column B of the Quarterly Savings and Loan Holding Company Report (FR 2320), or other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the savings and loan holding company. If the savings and loan holding company is a grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company, total assessable assets will only include the assets associated with its savings association subsidiary and its other financial activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may request that the Board permit the company to file a quarterly estimate of its total consolidated assets. The Board may, in its discretion and subject to Board review and adjustment, permit the company to provide estimated total consolidated assets on a quarterly basis. The company's total assessable assets will be the average of the estimated total consolidated assets provided for the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.</I> For a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, if the company is a U.S. company, this amount will be the average of the nonbank financial company's total consolidated assets as reported for the assessment period on such regulatory or other reports as are applicable to the nonbank financial company determined by the Board; if the company is a foreign company, this amount will be the average of the nonbank financial company's total combined assets of U.S. operations, net of intercompany balances and transactions between U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches and agencies, as reported for the assessment period on such regulatory or other reports as determined by the Board as applicable to the nonbank financial company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 52492, Aug. 23, 2013, as amended at 85 FR 78954, Dec. 8, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 246.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.5   Notice of assessment and appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of Assessment.</I> The Board shall issue a notice of assessment to each assessed company no later than June 30 of each calendar year following the assessment period, provided, however, that for the 2012 assessment period, the Board shall issue a notice of assessment as soon as reasonably practical after publication of the final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeal period.</I> (1) Each assessed company will have thirty calendar days from June 30, or, for the 2012 assessment period, thirty calendar days from the Board's issuance of a notice of assessment for that assessment period, to submit a written statement to appeal the Board's determination:
</P>
<P>(i) That the company is an assessed company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Of the company's total assessable assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will respond with the results of its consideration to an assessed company that has submitted a written appeal within 15 calendar days from the end of the appeal period in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 246.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.15.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 246.6   Collection of assessments; payment of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection date.</I> Each assessed company shall remit to the Federal Reserve the amount of its assessment using the Fedwire Funds Service by September 15 of the calendar year following the assessment period, or, for the 2012 assessment period, by a date specified in the notice of assessment for that assessment period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of interest.</I> (1) If the Board does not receive the total amount of an assessed company's assessment by the collection date for any reason not attributable to the Board, the assessment will be delinquent and the assessed company shall pay to the Board interest on any sum owed to the Board according to this rule (delinquent payments).
</P>
<P>(2) Interest on delinquent payments will be assessed beginning on the first calendar day after the collection date, and on each calendar day thereafter up to and including the day payment is received. Interest will be simple interest, calculated for each day payment is delinquent by multiplying the daily equivalent of the applicable interest rate by the amount delinquent. The rate of interest will be the United States Treasury Department's current value of funds rate (the “CVFR percentage”); issued under the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual and published quarterly in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Each delinquent payment will be charged interest based on the CVFR percentage applicable to the quarter in which all or part of the assessment goes unpaid.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="248" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 248—PROPRIETARY TRADING AND CERTAIN INTERESTS IN AND RELATIONSHIPS WITH COVERED FUNDS (REGULATION VV)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1851, 12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 1818, 12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> and 12 U.S.C. 3103 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 248 appear at 79 FR 5804, Jan. 31, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and relationship to other authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part (Regulation VV) is issued by the Board under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1851), as well as under the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.</I>); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act establishes prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and on investments in or relationships with covered funds by certain banking entities, including state member banks, bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, other companies that control an insured depository institution, foreign banking organizations, and certain subsidiaries thereof. This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and on investments in or relationships with covered funds, and explaining the statute's requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act with respect to banking entities for which the Board is authorized to issue regulations under section 13(b)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(b)(2)) and take actions under section 13(e) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1851(e)). These include any state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System, any company that controls an insured depository institution (including a bank holding company and savings and loan holding company), any company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3106), and any subsidiary of the foregoing other than a subsidiary for which the OCC, FDIC, CFTC, or SEC is the primary financial regulatory agency (as defined in section 2(12) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5301(12)), but do not include such entities to the extent they are not within the definition of banking entity in § 248.2(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to other authorities.</I> Except as otherwise provided under section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, the prohibitions and restrictions under section 13 of BHC Act and this part shall apply to the activities of a banking entity, even if such activities are authorized for the banking entity under other applicable provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part limits in any way the authority of the Board to impose on a banking entity identified in paragraph (c) of this section additional requirements or restrictions with respect to any activity, investment, or relationship covered under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part, or additional penalties for violation of this part provided under any other applicable provision of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35020, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank holding company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Banking entity.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, <I>banking entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any affiliate or subsidiary of any entity described in paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Banking entity does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A covered fund that is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A portfolio company held under the authority contained in section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H), (I)), or any portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), so long as the portfolio company or portfolio concern is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC acting in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CFTC</I> means the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Derivative.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, <I>derivative</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale of a commodity, that is not an excluded commodity, for deferred shipment or delivery that is intended to be physically settled;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)) or foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25));
</P>
<P>(iv) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(C)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(C)(i));
</P>
<P>(v) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in a commodity other than foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(D)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(D)(i)); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any transaction authorized under section 19 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 23(a) or (b));
</P>
<P>(2) A derivative does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any consumer, commercial, or other agreement, contract, or transaction that the CFTC and SEC have further defined by joint regulation, interpretation, or other action as not within the definition of swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any identified banking product, as defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee</I> includes a member of the immediate family of the employee.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Excluded commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(19) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(19)).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(o) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(o)), but does not include a foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that is organized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, or the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of any country other than the United States that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under foreign insurance law.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>General account</I> means all of the assets of an insurance company except those allocated to one or more separate accounts.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Insurance company</I> means a company that is organized as an insurance company, primarily and predominantly engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, subject to supervision as such by a state insurance regulator or a foreign insurance regulator, and not operated for the purpose of evading the provisions of section 13 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1851).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)), but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution that is described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution if it has, and if every company that controls it has, total consolidated assets of $10 billion or less and total trading assets and trading liabilities, on a consolidated basis, that are 5 percent or less of total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limited trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, is less than $1 billion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has not determined pursuant to § 248.20(g) or (h) of this part that the banking entity should not be treated as having limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity other than a banking entity described in paragraph (s)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States, including branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a U.S. branch or agency of the foreign banking organization, for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Loan</I> means any loan, lease, extension of credit, or secured or unsecured receivable that is not a security or derivative.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Moderate trading assets and liabilities</I> means, with respect to a banking entity, that the banking entity does not have significant trading assets and liabilities or limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Primary financial regulatory agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(12) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5301(12)).
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Purchase</I> includes any contract to buy, purchase, or otherwise acquire. For security futures products, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, purchase includes the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Qualifying foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization that qualifies as such under § 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c), or (e)).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Sale</I> and <I>sell</I> each include any contract to sell or otherwise dispose of. For security futures products, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, such terms include the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Security</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(10) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10)).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Security-based swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(71) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Security future</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(55) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(55)).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Separate account</I> means an account established and maintained by an insurance company in connection with one or more insurance contracts to hold assets that are legally segregated from the insurance company's other assets, under which income, gains, and losses, whether or not realized, from assets allocated to such account, are, in accordance with the applicable contract, credited to or charged against such account without regard to other income, gains, or losses of the insurance company.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Significant trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, equals or exceeds $20 billion; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has determined pursuant to § 248.20(h) of this part that the banking entity should be treated as having significant trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity, other than a banking entity described in paragraph (ee)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States as well as branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a branch or agency of the foreign banking entity operating, located or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>State insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of a State that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under State insurance law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 1(a)(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62129, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Proprietary Trading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.3   Prohibition on proprietary trading.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not engage in proprietary trading. <I>Proprietary trading</I> means engaging as principal for the trading account of the banking entity in any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of trading account</I>—(1) <I>Trading account.</I> Trading account means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments principally for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging one or more of the positions resulting from the purchases or sales of financial instruments described in this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments that are both market risk capital rule covered positions and trading positions (or hedges of other market risk capital rule covered positions), if the banking entity, or any affiliate with which the banking entity is consolidated for regulatory reporting purposes, calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments, if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is licensed or registered, or is required to be licensed or registered, to engage in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities that require the banking entity to be licensed or registered as such; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is engaged in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer outside of the United States, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities of such business.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading account application for certain banking entities.</I> (i) A banking entity that is subject to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account is not subject to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not calculate risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule and is not a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule may elect to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph. A banking entity that elects under this subsection to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph is not required to apply paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consistency of account election for certain banking entities.</I> (i) Any election or change to an election under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must apply to the electing banking entity and all of its wholly owned subsidiaries. The primary financial regulatory agency of a banking entity that is affiliated with but is not a wholly owned subsidiary of such electing banking entity may require that the banking entity be subject to this uniform application requirement if the primary financial regulatory agency determines that it is necessary to prevent evasion of the requirements of this part after notice and opportunity for response as provided in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not elect under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to be subject to the trading account definition in (b)(1)(ii) may continue to apply the trading account definition in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for one year from the date on which it becomes, or becomes a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes with, a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebuttable presumption for certain purchases and sales.</I> The purchase (or sale) of a financial instrument by a banking entity shall be presumed not to be for the trading account of the banking entity under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section if the banking entity holds the financial instrument for sixty days or longer and does not transfer substantially all of the risk of the financial instrument within sixty days of the purchase (or sale).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial instrument.</I> (1) <I>Financial instrument</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A security, including an option on a security;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative, including an option on a derivative; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery, or option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial instrument does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A commodity that is not:
</P>
<P>(A) An excluded commodity (other than foreign exchange or currency);
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative;
</P>
<P>(C) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(D) An option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreign exchange or currency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proprietary trading.</I> Proprietary trading does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a repurchase or reverse repurchase agreement pursuant to which the banking entity has simultaneously agreed, in writing, to both purchase and sell a stated asset, at stated prices, and on stated dates or on demand with the same counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a transaction in which the banking entity lends or borrows a security temporarily to or from another party pursuant to a written securities lending agreement under which the lender retains the economic interests of an owner of such security, and has the right to terminate the transaction and to recall the loaned security on terms agreed by the parties;
</P>
<P>(3) Any purchase or sale of a security, foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)), foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)), or cross-currency swap by a banking entity for the purpose of liquidity management in accordance with a documented liquidity management plan of the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically contemplates and authorizes the particular financial instruments to be used for liquidity management purposes, the amount, types, and risks of these financial instruments that are consistent with liquidity management, and the liquidity circumstances in which the particular financial instruments may or must be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires that any purchase or sale of financial instruments contemplated and authorized by the plan be principally for the purpose of managing the liquidity of the banking entity, and not for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging a position taken for such short-term purposes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requires that any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes be highly liquid and limited to financial instruments the market, credit, and other risks of which the banking entity does not reasonably expect to give rise to appreciable profits or losses as a result of short-term price movements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Limits any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes, together with any other financial instruments purchased or sold for such purposes, to an amount that is consistent with the banking entity's near-term funding needs, including deviations from normal operations of the banking entity or any affiliate thereof, as estimated and documented pursuant to methods specified in the plan;
</P>
<P>(v) Includes written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis, and independent testing to ensure that the purchase and sale of financial instruments that are not permitted under § 248.6(a) or (b) of this subpart are for the purpose of liquidity management and in accordance with the liquidity management plan described in this paragraph (d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is consistent with the Board's supervisory requirements regarding liquidity management;
</P>
<P>(4) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency in connection with clearing financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(5) Any excluded clearing activities by a banking entity that is a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(6) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an existing delivery obligation of the banking entity or its customers, including to prevent or close out a failure to deliver, in connection with delivery, clearing, or settlement activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an obligation of the banking entity in connection with a judicial, administrative, self-regulatory organization, or arbitration proceeding;
</P>
<P>(7) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian;
</P>
<P>(8) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the purchase or sale is made directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity;
</P>
<P>(9) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the financial instrument as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such instrument for longer than such period permitted by the Board;
</P>
<P>(10) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that was made in error by a banking entity in the course of conducting a permitted or excluded activity or is a subsequent transaction to correct such an error;
</P>
<P>(11) Contemporaneously entering into a customer-driven swap or customer-driven security-based swap and a matched swap or security-based swap if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity retains no more than minimal price risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity is not a registered dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer;
</P>
<P>(12) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that the banking entity uses to hedge mortgage servicing rights or mortgage servicing assets in accordance with a documented hedging strategy; or
</P>
<P>(13) Any purchase or sale of a financial instrument that does not meet the definition of trading asset or trading liability under the applicable reporting form for a banking entity as of January 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definition of other terms related to proprietary trading.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Anonymous</I> means that each party to a purchase or sale is unaware of the identity of the other party(ies) to the purchase or sale.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(23) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(9) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(9)), except that a commodity does not include any security;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery</I> means a contract of sale (as that term is defined in section 1a(13) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(13)) for future delivery (as that term is defined in section 1a(27) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(27))).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A derivatives clearing organization registered under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is exempt from the registration requirements under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A foreign derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is permitted to clear for a foreign board of trade that is registered with the CFTC.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exchange,</I> unless the context otherwise requires, means any designated contract market, swap execution facility, or foreign board of trade registered with the CFTC, or, for purposes of securities or security-based swaps, an exchange, as defined under section 3(a)(1) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(1)), or security-based swap execution facility, as defined under section 3(a)(77) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(77)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Excluded clearing activities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to customer transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, a clearing agency, or a designated financial market utility, any purchase or sale necessary to correct trading errors made by or on behalf of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of the default or threatened default of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any purchase or sale that is required by the rules or procedures of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility to mitigate the risk to the clearing agency, derivatives clearing organization, or designated financial market utility that would result from the clearing by a member of security-based swaps that reference the member or an affiliate of the member.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as in section 803(4) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462(4)).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Market risk capital rule covered position and trading position</I> means a financial instrument that meets the criteria to be a covered position and a trading position, as those terms are respectively defined, without regard to whether the financial instrument is reported as a covered position or trading position on any applicable regulatory reporting forms:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a banking entity that is a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or insured depository institution, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a banking entity that is affiliated with a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, other than a banking entity to which a market risk capital rule is applicable, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the affiliated bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Market risk capital rule</I> means the market risk capital rule that is contained in 12 CFR part 3 with respect to a banking entity for which the OCC is the primary financial regulatory agency, 12 CFR part 217 with respect to a banking entity for which the Board is the primary financial regulatory agency, or 12 CFR part 324 with respect to a banking entity for which the FDIC is the primary financial regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Municipal security</I> means a security that is a direct obligation of or issued by, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions thereof.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Trading desk</I> means a unit of organization of a banking entity that purchases or sells financial instruments for the trading account of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that is:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Structured by the banking entity to implement a well-defined business strategy;
</P>
<P>(B) Organized to ensure appropriate setting, monitoring, and management review of the desk's trading and hedging limits, current and potential future loss exposures, and strategies; and
</P>
<P>(C) Characterized by a clearly defined unit that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Engages in coordinated trading activity with a unified approach to its key elements;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Operates subject to a common and calibrated set of risk metrics, risk levels, and joint trading limits;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Submits compliance reports and other information as a unit for monitoring by management; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Books its trades together; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, or a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, established by the banking entity or its affiliate for purposes of market risk capital calculations under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62131, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.4   Permitted underwriting and market making-related activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted underwriting activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The underwriting activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is acting as an underwriter for a distribution of securities and the trading desk's underwriting position is related to such distribution;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The amount and type of the securities in the trading desk's underwriting position are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) Reasonable efforts are made to sell or otherwise reduce the underwriting position within a reasonable period, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The products, instruments or exposures each trading desk may purchase, sell, or manage as part of its underwriting activities;
</P>
<P>(B) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(D) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(B) and (C) of this section by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (a) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in the activity described in this paragraph (a) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of distribution.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), a distribution of securities means:
</P>
<P>(i) An offering of securities, whether or not subject to registration under the Securities Act of 1933, that is distinguished from ordinary trading transactions by the presence of special selling efforts and selling methods; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An offering of securities made pursuant to an effective registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of underwriter.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>underwriter</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who has agreed with an issuer or selling security holder to:
</P>
<P>(A) Purchase securities from the issuer or selling security holder for distribution;
</P>
<P>(B) Engage in a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(C) Manage a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who has agreed to participate or is participating in a distribution of such securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of selling security holder.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>selling security holder</I> means any person, other than an issuer, on whose behalf a distribution is made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definition of underwriting position.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>underwriting position</I> means the long or short positions in one or more securities held by a banking entity or its affiliate, and managed by a particular trading desk, in connection with a particular distribution of securities for which such banking entity or affiliate is acting as an underwriter.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis, refer to market participants that may transact with the banking entity in connection with a particular distribution for which the banking entity is acting as underwriter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Market making-related activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted market making-related activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's market making-related activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The market making-related activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The trading desk that establishes and manages the financial exposure, routinely stands ready to purchase and sell one or more types of financial instruments related to its financial exposure, and is willing and available to quote, purchase and sell, or otherwise enter into long and short positions in those types of financial instruments for its own account, in commercially reasonable amounts and throughout market cycles on a basis appropriate for the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The trading desk's market-making related activities are designed not to exceed, on an ongoing basis, the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (b), including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial instruments each trading desk stands ready to purchase and sell in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The actions the trading desk will take to demonstrably reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate promptly the risks of its financial exposure consistent with the limits required under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section; the products, instruments, and exposures each trading desk may use for risk management purposes; the techniques and strategies each trading desk may use to manage the risks of its market making-related activities and positions; and the process, strategies, and personnel responsible for ensuring that the actions taken by the trading desk to mitigate these risks are and continue to be effective;
</P>
<P>(C) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(E) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(C) and (D) of this section by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (b) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in activity described in this paragraph (b) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis refer to market participants that make use of the banking entity's market making-related services by obtaining such services, responding to quotations, or entering into a continuing relationship with respect to such services, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) A trading desk or other organizational unit of another banking entity is not a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk if that other entity has trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more as measured in accordance with the methodology described in § 248.2(ee) of this part, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The trading desk documents how and why a particular trading desk or other organizational unit of the entity should be treated as a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase or sale by the trading desk is conducted anonymously on an exchange or similar trading facility that permits trading on behalf of a broad range of market participants.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of financial exposure.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>financial exposure</I> means the aggregate risks of one or more financial instruments and any associated loans, commodities, or foreign exchange or currency, held by a banking entity or its affiliate and managed by a particular trading desk as part of the trading desk's market making-related activities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of market-maker positions.</I> For the purposes of this section, <I>market-maker positions</I> means all of the positions in the financial instruments for which the trading desk stands ready to make a market in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, that are managed by the trading desk, including the trading desk's open positions or exposures arising from open transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Internal limits.</I> (i) A banking entity shall be presumed to meet the requirement in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section with respect to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument if the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces the internal limits for the relevant trading desk as described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to underwriting activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's underwriting activities, on the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risk of its underwriting position;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its underwriting position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Period of time a security may be held.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to market making-related activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's market-making related activities, that address the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risks of its market-maker positions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Amount, types, and risks of the products, instruments, and exposures the trading desk may use for risk management purposes;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its financial exposure; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Period of time a financial instrument may be held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisory review and oversight.</I> The limits described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be subject to supervisory review and oversight by the Board on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit breaches and increases.</I> (i) With respect to any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, a banking entity shall maintain and make available to the Board upon request records regarding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any limit that is exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any temporary or permanent increase to any limit(s), in each case in the form and manner as directed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a breach or increase of any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall continue to be available only if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Takes action as promptly as possible after a breach to bring the trading desk into compliance; and
</P>
<P>(B) Follows established written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that exceeds a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebutting the presumption.</I> The presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section may be rebutted by the Board if the Board determines, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and based on all relevant facts and circumstances, that a trading desk is engaging in activity that is not based on the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties. The Board's rebuttal of the presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62132, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.5   Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity in connection with and related to individual or aggregated positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity and designed to reduce the specific risks to the banking entity in connection with and related to such positions, contracts, or other holdings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures regarding the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging, including documentation indicating what positions, contracts or other holdings a particular trading desk may use in its risk-mitigating hedging activities, as well as position and aging limits with respect to such positions, contracts or other holdings;
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(C) The conduct of analysis and independent testing designed to ensure that the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging may reasonably be expected to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risk(s) being hedged;
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is conducted in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is consistent with the written hedging policies and procedures required under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks that develop over time from the risk-mitigating hedging activities undertaken under this section and the underlying positions, contracts, and other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the underlying and hedging positions, contracts and other holdings of the banking entity and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Requires ongoing recalibration of the hedging activity by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The compensation arrangements of persons performing risk-mitigating hedging activities are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that does not have significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if the risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(i) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject, as appropriate, to ongoing recalibration by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation requirement.</I> (1) A banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, unless the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, with respect to any purchase or sale of financial instruments made in reliance on this section for risk-mitigating hedging purposes that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the hedging activity is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) Established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the purchases or sales are designed to reduce, but that is effected through a financial instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy that is not specifically identified in the trading desk's written policies and procedures established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section or under § 248.4(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this subpart as a product, instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy such trading desk may use for hedging; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Established to hedge aggregated positions across two or more trading desks.
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with any purchase or sale identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking entity must, at a minimum, and contemporaneously with the purchase or sale, document:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific, identifiable risk(s) of the identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity that the purchase or sale is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific risk-mitigating strategy that the purchase or sale is designed to fulfill; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The trading desk or other business unit that is establishing and responsible for the hedge.
</P>
<P>(3) A banking entity must create and retain records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (c) for a period that is no less than five years in a form that allows the banking entity to promptly produce such records to the Board on request, or such longer period as required under other law or this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The financial instrument purchased or sold is identified on a written list of pre-approved financial instruments that are commonly used by the trading desk for the specific type of hedging activity for which the financial instrument is being purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the financial instrument is purchased or sold, the hedging activity (including the purchase or sale of the financial instrument) complies with written, pre-approved limits for the trading desk purchasing or selling the financial instrument for hedging activities undertaken for one or more other trading desks. The limits shall be appropriate for the:
</P>
<P>(A) Size, types, and risks of the hedging activities commonly undertaken by the trading desk;
</P>
<P>(B) Financial instruments purchased and sold for hedging activities by the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>(C) Levels and duration of the risk exposures being hedged.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62134, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.6   Other permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted trading in domestic government obligations.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale by a banking entity of a financial instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation, participation, or other instrument of, or issued or guaranteed by, an agency of the United States, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, a Federal Home Loan Bank, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or a Farm Credit System institution chartered under and subject to the provisions of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) An obligation of any State or any political subdivision thereof, including any municipal security; or
</P>
<P>(4) An obligation of the FDIC, or any entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired or held by the FDIC in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permitted trading in foreign government obligations</I>—(1) <I>Affiliates of foreign banking entities in the United States.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of such foreign sovereign, by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is organized under or is directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of a foreign sovereign and is not directly or indirectly controlled by a top-tier banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign banking entity referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale as principal is not made by an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign affiliates of a U.S. banking entity.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign, by a foreign entity that is owned or controlled by a banking entity organized or established under the laws of the United States or any State, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign entity is a foreign bank, as defined in section 211.2(j) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2(j)), or is regulated by the foreign sovereign as a securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign entity is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The financial instrument is owned by the foreign entity and is not financed by an affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted trading on behalf of customers</I>—(1) <I>Fiduciary transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity does not have or retain beneficial ownership of the financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as riskless principal in a transaction in which the banking entity, after receiving an order to purchase (or sell) a financial instrument from a customer, purchases (or sells) the financial instrument for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted trading by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity that is an insurance company or an affiliate of an insurance company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate purchases or sells the financial instruments solely for:
</P>
<P>(i) The general account of the insurance company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate account established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase or sale is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws, regulations, and written guidance of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law, regulation, or written guidance described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the covered banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permitted trading activities of foreign banking entities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase or sale by the banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) A purchase or sale by a banking entity is permitted for purposes of this paragraph (e) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity engaging as principal in the purchase or sale (including relevant personnel) is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to purchase or sell as principal is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to the instruments purchased or sold, is not accounted for as principal directly or on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (e), a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is considered to be located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permitted trading activities of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument by a qualifying foreign excluded fund. For purposes of this paragraph (f), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(3) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity's acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 248.13(b);
</P>
<P>(4) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62135, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46503, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.7   Limitations on permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 248.4 through 248.6 if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 248.8-248.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 248.8-248.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Covered Funds Activities and Investments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.10   Prohibition on acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in and having certain relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not, as principal, directly or indirectly, acquire or retain any ownership interest in or sponsor a covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not include acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in a covered fund by a banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian, so long as;
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the ownership interest is held or controlled directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the ownership interest as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such ownership interest for longer than such period permitted by the Board; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On behalf of customers as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity for a customer that is not a covered fund, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, the customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, covered fund means:
</P>
<P>(i) An issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), <I>but for</I> section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(1) or (7));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commodity pool under section 1a(10) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(10)) for which:
</P>
<P>(A) The commodity pool operator has claimed an exemption under 17 CFR 4.7; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) A commodity pool operator is registered with the CFTC as a commodity pool operator in connection with the operation of the commodity pool;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Substantially all participation units of the commodity pool are owned by qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Participation units of the commodity pool have not been publicly offered to persons who are not qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); or
</P>
<P>(iii) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, an entity that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside the United States and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities; and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Has as its sponsor that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has issued an ownership interest that is owned directly or indirectly by that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer shall not be deemed to be a covered fund under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section if, were the issuer subject to U.S. securities laws, the issuer could rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine otherwise, a covered fund does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Foreign public funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is authorized to offer and sell ownership interests, and such interests are offered and sold, through one or more public offerings.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and any issuer for which such banking entity acts as sponsor, the sponsoring banking entity may not rely on the exemption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for such issuer unless more than 75 percent of the ownership interests in the issuer are sold to persons other than:
</P>
<P>(A) Such sponsoring banking entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Such issuer;
</P>
<P>(C) Affiliates of such sponsoring banking entity or such issuer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Directors and senior executive officers as defined in § 225.71(c) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.71(c)) of such entities.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the term “public offering” means a distribution (as defined in § 248.4(a)(3)) of securities in any jurisdiction outside the United States to investors, including retail investors, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The distribution is subject to substantive disclosure and retail investor protection laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an issuer for which the banking entity serves as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, commodity pool operator, or sponsor, the distribution complies with all applicable requirements in the jurisdiction in which such distribution is being made;
</P>
<P>(C) The distribution does not restrict availability to investors having a minimum level of net worth or net investment assets; and
</P>
<P>(D) The issuer has filed or submitted, with the appropriate regulatory authority in such jurisdiction, offering disclosure documents that are publicly available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholly-owned subsidiaries.</I> An entity, all of the outstanding ownership interests of which are owned directly or indirectly by the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to five percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests, less any amounts outstanding under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, may be held by employees or directors of the banking entity or such affiliate (including former employees or directors if their ownership interest was acquired while employed by or in the service of the banking entity); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be held by a third party if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by the third party for the purpose of establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture between a banking entity or any of its affiliates and one or more unaffiliated persons, provided that the joint venture:
</P>
<P>(i) Is composed of no more than 10 unaffiliated co-venturers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is in the business of engaging in activities that are permissible for the banking entity or affiliate, other than investing in securities for resale or other disposition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Acquisition vehicles.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) Formed solely for the purpose of engaging in a <I>bona fide</I> merger or acquisition transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That exists only for such period as necessary to effectuate the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Foreign pension or retirement funds.</I> A plan, fund, or program providing pension, retirement, or similar benefits that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Organized and administered outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) A broad-based plan for employees or citizens that is subject to regulation as a pension, retirement, or similar plan under the laws of the jurisdiction in which the plan, fund, or program is organized and administered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Established for the benefit of citizens or residents of one or more foreign sovereigns or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Insurance company separate accounts.</I> A separate account, provided that no banking entity other than the insurance company participates in the account's profits and losses.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bank owned life insurance.</I> A separate account that is used solely for the purpose of allowing one or more banking entities to purchase a life insurance policy for which the banking entity or entities is beneficiary, provided that no banking entity that purchases the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the investment decisions regarding the underlying assets or holdings of the separate account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Participates in the profits and losses of the separate account other than in compliance with applicable requirements regarding bank owned life insurance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loan securitizations</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An issuing entity for asset-backed securities that satisfies all the conditions of this paragraph (c)(8) and the assets or holdings of which are composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 248.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to holders of such securities and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the loans, provided that each asset that is a security (other than special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section) meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Debt securities, other than asset-backed securities and convertible securities, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The aggregate value of such debt securities does not exceed five percent of the aggregate value of loans held under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(A) of this section, cash and cash equivalents held under paragraph (c)(8)(iii)(A) of this section, and debt securities held under this paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The aggregate value of the loans, cash and cash equivalents, and debt securities for purposes of this paragraph is calculated at par value at the most recent time any such debt security is acquired, except that the issuing entity may instead determine the value of any such loan, cash equivalent, or debt security based on its fair market value if:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The issuing entity is required to use the fair market value of such assets for purposes of calculating compliance with concentration limitations or other similar calculations under its transaction agreements, and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The issuing entity's valuation methodology values similarly situated assets consistently.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impermissible assets.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(8), except as permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, the assets or holdings of the issuing entity shall not include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A security, including an asset-backed security, or an interest in an equity or debt security other than as permitted in paragraphs (c)(8)(iii), (iv), or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative, other than a derivative that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) A commodity forward contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Permitted securities.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(8)(ii)(A) of this section, the issuing entity may hold securities, other than debt securities permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, if those securities are:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash equivalents—which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the securitization's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the asset-backed securities—for purposes of the rights and assets in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to the loans supporting the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Derivatives.</I> The holdings of derivatives by the issuing entity shall be limited to interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that satisfy all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The written terms of the derivatives directly relate to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The derivatives reduce the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates.</I> The assets or holdings of the issuing entity may include collateral certificates and special units of beneficial interest issued by a special purpose vehicle, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate meets the requirements in this paragraph (c)(8);
</P>
<P>(B) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is used for the sole purpose of transferring to the issuing entity for the loan securitization the economic risks and benefits of the assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under this paragraph (c)(8) and does not directly or indirectly transfer any interest in any other economic or financial exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is created solely to satisfy legal requirements or otherwise facilitate the structuring of the loan securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate and the issuing entity are established under the direction of the same entity that initiated the loan securitization.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Qualifying asset-backed commercial paper conduits.</I> (i) An issuing entity for asset-backed commercial paper that satisfies all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit holds only:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Loans and other assets permissible for a loan securitization under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Asset-backed securities supported solely by assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section and acquired by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit as part of an initial issuance either directly from the issuing entity of the asset-backed securities or directly from an underwriter in the distribution of the asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(B) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit issues only asset-backed securities, comprised of a residual interest and securities with a legal maturity of 397 days or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide full and unconditional liquidity coverage with respect to all of the outstanding asset-backed securities issued by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit (other than any residual interest) in the event that funds are required to redeem maturing asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(9), a regulated liquidity provider means:
</P>
<P>(A) A depository institution, as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c));
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company, as defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) A savings and loan holding company, as defined in section 10a of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(D) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor, as defined in § 211.21(q) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(q)), has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord for the Basel Committee on banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(E) The United States or a foreign sovereign.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Qualifying covered bonds</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An entity owning or holding a dynamic or fixed pool of loans or other assets as provided in paragraph (c)(8) of this section for the benefit of the holders of covered bonds, provided that the assets in the pool are composed solely of assets that meet the conditions in paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered bond.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(10), a covered bond means:
</P>
<P>(A) A debt obligation issued by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization, the payment obligations of which are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A debt obligation of an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section, provided that the payment obligations are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization and the entity is a wholly-owned subsidiary, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, of such foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>SBICs and public welfare investment funds.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), or that has received from the Small Business Administration notice to proceed to qualify for a license as a small business investment company, which notice or license has not been revoked, or that has voluntarily surrendered its license to operate as a small business investment company in accordance with 13 CFR 107.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such voluntary surrender;
</P>
<P>(ii) The business of which is to make investments that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs) and including investments that qualify for consideration under the regulations implementing the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(B) Qualified rehabilitation expenditures with respect to a qualified rehabilitated building or certified historic structure, as such terms are defined in section 47 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or a similar State historic tax credit program;
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated or is regulated as a rural business investment company, as described in 15 U.S.C. 80b-3(b)(8)(A) or (B), or that has terminated its participation as a rural business investment company in accordance with 7 CFR 4290.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such termination; or
</P>
<P>(iv) That is a qualified opportunity fund, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1400Z-2(d)
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Registered investment companies and excluded entities.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is registered as an investment company under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a registered investment company as described in § 248.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 18 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-18);
</P>
<P>(ii) That may rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-53) and has not withdrawn its election, or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a business development company as described in § 248.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 61 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-60).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Issuers in conjunction with the FDIC's receivership or conservatorship operations.</I> An issuer that is an entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for the purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired in the FDIC's capacity as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Other excluded issuers.</I> (i) Any issuer that the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine the exclusion of which is consistent with the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination made under paragraph (c)(14)(i) of this section will be promptly made public.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Credit funds.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c)(15)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, an issuer that satisfies the asset and activity requirements of paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The issuer's assets must be composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 248.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Debt instruments, subject to paragraph (c)(15)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Rights and other assets that are related or incidental to acquiring, holding, servicing, or selling such loans or debt instruments, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each right or asset held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) that is a security is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A cash equivalent (which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the debt instruments);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A security received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to such loans or debt instruments; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) An equity security (or right to acquire an equity security) received on customary terms in connection with such loans or debt instruments; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Rights or other assets held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section may not include commodity forward contracts or any derivative; and
</P>
<P>(D) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The written terms of the derivative directly relate to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The derivative reduces the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Activity requirements.</I> To be eligible for the exclusion of paragraph (c)(15) of this section, an issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 248.3(b)(l)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not issue asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirements for a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor.</I> A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 248.11(a)(8) of this subpart, as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the limitations imposed in § 248.14, as if the issuer were a covered fund, except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Additional Banking Entity Requirements.</I> A banking entity may not rely on this exclusion with respect to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer or of any entity to which such issuer extends credit or in which such issuer invests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any assets the issuer holds pursuant to paragraphs (c)(15)(i)(B) or (i)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section would be permissible for the banking entity to acquire and hold directly under applicable federal banking laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Investment and Relationship Limits.</I> A banking entity's investment in, and relationship with, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 248.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Qualifying venture capital funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(16)(ii) through (iv) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a venture capital fund as defined in 17 CFR 275.203(l)-1; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 248.3(b)(1)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraph (c)(16)(i) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 248.11(a)(8), as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the restrictions in § 248.14 as if the issuer were a covered fund (except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer).
</P>
<P>(iii) The banking entity must not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity's ownership interest in or relationship with the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 248.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Family wealth management vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(17)(ii) of this section, any entity that is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities, and:
</P>
<P>(A) If the entity is a trust, the grantor(s) of the entity are all family customers; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the entity is not a trust:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A majority of the voting interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A majority of the interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The entity is owned only by family customers and up to 5 closely related persons of the family customers; and
</P>
<P>(C) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(17)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not family customers or closely related persons if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(17)(i) of this section with respect to an entity provided that the banking entity (or an affiliate):
</P>
<P>(A) Provides bona fide trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services to the entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such entity;
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the disclosure obligations under § 248.11(a)(8), as if such entity were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the entity;
</P>
<P>(D) Does not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the entity, other than as described in paragraph (c)(17)(i)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Complies with the requirements of §§ 248.14(b) and 248.15, as if such entity were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(F) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, complies with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the entity were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(17) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Closely related person</I> means a natural person (including the estate and estate planning vehicles of such person) who has longstanding business or personal relationships with any family customer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Family customer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A family client, as defined in Rule 202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (17 CFR 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4)); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any natural person who is a father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law or daughter-in-law of a family client, or a spouse or a spousal equivalent of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Customer facilitation vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(18)(ii) of this section, an issuer that is formed by or at the request of a customer of the banking entity for the purpose of providing such customer (which may include one or more affiliates of such customer) with exposure to a transaction, investment strategy, or other service provided by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(18)(i) of this section with respect to an issuer provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All of the ownership interests of the issuer are owned by the customer (which may include one or more of its affiliates) for whom the issuer was created;
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(A) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the issuer's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not customers if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Maintain documentation outlining how the banking entity intends to facilitate the customer's exposure to such transaction, investment strategy, or service;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Comply with the disclosure obligations under § 248.11(a)(8), as if such issuer were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Do not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the issuer, other than as described in paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the requirements of §§ 248.14(b) and 248.15, as if such issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, comply with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the issuer were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of other terms related to covered funds.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means U.S. generally accepted accounting principles, or such other accounting standards applicable to a banking entity that the Board determines are appropriate and that the banking entity uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Asset-backed security</I> has the meaning specified in Section 3(a)(79) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Director</I> has the same meaning as provided in section 215.2(d)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(22) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(22)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Issuing entity</I> means with respect to asset-backed securities the special purpose vehicle that owns or holds the pool assets underlying asset-backed securities and in whose name the asset-backed securities supported or serviced by the pool assets are issued.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ownership interest</I>—(i) <I>Ownership interest</I> means any equity, partnership, or other similar interest. An “other similar interest” means an interest that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has the right to participate in the selection or removal of a general partner, managing member, member of the board of directors or trustees, investment manager, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor of the covered fund, excluding:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The right to participate in the removal of an investment manager for “cause” or participate in the selection of a replacement manager upon an investment manager's resignation or removal. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(6)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>), “cause” for removal of an investment manager means one or more of the following events:
</P>
<P><I>(i)</I> The bankruptcy, insolvency, conservatorship or receivership of the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(ii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of any material provision of the covered fund's transaction agreements applicable to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(iii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of material representations or warranties;
</P>
<P><I>(iv)</I> The occurrence of an act that constitutes fraud or criminal activity in the performance of the investment manager's obligations under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P><I>(v)</I> The indictment of the investment manager for a criminal offense, or the indictment of any officer, member, partner or other principal of the investment manager for a criminal offense materially related to his or her investment management activities;
</P>
<P><I>(vi)</I> A change in control with respect to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(vii)</I> The loss, separation or incapacitation of an individual critical to the operation of the investment manager or primarily responsible for the management of the covered fund's assets; or
</P>
<P><I>(viii)</I> Other similar events that constitute “cause” for removal of an investment manager, provided that such events are not solely related to the performance of the covered fund or the investment manager's exercise of investment discretion under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) Has the right under the terms of the interest to receive a share of the income, gains or profits of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Has the right to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed and/or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event);
</P>
<P>(D) Has the right to receive all or a portion of excess spread (the positive difference, if any, between the aggregate interest payments received from the underlying assets of the covered fund and the aggregate interest paid to the holders of other outstanding interests);
</P>
<P>(E) Provides under the terms of the interest that the amounts payable by the covered fund with respect to the interest could be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest;
</P>
<P>(F) Receives income on a pass-through basis from the covered fund, or has a rate of return that is determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(G) Any synthetic right to have, receive, or be allocated any of the rights in paragraphs (d)(6)(i)(A) through (F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ownership interest does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Restricted profit interest, which is an interest held by an entity (or an employee or former employee thereof) in a covered fund for which the entity (or employee thereof) serves as investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or other service provider, so long as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sole purpose and effect of the interest is to allow the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to share in the profits of the covered fund as performance compensation for the investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services provided to the covered fund by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof), provided that the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) may be obligated under the terms of such interest to return profits previously received;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All such profit, once allocated, is distributed to the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) promptly after being earned or, if not so distributed, is retained by the covered fund for the sole purpose of establishing a reserve amount to satisfy contractual obligations with respect to subsequent losses of the covered fund and such undistributed profit of the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) does not share in the subsequent investment gains of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any amounts invested in the covered fund, including any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining the restricted profit interest, are within the limits of § 248.12 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest is not transferable by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) except to an affiliate thereof (or an employee of the banking entity or affiliate), to immediate family members, or through the intestacy, of the employee or former employee, or in connection with a sale of the business that gave rise to the restricted profit interest by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to an unaffiliated party that provides investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) Any senior loan or senior debt interest that has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Under the terms of the interest the holders of such interest do not have the right to receive a share of the income, gains, or profits of the covered fund, but are entitled to receive only:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Interest at a stated interest rate, as well as commitment fees or other fees, which are not determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Repayment of a fixed principal amount, on or before a maturity date, in a contractually-determined manner (which may include prepayment premiums intended solely to reflect, and compensate holders of the interest for, forgone income resulting from an early prepayment);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The entitlement to payments under the terms of the interest are absolute and could not be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The holders of the interest are not entitled to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prime brokerage transaction</I> means any transaction that would be a covered transaction, as defined in section 23A(b)(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), that is provided in connection with custody, clearance and settlement, securities borrowing or lending services, trade execution, financing, or data, operational, and administrative support.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Resident of the United States</I> means a person that is a “U.S. person” as defined in rule 902(k) of the SEC's Regulation S (17 CFR 230.902(k)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Sponsor</I> means, with respect to a covered fund:
</P>
<P>(i) To serve as a general partner, managing member, or trustee of a covered fund, or to serve as a commodity pool operator with respect to a covered fund as defined in (b)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In any manner to select or to control (or to have employees, officers, or directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of a covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To share with a covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes, the same name or a variation of the same name, except as permitted under § 248.11(a)(6).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Trustee.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (d)(9) of this section and § 248.11 of subpart C, a trustee does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A trustee that does not exercise investment discretion with respect to a covered fund, including a trustee that is subject to the direction of an unaffiliated named fiduciary who is not a trustee pursuant to section 403(a)(1) of the Employee's Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1103(a)(1)); or
</P>
<P>(B) A trustee that is subject to fiduciary standards imposed under foreign law that are substantially equivalent to those described in paragraph (d)(10)(i)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any entity that directs a person described in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, or that possesses authority and discretion to manage and control the investment decisions of a covered fund for which such person serves as trustee, shall be considered to be a trustee of such covered fund.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Riskless principal transaction.</I> Riskless principal transaction means a transaction in which a banking entity, after receiving an order from a customer to buy (or sell) a security, purchases (or sells) the security in the secondary market for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35020, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62136, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46503, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.11   Permitted organizing and offering, underwriting, and market making with respect to a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Organizing and offering a covered fund in general.</I> Notwithstanding § 248.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering a covered fund, including serving as a general partner, managing member, trustee, or commodity pool operator of the covered fund and in any manner selecting or controlling (or having employees, officers, directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of the covered fund, including any necessary expenses for the foregoing, only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) provides <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered fund is organized and offered only in connection with the provision of <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services and only to persons that are customers of such services of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), pursuant to a written plan or similar documentation outlining how the banking entity or such affiliate intends to provide advisory or similar services to its customers through organizing and offering such fund;
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity and its affiliates do not acquire or retain an ownership interest in the covered fund except as permitted under § 248.12 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) The banking entity and its affiliates comply with the requirements of § 248.14 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) The banking entity and its affiliates do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests;
</P>
<P>(6) The covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not share the same name or a variation of the same name with the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) except that a covered fund may share the same name or a variation of the same name with a banking entity that is an investment adviser to the covered fund if:
</P>
<P>(A) The investment adviser is not an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(B) The investment adviser does not share the same name or a variation of the same name as an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not use the word “bank” in its name;
</P>
<P>(7) No director or employee of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) takes or retains an ownership interest in the covered fund, except for any director or employee of the banking entity or such affiliate who is directly engaged in providing investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund at the time the director or employee takes the ownership interest; and
</P>
<P>(8) The banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly and conspicuously discloses, in writing, to any prospective and actual investor in the covered fund (such as through disclosure in the covered fund's offering documents):
</P>
<P>(A) That “any losses in [such covered fund] will be borne solely by investors in [the covered fund] and not by [the banking entity] or its affiliates; therefore, [the banking entity's] losses in [such covered fund] will be limited to losses attributable to the ownership interests in the covered fund held by [the banking entity] and any affiliate in its capacity as investor in the [covered fund] or as beneficiary of a restricted profit interest held by [the banking entity] or any affiliate”;
</P>
<P>(B) That such investor should read the fund offering documents before investing in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) That the “ownership interests in the covered fund are not insured by the FDIC, and are not deposits, obligations of, or endorsed or guaranteed in any way, by any banking entity” (unless that happens to be the case); and
</P>
<P>(D) The role of the banking entity and its affiliates and employees in sponsoring or providing any services to the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Complies with any additional rules of the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, or the CFTC, as provided in section 13(b)(2) of the BHC Act, designed to ensure that losses in such covered fund are borne solely by investors in the covered fund and not by the covered banking entity and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organizing and offering an issuing entity of asset-backed securities.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 248.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering that issuing entity, so long as the banking entity and its affiliates comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) through (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b), organizing and offering a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities means acting as the securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)) of the issuing entity, or acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in the issuing entity as required by section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C.78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting and market making in ownership interests of a covered fund.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities or market making-related activities involving a covered fund so long as:
</P>
<P>(1) Those activities are conducted in accordance with the requirements of § 248.4(a) or (b), respectively; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any banking entity (or any affiliate thereof) that: Acts as a sponsor, investment adviser or commodity trading advisor to a particular covered fund or otherwise acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund in reliance on paragraph (a) of this section; or acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund and is either a securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)), or is acquiring and retaining an ownership interest in such covered fund in compliance with section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C.78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder each as permitted by paragraph (b) of this section, then in each such case any ownership interests acquired or retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in connection with underwriting and market making related activities for that particular covered fund are included in the calculation of ownership interests permitted to be held by the banking entity and its affiliates under the limitations of § 248.12(a)(2)(ii) and (iii) and (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35020, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62136, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.12   Permitted investment in a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and limitations on permitted investments in covered funds.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity may acquire and retain an ownership interest in a covered fund that the banking entity or an affiliate thereof organizes and offers pursuant to § 248.11, for the purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Establishment.</I> Establishing the fund and providing the fund with sufficient initial equity for investment to permit the fund to attract unaffiliated investors, subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>De minimis investment.</I> Making and retaining an investment in the covered fund subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment limits</I>—(i) <I>Seeding period.</I> With respect to an investment in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(A) Must actively seek unaffiliated investors to reduce, through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods, the aggregate amount of all ownership interests of the banking entity in the covered fund to the amount permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must, no later than 1 year after the date of establishment of the fund (or such longer period as may be provided by the Board pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section), conform its ownership interest in the covered fund to the limits in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Per-fund limits.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, an investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may not exceed 3 percent of the total number or value of the outstanding ownership interests of the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) An investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities may not exceed 3 percent of the total fair market value of the ownership interests of the fund measured in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, unless a greater percentage is retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in compliance with the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder, in which case the investment by the banking entity and its affiliates in the covered fund may not exceed the amount, number, or value of ownership interests of the fund required under section 15G of the Exchange Act and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> The aggregate value of all ownership interests of the banking entity and its affiliates in all covered funds acquired or retained under this section may not exceed 3 percent of the tier 1 capital of the banking entity, as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall be calculated as of the last day of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Date of establishment.</I> For purposes of this section, the date of establishment of a covered fund shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>In general.</I> The date on which the investment adviser or similar entity to the covered fund begins making investments pursuant to the written investment strategy for the fund;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, the date on which the assets are initially transferred into the issuing entity of asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of construction</I>—(1) <I>Attribution of ownership interests to a covered banking entity.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount and value of a banking entity's permitted investment in any single covered fund shall include any ownership interest held under § 248.12 directly by the banking entity, including any affiliate of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of registered investment companies, SEC-regulated business development companies, and foreign public funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a registered investment company, SEC-regulated business development companies, or foreign public fund as described in § 248.10(c)(1) will not be considered to be an affiliate of the banking entity so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity, together with its affiliates, does not own, control, or hold with the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of the company or fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity, or an affiliate of the banking entity, provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, administrative, and other services to the company or fund in compliance with the limitations under applicable regulation, order, or other authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covered funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a covered fund will not be considered to be an affiliate of a banking entity so long as the covered fund is held in compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Treatment of employee and director investments financed by the banking entity.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires an ownership interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the ownership interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of permitted ownership interests in a single covered fund.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4), for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate number of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the total number of ownership interests held under this section by the banking entity in a covered fund divided by the total number of ownership interests held by all entities in that covered fund, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (both measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment);
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the aggregate fair market value of all investments in and capital contributions made to the covered fund by the banking entity, divided by the value of all investments in and capital contributions made to that covered fund by all entities, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (all measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment). If fair market value cannot be determined, then the value shall be the historical cost basis of all investments in and contributions made by the banking entity to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, once a valuation methodology is chosen, the banking entity must calculate the value of its investment and the investments of all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an ownership interest in an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For securitizations subject to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), the calculations shall be made as of the date and according to the valuation methodology applicable pursuant to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the calculations shall be made as of the date of establishment as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or such earlier date on which the transferred assets have been valued for purposes of transfer to the covered fund, and thereafter only upon the date on which additional securities of the issuing entity of asset-backed securities are priced for purposes of the sales of ownership interests to unaffiliated investors.
</P>
<P>(iii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests in the covered fund shall be the fair market value of the assets transferred to the issuing entity of the securitization and any other assets otherwise held by the issuing entity at such time, determined in a manner that is consistent with its determination of the fair market value of those assets for financial statement purposes.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair market value of the ownership interests must be the same for both the ownership interests held by a banking entity and the ownership interests held by all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multi-tier fund investments</I>—(i) <I>Master-feeder fund investments.</I> If the principal investment strategy of a covered fund (the “feeder fund”) is to invest substantially all of its assets in another single covered fund (the “master fund”), then for purposes of the investment limitations in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the banking entity's permitted investment in such funds shall be measured only by reference to the value of the master fund. The banking entity's permitted investment in the master fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in the master fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the master fund that is held through the feeder fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fund-of-funds investments.</I> If a banking entity organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 248.11 for the purpose of investing in other covered funds (a “fund of funds”) and that fund of funds itself invests in another covered fund that the banking entity is permitted to own, then the banking entity's permitted investment in that other fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in that other fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the fund that is held through the fund of funds. The investment of the banking entity may not represent more than 3 percent of the amount or value of any single covered fund.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Parallel Investments and Co-Investments.</I> (i) A banking entity shall not be required to include in the calculation of the investment limits under paragraph (a)(2) of this section any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity shall not be restricted under this section in the amount of any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate permitted investments in all covered funds.</I> (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the aggregate value of all ownership interests held by a banking entity shall be the sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in covered funds (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii)), on a historical cost basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.

 </P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of tier 1 capital.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Entities that are required to hold and report tier 1 capital.</I> If a banking entity is required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital of the banking entity as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, as reported to its primary financial regulatory agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a banking entity is not required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be determined to be equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a banking entity that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by such controlling depository institution in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a banking entity that is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Bank holding company subsidiaries.</I> If the banking entity is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by the top-tier affiliate of such covered banking entity that calculates and reports tier 1 capital in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Other holding companies and any subsidiary or affiliate thereof.</I> If the banking entity is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the total amount of shareholders' equity of the top-tier affiliate within such organization as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter that has ended, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Treatment of foreign banking entities</I>—(A) <I>Foreign banking entities.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, with respect to a banking entity that is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, the tier 1 capital of the banking entity shall be the consolidated tier 1 capital of the entity as calculated under applicable home country standards.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>U.S. affiliates of foreign banking entities.</I> With respect to a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and is controlled by a foreign banking entity identified under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be as calculated under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital treatment for a permitted investment in a covered fund.</I> For purposes of calculating compliance with the applicable regulatory capital requirements, a banking entity shall deduct from the banking entity's tier 1 capital (as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), on a historical cost basis, plus any earnings received; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The fair market value of the banking entity's ownership interests in the covered fund as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3) of this section (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 248.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), if the banking entity accounts for the profits (or losses) of the fund investment in its financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension of time to divest an ownership interest</I>—(1) <I>Extension period.</I> Upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for up to 2 additional years if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application requirements.</I> An application for extension must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the reasons for application, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Factors governing the Board determinations.</I> In reviewing any application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the permitted investment in a covered fund, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the investment would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date on which the covered fund is expected to have attracted sufficient investments from investors unaffiliated with the banking entity to enable the banking entity to comply with the limitations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total exposure of the covered banking entity to the investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment in the covered fund may pose to the banking entity and the financial stability of the United States;
</P>
<P>(v) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the investment within the applicable period;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the investment or the divestiture or conformance of the investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated parties, including clients, customers, or counterparties to which it owes a duty;
</P>
<P>(vii) The banking entity's prior efforts to reduce through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods its ownership interests in the covered fund, including activities related to the marketing of interests in such covered fund;
</P>
<P>(viii) Market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investment during any extension period.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consultation.</I> In the case of a banking entity that is primarily regulated by another Federal banking agency, the SEC, or the CFTC, the Board will consult with such agency prior to acting on an application by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62136, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46507, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.13   Other permitted covered fund activities and investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) does not apply with respect to an ownership interest in a covered fund acquired or retained by a banking entity that is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks to the banking entity in connection with:
</P>
<P>(i) A compensation arrangement with an employee of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory or other services to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A position taken by the banking entity when acting as intermediary on behalf of a customer that is not itself a banking entity to facilitate the exposure by the customer to the profits and losses of the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity are permitted under this paragraph (a) only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program in accordance with subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or retention of the ownership interest:
</P>
<P>(A) Is made in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedge, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks arising:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Out of a transaction conducted solely to accommodate a specific customer request with respect to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with the compensation arrangement with the employee that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to risk-mitigating hedging activity conducted pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i), the compensation arrangement relates solely to the covered fund in which the banking entity or any affiliate has acquired an ownership interest pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) and such compensation arrangement provides that any losses incurred by the banking entity on such ownership interest will be offset by corresponding decreases in amounts payable under such compensation arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain permitted covered fund activities and investments outside of the United States.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund by a banking entity only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) No ownership interest in the covered fund is offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) An activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The activity or investment is conducted in accordance with the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) An ownership interest in a covered fund is not offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section only if it is not sold and has not been sold pursuant to an offering that targets residents of the United States in which the banking entity or any affiliate of the banking entity participates. If the banking entity or an affiliate sponsors or serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity pool operator or commodity trading advisor to a covered fund, then the banking entity or affiliate will be deemed for purposes of this paragraph (b)(3) to participate in any offer or sale by the covered fund of ownership interests in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(4) An activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity acting as sponsor, or engaging as principal in the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in the covered fund, is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to acquire or retain the ownership interest or act as sponsor to the covered fund is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The investment or sponsorship, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to an ownership interest, is not accounted for as principal directly or indirectly on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank, or any subsidiary thereof, is located in the United States; however, a foreign bank of which that branch, agency, or subsidiary is a part is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operation of the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted covered fund interests and activities by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention by an insurance company, or an affiliate thereof, of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate acquires and retains the ownership interest solely for the general account of the insurance company or for one or more separate accounts established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition and retention of the ownership interest is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws and regulations of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law or regulation described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted covered fund activities and investments of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a) does not apply to a qualifying foreign excluded fund.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity's acquisition of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund by the foreign banking entity meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 248.13(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62136, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46508, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.14   Limitations on relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationships with a covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 248.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 248.11(b) of this subpart, and no affiliate of such entity, may enter into a transaction with the covered fund, or with any other covered fund that is controlled by such covered fund, that would be a covered transaction as defined in section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), as if such banking entity and the affiliate thereof were a member bank and the covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a banking entity may:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquire and retain any ownership interest in a covered fund in accordance with the requirements of § 248.11, § 248.12, or § 248.13;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into any prime brokerage transaction with any covered fund in which a covered fund managed, sponsored, or advised by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) has taken an ownership interest, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is in compliance with each of the limitations set forth in § 248.11 of this subpart with respect to a covered fund organized and offered by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(B) The chief executive officer (or equivalent officer) of the banking entity certifies in writing annually no later than March 31 to the Board (with a duty to update the certification if the information in the certification materially changes) that the banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests; and
</P>
<P>(C) The Board has not determined that such transaction is inconsistent with the safe and sound operation and condition of the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Enter into a transaction with a covered fund that would be an exempt covered transaction under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42) subject to the limitations specified under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42), as applicable,
</P>
<P>(iv) Enter into a riskless principal transaction with a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(v) Extend credit to or purchase assets from a covered fund, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) Each extension of credit or purchase of assets is in the ordinary course of business in connection with payment transactions; settlement services; or futures, derivatives, and securities clearing;
</P>
<P>(B) Each extension of credit is repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of five business days; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity making each extension of credit meets the requirements of § 223.42(l)(1)(i) and (ii) of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42(l)(1)(i) and(ii)), as if the extension of credit was an intraday extension of credit, regardless of the duration of the extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) Any transaction or activity permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(iii), (iv) or (v) must comply with the limitations in § 248.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on transactions with covered funds.</I> A banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, or that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 248.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 248.11(b) of this subpart, shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1), as if such banking entity were a member bank and such covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on other permitted transactions.</I> Any transaction permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1) as if the counterparty were an affiliate of the banking entity under section 23B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62137, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46509, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.15   Other limitations on permitted covered fund activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 248.11 through 248.13 of this subpart if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.16   Ownership of interests in and sponsorship of issuers of certain collateralized debt obligations backed by trust-preferred securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition contained in § 248.10(a)(1) does not apply to the ownership by a banking entity of an interest in, or sponsorship of, any issuer if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer was established, and the interest was issued, before May 19, 2010;
</P>
<P>(2) The banking entity reasonably believes that the offering proceeds received by the issuer were invested primarily in Qualifying TruPS Collateral; and
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity acquired such interest on or before December 10, 2013 (or acquired such interest in connection with a merger with or acquisition of a banking entity that acquired the interest on or before December 10, 2013).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this § 248.16, <I>Qualifying TruPS Collateral</I> shall mean any trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a depository institution holding company that, as of the end of any reporting period within 12 months immediately preceding the issuance of such trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument, had total consolidated assets of less than $15,000,000,000 or issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a banking entity may act as a market maker with respect to the interests of an issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the applicable provisions of §§ 248.4 and 248.11.
</P>
<P>(d) Without limiting the applicability of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board, the FDIC and the OCC will make public a non-exclusive list of issuers that meet the requirements of paragraph (a). A banking entity may rely on the list published by the Board, the FDIC and the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5227, 5228, Jan. 31, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 248.17-248.19" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 248.17-248.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compliance Program Requirement; Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.20   Program for compliance; reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each banking entity (other than a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities or a qualifying foreign excluded fund under § 248.6(f) or § 248.13(d)) shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a compliance program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and covered fund activities and investments set forth in section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. The terms, scope, and detail of the compliance program shall be appropriate for the types, size, scope, and complexity of activities and business structure of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking entities with significant trading assets and liabilities.</I> With respect to a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the compliance program required by paragraph (a) of this section, at a minimum, shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Written policies and procedures reasonably designed to document, describe, monitor and limit trading activities subject to subpart B (including those permitted under §§ 248.3 to 248.6 of subpart B), including setting, monitoring and managing required limits set out in §§ 2484 and 248.5, and activities and investments with respect to a covered fund subject to subpart C (including those permitted under §§ 248.11 through 248.14 of subpart C) conducted by the banking entity to ensure that all activities and investments conducted by the banking entity that are subject to section 13 of the BHC Act and this part comply with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A system of internal controls reasonably designed to monitor compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to prevent the occurrence of activities or investments that are prohibited by section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(3) A management framework that clearly delineates responsibility and accountability for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and includes appropriate management review of trading limits, strategies, hedging activities, investments, incentive compensation and other matters identified in this part or by management as requiring attention;
</P>
<P>(4) Independent testing and audit of the effectiveness of the compliance program conducted periodically by qualified personnel of the banking entity or by a qualified outside party;
</P>
<P>(5) Training for trading personnel and managers, as well as other appropriate personnel, to effectively implement and enforce the compliance program; and
</P>
<P>(6) Records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, which a banking entity must promptly provide to the Board upon request and retain for a period of no less than 5 years or such longer period as required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CEO attestation.</I> The CEO of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must, based on a review by the CEO of the banking entity, attest in writing to the Board, each year no later than March 31, that the banking entity has in place processes to establish, maintain, enforce, review, test and modify the compliance program required by paragraph (b) of this section in a manner reasonably designed to achieve compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. In the case of a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking entity, the attestation may be provided for the entire U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity by the senior management officer of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity who is located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting requirements under appendix A to this part.</I> (1) A banking entity (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 248.6(f) or 248.13(d)) engaged in proprietary trading activity permitted under subpart B shall comply with the reporting requirements described in appendix A to this part, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has significant trading assets and liabilities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board notifies the banking entity in writing that it must satisfy the reporting requirements contained in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Frequency of reporting: Unless the Board notifies the banking entity in writing that it must report on a different basis, a banking entity subject to appendix A to this part shall report the information required by appendix A for each quarter within 30 days of the end of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional documentation for covered funds.</I> A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 248.6(f) or 248.13(d)) shall maintain records that include:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation of the exclusions or exemptions other than sections 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 relied on by each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) in determining that such fund is not a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(2) For each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) for which the banking entity relies on one or more of the exclusions from the definition of covered fund provided by § 248.10(c)(1), 248.10(c)(5), 248.10(c)(8), 248.10(c)(9), or 248.10(c)(10) of subpart C, documentation supporting the banking entity's determination that the fund is not a covered fund pursuant to one or more of those exclusions;
</P>
<P>(3) For each seeding vehicle described in § 248.10(c)(12)(i) or (iii) of subpart C that will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company, a written plan documenting the banking entity's determination that the seeding vehicle will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company; the period of time during which the vehicle will operate as a seeding vehicle; and the banking entity's plan to market the vehicle to third-party investors and convert it into a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company within the time period specified in § 248.12(a)(2)(i)(B) of subpart C;
</P>
<P>(4) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, if the aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds that are described in § 248.10(c)(1) of subpart C owned by such banking entity (including ownership interests owned by any affiliate that is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State) exceeds $50 million at the end of two or more consecutive calendar quarters, beginning with the next succeeding calendar quarter, documentation of the value of the ownership interests owned by the banking entity (and such affiliates) in each foreign public fund and each jurisdiction in which any such foreign public fund is organized, calculated as of the end of each calendar quarter, which documentation must continue until the banking entity's aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds is below $50 million for two consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified programs for less active banking entities</I>—(1) <I>Banking entities with no covered activities.</I> A banking entity that does not engage in activities or investments pursuant to subpart B or subpart C (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a) of subpart B) may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing the required compliance program prior to becoming engaged in such activities or making such investments (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 248.6(a) of subpart B).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banking entities with moderate trading assets and liabilities.</I> A banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements of this section by including in its existing compliance policies and procedures appropriate references to the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and adjustments as appropriate given the activities, size, scope, and complexity of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance for banking entities with limited trading assets and liabilities</I>—(1) <I>Rebuttable presumption.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities shall be presumed to be compliant with subpart B and subpart C of this part and shall have no obligation to demonstrate compliance with this part on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttal of presumption.</I> If upon examination or audit, the Board determines that the banking entity has engaged in proprietary trading or covered fund activities that are otherwise prohibited under subpart B or subpart C of this part, the Board may require the banking entity to be treated under this part as if it did not have limited trading assets and liabilities. The Board's rebuttal of the presumption in this paragraph must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Board retains its authority to require a banking entity without significant trading assets and liabilities to apply any requirements of this part that would otherwise apply if the banking entity had significant or moderate trading assets and liabilities if the Board determines that the size or complexity of the banking entity's trading or investment activities, or the risk of evasion of subpart B or subpart C of this part, does not warrant a presumption of compliance under paragraph (g) of this section or treatment as a banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities, as applicable. The Board's exercise of this reservation of authority must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice and response procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The Board will notify the banking entity in writing of any determination requiring notice under this part and will provide an explanation of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response.</I> The banking entity may respond to any or all items in the notice described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section. The response should include any matters that the banking entity would have the Board consider in deciding whether to make the determination. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated Board official within 30 days after the date on which the banking entity received the notice. The Board may shorten the time period when, in the opinion of the Board, the activities or condition of the banking entity so requires, provided that the banking entity is informed of the time period at the time of notice, or with the consent of the banking entity. In its discretion, the Board may extend the time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver.</I> Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the Board shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the Board's determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision.</I> The Board will notify the banking entity of the decision in writing. The notice will include an explanation of the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5779, 5804, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62137, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46509, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 248.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 248.21   Termination of activities or investments; penalties for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any banking entity that engages in an activity or makes an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or acts in a manner that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, including through an abuse of any activity or investment permitted under subparts B or C, or otherwise violates the restrictions and requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, shall, upon discovery, promptly terminate the activity and, as relevant, dispose of the investment.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the Board finds reasonable cause to believe any banking entity has engaged in an activity or made an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or engaged in any activity or made any investment that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, the Board may take any action permitted by law to enforce compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, including directing the banking entity to restrict, limit, or terminate any or all activities under this part and dispose of any investment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.16.6.1.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 248—Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements for Covered Trading Activities
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>a. This appendix sets forth reporting and recordkeeping requirements that certain banking entities must satisfy in connection with the restrictions on proprietary trading set forth in subpart B (“proprietary trading restrictions”). Pursuant to § 248.20(d), this appendix applies to a banking entity that, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, has significant trading assets and liabilities. These entities are required to (i) furnish periodic reports to the Board regarding a variety of quantitative measurements of their covered trading activities, which vary depending on the scope and size of covered trading activities, and (ii) create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports. The requirements of this appendix must be incorporated into the banking entity's internal compliance program under § 248.20.
</P>
<P>b. The purpose of this appendix is to assist banking entities and the Board in:
</P>
<P>(1) Better understanding and evaluating the scope, type, and profile of the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Identifying covered trading activities that warrant further review or examination by the banking entity to verify compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions;
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks engaged in market making-related activities subject to § 248.4(b) are consistent with the requirements governing permitted market making-related activities;
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks that are engaged in permitted trading activity subject to § 248.4, 248.5, or 248.6(a)-(b) (<I>i.e.,</I> underwriting and market making-related activity, risk-mitigating hedging, or trading in certain government obligations) are consistent with the requirement that such activity not result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(6) Identifying the profile of particular covered trading activities of the banking entity, and the individual trading desks of the banking entity, to help establish the appropriate frequency and scope of examination by Board of such activities; and
</P>
<P>(7) Assessing and addressing the risks associated with the banking entity's covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>c. Information that must be furnished pursuant to this appendix is not intended to serve as a dispositive tool for the identification of permissible or impermissible activities.
</P>
<P>d. In addition to the quantitative measurements required in this appendix, a banking entity may need to develop and implement other quantitative measurements in order to effectively monitor its covered trading activities for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to have an effective compliance program, as required by § 248.20. The effectiveness of particular quantitative measurements may differ based on the profile of the banking entity's businesses in general and, more specifically, of the particular trading desk, including types of instruments traded, trading activities and strategies, and history and experience (e.g., whether the trading desk is an established, successful market maker or a new entrant to a competitive market). In all cases, banking entities must ensure that they have robust measures in place to identify and monitor the risks taken in their trading activities, to ensure that the activities are within risk tolerances established by the banking entity, and to monitor and examine for compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions in this part.
</P>
<P>e. On an ongoing basis, banking entities must carefully monitor, review, and evaluate all furnished quantitative measurements, as well as any others that they choose to utilize in order to maintain compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. All measurement results that indicate a heightened risk of impermissible proprietary trading, including with respect to otherwise-permitted activities under § 248.4 through 248.6(a)-(b), or that result in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies, must be escalated within the banking entity for review, further analysis, explanation to Board, and remediation, where appropriate. The quantitative measurements discussed in this appendix should be helpful to banking entities in identifying and managing the risks related to their covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>The terms used in this appendix have the same meanings as set forth in § 248.2 and § 248.3. In addition, for purposes of this appendix, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Applicability</I> identifies the trading desks for which a banking entity is required to calculate and report a particular quantitative measurement based on the type of covered trading activity conducted by the trading desk.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation period</I> means the period of time for which a particular quantitative measurement must be calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Comprehensive profit</I> and loss means the net profit or loss of a trading desk's material sources of trading revenue over a specific period of time, including, for example, any increase or decrease in the market value of a trading desk's holdings, dividend income, and interest income and expense.
</P>
<P><I>Covered trading activity</I> means trading conducted by a trading desk under § 248.4, § 248.5, § 248.6(a), or § 248.6(b). A banking entity may include in its covered trading activity trading conducted under § 248.3(d), § 248.6(c), § 248.6(d) or § 248.6(e).
</P>
<P><I>Measurement frequency</I> means the frequency with which a particular quantitative metric must be calculated and recorded.
</P>
<P><I>Trading day</I> means a calendar day on which a trading desk is open for trading.
</P>
<HD1>III. Reporting and Recordkeeping
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Scope of Required Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. Quantitative measurements. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 must furnish the following quantitative measurements, as applicable, for each trading desk of the banking entity engaged in covered trading activities and calculate these quantitative measurements in accordance with this appendix:
</P>
<P>i. Internal Limits and Usage;
</P>
<P>ii. Value-at-Risk;
</P>
<P>iii. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution;
</P>
<P>iv. Positions; and
</P>
<P>v. Transaction Volumes.
</P>
<P>2. Trading desk information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 must provide certain descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>3. Quantitative measurements identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 must provide certain identifying and descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding its quantitative measurements.
</P>
<P>4. Narrative statement. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 may provide an optional narrative statement, as further described in this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. File identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 must provide file identifying information in each submission to the Board pursuant to this appendix, including the name of the banking entity, the RSSD ID assigned to the top-tier banking entity by the Board, and identification of the reporting period and creation date and time.
</P>
<HD2>b. Trading Desk Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Each banking entity must provide descriptive information regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities, including:
</P>
<P>i. Name of the trading desk used internally by the banking entity and a unique identification label for the trading desk;
</P>
<P>ii. Identification of each type of covered trading activity in which the trading desk is engaged;
</P>
<P>iii. Brief description of the general strategy of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>v. A list identifying each Agency receiving the submission of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>2. Indication of whether each calendar date is a trading day or not a trading day for the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>3. Currency reported and daily currency conversion rate.
</P>
<HD2>c. Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity must provide the following information regarding the quantitative measurements:
</P>
<P>1. An Internal Limits Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each limit reported pursuant to the Internal Limits and Usage quantitative measurement, including the name of the limit, a unique identification label for the limit, a description of the limit, the unit of measurement for the limit, the type of limit, and identification of the corresponding risk factor attribution in the particular case that the limit type is a limit on a risk factor sensitivity and profit and loss attribution to the same risk factor is reported; and
</P>
<P>2. A Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each risk factor attribution reported pursuant to the Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution quantitative measurement, including the name of the risk factor or other factor, a unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor, a description of the risk factor or other factor, and the risk factor or other factor's change unit.
</P>
<HD2>d. Narrative Statement
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 248.20 may submit in a separate electronic document a Narrative Statement to the Board with any information the banking entity views as relevant for assessing the information reported. The Narrative Statement may include further description of or changes to calculation methods, identification of material events, description of and reasons for changes in the banking entity's trading desk structure or trading desk strategies, and when any such changes occurred.
</P>
<HD2>e. Frequency and Method of Required Calculation and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must calculate any applicable quantitative measurement for each trading day. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement electronically to the Board on the reporting schedule established in § 248.20 unless otherwise requested by the Board. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement to the Board in accordance with the XML Schema specified and published on the Board's website.
</P>
<HD2>f. Recordkeeping
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must, for any quantitative measurement furnished to the Board pursuant to this appendix and § 248.20(d), create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports, as well as such information as is necessary to permit the Board to verify the accuracy of such reports, for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the measurement was taken. A banking entity must retain the Narrative Statement, the Trading Desk Information, and the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the information was reported to the Board.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Quantitative Measurements
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Risk-Management Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Internal Limits and Usage
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Internal Limits are the constraints that define the amount of risk and the positions that a trading desk is permitted to take at a point in time, as defined by the banking entity for a specific trading desk. Usage represents the value of the trading desk's risk or positions that are accounted for by the current activity of the desk. Internal limits and their usage are key compliance and risk management tools used to control and monitor risk taking and include, but are not limited to, the limits set out in §§ 248.4 and 248.5. A trading desk's risk limits, commonly including a limit on “Value-at-Risk,” are useful in the broader context of the trading desk's overall activities, particularly for the market making activities under § 248.4(b) and hedging activity under § 248.5. Accordingly, the limits required under §§ 248.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 248.5(b)(1)(i)(A) must meet the applicable requirements under §§ 248.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 248.5(b)(1)(i)(A) and also must include appropriate metrics for the trading desk limits including, at a minimum, “Value-at-Risk” except to the extent the “Value-at-Risk” metric is demonstrably ineffective for measuring and monitoring the risks of a trading desk based on the types of positions traded by, and risk exposures of, that desk.
</P>
<P>A. A banking entity must provide the following information for each limit reported pursuant to this quantitative measurement: The unique identification label for the limit reported in the Internal Limits Information Schedule, the limit size (distinguishing between an upper and a lower limit), and the value of usage of the limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD3>2. Value-at-Risk
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Value-at-Risk (“VaR”) is the measurement of the risk of future financial loss in the value of a trading desk's aggregated positions at the ninety-nine percent confidence level over a one-day period, based on current market conditions.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>b. Source-of-Revenue Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution is an analysis that attributes the daily fluctuation in the value of a trading desk's positions to various sources. First, the daily profit and loss of the aggregated positions is divided into two categories: (i) Profit and loss attributable to a trading desk's existing positions that were also positions held by the trading desk as of the end of the prior day (“existing positions”); and (ii) profit and loss attributable to new positions resulting from the current day's trading activity (“new positions”).
</P>
<P>A. The comprehensive profit and loss associated with existing positions must reflect changes in the value of these positions on the applicable day. The comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions must be further attributed, as applicable, to (i) changes in the specific risk factors and other factors that are monitored and managed as part of the trading desk's overall risk management policies and procedures; and (ii) any other applicable elements, such as cash flows, carry, changes in reserves, and the correction, cancellation, or exercise of a trade.
</P>
<P>B. For the attribution of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions to specific risk factors and other factors, a banking entity must provide the following information for the factors that explain the preponderance of the profit or loss changes due to risk factor changes: The unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor listed in the Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule, and the profit or loss due to the risk factor or other factor change.
</P>
<P>C. The comprehensive profit and loss attributed to new positions must reflect commissions and fee income or expense and market gains or losses associated with transactions executed on the applicable day. New positions include purchases and sales of financial instruments and other assets/liabilities and negotiated amendments to existing positions. The comprehensive profit and loss from new positions may be reported in the aggregate and does not need to be further attributed to specific sources.
</P>
<P>D. The portion of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions that is not attributed to changes in specific risk factors and other factors must be allocated to a residual category. Significant unexplained profit and loss must be escalated for further investigation and analysis.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Positions and Transaction Volumes Measurements</I>
</P>
<HD3>1. Positions
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Positions is the value of securities and derivatives positions managed by the trading desk. For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, do not include in the Positions calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> A banking entity must separately report the trading desk's market value of long securities positions, short securities positions, derivatives receivables, and derivatives payables.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> § 248.2(h), (aa). For example, under this part, a security-based swap is both a “security” and a “derivative.” For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, security-based swaps are reported as derivatives rather than securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 248.4(a) or § 248.4(b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<HD3>2. Transaction Volumes
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Transaction Volumes measures three exclusive categories of covered trading activity conducted by a trading desk. A banking entity is required to report the value and number of security and derivative transactions conducted by the trading desk with: (i) Customers, excluding internal transactions; (ii) non-customers, excluding internal transactions; and (iii) trading desks and other organizational units where the transaction is booked into either the same banking entity or an affiliated banking entity. For securities, value means gross market value. For derivatives, value means gross notional value. For purposes of calculating the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, do not include in the Transaction Volumes calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Further, for purposes of the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 248.4(a) to conduct underwriting activity is a market participant identified in § 248.4(a)(7), and a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 248.4(b) to conduct market making-related activity is a market participant identified in § 248.4(b)(3).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>See</I> § 248.2(h), (aa).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 248.4(a) or § 248.4(b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62138, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="249" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 249—LIQUIDITY RISK MEASUREMENT, STANDARDS, AND MONITORING (REGULATION WW)








</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(a), 321-38a, 481-486, 1467a(g)(1), 1818, 1828, 1831p-1, 1831o-1, 1844(b), 5365, 5366, 5368; 12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 249 appear at 79 FR 61539, Oct. 10, 2014.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes a minimum liquidity standard and a minimum stable funding standard for certain Board-regulated institutions on a consolidated basis, as set forth herein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution is subject to the minimum liquidity standard and a minimum stable funding standard, and other requirements of this part if:
</P>
<P>(i) It is a:
</P>
<P>(A) Global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(B) GSIB depository institution;
</P>
<P>(C) Category II Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(D) Category III Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(E) Category IV Board-regulated institution with $50 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding;
</P>
<P>(ii) It is a covered nonbank company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board has determined that application of this part is appropriate in light of the Board-regulated institution's asset size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, affiliation with foreign or domestic covered entities, or risk to the financial system.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A bridge financial company as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(3), or a subsidiary of a bridge financial company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A new depository institution or a bridge depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(i).
</P>
<P>(3) In making a determination under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, the Board will apply, as appropriate, notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures set forth in 12 CFR 263.202.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered nonbank companies.</I> The Board will establish a minimum liquidity standard and minimum stable funding standard and other requirements for a designated company under this part by rule or order. In establishing such standards, the Board will consider the factors set forth in sections 165(a)(2) and (b)(3) of the Dodd-Frank Act and may tailor the application of the requirements of this part to the designated company based on the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, mix of the activities of the designated company, or any other risk-related factor that the Board determines is appropriate.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9210, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.2   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may require a Board-regulated institution to hold an amount of high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the Board-regulated institution's liquidity risk profile, if the Board determines that the Board-regulated institution's liquidity requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the Board-regulated institution's liquidity risks. In making determinations under this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 263.202.


</P>
<P>(b) The Board may require a Board-regulated institution to maintain an amount of available stable funding greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the Board-regulated institution's stable funding, if the Board determines that the Board-regulated institution's stable funding requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the Board-regulated institution's funding risks. In making determinations under this section, the Board will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 263.202.


</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient liquidity levels, deficient stable funding levels, or violations of law.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9211, Feb. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated depository institution</I> means with respect to a Board-regulated institution that is a depository institution, another depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company of which the Board-regulated institution is also a consolidated subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Asset exchange</I> means a transaction in which, as of the calculation date, the counterparties have previously exchanged non-cash assets, and have each agreed to return such assets to each other at a future date. Asset exchanges do not include secured funding and secured lending transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Average weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> means the average of the weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-15 or, if the Board-regulated institution has not filed the FR Y-15 for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or averaged over the most recent quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> is defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Board-regulated institution</I> means a state member bank, covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company.




</P>
<P><I>Brokered deposit</I> means any deposit held at the Board-regulated institution that is obtained, directly or indirectly, from or through the mediation or assistance of a deposit broker as that term is defined in section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's regulations.




</P>
<P><I>Brokered reciprocal deposit</I> means a brokered deposit that a Board-regulated institution receives through a deposit placement network on a reciprocal basis, such that:
</P>
<P>(1) For any deposit received, the Board-regulated institution (as agent for the depositors) places the same amount with other depository institutions through the network; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each member of the network sets the interest rate to be paid on the entire amount of funds it places with other network members.










</P>
<P><I>Calculation date</I> means, for subparts B through J of this part, any date on which a Board-regulated institution calculates its liquidity coverage ratio under § 249.10, and for subparts K through N of this part, any date on which a Board-regulated institution calculates its net stable funding ratio under § 249.100.




</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.


</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, NSFR regulatory capital element, or NSFR liability, the value on the balance sheet of the Board-regulated institution, each as determined in accordance with GAAP.




</P>
<P><I>Category II Board-regulated institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered depository institution holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A state member bank that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (4)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) That has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (3), a state member bank continues to be a Category II Board-regulated institution until the state member bank has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the state member bank is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of a company described in paragraph (3)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) A state member bank that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (4)(i) and (ii) of this definition, a state member bank continues to be a Category II Board-regulated institution until the state member bank:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form;
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Category III Board-regulated institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered depository institution holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A state member bank that is:
</P>
<P>(A) A consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (4)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the state member bank's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the state member bank has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (3), a state member bank continues to be a Category III Board-regulated institution until the state member bank has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the state member bank is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of a company described in paragraph (3)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) A state member bank that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets in the four most recent quarters as reported on the most recent Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets in the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the most recent Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least one of the following in paragraphs (4)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each measured as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters, or if the depository institution has not filed the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, Call Report, or FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report, equal to $75 billion or more; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (4)(i) and (ii) of this definition, a state member bank continues to be a Category III Board-regulated institution until the state member bank:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is a state member bank's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the state member bank, as reported on the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Has less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(D) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Category IV Board-regulated institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered depository institution holding company that is identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Client pool security</I> means a security that is owned by a customer of the Board-regulated institution that is not an asset of the Board-regulated institution, regardless of a Board-regulated institution's hypothecation rights with respect to the security.


</P>
<P><I>Collateralized deposit</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of a public sector entity held at the Board-regulated institution that is required to be secured under applicable law by a lien on assets owned by the Board-regulated institution and that gives the depositor, as holder of the lien, priority over the assets in the event the Board-regulated institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the Board-regulated institution for which the Board-regulated institution is a fiduciary and is required under 12 CFR 9.10(b) (national banks), 12 CFR 150.300 through 150.320 (Federal savings associations), or applicable state law (state member and nonmember banks, and state savings associations) to set aside assets owned by the Board-regulated institution as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the Board-regulated institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the Board-regulated institution for which the Board-regulated institution's affiliated insured depository institution is a fiduciary and where the Board-regulated institution under 12 CFR 9.10(c) (national banks), 12 CFR 150.310 (Federal savings associations), or applicable state law (state member and nonmember banks, state savings associations) has set aside assets owned by the Board-regulated institution as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the Board-regulated institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.






</P>
<P><I>Committed</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that under the terms of the facility, it is not unconditionally cancelable.




</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated subsidiary</I> means a company that is consolidated on the balance sheet of a Board-regulated institution or other company under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company or a Board-regulated institution, a consolidated subsidiary or a company that otherwise meets the definition of “subsidiary” in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P><I>Covered depository institution holding company</I> means a top-tier bank holding company or savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(A) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(4) A U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding</I> means a non-recourse loan that is extended as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility or Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility authorized by the Board pursuant to section 13(3) of the Federal Reserve Act.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility was authorized on March 18, 2020, and the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility was authorized on April 6, 2020.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Covered nonbank company</I> means a designated company that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has required by separate rule or order to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 249.




</P>
<P><I>Credit facility</I> means a legally binding agreement to extend funds if requested at a future date, including a general working capital facility such as a revolving credit facility for general corporate or working capital purposes. A credit facility does not include a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. <I>See liquidity facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Customer short position</I> means a legally binding written agreement pursuant to which the customer must deliver to the Board-regulated institution a non-cash asset that the customer has already sold.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit</I> means “deposit” as defined in section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>)) or an equivalent liability of the Board-regulated institution in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> is defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit insurance</I> means deposit insurance provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Derivative transaction</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, forward contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign currency exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days. A derivative does not include any identified banking product, as that term is defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Designated company</I> means a company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible HQLA</I> means a high-quality liquid asset that meets the requirements set forth in § 249.22.


</P>
<P><I>Encumbered</I> means, with respect to an asset, that the asset:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restriction on the ability of the Board-regulated institution to monetize the asset; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is pledged, explicitly or implicitly, to secure or to provide credit enhancement to any transaction, not including when the asset is pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise where:
</P>
<P>(i) Potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended to the Board-regulated institution or its consolidated subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pledged asset is not required to support access to the payment services of a central bank.


</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> means fair value as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Financial sector entity</I> means an investment adviser, investment company, pension fund, non-regulated fund, regulated financial company, or identified company.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign withdrawable reserves</I> means a Board-regulated institution's balances held by or on behalf of the Board-regulated institution at a foreign central bank that are not subject to restrictions on the Board-regulated institution's ability to use the reserves.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
</P>
<P><I>GSIB depository institution</I> means a depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC and has total consolidated assets equal to $10 billion or more, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent calendar quarter or the average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this definition, a depository institution continues to be a GSIB depository institution until the depository institution has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the depository institution is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P><I>High-quality liquid asset (HQLA)</I> means an asset that is a level 1 liquid asset, level 2A liquid asset, or level 2B liquid asset, in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 249.20.
</P>
<P><I>HQLA amount</I> means the HQLA amount as calculated under § 249.21.
</P>
<P><I>Identified company</I> means any company that the Board has determined should be treated for the purposes of this part the same as a regulated financial company, investment company, non-regulated fund, pension fund, or investment adviser, based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operations to those entities.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person, and does not include a sole proprietorship.
</P>
<P><I>Investment adviser</I> means a company registered with the SEC as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such company.
</P>
<P><I>Investment company</I> means a person or company registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such persons or companies.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid and readily-marketable</I> means, with respect to a security, that the security is traded in an active secondary market with:
</P>
<P>(1) More than two committed market makers;
</P>
<P>(2) A large number of non-market maker participants on both the buying and selling sides of transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) Timely and observable market prices; and
</P>
<P>(4) A high trading volume.
</P>
<P><I>Liquidity facility</I> means a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. A liquidity facility includes an agreement to provide liquidity support to asset-backed commercial paper by lending to, or purchasing assets from, any structure, program or conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing asset-backed commercial paper. Liquidity facilities exclude facilities that are established solely for the purpose of general working capital, such as revolving credit facilities for general corporate or working capital purposes. If a facility has characteristics of both credit and liquidity facilities, the facility must be classified as a liquidity facility. <I>See credit facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the Board determines poses comparable risk.
</P>
<P><I>Municipal obligation</I> means an obligation of:
</P>
<P>(1) A state or any political subdivision thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any agency or instrumentality of a state or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Non-regulated fund</I> means any hedge fund or private equity fund whose investment adviser is required to file SEC Form PF (Reporting Form for Investment Advisers to Private Funds and Certain Commodity Pool Operators and Commodity Trading Advisors), other than a small business investment company as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Nonperforming exposure</I> means an exposure that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.


</P>
<P><I>NSFR liability</I> means any liability or equity reported on a Board-regulated institution's balance sheet that is not an NSFR regulatory capital element.


</P>
<P><I>NSFR regulatory capital element</I> means any capital element included in a Board-regulated institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, and tier 2 capital, in each case as defined in § 217.20 of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217), prior to application of capital adjustments or deductions as set forth in § 217.22 of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217), excluding any debt or equity instrument that does not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in § 217.22 of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) and is being phased out of tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital pursuant to subpart G of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217).




</P>
<P><I>Operational deposit</I> means short-term unsecured wholesale funding that is a deposit, unsecured wholesale lending that is a deposit, or a collateralized deposit, in each case that meets the requirements of § 249.4(b) with respect to that deposit and is necessary for the provision of operational services as an independent third-party intermediary, agent, or administrator to the wholesale customer or counterparty providing the deposit.




</P>
<P><I>Operational services</I> means the following services, provided they are performed as part of cash management, clearing, or custody services:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment remittance;
</P>
<P>(2) Administration of payments and cash flows related to the safekeeping of investment assets, not including the purchase or sale of assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Payroll administration and control over the disbursement of funds;
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission, reconciliation, and confirmation of payment orders;
</P>
<P>(5) Daylight overdraft;
</P>
<P>(6) Determination of intra-day and final settlement positions;
</P>
<P>(7) Settlement of securities transactions;
</P>
<P>(8) Transfer of capital distributions and recurring contractual payments;
</P>
<P>(9) Customer subscriptions and redemptions;
</P>
<P>(10) Scheduled distribution of customer funds;
</P>
<P>(11) Escrow, funds transfer, stock transfer, and agency services, including payment and settlement services, payment of fees, taxes, and other expenses; and
</P>
<P>(12) Collection and aggregation of funds.
</P>
<P><I>Pension fund</I> means an employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the U.S. sovereign entity level.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly traded</I> means, with respect to an equity security, that the equity security is traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the security in question.


</P>
<P><I>QMNA netting set</I> means a group of derivative transactions with a single counterparty that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and is netted under the qualifying master netting agreement.




</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the Board-regulated institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The Board expects to evaluate jointly with the OCC and Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of subpart I of the Board's Regulation YY (part 252 of this chapter), part 47 of this title, or part 382 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution holding company or designated company;
</P>
<P>(2) A company included in the organization chart of a depository institution holding company on the Form FR Y-6, as listed in the hierarchy report of the depository institution holding company produced by the National Information Center (NIC) website,
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> provided that the top-tier depository institution holding company is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/nicpubweb/nicweb/NicHome.aspx.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); national bank, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution;
</P>
<P>(4) An insurance company;
</P>
<P>(5) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o); futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a); swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a); or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c);
</P>
<P>(6) A designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462);
</P>
<P>(7) A U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any company not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this definition (<I>e.g.,</I> a foreign banking organization, foreign insurance company, foreign securities broker or dealer or foreign financial market utility).
</P>
<P>(9) A regulated financial company does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. government-sponsored enterprises;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Central banks, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or multilateral development banks.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve Bank balances</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Balances held in a master account of the Board-regulated institution at a Federal Reserve Bank, less any balances that are attributable to any respondent of the Board-regulated institution if the Board-regulated institution is a correspondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(l));
</P>
<P>(2) Balances held in a master account of a correspondent of the Board-regulated institution that are attributable to the Board-regulated institution if the Board-regulated institution is a respondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D;
</P>
<P>(3) “Excess balances” of the Board-regulated institution as defined in section 204.2(z) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(z)) that are maintained in an “excess balance account” as defined in section 204.2(aa) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(aa)) if the Board-regulated institution is an excess balance account participant; or
</P>
<P>(4) “Term deposits” of the Board-regulated institution as defined in section 204.2(dd) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(dd)) if such term deposits are offered and maintained pursuant to terms and conditions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly and contractually permit such term deposits to be withdrawn upon demand prior to the expiration of the term, or that
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit such term deposits to be pledged as collateral for term or automatically-renewing overnight advances from the Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A business customer, but solely if and to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution manages its transactions with the business customer, including deposits, unsecured funding, and credit facility and liquidity facility transactions, in the same way it manages its transactions with individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transactions with the business customer have liquidity risk characteristics that are similar to comparable transactions with individuals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total aggregate funding raised from the business customer is less than $1.5 million; or
</P>
<P>(3) A living or testamentary trust that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is solely for the benefit of natural persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not have a corporate trustee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years, if applicable under state law.
</P>
<P><I>Retail deposit</I> means a demand or term deposit that is placed with the Board-regulated institution by a retail customer or counterparty, other than a brokered deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Retail mortgage</I> means a mortgage that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.


</P>
<P><I>Secured funding transaction</I> means any funding transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of the Board-regulated institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the Board-regulated institution, which gives the wholesale customer or counterparty, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the Board-regulated institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured funding transactions include repurchase transactions, securities lending transactions, other secured loans, and borrowings from a Federal Reserve Bank. Secured funding transactions do not include securities.




</P>
<P><I>Secured lending transaction</I> means any lending transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the Board-regulated institution that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the wholesale customer or counterparty, which gives the Board-regulated institution, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the counterparty enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured lending transactions include reverse repurchase transactions and securities borrowing transactions. Secured lending transactions do not include securities.




</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose entity</I> means a company organized for a specific purpose, the activities of which are significantly limited to those appropriate to accomplish a specific purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the credit risk of the special purpose entity.
</P>
<P><I>Stable retail deposit</I> means a retail deposit that is entirely covered by deposit insurance and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held by the depositor in a transactional account; or
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor that holds the account has another established relationship with the Board-regulated institution such as another deposit account, a loan, bill payment services, or any similar service or product provided to the depositor that the Board-regulated institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board would make deposit withdrawal highly unlikely during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State member bank</I> means a state bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Structured security</I> means a security whose cash flow characteristics depend upon one or more indices or that has embedded forwards, options, or other derivatives or a security where an investor's investment return and the issuer's payment obligations are contingent on, or highly sensitive to, changes in the value of underlying assets, indices, interest rates, or cash flows.
</P>
<P><I>Structured transaction</I> means a secured transaction in which repayment of obligations and other exposures to the transaction is largely derived, directly or indirectly, from the cash flow generated by the pool of assets that secures the obligations and other exposures to the transaction.


</P>
<P><I>Sweep deposit</I> means a deposit held at the Board-regulated institution by a customer or counterparty through a contractual feature that automatically transfers to the Board-regulated institution from another regulated financial company at the close of each business day amounts identified under the agreement governing the account from which the amount is being transferred.




</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the Federal government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress, but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a top-tier company that is required to be established pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153.


</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that a Board-regulated institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the facility (to the extent permitted under applicable law).






</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale funding</I> means a liability or general obligation of the Board-regulated institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a secured funding transaction. Unsecured wholesale funding includes wholesale deposits. Unsecured wholesale funding does not include asset exchanges.


</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale lending</I> means a liability or general obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the Board-regulated institution that is not a secured lending transaction or a security. Unsecured wholesale lending does not include asset exchanges.




</P>
<P><I>Wholesale customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is not a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale deposit means</I> a demand or term deposit that is provided by a wholesale customer or counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 78296, Dec. 30, 2014; 81 FR 21232, Apr. 11, 2016; 82 FR 42919, Sept. 12, 2017; 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018; 84 FR 59272, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020; 86 FR 9211, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.4   Certain operational requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying master netting agreements.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 249.3, a Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 249.3; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding) the relevant judicial and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 249.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational deposits.</I> In order to recognize a deposit as an operational deposit as defined in § 249.3:
</P>
<P>(1) The related operational services must be performed pursuant to a legally binding written agreement, and:
</P>
<P>(i) The termination of the agreement must be subject to a minimum 30 calendar-day notice period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As a result of termination of the agreement or transfer of services to a third-party provider, the customer providing the deposit would incur significant contractual termination costs or switching costs (switching costs include significant technology, administrative, and legal service costs incurred in connection with the transfer of the operational services to a third-party provider);
</P>
<P>(2) The deposit must be held in an account designated as an operational account;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer must hold the deposit at the Board-regulated institution for the primary purpose of obtaining the operational services provided by the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(4) The deposit account must not be designed to create an economic incentive for the customer to maintain excess funds therein through increased revenue, reduction in fees, or other offered economic incentives;
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must demonstrate that the deposit is empirically linked to the operational services and that it has a methodology that takes into account the volatility of the average balance for identifying any excess amount, which must be excluded from the operational deposit amount;
</P>
<P>(6) The deposit must not be provided in connection with the Board-regulated institution's provision of prime brokerage services, which, for the purposes of this part, are a package of services offered by the Board-regulated institution whereby the Board-regulated institution, among other services, executes, clears, settles, and finances transactions entered into by the customer or a third-party entity on behalf of the customer (such as an executing broker), and where the Board-regulated institution has a right to use or rehypothecate assets provided by the customer, including in connection with the extension of margin and other similar financing of the customer, subject to applicable law, and includes operational services provided to a non-regulated fund; and
</P>
<P>(7) The deposits must not be for arrangements in which the Board-regulated institution (as correspondent) holds deposits owned by another depository institution bank (as respondent) and the respondent temporarily places excess funds in an overnight deposit with the Board-regulated institution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Liquidity Coverage Ratio</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.10   Liquidity coverage ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum liquidity coverage ratio requirement.</I> Subject to the transition provisions in subpart F of this part, a Board-regulated institution must calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on each business day (or, in the case of a Category IV Board-regulated institution, on the last business day of the applicable month) in accordance with this part. A Board-regulated institution must calculate its liquidity coverage ratio as of the same time on each calculation date (the elected calculation time). The Board-regulated institution must select this time by written notice to the Board prior to December 31, 2019. The Board-regulated institution may not thereafter change its elected calculation time without prior written approval from the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition from monthly calculation to daily calculation.</I> A Board-regulated institution that was a Category IV Board-regulated institution immediately prior to moving to a different category must begin calculating and maintaining a liquidity coverage ratio each business day beginning on the first day of the fifth quarter after becoming a Category I Board-regulated institution, Category II Board-regulated institution, or Category III Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the liquidity coverage ratio.</I> A Board-regulated institution's liquidity coverage ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's HQLA amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart C of this part; <I>divided by</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's total net cash outflow amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59275, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—High-Quality Liquid Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.20   High-quality liquid asset criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 1 liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 1 liquid asset if it is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) Reserve Bank balances;
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign withdrawable reserves;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of the Treasury) whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, provided that the security is liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(5) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, European Community, or a multilateral development bank, that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity; or
</P>
<P>(6) A security issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217), where the sovereign entity issues the security in its own currency, the security is liquid and readily-marketable, and the Board-regulated institution holds the security in order to meet its net cash outflows in the jurisdiction of the sovereign entity, as calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Level 2A liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2A liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A security issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date, provided that the claim is senior to preferred stock; or
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity or multilateral development bank that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not included in level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 10 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 10 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity, and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Level 2B liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2B liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A corporate debt security that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 20 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 20 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity; 
</P>
<P>(2) A publicly traded common equity share that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Russell 1000 Index; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a Board-regulated institution's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including equity shares in level 2B liquid assets under applicable regulatory policy, if the share is held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued in:
</P>
<P>(A) U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) The currency of a jurisdiction where the Board-regulated institution operates and the Board-regulated institution holds the common equity share in order to cover its net cash outflows in that jurisdiction, as calculated under subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued by an entity whose publicly traded common equity shares have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 40 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to securities borrowing and lending transactions that are collateralized by the publicly traded common equity shares or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 40 percentage points, during a 30 calendar day period of significant stress;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not issued by a financial sector entity and not issued by a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity;
</P>
<P>(v) If held by a depository institution, is not acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted (DPC); and
</P>
<P>(vi) If held by a consolidated subsidiary of a depository institution, the depository institution can include the publicly traded common equity share in its level 2B liquid assets only if the share is held to cover net cash outflows of the depository institution's consolidated subsidiary in which the publicly traded common equity share is held, as calculated by the Board-regulated institution under subpart D of this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal obligation that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 21232, Apr. 11, 2016; 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.21   High-quality liquid asset amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of the HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, a Board-regulated institution's HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 1 liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2A liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(3) The level 2B liquid asset amount; minus
</P>
<P>(4) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The unadjusted excess HQLA amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The adjusted excess HQLA amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> The level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets held by the Board-regulated institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA, less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets held by the Board-regulated institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets held by the Board-regulated institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the unadjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the unadjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of the level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2A liquid asset amount plus the level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of the level 2B cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2B excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2B liquid asset amount minus the level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the level 1 liquid asset amount and the level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of adjusted liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the Board-regulated institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the Board-regulated institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA; less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the Board-regulated institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the Board-regulated institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the Board-regulated institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the Board-regulated institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Calculation of the adjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The adjusted level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount plus the adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2B excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2B excess liquid asset amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount and the adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 21232, Apr. 11, 2016; 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.22   Requirements for eligible high-quality liquid assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational requirements for eligible HQLA.</I> With respect to each asset that is eligible for inclusion in a Board-regulated institution's HQLA amount, a Board-regulated institution must meet all of the following operational requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution must demonstrate the operational capability to monetize the HQLA by:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementing and maintaining appropriate procedures and systems to monetize any HQLA at any time in accordance with relevant standard settlement periods and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodically monetizing a sample of HQLA that reasonably reflects the composition of the Board-regulated institution's eligible HQLA, including with respect to asset type, maturity, and counterparty characteristics;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution must implement policies that require eligible HQLA to be under the control of the management function in the Board-regulated institution that is charged with managing liquidity risk, and this management function must evidence its control over the HQLA by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Segregating the HQLA from other assets, with the sole intent to use the HQLA as a source of liquidity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrating the ability to monetize the assets and making the proceeds available to the liquidity management function without conflicting with a business or risk management strategy of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(3) The fair value of the eligible HQLA must be reduced by the outflow amount that would result from the termination of any specific transaction hedging eligible HQLA;
</P>
<P>(4) The Board-regulated institution must implement and maintain policies and procedures that determine the composition of its eligible HQLA on each calculation date, by:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying its eligible HQLA by legal entity, geographical location, currency, account, or other relevant identifying factors as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining that eligible HQLA meet the criteria set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring the appropriate diversification of the eligible HQLA by asset type, counterparty, issuer, currency, borrowing capacity, or other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets; and
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must have a documented methodology that results in a consistent treatment for determining that the Board-regulated institution's eligible HQLA meet the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Generally applicable criteria for eligible HQLA.</I> A Board-regulated institution's eligible HQLA must meet all of the following criteria:


</P>
<P>(1) The assets are not encumbered.






</P>
<P>(2) The asset is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A client pool security held in a segregated account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An asset received from a secured funding transaction involving client pool securities that were held in a segregated account;
</P>
<P>(3) For eligible HQLA held in a legal entity that is a U.S. consolidated subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution:
</P>
<P>(i) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, 12 CFR part 50, or 12 CFR part 329, the Board-regulated institution may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary calculated by the U.S. consolidated subsidiary for its own minimum liquidity standard under this part, 12 CFR part 50, or 12 CFR part 329; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier Board-regulated institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223);
</P>
<P>(ii) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is not subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, or 12 CFR part 50, or 12 CFR part 329, the Board-regulated institution may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the Board-regulated institution for the Board-regulated institution's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier Board-regulated institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223); and
</P>
<P>(4) For HQLA held by a consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution that is organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the Board-regulated institution may include the eligible HQLA of the consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of net cash outflows of the consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the Board-regulated institution for the Board-regulated institution's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional amount of assets that are available for transfer to the top-tier Board-regulated institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions;
</P>
<P>(5) The Board-regulated institution must not include as eligible HQLA any assets, or HQLA resulting from transactions involving an asset that the Board-regulated institution received with rehypothecation rights, if the counterparty that provided the asset or the beneficial owner of the asset has a contractual right to withdraw the assets without an obligation to pay more than de minimis remuneration at any time during the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) The Board-regulated institution has not designated the assets to cover operational costs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of U.S. eligible HQLA.</I> A Board-regulated institution is generally expected to maintain as eligible HQLA an amount and type of eligible HQLA in the United States that is sufficient to meet its total net cash outflow amount in the United States under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 21232, Apr. 11, 2016; 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018; 86 FR 9212, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Total Net Cash Outflow</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.30" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.30   Total net cash outflow amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of total net cash outflow amount.</I> As of the calculation date, a Board-regulated institution's total net cash outflow amount equals the Board-regulated institution's outflow adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (c) of this section multiplied by:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the outflow amounts calculated under § 249.32(a) through (l); <I>minus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the inflow amounts calculated under § 249.33(b) through (g); and
</P>
<P>(ii) 75 percent of the amount calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The maturity mismatch add-on as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of maturity mismatch add-on.</I> (1) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The net cumulative maturity outflow amount for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date is equal to the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 249.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 249.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day.
</P>
<P>(ii) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount is equal to, as of the 30th day following the calculation date, the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 249.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 249.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) As of the calculation date, a Board-regulated institution's maturity mismatch add-on is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The largest net cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; <I>minus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) Other than the transactions identified in § 249.32(h)(2), (h)(5), or (j) or § 249.33(d) or (f), the maturity of which is determined under § 249.31(a), transactions that have an open maturity are not included in the calculation of the maturity mismatch add-on.




</P>
<P>(c) <I>Outflow adjustment percentage.</I> A Board-regulated institution's outflow adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to Table 1 to this paragraph (c).


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 249.30(<E T="01">c</E>)—Outflow Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Outflow adjustment percentage</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Global systemically important BHC or GSIB depository institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III Board-regulated institution with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and any Category III Board-regulated institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of such a Category III Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III Board-regulated institution with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and any Category III Board-regulated institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of such a Category III Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category IV Board-regulated institution with $50 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution whose outflow adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher outflow adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution whose outflow adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower outflow adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59275, Nov. 1, 2019; 86 FR 9212, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.31" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.31   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of calculating its liquidity coverage ratio and the components thereof under this subpart, a Board-regulated institution shall assume an asset or transaction matures:


</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 249.32, on the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could accelerate the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, the Board-regulated institution should exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:




</P>
<P>(i) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would reduce the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will exercise the option at the earliest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would extend the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will not exercise the option to extend the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an obligation, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the Board-regulated institution will exercise the option at the earliest possible date, except if either of the following criteria are satisfied, in which case the maturity of the obligation for purposes of this part will be the original maturity date at issuance:
</P>
<P>(A) The original maturity of the obligation is greater than one year and the option does not go into effect for a period of 180 days following the issuance of the instrument; or
</P>
<P>(B) The counterparty is a sovereign entity, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, or a public sector entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an obligation it issued, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will not exercise that option to extend the maturity; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the Board-regulated institution must determine the earliest possible contractual maturity date regardless of the notice period.


</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 249.33, on the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could extend the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, the Board-regulated institution may exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:




</P>
<P>(i) If the borrower has an option that would extend the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the borrower will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the borrower has an option that would reduce the maturity, the Board-regulated institution must assume that the borrower will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the Board-regulated institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the Board-regulated institution must assume the Board-regulated institution will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the Board-regulated institution must determine the latest possible contractual maturity date based on the borrower using the entire notice period.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a transaction subject to § 249.33(f)(1)(iii) through (vii) (secured lending transactions) or § 249.33(f)(2)(ii) through (x) (asset exchanges), to the extent the transaction is secured by collateral that has been pledged in connection with either a secured funding transaction or asset exchange that has a remaining maturity of 30 calendar days or less as of the calculation date, the maturity date is the later of the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the secured lending transaction or asset exchange or the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction or asset exchange for which the collateral has been pledged.


</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a transaction that has an open maturity, is not an operational deposit, and is subject to the provisions of § 249.32(h)(2), (h)(5), (j), or (k) or § 249.33(d) or (f), the maturity date is the first calendar day after the calculation date. Any other transaction that has an open maturity and is subject to the provisions of § 249.32 shall be considered to mature within 30 calendar days of the calculation date.




</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a transaction subject to the provisions of § 249.33(g), on the date of the next scheduled calculation of the amount required under applicable legal requirements for the protection of customer assets with respect to each broker-dealer segregated account, in accordance with the Board-regulated institution's normal frequency of recalculating such requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9212, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.32" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.32   Outflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail funding outflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's retail funding outflow amount as of the calculation date includes (regardless of maturity or collateralization):
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all stable retail deposits held at the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all other retail deposits held at the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all deposits placed at the Board-regulated institution by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all deposits placed at the Board-regulated institution by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(5) 40 percent of all funding from a retail customer or counterparty that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A debt instrument issued by the Board-regulated institution that is owned by a retail customer or counterparty (see paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Structured transaction outflow amount.</I> If the Board-regulated institution is a sponsor of a structured transaction where the issuing entity is not consolidated on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet under GAAP, the structured transaction outflow amount for each such structured transaction as of the calculation date is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of the amount of all debt obligations of the issuing entity that mature 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date and all commitments made by the issuing entity to purchase assets within 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum contractual amount of funding the Board-regulated institution may be required to provide to the issuing entity 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date through a liquidity facility, a return or repurchase of assets from the issuing entity, or other funding agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Net derivative cash outflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash outflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash outflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash outflow amount does not include forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to paragraph (d) of this section. The net derivative cash outflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the Board-regulated institution will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the Board-regulated institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the Board-regulated institution will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the Board-regulated institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mortgage commitment outflow amount.</I> The mortgage commitment outflow amount as of a calculation date is 10 percent of the amount of funds the Board-regulated institution has contractually committed for its own origination of retail mortgages that can be drawn upon 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commitment outflow amount.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution's commitment outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by a Board-regulated institution that is a depository institution to an affiliated depository institution that is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 30 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, and foreign banks, but excluding commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) 40 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section and liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended to a special purpose entity that issues or has issued commercial paper or securities (other than equity securities issued to a company of which the special purpose entity is a consolidated subsidiary) to finance its purchases or operations, and excluding liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all other committed credit or liquidity facilities extended by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within 30 calendar days of the calculation date under the governing agreement, less the amount of level 1 liquid assets and the amount of level 2A liquid assets securing the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the amount of level 1 liquid assets and level 2A liquid assets securing a committed credit or liquidity facility is the fair value of level 1 liquid assets and 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets that are required to be pledged as collateral by the counterparty to secure the facility, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets pledged upon a draw on the facility would be eligible HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution has not included the assets as eligible HQLA under subpart C of this part as of the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Collateral outflow amount.</I> The collateral outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changes in financial condition.</I> 100 percent of all additional amounts of collateral the Board-regulated institution could be contractually required to pledge or to fund under the terms of any transaction as a result of a change in the Board-regulated institution's financial condition;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Derivative collateral potential valuation changes.</I> 20 percent of the fair value of any collateral securing a derivative transaction pledged to a counterparty by the Board-regulated institution that is not a level 1 liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Potential derivative valuation changes.</I> The absolute value of the largest 30-consecutive calendar day cumulative net mark-to-market collateral outflow or inflow realized during the preceding 24 months resulting from derivative transaction valuation changes;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Excess collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution could be required by contract to return to a counterparty because the collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution exceeds the current collateral requirement of the counterparty under the governing contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not segregated from the Board-regulated institution's other assets such that it cannot be rehypothecated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not already excluded as eligible HQLA by the Board-regulated institution under § 249.22(b)(5);
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contractually required collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that the Board-regulated institution is contractually required to pledge to a counterparty and, as of such calculation date, the Board-regulated institution has not yet pledged;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Collateral substitution.</I> (i) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as level 1 liquid assets, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty, where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where under, the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 1 or level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the Board-regulated institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties.</I> The brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all brokered deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all brokered deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature later than 30 calendar days from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all brokered deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all brokered deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(5) 10 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(6) 25 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(7) 10 percent of all sweep deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(8) 25 percent of all sweep deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are not deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(9) 40 percent of all sweep deposits at the Board-regulated institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty where less than the entire amount of the deposit balance is covered by deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) For unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not provided by a financial sector entity or consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity:
</P>
<P>(i) 20 percent of all such funding, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance and the funding is not a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) 40 percent of all such funding, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; or
</P>
<P>(B) The funding is a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not included in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Funding provided by a company that is a consolidated subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a consolidated subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Debt instruments issued by the Board-regulated institution, including such instruments owned by retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(3) 5 percent of all operational deposits, other than operational deposits that are held in escrow accounts, where the entire deposit amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 25 percent of all operational deposits not included in paragraph (h)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not otherwise described in this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debt security buyback outflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's debt security buyback outflow amount for debt securities issued by the Board-regulated institution that mature more than 30 calendar days after the calculation date and for which the Board-regulated institution or a consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution is the primary market maker in such debt securities includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all such debt securities that are not structured securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) 5 percent of all such debt securities that are structured securities.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Secured funding and asset exchange outflow amount.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution's secured funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all funds the Board-regulated institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of all funds the Board-regulated institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) 25 percent of all funds the Board-regulated institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions with sovereign entities, multilateral development banks, or U.S. government-sponsored enterprises that are assigned a risk weight of 20 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217), to the extent that the funds are not secured by level 1 or level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of all funds the Board-regulated institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all funds received from secured funding transactions that are customer short positions where the customer short positions are covered by other customers' collateral and the collateral does not consist of HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all other funds the Board-regulated institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) If an outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for a secured funding transaction is greater than the outflow rate that the Board-regulated institution is required to apply under paragraph (h) of this section to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with the same counterparty, the Board-regulated institution may apply to the secured funding transaction the outflow rate that applies to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with that counterparty, except in the case of:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured funding transactions that are secured by collateral that was received by the Board-regulated institution under a secured lending transaction or asset exchange, in which case the Board-regulated institution must apply the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Collateralized deposits that are operational deposits, in which case the Board-regulated institution may apply to the operational deposit amount, as calculated in accordance with § 249.4(b), the operational deposit outflow rate specified in paragraph (h)(3) or (4) of this section, as applicable, if such outflow rate is lower than the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A Board-regulated institution's asset exchange outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive level 1 liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets that Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where Board-regulated institution will receive level 1 or level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the Board-regulated institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(x) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the Board-regulated institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xi) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the Board-regulated institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the Board-regulated institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) 100 percent of the fair value of the non-HQLA the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the Board-regulated institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount is, in a foreign jurisdiction where the Board-regulated institution has borrowed from the jurisdiction's central bank, the outflow amount assigned to borrowings from central banks in a minimum liquidity standard established in that jurisdiction. If the foreign jurisdiction has not specified a central bank borrowing outflow amount in a minimum liquidity standard, the foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount must be calculated in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other contractual outflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's other contractual outflow amount is 100 percent of funding or amounts, with the exception of operating expenses of the Board-regulated institution (such as rents, salaries, utilities, and other similar payments), payable by the Board-regulated institution to counterparties under legally binding agreements that are not otherwise specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The outflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution and a consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution and another consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9212, Feb. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.33" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.33   Inflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inflows in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Amounts the Board-regulated institution holds in operational deposits at other regulated financial companies;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts the Board-regulated institution expects, or is contractually entitled to receive, 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date due to forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to § 249.32(d);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any credit or liquidity facilities extended to the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of any asset that is eligible HQLA and any amounts payable to the Board-regulated institution with respect to that asset;
</P>
<P>(5) Any amounts payable to the Board-regulated institution from an obligation of a customer or counterparty that is a nonperforming asset as of the calculation date or that the Board-regulated institution has reason to expect will become a nonperforming exposure 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) Amounts payable to the Board-regulated institution with respect to any transaction that has no contractual maturity date or that matures after 30 calendar days of the calculation date (as determined by § 249.31).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Net derivative cash inflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash inflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash inflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash inflow amount does not include amounts excluded from inflows under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The net derivative cash inflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the Board-regulated institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the Board-regulated institution will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the Board-regulated institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the Board-regulated institution will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail cash inflow amount.</I> The retail cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the Board-regulated institution from retail customers or counterparties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount.</I> The unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all payments contractually payable to the Board-regulated institution from financial sector entities, or from a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or central banks; and
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the Board-regulated institution from wholesale customers or counterparties that are not financial sector entities or consolidated subsidiaries thereof, provided that, with respect to revolving credit facilities, the amount of the existing loan is not included in the unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount and the remaining undrawn balance is included in the outflow amount under § 249.32(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Securities cash inflow amount.</I> The securities cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution on securities it owns that are not eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secured lending and asset exchange cash inflow amount.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution's secured lending cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions, including margin loans extended to customers, to the extent that the payments are secured by collateral that has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraph (f)(1)(vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not eligible HQLA, but are still held by the Board-regulated institution and are available for immediate return to the counterparty at any time;
</P>
<P>(iii) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 15 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i), (ii), or (vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vii) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the Board-regulated institution pursuant to collateralized margin loans extended to customers, not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, provided that the loans are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution's asset exchange inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, to the extent that the asset received by the Board-regulated institution from the counterparty has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the Board-regulated institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Zero percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post level 1 liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 15 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 100 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post level 1 or level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 35 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ix) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post assets that are HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(x) 50 percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the Board-regulated institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the Board-regulated institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount is the fair value of all assets released from broker-dealer segregated accounts maintained in accordance with statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer trading assets, provided that the calculation of the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, for any transaction affecting the calculation of the segregated balance (as required by applicable law), shall be consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In calculating the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, the Board-regulated institution must calculate the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date by assuming that customer cash and collateral positions have changed consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 249.32 and 249.33.
</P>
<P>(2) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 249.32 and 249.33, is less than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the difference is the segregated account inflow amount.
</P>
<P>(3) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 249.32 and 249.33, is more than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the segregated account inflow amount is zero.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other cash inflow amounts.</I> A Board-regulated institution's inflow amount as of the calculation date includes zero percent of other cash inflow amounts not included in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The inflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution and a consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution and another consolidated subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.34" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.34   Cash flows related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, outflow amounts and inflow amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of a Board-regulated institution's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 249.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the Board-regulated institution or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and this outflow amount must be included in the Board-regulated institution's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 249.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Liquidity Coverage Shortfall</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.40" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.40   Liquidity coverage shortfall: Supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> A Board-regulated institution must notify the Board on any business day when its liquidity coverage ratio is calculated to be less than the minimum requirement in § 249.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity plan.</I> (1) For the period during which a Board-regulated institution must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio on the last business day of each applicable calendar month under subparts F or G of this part, if the Board-regulated institution's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 249.10 for any calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month, or if the Board has determined that the Board-regulated institution is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the Board-regulated institution must promptly consult with the Board to determine whether the Board-regulated institution must provide to the Board a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 249.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) For the period during which a Board-regulated institution must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio each business day under subpart F of this part, if a Board-regulated institution's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 249.10 for three consecutive business days, or if the Board has determined that the Board-regulated institution is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the Board-regulated institution must promptly provide to the Board a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 249.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the Board-regulated institution's liquidity position;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the Board-regulated institution has taken and will take to achieve full compliance with this part, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the Board-regulated institution's risk profile, risk management, and funding sources in order to achieve full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A commitment to report to the Board no less than weekly on progress to achieve compliance in accordance with the plan until full compliance with this part is achieved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The Board may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, 61539, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 61540, Oct. 10, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Transitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.50" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.50   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No transitions for certain Board-regulated institutions.</I> A Board-regulated institution that is subject to the minimum liquidity standards and other requirements of this part immediately prior to December 31, 2019 must comply with the requirements of this part as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transitions for certain U.S. intermediate holding companies.</I> A U.S. intermediate holding company that initially becomes subject to this part on December 31, 2019 does not need to comply with the minimum liquidity standard of § 249.10 or with the public disclosure requirements of § 249.90 until December 31, 2020, at which time the U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the minimum liquidity standard of § 249.10 each business day (or, in the case of a Category IV Board-regulated institution, on the last business day of the applicable calendar month) in accordance with this part, and with the public disclosure requirements of § 249.90.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that initially becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) after December 31, 2019, must comply with the requirements of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this part, except that a Board-regulated institution that is not a Category IV Board-regulated institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) For the first two calendar quarters after the Board-regulated institution begins complying with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio monthly, on each calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning the first day of the fifth calendar quarter after the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part and continuing thereafter, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio on each calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 249.1(b)(1)(iii) must comply with the requirements of this part subject to a transition period specified by the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution whose outflow adjustment percentage changes is subject to transition periods as set forth in § 249.30(d).
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that is no longer subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part pursuant to § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, instructions to the FR Y-9LP or the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with this part as of the first day of the first quarter after it is no longer subject to § 249.1(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The Board may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the Board determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the Board will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the Board-regulated institution is taking to come into compliance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59275, Nov. 1, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts G-I [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Disclosures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 94929, Dec. 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 249.90" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.90   Timing, method and retention of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company that is subject to § 249.1 must disclose publicly all the information required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> (1) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of all the information required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company that is subject to this subpart must provide the disclosures required by this subpart beginning with the first calendar quarter that includes the date that is 18 months after the covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company first became subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure method.</I> A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must disclose publicly, in a direct and prominent manner, the information required under this subpart on its public internet site or in its public financial or other public regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability.</I> The disclosures provided under this subpart must remain publicly available for at least five years after the initial disclosure date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94929, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 59276, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.91" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.91   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must disclose publicly the information required by paragraph (b) of this section in the format provided in the following table.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 249.91(<E T="01">a</E>)—Disclosure Template
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">XX/XX/XXXX to YY/YY/YYYY
<br/>(In millions of U.S. dollars)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average
<br/>unweighted
<br/>amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average
<br/>weighted
<br/>amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">High-Quality Liquid Assets</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1. Total eligible high-quality liquid assets (HQLA), of which:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">2. Eligible level 1 liquid assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">3. Eligible level 2A liquid assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">4. Eligible level 2B liquid assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Cash Outflow Amounts</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">5. Deposit outflow from retail customers and counterparties, of which:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">6. Stable retail deposit outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">7. Other retail funding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">8. Brokered deposit outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">9. Unsecured wholesale funding outflow, of which:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">10. Operational deposit outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">11. Non-operational funding outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">12. Unsecured debt outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">13. Secured wholesale funding and asset exchange outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">14. Additional outflow requirements, of which:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">15. Outflow related to derivative exposures and other collateral requirements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">16. Outflow related to credit and liquidity facilities including unconsolidated structured transactions and mortgage commitments</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">17. Other contractual funding obligation outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">18. Other contingent funding obligations outflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">19. Total Cash Outflow
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Cash Inflow Amounts</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">20. Secured lending and asset exchange cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">21. Retail cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">22. Unsecured wholesale cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">23. Other cash inflows, of which:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">24. Net derivative cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">25. Securities cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">26. Broker-dealer segregated account inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">27. Other cash inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">28. Total Cash Inflow</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average
<br/>amount 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">29. HQLA Amount</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">30. Total Net Cash Outflow Amount Excluding The Maturity Mismatch Add-On</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">31. Maturity Mismatch Add-On</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">32. Total Unadusted Net Cash Outflow Amount</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">33. Outflow Adjustment Percentage</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">34. Total Adjusted Net Cash Outflow Amount</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">35. Liquidity Coverage Ratio (%)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The amounts reported in this column may not equal the calculation of those amounts using component amounts reported in rows 1-28 due to technical factors such as the application of the level 2 liquid asset caps and the total inflow cap.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of disclosed average amounts</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must calculate its disclosed average amounts:
</P>
<P>(A) On a consolidated basis and presented in millions of U.S. dollars or as a percentage, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) With the exception of amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1), (5), (9), (14), (19), (23), and (28) of this section, as simple averages of daily amounts over the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must disclose the beginning date and end date for each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of average unweighted amounts.</I> (i) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must calculate the average unweighted amount of HQLA as the average amount of eligible HQLA that meet the requirements specified in §§ 249.20 and 249.22 and is calculated prior to applying the haircuts required under § 249.21(b) to the amounts of eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must calculate the average unweighted amount of cash outflows and cash inflows before applying the outflow and inflow rates specified in §§ 249.32 and 249.33, respectively.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of average weighted amounts.</I> (i) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must calculate the average weighted amount of HQLA after applying the haircuts required under § 249.21(b) to the amounts of eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must calculate the average weighted amount of cash outflows and cash inflows after applying the outflow and inflow rates specified in §§ 249.32 and 249.33, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must disclose all the information required under Table 1 to § 249.91(a)—Disclosure Template, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts calculated under paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section (row 1);
</P>
<P>(2) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of level 1 liquid assets that are eligible HQLA under § 249.21(b)(1) (row 2);
</P>
<P>(3) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of level 2A liquid assets that are eligible HQLA under § 249.21(b)(2) (row 3);
</P>
<P>(4) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of level 2B liquid assets that are eligible HQLA under § 249.21(b)(3) (row 4);
</P>
<P>(5) The sum of the average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash outflows calculated under paragraphs (c)(6) through (8) of this section (row 5);
</P>
<P>(6) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(a)(1) (row 6);
</P>
<P>(7) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(a)(2) through (5) (row 7);
</P>
<P>(8) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(g) (row 8);
</P>
<P>(9) The sum of the average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash outflows calculated under paragraphs (c)(10) through (12) of this section (row 9);
</P>
<P>(10) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(h)(3) and (4) (row 10);
</P>
<P>(11) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(h)(1), (2), and (5), excluding (h)(2)(ii) (row 11);
</P>
<P>(12) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(h)(2)(ii) (row 12);
</P>
<P>(13) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(j) and (k) (row 13);
</P>
<P>(14) The sum of the average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash outflows calculated under paragraphs (c)(15) and (16) of this section (row 14);
</P>
<P>(15) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(c) and (f) (row 15);
</P>
<P>(16) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(b), (d), and (e) (row 16);
</P>
<P>(17) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(l) (row 17);
</P>
<P>(18) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash outflows under § 249.32(i) (row 18);
</P>
<P>(19) The sum of average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash outflows calculated under paragraphs (c)(5), (9), (13), (14), (17), and (18) of this section (row 19);
</P>
<P>(20) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(f) (row 20);
</P>
<P>(21) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(c) (row 21);
</P>
<P>(22) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(d) (row 22);
</P>
<P>(23) The sum of average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash inflows calculated under paragraphs (c)(24) through (27) of this section (row 23);
</P>
<P>(24) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(b) (row 24);
</P>
<P>(25) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(e) (row 25);
</P>
<P>(26) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(g) (row 26);
</P>
<P>(27) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of cash inflows under § 249.33(h) (row 27);
</P>
<P>(28) The sum of average unweighted amounts and average weighted amounts of cash inflows reported under paragraphs (c)(20) through (23) of this section (row 28);
</P>
<P>(29) The average amount of the HQLA amounts as calculated under § 249.21(a) (row 29);
</P>
<P>(30) The average amount of the total net cash outflow amounts excluding the maturity mismatch add-on as calculated under § 249.30(a)(1) and (2) (row 30);
</P>
<P>(31) The average amount of the maturity mismatch add-ons as calculated under § 249.30(b) (row 31);
</P>
<P>(32) The average amount of the total net cash outflow amount as calculated under § 249.30 prior to the application of the applicable outflow adjustment percentage described in Table 1 to § 249.30(c) (row 32);
</P>
<P>(33) The applicable outflow adjustment percentage described in Table 1 to § 249.30(c) (row 33);
</P>
<P>(34) The average amount of the total net cash outflow as calculated under § 249.30 (row 34); and
</P>
<P>(35) The average of the liquidity coverage ratios as calculated under § 249.10(b) (row 35).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> (1) A covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart must provide a qualitative discussion of the factors that have a significant effect on its liquidity coverage ratio, which may include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The main drivers of the liquidity coverage ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the liquidity coverage ratio over time and causes of such changes;
</P>
<P>(iii) The composition of eligible HQLA;
</P>
<P>(iv) Concentration of funding sources;
</P>
<P>(v) Derivative exposures and potential collateral calls;
</P>
<P>(vi) Currency mismatch in the liquidity coverage ratio; or
</P>
<P>(vii) The centralized liquidity management function of the covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company and its interaction with other functional areas of the covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart believes that the qualitative discussion required in paragraph (d)(1) of this section would prejudice seriously its position by resulting in public disclosure of specific commercial or financial information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the covered depository institution holding company or covered nonbank company is not required to include those specific items in its qualitative discussion, but must provide more general information about the items that had a significant effect on its liquidity coverage ratio, together with the fact that, and the reason why, more specific information was not discussed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 94929, Dec. 27, 2016, as amended at 84 FR 59276, Nov. 1, 2019]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Net Stable Funding Ratio</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9202, 9212, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 249.100" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.100   Net stable funding ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum net stable funding ratio requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must maintain a net stable funding ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on an ongoing basis in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the net stable funding ratio.</I> For purposes of this part, a Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's available stable funding (ASF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 249.103, as of the calculation date; divided by
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's required stable funding (RSF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 249.105, as of the calculation date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.101" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.101   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating its net stable funding ratio, including its ASF amount and RSF amount, under subparts K through N, a Board-regulated institution shall assume each of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to any NSFR liability, the NSFR liability matures according to § 249.31(a)(1) of this part without regard to whether the NSFR liability is subject to § 249.32;
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to an asset, the asset matures according to § 249.31(a)(2) of this part without regard to whether the asset is subject to § 249.33 of this part;
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that is perpetual, the NSFR liability or asset matures one year or more after the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that has an open maturity, the NSFR liability or asset matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date, except that in the case of a deferred tax liability, the NSFR liability matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date on which the deferred tax liability could be realized; and
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to any principal payment of an NSFR liability or asset, such as an amortizing loan, that is due prior to the maturity of the NSFR liability or asset, the payment matures on the date on which it is contractually due.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.102" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.102   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Balance-sheet metric.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is not included on a Board-regulated institution's balance sheet is not assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable; and an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is included on a Board-regulated institution's balance sheet is assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Netting of certain transactions.</I> Where a Board-regulated institution has secured lending transactions, secured funding transactions, or asset exchanges with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from the counterparty under the transactions by the gross value of payables under the transactions due to the counterparty, the receivables or payables associated with the offsetting transactions that are not included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet are treated as if they were included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet with carrying values, unless the criteria in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(2)(v)(A) through (C) are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of Securities Received in an Asset Exchange by a Securities Lender.</I> Where a Board-regulated institution receives a security in an asset exchange, acts as a securities lender, includes the carrying value of the received security on its balance sheet, and has not rehypothecated the security received:
</P>
<P>(1) The security received by the Board-regulated institution is not assigned an RSF factor; and
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation to return the security received by the Board-regulated institution is not assigned an ASF factor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.103" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.103   Calculation of available stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>A Board-regulated institution's ASF amount equals the sum of the carrying values of the Board-regulated institution's NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities, in each case multiplied by the ASF factor applicable in § 249.104 or § 249.107(c) and consolidated in accordance with § 249.109.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.104" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.104   ASF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities assigned a 100 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR regulatory capital element or NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 100 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or
</P>
<P>(2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 95 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 95 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held at the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A sweep deposit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a controlled subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board-regulated institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 90 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 90 percent ASF factor if it is funding provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the Board-regulated institution, a controlled subsidiary of the Board-regulated institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the Board-regulated institution is a controlled subsidiary, where the sweep deposit does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) A brokered deposit that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or a sweep deposit, that is not held in a transactional account, and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 50 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 50 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the Board-regulated institution or an operational deposit placed at the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit placed at the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the Board-regulated institution or an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(4) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(5) A security issued by the Board-regulated institution that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(6) An operational deposit placed at the Board-regulated institution;
</P>
<P>(7) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (c) or (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(8) A sweep deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(9) An NSFR liability owed to a retail customer or counterparty that is not a deposit and is not a security issued by the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(10) Any other NSFR liability that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (c) or (d)(1) through (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a zero percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a zero percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A trade date payable that results from a purchase by the Board-regulated institution of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is contractually required to settle within the lesser of the market standard settlement period for the particular transaction and five business days from the date of the sale;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or sweep deposit, is not held in a transactional account, and matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued by the Board-regulated institution that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(4) An NSFR liability with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NSFR liability matures less than six months from the calculation date or has an open maturity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NSFR liability is not a security issued by the Board-regulated institution or an operational deposit placed at the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other NSFR liability that matures less than six months from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (d) or (e)(1) through (4) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.105" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.105   Calculation of required stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required stable funding amount.</I> A Board-regulated institution's RSF amount equals the Board-regulated institution's required stable funding adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (b) of this section multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The carrying values of a Board-regulated institution's assets (other than amounts included in the calculation of the derivatives RSF amount pursuant to § 249.107(b)) and the undrawn amounts of a Board-regulated institution's credit and liquidity facilities, in each case multiplied by the RSF factors applicable in § 249.106; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Board-regulated institution's derivatives RSF amount calculated pursuant to § 249.107(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> A Board-regulated institution's required stable funding adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to table 1 to this paragraph (b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)—Required Stable Funding Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Required stable funding adjustment percentage
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Global systemically important BHC or GSIB depository institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III Board-regulated institution with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and Category III Board-regulated institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of such a Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III Board-regulated institution with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and any Category III Board-regulated institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of such a Category III Board-regulated institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category IV Board-regulated institution with $50 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Transition into a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher required stable funding adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower required stable funding adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.106" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.106   RSF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments.</I> All assets and undrawn amounts under credit and liquidity facilities, unless otherwise provided in § 249.107(b) relating to derivative transactions or paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, are assigned RSF factors as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a zero percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a zero percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Currency and coin;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cash item in the process of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Reserve Bank balance or other claim on a Reserve Bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iv) A claim on a foreign central bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(v) A trade date receivable due to the Board-regulated institution resulting from the Board-regulated institution's sale of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is required to settle no later than the market standard, without extension, for the particular transaction, and that has yet to settle but is not more than five business days past the scheduled settlement date;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other level 1 liquid asset not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(vii) A secured lending transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The secured lending transaction matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The secured lending transaction is secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(D) The Board-regulated institution retains the right to rehypothecate the collateral provided by the counterparty for the duration of the secured lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments assigned a 5 percent RSF factor.</I> An undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility extended by a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 5 percent RSF factor. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within one year of the calculation date under the governing agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 15 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 15 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2A liquid asset; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section and is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 50 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 50 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2B liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) An operational deposit placed by the Board-regulated institution at a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An asset that is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) or (a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(iii) of this section that matures less than one year from the calculation date, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) Lending to a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 65 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 65 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 50 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 20 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned an 85 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned an 85 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of greater than 50 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217);
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of greater than 20 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217);
</P>
<P>(iii) A publicly traded common equity share that is not HQLA;
</P>
<P>(iv) A security, other than a publicly traded common equity share, that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is not HQLA; or
</P>
<P>(v) A commodity for which derivative transactions are traded on a U.S. board of trade or trading facility designated as a contract market under sections 5 and 6 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7 and 8) or on a U.S. swap execution facility registered under section 5h of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7b-3) or on another exchange, whether located in the United States or in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 100 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of a Board-regulated institution is assigned a 100 percent RSF factor if it is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section, including a secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonperforming assets.</I> An RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to any asset that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Encumbered assets.</I> An encumbered asset, unless otherwise provided in § 249.107(b) relating to derivative transactions, is assigned an RSF factor as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Encumbered assets with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if the asset were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Encumbered assets with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period:
</P>
<P>(A) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of 50 percent or less under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, an RSF factor of 50 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of greater than 50 percent under paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(7) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if it were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Encumbered assets with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period, an RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets encumbered for period longer than remaining maturity.</I> If an asset is encumbered for an encumbrance period longer than the asset's maturity, the asset is assigned an RSF factor under paragraph (c)(1) of this section based on the length of the encumbrance period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregated account assets.</I> An asset held in a segregated account maintained pursuant to statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer assets is not considered encumbered for purposes of this paragraph solely because such asset is held in the segregated account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Off-balance sheet rehypothecated assets.</I> When an NSFR liability of a Board-regulated institution is secured by an off-balance sheet asset or results from the Board-regulated institution selling an off-balance sheet asset (for instance, in the case of a short sale), other than an off-balance sheet asset received by the Board-regulated institution as variation margin under a derivative transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Board-regulated institution received the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction, an RSF factor is assigned to the lending transaction as if it were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the lending transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board-regulated institution received the off-balance sheet asset under an asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the asset provided by the Board-regulated institution in the asset exchange as if the provided asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the provided asset; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board-regulated institution did not receive the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction or asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the on-balance sheet asset resulting from the rehypothecation of the off-balance sheet asset as if the on-balance sheet asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the transaction through which the off-balance sheet asset was received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.107" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.107   Calculation of NSFR derivatives amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A Board-regulated institution must calculate its derivatives RSF amount and certain components of its ASF amount relating to the Board-regulated institution's derivative transactions (which includes cleared derivative transactions of a customer with respect to which the Board-regulated institution is acting as agent for the customer that are included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet under GAAP) in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of required stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> A Board-regulated institution's derivatives RSF amount equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current derivative transaction values.</I> The Board-regulated institution's NSFR derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the Board-regulated institution under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set, to the extent the variation margin reduces the Board-regulated institution's derivatives liability value under the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of zero percent;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Excess variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the Board-regulated institution under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set in excess of the amount described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for each derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 249.106;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Variation margin received.</I> The carrying value of variation margin received by the Board-regulated institution, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 249.106;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Potential valuation changes.</I> (i) An amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the gross derivative values of the Board-regulated institution that are liabilities, as calculated under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, for each of the Board-regulated institution's derivative transactions not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each of its QMNA netting sets, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (5)(i) of this section, the gross derivative value of a derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or of a QMNA netting set is equal to the value to the Board-regulated institution, calculated as if no variation margin had been exchanged and no settlement payments had been made based on changes in the value of the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contributions to central counterparty mutualized loss sharing arrangements.</I> The fair value of a Board-regulated institution's contribution to a central counterparty's mutualized loss sharing arrangement (regardless of whether the contribution is included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor of 85 percent; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Initial margin provided.</I> The fair value of initial margin provided by the Board-regulated institution for derivative transactions (regardless of whether the initial margin is included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet), which does not include initial margin provided by the Board-regulated institution for cleared derivative transactions with respect to which the Board-regulated institution is acting as agent for a customer and the Board-regulated institution does not guarantee the obligations of the customer's counterparty to the customer under the derivative transaction (such initial margin would be assigned an RSF factor pursuant to § 249.106 to the extent the initial margin is included on the Board-regulated institution's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor equal to the higher of 85 percent or the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the initial margin pursuant to § 249.106.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of available stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> The following amounts of a Board-regulated institution are assigned a zero percent ASF factor:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board-regulated institution's NSFR derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The carrying value of NSFR liabilities in the form of an obligation to return initial margin or variation margin received by the Board-regulated institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of NSFR derivatives asset or liability amount.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution's NSFR derivatives asset amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, less the Board-regulated institution's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution's NSFR derivatives liability amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, less the Board-regulated institution's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of total derivatives asset and liability amounts.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution's total derivatives asset amount is the sum of the Board-regulated institution's derivatives asset values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution's total derivatives liability amount is the sum of the Board-regulated institution's derivatives liability values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of derivatives asset and liability values.</I> For each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivatives asset value is equal to the asset value to the Board-regulated institution, after taking into account:
</P>
<P>(i) Any variation margin received by the Board-regulated institution that is in the form of cash and meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The variation margin is not segregated;
</P>
<P>(B) The variation margin is received in connection with a derivative transaction that is governed by a QMNA or other contract between the counterparties to the derivative transaction, which stipulates that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided;
</P>
<P>(C) The variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract; and
</P>
<P>(D) The variation margin is in a currency specified as an acceptable currency to settle obligations in the relevant governing contract; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any variation margin received by the Board-regulated institution that is in the form of level 1 liquid assets and meets the conditions of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section provided the Board-regulated institution retains the right to rehypothecate the asset for the duration of time that the asset is posted as variation margin to the Board-regulated institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) The derivatives liability value is equal to the liability value of the Board-regulated institution, after taking into account any variation margin provided by the Board-regulated institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.108" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.108   Funding related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, available stable funding amounts and required stable funding amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of a Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 249.100(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the Board-regulated institution or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and assets securing the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and the available stable funding amount and required stable funding amount must be included in the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 249.100(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.109" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.9.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.109   Rules for consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidated subsidiary available stable funding amount.</I> For available stable funding of a legal entity that is a consolidated subsidiary of a Board-regulated institution, including a consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the Board-regulated institution may include the available stable funding of the consolidated subsidiary in its ASF amount up to:
</P>
<P>(1) The RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the Board-regulated institution for the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio under this part; plus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the Board-regulated institution for the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio under this part, to the extent the consolidated subsidiary may transfer assets to the top-tier Board-regulated institution, taking into account statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, such as sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required consolidation procedures.</I> To the extent a Board-regulated institution includes an ASF amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, the Board-regulated institution must implement and maintain written procedures to identify and monitor applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions on transferring assets from any of its consolidated subsidiaries. These procedures must document which types of transactions the Board-regulated institution could use to transfer assets from a consolidated subsidiary to the Board-regulated institution and how these types of transactions comply with applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Net Stable Funding Shortfall</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9202, 9212, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 249.110" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.110   NSFR shortfall: Supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> A Board-regulated institution must notify the Board no later than 10 business days, or such other period as the Board may otherwise require by written notice, following the date that any event has occurred that would cause or has caused the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio to be less than 1.0 as required under § 249.100.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity Plan.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution must within 10 business days, or such other period as the Board may otherwise require by written notice, provide to the Board a plan for achieving a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 249.100 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board-regulated institution has or should have provided notice, pursuant to § 249.110(a), that the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio is, or will become, less than 1.0 as required under § 249.100;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board-regulated institution's reports or disclosures to the Board indicate that the Board-regulated institution's net stable funding ratio is less than 1.0 as required under § 249.100; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board notifies the Board-regulated institution in writing that a plan is required and provides a reason for requiring such a plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the Board-regulated institution's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the Board-regulated institution has taken and will take to achieve a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 249.100, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the Board-regulated institution's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with subpart K of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with § 249.100.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board-regulated institution must report to the Board at least monthly, or such other frequency as required by the Board, on progress to achieve full compliance with § 249.100.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The Board may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum net stable funding ratio and other requirements of subparts K through N of this part (see also § 249.2(c)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Transitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.120" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.120   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution that initially becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) after July 1, 2021, must comply with the requirements of subparts K through N of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the Board-regulated institution becomes subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 249.1(b)(1)(iii) must comply with the requirements of subparts K through N of this part subject to a transition period specified by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition to a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> (1) A Board-regulated institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage changes is subject to the transition periods as set forth in § 249.105(c).
</P>
<P>(2) A Board-regulated institution that is no longer subject to the minimum stable funding requirement of this part pursuant to § 249.1(b)(1)(i) or (ii) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, or instructions to the FR Y-9LP, the FR Y-15, or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with the requirements of subparts K through N of this part as of the first day of the first calendar quarter after it is no longer subject to § 249.1(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The Board may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the Board determines such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the Board will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with the requirements of subparts K through N of this part, and the actions the Board-regulated institution is taking to come into compliance with the requirements of subparts K through N of this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9213, Feb. 11, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—NSFR Public Disclosure</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9213, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 249.130" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.130   Timing, method, and retention of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company that is subject to the minimum stable funding requirement in § 249.100 of this part must publicly disclose the information required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> (1) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company that is subject to the minimum stable funding requirement in § 249.100 of this part must provide timely public disclosures every second and fourth calendar quarter of all of the information required under this subpart for each of the two immediately preceding calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank holding company that is subject to this subpart must provide the disclosures required by this subpart beginning with the first calendar quarter that includes the date that is 18 months after the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company first became subject to the minimum stable funding requirement in § 249.100 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure method.</I> A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must publicly disclose, in a direct and prominent manner, the information required under this subpart on its public internet site or in its public financial or other public regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability.</I> The disclosures provided under this subpart must remain publicly available for at least five years after the initial disclosure date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 249.131" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.17.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 249.131   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must publicly disclose the information required by this subpart in the format provided in Table 1 to this paragraph:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er11fe21.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11fe21.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er11fe21.002.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of disclosed average amounts</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must calculate its disclosed amounts:
</P>
<P>(A) On a consolidated basis and presented in millions of U.S. dollars or as a percentage, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) As simple averages of daily amounts for each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must disclose the beginning date and end date for each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of unweighted amounts.</I> (i) For each component of a covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's ASF amount calculation, other than the NSFR derivatives liability amount and total derivatives liability amount, the “unweighted amount” means the sum of the carrying values of the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities, as applicable, determined before applying the appropriate ASF factors, and subdivided into the following maturity categories, as applicable: Open maturity; less than six months after the calculation date; six months or more, but less than one year, after the calculation date; one year or more after the calculation date; and perpetual.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each component of a covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's RSF amount calculation, other than amounts included in paragraphs (c)(2)(xvi) through (xix) of this section, the “unweighted amount” means the sum of the carrying values of the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's assets and undrawn amounts of committed credit facilities and committed liquidity facilities extended by the covered depository institution holding company, or U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company, as applicable, determined before applying the appropriate RSF factors, and subdivided by maturity into the following maturity categories, as applicable: Open maturity; less than six months after the calculation date; six months or more, but less than one year, after the calculation date; one year or more after the calculation date; and perpetual.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of weighted amounts.</I> (i) For each component of a covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's ASF amount calculation, other than the NSFR derivatives liability amount and total derivatives liability amount, the “weighted amount” means the sum of the carrying values of the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities, as applicable, multiplied by the appropriate ASF factors.
</P>
<P>(ii) For each component of a covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's RSF amount calculation, other than amounts included in paragraphs (c)(2)(xvi) through (xix) of this section, the “weighted amount” means the sum of the carrying values of the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's assets and undrawn amounts of committed credit facilities and committed liquidity facilities extended by the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company, multiplied by the appropriate RSF factors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must disclose all of the information required under Table 1 to paragraph (a) of this section including:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosures of ASF amount calculations:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the average weighted amounts and, for each applicable maturity category, the sum of the average unweighted amounts of paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section (row 1);
</P>
<P>(ii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of NSFR regulatory capital elements described in § 249.104(a)(1) (row 2);
</P>
<P>(iii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of securities described in §§ 249.104(a)(2), 249.104(d)(5), and 249.104(e)(3) (row 3);
</P>
<P>(iv) The sum of the average weighted amounts and, for each applicable maturity category, the sum of the average unweighted amounts of paragraphs (c)(1)(v) through (viii) of this section (row 4);
</P>
<P>(v) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of stable retail deposits and sweep deposits held at the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company described in § 249.104(b) (row 5);
</P>
<P>(vi) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of retail deposits other than stable retail deposits or brokered deposits, described in § 249.104(c)(1) (row 6);
</P>
<P>(vii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of sweep deposits, brokered reciprocal deposits, and brokered deposits provided by a retail customer or counterparty described in §§ 249.104(c)(2), 249.104(c)(3), 249.104(c)(4), 249.104(d)(7), 249.104(d)(8) and 249.104(e)(2) (row 7);
</P>
<P>(viii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of other funding provided by a retail customer or counterparty described in § 249.104(d)(9) (row 8);
</P>
<P>(ix) The sum of the average weighted amounts and, for each applicable maturity category, the sum of the average unweighted amounts of paragraphs (c)(1)(x) and (xi) of this section (row 9);
</P>
<P>(x) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of operational deposits placed at the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company described in § 249.104(d)(6) (row 10);
</P>
<P>(xi) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of other wholesale funding described in §§ 249.104(a)(2), 249.104(d)(1), 249.104(d)(2), 249.104(d)(3), 249.104(d)(4), 249.104(d)(10), and 249.104(e)(4) (row 11);
</P>
<P>(xii) In the “unweighted” cell, the average amount of the NSFR derivatives liability amount described in § 249.107(d)(2) (row 12);
</P>
<P>(xiii) In the “unweighted” cell, the average amount of the total derivatives liability amount described in § 249.107(e)(2) (row 13);
</P>
<P>(xiv) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of all other liabilities not included in amounts disclosed under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) through (xiii) of this section (row 14);
</P>
<P>(xv) The average amount of the ASF amount described in § 249.103 (row 15);
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosures of RSF amount calculations, including to reflect any encumbrances under §§ 249.106(c) and 249.106(d):
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the average weighted amounts and the sum of the average unweighted amounts of paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section (row 16);
</P>
<P>(ii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of level 1 liquid assets described in §§ 249.106(a)(1) (row 17);
</P>
<P>(iii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of level 2A liquid assets described in § 249.106(a)(3)(i) (row 18);
</P>
<P>(iv) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of level 2B liquid assets described in § 249.106(a)(4)(i) (row 19);
</P>
<P>(v) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of assets described in § 249.106(a)(1), other than level 1 liquid assets included in amounts disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section or secured lending transactions included in amounts disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(viii) of this section (row 20);
</P>
<P>(vi) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of operational deposits placed at financial sector entities or consolidated subsidiaries thereof described in § 249.106(a)(4)(iii) (row 21);
</P>
<P>(vii) The sum of the average weighted amounts and, for each applicable maturity category, the sum of the average unweighted amounts of paragraphs (c)(2)(viii), (ix), (x), (xii), and (xiv) of this section (row 22);
</P>
<P>(viii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of secured lending transactions where the borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity and the secured lending transaction is secured by level 1 liquid assets, described in §§ 249.106(a)(1)(vii), 249.106(a)(3)(ii), 249.106(a)(4)(ii), and 249.106(a)(7) (row 23);
</P>
<P>(ix) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of secured lending transactions that are secured by assets other than level 1 liquid assets and unsecured wholesale lending, in each case where the borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, described in §§ 249.106(a)(3)(ii), 249.106(a)(4)(ii), and 249.106(a)(7) (row 24);
</P>
<P>(x) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of secured lending transactions and unsecured wholesale lending to wholesale customers or counterparties that are not financial sector entities or consolidated subsidiaries thereof, and lending to retail customers and counterparties other than retail mortgages, described in §§ 249.106(a)(4)(iv), 249.106(a)(5)(ii), and 249.106(a)(6)(ii) (row 25);
</P>
<P>(xi) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of secured lending transactions, unsecured wholesale lending, and lending to retail customers or counterparties that are assigned a risk weight of no greater than 20 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) described in §§ 249.106(a)(4)(ii), 249.106(a)(4)(iv), and 249.106(a)(5)(ii) (row 26);
</P>
<P>(xii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of retail mortgages described in §§ 249.106(a)(4)(iv), 249.106(a)(5)(i), and 249.106(a)(6)(i) (row 27);
</P>
<P>(xiii) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of retail mortgages assigned a risk weight of no greater than 50 percent under subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) described in §§ 249.106(a)(4)(iv) and 249.106(a)(5)(i) (row 28);
</P>
<P>(xiv) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of publicly traded common equity shares and other securities that are not HQLA and are not nonperforming assets described in §§ 249.106(a)(6)(iii), and 249.106(a)(6)(iv) (row 29);
</P>
<P>(xv) The average weighted amount and average unweighted amount of commodities described in §§ 249.106(a)(6)(v) and 249.106(a)(7) (row 30);
</P>
<P>(xvi) The average unweighted amount and average weighted amount of the sum of (A) assets contributed by the covered depository institution holding company to a central counterparty's mutualized loss-sharing arrangement described in § 249.107(b)(6) (in which case the “unweighted amount” shall equal the fair value and the “weighted amount” shall equal the unweighted amount multiplied by 85 percent) and (B) assets provided as initial margin by the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company for derivative transactions described in § 249.107(b)(7) (in which case the “unweighted amount” shall equal the fair value and the “weighted amount” shall equal the unweighted amount multiplied by the higher of 85 percent or the RSF factor assigned to the asset pursuant to § 249.106) (row 31);
</P>
<P>(xvii) In the “unweighted” cell, the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's average amount of the NSFR derivatives asset amount under § 249.107(d)(1) and in the “weighted” cell, the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's average amount of the NSFR derivatives asset amount under § 249.107(d)(1) multiplied by 100 percent (row 32);
</P>
<P>(xviii) In the “unweighted” cell, the covered depository institution holding company's, U.S. intermediate holding company's, or covered nonbank company's average amount of the total derivatives asset amount described in § 249.107(e)(1) (row 33);
</P>
<P>(xix) (A) In the “unweighted” cell, the average amount of the sum of the gross derivative liability values of the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company that are liabilities for each of its derivative transactions not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each of its QMNA netting sets, described in § 249.107(b)(5), and (B) in the “weighted” cell, such sum multiplied by 5 percent, as described in § 249.107(b)(5) (row 34);
</P>
<P>(xx) The average weighted amount and, for each applicable maturity category, the average unweighted amount of all other asset amounts not included in amounts disclosed under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (xix) of this section, including nonperforming assets (row 35);
</P>
<P>(xxi) The average weighted and unweighted amount of undrawn credit and liquidity facilities described in § 249.106(a)(2) (row 36);
</P>
<P>(xxii) The average amount of the RSF amount as calculated in § 249.105(a) prior to the application of the applicable required stable funding adjustment percentage in § 249.105(b) (row 37);
</P>
<P>(xxiii) The applicable required stable funding adjustment percentage described in Table 1 to § 249.105(b) (row 38);
</P>
<P>(xxiv) The average amount of the RSF amount as calculated under § 249.105 (row 39);
</P>
<P>(3) The average of the net stable funding ratios as calculated under § 249.100(b) (row 40);
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> (1) A covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company must provide a qualitative discussion of the factors that have a significant effect on its net stable funding ratio, which may include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The main drivers of the net stable funding ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the net stable funding ratio results over time and the causes of such changes (for example, changes in strategies and circumstances);
</P>
<P>(iii) Concentrations of funding sources and changes in funding structure; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Concentrations of available and required stable funding within a covered company's corporate structure (for example, across legal entities).
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company subject to this subpart believes that the qualitative discussion required in paragraph (d)(1) of this section would prejudice seriously its position by resulting in public disclosure of specific commercial or financial information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the covered depository institution holding company, U.S. intermediate holding company, or covered nonbank company is not required to include those specific items in its qualitative discussion, but must provide more general information about the items that had a significant effect on its net stable funding ratio, together with the fact that, and the reason why, more specific information was not discussed.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="250" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 250—MISCELLANEOUS INTERPRETATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 78, 248(i), 371c(f) and 371c-1(e).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>33 FR 9866, July 10, 1968, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.141" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.141   Member bank purchase of stock of “operations subsidiaries.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has reexamined its position that the so-called “stock-purchase prohibition” of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24), which is made applicable to member State banks by the 20th paragraph of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335), forbids the purchase by a member bank “for its own account of any shares of stock of any corporation” (the statutory language), except as specifically permitted by provisions of Federal law or as comprised within the concept of “such incidental powers as shall be necessary to carry on the business of banking”, referred to in the first sentence of paragraph “Seventh” of R.S. 5136. 
</P>
<P>(b) In 1966 the Board expressed the view that said incidental powers do not permit member banks to purchase stock of “operations subsidiaries”—that is, organizations designed to serve, in effect, as separately-incorporated departments of the bank, performing, at locations at which the bank is authorized to engage in business, functions that the bank is empowered to perform directly. (See 1966 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1151.) 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board now considers that the incidental powers clause permits a bank to organize its operations in the manner that it believes best facilitates the performance thereof. One method of organization is through departments; another is through separate incorporation of particular operations. In other words, a wholly owned subsidiary corporation engaged in activities that the bank itself may perform is simply a convenient alternative organizational arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(d) Reexamination of the apparent purposes and legislative history of the stock-purchase prohibition referred to above has led the Board to conclude that such prohibition should not be interpreted to preclude a member bank from adopting such an organizational arrangement unless its use would be inconsistent with other Federal law, either statutory or judicial. 
</P>
<P>(e) In view of the relationship between the operation of certain subsidiaries and the branch banking laws, the Board has also reexamined its rulings on what constitutes “money lent” for the purposes of section 5155 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 36), which provides that “The term<I>branch</I> * * * shall be held to include any branch bank, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business * * * at which deposits are received, or checks paid, or money lent.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In the Board's judgment, the statutory enumeration of three specific functions that establish branch status is not meant to be exclusive but to assure that offices at which any of these functions is performed are regarded as branches by the bank regulatory authorities. In applying the statute the emphasis should be to assure that significant banking functions are made available to the public only at governmentally authorized offices.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) The Board noted in its 1967 interpretation that offices that are open to the public and staffed by employees of the bank who regularly engage in soliciting borrowers, negotiating terms, and processing applications for loans (so-called <I>loan production offices</I>) constitute branches. (1967 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1334.) The Board also noted that later in that year it considered the question whether a bank holding company may acquire the stock of a so-called <I>mortgage company</I> on the basis that the company would be engaged in “furnishing services to or performing services for such bank holding company or its banking subsidiaries” (the so-called <I>servicing exemption</I> of section 4(c)(1)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act; 12 U.S.C. 1843). In concluding affirmatively, the Board stated that “the appropriate test for determining whether the company may be considered as within the servicing exemption is whether the company will perform as principal any banking activities—such as receiving deposits, paying checks, extending credit, conducting a trust department, and the like. In other words, if the mortgage company is to act merely as an adjunct to a bank for the purpose of facilitating the bank's operations, the company may appropriately be considered as within the scope of the servicing exemption.” (1967 Federal Reserve Bulletin 1911; 12 CFR 225.122.) 
</P>
<P>(g) The Board believes that the purposes of the branch banking laws and the servicing exemption are related. Generally, what constitutes a branch does not constitute a servicing organization and, vice versa, an office that only performs servicing functions should not be considered a branch. (See 1958 Federal Reserve Bulletin 431, last paragraph; 12 CFR 225.104(e).) When viewed together, the above-cited interpretations on loan production offices and mortgage companies represent a departure from this principle. In reconsidering the laws involved, the Board has concluded that a test similar to that adopted with respect to the servicing exemption under the Bank Holding Company Act is appropriate for use in determining whether or not what constitutes <I>money [is] lent</I> at a particular office, for the purpose of the Federal branch banking laws. 
</P>
<P>(h) Accordingly, the Board considers that the following activities, individually or collectively, do not constitute the lending of money within the meaning of section 5155 of the revised statutes: Soliciting loans on behalf of a bank (or a branch thereof), assembling credit information, making property inspections and appraisals, securing title information, preparing applications for loans (including making recommendations with respect to action thereon), soliciting investors to purchase loans from the bank, seeking to have such investors contract with the bank for the servicing of such loans, and other similar agent-type activities. When loans are approved and funds disbursed solely at the main office or a branch of the bank, an office at which only preliminary and servicing steps are taken is not a place where <I>money [is] lent.</I> Because preliminary and servicing steps of the kinds described do not constitute the performance of significant banking functions of the type that Congress contemplated should be performed only at governmentally approved offices, such office is accordingly not a branch. 
</P>
<P>(i) To summarize the foregoing, the Board has concluded that, insofar as Federal law is concerned, a member bank may purchase for its own account shares of a corporation to perform, at locations at which the bank is authorized to engage in business, functions that the bank is empowered to perform directly. Also, a member bank may establish and operate, at any location in the United States, a <I>loan production office</I> of the type described herein. Such offices may be established and operated by the bank either directly, or indirectly through a wholly-owned subsidiary corporation. 
</P>
<P>(j) This interpretation supersedes both the Board's 1966 ruling on <I>operations subsidiaries</I> and its 1967 ruling on <I>loan production offices,</I> referred to above. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 24, 36, 321, 335)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 11813, Aug. 21, 1968; 43 FR 53414, Nov. 16, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.142" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.142   Meaning of “obligor or maker” in determining limitation on securities investments by member State banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) From time to time the New York State Dormitory Authority offers issues of bonds with respect to each of which a different educational institution enters into an agreement to make <I>rental</I> payments to the Authority sufficient to cover interest and principal thereon when due. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has been asked whether a member State bank may invest up to 10 percent of its capital and surplus in each such issue. 
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraph Seventh of section 5136 of the U.S. Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24) provides that “In no event shall the total amount of the investment securities of any one obligor or maker, held by [a national bank] for its own account, exceed at any time 10 per centum of its capital stock * * * and surplus fund”. That limitation is made applicable to member State banks by the 20th paragraph of section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335). 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board considers that, within the meaning of these provisions of law, <I>obligor</I> does not include any person that acts solely as a conduit for transmission of funds received from another source, irrespective of a promise by such person to pay principal or interest on the obligation. While an obligor does not cease to be such merely because a third person has agreed to pay the obligor amounts sufficient to cover principal and interest on the obligations when due, a person that promises to pay an obligation, but as a practical matter has no resources with which to assume payment of the obligation except the amounts received from such third person, is not an <I>obligor</I> within the meaning of section 5136. 
</P>
<P>(d) Review of the New York Dormitory Authority Act (N.Y. Public Authorities Law sections 1675-1690), the Authority's interpretation thereof, and materials with respect to the Authority's “Revenue Bonds, Mills College of Education Issue, Series A” indicates that the Authority is not an <I>obligor</I> on those and similar bonds. Although the Authority promises to make all payments of principal and interest, a bank that invests in such bonds cannot be reasonably considered as doing so in reliance on the promise and responsibility of the Authority. Despite the Authority's obligation to make payments on the bonds, if the particular college fails to perform its agreement to make rental payments to the Authority sufficient to cover all payments of bond principal and interest when due, as a practical matter the sole source of funds for payments to the bondholder is the particular college. The Authority has general borrowing power but no resources from which to assure repayment of any borrowing except from the particular colleges, and rentals received from one college may not be used to service bonds issued for another. 
</P>
<P>(e) Accordingly, the Board has concluded that each college for which the Authority issues obligations is the sole <I>obligor</I> thereon. A member State bank may therefore invest an amount up to 10 percent of its capital and surplus in the bonds of a particular college that are eligible investments under the Investment Securities Regulation of the Comptroller of the Currency (12 CFR Part 1), whether issued directly or indirectly through the Dormitory Authority. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 24, 335)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.143" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.143   Member bank purchase of stock of foreign operations subsidiaries.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In a previous interpretation, the Board determined that a State member bank would not violate the “stock-purchase prohibition” of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 ¶ 7) by purchasing and holding the shares of a corporation which performs “at locations at which the bank is authorized to engage in business, functions that the bank is empowered to perform directly”. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (1968 <I>Federal Reserve Bulletin</I> 681, 12 CFR 250.141). The Board of Governors has been asked by a State member bank whether, under that interpretation, the bank may establish such a so-called <I>operations subsidiary</I> outside the United States. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> National banking associations are prohibited by section 5136 of the Revised Statutes from purchasing and holding shares of any corporation except those corporations whose shares are specifically made eligible by statute. This prohibition is made applicable to State member banks by section 9 ¶ 20 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 335).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) In the above interpretation the Board viewed the creation of a wholly-owned subsidiary which engaged in activities that the bank itself could perform directly as an alternative organizational arrangement that would be permissible for member banks unless “its use would be inconsistent with other Federal law, either statutory or judicial”.
</P>
<P>(c) In the Board's judgment, the use by member banks of operations subsidiaries outside the United States would be clearly inconsistent with the statutory scheme of the Federal Reserve Act governing the foreign investments and operations of member banks. It is clear that Congress has given member banks the authority to conduct operations and make investments outside the United States only through gradually adopting a series of specific statutory amendments to the Federal Reserve Act, each of which has been carefully drawn to give the Board approval, supervisory, and regulatory authority over those operations and investments.
</P>
<P>(d) As part of the original Federal Reserve Act, national banks were, with the Board's permission, given the power to establish foreign branches. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In 1916, Congress amended the Federal Reserve Act to permit national banks to invest in international or foreign banking corporations known as <I>Agreement</I> Corporations, because such corporations were required to enter into an agreement or understanding with the Board to restrict their operations. Subject to such limitations or restrictions as the Board may prescribe, such Agreement corporations may principally engage in international or foreign banking, or banking in a dependency or insular possession of the United States, either directly or through the agency, ownership or control of local institutions in foreign countries, or in such dependencies or insular possessions of the United States. In 1919 the enactment of section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (the “Edge Act”) permitted national banks to invest in federally chartered international or foreign banking corporations (so-called Edge Corporations) which may engage in international or foreign banking or other international or foreign financial operations, or in banking or other financial operations in a dependency or insular possession of the United States, either directly or through the ownership or control of local institutions in foreign countries, or in such dependencies or insular possessions. Edge Corporations may only purchase and hold stock in certain foreign subsidiaries with the consent of the Board. And in 1966, Congress amended section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act to allow national banks to invest directly in the shares of a foreign bank. In the Board's judgment, the above statutory scheme of the Federal Reserve Act evidences a clear Congressional intent that member banks may only purchase and hold stock in subsidiaries located outside the United States through the prescribed statutory provisions of sections 25 and 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act. It is through these statutorily prescribed forms of organization that member banks must conduct their operations outside the United States.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act, State member banks, subject, of course, to any necessary approval from their State banking authority, may establish foreign branches on the same terms and subject to the same limitations and restrictions as are applicable to the establishment of branches by national banks (12 U.S.C. 321). State member banks may also purchase and hold shares of stock in Edge or Agreement Corporations and foreign banks because national banks, as a result of specific statutory exceptions to the stock purchase prohibitions of section 5136, can purchase and hold stock in these Corporations or banks.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) To summarize, the Board has concluded that a member bank may only organize and operate <I>operations subsidiaries</I> at locations in the United States. Investments by member banks in foreign subsidiaries must be made either with the Board's permission under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act or, with the Board's consent, through an Edge Corporation subsidiary under section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act or through an Agreement Corporation subsidiary under section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act. In addition, it should be noted that bank holding companies may acquire the shares of certain foreign subsidiaries with the Board's approval under section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act. These statutory sections taken together already give member banks a great deal of organizational flexibility in conducting their operations abroad. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 24, 335)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 12252, Mar. 18, 1975]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.160" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.160   Federal funds transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the position of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System that, for purposes of provisions of law administered by the Board, a transaction in Federal funds involves a loan on the part of the <I>selling</I> bank and a borrowing on the part of the <I>purchasing</I> bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 371c)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 9866, July 10, 1968, as amended at 67 FR 76622, Dec. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.163" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.163   Inapplicability of amount limitations to “ineligible acceptances.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since 1923, the Board has been of the view that “the acceptance power of State member banks is not necessarily confined to the provisions of section 13 (of the Federal Reserve Act), inasmuch as the laws of many States confer broader acceptance powers upon their State banks, and certain State member banks may, therefore, legally make acceptances of kinds which are not eligible for rediscount, but which may be eligible for purchase by Federal reserve banks under section 14.” 1923 FR bulletin 316, 317. 
</P>
<P>(b) In 1963, the Comptroller of the Currency ruled that “[n]ational banks are not limited in the character of acceptances which they may make in financing credit transactions, and bankers' acceptances may be used for such purpose, since the making of acceptances is an essential part of banking authorized by 12 U.S.C. 24.” <I>Comptroller's manual</I> 7.7420. Therefore, national banks are authorized by the Comptroller to make acceptances under 12 U.S.C. 24, although the acceptances are not the type described in section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) A review of the legislative history surrounding the enactment of the acceptance provisions of section 13, reveals that Congress believed in 1913, that it was granting to national banks a power which they would not otherwise possess and had not previously possessed. See remarks of Congressmen Phelan, Helvering, Saunders, and Glass, 51 <I>Cong. Rec.</I> 4676, 4798, 4885, and 5064 (September 10, 12, 13, and 17 of 1913). Nevertheless, the courts have long recognized the evolutionary nature of banking and of the scope of the “incidental powers” clause of 12 U.S.C. 24. See <I>Merchants Bank</I> v. <I>State Bank,</I> 77 U.S. 604 (1870) (upholding the power of a national bank to certify a check under the “incidental powers” clause of 12 U.S.C. 24). 
</P>
<P>(d) It now appears that, based on the Board's 1923 ruling, and the Comptroller's 1963 ruling, both State member banks and national banks may make acceptances which are not of the type described in section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act. Yet, this appears to be a development that Congress did not contemplate when it drafted the acceptance provisions of section 13.
</P>
<P>(e) The question is presented whether the amount limitations of section 13 should apply to acceptances made by a member bank that are not of the type described in section 13. (The amount limitations are of two kinds: 
</P>
<P>(1) A limitation on the amount that may be accepted for any one customer, and
</P>
<P>(2) A limitation on the aggregate amount of acceptances that a member bank may make.)
</P>
<FP>In interpreting any Federal statutory provision, the primary guide is the intent of Congress, yet, as noted earlier, Congress did not contemplate in 1913, the development of so-called “ineligible acceptances.” (Although there is some indication that Congress did contemplate State member banks' making acceptances of a type not described in section 13 [remarks of Congressman Glass, 51 <I>Cong. Rec.</I> 5064], the primary focus of congressional attention was on the acceptance powers of national banks.) In the absence of an indication of congressional intent, we are left to reach an interpretation that is in harmony with the language of the statutory provisions and with the purposes of the Federal Reserve Act.
</FP>
<P>(f) Section 13 authorizes acceptances of two types. The seventh paragraph of section 13 (12 U.S.C. 372) authorizes certain acceptances that arise out of specific transactions in goods. (These acceptances are sometimes referred to as “commercial acceptances.”) The 12th paragraph of section 13 authorizes member banks to make acceptances “for the purpose of furnishing dollar exchange as required by the usages of trade” in foreign transactions. (Such acceptances are referred to as “dollar exchange acceptances.”) In the 12th paragraph, there is a 10 percent limit on the amount of dollar exchange acceptances that may be accepted for any one customer (unless adequately secured) and a limitation on the aggregate amount of dollar exchange acceptances that a member bank may make. (The 12th paragraph, in imposing these limitations, refers to the acceptance of “such drafts or bills of exchange referred to (in) this paragraph.”) Similarly, the seventh paragraph imposes on commercial acceptances a parallel 10 percent per-customer limitation, and limitations on the aggregate amount of commercial acceptances. (In the case of the aggregate limitations, the seventh paragraph states that “no bank shall accept such bills to an amount” in excess of the aggregate limit; the reference to “such bills” makes clear that the limitation is only in respect of drafts or bills of exchange of the specific type described in the seventh paragraph.)
</P>
<P>(g) Based on the language and parallel structure of the 7th and 12th paragraphs of section 13, and in the absence of a statement of congressional intent in the legislative history, the Board concludes that the per-customer and aggregate limitations of the 12th paragraph apply only to acceptances of the type described in that paragraph (dollar exchange acceptances), and the per-customer and aggregate limitations of the 7th paragraph (12 U.S.C. 372) apply only to acceptances of the type described in that paragraph.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 372 and the 12th paragraph of sec. 13 of the Federal Reserve Act, which paragraph is omitted from the United States Code)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 13728, May 25, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.164" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.164   Bankers' acceptances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 207 of the Bank Export Services Act (title II of Pub. L. 97-290) (“BESA”) raised the limits on the aggregate amount of eligible bankers' acceptances (“BAs”) that may be created by an individual member bank from 50 per cent (or 100 per cent with the permission of the Board) of its paid up and unimpaired capital stock and surplus (“capital”) to 150 per cent (or 200 per cent with the permission of the Board) of its capital. Section 207 also prohibits a member bank from creating eligible BAs for any one person in the aggregate in excess of 10 per cent of the institution's capital. This section of the BESA applies the same limits applicable to member banks to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks that are subject to reserve requirements under section 7 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3105). The Board is clarifying the proper meaning of the seventh paragraph of section 13 of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended by the BESA. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) This section of the BESA provides that any portion of an eligible BA created by an institution subject to the BA limitations contained therein (“covered bank”) that is conveyed through a participation to another covered bank shall not be included in the calculation of the creating bank's BA limits. The amount of the participation is to be applied to the calculation of the BA limits applicable to the covered bank receiving the participation. Although a covered bank that has reached its 150 or 200 percent limit can continue to create eligible acceptances by conveying participations to other covered banks, Congress has in effect imposed an aggregate limit on the eligible acceptances that may be created by <I>all</I> covered banks equal to the sum of 150 or 200 percent of the capital of all covered banks.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board has clarified that under the statute an eligible BA created by a covered bank that is conveyed through a participation to an institution that is <I>not</I> subject to the limitations of this section of the BESA continues to be included in the calculation of the limits applicable to the creating covered bank. This will ensure that the total amount of eligible BAs that may be created by covered banks does not exceed the limitations established by Congress. In addition, this ensures that participations in acceptances are not used as a device for the avoidance of reserve requirements. Finally, this promotes the Congressional intent, with respect to covered banks, that foreign and domestic banks be on an equal footing and under the same legal requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, the amount of a participation received by a covered bank from an institution not covered by the limitations of the Act is to be included in the calculation of the limits applicable to the covered bank receiving the participation. This result is based upon the language of the statute which includes within a covered bank's limits on eligible BAs outstanding the amount of participations received by the covered bank. This provision reflects Congressional intent that a covered bank not be obligated on eligible bankers' acceptances, and participations therein, for an amount in excess of 150 or 200 percent of the institution's capital.
</P>
<P>(c) The statute also provides that eligible acceptances growing out of domestic transactions are not to exceed 50 percent of the aggregate of all eligible acceptances authorized for covered banks. The Board has clarified that this 50 percent limitation is applicable to the maximum permissible amount of eligible BAs (150 or 200 percent of capital), regardless of the bank's amount of eligible acceptances outstanding. The statutory language prior to the BESA amendment made clear that covered banks could issue eligible acceptances growing out of domestic transactions up to 50 percent of the amount of the total permissible eligible acceptances the bank could issue. The legislative history of the BESA indicates no intent to change this domestic acceptance limitation.
</P>
<P>(d) The statute also provides that for the purpose of the limitations applicable to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks, a branch's or agency's capital is to be calculated as the dollar equivalent of the capital stock and surplus of the parent foreign bank as determined by the Board. The Board has clarified that for purposes of calculating the BA limits applicable to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks, the identity of the parent foreign bank is generally the same as for reserve requirement purposes; that is, the bank entity that owns the branch or agency most directly. The Board has also clarified that the procedures currently used for purposes of reporting to the Board on the Annual Report of Foreign Banking Organizations, Form FR Y-7, are also to be used in the calculation of the acceptance limits applicable to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks. (The FR Y-7 generally requires financial statements prepared in accordance with local accounting practices and an explanation of the accounting terminology and the major features of the accounting standards used in the preparation of the financial statements.) Conversions to the dollar equivalent of the worldwide capital of the foreign bank should be made periodically, but in no event less frequently than quarterly. In this regard, the Board recognizes the need to be flexible in dealing with the effect of foreign exchange rate fluctuations on the calculation of the worldwide capital of the parent foreign bank. Each foreign bank is to be responsible for coordinating the BA activity of its U.S. branches and agencies (including the aggregation of such activity) and establishing procedures that ensure that examiners will be able readily to determine compliance with the BESA limits.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 13, Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 28975, June 24, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.165" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.165   Bankers' acceptances: definition of participations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Section 207 of the Bank Export Services Act (Title II of Pub. L. 97-290) (“BESA”) raised the limits on the aggregate amount of eligible bankers' acceptances (“BAs”) that may be created by a member bank from 50 percent (or 100 percent with the permission of the Board) of its paid up and unimpaired capital stock and surplus (“capital”) to 150 percent (or 200 percent with the permission of the Board) of its capital. Section 207 also prohibits a member bank from creating eligible BAs for any one person in the aggregate in excess of 10 percent of the institution's capital. Eligible BAs growing out of domestic transactions are not to exceed 50 percent of the aggregate of all eligible acceptances authorized for a member bank. This section of the BESA applies the same limits applicable to member banks to U.S. branches and agencies of foreign banks that are subject to reserve requirements under section 7 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3105). 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The institutions subject to the BA limitations of BESA will hereinafter be referred to as “covered banks.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) This section of the BESA also provides that any portion of an eligible BA created by a covered bank (“senior bank”) that is conveyed through a “participation agreement” to another covered bank (“junior bank”) shall <I>not</I> be included in the calculation of the senior bank's bankers' acceptance limits established by section 207 of BESA. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> However, the amount of the participation <I>is</I> to be included in the BA limits applicable to the junior bank. The language of the statute does not define what constitutes a participation agreement for purposes of the applicability of the BESA limitations. However, the statute does authorize the Board to further define any of the terms used in section 207 of the BESA (12 U.S.C. 372(g)). The Board is clarifying the term participation for purposes of the BA limitations of the BESA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The use of the terms <I>senior bank</I> and <I>junior bank</I> has no implications regarding priority of claims. These terms merely represent a shorthand method of identifying the depository institution that has created the acceptance and conveyed the participation (senior bank) and the depository institution that has received the participation (junior bank).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The legislative history of section 207 of the BESA indicates that Congress intended that the junior bank be obligated to the senior bank in the event that the account party defaults on its obligation to pay, but that the junior bank need not also be obligated to pay the holder of the acceptance at the time the BA is presented for payment. H. Rep. No. 97-629, 97th Cong., 2nd Sess. 15 (1982); 128 <I>Cong. Rec.</I> H 4647 (daily ed. July 27, 1982) (remarks by Rep. Barnard): and 128 <I>Cong. Rec.</I> H 8462 (daily ed. October 1, 1982) (remarks by Rep. Barnard). The legislative history also indicates that Congress intended that eligible BAs in which participations had been conveyed not be required to indicate the name(s) (or interest(s)) of the junior bank(s) on the acceptance in order for the BA to be excluded from the BESA limitations applicable to the senior bank. 128 <I>Cong.</I> Rec. S 12237 (daily ed. September 24, 1982) (remarks of Senators Heinz and Garn): and 128 <I>Cong. Rec.</I> H 4647 (daily ed. July 27, 1982) (remarks of Rep. Barnard).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) In view of Congressional intent with regard to what constitutes a participation in an eligible BA, the Board has determined that, for purposes of the BESA limits, a participation must satisfy the following two <I>minimum</I> requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) A written agreement entered into between the junior and senior bank under which the junior bank acquires the senior bank's claim against the account party to the extent of the amount of the participation that is enforceable in the event that the account party fails to perform in accordance with the terms of the acceptance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement between the junior and senior bank provides that the senior bank obtains a claim against the junior bank to the extent of the amount of the participation that is enforceable in the event the account party fails to perform in accordance with the terms of the acceptance.
</P>
<P>(2) Consistent with Congressional intent, the minimum requirements do not require the junior bank to be obligated to pay the holder of the acceptance at the time the BA is presented for payment. Similarly, the minimum requirements do not require the name(s) or interest(s) of the junior bank(s) to appear on the face of the acceptance.
</P>
<P>(3) An eligible BA that is conveyed through a participation that does not satisfy these minimum requirements would continue to be included in the BA limits applicable to the senior bank. Further, an eligible BA conveyed to a covered bank through a participation that provided for additional rights and obligations among the parties would be excluded from the BESA limitations of the senior bank provided the minimum requirements were satisfied.
</P>
<P>(4) A participation structured pursuant to these minimum requirements would be as follows: Upon the conveyance of the participation, the senior bank retains its entire obligation to pay the holder of the BA at maturity. The senior bank has a claim against the junior bank to the extent of the amount of the participation that is enforceable in the event the account party fails to perform in accordance with the terms of the acceptance. Similarly, the junior bank has a corresponding claim against the account party to the extent of the amount of the participation that is enforceable in the event the account party fails to perform in accordance with the terms of the acceptance. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Board is not requiring the senior bank and the account party specifically to agree that the senior bank's rights are assignable because the Board believes such rights to be assignable even in the absence of an explicit agreement. 
</P>
<P>(2) The junior and senior banks may contract among themselves as to which party(ies) have the responsibility for administering the arrangement, enforcing claims, or exercising remedies. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board recognizes that both the junior bank's claim on the account party and the senior bank's claim on the junior bank involve risk. Therefore, it is essential that these risks be assessed by the banks involved in accordance with prudent and sound banking practices. The examiners will in the normal course of the examination process review the risk assessment procedures instituted by the banks. The junior bank should review the creditworthiness of each account party when the junior bank acquires a participation and the senior bank should review on an ongoing basis the creditworthiness of the junior bank. Junior bank agreement to rely exclusively upon the credit judgment of the senior bank and purchase on an ongoing basis from the senior bank all participations in BAs regardless of the identity of the account party is not appropriate in view of the risks involved. However, in those cases involving a participation between a parent bank and its Edge affiliate where the credit review for both entities is performed by the parent bank, the Edge Corporation should maintain documentation indicating that it concurs with the parent bank's analysis and that the acceptance participation is appropriate for inclusion in the Edge Corporation's portfolio. 
</P>
<P>(f) Similarly, the Board has determined that it is appropriate to include the risks incurred by the senior bank in assessing the senior bank's capital and the risks incurred by the junior bank in assessing the junior bank's capital. 
</P>
<P>(g) In view of this clarification of the issues relating to participations in BAs, the Board encourages the private sector to develop standardized forms for BAs and participations therein that clearly delineate the rights and responsibilities of the relevant parties.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Sec. 13, Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[48 FR 57109, Dec. 28, 1983]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.166" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.166   Treatment of mandatory convertible debt and subordinated notes of state member banks and bank holding companies as “capital”.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the Board's risk-based capital guidelines, state member banks and bank holding companies may include in Tier 2 capital subordinated debt and mandatory convertible debt that meets certain criteria. The purpose of this interpretation is to clarify these criteria. This interpretation should be read with those guidelines, particularly with paragraphs II.c. through II.e. of appendix A of 12 CFR part 208 if the issuer is a state member bank and with paragraphs II.A.2.c. and II.A.2.d. of appendix A of 12 CFR part 225 if the issuer is a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for subordinated debt included in capital</I>—(1) <I>Characteristics.</I> To be included in Tier 2 capital under the Board's risk-based capital guidelines for state member banks and bank holding companies, subordinated debt must be subordinated in right of payment to the claims of the issuer's general creditors 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and, for banks, to the claims of depositors as well; must be unsecured; must state clearly on its face that it is not a deposit and is not insured by a federal agency; must have a minimum average maturity of five years; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> must not contain provisions that permit debtholders to accelerate payment of principal prior to maturity except in the event of bankruptcy of or the appointment of a receiver for the issuing organization; must not contain or be covered by any covenants, terms, or restrictions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practice; and must not be credit sensitive.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The risk-based capital guidelines for bank holding companies state that bank holding company debt must be subordinated to all senior indebtedness of the company. To meet this requirement, the debt should be subordinated to all general creditors.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The “average maturity” of an obligation or issue repayable in scheduled periodic payments shall be the weighted average of the maturities of all such scheduled payments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Acceleration clauses.</I> (i) In order to be included in Tier 2 capital, the appendices provide that subordinated debt instruments must have an original weighted average maturity of at least five years. For this purpose, maturity is defined as the earliest possible date on which the holder can put the instrument back to the issuing banking organization. Since acceleration clauses permit the holder to put the debt back upon the occurrence of certain events, which could happen at any time after the instrument is issued, subordinated debt that includes provisions permitting acceleration upon events other than bankruptcy or reorganization under Chapters 7 (Liquidation) and 11 (Reorganization) of the Bankruptcy Code, in the case of a bank holding company, or insolvency—i.e., the appointment of a receiver—in the case of a state member bank, does not qualify for inclusion in Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) Further, subordinated debt whose terms provide for acceleration upon the occurrence of events other than bankruptcy or the appointment of a receiver does not qualify as Tier 2 capital. For example, the terms of some subordinated debt issues would permit debtholders to accelerate repayment if the issuer failed to pay principal or interest on the subordinated debt issue when due (or within a certain timeframe after the due date), failed to make mandatory sinking fund deposits, defaulted on any other debt, failed to honor covenants, or if an institution affiliated with the issuer entered into bankruptcy or receivership. Some banking organizations have also issued, or proposed to issue, subordinated debt that would allow debtholders to accelerate repayment if, for example, the banking organization failed to maintain certain prescribed minimum capital ratios or rates of return, or if the amount of nonperforming assets or charge-offs of the banking organization exceeded a certain level.
</P>
<P>(iii) These and other similar acceleration clauses raise significant supervisory concerns because repayment of the debt could be accelerated at a time when an organization may be experiencing financial difficulties. Acceleration of the debt could restrict the ability of the organization to resolve its problems in the normal course of business and could cause the organization involuntarily to enter into bankruptcy or receivership. Furthermore, since such acceleration clauses could allow the holders of subordinated debt to be paid ahead of general creditors or depositors, their inclusion in a debt issue throws into question whether the debt is, in fact, subordinated.
</P>
<P>(iv) Subordinated debt issues whose terms state that the debtholders may accelerate the repayment of principal only in the event of bankruptcy or receivership of the issuer do not permit the holders of the debt to be paid before general creditors or depositors and do not raise supervisory concerns because the acceleration does not occur until the institution has failed. Accordingly, debt issues that permit acceleration of principal only in the event of bankruptcy (liquidation or reorganization) in the case of bank holding companies and receivership in the case of banks may generally be classified as capital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Provisions inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices.</I> (i) The risk-based capital guidelines state that instruments included in capital may not contain or be covered by any covenants, terms, or restrictions that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practice. As a general matter, capital instruments should not contain terms that could adversely affect liquidity or unduly restrict management's flexibility to run the organization, particularly in times of financial difficulty, or that could limit the regulator's ability to resolve problem bank situations. For example, some subordinated debt includes covenants that would not allow the banking organization to make additional secured or senior borrowings. Other covenants would prohibit a banking organization from disposing of a major subsidiary or undergoing a change in control. Such covenants could restrict the banking organization's ability to raise funds to meet its liquidity needs. In addition, such terms or conditions limit the ability of bank supervisors to resolve problem bank situations through a change in control.
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain other provisions found in subordinated debt may provide protection to investors in subordinated debt without adversely affecting the overall benefits of the instrument to the organization. For example, some instruments include covenants that may require the banking organization to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain an office or agency where securities may be presented,
</P>
<P>(B) Hold payments on the securities in trust,
</P>
<P>(C) Preserve the rights and franchises of the company,
</P>
<P>(D) Pay taxes and assessments before they become delinquent,
</P>
<P>(E) Provide an annual statement of compliance on whether the company has observed all conditions of the debt agreement, or 
</P>
<P>(F) Maintain its properties in good condition. Such covenants, as long as they do not unduly restrict the activity of the banking organization, generally would be acceptable in qualifying subordinated debt, provided that failure to meet them does not give the holders of the debt the right to accelerate the debt. 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> This notice does not attempt to list or address all clauses included in subordinated debt; rather, it is intended to give general supervisory guidance regarding the types of clauses that could raise supervisory concerns. Issuers of subordinated debt may need to consult further with Federal Reserve staff about other subordinated debt provisions not specifically discussed above to determine whether such provisions are appropriate in a debt capital instrument.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) <I>Credit sensitive features.</I> Credit sensitive subordinated debt (including mandatory convertible securities) where payments are tied to the financial condition of the borrower generally do not qualify for inclusion in capital. Interest rate payments may be linked to the financial condition of an institution through various ways, such as through an auction rate mechanism, a preset schedule that either mandates interest rate increases as the credit rating of the institution declines or automatically increases them over the passage of time, 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> or that raises the interest rate if payment is not made in a timely fashion. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> As the financial condition of an organization declines, it is faced with higher and higher payments on its credit sensitive subordinated debt at a time when it most needs to conserve its resources. Thus, credit sensitive debt does not provide the support expected of a capital instrument to an institution whose financial condition is deteriorating; rather, the credit sensitive feature can accelerate depletion of the institution's resources and increase the likelihood of default on the debt.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Although payments on debt whose interest rate increases over time on the surface may not appear to be directly linked to the financial condition of the issuing organization, such debt (sometimes referred to as expanding or exploding rate debt) has a strong potential to be credit sensitive in substance. Organizations whose financial condition has strengthened are more likely to be able to refinance the debt at a rate lower than that mandated by the preset increase, whereas institutions whose condition has deteriorated are less likely to be able to do so. Moreover, just when these latter institutions would be in the most need of conserving capital, they would be under strong pressure to redeem the debt as an alternative to paying higher rates and, thus, would accelerate depletion of their resources.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> While such terms may be acceptable in perpetual preferred stock qualifying as Tier 2 capital, it would be inconsistent with safe and sound banking practice to include debt with such terms in Tier 2 capital. The organization does not have the option, as it does with auction rate preferred stock issues, of eliminating the higher payments on the subordinated debt without going into default.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for mandatory convertible debt included in capital.</I> Mandatory convertible debt included in capital must meet all the criteria cited above for subordinated debt with the exception of the minimum maturity requirement. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Since mandatory convertible debt eventually converts to an equity instrument, it has no minimum maturity requirement. Such debt, however, is subject to a maximum maturity requirement of 12 years.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Mandatory convertible debt is subordinated debt that contains provisions committing the issuing organization to repay the principal from the proceeds of future equity issues.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Previously issued subordinated debt.</I> Subordinated debt including mandatory convertible debt that has been issued prior to the date of this interpretation and that contains provisions permitting acceleration for reasons other than bankruptcy or receivership of the issuing institution; includes other questionable terms or conditions; or that is credit sensitive will not automatically be excluded from capital. Rather, such debt will be considered on a case-by-case basis to determine whether it qualifies as Tier 2 capital. As a general matter, subordinated debt issued prior to the release of this interpretation and containing such provisions or features may qualify as Tier 2 capital so long as these terms:
</P>
<P>(1) have been commonly used by banking organizations,
</P>
<P>(2) do not provide an unreasonably high degree of protection to the holder in cases not involving bankruptcy or receivership, and
</P>
<P>(3) do not effectively allow the holder to stand ahead of the general creditors of the issuing institution in cases of bankruptcy or receivership.
</P>
<P>Subordinated debt containing provisions that permit the holders of the debt to accelerate payment of principal when the banking organization begins to experience difficulties, for example, when it fails to meet certain financial ratios, such as capital ratios or rates of return, does not meet these three criteria. Consequently, subordinated debt issued prior to the release of this interpretation containing such provisions may not be included within Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on the amount of subordinated debt in capital</I>—(1) <I>Basic limitation.</I> The amount of subordinated debt an institution may include in Tier 2 capital is limited to 50 percent of the amount of the institution's Tier 1 capital. The amount of a subordinated debt issue that may be included in Tier 2 capital is discounted as it approaches maturity; one-fifth of the original amount of the instrument, less any redemptions, is excluded each year from Tier 2 capital during the last five years prior to maturity. If the instrument has a serial redemption feature such that, for example, half matures in seven years and half matures in ten years, the issuing organization should begin discounting the seven-year portion after two years and the ten-year portion after five years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment of debt with dedicated proceeds.</I> If a banking organization has issued common or preferred stock and dedicated the proceeds to the redemption of a mandatory convertible debt security, that portion of the security covered by the amount of the proceeds so dedicated is considered to be ordinary subordinated debt for capital purposes, provided the proceeds are not placed in a sinking fund, trust fund, or similar segregated account or are not used in the interim for some other purpose. Thus, dedicated portions of mandatory convertible debt securities are subject, like other subordinated debt, to the 50 percent sublimit within Tier 2 capital, as well as to discounting in the last five years of life. Undedicated portions of mandatory convertible debt may be included in Tier 2 capital without any sublimit and are not subject to discounting.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment of debt with segregated funds.</I> In some cases, the provisions in mandatory convertible debt issues may require the issuing banking organization to set up a sinking fund, trust fund, or similar segregated account to hold the proceeds from the sale of equity securities dedicated to pay off the principal of the mandatory convertible debt at maturity. The portion of mandatory convertibles covered by the amount of proceeds deposited in such a segregated fund is considered secured and, thus, may not be included in capital at all, let alone be treated as subordinated debt that is subject to the 50 percent sublimit within Tier 2 capital. The maintenance of such separate segregated funds for the redemption of mandatory convertible debt exceeds the requirements of appendix B to Regulation Y. Accordingly, if a banking organization, with the agreement of its debtholders, seeks Federal Reserve approval to eliminate such a fund, approval normally would be given unless supervisory concerns warrant otherwise.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Redemption of subordinated debt prior to maturity</I>—(1) <I>By state member banks.</I> State member banks must obtain approval from the appropriate Reserve Bank prior to redeeming before maturity subordinated debt or mandatory convertible debt included in capital. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> A Reserve Bank will not approve such early redemption unless it is satisfied that the capital position of the bank will be adequate after the proposed redemption.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Some agreements governing mandatory convertible debt issued prior to the risk-based capital guidelines provide that the bank may redeem the notes if they no longer count as primary capital as defined in appendix B to Regulation Y. Such a provision does not obviate the requirement to receive Federal Reserve approval prior to redemption.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>By bank holding companies.</I> While bank holding companies are not formally required to obtain approval prior to redeeming subordinated debt, the risk-based capital guidelines state that bank holding companies should consult with the Federal Reserve before redeeming any capital instruments prior to stated maturity. This also applies to any redemption of mandatory convertible debt with proceeds of an equity issuance that were dedicated to the redemption of that debt. Accordingly, a bank holding company should consult with its Reserve Bank prior to redeeming subordinated debt or dedicated portions of mandatory convertible debt included in capital. A Reserve Bank generally will not acquiesce to such a redemption unless it is satisfied that the capital position of the bank holding company would be adequate after the proposed redemption.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special concerns involving mandatory convertible debt.</I> Consistent with appendix B to Regulation Y, bank holding companies wishing to redeem before maturity undedicated portions of mandatory convertible debt included in capital are required to receive prior Federal Reserve approval, unless the redemption is effected with the proceeds from the sale or common or perpetual preferred stock. An organization planning to effect such a redemption with the proceeds from the sale of common or perpetual preferred stock is advised to consult informally with its Reserve Bank in order to avoid the possibility of taking an action that could result in weakening its capital position. A Reserve Bank will not approve the redemption of mandatory convertible securities, or acquiesce in such a redemption effected with the sale of common or perpetual preferred stock, unless it is satisfied that the capital position of the bank holding company will be satisfactory after the redemption. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The guidance contained in this paragraph applies to mandatory convertible debt issued prior to the risk-based capital guidelines that state that the banking organization may redeem the notes if they no longer count as primary capital as defined in appendix B to Regulation Y. Such provisions do not obviate the need to consult with, or obtain approval from, the Federal Reserve prior to redemption of the debt.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 40598, Sept. 4, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.180" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.180   Reports of changes in control of management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under a statute enacted September 12, 1964 (Pub. L. 88-593; 78 Stat. 940) all insured banks are required to report promptly (1) changes in the outstanding voting stock of the bank which will result in control or in a change in control of the bank and (2) any instances where the bank makes a loan or loans, secured, or to be secured, by 25 percent or more of the outstanding voting stock of an insured bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) Reports concerning changes in control of a State member bank are to be made by the president or other chief executive officer of the bank, and shall be submitted to the Federal Reserve Bank of its district. 
</P>
<P>(c) Reports concerning loans by an insured bank on the stock of a State member bank are to be made by the president or other chief executive officer of the lending bank, and shall be submitted to the Federal Reserve Bank of the State member bank on the stock of which the loan was made. 
</P>
<P>(d) Paragraphs 3 and 4 of this legislation specify the information required in the reports which, in cases involving State member banks, should be addressed to the Vice President in Charge of Examinations of the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1817)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.181" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.181   Reports of change in control of bank management incident to a merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State member bank has inquired whether Pub. L. 88-593 (78 Stat. 940) requires reports of change in control of bank management in situations where the change occurs as an incident in a merger. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under the Bank Merger Act of 1960 (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), no bank with Federal deposit insurance may merge or consolidate with, or acquire the assets of, or assume the liability to pay deposits in, any other insured bank without prior approval of the appropriate Federal bank supervisory agency. Where the bank resulting from any such transaction is a State member bank, the Board of Governors is the agency that must pass on the transaction. In the course of consideration of such an application, the Board would, of necessity, acquire knowledge of any change in control of management that might result. Information concerning any such change in control of management is supplied with each merger application and, in the circumstances, it is the view of the Board that the receipt of such information in connection with a merger application constitutes compliance with Pub. L. 88-593. However, once a merger has been approved and completely effectuated, the resulting bank would thereafter be subject to the reporting requirements of Pub. L. 88-593. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1817)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.182" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.182   Terms defining competitive effects of proposed mergers.</HEAD>
<P>Under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), a Federal Banking agency receiving a merger application must request the views of the other two banking agencies and the Department of Justice on the competitive factors involved. Standard descriptive terms are used by the Board, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the Comptroller of the Currency. The terms and their definitions are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>monopoly</I> means that the proposed transaction must be disapproved in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(5)(A).
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>substantially adverse</I> means that the proposed transaction would have anticompetitive effects which preclude approval unless the anticompetitive effects are clearly outweighed in the public interest by the probable effect of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community to be served as specified in 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(5)(B).
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>adverse</I> means that proposed transaction would have anticompetitive effects which would be material to the decision but which would not preclude approval.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>no significant effect</I> means that the anticompetitive effects of the proposed transaction, if any, would not be material to the decision.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1828(c))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 45257, July 3, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.200" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.200   Investment in bank premises by holding company banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether, in determining under section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371d) how much may be invested in bank premises without prior Board approval, a State member bank, which is owned by a registered bank holding company, is required to include indebtedness of a corporation, wholly owned by the holding company, that is engaged in holding premises of banks in the holding company system. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 24A provides, in part, as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Hereafter * * * no State member bank, without the approval of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, shall (1) invest in bank premises, or in the stock, bonds, debentures, or other such obligations of any corporation holding the premises of such bank or (2) make loans to or upon the security of the stock of any such corporation, if the aggregate of all such investments and loans, together with the amount of any indebtedness incurred by any such corporation which is an affiliate of the bank, as defined in section 2 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended [12 U.S.C. 221a], will exceed the amount of the capital stock of such banks.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) A corporation that is owned by a holding company is an “affiliate of each of the holding company's majority-owned banks as that term is defined in said section 2. Therefore, under the explicit provisions of section 24A, each State member bank, any part of whose premises is owned by such an affiliate, must include the affiliate's total indebtedness in determining whether a proposed premises investment by the bank would cause the aggregate figure to exceed the amount of the bank's capital stock, so that the Board's prior approval would be required. Where the affiliate holds the premises of a number of the holding company's banks, the amount of the affiliate's indebtedness may be so large that Board approval is required for every proposed investment in bank premises by each majority-owned State member bank, to which the entire indebtedness of the affiliate is required to be attributed. The Board believes that, in these circumstances, individual approvals are not essential to effectuate the purpose of section 24A, which is to safeguard the soundness and liquidity of member banks, and that the protection sought by Congress can be achieved by a suitably circumscribed general approval.
</P>
<P>(d) Accordingly the Board hereby grants general approval for any investment or loan (as described in section 24A) by any State member bank, the majority of the stock of which is owned by a registered bank holding company, if the proposed investment or loan will not cause either (1) all such investments and loans by the member bank (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises subsidiary thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the bank's capital stock, or (2) the aggregate of such investments and loans by all of the holding company's subsidiary banks (together with the indebtedness of any bank premises affiliates thereof) to exceed 100 percent of the aggregate capital stock of said banks. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 221a, 371d)


</SECAUTH>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.220" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.220   Whether member bank acting as trustee is prohibited by section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 from acquiring majority of shares of mutual fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board recently considered whether section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377) would prohibit a member bank, while acting as trustee of a tax exempt employee benefit trust or trusts, from, under the following circumstances, acquiring a majority of the shares of an open-end investment company (“Fund”) registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, or more than 50 percent of the number of Fund's shares voted at the preceding election of directors of the Fund. 
</P>
<P>(b) The bank has acted as trustee, since December 1963, pursuant to a trust agreement with a county medical society to administer its group retirement program, under which individual members of the society could participate in accordance with the provisions of the Self-Employed Individuals Tax Retirement Act of 1962 (commonly referred to as “H.R. 10”). 
</P>
<P>(c) Under the trust agreement as presently constituted, each employer, who is a participating member of the medical society, directs the bank to invest his contributions to the retirement plan in such proportions as he may elect in insurance or annuity contracts or in a diversified portfolio of securities and other property. The diversified portfolio held by the bank is invested and administered by the bank solely at the direction of a committee of the medical society. 
</P>
<P>(d) It has now been proposed that the trust agreement be amended to provide that all investments constituting the trust fund, apart from insurance and annuity contracts, will be made exclusively in shares of a single open-end investment company to be named in the trust agreement and that the assets constituting the diversified portfolio now held by the bank, as trustee, will be exchanged for the Fund's shares. The bank will, in addition to holding the shares of the Fund, allocate income and dividends to the accounts of the various participants in the retirement program, invest and reinvest income and dividends, and perform other ministerial functions. 
</P>
<P>(e) In addition, it is proposed to amend the trust agreement so that voting of the shares held by the bank as trustee will be controlled exclusively by the participants. Under the proposed amendment, the bank will sign all proxies prior to mailing them to the participants, 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>it being intended that the Participant(s) shall vote the proxies notwithstanding the fact that the Trustee is the owner of the shares * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) The bank believes that amendments are now under consideration that will also require investment of the assets of these plans exclusively in the Fund's shares. Accordingly, the bank may eventually own the Fund's shares in several separate trust accounts and in an aggregate amount equal to a majority of the Fund's shares. 
</P>
<P>(g) Section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 provides in relevant part that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>no member bank shall be affiliated in any manner described in section 2(b) hereof with any corporation * * * engaged principally in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution at wholesale or retail or through syndicate participation of stocks * * * or other securities: * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) Section 2(b) defines the term <I>affiliate</I> to include
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>any corporation, business trust, association or other similar organization (1) Of which a member bank, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions; * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) The Board has previously taken the position, in an interpretation involving the term <I>affiliate</I> under the Banking Act of 1933, that it would not require a member bank to obtain and publish a report of a corporation the majority of the stock of which is held by the member bank as executor or trustee, provided that the member bank holds such stock subject to control by a court or by a beneficiary or other principal and that the member bank may not lawfully exercise control of such stock independently of any order or direction of a court, beneficiary or other principal. 1933 Federal Reserve Bulletin 651. The rationale of that interpretation—which was reaffirmed by the Board in 1957—would appear to be equally applicable to the facts in the present case. In the circumstances, and on the basis of the Board's understanding that the bank will not vote any of Fund's shares or control in any manner the election of any of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions, the Board has concluded that the situation in question would not fall within the purpose or coverage of section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 and, therefore, would not involve a violation of the statute. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.221" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.221   Issuance and sale of short-term debt obligations by bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The opinion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has been requested recently with respect to the proposed sale of “thrift notes” by a bank holding company for the purpose of supplying capital to its wholly-owned nonbanking subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(b) The thrift notes would bear the name of the holding company, which in the case presented, was substantially similar to the name of its affiliated banks. It was proposed that they be issued in denominations of $50 to $100 and initially be of 12-month or less maturities. There would be no maximum amount of the issue. Interest rates would be variable according to money market conditions but would presumably be at rates somewhat above those permitted by Regulation Q ceilings. There would be no guarantee or indemnity of the notes by any of the banks in the holding company system and, if required to do so, the holding company would place on the face of the notes a negative representation that the purchase price was not a deposit, nor an indirect obligation of banks in the holding company system, nor covered by deposit insurance. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notes would be generally available for sale to members of the public, but only at offices of the holding company and its nonbanking subsidiaries. Although offices of the holding company may be in the same building or quarters as its banking offices, they would be physically separated from the banking offices. Sales would be made only by officers or employees of the holding company and its nonbanking subsidiaries. Initially, the notes would only be offered in the State in which the holding company was principally doing business, thereby complying with the exemption provided by section 3(a)(11) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77c) for “intra-state” offerings. If it was decided to offer the notes on an interstate basis, steps would be taken to register the notes under the Securities Act of 1933. Funds from the sale of the notes would be used only to supply the financial needs of the nonbanking subsidiaries of the holding company. These nonbank subsidiaries are, at present, a small loan company, a mortgage banking company and a factoring company. In no instance would the proceeds from the sale of the notes be used in the bank subsidiaries of the holding company nor to maintain the availability of funds in its bank subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(d) The sale of the thrift notes, in the specific manner proposed, is an activity described in section 20 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377), that is, “the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale or distribution * * * of * * * notes, or other securities”. Briefly stated, this statute prohibits a member bank to be affiliated with a company “engaged principally” in such activity. Since the continued issuance and sale of such securities would be necessary to permit maintenance of the holding company's activities without substantial contraction and would be an integral part of its operations, the Board concluded that the issuance and sale of such notes would constitute a principal activity of a holding company within the spirit and purpose of the statute. (For prior Board decisions in this connection, see 1934 Federal Reserve Bulletin 485, 12 CFR 218.104, 12 CFR 218.105 and 12 CFR 218.101.) 
</P>
<P>(e) In reaching this conclusion, the Board distinguished the proposed activity from the sale of short-term notes commonly known as <I>commercial paper,</I> which is a recognized form of financing for bank holding companies. For purposes of this interpretation, <I>commercial paper</I> may be defined as notes, with maturities not exceeding nine months, the proceeds of which are to be used for current transactions, which are usually sold to sophisticated institutional investors, rather than to members of the general public, in minimum denominations of $10,000 (although sometimes they may be sold in minimum denominations of $5,000). Commercial paper is exempt from registration under the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of the exemption provided by section 3(a)(3) thereof (15 U.S.C. 77c). That exemption is inapplicable where the securities are sold to the general public (17 CFR 231.4412). The reasons for such exemption, taken together with the abuses that gave rise to the passage of the Banking Act of 1933 (“the Glass-Steagall Act”), have led the Board to conclude that the issuance of commercial paper by a bank holding company is not an activity intended to be included within the scope of section 20. 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(Interprets and applies 12 U.S.C. 377 and 1843)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. Y, 38 FR 35231, Dec. 26, 1973]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.260" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.260   Miscellaneous interpretations; gold coin and bullion.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has received numerous inquiries from member banks relating to the repeal of the ban on ownership of gold by United States citizens. Listed below are questions and answers which affect member banks and relate to the responsibilities of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(a) May gold in the form of coins or bullion be counted as vault cash in order to satisfy reserve requirements? No. Section 19(c) of the Federal Reserve Act requires that reserve balances be satisfied either by a balance maintained at the Federal Reserve Bank or by vault cash, consisting of United States currency and coin. Gold in bullion form is not United States currency. Since the bullion value of United States gold coins far exceeds their face value, member banks would not in practice distribute them over the counter at face value to satisfy customer demands. 
</P>
<P>(b) Will the Federal Reserve Banks perform services for member banks with respect to gold, such as safekeeping or assaying? No. 
</P>
<P>(c) Will a Federal Reserve Bank accept gold as collateral for an advance to a member bank under section 10(b) of the Federal Reserve Act? No.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 45254, Dec. 31, 1974]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations of Section 32 of the Glass-Steagall Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.400" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.400   Service of open-end investment company.</HEAD>
<P>An open-end investment company is defined in section 5(a)(1) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 as a company “which is offering for sale or has outstanding any redeemable security of which it is the issuer.” Section 2(a)(31) of said act provides that a <I>redeemable security</I> means “any security, other than short-term paper, under the terms of which the holder, upon its presentation to the issuer or to a person designated by the issuer, is entitled (whether absolutely or only out of surplus) to receive approximately his proportionate share of the issuer's current net assets, or the cash equivalent thereof.”
</P>
<FP>It is customary for such companies to have but one class of securities, namely, capital stock, and it is apparent that the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such a company would restrict and contract its activities if it did not continue to issue its stock. Thus, the issuance and sale of its stock is essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of operations without substantial contraction, and therefore the issue and sale of its stock constitutes one of the primary activities of such a company.
</FP>
<FP>Accordingly, it is the opinion of the Board that if such a company is issuing or offering its redeemable stock for sale, it is “primarily engaged in the issue * * * public sale, or distribution, * * * of securities” and that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933, as amended, prohibits an officer, director or employee of any such company from serving at the same time as an officer, director or employee of any member bank. It is the Board's view that this is true even though the shares are sold to the public through independent organizations with the result that the investment company does not derive any direct profit from the sales.
</FP>
<FP>If, however, the company has ceased to issue or offer any of its stock for sale, the company would not be engaged in the issue or distribution of its stock, and, therefore, the prohibition contained in section 32 would be inapplicable unless the company were primarily engaged in the underwriting, public sale or distribution of securities other than its own stock.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[16 FR 4963, May 26, 1951. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.401" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.401   Director serving member bank and closed-end investment company being organized.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has previously expressed the opinion (§ 218.101) that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) is applicable to a director of a member bank serving as a director of an open-end investment company, because the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such company makes the issuance and sale of its stock essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of operations, with the result that the issuance and sale of its stock constitutes one of the primary activities of such a company. The Board also stated that if the company had ceased to issue or offer any of its stock for sale, the company would not be engaged in the issuance or distribution of its stock and therefore the prohibitions of section 32 would not be applicable. Subsequently, the Board expressed the opinion that section 32 would not be applicable in the case of a closed-end investment company. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has recently stated that it believed that a closed-end company which was in process of organization and was actively engaged in issuing and selling its shares was in the same position relative to section 32 as an open-end company, and that the section would be applicable while this activity continued.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 3464, Apr. 21, 1960. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.402" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.402   Service as officer, director, or employee of licensee corporation under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been requested to express an opinion whether § 218.1 would prohibit an officer, director, or employee of a member bank from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of a Licensee corporation under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>). It is understood that a Licensee would be authorized to engage only in the activities set forth in the statute, namely, to provide capital and long-term loan funds to small business concerns. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the opinion of the Board, a corporation engaged exclusively in the enumerated activities would not be “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities.” Accordingly, the prohibition of § 218.1 would not apply to serving as an officer, director, or employee of either a small business investment company organized under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, or an investment company chartered under the laws of a State solely for the purpose of operating under the Small Business Investment Act of 1958.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[25 FR 4427, May 19, 1960. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.403" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.403   Service of member bank and real estate investment company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board recently considered two inquiries regarding the question whether proposed real estate investment companies would be subject to the provisions of sections 20 and 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 377 and 78). These sections relate to affiliations between member banks and companies engaged principally in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale or distribution of stocks, bonds, or similar securities, and interlocking directorates between member banks and companies primarily so engaged. In both instances the companies, after their organization, would engage only in the business of financing real estate development or investing in real estate interests, and not in the type of business described in the statute. However, each of the companies, in the process of its organization, would issue its own stock. In one instance, it appeared that the stock would be issued over a period of from 30 to 60 days; in the other instance it was stated that the stock would be sold by a firm of underwriters and that distribution was expected to be completed in not more than a few days. 
</P>
<P>(b) On the basis of the facts stated, the Board concluded that the companies involved would not be subject to sections 20 and 32 of the Banking Act of 1933, since they would not be principally or primarily engaged in the business of issuing or distributing securities but would only be issuing their own stock for a period ordinarily required for corporate organization. The Board stated, however, that if either of the companies should subsequently issue additional shares frequently and in substantial amounts relative to the size of the company's capital structure, it would be necessary for the Board to reconsider the matter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Apart from the legal question, the Board noted that an arrangement of the kind proposed could involve some dangers to an affiliated bank because the relationship might tend to impair the independent judgment that should be exercised by the bank in appraising its credits and might cause the company to be so identified in the minds of the public with the bank that any financial reverses suffered by the company might affect the confidence of the public in the bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) Because of the foregoing conclusion that the companies would not be subject to sections 20 and 32, it seems advisable to clarify § 218.102, in which the Board took the position that a closed-end investment company which was in process of organization and was actively engaged in issuing and selling its shares was subject to section 32 as long as this activity continued. That interpretation should be regarded as applicable only where the circumstances are such as to indicate that the issuance of the company's stock is a primary or principal activity of the company. For example, such circumstances might exist where the initial stock of a company is actively issued over a period of time longer than that ordinarily required for corporate organization, or where, subsequent to organization, the company issues its own stock frequently and in substantial amounts relative to the total amount of shares outstanding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 868, Jan. 28, 1961. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.404" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.404   Serving as director of member bank and corporation selling own stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board recently considered the question whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) would be applicable to the service of a director of a corporation which planned to acquire or organize, as proceeds from the sale of stock became available, subsidiaries to operate in a wide variety of fields, including manufacturing, foreign trade, leasing of heavy equipment, and real estate development. The corporation had a paid-in capital of about $60,000 and planned to sell additional shares at a price totaling $10 million, with the proviso that if less than $3 million worth were sold by March 1962, the funds subscribed would be refunded. It thus appeared to be contemplated that the sale of stock would take at least a year, and there appeared to be no reason for believing that, if the venture proved successful, additional shares would not be offered so that the corporation could continue to expand. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board concluded that section 32 would be applicable, stating that although § 218.102, as clarified by § 218.104, related to closed-end investment companies, the rationale of that interpretation is applicable to corporations generally.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[26 FR 2456, Mar. 23, 1961. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.405" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.405   No exception granted a special or limited partner.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked on several occasions whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) is applicable to a director, officer, or employee of a member bank who is a special or limited partner in a firm primarily engaged in the business described in that section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Since the Board cannot issue an individual permit, it can exempt a limited or special partner only by amending part 218 (Regulation R). After the statute was amended in 1935 so as to make it applicable to a <I>partner,</I> the Board carefully considered the desirability of making such an exception. On several subsequent occasions it has reconsidered the question. In each instance the Board has decided that in view of a limited partner's interest in the underwriting and distributing business, it should not make the exception.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[27 FR 7954, Aug. 10, 1962. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.406" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.406   Serving member bank and investment advisor with mutual fund affiliation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The opinion of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has been requested with respect to service as vice president of a corporation engaged in supplying investment advice and management services to mutual funds and others (“Manager”) and as director of a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78), forbids any officer, director, or employee of any corporation “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities * * *” to serve at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) Manager has for several years served a number of different open-end or mutual funds, as well as individuals, institutions, and other clients, as an investment advisor and manager. However, it appears that Manager has a close relationship with two of the mutual funds which it serves. A wholly owned subsidiary of Manager (“Distributors”), serves as distributor for the two mutual funds and has no other function. In addition, the chairman and treasurer of Manager, as well as the president, assistant treasurer, and a director of Manager, are officers and directors of Distributors and trustees of both funds. It appears also that a director of Manager is president and director of Distributors, while the clerk of Manager is also clerk of Distributors. Manager, Distributors and both funds are listed at the same address in the local telephone directory. 
</P>
<P>(d) While the greater part of the total annual income of Manager during the past five years has derived from “individuals, institutions, and other clients”, it appears that a substantial portion has been attributable to the involvement with the two funds in question. During each of the last four years, that portion has exceeded a third of the total income of Manager, and in 1962 it reached nearly 40 percent. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board has consistently held that an open-end or mutual fund is engaged in the activities described in section 32, so long as it is issuing its securities for sale, since it is apparent that the more or less continued process of redemption of the stock issued by such a company would restrict and contract its activities if it did not continue to issue the stock. Clearly, a corporation that is engaged in underwriting or selling open-end shares, is so engaged. 
</P>
<P>(f) In connection with incorporated manager-advisors to open-end or mutual funds, the Board has expressed the view in a number of cases that where the corporation served a number of different clients, and the corporate structure was not interlocked with that of mutual fund and underwriter in such a way that it could be regarded as being controlled by or substantially one with them, it should not be held to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 activities. On the other hand, where a manager-advisor was created for the sole purpose of serving a particular fund, and its activities were limited to that function, the Board has regarded the group as a single entity for purposes of section 32. 
</P>
<P>(g) In the present case, the selling organization is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the advisor-manager, hence subject to the parent's control. Stock of the subsidiary will be voted according to decisions by the parent's board of directors, and presumably will be voted for a board of directors of the subsidiary which is responsive to policy lines laid down by the parent. Financial interests of the parent are obviously best served by an aggressive selling policy, and, in fact, both the share and the absolute amount of the parent's income provided by the two funds have shown a steady increase over recent years. The fact that dividends from Distributors have represented a relatively small proportion of the income of Manager, and that there were, indeed, no dividends in 1961 or 1962, does not support a contrary argument, in view of the steady increase in total income of Manager from the funds and Distributors taken as a whole. 
</P>
<P>(h) In view of all these facts, the Board has concluded that the separate corporate entities of Manager and Distributors should be disregarded and Distributors viewed as essentially a selling arm of Manager. As a result of this conclusion, section 32 would forbid interlocking service as an officer of Manager and a director of a member bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[28 FR 13437, Dec. 12, 1963. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.407" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.407   Interlocking relationship involving securities affiliate of brokerage firm.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors was asked recently whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (“section 32”), 12 U.S.C. 78, prohibits the interlocking service of X as a director of a member bank of the Federal Reserve System and as a partner in a New York City brokerage firm (“Partnership”) having a corporation affiliate (“Corporation”) engaged in business of the kinds described in section 32 (“section 32 business”). 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 32, subject to an exception not applicable here, provides that 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) From the information submitted it appears that Partnership, a member firm of the New York Stock Exchange, is the successor of two prior partnerships, in one of which X had been a partner. This prior partnership had been found not to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. The other prior partnership, however, had been so engaged. By arrangement between the two prior firms, Corporation was formed chiefly for the purpose of carrying on the section 32 business of the prior firm that had been “primarily engaged” in that business, which business was transferred to Corporation. The two prior firms were then merged and the stock of Corporation was acquired by all the partners of Partnership, other than X, in proportion to the respective partnership interests of the stockholding partners. The information submitted indicated also that two of the three directors and “some” of the principal officers of Corporation are partners in Partnership, although X is not a director or officer of Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(d) It is understood that the practice of forming corporate affiliates of brokerage firms, in order that the affiliate may carry on the securities business (such as section 32 business) with limited liability and other advantages, has become rather widespread in recent years. Accordingly, other cases may arise where a partner in such a firm may desire to serve at the same time as director of a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) On the basis of the information presented the Board concluded that X in his capacity as an “individual”, was not engaged in section 32 business. However, as that information showed Corporation to be “primarily engaged” in section 32 business, the Board stated that a finding that Partnership and Corporation were one entity for the purposes of the statute would mean that X would be forbidden to serve both the member bank and Partnership, if the one entity were so engaged. 
</P>
<P>(f) Paragraph .15 of Rule 321 of the New York Stock Exchange governing the formation and conduct of affiliated companies of member organizations states that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Since Rule 314 provides that each member and allied member in a member organization must have a fixed interest in its entire business, it follows that the fixed interest of each member and allied member must extend to the member organization's corporate affiliate. When any of the corporate affiliate's participating stock is owned by the members and allied members in the member organization, such holdings must at all times be distributed among such members and allied members in approximately the same proportions as their respective interests in the profits of the member organization. When a member or allied member's interest in the member organization is changed, a corresponding change must be made in his participating interest in the affiliate.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) Although it was understood that X had received special permission from the Exchange not to own any of the stock of Corporation, it appeared to the Board that Rule 321.15 would apply to the remaining partners. Moreover, other paragraphs of the rule forbid transfers of the stock, except under certain circumstances to limited classes of persons, such as employees of the organization or estates of decedent partners, without permission of the Exchange. 
</P>
<P>(h) The information supplied to the Board clearly indicated that Corporation was formed in order to provide Partnership with an “underwriting arm”. Under Rule 321 of the Exchange, the partners (other than X) are required to own stock in Corporation because of their partnership interest, would be required to surrender that stock on leaving the partnership, and incoming partners would be required to acquire such stock. Furthermore, Rule 321 speaks of a corporate affiliate, such as Corporation, as a part of the “entire business” of a member organization. 
</P>
<P>(i) On the basis of the foregoing, the Board concluded that Partnership and Corporation must be regarded as a single entity or enterprise for purposes of section 32. 
</P>
<P>(j) The remaining question was whether the enterprise, as a whole, should be regarded as “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. The Information presented stated that the total dollar volume of section 32 business of Corporation during the first eleven months of its operation was $89 million. The gross income from section 32 business was less than half a million, and represented about 7.9 percent of the income of Partnership. The Board was advised that the relatively low amount of income from section 32 business of Corporation as due to special costs, and to the condition of the market for municipal and State bonds during the past year, a field in which Corporation specializes. Corporation is listed in a standard directory of securities dealers, and holds itself out as having separate departments to deal with the principal underwriting areas in which it functions. 
</P>
<P>(k) In view of the above information, the Board concluded that the enterprise consisting of Partnership and Corporation was “primarily engaged” in section 32 business. Accordingly, the Board stated that the partners in Partnership, including X, were forbidden by that section and by this part 218 (Reg. R), issued pursuant to the statute, to serve as officers, directors, or employees of any member banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 5315, Apr. 18, 1964. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.408" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.408   Short-term negotiable notes of banks not securities under section 32, Banking Act of 1933.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been asked whether short-term unsecured negotiable notes of the kinds issued by some of the large banks in this country as a means of obtaining funds are “other similar securities” within the meaning of section 32, Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) and this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 32 forbids certain interlocking relationships between banks which are members of the Federal Reserve System and individuals or organizations “primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities * * *.” Therefore, if such notes are securities similar to stocks or bonds, any dealing therein would be an activity covered in section 32 and would have to be taken into consideration in determining whether the individual or organization involved was “primarily engaged” in such activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has concluded that such short-term notes of the kind described above are not “other similar securities” within the meaning of section 32 and this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[29 FR 16065, Dec. 2, 1964. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.409" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.409   Investment for own account affects applicability of section 32.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors has been presented with the question whether a certain firm is primarily engaged in the activities described in section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933. If the firm is so engaged, then the prohibitions of section 32 forbids a limited partner to serve as employee of a member bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) The firm describes the bulk of its business, producing roughly 60 percent of its income, as “investing for its own account.” However, it has a seat on the local stock exchange, and acts as specialist and odd-lot dealer on the floor of the exchange, an activity responsible for some 30 percent of its volume and profits. The firm's “off-post trading,” apart from the investment account, gives rise to about 5 percent of its total volume and 10 percent of its profits. Gross volume has risen from $4 to $10 million over the past 3 years, but underwriting has accounted for no more than one-half of 1 percent of that amount. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 32 provides that
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner, or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale, or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve the same time (sic) as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) In interpreting this language, the Board has consistently held that underwriting, acting as a dealer, or generally speaking, selling, or distributing securities as a principal, is covered by the section, while acting as broker or agent is not. 
</P>
<P>(e) In one type of situation, however, although a firm was engaged in selling securities as principal, on its own behalf, the Board held that section 32 did not apply. In these cases, the firm alleged that it bought and sold securities purely for investment purposes. Typically, those cases involved personal holding companies or small family investment companies. Securities had been purchased only for members of a restricted family group, and had been held for relatively long periods of time. 
</P>
<P>(f) The question now before the Board is whether a similar exception can apply in the case of the investment account of a professional dealer. In order to answer this question, it is necessary to analyze, in the light of applicable principles under the statute, the three main types of activity in which the firm has been engaged, (1) acting as specialist and odd-lot dealer, (2) off-post trading as an ordinary dealer, and (3) investing for its own account. 
</P>
<P>(g) On several occasions, the Board has held that, to the extent the trading of a specialist or odd-lot dealer is limited to that required for him to perform his function on the floor of the exchange, he is acting essentially in an agency capacity. In a letter of September 13, 1934, the Board held that the business of a specialist was not of the kind described in the (unamended) section on the understanding that
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>* * * in acting as specialists on the New York Curb Exchange, it is necessary for the firm to buy and sell odd lots and * * * in order to protect its position after such transactions have been made, the firm sells or buys shares in lots of 100 or multiples thereof in order to reduce its position in the stock in question to the smallest amount possible by this method. It appears therefore that, in connection with these transactions, the firm is neither trading in the stock in question or taking a position in it except to the extent made necessary by the fact that it deals in odd lots and cannot complete the transactions by purchases and sales on the floor of the exchange except to the nearest 100 share amount.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) While subsequent amendments to section 32 to some extent changed the definition of the kinds of securities business that would be covered by the section, the amendments were designed so far as is relevant to the present question, to embody existing interpretations of the Board. Accordingly, to the extent that the firm's business is described by the above letter of the Board, it should not be considered to be of a kind described in section 32. 
</P>
<P>(i) Turning to the firm's off-post trading, the Board is inclined to agree with the view that this is sufficient to make the case a borderline one under the statute. In the circumstances, the Board might prefer to postpone making a determination until figures for 1965 could be reviewed, particularly in the light of the recent increase in total volume, if it were not for the third category, the firm's own investment account. 
</P>
<P>(j) While this question has not been squarely presented to it in the past, the Board is of the opinion that when a firm is doing any significant amount of business as a dealer or underwriter, then investments for the firm's own account should be taken into consideration in determining whether the firm is “primarily engaged” in the activities described in section 32. The division into dealing for one's own account, and dealing with customers, is a highly subjective one, and although a particular firm or individual may be quite scrupulous in separating the two, the opportunity necessarily exists for the kind of abuse at which the statute is directed. The Act is designed to prevent situations from arising in which a bank director, officer, or employee could influence the bank or its customers to invest in securities in which his firm has an interest, regardless of whether he, as an individual, is likely to do so. In the present case, when these activities are added to the firm's “off-post trading”, the firm clearly falls within the statutory definition. 
</P>
<P>(k) For the reasons just discussed, the Board concludes that the firm must be considered to be primarily engaged in activities described in section 32, and that the prohibitions of the section forbid a limited partner in that firm to serve as employee of a member bank.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 7743, June 16, 1965. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.410" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.410   Interlocking relationships between bank and its commingled investment account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Governors was asked recently whether the establishment of a proposed “Commingled Investment Account” (“Account”) by a national bank would involve a violation of section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 in view of the interlocking relationships that would exist between the bank and Account. 
</P>
<P>(b) From the information submitted, it was understood that Account would comprise a commingled fund, to be operated under the effective control of the bank, for the collective investment of sums of money that might otherwise be handled individually by the bank as managing agent. It was understood further that the Comptroller of the Currency had taken the position that Account would be an eligible operation for a national bank under his Regulation 9, “Fiduciary Powers of National Banks and Collective Investment Funds” (part 9 of this title). The bank had advised the Board that the Securities and Exchange Commission was of the view that Account would be a “registered investment company” within the meaning of the Investment Company Act of 1940, and that participating interests in Account would be “securities” subject to the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933. 
</P>
<P>(c) The information submitted showed also that the minimum individual participation that would be permitted in Account would be $10,000, while the maximum acceptable individual investment would be half a million dollars; that there would be no “load” or payment by customers for the privilege of investing in Account; and that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>The availability of the Commingled Account would not be given publicity by the Bank except in connection with the promotion of its fiduciary services in general and the Bank would not advertise or publicize the Commingled Account as such. Participations in the Commingled Account are to be made available only on the premises of the Bank (including its branches), or to persons who are already customers of the Bank in other connections, or in response to unsolicited requests.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Such information indicated further that participations would be received by the bank as agent, under a broad authorization signed by the customer, substantially equivalent to the power of attorney under which customers currently deposit their funds for individual investment, and that the participations would not be received “in trust.” 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board understood that Account would be required to comply with certain requirements of the Federal securities laws not applicable to an ordinary common trust fund operated by a bank. In particular, supervision of Account would be in the hands of a committee to be initially appointed by the bank, but subsequently elected by participants having a majority of the units of participation in Account. At least one member of the committee would be entirely independent of the bank, but the remaining members would be officers in the trust department of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(f) The committee would make a management agreement with the bank under which the bank would be responsible for managing Account's investments, have custody of its assets, and maintain its books and records. The management agreement would be renewed annually if approved by the committee, including a “majority” of the independent members, or by a vote of participants having a majority of the units of participation. The agreement would be terminable on 60 days' notice by the committee, by such a majority of the participants, or by the bank, and would terminate automatically if assigned by the bank. 
</P>
<P>(g) It was understood also that the bank would receive as annual compensation for its services one-half of one percent of Account's average net assets. Account would also pay for its own independent professional services, including legal, auditing, and accounting services, as well as the cost of maintaining its registration and qualification under the Federal securities laws. 
</P>
<P>(h) Initially, the assets of Account would be divided into units of participation of an arbitrary value, and each customer would be credited with a number of units proportionate to his investment. Subsequently, the assets of Account would be valued at regular intervals, and divided by the number of units outstanding. New investors would receive units at their current value, determined in this way, according to the amount invested. Each customer would receive a receipt evidencing the number of units to which he was entitled. The receipts themselves would be nontransferable, but it would be possible for a customer to arrange with Account for the transfer of his units to someone else. A customer could terminate his participation at any time and withdraw the current value of his units. 
</P>
<P>(i) Section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 provides in relevant part that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(j) The Board concluded, based on its understanding of the proposal and on the general principles that have been developed in respect to the application of section 32, that the bank and Account would constitute a single entity for the purposes of section 32, at least so long as the operation of Account conformed to the representations made by the bank and outlined herein. Accordingly, the Board said that section 32 would not forbid officers of the bank to serve on Account's committee, since Account would be regarded as nothing more than an arm or department of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(k) In conclusion, the Board called attention to section 21 of the Banking Act of 1933 which, briefly, forbids a securities firm or organization to engage in the business of receiving deposits, subject to certain exceptions. However, since section 21 is a criminal statute, the Board has followed the policy of not expressing views as to its meaning. (1934 Federal Reserve Bulletin 41, 543.) The Board, therefore, expressed no position with respect to whether the section might be held Applicable to the establishment and operation of the proposed “Commingled Investment Account.”
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[30 FR 12836, Oct. 8, 1965. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.411" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.411   Interlocking relationships between member bank and variable annuity insurance company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has recently been asked to consider whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 78) and this part prohibit interlocking service between member banks and (1) the board of managers of an accumulation fund, registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80), that sells variable annuities and (2) the board of directors of the insurance company, of which the accumulation fund is a “separate account,” but as to which the insurance company is the sponsor, investment advisor, underwriter, and distributor. Briefly, a variable annuity is one providing for annuity payment varying in accordance with the changing values of a portfolio of securities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Section 32 provides in relevant part that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, no partner or employee of any partnership, and no individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) For many years, the Board's position has been that an open-end investment company (or mutual fund) is “primarily engaged in the issue * * * public sale, or distribution * * * of securities” since the issuance and sale of its stock is essential to the maintenance of the company's size and to the continuance of its operations without substantial contraction, and that section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 prohibits an officer, director, or employee of any such company from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank. (1951 Federal Reserve Bulletin 645; § 218.101.) 
</P>
<P>(d) For reasons similar to those stated by the U.S. Supreme Court in Securities and Exchange Commission <I>v.</I> Variable Annuity Life Insurance Company of America, 359 U.S. 65 (1959), the Board concluded that there is no meaningful basis for distinguishing a variable annuity interest from a mutual fund share for section 32 purposes and that, therefore, variable annuity interests should also be regarded as “other similar securities” within the prohibition of the statute and regulation. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board concluded also that, since the accumulation fund, like a mutual fund, must continually issue and sell its investment units in order to avoid the inevitable contraction of its activities as it makes annuity payments or redeems variable annuity units, the accumulation fund is “primarily engaged” for section 32 purposes. The Board further concluded that the insurance company was likewise “primarily engaged” for the purposes of the statute since it had no significant revenue producing operations other than as underwriter and distributor of the accumulation fund's units and investment advisor to the fund. 
</P>
<P>(f) Although it was clear, therefore, that section 32 prohibits any officers, directors, and employees of member banks from serving in any such capacity with the insurance company or accumulation fund, the Board also considered whether members of the board of managers of the accumulation fund are “officers, directors, or employees” within such prohibition. The functions of the board of managers, who are elected by the variable annuity contract owners, are, with the approval of the variable annuity contract owners, to select annually an independent public accountant, execute annually an agreement providing for investment advisory services, and recommend any changes in the fundamental investment policy of the accumulation fund. In addition, the Board of managers has sole authority to execute an agreement providing for sales and administrative services and to authorize all investments of the assets of the accumulation fund in accordance with its fundamental investment policy. In the opinion of the Board of Governors, the board of managers of the accumulation fund performs functions essentially the same as those performed by classes of persons as to whom the prohibition of section 32 was specifically directed and, accordingly, are within the prohibitions of the statute.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 12886, Sept. 12, 1968. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.412" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.412   Interlocking relationships between member bank and insurance company-mutual fund complex.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has been asked whether section 32 of the Banking Act of 1933 and this part prohibited interlocking service between member banks and (1) the advisory board of a newly organized open-end investment company (mutual fund), (2) the fund's incorporated investment manager-advisor, (3) the insurance company sponsoring and apparently controlling the fund. 
</P>
<P>(b) X Fund, Inc. (“Fund”), the mutual fund, was closely related to X Life Insurance Company (“Insurance Company”), as well as to the incorporated manager and investment advisor to Fund (“Advisors”), and the corporation serving as underwriter for Fund (“Underwriters”). The same persons served as principal officers and directors of Insurance Company, Fund, Advisors, and Underwriters. In addition, several directors of member banks served as directors of Insurance Company and of Advisors and as members of the Advisory Board of Fund, and additional directors of member banks had been named only as members of the Advisory Board. All outstanding shares of Advisors and of Underwriters were apparently owned by Insurance Company. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 32 provides in relevant part that: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>No officer, director, or employee of any corporation * * * primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, shall serve [at] the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank * * *.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) The Board of Governors reaffirmed its earlier position that an open-end investment company is “primarily engaged” in activities described in section 32 “even though the shares are sold to the public through independent organizations with the result that the investment company does not derive any direct profit from the sales.” (1951 Federal Reserve Bulletin 654, § 218.101.) Accordingly, the Board concluded that Fund must be regarded as so engaged, even though its shares were underwritten and distributed by Underwriters. 
</P>
<P>(e) As directors of the member banks involved in the inquiry were not officers, directors, or employees of either Fund or Underwriters, the relevant questions were whether—(1) Advisors, and (2) Insurance Company, should be regarded as being functionally and structurally so closely allied with Fund that they should be treated as one with it in determining the applicability of section 32. An additional question was whether members of the Advisory Board are “officers, directors, or employees” of Fund within the prohibition of the statute. 
</P>
<P>(f) Interlocking service with Advisory Board: The function of the Advisory Board was merely to make suggestions and to counsel with Fund's Board of Directors in regard to investment policy. The Advisory Board had no authority to make binding recommendations in any area, and it did not serve in any sense as a check on the authority of the Board of Directors. Indeed, the Fund's bylaws provided that the Advisory Board “shall have no power or authority to make any contract or incur any liability whatever or to take any action binding upon the Corporation, the Officers, the Board of Directors or the Stockholders.” Members of the Advisory Board were appointed by the Board of Directors of Fund, which could remove any member of the Advisory Board at any time. None of the principal officers of Fund or of Underwriters were members of the Advisory Board; and the compensation of its members was expected to be nominal. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Board of Governors concluded that members of the Advisory Board need not be regarded as “officers, directors, or employees” of Fund or of Underwriters for purposes of section 32, and that the statute, therefore, did not prohibit officers, directors, or employees of member banks from serving as members of the Advisory Board. 
</P>
<P>(h) Interlocking service with Advisors: The principal officers and several of the directors of Advisors were identical with both those of Fund and of Underwriters. Entire management and investment responsibility for Fund had been placed, by contract, with Advisors, subject only to a review authority in the Board of Directors of Fund. Advisors also supplied office space for the conduct of Fund's affairs, and compensated members of the Advisory Board who are also officers or directors of Advisors. Moreover, it appeared that Advisors was created for the sole purpose of servicing Fund, and its activities were to be limited to that function. 
</P>
<P>(i) In the view of the Board of Governors, the structural and functional identity of Fund and Advisors was such that they were to be regarded as a single entity for purposes of section 32, and, accordingly, officers, directors, and employees of member banks were prohibited by section 32 from serving in any such capacity with such entity. 
</P>
<P>(j) Interlocking service with Insurance Company: It was clear that Insurance Company was not as yet “primarily engaged” in business of a kind described in section 32 with respect to the shares of the newly created Fund sponsored by Insurance Company, since the issue and sale of such shares had not yet commenced. Nor did it appear that Insurance Company would be so engaged in the preliminary stages of Fund's existence, when the disproportion between the insurance business of Insurance Company and the sale of Fund shares would be very great. However, it was also clear that if Fund was successfully launched, its activities would rather quickly reach a stage where a serious question would arise as to the applicability of the section 32 prohibition. 
</P>
<P>(k) An estimate supplied to the Board indicated that 100,000 shares of Fund might be sold annually to produce, based on then current values, annual gross sales receipts of over $1 million. Insurance Company's total gross income for its last fiscal year was almost $10 million. On this basis, about one-tenth of the annual gross income of the Insurance Company-Fund complex (more than one-tenth, if income from investments of Insurance Company was eliminated) would be derived from sales of Fund shares. Although total sales of shares of Fund during the first year might not approximate expectations, it was assumed that if the estimate or projection was correct, the annual rate of sale might well rise to that level before the end of the first year of operation. 
</P>
<P>(l) It appeared that net income of Insurance Company from Fund's operations would be minimal for the foreseeable future. However, it was understood that Insurance Company's chief reason for launching Fund was to provide salesmen for Insurance Company (who were to be the only sellers of shares of Fund, and most of whom, Insurance Company hoped, would qualify to sell those shares), with a “package” of mutual fund shares and life insurance policies that would provide increased competitive strength in a highly competitive field. 
</P>
<P>(m) The Board concluded that Insurance Company would be “primarily engaged” in issuing or distributing shares of Fund within the meaning of section 32 by not later than the time of realization of the aforementioned estimated annual rate of sale, and possibly before. As indicated in Board of Governors v. Agnew, 329 U.S. 441 at 446, the prohibition of the statute applies if the section 32 business involved is a “substantial” activity of the company. 
</P>
<P>(n) This, the Board observed, was not to suggest that officers, directors, or employees of Insurance Company who are also directors of member banks would be likely, as individuals, to use their positions with the banks to further sales of Fund's shares. However, as the Supreme Court pointed out in the Agnew case, section 32 is a “preventive or prophylactic measure.” The fact that the individuals involved “have been scrupulous in their relationships” to the banks in question “is immaterial.” 
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 248(i))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[33 FR 13001, Sept. 14, 1968. Redesignated at 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 250.413" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.18.0.2.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 250.413   “Bank-eligible” securities activities.</HEAD>
<P>Section 32 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 78) prohibits any officer, director, or employee of any corporation or unincorporated association, any partner or employee of any partnership, and any individual, primarily engaged in the issue, flotation, underwriting, public sale, or distribution, at wholesale or retail, or through syndicate participation, of stocks, bonds, or other similar securities, from serving at the same time as an officer, director, or employee of any member bank of the Federal Reserve System. The Board is of the opinion that to the extent that a company, other entity or person is engaged in securities activities that are expressly authorized for a state member bank under section 16 of the Glass-Steagall Act (12 U.S.C. 24(7), 335), the company, other entity or individual is not engaged in the types of activities described in section 32. In addition, a securities broker who is engaged solely in executing orders for the purchase and sale of securities on behalf of others in the open market is not engaged in the business referred to in section 32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. R, 61 FR 57289, Nov. 6, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="251" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 251—CONCENTRATION LIMIT (REGULATION XX)


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1844(b), 1852, 3101 <I>et seq</I>.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 68104, Nov. 14, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 251.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.1   Authority, purpose, and other authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under sections 5 and 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844 and 1852); section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818); the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 et seq.); and the recommendations of the Financial Stability Oversight Council (76 <E T="04">Federal Register</E> 6756) (February 8, 2011).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act, which generally prohibits a financial company from merging or consolidating with, acquiring all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquiring control of, another company if the resulting company's consolidated liabilities would exceed 10 percent of the aggregate consolidated liabilities of all financial companies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other authorities.</I> Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any other provision of law or regulation to prohibit or limit a financial company from merging or consolidating with, acquiring all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquiring control of, another company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means, with respect to a company, U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), or such other accounting standard or method of estimation that the Board determines is appropriate pursuant to § 251.3(e).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicable risk-based capital rules</I> means consolidated risk-based capital rules established by an appropriate Federal banking agency that are applicable to a financial company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in § 225.2(e) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(e)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Covered acquisition</I> means a transaction in which a company directly or indirectly merges or consolidates with, acquires all or substantially all of the assets of, or otherwise acquires control of another company. A covered acquisition does not include an acquisition of ownership or control of a company:
</P>
<P>(1) In the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith if the acquired securities or assets are divested within the time period permitted by the appropriate Federal banking agency (including extensions) or, if the financial company does not have an appropriate Federal banking agency, five years;
</P>
<P>(2) In a fiduciary capacity in good faith under applicable fiduciary law if the acquired securities or assets are held in the ordinary course of business and not acquired for the benefit of the company or its shareholders, employees, or subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with <I>bona fide</I> underwriting or market-making activities;
</P>
<P>(4) Solely in connection with a corporate reorganization and the companies involved are lawfully controlled and operated by the financial company both before and following the reorganization; and
</P>
<P>(5) That is, or will be, an issuer of asset back securities (as defined in Section 3(a) of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934) so long as the financial company that retains an ownership interest in the company complies with the credit risk retention requirements in the regulations issued pursuant to section 15G of the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Financial company</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(4) A company that controls an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(5) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, and
</P>
<P>(6) A foreign bank or company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Foreign financial company</I> means a financial company that is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means any nonbank financial company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>U.S. agency</I> has the same meaning as the term “agency” in § 211.21(b) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(b)).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Total regulatory capital</I> has the same meaning as the term “total capital” as defined under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Total risk-based capital ratio</I> means the “total capital ratio” as calculated under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Total risk-weighted assets</I> means the measure of consolidated risk-weighted assets that a financial company uses to calculate its risk-based capital ratios under the applicable risk-based capital rules.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>U.S. branch</I> has the same meaning as the term “branch” in § 211.21(e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(e)).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>U.S. company</I> means a company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>U.S. financial company</I> means a financial company that is a U.S. company.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>U.S. subsidiary</I> means any subsidiary, as defined in § 225.2(o) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(o)), that is a U.S. company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.3   Concentration limit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in § 251.4, a company may not consummate a covered acquisition if upon consummation of the transaction, the liabilities of the resulting company would exceed 10 percent of the financial sector liabilities, and the company is or would become a financial company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial sector liabilities.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, as of July 1 of a given year, financial sector liabilities are equal to the average of the year-end financial sector liabilities figure for the preceding two calendar years. The measure of financial sector liabilities will be in effect until June 30 of the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the period beginning July 1, 2015, and ending June 30, 2016, financial sector liabilities are equal to the year-end financial sector liabilities figure as of December 31, 2014.
</P>
<P>(iii) The year-end financial sector liabilities figure equals the sum of the total consolidated liabilities of all top-tier U.S. financial companies (as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section) and the U.S. liabilities of all top-tier foreign financial companies (as calculated under paragraph (c) of this section) as of December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P>(iv) On an annual basis and no later than July 1 of any calendar year, the Board will calculate and publish the financial sector liabilities for the preceding calendar year and the average of the financial sector liabilities for the preceding two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculating total consolidated liabilities.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered acquisition by a U.S. company.</I> For a covered acquisition in which a U.S. company would acquire a U.S. company or a foreign company, liabilities of the resulting U.S. financial company equal the consolidated liabilities of the resulting U.S. financial company, calculated on a pro forma basis in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered acquisition by a foreign company of another foreign company.</I> For a covered acquisition in which a foreign company would acquire another foreign company, liabilities of the resulting foreign financial company equal the U.S. liabilities of the resulting financial company, calculated on a pro forma basis in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3<I>) Covered acquisition by a foreign company of a U.S. company.</I> For a covered acquisition in which a foreign company would acquire a U.S. company, liabilities of the resulting foreign financial company equal the sum of: (i) The U.S. liabilities of the foreign company immediately preceding the transaction (calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section) and (ii) the consolidated liabilities of the U.S. company immediately preceding the transaction (calculated in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section), reduced by the amount corresponding to any balances and transactions that would be eliminated in consolidation upon consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liabilities of a U.S. company</I>—(1) <I>U.S. company subject to applicable risk-based capital rules.</I> For a U.S. company subject to applicable-risk based capital rules, consolidated liabilities are equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets of the company; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of assets that are deducted from the company's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the company's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
</P>
<P>(iii) Total regulatory capital of the company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>U.S. company not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules.</I> For a U.S. company that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (other than a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter)), consolidated liabilities are equal to the total liabilities of such company on a consolidated basis, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualifying community banking organizations.</I> For a U.S. company that is a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter) that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 217.12 of this chapter), consolidated liabilities are equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) Average total consolidated assets (as used in § 217.12 of this chapter) of the company as last reported on the qualifying community banking organization's applicable regulatory filing with the qualifying community banking organization's appropriate Federal banking agency; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The company's tier 1 capital (as defined in § 217.2 of this chapter and calculated in accordance with § 217.12(b) of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Liabilities of a foreign company</I>—(1) <I>Foreign banking organization.</I> For a foreign banking organization, U.S. liabilities are equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total consolidated assets of each U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (or reports information to the Board regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies), calculated as:
</P>
<P>(A) Total consolidated risk-weighted assets of the subsidiary; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of assets that are deducted from the subsidiary's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the subsidiary's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
</P>
<P>(C) Total consolidated regulatory capital of the subsidiary; plus
</P>
<P>(iii) The total consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules and does not report information regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign financial company that is not a foreign banking organization.</I> For a foreign company that is not a foreign banking organization, U.S. liabilities are equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is subject to applicable risk-based capital rules (or reports information to the Board regarding its capital under risk-based capital rules applicable to bank holding companies), calculated as:
</P>
<P>(A) Total consolidated risk-weighted assets of the subsidiary; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of assets that are deducted from the subsidiary's regulatory capital elements under the applicable risk-based capital rules, times a multiplier that is equal to the inverse of the company's total risk-based capital ratio minus one; minus
</P>
<P>(C) Total regulatory capital of the subsidiary; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The total consolidated liabilities of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary that is not subject to applicable risk-based capital rules, calculated in accordance with applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intercompany balances and transactions</I>—(i) <I>Foreign banking organization.</I> A foreign banking organization must reduce the amount of consolidated liabilities of its U.S. operations calculated pursuant to this paragraph (d) by amounts corresponding to intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between the foreign banking organization's U.S. domiciled affiliates, branches or agencies to the extent such items are not eliminated in consolidation, and increase consolidated liabilities by net intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between a non-U.S. domiciled affiliate and a U.S. domiciled affiliate, branch, or agency of the foreign banking organization, to the extent such items are not reflected in the measure of liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Foreign financial company.</I> A foreign company that is not a foreign banking organization may reduce the amount of consolidated liabilities of its U.S. operations calculated pursuant to this paragraph (d) by amounts corresponding to intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between the foreign organization's U.S. domiciled affiliates to the extent such items are not already eliminated in consolidation; provided that it increases consolidated liabilities by net intercompany balances and intercompany transactions between a non-U.S. domiciled affiliate and a U.S. domiciled affiliate, to the extent such items are not already reflected in the measure of liabilities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicable accounting standard.</I> If a company does not calculate its total consolidated assets or liabilities under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may submit a request to the Board that the company use an accounting standard or method of estimation other than GAAP to calculate its liabilities for purposes of this part. The Board may, in its discretion and subject to Board review and adjustment, permit the company to provide estimated total consolidated liabilities on an annual basis using this accounting standard or method of estimation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 68104, Nov. 14, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 61802, Nov. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.4   Exceptions to the concentration limit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> With the prior written consent of the Board, the concentration limit under § 251.3 shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered acquisition of an insured depository institution that is in default or in danger of default (as determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency of the insured depository institution, in consultation with the Board);
</P>
<P>(2) A covered acquisition with respect to which assistance is provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under section 13(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(c)); or
</P>
<P>(3) A covered acquisition that would result in an increase in the liabilities of the financial company that does not exceed $2 billion, when aggregated with all other acquisitions by the financial company made pursuant to this paragraph (a)(3) during the twelve months preceding the projected date of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior written consent</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a financial company must request that the Board provide prior written consent before the financial company consummates a transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request.</I> (i) A request for prior written consent under paragraph (a) of this section must contain:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the covered acquisition;
</P>
<P>(B) The projected increase in the company's liabilities resulting from the acquisition;
</P>
<P>(C) If the request is made pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the projected aggregate increase in the company's liabilities from acquisitions during the twelve months preceding the projected date of the acquisition; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any additional information requested by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) A financial company may satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (b) if:
</P>
<P>(A) The proposed transaction otherwise requires approval by, or prior notice to, the Board under the Change in Bank Control Act, Bank Holding Company Act, Home Owners' Loan Act, International Banking Act, or any other applicable statute, and any regulation thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(B) The financial company includes the information required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section in the notice or request for prior approval described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures for providing written consent.</I> (i) The Board will act on a request for prior written consent filed under this paragraph (b) within 90 calendar days after the receipt of a complete request, unless that time period is extended by the Board. To the extent that a proposed transaction otherwise requires approval from, or prior notice to, the Board under another provision of law, the Board will act on that request for prior written consent concurrently with its action on the request for approval or notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) In acting on a request under this paragraph (b), the Board will consider whether the consummation of the covered acquisition could pose a threat to financial stability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General consent.</I> The Board grants prior written consent for a covered acquisition that would result in an increase in the liabilities of the financial company that does not exceed $100 million, when aggregated with all other covered acquisitions by the financial company made pursuant to this paragraph (c) during the twelve months preceding the date of the acquisition. A financial company that relies on prior written consent pursuant to this paragraph (c) must provide a notice to the Board within 10 days after consummating the covered acquisition that describes the covered acquisition, the increase in the company's liabilities resulting from the acquisition, and the aggregate increase in the company's liabilities from covered acquisitions during the twelve months preceding the date of the acquisition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.5   No evasion.</HEAD>
<P>A financial company may not organize or operate its business or structure any acquisition of or merger or consolidation with another company in such a manner that results in evasion of the concentration limit established by section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 251.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.19.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 251.6   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>By March 31 of each year:
</P>
<P>(a) A U.S. financial company (other than a U.S. financial company that is required to file the Bank Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report), the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies (FR Y-9C), the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Small Holding Companies (FR Y-9SP), or the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies (FR Y-9LP), or is required to report consolidated total liabilities on the Quarterly Savings and Loan Holding Company Report (FR 2320)) must report to the Board its consolidated liabilities as of the previous calendar year-end in the manner and form prescribed by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(b) A foreign financial company (other than a foreign financial company that is required to file a FR Y-7) must report to the Board its U.S. liabilities as of the previous calendar year-end in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="252" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 252—ENHANCED PRUDENTIAL STANDARDS (REGULATION YY)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 481-486, 1467a, 1818, 1828, 1831n, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835, 1844(b), 1844(c), 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3101 note, 3904, 3906-3909, 4808, 5361, 5362, 5365, 5366, 5367, 5368, 5371.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 62391, Oct. 12, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17315, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) under sections 162, 165, 167, and 168 of Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1423-1432, 12 U.S.C. 5362, 5365, 5367, and 5368); section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321-338a); section 5(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(b)); sections 8 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) and 1831p-1); the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3101<I>et seq.</I>); the Foreign Bank Supervision Enhancement Act (12 U.S.C. 3101 note); and 12 U.S.C. 3904, 3906-3909, and 4808.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements certain provisions of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365), which require the Board to establish enhanced prudential standards for certain bank holding companies, foreign banking organizations, nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board, and certain other companies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, the following definitions apply for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)) and 12 CFR 225.2(a).
</P>
<P><I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means GAAP, international financial reporting standards, or such other accounting standards that a company uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<P><I>Average combined U.S. assets</I> means the average of combined U.S. assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the combined U.S. assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average cross-jurisdictional activity</I> means the average of cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the cross-jurisdictional activity for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average off-balance sheet exposure</I> means the average of off-balance sheet exposure for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total exposure and total consolidated assets or combined U.S. assets, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the off-balance sheet exposure for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average total consolidated assets</I> means the average of total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total consolidated assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average total nonbank assets</I> means the average of total nonbank assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported or calculated total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the total nonbank assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average U.S. non-branch assets</I> means the average of U.S. non-branch assets for the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported the total consolidated assets of its top-tier U.S. subsidiaries for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the U.S. non-branch assets for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Average weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> means the average of weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters or, if the banking organization has not reported weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, the weighted short-term wholesale funding for the most recent calendar quarter or average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)) and 12 CFR 225.2(c).
</P>
<P><I>Banking organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company that is a U.S. bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company; or
</P>
<P>(3) A foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Category II bank holding company</I> means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category II foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category II U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category III bank holding company</I> means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category III foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category III U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category IV bank holding company</I> means a U.S. bank holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category IV foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category IV banking organization pursuant to § 252.5.
</P>
<P><I>Combined U.S. assets</I> means the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and the total assets of each U.S. branch and U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15 or FR Y-7Q.
</P>
<P><I>Combined U.S. operations</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company, if applicable) and subsidiaries of such U.S. subsidiaries.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), and the terms controlled and controlling shall be construed consistently with the term control.
</P>
<P><I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P><I>Credit enhancement</I> means a qualified financial contract of the type set forth in section 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI)) or a credit enhancement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a qualified financial contract pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Cross-jurisdictional activity.</I> The cross-jurisdictional activity of a banking organization is equal to the cross-jurisdictional activity of the banking organization as reported on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>DPC branch subsidiary</I> means any subsidiary of a U.S. branch or a U.S. agency acquired, or formed to hold assets acquired, in the ordinary course of business and for the sole purpose of securing or collecting debt previously contracted in good faith by that branch or agency.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o), provided that if the top-tier foreign banking organization is incorporated in or organized under the laws of any State, the foreign banking organization shall not be treated as a foreign banking organization for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-7</I> means the Annual Report of Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-7Q</I> means the Capital and Asset Report for Foreign Banking Organizations reporting form.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9C</I> means the Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies reporting form.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements of Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>Global methodology</I> means the assessment methodology and the higher loss absorbency requirement for global systemically important banks issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as updated from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important banking organization</I> means a global systemically important bank, as such term is defined in the global methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important foreign banking organization</I> means a top-tier foreign banking organization that is identified as a global systemically important foreign banking organization under § 252.147(b)(4) or § 252.153(b)(4) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Home country,</I> with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the country in which the foreign banking organization is chartered or incorporated.
</P>
<P><I>Home country resolution authority,</I> with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the resolution of the top-tier foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P><I>Home-country supervisor,</I> with respect to a foreign banking organization, means the governmental entity or entities that under the laws of the foreign banking organization's home county has responsibility for the supervision and regulation of the top-tier foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Non-U.S. affiliate</I> means any affiliate of a foreign banking organization that is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Off-balance sheet exposure.</I> (1) The off-balance sheet exposure of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total exposure of such banking organization, as reported by the banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The total consolidated assets of such banking organization for the same calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) The off-balance sheet exposure of a foreign banking organization is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total exposure of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization, as reported by the foreign banking organization on the FR Y-15; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The combined U.S. assets of the foreign banking organization for the same calendar quarter.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly traded</I> means an instrument that is traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a non-U.S. national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question, meaning that there are enough independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a sales price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined promptly and a trade can be settled at such price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom.
</P>
<P>(3) A company can rely on its determination that a particular non-U.S.-based securities exchange provides a liquid two-way market unless the Board determines that the exchange does not provide a liquid two-way market.
</P>
<P><I>Section 2(h)(2) company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(h)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(h)(2)).
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>State member bank</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 208.2(g).
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Top-tier foreign banking organization,</I> with respect to a foreign bank, means the top-tier foreign banking organization or, alternatively, a subsidiary of the top-tier foreign banking organization designated by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Total consolidated assets.</I> (1) Total consolidated assets of a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total consolidated assets of such banking organization calculated based on the average of the balances as of the close of business for each day for the calendar quarter or an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, as reported on the FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(2) Total consolidated assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to the total consolidated assets of the foreign banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-7Q.
</P>
<P>(3) Total consolidated assets of a state member bank is equal to the total consolidated assets as reported by a state member bank on its Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report).
</P>
<P><I>Total nonbank assets.</I> (1) Total nonbank assets of a U.S. bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the total nonbank assets of such banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-9LP.
</P>
<P>(2) Total nonbank assets of a foreign banking organization is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the total nonbank assets of any U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, as reported on the FR Y-9LP; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The assets of the foreign banking organization's nonbank U.S. subsidiaries excluding the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any; plus
</P>
<P>(iii) The sum of the foreign banking organization's equity investments in unconsolidated U.S. subsidiaries, excluding equity investments in any section 2(h)(2) company; minus
</P>
<P>(iv) The assets of any section 2(h)(2) company.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. agency</I> has the same meaning as the term “agency” in § 211.21(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. bank holding company</I> means a bank holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. branch</I> has the same meaning as the term “branch” in § 211.21(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. branches and agencies</I> means the U.S. branches and U.S. agencies of a foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. government agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of the United States whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity originally established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress, but whose obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a top-tier U.S. company that is required to be established pursuant to § 252.147 or § 252.153.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. non-branch assets.</I> U.S. non-branch assets are equal to the sum of the consolidated assets of each top-tier U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary, if applicable) as reported on the FR Y-7Q. In calculating U.S. non-branch assets, a foreign banking organization must reduce its U.S. non-branch assets by the amount corresponding to balances and transactions between a top-tier U.S. subsidiary and any other top-tier U.S. subsidiary (excluding any 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary) to the extent such items are not already eliminated in consolidation.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. subsidiary</I> means any subsidiary that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the North Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> is equal to the weighted short-term wholesale funding of a banking organization, as reported on the FR Y-15.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59096, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.3   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Board under any provision of law or regulation to impose on any company additional enhanced prudential standards, including, but not limited to, additional risk-based or leverage capital or liquidity requirements, leverage limits, limits on exposures to single counterparties, risk-management requirements, stress tests, or other requirements or restrictions the Board deems necessary to carry out the purposes of this part or Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act, or to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modifications or extensions of this part.</I> The Board may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the Board determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the Board will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the company is taking to come into compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority for certain foreign banking organizations.</I> The Board may permit a foreign banking organization to comply with the requirements of this part through a subsidiary. In making this determination, the Board shall consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The ownership structure of the foreign banking organization, including whether the foreign banking organization is owned or controlled by a foreign government;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the action would be consistent with the purposes of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factors that the Board determines are relevant.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17315, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59098, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.4   Nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>U.S. nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.</I> The Board will establish enhanced prudential standards for a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State (U.S. nonbank financial company) by rule or order. In establishing such standards, the Board will consider the factors set forth in sections 165(a)(2) and (b)(3) of the Dodd-Frank Act, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the U.S. nonbank financial company;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree to which the U.S. nonbank financial company is already regulated by one or more primary financial regulatory agencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other risk-related factor that the Board determines is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.</I> The Board will establish enhanced prudential standards for a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is organized or incorporated in a country other than the United States (foreign nonbank financial company) by rule or order. In establishing such standards, the Board will consider the factors set forth in sections 165(a)(2), (b)(2), and (b)(3) of the Dodd-Frank Act, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the foreign nonbank financial company;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which the foreign nonbank financial company is subject to prudential standards on a consolidated basis in its home country that are administered and enforced by a comparable foreign supervisory authority; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other risk-related factor that the Board determines is appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.5   Categorization of banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the four categories described in paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the three categories described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more must determine its category among the three categories described in paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Global systemically important BHC.</I> A banking organization is a global systemically important BHC if it is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Category II.</I> (1) A banking organization is a Category II banking organization if the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $700 billion or more in average total consolidated assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a foreign banking organization, $700 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) $75 billion or more in average cross-jurisdictional activity; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a foreign banking organization, $100 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category II banking organization until the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a foreign banking organization, less than $700 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) to be a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Category III.</I> (1) A banking organization is a Category III banking organization if the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $250 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a foreign banking organization, $250 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, $100 billion or more in average total consolidated assets; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a foreign banking organization, $100 billion or more in average combined U.S. assets; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) $75 billion in average total nonbank assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) $75 billion in average off-balance sheet exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a global systemically important BHC; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a Category II banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a banking organization continues to be a Category III banking organization until the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a foreign banking organization, less than $250 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(C) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(D) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section to be a global systemically important BHC; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Category IV.</I> (1) A banking organization is a Category IV banking organization if the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a Category II banking organization;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a Category III banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more; or
</P>
<P>(B) For a foreign banking organization, average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(2) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (e)(1), a banking organization continues to be a Category IV banking organization until the banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Has:
</P>
<P>(A) For a U.S. bank holding company or a U.S. intermediate holding company, less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) For a foreign banking organization, less than $100 billion in combined U.S. assets for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (b) of this section to be a global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section to be a Category II banking organization; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Meets the criteria in paragraph (d)(1) of this section to be a Category III banking organization.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59099, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for State Member Banks With Total Consolidated Assets Over $250 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.11   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 3906-3909, 5365.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements section 165(i)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2)), which requires state member banks with total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress tests and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the regulatory capital requirements at 12 CFR 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Asset threshold</I> means average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank, and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Capital action</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.8(d)).
</P>
<P><I>Covered company subsidiary</I> means a state member bank that is a subsidiary of a covered company as defined in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a state member bank that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the state member bank on the Call Report in the current stress test cycle; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a state member bank that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the state member bank on the Call Report in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the state member bank by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the state member bank's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the state member bank shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a state member bank and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a state member bank over the planning horizon, taking into account the current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2(o).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.13   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any state member bank with average total consolidated assets of greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A state member bank (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive Call Report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> (1) A state member bank that exceeds the asset threshold for the first time on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the state member bank becomes subject to this subpart, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A state member bank that exceeds the asset threshold for the first time after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third year after the state member bank becomes subject to this subpart, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.14   Stress test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) A state member bank must conduct a stress test as required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a state member bank must conduct a stress test according to the frequency in table 1 to § 252.14(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 252.14(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the state member bank is a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the stress test must be conducted
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subsidiary of a Category II bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subsidiary of a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Not a subsidiary of a:
<br/>(A) Global systemically important BHC;
<br/>(B) Category II bank holding company; or
<br/>(C) Category II U.S. intermediate holding company.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in frequency.</I> The Board may require a state member bank to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of change in frequency.</I> If the Board requires a state member bank to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the Board will notify the state member bank in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a state member bank may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A state member bank's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by the Board</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In conducting a stress test under this section, a state member bank must, at a minimum, use the scenarios provided by the Board. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board will provide a description of the scenarios no later than February 15 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional components.</I> (i) The Board may require a state member bank with significant trading activity, as determined by the Board and specified in the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing report (FR Y-14), to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The Board may also require a state member bank that is subject to 12 CFR part 217, subpart F or that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company that is subject to section § 252.54(b)(2)(i) to include a trading and counterparty component in the state member bank's severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The data used in this component must be as of a date between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed, and the Board will communicate the as-of date and a description of the component to the company no later than March 1 of that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may require a state member bank to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section based on the state member bank's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional scenarios.</I> The Board may require a state member bank to include one or more additional scenarios in the stress test required by this section based on the state member bank's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of additional component or scenario.</I> If the Board requires a state member bank to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or to use one or more additional scenarios under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing by December 31 and include a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the state member bank may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement that the company include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s), including an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Description of component.</I> The Board will provide the state member bank with a description of any additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) by March 1.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59100, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.15   Methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> In conducting a stress test under § 252.14, for each quarter of the planning horizon, a state member bank must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income; and
</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on the regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered bank, and any other capital ratios specified by the Board, incorporating the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as appropriate, for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controls and oversight of stress testing processes</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The senior management of a state member bank must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements in this subpart. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the company's stress testing practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the company's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oversight of stress testing processes.</I> The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a state member bank must review and approve the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the company may warrant, but no less than each year that a stress test is conducted. The board of directors and senior management of the state member bank must receive a summary of the results of the stress test conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Role of stress testing results.</I> The board of directors and senior management of a state member bank must consider the results of the stress test in the normal course of business, including but not limited to, the state member bank's capital planning, assessment of capital adequacy, and risk management practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59101, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.16   Reports of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports to the Board of stress test results</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A state member bank must report the results of the stress test to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, in accordance with paragraphs (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> For each stress test cycle in which a stress test is conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) A state member bank that is a covered company subsidiary must report the results of the stress test to the Board by April 5, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank that is not a covered company subsidiary must report the results of the stress test to the Board by July 31, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of reports.</I> The report required under paragraph (a) of this section must include the following information for the baseline scenario, severely adverse scenario, and any other scenario required under § 252.14(b)(3):
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test; and
</P>
<P>(3) For each quarter of the planning horizon, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, net income, and regulatory capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59101, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15604, Mar. 18, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.17" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.17   Disclosure of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public disclosure of results</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A state member bank must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> For each stress test cycle in which a stress test is conducted:
</P>
<P>(i) A state member bank that is a covered company subsidiary must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test within 15 calendar days after the Board discloses the results of its supervisory stress test of the covered company pursuant to § 252.46(b), unless that time is extended by the Board in writing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A state member bank that is not a covered company subsidiary must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test in the period beginning on October 15 and ending on October 31, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure method.</I> The summary required under this section may be disclosed on the website of a state member bank, or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary of results</I>—(1) <I>State member banks that are subsidiaries of bank holding companies.</I> A state member bank that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company satisfies the public disclosure requirements under this subpart if the bank holding company publicly discloses summary results of its stress test pursuant to this section or § 252.58, unless the Board determines that the disclosures at the holding company level do not adequately capture the potential impact of the scenarios on the capital of the state member bank and requires the state member bank to make public disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State member banks that are not subsidiaries of bank holding companies.</I> A state member bank that is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or that is required to make disclosures under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must publicly disclose, at a minimum, the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(ii) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(iii) Estimates of—
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate losses;
</P>
<P>(B) Pre-provision net revenue
</P>
<P>(C) Provision for credit losses;
</P>
<P>(D) Net income; and
</P>
<P>(E) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of results.</I> (1) The disclosure of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon.</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure of pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must include the beginning value, ending value and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64045, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Risk Committee Requirement for Bank Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $50 Billion or More and Less Than $100 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17316, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.21   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> A bank holding company must comply with the risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> A bank holding company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart until the earlier of the date on which:
</P>
<P>(1) Its total consolidated assets are below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(2) It becomes subject to the requirements of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.22   Risk committee requirement for bank holding companies with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk committee</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The bank holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size, and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
</P>
<P>(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
</P>
<P>(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the bank holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the bank holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receive and review regular reports on a not less than a quarterly basis from the bank holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an officer or employee of the bank holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the bank holding company during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the bank holding company, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1); and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the bank holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the bank holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk-control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> (i) The bank holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59102, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enhanced Prudential Standards for Bank Holding Companies With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.30" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.30   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to bank holding companies with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.31" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.31   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Initial applicability.</I> Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a bank holding company must comply with the risk-management and risk-committee requirements set forth in § 252.33 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 252.34 and 252.35 no later than the first day of the fifth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $100 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in requirements following a change in category.</I> A bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more that changes from one category of banking organization described in § 252.5(b) through (e) to another of such categories must comply with the requirements applicable to the new category no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the bank holding company's category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a bank holding company is subject to the risk-management and risk committee requirements set forth in § 252.33 and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in §§ 252.34 and 252.35 until its total consolidated assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability for bank holding companies that are subsidiaries of foreign banking organizations.</I> If a bank holding company that has average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more is controlled by a foreign banking organization, the U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated by the foreign banking organization must comply with the risk-management and risk committee requirements set forth in § 252.153(e)(3) and the liquidity risk-management and liquidity stress test requirements set forth in § 252.153(e)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.32" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.32   Risk-based and leverage capital and stress test requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A bank holding company subject to this subpart must comply with, and hold capital commensurate with the requirements of, any regulations adopted by the Board relating to capital planning and stress tests, in accordance with the applicability provisions set forth therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.33" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.33   Risk-management and risk committee requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk committee</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversees the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework. The risk committee's responsibilities include liquidity risk-management as set forth in § 252.34(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The bank holding company's global risk-management framework must be commensurate with its structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size and must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for its global operations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies for its global operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management;
</P>
<P>(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function; and
</P>
<P>(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and its compensation structure for its global operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a formal, written charter that is approved by the bank holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be an independent committee of the board of directors that has, as its sole and exclusive function, responsibility for the risk-management policies of the bank holding company's global operations and oversight of the operation of the bank holding company's global risk-management framework;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the bank holding company's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Receive and review regular reports on not less than a quarterly basis from the bank holding company's chief risk officer provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet at least quarterly, or more frequently as needed, and fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be chaired by a director who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an officer or employee of the bank holding company and has not been an officer or employee of the bank holding company during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in section 225.41(b)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(b)(3)), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the bank holding company, as defined in section 215.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Is an independent director under Item 407 of the Securities and Exchange Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.407(a)), if the bank holding company has an outstanding class of securities traded on an exchange registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) (national securities exchange); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Would qualify as an independent director under the listing standards of a national securities exchange, as demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Board, if the bank holding company does not have an outstanding class of securities traded on a national securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must appoint a chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The establishment of risk limits on an enterprise-wide basis and the monitoring of compliance with such limits;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of the processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the company's risk control framework, and monitoring and testing of the company's risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks to the risk committee and resolving risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> (i) The bank holding company must ensure that the compensation and other incentives provided to the chief risk officer are consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The chief risk officer must report directly to both the risk committee and chief executive officer of the company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.34" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.34   Liquidity risk-management requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the board of directors</I>—(1) <I>Liquidity risk tolerance.</I> The board of directors of a bank holding company that is subject to this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the bank holding company may assume in connection with its operating strategies (liquidity risk tolerance) at least annually, taking into account the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive and review at least semi-annually information provided by senior management to determine whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with its established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures.</I> The board of directors must approve and periodically review the liquidity risk-management strategies, policies, and procedures established by senior management pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the risk committee.</I> The risk committee (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors) must approve the contingency funding plan described in paragraph (f) of this section at least annually, and must approve any material revisions to the plan prior to the implementation of such revisions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of senior management</I>—(1) <I>Liquidity risk.</I> (i) Senior management of a bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and implement strategies, policies, and procedures designed to effectively manage the risk that the bank holding company's financial condition or safety and soundness would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk). The board of directors must approve the strategies, policies, and procedures pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Senior management must oversee the development and implementation of liquidity risk measurement and reporting systems, including those required by this section and § 252.35.
</P>
<P>(iii) Senior management must determine at least quarterly whether the bank holding company is operating in accordance with such policies and procedures and whether the bank holding company is in compliance with this section and § 252.35 (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition warrant), and establish procedures regarding the preparation of such information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk tolerance.</I> Senior management must report to the board of directors or the risk committee regarding the bank holding company's liquidity risk profile and liquidity risk tolerance at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business lines or products.</I> (i) Senior management must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product that could have a significant effect on the company's liquidity risk profile. The approval is required before the company implements the business line or offers the product. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, senior management must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Senior management must review at least annually significant business lines and products to determine whether any line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the company's established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> Senior management must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (e) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the bank holding company warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk is within the established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Liquidity risk limits.</I> Senior management must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section and review the company's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the company warrant).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Liquidity stress testing.</I> Senior management must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 252.35(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the bank holding company materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 252.35(a) at least quarterly;
</P>
<P>(iii) Review the independent review of the liquidity stress tests under § 252.34(d) periodically; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 252.35(b) at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent review function.</I> (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function that is independent of management functions that execute funding to evaluate its liquidity risk management.
</P>
<P>(2) The independent review function must:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the company's liquidity risk-management processes, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess whether the company's liquidity risk-management function complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report material liquidity risk-management issues to the board of directors or the risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The bank holding company must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(2) The bank holding company must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections that results in projections that:
</P>
<P>(i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash flow mismatches over these time periods; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the bank holding company and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) The bank holding company must adequately document its methodology for making cash flow projections and the included assumptions and submit such documentation to the risk committee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contingency funding plan</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan that sets out the company's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and established liquidity risk tolerance. The company must update the contingency funding plan at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Components of the contingency funding plan</I>—(i) 

<I>Quantitative assessment.</I> The contingency funding plan must:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the bank holding company's liquidity;
</P>
<P>(B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the bank holding company's liquidity that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(C) Identify the circumstances in which the bank holding company would implement its action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board;
</P>
<P>(D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and
</P>
<P>(F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 252.35(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity event management process.</I> The contingency funding plan must include an event management process that sets out the bank holding company's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events. The liquidity event management process must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies the company will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the company will use to access alternative funding sources;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan described in paragraph (f)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the bank holding company and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Monitoring.</I> The contingency funding plan must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> The bank holding company must periodically test:
</P>
<P>(A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and
</P>
<P>(C) The methods the bank holding company will use to access alternative funding sources to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Liquidity risk limits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the company's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk limits established by a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company.</I> If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or Category III bank holding company, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (g)(1) of this section must include limits on:
</P>
<P>(i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Collateral.</I> The bank holding company must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which it or its affiliates are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the bank holding company:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculates all of its collateral positions according to the frequency specified in paragraph (h)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section, or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged;
</P>
<P>(A) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a weekly basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, on at least a monthly basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitors shifts in the bank holding company's funding patterns, such as shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal entities, currencies, and business lines.</I> The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines, taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intraday exposures.</I> The bank holding company must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposures that are consistent with the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size. If the bank holding company is a global systemically important BHC, Category II bank holding company, or a Category III bank holding company, these procedures must address how the management of the bank holding company will:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor and measure expected daily gross liquidity inflows and outflows;
</P>
<P>(ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the bank holding company can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;
</P>
<P>(iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and
</P>
<P>(v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the bank holding company's overall liquidity needs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59103, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.35" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.4.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.35   Liquidity stress testing and buffer requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidity stress testing requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must conduct stress tests to assess the potential impact of the liquidity stress scenarios set forth in paragraph (a)(3) of this section on its cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency, taking into account its current liquidity condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P>(i) The bank holding company must take into consideration its balance sheet exposures, off-balance sheet exposures, size, risk profile, complexity, business lines, organizational structure, and other characteristics of the bank holding company that affect its liquidity risk profile in conducting its stress test.
</P>
<P>(ii) In conducting a liquidity stress test using the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (iii) of this section, the bank holding company must address the potential direct adverse impact of associated market disruptions on the bank holding company and incorporate the potential actions of other market participants experiencing liquidity stresses under the market disruptions that would adversely affect the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The bank holding company must perform the liquidity stress tests required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section according to the frequency specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii), or as directed by the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank holding company is not a Category IV bank holding company, at least monthly; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank holding company is a Category IV bank holding company, at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stress scenarios.</I> (i) Each liquidity stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) A scenario reflecting adverse market conditions;
</P>
<P>(B) A scenario reflecting an idiosyncratic stress event for the bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) A scenario reflecting combined market and idiosyncratic stresses.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank holding company must incorporate additional liquidity stress scenarios into its liquidity stress test, as appropriate, based on its financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities. The Board may require the bank holding company to vary the underlying assumptions and stress scenarios.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Planning horizon.</I> Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include an overnight planning horizon, a 30-day planning horizon, a 90-day planning horizon, a one-year planning horizon, and any other planning horizons that are relevant to the bank holding company's liquidity risk profile. For purposes of this section, a “planning horizon” is the period over which the relevant stressed projections extend. The bank holding company must use the results of the stress test over the 30-day planning horizon to calculate the size of the liquidity buffer under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for assets used as cash-flow sources in a stress test.</I> (i) To the extent an asset is used as a cash flow source to offset projected funding needs during the planning horizon in a liquidity stress test, the fair market value of the asset must be discounted to reflect any credit risk and market volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets used as cash-flow sources during a planning horizon must be diversified by collateral, counterparty, borrowing capacity, and other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) A line of credit does not qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon of 30 days or less. A line of credit may qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon that exceeds 30 days.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tailoring.</I> Stress testing must be tailored to, and provide sufficient detail to reflect, a bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Governance</I>—(i) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain policies and procedures governing its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions that provide for the incorporation of the results of liquidity stress tests in future stress testing and for the enhancement of stress testing practices over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Controls and oversight.</I> A bank holding company subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a system of controls and oversight that is designed to ensure that its liquidity stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements of this section. The controls and oversight must ensure that each liquidity stress test appropriately incorporates conservative assumptions with respect to the stress scenario in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and other elements of the stress test process, taking into consideration the bank holding company's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, business lines, legal entity or jurisdiction, and other relevant factors. The assumptions must be approved by the chief risk officer and be subject to the independent review under § 252.34(d) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Management information systems.</I> The bank holding company must maintain management information systems and data processes sufficient to enable it to effectively and reliably collect, sort, and aggregate data and other information related to liquidity stress testing.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notice and response.</I> If the Board determines that a bank holding company must conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Board will notify the bank holding company before the change in frequency takes effect, and describe the basis for its determination. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the bank holding company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the company's request for reconsideration prior to requiring the company conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity buffer requirement.</I> (1) A bank holding company subject to this subpart must maintain a liquidity buffer that is sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon of a liquidity stress test conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under each scenario set forth in paragraph (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Net stressed cash-flow need.</I> The net stressed cash-flow need for a bank holding company is the difference between the amount of its cash-flow need and the amount of its cash flow sources over the 30-day planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The liquidity buffer must consist of highly liquid assets that are unencumbered, as defined in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Highly liquid asset.</I> A highly liquid asset includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash;
</P>
<P>(B) Assets that meet the criteria for high quality liquid assets as defined in 12 CFR 249.20; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other asset that the bank holding company demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has low credit risk and low market risk;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unencumbered.</I> An asset is unencumbered if it:
</P>
<P>(A) Is free of legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restrictions on the ability of such company promptly to liquidate, sell or transfer the asset; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not pledged or used to secure or provide credit enhancement to any transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, to the extent potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended by such central bank or U.S. government-sponsored enterprise or any of its consolidated subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset.</I> In calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset included in the liquidity buffer, the bank holding company must discount the fair market value of the asset to reflect any credit risk and market price volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Operational requirements.</I> With respect to the liquidity buffer, the bank holding company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Establish and implement policies and procedures that require highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer to be under the control of the management function in the bank holding company that is charged with managing liquidity risk; and
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate the capability to monetize a highly liquid asset under each scenario required under § 252.35(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Diversification.</I> The liquidity buffer must not contain significant concentrations of highly liquid assets by issuer, business sector, region, or other factor related to the bank holding company's risk, except with respect to cash and securities issued or guaranteed by the United States, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17317, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59105, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Supervisory Stress Test Requirements for Certain U.S. Banking Organizations With $100 Billion or More in Total Consolidated Assets and Nonbank Financial Companies Supervised by the Board</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.40" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.41" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.41   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366, sec. 401(e), Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365) and section 401(e) of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, which requires the Board to conduct annual analyses of nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board and bank holding companies with $100 billion or more in total consolidated assets to evaluate whether such companies have the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59105, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.42" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.42   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart E, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o).
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and,
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the supervisory stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.43" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.43   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered company, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any U.S. bank holding company with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> A bank holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until its total consolidated assets fall below $100 billion for each of four consecutive quarters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transitional arrangements.</I> (1) A bank holding company that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the bank holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the bank holding company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 82 FR 9329, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.44" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.44   Analysis conducted by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) The Board will conduct an analysis of each covered company's capital, on a total consolidated basis, taking into account all relevant exposures and activities of that covered company, to evaluate the ability of the covered company to absorb losses in specified economic and financial conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) The analysis will include an assessment of the projected losses, net income, and pro forma capital levels and regulatory capital ratios and other capital ratios for the covered company and use such analytical techniques that the Board determines are appropriate to identify, measure, and monitor risks of the covered company that may affect the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
<P>(3) In conducting the analysis, the Board will not incorporate changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile in its projections of losses, net income, pro forma capital levels, and capital ratios.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Economic and financial scenarios related to the Board's analysis.</I> The Board will conduct its analysis using a minimum of two different scenarios, including a baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario. The Board will notify covered companies of the scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis for each stress test cycle to which the covered company is subject by no later than February 15 of that year, except with respect to trading or any other components of the scenarios and any additional scenarios that the Board will apply to conduct the analysis, which will be communicated by no later than March 1 of that year.
</P>
<P>(c) In conducting a stress test under this section, the Board will make the following assumptions regarding a covered company's capital actions over the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency of analysis conducted by the Board</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the Board will conduct its analysis of a covered company according to the frequency in Table 1 to § 252.44(d)(1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 252.44(<E T="01">d</E>)(1)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the covered company is a:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the Board will conduct its analysis:
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Global systemically important BHC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category IV bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, occurring in each year ending in an even number.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, occurring in each year ending in an even number.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Change in frequency.</I> (i) The Board may conduct a stress test of a covered company on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Category IV bank holding company or Category IV U.S. intermediate holding company may elect to have the Board conduct a stress test with respect to the company in a year ending in an odd number by providing notice to the Board and the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank by January 15 of that year. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, such a company may elect to have the Board conduct a stress test with respect to the company in the year 2021 by providing notice to the Board and the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank by April 5, 2021.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of change in frequency.</I> If the Board determines to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75425, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 59106, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15604, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.45" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.45   Data and information required to be submitted in support of the Board's analyses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regular submissions.</I> Each covered company must submit to the Board such data, on a consolidated basis, that the Board determines is necessary in order for the Board to derive the relevant pro forma estimates of the covered company over the planning horizon under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional submissions required by the Board.</I> The Board may require a covered company to submit any other information on a consolidated basis that the Board deems necessary in order to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) Project a company's pre-provision net revenue, losses, provision for credit losses, and net income; and pro forma capital levels, regulatory capital ratios, and any other capital ratio specified by the Board under the scenarios described in § 252.44(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4245, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.46" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.46   Review of the Board's analysis; publication of summary results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of results.</I> Based on the results of the analysis conducted under this subpart, the Board will conduct an evaluation to determine whether the covered company has the capital, on a total consolidated basis, necessary to absorb losses and continue its operation by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary under baseline, adverse and severely adverse scenarios, and any additional scenarios.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication of results by the Board.</I> (1) The Board will publicly disclose a summary of the results of the Board's analyses of a covered company by June 30 of the calendar year in which the stress test was conducted pursuant to § 252.44.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will notify companies of the date on which it expects to publicly disclose a summary of the Board's analyses pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section at least 14 calendar days prior to the expected disclosure date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64049, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9329, Feb. 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.47" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.5.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.47   Corporate use of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis conducted by the Board under this subpart, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital);
</P>
<P>(2) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the development or implementation of any plans of the covered company for recovery or resolution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Resolution plan updates.</I> Each covered company must update its resolution plan as the Board determines appropriate, based on the results of the Board's analyses of the covered company under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Company-Run Stress Test Requirements for Certain U.S. Bank Holding Companies and Nonbank Financial Companies Supervised by the Board</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.50" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.51" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.51   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> 12 U.S.C. 321-338a, 1818, 1831p-1, 1844(b), 1844(c), 5361, 5365, 5366.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes the requirement for a covered company to conduct stress tests. This subpart also establishes definitions of stress test and related terms, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.52" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.52   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies at 12 CFR part 217, subpart E, as applicable, and any successor regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Capital action</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.8(d).
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(2) A Category II bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(3) A Category III bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(4) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153;
</P>
<P>(5) A Category III U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
</P>
<P>(6) A nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 211.21(o).
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters, beginning on the first day of a stress test cycle over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income less expenses before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered company that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered company that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported by the covered company on the FR Y-9C in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Board has established minimum requirements for the company by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the company's regulatory capital ratios calculated under 12 CFR part 217 and the deductions required under 12 CFR 248.12; except that the company shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> means a process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered company over the planning horizon, taking into account its current condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.53" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.53   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3) and (b) of this section, this subpart applies to any covered company, which includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any Category II bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any Category III bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any Category II U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153;
</P>
<P>(v) Any Category III U.S. intermediate holding company subject to this section pursuant to § 252.153; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is made subject to this section pursuant to a rule or order of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing applicability.</I> (i) A bank holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until the bank holding company:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not a global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a Category II bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is not a Category III bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company (including any successor company) that is subject to any requirement in this subpart shall remain subject to any such requirement unless and until the U.S. intermediate holding company:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insurance bank holding companies.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this paragraph (a), this subpart does not apply to a covered company that is a bank holding company that is subject to part 217, subpart J, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transitional arrangements.</I> (1) A company that becomes a covered company on or before September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the second calendar year after the company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A company that becomes a covered company after September 30 of a calendar year must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on January 1 of the third calendar year after the company becomes a covered company, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59107, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 82980, Nov. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.54" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.54   Stress test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stress test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered company must conduct a stress test as required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, a covered company must conduct a stress test according to the frequency in Table 1 to § 252.54(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 252.54(<E T="01">a</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If the covered company is a
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Then the stress test must be conducted
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Global systemically important BHC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annually, by April 5 of each calendar year based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III bank holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III U.S. intermediate holding company</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Biennially, by April 5 of each calendar year ending in an even number, based on data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, unless the time or the as-of date is extended by the Board in writing.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Periodically, as determined by rule or order.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Change in frequency.</I> The Board may require a covered company to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of change in frequency.</I> If the Board requires a covered company to change the frequency of the stress test under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing and provide a discussion of the basis for its determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement to conduct a stress test on a more or less frequent basis than would be required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A covered company's request for reconsideration must include an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by the Board</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In conducting a stress test under this section, a covered company must, at a minimum, use the scenarios provided by the Board. Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, the Board will provide a description of the scenarios to each covered company no later than February 15 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional components.</I> (i) The Board may require a covered company with significant trading activity to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section. The data used in this component must be as of a date selected by the Board between October 1 of the previous calendar year and March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section, and the Board will communicate the as-of date and a description of the component to the company no later than March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section. A covered company has significant trading activity if it has:
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more, or aggregate trading assets and liabilities equal to 10 percent or more of total consolidated assets;




</P>
<P>(B) Is not a Category IV bank holding company.




</P>
<P>(ii) The Board may require a covered company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional scenarios.</I> The Board may require a covered company to use one or more additional scenarios in the stress test required by this section based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice and response</I>—(i) <I>Notification of additional component.</I> If the Board requires a covered company to include one or more additional components in its adverse and severely adverse scenarios under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or to use one or more additional scenarios under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company in writing. The Board will provide such notification no later than December 31 of the preceding calendar year. The notification will include a general description of the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) and the basis for requiring the company to include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Request for reconsideration and Board response.</I> Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the covered company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement that the company include the additional component(s) or additional scenario(s), including an explanation as to why the request for reconsideration should be granted. The Board will respond in writing within 14 calendar days of receipt of the company's request.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Description of component.</I> The Board will provide the covered company with a description of any additional component(s) or additional scenario(s) by March 1 of the calendar year in which the stress test is performed pursuant to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59108, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021; 86 FR 22844, Apr. 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.55" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.55   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.56" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.56   Methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> In conducting a stress test under § 252.54, for each quarter of the planning horizon, a covered company must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, and net income; and


</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on the regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered bank, and any other capital ratios specified by the Board, and in doing so must:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as appropriate, for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclude the impacts of changes to a firm's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the covered company's capital adequacy and funding profile.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assumptions regarding capital actions.</I> In conducting a stress test under § 252.54, a covered company is required to make the following assumptions regarding its capital actions over the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company will not pay any dividends on any instruments that qualify as common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company will make payments on instruments that qualify as additional tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital equal to the stated dividend, interest, or principal due on such instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company will not make a redemption or repurchase of any capital instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(4) The covered company will not make any issuances of common stock or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Controls and oversight of stress testing processes</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The senior management of a covered company must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements in this subpart. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the covered company's stress testing practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the company's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oversight of stress testing processes.</I> The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a covered company must review and approve the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the covered company may warrant, but no less than each year a stress test is conducted. The board of directors and senior management of the covered company must receive a summary of the results of any stress test conducted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Role of stress testing results.</I> The board of directors and senior management of each covered company must consider the results of the analysis it conducts under this subpart, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) As part of the covered company's capital plan and capital planning process, including when making changes to the covered company's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital);
</P>
<P>(ii) When assessing the covered company's exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the development or implementation of any plans of the covered company for recovery or resolution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 84 FR 4246, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.57" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.57   Reports of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports to the Board of stress test results.</I> A covered company must report the results of the stress test required under § 252.54 to the Board in the manner and form prescribed by the Board. Such results must be submitted by April 5 of the calendar year in which the stress test is conducted pursuant to § 252.54, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Board under this subpart and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.58" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.6.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.58   Disclosure of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public disclosure of results</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered company must publicly disclose a summary of the results of the stress test required under § 252.54 within the period that is 15 calendar days after the Board publicly discloses the results of its supervisory stress test of the covered company pursuant to § 252.46(b), unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure method.</I> The summary required under this section may be disclosed on the Web site of a covered company, or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary of results.</I> The summary results must, at a minimum, contain the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the methodologies used in the stress test, including those employed to estimate losses, revenues, provision for credit losses, and changes in capital positions over the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(3) Estimates of—
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses or gains;
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income before taxes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Loan losses (dollar amount and as a percentage of average portfolio balance) in the aggregate and by subportfolio, including: Domestic closed-end first-lien mortgages; domestic junior lien mortgages and home equity lines of credit; commercial and industrial loans; commercial real estate loans; credit card exposures; other consumer loans; and all other loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios; and
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to any depository institution subsidiary that is subject to stress testing requirements pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), as implemented by subpart B of this part, 12 CFR part 46 (OCC), or 12 CFR part 325, subpart C (FDIC), changes over the planning horizon in regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board and an explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of results.</I> (1) The following disclosures required under paragraph (b) of this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(i) Pre-provision net revenue and other revenue;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision for credit losses, realized losses/gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, and other losses or gain;
</P>
<P>(iii) Net income before taxes; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Loan losses in the aggregate and by subportfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure of pro forma regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Board that is required under paragraph (b) of this section must include the beginning value, ending value, and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 64051, Oct. 27, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 75426, Dec. 2, 2015; 82 FR 9330, Feb. 3, 2017; 84 FR 4246, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—External Long-term Debt Requirement, External Total Loss-absorbing Capacity Requirement and Buffer, and Restrictions on Corporate Practices for U.S. Global Systemically Important Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.60" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.60   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> This subpart applies to any U.S. bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial applicability.</I> A global systemically important BHC shall be subject to the requirements of this subpart beginning on the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(2) 1095 days (three years) after the date on which the company becomes a global systemically important BHC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.61" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.61   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(b)(1) and 12 CFR 217.10(d), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Default right</I> (1) Means any:
</P>
<P>(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate the agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay or defer payment or performance thereunder, modify the obligations of a party thereunder or any similar rights; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible debt security</I> means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC:
</P>
<P>(1) A debt instrument that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is paid in, and issued by the global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the global systemically important BHC or a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
</P>
<P>(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the global systemically important BHC; or
</P>
<P>(B) A failure of the global systemically important BHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
</P>
<P>(vi) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(vii) Is not a structured note; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the global systemically important BHC; and
</P>
<P>(2) A debt instrument issued prior to December 31, 2016 that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is paid in, and issued by the global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the global systemically important BHC or a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the global systemically important BHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(v) Is not a structured note; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the global systemically important BHC.


</P>
<P><I>External TLAC risk-weighted buffer</I> means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC, the sum of 2.5 percent, any applicable countercyclical capital buffer under 12 CFR 217.11(b) (expressed as a percentage), and the global systemically important BHC's method 1 capital surcharge.






</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>GSIB surcharge</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Method 1 capital surcharge</I> means, with respect to a global systemically important BHC, the most recent method 1 capital surcharge (expressed as a percentage) the global systemically important BHC was required to calculate pursuant to subpart H of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.400 through 217.406).
</P>
<P><I>Outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount</I> is defined in § 252.62(b).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract</I> has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
</P>
<P><I>Structured note</I> means a debt instrument that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a principal amount, redemption amount, or stated maturity that is subject to reduction based on the performance of any asset, entity, index, or embedded derivative or similar embedded feature;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an embedded derivative or similar embedded feature that is linked to one or more equity securities, commodities, assets, or entities;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not specify a minimum principal amount that becomes due upon acceleration or early termination; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is not classified as debt under GAAP, provided that an instrument is not a structured note solely because it is one or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An instrument that is not denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument where interest payments are based on an interest rate index.
</P>
<P><I>Supplementary leverage ratio</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 minority interest</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Total risk-weighted assets</I> means the greater of total risk-weighted assets as calculated under 12 CFR part 217, subpart D (the standardized approach) or 12 CFR part 217, subpart E (the internal ratings-based and advanced measurement approaches).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021; 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.62" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.62   External long-term debt requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>External long-term debt requirement.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a global systemically important BHC must maintain an outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The global systemically important BHC's total risk-weighted assets multiplied by the sum of 6 percent plus the global systemically important BHC's GSIB surcharge (expressed as a percentage); and
</P>
<P>(2) The global systemically important BHC's total leverage exposure multiplied by the sum of 2.5 percent plus the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 (expressed as a percentage).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount.</I> (1) A global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) One hundred (100) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in greater than or equal to 730 days (two years);
</P>
<P>(ii) Fifty (50) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) and less than 730 days (two years); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Zero (0) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in less than 365 days (one year).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the date on which principal is due to be paid on an outstanding eligible debt security is calculated from the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which payment of principal is required under the terms governing the instrument, without respect to any right of the holder to accelerate payment of principal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the holder of the instrument first has the contractual right to request or require payment of the amount of principal, provided that, with respect to a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument only on the occurrence of an event (other than an event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the global systemically important BHC, or a failure of the global systemically important BHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due), the date for the outstanding eligible debt security under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) will be calculated as if the event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) After notice and response proceedings consistent with 12 CFR part 263, subpart E, the Board may order a global systemically important BHC to exclude from its outstanding eligible long-term debt amount any debt security with one or more features that would significantly impair the ability of such debt security to take losses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redemption and repurchase.</I> A global systemically important BHC may not redeem or repurchase any outstanding eligible debt security without the prior approval of the Board if, immediately after the redemption or repurchase, the global systemically important BHC would not meet its external long-term debt requirement under paragraph (a) of this section, or its external total loss-absorbing capacity requirement under § 252.63(a).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.63" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.63   External total loss-absorbing capacity requirement and buffer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>External total loss-absorbing capacity requirement.</I> A global systemically important BHC must maintain an outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) 18 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) 7.5 percent of the global systemically important BHC's total leverage exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount.</I> A global systemically important BHC's outstanding external total loss-absorbing capacity amount is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest);
</P>
<P>(2) The global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest); and
</P>
<P>(3) The global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>External TLAC buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer.</I> The external TLAC risk-weighted buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of a global systemically important BHC is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the global systemically important BHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio.</I> The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount.</I> A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.63.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio.</I> The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a global systemically important BHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio is based on the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount.</I> A global systemically important BHC's maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the global systemically important BHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum TLAC leverage payout ratio, as set forth in Table 2 to § 252.63.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level.</I> (i) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's common equity tier 1 capital ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
</P>
<P>(A) 18 percent; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) to its total risk-weighted assets; and minus


</P>
<P>(C) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total risk-weighted assets.






</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to 18 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A global systemically important BHC shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A global systemically important BHC with an external TLAC risk-weighted buffer level that is greater than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer and an external TLAC leverage buffer level that is greater than the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section, is not subject to a maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount or a maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, a global systemically important BHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the global systemically important BHC's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B) External TLAC risk-weighted buffer level was less than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer as of the end of the previous calendar quarter or external TLAC leverage buffer level was less than the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11 as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.


</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a global systemically important BHC to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the global systemically important BHC, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the global systemically important BHC. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<P>(v)(A) A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lowest of the maximum payout amounts as determined under 12 CFR 217.11(a)(2), the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under this paragraph, and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(B) Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, and 263.202.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>External TLAC leverage buffer</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A global systemically important BHC is subject to the lower of the maximum external TLAC risk-weighted payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section and the maximum external TLAC leverage payout amount as determined under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Composition of the external TLAC leverage buffer.</I> The external TLAC leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculation of the external TLAC leverage buffer level.</I> (A) A global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is equal to the global systemically important BHC's supplementary leverage ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 7.5 percent; minus


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the global systemically important BHC's outstanding eligible external long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible debt securities issued by the global systemically important BHC due to be paid in in, as calculated in § 252.62(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total leverage exposure.






</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of a global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section to its total leverage exposure is less than or equal to 7.5 percent, the global systemically important BHC's external TLAC leverage buffer level is zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 252.63—Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Risk-Weighted Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">External TLAC risk-weighted buffer level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum External TLAC risk-weighted payout ratio
<br/>(as a percentage of eligible
<br/>retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater 25 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the external TLAC risk-weighted buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 252.63—Calculation of Maximum External TLAC Leverage Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">External TLAC leverage buffer level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum external TLAC leverage payout ratio


<br/>(as a percentage of eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 100 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 100 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 25 percent of the global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of global systemically important BHC's leverage buffer requirement under 12 CFR 217.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8306, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 17006, Mar. 26, 2020; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021; 90 FR 55290, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.64" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.64   Restrictions on corporate practices of U.S. global systemically important banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited corporate practices.</I> A global systemically important BHC may not directly:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue any debt instrument with an original maturity of less than 365 days (one year), including short term deposits and demand deposits, to any person, unless the person is a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue any instrument, or enter into any related contract, with respect to which the holder of the instrument has a contractual right to offset debt owed by the holder or its affiliates to a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC against the amount, or a portion of the amount, owed by the global systemically important BHC under the instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) Enter into a qualified financial contract that is not a credit enhancement with a person that is not a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(4) Enter into an agreement in which the global systemically important BHC guarantees a liability of a subsidiary of the global systemically important BHC if such liability permits the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the global systemically important BHC becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a receivership proceeding under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5394) unless the liability is subject to requirements of the Board restricting such default rights or subject to any similar requirements of another U.S. federal banking agency; or
</P>
<P>(5) Enter into, or otherwise begin to benefit from, any agreement that provides for its liabilities to be guaranteed by any of its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limit on unrelated liabilities.</I> (1) The aggregate amount, on an unconsolidated basis, of unrelated liabilities of a global systemically important BHC owed to persons that are not affiliates of the global systemically important BHC may not exceed 5 percent of the systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an unrelated liability is any non-contingent liability of the global systemically important BHC owed to a person that is not an affiliate of the global systemically important BHC other than:
</P>
<P>(i) The instruments that are used to satisfy the global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dividend or other liability arising from the instruments that are used to satisfy the global systemically important BHC's external total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.63(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) An eligible debt security that does not provide the holder of the instrument with a currently exercisable right to require immediate payment of the total or remaining principal amount; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A secured liability, to the extent that it is secured, or a liability that otherwise represents a claim that would be senior to eligible debt securities in Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(b)) and the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 507).
</P>
<P>(c) A Covered BHC is not subject to paragraph (b) of this section if all of the eligible debt securities issued by the Covered BHC would represent the most subordinated debt claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered BHC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.65" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.7.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.65   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A global systemically important BHC must publicly disclose a description of the financial consequences to unsecured debtholders of the global systemically important BHC entering into a resolution proceeding in which the global systemically important BHC is the only entity that would be subject to the resolution proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) A global systemically important BHC must provide the disclosure required by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) In the offering documents for all of its eligible debt securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) On the global systemically important BHC's Web site; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In more than one public financial report or other public regulatory reports, provided that the global systemically important BHC publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of this disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Single-Counterparty Credit Limits</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.70" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.70   Applicability and general provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This subpart establishes single counterparty credit limits for a covered company.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covered company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) A global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(B) A Category II bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(C) A Category III bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Major covered company</I> means any covered company that is a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit exposure limits.</I> (1) Section 252.72 establishes credit exposure limits for a covered company and a major covered company.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company is required to calculate its aggregate net credit exposure, gross credit exposure, and net credit exposure to a counterparty using the methods in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of this subpart.</I> (1)(i) A company that is a covered company as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72, beginning on July 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, a company that is a major covered company as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72, beginning on January 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that becomes subject to this subpart after October 5, 2018 must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth calendar quarter after it becomes a covered company, unless that time is accelerated or extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> (1) Any company that becomes a covered company will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered company is not a global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered company is not a Category II bank holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The covered company is not a Category III bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that has ceased to be a major covered company for purposes of § 252.72(b) is no longer subject to the requirements of § 252.72(b) beginning on the first day of the calendar quarter following the reporting date on which it ceased to be a major covered company; provided that the covered company remains subject to the requirements of this subpart, unless it ceases to be a covered company pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.71" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 252.2 of this part and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 252.2. For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjusted market value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered company to a counterparty, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132); and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered company from a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132).
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), the covered company would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132) by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means, with respect to a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate net credit exposure</I> means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bank-eligible investments</I> means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to a credit transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a natural person, the natural person, and, if the credit exposure of the covered company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any company that is not a subsidiary of the covered company, the company and its affiliates collectively;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D), the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision) collectively; and
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In addition, under § 252.76, under certain circumstances, a covered company is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Covered company</I> is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(i) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit derivative</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit transaction</I> means, with respect to a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation or order, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Derivative transaction</I> means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered company has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash on deposit with the covered company or a subsidiary of the covered company (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered company by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);
</P>
<P>(2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered company or any subsidiary of the covered company; or
</P>
<P>(5) Gold bullion.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Eligible equity derivative</I> means an equity derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Eligible guarantee</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Eligible guarantor</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Equity derivative</I> has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Exempt counterparty</I> means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 252.77, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Financial entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (r)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Foreign sovereign entity</I> means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank collectively.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Gross credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered company before adjusting, pursuant to § 252.74, for the effect of any eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Immediate family</I> means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Intraday credit exposure</I> means credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Investment grade</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Major counterparty</I> means any counterparty that is or includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A major covered company;
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier foreign banking organization that meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Major covered company</I> is defined in § 252.70(a)(2)(ii) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Multilateral development bank</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Net credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered company and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 252.73, as adjusted in accordance with § 252.74.
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Qualifying central counterparty</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Securities financing transaction</I> means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Short sale</I> means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a <I>subsidiary</I> of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (gg)(1) of this definition, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217) and as reported by the bank holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C report on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Total consolidated assets.</I> A company's total consolidated assets are determined based on:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the bank holding company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the bank holding company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.72" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.72   Credit exposure limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General limit on aggregate net credit exposure.</I> No covered company may have an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limit on aggregate net credit exposure of major covered companies to major counterparties.</I> No major covered company may have aggregate net credit exposure to any major counterparty that exceeds 15 percent of the tier 1 capital of the major covered company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.73" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.73   Gross credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of gross credit exposure.</I> The amount of gross credit exposure of a covered company to a counterparty with respect to a credit transaction is, in the case of:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of the covered company held by the counterparty, loan by a covered company to the counterparty, and lease in which the covered company is the lessor and the counterparty is the lessee, equal to the amount owed by the counterparty to the covered company under the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A debt security or debt investment held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the securities, for trading and available-for-sale securities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amortized purchase price of the securities or investments, for securities or investments held to maturity.
</P>
<P>(3) An equity security held by the covered company that is issued by the counterparty, equity investment in a counterparty, and other direct investments in a counterparty, equal to the market value.
</P>
<P>(4) A securities financing transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is not subject to a bilateral netting agreement or does not meet the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2); or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered company and the counterparty that is subject to a bilateral netting agreement with that counterparty and meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2);
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the covered company must:
</P>
<P>(A) Assign a value of zero to any security received from the counterparty that does not meet the definition of “eligible collateral” in § 252.71(k); and
</P>
<P>(B) Include the value of securities that are eligible collateral received by the covered company from the counterparty (including any exempt counterparty), calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the issuer of those securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and with respect to each credit transaction, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (a)(4) is limited to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In cases where the covered company receives eligible collateral from a counterparty in addition to the cash or securities received from that counterparty, the counterparty may reduce its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with § 252.74(b).
</P>
<P>(5) A committed credit line extended by a covered company to a counterparty, equal to the face amount of the committed credit line.
</P>
<P>(6) A guarantee or letter of credit issued by a covered company on behalf of a counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) A derivative transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered company is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered company and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases where a covered company is required to recognize an exposure to an eligible guarantor pursuant to § 252.74(d), the covered company must exclude the relevant derivative transaction when calculating its gross exposure to the original counterparty under this section.
</P>
<P>(8) A credit derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or debt security of the counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered company on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered company must calculate pursuant to § 252.75 its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attribution rule.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a covered company must treat any transaction with any natural person or entity as a credit transaction with another party, to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the other party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.74" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.74   Net credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered company must calculate its net credit exposure to a counterparty by adjusting its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with the rules set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible collateral.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction other than a securities financing transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure on the transaction by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include the adjusted market value of the eligible collateral, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the collateral issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (b) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible guarantees.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the amount of any eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor that covers the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the amount of eligible guarantees when calculating its gross credit exposure to the eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible guarantee under this paragraph (c) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible credit and equity derivatives.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.73(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A covered company that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include, when calculating its net credit exposure to the eligible guarantor, including in instances where the underlying credit transaction would not be subject to the credit limits of § 252.72 (for example, due to an exempt counterparty), either
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.73(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, in cases where the eligible credit derivative or eligible equity derivative is used to hedge covered positions that are subject to the Board's market risk rule (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) and the counterparty on the hedged transaction is not a financial entity, the amount of credit exposure that a company must recognize to the eligible guarantor is the amount that would be calculated pursuant to § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a covered company's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible credit derivative or an eligible equity derivative under this paragraph (d) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative if valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other eligible hedges.</I> In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the face amount of a short sale of the counterparty's debt security or equity security, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position is junior to, or <I>pari passu</I> with, the instrument in which the covered company has the long position; and
</P>
<P>(2) The instrument in which the covered company has a short position and the instrument in which the covered company has the long position are either both treated as trading or available-for-sale exposures or both treated as held-to-maturity exposures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unused portion of certain extensions of credit.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for a committed credit line or revolving credit facility under this section, a covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the amount of the unused portion of the credit extension to the extent that the covered company does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit and the used portion of the credit extension has been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the used portion of a credit extension has been secured by eligible collateral, the covered company may reduce its gross credit exposure by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral received from the counterparty, even if the used portion has not been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(3) To qualify for the reduction in net credit exposure under this paragraph, the credit contract must specify that any used portion of the credit extension must be fully secured by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit transactions involving exempt counterparties.</I> (1) A covered company's credit transactions with an exempt counterparty are not subject to the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.72.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in cases where a covered company has a credit transaction with an exempt counterparty and the covered company has obtained eligible collateral from that exempt counterparty or an eligible guarantee or eligible credit or equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the covered company must include (for purposes of this subpart) such exposure to the issuer of such eligible collateral or the eligible guarantor, as calculated in accordance with the rules set forth in this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to that issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Currency mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral and calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.37(c)(3)(ii) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(3)(ii)); and
</P>
<P>(2) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor and calculating its gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(f) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(f)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered company must apply, as applicable, the maturity mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(d)):
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral or any eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, or eligible credit derivatives from an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; provided that
</P>
<P>(3) The eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative subject to paragraph (i)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a shorter maturity than the credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an original maturity equal to or greater than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a residual maturity of not less than three months; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The adjustment approach is otherwise applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.75" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.75   Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not subsidiaries of the covered company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SPV</I> means a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not a subsidiary of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SPV exposure</I> means an investment in the debt or equity of an SPV, or a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered company and a third party where the covered company is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, an SPV.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A covered company must determine whether the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV, due to an SPV exposure, is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of all of the issuer's assets (with each asset valued in accordance with § 252.73(a)) in the SPV; or
</P>
<P>(B) The application of the look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to the determination required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, a covered company must use the same method to calculate gross credit exposure to each issuer of assets in a particular SPV.
</P>
<P>(iii) In making a determination under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the covered company must consider only the credit exposure to the issuer arising from the covered company's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure to all unidentified issuers and calculate such gross credit exposure using one method in either paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) or (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital, the amount of the covered company's gross credit exposure to that issuer may be attributed to either that issuer of assets or the SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) If attributed to the issuer of assets, the issuer of assets must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated under paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section to that issuer of assets must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.73) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(B) If attributed to the SPV, the covered company's gross credit exposure is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a covered company determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital or the covered company is unable to determine that the amount of the gross credit exposure is less than 0.25 percent of the covered company's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered company must calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets in the SPV using the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The issuer of assets in the SPV must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.73) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(C) When applying the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered company that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to all unidentified issuers.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this section, a covered company must aggregate all gross credit exposures to unknown counterparties for all SPVs as if the exposures related to a single unknown counterparty; this single unknown counterparty is subject to the limits of § 252.72 as if it were a single counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Look-through approach.</I> A covered company that is required to calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure with respect to an issuer of assets in accordance with this paragraph (b) must calculate the amount as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all investors in the SPV rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to the covered company's pro rata share of the SPV multiplied by the value of the underlying asset in the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Where all investors in the SPV do not rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The pro rata share of the covered company's investment in the tranche of the SPV; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The market value of the tranche in which the covered company has invested, except in the case of a debt security that is held to maturity, in which case the tranche must be valued at the amortized purchase price of the securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) The value of each underlying asset attributed to the issuer in the SPV, each as calculated pursuant to § 252.73(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to third parties.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, a covered company must recognize, for purposes of this subpart, a gross credit exposure to each third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to an SPV whose failure or material financial distress would cause a loss in the value of the covered company's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of any gross credit exposure that is required to be recognized to a third party under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is equal to the covered company's SPV exposure, up to the maximum contractual obligation of that third party to the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.73(a). (This gross credit exposure is in addition to the covered company's gross credit exposure to the SPV or the issuers of assets of the SPV, calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(3) A covered company must aggregate the gross credit exposure to a third party recognized in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with its other gross credit exposures to that third party (that are unrelated to the SPV) for purposes of compliance with the limits of § 252.72.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.76" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.76   Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) If a covered company has an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 5 percent of its tier 1 capital, the covered company must assess its relationship with the counterparty under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is economically interdependent with one or more other counterparties of the covered company and under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is connected by a control relationship with one or more other counterparties.
</P>
<P>(2) If, pursuant to an assessment required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the covered company determines that one or more of the factors of paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section are met with respect to one or more counterparties, or the Board determines pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are economically interdependent or that one or more other counterparties of a covered company are connected by a control relationship, the covered company must aggregate its net credit exposure to the counterparties for all purposes under this subpart, including, but not limited to, § 252.72.
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with any request pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) or (c)(2) of this section, the Board may require the covered company to provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence.</I> (1) For purposes of this paragraph, two counterparties are economically interdependent if the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of one counterparty would cause the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of the other counterparty, taking into account the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company must assess whether the financial distress of one counterparty (counterparty A) would prevent the ability of the other counterparty (counterparty B) to fully and timely repay counterparty B's liabilities and whether the insolvency or default of counterparty A is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of counterparty B and, therefore, these counterparties are economically interdependent, by evaluating the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether 50 percent or more of one counterparty's gross revenue is derived from, or gross expenditures are directed to, transactions with the other counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether counterparty A has fully or partly guaranteed the credit exposure of counterparty B, or is liable by other means, in an amount that is 50 percent or more of the covered company's net credit exposure to counterparty A;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether 25 percent or more of one counterparty's production or output is sold to the other counterparty, which cannot easily be replaced by other customers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the expected source of funds to repay the loans of both counterparties is the same and neither counterparty has another independent source of income from which the loans may be serviced and fully repaid; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) Whether two or more counterparties rely on the same source for the majority of their funding and, in the event of the common provider's default, an alternative provider cannot be found.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (b)(2) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that those counterparties are not economically interdependent and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate one counterparty with another counterparty provided that the counterparty could promptly modify its business relationships, such as by reducing its reliance on the other counterparty, to address any economic interdependence concerns, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to certain control relationships.</I> (1) For purposes of this subpart, one counterparty (counterparty A) is deemed to control the other counterparty (counterparty B) if:
</P>
<P>(i) Counterparty A owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of counterparty B; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Counterparty A controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if a covered company determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (c)(1) is met, the covered company may request in writing a determination from the Board that counterparty A does not control counterparty B and that the covered company is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered company pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered company and not require the covered company to aggregate counterparty A with counterparty B provided that, taking into account the specific facts and circumstances, such indicia of control does not result in the entities being connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</I> The Board may determine, after notice to the covered company and opportunity for hearing, that one or more counterparties of a covered company are:
</P>
<P>(1) Economically interdependent for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as any other indicia of economic interdependence that the Board determines in its discretion to be relevant; or
</P>
<P>(2) Connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and whether counterparty A:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of Counterparty B pursuant to a voting agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has significant influence on the appointment or dismissal of counterparty B's administrative, management, or governing body, or the fact that a majority of members of such body have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of counterparty A's voting rights; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties to prevent evasion.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a covered company must aggregate its exposures to a counterparty with the covered company's exposures to another counterparty if the Board determines in writing after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the exposures to the two counterparties must be aggregated to prevent evasions of the purposes of this subpart, including, but not limited to § 252.76 and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38493, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 64023, Dec. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.77" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.77   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempted exposure categories.</I> The following categories of credit transactions are exempt from the limits on credit exposure under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct claim on, and the portion of a claim that is directly and fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, only while operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and any additional obligation issued by a U.S. government-sponsored entity as determined by the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) Intraday credit exposure to a counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any trade exposure to a qualifying central counterparty related to the covered company's clearing activity, including potential future exposure arising from transactions cleared by the qualifying central counterparty and pre-funded default fund contributions;
</P>
<P>(4) Any credit transaction with the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, or the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes;
</P>
<P>(5) Any credit transaction with the European Commission or the European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any transaction that the Board exempts if the Board finds that such exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption for Federal Home Loan Banks.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered company does not include any Federal Home Loan Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional exemptions by the Board.</I> The Board may, by regulation or order, exempt transactions, in whole or in part, from the definition of the term “credit exposure,” if the Board finds that the exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.78" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.8.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.78   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of compliance.</I> (1) Using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a covered company must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a daily basis at the end of each business day.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company must report its compliance to the Federal Reserve as of the end of the quarter, unless the Board determines and notifies that company in writing that more frequent reporting is required.
</P>
<P>(3) In reporting its compliance, a covered company must calculate and include in its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor the amounts of eligible collateral, eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, and eligible credit derivatives that were provided to the covered company in connection with credit transactions with exempt counterparties, valued in accordance with and as required by § 252.74(b) through (d) and (g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying Master Netting Agreement.</I> With respect to any qualifying master netting agreement, a covered company must establish and maintain procedures that meet or exceed the requirements of § 217.3(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.3(d)) to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncompliance.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a covered company is not in compliance with this subpart with respect to a counterparty solely due to the circumstances listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the covered company will not be subject to enforcement actions for a period of 90 days (or, with prior notice to the company, such shorter or longer period determined by the Board, in its sole discretion, to be appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company or U.S. financial stability), if the covered company uses reasonable efforts to return to compliance with this subpart during this period. The covered company may not engage in any additional credit transactions with such a counterparty in contravention of this rule during the period of noncompliance, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) A covered company may request a special temporary credit exposure limit exemption from the Board. The Board may grant approval for such exemption in cases where the Board determines that such credit transactions are necessary or appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered company or U.S. financial stability. In acting on a request for an exemption, the Board will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A decrease in the covered company's capital stock and surplus;
</P>
<P>(ii) The merger of the covered company with another covered company;
</P>
<P>(iii) A merger of two counterparties; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An unforeseen and abrupt change in the status of a counterparty as a result of which the covered company's credit exposure to the counterparty becomes limited by the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other factor(s) the Board determines, in its discretion, is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other measures.</I> The Board may impose supervisory oversight and additional reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with this subpart. Covered companies must furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, such information to monitor compliance with this subpart and the limits therein as the Board may require.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Requirements for Qualified Financial Contracts of Global Systemically Important Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 82 FR 42920, Sept. 12, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.81" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.81   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P><I>Chapter 11 proceeding</I> means a proceeding under Chapter 11 of Title 11, United States Code (11 U.S.C. 1101-74.).
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated affiliate</I> means an affiliate of another company that
</P>
<P>(1) Either consolidates the other company, or is consolidated by the other company, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Is, along with the other company, consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1), if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P><I>Default right</I> (1) Means, with respect to a QFC, any:
</P>
<P>(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including, without limitation, rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement, or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation, and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay, or defer payment or performance thereunder, or modify the obligations of a party thereunder, or any similar rights; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral, or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to § 252.84, does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded bank:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means a national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, or an FSI that is exempted from the scope of this subpart pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(3) of § 252.82;
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any entity described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii)); is owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith; is a portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662); is owned pursuant to paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24); or is a DPC branch subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act proceeding</I> means a proceeding in which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is appointed as conservator or receiver under section 11 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821).
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act stay period</I> means, in connection with an FDI Act proceeding, the period of time during which a party to a QFC with a party that is subject to an FDI Act proceeding may not exercise any right that the party that is not subject to an FDI Act proceeding has to terminate, liquidate, or net such QFC, in accordance with section 11(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Financial counterparty</I> means a person that is:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company that is established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2002 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any entity registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) A securities holding company, with the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(viii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(ix) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(x) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial counterparty described in paragraphs (1)(i)-(xi) of this definition, if the entity were organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial counterparty” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements.
</P>
<P><I>Financial market utility (FMU)</I> means any person, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the person is located or organized, that manages or operates a multilateral system for the purpose of transferring, clearing, or settling payments, securities, or other financial transactions among financial institutions or between financial institutions and the person, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, security-based swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), solely by reason of their providing facilities for comparison of data respecting the terms of settlement of securities or futures transactions effected on such exchange or by means of any electronic system operated or controlled by such entities, provided that the exclusions in this clause apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a FMU or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the FMU of services to its participants or the use of services of the FMU by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the FMU.
</P>
<P><I>FSI</I> means a state savings association or state nonmember bank (as the terms are defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Investment advisory contract</I> means any contract or agreement whereby a person agrees to act as investment adviser to or to manage any investment or trading account of another person.
</P>
<P><I>Master agreement</I> means a QFC of the type set forth in sections 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V)) or a master agreement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines by regulation is a QFC pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract (QFC)</I> has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> has the same meaning as in § 249.3 of the Board's Regulation WW (12 CFR 249.3).
</P>
<P><I>Small financial institution</I> means a company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized as a bank, as defined in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a savings association, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a farm credit system institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971; or an insured Federal credit union or State-chartered credit union under the Federal Credit Union Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has total assets of $10,000,000,000 or less on the last day of the company's most recent fiscal year.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. special resolution regimes</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811-1835a) and regulations promulgated thereunder and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381-5394) and regulations promulgated thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.82" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.82   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A covered entity must ensure that each covered QFC conforms to the requirements of §§ 252.83 and 252.84.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered entities.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered entity is:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company that is identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402;
</P>
<P>(2) A subsidiary of a company identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section other than a subsidiary that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;
</P>
<P>(ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));
</P>
<P>(iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;
</P>
<P>(iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662); or
</P>
<P>(v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs)); or
</P>
<P>(3) A U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization other than a U.S. subsidiary, U.S. branch, or U.S. agency that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A national bank, a Federal savings association, a Federal branch, a Federal agency, an FSI;
</P>
<P>(ii) A company owned pursuant to section 3(a)(A)(ii), 4(c)(2), 4(k)(4)(H), or 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)(A)(ii), 1843(c)(2), 1843(k)(4)(H), 1843(k)(4)(I));
</P>
<P>(iii) A company owned by a depository institution in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;
</P>
<P>(iv) A portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662);
</P>
<P>(v) A company the business of which is to make investments that are designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs);
</P>
<P>(vi) A section 2(h)(2) company; or
</P>
<P>(vii) A DPC branch subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered QFCs.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered QFC is:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered entity that becomes a covered entity after November 13, 2017, an in-scope QFC that the covered entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity and January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered entity, if the covered entity or any affiliate that is a covered entity or excluded bank also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) with respect to the covered entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>In-scope QFCs.</I> An in-scope QFC is a QFC that explicitly:
</P>
<P>(1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered entity; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered entity does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial applicability of requirements for covered QFCs.</I> (1) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:
</P>
<P>(i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (f)(1)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered entity that is not a covered entity on November 13, 2017 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this subpart by:
</P>
<P>(i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 1 year after the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity or an excluded bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity or excluded bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 2 years from the date the covered entity first becomes a covered entity if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered entity) is a small financial institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.83" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.83   U.S. Special Resolution Regimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered QFC designates, in the manner described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each party to the covered QFC, other than the covered entity, is:
</P>
<P>(A) An individual that is domiciled in the United States, including any State;
</P>
<P>(B) A company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(C) A company the principal place of business of which is located in the United States, including any State; or
</P>
<P>(D) A U.S. branch or U.S. agency.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC designates the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly provides that the covered QFC is governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly provide that one or both of the U.S. special resolution regimes, or a broader set of laws that includes a U.S. special resolution regime, is excluded from the laws governing the covered QFC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provisions required.</I> A covered QFC must explicitly provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) In the event the covered entity becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, the transfer of the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) from the covered entity will be effective to the same extent as the transfer would be effective under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the covered entity or an affiliate of the covered entity becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, default rights with respect to the covered QFC that may be exercised against the covered entity are permitted to be exercised to no greater extent than the default rights could be exercised under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC were governed by the laws of the United States or a state of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relevance of creditor protection provisions.</I> The requirements of this section apply notwithstanding paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.84" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.84   Insolvency proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not explicitly provide any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not explicitly prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or would prohibit such a transfer only if the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General prohibitions.</I> (1) A covered QFC may not permit the exercise of any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC may not prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding unless the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions relevant to the general prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>Direct party.</I> Direct party means a covered entity or excluded bank that is a party to the direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct QFC.</I> Direct QFC means a QFC that is not a credit enhancement, <I>provided that,</I> for a QFC that is a master agreement that includes an affiliate credit enhancement as a supplement to the master agreement, the direct QFC does not include the affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliate credit enhancement.</I> Affiliate credit enhancement means a credit enhancement that is provided by an affiliate of a party to the direct QFC that the credit enhancement supports.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General creditor protections.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered direct QFC and covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC may permit the exercise of a default right with respect to the covered QFC that arises as a result of:
</P>
<P>(1) The direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to the covered QFC or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default right in the covered QFC; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider or transferee not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to a covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions relevant to the general creditor protections</I>—(1) <I>Covered direct QFC.</I> Covered direct QFC means a direct QFC to which a covered entity or excluded bank is a party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered affiliate credit enhancement.</I> Covered affiliate credit enhancement means an affiliate credit enhancement in which a covered entity or excluded bank is the obligor of the credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered affiliate support provider.</I> Covered affiliate support provider means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the affiliate of the direct party that is obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement and is not a transferee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supported party.</I> Supported party means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement and the direct QFC that the covered affiliate credit enhancement supports, a party that is a beneficiary of the covered affiliate support provider's obligation(s) under the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional creditor protections for supported QFCs.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right after the stay period that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered affiliate support provider that remains obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, other than a Chapter 11 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, the transferee, if any, becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider does not remain, and a transferee does not become, obligated to the same, or substantially similar, extent as the covered affiliate support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered affiliate credit enhancement;
</P>
<P>(ii) All other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of other covered direct QFCs between the direct party and the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of covered direct QFCs between the direct party and affiliates of the supported party referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a transfer of the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee,
</P>
<P>(i) All of the ownership interests of the direct party directly or indirectly held by the covered affiliate support provider are not transferred to the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable assurance has not been provided that all or substantially all of the assets of the covered affiliate support provider (or net proceeds therefrom), excluding any assets reserved for the payment of costs and expenses of administration in the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, will be transferred or sold to the transferee in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definitions relevant to the additional creditor protections for supported QFCs</I>—(1) <I>Stay period.</I> Stay period means, with respect to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, the period of time beginning on the commencement of the proceeding and ending at the later of 5:00 p.m. (eastern time) on the business day following the date of the commencement of the proceeding and 48 hours after the commencement of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business day.</I> Business day means a day on which commercial banks in the jurisdiction the proceeding is commenced are open for general business (including dealings in foreign exchange and foreign currency deposits).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transferee.</I> Transferee means a person to whom a covered affiliate credit enhancement is transferred upon the covered affiliate support provider entering a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or thereafter as part of the resolution, restructuring, or reorganization involving the covered affiliate support provider.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Creditor protections related to FDI Act proceedings.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (d), and (f) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to FDI Act proceedings:
</P>
<P>(1) After the FDI Act stay period, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is not transferred pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(9)-(e)(10) and any regulations promulgated thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(2) During the FDI Act stay period, if the default right may only be exercised so as to permit the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement to suspend performance with respect to the supported party's obligations under the covered direct QFC to the same extent as the supported party would be entitled to do if the covered direct QFC were with the covered affiliate support provider and were treated in the same manner as the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibited terminations.</I> A covered QFC must require, after an affiliate of the direct party has become subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding:
</P>
<P>(1) The party seeking to exercise a default right to bear the burden of proof that the exercise is permitted under the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) Clear and convincing evidence or a similar or higher burden of proof to exercise a default right.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.85" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.85   Approval of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protocol compliance.</I> (1) Unless the Board determines otherwise based on the specific facts and circumstances, a covered QFC is deemed to comply with this subpart if it is amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC will be deemed to be amended by the universal protocol for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section notwithstanding the covered QFC being amended by one or more Country Annexes, as the term is defined in the universal protocol.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The universal protocol means the ISDA 2015 Universal Resolution Stay Protocol, including the Securities Financing Transaction Annex and Other Agreements Annex, published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., as of May 3, 2016, and minor or technical amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(ii) The U.S. protocol means a protocol that is the same as the universal protocol other than as provided in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The provisions of Section 1 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities and excluded banks and may be limited with respect to resolutions under the Identified Regimes, as those regimes are identified by the universal protocol;
</P>
<P>(B) The provisions of Section 2 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities and excluded banks;
</P>
<P>(C) The provisions of Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply with respect to U.S. special resolution regimes;
</P>
<P>(D) The provisions of Section 4(b) of the attachment to the universal protocol may only be effective to the extent that the covered QFCs affected by an adherent's election thereunder would continue to meet the requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(E) The provisions of Section 2(k) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply; and
</P>
<P>(F) The U.S. protocol may include minor and technical differences from the universal protocol and differences necessary to conform the U.S. protocol to the differences described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A)-(E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol, with respect to covered QFCs between adherents to the protocol, includes amendments through incorporation of the terms of the protocol (by reference or otherwise) into the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The attachment to the universal protocol means the attachment that the universal protocol identifies as “ATTACHMENT to the ISDA 2015 UNIVERSAL RESOLUTION STAY PROTOCOL.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposal of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</I> (1) A covered entity may request that the Board approve as compliant with the requirements of §§ 252.83 and 252.84 proposed provisions of one or more forms of covered QFCs, or proposed amendments to one or more forms of covered QFCs, with enhanced creditor protection conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Enhanced creditor protection conditions means a set of limited exemptions to the requirements of § 252.84(b) that is different than that of paragraphs (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered entity making a request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must provide:
</P>
<P>(i) An analysis of the proposal that addresses each consideration in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A written legal opinion verifying that proposed provisions or amendments would be valid and enforceable under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, including, in the case of proposed amendments, the validity and enforceability of the proposal to amend the covered QFCs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information that the Board requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board approval.</I> The Board may approve, subject to any conditions or commitments the Board may set, a proposal by a covered entity under paragraph (b) of this section if the proposal, as compared to a covered QFC that contains only the limited exemptions in paragraphs of (d), (f), and (h) of § 252.84 or that is amended as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, would prevent or mitigate risks to the financial stability of the United States that could arise from the failure of a global systemically important BHC, a global systemically important foreign banking organization, or the subsidiaries of either and would protect the safety and soundness of bank holding companies and state member banks to at least the same extent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Considerations.</I> In reviewing a proposal under this section, the Board may consider all facts and circumstances related to the proposal, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would reduce the resiliency of such covered entities during distress or increase the impact on U.S. financial stability were one or more of the covered entities to fail;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would materially decrease the ability of a covered entity, or an affiliate of a covered entity, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the set of conditions or the mechanism in which they are applied facilitates, on an industry-wide basis, contractual modifications to remove impediments to resolution and increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment with respect to the default rights of non-defaulting parties to a covered QFC;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal applies to existing and future transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would apply to multiple forms of QFCs or multiple covered entities;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the proposal would permit a party to a covered QFC that is within the scope of the proposal to adhere to the proposal with respect to only one or a subset of covered entities;
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to a supported party, the degree of assurance the proposal provides to the supported party that the material payment and delivery obligations of the covered affiliate credit enhancement and the covered direct QFC it supports will continue to be performed after the covered affiliate support provider enters a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) The presence, nature, and extent of any provisions that require a covered affiliate support provider or transferee to meet conditions other than material payment or delivery obligations to its creditors;
</P>
<P>(9) The extent to which the supported party's overall credit risk to the direct party may increase if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are not met and the likelihood that the supported party's credit risk to the direct party would decrease or remain the same if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are met; and
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the proposal provides the counterparty with additional default rights or other rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.86" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.86   Foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</I> With respect to a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of a global systemically important foreign banking organization, a foreign bank multi-branch master agreement that is a covered QFC solely because the master agreement permits agreements or transactions that are QFCs to be entered into at one or more U.S. branches or U.S. agencies of the global systemically important foreign banking organization will be considered a covered QFC for purposes of this subpart only with respect to such agreements or transactions booked at such U.S. branches and U.S. agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of foreign bank multi-branch master agreements.</I> A foreign bank multi-branch master agreement means a master agreement that permits a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and another place of business of a foreign bank that is outside the United States to enter transactions under the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.87" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.87   Identification of global systemically important foreign banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this subpart, a top-tier foreign banking organization that is or controls a covered company (as defined at 12 CFR 243.2(f)) is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>(1) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
</P>
<P>(i) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q (part 217 of this chapter), would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That any U.S. intermediate holding company controlled by the top-tier foreign banking organization, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is or were subject to § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, is or would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(b) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that determines pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must notify the Board of the determination by January 1 of each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) A top-tier foreign banking organization that is or controls a covered company (as defined at 12 CFR 243.2(f)) and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
</P>
<P>(d) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and that meets the requirements of § 252.153(b)(5) and (6) also meets the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.88" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.9.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.88   Exclusion of certain QFCs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion of QFCs with FMUs.</I> Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform to the requirements of this subpart a covered QFC to which:
</P>
<P>(1) A CCP is party; or
</P>
<P>(2) Each party (other than the covered entity) is an FMU.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion of certain excluded bank QFCs.</I> If a covered QFC is also a covered QFC under parts 47 or 382 of this title that an affiliate of the covered entity is also required to conform pursuant to parts 47 or 382 of this title and the covered entity is:
</P>
<P>(1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered entity is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this subpart but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party to which the excluded bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered entity is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this subpart but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of certain contracts.</I> Notwithstanding § 252.82, a covered entity is not required to conform the following types of contracts or agreements to the requirements of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) An investment advisory contract that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered entity except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby.
</P>
<P>(2) A warrant that:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered entity or an affiliate of the covered entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Was issued prior to November 13, 2017.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption by order.</I> The Board may exempt by order one or more covered entities from conforming one or more contracts or types of contracts to one or more of the requirements of this subpart after considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered entity(ies), or affiliates of the covered entity(ies), to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factor the Board deems relevant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts J-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Risk Committee Requirement for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of at Least $50 Billion but Less Than $100 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17323, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.130" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.11.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.130   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.131" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.11.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.131   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of at least $50 billion but less than $100 billion must comply with the risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements.</I> A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the risk-committee requirements of this section until the earlier of the date on which:
</P>
<P>(1) Its total consolidated assets are below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(2) It becomes subject to the requirements of subpart N or subpart O of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.132" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.11.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.132   Risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>U.S. risk committee certification.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart, must, on an annual basis, certify to the Board that it maintains a committee of its global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as part of its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof) that:
</P>
<P>(1) Oversees the risk management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Includes at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex firms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of certification.</I> The certification required under paragraph (a) of this section must be filed on an annual basis with the Board concurrently with the FR Y-7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization.</I> The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Noncompliance with this section.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17323, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59109, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Enhanced Prudential Standards for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More and Combined U.S. Assets of Less Than $100 Billion</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.140" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.140   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to foreign banking organizations with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, but average combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.142" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.142   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> A foreign banking organization with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the capital stress testing, risk-management and risk-committee requirements set forth in this subpart beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter the date on which its average total consolidated assets equal or exceed $100 billion; and
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the risk-based and leverage capital requirements and liquidity risk-management requirements set forth in this subpart beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its total consolidated assets equal or exceed $250 billion; and
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.147 beginning no later than on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average U.S. non-branch assets equal or exceed $50 billion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements</I>—(1) <I>Enhanced prudential standards applicable to the foreign banking organization.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the requirements set forth in §§ 252.144 and 252.146 until its total consolidated assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the requirements set forth in §§ 252.143 and 252.145 until its total consolidated assets are below $250 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate holding company requirement.</I> A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.147 until the sum of the total consolidated assets of the top-tier U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary) is below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or it becomes subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirements of subpart O of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.143" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.143   Risk-based and leverage capital requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must certify to the Board that it meets capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis established by its home-country supervisor that are consistent with the regulatory capital framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended from time to time (Basel Capital Framework).
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of this paragraph, home-country capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework include all minimum risk-based capital ratios, any minimum leverage ratio, and all restrictions based on any applicable capital buffers set forth in “Basel III: A global regulatory framework for more resilient banks and banking systems” (2010) (Basel III Accord), each as applicable and as implemented in accordance with the Basel III Accord, including any transitional provisions set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that a home-country supervisor has not established capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework, the foreign banking organization must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that it would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were it subject to such standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the capital adequacy measures described in paragraph (a) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncompliance with the Basel Capital Framework.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions, including risk-based or leverage capital requirements, relating to the activities or business operations of the U.S. operations of the organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.144" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.144   Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more but combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of less than $50 billion</I>—(1) <I>U.S. risk committee certification.</I> A foreign banking organization with average combined U.S. assets of less than $50 billion must, on an annual basis, certify to the Board that it maintains a committee of its global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as part of its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof) that:
</P>
<P>(i) Oversees the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of certification.</I> The certification required under paragraph (a) of this section must be filed on an annual basis with the Board concurrently with the FR Y-7.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion</I>—(1) <I>U.S. risk committee</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this this subpart and with average combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more must maintain a U.S. risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and oversees the risk-management framework of such combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The foreign banking organization's risk-management framework for its combined U.S. operations must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of its combined U.S. operations and consistent with its enterprise-wide risk management policies. The framework must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, on a combined U.S. operations basis and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the combined U.S. operations; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Placement of the U.S. risk committee.</I> (A) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations in the United States solely through a U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain its U.S. risk committee as a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof).
</P>
<P>(B) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations through U.S. branches or U.S. agencies (in addition to through its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any) may maintain its U.S. risk committee either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) As a committee of the global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with the risk committee of its U.S. intermediate holding company required pursuant to § 252.147(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The U.S. risk committee must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The U.S. risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(B) Have at least one member who:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1) of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>U.S. chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization with average combined U.S. assets of $50 billion or more but less than $100 billion or its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, must appoint a U.S. chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The measurement, aggregation, and monitoring of risks undertaken by the combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures for the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the development and implementation of processes and systems set forth in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the risk-control framework for the combined U.S. operations, and the monitoring and testing of such risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies of the combined U.S. operations, and resolving such risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance and reporting.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive compensation and other incentives consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be employed by and located in the U.S. branch, U.S. agency, U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, or another U.S. subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the U.S. risk committee and the global chief risk officer or equivalent management official (or officials) of the foreign banking organization who is responsible for overseeing, on an enterprise-wide basis, the implementation of and compliance with policies and procedures relating to risk-management governance, practices, and risk controls of the foreign banking organization unless the Board approves an alternative reporting structure based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(iv) Regularly provide information to the U.S. risk committee, global chief risk officer, and the Board regarding the nature of and changes to material risks undertaken by the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations, including risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks, and how such risks relate to the global operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet regularly and as needed with the Board to assess compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization.</I> The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk-management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Noncompliance with this section.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition, or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59110, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.145" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.145   Liquidity risk-management requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart with average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more must report to the Board on an annual basis the results of an internal liquidity stress test for either the consolidated operations of the foreign banking organization or the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. Such liquidity stress test must be conducted consistent with the Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management and must incorporate 30-day, 90-day, and one-year stress-test horizons. The “Basel Committee principles for liquidity risk management” means the document titled “Principles for Sound Liquidity Risk Management and Supervision” (September 2008) as published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as supplemented and revised from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) A foreign banking organization that does not comply with paragraph (a) of this section must limit the net aggregate amount owed by the foreign banking organization's non-U.S. offices and its non-U.S. affiliates to the combined U.S. operations to 25 percent or less of the third party liabilities of its combined U.S. operations, on a daily basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59111, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.146" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.146   Capital stress testing requirements for foreign banking organizations with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligible asset</I> means any asset of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency held in the United States that is recorded on the general ledger of a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization (reduced by the amount of any specifically allocated reserves held in the United States and recorded on the general ledger of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency in connection with such assets), subject to the following exclusions and, for purposes of this definition, as modified by the rules of valuation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The following assets do not qualify as eligible assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Equity securities;
</P>
<P>(B) Any assets classified as loss at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
</P>
<P>(C) Accrued income on assets classified loss, doubtful, substandard or value impaired, at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
</P>
<P>(D) Any amounts due from the home office, other offices and affiliates, including income accrued but uncollected on such amounts;
</P>
<P>(E) The balance from time to time of any other asset or asset category disallowed at the preceding examination or by direction of the Board for any other reason until the underlying reasons for the disallowance have been removed;
</P>
<P>(F) Prepaid expenses and unamortized costs, furniture and fixtures and leasehold improvements; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other asset that the Board determines should not qualify as an eligible asset.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following rules of valuation apply:
</P>
<P>(A) A marketable debt security is valued at its principal amount or market value, whichever is lower;
</P>
<P>(B) An asset classified doubtful or substandard at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff, is valued at 50 percent and 80 percent, respectively;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to an asset classified value impaired, the amount representing the allocated transfer risk reserve that would be required for such exposure at a domestically chartered bank is valued at 0 and the residual exposure is valued at 80 percent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Real estate located in the United States and carried on the accounting records as an asset are valued at net book value or appraised value, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization</I> means all liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization, including acceptances and any other liabilities (including contingent liabilities), but excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts due to and other liabilities to other offices, agencies, branches and affiliates of such foreign banking organization, including its head office, including unremitted profits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reserves for possible loan losses and other contingencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means revenue less expenses before adjusting for total loan loss provisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stress test cycle</I> has the same meaning as in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total loan loss provisions</I> means the amount needed to make reserves adequate to absorb estimated credit losses, based upon management's evaluation of the loans and leases that the company has the intent and ability to hold for the foreseeable future or until maturity or payoff, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests.
</P>
<P>(2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization, according to the frequency specified in the following paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) or (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more, on at least an annual basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of less than $250 billion, at least biennially; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof) of the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional standards.</I> (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign banking organization that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 105 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all branches and agencies operated by the foreign banking organization in the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct a stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions, according to the frequency specified in paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of $250 billion or more, on at least an annual basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the foreign banking organization has average total consolidated assets of less than $250 billion, at least biennially; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report a summary of the results of the stress test to the Board that includes a description of the types of risks included in the stress test, a description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test, a summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, total loan loss provisions, net income before taxes and pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign banking organization and any other relevant capital ratios, and an explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17324, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59112, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.147" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.12.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.147   U.S. intermediate holding company requirement for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of less than $100 billion and U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to form a U.S. intermediate holding company</I>—(1) <I>Formation.</I> A foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more must establish a U.S. intermediate holding company, or designate an existing subsidiary that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as its U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Structure.</I> The U.S. intermediate holding company must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Organized under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be governed by a board of directors or managers that is elected or appointed by the owners and that operates in an equivalent manner, and has equivalent rights, powers, privileges, duties, and responsibilities, to a board of directors of a company chartered as a corporation under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice.</I> Within 30 days of establishing or designating a U.S. intermediate holding company under this section, a foreign banking organization must provide to the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the U.S. intermediate holding company, including its name, location, corporate form, and organizational structure;
</P>
<P>(ii) A certification that the U.S. intermediate holding company meets the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information that the Board determines is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Holdings and regulation of the U.S. intermediate holding company</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company under paragraph (a) of this section must hold its entire ownership interest in any U.S. subsidiary (excluding each section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if any) through its U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reporting.</I> Each U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examinations and inspections.</I> The Board may examine or inspect any U.S. intermediate holding company and each of its subsidiaries and prepare a report of their operations and activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Global systemically important banking organizations.</I> For purposes of this part, a top-tier foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
</P>
<P>(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
</P>
<P>(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402; or
</P>
<P>(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice.</I> Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of whether the home-country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.</I> A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative organizational structure</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Upon a written request by a foreign banking organization, the Board may permit the foreign banking organization to: Establish or designate multiple U.S. intermediate holding companies; not transfer its ownership interests in certain subsidiaries to a U.S. intermediate holding company; or use an alternative organizational structure to hold its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors.</I> In making a determination under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board may consider whether applicable law would prohibit the foreign banking organization from owning or controlling one or more of its U.S. subsidiaries through a single U.S. intermediate holding company, or whether circumstances otherwise warrant an exception based on the foreign banking organization's activities, scope of operations, structure, or similar considerations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request</I>—(i) <I>Contents.</I> A request submitted under this section must include an explanation of why the request should be granted and any other information required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> The Board shall act on a request for an alternative organizational structure within 90 days of receipt of a complete request, unless the Board provides notice to the organization that it is extending the period for action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions.</I> The Board may grant relief under this section upon such conditions as the Board deems appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization to comply with additional enhanced prudential standards, or requiring the foreign banking organization to enter into supervisory agreements governing such alternative organizational structure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Modifications.</I> The Board may modify the application of any section of this subpart to a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company or to such U.S. intermediate holding company if appropriate to accommodate the organizational structure of the foreign banking organization or characteristics specific to such foreign banking organization and such modification is appropriate and consistent with the capital structure, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition of each U.S. intermediate holding company, safety and soundness, and the financial stability mandate of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enhanced prudential standards for U.S. intermediate holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Capital requirements for a U.S. intermediate holding company.</I> (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with 12 CFR part 217, other than subpart E of 12 CFR part 217, in the same manner as a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company may choose to comply with subpart E of 12 CFR part 217.
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with capital adequacy standards beginning on the date it is required to established under this subpart, or if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to capital adequacy standards on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.142(a)(3), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management and risk-committee requirements</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A U.S. intermediate holding company must establish and maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies and oversees the risk-management framework of the U.S. intermediate holding company. The risk committee must be a committee of the board of directors of the U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof). The risk committee may also serve as the U.S. risk committee for the combined U.S. operations required pursuant to § 252.144(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The U.S. intermediate holding company's risk-management framework must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the U.S. intermediate holding company and consistent with the risk management policies for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The framework must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies at the U.S. intermediate holding company, including regarding emerging risks and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the U.S. intermediate holding company;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee of the U.S. intermediate holding company must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(B) Have at least one member who:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1), of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(v) The U.S. intermediate holding company must take appropriate measures to ensure that it implements the risk-management policies for the U.S. intermediate holding company and it provides sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(vi) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with risk-committee and risk-management requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to risk-committee and risk-management requirements on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.147(a)(3), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59112, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Enhanced Prudential Standards for Foreign Banking Organizations With Total Consolidated Assets of $100 Billion or More and Combined U.S. Assets of $100 Billion or More</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.150" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.150   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to foreign banking organizations with average total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more and average combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.151" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.151   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.152" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.152   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comply with the requirements of this subpart (other than the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153) beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average combined U.S. assets equal or exceed $100 billion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with the requirement to establish or designate a U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153(a) beginning on the first day of the ninth quarter following the date on which its average U.S. non-branch assets equal or exceed $50 billion or, if the foreign banking organization has established or designated a U.S. intermediate holding company pursuant to § 252.147, beginning on the first day following the date on which the foreign banking organization's average combined U.S. assets equal or exceed $100 billion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changes in requirements following a change in category.</I> A foreign banking organization that changes from one category of banking organization described in § 252.5(c) through (e) to another of such categories must comply with the requirements applicable to the new category under this subpart no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the foreign banking organization's category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cessation of requirements</I>—(1) <I>Enhanced prudential standards applicable to the foreign banking organization.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a foreign banking organization will remain subject to the applicable requirements of this subpart until its combined U.S. assets are below $100 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate holding company requirement.</I> A foreign banking organization will remain subject to the U.S. intermediate holding company requirement set forth in § 252.153 until the sum of the total consolidated assets of the top-tier U.S. subsidiaries of the foreign banking organization (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company and DPC branch subsidiary) is below $50 billion for each of four consecutive calendar quarters, or until the foreign banking organization is subject to subpart N of this part and is in compliance with the U.S. intermediate holding company requirements as set forth in § 252.147.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.153" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.153   U.S. intermediate holding company requirement for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more and U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to form a U.S. intermediate holding company</I>—(1) <I>Formation.</I> A foreign banking organization with average U.S. non-branch assets of $50 billion or more must establish a U.S. intermediate holding company, or designate an existing subsidiary that meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as its U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Structure.</I> The U.S. intermediate holding company must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Organized under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be governed by a board of directors or managers that is elected or appointed by the owners and that operates in an equivalent manner, and has equivalent rights, powers, privileges, duties, and responsibilities, to a board of directors of a company chartered as a corporation under the laws of the United States, any one of the fifty states of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice.</I> Within 30 days of establishing or designating a U.S. intermediate holding company under this section, a foreign banking organization must provide to the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the U.S. intermediate holding company, including its name, location, corporate form, and organizational structure;
</P>
<P>(ii) A certification that the U.S. intermediate holding company meets the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information that the Board determines is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Holdings and regulation of the U.S. intermediate holding company</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company under paragraph (a) of this section must hold its entire ownership interest in any U.S. subsidiary (excluding each section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if any) through its U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reporting.</I> Each U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit information in the manner and form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examinations and inspections.</I> The Board may examine or inspect any U.S. intermediate holding company and each of its subsidiaries and prepare a report of their operations and activities.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this part, a top-tier foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion is a global systemically important foreign banking organization if any of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section, that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
</P>
<P>(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
</P>
<P>(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
</P>
<P>(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(5) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company shall submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of whether the home country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative organizational structure</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Upon a written request by a foreign banking organization, the Board may permit the foreign banking organization to: Establish or designate multiple U.S. intermediate holding companies; not transfer its ownership interests in certain subsidiaries to a U.S. intermediate holding company; or use an alternative organizational structure to hold its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Factors.</I> In making a determination under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Board may consider whether applicable law would prohibit the foreign banking organization from owning or controlling one or more of its U.S. subsidiaries through a single U.S. intermediate holding company, or whether circumstances otherwise warrant an exception based on the foreign banking organization's activities, scope of operations, structure, or other similar considerations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request</I>—(i) <I>Contents.</I> A request submitted under this section must include an explanation of why the request should be granted and any other information required by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> The Board will act on a request for an alternative organizational structure within 90 days of receipt of a complete request, unless the Board provides notice to the organization that it is extending the period for action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conditions.</I> (i) The Board may grant relief under this section upon such conditions as the Board deems appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization to comply with additional enhanced prudential standards, or requiring the foreign banking organization to enter into supervisory agreements governing such alternative organizational structure.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board permits a foreign banking organization to form two or more U.S. intermediate holding companies under this section, each U.S. intermediate holding company must determine its category pursuant to § 252.5 of this part as though the U.S. intermediate holding companies were a consolidated company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Modifications.</I> The Board may modify the application of any section of this subpart to a foreign banking organization that is required to form a U.S. intermediate holding company or to such U.S. intermediate holding company if appropriate to accommodate the organizational structure of the foreign banking organization or characteristics specific to such foreign banking organization and such modification is appropriate and consistent with the capital structure, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or financial condition of each U.S. intermediate holding company, safety and soundness, and the mandate of section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enhanced prudential standards for U.S. intermediate holding companies</I>—(1) <I>Capital requirements for a U.S. intermediate holding company.</I> (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with 12 CFR part 217, other than subpart E of 12 CFR part 217, in the same manner as a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company may choose to comply with subpart E of 12 CFR part 217.
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with applicable capital adequacy standards beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to capital adequacy standards on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital planning.</I> (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with 12 CFR 225.8 in the same manner as a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with 12 CFR 225.8 on the date prescribed in the transition provisions of 12 CFR 225.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-management and risk committee requirements</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A U.S. intermediate holding company must establish and maintain a risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies and oversees the risk-management framework of the U.S. intermediate holding company. The risk committee must be a committee of the board of directors of the U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof). The risk committee may also serve as the U.S. risk committee for the combined U.S. operations required pursuant to § 252.155(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The U.S. intermediate holding company's risk-management framework must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the U.S. intermediate holding company and consistent with the risk management policies for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The framework must include:
</P>
<P>(A) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies at the U.S. intermediate holding company, including regarding emerging risks and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the U.S. intermediate holding company;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The risk committee of the U.S. intermediate holding company must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(B) Have at least one member who:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in 12 CFR 225.41(b)(3), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in 12 CFR 215.2(e)(1), of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(v) The U.S. intermediate holding company must take appropriate measures to ensure that it implements the risk-management policies for the U.S. intermediate holding company and it provides sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(vi) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with risk-committee and risk-management requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart or, if the U.S. intermediate holding company is subject to risk-committee and risk-management requirements on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to § 252.153(a)(1)(ii), on the date that the foreign banking organization becomes subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Liquidity requirements.</I> (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the liquidity risk-management requirements in § 252.156 and conduct liquidity stress tests and hold a liquidity buffer pursuant to § 252.157.
</P>
<P>(ii) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with liquidity risk-management, liquidity stress test, and liquidity buffer requirements beginning on the date that it is required to be established or designated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Stress test requirements.</I> (i)(A) A U.S. intermediate holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more must comply with the requirements of subpart E of this part in the same manner as a bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart E beginning the later of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The stress test cycle of the calendar year after the calendar year in which the U.S. intermediate holding company becomes subject to regulatory capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The transition period provided under subpart E.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company or a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart F of this part in the same manner as a bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(B) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company or Category III U.S. intermediate holding company must comply with the requirements of subpart F beginning the later of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The stress test cycle of the calendar year after the calendar year in which the U.S. intermediate holding company becomes subject to regulatory capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The transition period provided under subpart F.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 64055, Oct. 27, 2014; 80 FR 70673, Nov. 16, 2015; 82 FR 8310, Jan. 24, 2017; 84 FR 59114, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.154" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.154   Risk-based and leverage capital requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart more must certify to the Board that it meets capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are established by its home-country supervisor and that are consistent with the regulatory capital framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended from time to time (Basel Capital Framework).
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that a home-country supervisor has not established capital adequacy standards that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework, the foreign banking organization must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that it would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards at the consolidated level that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were it subject to such standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the capital adequacy measures described in paragraph (a) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncompliance with the Basel Capital Framework.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions. If the Board determines to impose one or more requirements, conditions, or restrictions under this paragraph, the Board will notify the organization before it applies any requirement, condition, or restriction, and describe the basis for imposing such requirement, condition, or restriction. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement, condition, or restriction. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to applying the requirement, condition, or restriction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.155" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.155   Risk-management and risk-committee requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>U.S. risk committee</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must maintain a U.S. risk committee that approves and periodically reviews the risk-management policies of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and oversees the risk-management framework of such combined U.S. operations. The U.S. risk committee's responsibilities include the liquidity risk-management responsibilities set forth in § 252.156(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-management framework.</I> The foreign banking organization's risk-management framework for its combined U.S. operations must be commensurate with the structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of its combined U.S. operations and consistent with its enterprise-wide risk management policies. The framework must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Policies and procedures establishing risk-management governance, risk-management procedures, and risk-control infrastructure for the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Processes and systems for implementing and monitoring compliance with such policies and procedures, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies, including regarding emerging risks, on a combined U.S. operations basis and ensuring effective and timely implementation of actions to address emerging risks and risk-management deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(B) Processes and systems for establishing managerial and employee responsibility for risk management of the combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(C) Processes and systems for ensuring the independence of the risk-management function of the combined U.S. operations; and
</P>
<P>(D) Processes and systems to integrate risk management and associated controls with management goals and the compensation structure of the combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Placement of the U.S. risk committee.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations in the United States solely through a U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain its U.S. risk committee as a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof).
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign banking organization that conducts its operations through U.S. branches or U.S. agencies (in addition to through its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any) may maintain its U.S. risk committee either:
</P>
<P>(A) As a committee of the global board of directors (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with its enterprise-wide risk committee (or equivalent thereof); or
</P>
<P>(B) As a committee of the board of directors of its U.S. intermediate holding company (or equivalent thereof), on a standalone basis or as a joint committee with the risk committee of its U.S. intermediate holding company required pursuant to § 252.153(e)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Corporate governance requirements.</I> The U.S. risk committee must meet at least quarterly and otherwise as needed, and must fully document and maintain records of its proceedings, including risk-management decisions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Minimum member requirements.</I> The U.S. risk committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include at least one member having experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Have at least one member who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates and has not been an officer or employee of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates during the previous three years; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a member of the immediate family, as defined in § 225.41(b)(3) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(b)(3)), of a person who is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer, as defined in § 215.2(e)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)) of the foreign banking organization or its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>U.S. chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart or its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, must appoint a U.S. chief risk officer with experience in identifying, assessing, and managing risk exposures of large, complex financial firms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (i) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for overseeing:
</P>
<P>(A) The measurement, aggregation, and monitoring of risks undertaken by the combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(B) The implementation of and ongoing compliance with the policies and procedures for the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and the development and implementation of processes and systems set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The management of risks and risk controls within the parameters of the risk-control framework for the combined U.S. operations, and the monitoring and testing of such risk controls.
</P>
<P>(ii) The U.S. chief risk officer is responsible for reporting risks and risk-management deficiencies of the combined U.S. operations, and resolving such risk-management deficiencies in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Corporate governance and reporting.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive compensation and other incentives consistent with providing an objective assessment of the risks taken by the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be employed by and located in the U.S. branch, U.S. agency, U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, or another U.S. subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(iii) Report directly to the U.S. risk committee and the global chief risk officer or equivalent management official (or officials) of the foreign banking organization who is responsible for overseeing, on an enterprise-wide basis, the implementation of and compliance with policies and procedures relating to risk-management governance, practices, and risk controls of the foreign banking organization, unless the Board approves an alternative reporting structure based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(iv) Regularly provide information to the U.S. risk committee, global chief risk officer, and the Board regarding the nature of and changes to material risks undertaken by the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations, including risk-management deficiencies and emerging risks, and how such risks relate to the global operations of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meet regularly and as needed with the Board to assess compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Liquidity risk-management requirements.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer must undertake the liquidity risk-management responsibilities set forth in § 252.156(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of the foreign banking organization.</I> The foreign banking organization must take appropriate measures to ensure that its combined U.S. operations implement the risk management policies overseen by the U.S. risk committee described in paragraph (a) of this section, and its combined U.S. operations provide sufficient information to the U.S. risk committee to enable the U.S. risk committee to carry out the responsibilities of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Noncompliance with this section.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not satisfy the requirements of this section, the Board may impose requirements, conditions, or restrictions relating to the activities or business operations of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The Board will coordinate with any relevant State or Federal regulator in the implementation of such requirements, conditions, or restrictions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.156" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.156   Liquidity risk-management requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the U.S. risk committee.</I> (1) The U.S. risk committee established by a foreign banking organization pursuant to § 252.155(a) (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the board of directors (or equivalent thereof)) of the U.S. intermediate holding company or the foreign banking organization, as appropriate must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve at least annually the acceptable level of liquidity risk that the foreign banking organization may assume in connection with the operating strategies for its combined U.S. operations (liquidity risk tolerance), with concurrence from the foreign banking organization's board of directors or its enterprise-wide risk committee, taking into account the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations and the enterprise-wide liquidity risk tolerance of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive and review information provided by the senior management of the combined U.S. operations at least semi-annually to determine whether the combined U.S. operations are operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance and to ensure that the liquidity risk tolerance for the combined U.S. operations is consistent with the enterprise-wide liquidity risk tolerance established for the foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve the contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations described in paragraph (e) of this section at least annually and whenever the foreign banking organization revises its contingency funding plan, and approve any material revisions to the contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations prior to the implementation of such revisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the U.S. chief risk officer</I>—(1) <I>Liquidity risk.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review the strategies and policies and procedures established by senior management of the U.S. operations for managing the risk that the financial condition or safety and soundness of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations would be adversely affected by its inability or the market's perception of its inability to meet its cash and collateral obligations (liquidity risk).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk tolerance.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review information provided by the senior management of the U.S. operations to determine whether the combined U.S. operations are operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance. The U.S. chief risk officer must regularly, and, at least semi-annually, report to the foreign banking organization's U.S. risk committee and enterprise-wide risk committee, or the equivalent thereof (if any) (or a designated subcommittee of such committee composed of members of the relevant board of directors (or equivalent thereof)) on the liquidity risk profile of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations and whether it is operating in accordance with the established liquidity risk tolerance for the U.S. operations, and must establish procedures governing the content of such reports.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business lines or products.</I> (i) The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must approve new products and business lines and evaluate the liquidity costs, benefits, and risks of each new business line and each new product offered, managed or sold through the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations that could have a significant effect on the liquidity risk profile of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization. The approval is required before the foreign banking organization implements the business line or offers the product through its combined U.S. operations. In determining whether to approve the new business line or product, the U.S. chief risk officer must consider whether the liquidity risk of the new business line or product (under both current and stressed conditions) is within the foreign banking organization's established liquidity risk tolerance for its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) The U.S. risk committee must review at least annually significant business lines and products offered, managed or sold through the combined U.S. operations to determine whether each business line or product creates or has created any unanticipated liquidity risk, and to determine whether the liquidity risk of each strategy or product is within the foreign banking organization's established liquidity risk tolerance for its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must review the cash-flow projections produced under paragraph (d) of this section at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the foreign banking organization or the U.S. operations warrant) to ensure that the liquidity risk of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations is within the established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Liquidity risk limits.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish liquidity risk limits as set forth in paragraph (f) of this section and review the foreign banking organization's compliance with those limits at least quarterly (or more often, if changes in market conditions or the liquidity position, risk profile, or financial condition of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization warrant).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Liquidity stress testing.</I> The U.S. chief risk officer of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve the liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions required in § 252.157(a) at least quarterly, and whenever the foreign banking organization materially revises its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies or assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the liquidity stress testing results produced under § 252.157(a) of this subpart at least quarterly; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve the size and composition of the liquidity buffer established under § 252.157(c) of this subpart at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent review function.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a review function, which is independent of the management functions that execute funding for its combined U.S. operations, to evaluate the liquidity risk management for its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(2) The independent review function must:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly, but no less frequently than annually, review and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the foreign banking organization's liquidity risk management processes within the combined U.S. operations, including its liquidity stress test processes and assumptions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess whether the foreign banking organization's liquidity risk-management function of its combined U.S. operations complies with applicable laws and regulations, and sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report material liquidity risk management issues to the U.S. risk committee and the enterprise-wide risk committee in writing for corrective action, to the extent permitted by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cash-flow projections.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must produce comprehensive cash-flow projections for its combined U.S. operations that project cash flows arising from assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures over, at a minimum, short- and long-term time horizons. The foreign banking organization must update short-term cash-flow projections daily and must update longer-term cash-flow projections at least monthly.
</P>
<P>(2) The foreign banking organization must establish a methodology for making cash-flow projections for its combined U.S. operations that results in projections which:
</P>
<P>(i) Include cash flows arising from contractual maturities, intercompany transactions, new business, funding renewals, customer options, and other potential events that may impact liquidity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include reasonable assumptions regarding the future behavior of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and quantify discrete and cumulative cash-flow mismatches over these time periods; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Include sufficient detail to reflect the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, currency exposure, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations, and include analyses by business line, currency, or legal entity as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contingency funding plan.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must establish and maintain a contingency funding plan for its combined U.S. operations that sets out the foreign banking organization's strategies for addressing liquidity needs during liquidity stress events. The contingency funding plan must be commensurate with the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and the established liquidity risk tolerance for the combined U.S. operations. The foreign banking organization must update the contingency funding plan for its combined U.S. operations at least annually, and when changes to market and idiosyncratic conditions warrant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Components of the contingency funding plan</I>—(i) <I>Quantitative assessment.</I> The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify liquidity stress events that could have a significant impact on the liquidity of the foreign banking organization or its combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(B) Assess the level and nature of the impact on the liquidity of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations that may occur during identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(C) Identify the circumstances in which the foreign banking organization would implement its action plan described in paragraph (e)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, which circumstances must include failure to meet any minimum liquidity requirement imposed by the Board on the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(D) Assess available funding sources and needs during the identified liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(E) Identify alternative funding sources that may be used during the identified liquidity stress events; and
</P>
<P>(F) Incorporate information generated by the liquidity stress testing required under § 252.157(a) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity event management process.</I> The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must include an event management process that sets out the foreign banking organization's procedures for managing liquidity during identified liquidity stress events for the combined U.S. operations. The liquidity event management process must:
</P>
<P>(A) Include an action plan that clearly describes the strategies that the foreign banking organization will use to respond to liquidity shortfalls in its combined U.S. operations for identified liquidity stress events, including the methods that the organization or the combined U.S. operations will use to access alternative funding sources;
</P>
<P>(B) Identify a liquidity stress event management team that would execute the action plan in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section for the combined U.S. operations;
</P>
<P>(C) Specify the process, responsibilities, and triggers for invoking the contingency funding plan, describe the decision-making process during the identified liquidity stress events, and describe the process for executing contingency measures identified in the action plan; and
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a mechanism that ensures effective reporting and communication within the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and with outside parties, including the Board and other relevant supervisors, counterparties, and other stakeholders.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Monitoring.</I> The contingency funding plan for the combined U.S. operations must include procedures for monitoring emerging liquidity stress events. The procedures must identify early warning indicators that are tailored to the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Testing.</I> A foreign banking organization must periodically test:
</P>
<P>(A) The components of the contingency funding plan to assess the plan's reliability during liquidity stress events;
</P>
<P>(B) The operational elements of the contingency funding plan, including operational simulations to test communications, coordination, and decision-making by relevant management; and
</P>
<P>(C) The methods it will use to access alternative funding sources for its combined U.S. operations to determine whether these funding sources will be readily available when needed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Liquidity risk limits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization must monitor sources of liquidity risk and establish limits on liquidity risk that are consistent with the organization's established liquidity risk tolerance and that reflect the organization's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity risk limits established by a Category II foreign banking organization or Category III foreign banking organization.</I> If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, liquidity risk limits established under paragraph (f)(1) of this section must include limits on:
</P>
<P>(i) Concentrations in sources of funding by instrument type, single counterparty, counterparty type, secured and unsecured funding, and as applicable, other forms of liquidity risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of liabilities that mature within various time horizons; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Off-balance sheet exposures and other exposures that could create funding needs during liquidity stress events.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Collateral, legal entity, and intraday liquidity risk monitoring.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart or more must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring liquidity risk as set forth in this paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Collateral.</I> The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain policies and procedures to monitor assets that have been, or are available to be, pledged as collateral in connection with transactions to which entities in its U.S. operations are counterparties. These policies and procedures must provide that the foreign banking organization:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculates all of the collateral positions for its combined U.S. operations according to the frequency specified in paragraph (g)(1)(i)(A) or (B) of this section or as directed by the Board, specifying the value of pledged assets relative to the amount of security required under the relevant contracts and the value of unencumbered assets available to be pledged:
</P>
<P>(A) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, on at least a weekly basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, on at least a monthly basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Monitors the levels of unencumbered assets available to be pledged by legal entity, jurisdiction, and currency exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitors shifts in the foreign banking organization's funding patterns, including shifts between intraday, overnight, and term pledging of collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Tracks operational and timing requirements associated with accessing collateral at its physical location (for example, the custodian or securities settlement system that holds the collateral).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal entities, currencies and business lines.</I> The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring and controlling liquidity risk exposures and funding needs of its combined U.S. operations, within and across significant legal entities, currencies, and business lines and taking into account legal and regulatory restrictions on the transfer of liquidity between legal entities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intraday exposure.</I> The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain procedures for monitoring intraday liquidity risk exposure for its combined U.S. operations that are consistent with the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations. If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV banking organization these procedures must address how the management of the combined U.S. operations will:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor and measure expected gross daily inflows and outflows;
</P>
<P>(ii) Manage and transfer collateral to obtain intraday credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and prioritize time-specific obligations so that the foreign banking organizations can meet these obligations as expected and settle less critical obligations as soon as possible;
</P>
<P>(iv) Manage the issuance of credit to customers where necessary; and
</P>
<P>(v) Consider the amounts of collateral and liquidity needed to meet payment systems obligations when assessing the overall liquidity needs of the combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59116, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.157" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.157   Liquidity stress testing and buffer requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidity stress testing requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must conduct stress tests to separately assess the potential impact of liquidity stress scenarios on the cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency of:
</P>
<P>(A) Its combined U.S. operations as a whole;
</P>
<P>(B) Its U.S. branches and agencies on an aggregate basis; and
</P>
<P>(C) Its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each liquidity stress test required under this paragraph (a)(1) must use the stress scenarios described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and take into account the current liquidity condition, risks, exposures, strategies, and activities of the combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(iii) The liquidity stress tests required under this paragraph (a)(1) must take into consideration the balance sheet exposures, off-balance sheet exposures, size, risk profile, complexity, business lines, organizational structure and other characteristics of the foreign banking organization and its combined U.S. operations that affect the liquidity risk profile of the combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(iv) In conducting a liquidity stress test using the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) and (iii) of this section, the foreign banking organization must address the potential direct adverse impact of associated market disruptions on the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations and the related indirect effect such impact could have on the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and incorporate the potential actions of other market participants experiencing liquidity stresses under the market disruptions that would adversely affect the foreign banking organization or its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency.</I> The foreign banking organization must perform the liquidity stress tests required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section according to the frequency specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section or as directed by the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least monthly; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stress scenarios.</I> (i) Each liquidity stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) A scenario reflecting adverse market conditions;
</P>
<P>(B) A scenario reflecting an idiosyncratic stress event for the U.S. branches/agencies and the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any; and
</P>
<P>(C) a scenario reflecting combined market and idiosyncratic stresses.
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign banking organization must incorporate additional liquidity stress scenarios into its liquidity stress test as appropriate based on the financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities of the combined U.S. operations, the U.S. branches and agencies, and the U.S. intermediate holding company, as applicable. The Board may require the foreign banking organization to vary the underlying assumptions and stress scenarios.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Planning horizon.</I> Each stress test conducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must include an overnight planning horizon, a 30-day planning horizon, a 90-day planning horizon, a 1-year planning horizon, and any other planning horizons that are relevant to the liquidity risk profile of the combined U.S. operations, the U.S. branches and agencies, and the U.S. intermediate holding company, if any. For purposes of this section, a “planning horizon” is the period over which the relevant stressed projections extend. The foreign banking organization must use the results of the stress test over the 30-day planning horizon to calculate the size of the liquidity buffers under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Requirements for assets used as cash-flow sources in a stress test.</I> (i) To the extent an asset is used as a cash flow source to offset projected funding needs during the planning horizon in a liquidity stress test, the fair market value of the asset must be discounted to reflect any credit risk and market volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets used as cash-flow sources during the planning horizon must be diversified by collateral, counterparty, borrowing capacity, or other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) A line of credit does not qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon of 30 days or less. A line of credit may qualify as a cash flow source for purposes of a stress test with a planning horizon that exceeds 30 days.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Tailoring.</I> Stress testing must be tailored to, and provide sufficient detail to reflect, the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, and size of the combined U.S. operations of the foreign banking organization and, as appropriate, the foreign banking organization as a whole.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Governance</I>—(i) <I>Stress test function.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart, within its combined U.S. operations and its enterprise-wide risk management, must establish and maintain policies and procedures governing its liquidity stress testing practices, methodologies, and assumptions that provide for the incorporation of the results of liquidity stress tests in future stress testing and for the enhancement of stress testing practices over time.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Controls and oversight.</I> The foreign banking organization must establish and maintain a system of controls and oversight that is designed to ensure that its liquidity stress testing processes are effective in meeting the requirements of this section. The controls and oversight must ensure that each liquidity stress test appropriately incorporates conservative assumptions with respect to the stress scenario in paragraph (a)(3) of this section and other elements of the stress-test process, taking into consideration the capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and other relevant factors of the combined U.S. operations. These assumptions must be approved by U.S. chief risk officer and subject to independent review consistent with the standards set out in § 252.156(c).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Management information systems.</I> The foreign banking organization must maintain management information systems and data processes sufficient to enable it to effectively and reliably collect, sort, and aggregate data and other information related to the liquidity stress testing of its combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Notice and response.</I> If the Board determines that a foreign banking organization must conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Board will notify the foreign banking organization before the change in frequency takes effect, and describe the basis for its determination. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the foreign banking organization may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the organization's request for reconsideration prior to requiring the foreign banking organization to conduct liquidity stress tests according to a frequency other than the frequency provided in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting of liquidity stress tests required by home-country regulators.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must make available to the Board, in a timely manner, the results of any liquidity internal stress tests and establishment of liquidity buffers required by regulators in its home jurisdiction. The report required under this paragraph must include the results of its liquidity stress test and liquidity buffer, if required by the laws or regulations implemented in the home jurisdiction, or expected under supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquidity buffer requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must maintain a liquidity buffer for its U.S. intermediate holding company, if any, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and a separate liquidity buffer for its U.S. branches and agencies, if any, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of U.S. intermediate holding company buffer requirement.</I> (i) The liquidity buffer for the U.S. intermediate holding company must be sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon of a liquidity stress test conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under each scenario set forth in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Net stressed cash-flow need.</I> The net stressed cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company is equal to the sum of its net external stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section) and its net internal stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section) over the 30-day planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Net external stressed cash-flow need calculation.</I> The net external stressed cash-flow need for a U.S. intermediate holding company equals the difference between:
</P>
<P>(A) The projected amount of cash-flow needs that results from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and entities that are not its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(B) The projected amount of cash-flow sources that results from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and entities that are not its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Net internal stressed cash-flow need calculation</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> The net internal stressed cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The greatest daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need over the 30-day planning horizon as calculated under paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Zero.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need calculation.</I> The daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need for the U.S. intermediate holding company for purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section is calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need.</I> For any given day in the stress-test horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need is a daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow that is greater than zero.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow.</I> For any given day of the planning horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow equals the sum of the net intragroup cash flow calculated for that day and the net intragroup cash flow calculated for each previous day of the stress-test horizon, as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Net intragroup cash flow.</I> For any given day of the stress-test horizon, the net intragroup cash flow equals the difference between:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount of cash-flow needs resulting from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and its affiliates (including any U.S. branch or U.S. agency) for that day of the planning horizon; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount of cash-flow sources resulting from transactions between the U.S. intermediate holding company and its affiliates (including any U.S. branch or U.S. agency) for that day of the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Amounts secured by highly liquid assets.</I> For the purposes of calculating net intragroup cash flow under this paragraph, the amounts of intragroup cash-flow needs and intragroup cash-flow sources that are secured by highly liquid assets (as defined in paragraph (c)(7) of this section) must be excluded from the calculation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of U.S. branch and agency liquidity buffer requirement.</I> (i) The liquidity buffer for the foreign banking organization's U.S. branches and agencies must be sufficient to meet the projected net stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies over the first 14 days of a stress test with a 30-day planning horizon, conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section under the scenarios described in paragraphs (a)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Net stressed cash-flow need.</I> The net stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization is equal to the sum of its net external stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section) and net internal stressed cash-flow need (calculated pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section) over the first 14 days of the 30-day planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Net external stressed cash-flow need calculation.</I> (A) The net external stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies equals the difference between:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The projected amount of cash-flow needs that results from transactions between the U.S. branches and agencies and entities other than the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its U.S. and non-U.S. affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The projected amount of cash-flow sources that results from transactions between the U.S. branches and agencies and entities other than the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its U.S. and non-U.S. affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Net internal stressed cash-flow need calculation</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> The net internal stressed cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The greatest daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need over the first 14 days of the 30-day planning horizon, as calculated under paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Zero.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need calculation.</I> The daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization for purposes of paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section is calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need.</I> For any given day of the stress-test horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash-flow need of the U.S. branches and agencies means a daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow that is greater than zero.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow.</I> For any given day of the planning horizon, the daily cumulative net intragroup cash flow of the U.S. branches and agencies equals the sum of the net intragroup cash flow calculated for that day and the net intragroup cash flow calculated for each previous day of the planning horizon, each as calculated in accordance with this paragraph (c)(3)(iv)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Net intragroup cash flow.</I> For any given day of the planning horizon, the net intragroup cash flow must equal the difference between:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount of projected cash-flow needs resulting from transactions between a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount of projected cash-flow sources resulting from transactions between a U.S. branch or U.S. agency and the foreign bank's non-U.S. offices and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Amounts secured by highly liquid assets.</I> For the purposes of calculating net intragroup cash flow of the U.S. branches and agencies under this paragraph, the amounts of intragroup cash-flow needs and intragroup cash-flow sources that are secured by highly liquid assets (as defined in paragraph (c)(7) of this section) must be excluded from the calculation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Location of liquidity buffer</I>—(i) <I>U.S. intermediate holding companies.</I> A U.S. intermediate holding company must maintain in accounts in the United States the highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer required under this section. To the extent that the assets consist of cash, the cash may not be held in an account located at a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the affiliated foreign banking organization or other affiliate that is not controlled by the U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>U.S. branches and agencies.</I> The U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization must maintain in accounts in the United States the highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer required under this section. To the extent that the assets consist of cash, the cash may not be held in an account located at the foreign banking organization's U.S. intermediate holding company or other affiliate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The liquidity buffer required in this section for the U.S. intermediate holding company or the U.S. branches and agencies must consist of highly liquid assets that are unencumbered, as set forth below:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Highly liquid assets.</I> The asset must be a highly liquid asset. For these purposes, a highly liquid asset includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash;
</P>
<P>(B) Assets that meet the criteria for high quality liquid assets as defined in 12 CFR 249.20; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other asset that the foreign banking organization demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Has low credit risk and low market risk;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unencumbered.</I> The asset must be unencumbered. For these purposes, an asset is unencumbered if it:
</P>
<P>(A) Is free of legal, regulatory, contractual or other restrictions on the ability of such company promptly to liquidate, sell or transfer the asset; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Not pledged or used to secure or provide credit enhancement to any transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, to the extent potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended by such central bank or U.S. government-sponsored enterprise or any of its consolidated subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset.</I> In calculating the amount of a highly liquid asset included in the liquidity buffer, the foreign banking organization must discount the fair market value of the asset to reflect any credit risk and market price volatility of the asset.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Operational requirements.</I> With respect to the liquidity buffer, the foreign banking organization must:
</P>
<P>(A) Establish and implement policies and procedures that require highly liquid assets comprising the liquidity buffer to be under the control of the management function in the foreign banking organization that is charged with managing liquidity risk of its combined U.S. operations; and
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate the capability to monetize a highly liquid asset under each scenario required under § 252.157(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Diversification.</I> The liquidity buffer must not contain significant concentrations of highly liquid assets by issuer, business sector, region, or other factor related to the foreign banking organization's risk, except with respect to cash and securities issued or guaranteed by the United States, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government sponsored enterprise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59118, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.158" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.13.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.158   Capital stress testing requirements for foreign banking organizations with combined U.S. assets of $100 billion or more.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligible asset</I> means any asset of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency held in the United States that is recorded on the general ledger of a U.S. branch or U.S. agency of the foreign banking organization (reduced by the amount of any specifically allocated reserves held in the United States and recorded on the general ledger of the U.S. branch or U.S. agency in connection with such assets), subject to the following exclusions, and, for purposes of this definition, as modified by the rules of valuation set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The following assets do not qualify as eligible assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Equity securities;
</P>
<P>(B) Any assets classified as loss at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
</P>
<P>(C) Accrued income on assets classified loss, doubtful, substandard or value impaired, at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff;
</P>
<P>(D) Any amounts due from the home office, other offices and affiliates, including income accrued but uncollected on such amounts;
</P>
<P>(E) The balance from time to time of any other asset or asset category disallowed at the preceding examination or by direction of the Board for any other reason until the underlying reasons for the disallowance have been removed;
</P>
<P>(F) Prepaid expenses and unamortized costs, furniture and fixtures and leasehold improvements; and
</P>
<P>(G) Any other asset that the Board determines should not qualify as an eligible asset.
</P>
<P>(ii) The following rules of valuation apply:
</P>
<P>(A) A marketable debt security is valued at its principal amount or market value, whichever is lower;
</P>
<P>(B) An asset classified doubtful or substandard at the preceding examination by a regulatory agency, outside accountant, or the bank's internal loan review staff, is valued at 50 percent and 80 percent, respectively;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to an asset classified value impaired, the amount representing the allocated transfer risk reserve that would be required for such exposure at a domestically chartered bank is valued at 0 and the residual exposure is valued at 80 percent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Real estate located in the United States and carried on the accounting records as an asset are valued at net book value or appraised value, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization</I> means all liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization, including acceptances and any other liabilities (including contingent liabilities), but excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts due to and other liabilities to other offices, agencies, branches and affiliates of such foreign banking organization, including its head office, including unremitted profits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reserves for possible loan losses and other contingencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means revenue less expenses before adjusting for total loan loss provisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stress test cycle</I> has the same meaning as in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total loan loss provisions</I> means the amount needed to make reserves adequate to absorb estimated credit losses, based upon management's evaluation of the loans and leases that the company has the intent and ability to hold for the foreseeable future or until maturity or payoff, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart and that has a U.S. branch or U.S. agency must:</P>
<P>(i) Be subject on a consolidated basis to a capital stress testing regime by its home-country supervisor that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct such stress tests or be subject to a supervisory stress test and meet any minimum standards set by its home-country supervisor with respect to the stress tests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide to the Board the information required under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The capital stress testing regime of a foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A supervisory capital stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor or an evaluation and review by the foreign banking organization's home-country supervisor of an internal capital adequacy stress test conducted by the foreign banking organization, according to the frequency specified in paragraph (b)(2)(A) or (B):
</P>
<P>(A) If the foreign banking organization is not a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least annually; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the foreign banking organization is a Category IV foreign banking organization, at least biennially; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Requirements for governance and controls of stress testing practices by relevant management and the board of directors (or equivalent thereof) of the foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information requirements</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A foreign banking organization subject to this subpart must report to the Board by January 5 of each calendar year, unless such date is extended by the Board, summary information about its stress-testing activities and results, including the following quantitative and qualitative information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the conditions or scenarios used in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(iv) Estimates of:
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate losses;
</P>
<P>(B) Pre-provision net revenue;
</P>
<P>(C) Total loan loss provisions;
</P>
<P>(D) Net income before taxes; and
</P>
<P>(E) Pro forma regulatory capital ratios required to be computed by the home-country supervisor of the foreign banking organization and any other relevant capital ratios; and
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of the most significant causes for any changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information required for foreign banking organizations in a net due from position.</I> If, on a net basis, the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization subject to this subpart provide funding to the foreign banking organization's non-U.S. offices and non-U.S. affiliates, calculated as the average daily position over a stress test cycle for a given year, the foreign banking organization must report the following information to the Board by January 5 of each calendar year, unless such date is extended by the Board:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the methodologies used in the stress test, including those employed to estimate losses, revenues, and changes in capital positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimates of realized losses or gains on available-for-sale and held-to-maturity securities, trading and counterparty losses, if applicable; and loan losses (dollar amount and as a percentage of average portfolio balance) in the aggregate and by material sub-portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any additional information that the Board requests.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Imposition of additional standards for capital stress tests.</I> (1) Unless the Board otherwise determines in writing, a foreign banking organization that does not meet each of the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) and (2) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 108 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent that a foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, conduct an annual stress test of its U.S. subsidiaries to determine whether those subsidiaries have the capital necessary to absorb losses as a result of adverse economic conditions; and report to the Board on an annual basis a summary of the results of the stress test that includes the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and any other information specified by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) An enterprise-wide stress test that is approved by the Board may meet the stress test requirement of paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Intragroup funding restrictions or liquidity requirements for U.S. operations.</I> If a foreign banking organization does not meet each of the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the Board may require the U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization and, if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, any U.S. subsidiary of the foreign banking organization, to maintain a liquidity buffer or be subject to intragroup funding restrictions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response.</I> If the Board determines to impose one or more conditions under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the Board will notify the company before it applies the condition, and describe the basis for imposing the condition. Within 14 calendar days of receipt of a notification under this paragraph, the company may request in writing that the Board reconsider the requirement. The Board will respond in writing to the company's request for reconsideration prior to applying the condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. YY, 79 FR 17326, Mar. 27, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59119, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Covered IHC Long-Term Debt Requirement, Covered IHC Total Loss absorbing Capacity Requirement and Buffer, and Restrictions on Corporate Practices for Intermediate Holding Companies of Global Systemically Important Foreign Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.160" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.160   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General applicability.</I> This subpart applies to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is required to be established pursuant to § 252.153 and is controlled by a global systemically important foreign banking organization (Covered IHC).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial applicability.</I> A Covered IHC is subject to the requirements of §§ 252.162, 252.163, 252.165, 252.166, and 252.167 beginning on the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) January 1, 2019; and




</P>
<P>(2) 1095 days (three years) after the later of the date on which:
</P>
<P>(i) The U.S. non-branch assets of the global systemically important foreign banking organization that controls the Covered IHC equaled or exceeded $50 billion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign banking organization that controls the Covered IHC became a global systemically important foreign banking organization.






</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of § 252.164.</I> Section 252.164 applies to a global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.161" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.161   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Average total consolidated assets</I> means the denominator of the leverage ratio as described in 12 CFR 217.10(b)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(b) and 12 CFR 217.10(d), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Covered IHC</I> is defined in § 252.160.
</P>
<P><I>Covered IHC TLAC buffer</I> means, with respect to a Covered IHC, the sum of 2.5 percent and any applicable countercyclical capital buffer under 12 CFR 217.11(b) (expressed as a percentage).
</P>
<P><I>Covered IHC Total loss-absorbing capacity amount</I> is defined in § 252.165(c).
</P>
<P><I>Default right</I> (1) Means any:
</P>
<P>(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay or defer payment or performance thereunder, modify the obligations of a party thereunder or any similar rights; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Covered IHC debt security</I> with respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC means eligible internal debt securities issued by the non-resolution Covered IHC, and with respect to a resolution Covered IHC means eligible internal debt securities and eligible external debt securities issued by the resolution Covered IHC.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible external debt security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A debt instrument that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC to, and remains held by, a person that does not directly or indirectly control the Covered IHC and is not a wholly owned subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
</P>
<P>(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(B) A failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
</P>
<P>(vi) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Covered IHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Covered IHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(vii) Is not a structured note; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the covered IHC; and
</P>
<P>(2) A debt instrument issued prior to December 31, 2016 that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC to, and remains held by, a person that does not directly or indirectly control the Covered IHC and is not a wholly owned subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as an interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Covered IHC's credit quality, but may have an interest rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Covered IHC's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(v) Is not a structured note; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Does not provide that the instrument may be converted into or exchanged for equity of the Covered IHC.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible internal debt security</I> means a debt instrument that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is paid in, and issued by the Covered IHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not secured, not guaranteed by the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a maturity of greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) from the date of issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is governed by the laws of the United States or any State thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Does not provide the holder of the instrument a contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument or in the event of:
</P>
<P>(A) A receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(B) A failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due and payable that continues for 30 days or more;
</P>
<P>(vi) Is not a structured note;
</P>
<P>(vii) Is issued to and remains held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States, and directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC or is a wholly owned subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Has a contractual provision that is approved by the Board that provides for the immediate conversion or exchange of the instrument into common equity tier 1 of the Covered IHC upon issuance by the Board of an internal debt conversion order.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Internal debt conversion order</I> means an order by the Board to immediately convert to, or exchange for, common equity tier 1 capital an amount of eligible internal debt securities of the Covered IHC specified by the Board in its discretion, as described in § 252.163.
</P>
<P><I>Non-resolution Covered IHC</I> means a Covered IHC identified as or determined to be a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to § 252.164.
</P>
<P><I>Outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount</I> is defined in § 252.162(b).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract</I> has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
</P>
<P><I>Resolution Covered IHC</I> means a Covered IHC identified as or determined to be a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to § 252.164.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Structured note</I> means a debt instrument that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a principal amount, redemption amount, or stated maturity that is subject to reduction based on the performance of any asset, entity, index, or embedded derivative or similar embedded feature;
</P>
<P>(2) Has an embedded derivative or other similar embedded feature that is linked to one or more equity securities, commodities, assets, or entities;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not specify a minimum principal amount that becomes due and payable upon acceleration or early termination; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is not classified as debt under GAAP, provided that an instrument is not a structured note solely because it is one or both of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A non-dollar-denominated instrument, or
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument whose interest payments are based on an interest rate index.
</P>
<P><I>Supplementary leverage ratio</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 minority interest</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 217.10(c)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Total risk-weighted assets,</I> with respect to a Covered IHC, is equal to the Covered IHC's standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. non-branch assets</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 252.152(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Wholly owned subsidiary</I> means an entity, all of the outstanding ownership interests of which are owned directly or indirectly by a global systemically important foreign banking organization that directly or indirectly controls a Covered IHC, except that up to 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be held by a third party if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by the third party for the purpose of establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.


</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, subpart P to part 252 was added, including § 252.161. The definition of <I>Eligible internal debt security</I> in § 252.161 was set out with inaccurate paragraph codification.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 90 FR 55291, Dec. 1, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.162" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.162   Covered IHC long-term debt requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered IHC long-term debt requirement.</I> A Covered IHC must have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(1) 6 percent of the Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) If the Covered IHC is required to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 2.5 percent of the Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
</P>
<P>(3) 3.5 percent of the Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount.</I> (1) A Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) One hundred (100) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 730 days (two years); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Fifty (50) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) and less than 730 days (two years); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Zero (0) percent of the amount due to be paid of unpaid principal of the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC in less than 365 days (one year).

 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the date on which principal is due to be paid on an outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security is calculated from the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which payment of principal is required under the terms governing the instrument, without respect to any right of the holder to accelerate payment of principal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the holder of the instrument first has the contractual right to request or require payment of the amount of principal, provided that, with respect to a right that is exercisable on one or more dates that are specified in the instrument only on the occurrence of an event (other than an event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC, or a failure of the Covered IHC to pay principal or interest on the instrument when due), the date for the outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) will be calculated as if the event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) After notice and response proceedings consistent with 12 CFR part 263, subpart E, the Board may order a Covered IHC to exclude from its outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount any debt security with one or more features that would significantly impair the ability of such debt security to take losses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redemption and repurchase.</I> Without the prior approval of the Board, a Covered IHC may not redeem or repurchase any outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt security if, immediately after the redemption or repurchase, the Covered IHC would not have an outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount that is sufficient to meet its Covered IHC long-term debt requirement under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.163" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.163   Internal debt conversion order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board may issue an internal debt conversion order if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board has determined that the Covered IHC is in default or danger of default; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the following circumstances apply:
</P>
<P>(i) A foreign banking organization that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC or any subsidiary of the top-tier foreign banking organization has been placed into resolution proceedings (including the application of statutory resolution powers) in its home country;
</P>
<P>(ii) The home country supervisor of the top-tier foreign banking organization has consented or not promptly objected after notification by the Board to the conversion or exchange of the eligible internal debt securities of the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board has made a written recommendation to the Secretary of the Treasury pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5383(a) regarding the Covered IHC.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) A Covered IHC in default or danger of default if
</P>
<P>(i) A case has been, or likely will promptly be, commenced with respect to the Covered IHC under the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) The Covered IHC has incurred, or is likely to incur, losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital, and there is no reasonable prospect for the Covered IHC to avoid such depletion;
</P>
<P>(iii) The assets of the Covered IHC are, or are likely to be, less than its obligations to creditors and others; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Covered IHC is, or is likely to be, unable to pay its obligations (other than those subject to a bona fide dispute) in the normal course of business; and
</P>
<P>(2) An objection by the home country supervisor to the conversion or exchange of the eligible internal debt securities to be prompt if the Board receives the objection no later than 24 hours after the Board requests such consent or non-objection from the home country supervisor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.164" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.164   Identification as a resolution Covered IHC or a non-resolution Covered IHC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial certification.</I> The top-tier global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion must certify to the Board on the later of June 30, 2017, or one year prior to the date on which a Covered IHC becomes subject to the requirements of this subpart pursuant to § 252.160(b) whether the planned resolution strategy of the top-tier foreign banking organization involves the Covered IHC or the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification update.</I> The top-tier global systemically important foreign banking organization with U.S. non-branch assets that equal or exceed $50 billion must provide an updated certification to the Board upon a change in the resolution strategy described in the certification provided pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Identification of a resolution Covered IHC.</I> A Covered IHC is a resolution Covered IHC if the most recent certification provided pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section indicates that the top-tier foreign banking organization's planned resolution strategy involves the Covered IHC or the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Identification of a non-resolution Covered IHC.</I> A Covered IHC is a non-resolution Covered IHC if the most recent certification provided pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section indicates that the top-tier foreign banking organization's planned resolution strategy involves neither the Covered IHC nor the subsidiaries of the Covered IHC entering resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceedings in the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board determination.</I> The Board may determine in its discretion that a non-resolution Covered IHC identified pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section is a resolution Covered IHC, or that a resolution Covered IHC identified pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section is a non-resolution Covered IHC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transition.</I> (1) A Covered IHC identified as a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or determined by the Board to be a resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section must comply with the requirements in this subpart applicable to a resolution Covered IHC within 365 days (one year) after such identification or determination, unless such time period is extended by the Board in its discretion.
</P>
<P>(2) A Covered IHC identified as a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section or determined by the Board to be a non-resolution Covered IHC pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section must comply with the requirements in this subpart applicable to a non-resolution Covered IHC 365 days (one year) after such identification or determination, unless such time period is extended by the Board in its discretion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.165" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.165   Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement and buffer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement for a resolution Covered IHC.</I> A resolution Covered IHC must have an outstanding Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(1) 18 percent of the resolution Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board requires the resolution Covered IHC to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 6.75 percent of the resolution Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
</P>
<P>(3) Nine (9) percent of the resolution Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity requirement for a non-resolution Covered IHC.</I> A non-resolution Covered IHC must have an outstanding Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount that is no less than the amount equal to the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(1) 16 percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board requires the non-resolution Covered IHC to maintain a minimum supplementary leverage ratio, 6 percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's total leverage exposure; and
</P>
<P>(3) Eight (8) percent of the non-resolution Covered IHC's average total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered IHC Total loss-absorbing capacity amount.</I> (1) A non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount, plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
</P>
<P>(2) A resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital (excluding any common equity tier 1 minority interest);
</P>
<P>(ii) The Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount, plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Covered IHC TLAC buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer.</I> The Covered IHC TLAC buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of a Covered IHC is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Covered IHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the Covered IHC's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9C, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio.</I> The maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a Covered IHC can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio is based on the Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.165.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount.</I> A Covered IHC's maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the Covered IHC's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 252.165.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer level.</I> (i) A Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is equal to the Covered IHC's common equity tier 1 capital ratio (expressed as a percentage) minus the greater of zero and the following amount:
</P>
<P>(A) 16 percent for a non-resolution Covered IHC, and 18 percent for a resolution Covered IHC; minus
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a non-resolution Covered IHC, the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) held by a company that is incorporated or organized outside of the United States and that directly or indirectly controls the Covered IHC to the Covered IHC's total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a resolution Covered IHC, the ratio (expressed as a percentage of the Covered IHC's additional tier 1 capital (excluding any tier 1 minority interest) to the Covered IHC's total-risk weighted assets; and minus


</P>
<P>(C) The ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the Covered IHC's outstanding eligible Covered IHC long-term debt amount plus 50 percent of the amount of unpaid principal of outstanding eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC due to be paid in, as calculated in § 252.162(b)(2), greater than or equal to 365 days (one year) but less than 730 days (two years) to total risk-weighted assets.




</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, with respect to a resolution Covered IHC, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(a), to the resolution Covered IHC's risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to, 18 percent, the Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is zero.
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, with respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC, if the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of the non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(b), to the Covered IHC's risk-weighted assets is less than or equal to 16 percent, the non-resolution Covered IHC's Covered IHC TLAC buffer level is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A Covered IHC shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Covered IHC with a Covered IHC TLAC buffer level that is greater than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer is not subject to a maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(iv) of this section, a Covered IHC may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the Covered IHC's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B) Covered IHC TLAC buffer level was less than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (d)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the Board may permit a Covered IHC to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the Covered IHC, if the Board determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the Covered IHC. In making such a determination, the Board will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 252.165—Calculation of Maximum Covered IHC TLAC Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Covered IHC TLAC buffer level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout ratio
<br/>(as a percentage of eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the Covered IHC TLAC buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer, <E T="03">and</E> greater 25 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the Covered IHC TLAC buffer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v)(A) A Covered IHC is subject to the lowest of the maximum payout amounts as determined under 12 CFR 217.11(a)(2) and the maximum Covered IHC TLAC payout amount as determined under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(B) Additional limitations on distributions may apply to a Covered IHC under 12 CFR 225.4, 225.8, and 263.202.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 8311, Jan. 24, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 17006, Mar. 26, 2020; 86 FR 738, Jan. 6, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.166" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.166   Restrictions on corporate practices of intermediate holding companies of global systemically important foreign banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited corporate practices.</I> A Covered IHC may not directly:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue any debt instrument with an original maturity of less than 365 days (one year), including short term deposits and demand deposits, to any person, unless the person is an affiliate of the Covered IHC;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue any instrument, or enter into any related contract, with respect to which the holder of the instrument has a contractual right to offset debt owed by the holder or its affiliates to the Covered IHC or a subsidiary of the Covered IHC against the amount, or a portion of the amount, owed by the Covered IHC under the instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) Enter into a qualified financial contract that is not a credit enhancement with a person that is not an affiliate of the Covered IHC;
</P>
<P>(4) Enter into an agreement in which the Covered IHC guarantees a liability of an affiliate of the Covered IHC if such liability permits the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the Covered IHC becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a receivership proceeding under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5394) unless the liability is subject to requirements of the Board restricting such default rights or subject to any similar requirements of another U.S. federal banking agency; or
</P>
<P>(5) Enter into, or otherwise benefit from, any agreement that provides for its liabilities to be guaranteed by any of its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limit on unrelated liabilities.</I> (1) The aggregate amount, on an unconsolidated basis, of unrelated liabilities of a Covered IHC may not exceed 5 percent of the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(c).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an unrelated liability includes:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a non-resolution Covered IHC, any non-contingent liability of the non-resolution Covered IHC owed to a person that is not an affiliate of the non-resolution Covered IHC other than those liabilities specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a resolution Covered IHC, any non-contingent liability of the resolution Covered IHC owed to a person that is not a subsidiary of the resolution Covered IHC other than those liabilities specified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The instruments that are used to satisfy the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(a);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dividend or other liability arising from the instruments that are used to satisfy the Covered IHC's Covered IHC total loss-absorbing capacity amount, as calculated under § 252.165(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(iii) An eligible Covered IHC debt security that does not provide the holder of the instrument with a currently exercisable right to require immediate payment of the total or remaining principal amount; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A secured liability, to the extent that it is secured, or a liability that otherwise represents a claim that would be senior to eligible Covered IHC debt securities in Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(b)) and the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 507).
</P>
<P>(c) A Covered IHC is not subject to paragraph (b) of this section if all of the eligible Covered IHC debt securities issued by the Covered IHC would represent the most subordinated debt claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Covered IHC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.167" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.14.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.167   Disclosure requirements for resolution Covered IHCs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A resolution Covered IHC that has any outstanding eligible external debt securities must publicly disclose a description of the financial consequences to unsecured debtholders of the resolution Covered IHC entering into a resolution proceeding in which the resolution Covered IHC is the only entity in the United States that would be subject to the resolution proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) A resolution Covered IHC must provide the disclosure required by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) In the offering documents for all of its eligible external debt securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) On the resolution Covered IHC's Web site; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In more than one public financial report or other public regulatory reports, provided that the resolution Covered IHC publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of this disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Single-Counterparty Credit Limits</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.170" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.170   Applicability and general provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This subpart establishes single counterparty credit limits for a covered foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Covered foreign entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) A Category II foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(B) A Category III foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(C) A foreign banking organization with total consolidated assets that equal or exceed $250 billion;
</P>
<P>(D) A Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(E) A Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Major foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity and meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit exposure limits.</I> (1) Section 252.172 establishes credit exposure limits for covered foreign entities and major foreign banking organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered foreign entity is required to calculate its aggregate net credit exposure, gross credit exposure, and net credit exposure to a counterparty using the methods in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability of this subpart</I>—(1) <I>Foreign banking organizations.</I> (i) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on January 1, 2022, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is a major foreign banking organization as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on July 1, 2021, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>U.S. intermediate holding companies.</I> (i) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity as of October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172, beginning on July 1, 2020, unless that time is extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) A U.S. intermediate holding company that becomes a covered foreign entity subject to this subpart after October 5, 2018, must comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning on the first day of the ninth calendar quarter after it becomes a covered foreign entity, unless that time is accelerated or extended by the Board in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cessation of requirements</I>—(1) <I>Foreign banking organizations.</I> (i) Any foreign banking organization that becomes a covered foreign entity will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered foreign entity is not a Category II foreign banking organization;
</P>
<P>(B) The covered foreign entity is not a Category III foreign banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(C) Its total consolidated assets fall below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as reported on the covered foreign entity's FR Y-7Q, effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive FR Y-7Q.
</P>
<P>(ii) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity and that has ceased to be a major foreign banking organization for purposes of § 252.172(c) is no longer subject to the requirements of § 252.172(c) beginning on the first day of the calendar quarter following the reporting date on which it ceased to be a major foreign banking organization; provided that the foreign banking organization remains subject to the requirements of this subpart, unless it ceases to be a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>U.S. intermediate holding companies.</I> (i) Any U.S. intermediate holding company that becomes a covered foreign entity will remain subject to the requirements of this subpart unless and until:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered foreign entity is not a Category II U.S. intermediate holding company; or
</P>
<P>(B) The covered foreign entity is not a Category III U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59119, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 31952, May 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.171" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.171   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless defined in this section, terms that are set forth in § 252.2 of this part and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 252.2. For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adjusted market value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to the value of cash, securities, or other eligible collateral transferred by the covered foreign entity to a counterparty, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product of the market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132); and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to cash, securities, or other eligible collateral received by the covered foreign entity from a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the cash, securities, or other eligible collateral; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The market value of the securities or other eligible collateral multiplied by the applicable collateral haircut in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132).
</P>
<P>(3) Prior to calculating the adjusted market value pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, with regard to a transaction that meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), the covered foreign entity would first multiply the applicable collateral haircuts in Table 1 to § 217.132 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132) by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means, with respect to a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Any subsidiary of the company and any other company that is consolidated with the company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any subsidiary of the company and any other company that would be consolidated with the company, if consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate net credit exposure</I> means the sum of all net credit exposures of a covered foreign entity and all of its subsidiaries to a single counterparty as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bank-eligible investments</I> means investment securities that a national bank is permitted to purchase, sell, deal in, underwrite, and hold under 12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh) and 12 CFR part 1.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital stock and surplus</I> means, with respect to a U.S. intermediate holding company, the sum of the following amounts in each case as reported by the U.S. intermediate holding company on the most recent FR Y-9C on a consolidated basis:
</P>
<P>(1) The tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital of the U.S. intermediate holding company, as calculated under the capital adequacy guidelines applicable to that U.S. intermediate holding company under subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O); and
</P>
<P>(2) The excess allowance for loan and lease losses of the U.S. intermediate holding company not included in its tier 2 capital, as calculated under the capital adequacy guidelines applicable to that U.S. intermediate holding company under subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Counterparty</I> means with respect to a credit transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a natural person:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section, if the credit exposure of the covered foreign entity to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of tier 1 capital, the natural person and members of the person's immediate family collectively; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Until January 1, 2021, with respect to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019, if the credit exposure of the U.S. intermediate holding company to such natural person exceeds 5 percent of its capital stock and surplus, the natural person and member of the person's immediately family collectively.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any company that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity, the company and its affiliates collectively;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a State, the State and all of its agencies, instrumentalities, and political subdivisions (including any municipalities) collectively;
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D), other than the home country foreign sovereign entity of a foreign banking organization, the foreign sovereign entity and all of its agencies and instrumentalities (but not including any political subdivision), collectively; and
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a political subdivision of a foreign sovereign entity such as a state, province, or municipality, any political subdivision of the foreign sovereign entity and all of such political subdivision's agencies and instrumentalities, collectively.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In addition, under § 252.176, under certain circumstances, a covered foreign entity is required to aggregate its net credit exposure to one or more counterparties for all purposes under this subpart.</P></FTNT>
<P>(g) <I>Covered foreign entity</I> is defined in § 252.170(a)(2)(i) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit derivative</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit transaction</I> means, with respect to a counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Any extension of credit to the counterparty, including loans, deposits, and lines of credit, but excluding uncommitted lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Any repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any securities lending or securities borrowing transaction with the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(4) Any guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit (including any endorsement, confirmed letter of credit, or standby letter of credit) issued on behalf of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(5) Any purchase of securities issued by or other investment in the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(6) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(7) Any credit exposure to the counterparty in connection with a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party, the reference asset of which is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, the counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any transaction that is the functional equivalent of the above, and any other similar transaction that the Board, by regulation, determines to be a credit transaction for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Derivative transaction</I> means any transaction that is a contract, agreement, swap, warrant, note, or option that is based, in whole or in part, on the value of, any interest in, or any quantitative measure or the occurrence of any event relating to, one or more commodities, securities, currencies, interest or other rates, indices, or other assets.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral in which, notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent, the covered foreign entity has a perfected, first priority security interest (or the legal equivalent thereof, if outside of the United States), with the exception of cash on deposit, and is in the form of:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash on deposit with the covered foreign entity or an affiliate of the covered foreign entity (including cash in foreign currency or U.S. dollars held for the covered foreign entity by a custodian or trustee, whether inside or outside of the United States);
</P>
<P>(2) Debt securities (other than mortgage- or asset-backed securities and resecuritization securities, unless those securities are issued by a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise) that are bank-eligible investments and that are investment grade, except for any debt securities issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity;
</P>
<P>(3) Equity securities that are publicly traded, except for any equity securities issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity;
</P>
<P>(4) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded, except for any convertible bonds issued by the covered foreign entity or any affiliate of the covered foreign entity; or
</P>
<P>(5) Gold bullion.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a single-name credit derivative or a standard, non-tranched index credit derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld; and
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Eligible equity derivative</I> means an equity derivative, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the derivative contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the derivative contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Eligible guarantee</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Eligible guarantor</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2), but does not include the foreign banking organization or any entity that is an affiliate of either the U.S. intermediate holding company or of any part of the foreign banking organization's combined U.S. operations.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Equity derivative</I> has the same meaning as “equity derivative contract” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Exempt counterparty</I> means an entity that is identified as exempt from the requirements of this subpart under § 252.177, or that is otherwise excluded from this subpart, including any sovereign entity assigned a zero percent risk weight under the standardized approach in the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D).
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Financial entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with this part; or a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a federal credit union or state credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); a national association, state member bank, or state nonmember bank that is not a depository institution; an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(v) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)-(5)); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vi) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(vii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in sections 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(viii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(ix) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(x) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5462); and
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that would be a financial entity described in paragraphs (s)(1)(i) through (x) of this section, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provided that, for purposes of this subpart, “financial entity” does not include any counterparty that is a foreign sovereign entity or multilateral development bank.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Foreign sovereign entity</I> means a sovereign entity other than the United States government and the entity's agencies, departments, ministries, and central bank.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Gross credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the credit exposure of the covered foreign entity before adjusting, pursuant to § 252.174, for the effect of any qualifying master netting agreement, eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible credit derivative, eligible equity derivative, other eligible hedge, and any unused portion of certain extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Immediate family</I> means the spouse of an individual, the individual's minor children, and any of the individual's children (including adults) residing in the individual's home.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Intraday credit exposure</I> means credit exposure of a covered foreign entity to a counterparty that by its terms is to be repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of its business day in the United States.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Investment grade</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Major counterparty</I> means any counterparty that is or includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A U.S. bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.402);
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier foreign banking organization that meets the requirements of § 252.172(c)(3) through (5); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Major foreign banking organization</I> is defined in § 252.170(a)(2)(ii) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Multilateral development bank</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Net credit exposure</I> means, with respect to any credit transaction, the gross credit exposure of a covered foreign entity and all of its subsidiaries calculated under § 252.173, as adjusted in accordance with § 252.174.
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Qualifying central counterparty</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> has the same meaning as in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2).
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Securities financing transaction</I> means any repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement, securities borrowing transaction, or securities lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Short sale</I> means any sale of a security which the seller does not own or any sale which is consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by, or for the account of, the seller.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central national government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank, but not including any political subdivision such as a state, province, or municipality.
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a <I>subsidiary</I> of another company if
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company under applicable accounting standards; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (ii)(1) of this definition, consolidation would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> means common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital, as defined in subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY(12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Tier 2 capital</I> means tier 2 capital as defined in subpart O of the Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O).
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Total consolidated assets.</I> (1) A foreign banking organization's <I>total consolidated assets</I> are determined based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The average of the foreign banking organization's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-7Q; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the foreign banking organization has not filed an FR Y-7Q for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the foreign banking organization's total consolidated assets, as reported on the foreign banking organization's FR Y-7Q, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the foreign banking organization has not yet filed an FR Y-7Q, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(2) A U.S. intermediate holding company's <I>total consolidated assets</I> are determined based on:
</P>
<P>(i) The average of the U.S. intermediate holding company's total consolidated assets in the four most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-9C; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the U.S. intermediate holding company has not filed an FR Y-9C for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the average of the U.S. intermediate holding company's total consolidated assets, as reported on the company's FR Y-9C, for the most recent quarter or consecutive quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the U.S. intermediate holding company has not yet filed an FR Y-9C, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.172" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.172   Credit exposure limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transition limit on aggregate credit exposure for certain covered foreign entities.</I> (1) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 is not required to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section until January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) Until January 1, 2021, no U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 may have an aggregate net credit exposure that exceeds 25 percent of the consolidated capital stock and surplus of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limit on aggregate net credit exposure for covered foreign entities.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, no U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity may have an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) No foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity may permit its combined U.S. operations to have aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 25 percent of the tier 1 capital of the foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(c) Limit on aggregate net credit exposure of major foreign banking organizations to major counterparties.
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) No major foreign banking organization may permit its combined U.S. operations to have aggregate net credit exposure to any major counterparty that exceeds 15 percent of the tier 1 capital of the major foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this subpart, a top-tier foreign banking organization will be a major counterparty if it meets one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The top-tier foreign banking organization determines, pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153(b)(6), that the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, using information available to the Board, determines:
</P>
<P>(A) That the top-tier foreign banking organization would be a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology;
</P>
<P>(B) That the top-tier foreign banking organization, if it were subject to the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC under 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q; or
</P>
<P>(C) That the U.S. intermediate holding company, if it were subject to 12 CFR 217.402 of the Board's Regulation Q, would be identified as a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P>(4) Each top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company must submit to the Board by January 1 of each calendar year through the U.S. intermediate holding company:
</P>
<P>(A) Notice of whether the home country supervisor (or other appropriate home country regulatory authority) of the top-tier foreign banking organization of the U.S. intermediate holding company has adopted standards consistent with the global methodology; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notice of whether the top-tier foreign banking organization prepares or reports the indicators used by the global methodology to identify a banking organization as a global systemically important banking organization and, if it does, whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has determined that it has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(5) A top-tier foreign banking organization that controls a U.S. intermediate holding company and prepares or reports for any purpose the indicator amounts necessary to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization is a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology must use the data to determine whether the top-tier foreign banking organization has the characteristics of a global systemically important banking organization under the global methodology.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign banking organizations subject on a consolidated basis to a large exposures or single-counterparty credit limit regime by its home-country supervisor.</I> (1) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, a foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity is not required to comply with the requirements of this subpart with respect to limits on the aggregate net credit exposure of its combined U.S. operations if the foreign banking organization certifies to the Board that it meets large exposure standards on a consolidated basis established by its home-country supervisor that are consistent with the large exposures framework published by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (Basel Large Exposures Framework), unless the Board determines in writing, after notice to the foreign banking organization, that compliance with this subpart is required.
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of this paragraph, home-country large exposure standards that are consistent with the Basel Large Exposures Framework include single-counterparty credit limits and any restrictions set forth in “Supervisory framework for measuring and controlling large exposures” (2014) (Basel LE Standard), as implemented in accordance with the Basel LE Standard.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign banking organization that is a covered foreign entity must provide to the Board reports relating to its compliance with the large exposure standards described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section concurrently with filing the FR Y-7Q or any successor report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.173" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.173   Gross credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of gross credit exposure.</I> The amount of gross credit exposure of a covered foreign entity to a counterparty with respect to a credit transaction is, in the case of:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of the covered foreign entity held by the counterparty, loan by a covered foreign entity to the counterparty, and lease in which the covered foreign entity is the lessor and the counterparty is the lessee, equal to the amount owed by the counterparty to the covered foreign entity under the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A debt security or debt investment held by the covered foreign entity that is issued by the counterparty, equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the securities, for trading and available-for-sale securities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amortized purchase price of the securities or investments, for securities or investments held to maturity.
</P>
<P>(3) An equity security held by the covered foreign entity that is issued by the counterparty, equity investment in a counterparty, and other direct investments in a counterparty, equal to the market value.
</P>
<P>(4) A securities financing transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered foreign entity is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty that is not subject to a bilateral netting agreement or does not meet the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2); or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a securities financing transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty that is subject to a bilateral netting agreement with that counterparty and meets the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 217.2 of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2);
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity must:
</P>
<P>(A) Assign a value of zero to any security received from the counterparty that does not meet the definition of “eligible collateral” in § 252.171(<I>l</I>); and
</P>
<P>(B) Include the value of securities that are eligible collateral received by the covered foreign entity from the counterparty (including any exempt counterparty), calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iv) of this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to the issuer of those securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section and with respect to each credit transaction, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (a)(4) is limited to the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) In cases where the covered foreign entity receives eligible collateral from a counterparty in addition to the cash or securities received from that counterparty, the counterparty may reduce its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with § 252.174(b).
</P>
<P>(5) A committed credit line extended by a covered foreign entity to a counterparty, equal to the face amount of the committed credit line.
</P>
<P>(6) A guarantee or letter of credit issued by a covered foreign entity on behalf of a counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered foreign entity on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) A derivative transaction must be valued using any of the methods that the covered foreign entity is authorized to use under the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D and E) to value such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) As calculated for each transaction, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(B) As calculated for a netting set, in the case of a derivative transaction between the covered foreign entity and the counterparty, including an equity derivative but excluding a credit derivative described in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) In cases where a covered foreign entity is required to recognize an exposure to an eligible guarantor pursuant to § 252.174(d), the covered foreign entity must exclude the relevant derivative transaction when calculating its gross exposure to the original counterparty under this section.
</P>
<P>(8) A credit derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or debt security of the counterparty, equal to the maximum potential loss to the covered foreign entity on the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not affiliates.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 is not required to comply with paragraph (b)(3) of this section until January 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(2) Until January 1, 2021, unless the Board applies the requirements of § 252.175 to the transaction pursuant to § 252.175(d), a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity and that has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 must:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is in the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Attribute that gross credit exposure to the securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a covered foreign entity must calculate pursuant to § 252.175 its gross credit exposure due to any investment in the debt or equity of, and any credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, a securitization vehicle, investment fund, and other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attribution rule.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a covered foreign entity must treat any transaction with any natural person or entity as a credit transaction with another party, to the extent that the proceeds of the transaction are used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the other party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59120, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.174" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.174   Net credit exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, a covered foreign entity must calculate its net credit exposure to a counterparty by adjusting its gross credit exposure to that counterparty in accordance with the rules set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible collateral.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction other than a securities financing transaction, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure on the transaction by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must include the adjusted market value of the eligible collateral when calculating its gross credit exposure to the collateral issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to a collateral issuer under this paragraph (b) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible guarantees.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for any credit transaction, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the amount of any eligible guarantee from an eligible guarantor that covers the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the amount of eligible guarantees when calculating its gross credit exposure to the eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible guarantee under this paragraph (c) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible guarantee if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible credit and equity derivatives.</I> (1) In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered foreign entity must reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.173(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A covered foreign entity that reduces its gross credit exposure to a counterparty as provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must include, when calculating its net credit exposure to the eligible guarantor, including in instances where the underlying credit transaction would not be subject to the credit limits of § 252.172 (for example, due to an exempt counterparty), either
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of any eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor, the notional amount of the eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of any eligible equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the gross credit exposure amount to the counterparty (calculated in accordance with § 252.173(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, in cases where the eligible credit derivative or eligible equity derivative is used to hedge covered positions that are subject to the Board's market risk rule (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) and the counterparty on the hedged transaction is not a financial entity, the amount of credit exposure that a entity must recognize to the eligible guarantor is the amount that would be calculated pursuant to § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor with respect to an eligible credit derivative or an eligible equity derivative under this paragraph (d) is limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its gross credit exposure to the counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an exempt counterparty, the gross credit exposure that would have been attributable to that exempt counterparty on the credit transaction prior to recognition of the eligible credit derivative or the eligible equity derivative if valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other eligible hedges.</I> In calculating net credit exposure to a counterparty for a credit transaction under this section, a covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure to the counterparty by the face amount of a short sale of the counterparty's debt security or equity security, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The instrument in which the covered foreign entity has a short position is junior to, or <I>pari passu</I> with, the instrument in which the covered foreign entity has the long position; and
</P>
<P>(2) The instrument in which the covered foreign entity has a short position and the instrument in which the covered foreign entity has the long position are either both treated as trading or available-for-sale exposures or both treated as held-to-maturity exposures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unused portion of certain extensions of credit.</I> (1) In computing its net credit exposure to a counterparty for a committed credit line or revolving credit facility under this section, a covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure by the amount of the unused portion of the credit extension to the extent that the covered foreign entity does not have any legal obligation to advance additional funds under the extension of credit and the used portion of the credit extension has been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the used portion of a credit extension has been secured by eligible collateral, the covered foreign entity may reduce its gross credit exposure by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral received from the counterparty, even if the used portion has not been fully secured by eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(3) To qualify for the reduction in net credit exposure under this paragraph, the credit contract must specify that any used portion of the credit extension must be fully secured by the adjusted market value of any eligible collateral.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit transactions involving exempt counterparties.</I> (1) A covered foreign entity's credit transactions with an exempt counterparty are not subject to the requirements of this subpart, including but not limited to § 252.172.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (g)(1) of this section, in cases where a covered foreign entity has a credit transaction with an exempt counterparty and the covered foreign entity has obtained eligible collateral from that exempt counterparty or an eligible guarantee or eligible credit or equity derivative from an eligible guarantor, the covered foreign entity must include (for purposes of this subpart) such exposure to the issuer of such eligible collateral or the eligible guarantor, as calculated in accordance with the rules set forth in this section, when calculating its gross credit exposure to that issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Currency mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered foreign entity must apply, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral and calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.37(c)(3)(ii) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(3)(ii)); and
</P>
<P>(2) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative from an eligible guarantor and calculating its gross credit exposure to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the currency mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(f) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(f)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustments.</I> For purposes of calculating its net credit exposure to a counterparty under this section, a covered foreign entity must apply, as applicable, the maturity mismatch adjustment approach of § 217.36(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.36(d)):
</P>
<P>(1) When reducing its gross credit exposure to a counterparty resulting from any credit transaction due to any eligible collateral or any eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, or eligible credit derivatives from an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or to an eligible guarantor, pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section; provided that
</P>
<P>(3) The eligible collateral, eligible guarantee, eligible equity derivative, or eligible credit derivative subject to paragraph (i)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a shorter maturity than the credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an original maturity equal to or greater than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a residual maturity of not less than three months; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The adjustment approach is otherwise applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 83 FR 64023, Dec. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.175" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.175   Investments in and exposures to securitization vehicles, investment funds, and other special purpose vehicles that are not affiliates of the covered foreign entity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section applies to a covered foreign entity, except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Until January 1, 2021, this section does not apply to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) In order to avoid evasion of this subpart, the Board may determine, after notice to the covered foreign entity and opportunity for hearing, that a U.S. intermediate holding company with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets must apply either the approach in this paragraph (a) or the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, or must recognize exposures to a third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the Board, in its discretion and as applicable, may allow a covered foreign entity to measure its capital base using the covered foreign entity's capital stock and surplus rather than its tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>SPV</I> means a securitization vehicle, investment fund, or other special purpose vehicle that is not an affiliate of the covered foreign entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>SPV exposure</I> means an investment in the debt or equity of an SPV or a credit derivative or equity derivative between the covered foreign entity and a third party where the covered foreign entity is the protection provider and the reference asset is an obligation or equity security of, or equity investment in, an SPV.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A covered foreign entity must determine whether the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV, due to an SPV exposure, is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital using one of the following two methods:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of all of the issuer's assets (with each asset valued in accordance with § 252.173(a)) in the SPV; or
</P>
<P>(B) The application of the look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to the determination required under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, a covered foreign entity must use the same method to calculate gross credit exposure to each issuer of assets in a particular SPV.
</P>
<P>(iii) In making a determination under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity must consider only the credit exposure to the issuer arising from the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a covered foreign entity that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure to all unidentified issuers and calculate such gross credit exposure using one method in either paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) If a covered foreign entity determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is less than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital, the amount of the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to that issuer may be attributed to either that issuer of assets or the SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) If attributed to the issuer of assets, the issuer of assets must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated under paragraph (a)(3)(i)(A) of this section to that issuer of assets must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.173) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(B) If attributed to the SPV, the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure is equal to the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a covered foreign entity determines pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section that the amount of its gross credit exposure to an issuer of assets in an SPV is equal to or greater than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital or the covered foreign entity is unable to determine that the amount of the gross credit exposure is less than 0.25 percent of the covered foreign entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered foreign entity must calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets in the SPV using the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The issuer of assets in the SPV must be identified as a counterparty, and the gross credit exposure calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) must be aggregated with any other gross credit exposures (valued in accordance with § 252.173) to that same counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(C) When applying the look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, a covered foreign entity that is unable to identify each issuer of assets in an SPV must attribute to a single unknown counterparty the amount of its gross credit exposure, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, to all unidentified issuers.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this section, a covered foreign entity must aggregate all gross credit exposures to unknown counterparties for all SPVs as if the exposures related to a single unknown counterparty; this single unknown counterparty is subject to the limits of § 252.172 as if it were a single counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Look-through approach.</I> A covered foreign entity that is required to calculate the amount of its gross credit exposure with respect to an issuer of assets in accordance with this paragraph (b) must calculate the amount as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all investors in the SPV rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to the covered foreign entity's pro rata share of the SPV multiplied by the value of the underlying asset in the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Where all investors in the SPV do not rank <I>pari passu,</I> the amount of the gross credit exposure to the issuer of assets is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The pro rata share of the covered foreign entity's investment in the tranche of the SPV; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The market value of the tranche in which the covered foreign entity has invested, except in the case of a debt security that is held to maturity, in which case the tranche must be valued at the amortized purchase price of the securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) The value of each underlying asset attributed to the issuer in the SPV, each as calculated pursuant to § 252.173(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to third parties.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, a covered foreign entity must recognize, for purposes of this subpart, a gross credit exposure to each third party that has a contractual obligation to provide credit or liquidity support to an SPV whose failure or material financial distress would cause a loss in the value of the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of any gross credit exposure that is required to be recognized to a third party under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is equal to the covered foreign entity's SPV exposure, up to the maximum contractual obligation of that third party to the SPV, valued in accordance with § 252.173(a). (This gross credit exposure is in addition to the covered foreign entity's gross credit exposure to the SPV or the issuers of assets of the SPV, calculated in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(3) A covered foreign entity must aggregate the gross credit exposure to a third party recognized in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section with its other gross credit exposures to that third party (that are unrelated to the SPV) for purposes of compliance with the limits of § 252.172.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.176" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.176   Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) This section applies to a covered foreign entity except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Until January 1, 2021, paragraphs (a)(2) through (d) of this section do not apply to a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If a covered foreign entity has an aggregate net credit exposure to any counterparty that exceeds 5 percent of its tier 1 capital, the covered foreign entity must assess its relationship with the counterparty under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is economically interdependent with one or more other counterparties of the covered foreign entity and under paragraph (c)(1) of this section to determine whether the counterparty is connected by a control relationship with one or more other counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) If, pursuant to an assessment required under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section, the covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors of paragraph (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section are met with respect to one or more counterparties, or the Board determines pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section that one or more other counterparties of a covered foreign entity are economically interdependent or that one or more other counterparties of a covered foreign entity are connected by a control relationship, the covered foreign entity must aggregate its net credit exposure to the counterparties for all purposes under this subpart, including, but not limited to, § 252.172.
</P>
<P>(iii) In connection with any request pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) or (c)(2) of this section, the Board may require the covered foreign entity to provide additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to economic interdependence.</I> (1) For purposes of this paragraph, two counterparties are economically interdependent if the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of one counterparty would cause the failure, default, insolvency, or material financial distress of the other counterparty, taking into account the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered foreign entity must assess whether the financial distress of one counterparty (counterparty A) would prevent the ability of the other counterparty (counterparty B) to fully and timely repay counterparty B's liabilities and whether the insolvency or default of counterparty A is likely to be associated with the insolvency or default of counterparty B and, therefore, these counterparties are economically interdependent, by evaluating the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether 50 percent or more of one counterparty's gross revenue is derived from, or gross expenditures are directed to, transactions with the other counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether counterparty A has fully or partly guaranteed the credit exposure of counterparty B, or is liable by other means, in an amount that is 50 percent or more of the covered foreign entity's net credit exposure to counterparty A;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether 25 percent or more of one counterparty's production or output is sold to the other counterparty, which cannot easily be replaced by other customers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the expected source of funds to repay the loans of both counterparties is the same and neither counterparty has another independent source of income from which the loans may be serviced and fully repaid; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment under this paragraph because of wages and salaries paid to an employee.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) Whether two or more counterparties rely on the same source for the majority of their funding and, in the event of the common provider's default, an alternative provider cannot be found.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if a covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (b)(2) is met, the covered foreign entity may request in writing a determination from the Board that those counterparties are not economically interdependent and that the covered foreign entity is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered foreign entity and not require the covered foreign entity to aggregate one counterparty with another counterparty provided that the counterparty could promptly modify its business relationships, such as by reducing its reliance on the other counterparty, to address any economic interdependence concerns, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregation of exposures to more than one counterparty due to certain control relationships.</I> (1) For purposes of this subpart, one counterparty (counterparty A) is deemed to control the other counterparty (counterparty B) if:
</P>
<P>(i) Counterparty A owns, controls, or holds with the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of counterparty B; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Counterparty A controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, if a covered foreign entity determines that one or more of the factors in paragraph (c)(1) is met, the covered foreign entity may request in writing a determination from the Board that counterparty A does not control counterparty B and that the covered foreign entity is not required to aggregate those counterparties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon a request by a covered foreign entity pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Board may grant temporary relief to the covered foreign entity and not require the covered foreign entity to aggregate counterparty A with counterparty B provided that, taking into account the specific facts and circumstances, such indicia of control does not result in the entities being connected by control relationships for purposes of this subpart, and provided that such relief is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties due to economic interdependence or control relationships.</I> The Board may determine, after notice to the covered foreign entity and opportunity for hearing, that one or more counterparties of a covered foreign entity are:
</P>
<P>(1) Economically interdependent for purposes of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as any other indicia of economic interdependence that the Board determines in its discretion to be relevant; or
</P>
<P>(2) Connected by control relationships for purpose of this subpart, considering the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and whether counterparty A:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of Counterparty B pursuant to a voting agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has significant influence on the appointment or dismissal of counterparty B's administrative, management, or governing body, or the fact that a majority of members of such body have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of counterparty A's voting rights; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of counterparty B.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board determinations for aggregation of counterparties to prevent evasion.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a covered foreign entity must aggregate its exposures to a counterparty with the covered foreign entity's exposures to another counterparty if the Board determines in writing after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the exposures to the two counterparties must be aggregated to prevent evasions of the purposes of this subpart, including, but not limited to § 252.176 and 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.177" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.177   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempted exposure categories.</I> The following categories of credit transactions are exempt from the limits on credit exposure under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct claim on, and the portion of a claim that is directly and fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, only while operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and any additional obligation issued by a U.S. government-sponsored entity as determined by the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) Intraday credit exposure to a counterparty;
</P>
<P>(3) Any trade exposure to a qualifying central counterparty related to the covered foreign entity's clearing activity, including potential future exposure arising from transactions cleared by the qualifying central counterparty and pre-funded default fund contributions;
</P>
<P>(4) Any credit transaction with the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the International Finance Corporation, the International Development Association, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, or the International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes;
</P>
<P>(5) Any credit transaction with the European Commission or the European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any transaction that the Board exempts if the Board finds that such exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional exemptions by the Board.</I> The Board may, by regulation or order, exempt transactions, in whole or in part, from the definition of the term “credit exposure,” if the Board finds that the exemption is in the public interest and is consistent with the purpose of 12 U.S.C. 5365(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.178" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.15.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.178   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of compliance.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a covered foreign entity must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a daily basis at the end of each business day.
</P>
<P>(2) Until December 31, 2020, using all available data, including any data required to be maintained or reported to the Federal Reserve under this subpart, a U.S. intermediate holding company that is a covered foreign entity with less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets as of December 31, 2019 must comply with the requirements of this subpart on a quarterly basis, unless the Board determines and notifies the entity in writing that more frequent compliance is required.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered foreign entity must report its compliance to the Federal Reserve as of the end of the quarter, unless the Board determines and notifies that entity in writing that more frequent reporting is required.
</P>
<P>(4) In reporting its compliance, a covered foreign entity must calculate and include in its gross credit exposure to an issuer of eligible collateral or eligible guarantor the amounts of eligible collateral, eligible guarantees, eligible equity derivatives, and eligible credit derivatives that were provided to the covered foreign entity in connection with credit transactions with exempt counterparties, valued in accordance with and as required by § 252.174(b) through (d) and (g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying Master Netting Agreement.</I> With respect to any qualifying master netting agreement, a covered foreign entity must establish and maintain procedures that meet or exceed the requirements of § 217.3(d) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.3(d)) to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncompliance.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, if a covered foreign entity is not in compliance with this subpart with respect to a counterparty solely due to the circumstances listed in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (v) of this section, the covered foreign entity will not be subject to enforcement actions for a period of 90 days (or, with prior notice to the foreign entity, such shorter or longer period determined by the Board, in its sole discretion, to be appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered foreign entity or U.S. financial stability), if the covered foreign entity uses reasonable efforts to return to compliance with this subpart during this period. The covered foreign entity may not engage in any additional credit transactions with such a counterparty in contravention of this rule during the period of noncompliance, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered foreign entity may request a special temporary credit exposure limit exemption from the Board. The Board may grant approval for such exemption in cases where the Board determines that such credit transactions are necessary or appropriate to preserve the safety and soundness of the covered foreign entity or U.S. financial stability. In acting on a request for an exemption, the Board will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A decrease in the covered foreign entity's capital stock and surplus or tier 1 capital, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The merger of the covered foreign entity with another covered foreign entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) A merger of two counterparties; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An unforeseen and abrupt change in the status of a counterparty as a result of which the covered foreign entity's credit exposure to the counterparty becomes limited by the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other factor(s) the Board determines, in its discretion, is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other measures.</I> The Board may impose supervisory oversight and additional reporting measures that it determines are appropriate to monitor compliance with this subpart. Covered foreign entities must furnish, in the manner and form prescribed by the Board, such information to monitor compliance with this subpart and the limits therein as the Board may require.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 38501, Aug. 6, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts R-T [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Debt-to-Equity Limits for U.S. Bank Holding Companies and Foreign Banking Organizations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. YY, 79 FR 17337, Mar. 27, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 252.220" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.17.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.220   Debt-to-equity limits for U.S. bank holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Debt-to-equity ratio</I> means the ratio of a company's total liabilities to a company's total equity capital less goodwill.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Debt</I> and <I>equity</I> have the same meaning as “total liabilities” and “total equity capital,” respectively, as reported by a bank holding company on the FR Y-9C.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and maximum debt-to-equity ratio requirement.</I> The Council, or the Board on behalf of the Council, will provide written notice to a bank holding company to the extent that the Council makes a determination, pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, that a bank holding company poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is necessary to mitigate such risk. Beginning no later than 180 days after receiving written notice from the Council or from the Board on behalf of the Council, the bank holding company must achieve and maintain a debt-to-equity ratio of no more than 15-to-1.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extension.</I> The Board may, upon request by the bank holding company for which the Council has made a determination pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, extend the time period for compliance established under paragraph (b) of this section for up to two additional periods of 90 days each, if the Board determines that the identified company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest. Requests for an extension must be received in writing by the Board not less than 30 days prior to the expiration of the existing time period for compliance and must provide information sufficient to demonstrate that the bank holding company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination.</I> The debt-to-equity ratio requirement in paragraph (b) of this section shall cease to apply to a bank holding company as of the date it receives notice from the Council of a determination that the bank holding company no longer poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is no longer necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 252.221" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.17.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 252.221   Debt-to-equity limits for foreign banking organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Debt</I> and <I>equity</I> have the same meaning as “total liabilities” and “total equity capital,” respectively, as reported by a U.S. intermediate holding company or U.S. subsidiary on the FR Y-9C, or other reporting form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Debt-to-equity ratio</I> means the ratio of total liabilities to total equity capital less goodwill.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible assets</I> and <I>liabilities of all U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign bank</I> have the same meaning as in § 252.158(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and maximum debt-to-equity ratio requirement.</I> Beginning no later than 180 days after receiving written notice from the Council or from the Board on behalf of the Council that the Council has made a determination, pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, that the foreign banking organization poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that the imposition of a debt-to-equity requirement is necessary to mitigate such risk:
</P>
<P>(1) The U.S. intermediate holding company, or if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, and any U.S. subsidiary (excluding any section 2(h)(2) company or DPC branch subsidiary, if applicable), must achieve and maintain a debt-to-equity ratio of no more than 15-to-1; and
</P>
<P>(2) The U.S. branches and agencies of the foreign banking organization must maintain eligible assets in its U.S. branches and agencies that, on a daily basis, are not less than 108 percent of the average value over each day of the previous calendar quarter of the total liabilities of all branches and agencies operated by the foreign banking organization in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extension.</I> The Board may, upon request by a foreign banking organization for which the Council has made a determination pursuant to section 165(j) of the Dodd-Frank Act, extend the time period for compliance established under paragraph (b) of this section for up to two additional periods of 90 days each, if the Board determines that such company has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt to equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest. Requests for an extension must be received in writing by the Board not less than 30 days prior to the expiration of the existing time period for compliance and must provide information sufficient to demonstrate that the foreign banking organization has made good faith efforts to comply with the debt-to-equity ratio requirement and that each extension would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination.</I> The requirements in paragraph (b) of this section cease to apply to a foreign banking organization as of the date it receives notice from the Council of a determination that the company no longer poses a grave threat to the financial stability of the United States and that imposition of the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section are no longer necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.19.3.1.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 252—Policy Statement on the Scenario Design Framework for Stress Testing


</HEAD>
<HD1>1. Background
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Board has imposed stress testing requirements through its regulations (stress test rules) implementing section 165(i) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act or Act) and section 401(e) of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act, and through its capital plan rule (12 CFR 225.8). Under the stress test rules, the Board conducts a supervisory stress test of each bank holding company with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, intermediate holding company of a foreign banking organization with total consolidated assets of $100 billion or more, and nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has designated for supervision by the Board (together, covered companies).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> In addition, under the stress test rules, certain firms are also subject to company-run stress test requirements.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The Board will provide for at least two different sets of conditions (each set, a scenario), including baseline and severely adverse scenarios for both supervisory and company-run stress tests (macroeconomic scenarios).
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(1); 12 CFR part 252, subpart E.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2); 12 CFR part 252, subparts B and F.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The stress test rules define scenarios as those sets of conditions that affect the United States economy or the financial condition of a company that the Board determines are appropriate for use in stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios. The stress test rules define baseline scenario as a set of conditions that affect the United States economy or the financial condition of a company and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook. The stress test rules define severely adverse scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The stress test rules provide that the Board will notify covered companies by no later than February 15 of each year of the scenarios it will use to conduct its supervisory stress tests and provide, also by no later than February 15, covered companies and other financial companies subject to the final rules the set of scenarios they must use to conduct their company-run stress tests. Under the stress test rules, the Board may require certain companies to use additional components in the severely adverse scenario or additional scenarios. For example, the Board expects to require large banking organizations with significant trading activities to include a trading and counterparty component (market shock, described in the following sections) in their severely adverse scenario. The Board will provide any additional components or scenario by no later than March 1 of each year.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The Board expects that the scenarios it will require the companies to use will be the same as those the Board will use to conduct its supervisory stress tests (together, stress test scenarios).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>Id.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(c) In addition, § 225.8 of the Board's Regulation Y (capital plan rule) requires covered companies to submit annual capital plans, including stress test results, to the Board in order to allow the Board to assess whether they have robust, forward-looking capital planning processes and have sufficient capital to continue operations throughout times of economic and financial stress.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR 225.8.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) Stress tests required under the stress test rules and under the capital plan rule require the Board and financial companies to calculate pro-forma capital levels—rather than “current” or actual levels—over a specified planning horizon under baseline and stressful scenarios. This approach integrates key lessons of the 2007-2009 financial crisis into the Board's supervisory framework. During the financial crisis, investor and counterparty confidence in the capitalization of financial companies eroded rapidly in the face of changes in the current and expected economic and financial conditions, and this loss in market confidence imperiled companies' ability to access funding, continue operations, serve as a credit intermediary, and meet obligations to creditors and counterparties. Importantly, such a loss in confidence occurred even when a financial institution's capital ratios were in excess of regulatory minimums. This is because the institution's capital ratios were perceived as lagging indicators of its financial condition, particularly when conditions were changing.
</P>
<P>(e) The stress tests required under the stress test rules and capital plan rule are a valuable supervisory tool that provide a forward-looking assessment of large financial companies' capital adequacy under hypothetical economic and financial market conditions. Currently, these stress tests primarily focus on credit risk and market risk—that is, risk of mark-to-market losses associated with companies' trading and counterparty positions—and not on other types of risk, such as liquidity risk. Pressures stemming from these sources are considered in separate supervisory exercises. No single supervisory tool, including the stress tests, can provide an assessment of a company's ability to withstand every potential source of risk.
</P>
<P>(f) Selecting appropriate scenarios is an especially significant consideration for stress tests required under the capital plan rule, which ties the review of a company's performance under stress scenarios to its ability to make capital distributions. More severe scenarios, all other things being equal, generally translate into larger projected declines in banks' capital. Thus, a company would need more capital today to meet its minimum capital requirements in more stressful scenarios and have the ability to continue making capital distributions, such as common dividend payments. This translation is far from mechanical, however; it will depend on factors that are specific to a given company, such as underwriting standards and the company's business model, which would also greatly affect projected revenue, losses, and capital.


</P>
<HD1>2. Overview and Scope
</HD1>
<P>(a) This policy statement provides more detail on the characteristics of the stress test scenarios and explains the considerations and procedures that underlie the approach for formulating these scenarios. The considerations and procedures described in this policy statement apply to the Board's stress testing framework, including to the stress tests required under 12 CFR part 252, subparts B, E, and F as well as the Board's capital plan rule (12 CFR 225.8).
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> 12 CFR 252.14(a), 12 CFR 252.44(a), 12 CFR 252.54(a).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Although the Board does not envision that the broad approach used to develop scenarios will change from year to year, the stress test scenarios will reflect changes in the outlook for economic and financial conditions and changes to specific risks or vulnerabilities that the Board, in consultation with the other federal banking agencies, determines should be considered in the annual stress tests. The stress test scenarios should not be regarded as forecasts; rather, they are hypothetical paths of economic variables that will be used to assess the strength and resilience of the companies' capital in various economic and financial environments.
</P>
<P>(c) The remainder of this policy statement is organized as follows. Section 3 provides a broad description of the baseline and severely adverse scenarios and describes the types of variables that the Board expects to include in the macroeconomic scenarios and the market shock component of the stress test scenarios applicable to companies with significant trading activity. Section 4 describes the Board's approach for developing the macroeconomic scenarios, and section 5 describes the approach for the market shocks. Section 6 describes the relationship between the macroeconomic scenario and the market shock components. Section 7 provides a timeline for the formulation and publication of the macroeconomic assumptions and market shocks.


</P>
<HD1>3. Content of the Stress Test Scenarios
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Board will publish a minimum of two different scenarios, including baseline and severely adverse conditions, for use in stress tests required in the stress test rules.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> In general, the Board anticipates that it will not issue additional scenarios. Specific circumstances or vulnerabilities that in any given year the Board determines require particular vigilance to ensure the resilience of the banking sector will be captured in the severely adverse scenario. A greater number of scenarios could be needed in some years—for example, because the Board identifies a large number of unrelated and uncorrelated but nonetheless significant risks.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> 12 CFR 252.14(b), 12 CFR 252.44(b), 12 CFR 252.54(b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) While the Board generally expects to use the same scenarios for all companies subject to the final rule, it may require a subset of companies— depending on a company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy—to include additional scenario components or additional scenarios that are designed to capture different effects of adverse events on revenue, losses, and capital. One example of such components is the market shock that applies only to companies with significant trading activity. Additional components or scenarios may also include other stress factors that may not necessarily be directly correlated to macroeconomic or financial assumptions but nevertheless can materially affect companies' risks, such as the unexpected default of a major counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) Early in each stress testing cycle, the Board plans to publish the macroeconomic scenarios along with a brief narrative summary that provides a description of the economic situation underlying the scenario and explains how the scenarios have changed relative to the previous year. In addition, to assist companies in projecting the paths of additional variables in a manner consistent with the scenario, the narrative will also provide descriptions of the general path of some additional variables. These descriptions will be general—that is, they will describe developments for broad classes of variables rather than for specific variables—and will specify the intensity and direction of variable changes but not numeric magnitudes. These descriptions should provide guidance that will be useful to companies in specifying the paths of the additional variables for their company-run stress tests. Note that in practice it will not be possible for the narrative to include descriptions on all of the additional variables that companies may need for their company-run stress tests. In cases where scenarios are designed to reflect particular risks and vulnerabilities, the narrative will also explain the underlying motivation for these features of the scenario. The Board also plans to release a broad description of the market shock components.
</P>
<HD2>3.1 Macroeconomic Scenarios
</HD2>
<P>(a) The macroeconomic scenarios will consist of the future paths of a set of economic and financial variables.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> The economic and financial variables included in the scenarios will likely comprise those included in the “2014 Supervisory Scenarios for Annual Stress Tests Required under the Dodd-Frank Act Stress Testing Rules and the Capital Plan Rule” (2013 supervisory scenarios). The domestic U.S. variables provided for in the 2013 supervisory scenarios included:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The future path of a variable refers to its specification over a given time period. For example, the path of unemployment can be described in percentage terms on a quarterly basis over the stress testing time horizon.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) Six measures of economic activity and prices: Real and nominal gross domestic product (GDP) growth, the unemployment rate of the civilian non-institutional population aged 16 and over, real and nominal disposable personal income growth, and the Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation rate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Four measures of developments in equity and property markets: The Core Logic National House Price Index, the National Council for Real Estate Investment Fiduciaries Commercial Real Estate Price Index, the Dow Jones Total Stock Market Index, and the Chicago Board Options Exchange Market Volatility Index; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Six measures of interest rates: The rate on the 3-month Treasury bill, the yield on the 5-year Treasury bond, the yield on the 10-year Treasury bond, the yield on a 10-year BBB corporate security, the prime rate, and the interest rate associated with a conforming, conventional, fixed-rate, 30-year mortgage.
</P>
<P>(b) The international variables provided for in the 2014 supervisory scenarios included, for the euro area, the United Kingdom, developing Asia, and Japan:
</P>
<P>(i) Percent change in real GDP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Percent change in the Consumer Price Index or local equivalent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The U.S./foreign currency exchange rate.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The Board may increase the range of countries or regions included in future scenarios, as appropriate.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The economic variables included in the scenarios influence key items affecting financial companies' net income, including pre-provision net revenue and credit losses on loans and securities. Moreover, these variables exhibit fairly typical trends in adverse economic climates that can have unfavorable implications for companies' net income and, thus, capital positions.
</P>
<P>(d) The economic variables included in the scenario may change over time. For example, the Board may add variables to a scenario if the international footprint of companies that are subject to the stress testing rules changed notably over time such that the variables already included in the scenario no longer sufficiently capture the material risks of these companies. Alternatively, historical relationships between macroeconomic variables could change over time such that one variable (e.g., disposable personal income growth) that previously provided a good proxy for another (e.g., light vehicle sales) in modeling companies' pre-provision net revenue or credit losses ceases to do so, resulting in the need to create a separate path, or alternative proxy, for the other variable. However, recognizing the amount of work required for companies to incorporate the scenario variables into their stress testing models, the Board expects to eliminate variables from the scenarios only in rare instances.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board expects that the company may not use all of the variables provided in the scenario, if those variables are not appropriate to the company's line of business, or may add additional variables, as appropriate. The Board expects the companies to ensure that the paths of such additional variables are consistent with the scenarios the Board provided. For example, the companies may use, as part of their internal stress test models, local-level variables, such as state-level unemployment rates or city-level house prices. While the Board does not plan to include local-level macro variables in the stress test scenarios it provides, it expects the companies to evaluate the paths of local-level macro variables as needed for their internal models, and ensure internal consistency between these variables and their aggregate, macro-economic counterparts. The Board will provide the macroeconomic scenario component of the stress test scenarios for a period that spans a minimum of 13 quarters. The scenario horizon reflects the supervisory stress test approach that the Board plans to use. Under the stress test rules, the Board will assess the effect of different scenarios on the consolidated capital of each company over a forward-looking planning horizon of at least nine quarters.
</P>
<HD2>3.2 Market Shock Component
</HD2>
<P>(a) The market shock component of the severely adverse scenario will only apply to companies with significant trading activity and their subsidiaries.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> The component consists of large moves in market prices and rates that would be expected to generate losses. Market shocks differ from macroeconomic scenarios in a number of ways, both in their design and application. For instance, market shocks that might typically be observed over an extended period (<I>e.g.,</I> 6 months) are assumed to be an instantaneous event which immediately affects the market value of the companies' trading assets and liabilities. In addition, under the stress test rules, the as-of date for market shocks will differ from the quarter-end, and the Board will provide the as-of date for market shocks no later than February 1 of each year. Finally, as described in section 4, the market shock includes a much larger set of risk factors than the set of economic and financial variables included in macroeconomic scenarios. Broadly, these risk factors include shocks to financial market variables that affect asset prices, such as a credit spread or the yield on a bond, and, in some cases, the value of the position itself (<I>e.g.,</I> the market value of private equity positions).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Currently, companies with significant trading activity include any bank holding company or intermediate holding company that (1) has aggregate trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more, or aggregate trading assets and liabilities equal to 10 percent or more of total consolidated assets, and (2) is not a large and noncomplex firm. The Board may also subject a state member bank subsidiary of any such bank holding company to the market shock component. The set of companies subject to the market shock component could change over time as the size, scope, and complexity of financial company's trading activities evolve.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) The Board envisions that the market shocks will include shocks to a broad range of risk factors that are similar in granularity to those risk factors that trading companies use internally to produce profit and loss estimates, under stressful market scenarios, for all asset classes that are considered trading assets, including equities, credit, interest rates, foreign exchange rates, and commodities. Examples of risk factors include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Equity indices of all developed markets, and of developing and emerging market nations to which companies with significant trading activity may have exposure, along with term structures of implied volatilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cross-currency FX rates of all major and many minor currencies, along term structures of implied volatilities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Term structures of government rates (e.g., U.S. Treasuries), interbank rates (e.g., swap rates) and other key rates (e.g., commercial paper) for all developed markets and for developing and emerging market nations to which companies may have exposure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Term structures of implied volatilities that are key inputs to the pricing of interest rate derivatives;
</P>
<P>(v) Term structures of futures prices for energy products including crude oil (differentiated by country of origin), natural gas, and power;
</P>
<P>(vi) Term structures of futures prices for metals and agricultural commodities;
</P>
<P>(vii) “Value-drivers” (credit spreads or instrument prices themselves) for credit-sensitive product segments including: Corporate bonds, credit default swaps, and collateralized debt obligations by risk; non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities and commercial mortgage-backed securities by risk and vintage; sovereign debt; and, municipal bonds; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Shocks to the values of private equity positions.


</P>
<HD1>4. Approach for Formulating the Macroeconomic Assumptions for Scenarios
</HD1>
<P>(a) This section describes the Board's approach for formulating macroeconomic assumptions for each scenario. The methodologies for formulating this part of each scenario differ by scenario, so these methodologies for the baseline and severely adverse scenarios are described separately in each of the following subsections.
</P>
<P>(b) In general, the baseline scenario will reflect the most recently available consensus views of the macroeconomic outlook expressed by professional forecasters, government agencies, and other public-sector organizations as of the beginning of the stress-test cycle. The severely adverse scenario will consist of a set of economic and financial conditions that reflect the conditions of post-war U.S. recessions.
</P>
<P>(c) Each of these scenarios is described further in sections below as follows: Baseline (subsection 4.1) and severely adverse (subsection 4.2)


</P>
<HD2>4.1 Approach for Formulating Macroeconomic Assumptions in the Baseline Scenario
</HD2>
<P>(a) The stress test rules define the baseline scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a banking organization, and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook. Projections under a baseline scenario are used to evaluate how companies would perform in more likely economic and financial conditions. The baseline serves also as a point of comparison to the severely adverse scenario, giving some sense of how much of the company's capital decline could be ascribed to the scenario as opposed to the company's capital adequacy under expected conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) The baseline scenario will be developed around a macroeconomic projection that captures the prevailing views of private-sector forecasters (e.g., Blue Chip Consensus Forecasts and the Survey of Professional Forecasters), government agencies, and other public-sector organizations (e.g., the International Monetary Fund and the Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development) near the beginning of the annual stress-test cycle. The baseline scenario is designed to represent a consensus expectation of certain economic variables over the time period of the tests and it is not the Board's internal forecast for those economic variables. For example, the baseline path of short-term interest rates is constructed from consensus forecasts and may differ from that implied by the FOMC's <I>Summary of Economic Projections.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) For some scenario variables—such as U.S. real GDP growth, the unemployment rate, and the consumer price index—there will be a large number of different forecasts available to project the paths of these variables in the baseline scenario. For others, a more limited number of forecasts will be available. If available forecasts diverge notably, the baseline scenario will reflect an assessment of the forecast that is deemed to be most plausible. In setting the paths of variables in the baseline scenario, particular care will be taken to ensure that, together, the paths present a coherent and plausible outlook for the U.S. and global economy, given the economic climate in which they are formulated.


</P>
<HD2>4.2 Approach for Formulating the Macroeconomic Assumptions in the Severely Adverse Scenario
</HD2>
<P>The stress test rules define a severely adverse scenario as a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a financial company and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario. The financial company will be required to publicly disclose a summary of the results of its stress test under the severely adverse scenario, and the Board intends to publicly disclose the results of its analysis of the financial company under the severely adverse scenario.


</P>
<HD3>4.2.1 General Approach: The Recession Approach
</HD3>
<P>(a) The Board intends to use a recession approach to develop the severely adverse scenario. In the recession approach, the Board will specify the future paths of variables to reflect conditions that characterize post-war U.S. recessions, generating either a typical or specific recreation of a post-war U.S. recession. The Board chose this approach because it has observed that the conditions that typically occur in recessions—such as increasing unemployment, declining asset prices, and contracting loan demand—can put significant stress on companies' balance sheets. This stress can occur through a variety of channels, including higher loss provisions due to increased delinquencies and defaults; losses on trading positions through sharp moves in market prices; and lower bank income through reduced loan originations. For these reasons, the Board believes that the paths of economic and financial variables in the severely adverse scenario should, at a minimum, resemble the paths of those variables observed during a recession.
</P>
<P>(b) This approach requires consideration of the type of recession to feature. All post-war U.S. recessions have not been identical: Some recessions have been associated with very elevated interest rates, some have been associated with sizable asset price declines, and some have been relatively more global. The most common features of recessions, however, are increases in the unemployment rate and contractions in aggregate incomes and economic activity. For this and the following reasons, the Board intends to use the unemployment rate as the primary basis for specifying the severely adverse scenario. First, the unemployment rate is likely the most representative single summary indicator of adverse economic conditions. Second, in comparison to GDP, labor market data have traditionally featured more prominently than GDP in the set of indicators that the National Bureau of Economic Research reviews to inform its recession dates.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> Third and finally, the growth rate of potential output can cause the size of the decline in GDP to vary between recessions. While changes in the unemployment rate can also vary over time due to demographic factors, this seems to have more limited implications over time relative to changes in potential output growth. The unemployment rate used in the severely adverse scenario will reflect an unemployment rate that has been observed in <I>severe</I> post-war U.S. recessions, measuring severity by the absolute level of and relative increase in the unemployment rate.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> More recently, a monthly measure of GDP has been added to the list of indicators.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Even though all recessions feature increases in the unemployment rate and contractions in incomes and economic activity, the size of this change has varied over post-war U.S. recessions. Table 1 documents the variability in the depth of post-war U.S. recessions. Some recessions—labeled mild in Table 1—have been relatively modest with GDP edging down just slightly and the unemployment rate moving up about a percentage point. Other recessions—labeled severe in Table 1—have been much harsher with GDP dropping 3
<FR>3/4</FR> percent and the unemployment rate moving up a total of about 4 percentage points.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The Board believes that the severely adverse scenario should also reflect a housing recession. The house prices path set in the severely adverse scenario will reflect developments that have been observed in post-war U.S. housing recessions, measuring severity by the absolute level of and relative decrease in the house prices.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board will specify the paths of most other macroeconomic variables based on the paths of unemployment, income, house prices, and activity. Some of these other variables, however, have taken wildly divergent paths in previous recessions (e.g., foreign GDP), requiring the Board to use its informed judgment in selecting appropriate paths for these variables. In general, the path for these other variables will be based on their underlying structure at the time that the scenario is designed (e.g., economic or financial-system vulnerabilities in other countries).
</P>
<P>(e) The Board considered alternative methods for scenario design of the severely adverse scenario, including a probabilistic approach. The probabilistic approach constructs a baseline forecast from a large-scale macroeconomic model and identifies a scenario that would have a specific probabilistic likelihood given the baseline forecast. The Board believes that, at this time, the recession approach is better suited for developing the severely adverse scenario than a probabilistic approach because it guarantees a recession of some specified severity. In contrast, the probabilistic approach requires the choice of an extreme tail outcome—relative to baseline—to characterize the severely adverse scenario (e.g., a 5 percent or a 1 percent tail outcome). In practice, this choice is difficult as adverse economic outcomes are typically thought of in terms of how variables evolve in an absolute sense rather than how far away they lie in the probability space away from the baseline. In this sense, a scenario featuring a recession may be somewhat clearer and more straightforward to communicate. Finally, the probabilistic approach relies on estimates of uncertainty around the baseline scenario and such estimates are in practice model-dependent.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.2 Setting the Unemployment Rate Under the Severely Adverse Scenario
</HD3>
<P>(a) The Board anticipates that the severely adverse scenario will feature an unemployment rate that increases between 3 to 5 percentage points from its initial level over the course of 6 to 8 calendar quarters.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> The initial level will be set based on the conditions at the time that the scenario is designed. However, if a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in the unemployment rate does not raise the level of the unemployment rate to at least 10 percent—the average level to which it has increased in the most recent three severe recessions—the path of the unemployment rate in most cases will be specified so as to raise the unemployment rate to at least 10 percent.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Six to eight quarters is the average number of quarters for which a severe recession lasts plus the average number of subsequent quarters over which the unemployment rate continues to rise. The variable length of the timeframe reflects the different paths to the peak unemployment rate depending on the severity of the scenario.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) This methodology is intended to generate scenarios that feature stressful outcomes but do not induce greater procyclicality in the financial system and macroeconomy. When the economy is in the early stages of a recovery, the unemployment rate in a baseline scenario generally trends downward, resulting in a larger difference between the path of the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario and the baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario that is relatively more intense. Conversely, in a sustained strong expansion—when the unemployment rate may be below the level consistent with full employment—the unemployment in a baseline scenario generally trends upward, resulting in a smaller difference between the path of the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario and the baseline scenario and a severely adverse scenario that is relatively less intense. Historically, a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in unemployment rate is reflective of stressful conditions. As illustrated in Table 1, over the last half-century, the U.S. economy has experienced four severe post-war recessions. In all four of these recessions, the unemployment rate increased 3 to 5 percentage points and in the three most recent of these recessions, the unemployment rate reached a level between 9 percent and 11 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Under this method, if the initial unemployment rate was low—as it would be after a sustained long expansion—the unemployment rate in the scenario would increase to a level as high as what has been seen in past severe recessions. However, if the initial unemployment rate was already high—as would be the case in the early stages of a recovery—the unemployment rate would exhibit a change as large as what has been seen in past severe recessions.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board believes that the typical increase in the unemployment rate in the severely adverse scenario will be about 4 percentage points. However, the Board will calibrate the increase in unemployment based on its views of the status of cyclical systemic risk. The Board intends to set the unemployment rate at the higher end of the range if the Board believes that cyclical systemic risks are high (as it would be after a sustained long expansion), and to the lower end of the range if cyclical systemic risks are low (as it would be in the earlier stages of a recovery). This may result in a scenario that is slightly more intense than normal if the Board believed that cyclical systemic risks were increasing in a period of robust expansion.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> Conversely, it will allow the Board to specify a scenario that is slightly less intense than normal in an environment where systemic risks appeared subdued, such as in the early stages of an expansion. Indeed, the Board expects that, in general, it will adopt a change in the unemployment rate of less than 4 percentage points when the unemployment rate at the start of the scenarios is elevated but the labor market is judged to be strengthening and higher-than-usual credit losses stemming from previously elevated unemployment rates were either already realized—or are in the process of being realized—and thus removed from banks' balance sheets.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> However, even at the lower end of the range of unemployment-rate increases, the scenario will still feature an increase in the unemployment rate similar to what has been seen in about half of the severe recessions of the last 50 years.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> Note, however, that the severity of the scenario would not exceed an implausible level: Even at the upper end of the range of unemployment-rate increases, the path of the unemployment rate would still be consistent with severe post-war U.S. recessions.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Evidence of a strengthening labor market could include a declining unemployment rate, steadily expanding nonfarm payroll employment, or improving labor force participation. Evidence that credit losses are being realized could include elevated charge-offs on loans and leases, loan-loss provisions in excess of gross charge-offs, or losses being realized in securities portfolios that include securities that are subject to credit risk.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) As indicated previously, if a 3 to 5 percentage point increase in the unemployment rate does not raise the level of the unemployment rate to 10 percent—the average level to which it has increased in the most recent three severe recessions—the path of the unemployment rate will be specified so as to raise the unemployment rate to 10 percent. Setting a floor for the unemployment rate at 10 percent recognizes the fact that not only do cyclical systemic risks build up at financial intermediaries during robust expansions but that these risks are also easily obscured by the buoyant environment.
</P>
<P>(f) In setting the increase in the unemployment rate, the Board will consider the extent to which analysis by economists, supervisors, and financial market experts finds cyclical systemic risks to be elevated (but difficult to be captured more precisely in one of the scenario's other variables). In addition, the Board—in light of impending shocks to the economy and financial system—will also take into consideration the extent to which a scenario of some increased severity might be necessary for the results of the stress test and the associated supervisory actions to sustain confidence in financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(g) While the approach to specifying the severely adverse scenario is designed to avoid adding sources of procyclicality to the financial system, it is not designed to explicitly offset any existing procyclical tendencies in the financial system. The purpose of the stress test scenarios is to make sure that the companies are properly capitalized to withstand severe economic and financial conditions, not to serve as an explicit countercyclical offset to the financial system.
</P>
<P>(h) In developing the approach to the unemployment rate, the Board also considered a method that would increase the unemployment rate to some fairly elevated fixed level over the course of 6 to 8 quarters. This would result in scenarios being more severe in robust expansions (when the unemployment rate is low) and less severe in the early stages of a recovery (when the unemployment rate is high) and so would not result in pro-cyclicality. Depending on the initial level of the unemployment rate, this approach could lead to only a very modest increase in the unemployment rate—or even a decline. As a result, this approach—while not procyclical—could result in scenarios not featuring stressful macroeconomic outcomes.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.3 Setting the Other Variables in the Severely Adverse Scenario
</HD3>
<P>(a) Generally, all other variables in the severely adverse scenario will be specified to be consistent with the increase in the unemployment rate. The approach for specifying the paths of these variables in the scenario will be a combination of (1) how economic models suggest that these variables should evolve given the path of the unemployment rate, (2) how these variables have typically evolved in past U.S. recessions, and (3) evaluation of these and other factors.
</P>
<P>(b) Economic models—such as medium-scale macroeconomic models—should be able to generate plausible paths consistent with the unemployment rate for a number of scenario variables, such as real GDP growth, CPI inflation and short-term interest rates, which have relatively stable (direct or indirect) relationships with the unemployment rate (e.g., Okun's Law, the Phillips Curve, and interest rate feedback rules). For some other variables, specifying their paths will require a case-by-case consideration.
</P>
<P>(c) Declining house prices, which are an important source of stress to a company's balance sheet, are not a steadfast feature of recessions, and the historical relationship of house prices with the unemployment rate is not strong. Simply adopting their typical path in a severe recession would likely underestimate risks stemming from the housing sector. In specifying the path for nominal house prices, the Board will consider the ratio of the nominal house price index (HPI) to nominal, per capita, disposable income (DPI). The Board believes that the typical decline in the HPI-DPI ratio will be at a minimum 25 percent from its starting value, or enough to bring the ratio down to its Great Recession trough. As illustrated in Table 2, housing recessions have on average featured HPI-DPI ratio declines of about 25 percent and the HPI-DPI ratio fell to its Great Recession trough.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> The house-price retrenchments that occurred over the periods 1980-1985, 1989-1996, 2006-2011 (as detailed in Table 2) are referred to in this document as housing recessions. The date-ranges of housing recessions are based on the timing of house-price retrenchments. These dates were also associated with sustained declines in real residential investment, although, the precise timings of housing recessions would likely be slightly different were they to be classified based on real residential investment in addition to house prices. The ratios described in Table 2 are calculated based on nominal HPI and HPI-DPI ratios indexed to 100 in 2000:Q1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) In addition, judgment is necessary in projecting the path of a scenario's international variables. Recessions that occur simultaneously across countries are an important source of stress to the balance sheets of companies with notable international exposures but are not an invariable feature of the international economy. As a result, simply adopting the typical path of international variables in a severe U.S. recession would likely underestimate the risks stemming from the international economy. Consequently, an approach that uses both judgment and economic models informs the path of international variables.
</P>
<HD3>4.2.4 Adding Salient Risks to the Severely Adverse Scenario
</HD3>
<P>(a) The severely adverse scenario will be developed to reflect specific risks to the economic and financial outlook that are especially salient but will feature minimally in the scenario if the Board were only to use approaches that looked to past recessions or relied on historical relationships between variables.
</P>
<P>(b) There are some important instances when it will be appropriate to augment the recession approach with salient risks. For example, if an asset price were especially elevated and thus potentially vulnerable to an abrupt and potentially destabilizing decline, it would be appropriate to include such a decline in the scenario even if such a large drop were not typical in a severe recession. Likewise, if economic developments abroad were particularly unfavorable, assuming a weakening in international conditions larger than what typically occurs in severe U.S. recessions would likely also be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) Clearly, while the recession component of the severely adverse scenario is within some predictable range, the salient risk aspect of the scenario is far less so, and therefore, needs an annual assessment. Each year, the Board will identify the risks to the financial system and the domestic and international economic outlooks that appear more elevated than usual, using its internal analysis and supervisory information and in consultation with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC). Using the same information, the Board will then calibrate the paths of the macroeconomic and financial variables in the scenario to reflect these risks.
</P>
<P>(d) Detecting risks that have the potential to weaken the banking sector is particularly difficult when economic conditions are buoyant, as a boom can obscure the weaknesses present in the system. In sustained robust expansions, therefore, the selection of salient risks to augment the scenario will err on the side of including risks of uncertain significance.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board will factor in particular risks to the domestic and international macroeconomic outlook identified by its economists, bank supervisors, and financial market experts and make appropriate adjustments to the paths of specific economic variables. These adjustments will not be reflected in the general severity of the recession and, thus, all macroeconomic variables; rather, the adjustments will apply to a subset of variables to reflect co-movements in these variables that are historically less typical. The Board plans to discuss the motivation for the adjustments that it makes to variables to highlight systemic risks in the narrative describing the scenarios.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> The means of effecting an adjustment to the severely adverse scenario to address salient systemic risks differs from the means used to adjust the unemployment rate. For example, in adjusting the scenario for an increased unemployment rate, the Board would modify all variables such that the future paths of the variables are similar to how these variables have moved historically. In contrast, to address salient risks, the Board may only modify a small number of variables in the scenario and, as such, their future paths in the scenario would be somewhat more atypical, albeit not implausible, given existing risks.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>5. Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component
</HD1>
<P>(a) This section discusses the approach the Board proposes to adopt for developing the market shock component of the severely adverse scenario appropriate for companies with significant trading activities. The design and specification of the market shock component differs from that of the macroeconomic scenarios because profits and losses from trading are measured in mark-to-market terms, while revenues and losses from traditional banking are generally measured using the accrual method. As noted above, another critical difference is the time-evolution of the market shock component. The market shock component consists of an instantaneous “shock” to a large number of risk factors that determine the mark-to-market value of trading positions, while the macroeconomic scenarios supply a projected path of economic variables that affect traditional banking activities over the entire planning period.
</P>
<P>(b) The development of the market shock component that are detailed in this section are as follows: Baseline (subsection 5.1) and severely adverse (subsection 5.2).


</P>
<HD2>5.1 Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component Under the Baseline Scenario
</HD2>
<P>By definition, market shocks are large, previously unanticipated moves in asset prices and rates. Because asset prices should, broadly speaking, reflect consensus opinions about the future evolution of the economy, large price movements, as envisioned in the market shock, should not occur along the baseline path. As a result, the market shock will not be included in the baseline scenario.
</P>
<HD2>5.2 Approach for Formulating the Market Shock Component Under the Severely Adverse Scenario
</HD2>
<P>This section addresses possible approaches to designing the market shock component in the severely adverse scenario, including important considerations for scenario design, possible approaches to designing scenarios, and a development strategy for implementing the preferred approach.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.1 Design Considerations for Market Shocks
</HD3>
<P>(a) The general market practice for stressing a trading portfolio is to specify market shocks either in terms of extreme moves in observable, broad market indicators and risk factors or directly as large changes to the mark-to-market values of financial instruments. These moves can be specified either in relative terms or absolute terms. Supplying values of risk factors after a “shock” is roughly equivalent to the macroeconomic scenarios, which supply values for a set of economic and financial variables; however, trading stress testing differs from macroeconomic stress testing in several critical ways.
</P>
<P>(b) In the past, the Board used one of two approaches to specify market shocks. During SCAP and CCAR in 2011, the Board used a very general approach to market shocks and required companies to stress their trading positions using changes in market prices and rates experienced during the second half of 2008, without specifying risk factor shocks. This broad guidance resulted in inconsistency across companies both in terms of the severity and the application of shocks. In certain areas, companies were permitted to use their own experience during the second half of 2008 to define shocks. This resulted in significant variation in shock severity across companies.
</P>
<P>(c) To enhance the consistency and comparability in market shocks for the stress tests in 2012 and 2013, the Board provided to each trading company more than 35,000 specific risk factor shocks, primarily based on market moves in the second half of 2008. While the number of risk factors used in companies' pricing and stress-testing models still typically exceed that provided in the Board's scenarios, the greater specificity resulted in more consistency in the scenario across companies. The benefit of the comprehensiveness of risk factor shocks is at least partly offset by the potential difficulty in creating shocks that are coherent and internally consistent, particularly as the framework for developing market shocks deviates from historical events.
</P>
<P>(d) Also importantly, the ultimate losses associated with a given market shock will depend on a company's trading positions, which can make it difficult to rank order, <I>ex ante,</I> the severity of the scenarios. In certain instances, market shocks that include large market moves may not be particularly stressful for a given company. Aligning the market shock with the macroeconomic scenario for consistency may result in certain companies actually benefiting from risk factor moves of larger magnitude in the market scenario if the companies are hedging against salient risks to other parts of their business. Thus, the severity of market shocks must be calibrated to take into account how a complex set of risks, such as directional risks and basis risks, interacts with each other, given the companies' trading positions at the time of stress. For instance, a large depreciation in a foreign currency would benefit companies with net short positions in the currency while hurting those with net long positions. In addition, longer maturity positions may move differently from shorter maturity positions, adding further complexity.
</P>
<P>(e) The instantaneous nature of market shocks and the immediate recognition of mark-to-market losses add another element to the design of market shocks, and to determining the appropriate severity of shocks. For instance, in previous stress tests, the Board assumed that market moves that occurred over the six-month period in late 2008 would occur instantaneously. The design of the market shocks must factor in appropriate assumptions around the period of time during which market events will unfold and any associated market responses.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.2 Approaches to Market Shock Design
</HD3>
<P>(a) As an additional component of the severely adverse scenario, the Board plans to use a standardized set of market shocks that apply to all companies with significant trading activity. The market shocks could be based on a single historical episode, multiple historical periods, hypothetical (but plausible) events, or some combination of historical episodes and hypothetical events (hybrid approach). Depending on the type of hypothetical events, a scenario based on such events may result in changes in risk factors that were not previously observed. In the supervisory scenarios for 2012 and 2013, the shocks were largely based on relative moves in asset prices and rates during the second half of 2008, but also included some additional considerations to factor in the widening of spreads for European sovereigns and financial companies based on actual observation during the latter part of 2011.
</P>
<P>(b) For the market shock component in the severely adverse scenario, the Board plans to use the hybrid approach to develop shocks. The hybrid approach allows the Board to maintain certain core elements of consistency in market shocks each year while providing flexibility to add hypothetical elements based on market conditions at the time of the stress tests. In addition, this approach will help ensure internal consistency in the scenario because of its basis in historical episodes; however, combining the historical episode and hypothetical events may require small adjustments to ensure mutual consistency of the joint moves. In general, the hybrid approach provides considerable flexibility in developing scenarios that are relevant each year, and by introducing variations in the scenario, the approach will also reduce the ability of companies with significant trading activity to modify or shift their portfolios to minimize expected losses in the severely adverse market shock.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has considered a number of alternative approaches for the design of market shocks. For example, the Board explored an option of providing tailored market shocks for each trading company, using information on the companies' portfolio gathered through ongoing supervision, or other means. By specifically targeting known or potential vulnerabilities in a company's trading position, the tailored approach would be useful in assessing each company's capital adequacy as it relates to the company's idiosyncratic risk. However, the Board does not believe this approach to be well-suited for the stress tests required by regulation. Consistency and comparability are key features of annual supervisory stress tests and annual company-run stress tests required in the stress test rules. It would be difficult to use the information on the companies' portfolios to design a common set of shocks that are universally stressful for all covered companies. As a result, this approach would be better suited to more customized, tailored stress tests that are part of the company's internal capital planning process or to other supervisory efforts outside of the stress tests conducted under the capital rule and the stress test rules.
</P>
<HD3>5.2.3 Development of the Market Shock
</HD3>
<P>(a) Consistent with the approach described above, the market shock component for the severely adverse scenario will incorporate key elements of market developments during the second half of 2008, but will also incorporate observations from other periods or price and rate movements in certain markets that the Board deems to be plausible, though such movements may not have been observed historically. Over time, the Board also expects to rely less on market events of the second half of 2008 and more on hypothetical events or other historical episodes to develop the market shock.
</P>
<P>(b) The developments in the credit markets during the second half of 2008 were unprecedented, providing a reasonable basis for market shocks in the severely adverse scenario. During this period, key risk factors in virtually all asset classes experienced extremely large shocks; the collective breadth and intensity of the moves have no parallels in modern financial history and, on that basis, it seems likely that this episode will continue to be the most relevant historical scenario, although experience during other historical episodes may also guide the severity of the market shock component of the severely adverse scenario. Moreover, the risk factor moves during this episode are directly consistent with the “recession” approach that underlies the macroeconomic assumptions. However, market shocks based only on historical events could become stale and less relevant over time as the company's positions change, particularly if more salient features are not added each year.
</P>
<P>(c) While the market shocks based on the second half of 2008 are of unparalleled magnitude, the shocks may become less relevant over time as the companies' trading positions change. In addition, more recent events could highlight the companies' vulnerability to certain market events. For example, in 2011, Eurozone credit spreads in the sovereign and financial sectors surpassed those observed during the second half of 2008, necessitating the modification of the severely adverse market shock in 2012 and 2013 to reflect a salient source of stress to trading positions. As a result, it is important to incorporate both historical and hypothetical outcomes into market shocks for the severely adverse scenario. For the time being, the development of market shocks in the severely adverse scenario will begin with the risk factor movements in a particular historical period, such as the second half of 2008. The Board will then consider hypothetical but plausible outcomes, based on financial stability reports, supervisory information, and internal and external assessments of market risks and potential flash points. The hypothetical outcomes could originate from major geopolitical, economic, or financial market events with potentially significant impacts on market risk factors. The severity of these hypothetical moves will likely be guided by similar historical events, assumptions embedded in the companies' internal stress tests or market participants, and other available information.
</P>
<P>(d) Once broad market scenarios are agreed upon, specific risk factor groups will be targeted as the source of the trading stress. For example, a scenario involving the failure of a large, interconnected globally active financial institution could begin with a sharp increase in credit default swap spreads and a precipitous decline in asset prices across multiple markets, as investors become more risk averse and market liquidity evaporates. These broad market movements will be extrapolated to the granular level for all risk factors by examining transmission channels and the historical relationships between variables, though in some cases, the movement in particular risk factors may be amplified based on theoretical relationships, market observations, or the saliency to company trading books. If there is a disagreement between the risk factor movements in the historical event used in the scenario and the hypothetical event, the Board will reconcile the differences by assessing <I>a priori</I> expectations based on financial and economic theory and the importance of the risk factors to the trading positions of the covered companies.
</P>
<HD1>6. Consistency Between the Macroeconomic Scenarios and the Market Shock
</HD1>
<P>(a) As discussed earlier, the market shock comprises a set of movements in a very large number of risk factors that are realized instantaneously. Among the risk factors specified in the market shock are several variables also specified in the macroeconomic scenarios, such as short- and long-maturity interest rates on Treasury and corporate debt, the level and volatility of U.S. stock prices, and exchange rates.
</P>
<P>(b) The market shock component is an add-on to the macroeconomic scenarios that is applied to a subset of companies, with no assumed effect on other aspects of the stress tests such as balances, revenues, or other losses. As a result, the market shock component may not be always directionally consistent with the macroeconomic scenario. Because the market shock is designed, in part, to mimic the effects of a sudden market dislocation, while the macroeconomic scenarios are designed to provide a description of the evolution of the real economy over two or more years, assumed economic conditions can move in significantly different ways. In effect, the market shock can simulate a market panic, during which financial asset prices move rapidly in unexpected directions, and the macroeconomic assumptions can simulate the severe recession that follows. Indeed, the pattern of a financial crisis, characterized by a short period of wild swings in asset prices followed by a prolonged period of moribund activity, and a subsequent severe recession is familiar and plausible.
</P>
<P>(c) As discussed in section 4.2.4, the Board may feature a particularly salient risk in the macroeconomic assumptions for the severely adverse scenario, such as a fall in an elevated asset price. In such instances, the Board may also seek to reflect the same risk in one of the market shocks. For example, if the macroeconomic scenario were to feature a substantial decline in house prices, it may seem plausible for the market shock to also feature a significant decline in market values of any securities that are closely tied to the housing sector or residential mortgages.
</P>
<HD1>7. Timeline for Scenario Publication
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Board will provide a description of the macroeconomic scenarios by no later than February 15. During the period immediately preceding the publication of the scenarios, the Board will collect and consider information from academics, professional forecasters, international organizations, domestic and foreign supervisors, and other private-sector analysts that regularly conduct stress tests based on U.S. and global economic and financial scenarios, including analysts at the covered companies. In addition, the Board will consult with the FDIC and the OCC on the salient risks to be considered in the scenarios. The Board expects to conduct this process in October and November of each year and to update the scenarios, based on incoming macroeconomic data releases and other information, through the end of January.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board expects to provide a broad overview of the market shock component along with the macroeconomic scenarios. The Board will publish the market shock templates by no later than March 1 of each year, and intends to publish the market shock earlier in the stress test and capital plan cycles to allow companies more time to conduct their stress tests.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Classification of U.S. Recessions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Peak
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Trough
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duration
<br/>(quarters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Decline in
<br/>real GDP
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Change in the
<br/>unemployment
<br/>rate during
<br/>the recession
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total change
<br/>in the
<br/>unemployment
<br/>rate (incl.
<br/>after the
<br/>recession)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1957Q3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1958Q2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (Medium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−3.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1960Q2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1961Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (Medium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1969Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1970Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 (Medium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1973Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1975Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (Long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−3.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1980Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1980Q3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (Short)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−2.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1981Q3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1982Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 (Long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−2.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990Q3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1991Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mild</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 (Short)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2001Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2001Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mild</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 (Medium)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2007Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2009Q2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7 (Long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−4.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−3.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mild</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.9
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">Source:</E> Bureau of Economic Analysis, National Income and Product Accounts, Comprehensive Revision on July 31, 2013.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—House Prices in Housing Recessions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Peak
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Trough
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duration
<br/>(quarters)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">%-change
<br/>in NHPI
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">%-change
<br/>in HPI-DPI
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">HPI-DPI
<br/>trough level
<br/>(2000:Q1 = 100)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1980Q2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1985Q2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 (long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−15.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">102.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1997Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">29 (long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−17.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2005Q4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2012Q1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Severe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25 (long)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−29.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−41.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">86.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−24.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">94.6
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="03">Source:</E> CoreLogic, BEA.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Note: The date-ranges of housing recessions listed in Table 2 are based on the timing of house-price retrenchments.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 6655, Feb. 28, 2019, as amended at 84 FR 59121, Nov. 1, 2019]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.20.19.3.1.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 252—Stress Testing Policy Statement


</HEAD>
<P>This Policy Statement describes the principles, policies, and procedures that guide the development, implementation, and validation of models used in the Federal Reserve's supervisory stress test.
</P>
<HD1>1. Principles of Supervisory Stress Testing
</HD1>
<P>The system of models used in the supervisory stress test is designed to result in projections that are (i) from an independent supervisory perspective; (ii) forward-looking; (iii) consistent and comparable across covered companies; (iv) generated from simpler and more transparent approaches, where appropriate; (v) robust and stable; (vi) conservative; and (vii) able to capture the impact of economic stress. These principles are further explained below.
</P>
<HD2>1.1. Independence
</HD2>
<P>(a) In the supervisory stress test, the Federal Reserve uses supervisory models that are developed internally and independently (<I>i.e.,</I> separate from models used by covered companies). The supervisory models rely on detailed portfolio data provided by covered companies but do not rely on models or estimates provided by covered companies to the greatest extent possible.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Reserve's stress testing framework is unique among regulators in its use of independent estimates of losses and revenues under stress. These estimates provide a perspective that is not formed in consultation with covered companies or influenced by firm-provided estimates and that is useful to the public in its evaluation of covered companies' capital adequacy. This perspective is also valuable to covered companies, who may benefit from external assessments of their own losses and revenues under stress, and from the degree of credibility that independence confers upon supervisory stress test results.
</P>
<P>(c) The independence of the supervisory stress test allows stress test projections to adhere to the other key principles described in the Policy Statement. The use of independent models allows for consistent treatment across firms. Losses and revenues under stress are estimated using the same modeling assumptions for all covered companies, enabling comparisons across supervisory stress test results. Differences in covered companies' results reflect differences in firm-specific risks and input data instead of differences in modeling assumptions. The use of independent models also ensures that stress test results are produced by stress-focused models, designed to project the performance of covered companies in adverse economic conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) In instances in which it is not possible or appropriate to create a supervisory model for use in the stress test, including when supervisory data are insufficient to support a modeled estimate of losses or revenues, the Federal Reserve may use firm-provided estimates or third-party models or data. For example, in order to project trading and counterparty losses, sensitivities to risk factors and other information generated by covered companies' internal models are used. In the cases where firm-provided or third-party model estimates are used, the Federal Reserve monitors the quality and performance of the estimates through targeted examination, additional data collection, or benchmarking. The Board releases a list of the providers of third-party models or data used in the stress test exercise in the annual disclosure of quantitative results.
</P>
<HD2>1.2. Forward-Looking
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve has designed the supervisory stress test to be forward-looking. Supervisory models are tools for producing projections of potential losses and revenue effects based on each covered company's portfolio and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) While supervisory models are specified using historical data, they should generally avoid relying solely on extrapolation of past trends in order to make projections, and instead should be able to incorporate events or outcomes that have not occurred. As described in Section 2.4, the Federal Reserve implements several supervisory modeling policies to limit reliance on past outcomes in its projections of losses and revenues. The incorporation of the macroeconomic scenario and global market shock component also introduces elements outside of the realm of historical experience into the supervisory stress test.
</P>
<HD2>1.3. Consistency and Comparability
</HD2>
<P>The Federal Reserve uses the same set of models and assumptions to produce loss projections for all covered companies participating in the supervisory stress test. A standard set of scenarios, assumptions, and models promotes equitable treatment of firms participating in the supervisory stress test and comparability of results, supporting cross-firm analysis and providing valuable information to supervisors and to the public. Adhering to a consistent modeling approach across covered companies means that differences in projected results are due to differences in input data, such as instrument type or portfolio risk characteristics, rather than differences in firm-specific assumptions made by the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<HD2>1.4. Simplicity
</HD2>
<P>The Federal Reserve uses simple approaches in supervisory modeling, where possible. Given a range of modeling approaches that are equally conceptually sound, the Federal Reserve will select the least complex modeling approach. In assessing simplicity, the Federal Reserve favors those modeling approaches that allow for a more straightforward interpretation of the drivers of model results and that minimize operational challenges for model implementation.
</P>
<HD2>1.5. Robustness and Stability
</HD2>
<P>The Federal Reserve maintains supervisory models that aim to be robust and stable, such that changes in model projections over time reflect underlying risk factors, scenarios, and model enhancements, rather than transitory factors. The estimates of post-stress capital produced by the supervisory stress test provide information regarding a covered company's capital adequacy to market participants, covered companies, and the public. Adherence to this principle helps to ensure that changes in these model projections over time are not driven by temporary variations in model performance or inputs. Supervisory models are recalibrated with newly available input data each year. These data affect supervisory model projections, particularly in times of evolving risks. However, these changes generally should not be the principal driver of a change in results, year over year.
</P>
<HD2>1.6. Conservatism
</HD2>
<P>Given a reasonable set of assumptions or approaches, all else equal, the Federal Reserve will opt to use those that result in larger losses or lower revenue. For example, given a lack of information about the true risk of a portfolio, the Federal Reserve will compensate for the lack of data by using a high percentile loss rate.
</P>
<HD2>1.7. Focus on the Ability To Evaluate the Impact of Severe Economic Stress
</HD2>
<P>In evaluating whether supervisory models are appropriate for use in a stress testing exercise, the Federal Reserve places particular emphasis on supervisory models' abilities to project outcomes in stressed economic environments. In the supervisory stress test, the Federal Reserve also seeks to capture risks to capital that arise specifically in times of economic stress, and that would not be prevalent in more typical economic environments. For example, the Federal Reserve includes losses stemming from the default of a covered company's largest counterparty in its projections of post-stress capital for firms with substantial trading or processing and custodian operations. The default of a company's largest counterparty is more likely to occur in times of severe economic stress than in normal economic conditions.
</P>
<HD1>2. Supervisory Stress Test Model Policies
</HD1>
<P>To be consistent with the seven principles outlined in Section 1, the Federal Reserve has established policies and procedures to guide the development, implementation, and use of all models used in supervisory stress test projections, described in more detail below. Each policy facilitates adherence to at least one of the modeling principles that govern the supervisory stress test, and in most cases facilitates adherence to several modeling principles.
</P>
<HD2>2.1. Soundness in Model Design
</HD2>
<P>(a) During development, the Federal Reserve (i) subjects supervisory models to extensive review of model theory and logic and general conceptual soundness; (ii) examines and evaluates justifications for modeling assumptions; and (iii) tests models to establish the accuracy and stability of the estimates and forecasts that they produce.
</P>
<P>(b) After development, the Federal Reserve continues to subject supervisory models to scrutiny during implementation to ensure that the models remain appropriate for use in the stress test exercise. The Federal Reserve monitors changes in the economic environment, the structure of covered companies and their portfolios, and the structure of the stress testing exercise, if applicable, to verify that a model in use continues to serve the purposes for which it was designed. Generally, the same principles, rigor, and standards for evaluating the suitability of supervisory models that apply in model development and design will apply in ongoing monitoring of supervisory models.
</P>
<HD2>2.2. Disclosure of Information Related to the Supervisory Stress Test
</HD2>
<P>(a) In general, the Board does not disclose information related to the supervisory stress test or firm-specific results to covered companies if that information is not also publicly disclosed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has increased the breadth of its public disclosure since the inception of the supervisory stress test to include more information about model changes and key risk drivers, in addition to more detail on different components of projected net revenues and losses. Increasing public disclosure can help the public understand and interpret the results of the supervisory stress test, particularly with respect to the condition and capital adequacy of participating firms. Providing additional information about the supervisory stress test allows the public to make an evaluation of the quality of the Board's assessment. This policy also promotes consistent and equitable treatment of covered companies by ensuring that institutions do not have access to information about the supervisory stress test that is not also accessible publicly, corresponding to the principle of consistency and comparability.
</P>
<HD2>2.3. Phasing in of Highly Material Model Changes
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve may revise its supervisory stress test models to include advances in modeling techniques, enhancements in response to model validation findings, incorporation of richer and more detailed data, public comment, and identification of models with improved performance, particularly under adverse economic conditions. Revisions to supervisory stress models may at times have material impact on modeled outcomes.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to mitigate sudden and unexpected changes to the supervisory stress test results, the Federal Reserve follows a general policy of phasing highly material model changes into the supervisory stress test over two years. The Federal Reserve assesses whether a model change would have a highly significant impact on the projections of losses, components of revenue, or post-stress capital ratios for covered companies. In these instances, in the first year when the model change is first implemented, estimates produced by the enhanced model are averaged with estimates produced by the model used in the previous stress test exercise. In the second and subsequent years, the supervisory stress test exercise will reflect only estimates produced by the enhanced model. This policy contributes to the stability of the results of the supervisory stress test. By implementing highly material model changes over the course of two stress test cycles, the Federal Reserve seeks to ensure that changes in model projections primarily reflect changes in underlying risk factors and scenarios, year over year.
</P>
<P>(c) In general, phase-in thresholds for highly material model changes apply only to conceptual changes to models. Model changes related to changes in accounting or regulatory capital rules and model parameter re-estimation based on newly available data are implemented with immediate effect.
</P>
<P>(d) In assessing the materiality of a model change, the Federal Reserve calculates the impact of using an enhanced model on post-stress capital ratios using data and scenarios from prior years' supervisory stress test exercises. The use of an enhanced model is considered a highly material change if its use results in a change in the CET1 ratio of 50 basis points or more for one or more firms, relative to the model used in prior years' supervisory exercises.
</P>
<HD2>2.4. Limiting Reliance on Past Outcomes
</HD2>
<P>(a) Models should not place undue emphasis on historical outcomes in predicting future outcomes. The Federal Reserve aims to produce supervisory stress test results that reflect likely outcomes under the supervisory scenarios. The supervisory scenarios may potentially incorporate events that have not occurred historically. It is not necessarily consistent with the purpose of a stress testing exercise to assume that the future will be like the past.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to model potential outcomes outside the realm of historical experience, the Federal Reserve generally does not include variables that would capture unobserved historical patterns in supervisory models. The use of industry-level models, restricted use of firm-specific fixed effects (described below), and minimized use of dummy variables indicating a loan vintage or a specific year, ensure that the outcomes of the supervisory models are forward-looking, consistent and comparable across firms, and robust and stable.
</P>
<P>(c) Firm-specific fixed effects are variables that identify a specific firm and capture unobserved differences in the revenues, expenses or losses between firms. Firm-specific fixed effects are generally not incorporated in supervisory models in order to avoid the assumption that unobserved firm-specific historical patterns will continue in the future. Exceptions to this policy are made where appropriate. For example, if granular portfolio-level data on key drivers of a covered company's performance are limited or unavailable, and firm-specific fixed effects are more predictive of a covered company's future performance than are industry-level variables, then supervisory models may be specified with firm-specific fixed effects.
</P>
<P>(d) Models used in the supervisory stress test are developed according to an industry-level approach, calibrated using data from many institutions. In adhering to an industry-level approach, the Federal Reserve models the response of specific portfolios and instruments to variations in macroeconomic and financial scenario variables. In this way, the Federal Reserve ensures that differences across firms are driven by differences in firm-specific input data, as opposed to differences in model parameters or specifications. The industry approach to modeling is also forward-looking, as the Federal Reserve does not assume that historical patterns will necessarily continue into the future for individual firms. By modeling a portfolio or instrument's response to changes in economic or financial conditions at the industry level, the Federal Reserve ensures that projected future losses are a function of that portfolio or instrument's own characteristics, rather than the historical experience of the covered company. This policy helps to ensure that two firms with the same portfolio receive the same results for that portfolio in the supervisory stress test.
</P>
<P>(e) The Federal Reserve minimizes the use of vintage or year-specific fixed effects when estimating models and producing supervisory projections. In general, these types of variables are employed only when there are significant structural market shifts or other unusual factors for which supervisory models cannot otherwise account. Similar to the firm-specific fixed effects policy, and consistent with the forward-looking principle, this vintage indicator policy is in place so that projections of future performance under stress do not incorporate assumptions that patterns in unmeasured factors from brief historical time periods persist. For example, the loans originated in a particular year should not be assumed to continue to default at a higher rate in the future because they did so in the past.
</P>
<HD2>2.5. Treatment of Global Market Shock and Counterparty Default Component
</HD2>
<P>(a) Both the global market shock and counterparty default components are exogenous components of the supervisory stress scenarios that are independent of the macroeconomic and financial market environment specified in those scenarios, and do not affect projections of risk-weighted assets or balances. The global market shock, which specifies movements in numerous market factors,
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> applies only to covered companies with significant trading exposure. The counterparty default scenario component applies only to covered companies with substantial trading or processing and custodian operations. Though these stress factors may not be directly correlated to macroeconomic or financial assumptions, they can materially affect covered companies' risks. Losses from both components are therefore considered in addition to the estimates of losses under the macroeconomic scenario.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR part 252, appendix A, “Policy Statement on the Scenario Design Framework for Stress Testing,” for a detailed description of the global market shock.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) Counterparty credit risk on derivatives and repo-style activities is incorporated in supervisory modeling in part by assuming the default of the single counterparty to which the covered firm would be most exposed in the global market shock event.
<FTREF/>
<SU>15</SU> Requiring covered companies subject to the large counterparty default component to estimate and report the potential losses and effects on capital associated with such an instantaneous default is a simple method for capturing an important risk to capital for firms with large trading and custodian or processing activities. Engagement in substantial trading or custodial operations makes the covered companies subject to the counterparty default scenario component particularly vulnerable to the default of their major counterparty or their clients' counterparty, in transactions for which the covered companies act as agents. The large counterparty default component is consistent with the purpose of a stress testing exercise, as discussed in the principle about the focus on the ability to evaluate the impact of severe economic stress. The default of a covered company's largest counterparty is a salient risk in a macroeconomic and financial crisis, and generally less likely to occur in times of economic stability. This approach seeks to ensure that covered companies can absorb losses associated with the default of any counterparty, in addition to losses associated with adverse economic conditions, in an environment of economic uncertainty.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> In addition to incorporating counterparty credit risk by assuming the default of the covered company's largest counterparty, the Federal Reserve incorporates counterparty credit risk in the supervisory stress test by estimating mark-to-market losses, credit valuation adjustment (CVA) losses, and incremental default risk (IDR) losses associated with the global market shock.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) The full effect of the global market shock and counterparty default components is realized in net income in the first quarter of the projection horizon in the supervisory stress test. The Board expects covered companies with material trading and counterparty exposures to be sufficiently capitalized to absorb losses stemming from these exposures that could occur during times of general macroeconomic stress.


</P>
<HD2>2.6. [Reserved] 


</HD2>
<HD2>2.7. Credit Supply Maintenance
</HD2>
<P>(a) The supervisory stress test incorporates the assumption that aggregate credit supply does not contract during the stress period. The aim of supervisory stress testing is to assess whether firms are sufficiently capitalized to absorb losses during times of economic stress, while also meeting obligations and continuing to lend to households and businesses. The assumption that a balance sheet of consistent magnitude is maintained allows supervisors to evaluate the health of the banking sector assuming firms continue to lend during times of stress.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to implement this policy, the Federal Reserve must make assumptions about new loan balances. To predict losses on new originations over the planning horizon, newly originated loans are assumed to have the same risk characteristics as the existing portfolio, where applicable, with the exception of loan age and delinquency status. These newly originated loans would be part of a covered company's normal business, even in a stressed economic environment. While an individual firm may assume that it reacts to rising losses by sharply restricting its lending (<I>e.g.,</I> by exiting a particular business line), the banking industry as a whole cannot do so without creating a “credit crunch” and substantially increasing the severity and duration of an economic downturn. The assumption that the magnitude of firm balance sheets will be fixed in the supervisory stress test ensures that covered companies cannot assume they will “shrink to health,” and serves the Federal Reserve's goal of helping to ensure that major financial firms remain sufficiently capitalized to accommodate credit demand in a severe downturn. In addition, by precluding the need to make assumptions about how underwriting standards might tighten or loosen during times of economic stress, the Federal Reserve follows the principle of consistency and comparability and promotes consistency across covered companies.
</P>
<P>(c) In projecting the denominator for the calculation of the leverage ratio, the Federal Reserve will account for the effect of changes associated with the calculation of regulatory capital or changes to the Board's regulations.


</P>
<HD2>2.8. Firm-Specific Overlays and Additional Firm-Provided Data
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve does not make firm-specific overlays to model results used in the supervisory stress test. This policy ensures that the supervisory stress test results are determined solely by the industry-level supervisory models and by firm-specific input data. The Federal Reserve has instituted a policy of not using additional input data submitted by one or some of the covered companies unless comparable data can be collected from all the firms that have material exposure in a given area. Input data necessary to produce supervisory stress test estimates is collected via the FR Y-14 information collection. The Federal Reserve may request additional information from covered companies, but otherwise will not incorporate additional information provided as part of a firm's CCAR submission or obtained through other channels into stress test projections.
</P>
<P>(b) This policy curbs the use of data only from firms that have incentives to provide it, as in cases in which additional data would support the estimation of a lower loss rate or a higher revenue rate, and promotes consistency across the stress test results of covered companies.
</P>
<HD2>2.9. Treatment of Missing or Erroneous Data
</HD2>
<P>(a) Missing data, or data with deficiencies significant enough to preclude the use of supervisory models, create uncertainty around estimates of losses or components of revenue. If data that are direct inputs to supervisory models are not provided as required by the FR Y-14 information collection or are reported erroneously, then a conservative value will be assigned to the specific data based on all available data reported by covered companies, depending on the extent of data deficiency. If the data deficiency is severe enough that a modeled estimate cannot be produced for a portfolio segment or portfolio, then the Federal Reserve may assign a conservative rate (e.g., 10th or 90th percentile PPNR or loss rate, respectively) to that segment or portfolio.
</P>
<P>(b) This policy promotes the principle of conservatism, given a lack of information sufficient to produce a risk-sensitive estimate of losses or revenue components using information on the true characteristics of certain positions. This policy ensures consistent treatment for all covered companies that report data deemed insufficient to produce a modeled estimate. Finally, this policy is simple and transparent.
</P>
<HD2>2.10. Treatment of Immaterial Portfolio Data
</HD2>
<P>(a) The Federal Reserve makes a distinction between insufficient data reported by covered companies for material portfolios and immaterial portfolios. To limit regulatory burden, the Federal Reserve allows covered companies not to report detailed loan-level or portfolio-level data for loan types that are not material as defined in the FR Y-14 reporting instructions. In these cases, a loss rate representing the median rates among covered companies for whom the rate is calculated will be applied to the immaterial portfolio. This approach is consistent across covered companies, simple, and transparent, and promotes the principles of consistency and comparability and simplicity.
</P>
<HD1>3. Principles and Policies of Supervisory Model Validation
</HD1>
<P>(a) Independent and comprehensive model validation is key to the credibility of supervisory stress tests. An independent unit of validation staff within the Federal Reserve, with input from an advisory council of academic experts not affiliated with the Federal Reserve, ensures that stress test models are subject to effective challenge, defined as critical analysis by objective, informed parties that can identify model limitations and recommend appropriate changes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Reserve's supervisory model validation program, built upon the principles of independence, technical competence, and stature, is able to subject models to effective challenge, expanding upon efforts made by supervisory modeling teams to manage model risk and confirming that supervisory models are appropriate for their intended uses. The supervisory model validation program produces reviews that are consistent, thorough, and comprehensive. Its structure ensures independence from the Federal Reserve's model development function, and its prominent role in communicating the state of model risk to the Board of Governors assures its stature within the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<HD2>3.1. Structural Independence
</HD2>
<P>(a) The management and staff of the internal model validation program are structurally independent from the model development teams. Validators do not report to model developers, and vice versa. This ensures that model validation is conducted and overseen by objective parties. Validation staff's performance criteria include an ability to review all aspects of the models rigorously, thoroughly, and objectively, and to provide meaningful and clear feedback to model developers and users.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, the Model Validation Council, a council of external academic experts, provides independent advice on the Federal Reserve's process to assess models used in the supervisory stress test. In biannual meetings with Federal Reserve officials, members of the council discuss selective supervisory models, after being provided with detailed model documentation for and non-public information about those models. The documentation and discussions enable the council to assess the effectiveness of the models used in the supervisory stress tests and of the overarching model validation program.
</P>
<HD2>3.2. Technical Competence of Validation Staff
</HD2>
<P>(a) The model validation program is designed to provide thorough, high-quality reviews that are consistent across supervisory models.
</P>
<P>(b) First, the model validation program employs technically expert staff with knowledge across model types. Second, reviews for every supervisory model follow the same set of review guidelines, and take place on an ongoing basis. The model validation program is comprehensive, in the sense that validators assess all models currently in use, expand the scope of validation beyond basic model use, and cover both model soundness and performance.
</P>
<P>(c) The model validation program covers three main areas of validation: (1) Conceptual soundness; (2) ongoing monitoring; and (3) outcomes analysis. Validation staff evaluates all aspects of model development, implementation, and use, including but not limited to theory, design, methodology, input data, testing, performance, documentation standards, implementation controls (including access and change controls), and code verification.
</P>
<HD2>3.3. Stature of Validation Function
</HD2>
<P>(a) The validation program informs the Board of Governors about the state of model risk in the overall stress testing program, along with ongoing practices to control and mitigate model risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The model validation program communicates its findings and recommendations regarding model risk to relevant parties within the Federal Reserve System. Validators provide detailed feedback to model developers and provide thematic feedback or observations on the overall system of models to the management of the modeling teams. Model validation feedback is also communicated to the users of supervisory model output for use in their deliberations and decisions about supervisory stress testing. In addition, the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation approves all models used in the supervisory stress test in advance of each exercise, based on validators' recommendations, development responses, and suggestions for risk mitigants. In several cases, models have been modified or implemented differently based on validators' feedback. The Model Validation Council also contributes to the stature of the Federal Reserve's validation program, by providing an external point of view on modifications to supervisory models and on validation program governance.


</P>
<HD2>3.4. Simple approach for projecting risk-weighted assets
</HD2>
<P>(a) In projecting risk-weighted assets, the Federal Reserve will generally assume that a covered company's risk-weighted assets remain unchanged over the planning horizon. This assumption allows the Federal Reserve to independently project the risk-weighted assets of covered companies in line with the goal of simplicity (Principle 1.4). In addition, this approach is forward-looking (Principle 1.2), as this assumption removes reliance on historical data and past outcomes from the projection of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) In projecting a firm's risk-weighted assets, the Federal Reserve will account for the effect of changes associated with the calculation of regulatory capital or changes to the Board's regulations in the calculation of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 6668, Feb. 28, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 15605, Mar. 18, 2020; 86 FR 7949, Feb. 3, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="253" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 253—REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING THE ADJUSTABLE INTEREST RATE (LIBOR) ACT (REGULATION ZZ)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 5220, Jan. 26, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 253.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) has issued this part (Regulation ZZ) under the authority of Public Law 117-103, division U (the “Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act”), codified at 12 U.S.C. 5801 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purposes of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act are to establish a clear and uniform process, on a nationwide basis, for replacing the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR in existing contracts that do not provide for the use of a clearly defined or practicable replacement benchmark rate; to preclude litigation related to such existing contracts; to allow existing contracts that reference LIBOR but provide for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement rate to operate according to their terms; and to address LIBOR references in Federal law.
<SU>148</SU>
<FTREF/> This part implements the statute by defining terms used in the statute and identifying Board-selected benchmark replacements for LIBOR contracts.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>148</SU> The act does not affect the ability of parties to use any appropriate benchmark rate in new contracts.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> As described in § 253.3, the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act and this part apply by their terms to existing contracts governed by Federal law or the law of any state that reference the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR and do not have fallback provisions providing for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement benchmark rate following the LIBOR replacement date, unless the parties to that contract agree in writing that the contract is not subject to the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act. This part does not apply to or affect existing or prospective contracts that do not reference the overnight or one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR, and except as provided in § 253.3(a)(1)(iii) and (c), generally does not apply to or affect LIBOR contracts that have fallback provisions providing for the use of a clearly defined and practicable replacement benchmark for LIBOR (either directly or through selection by a determining person), even if that rate differs from the otherwise applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement. Any determining person's selection of the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement pursuant to § 253.3(c) is subject to §§ 253.4, 253.5 (including any benchmark replacement conforming changes made by a calculating person), §§ 253.6, and 253.7.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>30-day Average SOFR</I> means the 30-calendar-day compounded average of SOFR, as published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
</P>
<P><I>90-day Average SOFR</I> means the 90-calendar-day compounded average of SOFR, as published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmark</I> means an index of interest rates or dividend rates that is used, in whole or in part, as the basis of or as a reference for calculating or determining any valuation, payment, or other measurement.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmark administrator</I> means a person that publishes a benchmark for use by third parties.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmark replacement</I> means a benchmark, or an interest rate or dividend rate (which may or may not be based in whole or in part on a prior setting of LIBOR) to replace LIBOR or any interest rate or dividend rate based on LIBOR, whether on a temporary, permanent, or indefinite basis, under or with respect to a LIBOR contract.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmark replacement conforming change</I> means any technical, administrative, or operational change, alteration, or modification that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board determines, in its discretion, would address one or more issues affecting the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement in LIBOR contracts; or
</P>
<P>(2) Solely with respect to a LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, in the reasonable judgment of a calculating person, are otherwise necessary or appropriate to permit the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement under or with respect to a LIBOR contract after giving due consideration to any benchmark replacement conforming changes determined by the Board under paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Board-selected benchmark replacement</I> means the benchmark replacements identified in § 253.4.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day except for:
</P>
<P>(1) A Saturday;
</P>
<P>(2) A Sunday;
</P>
<P>(3) A day on which the Securities Industry and Financial Markets Association recommends that the fixed income departments of its members be closed for the entire day for purposes of trading in United States Government securities; or
</P>
<P>(4) A day on which the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, with advance notice, chooses not to publish its Treasury repurchase agreement reference rates if participants in the Treasury repurchase agreement market broadly expect to treat that day as a holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating person</I> means, with respect to any LIBOR contract, any person, including the determining person, responsible for calculating or determining any valuation, payment, or other measurement based on a benchmark.
</P>
<P><I>CME Term SOFR</I> means the CME Term SOFR Reference Rates published for one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors as administered by CME Group Benchmark Administration, Ltd. (or any successor administrator thereof).
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> has the same meaning as in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loan</I> means a consumer credit transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Derivative transaction</I> means a contract that would satisfy the criteria to be a “Protocol Covered Document” under the International Swaps and Derivatives Association (ISDA) protocol (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part) but for the fact that one or more parties to such contract is not an “Adhering Party” as such term is used in the ISDA protocol, provided that, for purposes of this definition, “Protocol Effective Date” as such term is used in the ISDA protocol means the LIBOR replacement date for the relevant LIBOR contract.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative transaction fallback observation day</I> means the day that is two payment business days prior to the payment date for the relevant calculation period.
</P>
<P><I>Determining person</I> means, with respect to any LIBOR contract, any person with the sole authority, right, or obligation, including on a temporary basis (as identified by the LIBOR contract or by the governing law of the LIBOR contract, as appropriate) to determine a benchmark replacement, whether or not the person's authority, right, or obligation is subject to any contingencies specified in the LIBOR contract or by the governing law of the LIBOR contract.
</P>
<P><I>Fallback provisions</I> means terms in a LIBOR contract for determining a benchmark replacement, including any terms relating to the date on which the benchmark replacement becomes effective.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA)-regulated entity</I> has the same meaning as “regulated entity” in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Family Education Loan Program (FFELP) asset-backed securitization (ABS)</I> means an asset-backed security for which more than 50 percent of the collateral pool consists of FFELP loans, as reported in the most recent servicer report available on the LIBOR replacement date.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA-regulated-entity contract</I> means a LIBOR contract that is a commercial or multifamily mortgage loan that has been purchased or guaranteed, in whole or in part, by an FHFA-regulated entity, or for which an FHFA-regulated entity is identified as a party in the transaction documents, and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A commercial or multifamily mortgage-backed security (other than a security backed by consumer loans);
</P>
<P>(2) A collateralized mortgage obligation;
</P>
<P>(3) A credit risk transfer transaction; or
</P>
<P>(4) A Federal Home Loan Bank advance.
</P>
<P><I>ISDA protocol</I> means the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., on October 23, 2020, and minor or technical amendments thereto (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part).
</P>
<P><I>LIBOR,</I> as used in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Means the overnight and one-, three-, six-, and 12-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR (formerly known as the London interbank offered rate) as administered by ICE Benchmark Administration Limited (or any predecessor or successor administrator thereof); and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include the one-week or two-month tenors of U.S. dollar LIBOR.
</P>
<P><I>LIBOR contract</I> means any contract, agreement, indenture, organizational document, guarantee, mortgage, deed of trust, lease, security (whether representing debt or equity, including any interest in a corporation, a partnership, or a limited liability company), instrument, or other obligation or asset that, by its terms, uses LIBOR as a benchmark.
</P>
<P><I>LIBOR replacement date</I> means the first London banking day after June 30, 2023, unless the Board determines that any LIBOR tenor will cease to be published or cease to be representative on a different date.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant benchmark administrator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Bloomberg Index Services Limited with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR);
</P>
<P>(2) CME Group Benchmark Administration, Ltd. with respect to CME Term SOFR;
</P>
<P>(3) Refinitiv Limited with respect to the Board-selected benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract that is a consumer loan; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal Reserve Bank of New York with respect to 30-day Average SOFR and 90-day Average SOFR.
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)).
</P>
<P><I>SOFR</I> means the Secured Overnight Financing Rate published by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any successor administrator.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> On and after the LIBOR replacement date, the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement shall be the benchmark replacement for the following LIBOR contracts, except to the extent that an exception in paragraph (b) of this section applies:
</P>
<P>(1) A LIBOR contract with one of the following characteristics as of the LIBOR replacement date, after giving effect to paragraph (a)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The LIBOR contract contains no fallback provisions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The LIBOR contract contains fallback provisions that identify neither—
</P>
<P>(A) A specific benchmark replacement; nor
</P>
<P>(B) A determining person; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The LIBOR contract contains fallback provisions that identify a determining person, but the determining person has not selected a benchmark replacement by the earlier of the LIBOR replacement date and the latest date for selecting a benchmark replacement according to the terms of the LIBOR contract, for any reason.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, on the LIBOR replacement date, any reference in any fallback provisions of a LIBOR contract to the following shall be disregarded as if not included in the fallback provisions of such LIBOR contract and shall be deemed null and void and without any force or effect:
</P>
<P>(i) A benchmark replacement that is based in any way on any LIBOR value, except to account for the difference between LIBOR and the benchmark replacement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A requirement that a person (other than a benchmark administrator) conduct a poll, survey, or inquiries for quotes or information concerning interbank lending or deposit rates (including, but not limited to, Eurodollar deposit or lending rates).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, this part shall not apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) Any LIBOR contract that the parties have agreed in writing shall not be subject to the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any LIBOR contract that contains fallback provisions that identify a benchmark replacement that is not based in any way on any LIBOR value (including the prime rate or the effective Federal Funds rate) after application of paragraph (a)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(1)(iii) of this section, any LIBOR contract subject to paragraph (c) of this section as to which a determining person does not elect to use a Board-selected benchmark replacement pursuant to paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Selection of Board-selected benchmark replacement by determining person.</I> Except for any LIBOR contract described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a determining person may select the Board-selected benchmark replacement specified in § 253.4 as the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract. Any such selection shall be—
</P>
<P>(1) Irrevocable;
</P>
<P>(2) Made by the earlier of the LIBOR replacement date and the latest date for selecting a benchmark replacement according to the terms of the LIBOR contract; and
</P>
<P>(3) Used in any determinations of the benchmark under or with respect to the LIBOR contract occurring on and after the LIBOR replacement date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other provisions of LIBOR contracts unchanged.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section and in § 253.5, where the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract on and after the LIBOR replacement date pursuant to paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, all other provisions of such contract shall not be altered or impaired and shall apply to such contract using the Board-selected benchmark replacement, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any provision specifying the date for determining a benchmark, except in the case of derivative transactions, which are subject to § 253.4(a)(2), and Federal Home Loan Bank advances, which are subject to § 253.4(b)(3)(ii)(B);
</P>
<P>(2) Any provision specifying rounding conventions for a benchmark;
</P>
<P>(3) Any provision referencing LIBOR or any LIBOR value prior to the LIBOR replacement date (including any provision requiring a person to look back to a LIBOR value as of a date preceding the LIBOR replacement date);
</P>
<P>(4) Any provision applying any cap, floor, modifier, or spread adjustment to which LIBOR had been subject pursuant to the terms of a LIBOR contract;
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of Federal consumer financial law that—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires creditors to notify borrowers regarding a change-in-terms; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Governs the reevaluation of rate increases on credit card accounts under open-ended (not home-secured) consumer credit plans; or
</P>
<P>(6) Except as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5804(c), the rights or obligations of any person, or the authorities of any agency, under Federal consumer financial law, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.4   Board-selected benchmark replacements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Derivative transactions.</I> (1) A LIBOR contract subject to the requirements of this part that is a derivative transaction shall use the benchmark replacement identified as the “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part) for each day on which LIBOR would ordinarily be observed occurring on or after the LIBOR replacement date. For clarity, the reference to “spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol is equal to the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark replacement used to calculate the payment due for the relevant calculation period shall be determined on the derivative transaction fallback observation day in respect of the day that, under the LIBOR contract, would have been used to determine the LIBOR-based rate that is being replaced or, if the Board-selected benchmark replacement in respect of that day is not available on the derivative transaction fallback observation day, the most recently available publication on the derivative transaction fallback observation day shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>All other transactions.</I> On the LIBOR replacement date, a LIBOR contract subject to the requirements of this part that is not a derivative transaction shall use the following benchmark replacements:
</P>
<P>(1) For a LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, an FHFA-regulated-entity contract, or a FFELP ABS—
</P>
<P>(i) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For a LIBOR contract that is a consumer loan—
</P>
<P>(i) During the one-year period beginning on the LIBOR replacement date:
</P>
<P>(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus an amount that transitions linearly for each business day during that period from:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The difference between SOFR and overnight LIBOR determined as of the day immediately before the LIBOR replacement date; to
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) In place of the one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus an amount that transitions linearly for each business day during that period from:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The difference between the relevant CME Term SOFR and the relevant LIBOR tenor determined as of the day immediately before the LIBOR replacement date; to
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) On the date one year after the LIBOR replacement date and thereafter:
</P>
<P>(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the corresponding one-, three-, six-, or 12-month CME Term SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The rates published or provided by Refinitiv Limited as “USD IBOR Cash Fallbacks” for “Consumer” products shall be deemed equal to the rates identified in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For a LIBOR contract that is an FHFA-regulated-entity contract—
</P>
<P>(i) For an FHFA-regulated-entity contract that is not a Federal Home Loan Bank advance—
</P>
<P>(A) In place of overnight LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In place of one-, three-, six-, or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be the 30-day Average SOFR plus the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an FHFA-regulated-entity contract that is a Federal Home Loan Bank advance—
</P>
<P>(A) The benchmark replacement shall be the “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol (<I>see</I> appendix A to this part) for each day on which LIBOR would ordinarily be observed occurring on or after the LIBOR replacement date. For clarity, the reference to “spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” in the ISDA protocol is equal to the applicable tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The benchmark replacement used to calculate the payment due for the relevant calculation period shall be determined on the derivative transaction fallback observation day in respect of the day that, under the LIBOR contract, would have been used to determine the LIBOR-based rate that is being replaced or, if the Board-selected benchmark replacement in respect of that day is not available on the derivative transaction fallback observation day, the most recently available publication on the derivative transaction fallback observation day shall be used.
</P>
<P>(4) For a LIBOR contract that is a FFELP ABS—
</P>
<P>(i) In place of one-month LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be 30-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In place of three-month LIBOR, the benchmark shall be 90-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In place of six- or 12-month tenors of LIBOR, the benchmark replacement shall be 30-day Average SOFR plus the tenor spread adjustment identified in paragraph (c)(4) or (5) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tenor spread adjustments.</I> The following tenor spread adjustments shall be included as part of the Board-selected benchmark replacements as indicated in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) 0.00644 percent for overnight LIBOR;
</P>
<P>(2) 0.11448 percent for one-month LIBOR;
</P>
<P>(3) 0.26161 percent for three-month LIBOR;
</P>
<P>(4) 0.42826 percent for six-month LIBOR; and
</P>
<P>(5) 0.71513 percent for 12-month LIBOR.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.5   Benchmark replacement conforming changes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Benchmark replacement conforming changes generally.</I> (1) If the Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement for a LIBOR contract pursuant to § 253.3(a) or (c), all applicable benchmark replacement conforming changes shall become an integral part of the LIBOR contract.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (b) of this section establishes specific benchmark replacement conforming changes. The Board may, in its discretion, publish additional benchmark replacement conforming changes by regulation or order.
</P>
<P>(3) Solely with respect to any LIBOR contract that is not a consumer loan, a calculating person may make any additional technical, administrative, or operational changes, alterations, or modifications that, in that person's reasonable judgment, would be necessary or appropriate to permit the implementation, administration, and calculation of the Board-selected benchmark replacement under or with respect to a LIBOR contract after giving due consideration to any changes, alterations, or modifications otherwise required by the Board, without any requirement to obtain consent from any other person prior to the adoption of such benchmark replacement conforming changes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specified benchmark replacement conforming changes.</I> (1) Any reference to a specified source for LIBOR (such as a particular newspaper, website, or screen) shall be replaced with the publication of the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement (inclusive or exclusive of the relevant tenor spread adjustment identified in § 253.4(c)) by either the relevant benchmark administrator for the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement or any third party authorized by the relevant benchmark administrator to publish the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement.
</P>
<P>(2) Any reference to a particular time of day for determining LIBOR (such as 11:00 a.m. London time) shall be replaced with the standard publication time for the applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement (inclusive or exclusive of the relevant tenor spread adjustment identified in § 253.4(c)), as established by the relevant benchmark administrator.
</P>
<P>(3) Any provision of a LIBOR contract requiring use of a combination (such as an average) of LIBOR values over a period of time that spans the LIBOR replacement date shall be modified to provide that the combination shall be calculated consistent with that contractual provision using:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable LIBOR for any date prior to the LIBOR replacement date; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicable Board-selected benchmark replacement rate for any date on or following the LIBOR replacement date, respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) Subject to § 253.4(a) and (b)(3)(ii), to the extent a Board-selected benchmark replacement is not available or published on a particular day indicated in the LIBOR contract as the determination date, the most recently available publication of the Board-selected benchmark replacement will apply.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.6   Preemption.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 107 of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5806, this part supersedes any provision of any state or local law, statute, rule, regulation, or standard—
</P>
<P>(a) Relating to the selection or use of a benchmark replacement or related conforming changes; or
</P>
<P>(b) Expressly limiting the manner of calculating interest, including the compounding of interest, as that provision applies to the selection or use of a Board-selected benchmark replacement or benchmark replacement conforming changes.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 253.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 253.7   Continuity of contract and safe harbor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of section 105(a)-(d) of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5804(a)-(d), shall apply to any LIBOR contract for which the Board-selected benchmark replacement becomes the benchmark replacement pursuant to § 253.3(a) or (c).
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this part is intended to alter or modify the availability or effect of the provisions of section 105(e) of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, 12 U.S.C. 5804(e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.21.0.3.8.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 253—ISDA Protocol
</HEAD>
<P>For ease of reference, the Board is republishing, with permission, the full text of the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol (ISDA protocol), published on October 23, 2020, by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. The full text of the ISDA protocol follows:
</P>
<HD1>ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<HD2>Published on October 23, 2020
</HD2>
<HD3>By the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc.
</HD3>
<P>The International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) has published this ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol (this Protocol) to enable parties to Protocol Covered Documents to amend the terms of each such Protocol Covered Document to (i) in respect of a Protocol Covered Document which incorporates, or references a rate as defined in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet, include in the terms of such Protocol Covered Document either the terms of, or a particular defined term included in, the Supplement to the 2006 ISDA Definitions, finalized on October 23, 2020 and to be published by ISDA and effective on January 25, 2021 (the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) and (ii) in respect of a Protocol Covered Document which otherwise references a Relevant IBOR, include in the terms of such Protocol Covered Document new fallbacks for that Relevant IBOR.
</P>
<P>Accordingly, a party may adhere to this Protocol and be bound by its terms by completing and delivering a letter substantially in the form of Exhibit 1 to this Protocol (an Adherence Letter) to ISDA, as agent, as described below (each such party, an Adhering Party).
</P>
<HD1>1. Adherence to and Effectiveness of the Protocol
</HD1>
<P>(a) By adhering to this Protocol in the manner set forth in this paragraph 1, each Adhering Party agrees, in consideration of the mutual promises and covenants contained herein, that the terms of each Protocol Covered Document between such Adhering Party and any other Adhering Party will be amended in accordance with the terms and subject to the conditions set forth in the Attachment hereto.
</P>
<P>(b) Adherence to this Protocol will be evidenced by the execution and online delivery, in accordance with this paragraph, to ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with subparagraphs 1(b)(i) to 1(b)(iii) below). ISDA shall have the right, in its sole and absolute discretion, upon at least thirty calendar days' notice on the “ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol” section of its website at <I>www.isda.org</I> (or by other suitable means), to designate a closing date of this Protocol (such closing date, the Cut-off Date). After the Cut-off Date, ISDA will not accept any further Adherence Letters to this Protocol.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Adhering Party will access the “Protocols” section of the ISDA website at <I>www.isda.org</I> to enter information online that is required to generate its form of Adherence Letter and will submit payment of any applicable fee. Either by directly downloading the populated Adherence Letter from the Protocol system or upon receipt via email of the populated Adherence Letter, each Adhering Party will sign and upload the signed Adherence Letter as a PDF (portable document format) attachment into the Protocol system. Once the signed Adherence Letter has been approved and accepted by ISDA, such Adhering Party will receive an email confirmation of the Adhering Party's adherence to this Protocol.
</P>
<P>(ii) A conformed copy of each Adherence Letter containing, in place of each signature, the printed or typewritten name of each signatory will be published by ISDA so that it may be viewed by all Adhering Parties. Each Adhering Party agrees that, for evidentiary purposes, a conformed copy of an Adherence Letter certified by the General Counsel (or other appropriate officer) of ISDA will be deemed to be an original.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each Adhering Party agrees that the determination of the date and time of acceptance of any Adherence Letter will be determined by ISDA in its absolute discretion. Any Adherence Letter which is dated and delivered to ISDA before the date on which this Protocol is published will be deemed to have been delivered on the date on which this Protocol is published.
</P>
<P>(c) As between two Adhering Parties, the agreement to make the amendments contemplated by this Protocol, on the terms and conditions set forth in this Protocol, will be effective on the Implementation Date and that agreement will form part of each Protocol Covered Document from the later of the Implementation Date and the related Protocol Covered Document Date. The amendments contemplated by this Protocol shall be made on the later of (i) the Implementation Date and (ii) the Protocol Effective Date.
</P>
<P>(A) The Protocol Effective Date with respect to a Protocol Covered Document shall be January 25, 2021.
</P>
<P>(B) The Implementation Date with respect to any two Adhering Parties shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of such two Adhering Parties to adhere except that:
</P>
<P>(I) In respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which an Agent has entered on behalf of a Client, subject to paragraph 3(m) below, the Implementation Date shall be the date specified in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C), paragraph 3(h), paragraph 3(i) or paragraph 3(j) below, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(II) In respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, subject to paragraph 3(m) below, the Implementation Date shall be the day specified in paragraph 3(l) below.
</P>
<P>Acceptance by ISDA of a subsequent or revised Adherence Letter from either such Adhering Party will not have the effect of changing such Implementation Date.
</P>
<P>(d) This Protocol is intended for use without negotiation, but without prejudice to any amendment, modification or waiver in respect of a Protocol Covered Document that the parties may otherwise effect in accordance with the terms of that Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(i) In adhering to this Protocol, an Adhering Party may not specify additional provisions, conditions or limitations in its Adherence Letter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purported adherence that ISDA, as agent, determines in good faith is not in compliance with this Protocol will be void and ISDA will inform the relevant party of such fact as soon as reasonably possible after making such determination.
</P>
<P>(e) Each Adhering Party acknowledges and agrees that adherence to this Protocol is irrevocable, except that an Adhering Party may, after the Protocol Effective Date, deliver to ISDA, as agent, a notice substantially in the form of Exhibit 2 to this Protocol that is effective (determined pursuant to paragraph 3(f) below) on any Protocol Business Day (a Revocation Notice) to designate the next Revocation Date as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur in respect of any Protocol Covered Document between the counterparty and such Adhering Party. Following the effective delivery of a Revocation Notice by an Adhering Party, this Protocol will not amend any Protocol Covered Document between that Adhering Party and another Adhering Party for which the Implementation Date would occur after the related Revocation Date.
</P>
<P>(i) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client, then, if the Client effectively delivers a Revocation Notice in accordance with this paragraph 1(e), this Protocol will not amend any Protocol Covered Document between another Adhering Party and that Client entered into by that Client itself or by the Agent on behalf of that Client or any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (if applicable), in each case, for which the Implementation Date would occur after the Revocation Date designated as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur in the Client's Revocation Notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an Agent delivers a Revocation Notice in accordance with this paragraph 1(e) on behalf of a Client and the Client separately adheres to this Protocol directly rather than through the agency of an Agent, then the Revocation Notice delivered by the Agent will not prevent an Implementation Date from occurring after the Revocation Date in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Client has entered with another Adhering Party (including through the Agent).
</P>
<P>(iii) Subparagraph 1(e)(i), subparagraph 1(e)(ii) and subparagraph 1(e)(iii) are without prejudice to any amendment effected pursuant to this Protocol to any Protocol Covered Document between two Adhering Parties for which the Implementation Date occurred on or before the day on which that Revocation Date occurs or is deemed to occur, regardless of the date on which such Protocol Covered Document is entered into, and any such amendment shall be effective notwithstanding the occurrence or deemed occurrence of such Revocation Date.
</P>
<P>(iv) Each Revocation Notice must be delivered by the means specified in paragraph 3(f) below.
</P>
<P>(v) Each Adhering Party agrees that, for evidentiary purposes, a conformed copy of a Revocation Notice certified by the General Counsel or an appropriate officer of ISDA will be deemed to be an original.
</P>
<P>(vi) Any purported revocation that ISDA, as agent, determines in good faith is not in compliance with this paragraph 1(e) will be void and ISDA will inform the relevant party of such fact as soon as reasonably possible after making such determination.
</P>
<HD1>2. Representations and Undertakings
</HD1>
<P>(a) As of the later of (i) the date on which an Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above (which will be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter from that Adhering Party (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above)) and (ii) the Protocol Covered Document Date, such Adhering Party represents to each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document (which representations will be deemed to be repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol) each of the following matters:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Status.</I> It is, if relevant, duly organized and validly existing under the laws of the jurisdiction of its organization or incorporation and, if relevant under such laws, in good standing or, if it otherwise represents its status in or pursuant to the Protocol Covered Document, has such status.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Powers.</I> It has the power to execute and deliver the Adherence Letter and to perform its obligations under the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), and has taken all necessary action to authorize such execution, delivery and performance.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>No Violation or Conflict.</I> Such execution, delivery and performance do not violate or conflict with any law applicable to it, any provision of its constitutional documents, any order or judgment of any court or other agency of government applicable to it or any of its assets or any contractual restriction binding on or affecting it or any of its assets.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Consents.</I> All governmental and other consents that are required to have been obtained by it with respect to the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document, as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), have been obtained and are in full force and effect and all conditions of any such consents have been complied with.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Obligations Binding.</I> Its obligations under the Adherence Letter and the Protocol Covered Document, as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto), constitute its legal, valid and binding obligations, enforceable in accordance with their respective terms (subject to applicable bankruptcy, reorganization, insolvency, moratorium or similar laws affecting creditors' rights generally and subject, as to enforceability, to equitable principles of general application (regardless of whether enforcement is sought in a proceeding in equity or at law)).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Credit Support.</I> Its adherence to this Protocol and any amendment contemplated by this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto) will not, in and of itself, adversely affect the enforceability, effectiveness or validity of any obligations owed, whether by it or by any third party, under any Credit Support Document or Third Party Credit Support Document in respect of its obligations relating to any Protocol Covered Document as amended by the Adherence Letter and this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto).
</P>
<P>(b) Each Adhering Party agrees with each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document that each of the foregoing representations will be deemed, in the case of a Protocol Covered Document that is an ISDA Master Agreement, to be a representation for purposes of Section 5(a)(iv) and in the case of any other Protocol Covered Document, to be a representation for purposes of any analogous provisions of each such Protocol Covered Document, that is made by each Adhering Party as of the later of (i) the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above and (ii) the Protocol Covered Document Date and which is deemed repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Adhering Party adheres to this Protocol.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Undertakings in respect of Protocol Covered Documents with Third Party Credit Support Documents.</I> With respect to Protocol Covered Documents with Third Party Credit Support Documents that expressly require the consent, approval, agreement, authorization or other action of a Third Party to be obtained, each Adhering Party whose obligations under such arrangements are secured, guaranteed or otherwise supported by such Third Party undertakes to each other Adhering Party with which it has entered into such arrangements that it has obtained the consent (including by way of paragraph 2(d) below), approval, agreement, authorization or other action of such Third Party and that it will, upon demand, deliver evidence of such consent, approval, agreement, authorization or other action to such other Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deemed Third Party Consent.</I> Each Adhering Party which is also a Third Party in relation to a Third Party Credit Support Document is hereby deemed to have consented to the amendments imposed by this Protocol on the Protocol Covered Document supported by such Third Party Credit Support Document.
</P>
<HD1>3. Miscellaneous
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Entire Agreement; Restatement; Survival.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) This Protocol constitutes the entire agreement and understanding of the Adhering Parties with respect to its subject matter and supersedes all oral communication and prior writings (except as otherwise provided herein) with respect thereto. Each Adhering Party acknowledges that in adhering to this Protocol it has not relied on any oral or written representation, warranty or other assurance (except as provided for or referred to elsewhere in this Protocol or in the Attachment) and waives all rights and remedies which might otherwise be available to it in respect thereof, except that nothing in this Protocol will limit or exclude any liability of an Adhering Party for fraud.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for any amendment deemed to be made pursuant to this Protocol in respect of any Protocol Covered Document, all terms and conditions of each Protocol Covered Document will continue in full force and effect in accordance with its provisions as in effect immediately prior to the date on which it first becomes subject to this Protocol. Except as explicitly stated in this Protocol, nothing herein shall constitute a waiver or release of any rights of any Adhering Party under any Protocol Covered Document to which such Adhering Party is a party or a provider or recipient of credit support. This Protocol will, with respect to its subject matter, survive, and any amendments made or deemed to be made pursuant to this Protocol will form a part of each Protocol Covered Document between the Adhering Parties, notwithstanding any statements in a Protocol Covered Document to the effect that such Protocol Covered Document constitutes the entire agreement and understanding between the parties to such Protocol Covered Document with respect to the subject of such Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion of Agreements.</I> Notwithstanding anything in paragraph 1(a) above, with respect to any agreement between Adhering Parties, if the parties to such agreement have expressly stated in such agreement or otherwise agreed in writing that this Protocol shall not apply, then such agreement shall not be a Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendments.</I> An amendment, modification or waiver in respect of the matters contemplated by this Protocol (including, for the avoidance of doubt, any amendment, modification or waiver relating to the alignment of a Protocol Covered Document with an instrument for which such Protocol Covered Document is intended to serve as a hedge (or <I>vice versa</I>)) will only be effective in respect of a Protocol Covered Document if made in accordance with the terms of the Protocol Covered Document and then only with effect between the parties to that Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Headings.</I> The headings used in this Protocol and any Adherence Letter are for convenience of reference only and are not to affect the construction of or to be taken into consideration in interpreting this Protocol or any Adherence Letter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Governing Law.</I> This Protocol and each Adherence Letter will, as between two Adhering Parties and in respect of each Protocol Covered Document between them, be governed by and construed in accordance with the laws of England and Wales, without reference to choice of law doctrine, <I>provided</I> that the amendments to each Protocol Covered Document shall be governed by and construed in accordance with the law specified to govern that Protocol Covered Document and otherwise in accordance with the applicable choice of law doctrine.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notices.</I> Any Revocation Notice must be in writing and delivered as a locked PDF (portable document format) attachment to an email to ISDA at <I>isda@isda.org</I> and will be deemed effectively delivered on the date it is delivered unless, on the date of that delivery, ISDA's London office is closed or that communication is delivered after 5:00 p.m., London time, in which case that communication will be deemed effectively delivered on the next day ISDA's London office is open.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ability of an Agent to Adhere to the Protocol on Behalf of a Client.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) An Agent may adhere to this Protocol:
</P>
<P>(A) On behalf of all Clients represented by such Agent (in which case, such Agent need not identify each Client through an online platform available generally to the industry, including, for example, the ISDA Amend platform provided by IHS Markit (a Platform) and, in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients, the Implementation Date shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere);
</P>
<P>(B) On behalf of only those Clients represented by such Agent that such Agent specifically names or identifies through a Platform and, in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any such Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the name or identity of that Client to the other Adhering Party (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party); or
</P>
<P>(C) On behalf of all Clients represented by such Agent, excluding any Clients whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as a Client excluded from adherence, subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below, on or before the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere (in which case, such Agent need not identify each Client on whose behalf it adheres through a Platform). In respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any Client whose name or identity has not been communicated to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as a Client excluded from adherence, the Implementation Date shall (subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below) be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere. If the Agent has not communicated the name or identity of any Clients excluded from adherence to the other Adhering Party through a Platform on or before the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere, then (subject to subparagraph 3(h)(i) below) in respect of any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of any Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere, and, in each case, if the Agent elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, on behalf of those Clients whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) below applies (in which case, the Implementation Date in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document shall be as specified in subparagraph 3(l) below).
</P>
<P>(ii) In each case, the Agent can elect to apply the amendments in this Protocol to either:
</P>
<P>(A) In respect of all those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients (Option 1); or
</P>
<P>(B) In respect of all those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of those Clients and (II) in respect of those Clients on whose behalf the Agent adheres whose name or identity the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) applies, each Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent did not enter on behalf of those Clients but which the Agent has the authority from the relevant Client to amend (for the purpose of this Protocol, documents described in this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) being <I>Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents</I> and the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the name or identity of the Client to the other Adhering Party for the purposes of this subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) being the <I>Identification Date</I>) (Option 2). If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2, in respect of any Client on whose behalf the Agent adheres pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above whose name or identity is communicated to the other Adhering Party as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies, Protocol Covered Documents referred to in both subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) and subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above will be amended in accordance with the terms of this Protocol. For the avoidance of doubt, any Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent did not enter on behalf of a Client and which the Agent does not have the authority from the relevant Client to amend will not constitute a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(iii) The election for Option 1 or Option 2 shall be made in the Adherence Letter. Adherence by the Agent shall only be effective with respect to those Protocol Covered Documents described in Option 1 or Option 2, as applicable, and as elected in the Adherence Letter (subject to, if the Agent elects for Option 2 and with respect to Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents,
</P>
<P>(A) Subparagraph 3(g)(iv) and paragraph 3(l) below and (B) the Agent communicating the name or identity of those Clients on behalf of which it is amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents to the other Adhering Party, in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above (regardless of whether the Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(A), subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) or subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above)).
</P>
<P>(iv) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, then, in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document only, the Agent shall, as soon as reasonably practicable following a written request (including by email) from the other Adhering Party, and in any event by no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such request, provide reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party in its sole discretion supporting the Agent's authority to amend such documents, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) If, prior to the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere, the Agent has delivered to the other Adhering Party a copy, or relevant extracts, of the agreement (such as an investment management agreement) pursuant to which the relevant Client appoints the Agent to act on its behalf and authorizes the Agent to make the amendments contemplated by this Protocol to the Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (whether or not such authority expressly refers to this Protocol), then, subject to the other Adhering Party's right to request (which request must be in writing (which includes by email)) an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts (which request shall be made no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), the Agent need not provide any further evidence supporting its authority to amend that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document on behalf of that Client for the purposes of this Protocol and, in respect of that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party on (I) if the other Adhering Party does not request an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts, the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party or
</P>
<P>(II) If the other Adhering Party does request an additional copy of that agreement or those relevant extracts, the day on which that additional copy is delivered to the other Adhering Party;
</P>
<P>(B) If the other Adhering Party does not request such evidence by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the later of the Identification Date and the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party, then the Agent shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party at the end of that fifteenth calendar day;
</P>
<P>(C) Subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above, following the delivery of any such evidence by the Agent to the other Adhering Party, unless the other Adhering Party notifies the Agent to the contrary by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the day on which such evidence is delivered, the Agent shall be deemed to have provided reasonable evidence satisfactory to the other Adhering Party at the end of that fifteenth calendar day;
</P>
<P>(D) If: (I)
</P>
<P>(I) following written request from the other Adhering Party, the Agent does not provide the other Adhering Party with any evidence supporting its authority to amend such documents or, if subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above applies, with an additional copy of the relevant agreement or extracts, by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such written request; or
</P>
<P>(II) subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(A) above, the other Adhering Party determines that the evidence provided by the Agent is not satisfactory and notifies the Agent accordingly by the end of the fifteenth calendar day following the day on which such evidence is delivered,
</P>
<P>Then request for evidence and the Agent's right to provide such evidence and, in respect of any such evidence, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(iv)(C) above, the Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document shall not be amended by this Protocol; and
</P>
<P>(E) Any failure by the Agent to provide the other Adhering Party with such evidence shall not give rise to a Potential Event of Default or an Event of Default (each as defined in the ISDA Master Agreement), or any similar event, under that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document or other contractual right of action under this Protocol or that Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>(v) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and specifically names or identifies one or more Clients
</P>
<P>(A) On whose behalf it is adhering (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above), (B) which are excluded from adherence (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above), and/or (C) on whose behalf it is amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents (as contemplated in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above), as applicable, through a Platform, that Agent shall provide the legal entity identifier (LEI) of each such Client through such Platform.
</P>
<P>(vi) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client by executing and delivering an Adherence Letter on behalf of such Client in accordance with paragraph 1 above and this paragraph 3(g), references to the Adhering Party for purposes of this Protocol (including the Attachment hereto) and the Adherence Letter shall be interpreted to refer to such Client. If, in respect of a Client, more than one Adherence Letter is accepted by ISDA in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above (by virtue of the Client adhering on its own behalf and one or more Agents adhering on behalf of that Client), then:
</P>
<P>(A) If ISDA accepts an Adherence Letter from an Agent on behalf of a Client after it accepts an Adherence Letter from that Client, any document entered into by:
</P>
<P>(I) That Agent acting on behalf of that Client; or
</P>
<P>(II) If the Agent elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter, that Client on its own behalf but which the Agent has the authority from the relevant Client to amend, in each case, which has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Protocol Effective Date; or
</P>
<P>(2) If later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that Agent (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party), will be deemed to have “a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere)” for the purposes of the definitions of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document and Protocol Covered Master Agreement below; and
</P>
<P>(B) If ISDA accepts an Adherence Letter from a Client after it accepts an Adherence Letter from an Agent on behalf of that Client, any document entered into by the Client, whether directly or through the agency of an Agent, which has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to:
</P>
<P>(I) The Protocol Effective Date; or if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that Client (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from the other Adhering Party), will be deemed to have “a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere)” for the purposes of the definitions of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document and Protocol Covered Master Agreement below.
</P>
<P>(vii) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol on behalf of a Client, then as of the later of (A) the date on which such Agent adheres to this Protocol in accordance with paragraph 1 above and (B) the Protocol Covered Document Date, such Agent represents to each Adhering Party (I) with which it has entered into a Protocol Covered Document on behalf of such Client or (II) which is a party to any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document (which representation will be deemed to be repeated on the Protocol Effective Date and on the Implementation Date if one or both such dates are later than the date on which such Agent adheres to this Protocol) that it has, as at the relevant Implementation Date, all necessary authority to enter into the Adherence Letter on behalf of such Client. In respect of any Client referred to in paragraph 3(h), paragraph 3(i), paragraph 3(j) or paragraph 3(k) below, the Agent represents that it has, as at the relevant Implementation Date, all necessary authority to apply the terms of the Adherence Letter to such Client.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Clients Added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document after the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to subparagraph 3(h)(ii) below, in respect of any Client added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document between an Agent and an Adhering Party after the date of acceptance by ISDA of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere (a New Client), the Agent and such Adhering Party agree that the terms of such Agent Protocol Covered Document as between such Adhering Party and any New Client will be subject to the amendments effected by this Protocol and as between the Adhering Party and the New Client the Implementation Date shall be the date on which the New Client is added to the Agent Protocol Covered Document, unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party (which agreement may, if the Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above, be reached by the Agent communicating to the other Adhering Party through a Platform, at the time the New Client is added to the Agent Protocol Covered Document, that the New Client is excluded from adherence).
</P>
<P>(ii) If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients on whose behalf it is adhering, then in order for the terms of an Agent Protocol Covered Document as between an Adhering Party and any New Client to be subject to the amendments effected by this Protocol, the Agent shall communicate the identity of each New Client (including the legal entity identifier (LEI)) to the other Adhering Party which is a party to the Agent Protocol Covered Document to which the New Client is added through a Platform and, as between the other Adhering Party and that New Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the identity of that New Client to the other Adhering Party through that Platform.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Clients Added to an Agent's List of Identified In-Scope Clients after the date of Acceptance by ISDA of the Agent's Adherence Letter.</I> If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(B) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients on whose behalf it is adhering, then for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(A) or 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) above, as applicable, it may communicate the name or identity of additional Clients on whose behalf it is adhering (through a Platform) to another Adhering Party after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter and, as between that other Adhering Party and the additional Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates the identity of that additional Client to the other Adhering Party through that Platform for those purposes (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Clients Removed from an Agent's List of Excluded Clients after the date of Acceptance by ISDA of the Agent's Adherence Letter.</I> If an Agent adheres to this Protocol using the approach described in subparagraph 3(g)(i)(C) above and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients as excluded from adherence, then for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(A) or 3(g)(ii)(B)(I) above, as applicable, the Agent may, after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter, remove one or more of those Clients from its list of excluded Clients through a Platform and, as between any other Adhering Party and that Client, the Implementation Date shall be the date shown on the Platform as the date on which the Agent communicates to the other Adhering Party that the Client is removed from the list of excluded Clients (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter from that other Adhering Party), unless otherwise agreed between such Agent and such Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Clients Added to an Agent's List of Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies.</I> If an Agent adheres to this Protocol, elects for Option 2 in its Adherence Letter and therefore specifically names or identifies one or more Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies, then it may name or identify additional Clients in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above applies (through a Platform) after the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of its Adherence Letter.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Authority to amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents.</I> If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and elects for Option 2 (as described in subparagraph 3(g)(ii) above), then, in respect of each Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, the Implementation Date shall be the day on which the Agent is deemed to have provided evidence supporting the Agent's authority to amend such Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document to the other Adhering Party pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) above and, for the purposes of subparagraph 3(g)(iii) above, with respect to such Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents only, the Agent's adherence will be deemed effective on that day.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Implementation Date if both an Agent and a Client adhere to this Protocol or if more than one Agent adheres for a Client.</I> If an Agent adheres to this Protocol and, in respect of a particular Client and a Protocol Covered Document into which the Agent has entered on behalf of that Client or a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document, there is, pursuant to the terms of this Protocol, more than one Implementation Date, then, notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in this Protocol, the Implementation Date shall be the first of those dates to occur.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Adhering Party that is an Agent with respect to a Protocol Covered Document.</I> An Adhering Party that executes a Protocol Covered Document (including an annex thereto) as agent with respect to that Protocol Covered Document, shall not for purposes of this Protocol be considered to be a party to or to have entered into such Protocol Covered Document solely by acting as agent with respect to that Protocol Covered Document except as expressly provided therein.
</P>
<HD1>4. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>References in this Protocol and the Attachment to the following terms shall have the following meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Additional Credit Support Document</I> means the documents (which, for the avoidance of doubt, shall be deemed to include any annexes or appendices thereto) set out in Part 2 of the Additional Documents Annex to this Protocol.
</P>
<P><I>Additional Master Agreement</I> means the documents (which, for the avoidance of doubt, shall be deemed to include any annexes or appendices thereto) set out in Part 1 of the Additional Documents Annex to this Protocol.
</P>
<P><I>Adherence Letter</I> has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
</P>
<P><I>Adhering Party</I> has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof, as construed in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above where relevant.
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means an entity that enters into a Protocol Covered Document (or which has the authority to amend a Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Document) and executes and delivers an Adherence Letter with respect to this Protocol on behalf of, and as agent for, one or more Clients. With respect to paragraph 3(h) above, Agent also means an entity that enters into a Protocol Covered Document and executes and delivers an Adherence Letter pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(i) above solely for purposes of amending such agreements to which New Clients may be added under paragraph 3(h) above.
</P>
<P><I>Agent Protocol Covered Document</I> means any Protocol Covered Document signed by the Agent on behalf of one or more Clients prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere), including any agreement that is signed as an umbrella agreement by an Agent and an Adhering Party prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the Agent and the other Adhering Party to adhere) which would be a Protocol Covered Document but for the absence of any underlying Client which is an Adhering Party.
</P>
<P><I>Client</I> means, with respect to an Agent, a client, investor, fund, account and/or other principal on whose behalf the Agent acts.
</P>
<P><I>Confirmation</I> means, in respect of a transaction, one or more documents or other confirming evidence exchanged between the parties or otherwise effective for the purpose of confirming or evidencing the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet</I> means each of the 2006 ISDA Definitions, the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions, the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions and the 1991 ISDA Definitions, each as published by ISDA.
</P>
<P><I>Credit Support Document</I> means, in respect of an Adhering Party and a Protocol Covered Document, any document in effect on the Implementation Date, which by its terms secures, guarantees or otherwise supports such Adhering Party's obligations under such Protocol Covered Document from time to time, whether or not such document is specified as such therein or in the Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P><I>Cut-off Date</I> has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 1(b) above.
</P>
<P><I>IBOR Fallbacks Supplement</I> has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
</P>
<P><I>Identification Date</I> has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above.
</P>
<P><I>Implementation Date</I> has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 1(c)(B) above.
</P>
<P><I>ISDA</I> has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
</P>
<P><I>ISDA Credit Support Document</I> means each of the following documents:
</P>
<P>(a) 1994 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form; ISDA Agreements Subject to New York Law Only);
</P>
<P>(b) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to English law);
</P>
<P>(c) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Deed (Bilateral Form—Security Interest; ISDA Agreements Subject to English Law);
</P>
<P>(d) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Loan and Pledge; Security Interest Subject to Japanese Law);
</P>
<P>(e) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreement Subject to French Law);
</P>
<P>(f) 1995 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreement Subject to Irish Law);
</P>
<P>(g) 2008 ISDA Credit Support Annex (Loan/Japanese Pledge);
</P>
<P>(h) 2013 Standard Credit Support Annex (New York Law);
</P>
<P>(i) 2013 Standard Credit Support Annex (English Law);
</P>
<P>(j) 2014 Standard Credit Support Annex (New York Law—Multicurrency Settlement);
</P>
<P>(k) 2014 Standard Credit Support Annex (English Law—Multicurrency Settlement);
</P>
<P>(l) 2014 ISDA Korean Law Credit Support Annex (Bilateral Form—Loan and Pledge; Credit Support Annex Subject to Korean Law);
</P>
<P>(m) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form; ISDA Agreements Subject to New York Law Only), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
</P>
<P>(n) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to English Law), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
</P>
<P>(o) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Loan; ISDA Agreements Subject to Japanese Law), including any such form entered into between the Parties pursuant to the ISDA 2016 Variation Margin Protocol;
</P>
<P>(p) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to French Law); or
</P>
<P>(q) 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM) (Bilateral Form—Transfer; ISDA Agreements Subject to Irish Law).
</P>
<P><I>ISDA Master Agreement</I> means an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement, an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement (French law), an ISDA 2002 Master Agreement (Irish law), a 1992 ISDA Master Agreement (Multicurrency—Cross Border), a 1992 ISDA Master Agreement (Local Currency—Single Jurisdiction), a 1987 ISDA Interest Rate Swap Agreement or a 1987 ISDA Interest Rate and Currency Exchange Agreement, in each case as published by ISDA.
</P>
<P><I>Master Agreement</I> means an agreement which may be an ISDA Master Agreement or an Additional Master Agreement that has been entered into (a) by execution by the parties thereto (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent) or (b) by execution by the parties thereto (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent) of a Confirmation pursuant to which a party is deemed to have entered into an ISDA Master Agreement or an Additional Master Agreement with the other party.
</P>
<P><I>New Client</I> has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 3(h)(i) above.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents</I> has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) above.
</P>
<P><I>Platform</I> has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 3(g)(i)(A) above.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol</I> has the meaning given to such term in the introductory paragraphs hereof.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Business Day</I> means a day following the Protocol Effective Date on which commercial banks and foreign exchange markets are generally open to settle payments in both London and New York.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Covered Confirmation</I> means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, a Confirmation which is entered into between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
</P>
<P>(a) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
</P>
<P>(b) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and references a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that Confirmation); and/or
</P>
<P>(c) supplements, forms part of and is subject to, or is otherwise governed by, a Master Agreement and references a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Covered Credit Support Document</I> 
<SU>1</SU> means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, any ISDA Credit Support Document or Additional Credit Support Document which is entered into between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
</P>
<P>(a) Incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
</P>
<P>(b) References a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that ISDA Credit Support Document or Additional Credit Support Document); and/or
</P>
<P>(c) References a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
</P>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Note that the parties to any credit support document that is amended by the Protocol should consider whether they need to take any steps to reconfirm or retake any security or otherwise satisfy any formalities under or in connection with the relevant credit support document as a result of the amendment made by the Protocol.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Covered Document Date</I> means, in respect of any document, the date of such document, howsoever described therein, provided that (a) if such document has different dates specified therein, one of which includes a date specified as an “as of” date, such date shall be the Protocol Covered Document Date, and (b) if such document is a Confirmation (other than a master confirmation agreement, including any related general terms confirmation), the Protocol Covered Document Date shall be the Trade Date.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Covered Documents</I> means Protocol Covered Confirmations, Protocol Covered Master Agreements and Protocol Covered Credit Support Documents, other than any such documentation governing cleared transactions (including any transactions that are “Client Transactions” (or in substance equivalent) under a 2016 ISDA/FIA Client Cleared OTC Derivatives Addendum or any agreement that in substance relates to the same matters as those contemplated by the 2016 ISDA/FIA Client Cleared OTC Derivatives Addendum between a clearing member and its client).
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Covered Master Agreement</I> means, subject to subparagraph 3(g)(vi) above, a Master Agreement which is entered into (or deemed entered into) between two Adhering Parties (whether directly or through the agency of an Agent and, if through the agency of an Agent, whether executed by that Agent or by an entity on behalf of that Agent), has a Protocol Covered Document Date prior to the Protocol Effective Date (or, if later, the date of acceptance by ISDA, as agent, of an Adherence Letter (in accordance with paragraph 1(b) above) from the later of the two Adhering Parties to adhere) and:
</P>
<P>(a) Incorporates a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet;
</P>
<P>(b) References a Relevant IBOR “as defined” in, or otherwise provides that the Relevant IBOR has the meaning given in, a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet (regardless of whether such Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is incorporated in full in that Master Agreement); and/or
</P>
<P>(c) References a Relevant IBOR, howsoever defined.
</P>
<P><I>Protocol Effective Date</I> has the meaning given to such term in subparagraph 1(c)(A) above.
</P>
<P><I>Relevant IBOR</I> means:
</P>
<P>(a) Any of sterling LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), Swiss franc LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), U.S. dollar LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), euro LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), the euro interbank offered rate, Japanese yen LIBOR (London interbank offered rate), the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the bank bill swap rate, the Canadian dollar offered rate, the Hong Kong interbank offered rate, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate and the Thai baht interest rate fixing; and
</P>
<P>(b) LIBOR (London interbank offered rate) with no reference to, or indication of, the currency of the relevant LIBOR (London interbank offered rate) (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the reference in Section 7.3 (<I>Corrections to Published Prices</I>) of the 2005 ISDA Commodity Definitions to “the spot offered rate for deposits in the payment currency in the London interbank market as at approximately 11:00 a.m., London time”), in each case, howsoever defined or described (whether in English or in any other language) in the relevant Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P><I>Revocation Date</I> means, with respect to a Revocation Notice and an Adhering Party, the last Protocol Business Day of the calendar month following the calendar month in which that Revocation Notice is effectively delivered by that Adhering Party to ISDA.
</P>
<P><I>Revocation Notice</I> has the meaning given to such term in paragraph 1(e) above.
</P>
<P><I>Third Party</I> means, in relation to an agreement supported by a Third Party Credit Support Document, any party to such Third Party Credit Support Document other than either of the Adhering Parties which are parties to the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Third Party Credit Support Document</I> means, with respect to an Adhering Party and a Protocol Covered Document, any Credit Support Document which is executed by one or more Third Parties (whether or not an Adhering Party is a party thereto), whether or not such document is specified as a Third Party Support Document or as a Credit Support Document therein or in the Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P><I>Trade Date</I> means, in respect of a Protocol Covered Confirmation (other than a master confirmation agreement, including any related general terms confirmation), the date on which the parties enter into the related transaction.
</P>
<HD1>Exhibit 1 to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<HD3>Form of Adherence Letter
</HD3>
<FP-DASH/>
<HD3>[Letterhead of Adhering Party]
</HD3>
<HD3>[Date]
</HD3>
<HD3>International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc.
</HD3>
<HD3>Ladies and Gentlemen,
</HD3>
<HD1>ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of this letter is to confirm our adherence to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol as published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) on October 23, 2020 (the Protocol). By submitting this Adherence Letter, we confirm that we are an Adhering Party to the Protocol. This letter constitutes, as between each other Adhering Party and us, an Adherence Letter as referred to in the Protocol. The definitions and provisions contained in the Protocol are incorporated into this Adherence Letter, which will supplement and form part of each Protocol Covered Document between us and each other Adhering Party.
</P>
<HD2>1. Specified Terms for Adhering Party as Principal
</HD2>
<P>As between each Adhering Party and us, we acknowledge and agree that the amendments in the Attachment to the Protocol shall apply to each Protocol Covered Document to which we are a party in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter.
</P>
<HD2>2. Appointment as Agent and Release
</HD2>
<P>We hereby appoint ISDA as our agent for the limited purposes of the Protocol and accordingly we waive any rights and hereby release ISDA from any claims, actions or causes of action whatsoever (whether in contract, tort or otherwise) arising out of or in any way relating to this Adherence Letter or our adherence to the Protocol or any actions contemplated as being required by ISDA.
</P>
<HD2>3. Arbitration Agreement and Class Action Waiver
</HD2>
<P>By adhering to the Protocol, we agree that all claims or disputes arising out of or in connection with adherence to the Protocol shall be finally settled under the Rules of Arbitration of the International Chamber of Commerce (the Rules) by three arbitrators, and hereby waive any right to assert any such claims or disputes against ISDA as a representative or member in any class or representative action. The claimant(s) (as defined in the Rules) shall nominate one arbitrator in the `Request for Arbitration'. The respondent(s) (as defined in the Rules) shall nominate one arbitrator in the `Answer to the Request'. The two party-nominated arbitrators shall then have 30 days to agree, in consultation with the parties to the arbitration, upon the nomination of a third arbitrator to act as president of the tribunal, barring which the International Chamber of Commerce Court shall select the third arbitrator (or any arbitrator that claimant(s) or respondent(s) shall fail to nominate in accordance with the foregoing). This agreement to arbitrate shall not be affected by the Revocation Notice as described in the Protocol.
</P>
<HD2>4. Payment
</HD2>
<P>Each Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, each Agent, that is classified by ISDA for purposes of membership of ISDA as an “ISDA Primary Member” must submit a one-time fee of U.S. $500 to ISDA at or before the submission of this Adherence Letter. Each Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, each Agent, which is not an “ISDA Primary Member” is not required to submit a fee to ISDA if this Adherence Letter is submitted prior to the Protocol Effective Date. If an Adhering Party or, if such Adhering Party is a Client on whose behalf an Agent adheres to this Protocol, an Agent, which is not an “ISDA Primary Member” submits this Adherence Letter on or after the Protocol Effective Date, such Adhering Party or Agent (as applicable) must submit a one-time fee of U.S. $500 to ISDA at or before the submission of this Adherence Letter.
</P>
<HD2>5. Contact Details
</HD2>
<P>Our contact details for purposes of this Adherence Letter are:
</P>
<FP>Name:
</FP>
<FP>Company Name:
</FP>
<FP>Address:
</FP>
<FP>Phone:
</FP>
<FP>Fax:
</FP>
<FP>Email:
</FP>
<P>We consent to the publication of a conformed copy of this letter by ISDA and to the disclosure by ISDA of the contents of this letter.
</P>
<HD3>Yours faithfully,
</HD3>
<HD3>[ADHERING PARTY]
<SU>2</SU>
</HD3>
<HD3>By:
</HD3>
<HD3>Name:
</HD3>
<HD3>Title:
</HD3>
<P>
<SU>Note 2:</SU> Specify legal name of Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>If you are an Agent, you may sign the Adherence Letter using one of the options below. Please note that, if you would like to adhere on behalf of yourself, as principal, and also on behalf of your Clients, as Agent, you must submit one adherence letter for yourself, as principal, and a second adherence letter on behalf of your Clients, as Agent, in the latter case, in accordance with one of the options set out below.
</P>
<P>First, if you have the authority to adhere to this Protocol as Agent on behalf of all Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document in the future [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. If such a signature block is used, a separate Adherence Letter for each Client does not need to be submitted to ISDA and no specific names of Clients must be identified through a Platform (except if you elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, in which case the Clients on whose behalf you are amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents should be identified through such Platform; you will be responsible for identifying such Clients and providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the Clients by way of LEIs, you may identify such Clients using LEIs and without including any names). If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
</P>
<P>Second, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of certain Clients only by specifically identifying such Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each a “Client”) which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document and identified through a Platform as a New Client [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. You will be responsible for identifying any Clients on whose behalf you have entered into, or will enter into, a Protocol Covered Document, any New Clients and any Clients on whose behalf you amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents and, in each case, providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the Clients by way of LEIs, you may identify such Clients using LEIs and without including any names. If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
</P>
<P>Third, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of certain Clients only by excluding certain Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of [(a)] each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) on whose behalf we have entered, or will enter, into a Protocol Covered Document (except for those Clients which we identify through a Platform as excluded from adherence) and any New Clients added to an Agent Protocol Covered Document (except for any New Clients which we identify through a Platform as excluded from adherence) [and (b) in respect of any Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, each Client which we name or identify through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies]”. You will be responsible for identifying any excluded Clients and any Clients on whose behalf you amend Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents and, in each case, for providing their LEIs. If you cannot or do not wish to name those excluded Clients or those Clients on whose behalf you are amending Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents, then provided that you can identify them by way of LEIs, you may identify those Clients using LEIs and without including any names. If you do not elect for Option 2 in this Adherence Letter, you should delete the wording in square brackets in the signature block.
</P>
<P>Fourth, if you adhere to this Protocol as an agent on behalf of no current Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting to amend each Protocol Covered Document (or other agreement which deems a Protocol Covered Document to have been created) between it (as agent) and each Adhering Party, with respect to New Clients.”
</P>
<HD1>Specified Terms for Adhering Party as Agent 
<SU>3</SU>
</HD1>
<P><I>The election for Option 1 or Option 2 below should only be made by an Agent. Any entity which adheres to the Protocol and which is not acting as an Agent should not complete the election below.</I>
</P>
<P>As between each Adhering Party and us, we acknowledge and agree that the amendments in the Attachment to the Protocol shall apply to each:
</P>
<HD2>Option 1
</HD2>
<P>□ Protocol Covered Document into which we have entered on behalf of one or more Clients covered in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter (as contemplated by Option 1 in the Protocol); or
</P>
<HD2>Option 2
</HD2>
<P>□ Protocol Covered Document into (i) which we have entered on behalf of one or more Clients covered in accordance with the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter and (ii) which we did not enter on behalf of one or more Clients but which we otherwise have the authority from the relevant Client to amend in accordance with and subject to the terms of the Protocol and this Adherence Letter (as contemplated by Option 2 in the Protocol).
</P>
<P>We agree, in our capacity as Agent for the relevant Client(s), to provide each other Adhering Party, as soon as reasonably practicable following such other Adhering Party's written request (including by email), and in any event by no later than the end of the fifteenth calendar day following such request (and as required by and in accordance with subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol), with reasonable evidence satisfactory to such other Adhering Party in its sole discretion supporting our authority to amend any Protocol Covered Document into which we did not enter on behalf of one or more Clients (whose name or identity we communicate to the other Adhering Party through a Platform as being a Client in respect of which subparagraph 3(g)(ii)(B)(II) of the Protocol applies).
</P>
<P>Failure to provide an Adhering Party with such evidence shall (unless the Agent is deemed to have provided such evidence, pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol), only in respect of those Non-Agent Executed Protocol Covered Documents between the relevant Client(s) and such Adhering Party, result in this Adherence Letter being ineffective unless and until we, in our capacity as Agent for the relevant Client(s), are deemed to have provided that Adhering Party with such evidence pursuant to subparagraph 3(g)(iv) of the Protocol. Failure to provide an Adhering Party with such evidence shall not give rise to a Potential Event of Default or an Event of Default (each as defined in the ISDA Master Agreement), or any similar event, under those Protocol Covered Documents or other contractual right of action under this Protocol or those Protocol Covered Documents.
</P>
<P>
<SU>Note 3:</SU> The descriptions of Option 1 and Option 2 in this Adherence Letter and of related provisions within the Protocol are intended for convenience of reference only. Adhering Parties should read the provisions of the Protocol before submitting an Adherence Letter. In the event of any inconsistency between the descriptions of Option 1 and Option 2 and related provisions in this Adherence Letter and the provisions of the Protocol, the provisions of the Protocol shall take precedence.
</P>
<HD1>EXHIBIT 2 to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<HD3>Form of Revocation Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>[Letterhead of Adhering Party]
</HD3>
<HD3>[Date]
</HD3>
<HD3>International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. Send to: <I>isda@isda.org</I>
</HD3>
<HD3>Ladies and Gentlemen,
</HD3>
<HD1>ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol—Designation of a Revocation Date
</HD1>
<P>The purpose of this letter is to notify you that we wish to designate a Revocation Date as the last date on which an Implementation Date can occur pursuant to the terms of the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol as published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (ISDA) on October 23, 2020 (the Protocol) in respect of any Protocol Covered Document between us and any other Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>This letter constitutes a Revocation Notice as referred to in the Protocol.
</P>
<P>We consent to the publication of the conformed copy of this notice by ISDA on and after the Revocation Date and to the disclosure by ISDA of the contents of this letter.
</P>
<HD3>Yours faithfully,
</HD3>
<HD3>[ADHERING PARTY]
<SU>4</SU>
</HD3>
<HD3>By:
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<P>
<SU>Note 4:</SU> Specify legal name of Adhering Party.
</P>
<P>If you are an Agent and act on behalf of multiple Clients, you may sign a Revocation Notice using one of the methods below. Alternatively, you may submit one Revocation Notice per Client.
</P>
<P>First, if you have the authority to deliver a Revocation Notice for this Protocol as Agent on behalf of all Clients, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) represented by us (as agent)” or such other language which indicates the Clients to which this letter is applicable. If such a signature block is used, a separate Revocation Notice for each Client does not need to be submitted to ISDA and no specific names of Clients must be identified in the Revocation Notice.
</P>
<P>Second, if you have the authority to deliver a Revocation Notice for this Protocol as Agent on behalf of certain Clients only, you may indicate the following in the signature block: “acting on behalf of each fund, account or other principal (each, a “Client”) represented by us (as agent) identified in the Revocation Notice or an appendix thereto”. If you cannot or do not wish to name such Clients, then provided that you can identify the revoking Clients by way of specific identifiers which will be known and recognized by allAdhering Parties with which the relevant Clients have entered into Confirmations, Master Agreements and/or credit support documents, you may identify such revoking Clients using specific identifiers and without including any names.
</P>
<P>Paragraph 1(e) of the Protocol sets out the consequences of a Revocation Notice where an Agent adheres to the Protocol on behalf of a Client.
</P>
<HD1>ANNEX to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<HD2>Additional Documents Annex
</HD2>
<HD1>Part 1: Additional Master Agreements
</HD1>
<P>(a) 2001 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) 2007 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
</P>
<P>(c) 2013 FBF Master Agreement relating to Transactions on Forward Financial Instruments.
</P>
<P>(d) 1994 AFB Master Agreement for Foreign Exchange and Derivatives Transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) 1997 AFTI/FBF Master Agreement for Loans of Securities.
</P>
<P>(f) 2007 AFTI/FBF Master Agreement for Loans of Securities.
</P>
<P>(g) 2007 FBF Master Agreement for Repurchase Transactions.
</P>
<P>(h) 1994 AFTB Master Agreement for Repurchase Transactions with Delivery of Securities.
</P>
<P>(i) Execution Annex with respect to the AFB/FBF 1994/2001/2007/2013 Master Agreements.
</P>
<P>(j) 1997 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(k) Annex III to the 1997 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(l) 2009 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(m) Annex III to the 2009 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(n) 2013 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(o) Annex III to the 2013 Spanish Master Agreement (Contrato Marco de Operaciones Financieras or CMOF) published by Asociación Española de Banca (Spanish Banking Association) and Confederación Española de Cajas de Ahorros (Spanish Confederation of Savings Banks).
</P>
<P>(p) 2003 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(q) 2013 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association (for use in connection with certain ISDA definitions).
</P>
<P>(r) 2013 Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association (non-ISDA version not for use in connection with any ISDA definitions).
</P>
<P>(s) 1999 Bilateral Swiss Master Agreement for Repo Transactions published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(t) 1999 Multilateral Swiss Master Agreement for Repo Transactions published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(u) 2011 Swiss Master Agreement for Securities Lending and Borrowing prepared by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(v) 2001 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
</P>
<P>(w) 2004 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
</P>
<P>(x) 2020 Master Agreement for Financial Transactions sponsored by the Banking Federation of the European Union (EBF or FBE) in cooperation with the European Savings Banks Group (ESBG) and the European Association of Cooperative Banks (EACB).
</P>
<P>(y) Austrian Master Agreement for Financial Transactions (Österreichischer Rahmenvertrag für Finanztermingeschäfte or ÖRV).
</P>
<P>(z) 1997 International Foreign Exchange and Options Master Agreement (FEOMA).
</P>
<P>(aa) 1993 International Foreign Exchange Master Agreement (IFEMA).
</P>
<P>(bb) 1997 International Foreign Exchange Master Agreement (IFEMA).
</P>
<P>(cc) 1997 International Currency Options Market (ICOM) Master Agreement.
</P>
<P>(dd) 2005 International Foreign Exchange and Currency Option Master Agreement (IFXCO).
</P>
<P>(ee) 1992 PSA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
</P>
<P>(ff) 1995 PSA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
</P>
<P>(gg) 2000 TBMA/ISMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
</P>
<P>(hh) 2011 SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA).
</P>
<P>(ii) 2000 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA).
</P>
<P>(jj) 2010 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA).
</P>
<P>(kk) 2018 ISLA Global Master Securities Lending Agreement (GMSLA)—Security Interest over Collateral.
</P>
<P>(ll) 1993 TBMA/SIA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
</P>
<P>(mm) 2000 TBMA/SIA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
</P>
<P>(nn) 2017 SIFMA Master Securities Loan Agreement (MSLA).
</P>
<P>(oo) 1987 PSA Master Repurchase Agreement (MRA).
</P>
<P>(pp) 1996 TBMA Master Repurchase Agreement (MRA).
</P>
<P>(qq) 2000 SIFMA Master OTC Options Agreement.
</P>
<P>(rr) 1989 TBMA Master Dealer Agreement, OTC Option Transaction—U.S. Treasury Securities.
</P>
<P>(ss) Emissions Master LF-IETA Master Agreement.
</P>
<P>(tt) WSPP Agreement.
</P>
<P>(uu) 2004 FIA Grid Trade Master Agreement.
</P>
<P>(vv) EEI Master Power Purchase &amp; Sale Agreement. (ww)
</P>
<P>EL Master—Electricity Power Master Agreement.
</P>
<P>(xx) 1994 LBMA/FEC International Bullion Master Agreement (English law version).
</P>
<P>(yy) 1994 LBMA/FEC International Bullion Master Agreement (New York law version).
</P>
<P>(zz) 1997 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
</P>
<P>(aaa) 2002 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
</P>
<P>(bbb) 2003 ASLA Australian Master Securities Lending Agreement (AMSLA).
</P>
<P>(ccc) GISB Base Short-Term Contract for Sale and Purchase of Natural Gas.
</P>
<P>(ddd) NAESB Base Contract for Sale and Purchase of Natural Gas.
</P>
<P>(eee) 1996 Master Gilt Edged Stock Lending Agreement (GESLA).
</P>
<P>(fff) 1996 Master Equity and Fixed Interest Stock Lending Agreement (MEFISLA).
</P>
<P>(ggg) 1994 Equity and Fixed Interest Stock Lending (Agency) Agreement.
</P>
<P>(hhh) 1994 Overseas Securities Lender's Agreement (OSLA).
</P>
<P>(iii) 1995 Overseas Securities Lender's Agreement (OSLA).
</P>
<P>(jjj) globalCOAL Standard Coal Trading Agreement (SCoTA).
</P>
<P>(kkk)

KOFIA Agreement on Margin Transactions.
</P>
<P>(lll) KOFIA Agreement on Foreign Exchange Margin Trading.
</P>
<P>(mmm) KOFIA Agreement on Securities Lending and Borrowing.
</P>
<P>(nnn) KOFIA Agreement on Repurchase Agreement (Repo) between Institutions.
</P>
<P>(ooo) KOFIA Agreement on Repurchase Agreement (Repo) with Customers.
</P>
<P>(ppp) KOFIA best practice Korean language agreement template for OTC derivatives.
</P>
<P>(qqq) Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC) Repurchase/Reverse Repurchase Transaction Agreement.
</P>
<P>(rrr) Master Agreement Concerning Stock Lending Transactions (<I>kabuken tou taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho</I>) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (<I>kabuken tou taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki</I>)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
</P>
<P>(sss) Master Agreement Concerning Bond Lending Transactions (<I>saiken taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho</I>) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (<I>saiken taishaku torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki</I>)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
</P>
<P>(ttt) Master Agreement Concerning Bond Repo Transactions (<I>saiken tou no gensaki torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho</I>) (including without limitation separate agreements to be executed pursuant to or in connection with that Master Agreement such as Supplemental Memorandum of Understanding (<I>saiken tou no gensaki torihiki ni kansuru kihon keiyakusho fuzoku oboegaki</I>)) published by Japan Securities Dealers Association.
</P>
<P>(uuu) Mexican Master Derivatives Agreement (Contrato Marco para Operaciones Financieras Derivadas) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
</P>
<P>(vvv) Mexican Master Securities Purchase and Sale/Repo Agreement (Contrato Marco para Operaciones de Compraventa de Valores y Reporto) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
</P>
<HD1>Part 2: Additional Credit Support Documents
</HD1>
<P>(a) 2007 FBF Collateral Annex.
</P>
<P>(b) 1997 ABF Collateral Annex.
</P>
<P>(c) AFB/FBF Addendum to the ISDA 2016 Credit Support Annex for Variation Margin (VM).
</P>
<P>(d) 2008 Credit Support Appendix to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(e) 2015 Credit Support Appendix to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(f) Credit Support Appendix for Variation Margin to the Swiss Master Agreement for OTC Derivative Instruments published by the Swiss Bankers Association.
</P>
<P>(g) Mexican Credit Support Agreement related to Derivatives (Contrato Global para Otorgar Garantías respecto de Operaciones Financieras Derivadas) published by Asociación de Bancos de Mexico (ABM) y Asociación Mexicana de Instituciones Bursatiles (AMIB).
</P>
<HD1>Attachment to the ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol
</HD1>
<HD1>1. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 2006 ISDA Definitions
</HD1>
<P>If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 2006 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 2006 ISDA Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement).
</P>
<HD1>2. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 2000 ISDA Definitions
</HD1>
<P>If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 2000 ISDA Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 2000 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 2000 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Each of the following sections shall be deleted:
</P>
<P>(i) “<I>GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) “<I>CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) “<I>USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) “<I>EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(v) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(viii) “<I>AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ix) “<I>CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”;</I> and
</P>
<P>(x) “<I>HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(b) The section titled “<I>EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters”</I> will be re-titled “<I>EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be deleted and replaced with “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”;
</P>
<P>(c) The section titled “<I>AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”</I> will be re-titled “<I>AUD-BBR-ISDC”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be deleted and replaced with “AUD- BBR-ISDC”;
</P>
<P>(d) The section titled “<I>SGD-SOR-VWAP”</I> will be re-titled “<I>SGD-SOR-Telerate”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be deleted and replaced with “SGD-SOR- Telerate”;
</P>
<P>(e) Tn the section titled “<I>THB-THBFIX-Reuters”,</I> the paragraph entitled “<I>No Index Cessation Effective Date”</I> shall be deemed amended as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The words “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” as the applicable Floating Rate Option” will be deleted and replaced with the words ““THB-SOR-Reference Banks” as the applicable Floating Rate Option, but with the following variations:” and subparagraphs (a), (b) and (c) of Section 7.1(z)(iii) of the 2000 ISDA Definitions will be inserted immediately thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The last sentence in that paragraph will be deleted; and
</P>
<P>(f) All references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 2000 ISDA Definitions.
</P>
<HD1>3. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions
</HD1>
<P>If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions, the version of the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions (as applicable) so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions and/or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, the 1991 ISDA Definitions as supplemented by the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, each of the following sections shall be deleted:
</P>
<P>(i) “<I>GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) “<I>CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) “<I>USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(iv) “<I>EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(v) “<I>EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters”;</I>
</P>
<P>(vi) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>“JPY-TIBOR-17097”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ix) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(x) “<I>AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(xi) “<I>CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(xii) “<I>HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”;</I> and
</P>
<P>(xiii) “<I>THB-THBFIX-Reuters”;</I>
</P>
<P>(b) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, each of the following sections shall be deleted:
</P>
<P>(i) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-ZTIBOR”;</I> and
</P>
<P>(ii) “<I>SGD-SOR-VWAP”;</I>
</P>
<P>(c) If the Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1991 ISDA Definitions as supplemented by the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions only, the section titled “<I>SGD-SOR-VWAP”</I> will be re-titled “<I>SGD-SOR-Telerate”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “SGD-SOR-VWAP” will be deleted and replaced with “SGD-SOR- Telerate”;
</P>
<P>(d) The section titled “<I>EUR-LIBOR-BBA”</I> will be re-titled “<I>XEU-LIBOR-BBA”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-LIBOR-BBA” will be deleted and replaced with “XEU- LIBOR-BBA”;
</P>
<P>(e) The section titled “<I>AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”</I> will be re-titled “<I>AUD-BBR-ISDC”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW” will be deleted and replaced with “AUD-BBR-ISDC”; and
</P>
<P>(f) All references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 1991 ISDA Definitions or the 1998 Supplement to the 1991 ISDA Definitions (as applicable).
</P>
<HD1>4. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Incorporating the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions
</HD1>
<P>If a Protocol Covered Document incorporates the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions:
</P>
<P>(a) the version of the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions so incorporated shall be amended in accordance with the terms of the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to a term defined in the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the term as defined in the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions as amended in accordance with the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement), provided that the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the following sections shall be deleted:
</P>
<P>(A) “<I>GBP-LIBOR-BBA”;</I>
</P>
<P>(B) “<I>GBP-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(C) “<I>CHF-LIBOR-BBA”;</I>
</P>
<P>(D) “<I>CHF-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(E) “<I>USD-LIBOR-BBA”;</I>
</P>
<P>(F) “<I>USD-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(G) “<I>EUR-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(H) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-FRASETT”;</I>
</P>
<P>(I) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-BBA”;</I>
</P>
<P>(J) “<I>JPY-LIBOR-BBA-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(K) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-17097”;</I>
</P>
<P>(L) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-TIBM-(All Banks)-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(M) “<I>JPY-TIBOR-ZTIBOR”;</I>
</P>
<P>(N) “<I>AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”;</I>
</P>
<P>(O) “<I>AUD-BBR-BBSW”;</I>
</P>
<P>(P) “<I>AUD-BBR-BBSW-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(Q) “<I>CAD-BA-CDOR”;</I>
</P>
<P>(R) “<I>CAD-BA-CDOR-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(S) “<I>HKD-HIBOR-HKAB”;</I>
</P>
<P>(T) “<I>HKD-HIBOR-HKAB-Bloomberg”;</I>
</P>
<P>(U) “<I>SGD-SOR-VWAP”;</I> and
</P>
<P>(V) “<I>THB-THBFIX-Reuters”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) the section titled “<I>EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters”</I> will be re-titled “<I>EUR-EURIBOR- Telerate”</I> and references in such section (or in related sections) to “EUR-EURIBOR-Reuters” will be deleted and replaced with “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) all references to section numbers within the 2006 ISDA Definitions will be deemed to be references to the equivalent sections within the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions.
</P>
<P>(b) If a Relevant Rate (as defined in the 1991 ISDA Definitions) is to be determined pursuant to Section 4.3(b) (<I>Price Source Fallbacks</I>) of the 1998 ISDA Euro Definitions and “rates for deposits in euros” referred to in that section are required for any determination but are not available, they shall be deemed to be references to a Relevant IBOR (and, in particular, the euro interbank offered rate) to which paragraph 6 of this Attachment applies.
</P>
<HD1>5. Amendments to Protocol Covered Documents Which Reference a Relevant IBOR “as defined”, or as Having the Meaning Given, in a Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet
</HD1>
<P>A Protocol Covered Document of the type described in subparagraph (b) of, respectively, the definition of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document or Protocol Covered Master Agreement shall be amended so that the reference to the Relevant IBOR “as defined in”, or the reference to the Relevant IBOR as having the meaning given in, the Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet will instead be a reference to the relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (or, if there is more than one relevant Rate Option, the first relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) for the Relevant IBOR “as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement” (and, if that Protocol Covered Document is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, any reference to the Relevant IBOR (as defined in that Protocol Covered Master Agreement) in a Confirmation which supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement will be a reference to the relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement (or, if there is more than one relevant Rate Option, the first relevant Rate Option in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement) for the Relevant IBOR “as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement”), provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) If the Relevant IBOR is:
</P>
<P>(i) “EUR-EURIBOR-Telerate”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “EUR-EURIBOR- Reuters”;
</P>
<P>(ii) “AUD-BBR-ISDC”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “AUD-BBR-AUBBSW”;
</P>
<P>(iii) “XEU-LIBOR-BBA”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “EUR-LIBOR-BBA”; and
</P>
<P>(iv) “SGD-SOR-Telerate”, it will be deemed to be a reference to “SGD-SOR-VWAP”, in each case, as defined in the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement; and
</P>
<P>(b) If the Relevant IBOR is “THB-THBFIX-Reuters” and the Covered ISDA Definitions Booklet is the 2000 ISDA Definitions, the IBOR Fallbacks Supplement shall be deemed amended in accordance with subparagraph 2(e) of this Attachment.
</P>
<HD1>6. Amendments to Certain Protocol Covered Documents That Reference a Relevant IBOR
</HD1>
<P>If a Protocol Covered Document is of the type described in subparagraph (c) of, respectively, the definition of Protocol Covered Confirmation, Protocol Covered Credit Support Document or Protocol Covered Master Agreement and, in each case, includes a reference to a Relevant IBOR pursuant to which the Relevant IBOR is required for any determination, and:
</P>
<P>(a) (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is neither the Singapore dollar swap offer rate nor the Thai baht interest rate fixing, (ii) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Relevant IBOR on the day on which it is required, and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Relevant IBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to the rate as provided by the administrator of the Relevant IBOR and published by an authorized distributor of the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR itself in respect of the day on which it is required. If neither an authorized distributor nor the administrator has published or provided the Relevant IBOR in respect of that day and an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Relevant IBOR has not occurred, then, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to:
</P>
<P>(A) A rate formally recommended for use by the administrator of the Relevant IBOR; or
</P>
<P>(B) A rate formally recommended for use by:
</P>
<P>(I) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is Swiss franc LIBOR, the competent authority responsible for supervising that rate or the administrator of that rate;
</P>
<P>(II) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is sterling LIBOR, euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, the supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR;
</P>
<P>(III) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Japan for the purposes of recommending an alternative rate for that Relevant IBOR (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Japan or another administrator) or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR;
</P>
<P>(IV) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is U.S. dollar LIBOR, the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Relevant IBOR or the administrator of the Relevant IBOR; and
</P>
<P>(V) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the bank bill swap rate, the Australian Securities and Investments Commission (or any successor to the Australian Securities and Investments Commission in its role as supervisor of the bank bill swap rate),
</P>
<P>In each case, during the period of non-publication of the Relevant IBOR and for so long as an Index Cessation Effective Date has not occurred. If a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available, that rate shall apply. If no such rate is available but, in respect of the Relevant IBOR, a rate described in subparagraph (B) above, if applicable, is available, that rate shall apply. If neither a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available nor a rate described in subparagraph (B) above, if applicable, is available, then the Calculation Agent shall determine a commercially reasonable alternative for the Relevant IBOR, taking into account any rate implemented by central counterparties and/or futures exchanges, in each case with trading volumes in derivatives or futures referencing the Relevant IBOR that the Calculation Agent considers sufficient for that rate to be a representative alternative rate.
</P>
<P>If the Relevant IBOR is the Hong Kong interbank offered rate and the Protocol Covered Document provides that the Hong Kong Association of Banks' (or any successor's) typhoon and rainstorm arrangements (as published on the Hong Kong Association of Banks' website or on any successor website) apply, then those typhoon and rainstorm arrangements shall continue to apply and shall take precedence over the provisions of this paragraph 6(a);
</P>
<P>(b) (i) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, (ii) the Singapore dollar swap offer rate has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate on the day on which it is required and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Singapore dollar swap offer rate will be deemed to be a reference to the substitute rate announced by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or its successor as administrator or sponsor of that rate) in respect of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate.
</P>
<P>If ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or its successor as administrator or sponsor of that rate) has not announced a substitute rate by 9:00 p.m., Singapore time, on the Relevant Original Fixing Date and an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then, unless otherwise agreed by the parties, the reference to the Singapore dollar swap offer rate will be deemed to be a reference to:
</P>
<P>(A) A rate formally recommended for use by the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate; or
</P>
<P>(B) A rate formally recommended for use by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate) or a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or any other supervisor which is responsible for supervising the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the administrator of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate), in each case, during the period of non-publication of the Singapore dollar swap offer rate and for so long as an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred. If a rate described in subparagraph (A) above is available, that rate shall apply. If no such rate is available but a rate described in subparagraph (B) above is available, that rate shall apply. If neither a rate described in subparagraph (A) above nor a rate described in subparagraph (B) above is available, then the Calculation Agent shall determine a commercially reasonable alternative for the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, taking into account any rate implemented by central counterparties and/or futures exchanges, in each case with trading volumes in derivatives or futures referencing the Singapore dollar swap offer rate that the Calculation Agent considers sufficient for that rate to be a representative alternative rate;
</P>
<P>(c) (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Thai baht interest rate fixing, (ii) the Thai baht interest rate fixing has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Thai baht interest rate fixing on the day on which it is required and (iii) an Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, then the reference to the Thai baht interest rate fixing will be deemed to be a reference to “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) but with the references to (A) “Reset Date” being replaced by “the day on which the rate is required”; (B) “Designated Maturity” being replaced by “the period of time in respect of which the Thai baht interest rate fixing is to be determined”; (C) “Calculation Period” being replaced by “period”; and (D) “Representative Amount” being replaced by “an amount that is representative for a single transaction in the relevant market at the relevant time”. If the rate cannot be determined pursuant to “THB-THBFIX-Reference Banks” (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) andan Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR has not occurred, the rate will be determined by the Calculation Agent taking into consideration all available information that in good faith it deems relevant;
</P>
<P>(d) Subject to paragraphs 6(e), (f) and (g) below, an Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to the Relevant IBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR), then the reference to the Relevant IBOR will be deemed to be a reference to the Applicable Fallback Rate from and including either the Index Cessation Effective Date or, if the Relevant IBOR is observed on a day that is a period of time prior to the date for which the Relevant IBOR is set, such period of time following the Index Cessation Effective Date, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA), Fallback Rate (HONIA), Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX), then the rate for the Relevant Original Fixing Date will be the Applicable Fallback Rate for the `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or, if Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX) is the Applicable Fallback Rate, for the `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable) that corresponds to the Relevant Original Fixing Date, as most recently provided or published as at the Applicable Cut-off Time. If neither the provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate (or a successor provider, which, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA) or Fallback Rate (HONIA), is approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time) provides, nor any authorized distributors publish, the Applicable Fallback Rate for that `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or that `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable) at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to that Applicable Fallback Rate has not occurred, then the rate for the Relevant Original Fixing Date will be the Applicable Fallback Rate as most recently provided or published at the Applicable Cut-off Time for the most recent `Original IBOR Rate Record Day' (or `Original SOR Rate Record Day' or `Original THBFIX Rate Record Day', as applicable), notwithstanding that such day does not correspond to the Relevant Original Fixing Date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If (A) the Applicable Fallback Rate is SONIA, the GBP Recommended Rate, SARON, the NWG Recommended Rate, the Modified SNB Policy Rate, SOFR, the Fed Recommended Rate, OBFR, the FOMC Target Rate, EuroSTR, the ECB Recommended Rate, Modified EDFR, TONA, the JPY Recommended Rate, AONIA, the RBA Recommended Rate, CORRA, the CAD Recommended Rate, the BOC Target Rate, HONIA, the HKD Recommended Rate, the MAS Recommended Rate, SORA, the BOT Recommended Rate or THOR, (B) neither the administrator provides nor authorized distributors publish that Applicable Fallback Rate (or if the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition thereof) and (C) a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to that Applicable Fallback Rate has not occurred, then, in respect of any day for which that Applicable Fallback Rate is required, references to that Applicable Fallback Rate will be deemed to be references to the last provided or published Applicable Fallback Rate. If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to that Applicable Fallback Rate in subparagraph 6(d)(ii)(C) above shall be deemed to be references to the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is UK Bank Rate, in respect of any day for which the UK Bank Rate is required, references to the UK Bank Rate will be deemed to be references to the last provided or published UK Bank Rate as at close of business in London on that day.
</P>
<P>If the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, an Index Cessation Event with respect to U.S. dollar LIBOR will also occur if the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) has not been published by the source that is specified or otherwise ordinarily used to determine the level of the Relevant IBOR and, as of the Relevant Original Fixing Date, U.S. dollar LIBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) has been permanently discontinued or is Non-Representative and there is either no U.S. dollar LIBOR which has not been permanently discontinued and which is not Non-Representative for a period which is longer than that relevant tenor or no U.S. dollar LIBOR which has not been permanently discontinued and which is not Non-Representative for a period which is shorter than that relevant tenor. The related Index Cessation Effective Date shall be the first date on which there is no such longer or shorter rate or, if later, the first date on which U.S. dollar LIBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Designated Maturity”) is permanently unavailable or Non-Representative.
</P>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph 6(d), references to an “Original IBOR Rate Record Day”, “Original SOR Rate Record Day” and “Original THBFIX Rate Record Day” are to that term as used on the Fallback Rate Screen. For the purposes of the immediately preceding paragraph above, (A) references to a rate being “permanently discontinued” or “permanently unavailable” shall be deemed to be references to such rate being permanently discontinued or permanently unavailable following a public statement or publication of information which would constitute an Index Cessation Event in accordance with subparagraphs (a) and (b) of the definition thereof in respect of that rate in the relevant tenor and (B) references to “U.S. dollar LIBOR” in the definition of “Non-Representative” shall be deemed to be references to the relevant tenor of U.S. dollar LIBOR;
</P>
<P>(e) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is neither the Singapore dollar swap offer rate nor the Thai baht interest rate fixing and:
</P>
<P>(i) The determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates, each of which is based on the Relevant IBOR, then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.9(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.9(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is to be determined by reference to one or more rates, either (A) at least one of which has been permanently discontinued, or (B) if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, at least one of which is Non-Representative, and, in either case, at least two Relevant IBOR tenors, at least one of which is shorter than the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined and at least one of which is longer than the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined, have not been permanently discontinued (and, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, are not Non- Representative), then the provisions of Section 8.5 and Section 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Sections 8.5 and 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is to be determined by reference to a tenor of the Relevant IBOR which has been permanently discontinued (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, which is Non-Representative), and there are either no shorter or no longer tenors in respect of the Relevant IBOR which have not been permanently discontinued (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, which are not Non-Representative), then an Index Cessation Event shall be deemed to have occurred with respect to the Relevant IBOR and the Index Cessation Effective Date shall be the first date on which there is either no such shorter or no such longer tenor or, if later, the first date on which the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor is permanently unavailable (or, if the Relevant IBOR is a Relevant LIBOR, Non-Representative);
</P>
<P>(iv) In the event of any inconsistency between the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above and the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(i) above, subparagraph 6(e)(i) above shall prevail; and
</P>
<P>(v) In the event of any inconsistency between the provisions of subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above and paragraph 6(d) above (including any terms used in paragraph 6(d) above and defined below), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above (as applicable) shall prevail,
</P>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph 6(e), (A) references to a rate being “permanently discontinued” shall be deemed to be references to such rate being permanently discontinued following a public statement or publication of information which would constitute an Index Cessation Event in accordance with subparagraphs (a) and (b) of the definition thereof in respect of that rate in the relevant tenor, (B) references to the “Relevant LIBOR” in the definition of “Non-Representative” shall be deemed to be references to the relevant tenor of the Relevant LIBOR and (C) Section 7.9(a), 8.5 and 8.6 of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be construed in accordance with Sections 7.3(r) and 7.3(s) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions;
</P>
<P>(f) If the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing and the determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates, each of which is based on the Relevant IBOR, then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document.
</P>
<P>For the purposes of this paragraph 6(f), Section 7.10(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be construed in accordance with Sections 7.3(r) and 7.3(s) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions;
</P>
<P>(g) If (i) the Relevant IBOR which is required for that determination is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing and the Applicable Fallback Rate is Fallback Rate (SOR) or Fallback Rate (THBFIX), as applicable, (ii) the determination for which the Relevant IBOR is required is not ordinarily made by reference to linear interpolation between two rates and (iii) the period of time for which the rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Calculation Period”) is shorter than the Relevant IBOR in the relevant tenor (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Designated Maturity”), then (notwithstanding paragraph 6(d) above) the provisions of Section 7.11(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions shall be deemed to apply, provided that the Calculation Agent shall make such adaptations as are reasonable and necessary to the provisions of Section 7.11(a) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions in order to apply them to the relevant Protocol Covered Document; and
</P>
<P>(h) If the definition, methodology, formula or other means of calculating the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or, if applicable, the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) is modified, each party acknowledges that, unless otherwise specified or agreed, references to that Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) shall be to the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate (or the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the Relevant IBOR or the Applicable Fallback Rate) as modified. In the event of any inconsistency between this paragraph 6(h) and paragraphs 6(a) through 6(d) above (including any terms used in those paragraphs and defined below and including subparagraphs 6(e)(ii) and 6(e)(iii) above as they apply in priority to paragraph 6(d) above), paragraphs 6(a) through 6(d) above including subparagraphs 6(e)(ii) and 6(e)(iii) as they apply in priority to paragraph 6(d) above shall prevail.
</P>
<P>If the Relevant IBOR referenced in the Protocol Covered Document is LIBOR with no reference to, or indication of, the currency of the relevant LIBOR (including, for the avoidance of doubt, the reference in Section 7.3 (<I>Corrections to Published Prices</I>) of the 2005 ISDA Commodity Definitions to “the spot offered rate for deposits in the payment currency in the London interbank market as at approximately 11:00 a.m., London time”), then the reference to LIBOR (howsoever defined or described) in the Protocol Covered Document will be deemed to be a reference to LIBOR in the currency of the related payment for which LIBOR is required pursuant to the terms of the Protocol Covered Document and paragraphs 6(a), 6(d) and 6(e) above, and the related definitions below, shall be construed accordingly.
</P>
<P>For the purposes of any Protocol Covered Document which does not include a definition of “Calculation Agent”, the term “Calculation Agent” shall be deemed to be a reference to a party or parties who would ordinarily be responsible for calculating or determining any rates or amounts payable under the relevant Protocol Covered Document and performing any associated duties.
</P>
<P>If the Protocol Covered Document to which this paragraph 6 applies is a Protocol Covered Master Agreement, the Relevant IBOR is defined in the Protocol Covered Master Agreement and that definition is referenced in a Confirmation that supplements, forms part of and is subject to that Protocol Covered Master Agreement, then the reference in the Protocol Covered Master Agreement to the Relevant IBOR as amended by this paragraph 6 will also apply to the reference to the Relevant IBOR in that Confirmation.
</P>
<P>For these purposes:
</P>
<P>“<I>Applicable Banking Days</I>” means, if the Relevant IBOR is:
</P>
<P>(a) Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR or Japanese yen LIBOR, London Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
</P>
<P>(b) Euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, TARGET Settlement Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
</P>
<P>(c) The Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, Tokyo Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions);
</P>
<P>(d) The Singapore dollar swap offer rate, Singapore and London Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions); and
</P>
<P>(e) The Thai baht interest rate fixing, Bangkok Banking Days (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
</P>
<P>“<I>Applicable Cut-off Time</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(a) for Fallback Rate (SONIA), 11:30 a.m., London time;
</P>
<P>(b) for Fallback Rate (SARON), 8:30 p.m., Zurich time;
</P>
<P>(c) for Fallback Rate (SOFR), 10:30 a.m., New York City time;
</P>
<P>(d) for Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), 11:30 a.m., Frankfurt time;
</P>
<P>(e) for Fallback Rate (TONA), 12:30 p.m., Tokyo time;
</P>
<P>(f) for Fallback Rate (AONIA), 11:30 a.m., Sydney time;
</P>
<P>(g) for Fallback Rate (CORRA), 11:30 a.m., Toronto time;
</P>
<P>(h) for Fallback Rate (HONIA), 7:30 p.m., Hong Kong time;
</P>
<P>(i) for Fallback Rate (SOR), 11:30 a.m., New York City time; and
</P>
<P>(j) for Fallback Rate (THBFIX), 10:00 a.m., Bangkok time, in each case, on the Fallback Observation Day.
</P>
<P>“<I>Applicable Fallback Rate</I>” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR, for the purposes of:
</P>
<P>(a) Sterling LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) will be the Sterling Overnight Index Average (“SONIA”) rate administered by the Bank of England (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to SONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SONIA) and SONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA) will be the GBP Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to the GBP Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the GBP Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no GBP Recommended Rate before the end of the first London Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the end of the first London Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA), or there is a GBP Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SONIA) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the GBP Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be the UK Bank Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SONIA)” after making such adjustments to the UK Bank Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the UK Bank Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(b) Swiss franc LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SARON) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) will be the Swiss Average Rate Overnight (“SARON”) administered by SIX Swiss Exchange AG (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to SARON as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SARON by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SARON) and SARON, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON) will be the NWG Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to the NWG Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the NWG Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>If there is no NWG Recommended Rate before the end of the first Zurich Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the end of the first Zurich Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SARON) will be the Modified SNB Policy Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SARON)” after making such adjustments to the Modified SNB Policy Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the Modified SNB Policy Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SARON) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(c) U.S. dollar LIBOR, Fallback Rate (SOFR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) will be the Secured Overnight Financing Rate (“SOFR”) administered by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to SOFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SOFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (SOFR) and SOFR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR) will be the Fed Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to the Fed Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the Fed Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no Fed Recommended Rate before the end of the first U.S. Government Securities Business Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the end of the first U.S. Government Securities Business Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR), or there is a Fed Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to SOFR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Fed Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be OBFR, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to OBFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of OBFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>If there is no Fed Recommended Rate, or there is a Fed Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date also occurs with respect to OBFR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to OBFR (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the Fed Recommended Rate, SOFR or Fallback Rate (SOFR), as applicable) will be the FOMC Target Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOFR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” after making such adjustments to the FOMC Target Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the FOMC Target Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOFR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(d) Euro LIBOR and the euro interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) will be the Euro Short-Term Rate (“EuroSTR”) administered by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to EuroSTR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of EuroSTR by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and EuroSTR, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR) will be the ECB Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to the ECB Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the ECB Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>If no ECB Recommended Rate is recommended before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR), or a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate subsequently occurs, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, the Fallback IndexCessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be Modified EDFR, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)” after making such adjustments to Modified EDFR as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of Modified EDFR by comparison to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(e) Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate and the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (TONA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA) will be the Tokyo Overnight Average Rate (“TONA”) administered by the Bank of Japan (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (TONA)” after making such adjustments to TONA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of TONA by comparison to Fallback Rate (TONA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (TONA) and TONA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to TONA) will be the JPY Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (TONA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (TONA)” after making such adjustments to the JPY Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the JPY Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (TONA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(f) The bank bill swap rate, Fallback Rate (AONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA) will be the interbank overnight cash rate (“AONIA”) administered by the Reserve Bank of Australia (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (AONIA)” after making such adjustments to AONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of AONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (AONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (AONIA) and AONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to AONIA) will be the RBA Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (AONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (AONIA)” after making such adjustments to the RBA Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the RBA Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (AONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(g) The Canadian dollar offered rate, Fallback Rate (CORRA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) will be the Canadian Overnight Repo Rate Average (“CORRA”) administered by the Bank of Canada (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to CORRA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of CORRA by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (CORRA) and CORRA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA) will be the CAD Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to the CAD Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the CAD Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If there is no CAD Recommended Rate before the end of the first Toronto Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the end of the first Toronto Banking Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA), or there is a CAD Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to CORRA) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the CAD Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be the BOC Target Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (CORRA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (CORRA)” after making such adjustments to the BOC Target Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the BOC Target Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (CORRA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book;
</P>
<P>(h) The Hong Kong interbank offered rate, Fallback Rate (HONIA) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA) will be the Hong Kong Dollar Overnight Index Average (“HONIA”) rate administered by the Treasury Markets Association (or any successor administrator), to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (HONIA)” after making such adjustments to HONIA as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of HONIA by comparison to Fallback Rate (HONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book. If a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date occurs with respect to each of Fallback Rate (HONIA) and HONIA, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA) (or, if later, the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to HONIA) will be the HKD Recommended Rate, to which the Calculation Agent shall apply the most recently published spread, as at the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (HONIA), referred to in the definition of “Fallback Rate (HONIA)” after making such adjustments to the HKD Recommended Rate as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of the HKD Recommended Rate by comparison to Fallback Rate (HONIA) and by reference to the Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book; the Singapore dollar swap offer rate, Fallback Rate (SOR) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR) will be the MAS Recommended Rate or, if there is no MAS Recommended Rate before the end of the first Singapore Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR), or there is a MAS Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (SOR) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the MAS Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be SORA, to which the Calculation Agent shall make such adjustments as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of SORA by comparison to Fallback Rate (SOR) and by reference to the Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR); and
</P>
<P>(i) The Thai baht interest rate fixing, Fallback Rate (THBFIX) or if a Fallback Index Cessation Event has occurred with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX), then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) will be the BOT Recommended Rate or, if there is no BOT Recommended Rate before the end of the first Bangkok Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX), or there is a BOT Recommended Rate and a Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date subsequently occurs with respect to it, then the Applicable Fallback Rate for any Fallback Observation Day that occurs on or after the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) or the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to the BOT Recommended Rate (as applicable) will be THOR, to which the Calculation Agent shall make such adjustments as are necessary to account for any difference in term structure or tenor of THOR by comparison to Fallback Rate (THBFIX) and by reference to the Bank of Thailand THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book.
</P>
<P>“<I>Bank of Thailand THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book</I>” means the THBFIX Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book published by the Bank of Thailand as updated from time to time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Bloomberg IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book</I>” means the IBOR Fallback Rate Adjustments Rule Book published by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time) as updated from time to time in accordance with its terms.
</P>
<P>“<I>BOC Target Rate</I>” means the Bank of Canada's Target for the Overnight Rate as set by the Bank of Canada and published on the Bank of Canada's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
</P>
<P>“<I>BOT Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for Fallback Rate (THBFIX) by the Bank of Thailand or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Thailand (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Thailand or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate in respect of the day for which that rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date”) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>CAD Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for CORRA by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Canada for the purpose of recommending a replacement for CORRA (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Canada or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor. “Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR)” means the Calculation Methodology for Fallback Rate (SOR) published by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. as updated from time to time.
</P>
<P>“<I>ECB Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for EuroSTR by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator of EuroSTR) and/or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the European Central Bank (or any successor administrator of EuroSTR) for the purpose of recommending a replacement for EuroSTR (which rate may be produced by the European Central Bank or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>EDFR Spread</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(a) If no ECB Recommended Rate is recommended before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) (or, if later, before the end of the first TARGET Settlement Day following the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date with respect to EuroSTR), the arithmetic mean of the daily difference between EuroSTR and the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate over an observation period of 30 TARGET Settlement Days starting 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) occurs (or, if later, 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to EuroSTR occurs) and ending on the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) occurs (or, if later, the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to EuroSTR occurs); or
</P>
<P>(b) If a Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate occurs, the arithmetic mean of the daily difference between the ECB Recommended Rate and the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate over an observation period of 30 TARGET Settlement Days starting 30 TARGET Settlement Days prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to the ECB Recommended Rate occurs and ending on the TARGET Settlement Day immediately preceding the day on which that Fallback Index Cessation Event occurs.
</P>
<P>“<I>Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate</I>” means the rate on the deposit facility, which banks may use to make overnight deposits with the Eurosystem and which is published on the ECB's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date</I>” means, in respect of a Fallback Index Cessation Event, the first date on which the Applicable Fallback Rate is no longer provided. If the Applicable Fallback Rate ceases to be provided on the same day that it would have been observed but it was provided at the time at which it is ordinarily observed (or, if no such time is specified, at the time at which it is ordinarily published), then the Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date will be the next day on which the rate would ordinarily have been published. If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to the Applicable Fallback Rate in this definition of “Fallback Index Cessation Effective Date” shall be deemed to be references to the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Index Cessation Event</I>” means, in respect of an Applicable Fallback Rate:
</P>
<P>(a) A public statement or publication of information by or on behalf of the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate announcing that it has ceased or will cease to provide the Applicable FallbackRate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator or provider that will continue to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate; or
</P>
<P>(b) If the Applicable Fallback Rate is:
</P>
<P>(i) Fallback Rate (SONIA), Fallback Rate (SARON), Fallback Rate (SOFR), Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), Fallback Rate (TONA), Fallback Rate (AONIA), Fallback Rate (CORRA) or Fallback Rate (HONIA), a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Underlying Rate, the central bank for the currency of the Underlying Rate, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Underlying Rate, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Underlying Rate or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator for the Underlying Rate, which states that the administrator of the Underlying Rate has ceased or will cease to provide the Underlying Rate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Underlying Rate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) SONIA, the GBP Recommended Rate, SARON, the NWG Recommended Rate, the Modified SNB Policy Rate, SOFR, the Fed Recommended Rate, OBFR, the FOMC Target Rate, EuroSTR, the ECB Recommended Rate, Modified EDFR, TONA, the JPY Recommended Rate, AONIA, the RBA Recommended Rate, CORRA, the CAD Recommended Rate, the BOC Target Rate, HONIA, the HKD Recommended Rate, Fallback Rate (SOR), the MAS Recommended Rate, SORA, Fallback Rate (THBFIX), the BOT Recommended Rate or THOR, a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate, the central bank for the currency of the Applicable Fallback Rate, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator or provider for the Applicable Fallback Rate, which states that the administrator or provider of the Applicable Fallback Rate has ceased or will cease to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator or provider that will continue to provide the Applicable Fallback Rate.
</P>
<P>If the Applicable Fallback Rate is the Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, references to the administrator or provider of such rate in this definition of “Fallback Index Cessation Event” shall be deemed to be references to the administrator or provider of the index, benchmark or other price source that is referred to in the definition of Modified SNB Policy Rate or Modified EDFR, as applicable.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Observation Day</I>” means, in respect of an Applicable Fallback Rate and unless otherwise agreed, the day that is two Business Days (as defined in the relevant Protocol Covered Document or, if that term is not defined therein, as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions and, in each case, for the purposes of the payment which is calculated by reference to that Applicable Fallback Rate) preceding the day on which payment by reference to that rate is due (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be equivalent to the “Payment Date”).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (AONIA)</I>” means the term adjusted AONIA plus the spread relating to the bank bill swap rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted AONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the bank bill swap rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (CORRA)</I>” means the term adjusted CORRA plus the spread relating to the Canadian dollar offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted CORRA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the Canadian dollar offered rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (EuroSTR)</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(a) The term adjusted EuroSTR; plus
</P>
<P>(b) If the Relevant IBOR is:
</P>
<P>(i) Euro LIBOR, the spread relating to euro LIBOR; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The euro interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the euro interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted EuroSTR and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for euro LIBOR or the euro interbank offered rate, as applicable, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (HONIA)</I>” means the term adjusted HONIA rate plus the spread relating to the Hong Kong interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted HONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for the Hong Kong interbank offered rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SARON)</I>” means the term adjusted SARON plus the spread relating to Swiss franc LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SARON and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for Swiss franc LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate Screen</I>” means, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is: (a) Fallback Rate (SONIA), the Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen; (b) Fallback Rate (SARON), the Fallback Rate (SARON) Screen; (c) Fallback Rate (SOFR), the Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen; (d) Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), the Fallback Rate (EuroSTR) Screen; (e) Fallback Rate (TONA), the Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen; (f) Fallback Rate (AONIA), the Fallback Rate (AONIA) Screen; (g) Fallback Rate (CORRA), the Fallback Rate (CORRA) Screen, (h) Fallback Rate (HONIA), the Fallback Rate (HONIA) Screen, (i) Fallback Rate (SOR), the Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen; and (j) Fallback Rate (THBFIX), the Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SOFR)</I>” means the term adjusted SOFR plus the spread relating to U.S. dollar LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SOFR and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SOFR) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for U.S. dollar LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SONIA)</I>” means the term adjusted SONIA rate plus the spread relating to sterling LIBOR, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted SONIA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SONIA) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for sterling LIBOR for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SOR)</I>” means the rate based on actual transactions in the U.S. dollar/Singapore dollar foreign exchange swap market and a U.S. dollar interest rate calculated by reference to “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” as defined above and including any fallback rate that may apply pursuant to subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Applicable Fallback Rate” above for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or a successor provider), as the provider of Fallback Rate (SOR), on the Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (SOR) Screen</I>” means the Refinitiv Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Refinitiv ticker for the fallback for the Singapore dollar swap offer rate for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Refinitiv Screen &lt;FBKSORFIX&gt; (or, if applicable, accessed via the relevant Refinitiv Screen for `price history') or any other published source designated by ABS Benchmarks Administration Co Pte. Ltd. (or a successor provider).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (THBFIX)</I>” means the rate based on actual transactions in the U.S. dollar/Thai baht foreign exchange swap market and a U.S. dollar interest rate calculated by reference to “Fallback Rate (SOFR)” as defined above and including any fallback rate that may apply pursuant to subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Applicable Fallback Rate” above for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by the Bank of Thailand (or a successor provider), as the provider of Fallback Rate (THBFIX), on the Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (THBFIX) Screen</I>” means the Refinitiv Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Refinitiv ticker for the fallback for the Thai baht interest rate fixing for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Refinitiv Screen &lt;FBKTHBFIX&gt; (or, if applicable, accessed via the relevant Refinitiv Screen for `price history') or any other published source designated by the Bank of Thailand (or a successor provider).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (TONA)</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(a) The term adjusted TONA; plus
</P>
<P>(b) If the Relevant IBOR is:
</P>
<P>(i) Japanese yen LIBOR, the spread relating to Japanese yen LIBOR;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate; or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the spread relating to the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, in each case, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined provided by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time), as the provider of term adjusted TONA and the spread, on the Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen (or by other means) or provided to, and published by, authorized distributors at, or prior to, the Applicable Cut-off Time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Fallback Rate (TONA) Screen</I>” means the Bloomberg Screen (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) corresponding to the Bloomberg ticker for the fallback for Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate or the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, as applicable, for the period of time in respect of which the Relevant IBOR is to be determined accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;FBAK&gt; &lt;GO&gt; Page (or, if applicable, accessed via the Bloomberg Screen &lt;HP&gt; &lt;GO&gt;) or any other published source designated by Bloomberg Index Services Limited (or a successor provider as approved and/or appointed by ISDA from time to time).
</P>
<P>“<I>Fed Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SOFR by the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York, or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Federal Reserve Board or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York for the purpose of recommending a replacement for SOFR (which rate may be produced by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>FOMC Target Rate</I>” means the short-term interest rate target set by the Federal Open Market Committee and published on the Federal Reserve's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) or, if the Federal Open Market Committee does not target a single rate, the mid-point of the short-term interest rate target range set by the Federal Open Market Committee and published on the Federal Reserve's website (calculated as the arithmetic average of the upper bound of the target range and the lower bound of the target range, rounded, if necessary, in accordance with the method set forth in Section 8.1(c) of the 2006 ISDA Definitions).
</P>
<P>“<I>GBP Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SONIA by (a) the administrator of SONIA if the administrator of SONIA is a national central bank, or (b) if the national central bank administrator of SONIA does not make a recommendation or the administrator of SONIA is not a national central bank, a committee designated for this purpose by one or both of the Financial Conduct Authority (or any successor thereto) and the Bank of England and as provided by the then administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>HKD Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for HONIA by the administrator of HONIA or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the administrator of HONIA for the purpose of recommending a replacement for HONIA (which rate may be produced by the administrator of HONIA or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>Index Cessation Effective Date</I>” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) and one or more Index Cessation Events, the first date on which the Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) is either (a) in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), Non-Representative by reference to the most recent statement or publication contemplated in subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Index Cessation Event” below and even if such rate continues to be provided on such date or (b) no longer provided. If the Relevant IBOR (or, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR) ceases to be provided on the Relevant Original Fixing Date but it was provided (and, in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), is not Non-Representative) at the time at which it is ordinarily observed, then the Index Cessation Effective Date will be the next day on which the rate would ordinarily have been published. An Index Cessation Effective Date may also occur in accordance with paragraph 6(d), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above.
</P>
<P>“<I>Index Cessation Event</I>” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR:
</P>
<P>(a) A public statement or publication of information by or on behalf of the administrator of the Relevant IBOR announcing that it has ceased or will cease to provide the Relevant IBOR permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Relevant IBOR;
</P>
<P>(b) A public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Relevant IBOR, the central bank for the currency of the Relevant IBOR, an insolvency official with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR, a resolution authority with jurisdiction over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR or a court or an entity with similar insolvency or resolution authority over the administrator for the Relevant IBOR, which states that the administrator of the Relevant IBOR has ceased or will cease to provide the Relevant IBOR permanently or indefinitely, provided that, at the time of the statement or publication, there is no successor administrator that will continue to provide the Relevant IBOR; or
</P>
<P>(c) If the Relevant IBOR is sterling LIBOR, Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR, Japanese yen LIBOR, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, a public statement or publication of information by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of such Relevant IBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, by the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of U.S. dollar LIBOR) announcing that (i) the regulatory supervisor has determined that such Relevant IBOR is no longer, or as of a specified future date will no longer be, representative of the underlying market and economic reality that such Relevant IBOR is intended to measure and that representativeness will not be restored and (ii) it is being made in the awareness that the statement or publication will engage certain contractual triggers for fallbacks activated by pre-cessation announcements by such supervisor (howsoever described) in contracts, provided that, if either the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing is the Relevant IBOR, references to the “Relevant IBOR” in subparagraphs (a), (b) and (c)(i) above of this definition of “Index Cessation Event” will be deemed to be references to U.S. dollar LIBOR.
</P>
<P>An Index Cessation Event may also occur in accordance with paragraph 6(d), subparagraph 6(e)(ii) or subparagraph 6(e)(iii) above.
</P>
<P>“<I>JPY Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for TONA by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Bank of Japan for the purpose of recommending a replacement for TONA (which rate may be produced by the Bank of Japan or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>MAS Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for Fallback Rate (SOR) by the Monetary Authority of Singapore or by a committee officially endorsed or convened by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (which rate may be produced by the Monetary Authority of Singapore or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate in respect of the day for which that rate is required (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date”) or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator of that rate (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>Modified EDFR</I>” means a rate equal to the Eurosystem Deposit Facility Rate plus the EDFR Spread.
</P>
<P>“Modified SNB Policy Rate” means a rate equal to the SNB Policy Rate plus the SNB Spread.
</P>
<P>“<I>Non-Representative</I>” means, in respect of a Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, in respect of U.S. dollar LIBOR), the regulatory supervisor for the administrator of the Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR):
</P>
<P>(a) Has determined and announced that the Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR) is no longer representative of the underlying market and economic reality it is intended to measure and representativeness will not be restored; and
</P>
<P>(b) Is aware that certain contractual triggers for fallbacks activated by pre-cessation announcements by such supervisor (howsoever described) in contracts have been or are engaged, provided that such Relevant LIBOR (or, if the Relevant IBOR is the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, U.S. dollar LIBOR) will be `Non-Representative' by reference to the date indicated in the most recent statement or publication contemplated in subparagraph (c) of the definition of “Index Cessation Event” above.
</P>
<P>“<I>NWG Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for SARON by any working group or committee in Switzerland organized in the same or a similar manner as the National Working Group on Swiss Franc Reference Rates that was founded in 2013 for purposes of, among other things, considering proposals to reform reference interest rates in Switzerland, and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>OBFR</I>” means the Overnight Bank Funding Rate, as provided by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or a successor administrator) on the New York Fed's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) or, if that rate is not provided by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>RBA Recommended Rate</I>” means the rate (inclusive of any spreads or adjustments) recommended as the replacement for AONIA by the Reserve Bank of Australia (which rate may be produced by the Reserve Bank of Australia or another administrator) and as provided by the administrator of that rate or, if that rate is not provided by the administrator thereof (or a successor administrator), published by an authorized distributor.
</P>
<P>“<I>Relevant LIBOR</I>” means sterling LIBOR, Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR and Japanese yen LIBOR.
</P>
<P>“<I>Relevant Original Fixing Date</I>” means, in respect of a Relevant IBOR and unless otherwise agreed, the day on which that Relevant IBOR would have been observed (which under the 2006 ISDA Definitions would be the “Reset Date” or, if the Relevant IBOR is Swiss franc LIBOR, U.S. dollar LIBOR, euro LIBOR, the euro interbank offered rate, Japanese yen LIBOR, the Japanese yen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the euroyen Tokyo interbank offered rate, the Singapore dollar swap offer rate or the Thai baht interest rate fixing, the day that is two Applicable Banking Days preceding a relevant “Reset Date”, as applicable).
</P>
<P>“<I>SNB Policy Rate</I>” means the policy rate of the Swiss National Bank.
</P>
<P>“<I>SNB Spread</I>” means the historical median between SARON and the SNB Policy Rate over an observation period of two years starting two years prior to the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) occurs (or, if later, two years prior to the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to SARON occurs) and ending on the Zurich Banking Day (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) immediately preceding the day on which the Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to Fallback Rate (SARON) occurs (or, if later, the Zurich Banking Day immediately preceding the day on which the first Fallback Index Cessation Event with respect to SARON occurs), as determined by the Calculation Agent.
</P>
<P>“<I>SORA</I>” means the Singapore Overnight Rate Average as provided by the Monetary Authority of Singapore (or a successor administrator) on the Monetary Authority of Singapore's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) (or as published by its authorized distributors).
</P>
<P>“<I>THOR</I>” means the Thai Overnight Repurchase Rate as provided by the Bank of Thailand as administrator of the benchmark (or a successor administrator) on the Bank of Thailand's website (as defined in the 2006 ISDA Definitions) (or as published by its authorized distributors).
</P>
<P>“<I>UK Bank Rate</I>” means the official bank rate as determined by the Monetary Policy Committee of the Bank of England and published by the Bank of England from time to time.
</P>
<P>“<I>Underlying Rate</I>” means, if the Applicable Fallback Rate is: (a) Fallback Rate (SONIA), SONIA; (b) Fallback Rate (SARON), SARON; (c) Fallback Rate (SOFR), SOFR; (d) Fallback Rate (EuroSTR), EuroSTR; (e) Fallback Rate (TONA), TONA; (f) Fallback Rate (AONIA), AONIA; (g) Fallback Rate (CORRA), CORRA; and (h) Fallback Rate (HONIA), HONIA.
</P>
<HD1>7. Negative Interest Protocol
</HD1>
<P>The parties agree that the amendments made by this Protocol do not constitute a “Spread Provision” (as defined in the ISDA 2014 Collateral Agreement Negative Interest Protocol published on May 12, 2014 by ISDA).
</P>
<P><I>Published by permission of the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. (“ISDA”) ISDA® reserves all rights in the Protocol.</I>
</P>
<P>Source: ISDA 2020 IBOR Fallbacks Protocol, published on October 23, 2020, by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., <I>https://assets.isda.org/media/3062e7b4/08268161-pdf/.</I>




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="261" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 261—RULES REGARDING AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (k), 321 <I>et seq.,</I> 611 <I>et seq.,</I> 1442, 1467a, 1817(a)(2)(A), 1817(a)(8), 1818(u) and (v), 1821(o), 1821(t), 1830, 1844, 1951 <I>et seq.,</I> 2601, 2801 <I>et seq.,</I> 2901 <I>et seq.,</I> 3101 <I>et seq.,</I> 3401 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 77uuu(b), 78q(c)(3); 29 U.S.C. 1204; 31 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 3601; 44 U.S.C. 3510.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 57627, Sept. 15, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the Board's statutory responsibilities relating to the disclosure, production, or withholding of information to facilitate the Board's interaction with financial institutions and the public. In this regard, the Board has determined that the Board or its delegees may disclose nonpublic information of the Board, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the Board's authorities, including but not limited to authority granted to the Board in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.,</I> the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.,</I> the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.,</I> and the International Banking Act, 12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I> the Board has determined that all such disclosures made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part are authorized by law, and are, as applicable, disclosures to proper persons pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 326. This part also sets forth the categories of information made available to the public, the procedures for obtaining information and records, the procedures for limited release of nonpublic information, and the procedures for protecting confidential business information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This subpart A contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C sets forth:
</P>
<P>(i) The kinds of nonpublic information made available to supervised financial institutions, governmental agencies, and others in certain circumstances;
</P>
<P>(ii) The procedures for disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning given it in 12 CFR 225.2(a).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Confidential supervisory information</I> means nonpublic information that is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8) and includes information that is or was created or obtained in furtherance of the Board's supervisory, investigatory, or enforcement activities, including activities conducted by a Federal Reserve Bank (Reserve Bank) under delegated authority, relating to any supervised financial institution, and any information derived from or related to such information. Examples of confidential supervisory information include, without limitation, reports of examination, inspection, and visitation; confidential operating and condition reports; supervisory assessments; investigative requests for documents or other information; and supervisory correspondence or other supervisory communications. Additionally, any portion of a document in the possession of any person, entity, agency or authority, including a supervised financial institution, that contains or would reveal confidential supervisory information is confidential supervisory information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential supervisory information</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Documents prepared by or for a supervised financial institution for its own business purposes that are in its own possession and that do not include confidential supervisory information as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, even though copies of such documents in the Board's or Reserve Bank's possession constitute confidential supervisory information; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Final orders, amendments, or modifications of final orders, or other actions or documents that are specifically required to be published or made available to the public pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(u), the Community Reinvestment Act, or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nonpublic information</I> means information that has not been publicly disclosed by the Board and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Confidential supervisory information, or
</P>
<P>(2) Exempt from disclosure under § 261.15(a).
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Records of the Board</I> or <I>Board records</I> means all recorded information, regardless of form or characteristics, that is created or obtained by the Board and is under the Board's control. A record is created or obtained by the Board if it is created or obtained by:
</P>
<P>(i) Any Board member or any officer, employee, or contractor of the Board in the conduct of the Board's official duties, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer, director, employee, or contractor of any Reserve Bank and either constitutes confidential supervisory information as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section or is created or obtained in the performance of Board functions delegated to the Reserve Bank pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 248(k).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records of the Board</I> do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Personal files or notes of Board members, employees, or contractors; extra copies of documents and library and museum materials kept solely for reference or exhibition purposes; or unaltered publications otherwise available to the public in Board publications, libraries, or established distribution systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records located at Reserve Banks other than those records identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Records that belong to or are otherwise under the control of another entity or agency despite the Board's possession.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Search</I> means a reasonable search of such records of the Board as seem likely in the particular circumstances to contain information of the kind requested.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the Board's search for responsive records, the Board is not obligated to conduct any research, create any document, or modify an electronic program or automated information system.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Supervised financial institution</I> includes any institution that is supervised by the Board, including a bank; a bank holding company, intermediate holding company, or savings and loan holding company (including their non-depository subsidiaries); an Edge Act or agreement corporation; a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; any company designated for Board supervision by the Financial Stability Oversight Council; or any other entity or service subject to examination by the Board.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Working day</I> means any day except Saturday, Sunday, or a legal Federal holiday.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.3   Custodian of records; certification; service; alternative authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Custodian of records.</I> The Secretary of the Board (Secretary) is the official custodian of all records of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of record.</I> The Secretary may certify the authenticity of any Board record, or any copy of such record, for any purpose, and for or before any duly constituted Federal or State court, tribunal, or agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of subpoenas or other process.</I> Subpoenas or other judicial or administrative process demanding access to any Board records or making any claim against the Board or against Board members or staff in their official capacity shall be addressed to and served upon the Secretary of the Board at the Board's office at 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551. The Board does not accept service of process on behalf of any employee in respect of purely private legal disputes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative authority.</I> Any action or determination required or permitted by this part to be done by the Board, the Secretary, the General Counsel, the Director of any Division, or any Reserve Bank, may be done by any employee who has been duly authorized or designated for this purpose by the Board, the Secretary, the General Counsel, the appropriate Director, or the appropriate Reserve Bank, respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.4   Prohibition against disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this part or as otherwise authorized, no officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any nonpublic information of the Board to any person other than Board or Reserve Bank officers, employees, or agents properly entitled to such information for the performance of official duties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Published Information and Records Available to Public; Procedures for Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.10   Published information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Board publishes in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public:
</P>
<P>(1) Descriptions of the Board's central and field organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of the general course and method by which the Board's functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available and the place where they may be obtained, and instructions on the scope and contents of all papers, reports, and examinations;
</P>
<P>(4) Substantive rules, interpretations of general applicability, and statements of general policy;
</P>
<P>(5) Every amendment, revision, or repeal of the foregoing in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other notices as required by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publications.</I> The Board maintains a list of publications on its website (at <I>www.federalreserve.gov/publications</I>). Most publications issued by the Board, including available back issues, may be downloaded from the website; some may be obtained through an order form located on the website (at <I>www.federalreserve.gov/files/orderform.pdf</I>) or by contacting Board Printing &amp; Fulfillment, Federal Reserve Board, Washington, DC 20551. Subscription or other charges may apply for some publications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publicly available information</I>—(1) <I>Electronic reading room.</I> The Board makes the following records available in its electronic reading room, <I>http://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/readingrooms.htm#rr1.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders and written agreements, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(ii) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Board that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(iii) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect the public;
</P>
<P>(iv) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format—
</P>
<P>(A) That have been released to any person under § 261.11; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) That because of the nature of their subject matter, the Board has determined have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That have been requested three or more times;
</P>
<P>(v) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The public section of Community Reinvestment Act examination reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspection in electronic format at Reserve Banks.</I> The Board may determine that certain classes of publicly available filings shall be made available for inspection in electronic format only at the Reserve Bank where those records are filed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Privacy protection.</I> The Board may delete identifying details from any public record to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.11   Records available to the public upon request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for requesting records.</I> (1) Requesters are encouraged to submit requests electronically by filling out the required information at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov/secure/forms/efoiaform.aspx.</I> Alternatively, requests may be submitted in writing to the Office of the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Attn: FOIA Requests, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Office of the Secretary, (202) 872-7565. Clearly mark the request FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT REQUEST.
</P>
<P>(2) A request may not be combined with any other request or with any matter presented to the Board such as a protest on a pending application or a comment on a public rulemaking. It may, however, be combined with a request for records under the Privacy Act pursuant to 12 CFR 261a.5(a) or a request for discretionary release of confidential supervisory information pursuant to § 261.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The requester's name, address, daytime telephone number, and an email address if available.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the records that enables the Board's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any of the Board's operations. Whenever possible, the request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees. If the information requested is not intended for a commercial use (as defined in § 261.16(d)(1)) and the requester seeks a reduction or waiver of fees because he or she is either a representative of the news media, an educational institution, or a noncommercial scientific institution, the requester should include the information called for in § 261.16(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Perfected and defective requests.</I> (1) The Board will consider the request to be perfected on the date the Office of the Secretary receives a request that contains all of the information required by paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.12   Processing requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of requests.</I> Upon receipt of any request that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 261.11, the Office of the Secretary shall assign the request to the appropriate processing schedule, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred to the Board by another agency or by a Reserve Bank, is the date the Office of the Secretary actually receives the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (1) The Board provides different levels of processing for categories of requests under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the Office of the Secretary and that have already been cleared for public release or can easily be cleared for public release may qualify for simple processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other requests shall be handled under normal processing procedures, unless expedited processing has been granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of the Secretary will make the determination whether a request qualifies for simple processing. A requester may contact the Office of the Secretary to learn whether a particular request has been assigned to simple processing. If the request has not qualified for simple processing, the requester may limit the scope of the request in order to qualify for simple processing by contacting the Office of the Secretary in writing, by letter or email, or by telephone.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. A request for expedited processing must be clearly labeled “Expedited Processing Requested.” The Board will process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about Federal Government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, the Board may waive the formal certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Board will notify the requester of its decision on the request. A denial of expedited processing may be appealed to the Board in accordance with § 261.14. The Board will respond to the appeal within 10 working days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Priority of responses.</I> The Office of the Secretary will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks, except when expedited processing is granted in which case the request will be processed as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time limits.</I> The time for response to requests shall be 20 working days from when a request is perfected. Exceptions to the 20-day time limit are only as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (c) of this section, the Board shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the running of such time is suspended for a requester to address fee requirements pursuant to § 261.16(c)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(3) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), the Board may—
</P>
<P>(i) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of time not to exceed 10 working days, where the Board has provided written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of more than 10 working days where the Board has provided the requester with an opportunity to modify the scope of the FOIA request so that it can be processed within that time frame or with an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the original request or a modified request, and has notified the requester that the Board's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist the requester for this purpose and in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the Board and of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.13   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Board receives a perfected request, it will conduct a reasonable search of Board records in its possession on the date the Board's search begins and will review any responsive information it locates.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request covers documents that were created by, obtained from, or classified by another agency, the Board may refer the request for such documents to that agency for a response and inform the requester promptly of the referral.
</P>
<P>(c) In responding to a request, the Board will withhold information under this section only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Board reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in § 261.15(a); or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board will notify the requester of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board's determination of the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for the determination;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the amount of information withheld, if any. An estimate is not required if the amount of information is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison; and
</P>
<P>(5) When an adverse determination is made, the Board will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester of:
</P>
<P>(i) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination within 90 calendar days after the date of the determination as specified in § 261.14;
</P>
<P>(ii) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Board's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(f) Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited treatment.
</P>
<P>(g) The Board will normally send responsive, nonexempt documents to the requester by email but may use other means as arranged between the Board and the requester or as determined by the Board. The Board will attempt to provide records in the format requested by the requester.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.14   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal of adverse determination.</I> If the Board makes an adverse determination as defined in § 261.13(f), the requester may file a written appeal with the Board, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal should prominently display the phrase FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT APPEAL on the first page, and should be sent directly to <I>FOIA-Appeals@frb.gov</I> or, if sent by mail, addressed to the Office of the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Attn: FOIA Appeals, 20th Street &amp; Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Office of the Secretary, (202) 872-7565. If the requester is appealing the denial of expedited treatment, the appeal should clearly be labeled “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”
</P>
<P>(2) A request for records under § 261.11 may not be combined in the same letter with an appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) To be considered timely, an appeal must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the date of the adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 261.12(c)(3), the Board shall make a determination regarding any appeal within 20 working days of actual receipt of the appeal by the Office of the Secretary. If an adverse determination is upheld on appeal, in whole or in part, the determination letter shall notify the appealing party of the right to seek judicial review and of the availability of dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services as a nonexclusive alternative to litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board may reconsider an adverse determination, including one on appeal, if intervening circumstances or additional facts not known at the time of the adverse determination come to the attention of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.15   Exemptions from disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Types of records exempt from disclosure.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b), the following records of the Board are exempt from disclosure under this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information that is specifically authorized under criteria established by an executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and is in fact properly classified pursuant to the executive order.
</P>
<P>(2) Any information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) Any information specifically exempted from disclosure by statute to the extent required by 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) Any matter that is a trade secret or that constitutes commercial or financial information obtained from a person and that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(5) Inter- or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the Board, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records that were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(6) Any information contained in personnel and medical files and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(7) Any records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, to the extent permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(8) Any matter that is contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, including a State financial institution supervisory agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Release of nonpublic information.</I> (1) The Board may make any nonpublic information furnished in connection with an application for Board approval of a transaction available to the public in response to a request in accordance with § 261.11, and may, without prior notice and to the extent it deems necessary, comment on such information in any opinion or statement issued to the public in connection with a Board action to which such information pertains.
</P>
<P>(2) The fact that the Board has determined to release particular nonpublic information does not waive the Board's ability to withhold similar nonpublic information in response to the same or a different request.
</P>
<P>(3) Except where disclosure is expressly prohibited by statute, regulation, or order, the Board may release records that are exempt from mandatory disclosure whenever the Board or designated Board members, the Secretary, or the General Counsel determines that such disclosure would be in the public interest. The Board will provide predisclosure notice to submitters of confidential information in accordance with § 261.18(b)(1). Confidential supervisory information may only be released as set forth in subpart C.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delayed release.</I> Except as required by law, publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or availability to the public of certain information may be delayed if immediate disclosure would likely:
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with accomplishing the objectives of the Board in the discharge of its statutory functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Interfere with the orderly conduct of the foreign affairs of the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Permit speculators or others to gain unfair profits or other unfair advantages by speculative trading in securities or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in unnecessary or unwarranted disturbances in the securities markets;
</P>
<P>(5) Interfere with the orderly execution of the objectives or policies of other government agencies; or
</P>
<P>(6) Impair the ability to negotiate any contract or otherwise harm the commercial or financial interest of the United States, the Board, any Reserve Bank, or any department or agency of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.16   Fee schedules; waiver of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fee schedules.</I> Consistent with the limitations set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii), the fees applicable to a request for records pursuant to § 261.11 are set forth in table 1 to this section. These fees cover only the full allowable direct costs of search, duplication, and review. No fees will be charged where the average cost of collecting the fee (calculated at $5.00) exceeds the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For purposes of computing fees.</I> (1) Search time includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including line-by-line identification of material within documents. Such activity is distinct from “review” of material to determine whether the material is exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct costs mean those expenditures that the Board actually incurs in searching for, reviewing, and duplicating records in response to a request made under § 261.11, as shown in table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Duplication refers to the process of making a copy, in any format, of a document.
</P>
<P>(4) Review refers to the process of examining documents that have been located as being potentially responsive to a request for records to determine whether any portion of a document is exempt from disclosure. It includes doing all that is necessary to prepare the documents for release, including the redaction of exempt information. It does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment procedures.</I> The Board may assume that a person requesting records pursuant to § 261.11 will pay the applicable fees, unless the request includes a limitation on fees to be paid or seeks a waiver or reduction of fees pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Advance notification of fees.</I> If the estimated charges are likely to exceed the amount authorized by the requester, the Office of the Secretary shall notify the requester of the estimated amount. Upon receipt of such notice, the requester may confer with the Office of the Secretary to reformulate the request to lower the costs or may authorize a higher amount. The time period for responding to requests under § 261.12(e) and the processing of the request will be suspended until the requester agrees in writing to pay the applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance payment.</I> The Board may require advance payment of any fee estimated to exceed $250. The Board may also require full payment in advance where a requester has previously failed to pay a fee in a timely fashion. The time period for responding to a request under § 261.12(e) and the processing of the request will be suspended until the Office of the Secretary receives the required payment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Late charges.</I> The Board may assess interest charges when fee payment is not made within 30 days of the date on which the billing was sent. Interest is at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and accrues from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Categories of uses.</I> The fees assessed depend upon the intended use for the records requested. In determining which category is appropriate, the Board will look to the intended use set forth in the request for records. Where a requester's description of the use is insufficient to make a determination, the Board may seek additional clarification before categorizing the request.
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>commercial use requester</I> is one who requests records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience, including organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. A non-affiliated journalist who demonstrates a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity, such as a publishing contract or past publication record, will be considered as a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. The Board may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fees table.</I> Please refer to table 1 to this section to determine what fees apply for different categories of users.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonproductive search.</I> Fees for search and review may be charged even if no responsive documents are located or if the request is denied.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregated requests.</I> A requester may not file multiple requests at the same time, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. If the Board reasonably believes that a requester is separating a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Board may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. It is considered reasonable for the Board to presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> A request for a waiver or reduction of the fees, and the justification for the waiver, shall be included with the request for records to which it pertains. If a waiver is requested and the requester has not indicated in writing an agreement to pay the applicable fees if the waiver request is denied, the time for response to the request for documents, as set forth in § 261.12(e), shall not begin until either a waiver has been granted or, if the waiver is denied, until the requester has agreed to pay the applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board will grant a waiver or reduction of fees where it is determined both that disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government, and that the disclosure of information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In making this determination, the Board will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the subject of the records would shed light on identifiable operations or activities of the government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The Board will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, profit, or litigation interest.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear statement of the requester's interest in the documents;
</P>
<P>(ii) The use proposed for the documents and whether the requester will derive income or other benefit for such use;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of how the public will benefit from such use and from the Board's release of the documents;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the method by which the information will be disseminated to the public; and
</P>
<P>(v) If specialized use of the information is contemplated, a statement of the requester's qualifications that are relevant to that use.
</P>
<P>(3) The requester has the burden to present evidence or information in support of a request for a waiver or reduction of fees.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board will notify the requester of its determination on the request for a waiver or reduction of fees. The requester may appeal a denial in accordance with § 261.14(a).
</P>
<P>(5) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver must be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(6) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request for records is first submitted to the Board and should address the criteria referenced above. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) If the Board fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, the Board may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as permitted under paragraphs (h)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board determines that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and has provided timely written notice to the requester and subsequently responds within the additional 10 working days as provided in § 261.12(e)(3), the Board may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Board determines that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, then the Board may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the Board has:
</P>
<P>(i) Provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee requests.</I> In connection with any request by an employee, former employee, or applicant for employment, for records for use in prosecuting a grievance or complaint of discrimination against the Board, fees shall be waived where the total charges (including charges for information provided under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a)) are $50 or less; but the Board may waive fees in excess of that amount.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Special services.</I> The Board may agree to provide, and set fees to recover the costs of, special services not covered by the FOIA, such as certifying records or information and sending records by special methods such as express mail or overnight delivery.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 261.16—Fees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of requester
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Search costs per hour
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Review costs per hour
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duplication costs
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clerical/Technical staff—$20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clerical/Technical staff—$20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photocopy per standard page—.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff—$40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff—$40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff—$65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff—$65
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary—Direct Costs
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Educational; or Non-commercial scientific; or News media</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages <E T="03">free,</E> then: Photocopy per standard page—.10.
<br/>Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other requesters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 2 hours <E T="03">free,</E> then: Clerical/Technical staff—$20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages <E T="03">free,</E> then: Photocopy per standard page—.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff—$40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other types of duplication—Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff—$65
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary—Direct Costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.17" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.17   Request for confidential treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of request.</I> Any submitter of information to the Board who desires that such information be withheld pursuant to § 261.15(a)(4) or (6) shall file a request for confidential treatment with the Board (or in the case of documents filed with a Reserve Bank, with that Reserve Bank) at the time the information is submitted or within 10 working days thereafter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of request.</I> Each request for confidential treatment shall state in reasonable detail the facts supporting the request, provide the legal justification, use good faith efforts to designate by appropriate markings any portion of the submission for which confidential treatment is requested, and include an affirmative statement that such information is not available publicly. A submitter's request for confidentiality in reliance upon § 261.15(a)(4) generally expires 10 years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests and provides justification for a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation and separation of confidential material.</I> All information considered confidential by a submitter shall be clearly designated <I>CONFIDENTIAL</I> in the submission and separated from information for which confidential treatment is not requested. Failure to segregate confidential information from other material may result in release of the unsegregated material to the public without notice to the submitter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Data items collected on forms that are approved pursuant to the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I>) and deemed confidential by the Board. Any such data items deemed confidential by the Board shall so indicate on the face of the form or in its instructions. The data may, however, be disclosed in aggregate form in such a manner that individual company data is not disclosed or derivable.
</P>
<P>(2) Any comments submitted by a member of the public on applications and regulatory proposals being considered by the Board, unless the Board determines that confidential treatment is warranted.
</P>
<P>(3) A determination by the Board to comment upon information submitted to the Board in any opinion or statement issued to the public as described in § 261.15(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special procedures.</I> The Board may establish special procedures for particular documents, filings, or types of information by express provisions in this part or by instructions on particular forms that are approved by the Board. These special procedures shall take precedence over this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.18" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.2.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.18   Process for addressing a submitter's request for confidential treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Resolving requests for confidential treatment.</I> In general, a request by a submitter for confidential treatment of any information shall be considered in connection with a request for access to that information. At its discretion, the Board may act on a request for confidentiality prior to any request for access to the documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the submitter.</I> (1) When the Board receives a FOIA request for information for which a submitter has requested confidential treatment, the Board shall promptly provide written notice of the request to the submitter if the Board determines that it may be required to disclose the records, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The requested information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) or (b)(6); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure, but has not yet determined whether the information may be protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a submitter has not requested confidential treatment but the Board reasonably believes the requested information may be protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) or (b)(6), the Board may notify a submitter of the receipt of a request for access to that information and provide the submitter an opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice given to the submitter shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the information that has been requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, the Board may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Give the submitter a reasonable opportunity, not to exceed 10 working days from the date of notice, to submit written objections to disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to notice to submitter.</I> Notice to the submitter need not be given if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA and, therefore, will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The requested information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The submitter's claim of confidentiality appears obviously frivolous or has already been denied by the Board. In such case, the Board shall give the submitter written notice of the determination to disclose the information at least five working days prior to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to requester.</I> The requester shall be notified whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The submitter is provided with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The submitter is notified of the Board's intention to disclose the requested information; or
</P>
<P>(3) The submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Written objections by submitter.</I> (1) Upon receipt of the notice referenced in paragraph (b) of this section, a submitter that has any objections to disclosure should provide a detailed written statement that specifies all grounds for withholding the particular information under any exemption identified in § 261.15(a). A submitter relying on § 261.15(a)(4) as the basis for nondisclosure must explain why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is confidential and must explain the consequences of disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(2) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified in the notice will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. The Board is not required to consider any information received after the date of any disclosure decision. Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart, including a written request for confidential treatment, may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Analysis of objections.</I> The Board's determination to disclose any information for which confidential treatment has been requested shall be communicated to the submitter immediately. If the Board determines to disclose the information and the submitter has objected to such disclosure pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section, the Board shall provide the submitter with the reasons for disclosure and shall delay disclosure for 10 working days from the date of the determination.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of lawsuit.</I> The Board shall promptly notify any submitter of information covered by this section of the filing of any legal action against the Board to compel disclosure of such information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Nonpublic Information Made Available to Supervised Financial Institutions, Governmental Agencies, and Others in Certain Circumstances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.20   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information, including but not limited to information made available under this subpart, remains the property of the Board, and except as otherwise provided in this regulation, no person, entity, agency, or authority to whom the information is made available or who otherwise possesses the information, including any officer, director, employee, or agent thereof, may use any such information for an unauthorized purpose or disclose any such information without the prior written permission of the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The disclosure of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information in accordance with this subpart shall not constitute a waiver by the Board of any applicable privileges.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit or restrict the authority of the Board to impose any additional conditions or limitations on the use and disclosure of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information. Further, nothing in this subpart shall be construed to limit or restrict the authority of the Board to make discretionary disclosures of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information in addition to the disclosures expressly provided for in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.21   Confidential supervisory information made available to supervised financial institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of confidential supervisory information to supervised financial institutions.</I> The Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank may disclose confidential supervisory information concerning a supervised financial institution to that supervised financial institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of confidential supervisory information by supervised financial institutions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Any supervised financial institution lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information pursuant to this section may when necessary or appropriate for business purposes disclose such information to its directors, officers, or employees, and to the directors, officers, or employees of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and State financial supervisory agencies.</I> Any supervised financial institution may, with the concurrence of the institution's central point of contact at the Reserve Bank, equivalent supervisory team leader, or other designated Reserve Bank employee (hereinafter, “Reserve Bank Point of Contact” or “Reserve Bank POC”), disclose confidential supervisory information about the institution that is contained in documents prepared by or for the institution for its own business purposes to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and the State financial supervisory agency that supervises that institution when the Reserve Bank POC determines that the receiving agency has a legitimate supervisory or regulatory interest in the information. A Reserve Bank POC's action under this paragraph may require concurrence of other Federal Reserve staff in accordance with internal supervisory procedures. Requests to disclose any other confidential supervisory information to these or other agencies should be directed to the General Counsel under § 261.22(c) or § 261.23(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Legal counsel and auditors.</I> When necessary or appropriate in connection with the provision of legal or auditing services to the supervised financial institution, the supervised financial institution may disclose confidential supervisory information to its legal counsel or auditors. The supervised financial institution may also disclose confidential supervisory information to service providers (such as consultants, contractors, contingent workers, and technology providers) of its legal counsel or auditors if the service provider is under a written agreement with the legal counsel or auditor in which the service provider agrees that:
</P>
<P>(i) It will treat the confidential supervisory information in accordance with § 261.20(a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) It will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purpose other than as necessary to provide the services to the supervised financial institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other service providers.</I> (i) A supervised financial institution may disclose confidential supervisory information to other service providers engaged by the supervised financial institution if the service provider is under a written contract to provide services to the institution, the disclosure of the confidential supervisory information is deemed necessary to the service provider's provision of services, and the service provider has a written agreement with the institution in which the service provider has agreed that:
</P>
<P>(A) It will treat the confidential supervisory information in accordance with § 261.20(a); and
</P>
<P>(B) It will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purpose other than as provided under its contract to provide services to the supervised financial institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) A supervised financial institution shall maintain a written account of the disclosures of confidential supervisory information that the supervised financial institution makes to service providers under this section and provide the Board or Reserve Bank with a copy of such written account upon the Board's or Reserve Bank's request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.22   Nonpublic information made available by the Board to governmental agencies and entities exercising governmental authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure to Federal and State financial institution supervisory agencies.</I> The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, the General Counsel, or the appropriate Reserve Bank may, for legitimate supervisory or regulatory purposes and with or without a request, disclose confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information to the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, and a State financial institution supervisory agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures pursuant to the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, the Fair Housing Act, and the Employee Retirement Income Security Act.</I> The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, or the General Counsel may disclose confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information concerning a supervised financial institution to:
</P>
<P>(1) The Attorney General or to the Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban Development related to the enforcement of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(2) The Secretary of the Department of Labor and the Secretary of the Department the Treasury in accordance with section 3004(b) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure to other governmental agencies and entities exercising governmental authority.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, other Federal, State, and local agencies, including law enforcement agencies, and other entities exercising governmental authority, may file written requests with the Board for access to confidential supervisory information and other nonpublic information under this section, including information in the form of testimony and interviews from current or former Federal Reserve System staff. Properly accredited foreign law enforcement agencies and other foreign government agencies may also file written requests with the Board in accordance with this paragraph, except that provision of confidential supervisory information to foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authorities is governed by 12 CFR 211.27.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Contents of request.</I> To obtain access to confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information under this section, including information in the possession of a person other than the Board, the requester shall address a letter request to the Board's General Counsel, specifying:
</P>
<P>(i) The particular information, kinds of information, and where possible, the particular documents to which access is sought;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons why such information cannot be obtained from the supervised financial institution in question or another source rather than from the Board;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the law enforcement purpose or other statutory purpose for which the information shall be used;
</P>
<P>(iv) A commitment that the information requested shall not be disclosed to any person outside the requesting agency or entity without the written permission of the General Counsel; and
</P>
<P>(v) If the document or information requested includes customer account information subject to the Right to Financial Privacy Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>), any Federal agency request must include a statement that such customer account information need not be provided, or a statement as to why the Act does not apply to the request, or a certification that the requesting Federal agency has complied with the requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Action on request.</I> The General Counsel may approve the request upon determining that:
</P>
<P>(i) The request complies with this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information is needed in connection with a formal investigation or other official duties of the requesting agency or entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfactory assurances of confidentiality have been given; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure is consistent with the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities and policies of the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal and State grand jury, criminal trial, and government administrative subpoenas.</I> The General Counsel shall review and may approve the disclosure of nonpublic information pursuant to Federal and State grand jury, criminal trial, and government administrative subpoenas.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conditions or limitations; written agreements.</I> The General Counsel may impose any conditions or limitations on disclosure that the General Counsel determines to be necessary to effect the purposes of this regulation, including the protection of the confidentiality of the Board's information, or to ensure compliance with applicable laws or regulations. In addition, Board or Reserve Bank staff may make disclosures pursuant to any written agreement entered into by the Board when authorized by the express terms of such agreement or by the General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.23" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.23   Other disclosure of confidential supervisory information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board policy.</I> (1) It is the Board's policy regarding confidential supervisory information that such information is confidential and privileged. Accordingly, the Board does not normally disclose confidential supervisory information to the public or authorize third parties in possession of confidential supervisory information to further use or disclose the information. When considering a request to access, use, or to disclose confidential supervisory information under this section, the Board will not authorize access, use, or disclosure unless the requesting person is able to show a substantial need to access, use, or disclose such information that outweighs the need to maintain confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Board will not authorize access to or disclosure of any suspicious activity report (SAR), or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, except as necessary to fulfill official duties consistent with Title II of the Bank Secrecy Act. For purposes of this part, “official duties” shall not include the disclosure of a SAR, or any information that would reveal the existence of a SAR, in response to a request for disclosure of nonpublic information or a request for use in a private legal proceeding, including a request pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests in connection with litigation.</I> Except as provided in §§ 261.21 and 261.22:
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with any proposed use of confidential supervisory information in litigation before a court, board, commission, agency, or arbitration, any person who—
</P>
<P>(i) Seeks access to confidential supervisory information from the Board or a Reserve Bank (including the testimony of present or former Board or Reserve Bank employees on matters involving confidential supervisory information, whether by deposition or otherwise),
</P>
<P>(ii) Seeks to use confidential supervisory information in its possession or to disclose such information to another party, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Seeks to require a person to disclose confidential supervisory information to a party, shall file a written request with the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(2) The request shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The judicial or administrative action, including the case number and court or adjudicative body and a copy of the complaint or other pleading setting forth the assertions in the case;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any prior judicial or other decisions or pending motions in the case that may bear on the asserted relevance of the requested information;
</P>
<P>(iii) A narrow and specific description of the confidential supervisory information the requester seeks to access or to disclose for use in the litigation including, whenever possible, the specific documents the requester seeks to access or disclose;
</P>
<P>(iv) The relevance of the confidential supervisory information to the issues or matters raised by the litigation;
</P>
<P>(v) The reason why the information sought, or equivalent information adequate to the needs of the case, cannot be obtained from any other source; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A commitment to obtain a protective order acceptable to the Board from the judicial or administrative tribunal hearing the action preserving the confidentiality of any information that is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of requests covered by paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the Board may require the party to whom disclosure would ultimately be made to substantiate its need for the information prior to acting on any request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>All other requests.</I> Any other person seeking to access, use, or disclose confidential supervisory information for any other purpose shall file a written request with the General Counsel. A request under this paragraph (c) shall describe the purpose for which access, use, or disclosure is sought and the requester shall provide other information as requested by the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Action on request</I>—(1) <I>Determination of approval.</I> The General Counsel may approve a request made under this section provided that he or she determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The person seeking access, or the person to whom access would be provided, has shown a substantial need to access confidential supervisory information that outweighs the need to maintain confidentiality; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Approval is consistent with the supervisory and regulatory responsibilities and policies of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions or limitations.</I> The General Counsel may, in approving a request, impose such conditions or limitations on use of any information disclosed as is deemed necessary to protect the confidentiality of the Board's information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exhaustion of administrative remedies for discovery purposes in civil, criminal, or administrative action.</I> Action on a request under this section by the General Counsel is necessary in order to exhaust administrative remedies for discovery purposes in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceeding. A request made pursuant to § 261.11 of this regulation does not exhaust administrative remedies for discovery purposes. Therefore, it is not necessary to file a request pursuant to § 261.11 to exhaust administrative remedies under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261.24" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.22.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261.24   Subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advice by person served.</I> Any person (including any officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank) who is served with a subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process requiring the production of confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic information of the Board or requiring the person's testimony regarding such Board information in any proceeding, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly inform the Board's General Counsel of the service and all relevant facts, including the documents, information or testimony demanded, and any facts relevant to the Board in determining whether the material requested should be made available;
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the entity issuing the process of the substance of these rules and, in particular, of the obligation to follow the request procedures in § 261.23(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) At the appropriate time inform the court or tribunal that issued the process of the substance of these rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appearance by person served.</I> Unless authorized by the Board or as ordered by a Federal court in a judicial proceeding in which the Board has had the opportunity to appear and oppose discovery, any person who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process concerning Board confidential supervisory information or other nonpublic Board information shall attend at the time and place required and respectfully decline to disclose or to give any testimony with respect to the information, basing such refusal upon the provisions of this regulation. If the court or other body orders the disclosure of the information or the giving of testimony, the person having the information shall continue to decline to disclose the information and shall promptly report the facts to the Board for such action as the Board may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil requests for production.</I> A litigant or non-party who is served with a civil request for production of documents calling for production of confidential supervisory information should proceed under § 261.23 rather than this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="261a" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 261a—RULES REGARDING ACCESS TO PERSONAL INFORMATION UNDER THE PRIVACY ACT 1974
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 63704, Oct. 18, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part implements the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 with regard to the maintenance, protection, disclosure, and amendment of records contained within systems of records maintained by the Board. It sets forth the procedures for requests for access to, or amendment of, records concerning individuals that are contained in systems of records maintained by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Business day</I> means any day except Saturday, Sunday or a legal Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guardian</I> means the parent of a minor, or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Individual</I> means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual maintained by the Board that contains the individual's name or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a fingerprint, voice print, or photograph.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected or created.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of the Board from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>You</I> means an individual making a request under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>We</I> means the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.3   Custodian of records; delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Custodian of records.</I> The Secretary of the Board is the official custodian of all Board records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delegated authority of the Secretary.</I> The Secretary of the Board is authorized to—
</P>
<P>(1) Respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records, except for requests regarding systems of records maintained by the Board's Office of Inspector General (OIG);
</P>
<P>(2) Approve the publication of new systems of records and amend existing systems of records, except those systems of records exempted pursuant to § 261a.12(b), (c) and (d); and
</P>
<P>(3) File any necessary reports related to the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegated authority of designee.</I> Any action or determination required or permitted by this part to be done by the Secretary of the Board may be done by a Deputy or Associate Secretary or other responsible employee of the Board who has been duly designated for this purpose by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delegated authority of Inspector General.</I> The Inspector General is authorized to respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records maintained by the OIG.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.4   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Copies of records.</I> We will provide you with copies of the records you request under § 261a.5 of this part at the same cost we charge for duplication of records and/or production of computer output under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information, 12 CFR Part 261.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No fee.</I> We will not charge you a fee if:
</P>
<P>(1) Your total charges are less than $5, or
</P>
<P>(2) You are a Board employee or former employee, or an applicant for employment with the Board, and you request records pertaining to you.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Requests by Individuals to Whom Record Pertains</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.5   Request for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for making request.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or (f) of this section, if you (or your guardian) want to learn of the existence of, or to gain access to, your record in a system of records, you may submit a request in writing to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551.
</P>
<P>(2) If you request information contained in a system of records maintained by the Board's OIG, you may submit the request in writing to the Inspector General, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of request.</I> Except for requests made under paragraph (f) of this section, your written request must include-
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the request is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the system of records you believe contains the record you request, or a concise description of that system of records;
</P>
<P>(3) Information necessary to verify your identity pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information that might assist us in identifying the record you seek (<I>e.g.,</I> maiden name, dates of employment, <I>etc.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of identity.</I> We will require proof of your identity, and we reserve the right to determine whether the proof you submit is adequate. In general, we will consider the following to be adequate proof of identity:
</P>
<P>(1) If you are a current or former Board employee, your Board identification card; or
</P>
<P>(2) If you are not a current or former Board employee, either
</P>
<P>(i) Two forms of identification, including one photo identification, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A notarized statement attesting to your identity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of identity not required.</I> We will not require verification of identity when the records you seek are available to any person under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Request for accounting of previous disclosures.</I> You may request an accounting of previous disclosures of records pertaining to you in a system of records as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests Made by Board Employees.</I> Unless the Secretary provides and you are notified otherwise, if you are a current or former Board employee, you also may request access to your record in a system of records by appearing in person before or writing directly to the Board office that maintains the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.6   Board procedures for responding to request for access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance with Freedom of Information Act.</I> We will handle every request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part (other than requests submitted under § 261a.5(f) that were granted) as a request for information pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act. The time limits set forth in paragraph (b) of this section and the fees specified in § 261a.4 of this part will apply to such requests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time for response.</I> We will acknowledge every request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part within 20 business days from receipt of the request and will, where practicable, respond to each request within that 20-day period. When a full response is not practicable within the 20-day period, we will respond as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure.</I> (1) When we disclose information in response to your request, except for information maintained by the Board's OIG, we will make the information available for inspection and copying during regular business hours at the Board's Freedom of Information Office, or we will mail it to you on your request. For requests made under paragraph § 261a.5(f), you may request that the information be provided orally or in person.
</P>
<P>(2) When the information to be disclosed is maintained by the Board's OIG, the OIG will make the information available for inspection and copying or will mail it to you on request.
</P>
<P>(3) You may bring with you anyone you choose to see the requested material. All visitors to the Board's buildings must comply with the Board's security procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of request.</I> If we deny a request made pursuant to § 261a.5 of this part, we will tell you the reason(s) for denial and the procedures for appealing the denial. If a request made under paragraph § 261a.5(f) is denied, in whole or in part, the Board office that denied your request will simultaneously notify the Secretary of the Board of its action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.7   Special procedures for medical records.</HEAD>
<P>If you request medical or psychological records pursuant to § 261a.5, we will disclose them directly to you unless the Chief Privacy Officer, in consultation with the Board's physician or Employee Assistance Program counselor, determines that such disclosure could have an adverse effect on you. If the Chief Privacy Officer makes that determination, we will provide the information to a licensed physician or other appropriate representative that you designate, who may disclose those records to you in a manner he or she deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.8   Request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for making request.</I> (1) If you wish to amend a record that pertains to you in a system of records, you may submit the request in writing to the Secretary of the Board (or to the Inspector General for records in a system of records maintained by the OIG) in an envelope clearly marked “Privacy Act Amendment Request.”
</P>
<P>(2) Your request for amendment of a record must—
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the system of records containing the record for which amendment is requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the portion of that record requested to be amended; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the nature of and reasons for each requested amendment.
</P>
<P>(3) We will require you to verify your identity under the procedures set forth in § 261a.5(c) of this part, unless you have already done so in a related request for access or amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of proof.</I> Your request for amendment of a record must tell us why you believe the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. You have the burden of proof for demonstrating the appropriateness of the requested amendment, and you must provide relevant and convincing evidence in support of your request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.9   Board review of request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limits.</I> We will acknowledge your request for amendment of your record within 10 business days after we receive your request. In the acknowledgment, we may request additional information necessary for a determination on the request for amendment. We will make a determination on a request to amend a record promptly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of response to request for amendment.</I> When we respond to a request for amendment, we will tell you whether your request is granted or denied. If we grant your request, we will take the necessary steps to amend your record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of our action. If we deny the request, in whole or in part, we will tell you—
</P>
<P>(1) Why we denied the request (or portion of the request);
</P>
<P>(2) That you have a right to appeal; and
</P>
<P>(3) How to file an appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.10   Appeal of adverse determination of request for access or amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal.</I> You may appeal a denial of a request made pursuant to § 261a.5 or § 261a.8 of this part within 10 business days after we notify you that we denied your request. Your appeal must—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made in writing with the words “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL” written prominently on the first page and addressed to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20551;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the background of the request; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide reasons why you believe the initial denial is in error.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination.</I> We will make a determination on your appeal within 30 business days from the date we receive it, unless we extend the time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(1) If we grant your appeal regarding a request for amendment, we will take the necessary steps to amend your record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of our action.
</P>
<P>(2) If we deny your appeal, we will inform you of such determination, tell you our reasons for the denial, and tell you about your rights to file a statement of disagreement and to have a court review our decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement of disagreement.</I> (1) If we deny your appeal regarding a request for amendment, you may file a concise statement of disagreement with the denial. We will maintain your statement with the record you sought to amend and any disclosure of the record will include a copy of your statement of disagreement.
</P>
<P>(2) When practicable and appropriate, we will provide a copy of the statement of disagreement to any prior recipients of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure of Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.11   Restrictions on disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>We will not disclose any record about you contained in a system of records to any person or agency without your prior written consent unless the disclosure is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261a.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.23.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261a.12   Exempt records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information compiled for civil action.</I> This regulation does not permit you to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Law enforcement information.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), we have determined that it is necessary to exempt the systems of records listed below from the requirements of the Privacy Act concerning access to records, accounting of disclosures of records, maintenance of only relevant and necessary information in files, and certain publication provisions, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f), and §§ 261a.5, 261a.7, and 261a.8 of this part. The exemption applies only to the extent that a system of records contains investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes.
</P>
<P>(1) BGFRS-1 Recruiting and Placement Records
</P>
<P>(2) BGFRS-2 Personnel Security Systems
</P>
<P>(3) BGFRS-4 General Personnel Records
</P>
<P>(4) BGFRS-5 EEO Discrimination Complaint File
</P>
<P>(5) BGFRS-18 Consumer Complaint Information
</P>
<P>(6) BGFRS-21 Supervisory Enforcement Actions and Special Examinations Tracking System
</P>
<P>(7) BGFRS-31 Protective Information System
</P>
<P>(8) BGFRS-32 Visitor Registration System
</P>
<P>(9) BGFRS-36 Federal Reserve Application Name Check System
</P>
<P>(10) BGFRS-37 Electronic Applications
</P>
<P>(11) BGFRS-43 Security Sharing Platform
</P>
<P>(12) BGFRS/OIG-1 OIG Investigative Records
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential references.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), we have determined that it is necessary to exempt the systems of records listed below from the requirements of the Privacy Act concerning access to records, accounting of disclosures of records, maintenance of only relevant and necessary information in files, and certain publication provisions, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H) and (I), and (f), and §§ 261a.5, 261a.7, and 261a.8 of this part. The exemption applies only to the extent that a system of records contains investigatory material compiled to determine an individual's suitability, eligibility, and qualifications for Board employment or access to classified information, and the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Board under a promise of confidentiality.
</P>
<P>(1) BGFRS-1 Recruiting and Placement Records
</P>
<P>(2) BGFRS-2 Personnel Security Systems
</P>
<P>(3) BGFRS-4 General Personnel Records
</P>
<P>(4) BGFRS-10 General Files on Board Members
</P>
<P>(5) BGFRS-11 Official General Files
</P>
<P>(6) BGFRS-13 Federal Reserve System Bank Supervision Staff Qualifications
</P>
<P>(7) BGFRS-14 General File on Federal Reserve Bank and Branch Directors
</P>
<P>(8) BGFRS-25 Multi-Rater Feedback Records
</P>
<P>(9) BGFRS/OIG-1 OIG Investigative Records
</P>
<P>(10) BGFRS/OIG-2 OIG Personnel Records
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criminal law enforcement information.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), we have determined that the OIG Investigative Records (BGFRS/OIG-1) are exempt from the Privacy Act, except the provisions regarding disclosure, the requirement to keep an accounting, certain publication requirements, certain requirements regarding the proper maintenance of systems of records, and the criminal penalties for violation of the Privacy Act, respectively, 5 U.S.C. 552a(b), (c)(1), and (2), (e)(4)(A) through (F), (e)(6), (e)(7), (e)(9), (e)(10), (e)(11) and (i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 63704, Oct. 18, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 73604, Nov. 19, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="261b" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 261b—RULES REGARDING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF MEETINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552b. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 261b.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.1   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“the Board”) under section 552b of title 5 of the United States Code, the Government in the Sunshine Act (“the Act”), to carry out the policy of the Act that the public is entitled to the fullest practicable information regarding the decision making processes of the Board while at the same time preserving the rights of individuals and the ability of the Board to carry out its responsibilities. These regulations fulfill the requirement of subsection (g) of the Act that each agency subject to the provisions of the Act shall promulgate regulations to implement the open meeting requirements of subsections (b) through (f) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>agency</I> means the Board and subdivisions thereof. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>subdivision</I> means any group composed of two or more Board members that is authorized to act on behalf of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least the number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the agency where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Board business, but does not include (1) deliberations required or permitted by subsections (d) or (e) of the Act, or (2) the conduct or disposition of official agency business by circulating written material to individual members. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>number of individual agency members required to take action on behalf of the agency</I> means in the case of the Board, a majority of its members except that (1) Board determination of the ratio of reserves against deposits under section 19(b) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of four members, (2) Board action with respect to advances, discounts and rediscounts under sections 10(a), 11(b), and 13(3) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of five members and (3) Board action with respect to the percentage of individual member bank capital and surplus which may be represented by loans secured by stock and bond collateral under section 11(m) of the Federal Reserve Act requires the vote of six members. In the case of subdivisions of the Board, the term means the number of members constituting a quorum of the designated subdivision. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>member</I> means a member of the Board appointed under section 10 of the Federal Reserve Act. In the case of certain Board proceedings pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(e), the Comptroller of the Currency is entitled to sit as a member of the Board and for these proceedings he shall be deemed a <I>member</I> for the purposes of this part. In the case of any subdivision of the Board, the term <I>member</I> means a member of the Board designated to serve on that subdivision. 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>public observation</I> means that the public shall have the right to listen and observe but not to record any of the meetings by means of cameras or electronic or other recording devices unless approval in advance is obtained from the Public Affairs Office of the Board and shall not have the right to participate in the meeting, unless participation is provided for in the Board's Rules of Procedure. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>Federal agency</I> means an <I>agency</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(1). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Committee</I> means the Action Committee established pursuant to 12 CFR 265.1a(c).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 34481, Aug. 4, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.3   Conduct of agency business.</HEAD>
<P>Members shall not jointly conduct or dispose of official agency business other than in accordance with this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.4   Meetings open to public observation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 261b.5, every portion of every meeting of the agency shall be open to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of staff documents considered in connection with agency discussion of agenda items for a meeting that is open to public observation shall be made available for distribution to members of the public attending the meeting, in accordance with the provisions of 12 CFR part 261. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency will maintain a complete electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting open to public observation. Cassettes will be available for listening in the Freedom of Information Office, and copies may be ordered for $5 per cassette by telephoning or by writing Freedom of Information Office, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency will maintain mailing lists of names and addresses of all persons who wish to receive copies of agency announcements of meetings open to public observation. Requests for announcements may be made by telephoning or by writing Freedom of Information Office, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 11750, Mar. 2, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in a case where the agency finds that the public interest requires otherwise, the agency may close a meeting or a portion or portions of a meeting under the procedures specified in § 261b.7 or § 261b.8 of this part, and withhold information under the provisions of §§ 261b.6, 261b.7, 261b.8, or 261b.11 of this part, where the agency properly determines that such meeting or portion or portions of its meeting or the disclosure of such information is likely to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are (i) specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy, and (ii) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to internal personnel rules and practices; 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code), provided that such statute (i) requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (ii) establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential; 
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person; 
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would— 
</P>
<P>(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by a Federal agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, 
</P>
<P>(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Board or other Federal agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Be likely to (A) lead to significant speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action, except that paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section shall not apply in any instance where the Board has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Board is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or 
</P>
<P>(10) Specifically concern the issuance of a subpoena, participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in section 554 of title 5 of the United States Code or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.6   Public announcement of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided by the Act, public announcement of meetings open to public observation and meetings to be partially or completely closed to public observation pursuant to § 261b.8 of this part will be made at least one week in advance of the meeting. Except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5 of this part, each such public announcement will state the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and phone number of the official designated to respond to requests for information about the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a majority of the members of the agency determines by a recorded vote that agency business requires that a meeting covered by paragraph (a) of this section be called at a date earlier than that specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the agency will make a public announcement of the information specified in paragraph (a) of this section at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in the subject matter of a publicly announced meeting, or in the determination to open or close a publicly announced meeting or any portion of a publicly announced meeting to public observation, or in the time or place of a publicly announced meeting made in accordance with the procedures specified in § 261b.9 of this part will be publicly announced at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(d) Public announcements required by this section will be posted at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office and may be made available by other means or at other locations as may be desirable. 
</P>
<P>(e) Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, notice of the time, place and subject matter of a meeting, whether the meeting is open or closed, any change in one of the preceding announcements and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Board to respond to requests about the meeting, shall also be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.7   Meetings closed to public observation under expedited procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Since the Board and the Committee qualifies for the use of expedited procedures under subsection (d)(4) of the Act, meetings or portions thereof exempt under paragraph (a)(4), (a)(8), (a)(9)(i) or (a)(10) of § 261b.5 of this part, will be closed to public observation under the expedited procedures of this section. Following are examples of types of items that, absent compelling contrary circumstances, will qualify for these exemptions: Matters relating to a specific bank or bank holding company, such as bank branches or mergers, bank holding company formations, or acquisition of an additional bank or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible nonbanking activity; matters relating to a specific savings and loan holding company or its subsidiaries, such as acquisitions, reorganizations, savings and loan holding company formations, conversions, or acquisition or de novo undertaking of a permissible activity; bank regulatory matters, such as applications for membership, issuance of capital notes and investment in bank premises; foreign banking matters; bank supervisory and enforcement matters, such as cease-and-desist and officer removal proceedings; monetary policy matters, such as discount rates, use of the discount window, changes in the limitations on payment of interest on time and savings accounts, and changes in reserve requirements or margin regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) At the beginning of each meeting, a portion or portions of which is closed to public observation under expedited procedures pursuant to this section, a recorded vote of the members present will be taken to determine whether a majority of the members of the agency votes to close such meeting of portions of such meeting to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the vote, reflecting the vote of each member, and except to the extent such information is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 261b.5, a public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting or each closed portion thereof, will be made available at the earliest practicable time at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 43 FR 34481, Aug. 4, 1978; 76 FR 56601, Sept. 13, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.8   Meetings closed to public observation under regular procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A meeting or a portion of a meeting will be closed to public observation under regular procedures, or information as to such meeting or portion of a meeting will be withheld only by recorded vote of a majority of the members of the agency when it is determined that the meeting or the portion of the meeting or the withholding of information qualifies for exemption under § 261b.5. Votes by proxy are not allowed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, a separate vote of the members of the agency will be taken with respect to the closing or the withholding of information as to each meeting or portion thereof which is proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to which information is proposed to be withheld pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings, a portion or portions of which are proposed to be closed to public observation or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings proposed to be withheld, so long as each meeting or portion thereof in such series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever any person's interests may be directly affected by a portion of a meeting for any of the reasons referred to in exemption (a)(5), (a)(6) or (a)(7) of § 261b.5 of this part, such person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that such portion of the meeting be closed to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, will transmit the request to the members and upon the request of any one of them a recorded vote will be taken whether to close such meeting to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(e) Within one day of any vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, the agency will make publicly available at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office a written copy of such vote reflecting the vote of each member on the question. If a meeting or a portion of a meeting is to be closed to public observation, the agency, within one day of the vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section, will make publicly available at the Board's Public Affairs Office and Freedom of Information Office a full, written explanation of its action closing the meeting or portion of the meeting together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation, except to the extent such information is determined by the agency to be exempt from disclosure under subsection (c) of the Act and § 261b.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any person may request in writing to the Secretary of the Board that an announced closed meeting, or portion of the meeting, be held open to public observation. The Secretary, or in his or her absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board, will transmit the request to the members of the Board and upon the request of any member a recorded vote will be taken whether to open such meeting to public observation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13297, Mar. 10, 1977, as amended at 44 FR 11750, Mar. 2, 1979] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.9   Changes with respect to publicly announced meeting.</HEAD>
<P>The subject matter of a meeting or the determination to open or close a meeting or a portion of a meeting to public observation may be changed following public announcement under § 261b.6 only if a majority of the members of the agency determines by a recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible. Public announcement of such change and the vote of each member upon such change will be made pursuant to § 261b.6(c). Changes in time, including postponements and cancellations of a publicly announced meeting or portion of a meeting or changes in the place of a publicly announced meeting will be publicly announced pursuant to § 261b.6(c) by the Secretary of the Board or, in the Secretary's absence, the Acting Secretary of the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.10   Certification of General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>Before every meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation under § 261b.7 or 261b.8 of this part, the General Counsel, or in the General Counsel's absence, the Acting General Counsel, shall publicly certify whether or not in his or her opinion the meeting may be closed to public observation and shall state each relevant exemptive provision. A copy of such certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, will be retained for the time prescribed in § 261b.11(d). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.11   Transcripts, recordings, and minutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency will maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording or transcription thereof adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation pursuant to exemption (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), (a)(7) or (a)(9)(ii) of § 261b.5 of this part. Transcriptions of recordings will disclose the identity of each speaker. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency will maintain either such a transcript, recording or transcription thereof, or a set of minutes that will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote (reflecting the vote of each member on the question), for meetings or portions of meetings closed to public observation pursuant to exemptions (a)(8), (a)(9)(A) or (a)(10) of § 261b.5 of this part. The minutes will identify all documents considered in connection with any action taken. 
</P>
<P>(c) Transcripts, recordings or transcriptions thereof, or minutes will promptly be made available to the public in the Freedom of Information Office except for such item or items of such discussion or testimony as may be determined to contain information that may be withheld under subsection (c) of the Act and § 261b.5 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) A complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording or verbatim copy of a transcription thereof of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to public observation will be maintained for a period of at least two years or one year after the conclusion of any agency proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion thereof was held, whichever occurs later.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.12   Procedures for inspection and obtaining copies of transcriptions and minutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person may inspect or copy a transcript, a recording or transcription of a recording, or minutes described in § 261b.11(c) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests for copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes described in § 261b.11(c) of this part shall specify the meeting or the portion of meeting desired and shall be submitted in writing to the Secretary of the Board, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. Copies of documents identified in minutes may be made available to the public upon request under the provisions of 12 CFR part 261 (Rules Regarding Availability of Information). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 261b.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.24.0.3.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 261b.13   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Copies of transcripts, recordings or transcriptions of recordings, or minutes requested pursuant to section § 261b.12(b) of this part will be provided at the cost of 10¢ per standard page for photocopying or at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of printing, typing, or otherwise preparing such copies. 
</P>
<P>(b) Documents may be furnished without charge where total charges are less than $2. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="262" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 262—RULES OF PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 248, 321, 325, 326, 483, 602, 611a, 625, 1467a, 1828(c), 1842, 1844, 1850a, 1867, 3105, 3106, 3108, 5361, 5368, 5467, and 5469.
</PSPACE>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="7">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—XXX</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="9">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<P> 


</P>

<DIV8 N="§ 262.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.1   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="8">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<P>This part is issued pursuant to section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code, which requires that every agency shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, rules of procedure, and descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.2   Procedure for regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> Notices of proposed regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the “Board”) or amendments thereto are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except as specified in paragraph (e) of this section or otherwise excepted by law. Such notices include a statement of the terms of the proposed regulations or amendments and a description of the subjects and issues involved; but the giving of such notices does not necessarily indicate the Board's final approval of any feature of any such proposal. The notices also include a reference to the authority for the proposed regulations or amendments and a statement of the time, place, and nature of public participation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public participation.</I> The usual method of public submission of data, views, or arguments is in writing. It is ordinarily preferable that they be sent to the Secretary of the Board, Washington, DC 20551, with copies to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank. The locations of the 12 Federal Reserve Banks and the boundaries of the Federal Reserve districts are shown in the appendix to the Board's rules of organization. Such material will be made available for inspection and copying upon request, except as provided in § 261.6(b) of this chapter regarding availability of information. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preparation of draft and action by Board.</I> In the light of consideration of all relevant matter presented or ascertained, the appropriate division of the Board's staff, in collaboration with other divisions, prepares drafts of proposed regulations or amendments, and the staff submits them to the Board. The Board takes such action as it deems appropriate in the public interest. Any other documents that may be necessary to carry out any decision by the Board in the matter are usually prepared by the Legal Division, in collaboration with the other divisions of the staff. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective dates.</I> Any substantive regulation or amendment thereto issued by the Board is published not less than 30 days prior to the effective date thereof, except as specified in paragraph (e) of this section or as otherwise excepted by law. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions as to notice or effective date.</I> In certain situations, notice and public participation with respect to proposed regulations may be impracticable, unnecessary, contrary to the public interest, or otherwise not required in the public interest, or there may be reason and good cause in the public interest why the effective date should not be deferred for 30 days. The reason or reasons in such cases usually are that such notice, public participation, or deferment of effective date would prevent the action from becoming effective as promptly as necessary in the public interest, would permit speculators or others to reap unfair profits or to interfere with the Board's actions taken with a view to accommodating commerce and business and with regard to their bearing upon the general credit situation of the country, would provoke other consequences contrary to the public interest, would unreasonably interfere with the Board's necessary functions with respect to management or personnel, would not aid the persons affected, or would otherwise serve no useful purpose. The following may be mentioned as some examples of situations in which advance notice or deferred effective date, or both, will ordinarily be omitted in the public interest: The review and determination of discount rates established by Federal Reserve Banks, and changes in general requirements regarding reserves of member banks, maximum interest rates on time and savings deposits, or credit for purchasing or carrying securities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973, as amended at 54 FR 33183, Aug. 14, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.3   Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Forms.</I> Any application, request, or petition (hereafter referred to as “application”) for the approval, authority, determination, or permission of the Board with respect to any action for which such approval, authority, determination, or permission is required by law or regulation of the Board (including actions authorized to be taken by a Federal Reserve Bank or others on behalf of the Board pursuant to authority delegated under Part 265 of this chapter) shall be submitted in accordance with the pertinent form, if any, prescribed by the Board. Copies of any such form and details regarding information to be included therein may be obtained from any Federal Reserve Bank. Any application for which no form is prescribed should be signed by the person making the application or by his duly authorized agent, should state the facts involved, the action requested, and the applicant's interest in the matter, and should indicate the reasons why the application should be granted. Applications for access to, or copying of, records of the Board should be submitted as provided in § 261.9(a) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of applications.</I> (1)(i) In the case of applications, 
</P>
<P>(A) By a State member bank for the establishment of a domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits, 
</P>
<P>(B) To become a bank holding company (except as provided in § 225.15 of this chapter),
</P>
<P>(C) By a bank holding company to acquire ownership or control of shares or assets of a bank, or to merge or consolidate with any other bank holding company,
</P>
<P>(D) To become a savings and loan holding company (except as provided in § 238.14 of this chapter), and
</P>
<P>(E) By a savings and loan holding company to acquire ownership or control of shares or assets of a savings association, or to merge or consolidate with any other savings and loan holding company, the applicant shall cause to be published a notice in the form prescribed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice shall be placed in the classified advertising legal notices section of the newspaper, and must provide an opportunity for the public to give written comment on the application to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank for the period specified in Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) in the case of applications specified in § 262.3(b)(1)(i)(A), and for at least thirty days after the date of publication in the case of applications specified in § 262.3(b)(1)(i)(B) and (C). Within 7 days of publication, the applicant shall submit its application to the appropriate Reserve Bank for acceptance along with a copy of the notice. If the Reserve Bank has not accepted the application as complete within ninety days of the date of publication of the notice, the applicant may be required to republish notice of the application. Such notice shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in— 
</P>
<P>(A) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(B) The community or communities in which the head office of the bank and the proposed branch or other facility (other than an electronic funds transfer facility) are located in the case of an application for the establishment of a domestic branch or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits, other than an application incidental to an application by a bank for merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities,
</P>
<P>(C) The community or communities in which the head office of the bank, the office to be closed, and the office to be opened are located in the case of an application for the relocation of a domestic branch office, 
</P>
<P>(D) The community or communities in which the head office of each of the banks to be party to the merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities are located in the case of an application by a bank for merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities,
</P>
<P>(E) The community or communities in which the head offices of the largest subsidiary bank, if any, of an applicant and of each bank, shares of which are to be directly or indirectly acquired, are located in the case of applications under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act, or


</P>
<P>(F) The community or communities in which the head offices of the largest subsidiary savings association, if any, of an applicant and of each savings association, shares of which are to be directly or indirectly acquired, are located in the case of applications under section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act.




</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the foregoing notice, an applicant, in the case of an application to relocate a domestic branch office or other facility that would be authorized to receive deposits, shall post in a conspicuous public place in the lobby of the office to be closed a notice containing the information specified in § 262.3(b)(1). Such notice should be posted on the date of the notice required by § 262.3(b)(1). 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an application for a merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities, if the acquiring, assuming, or resulting bank is to be a State member bank, the applicant shall cause to be published notice in the form prescribed by the Board. The notice shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community or communities in which the head office of each of the banks to be a party to the merger, consolidation, or acquisition of assets or assumption of liabilities is located. The notice shall be published on at least three occasions at appropriate intervals. The last publication of the notice shall appear at least thirty days after the first publication. The notice must provide an opportunity for the public to give written comment on the application to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank for at least thirty days after the date of the first publication of the notice. Within seven days of publication of notice for the first time, the applicant shall submit its application to the appropriate Reserve Bank for acceptance, along with a copy of the notice. If the Reserve Bank has not accepted the application as complete within ninety days of the date of the first publication of the notice, the applicant may be required to republish notice of the application. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of applications.</I> Any application should be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the head office of the parent banking organization is located, except as otherwise specified on application forms, and that Bank will forward it to the Board when appropriate; however, in the case of foreign banking organization, as defined in § 211.23(a)(2) of this chapter, applications shall be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the operations of the organization's subsidiary banks are principally conducted. In the case of a foreign banking organization that is not a bank holding company but that has one or more branches, agencies, or commercial lending companies in any State of the United States or the District of Columbia, applications shall be sent to the Federal Reserve Bank of the district in which the organization's banking assets are the largest. Applications of a member bank subsidiary, however, should be filed with the Reserve Bank of the district in which the member bank is located. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Analysis by staff.</I> In every case, the Reserve Bank makes such investigation as may be necessary, and, except when acting pursuant to delegated authority, reports the relevant facts, with its recommendation, to the Board. In the light of consideration of all relevant matter presented or ascertained, the Board's staff prepares and submits to the Board comments on the subject. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of comments and requests for hearing.</I> The Board is only required to consider a comment or a request for a hearing with respect to an application or notice if it is in writing and received by the Secretary of the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank on or before the latest date prescribed in any notice with respect to the application or notice, or where no such date is prescribed, on or before the 30th day after the date notice is first published. Similarly, the Board will consider comments on an application from the Attorney General or a banking supervisory authority to which notification of receipt of an application has been given, only if such comment is received by the Secretary of the Board within 30 days of the date of the letter giving such notification. Any comment on an application or notice that requests a hearing must include a statement of why a written presentation would not suffice in lieu of a hearing, identifying specifically any questions of fact that are in dispute and summarizing the evidence that would be presented at a hearing. In every case where a timely comment or request for hearing is received as provided herein, a copy of such comment or request shall be forwarded promptly to the applicant for its response. The Board will consider the applicant's response only if it is in writing and sent to the Secretary of the Board on or before eight business days after the date of the letter by which it is forwarded to the applicant. At the same time it transmits its response to the Board, the applicant should transmit a copy of its response to the person or supervisory authority making such comment or requesting a hearing. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may, in its sole discretion and without notifying the parties, take into consideration the substance of comments with respect to an application, (but not requests for hearing) that are not received within the time periods provided herein. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Action on applications.</I> The Board takes such action as it deems appropriate in the public interest. Such documents as may be necessary to carry out any decision by the Board are prepared by the Board's staff. With respect to actions taken by a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of the Board under delegated authority, statements and necessary documents are prepared by the staff of such Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of action.</I> Prompt notice is given to the applicant of the granting or denial in whole or in part of any application. In the case of a denial, except in affirming a prior denial or where the denial is self-explanatory, such notice is accompanied by a simple statement of the grounds for such action. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Action at Board's initiative.</I> When the Board, without receiving an application, takes action with respect to any matter as to which opportunity for hearing is not required by statute or Board regulation, similar procedure is followed, including investigations, reports, and recommendations by the Board's staff and by the Reserve Banks, where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>General procedures for bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, and merger applications.</I> In addition to procedures applicable under other provisions of this part, the following procedures are applicable in connection with the Board's consideration of applications under sections 3 and 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1842 and 1843), hereafter referred to as “section 3 applications” or “section 4 applications,” applications under section 10(c), (e), and (o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), hereafter referred to as “section 10 applications,” and of applications under section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823), hereafter called “merger applications.” Except as otherwise indicated, the following procedures apply to all such applications.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board issues each week a list that identifies section 3, section 4, section 10, and merger applications received and acted upon during the preceding week by the Board or the Reserve Banks pursuant to delegated authority. Notice of receipt of all section 3 section 4(c)(8), and section 10 applications acted on by the Board is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(2) If a hearing is required by law or if the Board determines that a formal hearing for the purpose of taking evidence is desirable, the Board issues an order for such a hearing, and a notice thereof is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Any such formal hearing is conducted by an administrative law judge in accordance with subparts A and B of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (part 263 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(3) In any case in which a formal hearing is not ordered by the Board, the Board may afford the applicant and other properly interested persons (including Governmental agencies) an opportunity to present views orally before the Board or its designated representative. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, any such oral presentation is public and notice of such public proceeding is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(4) Each action taken by the Board on an application is embodied in an order that indicates the votes of members of the Board. The order either contains reasons for the Board's action (i.e., an expanded order) or is accompanied by a statement of the reasons for the Board's action. Both the order and any accompanying statement are released to the press. Each order accompanied by a statement and any order of general interest, together with a list of other orders, are published in the Federal Reserve Bulletin. Action by a Reserve Bank under delegated authority as provided for under part 265 of this chapter is reflected in a letter of notification to the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the Board shall otherwise direct, each section 3, section 4, section 10, and merger application is made available for inspection by the public except for portions thereof as to which the Board determines that nondisclosure is warranted under section 552(b) of title 5 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Special procedures for certain applications.</I> The following types of applications require procedures exclusive of, or in addition to, those described in paragraphs (i)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Special rules pertaining to section 3 and merger applications follow: 
</P>
<P>(i) Each order of the Board and each letter of notification by a Reserve Bank acting pursuant to delegated authority approving a section 3 application includes, pursuant to the Act approved July 1, 1966 (12 U.S.C. 1849(b)), a requirement that the transaction approved shall not be consummated before the 30th calendar day following the date of such order.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each order of the Board approving a merger application includes, pursuant to the Act approved February 21, 1966 (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(6)), a requirement that the transaction approved shall not be consummated before the 30th calendar day following the date of such order, except as the Board may otherwise determine pursuant to emergency situations as to which the Act permits consummation at earlier dates.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each order or each letter of notification approving an application also includes, as a condition of approval, a requirement that the transaction approved shall be consummated within 3 months and, in the case of acquisition by a holding company of stock of a newly organized bank, a requirement that such bank shall be opened for business within 6 months, but such periods may be extended for good cause by the Board (or by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank where authority to grant such extensions is delegated to the Reserve Bank). 
</P>
<P>(2) For special rules governing procedures for section 4 applications, refer to § 225.23 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) Special rules pertaining to applications filed pursuant to section 10(e) and (o) of HOLA follow:
</P>
<P>(i) Each order or each letter of notification approving an application also includes, as a condition of approval, a requirement that the transaction approved shall be consummated within 3 months and, in the case of acquisition by a holding company of stock of a newly organized savings association, a requirement that such savings association shall be opened for business within 6 months, but such periods may be extended for good cause by the Board (or by the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank where authority to grant such extensions is delegated to the Reserve Bank).
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) For special rules governing procedures for section 4(c)(13) applications, refer to § 225.4(f) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reconsideration of certain Board actions.</I> The Board may reconsider any action taken by it on an application upon receipt by the Secretary of the Board of a written request for reconsideration from any party to such application, on or before the 15th day after the effective date of the Board's action. Such request should specify the reasons why the Board should reconsider its action, and present relevant facts that for good cause shown, were not previously presented to the Board. Within 10 days of receipt of such a request, the General Counsel, acting pursuant to delegated authority (12 CFR 265.2(b)(7)), shall determine whether or not the request for reconsideration should be granted, and shall notify all parties to the application orally by telephone of this determination within 10 days. Such notification will be confirmed promptly in writing. In the exercise of this authority, the General Counsel shall confer with the Directors of other interested Divisions of the Board or their designees. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may, on its own motion if it deems reconsideration appropriate, elect to reconsider its action with respect to any application, and the parties to such application shall be notified by the Secretary of the Board of its election as provided above. If it is determined that the Board should reconsider its action with respect to an application, such action will be stayed and will not be final until the Board has acted on the application upon reconsideration. If appropriate, notice of reconsideration of an application will be published promptly in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Waiver.</I> The Board, or the officer or Reserve Bank authorized to approve an application, may waive or modify any procedural requirements for that application prescribed or cited in this section and may excuse any failure to comply with them upon a finding that immediate action on the application is necessary to prevent the probable failure of a bank or company or that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action.
</P>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843, and 1844(b), 12 U.S.C. 1828(c), 321 and 248(i))
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 6807, Mar. 13, 1973]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 262.3, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.4   Adjudication with formal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>In connection with adjudication with respect to which a formal hearing is required by law or is ordered by the Board, the procedure is set forth in part 263 of this chapter, entitled “Rules of Practice for Formal Hearings.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.5   Appearance and practice.</HEAD>
<P>Appearance and practice before the Board in all matters are governed by § 263.3 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.6   Forms.</HEAD>
<P>Necessary forms to be used in connection with applications and other matters are available at the Federal Reserve Banks. A list of all such forms, which is reviewed and revised periodically, may be obtained from any Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(a) This action is taken pursuant to and in accordance with the provisions of section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code. 
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of section 553 of title 5, United States Code, relating to notice and public participation and to deferred effective dates, are not followed in connection with the adoption of this action, because the rules involved are procedural in nature and accordingly do not constitute substantive rules subject to the requirements of such section. 




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.7   Use of supervisory guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The Board issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This section reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this part) (Statement).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance.</I> The Statement describes the official policy of the Board with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction.</I> This section does not alter the legal status of guidelines authorized by statute, including but not limited to, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, to create binding legal obligations.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 18179, Apr. 8, 2021]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 262.8-262.24" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 262.8-262.24   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 262.25" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.1.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 262.25   Policy statement regarding notice of applications; timeliness of comments; informal meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of applications.</I> A bank or company applying to the Board for a deposit-taking facility must first publish notice of its application in local newspapers. This requirement, found in § 262.3(b)(1) of the Board's Rules of Procedure covers applications under the Bank Holding Company Act, Bank Merger Act, and Home Owners' Loan Act, as well as applications for membership in the Federal Reserve System and for new branches of State member banks. Notices of these applications are published in newspapers of general circulation in the communities where the applicant intends to do business as well as in the community where the applicant's head office is located. These notices are important in calling the public's attention to an applicant's plans and giving the public a chance to comment on these plans. To improve the effectiveness of the notices, the Board has supplemented its notice procedures as follows.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board has adopted standard forms of notice for use by applicants that will specify the exact date on which the comment period on the application ends, which may not be less than thirty calendar days from the date of publication of the notice. The newspaper forms also provide the name and telephone number of the Community Affairs Officer of the appropriate Reserve Bank as the person to call to obtain more information about submitting comments on an application. In general, the Community Affairs Officer will be available to answer questions of a general nature concerning the submission of comments and the processing of applications.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board also publishes notice of bank holding company applications for bank acquisitions (but not for bank mergers or branches) and savings and loan holding company applications for savings association acquisitions (but not for savings association mergers or branches) in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> after the application is received and the Community Affairs Officer can provide the exact date on which this comment period ends. (The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> comment period will generally end after the date specified in the newspaper notice.)
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the formal newspaper and <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices discussed above, each Reserve Bank publishes a weekly list of applications submitted to the Reserve Bank for which newspaper notices have been published. Any person or organization may arrange to have the list mailed to them regularly, or may request particular lists, by contacting the Reserve Bank's Community Affairs Officer. Each Reserve Bank's list includes only applications submitted to that particular Reserve Bank, and persons or groups should request lists from each Reserve Bank having jurisdiction over applications in which they may be interested. Since the lists are prepared as a courtesy by the Reserve Bank, and are not intended to replace any formal notice required by statute or regulation, the Reserve Banks and the Board do not assume responsibility for errors or omissions. In addition, the weekly lists prepared by Reserve Banks include certain applications by bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies for nonbank and non-depository institution acquisitions, respectively, filed with the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to applications by bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies to engage <I>de novo</I> in nonbank activities or make acquisitions of nonbank firms, the Board publishes notice of most of these applications in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> when the applications are filed. Notice of certain small acquisitions may be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the area(s) to be served. While applications for nonbanking activities are not covered by the provisions of the Community Reinvestment Act or the notice provisions of § 262.3 of the Board's Rules of Procedure, the provisions of this Statement apply to such applications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timeliness of comments.</I> (1) All comments must be actually received by the Board or the Reserve Bank on or before the last date of the comment period specified in the notice. Where more than one notice is published with respect to an application, comments must be received on or before the last date of the latest comment period. The Board's Rules allow it to disregard comments received after the comment period expires. In particular, § 262.3(e) of the Board's Rules of Procedure states that the Board will not consider comments on an application that are not received on or before the expiration of the comment period. Thus, a commenter who fails to comment on an application within the specified comment period (or any extension) may be precluded from participating in the consideration of the application.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where a commenter for good cause is unable to send its comment within the specified comment period, § 265.2(a)(10) of the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR 265.2(a)(10)) allows the Secretary of the Board to grant requests for an extension of the period. Under this provision, upon receipt of a request received on or before the expiration of the comment period, the Secretary may grant a brief extension upon clear demonstration of hardship or other meritorious reason for seeking additional time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Private meetings.</I> When a timely protest to approval of an application is received, the Reserve Bank may arrange a meeting between the applicant and the protestant to clarify and narrow the issues, and to provide a forum for the resolution of differences between the protestant and the applicant. If the Reserve Bank decides that a private meeting would be appropriate, the Reserve Bank will arrange a private meeting soon after the receipt of a protest and the applicant's response, if any, to the protest. In scheduling the meeting, the Reserve Bank will consider convenience to the parties with respect to the time and place of the meeting. A decision to hold a private meeting will not preclude the Reserve Bank or the Board from holding a public meeting or other proceeding if it is deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public meetings.</I> The Board's General Counsel (in consultation with the Reserve Bank and the directors of other interested divisions of the Board) may order that a public meeting or other proceeding be held if requested by the applicant or a protestant who files a timely protest, or if such a proceeding appears appropriate. In most instances, the determination to order a public meeting will be made after a private meeting has been held; however, where appropriate a public meeting may be convened immediately after receipt of the protest and the applicant's response, if any. Additional information may be requested prior to making a determination to convene a public meeting. In these cases, a determination will be made within ten days from the date all relevant information is received. The public meeting will be scheduled as soon as possible, but in no event, later than 30 days after the decision to hold the proceeding is made. The purpose of the public meeting will be to elicit information, to clarify factual issues related to the application and to provide an opportunity for interested individuals to provide testimony. The Board has adopted the following guidelines to be used for convening public meetings, although specific provisions may be altered by the General Counsel if circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requesting a public meeting.</I> A meeting may be requested by a person or an organization objecting to the application during the comment period, and by the applicant during the period within which it must respond to comments. Such a request must be timely and in writing.
</P>
<P>(i) A protest does not have to be filed in a legal brief or other format in order for a public meeting to be granted. The Community Affairs Officer at the Reserve Bank will be available to assist any member of the public regarding the types of information generally included in protests; the format generally used by protestants; and any other specific questions about the procedures of the Federal Reserve System regarding protested applications.
</P>
<P>(ii) In general, a protest should identify the protestant, state the basis for objection to approval of the application, and provide available written evidence to support the objection. Objections to approval of an application must relate to the factors that the Board is authorized to consider in acting on an application. Generally, these factors relate to the financial and managerial resources of the companies and banks involved, the effects of the proposal on competition, and the convenience and needs of the communities to be served by the companies and banks involved. If a public meeting is requested, the protest should indicate that there are members of the public who wish to speak on the issues in a public forum.
</P>
<P>(iii) The protest will be transmitted by the Reserve Bank to the applicant, and the applicant will generally be allowed eight business days to respond in writing to the protest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Arranging the public meeting.</I> Public meetings will be arranged and presided over by a representative of the Federal Reserve System (“Presiding Officer”). In determining the time and place for the public meeting, such factors as convenience to the parties, the number of people expected to attend the meeting, access to public transportation and possible after-hour security problems will be taken into account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conducting the public meeting.</I> Prior to the meeting, all necessary steps will be taken to ensure that the meeting is conducted appropriately, including scheduling of witnesses, submission of written materials and other arrangements. In conducting the public meeting the Presiding Officer will have the authority and discretion to ensure that the meeting proceeds in a fair and orderly manner. Generally, the public meeting will consist of opening and closing remarks by the Presiding Officer, a presentation by the protestant and a presentation by the applicant. An official transcript will be made of the proceedings and entered into the record. The conclusion of the public meeting normally marks the close of the public portion of the record on the application. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notification of Board decision on the application.</I> After a decision is made on the application, and the applicant is notified of the decision, staff will notify the protestant by telephone. This notification will be confirmed promptly in writing. As set forth in § 262.3(k) of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(k)) or § 265.3 of the Board's Rules Regarding Delegation of Authority (12 CFR 265.3), a party to the application may request reconsideration of the Board's order, or review of the Reserve Bank's decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 5603, Feb. 14, 1984, as amended at 57 FR 41642, Sept. 11, 1992; 76 FR 56602, Sept. 13, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—XXX</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="10">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="11">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="12">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<P> 


</P>

<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.25.2.3.1.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 262—Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HEAD>
<P>The Board is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the Board's approach to supervisory guidance.
</P>
<HD1>Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The Board issues various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, letters, policy statements, questions and answers, and frequently asked questions, to its supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the Board does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the Board's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the Board's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the Board generally considers consistent with safety-and-soundness standards or other applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Government agencies issue regulations that generally have the force and effect of law. Such regulations generally take effect only after the agency proposes the regulation to the public and responds to comments on the proposal in a final rulemaking document.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD1>
<P>The Board is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
</P>
<P>• The Board intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the Board intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The Board will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
</P>
<P>• Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention), a supervised financial institution for, and the Board will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of safe and sound conduct, appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices, and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>• Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations, financial conditions, or other matters that could have a negative effect on the safety and soundness of the financial institution, could cause consumer harm, or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
</P>
<P>• The Board has at times sought, and may continue to seek, public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the Board to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
</P>
<P>• The Board will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
</P>
<P>• The Board will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourage supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 18179, Apr. 8, 2021]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="263" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 263—RULES OF PRACTICE FOR HEARINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 248, 324, 334, 347a, 504, 505, 1464, 1467, 1467a, 1817(j), 1818, 1820(k), 1829, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1832(c), 1847(b), 1847(d), 1884, 1972(2)(F), 3105, 3108, 3110, 3349, 3907, 3909(d), 4717, 5323, 5362, 5365, 5463, 5464, 5466, 5467; 15 U.S.C. 21, 78l(i), 78o-4, 78o-5, 78u-2; 1639e(K); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 5321; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89909, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.










</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the Board is the appropriate agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the Board against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which the Board is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any provision of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (“BHC Act”), or any order or regulation issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1847(b) and (d);
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 19, 22, 23, 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 9 of the FRA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 324;
</P>
<P>(4) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(7) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the Board or the former Office of Thrift Supervision (“OTS”), the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the Board or the former OTS in connection with the grant of an application or request, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty or law or regulation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464(d), (s) and (v);
</P>
<P>(14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
</P>
<P>(15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(i) and (r);
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules (see § 263.3(i)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.2   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge</I> (ALJ) means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Board's or ALJ's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Agency or the ALJ, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic signature</I> means electronically affixing the equivalent of a signature to an electronic document filed or transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Board in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the Board with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) Any organization organized and operated under section 25A of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) or operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(4) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
</P>
<P>(5) Any branch or agency as those terms are defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(1), (3), (5), (6));
</P>
<P>(6) Any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary (other than a depository institution) of a savings and loan holding company as those terms are defined in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(7) Any U.S. or foreign nonbank financial company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council (“FSOC”) requires the Board to supervise under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323(a)(1), (b)(1)), or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
</P>
<P>(8) Any financial market utility or financial institution conducting payment, clearing, or settlement activities that FSOC designates as systematically important under section 804 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5463); and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other entity subject to the supervision of the Board.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the Board in this part other than this subpart.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>OFIA</I> means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the Board, the Office of Comptroller of the Currency (“OCC”), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), and the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Party</I> means the Board and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the Board.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in this subpart A that are common to the Board, the OCC, the FDIC, and the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Violation</I> means any violation as that term is defined in section 3(v) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(v)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.4   Authority of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.5   Authority of the administrative law judge (“ALJ”).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 5. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> protective orders, and other orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 263.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board has the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Board a recommended decision as provided in this section;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse oneself by motion made by a party or on the ALJ's own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of an ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.6   Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the Board or an ALJ</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the Board if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on the individual's own behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> (i) Any individual acting on the individual's own behalf or as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Board, must file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party; and
</P>
<P>(B) A written acknowledgement that the individual has reviewed and will comply with the Uniform Rules and Local Rules in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that the counsel is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, the counsel will, if required by the ALJ, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that the party will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.7   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice must be signed by at least one counsel of record in the counsel's individual name and must state that counsel's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number. A party who acts as the party's own counsel must sign that person's individual name and state that person's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Electronic signatures may be used to satisfy the signature requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party will constitute a certification: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the ALJ will strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the counsel's or party's statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.8   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person may appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The ALJ may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 263.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.9   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication. Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the Board (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ALJ handling that proceeding, a member of the Board, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the Board until the date that the Board issues a final decision pursuant to § 263.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person outside the Federal Reserve System must not make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to a member of the Board, the ALJ, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the Board, ALJ, or decisional employee may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the Federal Reserve System any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an <I>ex parte</I> communication is received by the ALJ, a member of the Board, or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person will cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding may, within ten days of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication, file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The ALJ or the Board then determines whether any action should be taken concerning the <I>ex parte</I> communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or counsel to a party who makes a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board or the ALJ including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the ALJ may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of an employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision process.</I> An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 263.40, except as witness or counsel in administrative or judicial proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.10   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 263.25 and 263.26, must be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board or the ALJ, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board or the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers to a same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on an 8 1/2×11 inch page and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 263.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the Board and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.11   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers must serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party must use one of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers by same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Board or the ALJ.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Board or the ALJ upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6 will be served by electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board or ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) If a respondent has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, the Board or the ALJ will serve the respondent by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the respondent;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the respondent's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the person's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.12   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of transmission by electronic mail or other electronic means, upon transmittal by the serving party;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight delivery service or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of personal service or same day courier delivery, upon actual service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board or ALJ in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by electronic mail or other electronic means or by same day courier delivery, add one calendar day to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by overnight delivery service, add two calendar days to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.13   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the ALJ may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board pursuant to § 263.38, the Board may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Board's or the ALJ's own motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.14   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A witness, including an expert witness, who testifies at a deposition or hearing will be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, except as provided in paragraph (b) and unless otherwise waived.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception for testimony by a party.</I> In the case of testimony by a party, no witness fees or mileage need to be paid. The Board will not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of payment.</I> Fees and mileage in accordance with this paragraph (c)must be paid in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Board is the party requesting the subpoena.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.15   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. Any such offer or proposal may only be made to Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.16   The Board's right to conduct examination.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the Board to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the Board to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.17" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.17   Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding will continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart will be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.18" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.18   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law. Enforcement Counsel may serve the notice upon counsel for the respondent, provided that Enforcement Counsel has confirmed that counsel represents the respondent in the matter and will accept service of the notice on behalf of the respondent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enforcement Counsel must file the notice with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> Notice pleading applies. The notice must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Board's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Matters of fact or law showing that the Board is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing must be filed with OFIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.19" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.19   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent must file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent must also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the respondent lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief, or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order of the Board without further action by the ALJ.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.20   Amended pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board or ALJ orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the ALJ may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the ALJ that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The ALJ may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.21" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.21   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the ALJ will file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.22" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.22   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The ALJ may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the ALJ finds:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.23" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.23   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the ALJ. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the ALJ directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the ALJ, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the ALJ or the Board, any party may file a written response to a motion. The ALJ will not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 263.29 and 263.30.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.24" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.24   Scope of document discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term <I>documents</I> includes writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, electronically stored information, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party, into a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 263.53.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of either interrogatories or requests for admission is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material; or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, or the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All document discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, must be completed by the date set by the ALJ and no later than 30 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit are permitted, unless the ALJ finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph (d).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.25" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.25   Request for document discovery from parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Document requests.</I> (1) Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect or copy any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. In the case of a request for inspection, the responding party may produce copies of documents or of electronically stored information instead of permitting inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) The request:
</P>
<P>(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected or produced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection or production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the ALJ or agreed upon by the parties, the producing party must produce copies of documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or organized to correspond to the categories of the request, and electronically stored information must be produced in a form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> The producing party must pay its own costs to respond to a discovery request, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within 20 days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to must be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 263.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, or any other privileges of the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law, or are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The ALJ retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the document request may file a written response to a motion to compel within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the ALJ will rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, the ALJ may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the ALJ may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the ALJ its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the ALJ's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the ALJ issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena will not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.26" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.26   Document subpoenas to nonparties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 263.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena with the ALJ. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 263.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the ALJ has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena will in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.27" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.27   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the ALJ for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The ALJ may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the ALJ requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the ALJ orders otherwise, no deposition under this section may be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the ALJ to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party must have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the ALJ for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition must certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section, or fails to comply with any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena with which the subpoenaed party has not complied. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.28" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.28   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Board may review a ruling of the ALJ prior to the certification of the record to the Board only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 263.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Board may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the ALJ if the Board finds:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review must be filed by a party with the ALJ within ten days of the ruling and must otherwise comply with § 263.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 263.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the ALJ will refer the matter to the Board for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ or the Board.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.29" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.29   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The ALJ will recommend that the Board issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that the party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the ALJ, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends supports the moving party's position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the opposing party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the written request of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the ALJ will determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the ALJ determines that summary disposition is warranted, the ALJ will submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board. If the ALJ finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, the ALJ will make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.30" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.30   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If the ALJ determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, the ALJ will defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the ALJ has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.31" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.31   Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding, the ALJ will direct counsel for all parties to meet with the ALJ at a specified time and manner prior to the hearing for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting is called a “scheduling conference.” The schedule for the identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The ALJ may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to confer with the ALJ at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The ALJ may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at the party's expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the ALJ will serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.32" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.32   Prehearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Party prehearing submissions.</I> Within the time set by the ALJ, but in no case later than 20 days before the start of the hearing, each party must file with the ALJ and serve on every other party:
</P>
<P>(1) A prehearing statement that states:
</P>
<P>(i) The party's position with respect to the legal issues presented;
</P>
<P>(ii) The statutory and case law upon which the party relies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The facts that the party expects to prove at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness, which need not identify the exhibits to be relied upon by each witness at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the exhibits expected to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.33" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.33   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings must be open to the public, unless the Board, in the Board's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Board a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the ALJ a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Board. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 263.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in Enforcement Counsel's discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The ALJ will take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.34" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.34   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the ALJ may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application must serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the ALJ, the party making the application must serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 263.26(c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.35" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.35   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) <I>Conduct of hearings.</I> Hearings must be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel will present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel will be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the ALJ will fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the ALJ may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the ALJ directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The ALJ may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the ALJ's own motion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the ALJ may direct the use of, or any party may use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the ALJ requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs, unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.36" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.36   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable, and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the ALJ or the Board must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, must be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection, or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a State regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the ALJ's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what the examining counsel expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct questioning of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the ALJ may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.37" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.37   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the ALJ will serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the ALJ proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the ALJ or within such longer period as may be ordered by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the ALJ any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The ALJ will not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.38" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.38   Recommended decision and filing of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 263.37(b), the ALJ will file with and certify to the Board, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the ALJ's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The ALJ will serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the ALJ files with and certifies to the Board for final determination the record of the proceeding, the ALJ will furnish to the Board a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index must include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document, or motion filed with the ALJ in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index must also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.39" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.39   Exceptions to recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 263.38, a party may file with the Board written exceptions to the ALJ's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the ALJ to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Board if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the ALJ and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the ALJ's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the ALJ's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.40" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.40   Review by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Board.</I> When the Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Board will serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Board.</I> Upon the initiative of the Board or on the written request of any party filed with the Board within the time for filing exceptions, the Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the ALJ. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board's final decision. Oral argument before the Board must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board's final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the ALJ for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board will be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.41" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.1.3.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.41   Stays pending judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Board. The Board may, in the Board's, and on such terms as the Board finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89909, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.








</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.50" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.50   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure governing formal adjudications set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, and supplements the rules of practice and procedure contained in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The rules and procedures of this subpart and subpart A of this part will apply to the formal adjudications set forth in § 263.1 and to the following adjudications:
</P>
<P>(1) Suspension of a member bank from use of credit facilities of the Federal Reserve System under section 4 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 301);
</P>
<P>(2) Termination of a bank's membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 327);
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of a cease-and-desist order under section 11 of the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 21);
</P>
<P>(4) Adjudications under sections 2, 3, or 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841, 1842, or 1843);
</P>
<P>(5) Formal adjudications on bank merger applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of a divestiture order under section 5(e) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(e));
</P>
<P>(7) Imposition of sanctions upon any municipal securities dealer for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer, under section 15B(c)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4);
</P>
<P>(8) Proceedings where the Board otherwise orders that a formal hearing be held;
</P>
<P>(9) Termination of the activities of a state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 7(e) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d));
</P>
<P>(10) Termination of the activities of a representative office of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3107(b));
</P>
<P>(11) Issuance of a prompt corrective action directive to a member bank under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o);
</P>
<P>(12) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe or unsound condition under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
</P>
<P>(13) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe and unsound practice under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
</P>
<P>(14) Issuance of an order requiring a member bank to dismiss a director or senior executive officer under section 38 (e)(5) and 38(f)(2) (F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(5) and 1831o(f)(2) (F)(ii)); and
</P>
<P>(15) Adjudications under section 10 of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.51" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.51   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in subparts B through G of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member bank</I> means any bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Institution</I> has the same meaning as that assigned to it in subpart A of this part, and includes any foreign bank with a representative office in the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.52" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.52   Address for filing.</HEAD>
<P>All papers to be filed with the Board must be filed with the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. All papers to be filed with the Board electronically must be sent to: <I>OSEC-Litigation@frb.gov</I>.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.53" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.53   Discovery depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In addition to the discovery permitted in subpart A of this part, limited discovery by means of depositions will be allowed for individuals with knowledge of facts material to the proceeding that are not protected from discovery by any applicable privilege, and of identified expert witnesses. Except in unusual cases, accordingly, depositions will be permitted only of individuals identified as hearing witnesses, including experts. All discovery depositions must be completed within the time set forth in § 263.24(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> A party who desires to take a deposition of any other party's proposed witnesses, must apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. The application must state the name and address of the proposed deponent, the subject matter of the testimony expected from the deponent and its relevancy to the proceeding, and the address of the place, the manner (<I>e.g.,</I> remote means, in person), and the time, no sooner than ten days after the service of the subpoena, for the taking of the deposition. Any such application must be treated as a motion subject to the rules governing motions practice set forth in § 263.23.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance of subpoena.</I> The ALJ must issue the requested deposition subpoena or subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> upon a finding that the application satisfies the requirements of this section and of § 263.24. If the ALJ determines that the taking of the deposition or its proposed location or manner is, in whole or in part, unnecessary, unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may deny the application or may grant it upon such conditions as justice may require. The party obtaining the deposition subpoena or subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> will be responsible for serving it on the deponent and all parties to the proceeding in accordance with § 263.11. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> A person named in a deposition subpoena or subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena or for the issuance of a protective order. Such motions must be filed within ten days following service of the subpoena, but in all cases at least five days prior to the commencement of the scheduled deposition. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for granting the motion and a copy of the motion and the statement must be served on the party which requested the subpoena. Only the party requesting the subpoena may file a response to a motion to quash or modify, and any such response must be filed within five days following service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of a deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena must be in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 263.27(d).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The deponent must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or order by the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely, without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party may examine the deponent with respect to all non-privileged, relevant, and material matters. Objections to questions or evidence must be in the short form, stating the ground for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence will not be deemed a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. The discovery deposition must be transcribed or otherwise recorded as agreed among the parties.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective orders.</I> At any time during the taking of a discovery deposition, on the motion of any party or of the deponent, the ALJ may terminate or limit the scope and manner of the deposition upon a finding that grounds exist for such relief. Grounds for terminating or limiting the taking of a discovery deposition include a finding that the discovery deposition is being conducted in bad faith or in such a manner as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent;
</P>
<P>(2) Unreasonably probe into privilege, irrelevant, or immaterial matters; or
</P>
<P>(3) Unreasonably attempt to pry into a party's preparation for trial.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.54" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.54   Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part must be conducted by an ALJ of OFIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.55" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.55   Board as Presiding Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may, in its discretion, designate itself, one or more of its members, or an authorized officer, to act as presiding officer in a formal hearing. In such a proceeding, the authority of Board or its designee will include all the authority provided to an ALJ under this part. Proposed findings and conclusions, briefs, and other submissions by the parties permitted in subpart A of this part must be filed with the Secretary for consideration by the Board. Sections 263.38 and 263.39 will not apply to proceedings conducted under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.56" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.56   Initial licensing proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings with respect to applications for initial licenses will include, but not be limited to, applications for Board approval under section 3 of the BHC Act and section 10 of HOLA and such proceedings as may be ordered by the Board with respect to applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA. In such initial licensing proceedings, the procedures set forth in subpart A of this part will apply, except that the Board may designate a Board Counsel to represent the Board in a nonadversary capacity for the purpose of developing for the record information relevant to the issues to be determined by the Presiding Officer and the Board. In such proceedings, Board Counsel will be considered to be a decisional employee for purposes of §§ 263.9 and 263.40.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.57" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.57   Sanctions relating to conduct in an adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The ALJ may impose sanctions when any party or person in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part has failed to comply with an applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that failure to comply:
</P>
<P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct;
</P>
<P>(2) Materially injures or prejudices another party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or
</P>
<P>(4) Unduly delays the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing an order against the party;
</P>
<P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;
</P>
<P>(3) Precluding the party from:
</P>
<P>(i) Contesting specific issues or findings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Offering certain evidence or challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just;
</P>
<P>(4) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act; and
</P>
<P>(5) Excluding or suspending a party or person from the adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</I> (1) Upon the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may impose sanctions in accordance with this section. The ALJ must submit to the Board for final ruling the sanction of entering a final order determining the case on the merits.
</P>
<P>(2) No sanction authorized by this section, other than refusal to accept late filings, must be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any party or person against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form, as the ALJ directs. The ALJ may limit the opportunity to be heard to an opportunity of a party or person to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, are subject to interlocutory review in the same manner as any other ruling by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Section not exclusive.</I> Nothing in this section precludes the ALJ or the Board from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules and Procedures for Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.60" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.60   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The Uniform Rules set forth in subpart A of this part shall govern the procedures for assessment of civil money penalties, except as otherwise provided in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.61" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.61   Opportunity for informal proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>In the sole discretion of the Board's General Counsel, the General Counsel may, prior to the issuance by the Board of a notice of assessment of civil penalty, advise the affected person that the issuance of a notice of assessment of civil penalty is being considered and the reasons and authority for the proposed assessment. The General Counsel may provide the person an opportunity to present written materials or request a conference with members of the Board's staff to show that the penalty should not be assessed or, if assessed, should be reduced in amount.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.62" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.62   Relevant considerations for assessment of civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>In determining the amount of the penalty to be assessed, the Board shall take into account the appropriateness of the penalty with respect to the financial resources and good faith of the person charged, the gravity of the misconduct, the history of previous misconduct, the economic benefit derived by the person from the misconduct, and such other matters as justice may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.63" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.63   Assessment order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of consent to an assessment by the person concerned, or if, upon the record made at an administrative hearing, the Board finds that the grounds for having assessed the penalty have been established, the Board may issue a final order of assessment of civil penalty. In its final order, the Board may modify the amount of the penalty specified in the notice of assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) An assessment order is effective immediately upon issuance, or upon such other date as may be specified therein, and shall remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Board or a reviewing court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.64" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.64   Payment of civil penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The date designated in the notice of assessment for payment of the civil penalty will normally be 60 days from the issuance of the notice. If, however, the Board finds in a specific case that the purposes of the authorizing statute would be better served if the 60-day period is changed, the Board may shorten or lengthen the period or make the civil penalty payable immediately upon receipt of the notice of assessment. If a timely request for a formal hearing to challenge an assessment of civil penalty is filed, payment of the penalty shall not be required unless and until the Board issues a final order of assessment following the hearing. If an assessment order is issued, it will specify the date by which the civil penalty should be paid or collected. 
</P>
<P>(b) Checks in payment of civil penalties should be made payable to the “Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.” Upon collection, the Board shall forward the amount of the penalty to the Treasury of the United States.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.65" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.3.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.65   Civil money penalty inflation adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inflation adjustments.</I> In accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, which further amended the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, the Board has set forth in paragraph (b) of this section the adjusted maximum amounts for each civil money penalty provided by law within the Board's jurisdiction. The authorizing statutes contain the complete provisions under which the Board may seek a civil money penalty. The adjusted civil money penalties apply only to penalties assessed on or after January 13, 2025, whose associated violations occurred on or after November 2, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum civil money penalties.</I> The maximum (or, in the cases of 12 U.S.C. 334 and 1832(c), fixed) civil money penalties as set forth in the referenced statutory sections are set forth in the table in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Statute
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjusted civil


<br/>money penalty
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 324:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Inadvertently late or misleading reports, inter alia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other late or misleading reports, inter alia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,265
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Knowingly or reckless false or misleading reports, inter alia</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 334</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 374a</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 504:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 505:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(4)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,265
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1464(v)(6)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)(3)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1467a(r):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,265
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">413,388
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1832(c)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1847(b)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1847(d):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5,026
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,265
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1884</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">365
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12,567
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">62,829
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 3110(a)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">57,435
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 3110(c):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4,596
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45,946
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Third Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,297,385
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 3909(d)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3,126
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(1):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For a natural person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11,823
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For any other person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118,225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(2):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For a natural person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118,225
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For any other person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">591,127
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 78u-2(b)(3):
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For a natural person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236,451
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">For any other person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,182,251
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(1)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,435
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,866
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(5)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,730</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[Reg. 1864, 90 FR 2607, Jan. 13, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Suspension or Removal of an Institution-Affiliated Party Where a Felony is Charged or Proven</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.70" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.70   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to informal hearings afforded to any institution-affiliated party for whom the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, who has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the institution's affairs by a notice or order issued by the Board upon the grounds set forth in section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.71" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.71   Notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> The Board may suspend an institution-affiliated party from office or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of an institution's affairs when the person is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint authorized by a United States attorney with the commission of, or participation in, a crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust that is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under State or Federal law. The Board may remove an institution-affiliated party from office or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of an institution's affairs when the person is convicted of such an offense and the conviction is not subject to further direct appellate review. The Board may suspend or remove an institution-affiliated party or prohibit an institution-affiliated party from participation in an institution's affairs in these circumstances if the Board finds that continued service to the financial institution or participation in its affairs by the institution-affiliated party may pose a threat to the interests of the institution's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the financial institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The Board commences a suspension, removal, or prohibition action under this subpart with the issuance, and service upon an institution-affiliated party, of a notice of suspension from office, or order of removal from office, or notice or order of prohibition from participation in the financial institution's affairs. Such a notice or order shall indicate the basis for the suspension, removal, or prohibition and shall inform the institution-affiliated party of the right to request in writing, within 30 days of service of the notice or order, an opportunity to show at an informal hearing that continued service to, or participation in the conduct of the affairs of, the financial institution does not and is not likely to pose a threat to the interests of the financial institution's depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the financial institution. Failure to file a timely request for an informal hearing shall be deemed to be a waiver of the right to request such a hearing. A notice of suspension or prohibition shall remain in effect until the criminal charge upon which the notice is based is finally disposed of or until the notice is terminated by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> The notice or order shall be served upon the affiliated financial institution concerned, whereupon the institution-affiliated party shall immediately cease service to the financial institution or further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the financial institution. A notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition may be served by any of the means authorized for service under § 263.11(c)(2) of subpart A.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.72" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.72   Request for informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>An institution-affiliated party who is suspended or removed from office or prohibited from participation in the institution's affairs may request an informal hearing within 30 days of service of the notice or order. The request shall be filed in writing with the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551. The request shall state with particularity the relief desired and the grounds therefor and shall include, when available, supporting evidence in the form of affidavits. If the institution-affiliated party desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the institution-affiliated party must include a request to do so with the request for informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.73" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.73   Order for informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of hearing order.</I> Upon receipt of a timely request for an informal hearing, the Secretary shall promptly issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence within 30 days of the receipt of the request. At the request of the institution-affiliated party, the Secretary may order the hearing to commence at a time more than 30 days after the receipt of the request for hearing. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the Secretary, before presiding officers designated by the Secretary to conduct the hearing. The presiding officers normally will include representatives from the Board's Legal Division and the Division of Banking Supervision and Regulation and from the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of oral hearing.</I> A institution-affiliated party may waive in writing his or her right to an oral hearing and instead elect to have the matter determined by the Board solely on the basis of written submissions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) The institution-affiliated party may appear at the hearing personally, through counsel, or personally with counsel. The institution-affiliated party shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present an oral argument. The institution-affiliated party may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the Secretary. Except as provided in § 263.11, the adjudicative procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) and of subpart A of this part shall not apply to the informal hearing ordered under this subpart unless the Board orders that subpart A of this part applies.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded and a transcript shall be furnished to the institution-affiliated party upon request and after the payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officers. The presiding officers may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officers may order the record to be kept open for a reasonable period following the hearing (normally five business days), during which time additional submissions to the record may be made. Thereafter, the record shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority of presiding officers.</I> In the course of or in connection with any proceeding under this subpart, the Board or the presiding officers are authorized to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions, to issue, quash or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, and, for the enforcement thereof, to apply to an appropriate United States district court. All action relating to depositions and subpoenas shall be in accordance with the rules provided in §§ 263.34 and 263.53.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> The presiding officers shall make a recommendation to the Board concerning the notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition within 20 calendar days following the close of the record on the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.74" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.4.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.74   Decision of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 days following the close of the record on the hearing, or receipt of written submissions where a hearing has been waived, the Board shall notify the institution-affiliated party whether the notice of suspension or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order of removal or prohibition will be rescinded or otherwise modified. The notification shall contain a statement of the basis for any adverse decision by the Board. In the case of a decision favorable to the institution-affiliated party, the Board shall take prompt action to rescind or otherwise modify the order of suspension, removal or prohibition.
</P>
<P>(b) In deciding the question of suspension, removal, or prohibition under this subpart, the Board shall not rule on the question of the guilt or innocence of the individual with respect to the crime with which the individual has been charged.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Procedures for Issuance and Enforcement of Directives To Maintain Adequate Capital</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.80" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.80   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes procedures under which the Board may issue a directive or take other action to require a state member bank, bank holding company, or a savings and loan holding company to achieve and maintain adequate capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.81" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.81   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank holding company</I> means any company that controls a bank as defined in section 2 of the BHC Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841, and in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(b)) or any direct or indirect subsidiary thereof other than a bank subsidiary as defined in section 2(c) of the BHC Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(c), and in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.2(a)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital Adequacy Guidelines</I> means those guidelines for bank holding companies and state member banks contained in appendices A and D to the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), and in appendix A to the Board's Regulation H (12 CFR part 208), or any succeeding capital guidelines promulgated by the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Directive</I> means a final order issued by the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) Pursuant to ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)) requiring a state member bank or bank holding company to increase capital to or maintain capital at the minimum level set forth in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines or as otherwise established under procedures described in § 263.85; or
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(g)(1)) requiring a savings and loan holding company to increase capital to or maintain capital at a certain level.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State member bank</I> means any state-chartered bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means any company that controls a savings association as defined in section 10 of the HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1467a, and in the Board's Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.2) or any direct or indirect subsidiary thereof other than a savings association subsidiary as defined in section 10 of the HOLA, 12 U.S.C. 1467a, and in the Board's Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.82" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.82   Establishment of minimum capital levels.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has established minimum capital levels for state member banks and bank holding companies in its Capital Adequacy Guidelines. The Board may set higher capital levels as necessary and appropriate for a particular state member bank or bank holding company based upon its financial condition, managerial resources, prospects, or similar factors, pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 263.85 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.83" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.83   Issuance of capital directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue directive.</I> If a state member bank or bank holding company is operating with less than the minimum level of capital established in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines, or as otherwise established under the procedures described in § 263.85, or if the Board has determined that the current capital level of a savings and loan holding company is not adequate, the Board may issue and serve upon such state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company written notice of the Board's intent to issue a directive to require the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to achieve and maintain adequate capital within a specified time period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice of intent to issue a directive shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The required minimum level of capital to be achieved or maintained by the institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Its current level of capital;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed increase in capital needed to meet the minimum requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed date or schedule for meeting these minimum requirements;
</P>
<P>(5) When deemed appropriate, specific details of a proposed plan for meeting the minimum capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(6) The date for a written response by the bank or bank holding company to the proposed directive, which shall be at least 14 days from the date of issuance of the notice unless the Board determines a shorter period is necessary because of the financial condition of the bank or bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice.</I> The bank or bank holding company may file a written response to the notice within the time period set by the Board. The response may include: 
</P>
<P>(1) An explanation why a directive should not be issued; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any proposed modification of the terms of the directive; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other evidence in support of the institution's position regarding the proposed directive; and
</P>
<P>(4) The institution's plan for attaining the required level of capital.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by the bank or bank holding company to file a written response to the notice of intent to issue a directive within the specified time period shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of such directive.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board consideration of response.</I> After considering the response of the bank or bank holding company, the Board may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as originally proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue a directive and so notify the bank or bank holding company; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response by the bank or bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contents of directive.</I> Any directive issued by the Board may order the bank or bank holding company to:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve or maintain the minimum capital requirement established pursuant to the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines or the procedures in § 263.85 of this subpart by a certain date;
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to a previously submitted plan or submit for approval and adhere to a plan for achieving the minimum capital requirement by a certain date;
</P>
<P>(3) Take other specific action as the Board directs to achieve the minimum capital levels, including requiring a reduction of assets or asset growth or restriction on the payment of dividends; or
</P>
<P>(4) Take any combination of the above actions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Request for reconsideration of directive.</I> Any state member bank or bank holding company, upon a change in circumstances, may request the Board to reconsider the terms of a directive and may propose changes in the plan under which it is operating to meet the required minimum capital level. The directive and plan continue in effect while such request is pending before the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.84" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.84   Enforcement of directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial and administrative remedies.</I> (1) Whenever a bank or bank holding company fails to follow a directive issued under this subpart, or to submit or adhere to a capital adequacy plan as required by such directive, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive, including the capital adequacy plan, in the appropriate United States district court, pursuant to section 908 (b)(2)(B)(ii) of ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)(B)(ii)) and to section 8(i) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)), in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. Whenever a savings and loan holding company fails to follow a directive issued under this subpart, or to submit or adhere to a capital adequacy plan as required by such directive, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive, including the capital adequacy plan, in the proper United States district court, or the United States court of any territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, pursuant to section 10(g)(4) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1567a(g)(4)).
</P>
<P>(2) The Board, pursuant to section 910(d) of ILSA (12 U.S.C. 3909(d)), may also assess civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any bank or bank holding company and any institution-affiliated party of the bank or bank holding company, in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. The Board, pursuant to section 10(i) (12 U.S.C. 1467a(i)), may also assess civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any savings and loan holding company and any institution-affiliated party of the savings and loan holding company, in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other enforcement actions.</I> A directive may be issued separately, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement actions available to the Board, including issuance of cease-and-desist orders, the approval or denial of applications or notices, or any other actions authorized by law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration in application proceedings.</I> In acting upon any application or notice submitted to the Board pursuant to any statute administered by the Board, the Board may consider the progress of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof in adhering to any directive or capital adequacy plan required by the Board pursuant to this subpart, or by any other appropriate banking supervisory agency pursuant to ILSA. The Board shall consider whether approval or a notice of intent not to disapprove would divert earnings, diminish capital, or otherwise impede the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company in achieving its required minimum capital level or complying with its capital adequacy plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.85" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.5.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.85   Establishment of increased capital level for specific institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of capital levels for specific institutions.</I> The Board may establish a capital level higher than the minimum specified in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines for a specific bank or bank holding company pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(1) A written agreement or memorandum of understanding between the Board or the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank and the bank or bank holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) A temporary or final cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to section 8(b) or (c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) or (c));
</P>
<P>(3) A condition for approval of an application or issuance of a notice of intent not to disapprove a proposal;
</P>
<P>(4) Or other similar means; or
</P>
<P>(5) The procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure to establish higher capital requirement</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> When the Board determines that capital levels above those in the Board's Capital Adequacy Guidelines may be necessary and appropriate for a particular bank or bank holding company under the circumstances, or when the Board determines that the current capital level of a savings and loan holding company is not adequate, the Board shall give the bank or bank holding company notice of the proposed higher capital requirement and shall permit the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company an opportunity to comment upon the proposed capital level, whether it should be required and, if so, under what time schedule. The notice shall contain the Board's reasons for proposing a higher level of capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response.</I> The bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company shall be allowed at least 14 days to respond, unless the Board determines that a shorter period is necessary because of the financial condition of the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company. Failure by the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to file a written response to the notice within the time set by the Board shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to issuance of a directive containing the required minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board decision.</I> After considering the response of the institution, the Board may issue a written directive to the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company setting an appropriate capital level and the date on which this capital level will become effective. The Board may require the bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company to submit and adhere to a plan for achieving such higher capital level as the Board may set.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enforcement of higher capital level.</I> The Board may enforce the capital level established pursuant to the procedures described in this section and any plan submitted to achieve that capital level through the procedures set forth in § 263.84 of this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56604, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Practice Before the Board</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.90" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.90   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes rules relating to general practice before the Board on one's own behalf or in a representational capacity, including the circumstances under which disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension, or debarment—may be imposed upon persons appearing in a representational capacity, including attorneys and accountants, but not including employees of the Board. These disciplinary sanctions, which continue in effect beyond the duration of a specific proceeding, supplement the provisions of § 263.6(b) of subpart A, which address control of a specific proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.91" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.91   Censure, suspension or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may censure an individual or suspend or debar such individual from practice before the Board if he or she engages, or has engaged, in conduct warranting sanctions as set forth in § 263.94; refuses to comply with the rules and regulations in this part; or with intent to defraud in any manner, willfully and knowingly deceives, misleads, or threatens any client or prospective client. The suspension or debarment of an individual shall be initiated only upon a finding by the Board that the conduct that forms the basis for the disciplinary action is egregious.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.92" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.92   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given in this section unless the context otherwise requires.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Practice before the Board</I> includes any matters connected with presentations to the Board or to any of its officers or employees relating to a client's rights, privileges or liabilities under laws or regulations administered by the Board. Such matters include, but are not limited to, the preparation of any statement, opinion or other paper or document by an attorney, accountant, or other licensed professional which is filed with, or submitted to, the Board, on behalf of another person in, or in connection with, any application, notification, report or document; the representation of a person at conferences, hearings and meetings; and the transaction of other business before the Board on behalf of another person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Practice before the Board</I> does not include work prepared for an institution solely at its request for use in the ordinary course of its business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attorney</I> means any individual who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accountant</I> means any individual who is duly qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or a public accountant in any state, possession, territory, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.93" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.93   Eligibility to practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Attorneys.</I> Any attorney who is qualified to practice as an attorney and is not currently under suspension or debarment pursuant to this subpart may practice before the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accountants.</I> Any accountant who is qualified to practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant and is not currently under suspension or debarment by the Board may practice before the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.94" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.94   Conduct warranting sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>Conduct for which an individual may be censured, debarred or suspended from practice before the Board includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Willfully or recklessly violating or willfully or recklessly aiding and abetting the violation of any provision of the Federal banking or applicable securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder or conviction of any offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust; 
</P>
<P>(b) Knowingly or recklessly giving false or misleading information, or participating in any way in the giving of false information to the Board or to any Board officer or employee, or to any tribunal authorized to pass upon matters administered by the Board in connection with any matter pending or likely to be pending before it. The term “information” includes facts or other statements contained in testimony, financial statements, applications, affidavits, declarations, or any other document or written or oral statement;
</P>
<P>(c) Directly or indirectly attempting to influence, or offering or agreeing to attempt to influence, the official action of any officer or employee of the Board by the use of threats, false accusations, duress or coercion, by the offer of any special inducement or promise of advantage or by the bestowing of any gift, favor, or thing of value;
</P>
<P>(d) Disbarment or suspension from practice as an attorney, or debarment or suspension from practice as a certified public accountant or public accountant, by any duly constituted authority of any state, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia for the conviction of a felony or misdemeanor involving personal dishonesty or breach of trust in matters relating to the supervisory responsibilities of the Board, where the conviction has not been reversed on appeal;
</P>
<P>(e) Knowingly aiding or abetting another individual to practice before the Board during that individual's period of suspension, debarment, or ineligibility;
</P>
<P>(f) Contemptuous conduct in connection with practice before the Board, and knowingly making false accusations and statements, or circulating or publishing malicious or libelous matter;
</P>
<P>(g) Suspension or debarment from practice before the OCC, the FDIC, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the NCUA, or any other Federal agency based on matters relating to the supervisory responsibilities of the Board;
</P>
<P>(h) Willful or knowing violation of any of the regulations contained in this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003; 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.95" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.95   Initiation of disciplinary proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of information.</I> An individual, including any employee of the Board, who has reason to believe that an individual practicing before the Board in a representative capacity has engaged in any conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 263.94, may make a report thereof and forward it to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Censure without formal proceeding.</I> Upon receipt of information regarding an individual's qualification to practice before the Board, the Board may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, censure such individual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Institution of formal disciplinary proceeding.</I> When the Board has reason to believe that any individual who practices before the Board in a representative capacity has engaged in conduct that would serve as a basis for censure, suspension or debarment under § 263.94 the Board may, after giving the individual notice and opportunity to respond, institute a formal disciplinary proceeding against such individual. The proceeding shall be conducted pursuant to § 263.97 and shall be initiated by a complaint issued by the Board that names the individual as a respondent. Except in cases when time, the nature of the proceeding, or the public interest do not permit, a proceeding under this section shall not be instituted until the respondent has been informed, in writing, of the facts or conduct which warrant institution of a proceeding and the respondent has been accorded the opportunity to comply with all lawful requirements or take whatever action may be necessary to remedy the conduct that is the basis for the initiation of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.96" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.96   Conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board's staff may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, debarment or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for debarment or suspension has been instituted. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Resignation or voluntary suspension.</I> In order to avoid the institution of, or a decision in, a debarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before the Board may consent to suspension from practice. At the discretion of the Board, the individual may be suspended or debarred in accordance with the consent offered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.97" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.97   Proceedings under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, any hearing held under this subpart shall be held before an administrative law judge of the OFIA pursuant to procedures set forth in subparts A and B of this part. The Board shall appoint a person to represent the Board in the hearing. Any person having prior involvement in the matter which is the basis for the suspension or debarment proceeding shall be disqualified from representing the Board in the hearing. The hearing shall be closed to the public unless the Board, sua sponte or on the request of a party, otherwise directs. The administrative law judge shall refer a recommended decision to the Board, which shall issue the final decision and order. In its final decision and order, the Board may censure, debar or suspend an individual, or take such other disciplinary action as the Board deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.98" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.98   Effect of suspension, debarment or censure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debarment.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for debarment, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board unless otherwise permitted to do so by the Board pursuant to § 263.99 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for suspension, the individual will not thereafter be permitted to practice before the Board during the period of suspension.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Censure.</I> If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before the Board, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in the Board's files.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of debarment or suspension.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for suspension or debarment, the Board shall give notice of the order to appropriate officers and employees of the Board, to interested departments and agencies of the Federal Government, and to the appropriate authorities of the State in which any debarred or suspended individual is or was licensed to practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.99" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.6.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.99   Petition for reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may entertain a petition for reinstatement from any person debarred from practice before the Board. The Board shall grant reinstatement only if the Board finds that the petitioner is likely to act in accordance with the regulations in this part, and that granting reinstatement would not be contrary to the public interest. Any request for reinstatement shall be limited to written submissions unless the Board, in its discretion, affords the petitioner an informal hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Rules Regarding Claims Under the Equal Access to Justice Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.100" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.100   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the provisions of the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504) as they apply to formal adversary adjudications before the Board. The types of proceedings covered by this subpart are listed in §§ 263.1 and 263.50. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.101" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.101   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>A respondent in a covered proceeding that prevails on the merits of that proceeding against the Board, and that is eligible under this subpart as defined in § 263.103, may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in the proceeding unless the position of the Board during the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The position of the Board includes, in addition to the position taken by the Board in the adversary proceeding, the action or failure to act by the Board upon which the adversary proceeding was based. An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.102" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.102   Prevailing party.</HEAD>
<P>Only an eligible applicant that prevailed on the merits of an adversary proceeding may qualify for an award under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.103" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.103   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> To be eligible for an award under this subpart, an applicant must have been named as a party to the adjudicatory proceeding and show that it meets all other conditions of eligibility set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of eligible applicant.</I> An applicant is eligible for an award only if it meets at least one of the following descriptions:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any sole owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, associations, unit of local government or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 and which did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; 
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated; or
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees at the time the adversary proceeding was initiated. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors to be considered.</I> In determining the eligibility of an applicant: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business shall be considered as an <I>individual</I> rather than a <I>sole owner of an unincorporated business</I> if the issues on which he or she prevailed are related to personal interests rather than to business interests. 
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes the value of any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(3) The net worth of a financial institution shall be established by the net worth information reported in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines on the financial institution's financial report to its supervisory agency for the last reporting date before the initiation of the adversary proceeding. A bank holding company's and a savings and loan holding company's net worth will be considered on a consolidated basis even if the bank holding company or the savings and loan holding company is not required to file its regulatory reports to the Board on a consolidated basis. 
</P>
<P>(4) The employees of an applicant include all those persons who were regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under its direction and control, on the date the adversary proceeding was initiated. Part-time employees are counted on a proportional basis. 
</P>
<P>(5) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. As used in this subpart, <I>affiliates</I> are: Individuals, corporations, and entities that directly or indirectly or acting through one or more entities control at least 25% of the voting shares of the applicant, and corporations and entities of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls at least 25% of the voting shares. The Board may determine, in light of the actual relationship among the affiliated entities, that aggregation with regard to one or more of the applicant's affiliates would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of this subpart and decline to aggregate the net worth and employees of such affiliate; alternatively, the Board may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.104" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.104   Application for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file.</I> An application and any other pleading or document related to the application may be filed with the Board whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding within 30 days after service of the final order of the Board disposing of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> An application for an award of fees and expenses under this subpart shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the applicant and an identification of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A showing that the applicant has prevailed, and an identification of the way in which the applicant believes that the position of the Board in the proceeding was not substantially justified; 
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant is not an individual, a statement of the number of its employees on the date the proceeding was initiated; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of any affiliated individuals or entities, as defined in § 263.103(c)(5), or a statement that none exist; 
</P>
<P>(5) A declaration that the applicant, together with any affiliates, had a net worth not more than the maximum set forth in § 263.103(b) as of the date the proceeding was initiated, supported by a net worth statement conforming to the requirements of § 263.105;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought conforming to § 263.107; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other matters that the applicant wishes the Board to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification.</I> The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer of or attorney for the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application and supporting documents is true and correct. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service.</I> The application and related documents shall be served on all parties to the adversary proceeding in accordance with § 263.11, except that statements of net worth shall be served only on counsel for the Board. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presiding officer.</I> Upon receipt of an application, the Board shall, if feasible, refer the matter to the administrative law judge who heard the underlying adversary proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.105" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.105   Statement of net worth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A statement of net worth shall be filed with the application for an award of fees. The statement shall reflect the net worth of the applicant and all affiliates of the applicant, as specified in § 263.103(c)(5). In all cases, the administrative law judge or the Board may call for additional information needed to establish the applicant's net worth as of the initiation of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, the statement of net worth may be in any form convenient to the applicant which fully discloses all the assets and liabilities of the applicant and all the assets and liabilities of its affiliates, as of the time of the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Unaudited financial statements are acceptable for individual applicants as long as the statement provides a reliable basis for evaluation, unless the administrative law judge or the Board otherwise requires. Financial statements or reports filed with or reported to a Federal or State agency, prepared before the initiation of the adversary proceeding for other purposes, and accurate as of a date not more than three months prior to the initiation of the proceeding, shall be acceptable in establishing net worth as of the time of the initiation of the proceeding, unless the administrative law judge or the Board otherwise requires. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of applicants or affiliates that are not banks, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the excess of total assets over total liabilities, as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated, except as adjusted under § 263.103(c)(5). The net worth of a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company shall be considered on a consolidated basis. Assets and liabilities of individuals shall include those beneficially owned.
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a bank or a savings association, the portion of the statement of net worth which relates to the bank or the savings association shall consist of a copy of the bank's or a savings association's last Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the total equity capital (or, in the case of mutual savings banks or mutual savings associations, the total surplus accounts) as reported, in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines, on the bank's or the savings association's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement confidential.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board or required by law, the statement of net worth shall be for the confidential use of the Board, counsel for the Board, and the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.106" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.106   Measure of awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Awards shall be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, provided that no award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent shall exceed $75 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness shall exceed the highest rate at which the Board pays expert witnesses. An award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of reasonableness of fees.</I> In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, subject to the limits set forth above, the administrative law judge shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services; 
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Awards for studies.</I> The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary solely for preparation of the applicant's case and not otherwise required by law or sound business or financial practice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.107" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.107   Statement of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by a statement fully documenting the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in work in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services performed. The administrative law judge or the Board may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.108" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.108   Responses to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By counsel for the Board.</I> (1) Within 20 days after service of an application, counsel for the Board may file an answer to the application. 
</P>
<P>(2) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the Board's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the answer shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 263.109, or both. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply to answer.</I> The applicant may file a reply only if the Board has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the position of the agency was substantially justified, that the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or that special circumstances make an award unjust. Any reply authorized by this section shall be filed within 15 days of service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the reply shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 263.109, or both. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional response.</I> Additional filings in the nature of pleadings may be submitted only by leave of the administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.109" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.109   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The determination of a recommended award shall be made by the administrative law judge on the basis of the written record of the adversary adjudication, including any supporting affidavits submitted in connection with the application, unless, on the motion of either the applicant or Board counsel, or sua sponte, the administrative law judge or the Board orders further proceedings to amplify the record such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and shall be conducted promptly and expeditiously. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for further proceedings.</I> A request for further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the issues in dispute and shall explain why additional proceedings are necessary. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing.</I> The administrative law judge shall hold an oral evidentiary hearing only on disputed issues of material fact which cannot be adequately resolved through written submissions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.110" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.110   Recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision on the fee application not later than 30 days after the submission of all pleadings and evidentiary material concerning the application. The recommended decision shall include written proposed findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and its status as a prevailing party and, if applicable, an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount of the recommended award. The recommended decision shall also include, if at issue, proposed findings as to whether the Board's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. The administrative law judge shall file the record of the proceeding on the fee application upon the filing of the recommended decision and, at the same time, serve upon each party a copy of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.111" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.7.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.111   Action by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions to recommended decision.</I> Within 20 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order, the applicant or counsel for the Board may file written exceptions thereto. A supporting brief may also be filed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision by the Board.</I> The Board shall render its decision within 90 days after it has notified the parties that the matter has been received for decision. The Board shall serve copies of the decision and order of the Board upon the parties. Judicial review of the decision and order may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Issuance and Review of Orders Pursuant to Prompt Corrective Action Provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.201" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to state member banks, companies that control state member banks or are affiliated with such banks, and senior executive officers and directors of state member banks that are subject to the provisions of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 38) and subpart D of part 208 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.202" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.202   Directives to take prompt regulatory action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue directive</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board shall provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized state member bank or, where appropriate, any company that controls the bank, prior written notice of the Board's intention to issue a directive requiring such bank or company to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the Board's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including sections 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed directive as provided by the Board under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final directive.</I> If the Board finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act, the Board may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue a directive requiring a state member bank or any company that controls a state member bank immediately to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the Board's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38(e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). A bank or company that is subject to such an immediately effective directive may submit a written appeal of the directive to the Board. Such an appeal must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the directive, unless the Board permits a longer period. The Board shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the directive shall remain in effect unless the Board, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the directive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to issue a directive shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the Board proposes to impose or require;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of such affirmative actions; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the bank or company subject to the directive may file with the Board a written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice</I>—(1) <I>Time for response.</I> A bank or company may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue a directive within the time period set by the Board. The date shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the Board is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 38;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed directive; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or company regarding the proposed directive.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the Board may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and so notify the bank or company; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank or company, or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a bank or company to file with the Board, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed directive shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the directive.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for modification or rescission of directive.</I> Any bank or company that is subject to a directive under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the terms of the directive, and may propose that the directive be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the directive shall continue in place while such request is pending before the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.203" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.203   Procedures for reclassifying a state member bank based on criteria other than capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice</I>—(1) <I>Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification</I>—(i) <I>Grounds for reclassification.</I> (A) Pursuant to § 208.43(c) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.43(c)), the Board may reclassify a well capitalized bank as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Board determines that the bank is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Board deems the bank to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency. 
</P>
<P>(B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall hereinafter be referred to as “reclassification.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prior notice to institution.</I> Prior to taking action pursuant to § 208.33(c) of this chapter, the Board shall issue and serve on the bank a written notice of the Board's intention to reclassify the bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify a bank based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the bank's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the bank would be reclassified; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for reclassification of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The date by which the bank subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the Board a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the bank or other relevant circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</I> A bank may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the Board. The response should include: 
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of why the bank is not in unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or company regarding the reclassification. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a bank to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the Board to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</I> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the Board or its designee under this section. If the bank desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the bank shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the Board shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the bank requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the Board to conduct the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (i) The bank shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The bank may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders that such procedures shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the bank upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the Board on the reclassification. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board will decide whether to reclassify the bank and notify the bank of the Board's decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for rescission of reclassification.</I> Any bank that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the reclassification, and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the bank shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.204" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.204   Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notice.</I> When the Board issues and serves a directive on a state member bank pursuant to § 263.202 requiring the bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f) (2) (F) (ii) of the FDI Act, the Board shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to directive</I>—(1) <I>Request for reinstatement.</I> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the Board at the request of the Respondent. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request; informal hearing.</I> The request for reinstatement shall include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated, and may include a request for an informal hearing before the Board or its designee under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a bank to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the Board shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the Board to conduct the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the Board or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart A of this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders that such procedures shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness. 
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard for review.</I> A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the bank would materially strengthen the bank's ability: 
</P>
<P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the bank's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and 
</P>
<P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the bank based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the Board concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the bank. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the Board's decision. If the Board denies the request for reinstatement, the Board shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the Board's action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.205" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.8.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.205   Enforcement of directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a state member bank or company that controls a state member bank fails to comply with a directive issued under section 38, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i) (1) of the FDI Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>Failure to comply with directive.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i) (2) (A) of the FDI Act, the Board may assess a civil money penalty against any state member bank or company that controls a state member bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under section 38 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</I> The failure of a bank to implement a capital restoration plan required under section 38, subpart D of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart D), or this subpart, or the failure of a company having control of a bank to fulfill a guarantee of a capital restoration plan made pursuant to section 38 (e) (2) of the FDI Act shall subject the bank or company to the assessment of civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i) (2) (A) of the FDI Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Board may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 38 or subpart B of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208, subpart B) through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 44888, Sept. 29, 1992, as amended at 63 FR 58621, Nov. 2, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Submission and Review of Safety and Soundness Compliance Plans and Issuance of Orders To Correct Safety and Soundness Deficiencies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 35682, July 10, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.300" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.300   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to State member banks that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39) (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.301" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.301   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 39 of the FDI Act requires the Board to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, a bank may be required to submit a compliance plan if it is not in compliance with a safety and soundness standard established by guideline under section 39(a) or (b). An enforceable order under section 8 may be issued if, after being notified that it is in violation of a safety and soundness standard established under section 39, the bank fails to submit an acceptable compliance plan or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan. This subpart establishes procedures for requiring submission of a compliance plan and issuing an enforceable order pursuant to section 39.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.302" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.302   Determination and notification of failure to meet safety and soundness standard and request for compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination.</I> The Board may, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information that becomes available to the Board, determine that a bank has failed to satisfy the safety and soundness standards contained in the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness or the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, set forth in appendices D-1 and D-2 to part 208 of this chapter, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for compliance plan.</I> If the Board determines that a State member bank has failed a safety and soundness standard pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the Board may request, by letter or through a report of examination, the submission of a compliance plan, and the bank shall be deemed to have notice of the request three days after mailing of the letter by the Board or delivery of the report of examination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35682, July 10, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 55488, Oct. 15, 1998; 66 FR 8637, Feb. 1, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.303" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.303   Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A State member bank shall file a written safety and soundness compliance plan with the Board within 30 days of receiving a request for a compliance plan pursuant to § 263.302(b), unless the Board notifies the bank in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other plans.</I> If a State member bank is obligated to file, or is currently operating under, a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, a formal or informal agreement, or a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of the Board, submit a compliance plan under this section as part of that plan, order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> The compliance plan shall include a description of the steps the State member bank will take to correct the deficiency and the time within which those steps will be taken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of safety and soundness compliance plans.</I> Within 30 days after receiving a safety and soundness compliance plan under this subpart, the Board shall provide written notice to the bank of whether the plan has been approved or seek additional information from the bank regarding the plan. The Board may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan will be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to submit or implement a compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> If a State member bank fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time specified by the Board or fails in any material respect to implement a compliance plan, then the Board shall, by order, require the bank to correct the deficiency and may take further actions provided in section 39(e)(2)(B). Pursuant to section 39(e)(3), the Board may be required to take certain actions if the bank commenced operations or experienced a change in control within the previous 24-month period, or the bank experienced extraordinary growth during the previous 18-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extraordinary growth.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, <I>extraordinary growth</I> means an increase in assets of more than 7.5 percent during any quarter within the 18-month period preceding the issuance of a request for submission of a compliance plan, by a bank that is not well capitalized for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) will be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment of compliance plan.</I> A State member bank that has filed an approved compliance plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the Board, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank shall implement the compliance plan as previously approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.304" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.304   Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue order</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Board shall provide a bank prior written notice of the Board's intention to issue an order requiring the bank to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act. The bank shall have such time to respond to a proposed order as provided by the Board under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final order.</I> If the Board finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 39 of the FDI Act, the Board may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue an order requiring a bank immediately to take actions to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39. A State member bank that is subject to such an immediately effective order may submit a written appeal of the order to the Board. Such an appeal must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the order, unless the Board permits a longer period. The Board shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the order shall remain in effect unless the Board, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intent to issue an order shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the safety and soundness deficiency or deficiencies that have been identified at the bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the Board proposes to impose or require;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of any required action; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the bank subject to the order may file with the Board a written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice</I>—(1) <I>Time for response.</I> A bank may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order within the time period set by the Board. Such a response must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the Board determines that a different period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the bank or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the Board is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 39;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank regarding the proposed order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agency consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the Board may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the order and so notify the bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank, or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a bank to file with the Board, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed order shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for modification or rescission of order.</I> Any bank that is subject to an order under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the Board reconsider the terms of the order, and may propose that the order be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the order shall continue in place while such request is pending before the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.305" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.9.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.305   Enforcement of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a State member bank fails to comply with an order issued under section 39, the Board may seek enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with order.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the Board may assess a civil money penalty against any State member bank that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final order issued under section 39 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Board may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 39 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Removal, Suspension, and Debarment of Accountants From Performing Audit Services</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.400" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.400   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, which implements section 36(g)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA)(12 U.S.C. 1831m(g)(4)), provides rules and procedures for the removal, suspension, or debarment of independent public accountants and their accounting firms from performing independent audit and attestation services for insured state member banks, bank holding companies, and savings and loan holding companies required by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 48267, Aug. 13, 2003, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.401" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given below unless the context requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accounting firm</I> means a corporation, proprietorship, partnership, or other business firm providing audit services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audit services</I> means any service required to be performed by an independent public accountant by section 36 of the FDIA and 12 CFR part 363, including attestation services. Audit services include any service performed with respect to the holding company of an insured bank that is used to satisfy requirements imposed by section 36 or part 363 on that bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Banking organization</I> means an insured state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company that obtains audit services that are used to satisfy requirements imposed by section 36 or part 363 on an insured subsidiary bank or insured savings association of that holding company. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent public accountant</I> (accountant) means any individual who performs or participates in providing audit services. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 38052, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.402" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.402   Removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment</I>—(1) <I>Individuals.</I> The Board may remove, suspend, or debar an independent public accountant from performing audit services for banking organizations that are subject to section 36 of the FDIA, if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, the Board finds that the accountant: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lacks the requisite qualifications to perform audit services; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has knowingly or recklessly engaged in conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards, including those standards and conflict of interest provisions applicable to accountants through the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Pub. L. 107-204, 116 Stat. 745 (2002) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), and developed by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has engaged in negligent conduct in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(A) A single instance of highly unreasonable conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards in circumstances in which an accountant knows, or should know, that heightened scrutiny is warranted; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Repeated instances of unreasonable conduct, each resulting in a violation of applicable professional standards, that indicate a lack of competence to perform audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Has knowingly or recklessly given false or misleading information, or knowingly or recklessly participated in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the Board or any officer or employee of the Board; 
</P>
<P>(v) Has engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing or reckless violation of any provision of the Federal banking or securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder, or any other law; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Has been removed, suspended, or debarred from practice before any Federal or state agency regulating the banking, insurance, or securities industries, other than by an action listed in § 263.403, on grounds relevant to the provision of audit services; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Is suspended or debarred for cause from practice as an accountant by any duly constituted licensing authority of any state, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting firms.</I> If the Board determines that there is good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment of a member or employee of an accounting firm under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Board also may remove, suspend, or debar such firm or one or more offices of such firm. In considering whether to remove, suspend, or debar a firm or an office thereof, and the term of any sanction against a firm under this section, the Board may consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The gravity, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act that constitutes good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of, and adherence to, applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the accounting firm's conduct of its business and the performance of audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The selection, training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the accounting firm involved in the performance of audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which managing partners or senior officers of the accounting firm have participated, directly, or indirectly through oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and 
</P>
<P>(v) The extent to which the accounting firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited scope orders.</I> An order of removal, suspension (including an immediate suspension), or debarment may, at the discretion of the Board, be made applicable to a particular banking organization or class of banking organizations. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Remedies not exclusive.</I> The remedies provided in this subpart are in addition to any other remedies the Board may have under any other applicable provisions of law, rule, or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings to remove, suspend, or debar</I>—(1) <I>Initiation of formal removal, suspension, or debarment proceedings.</I> The Board may initiate a proceeding to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services by issuing a written notice of intention to take such action that names the individual or firm as a respondent and describes the nature of the conduct that constitutes good cause for such action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing under paragraph (b) of this section.</I> An accountant or firm named as a respondent in the notice issued under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request a hearing on the allegations in the notice. Hearings conducted under this paragraph shall be conducted in the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 263, subpart A). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Immediate suspension from performing audit services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Board serves a written notice of intention to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services, the Board may, with due regard for the public interest and without a preliminary hearing, immediately suspend such accountant or firm from performing audit services for banking organizations, if the Board: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a reasonable basis to believe that the accountant or firm has engaged in conduct (specified in the notice served on the accountant or firm under paragraph (b) of this section) that would constitute grounds for removal, suspension, or debarment under paragraph (a) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines that immediate suspension is necessary to avoid immediate harm to an insured depository institution or its depositors or to the depository system as a whole; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Serves such respondent with written notice of the immediate suspension. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> An immediate suspension notice issued under this paragraph will become effective upon service. Such suspension will remain in effect until the date the Board dismisses the charges contained in the notice of intention, or the effective date of a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment issued by the Board to the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition to stay.</I> Any accountant or firm immediately suspended from performing audit services in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 10 calendar days after service of the notice of immediate suspension, file with the Secretary, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551 for a stay of such immediate suspension. If no petition is filed within 10 calendar days, the immediate suspension shall remain in effect. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing on petition.</I> Upon receipt of a stay petition, the Secretary will designate a presiding officer who shall fix a place and time (not more than 10 calendar days after receipt of the petition, unless extended at the request of petitioner) at which the immediately suspended party may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials and oral argument. Any Board employee engaged in investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, serve as a presiding officer or participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer or of the Board, except as witness or counsel in the proceeding. In the sole discretion of the presiding officer, upon a specific showing of compelling need, oral testimony of witnesses may also be presented. In hearings held pursuant to this paragraph there shall be no discovery and the provisions of §§ 263.6 through 263.12, 263.16, and 263.21 of this part shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Decision on petition.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the hearing, the presiding officer shall issue a decision. The presiding officer will grant a stay upon a demonstration that a substantial likelihood exists of the respondent's success on the issues raised by the notice of intention and that, absent such relief, the respondent will suffer immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage. In the absence of such a demonstration, the presiding officer will notify the parties that the immediate suspension will be continued pending the completion of the administrative proceedings pursuant to the notice. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review of presiding officer's decision.</I> The parties may seek review of the presiding officer's decision by filing a petition for review with the presiding officer within 10 calendar days after service of the decision. Replies must be filed within 10 calendar days after the petition filing date. Upon receipt of a petition for review and any reply, the presiding officer shall promptly certify the entire record to the Board. Within 60 calendar days of the presiding officer's certification, the Board shall issue an order notifying the affected party whether or not the immediate suspension should be continued or reinstated. The order shall state the basis of the Board's decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.403" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.403   Automatic removal, suspension, and debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An independent public accountant or accounting firm may not perform audit services for banking organizations if the accountant or firm: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment (other than a limited scope order) issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Office of Thrift Supervision under section 36 of the FDIA; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a temporary suspension or permanent revocation of registration or a temporary or permanent suspension or bar from further association with any registered public accounting firm issued by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or the Securities and Exchange Commission under sections 105(c)(4)(A) or (B) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(A) or (B)); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to an order of suspension or denial of the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Securities and Exchange Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request, the Board, for good cause shown, may grant written permission to such accountant or firm to perform audit services for banking organizations. The request shall contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Board may require the applicant to submit additional information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.404" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.404   Notice of removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to the public.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the Board shall make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the Board by accountants and firms.</I> An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to a banking organization must provide the Board with written notice of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any currently effective order or other action described in § 263.402(a)(1)(vi) through (a)(1)(vii) or § 263.403(a)(2) through (a)(3); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> Written notice required by this paragraph shall be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.405" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.10.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.405   Petition for reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of petition.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, a petition for reinstatement by an independent public accountant, an accounting firm, or an office of a firm that was removed, suspended, or debarred under § 263.402 may be made in writing at any time. The request shall contain a concise statement of the action requested. The Board may require the petitioner to submit additional information. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> A petitioner for reinstatement under this section may, in the sole discretion of the Board, be afforded a hearing. The accountant or firm shall bear the burden of going forward with a petition and proving the grounds asserted in support of the petition. The Board may, in its sole discretion, direct that any reinstatement proceeding be limited to written submissions. The removal, suspension, or debarment shall continue until the Board, for good cause shown, has reinstated the petitioner or until the suspension period has expired. The filing of a petition for reinstatement shall not stay the effectiveness of the removal, suspension, or debarment of an accountant or firm.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Formal Investigative Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89921, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 263.450" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.450   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures of this subpart must be followed when a formal investigation is instituted and conducted pursuant to: section 8(n) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(n)); section 10(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)); section 7(j)(15) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(15)); section 5(f) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(f)); sections 10(b)(4) and 10(g)(2) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(b)(4) and 1467a(g)(2)); or section 162 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5362).
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart prohibits the Board from conducting informal investigations or obtaining information by any means other than a subpoena issued pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart does not apply to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings are required by statute, the rules for which are contained in part 262 of this chapter and subpart A of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.451" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.451   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Formal investigative proceeding</I> means an investigation conducted pursuant to an order of investigation as provided in § 263.452(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designated representative</I> means the person or persons empowered by the Board or by the General Counsel or his or her designees in accordance with 12 CFR 265.6 to conduct a formal investigative proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.452" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.452   Conduct of a formal investigative proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A formal investigative proceeding may be initiated upon issuance of an order of investigation by the Board or by the General Counsel or his or her designees in accordance with 12 CFR 265.6. The order of investigation must indicate the purpose of the formal investigative proceeding and designate the Board's representatives to direct the conduct of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish documentary evidence or testimony at a formal investigative proceeding may, upon request, inspect a copy of the order of investigation at a time and place that the Board's designated representative determines to be appropriate. Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish documentary evidence or testimony in a formal investigative proceeding may not refuse to comply with a subpoena on the grounds that the order of investigation was not made available in advance of the date of production or testimony set forth in a subpoena.
</P>
<P>(c) Copies of an order of investigation may not be produced to or retained by any person except with the express written approval of the Board officer supervising the investigation. The Board may provide a copy of an order of investigation, in whole or in part, if the Board officer concludes, in the officer's discretion, that disclosure of the order of investigation would not infringe upon the privacy of persons involved in the investigation or impede the conduct of the investigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.453" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.453   Powers of the designated representative.</HEAD>
<P>The designated representative conducting the formal investigative proceeding will have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take and preserve testimony under oath, to issue subpoenas <I>ad testificandum</I> and subpoenas <I>duces tecum</I> and to apply for their enforcement to the United States District Court for the judicial district or the United States court in any territory in which the witness or company subpoenaed resides or conducts business, or such other judicial district provided by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.454" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.454   Confidentiality of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Formal investigative proceedings conducted pursuant to this subpart are confidential and, unless otherwise ordered or permitted by the Board, or required by law, the entire record of any formal investigative proceeding, including the order of investigation authorizing the proceeding, the transcripts of such proceeding, and all documents and information obtained by the designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be confidential. If the Board issues a notice of charges or otherwise initiates an administrative (adjudicatory) hearing, disclosure of documents and information obtained by the Board's designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be governed by the Uniform Rules and the Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules (subparts A and B of this part).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.455" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.455   Transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Transcripts of testimony, if any, must be recorded by an official reporter, or by any other person or means designated by the designated representative conducting the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Transcripts will be treated as confidential and must not be disclosed to any party except as provided in this subpart or as otherwise ordered or permitted by the Board, or required by law or regulation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.456" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.456   Rights of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any witness in a formal investigative proceeding may be accompanied and advised by an attorney personally representing that witness.
</P>
<P>(1) Such attorney must be a member in good standing of the bar of any state, Commonwealth, possession, territory, or the District of Columbia, who has not been suspended or debarred from practice before the Board in accordance with any provision of this part, including paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Such attorney may advise the witness before, during, and after the taking of the witness' testimony and may briefly question the witness, on the record, at the conclusion of the witness' testimony, for the sole purpose of clarifying any of the answers the witness has given. During the taking of the testimony of a witness, such attorney may make summary notes solely for the attorney's use in representing the witness. Neither the attorney nor witness may retain copies of exhibits used or introduced in the course of a witness' testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) All witnesses must be sequestered, and, unless permitted in the discretion of the designated representative, no witness or accompanying attorney may be present during the taking of testimony of any other witness called in such formal investigative proceeding. Attorneys for any other interested persons or entities will not, unless permitted in the discretion of the designated representative, have a right to be present during the testimony of any witness not personally being represented by such attorneys.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board, for good cause, may exclude a particular attorney from further participation in any formal investigative proceeding in which the Board has found the attorney to have engaged in dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct. The designated representative conducting the formal investigative proceeding may report to the Board instances of apparently dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct on the part of an attorney. After due notice to the attorney, the Board may take such action as the circumstances warrant, including suspending any attorney representing a witness from further participation in the investigative proceeding, based upon a written record evidencing the conduct of the attorney in the formal investigative proceeding or such other or additional written or oral presentation as the Board may permit or direct.
</P>
<P>(b) A witness may inspect the transcript of the witness' own testimony, without retaining a copy thereof, for the purpose of making non-substantive corrections to the transcript at a time and place that the designated representative determines to be appropriate in consideration of all relevant factors, including the convenience of the witness.
</P>
<P>(c) A witness may, solely for the use of the witness and the witness' attorney, obtain a copy of the transcript of the witness' testimony, provided that the witness submits a written request for the transcript and the witness requesting a copy of the witness' testimony bears the cost thereof. However, the Board officer supervising the formal investigative proceeding may deny such a request if, in the officer's discretion, the provision of the transcript may infringe the privacy of third persons involved in the investigation, or impede or interfere with the conduct of any investigation. If the Board issues a notice of charges or otherwise initiates an administrative (adjudicatory) hearing, disclosure of formal investigative transcripts obtained by the Board's designated representative(s) during the course of the formal investigative proceeding will be governed by the Uniform Rules and the Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules (subparts A and B of this part).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 263.457" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 263.457   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) By delivery to an agent which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, director, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail or by an express delivery service addressed to the person's or authorized agent's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) In such other manner as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing or testimony is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved. Foreign nationals are subject to such subpoenas if such service is made upon a duly authorized agent located in the United States or such other means permissible by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Witness fees and mileage.</I> Witnesses summoned in any proceeding under this subpart must be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States. Such fees and mileage need not be tendered when the subpoena is issued on behalf of the Board by any of its designated representatives.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.26.11.3.9.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 263—Rules Applicable to Proceedings Initiated Before April 1, 2024


</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89923, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The content of this appendix reproduces the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure and Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules in 12 CFR part 263, subparts A and B, respectively, as of April 1, 2024, and apply only to adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024. Proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024, are not governed by the version of the rules set out in this appendix. Cross-references to part 263 (as well as to included sections) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure
</HD1>
<FP>263.1

 Scope.
</FP>
<FP>263.2

 Rules of construction.
</FP>
<FP>263.3

 Definitions.
</FP>
<FP>263.4

 Authority of the Board.
</FP>
<FP>263.5

 Authority of the administrative law judge.
</FP>
<FP>263.6

 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.
</FP>
<FP>263.7

 Good faith certification.
</FP>
<FP>263.8

 Conflicts of interest.
</FP>
<FP>263.9

 Ex parte communications.
</FP>
<FP>263.10

 Filing of papers.
</FP>
<FP>263.11

 Service of papers.
</FP>
<FP>263.12

 Construction of time limits.
</FP>
<FP>263.13

 Change of time limits.
</FP>
<FP>263.14

 Witness fees and expenses.
</FP>
<FP>263.15

 Opportunity for informal settlement.
</FP>
<FP>263.16

 The Board's right to conduct examination.
</FP>
<FP>263.17

 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.
</FP>
<FP>263.18

 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.
</FP>
<FP>263.19

 Answer.
</FP>
<FP>263.21

 Failure to appear.
</FP>
<FP>263.22

 Consolidation and severance of actions.
</FP>
<FP>263.23

 Motions.
</FP>
<FP>263.24

 Scope of document discovery.
</FP>
<FP>263.25

 Request for document discovery from parties.
</FP>
<FP>263.26

 Document subpoenas to nonparties.
</FP>
<FP>263.27

 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.
</FP>
<FP>263.28

 Interlocutory review.
</FP>
<FP>263.29

 Summary disposition.
</FP>
<FP>263.30

 Partial summary disposition.
</FP>
<FP>263.31

 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.
</FP>
<FP>263.32

 Prehearing submissions.
</FP>
<FP>263.33

 Public hearings.
</FP>
<FP>263.34

 Hearing subpoenas.
</FP>
<FP>263.35

 Conduct of hearings.
</FP>
<FP>263.36

 Evidence.
</FP>
<FP>263.37

 Post-hearing filings.
</FP>
<FP>263.38

 Recommended decision and filing of record.
</FP>
<FP>263.39

 Exceptions to recommended decision.
</FP>
<FP>263.40

 Review by the Board.
</FP>
<FP>263.41

 Stays pending judicial review.
</FP>
<HD1>Subpart B—Board Local Rules Supplementing Uniform Rules
</HD1>
<FP>263.50

 Purpose and scope.
</FP>
<FP>263.51

 Definitions.
</FP>
<FP>263.52

 Address for filing.
</FP>
<FP>263.53

 Discovery depositions.
</FP>
<FP>263.54

 Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.
</FP>
<FP>263.55

 Board as Presiding Officer.
</FP>
<FP>263.56

 Initial licensing proceedings.


</FP>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 263.1 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of a state member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the Board is the appropriate agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the Board against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which the Board is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Any provision of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (“BHC Act”), or any order or regulation issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1847(b) and (d);
</P>
<P>(2) Sections 19, 22, 23, 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (“FRA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 504 and 505;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 9 of the FRA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 324;
</P>
<P>(4) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended, or any regulation or order issued thereunder and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(7) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”) or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(8) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(9) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(10) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the Board, the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the Board in connection with the grant of an application or request, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty or law or regulation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(12) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(13) Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (“HOLA”) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464 (d), (s) and (v);
</P>
<P>(14) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
</P>
<P>(15) Section 10 of the HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a (i) and (r);
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Removal, prohibition, and civil monetary penalty proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) for violations of the special post-employment restrictions imposed by that section; and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.2 Rules of construction.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.3 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Board's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Agency or the administrative law judge, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Board in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the Board with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> includes: (1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) Any organization operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(4) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof;
</P>
<P>(5) Any Federal agency as that term is defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(5)); and
</P>
<P>(6) Any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary (other than a savings association) of a savings and loan holding company as those terms are defined in the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the Board in this part other than subpart A.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>OFIA</I> means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the Board, the Office of Comptroller of the Currency (the <I>OCC</I>), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the <I>FDIC</I>), and the National Credit Union Administration (the <I>NCUA</I>).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Party</I> means the Board and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the Board.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in subpart A of this part that are common to the Board, the OCC, the FDIC, and the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Violation</I> includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.4 Authority of the Board.</B>
</P>
<P>The Board may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 263.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Board a recommended decision as provided herein;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the Board or an administrative law judge</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the Board if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer, director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the Board, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.7 Good faith certification.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statement is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.8 Conflicts of interest.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 263.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.9 Ex parte communications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the Board (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, a member of the Board, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the Board until the date that the Board issues its final decision pursuant to § 263.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person outside the Federal Reserve System shall make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to a member of the Board, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the Board, administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the Federal Reserve System any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, a member of the Board or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Board in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 263.40, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.10 Filing of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 263.25 and 263.26, shall be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Board or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 263.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the Board and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board, or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.11 Service of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 263.10(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Board or the administrative law judge.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Board or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 263.6, the Board or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) By delivery to an agent, which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.12 Construction of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of personal service or same-day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Board or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.13 Change of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board pursuant to § 263.38, the Board may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or <I>sua sponte</I> by the Board or the administrative law judge.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.14 Witness fees and expenses.</B>
</P>
<P>Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Board is the party requesting the subpoena. The Board shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the Board.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.</B>
</P>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any Board representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.16 The Board's right to conduct examination.</B>
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the Board or any Federal Reserve Bank to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the Board or any Federal Reserve Bank to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by the Board upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notice must be filed with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Board's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the Board is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.


</P>
<P><B>§ 263.19 Answer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.21 Failure to appear.</B>
</P>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule shall be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.23 Motions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Board, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 263.29 and 263.30.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.24 Scope of document discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 263.53 of subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 263.25.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative-process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.25 Request for document discovery from parties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying.</I> The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per-page copying rate imposed by 12 CFR part 261 implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 263.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney-work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 263.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 263.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 263.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness's unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.28 Interlocutory review.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Board may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Board only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 263.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Board may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the administrative law judge if the Board finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 263.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 263.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Board for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Board.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.29 Summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Board issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes that there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.30 Partial summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.32 Prehearing submissions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:
</P>
<P>(1) Prehearing statement;
</P>
<P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.33 Public hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the Board, in the Board's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Board a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Board. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 263.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.34 Hearing subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena duces tecum requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 263.26(c).




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.35 Conduct of hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree the administrative law judge shall fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.


</P>
<P><B>§ 263.36 Evidence.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or Board shall appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness, either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.37 Post-hearing filings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party, that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 263.37(b), the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Board, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Board for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Board a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.


</P>
<P><B>§ 263.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 263.38, a party may file with the Board written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Board if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.40 Review by the Board.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Board.</I> When the Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Board shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Board.</I> Upon the initiative of the Board or on the written request of any party filed with the Board within the time for filing exceptions, the Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board's final decision. Oral argument before the Board must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.41 Stays pending judicial review.</B>
</P>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Board. The Board may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Board Local Rules Supplementing the Uniform Rules</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 263.50 Purpose and scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure governing formal adjudications set forth in § 263.50(b) of this subpart, and supplements the rules of practice and procedure contained in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The rules and procedures of this subpart and subpart A of this part shall apply to the formal adjudications set forth in § 263.1 of subpart A and to the following adjudications:
</P>
<P>(1) Suspension of a member bank from use of credit facilities of the Federal Reserve System under section 4 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 301);
</P>
<P>(2) Termination of a bank's membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 327);
</P>
<P>(3) Issuance of a cease-and-desist order under section 11 of the Clayton Act (15 U.S.C. 21);
</P>
<P>(4) Adjudications under sections 2, 3, or 4 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841, 1842, or 1843);
</P>
<P>(5) Formal adjudications on bank merger applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(6) Issuance of a divestiture order under section 5(e) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(e));
</P>
<P>(7) Imposition of sanctions upon any municipal securities dealer for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency, or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with such a municipal securities dealer, under section 15B(c)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-4);
</P>
<P>(8) Proceedings where the Board otherwise orders that a formal hearing be held;
</P>
<P>(9) Termination of the activities of a state branch, state agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 7(e) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3105(d));
</P>
<P>(10) Termination of the activities of a representative office of a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to section 10(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3107(b));
</P>
<P>(11) Issuance of a prompt corrective action directive to a member bank under section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o);
</P>
<P>(12) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe or unsound condition under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
</P>
<P>(13) Reclassification of a member bank on grounds of unsafe and unsound practice under section 38(g)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(g)(1));
</P>
<P>(14) Issuance of an order requiring a member bank to dismiss a director or senior executive officer under section 38 (e)(5) and 38(f)(2) (F)(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(5) and 1831o(f)(2) (F)(ii));
</P>
<P>(15) Adjudications under section 10 of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a).




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.51 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>As used in subparts B through G of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member bank</I> means any bank that is a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Institution</I> has the same meaning as that assigned to it in § 263.3(f) of subpart A, and includes any foreign bank with a representative office in the United States.


</P>
<P><B>§ 263.52 Address for filing.</B>
</P>
<P>All papers to be filed with the Board shall be filed with the Secretary of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Washington, DC 20551.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.53 Discovery depositions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In addition to the discovery permitted in subpart A of this part, limited discovery by means of depositions shall be allowed for individuals with knowledge of facts material to the proceeding that are not protected from discovery by any applicable privilege, and of identified expert witnesses. Except in unusual cases, accordingly, depositions will be permitted only of individuals identified as hearing witnesses, including experts. All discovery depositions must be completed within the time set forth in § 263.24(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> A party who desires to take a deposition of any other party's proposed witnesses, shall apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. The application shall state the name and address of the proposed deponent, the subject matter of the testimony expected from the deponent and its relevancy to the proceeding, and the address of the place and the time, no sooner than ten days after the service of the subpoena, for the taking of the deposition. Any such application shall be treated as a motion subject to the rules governing motions practice set forth in § 263.23.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuance of subpoena.</I> The administrative law judge shall issue the requested deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum upon a finding that the application satisfies the requirements of this section and of § 263.24. If the administrative law judge determines that the taking of the deposition or its proposed location is, in whole or in part, unnecessary, unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome, he or she may deny the application or may grant it upon such conditions as justice may require. The party obtaining the deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum shall be responsible for serving it on the deponent and all parties to the proceeding in accordance with § 263.11.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> A person named in a deposition subpoena or subpoena duces tecum may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena or for the issuance of a protective order. Such motions must be filed within ten days following service of the subpoena, but in all cases at least five days prior to the commencement of the scheduled deposition. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the reasons for granting the motion and a copy of the motion and the statement must be served on the party which requested the subpoena. Only the party requesting the subpoena may file a response to a motion to quash or modify, and any such response shall be filed within five days following service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of a deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena shall be in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 263.27(d).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The deponent shall be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the deponent with respect to all non-privileged, relevant and material matters. Objections to questions or evidence shall be in the short form, stating the ground for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence shall not be deemed a waiver except where the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. The discovery deposition shall be transcribed or otherwise recorded as agreed among the parties.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Protective orders.</I> At any time during the taking of a discovery deposition, on the motion of any party or of the deponent, the administrative law judge may terminate or limit the scope and manner of the deposition upon a finding that grounds exist for such relief. Grounds for terminating or limiting the taking of a discovery deposition include a finding that the discovery deposition is being conducted in bad faith or in such a manner as to:
</P>
<P>(1) Unreasonably annoy, embarrass, or oppress the deponent;
</P>
<P>(2) Unreasonably probe into privilege, irrelevant or immaterial matters; or
</P>
<P>(3) Unreasonably attempt to pry into a party's preparation for trial.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.54 Delegation to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication.</B>
</P>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, administrative adjudications subject to subpart A of this part shall be conducted by an administrative law judge of OFIA.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.55 Board as Presiding Officer.</B>
</P>
<P>The Board may, in its discretion, designate itself, one or more of its members, or an authorized officer, to act as presiding officer in a formal hearing. In such a proceeding, proposed findings and conclusions, briefs, and other submissions by the parties permitted in subpart A shall be filed with the Secretary for consideration by the Board. Sections 263.38 and 263.39 of subpart A will not apply to proceedings conducted under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 263.56 Initial licensing proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>Proceedings with respect to applications for initial licenses shall include, but not be limited to, applications for Board approval under section 3 of the BHC Act and section 10 of HOLA and such proceedings as may be ordered by the Board with respect to applications under section 18(c) of the FDIA. In such initial licensing proceedings, the procedures set forth in subpart A of this part shall apply, except that the Board may designate a Board Counsel to represent the Board in a nonadversary capacity for the purpose of developing for the record information relevant to the issues to be determined by the Presiding Officer and the Board. In such proceedings, Board Counsel shall be considered to be a decisional employee for purposes of §§ 263.9 and 263.40 of subpart A.




</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="264" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 264—EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301; 12 U.S.C. 244. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 264.101" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.27.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264.101   Cross-reference to employees' ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) are subject to the executive branch-wide standards of ethical conduct at 5 CFR part 2635 and the Board's regulation at 5 CFR part 6801, which supplements the executive branch-wide standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulation at 5 CFR part 2634. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 53830, Oct. 16, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="264a" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 264a—POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTIONS FOR SENIOR EXAMINERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1820(k).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 264a.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.1   What is the purpose and scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part identifies those officers and employees of the Federal Reserve that are subject to the special post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) and implements those restrictions as they apply to officers and employees of the Federal Reserve.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264a.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.2   Who is considered a senior examiner of the Federal Reserve?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, an officer or employee of the Federal Reserve is considered to be the “senior examiner” for a particular state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank if—
</P>
<P>(a) The officer or employee has been authorized by the Board to conduct examinations or inspections on behalf of the Board;
</P>
<P>(b) The officer or employee has been assigned continuing, broad and lead responsibility for examining or inspecting the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank; and
</P>
<P>(c) The officer's or employee's responsibilities for examining, inspecting and supervising the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank—
</P>
<P>(1) Represent a substantial portion of the officer's or employee's assigned responsibilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the officer or employee to interact routinely with officers or employees of the state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or foreign bank or its affiliates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 56605, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264a.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.3   What special post-employment restrictions apply to senior examiners?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Senior Examiners of State Member Banks.</I> An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a state member bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year after leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
</P>
<P>(1) The state member bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any company (including a bank holding company) that controls the state member bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Senior Examiners of Bank Holding Companies.</I> An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a bank holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
</P>
<P>(1) The bank holding company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Senior Examiners of Foreign Banks.</I> An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a foreign bank for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
</P>
<P>(1) The foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any branch or agency of the foreign bank located in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other depository institution controlled by the foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Senior Examiners of Savings and Loan Holding Companies.</I> An officer or employee of the Federal Reserve who serves as the senior examiner of a savings and loan holding company for two or more months during the last twelve months of such individual's employment with the Federal Reserve may not, within one year of leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director or consultant from—
</P>
<P>(1) The savings and loan holding company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any depository institution that is controlled by the savings and loan holding company. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264a.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.4   When do these special restrictions become effective and may they be waived?</HEAD>
<P>The post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the FDI Act and § 264a.3 do not apply to any officer or employee of the Federal Reserve, or any former officer or employee of the Federal Reserve, if—
</P>
<P>(a) The individual ceased to be an officer or employee of the Federal Reserve before December 17, 2005; or
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman of the Board of Governors certifies, in writing and on a case-by-case basis, that granting the individual a waiver of the restrictions would not affect the integrity of the Federal Reserve's supervisory program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264a.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.5   What are the penalties for violating these special post-employment restrictions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties under section 10(k) of FDI Act.</I> A senior examiner of the Federal Reserve who, after leaving the employment of the Federal Reserve, violates the restrictions set forth in § 264a.3 shall, in accordance with section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act, be subject to one or both of the following penalties—
</P>
<P>(1) An order—
</P>
<P>(i) Removing the individual from office or prohibiting the individual from further participation in the affairs of the relevant state member bank, bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, foreign bank or other depository institution or company for a period of up to five years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibiting the individual from participating in the affairs of any insured depository institution for a period of up to five years; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) A civil monetary penalty of not more than $250,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Imposition of penalties.</I> The penalties described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be imposed by the appropriate Federal banking agency as determined under section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act, which may be an agency other than the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of prohibition orders.</I> Any senior examiner who is subject to an order issued under paragraph (a) of this section shall, as required by section 10(k)(6)(B) of the FDI Act, be subject to paragraphs (6) and (7) of section 8(e) of the FDI Act in the same manner and to the same extent as a person subject to an order issued under section 8(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> The procedures applicable to actions under paragraph (a) of this section are provided in section 10(k)(6) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other penalties.</I> The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 264a.3 also may be subject to other administrative, civil or criminal remedies or penalties as provided in law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264a.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.28.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264a.6   What other definitions and rules of construction apply for purposes of this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank holding company</I> means any company that controls a bank (as provided in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>)).
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall be deemed to act as a <I>consultant</I> for a bank or other company only if such person works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, such bank or other company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control</I> has the meaning given in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, with respect to banking holding companies, and has the meaning given in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act, with respect to savings and loan holding companies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act and includes an uninsured branch or agency of a foreign bank, if such branch or agency is located in any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal Reserve</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign bank</I> means any foreign bank or company described in section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the meaning given in section 3 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means any company that controls a savings association (as provided in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>))
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69638, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 76 FR 56606, Sept. 13, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="264b" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 264b—RULES REGARDING FOREIGN GIFTS AND DECORATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 7342; 12 U.S.C. 248(i).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 68721, Dec. 10, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 264b.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>These rules govern when Board employees, their spouses, and their dependents may accept and retain gifts and decorations from foreign governments under the Foreign Gifts and Decorations Act of 1966, as amended (5 U.S.C. 7342) (“Act”).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>When used in this part, the following terms have the meanings indicated:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board employees</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Members of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board”), officers, and other employees of the Board, including experts or consultants while employed by, and acting on behalf of, the Board; and
</P>
<P>(2) Spouses (unless separated) or dependents (within the meaning of section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 152)) of such persons.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign government</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any unit of foreign governmental authority, including any foreign national, State, local, or municipal government;
</P>
<P>(2) Any international or multinational organization whose membership is composed of any unit of foreign government as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any agent or representative of any such unit or organization, while acting as such.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Gift</I> means a tangible or intangible present (other than a decoration) tendered by, or received from, a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decoration</I> means an order, device, medal, badge, insignia, emblem, or award tendered by, or received from, a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minimal value</I> means retail value in the United States at the time of acceptance of $285 or less as of January 1, 2002, and at 3-year intervals thereafter, as redefined in regulations prescribed by the Administrator of General Services, in consultation with the Secretary of State, to reflect changes in the consumer price index for the immediately preceding 3-year period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative Governor</I> means the Board member serving as the Administrative Governor and includes persons designated by the Administrative Governor to exercise the authority granted under this part in the governor's absence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.3   Restrictions on acceptance of gifts and decorations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Board employees are prohibited from requesting or otherwise encouraging the tender of a gift or decoration from a foreign government.
</P>
<P>(b) Board employees are prohibited from accepting a gift or decoration from a foreign government, except in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.4   Gifts of minimal value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Board employees may accept and retain a gift of minimal value tendered and received as a souvenir or mark of courtesy. If more than one tangible gift is presented at or marks an event, the value of all such gifts must not exceed “minimal value.” If tangible gifts are presented at or mark separate events, their value must not exceed “minimal value” for each event, but may exceed “minimal value” for all events, even if the events occur on the same day.
</P>
<P>(b) Board employees may determine at the time a gift is offered whether it is of minimal value, or they may submit an accepted gift as soon as practicable to the Office of the Secretary for valuation.
</P>
<P>(c) Disagreements over whether a gift is of minimal value will be resolved by an independent appraisal under procedures established by the Office of the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.5   Gifts of more than minimal value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Educational scholarships or medical treatment.</I> Board employees may accept and retain gifts of more than minimal value when such gifts are in the nature of an educational scholarship or medical treatment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Travel or travel expenses.</I> Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel taking place entirely outside the United States (such as transportation, food, and lodging) of more than minimal value if appropriate, consistent with the interests of the United States, and permitted by the Board under paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel under paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with specific instructions of the Board, as evidenced by the prior approval of the Administrative Governor. Board employees must request prior approval under procedures established by the Office of the Secretary.
</P>
<P>(2) Board employees may accept gifts of travel or expenses for travel under paragraph (b) of this section without the prior approval of the Administrative Governor if such expenses are reported under § 264b.6(b) and the Administrative Governor approves their acceptance after the fact. Board employees must personally repay gifts of travel or expenses for travel of more than minimal value that are not approved by the Administrative Governor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other gifts.</I> (1) Board employees may typically regard the refusal of gifts of more than minimal value at the inception (when offered or received without a prior offer) as consistent with the interests and general policy of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Board employees may accept gifts of more than minimal value when it appears that refusal would likely cause offense or embarrassment or otherwise adversely affect the foreign relations of the United States. Tangible gifts are considered to have been accepted on behalf of the United States and become the property of the United States on acceptance. Accordingly, they must be deposited and documented in accordance with § 264b.6(a) and can only be returned or otherwise processed by the Office of the Secretary under § 264b.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.6   Requirements for gifts of more than minimal value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Tangible gifts.</I> Board employees must deposit tangible gifts of more than minimal value with the Office of the Secretary within 60 days of acceptance and assist in preparing a statement that contains the following information for each gift:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and position of the Board employee;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief description of the gift and the circumstances justifying acceptance;
</P>
<P>(3) The identity, if known, of the foreign government and the name and position of the individual who presented the gift;
</P>
<P>(4) The date of acceptance of the gift;
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated value in the United States of the gift at the time of acceptance; and
</P>
<P>(6) The disposition or current location of the gift.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Travel or travel expenses without prior approval.</I> Board employees who accept a gift of travel or expenses for travel under § 264b.5(b)(2) without the prior approval of the Administrative Governor must submit a report to the Office of the Secretary within 30 days of acceptance that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and position of the Board employee;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief description of the gift, including its estimated value, and the circumstances justifying acceptance; and
</P>
<P>(3) The identity, if known, of the foreign government and the name and position of the individual who presented the gift.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports to the Secretary of State.</I> The Office of the Secretary must report the information contained in the statements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section to the Secretary of State, who must publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> not later than January 31 of each year a comprehensive listing of all such statements for gifts of more than minimal value that were received by federal employees during the preceding year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.7   Decorations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Board employees may accept, retain, and wear a decoration tendered or awarded by a foreign government in recognition of active field service in time of combat operations or for other outstanding or unusually meritorious performance, subject to the approval of the Administrative Governor. Requests for approval must be submitted to the Office of the Secretary and contain a statement of the circumstances surrounding the award and include any accompanying documentation. The recipient may retain the decoration pending action on the request.
</P>
<P>(b) Decorations accepted by Board employees without the approval of the Administrative Governor are considered to have been accepted on behalf of the United States and must be deposited within 60 days of the decoration's acceptance with the Office of the Secretary for disposition or retention under § 264b.8.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.8   Disposition or retention of gifts and decorations deposited with the Office of the Secretary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of the Secretary may dispose of gifts and decorations deposited under §§ 264b.6(a) and 264b.7(b) by returning them to the donors or by handling them in accordance with instructions from the General Services Administration under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of the Secretary may approve and retain gifts and decorations deposited under §§ 264b.6(a) and 264b.7(b) for official use. The Office of the Secretary must dispose of a gift within 30 days of the termination of its official use in accordance with instructions from the General Services Administration under applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.9   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Administrative Governor, after consultation with the General Counsel, must report to the Attorney General cases in which there is reason to believe that a Board employee has violated the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The Attorney General may bring a civil action in any district court of the United States against a Board employee who knowingly solicits or accepts a gift from a foreign government in violation of the Act, or who fails to deposit or report such a gift as required by the Act. The court may assess a maximum penalty of the retail value of a gift improperly solicited or received plus $5,000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 264b.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.29.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 264b.10   Certain grants excluded.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not apply to grants and other forms of assistance to which § 108A of the Mutual Educational and Cultural Exchange Act of 1961 applies. <I>See</I> 22 U.S.C. 2458a.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="265" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 265—RULES REGARDING DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 248(i) and (k).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 11(k) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(k)), the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) may delegate, by published order or rule, any of its functions other than those relating to rulemaking or pertaining principally to monetary and credit policies to Board members and employees, Reserve Banks, or administrative law judges. Pursuant to section 11(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)), the Board may make all rules and regulations necessary to enable it to effectively perform the duties, functions, or services specified in that Act. Other provisions of Federal law also may authorize specific delegations by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) This part details the functions that the Board has delegated. Subpart A contains general provisions pertaining to delegations of authority, including review of action taken pursuant to delegated authority. Subpart B contains the specific functions delegated to Board members, Board employees and the Federal Reserve Banks. Except as otherwise indicated in this part, the Board will review a delegated action only if a Board member, at his or her own initiative, requests a review.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.2   Delegation of functions generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board has determined to delegate authority to exercise the functions described in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chair of the Board shall assign responsibility for performing such delegated functions.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a delegatee must act with the concurrence of a Board employee, or in consultation with a Board employee, that Board employee may subdelegate his or her authority to concur or be consulted on the delegated action to an employee within the same division or office.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.1.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.3   Board review of delegated actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request by Board member.</I> The Board shall review any action taken at a delegated level upon the vote of one member of the Board, either on the member's own initiative or on the basis of a petition for review by any person claiming to be adversely affected by the delegated action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition for review.</I> A petition for review of a delegated action must be received by the Secretary of the Board not later than the fifth day following the date of the delegated action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of review.</I> The Secretary shall give notice of review by the Board of a delegated action to any person with respect to whom the action was taken not later than the tenth day following the date of the delegated action. Upon receiving notice, such person may not proceed further in reliance upon the delegated action until notified of the outcome of the review by the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>By action of a delegatee.</I> A delegatee may submit any matter to the Board for determination if the delegatee considers it appropriate because of the importance or complexity of the matter.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Delegations of Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.4   Functions delegated to Board members or staff within the Division of Board Members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chair.</I> The Chair is authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank for International Settlements.</I> To appoint a first and second alternate director to the Board of Directors of the Bank for International Settlements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Term Deposit Facility (TDF).</I> To authorize TDF test operations with maximum award amounts of up to $20 billion and with maximum offering rates of up to 5 basis points over the interest on excess reserves rate, to adjust the schedules and other terms and conditions for TDF test operations as necessary, to approve additional TDF test operations, to determine when TDF test operations should offer term deposits with an early withdrawal feature, and to establish, with respect to term deposits that are offered with an early withdrawal feature, an early withdrawal penalty that includes forfeiture of all interest on any term deposits withdrawn before the expiration of the term plus an additional penalty of 75 basis points at an annual rate applied to the principal over the entire term of the term deposit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosures related to emergency lending programs.</I> To approve:
</P>
<P>(i) Periodic reports to Congress under section 13(3)(C)(ii) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C)(ii)) for the Bank Term Funding Program, Primary Dealer Credit Facility, Money Market Liquidity Facility, Commercial Paper Funding Facility, Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, Secondary Market Corporate Credit Facility, Municipal Liquidity Facility, Term Asset-Backed Securities Loan Facility, Main Street New Loan Facility, Main Street Expanded Loan Facility, Main Street Priority Loan Facility, Nonprofit Organization New Loan Facility, and Nonprofit Organization Expanded Loan Facility, and to approve technical or minor changes to the scope of information included in such reports; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Seven-day reports to Congress under section 13(3)(C)(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 343(3)(C)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation.</I> The Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation is authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) To act on requests for extensions of State member banks' and bank holding companies' advanced approaches first floor period start dates that are consistent with previous exemptions approved by the Board and that do not raise additional significant policy issues.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chair of the Committee on Federal Reserve Bank Affairs.</I> The Chair of the Committee on Federal Reserve Bank Affairs is authorized to consider and grant or deny requests from the Federal Reserve Banks for exceptions to the Board's policies on Federal Reserve Bank directors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual members.</I> Any Board member designated by the Chair is authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approval of amendments to notice of charges or cease and desist orders.</I> To approve (after receiving recommendations of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel) amendments to any notice, temporary order, or proposed order previously approved by the Board in a specific formal enforcement matter (including a notice of charges or removal notice) or any proposed or temporary cease and desist order previously approved by the Board under section 8(b) and (c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) and (c)).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of time period for final Board action.</I> To extend for an additional 180 days the 180-day period within which final Board action is required on an application pursuant to section 7(d) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exigent circumstances.</I> The Chair is authorized to determine when an emergency situation exists for purposes of section 2(b)(2) of the Board's Rules of Organization. If the Chair is unavailable or unable to determine that an emergency situation exists, then the Vice Chair is authorized to determine when an emergency situation exists.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Three-member Action Committee.</I> Any three Board members designated from time to time by the Chair are authorized:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Absence of quorum.</I> To act, upon certification by the Secretary of the Board of an absence of a quorum of the Board present in person, by unanimous vote on any matter that the Chair has certified must be acted upon promptly in order to avoid delay that would be inconsistent with the public interest except for matters:
</P>
<P>(i) Relating to rulemaking;
</P>
<P>(ii) Pertaining principally to monetary and credit policies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For which a statute expressly requires the affirmative vote of more than three Board members.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reports to Congress pursuant to the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996.</I> The Assistant to the Board, Congressional Liaison Office, Division of Board Members, is authorized, in consultation with the General Counsel, to approve and submit the annual report to Congress describing the status of the Board's compliance with sections 212(a)(1) through (5) of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 601 note), pursuant to section 212(a)(6) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.5   Functions delegated to the Secretary of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of the Board (or the Secretary's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Extension of time period for public participation in proposed regulations.</I> To extend, when appropriate under the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.2(a) and (b)), the time period for public participation with respect to proposed regulations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension of time period in notices, orders, rules, or regulations.</I> (i) To grant or deny requests to extend any time period in any notice, order, rule, or regulation of the Board relating to filing information, comments, opposition, briefs, exceptions, or other matters, in connection with any application, request, or petition for the Board's approval, authorization, determination, or permission, or any other action by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 265.3, no person claiming to be adversely affected by any such extension of time by the Secretary shall have the right to petition the Board or any Board member for review or reconsideration of the extension.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conforming citations and references in Board rules.</I> (i) To conform references to administrative positions or units in Board rules with changes in the administrative structure of the Board and in the government and agencies of the United States.
</P>
<P>(ii) To conform citations and references in Board rules with other regulatory or statutory changes adopted or promulgated by the Board or by the government or agencies of the United States.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Technical corrections in Board rules and regulations.</I> To make, with the concurrence of the General Counsel, technical corrections, such as spelling, grammar, construction, and organization (including making regular updates that are required by law and/or calculated via a formula prescribed by law, removal of obsolete provisions, and consolidation of related provisions), to the Board's rules, regulations, orders, and other records of Board action.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Procedural motions in administrative cases pending before the Board.</I> To grant or deny procedural motions arising after an administrative case has been forwarded to the Board for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of information</I>—(1) <I>Freedom of Information Act requests.</I> To make available, upon request, information in Board records and consider requests for confidential treatment of information in Board records under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of denial of access to Board records; Freedom of Information Act and Privacy Act.</I> To review and determine an appeal of denial of access to Board records under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a), and the Board's rules regarding such access (12 CFR parts 261 and 261a, respectively).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>File reports of rulemakings with Congress and the Government Accountability Office.</I> To file reports of rulemakings with Congress and the Government Accountability Office pursuant to the Congressional Review Act (5 U.S.C. 801 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; change in bank control; mergers</I>—(1) <I>Reports on competitive factors in bank mergers.</I> To furnish reports on competitive factors involved in a bank merger to the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)); the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843(c)(8) and (j)); the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1865(a) and (b)); the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)); and the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.,</I> 601-604a, 611 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reserve Bank director interlocks.</I> To take actions the Reserve Bank could take except for the fact that the Reserve Bank may not act because a director, senior officer, or principal shareholder of any bank holding company, bank, savings and loan holding company, or company involved in the transaction is a director of that Reserve Bank or branch of the Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Savings and loan holding companies.</I> (i) To approve the establishment of a mutual holding company or a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.3 and 239.11 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.3 and 239.11), including issuing a charter, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The appropriate Reserve Bank and relevant divisions of the Board recommend approval; and
</P>
<P>(B) No significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not expressed its view.
</P>
<P>(ii) To grant a request to deregister as a savings and loan holding company pursuant to section 10(b)(6) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(6)) and § 238.4(d) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.4(d)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International banking</I>—(1) <I>Acquisition of foreign company or U.S. company financing exports.</I> To grant, under sections 25 and 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 and 604, and 611 <I>et seq.</I>) and section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) and the Board's Regulations K and Y (12 CFR parts 211 and 225), specific consent to the acquisition, either directly or indirectly, by a member bank, an Edge corporation, an agreement corporation, or a bank holding company, of stock of a company chartered under the laws of a foreign country or a company chartered under the laws of a State of the United States that is organized and operated for the purpose of financing exports from the United States, and to approve any such acquisition that may exceed the limitations of section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611a, 615(c), and 619) based on the company's capital and surplus, if all of the conditions in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The appropriate Reserve Bank and all relevant divisions of the Board's staff recommend approval;
</P>
<P>(ii) No significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not expressed its view;
</P>
<P>(iii) The acquisition does not result, either directly or indirectly, in the bank, corporation, or bank holding company acquiring effective control of the company, except that this condition need not be met if:
</P>
<P>(A) The company is to perform nominee, fiduciary, or other services incidental to the activities of a foreign branch or affiliate of the bank holding company, or corporation; or
</P>
<P>(B) The stock is being acquired from the parent bank, parent bank holding company, subsidiary Edge corporation, or subsidiary agreement corporation, as the case may be, and the selling entity holds the stock with the consent of the Board pursuant to Regulation K or Y (12 CFR parts 211 or 225), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member banks</I>—(1) <I>Waiver of penalty for early withdrawals of time deposits.</I> To permit depository institutions to waive the penalty for early withdrawal of time deposits under section 19(j) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371b) and § 204.2 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2) if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The President declares an area of major disaster or emergency area pursuant to section 301 of the Disaster Relief Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5141);
</P>
<P>(ii) The waiver is limited to depositors suffering disaster or emergency related losses in the officially designated area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The appropriate Reserve Bank and all relevant divisions of the Board's staff recommend approval.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Location of institution.</I> To determine the Federal Reserve District in which an institution is located pursuant to § 204.3(g)(2) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.3(g)(2)) or § 209.2(c) of Regulation I (12 CFR 209.2(c)) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant Federal Reserve Banks and the institution agree on the specific Reserve Bank in which the institution should hold stock or with which the institution should maintain reserve balances; and
</P>
<P>(2) The agreed-upon location does not raise any significant policy issues.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.6   Functions delegated to the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>The General Counsel (or the General Counsel's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration of Board action.</I> Pursuant to § 262.3(k) of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.3(k)) to determine whether or not to grant a request for reconsideration or whether to deny a request for stay of the effective date of any action taken by the Board with respect to an action as provided in that part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public meetings.</I> To order, after consulting with the directors of other interested divisions of the Board and the appropriate Reserve Bank, that a public meeting or other proceeding be held in accordance with § 262.25 of the Board's Rules of Procedure (12 CFR 262.25), in connection with any application or notice filed with the Board, and to designate the presiding officer in the proceeding under terms and conditions the General Counsel deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Designation of Board counsel for hearings.</I> To designate Board staff attorneys as Board counsel in any proceeding ordered by the Board in accordance with § 263.6 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.6).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of Information</I>—(1) <I>Board records.</I> To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to foreign authorities.</I> To make the determinations required for disclosure of information to a foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority, and to obtain, to the extent necessary, the agreement of such authority to maintain the confidentiality of such information to the extent possible under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assistance to foreign authorities.</I> To approve requests for assistance from any foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority that is conducting an investigation regarding violations of any law or regulation relating to banking matters or currency transactions administered or enforced by such authority, and to make the determinations required for any investigation or collection of information and evidence pertinent to such request. In deciding whether to approve requests for assistance under this paragraph (b)(3), the General Counsel shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the requesting authority has agreed to provide reciprocal assistance with respect to banking matters within the jurisdiction of any appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether compliance with the request would prejudice the public interest of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the request is consistent with the requirement that the Board conduct any such investigation in compliance with the laws of the United States and the policies and procedures of the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; change in bank control; mergers</I>—(1) <I>Control determinations under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act.</I> To determine, or issue an order for a hearing to determine, whether a company engaged in financial, fiduciary, or insurance activities falls within the exemption in section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), permitting retention or acquisition of control thereof by a bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data processing.</I> In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to review and act on requests for permission by bank holding companies to administer the 49 percent revenue limit on nonfinancial data processing activities on a business-line or multiple-entity basis in appropriate circumstances under § 225.28(b)(14)(ii) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)(14)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notices under the Change in Bank Control Act.</I> To revoke acceptance of and return as incomplete a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) or to extend the time during which action must be taken on a notice where the General Counsel determines, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, that the notice is materially incomplete under that Act or Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225), or contains material information that is substantially inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management interlocks</I>—(1) <I>General exemptions.</I> After consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant exceptions from the prohibitions of Regulation L (12 CFR part 212) or subpart J of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238 subpart J) under the general exemption of section 212.6 of Regulation L (12 CFR 212.6) or section 238.96 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.96).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legacy management interlocks.</I> After consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve a request to extend a management interlock permissible under section 206 of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3205).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation:
</P>
<P>(1) To enter into a cease-and-desist order, removal and prohibition order, or civil money penalty assessment order with a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, with a State member bank, with a savings and loan holding company, or with any other person or entity subject to the Board's jurisdiction under section 8(b) or (e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b) or (e)), when the order has been consented to by the institution or individual subject to the order; or to issue a notice suspending or prohibiting an institution-affiliated party under section 8(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)) when the notice has been consented to by the individual subject to the notice;
</P>
<P>(2) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an order or notice issued pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) To grant consent to a person subject to an order of removal and/or prohibition or suspension notice or order issued by the Board or other Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to become an institution-affiliated party of, to otherwise participate in the conduct of the affairs of, or to take an action with respect to any voting rights in, any Board-supervised institution or entity.
</P>
<P>(4) To take, or authorize designated persons to take actions permitted under 12 U.S.C. 1818(n), 1820(c), and 12 U.S.C. 1844(f), including administering oaths and affirmations, taking depositions, and issuing, revoking, quashing, or modifying subpoenas duces tecum.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>International banking</I>—(1) <I>After-the-fact applications.</I> With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant a request by a foreign bank to establish a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office through certain acquisitions, mergers, consolidations, or similar transactions, in conjunction with which:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign bank would be required to file an after-the-fact application for the Board's approval under § 211.24(a)(6) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(6)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) The General Counsel may waive the requirement for an after-the-fact application if:
</P>
<P>(A) The surviving foreign bank commits to wind down the U.S. operations of the acquired foreign bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) The merger or consolidation raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(2) To modify the requirement that a foreign bank that has submitted an application or notice to establish a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office pursuant to § 211.24(a) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)) shall publish notice of the application or notice in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the applicant or notificant proposes to engage in business, as provided in § 211.24(b)(2) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(3) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to grant a request for an exemption under section 4(c)(9) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(9)), provided that the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues that the Board has not already considered.
</P>
<P>(4) To return applications and notices filed under the International Banking Act for informational deficits.
</P>
<P>(5) To determine that an entity qualifies as a “special-purpose foreign government-owned bank” for purposes of § 211.24(d)(3) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(d)(3)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Conflicts of interest waivers.</I> To issue individual conflicts of interest waivers under 18 U.S.C. 208(b)(1) to employees and officials other than Board members.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Deregistration requests.</I> With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to determine, pursuant to section 10(a)(1)(D)(ii) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(D)(ii)), that a company is not a savings and loan holding company by virtue of its control of a savings association that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)), where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Small entity compliance guides.</I> In consultation with the director of any other division responsible for drafting the associated rule, as appropriate, to approve and publish small entity compliance guides in accordance with section 212 of the Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act of 1996 (5 U.S.C. 601 note).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Internal debt conversion triggers.</I> In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve contractual language (“conversion trigger”) required to be included in the eligible internal debt securities (“eligible long-term debt”) issued pursuant to the Board's total loss-absorbing capacity rule (“TLAC Rule”) by the U.S. intermediate holding companies of foreign global systemically important banking organizations required to be formed under 12 CFR 252.153(a) (“Covered IHCs”), to the extent that such language does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns. The authority delegated to the General Counsel in consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation to approve conversion triggers is limited to requests that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The conversion trigger does not include any conditions for triggering the conversion other than the issuance of an internal debt conversion order by the Board;
</P>
<P>(2) The instruments governing the long-term debt and related documents mitigate any impediments to conversion of the long-term debt into equity capital;
</P>
<P>(3) The conversion trigger provides for the conversion of the long-term debt into common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(4) The conversion trigger requires the conversion of long-term debt in the amount specified by the Board's internal debt conversion order; and
</P>
<P>(5) Upon conversion of long-term debt pursuant to the conversion trigger, the converted long-term debt would no longer remain outstanding as a liability of the Covered IHC.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.</I> With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to approve or disapprove requests under section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1829) where no significant legal, policy or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.


</P>
<P>(l) <I>Section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970.</I> To grant exceptions to the anti-tying provisions of section 106 of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972) to allow a bank holding company's credit card subsidiary to offer a credit card secured by deposits at an affiliate and similar credit card programs.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.7   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Cease and desist orders.</I> To refuse, with the prior concurrence of the appropriate Reserve Bank and the General Counsel, an application to the Board to stay, modify, terminate, or set aside any effective cease and desist order previously issued by the Board under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)), or any written agreement between the Board or the Reserve Bank and a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, a savings and loan holding company or any nondepository subsidiary thereof, or a State member bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification of commitments or conditions.</I> To grant or deny requests for modifying, including extending the time for, performing a commitment or condition relied on by the Board or its delegatee in taking any action under the Bank Holding Company Act, the Home Owners' Loan Act, section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the Change in Bank Control Act, the Federal Reserve Act, the International Banking Act, or the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. In acting on such requests, the Director may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments or conditions, and shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate. The Director may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the Board's original action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Processing extensions.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to extend the processing periods for the following applications and notices:
</P>
<P>(i) The 60-day processing period for an acquisition of a bank or bank holding company filed under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842), pursuant to § 225.15(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.15(d)(2));
</P>
<P>(ii) The 60-day processing period for a nonbanking proposal filed under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843), pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 225.24(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(B) Section 4(j)(1)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(j)(1)(C)) and § 225.24(d)(3) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(3));
</P>
<P>(iii) The 60-day processing period for an acquisition of a savings association or savings and loan holding company filed under section 10(e) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(e)), pursuant to § 238.14(g)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.14(g)(2));
</P>
<P>(iv) The 60-day processing period for a nonbanking proposal filed under section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)), pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(A) Section 238.53(f)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(B) Section 238.53(f)(3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(3)); and
</P>
<P>(v) For an additional 180 days, the 180-day period within which final Board action is required on an application pursuant to section 7(d) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(d)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of insufficient capital.</I> To issue, with the concurrence of the General Counsel, a notice that a State member bank, bank holding company, or savings and loan holding company has insufficient capital and which directs the bank or company to file with its regional Reserve Bank a capital improvement plan under subpart E of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR part 263, subpart E).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Obtaining possession or control of securities; extending time period.</I> To approve, under section 403.5(g) of the Treasury Department regulations (17 CFR 403.5) implementing the Government Securities Act of 1986, as amended (Pub. L. 95-571), the application of a member bank, a State branch or agency of a foreign bank, a foreign bank, or a commercial lending company owned or controlled by a foreign bank, to extend for one or more limited periods commensurate with the circumstances the 30-day time period specified in 17 CFR 403.5(c)(1)(iii), provided that the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation is satisfied that the applicant is acting in good faith and that exceptional circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of information</I>—(1) <I>Confidential supervisory information.</I> To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in § 261.22 of the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.22).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Freedom of Information Act; availability of information.</I> To make available, under the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR part 261), reports and other information of the Board acquired pursuant to the Board's Regulations G, T, U, and X (12 CFR parts 207, 220, 221, 224) of the nature and in circumstances described in § 261.15(a)(4) and (8) of these rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; financial holding companies; change in bank control; mergers</I>—(1) <I>Bank holding company and savings and loan holding company registration forms and annual reports.</I> To promulgate registration forms and annual reports and other forms for use in connection with the Bank Holding Company Act and the Home Owners' Loan Act, after receiving clearance from the Office of Management and Budget (where necessary), under section 5 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844) or section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), and in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Emergency action.</I> To take actions the Reserve Bank could take under this part at § 265.20(c)(2)(ii) if immediate or expeditious action is required to avert failure of a bank or savings association or because of an emergency pursuant to sections 3(a) and 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a), 1843(c)(8)), section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)), or the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver of notice.</I> To waive, dispense with, modify or excuse the failure to comply with the requirement for publication and solicitation of public comment regarding a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), with the concurrence of the General Counsel, provided a written finding is made that such disclosure would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or a bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notices for addition or change of directors or officers.</I> Under section 914(a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and subpart H of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart H) or subpart H of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart H), provided that no senior officer or director or proposed senior officer or director of the notificant is also a director of the Reserve Bank or a branch of the Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices filed pursuant to § 225.72 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.72) or § 238.73 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.73); and
</P>
<P>(ii) To waive the prior notice requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>ERISA violations.</I> To provide the Department of Labor written notification of possible significant violations of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>) by bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies, in accordance with section 3004(b) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)) and the Interagency Agreement adopted to implement its provisions.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Appraisal not required.</I> To determine pursuant to 12 CFR 225.63(a)(13) that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of an institution.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial holding company corrective action agreements.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to authorize a financial holding company, or a foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, that is subject to section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)):
</P>
<P>(i) To acquire shares of a company pursuant to authority in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) in order to continue to engage in the following categories of existing activities which require recurring transactions in the ordinary course:
</P>
<P>(A) Merchant banking,
</P>
<P>(B) Underwriting dealing in, or making a market in securities;
</P>
<P>(C) Sponsoring, organizing, and managing customer-driven investment funds; and
</P>
<P>(D) Hedging risks incurred in ongoing permissible activities;
</P>
<P>(ii) To extend the time within which a financial holding company must execute a corrective agreement under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m));
</P>
<P>(iii) To extend the time limits in, or otherwise modify, corrective agreements under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m));
</P>
<P>(iv) To determine not to make public any corrective agreement under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)); and
</P>
<P>(v) To acquire shares or assets pursuant to section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)) without prior Board approval up to the following thresholds:
</P>
<P>(A) $25 million in consideration for a single transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) $125 million in consideration over the past 12 months; and
</P>
<P>(C) $400 million in consideration over the entire period the financial holding company is subject to the agreement required by section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Complementary physical commodity trading activities.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve requests by financial holding companies to engage in complementary physical commodity trading activities, pursuant to section 4(k)(1)(B) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(1)(B)), as an activity that is complementary to permissible commodity derivatives activities, provided that the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board approving previous requests and the proposal does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Extension of merchant banking investment holding periods.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve requests by financial holding companies to hold merchant banking investments beyond the standard time periods established in § 225.172(b)(4) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.172(b)(4)), where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific request.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Single-counterparty credit limits rule exemptions.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to act on exemption requests under section 165(e) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(e)) and subparts H and Q of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subparts H and Q) where no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Stress tests.</I> (i) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, with the concurrence of the Chair of the Board's Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
</P>
<P>(A) To develop and issue scenarios, including, but not limited to, the baseline scenario and the severely adverse scenario, that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised; and
</P>
<P>(B) To develop and issue additional scenarios or additional components for use in the severely adverse scenario under §§ 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (b)(3)), and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (b)(3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3)), that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 225.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised;
</P>
<P>(ii) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
</P>
<P>(A) After consultation with the Board, to convey to a company the summary of the results of the Board's analyses of the company under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
</P>
<P>(B) After consultation with the Board and the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, to determine the content and timing of the public disclosure of the results of the Board's analyses of a company under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
</P>
<P>(C) To determine any appropriate updates to a company's resolution plan based on the results of the Board's analyses of the company under § 252.47 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.47); and
</P>
<P>(D) To require a company to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario in its stress test based on the company's financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, or activities, or risks to the U.S. economy pursuant to § 238.143(b)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(2)) and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2));
</P>
<P>(iii) After consultation with the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
</P>
<P>(A) To evaluate whether a company has the capital necessary to absorb losses and continue its operation under baseline and severely adverse scenarios, and any additional scenarios, under § 238.134 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.134) or § 252.46 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.46);
</P>
<P>(B) To conduct annual analyses of a company under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44); and
</P>
<P>(C) To require a company with significant trading activity, as specified in the Capital Assessments and Stress Testing report (FR Y-14), or a subsidiary of such company, to include a trading and counterparty component in its severely adverse scenario in its stress test pursuant to § 238.143(b)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(2)) and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and 252.54(b)(2));
</P>
<P>(iv) In consultation with the General Counsel, to respond to a company's request for reconsideration that the company is required to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario, including a trading or counterparty component, or to use one or more additional scenarios under § 238.143(b)(4) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(4)) and §§ 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4)); and
</P>
<P>(v) The Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation is also authorized to:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify a company of the determination that the company is required to include one or more additional components in its severely adverse scenario, including a trading or counterparty component, or to use one or more additional scenarios under § 238.143(b)(4) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)(4)) and §§ 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(4) and 252.54(b)(4));
</P>
<P>(B) Coordinate with the appropriate primary financial regulatory agencies in conducting the analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44);
</P>
<P>(C) Provide the as-of date of any scenarios, additional scenarios, additional components, and the relevant data under § 238.143(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(b)), or § 252.14(b) or § 252.54(b) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b) or 252.54(b)), as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(D) Extend (and in the case of nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board or savings and loan holding companies, accelerate) the compliance date for companies under § 238.131 or § 238.142 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.131 or 238.142), or § 252.13, § 252.43, or § 252.53 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.13, 252.43, or 252.53), as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(E) Extend any or all of the following time periods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The time period by which a company must conduct its stress test or the as-of date of the data under § 238.143(a) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143(a)), or § 252.14(a) or § 252.54(a) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(a) or 252.54(a)), as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The time period by which a company must file a report to the Board under § 238.145(a) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.145(a)), or § 252.16(a) or § 252.57(a) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.16(a) or 252.57(a)), as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The time period by which a company must disclose a summary of results of its stress tests under § 238.146 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.146), or § 252.17 or § 252.58 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.17 or 252.58), as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(F) Require a company to submit additional information on a consolidated basis pursuant to § 238.133 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.133) or § 252.45 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.45) that the Director determines necessary to ensure that the Board has sufficient information to conduct its analysis under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) or as necessary to project a company's pro forma financial condition;
</P>
<P>(G) Require a company to submit additional information under § 238.145 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.145), or § 252.16 or § 252.57 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.16 or 252.57), as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(H) Determine that disclosures made by a bank holding company do not adequately capture the potential impact of scenarios on the capital of a State member bank pursuant to § 252.17 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.17) and require that the State member bank make the same disclosure as required for State member banks that are not subsidiaries of bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Volcker Rule conformance period extensions.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve (but not deny) a request by a new banking entity for an extension of time to conform its activities and investments to the requirements of section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act and its implementing regulations, pursuant to § 225.181(a)(3) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.181(a)(3)), provided that the approval criteria thereunder are met and the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International banking</I>—(1) <I>Foreign bank reports.</I> To require submission of a report of condition respecting any foreign bank in which a member bank holds stock acquired under § 211.8(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.8(b)), pursuant to section 25 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 602).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Edge corporation reports.</I> To require submission and publication of reports by an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 625).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>International banking matters.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve applications, notices, exemption requests, waivers and suspensions, and other related matters under Regulation K (12 CFR part 211), where such matters do not raise any significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Allocated transfer risk reserves.</I> To determine the need for establishing and the amount of any allocated transfer risk reserve against specific international assets, and notify the banking institutions of the determination and the amount of the reserve and whether the reserve may be reduced under subpart D of Regulation K (12 CFR part 211, subpart D).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Conduct and coordination of examinations.</I> To authorize the conduct of examinations of the U.S. offices and affiliates of foreign banks as provided in sections 7(c) and 10(c) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105(c) and 3107(c)), and, where appropriate, to coordinate those examinations with examinations of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the State entity that is authorized to supervise or regulate a State branch, State agency, commercial lending company, or representative office.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Election by a foreign bank to be treated as financial holding company.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to determine that an election by a foreign bank to become or to be treated as a financial holding company is effective, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign bank meets the criteria for becoming or being treated as a financial holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The election raised no significant policy or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Enhanced prudential standards rule for foreign banking organizations.</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to grant or deny a request to permit a foreign banking organization to use an alternative organizational structure or not transfer its ownership interest in a U.S. subsidiary to its intermediate holding company under subpart O of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subpart O), subject, as appropriate, to any commitments or conditions, provided that the request raises no significant policy or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(ii) In consultation with the General Counsel, to:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Commitments.</I> Grant or deny requests for modifying, including extending the time for, performing a commitment or condition relied on by the Board or its delegatee in taking any action under subparts M through O of Regulation YY (12 CFR part 252, subparts M-O). In acting on such requests, the Director may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments or conditions, and shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate. The Director may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the Board's original action;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Stress testing.</I> (<I>1</I>) Determine that an asset should not qualify as an eligible asset under §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Determine that a foreign banking organization or foreign savings and loan holding company must meet the additional standards, respectively, under § 238.162(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.162(b)) and §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Approve an enterprise-wide stress test and determine that it meets the stress test requirements under § 238.162(b) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.162(b)) and §§ 252.146 and 252.158 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.146 and 252.158);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Require the U.S. branches and agencies of a foreign banking organization and, if the foreign banking organization has not established a U.S. intermediate holding company, any subsidiary of the foreign banking organization, to maintain a liquidity buffer or be subject to intragroup funding restrictions under § 252.158(d)(3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.158(d)(3));
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Capital.</I> Determine that a foreign banking organization would meet or exceed capital adequacy standards on a consolidated basis that are consistent with the Basel Capital Framework were the foreign banking organization subject to such standards under §§ 252.143(a)(2) and 252.154(a)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.143(a)(2) and 252.154(a)(2));
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Risk management.</I> Approve an alternative reporting structure for a U.S. chief risk officer based on circumstances specific to the foreign banking organization under §§ 252.144(c)(3)(iii) and 252.155(b)(3)(iii) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.144(c)(3)(iii) and 252.155(b)(3)(iii));
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Liquidity.</I> (<I>1</I>) Require a foreign banking organization to calculate the collateral positions for its combined U.S. operations more frequently than required under § 252.156(g)(1)(i) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.156(g)(1)(i));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Require a foreign banking organization to perform stress testing more frequently than is required under § 252.157(a)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.157(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Additional information.</I> Require a foreign banking organization to provide additional information under §§ 252.147(a)(3), 252.153(a)(3) and 252.158(c)(2) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.147(a)(3), 252.153(a)(3) and 252.158(c)(2)), as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member banks</I>—(1) <I>Membership certification to FDIC.</I> To certify, under section 4(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1814(b)), to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation that the factors specified in section 6 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) were considered with respect to the admission of a State-chartered bank to Federal Reserve membership.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dollar exchange.</I> To permit any member bank to accept drafts or bill of exchange drawn upon it for the purpose of furnishing dollar exchange under section 13(12) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 373).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>ERISA violations.</I> To provide to the Department of Labor written notification of possible significant violations of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>) by member banks, in accordance with section 3004(b) of ERISA (29 U.S.C. 1204(b)) and the Interagency Agreement adopted to implement its provisions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examiners.</I> To select or approve the appointment of Federal Reserve examiners, assistant examiners, and special examiners for the purpose of making examinations for or by the direction of the Board under 12 U.S.C. 325, 338, 625, 1844(c), and 3105(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Capital stock reduction; branch applications; declaration of dividends; investment in bank premises.</I> To exercise the functions described in §§ 265.20(e)(5) and (11) (reductions in capital and early retirement of subordinated debt) when the conditions specified in those sections preclude a Reserve Bank from acting on a member bank's request for action or when the Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action, and to exercise the functions in § 265.20(e)(3), (4), and (7) (approving branch applications, declaration of dividends, and investment in bank premises) in cases in which the Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Security devices.</I> To exercise the functions described in § 265.20(e)(8) in those cases in which the appropriate Reserve Bank concludes that it should not take action for good cause.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Public welfare investments.</I> (i) To permit a State member bank to make a public welfare investment in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a) in any case in which the appropriate Reserve Bank does not have delegated authority to act, unless the proposal does not satisfy § 208.22(b)(1) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.22(b)(1)). In acting on such requests, the Director shall consult with the directors of other interested divisions where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine, in connection with acting on a proposal pursuant to delegated authority as set forth in paragraph (e)(7)(i) of this section, that the aggregate amount of a State member bank's public welfare investments will not pose a significant risk to the deposit insurance fund in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Prior approval for capital distributions.</I> With the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision, to approve (but not deny) a request to make a distribution pursuant to § 217.303(g) of the Board's Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.303(g)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Bank-affiliate transactions.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve, or to make the requisite findings for approval of, requests for an exemption from the requirements of section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c) and the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR part 223) for the purchase of assets by a State bank or other insured depository institution from an affiliate, provided that the purchase of assets is:
</P>
<P>(i) Part of a one-time corporate reorganization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not involve the purchase of low-quality assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is accompanied by a commitment to repurchase any assets that have become low quality within two years of the transfer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been approved by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Securities</I>—(1) <I>Registration statements by member banks.</I> Under section 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g)):
</P>
<P>(i) To accelerate the effective date of a registration statement filed by a member bank with respect to its securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) To accelerate termination of the registration of a security that is no longer held of record by 300 persons; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To extend the time for filing a registration statement by a member bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemption from registration.</I> To issue notices with respect to application by a State member bank for exemption from registration under section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(h)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accelerating registration of security on national securities exchange.</I> To accelerate the effective date of an application by a State member bank for registration of a security on a national securities exchange under section 12(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(d)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unlisted trading in security of a State member bank.</I> To issue notices with respect to an application by a national securities exchange for unlisted trading privileges in a security of a State member bank under section 12(f) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(f)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transfer agent registration; acceleration; withdrawal or cancellation.</I> (i) To accelerate, under section 17A(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(c)(2)), the effective date of a registration statement for transfer agent activities filed by a member bank or a subsidiary thereof, a bank holding company or a subsidiary thereof that is a bank as defined in section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)) other than a bank specified in clause (i) or (iii) of section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)(B)).
</P>
<P>(ii) To withdraw or cancel, under section 17A(c)(3)(C) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(c)(4)(B)), the transfer agent registration of a member bank or a subsidiary thereof, a bank holding company, or a subsidiary thereof that is a bank as defined in section 3(a)(6) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(6)) other than a bank specified in clause (i) or (iii) of section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)(B)), that has filed a written notice of withdrawal with the Board or upon a finding that such transfer agent is no longer in existence or has ceased to do business as a transfer agent.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Proxy solicitation; financial statements.</I> (i) To permit the mailing of proxy and other soliciting materials by a State member bank before the expiration of the time prescribed therein under § 208.36 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.36).
</P>
<P>(ii) To permit the omission of financial statements from reports by a State member bank, or to require other financial statements in addition to, or in substitution for, the statements required therein under § 208.36 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.36).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Municipal securities dealers.</I> Under section 23 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78w).
</P>
<P>(i) To grant or deny requests for waiver of examination and waiting period requirements for municipal securities principals and representatives under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-3;
</P>
<P>(ii) To grant or deny requests for a determination that a natural person or municipal securities dealer subject to a statutory disqualification is qualified to act as a municipal securities representative or dealer under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-4;
</P>
<P>(iii) To approve or disapprove clearing arrangements under Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board Rule G-8, in connection with the administration of these rules for municipal securities dealers for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(34)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Making reports available to SEC.</I> To make available, upon request, to the Securities and Exchange Commission reports of examination of transfer agents, clearing agencies, and municipal securities dealers for which the Board is the appropriate regulatory agency for use by the Commission in exercising its supervisory responsibilities under the Act under section 17(c)(3) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q(c)(3)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Issuing examination manuals, forms, and other materials.</I> To issue examination or inspection manuals, registration, report, agreement, and examination forms, guidelines, instructions, and other similar materials for use in administering sections 7, 8, 15B, and 17A(c) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78g, 78h, 78o-4, and 78q-1(c)).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Lists of OTC and foreign margin stocks.</I> To approve issuance of the lists of OTC margin stocks and foreign margin stocks and add, omit, or remove any stock in circumstances indicating that such change is necessary or appropriate in the public interest under § 207.6(d) of Regulation G (12 CFR 207.6(d)), § 220.17(f) of Regulation T (12 CFR 220.17(f)), or § 221.7(d) of Regulation U (12 CFR 221.7(d)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Golden parachute payments.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve an application to make a golden parachute payment or enter into an agreement to make a golden parachute payment under 12 CFR part 359.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prompt corrective action.</I> With the approval of the General Counsel, to take the following actions pursuant to prompt corrective action under the rules implementing section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) in connection with any institution or person, except a critically undercapitalized institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Capital categories, capital restoration plans, and discretionary supervisory actions pursuant to §§ 208.42 through 208.44 of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.42 through 208.44);
</P>
<P>(2) Notices and directives pursuant to § 263.202 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.202);
</P>
<P>(3) Reclassification of a capital category based on criteria other than capital pursuant to § 263.203 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.203); and
</P>
<P>(4) Dismissal of directors or senior officers pursuant to § 263.204 of the Board's Rules of Practice for Hearings (12 CFR 263.204).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessments for bank holding companies, savings and loan holding companies, and nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board.</I> In consultation with the General Counsel, to take actions pursuant to Regulation TT (12 CFR part 246) to determine the elements of the assessment formula for each assessment period including the assessment rate, the amount of the assessment basis, and each company's total assessable assets; to determine the amount of assessment for each assessed company, including allowing for pro-rata adjustments, payment of a lesser amount than would otherwise be required pursuant to the reservation of authority, and responding to an appeal by revising the assessment amount; to notify the assessed companies of the assessment; and to publish information regarding calculation of the assessments for each assessment period (including a description of how the assessment basis was determined) on the Board's public website.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Capital plans.</I> (1) To take the following actions (or to provide concurrence to the appropriate Reserve Bank, where appropriate):
</P>
<P>(i) To allow a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to submit its capital plan after the 5th of January of a given year;
</P>
<P>(ii) To object, in whole or in part, to the capital plan or provide the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company with a notice of non-objection to the capital plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) To direct a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to revise and resubmit its capital plan if:
</P>
<P>(A) The capital plan is incomplete;
</P>
<P>(B) There has been or will be a material change in the bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's risk profile, financial condition, or corporate structure;
</P>
<P>(C) The stressed scenarios developed by the bank holding company or savings and loan holding company are not sufficiently stressed; or
</P>
<P>(D) The capital plan or bank holding company or savings and loan holding company raise any issues that would cause the Board or the Reserve Bank to object to the capital plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) To waive the requirement that a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company resubmit its entire capital plan with respect to those portions of the plan that are unchanged;
</P>
<P>(v) To extend or shorten the 30-day period for resubmission of a capital plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) To determine that a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company is required to obtain prior approval for a capital distribution that would result in a material adverse change to the organization's capital or liquidity structure or because earnings were materially underperforming projections;
</P>
<P>(vii) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company in writing that it may not take advantage of the prior approval exception for well-capitalized bank holding companies or savings and loan holding companies; or
</P>
<P>(viii) To approve or disapprove, within 30 days of receipt of a complete request, a proposed capital distribution; and
</P>
<P>(ix) To affirm or withdraw objection to a capital plan based on a bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's written request to reconsider an objection to a capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the Board and the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, to determine the content and timing of the public disclosure of the Board's decision to object or not object to a bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's capital plan and the summary of the Board's analyses of that company, under § 225.8 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8).
</P>
<P>(3) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Financial Stability, with the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision:
</P>
<P>(i) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(1)) and 238.170(h)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(ii) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of its final planned capital distributions pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(4)(i) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(4)(i)) and 238.170(h)(4)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(4)(i)).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Capital adequacy</I>—(1) <I>Delegations regarding the general provisions of subpart A of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart A).</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(A) To determine under § 217.1(d)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(2)(ii)) whether a capital element may be included in a company's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 217.20(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)); and
</P>
<P>(B) To determine under the definition of “financial institution” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a company is a financial institution based on its activities.
</P>
<P>(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(A) To require under § 217.1(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(1)) a company to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under Regulation Q because the company's capital requirements under Regulation Q are not commensurate with the company's credit, market, operational or other risks;
</P>
<P>(B) To determine under § 217.1(d)(2)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(2)(i)) whether an element of capital must be excluded in whole or in part from capital because the capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise presents safety and soundness concerns;
</P>
<P>(C) To require under § 217.1(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(3)) that a company assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to an exposure or deduct the amount of the exposure from its regulatory capital because the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under Regulation Q for the exposure is not commensurate with the risks associated with the exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) To determine under § 217.1(d)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(4)) whether the leverage exposure amount, or the amount reflected in a company's reported average total consolidated assets, for an on- or off-balance sheet exposure (under § 217.10 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.10)) is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the company, and, based on this determination, require the company to adjust this amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the company's leverage ratio calculations;
</P>
<P>(E) To determine under § 217.1(d)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(5)) whether the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure, or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on a company's balance sheet, is commensurate with the risk of the exposure and the relationship of the company to the entity, and, based on this determination, require the company to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the company's balance sheet;</P>
<P>(F) With respect to any deduction or limitation required under Regulation Q, to require under § 217.1(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(d)(6)) a different deduction or limitation provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the company's risk and consistent with safety and soundness;
</P>
<P>(G) To approve a request by a Board-regulated institution to make or change an election, or a choice of treatment, under § 217.1(g)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.1(g)(2)(ii)); and
</P>
<P>(H) To review and adjust estimated total consolidated assets under the definition of “insurance bank holding company” or “insurance savings and loan holding company” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) or under § 217.601(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) To determine under paragraph (5) of the definition of “distribution” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is in substance a distribution of capital;
</P>
<P>(B) To act on a request from a company under the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) to find that a credit derivative (other than a credit default swap, nth-to-default swap, or total return swap) should be considered an eligible credit derivative;
</P>
<P>(C) To determine under the definition of “main index” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index;
</P>
<P>(D) To determine under the definition of “multilateral development bank” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a multilateral lending institution or regional development bank poses a comparable credit risk to other multilateral development banks;
</P>
<P>(E) To determine under the definition of “qualifying central counterparty” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a central counterparty meets the requirements for qualification as a qualifying central counterparty;
</P>
<P>(F) To determine under paragraph (8) of the definition of “traditional securitization” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(G) To determine under paragraph (9) of the definition of “traditional securitization” in § 217.2 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.2) whether a transaction is a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delegation regarding the capital ratio requirements and buffers in subpart B of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart B).</I> To act on a request under § 217.11(a)(4)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.11(a)(4)(iv)) to permit a company to make a capital distribution or discretionary bonus payment that would otherwise not be permissible.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Delegations regarding the definition of capital in subpart C of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart C).</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request from a company under § 217.20(e)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(1)) to include a capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) To determine under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(C) and (d)(1)(v)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(C) and (d)(1)(v)(C)) whether a company would continue to hold capital commensurate to its risk following the exercise of a call option;
</P>
<P>(B) To consult with the other banking agencies under § 217.20(e)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(2)) when considering whether a company may include a regulatory capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital;
</P>
<P>(C) To make publicly available under § 217.20(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(e)(3)) a decision that a regulatory capital element may be included in a company's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital;
</P>
<P>(D) To determine under § 217.22(a)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(a)(5)(i)) whether the deduction of a defined benefit pension fund net asset is not required to the extent that the company has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in the fund;
</P>
<P>(E) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(b)(2)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(b)(2)(iv)) to change to its AOCI opt-out election following a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction;
</P>
<P>(F) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(c)(4), (5), or (6) or (d)(2)(i)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(c)(4), (5), or (6) or (d)(2)(i)(C)) not to deduct investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To the extent the investment is related to a failed underwriting, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the financial institution is in distress and the investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(G) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(d)(1)(iv) or (d)(2)(iii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(d)(1)(iv) or (d)(2)(iii)) to change its election whether to exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(H) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(e)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(e)(5)) to change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction;
</P>
<P>(I) To act on a request from a company under § 217.22(h)(2)(iii)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(h)(2)(iii)(A)) to use a conservative estimate of the amount of its investment in its own capital instruments or the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution held through a position in an index; and
</P>
<P>(J) To determine under § 217.22(h)(3)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.22(h)(3)(iii)(C)) whether a company's internal control process is adequate.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) To act on a company's request under § 217.20(b)(1)(iii), (c)(1)(vi), or (d)(1)(x) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(b)(1)(iii), (c)(1)(vi), (d)(1)(x)) to redeem a security; and
</P>
<P>(B) To act on a company's request under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) or (d)(1)(v)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A), (d)(1)(v)(A)) to exercise a call option.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delegations regarding the standardized approach in subpart D of Regulation Q</I> (12 CFR part 217, subpart D). (i) After consultation with the General Counsel, to determine under § 217.35(d)(3)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(3)(i)(E)) that a risk weight higher than 20 percent for variable RW in formula K<E T="52">CCP</E> is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) To determine under § 217.35(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(1)) whether there has been a material change in the financial condition of a CCP;
</P>
<P>(B) To act on a request under § 217.35(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.35(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight; and
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a CCP, to waive under § 217.38(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.38(c)) risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) To act on a request from a company under § 217.37(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)) to use its own estimates of haircuts, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own estimates of haircuts; and
</P>
<P>(B) To determine under § 217.41(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.41(c)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Delegations regarding the advanced approaches risk-based capital rules in subpart E of Regulation Q</I> (12 CFR part 217, subpart E). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request by a company under § 217.121(c) and (d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(c) and (d)) to use the advanced approaches to calculate its risk-based capital requirements and notify the company of the date that it must begin to do so if the action would not raise significant policy issues.
</P>
<P>(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(A) To require a company (that no longer meets the qualification requirements in subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E)) under § 217.123(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)(3)) to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with modifications determined by the Director if the Director determines that the advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the company's credit, market, operational, or other risk; and
</P>
<P>(B) To determine under § 217.133(d)(3)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(3)(i)) that a risk weight higher than 20 percent for variable RW in formula K<E T="52">ccp</E> is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) To determine under § 217.100(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.100(c)(1)) that not applying a provision of Regulation Q would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required;
</P>
<P>(B) To determine that a non-U.S. subsidiary of a U.S. company may use the retail definition of default defined in a non-U.S. jurisdiction under the definition of “default” in § 217.101 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.101);
</P>
<P>(C) To determine for purposes of the definition of eligible double default guarantor in § 217.101 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.101) whether the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions or securities broker-dealers;
</P>
<P>(D) To extend any of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company's parallel run start date under § 217.121 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For up to an additional 12 months, the time in which a company may use subpart D of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart D) to determine the risk-weighted asset amounts for a merged or acquired company's exposures under § 217.124(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.124(a)); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For up to an additional 12 months, the time in which a company may use an acquired company's advanced systems to determine total risk-weighted assets for the merged or acquired company's exposures under § 217.124(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.124(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(E) To assess compliance with any supervisory guidance on qualification requirements for purposes of § 217.121(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(F) To waive the requirement under § 217.121(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.121(b)(2)) that a company submit a parallel run implementation plan to the Board at least 60 days before it proposes to begin its parallel run;
</P>
<P>(G) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)) to use a historical observation period of less than five years for internal operational loss event data to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line;
</P>
<P>(H) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>)) to refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts;
</P>
<P>(I) To act on a request by a company under § 217.122(g)(3)(i)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(i)(D)) to use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure;
</P>
<P>(J) To act on a request by a State member bank under § 217.122(g)(3)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(ii)) to generate an estimate of the company's operational risk exposure using an alternative approach to that specified in § 217.122(g)(3)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(g)(3)(i));
</P>
<P>(K) To determine under § 217.123(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)) that a company that has conducted a satisfactory parallel run fails to comply with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122) and notify the company in writing of the determination;
</P>
<P>(L) To determine under § 217.123(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.123(b)) whether a company's plan to return to compliance with the qualification requirements in § 217.122 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122) is satisfactory;
</P>
<P>(M) To establish requirements under § 217.131(e)(1)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(1)(i)) for the estimation of a margin loan's probability of default (“PD”) and loss given default (“LGD”);
</P>
<P>(N) In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a central counterparty, to waive under § 217.136(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.136(c)) risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions; and
</P>
<P>(O) To act on a request by a company under § 217.161(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.161(b)(2)) to use operational risk mitigants other than insurance.
</P>
<P>(iv)(A) To act on a request for approval of any model or optional approach available under subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E), including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any counterparty credit risk model or methodology (own estimates of haircuts, simple VaR methodology, internal models methodology, or advanced credit valuation adjustment (“CVA”) approach) under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.132 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.132), including:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>5</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>5</I>)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>6</I>)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv)) to use the internal models methodology, cease using the internal models methodology for a transaction type, or make a material change to its internal model;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10)) to use a more conservative estimate of exposure at default (“EAD”);
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Determining that a company must set a higher “alpha” under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C)) based on the company's specific characteristics of and counterparty credit risk or model performance;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)) to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(3)(viii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)(viii)) to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(i)) to include the effect of a collateral agreement within an internal model used to calculate EAD;
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C)) to set a longer holding period (for margin period of risk for a netting set that is subject to a collateral agreement) if the Director determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(6)) to calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on expected positive exposure (“EPE”) (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2;
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)) to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach;
</P>
<P>(<I>xii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D)) to use a conservative estimate when determining LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>; and
</P>
<P>(<I>xiii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the CVA<E T="52">Stressed</E> measure;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any model or approach relating to cleared transactions under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.133 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.133), including:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Requiring under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) a company that is a clearing member to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP more frequently than quarterly if in the opinion of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Acting on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any model or approach relating to the double default treatment under §§ 217.122(e) and 217.135 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(e) and 217.135), including acting on a request by a company under § 217.135(a)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.135(a)(6)) to implement a process to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of a hedged exposure and a protection provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A company's own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility under § 217.145(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.145(b)(4)); and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The internal models approach for equity exposures under §§ 217.122(f) and 217.153(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(f) and 217.153(b));
</P>
<P>(B) To determine under § 217.131(e)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(4)) whether a portfolio of exposures is or is not material; and
</P>
<P>(C) To assess for purposes of § 217.141(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.141(c)(1)) whether a company has a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Delegations regarding the market risk rule in subpart F of Regulation Q</I> (12 CFR part 217, subpart F). (i) With the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation, and after consultation with the General Counsel, to act on a request by a company to be excluded from the market risk rule under § 217.201(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(b)(3)) if the action would not raise significant policy issues.
</P>
<P>(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel, to require a company:
</P>
<P>(A) Under § 217.201(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(1)) to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F) upon a determination that the company's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under Regulation Q is not commensurate with the market risk of the company's covered positions;
</P>
<P>(B) Under § 217.201(c)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(2)) to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to one or more covered positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under § 217.201(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.201(c)(3)) to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), or under subparts D or E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subparts D or E), as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions.
</P>
<P>(iii) To act regarding any model approval, disapproval, rescission, or supervision under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), including the authority to:
</P>
<P>(A) Exclude from trading assets or liabilities structural foreign currency positions of a company or any hedge of a covered position that is outside the scope of the company's hedging strategy under § 217.202 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.202);
</P>
<P>(B) Act on a request from a company under § 217.203(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(1)) to approve its internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(C) Rescind approval under § 217.203(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(3)) of a company's internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(D) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B)) to use alternative techniques to measure the risk of de minimis exposures;
</P>
<P>(E) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(b)(2)) to use a different adjustment of its VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(F) Review and determine the appropriateness of a company's omission of risk factors under § 217.205(a)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(4)) and the use of proxies under § 217.205(a)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(5));
</P>
<P>(G) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(1)) the appropriateness of any conversions of VaR to other holding periods by a company;
</P>
<P>(H) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(2)(ii)) the appropriateness of a company's alternative weighting schemes;
</P>
<P>(I) Approve or disapprove under § 217.205(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(c)) any requirements relating to a company's division of subportfolios;
</P>
<P>(J) Approve or disapprove under § 217.206(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(3)) any changes to a company's policies and procedures that describe how the company determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate its stressed VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(K) Require a company under § 217.206(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(4)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(L) Act on a request by a company under § 217.208(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.208(a)) to include certain portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model;
</P>
<P>(M) Act on a request by a company under § 217.209(a)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(1)) to use the comprehensive risk approach for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions and the related approval under § 217.209(a)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(2)(ii)) regarding a company's comprehensive risk capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(N) Determine under § 217.210(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(e)(3)) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index; and
</P>
<P>(O) Determine under § 217.210(f)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(f)(1)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Delegations of Authority under Basel I-based Capital Guidelines</I> (Appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225). (i) To approve under section II.A.1.c.ii.(2) of appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225, a bank or bank holding company's redemption of perpetual preferred stock; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To approve under section II.A.2. of appendix A to Regulation Y, 12 CFR part 225, a bank or bank holding company's redemption of subordinated debt or mandatorily convertible securities prior to the stated maturity.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Delegations regarding the Building Block Approach in subpart J of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart J).</I>
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) After consultation with the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(A) To require a supervised insurance organization to exclude all or a portion of a particular company capital element from building block available capital, to approve the inclusion on a permanent or temporary basis of a capital resource in building block available capital, to adjust the building block capital requirement and building block available capital of a supervised insurance organization, or to require a supervised insurance organization to take certain actions to better reflect the risk profile of an inventory company or the supervised insurance organization, under § 217.601(d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(d));
</P>
<P>(B) To require a supervised insurance organization to apply an alternative treatment to a treatment otherwise required by subpart J of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217 subpart J) under § 217.601(d)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.601(d)(4));
</P>
<P>(C) To approve a request to exercise a call option on an instrument under § 217.608(a)(1)(v)(A) or § 217.608(a)(2)(iv)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(a)(1)(v)(A) or 217.608(a)(2)(iv)(A));
</P>
<P>(D) To approve a request to redeem or repurchase an instrument under 217.608 (a)(1)(vi) or § 217.608(a)(2)(v) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(a)(1)(vi) or 217.608(a)(2)(v)); and
</P>
<P>(E) To approve a request to include in building block available capital an instrument issued by a company in a supervised insurance organization under § 217.608(g) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.608(g)).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Concentration Limit Actions</I> (Regulation XX (12 CFR part 251)). (1) To approve requests from financial companies seeking to use an accounting standard or method of estimation other than GAAP to calculate and report liabilities pursuant to section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852) and Regulation XX (12 CFR part 251);
</P>
<P>(2) To calculate and publish total financial sector liabilities for the preceding calendar year and the average of financial sector liabilities for the preceding two calendar years, for use in calculating whether a firm exceeds 10 percent of the liabilities of all financial firms in the United States pursuant to section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852); and
</P>
<P>(3) To provide prior written consent for purposes of section 14 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1852) to a financial company to consummate an acquisition of a de minimis transaction, to the extent that the transaction otherwise meets all other criteria for delegated action related to financial, managerial, convenience and needs, and other review factors.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Savings and loan holding companies.</I> (1) With concurrence of the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(i) To extend the time limits in, or otherwise modify, an agreement entered into by a savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66).
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine that publication of an agreement entered into by a savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66) would be contrary to the public interest under the publication requirements of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) To act on requests for exemptions or otherwise make determinations under section 11 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1468), as implemented in Regulation W (12 CFR part 223), to the same extent authorized with respect to insured depository institutions and their affiliates and bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(2) With the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, to designate the responsible Reserve Bank of a savings and loan holding company when the standard delegation would not result in an efficient allocation of supervisory resources or would not otherwise be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Swaps margin and swaps push-out.</I> To approve internal margin models for entities for which the Board is the prudential regulator, in accordance with § 237.8 of Regulation KK (12 CFR 237.8).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Certain determinations under Regulations LL, YY, and QQ.</I> In consultation with the General Counsel, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that an asset meets the criteria to be a highly liquid asset under the Board's prudential standards in Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.124(b)(3)(i)) and Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.35(b)) to the extent that such determination is consistent with the criteria specified in such regulations and does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine that a foreign banking organization may comply with the requirements in Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.3(c)) through a subsidiary to the extent that such determination is consistent with the criteria specified in Regulation YY and does not raise any significant legal, policy or supervisory concerns; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identify which holding company in a multi-tiered holding company will be a covered company under Regulation QQ (12 CFR part 243) to the extent such identification is consistent with the criteria specified in Regulation QQ (12 CFR 243.2) and does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Approving certain requests under the Capital Rule (Regulation Q, 12 CFR part 217) related to the exposure amount of derivative contracts.</I> To the extent that the determination or request does not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issue:
</P>
<P>(1) To act on a request under § 217.34(f) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.34(f)) as to whether a holding period greater than 5 days is appropriate for variable H due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or that is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) To act on a request under § 217.132(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(1)) from a banking organization to change its election between the use of the standardized approach to counterparty credit risk under § 217.132(c)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(5)) and the internal models methodology under § 217.132(d) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)) for its derivative transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) To require under § 217.132(c)(2)(iii)(H) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(c)(2)(iii)(H)) that a banking organization include a derivative contract in multiple hedging sets if the risk of the derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors;
</P>
<P>(4) To act on a request under § 217.132(d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(10)) from a banking organization to use a more conservative estimate of EAD for purposes of the internal models methodology;
</P>
<P>(5) To require under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) that a banking organization determine the risk-weighted asset amount for its default fund contribution to a central counterparty (CCP) on the basis that there has been a material change in the financial condition of the CCP;
</P>
<P>(6) To act on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) from a banking organization to use a risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP that is not a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) other than 1,250 percent risk weight; and
</P>
<P>(7) To act on a request under § 217.133(d)(6)(vi) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(6)(vi)) from a banking organization to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 217.35(d)(3)(ii) (12 CFR 217.35(d)(3)(ii)) rather than § 217.133(d) (12 CFR 217.133(d)).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Insurance Policy Advisory Committee.</I> To organize and administer the Insurance Policy Advisory Committee (“IPAC”), including by publishing future requests for IPAC applications in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Submission of reports.</I> (1) With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to prepare and submit to Congress reports under section 165(b)(5) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(b)(5)).
</P>
<P>(2) With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to prepare and submit to Congress reports under section 37(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831n(c)), and to submit such reports to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.8   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Examination and enforcement activities.</I> For the consumer protection and consumer affairs statutes and regulations for which the Board has supervisory and enforcement responsibility, including but not limited to the Truth in Lending Act, Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, Community Reinvestment Act, Equal Credit Opportunity Act, Fair Housing Act, and the Federal Trade Commission Act's prohibition on unfair and deceptive acts and practices:
</P>
<P>(1) To oversee policy development regarding compliance by State member banks and other supervised entities, including by establishing criteria for the execution of examination and enforcement activities delegated to the Reserve Banks and monitoring those activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) To issue examination or inspection manuals; report, agreement, and examination forms; examination procedures, guidelines, instructions, and other similar materials.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Community Advisory Council.</I> To call meetings of and consult with the Community Advisory Council, approve the agenda for such meetings, publish <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notices soliciting Community Advisory Council nominations from the public to assist in the selection of prospective members, and accept any resignations from Community Advisory Council members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determining inconsistencies between State and Federal laws.</I> To determine whether a State law is inconsistent with the following Federal acts and regulations to the extent that the laws are applicable to motor vehicle dealers, as defined in section 1029 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5519):
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 111, 171(a) and 186(a) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1610(a), 1666j(a), 1667e(a)) and §§ 226.28 of Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.28) and 213.9 of Regulation M (12 CFR 213.9);
</P>
<P>(2) Section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693q) and § 205.12 of Regulation E (12 CFR 205.12); and
</P>
<P>(3) Section 705(f) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691d(f)) and § 202.11 of Regulation B (12 CFR 202.11).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interpreting the Fair Credit Reporting Act.</I> To issue interpretations pursuant to section 621(e) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s(e));
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community Reinvestment Act determinations.</I> To make determinations, pursuant to section 804 of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2903), approving or disapproving:
</P>
<P>(1) Strategic plans and any amendments thereto pursuant to § 228.27(g) and (h) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.27(g) and (h)); and
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank or the revocation of such designation, pursuant to § 228.25(b) of Regulation BB (12 CFR 228.25(b)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public hearings.</I> To conduct hearings or other proceedings required or permitted by law, concerning consumer law or other matters within the responsibilities of the Division of Consumer and Community Affairs, in consultation with other interested divisions of the Board where appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Designation of responsible Reserve Bank for savings and loan holding companies.</I> With the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to designate the responsible Reserve Bank of a savings and loan holding company when the standard designation would not result in an efficient allocation of supervisory resources or would not otherwise be appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.9   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of International Finance.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of International Finance (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of foreign accounts.</I> To approve the establishment of foreign accounts and the terms of any account-related agreements with the Federal Reserve Bank of New York under section 14(e) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 358).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.10   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Monetary Affairs.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of Monetary Affairs (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Term Deposit Facility (TDF) test operations.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, and in consultation with the Chair if feasible, to adjust the terms and conditions of individual TDF test operations that raise significant technical or operational issues, including but not limited to the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Delay the open of a TDF operation;
</P>
<P>(2) Extend the close of a TDF operation;
</P>
<P>(3) Reschedule a TDF operation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Delay the announcement of TDF operation results.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulation D.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel, to approve the annual indexation of the reserve requirement exemption amount and low reserve tranche amount under Regulation D (12 CFR part 204), so long as no change is proposed to any of the formulas by which these amounts are calculated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form FR 2900.</I> With the concurrence of the General Counsel—
</P>
<P>(1) To reassess the deposit reporting threshold each year, starting in February 2022, as is necessary to maintain a weekly reporting panel of 1,000 institutions comprised of foreign-related reporters and the largest M2 deposit holders for the weekly Report of Deposits and Vault Cash (Form FR 2900); and
</P>
<P>(2) To determine the frequency with which the deposit reporting threshold is reassessed (<I>e.g.,</I> annually or less frequently than annually) consistent with maintaining a stable panel of weekly reporters for the Form FR 2900 and enabling accurate construction of the monetary aggregates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 88 FR 80109, Nov. 17, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.11   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Reserve Bank Operations and Payment Systems.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of Reserve Bank Operations and Payment Systems (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Designated financial market utilities.</I> (1) To issue a notice of no objection to a designated financial market utility relating to an advance notice of proposed material change submitted under section 806(e) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5465(e)) and section 234.4 of Regulation HH (12 CFR 234.4).
</P>
<P>(2) To extend the review period for proposed changes that raise novel or complex issues and to request additional information from the designated financial market utility for consideration of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulation II.</I> (1) In consultation with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to approve the publication of annual lists of institutions that fall above and below the small issuer exemption asset threshold under Regulation II (12 CFR part 235).
</P>
<P>(2) In consultation with the General Counsel, to approve the publication of annual lists of the average interchange fees each network provides to non-exempt and exempt issuers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulation HH.</I> After consulting with interested division directors, to establish the process for receiving notifications described in section 234.3(a)(17)(vi)(A) of the Board's Regulation HH (12 CFR 234.3(a)(17)(vi)(A)) and to provide notice of this process to affected firms.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023; 91 FR 10745, Mar. 5, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.12   Functions delegated to the Secretary of the Federal Open Market Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of the Federal Open Market Committee (or the Deputy Secretary in the Secretary's absence) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Records of policy actions.</I> To approve for inclusion in the Board's Annual Report to Congress, records of policy actions of the Federal Open Market Committee.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.13   Functions delegated to the Director of the Division of Financial Stability.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Division of Financial Stability (or the Director's delegatee) is authorized:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank holding companies; savings and loan holding companies; financial holding companies; change in bank control; mergers</I>—(1) <I>Stress tests.</I> (i) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, with the concurrence of the Chair of the Committee on Supervision and Regulation:
</P>
<P>(A) To develop and issue scenarios, including, but not limited to, the baseline scenario and the severely adverse scenario, that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised; and
</P>
<P>(B) To develop and issue additional scenarios or additional components for use in the severely adverse scenario under § 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132(b) and 238.143(b)(2) and (3)), and §§ 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3) of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14(b)(2) and (3), 252.44(b), and 252.54(b)(2) and (3)), that the Board would use to conduct analyses under § 238.132 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.132) or § 252.44 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 225.44) and that a company would use to conduct its stress tests under § 238.143 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.143) or § 252.14 or § 252.54 of Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.14 or 252.54), as appropriate, provided that no significant policy issues are raised;
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital plans.</I> (1) Jointly with the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, with the concurrence of the Vice Chair for Supervision:
</P>
<P>(i) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with notice of its stress capital buffer requirement and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(1)) and 238.170(h)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(1)); and
</P>
<P>(ii) To provide a firm subject to the Board's capital plan rules with its final stress capital buffer requirement and confirmation of its final planned capital distributions pursuant to §§ 225.8(h)(4)(i) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.8(h)(4)(i)) and 238.170(h)(4)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.170(h)(4)(i)).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 265.14-265.19" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 265.14-265.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 265.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.30.2.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 265.20   Functions delegated to Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in this section, each Federal Reserve Bank is authorized as to a member bank or other indicated organization for which the Reserve Bank is responsible for receiving applications or registration statements or to take other actions as indicated:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Member bank affiliate's reports.</I> To extend the time for good cause shown, within which an affiliate of a State member bank must file reports under section 9(17) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 334).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Edge corporation's divestiture of stock.</I> To extend the time in which an Edge Act corporation must divest itself of stock acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted under section 25A(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 615).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Edge corporation's corporate existence.</I> To extend the period of corporate existence of an Edge corporation under section 25A(20) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 628).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bank holding company and savings and loan holding company registration statement.</I> To extend the time within which a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company must file a registration statement under section 5(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(a)) or section 10(b) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Bank holding company divestiture of nonbanking interests.</I> To extend the time within which a bank holding company must divest itself of interests in nonbanking organizations under section 4(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Bank holding company divestiture of DPC interests.</I> To extend the time within which a bank holding company or any of its subsidiaries must divest itself of interests acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted:
</P>
<P>(i) Under section 4(c)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(2)) or § 225.22(d)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.22(d)(1)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Under sections 2(a)(5)(D) and 3(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5)(D) and 1842(a)).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Member bank's surrender of Reserve Bank stock upon withdrawal from membership.</I> To extend the time within which a member bank that has given notice of intention to withdraw from membership must surrender its Federal Reserve Bank stock and its certificate of membership under § 209.3(e) of Regulation H (12 CFR 209.3(e)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Members bank's reports of condition.</I> To extend the time for publication of reports of condition under Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Bank holding company's and savings and loan holding company's annual reports.</I> To grant to a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company a 90-day extension of time in which to file an annual report, and for good cause shown grant an additional extension of time not to exceed 90 days under section 5(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)) or section 10(b)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Regulation K; divestiture of impermissible interests.</I> To extend the time within which an investor, under § 211.8(e) and (f) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.8(e) and (f)), must divest of investments in entities engaged in impermissible activities or interests acquired to prevent a loss upon a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's acquisition of shares, opening new bank, consummating merger.</I> To extend the time within which a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company may acquire shares, open a new bank to be acquired, or consummate a merger in connection with an application approved by the Board, if no material change relevant to the proposal has occurred since its approval.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Member bank's establishing domestic or foreign branch; Edge or agreement corporation's establishing branch or agency.</I> To extend the times within which:
</P>
<P>(i) A member bank may establish a domestic branch;
</P>
<P>(ii) A member bank may establish a foreign branch; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An Edge or agreement corporation may establish a branch or agency, if no material change has occurred in the bank's (or corporation's) general condition since the application was approved.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Purchase of stock by Edge or agreement corporation, member bank, or bank holding company.</I> To extend the time within which an Edge or agreement corporation, member bank, or a bank holding company may accomplish a purchase of stock if no material change has occurred in the general condition of the corporation, the member bank, or bank holding company since such authorization under sections 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act or section 4(c)(13) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 615, 628, 1843(c)(13)).
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Federal Reserve membership.</I> To extend the time within which Federal Reserve membership must be accomplished, if no material change has occurred in the bank's general condition since the application was approved.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Enforcement actions; written agreements; cease and desist orders.</I> With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel:
</P>
<P>(i) To enter into a written agreement with a bank holding company or any nonbanking subsidiary thereof, with a savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof (other than a savings association), with a State member bank, with a foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, or with any person or entity subject to the Board's supervisory jurisdiction under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) concerning the prevention or correction of an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the bank holding company or its nonbanking subsidiary, savings and loan holding company or its subsidiary (other than a savings association), or State member bank, or foreign bank that has elected to be treated as a financial holding company, or other entity, or concerning the correction or prevention of any violation of law, rule, or regulation, including section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)), or any condition imposed in writing by the Board in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the bank or company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an agreement entered into pursuant to this paragraph (a)(15), other than to extend time limits in a corrective agreement with a financial institution under section 4(m) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(m)).
</P>
<P>(iii) To stay, modify, terminate, or suspend an outstanding cease and desist order that has become final pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b). Any agreement authorized under this paragraph may, by its terms, be enforceable to the same extent and in the same manner as an effective and outstanding cease and desist order that has become final pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b).
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Appointment of assistant Federal Reserve agents.</I> To approve the appointment of assistant Federal Reserve agents (including representatives or alternate representatives of such agents) under section 4(21) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 306).
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Relief from or modification of commitments.</I> To grant or deny requests for relieving or modifying (including extending the time for performing) a commitment relied upon by the Reserve Bank in taking any action under the Bank Holding Company Act, section 18(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), the Change in Bank Control Act, the Federal Reserve Act, the International Banking Act, the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or the Home Owners' Loan Act, so long as the requests do not raise any significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues. In acting on such requests, the Reserve Bank may take into account changed circumstances and good faith efforts to fulfill the commitments, and shall consult with Board staff as appropriate. The Reserve Bank may not take any action that would be inconsistent with or result in an evasion of the provisions of the original action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of Information; Board records.</I> To make available information of the Board of the nature and in the circumstances described in §§ 261.21(a) and 261.22(a) of the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information (12 CFR 261.21(a) and 261.22(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Holding companies; change in bank control; mergers</I>—(1) <I>Require reports under oath.</I> To require reports under oath to determine whether a company is complying with section 5(c) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)) or section 10(b)(2) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquisition of going concern—authorization of consummation; early consummation.</I> (i) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that, because the circumstances surrounding the application to acquire a going concern indicate that additional information is required or that the acquisition should be considered by the Board, the acquisition should not be consummated until specifically authorized by the Reserve Bank or by the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) To permit a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company to make a proposed acquisition of a going concern before the expiration of the 30-day period referred to in § 225.24(d)(1) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.24(d)(1)) or § 238.53(f)(1)(i) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53(f)(1)(i)) because exigent circumstances justify consummation of the acquisition at an earlier time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition for review of decision that adverse comments are not substantive; permit proposed de novo activities; authorization of consummation.</I> Under subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) or subpart F of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart F) and subject to § 265.3 (12 CFR 265.3), if a person submitting adverse comments that the Reserve Bank has decided are not substantive files a petition for review by the Board of that decision:
</P>
<P>(i) To permit a bank holding company to engage de novo in activities specified in § 225.28(b) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)), or a savings and loan holding company to engage de novo in activities specified in §§ 238.53 and 238.54 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.53 and 238.54), or retain shares in a company established de novo and engaging in such activities, if the Reserve Bank's evaluation of the considerations specified in section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) or section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) leads it to conclude that the proposal can reasonably be expected to produce benefits to the public.
</P>
<P>(ii) To notify a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that the proposal should not be consummated until specifically authorized by the Reserve Bank or by the Board or that the proposal should be processed in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) or subpart F of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart F).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonbanking activities.</I> (i) To approve requests by bank holding companies to engage in check cashing for checks drawn on unaffiliated banks, real estate title abstracting, or acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions, as an activity that is closely related to banking for purposes of section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), when the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board in approving previous requests, and no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
</P>
<P>(ii) To approve requests by foreign banks subject to the Bank Holding Company Act by operation of section 8(a) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)) to engage in acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions, as an activity that is closely related to banking for purposes of section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)), when the proposal meets the conditions imposed by the Board in approving previous requests, and no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the specific proposal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permit or stay of modification or location of activities.</I> To permit or stay a proposed de novo modification or relocation of activities engaged in by a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company on the same basis as de novo proposals under paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Notices under the Change in Bank Control Act.</I> With respect to a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a State member bank:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices and reports filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j));
</P>
<P>(ii) To extend periods for consideration of notices;
</P>
<P>(iii) To determine whether a person who is or will be subject to a presumption described in § 225.41(c)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41(c)(2)) or § 238.31(c)(2) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.31(c)(2)) should file a notice regarding a proposed transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To issue a notice of intention not to disapprove a proposed change in control if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) No member of the Board has indicated an objection prior to the Reserve Bank's action;
</P>
<P>(B) No senior officer or director of an involved party is also a director of a Federal Reserve Bank or branch;
</P>
<P>(C) All relevant departments of the Reserve Bank concur;
</P>
<P>(D) If the proposal involves shares of a State member bank or a bank holding company controlling a State member bank, the appropriate bank supervisory authorities have indicated that they have no objection to the proposal, or no objection has been received from them within the time allowed by the act; and
</P>
<P>(E) No significant policy issue under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), § 225.41 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.41), or § 238.31 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.31) is raised by the proposal as to which the Board has not expressed its view.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Failure to comply with publication requirement under the Change in Bank Control Act.</I> To waive, dispense with, modify, or excuse the failure to comply with the requirement for publication and solicitation of public comment regarding a notice filed under the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, provided that a written finding is made that such disclosure or solicitation would seriously threaten the safety or soundness of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, savings association, or bank under paragraph (2) of the Change in Bank Control Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(2)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Legacy nonbanking activities.</I> To determine that termination of nonbanking activities conducted pursuant to the proviso in section 4(a)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2)) by a particular bank holding company is not warranted, provided the Reserve Bank is satisfied all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The company or its successor is “a company covered in 1970”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The nonbanking activities that the bank holding company seeks to continue do not present any significant unsettled policy issues; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank holding company was lawfully engaged in such activities as of June 30, 1968, and has been engaged in such activities continuously thereafter.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Opening of additional nonbanking offices.</I> To approve applications by a bank holding company under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)) and subpart C of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart C) to open additional offices to engage in nonbanking activities for which the bank holding company previously received approval pursuant to Board order, unless one of the conditions specified in paragraphs (c)(12)(i) through (iv) of this section is present.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Volcker Rule.</I> In consultation with Board staff, to approve (but not deny) an application by a banking entity for an extension of the period of time during which it must reduce its ownership interest in a covered fund to no more than 3 percent, if all of the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) No significant issues have been identified regarding the firm's compliance program;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity has represented that all of the requirements under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) and its implementing regulations (12 CFR part 248) for organizing and offering a covered fund have been met;
</P>
<P>(iii) The banking entity provides a plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods by the end of the extension period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The primary Federal agency responsible for enforcing compliance with section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1851) by the banking entity that invests in or sponsors the covered fund (if other than the Federal Reserve) does not object to the extension.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Notices for addition or change of directors or officers.</I> Under section 914(a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and subpart H of Regulation Y (12 CFR part 225, subpart H)) and subpart H of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart H), provided that no senior officer or director or proposed senior officer or director of the notificant is also a director of the Reserve Bank or a branch of the Reserve Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine the informational sufficiency of notices filed pursuant to § 225.72 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.72) or § 238.73 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.73); and
</P>
<P>(ii) To waive the prior notice requirements of those sections.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Applications requiring Board approval; competitive factors reports for bank mergers and savings association mergers.</I> To approve applications requiring prior approval of the Board and furnish to the Comptroller of the Currency and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation reports on competitive factors involved in a bank merger or savings association merger required to be approved by one of those agencies, unless one or more of the following conditions is present:
</P>
<P>(i) A member of the Board has indicated an objection prior to the Reserve Bank's action; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board has indicated that such delegated authority shall not be exercised by the Reserve Bank in whole or in part; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A written substantive objection to the application has been properly made; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The application raises a significant policy issue or legal question on which the Board has not established its position; or
</P>
<P>(v)(A)With respect to holding company formations, acquisitions or mergers of holding companies, or acquisitions or mergers of insured depository institutions, except as set forth in paragraph (c)(12)(v)(B) of this section, upon consummation, the proposal would result in the control by a banking organization of over 35 percent of total deposits in banking offices in the relevant geographic market or an increase of at least 200 points in the Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) for deposits in a highly concentrated market (a market with a post-merger HHI of at least 1800) when including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All thrift deposits at 50 percent weight, except for deposits of thrifts determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to be commercially active, which are included at 100 percent weight; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The deposits of credit unions determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to offer consumer banking products, operate street-level branches, and have broad membership criteria in the relevant geographic market, which are included at 50 percent weight; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to the formation of a savings and loan holding company, the merger of savings and loan holding companies, or the acquisition by a savings and loan holding company of a savings association, upon consummation, the proposal would result in the control by a banking organization of over 35 percent of total deposits in banking offices in the relevant geographic market or an increase of at least 200 points in the HHI for deposits in a highly concentrated market (a market with a post-merger HHI of at least 1800) when including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All thrift deposits at 100 percent weight; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The deposits of credit unions determined by the Reserve Bank, with the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Research and Statistics, to offer consumer banking products, operate street-level branches, and have broad membership criteria in the relevant geographic market, which are included at 50 percent weight; or
</P>
<P>(vi) With respect to nonbank acquisitions, the nonbanking activities involved do not clearly fall within activities that the Board has designated as permissible for bank holding companies under § 225.28(b) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)); or
</P>
<P>(vii) With respect to formations, acquisitions, or mergers involving depository institution holding companies, banks, or nonbank companies (except for internal corporate reorganizations), the proposed transaction represents an acquisition of assets equaling or exceeding $10 billion and would result in an organization with total assets equaling or exceeding $100 billion; or there is evidence that the transaction would result in a significant increase in interconnectedness, complexity, cross-border activities, or other risk factors related to the stability of the United States banking or financial system.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Waivers.</I> (i) To inform an acquiring bank holding company, in connection with a notice submitted by the bank holding company pursuant to § 225.12(d)(2) of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.12(d)(2)), that an application under § 225.11 of Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.11) is required.
</P>
<P>(ii) To inform an acquiring savings and loan holding company, in connection with a notice submitted by the savings and loan holding company pursuant to § 238.12(d)(1) of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.12(d)(1)), that an application under § 238.11 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.11) is required.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Savings and loan holding companies in mutual form.</I> (i) To act on reorganization notices filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.3 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.3), including with respect to the establishment of a mutual holding company, if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(ii) To act on applications to establish a subsidiary holding company of a mutual holding company filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.11 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.11), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(iii) To take any action related to an application by a mutual holding company to convert from mutual to stock form filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and subpart E of Regulation MM (12 CFR part 239, subpart E) if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(iv) To act on notices to repurchase stock filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.63(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.63(d)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(v) To extend for an additional 60 days the 30-day period within which the Board may object to a notice to repurchase stock filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.63(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.63(d)).
</P>
<P>(vi) To act on applications to acquire savings associations, savings and loan holding companies, and other corporations filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.7 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(vii) To act on notices and applications to engage in activities filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.8 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.8), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(viii) To act on notices of indemnification filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.40 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.40), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(ix) To act on notices of waiver by mutual holding companies of the right to receive dividends declared by subsidiaries of the mutual holding company filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.8(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.8(d)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(x) To act on applications relating to charter and bylaw amendments of mutual holding companies and subsidiary holding companies filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.14, 239.15, 239.22, and 239.23 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.14, 239.15, 239.22, and 239.23), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(xi) To act on notices of transfer of stock and issuance of stock to insiders, associates of insiders, or tax-qualified or non-tax-qualified employee stock benefit plans filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and §§ 239.7(b) and 239.8(e) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7(b) and 239.8(e)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(xii) To act on notices of disposition of stock of certain subsidiaries filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.7(b) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.7(b)), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(xiii) To act on applications to engage in voluntary supervisory conversions filed pursuant to section 10(o) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)) and § 239.65 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.65), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(xiv) To approve requests from subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies to conduct stock issuances pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24), persons other than its mutual holding company parent pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24), including approval of nonconforming stock issuances pursuant to § 239.24(c)(6)(ii) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24(c)(6)(ii)) and determinations that certain procedural and substantive requirements are inapplicable pursuant to § 239.24(d) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24(d)), where such requests do not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues.
</P>
<P>(xv) To approve plans of dissolution filed by mutual holding companies and subsidiary holding companies of mutual holding companies pursuant to § 239.16 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.16), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(xvi) To grant a request to waive the application of § 239.59(d)(1), (h), (j), and (p)(2) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.59(d)(1), (h), (j), and (p)(2)) as those provisions relate to applications and notices seeking the Board's prior approval to conduct a stock issuance pursuant to § 239.24 of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.24) related to a reorganization to mutual holding company form pursuant to section 10(o)(3) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(o)(3)), or subsequent to a mutual holding company reorganization, and that do not raise any significant legal, policy, or supervisory concerns, except that the authority to grant waiver requests under this paragraph (c)(14)(xvi) is limited to requests by firms that—
</P>
<P>(A) Do not qualify for federal preemption of state securities filing requirements;
</P>
<P>(B) Propose to register their shares in states with ten or more eligible account holders, as that term is defined in § 239.52(c) of Regulation MM (12 CFR 239.52(c)); and
</P>
<P>(C) Would make a proposed stock offering available to account holders eligible to participate in the offering in states where the offering would qualify for an exemption from state securities filing requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International banking</I>—(1) <I>Member bank, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation establishing foreign branch.</I> With regard to a prior notice to establish a branch in a foreign country under § 211.3 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.3)—
</P>
<P>(i) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue;
</P>
<P>(ii) To suspend the notice period;
</P>
<P>(iii) To determine not to object to the notice, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised by the proposal; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acquisitions by a foreign branch.</I> To approve, under § 211.4(a)(8) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.4(a)(8)), a proposal by a foreign branch of a member bank to acquire all of the shares of a company that engages solely in activities in which the member bank is permitted to engage or that are incidental to the activities of the foreign branch, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application to establish Edge corporation.</I> To approve the application by a U.S. banking organization to establish an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) and § 211.5 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5) if all of the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The U.S. banking organization meets the capital adequacy guidelines and is otherwise in satisfactory condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposed Edge corporation will be a wholly owned subsidiary of a single banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuance of permit to Edge corporation and amendments to articles of association and charter.</I> To issue to an Edge corporation under section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 614) and § 211.5 of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5) a permit to commence business and to approve amendments to the articles of association and charter of an Edge corporation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investments in Edge and agreement corporations.</I> To approve, pursuant to § 211.5(a)(3) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(a)(3)) an application by a member bank to invest more than 10 percent of its capital and surplus in the aggregate amount of stock held in all Edge or agreement corporations; provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The member bank's total investment, including retained earnings of the Edge and agreement corporation, does not exceed 20 percent of the bank's capital and surplus and would not exceed that level as a result of the proposal; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issues.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Foreign ownership of an Edge corporation.</I> To approve, under § 211.5(d) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(d)), a foreign institution's acquisition, directly or indirectly, of a majority of the shares of the capital stock of an Edge corporation, provided that no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Change in control of an Edge corporation.</I> With regard to a notice to acquire, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of the voting securities, or otherwise to acquire control, of an Edge corporation, under § 211.5(e) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.5(e)):
</P>
<P>(i) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised;
</P>
<P>(ii) To extend the notice period;
</P>
<P>(iii) To determine not to object to the notice if no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Granting specific consent.</I> To grant prior specific consent to an investor for—
</P>
<P>(i) A long range investment plan, under § 211.9(a)(4) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(a)(4)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An investment in its first subsidiary or its first joint venture, under § 211.9(a)(5) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(a)(5)), where such investment does not exceed the general consent limitations under § 211.9(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(b)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Investment in export trading company.</I> To issue a notice of intention not to disapprove a proposed investment in an export trading company if all the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed export trading company will be a wholly owned subsidiary of a single investor, or ownership will be shared with an individual or individuals involved in the operation of the export trading company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank holding company investor and its lead bank meet the minimum capital adequacy guidelines of the Board, the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or have enacted capital enhancement plans that have been determined by the appropriate supervisory authority to be acceptable;
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed activities of the export trading company do not include product research or design, product modification, or activities not specifically covered by the list of services contained in 4(c)(14)(F)(ii) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)(F)(ii)); and
</P>
<P>(iv) No other significant policy issue is raised on which the Board has not previously expressed its view under section 4(c)(14) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(14)) and subpart C of Regulation K (12 CFR part 211, subpart C).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Authority under prior-notice procedures.</I> (i) With regard to a prior notice to make an investment under § 211.9(f) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.9(f)):
</P>
<P>(A) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised;
</P>
<P>(B) To suspend the notice period;
</P>
<P>(C) To determine not to object to the notice if there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised; or
</P>
<P>(D) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) With regard to a prior notice of a foreign bank to establish certain U.S. offices under § 211.24(a)(2)(i) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(2)(i)):
</P>
<P>(A) To waive the notice period if immediate action is required and there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised;
</P>
<P>(B) To suspend the notice period;
</P>
<P>(C) To determine not to object to the notice if there is no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue raised; or
</P>
<P>(D) To require the notificant to file an application for the Board's specific consent.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Activities usual in connection with banking or other financial operations abroad.</I> (i) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(14) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(14)), to engage in underwriting and distribution of equity securities outside the United States, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(15) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(15)), to engage in dealing in equity securities outside the United States, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(iii) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(15)(iv)(B) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(15)(iv)(B)), to use internal hedging models, provided that the proposal raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(iv) To approve a prior notice, under § 211.10(a)(18) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.10(a)(18), to engage in futures commission merchant activities on an mutual exchange or clearinghouse that requires members to guarantee or otherwise contract to cover losses suffered by the other members, provided that the Board has previously approved the exchange, the application is on the same terms and conditions on which the Board based its approval of the exchange, and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Change in foreign bank home state.</I> With respect to a foreign bank's change of home state under § 211.22(b) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.22(b)) and provided no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised:
</P>
<P>(i) To waive the notice period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine not to object to the notice.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Waiver of 30-day prior notification period.</I> To waive the 30-day prior notification period with respect to a foreign bank's change of home state under § 211.22(b)(1) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.22(b)(1)).
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Offices of foreign banks.</I> (i) To approve the establishment of a branch, agency, commercial lending company, or representative office by a foreign bank in the United States, pursuant to § 211.24(a)(1) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(1)), if the Board has already determined that the foreign bank is subject to consolidated comprehensive supervision and provided that the application raises no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(ii) To allow a foreign bank to establish a temporary office of a branch or agency, pursuant to § 211.24(a)(5) of Regulation K (12 CFR 211.24(a)(5)), provided there is no direct public access to such office and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Agreement with foreign bank concerning deposits of out-of-home-state branch.</I> To enter into an agreement or undertaking with a foreign bank that it shall receive only such deposits at its out-of-home-state branch as would be permissible for an Edge corporation under section 5 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3103).
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Dividends of property other than cash by an Edge corporation.</I> To approve (but not deny) a request by an Edge corporation to declare or pay a dividend of property other than cash if the request does not raise a significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member banks</I>—(1) <I>Approval of membership applications.</I> To approve applications for membership in the Federal Reserve System under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.</I>) and Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after considering the factors set forth in 12 CFR 208.3(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of notice of intention to withdraw from membership.</I> To approve or deny applications by State banks for waiver of the required six months' notice of intention to withdraw from Federal Reserve membership under section 9(10) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 328).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval of branch applications.</I> To approve a State member bank's establishment of a domestic branch under section 9 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 321 <I>et seq.</I>) and Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after considering the factors set forth in 12 CFR 208.6(b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Declaration of dividends in excess of net profits.</I> To permit a State member bank under section 9(6) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 324) to declare dividends in excess of the amounts allowed in § 208.5(c) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.5(c)) if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after giving consideration to:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's capitalization after payment of the proposed dividends.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reduction of capital stock.</I> To permit a State member bank under section 9(11) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 329) to reduce its capital stock below the amounts set forth in § 208.5(d) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.5(d)) if the State member bank's capitalization thereafter will be:
</P>
<P>(i) In conformity with the requirements of Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequate in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Acceptance of drafts and bills of exchange.</I> To permit a member bank or a Federal or State branch or agency of a foreign bank that is subject to reserve requirements under section 7 of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3105) to accept drafts or bills of exchange under section 13(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 372) in an aggregate amount at any one time up to 200 percent of its paid-up and unimpaired capital stock and surplus, if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that such permission is warranted after giving consideration to the institution's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Investment in bank premises in excess of capital stock.</I> To permit a State member bank to invest in bank premises under section 24A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371d) in an amount in excess of that set forth in § 208.21(a) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.21(a)), if the Reserve Bank is satisfied that approval is warranted after giving consideration to the bank's capitalization in relation to the character and condition of its assets and to its deposit liabilities and other corporate responsibilities, including the volume of its risk assets and of its marginal and inferior quality assets, all considered in relation to the strength of its management.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Security devices.</I> To determine whether security devices and procedures of State member banks are deficient in meeting the requirements of Regulation H (12 CFR part 208) and whether such requirements should be varied in the circumstances of a particular banking office, and whether to require corrective action.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Classifying member banks for election of directors.</I> To classify member banks for the purposes of electing Federal Reserve Bank class A and class B directors under section 4(16) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 304), giving consideration to:
</P>
<P>(i) The statutory requirement that each of the three groups shall consist as nearly as may be of banks of similar capitalization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The desirability that every member bank have the opportunity to vote for a class A or a class B director at least once every three years.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Waiver of penalty for deficient reserves.</I> To waive the penalty for deficient reserves by a member bank if, after a review of all the circumstances relating to the deficiency, the Reserve Bank concludes that waiver is warranted, except that in no case may a penalty be waived if the deficiency in reserves arises out of the bank's gross negligence or conduct inconsistent with the principles and purposes of reserve requirements.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Retirement of subordinated debt.</I> To approve the retirement prior to maturity of capital notes described in § 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(C) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(a)(1)(vii)(C)) and issued by a State member bank, provided the Reserve Bank is satisfied that the capital position of the bank will be adequate after the proposed redemption.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Public welfare investments.</I> (i) To permit a State member bank to make a public welfare investment in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a), provided that the proposal satisfies § 208.22(b)(1) of Regulation H (12 CFR 208.22(b)(1)) and no significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue is raised; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To determine, in connection with acting on a proposal pursuant to delegated authority as set forth in paragraph (e)(12)(i) of this section, that the aggregate amount of a State member bank's public welfare investments will not pose a significant risk to the deposit insurance fund in accordance with section 9(23) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 338a).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Dividends of property other than cash by a State member bank.</I> To approve (but not deny) a request by a State member bank to declare or pay a dividend of property other than cash if the request does not raise a significant legal, supervisory, or policy issue.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Securities.</I> To approve applications by a registered lender for termination of the registration under § 221.3(b)(2) of Regulation U (12 CFR 221.3(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Management interlocks.</I> After consultation with the General Counsel, to decide not to disapprove notices to establish director interlocks with diversified savings and loan holding companies under section 205(8) of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3204(8)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Qualified family partnerships.</I> To act on requests for determinations of qualified family partnership status under section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial holding companies.</I> In consultation with Board staff, to make effective elections filed by U.S. bank holding companies to become financial holding companies.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Savings and loan holding companies.</I> (1) With the approval of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation and the General Counsel, to enter into corrective action agreements with savings and loan holding companies pursuant to § 238.66 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.66).
</P>
<P>(2) To act on notices of capital distributions filed pursuant to section 10(f) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(f)) and § 238.103 of Regulation LL (12 CFR 238.103).
</P>
<P>(3) To act on elections to engage in financial holding company activities filed pursuant to section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) and subpart G of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subpart G), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) To act on notices and applications to engage in activities filed pursuant to section 10(c) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(c)) and subparts F and G of Regulation LL (12 CFR part 238, subparts F and G), if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(5) To grant requests by companies to deregister as savings and loan holding companies, if no significant legal, policy, or supervisory issues are raised by the proposal.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Financial operations of the Bank for International Settlements.</I> The Federal Reserve Bank of New York is authorized to assent or dissent, as appropriate, to financial operations of the Bank for International Settlements conducted in the U.S. market or in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Regulatory capital rule</I>—(1) <I>Delegations regarding the definition of capital.</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
</P>
<P>(A) Act on a company's request under § 217.20(b)(1)(iii), § 217.20(c)(1)(vi), or § 217.20(d)(1)(x) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(b)(1)(iii), 217.20(c)(1)(vi), or 217.20(d)(1)(x)) to redeem a security; and
</P>
<P>(B) Act on a company's request under § 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) or § 217.20(d)(1)(v)(A) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.20(c)(1)(v)(A) and 217.20(d)(1)(v)(A)) to exercise a call option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delegations regarding standardized approach risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
</P>
<P>(A) Act on a request from a company under § 217.37(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)) to use its own estimates of haircuts, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(E)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.37(c)(4)(i)(F)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own estimates of haircuts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Determine under § 217.41(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.41(c)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Delegations regarding advanced approaches risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to:
</P>
<P>(A) Act on a request for approval of any model or optional approach available under subpart E of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart E), including, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any counterparty credit risk model or methodology (own estimates of haircuts, simple VaR methodology, internal models methodology, or advanced CVA approach) under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.132 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.132), including:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>5</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>5</I>)) to make changes to the company's policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>6</I>)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(1) introductory text and (d)(1)(iv)) to use the internal models methodology, cease using the internal models methodology for a transaction type, or to make a material change to its internal model;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv) and (d)(10)) to use a more conservative estimate of Exposure at Default;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Determining that a company must set a higher “alpha” under § 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(2)(iv)(C)) based on the company's specific characteristics of and counterparty credit risk or model performance;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)) to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(3)(viii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(3)(viii)) to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(i) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(i)) to include the effect of a collateral agreement within an internal model used to calculate EAD;
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(5)(iii)(C)) to set a longer holding period (for margin period of risk for a netting set that is subject to a collateral agreement) if the Director determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(d)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(d)(6)) to calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on EPE (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2;
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)) to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach;
</P>
<P>(<I>xii</I>) Acting on a request by a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(ii)(D)) to use a conservative estimate when determining LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>; and
</P>
<P>(<I>xiii</I>) Requiring a company under § 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.132(e)(6)(v)(B)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the CVA<E T="52">stressed</E> measure;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any model or approach relating to cleared transactions under §§ 217.122(d) and 217.133 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(d) and 217.133), including:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Under § 217.133(d)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(1)) a company that is a clearing member to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP more frequently than quarterly if in the opinion of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Acting on a request under § 217.133(d)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.133(d)(2)) for a company to use a risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to a CCP that is not a QCCP other than a 1,250 percent risk weight;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any model or approach relating to the double default treatment under §§ 217.122(e) and 217.135 of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(e) and 217.135), including acting on a request by a company under § 217.135(a)(6) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.135(a)(6)) to implement a process to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of a hedged exposure and a protection provider;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A company's own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility under § 217.145(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.145(b)(4)); and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The internal models approach for equity exposures under §§ 217.122(f) and 217.153(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.122(f) and 217.153(b));
</P>
<P>(B) Determine under § 217.131(e)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.131(e)(4)) whether a portfolio of exposures is or is not material; and
</P>
<P>(C) Assess for purposes of § 217.141(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.141(c)(1)) whether a company has a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delegations regarding market risk risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) With the concurrence of the Director of the Division of Supervision and Regulation, to act regarding any model approval, disapproval, rescission, or supervision under subpart F of Regulation Q (12 CFR part 217, subpart F), including the authority to:
</P>
<P>(A) Exclude from the definition of “covered position” structural foreign currency positions of a company, or any hedge of a trading position that is outside the scope of the company's hedging strategy, under § 217.202(b) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.202(b));
</P>
<P>(B) Act on a request from a company under § 217.203(c)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(1)) to approve its internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(C) Rescind approval under § 217.203(c)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.203(c)(3)) of a company's internal model(s) to calculate its risk-based capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(D) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(a)(2)(vi)(B)) to use alternative techniques to measure the risk of de minimis exposures;
</P>
<P>(E) Act on a request from a company under § 217.204(b)(2) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.204(b)(2)) to use a different adjustment of its VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(F) Review and determine the appropriateness of a company's omission of risk factors under § 217.205(a)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(4)) and the use of proxies under § 217.205(a)(5) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(a)(5));
</P>
<P>(G) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(1)) the appropriateness of any conversions of VaR to other holding periods by a company;
</P>
<P>(H) Review and determine under § 217.205(b)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(b)(2)(ii)) the appropriateness of a company's alternative weighting schemes;
</P>
<P>(I) Approve or disapprove under § 217.205(c) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.205(c)) any requirements relating to a company's division of subportfolios;
</P>
<P>(J) Approve or disapprove under § 217.206(b)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(3)) any changes to a company's policies and procedures that describe how the company determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate its stressed VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(K) Require a company under § 217.206(b)(4) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.206(b)(4)) to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure;
</P>
<P>(L) Act on a request by a company under § 217.208(a) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.208(a)) to include certain portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model;
</P>
<P>(M) Act on a request by a company under § 217.209(a)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(1)) to use the comprehensive risk approach for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions and the related approval under § 217.209(a)(2)(ii) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.209(a)(2)(ii)) regarding a company's comprehensive risk capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(N) Determine under § 217.210(e)(3) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(e)(3)) whether an index is a main index because the equities represented by the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index; and
</P>
<P>(O) Determine under § 217.210(f)(1) of Regulation Q (12 CFR 217.210(f)(1)) whether or not a company has demonstrated a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 54003, Sept. 1, 2022, as amended at 88 FR 32622, May 22, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="266" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 266—LIMITATIONS ON ACTIVITIES OF FORMER MEMBERS AND EMPLOYEES OF THE BOARD
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11(i), Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)); 5 U.S.C. 552. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 31672, Nov. 16, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 266.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 266.1   Basis and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part, issued under authority of section 11(i) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248(i)), and pursuant to section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code, which requires that every agency shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> its rules of procedure, relates to limitations on former members and employees of the Board with respect to participation in matters connected with their former duties and official responsibilities while serving with the Board. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> While the Board has not adopted rules with regard to the disclosure of unpublished information by former Board members and employees, it advises such persons not to disclose unpublished information of the Board obtained in the course of their work. Questions in this regard may be addressed to the General Counsel or the Secretary of the Board.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 266.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 266.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employee</I> means a regular officer or employee of the Board; it does not include a consultant to the Board. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> While former consultants to the Board are not covered by these Rules, they appear to fall within the coverage of section 207 of the United States Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 207) that provides criminal penalties for engaging in activities similar, although not identical, to those described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of § 266.3.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Official responsibility,</I> with respect to a matter, means administrative, supervisory, or decisional authority, whether intermediate or final, exercisable alone or with others, personally or through subordinates, to approve, disapprove, decide, or recommend Board action or to express staff opinions in dealings with the public. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appear personally</I> includes personal appearance or attendance before, or personal communication, either written or oral, with the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank of any member or employee thereof, or personal participation in the formulation or preparation of any material presented or communicated to, or filed with, the Board, in connection with any application or interpretation arising under the statutes or regulations administered by the Board or the Federal Reserve Banks, except that requests for general information or explanations of Board policy or interpretation shall not be construed to be a personal appearance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 266.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 266.3   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Matters on which Board member or employee worked.</I> No former member or employee of the Board shall appear personally before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of anyone other than the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank, in connection with any judicial or other proceedings, application, request for ruling or determination, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties in which the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank is also a party or has a direct and substantial interest and in which he participated personally and substantially as a member or employee of the Board through approval, disapproval, decision, recommendation, advice, investigation or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Matters within Board member or employee's official responsibility.</I> No former member or employee of the Board shall appear personally before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of anyone other than the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank, in connection with any judicial or other proceeding, application, request for ruling or determination, or other particular matter involving a specific party or parties in which the United States, an agency thereof, or a Federal Reserve Bank is also a party or has a direct and substantial interest, and which matter was in process during his tenure of office or period of employment and under his official Board responsibility, at any time within a period of one year after the termination of such responsibility. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation as to propriety of appearance before the Board.</I> Any former member or employee of the Board who wishes to personally appear before the Board or a Federal Reserve Bank on behalf of any party other than the United States or an agency thereof or a Federal Reserve Bank at any time within two years from termination of employment with the Board is advised to consult the General Counsel or the Secretary of the Board as to the propriety of such appearance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulemaking proceedings.</I> Nothing in this section shall preclude a former member or employee of the Board from representing another person in any Board or Federal Reserve Bank proceeding governed by a rule, regulation, standard, or policy of the Board solely by reason of the fact that such former member or employee participated in or had official responsibility in the formation or adoption of such rule, regulation, standard, or policy. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date.</I> This part shall become effective November 6, 1973. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the limitations of this part shall not apply to any activities with respect to a specific matter before the Board in which any former Board member or employee may be engaged on September 21, 1973, the date of publication of this part, until the expiration of 60 days following the effective date of this part or of such additional period as the Secretary of the Board may determine to be appropriate in order to avoid inequity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 266.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 266.4   Suspension of appearance privilege.</HEAD>
<P>If any person knowingly and willfully fails to comply with the provisions of this part, the Board may decline to permit such person to appear personally before it or a Federal Reserve Bank for such periods of time as it may determine and may impose such other sanctions as the Board may deem just and proper. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 266.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.31.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 266.5   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Any former member or employee of the Board who engages in actions in contravention of paragraph (a) or (b) of § 266.3 may be subject to criminal penalties for violation of section 207 of the United States Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 207). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="267" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 267—PROCEDURES FOR DEBT COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 244, 248; 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3717, 3720A, 3720D.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 15503, Apr. 16, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 267.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes Board procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this part applies to collections by the Board from persons, organizations, or entities indebted to the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to any debts whose collection is exclusively provided for or prohibited by another statute or applicable regulation, or to any debt of a current Board employee or other debtor where the Board has chosen to proceed solely under its existing internal debt collection policy. This part does not in any way limit or affect the Board's authority under 12 U.S.C. 244 and 12 U.S.C. 248. Nothing in this part precludes the collection of debts through any other legally-available means, or precludes the Board from engaging in litigation as provided under 12 U.S.C. 248(p), 1818(i), or any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) When the Board determines to collect a debt using the procedures under these regulations, in addition to the procedures set forth in this part and subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the Board shall also follow, as applicable, the procedures set forth in 31 CFR part 285 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) for the collection of debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.</I>), the FCCS, or any other applicable law, including rules, regulations, and policies adopted by the Board pursuant to authority granted to it under the Federal Reserve Act.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this part shall create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or in equity by a party against the United States, its agencies, its officers, or any other person, nor shall the Board's failure to comply with any of the provisions of this part be available to any debtor as a defense. Nothing in this part shall permit a debtor to collaterally attack a final administrative decision rendered under any other applicable statute or regulation, or a judgment by a competent court.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 267.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following definitions shall apply to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a claim.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> incudes all executive departments and agencies or instrumentalities in the executive branch, and any other entity referenced in 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(5)(B).
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Centralized offset</I> is an offset initiated by referral to the Secretary of the Treasury (including a debt collection center designated by the Department of the Treasury) by a creditor agency of a debt for purposes of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> or <I>claim</I> means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by a Board official, in connection with the operational or regulatory activities of the Board, to be owed to the United States from any person, organization or entity (except another Federal entity), including any type of debt referenced in 31 U.S.C. 3701(b). For purposes of this part, a debt or claim owed to the Board, including a debt or claim for repayment of Board-funded benefits administered through the Office of Employee Benefits of the Federal Reserve System, is a debt owed to the United States. A debt does not include any amounts owed by a current Board employee that the Board chooses to collect solely under its debt collection policy.
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means a person who owes a debt, and includes any individual, organization, or entity except another agency.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent,</I> with respect to a debt or claim, shall have the meaning given to such term at 31 CFR 900.2(b).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible,</I> with respect to a debt or claim, means that referral of the debt or claim for collection is not precluded by any statute or regulation, or by any guidance issued by the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a Federal employee without his or her consent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 267.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.3   Referral of debts for collection action, including offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> To the extent not inconsistent with any applicable law or with any rule, regulation, or policy adopted by the Board in the exercise of authority granted to it under the Federal Reserve Act, the Board will refer debts covered by this regulation and which are eligible debts over 120 days delinquent to which this part applies to the U.S. Department of the Treasury for appropriate debt collection action, including but not limited to centralized offset, and offset of tax refunds. The Board may also refer any eligible debt less than 120 days delinquent to the U.S. Department of the Treasury for appropriate collection action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings prior to referral.</I> At least 60 days prior to referring a debt in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will send the debtor the notice described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(ii)(A), and afford the debtor the procedural protections described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(ii)(B) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A(b). However, the Board is not required to duplicate any prior notice or review opportunities that it has already afforded the debtor prior to referral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-centralized offset.</I> The Board may request an agency other than the U.S. Department of the Treasury to conduct non-centralized offset. Except in the situations described in 31 CFR 901.3(b)(4)(iii)(A)-(C), the Board will follow the procedures described in paragraph (b) of this section prior to making such a request. When making the request, the Board will certify in writing to the paying agency that the debtor owes the past due, legally enforceable delinquent debt in the amount stated, and that the Board has fully complied with these regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 267.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.4   Administrative wage garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>The Board may collect debts, or refer debts for collection, from the wages of persons employed outside of the Federal Government by administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D. Prior to such garnishment, the debtor will be provided a hearing in accordance with the procedures described at 31 CFR 285.11(f).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 267.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.5   Salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This section covers government-wide collection of a delinquent debt by administrative offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 from salary payments of federal government employees other than current Board employees.
</P>
<P>(2) This section does not apply where an employee consents to the recovery of a debt from his or her federal government salary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A Federal Government employee from whom the Board proposes to collect a debt under this section will be provided written notice from the Board at least 30 days before any deductions begin. Such notice will state:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board's determination that a debt is owed, including the origin, nature, and amount of that debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's disposable pay (as defined in 5 CFR 550.1103);
</P>
<P>(3) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay), and the Board's intention to continue the deductions until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the Board's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, including a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collections Standards published in 31 CFR parts 900 through 904;
</P>
<P>(5) The employee's right to inspect and copy Government records relating to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records;
</P>
<P>(6) If not previously provided, the opportunity (under terms agreeable to Board) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or to enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset;
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an official arranged by the Board if a petition is filed as prescribed by the Board;
</P>
<P>(8) The method and time period for petitioning for a hearing, including the contact information of the official to whom such a petition should be sent;
</P>
<P>(9) That the timely filing of a petition for a hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(10) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5, United States Code, part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729 through 3731 of title 31, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18, United States Code or any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(12) Any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(13) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, that amounts paid on or deducted for the debt which are later waived or found not owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petitions for hearing</I>—(1) <I>Time to petition.</I> A Federal Government employee from whom the Board proposes to collect a debt under this section may request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the offset schedule established by the Board by sending a written petition addressed to the official designated in the notice described in paragraph (b) of this section on or before the fifteenth day following receipt of such notice. A hearing will be granted on a petition that is not filed within such period only if the petitioner shows that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it). In all other cases of late or non-filing of such a petition, the employee will be deemed to have waived the right to a hearing and will be subject to salary offset under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of petition.</I> The petition must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be signed by the employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) State why the employee believes the Board's determination concerning the existence of amount of the debt is in error;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position.
</P>
<P>(iv) Specify, if the employee desires an oral hearing, why the matter cannot be resolved by a paper hearing, which is a determination based upon a review of a written record, for example, because the existence or amount of the debt depends on the hearing official's determination of the credibility of witnesses.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of hearings</I>—(1) <I>Hearing official.</I> A hearing under this section will be conducted by an administrative law judge or another individual not under the supervision or control of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official must issue a notice to the employee and the Board of the type of hearing that will occur. If an oral hearing will occur, the notice will state the date, time, and location of the hearing. If a paper hearing will occur, the employee and the Board will be notified and required to submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official by the date specified in the notice, after which the record will be closed. The employee's failure to appear for an oral hearing or timely submit evidence and arguments as provided for in the notice will be deemed a waiver of the right to a hearing unless the hearing official determines that the failure was due to good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oral hearing.</I> An employee who requests an oral hearing under this section will be provided such a hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone because an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. Where an oral hearing is appropriate, the hearing need not take the form of an evidentiary hearing, as long as both the employee and the Board are afforded a reasonable opportunity to present their case. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal meetings in which the employee and Board representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing official interviews the employee and Board representative; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions with an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Paper hearing.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the formal written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee or the Board.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision on hearing.</I> Unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings, at the earliest practicable date, but in any event no later than 60 days after the filing of the petition requesting the hearing, the hearing official will issue a written decision to the employee. The decision will state the Board's position concerning the existence and amount of the debt, facts purporting to evidence the nature and origin of the alleged debt, the hearing official's analysis, findings and conclusions, in light of the hearing, as to the employee's and/or Board's grounds, the amount and validity of the debt as determined by the hearing official, and the repayment schedule, if not established by written agreement between the employee and the Board. If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected under this section, but the Board finds that the debt is still valid, the Board may still seek collection of the debt through other means, including but not limited to offset of other Federal payments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deductions under this section.</I> The method of collection under this section is salary offset from disposable pay (as defined in 5 CFR 550.1103), except as described in this paragraph. The size of installment deductions shall ordinarily bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any period under this section may not exceed 15 percent of disposable pay, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount or a higher deduction has been ordered by a court under section 124 of Public Law 97-276 (97 stat. 1195). Ordinarily, debts must be collected in one lump sum where possible. However, if the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay (or other applicable limitation as provided in this paragraph) for an officially established pay interval, collection must be made in installments. Such installment deductions must be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of active duty or employment, as the case may be, except as provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Separating or separated employees.</I> If the employee retires or resigns or if his or her employment or period of active duty ends before collection of the debt is completed, offset may be performed under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from subsequent payments of any nature (<I>e.g.</I> final salary payment, lump-sum leave, etc.) due the employee from the paying agency as of the date of separation to the extent necessary to liquidate the debt. Such offset may also be performed where appropriate against later payments of any kind due the former employee from the United States if the debt cannot be liquidated by offset from any final payment due the former employee as of the date of separation. Nothing in this section shall affect any limitation on alienation of benefits administered by the Federal Reserve System's Office of Employee Benefits.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-waiver and refunds of payments.</I> An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514 must not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary. Any amounts paid or deducted under this section will be promptly refunded when a debt is waived or otherwise found not owing to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulation), or the employee's paying agency is directed by an administrative or judicial order to refund amounts deducted from his or her current pay. Refunds do not bear interest unless required or permitted by law or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 267.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.32.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 267.6   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Except with respect to debts referenced in 31 U.S.C. 3717(g), the Board will charge interest, costs, and a six percent penalty on debts covered by this regulation in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9. The Board will not impose interest charges on the portion of the debt that is paid within 30 days after the date on which interest began to accrue, nor impose penalty charges on the portion of the debt that is paid within 90 days after the date on which penalty began to accrue. The Board will not impose any charges during periods during which collection activity has been suspended pending any review provided for in this part if the reviewing official determines that collection of such charges is against equity and good conscience or is not in the best interest of the United States. The Board may, in its discretion, also waive interest, penalties, and cost charges for good cause shown by the debtor (for example, the debtor is unable to pay any significant portion of the debt within a reasonable period of time, or collection of these charges will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt) or otherwise as authorized in 31 CFR 901.9(g) and 902.2.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="268" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 268—RULES REGARDING EQUAL OPPORTUNITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 244 and 248(i), (k) and (1). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions and Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.1.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.1   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulations in this part (12 CFR part 268) are issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) under the authority of sections 10(4) and 11(i), (k), and (l) of the Federal Reserve Act (partially codified in 12 U.S.C. 244 and 248(i), (k) and (1)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part sets forth the Board's policy, program and procedures for providing equal opportunity to Board employees and applicants for employment without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information. It also sets forth the Board's policy, program and procedures for prohibiting discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27028, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.1.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions contained in this section shall have the following meanings throughout this part unless otherwise stated. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commission or EEOC</I> means the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title VII</I> means title VII of the Civil Rights Act (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Board Program To Promote Equal Opportunity</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.101" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.101   General policy for equal opportunity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It is the policy of the Board to provide equal opportunity in employment for all persons, to prohibit discrimination in employment because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information and to promote the full realization of equal opportunity in employment through a continuing affirmative program.
</P>
<P>(b) No person shall be subject to retaliation for opposing any practice made unlawful by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (title VII) (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.</I>), the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) (29 U.S.C. 621 <I>et seq.</I>), the Equal Pay Act (29 U.S.C. 206(d)), the Rehabilitation Act (29 U.S.C. 791 <I>et seq.</I>), or the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) (42 U.S.C. 2000ff <I>et seq.</I>) or for participating in any stage of administrative or judicial proceedings under those statutes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.102" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.102   Board program for equal employment opportunity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall maintain a continuing affirmative program to promote equal opportunity and to identify and eliminate discriminatory practices and policies. In support of this program, the Board shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide sufficient resources to its equal opportunity program to ensure efficient and successful operation; 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the prompt, fair and impartial processing of complaints in accordance with this part and the instructions contained in the Commission's Management Directives; 
</P>
<P>(3) Conduct a continuing campaign to eradicate every form of prejudice or discrimination from the Board's personnel policies, practices and working conditions; 
</P>
<P>(4) Communicate the Board's equal employment opportunity policy and program and its employment needs to all sources of job candidates without regard to race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age disability, or genetic information, and solicit their recruitment assistance on a continuing basis;
</P>
<P>(5) Review, evaluate and control managerial and supervisory performance in such a manner as to insure a continuing affirmative application and vigorous enforcement of the policy of equal opportunity, and provide orientation, training and advice to managers and supervisors to assure their understanding and implementation of the equal employment opportunity policy and program; 
</P>
<P>(6) Take appropriate disciplinary action against employees who engage in discriminatory practices; 
</P>
<P>(7) Make reasonable accommodation to the religious needs of employees and applicants for employment when those accommodations can be made without undue hardship on the business of the Board; 
</P>
<P>(8) Make reasonable accommodation to the known physical or mental limitations of qualified applicants and employees with a disability unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operations of the Board's program; 
</P>
<P>(9) Provide recognition to employees, supervisors, managers and units demonstrating superior accomplishment in equal employment opportunity; 
</P>
<P>(10) Establish a system for periodically evaluating the effectiveness of the Board's overall equal employment opportunity effort; 
</P>
<P>(11) Provide the maximum feasible opportunity to employees to enhance their skills through on-the-job training, work-study programs and other training measures so that they may perform at their highest potential and advance in accordance with their abilities; 
</P>
<P>(12) Inform its employees and recognized labor organizations of the Board's affirmative equal opportunity policy and program and enlist their cooperation; and 
</P>
<P>(13) Participate at the community level with other employers, with schools and universities and with other public and private groups in cooperative action to improve employment opportunities and community conditions that affect employability. 
</P>
<P>(b) In order to implement its program, the Board shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Develop the plans, procedures and regulations necessary to carry out its program. 
</P>
<P>(2) Establish or make available an alternative dispute resolution program. Such program must be available for both the precomplaint process and the formal complaint process. 
</P>
<P>(3) Appraise its personnel operations at regular intervals to assure their conformity with the Board's program, this part and the instructions contained in the Commission's management directives relating to advice for ensuring compliance with the provisions of title VII, the Equal Pay Act, the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, GINA, and the Rehabilitation Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Designate a Director for Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO Programs Director), EEO Officer(s), and such Special Emphasis Program Managers/Coordinators (<I>e.g.,</I> People with Disabilities Program, Federal Women's Program and Hispanic Employment Program), clerical and administrative support as may be necessary to carry out the functions described in this part in all organizational units of the Board and at all Board installations. The EEO Programs Director shall be under the immediate supervision of the Chair. The EEO Programs Director may also serve as the Director of the Office of Diversity and Inclusion.
</P>
<P>(5) Make written materials available to all employees and applicants informing them of the variety of equal employment opportunity programs and administrative and judicial remedial procedures available to them and prominently post such written materials in all personnel and EEO offices and throughout the workplace. 
</P>
<P>(6) Ensure that full cooperation is provided by all Board employees to EEO Counselors and Board EEO personnel in the processing and resolution of pre-complaint matters and complaints within the Board and that full cooperation is provided to the Commission in the course of appeals, including, granting the Commission routine access to personnel records of the Board when required in connection with an investigation. 
</P>
<P>(7) Publicize to all employees and post at all times the names, business telephone numbers and business addresses of the EEO Counselors (unless the counseling function is centralized, in which case only the telephone number and address need be publicized and posted), a notice of the time limits and necessity of contacting a Counselor before filing a complaint and the telephone numbers and addresses of the EEO Programs Director, EEO Officer(s) and the Special Emphasis Program Managers/Coordinators. 
</P>
<P>(c) The EEO Programs Director shall be responsible for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Advising the Board of Governors with respect to the preparation of national and regional equal employment opportunity plans, procedures, regulations, reports and other matters pertaining to the policy in § 268.101 and the Board's program; 
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluating from time to time the sufficiency of the total Board program for equal employment opportunity and reporting to the Board of Governors with recommendations as to any improvement or correction needed, including remedial or disciplinary action with respect to managerial, supervisory or other employees who have failed in their responsibilities; 
</P>
<P>(3) When authorized by the Board of Governors, making changes in programs and procedures designed to eliminate discriminatory practices and to improve the Board's program for equal employment opportunity; 
</P>
<P>(4) Providing for counseling of aggrieved individuals and for the receipt and processing of individual and class complaints of discrimination; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Assuring that individual complaints are fairly and thoroughly investigated and that final action is taken in a timely manner in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Directives, instructions, forms and other Commission materials referenced in this part may be obtained in accordance with the provisions of 29 CFR 1610.7. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.103" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.103   Complaints of discrimination covered by this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individual and class complaints of employment discrimination and retaliation prohibited by title VII (discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex and national origin), the ADEA (discrimination on the basis of age when the aggrieved person is at least 40 years of age), the Rehabilitation Act (discrimination on the basis of disability), the Equal Pay Act (sex-based wage discrimination), or GINA (discrimination on the basis of genetic information) shall be processed in accordance with this part. Complaints alleging retaliation prohibited by the statutes listed in this paragraph (a) are considered to be complaints of discrimination for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to all Board employees and applicants for employment at the Board, and to all employment policies or practices affecting Board employees or applicants for employment. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to Equal Pay Act complaints of employees whose services are performed within a foreign country or certain United States territories as provided in 29 U.S.C. 213(f). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.104" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.104   Pre-complaint processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Aggrieved persons who believe they have been discriminated against on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, disability, or genetic information must consult a Counselor prior to filing a complaint in order to try to informally resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(1) An aggrieved person must initiate contact with a Counselor within 45 days of the date of the matter alleged to be discriminatory or, in the case of a personnel action, within 45 days of the effective date of the action. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board or the Commission shall extend the 45-day time limit in paragraph (a)(1) of this section when the individual shows that he or she was not notified of the time limits and was not otherwise aware of them, that he or she did not know and reasonably should not have known that the discriminatory matter or personnel action occurred, that despite due diligence he or she was prevented by circumstances beyond his or her control from contacting the counselor within the time limits, or for other reasons considered sufficient by the Board or the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) At the initial counseling session, Counselors must advise individuals in writing of their rights and responsibilities, including the right to request a hearing or an immediate final decision after an investigation by the Board in accordance with § 268.107(f), election rights pursuant to § 268.302, the right to file a notice of intent to sue pursuant to § 268.201(a) and a lawsuit under the ADEA instead of an administrative complaint of age discrimination under this part, the duty to mitigate damages, administrative and court time frames, and that only the claims raised in precomplaint counseling (or issues or claims like or related to issues or claims raised in pre-complaint counseling) may be alleged in a subsequent complaint filed with the Board. Counselors must advise individuals of their duty to keep the Board and the Commission informed of their current address and to serve copies of appeal papers on the Board. The notice required by paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section shall include a notice of the right to file a class complaint. If the aggrieved person informs the Counselor that he or she wishes to file a class complaint, the Counselor shall explain the class complaint procedures and the responsibilities of a class agent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Counselors shall advise aggrieved persons that, where the Board agrees to offer ADR in the particular case, they may choose between participation in the alternative dispute resolution program and the counseling activities provided for in paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Counselors shall conduct counseling activities in accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives. When advised that a complaint has been filed by an aggrieved person, the Counselor shall submit a written report within 15 days to the EEO Programs Director and the aggrieved person concerning the issues discussed and actions taken during counseling. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the aggrieved person agrees to a longer counseling period under paragraph (e) of this section, or the aggrieved person chooses an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Counselor shall conduct the final interview with the aggrieved person within 30 days of the date the aggrieved person contacted the Board's Office of Diversity and Inclusion to request counseling. If the matter has not been resolved, the aggrieved person shall be informed in writing by the Counselor, not later than the thirtieth day after contacting the Counselor, of the right to file a discrimination complaint with the Board. This notice shall inform the complainant of the right to file a discrimination complaint within 15 days of receipt of the notice, of the appropriate official with whom to file a complaint and of the complainant's duty to assure that the Programs Director is informed immediately if the complainant retains counsel or a representative.
</P>
<P>(e) Prior to the end of the 30-day period, the aggrieved person may agree in writing with the Board to postpone the final interview and extend the counseling period for an additional period of no more than 60 days. If the matter has not been resolved before the conclusion of the agreed extension, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued. 
</P>
<P>(f) Where the aggrieved person chooses to participate in an alternative dispute resolution procedure in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the pre-complaint processing period shall be 90 days. If the claim has not been resolved before the 90th day, the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section shall be issued. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Counselor shall not attempt in any way to restrain the aggrieved person from filing a complaint. The Counselor shall not reveal the identity of an aggrieved person who consulted the Counselor, except when authorized to do so by the aggrieved person, or until the Board has received a discrimination complaint under this part from that person involving the same matter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.105" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.105   Individual complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complaint must be filed with the agency that allegedly discriminated against the complainant. 
</P>
<P>(b) A complaint must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice required by § 268.104 (d), (e) or (f). 
</P>
<P>(c) A complaint must contain a signed statement from the person claiming to be aggrieved or that person's attorney. This statement must be sufficiently precise to identify the aggrieved individual and the Board and to describe generally the action(s) or practice(s) that form the basis of the complaint. The complaint must also contain a telephone number and address where the complainant or the representative can be contacted. 
</P>
<P>(d) A complainant may amend a complaint at any time prior to the conclusion of the investigation to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint. After requesting a hearing, a complainant may file a motion with the administrative judge to amend a complaint to include issues or claims like or related to those raised in the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board shall acknowledge receipt of a complaint or an amendment to a complaint in writing and inform the complainant of the date on which the complaint or amendment was filed. The Board shall advise the complainant in the acknowledgment of the EEOC office and its address where a request for a hearing shall be sent. Such acknowledgment shall also advise the complainant that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant has the right to appeal the final action on or dismissal of a complaint; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board is required to conduct an impartial and appropriate investigation of the complaint within 180 days of the filing of the complaint unless the parties agree in writing to extend the time period. When a complaint has been amended, the Board shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.106" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.106   Dismissals of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to a request for a hearing in a case, the Board shall dismiss an entire complaint: 
</P>
<P>(1) That fails to state a claim under § 268.103 or § 268.105(a), or states the same claim that is pending before or has been decided by the Board or the Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) That fails to comply with the applicable time limits contained in §§ 268.104, 268.105 and 268.204(c), unless the Board extends the time limits in accordance with § 268.604(c), or that raises a matter that has not been brought to the attention of a Counselor and is not like or related to a matter that has been brought to the attention of a Counselor; 
</P>
<P>(3) That is the basis of a pending civil action in a United States District Court in which the complainant is a party provided that at least 180 days have passed since the filing of the administrative complaint, or that was the basis of a civil action decided by a United States District Court in which the complainant was a party; 
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) That is moot or alleges that a proposal to take a personnel action, or other preliminary step to taking a personnel action, is discriminatory, unless the complaint alleges that the proposal or preliminary step is retaliatory;
</P>
<P>(6) Where the complainant cannot be located, provided that reasonable efforts have been made to locate the complainant and the complainant has not responded within 15 days to a notice of proposed dismissal sent to his or her last known address; 
</P>
<P>(7) Where the Board has provided the complainant with a written request to provide relevant information or otherwise proceed with the complaint, and the complainant has failed to respond to the request within 15 days of its receipt or the complainant's response does not address the Board's request, provided that the request included a notice of the proposed dismissal. Instead of dismissing for failure to cooperate, the complaint may be adjudicated if sufficient information for that purpose is available; 
</P>
<P>(8) That alleges dissatisfaction with the processing of a previously filed complaint; or 
</P>
<P>(9) Where the Board, strictly applying the criteria set forth in Commission decisions, finds that the complaint is part of a clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process for a purpose other than the prevention and elimination of employment discrimination. A clear pattern of misuse of the EEO process requires: 
</P>
<P>(i) Evidence of multiple complaint filings; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Allegations that are similar or identical, lack specificity or involve matters previously resolved; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Evidence of circumventing other administrative processes, retaliating against the Board's in-house administrative processes or overburdening the EEO complaint system. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where the Board believes that some but not all of the claims in a complaint should be dismissed for the reasons contained in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section, the Board shall notify the complainant in writing of its determination, the rationale for that determination and that those claims will not be investigated, and shall place a copy of the notice in the investigative file. A determination under this paragraph is reviewable by an administrative judge if a hearing is requested on the remainder of the complaint, but is not appealable until final action is taken on the remainder of the complaint. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.107" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.107   Investigation of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigation of complaints filed against the Board shall be conducted by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with instructions contained in Commission Management Directives, the Board shall develop an impartial and appropriate factual record upon which to make findings on the claims raised by the written complaint. An appropriate factual record is one that allows a reasonable fact finder to draw conclusions as to whether discrimination occurred. The Board may use an exchange of letters or memoranda, interrogatories, investigations, fact-finding conferences or any other fact-finding methods that efficiently and thoroughly address the matters at issue. The Board may incorporate alternative dispute resolution techniques into its investigative efforts in order to promote early resolution of complaints. 
</P>
<P>(c) The procedures in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section apply to the investigation of complaints: 
</P>
<P>(1) The complainant, the Board, and any employee of the Board shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the investigator deems necessary. 
</P>
<P>(2) Investigators are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the complainant, or the Board or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits or the attendance of witness(es), the investigator may note in the investigative record that the decisionmaker should, or the Commission on appeal may, in appropriate circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Take such other actions as it deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any investigation will be conducted by investigators with appropriate security clearances. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) The Board shall complete its investigation within 180 days of the date of filing of an individual complaint or within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal pursuant to § 268.106. By written agreement within those time periods, the complainant and the Board may voluntarily extend the time period for not more than an additional 90 days. The Board may unilaterally extend the time period or any period of extension for not more than 30 days where it must sanitize a complaint file that may contain information classified pursuant to Executive Order No. 12356, or successor orders, as secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, provided the Board notifies the complainant of the extension. 
</P>
<P>(2) Confidential supervisory information, as defined in 12 CFR 261.2(c), and other confidential information of the Board may be included in the investigative file by the investigator, the EEO Programs Director, or another appropriate officer of the Board, where such information is relevant to the complaint. Neither the complainant nor the complainant's personal representative may make further disclosure of such information, however, except in compliance with the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information, 12 CFR part 261, and where applicable, the Board's Rules Regarding Access to Personal Information under the Privacy Act of 1974, 12 CFR part 261a. Any party or individual, including an investigator, who requires access to FOMC information must agree to abide by the Program for Security of FOMC Information before being granted access to such information.
</P>
<P>(f) Within 180 days from the filing of the complaint, or where a complaint was amended, within the earlier of 180 days after the last amendment to the complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, within the time period contained in an order from the Office of Federal Operations on an appeal from a dismissal, or within any period of extension provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, the Board shall provide the complainant with a copy of the investigative file, and shall notify the complainant that, within 30 days of receipt of the investigative file, the complainant has the right to request a hearing and decision from an administrative judge or may request an immediate final decision pursuant to § 268.109(b) from the Board. 
</P>
<P>(g) If the Board does not send the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section within the applicable time limits, it shall, within those same time limits, issue a written notice to the complainant informing the complainant that it has been unable to complete its investigation within the time limits required by paragraph (f) and estimating a date by which the investigation will be completed. Further, the notice must explain that if the complainant does not want to wait until the agency completes the investigation, he or she may request a hearing in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section, or file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court in accordance with § 268.406(b). Such notice shall contain information about the hearing procedures.
</P>
<P>(h) Where the complainant has received the notice required in paragraph (f) of this section or at any time after 180 days have elapsed from the filing of the complaint, the complainant may request a hearing by submitting a written request for a hearing directly to the EEOC office indicated in the Board's acknowledgment letter. The complainant shall send a copy of the request for a hearing to the Board's EEO Programs Office. Within 15 days of receipt of the request for a hearing, the Board's EEO Programs Office shall provide a copy of the complaint file to EEOC and, if not previously provided, to the complainant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27029, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.108" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.108   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a complainant requests a hearing, the Commission shall appoint an administrative judge to conduct a hearing in accordance with this section. Upon appointment, the administrative judge shall assume full responsibility for the adjudication of the complaint, including overseeing the development of the record. Any hearing will be conducted by an administrative judge or hearing examiner with appropriate security clearances. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dismissals.</I> Administrative judges may dismiss complaints pursuant to § 268.106, on their own initiative, after notice to the parties, or upon the Board's motion to dismiss a complaint. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offer of resolution.</I> (1) Any time after the filing of the written complaint but not later than the date an administrative judge is appointed to conduct a hearing, the Board may make an offer of resolution to a complainant who is represented by an attorney. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any time after the parties have received notice that an administrative judge has been appointed to conduct a hearing, but not later than 30 days prior to the hearing, the Board may make an offer of resolution to the complainant, whether represented by an attorney or not. 
</P>
<P>(3) The offer of resolution shall be in writing and shall include a notice explaining the possible consequences of failing to accept the offer. The Board's offer, to be effective, must include attorney's fees and costs and must specify any non-monetary relief. With regard to monetary relief, the Board may make a lump sum offer covering all forms of monetary liability, or it may itemize the amounts and types of monetary relief being offered. The complainant shall have 30 days from receipt of the offer of resolution to accept it. If the complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution and the relief awarded in the administrative judge's decision, the Board's final decision, or the Commission's decision on appeal is not more favorable than the offer, then, except where the interest of justice would not be served, the complainant shall not receive payment from the Board of attorney's fees or costs incurred after the expiration of the 30-day acceptance period. An acceptance of an offer must be in writing and will be timely if postmarked or received within the 30-day period. Where a complainant fails to accept an offer of resolution, the Board may make other offers of resolution and either party may seek to negotiate a settlement of the complaint at any time. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discovery.</I> The administrative judge shall notify the parties of the right to seek discovery prior to the hearing and may issue such discovery orders as are appropriate. Unless the parties agree in writing concerning the methods and scope of discovery, the party seeking discovery shall request authorization from the administrative judge prior to commencing discovery. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint, but the administrative judge may limit the quantity and timing of discovery. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conduct of hearing.</I> The Board shall provide for the attendance at a hearing of all employees approved as witnesses by an administrative judge. Attendance at hearings will be limited to persons determined by the administrative judge to have direct knowledge relating to the complaint. Hearings are part of the investigative process and are thus closed to the public. The administrative judge shall have the power to regulate the conduct of a hearing, limit the number of witnesses where testimony would be repetitious, and exclude any person from the hearing for contumacious conduct or misbehavior that obstructs the hearing. The administrative judge shall receive into evidence information or documents relevant to the complaint. Rules of evidence shall not be applied strictly, but the administrative judge shall exclude irrelevant or repetitious evidence. The administrative judge or the Commission may refer to the Disciplinary Committee of the appropriate Bar Association any attorney or, upon reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard, suspend or disqualify from representing complainants or agencies in EEOC hearings any representative who refuses to follow the orders of an administrative judge, or who otherwise engages in improper conduct. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The complainant, the Board and any employee of the Board shall produce such documentary and testimonial evidence as the administrative judge deems necessary. The administrative judge shall serve all orders to produce evidence on both parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative judges are authorized to administer oaths. Statements of witnesses shall be made under oath or affirmation or, alternatively, by written statement under penalty of perjury. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the complainant, or the Board, or its employees fail without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to an order of an administrative judge, or requests for the investigative file, for documents, records, comparative data, statistics, affidavits, or the attendance of witness(es), the administrative judge shall, in appropriate circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(i) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information, or the testimony of the requested witness, would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information or witness; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Take such other actions as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Summary judgement.</I> (1) If a party believes that some or all material facts are not in genuine dispute and there is no genuine issue as to credibility, the party may, at least 15 days prior to the date of the hearing or at such earlier time as required by the administrative judge, file a statement with the administrative judge prior to the hearing setting forth the fact or facts and referring to the parts of the record relied on to support the statement. The statement must demonstrate that there is no genuine issue as to any such material fact. The party shall serve the statement on the opposing party. 
</P>
<P>(2) The opposing party may file an opposition within 15 days of receipt of the statement in paragraph (g)(1) of this section. The opposition may refer to the record in the case to rebut the statement that a fact is not in dispute or may file an affidavit stating that the party cannot, for reasons stated, present facts to oppose the request. After considering the submissions, the administrative judge may order that discovery be permitted on the fact or facts involved, limit the hearing to the issues remaining in dispute, issue a decision without a hearing or make such other ruling as is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the administrative judge determines upon his or her own initiative that some or all facts are not in genuine dispute, he or she may, after giving notice to the parties and providing them an opportunity to respond in writing within 15 calendar days, issue an order limiting the scope of the hearing or issue a decision without holding a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Record of hearing.</I> The hearing shall be recorded and the Board shall arrange and pay for verbatim transcripts. All documents submitted to, and accepted by, the administrative judge at the hearing shall be made part of the record of the hearing. If the Board submits a document that is accepted, it shall furnish a copy of the document to the complainant. If the complainant submits a document that is accepted, the administrative judge shall make the document available to the Board's representative for reproduction. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decisions by administrative judges.</I> Unless the administrative judge makes a written determination that good cause exists for extending the time for issuing a decision, an administrative judge shall issue a decision on the complaint, and shall order appropriate remedies and relief where discrimination is found, within 180 days of receipt by the administrative judge of the complaint file from the Board. The administrative judge shall send copies of the hearing record, including the transcript, and the decision to the parties. If the Board does not issue a final order within 40 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision in accordance with § 268.109(a), then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.109" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.2.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.109   Final action by the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final action by the Board following a decision by an administrative judge.</I> When an EEOC administrative judge has issued a decision under §§ 268.108(b), (g), or (i), the Board shall take final action on the complaint by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and the administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the complainant whether or not the Board will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the complainant's right to appeal to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the Board shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of its appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final action by the Board in all other circumstances.</I> When the Board dismisses an entire complaint under § 268.106, receives a request for an immediate final decision or does not receive a reply to the notice issued under § 268.107(f), the Board shall take final action by issuing a final decision. The final decision shall consist of findings by the Board on the merits of each issue in the complaint, or, as appropriate, the rationale for dismissing any claims in the complaint and, when discrimination is found, appropriate remedies and relief in accordance with subpart F of this part. The Board shall issue the final decision within 60 days of receiving notification that a complainant has requested an immediate decision from the Board, or within 60 days of the end of the 30-day period for the complainant to request a hearing or an immediate final decision where the complainant has not requested either a hearing or a decision. The final action shall contain notice of the right to appeal the final action to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the right to file a civil action in federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final action. The Board may issue a final decision within 30 days after receiving a decision of the Commission pursuant to § 268.405(c) of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Provisions Applicable to Particular Complaints</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.201" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.201   Age Discrimination in Employment Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an alternative to filing a complaint under this part, an aggrieved individual may file a civil action in a United States district court under the ADEA against the agency after giving the Commission not less than 30 days' notice of the intent to file such an action. Such notice must be filed in writing with EEOC, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or by personal delivery or facsimile within 180 days of the occurrence of the alleged unlawful practice.
</P>
<P>(b) The Commission may exempt a position from the provisions of the ADEA if the Commission establishes a maximum age requirement for the position on the basis of a determination that age is a bona fide occupational qualification necessary to the performance of the duties of the position. 
</P>
<P>(c) When an individual has filed an administrative complaint alleging age discrimination, administrative remedies will be considered to be exhausted for purposes of filing a civil action:
</P>
<P>(1) 180 days after the filing of an individual complaint if the Board has not taken final action and the individual has not filed an appeal or 180 days after the filing of a class complaint if the Board has not issued a final decision; 
</P>
<P>(2) After final action on an individual or class complaint if the individual has not filed an appeal; or 
</P>
<P>(3) After the issuance of a final decision by the Commission on an appeal or 180 days after the filing of an appeal, if the Commission has not issued a final decision. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.202" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.202   Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints alleging violations of the Equal Pay Act shall be processed under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.203" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.203   Rehabilitation Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>ADA</I> means title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12101 through 12117), title V of the Americans with Disabilities Act, as amended (42 U.S.C. 12201 through 12213), as it applies to employment, and the regulations of the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission implementing titles I and V of the ADA at 29 CFR part 1630.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>disability</I> means disability as defined under 29 CFR 1630.2(g) through (l).
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>hiring authority that takes disability into account</I> means a hiring authority established under written Board policy that permits the Board to consider disability status during the hiring process.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>personal assistance service provider</I> means an employee or independent contractor whose primary job functions include provision of personal assistance services.
</P>
<P>(5) The term <I>personal assistance services</I> means assistance with performing activities of daily living that an individual would typically perform if he or she did not have a disability, and that is not otherwise required as a reasonable accommodation, including, for example, assistance with removing and putting on clothing, eating, and using the restroom.
</P>
<P>(6) The term <I>Plan</I> means an affirmative action plan for the hiring, placement, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) The term <I>Section 501</I> means section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(9) The term <I>targeted disability</I> means a developmental disability, such as cerebral palsy or autism spectrum disorder; a traumatic brain injury; deafness or serious difficulty hearing, benefiting from, for example, American Sign Language, communication access real-time translation (CART), hearing aids, a cochlear implant and/or other supports; blindness or serious difficulty seeing even when wearing glasses; missing extremities (such as an arm, leg, hand and/or foot); a significant mobility impairment benefiting from, for example, the utilization of a wheelchair; partial or complete paralysis; epilepsy or other seizure disorders; an intellectual disability (formerly described as mental retardation); a significant psychiatric disorder such as bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), or major depression; dwarfism; or a significant disfigurement such as significant disfigurements caused by burns, wounds, accidents, or congenital disorders.
</P>
<P>(10) The term <I>undue hardship</I> has the meaning set forth in 29 CFR part 1630.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondiscrimination.</I> The Board shall not discriminate on the basis of disability in regard to the hiring, advancement or discharge of employees, employee compensation, job training, or other terms, conditions, and privileges of employment. The standards used to determine whether Section 501 has been violated in a complaint alleging employment discrimination under this part shall be the standards applied under the ADA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Model employer.</I> The Board shall be a model employer of individuals with disabilities. The Board shall give full consideration to the hiring, advancement, and retention of qualified individuals with disabilities in its workforce. The Board shall also take affirmative action to promote the recruitment, hiring, and advancement of qualified individuals with disabilities, with the goal of eliminating under-representation of individuals with disabilities in the Board's workforce.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Affirmative action plan.</I> The Board shall adopt and implement a Plan that provides sufficient assurances, procedures, and commitments to provide adequate hiring, placement, and advancement opportunities for individuals with disabilities at all levels of Board employment. The Board's Plan must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disability hiring and advancement program</I>—(i) <I>Recruitment.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that a broad range of individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, will be aware of and be encouraged to apply for job vacancies when eligible. Such steps shall include, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Use of programs and resources that identify job applicants with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, who are eligible to be appointed under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, examples of which could include programs that provide the qualifications necessary for particular positions within the Board to individuals with disabilities, databases of individuals with disabilities who previously applied to the Board but were not hired for the positions they applied for, and training and internship programs that lead directly to employment for individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(B) Establishment and maintenance of contacts (which may include formal agreements) with organizations that specialize in providing assistance to individuals with disabilities, including individuals with targeted disabilities, in securing and maintaining employment, such as American Job Centers, State Vocational Rehabilitation Agencies, the Veterans' Vocational Rehabilitation and Employment Program, Centers for Independent Living, and Employment Network service providers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application process.</I> The Plan shall ensure that the Board has designated sufficient staff to handle any disability-related issues that arise during the application and selection processes, and shall require the Board to provide such individuals with sufficient training, support, and other resources to carry out their responsibilities under this section. Such responsibilities shall include, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensuring that disability-related questions from members of the public regarding the agency's application and selection processes are answered promptly and correctly, including questions about reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and selection processes and questions about how individuals may apply for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account;
</P>
<P>(B) Processing requests for reasonable accommodations needed by job applicants during the application and placement processes, and ensuring that the Board provides such accommodations when required to do so under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630;
</P>
<P>(C) Accepting applications for appointment under hiring authorities that take disability into account, if permitted under written Board policy;
</P>
<P>(D) If an individual has applied for appointment to a particular position under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, determining whether the individual is eligible for appointment under such authority, and, if so, forwarding the individual's application to the relevant hiring officials with an explanation of how and when the individual may be appointed, consistent with all applicable laws; and
</P>
<P>(E) Overseeing any other Board programs designed to increase hiring of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Advancement program.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that current employees with disabilities have sufficient opportunities for advancement. Such steps may include, for example—
</P>
<P>(A) Efforts to ensure that employees with disabilities are informed of and have opportunities to enroll in relevant training, including management training when eligible;
</P>
<P>(B) Development or maintenance of a mentoring program for employees with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(C) Administration of exit interviews that include questions on how the Board could improve the recruitment, hiring, inclusion, and advancement of individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disability anti-harassment policy.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to state specifically in its anti-harassment policy that harassment based on disability is prohibited, and to include in its training materials examples of the types of conduct that would constitute disability-based harassment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reasonable accommodation</I>—(i) <I>Procedures.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, reasonable accommodation procedures that are easy to understand and that, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Explain relevant terms such as “reasonable accommodation,” “disability,” “interactive process,” “qualified,” and “undue hardship,” consistent with applicable statutory and regulatory definitions, using examples where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(B) Explain that reassignment to a vacant position for which an employee is qualified, and not just permission to compete for such position, is a reasonable accommodation, and that the Board must consider providing reassignment to a vacant position as a reasonable accommodation when it determines that no other reasonable accommodation will permit an employee with a disability to perform the essential functions of his or her current position;
</P>
<P>(C) Notify supervisors and other relevant Board employees how and where they are to conduct searches for available vacancies when considering reassignment as a reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(D) Explain that an individual may request a reasonable accommodation orally or in writing at any time, need not fill out any specific form in order for the interactive process to begin, and need not have a particular accommodation in mind before making a request, and that the request may be made to a supervisor or manager in the individual's chain of command, the office designated by the Board to oversee the reasonable accommodation process, any Board employee connected with the application process, or any other individual designated by the Board to accept such requests;
</P>
<P>(E) Include any forms the Board uses in connection with a reasonable accommodation request as attachments, and indicate that such forms are available in alternative formats that are accessible to people with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(F) Describe the Board's process for determining whether to provide a reasonable accommodation, including the interactive process, and provide contact information for the individual or program office from whom requesters will receive a final decision;
</P>
<P>(G) Provide guidance to supervisors on how to recognize requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(H) Require that decision makers communicate, early in the interactive process and periodically throughout the process, with individuals who have requested a reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(I) Explain when the Board may require an individual who requests a reasonable accommodation to provide medical information that is sufficient to explain the nature of the individual's disability, his or her need for reasonable accommodation, and how the requested accommodation, if any, will assist the individual to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of the workplace;
</P>
<P>(J) Explain the Board's right to request relevant supplemental medical information if the information submitted by the requester is insufficient for the purposes specified in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(I) of this section;
</P>
<P>(K) Explain the Board's right to have medical information reviewed by a medical expert of the Board's choosing at the Board's expense;
</P>
<P>(L) Explain the Board's obligation to keep medical information confidential, in accordance with applicable laws and regulations, and the limited circumstances under which such information may be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(M) Designate the maximum amount of time the Board has, absent extenuating circumstances, to either provide a requested accommodation or deny the request, and explain that the time limit begins to run when the accommodation is first requested;
</P>
<P>(N) Explain that the Board will not be expected to adhere to its usual timelines if an individual's health professional fails to provide needed documentation in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(O) Explain that, where a particular reasonable accommodation can be provided in less than the maximum amount of time permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section, failure to provide the accommodation in a prompt manner may result in a violation of the Rehabilitation Act;
</P>
<P>(P) Provide for expedited processing of requests for reasonable accommodations that are needed sooner than the maximum allowable time frame permitted under paragraph (d)(3)(i)(M) of this section;
</P>
<P>(Q) Explain that, when all the facts and circumstances known to the Board make it reasonably likely that an individual will be entitled to a reasonable accommodation, but the accommodation cannot be provided immediately, the Board shall provide an interim accommodation that allows the individual to perform some or all of the essential functions of his or her job, if it is possible to do so without imposing undue hardship on the Board;
</P>
<P>(R) Inform applicants and employees how they may track the processing of requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(S) Explain that, where there is a delay in either processing a request for or providing a reasonable accommodation, the Board must notify the individual of the reason for the delay, including any extenuating circumstances that justify the delay;
</P>
<P>(T) Explain that individuals who have been denied reasonable accommodations have the right to file complaints pursuant to 12 CFR 268.105;
</P>
<P>(U) Encourage the use of voluntary informal dispute resolution processes that individuals may use to obtain prompt reconsideration of denied requests for reasonable accommodation;
</P>
<P>(V) Provide that the Board shall give the requester a notice consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section at the time a request for reasonable accommodation is denied; and
</P>
<P>(W) Provide information on how to access additional information regarding reasonable accommodation, including, at a minimum, Commission guidance and technical assistance documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cost of accommodations.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps to ensure that requests for reasonable accommodation are not denied for reasons of cost, and that individuals with disabilities are not excluded from employment due to the anticipated cost of a reasonable accommodation, if the resources available to the Board as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, would enable it to provide an effective reasonable accommodation without undue hardship. Such steps shall be reasonably designed to, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) Ensure that anyone who is authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware that, pursuant to the regulations implementing the undue hardship defense at 29 CFR part 1630, all resources available to the agency as a whole, excluding those designated by statute for a specific purpose that does not include reasonable accommodation, are considered when determining whether a denial of reasonable accommodation based on cost is lawful; and
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that anyone authorized to grant or deny requests for reasonable accommodation or to make hiring decisions is aware of, and knows how to arrange for the use of, Board resources available to provide the accommodation, including any centralized fund the Board may have for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notification of basis for denial.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to provide a job applicant or employee who is denied a reasonable accommodation with a written notice at the time of the denial, in an accessible format when requested, that—
</P>
<P>(A) Explains the reasons for the denial and notifies the job applicant or employee of any available internal appeal or informal dispute resolution processes;
</P>
<P>(B) Informs the job applicant or employee of the right to challenge the denial by filing a complaint of discrimination under this part;
</P>
<P>(C) Provides instructions on how to file such a complaint; and
</P>
<P>(D) Explains that, pursuant to 12 CFR 268.105, the right to file a complaint will be lost unless the job applicant or employee initiates contact with an EEO Counselor within 45 days of the denial, regardless of whether the applicant or employee participates in an informal dispute resolution process.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accessibility of facilities and technology</I>—(i) <I>Notice of rights.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all employees in written and accessible formats, a notice that—
</P>
<P>(A) Explains their rights under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 794d, concerning the accessibility of agency technology, and the Architectural Barriers Act, 42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157, concerning the accessibility of agency building and facilities;
</P>
<P>(B) Provides contact information for a Board employee who is responsible for ensuring the physical accessibility of the Board's facilities under the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, and a Board employee who is responsible for ensuring that the electronic and information technology purchased, maintained, or used by the agency is readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities, as required by Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provides instructions on how to file complaints alleging violations of the accessibility requirements of the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 and Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assistance with filing complaints at other agencies.</I> If the Board's investigation of a complaint filed under Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 or the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968 shows that a different entity is responsible for the alleged violation, the Plan shall require the Board to inform the individual who filed the complaint where he or she may file a complaint against the other entity, if possible.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Personal assistance services allowing employees to participate in the workplace</I>—(i) <I>Obligation to provide personal assistance services.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to provide an employee with, in addition to professional services required as a reasonable accommodation under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630, personal assistance services during work hours and job-related travel if—
</P>
<P>(A) The employee requires such services because of a targeted disability;
</P>
<P>(B) Provision of such services would, together with any reasonable accommodations required under the standards set forth in 29 CFR part 1630, enable the employee to perform the essential functions of his or her position; and
</P>
<P>(C) Provision of such services would not impose undue hardship on the Board.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Service providers.</I> The Plan shall state that personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section must be performed by a personal assistance service provider. The Plan may permit the Board to require personal assistance service providers to provide personal assistance services to more than one individual. The Plan may also permit the Board to require personal assistance service providers to perform tasks unrelated to personal assistance services, but only to the extent that doing so does not result in failure to provide personal assistance services required under paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No adverse action.</I> The Plan shall prohibit the Board from taking adverse actions against job applicants or employees based on their need for, or perceived need for, personal assistance services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Selection of personal assistance service providers.</I> The Plan shall require the Board, when selecting someone who will provide personal assistance services to a single individual, to give primary consideration to the individual's preferences to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Written procedures.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to adopt, post on its public website, and make available to all job applicants and employees in written and accessible formats, procedures for processing requests for personal assistance services. The Board may satisfy the requirement in this paragraph (d)(5)(v) by stating, in the procedures required under paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, that the process for requesting personal assistance services, the process for determining whether such services are required, and the Board's right to deny such requests when provision of the services would pose an undue hardship, are the same as for reasonable accommodations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Utilization analysis</I>—(i) <I>Current utilization.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to perform a workforce analysis annually to determine the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have disabilities, and the percentage of its employees at each grade and salary level who have targeted disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Source of data.</I> For purposes of the analysis required under paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section an employee may be classified as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on the basis of—
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's self-identification as an individual with a disability or an individual with a targeted disability on a form, including but not limited to the Office of Personnel Management's Standard Form 256, which states that the information collected will be kept confidential and used only for statistical purposes, and that completion of the form is voluntary;
</P>
<P>(B) Records relating to the individual's appointment under a hiring authority that takes disability into account, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) Records relating to the individual's requests for reasonable accommodation, if any.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data accuracy.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to take steps to ensure that data collected pursuant to paragraph (d)(6)(i) of this section are accurate.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Goals</I>—(i) <I>Adoption.</I> The Plan shall commit the Board to the goal of ensuring that—
</P>
<P>(A) No less than 12% of employees who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(B) No less than 12% of employees who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with disabilities;
</P>
<P>(C) No less than 2% of employees who have salaries equal to or greater than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(D) No less than 2% of employees who have salaries less than employees at the GS-11, step 1 level in the Washington, DC locality, are individuals with targeted disabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Progression toward goals.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to take specific steps that are reasonably designed to gradually increase the number of persons with disabilities or targeted disabilities employed at the Board until it meets the goals established pursuant to paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section. Examples of such steps include, but are not limited to—
</P>
<P>(A) Increased use of hiring authorities that take disability into account to hire or promote individuals with disabilities or targeted disabilities, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent permitted by applicable laws, consideration of disability or targeted disability status as a positive factor in hiring, promotion, or assignment decisions;
</P>
<P>(C) Disability-related training and education campaigns for all employees in the Board;
</P>
<P>(D) Additional outreach or recruitment efforts;
</P>
<P>(E) Increased efforts to hire and retain individuals who require supported employment because of a disability, who have retained the services of a job coach at their own expense or at the expense of a third party, and who may be given permission to use the job coach during work hours as a reasonable accommodation without imposing undue hardship on the Board; and
</P>
<P>(F) Adoption of training, mentoring, or internship programs for individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The Plan shall require the Board to keep records that it may use to determine whether it is complying with the nondiscrimination and affirmative action requirements imposed under Section 501, and to make such records available to the Commission upon the Commission's request, including, at a minimum, records of—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of job applications received from individuals with disabilities, and the number of individuals with disabilities who were hired by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of job applications received from individuals with targeted disabilities, and the number of individuals with targeted disabilities who were hired by the Board;
</P>
<P>(iii) All rescissions of conditional job offers, demotions, and terminations taken against applicants or employees as a result of medical examinations or inquiries;
</P>
<P>(iv) All Board employees hired under special hiring authority for person with certain disabilities, and each such employee's date of hire, entering grade level, probationary status, and current grade level;
</P>
<P>(v) The number of employees appointed under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities who successfully completed the Board's Provisional Employment period and the number of such employees who were terminate prior to the end of their Provisional Employment period; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Details about each request for reasonable accommodation including, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(A) The specific reasonable accommodation requested, if any;
</P>
<P>(B) The job sought by the requesting applicant or held by the requesting employee;
</P>
<P>(C) Whether the accommodation was needed to apply for a job, perform the essential functions of a job, or enjoy the benefits and privileges of employment;
</P>
<P>(D) Whether the request was granted (which may include an accommodation different from the one requested) or denied;
</P>
<P>(E) The identity of the deciding official;
</P>
<P>(F) If denied, the basis for such denial; and
</P>
<P>(G) The number of days taken to process the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting</I>—(1) <I>Submission to the Commission.</I> On an annual basis the Board shall submit to the Commission at such time and in such manner as the Commission deems appropriate—
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of its current Plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of the two most recent workforce analyses performed pursuant to paragraph (d)(6) of this section showing the percentage of employees with disabilities and employees with targeted disabilities in each of the designated pay groups;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of individuals appointed to positions within the Board under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities during the previous year, and the total number of employees whose employment at the Board began by appointment under special hiring authority for persons with certain disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of changes made to the Plan since the prior submission, if any, and an explanation of why those changes were made.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability to the public.</I> The Board shall make the information submitted to the Commission pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section available to the public by, at a minimum, posting a copy of the submission on its public website and providing a means by which members of the public may request copies of the submission in accessible formats.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 27030, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.204" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.204   Class complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Class</I> is a group of Board employees, former employees or applicants for employment who, it is alleged, have been or are being adversely affected by a Board personnel management policy or practice that discriminates against the group on the basis of their race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age or disability. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Class complaint</I> is a written complaint of discrimination filed on behalf of a class by the agent of the class alleging that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The class is so numerous that a consolidated complaint of the members of the class is impractical; 
</P>
<P>(ii) There are questions of fact common to the class; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The claims of the agent of the class are typical of the claims of the class; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The agent of the class, or, if represented, the representative, will fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class. 
</P>
<P>(3) An <I>agent of the class</I> is a class member who acts for the class during the processing of the class complaint. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-complaint processing.</I> An employee or applicant who wishes to file a class complaint must seek counseling and be counseled in accordance with § 268.104. A complainant may move for class certification at any reasonable point in the process when it becomes apparent that there are class implications to the claim raised in an individual complaint. If a complainant moves for class certification after completing the counseling process contained in § 268.104, no additional counseling is required. The administrative judge shall deny class certification when the complainant has unduly delayed in moving for certification. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing and presentation of a class complaint.</I> (1) A class complaint must be signed by the agent or representative and must identify the policy or practice adversely affecting the class as well as the specific action or matter affecting the class agent. 
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint must be filed with the Board not later than 15 days after the agent's receipt of the notice of right to file a class complaint. 
</P>
<P>(3) The complaint shall be processed promptly; the parties shall cooperate and shall proceed at all times without undue delay. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceptance or dismissal.</I> (1) Within 30 days of the Board's receipt of a complaint, the Board shall: Designate an agency representative who shall not be one of the individuals referenced in § 268.102(b)(4), and forward the complaint, along with a copy of the Counselor's report and any other information pertaining to timeliness or other relevant circumstances related to the complaint, to the Commission. The Commission shall assign the complaint to an administrative judge or complaints examiner with a proper security clearance when necessary. The administrative judge may require the complainant or the Board to submit additional information relevant to the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) The administrative judge may dismiss the complaint, or any portion, for any of the reasons listed in § 268.106 or because it does not meet the prerequisites of a class complaint under § 268.204(a)(2). 
</P>
<P>(3) If an allegation is not included in the Counselor's report, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to state whether the matter was discussed with the Counselor and, if not, explain why it was not discussed. If the explanation is not satisfactory, the administrative judge shall dismiss the allegation. If the explanation is satisfactory, the administrative judge shall refer the allegation to the Board for further counseling of the agent. After counseling, the allegation shall be consolidated with the class complaint. 
</P>
<P>(4) If an allegation lacks specificity and detail, the administrative judge shall afford the agent 15 days to provide specific and detailed information. The administrative judge shall dismiss the complaint if the agent fails to provide such information within the specified time period. If the information provided contains new allegations outside the scope of the complaint, the administrative judge shall advise the agent how to proceed on an individual or class basis concerning these allegations. 
</P>
<P>(5) The administrative judge shall extend the time limits for filing a complaint and for consulting with a Counselor in accordance with the time limit extension provisions contained in §§ 268.104(a)(2) and 268.604. 
</P>
<P>(6) When appropriate, the administrative judge may decide that a class be divided into subclasses and that each subclass be treated as a class, and the provisions of this section then shall be construed and applied accordingly. 
</P>
<P>(7) The administrative judge shall transmit his or her decision to accept or dismiss a complaint to the Board and the agent. The Board shall take final action by issuing a final order within 40 days of receipt of the hearing record and administrative judge's decision. The final order shall notify the agent whether or not the Board will implement the decision of the administrative judge. If the final order does not implement the decision of the administrative judge, the Board shall simultaneously appeal the administrative judge's decision in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A dismissal of a class complaint shall inform the agent either that the complaint is being filed on that date as an individual complaint of discrimination and will be processed under subpart B or that the complaint is also dismissed as an individual complaint in accordance with § 268.106. In addition, it shall inform the agent of the right to appeal the dismissal of the class complaint to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission or to file a civil action and shall include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification.</I> (1) Within 15 days of receiving notice that the administrative judge has accepted a class complaint or a reasonable time frame specified by the administrative judge, the Board shall use reasonable means, such as delivery, mailing to last known address or distribution, to notify all class members of the acceptance of the class complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such notice shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(i) An identification of the Board as the named agency, its location, and the date of acceptance of the complaint; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the issues accepted as part of the class complaint; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the binding nature of the final decision or resolution of the class complaint on class members; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The name, address and telephone number of the class representative. 
</P>
<P>(f) Obtaining evidence concerning the complaint. (1) The administrative judge shall notify the agent and the Board's representative of the time period that will be allowed both parties to prepare their cases. This time period will include at least 60 days and may be extended by the administrative judge upon the request of either party. Both parties are entitled to reasonable development of evidence on matters relevant to the issues raised in the complaint. Evidence may be developed through interrogatories, depositions, and requests for admissions, stipulations or production of documents. It shall be grounds for objection to producing evidence that the information sought by either party is irrelevant, overburdensome, repetitious, or privileged. 
</P>
<P>(2) If mutual cooperation fails, either party may request the administrative judge to rule on a request to develop evidence. If a party fails without good cause shown to respond fully and in timely fashion to a request made or approved by the administrative judge for documents, records, comparative data, statistics or affidavits, and the information is solely in the control of one party, such failure may, in appropriate circumstances, cause the administrative judge: 
</P>
<P>(i) To draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To consider the matters to which the requested information pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To exclude other evidence offered by the party failing to produce the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(iv) To recommend that a decision be entered in favor of the opposing party; or 
</P>
<P>(v) To take such other actions as the administrative judge deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(3) During the period for development of evidence, the administrative judge may, in his or her discretion, direct that an investigation of facts relevant to the class complaint or any portion be conducted by an agency certified by the Commission. 
</P>
<P>(4) Both parties shall furnish to the administrative judge copies of all materials that they wish to be examined and such other material as may be requested. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Opportunity for resolution of the complaint.</I> (1) The administrative judge shall furnish the agent and the Board's representative a copy of all materials obtained concerning the complaint and provide opportunity for the agent to discuss the materials with the Board's representative and attempt resolution of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) The complaint may be resolved by agreement of the Board and the agent at any time pursuant to the notice and approval procedure contained in paragraph (g)(4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the complaint is resolved, the terms of the resolution shall be reduced to writing and signed by the agent and the Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) Notice of the resolution shall be given to all class members in the same manner as notification of the acceptance of the class complaint and to the administrative judge. It shall state the relief, if any, to be granted by the Board and the name and address of the EEOC administrative judge assigned to the case. It shall state that within 30 days of the date of the notice of resolution, any member of the class may petition the administrative judge to vacate the resolution because it benefits only the class agent, or is otherwise not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole. The administrative judge shall review the notice of resolution and consider any petitions to vacate filed. If the administrative judge finds that the proposed resolution is not fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the administrative judge shall issue a decision vacating the agreement and may replace the original class agent with a petitioner or some other class member who is eligible to be the class agent during further processing of the class complaint. The decision shall inform the former class agent or the petitioner of the right to appeal the decision to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and include EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition. If the administrative judge finds that the resolution is fair, adequate and reasonable to the class as a whole, the resolution shall bind all members of the class. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing.</I> On expiration of the period allowed for preparation of the case, the administrative judge shall set a date for hearing. The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with 12 CFR 268.108(a) through (f). 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Decisions.</I> The administrative judge shall transmit to the agency and class agent a decision on the complaint, including findings, systemic relief for the class and any individual relief, where appropriate, with regard to the personnel action or matter that gave rise to the complaint. If the administrative judge finds no class relief appropriate, he or she shall determine if a finding of individual discrimination is warranted and if so, shall order appropriate relief.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Board final action.</I> (1) Within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision on the complaint, the Board shall take final action by issuing a final order. The final order shall notify the class agent whether or not the Board will fully implement the decision of the administrative judge and shall contain notice of the class agent's right to appeal to the Commission, the right to file a civil action in Federal district court, the name of the proper defendant in any such lawsuit, and the applicable time limits for appeals and lawsuits. If the final order does not fully implement the decision of the administrative judge, then the Board shall simultaneously file an appeal in accordance with § 268.403 and append a copy of the appeal to the final order. A copy of EEOC Form 573 shall be attached to the final order.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board does not issue a final order within 60 days of receipt of the administrative judge's decision, then the decision of the administrative judge shall become the final action of the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) A final order on a class complaint shall, subject to subpart E of this part, be binding on all members of the class and the Board.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notification of final action.</I> The Board shall notify class members of the final action and the relief awarded, if any, through the same media employed to give notice of the existence of the class complaint. The notice, where appropriate, shall include information concerning the rights of class members to seek individual relief, and of the procedures to be followed. Notice shall be given by the Board within 10 days of the transmittal of the final action to the agent.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Relief for individual class members.</I> (1) When discrimination is found, the Board must eliminate or modify the employment policy or practice out of which the complaint arose and provide individual relief, including an award of attorney's fees and costs, to the agent in accordance with § 268.501. 
</P>
<P>(2) When class-wide discrimination is not found, but it is found that the class agent is a victim of discrimination, § 268.501 shall apply. The Board shall also, within 60 days of the issuance of the final decision finding no class-wide discrimination, issue the acknowledgment of receipt of an individual complaint as required by § 268.105(d) and process in accordance with the provisions of subpart B of this part, each individual complaint that was subsumed into the class complaint. 
</P>
<P>(3) When discrimination is found in the final decision and a class member believes that he or she is entitled to individual relief, the class member may file a written claim with the Board or the Board's EEO Programs Director within 30 days of receipt of notification by the Board of its final decision. Administrative judges shall retain jurisdiction over the complaint in order to resolve any disputed claims by class members. The claim must include a specific detailed showing that the claimant is a class member who was affected by the discriminatory policy or practice, and that this discriminatory action took place within the period of time for which class-wide discrimination was found in the final order. Where a finding of discrimination against a class has been made, there shall be a presumption of discrimination as to each member of the class. The Board must show by clear and convincing evidence that any class member is not entitled to relief. The administrative judge may hold a hearing or otherwise supplement the record on a claim filed by a class member. The Board or the Commission may find class-wide discrimination and order remedial action for any policy or practice in existence within 45 days of the agent's initial contact with the Counselor. Relief otherwise consistent with this Part may be ordered for the time the policy or practice was in effect. The Board shall issue a final decision on each such claim within 90 days of filing. Such decision must include a notice of the right to file an appeal or a civil action in accordance with subpart E of this part and the applicable time limits. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.205" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.3.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.205   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Related Processes</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.301" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.4.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.301   Negotiated grievance procedure.</HEAD>
<P>When an employee of the Board, which is not an agency subject to 5 U.S.C. 7121(d), is covered by a negotiated grievance procedure, allegations of discrimination shall be processed as complaints under this part, except that the time limits for processing the complaint contained in § 268.105 and for appeal to the Commission contained in § 268.402 may be held in abeyance during processing of a grievance covering the same matter as the complaint if the Board notifies the complainant in writing that the complaint will be held in abeyance pursuant to this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.302" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.4.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.302   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.401" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.401   Appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A complainant may appeal the Board's final action or dismissal of a complaint. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board may appeal as provided in § 268.109(a). 
</P>
<P>(c) A class agent or the Board may appeal an administrative judge's decision accepting or dismissing all or part of a class complaint; a class agent may appeal the Board's final action or the Board may appeal an administrative judge's decision on a class complaint; a class member may appeal a final decision on a claim for individual relief under a class complaint; and a class member, a class agent or the Board may appeal a final decision on a petition pursuant to § 268.204(g)(4).
</P>
<P>(d) A complainant, agent of the class or individual class claimant may appeal to the Commission the Board's alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement or final decision in accordance with § 268.504. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.402" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.402   Time for appeals to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Appeals described in § 268.401(a) and (c) must be filed within 30 days of receipt of the dismissal, final action or decision. Appeals described in § 268.401(b) must be filed within 40 days of receipt of the hearing file and decision. Where a complainant has notified the Board's EEO Programs Director of alleged noncompliance with a settlement agreement in accordance with § 268.504, the complainant may file an appeal 35 days after service of the allegations of noncompliance, but no later than 30 days after receipt of the Board's determination. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant is represented by an attorney of record, then the 30-day time period provided in paragraph (a) of this section within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the attorney. In all other instances, the time within which to appeal shall be calculated from the receipt of the required document by the complainant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.403" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.403   How to appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The complainant, the Board, agent or individual class claimant (hereinafter appellant) must file an appeal with the Director, Office of Federal Operations, Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, at P.O. Box 77960, Washington, DC 20013, or electronically, or by personal delivery or facsimile. The appellant should use EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition, and should indicate what is being appealed.
</P>
<P>(b) The appellant shall furnish a copy of the appeal to the opposing party at the same time it is filed with the Commission. In or attached to the appeal to the Commission, the appellant must certify the date and method by which service was made on the opposing party. 
</P>
<P>(c) If an appellant does not file an appeal within the time limits of this subpart, the appeal shall be dismissed by the Commission as untimely. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any statement or brief on behalf of a complainant in support of the appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of filing the notice of appeal. Any statement or brief on behalf of the Board in support of its appeal must be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations within 20 days filing the notice of appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in support of an appeal by facsimile transmittal, provided they are no more than 10 pages long. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Board must submit the complaint file to the Office of Federal Operations within 30 days of initial notification that the complainant has filed an appeal or within 30 days of submission of an appeal by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any statement or brief in opposition to an appeal must be submitted to the Commission and served on the opposing party within 30 days of receipt of the statement or brief supporting the appeal, or, if no statement or brief supporting the appeal is filed, within 60 days of receipt of the appeal. The Office of Federal Operations will accept statements or briefs in opposition to an appeal by facsimile provided they are no more than 10 pages long. 
</P>
<P>(g) The Board will submit appeals, complaint files, and other filings to the Commission's Office of Federal Operations in a digital format acceptable to the Commission, absent a showing of good cause why the Board cannot submit digital records. Appellants are encouraged, but not required, to submit digital appeals and supporting documentation to the Commission's Office of Federal Operations in a format acceptable to the Commission.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.404" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.404   Appellate Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall review the complaint file and all written statements and briefs from either party. The Commission may supplement the record by an exchange of letters or memoranda, investigation, remand to the Board or other procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Office of Federal Operations requests information from one or both of the parties to supplement the record, each party providing information shall send a copy of the information to the other party. 
</P>
<P>(c) When either party to an appeal fails without good cause shown to comply with the requirements of this section or to respond fully and in timely fashion to requests for information, the Office of Federal Operations shall, in appropriate circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an adverse inference that the requested information would have reflected unfavorably on the party refusing to provide the requested information; 
</P>
<P>(2) Consider the matters to which the requested information or testimony pertains to be established in favor of the opposing party; 
</P>
<P>(3) Issue a decision fully or partially in favor of the opposing party; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Take such other actions as appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.405" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.405   Decisions on appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue a written decision setting forth its reasons for the decision. The Commission shall dismiss appeals in accordance with §§ 268.106, 268.403(c) and 268.408. The decision shall be based on the preponderance of the evidence. The decision on an appeal from the Board's final action shall be based on a de novo review, except that the review of the factual findings in a decision by an administrative judge issued pursuant to § 268.108(i) shall be based on a substantial evidence standard of review. If the decision contains a finding of discrimination, appropriate remedy(ies) shall be included and, where appropriate, the entitlement to interest, attorney's fees or costs shall be indicated. The decision shall reflect the date of its issuance, inform the complainant of his or her civil action rights, and be transmitted to the complainant and the Board by first class mail.
</P>
<P>(b) The Office of Federal Operations, on behalf of the Commission, shall issue decisions on appeals of decisions to accept or dismiss a class complaint issued pursuant to § 268.204(d)(7) within 90 days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) A decision issued under paragraph (a) of this section is final within the meaning of § 268.406 unless the Board issues a final decision under paragraph (d) of this section or unless a timely request for reconsideration is filed by a party to the case. A party may request reconsideration within 30 days of receipt of a decision of the Commission, which the Commission in its discretion may grant, if the party demonstrates that:
</P>
<P>(1) The appellate decision involved a clearly erroneous interpretation of material fact or law; or
</P>
<P>(2) The decision will have a substantial impact on the policies, practices, or operations of the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board, within 30 days of receiving a decision of the Commission, may issue a final decision based upon that decision, which shall be final within the meaning of § 268.406.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.406" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.406   Civil action: title VII, Age Discrimination in Employment Act and Rehabilitation Act.</HEAD>
<P>A complainant who has filed an individual complaint, an agent who has filed a class complaint or a claimant who has filed a claim for individual relief pursuant to a class complaint is authorized under title VII, the ADEA and the Rehabilitation Act to file a civil action in an appropriate United States District Court: 
</P>
<P>(a) Within 90 days of receipt of the final action on an individual or class complaint if no appeal has been filed; 
</P>
<P>(b) After 180 days from the date of filing an individual or class complaint if an appeal has not been filed and final action has not been taken; 
</P>
<P>(c) Within 90 days of receipt of the Commission's final decision on an appeal; or 
</P>
<P>(d) After 180 days from the date of filing an appeal with the Commission if there has been no final decision by the Commission. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.407" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.407   Civil action: Equal Pay Act.</HEAD>
<P>A complainant is authorized under section 16(b) of the Fair Labor Standards Act (29 U.S.C. 216(b)) to file a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction within two years or, if the violation is willful, three years of the date of the alleged violation of the Equal Pay Act regardless of whether he or she pursued any administrative complaint processing. Recovery of back wages is limited to two years prior to the date of filing suit, or to three years if the violation is deemed willful; liquidated damages in an equal amount may also be awarded. The filing of a complaint or appeal under this part shall not toll the time for filing a civil action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.408" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.5.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.408   Effect of filing a civil action.</HEAD>
<P>Filing a civil action under §§ 268.406 or 268.407 shall terminate Commission processing of the appeal. If private suit is filed subsequent to the filing of an appeal, the parties are requested to notify the Commission in writing. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Remedies and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.501" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.501   Remedies and relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Board, or the Commission, in an individual case of discrimination, finds that an applicant or an employee has been discriminated against, the Board shall provide full relief which shall include the following elements in appropriate circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notification to all employees of the Board in the affected facility of their right to be free of unlawful discrimination and assurance that the particular types of discrimination found will not recur; 
</P>
<P>(2) Commitment that corrective, curative or preventive action will be taken, or measures adopted, to ensure that violations of the law similar to those found unlawful will not recur; 
</P>
<P>(3) An unconditional offer to each identified victim of discrimination of placement in the position the person would have occupied but for the discrimination suffered by that person, or a substantially equivalent position; 
</P>
<P>(4) Payment to each identified victim of discrimination on a make whole basis for any loss of earnings the person may have suffered as a result of the discrimination; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Commitment that the Board shall cease from engaging in the specific unlawful employment practice found in the case. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relief for an applicant.</I> (1)(i) When the Board, or the Commission, finds that an applicant for employment has been discriminated against, the Board shall offer the applicant the position that the applicant would have occupied absent discrimination or, if justified by the circumstances, a substantially equivalent position unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent the discrimination. The offer shall be made in writing. The individual shall have 15 days from receipt of the offer within which to accept or decline the offer. Failure to accept the offer within the 15-day period will be considered a declination of the offer, unless the individual can show that circumstances beyond his or her control prevented a response within the time limit. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the offer is accepted, appointment shall be retroactive to the date the applicant would have been hired. Back pay, computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, shall be awarded from the date the individual would have entered on duty until the date the individual actually enters on duty unless clear and convincing evidence indicates that the applicant would not have been selected even absent discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The individual shall be deemed to have performed service for the Board during this period for all purposes except for meeting service requirements for completion of a required probationary or trial period. 
</P>
<P>(iii) If the offer of employment is declined, the Board shall award the individual a sum equal to the back pay he or she would have received, computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, from the date he or she would have been appointed until the date the offer was declined, subject to the limitation of paragraph (b)(3) of this section. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation. The Board shall inform the applicant, in its offer of employment, of the right to this award in the event the offer is declined. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the Board, or the Commission, finds that discrimination existed at the time the applicant was considered for employment but also finds by clear and convincing evidence that the applicant would not have been hired even absent discrimination, the Board shall nevertheless take all steps necessary to eliminate the discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur. 
</P>
<P>(3) Back pay under this paragraph (b) for complaints under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act may not extend from a date earlier than two years prior to the date on which the complaint was initially filed by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relief for an employee.</I> When the Board, or the Commission, finds that an employee of the Board was discriminated against, the Board shall provide relief, which shall include, but need not be limited to, one or more of the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Nondiscriminatory placement, with back pay computed in the manner prescribed in 5 CFR 550.805, unless clear and convincing evidence contained in the record demonstrates that the personnel action would have been taken even absent the discrimination. Interest on back pay shall be included in the back pay computation where sovereign immunity has been waived. The back pay liability under title VII or the Rehabilitation Act is limited to two years prior to the date the discrimination complaint was filed. 
</P>
<P>(2) If clear and convincing evidence indicates that, although discrimination existed at the time the personnel action was taken, the personnel action would have been taken even absent discrimination, the Board shall nevertheless eliminate any discriminatory practice and ensure it does not recur. 
</P>
<P>(3) Cancellation of an unwarranted personnel action and restoration of the employee. 
</P>
<P>(4) Expunction from the Board's records of any adverse materials relating to the discriminatory employment practice. 
</P>
<P>(5) Full opportunity to participate in the employee benefit denied (<I>e.g.,</I> training, preferential work assignments, overtime scheduling). 
</P>
<P>(d) The Board has the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the complainant has failed to mitigate his or her damages. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Attorney's fees or costs</I>—(1) <I>Awards of attorney's fees or costs.</I> The provisions of this paragraph relating to the award of attorney's fees or costs shall apply to allegations of discrimination prohibited by title VII and the Rehabilitation Act. In a decision or final action, the Board, administrative judge, or Commission may award the applicant or employee or reasonable attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs incurred in the processing of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(i) A finding of discrimination raises a presumption of entitlement to an award of attorney's fees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any award of attorney's fees or costs shall be paid by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Attorney's fees are allowable only for the services of members of the Bar and law clerks, paralegals or law students under the supervision of members of the Bar, except that no award is allowable for the services of any employee of the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Attorney's fees shall be paid for services performed by an attorney after the filing of a written complaint, provided that the attorney provides reasonable notice of representation to the Board, administrative judge or Commission, except that fees are allowable for a reasonable period of time prior to the notification of representation for any services performed in reaching a determination to represent the complainant. The Board is not required to pay attorney's fees for services performed during the pre-complaint process, except that fees are allowable when the Commission affirms on appeal an administrative judge's decision finding discrimination after the Board takes final action by not implementing an administrative judge's decision. Written submissions to the Board that are signed by the representative shall be deemed to constitute notice of representation. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of awards.</I> (i) When the Board, administrative judge or the Commission determines an entitlement to attorney's fees or costs, the complainant's attorney shall submit a verified statement of attorney's fees (including expert witness fees) and other costs, as appropriate, to the Board or administrative judge within 30 days of receipt of the decision and shall submit a copy of the statement to the Board. A statement of attorney's fees and costs shall be accompanied by an affidavit executed by the attorney of record itemizing the attorney's charges for legal services. The Board may respond to a statement of attorney's fees and costs within 30 days of its receipt. The verified statement, accompanying affidavit and any Board response shall be made a part of the complaint file. 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The Board or administrative judge shall issue a decision determining the amount of attorney's fees or costs due within 60 days of receipt of the statement and affidavit. The decision shall include a notice of right to appeal to the EEOC along with EEOC Form 573, Notice of Appeal/Petition and shall include the specific reasons for determining the amount of the award. 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of attorney's fees shall be calculated using the following standards: The starting point shall be the number of hours reasonably expended multiplied by a reasonable hourly rate. There is a strong presumption that this amount represents the reasonable fee. In limited circumstances, this amount may be reduced or increased in consideration of the degree of success, quality of representation, and long delay caused by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(C) The costs that may be awarded are those authorized by 28 U.S.C. 1920 to include: Fees of the reporter for all or any of the stenographic transcript necessarily obtained for use in the case; fees and disbursements for printing and witnesses; and fees for exemplification and copies necessarily obtained for use in the case. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Witness fees shall be awarded in accordance with the provisions of 28 U.S.C. 1821, except that no award shall be made for a Federal employee who is in a duty status when made available as a witness. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.502" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.502   Compliance with final Commission decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Relief ordered in a final Commission decision, if accepted pursuant to § 268.405(c) as a final decision, or not acted upon the Board within the time periods of § 268.405(c), is mandatory and binding on the Board except as provided in this section. Failure to implement ordered relief shall be subject to judicial enforcement as specified in § 268.503(f). 
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, when the Board requests reconsideration and the case involves removal, separation, or a suspension continuing beyond the date of the request for reconsideration, and when the decision orders retroactive restoration, the Board shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified by the Commission, pending the outcome of the Board's request for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(1) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of this paragraph (b) shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds its decision after reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(2) When the Board requests reconsideration, it may delay the payment of any amounts ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the request for reconsideration is resolved. If the Board delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the request to reconsider and the resolution of the request (including under § 268.405(d)) requires the Board to make the payment, then the Board shall pay interest from the date of the original appellate decision until payment is made.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it requests reconsideration that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the Board to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the Board's request. 
</P>
<P>(c) When no request for reconsideration or final decision under § 268.405(d) is filed or when a request for reconsideration is denied, the Board shall provide the relief ordered and there is no further right to delay implementation of the ordered relief. The relief shall be provided in full not later than 120 days after receipt of the final decision unless otherwise ordered in the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27034, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.503" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.503   Enforcement of final EEOC decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Petition for enforcement.</I> A complainant may petition the Commission for enforcement of a decision issued under the Commission's appellate jurisdiction. The petition shall be submitted to the Office of Federal Operations. The petition shall specifically set forth the reasons that lead the complainant to believe that the Board is not complying with the decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance.</I> On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations shall take all necessary action to ascertain whether the Board is implementing the decision of the Commission. If the Board is found not to be in compliance with the decision, efforts shall be undertaken to obtain compliance. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clarification.</I> On behalf of the Commission, the Office of Federal Operations may, on its own motion or in response to a petition for enforcement or in connection with a timely request for reconsideration, issue a clarification of a prior decision. A clarification cannot change the result of a prior decision or enlarge or diminish the relief ordered but may further explain the meaning or intent of the prior decision. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referral to the Commission.</I> Where the Director, Office of Federal Operations, is unable to obtain satisfactory compliance with the final decision, the Director shall submit appropriate findings and recommendations for enforcement to the Commission, or, as directed by the Commission, refer the matter to another appropriate agency. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commission notice to show cause.</I> The Commission may issue a notice to the Chairman of the Board to show cause why there is noncompliance. Such notice may request the Chairman of the Board or a representative to appear before the Commission or to respond to the notice in writing with adequate evidence of compliance or with compelling reasons for noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification to complainant of completion of administrative efforts.</I> Where the Commission has determined that the Board is not complying with a prior decision, or where the Board has failed or refused to submit any required report of compliance, the Commission shall notify the complainant the right to file a civil action for enforcement of the decision pursuant to title VII, the ADEA, the Equal Pay Act or the Rehabilitation Act and to seek judicial review of the Board's refusal to implement the ordered relief pursuant to the Administrative Procedures Act, 5 U.S.C. 701 <I>et seq.,</I> and the mandamus statute, 28 U.S.C. 1361, or to commence <I>de novo</I> proceedings pursuant to the appropriate statutes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.504" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.504   Compliance with settlement agreements and final actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any settlement agreement knowingly and voluntarily agreed to by the parties, reached at any stage of the complaint process, shall be binding on both parties. Final action that has not been the subject of an appeal or a civil action shall be binding on the Board. If the complainant believes that the Board has failed to comply with the terms of a settlement agreement or decision, the complainant shall notify the Board's EEO Programs Director, in writing, of the alleged noncompliance within 30 days of when the complainant knew or should have known of the alleged noncompliance. The complainant may request that the terms of the settlement agreement be specifically implemented or, alternatively, that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall resolve the matter and respond to the complainant, in writing. If the Board has not responded to the complainant, in writing, or if the complainant is not satisfied with the Board's attempt to resolve the matter, the complainant may appeal to the Commission for a determination as to whether the Board has complied with the terms of the settlement agreement or decision. The complainant may file such an appeal 35 days after he or she has served the Board with the allegations of noncompliance, but must file an appeal within 30 days of his or her receipt of the Board's determination. The complainant must serve a copy of the appeal on the Board and the Board may submit a response to the Commission within 30 days of receiving notice of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to rendering its determination, the Commission may request that the parties submit whatever additional information or documentation it deems necessary or may direct that an investigation or hearing on the matter be conducted. If the Commission determines that the Board is not in compliance with a decision or a settlement agreement, and the noncompliance is not attributable to acts or conduct of the complainant, it may order such compliance with the decision or settlement agreement, or, alternatively, for a settlement agreement, it may order that the complaint be reinstated for further processing from the point processing ceased. Allegations that subsequent acts of discrimination violate a settlement agreement shall be processed as separate complaints under § 268.105 or § 268.204, as appropriate, rather than under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27035, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.505" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.6.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.505   Interim relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When the Board appeals and the case involves removal, separation, or suspension continuing beyond the date of the appeal, and when the administrative judge orders retroactive restoration, the Board shall comply with the decision to the extent of the temporary or conditional restoration of the employee to duty status in the position specified in the decision, pending the outcome of the Board appeal. The employee may decline the offer of interim relief. 
</P>
<P>(2) Service under the temporary or conditional restoration provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall be credited toward the completion of a probationary or trial period, eligibility for a within-grade increase, or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure, if the Commission upholds the decision on appeal. Such service shall not be credited toward the completion of any applicable probationary or trial period or the completion of the service requirement for career tenure if the Commission reverses the decision on appeal. 
</P>
<P>(3) When the Board appeals, it may delay the payment of any amount, other than prospective pay and benefits, ordered to be paid to the complainant until after the appeal is resolved. If the Board delays payment of any amount pending the outcome of the appeal and the resolution of the appeal requires the Board to make the payment, then the Board shall pay interest from the date of the original decision until payment is made.
</P>
<P>(4) The Board shall notify the Commission and the employee in writing at the same time it appeals that the relief it provides is temporary or conditional and, if applicable, that it will delay the payment of any amounts owed but will pay interest as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. Failure of the Board to provide notification will result in the dismissal of the Board's appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) The Board may, by notice to the complainant, decline to return the complainant to his or her place of employment if it determines that the return or presence of the complainant will be unduly disruptive to the work environment. However, prospective pay and benefits must be provided. The determination not to return the complainant to his or her place of employment is not reviewable. A grant of interim relief does not insulate a complainant from subsequent disciplinary or adverse action.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Board files an appeal and has not provided required interim relief, the complainant may request dismissal of the Board's appeal. Any such request must be filed with the Office of Federal Operations within 25 days of the date of service of the Board's appeal. A copy of the request must be served on the Board at the same time it is filed with EEOC. The Board may respond with evidence and argument to the complainant's request to dismiss within 15 days of the date of service of the request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Matters of General Applicability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.601" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.601   EEO group statistics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall establish a system to collect and maintain accurate employment information on the race, national origin, sex and disability(ies) of its employees.
</P>
<P>(b) Data on race, national origin and sex shall be collected by voluntary self-identification. If an employee does not voluntarily provide the requested information, the Board shall advise the employee of the importance of the data and of the Board's obligation to report it. If the employee still refuses to provide the information, the Board must make a visual identification and inform the employee of the data it will be reporting. If the Board believes that information provided by an employee is inaccurate, the Board shall advise the employee about the solely statistical purpose for which the data is being collected, the need for accuracy, the Board's recognition of the sensitivity of the information and the existence of procedures to prevent its unauthorized disclosure. If, thereafter, the employee declines to change the apparently inaccurate self identification, the Board must accept it.
</P>
<P>(c) Subject to applicable law, the information collected under paragraph (b) of this section shall be disclosed only in the form of gross statistics. The Board shall not collect or maintain any information on the race, national origin or sex of individual employees except in accordance with applicable law and when an automated data processing system is used in accordance with standards and requirements prescribed by the Commission to insure individual privacy and the separation of that information from personnel records.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board's system is subject to the following controls:
</P>
<P>(1) Only those categories of race and national origin prescribed by the Commission may be used;
</P>
<P>(2) Only the specific procedures for the collection and maintenance of data that are prescribed or approved by the Commission may be used.
</P>
<P>(e) The Board may use the data only in studies and analyses which contribute affirmatively to achieving the objectives of the Board's equal employment opportunity program. The Board shall not establish a quota for the employment of persons on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(f) Data on disabilities shall also be collected by voluntary self-identification. If an employee does not voluntarily provide the requested information, the Board shall advise the employee of the importance of the data and of the Board's obligation to report it. If an employee who has been appointed pursuant to a special Board program for hiring individuals with a disability still refuses to provide the requested information, the Board must identify the employee's disability based upon the records supporting the appointment. If any other employee still refuses to provide the requested information or provides information that the Board believes to be inaccurate, the Board should report the employee's disability status as unknown.
</P>
<P>(g) The Board shall report to the Commission on employment by race, national origin, sex and disability in the form and at such times as the Board and Commission shall agree.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.602" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.602   Reports to the Commission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall report to the Commission information concerning pre-complaint counseling and the status, processing, and disposition of complaints under this part at such times and in such manner as the Board and Commission shall agree.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall advise the Commission whenever it is served with a Federal court complaint based upon a complaint that is pending on appeal at the Commission.
</P>
<P>(c) The Board shall submit annually for the review and approval of the Commission written equal employment opportunity plans of action. Plans shall be submitted in the format prescribed by the Commission and shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Provision for the establishment of training and education programs designed to provide maximum opportunity for employees to advance so as to perform at their highest potential;
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the qualifications, in terms of training and experience relating to equal employment opportunity, of the principal and operating officials concerned with administration of the Board's equal employment opportunity program; and
</P>
<P>(3) Description of the allocation of personnel and resources proposed by the Board to carry out its equal employment opportunity program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.603" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.603   Voluntary settlement attempts.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall make reasonable efforts to voluntarily settle complaints of discrimination as early as possible in, and throughout, the administrative processing of complaints, including the pre-complaint counseling stage. Any settlement reached shall be in writing and signed by both parties and shall identify the claims resolved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.604" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.604   Filing and computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All time periods in this part that are stated in terms of days are calendar days unless otherwise stated.
</P>
<P>(b) A document shall be deemed timely if it is received or postmarked before the expiration of the applicable filing period, or, in the absence of a legible postmark, if it is received by mail within five days of the expiration of the applicable filing period.
</P>
<P>(c) The time limits in this part are subject to waiver, estoppel and equitable tolling.
</P>
<P>(d) The first day counted shall be the day after the event from which the time period begins to run and the last day of the period shall be included, unless it falls on a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, in which case the period shall be extended to include the next business day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.605" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.605   Representation and official time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any stage in the processing of a complaint, including the counseling stage under § 268.104, the complainant shall have the right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative of complainant's choice.
</P>
<P>(b) If the complainant is an employee of the Board, he or she shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and to respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. If the complainant is an employee of the Board and he designates another employee of the Board as his or her representative, the representative shall have a reasonable amount of official time, if otherwise on duty, to prepare the complaint and respond to Board and EEOC requests for information. The Board is not obligated to change work schedules, incur overtime wages, or pay travel expenses to facilitate the choice of a specific representative or to allow the complainant and representative to confer. The complainant and the representative, if employed by the Board and otherwise in a pay status, shall be on official time, regardless of their tour of duty, when their presence is authorized or required by the Board or the Commission during the investigation, informal adjustment, or hearing on the complaint.
</P>
<P>(c) In cases where the representation of a complainant or the Board would conflict with the official or collateral duties of the representative, the Commission or the Board may, after giving the representative an opportunity to respond, disqualify the representative.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the complainant states otherwise in writing, after the Board has received written notice of the name, address and telephone number of a representative for the complainant, all official correspondence shall be with the representative with copies to the complainant. When the complainant designates an attorney as representative, service of all official correspondence shall be made on the attorney and the complainant, but time frames for receipt of material shall be computed from the time of receipt by the attorney. The complainant must serve all official correspondence on the designated representative of the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) The complainant shall at all times be responsible for proceeding with the complaint whether or not he or she has designated a representative.
</P>
<P>(f) Witnesses who are Board employees shall be in a duty status when their presence is authorized or required by Commission or Board officials in connection with a complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.606" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.606   Joint processing and consolidation of complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Complaints of discrimination filed by two or more complainants consisting of substantially similar allegations of discrimination or relating to the same matter may be consolidated by the Board or the Commission for joint processing after appropriate notification to the parties. Two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant shall be consolidated by the Board for joint processing after appropriate notification to the complainant. When a complaint has been consolidated with one or more earlier filed complaints, the Board shall complete its investigation within the earlier of 180 days after the filing of the last complaint or 360 days after the filing of the original complaint, except that the complainant may request a hearing from an administrative judge on the consolidated complaints any time after 180 days from the date of the first filed complaint. Administrative judges or the Commission may, in their discretion, consolidate two or more complaints of discrimination filed by the same complainant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.607" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.7.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.607   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Governors may delegate authority under this part, to one or more designees.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Prohibition Against Discrimination in Board Programs and Activities Because of Physical or Mental Disability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.701" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.701   Purpose and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart H is to prohibit discrimination on the basis of a disability in programs or activities conducted by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> (1) This subpart H applies to all programs and activities conducted by the Board. Such programs and activities include:
</P>
<P>(i) Holding open meetings of the Board or other meetings or public hearings at the Board's office in Washington, DC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Responding to inquiries, filing complaints, or applying for employment at the Board's office;
</P>
<P>(iii) Making available the Board's library facilities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other lawful interaction with the Board or its staff in any official matter with people who are not employees of the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart H does not apply to Federal Reserve Banks or to financial institutions or other companies supervised or regulated by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.702" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.702   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Board. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the Board's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Board of the nature and date of the alleged violation. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Person with a disability</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(1) Physical or mental impairment includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one of more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term physical or mental impairment includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) Major life activities includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working.
</P>
<P>(3) Has a record of such an impairment means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Is regarded as having an impairment means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Board as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section but is treated by Board as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualified person with a disability</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any Board program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a person with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the Board can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, a person with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) Qualified individual with a disability is defined for purposes of employment in § 268.203 of this part, which is made applicable to this subpart by § 268.705.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.703" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.703   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Board shall make available to employees, applicants for employment, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this subpart and its applicability to the programs and activities conducted by the Board, and make this information available to them in such manner as the Board finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.704" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.704   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of a disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination in any program or activity conducted by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Board, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of a disability: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with a disability with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with a disability or to any class of individuals with a disability than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with a disability with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with a disability in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board may not deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration, the purpose or effect of which would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with a disability. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with a disability from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Board; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives or a program or activity with respect to individuals with a disability. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Board, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability. 
</P>
<P>(6) The Board may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability, nor may the Board establish requirements for the programs and activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with a disability to discrimination on the basis of a disability. However, the programs and activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the Board are not, themselves, covered by this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of individuals who do not have a disability from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Board order to individuals with a disability or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with a disability from a program limited by Federal statute or Board order to a different class of individuals with a disability is not prohibited by this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Board shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with a disability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.705" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.705   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of a disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Board. The definitions, requirements and procedures of § 268.203 of this part shall apply to discrimination in employment in federally conducted programs or activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.706" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.706   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 268.707 of this subpart, no qualified individual with a disability shall, because the Board's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with a disability, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.707" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.707   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Board shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. This paragraph (a) does not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the Board to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the Board to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where the Board believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Board has the burden of proving that compliance with this paragraph (a) would result in such alterations or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alterations or burdens shall be made by the Board of Governors or their designee after considering all Board resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Board shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with a disability receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The Board may comply with the requirements of this subpart H through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to individuals with a disability, home visits, delivery of service at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. The Board is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Board shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with a disability in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The Board shall comply with any obligations established under this section as expeditiously as possible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.708" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.708   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Board shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with a disability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.709" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.709   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Board shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with a disability. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Board communicates with employees and others by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the Board to take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where the Board believes that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the Board has the burden of proving that compliance with section 268.709 would result in such alterations or burdens. The determination that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the Board of Governors or their designee after considering all Board resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Board shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with a disability receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 268.710" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.33.8.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 268.710   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section, rather than subpart B and § 268.203 of this part, applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of a disability in programs or activities conducted by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment complaints.</I> The Board shall process complaints alleging discrimination in employment on the basis of a disability in accordance with subparts A through G of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsible official.</I> The Office of Diversity and Inclusion Programs Director (“Programs Director”) shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing the complaint</I>—(1) <I>Who may file.</I> Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this subpart may, personally or by his or her authorized representative, file a complaint of discrimination with the Programs Director. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidentiality.</I> The Programs Director shall not reveal the identity of any person submitting a complaint, except when authorized to do so in writing by the complainant, and except to the extent necessary to carry out the purposes of this subpart , including the conduct of any investigation, hearing, or proceeding under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>When to file.</I> Complaints shall be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The Programs Director may extend this time limit for good cause shown. For the purpose of determining when a complaint is timely filed under this paragraph (d), a complaint mailed to the Board shall be deemed filed on the date it is postmarked. Any other complaint shall be deemed filed on the date it is received by the Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>How to file.</I> Complaints may be delivered or mailed to the Administrative Governor, the Chief Operating Officer, the Programs Director, the Federal Women's Program Manager, the Hispanic Employment Program Coordinator, or the People with Disabilities Program Coordinator. Complaints should be sent to the Programs Director, Office of Diversity and Inclusion, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 20th and C Street NW, Washington, DC 20551. If any Board official other than the Programs Director receives a complaint, he or she shall forward the complaint to the Programs Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acceptance of complaint.</I> (1) The Programs Director shall accept a complete complaint that is filed in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and over which the Board has jurisdiction. The Programs Director shall notify the complainant of receipt and acceptance of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Programs Director receives a complaint that is not complete, he or she shall notify the complainant, within 30 days of receipt of the incomplete complaint, that additional information is needed. If the complainant fails to complete the complaint within 30 days of receipt of this notice, the Programs Director shall dismiss the complaint without prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the Programs Director receives a complaint over which the Board does not have jurisdiction, the Programs Director shall notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investigation/conciliation.</I> (1) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint, the Programs Director shall complete the investigation of the complaint, attempt informal resolution of the complaint, and if no informal resolution is achieved, the Programs Director shall forward the investigative report to the Chief Operating Officer. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Programs Director may request Board employees to cooperate in the investigation and attempted resolution of complaints. Employees who are requested by the Programs Director to participate in any investigation under this section shall do so as part of their official duties and during the course of regular duty hours. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Programs Director shall furnish the complainant with a copy of the investigative report promptly after completion of the investigation and provide the complainant with an opportunity for informal resolution of the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a complaint is resolved informally, the terms of the agreement shall be reduced to writing and made a part of the complaint file, with a copy of the agreement provided to the complainant. The written agreement may include a finding on the issue of discrimination and shall describe any corrective action to which the complainant has agreed. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Letter of findings.</I> (1) If an informal resolution of the complaint is not reached, the Programs Director shall transmit the complaint file to the Chief Operating Officer. The Chief Operating Officer shall, within 180 days of the receipt of the complete complaint by the Programs Director, notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter sent by certified mail, return receipt requested, containing: 
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of a remedy for each violation found; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice of right of the complainant to appeal the letter of findings under paragraph (k) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) A notice of right of the complainant to request a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the complainant does not file a notice of appeal or does not request a hearing within the times prescribed in paragraph (h)(1) and (j)(1) of this section, the Programs Director shall certify that the letter of findings under this paragraph (g) is the final decision of the Board at the expiration of those times. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Filing an appeal.</I> (1) Notice of appeal, with or without a request for hearing, shall be filed by the complainant with the Programs Director within 30 days of receipt from the Chief Operating Officer of the letter of findings required by paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the complainant does not request a hearing, the Programs Director shall notify the Board of Governors of the appeal by the complainant and that a decision must be made under paragraph (k) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Acceptance of appeal.</I> The Programs Director shall accept and process any timely appeal. A complainant may appeal to the Administrative Governor from a decision by the Programs Director that an appeal is untimely. This appeal shall be filed within 15 calendar days of receipt of the decision from the Programs Director. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Hearing.</I> (1) Notice of a request for a hearing, with or without a request for an appeal, shall be filed by the complainant with the Programs Director within 30 days of receipt from the Chief Operating Officer of the letter of findings required by paragraph (g) of this section. Upon a timely request for a hearing, the Programs Director shall request that the Board of Governors, or its designee, appoint an administrative law judge to conduct the hearing. The administrative law judge shall issue a notice to the complainant and the Board specifying the date, time, and place of the scheduled hearing. The hearing shall be commenced no earlier than 15 calendar days after the notice is issued and no later than 60 days after the request for a hearing is filed, unless all parties agree to a different date. 
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing, decision, and any administrative review thereof shall be conducted in conformity with 5 U.S.C. 554-557. The administrative law judge shall have the duty to conduct a fair hearing, to take all necessary actions to avoid delay, and to maintain order. He or she shall have all powers necessary to these ends, including (but not limited to) the power to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Arrange and change the dates, times, and places of hearings and prehearing conferences and to issue notice thereof; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Hold conferences to settle, simplify, or determine the issues in a hearing, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Require parties to state their positions in writing with respect to the various issues in the hearing and to exchange such statements with all other parties; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Examine witnesses and direct witnesses to testify; 
</P>
<P>(v) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Rule on procedural items pending before him or her; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Take any action permitted to the administrative law judge as authorized by this subpart G or by the provisions of the Administrative Procedures Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557). 
</P>
<P>(3) Technical rules of evidence shall not apply to hearings conducted pursuant to this paragraph (j), but rules or principles designed to assure production of credible evidence and to subject testimony to cross-examination shall be applied by the administrative law judge wherever reasonably necessary. The administrative law judge may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence. All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record shall be open to examination by the parties, and opportunity shall be given to refute facts and arguments advanced on either side of the issues. A transcript shall be made of the oral evidence except to the extent the substance thereof is stipulated for the record. All decisions shall be based upon the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(4) The costs and expenses for the conduct of a hearing shall be allocated as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) Employees of the Board shall, upon the request of the administrative law judge, be made available to participate in the hearing and shall be on official duty status for this purpose. They shall not receive witness fees. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Employees of other Federal agencies called to testify at a hearing, at the request of the administrative law judge and with the approval of the employing agency, shall be on official duty status during any absence from normal duties caused by their testimony, and shall not receive witness fees. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The fees and expenses of other persons called to testify at a hearing shall be paid by the party requesting their appearance. 
</P>
<P>(iv) The administrative law judge may require the Board to pay travel expenses necessary for the complainant to attend the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(v) The Board shall pay the required expenses and charges for the administrative law judge and court reporter. 
</P>
<P>(vi) All other expenses shall be paid by the parties incurring them. 
</P>
<P>(5) The administrative law judge shall submit in writing recommended findings of fact, conclusions of law, and remedies to the complainant and the Programs Director within 30 days, after the receipt of the hearing transcripts, or within 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing if no transcripts are made. This time limit may be extended with the permission of the Programs Director. 
</P>
<P>(6) Within 15 calendar days after receipt of the recommended decision of the administrative law judge, the complainant may file exceptions to the recommended decision with the Programs Director. On behalf of the Board, the Programs Director may, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the recommended decision of the administrative law judge, take exception to the recommended decision of the administrative law judge and shall notify the complainant in writing of the Board's exception. Thereafter, the complainant shall have 10 calendar days to file reply exceptions with the Programs Director. The Programs Director shall retain copies of the exceptions and replies to the Board's exception for consideration by the Board. After the expiration of the time to reply, the recommended decision shall be ripe for a decision under paragraph (k) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Decision.</I> (1) The Programs Director shall notify the Board of Governors when a complaint is ripe for decision under this paragraph (k). At the request of any member of the Board of Governors made within 3 business days of such notice, the Board of Governors shall make the decision on the complaint. If no such request is made, the Administrative Governor, or the Chief Operating Officer if he or she is delegated the authority to do so, shall make the decision on the complaint. The decision shall be made based on information in the investigative record and, if a hearing is held, on the hearing record. The decision shall be made within 60 days of the receipt by the Programs Director of the notice of appeal and investigative record pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section or 60 days following the end of the period for filing reply exceptions set forth in paragraph (j)(6) of this section, whichever is applicable. If the decision-maker under this paragraph (k) determines that additional information is needed from any party, the decision-maker shall request the information and provide the other party or parties an opportunity to respond to that information. The decision-maker shall have 60 days from receipt of the additional information to render the decision on the appeal. The decision-maker shall transmit the decision by letter to all parties. The decision shall set forth the findings, any remedial actions required, and the reasons for the decision. If the decision is based on a hearing record, the decision-maker shall consider the recommended decision of the administrative law judge and render a final decision based on the entire record. The decision-maker may also remand the hearing record to the administrative law judge for a fuller development of the record. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Board shall take any action required under the terms of the decision promptly. The decision-maker may require periodic compliance reports specifying: 
</P>
<P>(i) The manner in which compliance with the provisions of the decision has been achieved; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons any action required by the final Board decision has not been taken; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The steps being taken to ensure full compliance. 
</P>
<P>(3) The decision-maker may retain responsibility for resolving disputes that arise between parties over interpretation of the final Board decision, or for specific adjudicatory decisions arising out of implementation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 18085, Apr. 15, 2003, as amended at 84 FR 27035, June 11, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="269" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 269—POLICY ON LABOR RELATIONS FOR THE FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261; 12 U.S.C. 248.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>48 FR 32331, July 15, 1983, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 269.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.1   Definition of a labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>When used in this part, the term <I>labor organization</I> means any lawful organization of any kind, or any employee representation group, which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with any Federal Reserve Bank concerning grievances, personnel policies and practices, or other matters affecting the working conditions of its employees, but the term shall not include any organization:
</P>
<P>(a) Which asserts the right to strike against the government of the United States, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or any Federal Reserve Bank, or to assist or participate in any such strike, or which imposes a duty or obligation to conduct, assist or participate in any such strike; or 
</P>
<P>(b) Which fails to agree to refrain from seeking or accepting support from any organization which employs coercive tactics affecting any Federal Reserve Bank's operations; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Which advocates the overthrow of the constitutional form of the government of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(d) Which discriminates with regard to the terms or conditions of membership because of race, color, sex, creed, age or national origin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.2   Membership in a labor organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee of a Federal Reserve Bank (hereinafter referred to as “Bank”) is free to join and assist any existing labor organization or to participate in the formation of a new labor organization, or to refrain from any such activities except that officers and their administrative or confidential assistants, managers and other supervisory personnel, secretaries to all such persons and all employees engaged in Bank personnel work shall not be represented by any labor organization.
</P>
<P>(b) The rights described in paragraph (a) of this section for employees do not extend to participation in the management of a labor organization, or acting as a representative of any such organization, where such participation or activity would conflict with law or the duties of an employee.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding anything stated in paragraph (a) of this section, professional employees of a Bank shall not be represented by a labor organization which represents other employees of the Bank unless a majority of the professional employees eligible to vote specifically elect to be represented by such labor organization. However, the professional employees of a Bank may, if they so choose, be represented by a separate labor organization of their own, or by no labor organization at all.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding anything stated in paragraph (a) of this section, the guards of a Bank shall not be members of a labor organization which represents other categories of employees of the Bank. However, the guards of a Bank may, if they so choose, be represented by a separate labor organization of their own, or by no labor organization at all.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.3   Recognition of a labor organization and its relationship to a Federal Reserve Bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any labor organization shall be recognized as the exclusive bargaining representative of the employees in an appropriate unit of a Bank when that organization has been selected by the employees in said unit pursuant to the procedure set forth in § 269.5. A unit may be established in a Bank on any basis which will ensure a clear and identifiable community of interest among the employees concerned, and will promote effective relationships and the efficiency of the Bank's operations, but no unit shall be established solely on the basis of the extent to which a labor organization or employees in the proposed unit may have sought organization.
</P>
<P>(b) When a labor organization has been recognized as the exclusive representative of employees in an appropriate unit, it shall be entitled to act for and to negotiate agreements in good faith covering all employees in the unit, and it shall be responsible for representing the interests of all such employees without discrimination and without regard to whether they are members of that labor organization or not, provided that nothing in this Policy shall prevent an employee from adjusting his or her grievance without the intervention of the recognized labor organization. The labor organization shall be given notice of the adjustment and a reasonable opportunity to object on the sole ground that it is in conflict with the terms of the collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) A Bank, through appropriate officials, shall have the obligation to meet at reasonable times with representatives of a recognized labor organization to negotiate, in good faith, with respect to personnel policies and practices affecting working conditions for employees, provided that they do not involve matters in any of the following areas:
</P>
<P>(1) The purposes and functions of the Bank; the compensation of and hours worked by employees; any classification system used to evaluate positions; the budget of the Bank; the retirement system; any insurance or other benefit plans; internal security operations; maintenance of the efficiency of Bank operations including the determination of work methods; the right to contract out; the determination as to manpower requirements; use of technology and organization of work; and action to meet emergency situations;
</P>
<P>(2) Management rights as to the direction of employees, including hiring, promotion, transfer, classification, assignment, layoffs, retention, suspension, demotion, discipline and discharge, provided that on matters involving the procedures to be followed by a Bank for the exercise of its rights under this subparagraph, a Bank shall, upon request, discuss such procedures with a recognized labor organization, but shall not be required to negotiate for an agreement as to them;
</P>
<P>(3) All Bank matters specifically governed by applicable laws or regulations.
</P>
<FP>The obligation under this paragraph to negotiate with regard to certain matters shall include the execution of a written contract incorporating any agreement reached, but does not compel either a Bank or a labor organization to agree to a particular proposal or to make any concession during such negotiations.
</FP>
<P>(d) At the time it requests an election to be held, any labor organization seeking recognition shall submit to a Bank a roster of its officers and representatives, a copy of its constitution and bylaws, and a statement of its objectives.
</P>
<P>(e) Subject to the provisions of § 269.8, the exclusive recognition of a labor organization shall not preclude any employee, regardless of labor organization membership, from bringing matters of personal concern not governed by a collective bargaining agreement to the attention of appropriate officers, managers or supervisory personnel in accordance with applicable law, rule, regulation, or established Bank policy, or from choosing his or her own representative in such matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.4   Determination of appropriate bargaining unit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a labor organization asserts in writing to a Bank that it holds cards requesting a representation election signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in a unit which that organization considers to be an appropriate bargaining unit, the labor organization and the Bank shall each designate a representative who together shall request the American Arbitration Association (hereinafter referred to as “Association”) to submit to them from its National Panel of Professional Labor Arbitrators a list of seven (7) impartial, qualified professional arbitrators. The two designated representatives shall meet promptly and, by alternately striking names from the list, arrive at the remaining person who, together with the two representatives, shall constitute a Special Tribunal to rule on the labor organization's request for an election. The impartial arbitrator shall always act as the Chairperson of any Special Tribunal duly constituted under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of an agreement between the labor organization and the Bank on the appropriate unit, the Tribunal shall investigate the facts, hold hearings if necessary, and issue a decision as to the appropriateness of the unit for the purposes of conducting a representation election for exclusive recognition and as to related issues submitted for consideration. The expenses for this proceeding, including the fees of the association and of the arbitrator, shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank. If either the Bank or the labor organization should disagree with the Special Tribunal's decision, the party in disagreement may appeal within thirty (30) calendar days to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel referred to in § 269.11, and the decision of the System Panel shall be final and binding on the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) If there is any dispute as to whether a labor organization holds cards signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in a unit claimed by a labor organization as appropriate or subsequently determined by the Special Tribunal as appropriate, the dispute shall be resolved by the Chairperson of the Special Tribunal, acting as a single impartial arbitrator. The expenses of such procedure, including the impartial arbitrator's fee, shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank. The decision of the Chairperson of the Special Tribunal shall be final and binding and shall not be subject to appeal to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.5   Elections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once there has been a final determination of the existence of an appropriate bargaining unit under the procedure in § 269.4, and a showing by a labor organization that it has cards signed by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees in such unit requesting a representation election, an election shall be ordered by the Special Tribunal. A labor organization shall be recognized as the exclusive bargaining representative of the unit if it is selected by a majority of the employees in the unit actually voting.
</P>
<P>(b) The election shall be held under the auspices of the Association and shall be subject to its election rules and regulations. However, if there should be any conflict between such rules and regulations and the provisions of this Policy, the latter shall prevail. The fees charged by the Association for its election service shall be borne equally by the labor organization and the Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) An election to determine whether a labor organization should continue as the exclusive bargaining representative of a particular unit shall be held when requested by a petition or other bona fide showing by at least thirty percent (30%) of the employees of that unit. Any dispute as to whether thirty percent (30%) of the employees requested such an election shall be resolved by the same procedure as that set forth in § 269.4(b). The election shall be held under the auspices of the Association in the same manner described in paragraph (b) of this section. The recognition of a labor organization as the exclusive bargaining representative of a unit shall be revoked if a majority of the employees in the unit who actually vote signify approval of such revocation.
</P>
<P>(d) Only one election may be held in any unit in a twelve (12) month period to determine whether a labor organization should become, or continue to be recognized as, the exclusive representative of the employees in that unit.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of a request for an election from a labor organization under § 269.4(a), it shall be incumbent on the Bank, labor organization and all others to refrain from any conduct, action or policy that interferes with or restrains employees from making a fair and free choice in selecting or rejecting a bargaining representative consistent with the right of the Bank, labor organization or employees to exercise privileges of free speech in the expression of any views, argument or opinion, or the dissemination thereof, whether in oral, written, printed, graphic or visual form.
</P>
<P>(f) The Special Tribunal shall hear and decide any post-election objections of a Bank or labor organization filed with it claiming that a violation of paragraph (e) of this section has improperly affected the outcome of the election. Such objections must be filed with the Special Tribunal no later than five (5) business days after the date of election. In the event of such violation by a Bank, labor organization or other individuals or organizations which the Special Tribunal finds sufficient to have prejudiced the outcome of an election, appropriate remedial action shall be taken in the form of setting aside the election results and ordering a new election, provided, however, that an appeal from the order of the Special Tribunal may be taken within thirty (30) calendar days to the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel by either the affected Bank or labor organization. The ruling of the System Panel shall be final and binding. Neither the Special Tribunal nor the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel shall have the authority to direct a Bank to recognize a labor organization as the exclusive collective bargaining representative without a valid election being held in which a majority of the employees actually voting have so designated such labor organization.
</P>
<P>(g) The Special Tribunal and the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel will adhere to any rules and regulations promulgated by the Board of Governors for the administration of the provisions of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.6   Unfair labor practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) It shall be an unfair labor practice for a Bank to: (1) Interfere with, restrain, or coerce employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in § 269.2(a); (2) dominate or interfere with the formation or administration of any labor organization, or to contribute financial or other support to it; (3) encourage or discourage membership in any labor organization by discrimination in regard to hire or tenure of employment or any term or condition of employment; (4) refuse to bargain collectively with the representatives of its employees subject to the provisions of § 269.3 (b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be an unfair labor practice for a labor organization, its agents or representatives to: (1) Restrain or coerce employees in the exercise of the rights guaranteed in § 269.2(a); (2) cause or attempt to cause a Bank to Discriminate against an employee in violation of paragraph (a)(3) of this section; (3) refuse to bargain collectively with a Bank, provided the labor organization is the exclusive representative of a unit of employees.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding anything previously stated in this section, the expression of any view, argument or opinion, or the dissemination thereof, whether in oral, written, printed, graphic or visual form, shall not constitute or be evidence of an unfair labor practice, if such expression contains no threat of reprisal or force, or promise of benefit.
</P>
<P>(d) The Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel will adhere to the rules and regulations promulgated by the Board of Governors for the prevention and remedy of the unfair labor practices listed herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.7   Approval of agreement and required contents.</HEAD>
<P>Any agreement entered into with a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in a unit must be approved by the President of the Bank or a designated officer representative. All agreements with labor organizations shall also be subject to the requirement that the administration of all matters covered by the agreement shall be governed by the provisions of applicable laws and Federal Reserve System rules and regulations, and the agreement shall at all times be applied subject to such laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.8   Grievance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the provisions of § 269.3(b), an agreement entered into with a labor organization as the exclusive representative of employees in a unit may contain a grievance procedure, applicable only to employees in such unit and which shall be the exclusive means for a labor organization and/or an employee to obtain resolution of a grievance arising under such agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Grievance procedures established by a labor agreement may also include provisions for arbitration of unresolved grievances by a tripartite panel under the Voluntary Labor Arbitration Rules of the Association with the impartial arbitrator selected by the Bank and labor organization representatives on the arbitration panel to be the Chairperson. In such event, arbitration shall extend only to grievances which involve the interpretation and application of specific provisions of a labor agreement and not to any other matters or to changes in or proposed changes in the agreement. Arbitration may only be invoked by labor organization on behalf of individual employees with their concurrence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.9   Mediation of negotiation impasses.</HEAD>
<P>In the event of an impasse in negotiations between the parties for a collective bargaining agreement, either the labor organization or the Bank may request the appointment of a qualified neutral person as a mediator to assist the parties in attempting to resolve the impasse. The parties will meet promptly with the mediator, and all matters discussed, as well as any documents submitted, shall not be publicly divulged for any reason. The cost of the mediator shall be borne equally by the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.10   Time for internal labor organization business, consultations and negotiations.</HEAD>
<P>Solicitation of memberships, dues or other internal labor organization business shall be conducted during the nonduty hours of the employees concerned. Officially requested or approved consultation between management executives and representatives of a labor organization shall, whenever practicable, be conducted on official time, but the President or a duly authorized officer of a Bank may require that negotiations with a labor organization be conducted during the nonduty hours of the Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.11   Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel.</HEAD>
<P>There shall be established a Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel, which shall consist of three members: one member of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, who shall be Chairperson of the Panel, and two public members. Each member shall be selected by the Board of Governors; provided, however, that the public members shall not have any present or past affiliation with the Federal Reserve System. Initially, one of the two public members shall be appointed for a term of two years, and the other for a term of three years. Thereafter, each public member shall be appointed for a term of three years, except that in the case of an unexpired term of a former member, the successor shall be appointed to fill such unexpired term. Upon the expiration of their term of office, public members may continue to serve until their successors are appointed and have qualified. A public member may be removed by the Board only upon notice and hearing, and only for neglect of duty or malfeasance in office. The Panel shall be responsible for the duties assigned to it as set forth in this Policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.34.0.3.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269.12   Amendment.</HEAD>
<P>This policy may be amended upon appropriate legal notice to all Federal Reserve Banks and labor organizations recognized, or seeking recognition, at any such Bank under this Policy. In no instance shall an amendment be applied retroactively. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="269a" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 269a—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261 (12 U.S.C. 248). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 269a.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269a.1   Party.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Party</I> means any person, employee, group of employees, labor organization, or bank as defined in § 269.2 of this chapter (a) filing a charge, petition, application, or rquest pursuant to these rules and regulations, (b) named as a party in a charge, complaint, petition, application, or request, or (c) whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the investigator, the hearing officer, or the panel, as the case may be, but nothing shall be construed to prevent the panel, or any officer designated by it, from limiting any party's participation in the proceedings to the extent of his interest as determined by the investigator, hearing officer, or panel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269a.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269a.2   Party in interest.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>party in interest</I> means any person, employee, group of employees, labor organization, or bank that will be or is directly affected by the resolution of any charge, complaint, petition, application, or request presented to or being considered by the panel or its designated officers. Any (a) labor organization (not a charging party nor a charged party) attempting to organize the employees of a bank or that is or was recently a party to a collective bargaining agreement with a bank named as a party in a charge, complaint, petition, application, or a request, or (b) bank (not a charging party nor a charged party) that acts as the employer of any person named in a charge, complaint, petition, or request shall be deemed to be also a party in interest and shall be entitled to notification and service of all relevant procedures and documents. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269a.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269a.3   Intervenor.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>intervenor</I> means the party in a proceeding whose intervention has been permitted or directed by the panel or its designated officer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269a.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269a.4   Investigator.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>investigator</I> means the officer designated by the panel to investigate and determine whether or not a complainant has established a prima facie case, as defined in § 269b.210 of this subchapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 2530, Jan. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269a.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.35.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269a.5   Hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>hearing officer</I> means the officer designated by the panel to conduct hearings pursuant to § 269b.420 <I>et seq.</I> of this subchapter and whose duties and power are enumerated in § 269b.442 of this subchapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[35 FR 8919, June 10, 1970. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983, as amended at 65 FR 2530, Jan. 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="269b" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 269b—CHARGES OF UNFAIR LABOR PRACTICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 11, 38 Stat. 261 (12 U.S.C. 248).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>35 FR 8920, June 10, 1970, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 48 FR 32334, July 15, 1983.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="3" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Charges of Violations of § 269.6 (of the Policy)</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.110" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.110   Charges.</HEAD>
<P>A charge that any bank or labor organization, or agents or representatives of a bank or labor organization, has engaged in or is engaging in any act prohibited under § 269.6 of the policy or has failed to take any action required by § 269.6 of the policy may be filed by any party in interest, or its representative, within 60 days after the alleged violations or within 60 days after the charging party has become or should have become aware of the alleged violation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.111" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.111   Filing of charges.</HEAD>
<P>Any charge pursuant to § 269b.110 shall be in writing and signed. An original and three copies of such charge, together with one copy for each charged party named, shall be transmitted to the Secretary of the Federal Reserve System Labor Relations Panel, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20551. Within 5 days after receipt of a properly filed charge that meets the formal requirements set forth in § 269b.112, the Secretary will cause a copy of such charge to be served on each party against whom the charge is made and upon all other potential parties in interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.112" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.112   Contents of the charge.</HEAD>
<P>A charge shall contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The full name, address, and telephone number of the person, bank, or labor organization making the charge (hereinafter referred to as the charging party) and of the person signing the charge who shall state also his relation to or his capacity with the complainant. Where discrimination is alleged, all known discriminatees shall be named; 
</P>
<P>(b) The name, address, and telephone number of the bank or labor organization against whom the charge is made (hereinafter referred to as the respondent) and of any parties in interest; 
</P>
<P>(c) A clear and concise statement of the facts constituting the alleged unfair labor practice, including the time and place of occurrence of the particular acts, and a statement of the portion or portions of the policy alleged to have been violated. A charge shall not incorporate by reference affidavits or other documents submitted in support of the charge; 
</P>
<P>(d) A statement of the relief sought; 
</P>
<P>(e) A statement of any other remedies invoked for the redress of the alleged violations of the policy and the results, if any, of their invocation. If the issue in such charge is subject to an established grievance procedure, the complainant must irrevocably elect, prior to the completion of the first applicable step of the grievance procedure, whether he will invoke the grievance procedure or whether he will invoke the unfair labor practice procedures of the panel. A charge which is withdrawn or rejected by the panel as defective prior to the institution of any formal proceedings by the panel shall not prejudice the filing of a grievance on the same matter, unless the parties otherwise so provide; 
</P>
<P>(f) A declaration by the person signing the charge, that its contents are true and correct to the best of his knowledge and belief, such declaration to be subject to applicable provisions of the Federal Criminal Code (18 U.S.C. 1001). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.113" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.113   Withdrawal or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>A charge may be withdrawn or settlement of the matter may be reached without consent of the panel at any time. In connection with any such settlement the parties in interest shall prepare and sign a settlement agreement which shall record that the settlement is mutually satisfactory, shall stipulate any occurrences which constituted unfair labor practices and shall set forth the terms of the settlement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.120" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.120   Answer to a charge.</HEAD>
<P>The respondent shall file an answer to the charge with the Secretary of the panel within 15 days after service of the charge. Upon application and for good cause shown, the panel may extend the time within which the answer shall be filed. One copy of the answer shall be served on each party with proof of service furnished to the Secretary, and the original, which shall be signed, and four copies shall be filed with the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.121" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.3.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.121   Contents of answer.</HEAD>
<P>The answer shall contain: 
</P>
<P>(a) A specific admission or denial, and where appropriate, explanation thereof; or if the respondent is without knowledge of the allegation, he shall so state and such statement shall operate as a denial. Admissions or denials may be to all or part of an allegation but shall be responsive to the substance of the allegation; 
</P>
<P>(b) A specified, detailed statement of any affirmative defense; 
</P>
<P>(c) A clear and concise statement of the facts and matters of law relied upon constituting the grounds of defense. 
</P>
<FP>Any allegation of the charge not denied in the answer may be deemed admitted and may be so found by the panel. 


</FP>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="4" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.4" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Preliminary Investigation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.210" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.4.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.210   Referral to National Center for Dispute Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 5 days after the answer to the charge has been or should have been filed, the panel may refer the matter, accompanied by a general or particularized request, to the National Center for Dispute Settlement of the American Arbitration Association (hereinafter referred to as the Center) to make an investigation and to determine whether the charging party has established a prima facie case. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this part, a <I>prima facie case</I> means a case where allegations of an unfair labor practice that have been presented give reasonable cause to believe that such practice may have occurred, but where evidentiary proceedings are necessary for determination of whether the allegations are substantiated. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Center may use its own personnel or may hire individuals on a contract basis to conduct such investigations. The panel may consolidate or sever proceedings conducted pursuant to this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any party may request the Center or other appointing authority to withdraw appointment of the investigator within 3 days after designation on the basis of previously demonstrated personal bias, conflict of interest, or prejudice. Such a request shall set forth in detail the matter alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. Denial of a request by the Center or other appointing authority shall be substantiated in writing and transmitted to the requesting party, and shall be submitted to the panel together with the complete report of the investigator required in § 269b.240(b). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.220" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.4.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.220   Priority; acceleration of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A charge of “refusal to bargain” or a charge that, if sustained, would require the setting aside of an election or the conduct of a new election shall be given priority. 
</P>
<P>(b) The parties, individually or jointly, may petition the panel at any time to invoke immediately the formal hearing procedures set forth in § 269b.410. They may also petition the panel to entertain the matter itself without prior investigation and/or without the formal hearing procedure set forth in § 269b.410. The panel is empowered also on its own motion to so accelerate disposition of the case. 
</P>
<P>(c) Before accelerating a case the panel may utilize whatever proceedings it may deem appropriate and timely to allow parties in interest to comment on the proposed course of action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.230" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.4.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.230   Assessment of costs; posting of bond.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The panel shall normally bear the costs of an investigation conducted pursuant to § 269b.210, but the panel may require that the charging party, the respondent, and/or other parties in interest or intervenors, or several of them, shall bear a portion or all of the costs therefor. With respect to each case where an investigation is directed by the panel, the charging party may, in the discretion of the panel, be required to file a cost bond, or equivalent security, of $500, unless the panel fixes a different amount. 
</P>
<P>(b) Among the circumstances that may be the basis for payment of costs by other than the panel are cases where a clearly spurious charge has been filed or where the filing of a charge was necessary to redress the respondent's flagrant misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) The bond or equivalent security shall be to secure the payment of the costs of the investigation as may be assessed by the panel. In those cases where the panel does not assess such costs, the bond posted and the cost thereof shall be reimbursed to the charging party. The panel may require also the posting of a cost bond by the respondent or other party to the proceeding, who shall be entitled to reimbursement of the cost of the bond in the event that no costs of investigation are assessed upon such party by the panel. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notification of the panel's decision that a bond shall be required shall be effected by registered mail, such notice to advise of the amount of the bond required and the period by which it shall be posted. 
</P>
<P>(e) Absent good cause shown, failure of a party to file timely such cost bond or equivalent security may be ground for dismissal or other administrative sanctions deemed appropriate by the Panel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.240" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.4.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.240   The investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of the investigation is (1) to ascertain, analyze, and apply the relevant facts in order to determine whether or not formal proceedings are warranted and (2) to assist, by mediation and other appropriate means, the parties to reach a mutually satisfactory resolution of the issues as an alternative to the hearing process. In so doing, the investigator is not limited to the allegations set forth in the charge and may advise the charging party to amend his charge. In addition, he should adduce facts pertaining to the remedy as well as to the alleged violation. Investigation should also adduce facts pertaining to the jurisdiction of the panel and the timeliness of the charge. If the charge is untimely on its face, no investigation shall be required except to determine whether or not attending circumstances warrant waiving the time requirements, set forth in § 269b.110. The investigator may request the appearance of parties and witnesses, may cause, the production of relevant document, and may take or cause depositions to be taken. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the investigation has been completed, the Center shall issue a written determination whether the charging party has established a prima facie case, whether the charge was timely filed, and whether the charge is within the jurisdiction of the panel, and reasons therefor. This determination shall be served upon the panel and all parties. The panel shall receive also the complete report of the investigator. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="5" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.5" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Appeal From the Center's Determination</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.310" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.310   Appeal rights.</HEAD>
<P>Where the investigator has found that a prima facie case does not exist, a party, including an intervenor but excluding the respondent or other parties having the same interest as the respondent, within 5 days after receiving the Center's determination may petition the panel to set aside the determination and to cause formal proceedings, set forth in § 269b.410, to be invoked. The panel may grant such petition only on grounds that the Center or its agents were arbitrary, capricious, or acted contrary to law or the policy, or that the investigator's determination is clearly erroneous. The filing requirements for such a petition shall be the same as that for the filing of a charge, as set forth in § 269b.111. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.320" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.320   Proceedings before the panel.</HEAD>
<P>The panel shall issue its decision within 15 days after the receipt of the petition provided for in § 269b.310 or by the end of that period shall announce that it will require briefs by the parties. Such announcement shall specify the requirements as to contents of the briefs, and the time for submission, which shall vary to meet the circumstances of the matter appealed. The panel, at such time, may also require oral argument or the production of evidence or may so order oral argument and/or the production of evidence after examination of the briefs. The panel shall issue its final decision within 20 days after briefs have been filed, evidence has been produced, or oral argument has been conducted. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Formal Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.410" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.410   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If formal proceedings are found to be needed under the above procedures, and if no satisfactory settlement has been reached within 5 days after finding that a prima facie case exists, the Secretary of the panel, unless there is cause for granting an extension of time, shall issue and cause to be served upon the parties a notice of hearing. The panel shall appoint, pursuant to § 269b.420, a hearing officer to hold a hearing and issue a report to the panel containing findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations including, where appropriate, remedial action to be taken and notices to be posted. The Secretary shall furnish to the hearing officer the investigator's report and all other relevant information in the panel's possession. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.420" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.420   Designation of hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The panel, absent special circumstances, shall employ the center to select the hearing officer to conduct the hearing at a site most convenient to the parties and witnesses. The individual who performed the investigation, pursuant to § 269b.210, shall be barred from acting as a hearing officer on the same matter, unless all parties in interest agree to his participation. The selection of the hearing officer, to the extent practicable, shall be done with the concurrence of the parties. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any party may request the hearing officer, at any time following his designation and before the filing of his decision, to withdraw on grounds of previously demonstrated personal bias, conflict of interest, or prejudice by filing with him promptly upon the discovery of the alleged facts a timely affidavit setting forth in detail the matters alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. If, in the opinion of the hearing officer, such affidavit is filed with due diligence and is sufficient on its face, he shall forthwith disqualify himself and withdraw from the proceeding. If he does not so withdraw, he shall so rule upon the record, stating the grounds for his ruling and proceed with the hearing, or, if the hearing has closed, he shall proceed with the issuance of his decision, and his ruling shall be subject to the same review by the panel that is given to the rest of his decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) The costs of conducting the hearing and of the hearing officer shall be borne by the panel. Witness fees and expenses shall be paid by the party at whose instance the witnesses appear. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.430" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.430   Contents of notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The notice of hearing shall include: 
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the charge; 
</P>
<P>(b) A statement of the time of the hearing which shall be not less than 10 days after service of the notice of hearing, except in extraordinary circumstances. All charges involving a “refusal to bargain” allegation and all charges, if sustained, that would require the setting aside of an election, or the conducting of a new election shall be given first priority; 
</P>
<P>(c) A statement of the place and nature of hearing; 
</P>
<P>(d) A statement of the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; 
</P>
<P>(e) A reference to the particular section of the policy and rules and regulations of this chapter involved; 
</P>
<P>(f) A copy of the determination, if any, made causing the invocation of these formal proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.440" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.440   Conduct of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Hearing shall be public unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer or the panel. An official reporter shall make the only official transcript of such proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the official transcript will not be provided to the parties, but may be purchased by arrangement with the official reporter or with such costs as the panel may otherwise assess, or may be examined in the offices of the panel and/or the hearing officer subject to such conditions as the panel may prescribe. 
</P>
<P>(c) A charging party in asserting that an unfair labor practice has been committed within the meaning of the policy, shall have the burden of proving the allegations of the charge, or the amended charge, by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) The parties shall not be bound by the technical rules of evidence, but the hearing officer, may, in his discretion, exclude any evidence or offer of proof if he finds that its probative value is substantially outweighed by the risk that its admission will either necessitate undue consumption of time or create substantial danger of undue prejudice or confusion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.441" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.441   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party shall have the right to appear at such hearing in person, by counsel, or by other representative, to call, examine, and cross-examine witnesses as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts, and to introduce into the record documentary or other relevant evidence, except that the participation of any party shall be limited to the extent permitted by the hearing officer. Five copies of such documentary evidence shall be submitted unless the hearing officer permits a reduced number for good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any party shall be entitled, upon request, to a reasonable period at the close of the hearing for oral argument, which shall be included in the stenographic report of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any party shall be entitled to file a brief to the hearing officer within 10 days after the close of the hearing, but no reply brief may be filed except upon special permission of the hearing officer. A party filing a brief must file the original and one copy with the hearing officer along with proof of service of a copy of such brief to all parties. Requests for extension of time to file briefs must be made to the hearing officer who must receive the request at least 3 days prior to the expiration of time fixed for filing of briefs and notice of the request shall be served simultaneously on all other parties, and proof of service shall be furnished. If a request for extension of time is based on the need for a copy of the transcript prior to filing a brief, such request must be made to the hearing officer before the hearing is closed and must be ruled on prior to the close of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.442" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.442   Duties and powers of the hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing officer shall inquire fully into the facts as to whether the respondent has engaged or is engaging in an unfair labor practice as set forth in the charge or the amended charge. The hearing officer shall have authority, with respect to cases assigned to him, between the time he is designated and transfer of the case to the panel, subject to the rules and regulations in this subchapter, to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Grant requests for attendance of witnesses and production of documents; 
</P>
<P>(b) Rule upon petitions to quash requests made pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(c) Call, examine, and cross-examine parties and witnesses as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts and to introduce into the record documentary or other evidence; 
</P>
<P>(d) Rule upon offers of proof and receive relevant evidence; 
</P>
<P>(e) Take or cause depositions to be taken whenever the ends of justice would be served thereby; 
</P>
<P>(f) Limit lines of questioning or testimony which are repetitive, cumulative, or irrelevant; 
</P>
<P>(g) Regulate the course of the hearing and, if appropriate or necessary, exclude persons or counsel from the hearing for contemptuous conduct and strike all related testimony of witnesses refusing to answer any proper question; 
</P>
<P>(h) Hold such prehearing conferences as may be necessary to expedite proceedings and hold such other conferences for the settlement or simplification of the issues by consent of the parties or upon his own motion; 
</P>
<P>(i) Dispose of procedural requests, motions, or similar matters which shall be made part of the record of the proceeding, including motions referred to the hearing officer by the panel, and motions to amend pleadings, also to recommend dismissal of cases or portions thereof, and to order hearings reopened or, upon motion, consolidated prior to issuance of the hearing officer's report and recommendations; 
</P>
<P>(j) Request the parties at any time during the hearing to state their respective positions concerning any issue in the case or theory in support thereof; 
</P>
<P>(k) Require the parties, if necessary, to file written briefs in support of their positions; 
</P>
<P>(l) Take any other action necessary under the foregoing and authorized by the rules and regulations in this subchapter. 
</P>
<FP>In the event the hearing officer designated to conduct the hearing becomes unavailable, the panel may designate another hearing officer for the purpose of further hearing or issuance of a report and recommendation on the record as made, or both. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.443" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.443   Motions before or after a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>All motions (including motions for intervention), other than those made during a hearing, shall be made in writing to the Secretary of the panel, shall briefly state the relief sought, shall set forth the grounds for such motion, and shall be accompanied 3 days thereafter by proof of service on all parties. Answering statements, if any, must be served on all parties and the original thereof, together with two copies and statement of service, shall be filed with the Secretary within 5 days after service of the moving papers, unless the Secretary directs otherwise. Motions may be referred to the hearing officer whose ruling shall be made upon the record or the motion may be stayed until such time as the panel reviews the hearing officer's report and recommendations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.444" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.444   Objection to conduct of hearing; other motions during hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any objection with respect to the conduct of the hearing, including any objection to the introduction of evidence, or any other motion during the course of the hearing, including a request to allow intervention, may be stated orally or in writing accompanied by a short statement of the grounds for such objection, and included in the record. No such objection shall be deemed waived by further participation in the hearing and such objection shall not stay the conduct of the hearing. Automatic exceptions will be allowed to all adverse rulings and shall be considered by the panel upon its review of the hearing officer's report and recommendations, if exception to the ruling is included in a statement of exceptions submitted to the panel after the close of the hearing, subject to the requirements of § 269b.520. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.450" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.6.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.450   Submission of hearing officer's report to the panel.</HEAD>
<P>After the close of the hearing, and the receipt of briefs, if any, the hearing officer shall prepare a report and recommendations, containing findings of fact, conclusions of law, including judgments as to the credibility of witnesses where appropriate, and the reasons or basis therefor, and recommendations as to the disposition of the case, and, where appropriate, including the remedial action and notices to be posted. After he has caused his report and recommendations to be served promptly on all parties to the proceeding, he shall transfer the case to the panel including his report and recommendations and the complete record. Such submission shall be made within 20 days after the close of the hearing and the receipt of briefs, if any, unless otherwise extended by the panel. The record shall include the charge, notice of hearing, service sheet, motions, rulings, orders, official transcript of the hearing, stipulations, objections, depositions, documentary evidence, exhibits, and any briefs or other documents submitted to the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Panel Review of Hearing Officer's Report and Recommended Decision</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.510" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.7.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.510   Review by panel.</HEAD>
<P>The panel shall review the report and recommendations of each hearing officer, the record of the hearing, and such other documents as enumerated in § 269b.450, whether or not any party files an appeal, unless the parties file with the panel a settlement agreement within 10 days after service of the hearing officer's report upon them. In the course of such review, the panel may require oral argument or written briefs on any relevant issue within such time limits as the panel may prescribe, and may reopen the record in any case and receive further evidence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.520" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.7.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.520   Exceptions to hearing officer's report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any party may file with the panel exceptions to the hearing officer's report and recommendations, and any ruling contained therein, if made within 10 days after service of the report and recommendations. The Panel may, for good cause shown, extend the time for filing such exceptions upon written request, with copies served simultaneously on the other parties, received not later than 3 days before the date exceptions are due. Requests for oral argument will not be considered unless filed with exceptions. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any exception to a ruling, finding, conclusion, or recommendation which is not specifically urged shall be deemed to have been waived, although the panel may on its own motion rule upon any matter in the report and recommendations. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any exception which fails to comply with the following requirements may be disregarded: 
</P>
<P>(1) The exceptions shall set forth specifically the questions of procedure, fact, law, or policy to which exceptions are taken; 
</P>
<P>(2) The exceptions shall identify the part of the hearing officer's report to which objection is made; 
</P>
<P>(3) The exceptions shall designate by precise citation of page the portions of the record relied on, shall state the grounds for the exceptions, and shall include the citation of authorities unless set forth in a supporting brief. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any brief in support of exceptions shall contain no matter not included within the scope of the exceptions and shall contain in the order indicated, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A concise statement of the case containing all that is material to the consideration of the questions presented; 
</P>
<P>(2) A specification of the questions involved and to be argued; 
</P>
<P>(3) The argument, presenting clearly the points of fact and law relied on in support of the position taken on each question, with specific page reference to the transcript and the legal or other material relied on. 
</P>
<P>(e) Answering briefs to the exceptions, and cross-exceptions and supporting briefs will not be permitted without special leave of the panel. Requests for oral argument will not be considered unless accompanying such petition for special leave. 
</P>
<P>(f) Five copies of exceptions and briefs must be filed with the panel along with a statement of service of copies of the exceptions and supporting briefs upon all parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.530" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.7.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.530   Briefs in support of the hearing officer's report.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may file a brief in support of the hearing officer's report and recommendations subject to the same time limits and rules pertaining to filing exceptions and briefs in support thereof, as set forth in § 269b.520. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.540" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.7.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.540   Action by the panel.</HEAD>
<P>After considering the hearing officer's report and recommendations, the record, any other documents, any exceptions filed, and any oral argument permitted, the panel shall issue its written decision. Upon finding that the respondent is engaging in or has engaged in an unfair labor practice, the panel shall order the respondent to cease and desist from such conduct and may require the respondent to take such affirmative corrective action as the panel deems appropriate to effectuate the Policy. Such action by the panel may include, but shall not be limited to, orders to provide back pay, provide reinstatement, set aside an election, bargain, and award recognition. Upon finding no violation of the policy, the panel shall dismiss the case. The panel's decision and order setting forth the remedial action, if any, required shall be conspicuously posted by the parties. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.610" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.8.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.610   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Where remedial action is ordered or provided for in a settlement agreement, a report to the panel that such action has been taken and that compliance with the decision and orders of the panel has been effected shall be submitted within the period of time specified in the panel's decision. The panel is empowered to utilize whatever administrative procedures it deems necessary to ascertain compliance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.620" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.8.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.620   Action by panel.</HEAD>
<P>In any case where it is found, after a hearing, that the respondent has failed to comply with the final decision and order of the panel, the panel shall be empowered to take whatever action may be appropriate and shall expect the full cooperation of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in obtaining such compliance. Among the actions that may be taken by the panel against a noncomplying respondent labor organization, after a show cause hearing, may be suspension of that labor organization's checkoff privileges or recognition as exclusive bargaining representative for such period of time as determined by the panel. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.710" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.710   Rules to be liberally construed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the panel finds that unusual circumstances or good cause exist and that strict compliance with the terms of the rules and regulations in this subchapter will work an injustice or unfairness, it shall construe the rules and regulations in this subchapter liberally to prevent injustices and to effectuate the purposes of the policy. 
</P>
<P>(b) When an act is required or allowed to be done at or within a specified time, the panel may at any time, in its discretion, order the period altered where it shall be manifest that strict adherence will work surprise or injustice or interfere with the proper effectuation of the policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.720" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.720   Computation of time for filing papers.</HEAD>
<P>In computing any period of time prescribed by or allowed by the panel, the day of the act, event, or default after which the designated period of time begins to run, shall not be included. The last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or the applicable local legal holiday in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. When the period of time prescribed, or allowed, is seven days or less, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall be excluded from the computations. When the rules and regulations in this subchapter require the filing of any paper, such document must be received by the panel or the officer or agent designated by it to receive such matter before the close of business of the last day of the time limit, if any, for such filing or extension of the time that may have been granted. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.730" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.730   Number of copies; form.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in the regulations in this subchapter, any documents or papers shall be filed with four copies in addition to the original. All matters filed shall be printed, typed, or otherwise legibly duplicated; carbon copies of typewritten matter will be accepted if they are clearly legible. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.731" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.731   Signature.</HEAD>
<P>The original of each document filed shall be signed by the party or by an attorney or representative of record for the party, or by an officer of the party and shall contain the address and telephone number of the person signing it. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.740" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.740   Service of pleading and other paper; statement of service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of service.</I> Notices of hearings, decisions, orders, and other papers may be served personally or by registered or certified mail or by telegraph. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Upon whom served.</I> Unless otherwise provided in the rules and regulations in this subchapter, all papers except complaints, petitions, and papers relating to requests for appearance or production of documents, shall be served upon all counsel of record and upon parties not represented by counsel or by their agents designated by them or by law and upon the panel, or its designated officers or agents, where appropriate. Service upon such counsel or representative shall constitute service upon the party, but a copy also shall be transmitted to the party. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> The party or person serving the papers or process shall submit simultaneously to the panel or its designated representative, or the individual conducting the proceeding, a written statement of such service. Failure to file a statement of service shall not affect the validity of the service. Proof of service, except where otherwise provided, shall be required only if subsequent to the receipt of a statement of service a question is raised with respect to proper service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 269b.750" NODE="12:4.0.1.1.36.0.9.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 269b.750   Requests for appearance of witnesses and production of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Parties may request appearance of witnesses and production of documents by filing application therefor, depending upon the stage of the proceedings at which the request is made, with the officer conducting the investigation or hearing, or with the panel. Such application shall name and identify the witnesses or documents sought and shall briefly state the need for such appearance or production. The officer with whom such request is filed shall rule upon each such request and the record of the proceeding shall contain a record of that ruling and the basis therefor. The record shall also contain a statement of reasons for any request for the appearance of witnesses or production of documents initiated by a presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—FEDERAL OPEN MARKET COMMITTEE 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="270" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 270—OPEN MARKET OPERATIONS OF FEDERAL RESERVE BANKS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 8, 48 Stat. 168, as amended (12 U.S.C. 263). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 2753, Jan. 30, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="10" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37.0.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulations Relating to Open Market Operations of Federal Reserve Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 270.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37.0.10.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 270.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued by the Federal Open Market Committee (the “Committee”) pursuant to authority conferred upon it by sections 12A and 14 of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 263, 355). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 270.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37.0.10.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 270.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>obligations</I> means Government securities, U.S. agency securities, bankers' acceptances, bills of exchange, cable transfers, bonds, notes, warrants, debentures, and other obligations that Federal Reserve banks are authorized by law to purchase and sell. 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Government securities</I> means direct obligations of the United States (i.e., U.S. bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, and Treasury bills) and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>U.S. agency securities</I> means obligations that are direct obligations of, or are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by, any agency of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>System Open Market Account</I> means the obligations acquired pursuant to authorizations and directives issued by the Committee and held on behalf of all Federal Reserve banks. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 270.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37.0.10.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 270.3   Governing principles.</HEAD>
<P>As required by section 12A of the Federal Reserve Act, the time, character, and volume of all purchases and sales of obligations in the open market by Federal Reserve banks are governed with a view to accommodating commerce and business and with regard to their bearing upon the general credit situation of the country. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 270.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.37.0.10.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 270.4   Transactions in obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Reserve bank shall engage in open market operations under section 14 of the Federal Reserve Act only in accordance with this part and with the authorizations and directives issued by the Committee from time to time, and no Reserve bank shall decline to engage in open market operations as directed by the Committee. 
</P>
<P>(b) Transactions for the System Open Market Account shall be executed by a Federal Reserve bank selected by the Committee. The participations of the several Federal Reserve banks in such account and in the profits and losses on transactions for the account shall be allocated in accordance with principles determined by the Committee from time to time. 
</P>
<P>(c) In accordance with such limitations, terms, and conditions as are prescribed by law and in authorizations and directives issued by the Committee, the Reserve bank selected by the Committee is authorized and directed—
</P>
<P>(1) To buy and sell Government securities and U.S. agency securities in the open market for the System Open Market Account, and to exchange maturing securities with the issuer; 
</P>
<P>(2) To buy and sell banker's acceptances in the open market for its own account; 
</P>
<P>(3) To buy Government securities, U.S. agency securities, and banker's acceptances of the kinds described above, under agreements for repurchase of such obligations, in the open market for its own account; and 
</P>
<P>(4) To buy and sell foreign currencies in the form of cable transfers in the open market for the System Open Market Account and to maintain for such account reciprocal currency arrangements with foreign banks among those designated by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under § 214.5 of this chapter (Regulation N). 
</P>
<P>(d) The Federal Reserve banks are authorized and directed to engage in such other operations as the Committee may from time to time determine to be reasonably necessary to the effective conduct of open market operations and the effectuation of open market policies. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2753, Jan. 30, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 11873, Apr. 1, 1974; 48 FR 32336, July 15, 1983] 






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="271" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 271—RULES REGARDING AVAILABILITY OF INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 263.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 18426, Apr. 9, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the Federal Open Market Committee's (Committee) statutory responsibilities relating to the disclosure, production, or withholding of information to facilitate the Committee's interactions with the public. In this regard, the Committee has determined that the Committee, or its delegees, may disclose exempt information of the Committee, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the Committee's authorities, including but not limited to authority granted to the Committee in the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, and section 12A of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 263. The Committee has determined that all such disclosures made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part are authorized by law. This part also sets forth the categories of information made available to the public, the procedures for obtaining information and records, the procedures for limited release of exempt information, and the procedures for protecting confidential business information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Subpart A of this part contains general provisions and definitions of terms used in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B of this part implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C of this part sets forth the procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System established by the Federal Reserve Act of 1913 (38 Stat. 251).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Committee</I> means the Chair of the Committee or the Chair's designee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt information</I> means information that is exempt from disclosure pursuant to § 271.15(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Reserve Bank</I> or <I>Reserve Bank</I> means one of the District Banks authorized by the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 222, including any branch of any such bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Records of the Committee</I> or <I>Committee records</I> include all information coming into the possession of the Committee or any member thereof or of any officer, employee, or agent of the Committee, the Board, or any Federal Reserve Bank, in the performance of duties for, or pursuant to the direction of, the Committee. These records include rules, statements, decisions, minutes, memoranda, letters, reports, transcripts, accounts, charts, and other written material.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Search</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reasonable search of such records of the Committee as seem likely in the particular circumstances to contain information of the kind requested.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the Committee's search for responsive records, the Committee is not obligated to conduct any research, create any document, or modify an electronic program or automated information system.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Working day</I> means any day except Saturday, Sunday, or a legal Federal holiday.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.3   Certification of record; service of subpoenas or other process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification of record.</I> The secretary of the Committee may certify the authenticity of any Committee record, or any copy of such record, for any purpose, and for or before any duly constituted Federal or state court, tribunal, or agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service of subpoenas or other process.</I> Subpoenas or other judicial or administrative process demanding access to any Committee records or making any claim against the Committee or against Committee members or staff in their official capacity shall be addressed to and served upon the Secretary of the Committee, Federal Open Market Committee, 20th Street &amp; Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551. The Committee does not accept service of process on behalf of any employee in respect of purely private legal disputes.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.4   Prohibition against disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this part or as otherwise authorized, no officer, employee, or agent of the Board or any Reserve Bank shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt information of the Committee to any person other than Board or Reserve Bank officers, employees, or agents properly entitled to such information in the performance of duties for, or pursuant to the direction of, the Committee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Published Information and Records Available to Public; Procedures for Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.10" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.10   Published information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Committee publishes, or incorporates by reference, in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of its organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) Rules of procedure;
</P>
<P>(4) Substantive rules, interpretations of general applicability, and statements of general policy formulated and adopted by the Committee;
</P>
<P>(5) Every amendment, revision, or repeal of the foregoing in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other notices as required by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publicly available information</I>—(1) <I>Electronic reading room.</I> Information relating to the Committee, including its open market operations, is made publicly available on the websites of the Board and the Federal Reserve Banks, as well as in the Committee's electronic reading room, <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/fomc/readingrooms.htm#rr1.</I> The Committee also makes the following records available in its electronic reading room.
</P>
<P>(i) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders and written agreements, made in the adjudication of cases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Committee that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect the public.
</P>
<P>(iv) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format—
</P>
<P>(A) That have been released to any person under § 271.11; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) That because of the nature of their subject matter, the Committee has determined have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That have been requested three or more times.
</P>
<P>(v) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inspection in electronic format at Reserve Banks.</I> The Committee may determine that certain classes of publicly available filings shall be made available for inspection in electronic format only at the Reserve Bank where those records are filed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Privacy protection.</I> The Committee may delete identifying details from any public record to prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.11" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.11   Records available to the public upon request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for requesting records.</I> (1) Requesters are encouraged to submit requests electronically using the online request form located at <I>www.federalreserve.gov/secure/forms/FOMCForm.aspx.</I> Alternatively, requests may be submitted in writing to the Secretary of the Committee, Federal Open Market Committee, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Secretary of the Committee, (202) 452-2921. Clearly mark the request FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT REQUEST.
</P>
<P>(2) A request may not be combined with any other request or FOIA appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The requester's name, address, daytime telephone number, and an email address if available.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the records that enables the Committee to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any of the Committee's operations. Whenever possible, the request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees. If the information requested is not intended for a commercial use (as defined in § 271.16(d)(1)) and the requester seeks a reduction or waiver of fees because he or she is either a representative of the news media, an educational institution, or a noncommercial scientific institution, the requester should include the information called for in § 271.16(g)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Perfected and defective requests.</I> (1) The Committee will consider the request to be perfected on the date the secretary of the Committee receives a request that contains all of the information required by paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Committee need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Committee may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.12" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.12   Processing requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipt of requests.</I> Upon receipt of any request that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 271.11, the Committee shall assign the request to the appropriate processing schedule, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred to the Committee by another agency or by a Federal Reserve Bank, is the date the secretary of the Committee actually receives the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (1) The Committee provides different levels of processing for categories of requests under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the Committee and that have already been cleared for public release or can easily be cleared for public release may qualify for simple processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other requests shall be handled under normal processing procedures, unless expedited processing has been granted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Committee will make the determination whether a request qualifies for simple processing. A requester may contact the Committee to learn whether a particular request has been assigned to simple processing. If the request has not qualified for simple processing, the requester may limit the scope of the request in order to qualify for simple processing by contacting the Committee in writing, by letter or email, or by telephone.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. A request for expedited processing must be clearly labeled “Expedited Processing Requested.” The Committee will process requests and appeals on an expedited basis whenever it is determined that they involve:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity, if made by a person who is primarily engaged in disseminating information.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who seeks expedited processing must submit a statement, certified to be true and correct, explaining in detail the basis for making the request for expedited processing. For example, under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, a requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the Government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about Federal Government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic. As a matter of administrative discretion, the Committee may waive the formal certification requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 10 calendar days of receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Committee will notify the requester of its decision on the request. A denial of expedited processing may be appealed to the Committee in accordance with § 271.14. The Committee will respond to the appeal within 10 working days of receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Priority of responses.</I> The Committee will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks, except when expedited processing is granted in which case the request will be processed as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time limits.</I> The time for response to requests shall be 20 working days from when a request is perfected. Exceptions to the 20-day time limit are only as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (c) of this section, the Committee shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the running of such time is suspended for a requester to address fee requirements pursuant to § 271.16(c)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(3) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), the Committee may:
</P>
<P>(i) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of time not to exceed 10 working days, where the Committee has provided written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Extend the 20-day time limit for a period of more than 10 working days where the Committee has provided the requester with an opportunity to modify the scope of the FOIA request so that it can be processed within that time frame or with an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the original request or a modified request, and has notified the requester that the Committee's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist the requester for purposes of this paragraph (e)(3)(ii) and in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the Committee, and of the requester's right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.13" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.13   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Committee receives a perfected request, it will conduct a reasonable search of Committee records in its possession on the date the Committee's search begins and will review any responsive information it locates.
</P>
<P>(b) If a request covers documents that were created by, obtained from, or classified by another agency, the Committee may refer the request for such documents to that agency for a response and inform the requester promptly of the referral. To the extent there is confidential supervisory information, as that term is defined by 12 CFR 261.2(b), contained within Committee records, disclosure of such information will be handled in consultation with the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) In responding to a request, the Committee will withhold information under this section only if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Committee reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption described in § 271.15(a); or
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(d) The Committee will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release nonexempt information.
</P>
<P>(e) The Committee shall notify the requester of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Committee's determination of the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for the determination;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the amount of information withheld, if any. An estimate is not required if the amount of information is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Committee's FOIA Public Liaison; and
</P>
<P>(5) When an adverse determination is made, the Committee will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester of:
</P>
<P>(i) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination within 90 calendar days after the date of the determination, as specified in § 271.14;
</P>
<P>(ii) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Committee's FOIA Public Liaison or from the Office of Government Information Services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(f) Adverse determinations, or denials of requests, include decisions that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited treatment.
</P>
<P>(g) The Committee will normally send responsive, nonexempt documents to the requester by email but may use other means as arranged between the Committee and the requester or as determined by the Committee. The Committee will attempt to provide records in the format requested by the requester.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.14" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.14   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Committee makes an adverse determination as defined in § 271.13(f), the requester may file a written appeal with the Committee, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The appeal should prominently display the phrase FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT APPEAL on the first page, and can be submitted online at <I>https://www.federalreserve.gov/foia/fomc/appeals.htm</I> or, if sent by mail, addressed to the Secretary of the Committee, Federal Open Market Committee, 20th Street and Constitution Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20551; or sent by facsimile to the Secretary of the Committee, (202) 452-2921. If the requester is appealing the denial of expedited treatment, the appeal should clearly be labeled “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”
</P>
<P>(2) A request for records under § 271.11 may not be combined in the same letter with an appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) To be considered timely, an appeal must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted, within 90 calendar days after the date of the adverse determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 271.12(c)(3), the Committee shall make a determination regarding any appeal within 20 working days of actual receipt of the appeal by the Committee. If an adverse determination is upheld on appeal, in whole or in part, the determination letter shall notify the appealing party of the right to seek judicial review and of the availability of dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Committee may reconsider an adverse determination, including one on appeal, if intervening circumstances or additional facts not known at the time of the adverse determination come to the attention of the Committee.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.15" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.15   Exemptions from disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Types of records exempt from disclosure.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b), the following records of the Committee are exempt from disclosure under this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Any information that is specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and is in fact properly classified pursuant to the Executive order.
</P>
<P>(2) Any information related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Committee.
</P>
<P>(3) Any information specifically exempted from disclosure by statute to the extent required by 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) Any matter that is a trade secret or that constitutes commercial or financial information obtained from a person and that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(5) Inter- or intra-agency memorandums or letters that would not be available by law to a party other than an agency in litigation with the Committee, provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records that were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(6) Any information contained in personnel and medical files and similar files the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(7) Any records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, to the extent permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(8) Any matter that is contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, including a state financial institution supervisory agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Release of exempt information.</I> (1) Except where disclosure is expressly prohibited by statute, regulation, or order, the Committee may release records that are exempt from mandatory disclosure whenever the Committee determines that such disclosure would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The fact that the Committee has determined to release particular exempt information does not waive the Committee's ability to withhold similar exempt information in response to the same or a different request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delayed release.</I> Except as required by law, publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or availability to the public of certain information may be delayed if immediate disclosure would likely:
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with accomplishing the objectives of the Committee in the discharge of its statutory functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Interfere with the orderly conduct of the foreign affairs of the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Permit speculators or others to gain unfair profits or other unfair advantages by speculative trading in securities or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(4) Result in unnecessary or unwarranted disturbances in the securities markets;
</P>
<P>(5) Interfere with the orderly execution of the objectives or policies of other Government agencies; or
</P>
<P>(6) Impair the ability to negotiate any contract or otherwise harm the commercial or financial interest of the United States, the Committee, any Federal Reserve Bank, or any department or agency of the United States.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.16" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.16   Fee schedules; waiver of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fee schedules.</I> Consistent with the limitations set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(A)(viii), the fees applicable to a request for records pursuant to § 271.11 are set forth in Table 1 to this section. These fees cover only the full allowable direct costs of search, duplication, and review. No fees will be charged where the average cost of collecting the fee (calculated at $5.00) exceeds the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For purposes of computing fees.</I> (1) Search time includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including line-by-line identification of material within documents. Such activity is distinct from “review” of material to determine whether the material is exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Direct costs mean those expenditures that the Committee actually incurs in searching for, reviewing, and duplicating records in response to a request made under § 271.11, as shown in table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Duplication refers to the process of making a copy, in any format, of a document.
</P>
<P>(4) Review refers to the process of examining documents that have been located as being potentially responsive to a request for records to determine whether any portion of a document is exempt from disclosure. It includes doing all that is necessary to prepare the documents for release, including the redaction of exempt information. It does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment procedures.</I> The Committee may assume that a person requesting records pursuant to § 271.11 will pay the applicable fees, unless the request includes a limitation on fees to be paid or seeks a waiver or reduction of fees pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Advance notification of fees.</I> If the estimated charges are likely to exceed the amount authorized by the requester, the secretary of the Committee shall notify the requester of the estimated amount. Upon receipt of such notice, the requester may confer with the secretary of the Committee to reformulate the request to lower the costs or may authorize a higher amount. The time period for responding to requests under § 271.12(e) and the processing of the request will be suspended until the requester agrees in writing to pay the applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance payment.</I> The Committee may require advance payment of any fee estimated to exceed $250. The Committee may also require full payment in advance where a requester has previously failed to pay a fee in a timely fashion. The time period for responding to a request under § 271.12(e), and the processing of the request shall be suspended until the Committee receives the required payment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Late charges.</I> The Committee may assess interest charges when fee payment is not made within 30 days of the date on which the billing was sent. Interest is at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and accrues from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Categories of uses.</I> The fees assessed depend upon the intended use for the records requested. In determining which category is appropriate, the Committee will look to the intended use set forth in the request for records. Where a requester's description of the use is insufficient to make a determination, the Committee may seek additional clarification before categorizing the request.
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>commercial use requester</I> is one who requests records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Representative of the news media</I> is any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience, including organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. A non-affiliated journalist who demonstrates a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity, such as a publishing contract or past publication record, will be considered as a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Educational institution</I> is any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. The Committee may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> is an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>All other requesters</I> refers to those requesters who do not fall within any of the categories described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) Please refer to table 1 to this section to determine what fees apply for different categories of users.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonproductive search.</I> Fees for search and review may be charged even if no responsive documents are located or if the request is denied.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregated requests.</I> A requester may not file multiple requests at the same time, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. If the Committee reasonably believes that a requester is separating a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Committee may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. It is considered reasonable for the Committee to presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made to avoid fees. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> A request for a waiver or reduction of the fees, and the justification for the waiver, shall be included with the request for records to which it pertains. If a waiver is requested and the requester has not indicated in writing an agreement to pay the applicable fees if the waiver request is denied, the time for response to the request for documents, as set forth in § 271.12(e), shall not begin until either a waiver has been granted or, if the waiver is denied, until the requester has agreed to pay the applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(1) The Committee shall grant a waiver or reduction of fees where it is determined both that disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operation or activities of the government, and that the disclosure of information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. In making this determination, the Committee will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the subject of the records would shed light on identifiable operations or activities of the government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether disclosure of the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. The Committee will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, profit, or litigation interest.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A clear statement of the requester's interest in the documents;
</P>
<P>(ii) The use proposed for the documents and whether the requester will derive income or other benefit for such use;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of how the public will benefit from such use and from the Committee's release of the documents;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the method by which the information will be disseminated to the public; and
</P>
<P>(v) If specialized use of the information is contemplated, a statement of the requester's qualifications that are relevant to that use.
</P>
<P>(3) The requester has the burden to present evidence or information in support of a request for a waiver or reduction of fees.
</P>
<P>(4) The Committee shall notify the requester of its determination on the request for a waiver or reduction of fees. The requester may appeal a denial in accordance with § 271.14(a).
</P>
<P>(5) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver must be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(6) A request for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request for records is first submitted to the Committee and should address the criteria referenced in paragraphs (g)(1) through (5) of this section. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) If the Committee fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request, the Committee may not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as permitted under paragraphs (h)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Committee has determined that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and has provided timely written notice to the requester and subsequently responds within the additional 10 working days provided in § 271.12(e)(3), the Committee may charge search fees, or in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Committee has determined that unusual circumstances exist, as described in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Committee may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraphs (d)(2) through (4) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the Committee has:
</P>
<P>(i) Provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee requests.</I> In connection with any request by an employee, former employee, or applicant for employment, for records for use in prosecuting a grievance or complaint of discrimination against the Committee, fees shall be waived where the total charges (including charges for information provided under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a)) are $50 or less; but the Committee may waive fees in excess of that amount.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Special services.</I> The Committee may agree to provide, and set fees to recover the costs of, special services not covered by the FOIA, such as certifying records or information and sending records by special methods such as express mail or overnight delivery.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 271.16—Fees
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of requester
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Search costs per hour
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Review costs per hour
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Duplication costs
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clerical/Technical staff, $20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clerical/Technical staff, $20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photocopy per standard page, .10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff, $40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff, $40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other types of duplication, Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff, $65</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff, $65
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary, Direct Costs
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Educational; or Non-commercial scientific; or News media</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages <E T="03">free,</E> then:


<br/>Photocopy per standard page, .10.

<br/>Other types of duplication, Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All other requesters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 2 hours <E T="03">free,</E> then:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Costs waived</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages <E T="03">free,</E> then:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Clerical/Technical staff, $20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Photocopy per standard page, .10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Professional/Supervisory staff, $40</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other types of duplication, Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manager/Senior professional staff, $65
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Computer search, including computer search time, output, operator's salary, Direct Costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Subpoenas, Orders Compelling Production, and Other Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 271.20" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.38.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 271.20   Subpoenas, orders compelling production, and other process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advice by person served.</I> Any person, whether or not an officer or employee of the Committee, of the Board, or of a Federal Reserve Bank, who is served with a subpoena, order, or other judicial or administrative process requiring the production of exempt information of the Committee or requiring the person's testimony regarding such Committee information in any proceeding, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly inform the Committee's General Counsel of the service and all relevant facts, including the documents, information, or testimony demanded, and any facts relevant to the Committee in determining whether the material requested should be made available;
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the entity issuing the process of the substance of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) At the appropriate time, inform the court or tribunal that issued the process of the substance of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appearance by person served.</I> Unless authorized by the Committee or as ordered by a Federal court in a judicial proceeding in which the Committee has had the opportunity to appear and oppose discovery, any person who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process concerning exempt Committee information shall attend at the time and place required and respectfully decline to disclose or to give any testimony with respect to the information, basing such refusal upon the provisions of this part. If the court or other body orders the disclosure of the information or the giving of testimony, the person having the information shall continue to decline to disclose such information and shall promptly report the facts to the Committee for such action as the Committee may deem appropriate.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="272" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 272—RULES OF PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>38 FR 2754, Jan. 30, 1973, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 272 appear at 86 FR 11623, Feb. 26, 2021.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 272.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 272.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued by the Federal Open Market Committee (the Committee) pursuant to the requirement of section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code that every agency shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> its rules of procedure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 272.2" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 272.2   Functions of the Committee.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures followed by the Committee are designed to facilitate the effective performance of the Committee's statutory functions with respect to the regulation and direction of open market operations conducted by the Federal Reserve banks and with respect to certain direct transactions between the Reserve banks and the United States. In determining the policies to be followed in such operations, the Committee considers information regarding business and credit conditions and domestic and international economic and financial developments, and other pertinent information gathered and submitted by its staff and the staffs of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Board) and the Federal Reserve banks. Against the background of such information, the Committee takes actions from time-to-time to regulate and direct the open market operations of the Reserve banks. Such policy actions ordinarily are taken through the adoption and transmission to the Federal Reserve banks of regulations, authorizations, and directives. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 272.3" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 272.3   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place and frequency.</I> The Committee meets in Washington, DC, at least four times each year and oftener if deemed necessary. Meetings are held upon the call of the Chair of the Board or at the request of any three members of the Committee. Notices of calls by the Chair of the Board to other members are given by the Secretary of the Committee in writing, by telephone, or electronic means. Requests of any three members for the calling of a meeting shall state the time therefor and shall be filed in writing, by telephone, or electronic means with the Secretary who shall forthwith notify all members of the Committee in writing, by telephone, or electronic means. When the Secretary has sent notices to all members of the Committee that a meeting has been requested by three members and of the time therefor, a meeting is deemed to have been called. If, in the judgment of the Chair, circumstances require that a meeting be called at such short notice that one or more members cannot be present in person, such members may participate in the meeting by telephone conference arrangements or by electronic means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternates.</I> Whenever any member of the Committee representing Federal Reserve banks shall find that the member will be unable to attend a meeting of the Committee, the member shall promptly notify the member's alternate and the Secretary of the Committee in writing, by telephone, or electronic means, and upon receipt of such notice such alternate shall advise the Secretary whether the alternate will attend such meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quorum.</I> Seven members, at least one of whom represents a Federal Reserve Bank, constitute a quorum of the Committee for purposes of transacting business except that, if there are fewer than seven members in office, then the number of members in office constitute a quorum. For purposes of this paragraph (c), members of the Committee include alternates acting in the absence of members. Less than a quorum may adjourn a meeting of the Committee from time to time until a quorum is in attendance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendance at meetings.</I> Attendance at Committee meetings is restricted to members and alternate members of the Committee, the Presidents of Federal Reserve Banks who are not at the time members or alternates, staff officers of the Committee, the Manager, and such other advisers as the Committee may invite from time to time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Meeting agendas.</I> The Secretary, in consultation with the Chair, prepares an agenda of matters to be discussed at each meeting and the Secretary transmits the agenda to the members of the Committee within a reasonable time in advance of such meeting. In general, the agendas include reports by the Manager on open market operations since the previous meeting, and ratification by the Committee of such operations; reports by Economists on, and Committee discussion of, the economic and financial situation and outlook; Committee discussion of monetary policy and action with respect thereto; and such other matters as may be considered necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2754, Jan. 30, 1973, as amended at 44 FR 52823, Sept. 11, 1979; 65 FR 6320, Feb. 9, 2000; 68 FR 6061, Feb. 6, 2003; 70 FR 7840, Feb. 16, 2005; 78 FR 19981, Apr. 3, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 272.4" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 272.4   Committee actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actions at meetings.</I> Actions are taken at meetings of the Committee except as described below. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Actions between meetings.</I> Special circumstances may make it desirable in the public interest for Committee members to consider an action to modify an outstanding Committee authorization or directive at a time when it is not feasible to call a meeting. Whenever, in the judgment of the Chair, such circumstances have arisen, the relevant information and recommendations for action are transmitted to the members by the Secretary, and the members communicate their votes to the Secretary. If the action is approved by a majority of the members, advice to that effect is promptly given by the Secretary to the members of the Committee and to the Reserve bank selected to execute transactions for the System Open Market Account. All communications of recommended actions and votes under this paragraph shall be in writing, by telephone, or electronic means; if the communication is made orally, the Secretary shall cause a written record to be made without delay. An action taken between meetings has the force and effect of an action at a meeting: <I>Provided, however,</I> That if a meeting is held before the execution of any operations pursuant to the action, the action is null and void unless it is ratified and confirmed by the Committee at such meeting. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegations of authority.</I> In special circumstances, the Committee may delegate authority to take an action, subject to such instructions or guidelines as the Committee deems proper. Such delegations of authority may be made to the Chair; to a subcommittee consisting of the Chair and the Vice Chair of the Committee and the Vice Chair of the Board (or in the absence of the Chair or of the Vice Chair of the Board the members of the Board designated by the Chair as alternates, and in the absence of the Vice Chair of the Committee the alternate for the Vice Chair); or to any other member or members of the Committee. An action taken pursuant to such a delegation of authority has the force and effect of an action taken by the Committee. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Technical changes to Committee rules.</I> The Secretary of the Committee (or the acting secretary) is authorized to make technical corrections, such as spelling, grammar, construction, and organization (including removal of obsolete provisions and references), to the Committee's rules, regulations, and orders and other records of Committee action but only with the concurrence of the Committee's General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date.</I> Committee action ordinarily is made effective as of the time it is taken because the nature of the subject matter and the action taken is such that the public interest and the proper discharge of the Committee's responsibilities so require. Occasionally, however, the Committee may specify that an action is to be effective at some different time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 2754, Jan. 30, 1973, as amended at 65 FR 6320, Feb. 9, 2000; 70 FR 7841, Feb. 16, 2005] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 272.5" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.39.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 272.5   Notice and public procedure.</HEAD>
<P>There ordinarily is no published notice of proposed action by the Committee or public procedure thereon, as described in section 553 of title 5 of the United States Code, because such notice and procedure are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="281" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 281—STATEMENTS OF POLICY


</HEAD>

<DIV8 N="§ 281.1" NODE="12:4.0.1.2.40.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 281.1   Policy regarding the Government in the Sunshine Act.</HEAD>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On September 13, 1976, there was enacted into law the Government in the Sunshine Act, Pub. L. No. 94-409, 90 Stat. 1241 (“Sunshine Act”), established for the purpose of providing the public with the “fullest practicable information regarding the decisionmaking processes of the Federal Government * * * while protecting the rights of individuals and the ability of the Government to carry out its responsibilities.” 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The Sunshine Act applies only to those Federal agencies that are defined in section 552(e) of title 5 of the United States Code and “headed by a collegial body composed of two or more individual members, a majority of whom are appointed to such position by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate, and any subdivision thereof authorized to act on behalf of the agency.” 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Government in the Sunshine Act, Pub. L. 94-409, sec. 2, 90 Stat. 1241 (1976).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Government in the Sunshine Act, Pub. L. 94-409, sec. 3(a), 90 Stat. 1241 (1976).</P></FTNT>
<P>The Federal Open Market Committee (“FOMC”) is a separate and independent statutory body within the Federal Reserve System. In no respect is it an agent or “subdivision” of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board of Governors”). It was originally established by the Banking Act of 1933 and restructured in its present form by the Banking Act of 1935 and subsequent legislation in 1942 (generally see 12 U.S.C. 263(a)). The FOMC's membership is composed of the seven members of the Board of Governors and five representatives of the Federal Reserve Banks who are selected annually in accordance with the procedures set forth in Section 12A of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 263(a). Members of the Board of Governors serve in an ex officio capacity on the FOMC by reason of their appointment as Members of the Board of Governors, not as a result of an appointment “to such position” (the FOMC) by the President. Representatives of the Reserve Banks serve on the FOMC not as a result of an appointment “to such position” by the President, but rather by virtue of their positions with the Reserve Banks and their selection pursuant to Section 12A of the Federal Reserve Act. It is clear therefore that the FOMC does not fall within the scope of an “agency” or “subdivision” as defined in the Sunshine Act and consequently is not subject to the provisions of that Act. 
</P>
<P>As explained below, the Act would not require the FOMC to hold its meetings in open session even if the FOMC were covered by the Act. However, despite the conclusion reached that the Sunshine Act does not apply to the FOMC, the FOMC has determined that its procedures and timing of public disclosure already are conducted in accordance with the spirit of the Sunshine Act, as that Act would apply to deliberations of the nature engaged in by the FOMC. 
</P>
<P>In the foregoing regard, the FOMC has noted that while the Act calls generally for open meetings of multi-member Federal agencies, 10 specific exemptions from the open meeting requirement are provided to assure the ability of the Government to carry out its responsibilities. Among the exemptions provided is that which authorizes any agency operating under the Act to conduct closed meetings where the subject of a meeting involves information “the premature disclosure of which would—in the case of an agency which regulates currencies, securities, commodities, or financial institutions, be likely to lead to significant financial speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities.” 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Government in the Sunshine Act, Pub. L. 94-409, sec. 3(a), 90 Stat. 1242 (1976).</P></FTNT>
<P>As to meetings closed under such exemption, the Act requires the maintenance of either a transcript, electronic recording or minutes and sets forth specified, detailed requirements as to the contents and timing of disclosure of certain portions or all of such minutes. The Act permits the withholding from the public of the minutes where disclosure would be likely to produce adverse consequences of the nature described in the relevant exemptions. 
</P>
<P>The FOMC has reviewed the agenda of its monthly meetings for the past three years and has determined that all such meetings could have been closed pursuant to the exemption dealing with finanical speculation or other exemptions set forth in the Sunshine Act. The FOMC has further determined that virtually all of its substantive deliberations could have been preserved pursuant to the Act's minutes requirements and that such minutes could similarly have been protected against premature disclosure under the provisions of the Act. 
</P>
<P>The FOMC's deliberations are currently reported by means of a document entitled “Record of Policy Actions” which is released to the public approximately one month after the meeting to which it relates. The Record of Policy Actions complies with the Act's minutes requirements in that it contains a full and accurate report of all matters of policy discussed and views presented, clearly sets forth all policy actions taken by the FOMC and the reasons therefor, and includes the votes by individual members on each policy action. The timing of release of the Record of Policy Actions is fully consistent with the Act's provisions assuring against premature release of any item of discussion in an agency's minutes that contains information of a sensitive financial nature. In fact, by releasing the comprehensive Record of Policy Actions to the public approximately a month after each meeting, the FOMC exceeds the publication requirements that would be mandated by the letter of the Sunshine Act. 
</P>
<P>Recognizing the Congressional purpose underlying the enactment of the Sunshine Act, the FOMC has determined to continue its current practice and timing of public disclosures in the conviction that its operations thus conducted are consistent with the intent and spirit of the Sunshine Act.</P></EXTRACT>
<SECAUTH TYPE="N">(12 U.S.C. 263; 5 U.S.C. 552)
</SECAUTH>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 13300, Mar. 10, 1977. Redesignated at 70 FR 7841, Feb. 16, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="12:4.0.1.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—FEDERAL RESERVE SYSTEM LABOR RELATIONS PANEL


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="290-299" NODE="12:4.0.1.3.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 290-299 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 1, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="5" NODE="12:5" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 5</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iii</E>—Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>302


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="III" NODE="12:5.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER III—FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—PROCEDURE AND RULES OF PRACTICE 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="300-301" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 300-301 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="302" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 302—REGULATIONS GOVERNING BANK SUPERVISION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819(a) (Seventh and Tenth), 1831p-1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 12085, Mar. 2, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Use of Supervisory Guidance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 302.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 302.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This subpart reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this part) (Statement).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 302.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 302.2   Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance.</HEAD>
<P>The Statement describes the official policy of the FDIC with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 302.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 302.3   Rule of construction.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart does not alter the legal status of guidelines authorized by statute, including but not limited to, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, to create binding legal obligations.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Prohibition on Use of Reputation Risk by Regulators</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 18293, Apr. 10, 2026, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 302.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 302.100   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC will not criticize, formally or informally, or take adverse action against an institution on the basis of reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC will not require, instruct, or encourage an institution, or any employee of an institution, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Refrain from contracting or doing business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk;
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate a contract or discontinue doing business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Sign a contract or initiate doing business with a third-party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk; or
</P>
<P>(4) Modify the terms or conditions under which it contracts or does business with a third party, including an institution-affiliated party, on the basis of reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC will not require, instruct, or encourage an institution, or any employee of an institution, to terminate a contract with, discontinue doing business with, sign a contract with, initiate doing business with, modify the terms under which it will do business with a person or entity, or take any action or refrain from taking any action on the basis of the person's or entity's political, social, cultural, or religious views or beliefs, constitutionally protected speech, or solely on the basis of the person's or entity's involvement in politically disfavored but lawful business activities perceived to present reputation risk.
</P>
<P>(d) The prohibitions in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section only apply to actions taken on the bases described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, and the prohibition in paragraph (c) of this section shall not apply with respect to persons, entities, or jurisdictions sanctioned by the Office of Foreign Assets Control.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section shall restrict the FDIC's authority to implement, administer, and enforce the provisions of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code.
</P>
<P>(f) The FDIC will not take any supervisory action or other adverse action against an institution, a group of institutions, or the institution-affiliated parties of any institution that is designed to punish or discourage an individual or group from engaging in any lawful political, social, cultural, or religious activities, constitutionally protected speech, or, for political reasons, lawful business activities that the FDIC or any of its personnel disagrees with or disfavors.
</P>
<P>(g) Definitions.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse action</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any negative feedback delivered by or on behalf of the FDIC to the supervised institution, including in a report of examination or a formal or informal enforcement action;
</P>
<P>(ii) A downgrade, or contribution to a downgrade, of any supervisory rating, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or any comparable rating system);
</P>
<P>(B) Any rating under the Uniform Interagency Consumer Compliance Rating System;
</P>
<P>(C) Any rating under the Uniform Rating System for Information Technology;
</P>
<P>(D) Any rating under any other rating system;
</P>
<P>(iii) A denial of a filing pursuant to Part 303 of the FDIC's regulations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Inclusion of a condition on a deposit insurance application or other approval;
</P>
<P>(v) Imposition of additional approval requirements;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other heightened requirements on an activity or change;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any adjustment of the institution's capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any action that negatively impacts the institution, or an institution-affiliated party, or treats the institution differently than similarly situated peers.
</P>
<P><I>Doing business with</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank providing any product or service, including account services;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank contracting with a third party for the third party to provide a product or service;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank providing discounted or free products or services to customers or third parties, including charitable activities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The bank entering into, maintaining, modifying, or terminating an employment relationship; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any other similar business activity that involves a bank client or a third party.
</P>
<P><I>Institution</I> means an entity for which the FDIC makes or will make supervisory determinations or other decisions, either solely or jointly.
</P>
<P><I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means the same as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)).
</P>
<P><I>Reputation risk</I> means any risk, regardless of how the risk is labeled by the institution or regulators, that an action or activity, or combination of actions or activities, or lack of actions or activities, of an institution could negatively impact public perception of the institution for reasons not clearly and directly related to the financial or operational condition of the institution.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.2.4.1.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 302—Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the FDIC's approach to supervisory guidance.
</P>
<HD2>Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
</HD2>
<P>The FDIC issues various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, policy statements, questions and answers, and frequently asked questions, to its supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the FDIC does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the FDIC's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the FDIC's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the FDIC generally considers consistent with safety-and-soundness standards or other applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Government agencies issue regulations that generally have the force and effect of law. Such regulations generally take effect only after the agency proposes the regulation to the public and responds to comments on the proposal in a final rulemaking document.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD2>
<P>The FDIC is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
</P>
<P>• The FDIC intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the FDIC intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The FDIC will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
</P>
<P>• Examiners will not criticize through supervisory recommendations (including matters requiring board attention) a supervised financial institution for, and the FDIC will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of safe and sound conduct, appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices, and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>• Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations, financial conditions, or other matters that could have a negative effect on the safety and soundness of the financial institution, could cause consumer harm, or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
</P>
<P>• The FDIC also has at times sought, and may continue to seek, public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the FDIC to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
</P>
<P>• The FDIC will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
</P>
<P>The FDIC will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourage supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.






</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="303" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 303—FILING PROCEDURES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 378, 1464, 1813, 1815, 1817, 1818, 1819(a) (Seventh and Tenth), 1820, 1823, 1828, 1829, 1831a, 1831e, 1831<I>o,</I> 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835a, 1843(l), 3104, 3105, 3108, 3207, 5414, 5415, and 15 U.S.C. 1601-1607.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 303.0" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the procedures to be followed by both the FDIC and applicants with respect to applications, requests, or notices (filings) required to be filed by statute or regulation. Additional details concerning processing are explained in related FDIC statements of policy. 
</P>
<P>(b) Additional application procedures may be found in the following FDIC regulations: 
</P>
<P>(1) 12 CFR part 327—Assessments (Request for review of assessment risk classification); 
</P>
<P>(2) 12 CFR part 328—Advertisement of Membership (Application for temporary waiver of advertising requirements); 
</P>
<P>(3) 12 CFR part 345—Community Reinvestment (CRA strategic plans and requests for designation as a wholesale or limited purpose institution); 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Rules of General Applicability</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A prescribes the general procedures for submitting filings to the FDIC which are required by statute or regulation. This subpart also prescribes the procedures to be followed by the FDIC, applicants and interested parties during the process of considering a filing, including public notice and comment. This subpart explains the availability of expedited processing for eligible depository institutions (defined in § 303.2(r)). Certain terms used throughout this part are also defined in this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as modified or otherwise defined in this part, terms used in this part that are defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>) have the meanings provided in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. Additional definitions of terms used in this part are as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>FDI Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted part 324 total assets</I> means adjusted 12 CFR part 324 total assets as calculated and reflected in the FDIC's Report of Examination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adverse comment</I> means any objection, protest, or other adverse written statement submitted by an interested party relative to a filing. The term adverse comment shall not include any comment concerning the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), fair lending, consumer protection, or civil rights that the appropriate regional director or designee determines to be frivolous (for example, raising issues between the commenter and the applicant that have been resolved). The term adverse comment also shall not include any other comment that the appropriate regional director or designee determines to be frivolous (for example, a non-substantive comment submitted primarily as a means of delaying action on the filing). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amended order to pay</I> means an order to forfeit and pay civil money penalties, the amount of which has been changed from that assessed in the original notice of assessment of civil money penalties. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicant</I> means a person or entity that submits a filing to the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application</I> means a submission requesting FDIC approval to engage in various corporate activities and transactions. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appropriate FDIC region</I> and <I>appropriate regional director</I> mean, respectively, the FDIC region and the FDIC regional director which the FDIC designates as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) When an institution or proposed institution that is the subject of a filing or administrative action is not and will not be part of a group of related institutions, the appropriate FDIC region for the institution and any individual associated with the institution is the FDIC region in which the institution or proposed institution is or will be located, and the appropriate regional director is the regional director for that region; or 
</P>
<P>(2) When an institution or proposed institution that is the subject of a filing or administrative action is or will be part of a group of related institutions, the appropriate FDIC region for the institution and any individual associated with the institution is the FDIC region in which the group's major policy and decision makers are located, or any other region the FDIC designates on a case-by-case basis, and the appropriate regional director is the regional director for that region. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Associate director</I> means any associate director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC) or, in the event such title become obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the division. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Book capital</I> means total equity capital which is comprised of perpetual preferred stock, common stock, surplus, undivided profits and capital reserves, as those items are defined in the instructions of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) for the preparation of Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for insured banks. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Comment</I> means any written statement of fact or opinion submitted by an interested party relative to a filing. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Corporation</I> or <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>CRA protest</I> means any adverse comment from the public related to a pending filing which raises a negative issue relative to the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>), whether or not it is labeled a protest and whether or not a hearing is requested. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Deputy director</I> means the deputy director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC) or, in the event such title become obsolete, any official of equivalent or higher authority within the division. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Deputy regional director</I> means any deputy regional director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC) or, in the event such title become obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the same FDIC region of DSC. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Appropriate FDIC office</I> means the office designated by the appropriate regional director or designee. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>DSC</I> means the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection or, in the event the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection is reorganized, such successor division. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC) or, in the event such title become obsolete, any official of equivalent or higher authority within the division. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Eligible depository institution</I> means a depository institution that meets the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) Received an FDIC-assigned composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS) as a result of its most recent federal or state examination; 
</P>
<P>(2) Received a satisfactory or better Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) rating from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination, if the depository institution is subject to examination under part 345 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) Received a compliance rating of 1 or 2 from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination; 
</P>
<P>(4) Is well-capitalized as defined in the appropriate capital regulation and guidance of the institution's primary federal regulator; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, written agreement, memorandum of understanding, or other administrative agreement with its primary federal regulator or chartering authority. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Filing</I> means an application, notice or request submitted to the FDIC under this part. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>General Counsel</I> means the head of the Legal Division of the FDIC or any official within the Legal Division exercising equivalent authority for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Insider</I> means a person who is or is proposed to be a director, officer, organizer, or incorporator of an applicant; a shareholder who directly or indirectly controls 10 percent or more of any class of the applicant's outstanding voting stock; or the associates or interests of any such person. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> shall have the same meaning as provided in section 3(u) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u)). 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Notice</I> means a submission notifying the FDIC that a depository institution intends to engage in or has commenced certain corporate activities or transactions. 
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Notice to primary regulator</I> means the notice described in section 8(a)(2)(A) of the Act concerning termination of deposit insurance (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)(A)). 
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Regional counsel</I> means a regional counsel of the Legal Division or, in the event the title becomes obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the Legal Division. 
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Regional director</I> means any regional director in the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC), or in the event such title become obsolete, any official of equivalent authority within the division. 
</P>
<P>(aa) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Standard conditions</I> means the conditions that the FDIC may impose as a routine matter when approving a filing, whether or not the applicant has agreed to their inclusion. The following conditions, or variations thereof, are standard conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the applicant has obtained all necessary and final approvals from the appropriate federal or state authority or other appropriate authority; 
</P>
<P>(2) That if the transaction does not take effect within a specified time period, or unless, in the meantime, a request for an extension of time has been approved, the consent granted shall expire at the end of the specified time period; 
</P>
<P>(3) That until the conditional commitment of the FDIC becomes effective, the FDIC retains the right to alter, suspend or withdraw its commitment should any interim development be deemed to warrant such action; and 
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a merger transaction (as defined in ¶ 303.61(a) of this part), including a corporate reorganization, that the proposed transaction not be consummated before the 30th calendar day (or shorter time period as may be prescribed by the FDIC with the concurrence of the Attorney General) after the date of the order approving the merger transaction. 
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Tier 1 capital</I> shall have the same meaning as provided in § 324.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Total assets</I> shall have the same meaning as provided in § 324.401(g) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any entity for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 50459, Aug. 21, 2003; 78 FR 55470, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17739, Apr. 24, 2018; 85 FR 3243, Jan. 21, 2020; 85 FR 72555, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.3   General filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Unless stated otherwise, filings should be submitted to the appropriate FDIC office. Forms and instructions for submitting filings may be obtained from any FDIC regional director. If no form is prescribed, the filing should be in writing; be signed by the applicant or a duly authorized agent; and contain a concise statement of the action requested. For specific filing and content requirements, consult the appropriate subparts of this part. The FDIC may require the applicant to submit additional information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.4   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, and except as otherwise specifically provided, the FDIC begins computing the relevant period on the day after an event occurs (e.g., the day after a substantially complete filing is received by the FDIC or the day after publication begins) through the last day of the relevant period. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday or federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next business day. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 50459, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.5   Effect of Community Reinvestment Act performance on filings.</HEAD>
<P>Among other factors, the FDIC takes into account the record of performance under the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) of each applicant in considering a filing for approval of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The establishment of a domestic branch; 
</P>
<P>(b) The relocation of the bank's main office or a domestic branch; 
</P>
<P>(c) The relocation of an insured branch of a foreign bank; 
</P>
<P>(d) A transaction subject to the Bank Merger Act; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Deposit insurance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.6   Investigations and examinations.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may examine or investigate and evaluate facts related to any filing under this chapter to the extent necessary to reach an informed decision and take any action necessary or appropriate under the circumstances. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.7   Public notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The public must be provided with prior notice of a filing to engage in a merger transaction, initiate a change of control transaction, or request deposit insurance. The public has the right to comment on, or to protest, these types of proposed transactions during the relevant comment period. In order to fully apprise the public of this right, an applicant shall publish a public notice of its filing in a newspaper of general circulation. For specific publication requirements, consult subparts B (Deposit Insurance), D (Merger Transactions), and E (Change in Bank Control) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation of publication.</I> The applicant shall mail or otherwise deliver a copy of the newspaper notice to the appropriate FDIC office as part of its filing, or, if a copy is not available at the time of filing, promptly after publication. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice.</I> (1) The public notice referred to in paragraph (a) of this section shall consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an application for deposit insurance for a <I>de novo</I> depository institution, include the names of all organizers or incorporators. In the case of a merger application, include the names of all parties to the transaction. In the case of a notice of acquisition of control, include the name(s) of the acquiring parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) Type of filing being made;
</P>
<P>(iii) Name of the depository institution(s) that is the subject matter of the filing;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the public may submit comments to the appropriate FDIC regional director;
</P>
<P>(v) The address of the appropriate FDIC office where comments may be sent (the same location where the filing will be made);
</P>
<P>(vi) The closing date of the public comment period as specified in the appropriate subpart of this part; and
</P>
<P>(vii) That the nonconfidential portions of the application are on file in the appropriate FDIC office and are available for public inspection during regular business hours; photocopies of the nonconfidential portion of the application file will be made available upon request. 
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(iv) through (vii) of this section may be satisfied through use of the following notice:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Any person wishing to comment on this application may file his or her comments in writing with the regional director of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation at the appropriate FDIC office [insert address of office] not later than [insert closing date of the public comment period specified in the appropriate subpart of part 303]. The non-confidential portions of the application are on file at the appropriate FDIC office and are available for public inspection during regular business hours. Photocopies of the nonconfidential portion of the application file will be made available upon request.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple transactions.</I> The FDIC may consider more than one transaction, or a series of transactions, to be a single filing for purposes of the publication requirements of this section. When publishing a single public notice for multiple transactions, the applicant shall explain in the public notice how the transactions are related. The closing date of the comment period shall be the closing date of the longest public comment period that applies to any of the related transactions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint public notices.</I> For a transaction subject to public notice requirements by the FDIC and another federal or state banking authority, the FDIC will accept publication of a single joint notice containing all the information required by both the FDIC and the other federal agency or state banking authority, provided that the notice states that comments must be submitted to the appropriate FDIC office and, if applicable, the other federal or state banking authority. 
</P>
<P>(f) Where public notice is required, the FDIC may determine on a case-by-case basis that unusual circumstances surrounding a particular filing warrant modification of the publication requirements. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 86 FR 8097, Feb. 3, 2021; 90 FR 60557, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.8   Public access to filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> For filings subject to a public notice requirement, any person may inspect or request a copy of the non-confidential portions of a filing (the public file) until 180 days following final disposition of a filing. Following the 180-day period, non-confidential portions of an application file will be made available in accordance with ' 303.8(c). The public file generally consists of portions of the filing, supporting data, supplementary information, and comments submitted by interested persons (if any) to the extent that the documents have not been afforded confidential treatment. To view or request photocopies of the public file, an oral or written request should be submitted to the appropriate FDIC office. The public file will be produced for review not more than one business day after receipt by the appropriate FDIC office of the request (either written or oral) to see the file. The FDIC may impose a fee for photocopying in accordance with § 309.5(f) of this chapter at the rates the FDIC publishes annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential treatment.</I> (1) The applicant may request that specific information be treated as confidential. The following information generally is considered confidential:
</P>
<P>(i) Personal information, the release of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of privacy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial or financial information, the disclosure of which could result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Information, the disclosure of which could seriously affect the financial condition of any depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) If an applicant requests confidential treatment for information that the FDIC does not consider to be confidential, the FDIC may include that information in the public file after notifying the applicant. On its own initiative, the FDIC may determine that certain information should be treated as confidential and withhold that information from the public file. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FOIA requests.</I> A written request for information withheld from the public file, or copies of the public file following closure of the file 180 days after final disposition, should be submitted pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and part 309 of this chapter to the FDIC, Attn: FOIA/Privacy Group, Legal Division, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.9   Comments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of comments.</I> For filings subject to a public notice requirement, any person may submit comments to the appropriate FDIC regional director during the comment period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comment period</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Consult appropriate subparts of this part for the comment period applicable to a particular filing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extension.</I> The FDIC may extend or reopen the comment period if:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant fails to file all required information on a timely basis to permit review by the public or makes a request for confidential treatment not granted by the FDIC that delays the public availability of that information;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person requesting an extension of time satisfactorily demonstrates to the FDIC that additional time is necessary to develop factual information that the FDIC determines may materially affect the application; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC determines that other good cause exists.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Solicitation of comments.</I> Whenever appropriate, the appropriate regional director may solicit comments from any person or institution which might have an interest in or be affected by the pending filing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Applicant response.</I> The FDIC will provide copies of all comments received to the applicant and may give the applicant an opportunity to respond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.10   Hearings and other meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Matters covered.</I> This section covers hearings and other proceedings in connection with filings and determinations for or by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Deposit insurance by a proposed new depository institution or operating non-insured institution; 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Merger transaction which requires the FDIC's prior approval under the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c));
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the provisions of this § 303.10 shall not be applicable to any proposed merger transaction which the FDIC Board of Directors determines must be acted upon immediately to prevent the probable failure of one of the institutions involved, or must be handled with expeditious action due to an existing emergency condition, as permitted by the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)(6));
</P>
<P>(3) Nullification of a decision on a filing; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other purpose or matter which the FDIC Board of Directors in its sole discretion deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing requests.</I> (1) Any person may submit a written request for a hearing on a filing:
</P>
<P>(i) To the appropriate regional director before the end of the comment period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To the appropriate regional director, pursuant to a notice to nullify a decision on a filing issued pursuant to § 303.11(g)(2)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<FP>(2) The request must describe the nature of the issues or facts to be presented and the reasons why written submissions would be insufficient to make an adequate presentation of those issues or facts to the FDIC. A person requesting a hearing shall simultaneously submit a copy of the request to the applicant.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Action on a hearing request.</I> The appropriate regional director, after consultation with the Legal Division, may grant or deny a request for a hearing and may limit the issues that he or she deems relevant or material. The FDIC generally grants a hearing request only if it determines that written submissions would be insufficient or that a hearing otherwise would be in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of a hearing request.</I> If the appropriate regional director, after consultation with the Legal Division, denies a hearing request, he or she shall notify the person requesting the hearing of the reason for the denial. A decision to deny a hearing request shall be a final agency determination and is not appealable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FDIC procedures prior to the hearing</I>—(1) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> The FDIC shall issue a notice of hearing if it grants a request for a hearing or orders a hearing because it is in the public interest. The notice of hearing shall state the subject and date of the filing, the time and place of the hearing, and the issues to be addressed. The FDIC shall send a copy of the notice of hearing to the applicant, to the person requesting the hearing, and to anyone else requesting a copy.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer shall be the regional director or designee or such other person as may be named by the Board or the Director. The presiding officer is responsible for conducting the hearing and determining all procedural questions not governed by this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Participation in the hearing.</I> Any person who wishes to appear (participant) shall notify the appropriate regional director of his or her intent to participate in the hearing no later than 10 days from the date that the FDIC issues the Notice of Hearing. At least 5 days before the hearing, each participant shall submit to the appropriate regional director, as well as to the applicant and any other person as required by the FDIC, the names of witnesses, a statement describing the proposed testimony of each witness, and one copy of each exhibit the participant intends to present.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transcripts.</I> The FDIC shall arrange for a hearing transcript. The person requesting the hearing and the applicant each shall bear the cost of one copy of the transcript for his or her use unless such cost is waived by the presiding officer and incurred by the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Conduct of the hearing</I>—(1) <I>Presentations.</I> Subject to the rulings of the presiding officer, the applicant and participants may make opening and closing statements and present and examine witnesses, material, and data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information submitted.</I> Any person presenting material shall furnish one copy to the FDIC, one copy to the applicant, and one copy to each participant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Laws not applicable to hearings.</I> The Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. Appendix), the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. Rule 1 <I>et seq.</I>), and the FDIC's Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 308) do not govern hearings under this § 303.10.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Closing the hearing record.</I> At the applicant's or any participant's request, or at the FDIC's discretion, the FDIC may keep the hearing record open for up to 10 days following the FDIC's receipt of the transcript. The FDIC shall resume processing the filing after the record closes.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Disposition and notice thereof.</I> The presiding officer shall make a recommendation to the FDIC within 20 days following the date the hearing and record on the proceeding are closed. The FDIC shall notify the applicant and all participants of the final disposition of a filing and shall provide a statement of the reasons for the final disposition. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Computation of time.</I> In computing periods of time under this section, the provisions of § 308.12 of the FDIC's Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR 308.12) shall apply.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Informal proceedings.</I> The FDIC may arrange for an informal proceeding with an applicant and other interested parties in connection with a filing, either upon receipt of a written request for such a meeting made during the comment period, or upon the FDIC's own initiative. No later than 10 days prior to an informal proceeding, the appropriate regional director shall notify the applicant and each person who requested a hearing or oral presentation of the date, time, and place of the proceeding. The proceeding may assume any form, including a meeting with FDIC representatives at which participants will be asked to present their views orally. The regional director may hold separate meetings with each of the participants. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors to modify procedures.</I> The FDIC Board of Directors may delegate authority by resolution on a case-by-case basis to the presiding officer to adopt different procedures in individual matters and on such terms and conditions as the Board of Directors determines in its discretion. The resolution shall be made available for public inspection and copying in the Office of the General Counsel, Executive Secretary Section under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 90 FR 60557, Dec. 29, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.11   Decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General procedures.</I> The FDIC may approve, conditionally approve, deny, or not object to a filing after appropriate review and consideration of the record. The FDIC will promptly notify the applicant and any person who makes a written request of the final disposition of a filing. If the FDIC denies a filing, the FDIC will immediately notify the applicant in writing of the reasons for the denial.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority retained by FDIC Board of Directors to modify procedures.</I> In acting on any filing under this part, the FDIC Board of Directors may by resolution adopt procedures which differ from those contained in this part when it deems it necessary or in the public interest to do so. The resolution shall be made available for public inspection and copying in the Office of the General Counsel, Executive Secretary Section under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) A filing submitted by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will receive expedited processing as specified in the appropriate subparts of this part unless the FDIC determines to remove the filing from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. Except for filings made pursuant to subpart J (International Banking), expedited processing will not be available for any filing that the appropriate regional director does not have delegated authority to approve. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Removal of filing from expedited processing.</I> The FDIC may remove a filing from expedited processing at any time prior to final disposition if: 
</P>
<P>(i) For filings subject to public notice under § 303.7, an adverse comment is received that warrants additional investigation or review; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For filings subject to evaluation of CRA performance under § 303.5, a CRA protest is received that warrants additional investigation or review, or the appropriate regional director determines that the filing presents a significant CRA or compliance concern; 
</P>
<P>(iii) For any filing, the appropriate regional director determines that the filing presents a significant supervisory concern, or raises a significant legal or policy issue; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) For any filing, the appropriate regional director determines that other good cause exists for removal. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, a significant CRA concern includes, but is not limited to, a determination by the appropriate regional director that, although a depository institution may have an institution-wide rating of satisfactory or better, a depository institution's CRA rating is less than satisfactory in a state or multi-state metropolitan statistical area, or a depository institution's CRA performance is less than satisfactory in a metropolitan statistical area as defined in 12 CFR 345.12 (MSA) or in the non-MSA portion of a state in which it seeks to expand through approval of an application for a deposit facility as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2902(3). 
</P>
<P>(4) If the FDIC determines that it is necessary to remove a filing from expedited processing pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the FDIC promptly will provide the applicant with a written explanation 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple transactions.</I> If the FDIC is considering related transactions, some or all of which have been granted expedited processing, then the longest processing time for any of the related transactions shall govern for purposes of approval. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Abandonment of filing.</I> A filing must contain all information set forth in the applicable subpart of this part. To the extent necessary to evaluate a filing, the FDIC may require an applicant to provide additional information. If information requested by the FDIC is not provided within the time period specified by the agency, the FDIC may deem the filing abandoned and shall provide written notification to the applicant and any interested parties that submitted comments to the FDIC that the file has been closed. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appeals and requests for reconsideration</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Appeal procedures for a denial of a change in bank control (subpart E), change in senior executive officer or board of directors (subpart F) or denial of an application pursuant to section 19 of the FDI Act (subpart L) are contained in 12 CFR part 308, subparts D, L, and M, respectively. For all other filings covered by this chapter for which appeal procedures are not provided by regulation or other written guidance, the procedures specified in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section shall apply. A decision to deny a request for a hearing is a final agency determination and is not appealable. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing procedures.</I> Within 15 days of receipt of notice from the FDIC that its filing has been denied, any applicant may file a request for reconsideration with the appropriate regional director. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of filing.</I> A request for reconsideration must contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) A resolution of the board of directors of the applicant authorizing filing of the request if the applicant is a corporation, or a letter signed by the individual(s) filing the request if the applicant is not a corporation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Relevant, substantive information that for good cause was not previously set forth in the filing; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Specific reasons why the FDIC should reconsider its prior decision. 
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will notify the applicant whether reconsideration will be granted or denied within 15 days of receipt of a request for reconsideration. If a request for reconsideration is granted pursuant to § 303.11(f), the FDIC will notify the applicant of the final agency decision on such filing within 60 days of its receipt of the request for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nullification, withdrawal, revocation, amendment, and suspension of decisions on filings</I>—(1) <I>Grounds for action.</I> Except as otherwise provided by law or regulation, the FDIC may nullify, withdraw, revoke, amend or suspend a decision on a filing if it becomes aware at anytime: 
</P>
<P>(i) Of any material misrepresentation or omission related to the filing or of any material change in circumstance that occurred prior to the consummation of the transaction or commencement of the activity authorized by the decision on the filing; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) That the decision on the filing is contrary to law or regulation or was granted due to clerical or administrative error. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any person responsible for a material misrepresentation or omission in a filing or supporting materials may be subject to an enforcement action and other penalties, including criminal penalties provided in title 18 of the United States Code. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of intent and temporary order.</I> (i) Except as provided in § 303.11(g)(2)(ii), before taking action under this § 303.11(g), the FDIC shall issue and serve on an applicant written notice of its intent to take such action. A notice of intent to act on a filing shall include: 
</P>
<P>(A) The reasons for the proposed action; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The date by which the applicant may file a written response with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC may issue a temporary order on a decision on a filing without providing an applicant a prior notice of intent if the FDIC determines that: 
</P>
<P>(A) It is necessary to reevaluate the impact of a change in circumstance prior to the consummation of the transaction or commencement of the activity authorized by the decision on the filing; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The activity authorized by the filing may pose a threat to the interests of the depository institution's depositors or may threaten to impair public confidence in the depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(iii) A temporary order shall provide the applicant with an opportunity to make a written response in accordance with § 303.11(g)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to notice of intent or temporary order.</I> An applicant may file a written response to a notice of intent or a temporary order within 15 days from the date of service of the notice or temporary order. The written response should include: 
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of why the proposed action or temporary order is not warranted; and 
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Any other relevant information, mitigation circumstance, documentation, or other evidence in support of the applicant's position. An applicant may also request a hearing under § 303.10.
</P>
<P>(B) Failure by an applicant to file a written response with the FDIC to a notice of intent or a temporary order within the specified time period, shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to a final order under this paragraph (g). The FDIC shall consider any such response, if filed in a timely manner, within 30 days of receiving the response.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effective date.</I> All orders issued pursuant to this section shall become effective immediately upon issuance unless otherwise stated therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 50459, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.12   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Directors, of the FDIC (Board) may, for good cause and to the extent permitted by statute, waiver the applicability of any provision of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this chapter may be suspended, revoked, amended or waived for good cause shown, in whole or in part, at any time by the Board, subject to the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act and the provisions of this chapter. Any provision of the rules may be waived by the Board on its own motion or on petition if good cause thereof is shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 50459, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.14   Being “engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds.”</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a depository institution shall be “engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds” only if it maintains one or more non-trust deposit accounts in the minimum aggregate amount of $500,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant for federal deposit insurance under section 5 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1815(a), shall be deemed to be “engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds” from the date that the FDIC approves deposit insurance for the institution until one year after it opens for business. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any depository institution that fails to satisfy the minimum deposit standard specified in paragraph (a) of this section as of two consecutive call report dates (<I>i.e.,</I> March 31st, June 30th, September 30th, and December 31st) shall be subject to a determination by the FDIC that the institution is not “engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds” and to termination of its insured status under section 8(p) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1818(p). For purposes of this paragraph, the first three call report dates after the institution opens for business are excluded. 
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding any failure by an insured depository institution to satisfy the minimum deposit standard in paragraph (a) of this section, the institution shall continue to be “engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds” for purposes of section 3 of the FDI Act until the institution's insured status is terminated by the FDIC pursuant to a proceeding under section 8(a) or section 8(p) of the FDI Act. 12 U.S.C. 1818(a) or 1818(p). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.15   Certain limited liability companies deemed incorporated under State law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of the definition of “State bank” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(2) and this Chapter, a banking institution that is chartered as a limited liability company (LLC) under the law of any State is deemed to be “incorporated” under the law of the State, if 
</P>
<P>(1) The institution is not subject to automatic termination, dissolution, or suspension upon the happening of some event (including, e.g., the death, disability, bankruptcy, expulsion, or withdrawal of an owner of the institution), other than the passage of time; 
</P>
<P>(2) The exclusive authority to manage the institution is vested in a board of managers or directors that is elected or appointed by the owners, and that operates in substantially the same manner as, and has substantially the same rights, powers, privileges, duties, responsibilities, as a board of directors of a bank chartered as a corporation in the State; 
</P>
<P>(3) Neither State law, nor the institution's operating agreement, bylaws, or other organizational documents provide that an owner of the institution is liable for the debts, liabilities, and obligations of the institution in excess of the amount of the owner's investment; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Neither State law, nor the institution's operating agreement, bylaws, or other organizational documents require the consent of any other owner of the institution in order for an owner to transfer an ownership interest in the institution, including voting rights. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and this chapter:
</P>
<P>(1) Each of the terms “stockholder” and “shareholder” includes an owner of any interest in a depository institution chartered as an LLC, including a member or participant;
</P>
<P>(2) The term “director” includes a manager or director of a depository institution chartered as an LLC, or other person who has, with respect to such a depository institution, authority substantially similar to that of a director of a corporation;
</P>
<P>(3) The term “officer” includes an officer of a depository institution chartered as an LLC, or other person who has, with respect to such a depository institution, authority substantially similar to that of an officer of a corporation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Each of the terms “voting stock,” “voting shares,” and “voting securities” includes ownership interests in a depository institution chartered as an LLC, as well as any certificates or other evidence of such ownership interests.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 7308, Feb. 13, 2003, as amended at 86 FR 8097, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.16-303.19" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.16-303.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Deposit Insurance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.20   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the procedures for applying for deposit insurance for a proposed depository institution or an operating noninsured depository institution under section 5 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815). It also sets forth the procedures for requesting continuation of deposit insurance for a state-chartered bank withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System and for interim institutions chartered to facilitate a merger transaction. Each bank that results from the conversion of a Federal savings association into multiple banks pursuant to section 5(i)(5) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, 12 U.S.C. 1464(i)(5), is treated as a proposed depository institution or a de novo institution, as appropriate, for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 2145, Jan. 14, 2008] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.21   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Applications for deposit insurance shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The relevant application forms and instructions for applying for deposit insurance for an existing or proposed depository institution may be obtained from any FDIC regional director. 
</P>
<P>(b) An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution shall be filed and processed in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 303.24, subject to the provisions of § 303.62(b)(2) regarding deposit insurance for interim institutions. An interim institution is defined as a state- or federally-chartered depository institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction. 
</P>
<P>(c) A request for continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System shall be in letter form and shall provide the information prescribed in § 303.25. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.22   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing for proposed institutions.</I> (1) An application for deposit insurance for a proposed institution which will be a subsidiary of an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) or an eligible holding company will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. An eligible holding company is defined as a bank or thrift holding company that has consolidated assets of at least $150 million or more; a BOPEC rating of at least “2” for bank holding companies or an above average or “A” rating for thrift holding companies; and at least 75 percent of its consolidated depository institution assets comprised of eligible depository institutions. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). 
</P>
<P>(2) Under expedited processing, the FDIC will take action on an application within 60 days of receipt of a substantially complete application or 5 days after the expiration of the comment period described in § 303.23, whichever is later. Final action may be withheld until the FDIC has assurance that permission to organize the proposed institution will be granted by the chartering authority. Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 50459, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.23" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.23   Public notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>De novo institutions and operating noninsured institutions.</I> The applicant shall publish a notice as prescribed in § 303.7 in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the main office of the depository institution is or will be located. Notice shall be published as close as practicable to, but no sooner than five days before, the date the application is mailed or delivered to the appropriate FDIC office. Comments by interested parties must be received by the appropriate regional director within 30 days following the date of publication, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions to public notice requirements.</I> No publication shall be required in connection with the granting of insurance to a new depository institution established pursuant to the resolution of a depository institution in default, or to an interim depository institution formed solely to facilitate a merger transaction, or for a request for continuation of federal deposit insurance by a state-chartered bank withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.24" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.24   Application for deposit insurance for an interim institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application required.</I> Subject to § 303.62(b)(2), a deposit insurance application is required for a state-chartered interim institution if the related merger transaction is subject to approval by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. A separate application for deposit insurance for an interim institution is not required in connection with any merger requiring FDIC approval pursuant to subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of separate application.</I> A letter application for deposit insurance for an interim institution, accompanied by a copy of the related merger application, shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The letter application shall briefly describe the transaction and contain a statement that deposit insurance is being requested for an interim institution that does not operate independently but exists solely as a vehicle to accomplish a merger transaction which will be reviewed by a federal banking agency other than the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing.</I> An application for deposit insurance for an interim depository institution will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. Final action will be taken within 21 days after receipt of a substantially complete application, unless the applicant is notified in writing that additional review is warranted. If the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.25" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.25   Continuation of deposit insurance upon withdrawing from membership in the Federal Reserve System.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of application.</I> To continue its insured status upon withdrawal from membership in the Federal Reserve System, a state-chartered bank shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. A complete application shall consist of the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the letter, and any attachments thereto, sent to the appropriate Federal Reserve Bank setting forth the bank's intention to terminate its membership; 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the letter from the Federal Reserve Bank acknowledging the bank's notice to terminate membership; 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement regarding any anticipated changes in the bank's general business plan during the next 12-month period; and 
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A statement by the bank's management that there are no outstanding or proposed corrective programs or supervisory agreements with the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If such programs or agreements exist, a statement by the applicant that its Board of Directors is willing to enter into similar programs or agreements with the FDIC which would become effective upon withdrawal from the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing.</I> An application for deposit insurance under this section will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. The FDIC shall notify the applicant, within 15 days of receipt of a substantially complete application, either that federal deposit insurance will continue upon termination of membership in the Federal Reserve System or that additional review is warranted and the applicant will be notified, in writing, of the FDIC's final decision regarding continuation of deposit insurance. If the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.26-303.39" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.26-303.39   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Establishment and Relocation of Domestic Branches and Offices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This subpart sets forth the filing requirements and procedures for insured state nonmember banks to establish a branch, relocate a branch or main office, and retain existing branches after the interstate relocation of the main office subject to the approval by the FDIC pursuant to sections 13(f), 13(k), 18(d) and 44 of the FDI Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Merger transaction.</I> Applications for approval of the acquisition and establishment of branches in connection with a merger transaction under section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), are processed in accordance with subpart D (Merger Transactions) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insured branches of foreign banks and foreign branches of domestic banks.</I> Filings regarding insured branches of foreign banks and foreign branches of domestic banks are processed in accordance with subpart J (International Banking) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interstate acquisition of individual branch.</I> Applications requesting approval of the interstate acquisition of an individual branch or branches located in a state other than the applicant's home state without the acquisition of the whole bank are treated as interstate bank merger transactions under section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a(u)), and are processed in accordance with subpart D (Merger Transactions) of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 90 FR 60557, Dec. 29, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.41" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Branch,</I> except as provided in this paragraph (a), includes any branch bank, branch office, additional office, or any branch place of business located in any State of the United States or in any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands at which deposits are received or checks paid or money lent. A branch does not include a remote service unit or a facility described in § 303.45. The term branch also includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>messenger service</I> that is operated by a bank or its affiliate that picks up and delivers items relating to transactions in which deposits are received or checks paid or money lent. A messenger service established and operated by a non-affiliated third party generally does not constitute a branch for purposes of this subpart. Banks contracting with third parties to provide messenger services should consult with the FDIC to determine if the messenger service constitutes a branch. 
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>mobile branch,</I> other than a messenger service, that does not have a single, permanent site and uses a vehicle that travels to various locations to enable the public to conduct banking business. A mobile branch may serve defined locations on a regular schedule or may serve a defined area at varying times and locations. 
</P>
<P>(3) A <I>temporary branch</I> that operates for a limited period of time not to exceed one year as a public service, such as during an emergency or disaster situation. 
</P>
<P>(4) A <I>seasonal branch</I> that operates at various periodically recurring intervals, such as during state and local fairs, college registration periods, and other similar occasions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Branch relocation</I> means a move within the same immediate neighborhood of the existing branch that does not substantially affect the nature of the business of the branch or the customers of the branch. Moving a branch to a location outside its immediate neighborhood is considered the closing of an existing branch and the establishment of a new branch. Closing of a branch is covered in the FDIC Statement of Policy Concerning Branch Closing Notices and Policies. 1 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5391; see § 309.4(a) and (b) of this chapter for availability.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rule of construction.</I> For the purposes of this subpart, a <I>de minimis</I> change in address is neither a branch establishment nor a branch relocation.
</P>
<P>(i) A <I>de minimis</I> change in address occurs when a branch exchanges one physical facility for another within the same approximate location, such as where:
</P>
<P>(A) A direct line of sight exists between the two facilities;
</P>
<P>(B) The facilities share the same parking area; or
</P>
<P>(C) The facilities are located on contiguous properties or on the same block.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice required.</I> Notwithstanding the inapplicability of §§ 303.42 through 303.44, an insured State nonmember bank is required to provide reasonable advance written notice to customers of the branch undergoing a <I>de minimis</I> address change and advance notice to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De novo interstate branch</I> means a branch of a bank that is established by the bank as a branch in a State other than the bank's home State or one in which the bank does not maintain a branch, and does not become a branch of such bank as a result of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition by the bank of an insured depository institution or a branch of an insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The conversion, merger, or consolidation of any such institution or branch. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Home state</I> means the state by which the bank is chartered. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Host state</I> means a state, other than the home state of the bank, in which the bank maintains, or seeks to establish and maintain, a branch. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Intrastate main office relocation</I> means the relocation of a main office of a bank within the same State such that there is no change in the bank's home State.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Remote service unit (RSU)</I> is an automated or unstaffed facility, operated by a customer of a bank with at most delimited assistance from bank personnel, that conducts banking functions such as receiving deposits, paying withdrawals, or lending money. An RSU includes an automated teller machine, automated loan machine, automated device for receiving deposits, personal computer, telephone, other similar electronic devices, and drop boxes. An RSU may be equipped with a telephone or tele-video device that allows contact with bank personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 35338, June 23, 2008; 73 FR 55432, Sept. 25, 2008; 90 FR 60557, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.42" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.42   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Filings shall be submitted to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter filing shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of intent to establish a branch, or to relocate the main office or a branch;
</P>
<P>(2) The exact location of the proposed site including the street address. With regard to messenger services, specify the geographic area in which the services will be available. With regard to a mobile branch, specify the community or communities in which the vehicle will operate and the manner in which it will be used;
</P>
<P>(3) When a filing is submitted to relocate the main office of the bank from one State to another, a statement of the bank's intent regarding retention of branches in the State where the main office exists prior to relocation; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a branch relocation or a main office relocation, confirmation that advance written notice was provided to customers of the branch or main office being relocated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Undercapitalized institutions.</I> Filings to establish a branch by banks subject to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) also should provide the information required by § 303.204. Filings pursuant to sections 38 and 18(d) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o and 1828(d)) may be filed concurrently or as a single filing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 85 FR 72555, Nov. 13, 2020; 90 FR 60558, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.43" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.43   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing for branch establishments.</I> Filings to establish a branch by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing if the depository institution is not currently subject to sanctions under § 369.5 of this chapter. A filing processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved on the later of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The third business day after receipt by the FDIC of a letter filing that includes the information set forth in § 303.42; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a filing to establish and operate a <I>de novo</I> interstate branch, the 5th day after the FDIC receives confirmation from the host State that the bank has both complied with the filing requirements of the host State and submitted a copy of its filing with the FDIC to the host State bank supervisor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expedited processing for branch relocations and main office relocations.</I> Filings for intrastate branch relocations or intrastate main office relocations will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing if the bank received an FDIC-assigned composite rating of 3 or better under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System as a result of its most recent Federal or State examination. A filing processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved on the third business day after receipt by the FDIC of a letter filing that includes the information set forth in § 303.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those filings that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the bank with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 60558, Dec. 29, 2025]





 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.44" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.44   Special provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency or disaster events.</I> (1) In the case of an emergency or disaster at a main office or a branch that requires that an office be immediately relocated to a temporary location, banks shall notify the appropriate FDIC office within 3 days of such temporary relocation.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 days of the temporary relocation resulting from an emergency or disaster, the bank shall submit a filing to the appropriate FDIC office, that identifies the nature of the emergency or disaster, specifies the location of the temporary branch, and provides an estimate of the duration the bank plans to operate the temporary branch.
</P>
<P>(3) As part of the review process, the FDIC will determine on a case by case basis whether additional information is necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redesignation of main office and existing branch.</I> In cases where a bank desires to redesignate its main office as a branch and redesignate an existing branch as the main office, a single filing shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expiration of approval.</I> Approval of a filing expires if within 24 months after the approval date a branch has not commenced business or a relocation has not been completed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 60558, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.45" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.45   Financial education programs that include the provision of bank products and services.</HEAD>
<P>No filing or prior approval is required in order for a State nonmember bank to participate in one or more financial education programs that involve receiving deposits, paying withdrawals, or lending money if:
</P>
<P>(a) Such service or services are provided on school premises, or a facility used by the school;
</P>
<P>(b) Such service or services are provided at the discretion of the school;
</P>
<P>(c) The principal purpose of each program is financial education. For example, the principal purpose of a program would be considered to be financial education if the program is designed to teach students the principles of personal financial management, banking operations, or the benefits of saving for the future, and is not designed for the purpose of profit-making; and
</P>
<P>(d) Each program is conducted in a manner that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices and complies with applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 35338, June 23, 2008, as amended at 90 FR 60558, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.47-303.59" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.47-303.59   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Merger Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.60" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.60   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the application requirements and procedures for transactions subject to FDIC approval under the Bank Merger Act, section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)). Additional guidance is contained in the FDIC “Statement of Policy on Bank Merger Transactions” (1 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts 5145; see § 309.4(a) and (b) of this chapter for availability). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.61" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.61   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Merger transaction</I> includes any transaction: 
</P>
<P>(1) In which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution or, either directly or indirectly, acquires the assets of, or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, any other insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any noninsured bank or institution or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, or similar liabilities of, any noninsured bank or institution, or in which an insured depository institution transfers assets to any noninsured bank or institution in consideration of the assumption of any portion of the deposits made in the insured depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corporate reorganization</I> means a merger transaction that involves solely an insured depository institution and one or more of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interim merger transaction</I> means a merger transaction (other than a purchase and assumption transaction) between an operating depository institution and a newly-formed depository institution or corporation that will not operate independently and that exists solely for the purpose of facilitating a corporate reorganization. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resulting institution</I> refers to the acquiring, assuming or resulting institution in a merger transaction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006; 73 FR 2145, Jan. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.62" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.62   Transactions requiring prior approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Merger transactions.</I> The following merger transactions require the prior written approval of the FDIC under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Any merger transaction, including any corporate reorganization, interim merger transaction, or optional conversion, in which the resulting institution is to be an FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any merger transaction, including any corporate reorganization, or interim merger transaction, that involves an uninsured bank or institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related regulations.</I> Transactions covered by this subpart also may be subject to other regulations or application requirements, including the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interstate merger transactions.</I> Merger transactions between insured banks that are chartered in different states are subject to the regulations of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u). In the case of a merger transaction that consists of the acquisition by an out of state bank of a branch without acquisition of the bank, the branch is treated for section 44 purposes as a bank whose home state is the state in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposit insurance.</I> An application for deposit insurance will be required in connection with a merger transaction between a state-chartered interim institution and an insured depository institution if the related merger application is being acted upon by a Federal banking agency other than the FDIC. If the FDIC is the Federal banking agency responsible for acting on the related merger application, a separate application for deposit insurance is not necessary. Procedures for applying for deposit insurance are set forth in subpart B of this part. An application for deposit insurance will not be required in connection with a merger transaction (other than a purchase and assumption transaction) of a federally-chartered interim institution and an insured institution, even if the resulting institution is to operate under the charter of the Federal interim institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Branch closings.</I> Branch closings in connection with a merger transaction are subject to the notice requirements of section 42 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831r-1), including requirements for notice to customers. These requirements are addressed in the “Interagency Policy Statement Concerning Branch Closings Notices and Policies” (1 FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts (FDIC) 5391; <I>see</I> § 309.4(a) and (b) of this chapter for availability).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Undercapitalized institutions.</I> Applications for a merger transaction by applicants subject to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) should also provide the information required by § 303.204. Applications pursuant to sections 38 and 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C, 1831o and 1828(c)) may be filed concurrently or as a single application.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certification of assumption of deposit liability.</I> Whenever all of the deposit liabilities of an insured depository institution are assumed by one or more insured depository institutions by merger, consolidation, other statutory assumption, or by contract, the transferring insured depository institution, or its legal successor, shall provide an accurate written certification to the FDIC that its deposit liabilities have been assumed, in accordance with 12 CFR part 307. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3243, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.63" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.63   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Applications required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The appropriate forms and instructions may be obtained upon request from any FDIC regional director. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Merger transactions.</I> Applications for approval of merger transactions shall be accompanied by copies of all agreements or proposed agreements relating to the merger transaction and any other information requested by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interim merger transactions.</I> Applications for approval of interim merger transactions and any related deposit insurance applications shall be made by filing the forms and other documents required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and such other information as may be required by the FDIC for consideration of the request for deposit insurance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 73 FR 2145, Jan. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.64" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.64   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An application filed under this subpart by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and which meets the additional criteria in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will be acknowledged by the FDIC in writing and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> Under expedited processing, the FDIC will take action on an application by the date that is the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) 45 days after the date of the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete merger application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 days after the date of the last notice publication required under § 303.65 of this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(iii) 5 days after receipt of the Attorney General's report on the competitive factors involved in the proposed transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For an interstate merger transaction subject to the provisions of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u), 5 days after the FDIC receives confirmation from the host state (as defined in § 303.41(e)) that the applicant has both complied with the filing requirements of the host state and submitted a copy of the FDIC merger application to the host state's bank supervisor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No automatic approval.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, if the FDIC does not act within the expedited processing period, it does not constitute an automatic or default approval.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Criteria.</I> The FDIC will process an application using expedited procedures if:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately following the merger transaction, the resulting institution will be “well-capitalized” pursuant to subpart H of part 324 of this chapter (12 CFR part 324), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) All parties to the merger transaction are eligible depository institutions as defined in § 303.2(r); or
</P>
<P>(B) The acquiring party is an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) and the amount of the total assets to be transferred does not exceed an amount equal to 10 percent of the acquiring institution's total assets as reported in its report of condition for the quarter immediately preceding the filing of the merger application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action taken by the FDIC on the application when the decision is rendered.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing for State savings associations.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC will approve or disapprove an application filed by a State savings association to acquire or be acquired by another insured depository institution that is required to be filed with the FDIC within 60 days after the date of the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete merger application, subject to the FDIC's discretion to extend such period by an additional 30 days if any material information submitted is substantially inaccurate or incomplete.
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC shall notify an applicant that is a State savings association in writing of the date the application is deemed substantially complete. The FDIC may request additional information at any time.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding this paragraph (c), if the FDIC does not approve or disapprove an application within the 60-day or extended processing period it does not constitute an automatic or default approval. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3244, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.65" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.65   Public notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an applicant for approval of a merger transaction must publish notice of the proposed transaction on at least three occasions at approximately equal intervals in a newspaper of general circulation in the community or communities where the main offices of the merging institutions are located or, if there is no such newspaper in the community, then in the newspaper of general circulation published nearest thereto. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First publication.</I> The first publication of the notice should be as close as practicable to the date on which the application is filed with the FDIC, but no more than 5 days prior to the filing date. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Last publication.</I> The last publication of the notice shall be on the 25th day after the first publication or, if the newspaper does not publish on the 25th day, on the newspaper's publication date that is closest to the 25th day. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Emergency requiring expeditious action.</I> If the FDIC determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, notice shall be published twice. The first notice shall be published as soon as possible after the FDIC notifies the applicant of such determination. The second notice shall be published on the 7th day after the first publication or, if the newspaper does not publish on the 7th day, on the newspaper's publication date that is closest to the 7th day. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Probable failure.</I> If the FDIC determines that it must act immediately to prevent the probable failure of one of the institutions involved in a proposed merger transaction, publication is not required. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The notice shall conform to the public notice requirements set forth in § 303.7. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branches.</I> If it is contemplated that the resulting institution will operate offices of the other institution(s) as branches, the following statement shall be included in the notice required in § 303.7(b): 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>It is contemplated that all offices of the above-named institutions will continue to be operated (with the exception of [insert identity and location of each office that will not be operated]).</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Emergency requiring expeditious action.</I> If the FDIC determines that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, the notice shall specify as the closing date of the public comment period the date that is the 10th day after the date of the first publication. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public comments.</I> Comments must be received by the appropriate FDIC office within 30 days after the first publication of the notice, unless the comment period has been extended or reopened in accordance with § 303.9(b)(2). If the FDIC has determined that an emergency exists requiring expeditious action, comments must be received by the appropriate FDIC office within 10 days after the first publication. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.66-303.79" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.66-303.79   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Change in Bank Control</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 65899, Oct. 28, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 303.80" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.80   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements the provisions of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, section 7(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) (CBCA), and sets forth the filing requirements and processing procedures for a notice of change in control with respect to the acquisition of control of a State nonmember bank, a State savings association, or certain parent companies of either a State nonmember bank or a State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.81" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.81   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Acting in concert</I> means knowing participation in a joint activity or parallel action towards a common goal of acquiring control of a covered institution whether or not pursuant to an express agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Company</I> means a company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>) and any person that is not an individual including for example, a limited liability company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control</I> means the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies of a covered institution or to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Convertible securities</I> mean debt or equity interests that may be converted into voting securities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Covered institution</I> means an insured State nonmember bank, an insured State savings association, and any company that controls, directly or indirectly, an insured State nonmember bank or an insured State savings association other than a holding company that is the subject of an exemption described in either section 303.84(a)(3) or (a)(8).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Immediate family</I> means a person's parents, mother-in-law, father-in-law, children, step-children, siblings, step-siblings, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, grandparents, and grandchildren, whether biological, adoptive, adjudicated, contractual, or <I>de facto;</I> the spouse of any of the foregoing; and the person's spouse.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, limited liability company (LLC), partnership, trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, voting trust, or any other form of entity; and includes each party to a voting agreement and any group of persons acting in concert.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Management official</I> means any officer, LLC manager, director, partner, or trustee of an entity, or other person with similar functions and powers with respect to a company.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Voting securities</I> means shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, membership interests, or similar interests if the shares or interests, by statute, charter, or in any manner, entitle the holder:
</P>
<P>(i) To vote for, or to select, directors, trustees, managers of an LLC, partners, or other persons exercising similar functions of the issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To vote on, or to direct, the conduct of the operations or significant policies of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(2) Nonvoting shares: Shares of common or preferred stock, limited partnership shares or interests, membership interests, or similar interests are not “voting securities” if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any voting rights associated with the shares or interests are limited solely to the type customarily provided by State statute with regard to matters that would significantly and adversely affect the rights or preference of the security or other interest, such as the issuance of additional amounts or classes of senior securities, the modification of the terms of the security or interest, the dissolution of the issuing entity, or the payment of dividends by the issuing entity when preferred dividends are in arrears;
</P>
<P>(ii) The shares or interests represent an essentially passive investment or financing device and do not otherwise provide the holder with control over the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The shares or interests do not entitle the holder, by statute, charter, or in any manner, to select, or to vote for the selection of, directors, trustees, managers of an LLC, partners, or persons exercising similar functions of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(3) Class of voting securities: Voting securities issued by a single issuer are deemed to be the same class of voting securities, regardless of differences in dividend rights or liquidation preference, if the securities are voted together as a single class on all matters for which the securities have voting rights other than matters described in paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section that affect solely the rights or preferences of the securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.82" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.82   Transactions that require prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice requirement.</I> (1) Except as provided in §§ 303.83 and 303.84, no person, acting directly or indirectly, or through or in concert with one or more persons, shall acquire control of a covered institution unless the person shall have given the FDIC prior notice of the proposed acquisition as provided in the CBCA and this subpart, and the FDIC has not disapproved the acquisition within 60 days or such longer period as may be permitted under the CBCA; and
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in §§ 303.83 and 303.84, and unless waived by the FDIC, no person who has been approved to acquire control of a covered institution and who has maintained that control shall acquire, directly or indirectly, or through or in concert with one or more persons, voting securities of such covered institution if that person's ownership, control, or power to vote will increase from less than 25 percent to 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the covered institution, unless the person shall have given the FDIC prior notice of the proposed acquisition as provided in the CBCA and this subpart, and the FDIC has not disapproved the acquisition within 60 days or such longer period as may be permitted under the CBCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rebuttable presumptions</I>—(1) <I>Rebuttable presumptions of control.</I> The FDIC presumes that an acquisition of voting securities of a covered institution constitutes the acquisition of the power to direct the management or policies of that institution requiring prior notice to the FDIC, if, immediately after the transaction, the acquiring person will own, control, or hold with power to vote 10 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution, and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution has registered securities under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l); or
</P>
<P>(ii) No other person will own, control or hold the power to vote a greater percentage of that class of voting securities immediately after the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttable presumptions of acting in concert.</I> The following persons who own or control, or propose to own or control voting securities in a covered institution, shall be presumed to be acting in concert for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(i) A company and any controlling shareholder or management official of the company;
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual and one or more members of the individual's immediate family;
</P>
<P>(iii) Companies under common control or a company and each company it controls;
</P>
<P>(iv) Two or more persons that have made, or propose to make, a joint filing related to the proposed acquisition under sections 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n), and the rules promulgated thereunder by the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(v) A person and any trust for which the person serves as trustee or any trust for which the person is a beneficiary; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Persons that are parties to any agreement, contract, understanding, relationship, or other arrangement, whether written or otherwise, regarding the acquisition, voting, or transfer of control of voting securities of a covered institution, other than through revocable proxies as described in § 303.84(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convertible securities, options, and warrants.</I> The acquisition of convertible securities, or options or warrants to acquire voting securities is presumed to constitute the acquisition of voting securities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebuttal of presumptions.</I> The FDIC will afford any person seeking to rebut a presumption in this paragraph (b) an opportunity to present its views in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acquisition of loans in default.</I> An acquisition of a loan in default that is secured by voting securities of a covered institution is deemed to be an acquisition of the underlying securities for purposes of this subpart. Before acquiring a loan in default that upon foreclosure would result in the acquiring person owning, controlling, or holding with the power to vote a controlling amount of a covered institution's voting securities, the potential acquirer must give the FDIC prior written notice as specified in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.83" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.83   Transactions that require notice, but not prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice within 90 days after the acquisition.</I> The following acquisitions of voting securities of a covered institution, which otherwise would require prior notice under this subpart, instead require the acquirer to provide to the appropriate FDIC office within 90 calendar days after the acquisition all relevant information requested by the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of voting securities as a bona fide gift;
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition of voting securities in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted in good faith, except as provided in § 303.82(c); and
</P>
<P>(3) The acquisition of voting securities through inheritance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice within 90 days after receiving notice of the event giving rise to the acquisition of control.</I> The following acquisitions of control of a covered institution, which otherwise would require prior notice under this subpart, instead require the person acquiring control to provide to the appropriate FDIC office, within 90 calendar days after receiving notice of the event giving rise to the acquisition of control, all relevant information requested by the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of control resulting from a redemption of voting securities by the issuing covered institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition of control as a result of any event or action (including without limitation the sale of securities) by any third party that is not within the control of the person acquiring control.
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC may disapprove a notice filed after an acquisition of control, and nothing in this section limits the authority of the FDIC to disapprove a notice pursuant to § 303.86(c).
</P>
<P>(d) The relevant information that the FDIC may require under this section may include all information and documents routinely required for a prior notice as provided in § 303.85.
</P>
<P>(e) If the FDIC disapproves a Notice filed under this § 303.83, the notificant(s) must divest control of the covered institution which may include, without limitation, disposing of some or all of the voting securities so that the notificant(s) is no longer in control of the covered institution, within such period of time and in the manner that the FDIC may determine.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.84" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.84   Transactions that do not require notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The following transactions do not require notice to the FDIC under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of additional voting securities of a covered institution by a person who:
</P>
<P>(i) Held the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution continuously since the later of March 9, 1979, or the date that the institution commenced business; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is presumed, under § 303.82(b) to have controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979, if the aggregate amount of voting securities held does not exceed 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the institution or, in other cases, where the FDIC determines that the person has controlled the institution continuously since March 9, 1979;
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition of additional voting securities of a covered institution by a person who has lawfully acquired and maintained control of the institution (for purposes of § 303.82) after obtaining the FDIC's non-objection under the CBCA and the FDIC's regulations or the OTS's non-objection under the repealed Change in Savings and Loan Control Act, 12 U.S.C. 1730(q), and the regulations thereunder then in effect, to acquire control of the institution, unless a notice is required for an increase in ownership described in 12 CFR 303.82(a)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) Acquisitions of voting securities subject to approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(a)), section 18(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)), or section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a);
</P>
<P>(4) Any transaction described in sections 2(a)(5), 3(a)(A), or 3(a)(B) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(5), 1842(a)(A), or 1842(a)(B)) by a person described in those provisions;
</P>
<P>(5) A customary one-time solicitation of a revocable proxy;
</P>
<P>(6) The receipt of voting securities of a covered institution through a pro rata stock dividend or stock split if the proportional interests of the recipients remain substantially the same;
</P>
<P>(7) The acquisition of voting securities in a foreign bank that has an insured branch in the United States. (This exemption does not extend to the reports and information required under paragraphs 9, 10, and 12 of the CBCA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(9), (10), and (12)); and
</P>
<P>(8) The acquisition of voting securities of a depository institution holding company for which the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System reviews a notice pursuant to the CBCA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.85" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.85   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing notice.</I> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office and shall contain all the information required by paragraph 6 of the CBCA, section 7(j) of the FDI Act, (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(6)), or prescribed in the designated interagency forms which may be obtained from any FDIC regional director.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may waive any of the informational requirements of the notice if the FDIC determines that it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(3) A notificant shall notify the appropriate FDIC office immediately of any material changes in the information contained in a notice submitted to the FDIC, including changes in financial or other conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) When the acquiring person is an individual, or group of individuals acting in concert, the requirement to provide personal financial data may be satisfied by a current statement of assets and liabilities and an income summary, as required in the designated interagency form, together with a statement of any material changes since the date of the statement or summary. The FDIC may require additional information if appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other laws.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall affect any obligation which the acquiring person(s) may have to comply with the federal securities laws or other laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.86" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.86   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acceptance of notice, additional information.</I> The FDIC shall notify the person or persons submitting a notice under this subpart in writing of the date the notice is accepted as substantially complete. The FDIC may request additional information at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of the 60-day notice period: consummation of acquisition.</I> (1) The 60-day notice period specified in § 303.82 shall commence on the day after the date of acceptance of a substantially complete notice by the appropriate regional director. The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed acquisition after the expiration of the 60-day notice period, unless the FDIC disapproves the proposed acquisition or extends the notice period as provided in the CBCA.
</P>
<P>(2) The notificant(s) may consummate the proposed transaction before the expiration of the 60-day period, including any extensions, if the FDIC notifies the notificant(s) in writing of its intention not to disapprove the acquisition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disapproval of acquisition of control.</I> Subpart D of 12 CFR part 308 sets forth the rules of practice and procedure for a notice of disapproval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.87" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.87   Public notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication</I>—(1) <I>Newspaper announcement.</I> Any person(s) filing a notice under this subpart shall publish an announcement soliciting public comment on the proposed acquisition. The announcement shall be published in a newspaper of general circulation in the community in which the home office of the covered institution to be acquired is located.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of publication.</I> The announcement shall be published as close as is practicable to the date the notice is filed with the appropriate FDIC office, but in no event more than 10 calendar days before or after the filing date. If the filing is not filed in accordance with the CBCA and this subpart within the time periods specified herein, the acquiring person(s) shall, within 10 days of being directed by the FDIC to file a Notice, publish an announcement of the acquisition of control.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of newspaper announcement.</I> The newspaper announcement shall conform to the public notice requirements set forth in § 303.7. If the filing is not filed in accordance with the CBCA and this subpart within the time periods specified herein, the announcement shall also include the date of the acquisition and contain a statement indicating that the FDIC is currently reviewing the acquisition of control.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delay of publication.</I> The FDIC may permit delay in the publication required by this section if the FDIC determines, for good cause, that it is in the public interest to grant such a delay. Requests for delay of publication may be submitted to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Shortening or waiving public comment period, waiving publications; acting before close of public comment period.</I> The FDIC may shorten the public comment period to a period of not less than 10 days, or waive the public comment or newspaper publication requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, or act on a notice before the expiration of a public comment period, if it determines in writing either that an emergency exists or that disclosure of the notice, solicitation of public comment, or delay until expiration of the public comment period would seriously threaten the safety and soundness of the State nonmember bank or State savings association to be acquired.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consideration of public comments.</I> In acting upon a notice filed under this subpart, the FDIC shall consider all public comments received in writing within 20 days following the required newspaper publication or, if the FDIC has shortened the public comment period pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, within such shorter period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.88" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.88   Reporting of stock loans and changes in chief executive officers and directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements of reporting stock loans.</I> (1) Any foreign bank or affiliate of a foreign bank that has credit outstanding to any person or group of persons, in the aggregate, which is secured, directly or indirectly, by 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a covered institution, shall file a consolidated report with the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) Any voting securities of the covered institution held by the foreign bank or any affiliate of the foreign bank as principal must be included in the calculation of the number of voting securities in which the foreign bank or its affiliate has a security interest for purposes of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Foreign bank shall have the same meaning as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>(2) Affiliate shall have the same meaning as in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>(3) Credit outstanding includes any loan or extension of credit; the issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit, including an endorsement or standby letter of credit; and any other type of transaction that extends credit or financing to the person or group of persons.
</P>
<P>(4) Group of persons includes any number of persons that the foreign bank or any affiliate of a foreign bank has reason to believe:
</P>
<P>(i) Are acting together, in concert, or with one another to acquire or control voting securities of the same covered institution, including an acquisition of voting securities of the same covered institution at approximately the same time under substantially the same terms; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Have made, or propose to make, a joint filing under section 13 or 14 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78m or 78n), and the rules promulgated thereunder by the Securities and Exchange Commission regarding ownership of the voting securities of the same covered institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Compliance with paragraph (a) of this section is not required if:
</P>
<P>(1) The person or group of persons referred to in paragraph (a) has disclosed the amount borrowed and the security interest therein to the appropriate FDIC office in connection with a notice filed under the CBCA, an application filed under either 12 U.S.C. 1841, <I>et seq.</I> or 12 U.S.C. 1467a, or any other application filed with the FDIC as a substitute for a notice under § 303.82 of this subpart, including an application filed under section 18(c) of the FDI Act (Bank Merger Act, 12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) or section 5 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815); or
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction involves a person or group of persons that has been the owner or owners of record of the stock for a period of one year or more; or, if the transaction involves stock issued by a newly chartered bank, before the bank is opened for business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report requirements for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section.</I> (1) The consolidated report must indicate the number and percentage of voting securities securing each applicable extension of credit, the identity of the borrower, the number of voting securities held as principal by the foreign bank and any affiliate thereof, and any additional information that the FDIC may require in connection with a particular report.
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank, or any affiliate of a foreign bank, shall file the consolidated report in writing within 30 days of the date on which the foreign bank or affiliate first believes that the security for any outstanding credit consists of 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign bank or affiliate not supervised by FDIC.</I> If the foreign bank, or any affiliate thereof, is not supervised by the FDIC, it shall file a copy of the report filed under paragraph (a) of this section with its appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting requirement.</I> After the consummation of a change in control, a covered institution must notify the FDIC in writing of any changes or replacements of its chief executive officer or of any director occurring during the 12-month period beginning on the date of consummation. This notice must be filed within 10 days of such change or replacement and must include a statement of the past and current business and professional affiliations of the new chief executive officers or directors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.89-303.99" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.89-303.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Change of Director or Senior Executive Officer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the circumstances under which an FDIC-supervised institution must notify the FDIC of a change in any member of its board of directors or any senior executive officer and the procedures for filing such notice. This subpart implements section 32 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3244, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Director</I> means a person who serves on the board of directors or board of trustees of an FDIC-supervised institution, except that this term does not include an advisory director who: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is not elected by the shareholders; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not authorized to vote on any matters before the board of directors or board of trustees or any committee thereof; 
</P>
<P>(3) Solely provides general policy advice to the board of directors or board of trustees and any committee thereof; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Has not been identified by the FDIC as a person who performs the functions of a director for purposes of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Senior executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title of president, chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief managing official (in an insured state branch of a foreign bank), chief financial officer, chief lending officer, chief investment officer, or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of these positions. <I>Senior executive officer</I> also includes any other person identified by the FDIC, whether or not hired as an employee, with significant influence over, or who participates in, major policymaking decisions of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Troubled condition</I> means any FDIC-supervised institution that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating, as determined in its most recent report of examination, of 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS), or in the case of an insured state branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FDIC for termination or suspension of deposit insurance; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by either the FDIC or the appropriate state banking authority that requires action to improve the financial condition of the FDIC-supervised institution or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FDIC or state authority which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve the financial condition of the FDIC-supervised institution, unless otherwise informed in writing by the FDIC; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is informed in writing by the FDIC that it is in troubled condition for purposes of the requirements of this subpart on the basis of the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination, or other information available to the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any entity for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 85 FR 3244, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.102" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.102   Filing procedures and waiver of prior notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall give the FDIC written notice, as specified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, at least 30 days prior to adding or replacing any member of its board of directors, employing any person as a senior executive officer of the institution, or changing the responsibilities of any senior executive officer so that the person would assume a different senior executive officer position, if the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not in compliance with all minimum capital requirements applicable to the FDIC-supervised institution as determined on the basis of the institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination;
</P>
<P>(2) Is in troubled condition; or
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC determines, in connection with its review of a capital restoration plan required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(2)) or otherwise, that such notice is appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Insured branches of foreign banks.</I> In the case of the addition of a member of the board of directors or a change in senior executive officer in a foreign bank having an insured state branch, the notice requirement shall not apply to such additions and changes in the foreign bank parent, but only to changes in senior executive officers in the state branch. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver of prior notice</I>—(1) <I>Waiver requests.</I> The FDIC may permit an individual, upon petition by the FDIC-supervised institution to the appropriate FDIC office, to serve as a senior executive officer or director before filing the notice required under this subpart if the FDIC finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Delay would threaten the safety and soundness of the FDIC-supervised institution; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Delay would not be in the public interest; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Other extraordinary circumstances exist that justify waiver of prior notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Automatic waiver.</I> The prior 30-day notice is automatically waived in the case of the election of a new director not proposed by management at a meeting of the shareholders of an FDIC-supervised institution, and the individual immediately may begin serving, provided that a complete notice is filed with the appropriate FDIC office within two business days after the individual's election. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effect on disapproval authority.</I> A waiver shall not affect the authority of the FDIC to disapprove a notice within 30 days after a waiver is granted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section or the election of an individual who has filed a notice and is serving pursuant to an automatic waiver under paragraph (c)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Content of filing.</I> The notice required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office and shall contain information pertaining to the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom the notice is submitted, as prescribed in the designated interagency form which is available from any FDIC regional director. The FDIC may require additional information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modification.</I> The FDIC may modify or accept other information in place of the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section for a notice filed under this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 85 FR 3245, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.103" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.103   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Processing.</I> The 30-day notice period specified in § 303.102(a) shall begin on the date substantially all information required to be submitted by the notificant pursuant to § 303.102(c)(1) is received by the appropriate FDIC office. The FDIC shall notify the FDIC-supervised institution submitting the notice of the date on which the notice is accepted for processing and of the date on which the 30-day notice period will expire. If processing cannot be completed with 30 days, the notificant will be advised in writing, prior to expiration of the 30-day period, of the reason for the delay in processing and of the additional time period, not to exceed 60 days, in which processing will be completed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commencement of service</I>—(1) <I>At expiration of period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service after the end of the 30-day period or any other additional period as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the FDIC disapproves the notice before the end of the period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior to expiration of the period.</I> A proposed director or senior executive officer may begin service before the end of the 30-day period or any additional time period as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, if the FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution and the individual in writing of the FDIC's intention not to disapprove the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> The FDIC may disapprove a notice filed under § 303.102 if the FDIC finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom the notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of depositors of the FDIC-supervised institution or in the best interests of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with the FDIC-supervised institution. Subpart L of 12 CFR part 308 sets forth the rules of practice and procedure for a notice of disapproval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3245, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.104-303.119" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.104-303.119   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Activities of Insured State Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.120" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.120   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with notice and application requirements contained in subpart A of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured state banks and their subsidiaries engaging in activities which are not permissible for national banks and their subsidiaries. This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with notice and application requirements contained in subpart B of part 362 of this chapter, governing certain activities of insured state nonmember banks, their subsidiaries, and certain affiliates. This subpart also sets forth procedures for complying with the notice requirements contained in subpart E of part 362 of this chapter, governing subsidiaries of insured state nonmember banks engaging in financial activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.121" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.121   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to file.</I> A notice or application required by subpart A, subpart B, or subpart E of part 362 of this chapter shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of filing.</I> A complete letter notice or letter application shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filings generally.</I> (i) A brief description of the activity and the manner in which it will be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the bank's existing or proposed direct or indirect investment in the activity as well as calculations sufficient to indicate compliance with any specific capital ratio or investment percentage limitation detailed in subpart A, B, or E of part 362 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the bank's business plan regarding the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A citation to the state statutory or regulatory authority for the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of the order or other document from the appropriate regulatory authority granting approval for the bank to conduct the activity if such approval is necessary and has already been granted; 
</P>
<P>(vi) A brief description of the bank's policy and practice with regard to any anticipated involvement in the activity by a director, executive office or principal shareholder of the bank or any related interest of such a person; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the bank's expertise in the activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copy of application or notice filed with another agency.</I> If an insured state bank has filed an application or notice with another federal or state regulatory authority which contains all of the information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insured state bank may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.122" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.122   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing.</I> A notice filed by an insured state bank seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.3(a)(2)(iii)(A)(2), § 362.4(b)(3)(i), or § 362.4(b)(5) of this chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided a basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the notice from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, a notice processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 30 days after receipt of a complete notice by the FDIC (subject to extension for an additional 15 days upon written notice to the bank) or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard processing for applications and notices that have been removed from expedited processing.</I> For an application filed by an insured state bank seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.3(a)(2)(iii)(A)(2), § 362.3(b)(2)(i), § 362.3(b)(2)(ii)(A), § 362.3(b)(2)(ii)(C), § 362.4(b)(1), § 362.4(b)(4), § 362.5(b)(2), or § 362.8(b) or seeking a waiver or modification under § 362.18(e) or § 362.18(g)(3) of this chapter or for notices which are not processed pursuant to the expedited processing procedures, the FDIC will provide the insured State bank with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. The FDIC will normally review and act in such cases within 60 days after receipt of a completed application or notice (subject to extension for an additional 30 days upon written notice to the bank), but failure of the FDIC to act prior to the expiration of these periods does not constitute approval. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.123-303.139" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.123-303.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Activities of Insured Savings Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.140" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.140   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with the notice and application requirements contained in subpart C of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured state savings associations and their service corporations engaging in activities which are not permissible for federal savings associations and their service corporations. This subpart also sets forth procedures for complying with the notice requirements contained in subpart D of part 362 of this chapter, governing insured savings associations which establish or engage in new activities through a subsidiary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.141" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.141   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to file.</I> All applications and notices required by subpart C or subpart D of part 362 of this chapter are to be in writing and filed with the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of filing</I>—(1) <I>Filings generally.</I> A complete letter notice or letter application shall include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the activity and the manner in which it will be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the association's existing or proposed direct or indirect investment in the activity as well as calculations sufficient to indicate compliance with any specific capital ratio or investment percentage limitation detailed in subpart C or D of part 362 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the association's business plan regarding the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A citation to the state statutory or regulatory authority for the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(v) A copy of the order or other document from the appropriate regulatory authority granting approval for the association to conduct the activity if such approval is necessary and has already been granted; 
</P>
<P>(vi) A brief description of the association's policy and practice with regard to any anticipated involvement in the activity by a director, executive officer or principal shareholder of the association or any related interest of such a person; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of the association's expertise in the activity. 
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copy of application or notice filed with another agency.</I> If an insured savings association has filed an application or notice with another federal or state regulatory authority which contains all of the information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insured state bank may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.142" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.142   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing.</I> A notice filed by an insured state savings association seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.11(b)(2)(ii) of this chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided a basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the notice from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, a notice processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 30 days after receipt of a complete notice by the FDIC (subject to extension for an additional 15 days upon written notice to the bank) or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard processing for applications and notices that have been removed from expedited processing.</I> For an application filed by an insured state savings association seeking to commence or continue an activity under § 362.11(a)(2)(ii), § 362.11(b)(2)(i), § 362.12(b)(1) of this chapter or for notices which are not processed pursuant to the expedited processing procedures, the FDIC will provide the insured state savings association with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. The FDIC will normally review and act in such cases within 60 days after receipt of a completed application or notice (subject to extension for an additional 30 days upon written notice to the bank), but failure of the FDIC to act prior to the expiration of these periods does not constitute approval. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notices of activities in excess of an amount permissible for a federal savings association; subsidiary notices.</I> Receipt of a notice filed by an insured state savings association as required by § 362.11(b)(3) or § 362.15 of this chapter will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC. The notice will be reviewed at the appropriate FDIC office, which will take such action as it deems necessary and appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.143-303.159" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.143-303.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Mutual-To-Stock Conversions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.160" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.160   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the notice requirements and procedures for the conversion of an insured mutual state-chartered savings bank to the stock form of ownership. The substantive requirements governing such conversions are contained in § 333.4 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.161" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.161   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice required.</I> In addition to complying with the substantive requirements in § 333.4 of this chapter, an insured state-chartered mutually owned savings bank that proposes to convert from mutual to stock form shall file with the FDIC a notice of intent to convert to stock form. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) A notice required under this subpart shall be filed in letter form with the appropriate FDIC office at the same time as required conversion application materials are filed with the institution's state regulator. 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured mutual savings bank chartered by a state that does not require the filing of a conversion application shall file a notice in letter form with the appropriate FDIC office as soon as practicable after adoption of its plan of conversion. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice shall provide a description of the proposed conversion and include all materials that have been filed with any state or federal banking regulator and any state or federal securities regulator. At a minimum, the notice shall include, as applicable, copies of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The plan of conversion, with specific information concerning the record date used for determining eligible depositors and the subscription offering priority established in connection with any proposed stock offering; 
</P>
<P>(2) Certified board resolutions relating to the conversion; 
</P>
<P>(3) A business plan, including a detailed discussion of how the capital acquired in the conversion will be used, expected earnings for at least a three-year period following the conversion, and a justification for any proposed stock repurchases; 
</P>
<P>(4) The charter and bylaws of the converted institution; 
</P>
<P>(5) The bylaws and operating plans of any other entities formed in connection with the conversion transaction, such as a holding company or charitable foundation; 
</P>
<P>(6) A full appraisal report, prepared by an independent appraiser, of the value of the converting institution and the pricing of the stock to be sold in the conversion transaction; 
</P>
<P>(7) Detailed descriptions of any proposed management or employee stock benefit plans or employment agreements and a discussion of the rationale for the level of benefits proposed, individually and by participant group; 
</P>
<P>(8) Indemnification agreements; 
</P>
<P>(9) A preliminary proxy statement and sample proxy; 
</P>
<P>(10) Offering circular(s) and order form; 
</P>
<P>(11) All contracts or agreements relating to solicitation, underwriting, market-making, or listing of conversion stock and any agreements among members of a group regarding the purchase of unsubscribed shares; 
</P>
<P>(12) A tax opinion concerning the federal income tax consequences of the proposed conversion; 
</P>
<P>(13) Consents from experts to use their opinions as part of the notice; and 
</P>
<P>(14) An estimate of conversion-related expenses. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC, in its discretion, may request any additional information it deems necessary to evaluate the proposed conversion. The institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form shall promptly provide such information to the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Acceptance of notice.</I> The 60-day notice period specified in§ 303.163 shall commence on the date of receipt of a substantially complete notice. The FDIC shall notify the institution proposing to convert in writing of the date the notice is accepted. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Related applications.</I> Related applications that require FDIC action may include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Applications for deposit insurance, as required by subpart B of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Applications for consent to merge, as required by subpart D of this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.162" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.162   Waiver from compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form may file with the appropriate FDIC office a letter requesting waiver of compliance with this subpart or § 333.4 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(1) When compliance with any provision of this section or § 333.4 of this chapter would be inconsistent or in conflict with applicable state law, or 
</P>
<P>(2) For any other good cause shown. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> In making a request for waiver under paragraph (a) of this section, the institution shall demonstrate that the requested waiver, if granted, would not result in any effects that would be detrimental to the safety and soundness of the institution, entail a breach of fiduciary duty on part of the institution's management or otherwise be detrimental or inequitable to the institution, its depositors, any other insured depository institution(s), the Deposit Insurance Fund, or to the public interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.163" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.163   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General considerations.</I> The FDIC shall review the notice and other materials submitted by the institution proposing to convert from mutual to stock form, specifically considering the following factors: 
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed use of the proceeds from the sale of stock, as set forth in the business plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) The adequacy of the disclosure materials; 
</P>
<P>(3) The participation of depositors in approving the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(4) The form of the proxy statement required for the vote of the depositors/members on the conversion; 
</P>
<P>(5) Any proposed increased compensation and other remuneration (including stock grants, stock option rights and other similar benefits) to be granted to officers and directors/trustees of the bank in connection with the conversion; 
</P>
<P>(6) The adequacy and independence of the appraisal of the value of the mutual savings bank for purposes of determining the price of the shares of stock to be sold; 
</P>
<P>(7) The process by which the bank's trustees approved the appraisal, the pricing of the stock, and the proposed compensation arrangements for insiders; 
</P>
<P>(8) The nature and apportionment of stock subscription rights; and 
</P>
<P>(9) The bank's plans to fulfill its commitment to serving the convenience and needs of its community. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional considerations.</I> (1) In reviewing the notice and other materials submitted under this subpart, the FDIC will take into account the extent to which the proposed conversion transaction conforms with the various provisions of the mutual-to-stock conversion regulations of the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS) (12 CFR part 563b), as currently in effect at the time the notice is submitted. Any non-conformity with those provisions will be closely reviewed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Conformity with the OTS requirements will not be sufficient for FDIC regulatory purposes if the FDIC determines that the proposed conversion transaction would pose a risk to the bank's safety or soundness, violate any law or regulation, or present a breach of fiduciary duty. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice period.</I> (1) The period in which the FDIC may object to the proposed conversion transaction shall be the later of: 
</P>
<P>(i) 60 days after receipt of a substantially complete notice of proposed conversion; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 20 days after the last applicable state or other federal regulator has approved the proposed conversion. 
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may, in its discretion, extend the initial 60-day period for up to an additional 60 days by providing written notice to the institution. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Letter of non-objection.</I> If the FDIC determines, in its discretion, that the proposed conversion transaction would not pose a risk to the institution's safety or soundness, violate any law or regulation, or present a breach of fiduciary duty, then the FDIC shall issue to the institution proposing to convert a letter of non-objection to the proposed conversion. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Letter of objection.</I> If the FDIC determines, in its discretion, that the proposed conversion transaction poses a risk to the institution's safety or soundness, violates any law or regulation, or presents a breach of fiduciary duty, then the FDIC shall issue a letter to the institution stating its objection(s) to the proposed conversion and advising the institution not to consummate the proposed conversion until such letter is rescinded. A copy of the letter of objection shall be furnished to the institution's primary state regulator and any other state or federal banking regulator and state or federal securities regulator involved in the conversion. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consummation of the conversion.</I> (1) An institution may consummate the proposed conversion upon either: 
</P>
<P>(i) The receipt of a letter of non-objection; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the notice period. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a letter of objection is issued, then the institution shall not consummate the proposed conversion until the FDIC rescinds such letter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.164-303.179" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.164-303.179   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—International Banking</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.180" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.180   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth procedures for complying with application requirements relating to the foreign activities of insured state nonmember banks, U.S. activities of insured branches of foreign banks, and certain foreign mergers of insured depository institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.181" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.181   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following additional definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board of Governors</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comptroller</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible insured branch.</I> An insured branch will be treated as an eligible depository institution within the meaning of § 303.2(r) if the insured branch: 
</P>
<P>(1) Received an FDIC-assigned composite ROCA supervisory rating (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) of 1 or 2 as a result of its most recent federal or state examination, and the FDIC, Comptroller, or Board of Governors have not expressed concern about the condition or operations of the foreign banking organization or the support it offers the branch; 
</P>
<P>(2) Received a satisfactory or better Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) rating from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination, if the depository institution is subject to examination under part 345 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) Received a compliance rating of 1 or 2 from its primary federal regulator at its most recent examination; 
</P>
<P>(4) Is well-capitalized as defined in subpart H of part 324 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, written agreement, memorandum of understanding, or other administrative agreement with any U.S. bank regulatory authority. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal branch</I> means a federal branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign bank</I> means a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Foreign branch</I> means a foreign branch of an insured state nonmember bank as defined by § 347.102 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Foreign organization</I> means a foreign organization as defined by § 347.102 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured branch</I> means an insured branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Noninsured branch</I> means a noninsured branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>State branch</I> means a state branch of a foreign bank as defined by § 347.202 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 55470, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17739, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.182" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.182   Establishing, moving or closing a foreign branch of an insured state nonmember bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice procedures for general consent.</I> Notice in the form of a letter from an eligible depository institution establishing or relocating a foreign branch pursuant to § 347.117(a) of this chapter must be provided to the appropriate FDIC office no later than 30 days after taking such action. The notice must include the location of the foreign branch, including a street address. The FDIC will provide written acknowledgment of receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing procedures for other branch establishments</I>—(1) <I>Where to file.</I> An applicant seeking to establish a foreign branch other than under § 347.117(a) of this chapter shall submit an application to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter application must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The exact location of the proposed foreign branch, including the street address.
</P>
<P>(ii) Details concerning any involvement in the proposal by an insider of the applicant, as defined in § 303.2(u) of this part, including any financial arrangements relating to fees, the acquisition of property, leasing of property, and construction contracts;
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief description of the applicant's business plan with respect to the foreign branch; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A brief description of the proposed activities of the branch and, to the extent any of the proposed activities are not authorized by § 347.115 of this chapter, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing</I>—(1) <I>Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</I> An application filed under § 347.118(a) of this chapter by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) of this part seeking to establish a foreign branch by expedited processing will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2) of this part. Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 45 days after receipt of a substantially complete application by the FDIC, or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closing.</I> Notices of branch closing under § 347.121 of this chapter, in the form of a letter including the name, location, and date of closing of the closed branch, shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office no later than 30 days after the branch is closed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17558, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 72555, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.183" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.183   Investment by insured state nonmember banks in foreign organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice procedures for general consent. Notice in the form of a letter from an eligible depository institution making direct or indirect investments in a foreign organization pursuant to § 347.117(b) of this chapter shall be provided to the appropriate FDIC office no later than 30 days after taking such action. The FDIC will provide written acknowledgment of receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) Filing procedures for other investments—(1) Where to file. An applicant seeking to make a foreign investment other than under § 347.117(b) of this chapter shall submit an application to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete application shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Basic information about the terms of the proposed transaction, the amount of the investment in the foreign organization and the proportion of its ownership to be acquired;
</P>
<P>(ii) Basic information about the foreign organization, its financial position and income, including any available balance sheet and income statement for the prior year, or financial projections for a new foreign organization;
</P>
<P>(iii) A listing of all shareholders known to hold ten percent or more of any class of the foreign organization's stock or other evidence of ownership, and the amount held by each;
</P>
<P>(iv) A brief description of the applicant's business plan with respect to the foreign organization;
</P>
<P>(v) A brief description of any business or activities which the foreign organization will conduct directly or indirectly in the United States, and to the extent such activities are not authorized by subpart A of part 347, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved; 
</P>
<P>(vi) A brief description of the foreign organization's activities, and to the extent such activities are not authorized by subpart A of part 347, the applicant's reasons why they should be approved; and
</P>
<P>(vii) If the applicant seeks approval to engage in underwriting or dealing activities, a description of the applicant's plans and procedures to address all relevant risks.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Processing—(1) Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions. An application filed under § 347.118(b) of this chapter by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) of this part seeking to make direct or indirect investments in a foreign organization will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove the application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2) of this part. Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing is deemed approved 45 days after receipt of a substantially complete application by the FDIC, or on such earlier date authorized by the FDIC in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Divestiture.</I> If an insured state nonmember bank holding 50 percent or more of the voting equity interests of a foreign organization or otherwise controlling the foreign organization divests itself of such ownership or control, the insured state nonmember bank shall file a notice in the form of a letter, including the name, location, and date of divestiture of the foreign organization, with the appropriate FDIC office no later than 30 days after the divestiture.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 17558, Apr. 6, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.184" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.184   Moving an insured branch of a foreign bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing procedures</I>—(1) <I>Where and when to file.</I> A filing by an insured branch of a foreign bank seeking the FDIC's consent to move from one location to another, as required by section 18(d)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(d)(1)), shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter filing shall include the exact location of the proposed site, including the street address.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Comptroller's application.</I> If the filer is submitting an application with the Comptroller that contains the information required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the filer may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing</I>—(1) <I>Expedited processing for eligible insured branches.</I> A filing submitted by an eligible insured branch as defined in § 303.181(c) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing if the filer is proposing to move within the same State. A filing processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved on the third business day after the FDIC's receipt of a letter filing that includes the information set forth in § 303.42.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those filings that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the filer with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other approval criteria.</I> The FDIC may approve a filing under this section if the criteria in paragraphs (c)(1) through (6) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(1) The factors set forth in section 6 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1816) have been considered and favorably resolved;
</P>
<P>(2) The filer is at least adequately capitalized as defined in subpart H of part 324 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Any financial arrangements that have been made in connection with the proposed relocation and that involve the filer's directors, officers, major shareholders, or their interests are fair and reasonable in comparison to similar arrangements that could have been made with independent third parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance with the CRA and any applicable related regulations, including part 345 of this chapter, has been considered and favorably resolved;
</P>
<P>(5) No CRA protest as defined in § 303.2(l) has been filed that remains unresolved or, where such a protest has been filed and remains unresolved, the Director or designee concurs that approval is consistent with the purposes of the CRA and the filer agrees in writing to any conditions imposed regarding the CRA; and
</P>
<P>(6) The filer agrees in writing to comply with any conditions imposed by the FDIC, other than the standard conditions defined in § 303.2(dd) that may be imposed without the filer's written consent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relocation of insured branch from one State to another.</I> If the foreign bank proposes to relocate an insured State branch to a State that is outside the State where the branch is presently located, in addition to meeting the approval criteria contained in paragraph (c) of this section, the foreign bank must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with any applicable State laws or regulations of the States affected by the proposed relocation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain any required regulatory approvals from the appropriate State licensing authority of the State to which the insured branch proposes to relocate before relocating the existing branch operations and surrendering its existing license to the appropriate State licensing authority of the State from which the branch is relocating.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 17559, Apr. 6, 2005; 78 FR 55470, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17739, Apr. 24, 2018; 85 FR 72555, Nov. 13, 2020; 86 FR 9433, Feb. 16, 2021; 90 FR 60558, Dec. 29, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.185" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.185   Merger transactions involving foreign banks or foreign organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Merger transactions involving an insured branch of a foreign bank.</I> Merger transactions requiring the FDIC's prior approval as set forth in § 303.62 include any merger transaction in which the resulting institution is an insured branch of a foreign bank which is not a federal branch, or any merger transaction which involves any insured branch and any uninsured institution. In such cases: 
</P>
<P>(1) References to an eligible depository institution in subpart D of this part include an eligible insured branch as defined in § 303.181;
</P>
<P>(2) The definition of a corporate reorganization in § 303.61(b) includes a merger transaction between an insured branch and other branches, agencies, or subsidiaries in the United States of the same foreign bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of § 303.62(b)(1) on interstate mergers, a merger transaction involving an insured branch is one involving the acquisition of a branch of an insured bank without the acquisition of the bank for purposes of section 44 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831u) only when the merger transaction involves fewer than all the insured branches of the same foreign bank in the same state.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain merger transactions with foreign organizations outside any State.</I> Merger transactions requiring the FDIC's prior approval as set forth in § 303.62 include any merger transaction in which an insured depository institution becomes directly liable for obligations which will, after the merger transaction, be treated as deposits under section 3(l)(5)(A)(i)-(ii) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(l)(5)(A)(i)-(ii)), as a result of a merger or consolidation with a foreign organization or an assumption of liabilities of a foreign organization. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.186" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.186   Exemptions from insurance requirements for a state branch of a foreign bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Filing procedures—(1) <I>Where to file.</I> An application by a foreign bank for consent to operate as a noninsured state branch, as permitted by § 347.215(b) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter application shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The kinds of deposit activities in which the state branch proposes to engage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The expected source of deposits;
</P>
<P>(iii) The manner in which deposits will be solicited;
</P>
<P>(iv) How the activity will maintain or improve the availability of credit to all sectors of the United States economy, including the international trade finance sector;
</P>
<P>(v) That the activity will not give the foreign bank an unfair competitive advantage over United States banking organizations; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors, or evidence of approval by senior management if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, authorizing the filing of the application. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action taken.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 17559, Apr. 6, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.187" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.187   Approval for an insured state branch of a foreign bank to conduct activities not permissible for federal branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Filing procedures—(1) <I>Where to file.</I> An application by an insured state branch seeking approval to conduct activities not permissible for a federal branch, as required by § 347.212(a) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter application shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the activity, including the manner in which it will be conducted and an estimate of the expected dollar volume associated with the activity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An analysis of the impact of the proposed activity on the condition of the United States operations of the foreign bank in general and of the branch in particular, including a copy of the feasibility study, management plan, financial projections, business plan, or similar document concerning the conduct of the activity; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A resolution by the applicant's board of directors, or evidence of approval by senior management if a resolution is not required pursuant to the applicant's organizational documents, authorizing the filing of the application; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement by the applicant of whether it is in compliance with sections 347.209 and 347.210 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement by the applicant that it has complied with all requirements of the Board of Governors concerning applications to conduct the activity in question and the status of each such application, including a copy of the Board of Governors' disposition of such application, if applicable; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement of why the activity will pose no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Board of Governors application.</I> If the application to the Board of Governors contains the information required by paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate letter application. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing.
</P>
<P>(b) Divestiture or cessation—(1) <I>Where to file.</I> Divestiture plans necessitated by a change in law or other authority, as required by § 347.212(e) of this chapter, shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of filing.</I> A complete letter application shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed description of the manner in which the applicant proposes to divest itself of or cease the activity in question; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A projected timetable describing how long the divestiture or cessation is expected to take. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete processing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 70 FR 17559, Apr. 6, 2005; 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.188-303.199" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.188-303.199   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.200" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.200   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) This subpart covers applications filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>), which requires insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized to receive approval prior to engaging in certain activities. Section 38 restricts or prohibits certain activities and requires an insured depository institution to submit a capital restoration plan when it becomes undercapitalized. The restrictions and prohibitions become more severe as an institution's capital level declines. 
</P>
<P>(2) Definitions of the capital categories referenced in this Prompt Corrective Action subpart may be found in subpart H of part 324 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institutions covered.</I> Restrictions and prohibitions contained in subpart H of part 324 of this chapter apply primarily to FDIC-supervised institutions, as well as to directors and senior executive officers of those institutions. Portions of subpart H of part 324 of this chapter also apply to all insured depository institutions that are deemed to be critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 55470, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17739, Apr. 24, 2018; 85 FR 3245, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.201" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.201   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Applications shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office. The application shall contain the information specified in each respective section of this subpart, and shall be in letter form as prescribed in § 303.3. Additional information may be requested by the FDIC. Such letter shall be signed by the president, senior officer or a duly authorized agent of the insured depository institution and be accompanied by a certified copy of a resolution adopted by the institution's board of directors or trustees authorizing the application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.202" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.202   Processing.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC will provide the applicant with a subsequent written notification of the final action taken as soon as the decision is rendered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.203" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.203   Applications for capital distributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall submit an application for a capital distribution if, after having made a capital distribution, the institution would be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> An application to repurchase, redeem, retire, or otherwise acquire shares or ownership interests of the FDIC-supervised institution shall describe the proposal, the shares or obligations that are the subject thereof, and the additional shares or obligations of the institution that will be issued in at least an amount equivalent to the distribution. The application also shall explain how the proposal will reduce the institution's financial obligations or otherwise improve its financial condition. If the proposed action also requires an application under § 303.241 of this part regarding prior consent to retire capital, such application should be filed concurrently with, or made a part of, the application filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3245, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.204" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.204   Applications for acquisitions, branching, and new lines of business.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Any insured State nonmember bank, any insured State savings association, and any insured branch of a foreign bank which is undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized, and any insured depository institution which is critically undercapitalized, shall submit an application to engage in acquisitions, branching or new lines of business.
</P>
<P>(2) A new line of business will include any new activity exercised which, although it may be permissible, has not been exercised by the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> Applications shall describe the proposal, state the date the institution's capital restoration plan was accepted by its primary Federal regulator, describe the institution's status in implementing the plan, and explain how the proposed action is consistent with and will further the achievement of the plan or otherwise further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. If the FDIC is not the applicant's primary Federal regulator, the application also should state whether approval has been requested from the applicant's primary Federal regulator, the date of such request and the disposition of the request, if any. If the proposed action also requires applications pursuant to section 18 (c) or (d) of the FDI Act (mergers and branches) (12 U.S.C. 1828 (c) or (d)), such applications should be filed concurrently with, or made a part of, the application filed pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 8097, Feb. 3, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.205" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.205   Applications for bonuses and increased compensation for senior executive officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Any insured State nonmember bank, insured State savings association, or insured branch of a foreign bank that is significantly or critically undercapitalized, or any insured State nonmember bank, any insured State savings association, or any insured branch of a foreign bank that is undercapitalized and which has failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, shall submit an application to pay a bonus or increase compensation for any senior executive officer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> Applications shall list each proposed bonus or increase in compensation, and for the latter shall identify compensation for each of the twelve calendar months preceding the calendar month in which the institution became undercapitalized. Applications also shall state the date the institution's capital restoration plan was accepted by the FDIC, and describe any progress made in implementing the plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 86 FR 8097, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.206" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.206   Application for payment of principal or interest on subordinated debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Any critically undercapitalized insured depository institution shall submit an application to pay principal or interest on subordinated debt. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> Applications shall describe the proposed payment and provide an explanation of action taken under section 38(h)(3)(A)(ii) of the FDI Act (action other than receivership or conservatorship). The application also shall explain how such payments would further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>). Existing approvals pursuant to requests filed under section 18(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)) (capital stock reductions or retirements) shall not be deemed to be the permission needed pursuant to section 38.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.207" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.207   Restricted activities for critically undercapitalized institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Any critically undercapitalized insured depository institution shall submit an application to engage in certain restricted activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of filing.</I> Applications to engage in any of the following activities, as set forth in sections 38(i)(2) (A) through (G) of the FDI Act, shall describe the proposed activity and explain how the activity would further the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>): 
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business including any action with respect to which the institution is required to provide notice to the appropriate federal banking agency. Materiality will be determined on a case-by-case basis; 
</P>
<P>(2) Extend credit for any highly leveraged transaction. A highly leveraged transaction means an extension of credit to or investment in a business by an insured depository institution where the financing transaction involves a buyout, acquisition, or recapitalization of an existing business and one of the following criteria is met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction results in a liabilities-to-assets leverage ratio higher than 75 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction at least doubles the subject company's liabilities and results in a liabilities-to-assets leverage ratio higher than 50 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction is designated an highly leverage transaction by a syndication agent or a federal bank regulator.
</P>
<P>(iv) Loans and exposures to any obligor in which the total financing package, including all obligations held by all participants is $20 million or more, or such lower level as the FDIC may establish by order on a case-by-case basis, will be excluded from this definition.
</P>
<P>(3) Amend the institution's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order; 
</P>
<P>(4) Make any material change in accounting methods; 
</P>
<P>(5) Engage in any covered transaction (as defined in section 23A(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)); 
</P>
<P>(6) Pay excessive compensation or bonuses. Part 364 of this chapter provides guidance for determining excessive compensation; or 
</P>
<P>(7) Pay interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would increase the institution's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the institution's normal market area. Section 337.6 of this chapter (Brokered deposits) provides guidance for defining the relevant terms of this provision; however this provision does not supersede the general prohibitions contained in § 337.6. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 55470, Sept. 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.208-303.219" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.11.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.208-303.219   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (Consent To Service of Persons Convicted of, or Who Have Program Entries for, Certain Criminal Offenses)</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 64362, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 303.220" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.220   What is section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart covers applications under section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1829. The FDIC refers to such applications as “consent applications.” Under section 19, any person who has been convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering, or has agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program (program entry) in connection with a prosecution for such offense (collectively, Covered Offenses), may not become, or continue as, an institution-affiliated party (IAP) of an insured depository institution (IDI); own or control, directly or indirectly, any IDI; or otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of the affairs of any IDI without the prior written consent of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, the law prohibits an IDI from permitting such a person to engage in any conduct or to continue any relationship prohibited by section 19. IDIs must therefore make a reasonable, documented inquiry to verify an applicant's history to ensure that a person who has a Covered Offense under section 19 is not hired or permitted to participate in its affairs without the written consent of the FDIC issued under this subpart. FDIC-supervised IDIs may extend a conditional offer of employment contingent on the completion of a background check satisfactory to the institution to determine if the applicant is prohibited under section 19, but the applicant may not work for, be employed by, or otherwise participate in the affairs of the IDI until the IDI has determined that the applicant is not prohibited under section 19 (including persons who have had a consent application approved).
</P>
<P>(c) If there is a conviction or program entry covered by the prohibitions of section 19, an application under this subpart must be filed seeking the FDIC's consent in order to become, or to continue as, an IAP; to own or control, directly or indirectly, an IDI; or to otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the affairs of the IDI. The application must be filed, and consented to, prior to serving in any of the foregoing capacities unless such application is not required under the subsequent provisions of this subpart. The purpose of an application is to provide the applicant an opportunity to demonstrate that, notwithstanding the prohibition, a person is fit to participate in the conduct of the affairs of an IDI without posing a risk to its safety and soundness or impairing public confidence in that institution. The burden is upon the applicant to establish that the application warrants approval.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.221" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.221   Who is covered by section 19?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons covered by section 19 include IAPs, as defined by 12 U.S.C. 1813(u), and others who are participants in the conduct of the affairs of an IDI. Therefore, all directors, officers, and employees of an IDI who fall within the scope of section 19, including <I>de facto</I> employees, as determined by the FDIC based upon generally applicable standards of employment law, will also be subject to section 19. Whether other persons are covered by section 19 depends upon their degree of influence or control over the management or affairs of an IDI. For example, section 19 would apply to directors and officers of affiliates, subsidiaries, or joint ventures of an IDI if they participate in the affairs of the IDI or are in a position to influence or control the management or affairs of the IDI. Typically, an independent contractor does not have a relationship with the IDI other than the activity for which the institution has contracted. However, an independent contractor who also influences or controls the management or affairs of the IDI would be covered by section 19.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>person,</I> for purposes of section 19, means an individual and does not include a corporation, firm, or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals who file an application with the FDIC under the provisions of section 19 who also seek to participate in the affairs of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company may have to comply with any filing requirements of the Board of the Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 U.S.C. 1829(d) and (e). Conversely, an individual who works at a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company who would like to participate in the affairs of an IDI or be in a position to influence or control the management or affairs of an IDI must file an application with the FDIC under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Section 19 specifically prohibits a person subject to its provisions from owning or controlling, directly or indirectly, an IDI. The terms <I>control, ownership,</I> and <I>acting in concert</I> under section 19 have the meaning given to those terms in subpart E of this part (including the rebuttable presumptions stated in subpart E of this part).
</P>
<P>(1) A person will be deemed to exercise “control” if that person—
</P>
<P>(i) Has the ability to direct the management or policies of an IDI;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of an IDI; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the power to vote 10 percent of the voting shares of an IDI if—
</P>
<P>(A) No other person owns, controls, or has the power to vote more shares; or
</P>
<P>(B) The institution has registered securities under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l).
</P>
<P>(2) Under this paragraph (d), a person will be deemed to “own” an IDI if that person owns—
</P>
<P>(i) 25 percent or more of the institution's voting stock; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 percent of the voting shares if—
</P>
<P>(A) No other person owns more; or
</P>
<P>(B) The institution has registered securities under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78l).
</P>
<P>(3) The standards in this paragraph (d) would also apply to an individual acting in concert with others so as to have such ownership or control. Absent the FDIC's consent, persons subject to the prohibitions of section 19 must divest their control or ownership of shares above the foregoing limits.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.222" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.222   Which offenses qualify as “Covered Offenses” under section 19?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Categories of Covered Offenses.</I> The conviction or program entry must be for a criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering.
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>criminal offense involving dishonesty</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) Means an offense under which an individual, directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(A) Cheats or defrauds; or
</P>
<P>(B) Wrongfully takes property belonging to another in violation of a criminal statute;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes an offense that Federal, State, or local law defines as dishonest, or for which dishonesty is an element of the offense; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not include—
</P>
<P>(A) A misdemeanor criminal offense committed more than one year before the date on which an individual files a consent application, excluding any period of incarceration; or
</P>
<P>(B) An offense involving the possession of controlled substances. At a minimum, this exclusion applies to criminal offenses involving the simple possession of a controlled substance and possession with intent to distribute a controlled substance. This exclusion may also apply to other drug-related offenses depending on the statutory elements of the offenses or from court determinations that the statutory provisions of the offenses do not involve dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering, as noted in paragraph (b) of this section. Potential applicants may contact their appropriate FDIC Regional Office if they have questions about whether their offenses are covered under section 19.
</P>
<P>(iv) The term <I>offense committed</I> in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section means the last date of the underlying misconduct. In instances with multiple offenses, <I>offense committed</I> means the last date of any of the underlying offenses.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>breach of trust</I> means a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission with respect to any property or fund that has been committed to a person in a fiduciary or official capacity, or the misuse of one's official or fiduciary position to engage in a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of the offense.</I> Whether a crime involves dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering will be determined from the statutory elements of the offense itself or from court determinations that the statutory provisions of the offense involve dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certain older offenses excluded</I>—(1) <I>Exclusions for certain older offenses.</I> Section 19 does not apply to an offense if—
</P>
<P>(i) It has been 7 years or more since the offense occurred; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual was incarcerated with respect to the offense and it has been 5 years or more since the individual was released from incarceration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term <I>offense occurred</I> means the last date of the underlying misconduct. In instances with multiple Covered Offenses, <I>offense occurred</I> means the last date of any of the underlying offenses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Offenses committed by individuals 21 years of age or younger.</I> For individuals who committed an offense when they were 21 years of age or younger, section 19 does not apply to the offense if it has been more than 30 months since the sentencing occurred. The term <I>sentencing occurred</I> means the date on which a court imposed the sentence (as indicated by the date on the court's sentencing order), not the date on which all conditions of sentencing were completed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitation.</I> This paragraph (c) does not apply to an offense described under 12 U.S.C. 1829(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign convictions.</I> Individuals who are convicted of or enter into a pretrial diversion program for a criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering in any foreign jurisdiction are subject to section 19, unless the offense is otherwise excluded by this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.223" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.223   What constitutes a conviction under section 19?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Convictions requiring an application.</I> There must be a conviction of record. Section 19 does not cover arrests or pending cases not brought to trial, unless the person has a program entry as set out in § 303.224. Section 19 does not cover acquittals or any conviction that has been reversed on appeal, unless the reversal was for the purpose of re-sentencing. A conviction with regard to which an appeal is pending requires an application. A conviction for which a pardon has been granted requires an application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Convictions not requiring an application.</I> When an individual is charged with a Covered Offense and, in the absence of a program entry as set out in § 303.224, is subsequently convicted of an offense that is not a Covered Offense, the conviction is not subject to section 19.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expungement, dismissal, and sealing.</I> A conviction is not considered a conviction of record and does not require an application if—
</P>
<P>(1) There is an order of expungement, sealing, or dismissal that has been issued in regard to the conviction in connection with such offense, or if a conviction has been otherwise expunged, sealed, or dismissed by operation of law; and
</P>
<P>(2) It is intended by the language in the order itself, or in the legislative provisions under which the order was issued, or in other legislative provisions, that the conviction shall be destroyed or sealed from the individual's State, Tribal, or Federal record, even if exceptions allow the conviction to be considered for certain character and fitness evaluation purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Youthful offenders.</I> An adjudication by a court against a person as a “youthful offender” (or similar term) under any youth-offender law applicable to minors as defined by State law, or any judgment as a “juvenile delinquent” (or similar term) by any court having jurisdiction over minors as defined by State law, does not require an application. Such an adjudication does not constitute a matter covered under section 19 and is not a conviction or program entry for determining the applicability of § 303.227.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.224" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.224   What constitutes a pretrial diversion or similar program under section 19?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>pretrial diversion or similar program</I> (program entry) means a program characterized by a suspension or eventual dismissal or reversal of charges or criminal prosecution upon agreement by the accused to restitution, drug or alcohol rehabilitation, anger management, or community service. Whether the outcome of a case constitutes a program entry is determined by relevant Federal, State, or local law, and, if not so designated under applicable law, then the determination of whether a disposition is a program entry will be made by the FDIC on a case-by-case basis. Program entries prior to November 29, 1990, are not covered by section 19.
</P>
<P>(b) When a Covered Offense either is reduced by a program entry to an offense that would otherwise not be covered by section 19 or is dismissed upon successful completion of a program entry, the offense remains a Covered Offense for purposes of section 19. The Covered Offense will require an application unless it is <I>de minimis</I> as provided by § 303.227.
</P>
<P>(c) Expungements, dismissals, or sealings of program entries will be treated the same as those for convictions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.225" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.225   What are the types of applications that can be filed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC will accept applications from—
</P>
<P>(1) An individual;
</P>
<P>(2) An IDI applying on behalf of an individual;
</P>
<P>(3) A depository institution holding company applying on behalf of an individual with respect to an IDI subsidiary of the holding company; and
</P>
<P>(4) A depository institution holding company applying on behalf of an individual who will work at the holding company but also participate in the affairs of the IDI or who would be in a position to influence or control the management or affairs of the IDI, in accordance with § 303.221(a).
</P>
<P>(b) An individual or an institution may file applications at separate times. Under either approach, the application(s) must be filed with the appropriate FDIC Regional Office, as required by this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.226" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.226   When may an application be filed?</HEAD>
<P>Except for situations in which no application is required under section 19 and this subpart, an application must be filed when there is a conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction for a Covered Offense by any adult or minor treated as an adult or when such person has a program entry regarding that offense. Before an application may be filed, all of the sentencing requirements associated with a conviction, or conditions imposed by the program entry, including but not limited to, imprisonment, fines, conditions of rehabilitation, and probation requirements, must be completed, and the case must be considered final by the procedures of the applicable jurisdiction. The FDIC's application forms as well as additional information concerning section 19 can be accessed from the FDIC's Regional Offices or on the FDIC's website.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.227" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.227   De minimis Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The prohibitions of 12 U.S.C. 1829(a) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, where all of the following <I>de minimis</I> criteria are met. (Paragraph (b)(4) of this section contains separate exemption criteria from paragraphs (a) through (b)(3) of this section, and an offense that qualifies for exemption under paragraph (b)(4) of this section is excluded from consideration in the criteria of paragraphs (a) through (b)(3) of this section.)
</P>
<P>(1) The individual has been convicted of, or has program entries for, no more than two Covered Offenses, including those subject to paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section; and for each Covered Offense, all of the sentencing requirements associated with the conviction, or conditions imposed by the program entry, have been completed (the sentence- or program-completion requirement does not apply under paragraph (b)(2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) For each Covered Offense, the individual could have been sentenced to a term of confinement in a correctional facility of three years or less and/or a fine of $3,500, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or less, and the individual actually served three days or less of jail time for each Covered Offense.
</P>
<P>(3) Jail time under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is calculated based on the time an individual spent incarcerated as a punishment or a sanction—not as pretrial detention—and does not include probation or parole where an individual was restricted to a particular jurisdiction or was required to report occasionally to an individual or a specific location. Jail time includes confinement to a psychiatric treatment center in lieu of a jail, prison, or house of correction on mental-competency grounds. The definition is not intended to include either of the following: persons who are restricted to a substance-abuse treatment program facility for part or all of the day; or persons who are ordered to attend outpatient psychiatric treatment.
</P>
<P>(4) If there are two convictions or program entries for a Covered Offense, each conviction or program entry was entered at least three years prior to the date an application would otherwise be required, except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Each Covered Offense must not have been committed against an IDI or insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other types of offenses for which the</I> de minimis exemption <I>applies and no application is required</I>—(1) <I>Age of person at time of Covered Offense.</I> If there are two convictions or program entries for a Covered Offense, and the actions that resulted in both convictions or program entries all occurred when the individual was 21 years of age or younger, then the <I>de minimis</I> criteria in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will be met if the convictions or program entries were entered at least 18 months prior to the date an application would otherwise be required. For this reduction in waiting time to apply, the convictions or program entries must meet the other <I>de minimis</I> criteria in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Convictions or program entries for insufficient funds checks.</I> The prohibitions of 12 U.S.C. 1829(a) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to convictions or program entries of record based on the writing of “bad” or insufficient funds check(s) if the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate total face value of all “bad” or insufficient funds check(s) cited across all the conviction(s) or program entry(ies) for “bad” or insufficient funds checks is $2,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) No IDI or insured credit union was a payee on any of the “bad” or insufficient funds checks that were the basis of the conviction(s) or program entry(ies); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual has no more than one other <I>de minimis</I> offense under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convictions or program entries for small-dollar, simple theft.</I> The prohibitions of 12 U.S.C. 1829(a) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to convictions or program entries based on the simple theft of goods, services, or currency (or other monetary instrument) if the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The value of the currency, goods, or services taken was $1,225, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) The theft was not committed against an IDI or insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual has no more than one other offense that is considered exempt under this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If there are two offenses—each of which, by itself, is considered exempt under this section—each conviction or program entry was entered at least three years prior to the date an application would otherwise be required, or at least 18 months prior to the date an application would otherwise be required if the actions that resulted in the conviction or program entry all occurred when the individual was 21 years of age or younger.
</P>
<P>(v) Simple theft excludes burglary, forgery, robbery, identity theft, and fraud.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Convictions or program entries for using fake identification, shoplifting, trespassing, fare evasion, or driving with an expired license or tag.</I> The prohibitions of 12 U.S.C. 1829(a) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to the following offenses, if one year or more has passed since the applicable conviction or program entry: using fake identification; shoplifting; trespassing; fare evasion; and driving with an expired license or tag.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying convictions or program entries.</I> No conviction or program entry for a violation of the title 18 sections set out in 12 U.S.C. 1829(a)(2) can qualify under any of the <I>de minimis</I> exemptions set out in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 64362, Aug. 7, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 55809, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.228" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.228   How to file an application.</HEAD>
<P>Forms and instructions should be obtained from the FDIC's Regional Offices or on the FDIC's website (<I>www.fdic.gov</I>), and the application(s) must be filed with the appropriate FDIC Regional Office. An application may be filed by an individual or by an IDI or depository institution holding company on behalf of an individual, or by both. The appropriate Regional Office for an institution-sponsored application is the office covering the state where the institution's home office is located. The appropriate Regional Office for an application filed by an individual is the office covering the state where the person resides. States covered by each FDIC Regional Office can be located on the FDIC's website.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.229" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.229   How an application is evaluated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal-history records.</I> In reviewing an application, the FDIC will—
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily rely on the criminal history record provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (rap sheet); and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide such record to the subject of the application to review for accuracy. The FDIC will make reasonable efforts to communicate with the subject of the application within 15 calendar days of receipt of this record from the Federal Bureau of Investigation to inform the individual that the FDIC will be providing them with a copy of the report and to verify the individual's contact information. The FDIC will make reasonable efforts to send the report to the individual within 5 business days of successful verification of the individual's contact information. If the individual believes that there are any inaccuracies in the report, the FDIC will direct the individual to an appropriate contact at the Federal Bureau of Investigation where the individual can seek corrections to the report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certified copies.</I> The FDIC will not require an applicant to provide certified copies of criminal history records unless the FDIC determines that there is a clear and compelling justification to require additional information to verify the accuracy of the criminal history record provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ultimate determinations.</I> The ultimate determinations in assessing an application are whether the person has demonstrated their fitness to participate in the conduct of the affairs of an IDI, and whether the affiliation, ownership, control, or participation by the person in the conduct of the affairs of the institution may constitute a threat to the safety and soundness of the institution or the interests of its depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individualized assessment.</I> When evaluating applications, the FDIC will conduct an individualized assessment that will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the conviction or program entry is subject to section 19, and the specific nature and circumstances of the offense;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the participation directly or indirectly by the person in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the IDI constitutes a threat to the safety and soundness of the institution or the interests of its depositors or threatens to impair public confidence in the institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence of rehabilitation, including the person's age at the time of the conviction or program entry, the time that has elapsed since the conviction or program entry, and the relationship of the individual's offense to the responsibilities of the applicable position;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual's employment history, letters of recommendation, certificates documenting participation in substance-abuse programs, successful participation in job preparation and educational programs, and other relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(5) The ability of management of the IDI to supervise and control the person's activities;
</P>
<P>(6) The level of ownership or control the person will have of an IDI;
</P>
<P>(7) The applicability of the IDI's fidelity bond coverage to the person; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional factors in the specific case that appear relevant to the application or the individual including, but not limited to, the opinion or position of the primary Federal or State regulator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No re-consideration of guilt.</I> The question of whether a person, who was convicted of a crime or who agreed to a program entry, was guilty of that crime will not be at issue in a proceeding under this subpart or under 12 CFR part 308, subpart M.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Factors considered for enumerated offenses.</I> The foregoing factors will also be applied by the FDIC to determine whether the interests of justice are served in seeking an exception in the appropriate court when an application is made to terminate the ten-year ban prior to its expiration date under 12 U.S.C. 1829(a)(2) for certain Federal offenses.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mandatory conditions of approval.</I> All approvals and orders will be subject to the condition that the person be covered by a fidelity bond to the same extent as others in similar positions. If the FDIC has approved an application filed by an individual and has issued a consent order, the individual must disclose the presence of the conviction(s) or program entry(ies) to all IDIs in the affairs of which they wish to participate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-sponsored applications: work at same employer.</I> When deemed appropriate by the FDIC, institution-sponsored applications are to allow the individual to work for the same employer (without restrictions on the location) and across positions, except that the prior consent of the FDIC (which may require a new application) will be required for any proposed significant changes in the individual's security-related duties or responsibilities, such as promotion to an officer or other positions that the employer determines will require higher security screening credentials.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Work at a different employer after certain approvals.</I> In situations in which an approval has been granted for a person to participate in the affairs of a particular IDI and the person subsequently seeks to participate at another IDI, another application must be submitted and approved by the FDIC prior to the person participating in the affairs of the other IDI.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.230" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.230   What will the FDIC do if the application is denied?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC will inform the applicant in writing that the application has been denied and summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 303.229.
</P>
<P>(b) The denial will also notify the applicant that a written request for a hearing (or a request for written submissions in lieu of a hearing) under 12 CFR part 308, subpart M, may be filed with the FDIC Executive Secretary within 60 days after the denial. For institution-sponsored applications, either the institution or the subject individual (or both, as a consolidated request) may file such a written request. A request must include the relief desired, the grounds supporting the request for relief, and any supporting evidence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.231" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.12.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.231   Waiting time for a subsequent application if an application is denied.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application under section 19 must be made in writing and may not be made less than one year following the issuance of a decision denying an application under section 19. If the original denial is subject to a request for a hearing or written submissions in lieu of a hearing, then the subsequent application may be filed at any time more than one year after the decision of the FDIC Board of Directors, or its designee, denying the application. Unless with the passage of time the individual is no longer subject to section 19, the prohibition against participating in the affairs of an IDI under section 19 will continue until the individual has been granted consent in writing to participate in the affairs of an IDI by the Board of Directors or its designee.
</P>
<P>(b) An institution-sponsored application is not subject to the one-year waiting period if the application—
</P>
<P>(1) Follows the denial of an individual application; or
</P>
<P>(2) Follows the denial of an institution-sponsored application and the subsequent application is sponsored by a different institution or is for a different position.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Other Filings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.240" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.240   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth the filing procedures to be followed when seeking the FDIC's consent to engage in certain activities or accomplish other matters as specified in the individual sections contained herein. For those matters covered by this subpart that also have substantive FDIC regulations or related statements of policy, references to the relevant regulations or statements of policy are contained in the specific sections. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.241" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.241   Reduce or retire capital stock or capital debt instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>Insured State nonmember banks.</I> The procedures contained in this section are to be followed by an insured State nonmember bank to seek the prior approval of the FDIC to reduce the amount or retire any part of its common or preferred stock, or to retire any part of its capital notes or debentures pursuant to section 18(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured State savings associations.</I> The procedures contained in this section are to be followed by an insured State savings association to seek the prior approval of the FDIC to reduce the amount or retire any part of its common or preferred stock, or to retire any part of its capital notes or debentures, as if the insured State savings association were a State nonmember bank subject to section 18(i)(1) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The type and amount of the proposed change to the capital structure and the reason for the change; 
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule detailing the present and proposed capital structure; 
</P>
<P>(3) The time period that the proposal will encompass; 
</P>
<P>(4) If the proposal involves a series of transactions affecting Tier 1 capital components which will be consummated over a period of time which shall not exceed twelve months, the application shall certify that the insured depository institution will maintain itself as a well-capitalized institution as defined in part 324 of this chapter both before and after each of the proposed transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) If the proposal involves the repurchase of capital instruments, the amount of the repurchase price and the basis for establishing the fair market value of the repurchase price; 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that the proposal will be available to all holders of a particular class of outstanding capital instruments on an equal basis, and if not, the details of any restrictions; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The date that the applicant's board of directors approved the proposal. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the application. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Undercapitalized institutions.</I> Procedures regarding applications by an undercapitalized insured depository institution to retire capital stock or capital debt instruments pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831<I>o</I>) are set forth in subpart K (Prompt Corrective Action), § 303.203. Applications pursuant to section 38 and this section should be filed concurrently, or as a single application. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</I> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in§ 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited processing will be deemed approved 20 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 55470, Sept. 30, 2013; 83 FR 17739, Apr. 24, 2018; 85 FR 3245, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.242" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.242   Exercise of trust powers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains the procedures to be followed by a State nonmember bank or State savings association that seeks to obtain the FDIC's prior written consent to exercise trust powers. The FDIC's prior written consent to exercise trust powers is not required in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) Where a State nonmember bank or State savings association received authority to exercise trust powers from its chartering authority prior to December 1, 1950; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where the institution continues to conduct trust activities pursuant to authority granted by its chartering authority subsequent to a charter conversion or withdrawal from membership in the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit to the appropriate FDIC office a completed form, “Application for Consent to Exercise Trust Powers.” This form may be obtained from any FDIC regional director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The filing shall consist of the completed trust application form.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</I> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2.). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited procedures will be deemed approved 30 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those applications that are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 60337, Nov. 26, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.243" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.243   Brokered deposits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Brokered deposit waivers</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> Pursuant to section 29 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f) and part 337 of this chapter, an adequately capitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposits unless it has obtained a waiver from the FDIC. A well capitalized insured depository institution may accept brokered deposits without a waiver, and an undercapitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposits under any circumstances. This section contains the procedures to be followed to file with the FDIC for a brokered deposit waiver. The FDIC will provide notice to the depository institution's appropriate Federal banking agency and any state regulatory agency, as appropriate, that a request for a waiver has been filed and will consult with such agency or agencies, prior to taking action on the institution's request for a waiver. Prior notice and/or consultation shall not be required in any particular case if the FDIC determines that the circumstances require it to take action without giving such notice and opportunity for consultation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The time period for which the waiver is requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the policy governing the use of brokered deposits in the institution's overall funding and liquidity management program;
</P>
<P>(iii) The volume, rates, and maturities of the brokered deposits held currently and anticipated during the waiver period sought, including any internal limits placed on the terms, solicitation, and use of brokered deposits;
</P>
<P>(iv) How brokered deposits are costed and compared to other funding alternatives and how they are used in the institution's lending and investment activities, including a detailed discussion of asset growth plans;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures and practices used to solicit brokered deposits, including an identification of the principal sources of such deposits;
</P>
<P>(vi) Management systems overseeing the solicitation, acceptance, and use of brokered deposits;
</P>
<P>(vii) A recent consolidated financial statement with balance sheet and income statements; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The reasons the institution believes its acceptance, renewal, or rollover of brokered deposits would pose no undue risk.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the application.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Expedited processing for eligible depository institutions.</I> An application filed under this section by an eligible depository institution as defined in this paragraph will be acknowledged in writing by the FDIC and will receive expedited processing, unless the applicant is notified in writing to the contrary and provided with the basis for that decision. For the purpose of this section, an applicant will be deemed an eligible depository institution if it satisfies all of the criteria contained in § 303.2(r) except that the applicant may be adequately capitalized rather than well capitalized. The FDIC may remove an application from expedited processing for any of the reasons set forth in § 303.11(c)(2). Absent such removal, an application processed under expedited procedures will be deemed approved 21 days after the FDIC's receipt of a substantially complete application.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Standard processing.</I> For those filings which are not processed pursuant to the expedited procedures, the FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Conditions for approval.</I> A waiver issued pursuant to this section shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be for a fixed period, generally no longer than two years, but may be extended upon refiling; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May be revoked by the FDIC at any time by written notice to the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Primary purpose exception notices and applications</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth a process for an agent or nominee, or an insured depository institution on behalf of an agent or nominee, to notify the FDIC that it will rely upon a designated exception in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this chapter. This section also sets forth a process for an agent or nominee, or an insured depository institution on behalf of an agent or nominee, to apply for the primary purpose exception, as described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>2</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Third party</I> means an agent or nominee that submits a notice that it will rely upon a designated exception in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this chapter or applies to be excluded from the definition of deposit broker pursuant to the primary purpose exception as described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>2</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice filer</I> means a third party or an insured depository institution on behalf of a third party, that submits a written notice that the third party will rely upon a designated business exception in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicant</I> means a third party, or an insured depository institution on behalf of a third party, that applies to be excluded from the definition of deposit broker pursuant to the primary purpose exception, as described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>2</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice requirement for designated business exceptions.</I> A third party, or an insured depository institution on behalf of a third party, must notify the FDIC through a written notice that the third party will rely upon a designated business exception described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) and (<I>ii</I>) of this chapter in order to rely on that designated business exception.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice must include: The designated exception upon which the third party will rely; a brief description of the business line; the applicable specific contents for the designated exception; either a statement that there is no involvement of any additional third party who qualifies as a deposit broker or a brief description of any additional third party that may qualify as a deposit broker; and if the notice is provided by a nonbank third party, a list of the insured depository institutions that are receiving deposits by or through the particular business line. The applicable specific contents for the following designated exceptions are:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>25 percent test (as described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(1)(i) of this chapter).</I> (<I>1</I>) The total amount of customer assets under administration by the third party for that particular business line; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total amount of deposits placed by the third party on behalf of its customers, for that particular business line, at all depository institutions, being placed by that third party.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Enabling transactions test (as described in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(1)(ii) of this chapter).</I> (<I>1</I>) Contractual evidence that there is no interest, fees, or other remuneration, being paid to any customer accounts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A certification that all customer deposits that are placed at insured depository institutions are in transaction accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional information for notices.</I> The FDIC may request additional information from the notice filer at any time after receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional notice filers.</I> The FDIC may include notice and/or reporting requirements as part of a designated exception identified under § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>2</I>)(<I>xiv</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Subsequent notices.</I> A notice filer that previously submitted a notice under this section shall submit a subsequent notice to the FDIC if, at any point, the notice filer no longer meets the designated business exception that was the subject of its previous notice.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Ongoing requirements for notice filers.</I> Notice filers that submit a notice under <I>the 25 percent test</I> must provide quarterly updates to the FDIC on the figures described in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section that were provided as part of the written notice. Notice filers that submit a notice under <I>the enabling transactions test</I> must provide an annual certification to the FDIC that the third party continues to place all customer funds at insured depository institutions into transaction accounts and that customers do not receive any interest, fees, or other remuneration.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Revocation of primary purpose exception.</I> The FDIC may, with notice, revoke a primary purpose exception of a third party, or a person required to submit a notice under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, that qualifies for the primary purpose exception due to reliance on a designated exception, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The third party no longer meets the criteria for a designated exception;
</P>
<P>(B) The notice or subsequent reporting is inaccurate; or
</P>
<P>(C) The notice filer fails to submit required reports.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Application requirements.</I> A third party, or an insured depository institution on behalf of a third party, may submit an application to the FDIC seeking a primary purpose exception for business relationships not designated in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>For applications for primary purpose exception to enable transactions with fees, interest, or other remuneration provided to the depositor.</I> Applicants that seek the primary purpose exception where customer funds that are placed at depository institutions are placed into transaction accounts, and fees, interest, or other remuneration are provided to the depositor, must include the following information, with respect to the particular business line:
</P>
<P>(A) Contractual evidence on the amount of interest, fees, or other remuneration, being paid on customer accounts;
</P>
<P>(B) Any marketing materials provided by the third party to insured depository institutions or its customers;
</P>
<P>(C) The average number of transactions for all customer accounts, and an explanation of how its customers utilize its services for the purpose of making payments and not for the receipt of a deposit placement service or deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(D) The percentage of customer funds placed in deposit accounts that are not transaction accounts;
</P>
<P>(E) A description of any additional third parties that provide assistance with the placement of deposits at insured depository institutions; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other information that the FDIC requires to initiate its review and render the application complete.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For applications for primary purpose exception not covered by paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section.</I> Applicants that seek the primary purpose exception, other than applications under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, must include, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A description of the deposit placement arrangements between the third party and insured depository institutions for the particular business line, including the services provided by any relevant third parties;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the primary purpose of the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(D) The total amount of customer assets under administration by the third party, with respect to the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(E) The total amount of deposits placed by the third party at all insured depository institutions, including the amounts placed with the applicant, if the applicant is an insured depository institution, with respect to the particular business line. This includes the total amount of term deposits and transactional deposits placed by the third party, but should be exclusive of the amount of brokered CDs, as defined in § 337.6(a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>3</I>) of this chapter, being placed by that third party;
</P>
<P>(F) Revenue generated from the third party's activities related to the placement, or facilitating the placement, of deposits, with respect to the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(G) Revenue generated from the third party's activities not related to the placement, or facilitating the placement, of deposits, with respect to the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(H) A description of the marketing activities provided by the third party, with respect to the particular business line;
</P>
<P>(I) The reasons the third party meets the primary purpose exception;
</P>
<P>(J) Any other information the applicant deems relevant; and
</P>
<P>(K) Any other information that the FDIC requires to initiate its review and render the application complete.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional information for applications.</I> The FDIC may request additional information from the applicant at any time during processing of the application.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Application timing.</I> (A) An applicant that submits a complete application under this section will receive a written determination by the FDIC within 120 days of receipt of a complete application.
</P>
<P>(B) If an application is submitted that is not complete, the FDIC will, within 45 days of submission, notify the applicant and explain what is needed to render the application complete.
</P>
<P>(C) The FDIC may extend the 120-day timeframe, if necessary, to complete its review of a complete application, with notice to the applicant, for a maximum of 120 additional days.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Application approvals.</I> The FDIC will approve an application—
</P>
<P>(A) Submitted under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section if the FDIC finds that the third party's marketing materials indicate that the primary purpose of placing customer deposits at insured depository institutions is to enable transactions, and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Nominal interest, fees, or other remuneration is being paid on any customer accounts, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The third party's customers make, on average, more than 6 transactions a month.
</P>
<P>(B) Submitted under paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section if the FDIC finds that the applicant demonstrates that, with respect to the particular business line under which the third party places or facilitates the placement of deposits, the primary purpose of the third party's business relationship with its customers is a purpose other than the placement or facilitation of the placement of deposits.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Ongoing reporting for applications.</I> (A) The FDIC will describe any reporting requirements, if applicable, as part of its written approval for a primary purpose exception.
</P>
<P>(B) Applicants that receive a written approval for the primary purpose exception, shall provide reporting to the FDIC and, in the case of an insured depository institution, to its primary Federal regulator, if required under this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Requesting additional information, requiring re-application, imposing additional conditions, and withdrawing approvals.</I> At any time after approval of an application for the primary purpose exception, the FDIC may at its discretion, with written notice and adequate justification:
</P>
<P>(A) Require additional information from an applicant to ensure that the approval is still appropriate, or for purposes of verifying the accuracy and correctness of the information provided to an insured depository institution or submitted to the FDIC as part of the application under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Require the applicant to reapply for approval;
</P>
<P>(C) Impose additional conditions on an approval; or
</P>
<P>(D) Withdraw an approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 6787, Jan. 22, 2021, as amended at 91 FR 33070, June 3, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.244" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.244   Golden parachute and severance plan payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Pursuant to section 18(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(k)) and part 359 of this chapter, an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company may not make golden parachute payments or excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments unless the depository institution or holding company obtains permission to make such payments in accordance with the rules contained in part 359 of this chapter. This section contains the procedures to file for the FDIC's consent when such consent is necessary under part 359 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Golden parachute payments.</I> A troubled insured depository institution or a troubled depository institution holding company is prohibited from making golden parachute payments (as defined in § 359.1(f)(1) of this chapter) unless it obtains the consent of the appropriate federal banking agency and the written concurrence of the FDIC. Therefore, in the case of golden parachute payments, the procedures in this section apply to all troubled insured depository institutions and troubled depository institution holding companies. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments.</I> In the case of excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments as provided by § 359.1(f)(2)(v) of this chapter, the FDIC's consent is necessary for state nonmember banks that meet the criteria set forth in § 359.1(f)(1)(ii) of this chapter. In addition, the FDIC's consent is required for all insured depository institutions or depository institution holding companies that meet the same criteria and seek to make payments in excess of the 12-month amount specified in § 359.1(f)(2)(v). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC regional director. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The reasons why the applicant seeks to make the payment; 
</P>
<P>(2) An identification of the institution-affiliated party who will receive the payment; 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any contract or agreement regarding the subject matter of the filing; 
</P>
<P>(4) The cost of the proposed payment and its impact on the institution's capital and earnings;
</P>
<P>(5) The reasons why the consent to the payment should be granted; and
</P>
<P>(6) Certification and documentation as to each of the points cited in § 359.4(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with a subsequent written notification of the final action taken as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 68 FR 50461, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.245" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.245   Waiver of liability for commonly controlled depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)) creates liability for commonly controlled insured depository institutions for losses incurred or anticipated to be incurred by the FDIC in connection with the default of a commonly controlled insured depository institution or any assistance provided by the FDIC to any commonly controlled insured depository institution in danger of default. In addition to certain statutory exceptions and exclusions contained in sections 5(e)(6), (7) and (8), the FDI Act also permits the FDIC, in its discretion, to exempt any insured depository institution from this liability if it determines that such exemption is in the best interests of the Deposit Insurance Fund. This section describes procedures to request a conditional waiver of liability pursuant to section 5 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)(5)(A)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> Conditional waiver of liability means an exemption from liability pursuant to section 5(e) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1815(e)) subject to terms and conditions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The basis for requesting a waiver; 
</P>
<P>(2) The existence of any significant events (e.g., change in control, capital injection, etc.) that may have an impact upon the applicant and/or any potentially liable institution; 
</P>
<P>(3) Current, and if applicable, pro forma financial information regarding the applicant and potentially liable institution(s); and 
</P>
<P>(4) The benefits to the appropriate FDIC insurance fund resulting from the waiver and any related events. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during the processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to comply with terms of conditional waiver.</I> In the event a conditional waiver of liability is issued, failure to comply with the terms specified therein may result in the termination of the conditional waiver of liability. The FDIC reserves the right to revoke the conditional waiver of liability after giving the applicant written notice of such revocation and a reasonable opportunity to be heard on the matter pursuant to § 303.10. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.246" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.246   Conversion with diminution of capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured federal depository institution seeking the prior written consent of the FDIC pursuant to section 18(i)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(2)) to convert from an insured federal depository institution to an insured state nonmember bank (except a District bank) where the capital stock or surplus of the resulting bank will be less than the capital stock or surplus, respectively, of the converting institution at the time of the shareholders' meeting approving such conversion. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the proposed transaction; 
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule detailing the present and proposed capital structure; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of any documents submitted to the state chartering authority with respect to the charter conversion. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during the processing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.247" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.247   Continue or resume status as an insured institution following termination under section 8 of the FDI Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section relates to an application by a depository institution whose insured status has been terminated under section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818) for permission to continue or resume its status as an insured depository institution. This section covers institutions whose deposit insurance continues in effect for any purpose or for any length of time under the terms of an FDIC order terminating deposit insurance, but does not cover operating non-insured depository institutions which were previously insured by the FDIC, or any non-insured, non-operating depository institution whose charter has not been surrendered or revoked. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The filing shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A complete statement of the action requested, all relevant facts, and the reason for such requested action; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A certified copy of the resolution of the depository institution's board of directors authorizing submission of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.248" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.248   Truth in Lending Act—Relief from reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to requests for relief from reimbursement pursuant to the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) and Regulation Z (12 CFR part 226). Related delegations of authority are also set forth. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures to be followed in filing initial requests for relief.</I> Requests for relief from reimbursement shall be filed with the appropriate FDIC office or within 60 days after receipt of the compliance report of examination containing the request to conduct a file search and make restitution to affected customers. The filing shall contain a complete and concise statement of the action requested, all relevant facts, the reasons and analysis relied upon as the basis for such requested action, and all supporting documentation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of any such requests. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will acknowledge receipt of the request for reconsideration and provide the applicant with written notification of its determination within 60 days of its receipt of the request for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures to be followed in filing requests for reconsideration.</I> Within 15 days of receipt of written notice that its request for relief has been denied, the requestor may petition the appropriate FDIC office for reconsideration of such request in accordance with the procedures set forth in§ 303.11(f). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.249" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.249   Management official interlocks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured State nonmember bank or an insured State savings association to seek the approval of FDIC to establish an interlock pursuant to the Depository Institutions Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3207), section 13 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)), and part 348 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the proposed interlock; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of reason as to why the interlock will not result in a monopoly or a substantial lessening of competition; and 
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant is seeking an exemption set forth in § 348.6 of this chapter, a description of the particular exemption which is being requested and a statement of reasons as to why the exemption is applicable. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action when the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006; 84 FR 2706, Feb. 8, 2019; 86 FR 8097, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.250" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.250   Modification of conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured depository institution to seek the prior consent of the FDIC to modify the requirement of a prior approval of a filing issued by the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants should submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC regional director. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application should contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the original approved application; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the modification requested; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The reason for the request. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with a written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 303.251" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 303.251   Extension of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains the procedures to be followed by an insured depository institution to seek the prior consent of the FDIC for additional time to fulfill a condition required in an approval of a filing issued by the FDIC or to consummate a transaction which was the subject of an approval by the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> Applicants shall submit a letter application to the appropriate FDIC office. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of filing.</I> The application shall contain the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the original approved application; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the original time limitation; 
</P>
<P>(3) The additional time period requested; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The reason for the request. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information at any time during processing of the filing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Processing.</I> The FDIC will provide the applicant with written notification of the final action as soon as the decision is rendered. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 79247, Dec. 27, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 303.252-303.259" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.3.13.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 303.252-303.259   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="304" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 304—FORMS, INSTRUCTIONS, AND REPORTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 1463, 1464, 1811, 1813, 1817, 1819, 1831, and 1861-1867.
</PSPACE>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="13">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 29052, June 21, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—In General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart informs the public where it may obtain forms and instructions for reports, applications, and other submittals used by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), and describes certain forms that are not described elsewhere in FDIC regulations in this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 66443, Nov. 23, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.2   Where to obtain forms and instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Forms and instructions used in connection with applications, reports, and other submittals used by the FDIC can be obtained by contacting the FDIC Public Information Center (550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429; telephone: (877) 275-3342 or (703) 562-2200), except as noted in § 304.3. In addition, many forms and instructions can be obtained from FDIC regional offices. A list of FDIC regional offices can be obtained from the FDIC Public Information Center, or found at the FDIC's website at <I>http://www.fdic.gov,</I> or in the directory of FDIC Law, Regulations, Related Acts published by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.3   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, Forms FFIEC 031, 041, and 051.</I> Pursuant to section 7(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)) and other applicable law, every insured depository institution is required to file Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (also known as the Call Report) in accordance with the instructions for these reports. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of, the Call Report. The FDIC uses Call Report data from all insured depository institutions to calculate deposit insurance assessments and monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual banks and the banking industry. Reporting banks must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the FDIC may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. The report forms and instructions can be obtained from the Division of Insurance and Research (DIR), FDIC, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429 or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, Form FFIEC 002.</I> Pursuant to section 7(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)) and other applicable law, every insured U.S. branch of a foreign bank is required to file a Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks in accordance with the instructions for the report. All assets and liabilities, including contingent assets and liabilities, must be reported in, or otherwise taken into account in the preparation of the report. The FDIC uses the reported data to calculate deposit insurance assessments and monitor the condition, performance, and risk profile of individual insured branches and the banking industry. Insured branches must also submit annually such information on small business and small farm lending as the FDIC may need to assess the availability of credit to these sectors of the economy. Because the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System collects and processes this report on behalf of the FDIC, the report forms and instructions can be obtained from Federal Reserve District Banks or through the website of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Summary of Deposits, Form FDIC 8020/05.</I> Form 8020/05 is a report on the amount of deposits for each authorized office of an insured depository institution with branches; institutions with only a main office are exempt from reporting. Reports as of June 30 of each year must be submitted no later than the immediately succeeding July 31. The report forms and the instructions for completing the reports will be furnished to all such institutions by, or may be obtained upon request from, the Division of Insurance and Research (DIR), FDIC, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of Performance of Bank Services, Form FDIC 6120/06.</I> Pursuant to section 7 of the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1867), as amended, FDIC-supervised institutions must notify the agency about the existence of a service relationship within thirty days after the making of the contract or the performance of the service, whichever occurs first. Form FDIC 6120/06 may be used to satisfy the notice requirement. The form contains identification, location, and contact information for the institution, the servicer, and a description of the services provided. In lieu of the form, notification may be provided by letter. Either the form or the letter containing the notice information must be submitted to the regional director—Division of Risk Management Supervision (RMS) of the region in which the institution's main office is located.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control numbers 3064-0052, 7100-0032, 3064-0061, and 3064-0029)


</APPRO>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 304.4-304.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 304.4-304.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Implementation of Reduced Reporting Requirement</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED> Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1464(v), 1817(a), and 1819 Tenth.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 304.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.11   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464(v), and section 7 (12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(12)) and section 9 (12 U.S.C. 1819 Tenth) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(12) to allow reduced reporting for a covered depository institution when such institution makes its reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters of a year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to an insured depository institution, as that term is defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c), that meets the definition of a covered depository institution under § 304.12.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this subpart in any way limits the authority of the Corporation under other provisions of applicable law and regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution, as such term is defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813, for which the Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency and that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Has less than $5 billion in total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of the preceding year;
</P>
<P>(2) Has no foreign offices, as defined in this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Is not required to or has not elected to use 12 CFR part 324, subpart E, to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) Is not a large institution or highly complex institution, as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 327.8, or treated as a large institution, as requested under 12 CFR 327.16(f); and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank, as such terms are defined in section 3(s) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(s).
</P>
<P>(6) In determining whether an insured depository institution meets the asset threshold in paragraph (1) of the definition of “covered depository institution” in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, for purposes of a report required to be submitted for calendar year 2021, an insured depository institution may refer to the lesser of its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition as of December 31, 2019, and its total consolidated assets as reported in its report of condition for the second calendar quarter of 2020.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign country</I> refers to one or more foreign nations, and includes the overseas territories, dependencies, and insular possessions of those nations and of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Foreign office</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A branch or consolidated subsidiary in a foreign country, unless the branch is located on a U.S. military facility;
</P>
<P>(2) An international banking facility as such term is defined in 12 CFR 204.8;
</P>
<P>(3) A majority-owned Edge Act or Agreement subsidiary including both its U.S. and its foreign offices; and
</P>
<P>(4) For an institution chartered or headquartered in any U.S. state or the District of Columbia, a branch or consolidated subsidiary located in a U.S. territory or possession.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Report of condition</I> means the FFIEC 031, FFIEC 041, or FFIEC 051 versions of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) or the FFIEC 002 (Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks), as applicable, and as they may be amended or superseded from time to time in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, 44 U.S.C. chapter 35.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Total consolidated assets</I> means total assets as reported in an insured depository institution's report of condition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 29052, June 21, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 77363, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.13   Reduced reporting.</HEAD>
<P>A covered depository institution may file the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, which shall provide for reduced reporting for the reports of condition for the first and third calendar quarters for a year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.14   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding § 304.13, the Corporation, in consultation with the applicable state chartering authority, may require an otherwise eligible covered depository institution to file the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition, or any successor thereto, based on an institution-specific determination. In making this determination, the Corporation may consider criteria including, but not limited to, whether the institution is significantly engaged in one or more complex, specialized, or other higher-risk activities, such as those for which limited information is reported in the FFIEC 051 version of the report of condition compared to the FFIEC 041 version of the report of condition. Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the Corporation's authority to obtain information from insured depository institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 304.15-304.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 304.15-304.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Computer-Security Incident Notification</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 66443, Nov. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 304.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.21   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1463, 1811, 1813, 1817, 1819, and 1861-1867.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart promotes the timely notification of computer-security incidents that may materially and adversely affect FDIC-supervised institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all insured state nonmember banks, insured state licensed branches of foreign banks, and insured State savings associations. This subpart also applies to bank service providers, as defined in § 304.22(b)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.22   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as modified in this subpart, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in this subpart have the same meanings as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Banking organization</I> means an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution, including all insured state nonmember banks, insured state-licensed branches of foreign banks, and insured State savings associations; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank service provider</I> means a bank service company or other person that performs covered services; provided, however, that no designated financial market utility shall be considered a bank service provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business line</I> means a product or service offered by a banking organization to serve its customers or support other business needs.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Computer-security incident</I> is an occurrence that results in actual harm to the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of an information system or the information that the system processes, stores, or transmits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Covered services</I> are services performed, by a person, that are subject to the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861-1867).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 5462(4).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification incident</I> is a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, a banking organization's—
</P>
<P>(i) Ability to carry out banking operations, activities, or processes, or deliver banking products and services to a material portion of its customer base, in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) Business line(s), including associated operations, services, functions, and support, that upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations, including associated services, functions and support, as applicable, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Person</I> has the same meaning as set forth at 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(8)(A).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.23" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.23   Notification.</HEAD>
<P>A banking organization must notify the appropriate FDIC supervisory office, or an FDIC-designated point of contact, about a notification incident through email, telephone, or other similar methods that the FDIC may prescribe. The FDIC must receive this notification from the banking organization as soon as possible and no later than 36 hours after the banking organization determines that a notification incident has occurred.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 304.24" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 304.24   Bank service provider notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank service provider is required to notify at least one bank-designated point of contact at each affected banking organization customer as soon as possible when the bank service provider determines that it has experienced a computer-security incident that has materially disrupted or degraded, or is reasonably likely to materially disrupt or degrade, covered services provided to such banking organization for four or more hours.
</P>
<P>(1) A bank-designated point of contact is an email address, phone number, or any other contact(s), previously provided to the bank service provider by the banking organization customer.
</P>
<P>(2) If the banking organization customer has not previously provided a bank-designated point of contact, such notification shall be made to the Chief Executive Officer and Chief Information Officer of the banking organization customer, or two individuals of comparable responsibilities, through any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(b) The notification requirement in paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any scheduled maintenance, testing, or software update previously communicated to a banking organization customer.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 304.25-304.29" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 304.25-304.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—XXX</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="14">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="15">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="16">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="305-306" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 305-306 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="307" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 307—CERTIFICATION OF ASSUMPTION OF DEPOSITS AND NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES OF INSURED STATUS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(6); 1818(q); and 1819(a) [Tenth].
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 8791, Feb. 21, 2006, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 307.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 307.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This Part applies to all insured depository institutions, as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This Part sets forth the rules governing:
</P>
<P>(1) The time and manner for providing certification to the FDIC regarding the assumption of all of the deposit liabilities of an insured depository institution by one or more insured depository institutions; and
</P>
<P>(2) The notification that an insured depository institution shall provide its depositors when a depository institution's insured status is being voluntarily terminated without its deposits being assumed by one or more insured depository institutions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 307.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 307.2   Certification of assumption of deposit liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When certification is required.</I> Whenever all of the deposit liabilities of an insured depository institution are assumed by one or more insured depository institutions by merger, consolidation, other statutory assumption, or by contract, the transferring insured depository institution, or its legal successor, shall provide an accurate written certification to the FDIC that its deposit liabilities have been assumed. No certification shall be required when deposit liabilities are assumed by an operating insured depository institution from an insured depository institution in default, as defined in section 3(x)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(x)(1)), and that has been placed under FDIC receivership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification requirements.</I> The certification required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be provided on official letterhead of the transferring insured depository institution or its legal successor, signed by a duly authorized official, and state the date the assumption took effect. The certification shall indicate the date on which the transferring institution's authority to engage in banking has terminated or will terminate as well as the method of termination (e.g., whether by the surrender of its charter, by the cancellation of its charter or license to conduct a banking business, or otherwise). The certification may follow the form contained in Appendix A of this part. In a merger or consolidation where there is only one surviving entity which is the legal successor to both the transferring and assuming institutions, the surviving entity shall provide any required certification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing.</I> The certification required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be provided within 30 calendar days after the assumption takes effect, and shall be submitted to the appropriate Regional Director of the FDIC's Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection, as defined in 12 CFR 303.2(g).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evidence of assumption.</I> The receipt by the FDIC of an accurate certification for a total assumption as required by paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section shall constitute satisfactory evidence of such deposit assumption, as required by section 8(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(q)), and the insured status of the transferring institution shall terminate on the date of the receipt of the certification. In appropriate circumstances, the FDIC, in its sole discretion, may require additional information, or may consider other evidence of a deposit assumption to constitute satisfactory evidence of such assumption for purposes of section 8(q).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Issuance of an order.</I> The Executive Secretary, upon request from the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection and with the concurrence of the General Counsel, or their respective designees, shall issue an order terminating the insured status of the transferring insured depository institution as of the date of receipt by the FDIC of satisfactory evidence of such assumption, pursuant to section 8(q) of the FDI Act and this regulation. Generally, no order shall be issued, under this paragraph, and insured status shall be cancelled by operation of law:
</P>
<P>(1) If the charter of the transferring institution has been cancelled, revoked, rescinded, or otherwise terminated by operation of applicable state or federal statutes or regulations, or by action of the chartering authority for the transferring institution essentially contemporaneously, that is, generally within five business days after all deposits have been assumed; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the transferring institution is an insured depository institution in default and for which the FDIC has been appointed receiver. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 307.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 307.3   Notice to depositors when insured status is voluntarily terminated and deposits are not assumed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice required.</I> An insured depository institution that has obtained authority from the FDIC to terminate its insured status under sections 8(a), 8(p) or 18(i)(3) of the FDI Act without its deposit liabilities being assumed by one or more insured depository institutions shall provide to each of its depositors, at the depositor's last known address of record on the books of the institution, prior written notification of the date the institution's insured status shall terminate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior approval of notice.</I> The insured depository institution shall provide the appropriate Regional Director of the FDIC's Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection, as defined in 12 CFR 303.2(g), a copy of the proposed notice for approval. After being approved, the notice shall be provided to depositors by the insured depository institution at the time and in the manner specified by the appropriate Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of notice.</I> The notice to depositors required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be provided on the official letterhead of the insured depository institution, shall bear the signature of a duly authorized officer, and, unless otherwise specified by the appropriate Regional Director, may follow the form of the notice contained in Appendix B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other requirements possible.</I> The FDIC may require the insured depository institution to take such other actions as the FDIC considers necessary and appropriate for the protection of depositors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6.0.1.4.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 307—Transferring Institution Letterhead 
</HEAD>
<FP>[Date]
</FP>
<FP>[Name and Address of appropriate FDIC Regional Director]
</FP>
<FP>SUBJECT: <I>Certification of Total Assumption of Deposits</I>
</FP>
<P>This certification is being provided pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(q) and 12 CFR 307.2. On [<I>state the date the deposit assumption took effect</I>], [<I>state the name of the depository institution assuming the deposit liabilities</I>] assumed all of the deposits of [<I>state the name and location of the transferring institution whose deposits were assumed</I>]. [If applicable, state the date and method by which the transferring institution's authority to engage in banking was or will be terminated.] Please contact the undersigned, at [<I>telephone number</I>], if additional information is needed. 
</P>
<FP>Sincerely,
</FP>
<FP>By:
</FP>
<FP>[Name and Title of Authorized Representative] 


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.6.0.1.4.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 307—Institution Letterhead
</HEAD>
<FP>[Date]
</FP>
<FP>[Name and Address of Depositor]
</FP>
<FP>SUBJECT: <I>Notice to Depositor of Voluntary Termination of Insured Status</I>
</FP>
<P>The insured status of [<I>name of insured depository institution</I>], under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will terminate as of the close of business on [<I>state the date</I>] (“termination date”). Insured deposits in the [<I>name of insured depository institution</I>] on the termination date, less all withdrawals from such deposits made subsequent to that date, will continue to be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, to the extent provided by law, until [<I>state the date</I>]. The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation will not insure any new deposits or additions to existing deposits made by you after the termination date.
</P>
<P>This Notice is being provided pursuant to 12 CFR 307.3.
</P>
<P>Please contact [<I>name of institution official in charge of depositor inquiries</I>], at [<I>name and address of insured depository institution</I>] if additional information is needed regarding this Notice or the insured status of your account(s).
</P>
<FP>Sincerely,
</FP>
<FP>By:
</FP>
<FP>[Name and Title of Authorized Representative]


</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="308" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 308—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504, 554-557; 12 U.S.C. 93(b), 164, 505, 1464, 1467(d), 1467a, 1468, 1815(e), 1817, 1818, 1819, 1820, 1828, 1829, 1829(b), 1831i, 1831m(g)(4), 1831<I>o,</I> 1831p-1, 1832(c), 1884(b), 1972, 3102, 3108(a), 3349, 3909, 4717, 5412(b)(2)(C), 5414(b)(3); 15 U.S.C. 78(h) and (i), 78<I>o</I>(c)(4), 78<I>o</I>-4(c), 78<I>o</I>-5, 78q-1, 78s, 78u, 78u-2, 78u-3, 78w, 6801(b), 6805(b)(1); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 330, 5321; 42 U.S.C. 4012a; Pub. L. 104-134, sec. 31001(s), 110 Stat. 1321; Pub. L. 109-351, 120 Stat. 1966; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376; Pub. L. 114-74, sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89935, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.0" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.0   Applicability date.</HEAD>
<P>These Uniform Rules set out in this subpart apply to adjudicatory proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024. Any adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024, continue to be governed by the previous version of the Uniform Rules included in appendix A of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes Uniform Rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any Government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a Government securities broker or dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 22(h) and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA), or any implementing regulation, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty under 12 U.S.C. 1828(j) or 12 U.S.C. 1468;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (BHCA Amendments of 1970), and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty under 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(3) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended (CBCA), or any implementing regulation or order issued, and certain unsafe or unsound practices, or breaches of fiduciary duty under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(4) Section 7(a)(1) of the FDIA under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (ILSA), or any rule, regulation or order issued under 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA), or any rule, regulation or order issued under 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(7) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act under section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(8) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued under;
</P>
<P>(9) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the FDIC, or the former Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS), the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided under 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(10) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued under; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued under;
</P>
<P>(12) Certain provisions of Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) or any regulation or order issued under 12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1), (5)-(8), (s), and (v);
</P>
<P>(13) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued under 12 U.S.C. 1467(d); and
</P>
<P>(14) Section 10 of HOLA under 12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(2)(D), (g), (i)(2)-(4) and (r);
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) to impose penalties for violations of the post-employment restrictions under section 10(k); and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules (see § 308.3(n)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.2   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative law judge (ALJ)</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative Officer</I> means an inferior officer of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), duly appointed by the Board of Directors of the FDIC to serve as the Board's designee to hear certain motions or requests in an adjudicatory proceeding and to be the official custodian of the record for the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assistant Administrative Officer</I> means an inferior officer of the FDIC, duly appointed by the Board of Directors of the FDIC to serve as the Board's designee to hear certain motions or requests in an adjudicatory proceeding upon the designation or unavailability of the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board of Directors</I> or <I>Board</I> means the Board of Directors of the FDIC or its designee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the FDIC's or ALJ's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Board of Directors, ALJ or the Administrative Officer, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designee</I> of the Board of Directors means officers or officials of the FDIC acting pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Electronic signature</I> means affixing the equivalent of a signature to an electronic document filed or transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the FDIC in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the FDIC with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Institution</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHCA (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) Any savings association as that term is defined in section 3(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof (other than a bank) as those terms are defined in section 10(a) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a));
</P>
<P>(4) Any organization operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(5) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any Federal agency as that term is defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(5)).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 3(u) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(u).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the FDIC in those subparts of this part other than this subpart.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (OFIA)</I> means the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board (Board of Governors), the FDIC, and the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Party</I> means the FDIC and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in this subpart A that pertain to the types of formal administrative enforcement actions set forth at § 308.1, and as specified in subparts B through P of this part.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Violation</I> means any violation as that term is defined in section 3(v) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(v)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.4   Authority of the Board of Directors.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.5   Authority of the administrative law judge (ALJ).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 5. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> protective orders, and other orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 308.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board of Directors has the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Board of Directors a recommended decision as provided in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse oneself by motion made by a party or on the ALJ's own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of an ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.6   Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the FDIC or an ALJ</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the FDIC if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on the individual's own behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> (i) Any individual acting on the individual's own behalf or as counsel on behalf of a party, including the FDIC, must file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party; and
</P>
<P>(B) A written acknowledgement that the individual has reviewed and will comply with the Uniform Rules and Local Rules in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that the counsel is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, the counsel will, if required by the ALJ, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that the party will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.7   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice must be signed by at least one counsel of record in the counsel's individual name and must state that counsel's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number. A party who acts as the party's own counsel must sign that person's individual name and state that person's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Electronic signatures may be used to satisfy the signature requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party will constitute a certification: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the ALJ will strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the counsel's or party's statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.8   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person may appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The ALJ may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 308.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.9   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the FDIC (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ALJ handling that proceeding, the Board of Directors, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the FDIC until the date that the Board of Directors issues a final decision pursuant to § 308.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person outside the FDIC must not make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to any member of the Board of Directors, the ALJ, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any member of the Board of Directors, ALJ, or decisional employee may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the FDIC any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an <I>ex parte</I> communication is received by the ALJ, any member of the Board of Directors, or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person will cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding may, within ten days of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication, file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The ALJ or the Board of Directors then determines whether any action should be taken concerning the <I>ex parte</I> communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or counsel to a party who makes a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board of Directors or the ALJ including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the ALJ may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of an employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision process.</I> An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the FDIC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 308.40, except as witness or counsel in administrative or judicial proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.10   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 308.25 and 308.26, must be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board of Directors or the ALJ, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board of Directors or the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers to a same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on an 8 1/2×11 inch page and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 308.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the FDIC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.11   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers must serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party must use one of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers by same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Board of Directors or the ALJ.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Board of Directors or the ALJ upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6 will be served by electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the Board of Directors or ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) If a respondent has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6, the Board of Directors or the ALJ will serve the respondent by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the respondent;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the respondent's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the person's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.12   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of transmission by electronic mail or other electronic means, upon transmittal by the serving party;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight delivery service or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of personal service or same day courier delivery, upon actual service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board of Directors or ALJ in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by electronic mail or other electronic means or by same day courier delivery, add one calendar day to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by overnight delivery service, add two calendar days to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.13   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the ALJ may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board of Directors pursuant to § 308.38, the Board of Directors may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Board of Directors' or the ALJ's own motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.14   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A witness, including an expert witness, who testifies at a deposition or hearing will be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and unless otherwise waived.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception for testimony by a party.</I> In the case of testimony by a party, no witness fees or mileage need to be paid. The FDIC will not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of payment.</I> Fees and mileage in accordance with this paragraph (c) must be paid in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the FDIC is the party requesting the subpoena.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.15   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. Any such offer or proposal may only be made to Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.16   FDIC's right to conduct examination.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the FDIC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the FDIC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.17" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.17   Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding will continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart will be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.18" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.18   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law. Enforcement Counsel may serve the notice upon counsel for the respondent, provided that Enforcement Counsel has confirmed that counsel represents the respondent in the matter and will accept service of the notice on behalf of the respondent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Enforcement Counsel must file the notice with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> Notice pleading applies. The notice must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the FDIC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Matters of fact or law showing that the FDIC is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing must be filed with OFIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.19" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.19   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent must file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent must also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the respondent lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief, or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order of the Board of Directors without further action by the ALJ.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.20   Amended pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board of Directors or ALJ orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the ALJ may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the ALJ that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The ALJ may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.21   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the ALJ will file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.22   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The ALJ may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the ALJ finds:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.23" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.23   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the ALJ. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the ALJ directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the ALJ, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the ALJ or the Administrative Officer, any party may file a written response to a motion. The ALJ will not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 308.29 and 308.30.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.24" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.24   Scope of document discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term <I>documents</I> includes writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, electronically stored information, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party, into a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of either interrogatories or requests for admission is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material; or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, or the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All document discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, must be completed by the date set by the ALJ and no later than 30 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit are permitted, unless the ALJ finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph (d).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.25" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.25   Request for document discovery from parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Document requests.</I> (1) Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect or copy any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. In the case of a request for inspection, the responding party may produce copies of documents or of electronically stored information instead of permitting inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) The request:
</P>
<P>(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected or produced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection or production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the ALJ or agreed upon by the parties, the producing party must produce copies of documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or organized to correspond to the categories of the request, and electronically stored information must be produced in a form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> The producing party must pay its own costs to respond to a discovery request, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within 20 days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to must be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 308.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, or any other privileges of the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law, or are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The ALJ retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the document request may file a written response to a motion to compel within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the ALJ will rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, the ALJ may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the ALJ may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the ALJ its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the ALJ's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the ALJ issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena will not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.26" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.26   Document subpoenas to nonparties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 308.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena with the ALJ. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 308.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the ALJ has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena will in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.27" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.27   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the ALJ for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The ALJ may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the ALJ requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the ALJ orders otherwise, no deposition under this section may be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the ALJ to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party must have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the ALJ for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition must certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section, or fails to comply with any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena with which the subpoenaed party has not complied. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.28" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.28   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Board of Directors may review a ruling of the ALJ prior to the certification of the record to the Board of Directors only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 308.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Board of Directors may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the ALJ if the Board of Directors finds:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review must be filed by a party with the ALJ within ten days of the ruling and must otherwise comply with § 308.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 308.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the ALJ will refer the matter to the Board of Directors for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board of Directors under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ or the Board of Directors.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.29" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.29   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The ALJ will recommend that the Board of Directors issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that the party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the ALJ, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends supports the moving party's position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the opposing party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the written request of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the ALJ will determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the ALJ determines that summary disposition is warranted, the ALJ will submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board of Directors. If the ALJ finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, the ALJ will make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.30   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If the ALJ determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, the ALJ will defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the ALJ has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.31" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.31   Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding, the ALJ will direct counsel for all parties to meet with the ALJ at a specified time and manner prior to the hearing for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting is called a “scheduling conference.” The schedule for the identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The ALJ may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to confer with the ALJ at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The ALJ may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at the party's expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the ALJ will serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.32" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.32   Prehearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Party prehearing submissions.</I> Within the time set by the ALJ, but in no case later than 20 days before the start of the hearing, each party must file with the ALJ and serve on every other party:
</P>
<P>(1) A prehearing statement that states:
</P>
<P>(i) The party's position with respect to the legal issues presented;
</P>
<P>(ii) The statutory and case law upon which the party relies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The facts that the party expects to prove at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness, which need not identify the exhibits to be relied upon by each witness at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the exhibits expected to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.33" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.33   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings must be open to the public, unless the FDIC, in its discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Administrative Officer a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the ALJ a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Administrative Officer. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 308.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in Enforcement Counsel's discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The ALJ will take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.34" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.34   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the ALJ may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application must serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the ALJ, the party making the application must serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 308.26(c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.35" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.35   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) <I>Conduct of hearings.</I> Hearings must be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel will present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel will be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the ALJ will fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the ALJ may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the ALJ directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The ALJ may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the ALJ's own motion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the ALJ may direct the use of, or any party may use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the ALJ requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs, unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.36" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.36   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable, and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the ALJ or the Board of Directors must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, must be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection, or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a State regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the ALJ's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what the examining counsel expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct questioning of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the ALJ may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.37" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.37   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the ALJ will serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the ALJ proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the ALJ or within such longer period as may be ordered by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the ALJ any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The ALJ will not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.38" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.38   Recommended decision and filing of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 308.37(b), the ALJ will file with and certify to the Administrative Officer, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the ALJ's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The ALJ will serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the ALJ files with and certifies to the Administrative Officer for final determination the record of the proceeding, the ALJ will furnish to the Administrative Officer a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index must include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document, or motion filed with the ALJ in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index must also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.39" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.39   Exceptions to recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 308.38, a party may file with the Administrative Officer written exceptions to the ALJ's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the ALJ to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Board of Directors if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the ALJ and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the ALJ's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the ALJ's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.40   Review by the Board of Directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Board of Directors.</I> When the Administrative Officer determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Administrative Officer will serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board of Directors for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Board of Directors.</I> Upon the initiative of the Board of Directors or on the written request of any party filed with the Administrative Officer within the time for filing exceptions, the Board of Directors may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the ALJ. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board of Directors' final decision. Oral argument before the Board of Directors must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board of Directors' final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board of Directors in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board of Directors will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board of Directors may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board of Directors will render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board of Directors orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the ALJ for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board of Directors will be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board of Directors or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.41" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.1.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.41   Stays pending judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the FDIC may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board of Directors or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the FDIC. The Board of Directors may, in its discretion, and on such terms as the Board of Directors finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Rules of Procedure</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89935, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.100   Applicability date.</HEAD>
<P>These Local Rules in this subpart B apply to adjudicatory proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024. Any adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024, continue to be governed by the previous version of the Local Rules included in appendix A to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.101   Scope of Local Rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart B and subpart C of this part prescribe rules of practice and procedure to be followed in the administrative enforcement proceedings initiated by the FDIC as set forth in § 308.1.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise specifically provided, the Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules will not apply to subparts D through T of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart C of this part will apply to any administrative proceeding initiated by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) Subparts A through C of this part prescribe the rules of practice and procedure to applicable to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings on the record are provided for by the assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate regulatory agency for any violation of 15 U.S.C. 78o(c)(4).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.102" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.102   Authority of Board of Directors and Administrative Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Board of Directors.</I> (1) The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to limit the power of the Board of Directors granted by applicable statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Administrative Officer.</I> (1) When no ALJ has jurisdiction over a proceeding, the Administrative Officer may act in place of, and with the same authority as, an ALJ, except that the Administrative Officer may not hear a case on the merits or make a recommended decision on the merits to the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors, the Administrative Officer and Assistant Administrative Officer, upon the advice and recommendation of the Deputy General Counsel for Litigation or, in the Deputy General Counsel's absence, the Assistant General Counsel for General Litigation, may issue rulings in proceedings under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j), 1818 1828(j), 1829, 1831i, and 1831<I>o</I> concerning:
</P>
<P>(i) Denials of requests for private hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interlocutory appeals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Stays pending judicial review;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reopenings of the record and/or remands of the record to the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(v) Supplementation of the evidence in the record;
</P>
<P>(vi) All remands from the courts of appeals not involving substantive issues;
</P>
<P>(vii) Extensions of stays of orders terminating deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(viii) All matters, including final decisions, in proceedings under 12 U.S.C. 1818(g).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.103" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.103   Assignment of Administrative Law Judge (ALJ).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assignment.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the Board of Directors or as otherwise provided in the Local Rules, a hearing within the scope of this part must be held before an ALJ of the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (OFIA).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> Upon receiving a copy of the notice under § 308.18(a) from Enforcement Counsel, OFIA must assign an ALJ to the matter and advise the parties, in writing, of the ALJ assignment.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.104" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.104   Filings with the Board of Directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All materials required to be filed with or referred to the Board of Directors in any proceedings under this part must be filed with the Administrative Officer in a manner specified in § 308.10(b). The Administrative Officer's address is: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: Administrative Officer, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429. Electronic copies of all pleadings must be sent to <I>ESSEnforcementActionDocket@fdic.gov</I> with the docket number clearly identified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Filings to be made with the Administrative Officer include pleadings and motions filed during the proceeding; the record filed by the ALJ after the issuance of a recommended decision; the recommended decision filed by the ALJ following a motion for summary disposition; referrals by the ALJ of motions for interlocutory review; motions and responses to motions filed by the parties after the record has been certified to the Board of Directors; exceptions and requests for oral argument; and any other papers required to be filed with the Board of Directors under this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.105" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.105   Custodian of the record.</HEAD>
<P>The Administrative Officer is the official custodian of the record when no ALJ has jurisdiction over the proceeding. The Administrative Officer will maintain the official record of all papers filed in each proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.106" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.106   Written testimony in lieu of oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) At any time more than 15 days before the hearing is to commence, on the motion of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may order that the parties present part or all of their case-in-chief and, if ordered, their rebuttal, in the form of exhibits and written statements sworn to by the witness offering such statements as evidence, provided that if any party objects, the ALJ will not require such a format if that format would violate the objecting party's right under the Administrative Procedure Act, or other applicable law, or would otherwise unfairly prejudice that party.
</P>
<P>(2) Any such order will provide that each party must, upon request, have the same right of oral cross-examination (or redirect examination) as would exist had the witness testified orally rather than through a written statement. Such order must also provide that any party has a right to call any hostile witness or adverse party to testify orally.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scheduling of submission of written testimony.</I> (1) If written direct testimony and exhibits are ordered under paragraph (a) of this section, the ALJ will require that it be filed within the time period for commencement of the hearing, and the hearing will be deemed to have commenced on the day such testimony is due.
</P>
<P>(2) Absent good cause shown, written rebuttal, if any, must be submitted and the oral portion of the hearing begun within 30 days of the date set for filing written direct testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will direct, unless good cause requires otherwise, that—
</P>
<P>(i) All parties must simultaneously file any exhibits and written direct testimony required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All parties must simultaneously file any exhibits and written rebuttal required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to comply with order to file written testimony.</I> (1) The failure of any party to comply with an order to file written testimony or exhibits at the time and in the matter required under this section will be deemed a waiver of that party's right to present any evidence, except testimony of a previously identified adverse party or hostile witness. Failure to file written testimony or exhibits is, however, not a waiver of that party's right of cross-examination or a waiver of the right to present rebuttal evidence that was not required to be submitted in written form.
</P>
<P>(2) Late filings of papers under this section may be allowed and accepted only upon good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.107" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.107   Supplemental discovery rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of discovery.</I> Subject to the limitations set out in § 308.24, a party may obtain discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action, and is proportional to the needs of the action, considering the importance of the issues at stake in the action, the parties' resources, the importance of the discovery in resolving the issues, and whether the burden or expense of the proposed discovery outweighs its likely benefit. Parties may obtain discovery only through the production of documents and depositions, as set forth in the Uniform Rules and the Local Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint Discovery Plan.</I> Within the time period set by the ALJ and prior to serving any discovery requests, the parties must meet and confer to consider the discovery needed to support their claims and defenses and discuss any issues about preserving discoverable information.
</P>
<P>(1) At the meet and confer, the parties must use reasonable efforts to develop a Joint Discovery Plan that should contain the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) The subjects on which discovery may be needed, when discovery should be completed, and whether discovery should be conducted in phases or be limited to, or focused on, particular issues;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any issues about disclosure, discovery, or preservation of electronically stored information (ESI), including the form or forms in which it should be produced;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions regarding any anticipated discovery of nonparties;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether depositions are anticipated and the appropriate limits on the taking of such depositions, consistent with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, including the maximum number of depositions to be allowed;
</P>
<P>(v) The anticipated timing of the production of any document identifying and describing privileged documents that a party intends to redact or withhold from production; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provisions regarding any inadvertent disclosure of privileged information.
</P>
<P>(2) The Joint Discovery Plan must comply with the provisions of this section and § 308.24.
</P>
<P>(3) The parties must submit their proposed Joint Discovery Plan to the ALJ for review, modification, and/or approval. In the event the parties cannot agree to some or all of the provisions, the parties must file their respective proposals with the ALJ for resolution. After review, the ALJ must issue an approved Joint Discovery Plan, which must include any modifications made by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Document and electronically stored information (ESI) discovery</I>—(1) <I>Scope of document discovery.</I> Parties to proceedings set forth at § 308.1 and as provided in the Local Rules may obtain discovery through the production of documents and ESI.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Depositions to determine completeness of document production.</I> Any counsel is permitted to depose a person producing documents or ESI pursuant to a document subpoena on the strictly limited topics of the identification of documents and ESI produced by that person, and a reasonable examination to determine whether the subpoenaed person made an adequate search for, and has produced, all subpoenaed documents and ESI.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Specific limitations on ESI discovery.</I> A party need not provide discovery of ESI from sources that the party identifies as not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. On motion to compel discovery or for a protective order, the party from whom discovery is sought must show that the information is not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost. If that showing is made, the ALJ may nonetheless order discovery from such sources if the requesting party shows good cause. The ALJ may specify conditions for the discovery.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request for production.</I> Consistent with the Joint Discovery Plan, a party may serve on any other party a request to produce documents, and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect, copy, test, or sample documents in the responding party's possession, custody, or control.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Privilege.</I> Consistent with § 308.25(e) and the Joint Discovery Plan, and prior to the close of the discovery period set by the ALJ, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld or redacted on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Document subpoenas to nonparties.</I> (i) The provisions of § 308.26 apply to document subpoenas to nonparties. Any requests for nonparty subpoenas must comply with § 308.24(b) and the Joint Discovery Plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that it does not otherwise comply with § 308.24(b) or the Joint Discovery Plan, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules and the Local Rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expert witness disclosures.</I> (1) <I>Required elements.</I> When expert witness disclosures are required, the disclosures must include: name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each expert witness:
</P>
<P>(i) If the expert is one retained or specially employed to provide expert testimony in the matter, or one whose duties as the party's employee regularly involve giving expert testimony, the witness must provide a written report in compliance with paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the expert is an employee of a party who does not regularly provide expert testimony, including a commissioned bank examiner employed by the FDIC, the witness must provide written disclosures in compliance with paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of expert testimony</I>—(i) <I>Witnesses</I> who <I>must provide written report.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the ALJ, experts described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section must prepare a signed expert report that contains:
</P>
<P>(A) A complete statement of all opinions the witness will express and the basis and reasons for them;
</P>
<P>(B) The facts or data considered by the witness in forming the opinions;
</P>
<P>(C) Any exhibits that will be used to summarize or support the opinions;
</P>
<P>(D) The witness' qualifications, including a list of all publications authored in the previous 10 years;
</P>
<P>(E) A list of all other cases in which, during the previous 4 years, the witness testified as an expert at trial or by deposition; and
</P>
<P>(F) A statement of the compensation to be paid for the study and testimony in the case.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Witnesses who provide written disclosures instead of a written report.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated or ordered by the ALJ, expert witnesses described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section are not required to provide a written report, but must provide written disclosures that state:
</P>
<P>(A) The subject matter on which the witness is expected to present evidence; and
</P>
<P>(B) A summary of the facts and opinions to which the witness is expected to testify.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depositions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In addition to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, and subject to the provisions of § 308.24 and paragraph (a) of this section, a party may take depositions of individuals with direct knowledge of facts relevant to the proceeding and individuals designated as an expert under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, where the evidence sought cannot be obtained from some other source that is more convenient, less burdensome, or less expensive. Absent exceptional circumstances, depositions will only be permitted of individuals expected to testify at the hearing, including experts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limits on depositions.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated by the parties, depositions are only permitted to the extent ordered by the ALJ upon a showing of good cause.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Privileged matters.</I> Privileged matters are not discoverable by deposition. Privileges include those set forth in § 308.24(c).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Report.</I> A party must produce any disclosure required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section before the deposition of the witness required to provide such disclosure. Unless otherwise provided by the ALJ, the party must produce this report at least 20 days prior to any deposition of the witness.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> A party desiring to take a deposition must give reasonable notice in writing to the deponent and to every other party to the proceeding. The notice must state the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition, and the name and address of the person to be deposed.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Location.</I> A deposition notice may require the witness to be deposed at any place within a State, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, or such other convenient place as agreed by the parties and the witness.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Remote participation.</I> The parties may stipulate, or the ALJ may order, that a deposition be taken by telephone or other remote means.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Deposition subpoenas.</I> A deponent's attendance may be compelled by subpoena.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Issuance.</I> At the request of a party, the ALJ will issue a subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness at a deposition under this paragraph (e) unless the ALJ determines that the requested subpoena is outside the scope of paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Service.</I> The party requesting the subpoena must serve it on the person named therein, or on that person's counsel, by any of the methods identified in § 308.11(d). The party serving the subpoena must file proof of service with the ALJ, unless the ALJ issues an order indicating the filing of proof of service is not required.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Objection to deposition subpoena.</I> A motion to modify or quash a deposition subpoena must be in accordance with the procedures of § 308.27(b).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Enforcement of deposition subpoena.</I> Enforcement of a deposition subpoena must be in accordance with the procedures of § 308.27(c)(2) and (d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time for taking depositions.</I> A party may take depositions at any time after the issuance of the approved Joint Discovery Plan, but no later than 20 days before the scheduled hearing date, except with permission of the ALJ for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Conduct of the deposition.</I> The witness must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Unless the parties otherwise agree, all objections to questions or exhibits must be in short form and must state the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or exhibits is not a waiver except when the grounds for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Duration.</I> Unless otherwise stipulated by the parties or ordered by the ALJ, a deposition is limited to 1 day of 7 hours. The ALJ may, when it is consistent with § 308.24 and paragraph (a) of this section, order additional time if it is necessary to fairly examine the witness, including when any person or circumstance has impeded the examination.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Recording the testimony</I>—(i) <I>Generally.</I> The party taking the deposition must have a certified court reporter record the witness' testimony:
</P>
<P>(A) By stenotype machine or electronic means, such as by sound or video recording device;
</P>
<P>(B) Upon agreement of the parties, by any other method; or
</P>
<P>(C) For good cause and with leave of the ALJ, by any other method.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cost.</I> The party taking the deposition must bear the cost of recording and transcribing the witness' testimony.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transcript.</I> The court reporter must provide a transcript of the witness' testimony to the party taking the deposition and must make a copy of the transcript available to each party upon payment by that party of the cost of the copy. The transcript must be subscribed or certified in accordance with § 308.27(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discovery motions</I>—(1) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> In addition to § 308.25(d), upon a motion by a party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ must limit the frequency or extent of discovery otherwise allowed by this subpart if the ALJ determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The discovery sought is unreasonably cumulative or duplicative or can be obtained from some other source that is more convenient, less burdensome, or less expensive;
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves privileged, irrelevant, or immaterial matters;
</P>
<P>(iii) The party seeking discovery has already had ample opportunity to obtain the information by discovery in the action; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The proposed discovery is outside the scope of this section or § 308.24.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Motions to terminate depositions.</I> At any time during a deposition, the deponent or a party may move to terminate or limit it on the ground that it is being conducted in bad faith or in a manner that unreasonably annoys, embarrasses, or oppresses the deponent or party. Upon such a motion, the ALJ may order that the deposition be terminated or may limit its scope and manner. If terminated, the deposition may be resumed only by order of the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Motions to compel discovery.</I> The provisions of § 308.25(f) apply to any motion to compel discovery.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules of Practice Before the FDIC and Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.108" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.108   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Appropriate sanctions may be imposed when any counsel or party has acted, or failed to act, in a manner required by applicable statute, regulations, or order, and that act or failure to act: 
</P>
<P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct; 
</P>
<P>(2) Has in a material way injured or prejudiced some other party in terms of substantive injury, incurring additional expenses including attorney's fees, prejudicial delay, or otherwise; 
</P>
<P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Has unduly delayed the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Sanctions which may be imposed include any one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing an order against the party; 
</P>
<P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party; 
</P>
<P>(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings; 
</P>
<P>(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party; 
</P>
<P>(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that are just; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limits on dismissal as a sanction.</I> No recommendation of dismissal shall be made by the administrative law judge or granted by the Board of Directors based on the failure to hold a hearing within the time period called for in this part 308, or on the failure of an administrative law judge to render a recommended decision within the time period called for in this part 308, absent a finding: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the delay resulted solely or principally from the conduct of the FDIC enforcement counsel; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the conduct of the FDIC enforcement counsel is unexcused; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the moving respondent took all reasonable steps to oppose and prevent the subject delay; 
</P>
<P>(4) That the moving respondent has been materially prejudiced or injured; and 
</P>
<P>(5) That no lesser or different sanction is adequate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</I> (1) The administrative law judge, upon the request of any party, or on his or her own motion, may impose sanctions in accordance with this section, provided that the administrative law judge may only recommend to the Board of Directors the sanction of entering a final order determining the case on the merits. 
</P>
<P>(2) No sanction, other than refusing to accept late papers, authorized by this section shall be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any counsel or party against whom sanctions would be imposed to be heard. Such opportunity to be heard may be on such notice, and the response may be in such form, as the administrative law judge directs. The opportunity to be heard may be limited to an opportunity to respond orally immediately after the act or inaction covered by this section is noted by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) Requests for the imposition of sanctions by any party, and the imposition of sanctions, shall be treated for interlocutory review purposes in the same manner as any other ruling by the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Section not exclusive.</I> Nothing in this section shall be read as precluding the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors from taking any other action, or imposing any restriction or sanction, authorized by applicable statute or regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.109" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.109   Suspension and disbarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary suspension and disbarment.</I> (1) The Board of Directors may suspend or revoke the privilege of any counsel to appear or practice before the FDIC if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, that counsel is found by the Board of Directors: 
</P>
<P>(i) Not to possess the requisite qualifications to represent others; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To be seriously lacking in character or integrity or to have engaged in material unethical or improper professional conduct; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To have engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing violation of the FDIA; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) To have engaged in contemptuous conduct before the FDIC. Suspension or revocation on the grounds set forth in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii), (iii), and (iv) of this section shall only be ordered upon a further finding that the counsel's conduct or character was sufficiently egregious as to justify suspension or revocation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless otherwise ordered by the Board of Directors, an application for reinstatement by a person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be made in writing at any time more than three years after the effective date of the suspension or disbarment and, thereafter, at any time more than one year after the person's most recent application for reinstatement. The suspension or disbarment shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Board of Directors for good cause shown or until, in the case of a suspension, the suspension period has expired. An applicant for reinstatement under this provision may, in the Board of Directors' sole discretion, be afforded a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory suspension and disbarment.</I> (1) Any counsel who has been and remains suspended or disbarred by a court of the United States or of any state, territory, district, commonwealth, or possession; or any person who has been and remains suspended or barred from practice before the OCC, Board of Governors, the OTS, the NCUA, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or any person who has been, within the last ten years, convicted of a felony, or of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, shall be suspended automatically from appearing or practicing before the FDIC. A disbarment, suspension, or conviction within the meaning of this paragraph (b) shall be deemed to have occurred when the disbarring, suspending, or convicting agency or tribunal enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken, and includes a judgment or an order on a plea of nolo contendere or on consent, regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person appearing or practicing before the FDIC who is the subject of an order, judgment, decree, or finding of the types set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall promptly file with the Administrative Officer a copy thereof, together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved. Any person who fails to so file a copy of the order, judgment, decree, or finding within 30 days after the entry of the order, judgment, decree, or finding or the date such person initiates practice before the FDIC, for that reason alone may be disqualified from practicing before the FDIC until such time as the appropriate filing shall be made. Failure to file any such paper shall not impair the operation of any other provision of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section from practice before the FDIC shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Board of Directors for good cause shown, provided that any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be automatically reinstated by the Administrative Officer, upon appropriate application, if all the grounds for suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section are subsequently removed by a reversal of the conviction (or the passage of time since the conviction) or termination of the underlying suspension or disbarment. An application for reinstatement on any other grounds by any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be filed no sooner than one year after the suspension or disbarment, and thereafter, a new request for reinstatement may be made no sooner than one year after the counsel's most recent reinstatement application. The application must comply with the requirements of § 303.3 of this chapter. An applicant for reinstatement under this provision may, in the Board of Directors' sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearings under this section.</I> Hearings conducted under this section shall be conducted in substantially the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules, provided that in proceedings to terminate an existing FDIC suspension or disbarment order, the person seeking the termination of the order shall bear the burden of going forward with an application and with the burden of proving the grounds supporting the application, and that the Board of Directors may, in its sole discretion, direct that any proceeding to terminate an existing suspension or disbarment by the FDIC be limited to written submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Summary suspension for contemptuous conduct.</I> A finding by the administrative law judge of contemptuous conduct during the course of any proceeding shall be grounds for summary suspension by the administrative law judge of a counsel or other representative from any further participation in that proceeding for the duration of that proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Practice defined.</I> Unless the Board of Directors orders otherwise, for the purposes of this section, practicing before the FDIC includes, but is not limited to, transacting any business with the FDIC as counsel or agent for any other person and the preparation of any statement, opinion, or other paper by a counsel, which statement, opinion, or paper is filed with the FDIC in any registration statement, notification, application, report, or other document, with the consent of such counsel. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999; 68 FR 48270, Aug. 13, 2003; 80 FR 5012, Jan. 30, 2015; 86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Disapproval of Acquisition of Control</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.110" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.110   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except as specifically indicated in this subpart, the rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules, and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the disapproval by the Board of Directors or its designee of a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.111" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.111   Grounds for disapproval.</HEAD>
<P>The following are grounds for disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank: 
</P>
<P>(a) The proposed acquisition of control would result in a monopoly or would be in furtherance of any combination or conspiracy to monopolize or attempt to monopolize the banking business in any part of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(b) The effect of the proposed acquisition of control in any section of the United States may be to substantially lessen competition or to tend to create a monopoly or would in any other manner be in restraint of trade, and the anticompetitive effects of the proposed acquisition of control are not clearly outweighed in the public interest by the probable effect of the transaction in meeting the convenience and needs of the community to be served; 
</P>
<P>(c) Either the financial condition of any acquiring person or the future prospects of the institution might jeopardize the financial stability of the bank or prejudice the interest of the depositors of the bank.
</P>
<P>(d) The competence, experience, or integrity of any acquiring person or of any of the proposed management personnel indicates that it would not be in the interest of the depositors of the bank, or in the interest of the public, to permit such person to control the bank; 
</P>
<P>(e) Any acquiring person neglects, fails, or refuses to furnish to the FDIC all the information required by the FDIC; or 
</P>
<P>(f) The FDIC determines that the proposed acquisition would result in an adverse effect on the Deposit Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006; 73 FR 2145, Jan. 14, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.112" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.112   Notice of disapproval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) Within three days of the decision by the Board of Directors or its designee to disapprove a proposed acquisition of control of an insured nonmember bank, a written notice of disapproval shall be mailed by first class mail to, or otherwise served upon, the party seeking acquire control. 
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of disapproval shall: 
</P>
<P>(i) Contain a statement of the basis for the disapproval; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate that a hearing may be requested by filing a written request with the Administrative Officer within ten days after service of the notice of disapproval; and if a hearing is requested, that an answer to the notice of disapproval, as required by § 308.113, must be filed within 20 days after service of the notice of disapproval. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver of hearing.</I> Failure to request a hearing pursuant to this section shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing and the notice of disapproval shall constitute a final and unappealable order. 
</P>
<P>(c) Section 308.18(b) of the Uniform Rules shall not apply to the content of the Notice of Disapproval. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.113" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.113   Answer to notice of disapproval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> (1) An answer to the notice of disapproval of a proposed acquisition of control shall be filed within 20 days after service of the notice of disapproval and shall specifically deny those portions of the notice of disapproval which are disputed. Those portions of the notice of disapproval which are not specifically denied are deemed admitted by the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any hearing under this subpart shall be limited to those parts of the notice of disapproval that are specifically denied. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice of disapproval. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file a recommended decision containing the findings and relief sought in the notice. A final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.114" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.114   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate burden of proof shall be upon the person proposing to acquire a depository institution. The burden of going forward with a <I>prima facie</I> case shall be upon the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment of Civil Penalties for Willful Violations of the Change in Bank Control Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.115" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.115   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to assess civil penalties against any person for willful violation of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)), or any regulation or order issued pursuant thereto, in connection with the affairs of an insured nonmember bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.116" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.116   Assessment of penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The civil money penalty shall be assessed upon the service of a Notice of Assessment which shall become final and unappealable unless the respondent requests a hearing pursuant to § 308.19(c)(2). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum penalty amounts.</I> Under 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16), a civil money penalty may be assessed for violations of change in control of insured depository institution provisions in the maximum amounts calculated and published in accordance with § 308.132(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mitigating factors.</I> In assessing the amount of the penalty, the Board of Directors or its designee shall consider the gravity of the violation, the history of previous violations, respondent's financial resources, good faith, and any other matters as justice may require. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice of disapproval. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file a recommended decision containing the findings and relief sought in the notice. A final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 57990, Nov. 12, 1996; 65 FR 64887, Oct. 31, 2000; 69 FR 61305, Oct. 18, 2004; 73 FR 73157, Dec. 2, 2008; 77 FR 74577, Dec. 17, 2012; 81 FR 42239, June 29, 2016; 81 FR 95416, Dec. 28, 2016; 83 FR 1522, Jan. 12, 2018; 83 FR 61114, Nov. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.117" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.117   Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</HEAD>
<P>If the respondent both requests a hearing and serves an answer, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after an order to pay, issued after the hearing or upon default, is served upon the respondent, unless the order provides for a different period of payment. Civil penalties assessed pursuant to an order to pay issued upon consent are due and payable within the time specified therein. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.118" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.118   Collection of penalties.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may collect any civil penalty assessed pursuant to this subpart by agreement with the respondent, or the FDIC may bring an action against the respondent to recover the penalty amount in the appropriate United States district court. All penalties collected under this section shall be paid over to the Treasury of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for Involuntary Termination of Insured Status</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.119" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.119   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA.</I> The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the involuntary termination of the insured status of an insured bank depository institution or an insured branch of a foreign bank pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)), except that the Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to the temporary suspension of insurance pursuant to section 8(a)(8) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(p) of the Act.</I> The rules and procedures in § 308.124 of this subpart F shall apply to proceedings in connection with the involuntary termination of the insured status of an insured depository institution or an insured branch of a foreign bank pursuant to section 8(p) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)). The Uniform Rules shall not apply to proceedings under section 8(p) of the FDIA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.120" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.120   Grounds for termination of insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The following are grounds for involuntary termination of insurance pursuant to section 8(a) of the FDIA: 
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have engaged or are engaging in unsafe or unsound practices in conducting the business of such depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution is in an unsafe or unsound condition such that it should not continue operations as an insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An insured depository institution or its directors or trustees have violated an applicable law, rule, regulation, order, condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the insured depository institution or have violated any written agreement entered into between the insured depository institution and the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extraterritorial acts of foreign banks.</I> An act or practice committed outside the United States by a foreign bank or its directors or trustees which would otherwise be a ground for termination of insured status under this section shall be a ground for termination if the Board of Directors finds: 
</P>
<P>(1) The act or practice has been, is, or is likely to be a cause of, or carried on in connection with or in furtherance of, an act or practice committed within any state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia that, in and of itself, would be an appropriate basis for action by the FDIC; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The act or practice committed outside the United States, if proven, would adversely affect the insurance risk of the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure of foreign bank to secure removal of personnel.</I> The failure of a foreign bank to comply with any order of removal or prohibition issued by the Board of Directors or the failure of any person associated with a foreign bank to appear promptly as a party to a proceeding pursuant to section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e)), shall be a ground for termination of insurance of deposits in any branch of the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.121" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.121   Notification to primary regulator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notification.</I> (1) Upon a determination by the Board of Directors or its designee pursuant to § 308.120 of an unsafe or unsound practice or condition or of a violation, a notification shall be served upon the appropriate Federal banking agency of the insured depository institution, or the State banking supervisor if the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. 
</P>
<FP>The notification shall be served not less than 30 days before the Notice of Intent to Terminate Insured Status required by section 8(a)(2)(B) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)(B)), and § 308.122, except that this period for notification may be reduced or eliminated with the agreement of the appropriate Federal banking agency. 
</FP>
<P>(2) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> shall have the meaning given that term in section 3(q) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), and shall be the OCC in the case of a national bank, a District bank or an insured Federal branch of a foreign bank; the FDIC in the case of an insured nonmember bank, including an insured State branch of a foreign bank; the Board of Governors in the case of a state member bank; or the OTS in the case of an insured Federal or state savings association. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a state nonmember bank, insured Federal branch of a foreign bank, or state member bank, in addition to service of the notification upon the appropriate Federal banking agency, a copy of the notification shall be sent to the appropriate State banking supervisor. 
</P>
<P>(4) In instances in which a Temporary Order Suspending Insurance is issued pursuant to section 8(a)(8) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)), the notification may be served concurrently with such order. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notification.</I> The notification shall contain the FDIC's determination, and the facts and circumstances upon which such determination is based, for the purpose of securing correction of such practice, condition, or violation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.122" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.122   Notice of intent to terminate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after serving the notification under § 308.121, the Board of Directors determines that any unsafe or unsound practices, condition, or violation, specified in the notification, requires the termination of the insured status of the insured depository institution, the Board of Directors or its designee, if it determines to proceed further, shall cause to be served upon the insured depository institution a notice of its intention to terminate insured status not less than 30 days after service of the notification, unless a shorter time period has been agreed upon by the appropriate Federal banking agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Board of Directors or its designee shall cause a copy of the notice to be sent to the appropriate Federal banking agency and to the appropriate state banking supervisor, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.123" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.123   Notice to depositors.</HEAD>
<P>If the Board of Directors enters an order terminating the insured status of an insured depository institution or branch, the insured depository institution shall, on the day that order becomes final, or on such other day as that order prescribes, mail a notification of termination of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the insured depository institution or branch. The insured depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Notice
</HD3>
<P>(Date)__________. 
</P>
<P>1. The status of the __________, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will terminate as of the close of business on the ________ day of____________, 19____. 
</P>
<P>2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing deposits, will not be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>3. Insured deposits in the (depository institution) (branch) on the ________ day of____________, 19____, will continue to be insured, as provided by Federal Deposit Insurance Act, for <I>2 years</I> after the close of business on the ________ day of ____________, 19____. Provided, however, that any withdrawals after the close of business on the ________ day of ____________, 19____, will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of (depository institution or branch) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Address) 
</FP>
<FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification.</FP></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.124" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.124   Involuntary termination of insured status for failure to receive deposits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to show cause.</I> When the Board of Directors or its designee has evidence that an insured depository institution is not engaged in the business of receiving deposits, other than trust funds, the Board of Directors or its designee shall give written notice of this evidence to the depository institution and shall direct the depository institution to show cause why its insured status should not be terminated under the provisions of section 8(p) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(p)). The insured depository institution shall have 30 days after receipt of the notice, or such longer period as is prescribed in the notice, to submit affidavits, other written proof, and any legal arguments that it is engaged in the business of receiving deposits other than trust funds. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of termination date.</I> If, upon consideration of the affidavits, other written proof, and legal arguments, the Board of Directors determines that the depository institution is not engaged in the business of receiving deposits, other than trust funds, the finding shall be conclusive and the Board of Directors shall notify the depository institution that its insured status will terminate at the expiration of the first full semiannual assessment period following issuance of that notification. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to depositors of termination of insured status.</I> Within the time specified by the Board of Directors and prior to the date of termination of its insured status, the depository institution shall mail a notification of termination of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the depository institution. The depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Notice
</HD3>
<P>(Date)__________. 
</P>
<P>The status of the __________, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will terminate on the ________ day of____________, 19____, and its deposits will thereupon cease to be insured. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of depository institution or branch) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Address)</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.125" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.125   Temporary suspension of deposit insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, while an action is pending under section 8(a)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)), the Board of Directors, after consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency, finds that an insured depository institution (other than a special supervisory association to which § 308.126 of this subpart applies) has no tangible capital under the capital guidelines or regulations of the appropriate Federal banking agency, the Board of Directors may issue a Temporary Order Suspending Deposit Insurance, pending completion of the proceedings under section 8(a)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(2)). 
</P>
<P>(b) The temporary order shall be served upon the insured institution and a copy sent to the appropriate Federal banking agency and to the appropriate State banking supervisor. 
</P>
<P>(c) The temporary order shall become effective ten days from the date of service upon the insured depository institution. Unless set aside, limited, or suspended in proceedings under section 8(a)(8)(D) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818 (a)(8)(D)), the temporary order shall remain effective and enforceable until an order terminating the insured status of the institution is entered by the Board of Directors and becomes final, or the Board of Directors dismisses the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification to depositors of suspension of insured status.</I> Within the time specified by the Board of Directors and prior to the suspension of insured status, the depository institution shall mail a notification of suspension of insured status to each depositor at the depositor's last address of record on the books of the depository institution. The depository institution shall also publish the notification in two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation and shall furnish the FDIC with proof of such publications. The notification to depositors shall include information provided in substantially the following form: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>Notice
</HD3>
<P>(Date)____________. 
</P>
<P>1. The status of the __________, as an (insured depository institution) (insured branch) under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, will be suspended as of the close of business on the ________ day of ____________, 19____, pending the completion of administrative proceedings under section 8(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. 
</P>
<P>2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing deposits, will not be insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>3. Insured deposits in the (depository institution) (branch) on the ________ day of ____________, 19____, will continue to be insured for ____________ after the close of business on the__________ day of __________, 19____. Provided, however, that any withdrawals after the close of business on the ________ day of____________, 19____, will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals. 
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Name of depository institution or branch) 
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Address)</FP></EXTRACT>
<FP>The notification may include any additional information the depository institution deems advisable, provided that the information required by this section shall be set forth in a conspicuous manner on the first page of the notification. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.126" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.126   Special supervisory associations.</HEAD>
<P>If the Board of Directors finds that a savings association is a special supervisory association under the provisions of section 8(a)(8)(B) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(8)(B)) for purposes of temporary suspension of insured status, the Board of Directors shall serve upon the association its findings with regard to the determination that the capital of the association, as computed using applicable accounting standards, has suffered a material decline; that such association or its directors or officers, is engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the association; that such association is in an unsafe or unsound condition to continue operating as an insured association; or that such association or its directors or officers, has violated any law, rule, regulation, order, condition imposed in writing by any Federal banking agency, or any written agreement, or that the association failed to enter into a capital improvement plan acceptable to the Corporation prior to January, 1990. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Cease-and-Desist Orders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.127" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.127   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cease-and-desist proceedings under sections 8 and 50 of the FDIA.</I> The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to order an insured nonmember bank or an institution-affiliated party to cease and desist from practices and violations described in section 8(b) of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1818(b), and section 50 of the FDIA, 12 U.S.C. 1831aa.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</I> (1) The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors to order a municipal securities dealer to cease and desist from any violation of law or regulation specified in section 15B(c)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o-4(c)(5)) where the municipal securities dealer is an insured nonmember bank or a subsidiary thereof. 
</P>
<P>(2) The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors to order a clearing agency or transfer agent to cease and desist from failure to comply with the applicable provisions of section 17, 17A and 19 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q, 78q-l, 78s), and the applicable rules and regulations thereunder, where the clearing agency or transfer agent is an insured nonmember bank or a subsidiary thereof. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999; 72 FR 67235, Nov. 28, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.128" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.128   Grounds for cease-and-desist orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue and have served upon any insured nonmember bank or an institution-affiliated party a notice, as set forth in § 308.18 of the Uniform Rules for practices and violations as described in § 308.127. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extraterritorial acts of foreign banks.</I> An act, violation or practice committed outside the United States by a foreign bank or an institution-affiliated party that would otherwise be a ground for issuing a cease-and-desist order under paragraph (a) of this section or a temporary cease-and-desist order under § 308.131 of this subpart, shall be a ground for an order if the Board of Directors or its designee finds that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The act, violation or practice has been, is, or is likely to be a cause of, or carried on in connection with or in furtherance of, an act, violation or practice committed within any state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia which act, violation or practice, in and of itself, would be an appropriate basis for action by the FDIC; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The act, violation or practice, if proven, would adversely affect the insurance risk of the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.129" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.129   Notice to state supervisory authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Directors or its designee shall give the appropriate state supervisory authority notification of its intent to institute a proceeding pursuant to subpart G of this part, and the grounds thereof. Any proceedings shall be conducted according to subpart G of this part, unless, within the time period specified in such notification, the state supervisory authority has effected satisfactory corrective action. No insured institution or other party who is the subject of any notice or order issued by the FDIC under this section shall have standing to raise the requirements of this subpart as grounds for attacking the validity of any such notice or order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.130" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.130   Effective date of order and service on bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> A cease-and-desist order issued by the Board of Directors after a hearing, and a cease-and-desist order issued based upon a default, shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the service of the order upon the bank or its official. A cease-and-desist order issued upon consent shall become effective at the time specified therein. All cease-and-desist orders shall remain effective and enforceable, except to the extent they are stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the Board of Directors or its designee or by a reviewing court. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service on banks.</I> In cases where the bank is not the respondent, the cease-and-desist order shall also be served upon the bank. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.131" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.131   Temporary cease-and-desist order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) When the Board of Directors or its designee determines that the violation, or the unsafe or unsound practice, as specified in the notice, or the continuation thereof, is likely to cause insolvency or significant dissipation of assets or earnings of the bank, or is likely to weaken the condition of the bank or otherwise prejudice the interests of its depositors prior to the completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) and § 308.128 of this subpart, the Board of Directors or its designee may issue a temporary order requiring the bank or an institution-affiliated party to immediately cease and desist from any such violation, practice or to take affirmative action to prevent such insolvency, dissipation, condition or prejudice pending completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)). 
</P>
<P>(2) When the Board of Directors or its designee issues a Notice of charges pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) which specifies on the basis of particular facts and circumstances that a bank's books and records are so incomplete or inaccurate that the FDIC is unable, through the normal supervisory process, to determine the financial condition of the bank or the details or purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of the bank, then the Board of Directors or its designee may issue a temporary order requiring: 
</P>
<P>(i) The cessation of any activity or practice which gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirmative action to restore such books or records to a complete and accurate state, until the completion of the proceedings under section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)). 
</P>
<P>(3) The temporary order shall be served upon the bank or the institution-affiliated party named therein and shall also be served upon the bank in the case where the temporary order applies only to an institution-affiliated party. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> A temporary order shall become effective when served upon the bank or the institution-affiliated party. Unless the temporary order is set aside, limited, or suspended by a court in proceedings authorized under section 8(c)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(c)(2)), the temporary order shall remain effective and enforceable pending completion of administrative proceedings pursuant to section 8(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) and entry of an order which has become final, or with respect to paragraph (a)(2) of this section the FDIC determines by examination or otherwise that the bank's books and records are accurate and reflect the financial condition of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Uniform Rules do not apply.</I> The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to the issuance of temporary orders under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties for Violation of Cease-and-Desist Orders and of Certain Federal Statutes, Including Call Report Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.132" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.132   Assessment of penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The rules and procedures of this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules, and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings to assess and collect civil money penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevant considerations.</I> In determining the amount of the civil penalty to be assessed, the Board of Directors or its designee shall consider the financial resources and good faith of the institution or official, the gravity of the violation, the history of previous violations, and any such other matters as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority of the Board of Directors.</I> The Board of Directors or its designee may assess civil money penalties under section 8(i) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)), and § 308.1(e) of the Uniform Rules (this part).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maximum civil money penalty amounts.</I> Under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess civil money penalties in the maximum amounts using the following framework:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statutory formula to calculate inflation adjustments.</I> The FDIC is required by statute to annually adjust for inflation the maximum amount of each civil money penalty within its jurisdiction to administer. The inflation adjustment is calculated by multiplying the maximum dollar amount of the civil money penalty for the previous calendar year by the cost-of-living inflation adjustment multiplier provided annually by the Office of Management and Budget and rounding the total to the nearest dollar.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of inflation adjustments.</I> By January 15 of each calendar year, the FDIC will publish notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the maximum penalties that may be assessed after each January 15, based on the formula in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, for conduct occurring on or after November 2, 2015.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civil money penalties for violations of 12 U.S.C. 1464(v) and 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)</I>—(1) <I>Late filing—Tier One penalties.</I> Where an institution fails to make or publish its Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) within the appropriate time periods, but where the institution maintains procedures in place reasonably adapted to avoid inadvertent error and the late filing occurred unintentionally and as a result of such error, or where the institution inadvertently transmitted a Call Report that is minimally late, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a Tier One civil money penalty. The amount of such a penalty shall not exceed the maximum amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. Such a penalty may be assessed for each day that the violation continues.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>First offense.</I> Generally, in such cases, the amount assessed shall be an amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will contain a presumptive penalty amount per day for each of the first 15 days for which the failure continues, and a presumptive amount per day for each subsequent days the failure continues, beginning on the 16th day. The annual <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will also provide penalty amounts that generally may be assessed for institutions with less than $25,000,000 in assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subsequent offense.</I> The FDIC will calculate and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a presumptive daily Tier One penalty to be imposed where an institution has been delinquent in making or publishing its Call Report within the preceding five quarters. The published penalty shall identify the amount that will generally be imposed per day for each of the first 15 days for which the failure continues, and the amount that will generally be imposed per day for each subsequent day the failure continues, beginning on the 16th day. The annual <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice will also provide penalty amounts that generally may be assessed for institutions with less than $25,000,000 in assets.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lengthy or repeated violations.</I> The amounts set forth in this paragraph (e)(1) will be assessed on a case-by-case basis where the amount of time of the institution's delinquency is lengthy or the institution has been delinquent repeatedly in making or publishing its Call Reports.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Waiver.</I> Absent extraordinary circumstances outside the control of the institution, penalties assessed for late filing shall not be waived.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Late-filing—Tier Two penalties.</I> Where an institution fails to make or publish its Call Report within the appropriate time period, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a Tier Two civil money penalty for each day the failure continues. The amount of such a penalty will not exceed the maximum amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>False or misleading reports or information</I>—(i) <I>Tier One penalties.</I> In cases in which an institution submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a Tier One civil money penalty for each day the information is not corrected, where the institution maintains procedures in place reasonably adapted to avoid inadvertent error and the violation occurred unintentionally and as a result of such error, or where the institution inadvertently transmits a Call Report or information that is false or misleading. The amount of such a penalty will not exceed the maximum amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Tier Two penalties.</I> Where an institution submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or other information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a Tier Two civil money penalty for each day the information is not corrected. The amount of such a penalty will not exceed the maximum amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Tier Three penalties.</I> Where an institution knowingly or with reckless disregard for the accuracy of any Call Report or information submits or publishes any false or misleading Call Report or other information, the Board of Directors or its designee may assess a Tier Three civil money penalty for each day the information is not corrected. The penalty shall not exceed the lesser of 1 percent of the institution's total assets per day or the amount calculated and published annually in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mitigating factors.</I> The amounts set forth in paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3) of this section may be reduced based upon the factors set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 74577, Dec. 17, 2012, as amended at 81 FR 42239, June 29, 2016; 81 FR 95416, Dec. 28, 2016; 83 FR 1522, Jan. 12, 2018; 83 FR 61114, Nov. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.133" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.133   Effective date of, and payment under, an order to pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided in the Notice, except in situations covered by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after the Notice is served upon the respondent. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the respondent both requests a hearing and serves an answer, civil penalties assessed pursuant to this subpart are due and payable 60 days after an order to pay, issued after the hearing or upon default, is served upon the respondent, unless the order provides for a different period of payment. Civil penalties assessed pursuant to an order to pay issued upon consent are due and payable within the time specified therein. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment.</I> All penalties collected under this section shall be paid over to the Treasury of the United States. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Rules and Procedures for Imposition of Sanctions Upon Municipal Securities Dealers or Persons Associated With Them and Clearing Agencies or Transfer Agents</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.134" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.134   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors or its designee: 
</P>
<P>(a) To censure, limit the activities of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, any municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency; 
</P>
<P>(b) To censure, suspend, or bar from being associated with such a municipal securities dealer, any person associated with such a municipal securities dealer; and 
</P>
<P>(c) To deny registration, to censure limit the activities of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, any transfer agent or clearing agency for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency. This subpart and the Uniform Rules shall not apply to proceedings to postpone or suspend registration of a transfer agent or clearing agency pending final determination of denial or revocation of registration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.135" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.135   Grounds for imposition of sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Action under section 15(b)(4) of the Exchange Act.</I> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue and have served upon any municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, or any person associated or seeking to become associated with a municipal securities dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, a written notice of its intention to censure, limit the activities or functions or operations of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, such municipal securities dealer, or to censure, suspend, or bar the person from being associated with the municipal securities dealer, when the Board of Directors or its designee determines: 
</P>
<P>(1) That such municipal securities dealer or such person 
</P>
<P>(i) Has committed any prohibited act or omitted any required act specified in subparagraph (A), (D), or (E) of section 15(b)(4) of the Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78o); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been convicted of any offense specified in section 15(b)(4)(B) of the Exchange Act within ten years of commencement of proceedings under this subpart; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is enjoined from any act, conduct, or practice specified in section 15(b)(4)(C) of the Exchange Act; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That it is in the public interest to impose any of the sanctions set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action under sections 17 and 17A of the Exchange Act.</I> The Board of Directors or its designee may issue, and have served upon any transfer agent or clearing agency for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, a written Notice of its intention to deny registration to, censure, place limitations on the activities or function or operations of, suspend, or revoke the registration of, the transfer agent or clearing agency, when the Board of Directors or its designee determines: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the transfer agent or clearing agency has willfully violated, or is unable to comply with, any applicable provision of section 17 or 17A of the Exchange Act, as amended, or any applicable rule or regulation issued pursuant thereto; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That it is in the public interest to impose any of the sanctions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.136" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.136   Notice to and consultation with the Securities and Exchange Commission.</HEAD>
<P>Before initiating any proceedings under § 308.135, the FDIC shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Notify the Securities and Exchange Commission of the identity of the municipal securities dealer or associated person against whom proceedings are to be initiated, and the nature of and basis for the proposed action; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Consult with the Commission concerning the effect of the proposed action on the protection of investors and the possibility of coordinating the action with any proceeding by the Commission against the municipal securities dealer or associated person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.137" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.137   Effective date of order imposing sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>An order issued by the Board of Directors after a hearing or an order issued upon default shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the service of the order, except that an order of censure, denial, or revocation of registration is effective when served. An order issued upon consent shall become effective at the time specified therein. All orders shall remain effective and enforceable except to the extent they are stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by the Board of Directors, its designee, or a reviewing court, provided that orders of suspension shall continue in effect no longer than 12 months. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Rules and Procedures Relating to Exemption Proceedings Under Section 12(h) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.138" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.138   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures of this subpart J shall apply to proceedings by the Board of Directors or its designee to exempt, in whole or in part, an issuer of securities from the provisions of sections 12(g), 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), or 14(f) of the Exchange Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 781, 78m, 78n (a), (c) (d) or (f)), or to exempt an officer or a director or beneficial owner of securities of such an issuer from the provisions of section 16 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.139" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.139   Application for exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested person may file a written application for an exemption under this subpart with the Administrative Officer, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429. The application shall specify the exemption sought and the reason therefor, and shall include a statement indicating why the exemption would be consistent with the public interest or the protection of investors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.140" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.140   Newspaper notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If the Board of Directors or its designee, in its sole discretion, decides to further consider an application for exemption, there shall be served upon the applicant instructions to publish one notification in a newspaper of general circulation in the community where the main office of the issuer is located. The applicant shall furnish proof of such publication to the Administrative Officer or such other person as may be directed in the instructions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The notification shall contain the name and address of the issuer and the name and title of the applicant, the exemption sought, a statement that a hearing will be held, and a statement that within 30 days of publication of the newspaper notice, interested persons may submit to the FDIC written comments on the application for exemption and a written request for an opportunity to be heard. The address of the FDIC must appear in the notice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.141" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.141   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Within ten days after expiration of the period for receipt of comments pursuant to § 308.140, the Administrative Officer shall serve upon the applicant and any person who has requested an opportunity to be heard written notification indicating the place and time of the hearing. The hearing shall be held not later than 30 days after service of the notification of hearing. The notification shall contain the name and address of the presiding officer designated by the Administrative Officer and a statement of the matters to be considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.142" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.142   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proceedings are informal.</I> Formal rules of evidence, the adjudicative procedures of the APA (5 U.S.C. 554-557), the Uniform Rules and § 308.108 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to hearings under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing Procedure.</I> (1) Parties to the hearing may appear personally or through counsel and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and to make an oral statement. 
</P>
<P>(2) There shall be no discovery in proceeding under this subpart J. 
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer shall have discretion to permit presentation of witnesses within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness and each party may cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. 
</P>
<P>(4) The proceedings shall be on the record and the transcript shall be promptly submitted to the Board of Directors. The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, unless the Board of Directors, in its sole discretion, directs otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.143" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.143   Decision of Board of Directors.</HEAD>
<P>Following submission of the hearing transcript to the Board of Directors, the Board of Directors may grant the exemption where it determines, by reason of the number of public investors, the amount of trading interest in the securities, the nature and extent of the issuer's activities, the issuer's income or assets, or otherwise, that the exemption is consistent with the public interest or the protection of investors. Any exemption shall be set forth in an order specifying the terms of the exemption, the person to whom it is granted, and the period for which it is granted. A copy of the order shall be served upon each party to the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Procedures Applicable to Investigations Pursuant to Section 10(c) of the FDIA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.144" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.144   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The procedures of this subpart shall be followed when an investigation is instituted and conducted in connection with any open or failed insured depository institution, any institutions making application to become insured depository institutions, and affiliates thereof, or with other types of investigations to determine compliance with applicable law and regulations, pursuant to section 10(c) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)) or section 5(d)(1)(B) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1)(B)). The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to investigations under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.145" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.145   Conduct of investigation.</HEAD>
<P>An investigation shall be initiated only upon issuance of an order by the Board of Directors; or by the General Counsel, the Director of the Division of Risk Management Supervision, the Director of the Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection, or their respective designees. The order shall indicate the purpose of the investigation and designate FDIC's representative(s) to direct the conduct of the investigation. Upon application and for good cause shown, the persons who issue the order of investigation may limit, quash, modify, or withdraw it. Upon the conclusion of the investigation, an order of termination of the investigation shall be issued by the persons issuing the order of investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.146" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.146   Powers of person conducting investigation.</HEAD>
<P>The person designated to conduct the investigation shall have the power, among other things, to administer oaths and affirmations, to take and preserve testimony under oath, to issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum and to apply for their enforcement to the United States District Court for the judicial district or the United States court in any territory in which the main office of the bank, institution, or affiliate is located or in which the witness resides or conducts business. The person conducting the investigation may obtain the assistance of counsel or others from both within and outside the FDIC. The persons who issue the order of investigation may limit, quash, or modify any subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, upon application and for good cause shown. The person conducting an investigation may report to the Board of Directors any instance where any attorney has engaged in contemptuous, dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct or has otherwise violated any provision of this part during the course of an investigation. The Board of Directors, upon motion of the person conducting the investigation, or on its own motion, may make a finding of contempt and may then summarily suspend, without a hearing, any attorney representing a witness from further participation in the investigation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.147" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.147   Investigations confidential.</HEAD>
<P>Investigations shall be confidential. Information and documents obtained by the FDIC in the course of such investigations shall not be disclosed, except as provided in part 309 of this chapter and as otherwise required by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.148" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.148   Rights of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>In an investigation:
</P>
<P>(a) Any person compelled or requested to furnish testimony, documentary evidence, or other information, shall upon request be shown and provided with a copy of the order initiating the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person compelled or requested to provide testimony as a witness or to furnish documentary evidence may be represented by a counsel who meets the requirements of § 308.6 of the Uniform Rules. That counsel may be present and may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the witness before, during, and after such testimony; 
</P>
<P>(2) Briefly question the witness at the conclusion of such testimony for clarification purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Make summary notes during such testimony solely for the use and benefit of the witness; 
</P>
<P>(c) All persons testifying shall be sequestered. Such persons and their counsel shall not be present during the testimony of any other person, unless permitted in the discretion of the person conducting the investigation. Neither attorney(s) for the institution that is the subject of the investigation, nor attorney(s) for any other interested persons, shall have any right to be present during the testimony of any witness not personally represented by such attorney;
</P>
<P>(d) In cases of a perceived or actual conflict of interest arising out of an attorney's or law firm's representation of multiple witnesses, the person conducting the investigation may require the attorney to comply with the provisions of § 308.8 of the Uniform Rules; and 
</P>
<P>(e) Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999; 80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.149" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.149   Service of subpoena.</HEAD>
<P>Service of a subpoena shall be accomplished in accordance with § 308.11 of the Uniform Rules. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.150" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.11.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.150   Transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Transcripts of testimony, if any, shall be recorded by an official reporter, or by any other person or means designated by the person conducting the investigation. A witness may, solely for the use and benefit of the witness, obtain a copy of the transcript of his or her testimony at the conclusion of the investigation or, at the discretion of the person conducting the investigation, at an earlier time, provided that the witness submits a written request for the transcript and the transcript is available. The witness requesting a copy of his or her testimony shall bear the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subscription by witness.</I> The transcript of testimony shall be subscribed by the witness, unless the person conducting the investigation and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the transcript of the testimony is not subscribed by the witness, the official reporter taking the testimony shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the testimony. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Procedures and Standards Applicable to a Notice of Change in Senior Executive Officer or Director Pursuant to Section 32 of the FDIA</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.151" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.151   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart shall apply to the notice filed by a state nonmember bank pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i) and § 303.102 of this chapter for the consent of the FDIC to add or replace an individual on the Board of Directors, or to employ any individual as a senior executive officer, or change the responsibilities of any individual to a position of senior executive officer where:
</P>
<P>(a) The bank is not in compliance with all minimum capital requirements applicable to it as determined by the FDIC on the basis of such institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination or inspection;
</P>
<P>(b) The bank is in a troubled condition as defined in § 303.101(c) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC determines, in connection with the review of a capital restoration plan required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831o(e)(2)) or otherwise, that such prior notice is appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 62100, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.152" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.152   Grounds for disapproval of notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Directors or its designee may issue a notice of disapproval with respect to a notice submitted by a state nonmember bank pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i) where: 
</P>
<P>(a) The competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom such notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the depositors of the state nonmember bank to permit the individual to be employed by or associated with such bank; or 
</P>
<P>(b) The competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom such notice is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the state nonmember bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.153" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.153   Procedures where notice of disapproval issues pursuant to § 303.103(c) of this chapter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Notice of Disapproval shall be served upon the insured state nonmember bank and the candidate for director or senior executive officer. The Notice of Disapproval shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 308.152; 
</P>
<P>(2) Inform the individual and the bank that a request for review of the disapproval may be filed within fifteen days of receipt of the Notice of Disapproval; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify that additional information, if any, must be contained in the request for review. 
</P>
<P>(b) The request for review must be filed at the appropriate regional office. 
</P>
<P>(c) The request for review must be in writing and should: 
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the reasons why the FDIC should reconsider its disapproval; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth relevant, substantive and material documents, if any, that for good cause were not previously set forth in the notice required to be filed pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831i). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.154" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.154   Decision on review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days of receipt of the request for review, the Board of Directors or its designee, shall notify the bank and/or the individual filing the reconsideration (hereafter “petitioner”) of the FDIC's decision on review. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the decision is to grant the review and approve the notice, the bank and the individual involved shall be so notified. 
</P>
<P>(c) A denial of the request for review pursuant to section 32 of the FDIA shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the petitioner that a written request for a hearing, stating the relief desired and the grounds therefore, may be filed with the Administrative Officer within 15 days after the receipt of the denial; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 308.152. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a decision is not rendered within 30 days, the petitioner may file a request for a hearing within fifteen days from the date of expiration. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.155" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.155   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing dates.</I> The Administrative Officer shall order a hearing to be commenced within 30 days after receipt of a request for a hearing filed pursuant to § 308.154. Upon request of the petitioner or the FDIC, the presiding officer or the Administrative Officer may order a later hearing date. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The ultimate burden of proof shall be upon the candidate for director or senior executive officer. The burden of going forward with a <I>prima facie</I> case shall be upon the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing procedure.</I> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Administrative Officer. 
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules and §§ 308.101 through 308.102, and 308.104 through 308.106 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall apply to hearings held pursuant to this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) The petitioner may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and make an oral presentation. Members of the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as representatives of the FDIC enforcement staff. 
</P>
<P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the petitioner afforded the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under paragraph (c) of this section the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules. 
</P>
<P>(7) Upon the request of the applicant afforded the hearing, or the members of the FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record. 
</P>
<P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors or its designee, where possible, within fifteen days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record. 
</P>
<P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Administrative Officer who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors or its designee. The Administrative Officer's certification shall close the record. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</I> The petitioner may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to request or appear at hearing.</I> Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of hearing. If a hearing is waived, the order shall be final and unappealable, and shall remain in full force and effect. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</I> Within 45 days following the Administrative Officer's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or its designee shall notify the affected individual whether the denial of the notice will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified. The notification shall state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the petitioner. The Board of Directors or its designee shall promptly rescind or modify the denial where the decision is favorable to the petitioner. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62101, Nov. 16, 1999; 86 FR 2249, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Procedures Applicable to the Request for and Conduct of a Hearing (or the Request for Written Submissions in Lieu of a Hearing) After Denial of an Application Under Section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 51323, Aug. 20, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.156" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.156   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart will apply to an application filed under section 19 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1829 (section 19), and 12 CFR part 303, subpart L, by an insured depository institution (IDI), depository institution holding company, or an individual (any of which could be termed an applicant). Section 19 states that if an individual has been convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty, a breach of trust, or money laundering, or who has agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with the prosecution of such offense, the individual must seek the prior written consent of the FDIC to: become or continue as an institution-affiliated party (IAP) with respect to an IDI; own or control directly or indirectly an IDI; or participate directly or indirectly in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an IDI. This subpart will apply only after such application has been denied under 12 CFR part 303, subpart L.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 64366, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.157" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.157   Denial of applications.</HEAD>
<P>If an application is denied under 12 CFR part 303, subpart L, then the applicant may request a hearing (or request a written submission in lieu of a hearing) under this subpart M. The applicant will have 60 days after the date of the denial to file a written request with the Administrative Officer. In the request, the applicant must state the relief desired, the grounds supporting the request for relief, and provide any supporting evidence that the applicant believes is responsive to the grounds for the denial.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 64366, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.158" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.158   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing dates.</I> The Administrative Officer shall order a hearing to be commenced within 60 days after receipt of a request for hearing on an application filed under § 308.157. Upon the request of the applicant or FDIC enforcement counsel, the presiding officer or the Administrative Officer may order a later hearing date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The burden of going forward with a <I>prima facie</I> case will be upon the FDIC. The ultimate burden of proof will be upon the applicant seeking the FDIC's consent for an individual to become or continue as an IAP with respect to an IDI, own or control directly or indirectly an IDI, or otherwise participate directly or indirectly in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of an IDI.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing procedure.</I> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules (subpart A of this part) and §§ 308.101, 308.102, and 308.104 through 308.106 the Local Rules (subpart B of this part) shall apply to hearings held under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents and oral argument. Members of the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as a party.
</P>
<P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the applicant afforded the hearing.
</P>
<P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under this paragraph, the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations; to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses; and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas <I>duces tecum.</I> Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules (subpart A of this part).
</P>
<P>(7) Upon the request of the applicant afforded the hearing, or FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record.
</P>
<P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, where possible, within 20 days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.
</P>
<P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Administrative Officer who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors or its designee. The Administrative Officer certification shall close the record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</I> The applicant may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to request or appear at hearing.</I> Failure to request a hearing will constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative will constitute a waiver of a hearing. If a hearing is waived, and if there has not been a written submission in lieu of a hearing, the individual will remain prohibited under section 19.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</I> Within 60 days following the Administrative Officer's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or its designee will notify the applicant whether the individual will remain prohibited under section 19. The notification will state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the applicant.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 51323, Aug. 20, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 2250, Jan. 12, 2021; 89 FR 64366, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 308.159-308.160" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 308.159-308.160   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to Suspension, Removal, and Prohibition Where a Felony ls Charged</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 67235, Nov. 28, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.161" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.161   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart shall apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Proceedings to suspend an institution-affiliated party of an insured State nonmember bank, or an insured State savings association, or to prohibit such party from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution, if continued service or participation by such party posed, poses, or may pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or threatened, threatens, or may threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution (as defined at section 1818(g)(1)(E) of Title 12), where the individual is the subject of any state or federal information, indictment, or complaint, involving the commission of, or participation in:
</P>
<P>(1) A crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust punishable by imprisonment exceeding one year under state or federal law; or
</P>
<P>(2) A criminal violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 or section 5322 or 5324 of title 31.
</P>
<P>(b) Proceedings to remove from office or to prohibit an institution-affiliated party from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution without the consent of the Board of Directors or its designee where:
</P>
<P>(1) A judgment of conviction or an agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion or other similar program has been entered against such party in connection with a crime described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that is not subject to further appellate review, if continued service or participation by such party posed, poses, or may pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or threatened, threatens, or may threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution (as defined at section 1818(g)(1)(E) of title 12); or
</P>
<P>(2) A judgment of conviction or an agreement to enter a pre-trial diversion or other similar program has been entered against such party in connection with a crime described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 67235, Nov. 28, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 5013, Jan. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.162" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.162   Relevant considerations.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) In proceedings under § 308.161(a) and (b) for a notice of suspension or prohibition, or a removal or prohibition order, the following shall be considered:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the alleged offense is a crime which is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or federal law and which involves dishonesty or breach of trust; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the alleged offense is a criminal violation of section 1956, 1957, or 1960 of title 18 or section 5322 or 5324 of title 31; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether continued service or participation by the institution-affiliated party posed, poses, or may pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or threatened, threatens, or may threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution (as defined at section 1818(g)(1)(E) of title 12).
</P>
<P>(b) The question of whether an institution-affiliated party is guilty of the subject crime shall not be tried or considered in a proceeding under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.163" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.14.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.163   Notice of suspension or prohibition, and orders of removal or prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notice of suspension or prohibition.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board of Directors or its designee may suspend or prohibit from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution an institution-affiliated party by written notice of suspension or prohibition upon a determination by the Board of Directors or its designee that the grounds for such suspension or prohibition exist. The written notice of suspension or prohibition shall be served upon the institution-affiliated party and any depository institution that the subject of the action is affiliated with at the time the notice is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) The suspension or prohibition shall be effective immediately upon service on the institution-affiliated party, who shall immediately comply with the requirements thereof, and shall remain in effect until final disposition of the information, indictment, complaint, or until it is terminated by the Board of Directors or its designee under the provisions of § 308.164 or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) Order of removal or prohibition.
</P>
<P>(1) The Board of Directors or its designee may issue an order removing or prohibiting from further participation in the conduct of the affairs of any depository institution an institution-affiliated party, when a final judgment of conviction not subject to further appellate review is entered against the institution-affiliated party for a crime referred to in § 308.161(a)(1) and continued service or participation by such party posed, poses, or may pose a threat to the interests of the depositors of, or threatened, threatens, or may threaten to impair public confidence in, any relevant depository institution (as defined at section 1818(g)(1)(E) of title 12).
</P>
<P>(2) An order of removal or prohibition shall be entered if a judgment of conviction is entered against the institution-affiliated party for a crime described in § 308.161(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) The notice of suspension or prohibition or the order of removal or prohibition shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the institution-affiliated party that a written request for a hearing, stating the relief desired and grounds therefore, and any supporting evidence, may be filed with the Administrative Officer within 30 days after service of the written notice or order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the basis and facts in support of the notice or order and address the relevant considerations specified in § 308.162.
</P>
<P>(d) To obtain a hearing, the institution-affiliated party shall file with the Administrative Officer a written request for a hearing within 30 days after service of the notice of suspension or prohibition or the order of removal or prohibition, which shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Admit or deny specifically each allegation in the notice or order, or state that the institution-affiliated party is without knowledge or information, which statement shall have the effect of a denial. Any allegation not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. When an institution-affiliated party intends in good faith to deny only a part of or to qualify an allegation, he shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder; and
</P>
<P>(2) Shall state whether the institution-affiliated party is requesting termination or modification of the notice or order, and shall state with particularity how he intends to show that his continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the depository institution would not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of its depositors or to impair public confidence in the depository institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 67235, Nov. 28, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 5014, Jan. 30, 2015; 86 FR 2250, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.164" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.14.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.164   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing dates.</I> The Administrative Officer shall order a hearing to be commenced within 30 days after receipt of a request for hearing filed pursuant to § 308.163. Upon the request of the institution-affiliated party, the presiding officer or the Administrative Officer may order a later hearing date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Hearing procedure.</I> (1) The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at another designated place, before a presiding officer designated by the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 of the Uniform Rules and §§ 308.101 through 308.102 and 308.104 through 308.106 of subpart B of the Local Rules shall apply to hearings held pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) The institution-affiliated party may appear at the hearing and shall have the right to introduce relevant and material documents. Members of the FDIC enforcement staff may attend the hearing and participate as representatives of the FDIC enforcement staff. Following the introduction of all evidence, the applicant and the representative of the FDIC enforcement staff shall have an opportunity for oral argument; however, the parties may jointly waive the right to oral argument, and, in lieu thereof, elect to submit written argument.
</P>
<P>(4) There shall be no discovery in proceedings under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) At the discretion of the presiding officer, witnesses may be presented within specified time limits, provided that a list of witnesses is furnished to the presiding officer and to all other parties prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall be sworn, unless otherwise directed by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness. Each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. The transcript of the proceedings shall be furnished, upon request and payment of the cost thereof, to the institution-affiliated party afforded the hearing. A copy of the transcript shall be sent directly to the presiding officer, who shall have authority to correct the record sua sponte or upon the motion of any party.
</P>
<P>(6) In the course of or in connection with any hearing under paragraph (b) of this section, the presiding officer shall have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause to be taken depositions of unavailable witnesses, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. Where the presentation of witnesses is permitted, the presiding officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any state, territory, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any location where the proceeding is being conducted. Witness fees shall be paid in accordance with § 308.14 of the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(7) Upon the request of the institution-affiliated party afforded the hearing, or the members of the FDIC enforcement staff, the record shall remain open for five business days following the hearing for the parties to make additional submissions to the record.
</P>
<P>(8) The presiding officer shall make recommendations to the Board of Directors, where possible, within 10 days after the last day for the parties to submit additions to the record.
</P>
<P>(9) The presiding officer shall forward his or her recommendation to the Administrative Officer who shall promptly certify the entire record, including the recommendation to the Board of Directors. The Administrative Officer's certification shall close the record.
</P>
<P>(10) The institution-affiliated party has the burden of showing, by a preponderance of the evidence, that his or her continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of a depository institution does not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the depository institution's depositors or threaten to impair public confidence in the depository institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written submissions in lieu of hearing.</I> The institution-affiliated party may in writing waive a hearing and elect to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to request or appear at hearing.</I> Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing. Failure to appear at a hearing in person or through an authorized representative shall constitute a waiver of hearing. If a hearing is waived, the order shall be final and unappealable, and shall remain in full force and effect pursuant to § 308.163.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision by Board of Directors or its designee.</I> Within 60 days following the Administrative Officer's certification of the record to the Board of Directors or its designee, the Board of Directors or its designee shall notify the institution-affiliated party whether the notice of suspension or prohibition or the order of removal or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified. The notification shall state the basis for any decision of the Board of Directors or its designee that is adverse to the institution-affiliated party. The Board of Directors or its designee shall promptly rescind or modify a notice of suspension or prohibition or an order of removal or prohibition where the decision is favorable to the institution-affiliated party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 67235, Nov. 28, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 5014, Jan. 30, 2015; 86 FR 2250, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Liability of Commonly Controlled Depository Institutions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.165" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.165   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures in this subpart, subpart B of the Local Rules and the Uniform Rules shall apply to proceedings in connection with the assessment of cross-guaranty liability against commonly controlled depository institutions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.166" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.166   Grounds for assessment of liability.</HEAD>
<P>Any insured depository institution shall be liable for any loss incurred or reasonably anticipated to be incurred by the corporation, subsequent to August 9, 1989, in connection with the default of a commonly controlled insured depository institution, or any loss incurred or reasonably anticipated to be incurred in connection with any assistance provided by the Corporation to any commonly controlled depository institution in danger of default. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.167" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.167   Notice of assessment of liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount of liability shall be assessed upon service of a Notice of Assessment of Liability upon the liable depository institution, within two years of the date the Corporation incurred the loss. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of Notice.</I> (1) The Notice of Assessment of Liability shall set forth: 
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for the FDIC's jurisdiction over the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the Corporation's good faith estimate of the amount of loss it has incurred or anticipates incurring; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement of the method by which the estimated loss was calculated; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A proposed order directing payment by the liable institution of the FDIC's estimated amount of loss, and the schedule under which the payment will be due; 
</P>
<P>(v) In cases involving more than one liable institution, the estimated amount of each institution's share of the liability. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Notice of Assessment of Liability shall advise the liable institution(s): 
</P>
<P>(i) That an answer must be filed within 20 days after service of the Notice; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That, if a hearing is requested, a request for a hearing must be filed within 20 days after service of the Notice; 
</P>
<P>(iii) That if a hearing is requested, such hearing will be held within the judicial district in which the liable institution is found, or, in cases involving more than one liable institution, within a judicial district in which at least one liable institution is found; 
</P>
<P>(iv) That, unless the administrative law judge sets a different date, the hearing will commence 120 days after service of the Notice of Assessment of Liability; and 
</P>
<P>(v) That failure to request a hearing shall render the Notice of Assessment a final and unappealable order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.168" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.168   Effective date of and payment under an order to pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless otherwise provided in the Notice of Assessment of Liability, payment of the assessment shall be due on or before the 21st day after service of the Assessment of Liability, under the terms of the schedule for payment set forth therein. 
</P>
<P>(b) All payments collected shall be paid to the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to request a hearing as prescribed herein shall render the order to pay final and unappealable. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Rules and Procedures Relating to the Recovery of Attorney Fees and Other Expenses</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.169" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.169   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, and the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), which it implements, apply to adversary adjudications before the FDIC. The types of adjudication covered by this subpart are those listed in § 308.01 of the Uniform Rules. The Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules apply to any proceedings to recover fees and expenses under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.170" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.170   Filing, content, and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file.</I> An application and any other pleading or document related to the application shall be filed with the Administrative Officer within 30 days after service of the final order of the Board of Directors in disposition of the proceeding whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant seeks an award pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1) as the prevailing party in the adversary adjudication or in a discrete significant substantive portion of the proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant, in an adversary adjudication arising from an action to enforce compliance with a statutory or regulatory requirement, asserts pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) that the demand by the FDIC is substantially in excess of the decision of the administrative law judge and is unreasonable when compared with such decision under the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> The application and related documents shall conform to the requirements of § 308.10(b) and (c) of the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> The application and related documents shall be served on all parties to the adversary adjudication in accordance with § 308.11 of the Uniform Rules, except that statements of net worth shall be served only on counsel for the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referral.</I> Upon receipt of an application, the Administrative Officer shall refer the matter to the administrative law judge who heard the underlying adversary proceeding, provided that if the original administrative law judge is unavailable, or the Administrative Officer determines, in his or her sole discretion, that there is cause to refer the matter to a different administrative law judge, the matter shall be referred to a different administrative law judge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999; 86 FR 2250, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.171" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.171   Responses to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By FDIC.</I> (1) Within 20 days after service of an application, counsel for the FDIC may file with the Administrative Officer and serve on all parties an answer to the application. Unless counsel for the FDIC requests and is granted an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under § 308.179, failure to file an answer within the 20-day period will be treated as a consent to the award requested. 
</P>
<P>(2) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of the FDIC's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the answer shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply to answer.</I> The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(1), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the position of the FDIC was substantially justified, that the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The applicant may file a reply with regard to an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504 (a)(4), if the FDIC has addressed in its answer any of the following issues: that the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, that the FDIC's demand is reasonable when compared to the decision of the administrative law judge or that special circumstances make an award unjust. The reply shall be filed within 15 days after service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the reply shall include either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 308.180.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By other parties.</I> Any party to the adversary adjudication, other than the applicant and the FDIC, may file comments on an application within 20 days after service of the application. If the applicant is entitled to file a reply to the FDIC's answer under paragraph (b) of this section, another party may file comments on the answer within 15 days after service of the answer. A commenting party may not participate in any further proceedings on the application unless the administrative law judge determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit additional exploration of matters raised in the comments. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional response.</I> Additional filings in the nature of pleadings may be submitted only by leave of the administrative law judge. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999; 86 FR 2250, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.172" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.172   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Genera1 rule.</I> To be eligible for an award under this subpart, an applicant must have been named or admitted as a party to the proceeding. In addition, the applicant must show that it meets all other conditions of eligibility set out in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of eligible applicant.</I> The types of eligible applicant are: 
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2,000,000 at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any owner of an unincorporated business, or any partnership, corporation, associations, unit of local government or organization, the net worth of which did not exceed $7,000,000 and which did not have more than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated. 
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors to be considered.</I> In determining the types of eligible applicants: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business shall be considered as an <I>individual</I> rather than a <I>sole owner of an unincorporated business</I> if the issues on which he or she prevails are related to personal interests rather than to business interests. 
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes the value of any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose. 
</P>
<P>(3) The net worth of a bank shall be established by the net worth information reported in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines on the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. 
</P>
<P>(4) The employees of an applicant include all those persons who were regularly providing services for remuneration for the applicant, under its direction and control, on the date the adversary adjudication was initiated. Part-time employees are included as though they were full-time employees. 
</P>
<P>(5) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. The aggregated net worth shall be adjusted if necessary to avoid counting the net worth of any entity twice. As used in this subpart, <I>affiliates</I> are individuals, corporations, and entities that directly or indirectly or acting through one or more entities control a majority of the voting shares of the applicant; and corporations and entities of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares. The Board of Directors may, however, on the recommendation of the administrative law judge, or otherwise, determine that such aggregation with regard to one or more of the applicant's affiliates would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of this subpart in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In such a case the net worth and employees of the relevant affiliate or affiliates will not be aggregated with those of the applicant. In addition, the Board of Directors may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust. 
</P>
<P>(6) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.173" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.173   Prevailing party.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An eligible applicant who, following an adversary adjudication has gained victory on the merits in the proceeding is a “prevailing party”. An eligible applicant may be a “prevailing party” if a settlement of the proceeding was effected on terms favorable to it or if the proceeding against it has been dismissed. In appropriate situations an applicant may also have prevailed if the outcome of the proceeding has substantially vindicated the applicant's position on the significant substantive matters at issue, even though the applicant has not totally avoided adverse final action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Segregation of costs.</I> When a proceeding has presented a number of discrete substantive issues, an applicant may have prevailed even though all the issues were not resolved in its favor. If such an applicant is deemed to have prevailed, any award shall be based on the fees and expenses incurred in connection with the discrete significant substantive issue or issues on which the applicant's position has been upheld. If such segregation of costs is not practicable, the award may be based on a fair proration of those fees and expenses incurred in the entire proceeding which would be recoverable under § 308.175 if proration were not performed, whether separate or prorated treatment is appropriate, and the appropriate proration percentage, shall be determined on the facts of the particular case. Attention shall be given to the significance and nature of the respective issues and their separability and interrelationship. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.174" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.174   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses unless the position of the FDIC during the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make the award unjust. An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceedings. Awards for fees and expenses incurred before the date on which the adversary adjudication was initiated are allowable if their incurrence was necessary to prepare for the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), an applicant may receive an award unless the demand by the FDIC was reasonable when compared with the decision of the administrative law judge, the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.175" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.175   Measure of awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate, provided that no award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent may exceed $125 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the FDIC pays expert witnesses. An award may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses. Fees and expenses awarded under 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4) related to defending against an excessive demand shall be paid only as a consequence of appropriations paid in advance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of reasonableness of fees.</I> In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the administrative law judge shall consider the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services, or, if he or she is an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services; 
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services; 
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Awards for studies.</I> The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of an applicant may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate payable for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case and not otherwise required by law or sound business or financial practice. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.176" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.176   Application for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> An application for an award of fees and expenses under this subpart shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the applicant and an identification of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a showing that the applicant has prevailed, and an identification of each issue with regard to which the applicant believes that the position of the FDIC in the proceeding was not substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(3) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a showing that the demand by the FDIC is substantially in excess of the decision of the administrative law judge and is unreasonable when compared with such decision under the facts and circumstances of the case;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(5) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a statement of the amount of fees and expenses which constitute appropriations paid in advance;
</P>
<P>(6) If the applicant is not an individual, a statement of the number of its employees on the date the proceeding was initiated;
</P>
<P>(7) A description of any affiliated individuals or entities, as defined in § 308.172(c)(5), or a statement that none exist;
</P>
<P>(8) A declaration that the applicant, together with any affiliates, had a net worth not more than the ceiling established for it by § 308.172(b) as of the date the proceeding was initiated;
</P>
<P>(9) For applications filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1), a statement whether the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other matters that the applicant wishes the FDIC to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verification.</I> The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application and supporting documents is true and correct. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37975, Aug. 9, 1991, as amended at 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.177" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.177   Statement of net worth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A statement of net worth must be filed with the application for an award of fees. The statement shall reflect the net worth of the applicant and all affiliates of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> (1) The statement of net worth may be in any form convenient to the applicant which fully discloses all the assets and liabilities of the applicant and all the assets and liabilities of its affiliates, as of the time of the initiation of the adversary adjudication. Unaudited financial statements are acceptable unless the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors otherwise requires. Financial statements or reports to a Federal or state agency, prepared before the initiation of the adversary adjudication for other purposes, and accurate as of a date not more than three months prior to the initiation of the proceeding, are acceptable in establishing net worth as of the time of the initiation of the proceeding, unless the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors otherwise requires. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of applicants or affiliates that are not banks, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the excess of total assets over total liabilities, as of the date the underlying proceeding was initiated, except as adjusted under § 308.172(c)(2). Assets and liabilities of individuals shall include those beneficially owned within the meaning of the FDIC's rules and regulations. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a bank, the portion of the statement of net worth which relates to the bank shall consist of a copy of the bank's last Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed before the initiation of the adversary adjudication. In all cases the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors may call for additional information needed to establish the applicant's net worth as of the initiation of the proceeding. Except as adjusted by additional information that was called for under the preceding sentence, net worth shall be considered for the purposes of this subpart to be the total equity capital (or, in the case of mutual savings banks, the total surplus accounts) as reported, in conformity with applicable instructions and guidelines, on the bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income filed for the last reporting date before the initiation of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement confidential.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board of Directors or required by law, the statement of net worth shall be for the confidential use of counsel for the FDIC, the Board of Directors, and the administrative law judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.178" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.178   Statement of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by a statement fully documenting the fees and expenses for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in work in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services performed. The administrative law judge or the Board of Directors may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.179" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.179   Settlement negotiations.</HEAD>
<P>If counsel for the FDIC and the applicant believe that the issues in a fee application can be settled, they may jointly file with the Administrative Officer with a copy to the administrative law judge a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer under § 308.171 for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the administrative law judge upon the joint request of counsel for the FDIC and the applicant. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2251, Jan. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.180" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.180   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Ordinarily, the determination of a recommended award will be made by the administrative law judge on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or the FDIC, or on his or her own initiative, the administrative law judge may order further proceedings such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings will be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application and will be conducted promptly and expeditiously. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for further proceedings.</I> A request for further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the issues in dispute and shall explain why additional proceedings are necessary. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing.</I> Ordinarily, the administrative law judge shall hold an oral evidentiary hearing only on disputed issues of material fact which cannot be adequately resolved through written submissions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.181" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.181   Recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall file with the Administrative Officer a recommended decision on the fee application not later than 90 days after the filing of the application or 30 days after the conclusion of the hearing, whichever is later. The recommended decision shall include written proposed findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and its status as a prevailing party and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount of the recommended award. The recommended decision shall also include, if at issue, proposed findings on whether the FDIC's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. The administrative law judge shall file the record of the proceeding on the fee application and, at the same time, serve upon each party a copy of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2251, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.182" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.182   Board of Directors action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions to recommended decision.</I> Within 20 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order, the applicant or counsel for the FDIC may file with the Administrative Officer written exceptions thereto. A supporting brief may also be filed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of Board of Directors.</I> The Board of Directors shall render its decision within 60 days after the matter is submitted to it by the Administrative Officer. The Administrative Officer shall furnish copies of the decision and order of the Board of Directors to the parties. Judicial review of the decision and order may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2251, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.183" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.16.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.183   Payment of awards.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award made by the Board of Directors shall submit to the Administrative Officer a statement that the applicant will not seek judicial review of the decision and order or that the time for seeking further review has passed and no further review has been sought. The FDIC will pay the amount awarded within 30 days after receiving the applicant's statement, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 2251, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Issuance and Review of Orders Pursuant to the Prompt Corrective Action Provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 8109, Feb. 3, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.200" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.200   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to FDIC-supervised institutions and senior executive officers and directors of the same that are subject to the provisions of section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 38) (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and subpart H of part 324 of this chapter. For purposes of this subpart, the term “FDIC-supervised institution” means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.201" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.201   Directives to take prompt corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue directive</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC shall provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution prior written notice of the FDIC's intention to issue a directive requiring such FDIC-supervised institution to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the FDIC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38 (e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). The FDIC-supervised institution shall have such time to respond to a proposed directive as provided by the FDIC under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final directive.</I> If the FDIC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act, the FDIC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue a directive requiring an FDIC-supervised institution immediately to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in section 38 that are within the FDIC's discretion to require or impose under section 38 of the FDI Act, including section 38 (e)(5), (f)(2), (f)(3), or (f)(5). An FDIC-supervised institution that is subject to such an immediately effective directive may submit a written appeal of the directive to the FDIC. Such an appeal must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the directive, unless the FDIC permits a longer period. The FDIC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the directive shall remain in effect unless the FDIC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the directive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to issue a directive shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital measures and capital levels;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the FDIC proposes to impose or require;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of such affirmative actions; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the FDIC-supervised institution subject to the directive may file with the FDIC a written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice</I>—(1) <I>Time for response.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue a directive within the time period set by the FDIC. The date shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the FDIC-supervised institution or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the FDIC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 38;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed directive; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the FDIC-supervised institution regarding the proposed directive.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FDIC consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the FDIC may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and so notify the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the FDIC-supervised institution or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by an FDIC-supervised institution to file with the FDIC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed directive shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the directive.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for modification or rescission of directive.</I> Any FDIC-supervised institution that is subject to a directive under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the terms of the directive and may propose that the directive be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the directive shall continue in place while such request is pending before the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.202" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.202   Procedures for reclassifying an FDIC-supervised institution based on criteria other than capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice</I>—(1) <I>Issuance of notice of proposed reclassification</I>—(i) <I>Grounds for reclassification.</I> (A) Pursuant to § 324.403(d) of this chapter, the FDIC may reclassify a well-capitalized FDIC-supervised institution as adequately capitalized or subject an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized institution to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capital category if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The FDIC, pursuant to section 8(b)(8) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(8)), deems the FDIC-supervised institution to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice and not to have corrected the deficiency.
</P>
<P>(B) Any action pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) shall be referred to in this section as <I>reclassification.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prior notice to institution.</I> Prior to taking action pursuant to § 324.403(d) of this chapter, the FDIC shall issue and serve on the FDIC-supervised institution a written notice of the FDIC's intention to reclassify it.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify an FDIC-supervised institution based on unsafe or unsound condition shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital measures and capital levels and the category to which the FDIC-supervised institution would be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for reclassification of the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The date by which the FDIC-supervised institution subject to the notice of reclassification may file with the FDIC a written appeal of the proposed reclassification and a request for a hearing, which shall be at least 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the FDIC-supervised institution or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Response to notice of proposed reclassification.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may file a written response to a notice of proposed reclassification within the time period set by the FDIC. The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of why the FDIC-supervised institution is not in an unsafe or unsound condition or otherwise should not be reclassified; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the FDIC-supervised institution regarding the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by an FDIC-supervised institution to file, within the specified time period, a written response with the FDIC to a notice of proposed reclassification shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Request for hearing and presentation of oral testimony or witnesses.</I> The response may include a request for an informal hearing before the FDIC under this section. If the FDIC-supervised institution desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the FDIC-supervised institution shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. A request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request that includes a request for a hearing, the FDIC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the FDIC allows further time at the request of the FDIC-supervised institution. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the FDIC before a presiding officer(s) designated by the FDIC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (i) The FDIC-supervised institution shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument at the hearing. The FDIC-supervised institution may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the FDIC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the FDIC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the FDIC-supervised institution upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(iii) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the FDIC on the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the FDIC will decide whether to reclassify the FDIC-supervised institution and notify the FDIC-supervised institution of the FDIC's decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for rescission of reclassification.</I> Any FDIC-supervised institution that has been reclassified under this section, may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the reclassification and may propose that the reclassification be rescinded and that any directives issued in connection with the reclassification be modified, rescinded, or removed. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the FDIC-supervised institution shall remain subject to the reclassification and to any directives issued in connection with that reclassification while such request is pending before the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.203" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.203   Order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of notice.</I> When the FDIC issues and serves a directive on an FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to § 308.201 requiring the FDIC-supervised institution to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under section 38(f)(2)(F)(ii) of the FDI Act, the FDIC shall also serve a copy of the directive, or the relevant portions of the directive where appropriate, upon the person to be dismissed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response to directive</I>—(1) <I>Request for reinstatement.</I> A director or senior executive officer who has been served with a directive under paragraph (a) of this section (Respondent) may file a written request for reinstatement. The request for reinstatement shall be filed within 10 calendar days of the receipt of the directive by the Respondent, unless further time is allowed by the FDIC at the request of the Respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request; informal hearing.</I> The request for reinstatement shall include reasons why the Respondent should be reinstated and may include a request for an informal hearing before the FDIC under this section. If the Respondent desires to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, the Respondent shall include a request to do so with the request for an informal hearing. The request to present oral testimony or witnesses shall specify the names of the witnesses and the general nature of their expected testimony. Failure to request a hearing shall constitute a waiver of any right to a hearing, and failure to request the opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses shall constitute a waiver of any right or opportunity to present oral testimony or witnesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the dismissal shall remain in effect while a request for reinstatement is pending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order for informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring an FDIC-supervised institution to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the FDIC shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Washington, DC, or at such other place as may be designated by the FDIC, before a presiding officer(s) designated by the FDIC to conduct the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing procedures.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant written materials and to present oral argument. A Respondent may introduce oral testimony and present witnesses only if expressly authorized by the FDIC or the presiding officer(s). Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure in this part apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the FDIC orders that such procedures shall apply.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer(s). The presiding officer(s) may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer(s) may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period (normally five business days) following completion of oral testimony or argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard for review.</I> A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the FDIC-supervised institution would materially strengthen the FDIC-supervised institution's ability:
</P>
<P>(1) To become adequately capitalized, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital level or failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) To correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of classification of the FDIC-supervised institution based on supervisory criteria other than capital, pursuant to section 38(g) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Recommendation of presiding officers.</I> Within 20 calendar days following the date the hearing and the record on the proceeding are closed, the presiding officer(s) shall make a recommendation to the FDIC concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time for decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the FDIC shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and notify the Respondent of the FDIC's decision. If the FDIC denies the request for reinstatement, the FDIC shall set forth in the notification the reasons for the FDIC's action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.204" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.17.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.204   Enforcement of directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever an FDIC-supervised institution fails to comply with a directive issued under section 38, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(1)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>Failure to comply with directive.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the FDIC may assess a civil money penalty against any FDIC-supervised institution that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under section 38 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</I> The failure of an FDIC-supervised institution to implement a capital restoration plan required under section 38, or subpart H of part 324 of this chapter, or the failure of a company having control of an FDIC-supervised institution to fulfill a guarantee of a capital restoration plan made pursuant to section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act shall subject the FDIC-supervised institution to the assessment of civil money penalties pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 38 or subpart H of part 324 of this chapter through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Submission and Review of Safety and Soundness Compliance Plans and Issuance of Orders To Correct Safety and Soundness Deficiencies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 65906, Oct. 28,2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.300" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.300   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to insured state nonmember banks, to state-licensed insured branches of foreign banks, that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (section 39) (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), and to state savings associations (in aggregate, bank or banks and state savings association or state savings associations).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.301" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.301   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 39 of the FDI Act requires the FDIC to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, a bank or savings association may be required to submit a compliance plan if it is not in compliance with a safety and soundness standard established by guideline under section 39(a) or (b). An enforceable order under section 8 of the FDI Act may be issued if, after being notified that it is in violation of a safety and soundness standard established under section 39, the bank or savings association fails to submit an acceptable compliance plan or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan. This subpart establishes procedures for requiring submission of a compliance plan and issuing an enforceable order pursuant to section 39.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.302" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.302   Determination and notification of failure to meet a safety and soundness standard and request for compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination.</I> The FDIC may, based upon an examination, inspection or any other information that becomes available to the FDIC, determine that a bank or state savings association has failed to satisfy the safety and soundness standards set out in part 364 of this chapter and in the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness in appendix A and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards in appendix B to part 364 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for compliance plan.</I> If the FDIC determines that a bank or state savings association has failed a safety and soundness standard pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the FDIC may request, by letter or through a report of examination, the submission of a compliance plan and the bank or state savings association shall be deemed to have notice of the request three days after mailing of the letter by the FDIC or delivery of the report of examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.303" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.303   Filing of safety and soundness compliance plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank or state savings association shall file a written safety and soundness compliance plan with the FDIC within 30 days of receiving a request for a compliance plan pursuant to § 308.302(b), unless the FDIC notifies the bank or state savings association in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other plans.</I> If a bank or state savings association is obligated to file, or is currently operating under, a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act, a formal or informal agreement, or a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of the FDIC, submit a compliance plan under this section as part of that plan, order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> The compliance plan shall include a description of the steps the bank or state savings association will take to correct the deficiency and the time within which those steps will be taken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of safety and soundness compliance plans.</I> Within 30 days after receiving a safety and soundness compliance plan under this subpart, the FDIC shall provide written notice to the bank or state savings association of whether the plan has been approved or seek additional information from the bank or state savings association regarding the plan. The FDIC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan will be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to submit or implement a compliance plan</I>—(1) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> If a bank or state savings association fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time specified by the FDIC or fails in any material respect to implement a compliance plan, then the FDIC shall, by order, require the bank or state savings association to correct the deficiency and may take further actions provided in section 39(e)(2)(B). Pursuant to section 39(e)(3), the FDIC may be required to take certain actions if the bank or state savings association commenced operations or experienced a change in control within the previous 24-month period, or the bank or state savings association experienced extraordinary growth during the previous 18-month period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extraordinary growth.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, extraordinary growth means an increase in assets of more than 7.5 percent during any quarter within the 18-month period preceding the issuance of a request for submission of a compliance plan, by a bank or state savings association that is not well capitalized for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act. For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved pursuant to the Bank Merger Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(c)) will be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment of compliance plan.</I> A bank or state savings association that has filed an approved compliance plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the FDIC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the bank or state savings association shall implement the compliance plan as previously approved.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.304" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.304   Issuance of orders to correct deficiencies and to take or refrain from taking other actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue order</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC shall provide a bank or state savings association prior written notice of the FDIC's intention to issue an order requiring the bank or state savings association to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39 of the FDI Act. The bank or state savings association shall have such time to respond to a proposed order as provided by the FDIC under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of final order.</I> If the FDIC finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of section 39 of the FDI Act, the FDIC may, without providing the notice prescribed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, issue an order requiring a bank or state savings association immediately to take actions to correct a safety and soundness deficiency or take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to section 39. A bank or state savings association that is subject to such an immediately effective order may submit a written appeal of the order to the FDIC. Such an appeal must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days of the issuance of the order, unless the FDIC permits a longer period. The FDIC shall consider any such appeal, if filed in a timely matter, within 60 days of receiving the appeal. During such period of review, the order shall remain in effect unless the FDIC, in its sole discretion, stays the effectiveness of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intent to issue an order shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the safety and soundness deficiency or deficiencies that have been identified at the bank or state savings association;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that the FDIC proposes to impose or require;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would be effective or the proposed date for completion of any required action; and
</P>
<P>(4) The date by which the bank or state savings association subject to the order may file with the FDIC a written response to the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response to notice</I>—(1) <I>Time for response.</I> A bank or state savings association may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order within the time period set by the FDIC. Such a response must be received by the FDIC within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice unless the FDIC determines that a different period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the bank or state savings association or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of response.</I> The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation why the action proposed by the FDIC is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under section 39;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the position of the bank or state savings association regarding the proposed order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agency consideration of response.</I> After considering the response, the FDIC may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the order and so notify the bank or state savings association; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the bank or state savings association, or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> Failure by a bank or state savings association to file with the FDIC, within the specified time period, a written response to a proposed order shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and shall constitute consent to the issuance of the order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for modification of rescission of order.</I> Any bank or state savings association that is subject to an order under this subpart may, upon a change in circumstances, request in writing that the FDIC reconsider the terms of the order, and may propose that the order be rescinded or modified. Unless otherwise ordered by the FDIC, the order shall continue in place while such request is pending before the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.305" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.18.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.305   Enforcement of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a bank or state savings association fails to comply with an order issued under section 39, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the order in the appropriate United States district court pursuant to section 8(i)(1) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with order.</I> Pursuant to section 8(i)(2)(A) of the FDI Act, the FDIC may assess a civil money penalty against any bank or state savings association that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final order issued under section 39 and against any institution-affiliated party who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the provisions of section 39 or this part through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Applications for a Stay or Review of Actions of Bank Clearing Agencies</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 48403, Sept. 11, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.400" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.19.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.400   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart is issued by the Corporation pursuant to sections 17A(b)(3)(g), 17A(b)(5)(C), 19 and 23 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act), as amended (15 U.S.C. 78q-1 (b)(3)(g), (b)(5)(C), 78s, 78w). It applies to applications by banks insured by the Corporation (other than members of the Federal Reserve System) for a stay or review of certain actions by clearing agencies registered under the Exchange Act, for which the Securities and Exchange Commission (Commission) is not the appropriate regulatory agency under section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Exchange Act (bank clearing agencies). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.401" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.19.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.401   Applications for stays of disciplinary sanctions or summary suspensions by a bank clearing agency.</HEAD>
<P>Applications to the Corporation for a stay of disciplinary action imposed by registered clearing agencies pursuant to section 17(b)(3)(G) of the Exchange Act, or summary suspension or limitation or prohibition of access under section 17(b)(5)(C) of the Exchange Act shall be made according to the rules adopted by the Commission (17 CFR 240.19d-2). References to the “Commission” in 17 CFR 240.19d-2 are deemed to refer to the “Corporation.” 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.402" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.19.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.402   Applications for review of final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by bank clearing agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings on an application to the Corporation under section 19(d)(2) of the Exchange Act for review of any final disciplinary sanctions, denials of participation, or prohibitions or limitations of access to services imposed by bank clearing agencies shall be conducted according to the procedures set forth in rules adopted by the Commission (17 CFR 240.19d-3). References to the “Commission” in 17 CFR 240.19d-3 are deemed to refer to the “Corporation.” 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="T" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart T—Program Fraud Civil Remedies and Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 9189, Feb. 7, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.500" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.500   Basis, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis.</I> This subpart implements the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act, Pub. L. 99-509, sections 6101-6104, 100 Stat. 1874 (October 21, 1986), codified at 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812, (PFCRA) and made applicable to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) by section 23 of the Resolution Trust Corporation Completion Act (Pub. L. 103-204, 107 Stat. 2369). 31 U.S.C. 3809 of the statute requires each Authority head to promulgate regulations necessary to implement the provisions of the statute. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart: 
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present or cause to be made, submitted, or presented false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to the FDIC or to its agents; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies only to persons who make, submit, or present or cause to be made, submitted, or presented false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to the FDIC or to its agents acting on behalf of the FDIC in connection with FDIC employment matters, FDIC contracting activities, and the FDIC Asset Purchaser Certification Program. It does not apply to false claims or statements made in connection with programs (other than as set forth in the preceding sentence) related to the FDIC's regulatory, supervision, enforcement, insurance, receivership or liquidation responsibilities. The FDIC is restricting the scope of applicability of this subpart because other civil and administrative remedies are adequate to redress fraud in the areas not covered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.501" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.501   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative Law Judge (ALJ)</I> means the presiding officer appointed by the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818 note and 5 U.S.C. 3105. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority head</I> or <I>Board</I> means the Board of Directors of the FDIC, which is herein designated by the Chairman of the FDIC to serve as head of the FDIC for PFCRA matters. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Benefit</I> means, in the context of “statement” as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3801(a)(9), any financial assistance received from the FDIC that amounts to $150,000 or less. The term does not include the FDIC's deposit insurance program. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Claim</I> means any request, demand, or submission: 
</P>
<P>(1) Made to the FDIC for property, services, or money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits); 
</P>
<P>(2) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from the FDIC or to a party to a contract with the FDIC; 
</P>
<P>(i) For property or services if the United States: 
</P>
<P>(A) Provided such property or services; 
</P>
<P>(B) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the payment of money (including money representing grants, loans, insurance, or benefits) if the United States: 
</P>
<P>(A) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Made to the FDIC that has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Complaint</I> means the administrative complaint served by the reviewing official on the defendant under § 308.506 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Defendant</I> means any person alleged in a complaint under § 308.506 of this subpart to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 308.502 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Government</I> means the United States Government. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Individual</I> means a natural person. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Initial decision</I> means the written decision of the ALJ required by § 308.509 or § 308.536 of this subpart, and includes a revised initial decision issued following a remand or a motion for consideration. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Investigating official</I> means the Inspector General of the FDIC, or an officer or employee of the Inspector General designated by the Inspector General. The investigating official must serve in a position that has a rate of basic pay under the pay scale utilized by the FDIC that is equal to or greater than 120 percent of the minimum rate of basic pay for grade 15 under the federal government's General Schedule. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Knows or has reason to know,</I> means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; 
</P>
<P>(2) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Makes,</I> wherever it appears, includes the terms “presents”, “submits”, and “causes to be made, presented, or submitted.” As the context requires, “making” or “made” likewise includes the corresponding forms of such terms. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization, and includes the plural of that term. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Representative</I> means an attorney, who is a member in good standing of the bar of any state, territory, or possession of the United States or of the District of Columbia or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and designated by a party in writing. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Reviewing official</I> means the General Counsel of the FDIC or his designee who is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not subject to supervision by, or required to report to, the investigating official; 
</P>
<P>(2) Not employed in the organizational unit of the FDIC in which the investigating official is employed; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Serving in a position that has a rate of basic pay under the pay scale utilized by the FDIC that is equal to or greater than 120 percent of the minimum rate of basic pay for grade 15 under the federal government's General Schedule. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Statement</I> means any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made: 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for): 
</P>
<P>(i) A contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A grant, loan, or benefit received, directly or indirectly, from the FDIC, or any state, political subdivision of a state, or other party, if the United States government provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit, or if the government will reimburse such state, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such grant, loan, or benefit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.502" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.502   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Claims.</I> (1) A person who makes a false, fictitious, or fraudulent claim to the FDIC is subject to a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per claim. A claim is false, fictitious, or fraudulent if the person making the claim knows, or has reason to know, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The claim is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim includes, or is supported by, a written statement that asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious or fraudulent; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The claim includes, or is supported by, a written statement that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Omits a material fact; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of that omission; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Is a statement in which the person making the statement has a duty to include the material fact; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) The claim seeks payment for providing property or services that the person has not provided as claimed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim. 
</P>
<P>(3) A claim will be considered made to the FDIC, recipient, or party when the claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any state or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the FDIC, recipient, or party. 
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money that constitutes any one of the elements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is subject to a civil penalty regardless of whether the property, services, or money is actually delivered or paid. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the FDIC has made any payment (including transferred property or provided services) on a claim, a person subject to a civil penalty under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will also be subject to an assessment of not more than twice the amount of such claim (or portion of the claim) that is determined to constitute a false, fictitious, or fraudulent claim under paragraph (a)(1) of this section. The assessment will be in lieu of damages sustained by the FDIC because of the claims. 
</P>
<P>(6) The amount of any penalty assessed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be adjusted for inflation in accordance with § 308.132(d).
</P>
<P>(7) The penalty specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is in addition to any other remedy allowable by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statements.</I> (1) A person who submits to the FDIC a false, fictitious or fraudulent statement is subject to a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per statement. A statement is false, fictitious or fraudulent if the person submitting the statement to the FDIC knows, or has reason to know, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The statement asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement omits a material fact that the person making the statement has a duty to include in the statement; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The statement contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement. 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement will be considered made to the FDIC when the statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, including any state or political subdivision thereof, acting for or on behalf of the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of any penalty assessed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section will be adjusted for inflation in accordance with § 308.132(d).
</P>
<P>(5) The penalty specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is in addition to any other remedy allowable by law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to file declaration/certification.</I> Where, as a prerequisite to conducting business with the FDIC, a person is required by law to file one or more declarations and/or certifications, and the person intentionally fails to file such declaration/certification, the person will be subject to the civil penalties as prescribed by this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) Civil money penalties that are assessed under this subpart are subject to annual adjustments to account for inflation as required by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74, sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584) (<I>see also</I> 12 CFR 308.132(d)(17)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liability.</I> (1) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim or statement under this section, each such person may be held jointly and severally liable for a civil penalty under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) In any case in which it is determined that more than one person is liable for making a claim under this section on which the FDIC has made payment (including transferred property or provided services), an assessment may be imposed against any such person or jointly and severally against any combination of such persons. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 9189, Feb. 7, 2001, as amended at 81 FR 42242, June 29, 2016; 83 FR 61115, Nov. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.503" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.503   Investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an investigating official concludes that a subpoena pursuant to the authority conferred by 31 U.S.C. 3804(a) is warranted: 
</P>
<P>(1) The subpoena will identify the person to whom it is addressed and the authority under which the subpoena is issued and will identify the records or documents sought; 
</P>
<P>(2) The investigating official may designate a person to act on his or her behalf to receive the documents sought; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The person receiving such subpoena will be required to provide the investigating official or the person designated to receive the documents a certification that the documents sought have been produced, or that such documents are not available, and the reasons therefor, or that such documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the investigating official concludes that an action under the PFCRA may be warranted, the investigating official will submit a report containing the findings and conclusions of such investigation to the reviewing official. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section will preclude or limit an investigating official's discretion to refer allegations directly to the United States Department of Justice (DOJ) for suit under the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3729 <I>et seq.</I>) or other civil relief, or to preclude or limit the investigating official's discretion to defer or postpone a report or referral to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section modifies any responsibility of an investigating official to report violations of criminal law to the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.504" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.504   Review by the reviewing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, based on the report of the investigating official under § 308.503(b) of this subpart, the reviewing official determines that there is adequate evidence to believe that a person is liable under § 308.502 of this subpart, the reviewing official will transmit to the Attorney General a written notice of the reviewing official's intention to issue a complaint under § 308.506 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) Such notice will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reviewing official's reasons for issuing a complaint; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement specifying the evidence that supports the allegations of liability; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the claims or statements upon which the allegations of liability are based; 
</P>
<P>(4) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 308.502 of this subpart; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claims or statements known by the reviewing official or the investigating official; and 
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments. Such a statement may be based upon information then known, or upon an absence of any information indicating that the person may be unable to pay such amount. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.505" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.505   Prerequisites for issuing a complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The reviewing official may issue a complaint under § 308.506 of this subpart only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The DOJ approves the issuance of a complaint in a written statement described in 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1); and 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of allegations of liability under § 308.502(a) of this subpart with respect to a claim (or a group of related claims submitted at the same time as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) the reviewing official determines that the amount of money or the value of property or services demanded or requested does not exceed $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section, a group of related claims submitted at the same time will include only those claims arising from the same transaction (e.g., grant, loan, application, or contract) that are submitted simultaneously as part of a single request, demand, or submission. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section will be construed to limit the reviewing official's authority to join in a single complaint against a person claims that are unrelated or were not submitted simultaneously, regardless of the amount of money, or the value of property or services, demanded or requested. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.506" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.506   Complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On or after the date the DOJ approves the issuance of a complaint in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(b)(1), the reviewing official may serve a complaint on the defendant, as provided in § 308.507 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) The complaint will state: 
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the defendant, including the statutory basis for liability, or identification of the claims or statements that are the basis for the alleged liability, and the reasons why liability allegedly arises from such claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum amount of penalties and assessments for which the defendant may be held liable; 
</P>
<P>(3) Instructions for filing an answer and to request a hearing, including a specific statement of the defendant's right to request a hearing by filing an answer and to be represented by a representative; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That failure to file an answer within 30 days of service of the complaint will result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments without right to appeal, as provided in § 308.509 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) At the same time the reviewing official serves the complaint, he or she will provide the defendant with a copy of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.507" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.507   Service of complaint.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Service of a complaint will be made by certified or registered mail or by delivery in any manner authorized by rule 4(c) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. App.). Service is complete upon receipt. 
</P>
<P>(b) Proof of service, stating the name and address of the person on whom the complaint was served, and the manner and date of service, may be made by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Affidavit of the individual serving the complaint by delivery; 
</P>
<P>(2) A United States Postal Service return receipt card acknowledging receipt; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Written acknowledgment of receipt by the defendant or his or her representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.508" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.508   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The defendant may request a hearing by filing an answer with the reviewing official within 30 days of service of the complaint. An answer will be deemed to be a request for hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the answer, the defendant: 
</P>
<P>(1) Must admit or deny each of the allegations of liability made in the complaint; 
</P>
<P>(2) Must state any defense on which the defendant intends to rely; 
</P>
<P>(3) May state any reasons why the defendant contends that the penalties and assessments should be less than the statutory maximum; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Must state the name, address, and telephone number of the person authorized by the defendant to act as defendant's representative, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant is unable to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within the time provided: 
</P>
<P>(1) The defendant may, before the expiration of 30 days from service of the complaint, file with the reviewing official a general answer denying liability and requesting a hearing, and a request for an extension of time within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) The reviewing official will file promptly with the ALJ the complaint, the general answer denying liability, and the request for an extension of time as provided in § 308.510 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) For good cause shown, the ALJ may grant the defendant up to 30 additional days within which to file an answer meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.509" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.509   Default upon failure to file an answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the defendant does not file an answer within the time prescribed in § 308.508(a) of this subpart, the reviewing official may refer the complaint to the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the referral of the complaint, the ALJ will promptly serve on defendant in the manner prescribed in § 308.507 of this subpart, a notice that an initial decision will be issued under this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant fails to answer, the ALJ will assume the facts alleged in the complaint to be true, and, if such facts establish liability under § 308.502 of this subpart, the ALJ will issue an initial decision imposing the maximum amount of penalties and assessments allowed under the statute. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except as otherwise provided in this section, by failing to file a timely answer, the defendant waives any right to further review of the penalties and assessments imposed under paragraph (c) of this section, and the initial decision will become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after it is issued. 
</P>
<P>(e) If, before such an initial decision becomes final, the defendant files a motion with the ALJ seeking to reopen on the grounds that extraordinary circumstances prevented the defendant from filing an answer, the initial decision will be stayed pending the ALJ's decision on the motion. 
</P>
<P>(f) If, in the motion to reopen under paragraph (e) of this section, the defendant can demonstrate extraordinary circumstances excusing the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will withdraw the initial decision in paragraph (c) of this section, if such a decision has been issued, and will grant the defendant an opportunity to answer the complaint. 
</P>
<P>(g) A decision of the ALJ denying a defendant's motion to reopen under paragraph (e) of this section is not subject to reconsideration under § 308.537 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(h) The decision denying the motion to reopen under paragraph (e) of this section may be appealed by the defendant to the Board by filing a notice of appeal with the Board within 15 days after the ALJ denies the motion. The timely filing of a notice of appeal will stay the initial decision until the Board decides the issue. 
</P>
<P>(i) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the Board, the ALJ will forward the record of the proceeding to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(j) The Board will decide whether extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer based solely on the record before the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(k) If the Board decides that extraordinary circumstances excuse the defendant's failure to file a timely answer, the Board will remand the case to the ALJ with instructions to grant the defendant an opportunity to answer. 
</P>
<P>(l) If the Board decides that the defendant's failure to file a timely answer is not excused, the Board will reinstate the initial decision of the ALJ, which will become final and binding upon the parties 30 days after the Board issues such decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.510" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.510   Referral of complaint and answer to the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of an answer, the reviewing official will file the complaint and answer with the ALJ. The reviewing official will include the name, address, and telephone number of a representative of the Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.511" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.511   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the ALJ receives the complaint and answer, the ALJ will promptly serve a notice of hearing upon the defendant in the manner prescribed by § 308.507 of this subpart. At the same time, the ALJ will send a copy of such notice to the representative of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The notice will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The tentative time, date, and place, and the nature of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(2) The legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held; 
</P>
<P>(3) The matters of fact and law to be asserted; 
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the procedures for the conduct of the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the representative of the Corporation and of the defendant, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Other matters as the ALJ deems appropriate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.512" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.512   Parties to the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The parties to the hearing will be the defendant and the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Pursuant to the False Claims Act (31 U.S.C. 3730(c)(5)), a private plaintiff under the False Claims Act may participate in these proceedings to the extent authorized by the provisions of that Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.513" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.513   Separation of functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The investigating official, the reviewing official, and any employee or agent of the FDIC who takes part in investigating, preparing, or presenting a particular case may not, in such case or a factually related case: 
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in the hearing as the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(2) Participate or advise in the initial decision or the review of the initial decision by the Board, except as a witness or a representative in public proceedings; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Make the collection of penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ will not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, the investigating official or the reviewing official. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the representative for the FDIC will be an attorney employed in the FDIC's Legal Division; however, the representative of the FDIC may not participate or advise in the review of the initial decision by the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.514" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.514   Ex parte contacts.</HEAD>
<P>No party or person (except employees of the ALJ's office) will communicate in any way with the ALJ on any matter at issue in a case, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. This provision does not prohibit a person or party from inquiring about the status of a case or asking routine questions concerning administrative functions or procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.515" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.515   Disqualification of reviewing official or ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A reviewing official or ALJ in a particular case may disqualify himself or herself at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) A party may file with the ALJ a motion for disqualification of a reviewing official or an ALJ. An affidavit alleging conflict of interest or other reason for disqualification must accompany the motion. 
</P>
<P>(c) Such motion and affidavit must be filed promptly upon the party's discovery of reasons requiring disqualification, or such objections will be deemed waived. 
</P>
<P>(d) Such affidavit must state specific facts that support the party's belief that personal bias or other reason for disqualification exists and the time and circumstances of the party's discovery of such facts. The representative of record must certify that the affidavit is made in good faith and this certification must accompany the affidavit. 
</P>
<P>(e) Upon the filing of such a motion and affidavit, the ALJ will proceed no further in the case until he or she resolves the matter of disqualification in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) If the ALJ determines that a reviewing official is disqualified, the ALJ will dismiss the complaint without prejudice. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the ALJ disqualifies himself or herself, the case will be reassigned promptly to another ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the ALJ denies a motion to disqualify, the Board may determine the matter only as part of the Board's review of the initial decision upon appeal, if any. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.516" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.516   Rights of parties.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise limited by this subpart, all parties may: 
</P>
<P>(a) Be accompanied, represented, and advised by a representative; 
</P>
<P>(b) Participate in any conference held by the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(c) Conduct discovery; 
</P>
<P>(d) Agree to stipulations of fact or law which will be made part of the record; 
</P>
<P>(e) Present evidence relevant to the issues at the hearing; 
</P>
<P>(f) Present and cross-examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(g) Present oral arguments at the hearing as permitted by the ALJ; and 
</P>
<P>(h) Submit written briefs and proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.517" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.517   Authority of the ALJ.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid delay, maintain order, and assure that a record of the proceeding is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ALJ has the authority to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Set and change the date, time, and place of the hearing upon reasonable notice to the parties; 
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time; 
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to identify or simplify the issues, or to consider other matters that may aid in the expeditious disposition of the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(5) Issue subpoenas requiring the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents at depositions or at hearings; 
</P>
<P>(6) Rule on motions and other procedural matters; 
</P>
<P>(7) Regulate the scope and timing of discovery; 
</P>
<P>(8) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties; 
</P>
<P>(9) Examine witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(10) Receive, rule on, exclude, or limit evidence; 
</P>
<P>(11) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts, decide cases, in whole or in part, by summary judgment where there is no disputed issue of material fact; 
</P>
<P>(12) Conduct any conference, argument, or hearing on motions in person or by telephone; and 
</P>
<P>(13) Exercise such other authority as is necessary to carry out the responsibilities of the ALJ under this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ does not have the authority to make any determinations regarding the validity of federal statutes or regulations or of directives, rules, resolutions, policies, orders or other such general pronouncements issued by the Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.518" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.518   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may schedule prehearing conferences as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the motion of any party, the ALJ will schedule at least one prehearing conference at a reasonable time in advance of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ may use prehearing conferences to discuss the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(2) The necessity or desirability of amendments to the pleading, including the need for a more definite statement; 
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations and admissions of fact as to the contents and authenticity of documents; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the parties can agree to submission of the case on a stipulated record; 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether a party chooses (subject to the objection of other parties) to waive appearance at an oral hearing and to submit only documentary evidence and written argument; 
</P>
<P>(6) Limitation of the number of witnesses; 
</P>
<P>(7) Scheduling dates for the exchange of witness lists and of proposed exhibits; 
</P>
<P>(8) Discovery; 
</P>
<P>(9) The time, date, and place for the hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Such other matters as may tend to expedite the fair and just disposition of the proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may issue an order containing all matters agreed upon by the parties or ordered by the ALJ at a prehearing conference. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.519" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.519   Disclosure of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant may review any relevant and material documents, transcripts, records, and other materials that relate to the allegations set out in the complaint and upon which the findings and conclusions of the investigating official under § 308.503(b) of this subpart are based, unless such documents are subject to a privilege under federal law. Upon payment of fees for duplication, the defendant may obtain copies of such documents. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request to the reviewing official, the defendant also may obtain a copy of all exculpatory information in the possession of the reviewing official or investigating official relating to the allegations in the complaint, even if it is contained in a document that would otherwise be privileged. If the document would otherwise be privileged, only that portion containing exculpatory information must be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The notice sent to the Attorney General from the reviewing official as described in § 308.504 of this subpart is not discoverable under any circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(d) The defendant may file a motion to compel disclosure of the documents subject to the provisions of this section. Such a motion may only be filed with the ALJ following the filing of an answer pursuant to § 308.508 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.520" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.520   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following types of discovery are authorized: 
</P>
<P>(1) Requests for production of documents for inspection and copying; 
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for admission of the authenticity of any relevant document or of the truth of any relevant fact; 
</P>
<P>(3) Written interrogatories; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Depositions. 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section and §§ 308.521 and 308.522 of this subpart, the term <I>documents</I> includes information, documents, reports, answers, records, accounts, papers, and other data or documentary evidence. Nothing contained in this subpart will be interpreted to require the creation of a document. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless mutually agreed to by the parties, discovery is available only as ordered by the ALJ. The ALJ will regulate the timing of discovery. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions for discovery.</I> (1) A party seeking discovery may file a motion with the ALJ and a copy of the requested discovery, or in the case of depositions, a summary of the scope of the proposed deposition, must accompany such motions. 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 10 days of service, a party may file an opposition to the motion and/or a motion for protective order as provided in § 308.523 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ may grant a motion for discovery only if he or she finds that the discovery sought: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary for the expeditious, fair, and reasonable consideration of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not unduly costly or burdensome; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Will not unduly delay the proceeding; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not seek privileged information. 
</P>
<P>(4) The burden of showing that discovery should be allowed is on the party seeking discovery. 
</P>
<P>(5) The ALJ may grant discovery subject to a protective order under § 308.523 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dispositions.</I> (1) If a motion for deposition is granted, the ALJ will issue a subpoena for the deponent, which may require the deponent to produce documents. The subpoena will specify the time, date, and place at which the deposition will be held. 
</P>
<P>(2) The party seeking to depose must serve the subpoena in the manner prescribed in § 308.507 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(3) The deponent may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena or a motion for a protective order within 10 days of service. 
</P>
<P>(4) The party seeking to depose must provide for the taking of a verbatim transcript of the deposition, and must make the transcript available to all other parties for inspection and copying. 
</P>
<P>(f) Each party must bear its own costs of discovery. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.521" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.521   Exchange of witness lists, statements, and exhibits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least 15 days before the hearing or at such other time as may be ordered by the ALJ, the parties must exchange witness lists, copies of prior statements of proposed witnesses, and copies of proposed hearing exhibits, including copies of any written statements that the party intends to offer in lieu of live testimony in accordance with § 308.532(b) of this subpart. At the time such documents are exchanged, any party that intends to rely on the transcript of deposition testimony in lieu of live testimony at the hearing, if permitted by the ALJ, must provide each party with a copy of the specific pages of the transcript it intends to introduce into evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) If a party objects, the ALJ will not admit into evidence the testimony of any witness whose name does not appear on the witness list or any exhibit not provided to the opposing party as provided in paragraph (a) of this section unless the ALJ finds good cause for the failure or that there is no prejudice to the objecting party. 
</P>
<P>(c) Unless another party objects within the time set by the ALJ, documents exchanged in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section will be deemed to be authentic for the purpose of admissibility at the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.522" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.522   Subpoenas for attendance at hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party wishing to procure the appearance and testimony of any individual at the hearing may request that the ALJ issue a subpoena. 
</P>
<P>(b) A subpoena requiring the attendance and testimony of an individual may also require the individual to produce documents at the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) A party seeking a subpoena must file a written request not less than 15 days before the date fixed for the hearing unless otherwise allowed by the ALJ for good cause shown. Such request must specify any documents to be produced and must designate the witnesses and describe the address and location thereof with sufficient particularity to permit such witnesses to be found. 
</P>
<P>(d) The subpoena must specify the time, date, and place at which the witness is to appear and any documents the witness is to produce. 
</P>
<P>(e) The party seeking the subpoena must serve it in the manner prescribed in § 308.507 of this subpart. A subpoena on a party or upon an individual under the control of a party may be served by first class mail. 
</P>
<P>(f) A party or the individual to whom the subpoena is directed may file with the ALJ a motion to quash the subpoena within 10 days after service or on or before the time specified in the subpoena for compliance if it is less than 10 days after service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.523" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.523   Protective order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party or a prospective witness or deponent may file a motion for a protective order with respect to discovery sought by an opposing party or with respect to the hearing, seeking to limit the availability or disclosure of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) In issuing a protective order, the ALJ may make any order which justice requires to protect a party or person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden or expense, including one or more of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the discovery will not be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(2) That the discovery will be conducted only on specified terms and conditions, including a designation of the time or place; 
</P>
<P>(3) That the discovery will be conducted only through a method of discovery other than that requested; 
</P>
<P>(4) That certain matters not be inquired into, or that the scope of discovery be limited to certain matters; 
</P>
<P>(5) That discovery be conducted with no one present except persons designated by the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(6) That the contents of discovery or evidence be sealed or otherwise kept confidential; 
</P>
<P>(7) That a deposition after being sealed be opened only by order of the ALJ; 
</P>
<P>(8) That a trade secret or other confidential research, development, commercial information, or facts pertaining to any criminal investigation, proceeding, or other administrative investigation not be disclosed or be disclosed only in a designated way; or 
</P>
<P>(9) That the parties simultaneously file specified documents or information enclosed in sealed envelopes to be opened as directed by the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.524" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.524   Witness fees.</HEAD>
<P>The party requesting a subpoena must pay the cost of the fees and mileage of any witness subpoenaed in the amounts that would be payable to a witness in a proceeding in United States District Court. A check for witness fees and mileage must accompany the subpoena when served, except that when a subpoena is issued on behalf of the FDIC, a check for witness fees and mileage need not accompany the subpoena. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.525" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.525   Form, filing, and service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> (1) Documents filed with the ALJ must include an original and two copies. 
</P>
<P>(2) Every pleading and paper filed in the proceeding must contain a caption setting forth the title of the action, the case number assigned by the ALJ, and a designation of the paper (e.g., motion to quash subpoena). 
</P>
<P>(3) Every pleading and paper must be signed by, and must contain the address and telephone number of the party or the person on whose behalf the paper was filed, or his or her representative. 
</P>
<P>(4) Papers are considered filed when they are mailed by certified or registered mail. Date of mailing may be established by a certificate from the party or its representative or by proof that the document was sent by certified or registered mail. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A party filing a document with the ALJ must, at the time of filing, serve a copy of such document on every other party. Service upon any party of any document other than those required to be served as prescribed in § 308.507 of this subpart must be made by delivering a copy or by placing a copy of the document in the United States mail, postage prepaid, and addressed to the party's last known address. When a party is represented by a representative, service must be made upon such representative in lieu of the actual party. The ALJ may authorize facsimile transmission as an acceptable form of service. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Proof of service.</I> A certificate by the individual serving the document by personal delivery or by mail, setting forth the manner of service, will be proof of service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.526" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.526   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In computing any period of time under this subpart or in an order issued thereunder, the time begins with the day following the act, event, or default, and includes the last day of the period, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday observed by the federal government, in which event it includes the next business day. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the period of time allowed is less than 7 days, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays observed by the federal government will be excluded from the computation. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where a document has been served or issued by placing it in the mail, an additional 5 days will be added to the time permitted for any response. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.527" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.527   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application to the ALJ for an order or ruling must be by motion. Motions must state the relief sought, the authority relied upon, and the facts alleged, and must be filed with the ALJ and served on all other parties. Motions may include, without limitation, motions for summary judgment. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except for motions made during a prehearing conference or at the hearing, all motions must be in writing. The ALJ may require that oral motions be reduced to writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within 15 days after a written motion is served, or any other time as may be fixed by the ALJ, any party may file a response to such motion. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ may not grant a written motion before the time for filing responses thereto has expired, except upon consent of the parties or following a hearing on the motion, but may overrule or deny such motion without awaiting a response. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ will make a reasonable effort to dispose of all outstanding motions prior to the beginning of the hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.528" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.528   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ may sanction a person, including any party or representative for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Failing to comply with an order, rule, or procedure governing the proceeding; 
</P>
<P>(2) Failing to prosecute or defend an action; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in other misconduct that interferes with the speedy, orderly, or fair conduct of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any such sanction, including but not limited to, those listed in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section, must reasonably relate to the severity and nature of the failure or misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a party fails to comply with an order, including an order for taking a deposition, the production of evidence within the party's control, or a request for admission, the ALJ may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Draw an inference in favor of the requesting party with regard to the information sought; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of requests for admission, deem each matter of which an admission is requested to be admitted; 
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the party failing to comply with such order from introducing evidence concerning, or otherwise relying upon, testimony relating to the information sought; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Strike any part of the related pleading or other submissions of the party failing to comply with such request. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a party fails to prosecute or defend an action under this subpart commenced by service of a notice of hearing, the ALJ may dismiss the action or may issue an initial decision imposing penalties and assessments. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may refuse to consider any motion, request, response, brief, or other document which is not filed in a timely fashion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.529" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.529   The hearing and burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will conduct a hearing on the record in order to determine whether the defendant is liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 308.502 of this subpart, and, if so, the appropriate amount of any such civil penalty or assessment considering any aggravating or mitigating factors. 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC must prove defendant's liability and any aggravating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) The defendant must prove any affirmative defenses and any mitigating factors by a preponderance of the evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing will be open to the public unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ for good cause shown. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.530" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.530   Determining the amount of penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In determining an appropriate amount of civil penalties and assessments, the ALJ and the Board, upon appeal, should evaluate any circumstances that mitigate or aggravate the violation and should articulate in their opinions the reasons that support the penalties and assessments they impose. Because of the intangible costs of fraud, the expense of investigating such conduct, and the need to deter others who might be similarly tempted, ordinarily double damages and a significant civil penalty should be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Although not exhaustive, the following factors are among those that may influence the ALJ and the Board in determining the amount of penalties and assessments to impose with respect to the misconduct (<I>i.e.,</I> the false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statement) charged in the complaint: 
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made; 
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the defendant's culpability with respect to the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed; 
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the government's actual loss as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the costs of investigation; 
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the amount imposed as civil penalties to the amount of the government's loss; 
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon national defense, public health or safety, or public confidence in the management of government programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs; 
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the defendant has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the defendant attempted to conceal the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the defendant has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it; 
</P>
<P>(11) Where the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the defendant, the extent to which the defendant's practices fostered or attempted to preclude such misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the defendant cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct; 
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the defendant assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers; 
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the defendant's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the defendant's prior participation in the program or in a similar transaction; 
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the defendant has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a state, directly or indirectly; and 
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the defendant and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section will be construed to limit the ALJ or the Board from considering any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the offense for which penalties and assessments are imposed. 
</P>
<P>(d) Civil money penalties that are assessed under this subpart are subject to annual adjustments to account for inflation as required by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (Pub. L. 114-74, sec. 701, 129 Stat. 584) (<I>see also</I> § 308.132(d)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 9189, Feb. 7, 2001, as amended at 83 FR 61115, Nov. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.531" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.531   Location of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing may be held: 
</P>
<P>(1) In any judicial district of the United States in which the defendant resides or transacts business; 
</P>
<P>(2) In any judicial district of the United States in which the claim or statement at issue was made; or 
</P>
<P>(3) In such other place as may be agreed upon by the defendant and the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each party will have the opportunity to present argument with respect to the location of the hearing. 
</P>
<P>(c) The hearing will be held at the place and at the time ordered by the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.532" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.532   Witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, testimony at the hearing will be given orally by witnesses under oath or affirmation. 
</P>
<P>(b) At the discretion of the ALJ, testimony may be admitted in the form of a written statement or deposition. The party offering a written statement must provide all other parties with a copy of the written statement along with the last known address of the witness. Sufficient time must be allowed for other parties to subpoena the witness for cross-examination at the hearing. Prior written statements and deposition transcripts of witnesses identified to testify at the hearing must be exchanged as provided in § 308.521(a) of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth; 
</P>
<P>(2) Avoid needless consumption of time; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment. 
</P>
<P>(d) The ALJ will permit the parties to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. 
</P>
<P>(e) At the discretion of the ALJ, a witness may be cross-examined on matters relevant to the proceeding without regard to the scope of his or her direct examination. To the extent permitted by the ALJ, cross-examination on matters outside the scope of direct examination will be conducted in the manner of direct examination and may proceed by leading questions only if the witness is a hostile witness, an adverse party, or a witness identified with an adverse party. 
</P>
<P>(f) Upon motion of any party, the ALJ will order witnesses excluded so that they cannot hear the testimony of other witnesses. This rule does not authorize exclusion of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A party who is an individual; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a party that is not an individual, an officer or employee of the party appearing for the entity pro se or designated by the party's representative; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An individual whose presence is shown by a party to be essential to the presentation of its case, including an individual employed by the Corporation engaged in assisting the representative for the Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.533" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.533   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will determine the admissibility of evidence. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in this subpart, the ALJ will not be bound by the Federal Rules of Evidence (28 U.S.C. App.). However, the ALJ may apply the Federal Rules of Evidence where appropriate, e.g., to exclude unreliable evidence. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will exclude irrelevant and immaterial evidence. 
</P>
<P>(d) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or by considerations of undue delay or needless presentation of cumulative evidence. 
</P>
<P>(e) Although relevant, evidence may be excluded if it is privileged under federal law. 
</P>
<P>(f) Evidence concerning offers of compromise or settlement will be inadmissible to the extent provided in rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence. 
</P>
<P>(g) The ALJ will permit the parties to introduce rebuttal witnesses and evidence. 
</P>
<P>(h) All documents and other evidence offered or taken for the record must be open to examination by all parties, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 308.523 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.534" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.534   The record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The hearing will be recorded by audio or videotape and transcribed. Transcripts may be obtained following the hearing from the ALJ at a cost not to exceed the actual cost of duplication. 
</P>
<P>(b) The transcript of testimony, exhibits, and other evidence admitted at the hearing, and all papers and requests filed in the proceeding constitute the record for the decision by the ALJ and the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) The record may be inspected and copied (upon payment of a reasonable fee) by anyone, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ pursuant to § 308.523 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.535" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.535   Post-hearing briefs.</HEAD>
<P>The ALJ may require the parties to file post-hearing briefs. In any event, any party may file a post-hearing brief. The ALJ will fix the time for filing such briefs, not to exceed 60 days from the date the parties receive the transcript of the hearing or, if applicable, the stipulated record. Such briefs may be accompanied by proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. The ALJ may permit the parties to file reply briefs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.536" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.536   Initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ALJ will issue an initial decision based only on the record, which will contain findings of fact, conclusions of law, and the amount of any penalties and assessments imposed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The findings of fact will include a finding on each of the following issues: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the claims or statements identified in the complaint, or any portions of such claims or statements, violate § 308.502 of this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(2) If the person is liable for penalties or assessments, the appropriate amount of any such penalties or assessments considering any mitigating or aggravating factors that he or she finds in the case, such as those described in § 308.530 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The ALJ will promptly serve the initial decision on all parties within 90 days after the time for submission of post-hearing briefs and reply briefs (if permitted) has expired. The ALJ will at the same time serve all parties with a statement describing the right of any defendant determined to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment to file a motion for reconsideration with the ALJ or a notice of appeal with the Board. If the ALJ fails to meet the deadline contained in this paragraph, he or she will notify the parties of the reason for the delay and will set a new deadline. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the initial decision of the ALJ is timely appealed to the Board, or a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision is timely filed, the initial decision will constitute the final decision of the Board and will be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued by the ALJ. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.537" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.537   Reconsideration of initial decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, any party may file a motion for reconsideration of the initial decision within 20 days of receipt of the initial decision. If service is made by mail, receipt will be presumed to be 5 days from the date of mailing in the absence of proof to the contrary. 
</P>
<P>(b) Every motion for reconsideration must set forth the matters claimed to have been erroneously decided and the nature of the alleged errors. The motion must be accompanied by a supporting brief. 
</P>
<P>(c) Responses to the motions will be allowed only upon order of the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(d) No party may file a motion for reconsideration of an initial decision that has been revised in response to a previous motion for reconsideration. 
</P>
<P>(e) The ALJ may dispose of a motion for reconsideration by denying it or by issuing a revised initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the ALJ denies a motion for reconsideration, the initial decision will constitute the final decision of the FDIC and will be final and binding on all parties 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion, unless the final decision is timely appealed to the Board in accordance with § 308.538 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(g) If the ALJ issues a revised initial decision, that decision will constitute the final decision of the FDIC and will be final and binding on the parties 30 days after it is issued, unless it is timely appealed to the Board in accordance with § 308.538 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.538" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.538   Appeal to the Board of Directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any defendant who has filed a timely answer and who is determined in an initial decision to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment may appeal such decision to the Board by filing a notice of appeal with the Board in accordance with this section. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) No notice of appeal may be filed until the time period for filing a motion for reconsideration under § 308.537 of this subpart has expired. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal must be filed within 30 days after the ALJ denies the motion or issues a revised initial decision, whichever applies. 
</P>
<P>(3) If no motion for reconsideration is timely filed, a notice of appeal must be filed within 30 days after the ALJ issues the initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Board may extend the initial 30-day period for an additional 30 days if the defendant files with the Board a request for an extension within the initial 30-day period and shows good cause. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the defendant files a timely notice of appeal with the Board, the ALJ will forward the record of the proceeding to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) A notice of appeal will be accompanied by a written brief specifying exceptions to the initial decision and reasons supporting the exceptions. 
</P>
<P>(e) The representative for the Corporation may file a brief in opposition to exceptions within 30 days of receiving the notice of appeal and accompanying brief. 
</P>
<P>(f) There is no right to appear personally before the Board. 
</P>
<P>(g) There is no right to appeal any interlocutory ruling by the ALJ. 
</P>
<P>(h) In reviewing the initial decision, the Board will not consider any objection that was not raised before the ALJ unless a demonstration is made of extraordinary circumstances causing the failure to raise the objection. 
</P>
<P>(i) If any party demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that additional evidence not presented at such hearing is material and that there were reasonable grounds for the failure to present such evidence at such hearing, the Board will remand the matter to the ALJ for consideration of such additional evidence. 
</P>
<P>(j) The Board may affirm, reduce, reverse, compromise, remand, or settle any penalty or assessment determined by the ALJ in any initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(k) The Board will promptly serve each party to the appeal with a copy of the decision of the Board and a statement describing the right of any person determined to be liable for a penalty or an assessment to seek judicial review. 
</P>
<P>(l) Unless a petition for review is filed as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3805 after a defendant has exhausted all administrative remedies under this subpart and within 60 days after the date on which the Board serves the defendant with a copy of the Board's decision, a determination that a defendant is liable under § 308.502 of this subpart is final and is not subject to judicial review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.539" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.539   Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General transmits to the Board a written finding that continuation of the administrative process described in this subpart with respect to a claim or statement may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to such claim or statement, the Board will stay the process immediately. The Board may order the process resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.540" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.540   Stay pending appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initial decision is stayed automatically pending disposition of a motion for reconsideration or of an appeal to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) No administrative stay is available following a final decision of the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.541" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.42" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.541   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Section 3805 of title 31, United States Code, authorizes judicial review by an appropriate United States District Court of a final decision of the Board imposing penalties or assessments under this subpart and specifies the procedures for such review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.542" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.43" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.542   Collection of civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 3806 and 3808(b) of title 31, United States Code, authorize actions for collection of civil penalties and assessments imposed under this subpart and specify the procedures for such actions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.543" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.44" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.543   Right to administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of any penalty or assessment which has become final, or for which a judgment has been entered under § 308.541 or § 308.542 of this subpart, or any amount agreed upon in a compromise or settlement under § 308.545 of this subpart, may be collected by administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, except that an administrative offset may not be made under this section against a refund of an overpayment of federal taxes, then or later owing by the United States to the defendant. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.544" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.45" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.544   Deposit in Treasury of United States.</HEAD>
<P>All amounts collected pursuant to this subpart will be deposited as miscellaneous receipts in the Treasury of the United States, except as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3806(g). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.545" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.46" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.545   Compromise or settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties may make offers of compromise or settlement at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) The reviewing official has the exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this subpart at any time after the date on which the reviewing official is permitted to issue a complaint and before the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Board has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this subpart any time after the date on which the ALJ issues an initial decision, except during the pendency of any review under § 308.541 of this subpart or during the pendency of any action to collect penalties and assessments under § 308.542 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Attorney General has exclusive authority to compromise or settle a case under this subpart during the pendency of any review under § 308.541 of this subpart or of any action to recover penalties and assessments under 31 U.S.C. 3806. 
</P>
<P>(e) The investigating official may recommend settlement terms to the reviewing official, the Board, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. The reviewing official may recommend settlement terms to the Board, or the Attorney General, as appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(f) Any compromise or settlement must be in writing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.546" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.20.1.47" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.546   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The notice of hearing with respect to a claim or statement will be served in the manner specified in § 308.507 of this subpart within 6 years after the date on which such claim or statement is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the defendant fails to file a timely answer, service of notice under § 308.509(b) of this subpart will be deemed a notice of a hearing for purposes of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) The statute of limitations may be extended by agreement of the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="U" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart U—Removal, Suspension, and Debarment of Accountants From Performing Audit Services</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 48270, Aug. 13, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 308.600" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.600   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, which implements section 36(g)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m(g)(4)), provides rules and procedures for the removal, suspension, or debarment of independent public accountants and accounting firms from performing independent audit and attestation services required by section 36 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1831m) for insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.601" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.601   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart, the following terms shall have the meaning given below unless the context requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accounting firm</I> means a corporation, proprietorship, partnership, or other business firm providing audit services. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Audit services</I> means any service required to be performed by an independent public accountant by section 36 of the FDIA and 12 CFR part 363, including attestation services. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent public accountant</I> (accountant) means any individual who performs or participates in providing audit services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.602" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.602   Removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Good cause for removal, suspension, or debarment</I>—(1) <I>Individuals.</I> The Board of Directors may remove, suspend, or debar an independent public accountant under section 36 of the FDIA from performing audit services for insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency if, after service of a notice of intention and opportunity for hearing in the matter, the Board of Directors finds that the accountant:
</P>
<P>(i) Lacks the requisite qualifications to perform audit services; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has knowingly or recklessly engaged in conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards, including those standards and conflicts of interest provisions applicable to accountants through the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (Pub. L. 107-204, 116 Stat. 745 (2002)) (Sarbanes-Oxley Act) and developed by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board and the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has engaged in negligent conduct in the form of: 
</P>
<P>(A) A single instance of highly unreasonable conduct that results in a violation of applicable professional standards in circumstances in which an accountant knows, or should know, that heightened scrutiny is warranted; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Repeated instances of unreasonable conduct, each resulting in a violation of applicable professional standards, that indicate a lack of competence to perform audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Has knowingly or recklessly given false or misleading information, or knowingly or recklessly participated in any way in the giving of false or misleading information, to the FDIC or any officer or employee of the FDIC; 
</P>
<P>(v) Has engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing or reckless violation of any provision of the Federal banking or securities laws or the rules and regulations thereunder, or any other law;
</P>
<P>(vi) Has been removed, suspended, or debarred from practice before any Federal or state agency regulating the banking, insurance, or securities industries, other than by an action listed in § 308.603, on grounds relevant to the provision of audit services; or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Is suspended or debarred for cause from practice as an accountant by any duly constituted licensing authority of any state, possession, commonwealth, or the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounting firms.</I> If the Board of Directors determines that there is good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment of a member or employee of an accounting firm under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Board of Directors also may remove, suspend, or debar such firm or one or more offices of such firm. In considering whether to remove, suspend, or debar an accounting firm or an office thereof, and the term of any sanction against an accounting firm under this section, the Board of Directors may consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The gravity, scope, or repetition of the act or failure to act that constitutes good cause for the removal, suspension, or debarment; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The adequacy of, and adherence to, applicable policies, practices, or procedures for the accounting firm's conduct of its business and the performance of audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The selection, training, supervision, and conduct of members or employees of the accounting firm involved in the performance of audit services; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent to which managing partners or senior officers of the accounting firm have participated, directly, or indirectly through oversight or review, in the act or failure to act; and
</P>
<P>(v) The extent to which the accounting firm has, since the occurrence of the act or failure to act, implemented corrective internal controls to prevent its recurrence. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited scope orders.</I> An order of removal, suspension (including an immediate suspension), or debarment may, at the discretion of the Board of Directors, be made applicable to a limited number of insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Remedies not exclusive.</I> The remedies provided in this subpart are in addition to any other remedies the FDIC may have under any other applicable provision of law, rule, or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proceedings to remove, suspend or debar</I>—(1) <I>Initiation of formal removal, suspension, or debarment proceedings.</I> The Board of Directors may initiate a proceeding to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services by issuing a written notice of intention to take such action that names the individual or firm as a respondent and describes the nature of the conduct that constitutes good cause for such action. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearings under paragraph (b) of this section.</I> An accountant or firm named as a respondent in the notice issued under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may request a hearing on the allegations contained in the notice. Hearings conducted under this paragraph shall be conducted in the same manner as other hearings under the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 308, subpart A) (Uniform Rules). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Immediate suspension from performing audit services</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Board of Directors serves a written notice of intention to remove, suspend, or debar an accountant or accounting firm from performing audit services, the Board of Directors may, with due regard for the public interest and without a preliminary hearing, immediately suspend such accountant or firm from performing audit services for insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency if the Board of Directors: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a reasonable basis to believe that the accountant or accounting firm has engaged in conduct (specified in the notice served upon the accountant or accounting firm under paragraph (b)(1) of this section) that would constitute grounds for removal, suspension, or debarment under paragraph (a) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Determines that immediate suspension is necessary to avoid immediate harm to an insured depository institution or its depositors or to the depository system as a whole; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Serves such respondent with written notice of the immediate suspension. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures.</I> An immediate suspension notice issued under this paragraph will become effective upon service. Such suspension will remain in effect until the date the Board of Directors dismisses the charges contained in the notice of intention, or the effective date of a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment issued by the Board of Directors to the respondent. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petition to stay.</I> Any accountant or accounting firm immediately suspended from performing audit services in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 10 calendar days after service of the notice of immediate suspension, file a petition with the Administrative Officer for a stay of such immediate suspension. If no petition is filed within 10 calendar days, the immediate suspension shall remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing on petition.</I> Upon receipt of a stay petition, the Administrative Officer will designate a presiding officer who will fix a place and time (not more than 10 calendar days after receipt of the petition, unless extended at the request of petitioner) at which the immediately suspended party may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials and oral argument. Any FDIC employee engaged in investigative or prosecuting functions for the FDIC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, serve as a presiding officer or participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer or of the FDIC, except as witness or counsel in the proceeding. In the sole discretion of the presiding officer, upon a specific showing of compelling need, oral testimony of witnesses also may be presented. Enforcement counsel may represent the agency at the hearing. In hearings held pursuant to this paragraph (c)(4) there shall be no discovery, and the provisions of §§ 308.6 through 308.12, 308.16, and 308.21 will apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Decision on petition.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the hearing, the presiding officer will issue a decision. The presiding officer will grant a stay upon a demonstration that a substantial likelihood exists of the respondent's success on the issues raised by the notice of intention and that, absent such relief, the respondent will suffer immediate and irreparable injury, loss, or damage. In the absence of such a demonstration, the presiding officer will notify the parties that the immediate suspension will be continued pending the completion of the administrative proceedings pursuant to the notice of intention. The presiding officer will serve a copy of the decision on, and simultaneously certify the record to, the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Review of presiding officer's decision.</I> The parties may seek review of the presiding officer's decision by filing a petition for review with the Administrative Officer within 10 calendar days after service of the decision. Replies must be filed within 10 calendar days after the petition filing date. Upon receipt of a petition for review and any reply, the Administrative Officer will promptly certify the entire record to the Board of Directors. Within 60 calendar days of the Administrative Officer's certification, the Board of Directors will issue an order notifying the affected party whether or not the immediate suspension should be continued or reinstated. The order will state the basis of the Board's decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 48270, Aug. 13, 2003, as amended at 86 FR 2251, Jan. 12, 2021] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.603" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.603   Automatic removal, suspension, and debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An independent public accountant or accounting firm may not perform audit services for insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency if the accountant or firm: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to a final order of removal, suspension, or debarment (other than a limited scope order) issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Office of Thrift Supervision under section 36 of the FDIA; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a temporary suspension or permanent revocation of registration or a temporary or permanent suspension or bar from further association with any registered public accounting firm issued by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board or the Securities and Exchange Commission under sections 105(c)(4)(A) or (B) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(A) or (B)); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to an order of suspension or denial of the privilege of appearing or practicing before the Securities and Exchange Commission. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon written request, the FDIC, for good cause shown, may grant written permission to such accountant or firm to perform audit services for insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. The written request must comply with the requirements of § 303.3 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.604" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.604   Notice of removal, suspension, or debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice to the public.</I> Upon the issuance of a final order for removal, suspension, or debarment of an independent public accountant or accounting firm from providing audit services, the FDIC will make the order publicly available and provide notice of the order to the other Federal banking agencies. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to the FDIC by accountants and firms.</I> An accountant or accounting firm that provides audit services to any insured depository institution for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency must provide the FDIC with written notice of: 
</P>
<P>(1) any currently effective order or other action described in §§ 308.602(a)(1)(vi) through (a)(1)(vii) or §§ 308.603(a)(2) through (a)(3); and 
</P>
<P>(2) any currently effective action by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board under sections 105(c)(4)(C) or (G) of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (15 U.S.C. 7215(c)(4)(C) or (G)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing and place of notice.</I> Written notice required by this paragraph shall be given no later than 15 calendar days following the effective date of an order or action, or 15 calendar days before an accountant or accounting firm accepts an engagement to provide audit services, whichever date is earlier. The written notice must be filed by the independent public accountant or accounting firm with the FDIC, Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 48270, Aug. 13, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 32245, July 7, 2009; 74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 308.605" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.21.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 308.605   Application for reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of petition.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board of Directors, an application for reinstatement by an independent public accountant, an accounting firm, or an office of a firm that was removed, suspended, or debarred under § 308.602 may be made in writing at any time. The application must comply with the requirements of § 303.3 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> An applicant for reinstatement under this section may, in the sole discretion of the Board of Directors, be afforded a hearing. In reinstatement proceedings, the person seeking reinstatement shall bear the burden of going forward with an application and proving the grounds asserted in support of the application, and the Board of Directors may, in its sole discretion, direct that any reinstatement proceeding be limited to written submissions. The removal, suspension, or debarment shall continue until the Board of Directors, for good cause shown, has reinstated the applicant or until the suspension period has expired. The filing of an application for reinstatement will not stay the effectiveness of the removal, suspension, or debarment of an accountant or firm.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.22" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.7.23.1.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 308—Rules of Practice and Procedure
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This appendix is effective for all adjudicatory proceedings initiated prior to April 1, 2024. Cross-references to 12 CFR part 308 (as well as to included sections) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure.</B>
</HD3>
<P><B>§ 308.1 Scope.</B>
</P>
<P>This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings on the record are provided for by the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (“FDIA”) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 8(e) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) to determine whether the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”), should issue an order to approve or disapprove a person's proposed acquisition of an institution and/or institution holding company;
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under section 15C(c)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (“Exchange Act”) (15 U.S.C. 78o-5), to impose sanctions upon any government securities broker or dealer or upon any person associated or seeking to become associated with a government securities broker or dealer for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency;
</P>
<P>(e) Assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate regulatory agency for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Sections 22(h) and 23 of the Federal Reserve Act (FRA), or any regulation issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1828(j) or 12 U.S.C. 1468;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (“BHCA Amendments of 1970”), and certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1972(2)(F);
</P>
<P>(3) Any provision of the Change in Bank Control Act of 1978, as amended (the “CBCA”), or any regulation or order issued thereunder, and certain unsafe or unsound practices, or breaches of fiduciary duty, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(16);
</P>
<P>(4) Section 7(a)(1) of the FDIA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(5) Any provision of the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (“ILSA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909;
</P>
<P>(6) Any provision of the International Banking Act of 1978 (“IBA”), or any rule, regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3108;
</P>
<P>(7) Certain provisions of the Exchange Act, pursuant to section 21B of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78u-2);
</P>
<P>(8) Section 1120 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(9) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 8 of the FDIA or of any written agreement executed by the FDIC or the former Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS), the terms of any condition imposed in writing by the FDIC in connection with the grant of an application or request, certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided herein pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2);
</P>
<P>(10) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any provision of law referenced in 31 U.S.C. 5321 or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(12) Certain provisions of Section 5 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1), (5)-(8), (s), and (v);
</P>
<P>(13) Section 9 of the HOLA or any regulation or order issued thereunder, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467(d);
</P>
<P>(14) Section 10 of HOLA, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(2)(D), (g), (i)(2)-(4) and (r); and
</P>
<P>(f) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g));
</P>
<P>(g) Proceedings under section 10(k) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1820(k)) to impose penalties for violations of the post-employment restrictions under that subsection; and
</P>
<P>(h) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in the Local Rules.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.2 Rules of construction.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(d) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.3 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative law judge</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative Officer</I> means an inferior officer of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, duly appointed by the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation to serve as the Board's designee to hear certain motions or requests in an adjudicatory proceeding and to be the official custodian of the record for the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Administrative Officer</I> means an inferior officer of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, duly appointed by the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation to serve as the Board's designee to hear certain motions or requests in an adjudicatory proceeding upon the designation or unavailability of the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P><I>Board of Directors</I> or <I>Board</I> means the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or its designee.
</P>
<P><I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's or administrative law judge's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Board of Directors, the administrative law judge, or the Administrative Officer, or the Assistant Administrative Officer, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P><I>Designee</I> of the Board of Directors means officers or officials of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P><I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the FDIC in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the FDIC with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P><I>Institution</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bank as that term is defined in section 3(a) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(a));
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank holding company or any subsidiary (other than a bank) of a bank holding company as those terms are defined in the BHCA (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) Any savings association as that term is defined in section 3(b) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), any savings and loan holding company or any subsidiary thereof (other than a bank) as those terms are defined in section 10(a) of the HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a));
</P>
<P>(4) Any organization operating under section 25 of the FRA (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(5) Any foreign bank or company to which section 8 of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3106), applies or any subsidiary (other than a bank) thereof; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any federal agency as that term is defined in section 1(b) of the IBA (12 U.S.C. 3101(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Investigation</I> means any investigation conducted pursuant to section 10(c) of the FDIA or pursuant to section 5(d)(1)(B) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(d)(1)(B)).
</P>
<P><I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the FDIC in those subparts of this part other than subpart A.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Financial Institution Adjudication</I> (OFIA) means the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve Board (FRB), the FDIC, and the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means the FDIC and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the FDIC.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in subpart A of this part that pertain to the types of formal administrative enforcement actions set forth at § 308.1 and as specified in subparts B through P of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Violation</I> includes any action (alone or with another or others) for or toward causing, bringing about, participating in, counseling, or aiding or abetting a violation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.4 Authority of Board of Directors.</B>
</P>
<P>The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the administrative law judge.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.5 Authority of the administrative law judge.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The administrative law judge shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas duces tecum, and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 308.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the Board of Directors shall have the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the Board of Directors a recommended decision as provided herein;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.6 Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the FDIC or an administrative law judge</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the FDIC if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer, director, or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority if such officer; director, or employee is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including the FDIC, shall file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the administrative law judge, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.7 Good faith certification.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state that counsel's address and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address and telephone number on every filing or submission of record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: The counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the administrative law judge shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.8 Conflicts of interest.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The administrative law judge may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 308.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.9 Ex parte communications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the FDIC (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrative law judge handling that proceeding, the Board of Directors, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the FDIC until the date that the Board of Directors issues its final decision pursuant to § 308.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person outside the FDIC shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication to any member of the Board of Directors, the administrative law judge, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) No member of the Board of Directors, no administrative law judge, or decisional employee shall make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the FDIC any ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an ex parte communication is received by the administrative law judge, any member of the Board of Directors or other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within ten days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The administrative law judge or the Board of Directors shall then determine whether any action should be taken concerning the ex parte communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or his or her counsel who makes a prohibited ex parte communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the administrative law judge may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the FDIC in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 308.40 except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.10 Filing of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 308.25 and 308.26, shall be filed with the OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if expressly authorized, and upon any conditions specified, by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge. All papers filed by electronic media shall also concurrently be filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 81-2 × 11 inch paper, and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 308.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the FDIC and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Board of Directors, or the administrative law judge, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.


</P>
<P><B>§ 308.11 Service of papers.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers shall serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission by electronic media, only if the parties mutually agree. Any papers served by electronic media shall also concurrently be served in accordance with the requirements of § 308.10(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Board of Directors.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6, shall be served by any means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 308.6, the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge shall make service by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the party's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) By delivery to an agent which, in the case of a corporation or other association, is delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) In such other manner as is reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service shall be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.12 Construction of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual service;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing, and as agreed among the parties, in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Board of Directors or administrative law judge in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic media transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period, unless otherwise determined by the Board of Directors or the administrative law judge in the case of filing, or by agreement among the parties in the case of service.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.13 Change of time limits.</B>
</P>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the administrative law judge may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Board of Directors pursuant to § 308.38, the Board of Directors may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party or of the Board of Directors after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties, or on the administrative law judge's own motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.14 Witness fees and expenses.</B>
</P>
<P>Witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the FDIC is the party requesting the subpoena. The FDIC shall not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the FDIC.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.15 Opportunity for informal settlement.</B>
</P>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any FDIC representative other than Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.16 FDIC's right to conduct examination.</B>
</P>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the FDIC to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the FDIC to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.17 Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</B>
</P>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.18 Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1)(i) Except for change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), a proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law.
</P>
<P>(iii) The notice must be filed with the OFIA.
</P>
<P>(2) Change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)) commence with the issuance of an order by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notice must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the FDIC's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that the FDIC is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing shall be filed with OFIA.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.19 Answer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent shall also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer must be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of his or her right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Board of Directors based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Board of Directors or administrative law judge orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the administrative law judge may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the administrative law judge that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The administrative law judge may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.21 Failure to appear.</B>
</P>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the administrative law judge shall file with the Board of Directors a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.22 Consolidation and severance of actions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the administrative law judge's own motion, the administrative law judge may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The administrative law judge may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the administrative law judge finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.23 Motions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the administrative law judge. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the administrative law judge directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the administrative law judge, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Administrative Officer for disposition by the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d), within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the administrative law judge or the Administrative Officer, any party may file a written response to a motion. The administrative law judge shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 308.29 and 308.30.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.24 Scope of document discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term “documents” may be defined to include drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, data stored in electronic form, and other data compilations from which information can be obtained, or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form, as well as written material of all kinds.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by subpart I of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter, not privileged, that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action. Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material, that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate, or the request calls for copies of documents to be delivered to the requesting party and fails to include the requestor's written agreement to pay in advance for the copying, in accordance with § 308.25.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative-process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing. No exceptions to this time limit shall be permitted, unless the administrative law judge finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.25 Request for document discovery from parties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce for inspection any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. The request must identify the documents to be produced either by individual item or by category, and must describe each item and category with reasonable particularity. Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or must be organized to correspond with the categories in the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying.</I> The request must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production and performing any related acts. In lieu of inspecting the documents, the requesting party may specify that all or some of the responsive documents be copied and the copies delivered to the requesting party. If copying of fewer than 250 pages is requested, the party to whom the request is addressed shall bear the cost of copying and shipping charges. If a party requests 250 pages or more of copying, the requesting party shall pay for the copying and shipping charges. Copying charges are the current per page copying rate imposed by 12 CFR part 309 implementing the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). The party to whom the request is addressed may require payment in advance before producing the documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns that:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within ten days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to shall be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 308.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by deliberative process, attorney-work-product, or attorney-client privilege are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The administrative law judge retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 308.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may file a written response to a motion to compel within five days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the administrative law judge shall rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, he or she may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the administrative law judge may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the administrative law judge its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the administrative law judge's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the administrative law judge issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.26 Document subpoenas to nonparties.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party shall only apply for a document subpoena under this section within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 308.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant shall serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 308.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the administrative law judge has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.27 Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the administrative law judge for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena duces tecum, requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The administrative law judge may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the administrative law judge shall fix.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the administrative law judge on his or her own motion, requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the administrative law judge orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the administrative law judge to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the administrative law judge for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(3) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the administrative law judge has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the administrative law judge on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.28 Interlocutory review.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Board of Directors may review a ruling of the administrative law judge prior to the certification of the record to the Board of Directors only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 308.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Board of Directors may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of, the administrative law judge if the Board of Directors finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the administrative law judge within ten days of his or her ruling and shall otherwise comply with § 308.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 308.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the administrative law judge shall refer the matter to the Board of Directors for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Board of Directors under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge or the Board of Directors.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.29 Summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The administrative law judge shall recommend that the Board of Directors issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes that there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that he or she is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the administrative law judge, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the administrative law judge shall determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the administrative law judge determines that summary disposition is warranted, the administrative law judge shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Board of Directors. If the administrative law judge finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.30 Partial summary disposition.</B>
</P>
<P>If the administrative law judge determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he or she shall defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the administrative law judge has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.31 Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding or such other time as parties may agree, the administrative law judge shall direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her in person at a specified time and place prior to the hearing or to confer by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a “scheduling conference.” The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The administrative law judge may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The administrative law judge, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the administrative law judge shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.32 Prehearing submissions.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Within the time set by the administrative law judge, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party, his or her:
</P>
<P>(1) Prehearing statement;
</P>
<P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) Effect of failure to comply. No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.33 Public hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings shall be open to the public, unless the FDIC, in its discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice or, in the case of change-in-control proceedings under section 7(j)(4) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)(4)), within 20 days from service of the hearing order, any respondent may file with the Administrative Officer a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the administrative law judge a copy of any request or reply the party files with the Administrative Officer. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 308.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in his or her discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The administrative law judge shall take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.34 Hearing subpoenas.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the administrative law judge may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the administrative law judge determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the administrative law judge, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the administrative law judge which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 308.26(c).




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.35 Conduct of hearings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Hearings shall be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the administrative law judge, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree the administrative law judge shall fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the administrative law judge may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the administrative law judge directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The administrative law judge may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the administrative law judge's own motion.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.36 Evidence.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or state government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the administrative law judge or Board of Directors shall appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institution regulatory agency or state regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the administrative law judge's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness, either by representation of counsel or by direct interrogation of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the administrative law judge may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.37 Post-hearing filings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the administrative law judge shall serve notice upon each party, that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the administrative law judge proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the administrative law judge or within such longer period as may be ordered by the administrative law judge.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who fails to file timely with the administrative law judge any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The administrative law judge shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.38 Recommended decision and filing of record.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 308.37(b), the administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the Administrative Officer, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the administrative law judge's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The administrative law judge shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the administrative law judge files with and certifies to the Administrative Officer for final determination the record of the proceeding, the administrative law judge shall furnish to the Administrative Officer a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the administrative law judge in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: Each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.39 Exceptions to recommended decision.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 308.38, a party may file with the Administrative Officer written exceptions to the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the administrative law judge to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Board of Directors if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the administrative law judge and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the administrative law judge's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the administrative law judge's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.40 Review by Board of Directors.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to Board of Directors.</I> When the Administrative Officer determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Administrative Officer shall serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the Board of Directors for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Board of Directors.</I> Upon the initiative of the Board of Directors or on the written request of any party filed with the Administrative Officer within the time for filing exceptions, the Board of Directors may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the administrative law judge. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Board of Directors' final decision. Oral argument before the Board of Directors must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Board of Directors in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Board of Directors will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Board of Directors may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board of Directors shall render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the Board of Directors orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the administrative law judge for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the Board of Directors shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Board of Directors or required by statute, upon any appropriate state or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.41 Stays pending judicial review.</B>
</P>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the FDIC may not, unless specifically ordered by the Board of Directors or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the FDIC. The Board of Directors may, in its discretion, and on such terms as it finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of its order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.




</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—General Rules of Procedure</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 308.101 Scope of Local Rules.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Subparts B and C of the Local Rules prescribe rules of practice and procedure to be followed in the administrative enforcement proceedings initiated by the FDIC as set forth in § 308.1 of the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as otherwise specifically provided, the Uniform Rules and subpart B of the Local Rules shall not apply to subparts D through T of the Local Rules.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart C of the Local Rules shall apply to any administrative proceeding initiated by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) Subparts A, B, and C of this part prescribe the rules of practice and procedure to applicable to adjudicatory proceedings as to which hearings on the record are provided for by the assessment of civil money penalties by the FDIC against institutions, institution-affiliated parties, and certain other persons for which it is the appropriate regulatory agency for any violation of section 15(c)(4) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o(c)(4)).




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.102 Authority of Board of Directors and Administrative Officer.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>The Board of Directors.</I> (1) The Board of Directors may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the Administrative Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing contained in this part shall be construed to limit the power of the Board of Directors granted by applicable statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Administrative Officer.</I> (1) When no administrative law judge has jurisdiction over a proceeding, the Administrative Officer may act in place of, and with the same authority as, an administrative law judge, except that the Administrative Officer may not hear a case on the merits or make a recommended decision on the merits to the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to authority delegated by the Board of Directors, the Administrative Officer and Assistant Administrative Officer, upon the advice and recommendation of the Deputy General Counsel for Litigation or, in his absence, the Assistant General Counsel for General Litigation, may issue rulings in proceedings under sections 7(j), 8, 18(j), 19, 32 and 38 of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1817(j), 1818, 1828(j), 1829, 1831i and 1831<I>o</I>) concerning:
</P>
<P>(i) Denials of requests for private hearing;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interlocutory appeals;
</P>
<P>(iii) Stays pending judicial review;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reopenings of the record and/or remands of the record to the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(v) Supplementation of the evidence in the record;
</P>
<P>(vi) All remands from the courts of appeals not involving substantive issues;
</P>
<P>(vii) Extensions of stays of orders terminating deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(viii) All matters, including final decisions, in proceedings under section 8(g) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1818(g)).




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.103 Appointment of administrative law judge.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> Unless otherwise directed by the Board of Directors or as otherwise provided in the Local Rules, a hearing within the scope of this part 308 shall be held before an administrative law judge of the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> (1) The Enforcement Counsel shall promptly after issuance of the notice file the matter with the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”) which shall secure the appointment of an administrative law judge to hear the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) OFIA shall advise the parties, in writing, that an administrative law judge has been appointed.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.104 Filings with the Board of Directors.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All materials required to be filed with or referred to the Board of Directors in any proceedings under this part shall be filed with the Administrative Officer, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Filings to be made with the Administrative Officer include pleadings and motions filed during the proceeding; the record filed by the administrative law judge after the issuance of a recommended decision; the recommended decision filed by the administrative law judge following a motion for summary disposition; referrals by the administrative law judge of motions for interlocutory review; motions and responses to motions filed by the parties after the record has been certified to the Board of Directors; exceptions and requests for oral argument; and any other papers required to be filed with the Board of Directors under this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.105 Custodian of the record.</B>
</P>
<P>The Administrative Officer is the official custodian of the record when no administrative law judge has jurisdiction over the proceeding. As the official custodian, the Administrative Officer shall maintain the official record of all papers filed in each proceeding.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.106 Written testimony in lieu of oral hearing.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) At any time more than fifteen days before the hearing is to commence, on the motion of any party or on his or her own motion, the administrative law judge may order that the parties present part or all of their case-in-chief and, if ordered, their rebuttal, in the form of exhibits and written statements sworn to by the witness offering such statements as evidence, provided that if any party objects, the administrative law judge shall not require such a format if that format would violate the objecting party's right under the Administrative Procedure Act, or other applicable law, or would otherwise unfairly prejudice that party.
</P>
<P>(2) Any such order shall provide that each party shall, upon request, have the same right of oral cross-examination (or redirect examination) as would exist had the witness testified orally rather than through a written statement. Such order shall also provide that any party has a right to call any hostile witness or adverse party to testify orally.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scheduling of submission of written testimony.</I> (1) If written direct testimony and exhibits are ordered under paragraph (a) of this section, the administrative law judge shall require that it be filed within the time period for commencement of the hearing, and the hearing shall be deemed to have commenced on the day such testimony is due.
</P>
<P>(2) Absent good cause shown, written rebuttal, if any, shall be submitted and the oral portion of the hearing begun within 30 days of the date set for filing written direct testimony.
</P>
<P>(3) The administrative law judge shall direct, unless good cause requires otherwise, that—
</P>
<P>(i) All parties shall simultaneously file any exhibits and written direct testimony required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All parties shall simultaneously file any exhibits and written rebuttal required under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to comply with order to file written testimony.</I> (1) The failure of any party to comply with an order to file written testimony or exhibits at the time and in the manner required under this section shall be deemed a waiver of that party's right to present any evidence, except testimony of a previously identified adverse party or hostile witness. Failure to file written testimony or exhibits is, however, not a waiver of that party's right of cross-examination or a waiver of the right to present rebuttal evidence that was not required to be submitted in written form.
</P>
<P>(2) Late filings of papers under this section may be allowed and accepted only upon good cause shown.




</P>
<P><B>§ 308.107 Document discovery.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) Parties to proceedings set forth at § 308.1 of the Uniform Rules and as provided in the Local Rules may obtain discovery only through the production of documents. No other form of discovery shall be allowed.
</P>
<P>(b) Any questioning at a deposition of a person producing documents pursuant to a document subpoena shall be strictly limited to the identification of documents produced by that person and a reasonable examination to determine whether the subpoenaed person made an adequate search for, and has produced, all subpoenaed documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 89949, Dec. 28, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="309" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 309—DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 1819 “Seventh” and “Tenth.” 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 309.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the basic policies of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation regarding information it maintains and the procedures for obtaining access to such information, including disclosure of information transferred to Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation from the Office of Thrift Supervision pursuant to section 312 and 323 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203. Section 309.2 sets forth definitions applicable to this part 309. Section 309.3 describes the types of information and documents typically published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Section 309.4 explains how to access public records maintained on the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's World Wide Web page and in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's Public Information Center or “PIC,” and describes the categories of records generally found there. Section 309.5 implements the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). Section 309.6 authorizes the discretionary disclosure of exempt records under certain limited circumstances. Section 309.7 outlines procedures for serving a subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>depository institution,</I> as used in § 309.6, includes depository institutions that have applied to the Corporation for federal deposit insurance, closed depository institutions, presently operating federally insured depository institutions, foreign banks, branches of foreign banks, and all affiliates of any of the foregoing. 
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>Corporation</I> or <I>FDIC</I> mean the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The words <I>disclose</I> or <I>disclosure,</I> as used in § 309.6, mean to give access to a record, whether by producing the written record or by oral discussion of its contents. Where the Corporation employee authorized to release Corporation documents makes a determination that furnishing copies of the documents is necessary, the words <I>disclose</I> or <I>disclosure</I> include the furnishing of copies of documents or records. In addition, <I>disclose</I> or <I>disclosure</I> as used in § 309.6 is synonymous with the term <I>transfer</I> as used in the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>examination</I> includes, but is not limited to, formal and informal investigations of irregularities involving suspected violations of federal or state civil or criminal laws, or unsafe and unsound practices as well as such other investigations as may be conducted pursuant to law. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>record</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information that would be an agency record subject to the requirements of this section when maintained by the FDIC in any format, including an electronic format; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any information described under paragraph (e)(1) of this section that is maintained for the FDIC by an entity under Government contract, for purposes of records management.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>report of examination</I> includes, but is not limited to, examination reports resulting from examinations of depository institutions conducted jointly by Corporation examiners and state banking authority examiners or other federal financial institution examiners, as well as reports resulting from examinations conducted solely by Corporation examiners. The term also includes compliance examination reports. 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>customer financial records,</I> as used in § 309.6, means an original of, a copy of, or information known to have been derived from, any record held by a depository institution pertaining to a customer's relationship with the depository institution but does not include any record that contains information not identified with or identifiable as being derived from the financial records of a particular customer. The term <I>customer</I> as used in § 309.6 refers to individuals or partnerships of five or fewer persons. 
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>Director of the Division having primary authority</I> includes Deputies to the Chairman and directors of FDIC Divisions and Offices that create, maintain custody, or otherwise have primary responsibility for the handling of FDIC records or information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998; 81 FR 83646, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.3   Federal Register publication.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC publishes the following information in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public: 
</P>
<P>(a) Descriptions of its central and field organization and the established places at which, the officers from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may secure information, make submittals or requests, or obtain decisions; 
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available; 
</P>
<P>(c) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports or examinations; 
</P>
<P>(d) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the FDIC; 
</P>
<P>(e) Every amendment, revision or repeal of the foregoing; and 
</P>
<P>(f) General notices of proposed rule-making. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.4   Publicly available records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page</I>—(1) <I>Discretionary release of documents.</I> The FDIC encourages the public to explore the wealth of resources available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, located at: <I>http://www.fdic.gov.</I> The FDIC has elected to publish a broad range of materials on its World Wide Web page, including consumer guides; financial and statistical information of interest to the banking industry; and information concerning the FDIC's responsibilities and structure.

 </P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents required to be made available for inspection in an electronic format.</I> (i) The following types of documents created on or after November 1, 1996, and required to be made available for inspection in an electronic format, may be found on the FDIC's World Wide Web page located at: <I>http://www.fdic.gov:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders and written agreements, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(B) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the Board of Directors that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(C) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect the public;
</P>
<P>(D) Copies of all records released to any person under § 309.5:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That, because of the nature of their subject matter, the FDIC determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That have been requested 3 or more times; and
</P>
<P>(E) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent permitted by law, the FDIC may delete identifying details when it makes available or publishes a final opinion, final order, statement of policy, interpretation or staff manual or instruction. If redaction is necessary, the FDIC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public Information Center.</I> The FDIC maintains a Public Information Center or “PIC” that contains Corporate records that the Freedom of Information Act requires be made available for regular inspection and copying, as well as any records or information the FDIC, in its discretion, has regularly made available, to the public. The PIC has extensive materials of interest to the public, including many Reports, Summaries and Manuals used or published by the Corporation that are made available, by appointment, for inspection and copying. The PIC is open from 9 a.m. to 4 p.m., Monday through Friday, excepting Federal holidays. It is located at 3501 North Fairfax Drive, Room E-1005, Arlington, VA 22226. The PIC may be reached during business hours by calling 1(877) 275-3342 or 1-(703) 562-2200.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicable fees.</I> (i) If applicable, fees for furnishing records under this section are as set forth in § 309.5(f) except that all categories of requesters shall be charged duplication costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Information on the FDIC's World Wide Web page is available to the public without charge. If, however, information available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page is provided pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request processed under § 309.5, then fees apply and will be assessed pursuant to § 309.5(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998, as amended at 76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011; 81 FR 83646, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.5   Procedures for requesting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of a requester who seeks records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the FDIC will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as it deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures the FDIC actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and, in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing records in response to a request for records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a record necessary to respond to a request for <I>records</I> or for inspection of original records that contain exempt material or that cannot otherwise be directly inspected. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (e.g., magnetic tape or computer disk).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis as that term is defined in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of <I>news</I>) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media will be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist will be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by that entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the FDIC may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making this determination.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining records located in response to a request for records to determine whether any portion of any record is permitted to be withheld as exempt information. It includes processing any record for disclosure, e.g., doing all that is necessary to excise them or otherwise prepare them for release.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Search</I> includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within records. Searches may be done manually and/or by computer using existing programming.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Making a request for records.</I> (1) The request shall be submitted in writing to the Freedom of Information Act/Privacy Act Group (“FOIA/PA Group”), Legal Division :
</P>
<P>(i) By completing the online request form located on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, found at: <I>http://www.fdic.gov;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) By facsimile clearly marked Freedom of Information Act Request to the FOIA/PA Group: (703) 562-2797; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By sending a letter to: Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(2) The request shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the requester is an educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, or news media representative;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees, or a statement identifying a maximum fee that is acceptable to the requester, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (f)(1)(x) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The preferred form and format of any responsive information requested, if other than paper copies.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for identifiable records shall reasonably describe the records in a way that enables the FDIC's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any of the FDIC's operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Defective requests.</I> The FDIC need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this part. The FDIC may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing requests</I>—(1) <I>Receipt of requests.</I> Upon receipt of a request that satisfies paragraph (b) of this section, the FOIA/PA Group will acknowledge receipt of the request in writing to the requester and provide the requester with an individualized tracking number for the request. The date of receipt for such request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred by another agency, is the date the FOIA/PA Group actually receives the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (i) The FDIC provides different levels of processing for categories of requests under this part. Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the FOIA/PA Group, and that have already been cleared for public release may qualify for fast-track processing. All other requests shall be handled under normal processing procedures, unless expedited processing has been granted pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC will make the determination whether a request qualifies for fast-track processing. A requester may contact the FOIA/PA Group to learn whether a particular request has been assigned to fast-track processing. If the request has not qualified for fast-track processing, the requester will be given an opportunity to refine the request in order to qualify for fast-track processing. Changes made to requests to obtain faster processing must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (i) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the FDIC has determined to expedite the response, the FDIC shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(A) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(B) The requester can establish that they are primarily engaged in information dissemination as their main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the request; and
</P>
<P>(C) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment may be waived by the FDIC as a matter of administrative discretion.
</P>
<P>(4) A requester seeking expedited processing will be notified whether expedited processing has been granted within ten (10) working days of the receipt of the request. If the request for expedited processing is denied, the requester may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (i) of this section, and the FDIC shall respond to the appeal within ten (10) working days after receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Priority of responses.</I> Consistent with sound administrative process the FDIC processes requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks. However, in the agency's discretion, or upon a court order in a matter to which the FDIC is a party, a particular request may be processed out of turn.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Checking status of request.</I> A requester may check on the status of a request using the tracking number assigned to the request to obtain information about the request including the date on which the FDIC originally received the request and an estimated date on which the FDIC will complete action on the request. The status of a request may be obtained:
</P>
<P>(i) Online at the FDIC's FOIA Service Center, at <I>http://www.fdic.gov,</I> if the request was submitted electronically using the FDIC's online FOIA request form; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By calling the FDIC's FOIA Service Center at (202) 898-7021, if the request was submitted by email, facsimile or regular mail.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Notification.</I> (i) The time for response to requests will be twenty (20) working days except:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (d)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Where the running of such time is suspended for the calculation of a cost estimate for the requester if the FDIC determines that the processing of the request may exceed the requester's maximum fee provision or if the charges are likely to exceed $250 as provided for in paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Where the running of such time is suspended for the payment of fees pursuant to the paragraphs (d)(6)(i)(B) and (f)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and further described in paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In unusual circumstances as referred to in paragraph (d)(6)(i)(D) of this section, the time limit may be extended for a period of:
</P>
<P>(A) Ten (10) working days as provided by written notice to the requester, setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such alternative time period as agreed to by the requester or as reasonably determined by the FDIC when the FDIC notifies the requester that the request cannot be processed in the specified time limit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unusual circumstances may arise when:
</P>
<P>(A) The records are in facilities, such as field offices or storage centers, that are not located at the FDIC's Washington office;
</P>
<P>(B) The records requested are voluminous or are not in close proximity to one another; or
</P>
<P>(C) There is a need to consult with another agency or among two or more components of the FDIC having a substantial interest in the determination.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Response to request.</I> In response to a request that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, a search shall be conducted of records maintained by the FDIC in existence on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. The FDIC shall notify the requester of:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC's determination of the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for the determination;
</P>
<P>(iii) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the FDIC's FOIA Public Liaison; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If the response is a denial of an initial request or if any information is withheld, the FDIC will advise the requester in writing:
</P>
<P>(A) If the denial is in part or in whole;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);
</P>
<P>(C) The exemptions relied on for the denial;
</P>
<P>(D) The right of the requester to appeal the denial to the FDIC's General Counsel within 90 calendar days following receipt of the notification, as specified in paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the FDIC's FOIA Public Liaison and/or the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Providing responsive records.</I> (1) Copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the requester elects to take delivery of the documents at the FDIC or makes other acceptable arrangements, or the FDIC deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the FDIC in that form or format, but the FDIC need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.
</P>
<P>(3) By arrangement with the requester, the FDIC may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the request is in electronic format. If the information requested is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Fees</I>—(1) <I>General rules.</I> (i) Persons requesting records of the FDIC shall be charged for the direct costs of search, duplication, and review as set forth in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, unless such costs are less than the FDIC's cost of processing the requester's remittance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesters will be charged for search and review costs even if responsive records are not located or, if located, are determined to be exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Multiple requests seeking similar or related records from the same requester or group of requesters will be aggregated for the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the FDIC determines that the estimated costs of search, duplication, or review of requested records will exceed the dollar amount specified in the request, or if no dollar amount is specified, the FDIC will advise the requester of the estimated costs (if greater than the FDIC's cost of processing the requester's remittance). The requester must agree in writing to pay the costs of search, duplication, and review prior to the FDIC initiating any records search.
</P>
<P>(v) If the FDIC estimates that its search, duplication, and review costs will exceed $250.00, the requester must pay an amount equal to 20 percent of the estimated costs prior to the FDIC initiating any records search.
</P>
<P>(vi) The FDIC shall ordinarily collect all applicable fees under the final invoice before releasing copies of requested records to the requester.
</P>
<P>(vii) The FDIC may require any requester who has previously failed to pay the charges under this section within 30 calendar days of mailing of the invoice to pay in advance the total estimated costs of search, duplication, and review. The FDIC may also require a requester who has any charges outstanding in excess of 30 calendar days following mailing of the invoice to pay the full amount due, or demonstrate that the fee has been paid in full, prior to the FDIC initiating any additional records search.
</P>
<P>(viii) The FDIC may begin assessing interest charges on unpaid bills on the 31st day following the day on which the invoice was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code and will accrue from the date of the invoice.
</P>
<P>(ix) The time limit for the FDIC to respond to a request will not begin to run until the FDIC has received the requester's written agreement under paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section, and advance payment under paragraph (f)(1)(v) or (vii) of this section, or payment of outstanding charges under paragraph (f)(1)(vii) or (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) As part of the initial request, a requester may ask that the FDIC waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the FOIA/PA Group, Legal Division (or designee) and the requester will be notified in writing of his/her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph may be appealed to the FDIC's General Counsel (or designee) pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chargeable fees by category of requester.</I> (i) Commercial use requesters shall be charged search, duplication and review costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Educational institutions, non-commercial scientific institutions and news media representatives shall be charged duplication costs, except for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesters not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section shall be charged the full reasonable direct cost of search and duplication, except for the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages of duplication.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fee schedule.</I> The dollar amount of fees which the FDIC may charge to records requesters will be established by the Chief Financial Officer of the FDIC (or designee). The FDIC may charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs. Fees are subject to change as costs change.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Manual searches for records.</I> The FDIC will charge for manual searches for records at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. Where a single class of personnel (e.g., all clerical, all professional, or all executive) is used exclusively, the FDIC, at its discretion, may establish and charge an average rate for the range of grades typically involved.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Computer searches for records.</I> The fee for searches of computerized records is the actual direct cost of the search, including computer time, computer runs, and the operator's time apportioned to the search. The fee for a computer printout is the actual cost. The fees for computer supplies are the actual costs. The FDIC may, at its discretion, establish and charge a fee for computer searches based upon a reasonable FDIC-wide average rate for central processing unit operating costs and the operator's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Duplication of records.</I> (A) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of documents is the average FDIC-wide cost based upon the reasonable direct costs of making such copies.
</P>
<P>(B) For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the FDIC will charge the actual direct costs of reproducing or duplicating the documents.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Review of records.</I> The FDIC will charge commercial use requesters for the review of records at the time of processing the initial request to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. Where a single class of personnel (e.g., all clerical, all professional, or all executive) is used exclusively, the FDIC, at its discretion, may establish and charge an average rate for the range of grades typically involved. The FDIC will not charge at the administrative appeal level for review of an exemption already applied. When records or portions of records are withheld in full under an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply, the FDIC may charge for a subsequent review to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other services.</I> Complying with requests for special services, other than a readily produced electronic form or format, is at the FDIC's discretion. The FDIC may recover the full costs of providing such services to the requester.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Publication of fee schedule and effective date of changes.</I> (i) The fee schedule is made available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page, found at <I>http://www.fdic.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The fee schedule will be set forth in the “Notice of Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Records Fees” issued in December of each year or in such “Interim Notice of Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Records Fees” as may be issued. Copies of such notices may be obtained at no charge from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, and are available on the FDIC's World Wide Web page as noted in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The fees implemented in the December or Interim Notice will be effective 30 days after issuance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of contractors.</I> The FDIC may contract with independent contractors to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records; provided, however, that the FDIC has determined that the ultimate cost to the requester will be no greater than it would be if the FDIC performed these tasks itself. In no case will the FDIC contract out responsibilities which the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552) provides that the FDIC alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption or whether to waive or reduce fees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exempt information.</I> A request for records may be denied if the requested record contains information which falls into one or more of the following categories. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> If the requested record contains both exempt and nonexempt information, the nonexempt portions which may reasonably be segregated from the exempt portions will be released to the requester. If redaction is necessary, the FDIC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The categories of exempt records are as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Classification of a record as exempt from disclosure under the provisions of this paragraph (g) shall not be construed as authority to withhold the record if it is otherwise subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) or other federal statute, any applicable regulation of FDIC or any other federal agency having jurisdiction thereof, or any directive or order of any court of competent jurisdiction.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Records that are specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(3) Records specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, provided that such statute:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or
</P>
<P>(B) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; and
</P>
<P>(ii) if enacted after the date of enactment of the OPEN FOIA Act of 2009, specifically cites to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that is privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel, medical, and similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Records compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records:
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished records on a confidential basis;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(8) Records that are contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the FDIC or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> A requester seeking to engage in dispute resolution may make a request to the FOIA Public Liaison and/or OGIS by following the procedures set forth online in the FDIC's FOIA Service Center at <I>http://www.fdic.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appeals.</I> (1) Appeals should be addressed to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(2) A person whose initial request for records under this section, or whose request for a waiver of fees under paragraph (f)(1)(x) of this section, has been denied, either in part or in whole, has the right to appeal the denial to the FDIC's General Counsel (or designee) within 90 calendar days after receipt of notification of the denial. Appeals of denials of initial requests or for a waiver of fees must be in writing and include any additional information relevant to consideration of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) Except in the case of an appeal for expedited treatment under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, the FDIC will notify the appellant in writing within 20 business days after receipt of the appeal and will state:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether it is granted or denied in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (if other than the person signing the notification);
</P>
<P>(iii) The exemptions relied upon for the denial in the case of initial requests for records; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The right to judicial review of the denial under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(4) If a requester is appealing for denial of expedited treatment, the FDIC will notify the appellant within 10 business days after receipt of the appeal of the FDIC's disposition.
</P>
<P>(5) Complete payment of any outstanding fee invoice will be required before an appeal is processed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Records of another agency.</I> If a requested record is the property of another federal agency or department, and that agency or department, either in writing or by regulation, expressly retains ownership of such record, upon receipt of a request for the record the FDIC will promptly inform the requester of this ownership and immediately shall forward the request to the proprietary agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 16404, Apr. 3, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011; 76 FR 63818, Oct. 14, 2011; 81 FR 83647, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.6   Disclosure of exempt records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure prohibited.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section or by 12 CFR part 310, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> no person shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt records, or information contained therein, to any persons other than those officers, directors, employees, or agents of the Corporation who have a need for such records in the performance of their official duties. In any instance in which any person has possession, custody or control of FDIC exempt records or information contained therein, all copies of such records shall remain the property of the Corporation and under no circumstances shall any person, entity or agency disclose or make public in any manner the exempt records or information without written authorization from the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the records or information as provided in this section. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The procedures for disclosing records under the Privacy Act are separately set forth in 12 CFR part 310.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure authorized.</I> Exempt records or information of the Corporation may be disclosed only in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Requests for discretionary disclosure of exempt records or information pursuant to this paragraph (b) may be submitted directly to the Division having primary authority over the exempt records or information or to the FOIA/PA Group for forwarding to the appropriate Division having primary authority over the records sought. Such administrative request must clearly state that it seeks discretionary disclosure of exempt records, clearly identify the records sought, provide sufficient information for the Corporation to evaluate whether there is good cause for disclosure, and meet all other conditions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) through (10) of this section. Information regarding the appropriate FDIC Division having primary authority over a particular record or records may be obtained from the FOIA/PA Group. Authority to disclose or authorize disclosure of exempt records of the Corporation is delegated as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure to depository institutions.</I> The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose to any director or authorized officer, employee or agent of any depository institution, information contained in, or copies of, exempt records pertaining to that depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to state banking agencies.</I> The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose to any authorized officer or employee of any state banking or securities department or agency, copies of any exempt records to the extent the records pertain to a state-chartered depository institution supervised by the agency or authority, or where the exempt records are requested in writing for a legitimate depository institution supervisory or regulatory purpose. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure to federal financial institutions supervisory agencies and certain other agencies.</I> The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose to any authorized officer or employee of any federal financial institution supervisory agency including the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, the Financial Stability Oversight Council, the Securities and Exchange Commission, the National Credit Union Administration, or any other agency included in section 1101(7) of the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>) (RFPA), any exempt records for a legitimate depository institution supervisory or regulatory purpose. The Director, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose exempt records, including customer financial records, to certain other federal agencies as referenced in section 1113 of the RFPA for the purposes and to the extent permitted therein, or to any foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority as provided, and to the extent permitted, by section 206 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 3109). Finally, the Director, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose reports of examination or other confidential supervisory information concerning any depository institution or other entity examined by the Corporation under authority of Federal law to: Any other Federal or State agency or authority with supervisory or regulatory authority over the depository institution or other entity; any officer, director, or receiver of such depository institution or entity; and any other person that the Corporation determines to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure to prosecuting or investigatory agencies or authorities.</I> (i) Reports of Apparent Crime pertaining to suspected violations of law, which may contain customer financial records, may be disclosed to federal or state prosecuting or investigatory authorities without giving notice to the customer, as permitted in the relevant exceptions of the RFPA. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose to the proper federal or state prosecuting or investigatory authorities, or to any authorized officer or employee of such authority, copies of exempt records pertaining to irregularities discovered in depository institutions which are believed to constitute violations of any federal or state civil or criminal law, or unsafe or unsound banking practices, provided that customer financial records may be disclosed without giving notice to the customer, only as permitted by the relevant exceptions of the RFPA. Unless such disclosure is initiated by the FDIC, customer financial records shall be disclosed only in response to a written request which: 
</P>
<P>(A) Is signed by an authorized official of the agency making the request; 
</P>
<P>(B) Identifies the record or records to which access is requested; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Gives the reasons for the request. 
</P>
<P>(iii) When notice to the customer is required to be given under the RFPA, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose customer financial records to any federal or state prosecuting or investigatory agency or authority, provided, that: 
</P>
<P>(A) The General Counsel, or designee, has determined that disclosure is authorized or required by law; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure is pursuant to a written request that indicates the information is relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry within the jurisdiction of the requesting agency and: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, certifies pursuant to section 1112(a) 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> of the RFPA that the records are believed relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry within the jurisdiction of the receiving agency; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The form of certification generally is as follows. Additional information may be added: 
</P>
<P>Pursuant to section 1112(a) of the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3412), I, ______ [name and appropriate title] hereby certify that the financial records described below were transferred to (agency or department) in the belief that they were relevant to a legitimate law enforcement inquiry, within the jurisdiction of the receiving agency.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A copy of such certification and the notice required by section 1112(b) 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> of the RFPA is sent within fourteen days of the disclosure to the customer whose records are disclosed. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The form of notice generally is as follows. Additional information may be added:
</P>
<P>Dear Mr./Ms. ______:
</P>
<P>Copies of, or information contained in, your financial records lawfully in the possession of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation have been furnished to (agency or department) pursuant to the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 for the following purpose: ______. If you believe that this transfer has not been made to further a legitimate law enforcement inquiry, you may have legal rights under the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 or the Privacy Act of 1974.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Whenever the Corporation is subject to a court-ordered delay of the customer notice, the notice shall be sent immediately upon the expiration of the court-ordered delay.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosure to servicers and serviced institutions.</I> The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may disclose copies of any exempt record related to a depository institution data center, service corporation, or any other data center that provides data processing or related services to an insured institution (hereinafter referred to as “data center”) to:
</P>
<P>(i) The examined data center;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any insured institution that receives data processing or related services from the examined data center;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any state agency or authority which exercises general supervision over an institution serviced by the examined data center; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any federal financial institution supervisory agency which exercises general supervision over an institution serviced by the examined data center. The federal supervisory agency may disclose any such examination report received from the Corporation to an insured institution over which it exercises general supervision and which is serviced by the examined data center.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Disclosure to third parties.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (c)(1) through (5) of this section, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose copies of any exempt records to any third party where requested to do so in writing. Any such written request shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) Specify, with reasonable particularity, the record or records to which access is requested; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Give the reasons for the request. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Either prior to or at the time of any disclosure, the Director or designee shall require such terms and conditions as he deems necessary to protect the confidential nature of the record, the financial integrity of any depository institution to which the record relates, and the legitimate privacy interests of any individual named in such records. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Authorization for disclosure by depository institutions or other third parties.</I> (i) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may, in his or her discretion and for good cause, authorize any director, officer, employee, or agent of a depository institution to disclose copies of any exempt record in his custody to anyone who is not a director, officer or employee of the depository institution. Such authorization must be in response to a written request from the party seeking the record or from management of the depository institution to which the report or record pertains. Any such request shall specify, with reasonable particularity, the record sought, the party's interest therein, and the party's relationship to the depository institution to which the record relates. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, may, in his or her discretion and for good cause, authorize any third party, including a federal or state agency, that has received a copy of a Corporation exempt record, to disclose such exempt record to another party or agency. Such authorization must be in response to a written request from the party that has custody of the copy of the exempt record. Any such request shall specify the record sought to be disclosed and the reasons why disclosure is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any subsidiary depository institution of a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company may reproduce and furnish a copy of any report of examination of the subsidiary depository institution to the parent holding company without prior approval of the Director of the Division having primary authority over the exempt records and any depository institution may reproduce and furnish a copy of any report of examination of the disclosing depository institution to a majority shareholder if the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(A) The parent holding company or shareholder owns in excess of 50% of the voting stock of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(B) The board of directors of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution at least annually by resolution authorizes the reproduction and furnishing of reports of examination (the resolution shall specifically name the shareholder or parent holding company, state the address to which the reports are to be sent, and indicate that all reports furnished pursuant to the resolution remain the property of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and are not to be disclosed or made public in any manner without the prior written approval of the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records as provided in paragraph (b) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(C) A copy of the resolution authorizing disclosure of the reports is sent to the shareholder or parent holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The minutes of the board of directors of the depository institution or subsidiary depository institution for the meeting immediately following disclosure of a report state: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That disclosure was made; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date of the report which was disclosed; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) To whom the report was sent; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The date the report was disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(iv) With respect to any disclosure that is authorized under this paragraph (b)(7), the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, or designee, shall only permit disclosure of records upon determining that good cause exists. If the exempt record contains information derived from depository institution customer financial records, disclosure is to be authorized only upon the condition that the requesting party and the party releasing the records comply with any applicable provision of the RFPA. Before authorizing the disclosure, the Director (or designee) may require that both the party having custody of a copy of a Corporation exempt record and the party seeking access to the record agree to such limitations as the Director (or designee) deems necessary to protect the confidential nature of the record, the financial integrity of any depository institution to which the record relates and the legitimate privacy interests of any persons named in such record. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Disclosure by General Counsel.</I> (i) The Corporation's General Counsel, or designee, may disclose or authorize the disclosure of any exempt record in response to a valid judicial subpoena, court order, or other legal process, and authorize any current or former officer, director, employee, agent of the Corporation, or third party, to appear and testify regarding an exempt record or any information obtained in the performance of such person's official duties, at any administrative or judicial hearing or proceeding where such person has been served with a valid subpoena, court order, or other legal process requiring him or her to testify. The General Counsel shall consider the relevancy of such exempt records or testimony to the litigation, and the interests of justice, in determining whether to disclose such records or testimony. Third parties seeking disclosure of exempt records or testimony in litigation to which the FDIC is not a party shall submit a request for discretionary disclosure directly to the General Counsel. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Such request shall specify the information sought with reasonable particularity and shall be accompanied by a statement with supporting documentation showing in detail the relevance of such exempt information to the litigation, justifying good cause for disclosure, and a commitment to be bound by a protective order. Failure to exhaust such administrative request prior to service of a subpoena or other legal process may, in the General Counsel's discretion, serve as a basis for objection to such subpoena or legal process. Customer financial records may not be disclosed to any federal agency that is not a federal financial supervisory agency pursuant to this paragraph unless notice to the customer and certification as required by the RFPA have been given except where disclosure is subject to the relevant exceptions set forth in the RFPA. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> This administrative requirement does not apply to subpoenas, court orders or other legal process issued for records of depository institutions held by the FDIC as Receiver or Conservator. Subpoenas, court orders or other legal process issued for such records will be processed in accordance with State and Federal law, regulations, rules and privileges applicable to FDIC as Receiver or Conservator.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The General Counsel, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose or authorize disclosure of any exempt record or testimony by a current or former officer, director, employee, agent of the Corporation, or third party, sought in connection with any civil or criminal hearing, proceeding or investigation without the service of a judicial subpoena, or other legal process requiring such disclosure or testimony, if he or she determines that the records or testimony are relevant to the hearing, proceeding or investigation and that disclosure is in the best interests of justice and not otherwise prohibited by Federal statute. Customer financial records shall not be disclosed to any federal agency pursuant to this paragraph that is not a federal financial supervisory agency, unless the records are sought under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (28 U.S.C. appendix) or the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure (18 U.S.C. appendix) or comparable rules of other courts and in connection with litigation to which the receiving federal agency, employee, officer, director, or agent, and the customer are parties, or disclosure is otherwise subject to the relevant exceptions in the RFPA. Where the General Counsel or designee authorizes a current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation to testify or disclose exempt records pursuant to this paragraph (b)(8), he or she may, in his or her discretion, limit the authorization to so much of the record or testimony as is relevant to the issues at such hearing, proceeding or investigation, and he or she shall give authorization only upon fulfillment of such conditions as he or she deems necessary and practicable to protect the confidential nature of such records or testimony. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Authorization for disclosure by the Chairman of the Corporation's Board of Directors.</I> Except where expressly prohibited by law, the Chairman of the Corporation's Board of Directors may in his or her discretion, authorize the disclosure of any Corporation records. Except where disclosure is required by law, the Chairman may direct any current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation to refuse to disclose any record or to give testimony if the Chairman determines, in his or her discretion, that refusal to permit such disclosure is in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Limitations on disclosure.</I> All steps practicable shall be taken to protect the confidentiality of exempt records and information. Any disclosure permitted by paragraph (b) of this section is discretionary and nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as requiring the disclosure of information. Further, nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as restricting, in any manner, the authority of the Board of Directors, the Chairman of the Board of Directors, the Director of the Corporation's Division having primary authority over the exempt records, the Corporation's General Counsel, or their designees, or any other Corporation Division or Office head, in their discretion and in light of the facts and circumstances attendant in any given case, to require conditions upon and to limit the form, manner, and extent of any disclosure permitted by this section. Wherever practicable, disclosure of exempt records shall be made pursuant to a protective order and redacted to exclude all irrelevant or non-responsive exempt information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 16408, Apr. 3, 1998; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 73 FR 2146, Jan. 14, 2008; 76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 309.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 309.7   Service of process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Any subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the FDIC shall be duly issued by a court having jurisdiction over the FDIC, and served upon either the Executive Secretary (or designee), FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, or the Regional Director or Regional Manager of the FDIC region where the legal action from which the subpoena or process was issued is pending. A list of the FDIC's regional offices is available from the Office of Public Affairs, FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429 (telephone 202-898-6996). Where the FDIC is named as a party, service of process shall be made pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, and upon the Executive Secretary (or designee), FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, or upon the agent designated to receive service of process in the state, territory, or jurisdiction in which any insured depository institution is located. Identification of the designated agent in the state, territory, or jurisdiction may be obtained from the Executive Secretary or from the Office of the General Counsel, FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429. The Executive Secretary (or designee), Regional Director or designated agent shall immediately forward any subpoena, court order or legal process to the General Counsel. The Corporation may require the payment of fees, in accordance with the fee schedule referred to in § 309.5(c)(3), prior to the release of any records requested pursuant to any subpoena or other legal process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification by person served.</I> If any current or former officer, director, employee or agent of the Corporation, or any other person who has custody of records belonging to the FDIC, is served with a subpoena, court order, or other process requiring that person's attendance as a witness concerning any matter related to official duties, or the production of any exempt record of the Corporation, such person shall promptly advise the General Counsel of such service, of the testimony and records described in the subpoena, and of all relevant facts which may be of assistance to the General Counsel in determining whether the individual in question should be authorized to testify or the records should be produced. Such person should also inform the court or tribunal which issued the process and the attorney for the party upon whose application the process was issued, if known, of the substance of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appearance by person served.</I> Absent the written authorization of the Corporation's General Counsel, or designee, to disclose the requested information, any current or former officer, director, employee, or agent of the Corporation, and any other person having custody of records of the Corporation, who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process, shall attend at the time and place therein specified and respectfully decline to produce any such record or give any testimony with respect thereto, basing such refusal on this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 61465, Nov. 30, 1995, as amended at 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="310" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 310—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 310.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish regulations implementing the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a. These regulations delineate the procedures that an individual must follow in exercising his or her access or amendment rights under the Privacy Act to records maintained by the Corporation in systems of records, including information transferred to Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation from the Office of Thrift Supervision pursuant to sections 312 and 323 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>individual</I> means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence; 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, disseminate, or control; 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>record</I> means any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that contains his/her name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual; 
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>system of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of the Corporation from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or some identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual; 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>designated system of records</I> means a system of records which has been listed and summarized in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> pursuant to the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e); 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>routine use</I> means, with respect to disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was created; 
</P>
<P>(h) The terms <I>amend</I> or <I>amendment</I> mean any correction, addition to or deletion from a record; and 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>system manager</I> means the agency official responsible for a designated system of records, as denominated in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of “Systems of Records Maintained by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.3   Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a system of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any present or former employee of the Corporation seeking access to, or amendment of, his/her official personnel records maintained by the Corporation shall submit his/her request in such manner as is prescribed by the United States Office of Personnel Management in part 297 of its rules and regulations (5 CFR part 297). For access to, or amendment of, other government-wide records systems maintained by the Corporation, the procedures prescribed in the respective <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Privacy Act system notice shall be followed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Requests by individuals for access to records pertaining to them and maintained within one of the Corporation's designated systems of records should be submitted in writing to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. Each such request should contain a reasonable description of the records sought, the system or systems in which such record may be contained, and any additional identifying information, as specified in the Corporation's <E T="04">Federal Register</E> “Notice of Systems of Records” for that particular system, copies of which are available upon request from the FOIA/PA Group.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 61 FR 43419, Aug. 23, 1996; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 76 FR 35965, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.4   Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals may request access to records pertaining to themselves by submitting a written request as provided in § 310.3 of these regulations, or by appearing in person on weekdays, other than official holidays, at the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, between the hours of 8:30 a.m. and 5 p.m.
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals appearing in person at the Corporation seeking access to or amendment of their records shall present two forms of reasonable identification, such as employment identification cards, driver's licenses, or other identification cards or documents typically used for identification purposes. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except for records that must be publicly disclosed pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, where the Corporation determines it to be necessary for the individual's protection, a certification of a duly commissioned notary public, of any state or territory, attesting to the requesting individual's identity, or an unsworn declaration subscribed to as true under the penalty of perjury under the laws of the United States of America, at the election of the individual, may be required before a written request seeking access to or amendment of a record will be honored. The Corporation may also require that individuals provide minimal identifying data such as full name, date and place of birth, or other personal information necessary to ensure proper identity before processing requests for records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 61 FR 43419, Aug. 23, 1996; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 76 FR 35966, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.5   Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except to the extent that Corporation records pertaining to an individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Are exempt from disclosure under §§ 310.6 and 310.13 of this part, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Were compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding, the Corporation will make such records available upon request for purposes of inspection and copying by the individual (after proper identity verification as provided in § 310.4) and, upon the individual's request and written authorization, by another person of the individual's own choosing.
</P>
<P>(b) The FOIA/PA Group will notify, in writing, the individual making a request, whenever practicable within ten business days following receipt of the request, whether any specified designated system of records maintained by the Corporation contains a record pertaining to the individual. Where such a record does exist, the FOIA/PA Group also will inform the individual of the system manager's decision whether to grant or deny the request for access. In the event existing records are determined not to be disclosable, the notification will inform the individual of the reasons for which disclosure will not be made and will provide a description of the individual's right to appeal the denial, as more fully set forth in § 310.9. Where access is to be granted, the notification will specify the procedures for verifying the individual's identity, as set forth in § 310.4.
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals will be granted access to records disclosable under this part 310 as soon as is practicable. The FOIA/PA Group will give written notification of a reasonable period within which individuals may inspect disclosable records pertaining to themselves at the offices of the FOIA/PA Group during normal business hours. Alternatively, individuals granted access to records under this part may request that copies of such records be forwarded to them. Fees for copying such records will be assessed as provided in § 310.11. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.6   Special procedures: Medical records.</HEAD>
<P>Medical records shall be disclosed on request to the individuals to whom they pertain, except, if in the judgment of the Corporation, the transmission of the medical information directly to the requesting individual could have an adverse effect upon such individual. In the event medical information is withheld from a requesting individual due to any possible adverse effect such information may have upon the individual, the Corporation shall transmit such information to a medical doctor named by the requesting individual for release of the patient. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.7   Request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation will maintain all records it uses in making any determination about any individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness as is reasonably necessary to assure fairness to the individual in the determination. An individual may request that the Corporation amend any portion of a record pertaining to that individual which the Corporation maintains in a designated system of records. Such a request should be submitted in writing to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429 and should contain the individual's reason for requesting the amendment and a description of the record (including the name of the appropriate designated system and category thereof) sufficient to enable the Corporation to identify the particular record or portion thereof with respect to which amendment is sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 35966, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.8   Agency review of request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests by individuals for the amendment of records will be acknowledged by the FOIA/PA Group, and referred to the system manager of the system of records in which the record is contained for determination, within ten business days following receipt of such requests. Promptly thereafter, the FOIA/PA Group will notify the individual of the system manager's decision to grant or deny the request to amend.
</P>
<P>(b) If the system manager denies a request to amend a record, the notification of such denial shall contain the reason for the denial and a description of the individual's right to appeal the denial as more fully set forth in § 310.9. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 42 FR 6796, Feb. 4, 1977; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 76 FR 35966, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.9   Appeal of adverse initial agency determination on access or amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A system manager's denial of an individual's request for access to or amendment of a record pertaining to him/her may be appealed in writing to the Corporation's General Counsel (or designee) within 30 business days following receipt of notification of the denial. Such an appeal should be addressed to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Attn: FOIA/PA Group, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, and contain all the information specified for requests for access in § 310.3 or for initial requests to amend in § 310.7, as well as any other additional information the individual deems relevant for the consideration by the General Counsel (or designee) of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel (or designee) will normally make a final determination with respect to an appeal made under this part within 30 business days following receipt by the Office of the Executive Secretary of the appeal. The General Counsel (or designee) may, however, extend this 30-day time period for good cause. Where such an extension is required, the individual making the appeal will be notified of the reason for the extension and the expected date upon which a final decision will be given.
</P>
<P>(c) If the General Counsel (or designee) affirms the initial denial of a request for access or to amend, he or she will inform the individual affected of the decision, the reason therefor, and the right of judicial review of the decision. In addition, as pertains to a request for amendment, the individual may at that point submit to the Corporation a concise statement setting forth his or her reasons for disagreeing with the Corporation's refusal to amend.
</P>
<P>(d) Any statement of disagreement with the Corporation's refusal to amend, filed with the Corporation by an individual pursuant to § 310.9(c), will be included in the disclosure of any records under the authority of § 310.10(b). The Corporation may in its discretion also include a copy of a concise statement of its reasons for not making the requested amendment. 
</P>
<P>(e) The General Counsel (or designee) may on his or her own motion refer an appeal to the Board of Directors for a determination, and the Board of Directors on its own motion may consider an appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 34209, Sept. 10, 1987, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002; 76 FR 35966, June 21, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.10   Disclosure of record to person other than the individual to whom it pertains.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Corporation will not disclose any record contained in a designated system of records to any person or agency except with the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record pertains. 
</P>
<P>(b) The restrictions on disclosure in paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to any of the following disclosures: 
</P>
<P>(1) To those officers and employees of the Corporation who have a need for the record in the performance of their duties; 
</P>
<P>(2) Which is required under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552); 
</P>
<P>(3) For a routine use listed with respect to a designated system of records; 
</P>
<P>(4) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of title 13 U.S.C.; 
</P>
<P>(5) To a recipient who has provided the Corporation with advance adequate written assurance that the record will be used solely as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable; 
</P>
<P>(6) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or his or her designee to determine whether the record has such value; 
</P>
<P>(7) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to the Corporation specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record is sought; 
</P>
<P>(8) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if, upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual; 
</P>
<P>(9) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee; 
</P>
<P>(10) To the Comptroller General, or any of his or her authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the General Accounting Office; 
</P>
<P>(11) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(12) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(f) of title 31. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation will adhere to the following procedures in the case of disclosure of any record pursuant to the authority of paragraphs (b)(3) through (b)(12) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation will keep a record of the date, nature and purpose of each such disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person or agency to whom such disclosure is made; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation will retain and, with the exception of disclosures made pursuant to paragraph (b)(7) of this section, make available to the individual named in the record for the greater of five years or the life of the record all material compiled under paragraph (d)(1) of this section with respect to disclosure of such record. 
</P>
<P>(d) Whenever a record which has been disclosed by the Corporation under authority of paragraph (b) of this section is, within a reasonable amount of time after such disclosure, either amended by the Corporation or the subject of a statement of disagreement, the Corporation will transmit such additional information to any person or agency to whom the record was disclosed, if such disclosure was subject to the accounting requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.11   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation, upon a request for records disclosable pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), shall charge a fee of $0.10 per page for duplicating, except as follows: 
</P>
<P>(a) If the Corporation determines that it can grant access to a record only by providing a copy of the record, no fee will be charged for providing the first copy of the record or any portion thereof; 
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the aggregate fees computed under this section do not exceed $10 for any one request, the fee will be deemed waived by the Corporation; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Whenever the Corporation determines that a reduction or waiver is warranted, it may reduce or waive any fees imposed for furnishing requested information pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 46274, Oct. 6, 1975, as amended at 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.12   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Subsection (i)(3) of the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)) imposes criminal penalties for obtaining Corporation records on individuals under false pretenses. The subsection provides as follows: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Any person who knowingly and willfully requests or obtains any record concerning an individual from an agency under false pretenses shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000.</P></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 310.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.9.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 310.13   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The following systems of records are exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules: 
</P>
<P>(a) Investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes in the following systems of records is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules; 
</P>
<P><I>Provided, however,</I> That if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he/she would otherwise be entitled under Federal law, or for which he/she would otherwise be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be disclosed to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>30-64-0002</I>—Financial institutions investigative and enforcement records system.
</P>
<P><I>30-64-0010</I>—Investigative files and records.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Investigatory material compiled solely for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Corporation employment to the extent that disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Corporation under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, or, prior to September 27, 1975, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, in the following systems of records, is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>30-64-0001</I>—Attorney-legal intern applicant system.
</P>
<P><I>30-64-0010</I>—Investigative files and records.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Testing or examination material used solely to determine or assess individual qualifications for appointment or promotion in the Corporation's service, the disclosure of which would compromise the objectivity or fairness of the testing, evaluation, or examination process in the following system of records, is exempt from §§ 310.3 through 310.9 and § 310.10(c)(2) of these rules:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>30-64-0009</I>—Examiner training and education records.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 6797, Feb. 4, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 33720, July 1, 1977; 54 FR 38507, Sept. 19, 1989; 61 FR 43420, Aug. 23, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="311" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 311—RULES GOVERNING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF MEETINGS OF THE CORPORATION'S BOARD OF DIRECTORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552b and 12 U.S.C. 1819. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 311.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements the policy of the “Government in the Sunshine Act”, section 552b of title 5 U.S.C., which is to provide the public with as much information as possible regarding the decision making process of certain Federal agencies, including the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, while preserving the rights of individuals and the ability of the agency to carry out its responsibilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board</I> means Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and includes any subdivision of the Board authorized to act on behalf of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meeting</I> means the deliberations (including those conducted by conference telephone call, or by any other method) of at least three members where such deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of agency business but does not include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Deliberations to determine whether meetings will be open or closed or whether information pertaining to closed meetings will be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(2) Informal background discussions among Board members and staff which clarify issues and expose varying views; 
</P>
<P>(3) Decision-making by circulating written material to individual Board members; 
</P>
<P>(4) Sessions with individuals from outside the Corporation where Board members listen to a presentation and may elicit additional information. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Member</I> means a member of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Open to public observation</I> and <I>open to the public</I> mean that individuals may witness the meeting, but not participate in the deliberations. The meeting may be recorded, photographed, or otherwise reproduced if the reproduction does not disturb the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public announcement</I> and <I>publicly announce</I> mean making reasonable effort under the particular circumstances of each case to fully inform the public. This may include posting notice on the Corporation's public notice bulletin board maintained in the lobby of its offices located at 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, issuing a press release and employing other methods of notification that may be desirable in a particular situation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 59494, Nov. 18, 1977; 54 FR 38965, Sept. 22, 1989; 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.3   Meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Open meetings.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, every portion of every meeting of the Corporation's Board will be open to public observation. Board members will not jointly conduct or dispose of Corporation business other than in accordance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When meetings may be closed and announcements and disclosures withheld.</I> Except where the Board finds that the public interest requires otherwise, a meeting or portion thereof may be closed, and announcements and disclosure pertaining thereto may be withheld when the Board determines that such meeting or portion of the meeting or the disclosure of such information is likely to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are: (i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy and (ii) in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552): <I>Provided,</I> That such statute: (i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or (ii) establishes particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential; 
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person; 
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would: (i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, (ii) deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, (iii) constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, (iv) disclose the identity of a confidential source, (v) disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or (vi) endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Corporation or any other agency responsible for the supervision of financial institutions; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to: 
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Lead to significant financial speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or 
</P>
<P>(B) Significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed Corporation action, except that this paragraph (b)(9)(ii) shall not apply in any instance where the Corporation has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Corporation is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or 
</P>
<P>(10) Specifically concern the Corporation's issuance of a subpoena, or the Corporation's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct, or disposition by the Corporation of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in 5 U.S.C. 554 or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.4   Procedures for announcing meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Except to the extent that such announcements are exempt from disclosure under § 311.3(b), announcements relating to open meetings, and meetings closed under the regular closing procedures of § 311.5, will be made in the manner set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time and content of announcement.</I> The Corporation will make public announcement at least seven days before the meeting of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, whether it is to be open or closed to the public, and the name and telephone number of the official designated by the Corporation to respond to requests for information about the meeting. This announcement will be made unless a majority of the Board determines by a recorded vote that Corporation business requires that a meeting be called on lesser notice. In such cases, the Corporation will make public announcement of the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, and whether it is open or closed to the public, at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Changing time or place of meeting.</I> The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the public announcement required by paragraph (b) of this section only if the Corporation publicly announces the change at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changing subject matter or nature of meeting.</I> The subject matter of a meeting, or the determination to open or close a meeting or a portion of a meeting, may be changed following the public announcement only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of the entire Board determines by recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation publicly announces the change and the vote of each member upon such change at the earliest practicable time, which may be later than the commencement of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Publication of announcements in Federal Register.</I> Immediately following each public announcement under this section, such announcement will be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Executive Secretary. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.5   Regular procedure for closing meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Unless § 311.6 is applicable, the procedures for closing meetings will be those set forth in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> (1) A decision to close a meeting or portion of a meeting will be taken only when a majority of the entire Board votes to take such action. In deciding whether to close a meeting or portion of a meeting, the Board will consider whether the public interest requires an open meeting. A separate vote of the Board will be taken with respect to each meeting which is proposed to be closed in whole or in part to the public. A single vote may be taken with respect to a series of meetings which are proposed to be closed in whole or in part to the public, or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings, so long as each meeting in the series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in the series. The vote of each Board member will be recorded and no proxies will be allowed. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual whose interests may be directly affected may request that the Corporation close any portion of a meeting for any of the reasons referred to in paragraph (b)(5), (6), or (b)(7) of § 311.3. Requests should be directed to the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. After receiving notice that an individual desires a portion of a meeting to be closed, the Board, upon request of any one of its members, will vote by recorded vote whether to close the relevant portion of the meeting. This procedure will apply even if the individual's request is made subsequent to the announcement of a decision to hold an open meeting. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation's General Counsel will make the public certification required by § 311.7. 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 1 day after any vote taken pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) or (2) of this section, the Corporation will make publicly available a written copy of the vote, reflecting the vote of each Board member. Except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure, if a meeting or portion of a meeting is to be closed to the public, the Corporation will make publicly available within 1 day after the required vote a full written explanation of its action, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the meeting and their affiliation. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Corporation will publicly announce the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, with determinations as to open and closed portions, in the manner and within the time limits prescribed in § 311.4. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977; 42 FR 16616, Mar. 29, 1977, as amended at 42 FR 59494, Nov. 18, 1977; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.6   Expedited procedure for announcing and closing certain meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Since a majority of its meetings may properly be closed pursuant to paragraph (b)(4), (8), (9)(i), or (b)(10) of § 311.3, subsection (d)(4) of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b) allows the Corporation to use expedited procedures in closing meetings under these four subparagraphs. Absent a compelling public interest to the contrary, meetings or portions of meetings that can be expected to be closed using these procedures include, but are not limited to: Administrative enforcement proceedings under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818); appointment of the Corporation as conservator of a depository institution, or as receiver, liquidator or liquidating agent of a closed depository institution or a depository institution in danger of closing; and certain management and liquidation activities pursuant to such appointments; possible financial assistance by the Corporation under section 13 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823); certain depository institution applications including applications to establish or move branches, applications to merge, and applications for insurance; and investigatory activity under section 10(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)). In announcing and closing meetings or portions of meetings under this section, the following procedures will be observed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Announcement.</I> Except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure under the provisions of § 311.3(b) the Corporation will make public announcement of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting and of each portion thereof at the earliest practicable time. This announcement will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> if publication can be effected at least 1 day prior to the scheduled date of the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for closing.</I> (1) The Corporation's General Counsel will make the public certification required by § 311.7. 
</P>
<P>(2) At the beginning of a meeting or portion of a meeting to be closed under this section, a recorded vote of the Board will be taken. The Board will determine by its vote whether to proceed with the closing. If a majority of the entire Board votes to close, the meeting will be closed to public observation. Even though a meeting or portion thereof could properly be closed under this section, a majority of the entire Board may find that the public interest requires an open session and vote, reflecting the vote of each Board member, will be made available to the public. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977; 42 FR 16616, Mar. 29, 1977, as amended at 54 FR 38965, Sept. 22, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.7   General Counsel certification.</HEAD>
<P>For every meeting or portion thereof closed under § 311.5 or § 311.6, the Corporation's General Counsel will publicly certify that, in the opinion of such General Counsel, the meeting may be closed to the public and will state each relevant exemptive provision. In the absence of the General Counsel, the next ranking official in the Legal Division may perform the certification. If the General Counsel and such next ranking official in the Legal Division are both absent, the official in the Legal Division who is then next in rank may provide the required certification. A copy of this certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting, and the persons present, will be retained in the Board's permanent files. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 311.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 311.8   Transcripts and minutes of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When required.</I> The Corporation will maintain a complete transcript, identifying each speaker, to record fully the proceedings of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public, except that in the case of a meeting or portions of a meeting closed to the public pursuant to paragraph (b)(8), (9)(i), or (10) of § 311.3, the Corporation may, in lieu of a transcript, maintain a set of minutes. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of minutes.</I> If minutes are maintained, they will fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and will provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons for taking such action. Minutes will also include a description of each of the views expressed by each person in attendance on any item and the record of any roll call vote, reflecting the vote of each member. All documents considered in connection with any action will be identified in the minutes. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Available material.</I> The Corporation will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript or minutes of each meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public for a period of at least 2 years after the meeting, or until 1 year after the conclusion of any proceeding with respect to which the meeting or portion was held, whichever occurs later. The Corporation will make promptly available to the public the transcript, identifying each speaker, or minutes of items on the agenda or testimony of any witness received at the closed meeting except that in cases where the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) does not apply, the Corporation may withhold information exempt from disclosure under § 311.3(b). For the convenience of members of the public who may be unable to attend open meetings of the Board, the Corporation will maintain for at least 2 years a set of minutes of each meeting of the Board or portion thereof open to public observation. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for inspecting or copying available material.</I> (1) An individual may inspect materials made available under paragraph (c) of this section at the offices of the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, during normal business hours. If the individual desires a copy of such material, the Corporation will furnish copies at a cost of 10 cents per page. Whenever the Corporation determines that in the public interest a reduction or waiver is warranted, it may reduce or waive any fees imposed under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual may also submit a written request for transcripts or minutes, reasonably identifying the records sought, to the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for obtaining documents identified in minutes.</I> Copies of documents identified in minutes or considered by the Board in connection with any action identified in the minutes may be made available to the public upon request, to the extent permitted by the Freedom of Information Act, under the provisions of 12 CFR part 309, Disclosure of Information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 14675, Mar. 16, 1977, as amended at 61 FR 38357, July 24, 1996; 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="312" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 312 [RESERVED] 


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="313" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 313—PROCEDURES FOR COLLECTION OF CORPORATE DEBT, CRIMINAL RESTITUTION DEBT, AND CIVIL MONEY PENALTY DEBT 


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 1818(i), 1819(a); Pub. L. 104-134, 110 Stat. 1321 (31 U.S.C. 3701, 3711, 3716).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 48527, July 25, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope, Purpose, Definitions and Delegations of Authority</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 1742, Jan. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 313.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(a) This part applies to collections by the FDIC from:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal employees who are indebted to the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of the FDIC who are indebted to other agencies;
</P>
<P>(3) Other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to the FDIC, except those excluded in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Civil money penalty debtors assessed civil money penalties by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) To debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Title 26, U.S. Code), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>), or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) To a situation to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) applies; or
</P>
<P>(3) In any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.
</P>
<P>(c) This part applies only to:
</P>
<P>(1) Debts owed to and payments made by the FDIC acting in its corporate capacity, that is, in connection with employee matters such as travel-related claims and erroneous overpayments, contracting activities involving corporate operations, debts related to requests to the FDIC for documents under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), or where a request for an offset is received by the FDIC from another Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Criminal restitution debt owed to the FDIC in either its corporate capacity or its receivership capacity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Civil money penalties arising out of the FDIC's activities in its supervision or enforcement capacities.
</P>
<P>(4) With the exception of criminal restitution debt noted in paragraph (c)(2) of this section and civil money penalty debt noted in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, this part does not apply to debts owed to or payments made by the FDIC in connection with the FDIC's liquidation, supervision, enforcement, or insurance responsibilities, nor does it limit or affect the FDIC's authority with respect to debts or claims under 12 U.S.C. 1819(a) and 1820(a).
</P>
<P>(d) Subparts B through G of this part do not apply to the collection of civil money penalty debt.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under: Standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.</I>); the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR chapter IX); or any other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement Federal statutes and regulatory standards authorizing the FDIC to collect debts owed to the United States. This part is consistent with the following Federal statutes and regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) DCIA at 31 U.S.C. 3711 (collection and compromise of claims); section 3716 (administrative offset), section 3717 (interest and penalty on claims), and section 3718 (contracts for collection services);
</P>
<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 5514 (salary offset);
</P>
<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 5584 (waiver of claims for overpayment);
</P>
<P>(4) 31 CFR chapter IX (Federal Claims Collection Standards);
</P>
<P>(5) 5 CFR part 550, subpart K (salary offset);
</P>
<P>(6) 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11 (administrative wage garnishment);
</P>
<P>(7) 26 U.S.C. 6402(d), 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and 31 CFR 285.2 (tax refund offset); and
</P>
<P>(8) 5 CFR 831.1801 through 1808 (U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) offset).
</P>
<P>(b) Collectively, the statutes and regulations in paragraph (a) of this section prescribe the manner in which Federal agencies should proceed to establish the existence and validity of debts owed to the Federal Government and describe the remedies available to agencies to offset valid debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise or where the term is defined elsewhere in this subpart, the following definitions shall apply to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means a department, agency, court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of Government, including Government corporations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Directors of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Centralized administrative offset</I> means the mandatory referral to the Secretary of the Treasury by a creditor agency of a past due debt which is more than 180 days delinquent, for the purpose of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification</I> means a written statement transmitted from a creditor agency to a paying agency for purposes of administrative or salary offset, to Treasury's Bureau of the Fiscal Service for offset or to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset. The certification confirms the existence and amount of the debt and verifies that required procedural protections have been afforded the debtor. Where the debtor requests a hearing on a claimed debt, the decision by a hearing official or administrative law judge constitutes a certification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Chairman</I> means the Chairman of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Compromise</I> means the settlement or forgiveness of a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3711 or 12 U.S.C. 1818(i)(2)(F) (for civil money penalties), in accordance with standards set forth in the FCCS and applicable Federal law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Creditor agency</I> means an agency of the Federal Government to which the debt is owed, or a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency to collect a debt.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Debt</I> means an amount owed to the United States from loans insured or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due the United States from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, restitution, fines and forfeitures, and all other similar sources. For purposes of this part, a debt owed to the FDIC constitutes a debt owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or other Government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the Division of Finance (DOF), the Director of the Division of Administration (DOA), the Director of the Division of Resolutions and Receiverships (DRR), the Director of the Division of Risk Management Supervision (RMS), the Director of the Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection (DCP), or the Director of the Division of Complex Institution Supervision and Resolution (CISR), as applicable, or the applicable Director's designee.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current adjusted basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, and, in the case of an employee not entitled to adjusted basic pay, other authorized pay, remaining for each pay period after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. The FDIC shall allow the following deductions in determining the amount of disposable pay that is subject to salary offset:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal employment taxes;
</P>
<P>(2) Federal, state, or local income taxes to the extent authorized or required by law, but no greater than would be the case if the employee claimed all dependents to which he or she is entitled and such additional amounts for which the employee presents evidence of a tax obligation supporting the additional withholding;
</P>
<P>(3) Medicare deductions;
</P>
<P>(4) Health insurance premiums;
</P>
<P>(5) Normal retirement contributions, including employee contributions to the Thrift Savings Plan or the FDIC 401(k) Plan;
</P>
<P>(6) Normal life insurance premiums (<I>e.g.,</I> Serviceman's Group Life Insurance and “Basic Life” Federal Employee's Group Life Insurance premiums), not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage;
</P>
<P>(7) Amounts mandatorily withheld for the United States Soldiers' and Airmen's Home; and
</P>
<P>(8) Fines and forfeiture ordered by a court-martial or by a commanding officer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Division of Administration</I> (DOA) means the Division of Administration of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Division of Complex Institution Supervision and Resolution</I> (CISR) means the Division of Complex Institution Supervision and Resolution of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection</I> (DCP) means the Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Division of Finance</I> (DOF) means the Division of Finance of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Division of Resolutions and Receiverships</I> (DRR) means the Division of Resolutions and Receiverships of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Division of Risk Management Supervision</I> (RMS) means the Division of Risk Management Supervision of the FDIC, or any successor division of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Federal Claims Collection Standards</I> (FCCS) means standards published at 31 CFR chapter IX.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Hearing official</I> means an administrative law judge or other individual authorized to conduct a hearing and issue a final decision in response to a debtor's request for hearing. A hearing official may not be under the supervision or control of the Chairman or FDIC Board when the FDIC is the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Notice of Intent to Offset</I> or <I>Notice of Intent</I> means a written notice from a creditor agency to an employee, organization, entity, restitution debtor, or civil money penalty debtor that claims a debt and informs the debtor that the creditor agency intends to collect the debt by administrative offset. The notice also informs the debtor of certain procedural rights with respect to the claimed debt and offset.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice of Salary Offset</I> means a written notice from a paying agency to its employee informing the employee that salary offset to collect a debt due to the creditor agency will begin at the next officially established pay interval. The paying agency transmits this notice to its employee after receiving a certification from the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Paying agency</I> means the agency of the Federal Government that employs the individual who owes a debt to an agency of the Federal Government. The same agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to an agency, as authorized or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or any other law.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Withholding order</I> means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial or administrative body. For purposes of administrative wage garnishment, the terms “wage garnishment order” and “garnishment order” have the same meaning as “withholding order.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.4   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Authority to conduct the following activities is delegated as follows: Authority to collect debt, other than criminal restitution debt and civil money penalty debt, on behalf of the FDIC in its corporate capacity is delegated to the Director of DOA or Director of DOF, as applicable, or to the applicable Director's designee; and authority to collect criminal restitution debt on behalf of the FDIC in either its receivership or corporate capacity is delegated to the Director of DRR, or to her or his designee. These individuals, under the delegations in this section, may do the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Initiate and carry out the debt collection process on behalf of the FDIC, in accordance with the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(b) Accept or reject compromise offers and suspend or terminate collection actions to the full extent of the FDIC's legal authority under 12 U.S.C. 1819(a) and 1820(a), 31 U.S.C. 3711(a)(2), and any other applicable statute or regulation, provided, however, that no such claim shall be compromised or collection action terminated, except upon the concurrence of the FDIC General Counsel or his or her designee;
</P>
<P>(c) Report to consumer reporting agencies certain data pertaining to delinquent debts, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(d) Use administrative offset procedures, including salary offset, to collect debts; and
</P>
<P>(e) Take any other action necessary to promptly and effectively collect debts owed to the United States in accordance with the policies contained herein and as otherwise provided by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.5-313.19" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.5-313.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.20   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this subpart apply to the collection of debts owed to the United States arising from transactions with the FDIC. Administrative offset is authorized under the DCIA. This subpart is consistent with the FCCS on administrative offset issued by the Department of Justice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Person</I> includes a natural person or persons, profit or nonprofit corporation, partnership, association, trust, estate, consortium, or other entity which is capable of owing a debt to the United States Government except that agencies of the United States, or any state or local government shall be excluded.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.22   Collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may collect a claim from a person by administrative offset of monies payable by the Government only after:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing the debtor with due process required under this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing the paying agency with written certification that the debtor owes the debt in the amount stated and that the FDIC, as creditor agency, has complied with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to initiating collection by administrative offset, the Director should determine that the proposed offset is within the scope of this remedy, as set forth in 31 CFR 901.3(a). Administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be used to collect debts more than 10 years after the federal government's right to collect the debt first accrued, except as otherwise provided by law. In addition, administrative offset may not be used when a statute explicitly prohibits its use to collect the claim or type of claim involved.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless otherwise provided, debts or payments not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under common law, or any other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.23" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.23   Offset prior to completion of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may collect a debt by administrative offset prior to the completion of the procedures described in § 313.25, if:
</P>
<P>(a) Failure to offset a payment would substantially prejudice the FDIC's ability to collect the debt; and
</P>
<P>(b) The time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit completion of the procedures described in § 313.25. Such prior offsetting shall be followed promptly by the completion of the procedures described in § 313.25.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.24" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.24   Omission of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall not be required to follow the procedures described in § 313.25 where:
</P>
<P>(a) The offset is in the nature of a recoupment (<I>i.e.,</I> the FDIC may offset a payment due to the debtor when both the payment due to the debtor and the debt owed to the FDIC arose from the same transaction); or
</P>
<P>(b) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in <I>Cecile Industries, Inc.</I> v. <I>Cheney,</I> 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993), which provides that procedural protections under administrative offset do not supplant or restrict established procedures for contractual offsets accommodated by the Contracts Disputes Act; or
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets, the FDIC first learns of the existence of a debt due when there would be insufficient time to afford the debtor due process under these procedures before the paying agency makes payment to the debtor; in such cases, the Director shall give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practical and shall refund any money ultimately found not to be due to the U.S. Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.25" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.25   Debtor's rights.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the procedures described in § 313.23 are used, prior to collecting any claim by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, the Director shall provide the debtor with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Written notification of the nature and amount of the claim, the intention of the Director to collect the claim through administrative offset, and a statement of the rights of the debtor under this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(b) An opportunity to inspect and copy the records of the FDIC with respect to the claim, unless such records are exempt from disclosure;
</P>
<P>(c) An opportunity to have the FDIC's determination of indebtedness reviewed by the Director:
</P>
<P>(1) Any request by the debtor for such review shall be in writing and shall be submitted to the FDIC within 30 calendar days of the date of the notice of the offset. The Director may waive the time limit for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon acceptance of a request for review by the debtor, the FDIC shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity, or the Director determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although the Director shall document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. In cases where an oral hearing is not required by this section, the Director shall make his determination based on a documentary hearing consisting of a review of the written record; and
</P>
<P>(d) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement for the voluntary repayment of the amount of the claim at the discretion of the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.26" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.26   Interest.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, the FDIC shall assess interest, penalties and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States. The FDIC is authorized to assess interest and related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.27" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.27   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Government shall be promptly refunded. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.28" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.28   No requirement for duplicate notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Director has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, the Director is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.29" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.29   Requests for offset to other federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may request that a debt owed to the FDIC be administratively offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another federal agency. In requesting administrative offset, the FDIC, as the creditor agency, will certify in writing to the federal agency holding funds payable to the debtor: 
</P>
<P>(a) That the debtor owes the debt; 
</P>
<P>(b) The amount and basis of the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(c) That the FDIC has complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716 with respect to providing the debtor with due process, unless otherwise provided. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.30   Requests for offset from other federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Any federal agency may request that funds due and payable to its debtor by the FDIC be administratively offset by the FDIC in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor. The FDIC shall initiate the requested offset only upon: 
</P>
<P>(a) Receipt of written certification from the creditor agency stating: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the debt; 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(3) That the agency has complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of 31 CFR 901.3, including providing any required hearing or review. 
</P>
<P>(b) A determination by the creditor agency that collection by offset against funds payable by the FDIC would be in the best interest of the United States and that such offset would not otherwise be contrary to law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.31-313.39" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.31-313.39   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>These salary offset regulations are issued in compliance with 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and apply to the collection of debts owed by employees of the FDIC or other federal agencies. These salary offset procedures do not apply where an employee consents to the recovery of a debt from his current pay account. These procedures do not apply to debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code, the tariff laws of the United States or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances under 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses under 5 U.S.C. 4108). These procedures do not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner specified by law or these agency regulations. This section also does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of the collection of a debt under any other applicable statutory authority. When possible, salary offset through centralized administrative offset procedures should be attempted before seeking salary offset from a paying agency different than the creditor agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.41" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.41   Notice requirement where FDIC is creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>Where the FDIC seeks salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 as the creditor agency, the FDIC shall first provide the employee with a written Notice of Intent to Offset at least 30 calendar days before salary offset is to commence. The Notice of Intent to Offset shall include the following information and statements: 
</P>
<P>(a) That the Director has determined that a debt is owed to the FDIC and intends to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest is paid in full or otherwise resolved; 
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of the debt and the factual basis for the debt; 
</P>
<P>(c) A salary offset schedule stating the frequency and amount of each deduction, stated as a fixed dollar amount or percentage of disposable pay (not to exceed 15%); 
</P>
<P>(d) That in lieu of salary offset, the employee may propose a voluntary repayment plan to satisfy the debt on terms acceptable to the FDIC, which must be documented in writing, signed by the employee and the Director or the Director's designee, and documented in the FDIC's files; 
</P>
<P>(e) The FDIC's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, and a statement that such assessments must be made, unless excused in accordance with the FCCS; 
</P>
<P>(f) That the employee has the right to inspect and copy FDIC records not exempt from disclosure relating to the debt claimed, or to receive copies of such records if the employee or the employee's representative is unable personally to inspect the records, due to geographical or other constraints: 
</P>
<P>(1) That such requests be made in writing, and identify by name and address the Director or other designated individual to whom the request should be sent; and 
</P>
<P>(2) That upon receipt of such a request, the Director or the Director's designee shall notify the employee of the time and location where the records may be inspected and copied; 
</P>
<P>(g) That the employee has a right to request a hearing regarding the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the salary offset schedule proposed by the FDIC, provided that the employee files a request for such a hearing with the FDIC in accordance with § 313.42 that such a hearing will be conducted by an impartial official who is an administrative law judge or other hearing official not under the supervision or control of the Board; 
</P>
<P>(h) The procedure and deadline for requesting a hearing, including the name, address, and telephone number of the Director or other designated individual to whom a request for hearing must be sent; 
</P>
<P>(i) That a request for hearing must be received by the FDIC on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice of Intent, and that filing of a request for hearing will stay the collection proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(j) That the FDIC will initiate salary offset procedures not less than 30 days from the date of the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent to Offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing; 
</P>
<P>(k) That if a hearing is held, the administrative law judge or other hearing official will issue a decision at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for the hearing, unless the employee requests a delay in the proceedings which is granted by the hearing official; 
</P>
<P>(l) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 or under any other applicable statutory authority; 
</P>
<P>(m) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584, and may exercise any other rights and remedies available under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and 
</P>
<P>(n) That amounts paid on or deducted from debts that are later waived or found not to be owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee, unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.42" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.42   Procedures to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request a hearing, an employee must send a written request to the Director. The request must be received by the Director within 30 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent. 
</P>
<P>(b) The request must be signed by the employee and must fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that the employee believes support his or her position. The request for hearing must state whether the employee is requesting an oral or documentary hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the request shall explain why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of documentary evidence alone. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.43" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.43   Failure to timely submit request for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director does not receive an employee's request for hearing within the 30-day period set forth in § 313.42(a), the employee shall not be entitled to a hearing. However, the Director may accept an untimely request for hearing if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control or that he or she failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.44" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.44   Procedure for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obtaining the services of a hearing official.</I> When the FDIC is the creditor agency and the debtor is an FDIC employee, the FDIC shall designate an administrative law judge or contact any agent of another agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official. When the FDIC is the creditor agency and the debtor is not an FDIC employee (<I>i.e.,</I> the debtor is employed by another federal agency, also known as the paying agency), and the FDIC cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before an administrative law judge or a hearing official furnished pursuant to a lawful arrangement, the FDIC may contact an agent of the paying agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official. The paying agency must cooperate with the FDIC to provide a hearing official, as required by the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and format of hearing</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The hearing official shall determine whether the hearing shall be oral or documentary and shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must be held within 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be documentary, the employee shall be notified to submit evidence and written arguments in support of his or her case to the hearing official within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral hearing.</I> The hearing official may grant a request for an oral hearing if he or she determines that the issues raised by the employee cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (e.g., where credibility or veracity are at issue). An oral hearing is not required to be an adversarial adjudication, and the hearing official is not required to apply rules of evidence. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under oath or affirmation. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing examiner interviews the employee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions followed by an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentary hearing.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she shall decide the issues raised by the employee based upon a review of the written record.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rescheduling of the hearing date.</I> The hearing official shall reschedule a hearing if requested to do so by both parties, who shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of this new hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to appear.</I> In the absence of good cause, an employee who fails to appear at a hearing shall be deemed, for the purpose of this subpart, to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the Notice of Intent. If the representative of the creditor agency fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and issue a decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of decision.</I> The hearing official shall issue a written decision based upon the evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the date on which the request for hearing was received by the FDIC, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee. In the event of such a delay, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. The decision of the hearing official shall be final.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts concerning the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of the repayment schedule, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Official certification of debt.</I> The hearing official's decision shall constitute an official certification regarding the existence and amount of the debt for purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. Where the FDIC is the creditor agency but not the current paying agency, the FDIC may make a certification regarding the existence and amount of the debt owed to the FDIC, based on the hearing official's certification. The FDIC may make this certification to: the Secretary of the Treasury so that Treasury may offset the employee's current pay account by means of centralized administrative offset (5 CFR 550.1108); or to the current paying agency (5 CFR 550.1109). If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected through salary offset but the FDIC as the creditor agency determines that the debt is still valid, the FDIC may seek collection of the debt through other means, including administrative offset of other federal payments or litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.45" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.45   Certification of debt by FDIC as creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may also issue a certification of the debt where there has not been a hearing, if the employee has admitted the debt, or failed to contest the existence and amount of the debt in a timely manner (e.g., by failing to request a hearing). The certification shall be in writing and shall state:
</P>
<P>(a) The amount and basis of the debt owed by the employee;
</P>
<P>(b) The date the FDIC's right to collect the debt first accrued;
</P>
<P>(c) That the FDIC's debt collection regulations have been approved by OPM pursuant to 5 CFR part 550, subpart K;
</P>
<P>(d) If the collection is to be made by lump-sum payment, the amount and date such payment will be collected;
</P>
<P>(e) If the collection is to be made in installments through salary offset, the number of installments to be collected, the amount of each installment, and the date of the first installment, if a date other than the next officially established pay period; and
</P>
<P>(f) The date the employee was notified of the debt, the action(s) taken pursuant to the FDIC's regulations, and the dates such actions were taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.46" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.46   Notice of salary offset where FDIC is the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon issuance of a proper certification by the Director for debts owed to the FDIC, or upon receipt of a proper certification from a creditor agency, the Director shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset. Such notice shall advise the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) That certification has been issued by the Director or received from another creditor agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Of the amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Of the initiation of salary offset at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where appropriate, the Director shall provide a copy of the notice to the creditor agency and advise such agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.47" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.47   Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset where the FDIC is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a Notice of Intent, an employee may propose to voluntarily repay the debt through scheduled voluntary payments, in lieu of salary offset. An employee who wishes to repay a debt in this manner shall submit to the Director a written agreement proposing a repayment schedule. This proposal must be received by the Director within 30 calendar days after receipt of the Notice of Intent. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed voluntary repayment agreement is acceptable. It is within the discretion of the Director whether to accept or reject the debtor's proposal, or whether to propose to the debtor a modification of the proposed repayment agreement: 
</P>
<P>(1) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is unacceptable, he or she shall notify the employee and the employee shall have 30 calendar days from the date he or she received notice of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing on the proposed repayment agreement, as provided in § 313.42; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is acceptable or the debtor agrees to a modification proposed by the Director, the agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and the Director. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.48" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.48   Special review of repayment agreement or salary offset due to changed circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee subject to a voluntary repayment agreement or salary offset payable to the FDIC as creditor agency may request a special review by the Director of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability. A request for special review may be made at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) In support of a request for special review, the employee shall submit to the Director a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating: 
</P>
<P>(1) Income from all sources; 
</P>
<P>(2) Assets; 
</P>
<P>(3) Liabilities; 
</P>
<P>(4) Number of dependents; 
</P>
<P>(5) Monthly expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation; 
</P>
<P>(6) Medical expenses; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Exceptional expenses, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) The employee shall also file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in extreme financial hardship to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Director shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents and determine whether the original salary offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee, for example, by preventing the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses such as food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care. The Director shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of his or her determination. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the special review results in a revised salary offset or repayment schedule, the Director shall provide a new certification to the paying agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.49" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.49   Coordinating salary offset with other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility of the FDIC as the creditor agency.</I> Upon completion of the procedures established in § 313.40 through § 313.45, the Director shall take the following actions: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submit a debt claim to the paying agency, containing the information described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, together with the certification of debt or an installment agreement (or other instruction regarding the payment schedule, if applicable). 
</P>
<P>(2) If the collection must be made in installments, inform the paying agency of the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment. The Director may also inform the paying agency of the commencement date and number of installments to be paid, if a date other than the next officially established pay period is required. 
</P>
<P>(3) Unless the employee has consented to the salary offset in writing or has signed a statement acknowledging receipt of the required procedures and the written consent or statement is forwarded to the paying agency, the Director must also advise the paying agency of the actions the FDIC has taken under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and state the dates such action was taken. 
</P>
<P>(4) If the employee is in the process of separating from employment, the Director shall submit the debt claim to the employee's paying agency for collection by lump-sum deduction from the employee's final check. The paying agency shall certify the total amount of its collection and furnish a copy of the certification to the FDIC and to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(5) If the employee is already separated and all payments due from his or her former paying agency have been paid, the Director may, unless otherwise prohibited, request that money due and payable to the employee from the federal government, including payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801), be administratively offset to collect the debt. 
</P>
<P>(6) In the event an employee transfers to another paying agency, the Director shall not repeat the procedures described in § 313.40 through § 313.45 in order to resume collecting the debt. Instead, the FDIC shall review the debt upon receiving the former paying agency's notice of the employee's transfer and shall ensure that collection is resumed by the new paying agency. The FDIC must submit a properly certified claim to the new paying agency before collection can be resumed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility of the FDIC as the paying agency</I>—(1) <I>Complete claim.</I> When the FDIC receives a properly certified claim from a creditor agency, the employee shall be given written notice of the certification, the date salary offset will begin, and the amount of the periodic deductions. The FDIC shall schedule deductions to begin at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incomplete claim.</I> When the FDIC receives an incomplete certification of debt from a creditor agency, the FDIC shall return the debt claim with notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR 550.1104 must be followed and that a properly certified debt claim must be received before action will be taken to collect from the employee's current pay account. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> The FDIC is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another agency.</I> If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to the FDIC, the employee transfers to a different paying agency before the debt is collected in full, the FDIC must certify the total amount collected on the debt. One copy of the certification shall be furnished to the employee, and one copy shall be sent to the creditor agency along with notice of the employee's transfer. If the FDIC is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the requirements set forth herein and in the OPM's regulation (5 CFR part 550, subpart K) have been fully met. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.50" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.50   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Where the FDIC is the creditor agency, it shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.51" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.51   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the FDIC is the creditor agency, it shall promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when the debt is compromised or otherwise found not to be owing to the United States, or when an administrative or judicial order directs the FDIC to make a refund. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.52" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.52   Request from a creditor agency for services of a hearing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC may provide a hearing official upon request of the creditor agency when the debtor is employed by the FDIC and the creditor agency cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before a hearing official furnished pursuant to another lawful arrangement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC may provide a hearing official upon request of a creditor agency when the debtor works for the creditor agency and that agency cannot arrange for a hearing official. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Director shall arrange for qualified personnel to serve as hearing officials. 
</P>
<P>(d) Services rendered under paragraph (a) of this section shall be provided on a fully reimbursable basis pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 1535. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.53" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.53   Non-waiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>A debtor's payment, whether voluntary or involuntary, of all or any portion of a debt being collected pursuant to this section shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the debtor may have under any statute, regulation, or contract except as otherwise provided by law or contract. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.54" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.54   Exception to due process procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures set forth in this subpart shall not apply to routine intra-agency salary adjustments of pay, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less; 
</P>
<P>(2) A routine adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment and, at the time of such adjustment or as soon thereafter as is practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and the point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amount to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as is practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and the point of contact for contesting such adjustment. 
</P>
<P>(b) The procedure for notice to the employee and collection of such adjustments is set forth in § 313.55. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.55" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.55   Salary adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>Any negative adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage, or a change in coverage, under a federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay shall not be considered collection of a “debt” for the purposes of this section if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. In such cases, the FDIC shall not apply this subpart C, but will provide a clear and concise statement in the employee's earnings statement advising the employee of the previous overpayment at the time the adjustment is made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.56-313.79" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.56-313.79   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Wage Garnishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.80" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.80   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These administrative wage garnishment regulations are issued in compliance with 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11(f). The subpart provides procedures for the FDIC to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay by means of administrative wage garnishment. The receipt of payments pursuant to this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from pursuing other debt collection remedies, including the offset of federal payments. The FDIC may pursue such debt collection remedies separately or in conjunction with administrative wage garnishment. This subpart does not apply to the collection of delinquent debts from the wages of federal employees from their federal employment. Federal pay is subject to the federal salary offset procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and other applicable laws. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.81" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.81   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>At least 30 days before the initiation of garnishment proceedings, the Director will send, by first class mail to the debtor's last known address, a written notice informing the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The nature and amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC's intention to initiate proceedings to collect the debt through deductions from the debtor's pay until the debt and all accumulated interest penalties and administrative costs are paid in full; 
</P>
<P>(c) An explanation of the debtor's rights as set forth in § 313.82(c); and 
</P>
<P>(d) The time frame within which the debtor may exercise these rights. The FDIC shall retain a stamped copy of the notice indicating the date the notice was mailed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.82" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.82   Debtor's rights.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall afford the debtor the opportunity:
</P>
<P>(a) To inspect and copy records related to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(b) To enter into a written repayment agreement with the FDIC, under terms agreeable to the FDIC; and 
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent that a debt owed has not been established by judicial or administrative order, to request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of the repayment schedule. With respect to debts established by a judicial or administrative order, a debtor may request a hearing concerning the payment or other discharge of the debt. The debtor is not entitled to a hearing concerning the terms of the proposed repayment schedule if these terms have been established by written agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.83" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.83   Form of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor submits a timely written request for a hearing as provided in § 313.82(c), the FDIC will afford the debtor a hearing, which at the FDIC's option may be oral or written. The FDIC will provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the Director determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the FDIC determines that an oral hearing is appropriate, the time and location of the hearing shall be established by the FDIC. An oral hearing may, at the debtor's option, be conducted either in person or by telephone conference. All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. All telephonic charges incurred during the hearing will be the responsibility of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) In cases when it is determined that an oral hearing is not required by this section, the FDIC will accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, the FDIC will decide the issues in dispute based upon a review of the written record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.84" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.84   Effect of timely request.</HEAD>
<P>If the FDIC receives a debtor's written request for hearing within 15 business days of the date the FDIC mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, the FDIC shall not issue a withholding order until the debtor has been provided the requested hearing, and a decision in accordance with § 313.88 and § 313.89 has been rendered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.85" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.85   Failure to timely request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the FDIC receives a debtor's written request for hearing after 15 business days of the date the FDIC mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, the FDIC shall provide a hearing to the debtor. However, the FDIC will not delay issuance of a withholding order unless it determines that the untimely filing of the request was caused by factors over which the debtor had no control, or the FDIC receives information that the FDIC believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.86" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.86   Hearing official.</HEAD>
<P>A hearing official may be any qualified individual, as determined by the FDIC, including an administrative law judge. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.87" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.87   Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>After the debtor requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the debtor of: 
</P>
<P>(a) The date and time of a telephonic hearing; 
</P>
<P>(b) The date, time, and location of an in-person oral hearing; or 
</P>
<P>(c) The deadline for the submission of evidence for a written hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.88" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.88   Format of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC will have the burden of proof to establish the existence or amount of the debt. Thereafter, if the debtor disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the debtor must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists, or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the debtor may present evidence that the terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the debtor, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law. The hearing official shall maintain a record of any hearing held under this section. Hearings are not required to be formal, and evidence may be offered without regard to formal rules of evidence. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under oath or affirmation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.89" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.89   Date of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision as soon as practicable, but not later than sixty (60) days after the date on which the request for such hearing was received by the FDIC. If the FDIC is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and decision within sixty (60) days after the receipt of the request for such hearing: 
</P>
<P>(a) The FDIC may not issue a withholding order until the hearing is held and a decision rendered; or 
</P>
<P>(b) If the FDIC had previously issued a withholding order to the debtor's employer, the withholding order will be suspended beginning on the 61st day after the date the FDIC received the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.90" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.90   Content of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) A summary of the facts presented; 
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing official's findings, analysis and conclusions; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.91" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.91   Finality of agency action.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the FDIC on its own initiative orders review of a decision by a hearing official pursuant to 17 CFR 201.431(c), a decision by a hearing official shall become the final decision of the FDIC for the purpose of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.92" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.92   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>In the absence of good cause shown, a debtor who fails to appear at a scheduled hearing will be deemed as not having timely filed a request for a hearing. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.93" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.93   Wage garnishment order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless the FDIC receives information that it believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order, the FDIC will send by first class mail a withholding order to the debtor's employer within 30 days after the debtor fails to make a timely request for a hearing (<I>i.e.,</I> within 15 business days after the mailing of the notice of the FDIC's intent to seek garnishment) or, if a timely request for a hearing is made by the debtor, within 30 days after a decision to issue a withholding order becomes final. 
</P>
<P>(b) The withholding order sent to the employer will be in the form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, on the FDIC's letterhead, and signed by the head of the agency or delegate. The order will contain all information necessary for the employer to comply with the withholding order, including the debtor's name, address, and social security number, as well as instructions for withholding and information as to where payments should be sent. 
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC will keep a stamped copy of the order indicating the date it was mailed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.94" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.94   Certification by employer.</HEAD>
<P>Along with the withholding order, the FDIC will send to the employer a certification in a form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The employer shall complete and return the certification to the FDIC within the time frame prescribed in the instructions to the form. The certification will address matters such as information about the debtor's employment status and disposable pay available for withholding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.95" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.95   Amounts withheld.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the garnishment order issued under this section, the employer shall deduct from all disposable pay paid to the debtor during each pay period the amount of garnishment described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the amount of garnishment shall be the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount indicated on the garnishment order up to 15% of the debtor's disposable pay; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2). The amount set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) is the amount by which the debtor's disposable pay exceeds an amount equivalent to thirty times the minimum wage. See 29 CFR 870.10. 
</P>
<P>(c) When a debtor's pay is subject to withholding orders with priority, the following shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise provided by federal law, withholding orders issued under this section shall be paid in the amounts set forth under paragraph (b) of this section and shall have priority over other withholding orders which are served later in time. However, withholding orders for family support shall have priority over withholding orders issued under this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If amounts are being withheld from a debtor's pay pursuant to a withholding order served on an employer before a withholding order issued pursuant to this section, or if a withholding order for family support is served on an employer at any time, the amounts withheld pursuant to the withholding order issued under this section shall be the lesser of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated under paragraph (b) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount equal to 25% of the debtor's disposable pay less the amount(s) withheld under the withholding order(s) with priority. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a debtor owes more than one debt to the FDIC, the FDIC may issue multiple withholding orders. The total amount garnished from the debtor's pay for such orders will not exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) An amount greater than that set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be withheld upon the written consent of the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(e) The employer shall promptly pay to the FDIC all amounts withheld in accordance with the withholding order issued pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(f) An employer shall not be required to vary its normal pay and disbursement cycles in order to comply with the withholding order. 
</P>
<P>(g) Any assignment or allotment by the employee of the employee's earnings shall be void to the extent it interferes with or prohibits execution of the withholding order under this section, except for any assignment or allotment made pursuant to a family support judgment or order. 
</P>
<P>(h) The employer shall withhold the appropriate amount from the debtor's wages for each pay period until the employer receives notification from the FDIC to discontinue wage withholding. The garnishment order shall indicate a reasonable period of time within which the employer is required to commence wage withholding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.96" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.96   Exclusions from garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC will not garnish the wages of a debtor it knows has been involuntarily separated from employment until the debtor has been re-employed continuously for at least 12 months. The debtor has the burden of informing the FDIC of the circumstances surrounding an involuntary separation from employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.97" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.97   Financial hardship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A debtor whose wages are subject to a wage withholding order under this section, may, at any time, request a review by the FDIC of the amount garnished, based on materially changed circumstances such as disability, divorce, or catastrophic illness which result in financial hardship. 
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor requesting a review under this section shall submit the basis for claiming that the current amount of garnishment results in a financial hardship to the debtor, along with supporting documentation. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a financial hardship is found, the FDIC will downwardly adjust, by an amount and for a period of time agreeable to the FDIC, the amount garnished to reflect the debtor's financial condition. The FDIC will notify the employer of any adjustments to the amounts to be withheld. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.98" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.98   Ending garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once the FDIC has fully recovered the amounts owed by the debtor, including interest, penalties, and administrative costs consistent with the FCCS, the FDIC will send the debtor's employer notification to discontinue wage withholding. 
</P>
<P>(b) At least annually, the FDIC will review its debtors' accounts to ensure that garnishment has been terminated for accounts that have been paid in full. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.99" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.99   Prohibited actions by employer.</HEAD>
<P>The DCIA prohibits an employer from discharging, refusing to employ, or taking disciplinary action against the debtor due to the issuance of a withholding order under this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.100   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a hearing official determines that a debt is not legally due and owing to the United States, the FDIC shall promptly refund any amount collected by means of administrative wage garnishment. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by federal law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.101   Right of action.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may sue any employer for any amount that the employer fails to withhold from wages owed and payable to its employee in accordance with this subpart. However, a suit will not be filed before the termination of the collection action involving a particular debtor, unless earlier filing is necessary to avoid expiration of any applicable statute of limitations. For purposes of this subpart, “termination of the collection action” occurs when the agency has terminated collection action in accordance with the FCCS (31 CFR 903.1 through 903.5) or other applicable standards. In any event, termination of the collection action will have been deemed to occur if the FDIC has not received any payments to satisfy the debt from the particular debtor whose wages were subject to garnishment, in whole or in part, for a period of one (1) year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.102-313.119" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.4.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.102-313.119   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.120" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.120   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to offset a delinquent debt owed to the United States Government from the tax refund due a taxpayer when other collection efforts have failed to recover the amount due. In addition, the FDIC is authorized to collect debts by means of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 and, as part of the debt collection process, to notify the Financial Management Service (FMS), a bureau of the Department of the Treasury, of the amount of such debt for collection by tax refund offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.121" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.121   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart E:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Debt</I> or <I>claim</I> means an amount of money, funds or property which has been determined by the FDIC to be due to the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debtor</I> means a person who owes a debt or a claim. The term “person” includes any individual, organization or entity, except another federal agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tax refund offset</I> means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt owed by the payee(s) of a tax refund payment. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tax refund payment</I> means any overpayment of federal taxes to be refunded to the person making the overpayment after the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) makes the appropriate credits. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.122" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.122   Notification of debt to FMS.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall notify FMS of the amount of any past due, legally enforceable non-tax debt owed to it by a person, for the purpose of collecting such debt by tax refund offset. Notification and referral to FMS of such debts does not preclude FDIC's use of any other debt collection procedures, such as wage garnishment, either separately or in conjunction with tax refund offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.123" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.123   Certification and referral of debt.</HEAD>
<P>When the FDIC refers a past-due, legally enforceable debt to FMS for tax refund offset, it will certify to FMS that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The debt is past due and legally enforceable in the amount submitted to FMS and that the FDIC will ensure that collections are properly credited to the debt; 
</P>
<P>(b) Except in the case of a judgment debt or as otherwise allowed by law, the debt is referred for offset within ten years after the FDIC's right of action accrues; 
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC has made reasonable efforts to obtain payment of the debt, in that it has: 
</P>
<P>(1) Submitted the debt to FMS for collection by administrative offset and complied with the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716(a) and related regulations; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notified, or has made a reasonable attempt to notify, the debtor that the debt is past-due, and unless repaid within 60 days after the date of the notice, will be referred to FMS for tax refund offset; 
</P>
<P>(3) Given the debtor at least 60 days to present evidence that all or part of the debt is not past-due or legally enforceable, considered any evidence presented by the debtor, and determined that the debt is past-due and legally enforceable; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Provided the debtor with an opportunity to make a written agreement to repay the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The debt is at least $25. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.124" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.124   Pre-offset notice and consideration of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of § 313.123(c)(2), the FDIC has made a reasonable effort to notify the debtor if it uses the current address information contained in its records related to the debt. The FDIC may, but is not required to, obtain address information from the IRS pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 6103(m)(2), (4), (5). 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of § 313.123(c)(3), if evidence presented by a debtor is considered by an agent of the FDIC, or other entities or persons acting on behalf of the FDIC, the debtor must be accorded at least 30 days from the date the agent or other entity or person determines that all or part of the debt is past-due and legally enforceable to request review by an officer or employee of the FDIC of any unresolved dispute. The FDIC must then notify the debtor of its decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.125" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.125   No requirement for duplicate notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where the director has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, the Director is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating tax refund offset.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 75661, Dec. 18, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.126" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.126   Referral of past-due, legally enforceable debt.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall submit past-due, legally enforceable debt information for tax refund offset to FMS, as prescribed by FMS. For each debt, the FDIC will include the following information: 
</P>
<P>(a) The name and taxpayer identification number (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 6109) of the debtor; 
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of the past-due and legally enforceable debt; 
</P>
<P>(c) The date on which the debt became past-due; and 
</P>
<P>(d) The designation of FDIC as the agency referring the debt. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 48527, July 25, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 75661, Dec. 18, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.127" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.127   Correcting and updating referral.</HEAD>
<P>If, after referring a past-due legally enforceable debt to FMS as provided in § 313.125, the FDIC determines that an error has been made with respect to the information transmitted to FMS, or if the FDIC receives a payment or credits a payment to the account of the debtor referred to FMS for offset, or if the debt amount is otherwise incorrect, the FDIC shall promptly notify FMS and make the appropriate correction of the FDIC's records. FDIC will provide certification as required under § 313.123 for any increases to amounts owed. In the event FMS rejects an FDIC certification for failure to comply with § 323.123, the FDIC may resubmit the debt with a corrected certification. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 48527, July 25, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 75661, Dec. 18, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.128" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.128   Disposition of amounts collected.</HEAD>
<P>FMS will transmit amounts collected for past-due, legally enforceable debts, less fees charged under this section, to the FDIC's account. The FDIC will reimburse FMS and the IRS for the cost of administering the tax refund offset program. FMS will deduct the fees from amounts collected prior to disposition and transmit a portion of the fees deducted to reimburse the IRS for its share of the cost of administering the tax refund offset program. To the extent allowed by law, the FDIC may add the offset fees to the debt. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 48527, July 25, 2002. Redesignated at 71 FR 75661, Dec. 18, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.129-313.139" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.129-313.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.140" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.140   Future benefits.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise prohibited by law, the FDIC may request that a debtor's anticipated or future benefit payments under the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) be administratively offset in accordance with regulations at 5 CFR 831.1801 through 831.1808. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.141" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.141   Notification to OPM.</HEAD>
<P>When making a request for administrative offset under § 313.140, the FDIC shall provide OPM with a written certification that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The debtor owes the FDIC a debt, including the amount of the debt; 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC has complied with the applicable statutes, regulations, and procedures of OPM; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC has complied with the requirements of 31 CFR parts 900 through 904, including any required hearing or review. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.142" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.142   Request for administrative offset.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall request administrative offset under § 313.140, as soon as practical after completion of the applicable procedures in order to help ensure that offset be initiated prior to expiration of the applicable statute of limitations. At such time as the debtor makes a claim for payments from the Fund, if at least a year has elapsed since the offset request was originally made, the debtor shall be permitted to offer a satisfactory repayment plan in lieu of offset upon establishing that changed financial circumstances would render the offset unjust. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.143" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.143   Cancellation of deduction.</HEAD>
<P>If the FDIC collects part or all of the debt by other means before deductions are made or completed pursuant to § 313.140, the FDIC shall act promptly to modify or terminate its request for such offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Mandatory Centralized Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.160" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.160   Treasury notification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716, the FDIC as a creditor agency must notify the Secretary of the Treasury of all debts that are delinquent (over 180 days past due), as defined in the FCCS, to enable the Secretary to seek collection by centralized administrative offset. This includes debts the FDIC seeks to recover from the pay account of an employee of another agency by means of salary offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of centralized administrative offset, a claim or debt is not delinquent if: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is in litigation or foreclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) It will be disposed of under an asset sale program within one year after becoming eligible for sale; 
</P>
<P>(3) It has been referred to a private collection contractor for collection; 
</P>
<P>(4) It has been referred to a debt collection center; 
</P>
<P>(5) It will be collected under internal offset, if such offset is sufficient to collect the claim within three years after the date the debt or claim is first delinquent; and 
</P>
<P>(6) It is within a specific class of claims or debts which the Secretary of the Treasury has determined to be exempt, at the request of an agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.161" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.161   Certification of debt.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to referring a delinquent debt to the Secretary of the Treasury, the Director must have complied with the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514, and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, governing salary offset, and the FDIC regulations. The Director shall certify, in a form acceptable to the Secretary, that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The debt is past due and legally enforceable; and 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC has complied with all due process requirements under 31 U.S.C. 3716 and the FDIC's administrative offset regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.162" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.162   Compliance with 31 CFR part 285.</HEAD>
<P>The Director shall also comply with applicable procedures for referring a delinquent debt for purposes of centralized offset which are set forth at 31 CFR part 285 and the FCCS. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.163" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.163   Notification of debts of 180 days or less.</HEAD>
<P>The Director, in his discretion, may also notify the Secretary of the Treasury of debts that have been delinquent for 180 days or less, including debts the FDIC seeks to recover by means of salary offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.164-313.180" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.164-313.180   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Civil Money Penalty Debt</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 1744, Jan. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 313.181" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.181   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes FDIC procedures for the collection of civil money penalty debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.182" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.182   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to implement Federal statutes and regulatory standards authorizing the FDIC to collect delinquent civil money penalties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.183" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.183   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise or where the term is defined elsewhere in this subpart, the definitions provided at § 313.3 apply to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 313.184" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 313.184   Collection of civil money penalty debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC will follow Department of Treasury regulations set forth at 31 CFR part 285, as applicable and consistent with this subpart, for the collection of civil money penalty debt, including centralized offset of Federal payments to collect non-tax debts that may be owed to the FDIC, under 31 CFR 285.5.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to require the FDIC to provide duplicate notice or other procedural protections that have already been provided or afforded to a civil money penalty debtor in the course of administrative or judicial litigation or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) For civil money penalty debtors, and for purposes of 31 U.S.C. 3716(b)(1), the FDIC adopts without change the regulations on collection by administrative offset set forth at 31 CFR 901.3 and other relevant sections of the Federal Claims Collection Standards applicable to such offset, to the extent those regulations are consistent with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this subpart precludes the collection of debts through any other available means or precludes the FDIC from engaging in litigation or the compromise of debt as provided under 12 U.S.C. 1818(i) or any other applicable law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 313.185-313.190" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.12.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 313.185-313.190   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="314" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 314—INDEXING OF SPECIFIED REGULATORY THRESHOLDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 378, 1464, 1813, 1815, 1817, 1818, 1819, 1819(a) (Seventh and Tenth), 1820, 1821(p), 1823, 1828, 1829, 1831a, 1831e, 1831m, 1831o, 1831p-1, 1831w, 1835a, 1843(l), 3103, 3104, 3105, 3108, 3109, 3207, 5385(h), 5389, 5390(s)(3), 5390(b)(1)(C), 5390(a)(7)(D), 5381(b), 5390(r), 5390(a)(16)(D), 5414, 5415, and 15 U.S.C. 78j-1, 78l(i), 78m, 78n, 78p, 78w, U.S.C. 1601-1607, 5412, 5414, 5415, 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265; Pub L. No. 111-203, section 939A, 124 Stat. 1376, 1887 (July 21, 2010) (codified 15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 55809, Dec. 4, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 314.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.1   Threshold indexing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methodology.</I> The dollar thresholds specified in paragraph (c) of this section shall be adjusted by multiplying the baseline threshold values specified in paragraph (c) of this section by one plus the cumulative percent change in the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, measured from the effective date of this rule, as further described in paragraph (b) of this section, and shall be rounded in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Frequency</I>—(1) <I>In general—biennial adjustments.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2), (b)(3), or (b)(4) of this section, the adjustments described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be effective on October 1 following each consecutive two-year period ending August 30, and using the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers as of August 30 of that year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>2027 adjustment.</I> The first adjustment described in paragraph (a) of this section, which shall be effective on October 1, 2027, shall be made using one plus the cumulative percent change in the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers through August 30, 2027.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periods of high inflation—annual adjustments.</I> If the cumulative percent change of the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, measured over the 12-month period ending August 30 following the year in which the most recent adjustment was made exceeds 8 percent, then the dollar thresholds shall be adjusted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section using the cumulative percent change of the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, measured over the 12-month period ending August 30 with an effective date of October 1 following the year in which the most recent adjustment was made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periods of negative inflation—no adjustments.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, if an adjustment of dollar thresholds using the cumulative percent change of the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers from the effective date of this rule or the most recent adjustment, as applicable, would not result in an increase from the current dollar thresholds, no adjustment will be made pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specified thresholds.</I> The thresholds in the following sections shall be adjusted in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section relative to the baseline threshold values as of January 1, 2026, specified in paragraphs (c)(1) through (31) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 303.227(a)(2) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $3,500;
</P>
<P>(2) Section 303.227(b)(3)(i) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $1,225;
</P>
<P>(3) Section 335.801(d) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $10,000,000;
</P>
<P>(4) Section 340.2(h)(1) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(5) Section 340.2(h)(2) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(6) Section 340.2(h)(3) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(7) Section 340.2(h)(4) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(8) Section 347.111(a)(1) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $120,000,000;
</P>
<P>(9) Section 347.111(b)(1) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $60,000,000;
</P>
<P>(10) Section 363.1(a) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $1,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(11) Section 363.2(b)(3) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(12) Section 363.3(b) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(13) Section 363.4(a)(2) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(14) Section 363.4(c)(3) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(15) Section 363.5(a)(1) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(16) Both thresholds in § 363.5(a)(2) of this chapter, baseline threshold values of $1,000,000,000 or more but less than $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(17) Section 363.5(b) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(18) Both thresholds in paragraph (8)(A) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(19) Paragraph (10) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(20) Paragraph (18)A of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(21) All three thresholds in paragraph (27) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, with the first baseline threshold value being $5,000,000,000 or more and the second and third baseline threshold values being $1,000,000,000 or more but less than $5,000,000;
</P>
<P>(22) Paragraph (30)(b) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(23) Both thresholds in paragraph (30)(c) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $1,000,000,000 or more but less than $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(24) Paragraph (35)(a) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $1,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(25) Paragraph (35)(b) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(26) Paragraph (35)(c) of appendix A of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(27) Paragraph 2(b) of appendix B of part 363 of this chapter, baseline threshold value $5,000,000,000;
</P>
<P>(28) Section 380.13(b)(6)(i) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(29) Section 380.13(b)(6)(ii) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000;
</P>
<P>(30) Section 380.13(b)(6)(iii) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000; and
</P>
<P>(31) Section 380.13(b)(6)(iv) of this chapter, baseline threshold value $100,000.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rounding.</I> When adjusting thresholds under this section, each threshold shall be rounded based on the size of the threshold (<I>e.g.,</I> thousands, millions, billions) to the nearest number with two significant digits.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date of threshold adjustments.</I> The FDIC shall announce the thresholds adjusted in accordance with this section by publishing in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final rule without notice and comment. Such adjusted thresholds shall be effective on October 1 of the year during which an adjustment is made.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to publish final rule in</I> <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> In the event, for any reason, a final rule is not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in a year in which an adjustment is made under this section, the thresholds specified in paragraph (c) of this section will adjust as provided in this section and be effective on October 1, notwithstanding the lack of a final rule published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 314.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 314.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="323" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 323—APPRAISALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819(a)(“Seventh” and “Tenth”), 1831p-1 and 3331 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Appraisals Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under 12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819(a)(Seventh and Tenth), 1831p-1 and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, 12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I> (1989)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) title XI provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This subpart implements the requirements of title XI and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the FDIC or by institutions regulated by the FDIC (<I>regulated institutions</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart: (i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a State certified appraiser and which by a State licensed appraiser; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 80 FR 32684, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 15036, Apr. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisal</I> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business loan</I> means a loan or extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, or other business entity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commercial real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is not secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.
</P>
<P>(f) Complex appraisal for a residential real estate transaction means one in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Federally related transaction</I> means any real estate-related financial transactions entered into after the effective date hereof that:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC or any regulated institution engages in or contracts for; and
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Market value</I> means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably, and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby:
</P>
<P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated;
</P>
<P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests;
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market;
</P>
<P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate</I> or <I>real property</I> means an identified parcel or tract of land, with improvements, and includes easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests and similar rights in a tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, growing crops, water rights and similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Real estate-related financial transaction</I> means any transaction involving:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of real property or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(k) Residential real estate transaction means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>State certified appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a State or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualifications Board. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of a State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State licensed appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a State or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The FDIC may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Tract development</I> means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Transaction value</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real property, the market value of the real property interest involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real property for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or market value of the real property calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 9049, Mar. 16, 1992; 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994; 83 FR 15036, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53598, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.3   Appraisals required; transactions requiring a State certified or licensed appraiser.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraisals required.</I> An appraisal performed by a State certified or licensed appraiser is required for all real estate-related financial transactions except those in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is a residential real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $400,000 or less; 
</P>
<P>(2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution; 
</P>
<P>(3) The transaction is not secured by real estate; 
</P>
<P>(4) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; 
</P>
<P>(5) The transaction is a business loan that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a transaction value of $1 million or less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment; 
</P>
<P>(6) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate; 
</P>
<P>(7) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending institution, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the institution's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; 
</P>
<P>(8) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real property, including mortgaged-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real property interest met FDIC regulatory requirements for appraisals at the time of origination; 
</P>
<P>(9) The transaction is wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; 
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate; 
</P>
<P>(11) The regulated institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity and is not required to obtain an appraisal under other law; 
</P>
<P>(12) The FDIC determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related financial transactions or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution;
</P>
<P>(13) The transaction is a commercial real estate transaction that has a transaction value of $500,000 or less; or
</P>
<P>(14) The transaction is exempted from the appraisal requirement pursuant to the rural residential exemption under 12 U.S.C. 3356.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluations required.</I> For a transaction that does not require the services of a State certified or licensed appraiser under paragraphs (a)(1), (5), (7), (13), or (14) of this section, the institution shall obtain an appropriate evaluation of real property collateral that is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns.</I> The FDIC reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions requiring a State certified appraiser</I>—(1) <I>All transactions of $1,000,000 or more.</I> All federally related transactions having a transaction value of $1,000,000 or more shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commercial real estate transactions of more than $500,000.</I> All federally related transactions that are commercial real estate transactions having a transaction value of more than $500,000 shall require an appraisal prepared by a State certified appraiser.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions of more than $400,000.</I> All complex appraisals for residential real estate transactions rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall require a State certified appraiser if the transaction value is more than $400,000. A regulated institution may presume that appraisals for residential real estate transactions are not complex, unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex. The regulated institution shall be responsible for making the final determination of whether the appraisal is complex. If during the course of the appraisal a licensed appraiser identifies factors that would result in the property, form of ownership, or market conditions being considered atypical, then either:
</P>
<P>(i) The regulated institution may ask the licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a certified appraiser approve and co-sign the appraisal; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution may engage a certified appraiser to complete the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions requiring either a State certified or licensed appraiser.</I> All appraisals for federally related transactions not requiring the services of a State certified appraiser shall be prepared by either a State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date.</I> Regulated institutions are required to use state certified or licensed appraisers as set forth in this section no later than December 31, 1992, unless otherwise required by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 9050, Mar. 16, 1992; 59 FR 29501, June 7, 1994; 80 FR 32684, June 9, 2015; 83 FR 15036, Apr. 9, 2018; 84 FR 53598, Oct. 8, 2019; 85 FR 21317, Apr. 17, 2020; 85 FR 65671, Oct. 16, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.4   Minimum appraisal standards.</HEAD>
<P>For federally related transactions, all appraisals shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(a) Conform to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, 1029 Vermont Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20005, unless principles of safe and sound banking require compliance with stricter standards; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be written and contain sufficient information and analysis to support the institution's decision to engage in the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) Be subject to appropriate review for compliance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;
</P>
<P>(d) Analyze and report appropriate deductions and discounts for proposed construction or renovation, partially leased buildings, non-market lease terms, and tract developments with unsold units; 
</P>
<P>(e) Be based upon the definition of market value as set forth in this subpart; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Be performed by State licensed or certified appraisers in accordance with requirements set forth in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 29502, June 7, 1994, as amended at 80 FR 32684, June 9, 2015; 84 FR 53598, Oct. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.5   Appraiser independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staff appraisers.</I> If an appraisal is prepared by a staff appraiser, that appraiser must be independent of the lending, investment, and collection functions and not involved, except as an appraiser, in the federally related transaction, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property. If the only qualified persons available to perform an appraisal are involved in the lending, investment, or collection functions of the regulated institution, the regulated institution shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the appraisers exercise independent judgment and that the appraisal is adequate. Such steps include, but are not limited to, prohibiting an individual from performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions in which the appraiser is otherwise involved and prohibiting directors and officers from participating in any vote or approval involving assets on which they performed an appraisal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee appraisers.</I> (1) If an appraisal is prepared by a fee appraiser, the appraiser shall be engaged directly by the regulated institution or its agent, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated institution also may accept an appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another financial services institution, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The appraiser has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulated institution determines that the appraisal conforms to the requirements of this subpart and is otherwise acceptable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 33888, Aug. 20, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 29502, June 7, 1994; 80 FR 32684, June 9, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.6   Professional association membership; competency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership in appraisal organizations.</I> A State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a federally related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competency.</I> All staff and fee appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions must be State certified or licensed, as appropriate. However, a State certified or licensed appraiser may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified or licensed. Any determination of competency shall be based upon the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular appraisal assignment for which he or she is being considered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.7   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Institutions and institution-affiliated parties, including staff appraisers and fee appraisers, may be subject to removal and/or prohibition orders, cease and desist orders, and the imposition of civil money penalties pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended, or other applicable law. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appraisal Management Company Minimum Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 32684, June 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 323.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.8   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819 [“Seventh” and “Tenth”] and Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act (FIRREA), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement sections 1109, 1117, 1121, and 1124 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338, 3346, 3350, and 3353.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to States and to appraisal management companies (AMCs) providing appraisal management services in connection with consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling or securitizations of those transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this subpart should be construed to prevent a State from establishing requirements in addition to those in this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart should be construed to alter guidance in, and applicability of, the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or other relevant agency guidance that cautions banks, bank holding companies, Federal savings associations, state savings association, and credit unions, as applicable, that each such entity is accountable for overseeing the activities of third-party service providers and ensuring that any services provided by a third party comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance applicable directly to the financial institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>https://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/rules/5000-4800.html.</I></P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.9   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning provided in 12 U.S.C. 1841.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AMC National Registry</I> means the registry of State-registered AMCs and Federally regulated AMCs maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Appraisal management company</I> (AMC) means a person that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a given 12-month period, as defined in § 323.10(d), oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States, as described in § 323.12;
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appraisal management services</I> means one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;
</P>
<P>(2) Contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;
</P>
<P>(3) Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appraiser panel</I> means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an AMC to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the AMC. Appraisers on an AMC's “appraiser panel” under this part include both appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this subpart if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the AMC for purposes of Federal income taxation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered transaction</I> means any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<P>(2) A person regularly extends consumer credit if the person extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32) more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dwelling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federally regulated AMC</I> means an AMC that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 and regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federally related transaction regulations</I> means regulations established by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Administration, pursuant to sections 1112, 1113, and 1114 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3341-3343.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secondary mortgage market participant</I> means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. Secondary mortgage market participant only includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security if that investor also serves in the capacity of a guarantor, insurer, underwriter, or issuer for the mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>States</I> mean the 50 States and the District of Columbia and the territories of Guam, Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice</I> (USPAP) means the appraisal standards promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.10   Appraiser panel—annual size calculation.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining whether, within a 12-month period, an AMC oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States pursuant to § 323.9(c)(1)(iii)—
</P>
<P>(a) An appraiser is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel as of the earliest date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the appraiser for the AMC's consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions; or
</P>
<P>(2) Engages the appraiser to perform one or more appraisals on behalf of a creditor for a covered transaction or secondary mortgage market participant in connection with a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) An appraiser who is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is deemed to remain on the panel until the date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Sends written notice to the appraiser removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, with an explanation of its action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receives written notice from the appraiser asking to be removed from the appraiser panel or notice of the death or incapacity of the appraiser.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appraiser is removed from an AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, but the AMC subsequently accepts the appraiser for consideration for future assignments or engages the appraiser at any time during the twelve months after the AMC's removal, the removal will be deemed not to have occurred, and the appraiser will be deemed to have been part of the AMC's appraiser panel without interruption.
</P>
<P>(d) The period for purposes of counting appraisers on an AMC's appraiser panel may be the calendar year or a 12-month period established by law or rule of each State with which the AMC is required to register.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.11   Appraisal management company registration.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish and maintain within the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency a licensing program that is subject to the limitations set forth in § 323.12 and with the legal authority and mechanisms to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review and approve or deny an AMC's application for initial registration;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and renew or review and deny an AMC's registration periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the books and records of an AMC operating in the State and require the AMC to submit reports, information, and documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that the appraisers on the AMC's appraiser panel hold valid State certifications or licenses, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Conduct investigations of AMCs to assess potential violations of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders;
</P>
<P>(6) Discipline, suspend, terminate, or deny renewal of the registration of an AMC that violates applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders; and
</P>
<P>(7) Report an AMC's violation of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders, as well as disciplinary and enforcement actions and other relevant information about an AMC's operations, to the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose requirements on AMCs that are not owned and controlled by an insured depository institution and not regulated by a Federal financial institution regulatory agency to:
</P>
<P>(1) Register with and be subject to supervision by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engage only State-certified or State-licensed appraisers for Federally regulated transactions in conformity with any Federally related transaction regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC, in engaging an appraiser, selects an appraiser who is independent of the transaction and who has the requisite education, expertise, and experience necessary to competently complete the appraisal assignment for the particular market and property type;
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the appraiser to perform the assignment in accordance with USPAP; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC conducts its appraisal management services in accordance with the requirements of section 129E(a)-(i) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639e(a)-(i), and regulations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.12   Ownership limitations for State-registered appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraiser certification or licensing of owners.</I> (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to this section shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to this section is not barred by § 323.11(a)(1) from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Good moral character of owners.</I> An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC—
</P>
<P>(1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.13   Requirements for Federally regulated appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements in providing services.</I> To provide appraisal management services for a creditor or secondary mortgage market participant relating to a covered transaction, a Federally regulated AMC must comply with the requirements in § 323.11(b)(2) through (5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ownership limitations.</I> (1) A Federally regulated AMC shall not be included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the ASC.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federally regulated AMC is not barred by § 323.12(b) from being included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting information for the AMC National Registry.</I> A Federally regulated AMC must report to the State or States in which it operates the information required to be submitted by the State pursuant to the Appraisal Subcommittee's policies regarding the determination of the AMC National Registry fee, including but not necessarily limited to the collection of information related to the limitations set forth in § 323.12, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.14   Information to be presented to the Appraisal Subcommittee by participating States.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs for purposes of permitting AMCs to provide appraisal management services relating to covered transactions in the State must submit to the Appraisal Subcommittee the information required to be submitted by Appraisal Subcommittee regulations or guidance concerning AMCs that operate in the State.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models Used for Mortgage Lending Purposes</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 64574, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 323.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.15   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to section 1125 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 2198 (2010)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to entities regulated by the FDIC that are mortgage originators or secondary market issuers.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.16   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include any person who is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Discloses to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(1) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least 1 unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 323.17" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 323.17   Quality control standards.</HEAD>
<P>Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="324" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 324—CAPITAL ADEQUACY OF FDIC-SUPERVISED INSTITUTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1815(a), 1815(b), 1816, 1818(a), 1818(b), 1818(c), 1818(t), 1819(Tenth), 1828(c), 1828(d), 1828(i), 1828(n), 1828(o), 1831o, 1835, 3907, 3909, 4808; 5371; 5412; Pub. L. 102-233, 105 Stat. 1761, 1789, 1790 (12 U.S.C. 1831n note); Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236, 2355, as amended by Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160, 2233 (12 U.S.C. 1828 note); Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236, 2386, as amended by Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3672, 4089 (12 U.S.C. 1828 note); Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1887 (15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note), Pub. L. 115-174; section 4014 § 201, Pub. L. 116-136, 134 Stat. 281 (15 U.S.C. 9052).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.1   Purpose, applicability, reservations of authority, and timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part 324 establishes minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards for FDIC-supervised institutions. This part 324 includes methodologies for calculating minimum capital requirements, public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements, and transition provisions for the application of this part 324.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part 324 shall be read to limit the authority of the FDIC to take action under other provisions of law, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law or regulation, under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> Subject to the requirements in paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards.</I> Each FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its minimum capital requirements and meet the overall capital adequacy standards in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital.</I> Each FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its regulatory capital in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) Each FDIC-supervised institution must use the methodologies in subpart D of this part (and subpart F of this part for a market risk FDIC-supervised institution) to calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must use the methodologies in subpart E (and subpart F of this part for a market risk FDIC-supervised institution) to calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures.</I> (i) Except for an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that is making public disclosures pursuant to the requirements in subpart E of this part, each FDIC-supervised institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more must make the public disclosures described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each market risk FDIC-supervised institution must make the public disclosures described in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must make the public disclosures described in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Additional capital in the aggregate.</I> The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under this part if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirements under this part are not commensurate with the FDIC-supervised institution's credit, market, operational, or other risks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital elements.</I> (i) If the FDIC determines that a particular common equity tier 1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to exclude all or a portion of such element from common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, the FDIC may find that a capital element may be included in an FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 324.20(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amounts.</I> If the FDIC determines that the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under this part by the FDIC-supervised institution for one or more exposures is not commensurate with the risks associated with those exposures, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to the exposure(s) or to deduct the amount of the exposure(s) from its regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total leverage.</I> If the FDIC determines that the total leverage exposure, or the amount reflected in the FDIC-supervised institution's reported average total consolidated assets, for an on- or off-balance sheet exposure calculated by an FDIC-supervised institution under § 324.10 is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the FDIC-supervised institution, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to adjust this exposure amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the leverage ratio calculations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consolidation of certain exposures.</I> The FDIC may determine that the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet is not commensurate with the risk of the exposure or the relationship of the FDIC-supervised institution to the entity. Upon making this determination, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the balance sheet of the FDIC-supervised institution for purposes of determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirements and calculating the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital ratios accordingly. The FDIC will look to the substance of, and risk associated with, the transaction, as well as other relevant factors the FDIC deems appropriate in determining whether to require such treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any deduction or limitation required under this part, the FDIC may require a different deduction or limitation, provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the FDIC-supervised institution's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response procedures.</I> In making a determination under this section, the FDIC will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner as the notice and response procedures in § 324.5(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Timing.</I> (1) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that is not a savings and loan holding company must:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart E and, if applicable, subpart F of this part and, beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D and, if applicable, subpart F of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) From January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014:
</P>
<P>(A) Calculate risk-weighted assets in accordance with the general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 325, appendix A, and, if applicable appendix C (state nonmember banks), or 12 CFR part 390, subpart Z and, if applicable, 12 CFR part 325, appendix C (state savings associations) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> and substitute such risk-weighted assets for standardized total risk-weighted assets for purposes of § 324.10;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purpose of calculating its general risk-based capital ratios from January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution shall adjust, as appropriate, its risk-weighted asset measure (as that amount is calculated under 12 CFR part 325, appendix A, (state nonmember banks), and 12 CFR part 390, subpart Z (state savings associations) in the general risk-based capital rules) by excluding those assets that are deducted from its regulatory capital under § 324.22.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) If applicable, calculate general market risk equivalent assets in accordance with 12 CFR part 325, appendix C, section 4(a)(3) and substitute such general market risk equivalent assets for standardized market risk-weighted assets for purposes of § 324.20(d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(C) Substitute the corresponding provision or provisions of 12 CFR part 325, appendix A, and, if applicable, appendix C (state nonmember banks), and 12 CFR part 390, subpart Z and, if applicable, 12 CFR part 325, appendix C (state savings associations) for any reference to subpart D of this part in: § 324.121(c); § 324.124(a) and (b); § 324.144(b); § 324.154(c) and (d); § 324.202(b) (definition of covered position in paragraph (b)(3)(iv)); and § 324.211(b); 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> In addition, for purposes of § 324.201(c)(3), from January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, for any circumstance in which the FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under subpart D of this part, the FDIC will instead require the FDIC-supervised institution to make such calculations according to 12 CFR part 325, appendix A, and, if applicable, appendix C (state nonmember banks), or 12 CFR part 390, subpart Z and, if applicable, 12 CFR part 325, appendix C (state savings associations).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Beginning on January 1, 2014, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B, and C of this part, provided, however, that such FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) From January 1, 2014 to December 31, 2014, maintain a minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4 percent, a minimum tier 1 capital ratio of 5.5 percent, a minimum total capital ratio of 8 percent, and a minimum leverage ratio of 4 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) From January 1, 2015 to December 31, 2017, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 324.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution or a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets in accordance with subpart D, and if applicable, subpart F of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning on January 1, 2015, calculate and maintain minimum capital ratios in accordance with subparts A, B and C of this part, provided, however, that from January 1, 2015, to December 31, 2017, a savings and loan holding company that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not required to maintain a supplementary leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must calculate a supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with § 324.10(c), and must report the calculated supplementary leverage ratio on any applicable regulatory reports.
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning on January 1, 2016, and subject to the transition provisions in subpart G of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution is subject to limitations on distributions and discretionary bonus payments with respect to its capital conservation buffer and any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, in accordance with subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDIC-supervised institution that changes from one category of FDIC-supervised institution to another of such categories must comply with the requirements of its category in this part, including applicable transition provisions of the requirements in this part, no later than on the first day of the second quarter following the change in the FDIC-supervised institution's category.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57748, Sept. 26, 2014; 84 FR 59277, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 324.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted allowances for credit losses (AACL)</I> means, with respect to an FDIC-supervised institution that has adopted CECL, valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings for expected credit losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost and a lessor's net investment in leases that have been established to reduce the amortized cost basis of the assets to amounts expected to be collected as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, adjusted allowances for credit losses include allowances for expected credit losses on off-balance sheet credit exposures not accounted for as insurance as determined in accordance with GAAP. Adjusted allowances for credit losses exclude “allocated transfer risk reserves” and allowances created that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale dbt securities.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution</I> means an FDIC-supervised institution that is described in § 324.100(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit-risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a market risk FDIC-supervised institution only, advanced market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Excess eligible credit reserves not included in the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced market risk-weighted assets</I> means the advanced measure for market risk calculated under § 324.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> with respect to a company, means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, the company.
</P>
<P><I>Allocated transfer risk reserves</I> means reserves that have been established in accordance with section 905(a) of the International Lending Supervision Act, against certain assets whose value U.S. supervisory authorities have found to be significantly impaired by protracted transfer risk problems.
</P>
<P><I>Allowances for loan and lease losses (ALLL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses on loans, lease financing receivables or other extensions of credit as determined in accordance with GAAP. ALLL excludes “allocated transfer risk reserves.” For purposes of this part, ALLL includes allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with off-balance sheet credit exposures as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program</I> means a program established primarily for the purpose of issuing commercial paper that is investment grade and backed by underlying exposures held in a bankruptcy-remote special purpose entity (SPE).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed commercial paper (ABCP) program sponsor</I> means an FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(2) Approves the sellers permitted to participate in an ABCP program;
</P>
<P>(3) Approves the exposures to be purchased by an ABCP program; or
</P>
<P>(4) Administers the ABCP program by monitoring the underlying exposures, underwriting or otherwise arranging for the placement of debt or other obligations issued by the program, compiling monthly reports, or ensuring compliance with the program documents and with the program's credit and investment policy.
</P>
<P><I>Assets classified loss</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) When measured as of the date of examination of an FDIC-supervised institution, those assets that have been determined by an evaluation made by a state or Federal examiner as of that date to be a loss; and
</P>
<P>(2) When measured as of any other date, those assets:
</P>
<P>(i) That have been determined—
</P>
<P>(A) By an evaluation made by a state or Federal examiner at the most recent examination of an FDIC-supervised institution to be a loss; or
</P>
<P>(B) By evaluations made by the FDIC-supervised institution since its most recent examination to be a loss; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That have not been charged off from the FDIC-supervised institution's books or collected.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means an FDIC-insured, state-chartered commercial or savings bank that is not a member of the Federal Reserve System and for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> means a bank holding company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bank Holding Company Act</I> means the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, with respect to an entity or asset, that the entity or asset would be excluded from an insolvent entity's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Basis derivative contract</I> means a non-foreign-exchange derivative contract (<I>i.e.,</I> the contract is denominated in a single currency) in which the cash flows of the derivative contract depend on the difference between two risk factors that are attributable solely to one of the following derivative asset classes: Interest rate, credit, equity, or commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, the value of the asset on the balance sheet of the FDIC-supervised institution as determined in accordance with GAAP. For all assets other than available-for-sale debt securities or purchased credit deteriorated assets, the carrying value is not reduced by any associated credit loss allowance that is determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Category II FDIC-supervised institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a company that is identified as a Category II banking organization, as defined pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the four most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent quarters, total consolidated assets is based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the four most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii) of this definition, an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category II FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution has:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form; or
</P>
<P>(B) Less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Category III FDIC-supervised institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a Category III banking organization, as defined pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (3)(iii)(A) or (B) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) A depository institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the four most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the four most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At least one of the following in paragraphs (3)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each calculated as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters, or if the depository institution has not filed each applicable reporting form for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or quarters, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure equal to $75 billion or more. Off-balance sheet exposure is a depository institution's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(iv) After meeting the criteria in paragraph (3)(iii) of this definition, an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category III FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is an FDIC-supervised institution's total exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the FDIC-supervised institution, as reported on the Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>CFTC</I> means the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating FDIC-supervised institution or servicer to call securitization exposures before their stated maturity or call date.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared transaction</I> means an exposure associated with an outstanding derivative contract or repo-style transaction that an FDIC-supervised institution or clearing member has entered into with a central counterparty (that is, a transaction that a central counterparty has accepted).
</P>
<P>(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction between a CCP and an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member of the CCP where the FDIC-supervised institution enters into the transaction with the CCP for the FDIC-supervised institution's own account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction between a CCP and an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member of the CCP where the FDIC-supervised institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client and the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 324.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 324.3(a) are met; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 324.3(a)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(2) The exposure of an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member to its clearing member client is not a cleared transaction where the FDIC-supervised institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the FDIC-supervised institution provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For the standardized approach treatment of these exposures, see § 324.34(e) (OTC derivative contracts) or § 324.37(c) (repo-style transactions). For the advanced approaches treatment of these exposures, see § 324.132(c)(8) and (d) (OTC derivative contracts) or § 324.132(b) and 324.132(d) (repo-style transactions) and for calculation of the margin period of risk, see § 324.132(d)(5)(iii)(C) (OTC derivative contracts) and § 324.132(d)(5)(iii)(A) (repo-style transactions).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Clearing member</I> means a member of, or direct participant in, a CCP that is entitled to enter into transactions with the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member client</I> means a party to a cleared transaction associated with a CCP in which a clearing member acts either as a financial intermediary with respect to the party or guarantees the performance of the party to the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Client-facing derivative transaction</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction where the FDIC-supervised institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) or where the FDIC-supervised institution provides a guarantee to the QCCP on the performance of a client on a transaction between the client and a QCCP.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral agreement</I> means a legal contract that specifies the time when, and circumstances under which, a counterparty is required to pledge collateral to an FDIC-supervised institution for a single financial contract or for all financial contracts in a netting set and confers upon the FDIC-supervised institution a perfected, first-priority security interest (notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent), or the legal equivalent thereof, in the collateral posted by the counterparty under the agreement. This security interest must provide the FDIC-supervised institution with a right to close-out the financial positions and liquidate the collateral upon an event of default of, or failure to perform by, the counterparty under the collateral agreement. A contract would not satisfy this requirement if the FDIC-supervised institution's exercise of rights under the agreement may be stayed or avoided.
</P>
<P>(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The FDIC expects to evaluate jointly with the Federal Reserve and the OCC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 382 of this title, subpart I of part 252 of this title or part 47 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial end-user</I> means an entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Is not an entity described in section 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a “financial entity” for purposes of section 2(h)(7) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)); or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not an entity described in section 3C(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Qualifies for the exemption in section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(4) Qualifies for an exemption in section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) by virtue of section 3C(g)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates an FDIC-supervised institution to extend credit or to purchase assets.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity derivative contract</I> means a commodity-linked swap, purchased commodity-linked option, forward commodity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to commodities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 324.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest</I> means the common equity tier 1 capital of a depository institution or foreign bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A consolidated subsidiary of an FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not owned by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> A person or company <I>controls</I> a company if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of a class of voting securities of the company; or
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidates the company for financial reporting purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Core capital</I> means Tier 1 capital, as defined in § 324.2 of subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate exposure</I> means an exposure to a company that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to a GSE;
</P>
<P>(3) A residential mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) A pre-sold construction loan;
</P>
<P>(5) A statutory multifamily mortgage;
</P>
<P>(6) A high volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure;
</P>
<P>(7) A cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(8) A default fund contribution;
</P>
<P>(9) A securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(10) An equity exposure;
</P>
<P>(11) An unsettled transaction;
</P>
<P>(12) A policy loan;
</P>
<P>(13) A separate account; or
</P>
<P>(14) A Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P><I>Country risk classification (CRC)</I> with respect to a sovereign, means the most recent consensus CRC published by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) as of December 31st of the prior calendar year that provides a view of the likelihood that the sovereign will service its external debt.
</P>
<P><I>Covered debt instrument</I> means an unsecured debt instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Issued by a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 217.2, and that is an eligible debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.61, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible debt security issued by the global systemically important BHC; or
</P>
<P>(2) Issued by a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, and that is an eligible Covered IHC debt security, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161, or that is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any eligible Covered IHC debt security issued by the Covered IHC; or
</P>
<P>(3) Issued by a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2 other than a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 217.2; or issued by a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization that is not a global systemically important BHC, other than a Covered IHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.161; and where,
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is eligible for use to comply with an applicable law or regulation requiring the issuance of a minimum amount of instruments to absorb losses or recapitalize the issuer or any of its subsidiaries in connection with a resolution, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of the issuer or any of its subsidiaries; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; for purposes of this paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition, if the issuer may be subject to a special resolution regime, in its jurisdiction of incorporation or organization, that addresses the failure or potential failure of a financial company and any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument, then an instrument is <I>pari passu</I> or subordinated to any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition if that instrument is eligible under that special resolution regime to be written down or converted into equity or any other capital instrument ahead of or proportionally with any instrument described in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provided that, for purposes of this definition, <I>covered debt instrument</I> does not include a debt instrument that qualifies as tier 2 capital pursuant to 12 CFR 324.20(d) or that is otherwise treated as regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the issuer.
</P>
<P><I>Covered savings and loan holding company</I> means a top-tier savings and loan holding company other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(A) of HOLA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is an insurance underwriting company; or
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph 3(i) of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO)</I> means an on-balance sheet asset that, in form or in substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing representations and warranties</I> means representations and warranties that are made or assumed in connection with a transfer of underlying exposures (including loan servicing assets) and that obligate an FDIC-supervised institution to protect another party from losses arising from the credit risk of the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties include provisions to protect a party from losses resulting from the default or nonperformance of the counterparties of the underlying exposures or from an insufficiency in the value of the collateral backing the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50 percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
</P>
<P>(2) Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a GSE, provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Warranties that permit the return of underlying exposures in instances of misrepresentation, fraud, or incomplete documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk mitigant</I> means collateral, a credit derivative, or a guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-risk-weighted assets</I> means 1.06 multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets as calculated under § 324.131;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 324.142; and
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under § 324.151.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL)</I> means the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure</I> means, with respect to a netting set, the larger of zero or the fair value of a transaction or portfolio of transactions within the netting set that would be lost upon default of the counterparty, assuming no recovery on the value of the transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure methodology</I> means the method of calculating the exposure amount for over-the-counter derivative contracts in § 324.34(b).
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a financial institution that has legal custody of collateral provided to a CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Custody bank</I> means an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company that is a custodial banking organization under 12 CFR 217.2.
</P>
<P><I>Default fund contribution</I> means the funds contributed or commitments made by a clearing member to a CCP's mutualized loss sharing arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> means a payment made to an executive officer of an FDIC-supervised institution, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the executive officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount paid is determined by the FDIC-supervised institution without prior promise to, or agreement with, the executive officer; and
</P>
<P>(3) The executive officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when an FDIC-supervised institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A common equity tier 1 or additional tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when an FDIC-supervised institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase or redemption is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(4) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any tier 2 capital instrument if the FDIC-supervised institution has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any similar transaction that the FDIC determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376).
</P>
<P><I>Early amortization provision</I> means a provision in the documentation governing a securitization that, when triggered, causes investors in the securitization exposures to be repaid before the original stated maturity of the securitization exposures, unless the provision:
</P>
<P>(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating FDIC-supervised institution (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
</P>
<P><I>Effective notional amount</I> means for an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the lesser of the contractual notional amount of the credit risk mitigant and the exposure amount (or EAD for purposes of subpart E of this part) of the hedged exposure, multiplied by the percentage coverage of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facility</I> means a liquidity facility supporting ABCP, in form or in substance, that is subject to an asset quality test at the time of draw that precludes funding against assets that are 90 days or more past due or in default. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, a liquidity facility is an eligible ABCP liquidity facility if the assets or exposures funded under the liquidity facility that do not meet the eligibility requirements are guaranteed by a sovereign that qualifies for a 20 percent risk weight or lower.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible clean-up call</I> means a clean-up call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating FDIC-supervised institution or servicer;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a synthetic securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative in the form of a credit default swap, nth-to-default swap, total return swap, or any other form of credit derivative approved by the FDIC, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or nth-to-default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or nth-to-default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the FDIC-supervised institution records net payments received on the swap as net income, the FDIC-supervised institution records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit reserves</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For an FDIC-supervised institution that has not adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including the ALLL associated with such exposures, but excluding allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904 and other specific reserves created against recognized losses; and
</P>
<P>(2) For an FDIC-supervised institution that has adopted CECL, all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings to cover expected credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including AACL associated with such exposures. Eligible credit reserves exclude allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, allowances that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities, and other specific reserves created against recognized losses.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantee</I> means a guarantee that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is written;
</P>
<P>(2) Is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Unconditional, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
</P>
<P>(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment;
</P>
<P>(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(9) Is not provided by an affiliate of the FDIC-supervised institution, unless the affiliate is an insured depository institution, foreign bank, securities broker or dealer, or insurance company that:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not control the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on depository institutions, U.S. securities broker-dealers, or U.S. insurance companies (as the case may be); and
</P>
<P>(10) For purposes of §§ 324.141 through 324.145 and subpart D of this part, is provided by an eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
</P>
<P>(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible margin loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral is marked to fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the FDIC-supervised institution the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> This requirement is met where all transactions under the agreement are (i) executed under U.S. law and (ii) constitute “securities contracts” under section 555 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555), qualified financial contracts under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or netting contracts between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The FDIC expects to evaluate jointly with the Federal Reserve and the OCC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 382 of this title, subpart I of part 252 of this title or part 47 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the requirements of § 324.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible servicer cash advance facility</I> means a servicer cash advance facility in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement of advances, except that a servicer may be obligated to make non-reimbursable advances for a particular underlying exposure if any such advance is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer's right to reimbursement is senior in right of payment to all other claims on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3) The servicer has no legal obligation to, and does not make advances to the securitization if the servicer concludes the advances are unlikely to be repaid.
</P>
<P><I>Employee stock ownership plan</I> has the same meaning as in 29 CFR 2550.407d-6.
</P>
<P><I>Equity derivative contract</I> means an equity-linked swap, purchased equity-linked option, forward equity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to equities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Equity exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the FDIC-supervised institution under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate derivative contract</I> means a cross-currency interest rate swap, forward foreign-exchange contract, currency option purchased, or any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded covered debt instrument</I> means an investment in a covered debt instrument held by an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held in connection with market making-related activities permitted under 12 CFR 351.4, provided that a direct exposure or an indirect exposure to a covered debt instrument is held for 30 business days or less; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been designated as an excluded covered debt instrument by the FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, pursuant to 12 CFR 324.22(c)(5)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of the following positions: president, chief executive officer, executive chairman, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief investment officer, chief legal officer, chief lending officer, chief risk officer, or head of a major business line, and other staff that the board of directors of the FDIC-supervised institution deems to have equivalent responsibility.
</P>
<P><I>Expected credit loss (ECL)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor or segment of non-defaulted retail exposures that is carried at fair value with gains and losses flowing through earnings or that is classified as held-for-sale and is carried at the lower of cost or fair value with losses flowing through earnings, zero.
</P>
<P>(2) For all other wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors or segments of non-defaulted retail exposures, the product of the probability of default (PD) times the loss given default (LGD) times the exposure at default (EAD) for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, the FDIC-supervised institution's impairment estimate for allowance purposes for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) Total ECL is the sum of expected credit losses for all wholesale and retail exposures other than exposures for which the FDIC-supervised institution has applied the double default treatment in § 324.135.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security, if the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 324.22(b)(2)); an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the FDIC-supervised institution determines the exposure amount under § 324.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For a security (that is not a securitization exposure, an equity exposure, or preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP) classified as available-for-sale or held-to-maturity if the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 324.22(b)(2)), the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) For available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP if the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 324.22(b)(2)), the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the FDIC-supervised institution's regulatory capital components.
</P>
<P>(4) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the FDIC-supervised institution calculates the exposure amount under § 324.37; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 324.33.
</P>
<P>(5) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount determined under § 324.34;
</P>
<P>(6) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 324.35.
</P>
<P>(7) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the FDIC-supervised institution calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 324.37, the exposure amount determined under § 324.37.
</P>
<P>(8) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 324.42.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any bank or state savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account</I> means, for purposes of § 324.10(c)(2)(x), an account administered by a custody bank for which the custody bank provides fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping services, as authorized by applicable Federal or state law.
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) In the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash on deposit with the FDIC-supervised institution (including cash held for the FDIC-supervised institution by a third-party custodian or trustee);
</P>
<P>(ii) Gold bullion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which the FDIC-supervised institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any priority security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP).
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company; savings and loan holding company; nonbank financial institution supervised by the Federal Reserve under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act; depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act; national association, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution; insurance company; securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act; broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act; futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act; or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Any designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) or (2) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Of which the FDIC-supervised institution owns:
</P>
<P>(A) An investment in GAAP equity instruments of the company with an adjusted carrying value or exposure amount equal to or greater than $10 million; or
</P>
<P>(B) More than 10 percent of the company's issued and outstanding common shares (or similar equity interest), and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which is predominantly engaged in the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) Lending money, securities or other financial instruments, including servicing loans;
</P>
<P>(B) Insuring, guaranteeing, indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, or death, or issuing annuities;
</P>
<P>(C) Underwriting, dealing in, making a market in, or investing as principal in securities or other financial instruments; or
</P>
<P>(D) Asset management activities (not including investment or financial advisory activities).
</P>
<P>(5) For the purposes of this definition, a company is “predominantly engaged” in an activity or activities if:
</P>
<P>(i) 85 percent or more of the total consolidated annual gross revenues (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) of the company is either of the two most recent calendar years were derived, directly or indirectly, by the company on a consolidated basis from the activities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 85 percent or more of the company's consolidated total assets (as determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) as of the end of either of the two most recent calendar years were related to the activities.
</P>
<P>(6) Any other company that the FDIC may determine is a financial institution based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operation to those of the entities included in paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this part, “financial institution” does not include the following entities:
</P>
<P>(i) GSEs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805;
</P>
<P>(iv) Entities registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act or foreign equivalents thereof;
</P>
<P>(v) Entities to the extent that the FDIC-supervised institution's investment in such entities would qualify as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act; and
</P>
<P>(vi) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>First-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure secured by a first lien.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means a foreign bank as defined in § 211.2 of the Federal Reserve's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2) (other than a depository institution).
</P>
<P><I>Forward agreement</I> means a legally binding contractual obligation to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date, not including commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Gain-on-sale</I> means an increase in the equity capital of an FDIC-supervised institution (as reported on Schedule RC of the Call Report) resulting from a traditional securitization (other than an increase in equity capital resulting from the FDIC-supervised institution's receipt of cash in connection with the securitization or reporting of a mortgage servicing asset on Schedule RC of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity (PSE).
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or other similar financial instrument (other than a credit derivative) that allows one party (beneficiary) to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures (reference exposure) to another party (protection provider).
</P>
<P><I>High volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A credit facility secured by land or improved real property that, prior to being reclassified by the FDIC-supervised institution as a non-HVCRE exposure pursuant to paragraph (6) of this definition—
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily finances, has financed, or refinances the acquisition, development, or construction of real property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the purpose of providing financing to acquire, develop, or improve such real property into income-producing real property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is dependent upon future income or sales proceeds from, or refinancing of, such real property for the repayment of such credit facility.
</P>
<P>(2) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility financing—
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, development, or construction of properties that are—
</P>
<P>(A) One- to four-family residential properties. Credit facilities that do not finance the construction of one- to four-family residential structures, but instead solely finance improvements such as the laying of sewers, water pipes, and similar improvements to land, do not qualify for the one- to four-family residential properties exclusion;
</P>
<P>(B) Real property that would qualify as an investment in community development; or
</P>
<P>(C) Agricultural land;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or refinance of existing income-producing real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Improvements to existing income-producing improved real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial real property projects in which—
</P>
<P>(A) The loan-to-value ratio is less than or equal to the applicable maximum supervisory loan-to-value ratio as determined by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower has contributed capital of at least 15 percent of the real property's appraised, `as completed' value to the project in the form of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unencumbered readily marketable assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Paid development expenses out-of-pocket; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Contributed real property or improvements; and
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower contributed the minimum amount of capital described under paragraph (2)(iv)(B) of this definition before the FDIC-supervised institution advances funds (other than the advance of a nominal sum made in order to secure the FDIC-supervised institution's lien against the real property) under the credit facility, and such minimum amount of capital contributed by the borrower is contractually required to remain in the project until the HVCRE exposure has been reclassified by the FDIC-supervised institution as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An HVCRE exposure does not include any loan made prior to January 1, 2015;
</P>
<P>(4) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility reclassified as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(5) Value Of contributed real property: For the purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition, the value of any real property contributed by a borrower as a capital contribution is the appraised value of the property as determined under standards prescribed pursuant to section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3339), in connection with the extension of the credit facility or loan to such borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Reclassification as a non-HVCRE exposure: For purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition and with respect to a credit facility and an FDIC-supervised institution, an FDIC-supervised institution may reclassify an HVCRE exposure as a non-HVCRE exposure upon—
</P>
<P>(i) The substantial completion of the development or construction of the real property being financed by the credit facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash flow being generated by the real property being sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings.
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of this definition, an FDIC-supervised institution is not required to reclassify a credit facility that was originated on or after January 1, 2015 and prior to April 1, 2020.
</P>
<P><I>Home country</I> means the country where an entity is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established.
</P>
<P><I>Identified losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) When measured as of the date of examination of an FDIC-supervised institution, those items that have been determined by an evaluation made by a state or Federal examiner as of that date to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances such as the allowances for loan and lease losses (examples of identified losses would be assets classified loss, off-balance sheet items classified loss, any provision expenses that are necessary for the FDIC-supervised institution to record in order to replenish its general valuation allowances to an adequate level, liabilities not shown on the FDIC-supervised institution's books, estimated losses in contingent liabilities, and differences in accounts which represent shortages) or the adjusted allowances for credit losses; and
</P>
<P>(2) When measured as of any other date, those items:
</P>
<P>(i) That have been determined—
</P>
<P>(A) By an evaluation made by a state or Federal examiner at the most recent examination of an FDIC-supervised institution to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances; or
</P>
<P>(B) By evaluations made by the FDIC-supervised institution since its most recent examination to be chargeable against income, capital and/or general valuation allowances; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For which the appropriate accounting entries to recognize the loss have not yet been made on the FDIC-supervised institution's books nor has the item been collected or otherwise settled.
</P>
<P><I>Independent collateral</I> means financial collateral, other than variation margin, that is subject to a collateral agreement, or in which a FDIC-supervised institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any prior security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP), and the amount of which does not change directly in response to the value of the derivative contract or contracts that the financial collateral secures.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect exposure</I> means an exposure that arises from the FDIC-supervised institution's investment in an investment fund which holds an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument or an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, indirect exposure also includes an investment in an investment fund that holds a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance underwriting company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381) that engages in insurance underwriting activities.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate derivative contract</I> means a single-currency interest rate swap, basis swap, forward rate agreement, purchased interest rate option, when-issued securities, or any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>International Lending Supervision Act</I> means the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Investing bank</I> means, with respect to a securitization, an FDIC-supervised institution that assumes the credit risk of a securitization exposure (other than an originating FDIC-supervised institution of the securitization). In the typical synthetic securitization, the investing FDIC-supervised institution sells credit protection on a pool of underlying exposures to the originating FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Investment Company Act</I> means the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80 a-1 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Investment fund</I> means a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all or substantially all of the assets of the company are financial assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) That has no material liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means that the entity to which the FDIC-supervised institution is exposed through a loan or security, or the reference entity with respect to a credit derivative, has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. Such an entity or reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in a covered debt instrument</I> means an FDIC-supervised institution's net long position calculated in accordance with § 324.22(h) in a covered debt instrument, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to the debt instrument, excluding any underwriting positions held by the FDIC-supervised institution for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 324.22(h) in an instrument that is recognized as capital for regulatory purposes by the primary supervisor of an unconsolidated regulated financial institution or is an instrument that is part of the GAAP equity of an unconsolidated unregulated financial institution, including direct, indirect, and synthetic exposures to capital instruments, excluding underwriting positions held by the FDIC-supervised institution for five or fewer business days.
</P>
<P><I>Investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument</I> means a net long position calculated in accordance with § 324.22(h) in the FDIC-supervised institution's own common stock instrument, own additional tier 1 capital instrument or own tier 2 capital instrument, including direct, indirect, or synthetic exposures to such capital instruments. An investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument includes any contractual obligation to purchase such capital instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Junior-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure that is not a first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Main index</I> means the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index, the FTSE All-World Index, and any other index for which the FDIC-supervised institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that the equities represented in the index have comparable liquidity, depth of market, and size of bid-ask spreads as equities in the Standard &amp; Poor's 500 Index and FTSE All-World Index.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk FDIC-supervised institution</I> means an FDIC-supervised institution that is described in § 324.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Minimum transfer amount</I> means the smallest amount of variation margin that may be transferred between counterparties to a netting set pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Money market fund</I> means an investment fund that is subject to 17 CFR 270.2a-7 or any foreign equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets (MSAs)</I> means the contractual rights owned by an FDIC-supervised institution to service for a fee mortgage loans that are owned by others.
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank (MDB)</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FDIC determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>National Bank Act</I> means the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Net independent collateral amount</I> means the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 324.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a FDIC-supervised institution less the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 324.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the FDIC-supervised institution to the counterparty, excluding such amounts held in a bankruptcy remote manner or posted to a QCCP and held in conformance with the operational requirements in § 324.3.
</P>
<P><I>Netting set</I> means a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. For derivative contracts, netting set also includes a single derivative contract between a FDIC-supervised institution and a single counterparty. For purposes of the internal model methodology under § 324.132(d), netting set also includes a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement and does not include a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) That is not subject to such a master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where the FDIC-supervised institution has identified specific wrong-way risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution owns 10 percent or less of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>N
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative that provides credit protection only for the nth-defaulting reference exposure in a group of reference exposures.
</P>
<P><I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, U.S. Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Operating entity</I> means a company established to conduct business with clients with the intention of earning a profit in its own right.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> with respect to an off-balance sheet commitment means the length of time between the date a commitment is issued and:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the FDIC-supervised institution can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
</P>
<P><I>Originating FDIC-supervised institution,</I> with respect to a securitization, means an FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly originated or securitized the underlying exposures included in the securitization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Serves as an ABCP program sponsor to the securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction. An OTC derivative includes a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Between an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member and a counterparty where the FDIC-supervised institution is acting as a financial intermediary and enters into a cleared transaction with a CCP that offsets the transaction with the counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member provides a CCP a guarantee on the performance of the counterparty to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Performance standby letter of credit (or performance bond)</I> means an irrevocable obligation of an FDIC-supervised institution to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) fails to perform on any contractual nonfinancial or commercial obligation. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things, subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-sold construction loan</I> means any one-to-four family residential construction loan to a builder that meets the requirements of section 618(a)(1) or (2) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-233, 105 Stat. 1761) and the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, meaning that the FDIC-supervised institution has obtained sufficient documentation that the buyer of the home has a legally binding written sales contract and has a firm written commitment for permanent financing of the home upon completion;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser is an individual(s) that intends to occupy the residence and is not a partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or any other entity (including an entity acting as a sole proprietorship) that is purchasing one or more of the residences for speculative purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The purchaser has entered into a legally binding written sales contract for the residence;
</P>
<P>(4) The purchaser has not terminated the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) The purchaser has made a substantial earnest money deposit of no less than 3 percent of the sales price, which is subject to forfeiture if the purchaser terminates the sales contract; provided that, the earnest money deposit shall not be subject to forfeiture by reason of breach or termination of the sales contract on the part of the builder;
</P>
<P>(6) The earnest money deposit must be held in escrow by the FDIC-supervised institution or an independent party in a fiduciary capacity, and the escrow agreement must provide that in an event of default arising from the cancellation of the sales contract by the purchaser of the residence, the escrow funds shall be used to defray any cost incurred by the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(7) The builder must incur at least the first 10 percent of the direct costs of construction of the residence (that is, actual costs of the land, labor, and material) before any drawdown is made under the loan;
</P>
<P>(8) The loan may not exceed 80 percent of the sales price of the presold residence; and
</P>
<P>(9) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Protection amount (P)</I> means, with respect to an exposure hedged by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative, reduced to reflect any currency mismatch, maturity mismatch, or lack of restructuring coverage (as provided in § 324.36 or § 324.134, as appropriate).
</P>
<P><I>Publicly-traded</I> means traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central bank</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The European Central Bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) The central bank of any member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Sovereign exposures to the member country would receive a zero percent risk-weight under § 324.32; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The sovereign debt of the member country is not in default or has not been in default during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central counterparty (QCCP)</I> means a central counterparty that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU) under Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FDIC that the central counterparty:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in sound financial condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is subject to supervision by the Federal Reserve, the CFTC, or the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC), or, if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, is subject to effective oversight by a national supervisory authority in its home country; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Meets or exceeds the risk-management standards for central counterparties set forth in regulations established by the Federal Reserve, the CFTC, or the SEC under Title VII or Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act; or if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, meets or exceeds similar risk-management standards established under the law of its home country that are consistent with international standards for central counterparty risk management as established by the relevant standard setting body of the Bank of International Settlements; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Provides the FDIC-supervised institution with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the FDIC-supervised institution is required to obtain under §§ 324.35(d)(3) and 324.133(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes available to the FDIC and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by the FDIC to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under §§ 324.35 and 324.133.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 324.3(f).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the FDIC-supervised institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The FDIC expects to evaluate jointly with the Federal Reserve and the OCC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 382 of this title, subpart I of part 252 of this title or part 47 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the requirements of § 324.3(d) with respect to that agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial institution</I> means a financial institution subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on the following U.S. financial institutions: Depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, nonbank financial companies supervised by the Federal Reserve, designated financial market utilities, securities broker-dealers, credit unions, or insurance companies.
</P>
<P><I>Repo-style transaction</I> means a repurchase or reverse repurchase transaction, or a securities borrowing or securities lending transaction, including a transaction in which the FDIC-supervised institution acts as agent for a customer and indemnifies the customer against loss, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or a netting contract between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the FDIC-supervised institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The FDIC expects to evaluate jointly with the Federal Reserve and the OCC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 382 of this title, subpart I of part 252 of this title or part 47 of this title, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either overnight or unconditionally cancelable at any time by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Executed under an agreement that provides the FDIC-supervised institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set off collateral promptly upon an event of counterparty default; and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction for purposes of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the requirements of § 324.3(e) of this part with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> means a securitization which has more than one underlying exposure and in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization;
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) An exposure to an asset-backed commercial paper program is not a resecuritization exposure if either:
</P>
<P>(i) The program-wide credit enhancement does not meet the definition of a resecuritization exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity sponsoring the program fully supports the commercial paper through the provision of liquidity so that the commercial paper holders effectively are exposed to the default risk of the sponsor instead of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, equity exposure, statutory multifamily mortgage, or presold construction loan):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) That is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With an original and outstanding amount of $1 million or less that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on residential property that is not one-to-four family; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating capital requirements under subpart E of this part, managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics and not on an individual-exposure basis.
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Securitization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization), or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization special purpose entity (securitization SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of holding underlying exposures of a securitization, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the underlying exposures held by the entity from the credit risk of the seller of the underlying exposures to the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Separate account</I> means a legally segregated pool of assets owned and held by an insurance company and maintained separately from the insurance company's general account assets for the benefit of an individual contract holder. To be a separate account:
</P>
<P>(1) The account must be legally recognized as a separate account under applicable law;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets in the account must be insulated from general liabilities of the insurance company under applicable law in the event of the insurance company's insolvency;
</P>
<P>(3) The insurance company must invest the funds within the account as directed by the contract holder in designated investment alternatives or in accordance with specific investment objectives or policies; and
</P>
<P>(4) All investment gains and losses, net of contract fees and assessments, must be passed through to the contract holder, provided that the contract may specify conditions under which there may be a minimum guarantee but must not include contract terms that limit the maximum investment return available to the policyholder.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance facility</I> means a facility under which the servicer of the underlying exposures of a securitization may advance cash to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments to investors in the securitization, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution</I> means an investment by an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution where the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution owns more than 10 percent of the issued and outstanding common stock of the unconsolidated financial institution.
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Act</I> means the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 631 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Investment Act</I> means the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 681 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign default</I> means noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal and interest timely and fully, arrearages, or restructuring.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
</P>
<P><I>Specific wrong-way risk</I> means wrong-way risk that arises when either:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty and issuer of the collateral supporting the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty and the reference asset of the transaction, are affiliates or are the same entity.
</P>
<P><I>Speculative grade</I> means the reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments in the near term, but is vulnerable to adverse economic conditions, such that should economic conditions deteriorate, the reference entity would present an elevated default risk.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized market risk-weighted assets</I> means the standardized measure for market risk calculated under § 324.204 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 324.31;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and default fund contributions as calculated under § 324.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 324.38;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 324.42;
</P>
<P>(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under §§ 324.52 and 324.53; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For a market risk FDIC-supervised institution only, standardized market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, that is not included in tier 2 capital and any amount of “allocated transfer risk reserves.”
</P>
<P><I>State savings association</I> means a State savings association as defined in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3)), the deposits of which are insured by the Corporation. It includes a building and loan, savings and loan, or homestead association, or a cooperative bank (other than a cooperative bank which is a state bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) organized and operating according to the laws of the State in which it is chartered or organized, or a corporation (other than a bank as defined in section 3(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) that the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determine to be operating substantially in the same manner as a state savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Statutory multifamily mortgage</I> means a loan secured by a multifamily residential property that meets the requirements under section 618(b)(1) of the Resolution Trust Corporation Refinancing, Restructuring, and Improvement Act of 1991, and that meets the following criteria: 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The types of loans that qualify as loans secured by multifamily residential properties are listed in the instructions for preparation of the Call Report.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards;
</P>
<P>(2) The principal amount of the loan at origination does not exceed 80 percent of the value of the property (or 75 percent of the value of the property if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) where the value of the property is the lower of the acquisition cost of the property or the appraised (or, if appropriate, evaluated) value of the property;
</P>
<P>(3) All principal and interest payments on the loan must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan, or in the case where an existing owner is refinancing a loan on the property, all principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced must have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of the loan for at least one year prior to applying a 50 percent risk weight to the loan;
</P>
<P>(4) Amortization of principal and interest on the loan must occur over a period of not more than 30 years and the minimum original maturity for repayment of principal must not be less than 7 years;
</P>
<P>(5) Annual net operating income (before making any payment on the loan) generated by the property securing the loan during its most recent fiscal year must not be less than 120 percent of the loan's current annual debt service (or 115 percent of current annual debt service if the loan is based on an interest rate that changes over the term of the loan) or, in the case of a cooperative or other not-for-profit housing project, the property must generate sufficient cash flow to provide comparable protection to the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(6) The loan is not more than 90 days past due, or on nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>Sub-speculative grade</I> means the reference entity depends on favorable economic conditions to meet its financial commitments, such that should such economic conditions deteriorate the reference entity likely would default on its financial commitments.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company, a company controlled by that company.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic exposure</I> means an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument or to the value of an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution. For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, synthetic exposure includes an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual retail exposure);
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
</P>
<P><I>Tangible capital</I> means the amount of core capital (Tier 1 capital), as defined in accordance with § 324.2, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tangible equity</I> means the amount of Tier 1 capital, as calculated in accordance with § 324.2, plus the amount of outstanding perpetual preferred stock (including related surplus) not included in Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 minority interest</I> means the tier 1 capital of a consolidated subsidiary of an FDIC-supervised institution that is not owned by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> is defined in § 324.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital minority interest</I> means the total capital of a consolidated subsidiary of an FDIC-supervised institution that is not owned by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Total leverage exposure</I> is defined in § 324.10(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Traditional securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company defined in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The FDIC may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The FDIC may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in 12 CFR 344.3 (state nonmember bank), and 12 CFR 390.203 (state savings association);
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a financial institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 324.22; or
</P>
<P>(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means all securitization exposures associated with a securitization that have the same seniority level.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means with respect to a commitment, that an FDIC-supervised institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Underlying exposures</I> means one or more exposures that have been securitized in a securitization transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Unregulated financial institution</I> means, for purposes of § 324.131, a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, including any financial institution that would meet the definition of “financial institution” under this section but for the ownership interest thresholds set forth in paragraph (4)(i) of that definition.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more exposures could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means financial collateral that is subject to a collateral agreement provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of the first party's obligations under one or more transactions between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such financial collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin agreement</I> means an agreement to collect or post variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 324.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to a FDIC-supervised institution less the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 324.132(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the FDIC-supervised institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin threshold</I> means the amount of credit exposure of a FDIC-supervised institution to its counterparty that, if exceeded, would require the counterparty to post variation margin to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Volatility derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract in which the payoff of the derivative contract explicitly depends on a measure of the volatility of an underlying risk factor to the derivative contract.
</P>
<P><I>Wrong-way risk</I> means the risk that arises when an exposure to a particular counterparty is positively correlated with the probability of default of such counterparty itself.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20758, Apr. 14, 2014; 79 FR 44124, July 30, 2014; 79 FR 57748, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41422, July 15, 2015; 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 82 FR 50260, Oct. 30, 2017; 84 FR 4246, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35270, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59277, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 68033, Dec. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4429, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 4578, Jan. 27, 2020; 85 FR 20393, Apr. 13, 2020; 86 FR 739, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.3   Operational requirements for counterparty credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subparts D and E of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleared transaction.</I> In order to recognize certain exposures as cleared transactions pursuant to paragraphs (1)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of the definition of “cleared transaction” in § 324.2, the exposures must meet the applicable requirements set forth in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the FDIC-supervised institution from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients. Omnibus accounts established under 17 CFR parts 190 and 300 satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible margin loan.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan as defined in § 324.2, an FDIC-supervised institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of eligible margin loan in § 324.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement as defined in § 324.101, an FDIC-supervised institution must obtain a written legal opinion verifying the validity and enforceability of the agreement under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions if the counterparty fails to perform upon an event of default, including upon receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 324.2, an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 324.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repo-style transaction.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction as defined in § 324.2, an FDIC-supervised institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of repo-style transaction in § 324.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure of a QCCP to satisfy the rule's requirements.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution determines that a CCP ceases to be a QCCP due to the failure of the CCP to satisfy one or more of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP in § 324.2, the FDIC-supervised institution may continue to treat the CCP as a QCCP for up to three months following the determination. If the CCP fails to remedy the relevant deficiency within three months after the initial determination, or the CCP fails to satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP continuously for a three-month period after remedying the relevant deficiency, an FDIC-supervised institution may not treat the CCP as a QCCP for the purposes of this part until after the FDIC-supervised institution has determined that the CCP has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (2)(i) through (2)(iii) of the definition of a QCCP for three continuous months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20758, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.4   Inadequate capital as an unsafe or unsound practice or condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> As a condition of Federal deposit insurance, all insured depository institutions must remain in a safe and sound condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> Any insured depository institution which has less than its minimum leverage capital requirement is deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice pursuant to section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) and/or 1818(c)). Except that such an insured depository institution which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with the FDIC or has submitted to the FDIC and is in compliance with a plan approved by the FDIC to increase its leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate and to take such other action as may be necessary for the insured depository institution to be operated so as not to be engaged in such an unsafe or unsound practice will not be deemed to be engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice pursuant to section 8(b)(1) and/or 8(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)(1) and/or 1818(c)) on account of its capital ratios. The FDIC is not precluded from taking action under section 8(b)(1), section 8(c) or any other enforcement action against an insured depository institution with capital above the minimum requirement if the specific circumstances deem such action to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> Any insured depository institution with a ratio of tier 1 capital to total assets 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> that is less than two percent is deemed to be operating in an unsafe or unsound condition pursuant to section 8(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> For purposes of this paragraph (c), until January 1, 2015, the term total assets shall have the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 325.2(x). As of January 1, 2015, the term total assets shall have the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 324.401(g).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution with a ratio of tier 1 capital to total assets of less than two percent which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with the FDIC (or any other insured depository institution with a ratio of tier 1 capital to total assets of less than two percent which has entered into and is in compliance with a written agreement with its primary Federal regulator and to which agreement the FDIC is a party) to increase its tier 1 leverage capital ratio to such level as the FDIC deems appropriate and to take such other action as may be necessary for the insured depository institution to be operated in a safe and sound manner, will not be subject to a proceeding by the FDIC pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(a) on account of its capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution with a ratio of tier 1 capital to total assets that is equal to or greater than two percent may be operating in an unsafe or unsound condition. The FDIC is not precluded from bringing an action pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1818(a) where an insured depository institution has a ratio of tier 1 capital to total assets that is equal to or greater than two percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.5   Issuance of directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A directive is a final order issued to an FDIC-supervised institution that fails to maintain capital at or above the minimum leverage capital requirement as set forth in §§ 324.4 and 324.10. A directive issued pursuant to this section, including a plan submitted under a directive, is enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as a final cease-and-desist order issued under section 8(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of directives.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution is operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement established by this regulation, the FDIC Board of Directors, or its designee(s), may issue and serve upon any FDIC-supervised institution a directive requiring the FDIC-supervised institution to restore its capital to the minimum leverage capital requirement within a specified time period. The directive may require the FDIC-supervised institution to submit to the appropriate FDIC regional director, or other specified official, for review and approval, a plan describing the means and timing by which the FDIC-supervised institution shall achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement. After the FDIC has approved the plan, the FDIC-supervised institution may be required under the terms of the directive to adhere to and monitor compliance with the plan. The directive may be issued during the course of an examination of the FDIC-supervised institution, or at any other time that the FDIC deems appropriate, if the FDIC-supervised institution is found to be operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and opportunity to respond to issuance of a directive.</I> (1) If the FDIC makes an initial determination that a directive should be issued to an FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the FDIC, through the appropriate designated official(s), shall serve written notification upon the FDIC-supervised institution of its intent to issue a directive. The notice shall include the current leverage capital ratio, the basis upon which said ratio was calculated, the proposed capital injection, the proposed date for achieving the minimum leverage capital requirement and any other relevant information concerning the decision to issue a directive. When deemed appropriate, specific requirements of a proposed plan for meeting the minimum leverage capital requirement may be included in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 14 days of receipt of notification, the FDIC-supervised institution may file with the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) a written response, explaining why the directive should not be issued, seeking modification of its terms, or other appropriate relief. The FDIC-supervised institution's response shall include any information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other relevant evidence which supports its position, and may include a plan for attaining the minimum leverage capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) After considering the FDIC-supervised institution's response, the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) shall serve upon the FDIC-supervised institution a written determination addressing the FDIC-supervised institution's response and setting forth the FDIC's findings and conclusions in support of any decision to issue or not to issue a directive. The directive may be issued as originally proposed or in modified form. The directive may order the FDIC-supervised institution to:
</P>
<P>(A) Achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement established by this regulation by a certain date;
</P>
<P>(B) Submit for approval and adhere to a plan for achieving the minimum leverage capital requirement;
</P>
<P>(C) Take other action as is necessary to achieve the minimum leverage capital requirement; or
</P>
<P>(D) A combination of the above actions.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a directive is to be issued, it may be served upon the FDIC-supervised institution along with the final determination.
</P>
<P>(4) Any FDIC-supervised institution, upon a change in circumstances, may request the FDIC to reconsider the terms of a directive and may propose changes in the plan under which it is operating to meet the minimum leverage capital requirement. The directive and plan continue in effect while such request is pending before the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(5) All papers filed with the FDIC must be postmarked or received by the appropriate designated FDIC official(s) within the prescribed time limit for filing.
</P>
<P>(6) Failure by the FDIC-supervised institution to file a written response to notification of intent to issue a directive within the specified time period shall constitute consent to the issuance of such directive.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement of a directive.</I> (1) Whenever an FDIC-supervised institution fails to follow the directive or to submit or adhere to its capital adequacy plan, the FDIC may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States district court, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3907(b)(2)(B)(ii), in the same manner and to the same extent as if the directive were a final cease-and-desist order. In addition to enforcement of the directive, the FDIC may seek assessment of civil money penalties for violation of the directive against any FDIC-supervised institution, any officer, director, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of the FDIC-supervised institution, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3909(d).
</P>
<P>(2) The directive may be issued separately, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement mechanisms available to the FDIC, including cease-and-desist orders, orders of correction, the approval or denial of applications, or any other actions authorized by law. In addition to addressing an FDIC-supervised institution's minimum leverage capital requirement, the capital directive may also address minimum risk-based capital requirements that are to be maintained and calculated in accordance with § 324.10, and, for state savings associations, the minimum tangible capital requirements set for in § 324.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.6-324.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.1.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.6-324.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Ratio Requirements and Buffers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.2.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.10   Minimum capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum capital requirements.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must maintain the following minimum capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) A total capital ratio of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) A leverage ratio of 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) For advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institutions or for Category III FDIC-regulated institutions, a supplementary leverage ratio of 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(vi) For state savings associations, a tangible capital ratio of 1.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 324.12), that is subject to the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined in § 324.12), is considered to have met the minimum capital requirements in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standardized capital ratio calculations.</I> Other than as provided in paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's total capital ratio is the ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Leverage ratio.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's leverage ratio is the ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital to the FDIC-supervised institution's average total consolidated assets as reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's Call Report minus amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 324.22(a), (c), and (d).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>State savings association tangible capital ratio.</I> (i) Until January 1, 2015, a state savings association shall determine its tangible capital ratio in accordance with 12 CFR 390.468.
</P>
<P>(ii) As of January 1, 2015, a state savings association's tangible capital ratio is the ratio of the state savings association's core capital (tier 1 capital) to total assets. For purposes of this paragraph, the term total assets shall have the meaning provided in § 324.401(g).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplementary leverage ratio.</I> (1) A Category III FDIC-supervised institution or advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must determine its supplementary leverage ratio in accordance with this paragraph, beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the FDIC-supervised institution is identified as a Category III FDIC-supervised institution. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's or a Category III FDIC-supervised institution's supplementary leverage ratio is the ratio of its tier 1 capital to total leverage exposure, the latter of which is calculated as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mean of the on-balance sheet assets calculated as of each day of the reporting quarter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The mean of the off-balance sheet exposures calculated as of the last day of each of the most recent three months, minus the applicable deductions under § 324.22(a), (c), and (d).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, <I>total leverage exposure</I> means the sum of the items described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section for a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and paragraph (c)(2)(x) of this section for a custody bank:
</P>
<P>(i) The balance sheet carrying value of all of the FDIC-supervised institution's on-balance sheet assets, <I>plus</I> the value of securities sold under a repurchase transaction or a securities lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP, <I>less</I> amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 324.22(a), (c), and (d), and <I>less</I> the value of securities received in security-for-security repo-style transactions, where the FDIC-supervised institution acts as a securities lender and includes the securities received in its on-balance sheet assets but has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received, and, for an FDIC-supervised institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 324.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, <I>less</I> the fair value of any derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) For an FDIC-supervised institution that uses the current exposure methodology under § 324.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the potential future credit exposure (PFE) for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the FDIC-supervised institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), to which the FDIC-supervised institution is a counterparty as determined under § 324.34, but without regard to § 324.34(c), provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 324.34, but without regard to § 324.34(c), provided that it does not adjust the net-to-gross ratio (NGR); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution that chooses to exclude the PFE of credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) must do so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an FDIC-supervised institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under section § 324.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the PFE for each netting set to which the FDIC-supervised institution is a counterparty (including cleared transactions except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the FDIC-supervised institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), as determined under § 324.132(c)(7), in which the term C in § 324.132(c)(7)(i) equals zero, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>), an FDIC-supervised institution may set the value of the term C in § 324.132(c)(7)(i) equal to the amount of collateral posted by a clearing member client of the FDIC-supervised institution in connection with the client-facing derivative transactions within the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 324.132(c), provided that it does so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) For an FDIC-supervised institution that uses the current exposure methodology under § 324.34(b) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the amount of cash collateral that is received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has offset the mark-to-fair value of the derivative asset, or cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has reduced the FDIC-supervised institution's on-balance sheet assets, unless such cash collateral is all or part of variation margin that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The variation margin is used to reduce the current credit exposure of the derivative contract, calculated as described in § 324.34(b), and not the PFE; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For the purpose of the calculation of the NGR described in § 324.34(b)(2)(ii)(B), variation margin described in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section may not reduce the net current credit exposure or the gross current credit exposure; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an FDIC-supervised institution that uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk under § 324.132(c) for its standardized risk-weighted assets, the replacement cost of each derivative contract or single product netting set of derivative contracts to which the FDIC-supervised institution is a counterparty, calculated according to the following formula, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4:
</P>
<FP-1><I>Replacement Cost</I> = max{<I>V</I>−<I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> + <I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E>; 0}
</FP-1>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<P><I>V</I> equals the fair value for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section and, at the discretion of the FDIC-supervised institution, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP);
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">r</E> equals the amount of cash collateral received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction on behalf of a clearing member client, the amount of collateral received from the clearing member client; and
</P>
<P><I>CVM</I><E T="54">p</E> equals the amount of cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has not offset the fair value of the derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction on behalf of a clearing member client, the amount of collateral posted to the clearing member client;</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, where multiple netting sets are subject to a single variation margin agreement, an FDIC-supervised institution must apply the formula for replacement cost provided in § 324.132(c)(10)(i), in which the term C<E T="52">MA</E> may only include cash collateral that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(C) through (G) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>), an FDIC-supervised institution must treat a derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index if the FDIC-supervised institution elected to treat the derivative contract as multiple derivative contracts under § 324.132(c)(5)(vi);
</P>
<P>(C) For derivative contracts that are not cleared through a QCCP, the cash collateral received by the recipient counterparty is not segregated (by law, regulation, or an agreement with the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) Variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on the mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract;
</P>
<P>(E) The variation margin transferred under the derivative contract or the governing rules of the CCP or QCCP for a cleared transaction is the full amount that is necessary to fully extinguish the net current credit exposure to the counterparty of the derivative contracts, subject to the threshold and minimum transfer amounts applicable to the counterparty under the terms of the derivative contract or the governing rules for a cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(F) The variation margin is in the form of cash in the same currency as the currency of settlement set forth in the derivative contract, provided that for the purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(F), currency of settlement means any currency for settlement specified in the governing qualifying master netting agreement and the credit support annex to the qualifying master netting agreement, or in the governing rules for a cleared transaction; and
</P>
<P>(G) The derivative contract and the variation margin are governed by a qualifying master netting agreement between the legal entities that are the counterparties to the derivative contract or by the governing rules for a cleared transaction, and the qualifying master netting agreement or the governing rules for a cleared transaction must explicitly stipulate that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided under the contract if a credit event involving either counterparty occurs;
</P>
<P>(iv) The effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the derivative contract) of a credit derivative, or other similar instrument, through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the amount of any reduction in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative if the reduction is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative or other similar instrument, provided that the remaining maturity of the purchased credit derivative is equal to or greater than the remaining maturity of the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection and that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references a single exposure, the reference exposure of the purchased credit derivative is to the same legal entity and ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is junior to, the reference exposure of the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) With respect to a credit derivative that references multiple exposures, the reference exposures of the purchased credit derivative are to the same legal entities and rank <I>pari passu</I> with the reference exposures of the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection, and the level of seniority of the purchased credit derivative ranks <I>pari passu</I> to the level of seniority of the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Where an FDIC-supervised institution has reduced the effective notional amount of a credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must also reduce the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative used to offset the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection, by the amount of any increase in the mark-to-fair value of the purchased credit derivative that is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Where the FDIC-supervised institution purchases credit protection through a total return swap and records the net payments received on a credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection in net income, but does not record offsetting deterioration in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection in net income (either through reductions in fair value or by additions to reserves), the FDIC-supervised institution may not use the purchased credit protection to offset the effective notional principal amount of the related credit derivative through which the FDIC-supervised institution provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(v) Where an FDIC-supervised institution acting as a principal has more than one repo-style transaction with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from a counterparty under reverse repurchase transactions by the gross value of payables under repurchase transactions due to the same counterparty, the gross value of receivables associated with the repo-style transactions <I>less</I> any on-balance sheet receivables amount associated with these repo-style transactions included under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, unless the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The offsetting transactions have the same explicit final settlement date under their governing agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) The right to offset the amount owed to the counterparty with the amount owed by the counterparty is legally enforceable in the normal course of business and in the event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(C) Under the governing agreements, the counterparties intend to settle net, settle simultaneously, or settle according to a process that is the functional equivalent of net settlement, (that is, the cash flows of the transactions are equivalent, in effect, to a single net amount on the settlement date), where both transactions are settled through the same settlement system, the settlement arrangements are supported by cash or intraday credit facilities intended to ensure that settlement of both transactions will occur by the end of the business day, and the settlement of the underlying securities does not interfere with the net cash settlement;
</P>
<P>(vi) The counterparty credit risk of a repo-style transaction, including where the FDIC-supervised institution acts as an agent for a repo-style transaction and indemnifies the customer with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty in an amount limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the transaction is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) for transactions with a counterparty must be calculated on a transaction by transaction basis, such that each transaction <I>i</I> is treated as its own netting set, in accordance with the following formula, where E<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or provided as collateral to the counterparty, and C<E T="52">i</E> is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or received as collateral from the counterparty:
</P>
<FP-1>E<E T="52">i</E>* = max {0, [E<E T="52">i</E> − C<E T="52">i</E>]}; and
</FP-1>
<P>(B) If the transaction is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) must be calculated as the greater of zero and the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase or provided as collateral to a counterparty for all transactions included in the qualifying master netting agreement (ΣE<E T="52">i</E>), <I>less</I> the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the FDIC-supervised institution borrowed, purchased subject to resale or received as collateral from the counterparty for those transactions (ΣC<E T="52">i</E>), in accordance with the following formula:
</P>
<FP-1>E* = max {0, [ΣE<E T="52">i</E> − ΣC<E T="52">i</E>]}
</FP-1>
<P>(vii) If an FDIC-supervised institution acting as an agent for a repo-style transaction provides a guarantee to a customer of the security or cash its customer has lent or borrowed with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty and the guarantee is not limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, the amount of the guarantee that is greater than the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the value of the collateral the borrower has provided;
</P>
<P>(viii) The credit equivalent amount of all off-balance sheet exposures of the FDIC-supervised institution, excluding repo-style transactions, repurchase or reverse repurchase or securities borrowing or lending transactions that qualify for sales treatment under GAAP, and derivative transactions, determined using the applicable credit conversion factor under § 324.33(b), provided, however, that the minimum credit conversion factor that may be assigned to an off-balance sheet exposure under this paragraph is 10 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member:
</P>
<P>(A) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that guarantees the performance of a clearing member client with respect to a cleared transaction must treat its exposure to the clearing member client as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that guarantees the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client must treat its exposure to the CCP as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that does not guarantee the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client may exclude its exposure to the CCP for purposes of determining its total leverage exposure;
</P>
<P>(D) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member may exclude from its total leverage exposure the effective notional principal amount of credit protection sold through a credit derivative contract, or other similar instrument, that it clears on behalf of a clearing member client through a CCP as calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(ix)(A) through (C) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may exclude from its total leverage exposure a clearing member's exposure to a clearing member client for a derivative contract, if the clearing member client and the clearing member are affiliates and consolidated for financial reporting purposes on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(x) A custody bank shall exclude from its total leverage exposure the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of funds that the custody bank has on deposit at a qualifying central bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds in deposit accounts at the custody bank that are linked to fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping accounts at the custody bank. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(x), a deposit account is linked to a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account if the deposit account is provided to a client that maintains a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account with the custody bank, and the deposit account is used to facilitate the administration of the fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advanced approaches capital ratio calculations.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d) must determine its regulatory capital ratios as described in paragraphs (d)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution's total capital ratio is the lower of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital to standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital to advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets. An FDIC-supervised institution's advanced-approaches-adjusted total capital is the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital after being adjusted as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from its total capital any allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, included in its tier 2 capital in accordance with § 324.20(d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must add to its total capital any eligible credit reserves that exceed the FDIC-supervised institution's total expected credit losses to the extent that the excess reserve amount does not exceed 0.6 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's credit risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>State savings association tangible capital ratio.</I> (i) Until January 1, 2014, a state savings association shall determine its tangible capital ratio in accordance with 12 CFR 390.468.
</P>
<P>(ii) As of January 1, 2014, a state savings association's tangible capital ratio is the ratio of the state savings association's core capital (tier 1 capital) to total assets. For purposes of this paragraph, the term total assets shall have the meaning provided in 12 CFR 324.401(g).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, An FDIC-supervised institution must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the FDIC-supervised institution is exposed.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insured depository institutions with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement.</I> (i) An insured depository institution making an application to the FDIC operating with less than the minimum leverage capital requirement does not have adequate capital and therefore has inadequate financial resources.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any insured depository institution operating with an inadequate capital structure, and therefore inadequate financial resources, will not receive approval for an application requiring the FDIC to consider the adequacy of its capital structure or its financial resources.
</P>
<P>(iii) In any merger, acquisition, or other type of business combination where the FDIC must give its approval, where it is required to consider the adequacy of the financial resources of the existing and proposed institutions, and where the resulting entity is either insured by the FDIC or not otherwise federally insured, approval will not be granted when the resulting entity does not meet the minimum leverage capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Exceptions. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (d)(3)(i), (ii) and (iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC, in its discretion, may approve an application pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act where it is required to consider the adequacy of capital if it finds that such approval must be taken to prevent the closing of a depository institution or to facilitate the acquisition of a closed depository institution, or, when severe financial conditions exist which threaten the stability of an insured depository institution or of a significant number of depository institutions insured by the FDIC or of insured depository institutions possessing significant financial resources, if such action is taken to lessen the risk to the FDIC posed by an insured depository institution under such threat of instability.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC, in its discretion, may approve an application pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act where it is required to consider the adequacy of capital or the financial resources of the insured depository institution where it finds that the applicant has committed to and is in compliance with a reasonable plan to meet its minimum leverage capital requirements within a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20758, Apr. 14, 2014; 79 FR 57748, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41422, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35270, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59278, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61802, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4430, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 4578, Jan. 27, 2020; 85 FR 57963, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 740, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.2.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.11   Capital conservation buffer and countercyclical capital buffer amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of an FDIC-supervised institution is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the Call Report, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the FDIC-supervised institution's net income, calculated in accordance with the instructions to Call Report, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that an FDIC-supervised institution can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. For an FDIC-supervised institution that is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company designated as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402, the maximum payout ratio is based on the FDIC-supervised institution's capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 324.11. For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as identified pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402, the maximum payout ratio is determined under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum payout amount.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's maximum payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the FDIC-supervised institution's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum payout ratio.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Private sector credit exposure.</I> Private sector credit exposure means an exposure to a company or an individual that is not an exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, the International Monetary Fund, a MDB, a PSE, or a GSE.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Leverage buffer standard.</I> For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company designated as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402, the leverage buffer standard is equal to the lesser of 1.0 percent or 50 percent of the most recent method 1 surcharge (expressed as a percentage) that the global systemically important BHC that controls the FDIC-supervised institution, was required to calculate pursuant to § 217.403(b), subject to the effective date provisions of § 217.403(d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of capital conservation buffer.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution's capital conservation buffer is equal to the lowest of the following ratios, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital ratio minus the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum common equity tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 324.10;
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital ratio minus the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 324.10; and
</P>
<P>(C) The FDIC-supervised institution's total capital ratio minus the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 324.10; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A)-(C) of this section, if the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio is less than or equal to the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum common equity tier 1, tier 1 or total capital ratio requirement under § 324.10, respectively, the FDIC-supervised institution's capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution, with a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of its applicable countercyclical capital buffer, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section and, if applicable, a leverage buffer greater than its leverage buffer standard is not subject to a maximum payout amount under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative eligible retained income.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the FDIC-supervised institution's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative;
</P>
<P>(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent as of the end of the previous calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, leverage buffer was less than its leverage buffer standard as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Prior approval.</I> Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, the FDIC may permit an FDIC-supervised institution to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the FDIC-supervised institution, if the FDIC determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the FDIC-supervised institution. In making such a determination, the FDIC will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other limitations on distributions.</I> Additional limitations on distributions may apply to an FDIC-supervised institution under 12 CFR 303.241 and subpart H of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution or a Category III FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of capital conservation buffer.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount is an extension of the capital conservation buffer as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution or a Category III FDIC-supervised institution has a countercyclical capital buffer amount determined by calculating the weighted average of the countercyclical capital buffer amounts established for the national jurisdictions where the FDIC-supervised institution's private sector credit exposures are located, as specified in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Weighting.</I> The weight assigned to a jurisdiction's countercyclical capital buffer amount is calculated by dividing the total risk-weighted assets for the FDIC-supervised institution's private sector credit exposures located in the jurisdiction by the total risk-weighted assets for all of the FDIC-supervised institution's private sector credit exposures. The methodology an FDIC-supervised institution uses for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of this paragraph (b) must be the methodology that determines its risk-based capital ratios under § 324.10. Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the risk-weighted asset amount for a private sector credit exposure that is a covered position under subpart F of this part is its specific risk add-on as determined under § 324.210 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Location.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(B) and (b)(1)(iv)(C) of this section, the location of a private sector credit exposure is the national jurisdiction where the borrower is located (that is, where it is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established or, if the borrower is an individual, where the borrower resides).
</P>
<P>(B) If, in accordance with subparts D or E of this part, the FDIC-supervised institution has assigned to a private sector credit exposure a risk weight associated with a protection provider on a guarantee or credit derivative, the location of the exposure is the national jurisdiction where the protection provider is located.
</P>
<P>(C) The location of a securitization exposure is the location of the underlying exposures, or, if the underlying exposures are located in more than one national jurisdiction, the national jurisdiction where the underlying exposures with the largest aggregate unpaid principal balance are located. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the location of an underlying exposure shall be the location of the borrower, determined consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States</I>—(i) <I>Initial countercyclical capital buffer amount with respect to credit exposures in the United States.</I> The initial countercyclical capital buffer amount in the United States is zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustment of the countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The FDIC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States in accordance with applicable law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The FDIC expects that any adjustment will be based on a determination made jointly by the Board, OCC, and FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Range of countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The FDIC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for credit exposures in the United States between zero percent and 2.5 percent of risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adjustment determination.</I> The FDIC will base its decision to adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount under this section on a range of macroeconomic, financial, and supervisory information indicating an increase in systemic risk including, but not limited to, the ratio of credit to gross domestic product, a variety of asset prices, other factors indicative of relative credit and liquidity expansion or contraction, funding spreads, credit condition surveys, indices based on credit default swap spreads, options implied volatility, and measures of systemic risk.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Effective date of adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(A) <I>Increase adjustment.</I> A determination by the FDIC under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to increase the countercyclical capital buffer amount will be effective 12 months from the date of announcement, unless the FDIC establishes an earlier effective date and includes a statement articulating the reasons for the earlier effective date.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Decrease adjustment.</I> A determination by the FDIC to decrease the established countercyclical capital buffer amount under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section will be effective on the day following announcement of the final determination or the earliest date permissible under applicable law or regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Twelve month sunset.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount will return to zero percent 12 months after the effective date that the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount is announced, unless the FDIC announces a decision to maintain the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount or adjust it again before the expiration of the 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount for foreign jurisdictions.</I> The FDIC will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount for private sector credit exposures to reflect decisions made by foreign jurisdictions consistent with due process requirements described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of maximum payout ratio for an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company designated as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402</I>—(1) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio of an FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a bank holding company designated as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402 is the lowest of the payout ratios determined by its capital conservation buffer as set forth in table 1 to § 324.11 and leverage buffer as set forth in table 2 to § 324.11.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Leverage buffer.</I> (i) The leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC designated pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402 has a leverage buffer that is equal to its supplementary leverage ratio minus 3.0 percent, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, if the supplementary leverage ratio of the FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC designated pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402 is less than or equal to 3.0 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.11—Calculation of Maximum Payout Ratio
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Capital conservation buffer]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 2.5 percent plus 100 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, and greater than 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent plus 75 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, and greater than 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent plus 50 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount, and greater than 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent plus 25 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 324.11—Calculation of Maximum Payout Ratio
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Leverage buffer]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Leverage buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 100 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 75 percent of the FDI-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 75 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 50 percent of the FDI-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 50 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard, <E T="03">and</E> greater than 25 percent of the FDI-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 25 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's leverage buffer standard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20758, Apr. 14, 2014; 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 84 FR 35270, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59278, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 15916, Mar. 20, 2020; 90 FR 55291, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.2.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.12   Community bank leverage ratio framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community bank leverage ratio framework.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, a qualifying community banking organization that has made an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section shall be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 324.10, the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 324.403(b)(1) of this part, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject, if it has a leverage ratio greater than 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, a qualifying community banking organization means an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution and that satisfies all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a leverage ratio of greater than 8 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has total consolidated assets of less than $10 billion, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has off-balance sheet exposures of 25 percent or less of its total consolidated assets as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter, calculated as the sum of the notional amounts of the exposures listed in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (I) of this section, divided by total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The unused portion of commitments (except for unconditionally cancellable commitments);
</P>
<P>(B) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods;
</P>
<P>(C) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(D) Sold credit protection through guarantees and credit derivatives;
</P>
<P>(E) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties;
</P>
<P>(F) Securities lent and borrowed, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(G) Financial standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(H) Forward agreements that are not derivative contracts; and
</P>
<P>(I) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has total trading assets and trading liabilities, calculated in accordance with the reporting instructions to the Call Report of 5 percent or less of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets, each as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A qualifying community banking organization may elect to use the community bank leverage ratio framework if it makes an opt-in election under this paragraph (a)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), a qualifying community banking organization makes an election to use the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable reporting requirements of its Call Report.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) A qualifying community banking organization that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework may opt out of the community bank leverage ratio framework by completing the applicable risk-based and leverage ratio reporting requirements necessary to demonstrate compliance with § 324.10(a)(1) in its Call Report or by otherwise providing the information to the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(B) A qualifying community banking organization that opts out of the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(iii)(A) of this section must comply with § 324.10(a)(1) immediately.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the leverage ratio.</I> A qualifying community banking organization's leverage ratio is calculated in accordance to § 324.10(b)(4), except that a qualifying community banking organization is not required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Make adjustments and deductions from tier 2 capital for purposes of § 324.22(c); or
</P>
<P>(2) Calculate and deduct from tier 1 capital an amount resulting from insufficient tier 2 capital under § 324.22(f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment when ceasing to meet the qualifying community banking organization requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(5) through (7) of this section, if an FDIC-supervised institution ceases to meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization, the FDIC-supervised institution has a period of four reporting periods under its Call Report (grace period) either to satisfy the requirements to be a qualifying community banking organization or to comply with § 324.10(a)(1) and report the required capital measures under § 324.10(a)(1) on its Call Report.
</P>
<P>(2) The grace period begins as of the end of the calendar quarter in which the FDIC-supervised institution ceases to satisfy the criteria to be a qualifying community banking organization provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The grace period ends on the last day of the fourth consecutive calendar quarter following the beginning of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(3) During the grace period, the FDIC-supervised institution continues to be treated as a qualifying community banking organization for the purpose of this part and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section unless the FDIC-supervised institution has opted out of using the community bank leverage ratio framework under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) During the grace period, the qualifying community banking organization continues to be considered to have met the minimum capital requirements under § 324.10(a)(1), the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 324.403(b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this part, and any other capital or leverage requirements to which the qualifying community banking organization is subject and must continue calculating and reporting its leverage ratio under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that no longer meets the definition of a qualifying community banking organization as a result of a merger or acquisition has no grace period and immediately ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization. Such an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 324.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 324.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it ceases to be a qualifying community banking organization.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that has a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less does not have a grace period and must comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 324.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 324.10(a)(1) for the quarter in which it reports a leverage ratio of 7 percent or less.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that has spent eight or more of the previous twenty quarters within the grace period may not use the grace period in the current quarter. If the FDIC-supervised institution does not meet the definition of a qualifying community banking organization in the current quarter, the FDIC-supervised institution must immediately comply with the minimum capital requirements under § 324.10(a)(1) and must report the required capital measures under § 324.10(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 61802, Nov. 13, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 77363, Dec. 2, 2020; 91 FR 22989, Apr. 29, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.13-324.19" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.2.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.13-324.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definition of Capital</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.3.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.20   Capital components and eligibility criteria for regulatory capital instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital components.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's regulatory capital components are:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Additional tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital.</I> Common equity tier 1 capital is the sum of the common equity tier 1 capital elements in this paragraph (b), minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 324.22. The common equity tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any common stock instruments (plus any related surplus) issued by the FDIC-supervised institution, net of treasury stock, and any capital instruments issued by mutual banking organizations, that meet all the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the FDIC-supervised institution, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the FDIC-supervised institution that is proportional with the holder's share of the FDIC-supervised institution's issued capital after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can only be redeemed via discretionary repurchases with the prior approval of the FDIC, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution did not create at issuance of the instrument through any action or communication an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation;
</P>
<P>(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the FDIC-supervised institution's net income and retained earnings and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument. An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain prior FDIC approval for any dividend payment involving a reduction or retirement of capital stock in accordance with 12 CFR 303.241;
</P>
<P>(vi) The FDIC-supervised institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends and making any other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dividend payments and any other distributions on the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the FDIC-supervised institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur equally, proportionately, and simultaneously with the holders of all other common stock instruments before any losses are borne by holders of claims on the FDIC-supervised institution with greater priority in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ix) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(x) The FDIC-supervised institution, or an entity that the FDIC-supervised institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the FDIC-supervised institution or of an affiliate of the FDIC-supervised institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument has been issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) The instrument is reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) Retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(3) Accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI) as reported under GAAP.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> <I>See</I> § 324.22 for specific adjustments related to AOCI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Any common equity tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 324.21.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding the criteria for common stock instruments referenced above, an FDIC-supervised institution's common stock issued and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(iii), paragraph (b)(1)(iv) or paragraph (b)(1)(xi) of this section, provided that any repurchase of the stock is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of an FDIC-supervised institution that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by an FDIC-supervised institution to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criterion in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional tier 1 capital.</I> Additional tier 1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and any related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 324.22. Additional tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus any related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors, general creditors, and subordinated debt holders of the FDIC-supervised institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the FDIC-supervised institution or of an affiliate of the FDIC-supervised institution, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem; and
</P>
<P>(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the FDIC-supervised institution only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in additional tier 1 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act. In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution must receive prior approval from the FDIC to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the FDIC-supervised institution must either: Replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c); 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that following redemption, the FDIC-supervised institution will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing additional tier 1 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(vii) The FDIC-supervised institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the FDIC-supervised institution except in relation to any distributions to holders of common stock or instruments that are pari passu with the instrument.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the FDIC-supervised institution's net income or retained earnings. An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain prior FDIC approval for any dividend payment involving a reduction or retirement of capital stock in accordance with 12 CFR 303.241.
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the FDIC-supervised institution's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the FDIC-supervised institution's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(xi) The FDIC-supervised institution, or an entity that the FDIC-supervised institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the FDIC-supervised institution, such as provisions that require the FDIC-supervised institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified time frame.
</P>
<P>(xiii) If the instrument is not issued directly by the FDIC-supervised institution or by a subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the FDIC-supervised institution, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the FDIC-supervised institution or to the FDIC-supervised institution's top-tier holding company in a form which meets or exceeds all of the other criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See 77 FR 52856 (August 30, 2012).</P></FTNT>
<P>(xiv) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date upon which the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this part as set forth in § 324.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the FDIC-supervised institution enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Tier 1 minority interest, subject to the limitations in § 324.21, that is not included in the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Any and all instruments that qualified as tier 1 capital under the FDIC's general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 325, appendix A (state nonmember banks) and 12 CFR part 390, subpart Z (state savings associations) as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008).</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any preferred stock instruments issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments referenced above:
</P>
<P>(i) An instrument issued by an FDIC-supervised institution and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that any repurchase is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of an FDIC-supervised institution that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by an FDIC-supervised institution to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(v) or paragraph (c)(1)(xi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in an FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital prior to the January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tier 2 Capital.</I> Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus, minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 324.22. Tier 2 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to depositors and general creditors of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the FDIC-supervised institution or of an affiliate of the FDIC-supervised institution, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least five years. At the beginning of each of the last five years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than one year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the FDIC-supervised institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; 
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the FDIC-supervised institution only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act. In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution must receive the prior approval of the FDIC to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the FDIC-supervised institution must either: Replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that following redemption, the FDIC-supervised institution would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> A FDIC-supervised institution may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the FDIC-supervised institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the FDIC-supervised institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(viii) The FDIC-supervised institution, or an entity that the FDIC-supervised institution controls, has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the instrument is not issued directly by the FDIC-supervised institution or by a subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the FDIC-supervised institution, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the FDIC-supervised institution or the FDIC-supervised institution's top-tier holding company in a form that meets or exceeds all the other criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under this section.
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> A FDIC-supervised institution may disregard <I>de minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase requires the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(xi) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after the date on which the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this part under § 324.1(f) must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the FDIC-supervised institution enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Total capital minority interest, subject to the limitations set forth in § 324.21, that is not included in the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(3) ALLL or AACL, as applicable, up to 1.25 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's standardized total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the ALLL or AACL, as applicable (and excluding in the case of a market risk FDIC-supervised institution, its standardized market risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Any instrument that qualified as tier 2 capital under the FDIC's general risk-based capital rules under 12 CFR part 325, appendix A (state nonmember banks) and 12 CFR part 390, appendix Z (state saving associations) as then in effect, that were issued under the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010,
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/> or prior to October 4, 2010, under the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008.
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> Public Law 111-240; 124 Stat. 2504 (2010)</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> Public Law 110-343, 122 Stat. 3765 (2008)</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) Any debt instruments issued under the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Emergency Capital Investment Program pursuant to section 104A of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, added by the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021.
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> Public Law 116-260.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) For an FDIC-supervised institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in § 324.22(b)(2), 45 percent of pretax net unrealized gains on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments referenced above, an instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (d)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in an FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 or tier 2 capital prior to January 1, 2014, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FDIC approval of a capital element.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must receive FDIC prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element:
</P>
<P>(i) Was included in an FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital prior to May 19, 2010, in accordance with the FDIC's risk-based capital rules that were effective as of that date and the underlying instrument may continue to be included under the criteria set forth in this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element the FDIC determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) When considering whether an FDIC-supervised institution may include a regulatory capital element in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the FDIC will consult with the OCC and the Federal Reserve.
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in an FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, the FDIC will make its decision publicly available, including a brief description of the material terms of the regulatory capital element and the rationale for the determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35271, July 22, 2019; 86 FR 15081, Mar. 22, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.3.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.21   Minority interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 324.20, an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (a) if a consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the FDIC-supervised institution.</I> The amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest that an FDIC-supervised institution may include in common equity tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all common equity tier 1 capital elements of the FDIC-supervised institution (not including the common equity tier 1 minority interest itself), less any common equity tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 324.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the FDIC-supervised institution.</I> The amount of tier 1 minority interest that an FDIC-supervised institution may include in tier 1 capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all tier 1 capital elements of the FDIC-supervised institution (not including the tier 1 minority interest itself), less any tier 1 capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 324.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the FDIC-supervised institution.</I> The amount of total capital minority interest that an FDIC-supervised institution may include in total capital must be no greater than 10 percent of the sum of all total capital elements of the FDIC-supervised institution (not including the total capital minority interest itself), less any total capital regulatory adjustments and deductions in accordance with § 324.22(a) and (b).
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Applicability.</I> For purposes of § 324.20, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the minority interest limitations in this paragraph (b) if:
</P>
<P>(i) A consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution has issued regulatory capital that is not owned by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For each relevant regulatory capital ratio of the consolidated subsidiary, the ratio exceeds the sum of the subsidiary's minimum regulatory capital requirements plus its capital conservation buffer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Difference in capital adequacy standards at the subsidiary level.</I> For purposes of the minority interest calculations in this section, if the consolidated subsidiary issuing the capital is not subject to capital adequacy standards similar to those of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the capital adequacy standards of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution apply to the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Common equity tier 1 minority interest includable in the common equity tier 1 capital of the FDIC-supervised institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the amount of common equity tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may include in common equity tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The common equity tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's common equity tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, multiplied by the difference between the common equity tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of common equity tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The common equity tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tier 1 minority interest includable in the tier 1 capital of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the amount of tier 1 minority interest the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may include in tier 1 capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The tier 1 minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's tier 1 capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution multiplied by the difference between the tier 1 capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of tier 1 capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The tier 1 capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total capital minority interest includable in the total capital of the FDIC-supervised institution.</I> For each consolidated subsidiary of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the amount of total capital minority interest the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may include in total capital is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The total capital minority interest of the subsidiary; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of the subsidiary's total capital that is not owned by the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution multiplied by the difference between the total capital of the subsidiary and the lower of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of total capital the subsidiary must hold, or would be required to hold pursuant to this paragraph (b), to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor, or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that relate to the subsidiary multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total capital ratio the subsidiary must maintain to avoid restrictions on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 or equivalent standards established by the subsidiary's home country supervisor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35271, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.3.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.22   Regulatory capital adjustments and deductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital deductions from common equity tier 1 capital.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements the items set forth in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, goodwill that is embedded in the valuation of a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock (and that is reflected in the consolidated financial statements of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution), in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets, other than MSAs, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, held by a depository institution holding company. With the prior approval of the FDIC, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the depository institution holding company has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in that fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an insured depository institution, no deduction is required.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight any portion of the defined benefit pension fund asset that is not deducted under paragraphs (a)(5)(i) or (a)(5)(ii) of this section as if the FDIC-supervised institution directly holds a proportional ownership share of each exposure in the defined benefit pension fund.
</P>
<P>(6) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d), the amount of expected credit loss that exceeds its eligible credit reserves; and
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to a financial subsidiary, the aggregate amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in its financial subsidiaries (as defined in 12 CFR 362.17). An FDIC-supervised institution must not consolidate the assets and liabilities of a financial subsidiary with those of the parent bank, and no other deduction is required under paragraph (c) of this section for investments in the capital instruments of financial subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) A state savings association must deduct the aggregate amount of its outstanding investments, (both equity and debt) in, and extensions of credit to, subsidiaries that are not includable subsidiaries as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section and may not consolidate the assets and liabilities of the subsidiary with those of the state savings association. Any such deductions shall be from assets and common equity tier 1 capital, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(8)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a state savings association has any investments (both debt and equity) in, or extensions of credit to, one or more subsidiaries engaged in any activity that would not fall within the scope of activities in which includable subsidiaries as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section may engage, it must deduct such investments and extensions of credit from assets and, thus, common equity tier 1 capital in accordance with paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a state savings association holds a subsidiary (either directly or through a subsidiary) that is itself a domestic depository institution, the FDIC may, in its sole discretion upon determining that the amount of common equity tier 1 capital that would be required would be higher if the assets and liabilities of such subsidiary were consolidated with those of the parent state savings association than the amount that would be required if the parent state savings association's investment were deducted pursuant to paragraphs (a)(8)(i) and (ii) of this section, consolidate the assets and liabilities of that subsidiary with those of the parent state savings association in calculating the capital adequacy of the parent state savings association, regardless of whether the subsidiary would otherwise be an includable subsidiary as defined in paragraph (a)(8)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of this section, the term includable subsidiary means a subsidiary of a state savings association that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Engaged solely in activities that are permissible for a national bank;
</P>
<P>(B) Engaged in activities not permissible for a national bank, but only if acting solely as agent for its customers and such agency position is clearly documented in the state savings association's files;
</P>
<P>(C) Engaged solely in mortgage-banking activities;
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) Itself an insured depository institution or a company the sole investment of which is an insured depository institution, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Was acquired by the parent state savings association prior to May 1, 1989; or
</P>
<P>(E) A subsidiary of any state savings association existing as a state savings association on August 9, 1989 that—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Was chartered prior to October 15, 1982, as a savings bank or a cooperative bank under state law, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Acquired its principal assets from an association that was chartered prior to October 15, 1982, as a savings bank or a cooperative bank under state law.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Identified losses.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct identified losses (to the extent that common equity tier 1 capital would have been reduced if the appropriate accounting entries to reflect the identified losses had been recorded on the FDIC-supervised institution's books).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the sum of common equity tier 1 capital elements pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Such adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital must be made net of the associated deferred tax effects.
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section) must make the adjustments required under § 324.22(b)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, and an FDIC-supervised institution that has not made an AOCI opt-out election (as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section), must deduct any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges included in AOCI that relate to the hedging of items that are not recognized at fair value on the balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct any net gain and add any net loss related to changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in the FDIC-supervised institution's own credit risk. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct the difference between its credit spread premium and the risk-free rate for derivatives that are liabilities as part of this adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>AOCI opt-out election.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may make a one-time election to opt out of the requirement to include all components of AOCI (with the exception of accumulated net gains and losses on cash flow hedges related to items that are not fair-valued on the balance sheet) in common equity tier 1 capital (AOCI opt-out election). An FDIC-supervised institution that makes an AOCI opt-out election in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2) must adjust common equity tier 1 capital as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale securities;
</P>
<P>(B) Subtract any net unrealized losses on available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP and available-for-sale equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(C) Subtract any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges;
</P>
<P>(D) Subtract any amounts recorded in AOCI attributed to defined benefit postretirement plans resulting from the initial and subsequent application of the relevant GAAP standards that pertain to such plans (excluding, at the FDIC-supervised institution's option, the portion relating to pension assets deducted under paragraph (a)(5) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(E) Subtract any net unrealized gains and add any net unrealized losses on held-to-maturity securities that are included in AOCI.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must make its AOCI opt-out election in the Call Report:
</P>
<P>(A) If the FDIC-supervised institution is a Category III FDIC-supervised institution or a Category IV FDIC-supervised institution, during the first reporting period after the FDIC-supervised institution meets the definition of a Category III FDIC-supervised institution or a Category IV FDIC-supervised institution in § 324.2; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the FDIC-supervised institution is not a Category III FDIC-supervised institution or a Category IV FDIC-supervised institution, during the first reporting period after the FDIC-supervised institution is required to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 324.1(f).
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, each of its subsidiary banking organizations that is subject to regulatory capital requirements issued by the Federal Reserve, the FDIC, or the OCC 
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> must elect the same option as the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> These rules include the regulatory capital requirements set forth at 12 CFR part 3 (OCC); 12 CFR part 217 (Board); 12 CFR part 324 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iv) With prior notice to the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution resulting from a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction and that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may change its AOCI opt-out election in its Call Report filed for the first reporting period after the date required for such FDIC-supervised institution to comply with subpart A of this part as set forth in § 324.1(f) if:
</P>
<P>(A) Other than as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction involved the acquisition or purchase of all or substantially all of either the assets or voting stock of another banking organization that is subject to regulatory capital requirements issued by the Federal Reserve, the FDIC, or the OCC;
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, only one of the banking organizations involved in the transaction made an AOCI opt-out election under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution may, with the prior approval of the FDIC, change its AOCI opt-out election under this paragraph (b) in the case of a merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction that meets the requirements set forth at paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, but does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(A). In making such a determination, the FDIC may consider the terms of the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction, as well as the extent of any changes to the risk profile, complexity, and scope of operations of the FDIC-supervised institution resulting from the merger, acquisition, or purchase transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions from regulatory capital related to investments in capital instruments or covered debt instruments</I> 
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/>—(1) <I>Investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instruments.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in its own capital instruments, as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate amounts deducted under paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section after it calculates the amount of ALLL or AACL, as applicable, includable in tier 2 capital under § 324.20(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own common stock instruments from its common equity tier 1 capital elements to the extent such instruments are not excluded from regulatory capital under § 324.20(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own additional tier 1 capital instruments from its additional tier 1 capital elements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own tier 2 capital instruments from its tier 2 capital elements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corresponding deduction approach.</I> For purposes of subpart C of this part, the corresponding deduction approach is the methodology used for the deductions from regulatory capital related to reciprocal cross holdings (as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section), investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution (as described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section), non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution (as described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section), and non-common stock significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions for an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution (as described in paragraph (c)(6) of this section). Under the corresponding deduction approach, an FDIC-supervised institution must make deductions from the component of capital for which the underlying instrument would qualify if it were issued by the FDIC-supervised institution itself, as described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section. If the FDIC-supervised institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction, the shortfall must be deducted according to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a financial institution that is not a regulated financial institution, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock or represents the most subordinated claim in a liquidation of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution and is senior in liquidation only to common shareholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investment is in the form of an instrument issued by a regulated financial institution and the instrument does not meet the criteria for common equity tier 1, additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments under § 324.20, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if it is common stock included in GAAP equity or represents the most subordinated claim in liquidation of the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(B) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if it is included in GAAP equity, subordinated to all creditors of the financial institution, and senior in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding only to common shareholders;
</P>
<P>(C) A tier 2 capital instrument if it is not included in GAAP equity but considered regulatory capital by the primary supervisor of the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(D) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, a tier 2 capital instrument if it is a covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an investment is in the form of a non-qualifying capital instrument (as defined in § 324.300(c)), the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the instrument as:
</P>
<P>(A) An additional tier 1 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 1 capital prior to May 19, 2010; or
</P>
<P>(B) A tier 2 capital instrument if such instrument was included in the issuer's tier 2 capital (but not includable in tier 1 capital) prior to May 19, 2010.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reciprocal cross holdings in the capital of financial institutions.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in the capital of other financial institutions that it holds reciprocally, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct an investment in any covered debt instrument that the institution holds reciprocally with another financial institution, where such reciprocal cross holdings result from a formal or informal arrangement to swap, exchange, or otherwise intend to hold each other's capital or covered debt instruments, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct its investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 324.2) that exceed 25 percent of the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>24</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution pursuant to this paragraph (c) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>25</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>24</SU> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>25</SU> Any investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution that do not exceed the 25 percent threshold for investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subparts D or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(5) <I>Non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions.</I> (i) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct its non-significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions (as defined in § 324.2) that, in the aggregate and together with any investment in a covered debt instrument (as defined in § 324.2) issued by a financial institution in which the FDIC-supervised institution does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institution (as defined in § 324.2), exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments) by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>26</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this paragraph are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that underwrites a failed underwriting, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, is not required to deduct from capital a non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(5) to the extent the investment is related to the failed underwriting.
<SU>27</SU>
<FTREF/> For any calculation under this paragraph (c)(5)(i), an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may exclude the amount of an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraph (c)(5)(iii) or (iv) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>26</SU> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is not required to deduct a non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph if the financial institution is in distress and if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution, as determined by the FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>27</SU> Any non-significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or any investment in a covered debt instrument that is not required to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(5) or otherwise under this section must be assigned the appropriate risk weight under subparts D, E, or F of this part, as applicable.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) For an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, the amount to be deducted under this paragraph (c)(5) from a specific capital component is equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution and, if applicable, any investments in a covered debt instrument subject to deduction under this paragraph (c)(5), exceeding the 10 percent threshold for non-significant investments, multiplied by
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's aggregate non-significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution (in the form of such capital component) to the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's total non-significant investments in unconsolidated financial institutions, with an investment in a covered debt instrument being treated as tier 2 capital for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that is not a subsidiary of a global systemically important banking organization, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, may exclude from the deduction the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's gross long position, in accordance with § 324.22(h)(2), in investments in covered debt instruments issued by financial institutions in which the FDIC-supervised institution does not have a significant investment in the capital of the unconsolidated financial institutions up to an amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior to applying the deduction under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, may designate any investment in a covered debt instrument as an excluded covered debt instrument, as defined in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(B) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct, according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, but no longer qualifies as an excluded covered debt instrument.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section the amount of its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, in a direct or indirect investment in a covered debt instrument that was originally designated as an excluded covered debt instrument, in accordance with paragraph (c)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, and has been held for more than thirty business days.
</P>
<P>(D) An FDIC-supervised institution that is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as defined in 12 CFR 252.2, must deduct according to the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section its gross long position, calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, of its aggregate position in excluded covered debt instruments that exceeds 5 percent of the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements minus all deductions from and adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital elements required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions that are not in the form of common stock.</I> If an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution has a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from capital any such investment issued by the unconsolidated financial institution that is held by the FDIC-supervised institution other than an investment in the form of common stock, as well as any investment in a covered debt instrument issued by the unconsolidated financial institution, by applying the corresponding deduction approach in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
<SU>28</SU>
<FTREF/> The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct the significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution or an investment in a covered debt instrument pursuant to this paragraph (c)(6) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>28</SU> With prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, including an investment in a covered debt instrument, under this paragraph (c)(6) or otherwise under this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>MSAs and certain DTAs subject to common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(1).
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(1) that, individually, exceeds 25 percent of the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c)(3) of this section (the 25 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the FDIC-supervised institution and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. An FDIC-supervised institution is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 324.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the FDIC-supervised institution could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. An FDIC-supervised institution that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. An FDIC-supervised institution may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must make deductions from regulatory capital as described in this paragraph (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d)(2) that, individually, exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
</P>
<P>(A) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with § 324.22(e)) arising from timing differences that the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight these assets at 100 percent. For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a member of a consolidated group for tax purposes, the amount of DTAs that could be realized through net operating loss carrybacks may not exceed the amount that the FDIC-supervised institution could reasonably expect to have refunded by its parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(B) MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock subject to the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold may be reduced by any goodwill embedded in the valuation of such investments deducted by the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section. In addition, with the prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that underwrites a failed underwriting is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to this paragraph (d)(2) if such investment is related to such failed underwriting.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, for the period of time stipulated by the FDIC, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution is not required to deduct a significant investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution in distress in the form of common stock pursuant to this section if such investment is made for the purpose of providing financial support to the financial institution as determined by the FDIC.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section that are not deducted as a result of the application of the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold, and that, in aggregate, exceed 17.65 percent of the sum of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital elements, minus adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, minus the items listed in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section (the 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold). Any goodwill that has been deducted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section can be excluded from the significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d)(2) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to this section must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the 10 and 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Netting of DTLs against assets subject to deduction.</I> (1) Except as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, netting of DTLs against assets that are subject to deduction under this section is permitted, but not required, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the threshold deduction in paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, may be offset by DTLs (that have not been netted against assets subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section) subject to the conditions set forth in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(i) Only the DTAs and DTLs that relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and that are eligible for offsetting by that authority may be offset for purposes of this deduction.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of DTLs that the FDIC-supervised institution nets against DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and against DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, must be allocated in proportion to the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs) and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs), respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDIC-supervised institution may offset DTLs embedded in the carrying value of a leveraged lease portfolio acquired in a business combination that are not recognized under GAAP against DTAs that are subject to paragraph (d) of this section in accordance with this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(5) An FDIC-supervised institution must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period. An FDIC-supervised institution may change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction under this section only after obtaining the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insufficient amounts of a specific regulatory capital component to effect deductions.</I> Under the corresponding deduction approach, if an FDIC-supervised institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the full amount of any deduction from capital required under paragraph (d) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must deduct the shortfall amount from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital. Any investment by an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution in a covered debt instrument must be treated as an investment in the tier 2 capital for purposes of this paragraph (f). Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a qualifying community banking organization (as defined in § 324.12) that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework pursuant to § 324.12 is not required to deduct any shortfall of tier 2 capital from its additional tier 1 capital or common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must exclude from standardized total risk-weighted assets and, as applicable, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets any item that is required to be deducted from regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Net long position</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of calculating the amount of an FDIC-supervised institution's investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, and investment in a covered debt instrument under this section, the institution's net long position is the gross long position in the underlying instrument determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(2) of this section, as adjusted to recognize any short position by the FDIC-supervised institution in the same instrument subject to paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Gross long position.</I> A gross long position is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity exposure that is held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution, the adjusted carrying value of the exposure as that term is defined in § 324.51(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) For an exposure that is held directly and that is not an equity exposure or a securitization exposure, the exposure amount as that term is defined in § 324.2;
</P>
<P>(iii) For each indirect exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of its investment in an investment fund or, alternatively:
</P>
<P>(A) An FDIC-supervised institution may, with the prior approval of the FDIC, use a conservative estimate of the amount of its indirect investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instruments, its indirect investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or its indirect investment in a covered debt instrument held through a position in an index, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) An FDIC-supervised institution may calculate the gross long position for an indirect exposure to the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instruments, the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or a covered debt instrument by multiplying the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of its investment in the investment fund by either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The highest stated investment limit (in percent) for an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instruments, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable, as stated in the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract defining permissible investments of the investment fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The investment fund's actual holdings (in percent) of the investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instruments, investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or investment in a covered debt instrument, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iv) For a synthetic exposure, the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's loss on the exposure if the reference capital or covered debt instrument were to have a value of zero.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustments to reflect a short position.</I> In order to adjust the gross long position to recognize a short position in the same instrument under paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the following criteria must be met:
</P>
<P>(i) The maturity of the short position must match the maturity of the long position, or the short position must have a residual maturity of at least one year (maturity requirement); or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a position that is a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) as reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's Call Report, if the FDIC-supervised institution has a contractual right or obligation to sell the long position at a specific point in time and the counterparty to the contract has an obligation to purchase the long position if the FDIC-supervised institution exercises its right to sell, this point in time may be treated as the maturity of the long position such that the maturity of the long position and short position are deemed to match for purposes of the maturity requirement, even if the maturity of the short position is less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For an investment in an FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution under paragraphs (c)(4) through (6) and (d) of this section (as applicable), and an investment in a covered debt instrument under paragraphs (c)(1), (5), and (6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution may only net a short position against a long position in an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument under paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the short position involves no counterparty credit risk;
</P>
<P>(B) A gross long position in an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument due to a position in an index may be netted against a short position in the same index;
</P>
<P>(C) Long and short positions in the same index without maturity dates are considered to have matching maturities; and
</P>
<P>(D) A short position in an index that is hedging a long cash or synthetic position in an investment in the FDIC-supervised institution's own capital instrument, an investment in the capital instrument of an unconsolidated financial institution, or an investment in a covered debt instrument can be decomposed to provide recognition of the hedge. More specifically, the portion of the index that is composed of the same underlying instrument that is being hedged may be used to offset the long position if both the long position being hedged and the short position in the index are reported as a trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet) on the FDIC-supervised institution's Call Report, and the hedge is deemed effective by the FDIC-supervised institution's internal control processes, which have not been found to be inadequate by the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20759, Apr. 14, 2014; 80 FR 41422, July 15, 2015; 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35272, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019; 84 FR 61803, Nov. 13, 2019; 86 FR 742, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.23-324.29" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.3.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.23-324.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Risk-Weighted Assets—Standardized Approach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for all FDIC-supervised institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a market risk FDIC-supervised institution must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, OTC derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.31" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.31   Mechanics for calculating risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General risk-weighting requirements.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must apply risk weights to its exposures as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount of each on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, financial standby letter of credit, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 324.38;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 324.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) A default fund contribution subject to § 324.35;
</P>
<P>(iv) A securitization exposure subject to §§ 324.41 through 324.45; or
</P>
<P>(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 324.51 through 324.53.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.32" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.32   General risk weights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sovereign exposures</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to the U.S. government.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) An exposure to the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency; and
</P>
<P>(B) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or other exposure, that is insured or otherwise unconditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other sovereign exposures.</I> In accordance with Table 1 to § 324.32, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight to a sovereign exposure based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign or the sovereign's OECD membership status if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.32—Risk Weights for Sovereign Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk Weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Certain sovereign exposures.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign to a sovereign exposure a risk weight that is lower than the applicable risk weight in Table 1 to § 324.32 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure is denominated in the sovereign's currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that the home country supervisor allows FDIC-supervised institutions under its jurisdiction to assign to the same exposures to the sovereign.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to a non-OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3), (a)(5) and (a)(6) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 0 percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign that is a member of the OECD if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sovereign default.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a sovereign exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs).</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to GSEs.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a GSE other than an equity exposure or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a depository institution or credit union that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, except as otherwise provided under paragraph (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign banks.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided under paragraphs (d)(2)(iii), (d)(2)(v), and (d)(3) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank, in accordance with Table 2 to § 324.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the foreign bank's home country or the OECD membership status of the foreign bank's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the foreign bank's home country.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 324.32—Risk Weights for Exposures to Foreign Banks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk-weight to an exposure that is a self-liquidating, trade-related contingent item that arises from the movement of goods and that has a maturity of three months or less to a foreign bank whose home country has a CRC of 0, 1, 2, or 3, or is an OECD member with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(iv) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC, with the exception of self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, and that have a maturity of three months or less, which may be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(v) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a financial institution if the exposure may be included in that financial institution's capital unless the exposure is:
</P>
<P>(i) An equity exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) A significant investment in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock pursuant to § 324.22(d)(2)(i)(c);
</P>
<P>(iii) Deducted from regulatory capital under § 324.22; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject to a 150 percent risk weight under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) or Table 2 of paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposures to public sector entities (PSEs)</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. PSEs.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign PSEs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 3 to § 324.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(3) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE, in accordance with Table 4 to § 324.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country; or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 or 4 to § 324.32 to an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(i) The PSE's home country supervisor allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower risk weight to such exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with Table 1 to § 324.32.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 324.32—Risk Weights for non-U.S. PSE General Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk Weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 324.32—Risk Weights for non-U.S. PSE Revenue Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk Weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2-3</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4-7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to PSEs from an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to PSEs whose home country is not an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a PSE whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to a PSE exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in a PSE's home country or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the PSE's home country during the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate exposures.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all its corporate exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the FDIC-supervised institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 324.35(b)(3)(i)(A) and a 4 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the FDIC-supervised institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 324.35(b)(3)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) A FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the FDIC-supervised institution posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 324.35(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential mortgage exposures.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is secured by a property that is either owner-occupied or rented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, including standards relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not restructured or modified.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to junior-lien residential mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this paragraph (g), if an FDIC-supervised institution holds the first-lien and junior-lien(s) residential mortgage exposures, and no other party holds an intervening lien, the FDIC-supervised institution must combine the exposures and treat them as a single first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) A loan modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program is not modified or restructured for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Pre-sold construction loans.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Statutory multifamily mortgages.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a statutory multifamily mortgage.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>High-volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to an HVCRE exposure.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Past due exposures.</I> Except for an exposure to a sovereign entity or a residential mortgage exposure or a policy loan, if an exposure is 90 days or more past due or on nonaccrual:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 150 percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is unsecured;
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 324.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section; and
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a risk weight to the collateralized portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 324.37 if the collateral meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other assets.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a zero percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of the FDIC-supervised institution or in transit; to gold bullion held in the FDIC-supervised institution's own vaults or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities; and to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 20 percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 250 percent risk weight to the portion of each of the following items to the extent it is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to § 324.22(d):
</P>
<P>(i) MSAs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(5) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all assets not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 324.22.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign an asset that is not included in one of the categories provided in this section to the risk weight category applicable under the capital rules applicable to bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies under 12 CFR part 217, provided that all of the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution is not authorized to hold the asset under applicable law other than debt previously contracted or similar authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risks associated with the asset are substantially similar to the risks of assets that are otherwise assigned to a risk weight category of less than 100 percent under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20759, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 35275, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4431, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 20394, Apr. 13, 2020; 85 FR 57963, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.33" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.33   Off-balance sheet exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where an FDIC-supervised institution commits to provide a commitment, the FDIC-supervised institution may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
</P>
<P>(3) Where an FDIC-supervised institution provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the FDIC-supervised institution is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Where an FDIC-supervised institution provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit-enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit conversion factors</I>—(1) <I>Zero percent CCF.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a zero percent CCF to the unused portion of a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent CCF.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 20 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of one year or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of one year or less.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>50 percent CCF.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 50 percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments with an original maturity of more than one year that are not unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>100 percent CCF.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 100 percent CCF to the amount of the following off-balance-sheet items and other similar transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the FDIC-supervised institution has sold subject to repurchase);
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the FDIC-supervised institution has lent under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the FDIC-supervised institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Forward agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.34" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.34   Derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure amount for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution.</I> (i) A FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must use the current exposure methodology (CEM) described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts, unless the FDIC-supervised institution makes the election provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may elect to calculate the exposure amount for all its OTC derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) in § 324.132(c) by notifying the FDIC, rather than calculating the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using CEM. A FDIC-supervised institution that elects under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) to calculate the exposure amount for its OTC derivative contracts under SA-CCR must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 324.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts, rather than applying § 324.35. A FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and, if a FDIC-supervised institution has elected to use SA-CCR under this paragraph (a)(1)(ii), the FDIC-supervised institution may change its election only with prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts using SA-CCR in § 324.132(c) for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 324.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current exposure methodology exposure amount</I>—(1) <I>Single OTC derivative contract.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for a single OTC derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's current credit exposure and potential future credit exposure (PFE) on the OTC derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current credit exposure.</I> The current credit exposure for a single OTC derivative contract is the greater of the fair value of the OTC derivative contract or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PFE.</I> (A) The PFE for a single OTC derivative contract, including an OTC derivative contract with a negative fair value, is calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the OTC derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of calculating either the PFE under this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or the gross PFE under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) of this section for exchange rate contracts and other similar contracts in which the notional principal amount is equivalent to the cash flows, notional principal amount is the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.
</P>
<P>(C) For an OTC derivative contract that does not fall within one of the specified categories in Table 1 to this section, the PFE must be calculated using the appropriate “other” conversion factor.
</P>
<P>(D) A FDIC-supervised institution must use an OTC derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
</P>
<P>(E) The PFE of the protection provider of a credit derivative is capped at the net present value of the amount of unpaid premiums.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.34—Conversion Factor Matrix for Derivative Contracts <E T="0731">1</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity <E T="0731">2</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign
<br/>exchange
<br/>rate and gold
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit
<br/>(investment
<br/>grade
<br/>reference
<br/>asset) <E T="0731">3</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit
<br/>(non-investment-
<br/>grade
<br/>reference asset)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precious
<br/>metals
<br/>(except gold)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than one year and less than or equal to five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For a derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the derivative contract.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For an OTC derivative contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the fair value of the contract is zero, the remaining maturity equals the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate derivative contract with a remaining maturity of greater than one year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.005.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A FDIC-supervised institution must use the column labeled “Credit (investment-grade reference asset)” for a credit derivative whose reference asset is an outstanding unsecured long-term debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade. A FDIC-supervised institution must use the column labeled “Credit (non-investment-grade reference asset)” for all other credit derivatives.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (c) of this section, the exposure amount for multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the net current credit exposure and the adjusted sum of the PFE amounts for all OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net current credit exposure.</I> The net current credit exposure is the greater of the net sum of all positive and negative fair values of the individual OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement or zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted sum of the PFE amounts.</I> The adjusted sum of the PFE amounts, Anet, is calculated as Anet = (0.4 × Agross) + (0.6 × NGR × Agross), where:
</P>
<P>(A) Agross = the gross PFE (that is, the sum of the PFE amounts as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section for each individual derivative contract subject to the qualifying master netting agreement); and
</P>
<P>(B) Net-to-gross Ratio (NGR) = the ratio of the net current credit exposure to the gross current credit exposure. In calculating the NGR, the gross current credit exposure equals the sum of the positive current credit exposures (as determined under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) of all individual derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> (1) A FDIC-supervised institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC derivative contract or multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) by using the simple approach in § 324.37(b).
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the simple approach, a FDIC-supervised institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures such a contract or netting set if the financial collateral is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement by applying a risk weight to the uncollateralized portion of the exposure, after adjusting the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section using the collateral haircut approach in § 324.37(c). The FDIC-supervised institution must substitute the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section for ΣE in the equation in § 324.37(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk for credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection purchasers.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 324.36 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this subpart provided that the FDIC-supervised institution does so consistently for all such credit derivatives. The FDIC-supervised institution must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection providers.</I> (i) A FDIC-supervised institution that is the protection provider under a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as an exposure to the underlying reference asset. The FDIC-supervised institution is not required to compute a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this subpart, provided that this treatment is applied consistently for all such credit derivatives. The FDIC-supervised institution must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (d)(2) apply to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes unless the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the FDIC-supervised institution must compute a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterparty credit risk for equity derivatives.</I> (1) A FDIC-supervised institution must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 324.51 through 324.53 (unless the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part).
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the FDIC-supervised institution must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section if the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC-supervised institution risk weights the contract under the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 324.52, the FDIC-supervised institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of the equity derivative contract, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, a FDIC-supervised institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's exposure amount.</I> The exposure amount of a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution using CEM under paragraph (b) of this section for a client-facing derivative transaction or netting set of client-facing derivative transactions equals the exposure amount calculated according to paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section multiplied by the scaling factor the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a longer period is appropriate, the FDIC-supervised institution must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for a longer holding period as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.036.gif"/>
<P>Where H = the holding period greater than or equal to five days. Additionally, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to set a longer holding period if the FDIC determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 4431, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.35" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.35   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternate requirements.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution or a FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution and that has elected to use SA-CCR under § 324.34(a)(1) must apply § 324.133 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions rather than this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client FDIC-supervised institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the methodology used to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 324.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodologies under § 324.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the FDIC-supervised institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; or
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent if the requirements of § 324.35(b)(3)(A) are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirements in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with the requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member FDIC-supervised institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract, calculated using the methodology to calculate exposure amount for OTC derivative contracts under § 324.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for repo-style transactions calculated using methodologies under § 324.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weight.</I> (i) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a CCP where the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 324.3(a), and the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the CCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the FDIC-supervised institution or the FDIC, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to non-qualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the FDIC, based on factors such as size, structure and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCP</I>s. A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section (Method 1), multiplied by 1,250 percent or in paragraph (d)(3)(iv) of this section (Method 2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method 1.</I> The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (K<E T="52">CCP</E>) equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.015.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) EBRM<E T="52">i</E> equals the exposure amount for each transaction cleared through the QCCP by clearing member i, calculated in accordance with § 324.34 for OTC derivative contracts and § 324.37(c)(2) for repo-style transactions, provided that:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of this section, in calculating the exposure amount the FDIC-supervised institution may replace the formula provided in § 324.34(a)(2)(ii) with the following: Anet = (0.15 × Agross) + (0.85 × NGR × Agross); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) For option derivative contracts that are cleared transactions, the PFE described in § 324.34(a)(1)(ii) must be adjusted by multiplying the notional principal amount of the derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to § 324.34 and the absolute value of the option's delta, that is, the ratio of the change in the value of the derivative contract to the corresponding change in the price of the underlying asset.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions, when applying § 324.37(c)(2), the FDIC-supervised institution must use the methodology in § 324.37(c)(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) VM<E T="52">i</E> equals any collateral posted by clearing member i to the QCCP that it is entitled to receive from the QCCP, but has not yet received, and any collateral that the QCCP has actually received from clearing member i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) IM<E T="52">i</E> equals the collateral posted as initial margin by clearing member i to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) DF<E T="52">i</E> equals the funded portion of clearing member i's default fund contribution that will be applied to reduce the QCCP's loss upon a default by clearing member i;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(E) RW equals 20 percent, except when the FDIC has determined that a higher risk weight is more appropriate based on the specific characteristics of the QCCP and its clearing members; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(F) Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, an FDIC-supervised institution must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d), unless the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by funded commitments, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.016.gif"/>
<P>(A) Subscripts 1 and 2 denote the clearing members with the two largest A<E T="52">Net</E> values. For purposes of this paragraph (d), for derivatives A<E T="52">Net</E> is defined in § 324.34(a)(2)(ii) and for repo-style transactions, A<E T="52">Net</E> means the exposure amount as defined in § 324.37(c)(2) using the methodology in § 324.37(c)(3);
</P>
<P>(B) N equals the number of clearing members in the QCCP;
</P>
<P>(C) DF<E T="52">CCP</E> equals the QCCP's own funds and other financial resources that would be used to cover its losses before clearing members' default fund contributions are used to cover losses;
</P>
<P>(D) DF<E T="52">CM</E> equals funded default fund contributions from all clearing members and any other clearing member contributed financial resources that are available to absorb mutualized QCCP losses;
</P>
<P>(E) DF = DF<E T="52">CCP</E> + DF<E T="52">CM</E> (that is, the total funded default fund contribution);
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.017.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) DF<E T="52">i</E> equals the FDIC-supervised institution's unfunded commitment to the default fund;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) DF<E T="52">CM</E> equals the total of all clearing members' unfunded commitment to the default fund; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) <I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) For an FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member of a QCCP with a default fund supported by unfunded commitments and is unable to calculate K<E T="52">CM</E> using the methodology described in paragraph (d)(3)(iii) of this section, K<E T="52">CM</E> equals:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.018.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) IM<E T="52">i</E> = the FDIC-supervised institution's initial margin posted to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) IM<E T="52">CM</E> equals the total of initial margin posted to the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) <I>K*</I><E T="54">CM</E> as defined in paragraph (d)(3)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Method 2.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for its default fund contribution to a QCCP, RWA<E T="52">DF</E>, equals:
</P>
<FP>RWA<E T="52">DF</E> = Min {12.5 * DF; 0.18 * TE}
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) TE equals the FDIC-supervised institution's trade exposure amount to the QCCP, calculated according to § 324.35(c)(2);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) DF equals the funded portion of the FDIC-supervised institution's default fund contribution to the QCCP.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions is the sum of a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted assets for all of its default fund contributions to all CCPs of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a clearing member. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4433, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.36" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.36   Guarantees and credit derivatives: Substitution treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative by substituting the risk weight associated with the protection provider for the risk weight assigned to an exposure, as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the FDIC-supervised institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 324.41 through 324.45.
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is subordinated to, the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution approach</I>—(1) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, an FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure by substituting the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider under this subpart D for the risk weight assigned to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the FDIC-supervised institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the FDIC-supervised institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the FDIC-supervised institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: Pm = E × (t-0.25)/(T-0.25), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pm equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</P>
<P>(ii) E equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</P>
<P>(iii) t equals the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) T equals the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment for credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: Pr = Pm × 0.60, where:
</P>
<P>(1) Pr equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(2) Pm equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch, if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) If an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: Pc = Pr × (1-H<E T="52">FX</E>), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pc equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Pr equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> equals haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to eight percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period. An FDIC-supervised institution qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for the use of its own-estimates haircuts in § 324.37(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the FDIC-supervised institution revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every 10 business days using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.019.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.37" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.12.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.37   Collateralized transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To recognize the risk-mitigating effects of financial collateral, an FDIC-supervised institution may use:
</P>
<P>(i) The simple approach in paragraph (b) of this section for any exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral haircut approach in paragraph (c) of this section for repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution may use any approach described in this section that is valid for a particular type of exposure or transaction; however, it must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The simple approach</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures any exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every six months; and
</P>
<P>(C) The collateral (other than gold) and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk weight substitution.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral (that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) based on the risk weight assigned to the collateral under this subpart D. For repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, and securities lending and borrowing transactions, the collateral is the instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the risk weight assigned to the collateralized portion of the exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight applicable to the exposure under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to the 20 percent risk-weight floor and other requirements.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a 10 percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-market daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 324.32.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a zero percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
</P>
<P>(B) The financial collateral is an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 324.32, and the FDIC-supervised institution has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or single-product netting set of such transactions, and of any collateral that secures a repo-style transaction that is included in the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part by using the collateral haircut approach in this section. An FDIC-supervised institution may use the standard supervisory haircuts in paragraph (c)(3) of this section or, with prior written approval of the FDIC, its own estimates of haircuts according to paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure amount equation.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or a single-product netting set of such transactions by setting the exposure amount equal to max {0, [(∑E − ∑C) + ∑(Es × Hs) + ∑(Efx × Hfx)]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) For eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions and netting sets thereof, ∑E equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set)); and
</P>
<P>(B) For collateralized derivative contracts and netting sets thereof, ∑E equals the exposure amount of the OTC derivative contract (or netting set) calculated under § 324.34(b)(1) or (2).
</P>
<P>(ii) ∑C equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(iii) Es equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in the instrument or gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(iv) Hs equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in Es;
</P>
<P>(v) Efx equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Hfx equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in Efx and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the haircuts for market price volatility (Hs) provided in Table 1 to § 324.37, as adjusted in certain circumstances in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.37—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization
<br/>exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk weight
<br/>under § 324.32
<br/>(in percent) 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk weight under § 324.32
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 324.37 are based on a 10 business-day holding period.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For currency mismatches, an FDIC-supervised institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (Hfx) of 8.0 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances under paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a FDIC-supervised institution may multiply the standard supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). For client-facing derivative transactions, if a larger scaling factor is applied under § 324.34(f), the same factor must be used to adjust the supervisory haircuts.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 324.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, an FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set. An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.020.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(A) T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) H<E T="52">S</E> equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) T<E T="52">S</E> equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) If the instrument an FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the FDIC-supervised institution must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts (Hs and Hfx) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates:
</P>
<P>(i) To receive FDIC approval to use its own internal estimates, an FDIC-supervised institution must satisfy the following minimum standards:
</P>
<P>(A) An FDIC-supervised institution must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction and client-facing derivative transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan and a derivative contract other than a client-facing derivative transaction is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (c)(4)(i)(C) of this section applies. When a FDIC-supervised institution calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.021.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the FDIC-supervised institution to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E>.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 324.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(D) An FDIC-supervised institution is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(E) An FDIC-supervised institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the FDIC-supervised institution's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior approval of the FDIC for, and notify the FDIC if the FDIC-supervised institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(F) Nothing in this section prevents the FDIC from requiring an FDIC-supervised institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(G) An FDIC-supervised institution must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the FDIC-supervised institution must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(C) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(D) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(iv) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(v) An FDIC-supervised institution's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4433, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57963, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.13" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Unsettled Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.38" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.13.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.38   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive current exposure of an FDIC-supervised institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the FDIC-supervised institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 324.34).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system or central counterparty, the FDIC may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the FDIC-supervised institution's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The FDIC-supervised institution must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the FDIC-supervised institution by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 324.38.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.38—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business days after contractual settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to be applied to positive current exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the FDIC-supervised institution has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The FDIC-supervised institution must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the FDIC-supervised institution has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the FDIC-supervised institution has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the FDIC-supervised institution as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC-supervised institution has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after counterparty delivery was due, the FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.39-324.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.13.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.39-324.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="14" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.41" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.41   Operational requirements for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each condition in this section is satisfied. An FDIC-supervised institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization. An FDIC-supervised institution that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, an FDIC-supervised institution may recognize for risk-based capital purposes the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each condition in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. An FDIC-supervised institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. An FDIC-supervised institution that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 324.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 324.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the FDIC-supervised institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the FDIC-supervised institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the FDIC-supervised institution in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the FDIC-supervised institution after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 324.42(h), if an FDIC-supervised institution is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must assign the securitization exposure a risk weight of 1,250 percent. The FDIC-supervised institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the exposure in relation to its capital.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average LTV ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.42" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.42   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization risk weight approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section or in § 324.41:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of a CEIO that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with §§ 324.43(a) through 324.43(d) and subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section. Alternatively, an FDIC-supervised institution that is not subject to subpart F of this part may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the gross-up approach in accordance with § 324.43(e), provided, however, that such FDIC-supervised institution must apply either the SSFA or the gross-up approach consistently across all of its securitization exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the FDIC-supervised institution cannot, or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach to the exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 324.44.
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by an FDIC-supervised institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), an FDIC-supervised institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amount for securitization exposures that the FDIC-supervised institution risk weights under §§ 324.41(c), 324.42(a)(1), and 324.43, 324.44, or 324.45, and paragraphs (e) through (j) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure</I>—(1) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure (excluding an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security where the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 324.22(b)(2), a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction) is equal to the carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures held by an FDIC-supervised institution that has made an AOCI opt-out election.</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security held by an FDIC-supervised institution that has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 324.22(b)(2) is the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees), less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Off-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative), or an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the FDIC-supervised institution could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets).
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA does not apply by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility for which the SSFA applies by multiplying the notional amount of the exposure by a CCF of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and derivative contracts.</I> The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the exposure amount of the transaction as calculated under § 324.34 or § 324.37, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage to the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when an FDIC-supervised institution provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the FDIC-supervised institution may apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implicit support.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution provides support to a securitization in excess of the FDIC-supervised institution's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the FDIC-supervised institution of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) For an FDIC-supervised institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the FDIC-supervised institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this subpart, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with retained contractual exposure.</I> (1) Regardless of any other provision of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only its contractual exposure to the small-business obligations if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the FDIC-supervised institution's reasonably estimated liability under the contractual obligation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The small-business obligations are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 et seq.).
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution is well capitalized, as defined in subpart H of this part. For purposes of determining whether an FDIC-supervised institution is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (h), the FDIC-supervised institution's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations under this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of contractual exposure retained by an FDIC-supervised institution on transfers of small-business obligations receiving the capital treatment specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If an FDIC-supervised institution ceases to be well capitalized under subpart H of this part or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the capital treatment under paragraph (h)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with retained contractual exposure that occurred during the time that the FDIC-supervised institution was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of the FDIC-supervised institution must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section for purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining whether an FDIC-supervised institution is adequately capitalized, undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized under subpart H of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reclassifying a well-capitalized FDIC-supervised institution to adequately capitalized and requiring an adequately capitalized FDIC-supervised institution to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the FDIC-supervised institution were in the next lower prompt-corrective-action category.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nth-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a risk weight using the SSFA in § 324.43 to an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (i). An FDIC-supervised institution must determine its exposure in the nth-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an nth-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure in the nth-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution that does not use the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its nth-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 324.36(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the FDIC-supervised institution synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 324.34 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 324.36(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) An FDIC-supervised institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a nth-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 324.36(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If an FDIC-supervised institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the FDIC-supervised institution had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the nth smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 324.34 for a nth-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 324.36(b).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than nth-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) provided by an FDIC-supervised institution that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution that purchases a guarantee or OTC credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 324.45 as a credit risk mitigant (including via collateral recognized under § 324.37) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 324.31, in accordance with § 324.34(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If an FDIC-supervised institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 324.45, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 324.34.
</P>
<P>(A) If the FDIC-supervised institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(B) If the FDIC-supervised institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to section § 324.42, including § 324.42(a)(4) for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.43" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.43   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) and the gross-up approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, an FDIC-supervised institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An FDIC-supervised institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, an FDIC-supervised institution must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 324.42(i) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the FDIC-supervised institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 324.42(i) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.022.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Gross-up approach</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is not subject to subpart F of this part may apply the gross-up approach set forth in this section instead of the SSFA to determine the risk weight of its securitization exposures, provided that it applies the gross-up approach to all of its securitization exposures, except as otherwise provided for certain securitization exposures in §§ 324.44 and 324.45.
</P>
<P>(2) To use the gross-up approach, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the following four inputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Pro rata share, which is the par value of the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure as a percent of the par value of the tranche in which the securitization exposure resides;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enhanced amount, which is the par value of tranches that are more senior to the tranche in which the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization resides;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposure amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure calculated under § 324.42(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk weight, which is the weighted-average risk weight of underlying exposures of the securitization as calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit equivalent amount.</I> The credit equivalent amount of a securitization exposure under this section equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pro rata share multiplied by the enhanced amount, each calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> To calculate risk-weighted assets for a securitization exposure under the gross-up approach, an FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight required under paragraph (e)(2) of this section to the credit equivalent amount calculated in paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.44" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.44   Securitization exposures to which the SSFA and gross-up approach do not apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to all securitization exposures to which the FDIC-supervised institution does not apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach under § 324.43, except as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible ABCP liquidity facilities.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an eligible ABCP liquidity facility by multiplying the exposure amount by the highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures covered by the facility.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>A securitization exposure in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program</I>—(1) <I>Risk weighting.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount of a securitization exposure that is in a second loss position or better to an ABCP program that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section by multiplying the exposure amount by the higher of the following risk weights:
</P>
<P>(i) 100 percent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The highest risk weight applicable to any of the individual underlying exposures of the ABCP program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> (i) The exposure is not an eligible ABCP liquidity facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exposure must be economically in a second loss position or better, and the first loss position must provide significant credit protection to the second loss position;
</P>
<P>(iii) The exposure qualifies as investment grade; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution holding the exposure must not retain or provide protection to the first loss position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.45" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.45   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An originating FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 324.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 324.36 or 324.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An investing FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under §§ 324.36 or 324.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mismatches.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 324.36(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.46-324.50" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.14.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.46-324.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.15" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.51" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.15.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.51   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to an investment fund, an FDIC-supervised institution must use the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) provided in § 324.52. An FDIC-supervised institution must use the look-through approaches provided in § 324.53 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 324.2) as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 324.53.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy; or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of paragraphs (b)(1) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of §§ 324.51 through 324.53, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure (other than an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 324.22(b)(2)), the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale where the FDIC-supervised institution has made an AOCI opt-out election under § 324.22(b)(2), the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the FDIC-supervised institution's regulatory capital components;
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of one year or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over one year receive a CF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.52" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.15.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.52   Simple risk-weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, an FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the FDIC-supervised institution's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined under this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the FDIC-supervised institution's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined under § 324.53.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, an MDB, and any other entity whose credit exposures receive a zero percent risk weight under § 324.32 may be assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a PSE, Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) must be assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The equity exposures set forth in this paragraph (b)(3) must be assigned a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act, excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated financial institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 324.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If an FDIC-supervised institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the FDIC-supervised institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures qualify for a 100 percent risk weight under this paragraph (b), an FDIC-supervised institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 324.22(d)(2) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) must be assigned a 300 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section) that is not publicly traded must be assigned a 400 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm must be assigned a 600 percent risk weight, provided that the investment firm:
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the FDIC-supervised institution acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the FDIC-supervised institution will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. An FDIC-supervised institution must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E as set forth in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals 0. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.023.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then E equals zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35277, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.53" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.15.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.53   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure under § 324.52(b)(3)(i), an FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach described in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alterative modified look-through approach described paragraph (d) of this section, provided, however, that the minimum risk weight that may be assigned to an equity exposure under this section is 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 324.52(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the FDIC-supervised institution does not use the full look-through approach, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 324.52(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart as if the proportional ownership share of the adjusted carrying value of each exposure were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution) may set the risk-weighted asset amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under the simple modified look-through approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar agreement that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under the alternative modified look-through approach, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories under this subpart based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure type multiplied by the applicable risk weight under this subpart. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest applicable risk weight under this subpart and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest applicable risk weight under this subpart until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. An FDIC-supervised institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.54-324.60" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.15.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.54-324.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.16" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.61" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.16.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 324.61 through 324.63 of this subpart establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements described in subpart B of this part for an FDIC-supervised institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent year-end Call Report that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution making public disclosures pursuant to § 324.172. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has not received approval from the FDIC to exit parallel run pursuant to § 324.121(d) is subject to the disclosure requirements described in §§ 324.62 and 324.63. An FDIC-supervised institution with total consolidated assets of $50 billion or more as reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent year-end Call Report that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution making public disclosures subject to § 324.172 must comply with § 324.62 unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to the disclosure requirements of § 324.62 or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. For purposes of this section, total consolidated assets are determined based on the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets in the four most recent quarters as reported on the Call Report; or the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets in the most recent consecutive quarters as reported quarterly on the FDIC-supervised institution's Call Report if the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed such a report for each of the most recent four quarters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35278, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.62" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.16.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.62   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.61 must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 324.63. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the FDIC-supervised institution's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. The FDIC-supervised institution's management may provide all of the disclosures required by §§ 324.61 through 324.63 in one place on the FDIC-supervised institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) An FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.61 must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the FDIC-supervised institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If an FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.61 concludes that specific commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would be exempt from disclosure by the FDIC under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), then the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.63" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.16.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.63   Disclosures by FDIC-supervised institutions described in § 324.61.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 324.62, an FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.61 must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 10 of this section. The FDIC-supervised institution must make these disclosures publicly available for each of the last three years (that is, twelve quarters) or such shorter period beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<P>(b) An FDIC-supervised institution must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, tier 1 and total capital ratios, including the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Regulatory capital ratios during any transition periods, including a description of all the regulatory capital elements and all regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator and denominator of each capital ratio during any transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements as they relate to its balance sheet in any audited consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.63—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart D of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities 
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
<br/>(1) That are fully consolidated;
<br/>(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
<br/>(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
<br/>(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 324.63—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Common stock and related surplus;
<br/>(2) Retained earnings;
<br/>(3) Common equity minority interest;
<br/>(4) AOCI; and
<br/>(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
<br/>(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
<br/>(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 324.63—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) A summary discussion of the FDIC-supervised institution's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Risk-weighted assets for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to sovereign entities;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to certain supranational entities and MDBs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Exposures to PSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Corporate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Statutory multifamily mortgages and pre-sold construction loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) HVCRE exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9) Past due loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10) Other assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11) Cleared transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12) Default fund contributions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(13) Unsettled transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(14) Securitization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(15) Equity exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Standardized market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For the top consolidated group; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Total standardized risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 324.63—Capital Conservation Buffer
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer as described under § 324.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose the eligible retained income of the FDIC-supervised institution, as described under § 324.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer framework described under § 324.11, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 10, the FDIC-supervised institution must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including: strategies and processes; the structure and organization of the relevant risk management function; the scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 324.63—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 6 to § 324.63), including the:
<br/>(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
<br/>(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
<br/>(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
<br/>(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes);
<br/>(5) Description of the methodology that the FDIC-supervised institution uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
<br/>(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
<br/>(7) Discussion of the FDIC-supervised institution's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP, without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, FDIC-supervised institutions could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
<br/>(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
<br/>(2) Debt securities; and
<br/>(3) OTC derivatives.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
<br/>(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
<br/>(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
<br/>(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
<br/>(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
<br/>(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the FDIC-supervised institution's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
<br/>(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area 
<sup>5</sup>, further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity delineation (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 to § 324.63 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9 to § 324.63.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may consist of individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. An FDIC-supervised institution might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the FDIC-supervised institution's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: a description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 324.63—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk-Related Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including a discussion of:
<br/>(1) The methodology used to assign credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
<br/>(2) Policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
<br/>(3) The primary types of collateral taken; and
<br/>(4) The impact of the amount of collateral the FDIC-supervised institution would have to provide given a deterioration in the FDIC-supervised institution's own creditworthiness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution also must disclose the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection and the distribution of current credit exposure by exposure type.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the FDIC-supervised institution's own credit portfolio and in its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering both the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 324.63—Credit Risk Mitigation
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
<br/>(1) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
<br/>(2) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the FDIC-supervised institution;
<br/>(3) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
<br/>(4) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations with respect to credit risk mitigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed credit risk portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by eligible financial collateral, and after the application of haircuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives and the risk-weighted asset amount associated with that exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, an FDIC-supervised institution must provide the disclosures in Table 7 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, FDIC-supervised institutions are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives that are treated, for the purposes of this subpart, as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures and included within those relating to securitization (Table 8 to § 324.63).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 324.63—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to a securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the FDIC-supervised institution to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (<E T="03">e.g.</E> liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the FDIC-supervised institution in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the FDIC-supervised institution's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The FDIC-supervised institution's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the FDIC-supervised institution follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the FDIC-supervised institution, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The FDIC-supervised institution must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off-balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the FDIC-supervised institution manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the FDIC-supervised institution has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the FDIC-supervised institution sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Summary of the FDIC-supervised institution's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart D of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the FDIC-supervised institution to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) An explanation of significant changes to any quantitative information since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The total outstanding exposures securitized by the FDIC-supervised institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria provided in § 324.41 (categorized into traditional and synthetic securitizations), by exposure type, separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the bank acts only as sponsor.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) For exposures securitized by the FDIC-supervised institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 324.41:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired/past due categorized by exposure type; 
<sup>5</sup> and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the FDIC-supervised institution during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> SSFA); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j) Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k) Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The FDIC-supervised institution should describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description should be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the FDIC-supervised institution is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles may include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Such affiliated entities may include, for example, money market funds, to be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, to be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the FDIC-supervised institution, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the FDIC-supervised institution from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception. FDIC-supervised institutions are required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of interest-only strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the FDIC-supervised institution with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 324.63—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to equity risk for equities not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
<br/>(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those taken under other objectives including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
<br/>(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting techniques and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Value disclosed on the balance sheet of investments, as well as the fair value of those investments; for securities that are publicly traded, a comparison to publicly-quoted share values where the share price is materially different from fair value.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
<br/>(1) Publicly traded; and
<br/>(2) Non publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses).
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses).
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the FDIC-supervised institution's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding regulatory capital requirements.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized on the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either on the balance sheet or through earnings.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 324.63—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) A Category III FDIC-supervised institution that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 324.172(d) is subject to the supplementary leverage ratio disclosure requirement at § 324.173(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) A Category III FDIC-supervised institution that is required to calculate a countercyclical capital buffer pursuant to § 324.11 is subject to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to § 324.173, “Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers,” and not to the disclosure requirement at Table 4 to this section, “Capital Conservation Buffer.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 62417, Oct. 22, 2013; 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 35278, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.64-324.99" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.4.16.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.64-324.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Risk-Weighted Assets—Internal Ratings-Based and Advanced Measurement Approaches</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.100   Purpose, applicability, and principle of conservatism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart E establishes:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum qualifying criteria for FDIC-supervised institutions using institution-specific internal risk measurement and management processes for calculating risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Methodologies for such FDIC-supervised institutions to calculate their total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart applies to an FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC, as identified pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a Category II FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is a subsidiary of a depository institution that uses the advanced approaches pursuant to 12 CFR part 3, subpart E (OCC), 12 CFR part 217, subpart E (Board), or this subpart (FDIC) to calculate its risk-based capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that uses the advanced approaches pursuant to subpart E of 12 CFR part 217 to calculate its risk-based capital requirements; or
</P>
<P>(v) Elects to use this subpart to calculate its risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) A market risk FDIC-supervised institution must exclude from its calculation of risk-weighted assets under this subpart the risk-weighted asset amounts of all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part (except foreign exchange positions that are not trading positions, over-the-counter derivative positions, cleared transactions, and unsettled transactions).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principle of conservatism.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution may choose not to apply a provision of this subpart to one or more exposures provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution can demonstrate on an ongoing basis to the satisfaction of the FDIC that not applying the provision would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution appropriately manages the risk of each such exposure;
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution notifies the FDIC in writing prior to applying this principle to each such exposure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The exposures to which the FDIC-supervised institution applies this principle are not, in the aggregate, material to the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41423, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms that are set forth in § 324.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:</P>
<P><I>Advanced internal ratings-based (IRB) systems</I> means an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk rating and segmentation system; risk parameter quantification system; data management and maintenance system; and control, oversight, and validation system for credit risk of wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced systems</I> means an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution's advanced IRB systems, operational risk management processes, operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and, to the extent used by the FDIC-supervised institution, the internal models methodology, advanced CVA approach, double default excessive correlation detection process, and internal models approach (IMA) for equity exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of an FDIC-supervised institution's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmarking</I> means the comparison of an FDIC-supervised institution's internal estimates with relevant internal and external data or with estimates based on other estimation techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Bond option contract</I> means a bond option, bond future, or any other instrument linked to a bond that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Business environment and internal control factors</I> means the indicators of an FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk profile that reflect a current and forward-looking assessment of the FDIC-supervised institution's underlying business risk factors and internal control environment.
</P>
<P><I>Credit default swap</I> (CDS) means a financial contract executed under standard industry documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit valuation adjustment</I> (CVA) means the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Default</I>—For the purposes of calculating capital requirements under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail.</I> (i) A retail exposure of an FDIC-supervised institution is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure is 180 days past due, in the case of a residential mortgage exposure or revolving exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure is 120 days past due, in the case of retail exposures that are not residential mortgage exposures or revolving exposures; or
</P>
<P>(C) The FDIC-supervised institution has taken a full or partial charge-off, write-down of principal, or material negative fair value adjustment of principal on the exposure for credit-related reasons.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (1)(i) of this definition, for a retail exposure held by a non-U.S. subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution that is subject to an internal ratings-based approach to capital adequacy consistent with the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's “International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards: A Revised Framework” in a non-U.S. jurisdiction, the FDIC-supervised institution may elect to use the definition of default that is used in that jurisdiction, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution has obtained prior approval from the FDIC to use the definition of default in that jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A retail exposure in default remains in default until the FDIC-supervised institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution's wholesale obligor is in default if:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution determines that the obligor is unlikely to pay its credit obligations to the FDIC-supervised institution in full, without recourse by the FDIC-supervised institution to actions such as realizing collateral (if held); or
</P>
<P>(B) The obligor is past due more than 90 days on any material credit obligation(s) to the FDIC-supervised institution.
<SU>29</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>29</SU> Overdrafts are past due once the obligor has breached an advised limit or been advised of a limit smaller than the current outstanding balance.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) An obligor in default remains in default until the FDIC-supervised institution has reasonable assurance of repayment and performance for all contractual principal and interest payments on all exposures of the FDIC-supervised institution to the obligor (other than exposures that have been fully written-down or charged-off).
</P>
<P><I>Dependence</I> means a measure of the association among operational losses across and within units of measure.
</P>
<P><I>Economic downturn conditions</I> means, with respect to an exposure held by the FDIC-supervised institution, those conditions in which the aggregate default rates for that exposure's wholesale or retail exposure subcategory (or subdivision of such subcategory selected by the FDIC-supervised institution) in the exposure's national jurisdiction (or subdivision of such jurisdiction selected by the FDIC-supervised institution) are significantly higher than average.
</P>
<P><I>Effective maturity (M)</I> of a wholesale exposure means:
</P>
<P>(1) For wholesale exposures other than repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts described in paragraph (2) or (3) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) The weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the expected contractual cash flows from the exposure, using the undiscounted amounts of the cash flows as weights; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The nominal remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement for which the FDIC-supervised institution does not apply the internal models approach in § 324.132(d), the weighted-average remaining maturity (measured in years, whole or fractional) of the individual transactions subject to the qualifying master netting agreement, with the weight of each individual transaction set equal to the notional amount of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) For repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts for which the FDIC-supervised institution applies the internal models approach in § 324.132(d), the value determined in § 324.132(d)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible double default guarantor,</I> with respect to a guarantee or credit derivative obtained by an FDIC-supervised institution, means:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S.-based entities.</I> A depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, or a securities broker or dealer registered with the SEC under the Securities Exchange Act, if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-U.S.-based entities.</I> A foreign bank, or a non-U.S.-based securities firm if the FDIC-supervised institution demonstrates that the guarantor is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation comparable to that imposed on U.S. depository institutions (or securities broker-dealers), if at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible operational risk offsets</I> means amounts, not to exceed expected operational loss, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are generated by internal business practices to absorb highly predictable and reasonably stable operational losses, including reserves calculated consistent with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are available to cover expected operational losses with a high degree of certainty over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposure</I> means a purchased wholesale exposure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution or securitization SPE purchased from an unaffiliated seller and did not directly or indirectly originate;
</P>
<P>(2) Was generated on an arm's-length basis between the seller and the obligor (intercompany accounts receivable and receivables subject to contra-accounts between firms that buy and sell to each other do not satisfy this criterion);
</P>
<P>(3) Provides the FDIC-supervised institution or securitization SPE with a claim on all proceeds from the exposure or a pro rata interest in the proceeds from the exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Has an M of less than one year; and
</P>
<P>(5) When consolidated by obligor, does not represent a concentrated exposure relative to the portfolio of purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected exposure (EE)</I> means the expected value of the probability distribution of non-negative credit risk exposures to a counterparty at any specified future date before the maturity date of the longest term transaction in the netting set. Any negative fair values in the probability distribution of fair values to a counterparty at a specified future date are set to zero to convert the probability distribution of fair values to the probability distribution of credit risk exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Expected operational loss (EOL)</I> means the expected value of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk quantification system using a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Expected positive exposure (EPE)</I> means the weighted average over time of expected (non-negative) exposures to a counterparty where the weights are the proportion of the time interval that an individual expected exposure represents. When calculating risk-based capital requirements, the average is taken over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure at default (EAD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the FDIC-supervised institution determines EAD under § 324.132, a cleared transaction, or default fund contribution), EAD means the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure or segment less any allocated transfer risk reserve for the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan for which the FDIC-supervised institution determines EAD under § 324.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the FDIC-supervised institution's best estimate of net additions to the outstanding amount owed the FDIC-supervised institution, including estimated future additional draws of principal and accrued but unpaid interest and fees, that are likely to occur over a one-year horizon assuming the wholesale exposure or the retail exposures in the segment were to go into default. This estimate of net additions must reflect what would be expected during economic downturn conditions. For the purposes of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) Trade-related letters of credit are short-term, self-liquidating instruments that are used to finance the movement of goods and are collateralized by the underlying goods.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingencies relate to a particular transaction and include, among other things, performance bonds and performance-based letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of a wholesale exposure or segment of retail exposures (other than an OTC derivative contract, a repo-style transaction, or eligible margin loan for which the FDIC-supervised institution determines EAD under § 324.132, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution) in the form of anything other than a loan commitment, line of credit, trade-related letter of credit, or transaction-related contingency, EAD means the notional amount of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(4) EAD for OTC derivative contracts is calculated as described in § 324.132. An FDIC-supervised institution also may determine EAD for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans as described in § 324.132.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure category</I> means any of the wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure categories.
</P>
<P><I>External operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to an FDIC-supervised institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at organizations other than the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>IMM exposure</I> means a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative for which an FDIC-supervised institution calculates its EAD using the internal models methodology of § 324.132(d).
</P>
<P><I>Internal operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to an FDIC-supervised institution, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Loss given default (LGD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the FDIC-supervised institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the FDIC-supervised institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the FDIC-supervised institution would expect to incur if the obligor (or a typical obligor in the loss severity grade assigned by the FDIC-supervised institution to the exposure) were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of retail exposures, the greatest of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run default-weighted average economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the FDIC-supervised institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon over a mix of economic conditions, including economic downturn conditions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the economic loss, per dollar of EAD, the FDIC-supervised institution would expect to incur if the exposures in the segment were to default within a one-year horizon during economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The economic loss on an exposure in the event of default is all material credit-related losses on the exposure (including accrued but unpaid interest or fees, losses on the sale of collateral, direct workout costs, and an appropriate allocation of indirect workout costs). Where positive or negative cash flows on a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or a defaulted retail exposure (including proceeds from the sale of collateral, workout costs, additional extensions of credit to facilitate repayment of the exposure, and draw-downs of unused credit lines) occur after the date of default, the economic loss must reflect the net present value of cash flows as of the default date using a discount rate appropriate to the risk of the defaulted exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Obligor</I> means the legal entity or natural person contractually obligated on a wholesale exposure, except that an FDIC-supervised institution may treat the following exposures as having separate obligors:
</P>
<P>(1) Exposures to the same legal entity or natural person denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An income-producing real estate exposure for which all or substantially all of the repayment of the exposure is reliant on the cash flows of the real estate serving as collateral for the exposure; the FDIC-supervised institution, in economic substance, does not have recourse to the borrower beyond the real estate collateral; and no cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place other than clauses obtained solely out of an abundance of caution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A wholesale exposure authorized under section 364 of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 364) to a legal entity or natural person who is a debtor-in-possession for purposes of Chapter 11 of the Bankruptcy Code; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other credit exposures to the same legal entity or natural person.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss</I> means a loss (excluding insurance or tax effects) resulting from an operational loss event. Operational loss includes all expenses associated with an operational loss event except for opportunity costs, forgone revenue, and costs related to risk management and control enhancements implemented to prevent future operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss event</I> means an event that results in loss and is associated with any of the following seven operational loss event type categories:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act involving at least one internal party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent regulations, the law, or company policy excluding diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(2) External fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act by a third party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent the law. Retail credit card losses arising from non-contractual, third-party-initiated fraud (for example, identity theft) are external fraud operational losses. All other third-party-initiated credit losses are to be treated as credit risk losses.
</P>
<P>(3) Employment practices and workplace safety, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act inconsistent with employment, health, or safety laws or agreements, payment of personal injury claims, or payment arising from diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(4) Clients, products, and business practices, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the nature or design of a product or from an unintentional or negligent failure to meet a professional obligation to specific clients (including fiduciary and suitability requirements).
</P>
<P>(5) Damage to physical assets, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the loss of or damage to physical assets from natural disaster or other events.
</P>
<P>(6) Business disruption and system failures, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from disruption of business or system failures.
</P>
<P>(7) Execution, delivery, and process management, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from failed transaction processing or process management or losses arising from relations with trade counterparties and vendors.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk exposure</I> means the 99.9th percentile of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk quantification system over a one-year horizon (and not incorporating eligible operational risk offsets or qualifying operational risk mitigants).
</P>
<P><I>Other retail exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure, an equity exposure, a residential mortgage exposure, a pre-sold construction loan, a qualifying revolving exposure, or the residual value portion of a lease exposure) that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and is either:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to an individual for non-business purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to an individual or company for business purposes if the FDIC-supervised institution's consolidated business credit exposure to the individual or company is $1 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Probability of default (PD)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For a wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor, the FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the rating grade assigned by the FDIC-supervised institution to the obligor, capturing the average default experience for obligors in the rating grade over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the rating grade.
</P>
<P>(2) For a segment of non-defaulted retail exposures, the FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the long-run average one-year default rate for the exposures in the segment, capturing the average default experience for exposures in the segment over a mix of economic conditions (including economic downturn conditions) sufficient to provide a reasonable estimate of the average one-year default rate over the economic cycle for the segment.
</P>
<P>(3) For a wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor or segment of defaulted retail exposures, 100 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement</I> means a qualifying master netting agreement that provides for termination and close-out netting across multiple types of financial transactions or qualifying master netting agreements in the event of a counterparty's default, provided that the underlying financial transactions are OTC derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions. In order to treat an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the requirements of § 324.3(c) of this part with respect to that agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying revolving exposure (QRE)</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) to an individual that is managed as part of a segment of exposures with homogeneous risk characteristics, not on an individual-exposure basis, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is revolving (that is, the amount outstanding fluctuates, determined largely by a borrower's decision to borrow and repay up to a pre-established maximum amount, except for an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month);
</P>
<P>(2) Is unsecured and unconditionally cancelable by the FDIC-supervised institution to the fullest extent permitted by Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Has a maximum contractual exposure amount (drawn plus undrawn) of up to $100,000; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a product with an outstanding amount that the borrower is required to pay in full every month, the total outstanding amount does not in practice exceed $100,000.
</P>
<P>(4) A segment of exposures that contains one or more exposures that fails to meet paragraph (3)(ii) of this definition must be treated as a segment of other retail exposures for the 24 month period following the month in which the total outstanding amount of one or more exposures individually exceeds $100,000.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure, a qualifying revolving exposure, or an other retail exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Retail exposure subcategory</I> means the residential mortgage exposure, qualifying revolving exposure, or other retail exposure subcategory.
</P>
<P><I>Risk parameter</I> means a variable used in determining risk-based capital requirements for wholesale and retail exposures, specifically probability of default (PD), loss given default (LGD), exposure at default (EAD), or effective maturity (M).
</P>
<P><I>Scenario analysis</I> means a systematic process of obtaining expert opinions from business managers and risk management experts to derive reasoned assessments of the likelihood and loss impact of plausible high-severity operational losses. Scenario analysis may include the well-reasoned evaluation and use of external operational loss event data, adjusted as appropriate to ensure relevance to an FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk profile and control structure.
</P>
<P><I>Total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets</I> means the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures that are not IMM exposures, cleared transactions, or default fund contributions to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Risk-weighted assets for assets not defined by an exposure category;
</P>
<P>(4) Risk-weighted assets for non-material portfolios of exposures;
</P>
<P>(5) Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures (as determined in § 324.132(d));
</P>
<P>(6) Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and risk-weighted assets for default fund contributions (as determined in § 324.133); and
</P>
<P>(7) Risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions (as determined in § 324.136).
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected operational loss (UOL)</I> means the difference between the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure and the FDIC-supervised institution's expected operational loss.
</P>
<P><I>Unit of measure</I> means the level (for example, organizational unit or operational loss event type) at which the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk quantification system generates a separate distribution of potential operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure</I> means a credit exposure to a company, natural person, sovereign, or governmental entity (other than a securitization exposure, retail exposure, pre-sold construction loan, or equity exposure).
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale exposure subcategory</I> means the HVCRE or non-HVCRE wholesale exposure subcategory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.102-324.120" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.102-324.120   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="17" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Qualification</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.121" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.121   Qualification process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution that is described in § 324.100(b)(1)(i) through (iv) must adopt a written implementation plan no later than six months after the date the FDIC-supervised institution meets a criterion in that section. The implementation plan must incorporate an explicit start date no later than 36 months after the date the FDIC-supervised institution meets at least one criterion under § 324.100(b)(1)(i) through (iv). The FDIC may extend the start date.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that elects to be subject to this subpart under § 324.100(b)(1)(v) must adopt a written implementation plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Implementation plan.</I> (1) The FDIC-supervised institution's implementation plan must address in detail how the FDIC-supervised institution complies, or plans to comply, with the qualification requirements in § 324.122. The FDIC-supervised institution also must maintain a comprehensive and sound planning and governance process to oversee the implementation efforts described in the plan. At a minimum, the plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Comprehensively address the qualification requirements in § 324.122 for the FDIC-supervised institution and each consolidated subsidiary (U.S. and foreign-based) of the FDIC-supervised institution with respect to all portfolios and exposures of the FDIC-supervised institution and each of its consolidated subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) Justify and support any proposed temporary or permanent exclusion of business lines, portfolios, or exposures from the application of the advanced approaches in this subpart (which business lines, portfolios, and exposures must be, in the aggregate, immaterial to the FDIC-supervised institution);
</P>
<P>(iii) Include the FDIC-supervised institution's self-assessment of:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's current status in meeting the qualification requirements in § 324.122; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consistency of the FDIC-supervised institution's current practices with the FDIC's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Based on the FDIC-supervised institution's self-assessment, identify and describe the areas in which the FDIC-supervised institution proposes to undertake additional work to comply with the qualification requirements in § 324.122 or to improve the consistency of the FDIC-supervised institution's current practices with the FDIC's supervisory guidance on the qualification requirements (gap analysis);
</P>
<P>(v) Describe what specific actions the FDIC-supervised institution will take to address the areas identified in the gap analysis required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify objective, measurable milestones, including delivery dates and a date when the FDIC-supervised institution's implementation of the methodologies described in this subpart will be fully operational;
</P>
<P>(vii) Describe resources that have been budgeted and are available to implement the plan; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Receive approval of the FDIC-supervised institution's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must submit the implementation plan, together with a copy of the minutes of the board of directors' approval, to the FDIC at least 60 days before the FDIC-supervised institution proposes to begin its parallel run, unless the FDIC waives prior notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parallel run.</I> Before determining its risk-weighted assets under this subpart and following adoption of the implementation plan, the FDIC-supervised institution must conduct a satisfactory parallel run. A satisfactory parallel run is a period of no less than four consecutive calendar quarters during which the FDIC-supervised institution complies with the qualification requirements in § 324.122 to the satisfaction of the FDIC. During the parallel run, the FDIC-supervised institution must report to the FDIC on a calendar quarterly basis its risk-based capital ratios determined in accordance with § 324.10(b)(1) through (3) and § 324.10(d)(1) through (3). During this period, the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum risk-based capital ratios are determined as set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval to calculate risk-based capital requirements under this subpart.</I> The FDIC will notify the FDIC-supervised institution of the date that the FDIC-supervised institution must begin to use this subpart for purposes of § 324.10 if the FDIC determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution fully complies with all the qualification requirements in § 324.122;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution has conducted a satisfactory parallel run under paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution has an adequate process to ensure ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in § 324.122.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 745, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.122" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.122   Qualification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process and systems requirements.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The systems and processes used by an FDIC-supervised institution for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart must be consistent with the FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk management processes and management information reporting systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Each FDIC-supervised institution must have an appropriate infrastructure with risk measurement and management processes that meet the qualification requirements of this section and are appropriate given the FDIC-supervised institution's size and level of complexity. Regardless of whether the systems and models that generate the risk parameters necessary for calculating an FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirements are located at any affiliate of the FDIC-supervised institution, the FDIC-supervised institution itself must ensure that the risk parameters and reference data used to determine its risk-based capital requirements are representative of long run experience with respect to its own credit risk and operational risk exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk rating and segmentation systems for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1)(i) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal risk rating and segmentation system that accurately, reliably, and meaningfully differentiates among degrees of credit risk for the FDIC-supervised institution's wholesale and retail exposures. When assigning an internal risk rating, an FDIC-supervised institution may consider a third-party assessment of credit risk, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk rating assignment does not rely solely on the external assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an FDIC-supervised institution uses multiple rating or segmentation systems, the FDIC-supervised institution's rationale for assigning an obligor or exposure to a particular system must be documented and applied in a manner that best reflects the obligor or exposure's level of risk. An FDIC-supervised institution must not inappropriately allocate obligors or exposures across systems to minimize regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(iii) In assigning ratings to wholesale obligors and exposures, including loss severity ratings grades to wholesale exposures, and assigning retail exposures to retail segments, an FDIC-supervised institution must use all relevant and material information and ensure that the information is current.
</P>
<P>(iv) When assigning an obligor to a PD rating or retail exposure to a PD segment, an FDIC-supervised institution must assess the obligor or retail borrower's ability and willingness to contractually perform, taking a conservative view of projected information.
</P>
<P>(2) For wholesale exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each obligor to a single rating grade (reflecting the obligor's likelihood of default). An FDIC-supervised institution may elect, however, not to assign to a rating grade an obligor to whom the FDIC-supervised institution extends credit based solely on the financial strength of a guarantor, provided that all of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposures to the obligor are fully covered by eligible guarantees, the FDIC-supervised institution applies the PD substitution approach in § 324.134(c)(1) to all exposures to that obligor, and the FDIC-supervised institution immediately assigns the obligor to a rating grade if a guarantee can no longer be recognized under this part. The FDIC-supervised institution's wholesale obligor rating system must have at least seven discrete rating grades for non-defaulted obligors and at least one rating grade for defaulted obligors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the FDIC-supervised institution has chosen to directly assign LGD estimates to each wholesale exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal risk rating system that accurately and reliably assigns each wholesale exposure to a loss severity rating grade (reflecting the FDIC-supervised institution's estimate of the LGD of the exposure). An FDIC-supervised institution employing loss severity rating grades must have a sufficiently granular loss severity grading system to avoid grouping together exposures with widely ranging LGDs.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an effective process to obtain and update in a timely manner relevant and material information on obligor and exposure characteristics that affect PD, LGD and EAD.
</P>
<P>(3) For retail exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal system that groups retail exposures into the appropriate retail exposure subcategory and groups the retail exposures in each retail exposure subcategory into separate segments with homogeneous risk characteristics that provide a meaningful differentiation of risk. The FDIC-supervised institution's system must identify and group in separate segments by subcategories exposures identified in § 324.131(c)(2)(ii) and (iii).
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal system that captures all relevant exposure risk characteristics, including borrower credit score, product and collateral types, as well as exposure delinquencies, and must consider cross-collateral provisions, where present.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must review and, if appropriate, update assignments of individual retail exposures to segments and the loss characteristics and delinquency status of each identified risk segment. These reviews must occur whenever the FDIC-supervised institution receives new material information, but generally no less frequently than quarterly, and, in all cases, at least annually.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk rating policy for wholesale exposures must describe the FDIC-supervised institution's rating philosophy (that is, must describe how wholesale obligor rating assignments are affected by the FDIC-supervised institution's choice of the range of economic, business, and industry conditions that are considered in the obligor rating process).
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk rating system for wholesale exposures must provide for the review and update (as appropriate) of each obligor rating and (if applicable) each loss severity rating whenever the FDIC-supervised institution obtains relevant and material information on the obligor or exposure that affects PD, LGD and EAD, but no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantification of risk parameters for wholesale and retail exposures.</I> (1) The FDIC-supervised institution must have a comprehensive risk parameter quantification process that produces accurate, timely, and reliable estimates of the risk parameters on a consistent basis for the FDIC-supervised institution's wholesale and retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution's estimates of PD, LGD, and EAD must incorporate all relevant, material, and available data that is reflective of the FDIC-supervised institution's actual wholesale and retail exposures and of sufficient quality to support the determination of risk-based capital requirements for the exposures. In particular, the population of exposures in the data used for estimation purposes, the lending standards in use when the data were generated, and other relevant characteristics, should closely match or be comparable to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposures and standards. In addition, an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that its estimates are representative of long run experience, including periods of economic downturn conditions, whether internal or external data are used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into account any changes in lending practice or the process for pursuing recoveries over the observation period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reflect technical advances, new data, and other information as they become available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that the data used to estimate risk parameters support the accuracy and robustness of those estimates; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate that its estimation technique performs well in out-of-sample tests whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution's risk parameter quantification process must produce appropriately conservative risk parameter estimates where the FDIC-supervised institution has limited relevant data, and any adjustments that are part of the quantification process must not result in a pattern of bias toward lower risk parameter estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution's risk parameter estimation process should not rely on the possibility of U.S. government financial assistance, except for the financial assistance that the U.S. government has a legally binding commitment to provide.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to demonstrate which variables have been found to be statistically significant with regard to EAD. The FDIC-supervised institution's EAD estimates must reflect its specific policies and strategies with regard to account management, including account monitoring and payment processing, and its ability and willingness to prevent further drawdowns in circumstances short of payment default. The FDIC-supervised institution must have adequate systems and procedures in place to monitor current outstanding amounts against committed lines, and changes in outstanding amounts per obligor and obligor rating grade and per retail segment. The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to monitor outstanding amounts on a daily basis.
</P>
<P>(6) At a minimum, PD estimates for wholesale obligors and retail segments must be based on at least five years of default data. LGD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of loss severity data, and LGD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of loss severity data. EAD estimates for wholesale exposures must be based on at least seven years of exposure amount data, and EAD estimates for retail segments must be based on at least five years of exposure amount data. If the FDIC-supervised institution has relevant and material reference data that span a longer period of time than the minimum time periods specified above, the FDIC-supervised institution must incorporate such data in its estimates, provided that it does not place undue weight on periods of favorable or benign economic conditions relative to periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(7) Default, loss severity, and exposure amount data must include periods of economic downturn conditions, or the FDIC-supervised institution must adjust its estimates of risk parameters to compensate for the lack of data from periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(8) The FDIC-supervised institution's PD, LGD, and EAD estimates must be based on the definition of default in § 324.101.
</P>
<P>(9) If an FDIC-supervised institution uses internal data obtained prior to becoming subject to this subpart E or external data to arrive at PD, LGD, or EAD estimates, the FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate to the FDIC that the FDIC-supervised institution has made appropriate adjustments if necessary to be consistent with the definition of default in § 324.101. Internal data obtained after the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this subpart E must be consistent with the definition of default in § 324.101.
</P>
<P>(10) The FDIC-supervised institution must review and update (as appropriate) its risk parameters and its risk parameter quantification process at least annually.
</P>
<P>(11) The FDIC-supervised institution must, at least annually, conduct a comprehensive review and analysis of reference data to determine relevance of the reference data to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposures, quality of reference data to support PD, LGD, and EAD estimates, and consistency of reference data to the definition of default in § 324.101.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk model.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior written approval of the FDIC under § 324.132 to use the internal models methodology for counterparty credit risk and the advanced CVA approach for the CVA capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Double default treatment.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior written approval of the FDIC under § 324.135 to use the double default treatment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equity exposures model.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior written approval of the FDIC under § 324.153 to use the internal models approach for equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Operational risk.</I> (1) Operational risk management processes. An FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have an operational risk management function that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is independent of business line management; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is responsible for designing, implementing, and overseeing the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and related processes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have and document a process (which must capture business environment and internal control factors affecting the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk profile) to identify, measure, monitor, and control operational risk in the FDIC-supervised institution's products, activities, processes, and systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report operational risk exposures, operational loss events, and other relevant operational risk information to business unit management, senior management, and the board of directors (or a designated committee of the board).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operational risk data and assessment systems.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must have operational risk data and assessment systems that capture operational risks to which the FDIC-supervised institution is exposed. The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk data and assessment systems must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be structured in a manner consistent with the FDIC-supervised institution's current business activities, risk profile, technological processes, and risk management processes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Include credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable processes that incorporate the following elements on an ongoing basis:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Internal operational loss event data.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a systematic process for capturing and using internal operational loss event data in its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk data and assessment systems must include a historical observation period of at least five years for internal operational loss event data (or such shorter period approved by the FDIC to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to map its internal operational loss event data into the seven operational loss event type categories.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution may refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts if the FDIC-supervised institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that the thresholds are reasonable, do not exclude important internal operational loss event data, and permit the FDIC-supervised institution to capture substantially all the dollar value of the FDIC-supervised institution's operational losses.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>External operational loss event data.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating external operational loss event data into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Scenario analysis.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating scenario analysis into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Business environment and internal control factors.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must incorporate business environment and internal control factors into its operational risk data and assessment systems. The FDIC-supervised institution must also periodically compare the results of its prior business environment and internal control factor assessments against its actual operational losses incurred in the intervening period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operational risk quantification systems.</I> (i) The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk quantification systems:
</P>
<P>(A) Must generate estimates of the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure using its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(B) Must employ a unit of measure that is appropriate for the FDIC-supervised institution's range of business activities and the variety of operational loss events to which it is exposed, and that does not combine business activities or operational loss events with demonstrably different risk profiles within the same loss distribution;
</P>
<P>(C) Must include a credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable approach for weighting each of the four elements, described in paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, that an FDIC-supervised institution is required to incorporate into its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(D) May use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure if the FDIC-supervised institution can demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that its process for estimating dependence is sound, robust to a variety of scenarios, and implemented with integrity, and allows for uncertainty surrounding the estimates. If the FDIC-supervised institution has not made such a demonstration, it must sum operational risk exposure estimates across units of measure to calculate its total operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(E) Must be reviewed and updated (as appropriate) whenever the FDIC-supervised institution becomes aware of information that may have a material effect on the FDIC-supervised institution's estimate of operational risk exposure, but the review and update must occur no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(ii) With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may generate an estimate of its operational risk exposure using an alternative approach to that specified in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section. An FDIC-supervised institution proposing to use such an alternative operational risk quantification system must submit a proposal to the FDIC. In determining whether to approve an FDIC-supervised institution's proposal to use an alternative operational risk quantification system, the FDIC will consider the following principles:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of the alternative operational risk quantification system will be allowed only on an exception basis, considering the size, complexity, and risk profile of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate that its estimate of its operational risk exposure generated under the alternative operational risk quantification system is appropriate and can be supported empirically; and
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must not use an allocation of operational risk capital requirements that includes entities other than depository institutions or the benefits of diversification across entities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Data management and maintenance.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must have data management and maintenance systems that adequately support all aspects of its advanced systems and the timely and accurate reporting of risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must retain data using an electronic format that allows timely retrieval of data for analysis, validation, reporting, and disclosure purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must retain sufficient data elements related to key risk drivers to permit adequate monitoring, validation, and refinement of its advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The FDIC-supervised institution's senior management must ensure that all components of the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced systems function effectively and comply with the qualification requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually review the effectiveness of, and approve, the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must have an effective system of controls and oversight that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures ongoing compliance with the qualification requirements in this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the integrity, reliability, and accuracy of the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes adequate governance and project management processes.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must validate, on an ongoing basis, its advanced systems. The FDIC-supervised institution's validation process must be independent of the advanced systems' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the advanced systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal audit function or equivalent function that is independent of business-line management that at least annually:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviews the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced systems and associated operations, including the operations of its credit function and estimations of PD, LGD, and EAD;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents and reports its findings to the FDIC-supervised institution's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(6) The FDIC-supervised institution must periodically stress test its advanced systems. The stress testing must include a consideration of how economic cycles, especially downturns, affect risk-based capital requirements (including migration across rating grades and segments and the credit risk mitigation benefits of double default treatment).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Documentation.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must adequately document all material aspects of its advanced systems.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41423, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.123" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.123   Ongoing qualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes to advanced systems.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must meet all the qualification requirements in § 324.122 on an ongoing basis. An FDIC-supervised institution must notify the FDIC when the FDIC-supervised institution makes any change to an advanced system that would result in a material change in the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced approaches total risk-weighted asset amount for an exposure type or when the FDIC-supervised institution makes any significant change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with qualification requirements.</I> (1) If the FDIC determines that an FDIC-supervised institution that uses this subpart and that has conducted a satisfactory parallel run fails to comply with the qualification requirements in § 324.122, the FDIC will notify the FDIC-supervised institution in writing of the FDIC-supervised institution's failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must establish and submit a plan satisfactory to the FDIC to return to compliance with the qualification requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the FDIC-supervised institution's credit, market, operational, or other risks, the FDIC may require such an FDIC-supervised institution to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with any modifications provided by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.124" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.124   Merger and acquisition transitional arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies without advanced systems.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution merges with or acquires a company that does not calculate its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the FDIC-supervised institution may use subpart D of this part to determine the risk-weighted asset amounts for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the merger or acquisition consummates. The FDIC may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the FDIC-supervised institution must submit to the FDIC an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the acquired company. During the period in which subpart D of this part applies to the merged or acquired company, any ALLL or AACL, as applicable, net of allocated transfer risk reserves established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3904, associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the acquiring FDIC-supervised institution's tier 2 capital up to 1.25 percent of the acquired company's risk-weighted assets. All general allowances of the merged or acquired company must be excluded from the FDIC-supervised institution's eligible credit reserves. In addition, the risk-weighted assets of the merged or acquired company are not included in the FDIC-supervised institution's credit-risk-weighted assets but are included in total risk-weighted assets. If an FDIC-supervised institution relies on this paragraph (a), the FDIC-supervised institution must disclose publicly the amounts of risk-weighted assets and qualifying capital calculated under this subpart for the acquiring FDIC-supervised institution and under subpart D of this part for the acquired company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mergers and acquisitions of companies with advanced systems.</I> (1) If an FDIC-supervised institution merges with or acquires a company that calculates its risk-based capital requirements using advanced systems, the FDIC-supervised institution may use the acquired company's advanced systems to determine total risk-weighted assets for the merged or acquired company's exposures for up to 24 months after the calendar quarter during which the acquisition or merger consummates. The FDIC may extend this transition period for up to an additional 12 months. Within 90 days of consummating the merger or acquisition, the FDIC-supervised institution must submit to the FDIC an implementation plan for using its advanced systems for the merged or acquired company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquiring FDIC-supervised institution is not subject to the advanced approaches in this subpart at the time of acquisition or merger, during the period when subpart D of this part applies to the acquiring FDIC-supervised institution, the ALLL or AACL, as applicable associated with the exposures of the merged or acquired company may not be directly included in tier 2 capital. Rather, any excess eligible credit reserves associated with the merged or acquired company's exposures may be included in the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 2 capital up to 0.6 percent of the credit-risk-weighted assets associated with those exposures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20760, Apr. 14, 2014; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.125-324.130" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.17.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.125-324.130   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="18" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.131" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.131   Mechanics for calculating total wholesale and retail risk-weighted assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Overview.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its total wholesale and retail risk-weighted asset amount in four distinct phases:
</P>
<P>(1) Phase 1—categorization of exposures;
</P>
<P>(2) Phase 2—assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and segmentation of retail exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Phase 3—assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) Phase 4—calculation of risk-weighted asset amounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Phase 1—Categorization.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must determine which of its exposures are wholesale exposures, retail exposures, securitization exposures, or equity exposures. The FDIC-supervised institution must categorize each retail exposure as a residential mortgage exposure, a QRE, or an other retail exposure. The FDIC-supervised institution must identify which wholesale exposures are HVCRE exposures, sovereign exposures, OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, eligible purchased wholesale exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions to which § 324.136 applies, and eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives that are used as credit risk mitigants. The FDIC-supervised institution must identify any on-balance sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, equity, or securitization exposure, as well as any non-material portfolio of exposures described in paragraph (e)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Phase 2—Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades and retail exposures to segments</I>—(1) <I>Assignment of wholesale obligors and exposures to rating grades.</I> (i) The FDIC-supervised institution must assign each obligor of a wholesale exposure to a single obligor rating grade and must assign each wholesale exposure to which it does not directly assign an LGD estimate to a loss severity rating grade.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must identify which of its wholesale obligors are in default.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Segmentation of retail exposures.</I> (i) The FDIC-supervised institution must group the retail exposures in each retail subcategory into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must identify which of its retail exposures are in default. The FDIC-supervised institution must segment defaulted retail exposures separately from non-defaulted retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the FDIC-supervised institution determines the EAD for eligible margin loans using the approach in § 324.132(b), the FDIC-supervised institution must identify which of its retail exposures are eligible margin loans for which the FDIC-supervised institution uses this EAD approach and must segment such eligible margin loans separately from other retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may group its eligible purchased wholesale exposures into segments that have homogeneous risk characteristics. An FDIC-supervised institution must use the wholesale exposure formula in Table 1 of this section to determine the risk-based capital requirement for each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Phase 3—Assignment of risk parameters to wholesale exposures and segments of retail exposures</I>—(1) <I>Quantification process.</I> Subject to the limitations in this paragraph (d), the FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Associate a PD with each wholesale obligor rating grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Associate an LGD with each wholesale loss severity rating grade or assign an LGD to each wholesale exposure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assign an EAD and M to each wholesale exposure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assign a PD, LGD, and EAD to each segment of retail exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Floor on PD assignment.</I> The PD for each wholesale obligor or retail segment may not be less than 0.03 percent, except for exposures to or directly and unconditionally guaranteed by a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Commission, the European Central Bank, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or a multilateral development bank, to which the FDIC-supervised institution assigns a rating grade associated with a PD of less than 0.03 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Floor on LGD estimation.</I> The LGD for each segment of residential mortgage exposures may not be less than 10 percent, except for segments of residential mortgage exposures for which all or substantially all of the principal of each exposure is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Guaranteed by a contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligible purchased wholesale exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a PD, LGD, EAD, and M to each segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures. If the FDIC-supervised institution can estimate ECL (but not PD or LGD) for a segment of eligible purchased wholesale exposures, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the LGD of the segment equals 100 percent and that the PD of the segment equals ECL divided by EAD. The estimated ECL must be calculated for the exposures without regard to any assumption of recourse or guarantees from the seller or other parties.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Credit risk mitigation: credit derivatives, guarantees, and collateral.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives in support of a wholesale exposure by applying the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment to the exposure as provided in § 324.134 or, if applicable, applying double default treatment to the exposure as provided in § 324.135. An FDIC-supervised institution may decide separately for each wholesale exposure that qualifies for the double default treatment under § 324.135 whether to apply the double default treatment or to use the PD substitution or LGD adjustment treatment without recognizing double default effects.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of guarantees and credit derivatives in support of retail exposures in a segment when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In doing so, an FDIC-supervised institution must consider all relevant available information.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of a wholesale exposure when quantifying the LGD of the exposure, and may take into account the risk reducing effects of collateral in support of retail exposures when quantifying the PD and LGD of the segment. In order to do so, an FDIC-supervised institution must have established internal requirements for collateral management, legal certainty, and risk management processes.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>EAD for OTC derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its EAD for an OTC derivative contract as provided in § 324.132 (c) and (d). An FDIC-supervised institution may take into account the risk-reducing effects of financial collateral in support of a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan and of any collateral in support of a repo-style transaction that is included in the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part through an adjustment to EAD as provided in § 324.132(b) and (d). An FDIC-supervised institution that takes collateral into account through such an adjustment to EAD under § 324.132 may not reflect such collateral in LGD.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Effective maturity.</I> An exposure's M must be no greater than five years and no less than one year, except that an exposure's M must be no less than one day if the exposure is a trade related letter of credit, or if the exposure has an original maturity of less than one year and is not part of an FDIC-supervised institution's ongoing financing of the obligor. An exposure is not part of an FDIC-supervised institution's ongoing financing of the obligor if the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a legal and practical ability not to renew or roll over the exposure in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor;
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes an independent credit decision at the inception of the exposure and at every renewal or roll over; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has no substantial commercial incentive to continue its credit relationship with the obligor in the event of credit deterioration of the obligor.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>EAD for exposures to certain central counterparties.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may attribute an EAD of zero to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange, and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade and associated default fund contributions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Phase 4—Calculation of risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>Non-defaulted exposures.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the dollar risk-based capital requirement for each of its wholesale exposures to a non-defaulted obligor (except for eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives that hedge another wholesale exposure, IMM exposures, cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions, and exposures to which the FDIC-supervised institution applies the double default treatment in § 324.135) and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures by inserting the assigned risk parameters for the wholesale obligor and exposure or retail segment into the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 to § 324.131 and multiplying the output of the formula (K) by the EAD of the exposure or segment. Alternatively, an FDIC-supervised institution may apply a 300 percent risk weight to the EAD of an eligible margin loan if the FDIC-supervised institution is not able to meet the FDIC's requirements for estimation of PD and LGD for the margin loan.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.025.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a non-defaulted obligor and segment of non-defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and in § 324.135(e) equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments.
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to non-defaulted obligors and segments of non-defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures</I>—(i) <I>Not covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals 0.08 multiplied by the EAD of the exposure or segment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered by an eligible U.S. government guarantee:</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and each segment of defaulted retail exposures covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.016, and
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the EAD of the portion of each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government plus the EAD of the portion of each segment of defaulted retail exposures that is not covered by an eligible guarantee from the U.S. government and the resulting sum is multiplied by 0.08.
</P>
<P>(iii) The sum of all the dollar risk-based capital requirements for each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section plus the dollar risk-based capital requirements each wholesale exposure to a defaulted obligor and for each segment of defaulted retail exposures calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement for those exposures and segments.
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for wholesale exposures to defaulted obligors and segments of defaulted retail exposures equals the total dollar risk-based capital requirement calculated in paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assets not included in a defined exposure category.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a risk-weighted asset amount of zero to cash owned and held in all offices of the FDIC-supervised institution or in transit and for gold bullion held in the FDIC-supervised institution's own vaults, or held in another depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to 20 percent of the carrying value of cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to 50 percent of the carrying value to a pre-sold construction loan unless the purchase contract is cancelled, in which case an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a risk-weighted asset amount equal to a 100 percent of the carrying value of the pre-sold construction loan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The risk-weighted asset amount for the residual value of a retail lease exposure equals such residual value.
</P>
<P>(v) The risk-weighted asset amount for DTAs arising from temporary differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could realize through net operating loss carrybacks equals the carrying value, netted in accordance with § 324.22.
</P>
<P>(vi) The risk-weighted asset amount for MSAs, DTAs arising from temporary timing differences that the FDIC-supervised institution could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, and significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted pursuant to § 324.22(d) equals the amount not subject to deduction multiplied by 250 percent.
</P>
<P>(vii) The risk-weighted asset amount for any other on-balance-sheet asset that does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, IMM, or equity exposure, cleared transaction, or default fund contribution and is not subject to deduction under § 324.22(a), (c), or (d) equals the carrying value of the asset.
</P>
<P>(viii) The risk-weighted asset amount for a Paycheck Protection Program covered loan as defined in section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36)) equals zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-material portfolios of exposures.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount of a portfolio of exposures for which the FDIC-supervised institution has demonstrated to the FDIC's satisfaction that the portfolio (when combined with all other portfolios of exposures that the FDIC-supervised institution seeks to treat under this paragraph (e)) is not material to the FDIC-supervised institution is the sum of the carrying values of on-balance sheet exposures plus the notional amounts of off-balance sheet exposures in the portfolio. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4), the notional amount of an OTC derivative contract that is not a credit derivative is the EAD of the derivative as calculated in § 324.132. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014; 80 FR 41424, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35279, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 22010, Apr. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.132" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.132   Counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and OTC derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methodologies for collateral recognition.</I> (1) Instead of an LGD estimation methodology, an FDIC-supervised institution may use the following methodologies to recognize the benefits of financial collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized OTC derivative contracts and single product netting sets of such transactions, and to recognize the benefits of any collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions that are included in an FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The internal models methodology set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For single product netting sets of repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans, the simple VaR methodology set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution may use any combination of the three methodologies for collateral recognition; however, it must use the same methodology for transactions in the same category.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the methodology in paragraph (c) of this section, or with prior written approval of the FDIC, the internal model methodology in paragraph (d) of this section, to calculate EAD for an OTC derivative contract or a set of OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement. To estimate EAD for qualifying cross-product master netting agreements, an FDIC-supervised institution may only use the internal models methodology in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) An FDIC-supervised institution must also use the methodology in paragraph (e) of this section to calculate the risk-weighted asset amounts for CVA for OTC derivatives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EAD for eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or single-product netting set of such transactions by factoring the collateral into its LGD estimates for the exposure. Alternatively, an FDIC-supervised institution may estimate an unsecured LGD for the exposure, as well as for any repo-style transaction that is included in the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure under subpart F of this part, and determine the EAD of the exposure using:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) For netting sets only, the simple VaR methodology described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(i) <I>EAD equation.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may determine EAD for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or netting set by setting EAD equal to max {0, [(ΣE−ΣC) + Σ(E<E T="52">s</E> × H<E T="52">s</E>) + Σ(E<E T="52">fx</E> × H<E T="52">fx</E>)]}, where:
</P>
<P>(A) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(B) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</P>
<P>(C) E<E T="52">s</E> equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in a given instrument or in gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(D) H<E T="52">s</E> equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in E<E T="52">s</E>;
</P>
<P>(E) E<E T="52">fx</E> equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</P>
<P>(F) H<E T="52">fx</E> equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in E<E T="52">fx</E> and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (A) Under the standard supervisory haircuts approach:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the haircuts for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 324.132, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section;
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.132—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade
<br/>securitization
<br/>exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk weight under § 324.32 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk weight under § 324.32
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in Table 1 to § 324.132 are based on a 10 business-day holding period.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For currency mismatches, an FDIC-supervised institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, a FDIC-supervised institution may multiply the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a longer holding period is appropriate for client-facing derivative transactions, then it must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for the longer holding period pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days (for eligible margin loans) or five business days (for repo-style transactions), using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>) apply. If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when a FDIC-supervised institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 324.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, a FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted longer than the holding period, then the FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a minimum holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) A FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days for collateral associated with derivative contracts (five business days for client-facing derivative contracts) using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>6</I>) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) apply. For collateral associated with a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, a FDIC-supervised institution must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, a FDIC-supervised institution must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section, for collateral associated with a derivative contract in a netting set under which more than two margin disputes that lasted longer than the holding period occurred during the two previous quarters, the minimum holding period is twice the amount provided under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>3</I>) or (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>5</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) A FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward, pursuant to the adjustments provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section, using the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.037.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Hs equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Ts equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the instrument a FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the FDIC-supervised institution must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (Hs).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E> and H<E T="52">fx</E>) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates.
</P>
<P>(A) To receive FDIC approval to use its own internal estimates, an FDIC-supervised institution must satisfy the following minimum quantitative standards:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section applies. When an FDIC-supervised institution calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.027.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(<I>i</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>ii</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the FDIC-supervised institution to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>iii</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E>.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when an FDIC-supervised institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 324.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the FDIC-supervised institution's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior approval of the FDIC for, and notify the FDIC if the FDIC-supervised institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Nothing in this section prevents the FDIC from requiring an FDIC-supervised institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the FDIC-supervised institution must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(D) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(E) An FDIC-supervised institution's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Simple VaR methodology.</I> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may estimate EAD for a netting set using a VaR model that meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. In such event, the FDIC-supervised institution must set EAD equal to max {0, [(ΣE−ΣC) + PFE]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the netting set);
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the netting set); and
</P>
<P>(iii) PFE (potential future exposure) equals the FDIC-supervised institution's empirically based best estimate of the 99th percentile, one-tailed confidence interval for an increase in the value of (ΣE−ΣC) over a five-business-day holding period for repo-style transactions, or over a ten-business-day holding period for eligible margin loans except for netting sets for which paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section applies using a minimum one-year historical observation period of price data representing the instruments that the FDIC-supervised institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. The FDIC-supervised institution must validate its VaR model by establishing and maintaining a rigorous and regular backtesting regime.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an FDIC-supervised institution must use a twenty-business-day holding period for the following quarter (except when an FDIC-supervised institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 324.133). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, an FDIC-supervised institution must use a twenty-business-day holding period. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the FDIC-supervised institution must set its PFE for that netting set equal to an estimate over a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>EAD for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Options for determining EAD.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution must determine the EAD for a derivative contract using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) under paragraph (c)(5) of this section or using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. If a FDIC-supervised institution elects to use SA-CCR for one or more derivative contracts, the exposure amount determined under SA-CCR is the EAD for the derivative contract or derivatives contracts. A FDIC-supervised institution must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts and may change its election only with prior approval of the FDIC. A FDIC-supervised institution may reduce the EAD calculated according to paragraph (c)(5) of this section by the credit valuation adjustment that the FDIC-supervised institution has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), the credit valuation adjustment does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the FDIC-supervised institution's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>End date</I> means the last date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references another instrument, by the underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) S<I>tart date</I> means the first date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references the value of another instrument, by underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hedging set</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to interest rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same reference currency;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to exchange rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same currency pair;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to credit derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to equity derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(E) With respect to a commodity derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of the following commodity categories: Energy, metal, agricultural, or other commodities;
</P>
<P>(F) With respect to basis derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same pair of risk factors and are denominated in the same currency; or
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to volatility derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, separated according to the requirements under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) If the risk of a derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, the FDIC may require a FDIC-supervised institution to include the derivative contract in each appropriate hedging set under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit derivatives.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 324.134 or § 324.135 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure that is not a covered position under subpart F of this part is not required to calculate a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section so long as the FDIC-supervised institution does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that is the protection provider in a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as a wholesale exposure to the reference obligor and is not required to calculate a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this section, so long as it does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes all or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes (unless the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the credit derivative as a covered position under subpart F of this part, in which case the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a supplemental counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equity derivatives.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under §§ 324.151-324.155 (unless the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part). In addition, if the FDIC-supervised institution is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part, and under certain other circumstances described in § 324.155, the FDIC-supervised institution must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure amount.</I> (i) The exposure amount of a netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c) of this section, is equal to 1.4 multiplied by the sum of the replacement cost of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the variation margin agreement is not required to post variation margin, is equal to the lesser of the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and the exposure amount of the netting set calculated as if the netting set were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set that consists of only sold options in which the premiums have been fully paid by the counterparty to the options and where the options are not subject to a variation margin agreement is zero.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set in which the counterparty is a commercial end-user is equal to the sum of replacement cost, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a FDIC-supervised institution may elect, at the netting set level, to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, if the derivative contract is subject to a requirement that the counterparties make daily cash payments to each other to account for changes in the fair value of the derivative contract and to reduce the net position of the contract to zero. If a FDIC-supervised institution makes an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) for one derivative contract, it must treat all other derivative contracts within the same netting set that are eligible for an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) as derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(vi) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, a FDIC-supervised institution may elect to treat a credit derivative contract, equity derivative contract, or commodity derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Replacement cost of a netting set</I>—(i) <I>Netting set subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the variation margin threshold and the minimum transfer amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set less the net independent collateral amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(C) Zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Netting sets not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set that is not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin to the FDIC-supervised institution is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(B) Zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Potential future exposure of a netting set.</I> The potential future exposure of a netting set is the product of the PFE multiplier and the aggregated amount.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>PFE multiplier.</I> The PFE multiplier is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.038.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>V is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>C is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A is the aggregated amount of the netting set.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregated amount.</I> The aggregated amount is the sum of all hedging set amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, within a netting set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 324.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of total leverage exposure under § 324.10(c)(2)(ii)(B), the potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging set amount</I>—(i) <I>Interest rate derivative contracts.</I> To calculate the hedging set amount of an interest rate derivative contract hedging set, a FDIC-supervised institution may use either of the formulas provided in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Formula 1 is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.039.gif"/>
<P>(B) Formula 2 is as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Hedging set amount</I> = |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="53">IR</E>| + |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">2</E><E T="53">IR</E> + |<I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">3</E><E T="53">IR</E>|.
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">1</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of less than one year from the present date;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">2</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of one to five years from the present date; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I><E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">3</E><E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of more than five years from the present date.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exchange rate derivative contracts.</I> For an exchange rate derivative contract hedging set, the hedging set amount equals the absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Credit derivative contracts and equity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a credit derivative contract hedging set or equity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.040.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each reference entity within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of reference entities within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Ref</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference entity <I>k</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I><E T="54">k</E> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Commodity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a commodity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.041.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is each commodity type within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>K</I> is the number of commodity types within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>AddOn</I>(<I>Type</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference commodity type <I>k</I>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>ρ</I> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Basis derivative contracts and volatility derivative contracts.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, a FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a separate hedging set amount for each basis derivative contract hedging set and each volatility derivative contract hedging set. A FDIC-supervised institution must calculate such hedging set amounts using one of the formulas under paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) that corresponds to the primary risk factor of the hedging set being calculated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Adjusted derivative contract amount</I>—(i) <I>Summary.</I> To calculate the adjusted derivative contract amount of a derivative contract, a FDIC-supervised institution must determine the adjusted notional amount of derivative contract, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(ii) of this section, and multiply the adjusted notional amount by each of the supervisory delta adjustment, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iii) of this section, the maturity factor, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, and the applicable supervisory factor, as provided in Table 3 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted notional amount.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount equals the product of the notional amount of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation, and the supervisory duration, as calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.015.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>S is the number of business days from the present day until the start date of the derivative contract, or zero if the start date has already passed; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>E is the number of business days from the present day until the end date of the derivative contract.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or credit derivative contract that is a variable notional swap, the notional amount is equal to the time-weighted average of the contractual notional amounts of such a swap over the remaining life of the swap; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract that is a leveraged swap, in which the notional amount of all legs of the derivative contract are divided by a factor and all rates of the derivative contract are multiplied by the same factor, the notional amount is equal to the notional amount of an equivalent unleveraged swap.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an exchange rate derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the notional amount of the non-U.S. denominated currency leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation. If both legs of the exchange rate derivative contract are denominated in currencies other than U.S. dollars, the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract is the largest leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, for an exchange rate derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the FDIC-supervised institution must set the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract equal to the notional amount of the derivative contract multiplied by the number of exchanges of principal under the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the product of the fair value of one unit of the reference instrument underlying the derivative contract and the number of such units referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, when calculating the adjusted notional amount for an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract that is a volatility derivative contract, the FDIC-supervised institution must replace the unit price with the underlying volatility referenced by the volatility derivative contract and replace the number of units with the notional amount of the volatility derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Supervisory delta adjustments.</I> (A) For a derivative contract that is not an option contract or collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is 1 if the fair value of the derivative contract increases when the value of the primary risk factor increases and −1 if the fair value of the derivative contract decreases when the value of the primary risk factor increases.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is an option contract, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formulas, as applicable:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.043.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formulas in Table 2 to this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Φ is the standard normal cumulative distribution function;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) P equals the current fair value of the instrument or risk factor, as applicable, underlying the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) K equals the strike price of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) T equals the number of business days until the latest contractual exercise date of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) λ equals zero for all derivative contracts except interest rate options for the currencies where interest rates have negative values. The same value of λ must be used for all interest rate options that are denominated in the same currency. To determine the value of λ for a given currency, a FDIC-supervised institution must find the lowest value L of P and K of all interest rate options in a given currency that the FDIC-supervised institution has with all counterparties. Then, λ is set according to this formula: λ = <I>max</I>{−<I>L</I> + 0.1%, 0}; and
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) σ equals the supervisory option volatility, as provided in Table 3 to this section.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is a collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.044.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formula in paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A is the attachment point, which equals the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; 
<SU>30</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>30</SU> In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n−1) notional amounts of the underlying exposures are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) D is the detachment point, which equals one minus the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are senior to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The resulting amount is designated with a positive sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was purchased by the FDIC-supervised institution and is designated with a negative sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was sold by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maturity factor.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.045.gif"/>
<P>Where MPOR refers to the period from the most recent exchange of collateral covering a netting set of derivative contracts with a defaulting counterparty until the derivative contracts are closed out and the resulting market risk is re-hedged.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For a derivative contract that is not a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than ten business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a derivative contract that is a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than five business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, or a netting set that contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, MPOR cannot be less than twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, for a netting set subject to more than two outstanding disputes over margin that lasted longer than the MPOR over the previous two quarters, the applicable floor is twice the amount provided in paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is not subject to a variation margin agreement, or derivative contracts under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24ja20.046.gif"/>
<P>Where M equals the greater of 10 business days and the remaining maturity of the contract, as measured in business days.
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, if a FDIC-supervised institution has elected pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, the Board-regulated institution must treat the derivative contract as subject to a variation margin agreement with maturity factor as determined according to (c)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, and daily settlement does not change the end date of the period referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derivative contract as multiple effective derivative contracts.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution must separate a derivative contract into separate derivative contracts, according to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(A) For an option where the counterparty pays a predetermined amount if the value of the underlying asset is above or below the strike price and nothing otherwise (binary option), the option must be treated as two separate options. For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B) of this section, a binary option with strike K must be represented as the combination of one bought European option and one sold European option of the same type as the original option (put or call) with the strikes set equal to 0.95 * K and 1.05 * K so that the payoff of the binary option is reproduced exactly outside the region between the two strikes. The absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts of the bought and sold options is capped at the payoff amount of the binary option.
</P>
<P>(B) For a derivative contract that can be represented as a combination of standard option payoffs (such as collar, butterfly spread, calendar spread, straddle, and strangle), a FDIC-supervised institution must treat each standard option component must be treated as a separate derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C) For a derivative contract that includes multiple-payment options, (such as interest rate caps and floors), a FDIC-supervised institution may represent each payment option as a combination of effective single-payment options (such as interest rate caplets and floorlets).
</P>
<P>(D) A FDIC-supervised institution may not decompose linear derivative contracts (such as swaps) into components.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(6) of this section, a FDIC-supervised institution shall assign a single replacement cost to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Replacement Cost</I> = <I>max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E> <I>max</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E><I>;</I> 0} − <I>max</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E><I>;</I> 0}; 0} + <I>max</I>{Σ<E T="54">NS</E> <I>min</I>{<I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E><I>;</I> 0} − <I>min</I>{<I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E><I>;</I> 0}; 0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>NS</I> is each netting set subject to the variation margin agreement MA;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>V</I><E T="54">NS</E> is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set NS; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I><E T="54">MA</E> is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting sets subject to the single variation margin agreement.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5) of this section, a FDIC-supervised institution shall assign a single potential future exposure to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin equal to the sum of the potential future exposure of each such netting set, each calculated according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section as if such nettings sets were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> To calculate replacement cost for either a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, the calculation for replacement cost is provided under paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section, except that the variation margin threshold equals the sum of the variation margin thresholds of all variation margin agreements within the netting set and the minimum transfer amount equals the sum of the minimum transfer amounts of all the variation margin agreements within the netting set.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> (A) To calculate potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the derivative contract must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, a FDIC-supervised institution must divide the netting set into sub-netting sets (as described in paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B) of this section) and calculate the aggregated amount for each sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for the netting set is calculated as the sum of the aggregated amounts for the sub-netting sets. The multiplier is calculated for the entire netting set.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(A) of this section, the netting set must be divided into sub-netting sets as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are not subject to a variation margin agreement or that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are subject to variation margin agreements in which the counterparty must post variation margin and that share the same value of the MPOR form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is subject to a variation margin agreement, using the MPOR value shared by the derivative contracts within the netting set.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 324.132—Supervisory Option Volatility, Supervisory Correlation Parameters, and Supervisory Factors for Derivative Contracts
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Subclass
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>option
<br/>volatility
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>correlation
<br/>factor
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory
<br/>factor 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exchange rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electricity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The applicable supervisory factor for basis derivative contract hedging sets is equal to one-half of the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3, and the applicable supervisory factor for volatility derivative contract hedging sets is equal to 5 times the supervisory factor provided in this Table 3.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Internal models methodology.</I> (1)(i) With prior written approval from the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may use the internal models methodology in this paragraph (d) to determine EAD for counterparty credit risk for derivative contracts (collateralized or uncollateralized) and single-product netting sets thereof, for eligible margin loans and single-product netting sets thereof, and for repo-style transactions and single-product netting sets thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that uses the internal models methodology for a particular transaction type (derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions) must use the internal models methodology for all transactions of that transaction type. An FDIC-supervised institution may choose to use the internal models methodology for one or two of these three types of exposures and not the other types.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution may also use the internal models methodology for derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions subject to a qualifying cross-product netting agreement if:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution effectively integrates the risk mitigating effects of cross-product netting into its risk management and other information technology systems; and
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution obtains the prior written approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(iv) An FDIC-supervised institution that uses the internal models methodology for a transaction type must receive approval from the FDIC to cease using the methodology for that transaction type or to make a material change to its internal model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted assets using IMM.</I> Under the IMM, an FDIC-supervised institution uses an internal model to estimate the expected exposure (EE) for a netting set and then calculates EAD based on that EE. An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate two EEs and two EADs (one stressed and one unstressed) for each netting set as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on the most recent data meeting the requirements of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> is calculated using an EE estimate based on a historical period that includes a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the FDIC-supervised institution's counterparties according to paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must use its internal model's probability distribution for changes in the fair value of a netting set that are attributable to changes in market variables to determine EE; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Under the internal models methodology, EAD = Max (0, α × effective EPE−CVA), or, subject to the prior written approval of FDIC as provided in paragraph (d)(10) of this section, a more conservative measure of EAD.
</P>
<P>(A) CVA equals the credit valuation adjustment that the FDIC-supervised institution has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any OTC derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (d), CVA does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the FDIC-supervised institution's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.029.gif"/>
<FP>(that is, effective EPE is the time-weighted average of effective EE where the weights are the proportion that an individual effective EE represents in a one-year time interval) where:
</FP>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>EffectiveEE</I><E T="54">t</E><E T="0364">k</E> = max(<I>Effective EE</I><E T="54">t</E><E T="0364">k−1</E>, <I>EE</I><E T="54">t</E><E T="0364">k</E>) (that is, for a specific date t<E T="52">k</E>, effective EE is the greater of EE at that date or the effective EE at the previous date); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) t<E T="52">k</E> represents the k
<SU>th</SU> future time period in the model and there are n time periods represented in the model over the first year, and
</P>
<P>(C) α = 1.4 except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, or when the FDIC has determined that the FDIC-supervised institution must set α higher based on the FDIC-supervised institution's specific characteristics of counterparty credit risk or model performance.
</P>
<P>(v) An FDIC-supervised institution may include financial collateral currently posted by the counterparty as collateral (but may not include other forms of collateral) when calculating EE.
</P>
<P>(vi) If an FDIC-supervised institution hedges some or all of the counterparty credit risk associated with a netting set using an eligible credit derivative, the FDIC-supervised institution may take the reduction in exposure to the counterparty into account when estimating EE. If the FDIC-supervised institution recognizes this reduction in exposure to the counterparty in its estimate of EE, it must also use its internal model to estimate a separate EAD for the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the protection provider of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prior approval relating to EAD calculation.</I> To obtain FDIC approval to calculate the distributions of exposures upon which the EAD calculation is based, the FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC that it has been using for at least one year an internal model that broadly meets the following minimum standards, with which the FDIC-supervised institution must maintain compliance:
</P>
<P>(i) The model must have the systems capability to estimate the expected exposure to the counterparty on a daily basis (but is not expected to estimate or report expected exposure on a daily basis);
</P>
<P>(ii) The model must estimate expected exposure at enough future dates to reflect accurately all the future cash flows of contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(iii) The model must account for the possible non-normality of the exposure distribution, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution must measure, monitor, and control current counterparty exposure and the exposure to the counterparty over the whole life of all contracts in the netting set;
</P>
<P>(v) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to measure and manage current exposures gross and net of collateral held, where appropriate. The FDIC-supervised institution must estimate expected exposures for OTC derivative contracts both with and without the effect of collateral agreements;
</P>
<P>(vi) The FDIC-supervised institution must have procedures to identify, monitor, and control wrong-way risk throughout the life of an exposure. The procedures must include stress testing and scenario analysis;
</P>
<P>(vii) The model must use current market data to compute current exposures. The FDIC-supervised institution must estimate model parameters using historical data from the most recent three-year period and update the data quarterly or more frequently if market conditions warrant. The FDIC-supervised institution should consider using model parameters based on forward-looking measures, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(viii) When estimating model parameters based on a stress period, the FDIC-supervised institution must use at least three years of historical data that include a period of stress to the credit default spreads of the FDIC-supervised institution's counterparties. The FDIC-supervised institution must review the data set and update the data as necessary, particularly for any material changes in its counterparties. The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate, at least quarterly, and maintain documentation of such demonstration, that the stress period coincides with increased CDS or other credit spreads of the FDIC-supervised institution's counterparties. The FDIC-supervised institution must have procedures to evaluate the effectiveness of its stress calibration that include a process for using benchmark portfolios that are vulnerable to the same risk factors as the FDIC-supervised institution's portfolio. The FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to modify its stress calibration to better reflect actual historic losses of the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(ix) An FDIC-supervised institution must subject its internal model to an initial validation and annual model review process. The model review should consider whether the inputs and risk factors, as well as the model outputs, are appropriate. As part of the model review process, the FDIC-supervised institution must have a backtesting program for its model that includes a process by which unacceptable model performance will be determined and remedied;
</P>
<P>(x) An FDIC-supervised institution must have policies for the measurement, management and control of collateral and margin amounts; and
</P>
<P>(xi) An FDIC-supervised institution must have a comprehensive stress testing program that captures all credit exposures to counterparties, and incorporates stress testing of principal market risk factors and creditworthiness of counterparties.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculating the maturity of exposures.</I> (i) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is greater than one year, the FDIC-supervised institution must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to the lower of five years or M(EPE), where:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.030.gif"/>
<P>(ii) If the remaining maturity of the exposure or the longest-dated contract in the netting set is one year or less, the FDIC-supervised institution must set M for the exposure or netting set equal to one year, except as provided in § 324.131(d)(7).
</P>
<P>(iii) Alternatively, an FDIC-supervised institution that uses an internal model to calculate a one-sided credit valuation adjustment may use the effective credit duration estimated by the model as M(EPE) in place of the formula in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effects of collateral agreements on EAD.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when exposure to the counterparty increases, but may not capture the effect on EAD of a collateral agreement that requires receipt of collateral when counterparty credit quality deteriorates. Two methods are available to capture the effect of a collateral agreement, as set forth in paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) With prior written approval from the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may include the effect of a collateral agreement within its internal model used to calculate EAD. The FDIC-supervised institution may set EAD equal to the expected exposure at the end of the margin period of risk. The margin period of risk means, with respect to a netting set subject to a collateral agreement, the time period from the most recent exchange of collateral with a counterparty until the next required exchange of collateral, plus the period of time required to sell and realize the proceeds of the least liquid collateral that can be delivered under the terms of the collateral agreement and, where applicable, the period of time required to re-hedge the resulting market risk upon the default of the counterparty. The minimum margin period of risk is set according to paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As an alternative to paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that can model EPE without collateral agreements but cannot achieve the higher level of modeling sophistication to model EPE with collateral agreements can set effective EPE for a collateralized netting set equal to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An add-on that reflects the potential increase in exposure of the netting set over the margin period of risk, plus the larger of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The current exposure of the netting set reflecting all collateral held or posted by the FDIC-supervised institution excluding any collateral called or in dispute; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The largest net exposure including all collateral held or posted under the margin agreement that would not trigger a collateral call. For purposes of this section, the add-on is computed as the expected increase in the netting set's exposure over the margin period of risk (set in accordance with paragraph (d)(5)(iii) of this section); or
</P>
<P>(B) Effective EPE without a collateral agreement plus any collateral the FDIC-supervised institution posts to the counterparty that exceeds the required margin amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this part, including paragraphs (d)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, the margin period of risk for a netting set subject to a collateral agreement is:
</P>
<P>(A) Five business days for repo-style transactions subject to daily remargining and daily marking-to-market, and ten business days for other transactions when liquid financial collateral is posted under a daily margin maintenance requirement, or
</P>
<P>(B) Twenty business days if the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during the previous quarter (except if the FDIC-supervised institution is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 324.133) or contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or any derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the margin period of risk, then the FDIC-supervised institution must use a margin period of risk for that netting set that is at least two times the minimum margin period of risk for that netting set. If the periodicity of the receipt of collateral is N-days, the minimum margin period of risk is the minimum margin period of risk under this paragraph (d) plus N minus 1. This period should be extended to cover any impediments to prompt re-hedging of any market risk.
</P>
<P>(C) Five business days for an OTC derivative contract or netting set of OTC derivative contracts where the FDIC-supervised institution is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the FDIC-supervised institution provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client. An FDIC-supervised institution must use a longer holding period if the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a longer period is appropriate. Additionally, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to set a longer holding period if the FDIC determines that a longer period is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the transaction or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Own estimate of alpha.</I> With prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate alpha as the ratio of economic capital from a full simulation of counterparty exposure across counterparties that incorporates a joint simulation of market and credit risk factors (numerator) and economic capital based on EPE (denominator), subject to a floor of 1.2. For purposes of this calculation, economic capital is the unexpected losses for all counterparty credit risks measured at a 99.9 percent confidence level over a one-year horizon. To receive approval, the FDIC-supervised institution must meet the following minimum standards to the satisfaction of the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution's own estimate of alpha must capture in the numerator the effects of:
</P>
<P>(A) The material sources of stochastic dependency of distributions of fair values of transactions or portfolios of transactions across counterparties;
</P>
<P>(B) Volatilities and correlations of market risk factors used in the joint simulation, which must be related to the credit risk factor used in the simulation to reflect potential increases in volatility or correlation in an economic downturn, where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(C) The granularity of exposures (that is, the effect of a concentration in the proportion of each counterparty's exposure that is driven by a particular risk factor).
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must assess the potential model uncertainty in its estimates of alpha.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the numerator and denominator of alpha in a consistent fashion with respect to modeling methodology, parameter specifications, and portfolio composition.
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution must review and adjust as appropriate its estimates of the numerator and denominator of alpha on at least a quarterly basis and more frequently when the composition of the portfolio varies over time.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Risk-based capital requirements for transactions with specific wrong-way risk.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine if a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, bond option, or equity derivative contract or purchased credit derivative to which the FDIC-supervised institution applies the internal models methodology under this paragraph (d) has specific wrong-way risk. If a transaction has specific wrong-way risk, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the transaction as its own netting set and exclude it from the model described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and instead calculate the risk-based capital requirement for the transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For an equity derivative contract, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum amount the FDIC-supervised institution could lose on the equity derivative.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a purchased credit derivative by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the reference asset of the credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a bond option, by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The smaller of the notional amount of the underlying reference asset and the maximum potential loss under the bond option contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) For a repo-style transaction or eligible margin loan by multiplying:
</P>
<P>(A) K, calculated using the appropriate risk-based capital formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 using the PD of the counterparty and LGD equal to 100 percent, by
</P>
<P>(B) The EAD of the transaction determined according to the EAD equation in § 324.132(b)(2), substituting the estimated value of the collateral assuming a default of the counterparty for the value of the collateral in Σ<I>C</I> of the equation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk.</I> The aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk is the sum of an FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for purchased credit derivatives that are not bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(ii) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for equity derivatives with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(i) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for bond options with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iii) of this section, and an FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans with specific wrong-way risk as calculated under paragraph (d)(7)(iv) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures.</I> (i) The FDIC-supervised institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the unstressed capital requirement for each netting set. An FDIC-supervised institution that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(3) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the unstressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each wholesale obligor and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131 and multiply the output of the formula by the EAD<E T="52">stressed</E> of the netting set to obtain the stressed capital requirement for each netting set. An FDIC-supervised institution that uses an advanced CVA approach that captures migrations in credit spreads under paragraph (e)(6) of this section must set the maturity adjustment (b) in the formula equal to zero. The sum of the stressed capital requirement calculated for each netting set equals K<E T="52">stressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement under the internal models methodology equals the larger of K<E T="52">unstressed</E> and K<E T="52">stressed</E>. An FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted assets amount for IMM exposures is equal to the capital requirement multiplied by 12.5, plus risk-weighted assets for IMM exposures with specific wrong-way risk in paragraph (d)(8) of this section and those in paragraph (d)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Other measures of counterparty exposure.</I> (i) With prior written approval of the FDIC, a FDIC-supervised institution may set EAD equal to a measure of counterparty credit risk exposure, such as peak EAD, that is more conservative than an alpha of 1.4 times the larger of EPE<E T="52">unstressed</E> and EPE<E T="52">stressed</E> for every counterparty whose EAD will be measured under the alternative measure of counterparty exposure. The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate the conservatism of the measure of counterparty credit risk exposure used for EAD. With respect to paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) For material portfolios of new OTC derivative products, the FDIC-supervised institution may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section for a period not to exceed 180 days.
</P>
<P>(B) For immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the FDIC-supervised institution generally may assume that the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section meets the conservatism requirement of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To calculate risk-weighted assets for purposes of the approach in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must insert the assigned risk parameters for each counterparty and netting set into the appropriate formula specified in Table 1 of § 324.131, multiply the output of the formula by the EAD for the exposure as specified above, and multiply by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to its OTC derivative contracts, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a CVA risk-weighted asset amount for its portfolio of OTC derivative transactions that are subject to the CVA capital requirement using the simple CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(5) of this section or, with prior written approval of the FDIC, the advanced CVA approach described in paragraph (e)(6) of this section. An FDIC-supervised institution that receives prior FDIC approval to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amounts for a class of counterparties using the advanced CVA approach must continue to use that approach for that class of counterparties until it notifies the FDIC in writing that the FDIC-supervised institution expects to begin calculating its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach. Such notice must include an explanation of the FDIC-supervised institution's rationale and the date upon which the FDIC-supervised institution will begin to calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the simple CVA approach.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market risk FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> Notwithstanding the prior approval requirement in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, a market risk FDIC-supervised institution may calculate its CVA risk-weighted asset amount using the advanced CVA approach if the FDIC-supervised institution has FDIC approval to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine EAD for OTC derivative contracts using the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine its specific risk add-on for debt positions issued by the counterparty using a specific risk model described in § 324.207(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recognition of hedges.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize a single name CDS, single name contingent CDS, any other equivalent hedging instrument that references the counterparty directly, and index credit default swaps (CDS<E T="52">ind</E>) as a CVA hedge under paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section or paragraph (e)(6) of this section, provided that the position is managed as a CVA hedge in accordance with the FDIC-supervised institution's hedging policies.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution shall not recognize as a CVA hedge any tranched or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total CVA risk-weighted assets.</I> Total CVA risk-weighted assets is the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, calculated for an FDIC-supervised institution's entire portfolio of OTC derivative counterparties that are subject to the CVA capital requirement, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simple CVA approach.</I> (i) Under the simple CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.031.gif"/>
<P>(A) <I>w</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the weight applicable to counterparty <I>i</I> under Table 4 to this section;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the EAD-weighted average of the effective maturity of each netting set with counterparty <I>i</I> (where each netting set's effective maturity can be no less than one year.)
</P>
<P>(C) <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">total</E> equals the sum of the EAD for all netting sets of OTC derivative contracts with counterparty <I>i</I> calculated using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk described in paragraph (c) of this section or the internal models methodology described in paragraph (d) of this section. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD under paragraph (c) of this section, such EAD may be adjusted for purposes of calculating <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">total</E> by multiplying EAD by (1-exp(-0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E>), where “exp” is the exponential function. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD under paragraph (d) of this section, <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">total</E> equals <I>EAD</I><E T="54">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>M</I> <E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">hedge</E> equals the notional weighted average maturity of the hedge instrument.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the sum of the notional amounts of any purchased single name CDS referencing counterparty <I>i</I> that is used to hedge CVA risk to counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(-0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">hedge</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> <E T="53">hedge</E>).
</P>
<P>(F) <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E> equals the maturity of the CDS<E T="54">ind</E> or the notional weighted average maturity of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk of counterparty <I>i.</I>
</P>
<P>(G) <I>B</I><E T="54">ind</E> equals the notional amount of one or more CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk for counterparty <I>i</I> multiplied by (1-exp(-0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">ind</E>)
</P>
<P>(H) <I>w</I><E T="54">ind</E> equals the weight applicable to the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> based on the average weight of the underlying reference names that comprise the index under Table 4 to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution may treat the notional amount of the index attributable to a counterparty as a single name hedge of counterparty <I>i</I> (<I>B</I><E T="54">i</E>,) when calculating K<E T="52">CVA</E>, and subtract the notional amount of <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> from the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind.</E> An FDIC-supervised institution must treat the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge with the notional amount reduced by <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E> as a CVA hedge.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 324.132—Assignment of Counterparty Weight
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Internal PD
<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight <E T="03">w</E><E T="54">i</E>
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.070-0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.15-0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.40-2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;2.00-6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(6) <I>Advanced CVA approach.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution may use the VaR model that it uses to determine specific risk under § 324.207(b) or another VaR model that meets the quantitative requirements of § 324.205(b) and § 324.207(b)(1) to calculate its CVA capital requirement for a counterparty by modeling the impact of changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, together with any recognized CVA hedges, on the CVA for the counterparties, subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The VaR model must incorporate only changes in the counterparties' credit spreads, not changes in other risk factors. The VaR model does not need to capture jump-to-default risk;
</P>
<P>(B) An FDIC-supervised institution that qualifies to use the advanced CVA approach must include in that approach any immaterial OTC derivative portfolios for which it uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk in paragraph (c) of this section according to paragraph (e)(6)(viii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must have the systems capability to calculate the CVA capital requirement for a counterparty on a daily basis (but is not required to calculate the CVA capital requirement on a daily basis).
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the advanced CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formulas:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.032.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the time of the <I>i</I>-th revaluation time bucket starting from <I>t</I><E T="54">0</E> = 0.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) <I>t</I><E T="54">T</E> equals the longest contractual maturity across the OTC derivative contracts with the counterparty.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) <I>s</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the CDS spread for the counterparty at tenor <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E> used to calculate the CVA for the counterparty. If a CDS spread is not available, the FDIC-supervised institution must use a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry and region of the counterparty.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) <I>LGD</I><E T="54">MKT</E> equals the loss given default of the counterparty based on the spread of a publicly traded debt instrument of the counterparty, or, where a publicly traded debt instrument spread is not available, a proxy spread based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty. Where no market information and no reliable proxy based on the credit quality, industry, and region of the counterparty are available to determine LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, an FDIC-supervised institution may use a conservative estimate when determining LGD<E T="52">MKT</E>, subject to approval by the FDIC.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(E) <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the sum of the expected exposures for all netting sets with the counterparty at revaluation time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, calculated according to paragraphs (e)(6)(iv)(A) and (e)(6)(v)(A) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(F) <I>D</I><E T="54">i</E> equals the risk-free discount factor at time <I>t</I><E T="54">i</E>, where <I>D</I><E T="54">0</E> = 1.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(G) Exp is the exponential function.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(H) The subscript j refers either to a stressed or an unstressed calibration as described in paragraphs (e)(6)(iv) and (v) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (e)(6)(ii) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must use the formulas in paragraphs (e)(6)(iii)(A) or (e)(6)(iii)(B) of this section to calculate credit spread sensitivities if its VaR model is not based on full repricing.
</P>
<P>(A) If the VaR model is based on credit spread sensitivities for specific tenors, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate each credit spread sensitivity according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.033.gif"/>
<P>(B) If the VaR model uses credit spread sensitivities to parallel shifts in credit spreads, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate each credit spread sensitivity according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.034.gif"/>
<P>(iv) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="54">Unstressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> calculated using the calibration of paragraph (d)(3)(vii) of this section, except as provided in § 324.132 (e)(6)(vi), and
</P>
<P>(B) Use the historical observation period required under § 324.205(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) To calculate the <I>CVA</I><E T="54">Stressed</E> measure for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> calculated using the stress calibration in paragraph (d)(3)(viii) of this section except as provided in paragraph (e)(6)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Calibrate VaR model inputs to historical data from the most severe twelve-month stress period contained within the three-year stress period used to calculate <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E>. The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the <I>CVA</I><E T="54">Stressed</E> measure.
</P>
<P>(vi) If an FDIC-supervised institution captures the effect of a collateral agreement on EAD using the method described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section, for purposes of paragraph (e)(6)(ii) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate <I>EE</I><E T="54">i</E> using the method in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section and keep that EE constant with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set, and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<P>(vii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(6) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR model must capture the basis between the spreads of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> that is used as the hedging instrument and the hedged counterparty exposure over various time periods, including benign and stressed environments. If the VaR model does not capture that basis, the FDIC-supervised institution must reflect only 50 percent of the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge in the VaR model.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a FDIC-supervised institution uses the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section to calculate the EAD for any immaterial portfolios of OTC derivative contracts, the FDIC-supervised institution must use that EAD as a constant EE in the formula for the calculation of CVA with the maturity equal to the maximum of:
</P>
<P>(A) Half of the longest maturity of a transaction in the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(B) The notional weighted average maturity of all transactions in the netting set.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014; 80 FR 41424, July 15, 2015; 85 FR 4434, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57963, Sept. 17, 2020; 86 FR 745, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.133" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.133   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (d) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client FDIC-supervised institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a FDIC-supervised institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 324.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodology set forth in § 324.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the FDIC-supervised institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any loss to the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent, if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member FDIC-supervised institution</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 324.132(c) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction using the methodology in § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated under § 324.132(b)(2) or (3) or (d), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote. When the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution calculates EAD for the cleared transaction under § 324.132(d), EAD equals EAD<E T="52">unstressed</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP according to subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP where the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 324.3(a), and the clearing member FDIC-supervised institution is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the QCCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member FDIC-supervised institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under subparts E or F of this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the FDIC-supervised institution or the FDIC, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to nonqualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by the FDIC, based on factors such as size, structure, and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital requirement for default fund contributions to a QCCP.</I> A clearing member FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirement for its default fund contribution to a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CM</E>) is equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17se20.016.gif"/>
<P>(5) <I>Hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP.</I> Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, an FDIC-supervised institution must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d)(5), unless the FDIC-supervised institution determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP. The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (<I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E>), as determined by the FDIC-supervised institution, is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E> = Σ<E T="54">CMi</E> <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> * 1.6 <I>percent</I>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><E T="54">CMi</E> is each clearing member of the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member of the QCCP, as determined under paragraph (d)(6) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member.</I> (i) The EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member is equal to the sum of the EAD for derivative contracts determined under paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section and the EAD for repo-style transactions determined under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any derivative contracts between the QCCP and the clearing member that are cleared transactions and any guarantees that the clearing member has provided to the QCCP with respect to performance of a clearing member client on a derivative contract, the EAD is equal to the exposure amount of the QCCP to the clearing member for all such derivative contracts and guarantees of derivative contracts calculated under SA-CCR in § 324.132(c) (or, with respect to a QCCP located outside the United States, under a substantially identical methodology in effect in the jurisdiction) using a value of 10 business days for purposes of § 324.132(c)(9)(iv); less the value of all collateral held by the QCCP posted by the clearing member or a client of the clearing member in connection with a derivative contract for which the clearing member has provided a guarantee to the QCCP and the amount of the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to any repo-style transactions between the QCCP and a clearing member that are cleared transactions, EAD is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2><I>EAD</I><E T="54">I</E> = max{<I>EBRM</I><E T="54">I</E>−<I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E>−<I>DF</I><E T="54">I</E>;0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>EBRM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member for all repo-style transactions between the QCCP and the clearing member, as determined under § 324.132(b)(2) and without recognition of the initial margin collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions or the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member institution to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>IM</I><E T="54">i</E> is the initial margin collateral posted by each clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>DF</I><E T="54">i</E> is the prefunded default fund contribution of each clearing member to the QCCP that is not already deducted in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) EAD must be calculated separately for each clearing member's sub-client accounts and sub-house account (<I>i.e.,</I> for the clearing member's proprietary activities). If the clearing member's collateral and its client's collateral are held in the same default fund contribution account, then the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the client-related transactions within the account and the EAD of the house-related transactions within the account. For purposes of determining such EADs, the independent collateral of the clearing member and its client must be allocated in proportion to the respective total amount of independent collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(v) If any account or sub-account contains both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the derivative contracts within the account and the EAD of the repo-style transactions within the account. If independent collateral is held for an account containing both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, then such collateral must be allocated to the derivative contracts and repo-style transactions in proportion to the respective product specific exposure amounts, calculated, excluding the effects of collateral, according to § 324.132(b) for repo-style transactions and to § 324.132(c)(5) for derivative contracts.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding any other provision of paragraph (d) of this section, with the prior approval of the FDIC, a FDIC-supervised institution may determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP according to § 324.35(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014; 80 FR 41425, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 35279, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4440, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 57963, Sept. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.134" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.134   Guarantees and credit derivatives: PD substitution and LGD adjustment approaches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This section applies to wholesale exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the FDIC-supervised institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) Wholesale exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) are securitization exposures subject to §§ 324.141 through 324.145.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution may elect to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covering an exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section by using the PD substitution approach or the LGD adjustment approach in paragraph (c) of this section or, if the transaction qualifies, using the double default treatment in § 324.135. An FDIC-supervised institution's PD and LGD for the hedged exposure may not be lower than the PD and LGD floors described in § 324.131(d)(2) and (d)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged wholesale exposures described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-based capital requirement for each exposure as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the same risk parameters for calculating ECL as it uses for calculating the risk-based capital requirement for the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> (that is, equally) with or is junior to the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are exposures to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to assure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligor fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk parameters for hedged exposures</I>—(1) <I>PD substitution approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, an FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure by substituting the PD associated with the rating grade of the protection provider for the PD associated with the rating grade of the obligor in the risk-based capital formula applicable to the guarantee or credit derivative in Table 1 of § 324.131 and using the appropriate LGD as described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section. If the FDIC-supervised institution determines that full substitution of the protection provider's PD leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the FDIC-supervised institution may substitute a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and P of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure under § 324.131, where PD is the protection provider's PD, LGD is determined under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, and EAD is P. If the FDIC-supervised institution determines that full substitution leads to an inappropriate degree of risk mitigation, the FDIC-supervised institution may use a higher PD than that of the protection provider.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 324.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P.
</P>
<P>(C) The treatment in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section is applicable when the credit risk of a wholesale exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis or when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraphs (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>LGD of hedged exposures.</I> The LGD of a hedged exposure under the PD substitution approach is equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the FDIC-supervised institution with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection; or
</P>
<P>(B) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the FDIC-supervised institution with the option to receive immediate payout upon triggering the protection.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>LGD adjustment approach</I>—(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for the hedged exposure is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The risk-based capital requirement for the exposure as calculated under § 324.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(B) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the protection provider as calculated under § 324.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure would be the greater of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for the protected exposure as calculated under § 324.131, with the LGD of the exposure adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative and EAD set equal to P; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-based capital requirement for a direct exposure to the guarantor as calculated under § 324.131, using the PD for the protection provider, the LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD set equal to P.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the unprotected exposure under § 324.131, where PD is the obligor's PD, LGD is the hedged exposure's LGD (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative), and EAD is the EAD of the original hedged exposure minus P.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>M of hedged exposures.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the M of the hedged exposure is the same as the M of the exposure if it were unhedged.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining its risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligor is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the FDIC-supervised institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the FDIC-supervised institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the FDIC-supervised institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
<SU>31</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>31</SU> For example, where there is a step-up in cost in conjunction with a call feature or where the effective cost of protection increases over time even if credit quality remains the same or improves, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant will be the remaining time to the first call.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: P<E T="52">m</E> = E × (t−0.25)/(T−0.25), where:
</P>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">m</E> equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</P>
<P>(ii) E equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</P>
<P>(iii) t equals the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) T equals the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following adjustment to the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: P<E T="52">r</E> = P<E T="52">m</E> × 0.60, where:
</P>
<P>(1) P<E T="52">r</E> equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(2) P<E T="52">m</E> equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant adjusted for maturity mismatch (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch.</I> (1) If an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: P<E T="52">c</E> = P<E T="52">r</E> × (1−H<E T="52">FX</E>), where:
</P>
<P>(i) P<E T="52">c</E> equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) P<E T="52">r</E> equals effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> equals haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to 8 percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period and daily marking-to-market and remargining. An FDIC-supervised institution qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for:
</P>
<P>(i) The own-estimates haircuts in § 324.132(b)(2)(iii);
</P>
<P>(ii) The simple VaR methodology in § 324.132(b)(3); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The internal models methodology in § 324.132(d).
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the FDIC-supervised institution revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every ten business days using the square root of time formula provided in § 324.132(b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 85 FR 4434, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.135" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.135   Guarantees and credit derivatives: Double default treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility and operational criteria for double default treatment.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of a guarantee or credit derivative covering an exposure described in § 324.134(a)(1) by applying the double default treatment in this section if all the following criteria are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The hedged exposure is fully covered or covered on a pro rata basis by:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible guarantee issued by an eligible double default guarantor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible credit derivative that meets the requirements of § 324.134(b)(2) and that is issued by an eligible double default guarantor.
</P>
<P>(2) The guarantee or credit derivative is:
</P>
<P>(i) An uncollateralized guarantee or uncollateralized credit derivative (for example, a credit default swap) that provides protection with respect to a single reference obligor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An nth-to-default credit derivative (subject to the requirements of § 324.142(m)).
</P>
<P>(3) The hedged exposure is a wholesale exposure (other than a sovereign exposure).
</P>
<P>(4) The obligor of the hedged exposure is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible double default guarantor or an affiliate of an eligible double default guarantor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate of the guarantor.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution does not recognize any credit risk mitigation benefits of the guarantee or credit derivative for the hedged exposure other than through application of the double default treatment as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(6) The FDIC-supervised institution has implemented a process (which has received the prior, written approval of the FDIC) to detect excessive correlation between the creditworthiness of the obligor of the hedged exposure and the protection provider. If excessive correlation is present, the FDIC-supervised institution may not use the double default treatment for the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is at least equal to the EAD of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution may determine its risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If a transaction meets the criteria in paragraph (a) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the EAD of the hedged exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize double default treatment on the protected portion of the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) For the protected exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must set EAD equal to P and calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) For the unprotected exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must set EAD equal to the EAD of the original exposure minus P and then calculate its risk-weighted asset amount as provided in § 324.131.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mismatches.</I> For any hedged exposure to which an FDIC-supervised institution applies double default treatment under this part, the FDIC-supervised institution must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in §§ 324.134(d), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>The double default dollar risk-based capital requirement.</I> The dollar risk-based capital requirement for a hedged exposure to which an FDIC-supervised institution has applied double default treatment is K<E T="52">DD</E> multiplied by the EAD of the exposure. K<E T="52">DD</E> is calculated according to the following formula: K<E T="52">DD</E> = K<E T="52">o</E> × (0.15 + 160 × PD<E T="52">g</E>), 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP>(1) 
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.039.gif"/>
<FP-2>(2) PD<E T="52">g</E> equals PD of the protection provider.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(3) PD<E T="52">o</E> equals PD of the obligor of the hedged exposure.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(4) LGD<E T="52">g</E> equals:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(i) The lower of the LGD of the hedged exposure (not adjusted to reflect the guarantee or credit derivative) and the LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative provides the FDIC-supervised institution with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; or 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(ii) The LGD of the guarantee or credit derivative, if the guarantee or credit derivative does not provide the FDIC-supervised institution with the option to receive immediate payout on triggering the protection; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(5) ρ<E T="52">os</E> (asset value correlation of the obligor) is calculated according to the appropriate formula for (R) provided in Table 1 in § 324.131, with PD equal to PD<E T="52">o</E>.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(6) b (maturity adjustment coefficient) is calculated according to the formula for b provided in Table 1 in § 324.131, with PD equal to the lesser of PD<E T="52">o</E> and PD<E T="52">g</E>; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(7) M (maturity) is the effective maturity of the guarantee or credit derivative, which may not be less than one year or greater than five years.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.136" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.136   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) The positive current exposure of an FDIC-supervised institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the FDIC-supervised institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are subject to daily marking-to-market and daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions (which are addressed in §§ 324.131 and 324.132);
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts (which are addressed in §§ 324.131 and 324.132); or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts and addressed in §§ 324.131 and 324.132).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement or clearing system, or a central counterparty, the FDIC may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the FDIC-supervised institution's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The FDIC-supervised institution must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the FDIC-supervised institution by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 324.136.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.136—Risk Weights for Unsettled DvP and PvP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business days after contractual settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to be applied to positive
<br/>current exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the FDIC-supervised institution has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The FDIC-supervised institution must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the FDIC-supervised institution has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the FDIC-supervised institution has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its risk-based capital requirement for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the FDIC-supervised institution as a wholesale exposure.
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution may use a 45 percent LGD for the transaction rather than estimating LGD for the transaction provided the FDIC-supervised institution uses the 45 percent LGD for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution may use a 100 percent risk weight for the transaction provided the FDIC-supervised institution uses this risk weight for all transactions described in paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC-supervised institution has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after the counterparty delivery was due, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 41425, July 15, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.137-324.140" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.18.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.137-324.140   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="19" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.141" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.141   Operational criteria for recognizing the transfer of risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (a) is satisfied. An FDIC-supervised institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any securitization exposures it retains in connection with the securitization. An FDIC-supervised institution that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the FDIC-supervised institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, an FDIC-supervised institution may recognize for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each of the conditions in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. An FDIC-supervised institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. An FDIC-supervised institution that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must hold risk-based capital under this subpart against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all of the requirements of an eligible guarantee in § 324.2 except for paragraph (3) of the definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all of the requirements of an eligible credit derivative except for paragraph (3) of the definition of eligible guarantee in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the FDIC-supervised institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the FDIC-supervised institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the FDIC-supervised institution in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the FDIC-supervised institution after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 324.142(k), if an FDIC-supervised institution is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the securitization exposure. The FDIC-supervised institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the position in relation to regulatory capital according to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under this section for each securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.142" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.142   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hierarchy of approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section and in § 324.141:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute after tax gain-on-sale;
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the supervisory formula approach in § 324.143 to the exposure if the FDIC-supervised institution and the exposure qualify for the supervisory formula approach according to § 324.143(a);
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach, the FDIC-supervised institution may apply the simplified supervisory formula approach under § 324.144;
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 324.143, and the FDIC-supervised institution does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 324.144, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure; and
</P>
<P>(5) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by an FDIC-supervised institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), an FDIC-supervised institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (e) of this section rather than apply the hierarchy of approaches described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures is equal to the sum of its risk-weighted assets calculated using §§ 324.141 through 146.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may calculate any deduction from common equity tier 1 capital for a securitization exposure net of any DTLs associated with the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maximum risk-based capital requirement.</I> Except as provided in § 324.141(c), unless one or more underlying exposures does not meet the definition of a wholesale, retail, securitization, or equity exposure, the total risk-based capital requirement for all securitization exposures held by a single FDIC-supervised institution associated with a single securitization (excluding any risk-based capital requirements that relate to the FDIC-supervised institution's gain-on-sale or CEIOs associated with the securitization) may not exceed the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's total risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart as if the FDIC-supervised institution directly held the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(2) The total ECL of the underlying exposures calculated under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure.</I> (1) The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction is the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (m) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative), repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure. For an off-balance-sheet securitization exposure to an ABCP program, such as an eligible ABCP liquidity facility, the notional amount may be reduced to the maximum potential amount that the FDIC-supervised institution could be required to fund given the ABCP program's current underlying assets (calculated without regard to the current credit quality of those assets).
</P>
<P>(3) The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) or cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative) is the &gt;EAD of the exposure as calculated in § 324.132 or § 324.133.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage of the underlying exposures of a securitization (such as when an FDIC-supervised institution provides a program-wide credit enhancement and multiple pool-specific liquidity facilities to an ABCP program), the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the FDIC-supervised institution may assign to the overlapping securitization exposure the applicable risk-based capital treatment under this subpart that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Securitizations of non-IRB exposures.</I> Except as provided in § 324.141(c), if an FDIC-supervised institution has a securitization exposure where any underlying exposure is not a wholesale exposure, retail exposure, securitization exposure, or equity exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of any CEIO that does not constitute gain-on-sale, if the FDIC-supervised institution is an originating FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(2) May apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 324.144 to the exposure, if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure if the securitization exposure does not require deduction or a 1,250 percent risk weight under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, does not qualify for the supervisory formula approach in § 324.143, and the FDIC-supervised institution does not apply the simplified supervisory formula approach in § 324.144 to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Implicit support.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution provides support to a securitization in excess of the FDIC-supervised institution's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The regulatory capital impact to the FDIC-supervised institution of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Undrawn portion of a servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) For an FDIC-supervised institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible servicer cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash advance payments that the FDIC-supervised institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12 month period under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions in this part, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with recourse.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subpart E, an FDIC-supervised institution that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) with recourse must include in risk-weighted assets only the contractual amount of retained recourse if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is a sale under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the FDIC-supervised institution's reasonably estimated liability under the recourse arrangement.
</P>
<P>(iii) The loans and leases are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The FDIC-supervised institution is well-capitalized, as defined in subpart H of this part. For purposes of determining whether an FDIC-supervised institution is well capitalized for purposes of this paragraph (k), the FDIC-supervised institution's capital ratios must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of recourse retained by an FDIC-supervised institution on transfers of small-business obligations subject to paragraph (k)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If an FDIC-supervised institution ceases to be well capitalized or exceeds the 15 percent capital limitation in paragraph (k)(2) of this section, the preferential capital treatment specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with recourse that occurred during the time that the FDIC-supervised institution was well capitalized and did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) The risk-based capital ratios of an FDIC-supervised institution must be calculated without regard to the capital treatment for transfers of small-business obligations with recourse specified in paragraph (k)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E>-<I>to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine a risk weight using the supervisory formula approach (SFA) pursuant to § 324.143 or the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) pursuant to § 324.144 for an nth-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (l). In the case of credit protection sold, an FDIC-supervised institution must determine its exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of determining the risk weight for an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative using the SFA or the SSFA, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA to calculate the risk weight for its exposure in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the credit enhancement level (L) input to the SFA formula. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) risk-weighted asset amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of the SFA, parameter D must be set to equal L plus the thickness of tranche T input to the SFA formula.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution that does not use the SFA or the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its exposure in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 324.134(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart for the underlying exposures as if the FDIC-supervised institution synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the lowest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 324.132 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 324.134(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) An FDIC-supervised institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 324.134(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If an FDIC-supervised institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (l)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the bank had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the n
<SU>th</SU> smallest risk-based capital requirement and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 324.132 for a n<E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 324.134(b).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than n</I><E T="53">th</E>-<I>to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an n<E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivative) provided by an FDIC-supervised institution that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution that purchases an OTC credit derivative (other than an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 324.145 as a credit risk mitigant (including via recognized collateral) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 324.131 in accordance with § 324.132(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) If an FDIC-supervised institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 324.145, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 324.132(c).
</P>
<P>(A) If the FDIC-supervised institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to § 324.131.
</P>
<P>(B) If the FDIC-supervised institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this section, including paragraph (a)(5) of this section for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.143" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.143   Supervisory formula approach (SFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must use the SFA to determine its risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure if the FDIC-supervised institution can calculate on an ongoing basis each of the SFA parameters in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mechanics.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure equals its SFA risk-based capital requirement as calculated under paragraph (c) and (d) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The SFA risk-based capital requirement.</I> (1) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than or equal to L + T, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement equals the exposure amount.
</P>
<P>(2) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is less than or equal to L, an exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · T (where F is 0.016 for all securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T] − S[L].
</P>
<P>(3) If K<E T="52">IRB</E> is greater than L and less than L + T, the FDIC-supervised institution must apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to an amount equal to UE · TP · (K<E T="52">IRB</E> − L), and the exposure's SFA risk-based capital requirement is UE multiplied by TP multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) F · (T − (K<E T="52">IRB</E> − L)) (where F is 0.016 for all other securitization exposures); or
</P>
<P>(ii) S[L + T] − S[K<E T="52">IRB</E>].
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The supervisory formula:</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.040.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>SFA parameters.</I> For purposes of the calculations in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount of the underlying exposures (UE).</I> UE is the EAD of any underlying exposures that are wholesale and retail exposures (including the amount of any funded spread accounts, cash collateral accounts, and other similar funded credit enhancements) plus the amount of any underlying exposures that are securitization exposures (as defined in § 324.142(e)) plus the adjusted carrying value of any underlying exposures that are equity exposures (as defined in § 324.151(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tranche percentage (TP</I>). TP is the ratio of the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure to the amount of the tranche that contains the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital requirement on underlying exposures (K</I><E T="54">IRB</E><I>)</I>. (i) K<E T="52">IRB</E> is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the risk-based capital requirements for the underlying exposures plus the expected credit losses of the underlying exposures (as determined under this subpart E as if the underlying exposures were directly held by the FDIC-supervised institution); to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) The calculation of K<E T="52">IRB</E> must reflect the effects of any credit risk mitigant applied to the underlying exposures (either to an individual underlying exposure, to a group of underlying exposures, or to all of the underlying exposures).
</P>
<P>(iii) All assets related to the securitization are treated as underlying exposures, including assets in a reserve account (such as a cash collateral account).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit enhancement level (L).</I> (i) L is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of all securitization exposures subordinated to the tranche that contains the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(B) UE.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must determine L before considering the effects of any tranche-specific credit enhancements.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any gain-on-sale or CEIO associated with the securitization may not be included in L.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any reserve account funded by accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the tranche that contains the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure may be included in the numerator and denominator of L to the extent cash has accumulated in the account. Unfunded reserve accounts (that is, reserve accounts that are to be funded from future cash flows from the underlying exposures) may not be included in the calculation of L.
</P>
<P>(v) In some cases, the purchase price of receivables will reflect a discount that provides credit enhancement (for example, first loss protection) for all or certain tranches of the securitization. When this arises, L should be calculated inclusive of this discount if the discount provides credit enhancement for the securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Thickness of tranche (T).</I> T is the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the tranche that contains the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure; to
</P>
<P>(ii) UE.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effective number of exposures (N).</I> (i) Unless the FDIC-supervised institution elects to use the formula provided in paragraph (f) of this section,
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.041.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>where EAD<E T="52">i</E> represents the EAD associated with the i
<SU>th</SU> instrument in the underlying exposures.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) Multiple exposures to one obligor must be treated as a single underlying exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a resecuritization, the FDIC-supervised institution must treat each underlying exposure as a single underlying exposure and must not look through to the originally securitized underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exposure-weighted average loss given default (EWALGD).</I> EWALGD is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.042.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>where LGD<E T="52">i</E> represents the average LGD associated with all exposures to the i
<SU>th</SU> obligor. In the case of a resecuritization, an LGD of 100 percent must be assumed for the underlying exposures that are themselves securitization exposures.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified method for computing N and EWALGD.</I> (1) If all underlying exposures of a securitization are retail exposures, an FDIC-supervised institution may apply the SFA using the following simplifications:
</P>
<P>(i) h = 0; and
</P>
<P>(ii) v = 0.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the conditions in §§ 324.143(f)(3) and (f)(4), an FDIC-supervised institution may employ a simplified method for calculating N and EWALGD.
</P>
<P>(3) If C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, an FDIC-supervised institution may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, and may set N equal to the following amount:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.043.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(i) C<E T="52">m</E> is the ratio of the sum of the amounts of the `m' largest underlying exposures to UE; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(ii) The level of m is to be selected by the FDIC-supervised institution.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(4) Alternatively, if only C<E T="52">1</E> is available and C<E T="52">1</E> is no more than 0.03, the FDIC-supervised institution may set EWALGD = 0.50 if none of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure, or may set EWALGD = 1 if one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure and may set N = 1/C<E T="52">1</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.144" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.144   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, an FDIC-supervised institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An FDIC-supervised institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, an FDIC-supervised institution must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D of this part. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 324.142(l) for n<E T="53">th</E>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the FDIC-supervised institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 324.142(l) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.044.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.145" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.145   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An originating FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its securitization exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria in § 324.141 may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section. An investing FDIC-supervised institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collateral</I>—(1) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize financial collateral in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure (other than a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, or an OTC derivative contract for which the FDIC-supervised institution has reflected collateral in its determination of exposure amount under § 324.132) as follows. The FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the collateralized securitization exposure is equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as calculated under the SSFA in § 324.144 or under the SFA in § 324.143 multiplied by the ratio of adjusted exposure amount (SE*) to original exposure amount (SE), where:
</P>
<P>(i) SE* equals max {0, [SE − C × (1− H<E T="52">s</E> − H<E T="52">fx</E>)]};
</P>
<P>(ii) SE equals the amount of the securitization exposure calculated under § 324.142(e);
</P>
<P>(iii) C equals the current fair value of the collateral;
</P>
<P>(iv) H<E T="52">s</E> equals the haircut appropriate to the collateral type; and
</P>
<P>(v) H<E T="52">fx</E> equals the haircut appropriate for any currency mismatch between the collateral and the exposure.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.048.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> Unless an FDIC-supervised institution qualifies for use of and uses own-estimates haircuts in paragraph (b)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the collateral type haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E>) in Table 1 to § 324.132 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must use a currency mismatch haircut (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent if the exposure and the collateral are denominated in different currencies;
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the supervisory haircuts obtained in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 6.5 (which equals 2.549510); and
</P>
<P>(iv) An FDIC-supervised institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than 65 business days where and as appropriate to take into account the illiquidity of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Own estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may calculate haircuts using its own internal estimates of market price volatility and foreign exchange volatility, subject to § 324.132(b)(2)(iii). The minimum holding period (T<E T="52">M</E>) for securitization exposures is 65 business days.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Limitations on recognition.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may only recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ECL for securitization exposures.</I> When an FDIC-supervised institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must also:
</P>
<P>(i) Calculate ECL for the protected portion of the exposure using the same risk parameters that it uses for calculating the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure as described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Add the exposure's ECL to the FDIC-supervised institution's total ECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may recognize an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative provided by an eligible guarantor in determining the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative equals or exceeds the amount of the securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 324.131), using the FDIC-supervised institution's PD for the guarantor, the FDIC-supervised institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the amount of the securitization exposure (as determined in § 324.142(e)).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative is less than the amount of the securitization exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution may set the risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Covered portion.</I> The risk-weighted asset amount for a direct exposure to the eligible guarantor (as determined in the wholesale risk weight function described in § 324.131), using the FDIC-supervised institution's PD for the guarantor, the FDIC-supervised institution's LGD for the guarantee or credit derivative, and an EAD equal to the protection amount of the credit risk mitigant; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Uncovered portion.</I> (<I>1</I>) 1.0 minus the ratio of the protection amount of the eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative to the amount of the securitization exposure); multiplied by
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The risk-weighted asset amount for the securitization exposure without the credit risk mitigant (as determined in §§ 324.142 through 324.146).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mismatches.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must make applicable adjustments to the protection amount as required in § 324.134(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure and any more senior securitization exposure that benefits from the hedge. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all the hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.146-324.150" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.19.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.146-324.150   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="20" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.151" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.151   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to investment funds, an FDIC-supervised institution may apply either the Simple Risk Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 324.152 or, if it qualifies to do so, the Internal Models Approach (IMA) in § 324.153. An FDIC-supervised institution must use the look-through approaches provided in § 324.154 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 324.2), as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund as provided in § 324.154.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stable value protection.</I> (i) Stable value protection means a contract where the provider of the contract is obligated to pay:
</P>
<P>(A) The policy owner of a separate account an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and cost basis of the separate account when the policy owner of the separate account surrenders the policy, or
</P>
<P>(B) The beneficiary of the contract an amount equal to the shortfall between the fair value and book value of a specified portfolio of assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution that purchases stable value protection on its investment in a separate account must treat the portion of the carrying value of its investment in the separate account attributable to the stable value protection as an exposure to the provider of the protection and the remaining portion of the carrying value of its separate account as an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution that provides stable value protection must treat the exposure as an equity derivative with an adjusted carrying value determined as the sum of § 324.151(b)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) for a given small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For unfunded equity commitments that are unconditional, the effective notional principal amount is the notional amount of the commitment. For unfunded equity commitments that are conditional, the effective notional principal amount is the FDIC-supervised institution's best estimate of the amount that would be funded under economic downturn conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.152" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.152   Simple risk weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, an FDIC-supervised institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the FDIC-supervised institution's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined in this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the FDIC-supervised institution's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined in § 324.154.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an entity whose credit exposures are exempt from the 0.03 percent PD floor in § 324.131(d)(2) is assigned a zero percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a Federal Home Loan Bank or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) is assigned a 20 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>100 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> The following equity exposures are assigned a 100 percent risk weight:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure that qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act, excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding significant investments in the capital of an unconsolidated institution in the form of common stock and exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the FDIC's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 324.2 and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3)(i), and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If an FDIC-supervised institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the FDIC-supervised institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) When determining which of an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures qualifies for a 100 percent risk weight under this section, an FDIC-supervised institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated small business investment companies or held through consolidated small business investment companies described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act, then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds), and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>250 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> Significant investments in the capital of unconsolidated financial institutions in the form of common stock that are not deducted from capital pursuant to § 324.22(b)(4) are assigned a 250 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>300 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> A publicly traded equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section and including the ineffective portion of a hedge pair) is assigned a 300 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>400 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure (other than an equity exposure described in paragraph (b)(7) of this section) that is not publicly traded is assigned a 400 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>600 percent risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm that:
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization were it not for the FDIC's application of paragraph (8) of that definition in § 324.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage is assigned a 600 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least three months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the FDIC-supervised institution acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the FDIC-supervised institution will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. An FDIC-supervised institution must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the periodic changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals zero. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, between zero and −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.045.gif"/>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then the value of E is zero.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 84 FR 35280, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.153" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.153   Internal models approach (IMA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may calculate its risk-weighted asset amount for equity exposures using the IMA by modeling publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section) or by modeling only publicly traded equity exposures (in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying criteria.</I> To qualify to use the IMA to calculate risk-weighted assets for equity exposures, an FDIC-supervised institution must receive prior written approval from the FDIC. To receive such approval, the FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate to the FDIC's satisfaction that the FDIC-supervised institution meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution must have one or more models that:
</P>
<P>(i) Assess the potential decline in value of its modeled equity exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are commensurate with the size, complexity, and composition of the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequately capture both general market risk and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's model must produce an estimate of potential losses for its modeled equity exposures that is no less than the estimate of potential losses produced by a VaR methodology employing a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval of the distribution of quarterly returns for a benchmark portfolio of equity exposures comparable to the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures using a long-term sample period.
</P>
<P>(3) The number of risk factors and exposures in the sample and the data period used for quantification in the FDIC-supervised institution's model and benchmarking exercise must be sufficient to provide confidence in the accuracy and robustness of the FDIC-supervised institution's estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution's model and benchmarking process must incorporate data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures, and must include data from at least one equity market cycle containing adverse market movements relevant to the risk profile of the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures. In addition, the FDIC-supervised institution's benchmarking exercise must be based on daily market prices for the benchmark portfolio. If the FDIC-supervised institution's model uses a scenario methodology, the FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate that the model produces a conservative estimate of potential losses on the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures over a relevant long-term market cycle. If the FDIC-supervised institution employs risk factor models, the FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate through empirical analysis the appropriateness of the risk factors used.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to demonstrate, using theoretical arguments and empirical evidence, that any proxies used in the modeling process are comparable to the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures and that the FDIC-supervised institution has made appropriate adjustments for differences. The FDIC-supervised institution must derive any proxies for its modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio using historical market data that are relevant to the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures and benchmark portfolio (or, where not, must use appropriately adjusted data), and such proxies must be robust estimates of the risk of the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for an FDIC-supervised institution using the IMA for publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution models publicly traded and non-publicly traded equity exposures, the FDIC-supervised institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 324.152) and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 324.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section) generated by the FDIC-supervised institution's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the FDIC-supervised institution's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund;
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs; and
</P>
<P>(C) 300 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures that are not publicly traded, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Risk-weighted assets calculation for an FDIC-supervised institution using the IMA only for publicly traded equity exposures.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution models only publicly traded equity exposures, the FDIC-supervised institution's aggregate risk-weighted asset amount for its equity exposures is equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk-weighted asset amount of each equity exposure that qualifies for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under §§ 324.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i) (as determined under § 324.152), each equity exposure that qualifies for a 400 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(5) or a 600 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(6) (as determined under § 324.152), and each equity exposure to an investment fund (as determined under § 324.154); and
</P>
<P>(2) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The estimate of potential losses on the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposures (other than equity exposures referenced in paragraph (d)(1) of this section) generated by the FDIC-supervised institution's internal equity exposure model multiplied by 12.5; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate adjusted carrying value of the FDIC-supervised institution's publicly traded equity exposures that do not belong to a hedge pair, do not qualify for a 0 percent, 20 percent, or 100 percent risk weight under § 324.152(b)(1) through (b)(3)(i), and are not equity exposures to an investment fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) 200 percent multiplied by the aggregate ineffective portion of all hedge pairs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.154" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.154   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) Unless the exposure meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 324.152(b)(3)(i), an FDIC-supervised institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alternative modified look-through approach in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund that meets the requirements for a community development equity exposure in § 324.152(b)(3)(i) is its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the FDIC-supervised institution does not use the full look-through approach, the FDIC-supervised institution may use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 324.152(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart E of this part as if the proportional ownership share of each exposure were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution) may either:
</P>
<P>(1) Set the risk-weighted asset amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's proportional ownership share of the fund; or
</P>
<P>(2) Include the FDIC-supervised institution's proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the fund in the FDIC-supervised institution's IMA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for an FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight assigned according to subpart D of this part that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under its prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under this approach, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories assigned according to subpart D of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the FDIC-supervised institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure class multiplied by the applicable risk weight. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest risk weight under subpart D of this part, and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest risk weight under subpart D of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the FDIC-supervised institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. An FDIC-supervised institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.155" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.155   Equity derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the IMA, in addition to holding risk-based capital against an equity derivative contract under this part, an FDIC-supervised institution must hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk in the equity derivative contract by also treating the equity derivative contract as a wholesale exposure and computing a supplemental risk-weighted asset amount for the contract under § 324.132.
</P>
<P>(b) Under the SRWA, an FDIC-supervised institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of equity derivative contracts, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualified master netting agreement, an FDIC-supervised institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.161-324.160" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.20.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.161-324.160   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Operational Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.161" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.21.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.161   Qualification requirements for incorporation of operational risk mitigants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualification to use operational risk mitigants.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may adjust its estimate of operational risk exposure to reflect qualifying operational risk mitigants if:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk quantification system is able to generate an estimate of the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure (which does not incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants) and an estimate of the FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure adjusted to incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's methodology for incorporating the effects of insurance, if the FDIC-supervised institution uses insurance as an operational risk mitigant, captures through appropriate discounts to the amount of risk mitigation:
</P>
<P>(i) The residual term of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancellation terms of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) The policy's timeliness of payment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The uncertainty of payment by the provider of the policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mismatches in coverage between the policy and the hedged operational loss event.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying operational risk mitigants.</I> Qualifying operational risk mitigants are:
</P>
<P>(1) Insurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by an unaffiliated company that the FDIC-supervised institution deems to have strong capacity to meet its claims payment obligations and the obligor rating category to which the FDIC-supervised institution assigns the company is assigned a PD equal to or less than 10 basis points;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an initial term of at least one year and a residual term of more than 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a minimum notice period for cancellation by the provider of 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no exclusions or limitations based upon regulatory action or for the receiver or liquidator of a failed depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explicitly mapped to a potential operational loss event;
</P>
<P>(2) Operational risk mitigants other than insurance for which the FDIC has given prior written approval. In evaluating an operational risk mitigant other than insurance, the FDIC will consider whether the operational risk mitigant covers potential operational losses in a manner equivalent to holding total capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.162" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.21.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.162   Mechanics of risk-weighted asset calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an FDIC-supervised institution does not qualify to use or does not have qualifying operational risk mitigants, the FDIC-supervised institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is its operational risk exposure minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(b) If an FDIC-supervised institution qualifies to use operational risk mitigants and has qualifying operational risk mitigants, the FDIC-supervised institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure adjusted for qualifying operational risk mitigants minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any); or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.8 multiplied by the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution's operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for operational risk equals the FDIC-supervised institution's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk determined under sections 162(a) or (b) multiplied by 12.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.163-324.170" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.21.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.163-324.170   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.171" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.22.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.171   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>§§ 324.171 through 324.173 establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements of an FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.172" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.22.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.172   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d) must publicly disclose each quarter its total and tier 1 risk-based capital ratios and their components as calculated under this subpart (that is, common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, total qualifying capital, and total risk-weighted assets).
</P>
<P>(b) An FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to section § 324.121(d) must comply with paragraph (c) of this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An FDIC-supervised institution described in paragraph (b) of this section must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 324.173. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the FDIC-supervised institution's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes to these are disclosed in the interim. Management may provide all of the disclosures required by this subpart in one place on the FDIC-supervised institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution described in paragraph (b) of this section must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. One or more senior officers of the FDIC-supervised institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) If an FDIC-supervised institution described in paragraph (b) of this section believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to disclose those specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) An FDIC-supervised institution that meets any of the criteria in § 324.100(b)(1) before January 1, 2015, must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part, beginning with the first quarter in 2015. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the FDIC-supervised institution has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d).
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that meets any of the criteria in § 324.100(b)(1) on or after January 1, 2015, or a Category III FDIC-supervised institution must publicly disclose each quarter its supplementary leverage ratio and the components thereof (that is, tier 1 capital and total leverage exposure) as calculated under subpart B of this part beginning with the calendar quarter immediately following the quarter in which the FDIC-supervised institution becomes an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution or a Category III FDIC-supervised institution. This disclosure requirement applies without regard to whether the FDIC-supervised institution has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57750, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41425, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.173" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.22.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.173   Disclosures by certain advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institutions and Category III FDIC-supervised institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.172(b) must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 324.173.
</P>
<P>(2) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution and a Category III FDIC-supervised institution that is required to publicly disclose its supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 324.172(d) must make the disclosures required under Table 13 to this section unless the FDIC-supervised institution is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or depository institution that is subject to these disclosure requirements or a subsidiary of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosures described in Tables 1 through 12 to § 324.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2014, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the FDIC-supervised institution has completed the parallel run process and received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d). The disclosures described in Table 13 to § 324.173 must be made publicly available for twelve consecutive quarters beginning on January 1, 2015, or a shorter period, as applicable, for the quarters after the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to the disclosure of the supplementary leverage ratio pursuant to § 324.172(d) and § 324.173(a)(2).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.173—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which subpart E of this part applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities 
<sup>1</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
<br/>(1) That are fully consolidated;
<br/>(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
<br/>(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
<br/>(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart E).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount of surplus capital of insurance subsidiaries included in the total capital of the consolidated group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Such entities include securities, insurance and other financial subsidiaries, commercial subsidiaries (where permitted), and significant minority equity investments in insurance, financial and commercial entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 324.173—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Common stock and related surplus;
<br/>(2) Retained earnings;
<br/>(3) Common equity minority interest;
<br/>(4) AOCI (net of tax) and other reserves; and
<br/>(5) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
<br/>(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
<br/>(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments and total capital minority interest not included in tier 1 capital; and
<br/>(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the FDIC-supervised institution has elected to phase in recognition of the transitional amounts as defined in § 324.300(f)
<br/>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital, tier 1 capital, and total capital without including the transitional amounts as defined in § 324.300(f).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 324.173—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A summary discussion of the FDIC-supervised institution's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for credit risk from:
<br/>(1) Wholesale exposures;
<br/>(2) Residential mortgage exposures;
<br/>(3) Qualifying revolving exposures;
<br/>(4) Other retail exposures;
<br/>(5) Securitization exposures;
<br/>(6) Equity exposures:
<br/>(7) Equity exposures subject to the simple risk weight approach; and
<br/>(8) Equity exposures subject to the internal models approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Standardized market risk-weighted assets and advanced market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part:
<br/>(1) Standardized approach for specific risk; and
<br/>(2) Internal models approach for specific risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Risk-weighted assets for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the transition provisions described in § 324.300(f):
<br/>(A) For the top consolidated group; and
<br/>(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios reflecting the full adoption of CECL:
<br/>(1) For the top consolidated group; and
<br/>(2) For each depository institution subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 324.173—Capital Conservation and Countercyclical Capital Buffers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The FDIC-supervised institution must publicly disclose the geographic breakdown of its private sector credit exposures used in the calculation of the countercyclical capital buffer.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer as described under § 324.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose the buffer retained income of the FDIC-supervised institution, as described under § 324.11 of subpart B.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">At least quarterly, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital conservation buffer and the countercyclical capital buffer framework described under § 324.11 of subpart B, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in Tables 5 through 12 to § 324.173, the FDIC-supervised institution must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Strategies and processes;
</P>
<P>(2) The structure and organization of the relevant risk management function;
</P>
<P>(3) The scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; and
</P>
<P>(4) Policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5
<sup>1</sup> to § 324.173—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 7 to § 324.173), including:
<br/>(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
<br/>(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
<br/>(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
<br/>(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes).
<br/>(5) Description of the methodology that the entity uses to estimate its allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, including statistical methods used where applicable;
<br/>(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
<br/>(7) Discussion of the FDIC-supervised institution's credit risk management policy
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP,
<sup>2</sup> without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, FDIC-supervised institutions could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
<br/>(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
<br/>(2) Debt securities; and
<br/>(3) OTC derivatives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Geographic 
<sup>3</sup> distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">By major industry or counterparty type:
<br/>(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
<br/>(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
<br/>(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
<br/>(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>
<br/>(5) The balance in the allowance for loan and lease losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as applicable, at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of the entity's impairment method. To disaggregate the information required on the basis of impairment methodology, an entity shall separately disclose the amounts based on the requirements in GAAP; and
<br/>(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reconciliation of changes in ALLL or AACL, as applicable.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity breakdown (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 5 to § 324.173 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9 to § 324.173.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See,</E> for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210-20, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Geographical areas may comprise individual countries, groups of countries, or regions within countries. An FDIC-supervised institution might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the company's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: a description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated probable loan losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 324.173—Credit Risk: Disclosures for Portfolios Subject to IRB Risk-Based Capital Formulas
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Explanation and review of the:
<br/>(1) Structure of internal rating systems and if the FDIC-supervised institution considers external ratings, the relation between internal and external ratings;
<br/>(2) Use of risk parameter estimates other than for regulatory capital purposes;
<br/>(3) Process for managing and recognizing credit risk mitigation (see Table 8 to § 324.173); and
<br/>(4) Control mechanisms for the rating system, including discussion of independence, accountability, and rating systems review.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Description of the internal ratings process, provided separately for the following:
<br/>(i) Wholesale category;
<br/>(ii) Retail subcategories;
<br/>(iii) Residential mortgage exposures;
<br/>(iv) Qualifying revolving exposures; and
<br/>(v) Other retail exposures.
<br/>(2) For each category and subcategory above the description should include:
<br/>(i) The types of exposure included in the category/subcategories; and
<br/>(ii) The definitions, methods and data for estimation and validation of PD, LGD, and EAD, including assumptions employed in the derivation of these variables.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: risk assessment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) For wholesale exposures, present the following information across a sufficient number of PD grades (including default) to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk: 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(i) Total EAD; 
<sup>3</sup>
<br/>(ii) Exposure-weighted average LGD (percentage);
<br/>(iii) Exposure-weighted average risk weight; and
<br/>(iv) Amount of undrawn commitments and exposure-weighted average EAD including average drawdowns prior to default for wholesale exposures.
<br/>(2) For each retail subcategory, present the disclosures outlined above across a sufficient number of segments to allow for a meaningful differentiation of credit risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures: historical results</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Actual losses in the preceding period for each category and subcategory and how this differs from past experience. A discussion of the factors that impacted the loss experience in the preceding period—for example, has the FDIC-supervised institution experienced higher than average default rates, loss rates or EADs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The FDIC-supervised institution's estimates compared against actual outcomes over a longer period.
<sup>4</sup> At a minimum, this should include information on estimates of losses against actual losses in the wholesale category and each retail subcategory over a period sufficient to allow for a meaningful assessment of the performance of the internal rating processes for each category/subcategory.
<sup>5</sup> Where appropriate, the FDIC-supervised institution should further decompose this to provide analysis of PD, LGD, and EAD outcomes against estimates provided in the quantitative risk assessment disclosures above.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This disclosure item does not require a detailed description of the model in full—it should provide the reader with a broad overview of the model approach, describing definitions of the variables and methods for estimating and validating those variables set out in the quantitative risk disclosures below. This should be done for each of the four category/subcategories. The FDIC-supervised institution must disclose any significant differences in approach to estimating these variables within each category/subcategories.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The PD, LGD and EAD disclosures in Table 6 (c) to § 324.173 should reflect the effects of collateral, qualifying master netting agreements, eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives as defined under this part. Disclosure of each PD grade should include the exposure-weighted average PD for each grade. Where an FDIC-supervised institution aggregates PD grades for the purposes of disclosure, this should be a representative breakdown of the distribution of PD grades used for regulatory capital purposes.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Outstanding loans and EAD on undrawn commitments can be presented on a combined basis for these disclosures.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> These disclosures are a way of further informing the reader about the reliability of the information provided in the “quantitative disclosures: risk assessment” over the long run. The disclosures are requirements from year-end 2010; in the meantime, early adoption is encouraged. The phased implementation is to allow an FDIC-supervised institution sufficient time to build up a longer run of data that will make these disclosures meaningful.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> This disclosure item is not intended to be prescriptive about the period used for this assessment. Upon implementation, it is expected that an FDIC-supervised institution would provide these disclosures for as long a set of data as possible—for example, if an FDIC-supervised institution has 10 years of data, it might choose to disclose the average default rates for each PD grade over that 10-year period. Annual amounts need not be disclosed.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution must provide this further decomposition where it will allow users greater insight into the reliability of the estimates provided in the “quantitative disclosures: risk assessment.” In particular, it must provide this information where there are material differences between its estimates of PD, LGD or EAD compared to actual outcomes over the long run. The FDIC-supervised institution must also provide explanations for such differences.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 324.173—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk of OTC Derivative Contracts, Repo-Style Transactions, and Eligible Margin Loans
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including:
<br/>(1) Discussion of methodology used to assign economic capital and credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
<br/>(2) Discussion of policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
<br/>(3) Discussion of the primary types of collateral taken;
<br/>(4) Discussion of policies with respect to wrong-way risk exposures; and
<br/>(5) Discussion of the impact of the amount of collateral the FDIC-supervised institution would have to provide if the FDIC-supervised institution were to receive a credit rating downgrade.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gross positive fair value of contracts, netting benefits, netted current credit exposure, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> Also report measures for EAD used for regulatory capital for these transactions, the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection, and, for FDIC-supervised institutions not using the internal models methodology in § 324.132(d), the distribution of current credit exposure by types of credit exposure.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the FDIC-supervised institution's own credit portfolio and for its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The estimate of alpha if the FDIC-supervised institution has received supervisory approval to estimate alpha.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements, without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 324.173—Credit Risk Mitigation
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
<br/>(1) Policies and processes for, and an indication of the extent to which the FDIC-supervised institution uses, on- or off-balance sheet netting;
<br/>(2) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
<br/>(3) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the FDIC-supervised institution;
<br/>(4) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
<br/>(5) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations within the mitigation taken.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure (after, where applicable, on- or off-balance sheet netting) that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, an FDIC-supervised institution must provide the disclosures in Table 8 to § 324.173 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, FDIC-supervised institutions are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives and other credit mitigation that are treated for the purposes of this subpart as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures (in Table 8 to § 324.173) and included within those relating to securitization (in Table 9 to § 324.173).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 324.173—Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
<br/>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the FDIC-supervised institution to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(2) The nature of the risks (e.g. liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
<br/>(3) The roles played by the FDIC-supervised institution in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the FDIC-supervised institution's involvement in each of them;
<br/>(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
<br/>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
<br/>(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the FDIC-supervised institution follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A list of:
<br/>(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the FDIC-supervised institution, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The FDIC-supervised institution must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off- balance sheet; and
<br/>(2) Affiliated entities:
<br/>(i) That the FDIC-supervised institution manages or advises; and
<br/>(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the FDIC-supervised institution has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the FDIC-supervised institution sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of the FDIC-supervised institution's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
<br/>(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
<br/>(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
<br/>(3) Methods and key assumptions and inputs applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
<br/>(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions and inputs from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
<br/>(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
<br/>(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart E of this part; and
<br/>(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the FDIC-supervised institution to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An explanation of significant changes to any of the quantitative information set forth below since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total outstanding exposures securitized 
<sup>4</sup> by the FDIC-supervised institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 324.141 (categorized into traditional/synthetic), by underlying exposure type 
<sup>5</sup> separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the FDIC-supervised institution acts only as sponsor.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For exposures securitized by the FDIC-supervised institution in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 324.141:
<br/>(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired 
<sup>6</sup>/past due categorized by exposure type; and
<br/>(2) Losses recognized by the FDIC-supervised institution during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>7</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of:
<br/>(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
<br/>(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (e.g. SA, SFA, or SSFA).
<br/>(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by asset type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
<br/>(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
<br/>(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The FDIC-supervised institution must describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description must be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the FDIC-supervised institution is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles would include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> For example, money market mutual funds should be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, should be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the FDIC-supervised institution, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the FDIC-supervised institution from third-party entities) in which the originating bank does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution is required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> An FDIC-supervised institution must include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of I/O strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the FDIC-supervised institution with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 324.173—Operational Risk
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the AMA, including a discussion of relevant internal and external factors considered in the FDIC-supervised institution's measurement approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A description of the use of insurance for the purpose of mitigating operational risk.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to § 324.173—Equities Not Subject to Subpart F of This Part
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to the equity risk of equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part, including:
<br/>(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those held for other objectives, including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
<br/>(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings not subject to subpart F of this part. This includes the accounting methodology and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Carrying value on the balance sheet of equity investments, as well as the fair value of those investments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
<br/>(1) Publicly traded; and
<br/>(2) Non-publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Total unrealized gains (losses) 
<sup>1</sup>
<br/>(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses) 
<sup>2</sup>
<br/>(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 and/or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the FDIC-supervised institution's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding total capital requirements.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized in the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either in the balance sheet or through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> This disclosure must include a breakdown of equities that are subject to the 0 percent, 20 percent, 100 percent, 300 percent, 400 percent, and 600 percent risk weights, as applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to § 324.173—Interest Rate Risk for Non-trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 324.172(b), an FDIC-supervised institution described in § 324.172(d) must make the disclosures described in Table 13 to § 324.173; provided, however, the disclosures required under this paragraph are required without regard to whether the FDIC-supervised institution has completed the parallel run process and has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d). The FDIC-supervised institution must make these disclosures publicly available beginning on January 1, 2015.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to § 324.173—Supplementary Leverage Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Dollar amounts in thousands
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tril
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thou
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 1: Summary comparison of accounting assets and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 Total consolidated assets as reported in published financial statements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 Adjustment for investments in banking, financial, insurance or commercial entities that are consolidated for accounting purposes but outside the scope of regulatory consolidation
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Adjustment for fiduciary assets recognized on balance sheet but excluded from total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Adjustment for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Adjustment for repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Adjustment for off-balance sheet exposures (that is, conversion to credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet exposures)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 Other adjustments
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 Total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 2: Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">On-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 On-balance sheet assets (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 LESS: Amounts deducted from tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Total on-balance sheet exposures (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions) (sum of lines 1 and 2)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Derivative exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Current exposure for derivative exposures (that is, net of cash variation margin)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Add-on amounts for potential future exposure (PFE) for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Gross-up for cash collateral posted if deducted from the on-balance sheet assets, except for cash variation margin
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 LESS: Deductions of receivable assets for cash variation margin posted in derivative transactions, if included in on-balance sheet assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 LESS: Exempted CCP leg of client-cleared transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 Effective notional principal amount of sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 LESS: Effective notional principal amount offsets and PFE adjustments for sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Total derivative exposures (sum of lines 4 to 10)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Repo-style transactions</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 On-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions, except include the gross value of receivables for reverse repurchase transactions. Exclude from this item the value of securities received in a security-for-security repo-style transaction where the securities lender has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received. Include in this item the value of securities that qualified for sales treatment that must be reversed
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 LESS: Reduction of the gross value of receivables in reverse repurchase transactions by cash payables in repurchase transactions under netting agreements
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 Counterparty credit risk for all repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 Exposure for repo-style transactions where a banking organization acts as an agent
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 Total exposures for repo-style transactions (sum of lines 12 to 15)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Other off-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 Off-balance sheet exposures at gross notional amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 LESS: Adjustments for conversion to credit equivalent amounts
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19 Off-balance sheet exposures (sum of lines 17 and 18)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Capital and total leverage exposure</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 Tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 Total leverage exposure (sum of lines 3, 11, 16 and 19)
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">Supplementary leverage ratio</E>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22 Supplementary leverage ratio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">(in percent)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 57750, Sept. 26, 2014; 80 FR 41425, July 15, 2015; 84 FR 4247, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 4442, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.174-324.200" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.5.22.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.174-324.200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Risk-Weighted Assets—Market Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.201" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.201   Purpose, applicability, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart F establishes risk-based capital requirements for FDIC-supervised institutions with significant exposure to market risk, provides methods for these FDIC-supervised institutions to calculate their standardized measure for market risk and, if applicable, advanced measure for market risk, and establishes public disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart F applies to any FDIC-supervised institution with aggregate trading assets and trading liabilities (as reported in the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent quarterly Call Report), equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 percent or more of quarter-end total assets as reported on the most recent quarterly Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $1 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may apply this subpart to any FDIC-supervised institution if the FDIC deems it necessary or appropriate because of the level of market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution or to ensure safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may exclude an FDIC-supervised institution that meets the criteria of paragraph (b)(1) of this section from application of this subpart if the FDIC determines that the exclusion is appropriate based on the level of market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution and is consistent with safe and sound banking practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority</I> (1) The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under this subpart if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirement for market risk as calculated under this subpart is not commensurate with the market risk of the FDIC-supervised institution's covered positions. In making determinations under paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(3) of this section, the FDIC will apply notice and response procedures generally in the same manner as the notice and response procedures set forth in § 324.5(c).
</P>
<P>(2) If the FDIC determines that the risk-based capital requirement calculated under this subpart by the FDIC-supervised institution for one or more covered positions or portfolios of covered positions is not commensurate with the risks associated with those positions or portfolios, the FDIC may require the FDIC-supervised institution to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to the positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may also require an FDIC-supervised institution to calculate risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under this subpart, or under subpart D or subpart E of this part, as appropriate, to more accurately reflect the risks of the positions.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.202" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms set forth in § 324.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 324.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of an FDIC-supervised institution's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. For purposes of this subpart, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in the price of a commodity.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate debt position</I> means a debt position that is an exposure to a company that is not a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank, a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, a public sector entity, a GSE, or a securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Correlation trading position</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A securitization position for which all or substantially all of the value of the underlying exposures is based on the credit quality of a single company for which a two-way market exists, or on commonly traded indices based on such exposures for which a two-way market exists on the indices; or
</P>
<P>(2) A position that is not a securitization position and that hedges a position described in paragraph (1) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(3) A correlation trading position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A resecuritization position;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative of a securitization position that does not provide a pro rata share in the proceeds of a securitization tranche; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A securitization position for which the underlying assets or reference exposures are retail exposures, residential mortgage exposures, or commercial mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Covered position</I> means the following positions:
</P>
<P>(1) A trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet),
<SU>32</SU>
<FTREF/> as reported on Call Report, that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>32</SU> Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the lender.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The position is a trading position or hedges another covered position; 
<SU>33</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>33</SU> A position that hedges a trading position must be within the scope of the bank's hedging strategy as described in paragraph (a)(2) of § 324.203.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The position is free of any restrictive covenants on its tradability or the FDIC-supervised institution is able to hedge the material risk elements of the position in a two-way market;
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign exchange or commodity position, regardless of whether the position is a trading asset or trading liability (excluding any structural foreign currency positions that the FDIC-supervised institution chooses to exclude with prior supervisory approval); and
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, a covered position does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) An intangible asset, including any servicing asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any hedge of a trading position that the FDIC determines to be outside the scope of the FDIC-supervised institution's hedging strategy required in paragraph (a)(2) of § 324.203;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any position that, in form or substance, acts as a liquidity facility that provides support to asset-backed commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(iv) A credit derivative the FDIC-supervised institution recognizes as a guarantee for risk-weighted asset amount calculation purposes under subpart D or subpart E of this part;
</P>
<P>(v) Any position that is recognized as a credit valuation adjustment hedge under § 324.132(e)(5) or § 324.132(e)(6), except as provided in § 324.132(e)(6)(vii);
</P>
<P>(vi) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an investment company as defined in and registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act, provided that all the underlying equities held by the investment company are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any equity position that is not publicly traded, other than a derivative that references a publicly traded equity and other than a position in an entity not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraph (3)(vi) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any position an FDIC-supervised institution holds with the intent to securitize; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Any direct real estate holding.
</P>
<P><I>Debt position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in interest rates or credit spreads.
</P>
<P><I>Default by a sovereign entity</I> has the same meaning as the term sovereign default under § 324.2.
</P>
<P><I>Equity position</I> means a covered position that is not a securitization position or a correlation trading position and that has a value that reacts primarily to changes in equity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Event risk</I> means the risk of loss on equity or hybrid equity positions as a result of a financial event, such as the announcement or occurrence of a company merger, acquisition, spin-off, or dissolution.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange position</I> means a position for which price risk arises from changes in foreign exchange rates.
</P>
<P><I>General market risk</I> means the risk of loss that could result from broad market movements, such as changes in the general level of interest rates, credit spreads, equity prices, foreign exchange rates, or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Hedge</I> means a position or positions that offset all, or substantially all, of one or more material risk factors of another position.
</P>
<P><I>Idiosyncratic risk</I> means the risk of loss in the value of a position that arises from changes in risk factors unique to that position.
</P>
<P><I>Incremental risk</I> means the default risk and credit migration risk of a position. Default risk means the risk of loss on a position that could result from the failure of an obligor to make timely payments of principal or interest on its debt obligation, and the risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar proceeding. Credit migration risk means the price risk that arises from significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the position.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from movements in market prices.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches that reflect different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) For non-synthetic securitizations, the underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24(Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) The FDIC may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The FDIC may deem an exposure to a transaction that meets the definition of a securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in 12 CFR 344.3 (state nonmember bank) and 12 CFR 390.203 (state savings association));
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA, a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 USC 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization position</I> means a covered position that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a securitization (including a resecuritization); or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign debt position</I> means a direct exposure to a sovereign entity.
</P>
<P><I>Specific risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from factors other than broad market movements and includes event risk, default risk, and idiosyncratic risk.
</P>
<P><I>Structural position in a foreign currency</I> means a position that is not a trading position and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Subordinated debt, equity, or minority interest in a consolidated subsidiary that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Capital assigned to foreign branches that is denominated in a foreign currency;
</P>
<P>(3) A position related to an unconsolidated subsidiary or another item that is denominated in a foreign currency and that is deducted from the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 or tier 2 capital; or
</P>
<P>(4) A position designed to hedge an FDIC-supervised institution's capital ratios or earnings against the effect on paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of this definition of adverse exchange rate movements.
</P>
<P><I>Term repo-style transaction</I> means a repo-style transaction that has an original maturity in excess of one business day.
</P>
<P><I>Trading position</I> means a position that is held by the FDIC-supervised institution for the purpose of short-term resale or with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements, or to lock in arbitrage profits.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more positions could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 84 FR 35280, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4434, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.203" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.203   Requirements for application of this subpart F.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Trading positions</I>—(1) <I>Identification of trading positions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must have clearly defined policies and procedures for determining which of its trading assets and trading liabilities are trading positions and which of its trading positions are correlation trading positions. These policies and procedures must take into account:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent to which a position, or a hedge of its material risks, can be marked-to-market daily by reference to a two-way market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Possible impairments to the liquidity of a position or its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading and hedging strategies.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must have clearly defined trading and hedging strategies for its trading positions that are approved by senior management of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(i) The trading strategy must articulate the expected holding period of, and the market risk associated with, each portfolio of trading positions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The hedging strategy must articulate for each portfolio of trading positions the level of market risk the FDIC-supervised institution is willing to accept and must detail the instruments, techniques, and strategies the FDIC-supervised institution will use to hedge the risk of the portfolio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management of covered positions</I>—(1) <I>Active management.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must have clearly defined policies and procedures for actively managing all covered positions. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must require:
</P>
<P>(i) Marking positions to market or to model on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Daily assessment of the FDIC-supervised institution's ability to hedge position and portfolio risks, and of the extent of market liquidity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishment and daily monitoring of limits on positions by a risk control unit independent of the trading business unit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Daily monitoring by senior management of information described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (b)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) At least annual reassessment of established limits on positions by senior management; and
</P>
<P>(vi) At least annual assessments by qualified personnel of the quality of market inputs to the valuation process, the soundness of key assumptions, the reliability of parameter estimation in pricing models, and the stability and accuracy of model calibration under alternative market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valuation of covered positions.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a process for prudent valuation of its covered positions that includes policies and procedures on the valuation of positions, marking positions to market or to model, independent price verification, and valuation adjustments or reserves. The valuation process must consider, as appropriate, unearned credit spreads, close-out costs, early termination costs, investing and funding costs, liquidity, and model risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for internal models.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior written approval of the FDIC before using any internal model to calculate its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must meet all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis. The FDIC-supervised institution must promptly notify the FDIC when:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution plans to extend the use of a model that the FDIC has approved under this subpart to an additional business line or product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution makes any change to an internal model approved by the FDIC under this subpart that would result in a material change in the FDIC-supervised institution's risk-weighted asset amount for a portfolio of covered positions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution makes any material change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may rescind its approval of the use of any internal model (in whole or in part) or of the determination of the approach under § 324.209(a)(2)(ii) for an FDIC-supervised institution's modeled correlation trading positions and determine an appropriate capital requirement for the covered positions to which the model would apply, if the FDIC determines that the model no longer complies with this subpart or fails to reflect accurately the risks of the FDIC-supervised institution's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its internal models in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance those models as appropriate to ensure that they continue to meet the FDIC's standards for model approval and employ risk measurement methodologies that are most appropriate for the FDIC-supervised institution's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must incorporate its internal models into its risk management process and integrate the internal models used for calculating its VaR-based measure into its daily risk management process.
</P>
<P>(6) The level of sophistication of an FDIC-supervised institution's internal models must be commensurate with the complexity and amount of its covered positions. An FDIC-supervised institution's internal models may use any of the generally accepted approaches, including but not limited to variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, to measure market risk.
</P>
<P>(7) The FDIC-supervised institution's internal models must properly measure all the material risks in the covered positions to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>(8) The FDIC-supervised institution's internal models must conservatively assess the risks arising from less liquid positions and positions with limited price transparency under realistic market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(9) The FDIC-supervised institution must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal models to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(10) If an FDIC-supervised institution uses internal models to measure specific risk, the internal models must also satisfy the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of § 324.207.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The FDIC-supervised institution must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must validate its internal models initially and on an ongoing basis. The FDIC-supervised institution's validation process must be independent of the internal models' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the internal models;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and the comparison of the FDIC-supervised institution's model outputs with relevant internal and external data sources or estimation techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting. For internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure, this process must include a comparison of the changes in the FDIC-supervised institution's portfolio value that would have occurred were end-of-day positions to remain unchanged (therefore, excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with VaR-based measures during a sample period not used in model development.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution must stress test the market risk of its covered positions at a frequency appropriate to each portfolio, and in no case less frequently than quarterly. The stress tests must take into account concentration risk (including but not limited to concentrations in single issuers, industries, sectors, or markets), illiquidity under stressed market conditions, and risks arising from the FDIC-supervised institution's trading activities that may not be adequately captured in its internal models.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the FDIC-supervised institution's market risk measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and independent risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the FDIC-supervised institution's measures for market risk under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the FDIC-supervised institution's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal assessment of capital adequacy.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its market risk. The assessment must take into account risks that may not be captured fully in the VaR-based measure, including concentration and liquidity risk under stressed market conditions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Documentation.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must adequately document all material aspects of its internal models, management and valuation of covered positions, control, oversight, validation and review processes and results, and internal assessment of capital adequacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.204" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.204   Measure for market risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its standardized measure for market risk by following the steps described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution also must calculate an advanced measure for market risk by following the steps in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measure for market risk.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the standardized measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures all as defined under this paragraph (a)(2), (except, that the FDIC-supervised institution may not use the SFA in § 324.210(b)(2)(vii)(B) for purposes of this calculation), plus any additional capital requirement established by the FDIC. An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notifications from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d) also must calculate the advanced measure for market risk, which equals the sum of the VaR-based capital requirement, stressed VaR-based capital requirement, specific risk add-ons, incremental risk capital requirement, comprehensive risk capital requirement, and capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures as defined under this paragraph (a)(2), plus any additional capital requirement established by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>VaR-based capital requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The previous day's VaR-based measure as calculated under § 324.205; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the daily VaR-based measures as calculated under § 324.205 for each of the preceding 60 business days multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stressed VaR-based capital requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's stressed VaR-based capital requirement equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent stressed VaR-based measure as calculated under § 324.206; or
</P>
<P>(B) The average of the stressed VaR-based measures as calculated under § 324.206 for each of the preceding 12 weeks multiplied by three, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Specific risk add-ons.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk add-ons equal any specific risk add-ons that are required under § 324.207 and are calculated in accordance with § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Incremental risk capital requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's incremental risk capital requirement equals any incremental risk capital requirement as calculated under § 324.208.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's comprehensive risk capital requirement equals any comprehensive risk capital requirement as calculated under § 324.209.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Capital requirement for de minimis exposures.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's capital requirement for <I>de minimis</I> exposures equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The absolute value of the fair value of those <I>de minimis</I> exposures that are not captured in the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure or under paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) With the prior written approval of the FDIC, the capital requirement for any <I>de minimis</I> exposures using alternative techniques that appropriately measure the market risk associated with those exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Backtesting.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must compare each of its most recent 250 business days' trading losses (excluding fees, commissions, reserves, net interest income, and intraday trading) with the corresponding daily VaR-based measures calibrated to a one-day holding period and at a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level. An FDIC-supervised institution must begin backtesting as required by this paragraph (b) no later than one year after the later of January 1, 2014, and the date on which the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this subpart. In the interim, consistent with safety and soundness principles, an FDIC-supervised institution subject to this subpart as of January 1, 2014 should continue to follow backtesting procedures in accordance with the FDIC's supervisory expectations.
</P>
<P>(1) Once each quarter, the FDIC-supervised institution must identify the number of exceptions (that is, the number of business days for which the actual daily net trading loss, if any, exceeds the corresponding daily VaR-based measure) that have occurred over the preceding 250 business days.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must use the multiplication factor in Table 1 to § 324.204 that corresponds to the number of exceptions identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section to determine its VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section and to determine its stressed VaR-based capital requirement for market risk under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section until it obtains the next quarter's backtesting results, unless the FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution in writing that a different adjustment or other action is appropriate.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.204—Multiplication Factors Based on Results of Backtesting 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of exceptions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Multiplication
<br/>factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 or fewer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.205" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.205   VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must use one or more internal models to calculate daily a VaR-based measure of the general market risk of all covered positions. The daily VaR-based measure also may reflect the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk for one or more portfolios of debt and equity positions, if the internal models meet the requirements of § 324.207(b)(1). The daily VaR-based measure must also reflect the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk for any portfolio of correlation trading positions that is modeled under § 324.209. An FDIC-supervised institution may elect to include term repo-style transactions in its VaR-based measure, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution includes all such term repo-style transactions consistently over time.
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's internal models for calculating its VaR-based measure must use risk factors sufficient to measure the market risk inherent in all covered positions. The market risk categories must include, as appropriate, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk. For material positions in the major currencies and markets, modeling techniques must incorporate enough segments of the yield curve—in no case less than six—to capture differences in volatility and less than perfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure may incorporate empirical correlations within and across risk categories, provided the FDIC-supervised institution validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for measuring correlations. If the VaR-based measure does not incorporate empirical correlations across risk categories, the FDIC-supervised institution must add the separate measures from its internal models used to calculate the VaR-based measure for the appropriate market risk categories (interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange rate risk, and/or commodity price risk) to determine its aggregate VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) The VaR-based measure must include the risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of options positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the fair value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors. An FDIC-supervised institution with a large or complex options portfolio must measure the volatility of options positions or positions with embedded optionality by different maturities and/or strike prices, where material.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to justify to the satisfaction of the FDIC the omission of any risk factors from the calculation of its VaR-based measure that the FDIC-supervised institution uses in its pricing models.
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC the appropriateness of any proxies used to capture the risks of the FDIC-supervised institution's actual positions for which such proxies are used.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for VaR-based measure.</I> (1) The VaR-based measure must be calculated on a daily basis using a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level, and a holding period equivalent to a 10-business-day movement in underlying risk factors, such as rates, spreads, and prices. To calculate VaR-based measures using a 10-business-day holding period, the FDIC-supervised institution may calculate 10-business-day measures directly or may convert VaR-based measures using holding periods other than 10 business days to the equivalent of a 10-business-day holding period. An FDIC-supervised institution that converts its VaR-based measure in such a manner must be able to justify the reasonableness of its approach to the satisfaction of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) The VaR-based measure must be based on a historical observation period of at least one year. Data used to determine the VaR-based measure must be relevant to the FDIC-supervised institution's actual exposures and of sufficient quality to support the calculation of risk-based capital requirements. The FDIC-supervised institution must update data sets at least monthly or more frequently as changes in market conditions or portfolio composition warrant. For an FDIC-supervised institution that uses a weighting scheme or other method for the historical observation period, the FDIC-supervised institution must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Use an effective observation period of at least one year in which the average time lag of the observations is at least six months; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate to the FDIC that its weighting scheme is more effective than a weighting scheme with an average time lag of at least six months representing the volatility of the FDIC-supervised institution's trading portfolio over a full business cycle. An FDIC-supervised institution using this option must update its data more frequently than monthly and in a manner appropriate for the type of weighting scheme.
</P>
<P>(c) An FDIC-supervised institution must divide its portfolio into a number of significant subportfolios approved by the FDIC for subportfolio backtesting purposes. These subportfolios must be sufficient to allow the FDIC-supervised institution and the FDIC to assess the adequacy of the VaR model at the risk factor level; the FDIC will evaluate the appropriateness of these subportfolios relative to the value and composition of the FDIC-supervised institution's covered positions. The FDIC-supervised institution must retain and make available to the FDIC the following information for each subportfolio for each business day over the previous two years (500 business days), with no more than a 60-day lag:
</P>
<P>(1) A daily VaR-based measure for the subportfolio calibrated to a one-tail, 99.0 percent confidence level;
</P>
<P>(2) The daily profit or loss for the subportfolio (that is, the net change in price of the positions held in the portfolio at the end of the previous business day); and
</P>
<P>(3) The p-value of the profit or loss on each day (that is, the probability of observing a profit that is less than, or a loss that is greater than, the amount reported for purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section based on the model used to calculate the VaR-based measure described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.206" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.206   Stressed VaR-based measure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> At least weekly, an FDIC-supervised institution must use the same internal model(s) used to calculate its VaR-based measure to calculate a stressed VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative requirements for stressed VaR-based measure.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a stressed VaR-based measure for its covered positions using the same model(s) used to calculate the VaR-based measure, subject to the same confidence level and holding period applicable to the VaR-based measure under § 324.205, but with model inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the FDIC-supervised institution's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) The stressed VaR-based measure must be calculated at least weekly and be no less than the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the FDIC-supervised institution's stressed VaR-based measure under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The FDIC-supervised institution must obtain the prior approval of the FDIC for, and notify the FDIC if the FDIC-supervised institution makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures. The policies and procedures must address:
</P>
<P>(i) How the FDIC-supervised institution links the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure to the composition and directional bias of its current portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's process for selecting, reviewing, and updating the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the stressed VaR-based measure and for monitoring the appropriateness of the period to the FDIC-supervised institution's current portfolio.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section prevents the FDIC from requiring an FDIC-supervised institution to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of the stressed VaR-based measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.207" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.207   Specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must use one of the methods in this section to measure the specific risk for each of its debt, equity, and securitization positions with specific risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modeled specific risk.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may use models to measure the specific risk of covered positions as provided in § 324.205(a) (therefore, excluding securitization positions that are not modeled under § 324.209). An FDIC-supervised institution must use models to measure the specific risk of correlation trading positions that are modeled under § 324.209.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements for specific risk modeling.</I> (i) If an FDIC-supervised institution uses internal models to measure the specific risk of a portfolio, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(A) Explain the historical price variation in the portfolio;
</P>
<P>(B) Be responsive to changes in market conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) Be robust to an adverse environment, including signaling rising risk in an adverse environment; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture all material components of specific risk for the debt and equity positions in the portfolio. Specifically, the internal models must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Capture event risk and idiosyncratic risk; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Capture and demonstrate sensitivity to material differences between positions that are similar but not identical and to changes in portfolio composition and concentrations.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an FDIC-supervised institution calculates an incremental risk measure for a portfolio of debt or equity positions under § 324.208, the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to capture default and credit migration risks in its internal models used to measure the specific risk of those portfolios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific risk fully modeled for one or more portfolios.</I> If the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure captures all material aspects of specific risk for one or more of its portfolios of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the FDIC-supervised institution has no specific risk add-on for those portfolios for purposes of § 324.204(a)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific risk not modeled.</I> (1) If the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk for a portfolio of debt, equity, or correlation trading positions, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a specific-risk add-on for the portfolio under the standardized measurement method as described in § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a specific risk add-on under the standardized measurement method as described in § 324.210 for all of its securitization positions that are not modeled under § 324.209.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.208" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.208   Incremental risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that measures the specific risk of a portfolio of debt positions under § 324.207(b) using internal models must calculate at least weekly an incremental risk measure for that portfolio according to the requirements in this section. The incremental risk measure is the FDIC-supervised institution's measure of potential losses due to incremental risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions. With the prior approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may choose to include portfolios of equity positions in its incremental risk model, provided that it consistently includes such equity positions in a manner that is consistent with how the FDIC-supervised institution internally measures and manages the incremental risk of such positions at the portfolio level. If equity positions are included in the model, for modeling purposes default is considered to have occurred upon the default of any debt of the issuer of the equity position. An FDIC-supervised institution may not include correlation trading positions or securitization positions in its incremental risk measure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for incremental risk modeling.</I> For purposes of calculating the incremental risk measure, the incremental risk model must:
</P>
<P>(1) Measure incremental risk over a one-year time horizon and at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(i) A constant level of risk assumption means that the FDIC-supervised institution rebalances, or rolls over, its trading positions at the beginning of each liquidity horizon over the one-year horizon in a manner that maintains the FDIC-supervised institution's initial risk level. The FDIC-supervised institution must determine the frequency of rebalancing in a manner consistent with the liquidity horizons of the positions in the portfolio. The liquidity horizon of a position or set of positions is the time required for an FDIC-supervised institution to reduce its exposure to, or hedge all of its material risks of, the position(s) in a stressed market. The liquidity horizon for a position or set of positions may not be less than the shorter of three months or the contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<P>(ii) A constant position assumption means that the FDIC-supervised institution maintains the same set of positions throughout the one-year horizon. If an FDIC-supervised institution uses this assumption, it must do so consistently across all portfolios.
</P>
<P>(iii) An FDIC-supervised institution's selection of a constant position or a constant risk assumption must be consistent between the FDIC-supervised institution's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in § 324.209, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) An FDIC-supervised institution's treatment of liquidity horizons must be consistent between the FDIC-supervised institution's incremental risk model and its comprehensive risk model described in § 324.209, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Recognize the impact of correlations between default and migration events among obligors.
</P>
<P>(3) Reflect the effect of issuer and market concentrations, as well as concentrations that can arise within and across product classes during stressed conditions.
</P>
<P>(4) Reflect netting only of long and short positions that reference the same financial instrument.
</P>
<P>(5) Reflect any material mismatch between a position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(6) Recognize the effect that liquidity horizons have on dynamic hedging strategies. In such cases, an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Capture in the incremental risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies.
</P>
<P>(7) Reflect the nonlinear impact of options and other positions with material nonlinear behavior with respect to default and migration changes.
</P>
<P>(8) Maintain consistency with the FDIC-supervised institution's internal risk management methodologies for identifying, measuring, and managing risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of incremental risk capital requirement.</I> The incremental risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the incremental risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent incremental risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.209" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.209   Comprehensive risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) Subject to the prior approval of the FDIC, an FDIC-supervised institution may use the method in this section to measure comprehensive risk, that is, all price risk, for one or more portfolios of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that measures the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions using internal models must calculate at least weekly a comprehensive risk measure that captures all price risk according to the requirements of this section. The comprehensive risk measure is either:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) A surcharge for the FDIC-supervised institution's modeled correlation trading positions equal to the total specific risk add-on for such positions as calculated under § 324.210 multiplied by 8.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With approval of the FDIC and provided the FDIC-supervised institution has met the requirements of this section for a period of at least one year and can demonstrate the effectiveness of the model through the results of ongoing model validation efforts including robust benchmarking, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC-supervised institution's modeled measure of all price risk determined according to the requirements in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The total specific risk add-on that would apply to the bank's modeled correlation trading positions as calculated under § 324.210 multiplied by 8.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for modeling all price risk.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution uses an internal model to measure the price risk of a portfolio of correlation trading positions:
</P>
<P>(1) The internal model must measure comprehensive risk over a one-year time horizon at a one-tail, 99.9 percent confidence level, either under the assumption of a constant level of risk, or under the assumption of constant positions.
</P>
<P>(2) The model must capture all material price risk, including but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The risks associated with the contractual structure of cash flows of the position, its issuer, and its underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit spread risk, including nonlinear price risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) The volatility of implied correlations, including nonlinear price risks such as the cross-effect between spreads and correlations;
</P>
<P>(iv) Basis risk;
</P>
<P>(v) Recovery rate volatility as it relates to the propensity for recovery rates to affect tranche prices; and
</P>
<P>(vi) To the extent the comprehensive risk measure incorporates the benefits of dynamic hedging, the static nature of the hedge over the liquidity horizon must be recognized. In such cases, an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(A) Choose to model the rebalancing of the hedge consistently over the relevant set of trading positions;
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrate that the inclusion of rebalancing results in a more appropriate risk measurement;
</P>
<P>(C) Demonstrate that the market for the hedge is sufficiently liquid to permit rebalancing during periods of stress; and
</P>
<P>(D) Capture in the comprehensive risk model any residual risks arising from such hedging strategies;
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution must use market data that are relevant in representing the risk profile of the FDIC-supervised institution's correlation trading positions in order to ensure that the FDIC-supervised institution fully captures the material risks of the correlation trading positions in its comprehensive risk measure in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must be able to demonstrate that its model is an appropriate representation of comprehensive risk in light of the historical price variation of its correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for stress testing.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must at least weekly apply specific, supervisory stress scenarios to its portfolio of correlation trading positions that capture changes in:
</P>
<P>(i) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recovery rates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit spreads;
</P>
<P>(iv) Correlations of underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(v) Correlations of a correlation trading position and its hedge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other requirements.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution must retain and make available to the FDIC the results of the supervisory stress testing, including comparisons with the capital requirements generated by the FDIC-supervised institution's comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(ii) An FDIC-supervised institution must report to the FDIC promptly any instances where the stress tests indicate any material deficiencies in the comprehensive risk model.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of comprehensive risk capital requirement.</I> The comprehensive risk capital requirement is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The average of the comprehensive risk measures over the previous 12 weeks; or
</P>
<P>(2) The most recent comprehensive risk measure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.210" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.210   Standardized measurement method for specific risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a total specific risk add-on for each portfolio of debt and equity positions for which the FDIC-supervised institution's VaR-based measure does not capture all material aspects of specific risk and for all securitization positions that are not modeled under § 324.209. An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate each specific risk add-on in accordance with the requirements of this section. Notwithstanding any other definition or requirement in this subpart, a position that would have qualified as a debt position or an equity position but for the fact that it qualifies as a correlation trading position under paragraph (2) of the definition of correlation trading position in § 324.2, shall be considered a debt position or an equity position, respectively, for purposes of this § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(1) The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents sold credit protection is capped at the notional amount of the credit derivative contract. The specific risk add-on for an individual debt or securitization position that represents purchased credit protection is capped at the current fair value of the transaction plus the absolute value of the present value of all remaining payments to the protection seller under the transaction. This sum is equal to the value of the protection leg of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with linear payoffs, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or index portfolio, except for a securitization position for which the FDIC-supervised institution directly calculates a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section. A swap must be included as an effective notional position in the underlying instrument or portfolio, with the receiving side treated as a long position and the paying side treated as a short position. For debt, equity, or securitization positions that are derivatives with nonlinear payoffs, an FDIC-supervised institution must risk weight the fair value of the effective notional amount of the underlying instrument or portfolio multiplied by the derivative's delta.
</P>
<P>(3) For debt, equity, or securitization positions, an FDIC-supervised institution may net long and short positions (including derivatives) in identical issues or identical indices. An FDIC-supervised institution may also net positions in depositary receipts against an opposite position in an identical equity in different markets, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution includes the costs of conversion.
</P>
<P>(4) A set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge has a specific risk add-on of zero if:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt or securitization position is fully hedged by a total return swap (or similar instrument where there is a matching of swap payments and changes in fair value of the debt or securitization position);
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the swap and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the swap and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the swap and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in cases where a total return swap references a portfolio of positions with different maturity dates, the total return swap maturity date must match the maturity date of the underlying asset in that portfolio that has the latest maturity date.
</P>
<P>(5) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of paragraph (a)(4) of this section is equal to 20.0 percent of the capital requirement for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on when:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit risk of the position is fully hedged by a credit default swap or similar instrument;
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an exact match between the reference obligation of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position;
</P>
<P>(iii) There is an exact match between the currency of the credit derivative hedge and the debt or securitization position; and
</P>
<P>(iv) There is either an exact match between the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge and the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or, in the case where the credit derivative hedge has a standard maturity date:
</P>
<P>(A) The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is within 30 business days of the maturity date of the debt or securitization position; or
</P>
<P>(B) For purchased credit protection, the maturity date of the credit derivative hedge is later than the maturity date of the debt or securitization position, but is no later than the standard maturity date for that instrument that immediately follows the maturity date of the debt or securitization position. The maturity date of the credit derivative hedge may not exceed the maturity date of the debt or securitization position by more than 90 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(6) The specific risk add-on for a set of transactions consisting of either a debt position and its credit derivative hedge or a securitization position and its credit derivative hedge that does not meet the criteria of either paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section, but in which all or substantially all of the price risk has been hedged, is equal to the specific risk add-on for the side of the transaction with the higher specific risk add-on.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debt and securitization positions.</I> (1) The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of debt or securitization positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons for individual debt or securitization positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on for individual debt or securitization positions, an FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short debt or securitization position in the portfolio by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of this section, the appropriate specific risk-weighting factors include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Sovereign debt positions.</I> (A) In accordance with Table 1 to § 324.210, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position based on the CRC applicable to the sovereign, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, or if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign, based on whether the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD. Notwithstanding any other provision in this subpart, sovereign debt positions that are backed by the full faith and credit of the United States are treated as having a CRC of 0.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.210—Specific Risk-Weighting Factors for Sovereign Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Specific risk-weighting factor (in percent)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0-1</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4-6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i)(A) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may assign to a sovereign debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the applicable specific risk-weighting factor in Table 1 to § 324.210 if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The position is denominated in the sovereign entity's currency;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The FDIC-supervised institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The sovereign entity allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign the lower specific risk-weighting factor to the same exposures to the sovereign entity.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position immediately upon determination a default has occurred; or if a default has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(D) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign entity is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(E) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a sovereign debt position if the sovereign is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC assigned to it, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certain supranational entity and multilateral development bank debt positions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a 0.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>GSE debt positions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 1.6 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a GSE. Notwithstanding the foregoing, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to preferred stock issued by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Depository institution, foreign bank, and credit union debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iv)(B) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution, a foreign bank, or a credit union, in accordance with Table 2 to § 324.210 of this section, based on the CRC that corresponds to that entity's home country or the OECD membership status of that entity's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the entity's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 324.210—Specific Risk-weighting Factors for Depository Institution, Foreign Bank, and Credit Union Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specific risk-weighting factor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent to a debt position that is an exposure to a depository institution or a foreign bank that is includable in the depository institution's or foreign bank's regulatory capital and that is not subject to deduction as a reciprocal holding under § 324.22.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determination that a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred or if a default by the foreign bank's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>PSE debt positions.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v)(B) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a debt position that is an exposure to a PSE in accordance with Tables 3 and 4 to § 324.210 depending on the position's categorization as a general obligation or revenue obligation based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country, and, as applicable, the remaining contractual maturity of the position, as set forth in Tables 3 and 4 to § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(B) An FDIC-supervised institution may assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor than would otherwise apply under Tables 3 and 4 to § 324.210 to a debt position that is an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The PSE's home country allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower specific risk-weighting factor to such position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The specific risk-weighting factor is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in Table 1 to § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(C) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a 12.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to a PSE debt position immediately upon determination that a default by the PSE's home country has occurred or if a default by the PSE's home country has occurred within the previous five years.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 324.210—Specific Risk-weighting Factors for PSE General Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General obligation specific risk-weighting factor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-2 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 324.210—Specific Risk-weighting Factors for PSE Revenue Obligation Debt Positions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revenue obligation specific risk-weighting factor</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">Percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 0-1 or OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of 6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity of greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Remaining contractual maturity exceeds 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 2-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC 4-7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(vi) <I>Corporate debt positions.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a corporate debt position in accordance with the investment grade methodology in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Investment grade methodology.</I> (<I>1</I>) For corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that have issued and outstanding publicly traded instruments, an FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor based on the category and remaining contractual maturity of the position, in accordance with Table 5 to § 324.210. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(A)(<I>1</I>), the FDIC-supervised institution must determine whether the position is in the investment grade or not investment grade category.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 324.210—Specific Risk-weighting Factors for Corporate Debt Positions Under the Investment Grade Methodology
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining contractual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Specific risk-weighting factor
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 months or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 6 and up to and including 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign an 8.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor for corporate debt positions that are exposures to entities that do not have publicly traded instruments outstanding.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Limitations.</I> (<I>1</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of at least 8.0 percent to an interest-only mortgage-backed security that is not a securitization position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution shall not assign a corporate debt position a specific risk-weighting factor that is lower than the specific risk-weighting factor that corresponds to the CRC of the issuer's home country, if applicable, in Table 1 to § 324.210.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Securitization positions.</I> (A) General requirements. (<I>1</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must assign a specific risk-weighting factor to a securitization position using either the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section (and § 324.211) or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a specific risk add-on for a securitization position in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section if the FDIC-supervised institution and the securitization position each qualifies to use the SFA in § 324.143. An FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution with a securitization position that does not qualify for the SFA under paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section may assign a specific risk-weighting factor to the securitization position using the SSFA in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section or assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution must treat a short securitization position as if it is a long securitization position solely for calculation purposes when using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>SFA.</I> To calculate the specific risk add-on for a securitization position using the SFA, an FDIC-supervised institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must set the specific risk add-on for the position equal to the risk-based capital requirement as calculated under § 324.143.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with § 324.211.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>N</I>
<SU>th</SU><I>-to-default credit derivatives.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must determine a specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section, or assign a specific risk-weighting factor using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(D), regardless of whether the FDIC-supervised institution is a net protection buyer or net protection seller. An FDIC-supervised institution must determine its position in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For purposes of determining the specific risk add-on using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section or the specific risk-weighting factor for an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its position as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The attachment point (parameter A) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's position to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific add-on for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter A must be set equal to the <I>credit enhancement level</I> (L) input to the SFA formula in § 324.143. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's position. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the FDIC-supervised institution's position.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The detachment point (parameter D) equals the sum of parameter A plus the ratio of the notional amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's position in the n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. For purposes of the SSFA, parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. For purposes of using the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to calculate the specific risk add-on for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative, parameter D must be set to equal the L input plus the <I>thickness of tranche</I> (T) input to the SFA formula in § 324.143.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An FDIC-supervised institution that does not use the SFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(B) of this section to determine a specific risk-add on, or the SSFA in paragraph (b)(2)(vii)(C) of this section to determine a specific risk-weighting factor for its position in an n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivative must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Modeled correlation trading positions.</I> For purposes of calculating the comprehensive risk measure for modeled correlation trading positions under either paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (a)(2)(ii) of § 324.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk add-ons for each net long correlation trading position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk add-ons for each net short correlation trading position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-modeled securitization positions.</I> For securitization positions that are not correlation trading positions and for securitizations that are correlation trading positions not modeled under § 324.209, the total specific risk add-on is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk add-ons for each net long securitization position calculated under this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's specific risk add-ons for each net short securitization position calculated under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Equity positions.</I> The total specific risk add-on for a portfolio of equity positions is the sum of the specific risk add-ons of the individual equity positions, as computed under this section. To determine the specific risk add-on of individual equity positions, an FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by the appropriate specific risk-weighting factor as determined under this paragraph (e):
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution must multiply the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short equity position by a specific risk-weighting factor of 8.0 percent. For equity positions that are index contracts comprising a well-diversified portfolio of equity instruments, the absolute value of the current fair value of each net long or net short position is multiplied by a specific risk-weighting factor of 2.0 percent.
<SU>34</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>34</SU> A portfolio is well-diversified if it contains a large number of individual equity positions, with no single position representing a substantial portion of the portfolio's total fair value.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) For equity positions arising from the following futures-related arbitrage strategies, an FDIC-supervised institution may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to one side (long or short) of each position with the opposite side exempt from an additional capital requirement:
</P>
<P>(i) Long and short positions in exactly the same index at different dates or in different market centers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Long and short positions in index contracts at the same date in different, but similar indices.
</P>
<P>(3) For futures contracts on main indices that are matched by offsetting positions in a basket of stocks comprising the index, an FDIC-supervised institution may apply a 2.0 percent specific risk-weighting factor to the futures and stock basket positions (long and short), provided that such trades are deliberately entered into and separately controlled, and that the basket of stocks is comprised of stocks representing at least 90.0 percent of the capitalization of the index.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization positions.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FDIC a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization position that would materially affect the performance of the position by conducting and documenting the analysis set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section. The FDIC-supervised institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization position and the materiality of the position in relation to capital.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding for each securitization position by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization position prior to acquiring the position and document such analysis within three business days after acquiring position, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the position, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the position, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spreads, most recent sales price and historical price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization positions, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (f)(1) of this section for each securitization position.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014; 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 84 FR 35280, July 22, 2019; 85 FR 4434, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.211" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.211   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position, an FDIC-supervised institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An FDIC-supervised institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent to the position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the specific risk-weighting factor for a securitization position using the SSFA, an FDIC-supervised institution must have accurate information on the five inputs to the SSFA calculation described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) K<E T="52">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using subpart D. K<E T="52">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of K<E T="52">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter W is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter W is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter A is the attachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the position. Except as provided in § 324.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter A equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the position of the FDIC-supervised institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the position that contains the FDIC-supervised institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter A to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter A is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter D is the detachment point for the position, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the position would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 324.210(b)(2)(vii)(D) for n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default credit derivatives, parameter D equals parameter A plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization positions that are <I>pari passu</I> with the position (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter D is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, p, is equal to 0.5 for securitization positions that are not resecuritization positions and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization positions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA.</I> K<E T="52">G</E> and W are used to calculate K<E T="52">A</E>, the augmented value of K<E T="52">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. K<E T="52">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters A and D, relative to K<E T="52">A</E> determine the specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a position as described in this paragraph (c) and paragraph (d) of this section. The specific risk-weighting factor assigned to a securitization position, or portion of a position, as appropriate, is the larger of the specific risk-weighting factor determined in accordance with this paragraph (c), paragraph (d) of this section, and a specific risk-weighting factor of 1.6 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter D, for a securitization position is less than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the position must be assigned a specific risk-weighting factor of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter A, for a securitization position is greater than or equal to K<E T="52">A</E>, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the specific risk-weighting factor in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When A is less than K<E T="52">A</E> and D is greater than K<E T="52">A</E>, the specific risk-weighting factor is a weighted-average of 1.00 and K<E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated under paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For the purpose of this calculation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er10se13.046.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 20761, Apr. 14, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.212" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.212   Market risk disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must comply with this section unless it is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or a depository institution that is subject to these requirements or of a non-U.S. banking organization that is subject to comparable public disclosure requirements in its home jurisdiction. An FDIC-supervised institution must make timely public disclosures each calendar quarter. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reporting amounts are no longer reflective of the FDIC-supervised institution's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be provided as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter may be disclosed annually, provided any significant changes are disclosed in the interim. If an FDIC-supervised institution believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public certain information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the FDIC-supervised institution is not required to disclose these specific items, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed. The FDIC-supervised institution's management may provide all of the disclosures required by this section in one place on the FDIC-supervised institution's public Web site or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the FDIC-supervised institution publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure policy.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses the FDIC-supervised institution's approach for determining its market risk disclosures. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management must ensure that appropriate verification of the disclosures takes place and that effective internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures are maintained. One or more senior officers of the FDIC-supervised institution must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart, and the board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> (1) For each material portfolio of covered positions, the FDIC-supervised institution must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The high, low, and mean VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(ii) The high, low, and mean stressed VaR-based measures over the reporting period and the stressed VaR-based measure at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iii) The high, low, and mean incremental risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the incremental risk capital requirement at period-end;
</P>
<P>(iv) The high, low, and mean comprehensive risk capital requirements over the reporting period and the comprehensive risk capital requirement at period-end, with the period-end requirement broken down into appropriate risk classifications (for example, default risk, migration risk, correlation risk);
</P>
<P>(v) Separate measures for interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk used to calculate the VaR-based measure; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A comparison of VaR-based estimates with actual gains or losses experienced by the FDIC-supervised institution, with an analysis of important outliers.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the FDIC-supervised institution must disclose publicly the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate amount of on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet securitization positions by exposure type; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate amount of correlation trading positions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> For each material portfolio of covered positions, the FDIC-supervised institution must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, or more frequently in the event of material changes for each portfolio:
</P>
<P>(1) The composition of material portfolios of covered positions;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's valuation policies, procedures, and methodologies for covered positions including, for securitization positions, the methods and key assumptions used for valuing such positions, any significant changes since the last reporting period, and the impact of such change;
</P>
<P>(3) The characteristics of the internal models used for purposes of this subpart. For the incremental risk capital requirement and the comprehensive risk capital requirement, this must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The approach used by the FDIC-supervised institution to determine liquidity horizons;
</P>
<P>(ii) The methodologies used to achieve a capital assessment that is consistent with the required soundness standard; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The specific approaches used in the validation of these models;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the approaches used for validating and evaluating the accuracy of internal models and modeling processes for purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) For each market risk category (that is, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk), a description of the stress tests applied to the positions subject to the factor;
</P>
<P>(6) The results of the comparison of the FDIC-supervised institution's internal estimates for purposes of this subpart with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development;
</P>
<P>(7) The soundness standard on which the FDIC-supervised institution's internal capital adequacy assessment under this subpart is based, including a description of the methodologies used to achieve a capital adequacy assessment that is consistent with the soundness standard;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the FDIC-supervised institution's processes for monitoring changes in the credit and market risk of securitization positions, including how those processes differ for resecuritization positions; and
</P>
<P>(9) A description of the FDIC-supervised institution's policy governing the use of credit risk mitigation to mitigate the risks of securitization and resecuritization positions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.213-324.299" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.6.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.213-324.299   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Transition Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.300" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.300   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation and countercyclical capital buffer.</I> (1) From January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2015, an FDIC-supervised institution is not subject to limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments under § 324.11 notwithstanding the amount of its capital conservation buffer or any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount.
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2018, an FDIC-supervised institution's maximum payout ratio shall be determined as set forth in Table 1 to § 324.300.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 324.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum payout ratio (as a percentage of eligible retained income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.469 percent (plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent (plus 17.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.156 percent (plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.156 percent (plus 6.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.25 percent (plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.25 percent (plus 50 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.625 percent (plus 25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.313 percent (plus 12.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Greater than 1.875 percent (plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No payout ratio limitation applies under this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.875 percent (plus 75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 1.406 percent (plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 1.406 percent (plus 56.25 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.938 percent (plus 37.5 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount), and greater than 0.469 percent (plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than or equal to 0.469 percent (plus 18.75 percent of any applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying capital instruments. Depository institutions.</I> (1) Beginning on January 1, 2014, a depository institution that is an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution, and beginning on January 1, 2015, all other depository institutions may include in regulatory capital debt or equity instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010, that do not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in § 324.20 but that were included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital respectively as of September 12, 2010 (non-qualifying capital instruments issued prior to September 12, 2010) up to the percentage of the outstanding principal amount of such non-qualifying capital instruments as of January 1, 2014 in accordance with Table 8 to § 324.300.
</P>
<P>(2) Table 8 to § 324.300 applies separately to tier 1 and tier 2 non-qualifying capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of non-qualifying capital instruments that cannot be included in additional tier 1 capital under this section may be included in tier 2 capital without limitation, provided that the instruments meet the criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under § 324.20(d).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 324.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition period
<br/>(calendar year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of non-qualifying capital instruments includable in additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2014</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2015</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2016</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2019</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2020</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2021</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2022 and thereafter</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prompt corrective action.</I> For purposes of subpart H of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its capital measures and tangible equity ratio in accordance with the transition provisions in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may apply the treatment under §§ 324.21 and 324.22(c)(2), (5), (6), and (d)(2) applicable to an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution during the calendar quarter beginning January 1, 2020. During the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, an FDIC-supervised institution that makes such an election must deduct 80 percent of the amount otherwise required to be deducted under § 324.22(d)(2) and must apply a 100 percent risk weight to assets not deducted under § 324.22(d)(2). In addition, during the quarter beginning January 1, 2020, an FDIC-supervised institution that makes such an election must include in its regulatory capital 20 percent of any minority interest that exceeds the amount of minority interest includable in regulatory capital under § 324.21 as it applies to an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution. An FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches institution must apply the treatment under §§ 324.21 and 324.22 applicable to an FDIC-supervised institution that is a non-advanced approaches institution beginning April 1, 2020, and thereafter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>SA-CCR.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may use CEM rather than SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 324.34(a) and 324.132(c) until January 1, 2022. A FDIC-supervised institution must provide prior notice to the FDIC if it decides to begin using SA-CCR before January 1, 2022. On January 1, 2022, and thereafter, an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution must use SA-CCR for purposes of §§ 324.34(a), 324.132(c), and 324.133(d). Once an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution has begun to use SA-CCR, the advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution may not change to use CEM.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Default fund contributions.</I> Prior to January 1, 2022, a FDIC-supervised institution that calculates the exposure amounts of its derivative contracts under the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk in § 324.132(c) may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a QCCP under either method 1 under § 324.35(d)(3)(i) or method 2 under § 324.35(d)(3)(ii), rather than under § 324.133(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 55471, Sept. 10, 2013, as amended at 82 FR 55317, Nov. 21, 2017; 84 FR 35280, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 61808, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 4443, Jan. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.301" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.301   Current expected credit losses (CECL) transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CECL transition provision.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may elect to use a CECL transition provision pursuant to this section only if the FDIC-supervised institution records a reduction in retained earnings due to the adoption of CECL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that elects to use the CECL transition provision must elect to use the CECL transition provision in the first Call Report that includes CECL filed by the FDIC-supervised institution after it adopts CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) An FDIC-supervised institution that does not elect to use the CECL transition provision as of the first Call Report that includes CECL filed as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section may not elect to use the CECL transition provision in subsequent reporting periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transition period</I> means the three-year period, beginning the first day of the fiscal year in which an FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL and reflects CECL in its first Call Report filed after that date; or, for the 2020 CECL transition provision under paragraph (d) of this section, the five-year period beginning on the earlier of the date an FDIC-supervised institution was required to adopt CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP (as in effect January 1, 2020), or the first day of the fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year in which the FDIC-supervised institution files regulatory reports that include CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CECL transitional amount</I> means the difference, net of any DTAs, in the amount of an FDIC-supervised institution's retained earnings as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL from the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's retained earnings as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the FDIC-supervised institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>DTA transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of an FDIC-supervised institution's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL from the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's DTAs arising from temporary differences as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the FDIC-supervised institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>AACL transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of an FDIC-supervised institution's AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL and the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's ALLL as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the FDIC-supervised institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligible credit reserves transitional amount</I> means the difference in the amount of an FDIC-supervised institution's eligible credit reserves as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL from the amount of the FDIC-supervised institution's eligible credit reserves as of the closing of the fiscal year-end immediately prior to the FDIC-supervised institution's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the three-year CECL transition provision.</I> (1) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the election described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an advanced approaches or Category III FDIC-supervised institution must make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(i) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition provision, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>2020 CECL transition provision.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that adopts CECL for accounting purposes under GAAP as of the first day of a fiscal year that begins during the 2020 calendar year may elect to use the transitional amounts and modified transitional amounts in paragraph (d)(1) of this section with the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section to adjust its calculation of regulatory capital ratios during each quarter of the transition period in which an FDIC-supervised institution uses CECL for purposes of its Call Report. An FDIC supervised-institution may use the transition provision in this paragraph (d) if it has a positive modified CECL transitional amount during any quarter ending in 2020 and makes the election in the Call Report filed for the same quarter. An FDIC-supervised institution that does not calculate a positive modified CECL transitional amount in any quarter is not required to apply the adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios in paragraph (d)(2) of this section in that quarter.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of the 2020 CECL transition provision calculation in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Modified CECL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the CECL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Modified AACL transitional amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) During the first two years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the most recent Call Report, and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the last three years of the transition period, the difference between AACL as reported in the Call Report at the end of the second year of the transition period and the AACL as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the FDIC-supervised institution adopts CECL, multiplied by 0.25, plus the AACL transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of 2020 CECL transition provision.</I> (i) An FDIC-supervised institution that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following adjustments in its calculation of regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase retained earnings by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase retained earnings by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase retained earnings by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(B) Decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one-hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by one hundred percent of its DTA transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by seventy-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by fifty percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of DTAs arising from temporary differences by twenty-five percent of its DTA transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period;
</P>
<P>(C) Decrease amounts of AACL by one-hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by one hundred percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by seventy-five percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of AACL by fifty percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of AACL by twenty-five percent of its modified AACL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(D) Increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase average total consolidated assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(ii) An advanced approaches or Category III FDIC-supervised institution that has elected the 2020 CECL transition provision described in this paragraph (d) may make the following additional adjustments to its calculation of its applicable regulatory capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(A) Increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one-hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by one hundred percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by seventy-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by fifty percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and increase total leverage exposure for purposes of the supplementary leverage ratio by twenty-five percent of its modified CECL transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(B) An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d) must decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one-hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the first year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by one hundred percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the second year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by seventy-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the third year of the transition period, decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by fifty percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fourth year of the transition period, and decrease amounts of eligible credit reserves by twenty-five percent of its eligible credit reserves transitional amount during the fifth year of the transition period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible credit reserves shortfall.</I> An advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution that has completed the parallel run process and that has received notification from the FDIC pursuant to § 324.121(d), whose amount of expected credit loss exceeded its eligible credit reserves immediately prior to the adoption of CECL, and that has an increase in common equity tier 1 capital as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which it adopts CECL after including the first year portion of the CECL transitional amount (or modified CECL transitional amount) must decrease its CECL transitional amount used in paragraph (c) of this section (or modified CECL transitional amount used in paragraph (d) of this section) by the full amount of its DTA transitional amount.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Business combinations.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement in this section, for purposes of this paragraph (f), in the event of a business combination involving an FDIC-supervised institution where one or both FDIC-supervised institutions have elected the treatment described in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) If the acquirer FDIC-supervised institution (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, the acquirer FDIC-supervised institution must continue to use the transitional amounts (unaffected by the business combination) that it calculated as of the date that it adopted CECL through the end of its transition period.
</P>
<P>(2) If the acquired insured depository institution (as determined under GAAP) elected the treatment described in this section, any transitional amount of the acquired insured depository institution does not transfer to the resulting FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 61591, Sept. 30, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.302" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.302   Exposures Related the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution may exclude exposures acquired pursuant to a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, announced by the Federal Reserve on March 18, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable.
</P>
<P>For the purpose of this provision, an FDIC-supervised institution's liability under the facility must be reduced by the purchase price of the assets acquired with funds advanced from the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16237, Mar. 23, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.303" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.303   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.304" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.304   Temporary exclusions from total leverage exposure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section, and notwithstanding any other requirement in this part, an FDIC-supervised institution, when calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter for purposes of determining the FDIC-supervised institution's total leverage exposure under § 324.10(c), may exclude the balance sheet carrying value of the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) U.S. Treasury securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Funds on deposit at a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in period.</I> Before applying the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution must first notify the appropriate regional director of the FDIC Division of Risk Management Supervision before July 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of relief.</I> When calculating on-balance sheet assets as of each day of a reporting quarter, the relief provided in paragraph (a) of this section applies from the beginning of the reporting quarter in which the FDIC-supervised institution filed an opt-in notice through the termination date specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination of exclusions.</I> This section shall cease to be effective after the reporting period that ends March 31, 2021.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Custody bank.</I> A custody bank must reduce the amount in § 324.10(c)(2)(x)(A) (to no less than zero) by any amount excluded under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure.</I> Notwithstanding Table 13 to § 324.173, an FDIC-supervised institution that is required to make the disclosures pursuant to § 324.173 must exclude the items excluded pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section from Table 13 to § 324.173.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FDIC approval for distributions.</I> During the calendar quarter beginning on July 1, 2020, and until March 31, 2021, no FDIC-supervised institution that has opted in to the relief provided under paragraph (a) of this section may make a distribution, or create an obligation to make such a distribution, without prior FDIC approval. When reviewing a request under this paragraph (g), the FDIC will consider all relevant factors, including whether the distribution would be contrary to the safety and soundness of the FDIC-supervised institution; the nature, purpose, and extent of the request; and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 32990, June 1, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 745, Jan. 6, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.305" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.305   Exposures related to the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other section of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution may exclude exposures pledged as collateral for a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility, announced by the Federal Reserve on April 7, 2020, from total leverage exposure, average total consolidated assets, advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets, and standardized total risk-weighted assets, as applicable. For the purpose of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution's liability under the facility must be reduced by the principal amount of the loans pledged as collateral for funds advanced under the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 20394, Apr. 13, 2020. Redesignated at 85 FR 32990, June 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 324.306-324.399" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.7.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 324.306-324.399   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.401" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.401   Authority, purpose, scope, other supervisory authority, disclosure of capital categories, and transition procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart H is issued by the FDIC pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), as added by section 131 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991)) (12 U.S.C. 1831o).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 38 of the FDI Act establishes a framework of supervisory actions for insured depository institutions that are not adequately capitalized. The principal purpose of this subpart is to define, for FDIC-supervised institutions, the capital measures and capital levels, and for insured branches of foreign banks, comparable asset-based measures and levels, that are used for determining the supervisory actions authorized under section 38 of the FDI Act. This subpart also establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of directives and orders pursuant to section 38 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Until January 1, 2015, subpart B of part 325 of this chapter will continue to apply to banks and insured branches of foreign banks for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. Until January 1, 2015, subpart Y of part 390 of this chapter will continue to apply to state savings associations. Beginning on, and thereafter, January 1, 2015, this subpart H implements the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act as they apply to FDIC-supervised institutions and insured branches of foreign banks for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency. Certain of these provisions also apply to officers, directors and employees of those insured institutions. In addition, certain provisions of this subpart apply to all insured depository institutions that are deemed critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other supervisory authority.</I> Neither section 38 of the FDI Act nor this subpart H in any way limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices, deficient capital levels, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the FDIC, including issuance of cease and desist orders, capital directives, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure of capital categories.</I> The assignment of an FDIC-supervised institution or an insured branch of a foreign bank for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency under this subpart H within a particular capital category is for purposes of implementing and applying the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act. Unless permitted by the FDIC or otherwise required by law, no FDIC-supervised institution or insured branch of a foreign bank for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this subpart H or that the FDIC or any other Federal banking agency has assigned it to a particular capital category.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transition procedures</I>—(1) <I>Definitions applicable before January 1, 2015, for certain FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> Before January 1, 2015, notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart H and with respect to any FDIC-supervised institution that is not an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(i) The definitions of leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, tier 1 risk-based capital, and total risk-based capital as calculated or defined under Appendix A to part 325 or Appendix B to part 325, as applicable, remain in effect for purposes of this subpart H; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The term total assets shall have the meaning provided in 12 CFR 325.2(x).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> The calculation of the definitions of common equity tier 1 capital, the common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, the leverage ratio, the supplementary leverage ratio, tangible equity, tier 1 capital, the tier 1 risk-based capital ratio, total assets, total leverage exposure, the total risk-based capital ratio, and total risk-weighted assets under this subpart H is subject to the timing provisions at 12 CFR 324.1(f) and the transitions at 12 CFR part 324, subpart G.
</P>
<P>(g) For purposes of subpart H, as of January 1, 2015, total assets means quarterly average total assets as reported in an FDIC-supervised institution's Call Report, minus amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 324.22(a), (c), and (d). At its discretion, the FDIC may calculate total assets using an FDIC-supervised institution's period-end assets rather than quarterly average assets.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.402" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.402   Notice of capital category.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date of determination of capital category.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H as of the date the FDIC-supervised institution is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of capital category.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall be deemed to have been notified of its capital levels and its capital category as of the most recent date:
</P>
<P>(1) A Call Report is required to be filed with the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(2) A final report of examination is delivered to the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written notice is provided by the FDIC to the FDIC-supervised institution of its capital category for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart or that the FDIC-supervised institution's capital category has changed as provided in § 324.403(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments to reported capital levels and capital category</I>—(1) <I>Notice of adjustment by bank or state savings association.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall provide the appropriate FDIC regional director with written notice that an adjustment to the FDIC-supervised institution's capital category may have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event has occurred that would cause the FDIC-supervised institution to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the FDIC-supervised institution for purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H on the basis of the FDIC-supervised institution's most recent Call Report or report of examination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination by the FDIC to change capital category.</I> After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the FDIC shall determine whether to change the capital category of the FDIC-supervised institution and shall notify the bank or state savings association of the FDIC's determination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.403" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.403   Capital measures and capital category definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital measures.</I> (1) For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H, the relevant capital measures are:
</P>
<P>(i) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The total risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The tier 1 risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(iii) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Leverage Measure:
</P>
<P>(A) The leverage ratio; and
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an advanced approaches FDIC-supervised institutions or Category III FDIC-supervised institution, the supplementary leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(2) For a qualifying community banking organization (as defined under § 324.12), that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework (as defined under § 324.12), the leverage ratio calculated in accordance with § 324.12(b) is used to determine the well capitalized capital category under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital categories.</I> For purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution shall be deemed to be:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) “Well capitalized” if:
</P>
<P>(A) Total Risk-Based Capital Measure: The FDIC-supervised institution has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) Tier 1 Risk-Based Capital Measure: The FDIC-supervised institution has a tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(C) Common Equity Tier 1 Capital Measure: The FDIC-supervised institution has a common equity tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.5 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(D) The FDIC-supervised institution has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(E) The FDIC-supervised institution is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by the FDIC pursuant to section 8 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818), the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907), or the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(t)(6)(A)(ii)), or section 38 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o), or any regulation thereunder, to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying community banking organization, as defined under § 324.12, that has elected to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under § 324.12 shall be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category in paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) “Adequately capitalized” if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a common equity tier 1 capital ratio of 4.5 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has a leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not meet the definition of “well capitalized” in this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) An advanced approaches or Category III FDIC-supervised institution will be deemed to be “adequately capitalized” if it satisfies paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) of this section and has a supplementary leverage ratio of 3.0 percent or greater, as calculated in accordance with § 324.10.
</P>
<P>(3) “Undercapitalized” if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 8.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 6.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a common equity tier 1 capital ratio that is less than 4.5 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Has a leverage ratio that is less than 4.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) An advanced approaches or Category III FDIC-supervised institution will be deemed to be “undercapitalized” if it has a supplementary leverage ratio of less than 3.0 percent, as calculated in accordance with § 324.10.
</P>
<P>(4) “Significantly undercapitalized” if it has:
</P>
<P>(i) A total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 6.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A common equity tier 1 capital ratio that is less than 3.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A leverage ratio that is less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) “Critically undercapitalized” if the insured depository institution has a ratio of tangible equity to total assets that is equal to or less than 2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital categories for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> For purposes of the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H, an insured branch of a foreign bank shall be deemed to be:
</P>
<P>(1) “Well capitalized” if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 108 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not received written notification from:
</P>
<P>(A) The OCC to increase its capital equivalency deposit pursuant to 12 CFR 28.15, or to comply with asset maintenance requirements pursuant to 12 CFR 28.20; or
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC to pledge additional assets pursuant to § 347.209 of this chapter or to maintain a higher ratio of eligible assets pursuant to § 347.210 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) “Adequately capitalized” if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not meet the definition of a well capitalized insured branch.
</P>
<P>(3) “Undercapitalized” if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to maintain the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(4) “Significantly undercapitalized” if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 104 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) “Critically undercapitalized” if it fails to maintain the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 102 percent or more of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reclassifications based on supervisory criteria other than capital.</I> The FDIC may reclassify a well capitalized FDIC-supervised institution as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately capitalized FDIC-supervised institution or an undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the FDIC-supervised institution were in the next lower capital category (except that the FDIC may not reclassify a significantly undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution as critically undercapitalized) (each of these actions are hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassifications”) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> The FDIC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 308.202(a) of this chapter, that the FDIC-supervised institution is in unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> The FDIC has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 308.202(a) of this chapter, that, in the most recent examination of the FDIC-supervised institution, the FDIC-supervised institution received and has not corrected a less-than-satisfactory rating for any of the categories of asset quality, management, earnings, or liquidity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 22173, Apr. 15, 2016, as amended at 79 FR 24541, May 1, 2014; 83 FR 17617, Apr. 23, 2018; 84 FR 61803, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 5303, Jan. 30, 2020; 85 FR 32990, June 1, 2020; 85 FR 74259, Nov. 20, 2020; 90 FR 55292, Dec. 1, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.404" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.404   Capital restoration plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall file a written capital restoration plan with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of the date that the FDIC-supervised institution receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the FDIC-supervised institution is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized FDIC-supervised institution that has been required pursuant to § 324.403(d) to comply with supervisory actions as if the FDIC-supervised institution were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional capital restoration plans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under section 38 and this subpart H is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution under § 324.403 unless the FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. An FDIC-supervised institution that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan shall file the plan in writing with the appropriate FDIC regional director within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the FDIC notifies it in writing that the plan must be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of plan.</I> All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan shall be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the Call Report, unless the FDIC instructs otherwise. The capital restoration plan shall include all of the information required to be filed under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act. An FDIC-supervised institution that is required to submit a capital restoration plan as a result of its reclassification pursuant to § 324.403(d) shall include a description of the steps the FDIC-supervised institution will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. No plan shall be accepted unless it includes any performance guarantee described in section 38(e)(2)(C) of the FDI Act by each company that controls the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of capital restoration plans.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this subpart, the FDIC shall provide written notice to the FDIC-supervised institution of whether the plan has been approved. The FDIC may extend the time within which notice regarding approval of a plan shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disapproval of capital plan.</I> If a capital restoration plan is not approved by the FDIC, the FDIC-supervised institution shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the FDIC. Upon receiving notice that its capital restoration plan has not been approved, any undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution (as defined in § 324.403(b)) shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions. These provisions shall be applicable until such time as a new or revised capital restoration plan submitted by the FDIC-supervised institution has been approved by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to submit capital restoration plan.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is undercapitalized (as defined in § 324.403(b)) and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section shall, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 and this subpart applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to implement capital restoration plan.</I> Any undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution that fails in any material respect to implement a capital restoration plan shall be subject to all of the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Amendment of capital restoration plan.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that has filed an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the FDIC, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as a proposed amendment has been approved, the FDIC-supervised institution shall implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Performance guarantee by companies that control an FDIC-supervised institution</I>—(1) <I>Limitation on liability</I>—(i) <I>Amount limitation.</I> The aggregate liability under the guarantee provided under section 38 and this subpart H for all companies that control a specific FDIC-supervised institution that is required to submit a capital restoration plan under this subpart H shall be limited to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) An amount equal to 5.0 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's total assets at the time the FDIC-supervised institution was notified or deemed to have notice that the FDIC-supervised institution was undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(B) The amount necessary to restore the relevant capital measures of the FDIC-supervised institution to the levels required for the FDIC-supervised institution to be classified as adequately capitalized, as those capital measures and levels are defined at the time that the FDIC-supervised institution initially fails to comply with a capital restoration plan under this subpart H.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limit on duration.</I> The guarantee and limit of liability under section 38 of the FDI Act and this subpart H shall expire after the FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution that it has remained adequately capitalized for each of four consecutive calendar quarters. The expiration or fulfillment by a company of a guarantee of a capital restoration plan shall not limit the liability of the company under any guarantee required or provided in connection with any capital restoration plan filed by the same FDIC-supervised institution after expiration of the first guarantee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Collection on guarantee.</I> Each company that controls a given FDIC-supervised institution shall be jointly and severally liable for the guarantee for such FDIC-supervised institution as required under section 38 and this subpart H, and the FDIC may require and collect payment of the full amount of that guarantee from any or all of the companies issuing the guarantee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to provide guarantee.</I> In the event that an FDIC-supervised institution that is controlled by any company submits a capital restoration plan that does not contain the guarantee required under section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act, the FDIC-supervised institution shall, upon submission of the plan, be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart H that are applicable to FDIC-supervised institutions that have not submitted an acceptable capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to perform guarantee.</I> Failure by any company that controls an FDIC-supervised institution to perform fully its guarantee of any capital plan shall constitute a material failure to implement the plan for purposes of section 38(f) of the FDI Act. Upon such failure, the FDIC-supervised institution shall be subject to the provisions of section 38 and this subpart H that are applicable to FDIC-supervised institutions that have failed in a material respect to implement a capital restoration plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 324.405" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.15.8.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 324.405   Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions</I>—(1) <I>Provisions applicable to all FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> All FDIC-supervised institutions are subject to the restrictions contained in section 38(d) of the FDI Act on payment of capital distributions and management fees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institution.</I> Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the FDIC-supervised institution is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, it shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Restricting payment of capital distributions and management fees (section 38(d) of the FDI Act);
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring that the FDIC monitor the condition of the FDIC-supervised institution (section 38(e)(1) of the FDI Act);
</P>
<P>(iii) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan within the schedule established in this subpart (section 38(e)(2) of the FDI Act);
</P>
<P>(iv) Restricting the growth of the FDIC-supervised institution's assets (section 38(e)(3) of the FDI Act); and
</P>
<P>(v) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (section 38(e)(4) of the FDI Act).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the FDIC-supervised institution is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the provisions applicable to institutions that are significantly undercapitalized because the FDIC-supervised institution failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the FDIC-supervised institution shall become subject to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution (section 38(f)(4) of the FDI Act).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized institutions.</I> (i) In addition to the provisions of section 38 of the FDI Act described in paragraphs (a)(2) and (a)(3) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in § 324.402, that the insured depository institution is critically undercapitalized, the institution is prohibited from doing any of the following without the FDIC's prior written approval:
</P>
<P>(A) Entering into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business, including any investment, expansion, acquisition, sale of assets, or other similar action with respect to which the depository institution is required to provide notice to the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(B) Extending credit for any highly leveraged transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) Amending the institution's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order;
</P>
<P>(D) Making any material change in accounting methods;
</P>
<P>(E) Engaging in any covered transaction (as defined in section 23A(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)));
</P>
<P>(F) Paying excessive compensation or bonuses;
</P>
<P>(G) Paying interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would increase the institution's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the institution's normal market areas; and
</P>
<P>(H) Making any principal or interest payment on subordinated debt beginning 60 days after becoming critically undercapitalized except that this restriction shall not apply, until July 15, 1996, with respect to any subordinated debt outstanding on July 15, 1991, and not extended or otherwise renegotiated after July 15, 1991.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, the FDIC may further restrict the activities of any critically undercapitalized institution to carry out the purposes of section 38 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution must remain in compliance with the plan or is operating under a written agreement with the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(b) Discretionary supervisory actions. In taking any action under section 38 of the FDI Act that is within the FDIC's discretion to take in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(2) An officer or director of such institution, the FDIC shall follow the procedures for issuing directives under §§ 308.201 and 308.203 of this chapter, unless otherwise provided in section 38 of the FDI Act or this subpart H.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="325" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 325—STRESS TESTING


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5412(b)(2)(C); 12 U.S.C. 1818, 12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth), 12 U.S.C. 1831o, and 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 62424, Oct. 15, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 325.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.1   Authority, purpose, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the “Corporation” or “FDIC”) under 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), 12 U.S.C. 5412(b)(2)(B), 12 U.S.C. 1818, 12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth), 12 U.S.C. 1831o, and 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(2), which requires the Corporation (in coordination with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) and the Federal Insurance Office) to issue regulations that require each covered bank to conduct periodic stress tests, and establishes a definition of stress test, methodologies for conducting stress tests, and reporting and disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any other provisions of this part, the Corporation may modify some or all of the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation may accelerate or extend any deadline for stress testing, reporting, or publication of the stress test results.
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation may require different or additional tests not otherwise required by this part or may require or permit different or additional analytical techniques and methodologies, different or additional scenarios (including components for the scenarios), or different assumptions for the covered bank to use in meeting the requirements of this part. In addition, the FDIC may specify a different as-of date for any or all categories of financial data used by the stress test.
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation may modify the reporting requirements of a report under this part or may require additional reports. The Corporation may modify the publication requirements of this part and or may require different or additional publication disclosures.
</P>
<P>(4) The Corporation may also exempt a covered bank from the requirement to conduct a stress test in a particular reporting year.
</P>
<P>(5) Factors considered: Any exercise of authority under this section by the Corporation will be in writing and will consider the activities, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, and the regulatory capital of the covered bank, in addition to any other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>(6) Notice and comment procedures: In exercising its authority to require different or additional stress tests and different or additional scenarios (including components for the scenarios) under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the Corporation will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures in 12 CFR 324.5, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(7) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the Corporation under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 62424, Oct. 15, 2012. Redesignated and amended at 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 84 FR 56933, Oct. 24, 2019; 84 FR 64985, Nov. 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>For purposes of this part</I>—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Average total consolidated assets</I> means the average of the covered bank's total consolidated assets, as reported on the covered bank's Consolidated Report of Condition and Income (Call Report) for the four most recent consecutive quarters. If the covered bank has not filed a Call Report for each of the four most recent consecutive quarters, the covered bank's average total consolidated assets means the average of the covered bank's total consolidated assets, as reported on the covered bank's Call Reports, for the most recent one or more consecutive quarters. The date on which the state nonmember bank or the state savings association becomes a covered bank will be the as-of date of the most recent Call Report used in the calculation of the average.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Baseline scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered bank, and that reflect the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered bank</I> means any state nonmember bank or state savings association with average total consolidated assets calculated as required under this part that are greater than $250 billion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine quarters over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income, less expenses, before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provision for credit losses</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Until December 31, 2019:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a state nonmember bank or state savings association that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under U.S. generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), the provision for loan and lease losses as reported on the Call Report in the current stress test cycle; and,
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a state nonmember bank or state savings association that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses, as would be calculated and reported on the Call Report by a state nonmember bank or state savings association that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2020:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a state nonmember bank or state savings association that has adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for credit losses, as reported in the Call Report in the current stress test cycle; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a state nonmember bank or state savings association that has not adopted the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP, the provision for loan and lease losses as would be reported in the Call Report in the current stress test cycle.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which the Corporation established minimum requirements by regulation or order, including the leverage ratio and tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios applicable to that covered bank as calculated under the Corporation's regulations.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reporting year</I> means the calendar year in which a covered institution must conduct, report, and publish its stress test, as required under 12 CFR 325.4(d).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered bank that the Corporation determines are appropriate for use in the company-run stress tests, including, but not limited to, baseline and severely adverse scenarios.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Severely adverse scenario</I> means a set of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered bank and that overall are significantly more severe than those associated with the baseline scenario and may include trading or other additional components.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>State nonmember bank</I> and <I>state savings association</I> have the same meanings as those terms are defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Stress test</I> means the process to assess the potential impact of scenarios on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered bank over the planning horizon, taking into account the current condition of the covered bank and the covered bank's risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Stress test cycle</I> means the period beginning January 1 of a reporting year and ending on December 31 of that reporting year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 62424, Oct. 15, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 69368, Nov. 21, 2014. Redesignated at 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 4249, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 56933, Oct. 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered banks subject to stress testing.</I> (1) A state nonmember bank or state savings association that is a covered bank as of December 31, 2019, is subject to the requirements of this part for the 2020 reporting year.
</P>
<P>(2) A state nonmember bank or state savings association that becomes a covered bank after December 31, 2019, shall conduct its first stress test under this part in the first reporting year that begins more than three calendar quarters after the date the state nonmember bank or state savings association becomes a covered bank, unless otherwise determined by the Corporation in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ceasing to be a covered bank.</I> A covered bank shall remain subject to the stress test requirements of this part unless and until total consolidated assets of the covered bank falls to $250 billion or less for each of four consecutive quarters as reported on the covered bank's most recent Call Reports. The calculation will be effective on the as-of date of the fourth consecutive Call Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered bank subsidiaries of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company subject to periodic stress test requirements.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the requirements applicable to covered banks under this section, a covered bank that is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that is required to conduct a periodic company-run stress test under applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System may elect to conduct its stress test and report to the FDIC on the same timeline as its parent bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered bank that elects to conduct its stress test under paragraph (c)(1) of this section will remain subject to the same timeline requirements of its parent company until otherwise approved by the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 56933, Oct. 24, 2019; 84 FR 64985, Nov. 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.4   Periodic stress tests required.</HEAD>
<P>Each covered bank must conduct the periodic stress test under this part subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Financial data.</I> A covered bank must use financial data as of December 31 of the calendar year prior to the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by the Corporation.</I> In conducting the stress test under this part, each covered bank must use the scenarios provided by the Corporation. The scenarios provided by the Corporation will reflect a minimum of two sets of economic and financial conditions, including baseline and severely adverse scenarios. The Corporation will provide a description of the scenarios required to be used by each covered bank no later than February 15 of the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Significant trading activities.</I> The Corporation may require a covered bank with significant trading activities, as determined by the Corporation, to include trading and counterparty components in its severely adverse scenarios. The trading and counterparty position data used in this component will be as of a date between October 1 of the year preceding the reporting year and March 1 of the reporting year, and the Corporation will communicate a description of the component to the covered bank no later than March 1 of the reporting year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency.</I> A covered bank that is consolidated under a holding company that is required, pursuant to applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, to conduct a stress test at least once every calendar year must treat every calendar year as a reporting year, unless otherwise determined by the Corporation. All other covered banks must treat every even-numbered calendar year beginning January 1, 2020 (<I>i.e.,</I> 2022, 2024, 2026, etc.), as a reporting year, unless otherwise determined by the Corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 56934, Oct. 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.5   Methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> In conducting a stress test under this part, during each quarter of the planning horizon, each covered bank must estimate the following for each scenario required to be used:
</P>
<P>(1) Pre-provision net revenues, losses, provision for credit losses, and net income; and
</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on the regulatory capital levels and ratios applicable to the covered bank, and any other capital ratios specified by the Corporation, incorporating the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses or adjusted allowance for credit losses, as appropriate, for credit exposures throughout the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controls and oversight of stress testing processes.</I> (1) The senior management of a covered bank must establish and maintain a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, that are designed to ensure that its stress test processes satisfy the requirements in this part. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the covered bank's stress test practices and methodologies, and processes for validating and updating the covered bank's stress test practices and methodologies consistent with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors, or a committee thereof, of a covered bank must approve and review the policies and procedures of the stress testing processes as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the covered bank may warrant, but no less than once every reporting year. The board of directors and senior management of the covered bank must receive a summary of the results of the stress test.
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors and senior management of each covered bank must consider the results of the stress tests in the normal course of business, including but not limited to, the covered bank's capital planning, assessment of capital adequacy, and risk management practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 62424, Oct. 15, 2012. Redesignated and amended at 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 84 FR 4249, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 56933, 56934, Oct. 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.6   Required reports of stress test results to the FDIC and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</HEAD>
<P>(a)<I> Report required for periodic stress test results.</I> A covered bank must report to the FDIC and to the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, on or before April 5 of the reporting year, the results of the stress test in the manner and form specified by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of reports.</I> (1) The reports required under paragraph (a) of this section must include under the baseline scenario, severely adverse scenario, and any other scenario required by the Corporation under this part, a description of the types of risks being included in the stress test, a summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test, and, for each quarter of the planning horizon, estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for loan and lease losses, net income, and pro forma capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by the FDIC). In addition, the report must include an explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios and any other information required by the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(2) The description of aggregate losses and net income must include the cumulative losses and cumulative net income over the planning horizon, and the description of each regulatory capital ratio must include the beginning value, ending value, and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to the Corporation under this part and related materials will be determined in accordance with applicable law including any available exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the FDIC's Rules and Regulations regarding the Disclosure of Information (12 CFR part 309).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 56934, Oct. 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 325.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.16.0.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 325.7   Publication of stress test results.</HEAD>
<P>(a)<I> Publication date.</I> A covered bank must publish a summary of the results of its stress tests in the period starting June 15 and ending July 15 of the reporting year, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless the Corporation determines otherwise, if the covered bank is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company subject to supervisory stress tests conducted by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under 12 CFR part 252, then, within the June 15 to July 15 period, such covered bank may not publish the required summary of its periodic stress test earlier than the date that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System publishes the supervisory stress test results of the covered bank's parent holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System publishes the supervisory stress test results of the covered bank's parent holding company prior to June 15, then such covered bank may publish its stress test results prior to June 15, but no later than July 15, through actual publication by the covered bank or through publication by the parent holding company under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication method.</I> The summary required under this section may be published on the covered bank's website or in any other forum that is reasonably accessible to the public. A covered bank that is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that is required to conduct a company-run stress test under applicable regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System will be deemed to have satisfied the public disclosure requirements under this part if it publishes a summary of its stress test results with its parent bank holding company's or savings and loan holding company's summary of stress test results. Subsidiary covered banks electing to satisfy their public disclosure requirement in this manner must include a summary of changes in regulatory capital ratios of such covered bank over the planning horizon, and an explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information to be disclosed in the summary.</I> A covered bank must disclose the following information regarding the severely adverse scenario if it is not a consolidated subsidiary of a parent bank holding company or savings and loan holding company that has elected to make its disclosure under 12 CFR 325.3(d):
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(2) A summary description of the methodologies used in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(3) Estimates of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provision for credit losses, net income, and pro forma capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by the FDIC); and
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the most significant causes for the changes in the regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of results.</I> (1) The disclosure of aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, provisions for credit losses, and net income under this section must be on a cumulative basis over the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(2) The disclosure of regulatory capital ratios and any other capital ratios specified by the Corporation under this section must include the beginning value, ending value, and minimum value of each ratio over the planning horizon.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 62424, Oct. 15, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 69369, Nov. 21, 2014. Redesignated at 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018, as amended at 84 FR 4249, Feb. 14, 2019; 84 FR 56934, Oct. 24, 2019; 84 FR 64985, Nov. 26, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="326" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 326—MINIMUM SECURITY DEVICES AND PROCEDURES AND BANK SECRECY ACT 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> COMPLIANCE
</HEAD>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In its original form, subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31 U.S.C., was part of Pub. L. 91-508 which requires recordkeeping for and reporting of currency transactions by banks and others and is commonly known as the <I>Bank Secrecy Act.</I></P></FTNT>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1813, 1815, 1817, 1818, 1819 (Tenth), 1881-1883, 5412; 31 U.S.C. 5311-5314, 5316-5332.2.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Minimum Security Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 13842, Apr. 2, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 326.0" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.0   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (“FDIC”) pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Protection Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1882). It applies to FDIC-supervised insured depository institutions. It requires each institution to adopt appropriate security procedures to discourage robberies, burglaries, and larcenies and to assist in identifying and apprehending persons who commit such acts.
</P>
<P>(b) It is the responsibility of the institution's board of directors to comply with this part and ensure that a written security program for the institution's main office and branches is developed and implemented.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 326.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> or <I>institution</I> means any entity for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>banking office</I> includes any branch of an institution and, in the case of an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution; it includes the main office of that institution.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>branch</I> for an institution chartered under the laws of any state of the United States includes any branch institution, branch office, branch agency, additional office, or any branch place of business located in any state or territory of the United States, District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands or the Virgin Islands at which deposits are received or checks paid or money lent. In the case of a foreign bank defined in § 347.202 of this chapter, the term branch has the meaning given in § 347.202 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section (3)(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 13842, Apr. 2, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 3246, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 326.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.2   Designation of security officer.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the issuance of Federal deposit insurance, the board of directors of each institution shall designate a security officer who shall have the authority, subject to the approval of the board of directors, to develop, within a reasonable time, but no later than 180 days, and to administer a written security program for each banking office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 326.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.3   Security program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of security program.</I> The security program shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for opening and closing for business and for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the institution and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution; such procedures may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining a camera that records activity in the banking office; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Using identification devices, such as prerecorded serial-numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a robbery, burglar or larceny; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide for selecting, testing, operating and maintaining appropriate security devices, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security devices.</I> Each institution shall have, at a minimum, the following security devices:
</P>
<P>(1) A means of protecting cash or other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space;
</P>
<P>(2) A lighting system for illuminating, during the hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office;
</P>
<P>(3) An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary;
</P>
<P>(4) Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior windows that may be opened; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(i) The incidence of crimes against financial institutions in the area;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of currency or other valuables exposed to robbery, burglary, and larceny;
</P>
<P>(iii) The distance of the banking office from the nearest responsible law enforcement officers;
</P>
<P>(iv) The cost of the security devices;
</P>
<P>(v) Other security measures in effect at the banking office; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The physical characteristics of the structure of the banking office and its surroundings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 326.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.1.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.4   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>The security officer for each institution shall report at least annually to the institution's board of directors on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures for Monitoring Bank Secrecy Act Compliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 326.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.17.2.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 326.8   Bank Secrecy Act compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart is issued to assure that all FDIC-supervised institutions as defined in 12 CFR 326.1 establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor their compliance with the requirements of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, and the implementing regulations promulgated thereunder by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR Chapter X.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance procedures</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each institution shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, and the implementing regulations issued by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR Chapter X. The compliance program shall be written, approved by the institution's board of directors, and noted in the minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Each institution is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the FDIC and the Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 1020.220.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of compliance program.</I> The compliance program shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by institution personnel or by an outside party;
</P>
<P>(3) Designate an individual or individuals responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3246, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="327" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 327—ASSESSMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1813, 1815, 1817-19, 1821, 1823.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 51374, Dec. 15, 1989, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—In General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Sections 327.1 through 327.8 appear at 71 FR 69277, Nov. 30, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 327.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part 327 applies to any insured depository institution, including any insured branch of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, this part 327 sets forth the rules for:
</P>
<P>(i) The time and manner of filing certified statements by insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The time and manner of payment of assessments by such institutions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The payment of assessments by depository institutions whose insured status has terminated;
</P>
<P>(iv) The classification of depository institutions for risk; and
</P>
<P>(v) The processes for review of assessments.
</P>
<P>(2) Deductions from the assessment base of an insured branch of a foreign bank are stated in subpart B part 347 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.2   Certified statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required.</I> (1) The certified statement shall also be known as the quarterly certified statement invoice. Each insured depository institution shall file and certify its quarterly certified statement invoice in the manner and form set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The quarterly certified statement invoice shall reflect the institution's risk assignment, assessment base, assessment computation, and assessment amount, for each quarterly assessment period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability and access.</I> (1) The Corporation shall make available to each insured depository institution via the FDIC's e-business Web site FDIC<I>connect</I> a quarterly certified statement invoice each assessment period.
</P>
<P>(2) Insured depository institutions shall access their quarterly certified statement invoices via FDIC<I>connect</I>, unless the FDIC provides notice to insured depository institutions of a successor system. In the event of a contingency, the FDIC may employ an alternative means of delivering the quarterly certified statement invoices. A quarterly certified statement invoice delivered by any alternative means will be treated as if it had been downloaded from FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) Institutions that do not have Internet access may request a renewable one-year exemption from the requirement that quarterly certified statement invoices be accessed through FDIC<I>connect.</I> Any exemption request must be submitted in writing to the Manager of the Assessments Section.
</P>
<P>(4) Each assessment period, the FDIC will provide courtesy e-mail notification to insured depository institutions indicating that new quarterly certified statement invoices are available and may be accessed on FDIC<I>connect.</I> E-mail notification will be sent to all individuals with FDIC<I>connect</I> access to quarterly certified statement invoices.
</P>
<P>(5) E-mail notification may be used by the FDIC to communicate with insured depository institutions regarding quarterly certified statement invoices and other assessment-related matters.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review by institution.</I> The president of each insured depository institution, or such other officer as the institution's president or board of directors or trustees may designate, shall review the information shown on each quarterly certified statement invoice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention by institution.</I> If the appropriate officer of the insured depository institution agrees that, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the information shown on the quarterly certified statement invoice is true, correct, and complete and in accordance with the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and the regulations issued under it, the institution shall pay the amount specified on the quarterly certified statement invoice and shall retain it in the institution's files for three years as specified in section 7(b)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendment by institution.</I> If the appropriate officer of the insured depository institution determines that, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, the information shown on the quarterly certified statement invoice is not true, correct, and complete and in accordance with the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and the regulations issued under it, the institution shall pay the amount specified on the quarterly certified statement invoice, and may:
</P>
<P>(1) Amend its report of condition, or other similar report, to correct any data believed to be inaccurate on the quarterly certified statement invoice; amendments to such reports timely filed under section 7(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act but not permitted to be made by an institution's primary federal regulator may be filed with the FDIC for consideration in determining deposit insurance assessments; or
</P>
<P>(2) Amend and sign its quarterly certified statement invoice to correct a calculation believed to be inaccurate and return it to the FDIC by the applicable payment date specified in § 327.3(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Certification.</I> Data used by the Corporation to complete the quarterly certified statement invoice has been previously attested to by the institution in its reports of condition, or other similar reports, filed with the institution's primary federal regulator. When an insured institution pays the amount shown on the quarterly certified statement invoice and does not correct that invoice as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the information on that invoice shall be deemed true, correct, complete, and certified for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section and section 7(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requests for revision of assessment computation.</I> (1) The timely filing of an amended report of condition or other similar report under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, or the timely filing of an amended quarterly certified statement invoice under paragraph (e)(2), that will result in a change to deposit insurance assessments owed or paid by an insured depository institution, shall be treated as a timely filed request for revision of computation of quarterly assessment payment under § 327.3(f).
</P>
<P>(2) The assessment rate on the quarterly certified statement invoice shall be amended only if it is inconsistent with the assessment risk assignment(s) provided to the institution by the Corporation for the assessment period in question pursuant to § 327.4(a). Agreement with the assessment rate shall not be deemed to constitute agreement with the assessment risk assignment. An institution may request review of an assessment risk assignment it believes to be incorrect pursuant to § 327.4(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.3   Payment of assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Each insured depository institution shall pay to the Corporation for each assessment period an assessment determined in accordance with this part 327.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of designated deposit account.</I> For the purpose of making such payments, each insured depository institution shall designate a deposit account for direct debit by the Corporation. No later than 30 days prior to the next payment date specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each institution shall provide notice to the Corporation via FDIC<I>connect</I> of the account designated, including all information and authorizations needed by the Corporation for direct debit of the account. After the initial notice of the designated account, no further notice is required unless the institution designates a different account for assessment debit by the Corporation, in which case the requirements of the preceding sentence apply.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transition Rule for Financing Corporation (FICO) Payments.</I> Quarterly FICO payments shall be collected by the FDIC without interruption during the assessment system transitional period in 2007. All insured depository institutions shall make scheduled quarterly FICO payments on January 2, 2007 (unless prepaid on December 30, 2006), and March 30, 2007, based upon, respectively, their September 30, 2006, and December 31, 2006 reported assessment bases, which shall be the final assessment bases calculated pursuant to 12 CFR 327.5(a) and (b) (2006). Simultaneous collection of deposit insurance assessments and FICO assessments will resume in June of 2007, based on the March 31, 2007 reported assessment base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment payment</I>—(1) <I>Quarterly certified statement invoice.</I> Starting with the first assessment period of 2007, no later than 15 days prior to the payment date specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the Corporation will provide to each insured depository institution a quarterly certified statement invoice showing the amount of the assessment payment due from the institution for the prior quarter (net of credits or dividends, if any), and the computation of that amount. Subject to paragraph (e) of this section and § 327.17, the invoiced amount on the quarterly certified statement invoice shall be the product of the following: The assessment base of the institution for the prior quarter computed in accordance with § 327.5 multiplied by the institution's rate for that prior quarter as assigned to the institution pursuant to §§ 327.4(a) and 327.16.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Quarterly payment date and manner.</I> The Corporation will cause the amount stated in the applicable quarterly certified statement invoice to be directly debited on the appropriate payment date from the deposit account designated by the insured depository institution for that purpose, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of the assessment payment for the quarter that begins on January 1, the payment date is the following June 30;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of the assessment payment for the quarter that begins on April 1, the payment date is the following September 30;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of the assessment payment for the quarter that begins on July 1, the payment date is the following December 30; and
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of the assessment payment for the quarter that begins on October 1, the payment date is the following March 30.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Necessary action, sufficient funding by institution.</I> Each insured depository institution shall take all actions necessary to allow the Corporation to debit assessments from the insured depository institution's designated deposit account. Each insured depository institution shall, prior to each payment date indicated in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, ensure that funds in an amount at least equal to the amount on the quarterly certified statement invoice are available in the designated account for direct debit by the Corporation. Failure to take any such action or to provide such funding of the account shall be deemed to constitute nonpayment of the assessment. Penalties for failure to timely pay assessments will be calculated and published in accordance with 12 CFR 308.132(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business days.</I> If a payment date specified in paragraph (b)(2) falls on a date that is not a business day, the applicable date shall be the previous business day.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment adjustments in succeeding quarters.</I> Quarterly certified statement invoices provided by the Corporation may reflect adjustments, initiated by the Corporation or an institution, resulting from such factors as amendments to prior quarterly reports of condition, retroactive revision of the institution's assessment risk assignment, and revision of the Corporation's assessment computations for prior quarters.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request for revision of computation of quarterly assessment payment</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An institution may submit a written request for revision of the computation of the institution's quarterly assessment payment as shown on the quarterly certified statement invoice in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution disagrees with the computation of the assessment base as stated on the quarterly certified statement invoice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution determines that the rate applied by the Corporation is inconsistent with the assessment risk assignment(s) provided to the institution in writing by the Corporation for the assessment period for which the payment is due; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The institution believes that the quarterly certified statement invoice does not fully or accurately reflect adjustments provided for in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inapplicability.</I> This paragraph (f) is not applicable to requests for review of an institution's assessment risk assignment, which are covered by § 327.4(c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements.</I> Any such request for revision must be submitted within 90 days from the date the computation being challenged appears on the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice. The request for revision shall be submitted to the Manager of the Assessments Section and shall provide documentation sufficient to support the change sought by the institution. If additional information is requested by the Corporation, such information shall be provided by the institution within 21 days of the date of the request for additional information. Any institution submitting a timely request for revision will receive written notice from the Corporation regarding the outcome of its request. Upon completion of a review, the DOF Director (or designee) shall promptly notify the institution in writing of his or her determination of whether revision is warranted. If the institution requesting revision disagrees with that determination, it may appeal to the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee. Notice of the procedures applicable to appeals will be included with the written determination.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Quarterly certified statement invoice unavailable.</I> Any institution whose quarterly certified statement invoice is unavailable on FDIC<I>connect</I> by the fifteenth day of the month in which the payment is due shall promptly notify the Corporation. Failure to provide prompt notice to the Corporation shall not affect the institution's obligation to make full and timely assessment payment. Unless otherwise directed by the Corporation, the institution shall preliminarily pay the amount shown on its quarterly certified statement invoice for the preceding assessment period, subject to subsequent correction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 51374, Dec. 15, 1989, as amended at 74 FR 9550, Mar. 4, 2009; 81 FR 32201, May 20, 2016; 81 FR 42243, June 29, 2016; 83 FR 61115, Nov. 28, 2018; 85 FR 38292, June 26, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.4   Assessment rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment risk assignment.</I> For the purpose of determining the annual assessment rate for insured depository institutions under § 327.16, each insured depository institution will be provided an assessment risk assignment. Notice of an institution's current assessment risk assignment will be provided to the institution with each quarterly certified statement invoice. Adjusted assessment risk assignments for prior periods may also be provided by the Corporation. Notice of the procedures applicable to reviews will be included with the notice of assessment risk assignment provided pursuant to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of assessment at rate assigned.</I> Institutions shall make timely payment of assessments based on the assessment risk assignment in the notice provided to the institution pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. Timely payment is required notwithstanding any request for review filed pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. Assessment risk assignments remain in effect for future assessment periods until changed. If the risk assignment in the notice is subsequently changed, any excess assessment paid by the institution will be credited by the Corporation, with interest, and any additional assessment owed shall be paid by the institution, with interest, in the next assessment payment after such subsequent assignment or change. Interest payable under this paragraph shall be determined in accordance with § 327.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for review.</I> An institution that believes any assessment risk assignment provided by the Corporation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is incorrect and seeks to change it must submit a written request for review of that risk assignment. An institution cannot request review through this process of the CAMELS ratings assigned by its primary federal regulator or challenge the appropriateness of any such rating; each federal regulator has established procedures for that purpose. An institution may also request review of a determination by the FDIC to assess the institution as a large, highly complex, or a small institution (§ 327.16(f)(3)) or a determination by the FDIC that the institution is a new institution (§ 327.16(g)(5)). Any request for review must be submitted within 90 days from the date the assessment risk assignment being challenged pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section appears on the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice. The request shall be submitted to the Corporation's Director of the Division of Insurance and Research in Washington, DC, and shall include documentation sufficient to support the change sought by the institution. If additional information is requested by the Corporation, such information shall be provided by the institution within 21 days of the date of the request for additional information. Any institution submitting a timely request for review will receive written notice from the Corporation regarding the outcome of its request. Upon completion of a review, the Director of the Division of Insurance and Research (or designee) or the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (or designee) or any successor divisions, as appropriate, shall promptly notify the institution in writing of his or her determination of whether a change is warranted. If the institution requesting review disagrees with that determination, it may appeal to the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee. Notice of the procedures applicable to appeals will be included with the written determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure restrictions.</I> The portion of an assessment risk assignment provided to an institution by the Corporation pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section that reflects any supervisory evaluation or confidential information is deemed to be exempt information within the scope of § 309.5(g)(8) of this chapter and, accordingly, is governed by the disclosure restrictions set out at § 309.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited use of assessment risk assignment.</I> Any assessment risk assignment provided to a depository institution under this part 327 is for purposes of implementing and operating the FDIC's risk-based assessment system. Unless permitted by the Corporation or otherwise required by law, no institution may state in any advertisement or promotional material, or in any other public place or manner, the assessment risk assignment provided to it pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effective date for changes to risk assignment.</I> Changes to an insured institution's risk assignment resulting from a supervisory ratings change become effective as of the date of written notification to the institution by its primary federal regulator or state authority of its supervisory rating (even when the CAMELS component ratings have not been disclosed to the institution), if the FDIC, after taking into account other information that could affect the rating, agrees with the rating. If the FDIC does not agree, the FDIC will notify the institution of the FDIC's supervisory rating; resulting changes to an insured institution's risk assignment become effective as of the date of written notification to the institution by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Designated Reserve Ratio.</I> The designated reserve ratio for the Deposit Insurance Fund is 2 percent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 69277, 69326, Nov. 30, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 79293, Dec. 20, 2010; 76 FR 10704, Feb. 25, 2011; 81 FR 32201, May 20, 2016; 87 FR 64334, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.5   Assessment base.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment base for all insured depository institutions.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the assessment base for an insured depository institution shall equal the average consolidated total assets of the insured depository institution during the assessment period minus the average tangible equity of the insured depository institution during the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Average consolidated total assets defined and calculated.</I> Average consolidated total assets are defined in the schedule of quarterly averages in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, using either a daily averaging method or a weekly averaging method as described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section. The amounts to be reported as daily averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each calendar day during the quarter divided by the number of calendar days in the quarter. The amounts to be reported as weekly averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each Wednesday during the quarter divided by the number of Wednesdays in the quarter. For days that an office of the reporting institution (or any of its subsidiaries or branches) is closed (e.g., Saturdays, Sundays, or holidays), the amounts outstanding from the previous business day will be used. An office is considered closed if there are no transactions posted to the general ledger as of that date. For institutions that begin operating during the calendar quarter, the amounts to be reported as daily averages are the sum of the gross amounts of consolidated total assets for each calendar day the institution was operating during the quarter divided by the number of calendar days the institution was operating during the quarter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Institutions that must report average consolidated total assets using a daily averaging method.</I> All insured depository institutions that report $1 billion or more in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011 Consolidated Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report (or successor report), and all institutions that become insured after March 31, 2011, shall report average consolidated total assets as of the close of business for each day of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Institutions that may report average consolidated total assets using a weekly averaging method.</I> All insured depository institutions that report less than $1 billion in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011, Consolidated Report of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report may report average consolidated total assets as an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the calendar quarter, or may at any time opt permanently to report average consolidated total assets on a daily basis as set forth in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. Once an institution that reports average consolidated total assets using a weekly average reports average consolidated total assets equal to or greater than $1 billion for two consecutive quarters, it shall permanently report average consolidated total assets using daily averaging starting in the next quarter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Mergers and consolidations.</I> The average calculation of the assets of the surviving or resulting institution in a merger or consolidation shall include the assets of all the merged or consolidated institutions for the days in the quarter prior to the merger or consolidation, whether reported by the daily or weekly method.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Average tangible equity defined and calculated.</I> Tangible equity is defined as Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of average tangible equity.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, average tangible equity shall be calculated using monthly averaging. Monthly averaging means the average of the three month-end balances within the quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Alternate calculation of average tangible equity.</I> Institutions that report less than $1 billion in quarter-end consolidated total assets on their March 31, 2011 Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Reports may report average tangible equity using an end-of-quarter balance or may at any time opt permanently to report average tangible equity using a monthly average balance. An institution that reports average tangible equity using an end-of-quarter balance and reports average daily or weekly consolidated assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive quarters shall permanently report average tangible equity using monthly averaging starting in the next quarter. Newly insured institutions shall report using monthly averaging.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Calculation of average tangible equity for the surviving institution in a merger or consolidation.</I> For the surviving institution in a merger or consolidation, Tier 1 capital shall be calculated as if the merger occurred on the first day of the quarter in which the merger or consolidation occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consolidated subsidiaries</I>—(i) <I>Reporting for insured depository institutions with consolidated subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions.</I> For insured institutions with consolidated subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions, assets, including assets eliminated in consolidation, shall be calculated using a daily or weekly averaging method, corresponding to the daily or weekly averaging requirement of the parent institution. The Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income instructions in effect for the quarter for which data is being reported shall govern calculation of the average amount of subsidiaries' assets, including those assets eliminated in consolidation. An insured depository institution that reports average tangible equity using a monthly averaging method and that has subsidiaries that are not insured depository institutions shall use monthly average reporting for the subsidiaries. The monthly average data for these subsidiaries, however, may be calculated for the current quarter or for the prior quarter consistent with the method used to report average consolidated total assets and in conformity with Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income requirements. Once the method of reporting the subsidiaries' assets and tangible equity is chosen, however (current quarter or prior quarter), insured depository institutions cannot change the reporting method from quarter to quarter. An institution that reports consolidated assets and tangible equity using data for the prior quarter may switch to concurrent reporting on a permanent basis.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reporting for insured depository institutions with consolidated insured depository subsidiaries.</I> Insured depository institutions that consolidate with other insured depository institutions for financial reporting purposes shall report for the parent and for each subsidiary individually, daily average consolidated total assets or weekly average consolidated total assets, as appropriate under paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) above, and tangible equity, without consolidating their insured depository institution subsidiaries into the calculations. Investments in insured depository institution subsidiaries should be included in total assets using the equity method of accounting.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment base for banker's banks</I>—(1) <I>Bankers bank defined.</I> A banker's bank for purposes of calculating deposit insurance assessments shall meet the definition of banker's bank as that term is used in 12 U.S.C. 24. Banker's banks that have funds from government capital infusion programs (such as TARP and the Small Business Lending Fund), and stock owned by the FDIC resulting from banks failures, as well as non-bank-owned stock resulting from equity compensation programs, are not thereby excluded from the definition of banker's banks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Self-certification.</I> Institutions that meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall so certify to that effect each quarter on the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report or successor report.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessment base calculation for banker's banks.</I> A banker's bank shall pay deposit insurance assessments on its assessment base as calculated in paragraph (a) of this section provided that it conducts 50 percent or more of its business with entities other than its parent holding company or entities other than those controlled (control has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the FDI Act) either directly or indirectly by its parent holding company. The assessment base will exclude the average (daily or weekly depending on how the institution calculates its average consolidated total assets) amount of reserve balances passed through to the Federal Reserve, the average amount of reserve balances held at the Federal Reserve for its own account (including all balances due from the Federal Reserve as described in the instructions to line 4 of Schedule RC-A of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income as of December 31, 2010), and the average amount of the institution's federal funds sold, but in no case shall the amount excluded exceed the sum of the bank's average amount of total deposits of commercial banks and other depository institutions in the United States and the average amount of its federal funds purchased.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment base for custodial banks</I>—(1) <I>Custodial bank defined.</I> A custodial bank for purposes of calculating deposit insurance assessments shall be an insured depository institution with previous calendar-year trust assets (fiduciary and custody and safekeeping assets, as described in the instructions to Schedule RC-T of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income) of at least $50 billion or an insured depository institution that derived more than 50 percent of its total revenue (interest income plus non-interest income) from trust activity over the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment base calculation for custodial banks.</I> A custodial bank shall pay deposit insurance assessments on its assessment base as calculated in paragraph (a) of this section, but the FDIC will exclude from that assessment base the daily or weekly average (depending on how the bank reports its average consolidated total assets) of all asset types described in the instructions to lines 1, 2, and 3 of Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income with a standardized approach risk weight of 0 percent, regardless of maturity, plus 50 percent of those asset types described in the instructions to lines 1, 2, and 3 of Schedule RC of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, with a standardized approach risk-weight greater than 0 and up to and including 20 percent, regardless of maturity, subject to the limitation that the daily or weekly average (depending on how the bank reports its average consolidated total assets) value of all assets that serve as the basis for a deduction under this section cannot exceed the daily or weekly average value of those deposits that are classified as transaction accounts in the instructions to Schedule RC-E of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income and that are identified by the institution as being directly linked to a fiduciary or custodial and safekeeping account asset.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assessment base for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> Average consolidated total assets for an insured branch of a foreign bank are defined as total assets of the branch (including net due from related depository institutions) in accordance with the schedule of assets and liabilities in the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as of the assessment period for which the assessment is being calculated, but measured using the definition for reporting total assets in the schedule of quarterly averages in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income, and calculated using the appropriate daily or weekly averaging method under paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section. Tangible equity for an insured branch of a foreign bank is eligible assets (determined in accordance with § 347.210 of the FDIC's regulations) less the book value of liabilities (exclusive of liabilities due to the foreign bank's head office, other branches, agencies, offices, or wholly owned subsidiaries) calculated on a monthly or end-of-quarter basis, according to the branch's size.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Newly insured institutions.</I> A newly insured institution shall pay an assessment for the assessment period during which it became insured. The FDIC will prorate the newly insured institution's assessment amount to reflect the number of days it was insured during the period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10704, Feb. 25, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 70437, Nov. 26, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.6   Mergers and consolidations; other terminations of insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final quarterly certified invoice for acquired institution.</I> An institution that is not the resulting or surviving institution in a merger or consolidation must file a report of condition for every assessment period prior to the assessment period in which the merger or consolidation occurs. The surviving or resulting institution shall be responsible for ensuring that these reports of condition are filed and shall be liable for any unpaid assessments on the part of the institution that is not the resulting or surviving institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment for quarter in which the merger or consolidation occurs.</I> For an assessment period in which a merger or consolidation occurs, consolidated total assets for the surviving or resulting institution shall include the consolidated total assets of all insured depository institutions that are parties to the merger or consolidation as if the merger or consolidation occurred on the first day of the assessment period. Tier 1 capital shall be reported in the same manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other termination.</I> When the insured status of an institution is terminated, and the deposit liabilities of such institution are not assumed by another insured depository institution—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payment of assessments; quarterly certified statement invoices.</I> The depository institution whose insured status is terminating shall continue to file and certify its quarterly certified statement invoice and pay assessments for the assessment period its deposits are insured. Such institution shall not be required to certify its quarterly certified statement invoice and pay further assessments after it has paid in full its deposit liabilities and the assessment to the Corporation required to be paid for the assessment period in which its deposit liabilities are paid in full, and after it, under applicable law, goes out of business or transfers all or substantially all of its assets and liabilities to other institutions or otherwise ceases to be obliged to pay subsequent assessments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment of deposits; certification to Corporation.</I> When the deposit liabilities of the depository institution have been paid in full, the depository institution shall certify to the Corporation that the deposit liabilities have been paid in full and give the date of the final payment. When the depository institution has unclaimed deposits, the certification shall further state the amount of the unclaimed deposits and the disposition made of the funds to be held to meet the claims. For assessment purposes, the following will be considered as payment of the unclaimed deposits:
</P>
<P>(i) The transfer of cash funds in an amount sufficient to pay the unclaimed and unpaid deposits to the public official authorized by law to receive the same; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If no law provides for the transfer of funds to a public official, the transfer of cash funds or compensatory assets to an insured depository institution in an amount sufficient to pay the unclaimed and unpaid deposits in consideration for the assumption of the deposit obligations by the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice to depositors.</I> (i) The depository institution whose insured status is terminating shall give sufficient advance notice of the intended transfer to the owners of the unclaimed deposits to enable the depositors to obtain their deposits prior to the transfer. The notice shall be mailed to each depositor and shall be published in a local newspaper of general circulation. The notice shall advise the depositors of the liquidation of the depository institution, request them to call for and accept payment of their deposits, and state the disposition to be made of their deposits if they fail to promptly claim the deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unclaimed and unpaid deposits are disposed of as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a certified copy of the public official's receipt issued for the funds shall be furnished to the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the unclaimed and unpaid deposits are disposed of as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, an affidavit of the publication and of the mailing of the notice to the depositors, together with a copy of the notice and a certified copy of the contract of assumption, shall be furnished to the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice to Corporation.</I> The depository institution whose insured status is terminating shall advise the Corporation of the date on which it goes out of business or transfers all or substantially all of its assets and liabilities to other institutions or otherwise ceases to be obligated to pay subsequent assessments and the method whereby the termination has been effected.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resumption of insured status before insurance of deposits ceases.</I> If a depository institution whose insured status has been terminated is permitted by the Corporation to continue or resume its status as an insured depository institution before the insurance of its deposits has ceased, the institution will be deemed, for assessment purposes, to continue as an insured depository institution and must thereafter file and certify its quarterly certified statement invoices and pay assessments as though its insured status had not been terminated. The procedure for applying for the continuance or resumption of insured status is set forth in § 303.248 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10706, Feb. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.7   Payment of interest on assessment underpayments and overpayments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of interest</I>—(1) <I>Payment by institutions.</I> Each insured depository institution shall pay interest to the Corporation on any underpayment of the institution's assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payment by Corporation.</I> The Corporation will pay interest on any overpayment by the institution of its assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accrual of interest.</I> (i) Interest on an amount owed to or by the Corporation for the underpayment or overpayment of an assessment shall accrue interest at the relevant interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest on an amount specified in paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section shall begin to accrue on the day following the regular payment date, as provided for in § 327.3(b)(2), for the amount so overpaid or underpaid, provided, however, that interest shall not begin to accrue on any overpayment until the day following the date such overpayment was received by the Corporation. Interest shall continue to accrue through the date on which the overpayment or underpayment (together with any interest thereon) is discharged.
</P>
<P>(iii) The relevant interest rate shall be redetermined for each quarterly assessment interval. A quarterly assessment interval begins on the day following a regular payment date, as specified in § 327.3(b)(2), and ends on the immediately following regular payment date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest rates.</I> (1) The relevant interest rate for a quarterly assessment interval that includes the month of January, April, July, and October, respectively, is the coupon equivalent yield of the average discount rate set on the 3-month Treasury bill at the last auction held by the United States Treasury Department during the preceding December, March, June, and September, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) The relevant interest rate for a quarterly assessment interval will apply to any amounts overpaid or underpaid on the payment date immediately prior to the beginning of the quarterly assessment interval. The relevant interest rate will also apply to any amounts owed for previous overpayments or underpayments (including any interest thereon) that remain outstanding, after any adjustments to such overpayments or underpayments have been made thereon, at the end of the regular payment date immediately prior to the beginning of the quarterly assessment interval. Interest will be compounded daily.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.8   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part 327:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Deposits.</I> The term <I>deposit</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quarterly report of condition.</I> The term <I>quarterly report of condition</I> means a report required to be filed pursuant to section 7(a)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment period</I>—<I>In general.</I> The term <I>assessment period</I> means a period beginning on January 1 of any calendar year and ending on March 31 of the same year, or a period beginning on April 1 of any calendar year and ending on June 30 of the same year; or a period beginning on July 1 of any calendar year and ending on September 30 of the same year; or a period beginning on October 1 of any calendar year and ending on December 31 of the same year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acquiring institution.</I> The term <I>acquiring institution</I> means an insured depository institution that assumes some or all of the deposits of another insured depository institution in a terminating transfer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Small institution.</I> (1) An insured depository institution with assets of less than $10 billion, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), as of December 31, 2006, and an insured branch of a foreign institution shall be classified as a small institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section and § 327.17(e), if, after December 31, 2006, an institution classified as large under paragraph (f) of this section (other than an institution classified as large for purposes of § 327.16(f)) reports assets of less than $10 billion in its quarterly reports of condition for four consecutive quarters, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), the FDIC will reclassify the institution as small beginning the following quarter.
</P>
<P>(3) An insured depository institution that elects to use the community bank leverage ratio framework under 12 CFR 3.12(a)(3), 12 CFR 217.12(a)(3), or 12 CFR 324.12(a)(3), shall be classified as a small institution, even if that institution otherwise would be classified as a large institution under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Large institution.</I> An institution classified as large for purposes of § 327.16(f) or an insured depository institution with assets of $10 billion or more, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), as of December 31, 2006 (other than an insured branch of a foreign bank or a highly complex institution) shall be classified as a large institution. If, after December 31, 2006, an institution classified as small under paragraph (e) of this section reports assets of $10 billion or more in its quarterly reports of condition for four consecutive quarters, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), the FDIC will reclassify the institution as large beginning the following quarter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Highly complex institution.</I> (1) A highly complex institution is:
</P>
<P>(i) An insured depository institution (excluding a credit card bank) that has had $50 billion or more in total assets for at least four consecutive quarters, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), that is controlled by a U.S. parent holding company that has had $500 billion or more in total assets for four consecutive quarters, or controlled by one or more intermediate U.S. parent holding companies that are controlled by a U.S. holding company that has had $500 billion or more in assets for four consecutive quarters; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A processing bank or trust company.
</P>
<P>(2) Control has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the FDI Act. A U.S. parent holding company is a parent holding company incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or any State, as the term “State” is defined in section 3(a)(3) of the FDI Act. If, after December 31, 2010, an institution classified as highly complex under paragraph (g)(1)(i) of this section falls below $50 billion in total assets in its quarterly reports of condition for four consecutive quarters, or its parent holding company or companies fall below $500 billion in total assets for four consecutive quarters, the FDIC will reclassify the institution beginning the following quarter. If, after December 31, 2010, an institution classified as highly complex under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section falls below $10 billion in total assets for four consecutive quarters, the FDIC will reclassify the institution beginning the following quarter.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CAMELS composite and CAMELS component ratings.</I> The terms <I>CAMELS composite ratings</I> and <I>CAMELS component ratings</I> shall have the same meaning as in the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System as published by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>ROCA supervisory ratings.</I> ROCA supervisory ratings rate risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>New depository institution.</I> A new insured depository institution is a bank or savings association that has been federally insured for less than five years as of the last day of any quarter for which it is being assessed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Established depository institution.</I> An established insured depository institution is a bank or savings association that has been federally insured for at least five years as of the last day of any quarter for which it is being assessed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Merger or consolidation involving new and established institution(s).</I> Subject to paragraphs (k)(2) through (5) of this section and § 327.16(g)(3) and (4), when an established institution merges into or consolidates with a new institution, the resulting institution is a new institution unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets of the established institution, as reported in its report of condition for the quarter ending immediately before the merger, exceeded the assets of the new institution, as reported in its report of condition for the quarter ending immediately before the merger; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Substantially all of the management of the established institution continued as management of the resulting or surviving institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidation involving established institutions.</I> When established institutions consolidate, the resulting institution is an established institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Grandfather exception.</I> If a new institution merges into an established institution, and the merger agreement was entered into on or before July 11, 2006, the resulting institution shall be deemed to be an established institution for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Subsidiary exception.</I> Subject to paragraph (k)(5) of this section, a new institution will be considered established if it is a wholly owned subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(i) A company that is a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 or a savings and loan holding company under the Home Owners' Loan Act, and:
</P>
<P>(A) At least one eligible depository institution (as defined in 12 CFR 303.2(r)) that is owned by the holding company has been chartered as a bank or savings association for at least five years as of the date that the otherwise new institution was established; and
</P>
<P>(B) The holding company has a composite rating of at least “2” for bank holding companies or an above average or “A” rating for savings and loan holding companies and at least 75 percent of its insured depository institution assets are assets of eligible depository institutions, as defined in 12 CFR 303.2(r); or
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible depository institution, as defined in 12 CFR 303.2(r), that has been chartered as a bank or savings association for at least five years as of the date that the otherwise new institution was established.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of credit union conversion.</I> In determining whether an insured depository institution is new or established, the FDIC will include any period of time that the institution was a federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Risk assignment.</I> Under § 327.16, for all new small institutions and insured branches of foreign banks, risk assignment includes assignment to Risk Category I, II, III, or IV, and for insured branches of foreign banks within Risk Category I, assignment to an assessment rate or rates. For all established small institutions, and all large institutions and all highly complex institutions, risk assignment includes assignment to an assessment rate.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Unsecured debt.</I> For purposes of the unsecured debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(1) and the depository institution debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(2), unsecured debt shall include senior unsecured liabilities and subordinated debt.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Senior unsecured liability.</I> For purposes of the unsecured debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(1) and the depository institution debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(2), senior unsecured liabilities shall be the unsecured portion of other borrowed money as defined in the quarterly report of condition for the reporting period as defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Subordinated debt.</I> For purposes of the unsecured debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(1) and the depository institution debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(2), subordinated debt shall be as defined in the quarterly report of condition for the reporting period; however, subordinated debt shall also include limited-life preferred stock as defined in the quarterly report of condition for the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Long-term unsecured debt.</I> For purposes of the unsecured debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(1) and the depository institution debt adjustment as set forth in § 327.16(e)(2), long-term unsecured debt shall be unsecured debt with at least one year remaining until maturity; however, any such debt where the holder of the debt has a redemption option that is exercisable within one year of the reporting date shall not be deemed long-term unsecured debt.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Brokered reciprocal deposits.</I> Reciprocal deposits as defined in § 337.6(e)(2)(v) that are not excepted from the institution's brokered deposits pursuant to § 337.6(e).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Parent holding company</I>—A parent holding company has the same meaning as “depository institution holding company,” as defined in § 3(w) of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Processing bank or trust company.</I> A processing bank or trust company is an institution whose last three years' non-lending interest income, fiduciary revenues, and investment banking fees, combined, exceed 50 percent of total revenues (and its last three years fiduciary revenues are non-zero), and whose total fiduciary assets total $500 billion or more, and whose total assets for at least four consecutive quarters have been $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Credit card bank.</I> A credit card bank is a bank for which credit card receivables plus securitized receivables exceed 50 percent of assets plus securitized receivables.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Control.</I> Control has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Established small institution.</I> An established small institution is a “small institution” as defined under paragraph (e) of this section that meets the definition of “established depository institution” under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>New small institution.</I> A new small institution is a “small institution” as defined under paragraph (e) of this section that meets the definition of “new depository institution” under paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Deposit Insurance Fund and DIF.</I> The Deposit Insurance Fund as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(y)(1).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Reserve ratio of the DIF.</I> The reserve ratio as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(y)(3).
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Well capitalized, adequately capitalized, and undercapitalized.</I> For any insured depository institution other than an insured branch of a foreign bank, Well Capitalized, Adequately Capitalized, and Undercapitalized have the same meaning as in: 12 CFR 6.4 (for national banks and Federal savings associations), as either may be amended from time to time, except that 12 CFR 6.4(b)(1)(i)(E) and (e), as they may be amended from time to time, shall not apply; 12 CFR 208.43 (for state member institutions), as either may be amended from time to time, except that 12 CFR 208.43(b)(1)(i)(E) and (c), as they may be amended from time to time, shall not apply; and 12 CFR 324.403 (for state nonmember institutions and state savings associations), as either may be amended from time to time, except that 12 CFR 324.403(b)(1)(i)(E) and (d), as they may be amended from time to time, shall not apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 51374, Dec. 15, 1989, as amended at 74 FR 9551, Mar. 4, 2009; 76 FR 10707, Feb. 25, 2011; 81 FR 32201, May 20, 2016; 83 FR 14568, Apr. 5, 2018; 84 FR 1353, Feb. 4, 2019; 84 FR 66838, Dec. 6, 2019; 85 FR 38292, June 26, 2020; 87 FR 64334, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.10   Assessment rate schedules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Assessment rate schedules for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions applicable in the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and in all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(1) Introductory Text—Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Through the Assessment Period Ending December 31, 2022, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 30
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 3 to 16 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 6 to 30 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 16 to 30 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 3 to 30 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, that the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, where the reserve ratio for the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be as prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)(2) Introductory Text—Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) 
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Through the Assessment Period Ending December 31, 2022, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">16 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Debt Adjustment</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 to 16</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">11 to 30</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 to 40
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1.5 to 16 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 3 to 30 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 11 to 30 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1.5 to 40 basis points.
</P>
<P>(b) Assessment rate schedules for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions beginning the first assessment period of 2023, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions.</I> Beginning the first assessment period of 2023, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(1) Introductory Text—Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period of 2023, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>1</sup></P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">18 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 32
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 5 to 18 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 8 to 32 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 18 to 32 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 5 to 32 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments.</I> Beginning the first assessment period of 2023, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be as prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2) Introductory Text—Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) 
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period of 2023, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp; Highly Complex Institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">8 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">18 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Debt Adjustment</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 to 18</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">13 to 32</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 to 42
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 2.5 to 18 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 4 to 32 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 13 to 32 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 2.5 to 42 basis points.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment rate schedules if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent</I>—(1) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Equal to or Greater Than 2 Percent But Less Than 2.5 Percent 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly
<br/>complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 28.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 2 to 14 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 5 to 28 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 14 to 28 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 2 to 28 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be as prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) 
<sup>1</sup> If the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Equal To or Greater Than 2 Percent but Less Than 2.5 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly
<br/>complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">14 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 28.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Debt Adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9 to 28</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 38.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1 to 14 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 2.5 to 28 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 9 to 28 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1 to 38 basis points.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assessment rate schedules if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent</I>—(1) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the initial base assessment rate for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly
<br/>complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 25.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 1 to 13 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 4 to 25 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 13 to 25 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 1 to 25 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule after adjustments.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for established small institutions and large and highly complex institutions, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) 
<sup>1</sup> If the Reserve Ratio as of

the End of the Prior Assessment Period is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Established small institutions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Large &amp;
<br/>highly
<br/>complex
<br/>institutions
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">CAMELS composite
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">1 or 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">4 or 5
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">13 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 25.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Debt Adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−5 to 0.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8 to 25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 to 35.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>CAMELS composite 1- and 2-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2 shall range from 0.5 to 13 basis points.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CAMELS composite 3-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 3 shall range from 2 to 25 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>CAMELS composite 4- and 5-rated established small institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all established small institutions with a CAMELS composite rating of 4 or 5 shall range from 8 to 25 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Large and highly complex institutions total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all large and highly complex institutions shall range from 0.5 to 35 basis points.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assessment rate schedules for new institutions and insured branches of foreign banks.</I> (1) New depository institutions, as defined in § 327.8(j), shall be subject to the assessment rate schedules as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessment rate schedules for new large and highly complex institutions once the DIF reserve ratio first reaches 1.15 percent on or after June 30, 2016, and through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, new large and new highly complex institutions shall be subject to the initial and total base assessment rate schedules provided for in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assessment rate schedules for new large and highly complex institutions beginning the first assessment period of 2023 and for all subsequent periods.</I> Beginning in the first assessment period of 2023 and for all subsequent assessment periods, new large and new highly complex institutions shall be subject to the initial and total base assessment rate schedules provided for in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Assessment rate schedules for new small institutions beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022</I>—(A) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, the initial base assessment rate for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(1)(iii)</E>(A) Introductory Text—Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Through the Assessment Period Ending December 31, 2022 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Risk category I initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 7 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 12, 19, and 30 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, that the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(1)(iii)(B)</E> Introductory Text—Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments) 
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Through the Assessment Period Ending December 31, 2022 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment (added)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12 to 22</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19 to 29</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30 to 40
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Risk category I total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 7 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Risk category II total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category II shall range from 12 to 22 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk category III total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category III shall range from 19 to 29 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Risk category IV total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category IV shall range from 30 to 40 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Assessment rate schedules for new small institutions beginning the first assessment period of 2023 and for all subsequent assessment periods</I>—(A) <I>Initial base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions.</I> Beginning in the first assessment period of 2023 and for all subsequent assessment periods, the initial base assessment rate for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table, even if the reserve ratio equals or exceeds 2 percent or 2.5 percent:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(1)(iv)(A)</E> Introductory Text—Initial Base Assessment Rate Schedule Beginning the First Assessment Period of 2023 and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Risk category I initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 9 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 14, 21, and 32 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule for new small institutions.</I> Beginning in the first assessment period of 2023 and for all subsequent assessment periods, the total base assessment rates after adjustments for a new small institution shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table, even if the reserve ratio equals or exceeds 2 percent or 2.5 percent:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 12 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(1)(iv)(B)</E> Introductory Text—Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule (After Adjustments)
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period of 2023 and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Adjustment (added)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0 to 10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Base Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14 to 24</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">21 to 31</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">32 to 42
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Risk category I total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category I shall be 9 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Risk category II total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category II shall range from 14 to 24 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk category III total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category III shall range from 21 to 31 basis points.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Risk category IV total assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual total base assessment rates for all new small institutions in Risk Category IV shall range from 32 to 42 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured branches of foreign banks</I>—(i) <I>Beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent.</I> In the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods through the assessment period ending December 31, 2022, where the reserve ratio as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 13 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(2)(i)</E> Introductory Text—Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule 
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Through the Assessment Period Ending December 31, 2022, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial and Total Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3 to 7</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) <I>Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 3 to 7 basis points.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 12, 19, and 30 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assessment rate schedule for insured branches of foreign banks beginning the first assessment period of 2023, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent.</I> Beginning the first assessment period of 2023, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is less than 2 percent, the initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the schedule in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 14 to Paragraph <E T="01">(e)(2)(ii)</E> Introductory Text—Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule 
<sup>1</sup> Beginning the First Assessment Period of 2023, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period is Less Than 2 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk category IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial and Total Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5 to 9</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) <I>Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 5 to 9 basis points.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 14, 21, and 32 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Same initial base assessment rate.</I> All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Assessment rate schedule for insured branches of foreign banks if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is equal to or greater than 2 percent and less than 2.5 percent, the initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule 
<sup>1</sup> if the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period is Equal to or Greater Than 2 Percent but Less Than 2.5 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial and Total Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 to 6</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) <I>Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 2 to 6 basis points.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 10, 17, and 28 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Assessment rate schedule for insured branches of foreign banks if the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent.</I> If the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period is greater than 2.5 percent, the initial and total base assessment rate for an insured branch of foreign bank, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, shall be the rate prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Initial and Total Base Assessment Rate Schedule 
<sup>1</sup> If the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>I
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>II
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>III
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk Category
<br/>IV
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Initial Assessment Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 to 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The depository institution debt adjustment, which is not included in the table, can increase total base assessment rates above the maximum assessment rates shown in the table.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> All amounts for all risk categories are in basis points annually. Initial and total base rates that are not the minimum or maximum rate will vary between these rates.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) <I>Risk category I initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for an insured branch of a foreign bank in Risk Category I shall range from 1 to 5 basis points.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Risk category II, III, and IV initial and total base assessment rate schedule.</I> The annual initial and total base assessment rates for Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be 9, 15, and 25 basis points, respectively.
</P>
<P>(C) All insured branches of foreign banks in any one risk category, other than Risk Category I, will be charged the same initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total base assessment rate schedule adjustments and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Board rate adjustments.</I> The Board may increase or decrease the total base assessment rate schedule in paragraphs (a) through (e) of this section up to a maximum increase of 2 basis points or a fraction thereof or a maximum decrease of 2 basis points or a fraction thereof (after aggregating increases and decreases), as the Board deems necessary. Any such adjustment shall apply uniformly to each rate in the total base assessment rate schedule. In no case may such rate adjustments result in a total base assessment rate that is mathematically less than zero or in a total base assessment rate schedule that, at any time, is more than 2 basis points above or below the total base assessment schedule for the Deposit Insurance Fund in effect pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, nor may any one such adjustment constitute an increase or decrease of more than 2 basis points.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of revenue.</I> In setting assessment rates, the Board shall take into consideration the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Estimated operating expenses of the Deposit Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) Case resolution expenditures and income of the Deposit Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) The projected effects of assessments on the capital and earnings of the institutions paying assessments to the Deposit Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P>(iv) The risk factors and other factors taken into account pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1817(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other factors the Board may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustment procedure.</I> Any adjustment adopted by the Board pursuant to this paragraph (f) will be adopted by rulemaking, except that the Corporation may set assessment rates as necessary to manage the reserve ratio, within set parameters not exceeding cumulatively 2 basis points, pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, without further rulemaking.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Announcement.</I> The Board shall announce the assessment schedules and the amount and basis for any adjustment thereto not later than 30 days before the quarterly certified statement invoice date specified in § 327.3(b) for the first assessment period for which the adjustment shall be effective. Once set, rates will remain in effect until changed by the Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10717, Feb. 25, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 32201, May 20, 2016; 87 FR 64335, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.11   Surcharges and assessments required to raise the reserve ratio of the DIF to 1.35 percent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Surcharge</I>—(1) <I>Institutions subject to surcharge.</I> The following insured depository institutions are subject to the surcharge described in this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(i) Large institutions, as defined in § 327.8(f);
</P>
<P>(ii) Highly complex institutions, as defined in § 327.8(g); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Insured branches of foreign banks whose assets are equal to or exceed $10 billion, as reported in Schedule RAL of the branch's most recent quarterly Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Surcharge period.</I> The surcharge period shall begin the later of the first day of the assessment period following the assessment period in which the reserve ratio of the DIF first reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent, or the assessment period beginning on July 1, 2016. The surcharge period shall continue through the earlier of the assessment period ending December 31, 2018, or the end of the assessment period in which the reserve ratio of the DIF first reaches or exceeds 1.35 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of surcharge.</I> The FDIC shall notify each insured depository institution subject to the surcharge of the amount of such surcharge no later than 15 days before such surcharge is due, as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payment of any surcharge.</I> Each insured depository institution subject to the surcharge shall pay to the Corporation any surcharge imposed under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with and subject to the provisions of §§ 327.3, 327.6 and 327.7. The payment date for any surcharge shall be the date provided in § 327.3(b)(2) for the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the assessment period in which the surcharge was imposed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of surcharge.</I> An insured depository institution's surcharge for each assessment period during the surcharge period shall be determined by multiplying 1.125 basis points times the institution's surcharge base for the assessment period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Surcharge base—Insured depository institution that has no affiliated insured depository institution subject to the surcharge.</I> The surcharge base for an assessment period for an insured depository institution subject to the surcharge that has no affiliated insured depository institution subject to the surcharge shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's deposit insurance assessment base for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The greater of the increase amount determined according to paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section or zero; minus
</P>
<P>(C) $10 billion; provided, however, that an institution's surcharge base for an assessment period cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Surcharge base—insured depository institution that has one or more affiliated insured depository institutions subject to the surcharge.</I> The surcharge base for an assessment period for an insured depository institution subject to the surcharge that has one or more affiliated insured depository institutions subject to the surcharge shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's deposit insurance assessment base for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The greater of the institution's portion, determined according to paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section, of the increase amount determined according to paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section or zero; minus
</P>
<P>(C) The institution's portion, determined according to paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section, of $10 billion; provided, however, that an institution's surcharge base for an assessment period cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Surcharge base—determination of increase amount.</I> The increase amount for an assessment period shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the aggregate deposit insurance assessment bases for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5, of all of the institution's affiliated insured depository institutions that are not subject to the surcharge, minus
</P>
<P>(B) The product of the increase multiplier set out in paragraph (a)(5)(iv) of this section and the aggregate deposit insurance assessment bases, determined according to § 327.5, as of December 31, 2015, of all of the small institutions, as defined in § 327.8(e), that were the institution's affiliated insured depository institutions for the assessment period ending December 31, 2015.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Increase multiplier for the assessment periods during the surcharge period.</I> During the surcharge period, the increase multiplier shall be the amount prescribed in the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Increase Multipliers for the Assessment Periods During the Surcharge Period
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> For the assessment period ending—
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 30, 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0740995
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 31, 2016</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1000000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March 31, 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1265251
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 30, 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1536897
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 30, 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1815094
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 31, 2017</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2100000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> March 31, 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2391776
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June 30, 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2690587
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September 30, 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2996604
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December 31, 2018</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3310000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(A) For the assessment period ending September 30, 2016, the increase multiplier shall be 1.0740995.
</P>
<P>(B) For the assessment period ending December 31, 2016, the increase multiplier shall be 1.1000000.
</P>
<P>(C) For the assessment period ending March 31, 2017, the increase multiplier shall be 1.1265251.
</P>
<P>(D) For the assessment period ending June 30, 2017, the increase multiplier shall be 1.1536897.
</P>
<P>(E) For the assessment period ending September 30, 2017, the increase multiplier shall be 1.1815094.
</P>
<P>(F) For the assessment period ending December 31, 2017, the increase multiplier shall be 1.2100000.
</P>
<P>(G) For the assessment period ending March 31, 2018, the increase multiplier shall be 1.2391776.
</P>
<P>(H) For the assessment period ending June 30, 2018, the increase multiplier shall be 1.2690587.
</P>
<P>(I) For the assessment period ending September 30, 2018, the increase multiplier shall be 1.2996604.
</P>
<P>(J) For the assessment period ending December 31, 2018, the increase multiplier shall be 1.33100000.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Surcharge base—institution's portion.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a)(5)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section, an institution's portion shall equal the ratio of the institution's deposit insurance assessment base for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5, to the sum of the institution's deposit insurance assessment base for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5, and the deposit insurance assessment bases for the assessment period, determined according to § 327.5, of all of the institution's affiliated insured depository institutions subject to the surcharge.
</P>
<P>(vi) For the purposes of this section, an affiliated insured depository institution is an insured depository institution that meets the definition of “affiliate” in section 3 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(6).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effect of mergers and consolidations on surcharge base.</I> (i) If an insured depository institution acquires another insured depository institution through merger or consolidation during the surcharge period, the acquirer's surcharge base will be calculated consistent with § 327.6 and § 327.11(a)(5). For the purposes of the surcharge, a merger or consolidation means any transaction in which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution, and includes transactions in which an insured depository institution either directly or indirectly acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the deposit liabilities of any other insured depository institution where there is not a legal merger or consolidation of the two insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an insured depository institution not subject to the surcharge is the surviving or resulting institution in a merger or consolidation with an insured depository institution that is subject to the surcharge or acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the deposit liabilities, of an insured depository institution subject to the surcharge, then the surviving or resulting insured deposit institution or the insured depository institution that acquires such assets or assumes such deposit liabilities is subject to the surcharge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Shortfall assessment</I>—(1) <I>Institutions subject to shortfall assessment.</I> Any insured depository institution that was subject to a surcharge under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in any assessment period during the surcharge period described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, shall be subject to the shortfall assessment described in this paragraph (b). If surcharges under paragraph (a) of this section have not been in effect, the insured depository institutions subject to the shortfall assessment described in this paragraph (b) will be the insured depository institutions described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section as of the assessment period in which the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification of shortfall.</I> The FDIC shall notify each insured depository institution subject to the shortfall assessment of the amount of such institution's share of the shortfall assessment described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section no later than 15 days before such shortfall assessment is due, as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payment of any shortfall assessment.</I> Each insured depository institution subject to the shortfall assessment shall pay to the Corporation such institution's share of any shortfall assessment as described in paragraph (b)(5) of this section in compliance with and subject to the provisions of §§ 327.3, 327.6 and 327.7. The payment date for any shortfall assessment shall be the date provided in § 327.3(b)(2) for the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the assessment period in which the shortfall assessment is imposed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Amount of aggregate shortfall assessment.</I> (i) If the reserve ratio of the DIF is at least 1.15 percent but has not reached or exceeded 1.35 percent as of December 31, 2018, the shortfall assessment shall be imposed on March 31, 2019, and shall equal 1.35 percent of estimated insured deposits as of December 31, 2018, minus the actual DIF balance as of that date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the reserve ratio of the DIF is less than 1.15 percent and has not reached or exceeded 1.35 percent by December 31, 2018, the shortfall assessment shall be imposed at the end of the assessment period immediately following the assessment period that occurs after December 31, 2018, during which the reserve ratio first reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent and shall equal 0.2 percent of estimated insured deposits as of the end of the calendar quarter in which the reserve ratio first reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Institutions' shares of aggregate shortfall assessment.</I> Each insured depository institution's share of the aggregate shortfall assessment shall be determined by apportioning the aggregate amount of the shortfall assessment among all institutions subject to the shortfall assessment in proportion to each institution's shortfall assessment base as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Shortfall assessment base if surcharges have been in effect.</I> If surcharges have been in effect, an institution's shortfall assessment base shall equal the average of the institution's surcharge bases during the surcharge period. For purposes of determining the average surcharge base, if an institution was not subject to the surcharge during any assessment period of the surcharge period, its surcharge base shall equal zero for that assessment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Shortfall assessment base if surcharges have not been in effect.</I> If surcharges have not been in effect, an institution's shortfall assessment base shall equal the average of what its surcharge bases would have been over the four assessment periods ending with the assessment period in which the reserve ratio first reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent. If an institution would not have been subject to a surcharge during one of those assessment periods, its surcharge base shall equal zero for that assessment period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effect of mergers and consolidations on shortfall assessment.</I> (i) If an insured depository institution, through merger or consolidation, acquires another insured depository institution that paid surcharges for one or more assessment periods, the acquirer will be subject to a shortfall assessment and its average surcharge base will be increased by the average surcharge base of the acquired institution, consistent with paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of the shortfall assessment, a merger or consolidation means any transaction in which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution, and includes transactions in which an insured depository institution either directly or indirectly acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the deposit liabilities of any other insured depository institution where there is not a legal merger or consolidation of the two insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment credits.</I> (1)(i) <I>Eligible Institutions.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (c) an insured depository institution will be considered an eligible institution, if, for at least one assessment period during the credit calculation period, the institution was a credit accruing institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit accruing institutions.</I> A credit accruing institution is an institution that, for a particular assessment period, is not:
</P>
<P>(A) A large institution, as defined in § 327.8(f);
</P>
<P>(B) A highly complex institution, as defined in § 327.8(g); or
</P>
<P>(C) An insured branch of a foreign bank whose assets are equal to or exceed $10 billion, as reported in Schedule RAL of the branch's most recent quarterly Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit calculation period.</I> The credit calculation period shall begin the first day of the assessment period after the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches or exceeds 1.15 percent, and shall continue through the earlier of the assessment period that the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches or exceeds 1.35 percent or the assessment period that ends December 31, 2018.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination of aggregate assessment credit awards to all eligible institutions.</I> The FDIC shall award an aggregate amount of assessment credits equal to the product of the <I>fraction of quarterly regular deposit insurance assessments paid by credit accruing institutions</I> during the credit calculation period and the amount by which the <I>DIF increase,</I> as determined under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section, exceeds total surcharges imposed under paragraph (b) of this section; provided, however, that the aggregate amount of assessment credits cannot exceed the aggregate amount of quarterly deposit insurance assessments paid by credit accruing institutions during the credit calculation period.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fraction of quarterly regular deposit insurance assessments paid by credit accruing institutions.</I> The fraction of assessments paid by credit accruing institutions shall equal quarterly deposit insurance assessments, as determined under § 327.16, paid by such institutions for each assessment period during the credit calculation period, divided by the total amount of quarterly deposit insurance assessments paid by all insured depository institutions during the credit calculation period, excluding the aggregate amount of surcharges imposed under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>DIF increase if the DIF reserve ratio has reached 1.35 percent by December 31, 2018.</I> If the DIF reserve ratio has reached 1.35 percent by December 31, 2018, the DIF increase shall equal 0.2 percent of estimated insured deposits as of the date that the DIF reserve ratio first reaches or exceeds 1.35 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>DIF Increase if the DIF reserve ratio has not reached 1.35 percent by December 31, 2018.</I> If the DIF reserve ratio has not reached 1.35 percent by December 31, 2018, the DIF increase shall equal the DIF balance on December 31, 2018, minus 1.15 percent of estimated insured deposits on that date.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Determination of individual eligible institutions' shares of aggregate assessment Credit</I>—(i) <I>Assessment credit share.</I> To determine an eligible institution's assessment credit share, the aggregate assessment credits awarded by the FDIC shall be apportioned among all eligible institutions in proportion to their respective assessment credit bases, as described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assessment credit base.</I> An eligible institution's assessment credit base shall equal the average of its quarterly deposit insurance assessment bases, as determined under § 327.5, during the credit calculation period, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. An eligible institution's credit base shall be deemed to equal zero for any assessment period during which the institution was not a credit accruing institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limitation.</I> The assessment credits awarded to an eligible institution shall not exceed the total amount of quarterly deposit insurance assessments paid by that institution for assessment periods during the credit calculation period in which it was a credit accruing institution.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of merger or consolidation on assessment credit base.</I> If an eligible institution acquires another eligible institution through merger or consolidation before the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.35 percent, the acquirer's quarterly deposit insurance assessment base (for purposes of calculating the acquirer's assessment credit base) shall be deemed to include the acquired institution's deposit insurance assessment base for the assessment periods during the credit calculation period that were prior to the merger or consolidation and in which the acquired institution was a credit accruing institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effect of call report amendments.</I> Amendments to the quarterly Reports of Condition and Income or the quarterly Reports of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks that occur subsequent to the payment date for the final assessment period of the credit calculation period shall not affect an eligible institution's credit share.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Award and notice of assessment credits</I>—(i) <I>Award of assessment credits.</I> As soon as practicable after the earlier of either December 31, 2018, or the date on which the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.35 percent, the FDIC shall notify an eligible institution of the FDIC's preliminary estimate of such institution's assessment credits and the manner in which the FDIC calculated such credits.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice of assessment credits.</I> The FDIC shall provide eligible institutions with periodic updated notices reflecting adjustments to the institution's assessment credits resulting from requests for review or appeals, mergers or consolidations, or the FDIC's application of credits to an institution's quarterly deposit insurance assessments.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Requests for review and appeal of assessment credits.</I> Any institution that disagrees with the FDIC's computation of or basis for its assessment credits, as determined under this paragraph (c), may request review of the FDIC's determination or appeal that determination. Such requests for review or appeal shall be filed pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Successors.</I> If an insured depository institution acquires an eligible institution through merger or consolidation after the reserve ratio of the DIF reaches 1.35 percent, the acquirer is successor to any assessment credits of the acquired institution.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Mergers and consolidation include only legal mergers and consolidation.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (c), a merger or consolidation does not include transactions in which an insured depository institution either directly or indirectly acquires the assets of, or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, any other insured depository institution, but there is not a legal merger or consolidation of the two insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Use of credits.</I> (i) Effective as of July 1, 2019, the FDIC will apply assessment credits awarded under this paragraph (c) to an institution's deposit insurance assessments, as calculated under this part 327, beginning in the first assessment period in which the reserve ratio of the DIF is at least 1.38 percent, and in each assessment period thereafter in which the reserve ratio of the DIF is at least 1.35 percent, for no more than three additional assessment periods.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC shall apply assessment credits to reduce an institution's quarterly deposit insurance assessments by each institution's remaining credits. The assessment credit applied to each institution's deposit insurance assessment for any assessment period shall not exceed the institution's total deposit insurance assessment for that assessment period.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Transfer or sale of credits.</I> Other than through merger or consolidation, credits may not be sold or transferred.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Remittance of credits.</I> After assessment credits awarded under this paragraph (c) have been applied for four assessment periods, the FDIC will remit the full nominal value of an institution's remaining assessment credits in a single lump-sum payment to such institution in the next assessment period in which the reserve ratio is at least 1.35 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for review and appeals of assessment credits.</I> (1) An institution that disagrees with the basis for its assessment credits, or the Corporation's computation of its assessments credits under paragraph (c) of this section and seeks to change it must submit a written request for review and any supporting documentation to the FDIC's Director of the Division of Finance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> (i) Any request for review under this paragraph must be submitted within 30 days from
</P>
<P>(A) The initial notice provided by the FDIC to the insured depository institution under paragraph (c)(7) of this section stating the FDIC's preliminary estimate of an eligible institution's assessment credit and the manner in which the assessment credit was calculated; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any updated notice provided by the FDIC to the insured depository institution under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any requests submitted after the deadline in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section will be considered untimely filed and the institution will be subsequently barred from submitting a request for review of its assessment credit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Process of review.</I> (i) Upon receipt of a request for review, the FDIC shall temporarily freeze the amount of the assessment credit being reviewed until a final determination is made by the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC may request, as part of its review, additional information from the insured depository institution involved in the request and any such information must be submitted to the FDIC within 21 days of the FDIC's request;
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC's Director of the Division of Finance, or his or her designee, will notify the requesting institution of his or her determination of whether a change is warranted within 60 days of receipt by the FDIC of the request for review, or if additional information had been requested from the FDIC, within 60 days of receipt of any such additional information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Appeal.</I> If the requesting institution disagrees with the final determination from the Director of the Division of Finance, that institution may appeal its assessment credit determination to the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee within 30 days from the date of the Director's written determination. Notice of the procedures applicable to an appeal before the Assessment Appeals Committee will be included in the Director's written determination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Adjustments to assessment credits.</I> Once the Director of the Division of Finance, or the Assessment Appeals Committee, as appropriate, has notified the requesting bank of its final determination, the FDIC will make appropriate adjustments to assessment credit amounts consistent with that determination. Adjustments to an insured depository institution's assessment credit amounts will not be applied retroactively to reduce or increase the quarterly deposit insurance assessment for a prior assessment period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 16069, Mar. 25, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 14568, Apr. 5, 2018; 84 FR 65275, Nov. 27, 2019; 87 FR 64339, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.12   Prepayment of quarterly risk-based assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to prepay assessment.</I> On December 30, 2009, each insured depository institution shall pay to the FDIC a prepaid assessment, which shall equal its estimated quarterly risk-based assessments aggregated for the fourth quarter of 2009, and all of 2010, 2011, and 2012 (the “prepayment period”).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of prepaid assessment</I>—(1) <I>Prepaid assessment</I>—(i) <I>Fourth quarter 2009 and all of 2010.</I> An institution's prepaid assessment for the fourth quarter of 2009 and for all of 2010 shall be determined by multiplying its prepaid assessment rate as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section times the corresponding prepaid assessment base for each quarter as determined pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>All of 2011 and 2012.</I> An institution's prepaid assessment for each quarter of 2011 and 2012 shall be determined by multiplying the sum of its prepaid assessment rate as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, plus .75 basis points (which implements the 3 basis point increase in annual assessment rates adopted by the Board on September 29, 2009), times the corresponding prepaid assessment base for each quarter determined pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepaid assessment rate.</I> For each quarter of the prepayment period, an institution's prepaid assessment rate shall equal the total base assessment rate that the institution would have paid for the third quarter of 2009 had the institution's CAMELS ratings in effect on September 30, 2009, and, where applicable, long-term debt issuer ratings in effect on September 30, 2009, been in effect for the entire third quarter of 2009.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prepaid assessment base.</I> For each quarter of the prepayment period, an institution's prepaid assessment base shall be calculated by increasing its third quarter 2009 assessment base at an annual rate of 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Finality of prepaid assessment.</I> The prepaid assessment rate and prepaid assessment base defined in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section shall be determined based upon data in the FDIC's computer systems as of December 24, 2009. Changes to data underlying an institution's adjusted total base assessment rate or assessment base, whether by amendment to a report of condition or otherwise, received by the FDIC after December 24, 2009, shall not affect an institution's prepaid assessment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prepaid assessment rates for mergers and consolidations.</I> For mergers and consolidations recorded in the FDIC's computer systems no later than December 24, 2009, the acquired institution's prepaid assessment rate under paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be the prepaid assessment rate of the acquiring institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Invoicing of prepaid assessment.</I> The FDIC shall advise each insured depository institution of the amount and calculation of its prepaid assessment at the same time the FDIC provides the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the third quarter of 2009. The FDIC will re-invoice through FDICconnect based upon any data changes as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment of prepaid assessment.</I> Each insured depository institution shall pay to the Corporation the amount of its prepaid assessment as required under paragraph (a) of this section in compliance with and subject to the provisions of §§ 327.3 and 327.7 of subpart A.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exception to ACH payment.</I> If an institution's prepaid assessment is greater than $99 million, the institution shall make payment by wire transfer to the FDIC, rather than by funding its designated deposit account for payment via ACH as provided in § 327.3 of subpart A.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>One-time assessment credits.</I> The FDIC will not apply an institution's one-time assessment credit under subpart B of this part 327 to reduce an institution's prepaid assessment. The FDIC will apply an institution's remaining one-time assessment credits under Part 327 subpart B to its quarterly deposit insurance assessments before applying its prepaid assessments.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of prepaid assessments.</I> Prepaid assessments shall only be used to offset regular quarterly risk-based deposit insurance assessments payable under this subpart A. The FDIC will begin offsetting regular quarterly risk-based deposit insurance assessments against prepaid assessments on March 30, 2010. The FDIC will continue to make such offsets until the earlier of the exhaustion of the institution's prepaid assessment or June 30, 2013. Any prepaid assessment remaining after collection of the amount due on June 30, 2013, shall be returned to the institution. If the FDIC, in its discretion, determines that its liquidity needs allow, it may return any remaining prepaid assessment to the institution prior to June 30, 2013.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Transfers.</I> An insured depository institution may enter into an agreement to transfer, but not pledge, any portion of that institution's prepaid assessment to another insured depository institution, provided that the parties to the agreement notify the FDIC's Division of Finance and submit a written agreement, signed by legal representatives of both institutions. The parties must include documentation stating that each representative has the legal authority to bind the institution. The institution transferring its prepaid assessment shall submit the required notice and documentation through FDIC<I>connect.</I> That information will be presented by the FDIC through FDIC<I>connect</I> to the institution acquiring the prepaid assessments for its acceptance. The adjustment to the amount of the prepaid assessment for each institution involved in the transfer will be made in the next assessment invoice that is sent at least 10 days after the FDIC's receipt of acceptance by the institution acquiring the prepaid assessments.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prepaid assessments following a merger.</I> In the event that an insured depository institution merges with, or consolidates into, another insured depository institution, the surviving or resulting institution will be entitled to use any unused portion of the acquired institution's prepaid assessment not otherwise transferred pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disposition in the event of failure or termination of insured status.</I> In the event of failure of an insured depository institution, any amount of its prepaid assessment remaining (other than any amounts needed to satisfy its assessment obligations not yet offset against the prepaid amount) will be refunded to the institution's receiver. In the event that an insured depository institution's insured status terminates, any amount of its prepaid assessment remaining (other than any amounts needed to satisfy its assessment obligations not yet offset against the prepaid amount) will be refunded to the institution, subject to the provisions of § 327.6 of subpart A.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Exemption without application.</I> The FDIC, after consultation with an institution's primary federal regulator, will exercise its discretion as supervisor and insurer to exempt an institution from the prepayment requirement under paragraph (a) of this section if the FDIC determines that the prepayment would adversely affect the safety and soundness of that institution. No application is required for this review and the FDIC will notify any affected institution of its exemption by November 23, 2009.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application for exemption.</I> An institution may also apply to the FDIC for an exemption from the prepayment requirement under paragraph (a) of this section if the prepayment would significantly impair the institution's liquidity, or would otherwise create extraordinary hardship. Written applications for exemption from the prepayment obligation must be submitted to the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection on or before December 1, 2009, by electronic mail (<I>prepaidassessment@fdic.gov</I>) or fax (202-898-6676). The application must contain a full explanation of the need for the exemption and provide supporting documentation, including current financial statements, cash flow projections, and any other relevant information, including any information the FDIC may request. The FDIC will exercise its discretion in deciding whether to exempt an institution that files an application for exemption. An application shall be deemed denied unless the FDIC notifies an applying institution by December 15, 2009, either that the institution is exempt from the prepaid assessment or the FDIC has postponed determination under paragraph (i)(4) of this section. The FDIC's denial of applications for exemption will be final and not subject to further agency review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application for withdrawal of exemption.</I> An institution that has received an exemption under paragraph (i)(1) of this section may request that the FDIC withdraw the exemption. Written applications for withdrawal of exemption must be submitted to the Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection on or before December 1, 2009, by electronic mail (<I>prepaidassessment@fdic.gov</I>) or fax (202-898-6676). The application must contain a full explanation of the reasons the exemption is not needed and provide supporting documentation, including current financial statements, cash flow projections, and any other relevant information, including any information the FDIC may request. The FDIC, after consultation with the institution's primary Federal regulator, will exercise its discretion in deciding whether to withdraw the exemption. The FDIC will notify an institution of its decision to withdraw the exemption by December 15, 2009; that determination will be final and not subject to further agency review. An application shall be deemed denied unless the FDIC notifies an applying institution by December 15, 2009, that the exemption is withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Postponement of determination.</I> The FDIC may postpone making a determination on any application for exemption filed under paragraph (i)(2) of this section until no later than January 14, 2010. An institution notified by the FDIC of such postponement will not have to pay the prepaid assessment calculated under paragraph (b) of this section on December 30, 2009. If the FDIC denies the application for exemption, the FDIC will notify the institution of the denial and of the date by which the institution must pay the prepaid assessment. The due date for payment of the prepaid assessment after such a denial will be no less than 15 days after the date of the notice of denial.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Obligation to pay third quarter 2009 assessment.</I> Any institution exempted from the prepayment requirement or any institution whose application for exemption has been postponed under this section shall pay to the Corporation on December 30, 2009, any amount due for the third quarter of 2009 as shown on the certified statement invoice for that quarter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 59065, Nov. 17, 2009]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.13   Special assessment pursuant to March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special assessment.</I> A special assessment shall be imposed on each insured depository institution to recover losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, resulting from the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1823(c)(4)(G). The special assessment shall be collected from each insured depository institution on a quarterly basis as described in this section during the initial special assessment period as defined in paragraph (i) of this section and, if necessary, on a one-time basis as described in paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund.</I> As used in this section, “losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund” refers to losses incurred by the Deposit Insurance Fund resulting from actions taken by the FDIC under the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination, as may be revised from time to time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of quarterly special assessment amount.</I> An insured depository institution's special assessment for each quarter during the initial special assessment period shall be calculated by multiplying the special assessment rate defined in paragraph (i)(2) of this section by the institution's special assessment base as defined in paragraph (i)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Invoicing of special assessment.</I> For each assessment period in which the special assessment is imposed, the FDIC shall advise each insured depository institution of the amount and calculation of any special assessment payment due in a form that notifies the institution of the special assessment base and special assessment rate exclusive of any other assessments imposed under this part. The FDIC shall also advise each insured depository institution subject to the special assessment of any revisions, if any, to losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund as defined in paragraph (b) of this section. This information shall be provided at the same time as the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice under § 327.2 for the assessment period in which the special assessment was imposed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payment of quarterly special assessment amount.</I> Each insured depository institution shall pay to the Corporation any special assessment imposed under this section in compliance with and subject to the provisions of §§ 327.3, 327.6, and 327.7. The date for any special assessment payment shall be the date provided in § 327.3(b)(2) for the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the calendar quarter in which the special assessment was imposed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Uninsured deposits.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “uninsured deposits” means an institution's estimated uninsured deposits as reported in Memoranda Item 2 on Schedule RC-O, Other Data For Deposit Insurance Assessments in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report) or Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks (FFIEC 002) for the quarter ended December 31, 2022, reported as of the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) November 2, 2023, adjusted for mergers prior to March 12, 2023; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date of the institution's most recent amendment to its Call Report or FFIEC 002 for the quarter ended December 31, 2022, if such amendment arises from, or is confirmed through, the FDIC's Assessment Reporting Review. Institutions with less than $1 billion in total assets as of June 30, 2021, were not required to report such items; therefore, for purposes of calculating the special assessment or a shortfall special assessment under this section, the amount of uninsured deposits for such institutions as of December 31, 2022, is zero.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Five billion dollar deduction from the special assessment base—institution's portion.</I> For purposes of this section, an institution's portion of the $5 billion deduction shall equal the ratio of the institution's uninsured deposits to the sum of the institution's uninsured deposits and the uninsured deposits of all of the institution's affiliated insured depository institutions, multiplied by $5 billion.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Affiliates.</I> For the purposes of this section, an affiliated insured depository institution is an insured depository institution that meets the definition of “affiliate” in section 3 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(6).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Special assessment during initial special assessment period</I>—(1) <I>Initial special assessment period.</I> The initial special assessment period shall begin with the first quarterly assessment period of 2024 and end the last quarterly assessment period of 2025.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special assessment rate during initial special assessment period.</I> The special assessment rate during the first seven quarters of the initial special assessment period is 3.36 basis points on a quarterly basis, and the rate during the last quarterly assessment period of 2025 is 2.97 basis points.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special assessment base during initial special assessment period.</I> (i) The special assessment base for an insured depository institution during the initial special assessment period that has no affiliated insured depository institution shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's uninsured deposits; minus
</P>
<P>(B) Five billion dollars; provided, however, that an institution's assessment base cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(ii) The special assessment base for an insured depository institution during the initial special assessment period that has one or more affiliated insured depository institutions shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's uninsured deposits; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The institution's portion of the $5 billion deduction; provided, however, that an institution's special assessment base cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Effect of mergers, consolidations, and other terminations of insurance on the special assessment</I>—(1) <I>Final quarterly certified invoice for acquired institution.</I> The surviving or resulting insured depository institution in a merger or consolidation shall be liable for any unpaid special assessment or one-time final shortfall special assessment outstanding at the time of the merger or consolidation on the part of the institution that is not the resulting or surviving institution consistent with § 327.6.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special assessment for quarter in which the merger or consolidation occurs and subsequent quarters.</I> If an insured depository institution is the surviving or resulting institution in a merger or consolidation or acquires all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the deposit liabilities, of an insured depository institution, then the surviving or resulting insured depository institution or the insured depository institution that acquires such assets or assumes such deposit liabilities, shall be liable for the acquired institutions' special assessment from the quarter of the acquisition through the remainder of the initial special assessment period, including any one-time final shortfall special assessment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other termination.</I> When the insured status of an institution is terminated, and the deposit liabilities of such institution are not assumed by another insured depository institution, the special assessment and any shortfall special assessment shall be paid consistent with § 327.6(c). When an insured depository institution voluntarily terminates its deposit insurance, the institution shall be liable for any unpaid special assessment or one-time final shortfall special assessment outstanding at the time of the termination and all future special assessments, if any, the institution would have been invoiced through the remainder of the initial special assessment period, as applicable, including any one-time final shortfall special assessment for which the institution has been given notice before termination. Any special assessment or one-time final shortfall special assessment liabilities will be included, in full, on the final quarterly assessment invoice following voluntary termination.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Corrective reporting amendments</I>—(1) <I>Recalculation of quarterly special assessment amount.</I> Corrective amendments to an institution's uninsured deposits that arise from, or are confirmed through, the FDIC's Assessment Reporting Review will apply retroactively beginning the first quarterly collection period of the initial special assessment period. An institution's special assessment base and portion of the $5 billion deduction, along with the portion of the $5 billion deduction allocated to the institution's affiliated insured depository institutions, will be recalculated for prior collection quarters. Any overpayment or underpayment in prior collection quarters as a result of the recalculation will be invoiced as described in paragraph (k)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Invoicing overpayment and underpayment.</I> Any underpayment of the special assessment by an institution as the result of corrective amendments to uninsured deposits will be included, in full and with interest, on the invoice for the quarter following the date a corrective amendment is filed. If a corrective amendment results in an overpayment of the special assessment, the institution will be credited the overpayment amount, with interest, and such amount will be applied to the institution's subsequent special assessment invoices beginning in the quarter following the date of the amendment. If any excess credit amount remains after the end of the initial special assessment period, the excess credit amount shall be refunded to the institution. Payment and collection of interest on amounts resulting from overpayment and underpayment of the special assessment shall be consistent with § 327.7.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>One-time final shortfall special assessment.</I> If the aggregate amount of the special assessment collected does not meet or exceed the losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund, as calculated after the receiverships resulting from the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination are terminated, insured depository institutions shall pay a one-time final shortfall special assessment in accordance with this paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notification of one-time final shortfall special assessment.</I> The FDIC shall notify each insured depository institution of the amount of such institution's one-time final shortfall special assessment no later than 45 days before such shortfall assessment is due.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aggregate one-time final shortfall special assessment amount.</I> The aggregate amount of the one-time final shortfall special assessment imposed across all insured depository institutions shall equal the losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund, as of termination of the receiverships to which the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination applied, minus the aggregate amount of the special assessment collected under this section less any amount applied as an offset, as described in paragraph (p)(1)(i) of this section, including the net amount of interest paid or received as a result of overpayments and underpayments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One-time final shortfall special assessment rate.</I> The final shortfall special assessment rate shall be the aggregate final shortfall special assessment amount divided by the total amount of uninsured deposits, as described in paragraph (f) of this section, adjusted for mergers, consolidation, and termination of insurance as of the assessment period preceding the final shortfall special assessment period, minus the $5 billion deduction for each insured depository institution or each institution's portion of the $5 billion deduction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>One-time final shortfall special assessment base.</I> (i) The one-time final shortfall special assessment base for an insured depository institution that has no affiliated insured depository institution shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's uninsured deposits; minus
</P>
<P>(B) $5 billion; provided, however, that an institution's one-time final shortfall special assessment base cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(ii) The one-time final shortfall special assessment base for an insured depository institution that has one or more affiliated insured depository institutions shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution's uninsured deposits; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The institution's portion of the $5 billion deduction, adjusted for termination of insurance as of the assessment period preceding the final shortfall assessment period; provided, however, that an institution's one-time final shortfall special assessment base cannot be negative.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of one-time final shortfall special assessment.</I> An insured depository institution's final shortfall special assessment shall be calculated by multiplying the final shortfall special assessment rate by the institution's one-time final shortfall special assessment base.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>One-time final special assessment.</I> The one-time final shortfall special assessment shall be collected on a one-time quarterly basis after losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund are determined after termination of the receiverships to which the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination applied.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Payment, invoicing, and mergers.</I> Paragraphs (d), (e), and (j) of this section are applicable to the one-time shortfall special assessment.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Request for revisions.</I> An insured depository institution may submit a written request for revision of the computation of any special assessment or shortfall special assessment pursuant to this part consistent with § 327.3(f).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Special assessment collection in excess of losses.</I> Any special assessment collected under this section that exceeds the losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund, as of termination of the receiverships to which the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination applied, shall be placed in the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section shall prevent the FDIC from imposing additional special assessments as required to recover current or future losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund resulting from any systemic risk determination under 12 U.S.C. 1823(c)(4)(G).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Assessment offsets.</I> The FDIC will provide offsets, in accordance with this paragraph (p), to the quarterly risk-based assessments calculated under § 327.3(b)(1), of institutions that have paid the special assessment.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing.</I> Assessment offsets will be provided if the aggregate amount of the special assessment collected exceeds the losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund as of:
</P>
<P>(i) The final unappealable judgment or settlement of the litigation between the FDIC and SVB Financial Trust (Case No. 5:24-cv-01321-BLF, U.S. District Court for the Northern District of California); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The termination of the receiverships to which the March 12, 2023, systemic risk determination applied.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application of offsets.</I> Assessment offsets will be included on the quarterly certified statement invoice(s) for the assessment period following the timing provisions in paragraphs (p)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation.</I> To determine an institution's offset amount, the FDIC will calculate the percentage that an insured depository institution contributed towards the total amount of the special assessment collected and then multiply that percentage by the amount of special assessment collected in excess of losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund at the time of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mergers, consolidations, and other terminations of insurance.</I> An offset under this paragraph (p) shall be provided to the surviving or resulting insured depository institution that acquired, merged with, or acquired all or substantially all of the assets, or assumes all or substantially all of the deposit liabilities, of an insured depository that paid the special assessment. No offset, credit, or refund will be provided to an institution with an insured status that has been terminated, and for which the deposit liabilities of such institution were not assumed by another insured depository institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 83347, Nov. 29, 2023, as amended at 90 FR 59373, Dec. 19, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.15   Emergency special assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency special assessment imposed on June 30, 2009.</I> On June 30, 2009, the FDIC shall impose an emergency special assessment of 20 basis points on each insured depository institution based on the institution's assessment base calculated pursuant to § 327.5 for the second assessment period of 2009.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency special assessments after June 30, 2009.</I> After June 30, 2009, if the reserve ratio of the Deposit Insurance Fund is estimated to fall to a level that that the Board believes would adversely affect public confidence or to a level which shall be close to zero or negative at the end of a calendar quarter, an emergency special assessment of up to 10 basis points may be imposed by a vote of the Board on all insured depository institutions based on each institution's assessment base calculated pursuant to § 327.5 for the corresponding assessment period.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Estimation process.</I> For purposes of any emergency special assessment under this paragraph (b), the FDIC shall estimate the reserve ratio of the Deposit Insurance Fund for the applicable calendar quarter end from available data on, or estimates of, insurance fund assessment income, investment income, operating expenses, other revenue and expenses, and loss provisions, including provisions for anticipated failures. The FDIC will assume that estimated insured deposits will increase during the quarter at the average quarterly rate over the previous four quarters.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Imposition and announcement of emergency special assessments.</I> Any emergency special assessment under this paragraph (b) shall be on the last day of a calendar quarter and shall be announced by the end of such quarter. As soon as practicable after announcement, the FDIC will have a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of the emergency special assessment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Invoicing of any emergency special assessments.</I> The FDIC shall advise each insured depository institution of the amount and calculation of any emergency special assessment imposed under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section. This information shall be provided at the same time as the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the assessment period in which the emergency special assessment was imposed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Payment of any emergency special assessment.</I> Each insured depository institution shall pay to the Corporation any emergency special assessment imposed under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section in compliance with and subject to the provisions of §§ 327.3, 327.6 and 327.7 of subpart A, and the provisions of subpart B. The payment date for any emergency special assessment shall be the date provided in § 327.3(b)(2) for the institution's quarterly certified statement invoice for the calendar quarter in which the emergency special assessment was imposed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 9341, Mar. 3, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.16   Assessment pricing methods—beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the modifications described in § 327.17, the following pricing methods shall apply beginning in the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Established small institutions.</I> Beginning the first assessment period after June 30, 2016, where the reserve ratio of the DIF as of the end of the prior assessment period has reached or exceeded 1.15 percent, and for all subsequent assessment periods, an established small institution shall have its initial base assessment rate determined by using the financial ratios methods set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Under the financial ratios method, each of seven financial ratios and a weighted average of CAMELS component ratings will be multiplied by a corresponding pricing multiplier. The sum of these products will be added to a uniform amount. The resulting sum shall equal the institution's initial base assessment rate; provided, however, that no institution's initial base assessment rate shall be less than the minimum initial base assessment rate in effect for established small institutions with a particular CAMELS composite rating for that assessment period nor greater than the maximum initial base assessment rate in effect for established small institutions with a particular CAMELS composite rating for that assessment period. An institution's initial base assessment rate, subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate (resulting in the institution's total base assessment rate, which in no case can be lower than 50 percent of the institution's initial base assessment rate), and adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f), will equal an institution's assessment rate. The seven financial ratios are: Leverage Ratio (%); Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets (%); Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets (%); Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets (%); Brokered Deposit Ratio (%); One Year Asset Growth (%); and Loan Mix Index. The ratios and the weighted average of CAMELS component ratings are defined in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section. The ratios will be determined for an assessment period based upon information contained in an institution's report of condition filed as of the last day of the assessment period as set out in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The weighted average of CAMELS component ratings is created by multiplying each component by the following percentages and adding the products: Capital adequacy—25%, Asset quality—20%, Management—25%, Earnings—10%, Liquidity—10%, and Sensitivity to market risk—10%. The following tables set forth the values of the pricing multipliers:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Pricing Multipliers Applicable Beginning the First Assessment Period After June 30, 2016, Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Has Reached 1.15 Percent, and for All Subsequent Assessment Periods Where the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Less Than 2 Percent
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk measures 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pricing
<br/>multipliers 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.264
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.720
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.942
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.533
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.264
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One Year Asset Growth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.061
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.081
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average CAMELS Component Rating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.519
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Ratios are expressed as percentages.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Multipliers are rounded to three decimal places.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Pricing Multipliers Applicable When the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Equal to or Greater Than 2 Percent but Less Than 2.5 Percent
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk measures 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pricing
<br/>multipliers 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.694
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.907
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.513
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.254
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One Year Asset Growth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.059
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.078
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average CAMELS Component Rating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.463
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Ratios are expressed as percentages.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Multipliers are rounded to three decimal places.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Pricing Multipliers Applicable When the Reserve Ratio as of the End of the Prior Assessment Period Is Greater Than or Equal to 2.5 Percent
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk measures 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Pricing
<br/>multipliers 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−1.123
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.640
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.837
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.474
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.235
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One Year Asset Growth</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.054
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.072
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average CAMELS Component Rating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.350
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Ratios are expressed as percentages.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Multipliers are rounded to three decimal places.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) <I>Uniform amount.</I> Except as adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f), the uniform amount shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) 7.352 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(a) is in effect;
</P>
<P>(B) 9.352 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(b) is in effect;
</P>
<P>(C) 6.188 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(c) is in effect; or
</P>
<P>(D) 4.870 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(d) is in effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definitions of measures used in the financial ratios method</I>—(A) <I>Definitions.</I> The following table lists and defines the measures used in the financial ratios method:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Definitions of Measures Used in the Financial Ratios Method
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variables
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 capital divided by adjusted average assets. (Numerator and denominator are both based on the definition for prompt corrective action.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Income (before applicable income taxes and discontinued operations) for the most recent twelve months divided by total assets.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of total loans and lease financing receivables past due 90 or more days and still accruing interest and total nonaccrual loans and lease financing receivables (excluding, in both cases, the maximum amount recoverable from the U.S. Government, its agencies or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions) divided by gross assets.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other real estate owned divided by gross assets.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The ratio of the difference between brokered deposits and 10 percent of total assets to total assets. For institutions that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, brokered reciprocal deposits as defined in § 327.8(q) are deducted from brokered deposits. If the ratio is less than zero, the value is set to zero.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average of C, A, M, E, L, and S Component Ratings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The weighted sum of the “C,” “A,” “M,” “E”, “L”, and “S” CAMELS components, with weights of 25 percent each for the “C” and “M” components, 20 percent for the “A” component, and 10 percent each for the “E”, “L”, and “S” components.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A measure of credit risk described paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One-Year Asset Growth (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growth in assets (adjusted for mergers 
<sup>3</sup>) over the previous year in excess of 10 percent.
<sup>4</sup> If growth is less than 10 percent, the value is set to zero.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The ratio of Net Income before Taxes to Total Assets is bounded below by (and cannot be less than) −25 percent and is bounded above by (and cannot exceed) 3 percent.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Gross assets are total assets plus the allowance for loan and lease financing receivable losses (ALLL) or allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Growth in assets is also adjusted for acquisitions of failed banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The maximum value of the Asset Growth measure is 230 percent; that is, asset growth (merger adjusted) over the previous year in excess of 240 percent (230 percentage points in excess of the 10 percent threshold) will not further increase a bank's assessment rate.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) <I>Definition of loan mix index.</I> The Loan Mix Index assigns loans in an institution's loan portfolio to the categories of loans described in the following table. The Loan Mix Index is calculated by multiplying the ratio of an institution's amount of loans in a particular loan category to its total assets by the associated weighted average charge-off rate for that loan category, and summing the products for all loan categories. The table gives the weighted average charge-off rate for each category of loan. The Loan Mix Index excludes credit card loans.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Loan Mix Index Categories and Weighted Charge-Off Rate Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weighted
<br/>charge-off
<br/>rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction &amp; Development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4965840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial &amp; Industrial</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5984506
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4974551
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4559717
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Real Estate Loans Residual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0169338
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multifamily Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8847597
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonfarm Nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7286274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6973778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to Depository Banks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5760532
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Real Estate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2376712
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agriculture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2432737</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(iii) <I>Implementation of CAMELS rating changes</I>—(A) <I>Composite rating change.</I> If, during an assessment period, a CAMELS composite rating change occurs in a way that changes the institution's initial base assessment rate, then the institution's initial base assessment rate for the portion of the assessment period prior to the change shall be determined using the assessment schedule for the appropriate CAMELS composite rating in effect before the change, including any minimum or maximum initial base assessment rates, and subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate, and adjusted for actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f). For the portion of the assessment period after the CAMELS composite rating change, the institution's initial base assessment rate shall be determined using the assessment schedule for the applicable CAMELS composite rating in effect, including any minimum or maximum initial base assessment rates, and subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate, and adjusted for actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Component ratings changes.</I> If, during an assessment period, a CAMELS component rating change occurs in a way that changes the institution's initial base assessment rate, the initial base assessment rate for the period before the change shall be determined under the financial ratios method using the CAMELS component ratings in effect before the change, subject to adjustment under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate. Beginning on the date of the CAMELS component rating change, the initial base assessment rate for the remainder of the assessment period shall be determined under the financial ratios method using the CAMELS component ratings in effect after the change, again subject to adjustment under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>No CAMELS composite rating or no CAMELS component ratings</I>—(A) <I>No CAMELS composite rating.</I> If, during an assessment period, an institution has no CAMELS composite rating, its initial assessment rate will be 2 basis points above the minimum initial assessment rate for established small institutions until it receives a CAMELS composite rating.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>No CAMELS component ratings.</I> If, during an assessment period, an institution has a CAMELS composite rating but no CAMELS component ratings, the initial base assessment rate for that institution shall be determined under the financial ratios method using the CAMELS composite rating for its weighted average CAMELS component rating and, if the institution has not yet filed four quarterly reports of condition, by annualizing, where appropriate, financial ratios obtained from all quarterly reports of condition that have been filed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable quarterly reports of condition.</I> The financial ratios used to determine the assessment rate for an established small institution shall be based upon information contained in an institution's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (or successor report, as appropriate) dated as of March 31 for the assessment period beginning the preceding January 1; dated as of June 30 for the assessment period beginning the preceding April 1; dated as of September 30 for the assessment period beginning the preceding July 1; and dated as of December 31 for the assessment period beginning the preceding October 1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Large and highly complex institutions</I>—(1) <I>Assessment scorecard for large institutions (other than highly complex institutions).</I> (i) A large institution other than a highly complex institution shall have its initial base assessment rate determined using the scorecard for large institutions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Scorecard for Large Institutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scorecard measures and components
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measure weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Performance Score
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weighted Average CAMELS Rating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ability to Withstand Asset-Related Stress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leverage ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-End Total Assets 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit Quality Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ability to Withstand Funding-Related Stress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loss Severity Score
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loss Severity Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Average of five quarter-end total assets (most recent and four prior quarters).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The scorecard for large institutions produces two scores: Performance score and loss severity score.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Performance score for large institutions.</I> The performance score for large institutions is a weighted average of the scores for three measures: The weighted average CAMELS rating score, weighted at 30 percent; the ability to withstand asset-related stress score, weighted at 50 percent; and the ability to withstand funding-related stress score, weighted at 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Weighted average CAMELS rating score.</I> (<I>i</I>) To compute the weighted average CAMELS rating score, a weighted average of an institution's CAMELS component ratings is calculated using the following weights:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAMELS component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A weighted average CAMELS rating converts to a score that ranges from 25 to 100. A weighted average rating of 1 equals a score of 25 and a weighted average of 3.5 or greater equals a score of 100. Weighted average CAMELS ratings between 1 and 3.5 are assigned a score between 25 and 100. The score increases at an increasing rate as the weighted average CAMELS rating increases. Appendix B of this subpart describes the conversion of a weighted average CAMELS rating to a score.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Ability to withstand asset-related stress score.</I> (<I>i</I>) The ability to withstand asset-related stress score is a weighted average of the scores for four measures: Leverage ratio; concentration measure; the ratio of core earnings to average quarter-end total assets; and the credit quality measure. Appendices A and C of this subpart define these measures.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The Leverage ratio and the ratio of core earnings to average quarter-end total assets are described in appendix A and the method of calculating the scores is described in appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The score for the concentration measure is the greater of the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score or the growth-adjusted portfolio concentrations score. Both ratios are described in appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The score for the credit quality measure is the greater of the criticized and classified items to Tier 1 capital and reserves score or the underperforming assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score.
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The following table shows the cutoff values and weights for the measures used to calculate the ability to withstand asset-related stress score. Appendix B of this subpart describes how each measure is converted to a score between 0 and 100 based upon the minimum and maximum cutoff values, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values and Weights for Measures To Calculate Ability To Withstand Asset-Related Stress Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measures of the ability to withstand asset-related stress
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Higher-Risk Assets to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentrations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-End Total Assets 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Quality Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Criticized and Classified Items/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Underperforming Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Average of five quarter-end total assets (most recent and four prior quarters).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) The score for each measure in the table in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>)(<I>v</I>) of this section is multiplied by its respective weight and the resulting weighted score is summed to arrive at the score for an ability to withstand asset-related stress, which can range from 0 to 100, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Ability to withstand funding-related stress score.</I> Two measures are used to compute the ability to withstand funding-related stress score: A core deposits to total liabilities ratio, and a balance sheet liquidity ratio. Appendix A of this subpart describes these measures. Appendix B of this subpart describes how these measures are converted to a score between 0 and 100, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk. The ability to withstand funding-related stress score is the weighted average of the scores for the two measures. In the following table, cutoff values and weights are used to derive an institution's ability to withstand funding-related stress score:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values and Weights To Calculate Ability To Withstand Funding-Related Stress Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measures of the ability to withstand funding-related stress
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Calculation of performance score.</I> In paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section, the scores for the weighted average CAMELS rating, the ability to withstand asset-related stress, and the ability to withstand funding-related stress are multiplied by their respective weights (30 percent, 50 percent and 20 percent, respectively) and the results are summed to arrive at the performance score. The performance score cannot be less than 0 or more than 100, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Loss severity score.</I> The loss severity score is based on a loss severity measure that is described in appendix D of this subpart. Appendix B of this subpart also describes how the loss severity measure is converted to a score between 0 and 100. The loss severity score cannot be less than 0 or more than 100, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk. Cutoff values for the loss severity measure are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values To Calculate Loss Severity Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measure of loss severity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loss Severity</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) <I>Total score.</I> (<I>1</I>) The performance and loss severity scores are combined to produce a total score. The loss severity score is converted into a loss severity factor that ranges from 0.8 (score of 5 or lower) to 1.2 (score of 85 or higher). Scores at or below the minimum cutoff of 5 receive a loss severity factor of 0.8, and scores at or above the maximum cutoff of 85 receive a loss severity factor of 1.2. The following linear interpolation converts loss severity scores between the cutoffs into a loss severity factor:
</P>
<FP-2>(Loss Severity Factor = 0.8 + [0.005 * (Loss Severity Score − 5)]
</FP-2>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The performance score is multiplied by the loss severity factor to produce a total score (total score = performance score * loss severity factor). The total score can be up to 20 percent higher or lower than the performance score but cannot be less than 30 or more than 90. The total score is subject to adjustment, up or down, by a maximum of 15 points, as set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The resulting total score after adjustment cannot be less than 30 or more than 90.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Initial base assessment rate.</I> A large institution with a total score of 30 pays the minimum initial base assessment rate and an institution with a total score of 90 pays the maximum initial base assessment rate. For total scores between 30 and 90, initial base assessment rates rise at an increasing rate as the total score increases, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20my16.166.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Rate is the initial base assessment rate (expressed in basis points);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Maximum Rate is the maximum initial base assessment rate then in effect (expressed in basis points); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Minimum Rate is the minimum initial base assessment rate then in effect (expressed in basis points). Initial base assessment rates are subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3) and (e)(1) and (2) of this section; large institutions that are not well capitalized or have a CAMELS composite rating of 3, 4 or 5 shall be subject to the adjustment at paragraph (e)(3) of this section; these adjustments shall result in the institution's total base assessment rate, which in no case can be lower than 50 percent of the institution's initial base assessment rate.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment scorecard for highly complex institutions.</I> (i) A highly complex institution shall have its initial base assessment rate determined using the scorecard for highly complex institutions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Scorecard for Highly Complex Institutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measures and components
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Measure
<br/>weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Component
<br/>weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Performance Score
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Weighted Average CAMELS Rating</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ability To Withstand Asset-Related Stress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Leverage ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-End Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit Quality Measure and Market Risk Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">P.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ability To Withstand Funding-Related Stress</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Average Short-Term Funding/Average Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loss Severity Score
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loss Severity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) The scorecard for highly complex institutions produces two scores: Performance and loss severity.
</P>
<P>(A) Performance score for highly complex institutions. The performance score for highly complex institutions is the weighted average of the scores for three components: Weighted average CAMELS rating, weighted at 30 percent; ability to withstand asset-related stress score, weighted at 50 percent; and ability to withstand funding-related stress score, weighted at 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Weighted average CAMELS rating score.</I> (<I>i</I>) To compute the score for the weighted average CAMELS rating, a weighted average of an institution's CAMELS component ratings is calculated using the following weights:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CAMELS component
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">C</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">M</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">E</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">L</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">S</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A weighted average CAMELS rating converts to a score that ranges from 25 to 100. A weighted average rating of 1 equals a score of 25 and a weighted average of 3.5 or greater equals a score of 100. Weighted average CAMELS ratings between 1 and 3.5 are assigned a score between 25 and 100. The score increases at an increasing rate as the weighted average CAMELS rating increases. Appendix B of this subpart describes the conversion of a weighted average CAMELS rating to a score.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Ability to withstand asset-related stress score.</I> (<I>i</I>) The ability to withstand asset-related stress score is a weighted average of the scores for four measures: Leverage ratio; concentration measure; ratio of core earnings to average quarter-end total assets; credit quality measure and market risk measure. Appendix A of this subpart describes these measures.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The Leverage ratio and the ratio of core earnings to average quarter-end total assets are described in appendix A of this subpart and the method of calculating the scores is described in appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The score for the concentration measure for highly complex institutions is the greatest of the higher-risk assets to the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves score, the top 20 counterparty exposure to the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves score, or the largest counterparty exposure to the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves score. Each ratio is described in appendix A of this subpart. The method used to convert the concentration measure into a score is described in appendix C of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The credit quality score is the greater of the criticized and classified items to Tier 1 capital and reserves score or the underperforming assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score. The market risk score is the weighted average of three scores—the trading revenue volatility to Tier 1 capital score, the market risk capital to Tier 1 capital score, and the level 3 trading assets to Tier 1 capital score. All of these ratios are described in appendix A of this subpart and the method of calculating the scores is described in appendix B of this subpart. Each score is multiplied by its respective weight, and the resulting weighted score is summed to compute the score for the market risk measure. An overall weight of 35 percent is allocated between the scores for the credit quality measure and market risk measure. The allocation depends on the ratio of average trading assets to the sum of average securities, loans and trading assets (trading asset ratio) as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) Weight for credit quality score = 35 percent * (1−trading asset ratio); and,
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) Weight for market risk score = 35 percent * trading asset ratio.
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) Each of the measures used to calculate the ability to withstand asset-related stress score is assigned the following cutoff values and weights:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values and Weights for Measures To Calculate the Ability To Withstand Asset-Related Stress Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measures of the ability to withstand asset-related stress
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Market risk
<br/>measure
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Higher Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves;</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">135</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Top 20 Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">125</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Largest Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-end Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Quality Measure 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35* (1−Trading Asset Ratio).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Criticized and Classified Items to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves; or</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Underperforming Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Market Risk Measure 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">35* Trading Asset Ratio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Trading Revenue Volatility/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Market Risk Capital/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Level 3 Trading Assets/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Combined, the credit quality measure and the market risk measure are assigned a 35 percent weight. The relative weight of each of the two scores depends on the ratio of average trading assets to the sum of average securities, loans and trading assets (trading asset ratio).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) The score of each measure is multiplied by its respective weight and the resulting weighted score is summed to compute the ability to withstand asset-related stress score, which can range from 0 to 100, where a score of 0 reflects the lowest risk and a score of 100 reflects the highest risk.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Ability to withstand funding related stress score.</I> Three measures are used to calculate the score for the ability to withstand funding-related stress: A core deposits to total liabilities ratio, a balance sheet liquidity ratio, and average short-term funding to average total assets ratio. Appendix A of this subpart describes these ratios. Appendix B of this subpart describes how each measure is converted to a score. The ability to withstand funding-related stress score is the weighted average of the scores for the three measures. In the following table, cutoff values and weights are used to derive an institution's ability to withstand funding-related stress score:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values and Weights To Calculate Ability To Withstand Funding-Related Stress Measures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measures of the ability to withstand funding-related stress
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Weights
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">243</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average Short-term Funding/Average Total Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Calculation of performance score.</I> The weighted average CAMELS score, the ability to withstand asset-related stress score, and the ability to withstand funding-related stress score are multiplied by their respective weights (30 percent, 50 percent and 20 percent, respectively) and the results are summed to arrive at the performance score, which cannot be less than 0 or more than 100.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Loss severity score.</I> The loss severity score is based on a loss severity measure described in appendix D of this subpart. Appendix B of this subpart also describes how the loss severity measure is converted to a score between 0 and 100. Cutoff values for the loss severity measure are:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Cutoff Values for Loss Severity Measure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Measure of loss severity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Cutoff values
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loss Severity</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">28</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(C) <I>Total score.</I> The performance and loss severity scores are combined to produce a total score. The loss severity score is converted into a loss severity factor that ranges from 0.8 (score of 5 or lower) to 1.2 (score of 85 or higher). Scores at or below the minimum cutoff of 5 receive a loss severity factor of 0.8, and scores at or above the maximum cutoff of 85 receive a loss severity factor of 1.2. The following linear interpolation converts loss severity scores between the cutoffs into a loss severity factor: (Loss Severity Factor = 0.8 + [0.005 * (Loss Severity Score − 5)]. The performance score is multiplied by the loss severity factor to produce a total score (total score = performance score * loss severity factor). The total score can be up to 20 percent higher or lower than the performance score but cannot be less than 30 or more than 90. The total score is subject to adjustment, up or down, by a maximum of 15 points, as set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section. The resulting total score after adjustment cannot be less than 30 or more than 90.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Initial base assessment rate.</I> A highly complex institution with a total score of 30 pays the minimum initial base assessment rate and an institution with a total score of 90 pays the maximum initial base assessment rate. For total scores between 30 and 90, initial base assessment rates rise at an increasing rate as the total score increases, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20my16.167.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Rate is the initial base assessment rate (expressed in basis points);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Maximum Rate is the maximum initial base assessment rate then in effect (expressed in basis points); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Minimum Rate is the minimum initial base assessment rate then in effect (expressed in basis points). Initial base assessment rates are subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3) and (e)(1) and (2) of this section; highly complex institutions that are not well capitalized or have a CAMELS composite rating of 3, 4 or 5 shall be subject to the adjustment at paragraph (e)(3) of this section; these adjustments shall result in the institution's total base assessment rate, which in no case can be lower than 50 percent of the institution's initial base assessment rate.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Adjustment to total score for large institutions and highly complex institutions.</I> The total score for large institutions and highly complex institutions is subject to adjustment, up or down, by a maximum of 15 points, based upon significant risk factors that are not adequately captured in the appropriate scorecard. In making such adjustments, the FDIC may consider such information as financial performance and condition information and other market or supervisory information. The FDIC will also consult with an institution's primary federal regulator and, for state chartered institutions, state banking supervisor.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prior notice of adjustments</I>—(A) <I>Prior notice of upward adjustment.</I> Prior to making any upward adjustment to an institution's total score because of considerations of additional risk information, the FDIC will formally notify the institution and its primary federal regulator and provide an opportunity to respond. This notification will include the reasons for the adjustment and when the adjustment will take effect.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Prior notice of downward adjustment.</I> Prior to making any downward adjustment to an institution's total score because of considerations of additional risk information, the FDIC will formally notify the institution's primary federal regulator and provide an opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination whether to adjust upward; effective period of adjustment.</I> After considering an institution's and the primary federal regulator's responses to the notice, the FDIC will determine whether the adjustment to an institution's total score is warranted, taking into account any revisions to scorecard measures, as well as any actions taken by the institution to address the FDIC's concerns described in the notice. The FDIC will evaluate the need for the adjustment each subsequent assessment period. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section, the amount of adjustment cannot exceed the proposed adjustment amount contained in the initial notice unless additional notice is provided so that the primary federal regulator and the institution may respond.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determination whether to adjust downward; effective period of adjustment.</I> After considering the primary federal regulator's responses to the notice, the FDIC will determine whether the adjustment to total score is warranted, taking into account any revisions to scorecard measures. Any downward adjustment in an institution's total score will remain in effect for subsequent assessment periods until the FDIC determines that an adjustment is no longer warranted. Downward adjustments will be made without notification to the institution. However, the FDIC will provide advance notice to an institution and its primary federal regulator and give them an opportunity to respond before removing a downward adjustment.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adjustment without notice.</I> Notwithstanding the notice provisions set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the FDIC may change an institution's total score without advance notice, if the institution's supervisory ratings or the scorecard measures deteriorate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>New small institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk categories.</I> Each new small institution shall be assigned to one of the following four Risk Categories based upon the institution's capital evaluation and supervisory evaluation as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Risk category I.</I> New small institutions in Supervisory Group A that are Well Capitalized will be assigned to Risk Category I.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk category II.</I> New small institutions in Supervisory Group A that are Adequately Capitalized, and new small institutions in Supervisory Group B that are either Well Capitalized or Adequately Capitalized will be assigned to Risk Category II.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Risk category III.</I> New small institutions in Supervisory Groups A and B that are Undercapitalized, and new small institutions in Supervisory Group C that are Well Capitalized or Adequately Capitalized will be assigned to Risk Category III.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Risk category IV.</I> New small institutions in Supervisory Group C that are Undercapitalized will be assigned to Risk Category IV.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital evaluations.</I> Each new small institution will receive one of the following three capital evaluations on the basis of data reported in the institution's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Report (or successor report, as appropriate) dated as of the last day of each assessment period: Well Capitalized, Adequately Capitalized, or Undercapitalized as defined in § 327.8(z) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supervisory evaluations.</I> Each new small institution will be assigned to one of three Supervisory Groups based on the Corporation's consideration of supervisory evaluations provided by the institution's primary federal regulator. The supervisory evaluations include the results of examination findings by the primary federal regulator, as well as other information that the primary federal regulator determines to be relevant. In addition, the Corporation will take into consideration such other information (such as state examination findings, as appropriate) as it determines to be relevant to the institution's financial condition and the risk posed to the Deposit Insurance Fund. The three Supervisory Groups are:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Supervisory group “A.”</I> This Supervisory Group consists of financially sound institutions with only a few minor weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Supervisory group “B.”</I> This Supervisory Group consists of institutions that demonstrate weaknesses which, if not corrected, could result in significant deterioration of the institution and increased risk of loss to the Deposit Insurance Fund; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Supervisory group “C.”</I> This Supervisory Group consists of institutions that pose a substantial probability of loss to the Deposit Insurance Fund unless effective corrective action is taken.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assessment method for new small institutions in risk category I</I>—(i) <I>Maximum initial base assessment rate for risk category I new small institutions.</I> A new small institution in Risk Category I shall be assessed the maximum initial base assessment rate for Risk Category I small institutions in the relevant assessment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>New small institutions not subject to certain adjustments.</I> No new small institution in any risk category shall be subject to the adjustment in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Implementation of CAMELS rating changes</I>—(A) <I>Changes between risk categories.</I> If, during an assessment period, a CAMELS composite rating change occurs that results in a Risk Category I institution moving from Risk Category I to Risk Category II, III or IV, the institution's initial base assessment rate for the portion of the assessment period that it was in Risk Category I shall be the maximum initial base assessment rate for the relevant assessment period, subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, as appropriate, and adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f). For the portion of the assessment period that the institution was not in Risk Category I, the institution's initial base assessment rate, which shall be subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section, as appropriate, shall be determined under the assessment schedule for the appropriate Risk Category. If, during an assessment period, a CAMELS composite rating change occurs that results in an institution moving from Risk Category II, III or IV to Risk Category I, then the maximum initial base assessment rate for new small institutions in Risk Category I shall apply for the portion of the assessment period that it was in Risk Category I, subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, as appropriate, and adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f). For the portion of the assessment period that the institution was not in Risk Category I, the institution's initial base assessment rate, which shall be subject to adjustment pursuant to paragraphs (e)(2) and (3) of this section shall be determined under the assessment schedule for the appropriate Risk Category.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insured branches of foreign banks</I>—(1) <I>Risk categories for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> Insured branches of foreign banks shall be assigned to risk categories as set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital evaluations for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> Each insured branch of a foreign bank will receive one of the following three capital evaluations on the basis of data reported in the institution's Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks dated as of March 31 for the assessment period beginning the preceding January 1; dated as of June 30 for the assessment period beginning the preceding April 1; dated as of September 30 for the assessment period beginning the preceding July 1; and dated as of December 31 for the assessment period beginning the preceding October 1.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Well Capitalized.</I> An insured branch of a foreign bank is Well Capitalized if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 108 percent or more of the average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities for the quarter ending on the report date specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adequately Capitalized.</I> An insured branch of a foreign bank is Adequately Capitalized if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintains the pledge of assets required under § 347.209 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains the eligible assets prescribed under § 347.210 of this chapter at 106 percent or more of the average book value of the insured branch's third-party liabilities for the quarter ending on the report date specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not meet the definition of a Well Capitalized insured branch of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Undercapitalized.</I> An insured branch of a foreign bank is undercapitalized institution if it does not qualify as either Well Capitalized or Adequately Capitalized under paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supervisory evaluations for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> Each insured branch of a foreign bank will be assigned to one of three supervisory groups as set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assessment method for insured branches of foreign banks in risk category I.</I> Insured branches of foreign banks in Risk Category I shall be assessed using the weighted average ROCA component rating.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Weighted average ROCA component rating.</I> The weighted average ROCA component rating shall equal the sum of the products that result from multiplying ROCA component ratings by the following percentages: Risk Management—35%, Operational Controls—25%, Compliance—25%, and Asset Quality—15%. The weighted average ROCA rating will be multiplied by 5.076 (which shall be the pricing multiplier). To this result will be added a uniform amount. The resulting sum—the initial base assessment rate—will equal an institution's total base assessment rate; provided, however, that no institution's total base assessment rate will be less than the minimum total base assessment rate in effect for Risk Category I institutions for that assessment period nor greater than the maximum total base assessment rate in effect for Risk Category I institutions for that assessment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Uniform amount.</I> Except as adjusted for the actual assessment rates set by the Board under § 327.10(f), the uniform amount for all insured branches of foreign banks shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) −5.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(a) is in effect;
</P>
<P>(B) −3.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(b) is in effect;
</P>
<P>(C) −6.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(c) is in effect; or
</P>
<P>(D) −7.127 whenever the assessment rate schedule set forth in § 327.10(d) is in effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Insured branches of foreign banks not subject to certain adjustments.</I> No insured branch of a foreign bank in any risk category shall be subject to the adjustments in paragraph (b)(3) or (e)(1) or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Implementation of changes between risk categories for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> If, during an assessment period, a ROCA rating change occurs that results in an insured branch of a foreign bank moving from Risk Category I to Risk Category II, III or IV, the institution's initial base assessment rate for the portion of the assessment period that it was in Risk Category I shall be determined using the weighted average ROCA component rating. For the portion of the assessment period that the institution was not in Risk Category I, the institution's initial base assessment rate shall be determined under the assessment schedule for the appropriate Risk Category. If, during an assessment period, a ROCA rating change occurs that results in an insured branch of a foreign bank moving from Risk Category II, III or IV to Risk Category I, the institution's assessment rate for the portion of the assessment period that it was in Risk Category I shall equal the rate determined as provided using the weighted average ROCA component rating. For the portion of the assessment period that the institution was not in Risk Category I, the institution's initial base assessment rate shall be determined under the assessment schedule for the appropriate Risk Category.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Implementation of changes within risk category I for insured branches of foreign banks.</I> If, during an assessment period, an insured branch of a foreign bank remains in Risk Category I, but a ROCA component rating changes that will affect the institution's initial base assessment rate, separate assessment rates for the portion(s) of the assessment period before and after the change(s) shall be determined under this paragraph (d)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustments</I>—(1) <I>Unsecured debt adjustment to initial base assessment rate for all institutions.</I> All institutions, except new institutions as provided under paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section and insured branches of foreign banks as provided under paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section, shall be subject to an adjustment of assessment rates for unsecured debt. Any unsecured debt adjustment shall be made after any adjustment under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application of unsecured debt adjustment.</I> The unsecured debt adjustment shall be determined as the sum of the initial base assessment rate plus 40 basis points; that sum shall be multiplied by the ratio of an insured depository institution's long-term unsecured debt to its assessment base. The amount of the reduction in the assessment rate due to the adjustment is equal to the dollar amount of the adjustment divided by the amount of the assessment base.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation.</I> No unsecured debt adjustment for any institution shall exceed the lesser of 5 basis points or 50 percent of the institution's initial base assessment rate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicable quarterly reports of condition.</I> Unsecured debt adjustment ratios for any given quarter shall be calculated from quarterly reports of condition (Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income and Thrift Financial Reports, or any successor reports to either, as appropriate) filed by each institution as of the last day of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Depository institution debt adjustment to initial base assessment rate for all institutions.</I> All institutions shall be subject to an adjustment of assessment rates for unsecured debt held that is issued by another depository institution. Any such depository institution debt adjustment shall be made after any adjustment under paragraphs (b)(3) and (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application of depository institution debt adjustment.</I> An insured depository institution shall pay a 50 basis point adjustment on the amount of unsecured debt it holds that was issued by another insured depository institution to the extent that such debt exceeds 3 percent of the institution's Tier 1 capital. The amount of long-term unsecured debt issued by another insured depository institution shall be calculated using the same valuation methodology used to calculate the amount of such debt for reporting on the asset side of the balance sheets.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicable quarterly reports of condition.</I> Depository institution debt adjustment ratios for any given quarter shall be calculated from quarterly reports of condition (Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income and Thrift Financial Reports, or any successor reports to either, as appropriate) filed by each institution as of the last day of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Brokered deposit adjustment.</I> All new small institutions in Risk Categories II, III, and IV, all large institutions and all highly complex institutions, except large and highly complex institutions (including new large and new highly complex institutions) that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, shall be subject to an assessment rate adjustment for brokered deposits. Any such brokered deposit adjustment shall be made after any adjustment under paragraphs (b)(3) and (e)(1) and (2) of this section. The brokered deposit adjustment includes all brokered deposits as defined in Section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f), and 12 CFR 337.6, including brokered reciprocal deposits as defined in § 327.8(q), and brokered deposits that consist of balances swept into an insured institution from another institution. The adjustment under this paragraph is limited to those institutions whose ratio of brokered deposits to domestic deposits is greater than 10 percent; asset growth rates do not affect the adjustment. Insured branches of foreign banks are not subject to the brokered deposit adjustment as provided in paragraph (d)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Application of brokered deposit adjustment.</I> The brokered deposit adjustment shall be determined by multiplying 25 basis points by the ratio of the difference between an insured depository institution's brokered deposits and 10 percent of its domestic deposits to its assessment base.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation.</I> The maximum brokered deposit adjustment will be 10 basis points; the minimum brokered deposit adjustment will be 0.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Applicable quarterly reports of condition.</I> The brokered deposit adjustment for any given quarter shall be calculated from the quarterly reports of condition (Call Reports and Thrift Financial Reports, or any successor reports to either, as appropriate) filed by each institution as of the last day of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request to be treated as a large institution</I>—(1) <I>Procedure.</I> Any small institution with assets of between $5 billion and $10 billion, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), may request that the FDIC determine its assessment rate as a large institution. The FDIC will consider such a request provided that it has sufficient information to do so. Any such request must be made to the FDIC's Division of Insurance and Research. Any approved change will become effective within one year from the date of the request. If an institution whose request has been granted subsequently reports assets of less than $5 billion in its report of condition for four consecutive quarters, excluding assets as described in § 327.17(e), the institution shall be deemed a small institution for assessment purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limit on subsequent request for alternate method.</I> An institution whose request to be assessed as a large institution is granted by the FDIC shall not be eligible to request that it be assessed as a small institution for a period of three years from the first quarter in which its approved request to be assessed as a large institution became effective. Any request to be assessed as a small institution must be made to the FDIC's Division of Insurance and Research.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for review.</I> An institution that disagrees with the FDIC's determination that it is a large, highly complex, or small institution may request review of that determination pursuant to § 327.4(c).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>New and established institutions and exceptions</I>—(1) <I>New small institutions.</I> A new small Risk Category I institution shall be assessed the Risk Category I maximum initial base assessment rate for the relevant assessment period. No new small institution in any risk category shall be subject to the unsecured debt adjustment as determined under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. All new small institutions in any Risk Category shall be subject to the depository institution debt adjustment as determined under paragraph (e)(2) of this section. All new small institutions in Risk Categories II, III, and IV shall be subject to the brokered deposit adjustment as determined under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New large institutions and new highly complex institutions.</I> All new large institutions and all new highly complex institutions shall be assessed under the appropriate method provided at paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section and subject to the adjustments provided at paragraphs (b)(3) and (e)(2) and (3) of this section. No new highly complex or large institutions are entitled to adjustment under paragraph (e)(1) of this section. If a large or highly complex institution has not yet received CAMELS ratings, it will be given a weighted CAMELS rating of 2 for assessment purposes until actual CAMELS ratings are assigned.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CAMELS ratings for the surviving institution in a merger or consolidation.</I> When an established institution merges with or consolidates into a new institution, if the FDIC determines the resulting institution to be an established institution under § 327.8(k)(1), its CAMELS ratings for assessment purposes will be based upon the established institution's ratings prior to the merger or consolidation until new ratings become available.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rate applicable to institutions subject to subsidiary or credit union exception</I>—(i) <I>Established small institutions.</I> A small institution that is established under § 327.8(k)(4) or (5) shall be assessed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) If the institution does not have a CAMELS composite rating, its initial base assessment rate shall be 2 basis points above the minimum initial base assessment rate applicable to established small institutions until it receives a CAMELS composite rating.
</P>
<P>(B) If the institution has a CAMELS composite rating but no CAMELS component ratings, its initial assessment rate shall be determined using the financial ratios method, as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, but its CAMELS composite rating will be substituted for its weighted average CAMELS component rating and, if the institution has not filed four quarterly reports of condition, then the assessment rate will be determined by annualizing, where appropriate, financial ratios from all quarterly reports of condition that have been filed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Large or highly complex institutions.</I> If a large or highly complex institution is considered established under § 327.8(k)(4) or (5), but does not have CAMELS component ratings, it will be given a weighted CAMELS rating of 2 for assessment purposes until actual CAMELS ratings are assigned.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Request for review.</I> An institution that disagrees with the FDIC's determination that it is a new institution may request review of that determination pursuant to § 327.4(c).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Assessment rates for bridge depository institutions and conservatorships.</I> Institutions that are bridge depository institutions under 12 U.S.C. 1821(n) and institutions for which the Corporation has been appointed or serves as conservator shall, in all cases, be assessed at the minimum initial base assessment rate applicable to established small institutions, which shall not be subject to adjustment under paragraph (b)(3) or (e)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 32207, May 20, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 14568, Apr. 5, 2018; 84 FR 1353, Feb. 4, 2019; 84 FR 4249, Feb. 14, 2019; 85 FR 38292, June 26, 2020; 85 FR 71228, Nov. 9, 2020; 87 FR 64339, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.17" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.17   Mitigating the Deposit Insurance Assessment Effect of Participation in the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, and the Paycheck Protection Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mitigating the assessment effects of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program for established small institutions.</I> Applicable beginning April 1, 2020, the FDIC will take the following actions when calculating the assessment rate for established small institutions under § 327.16:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exclusion of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program from net income before taxes ratio, nonperforming loans and leases ratio, other real estate owned ratio, brokered deposit ratio, and one-year asset growth measure.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart, the FDIC will exclude the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from the total assets in the calculation of the following risk measures: Net income before taxes ratio, the nonperforming loans and leases ratio, the other real estate owned ratio, the brokered deposit ratio, and the one-year asset growth measure, which are described in § 327.16(a)(1)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusion of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program from Loan Mix Index.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart A, when calculating the loan mix index described in § 327.16(a)(1)(ii)(B), the FDIC will exclude:
</P>
<P>(i) The outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from the total assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The outstanding balance loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from an established small institution's balance of commercial and industrial loans. To the extent that the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program exceeds an established small institution's balance of commercial and industrial loans, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, the FDIC will exclude any remaining balance of these loans from the balance of agricultural loans, up to the amount of agricultural loans, in the calculation of the loan mix index.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mitigating the assessment effects of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program for large or highly complex institutions.</I> Applicable beginning April 1, 2020, the FDIC will take the following actions when calculating the assessment rate for large institutions and highly complex institutions under § 327.16:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exclusion of Paycheck Protection Program loans from average short-term funding ratio, core earnings ratio, growth-adjusted portfolio concentration measure, and trading asset ratio.</I> As described in appendix E of this subpart, the FDIC will exclude the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from the calculation of the average short-term funding ratio, the core earnings ratio, the growth-adjusted portfolio concentration measure, and the trading asset ratio.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusion of Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility borrowings from core deposit ratio.</I> As described in appendix E of this subpart, the FDIC will exclude the total outstanding balance of borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from the calculation of the core deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion of Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility borrowings from balance sheet liquidity ratio.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart, when calculating the balance sheet liquidity measure described under appendix A to this subpart, the FDIC will:
</P>
<P>(i) Include the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program that exceed total borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, in the amount of highly liquid assets until September 30, 2020, or, if the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Secretary of the Treasury determine to extend the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, until such date of extension; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exclude the outstanding balance of borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility with a remaining maturity of one year or less from other borrowings with a remaining maturity of one year or less, both as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exclusion of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility borrowings from loss severity measure.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart, when calculating the loss severity measure described under appendix A to this subpart, the FDIC will exclude:
</P>
<P>(i) The total outstanding balance of borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from short- and long-term secured borrowings, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, from an institution's balance of commercial and industrial loans. To the extent that the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program exceeds an institution's balance of commercial and industrial loans, the FDIC will exclude any remaining balance from all other loans, up to the total amount of all other loans, followed by agricultural loans, up to the total amount of agricultural loans, as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. To the extent that an institution's outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program exceeds its borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, the FDIC will add the amount of outstanding loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program in excess of borrowings under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility to cash.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mitigating the effects of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility on the unsecured adjustment, depository institution debt adjustment, and the brokered deposit adjustment to an insured depository institution's assessment rate.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart, when calculating an insured depository institution's unsecured debt adjustment, depository institution debt adjustment, or the brokered deposit adjustment described in § 327.16(e), as applicable, the FDIC will exclude the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, both as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mitigating the effects on the assessment base attributable to loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and participation in the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</I> As described in appendix E to this subpart, when calculating an insured depository institution's quarterly deposit insurance assessment payment due under this part, the FDIC will provide an offset to an institution's assessment for the increase to its assessment base attributable to participation in the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility and loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Calculation of offset amount.</I> (i) To determine the offset amount, the FDIC will take the sum of the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, both as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, and multiply the sum by an institution's total base assessment rate, as calculated under § 327.16, including any adjustments under § 327.16(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent that an institution does not report the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, such as in an insured branch's Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, the FDIC will take the sum of either the quarterly average amount of loans pledged to the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility as reported in the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, or the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program, as such certified data is provided to the FDIC, and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, as reported in the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, and multiply the sum by an institution's total base assessment rate, as calculated under § 327.16.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of assessment amount due.</I> The FDIC will subtract the offset amount described in § 327.17(d)(1) from an insured depository institution's total assessment amount, consistent with § 327.3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mitigating the effects of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility on the classification of insured depository institutions as small, large, or highly complex for deposit insurance purposes.</I> When classifying an insured depository institution as small, large, or complex for assessment purposes under § 327.8, the FDIC will exclude from an institution's total assets the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the balance of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility outstanding, both as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. Any institution with assets of between $5 billion and $10 billion, excluding the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the balance of assets purchased under the MMLF, both as reported on the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income, may request that the FDIC determine its assessment rate as a large institution under § 327.16(f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Paycheck Protection Program.</I> The term “Paycheck Protection Program” means the program of that name that was created in section 1102 of the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility.</I> The term “Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility” means the program of that name that was announced by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System on April 9, 2020, and renamed as such on April 30, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</I> The term “Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility” means the program of that name announced by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System on March 18, 2020.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 38293, June 26, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.17.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 327—Method to Derive Pricing Multipliers and Uniform Amount 
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The uniform amount and pricing multipliers are derived from:
</P>
<P>• A model (the Statistical Model) that estimates the probability of failure of an institution over a three-year horizon;
</P>
<P>• The minimum initial base assessment rate;
</P>
<P>• The maximum initial base assessment rate;
</P>
<P>• Thresholds marking the points at which the maximum and minimum assessment rates become effective.
</P>
<HD1>II. The Statistical Model
</HD1>
<P>The Statistical Model estimates the probability of an insured depository institution failing within three years using a logistic regression and pooled time-series cross-sectional data;
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> that is, the dependent variable in the estimation is whether an insured depository institution failed during the following three-year period. Actual model parameters for the Statistical Model are an average of each of three regression estimates for each parameter. Each of the three regressions uses end-of-year data from insured depository institutions' quarterly reports of condition and income (Call Reports and Thrift Financial Reports or TFRs
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>) for every third year to estimate probability of failure within the ensuing three years. One regression (Regression 1) uses insured depository institutions' Call Report and TFR data for the end of 1985 and failures from 1986 through 1988; Call Report and TFR data for the end of 1988 and failures from 1989 through 1991; and so on, ending with Call Report data for the end of 2009 and failures from 2010 through 2012. The second regression (Regression 2) uses insured depository institutions' Call Report and TFR data for the end of 1986 and failures from 1987 through 1989, and so on, ending with Call Report data for the end of 2010 and failures from 2011 through 2013. The third regression (Regression 3) uses insured depository institutions' Call Report and TFR data for the end of 1987 and failures from 1988 through 1990, and so on, ending with Call Report data for the end of 2011 and failures from 2012 through 2014. The regressions include only Call Report data and failures for established small institutions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Tests for the statistical significance of parameters use adjustments discussed by Tyler Shumway (2001) “Forecasting Bankruptcy More Accurately: A Simple Hazard Model,” Journal of Business 74:1, 101-124.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Beginning in 2012, all insured depository institutions began filing quarterly Call Reports and the TFR was no longer filed.</P></FTNT>
<P>Table A.1 lists and defines the explanatory variables (regressors) in the Statistical Model.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.1—Definitions of Measures Used in the Financial Ratios Method
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variables
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 capital divided by adjusted average assets. (Numerator and denominator are both based on the definition for prompt corrective action.)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Income (before applicable income taxes and discontinued operations) for the most recent twelve months divided by total assets.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of total loans and lease financing receivables past due 90 or more days and still accruing interest and total nonaccrual loans and lease financing receivables (excluding, in both cases, the maximum amount recoverable from the U.S. Government, its agencies or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions) divided by gross assets.
<sup>2</sup> 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other real estate owned divided by gross assets.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The ratio of the difference between brokered deposits and 10 percent of total assets to total assets. For institutions that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, reciprocal deposits are deducted from brokered deposits. If the ratio is less than zero, the value is set to zero.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average of C, A, M, E, L, and S Component Ratings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The weighted sum of the “C,” “A,” “M,” “E”, “L”, and “S” CAMELS components, with weights of 25 percent each for the “C” and “M” components, 20 percent for the “A” component, and 10 percent each for the “E”, “L”, and “S” components. In instances where the “S” component is missing, the remaining components are scaled by a factor of 10/9.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A measure of credit risk described below.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One-Year Asset Growth (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growth in assets (adjusted for mergers 
<sup>5</sup>) over the previous year in excess of 10 percent.
<sup>6</sup> If growth is less than 10 percent, the value is set to zero.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For purposes of calculating actual assessment rates (as opposed to model estimation), the ratio of Net Income before Taxes to Total Assets is bounded below by (and cannot be less than) -25 percent and is bounded above by (and cannot exceed) 3 percent. For purposes of model estimation only, the ratio of Net Income before Taxes to Total Assets is defined as income (before income taxes and extraordinary items and other adjustments) for the most recent twelve months divided by total assets.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For purposes of calculating actual assessment rates (as opposed to model estimation), “Gross assets” are total assets plus the allowance for loan and lease financing receivable losses (ALLL); for purposes of estimating the Statistical Model, for years before 2001, when allocated transfer risk was not included in ALLL in Call Reports, allocated transfer risk is included in gross assets separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Delinquency and non-accrual data on government guaranteed loans are not available for the entire estimation period. As a result, the Statistical Model is estimated without deducting delinquent or past-due government guaranteed loans from the nonperforming loans and leases to gross assets ratio.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The component rating for sensitivity to market risk (the “S” rating) is not available for years before 1997. As a result, and as described in the table, the Statistical Model is estimated using a weighted average of five component ratings excluding the “S” component where the component is not available.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Growth in assets is also adjusted for acquisitions of failed banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> For purposes of calculating actual assessment rates (as opposed to model estimation), the maximum value of the One-Year Asset Growth measure is 230 percent; that is, asset growth (merger adjusted) over the previous year in excess of 240 percent (230 percentage points in excess of the 10 percent threshold) will not further increase a bank's assessment rate.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The financial variable measures used to estimate the failure probabilities are obtained from Call Reports and TFRs. The weighted average of the “C,” “A,” “M,” “E,” “L,”, and “S” component ratings measure is based on component ratings obtained from the most recent bank examination conducted within 24 months before the date of the Call Report or TFR.
</P>
<P>The Loan Mix Index assigns loans to the categories of loans described in Table A.2. For each loan category, a charge-off rate is calculated for each year from 2001 through 2014. The charge-off rate for each year is the aggregate charge-off rate on all such loans held by small institutions in that year. A weighted average charge-off rate is then calculated for each loan category, where the weight for each year is based on the number of small-bank failures during that year.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> A Loan Mix Index for each established small institution is calculated by: (1) multiplying the ratio of the institution's amount of loans in a particular loan category to its total assets by the associated weighted average charge-off rate for that loan category; and (2) summing the products for all loan categories. Table A.2 gives the weighted average charge-off rate for each category of loan, as calculated through the end of 2014. The Loan Mix Index excludes credit card loans.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> An exception is “Real Estate Loans Residual,” which consists of real estate loans held in foreign offices. Few small insured depository institutions report this item and a statistically reliable estimate of the weighted average charge-off rate could not be obtained. Instead, a weighted average of the weighted average charge-off rates of the other real estate loan categories is used. (The other categories are construction &amp; development, multifamily residential, nonfarm nonresidential, 1-4 family residential, and agricultural real estate.) The weight for each of the other real estate loan categories is based on the aggregate amount of the loans held by small insured depository institutions as of December 31, 2014.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A.2—Loan Mix Index Categories
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weighted
<br/>charge-off
<br/>rate percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction &amp; Development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4965840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial &amp; Industrial</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5984506
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4974551
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4559717
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to Foreign Government</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3384093
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Real Estate Loans Residual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0169338
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multifamily Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8847597
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonfarm Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7286274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6973778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to Depository Banks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5760532
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Real Estate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2376712
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agriculture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2432737</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>For each of the three regression estimates (Regression 1, Regression 2 and Regression 3), the estimated probability of failure (over a three-year horizon) of institution <I>i</I> at time <I>T</I> is
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.003.gif"/>
<FP-2>where
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.004.gif"/>
<FP-2>where the β variables are parameter estimates. As stated earlier, for actual assessments, the β values that are applied are averages of each of the individual parameters over three separate regressions. Pricing multipliers (discussed in the next section) are based on <I>Z</I><E T="54">iT</E>.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The <I>Z</I><E T="54">iT</E> values have the same rank ordering as the probability measures P<E T="54">iT</E>.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>III. Derivation of Uniform Amount and Pricing Multipliers
</HD1>
<P>The uniform amount and pricing multipliers used to compute the annual initial base assessment rate in basis points, <I>R</I><E T="54">iT</E>, for any such institution <I>i</I> at a given time <I>T</I> will be determined from the Statistical Model as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.005.gif"/>
<P>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FP-2>where <I>α</I><E T="54">0</E> and <I>α</I><E T="54">1</E> are a constant term and a scale factor used to convert <I>Z</I><E T="54">iT</E> to an assessment rate, <I>Max</I> is the maximum initial base assessment rate in effect and <I>Min</I> is the minimum initial base assessment rate in effect. (R<E T="54">iT</E> is expressed as an annual rate, but the actual rate applied in any quarter will be R<E T="54">iT</E>/4.)
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> R<E T="54">iT</E> is also subject to the minimum and maximum assessment rates applicable to established small institutions based upon their CAMELS composite ratings.</P></FTNT>
<P>Solving equation 3 for minimum and maximum initial base assessment rates simultaneously,
</P>
<FP-2><I>Min = α</I><E T="54">0</E> + <I>α</I><E T="54">1</E> * Z<E T="54">N</E> and <I>Max</I> = <I>α</I><E T="54">0</E> + <I>α</I><E T="54">1</E> * Z<E T="54">X</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where Z<E T="54">X</E> is the value of Z<E T="54">iT</E> above which the maximum initial assessment rate (<I>Max</I>) applies and Z<E T="54">N</E> is the value of Z<E T="54">iT</E> below which the minimum initial assessment rate (<I>Min</I>) applies, results in values for the constant amount, <I>α</I><E T="54">0,</E> and the scale factor, <I>α</I><E T="54">1</E>:
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.006.gif"/>
<P>The values for Z<E T="54">X</E> and Z<E T="54">N</E> will be selected to ensure that, for an assessment period shortly before adoption of a final rule, aggregate assessments for all established small institutions would have been approximately the same under the final rule as they would have been under the assessment rate schedule that—under rules in effect before adoption of the final rule—will automatically go into effect when the reserve ratio reaches 1.15 percent. As an example, using aggregate assessments for all established small institutions for the third quarter of 2013 to determine Z<E T="54">X</E> and Z<E T="54">N</E>, and assuming that <I>Min</I> had equaled 3 basis points and <I>Max</I> had equaled 30 basis points, the value of Z<E T="54">X</E> would have been 0.87 and the value of Z<E T="54">N</E> −6.36. Hence based on equations 4 and 5,
</P>
<FP-2><I>α</I><E T="54">0</E> = 26.751 and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>α</I><E T="54">1</E> = 3.734.
</FP-2>
<P>Therefore from equation 3, it follows that
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.007.gif"/>
<P>Substituting equation 2 produces an annual initial base assessment rate for institution <I>i</I> at time <I>T,</I> R<E T="54">iT</E>, in terms of the uniform amount, the pricing multipliers and model variables:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er24oc22.008.gif"/>
<FP-2>again subject to 3≤ R<E T="54">iT</E> ≤30 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> As stated above, R<E T="54">iT</E> is also subject to the minimum and maximum assessment rates applicable to established small institutions based upon their CAMELS composite ratings.</P></FTNT>
<FP-2>where 26.751 + 3.734 * β<E T="54">0</E> equals the uniform amount, 3.734 * β<E T="54">j</E> is a pricing multiplier for the associated risk measure <I>j,</I> and <I>T</I> is the date of the report of condition corresponding to the end of the quarter for which the assessment rate is computed.



</FP-2>
<HD1>IV. Description of Scorecard Measures

</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scorecard
<br/>measures 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 capital for Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) divided by adjusted average assets based on the definition for prompt corrective action.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure for Large Insured depository institutions (excluding Highly Complex Institutions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The concentration score for large institutions is the higher of the following two scores:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Higher-Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of construction and land development (C&amp;D) loans (funded and unfunded), higher-risk C&amp;I loans (funded and unfunded), nontraditional mortgages, higher-risk consumer loans, and higher-risk securitizations divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. See Appendix C for the detailed description of the ratio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentrations 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The measure is calculated in the following steps:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Concentration levels (as a ratio to Tier 1 capital and reserves) are calculated for each broad portfolio category:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• C&amp;D,
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Other commercial real estate loans,
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• First lien residential mortgages (including non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities),
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Closed-end junior liens and home equity lines of credit (HELOCs),
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Commercial and industrial loans,
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Credit card loans, and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Other consumer loans.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Risk weights are assigned to each loan category based on historical loss rates.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Concentration levels are multiplied by risk weights and squared to produce a risk-adjusted concentration ratio for each portfolio.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Three-year merger-adjusted portfolio growth rates are then scaled to a growth factor of 1 to 1.2 where a 3-year cumulative growth rate of 20 percent or less equals a factor of 1 and a growth rate of 80 percent or greater equals a factor of 1.2. If three years of data are not available, a growth factor of 1 will be assigned.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The risk-adjusted concentration ratio for each portfolio is multiplied by the growth factor and resulting values are summed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Appendix C for the detailed description of the measure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure for Highly Complex Institutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration score for highly complex institutions is the highest of the following three scores:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Higher-Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of C&amp;D loans (funded and unfunded), higher-risk C&amp;I loans (funded and unfunded), nontraditional mortgages, higher-risk consumer loans, and higher-risk securitizations divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. See Appendix C for the detailed description of the measure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Top 20 Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of the 20 largest total exposure amounts to counterparties divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. The total exposure amount is equal to the sum of the institution's exposure amounts to one counterparty (or borrower) for derivatives, securities financing transactions (SFTs), and cleared transactions, and its gross lending exposure (including all unfunded commitments) to that counterparty (or borrower). A counterparty includes an entity's own affiliates. Exposures to entities that are affiliates of each other are treated as exposures to one counterparty (or borrower). Counterparty exposure excludes all counterparty exposure to the U.S. Government and departments or agencies of the U.S. Government that is unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States. The exposure amount for derivatives, including OTC derivatives, cleared transactions that are derivative contracts, and netting sets of derivative contracts, must be calculated using the methodology set forth in 12 CFR 324.34(b), but without any reduction for collateral other than cash collateral that is all or part of variation margin and that satisfies the requirements of 12 CFR 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">ii</E>) and (<E T="03">iii</E>) and 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(<E T="03">3</E>) through (<E T="03">7</E>). The exposure amount associated with SFTs, including cleared transactions that are SFTs, must be calculated using the standardized approach set forth in 12 CFR 324.37(b) or (c). For both derivatives and SFT exposures, the exposure amount to central counterparties must also include the default fund contribution.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Largest Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The largest total exposure amount to one counterparty divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. The total exposure amount is equal to the sum of the institution's exposure amounts to one counterparty (or borrower) for derivatives, SFTs, and cleared transactions, and its gross lending exposure (including all unfunded commitments) to that counterparty (or borrower). A counterparty includes an entity's own affiliates. Exposures to entities that are affiliates of each other are treated as exposures to one counterparty (or borrower). Counterparty exposure excludes all counterparty exposure to the U.S. Government and departments or agencies of the U.S. Government that is unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States. The exposure amount for derivatives, including OTC derivatives, cleared transactions that are derivative contracts, and netting sets of derivative contracts, must be calculated using the methodology set forth in 12 CFR 324.34(b), but without any reduction for collateral other than cash collateral that is all or part of variation margin and that satisfies the requirements of 12 CFR 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(<E T="03">1</E>)(<E T="03">ii</E>) and (<E T="03">iii</E>) and 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(<E T="03">3</E>) through (<E T="03">7</E>). The exposure amount associated with SFTs, including cleared transactions that are SFTs, must be calculated using the standardized approach set forth in 12 CFR 324.37(b) or (c). For both derivatives and SFT exposures, the exposure amount to central counterparties must also include the default fund contribution.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-End Total Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core earnings are defined as net income less extraordinary items and tax-adjusted realized gains and losses on available-for-sale (AFS) and held-to-maturity (HTM) securities, adjusted for mergers. The ratio takes a four-quarter sum of merger-adjusted core earnings and divides it by an average of five quarter-end total assets (most recent and four prior quarters). If four quarters of data on core earnings are not available, data for quarters that are available will be added and annualized. If five quarters of data on total assets are not available, data for quarters that are available will be averaged.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Quality Measure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The credit quality score is the higher of the following two scores:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Criticized and Classified Items/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of criticized and classified items divided by the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves. Criticized and classified items include items an institution or its primary Federal regulator have graded “Special Mention” or worse and include retail items under Uniform Retail Classification Guidelines, securities, funded and unfunded loans, other real estate owned (ORE), other assets, and marked-to-market counterparty positions, less credit valuation adjustments.
<sup>4</sup> Criticized and classified items exclude loans and securities in trading books, and the amount recoverable from the U.S. Government, its agencies, or Government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Underperforming Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of loans that are 30 days or more past due and still accruing interest, nonaccrual loans, restructured loans 
<sup>5</sup> (including restructured 1-4 family loans), and ORE, excluding the maximum amount recoverable from the U.S. Government, its agencies, or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions, divided by a sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total domestic deposits excluding brokered deposits and uninsured non-brokered time deposits divided by total liabilities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of cash and balances due from depository institutions, federal funds sold and securities purchased under agreements to resell, and the market value of available for sale and held to maturity agency securities (excludes agency mortgage-backed securities but includes all other agency securities issued by the U.S. Treasury, U.S. government agencies, and U.S. government-sponsored enterprises) divided by the sum of federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements, other borrowings (including FHLB) with a remaining maturity of one year or less, 5 percent of insured domestic deposits, and 10 percent of uninsured domestic and foreign deposits.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potential Losses/Total Domestic Deposits (Loss Severity Measure) 
<sup>7</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potential losses to the DIF in the event of failure divided by total domestic deposits. Appendix D describes the calculation of the loss severity measure in detail.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Market Risk Measure for Highly Complex Institutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The market risk score is a weighted average of the following three scores:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Trading Revenue Volatility/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trailing 4-quarter standard deviation of quarterly trading revenue (merger-adjusted) divided by Tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Market Risk Capital/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market risk capital divided by Tier 1 capital.
<sup>8</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Level 3 Trading Assets/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level 3 trading assets divided by Tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average Short-term Funding/Average Total Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quarterly average of federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements divided by the quarterly average of total assets as reported on Schedule RC-K of the Call Reports.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The FDIC retains the flexibility, as part of the risk-based assessment system, without the necessity of additional notice-and-comment rulemaking, to update the minimum and maximum cutoff values for all measures used in the scorecard. The FDIC may update the minimum and maximum cutoff values for the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio in order to maintain an approximately similar distribution of higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio scores as reported prior to April 1, 2013, or to avoid changing the overall amount of assessment revenue collected. 76 FR 10672, 10700 (February 25, 2011). The FDIC will review changes in the distribution of the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio scores and the resulting effect on total assessments and risk differentiation between banks when determining changes to the cutoffs. The FDIC may update the cutoff values for the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio more frequently than annually. The FDIC will provide banks with a minimum one quarter advance notice of changes in the cutoff values for the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio with their quarterly deposit insurance invoice.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The applicable portions of the current expected credit loss methodology (CECL) transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes pursuant to the regulatory capital regulations, as they may be amended from time to time (12 CFR part 3, 12 CFR part 217, 12 CFR part 324, 85 FR 61577 (Sept. 30, 2020), and 84 FR 4222 (Feb. 14, 2019)), will be removed from the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> SFTs include repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, security lending and borrowing, and margin lending transactions, where the value of the transactions depends on market valuations and the transactions are often subject to margin agreements. The default fund contribution is the funds contributed or commitments made by a clearing member to a central counterparty's mutualized loss sharing arrangement. The other terms used in this description are as defined in 12 CFR part 324, subparts A and D, unless defined otherwise in 12 CFR part 327.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A marked-to-market counterparty position is equal to the sum of the net marked-to-market derivative exposures for each counterparty. The net marked-to-market derivative exposure equals the sum of all positive marked-to-market exposures net of legally enforceable netting provisions and net of all collateral held under a legally enforceable CSA plus any exposure where excess collateral has been posted to the counterparty. For purposes of the Criticized and Classified Items/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves definition a marked-to-market counterparty position less any credit valuation adjustment can never be less than zero.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Restructured loans include troubled debt restructurings and modifications to borrowers experiencing financial difficulty, as these terms are defined in the glossary to the Call Report, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> Deposit runoff rates for the balance sheet liquidity ratio reflect changes issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in its December 2010 document, “Basel III: International Framework for liquidity risk measurement, standards, and monitoring,” <E T="03">http://www.bis.org/publ/bcbs188.pdf.</E>
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>7</sup> The applicable portions of the CECL transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes will be removed from the calculation of the loss severity measure.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>8</sup> <E T="03">Market risk</E> is defined in 12 CFR 324.202.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 9557, Mar. 4, 2009, as amended at 76 FR 10720, Feb. 25, 2011; 76 FR 17521, Mar. 30, 2011; 77 FR 66015, Oct. 31, 2012; 78 FR 55594, Sept. 10, 2013; 79 FR 70437, Nov. 26, 2014; 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 85 FR 4443, Jan. 24, 2020; 85 FR 71228, Nov. 9, 2020; 86 FR 11399, Feb. 25, 2021; 87 FR 64340, 64354, Oct. 24, 2022]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.17.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 327—Conversion of Scorecard Measures into Score
</HEAD>
<HD2>1. Weighted Average CAMELS Rating
</HD2>
<P>Weighted average CAMELS ratings between 1 and 3.5 are assigned a score between 25 and 100 according to the following equation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>S</I> = 25 + [(20/3) * (<I>C</I>
<SU>2</SU> −1)],
</FP-2>
<FP>where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>S</I> = the weighted average CAMELS score; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>C</I> = the weighted average CAMELS rating.
</FP-2>
<HD2>2. Other Scorecard Measures
</HD2>
<P>For certain scorecard measures, a lower ratio implies lower risk and a higher ratio implies higher risk. These measures include:
</P>
<P>• Concentration measure;
</P>
<P>• Credit quality measure;
</P>
<P>• Market risk measure;
</P>
<P>• Average short-term funding to average total assets ratio; and
</P>
<P>• Potential losses to total domestic deposits ratio (loss severity measure).
</P>
<P>For those measures, a value between the minimum and maximum cutoff values is converted linearly to a score between 0 and 100, according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>S</I> = (<I>V −</I>Min) * 100/(Max −Min),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where <I>S</I> is score (rounded to three decimal points), <I>V</I> is the value of the measure, Min is the minimum cutoff value and Max is the maximum cutoff value.
</FP-2>
<P>For other scorecard measures, a lower value represents higher risk and a higher value represents lower risk. These measures include:
</P>
<P>• Leverage ratio;
</P>
<P>• Core earnings to average quarter-end total assets ratio;
</P>
<P>• Core deposits to total liabilities ratio; and
</P>
<P>• Balance sheet liquidity ratio.
</P>
<P>For those measures, a value between the minimum and maximum cutoff values is converted linearly to a score between 0 and 100, according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>S</I> = (Max −<I>V</I>) * 100/(Max −Min),
</FP-2>
<FP-2>where <I>S</I> is score (rounded to three decimal points), <I>V</I> is the value of the measure, Max is the maximum cutoff value and Min is the minimum cutoff value.
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10720, Feb. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.17.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Subpart A of Part 327—Description of Concentration Measures
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Concentration Measures
</HD1>
<P>The concentration score for large banks is the higher of the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score or the growth-adjusted portfolio concentrations score.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The concentration score for highly complex institutions is the highest of the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score, the Top 20 counterparty exposure to Tier 1 capital and reserves score, or the largest counterparty to Tier 1 capital and reserves score.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio and the growth-adjusted portfolio concentration measure are described herein.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purposes of this Appendix, the term “bank” means insured depository institution.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> As described in Appendix A to this subpart, the applicable portions of the current expected credit loss methodology (CECL) transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes pursuant to the regulatory capital regulations, as they may be amended from time to time (12 CFR part 3, 12 CFR part 217, 12 CFR part 324, 85 FR 61577 (Sept. 30, 2020), and 84 FR 4222 (Feb. 14, 2019)), will be removed from the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves throughout the large bank and highly complex bank scorecards, including in the ratio of Higher-Risk Assets to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, the Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentrations Measure, the ratio of Top 20 Counterparty Exposure to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, and the Ratio of Largest Counterparty Exposure to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Higher-Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves
</HD2>
<P>The higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio is the sum of the concentrations in each of five risk areas described below and is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.027.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>H<E T="52">i</E> is bank <I>i'</I>s higher-risk concentration measure and <I>k</I> is a risk area.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The five risk areas (<I>k</I>) are: construction and land development (C&amp;D) loans; higher-risk commercial and industrial (C&amp;I) loans and securities; higher-risk consumer loans; nontraditional mortgage loans; and higher-risk securitizations.
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The higher-risk concentration ratio is rounded to two decimal points.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>1. Construction and Land Development Loans
</HD3>
<P>Construction and land development loans include construction and land development loans outstanding and unfunded commitments to fund construction and land development loans, whether irrevocable or unconditionally cancellable.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Construction and land development loans are as defined in the instructions to Call Report Schedule RC-C Part I—Loans and Leases, as they may be amended from time to time, and include items reported on line items RC-C 1.a.1 (1-4 family residential construction loans), RC-C 1.a.2. (Other construction loans and all land development and other land loans), and RC-O M.10.a (Total unfunded commitments to fund construction, land development, and other land loans secured by real estate), and exclude RC-O M.10.b (Portion of unfunded commitments to fund construction, land development and other loans that are guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government, including the FDIC), RC-O M.13.a (Portion of funded construction, land development, and other land loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government, excluding FDIC loss sharing agreements), RC-M 13a.1.a.1 (1-4 family construction and land development loans covered by loss sharing agreements with the FDIC), and RC-M 13a.1.a.2 (Other construction loans and all land development loans covered by loss sharing agreements with the FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>2. Higher-Risk Commercial and Industrial (C&amp;I) Loans and Securities
</HD3>
<HD2>Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>Higher-Risk C&amp;I Loans and Securities
</HD3>
<P>Higher-risk C&amp;I loans and securities are:
</P>
<P>(a) All commercial and industrial (C&amp;I) loans (including funded amounts and the amount of unfunded commitments, whether irrevocable or unconditionally cancellable) owed to the reporting bank (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank filing its report of condition and income, or Call Report) by a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower, as that term is defined herein, regardless when the loans were made; 
<SU>5 6</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Commercial and industrial loans are as defined as commercial and industrial loans in the instructions to Call Report Schedule RC-C Part I—Loans and Leases, as they may be amended from time to time. This definition includes purchased credit impaired loans and overdrafts.
</P>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Unfunded commitments are defined as unused commitments, as this term is defined in the instructions to Call Report Schedule RC-L, Derivatives and Off-Balance Sheet Items, as they may be amended from time to time.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) All securities, except securities classified as trading book, issued by a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower, as that term is defined herein, that are owned by the reporting bank, without regard to when the securities were purchased; however, higher-risk C&amp;I loans and securities exclude:
</P>
<P>(a) The maximum amount that is recoverable from the U.S. government under guarantee or insurance provisions;
</P>
<P>(b) Loans (including syndicated or participated loans) that are fully secured by cash collateral as provided herein;
</P>
<P>(c) Loans that are eligible for the asset-based lending exclusion, described herein, provided the bank's primary federal regulator (PFR) has not cited a criticism (included in the Matters Requiring Attention, or MRA) of the bank's controls or administration of its asset-based loan portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(d) Loans that are eligible for the floor plan lending exclusion, described herein, provided the bank's PFR has not cited a criticism (included in the MRA) of the bank's controls or administration of its floor plan loan portfolio.
</P>
<HD3>Higher-Risk C&amp;I Borrower
</HD3>
<P>A “higher-risk C&amp;I borrower” is a borrower that:
</P>
<P>(a) Owes the reporting bank on a C&amp;I loan originally made on or after April 1, 2013, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The C&amp;I loan has an original amount (including funded amounts and the amount of unfunded commitments, whether irrevocable or unconditionally cancellable) of at least $5 million;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan meets the purpose and materiality tests described herein; and
</P>
<P>(iii) When the loan is made, the borrower meets the leverage test described herein; or
</P>
<P>(b) Obtains a refinance, as that term is defined herein, of an existing C&amp;I loan, where the refinance occurs on or after April 1, 2013, and the refinanced loan is owed to the reporting bank, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The refinanced loan is in an amount (including funded amounts and the amount of unfunded commitments, whether irrevocable or unconditionally cancellable) of at least $5 million;
</P>
<P>(ii) The C&amp;I loan being refinanced met the purpose and materiality tests (described herein) when it was originally made;
</P>
<P>(iii) The original loan was made no more than 5 years before the refinanced loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) When the loan is refinanced, the borrower meets the leverage test.
</P>
<P>When a bank acquires a C&amp;I loan originally made on or after April 1, 2013, by another lender, it must determine whether the borrower is a higher-risk borrower as a result of the loan as soon as reasonably practicable, but not later than one year after acquisition. When a bank acquires loans from another entity on a recurring or programmatic basis, however, the bank must determine whether the borrower is a higher-risk borrower as a result of the loan as soon as is practicable, but not later than three months after the date of acquisition.
</P>
<P>A borrower ceases to be a “higher-risk C&amp;I borrower” only if:
</P>
<P>(a) The borrower no longer has any C&amp;I loans owed to the reporting bank that, when originally made, met the purpose and materiality tests described herein;
</P>
<P>(b) The borrower has such loans outstanding owed to the reporting bank, but they have all been refinanced more than 5 years after originally being made; or
</P>
<P>(c) The reporting bank makes a new C&amp;I loan or refinances an existing C&amp;I loan and the borrower no longer meets the leverage test described herein.
</P>
<HD3>Original Amount
</HD3>
<P>The original amount of a loan, including the amounts to aggregate for purposes of arriving at the original amount, as described herein, is:
</P>
<P>(a) For C&amp;I loans drawn down under lines of credit or loan commitments, the amount of the line of credit or loan commitment on the date of its most recent approval, extension or renewal prior to the date of the most recent Call Report; if, however, the amount currently outstanding on the loan as of the date of the bank's most recent Call Report exceeds this amount, then the original amount of the loan is the amount outstanding as of the date of the bank's most recent Call Report.
</P>
<P>(b) For syndicated or participated C&amp;I loans, the total amount of the loan, rather than just the syndicated or participated portion held by the individual reporting bank.
</P>
<P>(c) For all other C&amp;I loans (whether term or non-revolver loans), the total amount of the loan as of origination or the amount outstanding as of the date of the bank's most recent Call Report, whichever is larger.
</P>
<P>For purposes of defining original amount and a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower:
</P>
<P>(a) All C&amp;I loans that a borrower owes to the reporting bank that meet the purpose test when made, and that are made within six months of each other, must be aggregated to determine the original amount of the loan; however, only loans in the original amount of $1 million or more must be aggregated; and further provided, that loans made before the April 1, 2013, need not be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(b) When a C&amp;I loan is refinanced through more than one loan, and the loans are made within six months of each other, they must be aggregated to determine the original amount.
</P>
<HD3>Refinance
</HD3>
<P>For purposes of a C&amp;I loan, a refinance includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Replacing an original obligation by a new or modified obligation or loan agreement;
</P>
<P>(b) Increasing the master commitment of the line of credit (but not adjusting sub-limits under the master commitment);
</P>
<P>(c) Disbursing additional money other than amounts already committed to the borrower;
</P>
<P>(d) Extending the legal maturity date;
</P>
<P>(e) Rescheduling principal or interest payments to create or increase a balloon payment;
</P>
<P>(f) Releasing a substantial amount of collateral;
</P>
<P>(g) Consolidating multiple existing obligations; or
</P>
<P>(h) Increasing or decreasing the interest rate.
</P>
<P>A refinance of a C&amp;I loan does not include a modification or series of modifications to a commercial loan other than as described above or modifications to a commercial loan that would otherwise meet this definition of refinance, but that result in the classification of a loan as a troubled debt restructuring (TDR) or a modification to borrowers experiencing financial difficulty, as these terms are defined in the glossary of the Call Report instructions, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P>
<HD3>Purpose Test
</HD3>
<P>A loan or refinance meets the purpose test if it is to finance:
</P>
<P>(a) A buyout, defined as the purchase or repurchase by the borrower of the borrower's outstanding equity, including, but not limited to, an equity buyout or funding an Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP);
</P>
<P>(b) An acquisition, defined as the purchase by the borrower of any equity interest in another company, or the purchase of all or a substantial portion of the assets of another company; or
</P>
<P>(c) A capital distribution, defined as a dividend payment or other transaction designed to enhance shareholder value, including, but not limited to, a repurchase of stock.
</P>
<P>At the time of refinance, whether the original loan met the purpose test may not be easily determined by a new lender. In such a case, the new lender must use its best efforts and reasonable due diligence to determine whether the original loan met the test.
</P>
<HD3>Materiality Test
</HD3>
<P>A loan or refinance meets the materiality test if:
</P>
<P>(a) The original amount of the loan (including funded amounts and the amount of unfunded commitments, whether irrevocable or unconditionally cancellable) equals or exceeds 20 percent of the total funded debt of the borrower; total funded debt of the borrower is to be determined as of the date of the original loan and does not include the loan to which the materiality test is being applied; or
</P>
<P>(b) Before the loan was made, the borrower had no funded debt.
</P>
<P>When multiple loans must be aggregated to determine the original amount, the materiality test is applied as of the date of the most recent loan.
</P>
<P>At the time of refinance, whether the original loan met the materiality test may not be easily determined by a new lender. In such a case, the new lender must use its best efforts and reasonable due diligence to determine whether the original loan met the test.
</P>
<HD3>Leverage Test
</HD3>
<P>A borrower meets the leverage test if:
</P>
<P>(a) The ratio of the borrower's total debt to trailing twelve-month EBITDA (commonly known as the operating leverage ratio) is greater than 4; or
</P>
<P>(b) The ratio of the borrower's senior debt to trailing twelve-month EBITDA (also commonly known as the operating leverage ratio) is greater than 3.
</P>
<P>EBITDA is defined as earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization.
</P>
<P>Total debt is defined as all interest-bearing financial obligations and includes, but is not limited to, overdrafts, borrowings, repurchase agreements (repos), trust receipts, bankers acceptances, debentures, bonds, loans (including those secured by mortgages), sinking funds, capital (finance) lease obligations (including those obligations that are convertible, redeemable or retractable), mandatory redeemable preferred and trust preferred securities accounted for as liabilities in accordance with ASC Subtopic 480-10, Distinguishing Liabilities from Equity—Overall (formerly FASB Statement No. 150, “Accounting for Certain Financial Instruments with Characteristics of both Liabilities and Equity”), and subordinated capital notes. Total debt excludes pension obligations, deferred tax liabilities and preferred equity.
</P>
<P>Senior debt includes any portion of total debt that has a priority claim on any of the borrower's assets. A priority claim is a claim that entitles the holder to priority of payment over other debt holders in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>When calculating either of the borrower's operating leverage ratios, the only permitted EBITDA adjustments are those specifically permitted for that borrower in the loan agreement (at the time of underwriting) and only funded amounts of lines of credit must be considered debt.
</P>
<P>The debt-to-EBITDA ratio must be calculated using the consolidated financial statements of the borrower. If the loan is made to a subsidiary of a larger organization, the debt-to-EBITDA ratio may be calculated using the financial statements of the subsidiary or, if the parent company has unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed the borrower's debt, using the consolidated financial statements of the parent company.
</P>
<P>In the case of a merger of two companies or the acquisition of one or more companies or parts of companies, pro-forma debt is to be used as well as the trailing twelve-month pro-forma EBITDA for the combined companies. When calculating the trailing pro-forma EBITDA for the combined company, no adjustments are allowed for economies of scale or projected cost savings that may be realized subsequent to the acquisition unless specifically permitted for that borrower under the loan agreement.
</P>
<HD2>Exclusions
</HD2>
<HD3>Cash Collateral Exclusion
</HD3>
<P>To exclude a loan based on cash collateral, the cash must be in the form of a savings or time deposit held by a bank. The bank (or lead bank or agent bank in the case of a participation or syndication) must have a perfected first priority security interest, a security agreement, and a collateral assignment of the deposit account that is irrevocable for the remaining term of the loan or commitment. In addition, the bank must place a hold on the deposit account that alerts the bank's employees to an attempted withdrawal. If the cash collateral is held at another bank or at multiple banks, a security agreement must be in place and each bank must have an account control agreement in place.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> For the exclusion to apply to a revolving line of credit, the cash collateral must be equal to or greater than the amount of the total loan commitment (the aggregate funded and unfunded balance of the loan).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> An account control agreement, for purposes of this Appendix, means a written agreement between the lending bank (the secured party), the borrower, and the bank that holds the deposit account serving as collateral (the depository bank), that the depository bank will comply with instructions originated by the secured party directing disposition of the funds in the deposit account without further consent by the borrower (or any other party).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Asset-Based and Floor Plan Lending Exclusions
</HD3>
<P>The FDIC retains the authority to verify that banks have sound internal controls and administration practices for asset-based and floor plan loans that are excluded from a bank's reported higher-risk C&amp;I loans and securities totals. If the bank's PFR has cited a criticism of the bank's controls or administration of its asset-based or floor plan loan portfolios in an MRA, the bank is not eligible for the asset-based or floor plan lending exclusions.
</P>
<HD3>Asset-Based Lending Conditions
</HD3>
<P>Asset-based loans (loans secured by accounts receivable and inventory) that meet all the following conditions are excluded from a bank's higher-risk C&amp;I loan totals:
</P>
<P>(a) The loan is managed by a loan officer or group of loan officers at the reporting bank who have experience in asset-based lending and collateral monitoring, including, but not limited to, experience in reviewing the following: Collateral reports, borrowing base certificates (which are discussed herein), collateral audit reports, loan-to-collateral values (LTV), and loan limits, using procedures common to the industry.
</P>
<P>(b) The bank has taken, or has the legally enforceable ability to take, dominion over the borrower's deposit accounts such that proceeds of collateral are applied to the loan balance as collected. Security agreements must be in place in all cases; in addition, if a borrower's deposit account is held at a bank other than the lending bank, an account control agreement must also be in place.
</P>
<P>(c) The bank has a perfected first priority security interest in all assets included in the borrowing base certificate.
</P>
<P>(d) If the loan is a credit facility (revolving or term loan), it must be fully secured by self-liquidating assets such as accounts receivable and inventory.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> Other non-self-liquidating assets may be part of the borrowing base, but the outstanding balance of the loan must be fully secured by the portion of the borrowing base that is composed of self-liquidating assets. Fully secured is defined as a 100 percent or lower LTV ratio after applying the appropriate discounts (determined by the loan agreement) to the collateral. If an over advance (including a seasonal over advance) causes the LTV to exceed 100 percent, the loan may not be excluded from higher-risk C&amp;I loans owed by a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower. Additionally, the bank must have the ability to withhold funding of a draw or advance if the loan amount exceeds the amount allowed by the collateral formula.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> An asset is self-liquidating if, in the event the borrower defaults, the asset can be easily liquidated and the proceeds of the sale of the assets would be used to pay down the loan. These assets can include machinery, heavy equipment or rental equipment if the machinery or equipment is inventory for the borrower's primary business and the machinery or equipment is included in the borrowing base.</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) A bank's lending policy or procedures must address the maintenance of an accounts receivable loan agreement with the borrower. This loan agreement must establish a maximum percentage advance, which cannot exceed 85 percent, against eligible accounts receivable, include a maximum dollar amount due from any one account debtor, address the financial strength of debtor accounts, and define eligible receivables. The definition of eligible receivables must consider the receivable quality, the turnover and dilution rates of receivables pledged, the aging of accounts receivable, the concentrations of debtor accounts, and the performance of the receivables related to their terms of sale.
</P>
<P>Concentration of debtor accounts is the percentage value of receivables associated with one or a few customers relative to the total value of receivables. Turnover of receivables is the velocity at which receivables are collected. The dilution rate is the uncollectible accounts receivable as a percentage of sales.
</P>
<P>Ineligibles must be established for any debtor account where there is concern that the debtor may not pay according to terms. Monthly accounts receivable agings must be received in sufficient detail to allow the bank to compute the required ineligibles. At a minimum, the following items must be deemed ineligible accounts receivable:
</P>
<P>(i) Accounts receivable balances over 90 days beyond invoice date or 60 days past due, depending upon custom with respect to a particular industry with appropriate adjustments made for dated billings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Entire account balances where over 50 percent of the account is over 60 days past due or 90 days past invoice date;
</P>
<P>(iii) Accounts arising from sources other than trade (<I>e.g.,</I> royalties, rebates);
</P>
<P>(iv) Consignment or guaranteed sales;
</P>
<P>(v) Notes receivable;
</P>
<P>(vi) Progress billings;
</P>
<P>(vii) Account balances in excess of limits appropriate to account debtor's credit worthiness or unduly concentrated by industry, location or customer;
</P>
<P>(viii) Affiliate and intercompany accounts; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Foreign accounts receivable.
</P>
<P>(f) Loans against inventory must be made with advance rates no more than 65 percent of eligible inventory (at the lower of cost valued on a first-in, first-out (FIFO) basis or market) based on an analysis of realizable value. When an appraisal is obtained, or there is a readily determinable market price for the inventory, however, up to 85 percent of the net orderly liquidation value (NOLV) or the market price of the inventory may be financed. Inventory must be valued or appraised by an independent third-party appraiser using NOLV, fair value, or forced sale value (versus a “going concern” value), whichever is appropriate, to arrive at a net realizable value. Appraisals are to be prepared in accordance with industry standards, unless there is a readily available and determinable market price for the inventory (<I>e.g.,</I> in the case of various commodities), from a recognized exchange or third-party industry source, and a readily available market (<I>e.g.,</I> for aluminum, crude oil, steel, and other traded commodities); in that case, inventory may be valued using current market value. When relying upon current market value rather than an independent appraisal, the reporting bank's management must update the value of inventory as market prices for the product change. Valuation updates must be as frequent as needed to ensure compliance with margin requirements. In addition, appropriate mark-to-market reserves must be established to protect against excessive inventory price fluctuations. An asset has a readily identifiable and publicly available market price if the asset's price is quoted routinely in a widely disseminated publication that is readily available to the general public.
</P>
<P>(g) A bank's lending policy or procedures must address the maintenance of an inventory loan agreement with the borrower. This loan agreement must establish a maximum percentage advance rate against acceptable inventory, address acceptable appraisal and valuation requirements, and define acceptable and ineligible inventory. Ineligibles must be established for inventory that exhibit characteristics that make it difficult to achieve a realizable value or to obtain possession of the inventory. Monthly inventory agings must be received in sufficient detail to allow the bank to compute the required ineligibles. At a minimum, ineligible inventory must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Slow moving, obsolete inventory and items turning materially slower than industry average;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inventory with value to the client only, which is generally work in process, but may include raw materials used solely in the client's manufacturing process;
</P>
<P>(iii) Consigned inventory or other inventory where a perfected security interest cannot be obtained;
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-premise inventory subject to a mechanic's or other lien; and
</P>
<P>(v) Specialized, high technology or other inventory subject to rapid obsolescence or valuation problems.
</P>
<P>(h) The bank must maintain documentation of borrowing base certificate reviews and collateral trend analyses to demonstrate that collateral values are actively, routinely and consistently monitored. A borrowing base certificate is a form prepared by the borrower that reflects the current status of the collateral. A new borrowing base certificate must be obtained within 30 days before or after each draw or advance on a loan. A bank is required to validate the borrowing base through asset-based tracking reports. The borrowing base validation process must include the bank requesting from the borrower a list of accounts receivable by creditor and a list of individual items of inventory and the bank certifying that the outstanding balance of the loan remains within the collateral formula prescribed by the loan agreement. Any discrepancies between the list of accounts receivable and inventory and the borrowing base certificate must be reconciled with the borrower. Periodic, but no less than annual, field examinations (audits) must also be performed by individuals who are independent of the credit origination or administration process. There must be a process in place to ensure that the bank is correcting audit exceptions.
</P>
<HD3>Floor Plan Lending Conditions
</HD3>
<P>Floor plan loans may include, but are not limited to, loans to finance the purchase of various vehicles or equipment including automobiles, boat or marine equipment, recreational vehicles (RV), motorized watersports vehicles such as jet skis, or motorized lawn and garden equipment such as tractor lawnmowers. Floor plan loans that meet all the following conditions are excluded from a bank's higher-risk C&amp;I loan totals:
</P>
<P>(a) The loan is managed by a loan officer or a group of loan officers at the reporting bank who are experienced in floor plan lending and monitoring collateral to ensure the borrower remains in compliance with floor plan limits and repayment requirements. Loan officers must have experience in reviewing certain items, including but not limited to: Collateral reports, floor plan limits, floor plan aging reports, vehicle inventory audits or inspections, and LTV ratios. The bank must obtain and review financial statements of the borrower (<I>e.g.,</I> tax returns, company-prepared financial statements, or dealer statements) on at least a quarterly basis to ensure that adequate controls are in place. (A “dealer statement” is the standard format financial statement issued by Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEMs) and used by nationally recognized automobile dealer floor plan lenders.)
</P>
<P>(b) For automobile floor plans, each loan advance must be made against a specific automobile under a borrowing base certificate held as collateral at no more than 100 percent of (i) dealer invoice plus freight charges (for new vehicles) or (ii) the cost of a used automobile at auction or the wholesale value using the prevailing market guide (<I>e.g.,</I> NADA, Black Book, Blue Book). The advance rate of 100 percent of dealer invoice plus freight charges on new automobiles, and the advance rate of the cost of a used automobile at auction or the wholesale value, may only be used where there is a manufacturer repurchase agreement or an aggressive curtailment program in place that is tracked by the bank over time and subject to strong controls. Otherwise, permissible advance rates must be lower than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) Advance rates on vehicles other than automobiles must conform to industry standards for advance rates on such inventory, but may never exceed 100 percent of dealer invoice plus freight charges on new vehicles or 100 percent of the cost of a used vehicle at auction or its wholesale value.
</P>
<P>(d) Each loan is self-liquidating (<I>i.e.,</I> if the borrower defaulted on the loan, the collateral could be easily liquidated and the proceeds of the sale of the collateral would be used to pay down the loan advance).
</P>
<P>(e) Vehicle inventories and collateral values are closely monitored, including the completion of regular (at least quarterly) dealership automotive or other vehicle dealer inventory audits or inspections to ensure accurate accounting for all vehicles held as collateral. The lending bank or a third party must prepare inventory audit reports and inspection reports for loans to automotive dealerships, or loans to other vehicle dealers, and the lending bank must review the reports at least quarterly. The reports must list all vehicles held as collateral and verify that the collateral is in the dealer's possession.
</P>
<P>(f) Floor plan aging reports must be reviewed by the bank as frequently as required under the loan agreement, but no less frequently than quarterly. Floor plan aging reports must reflect specific information about each automobile or vehicle being financed (<I>e.g.,</I> the make, model, and color of the automobile or other vehicle, and origination date of the loan to finance the automobile or vehicle). Curtailment programs should be instituted where necessary and banks must ensure that curtailment payments are made on stale automotive or other vehicle inventory financed under the floor plan loan.
</P>
<HD3>Detailed Reports
</HD3>
<P>Examples of detailed reports that must be provided to the asset-based and floor plan lending bank include:
</P>
<P>(a) Borrowing Base Certificates: Borrowing base certificates, along with supporting information, must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The accounts receivable balance (rolled forward from the previous certificate);
</P>
<P>(ii) Sales (reported as gross billings) with detailed adjustments for returns and allowances to allow for proper tracking of dilution and other reductions in collateral;
</P>
<P>(iii) Detailed inventory information (<I>e.g.,</I> raw materials, work-in-process, finished goods); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Detail of loan activity.
</P>
<P>(b) Accounts Receivable and Inventory Detail: A listing of accounts receivable and inventory that is included on the borrowing base certificate. Monthly accounts receivable and inventory agings must be received in sufficient detail to allow the lender to compute the required ineligibles.
</P>
<P>(c) Accounts Payable Detail: A listing of each accounts payable owed to the borrower. Monthly accounts payable agings must be received to monitor payable performance and anticipated working capital needs.
</P>
<P>(d) Covenant Compliance Certificates: A listing of each loan covenant and the borrower's compliance with each one. Borrowers must submit Covenant Compliance Certificates, generally on a monthly or quarterly basis (depending on the terms of the loan agreement) to monitor compliance with the covenants outlined in the loan agreement. Non-compliance with any covenants must be promptly addressed.
</P>
<P>(e) Dealership Automotive Inventory or Other Vehicle Inventory Audits or Inspections: The bank or a third party must prepare inventory audit reports or inspection reports for loans to automotive dealerships and other vehicle dealerships. The bank must review the reports at least quarterly. The reports must list all vehicles held as collateral and verify that the collateral is in the dealer's possession.
</P>
<P>(f) Floor Plan Aging Reports: Borrowers must submit floor plan aging reports on a monthly or quarterly basis (depending on the terms of the loan agreement). These reports must reflect specific information about each automobile or other type of vehicle being financed (<I>e.g.,</I> the make, model, and color of the automobile or other type of vehicle, and origination date of the loan to finance the automobile or other type of vehicle).
</P>
<HD3>3. Higher-Risk Consumer Loans
</HD3>
<HD3>Definitions
</HD3>
<P>Higher-risk consumer loans are defined as all consumer loans where, as of origination, or, if the loan has been refinanced, as of refinance, the probability of default (PD) within two years (the two-year PD) is greater than 20 percent, excluding those consumer loans that meet the definition of a nontraditional mortgage loan. 
<SU>9 10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> For the purposes of this rule, consumer loans consist of all loans secured by 1-4 family residential properties as well as loans and leases made to individuals for household, family, and other personal expenditures, as defined in the instructions to the Call Report, Schedule RC-C, as the instructions may be amended from time to time. Higher-risk consumer loans include purchased credit-impaired loans that meet the definition of higher-risk consumer loans.
</P>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> The FDIC has the flexibility, as part of its risk-based assessment system, to change the 20 percent threshold for identifying higher-risk consumer loans without further notice-and-comment rulemaking as a result of reviewing data for up to the first two reporting periods after the effective date of this rule. Before making any such change, the FDIC will analyze the potential effect of changing the PD threshold on the distribution of higher-risk consumer loans among banks and the resulting effect on assessments collected from the industry. The FDIC will provide banks with at least one quarter advance notice of any such change to the PD threshold through a Financial Institution Letter.</P></FTNT>
<P>Higher-risk consumer loans exclude:
</P>
<P>(a) The maximum amounts recoverable from the U.S. government under guarantee or insurance provisions; and
</P>
<P>(b) Loans fully secured by cash collateral. To exclude a loan based on cash collateral, the cash must be in the form of a savings or time deposit held by a bank. The lending bank (or lead or agent bank in the case of a participation or syndication) must, in all cases, (including instances in which cash collateral is held at another bank or banks) have a perfected first priority security interest under applicable state law, a security agreement in place, and all necessary documents executed and measures taken as required to result in such perfection and priority. In addition, the lending bank must place a hold on the deposit account that alerts the bank's employees to an attempted withdrawal. For the exclusion to apply to a revolving line of credit, the cash collateral must be equal to, or greater than, the amount of the total loan commitment (the aggregate funded and unfunded balance of the loan).
</P>
<P>Banks must determine the PD of a consumer loan as of the date the loan was originated, or, if the loan has been refinanced, as of the date it was refinanced. The two-year PD must be estimated using an approach that conforms to the requirements detailed herein.
</P>
<HD3>Loans Originated or Refinanced Before April 1, 2013, and all Acquired Loans
</HD3>
<P>For loans originated or refinanced by a bank before April 1, 2013, and all acquired loans regardless of the date of acquisition, if information as of the date the loan was originated or refinanced is not available, then the bank must use the oldest available information to determine the PD. If no information is available, then the bank must obtain recent, refreshed data from the borrower or other appropriate third party to determine the PD. Refreshed data is defined as the most recent data available, and must be as of a date that is no earlier than three months before the acquisition of the loan. In addition, for loans acquired on or after April 1, 2013, the acquiring bank shall have six months from the date of acquisition to determine the PD.
</P>
<P>When a bank acquires loans from another entity on a recurring or programmatic basis, the acquiring bank may determine whether the loan meets the definition of a higher-risk consumer loan using the origination criteria and analysis performed by the original lender only if the acquiring bank verifies the information provided. Loans acquired from another entity are acquired on a recurring basis if a bank has acquired other loans from that entity at least once within the calendar year of the acquisition of the loans in question or in the previous calendar year. If the acquiring bank cannot or does not verify the information provided by the original lender, the acquiring bank must obtain the necessary information from the borrower or other appropriate third party to make its own determination of whether the purchased assets should be classified as a higher-risk consumer loan.
</P>
<HD3>Loans That Meet Both Higher-Risk Consumer Loans and Nontraditional Mortgage Loans Definitions
</HD3>
<P>A loan that meets both the nontraditional mortgage loan and higher-risk consumer loan definitions at the time of origination, or, if the loan has been refinanced, as of refinance, must be reported only as a nontraditional mortgage loan. If, however, the loan ceases to meet the nontraditional mortgage loan definition but continues to meet the definition of a higher-risk consumer loan, the loan is to be reported as a higher-risk consumer loan.
</P>
<HD3>General Requirements for PD Estimation
</HD3>
<HD3>Scorable Consumer Loans
</HD3>
<P>Estimates of the two-year PD for a loan must be based on the observed, stress period default rate (defined herein) for loans of a similar product type made to consumers with credit risk comparable to the borrower being evaluated. While a bank may consider additional risk factors beyond the product type and credit score (<I>e.g.,</I> geography) in estimating the PD of a loan, it must at a minimum account for these two factors. The credit risk assessment must be determined using third party or internal scores derived using a scoring system that qualifies as <I>empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound</I> as defined in 12 CFR 202.2(p), as it may be amended from time to time, and has been approved by the bank's model risk oversight and governance process and internal audit mechanism. In the case of a consumer loan with a co-signer or co-borrower, the PD may be determined using the most favorable individual credit score.
</P>
<P>In estimating the PD based on such scores, banks must adhere to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) The PD must be estimated as the average of the two, 24-month default rates observed from July 2007 to June 2009, and July 2009 to June 2011, where the average is calculated according to the following formula and DR<E T="52">t</E> is the observed default rate over the 24-month period beginning in July of year t:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.028.gif"/>
<P>(b) The default rate for each 24-month period must be calculated as the number of active loans that experienced at least one default event during the period divided by the total number of active loans as of the observation date (<I>i.e.,</I> the beginning of the 24-month period). An “active” loan is defined as any loan that was open and not in default as of the observation date, and on which a payment was made within the 12 months prior to the observation date.
</P>
<P>(c) The default rate for each 24-month period must be calculated using a stratified random sample of loans that is sufficient in size to derive statistically meaningful results for the product type and credit score (and any additional risk factors) being evaluated. The product strata must be as homogenous as possible with respect to the factors that influence default, such that products with distinct risk characteristics are evaluated separately. The loans should be sampled based on the credit score as of the observation date, and each 24-month default rate must be calculated using a random sample of at least 1,200 active loans.
</P>
<P>(d) Credit score strata must be determined by partitioning the entire credit score range generated by a given scoring system into a minimum of 15 bands. While the width of the credit score bands may vary, the scores within each band must reflect a comparable level of credit risk. Because performance data for scores at the upper and lower extremes of the population distribution is likely to be limited, however, the top and bottom bands may include a range of scores that suggest some variance in credit quality.
</P>
<P>(e) Each credit score will need to have a unique PD associated with it. Therefore, when the number of score bands is less than the number of unique credit scores (as will almost always be the case), banks must use a linear interpolation between adjacent default rates to determine the PD for a particular score. The observed default rate for each band must be assumed to correspond to the midpoint of the range for the band. For example, if one score band ranges from 621 to 625 and has an observed default rate of 4 percent, while the next lowest band ranges from 616 to 620 and has an observed default rate of 6 percent, a 620 score must be assigned a default rate of 5.2 percent, calculated as
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.029.gif"/>
<P>When evaluating scores that fall below the midpoint of the lowest score band or above the midpoint of the highest score band, the interpolation must be based on an assumed adjacent default rate of 1 or 0, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) The credit scores represented in the historical sample must have been produced by the same entity, using the same or substantially similar methodology as the methodology used to derive the credit scores to which the default rates will be applied. For example, the default rate for a particular vendor score cannot be evaluated based on the score-to-default rate relationship for a different vendor, even if the range of scores under both systems is the same. On the other hand, if the current and historical scores were produced by the same vendor using slightly different versions of the same scoring system and equivalent scores represent a similar likelihood of default, then the historical experience could be applied.
</P>
<P>(g) A loan is to be considered in default when it is 90 + days past due, charged-off, or the borrower enters bankruptcy.
</P>
<HD3>Unscorable Consumer Loans
</HD3>
<P>For unscorable consumer loans—where the available information about a borrower is insufficient to determine a credit score—the bank will be unable to assign a PD to the loan according to the requirements described above. If the total outstanding balance of the unscorable consumer loans of a particular product type (including, but not limited to, student loans) exceeds 5 percent of the total outstanding balance for that product type, including both foreign and domestic loans, the excess amount shall be treated as higher risk (the de minimis approach). Otherwise, the total outstanding balance of unscorable consumer loans of a particular product type will not be considered higher risk. The consumer product types used to determine whether the 5 percent test is satisfied shall correspond to the product types listed in the table used for reporting PD estimates.
</P>
<P>A bank may not develop PD estimates for unscorable loans based on internal data.
</P>
<P>If, after the origination or refinance of the loan, an unscorable consumer loan becomes scorable, a bank must reclassify the loan using a PD estimated according to the general requirements above. Based upon that PD, the loan will be determined to be either higher risk or not, and that determination will remain in effect until a refinancing occurs, at which time the loan must be re-evaluated. An unscorable loan must be reviewed at least annually to determine if a credit score has become available.
</P>
<HD3><I>Alternative Methodologies</I>
</HD3>
<P>A bank may use internally derived default rates that were calculated using fewer observations or score bands than those specified above under certain conditions. The bank must submit a written request to the FDIC either in advance of, or concurrent with, reporting under the requested approach. The request must explain in detail how the proposed approach differs from the rule specifications and the bank must provide support for the statistical appropriateness of the proposed methodology. The request must include, at a minimum, a table with the default rates and number of observations used in each score and product segment. The FDIC will evaluate the proposed methodology and may request additional information from the bank, which the bank must provide. The bank may report using its proposed approach while the FDIC evaluates the methodology. If, after reviewing the request, the FDIC determines that the bank's methodology is unacceptable, the bank will be required to amend its Call Reports and report according to the generally applicable specifications for PD estimation. The bank will be required to submit amended information for no more than the two most recently dated and filed Call Reports preceding the FDIC's determination.
</P>
<HD3><I>Foreign Consumer Loans</I>
</HD3>
<P>A bank must estimate the PD of a foreign consumer loan according to the general requirements described above unless doing so would be unduly complex or burdensome (<I>e.g.,</I> if a bank had to develop separate PD mappings for many different countries). A bank may request to use default rates calculated using fewer observations or score bands than the specified minimums, either in advance of, or concurrent with, reporting under that methodology, but must comply with the requirements detailed above for using an alternative methodology.
</P>
<P>When estimating a PD according to the general requirements described above would be unduly complex or burdensome, a bank that is required to calculate PDs for foreign consumer loans under the requirements of the Basel II capital framework may: (1) Use the Basel II approach discussed herein, subject to the terms discussed herein; (2) submit a written request to the FDIC to use its own methodology, but may not use the methodology until approved by the FDIC; or (3) treat the loan as an unscorable consumer loan subject to the de minimis approach described above.
</P>
<P>When estimating a PD according to the general requirements described above would be unduly complex or burdensome, a bank that is not required to calculate PDs for foreign consumer loans under the requirements of the Basel II capital framework may: (1) Treat the loan as an unscorable consumer loan subject to the de minimis approach described above; or (2) submit a written request to the FDIC to use its own methodology, but may not use the methodology until approved by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>When a bank submits a written request to the FDIC to use its own methodology, the FDIC may request additional information from the bank regarding the proposed methodology and the bank must provide the information. The FDIC may grant a bank tentative approval to use the methodology while the FDIC considers it in more detail. If the FDIC ultimately disapproves the methodology, the bank may be required to amend its Call Reports; however, the bank will be required to amend no more than the two most recently dated and filed Call Reports preceding the FDIC's determination. In the amended Call Reports, the bank must treat any loan whose PD had been estimated using the disapproved methodology as an unscorable domestic consumer loan subject to the de minimis approach described above.
</P>
<HD3>Basel II Approach
</HD3>
<P>A bank that is required to calculate PDs for foreign consumer loans under the requirements of the Basel II capital framework may estimate the two-year PD of a foreign consumer loan based on the one-year PD used for Basel II capital purposes.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> The bank must submit a written request to the FDIC in advance of, or concurrent with, reporting under that methodology. The request must explain in detail how one-year PDs calculated under the Basel II framework are translated to two-year PDs that meet the requirements above. While the range of acceptable approaches is potentially broad, any proposed methodology must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Using these Basel II PDs for this purpose does not imply that a bank's PFR has approved use of these PDs for the Basel II capital framework. If a bank's PFR requires it to revise its Basel II PD methodology, the bank must use revised Basel II PDs to calculate (or recalculate if necessary) corresponding PDs under this Basel II approach.</P></FTNT>
<P>(a) The bank must use data on a sample of loans for which both the one-year Basel II PDs and two-year final rule PDs can be calculated. The sample may contain both foreign and domestic loans.
</P>
<P>(b) The bank must use the sample data to demonstrate that a meaningful relationship exists between the two types of PD estimates, and the significance and nature of the relationship must be determined using accepted statistical principles and methodologies. For example, to the extent that a linear relationship exists in the sample data, the bank may use an ordinary least-squares regression to determine the best linear translation of Basel II PDs to final rule PDs. The estimated equation should fit the data reasonably well based on standard statistics such as the coefficient of determination; and
</P>
<P>(c) The method must account for any significant variation in the relationship between the two types of PD estimates that exists across consumer products based on the empirical analysis of the data. For example, if the bank is using a linear regression to determine the relationship between PD estimates, it should test whether the parameter estimates are significantly different by product type.
</P>
<P>The bank may report using this approach (if it first notifies the FDIC of its intention to do so), while the FDIC evaluates the methodology. If, after reviewing the methodology, the FDIC determines that the methodology is unacceptable, the bank will be required to amend its Call Reports. The bank will be required to submit amended information for no more than the two most recently dated and filed Call Reports preceding the FDIC's determination.
</P>
<HD3>Refinance
</HD3>
<P>For purposes of higher-risk consumer loans, a refinance includes:
</P>
<P>(a) Extending new credit or additional funds on an existing loan;
</P>
<P>(b) Replacing an existing loan with a new or modified obligation;
</P>
<P>(c) Consolidating multiple existing obligations;
</P>
<P>(d) Disbursing additional funds to the borrower. Additional funds include a material disbursement of additional funds or, with respect to a line of credit, a material increase in the amount of the line of credit, but not a disbursement, draw, or the writing of convenience checks within the original limits of the line of credit. A material increase in the amount of a line of credit is defined as a 10 percent or greater increase in the quarter-end line of credit limit; however, a temporary increase in a credit card line of credit is not a material increase;
</P>
<P>(e) Increasing or decreasing the interest rate (except as noted herein for credit card loans); or
</P>
<P>(f) Rescheduling principal or interest payments to create or increase a balloon payment or extend the legal maturity date of the loan by more than six months.
</P>
<P>A refinance for this purpose does not include:
</P>
<P>(a) A re-aging, defined as returning a delinquent, open-end account to current status without collecting the total amount of principal, interest, and fees that are contractually due, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The re-aging is part of a program that, at a minimum, adheres to the re-aging guidelines recommended in the interagency approved Uniform Retail Credit Classification and Account Management Policy; 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Among other things, for a loan to be considered for re-aging, the following must be true: (1) The borrower must have demonstrated a renewed willingness and ability to repay the loan; (2) the loan must have existed for at least nine months; and (3) the borrower must have made at least three consecutive minimum monthly payments or the equivalent cumulative amount.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) The program has clearly defined policy guidelines and parameters for re-aging, as well as internal methods of ensuring the reasonableness of those guidelines and monitoring their effectiveness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank monitors both the number and dollar amount of re-aged accounts, collects and analyzes data to assess the performance of re-aged accounts, and determines the effect of re-aging practices on past due ratios;
</P>
<P>(b) Modifications to a loan that would otherwise meet this definition of refinance, but result in the classification of a loan as a TDR or modification to borrowers experiencing financial difficulty;
</P>
<P>(c) Any modification made to a consumer loan pursuant to a government program, such as the Home Affordable Modification Program or the Home Affordable Refinance Program;
</P>
<P>(d) Deferrals under the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act;
</P>
<P>(e) A contractual deferral of payments or change in interest rate that is consistent with the terms of the original loan agreement (<I>e.g.,</I> as allowed in some student loans);
</P>
<P>(f) Except as provided above, a modification or series of modifications to a closed-end consumer loan;
</P>
<P>(g) An advance of funds, an increase in the line of credit, or a change in the interest rate that is consistent with the terms of the loan agreement for an open-end or revolving line of credit (<I>e.g.,</I> credit cards or home equity lines of credit);
</P>
<P>(h) For credit card loans:
</P>
<P>(i) Replacing an existing card because the original is expiring, for security reasons, or because of a new technology or a new system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reissuing a credit card that has been temporarily suspended (as opposed to closed);
</P>
<P>(iii) Temporarily increasing the line of credit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing access to additional credit when a bank has internally approved a higher credit line than it has made available to the customer; or
</P>
<P>(v) Changing the interest rate of a credit card line when mandated by law (such as in the case of the Credit CARD Act).
</P>
<HD3>4. Nontraditional mortgage loans
</HD3>
<P>Nontraditional mortgage loans include all residential loan products that allow the borrower to defer repayment of principal or interest and include all interest-only products, teaser rate mortgages, and negative amortizing mortgages, with the exception of home equity lines of credit (HELOCs) or reverse mortgages. A teaser-rate mortgage loan is defined as a mortgage with a discounted initial rate where the lender offers a lower rate and lower payments for part of the mortgage term. A mortgage loan is no longer considered a nontraditional mortgage loan once the teaser rate has expired. An interest-only loan is no longer considered a nontraditional mortgage loan once the loan begins to amortize.
</P>
<P>Banks must determine whether residential loans meet the definition of a nontraditional mortgage loan as of origination, or, if the loan has been refinanced, as of refinance, as refinance is defined in this Appendix for purposes of higher-risk consumer loans. When a bank acquires a residential loan, it must determine whether the loan meets the definition of a nontraditional mortgage loan using the origination criteria and analysis performed by the original lender. If this information is unavailable, the bank must obtain refreshed data from the borrower or other appropriate third party. Refreshed data for residential loans is defined as the most recent data available. The data, however, must be as of a date that is no earlier than three months before the acquisition of the residential loan. The acquiring bank must also determine whether an acquired loan is higher risk not later than three months after acquisition.
</P>
<P>When a bank acquires loans from another entity on a recurring or programmatic basis, however, the acquiring bank may determine whether the loan meets the definition of a nontraditional mortgage loan using the origination criteria and analysis performed by the original lender only if the acquiring bank verifies the information provided. Loans acquired from another entity are acquired on a recurring basis if a bank has acquired other loans from that entity at least once within the calendar year or the previous calendar year of the acquisition of the loans in question.
</P>
<HD3>5. Higher-Risk Securitizations
</HD3>
<P>Higher-risk securitizations are defined as securitization exposures (except securitizations classified as trading book), where, in aggregate, more than 50 percent of the assets backing the securitization meet either the criteria for higher-risk C &amp; I loans or securities, higher-risk consumer loans, or nontraditional mortgage loans, except those classified as trading book. A securitization exposure is as defined in 12 CFR 324.2, as it may be amended from time to time. A higher-risk securitization excludes the maximum amount that is recoverable from the U.S. government under guarantee or insurance provisions.
</P>
<P>A bank must determine whether a securitization is higher risk based upon information as of the date of issuance (<I>i.e.,</I> the date the securitization is sold on a market to the public for the first time). The bank must make this determination within the time limit that would apply under this Appendix if the bank were directly acquiring loans or securities of the type underlying the securitization. In making the determination, a bank must use one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(a) For a securitization collateralized by a static pool of loans, whose underlying collateral changes due to the sale or amortization of these loans, the 50 percent threshold is to be determined based upon the amount of higher-risk assets, as defined in this Appendix, owned by the securitization on the date of issuance of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(b) For a securitization collateralized by a dynamic pool of loans, whose underlying collateral may change by the purchase of additional assets, including purchases made during a ramp-up period, the 50 percent threshold is to be determined based upon the highest amount of higher-risk assets, as defined in this Appendix, allowable under the portfolio guidelines of the securitization.
</P>
<P>A bank is not required to evaluate a securitization on a continuous basis when the securitization is collateralized by a dynamic pool of loans; rather, the bank is only required to evaluate the securitization once.
</P>
<P>A bank is required to use the information that is reasonably available to a sophisticated investor in reasonably determining whether a securitization meets the 50 percent threshold. Information reasonably available to a sophisticated investor includes, but is not limited to, offering memoranda, indentures, trustee reports, and requests for information from servicers, collateral managers, issuers, trustees, or similar third parties. When determining whether a revolving trust or similar securitization meets the threshold, a bank may use established criteria, model portfolios, or limitations published in the offering memorandum, indenture, trustee report, or similar documents.
</P>
<P>Sufficient information necessary for a bank to make a definitive determination may not, in every case, be reasonably available to the bank as a sophisticated investor. In such a case, the bank may exercise its judgment in making the determination. In some cases, the bank need not rely upon all of the aforementioned pieces of information to make a higher-risk determination if fewer documents provide sufficient data to make the determination.
</P>
<P>In cases in which a securitization is required to be consolidated on the balance sheet as a result of SFAS 166 and SFAS 167, and a bank has access to the necessary information, a bank may opt for an alternative method of evaluating the securitization to determine whether it is higher risk. The bank may evaluate individual loans in the securitization on a loan-by-loan basis and only report as higher risk those loans that meet the definition of a higher-risk asset; any loan within the securitization that does not meet the definition of a higher-risk asset need not be reported as such. When making this evaluation, the bank must follow the provisions of section I.B herein. Once a bank evaluates a securitization for higher-risk asset designation using this alternative evaluation method, it must continue to evaluate all securitizations that it has consolidated on the balance sheet as a result of SFAS 166 and SFAS 167, and for which it has the required information, using the alternative evaluation method. For securitizations for which the bank does not have access to information on a loan-by-loan basis, the bank must determine whether the securitization meets the 50 percent threshold in the manner previously described for other securitizations.
</P>
<HD2>B. Application of Definitions
</HD2>
<P>Section I of this Appendix applies to:
</P>
<P>(1) All construction and land development loans, whenever originated or purchased;
</P>
<P>(2) C&amp;I loans (as that term is defined in this Appendix) owed to a reporting bank by a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower (as that term is defined in this Appendix) and all securities issued by a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower, except securitizations of C&amp;I loans, that are owned by the reporting bank;
</P>
<P>(3) Consumer loans (as defined in this Appendix), except securitizations of consumer loans, whenever originated or purchased;
</P>
<P>(4) Securitizations of C&amp;I and consumer loans (as defined in this Appendix) issued on or after April 1, 2013, including those securitizations issued on or after April 1, 2013, that are partially or fully collateralized by loans originated before April 1, 2013.
</P>
<P>For C&amp;I loans that are either originated or refinanced by a reporting bank before April 1, 2013, or purchased by a reporting bank before April 1, 2013, where the loans are owed to the reporting bank by a borrower that does not meet the definition of a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower as that term is defined in this Appendix (which requires, among other things, that the borrower have obtained a C&amp;I loan or refinanced an existing C&amp;I loan on or after April 1, 2013) and securities purchased before April 1, 2013, that are issued by an entity that does not meet the definition of a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower, as that term is defined in this Appendix, banks must continue to use the transition guidance in the September 2012 Call Report instructions to determine whether to report the loan or security as a higher-risk asset for purposes of the higher-risk assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves ratio. A bank may opt to apply the definition of higher-risk C&amp;I loans and securities in this Appendix to all of its C&amp;I loans and securities, but, if it does so, it must also apply the definition of a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower in this Appendix without regard to when the loan is originally made or refinanced (<I>i.e.,</I> whether made or refinanced before or after April 1, 2013).
</P>
<P>For consumer loans (other than securitizations of consumer loans) originated or purchased prior to April 1, 2013, a bank must determine whether the loan met the definition of a higher-risk consumer loan no later than June 30, 2013.
</P>
<P>For all securitizations issued before April 1, 2013, banks must either (1) continue to use the transition guidance or (2) apply the definitions in this Appendix to all of its securitizations. If a bank applies the definition of higher-risk C&amp;I loans and securities in this Appendix to its securitizations, it must also apply the definition of a higher-risk C&amp;I borrower in this Appendix to all C&amp;I borrowers without regard to when the loans to those borrowers were originally made or refinanced (<I>i.e.,</I> whether made or refinanced before or after April 1, 2013).
</P>
<HD1>II. Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentration Measure
</HD1>
<P>The <I>growth-adjusted concentration measure</I> is the sum of the values of concentrations in each of the seven portfolios, each of the values being first adjusted for risk weights and growth. The product of the risk weight and the concentration ratio is first squared and then multiplied by the growth factor. The measure is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.030.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>N is bank <I>i'</I>s growth-adjusted portfolio concentration measure; 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> The growth-adjusted portfolio concentration measure is rounded to two decimal points.</P></FTNT>
<FP-2><I>k</I> is a portfolio;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>g</I> is a growth factor for bank <I>i'</I>s portfolio <I>k;</I> and,
</FP-2>
<FP-2>w is a risk weight for portfolio <I>k.</I>
</FP-2>
<P>The seven portfolios (k) are defined based on the Call Report/TFR data and they are:
</P>
<P>• Construction and land development loans;
</P>
<P>• Other commercial real estate loans;
</P>
<P>• First-lien residential mortgages and non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities (excludes CMOs, REMICS, CMO and REMIC residuals, and stripped MBS issued by non-U.S. government issuers for which the collateral consists of MBS issued or guaranteed by U.S. government agencies);
</P>
<P>• Closed-end junior liens and home equity lines of credit (HELOCs);
</P>
<P>• Commercial and industrial loans;
</P>
<P>• Credit card loans; and
</P>
<P>• Other consumer loans. 
<SU>14 15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> All loan concentrations should include the fair value of purchased credit impaired loans.
</P>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Each loan concentration category should exclude the amount of loans recoverable from the U.S. government under guarantee or insurance provisions.</P></FTNT>
<P>The growth factor, <I>g,</I> is based on a three-year merger-adjusted growth rate for a given portfolio; <I>g</I> ranges from 1 to 1.2 where a 20 percent growth rate equals a factor of 1 and an 80 percent growth rate equals a factor of 1.2.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> For growth rates less than 20 percent, <I>g</I> is 1; for growth rates greater than 80 percent, <I>g</I> is 1.2. For growth rates between 20 percent and 80 percent, the growth factor is calculated as:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> The growth factor is rounded to two decimal points.</P></FTNT>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.031.gif"/>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc12.032.gif"/>
<FP-2>V is the portfolio amount as reported on the Call Report/TFR and t is the quarter for which the assessment is being determined.
</FP-2>
<P>The risk weight for each portfolio reflects relative peak loss rates for banks at the 90th percentile during the 1990-2009 period.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> These loss rates were converted into equivalent risk weights as shown in Table C.1.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> The risk weights are based on loss rates for each portfolio relative to the loss rate for C&amp;I loans, which is given a risk weight of 1. The peak loss rates were derived as follows. The loss rate for each loan category for each bank with over $5 billion in total assets was calculated for each of the last twenty calendar years (1990-2009). The highest value of the 90th percentile of each loan category over the twenty year period was selected as the peak loss rate.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table C.1—90th Percentile Annual Loss Rates for 1990-2009 Period and Corresponding Risk Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Portfolio
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loss rates (90th percentile)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weights
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">First-Lien Mortgages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.3%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Second/Junior Lien Mortgages</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.6%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial and Industrial (C&amp;I) Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction and Development (C&amp;D) Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Real Estate Loans, excluding C&amp;D</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.3%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Card Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.8%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.9%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66017, Oct. 31, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 55594, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 86 FR 11401, Feb. 25, 2021; 87 FR 64355, Oct. 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.17.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Subpart A of Part 327—Description of the Loss Severity Measure
</HEAD>
<P>The loss severity measure applies a standardized set of assumptions to an institution's balance sheet to measure possible losses to the FDIC in the event of an institution's failure. To determine an institution's loss severity rate, the FDIC first applies assumptions about uninsured deposit and other unsecured liability runoff, and growth in insured deposits, to adjust the size and composition of the institution's liabilities. Assets are then reduced to match any reduction in liabilities.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The institution's asset values are then further reduced so that the Leverage ratio reaches 2 percent.
<SU>2 3</SU>
<FTREF/> In both cases, assets are adjusted pro rata to preserve the institution's asset composition. Assumptions regarding loss rates at failure for a given asset category and the extent of secured liabilities are then applied to estimated assets and liabilities at failure to determine whether the institution has enough unencumbered assets to cover domestic deposits. Any projected shortfall is divided by current domestic deposits to obtain an end-of-period loss severity ratio. The loss severity measure is an average loss severity ratio for the three most recent quarters of data available.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In most cases, the model would yield reductions in liabilities and assets prior to failure. Exceptions may occur for institutions primarily funded through insured deposits which the model assumes to grow prior to failure.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Of course, in reality, runoff and capital declines occur more or less simultaneously as an institution approaches failure. The loss severity measure assumptions simplify this process for ease of modeling.
</P>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The applicable portions of the current expected credit loss methodology (CECL) transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes pursuant to the regulatory capital regulations, as they may be amended from time to time (12 CFR part 3, 12 CFR part 217, 12 CFR part 324, 85 FR 61577 (Sept. 30, 2020), and 84 FR 4222 (Feb. 14, 2019)), will be removed from the calculation of the loss severity measure.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>Runoff and Capital Adjustment Assumptions
</HD2>
<P>Table D.1 contains run-off assumptions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D.1—Runoff Rate Assumptions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liability type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Runoff rate *
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insured Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(10)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uninsured Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal Funds Purchased</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repurchase Agreements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trading Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Borrowings ≤ 1 Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Secured Borrowings ≤ 1 Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subordinated Debt and Limited Liability Preferred Stock</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* A negative rate implies growth.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Given the resulting total liabilities after runoff, assets are then reduced pro rata to preserve the relative amount of assets in each of the following asset categories and to achieve a Leverage ratio of 2 percent:
</P>
<P>• Cash and Interest Bearing Balances;
</P>
<P>• Trading Account Assets;
</P>
<P>• Federal Funds Sold and Repurchase Agreements;
</P>
<P>• Treasury and Agency Securities;
</P>
<P>• Municipal Securities;
</P>
<P>• Other Securities;
</P>
<P>• Construction and Development Loans;
</P>
<P>• Nonresidential Real Estate Loans;
</P>
<P>• Multifamily Real Estate Loans;
</P>
<P>• 1-4 Family Closed-End First Liens;
</P>
<P>• 1-4 Family Closed-End Junior Liens;
</P>
<P>• Revolving Home Equity Loans; and
</P>
<P>• Agricultural Real Estate Loans.
</P>
<HD2>Recovery Value of Assets at Failure
</HD2>
<P>Table D.2 shows loss rates applied to each of the asset categories as adjusted above.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table D.2—Asset Loss Rate Assumptions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loss rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash and Interest Bearing Balances</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trading Account Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal Funds Sold and Repurchase Agreements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Treasury and Agency Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Municipal Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction and Development Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonresidential Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multifamily Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Closed-End First Liens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Closed-End Junior Liens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Revolving Home Equity Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial and Industrial Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Card Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All Other Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>Secured Liabilities at Failure
</HD2>
<P>Federal home loan bank advances, secured federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements are assumed to be fully secured. Foreign deposits are treated as fully secured because of the potential for ring fencing.
</P>
<HD2>Loss Severity Ratio Calculation
</HD2>
<P>The FDIC's loss given failure (LGD) is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25fe11.013.gif"/>
<P>An end-of-quarter loss severity ratio is LGD divided by total domestic deposits at quarter-end and the loss severity measure for the scorecard is an average of end-of-period loss severity ratios for three most recent quarters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10724, Feb. 25, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 11401, Feb. 25, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.1.23.17.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Subpart A of Part 327—Mitigating the Deposit Insurance Assessment Effect of Participation in the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility, the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, and the Paycheck Protection Program
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Mitigating the Assessment Effects of Paycheck Protection Program Loans for Established Small Institutions
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E.1—Exclusions From Certain Risk Measures Used To Calculate the Assessment Rate for Established Small Institutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Variables
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exclusions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 capital divided by adjusted average assets. (Numerator and denominator are both based on the definition for prompt corrective action.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net Income before Taxes/Total Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Income (before applicable income taxes and discontinued operations) for the most recent twelve months divided by total assets 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from total assets the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonperforming Loans and Leases/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of total loans and lease financing receivables past due 90 or more days and still accruing interest and total nonaccrual loans and lease financing receivables (excluding, in both cases, the maximum amount recoverable from the U.S. Government, its agencies or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions) divided by gross assets 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from gross assets the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Real Estate Owned/Gross Assets (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other real estate owned divided by gross assets 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from gross assets the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered Deposit Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The ratio of the difference between brokered deposits and 10 percent of total assets to total assets. For institutions that are well capitalized and have a CAMELS composite rating of 1 or 2, brokered reciprocal deposits as defined in § 327.8(q) are deducted from brokered deposits. If the ratio is less than zero, the value is set to zero</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from total assets (in both numerator and denominator) the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Weighted Average of C, A, M, E, L, and S Component Ratings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The weighted sum of the “C,” “A,” “M,” “E“, “L“, and “S” CAMELS components, with weights of 25 percent each for the “C” and “M” components, 20 percent for the “A” component, and 10 percent each for the “E“, “L” and “S” components</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Mix Index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A measure of credit risk described paragraph (A) of this section</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclusions are described in paragraph (A) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One-Year Asset Growth (%)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Growth in assets (adjusted for mergers 
<sup>3</sup>) over the previous year in excess of 10 percent.
<sup>4</sup> If growth is less than 10 percent, the value is set to zero</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from total assets (in both numerator and denominator) the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The ratio of Net Income before Taxes to Total Assets is bounded below by (and cannot be less than) -25 percent and is bounded above by (and cannot exceed) 3 percent.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Gross assets are total assets plus the allowance for loan and lease financing receivable losses (ALLL) or allowance for credit losses, as applicable.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Growth in assets is also adjusted for acquisitions of failed banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The maximum value of the Asset Growth measure is 230 percent; that is, asset growth (merger adjusted) over the previous year in excess of 240 percent (230 percentage points in excess of the 10 percent threshold) will not further increase a bank's assessment rate.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of Loan Mix Index.</I> The Loan Mix Index assigns loans in an institution's loan portfolio to the categories of loans described in the following table. Exclude from the balance of commercial and industrial loans the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program. In the event that the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program exceeds the balance of commercial and industrial loans, exclude the remaining balance from the balance of agricultural loans, up to the total amount of agricultural loans. The Loan Mix Index is calculated by multiplying the ratio of an institution's amount of loans in a particular loan category to its total assets, excluding the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program by the associated weighted average charge-off rate for that loan category, and summing the products for all loan categories. The table gives the weighted average charge-off rate for each category of loan. The Loan Mix Index excludes credit card loans.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Loan Mix Index Categories and Weighted Charge-Off Rate Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weighted charge-off
<br/>rate percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction &amp; Development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.4965840
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial &amp; Industrial</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5984506
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leases</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4974551
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4559717
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Real Estate Loans Residual</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0169338
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multifamily Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8847597
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonfarm Nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7286274
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6973778
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loans to Depository banks</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5760532
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Real Estate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2376712
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agriculture</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2432737</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Mitigating the Assessment Effects of Paycheck Protection Program Loans for Large or Highly Complex Institutions
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E.2—Exclusions From Certain Risk Measures Used To Calculate the Assessment Rate for Large or Highly Complex Institutions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Scorecard
<br/>measures 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exclusions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Leverage Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 capital for Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) divided by adjusted average assets based on the definition for prompt corrective action</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure for Large Insured depository institutions (excluding Highly Complex Institutions)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The concentration score for large institutions is the higher of the following two scores:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Higher-Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of construction and land development (C&amp;D) loans (funded and unfunded), higher-risk commercial and industrial (C&amp;I) loans (funded and unfunded), nontraditional mortgages, higher-risk consumer loans, and higher-risk securitizations divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. See Appendix C for the detailed description of the ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentrations</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The measure is calculated in the following steps:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Concentration levels (as a ratio to Tier 1 capital and reserves) are calculated for each broad portfolio category:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Constructions and land development (C&amp;D),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Other commercial real estate loans,
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• First lien residential mortgages (including non-agency residential mortgage-backed securities),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Closed-end junior liens and home equity lines of credit (HELOCs),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Commercial and industrial loans (C&amp;I),
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Credit card loans, and
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Other consumer loans.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Risk weights are assigned to each loan category based on historical loss rates.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Concentration levels are multiplied by risk weights and squared to produce a risk-adjusted concentration ratio for each portfolio.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Three-year merger-adjusted portfolio growth rates are then scaled to a growth factor of 1 to 1.2 where a 3-year cumulative growth rate of 20 percent or less equals a factor of 1 and a growth rate of 80 percent or greater equals a factor of 1.2. If three years of data are not available, a growth factor of 1 will be assigned</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from C&amp;I loan growth rate the outstanding amount of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The risk-adjusted concentration ratio for each portfolio is multiplied by the growth factor and resulting values are summed
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Appendix C for the detailed description of the measure
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concentration Measure for Highly Complex Institutions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Concentration score for highly complex institutions is the highest of the following three scores:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Higher-Risk Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of C&amp;D loans (funded and unfunded), higher-risk C&amp;I loans (funded and unfunded), nontraditional mortgages, higher-risk consumer loans, and higher-risk securitizations divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. See Appendix C for the detailed description of the measure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Top 20 Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of the 20 largest total exposure amounts to counterparties divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. The total exposure amount is equal to the sum of the institution's exposure amounts to one counterparty (or borrower) for derivatives, securities financing transactions (SFTs), and cleared transactions, and its gross lending exposure (including all unfunded commitments) to that counterparty (or borrower). A counterparty includes an entity's own affiliates. Exposures to entities that are affiliates of each other are treated as exposures to one counterparty (or borrower). Counterparty exposure excludes all counterparty exposure to the U.S. Government and departments or agencies of the U.S. Government that is unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States. The exposure amount for derivatives, including OTC derivatives, cleared transactions that are derivative contracts, and netting sets of derivative contracts, must be calculated using the methodology set forth in 12 CFR 324.34(b), but without any reduction for collateral other than cash collateral that is all or part of variation margin and that satisfies the requirements of 12 CFR 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(1)(ii) and (iii) and 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(3) through (7). The exposure amount associated with SFTs, including cleared transactions that are SFTs, must be calculated using the standardized approach set forth in 12 CFR 324.37(b) or (c). For both derivatives and SFT exposures, the exposure amount to central counterparties must also include the default fund contribution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Largest Counterparty Exposure/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The largest total exposure amount to one counterparty divided by Tier 1 capital and reserves. The total exposure amount is equal to the sum of the institution's exposure amounts to one counterparty (or borrower) for derivatives, SFTs, and cleared transactions, and its gross lending exposure (including all unfunded commitments) to that counterparty (or borrower). A counterparty includes an entity's own affiliates. Exposures to entities that are affiliates of each other are treated as exposures to one counterparty (or borrower). Counterparty exposure excludes all counterparty exposure to the U.S. Government and departments or agencies of the U.S. Government that is unconditionally guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States. The exposure amount for derivatives, including OTC derivatives, cleared transactions that are derivative contracts, and netting sets of derivative contracts, must be calculated using the methodology set forth in 12 CFR 324.34(b), but without any reduction for collateral other than cash collateral that is all or part of variation margin and that satisfies the requirements of 12 CFR 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(1)(ii) and (iii) and 324.10(c)(4)(ii)(C)(3) through (7). The exposure amount associated with SFTs, including cleared transactions that are SFTs, must be calculated using the standardized approach set forth in 12 CFR 324.37(b) or (c). For both derivatives and SFT exposures, the exposure amount to central counterparties must also include the default fund contribution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Earnings/Average Quarter-End Total Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Core earnings are defined as net income less extraordinary items and tax-adjusted realized gains and losses on available-for-sale (AFS) and held-to-maturity (HTM) securities, adjusted for mergers. The ratio takes a four-quarter sum of merger-adjusted core earnings and divides it by an average of five quarter-end total assets (most recent and four prior quarters). If four quarters of data on core earnings are not available, data for quarters that are available will be added and annualized. If five quarters of data on total assets are not available, data for quarters that are available will be averaged</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prior to averaging, exclude from total assets for the applicable quarter-end periods the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Quality Measure. 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The credit quality score is the higher of the following two scores:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Criticized and Classified Items/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of criticized and classified items divided by the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves. Criticized and classified items include items an institution or its primary federal regulator have graded “Special Mention” or worse and include retail items under Uniform Retail Classification Guidelines, securities, funded and unfunded loans, other real estate owned (ORE), other assets, and marked-to-market counterparty positions, less credit valuation adjustments. Criticized and classified items exclude loans and securities in trading books, and the amount recoverable from the U.S. government, its agencies, or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Underperforming Assets/Tier 1 Capital and Reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of loans that are 30 days or more past due and still accruing interest, nonaccrual loans, restructured loans (including restructured 1-4 family loans), and ORE, excluding the maximum amount recoverable from the U.S. government, its agencies, or government-sponsored enterprises, under guarantee or insurance provisions, divided by a sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Core Deposits/Total Liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total domestic deposits excluding brokered deposits and uninsured non-brokered time deposits divided by total liabilities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from total liabilities outstanding borrowings from Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility with a maturity of one year or less and outstanding borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility with a maturity of greater than one year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Balance Sheet Liquidity Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sum of cash and balances due from depository institutions, federal funds sold and securities purchased under agreements to resell, and the market value of available for sale and held to maturity agency securities (excludes agency mortgage-backed securities but includes all other agency securities issued by the U.S. Treasury, U.S. government agencies, and U.S. government sponsored enterprises) divided by the sum of federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements, other borrowings (including FHLB) with a remaining maturity of one year or less, 5 percent of insured domestic deposits, and 10 percent of uninsured domestic and foreign deposits</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Include in highly liquid assets the outstanding balance of PPP loans that exceed borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the PPPLF, until September 30, 2020, or if extended by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Secretary of the Treasury, until such date of extension.
<br/>Exclude from other borrowings with a remaining maturity of one year or less the balance of outstanding borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility with a remaining maturity of one year or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Potential Losses/Total Domestic Deposits (Loss Severity Measure)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Potential losses to the DIF in the event of failure divided by total domestic deposits. Paragraph (a) of this section describes the calculation of the loss severity measure in detail</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclusions are described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Market Risk Measure for Highly Complex Institutions 
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The market risk score is a weighted average of the following three scores:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Trading Revenue Volatility/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trailing 4-quarter standard deviation of quarterly trading revenue (merger-adjusted) divided by Tier 1 capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Market Risk Capital/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market risk capital divided by Tier 1 capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(3) Level 3 Trading Assets/Tier 1 Capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Level 3 trading assets divided by Tier 1 capital</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Exclusion.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average Short-term Funding/Average Total Assets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Quarterly average of federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements divided by the quarterly average of total assets as reported on Schedule RC-K of the Call Reports</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from the quarterly average of total assets the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The applicable portions of the current expected credit loss methodology (CECL) transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes pursuant to the regulatory capital regulations, as they may be amended from time to time (12 CFR part 3, 12 CFR part 217, 12 CFR part 324, 85 FR 61577 (Sept. 30, 2020), and 84 FR 4222 (Feb. 14, 2019)), will be removed from the sum of Tier 1 capital and reserves throughout the large bank and highly complex bank scorecards, including in the ratio of Higher-Risk Assets to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, the Growth-Adjusted Portfolio Concentrations Measure, the ratio of Top 20 Counterparty Exposure to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, the Ratio of Largest Counterparty Exposure to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, the ratio of Criticized and Classified Items to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves, and the ratio of Underperforming Assets to Tier 1 Capital and Reserves. All of these ratios are described in appendix A of this subpart.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The credit quality score is the greater of the criticized and classified items to Tier 1 capital and reserves score or the underperforming assets to Tier 1 capital and reserves score. The market risk score is the weighted average of three scores—the trading revenue volatility to Tier 1 capital score, the market risk capital to Tier 1 capital score, and the level 3 trading assets to Tier 1 capital score. All of these ratios are described in appendix A of this subpart and the method of calculating the scores is described in appendix B of this subpart. Each score is multiplied by its respective weight, and the resulting weighted score is summed to compute the score for the market risk measure. An overall weight of 35 percent is allocated between the scores for the credit quality measure and market risk measure. The allocation depends on the ratio of average trading assets to the sum of average securities, loans and trading assets (trading asset ratio) as follows: (1) Weight for credit quality score = 35 percent * (1—trading asset ratio); and, (2) Weight for market risk score = 35 percent * trading asset ratio. In calculating the trading asset ratio, exclude from the balance of loans the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) <I>Description of the loss severity measure.</I> The loss severity measure applies a standardized set of assumptions to an institution's balance sheet to measure possible losses to the FDIC in the event of an institution's failure. To determine an institution's loss severity rate, the FDIC first applies assumptions about uninsured deposit and other liability runoff, and growth in insured deposits, to adjust the size and composition of the institution's liabilities. Exclude total outstanding borrowings from Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility from short-and long-term secured borrowings, as appropriate. Assets are then reduced to match any reduction in liabilities. Exclude from an institution's balance of commercial and industrial loans the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program. In the event that the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program exceeds the balance of commercial and industrial loans, exclude any remaining balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program first from the balance of all other loans, up to the total amount of all other loans, followed by the balance of agricultural loans, up to the total amount of agricultural loans. Increase cash balances by outstanding loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program that exceed total outstanding borrowings from Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility, if any. The institution's asset values are then further reduced so that the Leverage Ratio reaches 2 percent. In both cases, assets are adjusted pro rata to preserve the institution's asset composition. Assumptions regarding loss rates at failure for a given asset category and the extent of secured liabilities are then applied to estimated assets and liabilities at failure to determine whether the institution has enough unencumbered assets to cover domestic deposits. Any projected shortfall is divided by current domestic deposits to obtain an end-of-period loss severity ratio. The loss severity measure is an average loss severity ratio for the three most recent quarters of data available. The applicable portions of the current expected credit loss methodology (CECL) transitional amounts attributable to the allowance for credit losses on loans and leases held for investment and added to retained earnings for regulatory capital purposes pursuant to the regulatory capital regulations, as they may be amended from time to time (12 CFR part 3, 12 CFR part 217, 12 CFR part 324, 85 FR 61577 (Sept. 30, 2020), and 84 FR 4222 (Feb. 14, 2019)), will be removed from the calculation of the loss severity measure.
</P>
<HD2>Runoff and Capital Adjustment Assumptions
</HD2>
<P>Table E.3 contains run-off assumptions.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E.3—Runoff Rate Assumptions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liability type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Runoff rate *
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Insured Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(10)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uninsured Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal Funds Purchased</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Repurchase Agreements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trading Liabilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured Borrowings &lt; = 1 Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Secured Borrowings &lt; = 1 Year, excluding outstanding borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the PPPLF &lt; = 1 Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subordinated Debt and Limited Liability Preferred Stock</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* A negative rate implies growth.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Given the resulting total liabilities after runoff, assets are then reduced pro rata to preserve the relative amount of assets in each of the following asset categories and to achieve a Leverage Ratio of 2 percent:
</P>
<P>• Cash and Interest Bearing Balances, including outstanding loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program in excess of borrowings from Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility;
</P>
<P>• Trading Account Assets;
</P>
<P>• Federal Funds Sold and Repurchase Agreements;
</P>
<P>• Treasury and Agency Securities;
</P>
<P>• Municipal Securities;
</P>
<P>• Other Securities;
</P>
<P>• Construction and Development Loans
</P>
<P>• Nonresidential Real Estate Loans;
</P>
<P>• Multifamily Real Estate Loans;
</P>
<P>• 1—4 Family Closed-End First Liens;
</P>
<P>• 1—4 Family Closed-End Junior Liens;
</P>
<P>• Revolving Home Equity Loans; and
</P>
<P>• Agricultural Real Estate Loans
</P>
<HD2>Recovery Value of Assets at Failure
</HD2>
<P>Table E.4—shows loss rates applied to each of the asset categories as adjusted above.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E.4—Asset Loss Rate Assumptions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loss rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash and Interest Bearing Balances, including outstanding loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program in excess of borrowings from Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trading Account Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal Funds Sold and Repurchase Agreements</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Treasury and Agency Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Municipal Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction and Development Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">38.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonresidential Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multifamily Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Closed-End First Liens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1-4 Family Closed-End Junior Liens</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Revolving Home Equity Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">41.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Real Estate Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Agricultural Loans, excluding outstanding loans under the Paycheck Protection Program, as described in § 327.17 and this appendix</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial and Industrial Loans, excluding outstanding loans under the Paycheck Protection Program, described in § 327.17 and this appendix</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit Card Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Consumer Loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All Other Loans, excluding outstanding loans under the Paycheck Protection Program, described in § 327.17 and this appendix</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">51.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Assets</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>Secured Liabilities at Failure
</HD2>
<P>Federal Home Loan Bank advances, secured federal funds purchased and repurchase agreements are assumed to be fully secured. Foreign deposits are treated as fully secured because of the potential for ring fencing.
</P>
<P>Exclude total outstanding borrowings from the Federal Reserve Banks under the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility.
</P>
<HD2>Loss Severity Ratio Calculation
</HD2>
<P>The FDIC's loss given failure (LGD) is calculated as:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er26jn20.300.gif"/>
<P>An end-of-quarter loss severity ratio is LGD divided by total domestic deposits at quarter-end and the loss severity measure for the scorecard is an average of end-of-period loss severity ratios for three most recent quarters.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>III. Mitigating the Effects of Loans Provided Under the Paycheck Protection Program and Assets Purchased Under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility on the Unsecured Adjustment, Depository Institution Debt Adjustment, and the Brokered Deposit Adjustment to an IDI's Assessment Rate
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table E.5—Exclusions From Adjustments to the Initial Base Assessment Rate
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjustment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Calculation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Exclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unsecured debt adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The unsecured debt adjustment shall be determined as the sum of the initial base assessment rate plus 40 basis points; that sum shall be multiplied by the ratio of an insured depository institution's long-term unsecured debt to its assessment base. The amount of the reduction in the assessment rate due to the adjustment is equal to the dollar amount of the adjustment divided by the amount of the assessment base</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from the assessment base the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Depository institution debt adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">An insured depository institution shall pay a 50 basis point adjustment on the amount of unsecured debt it holds that was issued by another insured depository institution to the extent that such debt exceeds 3 percent of the institution's Tier 1 capital. This amount is divided by the institution's assessment base. The amount of long-term unsecured debt issued by another insured depository institution shall be calculated using the same valuation methodology used to calculate the amount of such debt for reporting on the asset side of the balance sheets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from the assessment base the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Brokered deposit adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The brokered deposit adjustment shall be determined by multiplying 25 basis points by the ratio of the difference between an insured depository institution's brokered deposits and 10 percent of its domestic deposits to its assessment base</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Exclude from the assessment base the outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and the quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>IV. Mitigating the Effects on the Assessment Base Attributable to Loans Provided Under the Paycheck Protection Program and Participation in the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility
</HD1>
<P>Total Assessment Amount Due = Total Assessment Amount LESS: (SUM (Outstanding balance of loans provided under the Paycheck Protection Program and quarterly average amount of assets purchased under the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility) * Total Base Assessment Rate)
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 38294, June 26, 2020, as amended at 85 FR 71228, Nov. 9, 2020; 86 FR 11401, Feb. 25, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Implementation of One-Time Assessment Credit</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817(e)(3).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 61383, Oct. 18, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 327.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.30   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart B of part 327 implements the one-time assessment credit required by section 7(e)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1817(e)(3) and applies to insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart B of part 327 sets forth the rules for:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the aggregate amount of the one-time credit;
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of eligible insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(3) Determination of the amount of each eligible institution's December 31, 1996 assessment base ratio and one-time credit;
</P>
<P>(4) Transferability of credit amounts among insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(5) Application of such credit amounts against assessments; and
</P>
<P>(6) An institution's request for review of the FDIC's determination of a credit amount.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.31" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart and subpart C:
</P>
<P>(a) The <I>average assessment rate</I> for any assessment period means the aggregate assessment charged all insured depository institutions for that period divided by the aggregate assessment base for that period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Directors of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>De facto rule</I> means any transaction in which an insured depository institution assumes substantially all of the deposit liabilities and acquires substantially all of the assets of any other insured depository institution at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) An <I>eligible insured depository institution:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means an insured depository institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Was in existence on December 31, 1996, and paid a deposit insurance assessment before December 31, 1996; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a successor to an insured depository institution referred to in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) does not include an institution if its insured status has terminated as of or after the effective date of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Merger</I> means any transaction in which an insured depository institution merges or consolidates with any other insured depository institution. Notwithstanding part 303, subpart D, for purposes of this subpart B and subpart C of this part, <I>merger</I> does not include transactions in which an insured depository institution either directly or indirectly acquires the assets of, or assumes liability to pay any deposits made in, any other insured depository institution, but there is not a legal merger or consolidation of the two insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Resulting institution</I> refers to the acquiring, assuming, or resulting institution in a merger.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Successor</I> means a resulting institution or an insured depository institution that acquired part of another insured depository institution's 1996 assessment base ratio under paragraph 327.33(c) of this subpart under the <I>de facto</I> rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.32" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.32   Determination of aggregate credit amount.</HEAD>
<P>The aggregate amount of the one-time credit shall equal $4,707,580,238.19.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.33" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.33   Determination of eligible institution's credit amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, allocation of the one-time credit shall be based on each eligible insured depository institution's 1996 assessment base ratio.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, an eligible insured depository institution's 1996 assessment base ratio shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) Its assessment base as of December 31, 1996 (adjusted as appropriate to reflect the assessment base of December 31, 1996, of all institutions for which it is the successor), as the numerator; and
</P>
<P>(2) The combined aggregate assessment bases of all eligible insured depository institutions, including any successor institutions, as of December 31, 1996, as the denominator.
</P>
<P>(c) If an insured depository institution is a successor to an eligible insured depository institution under the <I>de facto</I> rule, as defined in paragraph 327.31(c) of this subpart, the successor and the eligible insured depository institution will divide the eligible insured depository institution's 1996 assessment base ratio pro rata, based on the deposit liabilities assumed in the transaction. In any subsequent transaction involving an insured depository institution that previously engaged in a transaction to which the <I>de facto</I> rule applied, the insured depository institution may not be deemed to have transferred more than its remaining 1996 assessment base ratio. If the transferring institution is no longer an insured depository institution after the transfer, the last successor will acquire the transferring institution's remaining 1996 assessment base ratio.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.34" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.34   Transferability of credits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any remaining amount of the one-time assessment credit and the associated 1996 assessment base ratio shall transfer to a successor of an eligible insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the final determination of its 1996 assessment base and one-time assessment credit amount by the FDIC, an eligible insured depository institution may enter into an agreement to transfer any portion of such institution's one-time credit amount and 1996 assessment base ratio to another insured depository institution. The parties to the agreement shall notify the FDIC's Division of Finance and submit a written agreement, signed by legal representatives of both institutions. The parties must include documentation stating that each representative has the legal authority to bind the institution. The adjustment to credit amount and the associated 1996 assessment base ratio shall be made in the next assessment invoice that is sent at least 10 days after the FDIC's receipt of the written agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) An eligible insured depository institution may enter into an agreement after the final determination of its 1996 assessment base ratio and one-time credit amount by the FDIC to transfer any portion of such institution's one-time credit amount to another insured depository institution. The parties to the agreement shall notify the FDIC's Division of Finance and submit a written agreement, signed by legal representatives of both institutions. The parties must include documentation stating that each representative has the legal authority to bind the institution. The adjustment to the credit amount shall be made in the next assessment invoice that is sent at least 10 days after the FDIC's receipt of the written agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.35" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.35   Application of credits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, the amount of an eligible insured depository institution's one-time credit shall be applied to the maximum extent allowable by law against that institution's quarterly assessment payment under subpart A of this part, after applying assessment credits awarded under § 327.11(c), until the institution's credit is exhausted.
</P>
<P>(b) The following limitations shall apply to the application of the credit against assessment payments.
</P>
<P>(1) For assessments that become due for assessment periods beginning in calendar years 2008, 2009, and 2010, the credit may not be applied to more than 90 percent of the quarterly assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) For an insured depository institution that exhibits financial, operational, or compliance weaknesses ranging from moderately severe to unsatisfactory, or is not at least adequately capitalized (as defined pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) at the beginning of an assessment period, the amount of the credit that may be applied against the institution's quarterly assessment for that period shall not exceed the amount that the institution would have been assessed if it had been assessed at the average assessment rate for all insured institutions for that period. The FDIC shall determine the average assessment rate for an assessment period based upon its best estimate of the average rate for the period. The estimate shall be made using the best information available, but shall be made no earlier than 30 days and no later than 20 days prior to the payment due date for the period.
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC has established a restoration plan pursuant to section 7(b)(3)(E) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the FDIC may elect to restrict the application of credit amounts, in any assessment period, up to the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of an insured depository institution's assessment for that period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount equal to 3 basis points of the institution's assessment base.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remittance of credits.</I> Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, in the same assessment period that the FDIC remits the full nominal value of small bank assessment credits pursuant to § 327.11(c)(13), the FDIC shall remit the full nominal value of an institution's remaining one-time assessment credits provided under this subpart B in a single lump-sum payment to such institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 61383, Oct. 18, 2006, as amended at 81 FR 16073, Mar. 25, 2016; 84 FR 65276, Nov. 27, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 327.36" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.2.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.36   Requests for review of credit amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) As soon as practicable after the publication date of this rule, the FDIC shall notify each insured depository institution by FDIC<I>connect</I> or mail of its 1996 assessment base ratio and credit amount in a Statement of One-Time Credit (“Statement”), if any. An insured depository institution may submit a request for review of the FDIC's determination of the institution's 1996 assessment base ratio or credit amount as shown on the Statement within 30 days after the effective date of this rule. Such review may be requested if:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution disagrees with a determination as to eligibility for the credit that relates to that institution's credit amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution disagrees with the calculation of the credit as stated on the Statement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The institution believes that the 1996 assessment base ratio attributed to the institution on the Statement does not fully or accurately reflect its own 1996 assessment base or appropriate adjustments for successors.
</P>
<P>(2) If an institution does not submit a timely request for review, that institution is barred from subsequently requesting review of its credit amount, subject to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An insured depository institution may submit a request for review of the FDIC's adjustment to the credit amount in a quarterly invoice within 30 days of the date on which the FDIC provides the invoice. Such review may be requested if:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution disagrees with the calculation of the credit as stated on the invoice; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution believes that the 1996 assessment base ratio attributed to the institution due to the adjustment to the invoice does not fully or accurately reflect appropriate adjustments for successors since the last quarterly invoice.
</P>
<P>(2) If an institution does not submit a timely request for review, that institution is barred from subsequently requesting review of its credit amount, subject to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The request for review shall be submitted to the Division of Finance and shall provide documentation sufficient to support the change sought by the institution. At the time of filing with the FDIC, the requesting institution shall notify, to the extent practicable, any other insured depository institution that would be directly and materially affected by granting the request for review and provide such institution with copies of the request for review, the supporting documentation, and the FDIC's procedures for requests under this subpart. In addition, the FDIC also shall make reasonable efforts, based on its official systems of records, to determine that such institutions have been identified and notified.
</P>
<P>(d) During the FDIC's consideration of the request for review, the amount of credit in dispute shall not be available for use by any institution.
</P>
<P>(e) Within 30 days of being notified of the filing of the request for review, those institutions identified as potentially affected by the request for review may submit a response to such request, along with any supporting documentation, to the Division of Finance, and shall provide copies to the requesting institution. If an institution that was notified under paragraph (c) does not submit a response to the request for review, that institution may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Subsequently dispute the information submitted by other institutions on the transaction(s) at issue in the review process; or
</P>
<P>(2) Appeal the decision by the Director of the Division of Finance.
</P>
<P>(f) If additional information is requested of the requesting or affected institutions by the FDIC, such information shall be provided by the institution within 21 days of the date of the FDIC's request for additional information.
</P>
<P>(g) Any institution submitting a timely request for review will receive a written response from the FDIC's Director of the Division of Finance, (or his or her designee), notifying the requesting and affected institutions of the determination of the Director as to whether the requested change is warranted. Notice of the procedures applicable to appeals under paragraph (h) of this section will be included with the Director's written determination. Whenever feasible, the FDIC will provide the institution with the aforesaid written response the later of:
</P>
<P>(1) Within 60 days of receipt by the FDIC of the request for revision;
</P>
<P>(2) If additional institutions have been notified by the requesting institution or the FDIC, within 60 days of the date of the last response to the notification; or
</P>
<P>(3) If additional information has been requested by the FDIC, within 60 days of receipt of the additional information.
</P>
<P>(h) Subject to paragraph (e) of this section, the insured depository institution that requested review under this section, or an insured depository institution materially affected by the Director's determination, that disagrees with that determination may appeal to the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee on the same grounds as set forth under paragraph (a) of this section. Any such appeal must be submitted within 30 calendar days from the date of the Director's written determination. Notice of the procedures applicable to appeals under this section will be included with the Director's written determination. The decision of the Assessment Appeals Committee shall be the final determination of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(i) Any adjustment to an institution's credits resulting from a determination by the Director of the FDIC's Assessment Appeals Committee shall be reflected in the institution's next assessment invoice. The adjustment to credits shall affect future assessments only and shall not result in a retroactive adjustment of assessment amounts owed for prior periods.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Implementation of Dividend Requirements</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817(e)(2), (4).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 73162, Dec. 2, 2008, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 327.50" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.18.3.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 327.50   Dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension of dividends.</I> The Board will suspend dividends indefinitely whenever the DIF reserve ratio exceeds 1.50 percent at the end of any year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment rate schedule if DIF reserve ratio exceeds 1.50 Percent.</I> In lieu of dividends, when the DIF reserve ratio exceeds 1.50 percent, assessment rates shall be determined as set forth in section 327.10, as appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 10725, Feb. 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="328" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 328—FDIC OFFICIAL SIGNS, ADVERTISEMENT OF MEMBERSHIP, FALSE ADVERTISING, MISREPRESENTATION OF INSURED STATUS, AND MISUSE OF THE FDIC'S NAME OR LOGO


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819 (Tenth), 1820(c), 1828(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 66102, Nov. 13, 2006, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—FDIC Official Signs and Advertisement of Membership</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 3528, Jan. 18, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 328.0" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.0   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart A of this part describes the official signs and advertising statement and prescribes their use by insured depository institutions, as well as other signs to prevent customer confusion in the event non-deposit products are offered by an insured depository institution. Subpart A applies to insured depository institutions, including insured branches of foreign banks, but does not apply to non-insured offices or branches of insured depository institutions located in foreign countries.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Branch</I> has the same meaning as the term “domestic branch” as set forth under section 3(<I>o</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>o</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit</I> has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Digital deposit-taking channel</I> means websites, banking applications, and any other electronic communications method through which an insured depository institution accepts deposits. <I>Hybrid product</I> means a product or service that has both deposit product features and non-deposit product features. A sweep account is an example of a hybrid product.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Non-deposit product</I> means any product that is not a “deposit”, including, but not limited to: insurance products, annuities, mutual funds, securities and crypto-assets. For purposes of this definition, credit products and safe deposit boxes are not non-deposit products.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.2   Official sign.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Design.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the official sign referred to in this part shall be 7” by 3” in size, with black lettering and gold background, and has the following design:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18ja24.001.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Symbol.</I> The “symbol” of the Corporation, as used in this subpart, shall be that portion of the official sign consisting of “FDIC” and the two lines of smaller type above and below “FDIC.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procuring signage.</I> An insured depository institution may procure the official sign from the Corporation for official use at no charge. Information on obtaining the official sign is posted on the FDIC's internet website, <I>https://www.fdic.gov.</I> Alternatively, insured depository institutions may, at their expense, procure from commercial suppliers, signs that vary from the official sign in size, color, or material. Any insured depository institution which has promptly submitted a written request for an official sign to the Corporation shall not be deemed to have violated this subpart by failing to display the official sign, unless the insured depository institution fails to display the official sign after receipt thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required changes in signage.</I> The Corporation may require any insured depository institution, upon at least thirty (30) days' written notice, to change the wording or color of the official sign in a manner deemed necessary for the protection of depositors or others.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.3   Signs within institution premises and offering of non-deposit products within institution premises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section governs signage within the premises of insured depository institutions and the offering of non-deposit products within the premises of insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Display of official sign.</I> Each insured depository institution must continuously, clearly, and conspicuously display the official sign at each place of business where consumers have access to or transact with deposits, including all of its branches (except branches excluded from the scope of this subpart under § 328.0) and other premises in which customers have access to or transact with deposits, in the manner described in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Deposits received at teller windows or stations.</I> If insured deposits are usually and normally received at teller windows or stations, the insured depository institution must display the official sign:
</P>
<P>(i) At each teller window or station where insured deposits are usually and normally received, in a size of 7″ by 3″ or larger with black lettering on a gold background as described in § 328.2(a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the insured depository institution does not offer non-deposit products on the premises, at one or more locations visible from the teller windows or stations in a manner that ensures a copy of the official sign is large enough so as to be legible from anywhere in that area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposits received in areas other than teller windows or stations.</I> If insured deposits are usually and normally received in areas of the premises other than teller windows or stations, the insured depository institution must display the official sign in one or more locations in a manner that ensures a copy of the official sign is large enough so as to be legible from anywhere in those areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other locations within the premises.</I> An insured depository institution may display the official sign in locations at the institution other than those required by this section, except for areas where non-deposit products are offered.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Varied signs.</I> An insured depository institution may display signs that vary from the official sign in size, color, or material at any location where display of the official sign is required or permitted under this paragraph. However, any such varied sign that is displayed in locations where display of the official sign is required must not be smaller in size than the official sign, must have the same color for the text and graphics, and includes the same content.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Newly insured institutions.</I> An insured depository institution shall display the official sign as described in this section no later than its twenty-first calendar day of operation as an insured depository institution, unless the institution promptly requested the official sign from the Corporation but did not receive it before that date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-deposit products offered on insured depository institution premises</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Segregated areas.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, if non-deposit products are offered within the premises, those products must be physically segregated from areas where insured deposits are usually and normally accepted. The institution must identify areas where activities related to the sale of non-deposit products occur and clearly delineate and distinguish those areas from the areas where insured deposit-taking activities occur.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-deposit signage.</I> At each location within the premises where non-deposit products are offered, an insured depository institution must continuously, clearly, and conspicuously display signage indicating that the non-deposit products: are not insured by the FDIC; are not deposits; and may lose value. Such signage may not be displayed in close proximity to the official sign.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Physical area limitations.</I> In limited situations where physical considerations present challenges to offering non-deposit products in a distinct area, an institution must take prudent and reasonable steps to minimize customer confusion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic media.</I> Insured depository institutions may use electronic media to display the official sign and non-deposit sign required by this section.










</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.4   Signs for automated teller machines (ATMs) and like devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section governs signage for insured depository institutions' ATMs and other remote electronic facilities (referred to as “like devices”) that receive deposits. For purpose of this section, ATMs and like devices are not digital deposit-taking channels.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Display of FDIC official digital sign.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, an insured depository institution must clearly, continuously, and conspicuously display the FDIC official digital sign specified in § 328.5(b) on the initial screen of the insured depository institution's ATMs and like devices. For purposes of this paragraph (b), a screen saver or an advertisement for products, services, or events on the screen of an idle ATM is not considered the “initial screen.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limited exception for certain ATMs to display physical official sign.</I> The physical official sign as described in § 328.2 may be displayed in lieu of the FDIC official digital sign as described in § 328.5(b), for:
</P>
<P>(1) ATMs and like devices placed into service after April 1, 2027, that do not permit an insured depository institution's customer to transact with a non-deposit product; and
</P>
<P>(2) ATMs and like devices placed into service on or before April 1, 2027.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-deposit signage.</I> An insured depository institution's ATM and like device that both receive deposits and permit the insured depository institution's customer to transact with one or more non-deposit products must clearly, continuously, and conspicuously display signage indicating that the non-deposit products: are not insured by the FDIC; are not deposits; and may lose value. This signage must be displayed on the first page or screen displayed upon initiating a transaction with a non-deposit product.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional disclosures permitted.</I> This section does not limit an insured depository institution's ability to include additional disclosures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 3812, Jan. 29, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.5   Signs for digital deposit-taking channels.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section governs signage for digital deposit-taking channels, including insured depository institutions' websites and web-based or mobile applications, that offer the ability to make deposits electronically and provide access to deposits at insured depository institutions. This section does not apply to ATMs and like devices as described in § 328.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Design.</I> In general, the “FDIC” in the FDIC official digital sign shall be displayed in bold, navy blue or black, and the “<I>FDIC-Insured—Backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government”</I> shall be displayed in smaller type, in italic, and with navy blue or black lettering. The entire FDIC official digital sign shall be displayed in Source Sans Pro Web or similar font. For an FDIC official digital sign that would be illegible if displayed in the colors listed in this paragraph (b), due to the color of the background, the FDIC official digital sign shall be displayed in white to contrast with the background, and must otherwise comply with the other format requirements listed in this paragraph (b). The official digital sign required by the provisions of this section shall have the following design, for which wrapping may be permitted to address space constraints:
</P>
<HD1>Figure 1 to Paragraph (b)
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er29ja26.011.gif"/>
<P>(c) <I>Display of FDIC official digital sign.</I> An insured depository institution's digital deposit-taking channel must clearly, continuously, and conspicuously display the FDIC official digital sign specified in paragraph (b) of this section on the following pages or screens:
</P>
<P>(1) Initial page or homepage of the website or application;
</P>
<P>(2) Login page; and
</P>
<P>(3) Page or screen where the consumer first initiates a deposit account opening.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-deposit signage</I>—(1) <I>Display of non-deposit signage.</I> (i) An insured depository institution's digital deposit-taking channel that:
</P>
<P>(A) Offers the ability to make deposits electronically and provides access to deposits; and
</P>
<P>(B) Advertises or provides information about, or access to, one or more non-deposit products must clearly, continuously, and conspicuously display signage indicating that the non-deposit products: are not insured by the FDIC; are not deposits; and may lose value.
</P>
<P>(ii) This signage must be displayed on all pages or screens primarily dedicated to advertising or providing information about, or access to, one or more non-deposit products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>One-time notification for insured depository institution customers related to third-party non-deposit products</I>—(i) <I>Notification requirement.</I> An insured depository institution's digital deposit-taking channel that provides access to a non-deposit product from a non-bank third party's online interface must provide a one-time per session notification to an insured depository institution customer who is logged into the insured depository institution's digital deposit-taking channel before the customer leaves the insured depository institution's digital deposit-taking channel to access the non-bank third party's non-deposit product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content of notification.</I> The notification in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section must clearly and conspicuously indicate that the third party's non-deposit products: are not insured by the FDIC; are not deposits; and may lose value.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Dismissal of notification.</I> The notification requirement in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section is satisfied if the notification, either or both:
</P>
<P>(A) Is dismissed by an affirmative act of the bank customer, such as a click or swipe, after any period of time; or
</P>
<P>(B) Automatically disappears after being displayed for a minimum of three seconds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Examples of clear, continuous, and conspicuous placement.</I> Examples of the FDIC official digital sign and non-deposit signage placement that would satisfy the “clear, continuous, and conspicuous” standard include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The homepage of an insured depository institution's website that continuously displays the FDIC official digital sign near the top of the page and adjacent to the insured depository institution's name;
</P>
<P>(2) The login page for an insured depository institution's mobile application that displays the FDIC official digital sign immediately adjacent to the username and password fields;
</P>
<P>(3) The deposit account opening page for an insured depository institution's web-based application that displays the FDIC official digital sign near the top or center of the page; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to non-deposit signage, a page on an insured depository institution's website promoting, for example, annuities available for purchase, with non-deposit signage appearing towards the bottom of the page in a manner that distinguishes the text of the non-deposit signage from the smallest text on the page using, for example, bold or larger text, or surrounding the signage with a text box.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional disclosures permitted.</I> This section does not limit an insured depository institution's ability to include additional disclosures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 3812, Jan. 29, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.6   Official advertising statement requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advertisement defined.</I> The term “advertisement,” as used in this subpart, shall mean a commercial message, in any medium, that is designed to attract public attention or patronage to a product or business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official advertising statement.</I> The official advertising statement shall be in substance as follows: “Member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Optional short title and symbol.</I> The short title “Member of FDIC”, “Member FDIC”, “FDIC-Insured”, or a reproduction of the symbol of the Corporation (as described in § 328.2(b)), may be used by insured depository institutions at their option as the official advertising statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Size and print.</I> The official advertising statement shall be of such size and print to be clearly legible. If the symbol of the Corporation is used as the official advertising statement, and the symbol must be reduced to such proportions that the two lines of smaller type above and below “FDIC” are indistinct and illegible, those lines of smaller type may be blocked out or dropped.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of official advertising statement in advertisements</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, each insured depository institution shall include the official advertising statement prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section in all advertisements that either promote deposit products and services or promote non-specific banking products and services offered by the institution. For purposes of this section, an advertisement promotes non-specific banking products and services if it includes the name of the insured depository institution but does not list or describe particular products or services offered by the institution. An example of such an advertisement would be, “Anytown Bank, offering a full range of banking services.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign depository institutions.</I> When a foreign depository institution has both insured and noninsured U.S. branches, the depository institution must also identify which branches are insured and which branches are not insured in all of its advertisements requiring use of the official advertising statement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Newly insured institutions.</I> A depository institution shall include the official advertising statement in its advertisements no later than its twenty-first day of operation as an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Types of advertisements which do not require the official advertising statement.</I> The following types of advertisements do not require use of the official advertising statement:
</P>
<P>(1) Statements of condition and reports of condition of an insured depository institution which are required to be published by State or Federal law;
</P>
<P>(2) Insured depository institution supplies such as stationery (except when used for circular letters), envelopes, deposit slips, checks, drafts, signature cards, deposit passbooks, certificates of deposit, etc.;
</P>
<P>(3) Signs or plates in the insured depository institution offices or attached to the building or buildings in which such offices are located;
</P>
<P>(4) Listings in directories;
</P>
<P>(5) Advertisements not setting forth the name of the insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(6) Entries in a depository institution directory, provided the name of the insured depository institution is listed on any page in the directory with a symbol or other descriptive matter indicating it is a member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(7) Joint or group advertisements of depository institution services where the names of insured depository institutions and noninsured institutions are listed and form a part of such advertisements;
</P>
<P>(8) Advertisements by radio or television, other than display advertisements, which do not exceed thirty (30) seconds in time;
</P>
<P>(9) Advertisements which are of the type or character that make it impractical to include the official advertising statement, including, but not limited to, promotional items such as calendars, matchbooks, pens, pencils, and key chains; and
</P>
<P>(10) Advertisements which contain a statement to the effect that the depository institution is a member of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or that the depository institution is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or that its deposits or depositors are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation to at least the standard maximum deposit insurance amount (as defined in § 330.1(o)) for each depositor.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on using the official advertising statement when advertising non-deposit products</I>—(1) <I>Non-deposit product advertisements.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, an insured depository institution shall not include the official advertising statement, or any other statement or symbol which implies or suggests the existence of Federal deposit insurance, in any advertisement relating solely to non-deposit products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hybrid product advertisements.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, an insured depository institution shall not include the official advertising statement, or any other statement or symbol which implies or suggests the existence of Federal deposit insurance, in any advertisement relating solely to hybrid products.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mixed advertisements.</I> In advertisements containing information about both insured deposit products and non-deposit products or hybrid products, an insured depository institution shall clearly segregate the official advertising statement or any similar statement from that portion of the advertisement that relates to the non-deposit products.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Official advertising statement in non-English language.</I> The non-English equivalent of the official advertising statement may be used in any advertisement, provided that the translation has had the prior written approval of the Corporation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.7   Prohibition against receiving deposits at same teller station or window as noninsured institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> An insured depository institution may not receive deposits at any teller station or window where any noninsured institution receives deposits or similar liabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> This section does not apply to deposits received at an automated teller machine or other remote electronic facility that receives deposits for an insured depository institution, or to deposits facilitated through a digital deposit-taking channel.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.1.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.8   Policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies and Procedures.</I> An insured depository institution must establish and maintain written policies and procedures to achieve compliance with this part. Such policies and procedures must be commensurate with the nature, size, complexity, scope, and potential risk of the deposit-taking activities of the insured depository institution and must include, as appropriate, provisions related to monitoring and evaluating activities of persons that provide deposit-related services to the insured depository institution or offer the insured depository institution's deposit-related products or services to other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the FDIC's authority to address violations of this part, the FDIC's authority to interpret the rules in this part, or any other authority the FDIC has pursuant to any other laws or regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—False Advertising, Misrepresentation of Insured Status, and Misuse of the FDIC's Name or Logo</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 33420, June 2, 2022, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 328.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to any person who:
</P>
<P>(a) Falsely represents, expressly or by implication, that any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is FDIC-insured by using the FDIC's name or logo;
</P>
<P>(b) Knowingly misrepresents, expressly or by implication, that any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is insured by the FDIC if such an item is not so insured;
</P>
<P>(c) Knowingly misrepresents, expressly or by implication, the extent to which or the manner in which any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is insured by the FDIC, if such an item is not insured to the extent or manner represented; or
</P>
<P>(d) Aids or abets another in any of the foregoing listed in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message, in any medium, that is designed to attract public attention or patronage to a product, business, or service.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency</I> has the meaning set forth in section 3(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means any current or potential depositor, including natural persons, organizations, corporate entities, and governmental bodies.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit</I> has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(l) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(l).
</P>
<P><I>Digital symbol</I> means the portion of the FDIC official digital sign, as set forth in § 328.5(b), consisting of “FDIC” and the one line of smaller type to the right of “FDIC”.


</P>
<P><I>FDI Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
<P><I>FDIC-Associated Images</I> means the Seal of the FDIC, alone or within the letter C of the term FDIC; the Official Sign and Symbol of the FDIC, as set forth in § 328.2; the FDIC Official Digital Sign set forth in § 328.5; the Digital Symbol set forth in this § 328.101; the Official Advertising Statement, as set forth in § 328.6; any similar images; and any other signs and symbols that may represent or imply that any deposit, liability, obligation certificate, or share is insured or guaranteed in whole or in part by the FDIC.


</P>
<P><I>FDIC-Associated Terms</I> means the abbreviation “FDIC,” and the following words or phrases: “Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation,” “Federal Deposit,” “Federal Deposit Insurance,” “FDIC-insured,” “FDIC insurance,” “insured by FDIC,” “member FDIC;” any similar words or phrases; or any other terms that may represent or imply that any deposit, liability, obligation certificate, or share is insured or guaranteed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Banking Agency</I> has the meaning set forth in section 3(z) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(z).
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the FDIC or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Hybrid Product</I> has the same meaning as set forth under § 328.1.
</P>
<P><I>Institution-Affiliated Party (IAP</I>) has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(u) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(u).
</P>
<P><I>Insured Deposit</I> has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(m) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(m).
</P>
<P><I>Insured Depository Institution</I> has the same meaning as set forth under section 3(c)(2) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Non-Deposit Product</I> means any product that is not a “deposit”, including, but not limited to: insurance products, annuities, mutual funds, securities, and crypto-assets. For purposes of this definition, credit products and safe deposit box services are not Non-Deposit Products.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means a natural person, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency or other entity, association, or organization, including a “Regulated Institution” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated Institution</I> means any institution for which the FDIC, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System is the “appropriate Federal banking agency” under section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Third-Party Publisher</I> means any party that publishes, places, distributes, or circulates advertising or marketing materials, regardless of the platform or media used for distribution, containing FDIC-Associated Images, FDIC-Associated Terms, or other claims regarding FDIC insurance or guarantees. Third-Party Publishers include, but are not limited to: Publishers and distributors of written, visual, or print advertising; broadcasters of video or audio advertisements; telemarketers; internet or web-based distributors, including internet service providers, and email marketers; and direct mail marketers and distributors.
</P>
<P><I>Uninsured Financial Product</I> means any Non-Deposit Product, Hybrid-Product, investment, security, obligation, certificate, share, crypto-asset or financial product other than an “Insured Deposit” as defined in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33420, June 2, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 3531, Jan. 18, 2024; 91 FR 3813, Jan. 29, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.102" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.102   Prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of the FDIC name or logo.</I> (1) No person may represent or imply that any Uninsured Financial Product is insured or guaranteed by the FDIC by using FDIC-Associated Terms as part of any business name or firm name of any person.
</P>
<P>(2) No person may represent or imply that any Uninsured Financial Product is insured or guaranteed by the FDIC by using FDIC-Associated Terms or by using FDIC-Associated Images as part of an Advertisement, solicitation, or other publication or dissemination.
</P>
<P>(3) This section applies, but is not limited, to:
</P>
<P>(i) An Advertisement for any Uninsured Financial Product that features or includes one or more FDIC-Associated Terms or FDIC-Associated Images, without a clear, conspicuous, and prominent disclaimer that the products being offered are not FDIC insured or guaranteed.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Advertisement for any Uninsured Financial Product that may be backed or guaranteed by an entity other that the FDIC, but features or includes one or more FDIC-Associated Terms or FDIC-Associated Images, without a clear, conspicuous, prominent, and accurate explanation as to the actual nature and source of the guarantee.
</P>
<P>(iii) An Advertisement for any Non-Deposit Product or Hybrid Product by a Regulated Institution that includes any statement or symbol which implies or suggests the existence of deposit insurance relating to the Non-Deposit Product or Hybrid Product.
</P>
<P>(iv) Publication or dissemination of information, regardless of the media or platform, that suggests or implies that the party making the representation is an FDIC-insured institution if this is not in fact true.
</P>
<P>(v) Publication or dissemination of information, regardless of the media or platform, that suggests or implies that the party making the representation is associated with an FDIC-insured institution if the nature of the association is not clearly, conspicuously, prominently, and accurately described.
</P>
<P>(vi) Publication or dissemination of information, regardless of the media or platform, that suggests or implies that the party making the representation is the FDIC or any office, division, or subdivision thereof, if this is not in fact true.
</P>
<P>(vii) Publication or dissemination of information, regardless of the media or platform, that suggests or implies that the party making the representation is associated with the FDIC or any office, division, or subdivision thereof, if the nature of the association is not clearly, conspicuously, prominently, and accurately described.
</P>
<P>(viii) Use of FDIC-Associated Terms or FDIC-Associated Images, in a manner that inaccurately states or implies that a person other than an insured depository institution is insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>False or misleading representations regarding FDIC insurance.</I> (1) No person may knowingly make false or misleading representations about deposit insurance, including:
</P>
<P>(i) That any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is insured under this subpart if such a deposit is not so insured;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent to which any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is insured under this subpart if such item is not insured to the extent represented; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The manner in which any deposit liability, obligation, certificate, or share is insured under this subpart if such item is not insured in the manner represented.
</P>
<P>(iv) A person other than an insured depository institution is an FDIC-insured depository institution. This includes use of FDIC-Associated Terms or FDIC-Associated Images, in a manner that inaccurately states or implies that a person other than an insured depository institution is insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this section, a statement is deemed to be a statement regarding deposit insurance, if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Includes any FDIC-Associated Images or FDIC-Associated Terms;
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes any representation, suggestion, or implication about the existence of FDIC insurance or the extent or manner of coverage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Makes any representation, suggestion, or implication about the existence, extent, or effectiveness of any guarantee by FDIC in the event of financial distress by Insured Depository Institutions, whether a specific Insured Depository Institution or Insured Depository Institutions generally, including but not limited to bank failure, insolvency, or receivership of such institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this section, a statement regarding deposit insurance violates this section, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The statement contains any material representations which would have the tendency or capacity to mislead a reasonable consumer, regardless of whether any such consumer was actually misled; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The statement omits or fails to clearly and conspicuously disclose material information that would be necessary to prevent a reasonable consumer from being misled, regardless of whether any such consumer was actually misled.
</P>
<P>(4) Without limitation, a false or misleading representation is deemed to be material if it states, suggests, or implies that:
</P>
<P>(i) Uninsured Financial Products are insured or guaranteed by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(ii) Insured Deposits (whether generally or at a particular Regulated Institution) are not insured or guaranteed by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of deposit insurance coverage is different (whether greater or less) than actually provided under the FDI Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances under which deposit insurance may be paid are different than actually provided under the FDI Act;
</P>
<P>(v) The requirements to qualify for deposit insurance, or the process by which deposit insurance would be paid, are different from what is provided under the FDI Act and its implementing regulations in this chapter, including false or misleading claims related to actions required of consumers to qualify for or obtain such insurance; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Regulated Institutions may convert Insured Deposits into another form of liability that is not insured, such as unsecured debt or equity.
</P>
<P>(5) Without limitation, a statement regarding deposit insurance will be deemed to omit or fail to clearly and conspicuously disclose material information if the absence of such information could lead a reasonable consumer to believe any of the material misrepresentations set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section or could otherwise result in a reasonable consumer being unable to understand the extent or manner of deposit insurance provided. Examples of such material information include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement made by a person other than an insured depository institution that represents or implies that an advertised product is insured by the FDIC that fails to clearly and conspicuously identify the insured depository institution(s) with which the representing party has a direct or indirect business relationship for the placement of deposits and into which the consumer's deposits may be placed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement made by a person that is not an insured depository institution regarding deposit insurance that fails to clearly and conspicuously disclose that the person is not an FDIC-insured depository institution and that FDIC insurance only covers the failure of the FDIC-insured depository institution. A statement that a person is not an FDIC-insured bank and deposit insurance covers the failure of an insured bank would be considered a clear statement for purposes of this provision.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement made by a person regarding deposit insurance in a context where deposits and Non-Deposit products are both offered on a website in close proximity, that fails to clearly and conspicuously differentiate between insured deposits and Non-Deposit Products by disclosing that Non-Deposit Products: are not insured by the FDIC; are not deposits; and may lose value, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) Services unrelated to financial products or investments and physical goods shall not be considered Non-Deposit Products for purposes of clause (b)(5)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a Non-Deposit Product that is a product that allows consumers to store, send, or receive fiat money and does not fluctuate in value, failure to disclose that the Non-Deposit Product may lose value will not be a material omission for purposes of clause (b)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement made by a person regarding pass-through deposit insurance coverage that fails to clearly and conspicuously disclose that certain conditions must be satisfied for pass-through deposit insurance coverage to apply.
</P>
<P>(6) Without limitation, a representation is deemed to have been knowingly made if the person making the representation:
</P>
<P>(i) Has made false or misleading representations regarding deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been advised by the FDIC in an advisory letter, as provided in § 328.106(a), or has been advised by another governmental or regulatory authority, including, but not limited to, another Federal banking agency, the Federal Trade Commission, the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, the U.S. Department of Justice, or a state bank supervisor, that such representations are false or misleading; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Thereafter, continues to make these, or substantially-similar, representations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33420, June 2, 2022, as amended at 89 FR 3531, Jan. 18, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.103" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.103   Inquiries and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>Should any person have reason to believe that anyone is or may be acting in violation of section 18(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)) or this subpart, or have questions regarding the accuracy of deposit-related representations, such individuals may contact the FDIC at the FDIC Information and Support Center, <I>http://ask.fdic.gov/fdicinformationandsupportcenter/s/,</I> or by telephone at 1-877-275-3342 (1-877-ASK-FDIC).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.104" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.104   Investigations of potential violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel has delegated authority to investigate potential violations of section 18(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)) and this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Such investigations will be conducted as prescribed under section 10(c) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(c)) and subpart K of part 308 of this chapter (12 CFR 308.144 through 308.150). Notwithstanding the general confidentiality provisions of 12 CFR 308.147, in cases that may pose a risk of imminent harm to consumers, the FDIC may disclose or confirm the existence of an investigation that does not involve an Insured Depository Institution or a known IAP thereof. Such disclosure must not disclose any information obtained or uncovered during the course of the investigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.105" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.105   Referral to appropriate authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, in connection with the receipt of an inquiry or complaint, or during the course of an investigation, informal resolution, or formal enforcement under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC becomes aware of conduct by a Regulated Institution for which another Federal banking agency is the appropriate Federal banking agency or an Institution-Affiliated Party of such an institution, that appears to violate section 18(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)), the FDIC may recommend that the appropriate Federal banking agency take appropriate enforcement action. If the appropriate Federal banking agency does not take the recommended action within 30 days, the FDIC may pursue any and all remedies available under section 18(a) or the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)) and this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC becomes aware of conduct that the FDIC has reason to believe violates a civil law or regulations within the jurisdiction of another regulatory authority, the FDIC may take steps to notify the appropriate authority; and
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC becomes aware of conduct that the FDIC has reason to believe violates 18 U.S.C. 709, the FDIC may notify FDIC's Office of Inspector General for referral to the appropriate criminal law enforcement authority.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent that any records are provided to a regulatory or criminal law enforcement authority, as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, the provision of such records will be made in accordance with the requirements of part 309 of this chapter. Where such records were obtained during the course of an investigation, informal resolution, or formal enforcement action, the General Counsel will be considered the Director of the FDIC's Division having primary authority over records so obtained.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.106" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.106   Informal resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the FDIC has reason to believe that any person may be misusing an FDIC-Associated Image or FDIC-Associated Term or otherwise violating § 328.102(a), or may be making false or misleading representations regarding deposit insurance in violation of § 328.102(b), the FDIC may issue an advisory letter to such a person and/or any person who aids or abets another in such conduct, including any Third-Party Publisher. Generally, such an advisory letter will:
</P>
<P>(1) Alert the recipient of advisory letter of the basis for the FDIC's concerns;
</P>
<P>(2) Request that the person and/or Third-Party Publisher:
</P>
<P>(i) Take reasonable steps to prevent any violations of section 18(a) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(a)) and this subpart;
</P>
<P>(ii) Commit in writing to refrain from such violations in the future; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Notify the FDIC in writing that the identified concerns have been fully addressed and remediated; and
</P>
<P>(2) Offer the person or Third-Party Publisher the opportunity to provide additional information, documentation, or justifications to substantiate the representations made or otherwise refute the FDIC's expressed concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) Except in cases where the FDIC has reason to believe that consumers or Insured Depository Institutions may suffer harm arising from continued violations, recipients of advisory letters described in paragraph (a) of this section will be provided not less than fifteen (15) days to provide the requested commitment, explanation, or justification.
</P>
<P>(c) Where a recipient of an advisory letter described in paragraph (a) of this section provides the FDIC with the requested written commitments within the timeframe specified in the letter, and where any required remediation has been verified by FDIC staff, the FDIC will generally take no further administrative enforcement against such a party under § 328.107.
</P>
<P>(d) Where a recipient of an advisory letter described in paragraph (a) of this section fails to respond to the letter, fails to make the requested commitments, or fails to provide additional information, documentation, or justifications that the FDIC, in its discretion, finds adequate to substantiate the representations made or otherwise refute the concerns set forth in the advisory letter, the FDIC may pursue all remedies set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section will prevent the FDIC from commencing a formal enforcement action under § 328.107 at any time before or after the issuance of an advisory letter under this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC has reason to believe that consumers or Insured Depository Institutions may suffer harm arising from continued violations; or
</P>
<P>(2) The person to whom such an advisory letter would be sent has previously received a similar advisory letter from the FDIC under paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.107" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.107   Formal enforcement actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement authority.</I> For the purpose of enforcing the requirements of section 18(a)(4) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(4)) and this subpart, the General Counsel has delegated authority to bring administrative enforcement actions against any person under sections 8(b), (c), (d), and (i) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(b), 1818(c), 1818(d), and 1818(i)). In the case of conduct by a Regulated Institution for which another Federal banking agency is the appropriate Federal banking agency or an institution-affiliated party of such an institution, the General Counsel may not bring an enforcement action under this subpart unless the FDIC has provided the appropriate Federal banking agency with notice as set forth in § 328.105(a)(1) and the appropriate Federal banking agency failed to take the recommended action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Venue.</I> Unless the person who is the subject of the enforcement action consents to a different location, the venue for an administrative action commenced under section 18(a)(4) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(a)(4)), will be as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) In a case where the person who is the subject of the action is an Insured Depository Institution or an IAP of an Insured Depository Institution, in the Federal judicial district or territory in which the home office of the Insured Depository Institution is located.
</P>
<P>(2) In a case where the person who is the subject of the action is not an Insured Depository Institution or an IAP of an Insured Depository Institution, the Federal judicial district or territory where the person who is the subject of the action resides, if the subject resides in the United States. If the subject of the action does not reside in the United States, the venue will be where the subject of the action conducts business or the Federal judicial district for the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a natural person is deemed to reside in the Federal judicial district where the natural person is domiciled. A person other than a natural person is deemed to reside in the Federal judicial district where it is headquartered or has its principal place of business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rules of practice and procedure.</I> All actions brought and maintained under this section will be subject to the FDIC's Rules of Practice and Procedure in subparts A through C of part 308 of this chapter (12 CFR 308.1 through 308.109).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.108" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.108   Appeals process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person who is the subject of a final order issued after an administrative action commenced pursuant to this subpart may obtain judicial review of such order in accordance with the procedures set forth in section 8(h)(2) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1818(h)(2)).
</P>
<P>(b) Petitions for review under this section may be filed in the court of appeals for the circuit where the hearing was held or the United States Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia Circuit.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 328.109" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.19.2.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 328.109   Other actions preserved.</HEAD>
<P>No provision of this subpart shall be construed as barring any action otherwise available, under the laws or regulations of the United States or any state, to any Federal or state agency or person.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="329" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 329—LIQUIDITY RISK MEASUREMENT STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1815, 1816, 1818, 1819, 1828, 1831p-1, 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.1.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes a minimum liquidity standard and a minimum stable funding standard for certain FDIC-supervised institutions on a consolidated basis, as set forth herein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the minimum liquidity standard, minimum stable funding standard, and other requirements of this part if:
</P>
<P>(i) It is a:
</P>
<P>(A) GSIB depository institution supervised by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(B) Category II FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(C) Category III FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC has determined that application of this part is appropriate in light of the FDIC-supervised institution's asset size, level of complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, affiliation with foreign or domestic covered entities, or risk to the financial system.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A bridge financial company as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(3), or a subsidiary of a bridge financial company;
</P>
<P>(ii) A new depository institution or a bridge depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(i); or
</P>
<P>(iii) An insured branch.
</P>
<P>(3) In making a determination under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the FDIC will apply, as appropriate, notice and response procedures in the same manner and to the same extent as the notice and response procedures set forth in 12 CFR 324.5.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019, as amended at 86 FR 9218, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.1.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.2   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to hold an amount of high-quality liquid assets (HQLA) greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity risk profile, if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity risks. In making determinations under this section, the FDIC will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 324.5.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC may require an FDIC-supervised institution to maintain an amount of available stable funding greater than otherwise required under this part, or to take any other measure to improve the FDIC-supervised institution's stable funding, if the FDIC determines that the FDIC-supervised institution's stable funding requirements as calculated under this part are not commensurate with the FDIC-supervised institution's funding risks. In making determinations under this section, the FDIC will apply notice and response procedures as set forth in 12 CFR 324.5.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient liquidity levels, deficient stable funding levels, or violations of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9219, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.1.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated depository institution</I> means with respect to an FDIC-supervised institution that is a depository institution, another depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is also a consolidated subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Asset exchange</I> means a transaction in which, as of the calculation date, the counterparties have previously exchanged non-cash assets, and have each agreed to return such assets to each other at a future date. Asset exchanges do not include secured funding and secured lending transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Average weighted short-term wholesale funding</I> means the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's weighted short-term wholesale funding for each of the four most recent calendar quarters as reported quarterly on the FR Y-15 or, if the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed the FR Y-15 for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or averaged over the most recent quarters, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> is defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Brokered deposit</I> means any deposit held at the FDIC-supervised institution that is obtained, directly or indirectly, from or through the mediation or assistance of a deposit broker as that term is defined in section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation's regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Brokered reciprocal deposit</I> means a brokered deposit that an FDIC-supervised institution receives through a deposit placement network on a reciprocal basis, such that:
</P>
<P>(1) For any deposit received, the FDIC-supervised institution (as agent for the depositors) places the same amount with other depository institutions through the network; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each member of the network sets the interest rate to be paid on the entire amount of funds it places with other network members.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation date</I> means, for subparts B through J of this part, any date on which an FDIC-supervised institution calculates its liquidity coverage ratio under § 329.10, and for subparts K through M of this part, any date on which an FDIC-supervised institution calculates its net stable funding ratio under § 329.100.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, NSFR regulatory capital element, or NSFR liability, the value on the balance sheet of the FDIC-supervised institution, each as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Category II FDIC-supervised institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) An FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category II banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (1), an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category II FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the FDIC-supervised institution is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (<I>3</I>) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $700 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets is calculated based on its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $700 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Cross-jurisdictional activity, calculated based on the average of its cross-jurisdictional activity for the four most recent calendar quarters, of $75 billion or more. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (2)(i) and (ii) of this definition, an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category II FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $700 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in cross-jurisdictional activity for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Cross-jurisdictional activity is the sum of cross-jurisdictional claims and cross-jurisdictional liabilities, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Category III FDIC-supervised institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) An FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a consolidated subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A U.S. intermediate holding company that is identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A depository institution that meets the criteria in paragraph (2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the FDIC-supervised institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the FDIC-supervised institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this paragraph (1), an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category III FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the FDIC-supervised institution is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (1)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (3) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not a subsidiary of a depository institution holding company; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Has total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent quarters as reported on the Call Report, equal to $250 billion or more. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total consolidated assets, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report, of $100 billion or more but less than $250 billion. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most recent quarters, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) One or more of the following in paragraphs (2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) through (<I>iii</I>) of this definition, each measured as the average of the four most recent calendar quarters, or if the depository institution has not filed the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, Call Report, or FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, for the most recent quarter or the average of the most quarters, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Off-balance sheet exposure, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report, equal to $75 billion or more; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, equal to $75 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(iii) After meeting the criteria in paragraphs (2)(i) and (ii) of this definition, an FDIC-supervised institution continues to be a Category III FDIC-supervised institution until the FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has less than $250 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has less than $75 billion in total nonbank assets, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Has less than $75 billion in off-balance sheet exposure for each of the four most recent calendar quarters. Off-balance sheet exposure is calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, minus the total consolidated assets of the depository institution, as reported on the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Has less than $75 billion in weighted short-term wholesale funding, calculated in accordance with the instructions to the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has less than $100 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(C) Is a Category II FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(D) Is a GSIB depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Client pool security</I> means a security that is owned by a customer of the FDIC-supervised institution that is not an asset of the FDIC-supervised institution, regardless of a FDIC-supervised institution's hypothecation rights with respect to the security.
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized deposit</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit of a public sector entity held at the FDIC-supervised institution that is required to be secured under applicable law by a lien on assets owned by the FDIC-supervised institution and that gives the depositor, as holder of the lien, priority over the assets in the event the FDIC-supervised institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the FDIC-supervised institution for which the FDIC-supervised institution is a fiduciary and is required under applicable state law to set aside assets owned by the FDIC-supervised institution as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the FDIC-supervised institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit of a fiduciary account awaiting investment or distribution held at the FDIC-supervised institution for which the FDIC-supervised institution's affiliated insured depository institution is a fiduciary and where the FDIC-supervised institution under 12 CFR 9.10(c) (national banks), 12 CFR 150.310 (Federal savings associations), or applicable state law (state member and nonmember banks, and state savings associations) has set aside assets owned by the FDIC-supervised institution as security, which gives the depositor priority over the assets in the event the FDIC-supervised institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Committed</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that under the terms of the facility, it is not unconditionally cancelable.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated subsidiary</I> means a company that is consolidated on the balance sheet of an FDIC-supervised institution or other company under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Controlled subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company or an FDIC-supervised institution a consolidated subsidiary or a company that otherwise meets the definition of “subsidiary” in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P><I>Covered depository institution holding company</I> means a top-tier bank holding company<E T="03"/> or savings and loan holding company domiciled in the United States other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A top-tier savings and loan holding company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A grandfathered unitary savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(c)(9)(A) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1461 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of June 30 of the previous calendar year, derived 50 percent or more of its total consolidated assets or 50 percent of its total revenues on an enterprise-wide basis (as calculated under GAAP) from activities that are not financial in nature under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k));
</P>
<P>(2) A top-tier depository institution holding company that is an insurance underwriting company;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A top-tier depository institution holding company that, as of June 30 of the previous calendar year, held 25 percent or more of its total consolidated assets in subsidiaries that are insurance underwriting companies (other than assets associated with insurance for credit risk); and
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, the company must calculate its total consolidated assets in accordance with GAAP, or if the company does not calculate its total consolidated assets under GAAP for any regulatory purpose (including compliance with applicable securities laws), the company may estimate its total consolidated assets, subject to review and adjustment by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; or
</P>
<P>(4) A U.S. intermediate holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding</I> means a non-recourse loan that is extended as part of the Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility or Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility authorized by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to section 13(3) of the Federal Reserve Act.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Money Market Mutual Fund Liquidity Facility was authorized on March 18, 2020, and the Paycheck Protection Program Liquidity Facility was authorized on April 6, 2020.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Credit facility</I> means a legally binding agreement to extend funds if requested at a future date, including a general working capital facility such as a revolving credit facility for general corporate or working capital purposes. A credit facility does not include a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. <I>See liquidity facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Customer short position</I> means a legally binding written agreement pursuant to which the customer must deliver to the FDIC-supervised institution a non-cash asset that the customer has already sold.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit</I> means “deposit” as defined in section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>)) or an equivalent liability of the FDIC-supervised institution in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> is defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit insurance</I> means deposit insurance provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Derivative transaction</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, forward contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign currency exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days. A derivative does not include any identified banking product, as that term is defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Designated company</I> means a company that the Financial Stability Oversight Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible HQLA</I> means a high-quality liquid asset that meets the requirements set forth in § 329.22.
</P>
<P><I>Encumbered</I> means, with respect to an asset, that the asset:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to legal, regulatory, contractual, or other restriction on the ability of the FDIC-supervised institution to monetize the asset; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is pledged, explicitly or implicitly, to secure or to provide credit enhancement to any transaction, not including when the asset is pledged to a central bank or a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise where:
</P>
<P>(i) Potential credit secured by the asset is not currently extended to the FDIC-supervised institution or its consolidated subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pledged asset is not required to support access to the payment services of a central bank.
</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> means fair value as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any state nonmember bank or state savings association.
</P>
<P><I>Financial sector entity</I> means an investment adviser, investment company, pension fund, non-regulated fund, regulated financial company, or identified company.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign withdrawable reserves</I> means a FDIC-supervised institution's balances held by or on behalf of the FDIC-supervised institution at a foreign central bank that are not subject to restrictions on the FDIC-supervised institution's ability to use the reserves.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-9LP</I> means the Parent Company Only Financial Statements for Large Holding Companies.
</P>
<P><I>FR Y-15</I> means the Systemic Risk Report.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a bank holding company identified as a global systemically important BHC pursuant to 12 CFR 217.402.
</P>
<P><I>GSIB depository institution</I> means a depository institution that is a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC and has total consolidated assets equal to $10 billion or more, calculated based on the average of the depository institution's total consolidated assets for the four most recent calendar quarters as reported on the Call Report. If the depository institution has not filed the Call Report for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, total consolidated assets means its total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for the most recent calendar quarter or the average of the most recent calendar quarters, as applicable. After meeting the criteria under this definition, a depository institution continues to be a GSIB depository institution until the depository institution has less than $10 billion in total consolidated assets, as reported on the Call Report, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters, or the depository institution is no longer a consolidated subsidiary of a global systemically important BHC.
</P>
<P><I>High-quality liquid asset (HQLA)</I> means an asset that is a level 1 liquid asset, level 2A liquid asset, or level 2B liquid asset, in accordance with the criteria set forth in § 329.20.
</P>
<P><I>HQLA amount</I> means the HQLA amount as calculated under § 329.21.
</P>
<P><I>Identified company</I> means any company that the FDIC has determined should be treated for the purposes of this part the same as a regulated financial company, investment company, non-regulated fund, pension fund, or investment adviser, based on activities similar in scope, nature, or operations to those entities.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person, and does not include a sole proprietorship.
</P>
<P><I>Investment adviser</I> means a company registered with the SEC as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such company.
</P>
<P><I>Investment company</I> means a person or company registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents of such persons or companies.
</P>
<P><I>Liquid and readily-marketable</I> has the meaning given the term in 12 CFR 249.3.
</P>
<P><I>Liquidity facility</I> means a legally binding written agreement to extend funds at a future date to a counterparty that is made for the purpose of refinancing the debt of the counterparty when it is unable to obtain a primary or anticipated source of funding. A liquidity facility includes an agreement to provide liquidity support to asset-backed commercial paper by lending to, or purchasing assets from, any structure, program or conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing asset-backed commercial paper. Liquidity facilities exclude facilities that are established solely for the purpose of general working capital, such as revolving credit facilities for general corporate or working capital purposes. If a facility has characteristics of both credit and liquidity facilities, the facility must be classified as a liquidity facility. <I>See credit facility.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FDIC determines poses comparable risk.
</P>
<P><I>Municipal obligation</I> means an obligation of:
</P>
<P>(1) A state or any political subdivision thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any agency or instrumentality of a state or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Non-regulated fund</I> means any hedge fund or private equity fund whose investment adviser is required to file SEC Form PF (Reporting Form for Investment Advisers to Private Funds and Certain Commodity Pool Operators and Commodity Trading Advisors), other than a small business investment company as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Nonperforming exposure</I> means an exposure that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.
</P>
<P><I>NSFR liability</I> means any liability or equity reported on an FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet that is not an NSFR regulatory capital element.
</P>
<P><I>NSFR regulatory capital element</I> means any capital element included in an FDIC-supervised institution's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, and tier 2 capital, in each case as defined in 12 CFR 324.20, prior to application of capital adjustments or deductions as set forth in 12 CFR 324.22, excluding any debt or equity instrument that does not meet the criteria for additional tier 1 or tier 2 capital instruments in 12 CFR 324.22 and is being phased out of tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital pursuant to subpart G of 12 CFR part 324.
</P>
<P><I>Operational deposit</I> means short-term unsecured wholesale funding that is a deposit, unsecured wholesale lending that is a deposit, or a collateralized deposit, in each case that meets the requirements of § 329.4(b) with respect to that deposit and is necessary for the provision of operational services as an independent third-party intermediary, agent, or administrator to the wholesale customer or counterparty providing the deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Operational services</I> means the following services, provided they are performed as part of cash management, clearing, or custody services:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment remittance;
</P>
<P>(2) Administration of payments and cash flows related to the safekeeping of investment assets, not including the purchase or sale of assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Payroll administration and control over the disbursement of funds;
</P>
<P>(4) Transmission, reconciliation, and confirmation of payment orders;
</P>
<P>(5) Daylight overdraft;
</P>
<P>(6) Determination of intra-day and final settlement positions;
</P>
<P>(7) Settlement of securities transactions;
</P>
<P>(8) Transfer of capital distributions and recurring contractual payments;
</P>
<P>(9) Customer subscriptions and redemptions;
</P>
<P>(10) Scheduled distribution of customer funds;
</P>
<P>(11) Escrow, funds transfer, stock transfer, and agency services, including payment and settlement services, payment of fees, taxes, and other expenses; and
</P>
<P>(12) Collection and aggregation of funds.
</P>
<P><I>Pension fund</I> means an employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the U.S. sovereign entity level.
</P>
<P><I>Publicly traded</I> means, with respect to an equity security, that the equity security is traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f); or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the security in question.
</P>
<P><I>QMNA netting set</I> means a group of derivative transactions with a single counterparty that is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and is netted under the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the FDIC-supervised institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The FDIC expects to evaluate jointly with the Federal Reserve and the OCC whether foreign special resolution regimes meet the requirements of this paragraph.</P></FTNT>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 382 of this title, subpart I of part 252 of this title or part 47 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution must comply with the requirements of § 329.4(a) with respect to that agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>Regulated financial company</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution holding company or designated company;
</P>
<P>(2) A company included in the organization chart of a depository institution holding company on the Form FR Y-6, as listed in the hierarchy report of the depository institution holding company produced by the National Information Center (NIC) website,
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> provided that the top-tier depository institution holding company is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under 12 CFR part 249;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/nicpubweb/nicweb/NicHome.aspx.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) A depository institution; foreign bank; credit union; industrial loan company, industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>); national bank, state member bank, or state non-member bank that is not a depository institution;
</P>
<P>(4) An insurance company;
</P>
<P>(5) A securities holding company as defined in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); broker or dealer registered with the SEC under section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o); futures commission merchant as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a); swap dealer as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a); or security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c);
</P>
<P>(6) A designated financial market utility, as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462);
</P>
<P>(7) A U.S. intermediate holding company; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any company not domiciled in the United States (or a political subdivision thereof) that is supervised and regulated in a manner similar to entities described in paragraphs (1) through (7) of this definition (<I>e.g.,</I> a foreign banking organization, foreign insurance company, foreign securities broker or dealer or foreign financial market utility).
</P>
<P>(9) A regulated financial company does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. government-sponsored enterprises;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business investment companies, as defined in section 102 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(iii) Entities designated as Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFIs) under 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 CFR part 1805; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Central banks, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or multilateral development banks.
</P>
<P><I>Reserve Bank balances</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Balances held in a master account of the FDIC-supervised institution at a Federal Reserve Bank, less any balances that are attributable to any respondent of the FDIC-supervised institution if the FDIC-supervised institution is a correspondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(l));
</P>
<P>(2) Balances held in a master account of a correspondent of the FDIC-supervised institution that are attributable to the FDIC-supervised institution if the FDIC-supervised institution is a respondent for a pass-through account as defined in section 204.2(l) of Regulation D;
</P>
<P>(3) “Excess balances” of the FDIC-supervised institution as defined in section 204.2(z) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(z)) that are maintained in an “excess balance account” as defined in section 204.2(aa) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(aa)) if the FDIC-supervised institution is an excess balance account participant; or
</P>
<P>(4) “Term deposits” of the FDIC-supervised institution as defined in section 204.2(dd) of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.2(dd)) if such term deposits are offered and maintained pursuant to terms and conditions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly and contractually permit such term deposits to be withdrawn upon demand prior to the expiration of the term, or that
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit such term deposits to be pledged as collateral for term or automatically-renewing overnight advances from the Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A business customer, but solely if and to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution manages its transactions with the business customer, including deposits, unsecured funding, and credit facility and liquidity facility transactions, in the same way it manages its transactions with individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transactions with the business customer have liquidity risk characteristics that are similar to comparable transactions with individuals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total aggregate funding raised from the business customer is less than $1.5 million; or
</P>
<P>(3) A living or testamentary trust that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is solely for the benefit of natural persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not have a corporate trustee; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminates within 21 years and 10 months after the death of grantors or beneficiaries of the trust living on the effective date of the trust or within 25 years, if applicable under state law.
</P>
<P><I>Retail deposit</I> means a demand or term deposit that is placed with the FDIC-supervised institution by a retail customer or counterparty, other than a brokered deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Retail mortgage</I> means a mortgage that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Secured funding transaction</I> means any funding transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of the FDIC-supervised institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the FDIC-supervised institution, which gives the wholesale customer or counterparty, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the FDIC-supervised institution enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured funding transactions include repurchase transactions, securities lending transactions, other secured loans, and borrowings from a Federal Reserve Bank. Secured funding transactions do not include securities.
</P>
<P><I>Secured lending transaction</I> means any lending transaction that is subject to a legally binding agreement that gives rise to a cash obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the FDIC-supervised institution that is secured under applicable law by a lien on securities or loans provided by the wholesale customer or counterparty, which gives the FDIC-supervised institution, as holder of the lien, priority over the securities or loans in the event the counterparty enters into receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding. Secured lending transactions include reverse repurchase transactions and securities borrowing transactions. Secured lending transactions do not include securities.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Special purpose entity</I> means a company organized for a specific purpose, the activities of which are significantly limited to those appropriate to accomplish a specific purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the credit risk of the special purpose entity.
</P>
<P><I>Stable retail deposit</I> means a retail deposit that is entirely covered by deposit insurance and:
</P>
<P>(1) Is held by the depositor in a transactional account; or
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor that holds the account has another established relationship with the FDIC-supervised institution such as another deposit account, a loan, bill payment services, or any similar service or product provided to the depositor that the FDIC-supervised institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FDIC would make deposit withdrawal highly unlikely during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Structured security</I> means a security whose cash flow characteristics depend upon one or more indices or that has embedded forwards, options, or other derivatives or a security where an investor's investment return and the issuer's payment obligations are contingent on, or highly sensitive to, changes in the value of underlying assets, indices, interest rates, or cash flows.
</P>
<P><I>Structured transaction</I> means a secured transaction in which repayment of obligations and other exposures to the transaction is largely derived, directly or indirectly, from the cash flow generated by the pool of assets that secures the obligations and other exposures to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Sweep deposit</I> means a deposit held at the FDIC-supervised institution by a customer or counterparty through a contractual feature that automatically transfers to the FDIC-supervised institution from another regulated financial company at the close of each business day amounts identified under the agreement governing the account from which the amount is being transferred.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a relatively short time frame conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the Federal government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress, but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. intermediate holding company</I> means a top-tier company that is required to be established pursuant to 12 CFR 252.153.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means, with respect to a credit or liquidity facility, that an FDIC-supervised institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the facility (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale funding</I> means a liability or general obligation of the FDIC-supervised institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a secured funding transaction. Unsecured wholesale funding includes wholesale deposits. Unsecured wholesale funding does not include asset exchanges.
</P>
<P><I>Unsecured wholesale lending</I> means a liability or general obligation of a wholesale customer or counterparty to the FDIC-supervised institution that is not a secured lending transaction or a security. Unsecured wholesale lending does not include asset exchanges.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale customer or counterparty</I> means a customer or counterparty that is not a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P><I>Wholesale deposit means</I> a demand or term deposit that is provided by a wholesale customer or counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 81 FR 71354, Oct. 17, 2016; 82 FR 50261, Oct. 30, 2017; 82 FR 61443, Dec. 28, 2017; 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018; 84 FR 59279, Nov. 1, 2019; 85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020; 86 FR 9219, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.1.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.4   Certain operational requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifying master netting agreements.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 329.3, an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 329.3; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, bankruptcy, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding) the relevant judicial and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of qualifying master netting agreement in § 329.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational deposits.</I> In order to recognize a deposit as an operational deposit as defined in § 329.3:
</P>
<P>(1) The related operational services must be performed pursuant to a legally binding written agreement, and:
</P>
<P>(i) The termination of the agreement must be subject to a minimum 30 calendar-day notice period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As a result of termination of the agreement or transfer of services to a third-party provider, the customer providing the deposit would incur significant contractual termination costs or switching costs (switching costs include significant technology, administrative, and legal service costs incurred in connection with the transfer of the operational services to a third-party provider);
</P>
<P>(2) The deposit must be held in an account designated as an operational account;
</P>
<P>(3) The customer must hold the deposit at the FDIC-supervised institution for the primary purpose of obtaining the operational services provided by the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(4) The deposit account must not be designed to create an economic incentive for the customer to maintain excess funds therein through increased revenue, reduction in fees, or other offered economic incentives;
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate that the deposit is empirically linked to the operational services and that it has a methodology that takes into account the volatility of the average balance for identifying any excess amount, which must be excluded from the operational deposit amount;
</P>
<P>(6) The deposit must not be provided in connection with the FDIC-supervised institution's provision of prime brokerage services, which, for the purposes of this part, are a package of services offered by the FDIC-supervised institution whereby the FDIC-supervised institution, among other services, executes, clears, settles, and finances transactions entered into by the customer or a third-party entity on behalf of the customer (such as an executing broker), and where the FDIC-supervised institution has a right to use or rehypothecate assets provided by the customer, including in connection with the extension of margin and other similar financing of the customer, subject to applicable law, and includes operational services provided to a non-regulated fund; and
</P>
<P>(7) The deposits must not be for arrangements in which the FDIC-supervised institution (as correspondent) holds deposits owned by another depository institution bank (as respondent) and the respondent temporarily places excess funds in an overnight deposit with the FDIC-supervised institution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Liquidity Coverage Ratio</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.2.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.10   Liquidity coverage ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum liquidity coverage ratio requirement.</I> Subject to the transition provisions in subpart F of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on each business day in accordance with this part. An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its liquidity coverage ratio as of the same time on each calculation date (the elected calculation time). The FDIC-supervised institution must select this time by written notice to the FDIC prior to December 31, 2019. The FDIC-supervised institution may not thereafter change its elected calculation time without prior written approval from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the liquidity coverage ratio.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity coverage ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's HQLA amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart C of this part; <I>divided by</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's total net cash outflow amount as of the calculation date, calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59282, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—High-Quality Liquid Assets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.3.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.20   High-quality liquid asset criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level 1 liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 1 liquid asset if it is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) Reserve Bank balances;
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign withdrawable reserves;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of the Treasury) whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, provided that the security is liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(5) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, European Community, or a multilateral development bank, that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324 as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Liquid and readily-marketable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity; or
</P>
<P>(6) A security issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity that is not assigned a zero percent risk weight under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324, where the sovereign entity issues the security in its own currency, the security is liquid and readily-marketable, and the FDIC-supervised institution holds the security in order to meet its net cash outflows in the jurisdiction of the sovereign entity, as calculated under subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Level 2A liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2A liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A security issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date, provided that the claim is senior to preferred stock; or
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a sovereign entity or multilateral development bank that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not included in level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324 as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 10 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 10 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity, and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Level 2B liquid assets.</I> An asset is a level 2B liquid asset if the asset is liquid and readily-marketable and is one of the following types of assets:
</P>
<P>(1) A corporate debt security that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued or guaranteed by an entity whose obligations have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 20 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to secured lending and secured funding transactions that are collateralized by the corporate debt security or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 20 percentage points during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Not an obligation of a financial sector entity and not an obligation of a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity; 
</P>
<P>(2) A publicly traded common equity share that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Russell 1000 Index; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that an FDIC-supervised institution's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including equity shares in level 2B liquid assets under applicable regulatory policy, if the share is held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Issued in:
</P>
<P>(A) U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) The currency of a jurisdiction where the FDIC-supervised institution operates and the FDIC-supervised institution holds the common equity share in order to cover its net cash outflows in that jurisdiction, as calculated under subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) Issued by an entity whose publicly traded common equity shares have a proven record as a reliable source of liquidity in repurchase or sales markets during stressed market conditions, as demonstrated by:
</P>
<P>(A) The market price of the security or equivalent securities of the issuer declining by no more than 40 percent during a 30 calendar-day period of significant stress, or
</P>
<P>(B) The market haircut demanded by counterparties to securities borrowing and lending transactions that are collateralized by the publicly traded common equity shares or equivalent securities of the issuer increasing by no more than 40 percentage points, during a 30 calendar day period of significant stress;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not issued by a financial sector entity and not issued by a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity;
</P>
<P>(v) If held by a depository institution, is not acquired in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted (DPC); and
</P>
<P>(vi) If held by a consolidated subsidiary of a depository institution, the depository institution can include the publicly traded common equity share in its level 2B liquid assets only if the share is held to cover net cash outflows of the depository institution's consolidated subsidiary in which the publicly traded common equity share is held, as calculated by the FDIC-supervised institution under subpart D of this part; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal obligation that is investment grade under 12 CFR part 1 as of the calculation date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 44455, Aug. 31, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.3.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.21   High-quality liquid asset amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of the HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, a FDIC-supervised institution's HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 1 liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2A liquid asset amount; plus
</P>
<P>(3) The level 2B liquid asset amount; minus
</P>
<P>(4) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The unadjusted excess HQLA amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The adjusted excess HQLA amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> The level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets held by the FDIC-supervised institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA, less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets held by the FDIC-supervised institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> The level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets held by the FDIC-supervised institution as of the calculation date that are eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of the unadjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the unadjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of the level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2A liquid asset amount plus the level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of the level 2B cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the level 2B excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The level 2B liquid asset amount minus the level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the level 1 liquid asset amount and the level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of adjusted liquid asset amounts</I>—(1) <I>Adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount equals the fair value of all level 1 liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the FDIC-supervised institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the FDIC-supervised institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA; less the amount of the reserve balance requirement under section 204.5 of Regulation D (12 CFR 204.5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount equals 85 percent of the fair value of all level 2A liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the FDIC-supervised institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the FDIC-supervised institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount equals 50 percent of the fair value of all level 2B liquid assets that would be eligible HQLA and would be held by the FDIC-supervised institution upon the unwind of any secured funding transaction (other than a collateralized deposit), secured lending transaction, asset exchange, or collateralized derivatives transaction that matures within 30 calendar days of the calculation date where the FDIC-supervised institution will provide an asset that is eligible HQLA and the counterparty will provide an asset that will be eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Calculation of the adjusted excess HQLA amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted excess HQLA amount equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2 cap excess amount; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The adjusted level 2B cap excess amount.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount plus the adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus 0.6667 times the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of the adjusted level 2B excess amount.</I> As of the calculation date, the adjusted level 2B excess liquid asset amount equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The adjusted level 2B liquid asset amount minus the adjusted level 2 cap excess amount minus 0.1765 times the sum of the adjusted level 1 liquid asset amount and the adjusted level 2A liquid asset amount; and
</P>
<P>(2) 0.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.3.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.22   Requirements for eligible high-quality liquid assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational requirements for eligible HQLA.</I> With respect to each asset that is eligible for inclusion in a FDIC-supervised institution's HQLA amount, an FDIC-supervised institution must meet all of the following operational requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution must demonstrate the operational capability to monetize the HQLA by:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementing and maintaining appropriate procedures and systems to monetize any HQLA at any time in accordance with relevant standard settlement periods and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Periodically monetizing a sample of HQLA that reasonably reflects the composition of the FDIC-supervised institution's eligible HQLA, including with respect to asset type, maturity, and counterparty characteristics;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution must implement policies that require eligible HQLA to be under the control of the management function in the FDIC-supervised institution that is charged with managing liquidity risk, and this management function must evidence its control over the HQLA by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Segregating the HQLA from other assets, with the sole intent to use the HQLA as a source of liquidity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrating the ability to monetize the assets and making the proceeds available to the liquidity management function without conflicting with a business or risk management strategy of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(3) The fair value of the eligible HQLA must be reduced by the outflow amount that would result from the termination of any specific transaction hedging eligible HQLA;
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC-supervised institution must implement and maintain policies and procedures that determine the composition of its eligible HQLA on each calculation date, by:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying its eligible HQLA by legal entity, geographical location, currency, account, or other relevant identifying factors as of the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining that eligible HQLA meet the criteria set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ensuring the appropriate diversification of the eligible HQLA by asset type, counterparty, issuer, currency, borrowing capacity, or other factors associated with the liquidity risk of the assets; and
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must have a documented methodology that results in a consistent treatment for determining that the FDIC-supervised institution's eligible HQLA meet the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Generally applicable criteria for eligible HQLA.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's eligible HQLA must meet all of the following criteria: 
</P>
<P>(1) The assets are not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(2) The asset is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A client pool security held in a segregated account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An asset received from a secured funding transaction involving client pool securities that were held in a segregated account;
</P>
<P>(3) For eligible HQLA held in a legal entity that is a U.S. consolidated subsidiary of an FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(i) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, the FDIC-supervised institution may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary calculated by the U.S. consolidated subsidiary for its own minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier FDIC-supervised institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the U.S. consolidated subsidiary is not subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part, the FDIC-supervised institution may include the eligible HQLA of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the net cash outflows of the U.S. consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the FDIC-supervised institution for the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(B) Any additional amount of assets, including proceeds from the monetization of assets, that would be available for transfer to the top-tier FDIC-supervised institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, including sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223);
</P>
<P>(4) For HQLA held by a consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution that is organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the FDIC-supervised institution may include the eligible HQLA of the consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction in its HQLA amount up to:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of net cash outflows of the consolidated subsidiary as of the 30th calendar day after the calculation date, as calculated by the FDIC-supervised institution for the FDIC-supervised institution's minimum liquidity standard under this part; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Any additional amount of assets that are available for transfer to the top-tier FDIC-supervised institution during times of stress without statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions;
</P>
<P>(5) The FDIC-supervised institution must not include as eligible HQLA any assets, or HQLA resulting from transactions involving an asset that the FDIC-supervised institution received with rehypothecation rights, if the counterparty that provided the asset or the beneficial owner of the asset has a contractual right to withdraw the assets without an obligation to pay more than de minimis remuneration at any time during the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) The FDIC-supervised institution has not designated the assets to cover operational costs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintenance of U.S. eligible HQLA.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution is generally expected to maintain as eligible HQLA an amount and type of eligible HQLA in the United States that is sufficient to meet its total net cash outflow amount in the United States under subpart D of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Total Net Cash Outflow</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.30   Total net cash outflow amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of total net cash outflow amount.</I> As of the calculation date, an FDIC-supervised institution's total net cash outflow amount equals the FDIC-supervised institution's outflow adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (c) of this section multiplied by:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of the outflow amounts calculated under § 329.32(a) through (l); <I>minus</I>
</P>
<P>(2) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the inflow amounts calculated under § 329.33(b) through (g); and
</P>
<P>(ii) 75 percent of the amount calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section; <I>plus</I>
</P>
<P>(3) The maturity mismatch add-on as calculated under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of maturity mismatch add-on.</I> (1) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The net cumulative maturity outflow amount for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date is equal to the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 329.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 329.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date prior to or on that calendar day.
</P>
<P>(ii) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount is equal to, as of the 30th day following the calculation date, the sum of the outflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 329.32(g), (h)(1), (h)(2), (h)(5), (j), (k), and (l) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date <I>minus</I> the sum of the inflow amounts for instruments or transactions identified in § 329.33(c), (d), (e), and (f) that have a maturity date 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) As of the calculation date, a FDIC-supervised institution's maturity mismatch add-on is equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The largest net cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for any of the 30 calendar days following the calculation date; <I>minus</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) The greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) 0; and
</P>
<P>(B) The net day 30 cumulative maturity outflow amount as calculated under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Other than the transactions identified in § 329.32(h)(2), (h)(5), or (j) or § 329.33(d) or (f), the maturity of which is determined under § 329.31(a), transactions that have an open maturity are not included in the calculation of the maturity mismatch add-on.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Outflow adjustment percentage.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's outflow adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to Table 1 to this paragraph (c).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 329.30(<E T="01">c</E>)—Outflow Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percent
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="02">Outflow adjustment percentage</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GSIB depository institution supervised by the FDIC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II FDIC-supervised institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III FDIC-supervised institution that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part, in each case with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Has $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III FDIC-supervised institution that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part, in each case with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(2) Has less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution whose outflow adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher outflow adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution whose outflow adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower outflow adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher outflow adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the outflow adjustment percentage decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 59282, Nov. 1, 2019; 86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.31" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.31   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of calculating its liquidity coverage ratio and the components thereof under this subpart, an FDIC-supervised institution shall assume an asset or transaction matures:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 329.32, on the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could accelerate the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the earliest possible contractual maturity date or the earliest possible date the transaction could occur, the FDIC-supervised institution should exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would reduce the maturity, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will exercise the option at the earliest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If an investor or funds provider has an option that would extend the maturity, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the investor or funds provider will not exercise the option to extend the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the FDIC-supervised institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an obligation, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the FDIC-supervised institution will exercise the option at the earliest possible date, except if either of the following criteria are satisfied, in which case the maturity of the obligation for purposes of this part will be the original maturity date at issuance:
</P>
<P>(A) The original maturity of the obligation is greater than one year and the option does not go into effect for a period of 180 days following the issuance of the instrument; or
</P>
<P>(B) The counterparty is a sovereign entity, a U.S. government-sponsored enterprise, or a public sector entity.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the FDIC-supervised institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an obligation it issued, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume the FDIC-supervised institution will not exercise that option to extend the maturity; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the earliest possible contractual maturity date regardless of the notice period.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an instrument or transaction subject to § 329.33, on the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, taking into account any option that could extend the maturity date or the date of the transaction, except that when considering the latest possible contractual maturity date or the latest possible date the transaction could occur, the FDIC-supervised institution may exclude any contingent options that are triggered only by regulatory actions or changes in law or regulation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the borrower has an option that would extend the maturity, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the borrower will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the borrower has an option that would reduce the maturity, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume that the borrower will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the FDIC-supervised institution has an option that would reduce the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume the FDIC-supervised institution will not exercise the option to reduce the maturity;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the FDIC-supervised institution has an option that would extend the maturity of an instrument or transaction, the FDIC-supervised institution must assume the FDIC-supervised institution will exercise the option to extend the maturity to the latest possible date; and
</P>
<P>(v) If an option is subject to a contractually defined notice period, the FDIC-supervised institution must determine the latest possible contractual maturity date based on the borrower using the entire notice period.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a transaction subject to § 329.33(f)(1)(iii) through (vii) (secured lending transactions) or § 329.33(f)(2)(ii) through (x) (asset exchanges), to the extent the transaction is secured by collateral that has been pledged in connection with either a secured funding transaction or asset exchange that has a remaining maturity of 30 calendar days or less as of the calculation date, the maturity date is the later of the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the secured lending transaction or asset exchange or the maturity date determined under paragraph (a)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction or asset exchange for which the collateral has been pledged.
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a transaction that has an open maturity, is not an operational deposit, and is subject to the provisions of § 329.32(h)(2), (h)(5), (j), or (k) or § 329.33(d) or (f), the maturity date is the first calendar day after the calculation date. Any other transaction that has an open maturity and is subject to the provisions of § 329.32 shall be considered to mature within 30 calendar days of the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(5) With respect to a transaction subject to the provisions of § 329.33(g), on the date of the next scheduled calculation of the amount required under applicable legal requirements for the protection of customer assets with respect to each broker-dealer segregated account, in accordance with the FDIC-supervised institution's normal frequency of recalculating such requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.32" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.32   Outflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail funding outflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's retail funding outflow amount as of the calculation date includes (regardless of maturity or collateralization):
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all stable retail deposits held at the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all other retail deposits held at the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all deposits placed at the FDIC-supervised institution by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all deposits placed at the FDIC-supervised institution by a third party on behalf of a retail customer or counterparty that are not brokered deposits, where the retail customer or counterparty owns the account and where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(5) 40 percent of all funding from a retail customer or counterparty that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A debt instrument issued by the FDIC-supervised institution that is owned by a retail customer or counterparty (see paragraph (h)(2)(ii) of this section).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Structured transaction outflow amount.</I> If the FDIC-supervised institution is a sponsor of a structured transaction where the issuing entity is not consolidated on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet under GAAP, the structured transaction outflow amount for each such structured transaction as of the calculation date is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of the amount of all debt obligations of the issuing entity that mature 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date and all commitments made by the issuing entity to purchase assets within 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum contractual amount of funding the FDIC-supervised institution may be required to provide to the issuing entity 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date through a liquidity facility, a return or repurchase of assets from the issuing entity, or other funding agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Net derivative cash outflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash outflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash outflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash outflow amount does not include forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to paragraph (d) of this section. The net derivative cash outflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the FDIC-supervised institution will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the FDIC-supervised institution will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mortgage commitment outflow amount.</I> The mortgage commitment outflow amount as of a calculation date is 10 percent of the amount of funds the FDIC-supervised institution has contractually committed for its own origination of retail mortgages that can be drawn upon 30 calendar days or less from such calculation date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commitment outflow amount.</I> (1) A FDIC-supervised institution's commitment outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by an FDIC-supervised institution that is a depository institution to an affiliated depository institution that is subject to a minimum liquidity standard under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(iii) 10 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 30 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of such wholesale customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to depository institutions, depository institution holding companies, and foreign banks, but excluding commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) 40 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed liquidity facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution to a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof, including a special purpose entity (other than those described in paragraph (e)(1)(viii) of this section) that is a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, but excluding other commitments described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) or (v) of this section and liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all committed credit and liquidity facilities extended to a special purpose entity that issues or has issued commercial paper or securities (other than equity securities issued to a company of which the special purpose entity is a consolidated subsidiary) to finance its purchases or operations, and excluding liquidity facilities included in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 100 percent of the undrawn amount of all other committed credit or liquidity facilities extended by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within 30 calendar days of the calculation date under the governing agreement, less the amount of level 1 liquid assets and the amount of level 2A liquid assets securing the facility.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), the amount of level 1 liquid assets and level 2A liquid assets securing a committed credit or liquidity facility is the fair value of level 1 liquid assets and 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets that are required to be pledged as collateral by the counterparty to secure the facility, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets pledged upon a draw on the facility would be eligible HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution has not included the assets as eligible HQLA under subpart C of this part as of the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Collateral outflow amount.</I> The collateral outflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changes in financial condition.</I> 100 percent of all additional amounts of collateral the FDIC-supervised institution could be contractually required to pledge or to fund under the terms of any transaction as a result of a change in the FDIC-supervised institution's financial condition;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Derivative collateral potential valuation changes.</I> 20 percent of the fair value of any collateral securing a derivative transaction pledged to a counterparty by the FDIC-supervised institution that is not a level 1 liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Potential derivative valuation changes.</I> The absolute value of the largest 30-consecutive calendar day cumulative net mark-to-market collateral outflow or inflow realized during the preceding 24 months resulting from derivative transaction valuation changes;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Excess collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution could be required by contract to return to a counterparty because the collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution exceeds the current collateral requirement of the counterparty under the governing contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not segregated from the FDIC-supervised institution's other assets such that it cannot be rehypothecated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not already excluded as eligible HQLA by the FDIC-supervised institution under § 329.22(b)(5);
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Contractually required collateral.</I> 100 percent of the fair value of collateral that the FDIC-supervised institution is contractually required to pledge to a counterparty and, as of such calculation date, the FDIC-supervised institution has not yet pledged;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Collateral substitution.</I> (i) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as level 1 liquid assets, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty, where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where under, the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 1 liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 1 or level 2A liquid assets, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that qualify as level 2B liquid assets, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2A liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with other assets that qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of collateral pledged to the FDIC-supervised institution by a counterparty where the collateral qualifies as level 2B liquid assets and eligible HQLA and where, under the contract governing the transaction, the counterparty may replace the pledged collateral with assets that do not qualify as HQLA, without the consent of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties.</I> The brokered deposit outflow amount for retail customers or counterparties as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all brokered deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(2) 10 percent of all brokered deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which mature later than 30 calendar days from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent of all brokered deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 40 percent of all brokered deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty that are not described in paragraphs (g)(5) through (9) of this section and which are held in a transactional account with no contractual maturity date, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(5) 10 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(6) 25 percent of all brokered reciprocal deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty, where less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(7) 10 percent of all sweep deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(8) 25 percent of all sweep deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) That are not deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a controlled subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the entire amount of the deposits is covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(9) 40 percent of all sweep deposits at the FDIC-supervised institution provided by a retail customer or counterparty where less than the entire amount of the deposit balance is covered by deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's unsecured wholesale funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) For unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not provided by a financial sector entity or consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity:
</P>
<P>(i) 20 percent of all such funding, where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance and the funding is not a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) 40 percent of all such funding, where:
</P>
<P>(A) Less than the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance; or
</P>
<P>(B) The funding is a brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not an operational deposit and is not included in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Funding provided by a company that is a consolidated subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a consolidated subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Debt instruments issued by the FDIC-supervised institution, including such instruments owned by retail customers or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(3) 5 percent of all operational deposits, other than operational deposits that are held in escrow accounts, where the entire deposit amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(4) 25 percent of all operational deposits not included in paragraph (h)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) 100 percent of all unsecured wholesale funding that is not otherwise described in this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Debt security buyback outflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's debt security buyback outflow amount for debt securities issued by the FDIC-supervised institution that mature more than 30 calendar days after the calculation date and for which the FDIC-supervised institution or a consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution is the primary market maker in such debt securities includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 3 percent of all such debt securities that are not structured securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) 5 percent of all such debt securities that are structured securities.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Secured funding and asset exchange outflow amount.</I> (1) A FDIC-supervised institution's secured funding outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all funds the FDIC-supervised institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of all funds the FDIC-supervised institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) 25 percent of all funds the FDIC-supervised institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions with sovereign entities, multilateral development banks, or U.S. government-sponsored enterprises that are assigned a risk weight of 20 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324, to the extent that the funds are not secured by level 1 or level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of all funds the FDIC-supervised institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all funds received from secured funding transactions that are customer short positions where the customer short positions are covered by other customers' collateral and the collateral does not consist of HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all other funds the FDIC-supervised institution must pay pursuant to secured funding transactions, to the extent that the funds are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) If an outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for a secured funding transaction is greater than the outflow rate that the FDIC-supervised institution is required to apply under paragraph (h) of this section to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with the same counterparty, the FDIC-supervised institution may apply to the secured funding transaction the outflow rate that applies to an unsecured wholesale funding transaction that is not an operational deposit with that counterparty, except in the case of:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured funding transactions that are secured by collateral that was received by the FDIC-supervised institution under a secured lending transaction or asset exchange, in which case the FDIC-supervised institution must apply the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section for the secured funding transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Collateralized deposits that are operational deposits, in which case the FDIC-supervised institution may apply to the operational deposit amount, as calculated in accordance with § 329.4(b), the operational deposit outflow rate specified in paragraph (h)(3) or (4) of this section, as applicable, if such outflow rate is lower than the outflow rate specified in paragraph (j)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A FDIC-supervised institution's asset exchange outflow amount, for all transactions that mature within 30 calendar days or less of the calculation date, as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive level 1 liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 100 percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets that FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where FDIC-supervised institution will receive level 1 or level 2A liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) 35 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive level 2B liquid assets from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 85 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(ix) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution must post to a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraphs (j)(3)(x) through (xiii) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution will receive assets that are not HQLA from the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(x) Zero percent of the fair value of the level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the FDIC-supervised institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xi) 15 percent of the fair value of the level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the FDIC-supervised institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(xii) 50 percent of the fair value of the level 2B liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the FDIC-supervised institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) 100 percent of the fair value of the non-HQLA the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to an asset exchange where the FDIC-supervised institution has rehypothecated the assets posted by the asset exchange counterparty, and, as of the calculation date, the assets will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount is, in a foreign jurisdiction where the FDIC-supervised institution has borrowed from the jurisdiction's central bank, the outflow amount assigned to borrowings from central banks in a minimum liquidity standard established in that jurisdiction. If the foreign jurisdiction has not specified a central bank borrowing outflow amount in a minimum liquidity standard, the foreign central bank borrowing outflow amount must be calculated in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other contractual outflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's other contractual outflow amount is 100 percent of funding or amounts, with the exception of operating expenses of the FDIC-supervised institution (such as rents, salaries, utilities, and other similar payments), payable by the FDIC-supervised institution to counterparties under legally binding agreements that are not otherwise specified in this section.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The outflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution and a consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution and another consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 61523, Oct. 10, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.33" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.33   Inflow amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The inflows in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Amounts the FDIC-supervised institution holds in operational deposits at other regulated financial companies;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts the FDIC-supervised institution expects, or is contractually entitled to receive, 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date due to forward sales of mortgage loans and any derivatives that are mortgage commitments subject to § 329.32(d);
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any credit or liquidity facilities extended to the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of any asset that is eligible HQLA and any amounts payable to the FDIC-supervised institution with respect to that asset;
</P>
<P>(5) Any amounts payable to the FDIC-supervised institution from an obligation of a customer or counterparty that is a nonperforming asset as of the calculation date or that the FDIC-supervised institution has reason to expect will become a nonperforming exposure 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(6) Amounts payable to the FDIC-supervised institution with respect to any transaction that has no contractual maturity date or that matures after 30 calendar days of the calculation date (as determined by § 329.31).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Net derivative cash inflow amount.</I> The net derivative cash inflow amount as of the calculation date is the sum of the net derivative cash inflow amount for each counterparty. The net derivative cash inflow amount does not include amounts excluded from inflows under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. The net derivative cash inflow amount for a counterparty is the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual payments and collateral that the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, less the contractual payments and collateral that the FDIC-supervised institution will make or deliver to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under derivative transactions other than transactions described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, provided that the derivative transactions are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, if greater than zero, of contractual principal payments that the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day, less the contractual principal payments that the FDIC-supervised institution will make to the counterparty 30 calendar days or less from the calculation date under foreign currency exchange derivative transactions that result in the full exchange of contractual cash principal payments in different currencies within the same business day.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail cash inflow amount.</I> The retail cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the FDIC-supervised institution from retail customers or counterparties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount.</I> The unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(1) 100 percent of all payments contractually payable to the FDIC-supervised institution from financial sector entities, or from a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or central banks; and
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent of all payments contractually payable to the FDIC-supervised institution from wholesale customers or counterparties that are not financial sector entities or consolidated subsidiaries thereof, provided that, with respect to revolving credit facilities, the amount of the existing loan is not included in the unsecured wholesale cash inflow amount and the remaining undrawn balance is included in the outflow amount under § 329.32(e)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Securities cash inflow amount.</I> The securities cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution on securities it owns that are not eligible HQLA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secured lending and asset exchange cash inflow amount.</I> (1) A FDIC-supervised institution's secured lending cash inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions, including margin loans extended to customers, to the extent that the payments are secured by collateral that has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraph (f)(1)(vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not eligible HQLA, but are still held by the FDIC-supervised institution and are available for immediate return to the counterparty at any time;
</P>
<P>(iii) Zero percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) 15 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2A liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(v) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by level 2B liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(vi) 100 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to secured lending transactions not described in paragraphs (f)(1)(i), (ii), or (vii) of this section, to the extent that the payments are secured by assets that are not HQLA; and
</P>
<P>(vii) 50 percent of all contractual payments due to the FDIC-supervised institution pursuant to collateralized margin loans extended to customers, not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, provided that the loans are secured by assets that are not HQLA.
</P>
<P>(2) A FDIC-supervised institution's asset exchange inflow amount as of the calculation date includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero percent of the fair value of assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, to the extent that the asset received by the FDIC-supervised institution from the counterparty has been rehypothecated in a transaction and, as of the calculation date, will not be returned to the FDIC-supervised institution within 30 calendar days;
</P>
<P>(ii) Zero percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post level 1 liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iii) 15 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(iv) 50 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(v) 100 percent of the fair value of level 1 liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vi) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post level 1 or level 2A liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(vii) 35 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post level 2B liquid assets to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(viii) 85 percent of the fair value of level 2A liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ix) Zero percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post assets that are HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty; and
</P>
<P>(x) 50 percent of the fair value of level 2B liquid assets the FDIC-supervised institution will receive from a counterparty pursuant to asset exchanges, not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, where the FDIC-supervised institution must post assets that are not HQLA to the asset exchange counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount is the fair value of all assets released from broker-dealer segregated accounts maintained in accordance with statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer trading assets, provided that the calculation of the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, for any transaction affecting the calculation of the segregated balance (as required by applicable law), shall be consistent with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In calculating the broker-dealer segregated account inflow amount, the FDIC-supervised institution must calculate the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date by assuming that customer cash and collateral positions have changed consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 329.32 and 329.33.
</P>
<P>(2) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 329.32 and 329.33, is less than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the difference is the segregated account inflow amount.
</P>
<P>(3) If the fair value of the required balance of the customer reserve account as of 30 calendar days from the calculation date, as calculated consistent with the outflow and inflow calculations required under §§ 329.32 and 329.33, is more than the fair value of the required balance as of the calculation date, the segregated account inflow amount is zero.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other cash inflow amounts.</I> A FDIC-supervised institution's inflow amount as of the calculation date includes zero percent of other cash inflow amounts not included in paragraphs (b) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Excluded amounts for intragroup transactions.</I> The inflow amounts set forth in this section do not include amounts arising out of transactions between:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution and a consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution and another consolidated subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.34" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.4.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.34   Cash flows related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, outflow amounts and inflow amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of a FDIC-supervised institution's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 329.30.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the FDIC-supervised institution or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and this outflow amount must be included in the FDIC-supervised institution's total net cash outflow amount calculated under § 329.30.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 26841, May 6, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Liquidity Coverage Shortfall</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.5.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.40   Liquidity coverage shortfall: Supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must notify the FDIC on any business day when its liquidity coverage ratio is calculated to be less than the minimum requirement in § 329.10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity plan.</I> (1) For the period during which an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio on the last business day of each applicable calendar month under subpart F of this part, if the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 329.10 for any calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month, or if the FDIC has determined that the FDIC-supervised institution is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the FDIC-supervised institution must promptly consult with the FDIC to determine whether the FDIC-supervised institution must provide to the FDIC a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 329.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) For the period during which an FDIC-supervised institution must calculate a liquidity coverage ratio each business day under subpart F of this part, if a FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity coverage ratio is below the minimum requirement in § 329.10 for three consecutive business days, or if the FDIC has determined that the FDIC-supervised institution is otherwise materially noncompliant with the requirements of this part, the FDIC-supervised institution must promptly provide to the FDIC a plan for achieving compliance with the minimum liquidity requirement in § 329.10 and all other requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity position;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the FDIC-supervised institution has taken and will take to achieve full compliance with this part, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the FDIC-supervised institution's risk profile, risk management, and funding sources in order to achieve full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A commitment to report to the FDIC no less than weekly on progress to achieve compliance in accordance with the plan until full compliance with this part is achieved.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The FDIC may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Transitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.50" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.6.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.50   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No transition for certain FDIC-supervised institutions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that is subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part prior to December 31, 2019 must comply with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part as of December 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution that initially becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 329.1(b)(1)(i) must comply with the requirements of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this part, except that an FDIC-supervised institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) For the first two calendar quarters after the FDIC-supervised institution begins complying with the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio monthly, on each calculation date that is the last business day of the applicable calendar month; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning the first day of the fifth calendar quarter after the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part and continuing thereafter, calculate and maintain a liquidity coverage ratio on each calculation date.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that becomes subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part under § 329.1(b)(1)(ii), must comply with the requirements of this part subject to a transition period specified by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition into a different outflow adjustment percentage.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution whose outflow adjustment percentage changes is subject to transition periods as set forth in § 329.30(d).
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that is no longer subject to the minimum liquidity standard and other requirements of this part pursuant to § 329.1(b)(1)(i) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, the instructions to the FR Y-9LP or the FR Y-15 or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with this part as of the first day of the first quarter after it is no longer subject to § 329.1(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The FDIC may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the FDIC determines that such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the FDIC will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with this part, and the actions the FDIC-supervised supervised institution is taking to come into compliance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 59283, Nov. 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts G-J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Net Stable Funding Ratio</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 329.100" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.100   Net stable funding ratio.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum net stable funding ratio requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must maintain a net stable funding ratio that is equal to or greater than 1.0 on an ongoing basis in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of the net stable funding ratio.</I> For purposes of this part, an FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio equals:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's available stable funding (ASF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 329.103, as of the calculation date; divided by
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's required stable funding (RSF) amount, calculated pursuant to § 329.105, as of the calculation date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.101   Determining maturity.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating its net stable funding ratio, including its ASF amount and RSF amount, under subparts K through N, an FDIC-supervised institution shall assume each of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) With respect to any NSFR liability, the NSFR liability matures according to § 329.31(a)(1) of this part without regard to whether the NSFR liability is subject to § 329.32;
</P>
<P>(b) With respect to an asset, the asset matures according to § 329.31(a)(2) of this part without regard to whether the asset is subject to § 329.33 of this part;
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that is perpetual, the NSFR liability or asset matures one year or more after the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(d) With respect to an NSFR liability or asset that has an open maturity, the NSFR liability or asset matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date, except that in the case of a deferred tax liability, the NSFR liability matures on the first calendar day after the calculation date on which the deferred tax liability could be realized; and
</P>
<P>(e) With respect to any principal payment of an NSFR liability or asset, such as an amortizing loan, that is due prior to the maturity of the NSFR liability or asset, the payment matures on the date on which it is contractually due.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.102" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.102   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Balance-sheet metric.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is not included on an FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet is not assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable; and an NSFR regulatory capital element, NSFR liability, or asset that is included on an FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet is assigned an RSF factor or ASF factor, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Netting of certain transactions.</I> Where an FDIC-supervised institution has secured lending transactions, secured funding transactions, or asset exchanges with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from the counterparty under the transactions by the gross value of payables under the transactions due to the counterparty, the receivables or payables associated with the offsetting transactions that are not included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet are treated as if they were included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet with carrying values, unless the criteria in 12 CFR 324.10(c)(2)(v)(A) through (C) are met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of Securities Received in an Asset Exchange by a Securities Lender.</I> Where an FDIC-supervised institution receives a security in an asset exchange, acts as a securities lender, includes the carrying value of the received security on its balance sheet, and has not rehypothecated the security received:
</P>
<P>(1) The security received by the FDIC-supervised institution is not assigned an RSF factor; and
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation to return the security received by the FDIC-supervised institution is not assigned an ASF factor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.103" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.103   Calculation of available stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>An FDIC-supervised institution's ASF amount equals the sum of the carrying values of the FDIC-supervised institution's NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities, in each case multiplied by the ASF factor applicable in § 329.104 or § 329.107(c) and consolidated in accordance with § 329.109.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.104" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.104   ASF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NSFR regulatory capital elements and NSFR liabilities assigned a 100 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR regulatory capital element or NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 100 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An NSFR regulatory capital element; or
</P>
<P>(2) An NSFR liability that has a maturity of one year or more from the calculation date, is not described in paragraph (d)(9) of this section, and is not a retail deposit or brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 95 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 95 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A stable retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) held at the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A sweep deposit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a controlled subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is entirely covered by deposit insurance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FDIC that a withdrawal of such deposit is highly unlikely to occur during a liquidity stress event.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 90 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 90 percent ASF factor if it is funding provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A retail deposit (regardless of maturity or collateralization) other than a stable retail deposit or brokered deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered reciprocal deposit where the entire amount is covered by deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(3) A sweep deposit that is deposited in accordance with a contract between the retail customer or counterparty and the FDIC-supervised institution, a controlled subsidiary of the FDIC-supervised institution, or a company that is a controlled subsidiary of the same top-tier company of which the FDIC-supervised institution is a controlled subsidiary, where the sweep deposit does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) A brokered deposit that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or a sweep deposit, that is not held in a transactional account, and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a 50 percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 50 percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution or an operational deposit placed at the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures less than one year from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit placed at the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Unsecured wholesale funding that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not a security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution or an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(4) A secured funding transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The secured funding transaction matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The secured funding transaction is not a collateralized deposit that is an operational deposit;
</P>
<P>(5) A security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(6) An operational deposit placed at the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(7) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (c) or (e)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(8) A sweep deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not described in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(9) An NSFR liability owed to a retail customer or counterparty that is not a deposit and is not a security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(10) Any other NSFR liability that matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (c) or (d)(1) through (d)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NSFR liabilities assigned a zero percent ASF factor.</I> An NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a zero percent ASF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A trade date payable that results from a purchase by the FDIC-supervised institution of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is contractually required to settle within the lesser of the market standard settlement period for the particular transaction and five business days from the date of the sale;
</P>
<P>(2) A brokered deposit provided by a retail customer or counterparty that is not a brokered reciprocal deposit or sweep deposit, is not held in a transactional account, and matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(4) An NSFR liability with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(i) The counterparty is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary of a financial sector entity, or a central bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NSFR liability matures less than six months from the calculation date or has an open maturity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NSFR liability is not a security issued by the FDIC-supervised institution or an operational deposit placed at the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other NSFR liability that matures less than six months from the calculation date and is not described in paragraphs (a) through (d) or (e)(1) through (4) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.105" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.105   Calculation of required stable funding amount.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required stable funding amount.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's RSF amount equals the FDIC-supervised institution's required stable funding adjustment percentage as determined under paragraph (b) of this section multiplied by the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) The carrying values of an FDIC-supervised institution's assets (other than amounts included in the calculation of the derivatives RSF amount pursuant to § 329.107(b)) and the undrawn amounts of an FDIC-supervised institution's credit and liquidity facilities, in each case multiplied by the RSF factors applicable in § 329.106; and
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised institution's derivatives RSF amount calculated pursuant to § 329.107(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's required stable funding adjustment percentage is determined pursuant to Table 1 to this paragraph (b).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(b)</E>—Required Stable Funding Adjustment Percentages
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GSIB depository institution supervised by the FDIC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category II FDIC-supervised institution</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III FDIC-supervised institution that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part, in each case with $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Has $75 billion or more in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Category III FDIC-supervised institution that:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) Is a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part, in each case with less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding; or
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) Has less than $75 billion in average weighted short-term wholesale funding and is not a consolidated subsidiary of (a) a covered depository institution holding company or U.S. intermediate holding company identified as a Category III banking organization pursuant to 12 CFR 252.5 or 12 CFR 238.10 or (b) a depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (2)(ii)(A) and (B) of the definition of Category III FDIC-supervised institution in this part.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Transition into a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage increases from a lower to a higher required stable funding adjustment percentage may continue to use its previous lower required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the third calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage increases.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases from a higher to a lower required stable funding adjustment percentage must continue to use its previous higher required stable funding adjustment percentage until the first day of the first calendar quarter after the required stable funding adjustment percentage decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9220, 9221, Feb. 11, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.106" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.106   RSF factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments.</I> All assets and undrawn amounts under credit and liquidity facilities, unless otherwise provided in § 329.107(b) relating to derivative transactions or paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, are assigned RSF factors as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a zero percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a zero percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Currency and coin;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cash item in the process of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Reserve Bank balance or other claim on a Reserve Bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(iv) A claim on a foreign central bank that matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(v) A trade date receivable due to the FDIC-supervised institution resulting from the FDIC-supervised institution's sale of a financial instrument, foreign currency, or commodity that is required to settle no later than the market standard, without extension, for the particular transaction, and that has yet to settle but is not more than five business days past the scheduled settlement date;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other level 1 liquid asset not described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (a)(1)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(vii) A secured lending transaction with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The secured lending transaction matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The secured lending transaction is secured by level 1 liquid assets;
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(D) The FDIC-supervised institution retains the right to rehypothecate the collateral provided by the counterparty for the duration of the secured lending transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unencumbered assets and commitments assigned a 5 percent RSF factor.</I> An undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility extended by an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 5 percent RSF factor. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(2), the undrawn amount of a committed credit facility or committed liquidity facility is the entire unused amount of the facility that could be drawn upon within one year of the calculation date under the governing agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 15 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 15 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2A liquid asset; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures less than six months from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section and is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 50 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 50 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A level 2B liquid asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset matures six months or more, but less than one year, from the calculation date;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; and
</P>
<P>(C) The asset is not an operational deposit described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) An operational deposit placed by the FDIC-supervised institution at a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An asset that is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) or (a)(4)(i) through (a)(4)(iii) of this section that matures less than one year from the calculation date, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a wholesale customer or counterparty that is not a financial sector entity, a consolidated subsidiary thereof, or a central bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) Lending to a retail customer or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 65 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 65 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 50 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of no greater than 20 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned an 85 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned an 85 percent RSF factor if it is one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A retail mortgage that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is assigned a risk weight of greater than 50 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324;
</P>
<P>(ii) A secured lending transaction, unsecured wholesale lending, or lending to a retail customer or counterparty with the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower is not a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) The asset matures one year or more from the calculation date; and
</P>
<P>(D) The asset is assigned a risk weight of greater than 20 percent under subpart D of 12 CFR part 324;
</P>
<P>(iii) A publicly traded common equity share that is not HQLA;
</P>
<P>(iv) A security, other than a publicly traded common equity share, that matures one year or more from the calculation date and is not HQLA; or
</P>
<P>(v) A commodity for which derivative transactions are traded on a U.S. board of trade or trading facility designated as a contract market under sections 5 and 6 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7 and 8) or on a U.S. swap execution facility registered under section 5h of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7b-3) or on another exchange, whether located in the United States or in a jurisdiction outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Unencumbered assets assigned a 100 percent RSF factor.</I> An asset of an FDIC-supervised institution is assigned a 100 percent RSF factor if it is not described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section, including a secured lending transaction or unsecured wholesale lending where the borrower is a financial sector entity or a consolidated subsidiary thereof and that matures one year or more from the calculation date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonperforming assets.</I> An RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to any asset that is past due by more than 90 days or nonaccrual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Encumbered assets.</I> An encumbered asset, unless otherwise provided in § 329.107(b) relating to derivative transactions, is assigned an RSF factor as follows:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Encumbered assets with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with less than six months remaining in the encumbrance period, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if the asset were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Encumbered assets with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with six months or more, but less than one year, remaining in the encumbrance period:
</P>
<P>(A) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of 50 percent or less under paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(4) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, an RSF factor of 50 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) If the asset would be assigned an RSF factor of greater than 50 percent under paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(7) of this section if the asset were not encumbered, the same RSF factor is assigned to the asset as would be assigned if it were not encumbered.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Encumbered assets with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period.</I> For an encumbered asset with one year or more remaining in the encumbrance period, an RSF factor of 100 percent is assigned to the asset.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assets encumbered for period longer than remaining maturity.</I> If an asset is encumbered for an encumbrance period longer than the asset's maturity, the asset is assigned an RSF factor under paragraph (c)(1) of this section based on the length of the encumbrance period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregated account assets.</I> An asset held in a segregated account maintained pursuant to statutory or regulatory requirements for the protection of customer assets is not considered encumbered for purposes of this paragraph solely because such asset is held in the segregated account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Off-balance sheet rehypothecated assets.</I> When an NSFR liability of an FDIC-supervised institution is secured by an off-balance sheet asset or results from the FDIC-supervised institution selling an off-balance sheet asset (for instance, in the case of a short sale), other than an off-balance sheet asset received by the FDIC-supervised institution as variation margin under a derivative transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) If the FDIC-supervised institution received the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction, an RSF factor is assigned to the lending transaction as if it were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the lending transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the FDIC-supervised institution received the off-balance sheet asset under an asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the asset provided by the FDIC-supervised institution in the asset exchange as if the provided asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the provided asset; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the FDIC-supervised institution did not receive the off-balance sheet asset under a lending transaction or asset exchange, an RSF factor is assigned to the on-balance sheet asset resulting from the rehypothecation of the off-balance sheet asset as if the on-balance sheet asset were encumbered for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity of the NSFR liability; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other encumbrance period applicable to the transaction through which the off-balance sheet asset was received.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.107" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.107   Calculation of NSFR derivatives amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must calculate its derivatives RSF amount and certain components of its ASF amount relating to the FDIC-supervised institution's derivative transactions (which includes cleared derivative transactions of a customer with respect to which the FDIC-supervised institution is acting as agent for the customer that are included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet under GAAP) in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of required stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution's derivatives RSF amount equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current derivative transaction values.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution's NSFR derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the FDIC-supervised institution under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set, to the extent the variation margin reduces the FDIC-supervised institution's derivatives liability value under the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, multiplied by an RSF factor of zero percent;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Excess variation margin provided.</I> The carrying value of variation margin provided by the FDIC-supervised institution under each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set in excess of the amount described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for each derivative transaction or QMNA netting set, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 329.106;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Variation margin received.</I> The carrying value of variation margin received by the FDIC-supervised institution, multiplied by the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the variation margin pursuant to § 329.106;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Potential valuation changes.</I> (i) An amount equal to 5 percent of the sum of the gross derivative values of the FDIC-supervised institution that are liabilities, as calculated under paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, for each of the FDIC-supervised institution's derivative transactions not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each of its QMNA netting sets, multiplied by an RSF factor of 100 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (5)(i) of this section, the gross derivative value of a derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or of a QMNA netting set is equal to the value to the FDIC-supervised institution, calculated as if no variation margin had been exchanged and no settlement payments had been made based on changes in the value of the derivative transaction or QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contributions to central counterparty mutualized loss sharing arrangements.</I> The fair value of an FDIC-supervised institution's contribution to a central counterparty's mutualized loss sharing arrangement (regardless of whether the contribution is included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor of 85 percent; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Initial margin provided.</I> The fair value of initial margin provided by the FDIC-supervised institution for derivative transactions (regardless of whether the initial margin is included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet), which does not include initial margin provided by the FDIC-supervised institution for cleared derivative transactions with respect to which the FDIC-supervised institution is acting as agent for a customer and the FDIC-supervised institution does not guarantee the obligations of the customer's counterparty to the customer under the derivative transaction (such initial margin would be assigned an RSF factor pursuant to § 329.106 to the extent the initial margin is included on the FDIC-supervised institution's balance sheet), multiplied by an RSF factor equal to the higher of 85 percent or the RSF factor assigned to each asset comprising the initial margin pursuant to § 329.106.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of available stable funding amount relating to derivative transactions.</I> The following amounts of an FDIC-supervised institution are assigned a zero percent ASF factor:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution's NSFR derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The carrying value of NSFR liabilities in the form of an obligation to return initial margin or variation margin received by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of NSFR derivatives asset or liability amount.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution's NSFR derivatives asset amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, less the FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution's NSFR derivatives liability amount is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) Zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives liability amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, less the FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives asset amount, as calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of total derivatives asset and liability amounts.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives asset amount is the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's derivatives asset values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution's total derivatives liability amount is the sum of the FDIC-supervised institution's derivatives liability values, as calculated under paragraph (f)(2) of this section, for each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculation of derivatives asset and liability values.</I> For each derivative transaction not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement and each QMNA netting set:
</P>
<P>(1) The derivatives asset value is equal to the asset value to the FDIC-supervised institution, after taking into account:
</P>
<P>(i) Any variation margin received by the FDIC-supervised institution that is in the form of cash and meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The variation margin is not segregated;
</P>
<P>(B) The variation margin is received in connection with a derivative transaction that is governed by a QMNA or other contract between the counterparties to the derivative transaction, which stipulates that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided;
</P>
<P>(C) The variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract; and
</P>
<P>(D) The variation margin is in a currency specified as an acceptable currency to settle obligations in the relevant governing contract; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any variation margin received by the FDIC-supervised institution that is in the form of level 1 liquid assets and meets the conditions of paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section provided the FDIC-supervised institution retains the right to rehypothecate the asset for the duration of time that the asset is posted as variation margin to the FDIC-supervised institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) The derivatives liability value is equal to the liability value of the FDIC-supervised institution, after taking into account any variation margin provided by the FDIC-supervised institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.108" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.108   Funding related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Treatment of Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding.</I> Notwithstanding any other section of this part and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, available stable funding amounts and required stable funding amounts related to Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and the assets securing Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are excluded from the calculation of an FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 329.100(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> To the extent the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding is secured by securities, debt obligations, or other instruments issued by the FDIC-supervised institution or one of its consolidated subsidiaries, the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding and assets securing the Covered Federal Reserve Facility Funding are not subject to paragraph (a) of this section and the available stable funding amount and required stable funding amount must be included in the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio calculated under § 329.100(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 329.109" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.8.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.109   Rules for consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidated subsidiary available stable funding amount.</I> For available stable funding of a legal entity that is a consolidated subsidiary of an FDIC-supervised institution, including a consolidated subsidiary organized under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction, the FDIC-supervised institution may include the available stable funding of the consolidated subsidiary in its ASF amount up to:
</P>
<P>(1) The RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the FDIC-supervised institution for the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio under this part; plus
</P>
<P>(2) Any amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, as calculated by the FDIC-supervised institution for the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio under this part, to the extent the consolidated subsidiary may transfer assets to the top-tier FDIC-supervised institution, taking into account statutory, regulatory, contractual, or supervisory restrictions, such as sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 12 U.S.C. 371c-1) and Regulation W (12 CFR part 223).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required consolidation procedures.</I> To the extent an FDIC-supervised institution includes an ASF amount in excess of the RSF amount of the consolidated subsidiary, the FDIC-supervised institution must implement and maintain written procedures to identify and monitor applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions on transferring assets from any of its consolidated subsidiaries. These procedures must document which types of transactions the FDIC-supervised institution could use to transfer assets from a consolidated subsidiary to the FDIC-supervised institution and how these types of transactions comply with applicable statutory, regulatory, contractual, supervisory, or other restrictions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Net Stable Funding Shortfall</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9220, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 329.110" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.9.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.110   NSFR shortfall: supervisory framework.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification requirements.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must notify the FDIC no later than 10 business days, or such other period as the FDIC may otherwise require by written notice, following the date that any event has occurred that would cause or has caused the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio to be less than 1.0 as required under § 329.100.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity Plan.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution must within 10 business days, or such other period as the FDIC may otherwise require by written notice, provide to the FDIC a plan for achieving a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 329.100 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised institution has or should have provided notice, pursuant to §329.110(a), that the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio is, or will become, less than 1.0 as required under § 329.100;
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC-supervised institution's reports or disclosures to the FDIC indicate that the FDIC-supervised institution's net stable funding ratio is less than 1.0 as required under § 329.100; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC notifies the FDIC-supervised institution in writing that a plan is required and provides a reason for requiring such a plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actions the FDIC-supervised institution has taken and will take to achieve a net stable funding ratio equal to or greater than 1.0 as required under § 329.100, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A plan for adjusting the FDIC-supervised institution's liquidity profile;
</P>
<P>(B) A plan for remediating any operational or management issues that contributed to noncompliance with subpart K of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An estimated time frame for achieving full compliance with § 329.100.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC-supervised institution must report to the FDIC at least monthly, or such other frequency as required by the FDIC, on progress to achieve full compliance with § 329.100.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supervisory and enforcement actions.</I> The FDIC may, at its discretion, take additional supervisory or enforcement actions to address noncompliance with the minimum net stable funding ratio and other requirements of subparts K through N of this part (see also § 329.2(c)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Transitions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9221, Feb. 11, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 329.120" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.20.10.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 329.120   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial application.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution that initially becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 329.1(b)(1)(i) after July 1, 2021, must comply with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part beginning on the first day of the third calendar quarter after which the FDIC-supervised institution becomes subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that becomes subject to the minimum net stable funding requirement under § 329.1(b)(1)(ii) must comply with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part subject to a transition period specified by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition to a different required stable funding adjustment percentage.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised institution whose required stable funding adjustment percentage changes is subject to the transition periods as set forth in § 329.105(c).
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution that is no longer subject to the minimum stable funding requirement of this part pursuant to § 329.1(b)(1)(i) based on the size of total consolidated assets, cross-jurisdictional activity, total nonbank assets, weighted short-term wholesale funding, or off-balance sheet exposure calculated in accordance with the Call Report, or instructions to the FR Y-9LP, the FR Y-15, or equivalent reporting form, as applicable, for each of the four most recent calendar quarters may cease compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part as of the first day of the first calendar quarter after it is no longer subject to § 329.1(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The FDIC may extend or accelerate any compliance date of this part if the FDIC determines such extension or acceleration is appropriate. In determining whether an extension or acceleration is appropriate, the FDIC will consider the effect of the modification on financial stability, the period of time for which the modification would be necessary to facilitate compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part, and the actions the FDIC-supervised institution is taking to come into compliance with the requirements of subparts K through M of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="330" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 330—DEPOSIT INSURANCE COVERAGE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>), 1813(m), 1817(i), 1818(q), 1819(a)(Tenth), 1820(f), 1820(g), 1821(a), 1821(d), 1822(c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 330.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I> has the same meaning as provided under section 3(x) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(x)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposit</I> has the same meaning as provided under section 3(l) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(l)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deposit account records</I> means account ledgers, signature cards, certificates of deposit, passbooks, corporate resolutions authorizing accounts in the possession of the insured depository institution and other books and records of the insured depository institution, including records maintained by computer, which relate to the insured depository institution's deposit taking function, but does not mean account statements, deposit slips, items deposited or cancelled checks.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Independent activity.</I> A corporation, partnership or unincorporated association shall be deemed to be engaged in an “independent activity” if the entity is operated primarily for some purpose other than to increase deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured branch</I> means a branch of a foreign bank any deposits in which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Act.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insured deposit</I> has the same meaning as that provided under section 3(m)(1) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(m)(1)) and this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Insured depository institution</I> is any depository institution whose deposits are insured pursuant to the Act, including a foreign bank having an insured branch.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Interest,</I> with respect to a deposit, means any payment to or for the account of any depositor as compensation for the use of funds constituting a deposit. A bank's absorption of expenses incident to providing a normal banking function or its forbearance from charging a fee in connection with such a service is not considered a payment of interest.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Natural person</I> means a human being.
</P>
<P>(m) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Sole proprietorship</I> means a form of business in which one person owns all the assets of the business, in contrast to a partnership or corporation.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Standard maximum deposit insurance amount,</I> referred to as the “SMDIA” hereafter, means $250,000 adjusted pursuant to subparagraph (F) of section 11(a)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)(F)).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Trust estate</I> means the determinable and beneficial interest of a beneficiary or principal in trust funds but does not include the beneficial interest of an heir or devisee in a decedent's estate.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Trust funds</I> means funds held by an insured depository institution as trustee pursuant to any irrevocable trust established pursuant to any statute or written trust agreement.
</P>
<P>(r)-(s) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 73 FR 61660, Oct. 17, 2008; 74 FR 47716, Sept. 17, 2009; 75 FR 49365, Aug. 13, 2010; 75 FR 69583, Nov. 15, 2010; 76 FR 4816, Jan. 27, 2011; 76 FR 41395, July 14, 2011; 78 FR 56588, Sept. 13, 2013; 80 FR 65921, Oct. 28, 2015; 87 FR 4470, Jan. 28, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to clarify the rules and define the terms necessary to afford deposit insurance coverage under the Act and provide rules for the recognition of deposit ownership in various circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.3   General principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ownership rights and capacities.</I> The insurance coverage provided by the Act and this part is based upon the ownership rights and capacities in which deposit accounts are maintained at insured depository institutions. All deposits in an insured depository institution which are maintained in the same right and capacity (by or for the benefit of a particular depositor or depositors) shall be added together and insured in accordance with this part. Deposits maintained in different rights and capacities, as recognized under this part, shall be insured separately from each other. (Example: Single ownership accounts and joint ownership accounts are insured separately from each other.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deposits maintained in separate insured depository institutions or in separate branches of the same insured depository institution.</I> Any deposit accounts maintained by a depositor at one insured depository institution are insured separately from, and without regard to, any deposit accounts that the same depositor maintains at any other separately chartered and insured depository institution, even if two or more separately chartered and insured depository institutions are affiliated through common ownership. (Example: Deposits held by the same individual at two different banks owned by the same bank holding company would be insured separately, per bank.)
</P>
<P>The deposit accounts of a depositor maintained in the same right and capacity at different branches or offices of the same insured depository institution are not separately insured; rather they shall be added together and insured in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deposits maintained by foreigners and deposits denominated in foreign currency.</I> The availability of deposit insurance is not limited to citizens and residents of the United States. Any person or entity that maintains deposits in an insured depository institution is entitled to the deposit insurance provided by the Act and this part. In addition, deposits denominated in a foreign currency shall be insured in accordance with this part. Deposit insurance for such deposits shall be determined and paid in the amount of United States dollars that is equivalent in value to the amount of the deposit denominated in the foreign currency as of close of business on the date of default of the insured depository institution. The exchange rates to be used for such conversions are the 12 PM rates (the “noon buying rates for cable transfers”) quoted for major currencies by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York on the date of default of the insured depository institution, unless the deposit agreement specifies that some other widely recognized exchange rates are to be used for all purposes under that agreement, in which case, the rates so specified shall be used for such conversions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposits in insured branches of foreign banks.</I> Deposits in an insured branch of a foreign bank which are payable by contract in the United States shall be insured in accordance with this part, except that any deposits to the credit of the foreign bank, or any office, branch, agency or any wholly owned subsidiary of the foreign bank, shall not be insured. All deposits held by a depositor in the same right and capacity in more than one insured branch of the same foreign bank shall be added together for the purpose of determining the amount of deposit insurance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deposits payable outside of the United States and certain other locations.</I> (1) Any obligation of an insured depository institution which is payable solely at an office of that institution located outside any State, as the term “State” is defined in section 3(a)(3) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3)), is not a deposit for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, any obligation of an insured depository institution which is carried on the books and records of an office of that institution located outside any State, as referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, shall not be an insured deposit for purposes of this part, or any other provision of this part, notwithstanding that the obligation may also be payable at an office of that institution located within any State.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rule of construction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e), the following are not considered to be offices located outside any State, as referred to in paragraph (e)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Overseas Military Banking Facilities operated under U.S. Department of Defense regulations, 32 CFR parts 230 and 231; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Branches of U.S.-insured depository institutions in the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands, or the Republic of Palau.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>International banking facility deposits.</I> An “international banking facility time deposit,” as defined by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in Regulation D (12 CFR 204.8(a)(2)), or in any successor regulation, is not a deposit for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Bank investment contracts.</I> As required by section 11(a)(8) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(8)), any liability arising under any investment contract between any insured depository institution and any employee benefit plan which expressly permits “benefit responsive withdrawals or transfers” (as defined in section 11(a)(8) of the Act) are not insured deposits for purposes of this part. The term “substantial penalty or adjustment” used in section 11(a)(8) of the Act means, in the case of a deposit having an original term which exceeds one year, all interest earned on the amount withdrawn from the date of deposit or for six months, whichever is less; or, in the case of a deposit having an original term of one year or less, all interest earned on the amount withdrawn from the date of deposit or three months, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Application of state or local law to deposit insurance determinations.</I> In general, deposit insurance is for the benefit of the owner or owners of funds on deposit. However, while ownership under state law of deposited funds is a necessary condition for deposit insurance, ownership under state law is not sufficient for, or decisive in, determining deposit insurance coverage. Deposit insurance coverage is also a function of the deposit account records of the insured depository institution and of the provisions of this part, which, in the interest of uniform national rules for deposit insurance coverage, are controlling for purposes of determining deposit insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Determination of the amount of a deposit</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The amount of a deposit is the balance of principal and interest unconditionally credited to the deposit account as of the date of default of the insured depository institution, plus the ascertainable amount of interest to that date, accrued at the contract rate (or the anticipated or announced interest or dividend rate), which the insured depository institution in default would have paid if the deposit had matured on that date and the insured depository institution had not failed. In the absence of any such announced or anticipated interest or dividend rate, the rate for this purpose shall be whatever rate was paid in the immediately preceding payment period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discounted certificates of deposit.</I> The amount of a certificate of deposit sold by an insured depository institution at a discount from its face value is its original purchase price plus the amount of accrued earnings calculated by compounding interest annually at the rate necessary to increase the original purchase price to the maturity value over the life of the certificate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver of minimum requirements.</I> In the case of a deposit with a fixed payment date, fixed or minimum term, or a qualifying or notice period that has not expired as of such date, interest thereon to the date of closing shall be computed according to the terms of the deposit contract as if interest had been credited and as if the deposit could have been withdrawn on such date without any penalty or reduction in the rate of earnings.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Continuation of insurance coverage following the death of a deposit owner.</I> The death of a deposit owner shall not affect the insurance coverage of the deposit for a period of six months following the owner's death unless the deposit account is restructured. The operation of this grace period, however, shall not result in a reduction of coverage. If an account is not restructured within six months after the owner's death, the insurance shall be provided on the basis of actual ownership in accordance with the provisions of § 330.5(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 15656, Apr. 1, 1999; 78 FR 56589, Sept. 13, 2013; 89 FR 65170, Aug. 9, 2024; 91 FR 13705, Mar. 23, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.4   Continuation of separate deposit insurance after merger of insured depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the liabilities of one or more insured depository institutions for deposits are assumed by another insured depository institution, whether by merger, consolidation, other statutory assumption or contract:
</P>
<P>(a) The insured status of the institutions whose liabilities have been assumed terminates on the date of receipt by the FDIC of satisfactory evidence of the assumption; and
</P>
<P>(b) The separate insurance of deposits assumed continues for six months from the date the assumption takes effect or, in the case of a time deposit, the earliest maturity date after the six-month period. In the case of time deposits which mature within six months of the date the deposits are assumed and which are renewed at the same dollar amount (either with or without accrued interest having been added to the principal amount) and for the same term as the original deposit, the separate insurance applies to the renewed deposits until the first maturity date after the six-month period. Time deposits that mature within six months of the deposit assumption and that are renewed on any other basis, or that are not renewed and thereby become demand deposits, are separately insured only until the end of the six-month period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.5   Recognition of deposit ownership and fiduciary relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recognition of deposit ownership</I>—(1) <I>Evidence of deposit ownership.</I> Except as indicated in this paragraph (a)(1) or as provided in § 330.3(j), in determining the amount of insurance available to each depositor, the FDIC shall presume that deposited funds are actually owned in the manner indicated on the deposit account records of the insured depository institution. If the FDIC, in its sole discretion, determines that the deposit account records of the insured depository institution are clear and unambiguous, those records shall be considered binding on the depositor, and the FDIC shall consider no other records on the manner in which the funds are owned. If the deposit account records are ambiguous or unclear on the manner in which the funds are owned, then the FDIC may, in its sole discretion, consider evidence other than the deposit account records of the insured depository institution for the purpose of establishing the manner in which the funds are owned. Despite the general requirements of this paragraph (a)(1), if the FDIC has reason to believe that the insured depository institution's deposit account records misrepresent the actual ownership of deposited funds and such misrepresentation would increase deposit insurance coverage, the FDIC may consider all available evidence and pay claims for insured deposits on the basis of the actual rather than the misrepresented ownership.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Recognition of deposit ownership in custodial accounts.</I> In the case of custodial deposits, the interest of each beneficial owner may be determined on a fractional or percentage basis. This may be accomplished in any manner which indicates that where the funds of an owner are commingled with other funds held in a custodial capacity and a portion thereof is placed on deposit in one or more insured depository institutions without allocation, the owner's insured interest in the deposit in any one insured depository institution would represent, at any given time, the same fractional share as his or her share of the total commingled funds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fiduciary relationships</I>—(1) <I>Recognition.</I> The FDIC will recognize a claim for insurance coverage based on a fiduciary relationship only if the relationship is expressly disclosed, by way of specific references, in the “deposit account records” (as defined in § 330.1(e)) of the insured depository institution. Such relationships include, but are not limited to, relationships involving a trustee, agent, nominee, guardian, executor or custodian pursuant to which funds are deposited. The express indication that the account is held in a fiduciary capacity will not be necessary, however, in instances where the FDIC determines, in its sole discretion, that the titling of the deposit account and the underlying deposit account records sufficiently indicate the existence of a fiduciary relationship. This exception may apply, for example, where the deposit account title or records indicate that the account is held by an escrow agent, title company or a company whose business is to hold deposits and securities for others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Details of fiduciary relationships.</I> If the deposit account records of an insured depository institution disclose the existence of a relationship which might provide a basis for additional insurance (including the exception provided for in paragraph (b)(1) of this section), the details of the relationship and the interests of other parties in the account must be ascertainable either from the deposit account records of the insured depository institution or from records maintained, in good faith and in the regular course of business, by the depositor or by some person or entity that has undertaken to maintain such records for the depositor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multi-tiered fiduciary relationships.</I> In deposit accounts where there are multiple levels of fiduciary relationships, there are two methods of satisfying paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section to obtain insurance coverage for the interests of the true beneficial owners of a deposit account.
</P>
<P>(i) One method is to:
</P>
<P>(A) Expressly indicate, on the deposit account records of the insured depository institution, the existence of each and every level of fiduciary relationships; and
</P>
<P>(B) Disclose, at each level, the name(s) and interest(s) of the person(s) on whose behalf the party at that level is acting.
</P>
<P>(ii) An alternative method is to:
</P>
<P>(A) Expressly indicate, on the deposit account records of the insured depository institution, that there are multiple levels of fiduciary relationships;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclose the existence of additional levels of fiduciary relationships in records, maintained in good faith and in the regular course of business, by parties at subsequent levels; and
</P>
<P>(C) Disclose, at each of the levels, the name(s) and interest(s) of the person(s) on whose behalf the party at that level is acting. No person or entity in the chain of parties will be permitted to claim that they are acting in a fiduciary capacity for others unless the possible existence of such a relationship is revealed at some previous level in the chain.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Deposits evidenced by negotiable instruments.</I> If any deposit obligation of an insured depository institution is evidenced by a negotiable certificate of deposit, negotiable draft, negotiable cashier's or officer's check, negotiable certified check, negotiable traveler's check, letter of credit or other negotiable instrument, the FDIC will recognize the owner of such deposit obligation for all purposes of claim for insured deposits to the same extent as if his or her name and interest were disclosed on the records of the insured depository institution; provided, that the instrument was in fact negotiated to such owner prior to the date of default of the insured depository institution. The owner must provide affirmative proof of such negotiation, in a form satisfactory to the FDIC, to substantiate his or her claim. Receipt of a negotiable instrument directly from the insured depository institution in default shall, in no event, be considered a negotiation of said instrument for purposes of this provision.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Deposit obligations for payment of items forwarded for collection by depository institution acting as agent.</I> Where an insured depository institution in default has become obligated for the payment of items forwarded for collection by a depository institution acting solely as agent, the FDIC will recognize the holders of such items for all purposes of claim for insured deposits to the same extent as if their name(s) and interest(s) were disclosed as depositors on the deposit account records of the insured depository institution, when such claim for insured deposits, if otherwise payable, has been established by the execution and delivery of prescribed forms. The FDIC will recognize such depository institution forwarding such items for the holders thereof as agent for such holders for the purpose of making an assignment to the FDIC of their rights against the insured depository institution in default and for the purpose of receiving payment on their behalf.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 15656, Apr. 1, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.6   Single ownership accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual accounts.</I> Funds owned by a natural person and deposited in one or more deposit accounts in his or her own name shall be added together and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate. Exception: Despite the general requirement in this paragraph (a), if more than one natural person has the right to withdraw funds from an individual account (excluding persons who have the right to withdraw by virtue of a Power of Attorney), the account shall be treated as a joint ownership account (although not necessarily a qualifying joint account) and shall be insured in accordance with the provisions of § 330.9, unless the deposit account records clearly indicate, to the satisfaction of the FDIC, that the funds are owned by one individual and that other signatories on the account are merely authorized to withdraw funds on behalf of the owner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sole proprietorship accounts.</I> Funds owned by a business which is a “sole proprietorship” (as defined in § 330.1(n)) and deposited in one or more deposit accounts in the name of the business shall be treated as the individual account(s) of the person who is the sole proprietor, added to any other individual accounts of that person, and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Single-name accounts containing community property funds.</I> Community property funds deposited into one or more deposit accounts in the name of one member of a husband-wife community shall be treated as the individual account(s) of the named member, added to any other individual accounts of that person, and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accounts of a decedent and accounts held by executors or administrators of a decedent's estate.</I> Funds held in the name of a decedent or in the name of the executor, administrator, or other personal representative of his or her estate and deposited into one or more deposit accounts shall be added together and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate; provided, however, that nothing in this paragraph (d) shall affect the operation of § 330.3(j). The deposit insurance provided by this paragraph (d) shall be separate from any insurance coverage provided for the individual deposit accounts of the executor, administrator, other personal representative or the beneficiaries of the estate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 76 FR 41395, July 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.7   Accounts held by an agent, nominee, guardian, custodian or conservator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agency or nominee accounts.</I> Funds owned by a principal or principals and deposited into one or more deposit accounts in the name of an agent, custodian or nominee, shall be insured to the same extent as if deposited in the name of the principal(s). When such funds are deposited by an insured depository institution acting as a trustee of an irrevocable trust, the insurance coverage shall be governed by the provisions of § 330.13.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guardian, custodian or conservator accounts.</I> Funds held by a guardian, custodian, or conservator for the benefit of his or her ward, or for the benefit of a minor under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act, and deposited into one or more accounts in the name of the guardian, custodian or conservator shall, for purposes of this part, be deemed to be agency or nominee accounts and shall be insured in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounts held by fiduciaries on behalf of two or more persons.</I> Funds held by an agent, nominee, guardian, custodian, conservator or loan servicer, on behalf of two or more persons jointly, shall be treated as a joint ownership account and shall be insured in accordance with the provisions of § 330.9.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mortgage servicing accounts.</I> Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments of principal and interest, shall be insured for the cumulative balance paid into the account by mortgagors, or in order to satisfy mortgagors' principal or interest obligations to the lender, up to the limit of the SMDIA per mortgagor. Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments by mortgagors of taxes and insurance premiums shall be added together and insured in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section for the ownership interest of each mortgagor in such accounts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Custodian accounts for American Indians.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any interest an individual American Indian may have in funds deposited by the Bureau of Indian Affairs of the United States Department of the Interior (the “BIA”) on behalf of that person pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 162(a), or by any other disbursing agent of the United States on behalf of that person pursuant to similar authority, in an insured depository institution. The interest of each American Indian in all such accounts maintained at the same insured depository institution shall be added together and insured, up to the SMDIA, separately from any other accounts maintained by that person in the same insured depository institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 73 FR 61660, Oct. 17, 2008; 74 FR 47716, Sept. 17, 2009; ; 87 FR 4470, Jan. 28, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.8   Annuity contract accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Funds held by an insurance company or other corporation in a deposit account for the sole purpose of funding life insurance or annuity contracts and any benefits incidental to such contracts, shall be insured separately in the amount of up to the SMDIA per annuitant, provided that, pursuant to a state statute:
</P>
<P>(1) The corporation establishes a separate account for such funds;
</P>
<P>(2) The account cannot be charged with the liabilities arising out of any other business of the corporation; and
</P>
<P>(3) The account cannot be invaded by other creditors of the corporation in the event that the corporation becomes insolvent and its assets are liquidated.
</P>
<P>(b) Such insurance coverage shall be separate from the insurance provided for any other accounts maintained by the corporation or the annuitants at the same insured depository institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.9   Joint ownership accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separate insurance coverage.</I> Qualifying joint accounts, whether owned as joint tenants with the right of survivorship, as tenants in common or as tenants by the entirety, shall be insured separately from any individually owned (single ownership) deposit accounts maintained by the co-owners. (Example: If A has a single ownership account and also is a joint owner of a qualifying joint account, A's interest in the joint account would be insured separately from his or her interest in the individual account.) Qualifying joint accounts in the names of both husband and wife which are comprised of community property funds shall be added together and insured up to twice the SMDIA, separately from any funds deposited into accounts bearing their individual names.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of insurance coverage.</I> The interests of each co-owner in all qualifying joint accounts shall be added together and the total shall be insured up to the SMDIA. (Example: “A&amp;B” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $150,000; “A&amp;C” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $200,000; and “A&amp;B&amp;C” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $375,000. A's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $300,000 ($75,000 plus $100,000 plus $125,000); therefore, A's interest would be insured in the amount of $250,000 and uninsured in the amount of $50,000. B's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $200,000 ($75,000 plus $125,000); therefore, B's interest would be fully insured. C's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $225,000 ($100,000 plus $125,000); therefore, C's interest would be fully insured.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying joint accounts</I>—(1) <I>Qualification requirements.</I> A joint deposit account shall be deemed to be a qualifying joint account, for purposes of this section, only if:
</P>
<P>(i) All co-owners of the funds in the account are “natural persons” (as defined in § 330.1(l));
</P>
<P>(ii) Each co-owner has personally signed, which may include signing electronically, a deposit account signature card, or the alternative method provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section is satisfied; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Each co-owner possesses withdrawal rights on the same basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limited exceptions.</I> The signature-card requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section shall not apply to certificates of deposit, to any deposit obligation evidenced by a negotiable instrument, or to any account maintained by an agent, nominee, guardian, custodian or conservator on behalf of two or more persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Evidence of deposit ownership.</I> All deposit accounts that satisfy the criteria in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and those accounts that come within the exception provided for in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, shall be deemed to be jointly owned provided that, in accordance with the provisions of § 330.5(a), the FDIC determines that the deposit account records of the insured depository institution are clear and unambiguous as to the ownership of the accounts. If the deposit account records are ambiguous or unclear as to the manner in which the deposit accounts are owned, then the FDIC may, in its sole discretion, consider evidence other than the deposit account records of the insured depository institution for the purpose of establishing the manner in which the funds are owned. The signatures of two or more persons on the deposit account signature card or the names of two or more persons on a certificate of deposit or other deposit instrument shall be conclusive evidence that the account is a joint account (although not necessarily a qualifying joint account) unless the deposit records as a whole are ambiguous and some other evidence indicates, to the satisfaction of the FDIC, that there is a contrary ownership capacity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative method to satisfy signature-card requirement.</I> The signature-card requirement of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section also may be satisfied by information contained in the deposit account records of the insured depository institution establishing co-ownership of the deposit account, such as evidence that the institution has issued a mechanism for accessing the account to each co-owner or evidence of usage of the deposit account by each co-owner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonqualifying joint accounts.</I> A deposit account held in two or more names which is not a qualifying joint account, for purposes of this section, shall be treated as being owned by each named owner, as an individual, corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association, as the case may be, and the actual ownership interest of each individual or entity in such account shall be added to any other single ownership accounts of such individual or other accounts of such entity, and shall be insured in accordance with the provisions of this part governing the insurance of such accounts.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of interests.</I> The interests of the co-owners of qualifying joint accounts, held as tenants in common, shall be deemed equal, unless otherwise stated in the depository institution's deposit account records. This section applies regardless of whether the conjunction “and” or “or” is used in the title of a joint deposit account, even when both terms are used, such as in the case of a joint deposit account with three or more co-owners.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 15656, Apr. 1, 1999; 64 FR 62102, Nov. 16, 1999; 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 74 FR 47716, Sept. 17, 2009; 76 FR 41395, July 14, 2011; 84 FR 35027, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.10   Trust accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and definitions.</I> This section governs coverage for deposits held in connection with informal revocable trusts, formal revocable trusts, and irrevocable trusts not covered by § 330.12 (“trust accounts”). For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Informal revocable trust</I> means a trust under which a deposit passes directly to one or more beneficiaries upon the depositor's death without a written trust agreement, commonly referred to as a payable-on-death account, in-trust-for account, or Totten trust account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Formal revocable trust</I> means a revocable trust established by a written trust agreement under which a deposit passes to one or more beneficiaries upon the grantor's death.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Irrevocable trust</I> means an irrevocable trust established by statute or a written trust agreement, except as described in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculation of coverage</I>—(1) <I>General calculation.</I> Trust deposits are insured in an amount up to the SMDIA multiplied by the total number of beneficiaries identified by each grantor, up to a maximum of 5 beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aggregation for purposes of insurance limit.</I> Trust deposits that pass from the same grantor to beneficiaries are aggregated for purposes of determining coverage under this section, regardless of whether those deposits are held in connection with an informal revocable trust, formal revocable trust, or irrevocable trust.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separate insurance coverage.</I> The deposit insurance coverage provided under this section is separate from coverage provided for other deposits at the same insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equal allocation presumed.</I> Unless otherwise specified in the deposit account records of the insured depository institution, a deposit held in connection with a trust established by multiple grantors is presumed to have been owned or funded by the grantors in equal shares.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Number of beneficiaries.</I> The total number of beneficiaries for a trust deposit under paragraph (b) of this section will be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligible beneficiaries.</I> Subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, beneficiaries include natural persons, as well as charitable organizations and other non-profit entities recognized as such under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ineligible beneficiaries.</I> Beneficiaries do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The grantor of a trust; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person or entity that would only obtain an interest in the deposit if one or more identified beneficiaries are deceased.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Future trust(s) named as beneficiaries.</I> If a trust agreement provides that trust funds will pass into one or more new trusts upon the death of the grantor(s) (“future trusts”), the future trust(s) are not treated as beneficiaries of the trust; rather, the future trust(s) are viewed as mechanisms for distributing trust funds, and the beneficiaries are the natural persons or organizations that shall receive the trust funds through the future trusts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Informal trust account payable to depositor's formal trust.</I> If an informal revocable trust designates the depositor's formal trust as its beneficiary, the informal revocable trust account will be treated as if titled in the name of the formal trust.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposit account records</I>—(1) <I>Informal revocable trusts.</I> The beneficiaries of an informal revocable trust must be specifically named in the deposit account records of the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Formal revocable trusts.</I> The title of a formal trust account must include terminology sufficient to identify the account as a trust account, such as “family trust” or “living trust,” or must otherwise be identified as a testamentary trust in the account records of the insured depository institution. If eligible beneficiaries of such formal revocable trust are specifically named in the deposit account records of the insured depository institution, the FDIC shall presume the continued validity of the named beneficiary's interest in the trust consistent with § 330.5(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Commingled deposits of bankruptcy trustees.</I> If a bankruptcy trustee appointed under title 11 of the United States Code commingles the funds of various bankruptcy estates in the same account at an insured depository institution, the funds of each title 11 bankruptcy estate will be added together and insured up to the SMDIA, separately from the funds of any other such estate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deposits excluded from coverage under this section</I>—(1) <I>Revocable trust co-owners that are sole beneficiaries of a trust.</I> If the co-owners of an informal or formal revocable trust are the trust's sole beneficiaries, deposits held in connection with the trust are treated as joint ownership deposits under § 330.9.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee benefit plan deposits.</I> Deposits of employee benefit plans, even if held in connection with a trust, are treated as employee benefit plan deposits under § 330.14.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investment company deposits.</I> This section shall not apply to deposits of trust funds belonging to a trust classified as a corporation under § 330.11(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Insured depository institution as trustee of an irrevocable trust.</I> Deposits held by an insured depository institution in its capacity as trustee of an irrevocable trust are insured as provided in § 330.12.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 4470, Jan. 28, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.11   Accounts of a corporation, partnership or unincorporated association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corporate accounts.</I> (1) The deposit accounts of a corporation engaged in any “independent activity” (as defined in § 330.1(g)) shall be added together and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate. If a corporation has divisions or units which are not separately incorporated, the deposit accounts of those divisions or units shall be added to any other deposit accounts of the corporation. If a corporation maintains deposit accounts in a representative or fiduciary capacity, such accounts shall not be treated as the deposit accounts of the corporation but shall be treated as fiduciary accounts and insured in accordance with the provisions of § 330.7.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, any trust or other business arrangement which has filed or is required to file a registration statement with the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8) or that would be required so to register but for the fact it is not created under the laws of the United States or a state or but for sections 2(b), 3(c)(1), or 6(a)(1) of that act shall be deemed to be a corporation for purposes of determining deposit insurance coverage. An exception to this paragraph (a)(2) shall exist for any trust or other business arrangement established by a state or that is a state agency or state public instrumentality as part of a qualified tuition savings program under section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529). A deposit account of such a trust or business arrangement shall not be deemed to be the deposit of a corporation provided that: The funds in the account may be traced to one or more particular investors or participants; and the existence of the trust relationships is disclosed in accordance with the requirements of § 330.5. If these conditions are satisfied, each participant's funds shall be insured as a deposit account of the participant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Partnership accounts.</I> The deposit accounts of a partnership engaged in any “independent activity” (as defined in § 330.1(g)) shall be added together and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate. Such insurance coverage shall be separate from any insurance provided for individually owned (single ownership) accounts maintained by the individual partners. A partnership shall be deemed to exist, for purposes of this paragraph, any time there is an association of two or more persons or entities formed to carry on, as co-owners, an unincorporated business for profit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unincorporated association accounts.</I> The deposit accounts of an unincorporated association engaged in any independent activity shall be added together and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate, separately from the accounts of the person(s) or entity(ies) comprising the unincorporated association. An unincorporated association shall be deemed to exist, for purposes of this paragraph, whenever there is an association of two or more persons formed for some religious, educational, charitable, social or other noncommercial purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-qualifying entities.</I> The deposit accounts of an entity which is not engaged in an “independent activity” (as defined in § 330.1(g)) shall be deemed to be owned by the person or persons owning the corporation or comprising the partnership or unincorporated association, and, for deposit insurance purposes, the interest of each person in such a deposit account shall be added to any other deposit accounts individually owned by that person and insured up to the SMDIA in the aggregate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 70 FR 33692, June 9, 2005; 70 FR 62059, Oct. 28, 2005; 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.12   Accounts held by a depository institution as the trustee of an irrevocable trust.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separate insurance coverage.</I> “Trust funds” (as defined in § 330.1(q)) held by an insured depository institution in its capacity as trustee of an irrevocable trust, whether held in its trust department, held or deposited in any other department of the fiduciary institution, or deposited by the fiduciary institution in another insured depository institution, shall be insured up to the SMDIA for each owner or beneficiary represented. This insurance shall be separate from, and in addition to, the insurance provided for any other deposits of the owners or the beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of interests.</I> The insurance for funds held by an insured depository institution in its capacity as trustee of an irrevocable trust shall be determined in accordance with the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Allocated funds of a trust estate.</I> If trust funds of a particular “trust estate” (as defined in § 330.1(p)) are allocated by the fiduciary and deposited, the insurance with respect to such trust estate shall be determined by ascertaining the amount of its funds allocated, deposited and remaining to the credit of the claimant as fiduciary at the insured depository institution in default.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interest of a trust estate in unallocated trust funds.</I> If funds of a particular trust estate are commingled with funds of other trust estates and deposited by the fiduciary institution in one or more insured depository institutions to the credit of the depository institution as fiduciary, without allocation of specific amounts from a particular trust estate to an account in such institution(s), the percentage interest of that trust estate in the unallocated deposits in any institution in default is the same as that trust estate's percentage interest in the entire commingled investment pool.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on applicability.</I> This section shall not apply to deposits of trust funds belonging to a trust which is classified as a corporation under § 330.11(a)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 76 FR 41395, July 14, 2011]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.14   Retirement and other employee benefit plan accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) “Pass-through” insurance. Any deposits of an employee benefit plan in an insured depository institution shall be insured on a “pass-through” basis, in the amount of up to the SMDIA for the non-contingent interest of each plan participant, provided the rules in § 330.5 are satisfied. Deposits eligible for coverage under paragraph (b)(2) of this section that also are deposits of a employee benefit plan or deposits of an deferred compensation plan described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 457) in an insured depository institution shall be insured on a “pass-through” basis in the amount of $250,000 for the non-contingent interest of each plan participant, provided the rules in § 330.5 are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Aggregation</I>—(1) <I>Multiple plans.</I> Funds representing the non-contingent interests of a beneficiary in an employee benefit plan, or eligible deferred compensation plan described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 457), which are deposited in one or more deposit accounts shall be aggregated with any other deposited funds representing such interests of the same beneficiary in other employee benefit plans, or eligible deferred compensation plans described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, established by the same employer or employee organization.
</P>
<P>(2) Certain retirement accounts. Deposits in an insured depository institution made in connection with the following types of retirement plans shall be aggregated and insured in the amount of up to $250,000 per participant:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 408(a)):
</P>
<P>(ii) Any eligible deferred compensation plan described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 457); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual account plan defined in section 3(34) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1002) and any plan described in section 401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401(d)), to the extent that participants and beneficiaries under such plans have the right to direct the investment of assets held in individual accounts maintained on their behalf by the plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination of interests</I>—(1) <I>Defined contribution plans.</I> The value of an employee's non-contingent interest in a defined contribution plan shall be deemed to be the employee's account balance as of the date of default of the insured depository institution, regardless of whether said amount was derived, in whole or in part, from contributions of the employee and/or the employer to the account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Defined benefit plans.</I> The value of an employee's non-contingent interest in a defined benefit plan shall be deemed to be the present value of the employee's interest in the plan, evaluated in accordance with the method of calculation ordinarily used under such plan, as of the date of default of the insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amounts taken into account.</I> For the purposes of applying the rule under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, only the present vested and ascertainable interests of each participant in an employee benefit plan or “457 Plan,” excluding any remainder interest created by, or as a result of, the plan, shall be taken into account in determining the amount of deposit insurance accorded to the deposits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of contingent interests.</I> In the event that employees' interests in an employee benefit plan are not capable of evaluation in accordance with the provisions of this section, or an account established for any such plan includes amounts for future participants in the plan, payment by the FDIC with respect to all such interests shall not exceed the SMDIA in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Overfunded pension plan deposits.</I> Any portion of an employee benefit plan's deposits which is not attributable to the interests of the beneficiaries under the plan shall be deemed attributable to the overfunded portion of the plan's assets and shall be aggregated and insured up to the SMDIA, separately from any other deposits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions of “depositor”, “employee benefit plan”, “employee organization” and “non-contingent interest”.</I> Except as otherwise indicated in this section, for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>depositor</I> means the person(s) administering or managing an employee benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>employee benefit plan</I> has the same meaning given to such term in section 3(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) (29 U.S.C. 1002) and includes any plan described in section 401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986.
</P>
<P>(3) The term <I>employee organization</I> means any labor union, organization, employee representation committee, association, group, or plan, in which employees participate and which exists for the purpose, in whole or in part, of dealing with employers concerning an employee benefit plan, or other matters incidental to employment relationships; or any employees' beneficiary association organized for the purpose, in whole or in part, of establishing such a plan.
</P>
<P>(4) The term <I>non-contingent interest</I> means an interest capable of determination without evaluation of contingencies except for those covered by the present worth tables and rules of calculation for their use set forth in § 20.2031-7 of the Federal Estate Tax Regulations (26 CFR 20.2031-7) or any similar present worth or life expectancy tables as may be published by the Internal Revenue Service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 15657, Apr. 1, 1999; 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006; 71 FR 53550, Sept. 12, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.15   Accounts held by government depositors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extent of insurance coverage</I>—(1) <I>Accounts of the United States.</I> Each official custodian of funds of the United States lawfully depositing such funds in an insured depository institution shall be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all time and savings deposits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounts of a state, county, municipality or political subdivision.</I> (i) Each official custodian of funds of any state of the United States, or any county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof, lawfully depositing such funds in an insured depository institution in the state comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located (including any insured depository institution having a branch in said state) shall be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(A) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all time and savings deposits; and
</P>
<P>(B) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, each such official custodian depositing such funds in an insured depository institution outside of the state comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located, shall be insured in the amount of up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all deposits, regardless of whether they are time, savings or demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accounts of the District of Columbia.</I> (i) Each official custodian of funds of the District of Columbia lawfully depositing such funds in an insured depository institution in the District of Columbia (including an insured depository institution having a branch in the District of Columbia) shall be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(A) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all time and savings deposits; and
</P>
<P>(B) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, each such official custodian depositing such funds in an insured depository institution outside of the District of Columbia shall be insured in the amount of up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all deposits, regardless of whether they are time, savings or demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accounts of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and other government possessions and territories.</I> (i) Each official custodian of funds of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, Guam, or The Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or of any county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof lawfully depositing such funds in an insured depository institution in Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, Guam, or The Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, respectively, shall be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(A) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all time and savings deposits; and
</P>
<P>(B) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(ii) In addition, each such official custodian depositing such funds in an insured depository institution outside of the commonwealth, possession or territory comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located, shall be insured in the amount of up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all deposits, regardless of whether they are time, savings or demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accounts of an Indian tribe.</I> Each official custodian of funds of an Indian tribe (as defined in 25 U.S.C. 1452(c)), including an agency thereof having official custody of tribal funds, lawfully depositing the same in an insured depository institution shall be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all time and savings deposits; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMDIA in the aggregate for all demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules relating to the “official custodian”</I>—(1) <I>Qualifications for an “official custodian”.</I> In order to qualify as an “official custodian” for the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, such custodian must have plenary authority, including control, over funds owned by the public unit which the custodian is appointed or elected to serve. Control of public funds includes possession, as well as the authority to establish accounts for such funds in insured depository institutions and to make deposits, withdrawals, and disbursements of such funds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Official custodian of the funds of more than one public unit.</I> For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, if the same person is an official custodian of the funds of more than one public unit, he or she shall be separately insured with respect to the funds held by him or her for each such public unit, but shall not be separately insured by virtue of holding different offices in such public unit or, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, holding such funds for different purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Split of authority or control over public unit funds.</I> If the exercise of authority or control over the funds of a public unit requires action by, or the consent of, two or more officers, employees, or agents of such public unit, then they will be treated as one “official custodian” for the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public bond issues.</I> Where an officer, agent or employee of a public unit has custody of certain funds which by law or under a bond indenture are required to be set aside to discharge a debt owed to the holders of notes or bonds issued by the public unit, any deposit of such funds in an insured depository institution shall be deemed to be a deposit by a trustee of trust funds of which the noteholders or bondholders are pro rata beneficiaries, and the beneficial interest of each noteholder or bondholder in the deposit shall be separately insured up to the SMDIA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of “political subdivision”.</I> The term “political subdivision” includes drainage, irrigation, navigation, improvement, levee, sanitary, school or power districts, and bridge or port authorities and other special districts created by state statute or compacts between the states. It also includes any subdivision of a public unit mentioned in paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3) and (a)(4) of this section or any principal department of such public unit:
</P>
<P>(1) The creation of which subdivision or department has been expressly authorized by the law of such public unit;
</P>
<P>(2) To which some functions of government have been delegated by such law; and
</P>
<P>(3) Which is empowered to exercise exclusive control over funds for its exclusive use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 25756, May 11, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 14631, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 330.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.21.0.23.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 330.101   Premiums.</HEAD>
<P>This interpretive rule describes certain payments that are not deemed to be “interest” as defined in § 330.1(k).
</P>
<P>(a) Premiums, whether in the form of merchandise, credit, or cash, given by a bank to the holder of a deposit will not be regarded as “interest” as defined in § 330.1(k) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The premium is given to the depositor only at the time of the opening of a new account or an addition to an existing account;
</P>
<P>(2) No more than two premiums per deposit are given in any twelve-month interval; and
</P>
<P>(3) The value of the premium (in the case of merchandise, the total cost to the bank, including shipping, warehousing, packaging, and handling costs) does not exceed $10 for a deposit of less than $5,000 or $20 for a deposit of $5,000 or more.
</P>
<P>(b) The costs of premiums may not be averaged.
</P>
<P>(c) A bank may not solicit funds for deposit on the basis that the bank will divide the funds into several accounts for the purpose of enabling the bank to pay the depositor more than two premiums within a twelve-month interval on the solicited funds.
</P>
<P>(d) The bank must retain sufficient information for examiners to determine that the requirements of this section have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, any premium that is not, directly or indirectly, related to or dependent on the balance in a demand deposit account and the duration of the account balance shall not be considered the payment of interest on a demand deposit account and shall not be subject to the limitations in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41395, July 14, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="331" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 331—FEDERAL INTEREST RATE AUTHORITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth), 1820(g), 1831d.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 44157, July 22, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 331.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.22.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulations in this part are issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) under sections 9(a)(Tenth) and 10(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth), 1820(g), to implement sections 24(j) and 27 of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831a(j), 1831d, and related provisions of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980, Public Law 96-221, 94 Stat. 132 (1980).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 24(j) of the FDI Act, as amended by the Riegle-Neal Amendments Act of 1997, Public Law 105-24, 111 Stat. 238 (1997), was enacted to maintain parity between State banks and national banks regarding the application of a host State's laws to branches of out-of-State banks. Section 27 of the FDI Act was enacted to provide State banks with interest rate authority similar to that provided to national banks under the National Bank Act, 12 U.S.C. 85. The regulations in this part clarify that State-chartered banks and insured branches of foreign banks have regulatory authority in these areas parallel to the authority of national banks under regulations issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and address other issues the FDIC considers appropriate to implement these statutes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> The regulations in this part apply to State-chartered banks and insured branches of foreign banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.22.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P><I>Home State</I> means, with respect to a State bank, the State by which the bank is chartered.
</P>
<P><I>Host State</I> means a State, other than the home State of a State bank, in which the State bank maintains a branch.
</P>
<P><I>Insured branch</I> has the same meaning as that term in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P><I>Interest</I> means any payment compensating a creditor or prospective creditor for an extension of credit, making available a line of credit, or any default or breach by a borrower of a condition upon which credit was extended. Interest includes, among other things, the following fees connected with credit extension or availability: numerical periodic rates; late fees; creditor-imposed not sufficient funds (NSF) fees charged when a borrower tenders payment on a debt with a check drawn on insufficient funds; overlimit fees; annual fees; cash advance fees; and membership fees. It does not ordinarily include appraisal fees, premiums and commissions attributable to insurance guaranteeing repayment of any extension of credit, finders' fees, fees for document preparation or notarization, or fees incurred to obtain credit reports.
</P>
<P><I>Out-of-State State bank</I> means, with respect to any State, a State bank whose home State is another State.
</P>
<P><I>Rate on 90-day commercial paper</I> means the rate quoted by the Federal Reserve Board of Governors for 90-day A2/P2 nonfinancial commercial paper.
</P>
<P><I>State bank</I> has the same meaning as that term in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.22.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.3   Application of host State law.</HEAD>
<P>The laws of a host State shall apply to any branch in the host State of an out-of-State State bank to the same extent as such State laws apply to a branch in the host State of an out-of-State national bank. To the extent host State law is inapplicable to a branch of an out-of-State State bank in such host State pursuant to the preceding sentence, home State law shall apply to such branch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 331.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.22.0.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 331.4   Interest rate authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interest rates.</I> In order to prevent discrimination against State-chartered depository institutions, including insured savings banks, or insured branches of foreign banks, if the applicable rate prescribed in this section exceeds the rate such State bank or insured branch of a foreign bank would be permitted to charge in the absence of this paragraph (a), such State bank or insured branch of a foreign bank may, notwithstanding any State constitution or statute which is preempted by section 27 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831d, take, receive, reserve, and charge on any loan or discount made, or upon any note, bill of exchange, or other evidence of debt, interest at a rate of not more than 1 percent in excess of the rate on 90-day commercial paper or at the rate allowed by the laws of the State, territory, or district where the bank is located, whichever may be greater.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classes of institutions and loans.</I> A State bank or insured branch of a foreign bank located in a State may charge interest at the maximum rate permitted to any State-chartered or licensed lending institution by the law of that State. If State law permits different interest charges on specified classes of loans, a State bank or insured branch of a foreign bank making such loans is subject only to the provisions of State law relating to that class of loans that are material to the determination of the permitted interest. For example, a State bank may lawfully charge the highest rate permitted to be charged by a State-licensed small loan company, without being so licensed, but subject to State law limitations on the size of loans made by small loan companies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect on State law definitions of interest.</I> The definition of the term <I>interest</I> in this part does not change how interest is defined by the individual States or how the State definition of interest is used solely for purposes of State law. For example, if late fees are not <I>interest</I> under the State law of the State where a State bank is located but State law permits its most favored lender to charge late fees, then a State bank located in that State may charge late fees to its intrastate customers. The State bank also may charge late fees to its interstate customers because the fees are interest under the Federal definition of interest and an allowable charge under the State law of the State where the bank is located. However, the late fees would not be treated as interest for purposes of evaluating compliance with State usury limitations because State law excludes late fees when calculating the maximum interest that lending institutions may charge under those limitations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corporate borrowers.</I> A State bank or insured branch of a foreign bank located in a State whose State law denies the defense of usury to a corporate borrower may charge a corporate borrower any rate of interest agreed upon by the corporate borrower.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of interest permissible under section 27.</I> Whether interest on a loan is permissible under section 27 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act is determined as of the date the loan was made. Interest on a loan that is permissible under section 27 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act shall not be affected by a change in State law, a change in the relevant commercial paper rate after the loan was made, or the sale, assignment, or other transfer of the loan, in whole or in part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="332" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 332—PRIVACY OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL INFORMATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 (Seventh and Tenth); 15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 35216, June 1, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 332.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part governs the treatment of nonpublic personal information about consumers by the financial institutions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. This part: 
</P>
<P>(1) Requires a financial institution to provide notice to customers about its privacy policies and practices; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describes the conditions under which a financial institution may disclose nonpublic personal information about consumers to nonaffiliated third parties; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a method for consumers to prevent a financial institution from disclosing that information to most nonaffiliated third parties by “opting out” of that disclosure, subject to the exceptions in §§ 332.13, 332.14, and 332.15. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies only to nonpublic personal information about individuals who obtain financial products or services primarily for personal, family, or household purposes from the institutions listed below. This part does not apply to information about companies or about individuals who obtain financial products or services for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes. This part applies to the United States offices of entities for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) has primary federal supervisory authority. They are referred to in this part as “you.” These are: banks insured by the FDIC (other than members of the Federal Reserve System), insured state branches of foreign banks, and certain subsidiaries of such entities. 
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part modifies, limits, or supersedes the standards governing individually identifiable health information promulgated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under the authority of sections 262 and 264 of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (42 U.S.C. 1320d-1320d-8). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.2   Model privacy form and examples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Use of the model privacy form in appendix A of this part, consistent with the instructions in appendix A, constitutes compliance with the notice content requirements of §§ 332.6 and 332.7 of this part, although use of the model privacy form is not required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 62935, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means that a notice is reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in the notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Reasonably understandable.</I> You make your notice reasonably understandable if you: 
</P>
<P>(A) Present the information in the notice in clear, concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections; 
</P>
<P>(B) Use short explanatory sentences or bullet lists whenever possible; 
</P>
<P>(C) Use definite, concrete, everyday words and active voice whenever possible; 
</P>
<P>(D) Avoid multiple negatives; 
</P>
<P>(E) Avoid legal and highly technical business terminology whenever possible; and 
</P>
<P>(F) Avoid explanations that are imprecise and readily subject to different interpretations. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Designed to call attention.</I> You design your notice to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in it if you: 
</P>
<P>(A) Use a plain-language heading to call attention to the notice; 
</P>
<P>(B) Use a typeface and type size that are easy to read; 
</P>
<P>(C) Provide wide margins and ample line spacing; 
</P>
<P>(D) Use boldface or italics for key words; and 
</P>
<P>(E) In a form that combines your notice with other information, use distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when you combine your notice with other information. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notices on web sites.</I> If you provide a notice on a web page, you design your notice to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in it if you use text or visual cues to encourage scrolling down the page if necessary to view the entire notice and ensure that other elements on the web site (such as text, graphics, hyperlinks, or sound) do not distract attention from the notice, and you either: 
</P>
<P>(A) Place the notice on a screen that consumers frequently access, such as a page on which transactions are conducted; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Place a link on a screen that consumers frequently access, such as a page on which transactions are conducted, that connects directly to the notice and is labeled appropriately to convey the importance, nature, and relevance of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collect</I> means to obtain information that you organize or can retrieve by the name of an individual or by identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, irrespective of the source of the underlying information. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, association, or similar organization. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual who obtains or has obtained a financial product or service from you that is to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, or that individual's legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) An individual who applies to you for credit for personal, family, or household purposes is a consumer of a financial service, regardless of whether the credit is extended. 
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in order to obtain a determination about whether he or she may qualify for a loan to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes is a consumer of a financial service, regardless of whether the loan is extended. 
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in connection with obtaining or seeking to obtain financial, investment, or economic advisory services is a consumer regardless of whether you establish a continuing advisory relationship. 
</P>
<P>(iv) If you hold ownership or servicing rights to an individual's loan that is used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, the individual is your consumer, even if you hold those rights in conjunction with one or more other institutions. (The individual is also a consumer with respect to the other financial institutions involved.) An individual who has a loan in which you have ownership or servicing rights is your consumer, even if you, or another institution with those rights, hire an agent to collect on the loan. 
</P>
<P>(v) An individual who is a consumer of another financial institution is not your consumer solely because you act as agent for, or provide processing or other services to, that financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(vi) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she has designated you as trustee for a trust. 
</P>
<P>(vii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a beneficiary of a trust for which you are a trustee. 
</P>
<P>(viii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a participant or a beneficiary of an employee benefit plan that you sponsor or for which you act as a trustee or fiduciary. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Control</I> of a company means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of the company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the company, as the FDIC determines. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Customer</I> means a consumer who has a customer relationship with you. 
</P>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Customer relationship</I> means a continuing relationship between a consumer and you under which you provide one or more financial products or services to the consumer that are to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Continuing relationship.</I> A consumer has a continuing relationship with you if the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(A) Has a deposit or investment account with you; 
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a loan from you; 
</P>
<P>(C) Has a loan for which you own the servicing rights; 
</P>
<P>(D) Purchases an insurance product from you; 
</P>
<P>(E) Holds an investment product through you, such as when you act as a custodian for securities or for assets in an Individual Retirement Arrangement; 
</P>
<P>(F) Enters into an agreement or understanding with you whereby you undertake to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan for the consumer; 
</P>
<P>(G) Enters into a lease of personal property with you; or 
</P>
<P>(H) Obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from you for a fee. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No continuing relationship.</I> A consumer does not, however, have a continuing relationship with you if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer obtains a financial product or service only in isolated transactions, such as using your ATM to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution or purchasing a cashier's check or money order; 
</P>
<P>(B) You sell the consumer's loan and do not retain the rights to service that loan; or 
</P>
<P>(C) You sell the consumer airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Federal functional regulator</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(4) The Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision; 
</P>
<P>(5) The National Credit Union Administration Board; and 
</P>
<P>(6) The Securities and Exchange Commission. 
</P>
<P>(k)(1) <I>Financial institution</I> means any institution the business of which is engaging in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to such financial activities as described in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial institution</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any person or entity with respect to any financial activity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or any entity chartered and operating under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>); or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Institutions chartered by Congress specifically to engage in securitizations, secondary market sales (including sales of servicing rights), or similar transactions related to a transaction of a consumer, as long as such institutions do not sell or transfer nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party. 
</P>
<P>(l)(1) <I>Financial product or service</I> means any product or service that a financial holding company could offer by engaging in an activity that is financial in nature or incidental to such a financial activity under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial service</I> includes your evaluation or brokerage of information that you collect in connection with a request or an application from a consumer for a financial product or service. 
</P>
<P>(m)(1) <I>Nonaffiliated third party</I> means any person except: 
</P>
<P>(i) Your affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person employed jointly by you and any company that is not your affiliate (but <I>nonaffiliated third party</I> includes the other company that jointly employs the person). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonaffiliated third party</I> includes any company that is an affiliate solely by virtue of your or your affiliate's direct or indirect ownership or control of the company in conducting merchant banking or investment banking activities of the type described in section 4(k)(4)(H) or insurance company investment activities of the type described in section 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) and (I)). 
</P>
<P>(n)(1) <I>Nonpublic personal information</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Personally identifiable financial information; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any list, description, or other grouping of consumers (and publicly available information pertaining to them) that is derived using any personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpublic personal information</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly available information, except as included on a list described in paragraph (n)(1)(ii) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any list, description, or other grouping of consumers (and publicly available information pertaining to them) that is derived without using any personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of lists</I>—(i) Nonpublic personal information includes any list of individuals' names and street addresses that is derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, such as account numbers. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Nonpublic personal information does not include any list of individuals' names and addresses that contains only publicly available information, is not derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, and is not disclosed in a manner that indicates that any of the individuals on the list is a consumer of a financial institution. 
</P>
<P>(o)(1) <I>Personally identifiable financial information</I> means any information: 
</P>
<P>(i) A consumer provides to you to obtain a financial product or service from you; 
</P>
<P>(ii) About a consumer resulting from any transaction involving a financial product or service between you and a consumer; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) You otherwise obtain about a consumer in connection with providing a financial product or service to that consumer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Information included.</I> Personally identifiable financial information includes: 
</P>
<P>(A) Information a consumer provides to you on an application to obtain a loan, credit card, or other financial product or service; 
</P>
<P>(B) Account balance information, payment history, overdraft history, and credit or debit card purchase information; 
</P>
<P>(C) The fact that an individual is or has been one of your customers or has obtained a financial product or service from you; 
</P>
<P>(D) Any information about your consumer if it is disclosed in a manner that indicates that the individual is or has been your consumer; 
</P>
<P>(E) Any information that a consumer provides to you or that you or your agent otherwise obtain in connection with collecting on a loan or servicing a loan; 
</P>
<P>(F) Any information you collect through an Internet “cookie” (an information collecting device from a web server); and 
</P>
<P>(G) Information from a consumer report. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information not included.</I> Personally identifiable financial information does not include: 
</P>
<P>(A) A list of names and addresses of customers of an entity that is not a financial institution; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Information that does not identify a consumer, such as aggregate information or blind data that does not contain personal identifiers such as account numbers, names, or addresses. 
</P>
<P>(p)(1) <I>Publicly available information</I> means any information that you have a reasonable basis to believe is lawfully made available to the general public from: 
</P>
<P>(i) Federal, State, or local government records; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Widely distributed media; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosures to the general public that are required to be made by Federal, State, or local law. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasonable basis.</I> You have a reasonable basis to believe that information is lawfully made available to the general public if you have taken steps to determine: 
</P>
<P>(i) That the information is of the type that is available to the general public; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether an individual can direct that the information not be made available to the general public and, if so, that your consumer has not done so. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Government records.</I> Publicly available information in government records includes information in government real estate records and security interest filings. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Widely distributed media.</I> Publicly available information from widely distributed media includes information from a telephone book, a television or radio program, a newspaper, or a web site that is available to the general public on an unrestricted basis. A web site is not restricted merely because an Internet service provider or a site operator requires a fee or a password, so long as access is available to the general public. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable basis.</I> (A) You have a reasonable basis to believe that mortgage information is lawfully made available to the general public if you have determined that the information is of the type included on the public record in the jurisdiction where the mortgage would be recorded. 
</P>
<P>(B) You have a reasonable basis to believe that an individual's telephone number is lawfully made available to the general public if you have located the telephone number in the telephone book or the consumer has informed you that the telephone number is not unlisted. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>You</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A bank insured by the FDIC (other than a member of the Federal Reserve System); 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured state branch of a foreign bank; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A subsidiary of either such entity except: 
</P>
<P>(i) A broker or dealer that is registered under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(ii) A registered investment adviser, properly registered by or on behalf of either the Securities Exchange Commission or any State, with respect to its investment advisory activities and its activities incidental to those investment advisory activities; 
</P>
<P>(iii) An investment company that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(iv) An insurance company, with respect to its insurance activities and its activities incidental to those insurance activities, that is subject to supervision by a State insurance regulator. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Privacy and Opt Out Notices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.4   Initial privacy notice to consumers required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial notice requirement.</I> You must provide a clear and conspicuous notice that accurately reflects your privacy policies and practices to: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Customer.</I> An individual who becomes your customer, not later than when you establish a customer relationship, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer.</I> A consumer, before you disclose any nonpublic personal information about the consumer to any nonaffiliated third party, if you make such a disclosure other than as authorized by §§ 332.14 and 332.15. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When initial notice to a consumer is not required.</I> You are not required to provide an initial notice to a consumer under paragraph (a) of this section if: 
</P>
<P>(1) You do not disclose any nonpublic personal information about the consumer to any nonaffiliated third party, other than as authorized by §§ 332.14 and 332.15; and 
</P>
<P>(2) You do not have a customer relationship with the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When you establish a customer relationship</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> You establish a customer relationship when you and the consumer enter into a continuing relationship. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for loans.</I> You establish a customer relationship with a consumer when you originate a loan to the consumer for personal, family, or household purposes. If you subsequently transfer the servicing rights to that loan to another financial institution, the customer relationship transfers with the servicing rights. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Examples of establishing customer relationship.</I> You establish a customer relationship when the consumer: 
</P>
<P>(A) Opens a credit card account with you; 
</P>
<P>(B) Executes the contract to open a deposit account with you, obtains credit from you, or purchases insurance from you; 
</P>
<P>(C) Agrees to obtain financial, economic, or investment advisory services from you for a fee; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Becomes your client for the purpose of your providing credit counseling or tax preparation services. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of loan rule.</I> You establish a customer relationship with a consumer who obtains a loan for personal, family, or household purposes when you: 
</P>
<P>(A) Originate the loan to the consumer; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Purchase the servicing rights to the consumer's loan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Existing customers.</I> When an existing customer obtains a new financial product or service from you that is to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, you satisfy the initial notice requirements of paragraph (a) of this section as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) You may provide a revised privacy notice, under § 332.8, that covers the customer's new financial product or service; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If the initial, revised, or annual notice that you most recently provided to that customer was accurate with respect to the new financial product or service, you do not need to provide a new privacy notice under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions to allow subsequent delivery of notice.</I> (1) You may provide the initial notice required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within a reasonable time after you establish a customer relationship if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing the customer relationship is not at the customer's election; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would substantially delay the customer's transaction and the customer agrees to receive the notice at a later time. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Not at customer's election.</I> Establishing a customer relationship is not at the customer's election if you acquire a customer's deposit liability or the servicing rights to a customer's loan from another financial institution and the customer does not have a choice about your acquisition. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Substantial delay of customer's transaction.</I> Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would substantially delay the customer's transaction when: 
</P>
<P>(A) You and the individual agree over the telephone to enter into a customer relationship involving prompt delivery of the financial product or service; or 
</P>
<P>(B) You establish a customer relationship with an individual under a program authorized by title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>) or similar student loan programs where loan proceeds are disbursed promptly without prior communication between you and the customer. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No substantial delay of customer's transaction.</I> Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would not substantially delay the customer's transaction when the relationship is initiated in person at your office or through other means by which the customer may view the notice, such as on a web site. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an initial privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 332.9. If you use a short-form initial notice for non-customers according to § 332.6(d), you may deliver your privacy notice according to § 332.6(d)(3). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.5   Annual privacy notice to customers required.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General rule.</I> You must provide a clear and conspicuous notice to customers that accurately reflects your privacy policies and practices not less than annually during the continuation of the customer relationship. <I>Annually</I> means at least once in any period of 12 consecutive months during which that relationship exists. You may define the 12-consecutive-month period, but you must apply it to the customer on a consistent basis. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> You provide a notice annually if you define the 12-consecutive-month period as a calendar year and provide the annual notice to the customer once in each calendar year following the calendar year in which you provided the initial notice. For example, if a customer opens an account on any day of year 1, you must provide an annual notice to that customer by December 31 of year 2. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Termination of customer relationship.</I> You are not required to provide an annual notice to a former customer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> Your customer becomes a former customer when: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a deposit account, the account is inactive under your policies; 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a closed-end loan, the customer pays the loan in full, you charge off the loan, or you sell the loan without retaining servicing rights; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a credit card relationship or other open-end credit relationship, you no longer provide any statements or notices to the customer concerning that relationship or you sell the credit card receivables without retaining servicing rights; or
</P>
<P>(iv) You have not communicated with the customer about the relationship for a period of 12 consecutive months, other than to provide annual privacy notices or promotional material. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule for loans.</I> If you do not have a customer relationship with a consumer under the special rule for loans in § 332.4(c)(2), then you need not provide an annual notice to that consumer under this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an annual privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 332.9. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.6   Information to be included in privacy notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The initial, annual and revised privacy notices that you provide under §§ 332.4, 332.5, and 332.8 must include each of the following items of information, in addition to any other information you wish to provide, that applies to you and to the consumers to whom you send your privacy notice: 
</P>
<P>(1) The categories of nonpublic personal information that you collect; 
</P>
<P>(2) The categories of nonpublic personal information that you disclose; 
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information, other than those parties to whom you disclose information under §§ 332.14 and 332.15; 
</P>
<P>(4) The categories of nonpublic personal information about your former customers that you disclose and the categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information about your former customers, other than those parties to whom you disclose information under §§ 332.14 and 332.15; 
</P>
<P>(5) If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party under § 332.13 (and no other exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 applies to that disclosure), a separate statement of the categories of information you disclose and the categories of third parties with whom you have contracted; 
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the consumer's right under § 332.10(a) to opt out of the disclosure of nonpublic personal information to nonaffiliated third parties, including the method(s) by which the consumer may exercise that right at that time; 
</P>
<P>(7) Any disclosures that you make under section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(d)(2)(A)(iii)) (that is, notices regarding the ability to opt out of disclosures of information among affiliates); 
</P>
<P>(8) Your policies and practices with respect to protecting the confidentiality and security of nonpublic personal information; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any disclosure that you make under paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of nonaffiliated third parties subject to exceptions.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to third parties as authorized under §§ 332.14 and 332.15, you are not required to list those exceptions in the initial or annual privacy notices required by §§ 332.4 and 332.5. When describing the categories with respect to those parties, it is sufficient to state that you make disclosures to other nonaffiliated companies:
</P>
<P>(1) For your everyday business purposes, such as [<I>include all that apply</I>] to process transactions, maintain account(s), respond to court orders and legal investigations, or report to credit bureaus; or
</P>
<P>(2) As permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Categories of nonpublic personal information that you collect.</I> You satisfy the requirement to categorize the nonpublic personal information that you collect if you list the following categories, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(i) Information from the consumer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the consumer's transactions with you or your affiliates; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about the consumer's transactions with nonaffiliated third parties; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from a consumer reporting agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categories of nonpublic personal information you disclose</I>—(i) You satisfy the requirement to categorize the nonpublic personal information that you disclose if you list the categories described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, as applicable, and a few examples to illustrate the types of information in each category. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If you reserve the right to disclose all of the nonpublic personal information about consumers that you collect, you may simply state that fact without describing the categories or examples of the nonpublic personal information you disclose. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose.</I> You satisfy the requirement to categorize the affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information if you list the following categories, as applicable, and a few examples to illustrate the types of third parties in each category. 
</P>
<P>(i) Financial service providers; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-financial companies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Others. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures under exception for service providers and joint marketers.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information under the exception in § 332.13 to a nonaffiliated third party to market products or services that you offer alone or jointly with another financial institution, you satisfy the disclosure requirement of paragraph (a)(5) of this section if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) List the categories of nonpublic personal information you disclose, using the same categories and examples you used to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) State whether the third party is: 
</P>
<P>(A) A service provider that performs marketing services on your behalf or on behalf of you and another financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(B) A financial institution with whom you have a joint marketing agreement. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simplified notices.</I> If you do not disclose, and do not wish to reserve the right to disclose, nonpublic personal information about customers or former customers to affiliates or nonaffiliated third parties except as authorized under §§ 332.14 and 332.15, you may simply state that fact, in addition to the information you must provide under paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(8), (a)(9), and (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Confidentiality and security.</I> You describe your policies and practices with respect to protecting the confidentiality and security of nonpublic personal information if you do both of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Describe in general terms who is authorized to have access to the information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) State whether you have security practices and procedures in place to ensure the confidentiality of the information in accordance with your policy. You are not required to describe technical information about the safeguards you use. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Short-form initial notice with opt out notice for non-customers</I>—(1) You may satisfy the initial notice requirements in §§ 332.4(a)(2), 332.7(b), and 332.7(c) for a consumer who is not a customer by providing a short-form initial notice at the same time as you deliver an opt out notice as required in § 332.7. 
</P>
<P>(2) A short-form initial notice must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be clear and conspicuous; 
</P>
<P>(ii) State that your privacy notice is available upon request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain a reasonable means by which the consumer may obtain that notice. 
</P>
<P>(3) You must deliver your short-form initial notice according to § 332.9. You are not required to deliver your privacy notice with your short-form initial notice. You instead may simply provide the consumer a reasonable means to obtain your privacy notice. If a consumer who receives your short-form notice requests your privacy notice, you must deliver your privacy notice according to § 332.9. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of obtaining privacy notice.</I> You provide a reasonable means by which a consumer may obtain a copy of your privacy notice if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a toll-free telephone number that the consumer may call to request the notice; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a consumer who conducts business in person at your office, maintain copies of the notice on hand that you provide to the consumer immediately upon request. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Future disclosures.</I> Your notice may include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Categories of nonpublic personal information that you reserve the right to disclose in the future, but do not currently disclose; and
</P>
<P>(2) Categories of affiliates or nonaffiliated third parties to whom you reserve the right in the future to disclose, but to whom you do not currently disclose, nonpublic personal information. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Pursuant to § 332.2(a) of this part, a model privacy form that meets the notice content requirements of this section is included in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 35216, June 1, 2000, as amended at 74 FR 62935, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.7   Form of opt out notice to consumers; opt out methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Form of opt out notice.</I> If you are required to provide an opt out notice under § 332.10(a), you must provide a clear and conspicuous notice to each of your consumers that accurately explains the right to opt out under that section. The notice must state: 
</P>
<P>(i) That you disclose or reserve the right to disclose nonpublic personal information about your consumer to a nonaffiliated third party; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That the consumer has the right to opt out of that disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A reasonable means by which the consumer may exercise the opt out right. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Adequate opt out notice.</I> You provide adequate notice that the consumer can opt out of the disclosure of nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party if you: 
</P>
<P>(A) Identify all of the categories of nonpublic personal information that you disclose or reserve the right to disclose, and all of the categories of nonaffiliated third parties to which you disclose the information, as described in § 332.6(a)(2) and (3), and state that the consumer can opt out of the disclosure of that information; and
</P>
<P>(B) Identify the financial products or services that the consumer obtains from you, either singly or jointly, to which the opt out direction would apply. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable opt out means.</I> You provide a reasonable means to exercise an opt out right if you: 
</P>
<P>(A) Designate check-off boxes in a prominent position on the relevant forms with the opt out notice; 
</P>
<P>(B) Include a reply form together with the opt out notice; 
</P>
<P>(C) Provide an electronic means to opt out, such as a form that can be sent via electronic mail or a process at your web site, if the consumer agrees to the electronic delivery of information; or
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a toll-free telephone number that consumers may call to opt out. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Unreasonable opt out means.</I> You <I>do not</I> provide a reasonable means of opting out if: 
</P>
<P>(A) The only means of opting out is for the consumer to write his or her own letter to exercise that opt out right; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The only means of opting out as described in any notice subsequent to the initial notice is to use a check-off box that you provide with the initial notice but did not include with the subsequent notice. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Specific opt out means.</I> You may require each consumer to opt out through a specific means, as long as that means is reasonable for that consumer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Same form as initial notice permitted.</I> You may provide the opt out notice together with or on the same written or electronic form as the initial notice you provide in accordance with § 332.4. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial notice required when opt out notice delivered subsequent to initial notice.</I> If you provide the opt out notice later than required for the initial notice in accordance with § 332.4, you must also include a copy of the initial notice with the opt out notice in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Joint relationships.</I> (1) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may provide a single opt out notice. Your opt out notice must explain how you will treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer (as explained in paragraph (d)(5) of this section). 
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out. You may either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer as applying to all of the associated joint consumers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit each joint consumer to opt out separately. 
</P>
<P>(3) If you permit each joint consumer to opt out separately, you must permit one of the joint consumers to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers. 
</P>
<P>(4) You may not require <I>all</I> joint consumers to opt out before you implement <I>any</I> opt out direction. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example.</I> If John and Mary have a joint checking account with you and arrange for you to send statements to John's address, you may do any of the following, but you must explain in your opt out notice which opt out policy you will follow: 
</P>
<P>(i) Send a single opt out notice to John's address, but you must accept an opt out direction from either John or Mary. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat an opt out direction by either John or Mary as applying to the entire account. If you do so, and John opts out, you may not require Mary to opt out as well before implementing John's opt out direction. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Permit John and Mary to make different opt out directions. If you do so: 
</P>
<P>(A) You must permit John and Mary to opt out for each other; 
</P>
<P>(B) If both opt out, you must permit both to notify you in a single response (such as on a form or through a telephone call); and
</P>
<P>(C) If John opts out and Mary does not, you may only disclose nonpublic personal information about Mary, but not about John and not about John and Mary jointly. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time to comply with opt out.</I> You must comply with a consumer's opt out direction as soon as reasonably practicable after you receive it. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuing right to opt out.</I> A consumer may exercise the right to opt out at any time. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Duration of consumer's opt out direction.</I> (1) A consumer's direction to opt out under this section is effective until the consumer revokes it in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a customer relationship terminates, the customer's opt out direction continues to apply to the nonpublic personal information that you collected during or related to that relationship. If the individual subsequently establishes a new customer relationship with you, the opt out direction that applied to the former relationship does not apply to the new relationship. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an opt out notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 332.9. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Pursuant to § 332.2(a) of this part, a model privacy form that meets the notice content requirements of this section is included in Appendix A of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 35216, June 1, 2000, as amended at 74 FR 62936, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.8   Revised privacy notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise authorized in this part, you must not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer to a nonaffiliated third party other than as described in the initial notice that you provided to that consumer under § 332.4, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) You have provided to the consumer a clear and conspicuous revised notice that accurately describes your policies and practices; 
</P>
<P>(2) You have provided to the consumer a new opt out notice; 
</P>
<P>(3) You have given the consumer a reasonable opportunity, before you disclose the information to the nonaffiliated third party, to opt out of the disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The consumer does not opt out. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples</I>—(1) Except as otherwise permitted by §§ 332.13, 332.14, and 332.15, you must provide a revised notice before you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose a new category of nonpublic personal information to any nonaffiliated third party; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclose nonpublic personal information to a new category of nonaffiliated third party; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclose nonpublic personal information about a former customer to a nonaffiliated third party, if that former customer has not had the opportunity to exercise an opt out right regarding that disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(2) A revised notice is not required if you disclose nonpublic personal information to a new nonaffiliated third party that you adequately described in your prior notice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver a revised privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 332.9. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.1.23.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.9   Delivering privacy and opt out notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to provide notices.</I> You must provide any privacy notices and opt out notices, including short-form initial notices, that this part requires so that each consumer can reasonably be expected to receive actual notice in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Examples of reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> You may reasonably expect that a consumer will receive actual notice if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Hand-deliver a printed copy of the notice to the consumer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mail a printed copy of the notice to the last known address of the consumer; 
</P>
<P>(iii) For the consumer who conducts transactions electronically, post the notice on the electronic site and require the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining a particular financial product or service; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For an isolated transaction with the consumer, such as an ATM transaction, post the notice on the ATM screen and require the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining the particular financial product or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of unreasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> You may <I>not,</I> however, reasonably expect that a consumer will receive actual notice of your privacy policies and practices if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Only post a sign in your branch or office or generally publish advertisements of your privacy policies and practices; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Send the notice via electronic mail to a consumer who does not obtain a financial product or service from you electronically. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual notices only.</I> You may reasonably expect that a customer will receive actual notice of your annual privacy notice if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The customer uses your web site to access financial products and services electronically and agrees to receive notices at the web site, and you post your current privacy notice continuously in a clear and conspicuous manner on the web site; or
</P>
<P>(2) The customer has requested that you refrain from sending any information regarding the customer relationship, and your current privacy notice remains available to the customer upon request. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral description of notice insufficient.</I> You may not provide any notice required by this part solely by orally explaining the notice, either in person or over the telephone. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retention or accessibility of notices for customers.</I> (1) For customers only, you must provide the initial notice required by § 332.4(a)(1), the annual notice required by § 332.5(a), and the revised notice required by § 332.8 so that the customer can retain them or obtain them later in writing or, if the customer agrees, electronically. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of retention or accessibility.</I> You provide a privacy notice to the customer so that the customer can retain it or obtain it later if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Hand-deliver a printed copy of the notice to the customer; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mail a printed copy of the notice to the last known address of the customer; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Make your current privacy notice available on a web site (or a link to another web site) for the customer who obtains a financial product or service electronically and agrees to receive the notice at the web site. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint notice with other financial institutions.</I> You may provide a joint notice from you and one or more of your affiliates or other financial institutions, as identified in the notice, as long as the notice is accurate with respect to you and the other institutions. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Joint relationships.</I> If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may satisfy the initial, annual, and revised notice requirements of §§ 332.4(a), 332.5(a), and 332.8(a), respectively, by providing one notice to those consumers jointly. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Limits on Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.2.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.10   Limits on disclosure of non-public personal information to nonaffiliated third parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Conditions for disclosure.</I> Except as otherwise authorized in this part, you may not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer to a nonaffiliated third party unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) You have provided to the consumer an initial notice as required under § 332.4; 
</P>
<P>(ii) You have provided to the consumer an opt out notice as required in § 332.7; 
</P>
<P>(iii) You have given the consumer a reasonable opportunity, before you disclose the information to the nonaffiliated third party, to opt out of the disclosure; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer does not opt out. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt out definition.</I> Opt out means a direction by the consumer that you not disclose nonpublic personal information about that consumer to a nonaffiliated third party, other than as permitted by §§ 332.13, 332.14, and 332.15. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of reasonable opportunity to opt out.</I> You provide a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to opt out if: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>By mail.</I> You mail the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the consumer and allow the consumer to opt out by mailing a form, calling a toll-free telephone number, or any other reasonable means within 30 days from the date you mailed the notices. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>By electronic means.</I> A customer opens an on-line account with you and agrees to receive the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section electronically, and you allow the customer to opt out by any reasonable means within 30 days after the date that the customer acknowledges receipt of the notices in conjunction with opening the account. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Isolated transaction with consumer.</I> For an isolated transaction, such as the purchase of a cashier's check by a consumer, you provide the consumer with a reasonable opportunity to opt out if you provide the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section at the time of the transaction and request that the consumer decide, as a necessary part of the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of opt out to all consumers and all nonpublic personal information.</I> (1) You must comply with this section, regardless of whether you and the consumer have established a customer relationship. 
</P>
<P>(2) Unless you comply with this section, you may not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer that you have collected, regardless of whether you collected it before or after receiving the direction to opt out from the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial opt out.</I> You may allow a consumer to select certain nonpublic personal information or certain nonaffiliated third parties with respect to which the consumer wishes to opt out. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.2.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.11   Limits on redisclosure and reuse of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Information you receive under an exception.</I> If you receive nonpublic personal information from a nonaffiliated financial institution under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 of this part, your disclosure and use of that information is limited as follows: 
</P>
<P>(i) You may disclose the information to the affiliates of the financial institution from which you received the information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) You may disclose the information to your affiliates, but your affiliates may, in turn, disclose and use the information only to the extent that you may disclose and use the information; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) You may disclose and use the information pursuant to an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out the activity covered by the exception under which you received the information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you receive a customer list from a nonaffiliated financial institution in order to provide account processing services under the exception in § 332.14(a), you may disclose that information under any exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 in the ordinary course of business in order to provide those services. For example, you could disclose the information in response to a properly authorized subpoena or to your attorneys, accountants, and auditors. You could not disclose that information to a third party for marketing purposes or use that information for your own marketing purposes. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Information you receive outside of an exception.</I> If you receive nonpublic personal information from a nonaffiliated financial institution other than under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 of this part, you may disclose the information only: 
</P>
<P>(i) To the affiliates of the financial institution from which you received the information; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To your affiliates, but your affiliates may, in turn, disclose the information only to the extent that you can disclose the information; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) To any other person, if the disclosure would be lawful if made directly to that person by the financial institution from which you received the information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you obtain a customer list from a nonaffiliated financial institution outside of the exceptions in § 332.14 and 332.15: 
</P>
<P>(i) You may use that list for your own purposes; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) You may disclose that list to another nonaffiliated third party only if the financial institution from which you purchased the list could have lawfully disclosed the list to that third party. That is, you may disclose the list in accordance with the privacy policy of the financial institution from which you received the list, as limited by the opt out direction of each consumer whose nonpublic personal information you intend to disclose, and you may disclose the list in accordance with an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15, such as to your attorneys or accountants. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information you disclose under an exception.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 of this part, the third party may disclose and use that information only as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) The third party may disclose the information to your affiliates; 
</P>
<P>(2) The third party may disclose the information to its affiliates, but its affiliates may, in turn, disclose and use the information only to the extent that the third party may disclose and use the information; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The third party may disclose and use the information pursuant to an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out the activity covered by the exception under which it received the information. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information you disclose outside of an exception.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party other than under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 of this part, the third party may disclose the information only: 
</P>
<P>(1) To your affiliates; 
</P>
<P>(2) To its affiliates, but its affiliates, in turn, may disclose the information only to the extent the third party can disclose the information; and
</P>
<P>(3) To any other person, if the disclosure would be lawful if you made it directly to that person. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.2.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.12   Limits on sharing account number information for marketing purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General prohibition on disclosure of account numbers.</I> You must not, directly or through an affiliate, disclose, other than to a consumer reporting agency, an account number or similar form of access number or access code for a consumer's credit card account, deposit account, or transaction account to any nonaffiliated third party for use in telemarketing, direct mail marketing, or other marketing through electronic mail to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply if you disclose an account number or similar form of access number or access code: 
</P>
<P>(1) To your agent or service provider solely in order to perform marketing for your own products or services, as long as the agent or service provider is not authorized to directly initiate charges to the account; or
</P>
<P>(2) To a participant in a private label credit card program or an affinity or similar program where the participants in the program are identified to the customer when the customer enters into the program. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Account number.</I> An account number, or similar form of access number or access code, does not include a number or code in an encrypted form, as long as you do not provide the recipient with a means to decode the number or code. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transaction account.</I> A transaction account is an account other than a deposit account or a credit card account. A transaction account does not include an account to which third parties cannot initiate charges. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exceptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.3.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.13   Exception to opt out requirements for service providers and joint marketing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) The opt out requirements in §§ 332.7 and 332.10 do not apply when you provide nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party to perform services for you or functions on your behalf, if you: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the initial notice in accordance with § 332.4; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into a contractual agreement with the third party that prohibits the third party from disclosing or using the information other than to carry out the purposes for which you disclosed the information, including use under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out those purposes. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information under this section to a financial institution with which you perform joint marketing, your contractual agreement with that institution meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section if it prohibits the institution from disclosing or using the nonpublic personal information except as necessary to carry out the joint marketing or under an exception in § 332.14 or 332.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out that joint marketing. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service may include joint marketing.</I> The services a nonaffiliated third party performs for you under paragraph (a) of this section may include marketing of your own products or services or marketing of financial products or services offered pursuant to joint agreements between you and one or more financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of joint agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, joint agreement means a written contract pursuant to which you and one or more financial institutions jointly offer, endorse, or sponsor a financial product or service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.3.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.14   Exceptions to notice and opt out requirements for processing and servicing transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions for processing transactions at consumer's request.</I> The requirements for initial notice in § 332.4(a)(2), for the opt out in §§ 332.7 and 332.10 and for service providers and joint marketing in § 332.13 do not apply if you disclose nonpublic personal information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction that a consumer requests or authorizes, or in connection with: 
</P>
<P>(1) Servicing or processing a financial product or service that a consumer requests or authorizes; 
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining or servicing the consumer's account with you, or with another entity as part of a private label credit card program or other extension of credit on behalf of such entity; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed or actual securitization, secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights), or similar transaction related to a transaction of the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction</I> means that the disclosure is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Required, or is one of the lawful or appropriate methods, to enforce your rights or the rights of other persons engaged in carrying out the financial transaction or providing the product or service; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Required, or is a usual, appropriate or acceptable method: 
</P>
<P>(i) To carry out the transaction or the product or service business of which the transaction is a part, and record, service, or maintain the consumer's account in the ordinary course of providing the financial service or financial product; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To administer or service benefits or claims relating to the transaction or the product or service business of which it is a part; 
</P>
<P>(iii) To provide a confirmation, statement, or other record of the transaction, or information on the status or value of the financial service or financial product to the consumer or the consumer's agent or broker; 
</P>
<P>(iv) To accrue or recognize incentives or bonuses associated with the transaction that are provided by you or any other party; 
</P>
<P>(v) To underwrite insurance at the consumer's request or for reinsurance purposes, or for any of the following purposes as they relate to a consumer's insurance: account administration, reporting, investigating, or preventing fraud or material misrepresentation, processing premium payments, processing insurance claims, administering insurance benefits (including utilization review activities), participating in research projects, or as otherwise required or specifically permitted by Federal or State law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) In connection with: 
</P>
<P>(A) The authorization, settlement, billing, processing, clearing, transferring, reconciling or collection of amounts charged, debited, or otherwise paid using a debit, credit, or other payment card, check, or account number, or by other payment means; 
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of receivables, accounts, or interests therein; or 
</P>
<P>(C) The audit of debit, credit, or other payment information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.3.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.15   Other exceptions to notice and opt out requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions to opt out requirements.</I> The requirements for initial notice in § 332.4(a)(2), for the opt out in §§ 332.7 and 332.10, and for service providers and joint marketing in § 332.13 do not apply when you disclose nonpublic personal information: 
</P>
<P>(1) With the consent or at the direction of the consumer, provided that the consumer has not revoked the consent or direction; 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) To protect the confidentiality or security of your records pertaining to the consumer, service, product, or transaction; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability; 
</P>
<P>(iii) For required institutional risk control or for resolving consumer disputes or inquiries; 
</P>
<P>(iv) To persons holding a legal or beneficial interest relating to the consumer; or 
</P>
<P>(v) To persons acting in a fiduciary or representative capacity on behalf of the consumer; 
</P>
<P>(3) To provide information to insurance rate advisory organizations, guaranty funds or agencies, agencies that are rating you, persons that are assessing your compliance with industry standards, and your attorneys, accountants, and auditors; 
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent specifically permitted or required under other provisions of law and in accordance with the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>), to law enforcement agencies (including a federal functional regulator, the Secretary of the Treasury, with respect to 31 U.S.C. Chapter 53, Subchapter II (Records and Reports on Monetary Instruments and Transactions) and 12 U.S.C. Chapter 21 (Financial Recordkeeping), a State insurance authority, with respect to any person domiciled in that insurance authority's State that is engaged in providing insurance, and the Federal Trade Commission), self-regulatory organizations, or for an investigation on a matter related to public safety; 
</P>
<P>(5)(i) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>), or 
</P>
<P>(ii) From a consumer report reported by a consumer reporting agency; 
</P>
<P>(6) In connection with a proposed or actual sale, merger, transfer, or exchange of all or a portion of a business or operating unit if the disclosure of nonpublic personal information concerns solely consumers of such business or unit; or 
</P>
<P>(7)(i) To comply with Federal, State, or local laws, rules and other applicable legal requirements; 
</P>
<P>(ii) To comply with a properly authorized civil, criminal, or regulatory investigation, or subpoena or summons by Federal, State, or local authorities; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) To respond to judicial process or government regulatory authorities having jurisdiction over you for examination, compliance, or other purposes as authorized by law. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of consent and revocation of consent.</I> (1) A consumer may specifically consent to your disclosure to a nonaffiliated insurance company of the fact that the consumer has applied to you for a mortgage so that the insurance company can offer homeowner's insurance to the consumer. 
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer may revoke consent by subsequently exercising the right to opt out of future disclosures of nonpublic personal information as permitted under § 332.7(f). 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Relation to Other Laws; Effective Date</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.4.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.16   Protection of Fair Credit Reporting Act.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to modify, limit, or supersede the operation of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>), and no inference shall be drawn on the basis of the provisions of this part regarding whether information is transaction or experience information under section 603 of that Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.17" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.4.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.17   Relation to State laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not be construed as superseding, altering, or affecting any statute, regulation, order, or interpretation in effect in any State, except to the extent that such State statute, regulation, order, or interpretation is inconsistent with the provisions of this part, and then only to the extent of the inconsistency. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Greater protection under State law.</I> For purposes of this section, a State statute, regulation, order, or interpretation is not inconsistent with the provisions of this part if the protection such statute, regulation, order, or interpretation affords any consumer is greater than the protection provided under this part, as determined by the Federal Trade Commission, after consultation with the FDIC, on the Federal Trade Commission's own motion, or upon the petition of any interested party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 332.18" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.4.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 332.18   Effective date; transition rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> This part is effective November 13, 2000. In order to provide sufficient time for you to establish policies and systems to comply with the requirements of this part, the FDIC has extended the time for compliance with this part until July 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Notice requirement for consumers who are your customers on the compliance date.</I> By July 1, 2001, you must have provided an initial notice, as required by § 332.4, to consumers who are your customers on July 1, 2001. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> You provide an initial notice to consumers who are your customers on July 1, 2001, if, by that date, you have established a system for providing an initial notice to all new customers and have mailed the initial notice to all your existing customers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Two-year grandfathering of service agreements.</I> Until July 1, 2002, a contract that you have entered into with a nonaffiliated third party to perform services for you or functions on your behalf satisfies the provisions of § 332.13(a)(1)(ii) of this part, even if the contract does not include a requirement that the third party maintain the confidentiality of nonpublic personal information, as long as you entered into the contract on or before July 1, 2000. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.23.6.23.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 332—Model Privacy Form
</HEAD>
<HD2>A. The Model Privacy Form

</HD2>
<img src="/graphics/er01de09.014.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er01de09.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01de09.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01de09.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01de09.020.gif"/>
<HD2>B. General Instructions
</HD2>
<HD3>1. How the Model Privacy Form Is Used
</HD3>
<P>(a) The model form may be used, at the option of a financial institution, including a group of financial institutions that use a common privacy notice, to meet the content requirements of the privacy notice and opt-out notice set forth in §§ 332.6 and 332.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The model form is a standardized form, including page layout, content, format, style, pagination, and shading. Institutions seeking to obtain the safe harbor through use of the model form may modify it only as described in these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) Note that disclosure of certain information, such as assets, income, and information from a consumer reporting agency, may give rise to obligations under the Fair Credit Reporting Act [15 U.S.C. 1681-1681x] (FCRA), such as a requirement to permit a consumer to opt out of disclosures to affiliates or designation as a consumer reporting agency if disclosures are made to nonaffiliated third parties.
</P>
<P>(d) The word “customer” may be replaced by the word “member” whenever it appears in the model form, as appropriate.
</P>
<HD3>2. The Contents of the Model Privacy Form
</HD3>
<P>The model form consists of two pages, which may be printed on both sides of a single sheet of paper, or may appear on two separate pages. Where an institution provides a long list of institutions at the end of the model form in accordance with Instruction C.3(a)(1), or provides additional information in accordance with Instruction C.3(c), and such list or additional information exceeds the space available on page two of the model form, such list or additional information may extend to a third page.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Page One.</I> The first page consists of the following components:
</P>
<P>(1) Date last revised (upper right-hand corner).
</P>
<P>(2) Title.
</P>
<P>(3) Key frame (Why?, What?, How?).
</P>
<P>(4) Disclosure table (“Reasons we can share your personal information”).
</P>
<P>(5) “To limit our sharing” box, as needed, for the financial institution's opt-out information.
</P>
<P>(6) “Questions” box, for customer service contact information.
</P>
<P>(7) Mail-in opt-out form, as needed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Page Two.</I> The second page consists of the following components:
</P>
<P>(1) Heading (Page 2).
</P>
<P>(2) Frequently Asked Questions (“Who we are” and “What we do”).
</P>
<P>(3) Definitions.
</P>
<P>(4) “Other important information” box, as needed.
</P>
<HD3>3. The Format of the Model Privacy Form
</HD3>
<P>The format of the model form may be modified only as described below.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Easily readable type font.</I> Financial institutions that use the model form must use an easily readable type font. While a number of factors together produce easily readable type font, institutions are required to use a minimum of 10-point font (unless otherwise expressly permitted in these Instructions) and sufficient spacing between the lines of type.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Logo.</I> A financial institution may include a corporate logo on any page of the notice, so long as it does not interfere with the readability of the model form or the space constraints of each page.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Page size and orientation.</I> Each page of the model form must be printed on paper in portrait orientation, the size of which must be sufficient to meet the layout and minimum font size requirements, with sufficient white space on the top, bottom, and sides of the content.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Color.</I> The model form must be printed on white or light color paper (such as cream) with black or other contrasting ink color. Spot color may be used to achieve visual interest, so long as the color contrast is distinctive and the color does not detract from the readability of the model form. Logos may also be printed in color.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Languages.</I> The model form may be translated into languages other than English.
</P>
<HD2>C. Information Required in the Model Privacy Form
</HD2>
<P>The information in the model form may be modified only as described below:
</P>
<HD3>1. Name of the Institution or Group of Affiliated Institutions Providing the Notice
</HD3>
<P>Insert the name of the financial institution providing the notice or a common identity of affiliated institutions jointly providing the notice on the form wherever [name of financial institution] appears.
</P>
<HD3>2. Page One
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Last revised date.</I> The financial institution must insert in the upper right-hand corner the date on which the notice was last revised. The information shall appear in minimum 8-point font as “rev. [month/year]” using either the name or number of the month, such as “rev. July 2009” or “rev. 7/09”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General instructions for the “What?” box.</I> (1) The bulleted list identifies the types of personal information that the institution collects and shares. All institutions must use the term “Social Security number” in the first bullet.
</P>
<P>(2) Institutions must use five (5) of the following terms to complete the bulleted list: income; account balances; payment history; transaction history; transaction or loss history; credit history; credit scores; assets; investment experience; credit-based insurance scores; insurance claim history; medical information; overdraft history; purchase history; account transactions; risk tolerance; medical-related debts; credit card or other debt; mortgage rates and payments; retirement assets; checking account information; employment information; wire transfer instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General instructions for the disclosure table.</I> The left column lists reasons for sharing or using personal information. Each reason correlates to a specific legal provision described in paragraph C.2(d) of this Instruction. In the middle column, each institution must provide a “Yes” or “No” response that accurately reflects its information sharing policies and practices with respect to the reason listed on the left. In the right column, each institution must provide in each box one of the following three (3) responses, as applicable, that reflects whether a consumer can limit such sharing: “Yes” if it is required to or voluntarily provides an opt-out; “No” if it does not provide an opt-out; or “We don't share” if it answers “No” in the middle column. Only the sixth row (“For our affiliates to market to you”) may be omitted at the option of the institution. <I>See</I> paragraph C.2(d)(6) of this Instruction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific disclosures and corresponding legal provisions</I>—(1) <I>For our everyday business purposes.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information under §§ 332.14 and 332.15 and with service providers pursuant to § 332.13 of this part other than the purposes specified in paragraphs C.2(d)(2) or C.2(d)(3) of these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For our marketing purposes.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information with service providers by an institution for its own marketing pursuant to § 332.13 of this part. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For joint marketing with other financial companies.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information under joint marketing agreements between two or more financial institutions and with any service provider used in connection with such agreements pursuant to § 332.13 of this part. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For our affiliates' everyday business purposes—information about transactions and experiences.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information specified in sections 603(d)(2)(A)(i) and (ii) of the FCRA. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For our affiliates' everyday business purposes—information about creditworthiness.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information pursuant to section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA. An institution that shares for this reason must provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For our affiliates to market to you.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information specified in section 624 of the FCRA. This reason may be omitted from the disclosure table when: The institution does not have affiliates (or does not disclose personal information to its affiliates); the institution's affiliates do not use personal information in a manner that requires an opt-out; or the institution provides the affiliate marketing notice separately. Institutions that include this reason must provide an opt-out of indefinite duration. An institution that is required to provide an affiliate marketing opt-out, but does not include that opt-out in the model form under this part, must comply with section 624 of the FCRA and 12 CFR part 334, subpart C, with respect to the initial notice and opt-out and any subsequent renewal notice and opt-out. An institution not required to provide an opt-out under this subparagraph may elect to include this reason in the model form.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For nonaffiliates to market to you.</I> This reason incorporates sharing described in §§ 332.7 and 332.10(a) of this part. An institution that shares personal information for this reason must provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>To limit our sharing:</I> A financial institution must include this section of the model form <I>only</I> if it provides an opt-out. The word “choice” may be written in either the singular or plural, as appropriate. Institutions must select one or more of the applicable opt-out methods described: Telephone, such as by a toll-free number; a Web site; or use of a mail-in opt-out form. Institutions may include the words “toll-free” before telephone, as appropriate. An institution that allows consumers to opt out online must provide either a specific Web address that takes consumers directly to the opt-out page or a general Web address that provides a clear and conspicuous direct link to the opt-out page. The opt-out choices made available to the consumer who contacts the institution through these methods must correspond accurately to the “Yes” responses in the third column of the disclosure table. In the part titled “Please note” institutions may insert a number that is 30 or greater in the space marked “[30].” Instructions on voluntary or state privacy law opt-out information are in paragraph C.2(g)(5) of these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Questions box.</I> Customer service contact information must be inserted as appropriate, where [phone number] or [Web site] appear. Institutions may elect to provide either a phone number, such as a toll-free number, or a Web address, or both. Institutions may include the words “toll-free” before the telephone number, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mail-in opt-out form.</I> Financial institutions must include this mail-in form <I>only</I> if they state in the “To limit our sharing” box that consumers can opt out by mail. The mail-in form must provide opt-out options that correspond accurately to the “Yes” responses in the third column in the disclosure table. Institutions that require customers to provide only name and address may omit the section identified as “[account #].” Institutions that require additional or different information, such as a random opt-out number or a truncated account number, to implement an opt-out election should modify the “[account #]” reference accordingly. This includes institutions that require customers with multiple accounts to identify each account to which the opt-out should apply. An institution must enter its opt-out mailing address: In the far right of this form (<I>see</I> version 3); or below the form (<I>see</I> version 4). The reverse side of the mail-in opt-out form must not include any content of the model form.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Joint accountholder.</I> Only institutions that provide their joint accountholders the choice to opt out for only one accountholder, in accordance with paragraph C.3(a)(5) of these Instructions, must include in the far left column of the mail-in form the following statement: “If you have a joint account, your choice(s) will apply to everyone on your account unless you mark below. □ Apply my choice(s) only to me.” The word “choice” may be written in either the singular or plural, as appropriate. Financial institutions that provide insurance products or services, provide this option, and elect to use the model form may substitute the word “policy” for “account” in this statement. Institutions that do not provide this option may eliminate this left column from the mail-in form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>FCRA Section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) opt-out.</I> If the institution shares personal information pursuant to section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “□ Do not share information about my creditworthiness with your affiliates for their everyday business purposes.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FCRA Section 624 opt-out.</I> If the institution incorporates section 624 of the FCRA in accord with paragraph C.2(d)(6) of these Instructions, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “□ Do not allow your affiliates to use my personal information to market to me.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonaffiliate opt-out.</I> If the financial institution shares personal information pursuant to § 332.10(a) of this part, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “□ Do not share my personal information with nonaffiliates to market their products and services to me.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional opt-outs.</I> Financial institutions that use the disclosure table to provide opt-out options beyond those required by Federal law must provide those opt-outs in this section of the model form. A financial institution that chooses to offer an opt-out for its own marketing in the mail-in opt-out form must include one of the two following statements: “□ Do not share my personal information to market to me.” <I>or</I> “□ Do not use my personal information to market to me.” A financial institution that chooses to offer an opt-out for joint marketing must include the following statement: “□ Do not share my personal information with other financial institutions to jointly market to me.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Barcodes.</I> A financial institution may elect to include a barcode and/or “tagline” (an internal identifier) in 6-point font at the bottom of page one, as needed for information internal to the institution, so long as these do not interfere with the clarity or text of the form.
</P>
<HD3>3. Page Two
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>General Instructions for the Questions.</I> Certain of the Questions may be customized as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>“Who is providing this notice?”</I> This question may be omitted where only one financial institution provides the model form and that institution is clearly identified in the title on page one. Two or more financial institutions that jointly provide the model form must use this question to identify themselves as required by § 332.9(f) of this part. Where the list of institutions exceeds four (4) lines, the institution must describe in the response to this question the general types of institutions jointly providing the notice and must separately identify those institutions, in minimum 8-point font, directly following the “Other important information” box, or, if that box is not included in the institution's form, directly following the “Definitions.” The list may appear in a multi-column format.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“How does [name of financial institution</I><I>] protect my personal information?”</I> The financial institution may only provide additional information pertaining to its safeguards practices following the designated response to this question. Such information may include information about the institution's use of cookies or other measures it uses to safeguard personal information. Institutions are limited to a maximum of 30 additional words.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>“How does [name of financial institution</I><I>] collect my personal information?”</I> Institutions must use five (5) of the following terms to complete the bulleted list for this question: Open an account; deposit money; pay your bills; apply for a loan; use your credit or debit card; seek financial or tax advice; apply for insurance; pay insurance premiums; file an insurance claim; seek advice about your investments; buy securities from us; sell securities to us; direct us to buy securities; direct us to sell your securities; make deposits or withdrawals from your account; enter into an investment advisory contract; give us your income information; provide employment information; give us your employment history; tell us about your investment or retirement portfolio; tell us about your investment or retirement earnings; apply for financing; apply for a lease; provide account information; give us your contact information; pay us by check; give us your wage statements; provide your mortgage information; make a wire transfer; tell us who receives the money; tell us where to send the money; show your government-issued ID; show your driver's license; order a commodity futures or option trade. Institutions that collect personal information from their affiliates and/or credit bureaus must include after the bulleted list the following statement: “We also collect your personal information from others, such as credit bureaus, affiliates, or other companies.” Institutions that do not collect personal information from their affiliates or credit bureaus but do collect information from other companies must include the following statement instead: “We also collect your personal information from other companies.” Only institutions that do not collect any personal information from affiliates, credit bureaus, or other companies can omit both statements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>“Why can't I limit all sharing?”</I> Institutions that describe state privacy law provisions in the <I>“Other important information”</I> box must use the bracketed sentence: “See below for more on your rights under state law.” Other institutions must omit this sentence.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“What happens when I limit sharing for an account I hold jointly with someone else?”</I> Only financial institutions that provide opt-out options must use this question. Other institutions must omit this question. Institutions must choose one of the following two statements to respond to this question: “Your choices will apply to everyone on your account.” or “Your choices will apply to everyone on your account—unless you tell us otherwise.” Financial institutions that provide insurance products or services and elect to use the model form may substitute the word “policy” for “account” in these statements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Instructions for the Definitions.</I> The financial institution must customize the space below the responses to the three definitions in this section. This specific information must be in italicized lettering to set off the information from the standardized definitions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Affiliates.</I> As required by § 332.6(a)(3) of this part, where [<I>affiliate information</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it has no affiliates, state: “[<I>name of financial institution</I>] <I>has no affiliates</I>”;
</P>
<P>(ii) If it has affiliates but does not share personal information, state: <I>“[name of financial institution] does not share with our affiliates”</I>; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If it shares with its affiliates, state, as applicable: <I>“Our affiliates include companies with a [common corporate identity of financial institution] name; financial companies such as [insert illustrative list of companies]; nonfinancial companies, such as [insert illustrative list of companies]; and others, such as [insert illustrative list].”</I>
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonaffiliates.</I> As required by § 332.6(c)(3) of this part, where [<I>nonaffiliate information</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it does not share with nonaffiliated third parties, state: <I>“[name of financial institution] does not share with nonaffiliates so they can market to you”</I>; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If it shares with nonaffiliated third parties, state, as applicable: <I>“Nonaffiliates we share with can include [list categories of companies such as mortgage companies, insurance companies, direct marketing companies, and nonprofit organizations].”</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint Marketing.</I> As required by § 332.13 of this part, where [<I>joint marketing</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it does not engage in joint marketing, state: “<I>[name of financial institution] doesn't jointly market</I>”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If it shares personal information for joint marketing, state, as applicable: “<I>Our joint marketing partners include [list categories of companies such as credit card companies].</I>”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General instructions for the “Other important information” box.</I> This box is optional. The space provided for information in this box is not limited. Only the following types of information can appear in this box.
</P>
<P>(1) State and/or international privacy law information; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) Acknowledgment of receipt form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 69236, Dec. 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="333" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 333—EXTENSION OF CORPORATE POWERS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1816; 1817(i); 1818; 1819(a) (“Seventh”, “Eighth”, and “Tenth”), 1828, 1828(m), 1831p-1(c), 5414 and 5415.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV7 N="23" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.23.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.1   Classification of general character of business.</HEAD>
<P>State nonmember insured banks are divided into five categories for the purpose of classifying their general character or type of business, 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> viz: commercial banks, banks and trust companies, savings banks (including mutual and stock), industrial banks, and cash depositories. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> A bank's business may include two or more of the general classifications.</P></FTNT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 8644, Dec. 6, 1950] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.23.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.2   Change in general character of business.</HEAD>
<P>No State nonmember insured bank (except a District bank) or branch thereof shall hereafter cause or permit any change to be made in the general character or type of business exercised by it after the effective date of this part without the prior written consent of the Corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[15 FR 8644, Dec. 6, 1950]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.23.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.3   Consent required for exercise of trust powers.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in 12 CFR 303.242(a), a State nonmember bank or State savings association seeking to exercise trust powers must obtain prior written consent from the FDIC. Procedures for obtaining the FDIC's prior written consent are set forth in 12 CFR 303.242.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 60337, Nov. 26, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.23.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.4   Conversions from mutual to stock form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to the conversion of insured mutual state savings banks to the stock form of ownership. It supplements the procedural and other requirements for such conversions in subpart I of part 303 of this chapter. This section also applies, to the extent appropriate, to the reorganization of insured mutual state savings banks to the mutual holding company form of ownership. As determined by the Board of Directors of the FDIC on a case-by-case basis, the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section do not apply to mutual-to-stock conversions of insured mutual state savings banks whose capital category under § 325.103 of this chapter or § 324.403, as applicable, is “undercapitalized”, “significantly undercapitalized” or “critically undercapitalized”. As determined by the Board of Directors of the FDIC on a case-by-case basis, the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section do not apply to mutual-to-stock conversions of insured mutual state savings banks whose capital category under § 324.403 of this chapter is “undercapitalized”, “significantly undercapitalized” or “critically undercapitalized”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of Eligible Depositor.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>eligible depositors</I> are depositors holding qualifying deposits at the bank as of a date designated in the bank's plan of conversion that is not less than one year prior to the date of adoption of the plan of conversion by the converting bank's board of directors/trustees. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> In addition to other requirements that may be imposed by the applicable state statutes and regulations and other federal statutes and regulations, including subpart I of part 303 of this chapter, an insured mutual state savings bank shall not convert to the stock form of ownership unless the following requirements are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible depositors shall have higher subscription rights than employee stock ownership plans; 
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed conversion shall be approved by a vote of at least a majority of the bank's depositors and, as reasonably determined by the bank's directors or trustees, other stakeholders of the bank who are entitled to vote on the conversion, unless the applicable state law requires a higher percentage, in which case the higher percentage shall be used. Voting may be in person or by proxy; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Management shall not use proxies executed outside the context of the proposed conversion to satisfy the voting requirement imposed in the previous paragraph.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restriction on repurchase of stock.</I> An insured mutual state savings bank that has converted from the mutual to stock form of ownership may not repurchase its capital stock within one year following the date of its conversion to stock form, except that stock repurchases of no greater than 5% of the bank's outstanding capital stock may be repurchased during this one-year period where compelling and valid business reasons are established, to the satisfaction of the FDIC. Any stock repurchases shall be subject to the requirements of section 18(i)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(i)(1)). 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stock benefit plan limitations.</I> The FDIC will presume that a stock option plan or management or employee stock benefit plan that does not conform with the applicable percentage limitations of the regulations issued by the Office of Thrift Supervision constitutes excessive insider benefits and thereby evidences a breach of the board of directors' or trustees' fiduciary responsibility. In addition, no converted insured mutual state savings bank shall, for one year from the date of the conversion, implement a stock option plan or management or employee stock benefit plan, other than a tax-qualified employee stock ownership plan, unless each of the following requirements is met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each of the plans was fully disclosed in the proxy solicitation and conversion stock offering materials; 
</P>
<P>(2) All such plans are approved by a majority of the bank's stockholders, or in the case of a recently formed holding company, its stockholders, prior to implementation at a duly called meeting of shareholders, either annual or special, to be held no sooner than six months after the completion of the conversion; 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a savings bank subsidiary of a mutual holding company, all such plans are approved by a majority of stockholders other than its parent mutual holding company prior to implementation at a duly called meeting of shareholders, either annual or special, to be held no sooner than six months following the stock issuance; 
</P>
<P>(4) For stock option plans, stock options are granted at no lower than the market price at which the stock is trading at the time of grant; and 
</P>
<P>(5) For management or employee stock benefit plans, no conversion stock is used to fund the plans. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 61246, Nov. 30, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 44750, Aug. 20, 1998; 68 FR 50461, Aug. 21, 2003; 78 FR 55595, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 333.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.24.0.24.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 333.101   Prior consent not required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The extension by any State nonmember insured bank of its business to include personal, character or installment loans, or the extension by an industrial bank of its business to include the business of a commercial bank, is not a change in the general character or type of business requiring the prior written consent of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) An insured State nonmember bank or State savings association, not exercising trust powers, may act as trustee or custodian of Individual Retirement Accounts established pursuant to the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (26 U.S.C. 408), Self-Employed Retirement Plans established pursuant to the Self-Employed Individuals Retirement Act of 1962 (26 U.S.C. 401), Roth Individual Retirement Accounts and Coverdell Education Savings Accounts established pursuant to the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997 (26 U.S.C. 408A and 530 respectively), Health Savings Accounts established pursuant to the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act of 2003 (26 U.S.C. 223), and other similar accounts without the prior written consent of the Corporation provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's or savings association's duties as trustee or custodian are essentially custodial or ministerial in nature,
</P>
<P>(2) The bank or savings association is required to invest the funds from such plans only
</P>
<P>(i) In its own time or savings deposits, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In any other assets at the direction of the customer, provided the bank or savings association does not exercise any investment discretion or provide any investment advice with respect to such account assets, and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's or savings association's acceptance of such accounts without trust powers is not contrary to applicable State law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[41 FR 2375, Jan. 16, 1976, as amended at 50 FR 10754, Mar. 18, 1985; 70 FR 60422, Oct. 18, 2005; 83 FR 60337, Nov. 26, 2018] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="334" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 334—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819 (Tenth), and 1831p-1; 15 U.S.C. 1681a, 1681b, 1681c, 1681m, 1681s, 1681s-2, 1681s-3, 1681t, 1681w, 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 77618, Dec. 28, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 70685, Nov. 22, 2005, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 334.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the Fair Credit Reporting Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the regulations in this part apply to insured state nonmember banks, state savings associations whose deposits are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, insured state licensed branches of foreign banks, and subsidiaries of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 65918, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 334.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.2   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part. Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issue that may arise in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 334.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that is related by common ownership or common corporate control with another company.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(f)-(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Common ownership or common corporate control</I> means a relationship between two companies under which:
</P>
<P>(1) One company has, with respect to the other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of a company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of a company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of a company, as the FDIC determines; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person has, with respect to both companies, a relationship described in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) through (i)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer, that relates to:
</P>
<P>(i) The past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of health care to an individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The payment for the provision of health care to an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The age or gender of a consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demographic information about the consumer, including a consumer's residence address or e-mail address;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information about a consumer that does not relate to the physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of a consumer, including the existence or value of any insurance policy; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Information that does not identify a specific consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate cooperative, association, government or governmental subdivision or agency, or other entity.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 70685, Nov. 22, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 63760, Nov. 9, 2007; 80 FR 65919, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts B-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Records Disposal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 334.80-334.82" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 334.80-334.82   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 334.83" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.83   Disposal of consumer information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must properly dispose of any consumer information that you maintain or otherwise possess in accordance with the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards, as set forth in appendix B to part 364 of this chapter, prescribed pursuant to section 216 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003 (15 U.S.C. 1681w) and section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801(b)), to the extent the Guidelines are applicable to you.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this section shall be construed to:
</P>
<P>(1) Require you to maintain or destroy any record pertaining to a consumer that is not imposed under any other law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Alter or affect any requirement imposed under any other provision of law to maintain or destroy such a record.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Identity Theft Red Flags</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 63761, Nov. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 334.90" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.90   Duties regarding the detection, prevention, and mitigation of identity theft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I> This section applies to a financial institution or creditor that is an insured state nonmember bank, State savings association whose deposits are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, insured state licensed branch of a foreign bank, or a subsidiary of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and Appendix J, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> means a continuing relationship established by a person with a financial institution or creditor to obtain a product or service for personal, family, household or business purposes. Account includes:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension of credit, such as the purchase of property or services involving a deferred payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A deposit account.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>board of directors</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, the managing official in charge of the branch or agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of any other creditor that does not have a board of directors, a designated employee at the level of senior management.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered account</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An account that a financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that involves or is designed to permit multiple payments or transactions, such as a credit card account, mortgage loan, automobile loan, margin account, cell phone account, utility account, checking account, or savings account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other account that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains for which there is a reasonably foreseeable risk to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, including financial, operational, compliance, reputation, or litigation risks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681m(e)(4).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Customer</I> means a person that has a covered account with a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial institution</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(t).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identity theft</I> has the same meaning as in 16 CFR 603.2(a).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Red Flag</I> means a pattern, practice, or specific activity that indicates the possible existence of identity theft.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Service provider</I> means a person that provides a service directly to the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic identification of covered accounts.</I> Each financial institution or creditor must periodically determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts. As a part of this determination, a financial institution or creditor must conduct a risk assessment to determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods it provides to open its accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to access its accounts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishment of an Identity Theft Prevention Program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts must develop and implement a written Identity Theft Prevention Program (Program) that is designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. The Program must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the financial institution or creditor and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of the Program.</I> The Program must include reasonable policies and procedures to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify relevant Red Flags for the covered accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains, and incorporate those Red Flags into its Program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detect Red Flags that have been incorporated into the Program of the financial institution or creditor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond appropriately to any Red Flags that are detected pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section to prevent and mitigate identity theft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) is updated periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers and to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration of the Program.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must provide for the continued administration of the Program and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain approval of the initial written Program from either its board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(2) Involve the board of directors, an appropriate committee thereof, or a designated employee at the level of senior management in the oversight, development, implementation and administration of the Program;
</P>
<P>(3) Train staff, as necessary, to effectively implement the Program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Exercise appropriate and effective oversight of service provider arrangements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each financial institution or creditor that is required to implement a Program must consider the guidelines in Appendix J of this part and include in its Program those guidelines that are appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63761, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 65919, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 334.91" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.4.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 334.91   Duties of card issuers regarding changes of address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I> This section applies to an issuer of a debit or credit card (card issuer) that is an insured state nonmember bank, state savings association whose deposits are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, insured state licensed branch of a foreign bank, or a subsidiary of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, or investment advisers).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cardholder</I> means a consumer who has been issued a credit or debit card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Address validation requirements.</I> A card issuer must establish and implement reasonable policies and procedures to assess the validity of a change of address if it receives notification of a change of address for a consumer's debit or credit card account and, within a short period of time afterwards (during at least the first 30 days after it receives such notification), the card issuer receives a request for an additional or replacement card for the same account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not issue an additional or replacement card, until, in accordance with its reasonable policies and procedures and for the purpose of assessing the validity of the change of address, the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Notifies the cardholder of the request:
</P>
<P>(A) At the cardholder's former address; or
</P>
<P>(B) By any other means of communication that the card issuer and the cardholder have previously agreed to use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides to the cardholder a reasonable means of promptly reporting incorrect address changes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise assesses the validity of the change of address in accordance with the policies and procedures the card issuer has established pursuant to § 334.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative timing of address validation.</I> A card issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if it validates an address pursuant to the methods in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section when it receives an address change notification, before it receives a request for an additional or replacement card.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of notice.</I> Any written or electronic notice that the card issuer provides under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous and provided separately from its regular correspondence with the cardholder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63761, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 80 FR 65919, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.4.25.3.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes A-I to Part 334 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.25.4.25.3.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 334—Interagency Guidelines on Identity Theft Detection, Prevention, and Mitigation
</HEAD>
<P>Section 334.90 of this part requires each financial institution and creditor that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts, as defined in § 334.90(b)(3) of this part, to develop and provide for the continued administration of a written Program to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. These guidelines are intended to assist financial institutions and creditors in the formulation and maintenance of a Program that satisfies the requirements of § 334.90 of this part.
</P>
<HD3>I. The Program
</HD3>
<P>In designing its Program, a financial institution or creditor may incorporate, as appropriate, its existing policies, procedures, and other arrangements that control reasonably foreseeable risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>II. Identifying Relevant Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Risk Factors.</I> A financial institution or creditor should consider the following factors in identifying relevant Red Flags for covered accounts, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of covered accounts it offers or maintains;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to open its covered accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) The methods it provides to access its covered accounts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sources of Red Flags.</I> Financial institutions and creditors should incorporate relevant Red Flags from sources such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Incidents of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has experienced;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of identity theft that the financial institution or creditor has identified that reflect changes in identity theft risks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categories of Red Flags.</I> The Program should include relevant Red Flags from the following categories, as appropriate. Examples of Red Flags from each of these categories are appended as Supplement A to this Appendix J.
</P>
<P>(1) Alerts, notifications, or other warnings received from consumer reporting agencies or service providers, such as fraud detection services;
</P>
<P>(2) The presentation of suspicious documents;
</P>
<P>(3) The presentation of suspicious personal identifying information, such as a suspicious address change;
</P>
<P>(4) The unusual use of, or other suspicious activity related to, a covered account; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notice from customers, victims of identity theft, law enforcement authorities, or other persons regarding possible identity theft in connection with covered accounts held by the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD3>III. <I>Detecting Red Flags.</I>
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should address the detection of Red Flags in connection with the opening of covered accounts and existing covered accounts, such as by:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtaining identifying information about, and verifying the identity of, a person opening a covered account, for example, using the policies and procedures regarding identification and verification set forth in the Customer Identification Program rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 1020.220); and
</P>
<P>(b) Authenticating customers, monitoring transactions, and verifying the validity of change of address requests, in the case of existing covered accounts.
</P>
<HD3>IV. <I>Preventing and Mitigating Identity Theft.</I>
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should provide for appropriate responses to the Red Flags the financial institution or creditor has detected that are commensurate with the degree of risk posed. In determining an appropriate response, a financial institution or creditor should consider aggravating factors that may heighten the risk of identity theft, such as a data security incident that results in unauthorized access to a customer's account records held by the financial institution, creditor, or third party, or notice that a customer has provided information related to a covered account held by the financial institution or creditor to someone fraudulently claiming to represent the financial institution or creditor or to a fraudulent Web site. Appropriate responses may include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Monitoring a covered account for evidence of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Contacting the customer;
</P>
<P>(c) Changing any passwords, security codes, or other security devices that permit access to a covered account;
</P>
<P>(d) Reopening a covered account with a new account number;
</P>
<P>(e) Not opening a new covered account;
</P>
<P>(f) Closing an existing covered account;
</P>
<P>(g) Not attempting to collect on a covered account or not selling a covered account to a debt collector;
</P>
<P>(h) Notifying law enforcement; or
</P>
<P>(i) Determining that no response is warranted under the particular circumstances.
</P>
<HD3>V. <I>Updating the Program.</I>
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should update the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) periodically, to reflect changes in risks to customers or to the safety and soundness of the financial institution or creditor from identity theft, based on factors such as:
</P>
<P>(a) The experiences of the financial institution or creditor with identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Changes in methods of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in methods to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft;
</P>
<P>(d) Changes in the types of accounts that the financial institution or creditor offers or maintains; and
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in the business arrangements of the financial institution or creditor, including mergers, acquisitions, alliances, joint ventures, and service provider arrangements.
</P>
<HD3>VI. Methods for Administering the Program
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Oversight of Program.</I> Oversight by the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management should include:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigning specific responsibility for the Program's implementation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing reports prepared by staff regarding compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 334.90 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Approving material changes to the Program as necessary to address changing identity theft risks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Staff of the financial institution or creditor responsible for development, implementation, and administration of its Program should report to the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management, at least annually, on compliance by the financial institution or creditor with § 334.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The report should address material matters related to the Program and evaluate issues such as: the effectiveness of the policies and procedures of the financial institution or creditor in addressing the risk of identity theft in connection with the opening of covered accounts and with respect to existing covered accounts; service provider arrangements; significant incidents involving identity theft and management's response; and recommendations for material changes to the Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oversight of service provider arrangements.</I> Whenever a financial institution or creditor engages a service provider to perform an activity in connection with one or more covered accounts the financial institution or creditor should take steps to ensure that the activity of the service provider is conducted in accordance with reasonable policies and procedures designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate the risk of identity theft. For example, a financial institution or creditor could require the service provider by contract to have policies and procedures to detect relevant Red Flags that may arise in the performance of the service provider's activities, and either report the Red Flags to the financial institution or creditor, or to take appropriate steps to prevent or mitigate identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>VII. Other Applicable Legal Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Financial institutions and creditors should be mindful of other related legal requirements that may be applicable, such as:
</P>
<P>(a) For financial institutions and creditors that are subject to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), filing a Suspicious Activity Report in accordance with applicable law and regulation;
</P>
<P>(b) Implementing any requirements under 15 U.S.C. 1681c-1(h) regarding the circumstances under which credit may be extended when the financial institution or creditor detects a fraud or active duty alert;
</P>
<P>(c) Implementing any requirements for furnishers of information to consumer reporting agencies under 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2, for example, to correct or update inaccurate or incomplete information, and to not report information that the furnisher has reasonable cause to believe is inaccurate; and
</P>
<P>(d) Complying with the prohibitions in 15 U.S.C. 1681m on the sale, transfer, and placement for collection of certain debts resulting from identity theft.
</P>
<HD2>Supplement A to Appendix J
</HD2>
<P>In addition to incorporating Red Flags from the sources recommended in section II.b. of the Guidelines in Appendix J of this part, each financial institution or creditor may consider incorporating into its Program, whether singly or in combination, Red Flags from the following illustrative examples in connection with covered accounts:
</P>
<HD2>Alerts, Notifications or Warnings from a Consumer Reporting Agency
</HD2>
<P>1. A fraud or active duty alert is included with a consumer report.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of credit freeze in response to a request for a consumer report.
</P>
<P>3. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of address discrepancy, as defined in 12 CFR 1022.82(b).
</P>
<P>4. A consumer report indicates a pattern of activity that is inconsistent with the history and usual pattern of activity of an applicant or customer, such as:
</P>
<P>a. A recent and significant increase in the volume of inquiries;
</P>
<P>b. An unusual number of recently established credit relationships;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in the use of credit, especially with respect to recently established credit relationships; or
</P>
<P>d. An account that was closed for cause or identified for abuse of account privileges by a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Documents
</HD2>
<P>5. Documents provided for identification appear to have been altered or forged.
</P>
<P>6. The photograph or physical description on the identification is not consistent with the appearance of the applicant or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>7. Other information on the identification is not consistent with information provided by the person opening a new covered account or customer presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>8. Other information on the identification is not consistent with readily accessible information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor, such as a signature card or a recent check.
</P>
<P>9. An application appears to have been altered or forged, or gives the appearance of having been destroyed and reassembled.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Personal Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>10. Personal identifying information provided is inconsistent when compared against external information sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address does not match any address in the consumer report; or
</P>
<P>b. The Social Security Number (SSN) has not been issued, or is listed on the Social Security Administration's Death Master File.
</P>
<P>11. Personal identifying information provided by the customer is not consistent with other personal identifying information provided by the customer. For example, there is a lack of correlation between the SSN range and date of birth.
</P>
<P>12. Personal identifying information provided is associated with known fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is the same as the address provided on a fraudulent application; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number on an application is the same as the number provided on a fraudulent application.
</P>
<P>13. Personal identifying information provided is of a type commonly associated with fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the financial institution or creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is fictitious, a mail drop, or a prison; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number is invalid, or is associated with a pager or answering service.
</P>
<P>14. The SSN provided is the same as that submitted by other persons opening an account or other customers.
</P>
<P>15. The address or telephone number provided is the same as or similar to the address or telephone number submitted by an unusually large number of other persons opening accounts or by other customers.
</P>
<P>16. The person opening the covered account or the customer fails to provide all required personal identifying information on an application or in response to notification that the application is incomplete.
</P>
<P>17. Personal identifying information provided is not consistent with personal identifying information that is on file with the financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<P>18. For financial institutions and creditors that use challenge questions, the person opening the covered account or the customer cannot provide authenticating information beyond that which generally would be available from a wallet or consumer report.
</P>
<HD2>Unusual Use of, or Suspicious Activity Related to, the Covered Account
</HD2>
<P>19. Shortly following the notice of a change of address for a covered account, the institution or creditor receives a request for a new, additional, or replacement card or a cell phone, or for the addition of authorized users on the account.
</P>
<P>20. A new revolving credit account is used in a manner commonly associated with known patterns of fraud. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The majority of available credit is used for cash advances or merchandise that is easily convertible to cash (e.g., electronics equipment or jewelry); or
</P>
<P>b. The customer fails to make the first payment or makes an initial payment but no subsequent payments.
</P>
<P>21. A covered account is used in a manner that is not consistent with established patterns of activity on the account. There is, for example:
</P>
<P>a. Nonpayment when there is no history of late or missed payments;
</P>
<P>b. A material increase in the use of available credit;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in purchasing or spending patterns;
</P>
<P>d. A material change in electronic fund transfer patterns in connection with a deposit account; or
</P>
<P>e. A material change in telephone call patterns in connection with a cellular phone account.
</P>
<P>22. A covered account that has been inactive for a reasonably lengthy period of time is used (taking into consideration the type of account, the expected pattern of usage and other relevant factors).
</P>
<P>23. Mail sent to the customer is returned repeatedly as undeliverable although transactions continue to be conducted in connection with the customer's covered account.
</P>
<P>24. The financial institution or creditor is notified that the customer is not receiving paper account statements.
</P>
<P>25. The financial institution or creditor is notified of unauthorized charges or transactions in connection with a customer's covered account.
</P>
<HD2>Notice From Customers, Victims of Identity Theft, Law Enforcement Authorities, or Other Persons Regarding Possible Identity Theft in Connection With Covered Accounts Held by the Financial Institution or Creditor
</HD2>
<P>26. The financial institution or creditor is notified by a customer, a victim of identity theft, a law enforcement authority, or any other person that it has opened a fraudulent account for a person engaged in identity theft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63762, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22643, May 14, 2009; 76 FR 14794, Mar. 18, 2011; 80 FR 65919, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="335" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 335—SECURITIES OF STATE NONMEMBER BANKS AND STATE SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819; 15 U.S.C. 78j-1, 78l(i), 78m, 78n, 78p, 78w, 5412, 5414, 5415, 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 6856, Feb. 14, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 335.101" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.101   Scope of part, authority and OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the FDIC) under section 12(i) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, 15 U.S.C. 78 <I>et seq.</I> (the Exchange Act), and applies to all securities of FDIC-insured State nonmember banks (including foreign banks having an insured branch) and State savings associations that are subject to the registration requirements of section 12(b) or section 12(g) of the Exchange Act). The FDIC is vested with the powers, functions, and duties of the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) to administer and enforce sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78j-1, 78<I>l,</I> 78m, 78n(a), 78n(c), 78n(d), 78n(f), and 78p), and sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265) regarding State nonmember banks and State savings associations with one or more classes of securities subject to the registration provisions of sections 12(b) or 12(g) of the Exchange Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Part 335 generally incorporates through cross reference the regulations of the SEC as these regulations are issued, revised, or updated from time to time under sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14(a), 14(c), 14(d), 14(f), and 16 of the Exchange Act and sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (Sarbanes-Oxley Act), except as provided at § 335.801 of this part. References to the Commission in the regulations of the SEC are deemed to refer to the FDIC unless the context otherwise requires.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6856, Feb. 14, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 19088, Apr. 12, 2004; 69 FR 59783, Oct. 6, 2004; 70 FR 16400, Mar. 31, 2005; 70 FR 44272, Aug. 2, 2005; 79 FR 63501, Oct. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.111" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.111   Forms and schedules.</HEAD>
<P>The Exchange Act regulations of the SEC, which are cross referenced under this part, require the filing of forms and schedules as applicable. Reference is made to SEC Exchange Act regulation 17 CFR part 249 regarding the availability of all applicable SEC Exchange Act forms. Required schedules are codified and are found within the context of the SEC's regulations. All forms and schedules shall be titled with the name of the FDIC in substitution for the name of the SEC. The filing of forms and schedules shall be made with the FDIC at the address in § 335.701 or may be filed electronically at FDIC<I>connect</I> at <I>https://www2.fdicconnect.gov/index.asp.</I> However, electronic filing of Beneficial Ownership Forms 3, 4 and 5 is required. Copies of Forms 3 (§ 335.611), 4 (§ 335.612) and 5 (§ 335.613) and the instructions thereto may be printed and downloaded from <I>https://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/forms.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.121" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.121   Listing standards related to audit committees.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable SEC regulation under section 10(A)(m) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.201" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.201   Securities exempted from registration.</HEAD>
<P>Persons subject to registration requirements under Exchange Act section 12 and subject to this part shall follow the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations relative to exemptions from registration issued under sections 3 and 12 of the Exchange Act as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.211" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.211   Registration and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>Persons with securities subject to registration under Exchange Act sections 12(b) and 12(g), required to report under Exchange Act section 13, and subject to this part shall follow the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations issued under section 12(b) of the Exchange Act as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.221" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.221   Forms for registration of securities and cross reference to Regulation FD (Fair Disclosure).</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicable forms for registration of securities and similar matters are codified in 17 CFR part 249. All forms shall be filed with the FDIC as appropriate and shall be titled with the name of the FDIC instead of the SEC.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for Financial Statements can generally be found in Regulation S-X (17 CFR part 210). Banks and State savings associations may also refer to the instructions for Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income when preparing unaudited interim statements. The requirements for Management's Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations can be found at 17 CFR part 229. Additional requirements are provided at Industry Guide 3, Statistical Disclosure by Bank Holding Companies, which is found at 17 CFR part 229.
</P>
<P>(c) The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulation FD shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 243.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 63501, Oct. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.231" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.231   Certification, suspension of trading, and removal from listing by exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under section 12(d) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 part CFR 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.241" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.241   Unlisted trading.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under section 12(f) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.251" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.251   Forms for notification of action taken by national securities exchanges.</HEAD>
<P>The applicable forms for notification of action taken by national securities exchanges are codified in 17 CFR part 249. All forms shall be filed with the FDIC as appropriate and shall be titled with the name of the FDIC instead of the SEC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.261" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.261   Exemptions, terminations, and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under sections 12(g) and 12(h) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified in 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.301" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.301   Reports of issuers of securities registered pursuant to section 12.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under section 13(a) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.311" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.311   Forms for annual, quarterly, current, and other reports of issuers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The applicable forms for annual, quarterly, current, and other reports are codified in 17 CFR part 249. All forms shall be filed with the FDIC as appropriate and shall be titled with the name of the FDIC instead of the SEC.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements for Financial Statements can generally be found in Regulation S-X (17 CFR part 210). Banks and State savings associations may also refer to the instructions for FFIEC Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income when preparing unaudited interim reports. The requirements for Management's Discussion and Analysis of Financial Condition and Results of Operations can be found at 17 CFR part 229. Additional requirements are included in Industry Guide 3, Statistical Disclosure by Bank Holding Companies, which is found at 17 CFR part 229.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 63501, Oct. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.321" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.321   Maintenance of records and issuer's representations in connection with required reports.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under 13(b) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.331" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.331   Acquisition statements, acquisition of securities by issuers, and other matters.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under sections 13(d) and 13(e) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73949, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.401" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.401   Solicitations of proxies.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under sections 14(a) and 14(c) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.501" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.501   Tender offers.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations under sections 14(d), 14(e), and 14(f) of the Exchange Act shall be followed as codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.601" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.601   Requirements of section 16 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.</HEAD>
<P>Persons subject to section 16 of the Exchange Act with respect to securities registered under this part shall follow the applicable and currently effective SEC regulations issued under section 16 of the Exchange Act (17 CFR part 240), except that the forms described in § 335.611 (FDIC Form 3), § 335.612 (FDIC Form 4), and § 335.613 (FDIC Form 5) shall be used in lieu of SEC Form 3, Form 4, and Form 5, respectively. FDIC Forms 3, 4, and 5 shall be filed electronically on FDIC<I>connect</I> at <I>https://www2.fdicconnect.gov/index.asp.</I> Copies of FDIC Forms 3, 4, and 5 and the instructions thereto can be printed and downloaded at <I>https://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/forms.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.611" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.611   Initial statement of beneficial ownership of securities (Form 3).</HEAD>
<P>This form shall be filed in lieu of SEC Form 3 pursuant to SEC rules for initial statements of beneficial ownership of securities. The FDIC is authorized to solicit the information required by this form pursuant to sections 16(a) and 23(a) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p and 78w) and the rules and regulations thereunder. SEC regulations referenced in this form are codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.612" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.612   Statement of changes in beneficial ownership of securities (Form 4).</HEAD>
<P>This form shall be filed in lieu of SEC Form 4 pursuant to SEC Rules for statements of changes in beneficial ownership of securities. The FDIC is authorized to solicit the information required by this form pursuant to sections 16(a) and 23(a) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p and 78w) and the rules and regulations thereunder. SEC regulations referenced in this form are codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.613" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.613   Annual statement of beneficial ownership of securities (Form 5).</HEAD>
<P>This form shall be filed in lieu of SEC Form 5 pursuant to SEC Rules for annual statements of beneficial ownership of securities. The FDIC is authorized to solicit the information required by this form pursuant to sections 16(a) and 23(a) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78p and 78w) and the rules and regulations thereunder. SEC regulations referenced in this form are codified at 17 CFR part 240.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.701" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.701   Filing requirements, public reference, and confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing requirements.</I> Unless otherwise indicated in this part, one original and four conformed copies of all papers required to be filed with the FDIC under the Exchange Act or regulations thereunder shall be filed at its office in Washington, DC. Official filings may be filed electronically at <I>https://www2.fdicconnect.gov/index.asp,</I> except for FDIC Beneficial Ownership Forms 3, 4, and 5 for which electronic filing is mandatory as described in § 335.801(b). Paper filings should be submitted to the FDIC's office in Washington, DC, and should be addressed as follows: Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, Division of Risk Management Supervision, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429. Material may be filed by delivery to the FDIC through the mails or otherwise. The date on which paper filings are actually received by the designated FDIC office shall be the date of filing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, all information filed regarding a security registered with the FDIC will be available for inspection at the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, Division of Risk Management Supervision, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC. Beneficial ownership report forms and other official filings that are electronically submitted to the FDIC are available for inspection on the FDIC's Web site at <I>http://www2.fdic.gov/efr/</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondisclosure of certain information filed.</I> Any person filing any statement, report, or document with the FDIC under the Exchange Act may make a written objection to the public disclosure of any information contained therein in accordance with the procedure set forth in this paragraph (c) or the instructions provided for electronic filing available on the FDIC's Web site <I>https://www2.fdicconnect.gov/index.asp.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The person shall omit from the statement, report, or document, when it is filed, the portion thereof that it desires to keep undisclosed (hereinafter called the confidential portion). In lieu thereof, it shall indicate at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document that the confidential portion has been so omitted and filed separately with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) The person shall file with the copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(i) As many copies of the confidential portion, each clearly marked “Confidential Treatment,” as there are copies of the statement, report, or document filed with the FDIC and with each exchange, if any. Each copy shall contain the complete text of the item and, notwithstanding that the confidential portion does not constitute the whole of the answer, the entire answer thereto; except that in the case where the confidential portion is part of a financial statement or schedule, only the particular financial statement or schedule need be included. All copies of the confidential portion shall be in the same form as the remainder of the statement, report, or document;
</P>
<P>(ii) An application making objection to the disclosure of the confidential portion. Such application shall be on a sheet or sheets separate from the confidential portion and shall contain:
</P>
<P>(A) An identification of the portion of the statement, report, or document that has been omitted;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of the grounds of the objection;
</P>
<P>(C) Consent that the FDIC may determine the question of public disclosure upon the basis of the application, subject to proper judicial reviews;
</P>
<P>(D) The name of each exchange, if any, with which the statement, report, or document is filed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The copies of the confidential portion and the application filed in accordance with this paragraph shall be enclosed in a separate envelope marked “Confidential Treatment” and addressed to Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(3) Pending the determination by the FDIC as to the objection filed in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the confidential portion will not be disclosed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(4) If the FDIC determines that the objection shall be sustained, a notation to that effect will be made at the appropriate place in the statement, report, or document.
</P>
<P>(5) If the FDIC determines that disclosure of the confidential portion is in the public interest, a finding and determination to that effect will be entered and notice of the finding and determination will be sent by registered or certified mail to the person.
</P>
<P>(6) The confidential portion shall be made available to the public:
</P>
<P>(i) Upon the lapse of 15 days after the dispatch of notice by registered or certified mail of the finding and determination of the FDIC described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, or the date of the electronic filing, if prior to the lapse of such 15 days the person shall not have filed a written statement that he intends in good faith to seek judicial review of the finding and determination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the lapse of 60 days after the dispatch of notice by registered or certified mail, or the date of the electronic filing, of the finding and determination of the FDIC, if the statement described in paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section shall have been filed and if a petition for judicial review shall not have been filed within such 60 days; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If such petition for judicial review shall have been filed within such 60 days upon final disposition, adverse to the person, of the judicial proceedings.
</P>
<P>(7) If the confidential portion is made available to the public, a copy thereof shall be attached to each copy of the statement, report, or document filed with the FDIC and with each exchange concerned.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 73950, Nov. 30, 2010, as amended at 79 FR 63501, Oct. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 335.801" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.26.0.25.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 335.801   Inapplicable SEC regulations; FDIC substituted regulations; additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing fees.</I> Filing fees will not be charged relative to any filings or submissions of materials made with the FDIC pursuant to the cross reference to regulations of the SEC issued under sections 10A(m), 12, 13, 14, and 16 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78), sections 302, 303, 304, 306, 401(b), 404, 406, and 407 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7241, 7242, 7243, 7244, 7261, 7262, 7264, and 7265), and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic filings.</I> (1) The FDIC does not participate in the SEC's EDGAR (Electronic Data Gathering Analysis and Retrieval) electronic filing program (17 CFR part 232). The FDIC permits voluntary electronically transmitted filings and submissions of correspondence and other materials in electronic format to the FDIC, with the exception of Beneficial Ownership Reports (Forms 3, 4, and 5) for which electronic filing is mandatory. Beneficial Ownership Report filing requirements are provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) All reporting persons must electronically file Beneficial Ownership Reports (FDIC Forms 3, 4, and 5), including amendments and exhibits thereto, using the Internet-based interagency Beneficial Ownership Filings System, except that a reporting person that has obtained a continuing hardship exemption under these rules may file the forms with the FDIC in paper format. For electronic filing purposes, FDIC Forms 3, 4, and 5 are accessible at the Internet-based interagency Web site for Beneficial Ownership Filings at FDIC<I>connect</I> at <I>https://www2.fdicconnect.gov/index.asp.</I> These forms and the instructions thereto are available for printing and downloading at <I>http://www.fdic.gov/regulations/laws/forms.</I> A reporting person that has obtained a continuing hardship exemption under these rules may file the appropriate forms with the FDIC in paper format. Instructions for continuing hardship exemptions are provided in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Electronic filings of FDIC beneficial ownership report Forms 3, 4, and 5 must be submitted to the FDIC through the interagency Beneficial Ownership Filings system. Beneficial ownership reports and any amendments are deemed filed with the FDIC upon electronic receipt on business days from 8 a.m. through 10 p.m., Eastern Standard Time or Eastern Daylight Saving Time, whichever is currently in effect (Eastern Time). Business days include each day, except Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. All filings submitted electronically to the FDIC commencing after 10 p.m. Eastern Time on business days shall be deemed filed as of 8 a.m. on the following business day. All filings submitted electronically to the FDIC on non-business days shall be deemed filed as of 8 a.m. on the following business day.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjustment of the filing date.</I> If an electronic filer in good faith attempts to file a beneficial ownership report with the FDIC in a timely manner but the filing is delayed due to technical difficulties beyond the electronic filer's control, the electronic filer may request an adjustment of the filing date of such submission. The FDIC may grant the request if it appears that such adjustment is appropriate and consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exhibits.</I> (i) Exhibits to an electronic filing that have not previously been filed with the FDIC shall be filed in electronic format, absent a hardship exemption.
</P>
<P>(ii) Previously filed exhibits, whether in paper or electronic format, may be incorporated by reference into an electronic filing to the extent permitted by applicable SEC rules under the Exchange Act. An electronic filer may, at its option, restate in electronic format an exhibit incorporated by reference that originally was filed in paper format.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any document filed in paper format in violation of mandated electronic filing requirements shall not be incorporated by reference into an electronic filing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Continuing Hardship Exemption.</I> The FDIC will not accept in paper format any beneficial ownership report filing required to be submitted electronically under this part unless the filer satisfies the requirements for a continuing hardship exemption:
</P>
<P>(i) A filer may apply in writing for a continuing hardship exemption if all or part of a filing or group of filings otherwise required to be filed in electronic format cannot be so filed without undue burden or expense. Such written application shall be made at least ten business days prior to the required due date of the filing(s) or the proposed filing date, as appropriate, or within such shorter period as may be permitted. The written application shall be sent to the Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, Division of Risk Management Supervision, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW., Washington, DC 20429, and shall contain the information set forth in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The application shall not be deemed granted until the applicant is notified by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(B) If the FDIC denies the application for a continuing hardship exemption, the filer shall file the required document in electronic format on the required due date or the proposed filing date or such other date as may be permitted.
</P>
<P>(C) If the FDIC determines that the grant of the exemption is appropriate and consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors and so notifies the applicant, the filer shall follow the procedures set forth in paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The request for the continuing hardship exemption shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The reason(s) that the necessary hardware and software are not available without unreasonable burden and expense;
</P>
<P>(B) The burden and expense involved to employ alternative means to make the electronic submission; and/or
</P>
<P>(C) The reasons for not submitting electronically the document or group of documents, as well as justification for the requested time period for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the request for a continuing hardship exemption is granted, the electronic filer shall submit the document or group of documents for which the exemption is granted in paper format on the required due date specified in the applicable form, rule or regulation, or the proposed filing date, as appropriate. The paper format document(s) shall have placed at the top of page 1, or at the top of an attached cover page, a legend in capital letters: 
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>IN ACCORDANCE WITH 12 CFR 335.801(b), THIS (SPECIFY DOCUMENT) IS BEING FILED IN PAPER PURSUANT TO A CONTINUING HARDSHIP EXEMPTION.</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) Where a continuing hardship exemption is granted with respect to an exhibit only, the paper format exhibit shall be filed with the FDIC under Form SE (17 CFR part 249). The name of the FDIC shall be substituted for the name of the SEC on the form. Form SE shall be filed as a paper cover sheet to all exhibits to Beneficial Ownership Reports submitted to the FDIC in paper form pursuant to a hardship exemption.
</P>
<P>(v) Form SE may be filed with the FDIC up to six business days prior to, or on the date of filing of, the electronic form to which it relates but shall not be filed after such filing date. If a paper exhibit is submitted in this manner, requirements that the exhibit be filed with, provided with, or accompany the electronic filing shall be satisfied. Any requirements as to delivery or furnishing the information to persons other than the FDIC shall not be affected by this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Signatures.</I> (i) Required signatures to, or within, any electronic submission must be in typed form. When used in connection with an electronic filing, the term “signature” means an electronic entry or other form of computer data compilation of any letters or series of letters or characters comprising a name, executed, adopted or authorized as a signature.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each signatory to an electronic filing shall manually sign a signature page or other document authenticating, acknowledging or otherwise adopting his or her signature that appears in typed form within the electronic filing. Such document shall be executed before or at the time the electronic filing is made and shall be retained by the filer for a period of five years. Upon request, an electronic filer shall furnish to the FDIC a copy of any or all documents retained pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the FDIC's rules require a filer to furnish a national securities exchange, a national securities association, a bank, or State savings association, paper copies of a document filed with the FDIC in electronic format, signatures to such paper copies may be in typed form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Legal proceedings.</I> Whenever this part or cross referenced provisions of the SEC regulations require disclosure of legal proceedings, administrative or judicial proceedings arising under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act shall be deemed material and shall be described.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indebtedness of management.</I> Whenever this part of cross referenced provisions of the SEC regulations require disclosure of indebtedness of management, extensions of credit to specified persons in excess of ten (10) percent of the equity capital accounts of the bank or State savings association or $10 million, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, whichever is less, shall be deemed material and shall be disclosed in addition to any other required disclosure. The disclosure of this material indebtedness shall include the largest aggregate amount of indebtedness (in dollar amounts, and as a percentage of total equity capital accounts at the time), including extensions of credit or overdrafts, endorsements and guarantees outstanding at any time since the beginning of the bank or State savings association's last fiscal year, and as of the latest practicable date.
</P>
<P>(1) If aggregate extensions of credit to all specified persons as a group exceeded 20 percent of the equity capital accounts of the bank or State savings association at any time since the beginning of the last fiscal year, the aggregate amount of such extensions of credit shall also be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) Other loans are deemed material and shall be disclosed where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension(s) of credit was not made on substantially the same terms, including interest rates, collateral and repayment terms as those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with other than the specified persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) The extension(s) of credit was not made in the ordinary course of business; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension(s) of credit has involved or presently involves more than a normal risk of collectibility or other unfavorable features including the restructuring of an extension of credit, or a delinquency as to payment of interest or principal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Proxy material required to be filed.</I> (1) Three preliminary copies of each information statement, proxy statement, form of proxy, and other item of soliciting material to be furnished to security holders concurrently therewith, shall be filed with the FDIC by the bank, State savings association, or any other person making a solicitation subject to 12 CFR 335.401 at least ten calendar days (or 15 calendar days in the case of other than routine meetings, as defined in paragraph (e)(2) of this section) prior to the date such item is first sent or given to any security holders, or such shorter date as may be authorized. 
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this paragraph (e), a routine meeting means:
</P>
<P>(i) A meeting with respect to which no one is soliciting proxies subject to 12 CFR 335.401 other than on behalf of the bank or State savings association and at which the bank or State savings association intends to present no matters other than:
</P>
<P>(A) The election of directors;
</P>
<P>(B) The election, approval or ratification of accountants;
</P>
<P>(C) A Security holder proposal included pursuant to SEC Rule 14(a)-8 (17 CFR 240.14a-8); and
</P>
<P>(D) The approval or ratification of a plan as defined in paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of Item 402 of SEC Regulation S-K (17 CFR 229.402(a)(7)(ii)) or amendments to such a plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or State savings association does not comment upon or refer to a solicitation in opposition (as defined in 17 CFR 240.14a-6) in connection with the meeting in its proxy material.
</P>
<P>(3) Where preliminary copies of material are filed with the FDIC under this section, the printing of definitive copies for distribution to security holders should be deferred until the comments of the FDIC's staff have been received and considered.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional information; filing of other statements in certain cases.</I> (1) In addition to the information expressly required to be included in a statement, form, schedule or report, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may, upon the written request of the bank or State savings association, and where consistent with the protection of investors, permit the omission of one or more of the statements or disclosures herein required, or the filing in substitution therefor of appropriate statements or disclosures of comparable character.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may also require the filing of other statements or disclosures in addition to, or in substitution for those herein required in any case where such statements are necessary or appropriate for an adequate presentation of the financial condition of any person whose financial statements are required, or disclosure about which is otherwise necessary for the protection of investors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 6856, Feb. 14, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 19088, Apr. 12, 2004; 69 FR 59783, Oct. 6, 2004; 70 FR 16400, Mar. 31, 2005; 70 FR 44273, Aug. 2, 2005; 75 FR 73951, Nov. 30, 2010; 79 FR 63501, Oct. 24, 2014; 90 FR 55810, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="336" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 336—FDIC EMPLOYEES
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 28728, June 6, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Employee Responsibilities and Conduct</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301; 12 U.S.C. 1819(a).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 336.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.1   Cross-reference to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Corporation) are subject to the Executive Branch-wide Standards of Ethical Conduct at 5 CFR part 2635, the Corporation regulation at 5 CFR part 3201 which supplements the Executive Branch-wide Standards, the Executive Branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634, and the Corporation regulation at 5 CFR part 3202, which supplements the Executive Branch-wide financial disclosure regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Minimum Standards of Fitness for Employment With the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 (Tenth), 1822(f).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 336.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.2   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is adopted pursuant to section 12(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1822, and the rulemaking authority of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) found at 12 U.S.C. 1819. This part is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other statutes or regulations which may apply to standards for ethical conduct or fitness for employment with the FDIC and is consistent with the goals and purposes of 18 U.S.C. 201, 203, 205, 208, and 209.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to state the minimum standards of fitness and integrity required of individuals who provide service to or on behalf of the FDIC and provide procedures for implementing these requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to applicants for employment with the FDIC under title 5 of the U.S. Code appointing authority in either the excepted or competitive service, including Special Government Employees. This part applies to all appointments, regardless of tenure, including intermittent, temporary, time-limited and permanent appointments.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, this part applies to all employees of the FDIC who serve under an appointing authority under chapter 21 of title 5 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(3) Further, this part applies to any individual who, pursuant to a contract or any other arrangement, performs functions or activities of the Corporation, under the direct supervision of an officer or employee of the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, firm, partnership, society, joint venture, business trust, association or similar organization, or any other trust unless by its terms it must terminate within twenty-five years or not later than twenty-one years and ten months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust, or any other organization or institution, but shall not include any corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States, any state, or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control</I> means the power to vote, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of any class of the voting stock of a company, the ability to direct in any manner the election of a majority of a company's directors or trustees, or the ability to exercise a controlling influence over the company's management and policies. For purposes of this definition, a general partner of a limited partnership is presumed to be in control of that partnership. For purposes of this part, an entity or individual shall be presumed to have control of a company if the entity or individual directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with one or more entities or individuals, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns or controls 25 percent or more of its equity, or otherwise controls or has power to control its management or policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default on a material obligation</I> means a loan or advance from an insured depository institution which is or was delinquent for 90 or more days as to payment of principal or interest, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee</I> means any officer or employee, including a liquidation graded or temporary employee, providing service to or on behalf of the FDIC who has been appointed to a position under an authority contained in title 5 of the U.S. Code. This definition excludes those individuals designated by title 5 of the U.S. Code as officials in the Federal Executive Schedule.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal banking agency</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or their predecessors or successors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal deposit insurance fund</I> means the Deposit Insurance Fund, the former Bank Insurance Fund, the former Savings Association Insurance Fund, the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation (FSLIC) Resolution Trust, or the funds formerly maintained by the Resolution Trust Corporation (RTC), or their successors, for the benefit of insured depositors.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, in its receivership and corporate capacities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association the deposits of which are insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A history of financial irresponsibility with regard to debts owed to insured depository institutions which are in default in excess of $50,000 in the aggregate. Examples of such financial irresponsibility include, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay a debt or debts totalling more than $50,000 secured by an uninsured property which is destroyed; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Abuse of credit cards or incurring excessive debt well beyond the individual's ability to repay resulting in default(s) in excess of $50,000 in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(2) Wrongful refusal to fulfill duties and obligations to insured depository institutions. Examples of such wrongful refusal to fulfill duties and obligations include, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Any use of false financial statements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Misrepresentation as to the individual's ability to repay debts;
</P>
<P>(iii) Concealing assets from the insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any instance of fraud, embezzlement or similar misconduct in connection with an obligation to the insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any conduct described in any civil or criminal judgment against an individual for breach of any obligation, contractual or otherwise, or any duty of loyalty or care that the individual owed to an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) Defaults shall not be considered a pattern or practice of defalcation where the defaults are caused by catastrophic events beyond the control of the employee such as death, disability, illness or loss of financial support.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Substantial loss to federal deposit insurance funds</I>—(1) <I>Substantial loss to federal deposit insurance funds</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan or advance from an insured depository institution, which is now owed to the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC or their successors, or any federal deposit insurance fund, that is delinquent for ninety (90) or more days as to payment of principal, interest, or a combination thereof and on which there remains a legal obligation to pay an amount in excess of $50,000; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A final judgment in excess of $50,000 in favor of any federal deposit insurance fund, the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC, or their successors regardless of whether it becomes forgiven in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of computing the $50,000 ceiling in paragraphs (j)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, all delinquent judgments, loans, or advances currently owed to the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC or their successors, or any federal deposit insurance fund, shall be aggregated. In no event shall delinquent loans or advances from different insured depository institutions be separately considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 28728, June 6, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 20526, Apr. 21, 2006; 79 FR 42183, July 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.4   Minimum standards for appointment to a position with the FDIC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall become employed on or after June 18, 1994, by the FDIC or otherwise perform any service for or on behalf of the FDIC who has:
</P>
<P>(1) Been convicted of any felony;
</P>
<P>(2) Been removed from, or prohibited from participating in the affairs of, any insured depository institution pursuant to any final enforcement action by any appropriate federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstrated a pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations to insured depository institutions; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Caused a substantial loss to federal deposit insurance funds.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to an offer of employment, any person applying for employment with the FDIC shall sign a certification of compliance with the minimum standards listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section. In addition, any person applying for employment with the FDIC shall provide as an attachment to the certification any instance in which the applicant, or a company under the applicant's control, defaulted on a material obligation to an insured depository institution within the preceding five years.
</P>
<P>(c) Incumbent employees who separate from the FDIC and are subsequently reappointed after a break in service of more than three days are subject to the minimum standards listed in paragraphs (a)(1) though (4) of this section. The former employee is required to submit a new certification statement including attachments, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, prior to appointment to the new position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.5   Minimum standards for employment with the FDIC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person who is employed by the FDIC shall continue in employment in any manner whatsoever or perform any service for or on behalf of the FDIC who, beginning June 18, 1994 and thereafter:
</P>
<P>(1) Is convicted of any felony;
</P>
<P>(2) Is prohibited from participating in the affairs of any insured depository institution pursuant to any final enforcement action by any appropriate federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Demonstrates a pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations to insured depository institution(s); or
</P>
<P>(4) Causes a substantial loss to federal deposit insurance funds.
</P>
<P>(b) Any noncompliance with the standards listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section is a basis for removal from employment with the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.6   Verification of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC's Division of Administration shall order appropriate investigations as authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1819 and 1822 on newly appointed employees, either prior to or following appointment, to verify compliance with the minimum standards listed under § 336.4(a)(1) through (4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.7   Employee responsibility, counseling and distribution of regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each employee is responsible for being familiar with and complying with the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Ethics Counselor shall provide a copy of this part to each new employee within 30 days of initial appointment.
</P>
<P>(c) An employee who believes that he or she may not be in compliance with the minimum standards provided under § 336.5(a)(1) through (4), or who receives a demand letter from the FDIC for any reason, shall make a written report of all relevant facts to the Ethics Counselor within ten (10) business days after the employee discovers the possible noncompliance, or after the receipt of a demand letter from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) The Ethics Counselor shall provide guidance to employees regarding the appropriate statutes, regulations and corporate policies affecting employee's ethical responsibilities and conduct under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) The Ethics Counselor shall provide the Personnel Services Branch with notice of an employee's noncompliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.8   Sanctions and remedial actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any employee found not in compliance with the minimum standards except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section below shall be terminated and prohibited from providing further service for or on behalf of the FDIC in any capacity. No other remedial action is authorized for sanctions for noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(b) Any employee found not in compliance with the minimum standards under § 336.5(a)(3) based on financial irresponsibility as defined in § 336.3(i)(1) shall be terminated consistent with applicable procedures and prohibited from providing future services for or on behalf of the FDIC in any capacity, unless the employee brings him or herself into compliance with the minimum standards as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Upon written notification by the Corporation of financial irresponsibility, the employee will be allowed a reasonable period of time to establish an agreement that satisfies the creditor and the FDIC as to resolution of outstanding indebtedness or otherwise resolves the matter to the satisfaction of the FDIC prior to the initiation of a termination action.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of the agreement described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the employee shall provide authority to the creditor to report any violation by the employee of the terms of the agreement directly to the FDIC Ethics Counselor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.2.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.9   Finality of determination.</HEAD>
<P>Any determination made by the FDIC pursuant to this part shall be at the FDIC's sole discretion and shall not be subject to further review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—One-Year Restriction on Post-Employment Activities of Senior Examiners</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 69639, Nov. 17, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 and 1820(k).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 336.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to officers or employees of the FDIC who are subject to the post-employment restrictions set forth in section 10(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1820(k), and implements those restrictions as they apply to officers and employees of the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.11   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>For purposes of this subpart:</I>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning given to such term in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) A <I>consultant</I> for an insured depository institution or other company shall include only individuals who work directly on matters for, or on behalf of, such institution or other company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control</I> has the meaning given to such term in section 336.3(b), and a foreign bank shall be deemed to control any insured branch of the foreign bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association, including a branch of a foreign bank, if such branch is located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign bank</I> means any bank or company described in section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning given to such term in section 10(a)(1)(D) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(D)).
</P>
<P>(g) A <I>senior examiner</I> for an insured depository institution means an officer or employee of the FDIC—
</P>
<P>(1) who has been authorized by the FDIC to conduct examinations or inspections of insured depository institutions on behalf of the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(2) who has been assigned continuing, broad, and lead responsibility for the examination or inspection of the institution;
</P>
<P>(3) who routinely interacts with officers or employees of the institution or its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(4) whose responsibilities with respect to the institution represent a substantial portion of the FDIC officer or employee's overall responsibilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.12   One-year post-employment restriction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> An officer or employee of the FDIC who serves as a senior examiner of an insured depository institution for at least 2 months during the last 12 months of that individual's employment with the FDIC may not, within 1 year after the termination date of his or her employment with the FDIC, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director, or consultant from—
</P>
<P>(1) The insured depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any company (including a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company) that controls such institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waivers.</I> The post-employment restrictions in paragraph (a) of this section will not apply to a senior examiner if the FDIC Chairperson certifies in writing and on a case-by case basis that a waiver of the restrictions will not affect the integrity of the FDIC's supervisory program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective Date.</I> The post-employment restrictions in paragraph (a) of this section will not apply to any officer or employee of the FDIC, or any former officer or employee of the FDIC, who ceased to be an officer or employee of the FDIC before December 17, 2005.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 336.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.27.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 336.13   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties under section 10(k) of the FDI Act.</I> A senior examiner of the FDIC who violates the post-employment restrictions set forth in § 336.12 shall be subject to the following penalties—
</P>
<P>(1) An order—
</P>
<P>(i) Removing such person from office or prohibiting such person from further participation in the affairs of the relevant insured depository institution or company (including a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company) that controls such institution for a period of up to five years, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibiting any further participation by such person, in any manner, in the affairs of any insured depository institution for a period of up to five years; or
</P>
<P>(2) A civil monetary penalty of not more than $250,000; or
</P>
<P>(3) Both.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement by appropriate Federal banking agency of hiring entity.</I> Violations of § 336.12 shall be enforced by the appropriate Federal banking agency of the depository institution, depository institution holding company, or other company at which the violation occurred, as determined under section 10(k)(6), which may be an agency other than the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of prohibition orders.</I> Any senior examiner who is subject to an order issued under paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall, as required by 12 U.S.C. 1820(k)(6)(B), be subject to paragraphs (6) and (7) of section 8(e) in the same manner and to the same extent as a person subject to an order issued under section 8(e).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other penalties.</I> The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 336.12 may also be subject to other administrative, civil, or criminal remedies or penalties as provided by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="337" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 337—UNSAFE AND UNSOUND BANKING PRACTICES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 375a(4), 375b, 1463, 1464, 1468, 1816, 1818(a), 1818(b), 1819, 1820(d), 1821(f), 1828(j)(2), 1831, 1831f, 1831g, 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>39 FR 29179, Aug. 14, 1974, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 337.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to certain banking practices which are likely to have adverse effects on the safety and soundness of insured State nonmember banks or which are likely to result in violations of law, rule, or regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.2   Standby letters of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> As used in this section, the term <I>standby letter of credit</I> means any letter of credit, or similar arrangement however named or described, which represents an obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer: (1) To repay money borrowed by or advanced to or for the account of the account party, or (2) to make payment on account of any indebtedness undertaken by the account party, or (3) to make payment on account of any default (including any statement of default) by the account party in the performance of an obligation. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> The term <I>similar arrangement</I> includes the creation of an acceptance or similar undertaking. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As defined in this paragraph (a), the term <I>standby letter of credit</I> would not include commercial letters of credit and similar instruments where the issuing bank expects the beneficiary to draw upon the issuer, which do not “guaranty” payment of a money obligation of the account party and which do not provide that payment is occasioned by default on the part of the account party.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction.</I> A standby letter of credit issued by an insured State nonmember bank shall be combined with all other standby letters of credit and all loans for purposes of applying any legal limitation on loans of the bank (including limitations on loans to any one borrower, on loans to affiliates of the bank, or on aggregate loans); <I>Provided, however,</I> That if such standby letter of credit is subject to separate limitation under applicable State or federal law, then the separate limitation shall apply in lieu of the loan limitation. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Where the standby letter of credit is subject to a non-recourse participation agreement with another bank or other banks, this section shall apply to the issuer and each participant in the same manner as in the case of a participated loan.</P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> All standby letters of credit shall be subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section except where: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to or at the time of issuance, the issuing bank is paid an amount equal to the bank's maximum liability under the standby letter of credit; or, 
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to or at the time of issuance, the issuing bank has set aside sufficient funds in a segregated deposit account, clearly earmarked for that purpose, to cover the bank's maximum liability under the standby letter of credit. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure.</I> Each insured State nonmember bank must maintain adequate control and subsidiary records of its standby letters of credit comparable to the records maintained in connection with the bank's direct loans so that at all times the bank's potential liability thereunder and the bank's compliance with this section may be readily determined. In addition, all such standby letters of credit must be adequately reflected on the bank's published financial statements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.3   Limits on extensions of credit to executive officers, directors, and principal shareholders of FDIC-supervised institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the exception of 12 CFR 215.5(b) and (c)(3) and (4), FDIC-supervised institutions are subject to the restrictions contained in Federal Reserve Board Regulation O (12 CFR part 215) to the same extent and to the same manner as though they were member banks.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of compliance with § 215.4(b) of Federal Reserve Board Regulation O, no FDIC-supervised institution may extend credit or grant a line of credit to any of its executive officers, directors, or principal shareholders or to any related interest of any such person in an amount that, when aggregated with the amount of all other extensions of credit and lines of credit by the FDIC-supervised institution to that person and to all related interests of that person, exceeds the greater of $25,000 or five percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or $500,000 unless:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> For the purposes of section 337.3, an FDIC-supervised institution's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus shall have the same meaning as found in section 215.2(i) of Federal Reserve Board Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(i)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The extension of credit or line of credit has been approved in advance by a majority of the entire board of directors of that FDIC-supervised institution and
</P>
<P>(2) The interested party has abstained from participating directly or indirectly in the voting.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) No FDIC-supervised institution may extend credit in an aggregate amount greater than the amount permitted in paragraph (c)(2) of this section to a partnership in which one or more of the FDIC-supervised institution's executive officers are partners and, either individually or together, hold a majority interest. For the purposes of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the total amount of credit extended by an FDIC-supervised institution to such partnership is considered to be extended to each executive officer of the FDIC-supervised institution who is a member of the partnership.
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution is authorized to extend credit to any executive officer of the bank for any other purpose not specified in § 215.5(c)(1) and (2) of Federal Reserve Board Regulation O (12 CFR 215.5(c)(1) and (2)) if the aggregate amount of such other extensions of credit does not exceed at any one time the higher of 2.5 percent of the FDIC-supervised institution's unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus or $25,000 but in no event more than $100,000, provided, however, that no such extension of credit shall be subject to this limit if the extension of credit is secured by:
</P>
<P>(i) A perfected security interest in bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States or in other such obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unconditional takeout commitments or guarantees of any department, agency, bureau, board, commission or establishment of the United States or any corporation wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A perfected security interest in a segregated deposit account in the lending FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purposes of this paragraph (c), the definitions of the terms used in Federal Reserve Board Regulation O shall apply including the exclusion of executive officers of an FDIC-supervised institution's parent bank or savings and loan holding company and executive officers of any other subsidiary of that bank or savings and loan holding company from the definition of executive officer for the purposes of complying with the loan restrictions contained in section 22(g) of the Federal Reserve Act. For the purposes of complying with § 215.5(d) of Federal Reserve Board Regulation O, the reference to “the amount specified for a category of credit in paragraph (c) of this section” shall be understood to refer to the amount specified in paragraph (c)(2) of this § 337.3.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means an entity for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3246, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.5   Exemption.</HEAD>
<P>Check guaranty card programs, customer-sponsored credit card programs, and similar arrangements in which a bank undertakes to guarantee the obligations of individuals who are its retail banking deposit customers are exempted from § 337.2: <I>Provided, however,</I> That the bank establishes the creditworthiness of the individual before undertaking to guarantee his/her obligations and that any such arrangement to which a bank's principal shareholders, directors, or executive officers are a party be in compliance with applicable provisions of Federal Reserve Regulation O (12 CFR part 215).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 10495, Mar. 15, 1985]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.6   Brokered deposits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of §§ 337.6 and 337.7, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as provided under section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Brokered deposit</I> means any deposit that is obtained, directly or indirectly, from or through the mediation or assistance of a deposit broker.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital categories.</I> </P>
<P>(i) For purposes of section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, this section, and § 337.7, the terms well capitalized, adequately capitalized, and undercapitalized,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> shall have the same meaning as to each insured depository institution as provided under regulations implementing section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency for that institution.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The term undercapitalized includes any institution that is significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized under regulations implementing section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency for that institution.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the most part, the capital measure terms are defined in the following regulations: FDIC—12 CFR part 324, subpart H; Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System—12 CFR part 208; and Office of the Comptroller of the Currency—12 CFR part 6.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) If the appropriate Federal banking agency reclassifies a well capitalized insured depository institution as adequately capitalized pursuant to section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the institution so reclassified shall be subject to the provisions applicable to such lower capital category under this section and § 337.7.
</P>
<P>(iii) An insured depository institution shall be deemed to be within a given capital category for purposes of this section and § 337.7 as of the date the institution is notified of, or is deemed to have notice of, its capital category, under regulations implementing section 38 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency for that institution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Deposit</I> has the same meaning as provided under section 3(l) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(1)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deposit broker.</I> (i) The term deposit broker means:
</P>
<P>(A) Any person engaged in the business of placing deposits of third parties with insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(B) Any person engaged in the business of facilitating the placement of deposits of third parties with insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(C) Any person engaged in the business of placing deposits with insured depository institutions for the purpose of selling those deposits or interests in those deposits to third parties; and
</P>
<P>(D) An agent or trustee who establishes a deposit account to facilitate a business arrangement with an insured depository institution to use the proceeds of the account to fund a prearranged loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Engaged in the business of placing deposits.</I> A person is engaged in the business of placing deposits of third parties if that person receives third party funds and deposits those funds at more than one insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Engaged in the business of facilitating the placement of deposits.</I> A person is engaged in the business of facilitating the placement of deposits of third parties with insured depository institutions, by, while engaged in business, with respect to deposits placed at more than one insured depository institution, engaging in one or more of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(A) The person has legal authority, contractual or otherwise, to close the account or move the third party's funds to another insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(B) The person is involved in negotiating or setting rates, fees, terms, or conditions for the deposit account; or
</P>
<P>(C) The person engages in matchmaking activities.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A person is engaged in matchmaking activities if the person proposes deposit allocations at, or between, more than one insured depository institution based upon both the particular deposit objectives of a specific depositor or depositor's agent, and the particular deposit objectives of specific insured depository institutions, except in the case of deposits placed by a depositor's agent with an insured depository institution affiliated with the depositor's agent. A proposed deposit allocation is based on the particular objectives of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A depositor or depositor's agent when the person has access to specific financial information of the depositor or depositor's agent and the proposed deposit allocation is based upon such information; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) An insured depository institution when the person has access to the target deposit-balance objectives of specific insured depository institutions and the proposed deposit allocation is based upon such information.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Anti-evasion.</I> Any attempt by a person to structure a deposit placement arrangement in a way that evades meeting the matchmaking definition in this section, while still playing an ongoing role in providing any function related to matchmaking may, upon a finding by and with written notice from the FDIC, result in the person meeting the matchmaking definition.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Engaged in the business</I>—A person is engaged in the business of placing, or facilitating the placement of, deposits as described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) or (iii) of this section, respectively, when that person has a business relationship with third parties, and as part of that relationship, places, or facilitates the placement of, deposits with insured depository institutions on behalf of the third parties.
</P>
<P>(v) The term <I>deposit broker</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) An insured depository institution, with respect to funds placed with that depository institution;
</P>
<P>(B) An employee of an insured depository institution, with respect to funds placed with the employing depository institution;
</P>
<P>(C) A trust department of an insured depository institution, if the trust or other fiduciary relationship in question has not been established for the primary purpose of placing funds with insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(D) The trustee of a pension or other employee benefit plan, with respect to funds of the plan;
</P>
<P>(E) A person acting as a plan administrator or an investment adviser in connection with a pension plan or other employee benefit plan provided that person is performing managerial functions with respect to the plan;
</P>
<P>(F) The trustee of a testamentary account;
</P>
<P>(G) The trustee of an irrevocable trust (other than one described in paragraph (a)(5)(i)(B) of this section), as long as the trust in question has not been established for the primary purpose of placing funds with insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(H) A trustee or custodian of a pension or profit-sharing plan qualified under section 401(d) or 403(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401(d) or 403(a));
</P>
<P>(I) An agent or nominee whose primary purpose is not the placement of funds with depository institutions; or
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Designated business exceptions that meet the primary purpose exception.</I> Business relationships are designated as meeting the primary purpose exception, subject to § 303.243(b)(3) of this chapter, where, with respect to a particular business line:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Less than 25 percent of the total assets that the agent or nominee has under administration for its customers is placed at depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) 100 percent of depositors' funds that the agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, at depository institutions are placed into transactional accounts that do not pay any fees, interest, or other remuneration to the depositor;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A property management firm places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of providing property management services;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of providing cross-border clearing services to its customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of providing mortgage servicing;
</P>
<P>(<I>vi</I>) A title company places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of facilitating real estate transactions;
</P>
<P>(<I>vii</I>) A qualified intermediary places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of facilitating exchanges of properties under section 1031 of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(<I>viii</I>) A broker dealer or futures commission merchant places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts in compliance with 17 CFR 240.15c3-3(e) or 17 CFR 1.20(a);
</P>
<P>(<I>ix</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of posting collateral for customers to secure credit-card loans;
</P>
<P>(<I>x</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of paying for or reimbursing qualified medical expenses under section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(<I>xi</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts for the primary purpose of investing in qualified tuition programs under section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(<I>xii</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts to enable participation in the following tax-advantaged programs: Individual retirement accounts under section 408(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, Simple individual retirement accounts under section 408(p) of the Internal Revenue Code, or Roth individual retirement accounts under section 408A of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(<I>xiii</I>) A Federal, State, or local agency places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts to deliver funds to the beneficiaries of government programs; or
</P>
<P>(<I>xiv</I>) The agent or nominee places, or assists in placing, customer funds into deposit accounts pursuant to such other relationships as the FDIC specifically identifies as a designated business relationship that meets the primary purpose exception.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Approval required for business relationships not designated in paragraph</I> (a)(5)(v)(I)(<I>1</I>). An agent or nominee that does not rely on a designated business exception described in this section must receive an approval under the application process in § 303.243(b) of this chapter in order to qualify for the primary purpose exception.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Brokered CD placements not eligible for primary purpose exception.</I> An agent's or nominee's placement of brokered certificates of deposit as described in 12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)(1)(A) shall be considered a discrete and independent business line from other deposit placement businesses in which the agent or nominee may be engaged.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Brokered CD</I> means a deposit placement arrangement in which a master certificate of deposit is issued by an insured depository institution in the name of the third party that has organized the funding of the certificate of deposit, or in the name of a custodian or a sub-custodian of the third party, and the certificate is funded by individual investors through the third party, with each individual investor receiving an ownership interest in the certificate of deposit, or a similar deposit placement arrangement that the FDIC determines is arranged for a similar purpose.
</P>
<P>(J) An insured depository institution acting as an intermediary or agent of a U.S. government department or agency for a government sponsored minority or women-owned depository institution deposit program.
</P>
<P>(vi) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(5)(v) of this section, the term <I>deposit broker</I> includes any insured depository institution that is not well capitalized, and any employee of any such insured depository institution, which engages, directly or indirectly, in the solicitation of deposits by offering rates of interest (with respect to such deposits) which are significantly higher than the prevailing rates of interest on deposits offered by other insured depository institutions in such depository institution's normal market area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Employee</I> means any employee: (i) Who is employed exclusively by the insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose compensation is primarily in the form of a salary;
</P>
<P>(iii) Who does not share such employee's compensation with a deposit broker; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whose office space or place of business is used exclusively for the benefit of the insured depository institution which employs such individual.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means any bank, savings association, or branch of a foreign bank insured under the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Solicitation and acceptance of brokered deposits by insured depository institutions.</I> (1) A well capitalized insured depository institution may solicit and accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposit without restriction by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An adequately capitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposit unless it has applied for and been granted a waiver of this prohibition by the FDIC in accordance with the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An undercapitalized insured depository institution may not accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Acceptance of nonmaturity brokered deposits.</I> (i) A nonmaturity brokered deposit is accepted by an institution that is less than well capitalized—
</P>
<P>(A) At the time a new nonmaturity account is opened by or through any deposit broker; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of an existing nonmaturity brokered account, or accounts, that had been opened by or through a particular deposit broker:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) When the aggregate account balance increases above the amount(s) in the account(s) at the time the institution falls to adequately capitalized; or,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For agency or nominee accounts, when funds for a new depositor are credited to the nonmaturity account or accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver.</I> The FDIC may, on a case-by-case basis and upon application by an adequately capitalized insured depository institution, waive the prohibition on the acceptance, renewal, or rollover of brokered deposits upon a finding that such acceptance, renewal, or rollover does not constitute an unsafe or unsound practice with respect to such institution. The FDIC may conclude that it is not unsafe or unsound and may grant a waiver when the acceptance, renewal, or rollover of brokered deposits is determined to pose no undue risk to the institution. Any waiver granted may be revoked at any time by written notice to the institution. For filing requirements, consult 12 CFR 303.243.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusion for institutions in FDIC conservatorship.</I> No insured depository institution for which the FDIC has been appointed conservator shall be subject to the prohibition on the acceptance, renewal, or rollover of brokered deposits contained in this § 337.6 or section 29 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act for 90 days after the date on which the institution was placed in conservatorship. During this 90-day period, the institution shall, nevertheless, be subject to the restriction on the payment of interest contained in § 337.7(c)(2). After such 90-day period, the institution may not accept, renew, or roll over any brokered deposit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limited exception for reciprocal deposits</I>—(1) <I>Limited exception.</I> Reciprocal deposits of an agent institution shall not be considered to be funds obtained, directly or indirectly, by or through a deposit broker to the extent that the total amount of such reciprocal deposits does not exceed the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) $5,000,000,000; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount equal to 20 percent of the total liabilities of the agent institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional definitions that apply to the limited exception for reciprocal deposits</I>—(i) <I>Agent institution</I> means an insured depository institution that places a covered deposit through a deposit placement network at other insured depository institutions in amounts that are less than or equal to the standard maximum deposit insurance amount, specifying the interest rate to be paid for such amounts, if the insured depository institution:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) When most recently examined under section 10(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820(d)) was found to have a composite condition of outstanding or good; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is well capitalized;
</P>
<P>(B) Has obtained a waiver pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) Does not receive an amount of reciprocal deposits that causes the total amount of reciprocal deposits held by the agent institution to be greater than the average of the total amount of reciprocal deposits held by the agent institution on the last day of each of the four calendar quarters preceding the calendar quarter in which the agent institution was found not to have a composite condition of outstanding or good or was determined to be not well capitalized.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered deposit</I> means a deposit that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is submitted for placement through a deposit placement network by an agent institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not consist of funds that were obtained for the agent institution, directly or indirectly, by or through a deposit broker before submission for placement through a deposit placement network.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Deposit placement network</I> means a network in which an insured depository institution participates, together with other insured depository institutions, for the processing and receipt of reciprocal deposits.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Network member bank</I> means an insured depository institution that is a member of a deposit placement network.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Reciprocal deposits</I> means deposits received by an agent institution through a deposit placement network with the same maturity (if any) and in the same aggregate amount as covered deposits placed by the agent institution in other network member banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 23941, June 5, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 54935, Oct. 25, 1993; 60 FR 31384, June 15, 1995; 63 FR 44750, Aug. 20, 1998; 66 FR 17622, Apr. 3, 2001; 74 FR 27683, June 11, 2009; 78 FR 55595, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17740, Apr. 24, 2018; 84 FR 1353, Feb. 4, 2019; 86 FR 6789, Jan. 22, 2021; 91 FR 33070, June 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.7   Interest rate restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>National rate.</I> The weighted average of rates paid by all insured depository institutions and credit unions on a given deposit product, for which data are available, where the weights are each institution's market share of domestic deposits.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National rate cap.</I> The higher of:
</P>
<P>(i) National rate plus 75 basis points, or
</P>
<P>(ii) 120 percent of the current yield on similar maturity U.S. Treasury obligations plus 75 basis points or, in the case of any nonmaturity deposit, the federal funds rate plus 75 basis points.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Local market rate cap.</I> Ninety (90) percent of the highest interest rate paid on a particular deposit product in the institution's local market area. An institution's local market rate cap shall be based upon the rate offered on a particular product type and maturity period by an insured depository institution or credit union that is accepting deposits at a physical location within the institution's local market area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Local market area.</I> An institution's local market area is any readily defined geographical market area in which the insured depository institution accepts or solicits deposits, which may include the State, county or metropolitan statistical area, in which the insured depository institution accepts or solicits deposits.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>On-tenor and off-tenor maturities.</I> On-tenor maturities include the following term periods: 1-month, 3-months, 6-months, 12-months, 24-months, 36-months, 48-months, and 60-months. All other term periods are considered off-tenor maturities for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation and publication of national rate cap</I>—(1) <I>Computation.</I> The Corporation will compute the national rate cap for different deposit products and maturities, as determined by the Corporation based on available and reported data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Publication.</I> The Corporation will publish the national rate cap monthly but reserves the discretion to publish more or less frequently, if needed, on the Corporation's website. Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, for institutions that are less than well capitalized at the time of publication, a national rate cap that is lower than the previously published national rate cap will take effect 3 days after publication. The previously published national rate cap will remain in effect during this 3-day period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>Well capitalized institutions.</I> A well capitalized institution may pay interest without restriction by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institutions that are not well capitalized.</I> An institution that is not well capitalized may not: Solicit deposits by offering a rate of interest that exceeds the applicable rate cap; or, where an institution has accepted brokered deposits pursuant to a waiver described in § 337.6(c), pay a rate of interest that, at the time such deposit is accepted, exceeds the applicable rate cap. For purposes of this section, the applicable rate cap is the national rate cap or, if the institution has provided the notice and evidence described in subsection (d) of this section, the local market rate cap for deposits gathered in the institution's local market area. If an institution gathers deposits from more than one local area, it may seek to pay a rate of interest up to its local market rate cap for deposits gathered in each respective local market area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice related to local market rate cap applicability.</I> An insured depository institution that seeks to pay a rate of interest up to its local market rate cap shall provide notice and evidence of the highest rate paid on a particular deposit product in the institution's local market area to the appropriate FDIC regional director. The institution shall update its evidence and calculations for existing and new accounts monthly unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate FDIC regional director, and retain such information available for at least the two most recent examination cycles and, upon the FDIC's request, provide the documentation to the appropriate FDIC regional office and to examination staff during any subsequent examinations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Offering products with off-tenor maturities.</I> If an institution seeks to offer a product with an off-tenor maturity for which the FDIC does not publish the national rate cap or that is not offered by another institution within its local market area, then the institution will be required to use the rate offered on the next lower on-tenor maturity for that product when determining its applicable national or local rate cap, respectively. For example, an institution seeking to offer a 26-month certificate of deposit must use the rate offered for a 24-month certificate of deposit to determine the institution's applicable national or local rate cap. There is no off-tenor maturity for nonmaturity products such as an interest checking account, savings account, or money market deposit account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discretion to delay effect of published national rate cap.</I> In the event of a substantial decrease in the published national rate cap from one month to the next, the Corporation may, in its discretion, delay the date on which the published national rate cap takes effect. The previously published national rate cap will remain in effect until the effective date, as determined by the Corporation, of the subsequent published national rate cap.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of nonmaturity deposits for purposes of this section.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Solicitation of nonmaturity deposits.</I> (i) An institution solicits a nonmaturity deposit when—
</P>
<P>(A) A nonmaturity account is opened;
</P>
<P>(B) The institution raises the rate being paid on a nonmaturity account existing at the time when the institution was last well capitalized; or,
</P>
<P>(C) Funds for a new depositor are credited to a nonmaturity account existing at the time when the institution was last well capitalized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acceptance of nonmaturity brokered deposits subject to a waiver.</I> A less than well capitalized institution that accepts nonmaturity brokered deposits subject to waiver, with respect to a particular deposit broker, may not pay interest in excess of the applicable rate cap on:
</P>
<P>(i) Any new nonmaturity accounts opened by or through that particular deposit broker;
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount of funds that exceeds the amount(s) in the account(s) that, at the time the institution fell to less than well capitalized, had been opened by or through the particular deposit broker; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For agency or nominee accounts, any funds for a new depositor credited to a nonmaturity account or accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 6791, Jan. 22, 2021, as amended at 91 FR 33070, June 3, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 337.8-337.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 337.8-337.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.10   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>An insured State nonmember bank has the right to petition the Board of Directors of the Corporation for a waiver of this part or any subpart thereof with respect to any particular transaction or series of similar transactions. A waiver may be granted at the discretion of the Board upon a showing of good cause. All such petitions should be filed with the Executive Secretary, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[39 FR 29179, Aug. 14, 1974, as amended at 67 FR 71071, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.11   Effect on other banking practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Nothing in this part shall be construed as restricting in any manner the Corporation's authority to deal with any banking practice which is deemed to be unsafe or unsound or otherwise not in accordance with law, rule, or regulation; or which violates any condition imposed in writing by the Corporation in connection with the granting of any application or other request by an FDIC-Supervised institution, or any written agreement entered into by such institution with the Corporation. Compliance with the provisions of this part shall not relieve an FDIC-supervised institution from its duty to conduct its operations in a safe and sound manner nor prevent the Corporation from taking whatever action it deems necessary and desirable to deal with specific acts or practices which, although they do not violate the provisions of this part, are considered detrimental to the safety and sound operation of the institution engaged therein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition. FDIC-supervised institution</I> means an entity for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3247, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 337.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.28.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 337.12   Frequency of examination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation examines insured state nonmember banks pursuant to authority conferred by section 10 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820) and examines insured State savings associations pursuant to authority conferred by section 10 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1820) and section 4 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1463). The FDIC is required to conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of every insured state nonmember bank and insured State savings association at least once during each 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>18-month rule for certain small institutions.</I> The FDIC may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination of an insured state nonmember bank or insured State savings association at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(2) The institution is well capitalized as defined in § 324.403(b)(1) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) At the most recent FDIC or applicable State agency examination, the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(i) Assigned the institution a rating of 1 or 2 for management as part of the institution's composite rating under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (commonly referred to as CAMELS); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigned the institution a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (copies of which are available at the addresses specified in § 309.4 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(4) The institution currently is not subject to a formal enforcement proceeding or order by the FDIC, OCC, or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; and
</P>
<P>(5) No person acquired control of the institution during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope, on-site examination would have been required but for this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> This section does not limit the authority of the FDIC to examine any insured state nonmember bank or insured State savings association as frequently as the agency deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) From December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the extended examination cycle described in paragraph (b) of this section, the total assets of an institution shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets of the institution as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(2) The assets of the institution as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 10069, Feb. 29, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77364, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="338" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 338—FAIR HOUSING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817, 1818, 1819, 1820(b), 2801 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 3605, 3608; 12 CFR parts 1002, 1003; 24 CFR part 110.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 8088, Feb. 3, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Advertising</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to prohibit FDIC-supervised institutions from engaging in discriminatory advertising with regard to residential real estate-related transactions. This subpart also requires FDIC-supervised institutions to publicly display either the Equal Housing Lender poster set forth in § 338.4(b) or the Equal Housing Opportunity poster prescribed by 24 CFR part 110 of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's regulations. This subpart enforces section 805 of title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 3601-3619 (Fair Housing Act), as amended by the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.2   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means an insured state nonmember bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dwelling</I> means any building, structure, or portion thereof which is occupied as, or designed or intended for occupancy as, a residence by one or more families, and any vacant land which is offered for sale or lease for the construction or location thereon of any such building, structure, or portion thereof.
</P>
<P>(c)<I> FDIC-supervised institution</I> means either a bank or a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Handicap</I> means, with respect to a person:
</P>
<P>(1) A physical or mental impairment which substantially limits one or more of such person's major life activities;
</P>
<P>(2) A record of having such an impairment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Being regarded as having such an impairment, but such term does not include current, illegal use of or addiction to a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Familial status</I> means one or more individuals (who have not attained the age of 18 years) being domiciled with:
</P>
<P>(1) A parent or another person having legal custody of such individual or individuals; or
</P>
<P>(2) The designee of such parent or other person having such custody, with the written permission of such parent or other person; and
</P>
<P>(3) The protections afforded against discrimination on the basis of familial status shall apply to any person who is pregnant or is in the process of securing legal custody of any individual who has not attained the age of 18 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section (3)(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.1.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.3   Nondiscriminatory advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any FDIC-supervised institution which directly or through third parties engages in any form of advertising of any loan for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling or any loan secured by a dwelling shall prominently indicate in such advertisement, in a manner appropriate to the advertising medium and format utilized, that the FDIC-supervised institutions makes such loans without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or familial status.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to written and visual advertisements, this paragraph (a) may be satisfied by including in the advertisement a copy of the logotype with the Equal Housing Lender legend contained in the Equal Housing Lender poster prescribed in § 338.4(b) or a copy of the logotype with the Equal Housing Opportunity legend contained in the Equal Housing Opportunity poster prescribed in 24 CFR 110.25(a) of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to oral advertisements, this paragraph (a) may be satisfied by a statement, in the spoken text of the advertisement, that the FDIC-supervised institution is an “Equal Housing Lender” or an “Equal Opportunity Lender.”
</P>
<P>(3) When an oral advertisement is used in conjunction with a written or visual advertisement, the use of either of the methods specified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section will satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) No advertisement shall contain any words, symbols, models, or other forms of communication which express, imply, or suggest a discriminatory preference or policy of exclusion in violation of the provisions of the Fair Housing Act or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.4   Fair housing poster.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each FDIC-supervised institution engaged in extending loans for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling or any loan secured by a dwelling shall conspicuously display either the Equal Housing Lender poster set forth in paragraph (b) of this section or the Equal Housing Opportunity poster prescribed by 24 CFR 110.25(a) of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's regulations, in a central location within the FDIC-supervised institution where deposits are received or where such loans are made, in a manner clearly visible to the general public entering the area, where the poster is displayed.
</P>
<P>(b) The Equal Housing Lender Poster shall be at least 11 by 14 inches in size and have the following text:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>We Do Business in Accordance with Federal Fair Lending Laws.
</P>
<P>UNDER THE FEDERAL FAIR HOUSING ACT, IT IS ILLEGAL, ON THE BASIS OF RACE, COLOR, NATIONAL ORIGIN, RELIGION, SEX, HANDICAP, OR FAMILIAL STATUS (HAVING CHILDREN UNDER THE AGE OF 18) TO:
</P>
<P>• Deny a loan for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing or maintaining a dwelling or to deny any loan secured by a dwelling; or
</P>
<P>• Discriminate in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, application procedures, or other terms or conditions of such a loan or in appraising property.
</P>
<P>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</P>
<P>Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, Department of Housing and Urban Development, Washington, DC 20410, for processing under the Federal Fair Housing Act;
</P>
<P>AND TO:
</P>
<P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance, [FDIC-supervised institution should insert mailing address for National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance found at <I>www.fdic.gov</I>], <I>https://ask.fdic.gov/fdicinformationandsupportcenter,</I> for processing under the FDIC Regulations.
</P>
<P>UNDER THE EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT, IT IS ILLEGAL TO DISCRIMINATE IN ANY CREDIT TRANSACTION:
</P>
<P>• On the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, marital status, or age;
</P>
<P>• Because income is from public assistance; or
</P>
<P>• Because a right has been exercised under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.
</P>
<P>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</P>
<P>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance, [FDIC-supervised institution should insert mailing address for National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance found at <I>www.fdic.gov</I>], <I>https://ask.fdic.gov/fdicinformationandsupportcenter.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) The Equal Housing Lender Poster specified in this section was adopted under 24 CFR 110.25(b) of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's rules and regulations as an authorized substitution for the poster required in § 110.25(a) of those rules and regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 8088, Feb. 3, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 48079, Aug. 8, 2022; 87 FR 49767, Aug. 12, 2022; 88 FR 24677, Apr. 24, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Recordkeeping</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.5   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is two-fold. First, this subpart notifies all FDIC-supervised institutions of their duty to collect and retain certain information about a home loan applicant's personal characteristics in accordance with 12 CFR part 1002 (Regulation B of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection) in order to monitor an institution's compliance with the Equal Credit Opportunity Act of 1974 (15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I>). Second, this subpart notifies certain FDIC-supervised institutions of their duty to maintain, update, and report a register of home loan applications in accordance with 12 CFR part 1003 (Regulation C of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection), which implements the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2801 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.6   Definitions applicable to this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means an insured State nonmember bank as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Controlled entity</I> means a corporation, partnership, association, or other business entity with respect to which a bank possesses, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of management and policies, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means either a bank or a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.7   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>All FDIC-supervised institutions that receive an application for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling occupied or to be occupied by the applicant as a principal residence where the extension of credit will be secured by the dwelling shall request and retain the monitoring information required by Regulation B of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (12 CFR part 1002).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.8   Compilation of loan data in register format.</HEAD>
<P>FDIC-supervised institutions and other lenders required to file a Home Mortgage Disclosure Act loan/application register (LAR) with the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation shall collect, record and report such LAR in accordance with Regulation C of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (12 CFR part 1003).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 338.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.29.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 338.9   Mortgage lending of a controlled entity.</HEAD>
<P>Any bank which refers any applicants to a controlled entity and which purchases any covered loan as defined in Regulation C of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (12 CFR part 1003) originated by the controlled entity, as a condition to transacting any business with the controlled entity, shall require the controlled entity to enter into a written agreement with the bank. The written agreement shall provide that the entity shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Comply with the requirements of §§ 338.3, 338.4, and 338.7, and, if otherwise subject to Regulation C of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (12 CFR part 1003), § 338.8;
</P>
<P>(b) Open its books and records to examination by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(c) Comply with all instructions and orders issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation with respect to its home loan practices.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="339" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 339—LOANS IN AREAS HAVING SPECIAL FLOOD HAZARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1819 (Tenth), 5412(b)(2)(C) and 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 43249, July 21, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 339.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1462a, 1463, 1464, 1819 (Tenth), 5412(b)(2)(C) and 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the requirements of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part, except for §§ 339.6 and 339.8, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Sections 339.6 and 339.8 apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator of FEMA</I> means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Building</I> means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
</P>
<P><I>Community</I> means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Designated loan</I> means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Mobile home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term <I>mobile home</I> does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this part, the term <I>mobile home</I> means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term <I>mobile home</I> includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual aid society</I> means an organization—
</P>
<P>(1) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
</P>
<P>(2) That covers losses caused by damage to members' property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
</P>
<P>(3) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members' property caused by flooding.
</P>
<P><I>NFIP</I> means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Private flood insurance</I> means an insurance policy that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
</P>
<P>(v) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
</P>
<P>(A) The insured; and
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC-supervised institution that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(iii) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Residential improved real estate</I> means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means the person responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>SFIP</I> means, for purposes of §§ 339.2, a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to an FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P><I>Special flood hazard area</I> means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
</P>
<P><I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43249, July 21, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 6170, Feb. 5, 2016; 84 FR 4972, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.3   Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the Act. Flood insurance coverage under the Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table funded loans.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Private flood insurance</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution must accept private flood insurance, as defined in § 339.2, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in § 339.2, without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discretionary acceptance.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in § 339.2 in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
</P>
<P>(iii) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the FDIC-supervised institution documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mutual aid societies.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in § 339.2, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the FDIC-supervised institution documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43249, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4972, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.4   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The flood insurance requirement prescribed by § 339.3 does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any state-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of states falling within this exemption;
</P>
<P>(b) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
</P>
<P>(c) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the FDIC-supervised institution that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.5   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 339.3(a) for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of § 339.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements of § 339.3(a);
</P>
<P>(B) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
</P>
<P>(C) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The loan has a term of not longer than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duration of exception.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply, then the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 339.3(a) as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Escrow account.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan for which an FDIC-supervised institution is required to escrow under paragraph (a) or paragraph (c)(2) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (a)(3) of this section during the term of the loan, the FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under § 339.9 informing the borrower that the FDIC-supervised institution is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small lender exception</I>—(1) <I>Qualification.</I> Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (a), (b) and (d) of this section do not apply to an FDIC-supervised institution:
</P>
<P>(i) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On or before July 6, 2012:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
</P>
<P>(B) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in status.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the FDIC-supervised institution must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (a) for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Option to escrow</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 339.3 for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the FDIC-supervised institution has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan or the FDIC-supervised institution qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, respectively;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC-supervised institution is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the FDIC-supervised institution has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution or servicer must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the FDIC-supervised institution or servicer receives the borrower's request to escrow.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43252, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.6   Required use of standard flood hazard determination form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of form.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. An FDIC-supervised institution may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA's Web site at <I>www.fema.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of form.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the FDIC-supervised institution owns the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.7   Force placement of flood insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice and purchase of coverage.</I> If an FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under § 339.3, then the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower's expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under § 339.3, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer shall purchase insurance on the borrower's behalf. The FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>Termination and refund.</I> Within 30 days of receipt by an FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, of a confirmation of a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage, the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer under paragraph (a) of this section during any period during which the borrower's flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer during such period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sufficiency of demonstration.</I> For purposes of confirming a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (b) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution or its servicer shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.8   Determination fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any FDIC-supervised institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrower fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
</P>
<P>(1) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's revision or updating of floodplain areas or flood-risk zones;
</P>
<P>(3) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's publication of a notice or compendium that:
</P>
<P>(i) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(4) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the lender or its servicer on behalf of the borrower under § 339.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchaser or transferee fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.9   Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When an FDIC-supervised institution makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the FDIC-supervised institution shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the Act for the collateral securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The written notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may also be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution shall provide the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the FDIC-supervised institution provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the FDIC-supervised institution provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of receipt.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time the FDIC-supervised institution owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate method of notice.</I> Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (a) of this section, an FDIC-supervised institution may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The FDIC-supervised institution shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time the FDIC-supervised institution owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use of sample form of notice.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A to this part within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A to this part satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43249, July 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 43253, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 339.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 339.10   Notice of servicer's identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When an FDIC-supervised institution makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the FDIC-supervised institution shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator of FEMA's designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the FDIC-supervised institution's notice of the servicer's identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer of servicing rights.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator of FEMA's designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator or his or her designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (b) shall transfer to the transferee servicer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.11.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 339—Sample Form of Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HEAD>
<P>We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
</P>
<P>The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA's <I>Flood Insurance Rate Map</I> or the <I>Flood Hazard Boundary Map</I> for the following community: ______. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
</P>
<P>Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
</P>
<P>____The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
</P>
<P>• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover <I>the lesser of:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) the outstanding principal balance of the loan; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
</P>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community's participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
</P>
<P>• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
</P>
<HD3>Availability of Private Flood Insurance Coverage
</HD3>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>[Escrow Requirement for Residential Loans
</HD3>
<P>Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
</P>
<P>____Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43253, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.30.0.25.11.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 339—Sample Clause for Option to Escrow for Outstanding Loans


</HEAD>
<HD3>Escrow Option Clause
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
</P>
<P>• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
</P>
<P>• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
</P>
<P>• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
</P>
<P>To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
</P>
<P>[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43254, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="340" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 340—RESTRICTIONS ON SALE OF ASSETS OF A FAILED INSTITUTION BY THE FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 (Tenth), 1821(p).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 22889, Apr. 24, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 340.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.1   What is the statutory authority for the regulation, what are its purpose and scope, and can the FDIC have other policies on related topics?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The statutory authority for adopting this part is section 11(p) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1821(p). Section 11(p) was added to the FDI Act by section 20 of the Resolution Trust Corporation Completion Act (Pub. L. 103-204, 107 Stat. 2369 (1993)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to prohibit individuals or entities that improperly profited or engaged in wrongdoing at the expense of a failed institution or covered financial company, or seriously mismanaged a failed institution, from buying assets of a failed institution from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The restrictions of this part generally apply to sales of assets of failed institutions owned or controlled by the FDIC in any capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) The restrictions in this section apply to the sale of assets of a subsidiary of a failed institution or a bridge depository institution if the FDIC controls the terms of the sale by agreement or in its role as shareholder.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless we determine otherwise, this part does not apply to the sale of securities in connection with the investment of corporate and receivership funds pursuant to the Investment Policy for Liquidation Funds managed by the FDIC as it is in effect from time to time.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a sale of securities backed by a pool of assets that may include assets of failed institutions by a trust or other entity, this part applies only to the sale of assets by the FDIC to an underwriter in an initial offering, and not to any other purchaser of the securities.
</P>
<P>(5) The restrictions of this part do not apply to a sale of a security or a group or index of securities, a commodity, or any qualified financial contract that, in each case, customarily is traded through a financial intermediary, as defined in § 340.2, where the seller cannot control selection of the purchaser and the sale is consummated through that customary practice.
</P>
<P>(6) The restrictions of this part do not apply to a judicial sale or a trustee's sale of property that secures an obligation to the FDIC where the sale is not conducted or controlled by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) The FDIC retains the authority to establish other policies restricting asset sales. Neither 12 U.S.C. 1821(p) nor this part in any way limits the authority of the FDIC to establish policies prohibiting the sale of assets to prospective purchasers who have injured any failed institution, or to other prospective purchasers, such as certain employees or contractors of the FDIC, or individuals who are not in compliance with the terms of any debt or duty owed to the FDIC. Any such policies may be independent of, in conjunction with, or in addition to the restrictions set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Many of the terms used in this part are defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811, <I>et seq.</I> Additionally, for the purposes of this part, the following terms are defined:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Associated person of an individual or entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an individual:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual's spouse or dependent child or any member of his or her immediate household;
</P>
<P>(ii) A partnership of which the individual is or was a general or limited partner;
</P>
<P>(iii) A limited liability company of which the individual is or was a member; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A corporation of which the individual is or was an officer or director.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a partnership, a managing or general partner of the partnership or with respect to a limited liability company, a manager; or
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any entity, an individual or entity who, acting individually or in concert with one or more individuals or entities, owns or controls 25 percent or more of the entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Default</I> means any failure to comply with the terms of an obligation to such an extent that:
</P>
<P>(1) A judgment has been rendered in favor of the FDIC or a failed institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a secured obligation, the property securing such obligation is foreclosed on.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failed institution</I> means any insured depository institution (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)) that has been under the conservatorship or receivership of the FDIC or any of its predecessors.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial intermediary</I> means any broker, dealer, bank, underwriter, exchange, clearing agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, transfer agent (as defined in section 3(a)(25) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934), central counterparty or any other entity whose role is to facilitate a transaction by, as a riskless intermediary, purchasing a security or qualified financial contract from one counterparty and then selling it to another.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Obligation</I> means any debt or duty to pay money owed to the FDIC or a failed institution, including any guarantee of any such debt or duty.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Person</I> means an individual, or an entity with a legally independent existence, including: A trustee; the beneficiary of at least a 25 percent share of the proceeds of a trust; a partnership; a corporation; an association; or other organization or society.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Substantial loss</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An obligation that is delinquent for ninety (90) or more days and on which there remains an outstanding balance of more than $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1;
</P>
<P>(2) An unpaid final judgment in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1 regardless of whether it becomes forgiven in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) A deficiency balance following a foreclosure of collateral in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, regardless of whether it becomes discharged in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Any loss in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1 evidenced by an IRS Form 1099-C (Information Reporting for Cancellation of Debt).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 22889, Apr. 24, 2015, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.3   What are the restrictions on the sale of assets by the FDIC if the buyer wants to finance the purchase with a loan from the FDIC?</HEAD>
<P>A person may not borrow money or accept credit from the FDIC in connection with the purchase of any assets of a failed institution from the FDIC if:
</P>
<P>(a) There has been a default with respect to one or more obligations totaling in excess of $1,000,000 owed by that person or its associated person; and
</P>
<P>(b) The person or its associated person made any fraudulent misrepresentations in connection with any such obligation(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.4   What are the restrictions on the sale of assets by the FDIC regardless of the method of financing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A person may not acquire any assets of a failed institution from the FDIC if the person or its associated person:
</P>
<P>(1) Has participated, as an officer or director of a failed institution or of an affiliate of a failed institution, in a material way in one or more transaction(s) that caused a substantial loss to that failed institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Has been removed from, or prohibited from participating in the affairs of, a failed institution pursuant to any final enforcement action by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the FDIC, or any of their predecessors or successors;
</P>
<P>(3) Has demonstrated a pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations to any failed institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Has been convicted of committing or conspiring to commit any offense under 18 U.S.C. 215, 656, 657, 1005, 1006, 1007, 1008, 1014, 1032, 1341, 1343 or 1344 affecting any failed institution and there has been a default with respect to one or more obligations owed by that person or its associated person; or
</P>
<P>(5) Would be prohibited from purchasing the assets of a covered financial company from the FDIC under 12 U.S.C. 5390(r) or its implementing regulation at 12 CFR part 380.13.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, a person has participated “in a material way in a transaction that caused a substantial loss to a failed institution” if, in connection with a substantial loss to a failed institution, the person has been found in a final determination by a court or administrative tribunal, or is alleged in a judicial or administrative action brought by the FDIC or by any component of the government of the United States or of any state:
</P>
<P>(1) To have violated any law, regulation, or order issued by a federal or state banking agency, or breached or defaulted on a written agreement with a federal or state banking agency, or breached a written agreement with a failed institution;
</P>
<P>(2) To have engaged in an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of a failed institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) To have breached a fiduciary duty owed to a failed institution.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, a person or its associated person has demonstrated a “pattern or practice of defalcation” regarding obligations to a failed institution if the person or associated person has:
</P>
<P>(1) Engaged in more than one transaction that created an obligation on the part of such person or its associated person with intent to cause a loss to any insured depository institution or with reckless disregard for whether such transactions would cause a loss to any such insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) The transactions, in the aggregate, caused a substantial loss to one or more failed institution(s).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.5   Can the FDIC deny a loan to a buyer who is not disqualified from purchasing assets using seller-financing under this regulation?</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC still has the right to make an independent determination, based upon all relevant facts of a person's financial condition and history, of that person's eligibility to receive any loan or extension of credit from the FDIC, even if the person is not in any way disqualified from purchasing assets from the FDIC under the restrictions set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.6   What is the effect of this part on transactions that were entered into before its effective date?</HEAD>
<P>This part does not affect the enforceability of a contract of sale and/or agreement for seller financing in effect prior to July 1, 2000.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.7   When is a certification required, and who does not have to provide a certification?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before any person may purchase any asset from the FDIC that person must certify, under penalty of perjury, that none of the restrictions contained in this part applies to the purchase. The person must also certify that neither the identity nor form of the person, nor any aspect of the contemplated transaction, has been created or altered with the intent, in whole or in part, to allow an individual or entity who otherwise would be ineligible to purchase assets from the FDIC to benefit directly or indirectly from the proposed transaction. The FDIC may establish the form of the certification and may change the form from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, and unless the Director of the FDIC's Division of Resolutions and Receiverships or designee in his or her discretion so requires, a certification need not be provided by:
</P>
<P>(1) A state or political subdivision of a state;
</P>
<P>(2) A federal agency or instrumentality such as the Government National Mortgage Association;
</P>
<P>(3) A federally-regulated, government-sponsored enterprise such as the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(4) A bridge depository institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 340.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.31.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 340.8   Does this part apply in the case of a workout, resolution, or settlement of obligations?</HEAD>
<P>The restrictions of §§ 340.3 and 340.4 do not apply if the sale or transfer of an asset resolves or settles, or is part of the resolution or settlement of, one or more obligations or claims that have been, or could have been, asserted by the FDIC against the person with whom the FDIC is settling regardless of the amount of such obligations or claims.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="341" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 341—REGISTRATION OF SECURITIES TRANSFER AGENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 2, 3, 17, 17A and 23(a), Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (15 U.S.C. 78b, 78c, 78q, 78q-1 and 78w(a)).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>47 FR 38106, Aug. 30, 1982, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 341.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (the FDIC) under sections 2, 3(a)(34)(B), 17, 17A and 23(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (the Act), as amended (15 U.S.C. 78b, 78c(a)(34)(B), 78q, 78q-1 and 78w(a)) and applies to all insured State nonmember banks, insured State savings associations, or subsidiaries of such institutions, that act as transfer agents for securities registered under section 12 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>), or for securities exempt from registration under subsections (g)(2)(B) or (g)(2)(G) of section 12 (15 U.S.C. 78<I>1</I>(g)(2)(B) and (G)) (securities of investment companies, including mutual funds, and certain insurance companies). Such securities are qualifying securities for purposes of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 27297, May 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, including all forms and instructions promulgated for use in connection herewith, unless the context otherwise requires:
</P>
<P>(a) The term <I>transfer agent</I> means any person who engages on behalf of an issuer of qualifying securities or on behalf of itself as an issuer of qualifying securities in: (1) Countersigning such securities upon issuance; 
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring the issuance of such securities with a view to preventing unauthorized issuance, a function commonly performed by a person called a registrar; 
</P>
<P>(3) Registering the transfer of such securities; 
</P>
<P>(4) Exchanging or converting such securities; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Transferring record ownership of securities by bookkeeping entry without physical issuance of such securities certificates. The term <I>transfer agent</I> includes any person who performs these functions as a co-transfer agent with respect to equity or debt issues, and any person who performs these functions as registrar or co-registrar with respect to debt issued by corporations.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The following examples are illustrative of the kinds of activities engaged in by transfer agents under this part.</P></NOTE>
<P>1. A transfer agent of stock or shares in a mutual fund maintains the records of shareholders and transfers stock from one shareholder to another by cancellation of the surrendered certificates and issuance of new certificates in the name of the new shareholder. A co-transfer agent also performs these functions.
</P>
<P>2. A registrar of stock or shares in a mutual fund monitors the issuance of such securities to prevent over-issuance of shares, affixing its signature of each stock certificate issued to signify its authorized issuance. A co-registrar also performs these functions.
</P>
<P>3. A registrar of corporate debt securities maintains the records of ownership of registered bonds; makes changes in such records; issues, transfers, and exchanges such certificates; and monitors the securities to prevent over-issuance of certificates. A co-registrar also performs these functions.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(c) The acronym <I>ARA</I> means the appropriate regulatory agency, as defined in section 3(a)(34)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) The phrase <I>Federal bank regulators</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>Form TA-1</I> means the form and any attachments to that form, whether filed as a registration or an amendment to a registration.
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>registrant</I> means the entity on whose behalf Form TA-1 is filed.
</P>
<P>(g) The acronym <I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(h) The term <I>covered institution</I> means an insured State nonmember bank, an insured State savings association, and any subsidiary of such institutions. 
</P>
<P>(i) The term <I>qualifying securities</I> means: </P>
<P>(1) Securities registered on a national securities exchange (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(b)); or </P>
<P>(2) Securities required to be registered under section 12(g)(1) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>(g)(1)), except for securities exempted from registration with the SEC by section 12(g)(2) (C, D, E, F, and H) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38106, Aug. 30, 1982, as amended at 81 FR 27297, May 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.3   Registration as securities transfer agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for registration.</I> Any covered institution that performs any of the functions of a transfer agent as described in § 341.2(a) with respect to qualifying securities shall register with the FDIC in the manner indicated in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application to register as transfer agent.</I> An application for registration under section 17A(c) of the Act, of a transfer agent for which the FDIC is the appropriate regulatory agency, as defined in section 3(a)(34)(B)(iii) of the Act, shall be filed with the FDIC at its Washington, DC headquarters on Form TA-1, in accordance with the instructions contained therein.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date of registration.</I> Registration shall become effective 30 days after the date an application on Form TA-1 is filed unless the FDIC accelerates, denies, or postpones such registration in accordance with section 17A(c) of the Act. The effective date of such registration may be postponed by order for a period not to exceed 15 days. Postponement of registration for more than 15 days shall be after notice and opportunity for hearing. Form TA-1 may be completed electronically and is available from the FDIC at <I>www.fdic.gov</I> or the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council at <I>www.ffiec.gov,</I> or upon request, from the Director, Division of Risk Management Supervision (RMS), FDIC, Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38106, Aug. 30, 1982, as amended at 60 FR 31384, June 15, 1995; 81 FR 27297, May 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.4   Amendments to registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 60 calendar days following the date which any information reported on Form TA-1 becomes inaccurate, misleading, or incomplete, the registrant shall file an amendment on Form TA-1 correcting the inaccurate, misleading, or incomplete information.
</P>
<P>(b) The filing of an amendment to an application for registration as a transfer agent under § 341.3, which registration has not become effective, shall postpone the effective date of the registration for 30 days following the date on which the amendment is filed unless the FDIC accelerates, denies, or postpones the registration in accordance with section 17A(c) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38106, Aug. 30, 1982, as amended at 52 FR 1182, Jan. 12, 1987]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.5   Withdrawal from registration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of withdrawal from registration.</I> Any transfer agent registered under this part that ceases to engage in the functions of a transfer agent as defined in § 341.2(a) shall file a written notice of withdrawal from registration with the FDIC. A registered transfer agent that ceases to engage in one or more of the functions of transfer agent as defined in § 341.2(a), but continues to engage in another such function, shall not withdraw from registration.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice of withdrawal shall be filed with the FDIC at its Washington, DC headquarters. Deregistration shall be effective upon receipt of notice of withdrawal by the FDIC. 

A Request for Deregistration form is available electronically from <I>www.fdic.gov</I> or by request from the Director, Division of Risk Management Supervision (RMS), FDIC, Washington, DC 20429.
</P>
<P>(c) If the FDIC finds that any registered transfer agent for which it is the ARA, is no longer in existence or has ceased to do business as a transfer agent, FDIC shall cancel or deny the registration by order of the Board of Directors.
</P>
<P>(d) Registration of a transfer agent with another ARA shall cancel registration of the transfer agent with FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38106, Aug. 30, 1982, as amended at 60 FR 31384, June 15, 1995; 81 FR 27297, May 6, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 341.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.32.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 341.6   Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Every registration or amendment filed under this section shall constitute a <I>report</I> or <I>application</I> within the meaning or sections 17, 17A(c), and 32(a) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="342" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 342 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="343" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 343—CONSUMER PROTECTION IN SALES OF INSURANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 (Seventh and Tenth); 12 U.S.C. 1831x.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 13847, Apr. 2, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 343.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.10   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes consumer protections in connection with retail sales practices, solicitations, advertising, or offers of any insurance product or annuity to a consumer by:
</P>
<P>(a) Any institution; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any other person that is engaged in such activities at an office of the institution or on behalf of the institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means a company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, business trust, association or similar organization, or any other trust (unless by its terms the trust must terminate within twenty-five years or not later than twenty-one years and ten months after the death of individuals living on the effective date of the trust). It does not include any corporation the majority of the shares of which are owned by the United States or by any State, or a qualified family partnership, as defined in section 2(o)(10) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841(o)(10)).
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means an individual who purchases, applies to purchase, or is solicited to purchase from you insurance products or annuities primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> of a company has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Domestic violence</I> means the occurrence of one or more of the following acts by a current or former family member, household member, intimate partner, or caretaker:
</P>
<P>(1) Attempting to cause or causing or threatening another person physical harm, severe emotional distress, psychological trauma, rape, or sexual assault;
</P>
<P>(2) Engaging in a course of conduct or repeatedly committing acts toward another person, including following the person without proper authority, under circumstances that place the person in reasonable fear of bodily injury or physical harm;
</P>
<P>(3) Subjecting another person to false imprisonment; or
</P>
<P>(4) Attempting to cause or causing damage to property so as to intimidate or attempt to control the behavior of another person.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic media</I> includes any means for transmitting messages electronically between you and a consumer in a format that allows visual text to be displayed on equipment, for example, a personal computer monitor.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or institution</I> means any State nonmember insured bank or State savings association for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)).
</P>
<P><I>Office</I> means the premises of an institution where retail deposits are accepted from the public.
</P>
<P><I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section (3)(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(w)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>You</I>—(1) Means:
</P>
<P>(i) An institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person only when the person sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity to a consumer at an office of the institution or on behalf of an institution.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this definition, activities on behalf of an institution include activities where a person, whether at an office of the institution or at another location sells, solicits, advertises, or offers an insurance product or annuity and at least one of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) The person represents to a consumer that the sale, solicitation, advertisement, or offer of any insurance product or annuity is by or on behalf of the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution refers a consumer to a seller of insurance products or annuities and the institution has a contractual arrangement to receive commissions or fees derived from a sale of an insurance product or annuity resulting from that referral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents evidencing the sale, solicitation, advertising, or offer of an insurance product or annuity identify or refer to the institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.30   Prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Anticoercion and antitying rules.</I> You may not engage in any practice that would lead a consumer to believe that an extension of credit, in violation of section 106(b) of the Bank Holding Company Act Amendments of 1970 (12 U.S.C. 1972) in the case of a State nonmember insured bank and a foreign bank having an insured branch, or in violation of section 5(q) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1464(q)) in the case of a State savings association, is conditional upon either:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the institution or any of its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) An agreement by the consumer not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on misrepresentations generally.</I> You may not engage in any practice or use any advertisement at any office of, or on behalf of, the institution or a subsidiary of the institution that could mislead any person or otherwise cause a reasonable person to reach an erroneous belief with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) The fact that an insurance product or annuity sold or offered for sale by you or any subsidiary of the institution is not backed by the Federal government or the institution, or the fact that the insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves investment risk, the fact that there is an investment risk, including the potential that principal may be lost and that the product may decline in value; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an institution or subsidiary of the institution at which insurance products or annuities are sold or offered for sale, the fact that:
</P>
<P>(i) The approval of an extension of credit to a consumer by the institution or subsidiary may not be conditioned on the purchase of an insurance product or annuity by the consumer from the institution or a subsidiary of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer is free to purchase the insurance product or annuity from another source.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on domestic violence discrimination.</I> You may not sell or offer for sale, as principal, agent, or broker, any life or health insurance product if the status of the applicant or insured as a victim of domestic violence or as a provider of services to victims of domestic violence is considered as a criterion in any decision with regard to insurance underwriting, pricing, renewal, or scope of coverage of such product, or with regard to the payment of insurance claims on such product, except as required or expressly permitted under State law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.40" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.40   What you must disclose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Insurance disclosures.</I> In connection with the initial purchase of an insurance product or annuity by a consumer from you, you must disclose to the consumer, except to the extent the disclosure would not be accurate, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance product or annuity is not a deposit or other obligation of, or guaranteed by, the institution or an affiliate of the institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The insurance product or annuity is not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) or any other agency of the United States, the institution, or (if applicable) an affiliate of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an insurance product or annuity that involves an investment risk, there is investment risk associated with the product, including the possible loss of value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit disclosure.</I> In the case of an application for credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold, you must disclose that the institution may not condition an extension of credit on either:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's purchase of an insurance product or annuity from the institution or any of its affiliates; or
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's agreement not to obtain, or a prohibition on the consumer from obtaining, an insurance product or annuity from an unaffiliated entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing and method of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be provided orally and in writing before the completion of the initial sale of an insurance product or annuity to a consumer. The disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made orally and in writing at the time the consumer applies for an extension of credit in connection with which an insurance product or annuity is solicited, offered, or sold.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for transactions by mail.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section. If you take an application for credit by mail, you are not required to make the oral disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for transactions by telephone.</I> If a sale of an insurance product or annuity is conducted by telephone, you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section by mail within 3 business days beginning on the first business day after the sale, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). If you take an application for credit by telephone, you may provide the written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section by mail, provided you mail it to the consumer within three days beginning the first business day after the application is taken, excluding Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic form of disclosures.</I> (i) Subject to the requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (12 U.S.C. 7001(c)), you may provide the written disclosures required by paragraph (a) and (b) of this section through electronic media instead of on paper, if the consumer affirmatively consents to receiving the disclosures electronically and if the disclosures are provided in a format that the consumer may retain or obtain later, for example, by printing or storing electronically (such as by downloading).
</P>
<P>(ii) Any disclosure required by paragraph (a) or (b) of this section that is provided by electronic media is not required to be provided orally.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosures must be readily understandable.</I> The disclosures provided shall be conspicuous, simple, direct, readily understandable, and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided. For instance, you may use the following disclosures in visual media, such as television broadcasting, ATM screens, billboards, signs, posters and written advertisements and promotional materials, as appropriate and consistent with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) “NOT A DEPOSIT”
</P>
<P>(ii) “NOT FDIC-INSURED”
</P>
<P>(iii) “NOT INSURED BY ANY FEDERAL GOVERNMENT AGENCY”
</P>
<P>(iv) “NOT GUARANTEED BY THE INSTITUTION”
</P>
<P>(v) “MAY GO DOWN IN VALUE”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Disclosures must be meaningful.</I> (i) You must provide the disclosures required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in a meaningful form. Examples of the types of methods that could call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided include:
</P>
<P>(A) A plain-language heading to call attention to the disclosures;
</P>
<P>(B) A typeface and type size that are easy to read;
</P>
<P>(C) Wide margins and ample line spacing;
</P>
<P>(D) Boldface or italics for key words; and
</P>
<P>(E) Distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when the disclosures are combined with other information.
</P>
<P>(ii) You have not provided the disclosures in a meaningful form if you merely state to the consumer that the required disclosures are available in printed material, but do not provide the printed material when required and do not orally disclose the information to the consumer when required.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to those disclosures made through electronic media for which paper or oral disclosures are not required, the disclosures are not meaningfully provided if the consumer may bypass the visual text of the disclosures before purchasing an insurance product or annuity.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Consumer acknowledgment.</I> You must obtain from the consumer, at the time a consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, or at the time of the initial purchase by the consumer of an insurance product or annuity, a written acknowledgment by the consumer that the consumer received the disclosures. You may permit a consumer to acknowledge receipt of the disclosures electronically or in paper form. If the disclosures required under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section are provided in connection with a transaction that is conducted by telephone, you must:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain an oral acknowledgment of receipt of the disclosures and maintain sufficient documentation to show that the acknowledgment was given; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Make reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the consumer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisements and other promotional material for insurance products or annuities.</I> The disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section are required in advertisements and promotional material for insurance products or annuities unless the advertisements and promotional materials are of a general nature describing or listing the services or products offered by the institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.50" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.50   Where insurance activities may take place.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An institution must, to the extent practicable, keep the area where the institution conducts transactions involving insurance products or annuities physically segregated from areas where retail deposits are routinely accepted from the general public, identify the areas where insurance product or annuity sales activities occur, and clearly delineate and distinguish those areas from the areas where the institution's retail deposit-taking activities occur.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Referrals.</I> Any person who accepts deposits from the public in an area where such transactions are routinely conducted in the institution may refer a consumer who seeks to purchase an insurance product or annuity to a qualified person who sells that product only if the person making the referral receives no more than a one-time, nominal fee of a fixed dollar amount for each referral that does not depend on whether the referral results in a transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 343.60" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 343.60   Qualification and licensing requirements for insurance sales personnel.</HEAD>
<P>An institution may not permit any person to sell or offer for sale any insurance product or annuity in any part of its office or on its behalf, unless the person is at all times appropriately qualified and licensed under applicable State insurance licensing standards with regard to the specific products being sold or recommended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.34.0.25.7.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 343—Consumer Grievance Process
</HEAD>
<P>Any consumer who believes that any institution or any other person selling, soliciting, advertising, or offering insurance products or annuities to the consumer at an office of the institution or on behalf of the institution has violated the requirements of this part should contact the Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection, National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 1100 Walnut Street, Box #11, Kansas City, MO 64106, or telephone 1-877-275-3342, or FDIC Electronic Customer Assistance Form at <I>https://ask.fdic.gov/fdicinformationandsupportcenter.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 48080, Aug. 8, 2022; 87 FR 49767, Aug. 12, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="344" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 344—RECORDKEEPING AND CONFIRMATION REQUIREMENTS FOR SECURITIES TRANSACTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817, 1818, 1819, and 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 76723, Dec. 19, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 344.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to ensure that purchasers of securities in transactions effected by FDIC-supervised institutions are provided adequate information regarding transactions. This part is also designed to ensure that FDIC-supervised institutions subject to this part maintain adequate records and controls with respect to the securities transactions they effect.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope; general.</I> Any security transaction effected for a customer by an FDIC-supervised institution is subject to this part unless excepted by § 344.2. An FDIC-supervised institution effecting transactions in government securities is subject to the notification, recordkeeping, and policies and procedures requirements of this part. This part also applies to municipal securities transactions by an FDIC-supervised institution that is not registered as a “municipal securities dealer” with the Securities and Exchange Commission. See 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30) and 78o-4.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.2   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FDIC-supervised institution effecting securities transactions for customers is not subject to all or part of this part 344 to the extent that they qualify for one or more of the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Small number of transactions.</I> The requirements of §§ 344.4(a)(2) through (4) and 344.8(a)(1) through (3) do not apply to an FDIC-supervised institution effecting an average of fewer than 500 securities transactions per year for customers over the prior three calendar year period. The calculation of this average does not include transactions in government securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Government securities.</I> The recordkeeping requirements of § 344.4 do not apply to FDIC-supervised institutions effecting fewer than 500 government securities brokerage transactions per year. This exemption does not apply to government securities dealer transactions by FDIC-supervised institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Municipal securities.</I> This part does not apply to transactions in municipal securities effected by an FDIC-supervised institution registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as a “municipal securities dealer” as defined in title 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(30). <I>See</I> 15 U.S.C. 78o-4.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Foreign branches.</I> Activities of foreign branches of FDIC-supervised institutions shall not be subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transactions effected by registered broker/dealers.</I> (i) This part does not apply to securities transactions effected for an FDIC-supervised institution's customer by a registered broker/dealer if:
</P>
<P>(A) The broker/dealer is fully disclosed to the customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The customer has a direct contractual agreement with the broker/dealer.
</P>
<P>(ii) This exemption extends to arrangements with broker/dealers which involve FDIC-supervised institution employees when acting as employees of, and subject to the supervision of, the registered broker/dealer when soliciting, recommending, or effecting securities transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> Notwithstanding this section, every FDIC-supervised institution effecting securities transactions for customers shall maintain, directly or indirectly, effective systems of records and controls regarding their customer securities transactions to ensure safe and sound operations. The records and systems maintained must clearly and accurately reflect the information required under this part and provide an adequate basis for an audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Asset-backed security</I> means a security that is serviced primarily by the cash flows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cash management sweep account</I> means a prearranged, automatic transfer of funds above a certain dollar level from a deposit account to purchase a security or securities, or any prearranged, automatic redemption or sale of a security or securities when a deposit account drops below a certain level with the proceeds being transferred into a deposit account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collective investment fund</I> means funds held by an FDIC-supervised institution as fiduciary and, consistent with local law, invested collectively:
</P>
<P>(1) In a common trust fund maintained by such FDIC-supervised institution exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of monies contributed thereto by the FDIC-supervised institution in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) In a fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or similar trusts which are exempt from Federal income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Completion of the transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For purchase transactions, the time when the customer pays the FDIC-supervised institution any part of the purchase price (or the time when the FDIC-supervised institution makes the book-entry for any part of the purchase price, if applicable), however, if the customer pays for the security prior to the time payment is requested or becomes due, then the transaction shall be completed when the FDIC-supervised institution transfers the security into the account of the customer; and
</P>
<P>(2) For sale transactions, the time when the FDIC-supervised institution transfers the security out of the account of the customer or, if the security is not in its custody, then the time when the security is delivered to it, however, if the customer delivers the security to the FDIC-supervised institution prior to the time delivery is requested or becomes due then the transaction shall be completed when the FDIC-supervised institution makes payment into the account of the customer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Crossing of buy and sell orders</I> means a security transaction in which the same FDIC-supervised institution acts as agent for both the buyer and the seller.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Customer</I> means any person or account, including any agency, trust, estate, guardianship, or other fiduciary account for which an FDIC-supervised institution effects or participates in effecting the purchase or sale of securities, but does not include a broker, dealer, insured depository institution acting as a broker or a dealer, issuer of the securities that are the subject of the transaction or a person or account having a direct, contractual agreement with a fully disclosed broker/dealer.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Debt security</I> means any security, such as a bond, debenture, note, or any other similar instrument that evidences a liability of the issuer (including any security of this type that is convertible into stock or a similar security) and fractional or participation interests in one or more of any of the foregoing; provided, however, that securities issued by an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a—1 et seq., shall not be included in this definition.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Government security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security that is a direct obligation of, or obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued or guaranteed by a corporation in which the United States has a direct or indirect interest and which is designated by the Secretary of the Treasury for exemption as necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors;
</P>
<P>(3) A security issued or guaranteed as to principal and interest by any corporation whose securities are designated, by statute specifically naming the corporation, to constitute exempt securities within the meaning of the laws administered by the Securities and Exchange Commission; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on a security described in paragraph (i)(1), (2), or (3) of this section other than a put, call, straddle, option, or privilege that is traded on one or more national securities exchanges, or for which quotations are disseminated through an automated quotation system operated by a registered securities association.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Investment discretion</I> means that, with respect to an account, an FDIC-supervised institution directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(1) Is authorized to determine what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account; or
</P>
<P>(2) Makes decisions as to what securities or other property shall be purchased or sold by or for the account even though some other person may have responsibility for these investment decisions.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Municipal security</I> means a security which is a direct obligation of, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States or any security which is an industrial development bond (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 103(c)(2)) the interest on which is excludable from gross income under 26 U.S.C. 103(a)(1) if, by reason of the application of paragraph (4) or (6) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) (determined as if paragraphs (4)(A), (5) and (7) were not included in 26 U.S.C. 103(c), paragraph (1) of 26 U.S.C. 103(c) does not apply to such security. <I>See</I> 15. U.S.C. 78c(a)(29).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Periodic plan</I> means any written authorization for an FDIC-supervised institution to act as agent to purchase or sell for a customer a specific security or securities, in a specific amount (calculated in security units or dollars) or to the extent of dividends and funds available, at specific time intervals, and setting forth the commission or charges to be paid by the customer or the manner of calculating them. Periodic plans include dividend reinvestment plans, automatic investment plans, and employee stock purchase plans.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Security</I> means any note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement or in any oil, gas, or other mineral royalty or lease, any collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, and any put, call, straddle, option, or privilege on any security or group or index of securities (including any interest therein or based on the value thereof), or, in general, any instrument commonly known as a “security”; or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing. The term security does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit or share account in a federally or state insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A loan participation;
</P>
<P>(3) A letter of credit or other form of insured depository institution indebtedness incurred in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(4) Currency;
</P>
<P>(5) Any note, draft, bill of exchange, or bankers acceptance which has a maturity at the time of issuance of not exceeding nine months, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited;
</P>
<P>(6) Units of a collective investment fund;
</P>
<P>(7) Interests in a variable amount (master) note of a borrower of prime credit; or
</P>
<P>(8) U.S. Savings Bonds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.4   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution effecting securities transactions for customers shall maintain the following records for at least three years:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Chronological records.</I> An itemized daily record of each purchase and sale of securities maintained in chronological order, and including:
</P>
<P>(i) Account or customer name for which each transaction was effected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Description of the securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Unit and aggregate purchase or sale price;
</P>
<P>(iv) Trade date; and
</P>
<P>(v) Name or other designation of the broker/dealer or other person from whom the securities were purchased or to whom the securities were sold;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account records.</I> Account records for each customer, reflecting:
</P>
<P>(i) Purchases and sales of securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receipts and deliveries of securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Receipts and disbursements of cash; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other debits and credits pertaining to transactions in securities;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>A separate memorandum (order ticket)</I> of each order to purchase or sell securities (whether executed or canceled), which shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The accounts for which the transaction was effected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the transaction was a market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time the order was received by the trader or other FDIC-supervised institution employee responsible for effecting the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The time the order was placed with the broker/dealer, or if there was no broker/dealer, time the order was executed or canceled;
</P>
<P>(v) The price at which the order was executed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The broker/dealer utilized;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record of broker/dealers.</I> A record of all broker/dealers selected by the FDIC-supervised institution to effect securities transactions and the amount of commissions paid or allocated to each broker during the calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notifications.</I> A copy of the written notification required by §§ 344.5 and 344.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of maintenance.</I> Records may be maintained in whatever manner, form or format an FDIC-supervised institution deems appropriate, provided however, the records required by this section must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. Records may be maintained in hard copy, automated or electronic form provided the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in a hard copy. An FDIC-supervised institution may contract with third party service providers, including broker/dealers, to maintain records required under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.5   Content and time of notification.</HEAD>
<P>Every FDIC-supervised institution effecting a securities transaction for a customer shall give or send, by mail, facsimile or other means of electronic transmission, to the customer at or before completion of the transaction one of the types of written notification identified below:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Broker/dealer's confirmations.</I> (1) A copy of the confirmation of a broker/dealer relating to the securities transaction. An FDIC-supervised institution may either have the broker/dealer send the confirmation directly to the FDIC-supervised institution's customer or send a copy of the broker/dealer's confirmation to the customer upon receipt of the confirmation by the FDIC-supervised institution. If an FDIC-supervised institution chooses to send a copy of the broker/dealer's confirmation, it must be sent within one business day from the institution's receipt of the broker/dealer's confirmation; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the FDIC-supervised institution is to receive remuneration from the customer or any other source in connection with the transaction, a statement of the source and amount of any remuneration to be received if such would be required under paragraph (b)(6) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written notification.</I> A written notification disclosing:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Name of the customer;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the FDIC-supervised institution is acting as agent for such customer, as agent for both such customer and some other person, as principal for its own account, or in any other capacity;
</P>
<P>(4) The date and time of execution, or the fact that the time of execution will be furnished within a reasonable time upon written request of the customer, and the identity, price, and number of shares or units (or principal amount in the case of debt securities) of the security purchased or sold by the customer;
</P>
<P>(5) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received, directly or indirectly, by any broker/dealer from such customer in connection with the transaction;
</P>
<P>(6)(i) The amount of any remuneration received or to be received by the FDIC-supervised institution from the customer, and the source and amount of any other remuneration received or to be received by the FDIC-supervised institution in connection with the transaction, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) Remuneration is determined pursuant to a prior written agreement between the FDIC-supervised institution and the customer; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of government securities and municipal securities, the FDIC-supervised institution received the remuneration in other than an agency transaction; or
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of open end investment company securities, the FDIC-supervised institution has provided the customer with a current prospectus which discloses all current fees, loads and expenses at or before completion of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the FDIC-supervised institution elects not to disclose the source and amount of remuneration it has received or will receive from a party other than the customer pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A), (B), or (C) of this section, the written notification must disclose whether the FDIC-supervised institution has received or will receive remuneration from a party other than the customer, and that the FDIC-supervised institution will furnish within a reasonable time the source and amount of this remuneration upon written request of the customer. This election is not available, however, if, with respect to a purchase, the FDIC-supervised institution was participating in a distribution of that security; or, with respect to a sale, the FDIC-supervised institution was participating in a tender offer for that security;
</P>
<P>(7) Name of the broker/dealer utilized; or where there is no broker/dealer, the name of the person from whom the security was purchased or to whom the security was sold, or a statement that the FDIC-supervised institution will furnish this information within a reasonable time upon written request;
</P>
<P>(8) In the case of a transaction in a debt security subject to redemption before maturity, a statement to the effect that the debt security may be redeemed in whole or in part before maturity, that the redemption could affect the yield represented and that additional information is available upon request;
</P>
<P>(9) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected exclusively on the basis of a dollar price:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar price at which the transaction was effected; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The yield to maturity calculated from the dollar price, provided however, that this shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer thereof, with a variable interest payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment;
</P>
<P>(10) In the case of a transaction in a debt security effected on the basis of yield:
</P>
<P>(i) The yield at which the transaction was effected, including the percentage amount and its characterization (e.g., current yield, yield to maturity, or yield to call) and if effected at yield to call, the type of call, the call date and call price;
</P>
<P>(ii) The dollar price calculated from the yield at which the transaction was effected; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If effected on a basis other than yield to maturity and the yield to maturity is lower than the represented yield, the yield to maturity as well as the represented yield; provided however, that this paragraph (b)(10) shall not apply to a transaction in a debt security that either has a maturity date that may be extended by the issuer with a variable interest rate payable thereon, or is an asset-backed security that represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment;
</P>
<P>(11) In the case of a transaction in a debt security that is an asset-backed security, which represents an interest in or is secured by a pool of receivables or other financial assets that are subject continuously to prepayment, a statement indicating that the actual yield of the asset-backed security may vary according to the rate at which the underlying receivables or other financial assets are prepaid and a statement of the fact that information concerning the factors that affect yield (including at a minimum estimated yield, weighted average life, and the prepayment assumptions underlying yield) will be furnished upon written request of the customer; and
</P>
<P>(12) In the case of a transaction in a debt security, other than a government security, that the security is unrated by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization, if that is the case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.6   Notification by agreement; alternative forms and times of notification.</HEAD>
<P>An FDIC-supervised institution may elect to use the following alternative notification procedures if the transaction is effected for:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Notification by agreement.</I> Accounts (except periodic plans) where the FDIC-supervised institution does not exercise investment discretion and the FDIC-supervised institution and the customer agree in writing to a different arrangement as to the time and content of the written notification; provided however, that such agreement makes clear the customer's right to receive the written notification pursuant to § 344.5(a) or (b) at no additional cost to the customer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Trust accounts.</I> Accounts (except collective investment funds) where the FDIC-supervised institution exercises investment discretion in other than in an agency capacity, in which instance it shall, upon request of the person having the power to terminate the account or, if there is no such person, upon the request of any person holding a vested beneficial interest in such account, give or send to such person the written notification within a reasonable time. The FDIC-supervised institution may charge such person a reasonable fee for providing this information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency accounts.</I> Accounts where the FDIC-supervised institution exercises investment discretion in an agency capacity, in which instance:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised institution shall give or send to each customer not less frequently than once every three months an itemized statement which shall specify the funds and securities in the custody or possession of the FDIC-supervised institution at the end of such period and all debits, credits and transactions in the customer's accounts during such period; and
</P>
<P>(2) If requested by the customer, the FDIC-supervised institution shall give or send to each customer within a reasonable time the written notification described in § 344.5. The FDIC-supervised institution may charge a reasonable fee for providing the information described in § 344.5.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cash management sweep accounts.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution effecting a securities transaction for a cash management sweep account shall give or send its customer a written statement, in the same form as required under paragraph (f) of this section, for each month in which a purchase or sale of a security takes place in the account and not less than once every three months if there are no securities transactions in the account. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph (d), FDIC-supervised institutions that retain custody of government securities that are the subject of a hold-in-custody repurchase agreement are subject to the requirements of 17 CFR 403.5(d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Collective investment fund accounts.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution shall at least annually give or send to the customer a copy of a financial report of the fund, or provide notice that a copy of such report is available and will be furnished upon request to each person to whom a regular periodic accounting would ordinarily be rendered with respect to each participating account. This report shall be based upon an audit made by independent public accountants or internal auditors responsible only to the board of directors of the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Periodic plan accounts.</I> The FDIC-supervised institution shall give or send to the customer not less than once every three months a written statement showing:
</P>
<P>(1) The funds and securities in the custody or possession of the FDIC-supervised institution;
</P>
<P>(2) All service charges and commissions paid by the customer in connection with the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(3) All other debits and credits of the customer's account involved in the transaction; provided that upon written request of the customer, the FDIC-supervised institution shall give or send the information described in § 344.5, except that any such information relating to remuneration paid in connection with the transaction need not be provided to the customer when the remuneration is paid by a source other than the customer. The FDIC-supervised institution may charge a reasonable fee for providing information described in § 344.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.7   Settlement of securities transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All contracts effected or entered into by an FDIC-supervised institution that provide for the purchase or sale of a security (other than an exempted security as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(12), government security, municipal security, commercial paper, bankers' acceptances, or commercial bills) shall provide for completion of the transaction within the number of business days in the standard settlement cycle followed by registered broker dealers in the United States, unless otherwise agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction. The number of business days in the standard settlement cycle shall be determined by reference to paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1, 17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a).
</P>
<P>(b) Paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section shall not apply to contracts:
</P>
<P>(1) For the purchase or sale of limited partnership interests that are not listed on an exchange or for which quotations are not disseminated through an automated quotation system of a registered securities association; or
</P>
<P>(2) For the purchase or sale of securities that the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) may from time to time, taking into account then existing market practices, exempt by order from the requirements of paragraph (a) of SEC Rule 15c6-1, 17 CFR 240.15c6-1(a), either unconditionally or on specified terms and conditions, if the SEC determines that an exemption is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(c) Paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to contracts for the sale for cash of securities that are priced after 4:30 p.m. Eastern time on the date the securities are priced and that are sold by an issuer to an underwriter pursuant to a firm commitment underwritten offering registered under the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77a et seq., or sold to an initial purchaser by an FDIC-supervised institution participating in the offering. An FDIC-supervised institution shall not effect or enter into a contract for the purchase or sale of the securities that provides for payment of funds and delivery of securities later than the fourth business day after the date of the contract unless otherwise expressly agreed to by the parties at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) For the purposes of paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, the parties to a contract shall be deemed to have expressly agreed to an alternate date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction for a contract for the sale for cash of securities pursuant to a firm commitment offering if the managing underwriter and the issuer have agreed to the date for all securities sold pursuant to the offering and the parties to the contract have not expressly agreed to another date for payment of funds and delivery of securities at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 76723, Dec. 19, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 26349, June 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.8   Securities trading policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> Every FDIC-supervised institution effecting securities transactions for customers shall establish written policies and procedures providing:
</P>
<P>(1) Assignment of responsibility for supervision of all officers or employees who:
</P>
<P>(i) Transmit orders to or place orders with broker/dealers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Execute transactions in securities for customers;
</P>
<P>(2) Assignment of responsibility for supervision and reporting, separate from those in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, with respect to all officers or employees who process orders for notification or settlement purposes, or perform other back office functions with respect to securities transactions effected for customers;
</P>
<P>(3) For the fair and equitable allocation of securities and prices to accounts when orders for the same security are received at approximately the same time and are placed for execution either individually or in combination; and
</P>
<P>(4) Where applicable, and where permissible under local law, for the crossing of buy and sell orders on a fair and equitable basis to the parties to the transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.9   Personal securities trading reporting by officers and employees of FDIC-supervised institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Officers and employees subject to reporting.</I> FDIC-supervised institution officers and employees who:
</P>
<P>(1) Make investment recommendations or decisions for the accounts of customers;
</P>
<P>(2) Participate in the determination of such recommendations or decisions; or
</P>
<P>(3) In connection with their duties, obtain information concerning which securities are being purchased or sold or recommend such action, must report to the FDIC-supervised institution, within 30-calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter, all transactions in securities made by them or on their behalf, either at the FDIC-supervised institution or elsewhere in which they have a beneficial interest. The report shall identify the securities purchased or sold and indicate the dates of the transactions and whether the transactions were purchases or sales.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> Excluded from this reporting requirement are:
</P>
<P>(1) Transactions for the benefit of the officer or employee over which the officer or employee has no direct or indirect influence or control;
</P>
<P>(2) Transactions in registered investment company shares;
</P>
<P>(3) Transactions in government securities; and
</P>
<P>(4) All transactions involving in the aggregate $10,000 or less during the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative report.</I> Where an FDIC-supervised institution acts as an investment adviser to an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, the FDIC-supervised institution's officers and employees may fulfill their reporting requirement under paragraph (a) of this section by filing with the FDIC-supervised institution the “access persons” personal securities trading report required by SEC Rule 17j-1, 17 CFR 270.17j-1.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 344.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.35.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 344.10   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Directors of the FDIC, in its discretion, may waive for good cause all or any part of this part 344.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="345" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 345—COMMUNITY REINVESTMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1814-1817, 1819-1820, 1828, 1831u, 2901-2908, 3103-3104, and 3108(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 7205, Feb. 1, 2024, unless otherwise noted. 




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.11   Authority, purposes, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The authority for this part is 12 U.S.C. 1814-1817, 1819-1820, 1828, 1831u, 2901-2908, 3103-3104, and 3108(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> This part implements the requirement in the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA) that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) assess a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the bank is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the bank. Accordingly, this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes the framework and criteria by which the FDIC assesses a bank's record of responding to the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provides that the FDIC takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except for certain special purpose banks described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, this part applies to all insured State nonmember banks, including insured State branches as described in paragraph (c)(2) and any uninsured State branch that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured State branches.</I> Insured State branches are branches of a foreign bank established and operating under the laws of any State, the deposits of which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. In the case of insured State branches, references in this part to main office mean the principal branch within the United States and the term branch or branches refers to any insured State branch or branches located within the United States. The facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area of an insured State branch is the community or communities located within the United States served by the branch as described in § 345.16 and, as applicable, §§ 345.17 and 345.18.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain special purpose banks.</I> This part does not apply to special purpose banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.12" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.12   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="86">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7206, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term “control” has the same meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable housing</I> means activities described in § 345.13(b).
</P>
<P><I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA (as defined in this section), if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has not been subdivided into metropolitan divisions, or for the metropolitan division, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if an individual, family, household, or census tract is located in a nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P><I>Assets</I> means a bank's total assets as reported in Schedule RC of the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income as filed under 12 U.S.C. 161, 324, 1464, or 1817, as applicable (Call Report), or Schedule RAL of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks as filed under 12 U.S.C. 1817(a), 3102(b), or 3105(c)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means a State nonmember bank, as that term is defined in section 3(e)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA) (12 U.S.C. 1813(e)(2)), with federally insured deposits, except as defined in § 345.11(c). The term bank also includes an insured State branch as defined in § 345.11(c).
</P>
<P><I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility, whether shared or unshared, that the FDIC approved or authorized as a branch and that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P><I>Census tract</I> means a census tract delineated by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Closed-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning given to the term “closed-end mortgage loan” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Combination of loan dollars and loan count</I> means, when applied to a particular ratio, the average of:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio calculated using loans measured in dollar volume; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ratio calculated using loans measured in number of loans.
</P>
<P><I>Community development</I> means activities described in § 345.13(b) through (l).
</P>
<P>Community Development Financial Institution (CDFI) means an entity that satisfies the definition in section 103(5)(A) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4702(5)) and is certified by the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Community Development Financial Institutions Fund as meeting the requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201(b).
</P>
<P><I>Community development investment</I> means a lawful investment, including a legally binding commitment to invest, that is reported on Schedule RC-L of the Call Report or on Schedule L of the Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable; deposit; membership share; grant; or monetary or in-kind donation that supports community development, as described in § 345.13.
</P>
<P><I>Community development loan</I> means a loan, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit, such as a standby letter of credit, that supports community development, as described in § 345.13. A community development loan does not include any home mortgage loan considered under the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, with the exception of one-to-four family home mortgage loans for rental housing with affordable rents in nonmetropolitan areas under § 345.13(b)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Community development services</I> means the performance of volunteer services by a bank's or its affiliate's board members or employees, performed on behalf of the bank, where those services:
</P>
<P>(1) Support community development, as described in § 345.13; and
</P>
<P>(2) Are related to the provision of financial services, which include credit, deposit, and other personal and business financial services, or services that reflect a board member's or an employee's expertise at the bank or affiliate, such as human resources, information technology, and legal services.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures and that is one of the following types of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Automobile loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> as reported as “credit card” in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other revolving credit plan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other consumer loan,</I> as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>County</I> means any county, county equivalent, or statistically equivalent entity as used by the U.S. Census Bureau pursuant to title 13 of the U.S. Code.
</P>
<P><I>Deposit location</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 345.42, the address on file with the bank for purposes of the Customer Identification Program required by 31 CFR 1020.220 or another documented address at which the depositor resides or is located.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 345.42, the county of the bank facility to which the deposits are assigned in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any institution subject to the CRA, as described in § 345.11 and 12 CFR 25.11 and 228.11.
</P>
<P><I>Deposits</I> has the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 345.42, <I>deposits</I> means deposits in domestic offices of individuals, partnerships, and corporations, and of commercial banks and other depository institutions in the United States as defined in Schedule RC-E of the Call Report; deposits does not include U.S. Government deposits, State and local government deposits, domestically held deposits of foreign governments or official institutions, or domestically held deposits of foreign banks or other foreign financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 345.42, <I>deposits</I> means a bank's deposits as reported in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits as required under 12 CFR 304.3(c).
</P>
<P><I>Digital delivery system</I> means a channel through which banks offer retail banking services electronically, such as online banking or mobile banking.
</P>
<P><I>Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract</I> means a census tract publicly designated as such by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the FDIC, and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), based on the criteria in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, compiled in a list, and published annually by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC).
</P>
<P>(1) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as distressed if it is in a county that meets one or more of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) An unemployment rate of at least 1.5 times the national average;
</P>
<P>(ii) A poverty rate of 20 percent or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A population loss of 10 percent or more between the previous and most recent decennial census or a net population loss of five percent or more over the five-year period preceding the most recent census.
</P>
<P>(2) A nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract is designated as underserved if it meets the criteria for population size, density, and dispersion that indicate the area's population is sufficiently small, thin, and distant from a population center that the census tract is likely to have difficulty financing the fixed costs of meeting essential community needs. The criteria for these designations are based on the Urban Influence Codes established by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Economic Research Service numbered “7,” “10,” “11,” or “12.”
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation period</I> means the period, generally in calendar years, during which a bank conducted the activities that the FDIC evaluates in a CRA examination, in accordance with the FDIC's guidelines and procedures.
</P>
<P><I>Facility-based assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 345.16.
</P>
<P><I>High Opportunity Area</I> means an area identified by the Federal Housing Finance Agency for purposes of the Duty to Serve Underserved Markets regulation in 12 CFR part 1282, subpart C.
</P>
<P><I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end home mortgage loan or an open-end home mortgage loan as these terms are defined in this section.
</P>
<P>Income level includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means:
</P>
<P>(i) For individuals, families, or households, income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a census tract, a median family income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 345.26, that had assets of at least $600 million as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and less than $2 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The FDIC adjusts and publishes the figures in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 345.26, that had assets of at least $2 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years. The FDIC adjusts and publishes the figure in this definition annually, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Large depository institution</I> means any depository institution, excluding depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) and depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 345.26(a) or 12 CFR 228.26(a), that meets the asset size threshold of a large bank.
</P>
<P><I>Limited purpose bank</I> means a bank that is not in the business of extending closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans evaluated under § 345.22 to retail customers, except on an incidental and accommodation basis, and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank is in effect, pursuant to § 345.26.
</P>
<P><I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the census tract where the borrower resides at the time that the borrower submits the loan application;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan is located in the census tract where the property securing the loan is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business loan or small farm loan is located in the census tract where the main business facility or farm is located or where the borrower will otherwise apply the loan proceeds, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Low-cost education loan</I> means any private education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(8)) (including a loan under a State or local education loan program), originated by the bank for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002), implemented in 34 CFR part 600, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P><I>Low-income credit union (LICU</I>) has the same meaning given to that term in 12 CFR 701.34.
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit for housing persons of low income pursuant to section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 42).
</P>
<P><I>Major product line</I> means a product line that the FDIC evaluates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, pursuant to § 345.22(d)(2) and paragraphs II.b.1 and II.b.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Majority automobile lender</I> means a bank for which more than 50 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans were automobile loans, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.3 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means any MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan division</I> has the same meaning as that term is defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Military bank</I> means a bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel who serve or have served in the U.S. Armed Forces (including the U.S. Air Force, U.S. Army, U.S. Coast Guard, U.S. Marine Corps, U.S. Navy, and U.S. Space Force) or their dependents. A bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents means a bank whose most important customer group is military personnel or their dependents.
</P>
<P><I>Minority depository institution (MDI) means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of activities conducted pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2907(a), “minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(2) For all other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) “Minority depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) “Minority depository institution” as defined in section 308 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 1463 note); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A depository institution considered to be a minority depository institution by the appropriate Federal banking agency. For purposes of this paragraph (2)(iii), “appropriate Federal banking agency” has the meaning given to it in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Mission-driven nonprofit organization</I> means an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) and exempt from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that benefits or serves primarily low- or moderate-income individuals or communities, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area delineated by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget, pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e)(3) and (10), 31 U.S.C. 1104(d), and Executive Order 10253 (June 11, 1951).
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily loan</I> means an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a “multifamily dwelling” as defined in 12 CFR 1003.2.
</P>
<P><I>Multistate MSA</I> means an MSA that crosses a State boundary.
</P>
<P><I>Nationwide area</I> means the entire United States and its territories.
</P>
<P><I>Native Land Area means:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) All land within the limits of any Indian reservation under the jurisdiction of the United States, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(a);
</P>
<P>(2) All dependent Indian communities within the borders of the United States whether within the original or subsequently acquired territory thereof, and whether within or without the limits of a State, as described in 18 U.S.C. 1151(b);
</P>
<P>(3) All Indian allotments, the Indian titles to which have not been extinguished, including rights-of-way running through the same, as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1151(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Any land held in trust by the United States for tribes or Native Americans or tribally-held restricted fee land;
</P>
<P>(5) Reservations established by a State government for a tribe or tribes recognized by the State;
</P>
<P>(6) Any Native village, as defined in 43 U.S.C. 1602(c), in Alaska;
</P>
<P>(7) Lands that have the status of Hawaiian Home Lands as defined in section 204 of the Hawaiian Homes Commission Act, 1920 (42 Stat. 108), as amended;
</P>
<P>(8) Areas defined by the U.S. Census Bureau as Alaska Native Village Statistical Areas, Oklahoma Tribal Statistical Areas, Tribal-Designated Statistical Areas, or American Indian Joint-Use Areas; and
</P>
<P>(9) Land areas of State-recognized Indian tribes and heritage groups that are defined and recognized by individual States and included in the U.S. Census Bureau's annual Boundary and Annexation Survey.
</P>
<P><I>New Markets Tax Credit (NMTC)</I> means a Federal tax credit pursuant to section 45D of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 45D).
</P>
<P><I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P><I>Open-end home mortgage loan</I> has the same meaning as given to the term “open-end line of credit” in 12 CFR 1003.2, excluding loan transactions set forth in 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) and multifamily loans as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Operating subsidiary,</I> for purposes of this part, means an operating subsidiary as described in 12 CFR 5.34.
</P>
<P><I>Other delivery system</I> means a channel, other than branches, remote services facilities, or digital delivery systems, through which banks offer retail banking services.
</P>
<P><I>Outside retail lending area</I> means the geographic area delineated pursuant to § 345.18.
</P>
<P><I>Persistent poverty county</I> means a county that has had poverty rates of 20 percent or more for 30 years, as publicly designated by the Board, FDIC, and OCC, compiled in a list, and published annually by the FFIEC.
</P>
<P><I>Product line</I> means a bank's loans in one of the following, separate categories in a particular Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Closed-end home mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(2) Small business loans;
</P>
<P>(3) Small farm loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) Automobile loans, if a bank is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 345.22.
</P>
<P><I>Remote service facility</I> means an automated, virtually staffed, or unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, a bank, such as an automated teller machine (ATM), interactive teller machine, cash dispensing machine, or other remote electronic facility, that is open to the general public and at which deposits are accepted, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P><I>Reported loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A home mortgage loan or a multifamily loan reported by a bank pursuant to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, as implemented by 12 CFR part 1003; or
</P>
<P>(2) A small business loan or a small farm loan reported by a bank pursuant to § 345.42.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking products</I> means credit and deposit products or programs that facilitate a lending or depository relationship between the bank and consumers, small businesses, or small farms.
</P>
<P><I>Retail banking services</I> means retail financial services provided by a bank to consumers, small businesses, or small farms and include a bank's systems for delivering retail financial services.
</P>
<P><I>Retail lending assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated pursuant to § 345.17.
</P>
<P><I>Retail Lending Test Area</I> means a facility-based assessment area, a retail lending assessment area, or an outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Small bank</I> means a bank, excluding a bank designated as a limited purpose bank pursuant to § 345.26, that had assets of less than $600 million as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years. The FDIC adjusts and publishes the dollar figure in this definition annually based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a business, other than a farm, that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small business loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small business” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm</I> means a farm that had gross annual revenues for its preceding fiscal year of $5 million or less.
</P>
<P><I>Small farm loan</I> means, notwithstanding the definition of “small farm” in this section, a loan included in “loans to small farms” as reported in Schedule RC-C of the Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a U.S. State or territory, and includes the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted census tract</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A low-income census tract or a moderate-income census tract; or
</P>
<P>(2) A distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tract.
</P>
<P><I>Tribal government</I> means the recognized governing body of any Indian or Alaska Native tribe, band, nation, pueblo, village, community, component band, or component reservation, individually identified (including parenthetically) in the list most recently published pursuant to section 104 of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 5131).
</P>
<P><I>Women's depository institution (WDI)</I> means “women's depository institution” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)(2).
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.13" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.13   Consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>As provided in paragraph (a) of this section, a bank may receive consideration for a loan, investment, or service that supports community development as described in paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Full and partial credit for community development loans, community development investments, and community development services</I>—(1) <I>Full credit.</I> A bank will receive credit for its entire loan, investment, or service if it meets the majority standard in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; meets the bona fide intent standard in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section; involves an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section; or involves a LIHTC as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Majority standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the majority standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan, investment, or service supports community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, the majority of the housing units are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) and (d) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (c) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, small businesses or small farms;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraphs (e), (f), (g), and (i) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (h) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of designated disaster areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (j) of this section, the majority of the beneficiaries are, or the majority of dollars benefit or serve, residents of Native Land Areas; or
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) For loans, investments, or services supporting community development under paragraph (l) of this section, the loan, investment, or service primarily supports community development under paragraph (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bona fide intent standard.</I> A loan, investment, or service meets the bona fide intent standard if:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing units, beneficiaries, or proportion of dollars necessary to meet the majority standard are not reasonably quantifiable pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan, investment, or service has the express, bona fide intent of community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The loan, investment, or service is specifically structured to achieve community development under one or more of paragraphs (b) through (l) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports community development under paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>LIHTC.</I> The loan, investment, or service supports LIHTC-financed affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial credit.</I> If a loan, investment, or service supporting affordable housing under paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not meet the majority standard under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a bank will receive partial credit for the loan, investment, or service in proportion to the percentage of total housing units in any development that are affordable to low- or moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affordable housing.</I> Affordable housing comprises the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rental housing in conjunction with a government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.</I> Rental housing for low- or moderate-income individuals purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in conjunction with a Federal, State, local, or tribal government affordable housing plan, program, initiative, tax credit, or subsidy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multifamily rental housing with affordable rents.</I> Multifamily rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved if:
</P>
<P>(i) For the majority of units, the monthly rent as underwritten by the bank, reflecting post-construction or post-renovation changes as applicable, does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more of the following additional criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The housing is located in a low- or moderate-income census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) The housing is located in a census tract in which the median income of renters is low- or moderate-income and the median rent does not exceed 30 percent of 80 percent of the area median income;
</P>
<P>(C) The housing is purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved by any nonprofit organization with a stated mission of, or that otherwise directly supports, providing affordable housing; or
</P>
<P>(D) The bank provides documentation that a majority of the housing units are occupied by low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One-to-four family rental housing with affordable rents in a nonmetropolitan area.</I> One-to-four family rental housing purchased, developed, financed, rehabilitated, improved, or preserved in a nonmetropolitan area that meets the criteria in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affordable owner-occupied housing for low- or moderate-income individuals.</I> Assistance for low- or moderate-income individuals to obtain, maintain, rehabilitate, or improve affordable owner-occupied housing, excluding loans by a bank directly to one or more owner-occupants of such housing.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Mortgage-backed securities.</I> Purchases of mortgage-backed securities where a majority of the underlying loans are not loans that the bank originated or purchased and:
</P>
<P>(i) Are home mortgage loans made to low- or moderate-income individuals; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are loans that finance multifamily affordable housing that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Economic development.</I> Economic development comprises:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Government-related support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services undertaken in conjunction or in syndication with Federal, State, local, or tribal government plans, programs, or initiatives that support small businesses or small farms, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loans, investments, and services other than direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, and services that support small businesses or small farms in accordance with how small businesses and small farms are defined in the applicable plan, program, or initiative, but excluding loans by a bank directly to small businesses or small farms (either as defined in a government plan, program, or initiative or in § 345.12). If the government plan, program, or initiative does not identify a standard for the size of the small businesses or small farms supported by the plan, program, or initiative, the small businesses or small farms supported must meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 345.12. Loans to, investments in, or services provided to the following are presumed to meet the criteria of this paragraph (c)(1)(i):
</P>
<P>(A) Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107);
</P>
<P>(B) New Markets Venture Capital Company (13 CFR part 108);
</P>
<P>(C) Qualified Community Development Entity (26 U.S.C. 45D(c)); or
</P>
<P>(D) U.S. Department of Agriculture Rural Business Investment Company (7 CFR 4290.50).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Direct loans to small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans by a bank directly to businesses or farms, including, but not limited to, loans in conjunction or syndicated with a U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) Certified Development Company (13 CFR 120.10) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR part 107), that meet the following size and purpose criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Size eligibility standard.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must be to businesses and farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the U.S. Small Business Administration Development Company (13 CFR 121.301) or Small Business Investment Company (13 CFR 121.301 and 121.201) programs or that meet the definition of small business or small farm in § 345.12.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Purpose test.</I> Loans that may be considered under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section must have the purpose of promoting permanent job creation or retention for low- or moderate-income individuals or in low- or moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediary support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Loans, investments, or services provided to intermediaries that lend to, invest in, or provide assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other support for small businesses and small farms.</I> Assistance, such as financial counseling, shared space, technology, or administrative assistance, to small businesses or small farms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community supportive services.</I> Community supportive services are activities that assist, benefit, or contribute to the health, stability, or well-being of low- or moderate-income individuals, such as childcare, education, workforce development and job training programs, health services programs, and housing services programs. Community supportive services include, but are not limited to, activities that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are conducted with a mission-driven nonprofit organization;
</P>
<P>(2) Are conducted with a nonprofit organization located in and serving low- or moderate-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(3) Are conducted in a low- or moderate-income census tract and targeted to the residents of the census tract;
</P>
<P>(4) Are offered to individuals at a workplace where the majority of employees are low- or moderate-income, based on U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics data for the average wage for workers in that particular occupation or industry;
</P>
<P>(5) Are provided to students or their families through a school at which the majority of students qualify for free or reduced-price meals under the U.S. Department of Agriculture's National School Lunch Program;
</P>
<P>(6) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Medicaid;
</P>
<P>(7) Primarily benefit or serve individuals who receive or are eligible to receive Federal Supplemental Security Income, Social Security Disability Insurance, or support through other Federal disability assistance programs; or
</P>
<P>(8) Primarily benefit or serve recipients of government assistance plans, programs, or initiatives that have income qualifications equivalent to, or stricter than, the definitions of low- and moderate-income as defined in this part. Examples include, but are not limited to, the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development's section 8, 202, 515, and 811 programs or the U.S. Department of Agriculture's section 514, 516, and Supplemental Nutrition Assistance programs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revitalization or stabilization</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Revitalization or stabilization comprises activities that support revitalization or stabilization of targeted census tracts, including adaptive reuse of vacant or blighted buildings, brownfield redevelopment, support of a plan for a business improvement district or main street program, or any other activity that supports revitalization or stabilization, and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on revitalizing or stabilizing targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mixed-use revitalization or stabilization project.</I> Projects to revitalize or stabilize a targeted census tract that include both commercial and residential components qualify as revitalization or stabilization activities under this paragraph (e)(2), if:
</P>
<P>(i) The criteria in paragraph (e)(1) of this section are met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 50 percent of the project is non-residential as measured by the percentage of total square footage or dollar amount of the project.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Essential community facilities.</I> Essential community facilities are public facilities that provide essential services generally accessible by a local community, including, but not limited to, schools, libraries, childcare facilities, parks, hospitals, healthcare facilities, and community centers that benefit or serve targeted census tracts, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Essential community infrastructure.</I> Essential community infrastructure comprises activities benefitting or serving targeted census tracts, including, but not limited to, broadband, telecommunications, mass transit, water supply and distribution, and sewage treatment and collection systems, and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recovery of designated disaster areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Activities that promote recovery of a designated disaster area are those that revitalize or stabilize geographic areas subject to a Major Disaster Declaration administered by the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a disaster plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving the designated disaster area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, of the designated disaster area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in the designated disaster area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility limitations for loans, investments, or services supporting recovery of a designated disaster area.</I> (i) Loans, investments, or services that support recovery from a designated disaster in counties designated to receive only FEMA Public Assistance Emergency Work Category A (Debris Removal) and/or Category B (Emergency Protective Measures) are not eligible for consideration under this paragraph (h)(2), unless the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC announce a temporary exception.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC will consider loans, investments, and services that support recovery from a designated disaster under this paragraph (h)(2) for 36 months after a Major Disaster Declaration, unless that time period is extended by the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency.</I> Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities assist individuals and communities to prepare for, adapt to, and withstand natural disasters or weather-related risks or disasters. Disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities benefit or serve targeted census tracts and:
</P>
<P>(1) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes a focus on benefitting or serving targeted census tracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in targeted census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in targeted census tracts.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency in Native Land Areas.</I> (1) Revitalization or stabilization, essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are activities specifically targeted to and conducted in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(2) Revitalization or stabilization activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraph (e) of this section, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on revitalizing or stabilizing Native Land Areas and a particular focus on low- or moderate-income households;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents in Native Land Areas, with substantial benefits for low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(3) Essential community facilities, essential community infrastructure, and disaster preparedness and weather resiliency activities in Native Land Areas are defined consistent with paragraphs (f), (g), and (i) of this section, respectively, but specifically:
</P>
<P>(i) Are undertaken in conjunction with a plan, program, or initiative of a Federal, State, local, or tribal government or a mission-driven nonprofit organization, where the plan, program, or initiative includes an explicit focus on benefitting or serving Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefit or serve residents, including low- or moderate-income individuals, in Native Land Areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not directly result in the forced or involuntary relocation of low- or moderate-income individuals in Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs.</I> Activities with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs are loans, investments, or services undertaken by any bank, including by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank evaluated under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 228, in cooperation with an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI. Such activities do not include investments by an MDI, WDI, or CDFI bank in itself.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Financial literacy.</I> Activities that promote financial literacy are those that assist individuals, families, and households, including low- or moderate-income individuals, families, and households, to make informed financial decisions regarding managing income, savings, credit, and expenses, including with respect to homeownership.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.14" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.14   Community development illustrative list; Confirmation of eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Illustrative list</I>—(1) <I>Issuing and maintaining the illustrative list.</I> The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC jointly issue and maintain a publicly available illustrative list of non-exhaustive examples of loans, investments, and services that qualify for community development consideration as provided in § 345.13.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Modifying the illustrative list.</I> (i) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC update the illustrative list in paragraph (a)(1) of this section periodically.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Board, the FDIC, and the OCC determine that a loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration, the owner of the loan or investment at the time of the determination will continue to receive community development consideration for the remaining term or period of the loan or investment. However, these loans or investments will not be considered eligible for community development consideration for any new purchasers of that loan or investment after the agencies make a determination that the loan or investment is no longer eligible for community development consideration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>Request for confirmation of eligibility.</I> A bank subject to this part may request that the FDIC confirm that a loan, investment, or service is eligible for community development consideration by submitting a request to, and in a format prescribed by, the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of eligibility.</I> (i) To determine the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service for which a request has been submitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the FDIC considers:
</P>
<P>(A) Information that describes and supports the request; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any other information that the FDIC deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board, the FDIC, and the OCC expect and are presumed to jointly determine eligibility of a loan, investment, or service under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section to promote consistency. Before making a determination under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the FDIC consults with the Board and OCC regarding the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service.
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC may impose limitations or requirements on a determination of the eligibility of a loan, investment, or service to ensure consistency with this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of eligibility.</I> The FDIC notifies the requestor and the Board and OCC in writing of any determination under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as well as the rationale for such determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.15" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.1.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.15   Impact and responsiveness review of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Impact and responsiveness review, in general.</I> Under the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26, the FDIC evaluates the extent to which a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services are impactful and responsive in meeting community development needs in each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area. The FDIC evaluates the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans, community development investments, or community development services based on paragraph (b) of this section, and may take into account performance context information pursuant to § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Impact and responsiveness review factors.</I> Factors considered in evaluating the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services include, but are not limited to, whether the community development loan, community development investment, or community development service:
</P>
<P>(1) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(2) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(3) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(4) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(5) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(6) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(7) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(8) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(9) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(10) Is an investment in projects financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(11) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(12) Is a new community development financing product or service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Geographic Considerations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.16" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.16   Facility-based assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank must delineate one or more facility-based assessment areas within which the FDIC evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the performance tests and strategic plan described in § 345.21.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for facility-based assessment areas.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a bank's facility-based assessment areas must include each county in which a bank has a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility, as well as the surrounding counties in which the bank has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans).
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas must consist of a single MSA, one or more contiguous counties within an MSA, or one or more contiguous counties within the nonmetropolitan area of a State.
</P>
<P>(3) An intermediate bank or a small bank may adjust the boundaries of its facility-based assessment areas to include only the portion of a county that it reasonably can be expected to serve, subject to paragraph (c) of this section. A facility-based assessment area that includes a partial county must consist of contiguous whole census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other limitations on the delineation of a facility-based assessment area.</I> Each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas:
</P>
<P>(1) May not reflect illegal discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(2) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income census tracts. In determining whether a bank has arbitrarily excluded low- or moderate-income census tracts from a facility-based assessment area, the FDIC takes into account the bank's capacity and constraints, including its size and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Military banks.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a military bank whose customers are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Use of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The FDIC uses the facility-based assessment areas delineated by a bank in its evaluation of the bank's CRA performance unless the FDIC determines that the facility-based assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.17" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.17   Retail lending assessment areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Based upon the criteria described in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a large bank must delineate retail lending assessment areas within which the FDIC evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to § 345.22.
</P>
<P>(2) A large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas for a particular calendar year if, in the prior two calendar years, the large bank originated or purchased within its facility-based assessment areas more than 80 percent of its home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank as described in paragraph II.a.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) If, in a retail lending assessment area delineated pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the large bank did not originate or purchase any reported loans in any of the product lines that formed the basis of the retail lending assessment area delineation pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) or (2) of this section, the FDIC will not consider the retail lending assessment area to have been delineated for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements for retail lending assessment areas.</I> (1) A large bank's retail lending assessment area must consist of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The entirety of a single MSA (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding any counties inside the large bank's facility-based assessment areas; or
</P>
<P>(ii) All of the counties in the nonmetropolitan area of a State (using the MSA boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation applies), excluding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any counties included in the large bank's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any counties in which the large bank did not originate any closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are reported loans during that calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) A retail lending assessment area may not extend beyond a State boundary unless the retail lending assessment area consists of counties in a multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delineation of retail lending assessment areas.</I> Subject to the geographic requirements in paragraph (b) of this section, a large bank must delineate, for a particular calendar year, a retail lending assessment area in any MSA or in the nonmetropolitan area of any State in which it originated:
</P>
<P>(1) At least 150 closed-end home mortgage loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years; or
</P>
<P>(2) At least 400 small business loans that are reported loans in each year of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of retail lending assessment areas.</I> The FDIC uses the retail lending assessment areas delineated by a large bank in its evaluation of the bank's closed-end home mortgage lending and small business lending performance unless the FDIC determines that the retail lending assessment areas do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.18" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.18   Outside retail lending areas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Large banks.</I> The FDIC evaluates a large bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 345.22. However, the FDIC will not evaluate a large bank in its outside retail lending area if it did not originate or purchase loans in any product lines in the outside retail lending area during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> The FDIC evaluates the record of an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community in its outside retail lending area pursuant to § 345.22, for a particular calendar year, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the prior two calendar years, the bank originated or purchased outside the bank's facility-based assessment areas more than 50 percent of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, as described in paragraph II.a.2 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic requirements of outside retail lending areas</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A bank's outside retail lending area consists of the nationwide area, excluding:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any county in a nonmetropolitan area in which the bank did not originate or purchase any closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component geographic area.</I> The outside retail lending area is comprised of component geographic areas. A component geographic area is any MSA or the nonmetropolitan area of any State, or portion thereof, included within the outside retail lending area.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.19" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.19   Areas for eligible community development loans, community development investments, and community development services.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may consider a bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services provided outside of its facility-based assessment areas, as provided in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.20" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.2.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Standards for Assessing Performance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.21" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.21   Evaluation of CRA performance in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of performance tests and strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>Large banks.</I> To evaluate the performance of a large bank, the FDIC applies the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, and the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of an intermediate bank, the FDIC applies the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 and either the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2) or, at the bank's option, the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated under § 345.24.</I> If an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the FDIC evaluates the intermediate bank for the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 and continues evaluations pursuant to this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank opts out. If an intermediate bank opts out of the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the FDIC reverts to evaluating the bank pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> An intermediate bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 345.30(b).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate the performance of a small bank, the FDIC applies the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2), unless the bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks evaluated under the Retail Lending Test.</I> If a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC evaluates the small bank using the same provisions used to evaluate intermediate banks pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22.
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC evaluates the small bank for the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 and continues evaluations under this performance test for subsequent evaluation periods until the bank opts out. If a small bank opts out of the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the FDIC reverts to evaluating the bank pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2), starting with the evaluation period preceding the bank's next CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A small bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 345.29(b).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limited purpose banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates a limited purpose bank pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration.</I> A limited purpose bank may request additional consideration pursuant to § 345.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Military banks</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates a military bank pursuant to the applicable performance tests described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Evaluation approach for military banks operating under § 345.16(d).</I> If a military bank delineates the entire United States and its territories as its sole facility-based assessment area pursuant to § 345.16(d), the FDIC evaluates the bank exclusively at the institution level based on its performance in its sole facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Banks operating under a strategic plan.</I> The FDIC evaluates the performance of a bank that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 345.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of operating subsidiaries and other affiliates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In the performance evaluation of a bank, the FDIC considers the loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's operating subsidiaries and other affiliates, as applicable, as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, so long as no other depository institution claims the loan, investment, service, or product for purposes of this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 228.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of operating subsidiaries.</I> The FDIC considers the loans, investment, services, and products of a bank's operating subsidiaries under this part, unless an operating subsidiary is independently subject to the CRA. The bank must collect, maintain, and report data on the loans, investments, services, and products of its operating subsidiaries as provided in § 345.42(c).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans, investments, services, and products of other affiliates.</I> The FDIC considers the loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank that are not operating subsidiaries, at the bank's option, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The affiliate is not independently subject to the CRA.
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank collects, maintains, and reports data on the loans, investments, services, or products of the affiliate as provided in § 345.42(d).
</P>
<P>(iii) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, if a bank opts to have the FDIC consider the closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans that are originated or purchased by one or more of the bank's affiliates in a particular Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, all of the loans in that product line originated or purchased by all of the bank's affiliates in the particular Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, if a large bank opts to have the FDIC consider the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans that are originated or purchased by any of the bank's affiliates in any Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC will consider, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the closed-end home mortgage loans or small business loans originated by all of the bank's affiliates in the nationwide area when delineating retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 345.17(c).
</P>
<P>(v) Pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26, the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2), or pursuant to an approved strategic plan in § 345.27, the FDIC will consider, at the bank's option, community development loans or community development investments that are originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by one or more of the bank's affiliates, subject to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development lending and community development investment by a consortium or a third party.</I> If a bank invests in or participates in a consortium that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, or if a bank invests in a third party that originates, purchases, refinances, or renews community development loans or community development investments, the FDIC may consider, at the bank's option, either those loans or investments, subject to the limitations in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, or the investment in the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(1) The bank must collect, maintain, and report the data pertaining to the community development loans and community development investments as provided in § 345.42(e), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) If the participants or investors choose to allocate community development loans or community development investments among themselves for consideration under this section, no participant or investor may claim a loan origination, loan purchase, or investment for community development consideration if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination, loan purchase, or investment; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank may not claim community development loans or community development investments accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans or investments made by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance context information considered.</I> When applying performance tests and strategic plans pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and when determining whether to approve a strategic plan pursuant to § 345.27(h), the FDIC may consider the following performance context information to the extent that it is not considered as part of the performance tests as provided in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Any information regarding a bank's institutional capacity or constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank, safety and soundness limitations, or any other bank-specific factors that significantly affect the bank's ability to provide retail lending, retail banking services and retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) Any information regarding the bank's past performance;
</P>
<P>(3) Demographic data on income levels and income distribution, nature of housing stock, housing costs, economic climate, or other relevant data;
</P>
<P>(4) Any information about retail banking and community development needs and opportunities provided by the bank or other relevant sources, including, but not limited to, members of the community, community organizations, State, local, and tribal governments, and economic development agencies;
</P>
<P>(5) Data and information provided by the bank regarding the bank's business strategy and product offerings;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's public file, as provided in § 345.43, including any written comments about the bank's CRA performance submitted to the bank or the FDIC and the bank's responses to those comments; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns conclusions to a large bank's or limited purpose bank's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part. The FDIC assigns conclusions to a small bank's or intermediate bank's performance on the applicable tests described in paragraph (a) of this section pursuant to § 345.28 and appendices C and E to this part. The FDIC assigns conclusions to a bank that has an approved strategic plan pursuant to § 345.28 and paragraph g of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The FDIC assigns an overall CRA performance rating to a bank in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution pursuant to § 345.28 and appendices D and E to this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> The CRA and this part do not require a bank to originate or purchase loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound banking practices, including underwriting standards. Banks are permitted to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income individuals, small businesses or small farms, and low- or moderate-income census tracts, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.22" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.22   Retail lending test.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="90">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7206, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Lending Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's origination and purchase of home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Automobile loans.</I> The Retail Lending Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through the bank's origination and purchase of automobile loans if the bank is a majority automobile lender. A bank that is not a majority automobile lender may opt to have automobile loans evaluated under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodology overview</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen.</I> The FDIC evaluates whether a bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in each facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Volume Screen as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending distribution analysis.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the FDIC evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of each of a bank's major product lines in each Retail Lending Test Area, as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the FDIC develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section for each Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the FDIC's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area is informed by the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area, performance context factors provided in § 345.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>No major product line.</I> If a bank has no major product line in a facility-based assessment area, the FDIC assigns the bank a Retail Lending Test conclusion for that facility-based assessment area based upon its performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context factors provided in § 345.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks that lack an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail Lending Volume Screen</I>—(1) <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> A bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the bank has a Bank Volume Metric of 30 percent or greater of the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area. The FDIC calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark pursuant to section I of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks that meet or surpass the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If a bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the FDIC develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Banks that do not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(i) <I>Acceptable basis factors.</I> If a bank does not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the FDIC determines whether the bank has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in the facility-based assessment area by considering:
</P>
<P>(A) The bank's dollar volume of non-automobile consumer loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The bank's institutional capacity and constraints, including the financial condition of the bank;
</P>
<P>(C) The presence or lack of other lenders in the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(D) Safety and soundness limitations;
</P>
<P>(E) The bank's business strategy; and
</P>
<P>(F) Any other factors that limit the bank's ability to lend in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Banks that have an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area.</I> If, after reviewing the factors described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the FDIC determines that a bank has an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the FDIC develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area in the same manner as for a bank that meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks that lack an acceptable basi</I>s <I>for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area</I>—(A) <I>Large banks.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the FDIC determines that a large bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the FDIC assigns the bank a Retail Lending Test conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for that facility-based assessment area. In determining whether “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” is the appropriate conclusion, the FDIC considers:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's distribution analysis pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 345.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> If, after reviewing the factors in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the FDIC determines that an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area, the FDIC develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraphs (d) through (f) of this section. The FDIC's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the facility-based assessment area is informed by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for the facility-based assessment area;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The bank's retail lending volume and the extent by which it did not meet the Retail Lending Volume Threshold;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Performance context factors provided in § 345.21(d); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of Retail Lending Test distribution analysis</I>—(1) <I>Product lines evaluated in a Retail Lending Test Area.</I> In each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC evaluates originated and purchased loans in each of the following product lines that is a major product line, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, retail lending assessment areas and outside retail lending area;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small farm loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Automobile loans in a bank's facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major product line standards</I>—(i) <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> In a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, a product line is a major product line if the bank's loans in that product line comprise 15 percent or more of the bank's loans across all of the bank's product lines in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area, as determined pursuant to paragraph II.b.1 of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Major product line standards for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(A) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 345.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(B) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 345.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retail Lending Test distribution analysis.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each of its Retail Lending Test Areas by considering the geographic and borrower distributions of a bank's loans in its major product lines.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Distribution analysis in general</I>—(i) <I>Distribution analysis for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> For closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, respectively, the FDIC compares a bank's geographic and borrower distributions to performance ranges based on the applicable market and community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section V of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Distribution analysis for automobile loans.</I> For automobile loans, the FDIC compares a bank's geographic and borrower distributions to the applicable community benchmarks, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section and section VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categories of lending evaluated</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC evaluates the geographic distributions separately for the following categories of census tracts:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distributions.</I> For each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC evaluates the borrower distributions separately for, as applicable, the following categories of borrowers:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(B) Moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(C) Businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(D) Businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(E) Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(F) Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the geographic distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Geographic Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Geographic Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Geographic Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Geographic Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph III.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Borrower distribution measures.</I> To evaluate the borrower distributions in a Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC considers the following measures:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Borrower Bank Metric.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Bank Metric, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.a of appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower Market Benchmark.</I> For each major product line except automobile loans, a Borrower Market Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.b of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.d of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Borrower Community Benchmark.</I> For each major product line, a Borrower Community Benchmark, calculated pursuant to paragraph IV.c of appendix A to this part for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas, and paragraph IV.e of appendix A to this part for outside retail lending areas.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as described in paragraphs (b)(5)(i) and (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section, the FDIC develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for each of a bank's Retail Lending Test Areas based on the distribution analysis described in paragraph (e) of this section and using performance ranges, supporting conclusions, and product line scores as provided in sections V through VII of appendix A to this part. For each major product line, the FDIC develops a separate supporting conclusion for each category of census tracts and each category of borrowers described in paragraphs V.a and VI.a of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the FDIC evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Geographic Market Benchmark, the Geographic Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.b and V.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for geographic distributions for automobile loans, the FDIC evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Geographic Bank Metric to the Geographic Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.b of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans, the FDIC evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to performance ranges, based on the Borrower Market Benchmark, Borrower Community Benchmark, and multipliers, as described in paragraphs V.d and V.e of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions for automobile loans.</I> To develop supporting conclusions for borrower distributions for automobile loans, the FDIC evaluates the bank's performance by comparing the Borrower Bank Metric to the Borrower Community Benchmark, as described in paragraph VI.c of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Development of Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions</I>—(i) <I>Assignment of performance scores.</I> For each supporting conclusion developed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, the FDIC assigns a corresponding performance score as described in sections V and VI of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combination of performance scores.</I> As described in section VII of appendix A to this part, for each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC:
</P>
<P>(A) Combines the performance scores for each supporting conclusion for each major product line into a product line score; and
</P>
<P>(B) Calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Retail Lending Test recommended conclusions.</I> For each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC develops the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion that corresponds to the weighted average of product line scores developed pursuant to paragraph (f)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as described in section VII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional factors considered when evaluating retail lending performance.</I> The factors in paragraphs (g)(1) through (7) of this section, as appropriate, inform the FDIC's determination of a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for a Retail Lending Test Area:
</P>
<P>(1) Information indicating that a bank purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, or automobile loans for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing its retail lending performance, including, but not limited to, information indicating subsequent resale of such loans or any indication that such loans have been considered in multiple depository institutions' CRA evaluations, in which case the FDIC does not consider such loans in the bank's performance evaluation;
</P>
<P>(2) The dispersion of a bank's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending within a facility-based assessment area to determine whether there are gaps in lending that are not explained by performance context;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of lenders whose home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans and deposits data are used to establish the applicable Retail Lending Volume Threshold, geographic distribution market benchmarks, and borrower distribution market benchmarks;
</P>
<P>(4) Missing or faulty data that would be necessary to calculate the relevant metrics and benchmarks or any other factors that prevent the FDIC from calculating a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion. If unable to calculate a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, the FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion based on consideration of the relevant available data;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion does not accurately reflect the bank's performance in a Retail Lending Test Area in which one or more of the bank's major product lines consists of fewer than 30 loans;
</P>
<P>(6) A bank's closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, or automobile lending in distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts where a bank's nonmetropolitan facility-based assessment area or nonmetropolitan retail lending assessment area includes very few or no low- and moderate-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(7) Information indicating that the credit needs of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area are not being met by lenders in the aggregate, such that the relevant benchmarks do not adequately reflect community credit needs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Retail Lending Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28, section VIII of appendix A to this part, and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail Lending Test Area conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for each Retail Lending Test Area based on the Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion, performance context factors provided in § 345.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (h)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Facility-based assessment areas with no major product line.</I> The FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank has no major product line based on the bank's performance on the Retail Lending Volume Screen pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, performance context information provided in § 345.21(d), and the additional factors provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Facility-based assessment areas in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> The FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for a facility-based assessment area in which a bank lacks an acceptable basis for not meeting the Retail Lending Volume Threshold as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates a bank's Retail Lending Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.23" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.23   Retail services and products test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retail Services and Products Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the Retail Services and Products Test evaluates the availability of a bank's retail banking services and retail banking products and the responsiveness of those services and products to the credit needs of the bank's entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms. The FDIC evaluates the bank's retail banking services, as described in paragraph (b) of this section, and the bank's retail banking products, as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Main offices.</I> For purposes of this section, references to a branch also include a main office that is open to, and accepts deposits from, the general public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exclusion.</I> If the FDIC considers services under the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25, the FDIC does not consider those services under the Retail Services and Products Test.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retail banking services</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> To evaluate a bank's retail banking services, the FDIC considers a bank's branch availability and services provided at branches, remote service facility availability, and digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The FDIC considers the branch availability and services provided at branches of banks that operate one or more branches pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The FDIC considers the remote service facility availability of banks that operate one or more remote service facilities pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The FDIC considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of banks pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) The FDIC considers the digital delivery systems and other delivery systems of the following banks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Large banks that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that do not operate branches.
</P>
<P>(B) For a large bank that had assets less than or equal $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years and that operates at least one branch, the FDIC considers the bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems at the bank's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Branch availability and services.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's branch availability and services in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Branch distribution.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's branch distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Branch distribution metrics.</I> The FDIC considers the number and percentage of the bank's branches within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC's consideration of the branch distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Percentage of all full-service depository institution branches in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The FDIC considers the availability of branches in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a branch delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Branch openings and closings.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's record of opening and closing branches since the previous CRA examination to inform the degree of accessibility of services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, small businesses, and small farms, and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Branch hours of operation and services.</I> The FDIC considers the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The reasonableness of branch hours in low- and moderate-income census tracts compared to middle- and upper-income census tracts, including, but not limited to, whether branches offer extended and weekend hours.
</P>
<P>(B) The range of services provided at branches in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, respectively, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Bilingual and translation services;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Free or low-cost check cashing services, including, but not limited to, check cashing services for government-issued and payroll checks;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Reasonably priced international remittance services; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Electronic benefit transfers.
</P>
<P>(C) The degree to which branch-provided retail banking services are responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households in a bank's facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Remote service facility availability.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's remote service facility availability in a facility-based assessment area based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Remote service facility distribution.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's remote service facility distribution using the following:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Remote service facility distribution metrics.</I> The FDIC considers the number and percentage of the bank's remote service facilities within low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC's consideration of the remote service facility distribution metrics is informed by the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Percentage of census tracts in the facility-based assessment area that are low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Percentage of households in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Percentage of total businesses in the facility-based assessment area that are in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Additional geographic considerations.</I> The FDIC considers the availability of remote service facilities in the following geographic areas:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Middle- and upper-income census tracts in which a remote service facility delivers services to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households to the extent that these individuals, families, or households use the services offered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Native Land Areas.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Access to out-of-network ATMs.</I> The FDIC considers whether the bank offers customers fee-free access to out-of-network ATMs in low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems.</I> The FDIC evaluates the availability and responsiveness of a bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, including to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households at the institution level by considering:
</P>
<P>(i) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's strategy and initiatives to serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households with digital delivery systems and other delivery systems as reflected by, for example, the costs, features, and marketing of the delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of checking and savings accounts opened each calendar year during the evaluation period digitally and through other delivery systems in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems and that are active at the end of each calendar year during the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other bank data that demonstrates digital delivery systems and other delivery systems are available to individuals and in census tracts of different income levels, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retail banking products evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Scope of evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's retail banking products offered in the bank's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, at the institution level as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's credit products and programs pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Deposit products.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's deposit products pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) For large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(B) For large banks that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years, the FDIC considers a bank's deposit products only at the bank's option.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit products and programs.</I> The FDIC evaluates whether a bank's credit products and programs are, consistent with safe and sound operations, responsive to the credit needs of the bank's entire community, including the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, or small farms. Responsive credit products and programs may include, but are not limited to, credit products and programs that:
</P>
<P>(i) Facilitate home mortgage and consumer lending targeted to low- or moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Meet the needs of small businesses and small farms, including small businesses and small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are conducted in cooperation with MDIs, WDIs, LICUs, or CDFIs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Are low-cost education loans; or
</P>
<P>(v) Are special purpose credit programs pursuant to 12 CFR 1002.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposit products.</I> The FDIC evaluates the availability and usage of a bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households.</I> The FDIC considers the availability of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the extent to which a bank offers deposit products that, consistent with safe and sound operations, have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households. Deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households include but are not limited to, deposit products with the following types of features:
</P>
<P>(A) Low-cost features, including, but not limited to, deposit products with no overdraft or insufficient funds fees, no or low minimum opening balance, no or low monthly maintenance fees, or free or low-cost check-cashing and bill-pay services;
</P>
<P>(B) Features facilitating broad functionality and accessibility, including, but not limited to, deposit products with in-network ATM access, debit cards for point-of-sale and bill payments, and immediate access to funds for customers cashing government, payroll, or bank-issued checks; or
</P>
<P>(C) Features facilitating inclusivity of access by individuals without banking or credit histories or with adverse banking histories.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Usage of deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.</I> The FDIC considers the usage of a bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households based on the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(B) In connection with paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period;
</P>
<P>(C) Marketing, partnerships, and other activities that the bank has undertaken to promote awareness and use of responsive deposit accounts by low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households; and
</P>
<P>(D) Optionally, any other information the bank provides that demonstrates usage of the bank's deposit products that have features and cost characteristics responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a bank's Retail Services and Products Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d). The evaluation of a bank's retail banking products under paragraph (c) of this section may only contribute positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates a bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.24" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.24   Community development financing test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Financing Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the Community Development Financing Test evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The FDIC considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area using the metric in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, benchmarks in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area pursuant to paragraph d.1 of appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area compared to deposits in the bank that are located in the facility-based assessment area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC compares the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> (A) For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas within an MSA, the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the MSAs in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(B) For each of a bank's facility-based assessment areas within a nonmetropolitan area, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(C) The FDIC calculates the MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks pursuant to paragraph II.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The FDIC reviews the impact and responsiveness of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a State, pursuant to §§ 345.19 and 345.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for each State based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State.</I> The FDIC considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the State, pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State performance.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's community development financing performance in a State using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank State Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State compared to deposits in the bank that are located in the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC compares the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the State for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the State, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.f of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The FDIC reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA, pursuant to §§ 345.19 and 345.28(c), using the two components in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion in each multistate MSA based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a multistate MSA.</I> The FDIC considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—multistate MSA performance.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's community development financing performance in a multistate MSA using the metric and benchmarks in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA compared to deposits in the bank located in the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.g of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC compares the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions compared to deposits located in the multistate MSA for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.h of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the multistate MSA, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.i of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The FDIC reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 345.19, using the two components in paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on a weighted combination of those components pursuant to paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in the nationwide area.</I> The FDIC considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's conclusions for the Community Development Financing Test for its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The FDIC considers a bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area using the metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (e)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to deposits in the bank located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.j of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for all large depository institutions compared to the deposits located in the nationwide area for all large depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.k of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is the weighted average of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for each facility-based assessment area within the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.l of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the deposits in the bank located in the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.m of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the FDIC compares the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years compared to deposits located in the nationwide area for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph II.n of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The FDIC reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community Development Financing Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a bank's Community Development Financing Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates a bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.25" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.25   Community development services test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community Development Services Test</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the Community Development Services Test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the community development services needs of its entire community.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The FDIC considers information provided by the bank and may consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development service benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development services performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion for a facility-based assessment area, by considering one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of community development services attributable to each type of community development described in § 345.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(2) The capacities in which a bank's or its affiliate's board members or employees serve (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer);
</P>
<P>(3) Total hours of community development services performed by the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence demonstrating that the bank's community development services are responsive to community development needs, such as the number of low- and moderate-income individuals that are participants, or number of organizations served; and
</P>
<P>(5) The impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development services that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's community development services performance in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or nationwide area, and assigns a conclusion for those areas, based on the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance in a State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> The FDIC considers the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's Community Development Services Test conclusions for its facility-based assessment areas within a State, multistate MSA, or the institution pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—evaluation of community development services outside of facility-based assessment areas.</I> The FDIC may adjust upwards the conclusion based on the weighted average derived under paragraph (c)(1) of this section and an evaluation of the bank's community development services performed outside of its facility-based assessment areas pursuant to § 345.19, which may consider one or more of the factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Community Development Services Test performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a bank's Community Development Services Test performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates a bank's Community Development Services Test conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.26" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.26   Limited purpose banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank request for designation as a limited purpose bank.</I> To receive a designation as a limited purpose bank, a bank must file a written request with the FDIC at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the FDIC approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the FDIC notifies a limited purpose bank that the FDIC has revoked the designation on the FDIC's own initiative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> To evaluate a limited purpose bank, the FDIC applies the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks as described in paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(i) <I>Community development services.</I> The FDIC may adjust a limited purpose bank's institution rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” where a bank requests and receives additional consideration for services that would qualify under the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> A limited purpose bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the limited purpose bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks evaluates a limited purpose bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community through community development loans and community development investments (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's community development financing performance).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Allocation.</I> The FDIC considers community development loans and community development investments allocated pursuant to paragraph I.b of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Facility-based assessment area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in a facility-based assessment area and assigns a conclusion in the facility-based assessment area based on the FDIC's:
</P>
<P>(1) Consideration of the dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(2) A review of the impact and responsiveness of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State or multistate MSA evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to §§ 345.19 and 345.28(c), and assigns a conclusion for the bank's performance in the State or multistate MSA based on the FDIC's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance conclusions in a State or multistate MSA.</I> A limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in its facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—State or multistate MSA performance.</I> The dollar volume of the limited purpose bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSA and a review of the impact and responsiveness of those loans and investments, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nationwide area evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates a limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area, pursuant to § 345.19, and assigns a conclusion for the institution based on the FDIC's consideration of the following two components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Component one—facility-based assessment area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Component two—nationwide area performance.</I> The limited purpose bank's community development financing performance in the nationwide area based on the following metrics and benchmarks in paragraphs (f)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric measures the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to the bank's assets calculated pursuant to paragraph III.a of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to the following benchmarks:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section or 12 CFR 228.26(a) reported pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) that benefit and serve all or part of the nationwide area compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.b of appendix B to this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.c of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric.</I> For a limited purpose bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric measures the dollar volume of the bank's community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, compared to the bank's assets, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.d of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> (A) For a limited purpose bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the FDIC compares the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark. This comparison may only contribute positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion for the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark measures the dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, compared to assets for those depository institutions, calculated pursuant to paragraph III.e of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Impact and responsiveness review.</I> The FDIC reviews the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a limited purpose bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks performance in each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. In assigning conclusions under this performance test, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates a limited purpose bank's Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.27" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.27   Strategic plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> Pursuant to § 345.21, the FDIC evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community under a strategic plan, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC has approved the plan pursuant to this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data requirements.</I> The FDIC's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's obligation, if any, to collect, maintain, and report data as required by § 345.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of not more than five years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Performance tests in plan.</I> (i) A bank's plan must include the same performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan, except as provided in paragraph (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent with paragraph (g) of this section, a bank's plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assessment areas and other geographic areas</I>—(i) <I>Multiple geographic areas.</I> A bank may prepare a single plan or separate plans for its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Geographic areas not included in a plan.</I> Any facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, or other geographic area that would be evaluated in the absence of an approved plan, but is not included in an approved plan, will be evaluated pursuant to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operating subsidiaries and affiliates</I>—(i) <I>Operating subsidiaries.</I> The loans, investments, services, and products of a bank's operating subsidiary must be included in the bank's plan, unless the operating subsidiary is independently subject to CRA requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliates</I>—(A) <I>Optional inclusion of other affiliates' loans, investments, services, and products.</I> Consistent with § 345.21(b)(3), a bank may include loans, investments, services, and products of affiliates of a bank that are not operating subsidiaries in a plan, if those loans, investments, services, and products are not included in the CRA performance evaluation of any other depository institution.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Joint plans.</I> Affiliated depository institutions supervised by the same Federal financial supervisory agency may prepare a joint plan, provided that the plan includes, for each bank, the applicable performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan. The joint plan may include optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Allocation.</I> The inclusion of an affiliate's loans, investments, services, and products in a bank's plan, or in a joint plan of affiliated depository institutions, is subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The loans, investments, services, and products may not be included in the CRA performance evaluation of another depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The allocation of loans, investments, services, and products to a bank, or among affiliated banks, must reflect a reasonable basis for the allocation and may not be for the sole or primary purpose of inappropriately enhancing any bank's CRA evaluation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Justification and appropriateness of plan election</I>—(1) <I>Justification requirements.</I> A bank's plan must provide a justification that demonstrates the need for the following aspects of a plan due to the bank's business model (<I>e.g.,</I> its retail banking services and retail banking products):
</P>
<P>(i) Optional evaluation components pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible modifications or additions to the applicable performance tests pursuant to paragraph (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional geographic areas pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The conclusions and ratings methodology pursuant to paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Justification elements.</I> Each justification must specify the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the bank's business model is outside the scope of, or inconsistent with, one or more aspects of the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Why an evaluation of the bank pursuant to any aspect of a plan in paragraph (d)(1) of this section would more meaningfully reflect a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community than if it were evaluated under the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Why the optional performance components and eligible modifications or additions meet the standards of paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public participation in initial draft plan development</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Before submitting a draft plan to the FDIC for approval pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, a bank must:
</P>
<P>(i) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the bank has developed its initial draft plan, formally solicit public comment on the initial draft plan for at least 60 days by:
</P>
<P>(A) Submitting the initial draft plan for publication on the FDIC's website and by publishing the initial draft plan on the bank's website, if the bank maintains one; and
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation (if available, otherwise a digital publication) in each facility-based assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a military bank, publishing notice in at least one print newspaper of general circulation targeted to members of the military (if available, otherwise a digital publication targeted to members of the military); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include in the notice required under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section a means by which members of the public can electronically submit and mail comments to the bank on its initial draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of initial draft plan.</I> During the period when the bank is formally soliciting public comment on its initial draft plan, the bank must make copies of the initial draft plan available for review at no cost at all offices of the bank in any facility-based assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the initial draft plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Submission of a draft plan.</I> The bank must submit its draft plan to the FDIC at least 90 days prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank must also submit with its draft plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of notice publication and a description of its efforts to seek input from members of the public, including individuals and organizations the bank contacted and how the bank gathered information;
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comments or other public input received;
</P>
<P>(3) If the bank revised the initial draft plan in response to the public input received, the initial draft plan as released for public comment with an explanation of the relevant changes; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the bank did not revise the initial draft plan in response to suggestions or concerns from public input received, an explanation for why any suggestion or concern was not addressed in the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan content.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the plan must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components.</I> A bank must include in its plan a focus on the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, low- and moderate-income census tracts, and small businesses and small farms. The bank must describe how its plan is responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending area, or other geographic areas served by the bank, considering public comment and the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy. As applicable, a bank must specify components in its plan for helping to meet:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail lending needs of its facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and outside retail lending area that are covered by the plan. A bank that originates or purchases loans in a product line evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 or originates or purchases loans evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2) must include the applicable test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The retail banking services and retail banking products needs of its facility-based assessment areas and at the institution level that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank that maintains delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23(b) must include this component of the test in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions specified in paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank that does not maintain delivery systems evaluated pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23(b) may include retail banking products components in § 345.23(c) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank other than a large bank may include components of retail banking services or retail banking products and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) The community development loan and community development investment needs of its facility-based assessment areas, States, or multistate MSAs, as applicable, and the nationwide area that are covered by the plan. Subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank must include the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank must include either the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 or the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2) in its plan.
</P>
<P>(C) A limited purpose bank must include the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26 in its plan.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank may include a community development loan or community development investment component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The community development services needs of its facility-based assessment areas served by the bank that are covered by the plan.
</P>
<P>(A) A large bank must include the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25 in its plan, subject to eligible modifications or additions as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, for each facility-based assessment area where the bank has employees.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank other than a large bank may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible modifications or additions to applicable performance tests</I>—(i) <I>Retail lending.</I> (A) For a bank that the FDIC would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank may omit, as applicable, the evaluation of performance criteria related to the loan-to-deposit ratio or the percentage of loans located in the bank's facility-based assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A bank may add annual measurable goals for any aspect of the bank's retail lending.
</P>
<P>(B) For a bank the FDIC would otherwise evaluate pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A bank may add additional loan products, such as non-automobile consumer loans or open-end home mortgage loans, or additional goals for major product lines, such as closed-end home mortgage loans to first-time homebuyers, with accompanying annual measurable goals.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where annual measurable goals for additional loan products or additional goals for major product lines have been added pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, a bank may provide different weights for averaging together the performance across these loan products and may include those loan products in the numerator of the Bank Volume Metric.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A bank may use alternative weights for combining the borrower and geographic distribution analyses for major product line(s) or other loan products.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products.</I> (A) A large bank may add annual measurable goals for any component of the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23.
</P>
<P>(B) A large bank may modify the Retail Services and Products Test by removing a component of the test.
</P>
<P>(C) A large bank may assign specific weights to applicable components in paragraph (g)(2)(ii)(A) of this section in reaching a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>(D) A bank other than a large bank may include retail banking services or retail banking products component(s) and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Community development loans and community development investments.</I> (A) A bank may specify annual measurable goals for community development loans, community development investments, or both. The bank must base any annual measurable goals as a percentage or ratio of the bank's community development loans and community development investments for all or certain types of community development described in § 345.13(b) through (l), presented either on a combined or separate basis, relative to the bank's capacity and should account for community development needs and opportunities.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank may specify using assets as an alternative denominator for a community development financing metric if it better measures a bank's capacity.
</P>
<P>(C) A bank may specify additional benchmarks to evaluate a community development financing metric.
</P>
<P>(D) A small bank may include community development loans, community development investments, or both, and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Community development services.</I> (A) A bank may specify annual measurable goals for community development services activity, by number of activity hours, number of hours per full-time equivalent employee, or some other measure.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank other than a large bank may include a community development services component and accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Weights for assessing performance across geographic areas.</I> A bank may specify alternative weights for averaging test performance across assessment areas or other geographic areas. These alternative weights must be based on the bank's capacity and community needs and opportunities in specific geographic areas.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Test weights.</I> For ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels pursuant to § 345.28(b) and paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A bank may request an alternate weighting method for combining performance under the applicable performance tests and optional evaluation components. In specifying alternative test weights for each applicable test, a bank must emphasize retail lending, community development financing, or both. Alternative weights must be responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of a bank's assessment areas and public comments and must be based on the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(B) A bank that requests an alternate weighting method pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(vi)(A) of this section must compensate for decreasing the weight under one test by committing to enhance its efforts to help meet the credit needs of its community under another performance test.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Geographic coverage of plan.</I> (i) A bank may incorporate performance evaluation components and accompanying annual measurable goals for additional geographic areas but may not eliminate the evaluation of its performance in any geographic area that would be included in its performance evaluation in the absence of an approved plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank is no longer required to delineate a retail lending assessment area previously identified in the plan as a result of not meeting the required retail lending assessment area thresholds pursuant to § 345.17, the FDIC will not evaluate the bank for its performance in that area for the applicable years of the plan in which the area is no longer a retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>(iii) A bank that includes additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify the geographic areas where those components and goals apply.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank may submit additional information to the FDIC on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the FDIC to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“Satisfactory” and “Outstanding” performance goals.</I> A bank that includes modified or additional performance evaluation components with accompanying annual measurable goals in its plan must specify in its plan annual measurable goals that constitute “Satisfactory” performance and may specify annual measurable goals that constitute “Outstanding” performance.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Conclusions and rating methodology.</I> A bank must specify in its plan how all elements of a plan covered in paragraphs (g)(1) through (5) of this section, in conjunction with any other applicable performance tests not included in an approved strategic plan, should be considered to assign:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conclusions.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and appendix C to this part, the FDIC assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, outside retail lending area, State, and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution. In assigning conclusions under a strategic plan, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ratings.</I> Pursuant to § 345.28 and paragraph f of appendix D to this part, the FDIC incorporates the conclusions of a bank evaluated under an approved plan into its State or multistate MSA ratings, as applicable, and its institution rating, accounting for paragraph g.2 of appendix D to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Draft plan evaluation</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The FDIC seeks to act upon a draft plan within 90 calendar days after the FDIC receives the complete draft plan and other materials required pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. If the FDIC does not act within this time period, the FDIC will communicate to the bank the rationale for the delay and an expected timeframe for a decision on the draft plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the draft plan, the FDIC considers:
</P>
<P>(i) The public's involvement in formulating the draft plan, including specific information regarding the members of the public and organizations the bank contacted and how the bank collected information relevant to the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Written public comments and other public input on the draft plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any response by the bank to public input on the draft plan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether to solicit additional public input or require the bank to provide any additional response to public input already received.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan for approval.</I> (i) The FDIC evaluates all plans using the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The extent to which the plan meets the standards set forth in this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The extent to which the plan has adequately justified the need for a plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC evaluates a plan under the following criteria, as applicable, considering performance context information pursuant to § 345.21(d):
</P>
<P>(A) The extent and breadth of retail lending or retail lending-related activities to address credit needs, including the distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, pursuant to §§ 345.22, and 345.29, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The effectiveness of the bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the availability and responsiveness of the bank's retail banking products, pursuant to § 345.23, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent, breadth, impact, and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments, pursuant to §§ 345.24, 345.26, and 345.30, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(D) The number, hours, and types of community development services performed and the extent to which the bank's community development services are impactful and responsive, pursuant to §§ 345.25 and 345.30, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Plan decisions</I>—(i) <I>Approval.</I> The FDIC may approve a plan after considering the criteria in paragraph (h)(3) of this section and if it determines that the bank has provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Denial.</I> The FDIC may deny a bank's request to be evaluated under a plan for any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) The Agency determines that the bank has not provided adequate justification for the plan and each aspect of the plan as required pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The FDIC determines that evaluation under the plan would not provide a more meaningful reflection of the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the bank's community;
</P>
<P>(C) The plan is not responsive to public comment received pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) The FDIC determines that the plan otherwise fails to meet the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(E) The bank fails to provide information requested by the FDIC that is necessary for the FDIC to make an informed decision.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication of approved plan.</I> The FDIC will publish an approved plan on the FDIC's website.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan amendment</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank must submit to the FDIC for approval an amendment to its plan if a material change in circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Impedes its ability to perform at a satisfactory level under the plan, such as financial constraints caused by significant events that impact the local or national economy; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly increases its financial capacity and ability to engage in retail lending, retail banking services, retail banking products, community development loans, community development investments, or community development services referenced in an approved plan, such as a merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elective plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank may request the FDIC to approve an amendment to the plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements for plan amendments</I>—(i) <I>Amendment explanation.</I> When submitting a plan amendment for approval, a bank must explain:
</P>
<P>(A) The material change in circumstances necessitating the amendment; or
</P>
<P>(B) Why it is necessary and appropriate to amend its plan in the absence of a material change in circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Compliance requirement.</I> An amendment to a plan must comply with all relevant requirements of this section, unless the FDIC waives a requirement as not applicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Performance evaluation under a plan</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's performance under an approved plan based on the performance tests that would apply in the absence of an approved plan and any optional evaluation components or eligible modifications and additions to the applicable performance tests set forth in the bank's approved plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Goal considerations.</I> If a bank established annual measurable goals and does not meet one or more of its satisfactory goals, the FDIC will consider the following factors to determine the effect on a bank's CRA performance evaluation:
</P>
<P>(i) The degree to which the goal was not met;
</P>
<P>(ii) The importance of the unmet goals to the plan as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any circumstances beyond the control of the bank, such as economic conditions or other market factors or events, that have adversely impacted the bank's ability to perform.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ratings.</I> The FDIC rates the performance of a bank under this section pursuant to appendix D to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7205, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.28" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.28   Assigned conclusions and ratings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conclusions</I>—(1) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution test conclusions and performance scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For each of the applicable performance tests pursuant to §§ 345.22 through 345.26 and 345.30, the FDIC assigns conclusions and associated test performance scores of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a bank in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small banks.</I> The FDIC assigns conclusions of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the performance of a small bank evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2) in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution pursuant to § 345.29 and appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Banks operating under a strategic plan.</I> The FDIC assigns conclusions for the performance of a bank operating under a strategic plan pursuant to § 345.27 in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution in accordance with the methodology of the plan and appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bank performance in metropolitan and nonmetropolitan areas.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2906, the FDIC provides conclusions derived under this part separately for metropolitan areas in which a bank maintains one or more domestic branch offices and for the nonmetropolitan area of a State if a bank maintains one or more domestic branch offices in such nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratings</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC assigns a rating for a bank's overall CRA performance of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, and for the institution, as provided in this section and appendices D and E to this part. The ratings assigned by the FDIC reflect the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings and overall performance scores.</I> (i) For large banks, intermediate banks, small banks that opt into the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, and limited purpose banks, the FDIC calculates and discloses the bank's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. The FDIC uses a bank's overall performance scores described in this section to assign a rating for the bank's overall performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, subject to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Overall performance scores are based on the bank's performance score for each applicable performance test and derived as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, as applicable, and appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Weighting of performance scores.</I> In calculating a large bank's or intermediate bank's overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the FDIC weights the performance scores for the bank for each applicable performance test as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Large bank performance test weights.</I> The FDIC weights the bank's performance score for the performance tests applicable to a large bank as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 40 percent;
</P>
<P>(B) Retail Services and Products Test, 10 percent;
</P>
<P>(C) Community Development Financing Test, 40 percent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Community Development Services Test, 10 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate bank performance test weights.</I> The FDIC weights the bank's performance score for the performance tests applicable to an intermediate bank as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Retail Lending Test, 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intermediate Bank Community Development Test or Community Development Financing Test, as applicable, 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum conclusion requirements</I>—(i) <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or a large bank must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or institution to receive, respectively, a State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Minimum of “Low Satisfactory” overall facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area conclusion.</I> (A) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(A), the FDIC assigns a large bank an overall conclusion for each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area, as provided in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) Except as provided in § 345.51(e), a large bank with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution, unless the bank receives an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or for the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conclusions and ratings for States and multistate MSAs</I>—(1) <I>States</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the FDIC evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings for any State in which the bank maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>States with rated multistate MSAs.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings for a State only if the bank maintains a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility outside the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section. In evaluating a bank and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the FDIC does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in the portion of the State comprising any multistate MSA identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>States with non-rated multistate MSAs.</I> If a facility-based assessment area of a bank comprises a geographic area spanning two or more States within a multistate MSA that is not identified in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the FDIC considers activities in the entire facility-based assessment area to be in the State in which the bank maintains, within the multistate MSA, a main office, branch, or deposit-taking remote service facility. In evaluating a bank and assigning conclusions and ratings for a State, the FDIC does not consider activities to be in the State if those activities take place in any facility-based assessment area that is considered to be in another State pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>States with multistate retail lending assessment areas.</I> In assigning Retail Lending Test conclusions for a State pursuant to § 345.22(h), the FDIC does not consider a bank's activities to be in the State if those activities take place in a retail lending assessment area consisting of counties in more than one State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rated multistate MSAs.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank and assigns conclusions and ratings under this part in any multistate MSA in which the bank maintains a main office, a branch, or a deposit-taking remote service facility in two or more States within that multistate MSA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> For each State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the institution, the FDIC's evaluation of a bank's performance under this part is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices, as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section. The FDIC considers evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in this section by:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank, including by an operating subsidiary of the bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other affiliate related to any activities considered in the evaluation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, discriminatory or other illegal credit practices consist of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination on a prohibited basis, including in violation of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1639);
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act (15 U.S.C. 45);
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 1031 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5531, 5536);
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vi) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) Violations of the Military Lending Act (10 U.S.C. 987);
</P>
<P>(viii) Violations of the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other violation of a law, rule, or regulation consistent with the types of violations in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section, as determined by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Agency considerations.</I> In determining the effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section on the bank's assigned State, multistate MSA, and institution ratings, the FDIC will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The root cause or causes of any such violations of law, rule, or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The severity of any harm to any communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms resulting from such violations;
</P>
<P>(iii) The duration of time over which the violations occurred;
</P>
<P>(iv) The pervasiveness of the violations;
</P>
<P>(v) The degree to which the bank, operating subsidiary, or affiliate, as applicable, has established an effective compliance management system across the institution to self-identify risks and to take the necessary actions to reduce the risk of noncompliance and harm to communities, individuals, small businesses, and small farms; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other relevant information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of past performance.</I> When assigning ratings, the FDIC considers a bank's past performance. If a bank's prior rating was “Needs to Improve,” the FDIC may determine that a “Substantial Noncompliance” rating is appropriate where the bank failed to improve its performance since the previous evaluation period, with no acceptable basis for such failure.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.29" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.29   Small bank performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Small bank performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates a small bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless the small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small Bank Lending Test.</I> A small bank's retail lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other retail and community development lending-related activities located in the bank's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other retail and community development lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(iv) The geographic distribution of the bank's loans; and
</P>
<P>(v) The bank's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Small banks evaluated pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test.</I> The FDIC may adjust a small bank rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for the following activities, without regard to whether the activity is in one or more of the bank's facility-based assessment areas, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Making community development investments;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing branches and other services, digital delivery systems and other delivery systems, and deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households, residents of low- and moderate-income census tracts, small businesses, and small farms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Small banks that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22.</I> The FDIC may adjust a small bank rating from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, or the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs, and for providing low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a small bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for activities with MDIs, WDIs, and LICUs pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(b) and 2907(a) and for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the small bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small bank performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> Except for a small bank that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the FDIC assigns conclusions for the performance of a small bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test, the FDIC assigns conclusions for the bank's Retail Lending Test performance as provided in appendix C to this part. In assigning conclusions for a small bank, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> For a small bank evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test, the FDIC rates the bank's performance under this section as provided in appendix E to this part. If a small bank opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the FDIC rates the performance of a small bank as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.30" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.30   Intermediate bank performance evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Intermediate bank performance evaluation</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates an intermediate bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, unless an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate Bank Community Development Test.</I> (i) An intermediate bank's community development performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The number and dollar amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(B) The number and dollar amount of community development investments;
</P>
<P>(C) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(D) The bank's responsiveness through such community development loans, community development investments, and community development services to community development needs. The FDIC's evaluation of the responsiveness of the bank's activities is informed by information provided by the bank, and may be informed by the impact and responsiveness review factors described in § 345.15(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC considers an intermediate bank's community development loans, community development investments, and community development services without regard to whether the activity is made in one or more of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. The extent of the FDIC's consideration of community development loans, community development investments, and community development services outside of the bank's facility-based assessment areas will depend on the adequacy of the bank's responsiveness to community development needs and opportunities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and applicable performance context information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional consideration</I>—(1) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test.</I> The FDIC may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank evaluated as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test.</I> The FDIC may adjust the rating of an intermediate bank that opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 from “Satisfactory” to “Outstanding” at the institution level where the bank requests and receives additional consideration for activities that would qualify pursuant to the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25, or both.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional consideration for low-cost education loans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, an intermediate bank may request and receive additional consideration at the institution level for providing low-cost education loans to low-income borrowers pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(d), regardless of the intermediate bank's overall institution rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Intermediate bank performance conclusions and ratings</I>—(1) <I>Conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns a conclusion for the performance of an intermediate bank evaluated pursuant to this section as provided in appendices C and E to this part. In assigning conclusions for an intermediate bank, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ratings.</I> The FDIC rates the performance of an intermediate bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix D to this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.31" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.3.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.31   Effect of CRA performance on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the FDIC takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of each applicant bank in considering an application for approval of:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of a domestic branch or other facility with the ability to accept deposits;
</P>
<P>(2) The relocation of the bank's main office or a branch;
</P>
<P>(3) The merger, consolidation, acquisition of assets, or assumption of liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(4) Deposit insurance for a newly chartered financial institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New financial institutions.</I> A newly chartered financial institution shall submit with its application for deposit insurance a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The FDIC takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interested parties.</I> The FDIC takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the FDIC's procedures set forth in part 303 of this chapter in considering CRA performance in an application listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Records, Reporting, Disclosure, and Public Engagement Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.42" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.42   Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="95">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7206, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information required to be collected and maintained</I>—(1) <I>Small business loans and small farm loans data.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data for each small business loan or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) An indicator for the loan type as reported on the bank's Call Report or Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(vi) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(viii) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(ix) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(x) An indicator for whether the loan was to a business or farm for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer loans data</I>—<I>automobile loans</I>—(i) <I>Large banks.</I> A large bank for which automobile loans are a product line must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data is evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Intermediate or small banks.</I> An intermediate bank or a small bank for which automobile loans are a product line may collect and maintain in a format of the bank's choosing, including in an electronic form prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(A) through (F) of this section for each automobile loan originated or purchased by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data collected and maintained.</I> Data collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The loan location, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(F) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> (i) If a large bank is subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003, the bank must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) pursuant to the requirements in 12 CFR 1003.4(e).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a large bank is not subject to reporting under 12 CFR part 1003 due to the location of its branches, but would otherwise meet the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) size and lending activity requirements pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the bank must collect and maintain, in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data, for each closed-end home mortgage loan, excluding multifamily loans, originated or purchased during the evaluation period:
</P>
<P>(A) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(B) The date of the loan origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(D) The location of each home mortgage loan origination or purchase, including State, county, and census tract;
</P>
<P>(E) The gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision; and
</P>
<P>(F) An indicator for whether the loan was originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retail banking services and retail banking products data</I>—(i) <I>Branches and remote service facilities.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following data with respect to retail banking services and retail banking products offered and provided by the bank during each calendar year:
</P>
<P>(A) Location of branches, main offices described in § 345.23(a)(2), and remote service facilities. Location information must include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract;
</P>
<P>(B) An indicator for whether each branch is full-service or limited-service, and for each remote service facility whether it is deposit-taking, cash-advancing, or both;
</P>
<P>(C) Locations and dates of branch, main office described in § 345.23(a)(2), and remote service facility openings and closings, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(D) Hours of operation of each branch, main office described in § 345.23(a)(2), and remote service facility, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(E) Services offered at each branch or main office described in § 345.23(a)(2) that are responsive to low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems data</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that does not operate any branches or a main office described in § 345.23(a)(2), and a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 345.23(b)(4), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section. A bank may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's own choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The range of retail banking services and retail banking products offered through digital delivery systems and other delivery systems; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The digital delivery systems and other delivery systems activity by individuals, families, or households in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts, as evidenced by:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems by census tract income level for each calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The number of checking and savings accounts opened digitally and through other delivery systems that are active at the end of each calendar year by census tract income level for each calendar year.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, a bank may collect and maintain any additional information not required in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section that demonstrates that digital delivery systems and other delivery systems serve low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Data for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years and a large bank that had assets less than or equal to $10 billion as of December 31 in either of the prior two calendar years that requests additional consideration for deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households pursuant to § 345.23(c)(3), must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data described in paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B) of this section. A bank may opt to collect and maintain additional data pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(C) of this section in a format of the bank's choosing.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain the following data:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The number of responsive deposit accounts opened and closed during each year of the evaluation period in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, the percentage of responsive deposit accounts compared to total deposit accounts for each year of the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Optional data.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(4)(iii)(A) of this section, a bank may collect and maintain any other information that demonstrates the availability and usage of the bank's deposit products responsive to the needs of low- and moderate-income individuals, families, or households and low- and moderate-income census tracts.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> (i)(A) A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank, must collect and maintain in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(B) An intermediate bank that opts to be evaluated under the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 must collect and maintain in the format used by the bank in the normal course of business, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the data listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, renewed, or modified by the bank during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, a bank must collect and maintain, on an annual basis, the following data for community development loans and community development investments:
</P>
<P>(A) General information on the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Date of origination, purchase, refinance, or renewal of the loan or investment;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Date the loan or investment was sold or paid off; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The dollar amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A community development loan originated or purchased, or a community development investment made, including a legally binding commitment to extend credit or a legally binding commitment to invest, in the calendar year, as described in paragraph I.a.1.i of appendix B to this part;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed or to an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The outstanding balance of a community development loan originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed in previous years or community development investment made or renewed in previous years, as of December 31 for each year that the loan or investment remains on the bank's balance sheet; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The outstanding balance, less any increase reported in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>4</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section in the same calendar year, of a community development loan refinanced or renewed in a year subsequent to the year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 of the calendar year for each year that the loan remains on the bank's balance sheet; or an existing community development investment renewed in a year subsequent to the year the investment was made as of December 31 for each year that the investment remains on the bank's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(B) Community development loan or community development investment information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Activity type (loan or investment);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The type of community development described in § 345.13(b) through (l); and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Community development loan or community development investment detail, such as the specific type of financing and type of entity supported (<I>e.g.,</I> LIHTC, NMTC, Small Business Investment Company, multifamily mortgage, private business, or mission-driven nonprofit organization, mortgage-backed security, or other).
</P>
<P>(C) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development loan or community development investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Is a grant or donation;
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is an investment in a project financed with LIHTCs or NMTCs;
</P>
<P>(<I>11</I>) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>12</I>) Is a new community development financing product that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(D) Specific location information, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Street address;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) City;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) County;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) State;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Zip code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Census tract.
</P>
<P>(E) Allocation of the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment to geographic areas served by the loan or investment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A list of the geographic areas served by the community development loan or community development investment, specifying any county, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Specific information about the dollar amount of the community development loan or community development investment that was allocated to each county served by the loan or investment, if available.
</P>
<P>(F) Other information relevant to determining that the community development loan or community development investment meets the standards pursuant to § 345.13.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Community development services data.</I> A large bank must collect and maintain, in a format of the bank's choosing or in a standardized format, as provided by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the following community development services data:
</P>
<P>(i) Community development services information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Date of service;
</P>
<P>(B) Number of board member or employee service hours;
</P>
<P>(C) Name of organization or entity;
</P>
<P>(D) The type of community development described in § 345.13(b) through (l);
</P>
<P>(E) Capacity in which a bank's or its affiliate's board member or employee serves (<I>e.g.,</I> board member of a nonprofit organization, technical assistance, financial education, general volunteer); and
</P>
<P>(F) Indicators of the impact and responsiveness, including whether the community development service:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Benefits or serves one or more persistent poverty counties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Benefits or serves one or more census tracts with a poverty rate of 40 percent or higher;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Benefits or serves one or more geographic areas with low levels of community development financing;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Supports an MDI, WDI, LICU, or CDFI, excluding certificates of deposit with a term of less than one year;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Benefits or serves low-income individuals, families, or households;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Supports small businesses or small farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Directly facilitates the acquisition, construction, development, preservation, or improvement of affordable housing in High Opportunity Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Benefits or serves residents of Native Land Areas;
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Reflects bank leadership through multi-faceted or instrumental support; or
</P>
<P>(<I>10</I>) Is a new community development service that addresses community development needs for low- or moderate-income individuals, families, or households.
</P>
<P>(ii) Location information as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Location list.</I> A list of the geographic areas served by the activity, specifying any census tracts, counties, States, or nationwide area served; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Geographic-level.</I> Whether the bank is seeking consideration in a facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Deposits data.</I> A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must collect and maintain annually, in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, until the completion of the bank's next CRA examination in which the data are evaluated, the dollar amount of its deposits at the county level based on deposit location. The bank allocates the deposits for which a deposit location is not available to the nationwide area. Annual deposits must be calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements. Any other bank that opts to collect and maintain the data in this paragraph (a)(7) must do so in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information required to be reported</I>—(1) <I>Small business loan and small farm loan data.</I> A large bank must report annually by April 1 to the FDIC in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, the small business loan and small farm loan data described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section for the prior calendar year. For each census tract in which the bank originated or purchased a small business loan or small farm loan, the bank must report the aggregate number and dollar amount of small business loans and small farm loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With an amount at origination of greater than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of greater than $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(v) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million (using the revenues relied on in making the credit decision);
</P>
<P>(vi) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $1 million; and
</P>
<P>(vii) To businesses and farms for which gross annual revenues are not known by the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loans and community development investments data.</I> A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank must report annually by April 1 to the FDIC in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, the community development loan and community development investment data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii) of this section for the prior calendar year, except for the data described in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section and paragraphs (a)(5)(ii)(D)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>5</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Deposits data.</I> (i) A large bank that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years must report annually by April 1 to the FDIC in electronic form, as prescribed by the FDIC, the deposits data for the prior calendar year collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(7) of this section. This reporting must include, for each county, State, and multistate MSA, and for the institution overall, the average annual deposit balances (calculated based on average daily balances as provided in statements such as monthly or quarterly statements, as applicable), in aggregate, of deposit accounts with associated addresses located in such county, State, or multistate MSA, where available, and for the institution overall. Any other bank that opts to collect and maintain the data in paragraph (a)(7) of this section must report these data in the same form and for the same duration as described in this paragraph (b)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank that reports deposits data pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section for which a deposit location is not available must report these deposits at the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data on operating subsidiaries.</I> To the extent that its operating subsidiaries engage in retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services, a bank must collect, maintain, and report these loans, investments, services, and products of its operating subsidiaries pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, for purposes of evaluating the bank's performance. For home mortgage loans, the bank must identify the home mortgage loans reported by its operating subsidiary under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by its operating subsidiary that the bank would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section had the bank originated or purchased the loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on other affiliates.</I> A bank that elects to have the FDIC consider retail banking services, retail banking products, community development lending, community development investments, or community development services engaged in by affiliates of a bank (other than an operating subsidiary), for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section had the loans, investments, services, or products been engaged in by the bank. For home mortgage loans, the bank must identify the home mortgage loans reported by bank affiliates under 12 CFR part 1003, if applicable, or collect and maintain data on home mortgage loans by the affiliate that the bank would have collected and maintained pursuant to paragraphs (a)(3) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank that elects to have the FDIC consider community development loans and community development investments by a consortium or third party for purposes of this part must collect, maintain, and report the loans and investments data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a)(5) and (b)(2) of this section had the bank originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed the loans or investments.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assessment area data</I>—(1) <I>Facility-based assessment areas.</I> A large bank and a limited purpose bank that would be a large bank based on the asset size described in the definition of a large bank must collect and report to the FDIC annually by April 1 a list of each facility-based assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the facility-based assessment area, as of December 31 of the prior calendar year or the last date the facility-based assessment area was in effect, provided the facility-based assessment area was delineated for at least six months of the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail lending assessment areas.</I> A large bank must collect and report to the FDIC annually by April 1 a list of each retail lending assessment area showing the States, MSAs, and counties in the retail lending assessment area for the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The FDIC or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each bank that reports data pursuant to this section, a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a State-by-State basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract according to whether the census tract is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and
</P>
<P>(v) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in census tracts with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each census tract in the county, facility-based assessment area, or retail lending assessment area according to whether the median income in the census tract relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, equal to or greater than 10 percent but less than 20 percent, equal to or greater than 20 percent but less than 30 percent, equal to or greater than 30 percent but less than 40 percent, equal to or greater than 40 percent but less than 50 percent, equal to or greater than 50 percent but less than 60 percent, equal to or greater than 60 percent but less than 70 percent, equal to or greater than 70 percent but less than 80 percent, equal to or greater than 80 percent but less than 90 percent, equal to or greater than 90 percent but less than 100 percent, equal to or greater than 100 percent but less than 110 percent, equal to or greater than 110 percent but less than 120 percent, and equal to or greater than 120 percent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each census tract in which the bank reported a small business loan or a small farm loan;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located inside each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area reported by the bank and the number and dollar volume of small business loans and small farm loans located outside of the facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas reported by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments reported as originated or purchased inside each facility-based assessment area, each State in which the bank has a branch, each multistate MSA in which a bank has a branch in two or more States of the multistate MSA, and nationwide area outside of these States and multistate MSAs.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The FDIC or its appointed agent, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a State boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each State, an aggregate disclosure statement of reported small business lending, small farm lending, community development lending, and community development investments by all depository institutions subject to reporting under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 228. These disclosure statements indicate the number and dollar amount of all small business loans and small farm loans originated or purchased for each census tract and the number and dollar amount of all community development loans and community development investments for each county by reporting banks, except that the FDIC may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of a bank.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of disclosure statements.</I> The FDIC makes the individual bank CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (g) of this section, and the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>HMDA data disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For a large bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003, the FDIC will publish on the FDIC's website the data required by paragraph (j)(2) of this section concerning the distribution of a large bank's originations and applications of home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity in each of the bank's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas. This information is published annually based on data reported pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Data to be published on the FDIC's website.</I> For each of the large bank's facility-based assessment areas, and as applicable, its retail lending assessment areas, the FDIC publishes on the FDIC's website:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and percentage of originations and applications of the large bank's home mortgage loans by borrower or applicant income level, race, and ethnicity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number and percentage of originations and applications of aggregate mortgage lending of all lenders reporting HMDA data in the facility-based assessment area and as applicable, the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demographic data of the geographic area.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Announcement of data publication.</I> Upon publishing the data required pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section, the FDIC will publicly announce that the information is available on the FDIC's public website.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect on CRA conclusions and ratings.</I> The race and ethnicity information published pursuant to paragraphs (j)(1) and (2) of this section does not impact the conclusions or ratings of the large bank.
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.43" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.43   Content and availability of public file.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="98">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7207, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank must maintain a public file, in either paper or digital format, that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA performance evaluation prepared by the FDIC. The bank must include this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's branches, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank during the current year (updated on a quarterly basis for the prior quarter by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31) and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and census tracts;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of retail banking services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. A bank may elect to include information regarding the availability of other systems for delivering retail banking services (for example, mobile or online banking, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or mobile branch programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each facility-based assessment area and, as applicable, each retail lending assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the census tracts contained in the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 345.42.</I> A bank subject to data reporting requirements pursuant to § 345.42 must include in its public file a written notice that the CRA Disclosure Statement pertaining to the bank, its operating subsidiaries, and its other affiliates, if applicable, may be obtained on the FFIEC's website at: <I>https://www.ffiec.gov</I>. The bank must include the written notice in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks required to report HMDA data</I>—(i) <I>HMDA Disclosure Statement.</I> A bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the bank's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (CFPB's) website at: <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>. In addition, if the FDIC considered the home mortgage lending of a bank's operating subsidiaries or, at a bank's election, the FDIC considered the home mortgage lending of other bank affiliates, the bank must include in its public file the names of the operating subsidiaries and the names of the affiliates and a written notice that the operating subsidiaries' and other affiliates' HMDA Disclosure Statements may be obtained at the CFPB's website. The bank must include the written notices in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the FFIEC of the availability of the disclosure statements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Availability of bank HMDA data.</I> A large bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must include in its public file a written notice that the home mortgage loan data published by the FDIC under § 345.42(j) are available at the FDIC's website.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks.</I> A small bank, or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, must include in its public file the bank's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks with strategic plans.</I> A bank that has been approved to be evaluated under a strategic plan must include in its public file a copy of that plan while it is in effect. A bank need not include information submitted to the FDIC on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks with less than “Satisfactory” ratings.</I> A bank that received a less than “Satisfactory” institution rating during its most recent examination must include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank must update the description quarterly by March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31, respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank must make available to the public for inspection, upon request and at no cost, the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For banks that maintain a website, all information required for the bank's public file under this section must be maintained on the bank's website.
</P>
<P>(2) For banks that do not maintain a website:
</P>
<P>(i) All the information required for the bank's public file must be maintained at the main office and, if an interstate bank, at one branch office in each State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At each branch, the following must be maintained:
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA performance evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(B) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information that the bank is required to maintain under this section in the public file relating to the facility-based assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank must provide copies, either on paper or in digital form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if not provided in digital form).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing requirements.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank must ensure that its public file contains the information required by this section for each of the previous three calendar years, with the most recent calendar year included in its file annually by April 1 of the current calendar year.
</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.44" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.44   Public notice by banks.</HEAD>
<P>A bank must provide in the public area of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in appendix F to this part. Only a branch of a bank having more than one facility-based assessment area must include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only a bank that is an affiliate of a holding company must include the next to the last sentence of the notices. A bank must include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional depository institutions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.45" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.45   Publication of planned examination schedule.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC publishes on its public website, at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter, a list of banks scheduled for CRA examinations for the next two quarters.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.46" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.4.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.46   Public engagement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC encourages communication between members of the public and banks, including through members of the public submitting written public comments regarding community credit needs and opportunities as well as a bank's record of helping to meet community credit needs. The FDIC will take these comments into account in connection with the bank's next scheduled CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of public comments.</I> Members of the public may submit public comments regarding community credit needs and a bank's CRA performance by submitting comments to the FDIC at <I>CRACommentCollector@fdic.gov</I> or to the address of the appropriate FDIC regional office found at <I>https://www.fdic.gov/resources/bankers/community-reinvestment-act/cra-regional-contacts-list.html</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of public comments.</I> If the FDIC receives a public comment before the close date of a bank's CRA examination, the public comment will be considered in connection with that CRA examination. If the FDIC receives a public comment after the close date of a bank's CRA examination, it will be considered in connection with the bank's subsequent CRA examination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution of public comments.</I> The FDIC will forward all public comments received regarding a bank's CRA performance to the bank.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Transition Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 345.51" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.5.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 345.51   Applicability dates and transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability dates</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), and (d) of this section, this part is applicable, beginning on April 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific applicability dates.</I> The following sections are applicable as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On January 1, 2026, §§ 345.12 through 345.30, 345.42(a), 345.43, and 345.44; the data collection and maintenance requirements in § 345.42(c) through (f); and appendices A through F to this part become applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) On January 1, 2027, § 345.42(b) and (g) through (i) and the reporting requirements in § 345.42(c) through (f) become applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rules during transition period.</I> Prior to the applicability dates in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, banks must comply with the relevant provisions of this part in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. The relevant provisions set forth in appendix G to this part are applicable to CRA performance evaluations pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2903(a)(1) that assess activities that a bank conducted prior to the dates set forth in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>HMDA data disclosures.</I> The FDIC will publish the data pursuant to § 345.42(j) beginning January 1, 2027.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of bank activities.</I> (1) In assessing a bank's CRA performance, the FDIC will consider any loan, investment, service, or product that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time the bank conducted the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, in assessing a bank's CRA performance, the FDIC will consider any loan or investment that was eligible for CRA consideration at the time that the bank entered into a legally binding commitment to make the loan or investment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Strategic plans</I>—(1) <I>New and replaced strategic plans.</I> The CRA regulatory requirements in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part, apply to any new strategic plan, including a plan that replaces an expired strategic plan, submitted to the FDIC for approval on or after April 1, 2024, but before November 1, 2025, and that the agency has determined is a complete plan consistent with the requirements under 12 CFR 345.27 in effect on March 31, 2024, as set forth in appendix G to this part. These strategic plans remain in effect until the expiration date of the plan. The FDIC will not accept any strategic plan submitted on or after November 1, 2025, and before January 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing strategic plans.</I> A strategic plan in effect as of April 1, 2024, remains in effect until the expiration date of the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>First evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024.</I> In its first performance evaluation under this part on or after February 1, 2024, a large bank that has a total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas in any State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable, and that was a bank subject to evaluation under this part or 12 CFR part 25 or 228 prior to February 1, 2024, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State or multistate MSA, or for the institution, unless the bank received an overall facility-based assessment area conclusion, calculated as described in paragraph g.2.ii of appendix D to this part, of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA, or nationwide, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7205, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 345—Calculations for the Retail Lending Test
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240201" REFID="102">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 7207, Feb. 1, 2024.</XREF>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 345.22 and 345.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Retail Lending Test Distribution Metrics—Scope of Evaluation
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Retail Lending Volume Screen
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC calculates the Bank Volume Metric and the Market Volume Benchmark for a facility-based assessment area and determines whether the bank has met or surpassed the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in that facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Volume Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank Volume Metric for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of loans included in the Bank Volume Metric (<I>i.e., volume metric loans</I>). The bank's annual dollar volume of volume metric loans is the total dollar amount of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans originated or purchased by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in that year. Automobile loans are included in the bank's annual dollar amount of volume metric loans only if automobile loans are a product line for the bank.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area. For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar amounts of <I>volume metric loans</I> are $300,000 (year 1), $300,000 (year 2), and $400,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar amount of <I>volume metric loans</I> in a facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $1 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits in the bank located in the facility-based assessment area are $1.7 million (year 1), $1.6 million (year 2), and $1.7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $5 million. The Bank Volume Metric for the facility-based assessment area would be $1 million divided by $5 million, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.064.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Market Volume Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Market Volume Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area. For purposes of calculating the Market Volume Benchmark, a <I>benchmark depository institution</I> for a particular year is a depository institution that, in that year, was subject to reporting pursuant to § 345.42(b)(1), 12 CFR 25.42(b)(1) or 228.42(b)(1), or 12 CFR part 1003, and operated a facility included in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits data in the facility-based assessment area. The FDIC calculates the Market Volume Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans. The annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is the total dollar volume of all home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the facility-based assessment area in that year that are reported loans originated by benchmark depository institutions.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions in the facility-based assessment area is the sum across benchmark depository institutions of: (i) for a benchmark depository institution that reports data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 25.42(b)(3) or 228.42(b)(3), the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year; and (ii) for a benchmark depository institution that does not report data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3) or 12 CFR 25.42(b)(3) or 228.42(b)(3), the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by that depository institution in counties in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph I.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph I.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-2:</I> With reference to example A-1 to this appendix, the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans is $6 million (year 1), $7 million (year 2), and $7 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of volume benchmark loans, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $20 million. The annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions is $17 million (year 1), $15 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits for benchmark depository institutions, over the years in the evaluation period, is therefore $50 million. The Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area would be $20 million divided by $50 million, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.065.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Retail Lending Volume Threshold.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the FDIC calculates a Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark for that facility-based assessment area by 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent). A bank meets or surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold in a facility-based assessment area if the Bank Volume Metric is equal to or greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-3:</I> Based on examples A-1 and A-2 to this appendix, the FDIC calculates the Retail Lending Volume Threshold by multiplying the Market Volume Benchmark of 40 percent by 0.3, equal to 0.12 (equivalently, 12 percent). The Bank Volume Metric, 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent), is greater than the Retail Lending Volume Threshold. Accordingly, the bank surpasses the Retail Lending Volume Threshold.
</P>
<FP-2><I>Bank Volume Metric (20%) &gt; Retail Lending Volume Threshold [(40%) × 0.3 = 12%]</I>
</FP-2>
<HD1>II. Retail Lending Distribution Metrics—Scope Of Evaluation
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Retail Lending Test Areas evaluated.</I> A bank's major product lines are evaluated in its Retail Lending Test Areas, as provided in § 345.22(d) and as described in paragraphs II.a.1 and 2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Large banks exempt from evaluation in retail lending assessment areas.</I> Pursuant to § 345.17(a)(2), a large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas in a particular calendar year if the following ratio exceeds 80 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank, originated or purchased in its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the large bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the large bank, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-4:</I> A large bank (for which automobile loans are not a product line) originated or purchased 20,000 closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in the prior two calendar years, representing $6 billion in loan dollars. Of these loans, 18,000 loans, representing $4.5 billion in loan dollars, were originated or purchased in the large bank's facility-based assessment areas. As such, the large bank originated or purchased 75 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans ($4.5 billion/$6 billion) by loan dollars and 90 percent (18,000/20,000) of these loans by loan count within its facility-based assessment areas. The combination of loan dollars and loan count is 82.5 percent, or (75 + 90)/2. Thus, this large bank is not required to delineate retail lending assessment areas pursuant to § 345.17(a)(2) in the current calendar year because the 82.5 percent exceeds the 80 percent threshold.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small banks and intermediate banks evaluated in outside retail lending areas.</I> Pursuant to § 345.18(a)(2), the FDIC evaluates the geographic and borrower distributions of the major product lines of an intermediate bank, or a small bank that opts to be evaluated under the Retail Lending Test, in the bank's outside retail lending area if either:
</P>
<P>i. The bank opts to have its major product lines evaluated in its outside retail lending area; or
</P>
<P>ii. The following ratio exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, originated or purchased outside of its facility-based assessment areas; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the prior two calendar years, of the bank's home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and automobile loans if automobile loans are a product line for the bank, originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Product lines and major product lines.</I> In each of a bank's Retail Lending Test Areas, the FDIC evaluates each of a bank's major product lines, as provided in § 345.22(d)(2) and as described in paragraphs II.b.1 through 3 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Major product line standard for facility-based assessment areas and outside retail lending areas.</I> Except as provided in paragraph II.b.1.iii of this appendix, a product line is a major product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area if the following ratio is 15 percent or more, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12:
</P>
<P>i. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's loans in the product line originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area; divided by
</P>
<P>ii. The sum, over the years of the evaluation period, of the bank's loans in all product lines originated or purchased in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>iii. If a bank has not collected, maintained, or reported loan data on a product line in a facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area for one or more years of an evaluation period, the product line is a major product line if the FDIC determines that the product line is material to the bank's business in the facility-based assessment area or outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Major product line standard for retail lending assessment areas.</I> In a retail lending assessment area:
</P>
<P>(i) Closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its closed-end home mortgage loans as determined by the standard in § 345.17(c)(1); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business loans are a major product line in any calendar year in the evaluation period in which the bank delineates a retail lending assessment area based on its small business loans as determined by the standard in § 345.17(c)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Banks for which automobile loans are a product line.</I>
</P>
<P>i. If a bank's automobile loans are a product line (either because the bank is a majority automobile lender or opts to have its automobile loans evaluated pursuant to § 345.22), automobile loans are a product line for the bank for the entire evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. A bank is a majority automobile lender if the following ratio, calculated at the institution level, exceeds 50 percent, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12:
</P>
<P>A. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's automobile loans originated or purchased overall; divided by
</P>
<P>B. The sum, over the two calendar years preceding the first year of the evaluation period, of the bank's automobile loans, home mortgage loans, multifamily loans, small business loans, and small farm loans originated or purchased overall.
</P>
<HD1>III. Geographic Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC calculates the Geographic Bank Metric, the Geographic Market Benchmark, and the Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, as set forth in this section. For each facility-based assessment area, retail lending assessment area, and component geographic area of the bank's outside retail lending area, the FDIC includes either low-income census tracts or moderate-income census tracts (<I>i.e., designated census tracts</I>) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks calculations for a particular year. To evaluate small banks and intermediate banks without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the FDIC will use data collected by the bank in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Geographic Bank Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Geographic Bank Metric for low-income census tracts and for moderate-income census tracts, respectively, for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area. The FDIC calculates the Geographic Bank Metric by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and small farm loans are a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area (FBAA-1). The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased small farm loans) are 100 (year 1), 75 (year 2), and 75 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased small farm loans is therefore 250 in the evaluation period. In the low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 25 small farm loans (year 1), 15 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 50 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in low-income census tracts would be 50 divided by 250, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In the moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 30 small farm loans (year 1), 20 small farm loans (year 2), and 10 small farm loans (year 3) (a total of 60 small farm loans). In FBAA-1, the Geographic Bank Metric for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts would be 60 divided by 250, or 0.24 (equivalently, 24 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.066.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the FDIC calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line, excluding automobile loans. The FDIC calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in designated census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-6:</I> The Geographic Market Benchmarks for small farm loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 500 small farm loans (year 1), 250 small farm loans (year 2), and 250 small farm loans (year 3) within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 200 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2) and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 400. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 400 divided by 1,000, or 0.4 (equivalently, 40 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report small farm loan data originated 100 small farm loans (year 1), 100 small farm loans (year 2), and 100 small farm loans (year 3) in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 is therefore 300. The Geographic Market Benchmark for small farm loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 300 divided by 1,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.067.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The FDIC calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for designated census tracts for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.4.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for low-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in low-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the FDIC calculates a Geographic Community Benchmark for moderate-income census tracts by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in moderate-income census tracts in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-7:</I> The Geographic Community Benchmarks for small business loans in FBAA-1 use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 1), 1,300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 1,400 non-farm businesses (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of non-farm businesses in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. In low-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 200 non-farm businesses (year 1), 150 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 150 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 500 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in low-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 500 divided by 4,000, or 0.125 (equivalently, 12.5 percent).
</P>
<P>In moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1, there were 400 non-farm businesses (year 1), 300 non-farm businesses (year 2), and 300 non-farm businesses (year 3) (a total of 1,000 non-farm businesses). The Geographic Community Benchmark for small business loans in moderate-income census tracts within FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.068.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Geographic Market Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the FDIC calculates the Geographic Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated census tracts by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 345.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Market Benchmark described in paragraph III.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Geographic Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the FDIC calculates the Geographic Community Benchmark for each category of designated census tract and for each major product line by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated census tracts and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 345.18(b) using the formula for the Geographic Community Benchmark described in paragraph III.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Borrower Distribution Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC calculates the Borrower Bank Metric, the Borrower Market Benchmark, and the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of borrowers (<I>i.e., designated borrowers</I>), as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>For closed-end home mortgage loans, the FDIC calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate-income borrowers.
</P>
<P>For small business loans, the FDIC calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For small farm loans, the FDIC calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less; and (ii) farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</P>
<P>For automobile loans, the FDIC calculates these metrics and benchmarks for each of the following designated borrowers: (i) low-income borrowers; and (ii) moderate income borrowers.
</P>
<P>To evaluate small banks and intermediate banks without data collection, maintenance and reporting requirements, the FDIC will use data collected by the bank in the ordinary course of business or through sampling of bank loan data.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Calculation of Borrower Bank Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Borrower Bank Metric for each major product line and category of designated borrowers in each Retail Lending Test Area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual number of originated and purchased loans in the major product line in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period, and closed-end home mortgage loans are a major product line for the bank in FBAA-1. The bank's annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans (<I>i.e.,</I> the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans) are 30 (year 1), 40 (year 2), and 30 (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 100 in the evaluation period. In FBAA-1, the bank originated and purchased 10 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 3 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 7 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 20 divided by 100, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<P>In FBAA-1, the bank also originated and purchased 12 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 1), 5 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 2), and 13 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers (year 3) (a total of 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers). In FBAA-1, the Borrower Bank Metric for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers would be 30 divided by 100, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.069.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For each facility-based assessment area and retail lending assessment area, the FDIC calculates the Borrower Market Metric for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line to designated borrowers in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>2. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of reported loans in the major product line in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area originated by all lenders.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-9:</I> The Borrower Market Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 500 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 1), 275 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 2), and 225 closed-end home mortgage loans (year 3). The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans is therefore 1,000 in the evaluation period. Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 50 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 1), 20 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 2), and 30 closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 100. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income borrowers would be 100 divided by 1,000, or 0.1 (equivalently, 10 percent).
</P>
<P>Lenders that report closed-end home mortgage loans originated 100 loans (year 1), 75 loans (year 2), and 25 loans (year 3) to moderate-income borrowers. The sum of the annual numbers of originated closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers within FBAA-1 is therefore 200. The Borrower Market Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income borrowers in FBAA-1 would be 200 divided by 1,000, or 0.2 (equivalently, 20 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.070.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> The FDIC calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each category of designated borrowers for each major product line in each facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>1. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. For closed-end home mortgage loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of families in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>3. For small business loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.3.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.3.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>4. For small business loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of non-farm businesses in the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.4.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. For small farm loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.5.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.5.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>6. For small farm loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of farms in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.6.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.6.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>7. For automobile loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for low-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of low-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.7.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.7.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>8. For automobile loans, the FDIC calculates a Borrower Community Benchmark for moderate-income borrowers by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of moderate-income households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the annual number of households in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.c.8.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.c.8.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-10:</I> The Borrower Community Benchmarks for closed-end home mortgage loans use a three-year evaluation period. There were 1,300 families (year 1), 1,300 families (year 2), and 1,400 families (year 3) in FBAA-1. The sum of the number of families in FBAA-1 is therefore 4,000 in the evaluation period. There were 300 low-income families (year 1), 300 low-income families (year 2), and 400 low-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,000 low-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to low-income families within the FBAA-1 would be 1,000 divided by 4,000, or 0.25 (equivalently, 25 percent).
</P>
<P>There were 350 moderate-income families (year 1), 400 moderate-income families (year 2), and 450 moderate-income families (year 3) (a total of 1,200 moderate-income families). The Borrower Community Benchmark for closed-end home mortgage loans to moderate-income families in FBAA-1 would be 1,200 divided by 4,000, or 0.3 (equivalently, 30 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.071.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Calculation of Borrower Market Benchmark for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the FDIC calculates the Borrower Market Benchmark for each major product line, excluding automobile loans, and for each category of designated borrowers by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating a benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 345.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Market Benchmark described in section IV.b of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.d.1 of this appendix and associated weightings in paragraph IV.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Calculation of Borrower Community Benchmarks for the outside retail lending area.</I> For a bank's outside retail lending area, the FDIC calculates the Borrower Community Benchmark for each major product line and for each category of designated borrowers in the bank's outside retail lending area by taking a weighted average of benchmarks for each component geographic area as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Calculating the benchmark for each category of designated borrowers and each major product line within each component geographic area as described in § 345.18(b) using the formula for the Borrower Community Benchmark described in paragraph IV.c of this appendix with the component geographic area in place of the facility-based assessment area or retail lending assessment area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. Calculating the weighting for each component geographic area and major product line as the percentage of the bank's loans in the major product line originated or purchased in the outside retail lending area that are within the component geographic area, based on loan count.
</P>
<P>3. Calculating the weighted average benchmark for the outside retail lending area using the component geographic area benchmarks in paragraph IV.e.1 of this appendix and associated weightings calculated in paragraph IV.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>V. Supporting Conclusions for Major Product Lines Other Than Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC evaluates a bank's Retail Lending Test performance in each Retail Lending Test Area by comparing the bank's distribution metrics to sets of performance ranges determined by, as applicable, the market and community benchmarks, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the FDIC develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 1 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues of $250,000 or Less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with Gross Annual Revenues Greater than $250,000 but Less Than or Equal to $1 million.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's geographic distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the FDIC compares the relevant Geographic Bank Metric for each category of designated census tracts to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Geographic Market Benchmark and the Geographic Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of the 0.8 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Geographic Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Geographic Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Geographic Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Geographic distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The FDIC compares each Geographic Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.b.1 through V.b.5 of this appendix. The geographic distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated census tracts is determined by the performance range within which the Geographic Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding points values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. <I>Borrower distribution performance ranges.</I> To evaluate a bank's borrower distributions for each major product line, excluding automobile lending, the FDIC compares the relevant Borrower Bank Metric for each category of designated borrowers to the applicable set of performance ranges. The performance ranges are determined by the values of the Borrower Market Benchmark and Borrower Community Benchmark, as well as the multipliers associated with each supporting conclusion category, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The performance threshold for an “Outstanding” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 1.0 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.15 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Outstanding” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Outstanding” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>2. The performance threshold for a “High Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 1.05 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “High Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “High Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the Outstanding performance threshold.
</P>
<P>3. The performance threshold for a “Low Satisfactory” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.6 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.8 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Low Satisfactory” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold but below the High Satisfactory performance threshold.
</P>
<P>4. The performance threshold for a “Needs to Improve” supporting conclusion is the lesser of either:
</P>
<P>i. The product of 0.3 times the Borrower Community Benchmark; or
</P>
<P>ii. The product of 0.33 times the Borrower Market Benchmark.
</P>
<P>The “Needs to Improve” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric equal to or above the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold but below the “Low Satisfactory” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>5. The “Substantial Noncompliance” performance range is all potential values of the Borrower Bank Metric below the “Needs to Improve” performance threshold.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Borrower distribution supporting conclusions and performance scores.</I> The FDIC compares each Borrower Bank Metric to the performance ranges provided in paragraphs V.d.1 through V.d.5 of this appendix. The borrower distribution supporting conclusion for each category of designated borrowers is determined by the performance range within which the Borrower Bank Metric falls. Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VI. Supporting Conclusions for Automobile Lending
</HD1>
<P>a. <I>Supporting conclusions for categories of designated census tracts and designated borrowers.</I> For any bank for which automobile lending is evaluated under § 345.22, the FDIC develops separate supporting conclusions for each of the categories outlined in table 2 to this appendix.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix A—Automobile Loans: Categories of Designated Census Tracts and Designated Borrowers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Designated borrowers
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Lending</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The FDIC develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's geographic distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Geographic Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated census tracts to the corresponding Geographic Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Borrower distribution.</I> The FDIC develops the supporting conclusion for a bank's borrower distribution for automobile lending based on a comparison of the Borrower Bank Metric for automobile lending in each category of designated borrowers to the corresponding Borrower Community Benchmark.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Performance scores.</I> Each supporting conclusion is assigned a numerical performance score using the following corresponding point values:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VII. Retail Lending Test Conclusions—All Major Product Lines
</HD1>
<P>a. The FDIC determines a bank's Retail Lending Test performance conclusion for a major product line in a Retail Lending Test Area by calculating a weighted performance score for each major product line:
</P>
<P>1. The FDIC develops a weighted average performance score for each major product line in each Retail Lending Test Area as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC creates a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated census tracts (<I>i.e., geographic distribution average</I>) and a weighted average performance score across the categories of designated borrowers (<I>i.e., borrower distribution average</I>).
</P>
<P>ii. For the geographic distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated census tracts is based on the demographics of the Retail Testing Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Appendix A—Retail Lending, Test Geographic Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category of


<br/>designated census tracts
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of owner-occupied housing units in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in low-income census tracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Census Tracts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of households in low- and moderate-income census tracts in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are in moderate-income census tracts.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>In the case of a Retail Lending Test Area that contains no low-income census tracts and no moderate-income census tracts, the bank will not receive a geographic distribution average for that assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-11:</I> A large bank's closed-end home mortgage loans constitute a major product line for the bank in a facility-based assessment area. The bank's geographic distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “High Satisfactory” (performance score of 7 points) for low-income census tracts and “Needs to Improve” (performance score of 3 points) for moderate-income census tracts. Owner-occupied housing units in moderate-income census tracts represents 20 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area, and owner-occupied housing units in low-income census tracts represents 5 percent of all owner-occupied housing units in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the moderate-income geographic distribution performance score is 80 percent [20 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 80 percent] and the weight assigned to the low-income geographic distribution performance score is 20 percent [5 percent/(20 percent + 5 percent) = 20 percent]. The bank's geographic distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 3.8 [(7 points × 0.2 weight = 1.4) + (3 points × 0.8 weight = 2.4)].
</P>
<P>iii. For the borrower distribution average of each major product line, the weighting assigned to each category of designated borrowers is based on the demographics of the Retail Lending Test Area as outlined in the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Appendix A—Retail Lending Test, Borrower Distribution Average—Weights
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Major product line
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Categories of designated borrowers
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Closed-End Home Mortgage Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income families in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Business Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are non-farm businesses with gross annual revenues greater than $250,00 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Small Farm Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 and less than or equal to $1 million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of farms with gross annual revenues of $250,000 or less and farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are farms with gross annual revenues greater than $250,000 but less than or equal to $1 million.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Automobile Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are low-income households.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Moderate-Income Borrowers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage of total number of low-income and moderate-income households in the applicable Retail Lending Test Area that are moderate-income households.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-12:</I> Building on example A-11 to this appendix, the bank's borrower distribution supporting conclusions for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area are “Outstanding” (performance score of 10 points) for low-income borrowers and “Low Satisfactory” (performance score of 6 points) for moderate-income borrowers. Low-income families represent 14 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area and moderate-income families represent 6 percent of all families in the facility-based assessment area. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the low-income borrower distribution performance score is 70 percent [14 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 70 percent] and the weight assigned to the moderate-income borrower distribution performance score is 30 percent [6 percent/(14 percent + 6 percent) = 30 percent]. The bank's borrower distribution average for closed-end home mortgage loans in this facility-based assessment area is 8.8 [(10 points × 0.7 weight = 7.0) + (6 points × 0.3 weight = 1.8)].
</P>
<P>2. For each major product line, the FDIC calculates the average of the geographic distribution average and the borrower distribution average (<I>i.e., product line score</I>). If a bank has no geographic distribution average for a product (due to the absence of both low-income census tracts and moderate-income census tracts in the geographic area), the product line score is the borrower distribution average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-13:</I> Based on examples A-11 and A-12 to this appendix, the bank's product line score for closed-end home mortgage loans is 6.3 [(3.8 geographic distribution average × 0.5 weight = 1.9) + (8.8 borrower distribution average × 0.5 weight = 4.4)].
</P>
<P>b. For each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC calculates a weighted average of product line scores across all major product lines (<I>i.e., Retail Lending Test Area Score</I>). For each Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC uses a ratio of the bank's loan originations and purchases in each major product line to its loan originations and purchases in all major product lines during the evaluation period, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12, as weights in the weighted average.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-14:</I> In addition to the product line score of 6.3 for closed-end home mortgage loans in example A-13 to this appendix, the bank has a product line score of 4.2 for small business lending in the same facility-based assessment area. Among major product lines, 60 percent of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area are closed-end home mortgages and 40 percent are small business loans based upon the combination of loan dollars and loan count. Accordingly, the weight assigned to the closed-end home mortgage product line score is 60 percent and the weight assigned to the small business product line score is 40 percent. The bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score for this facility-based assessment area is 5.46 [(6.3 closed-end home mortgage loan product line score × 0.6 weight = 3.78) + (4.2 small business loan product line score × 0.4 weight = 1.68)].
</P>
<P>c. The FDIC then develops a Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the Retail Lending Test Area Score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Recommended


<br/>conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test area score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example A-15:</I> Based on example A-14 to this appendix, the bank's Retail Lending Test Area Score is associated with a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion, so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion for this facility-based assessment area is “Low Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>d. Once a recommended conclusion is determined for a Retail Lending Test Area, the performance context information provided in § 345.21(d) and the additional factors provided in § 345.22(g) inform the FDIC's determination of the Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area. The agency assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion for the Retail Lending Test Area of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Retail Lending Test Weighting and Conclusions for States, Multistate MSAs, and the Institution
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC develops the Retail Lending Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The FDIC translates Retail Lending Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, and as applicable, the outside retail lending area into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The FDIC calculates the weighted average of Retail Lending Test Area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution (<I>i.e., performance score for the Retail Lending Test</I>). For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the FDIC considers facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 345.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the FDIC considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas and, as applicable, the bank's outside retail lending area. Each Retail Lending Test Area performance score is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the Retail Lending Test Area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph VIII.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the Retail Lending Test Area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a Retail Lending Test Area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the Retail Lending Test Area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the Retail Lending Test Area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the Retail Lending Test Area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all Retail Lending Test Areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>c. The FDIC develops a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Retail Lending Test for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Retail lending test performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8.5 or more.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6.5 or more but less than 8.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4.5 or more but less than 6.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5 or more but less than 4.5.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 1.5.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>d. The agency considers relevant performance context information provided in § 345.21(d) to inform the FDIC's determination of the bank's Retail Lending Test conclusion for the State, the multistate MSA, or the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-16:</I> A large bank operates in one State only, and has two facility-based assessment areas and one retail lending assessment area in that state and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as it is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 75 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (based on dollar amount) and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12). The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2) is associated with 15 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 20 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12). The bank received a “Low Satisfactory” (6 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>iii. The Retail lending assessment area is associated with 8 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 68 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12). The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the retail lending assessment area; and
</P>
<P>iv. The bank's outside retail lending area, is associated with 2 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 2 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans (based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count as defined in § 345.12). The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For facility-based assessment area 1: weight = 42.5 percent [(75 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For facility-based assessment area 2: weight = 17.5 percent [(15 percent of deposits + 20 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>iii. For the retail lending assessment area: weight = 38 percent [(8 percent of deposits + 68 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iv. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 2 percent [(2 percent of deposits + 2 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-16, the bank's Retail Lending Test performance score for the institution is 6.3 [(0.425 weight × 3 points in facility-based assessment area 1) + (0.175 weight × 6 points in facility-based assessment area 2) + (0.38 weight × 10 points in retail lending assessment area) + (0.02 weight × 7 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 6.3 corresponds with the conclusion category “Low Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “Low Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 345.21(d) may inform the FDIC's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.
</P>
<P><I>Example A-17:</I> An intermediate bank operates in a single State, has two facility-based assessment areas, and also engages in closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending (but not automobile lending, as automobile lending is not a product line for the bank) in its outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P>Additionally:
</P>
<P>i. Facility-based assessment area 1 (FBAA-1) is associated with 60 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 30 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received an “Outstanding” (10 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-1;
</P>
<P>ii. Facility-based assessment area 2 (FBAA-2 is) associated with 40 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank and 10 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “High Satisfactory” (7 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in FBAA-2; and
</P>
<P>iii. The bank's outside retail lending area is associated with 0 percent of the deposits in all of the Retail Lending Test Areas of the bank (the bank did not voluntarily collect and maintain depositor location data, so all deposits in the bank are attributed to its branches within facility-based assessment areas) and 60 percent of the bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans. The bank received a “Needs to Improve” (3 points) Retail Lending Test conclusion in the outside retail lending area.
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>i. For FBAA-1: weight = 45 percent [(60 percent of deposits + 30 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2];
</P>
<P>ii. For FBAA-2: weight = 25 percent [(40 percent of deposits + 10 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2]; and
</P>
<P>iii. For the outside retail lending area: weight = 30 percent [(0 percent of deposits + 60 percent of closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans)/2].
</P>
<P><I>Institution Retail Lending Test Performance Score and Conclusion:</I> Using the relevant points values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—and based on the illustration in this example A-17, the bank's recommended Retail Lending Test performance score at the institution level is 7.2 [(0.45 weight × 10 points in FBAA-1) + (0.25 weight × 7 points in FBAA-2) + (0.3 weight × 3 points in the outside retail lending area)].
</P>
<P>A performance score of 7.2 corresponds with the conclusion category “High Satisfactory,” so the bank's Retail Lending Test recommended conclusion at the institution level is “High Satisfactory.” Relevant performance context information provided in § 345.21(d) may inform the FDIC's determination of the bank's conclusion at the institution level.
</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 345—Calculations for the Community Development Tests
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix, based on requirements described in §§ 345.24 through 345.26 and 345.28, includes the following sections:
</P>
<FP-2>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IV. Weighting of Conclusions
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Community Development Financing Tests—Calculation Components and Allocation of Community Development Loans and Community Development Investments
</HD1>
<P>For purposes of the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 and Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26, the FDIC identifies the community development loans and community development investments included in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks and the deposits or assets included in the denominator of the metrics and benchmarks, as applicable, pursuant to paragraph I.a of this appendix. The FDIC determines whether to include a community development loan or community development investment in the numerator for a particular metric or benchmark pursuant to the allocation provisions in paragraph I.b of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Community development loans and community development investments, deposits, and assets included in the community development financing metrics and benchmarks—in general.</I> The FDIC calculates the community development financing metrics and benchmarks in §§ 345.24 and 345.26 using community development loans and community development investments and deposits or assets, as follows:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Numerator</I>—i. <I>Community development loans and community development investments considered.</I> The FDIC includes community development loans and community development investments originated, purchased, refinanced, or renewed by a depository institution or attributed to a depository institution pursuant to § 345.21(b) and (c) (<I>e.g.,</I> an affiliate community development loan) in the numerator of the metrics and benchmarks. The FDIC calculates the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments by summing the dollar volume of the following community development loans and community development investments for each calendar year in an evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments</I>):
</P>
<P>A. The dollar volume of all community development loans originated or purchased and community development investments made, including legally binding commitments to extend credit or legally binding commitments to invest,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> in that calendar year;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The dollar volume of a legally binding commitment to extend credit or legally binding commitment to invest in any given year is: (1) the full dollar volume committed; or (2) if drawn upon, the combined dollar volume of the outstanding commitment and any drawn portion of the commitment.</P></FTNT>
<P>B. The dollar volume of any increase in the calendar year to an existing community development loan that is refinanced or renewed and in an existing community development investment that is renewed;
</P>
<P>C. The outstanding dollar volume of community development loans originated or purchased in previous calendar years and community development investments made in previous calendar years, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan or investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet; and
</P>
<P>D. The outstanding dollar volume, less any increase reported in paragraph I.a.1.B of this appendix in the same calendar year, of a community development loan the depository institution refinanced or renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of origination or purchase, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the loan remains on the depository institution's balance sheet, and an existing community development investment renewed in a calendar year subsequent to the calendar year of the investment, as of December 31 for each calendar year that the investment remains on the depository institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Community development loan and community development investment allocation.</I> To calculate the metrics and benchmarks provided in §§ 345.24 and 345.26, the FDIC includes all community development loans and community development investments that are allocated to the specific facility-based assessment area, State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, respectively, in the numerator for the metric and benchmarks applicable to that geographic area. <I>See</I> paragraph I.b of this appendix for the community development financing allocation provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Denominator.</I> i. <I>Annual dollar volume of deposits.</I> For purposes of metrics and benchmarks in § 345.24, the FDIC calculates an annual dollar volume of deposits in a depository institution that is specific to each metric or benchmark for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., annual dollar volume of deposits</I>). For a depository institution that collects, maintains, and reports deposits data as provided in § 345.42 or 12 CFR 25.42 or 228.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the annual average daily balance of deposits in the depository institution as provided in statements (<I>e.g.,</I> monthly or quarterly statements) based on the deposit location. For a depository institution that does not collect, maintain, and report deposits data as provided in § 345.42 or 12 CFR 25.42 or 228.42, the annual dollar volume of deposits is determined using the deposits assigned to each facility pursuant to the FDIC's Summary of Deposits.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Annual dollar volume of assets.</I> For purposes of the metrics and benchmarks in § 345.26, the FDIC calculates an annual dollar volume of assets for each calendar year in the evaluation period (<I>i.e., the annual dollar volume of assets</I>). The annual dollar volume of assets is calculated by averaging the assets for each quarter end in the calendar year.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Allocation of community development loans and community development investments.</I> 1. <I>In general.</I> For the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26, the FDIC considers community development loans and community development investments in the evaluation of a bank's performance in a facility-based assessment area, State and multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, based on the data provided by the bank pursuant to § 345.42(a)(5)(ii)(E) and the specific location, if available, pursuant to § 345.42(a)(5)(ii)(D). As appropriate, the FDIC may also consider publicly available information and information provided by government or community sources that demonstrates that a community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves a facility-based assessment area, State, or multistate MSA, or the nationwide area.
</P>
<P>2. A bank may allocate a community development loan or community development investment as follows:
</P>
<P>i. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves only one county, and not any areas beyond that one county, would have the full dollar amount of the activity allocated to that county.
</P>
<P>ii. A community development loan or community development investment that benefits or serves multiple counties, a State, a multistate MSA, multiple States, multiple multistate MSAs, or the nationwide area is allocated according to either specific documentation that the bank can provide regarding the dollar amount allocated to each county or based on the geographic scope of the activity, as follows:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Allocation approach if specific documentation is available.</I> A bank may allocate a community development loan or community development investment or portion of a loan or investment based on documentation that specifies the appropriate dollar volume to assign to each county, such as specific addresses and dollar volumes associated with each address, or other information that indicates the specific dollar volume of the loan or investment that benefits or serves each county.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Allocation approach based on geographic scope of a community development loan or community development investment.</I>
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> In the absence of specific documentation, the FDIC will allocate a community development loan or community development investment based on the geographic scope of the loan or investment as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the purposes of allocating community development loans and community development investments, the FDIC considers low- or moderate-income families to be located in a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, consistent with § 345.28(c).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>1.</I> Allocate at the county level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one county;
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Allocate at the county level based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each county for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of less than an entire State or multistate MSA;
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> Allocate at the State or multistate MSA level, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of one or more State(s) or multistate MSA(s), but not the entire nation; and
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Allocate at the nationwide area level for a loan or investment with a geographic scope of the entire Nation.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix B—Community Development Loan or Community Development Investment Allocation
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Community development loan or community development investment benefits or serves
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach if specific documentation is available
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Allocation approach based on geographic scope of activity
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to county</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">NA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple counties that are part of one State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties in proportions equivalent to the distribution of low- and moderate-income families.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One State or multistate MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiple States or multistate MSAs, less than the entire nation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to the States or multistate MSAs, as applicable, based on the proportion of low- and moderate-income families in each State or multistate MSA.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nationwide area</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to counties</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Allocate to nationwide area.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24—Calculations for Metrics, Benchmarks, and Combining Performance Scores
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics, benchmarks, and combination of performance scores for Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric in § 345.24(b)(1) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-1:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area are $35,000 (year 1), $25,000 (year 2), and $40,000 (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area is therefore $100,000. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area are $3.1 million (year 1), $3.3 million (year 2), and $3.6 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment is therefore $10 million. For the evaluation period, the Bank Assessment Area Community Development Financing Metric would be $100,000 divided by $10 million, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.072.gif"/>
<P>b. <I>Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(b)(2)(i) for each facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-2:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a facility-based assessment area for all large depository institutions are $3.25 million (year 1), $3 million (year 2), and $3.75 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions are $330 million (year 1), $330 million (year 2), and $340 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the facility-based assessment area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 billion. For the evaluation period, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark for the facility-based assessment area would be $10 million divided by $1 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.073.gif"/>
<P>c. <I>MSA and Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmarks.</I> The FDIC calculates an MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each MSA in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area in the MSA. The FDIC calculates a Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark to be used for each nonmetropolitan area in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area in the nonmetropolitan area.
</P>
<P>1. <I>MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the MSA Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(b)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-3:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $98 billion (year 1), $100 billion (year 2), and $102 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve metropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $300 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $14.9 trillion (year 1), $15 trillion (year 2), and $15.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in metropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $45 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Metropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $300 billion divided by $45 trillion, or 0.007 (equivalently, 0.7 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.074.gif"/>
<P>2. <I>Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(b)(2)(ii)(B) by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.c.2.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.c.2.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-4:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions are $3 billion (year 1), $3.2 billion (year 2), and $3.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $10 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in all large depository institutions are $330 billion (year 1), $334 billion (year 2), and $336 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in nonmetropolitan areas in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $1 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nonmetropolitan Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $10 billion divided by $1 trillion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.075.gif"/>
<P>d. <I>Bank State Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric in § 345.24(c)(2)(i) for each State in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a State (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the State) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraphs II.d.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-5:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State are $15 million (year 1), $17 million (year 2), and $18 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by a bank is therefore $50 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State are $1.5 billion (year 1), $1.6 billion (year 2), and $1.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State is therefore $5 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank State Community Development Financing Metric would be $50 million divided by $5 billion, or 0.01 (equivalently, 1 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.076.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>State Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the State Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(c)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the State for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-6:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions are $2.3 billion (year 1), $2.5 billion (year 2), and $2.7 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $7.5 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions are $160 billion (year 1), $170 billion (year 2), and $170 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the State in all large depository institutions is therefore $500 billion. For the evaluation period, the State Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $7.5 billion divided by $500 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.077.gif"/>
<P>f. <I>State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(c)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the applicable Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a State for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-7:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas (FBAAs) in a State (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The FDIC does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of number of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.078.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.079.gif"/>
<P>• Calculating weights for FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.080.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.081.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights for FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>o The bank's State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight for FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (Weight for FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = State Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>g. <I>Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric in § 345.24(d)(2)(i) for each multistate MSA in which the bank has a facility-based assessment area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas but within the multistate MSA) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.g.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.g.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-8:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA are $47 million (year 1), $51 million (year 2), and $52 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by the bank is therefore $150 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA are $3.1 billion (year 1), $3.3 billion (year 2), and $3.6 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA is therefore $10 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Metric would be $150 million divided by $10 billion, or 0.015 (equivalently, 1.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.082.gif"/>
<P>h. <I>Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(d)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of a multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.h.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.h.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-9:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA for all large depository institutions are $135 million (year 1), $140 million (year 2), and $145 million (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve a multistate MSA conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $420 million. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions are $4 billion (year 1), $5 billion (year 2), and $6 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volume of deposits located in the multistate MSA in all large depository institutions is therefore $15 billion. For the evaluation period, the Multistate MSA Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $420 million divided by $15 billion, or 0.028 (equivalently, 2.8 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.083.gif"/>
<P>i. <I>Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(c)(3)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) by averaging all of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in a multistate MSA for the evaluation period, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-10:</I> The bank has two facility-based assessment areas in a multistate MSA (FBAA-1 and FBAA-2). The FDIC does not evaluate the bank's automobile lending.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 70 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 65 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-1 represents 55 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2;
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 5.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the total dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1 and FBAA-2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">55%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-1 is 60 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.084.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 65 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.085.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.086.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.087.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1 and FBAA-2:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.7 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1 (0.65) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (3%)) + (weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × benchmark in FBAA-2 (5%)) = Multistate MSA Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (3.7%)
</P>
<P>j. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric in § 345.24(e)(2)(i) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.j.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.j.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-11:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $60 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $75 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $2.5 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.8 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Financing Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.088.gif"/>
<P>k. <I>Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(e)(2)(ii)(A) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing all large depository institutions' annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing all depository institutions' annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.k.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.k.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-12:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $100 billion (year 1), $103 billion (year 2), and $107 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $310 billion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $15.2 trillion (year 1), $15.3 trillion (year 2), and $15.5 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is $46 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Financing Benchmark would be $310 billion divided by $46 trillion, or 0.0067 (equivalently, 0.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.089.gif"/>
<P>l. <I>Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark in § 345.24(e)(2)(ii)(B) by averaging all of the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks (see paragraph II.b of this appendix) in the nationwide area, after weighting each pursuant to paragraph II.o of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-13:</I> The bank has three facility-based assessment areas in the nationwide area (FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3).
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-1, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.0 percent. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 40 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-1 represents 60 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-2, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 3.0 percent. FBAA-2 represents 30 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 45 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-2 represents 35 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<P>• In FBAA-3, the bank's Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 4.0 percent. FBAA-3 represents 10 percent of the combined dollar volume of the deposits in the bank in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 15 percent of the bank's combined dollar volume of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3. FBAA-3 represents 5 percent of the bank's number of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, and small farm loans in FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FBAA-3
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Benchmark</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of deposits</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of lending dollar volume</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">% of loans</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-1:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-1 is 50 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.090.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-1 is 55 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.091.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-2:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-2 is 40 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.092.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-2 is 35 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.093.gif"/>
<P>• <I>Calculating weights for FBAA-3:</I>
</P>
<P>○ The percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, and small farm lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.094.gif"/>
<P>○ The weight for FBAA-3 is 10 percent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.095.gif"/>
<P>• Applying the calculated weights from FBAA-1, FBAA-2, and FBAA-3:
</P>
<P>○ The bank's Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is 2.55 percent.
</P>
<P>(Weight of FBAA-1(0.55) × Benchmark in FBAA-1 (2%)) + (Weight of FBAA-2 (0.35) × Benchmark FBAA-2 (3%)) + (Weight of FBAA-3 (0.10) × Benchmark in FBAA-3 (4%)) = Nationwide Weighted Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark (2.55%)
</P>
<P>m. <I>Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric in § 345.24(e)(2)(iii) for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area (which includes all activities within the bank's facility-based assessment areas and outside of its facility-based assessment areas within the nationwide area) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits located in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph II.m.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph II.m.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-14:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $600 million (year 1), $680 million (year 2), and $720 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $2 billion. The bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area are $24 billion (year 1), $27 billion (year 2), and $29 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area is therefore $80 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $2 billion divided by $80 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.096.gif"/>
<P>n. <I>Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark in § 345.24(e)(2)(iv) by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area, excluding mortgage-backed securities, for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of deposits in the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period for all large depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph II.n.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.n.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-15:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all large depository institutions are $350 billion (year 1), $360 billion (year 2), and $390 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all large depository institutions is therefore $1.1 trillion. The annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions are $21.9 trillion (year 1), $22 trillion (year 2), and $22.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of deposits located in the nationwide area in all large depository institutions is therefore $66 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $1.1 trillion divided by $66 trillion, or 0.0167 (equivalently, 1.67 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.097.gif"/>
<P>o. <I>Weighting of benchmarks.</I> The FDIC calculates a weighted average of the Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for a bank's facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the FDIC considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 345.28(c). For the weighted average for the nationwide area, the FDIC considers Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmarks for all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each Assessment Area Community Development Financing Benchmark is weighted by the average of the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph II.o.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph II.o.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>p. <I>Combined score for facility-based assessment area conclusions and the metrics and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> 1. As described in § 345.24(c) through (e), the FDIC assigns a conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score calculated in paragraph p.2.iii of this appendix for a bank's performance under the Community Development Financing Test in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. The FDIC bases a Community Development Financing Test combined performance score on the following:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Component one—Weighted average of the bank's performance scores corresponding to facility-based assessment area conclusions.</I> The FDIC derives a performance score based on a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to conclusions for facility-based assessment areas in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, calculated pursuant to section IV of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Component two—Bank score for metric and benchmarks analyses and the impact and responsiveness reviews.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and the nationwide area, the FDIC determines a performance score (as shown in paragraph IV.a of this appendix) corresponding to a conclusion category by considering the relevant metric and benchmarks and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments. In the nationwide area, for large banks that had assets greater than $10 billion as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, the FDIC also considers whether the bank's performance under the Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, compared to the Community Development Investment Benchmark, contributes positively to the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Combined score.</I> The FDIC associates the performance score calculated pursuant to this paragraph II.p.2.iii with a conclusion category. The FDIC derives the combined performance score corresponding to a conclusion category as follows:
</P>
<P>A. The FDIC calculates the average of two components to determine weighting:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The percentage, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, of the bank's total originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, as applicable, in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The percentage of the total dollar volume of deposits in its facility-based assessment areas out of all of the deposits in the bank in the State or multistate MSA, as applicable, or the nationwide area during the evaluation period. For purposes of this paragraph II.p.2.iii.A.<I>2,</I> “deposits” excludes deposits reported under § 345.42(b)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>B. If the average is:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> At least 80 percent, then component one receives a 50 percent weight and component two receives a 50 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> At least 60 percent but less than 80 percent, then component one receives a 40 percent weight and component two receives a 60 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> At least 40 percent but less than 60 percent, then component one receives a 30 percent weight and component two receives a 70 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> At least 20 percent but less than 40 percent, then component one receives a 20 percent weight and component two receives an 80 percent weight.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> Below 20 percent, then component one receives a 10 percent weight and component two receives a 90 percent weight.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Appendix B—Component Weights for Combined Performance Score
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Average of the percentage of deposits and percentage of loans
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on
<br/>component 1
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight on
<br/>component 2
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 60% but less than 80%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 40% but less than 60%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than or equal to 20% but less than 40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below 20%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Example B-16:</I>
</P>
<P>• Assume that the weighted average of the bank's performance scores corresponding to its facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide is 7.5. Assume further that the bank score for the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide is 6.
</P>
<P>• Assume further that 95 percent of the deposits in the bank and 75 percent of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile loans (calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12) during the evaluation period are associated with its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>• The FDIC assigns weights for component one and component two based on the share of deposits in the bank and the share of the bank's originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, calculated using the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, associated with its facility-based assessment areas: (95 percent of deposits + 75 percent of originated and purchased closed-end home mortgage lending, small business lending, small farm lending, and automobile lending, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count)/2 = 85 percent, which is between 80 percent and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>• Thus, the weighted average of the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions in the nationwide area (component one—paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent, and the metrics and benchmarks analysis and the review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments in the nationwide area (component two—paragraph II.p.2.ii of this appendix) receives a weight of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>• Using the point values—“Outstanding” (10 points); “High Satisfactory” (7 points); “Low Satisfactory” (6 points); “Needs to Improve” (3 points); “Substantial Noncompliance” (0 points)—the bank's Community Development Financing Test conclusion at the institution level is a “High Satisfactory”: (0.50 weight × 7.5 points for the weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the bank's facility-based assessment area conclusions nationwide) + (0.50 weight × 6 points for the bank score for metrics and benchmarks analysis and review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's community development loans and community development investments nationwide) results in a performance score of 6.75, which is closest to the point value (7) associated with “High Satisfactory.”
</P>
<HD1>III. Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26—Calculations for Metrics and Benchmarks
</HD1>
<P>The calculations for metrics and benchmarks for Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26 are provided in this section. Additional information regarding relevant calculation components is set forth in paragraph I.a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>a. <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric provided in § 345.26 by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of the assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.a.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.a.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 345.26(a) or 12 CFR 228.26(a) reported pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of depository institutions designated as limited purpose banks or savings associations pursuant to 12 CFR 25.26(a) or designated as limited purpose banks pursuant to § 345.26(a) or 12 CFR 228.26(a) that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.b.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.b.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development loans and community development investments of all depository institutions that reported pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that reported community development loans and community development investments pursuant to § 345.42(b) or 12 CFR 25.42(b) or 228.42(b) for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.c.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.c.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric.</I> The FDIC calculates the Limited Purpose Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric, provided in § 345.26(f)(2)(iii), for the nationwide area by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, that benefit or serve the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the bank's annual dollar volume of assets for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the results of paragraph III.d.1 of this appendix by the results of paragraph III.d.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-17:</I> The bank has a three-year evaluation period. The bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area are $62 million (year 1), $65 million (year 2), and $73 million (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by the bank is therefore $200 million. The bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank are $2.4 billion (year 1), $2.7 billion (year 2), and $2.9 billion (year 3). The sum of the bank's annual dollar volumes of assets in the bank over the evaluation period is therefore $8 billion. For the evaluation period, the Bank Nationwide Community Development Investment Metric would be $200 million divided by $8 billion, or 0.025 (equivalently, 2.5 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.098.gif"/>
<P>e. <I>Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark.</I> The FDIC calculates the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark, provided in § 345.26(f)(2)(iv), by:
</P>
<P>1. Summing the annual dollar volume of community development investments, excluding mortgage-backed securities, of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, that benefit or serve all or part of the nationwide area for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>2. Summing the annual dollar volume of assets of all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion, as of December 31 in both of the prior two calendar years, for each year in the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>3. Dividing the result of paragraph III.e.1 of this appendix by the result of paragraph III.e.2 of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example B-18:</I> The applicable benchmark uses a three-year evaluation period. The annual dollar volumes of community development investments (excluding mortgage-backed securities) that benefit or serve the nationwide area for all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $35 billion (year 1), $37 million (year 2), and $38 billion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of community development investments that benefit or serve the nationwide area conducted by all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $110 billion. The annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion are $1.8 trillion (year 1), $2.1 trillion (year 2), and $2.1 trillion (year 3). The sum of the annual dollar volumes of assets in all depository institutions that had assets greater than $10 billion is therefore $6 trillion. For the evaluation period, the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark would be $110 billion divided by $6 trillion, or 0.0183 (equivalently, 1.83 percent).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01fe24.099.gif"/>
<HD1>IV. Weighting of Conclusions
</HD1>
<P>The FDIC calculates component one of the combined performance score, as set forth in paragraph II.p.2.i of this appendix, for the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24 and a performance score for the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25 in each State, multistate MSA, and the nationwide area, as applicable, as described in this section.
</P>
<P>a. The FDIC translates the Community Development Financing Test and the Community Development Services Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The FDIC calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the FDIC considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 345.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the FDIC considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>1. The ratio measuring the share of the deposits in the bank in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P>i. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P>ii. Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. Dividing the result of paragraph IV.b.1.i of this appendix by the result of paragraph IV.b.1.ii of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>2. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P>ii. The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the nationwide area, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7205, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 345—Performance Test Conclusions
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Performance test conclusions, in general.</I> For a bank evaluated under, as applicable, the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the Community Development Services Test in § 345.25, and the Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks in § 345.26, the FDIC assigns conclusions for the bank's CRA performance pursuant to these tests and this appendix. In assigning conclusions, the FDIC may consider performance context information as provided in § 345.21(d).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Retail Lending Test conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns Retail Lending Test conclusions for each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Retail Lending Test Area.</I> For each applicable Retail Lending Test Area, the FDIC assigns a Retail Lending Test conclusion and corresponding performance score pursuant to § 345.22(h)(1), as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The FDIC assigns the Retail Lending Test conclusions for a bank's performance in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution, as set forth in section VIII of appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Retail Services and Products Test conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution. For a bank that does not operate any branches, a main office described in § 345.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the FDIC assigns the bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion as the Retail Services and Product Test conclusion for the State or multistate MSA, as applicable.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> The FDIC assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for a bank's performance in a facility-based assessment area based on an evaluation of the bank's branch availability and services and remote services facilities availability, if applicable, pursuant to § 345.23(b)(2) and (3), respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The FDIC develops the Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for States, multistate MSAs, and the institution as described in this paragraph c.2.
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC translates Retail Services and Products Test conclusions for facility-based assessment areas into numerical performance scores as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The FDIC calculates the weighted average of facility-based assessment area performance scores for a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, and for the institution. For the weighted average for a State or multistate MSA, the FDIC considers facility-based assessment areas in the State or multistate MSA pursuant to § 345.28(c). For the weighted average for the institution, the FDIC considers all of the bank's facility-based assessment areas. Each facility-based assessment area performance score is weighted by the average the following two ratios:
</P>
<P>A. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's deposits in the facility-based assessment area, calculated by:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in the facility-based assessment area.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Summing, over the years in the evaluation period, the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Dividing the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix by the result of paragraph c.2.ii.A.<I>2</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P>For a bank that reports deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of annual average daily balances of deposits reported by the bank in counties in the facility-based assessment area for that year. For a bank that does not report deposits data pursuant to § 345.42(b)(3), the bank's annual dollar volume of deposits in a facility-based assessment area is the total of deposits assigned to facilities reported by the bank in the facility-based assessment area in the FDIC's Summary of Deposits for that year.
</P>
<P>B. The ratio measuring the share of the bank's loans in the facility-based assessment area, based on the combination of loan dollars and loan count, as defined in § 345.12, calculated by dividing:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in the facility-based assessment area originated or purchased during the evaluation period; by
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> The bank's closed-end home mortgage loans, small business loans, small farm loans, and, if a product line for the bank, automobile loans in all facility-based assessment areas in the State, in the multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, originated or purchased during the evaluation period.
</P>
<P>iii. For a State or multistate MSA, as applicable, the FDIC assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the weighted average for the State or multistate MSA calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix (<I>i.e.,</I> the performance score for the Retail Services and Products Test for the State or multistate MSA).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the retail services and products test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>iv. For the institution, the FDIC assigns a Retail Services and Products Test conclusion based on the bank's combined retail banking services conclusion, developed pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix, and an evaluation of the bank's retail banking products, pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.B of this appendix. The FDIC translates the Retail Services and Products Test conclusion for the institution into a numerical performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A. <I>Combined retail banking services conclusion. 1. In general.</I> The FDIC evaluates the bank's retail banking services, as applicable, and assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based the weighted average for the institution calculated pursuant to paragraph c.2.ii of this appendix and a digital and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix. For a large bank without branches, a main office described in § 345.23(a)(2), or remote service facilities, the FDIC assigns a combined retail banking services conclusion based only on a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion, assigned pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A.<I>1</I> of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion.</I> The FDIC assigns a digital delivery systems and other delivery systems conclusion based on an evaluation of a bank's digital delivery systems and other delivery systems pursuant to § 345.23(b)(4).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Retail banking products evaluation.</I> The FDIC evaluates the bank's retail banking products offered in the bank's facility-based assessment areas and nationwide, as applicable, as follows:
</P>
<P><I>1. Credit products and programs.</I> The FDIC evaluates the bank's performance regarding its credit products and programs pursuant to § 345.23(c)(2) and determines whether the bank's performance contributes positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>2. Deposit products.</I> The FDIC evaluates the bank's performance regarding its deposit products pursuant to § 345.23(c)(3), as applicable, and determines whether the bank's performance contributes positively to the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion that would have resulted based solely on the combined retail banking services conclusion pursuant to paragraph c.2.iv.A of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>3. Impact of retail banking products on Retail Services and Products Test conclusion.</I> The bank's retail banking products evaluated pursuant to § 345.23(c) may positively impact the bank's Retail Services and Products Test conclusion. The bank's lack of responsive retail banking products does not adversely affect the bank's Retail Services and Products Test performance conclusion.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Community Development Financing Test conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the FDIC assigns a Community Development Financing Test conclusion and corresponding performance score based on the metric and benchmarks as provided in § 345.24 and a review of the impact and responsiveness of a bank's activities as provided in § 345.15 as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, and institution.</I> The FDIC assigns Community Development Financing Test conclusions for a bank's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution as set forth in paragraph II.p of appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Community Development Services Test conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns Community Development Services Test conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the FDIC develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion based on the extent to which a bank provided community development services, considering the factors in § 345.25(b). The FDIC translates the conclusion for each facility-based assessment area into a numerical performance score as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. <I>State, multistate MSA, or nationwide area.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and the nationwide area, the FDIC develops a Community Development Services Test conclusion as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC calculates a weighted average of the performance scores corresponding to the performance test conclusions pursuant to section IV of appendix B to this part. The resulting number is the Community Development Services Test performance score for a State, multistate MSA, or the institution. Subject to paragraph e.2.ii of this appendix, the FDIC assigns a Community Development Services Test conclusion corresponding to the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score for the Community Development Services Test as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score for the community
<br/>development services test
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The FDIC may adjust upwards the Community Development Services Test conclusion assigned under paragraph e.2.i of this appendix, based on Community Development Services Test activities performed outside of facility-based assessment areas as provided in § 345.19. If there is no upward adjustment, the performance score used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part is the Community Development Services Test performance score discussed in paragraph e.2.i of this appendix. If there is an upward adjustment, the FDIC translates the Community Development Services Test conclusion into a numerical performance score, which will be used for the ratings calculations described in paragraph b.1 of appendix D to this part, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>f. <I>Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns conclusions for each facility-based assessment area, each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facility-based assessment area.</I> For each facility-based assessment area, the FDIC assigns one of the following Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusions based on consideration of the dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the facility-based assessment area over the evaluation period, and a review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in the facility-based assessment area as provided in § 345.15: “Outstanding”; “High Satisfactory”; “Low Satisfactory”; “Needs to Improve”; or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>State or multistate MSA.</I> For each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), the FDIC assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's facility-based assessment area performance test conclusions in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable;
</P>
<P>ii. The dollar volume of a bank's community development loans and community development investments that benefit or serve the State or multistate MSAs, as applicable, over the evaluation period; and
</P>
<P>iii. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in the State or multistate MSAs, as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Institution.</I> For the institution, the FDIC assigns a Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. The bank's community development financing performance in all of its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>ii. The FDIC's comparison of the bank's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Metric to both the Nationwide Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Financing Benchmark and the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Financing Benchmark;
</P>
<P>iii. The FDIC's comparison of the bank's Limited Purpose Bank Community Development Investment Metric to the Nationwide Asset-Based Community Development Investment Benchmark; and
</P>
<P>iv. A review of the impact and responsiveness of the bank's activities in a nationwide area as provided in § 345.15.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Strategic Plan conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns conclusions for a bank that operates under an approved plan in facility-based assessment areas, retail lending assessment areas, outside retail lending areas, State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution. The FDIC assigns conclusions consistent with the methodology set forth by the bank in its plan. For elements of the plan that correspond to performance tests that would apply to the bank in the absence of an approved plan, the plan should include a conclusion methodology that is generally consistent with paragraphs b through f of this appendix.






</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 345—Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Ratings, in general.</I> In assigning a rating, the FDIC evaluates a bank's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, pursuant to §§ 345.21 and 345.28. The agency calculates an overall performance score for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution. The FDIC assigns a rating of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance” for the bank's performance in each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution that is nearest to the overall performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Rating
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The FDIC also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 345.28(d) and the bank's past performance pursuant to § 345.28(e).
</P>
<P>b. <I>Large bank ratings at the State, multistate MSA, and institution levels.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the FDIC combines a large bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance under the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 345.25 to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>1. The FDIC weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The FDIC multiplies each of these weights by the bank's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution-level performance score.
</P>
<P>2. The FDIC assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Example D-1:</I> A large bank received the following performance scores and conclusions in a State:
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Lending Test, the bank received a 7.3 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “High Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Retail Services and Products Test, the bank received a 6.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;”
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Financing Test, the bank received a 5.7 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Low Satisfactory;” and
</P>
<P>• On the Community Development Services Test, the bank received a 3.0 performance score and a corresponding conclusion of “Needs to Improve.”
</P>
<P><I>Calculating weights:</I>
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Lending Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4);
</P>
<P>• For the Retail Services and Products Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1);
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Financing Test, the weight is 40 percent (or 0.4); and
</P>
<P>• For the Community Development Services Test, the weight is 10 percent (or 0.1).
</P>
<P><I>State Performance Score:</I> Based on the illustration in this example D-1, the bank's State performance score is 6.1.
</P>
<FP-2>(0.4 weight × 7.3 performance score on the Retail Lending Test = 2.92) + (0.1 weight × 6.0 performance score on the Retail Services and Products Test = 0.6) + (0.4 weight × 5.7 performance score on the Community Development Financing Test = 2.28) + (0.1 weight × 3.0 performance score on the Community Development Services Test = 0.3).
</FP-2>
<P><I>State Rating:</I> A State performance score of 6.1 is greater than 4.5 but less than 8.5, resulting in a rating of “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>c. <I>Intermediate bank ratings.</I> 1. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test.</I> Subject to paragraph g of this appendix, the FDIC combines an intermediate bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution performance under the Retail Lending Test and the Community Development Financing Test to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Community Development Financing Test (50 percent). The FDIC multiplies each of these weights by the bank's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score.
</P>
<P>ii. The FDIC assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The FDIC may adjust an intermediate bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 345.30(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2).</I> The FDIC combines an intermediate bank's performance scores for its State, multistate MSA, or institution conclusions under the Retail Lending Test and the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30(a)(2) to determine the bank's rating in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution.
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (50 percent) and Intermediate Bank Community Development Test (50 percent). The FDIC multiplies each of these weights by the bank's corresponding performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score. For purposes of this paragraph c.2.i, the performance score for the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test corresponds to the conclusion assigned, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Outstanding</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">High Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Low Satisfactory</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Needs to Improve</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substantial Noncompliance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>ii. The FDIC assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>iii. The FDIC may adjust an intermediate bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 345.30(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Small bank ratings.</I> 1. <I>Ratings for small banks that opt to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22.</I> The FDIC determines a small bank's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Retail Lending Test conclusions for the State, multistate MSA or institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>ii. The FDIC may adjust a small bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 345.29(b)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ratings for small banks evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test pursuant to § 345.29(a)(2).</I> The FDIC assigns a rating for small banks evaluated under the Small Bank Lending Test pursuant to § 345.29(a)(2) as provided in appendix E to this part.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Limited purpose banks.</I> The FDIC determines a limited purpose bank's rating for each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution based on the performance score for its Community Development Financing Test for Limited Purpose Banks conclusion for the State, multistate MSA, or the institution, respectively.
</P>
<P>1. The FDIC assigns a rating corresponding with the rating category that is nearest to the State, multistate MSA, or institution performance score, respectively, using the table in paragraph a of this appendix.
</P>
<P>2. The FDIC may adjust a limited purpose bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 345.26(b)(2).
</P>
<P>f. <I>Ratings for banks operating under an approved strategic plan.</I> The FDIC evaluates the performance of a bank operating under an approved plan consistent with the rating methodology that is specified in the plan pursuant to § 345.27(g)(6). The FDIC assigns a rating according to the category assigned under the rating methodology specified in the plan: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>g. <I>Minimum performance test conclusion requirements.</I> 1. <I>Retail Lending Test minimum conclusion.</I> An intermediate bank or a large bank must receive at least a “Low Satisfactory” Retail Lending Test conclusion at, respectively, the State, multistate MSA, or institution level to receive an overall State, multistate MSA, or institution rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum of “low satisfactory” overall conclusion for 60 percent of facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> i. Except as provided in § 345.51(e), a large bank with a combined total of 10 or more facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in any State, multistate MSA, or for the institution, as applicable, may not receive a rating of “Satisfactory” or “Outstanding” in that State, multistate MSA, or for the institution unless the bank received an overall conclusion of at least “Low Satisfactory” in 60 percent or more of the total number of its facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas in that State or multistate MSA or for the institution, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Overall conclusion in facility-based assessment areas and retail lending assessment areas.</I> For purposes of the requirement in paragraph g.2 of this appendix:
</P>
<P>A. The FDIC calculates an overall conclusion in a facility-based assessment area by combining a large bank's performance scores for its conclusions in the facility-based assessment area pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, Retail Services and Products Test in § 345.23, Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, and Community Development Services Test in § 345.25.
</P>
<P>The FDIC weights the performance scores as follows: Retail Lending Test (40 percent); Retail Services and Products Test (10 percent); Community Development Financing Test (40 percent); and Community Development Services Test (10 percent). The FDIC multiplies each of these weights by the bank's performance score on the respective performance test, and then adds the resulting values together to develop a facility-based assessment area performance score.
</P>
<P>The FDIC assigns a conclusion corresponding with the conclusion category that is nearest to the performance score, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performance score
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conclusion
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8.5 or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Outstanding.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.5 or more but less than 8.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4.5 or more but less than 6.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low Satisfactory.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.5 or more but less than 4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Needs to Improve.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substantial Noncompliance.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. An overall conclusion in a retail lending assessment area is the retail lending assessment area conclusion assigned pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 as provided in appendix C to this part.






</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 345—Small Bank and Intermediate Bank Performance Evaluation Conclusions and Ratings
</HEAD>
<P>a. <I>Small banks evaluated under the small bank performance evaluation.</I> 1. <I>Small Bank Lending Test conclusions.</I> Unless a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the FDIC assigns conclusions for a small bank's performance pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test in § 345.29(a)(2) for each facility-based assessment area, in each State or multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Small Bank Lending Test conclusion.</I> The FDIC assigns a small bank's performance pursuant to the Small Bank Lending Test a conclusion of “Satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>A. A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas, and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, and community development investments;
</P>
<P>B. A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>C. A distribution of retail lending to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's facility-based assessment areas;
</P>
<P>D. A reasonable geographic distribution of loans among census tracts of different income levels in the bank's facility-based assessment areas; and
</P>
<P>E. A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its facility-based assessment areas.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Small Bank Lending Test conclusion.</I> A small bank that meets each of the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion under this paragraph a.1.ii. and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending evaluation conclusion of “Outstanding.”
</P>
<P>iii. “<I>Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Small Bank Lending Test conclusions.</I> A small bank may also receive a lending evaluation conclusion of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Small bank ratings.</I> Unless a small bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22, the FDIC determines a small bank's rating for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution based on its Small Bank Lending Test conclusions at the State, multistate MSA, and institution level, respectively.
</P>
<P>i. The FDIC assigns a rating based on the lending evaluation conclusion according to the category of the conclusion assigned: “Outstanding,” “Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>ii. The FDIC may adjust a small bank's institution rating where the bank has requested and received sufficient additional consideration pursuant to § 345.29(b)(1) and (3).
</P>
<P>iii. The FDIC also considers any evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices pursuant to § 345.28(d) and the bank's past performance pursuant to § 345.28(e).
</P>
<P>3. The FDIC assigns a rating for small banks evaluated pursuant to the Retail Lending Test in § 345.22 as provided in appendix D to this part.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Intermediate banks evaluated pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30.</I> Unless an intermediate bank opts to be evaluated pursuant to the Community Development Financing Test in § 345.24, the FDIC assigns conclusions for an intermediate bank's performance pursuant to the Intermediate Bank Community Development Test in § 345.30 for each State and multistate MSA, as applicable pursuant to § 345.28(c), and for the institution of “Outstanding,” “High Satisfactory,” “Low Satisfactory,” “Needs to Improve,” or “Substantial Noncompliance.”
</P>
<P>1. <I>Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusions.</I> i. <I>Eligibility for a “Satisfactory” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The FDIC assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance a “Low Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank demonstrates adequate responsiveness, and a “High Satisfactory” conclusion if the bank demonstrates good responsiveness, to the community development needs of its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Eligibility for an “Outstanding” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusion.</I> The FDIC assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance an “Outstanding” conclusion if the bank demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its facility-based assessment areas and, as applicable, nationwide area through community development loans, community development investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, the need for such community development activities, and the availability of community development opportunities.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>“Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” Intermediate Bank Community Development Test conclusions.</I> The FDIC assigns an intermediate bank's community development performance a “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance” conclusion depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “Satisfactory” conclusion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediate bank ratings.</I> The FDIC rates an intermediate bank's performance as provided in appendix D to this part.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 345—CRA Notice
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank, one branch office in each State.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The FDIC also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the FDIC; and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the FDIC publishes a nationwide list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination for the next two quarters. This list is available from the Regional Director, FDIC (address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and FDIC Regional Director. You may also submit comments electronically through the FDIC's website at <I>www.fdic.gov/regulations/cra</I>. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the FDIC in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the FDIC Regional Director. You may also request from the FDIC Regional Director an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the FDIC. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from the (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of _______(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice for branch offices.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The FDIC also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA evaluation, prepared by the FDIC, and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us: (1) a map showing the assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the FDIC evaluates our CRA performance in this community; (2) information about our branches in this assessment area; (3) a list of services we provide at those locations; (4) data on our lending performance in this assessment area; and (5) copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire bank is available at (name of office located in state), located at (address).]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each calendar quarter, the FDIC publishes a nationwide list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination for the next two quarters. This list is available from the Regional Director, FDIC (address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and the FDIC Regional Director. You may also submit comments electronically through the FDIC's website at <I>www.fdic.gov/regulations/cra</I>. Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the FDIC in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the FDIC Regional Director. You may also request from the FDIC Regional Director an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the FDIC. [We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from the (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of _______(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.]




</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.36.7.25.1.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 345—Community Reinvestment Regulations
</HEAD>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The content of this appendix reproduces part 345 implementing the Community Reinvestment Act as of March 31, 2024. Cross-references to CFR parts (as well as to included sections, subparts, and appendices) in this appendix are to those provisions as contained within this appendix and the CFR as of March 31, 2024.</P></NOTE>
<HD1><B>PART 345—COMMUNITY REINVESTMENT</B>


</HD1>
<HD3><B>Subpart A—General</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 345.11 Authority, purposes, and scope.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and OMB control number</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> The authority for this part is 12 U.S.C. 1814-1817, 1819-1820, 1828, 1831u and 2901-2907, 3103-3104, and 3108(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OMB control number.</I> The information collection requirements contained in this part were approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB control number 3064-0092.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> In enacting the Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Congress required each appropriate Federal financial supervisory agency to assess an institution's record of helping to meet the credit needs of the local communities in which the institution is chartered, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the institution, and to take this record into account in the agency's evaluation of an application for a deposit facility by the institution. This part is intended to carry out the purposes of the CRA by:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishing the framework and criteria by which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) assesses a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing that the FDIC takes that record into account in considering certain applications.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except for certain special purpose banks described in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, this part applies to all insured State nonmember banks, including insured State branches as described in paragraph (c)(2) and any uninsured State branch that results from an acquisition described in section 5(a)(8) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3103(a)(8)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured State branches.</I> Insured State branches are branches of a foreign bank established and operating under the laws of any State, the deposits of which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. In the case of insured State branches, references in this part to main office mean the principal branch within the United States and the term branch or branches refers to any insured State branch or branches located within the United States. The assessment area of an insured State branch is the community or communities located within the United States served by the branch as described in § 345.41.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain special purpose banks.</I> This part does not apply to special purpose banks that do not perform commercial or retail banking services by granting credit to the public in the ordinary course of business, other than as incident to their specialized operations. These banks include banker's banks, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 24(Seventh), and banks that engage only in one or more of the following activities: providing cash management controlled disbursement services or serving as correspondent banks, trust companies, or clearing agents.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.12 Definitions.</B>
</P>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company. The term control has the meaning given to that term in 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2), and a company is under common control with another company if both companies are directly or indirectly controlled by the same company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the MSA, if a person or geography is located in an MSA, or for the metropolitan division, if a person or geography is located in an MSA that has been subdivided into metropolitan divisions; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a person or geography is located outside an MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessment area</I> means a geographic area delineated in accordance with § 345.41.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Remote Service Facility (RSF)</I> means an automated, unstaffed banking facility owned or operated by, or operated exclusively for, the bank, such as an automated teller machine, cash dispensing machine, point-of-sale terminal, or other remote electronic facility, at which deposits are received, cash dispersed, or money lent.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bank</I> means a State nonmember bank, as that term is defined in section 3(e)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (FDIA) (12 U.S.C. 1813(e)(2)), with Federally insured deposits, except as provided in § 345.11(c). The term bank also includes an insured State branch as defined in § 345.11(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Branch</I> means a staffed banking facility authorized as a branch, whether shared or unshared, including, for example, a mini-branch in a grocery store or a branch operated in conjunction with any other local business or nonprofit organization. The term “branch” only includes a “domestic branch” as that term is defined in section 3(o) of the FDIA (12 U.S.C. 1813(o)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community development</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Affordable housing (including multifamily rental housing) for low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(2) Community services targeted to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) Activities that promote economic development by financing businesses or farms that meet the size eligibility standards of the Small Business Administration's Development Company or Small Business Investment Company programs (13 CFR 121.301) or have gross annual revenues of $1 million or less; or
</P>
<P>(4) Activities that revitalize or stabilize—
</P>
<P>(i) Low-or moderate-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated disaster areas; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Distressed or underserved nonmetropolitan middle-income geographies designated by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, FDIC, and Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, based on—
</P>
<P>(A) Rates of poverty, unemployment, and population loss; or
</P>
<P>(B) Population size, density, and dispersion. Activities revitalize and stabilize geographies designated based on population size, density, and dispersion if they help to meet essential community needs, including needs of low- and moderate-income individuals.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Community development loan means</I> a loan that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development; and
</P>
<P>(2) Except in the case of a wholesale or limited purpose bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not been reported or collected by the bank or an affiliate for consideration in the bank's assessment as a home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loan, unless the loan is for a multifamily dwelling (as defined in § 1003.2(n) of this title); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefits the bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Community development service</I> means a service that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has as its primary purpose community development;
</P>
<P>(2) Is related to the provision of financial services; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has not been considered in the evaluation of the bank's retail banking services under § 345.24(d).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures. A consumer loan does not include a home mortgage, small business, or small farm loan. Consumer loans include the following categories of loans:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Motor vehicle loan,</I> which is a consumer loan extended for the purchase of and secured by a motor vehicle;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit card loan,</I> which is a line of credit for household, family, or other personal expenditures that is accessed by a borrower's use of a “credit card,” as this term is defined in § 1026.2 of this title;
</P>
<P>(3) Other secured consumer loan, which is a secured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other unsecured consumer loan,</I> which is an unsecured consumer loan that is not included in one of the other categories of consumer loans.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Geography</I> means a census tract delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census in the most recent decennial census.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Home mortgage loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit as these terms are defined under § 1003.2 of this title and that is not an excluded transaction under § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) and (13) of this title.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Income level</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Low-income,</I> which means an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income or a median family income that is less than 50 percent in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Moderate-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 50 percent and less than 80 percent of the area median income or a median family income that is at least 50 and less than 80 percent in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Middle-income,</I> which means an individual income that is at least 80 percent and less than 120 percent of the area median income or a median family income that is at least 80 and less than 120 percent in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upper-income,</I> which means an individual income that is 120 percent or more of the area median income or a median family income that is 120 percent or more in the case of a geography.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Limited purpose bank</I> means a bank that offers only a narrow product line (such as credit card or motor vehicle loans) to a regional or broader market and for which a designation as a limited purpose bank is in effect, in accordance with § 345.25(b).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Loan location.</I> A loan is located as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A consumer loan is located in the geography where the borrower resides;
</P>
<P>(2) A home mortgage loan is located in the geography where the property to which the loan relates is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) A small business or small farm loan is located in the geography where the main business facility or farm is located or where the loan proceeds otherwise will be applied, as indicated by the borrower.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Loan production office</I> means a staffed facility, other than a branch, that is open to the public and that provides lending-related services, such as loan information and applications.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Metropolitan division</I> means a metropolitan division as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>MSA</I> means a metropolitan statistical area as defined by the Director of the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Nonmetropolitan area</I> means any area that is not located in an MSA.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Qualified investment</I> means a lawful investment, deposit, membership share, or grant that has as its primary purpose community development.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Small bank</I>—(1) <I>Definition. Small bank</I> means a bank that, as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years, had assets of less than $1.564 billion. <I>Intermediate small bank</I> means a small bank with assets of at least $391 million as of December 31 of both of the prior two calendar years and less than $1.564 billion as of December 31 of either of the prior two calendar years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjustment.</I> The dollar figures in paragraph (u)(1) of this section shall be adjusted annually and published by the FDIC, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each twelve-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Small business loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small businesses” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Small farm loan</I> means a loan included in “loans to small farms” as defined in the instructions for preparation of the Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Wholesale bank</I> means a bank that is not in the business of extending home mortgage, small business, small farm, or consumer loans to retail customers, and for which a designation as a wholesale bank is in effect, in accordance with § 345.25(b).


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart B—Standards for Assessing Performance</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 345.21 Performance tests, standards, and ratings, in general.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance tests and standards.</I> The FDIC assesses the CRA performance of a bank in an examination as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The FDIC applies the lending, investment, and service tests, as provided in §§ 345.22 through 345.24, in evaluating the performance of a bank, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(3), and (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The FDIC applies the community development test for a wholesale or limited purpose bank, as provided in § 345.25, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small bank performance standards.</I> The FDIC applies the small bank performance standards as provided in § 345.26 in evaluating the performance of a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, unless the bank elects to be assessed as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(4) of this section. The bank may elect to be assessed as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if it collects and reports the data required for other banks under § 345.42.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Strategic plan.</I> The FDIC evaluates the performance of a bank under a strategic plan if the bank submits, and the FDIC approves, a strategic plan as provided in § 345.27.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance context.</I> The FDIC applies the tests and standards in paragraph (a) of this section and also considers whether to approve a proposed strategic plan in the context of:
</P>
<P>(1) Demographic data on median income levels, distribution of household income, nature of housing stock, housing costs, and other relevant data pertaining to a bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Any information about lending, investment, and service opportunities in the bank's assessment area(s) maintained by the bank or obtained from community organizations, state, local, and tribal governments, economic development agencies, or other sources;
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's product offerings and business strategy as determined from data provided by the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Institutional capacity and constraints, including the size and financial condition of the bank, the economic climate (national, regional, and local), safety and soundness limitations, and any other factors that significantly affect the bank's ability to provide lending, investments, or services in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's past performance and the performance of similarly situated lenders;
</P>
<P>(6) The bank's public file, as described in § 345.43, and any written comments about the bank's CRA performance submitted to the bank or the FDIC; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information deemed relevant by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assigned ratings.</I> The FDIC assigns to a bank one of the following four ratings pursuant to § 345.28 and Appendix A of this part: “outstanding”; “satisfactory”; “needs to improve”; or “substantial noncompliance” as provided in 12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2). The rating assigned by the FDIC reflects the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community, including low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, consistent with the safe and sound operation of the bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe and sound operations.</I> This part and the CRA do not require a bank to make loans or investments or to provide services that are inconsistent with safe and sound operations. To the contrary, the FDIC anticipates banks can meet the standards of this part with safe and sound loans, investments, and services on which the banks expect to make a profit. Banks are permitted and encouraged to develop and apply flexible underwriting standards for loans that benefit low- or moderate-income geographies or individuals, only if consistent with safe and sound operations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a bank under this part, the FDIC considers, as a factor, low-cost education loans originated by the bank to borrowers, particularly in its assessment area(s), who have an individual income that is less than 50 percent of the area median income. For purposes of this paragraph, “low-cost education loans” means any education loan, as defined in section 140(a)(7) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1650(a)(7)) (including a loan under a state or local education loan program), originated by the bank for a student at an “institution of higher education,” as that term is generally defined in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002) and the implementing regulations published by the U.S. Department of Education, with interest rates and fees no greater than those of comparable education loans offered directly by the U.S. Department of Education. Such rates and fees are specified in section 455 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087e).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions.</I> In assessing and taking into account the record of a nonminority-owned and nonwomen-owned bank under this part, the FDIC considers as a factor capital investment, loan participation, and other ventures undertaken by the bank in cooperation with minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions. Such activities must help meet the credit needs of local communities in which the minority- and women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions are chartered. To be considered, such activities need not also benefit the bank's assessment area(s) or the broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.22 Lending test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> (1) The lending test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through its lending activities by considering a bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and community development lending. If consumer lending constitutes a substantial majority of a bank's business, the FDIC will evaluate the bank's consumer lending in one or more of the following categories: motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured loans. In addition, at a bank's option, the FDIC will evaluate one or more categories of consumer lending, if the bank has collected and maintained, as required in § 345.42(c)(1), the data for each category that the bank elects to have the FDIC evaluate.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC considers originations and purchases of loans. The FDIC will also consider any other loan data the bank may choose to provide, including data on loans outstanding, commitments and letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) A bank may ask the FDIC to consider loans originated or purchased by consortia in which the bank participates or by third parties in which the bank has invested only if the loans meet the definition of community development loans and only in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. The FDIC will not consider these loans under any criterion of the lending test except the community development lending criterion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The FDIC evaluates a bank's lending performance pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending activity.</I> The number and amount of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Geographic distribution.</I> The geographic distribution of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on the loan location, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The proportion of the bank's lending in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(ii) The dispersion of lending in the bank's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The number and amount of loans in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower characteristics.</I> The distribution, particularly in the bank's assessment area(s), of the bank's home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, based on borrower characteristics, including the number and amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Home mortgage loans to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(iii) Small business and small farm loans by loan amount at origination; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Consumer loans, if applicable, to low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Community development lending.</I> The bank's community development lending, including the number and amount of community development loans, and their complexity and innovativeness; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Innovative or flexible lending practices.</I> The bank's use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate lending.</I> (1) At a bank's option, the FDIC will consider loans by an affiliate of the bank, if the bank provides data on the affiliate's loans pursuant to § 345.42.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC considers affiliate lending subject to the following constraints:
</P>
<P>(i) No affiliate may claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another institution claims the same loan origination or purchase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a bank elects to have the FDIC consider loans within a particular lending category made by one or more of the bank's affiliates in a particular assessment area, the bank shall elect to have the FDIC consider, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, all the loans within that lending category in that particular assessment area made by all of the bank's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC does not consider affiliate lending in assessing a bank's performance under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> Community development loans originated or purchased by a consortium in which the bank participates or by a third party in which the bank has invested:
</P>
<P>(1) Will be considered, at the bank's option, if the bank reports the data pertaining to these loans under § 345.42(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(2) May be allocated among participants or investors, as they choose, for purposes of the lending test, except that no participant or investor:
</P>
<P>(i) May claim a loan origination or loan purchase if another participant or investor claims the same loan origination or purchase; or
</P>
<P>(ii) May claim loans accounting for more than its percentage share (based on the level of its participation or investment) of the total loans originated by the consortium or third party.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance as provided in Appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.23 Investment test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The investment test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) through qualified investments that benefit its assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion.</I> Activities considered under the lending or service tests may not be considered under the investment test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate investment.</I> At a bank's option, the FDIC will consider, in its assessment of a bank's investment performance, a qualified investment made by an affiliate of the bank, if the qualified investment is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disposition of branch premises.</I> Donating, selling on favorable terms, or making available on a rent-free basis a branch of the bank that is located in a predominantly minority neighborhood to a minority depository institution or women's depository institution (as these terms are defined in 12 U.S.C. 2907(b)) will be considered as a qualified investment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The FDIC evaluates the investment performance of a bank pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The dollar amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness or complexity of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The responsiveness of qualified investments to credit and community development needs; and
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which the qualified investments are not routinely provided by private investors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance as provided in Appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.24 Service test.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The service test evaluates a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) by analyzing both the availability and effectiveness of a bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of its community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area(s) benefited.</I> Community development services must benefit a bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Affiliate service.</I> At a bank's option, the FDIC will consider, in its assessment of a bank's service performance, a community development service provided by an affiliate of the bank, if the community development service is not claimed by any other institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance criteria—retail banking services.</I> The FDIC evaluates the availability and effectiveness of a bank's systems for delivering retail banking services, pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The current distribution of the bank's branches among low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) In the context of its current distribution of the bank's branches, the bank's record of opening and closing branches, particularly branches located in low- or moderate-income geographies or primarily serving low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(3) The availability and effectiveness of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> RSFs, RSFs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs) in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(4) The range of services provided in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies and the degree to which the services are tailored to meet the needs of those geographies.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Performance criteria—community development services.</I> The FDIC evaluates community development services pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(2) The innovativeness and responsiveness of community development services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance as provided in Appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.25 Community development test for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of test.</I> The FDIC assesses a wholesale or limited purpose bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under the community development test through its community development lending, qualified investments, or community development services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank.</I> In order to receive a designation as a wholesale or limited purpose bank, a bank shall file a request, in writing, with the FDIC, at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the designation. If the FDIC approves the designation, it remains in effect until the bank requests revocation of the designation or until one year after the FDIC notifies the bank that the FDIC has revoked the designation on its own initiative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Performance criteria.</I> The FDIC evaluates the community development performance of a wholesale or limited purpose bank pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans (including originations and purchases of loans and other community development loan data provided by the bank, such as data on loans outstanding, commitments, and letters of credit), qualified investments, or community development services;
</P>
<P>(2) The use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services and the extent to which the investments are not routinely provided by private investors; and
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indirect activities.</I> At a bank's option, the FDIC will consider in its community development performance assessment:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified investments or community development services provided by an affiliate of the bank, if the investments or services are not claimed by any other institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Community development lending by affiliates, consortia and third parties, subject to the requirements and limitations in § 345.22 (c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Benefit to assessment area(s)</I>—(1) <I>Benefit inside assessment area(s).</I> The FDIC considers all qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas within the bank's assessment area(s) or a broader statewide or regional area that includes the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Benefit outside assessment area(s).</I> The FDIC considers the qualified investments, community development loans, and community development services that benefit areas outside the bank's assessment area(s), if the bank has adequately addressed the needs of its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community development performance rating.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's community development performance as provided in Appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.26 Small bank performance standards.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Performance criteria</I>—(1) <I>Small banks that are not intermediate small banks.</I> The FDIC evaluates the record of a small bank that is not, or that was not during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intermediate small banks.</I> The FDIC evaluates the record of a small bank that is, or that was during the prior calendar year, an intermediate small bank, of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) pursuant to the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lending test.</I> A small bank's lending performance is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio, adjusted for seasonal variation, and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets, community development loans, or qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(2) The percentage of loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities located in the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(3) The bank's record of lending to and, as appropriate, engaging in other lending-related activities for borrowers of different income levels and businesses and farms of different sizes;
</P>
<P>(4) The geographic distribution of the bank's loans; and
</P>
<P>(5) The bank's record of taking action, if warranted, in response to written complaints about its performance in helping to meet credit needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community development test.</I> An intermediate small bank's community development performance also is evaluated pursuant to the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The number and amount of community development loans;
</P>
<P>(2) The number and amount of qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the bank provides community development services; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank's responsiveness through such activities to community development lending, investment, and services needs.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Small bank performance rating.</I> The FDIC rates the performance of a bank evaluated under this section as provided in appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.27 Strategic plan.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Alternative election.</I> The FDIC will assess a bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s) under a strategic plan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank has submitted the plan to the FDIC as provided for in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC has approved the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) The plan is in effect; and
</P>
<P>(4) The bank has been operating under an approved plan for at least one year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Data reporting.</I> The FDIC's approval of a plan does not affect the bank's obligation, if any, to report data as required by § 345.42.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Plans in general</I>—(1) <I>Term.</I> A plan may have a term of no more than five years, and any multi-year plan must include annual interim measurable goals under which the FDIC will evaluate the bank's performance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple assessment areas.</I> A bank with more than one assessment area may prepare a single plan for all of its assessment areas or one or more plans for one or more of its assessment areas.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treatment of affiliates.</I> Affiliated institutions may prepare a joint plan if the plan provides measurable goals for each institution. Activities may be allocated among institutions at the institutions' option, provided that the same activities are not considered for more than one institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public participation in plan development.</I> Before submitting a plan to the FDIC for approval, a bank shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Informally seek suggestions from members of the public in its assessment area(s) covered by the plan while developing the plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Once the bank has developed a plan, formally solicit public comment on the plan for at least 30 days by publishing notice in at least one newspaper of general circulation in each assessment area covered by the plan; and
</P>
<P>(3) During the period of formal public comment, make copies of the plan available for review by the public at no cost at all offices of the bank in any assessment area covered by the plan and provide copies of the plan upon request for a reasonable fee to cover copying and mailing, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Submission of plan.</I> The bank shall submit its plan to the FDIC at least three months prior to the proposed effective date of the plan. The bank shall also submit with its plan a description of its informal efforts to seek suggestions from members of the public, any written public comment received, and, if the plan was revised in light of the comment received, the initial plan as released for public comment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Plan content</I>—(1) <I>Measurable goals.</I> (i) A bank shall specify in its plan measurable goals for helping to meet the credit needs of each assessment area covered by the plan, particularly the needs of low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals, through lending, investment, and services, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank shall address in its plan all three performance categories and, unless the bank has been designated as a wholesale or limited purpose bank, shall emphasize lending and lending-related activities. Nevertheless, a different emphasis, including a focus on one or more performance categories, may be appropriate if responsive to the characteristics and credit needs of its assessment area(s), considering public comment and the bank's capacity and constraints, product offerings, and business strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confidential information.</I> A bank may submit additional information to the FDIC on a confidential basis, but the goals stated in the plan must be sufficiently specific to enable the public and the FDIC to judge the merits of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Satisfactory and outstanding goals.</I> A bank shall specify in its plan measurable goals that constitute “satisfactory” performance. A plan may specify measurable goals that constitute “outstanding” performance. If a bank submits, and the FDIC approves, both “satisfactory” and “outstanding” performance goals, the FDIC will consider the bank eligible for an “outstanding” performance rating.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Election if satisfactory goals not substantially met.</I> A bank may elect in its plan that, if the bank fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the FDIC will evaluate the bank's performance under the lending, investment, and service tests, the community development test, or the small bank performance standards, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan approval</I>—(1) <I>Timing.</I> The FDIC will act upon a plan within 60 calendar days after the FDIC receives the complete plan and other material required under paragraph (e) of this section. If the FDIC fails to act within this time period, the plan shall be deemed approved unless the FDIC extends the review period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public participation.</I> In evaluating the plan's goals, the FDIC considers the public's involvement in formulating the plan, written public comment on the plan, and any response by the bank to public comment on the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criteria for evaluating plan.</I> The FDIC evaluates a plan's measurable goals using the following criteria, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(i) The extent and breadth of lending or lending-related activities, including, as appropriate, the distribution of loans among different geographies, businesses and farms of different sizes, and individuals of different income levels, the extent of community development lending, and the use of innovative or flexible lending practices to address credit needs;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and innovativeness, complexity, and responsiveness of the bank's qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The availability and effectiveness of the bank's systems for delivering retail banking services and the extent and innovativeness of the bank's community development services.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Plan amendment.</I> During the term of a plan, a bank may request the FDIC to approve an amendment to the plan on grounds that there has been a material change in circumstances. The bank shall develop an amendment to a previously approved plan in accordance with the public participation requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan assessment.</I> The FDIC approves the goals and assesses performance under a plan as provided for in Appendix A of this part.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.28 Assigned ratings.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the FDIC assigns to a bank a rating of “outstanding,” “satisfactory,” “needs to improve,” or “substantial noncompliance” based on the bank's performance under the lending, investment and service tests, the community development test, the small bank performance standards, or an approved strategic plan, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b<I>) Lending, investment, and service tests.</I> The FDIC assigns a rating for a bank assessed under the lending, investment, and service tests in accordance with the following principles:
</P>
<P>(1) A bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on the lending test receives an assigned rating of at least “satisfactory”;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on both the service test and the investment test and a rating of at least “high satisfactory” on the lending test receives an assigned rating of “outstanding”; and
</P>
<P>(3) No bank may receive an assigned rating of “satisfactory” or higher unless it receives a rating of at least “low satisfactory” on the lending test.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.</I> (1) The FDIC's evaluation of a bank's CRA performance is adversely affected by evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices in any geography by the bank or in any assessment area by any affiliate whose loans have been considered as part of the bank's lending performance. In connection with any type of lending activity described in § 345.22(a), evidence of discriminatory or other credit practices that violate an applicable law, rule, or regulation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Discrimination against applicants on a prohibited basis in violation, for example, of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act or the Fair Housing Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Violations of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Violations of section 5 of the Federal Trade Commission Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Violations of section 8 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act; and
</P>
<P>(v) Violations of the Truth in Lending Act provisions regarding a consumer's right of rescission.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining the effect of evidence of practices described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section on the bank's assigned rating, the FDIC considers the nature, extent, and strength of the evidence of the practices; the policies and procedures that the bank (or affiliate, as applicable) has in place to prevent the practices; any corrective action that the bank (or affiliate, as applicable) has taken or has committed to take, including voluntary corrective action resulting from self-assessment; and any other relevant information.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.29 Effect of CRA performance on applications.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>CRA performance.</I> Among other factors, the FDIC takes into account the record of performance under the CRA of each applicant bank in considering an application for approval of:
</P>
<P>(1) The establishment of a domestic branch or other facility with the ability to accept deposits;
</P>
<P>(2) The relocation of the bank's main office or a branch;
</P>
<P>(3) The merger, consolidation, acquisition of assets, or assumption of liabilities; and
</P>
<P>(4) Deposit insurance for a newly chartered financial institution.
</P>
<P>(b) New financial institutions. A newly chartered financial institution shall submit with its application for deposit insurance a description of how it will meet its CRA objectives. The FDIC takes the description into account in considering the application and may deny or condition approval on that basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interested parties.</I> The FDIC takes into account any views expressed by interested parties that are submitted in accordance with the FDIC's procedures set forth in part 303 of this chapter in considering CRA performance in an application listed in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial or conditional approval of application.</I> A bank's record of performance may be the basis for denying or conditioning approval of an application listed in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
<HD3><B>Subpart C—Records, Reporting, and Disclosure Requirements</B>




</HD3>
<P><B>§ 345.41 Assessment area delineation.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A bank shall delineate one or more assessment areas within which the FDIC evaluates the bank's record of helping to meet the credit needs of its community. The FDIC does not evaluate the bank's delineation of its assessment area(s) as a separate performance criterion, but the FDIC reviews the delineation for compliance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Geographic area(s) for wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The assessment area(s) for a wholesale or limited purpose bank must consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns, in which the bank has its main office, branches, and deposit-taking ATMs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Geographic area(s) for other banks.</I> The assessment area(s) for a bank other than a wholesale or limited purpose bank must:
</P>
<P>(1) Consist generally of one or more MSAs or metropolitan divisions (using the MSA or metropolitan division boundaries that were in effect as of January 1 of the calendar year in which the delineation is made) or one or more contiguous political subdivisions, such as counties, cities, or towns; and
</P>
<P>(2) Include the geographies in which the bank has its main office, its branches, and its deposit-taking RSFs, as well as the surrounding geographies in which the bank has originated or purchased a substantial portion of its loans (including home mortgage loans, small business and small farm loans, and any other loans the bank chooses, such as those consumer loans on which the bank elects to have its performance assessed).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adjustments to geographic area(s).</I> A bank may adjust the boundaries of its assessment area(s) to include only the portion of a political subdivision that it reasonably can be expected to serve. An adjustment is particularly appropriate in the case of an assessment area that otherwise would be extremely large, of unusual configuration, or divided by significant geographic barriers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on the delineation of an assessment area.</I> Each bank's assessment area(s):
</P>
<P>(1) Must consist only of whole geographies;
</P>
<P>(2) May not reflect illegal discrimination;
</P>
<P>(3) May not arbitrarily exclude low- or moderate-income geographies, taking into account the bank's size and financial condition; and
</P>
<P>(4) May not extend substantially beyond an MSA boundary or beyond a state boundary unless the assessment area is located in a multistate MSA. If a bank serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond a state boundary, the bank shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas in each state. If a bank serves a geographic area that extends substantially beyond an MSA boundary, the bank shall delineate separate assessment areas for the areas inside and outside the MSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Banks serving military personnel.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this section, a bank whose business predominantly consists of serving the needs of military personnel or their dependents who are not located within a defined geographic area may delineate its entire deposit customer base as its assessment area.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of assessment area(s).</I> The FDIC uses the assessment area(s) delineated by a bank in its evaluation of the bank's CRA performance unless the FDIC determines that the assessment area(s) do not comply with the requirements of this section.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.42 Data collection, reporting, and disclosure.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Loan information required to be collected and maintained.</I> A bank, except a small bank, shall collect, and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the FDIC) until the completion of its next CRA examination, the following data for each small business or small farm loan originated or purchased by the bank:
</P>
<P>(1) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(2) The loan amount at origination;
</P>
<P>(3) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(4) An indicator whether the loan was to a business or farm with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan information required to be reported.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall report annually by March 1 to the FDIC in machine readable form (as prescribed by the FDIC) the following data for the prior calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Small business and small farm loan data.</I> For each geography in which the bank originated or purchased a small business or small farm loan, the aggregate number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(i) With an amount at origination of $100,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) With an amount at origination of more than $100,000 but less than or equal to $250,000;
</P>
<P>(iii) With an amount at origination of more than $250,000; and
</P>
<P>(iv) To businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less (using the revenues that the bank considered in making its credit decision);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development loan data.</I> The aggregate number and aggregate amount of community development loans originated or purchased; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home mortgage loans.</I> If the bank is subject to reporting under part 1003 of this title, the location of each home mortgage loan application, origination, or purchase outside the MSAs in which the bank has a home or branch office (or outside any MSA) in accordance with the requirements of part 1003 of this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional data collection and maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Consumer loans.</I> A bank may collect and maintain in machine readable form (as prescribed by the FDIC) data for consumer loans originated or purchased by the bank for consideration under the lending test. A bank may maintain data for one or more of the following categories of consumer loans: motor vehicle, credit card, other secured, and other unsecured. If the bank maintains data for loans in a certain category, it shall maintain data for all loans originated or purchased within that category. The bank shall maintain data separately for each category, including for each loan:
</P>
<P>(i) A unique number or alpha-numeric symbol that can be used to identify the relevant loan file;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan amount at origination or purchase;
</P>
<P>(iii) The loan location; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The gross annual income of the borrower that the bank considered in making its credit decision.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other loan data.</I> At its option, a bank may provide other information concerning its lending performance, including additional loan distribution data.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Data on affiliate lending.</I> A bank that elects to have the FDIC consider loans by an affiliate, for purposes of the lending or community development test or an approved strategic plan, shall collect, maintain, and report for those loans the data that the bank would have collected, maintained, and reported pursuant to paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank. For home mortgage loans, the bank shall also be prepared to identify the home mortgage loans reported under part 1003 of this title by the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data on lending by a consortium or a third party.</I> A bank that elects to have the FDIC consider community development loans by a consortium or third party, for purposes of the lending or community development tests or an approved strategic plan, shall report for those loans the data that the bank would have reported under paragraph (b)(2) of this section had the loans been originated or purchased by the bank.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Small banks electing evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests.</I> A bank that qualifies for evaluation under the small bank performance standards but elects evaluation under the lending, investment, and service tests shall collect, maintain, and report the data required for other banks pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assessment area data.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall collect and report to the FDIC by March 1 of each year a list for each assessment area showing the geographies within the area.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>CRA Disclosure Statement.</I> The FDIC prepares annually for each bank that reports data pursuant to this section a CRA Disclosure Statement that contains, on a state-by-state basis:
</P>
<P>(1) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population of 500,000 persons or fewer in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income geographies;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography according to whether the geography is low-, moderate-, middle-, or upper-income;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(2) For each county (and for each assessment area smaller than a county) with a population in excess of 500,000 persons in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans reported as originated or purchased located in geographies with median income relative to the area median income of less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(ii) A list grouping each geography in the county or assessment area according to whether the median income in the geography relative to the area median income is less than 10 percent, 10 or more but less than 20 percent, 20 or more but less than 30 percent, 30 or more but less than 40 percent, 40 or more but less than 50 percent, 50 or more but less than 60 percent, 60 or more but less than 70 percent, 70 or more but less than 80 percent, 80 or more but less than 90 percent, 90 or more but less than 100 percent, 100 or more but less than 110 percent, 110 or more but less than 120 percent, and 120 percent or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) A list showing each geography in which the bank reported a small business or small farm loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans to businesses and farms with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less;
</P>
<P>(3) The number and amount of small business and small farm loans located inside each assessment area reported by the bank and the number and amount of small business and small farm loans located outside the assessment area(s) reported by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) The number and amount of community development loans reported as originated or purchased.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Aggregate disclosure statements.</I> The FDIC, in conjunction with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, prepares annually, for each MSA or metropolitan division (including an MSA or metropolitan division that crosses a state boundary) and the nonmetropolitan portion of each state, an aggregate disclosure statement of small business and small farm lending by all institutions subject to reporting under this part or parts 25, 195, or 228 of this title. These disclosure statements indicate, for each geography, the number and amount of all small business and small farm loans originated or purchased by reporting institutions, except that the FDIC may adjust the form of the disclosure if necessary, because of special circumstances, to protect the privacy of a borrower or the competitive position of an institution.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Central data depositories.</I> The FDIC makes the aggregate disclosure statements, described in paragraph (i) of this section, and the individual bank CRA Disclosure Statements, described in paragraph (h) of this section, available to the public at central data depositories. The FDIC publishes a list of the depositories at which the statements are available.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.43 Content and availability of public file.</B>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Information available to the public.</I> A bank shall maintain a public file that includes the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All written comments received from the public for the current year and each of the prior two calendar years that specifically relate to the bank's performance in helping to meet community credit needs, and any response to the comments by the bank, if neither the comments nor the responses contain statements that reflect adversely on the good name or reputation of any persons other than the bank or publication of which would violate specific provisions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation prepared by the FDIC. The bank shall place this copy in the public file within 30 business days after its receipt from the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the bank's branches, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(4) A list of branches opened or closed by the bank during the current year and each of the prior two calendar years, their street addresses, and geographies;
</P>
<P>(5) A list of services (including hours of operation, available loan and deposit products, and transaction fees) generally offered at the bank's branches and descriptions of material differences in the availability or cost of services at particular branches, if any. At its option, a bank may include information regarding the availability of alternative systems for delivering retail banking services (<I>e.g.,</I> RSFs, RSFs not owned or operated by or exclusively for the bank, banking by telephone or computer, loan production offices, and bank-at-work or bank-by-mail programs);
</P>
<P>(6) A map of each assessment area showing the boundaries of the area and identifying the geographies contained within the area, either on the map or in a separate list; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other information the bank chooses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information available to the public</I>—(1) <I>Banks other than small banks.</I> A bank, except a small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year, shall include in its public file the following information pertaining to the bank and its affiliates, if applicable, for each of the prior two calendar years:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank has elected to have one or more categories of its consumer loans considered under the lending test, for each of these categories, the number and amount of loans:
</P>
<P>(A) To low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) Located in low-, moderate-, middle-, and upper-income census tracts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Located inside the bank's assessment area(s) and outside the bank's assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's CRA Disclosure Statement. The bank shall place the statement in the public file within three business days of its receipt from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banks required to report Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data.</I> A bank required to report home mortgage loan data pursuant part 1003 of this title shall include in its public file a written notice that the institution's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained on the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (Bureau's) website at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda.</I> In addition, a bank that elected to have the FDIC consider the mortgage lending of an affiliate shall include in its public file the name of the affiliate and a written notice that the affiliate's HMDA Disclosure Statement may be obtained at the Bureau's website. The bank shall place the written notice(s) in the public file within three business days after receiving notification from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council of the availability of the disclosure statement(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Small banks.</I> A small bank or a bank that was a small bank during the prior calendar year shall include in its public file:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank's loan-to-deposit ratio for each quarter of the prior calendar year and, at its option, additional data on its loan-to-deposit ratio; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The information required for other banks by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the bank has elected to be evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Banks with strategic plans.</I> A bank that has been approved to be assessed under a strategic plan shall include in its public file a copy of that plan. A bank need not include information submitted to the FDIC on a confidential basis in conjunction with the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Banks with less than satisfactory ratings.</I> A bank that received a less than satisfactory rating during its most recent examination shall include in its public file a description of its current efforts to improve its performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its entire community. The bank shall update the description quarterly.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Location of public information.</I> A bank shall make available to the public for inspection upon request and at no cost the information required in this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) At the main office and, if an interstate bank, at one branch office in each state, all information in the public file; and
</P>
<P>(2) At each branch:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the public section of the bank's most recent CRA Performance Evaluation and a list of services provided by the branch; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within five calendar days of the request, all the information in the public file relating to the assessment area in which the branch is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Upon request, a bank shall provide copies, either on paper or in another form acceptable to the person making the request, of the information in its public file. The bank may charge a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Updating.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a bank shall ensure that the information required by this section is current as of April 1 of each year.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.44 Public notice by banks.</B>
</P>
<P>A bank shall provide in the public lobby of its main office and each of its branches the appropriate public notice set forth in Appendix B of this part. Only a branch of a bank having more than one assessment area shall include the bracketed material in the notice for branch offices. Only a bank that is an affiliate of a holding company shall include the next to the last sentence of the notices. A bank shall include the last sentence of the notices only if it is an affiliate of a holding company that is not prevented by statute from acquiring additional banks.




</P>
<P><B>§ 345.45 Publication of planned examination schedule.</B>
</P>
<P>The FDIC publishes at least 30 days in advance of the beginning of each calendar quarter a list of banks scheduled for CRA examinations in that quarter.


</P>
<HD1>Appendix A to Part 345—Ratings


</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Ratings in general.</I> (1) In assigning a rating, the FDIC evaluates a bank's performance under the applicable performance criteria in this part, in accordance with §§ 345.21 and 345.28. This includes consideration of low-cost education loans provided to low-income borrowers and activities in cooperation with minority- or women-owned financial institutions and low-income credit unions, as well as adjustments on the basis of evidence of discriminatory or other illegal credit practices.
</P>
<P>(2) A bank's performance need not fit each aspect of a particular rating profile in order to receive that rating, and exceptionally strong performance with respect to some aspects may compensate for weak performance in others. The bank's overall performance, however, must be consistent with safe and sound banking practices and generally with the appropriate rating profile as follows.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banks evaluated under the lending, investment, and service tests</I>—(1) <I>Lending performance rating.</I> The FDIC assigns each bank's lending performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Excellent responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A substantial majority of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An excellent geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An excellent distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) An excellent record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Extensive use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It is a leader in making community development loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Good responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A high percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A good geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A good distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A good record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a relatively high level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Adequate responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) An adequate percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) An adequate geographic distribution of loans in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) An adequate distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) An adequate record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Limited use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made an adequate level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) Little use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made a low level of community development loans.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's lending performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A very poor responsiveness to credit needs in its assessment area(s), taking into account the number and amount of home mortgage, small business, small farm, and consumer loans, if applicable, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A very small percentage of its loans are made in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(C) A very poor geographic distribution of loans, particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies, in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A very poor distribution, particularly in its assessment area(s), of loans among individuals of different income levels and businesses (including farms) of different sizes, given the product lines offered by the bank;
</P>
<P>(E) A very poor record of serving the credit needs of highly economically disadvantaged areas in its assessment area(s), low-income individuals, or businesses (including farms) with gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, consistent with safe and sound operations;
</P>
<P>(F) No use of innovative or flexible lending practices in a safe and sound manner to address the credit needs of low- or moderate-income individuals or geographies; and
</P>
<P>(G) It has made few, if any, community development loans.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment performance rating.</I> The FDIC assigns each bank's investment performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An excellent level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, often in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A significant level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, occasionally in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Significant use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Good responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) An adequate level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors, although rarely in a leadership position;
</P>
<P>(B) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A poor level of qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's investment performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Few, if any, qualified investments, particularly those that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(B) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Service performance rating.</I> The FDIC assigns each bank's service performance one of the five following ratings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outstanding.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance “outstanding” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are readily accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has improved the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) are tailored to the convenience and needs of its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It is a leader in providing community development services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>High satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance “high satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a relatively high level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Low satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance “low satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are reasonably accessible to geographies and individuals of different income levels in its assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has generally not adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- and moderate-income geographies and to low- and moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) do not vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- and moderate-income geographies and low- and moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides an adequate level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance “needs to improve” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has adversely affected the accessibility its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides a limited level of community development services.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The FDIC rates a bank's service performance as being in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) Its service delivery systems are unreasonably inaccessible to significant portions of its assessment area(s), particularly to low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent changes have been made, its record of opening and closing branches has significantly adversely affected the accessibility of its delivery systems, particularly in low- or moderate-income geographies or to low- or moderate-income individuals;
</P>
<P>(C) Its services (including, where appropriate, business hours) vary in a way that significantly inconveniences its assessment area(s), particularly low- or moderate-income geographies or low- or moderate-income individuals; and
</P>
<P>(D) It provides few, if any, community development services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Wholesale or limited purpose banks.</I> The FDIC assigns each wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance one of the four following ratings.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outstanding.</I> The FDIC rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance “outstanding” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A high level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Extensive use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Excellent responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Satisfactory.</I> The FDIC rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance “satisfactory” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) An adequate level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Occasional use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adequate responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Needs to improve.</I> The FDIC rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance as “needs to improve” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) A poor level of community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Rare use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Substantial noncompliance.</I> The FDIC rates a wholesale or limited purpose bank's community development performance in “substantial noncompliance” if, in general, it demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(i) Few, if any, community development loans, community development services, or qualified investments, particularly investments that are not routinely provided by private investors;
</P>
<P>(ii) No use of innovative or complex qualified investments, community development loans, or community development services; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Very poor responsiveness to credit and community development needs in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Banks evaluated under the small bank performance standards</I>—(1) <I>Lending test ratings</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory lending test rating.</I> The FDIC rates a small bank's lending performance “satisfactory” if, in general, the bank demonstrates:
</P>
<P>(A) A reasonable loan-to-deposit ratio (considering seasonal variations) given the bank's size, financial condition, the credit needs of its assessment area(s), and taking into account, as appropriate, other lending-related activities such as loan originations for sale to the secondary markets and community development loans and qualified investments;
</P>
<P>(B) A majority of its loans and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities, are in its assessment area;
</P>
<P>(C) A distribution of loans to and, as appropriate, other lending-related activities for individuals of different income levels (including low- and moderate-income individuals) and businesses and farms of different sizes that is reasonable given the demographics of the bank's assessment area(s);
</P>
<P>(D) A record of taking appropriate action, when warranted, in response to written complaints, if any, about the bank's performance in helping to meet the credit needs of its assessment area(s); and
</P>
<P>(E) A reasonable geographic distribution of loans given the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an “outstanding” lending test rating.</I> A small bank that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under this paragraph and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for a lending test rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> A small bank may also receive a lending test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standard for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Community development test ratings for intermediate small banks</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory community development test rating.</I> The FDIC rates an intermediate small bank's community development performance “satisfactory” if the bank demonstrates adequate responsiveness to the community development needs of its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services. The adequacy of the bank's response will depend on its capacity for such community development activities, its assessment area's need for such community development activities, and the availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding community development test rating.</I> The FDIC rates an intermediate small bank's community development performance “outstanding” if the bank demonstrates excellent responsiveness to community development needs in its assessment area(s) through community development loans, qualified investments, and community development services, as appropriate, considering the bank's capacity and the need and availability of such opportunities for community development in the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance ratings.</I> An intermediate small bank may also receive a community development test rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Overall rating</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility for a satisfactory overall rating.</I> No intermediate small bank may receive an assigned overall rating of “satisfactory” unless it receives a rating of at least “satisfactory” on both the lending test and the community development test.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Eligibility for an outstanding overall rating.</I> (A) An intermediate small bank that receives an “outstanding” rating on one test and at least “satisfactory” on the other test may receive an assigned overall rating of “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(B) A small bank that is not an intermediate small bank that meets each of the standards for a “satisfactory” rating under the lending test and exceeds some or all of those standards may warrant consideration for an overall rating of “outstanding.” In assessing whether a bank's performance is “outstanding,” the FDIC considers the extent to which the bank exceeds each of the performance standards for a “satisfactory” rating and its performance in making qualified investments and its performance in providing branches and other services and delivery systems that enhance credit availability in its assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Needs to improve or substantial noncompliance overall ratings.</I> A small bank may also receive a rating of “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance” depending on the degree to which its performance has failed to meet the standards for a “satisfactory” rating.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Strategic plan assessment and rating</I>—(1) <I>Satisfactory goals.</I> The FDIC approves as “satisfactory” measurable goals that adequately help to meet the credit needs of the bank's assessment area(s).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Outstanding goals.</I> If the plan identifies a separate group of measurable goals that substantially exceed the levels approved as “satisfactory,” the FDIC will approve those goals as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rating.</I> The FDIC assesses the performance of a bank operating under an approved plan to determine if the bank has met its plan goals:
</P>
<P>(i) If the bank substantially achieves its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the FDIC will rate the bank's performance under the plan as “satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If the bank exceeds its plan goals for a satisfactory rating and substantially achieves its plan goals for an outstanding rating, the FDIC will rate the bank's performance under the plan as “outstanding.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If the bank fails to meet substantially its plan goals for a satisfactory rating, the FDIC will rate the bank as either “needs to improve” or “substantial noncompliance,” depending on the extent to which it falls short of its plan goals, unless the bank elected in its plan to be rated otherwise, as provided in § 345.27(f)(4).


</P>
<HD1>Appendix B to Part 345—CRA Notice


</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Notice for main offices and, if an interstate bank, one branch office in each state.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The FDIC also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA, including, for example, information about our branches, such as their location and services provided at them; the public section of our most recent CRA Performance Evaluation, prepared by the FDIC; and comments received from the public relating to our performance in helping to meet community credit needs, as well as our responses to those comments. You may review this information today.
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the FDIC publishes a nationwide list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination in that quarter. This list is available from the Regional Director, FDIC (address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and FDIC Regional Director. You may also submit comments electronically through the FDIC's website at <I>www.fdic.gov/regulations/cra.</I> Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the FDIC in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the FDIC Regional Director. You may also request from the FDIC Regional Director an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the FDIC. We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from the (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ______________(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice for branch offices.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Community Reinvestment Act Notice
</HD1>
<P>Under the Federal Community Reinvestment Act (CRA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) evaluates our record of helping to meet the credit needs of this community consistent with safe and sound operations. The FDIC also takes this record into account when deciding on certain applications submitted by us.
</P>
<P>Your involvement is encouraged.
</P>
<P>You are entitled to certain information about our operations and our performance under the CRA. You may review today the public section of our most recent CRA evaluation, prepared by the FDIC, and a list of services provided at this branch. You may also have access to the following additional information, which we will make available to you at this branch within five calendar days after you make a request to us: (1) a map showing the assessment area containing this branch, which is the area in which the FDIC evaluates our CRA performance in this community; (2) information about our branches in this assessment area; (3) a list of services we provide at those locations; (4) data on our lending performance in this assessment area; and (5) copies of all written comments received by us that specifically relate to our CRA performance in this assessment area, and any responses we have made to those comments. If we are operating under an approved strategic plan, you may also have access to a copy of the plan.
</P>
<P>[If you would like to review information about our CRA performance in other communities served by us, the public file for our entire bank is available at (name of office located in state), located at (address).]
</P>
<P>At least 30 days before the beginning of each quarter, the FDIC publishes a nationwide list of the banks that are scheduled for CRA examination in that quarter. This list is available from the Regional Director, FDIC (address). You may send written comments about our performance in helping to meet community credit needs to (name and address of official at bank) and the FDIC Regional Director. You may also submit comments electronically through the FDIC's website at <I>www.fdic.gov/regulations/cra.</I> Your letter, together with any response by us, will be considered by the FDIC in evaluating our CRA performance and may be made public.
</P>
<P>You may ask to look at any comments received by the FDIC Regional Director. You may also request from the FDIC Regional Director an announcement of our applications covered by the CRA filed with the FDIC. We are an affiliate of (name of holding company), a bank holding company. You may request from the (title of responsible official), Federal Reserve Bank of ______________(address) an announcement of applications covered by the CRA filed by bank holding companies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 7205, Feb. 1, 2024; 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]
</CITA>
<EFFDNOT>
<HED>Effective Date Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 89 FR 7210, Feb. 1, 2024, appendix G to part 345 was added, effective Apr. 1, 2024, through Jan. 1, 2031.</PSPACE></EFFDNOT>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 90 FR 60559, Dec. 29, 2025, appendix G to part 345 was amended; however, the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="346" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 346—DISCLOSURE AND REPORTING OF CRA-RELATED AGREEMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1831y.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 23692, Apr. 29, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 346.1" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.1   Purpose and scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part implements section 711 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y). That section requires any nongovernmental entity or person, insured depository institution, or affiliate of an insured depository institution that enters into a covered agreement to—
</P>
<P>(1) Make the covered agreement available to the public and the appropriate Federal banking agency; and
</P>
<P>(2) File an annual report with the appropriate Federal banking agency concerning the covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of this part.</I> The provisions of this part apply to—
</P>
<P>(1) State nonmember insured banks;
</P>
<P>(2) Subsidiaries of state nonmember insured banks;
</P>
<P>(3) Nongovernmental entities or persons that enter into covered agreements with any company listed in paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (4) and (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) State savings associations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Subsidiaries of State savings associations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to Community Reinvestment Act.</I> This part does not affect in any way the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) or the FDIC's Community Reinvestment regulation found at 12 CFR part 345, or the FDIC's interpretations or administration of that Act or regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples.</I> (1) The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.2" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.2   Definition of covered agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General definition of covered agreement.</I> A covered agreement is any contract, arrangement, or understanding that meets all of the following criteria—
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement is in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) The parties to the agreement include—
</P>
<P>(i) One or more insured depository institutions or affiliates of an insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) One or more nongovernmental entities or persons (referred to hereafter as NGEPs).
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement provides for the insured depository institution or any affiliate to—
</P>
<P>(i) Provide to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) cash payments, grants, or other consideration (except loans) that have an aggregate value of more than $10,000 in any calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Make to one or more individuals or entities (whether or not parties to the agreement) loans that have an aggregate principal amount of more than $50,000 in any calendar year.
</P>
<P>(4) The agreement is made pursuant to, or in connection with, the fulfillment of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) (CRA), as defined in§ 346.4.
</P>
<P>(5) The agreement is with a NGEP that has had a CRA communication as described in § 346.3 prior to entering into the agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples concerning written arrangements or understandings</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more community development investments in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not reach an agreement concerning the community development investments the institution should make in the community, and the parties do not reach any mutual arrangement or understanding. Two weeks later, the institution unilaterally issues a press release announcing that it has established a general goal of making $100 million of community development grants in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods served by the insured depository institution over the next 5 years. The NGEP is not identified in the press release. The press release is not a written arrangement or understanding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to offer new loan programs in the NGEP's community. The NGEP and the insured depository institution reach a mutual arrangement or understanding that the institution will provide additional loans in the NGEP's community. The institution tells the NGEP that it will issue a press release announcing the program. Later, the insured depository institution issues a press release announcing the loan program. The press release incorporates the key terms of the understanding reached between the NGEP and the insured depository institution. The written press release reflects the mutual arrangement or understanding of the NGEP and the insured depository institution and is, therefore, a written arrangement or understanding.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An NGEP sends a letter to an insured depository institution requesting that the institution provide a $15,000 grant to the NGEP. The insured depository institution responds in writing and agrees to provide the grant in connection with its annual grant program. The exchange of letters constitutes a written arrangement or understanding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loan agreements that are not covered agreements.</I> A covered agreement does not include—
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual loan that is secured by real estate; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any specific contract or commitment for a loan or extension of credit to an individual, business, farm, or other entity, or group of such individuals or entities if—
</P>
<P>(i) The funds are loaned at rates that are not substantially below market rates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan application or other loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to use the borrowed funds to make a loan or extension of credit to one or more third parties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples concerning loan agreements</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I> An insured depository institution provides an organization with a $1 million loan that is documented in writing and is secured by real estate owned or to-be-acquired by the organization. The agreement is an individual mortgage loan and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, regardless of the interest rate on the loan or whether the organization intends or is authorized to re-loan the funds to a third party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> An insured depository institution commits to provide a $500,000 line of credit to a small business that is documented by a written agreement. The loan is made at rates that are within the range of rates offered by the institution to similarly situated small businesses in the market and the loan documentation does not indicate that the small business intends or is authorized to re-lend the borrowed funds. The agreement is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> An insured depository institution offers small business loans that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration (SBA). A small business obtains a $75,000 loan, documented in writing, from the institution under the institution's SBA loan program. The loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intends or is authorized to re-lend the funds. Although the rate charged on the loan is well below that charged by the institution on commercial loans, the rate is within the range of rates that the institution would charge a similarly situated small business for a similar loan under the SBA loan program. Accordingly, the loan is not made at substantially below market rates and is exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company enters into a written agreement with a community development organization that provides that insured depository institutions owned by the bank holding company will make $250 million in small business loans in the community over the next 5 years. The written agreement is not a specific contract or commitment for a loan or an extension of credit and, thus, is not exempt from coverage under paragraph (c)(2) of this section: Each small business loan made by the insured depository institution pursuant to this general commitment would, however, be exempt from coverage if the loan is made at rates that are not substantially below market rates and the loan documentation does not indicate that the borrower intended or was authorized to re-lend the funds.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements that include exempt loan agreements.</I> If an agreement includes a loan, extension of credit or loan commitment that, if documented separately, would be exempt under paragraph (c) of this section, the exempt loan, extension of credit or loan commitment may be excluded for purposes of determining whether the agreement is a covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determining annual value of agreements that lack schedule of disbursements.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a multi-year agreement that does not include a schedule for the disbursement of payments, grants, loans or other consideration by the insured depository institution or affiliate, is considered to have a value in the first year of the agreement equal to all payments, grants, loans and other consideration to be provided at any time under the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.3" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.3   CRA communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of CRA communication.</I> A CRA communication is any of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral comment or testimony provided to a Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate.
</P>
<P>(2) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that discusses the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the institution and must be included in the institution's CRA public file.
</P>
<P>(3) Any discussion or other contact with the insured depository institution or any affiliate about—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing (or refraining from providing) written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing (or refraining from providing) written comments to the insured depository institution that concern the adequacy of the institution's performance under the CRA and must be included in the institution's CRA public file; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution, any affiliated insured depository institution, or any CRA affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discussions or contacts that are not CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Timing of contacts with a Federal banking agency.</I> An oral or written communication with a Federal banking agency is not a CRA communication if it occurred more than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of contacts with insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> A communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate is not a CRA communication if the communication occurred—
</P>
<P>(i) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any written communication;
</P>
<P>(ii) More than 3 years before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any oral communication in which the NGEP discusses providing (or refraining from providing) comments or testimony to a Federal banking agency or written comments that must be included in the institution's CRA public file in connection with a request to, or agreement by, the institution or affiliate to take (or refrain from taking) any action that is in fulfillment of the CRA; or
</P>
<P>(iii) More than 1 year before the parties entered into the agreement, in the case of any other oral communication not described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Knowledge of communication by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> (i) A communication is only a CRA communication under paragraph (a) of this section if the insured depository institution or its affiliate has knowledge of the communication under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Communication with insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate has knowledge of a communication by the NGEP to the institution or its affiliate under this paragraph only if one of the following representatives of the insured depository institution or any affiliate has knowledge of the communication—
</P>
<P>(A) An employee who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the NGEP; or
</P>
<P>(B) An employee designated with responsibility for compliance with the CRA or executive officer if the employee or executive officer knows that the institution or affiliate is negotiating, intends to negotiate, or has been informed by the NGEP that it expects to request that the institution or affiliate negotiate an agreement with the NGEP.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other communications.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate is deemed to have knowledge of—
</P>
<P>(A) Any testimony provided to a Federal banking agency at a public meeting or hearing;
</P>
<P>(B) Any comment submitted to a Federal banking agency that is conveyed in writing by the agency to the insured depository institution or affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any written comment submitted to the insured depository institution that must be and is included in the institution's CRA public file.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communication where NGEP has knowledge.</I> A NGEP has a CRA communication with an insured depository institution or affiliate only if any of the following individuals has knowledge of the communication—
</P>
<P>(i) A director, employee, or member of the NGEP who approves, directs, authorizes, or negotiates the agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who functions as an executive officer of the NGEP and who knows that the NGEP is negotiating or intends to negotiate an agreement with the insured depository institution or affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where the NGEP is an individual, the NGEP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of CRA communications</I>—(1) <I>Examples of actions that are CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive and assume that the communication occurs within the relevant time period as described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section and the appropriate representatives have knowledge of the communication as specified in paragraphs (b)(3) and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP files a written comment with a Federal banking agency that states than an insured depository institution successfully addresses the credit needs of its community. The written comment is in response to a general request from the agency for comments on an application of the insured depository institution to open a new branch and a copy of the comment is provided to the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples 2.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution must improve its CRA performance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP meets with an executive officer of an insured depository institution and states that the institution needs to make more mortgage loans in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods in its community.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A bank holding company files an application with a Federal banking agency to acquire an insured depository institution. Two weeks later, the NGEP meets with an executive officer of the bank holding company to discuss the adequacy of the performance under the CRA of the target insured depository institution. The insured depository institution was an affiliate of the bank holding company at the time the NGEP met with the target institution. (See § 346.11(a).) Accordingly, the NGEP had a CRA communication with an affiliate of the bank holding company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of actions that are not CRA communications.</I> The following are examples of actions that are not by themselves CRA communications. These examples are not exclusive.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP provides to a Federal banking agency comments or testimony concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate in response to a direct request by the agency for comments or testimony from that NGEP. Direct requests for comments or testimony do not include a general invitation by a Federal banking agency for comments or testimony from the public in connection with a CRA performance evaluation of, or application for a deposit facility (as defined in section 803 of the CRA (12 U.S.C. 2902(3)) by, an insured depository institution or an application by a company to acquire an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A NGEP makes a statement concerning an insured depository institution or affiliate at a widely attended conference or seminar regarding a general topic. A public or private meeting, public hearing, or other meeting regarding one or more specific institutions, affiliates or transactions involving an application for a deposit facility is not considered a widely attended conference or seminar.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A NGEP, such as a civil rights group, community group providing housing and other services in low- and moderate-income neighborhoods, veterans organization, community theater group, or youth organization, sends a fundraising letter to insured depository institutions and to other businesses in its community. The letter encourages all businesses in the community to meet their obligation to assist in making the local community a better place to live and work by supporting the fundraising efforts of the NGEP.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A NGEP discusses with an insured depository institution or affiliate whether particular loans, services, investments, community development activities, or other activities are generally eligible for consideration by a Federal banking agency under the CRA. The NGEP and insured depository institution or affiliate do not discuss the adequacy of the CRA performance of the insured depository institution or affiliate.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Example 5.</I> A NGEP engaged in the sale or purchase of loans in the secondary market sends a general offering circular to financial institutions offering to sell or purchase a portfolio of loans. An insured depository institution that receives the offering circular discusses with the NGEP the types of loans included in the loan pool, whether such loans are generally eligible for consideration under the CRA, and which loans are made to borrowers in the institution's local community. The NGEP and insured depository institution do not discuss the adequacy of the institution's CRA performance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiparty covered agreements.</I> (1) A NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple NGEPs is not required to comply with the requirements of this part if—
</P>
<P>(i) The NGEP has not had a CRA communication; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the NGEP identified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that another NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication.
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that involves multiple insured depository institutions or affiliates is not required to comply with the disclosure and annual reporting requirements in §§ 346.6 and 346.7 if—
</P>
<P>(i) No NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning the insured depository institution or any affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) No representative of the insured depository institution or any affiliate identified in paragraph (b)(3) of this section has knowledge at the time of the agreement that an NGEP that is a party to the agreement has had a CRA communication concerning any other insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.4" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.4   Fulfillment of the CRA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>List of factors that are in fulfillment of the CRA.</I> Fulfillment of the CRA, for purposes of this part, means the following list of factors—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Comments to a Federal banking agency or included in CRA public file.</I> Providing or refraining from providing written or oral comments or testimony to any Federal banking agency concerning the performance under the CRA of an insured depository institution or CRA affiliate that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement or written comments that are required to be included in the CRA public file of any such insured depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Activities given favorable CRA consideration.</I> Performing any of the following activities if the activity is of the type that is likely to receive favorable consideration by a Federal banking agency in evaluating the performance under the CRA of the insured depository institution that is a party to the agreement or an affiliate of a party to the agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) Home-purchase, home-improvement, small business, small farm, community development, and consumer lending, as described in § 345.22 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345, including loan purchases, loan commitments, and letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making investments, deposits, or grants, or acquiring membership shares, that have as their primary purpose community development, as described in § 345.23 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345;
</P>
<P>(iii) Delivering retail banking services as described in § 345.24(d) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing community development services, as described in § 345.24(e) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of a wholesale or limited-purpose insured depository institution, community development lending, including originating and purchasing loans and making loan commitments and letters of credit, making qualified investments, or providing community development services, as described in § 345.25(c) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345;
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of a small insured depository institution, any lending or other activity described in § 345.26(a) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345; or
</P>
<P>(vii) In the case of an insured depository institution that is evaluated on the basis of a strategic plan, any element of the strategic plan, as described in § 345.27(f) of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreements relating to activities of CRA affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that concerns any activity described in paragraph (a) of this section of a CRA affiliate must, prior to the time the agreement is entered into, notify each NGEP that is a party to the agreement that the agreement concerns a CRA affiliate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 23692, Apr. 29, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.5" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.5   Related agreements considered a single agreement.</HEAD>
<P>The following rules must be applied in determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 346.2.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements entered into by same parties.</I> All written agreements to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement if the agreements—
</P>
<P>(1) Are entered into with the same NGEP;
</P>
<P>(2) Were entered into within the same 12-month period; and
</P>
<P>(3) Are each in fulfillment of the CRA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantively related contracts.</I> All written contracts to which an insured depository institution or an affiliate of the insured depository institution is a party shall be considered to be a single agreement, without regard to whether the other parties to the contracts are the same or whether each such contract is in fulfillment of the CRA, if the contracts were negotiated in a coordinated fashion and a NGEP is a party to each contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.6" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.6   Disclosure of covered agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into after November 12, 1999.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements to the public</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that enters into a covered agreement must promptly make a copy of the covered agreement available to any individual or entity upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nondisclosure of confidential and proprietary information permitted.</I> In responding to a request for a covered agreement from any individual or entity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate may withhold from public disclosure confidential or proprietary information that the party believes the relevant supervisory agency could withhold from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) (FOIA).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information that must be disclosed.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a party must disclose any of the following information that is contained in a covered agreement—
</P>
<P>(i) The names and addresses of the parties to the agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any payments, fees, loans, or other consideration to be made or provided by any party to the agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any description of how the funds or other resources provided under the agreement are to be used;
</P>
<P>(iv) The term of the agreement (if the agreement establishes a term); and
</P>
<P>(v) Any other information that the relevant supervisory agency determines is not properly exempt from public disclosure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request for review of withheld information.</I> Any individual or entity may request that the relevant supervisory agency review whether any information in a covered agreement withheld by a party must be disclosed. Any requests for agency review of withheld information must be filed, and will be processed in accordance with, the relevant supervisory agency's rules concerning the availability of information (<I>see</I> the FDIC's rules regarding Disclosure of Information (12 CFR part 309)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Duration of obligation.</I> The obligation to disclose a covered agreement to the public terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reasonable copy and mailing fees.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate may charge an individual or entity that requests a copy of a covered agreement a reasonable fee not to exceed the cost of copying and mailing the agreement.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Use of CRA public file by insured depository institution or affiliate.</I> An insured depository institution and any affiliate of an insured depository institution may fulfill its obligation under this paragraph (b) by placing a copy of the covered agreement in the insured depository institution's CRA public file if the institution makes the agreement available in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 345.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure by NGEPs of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (1) Each NGEP that is a party to a covered agreement must provide the following within 30 days of receiving a request from the relevant supervisory agency—
</P>
<P>(i) A complete copy of the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the NGEP proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information and an explanation justifying the exclusions. Any public version must include the information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The obligation of a NGEP to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency terminates 12 months after the end of the term of the covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure by insured depository institution or affiliate of covered agreements to the relevant supervisory agency</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Within 60 days of the end of each calendar quarter, each insured depository institution and affiliate must provide each relevant supervisory agency with—
</P>
<P>(i)(A) A complete copy of each covered agreement entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event the institution or affiliate proposes the withholding of any information contained in the agreement in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a public version of the agreement that excludes such information (other than any information described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section) and an explanation justifying the exclusions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of all covered agreements entered into by the insured depository institution or affiliate during the calendar quarter that contains—
</P>
<P>(A) The name and address of each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and address of each NGEP that is a party to the agreement;
</P>
<P>(C) The date the agreement was entered into;
</P>
<P>(D) The estimated total value of all payments, fees, loans, and other consideration to be provided by the institution or any affiliate of the institution under the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(E) The date the agreement terminates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prompt filing of covered agreements contained in list required.</I> (i) If an insured depository institution or affiliate files a list of the covered agreements entered into by the institution or affiliate pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the institution or affiliate must provide any relevant supervisory agency a complete copy and public version of any covered agreement referenced in the list within 7 calendar days of receiving a request from the agency for a copy of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The obligation of an insured depository institution or affiliate to provide a covered agreement to the relevant supervisory agency under this paragraph (d)(2) terminates 36 months after the end of the term of the agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint filings.</I> In the event that 2 or more insured depository institutions or affiliates are parties to a covered agreement, the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) may jointly file the documents required by this paragraph (d). Any joint filing must identify the insured depository institution(s) and affiliate(s) for whom the filings are being made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 23692, Apr. 29, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.7" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.7   Annual reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability date.</I> This section applies only to covered agreements entered into on or after May 12, 2000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual report required.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement must file an annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning the disbursement, receipt, and uses of funds or other resources under the covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration of reporting requirement</I>—(1) <I>NGEPs.</I> A NGEP must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the NGEP receives or uses funds or other resources under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured depository institutions and affiliates.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate must file an annual report for a covered agreement for any fiscal year in which the institution or affiliate—
</P>
<P>(i) Provides or receives any payments, fees, or loans under the covered agreement that must be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has data to report on loans, investments, and services provided by a party to the covered agreement under the covered agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual reports filed by NGEP</I>—(1) <I>Contents of report.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP under this section must include the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The name and mailing address of the NGEP filing the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of funds or resources received under the covered agreement during the fiscal year; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed, itemized list of how any funds or resources received by the NGEP under the covered agreement were used during the fiscal year, including the total amount used for—
</P>
<P>(A) Compensation of officers, directors, and employees;
</P>
<P>(B) Administrative expenses;
</P>
<P>(C) Travel expenses;
</P>
<P>(D) Entertainment expenses;
</P>
<P>(E) Payment of consulting and professional fees; and
</P>
<P>(F) Other expenses and uses (specify expense or use).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More detailed reporting of uses of funds or resources permitted</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If a NGEP allocated and used funds received under a covered agreement for a specific purpose, the NGEP may fulfill the requirements of paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section with respect to such funds by providing—
</P>
<P>(A) A brief description of each specific purpose for which the funds or other resources were used; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of funds or resources used during the fiscal year for each specific purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific purpose defined.</I> A NGEP allocates and uses funds for a specific purpose if the NGEP receives and uses the funds for a purpose that is more specific and limited than the categories listed in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of other reports.</I> The annual report filed by a NGEP may consist of or incorporate a report prepared for any other purpose, such as the Internal Revenue Service Return of Organization Exempt From Income Tax on Form 990, or any other Internal Revenue Service form, state tax form, report to members or shareholders, audited or unaudited financial statements, audit report, or other report, so long as the annual report filed by the NGEP contains all of the information required by this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consolidated reports permitted.</I> A NGEP that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file with each relevant supervisory agency a single consolidated annual report covering all the covered agreements. Any consolidated report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (d). The information reported under paragraphs (d)(1)(iv) and (d)(2) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Examples of annual report requirements for NGEPs</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A NGEP receives an unrestricted grant of $15,000 under a covered agreement, includes the funds in its general operating budget, and uses the funds during its fiscal year. The NGEP's annual report for the fiscal year must provide the name and mailing address of the NGEP, information sufficient to identify the covered agreement, and state that the NGEP received $15,000 during the fiscal year. The report must also indicate the total expenditures made by the NGEP during the fiscal year for compensation, administrative expenses, travel expenses, entertainment expenses, consulting and professional fees, and other expenses and uses. The NGEP's annual report may provide this information by submitting an Internal Revenue Service Form 990 that includes the required information. If the Internal Revenue Service Form does not include information for all of the required categories listed in this part, the NGEP must report the total expenditures in the remaining categories either by providing that information directly or by providing another form or report that includes the required information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples 2.</I> An organization receives $15,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement and allocates and uses the $15,000 during the fiscal year to purchase computer equipment to support its functions. The organization's annual report must include the name and address of the organization, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the organization received $15,000 during the year. In addition, since the organization allocated and used the funds for a specific purpose that is more narrow and limited than the categories of expenses included in the detailed, itemized list of expenses, the organization would have the option of providing either the total amount it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section, or a statement that it used the $15,000 to purchase computer equipment and a brief description of the equipment purchased.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples 3.</I> A community group receives $50,000 from an insured depository institution under a covered agreement. During its fiscal year, the community group specifically allocates and uses $5,000 of the funds to pay for a particular business trip and uses the remaining $45,000 for general operating expenses. The group's annual report for the fiscal year must include the name and address of the group, information sufficient to identify the agreement, and a statement that the group received $50,000. Because the group did not allocate and use all of the funds for a specific purpose, the group's annual report must provide the total amount of funds it used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section. The group's annual report also could state that it used $5,000 for a particular business trip and include a brief description of the trip.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Example 4.</I> A community development organization is a party to two separate covered agreements with two unaffiliated insured depository institutions. Under each agreement, the organization receives $15,000 during its fiscal year and uses the funds to support its activities during that year. If the organization elects to file a consolidated annual report, the consolidated report must identify the organization and the two covered agreements, state that the organization received $15,000 during the fiscal year under each agreement, and provide the total amount that the organization used during the year for each category of expenses included in paragraph (d)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual report filed by insured depository institution or affiliate</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The annual report filed by an insured depository institution or affiliate must include the following—
</P>
<P>(i) The name and principal place of business of the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information sufficient to identify the covered agreement for which the annual report is being filed, such as by providing the names of the parties to the agreement and the date the agreement was entered into or by providing a copy of the agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans provided by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement to any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(iv) The aggregate amount of payments, aggregate amount of fees, and aggregate amount of loans received by the insured depository institution or affiliate under the covered agreement from any other party to the agreement during the fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(v) A general description of the terms and conditions of any payments, fees, or loans reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iii) and (iv) of this section, or, in the event such terms and conditions are set forth—
</P>
<P>(A) In the covered agreement, a statement identifying the covered agreement and the date the agreement (or a list identifying the agreement) was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; or
</P>
<P>(B) In a previous annual report filed by the insured depository institution or affiliate, a statement identifying the date the report was filed with the relevant supervisory agency; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The aggregate amount and number of loans, aggregate amount and number of investments, and aggregate amount of services provided under the covered agreement to any individual or entity not a party to the agreement—
</P>
<P>(A) By the insured depository institution or affiliate during its fiscal year; and
</P>
<P>(B) By any other party to the agreement, unless such information is not known to the insured depository institution or affiliate filing the report or such information is or will be contained in the annual report filed by another party under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consolidated reports permitted</I>—(i) <I>Party to multiple agreements.</I> An insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to 2 or more covered agreements may file a single consolidated annual report with each relevant supervisory agency concerning all the covered agreements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Affiliated entities party to the same agreement.</I> An insured depository institution and its affiliates that are parties to the same covered agreement may file a single consolidated annual report relating to the agreement with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Content of report.</I> Any consolidated annual report must contain all the information required by this paragraph (e). The amounts and data required to be reported under paragraphs (e)(1)(iv) and (vi) of this section may be reported on an aggregate basis for all covered agreements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time and place of filing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Each party must file its annual report with each relevant supervisory agency for the covered agreement no later than six months following the end of the fiscal year covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative method of fulfilling annual reporting requirement for a NGEP.</I> (i) A NGEP may fulfill the filing requirements of this section by providing the following materials to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement no later than six months following the end of the NGEP's fiscal year—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the NGEP's annual report required under paragraph (d) of this section for the fiscal year; and
</P>
<P>(B) Written instructions that the insured depository institution or affiliate promptly forward the annual report to the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP.
</P>
<P>(ii) An insured depository institution or affiliate that receives an annual report from a NGEP pursuant to paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section must file the report with the relevant supervisory agency or agencies on behalf of the NGEP within 30 days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.8" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.8   Release of information under FOIA.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC will make covered agreements and annual reports available to the public in accordance with the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) and the FDIC's rules regarding Disclosure of Information (12 CFR part 309). A party to a covered agreement may request confidential treatment of proprietary and confidential information in a covered agreement or an annual report under those procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.9" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.9   Compliance provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Willful failure to comply with disclosure and reporting obligations.</I> (1) If the FDIC determines that a NGEP has willfully failed to comply in a material way with §§ 346.6 or 346.7, the FDIC will notify the NGEP in writing of that determination and provide the NGEP a period of 90 days (or such longer period as the FDIC finds to be reasonable under the circumstances) to comply.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NGEP does not comply within the time period established by the FDIC, the agreement shall thereafter be unenforceable by that NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y).
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may assist any insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to a covered agreement that is unenforceable by a NGEP by operation of section 48 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831y) in identifying a successor to assume the NGEP's responsibilities under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Diversion of funds.</I> If a court or other body of competent jurisdiction determines that funds or resources received under a covered agreement have been diverted contrary to the purposes of the covered agreement for an individual's personal financial gain, the FDIC may take either or both of the following actions—
</P>
<P>(1) Order the individual to disgorge the diverted funds or resources received under the agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the individual from being a party to any covered agreement for a period not to exceed 10 years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice and opportunity to respond.</I> Before making a determination under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or taking any action under paragraph (b) of this section, the FDIC will provide written notice and an opportunity to present information to the FDIC concerning any relevant facts or circumstances relating to the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Inadvertent or de minimis errors.</I> Inadvertent or de minimis errors in annual reports or other documents filed with the FDIC under §§ 346.6 or 346.7 will not subject the reporting party to any penalty.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of provisions in covered agreements.</I> No provision of this part shall be construed as authorizing the FDIC to enforce the provisions of any covered agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.10" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.10   Transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of covered agreements entered into before the effective date of this part</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure to the public.</I> Each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the public under § 346.6 until at least April 1, 2002.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure to the relevant supervisory agency.</I> (i) Each NGEP that was a party to the agreement must make the agreement available to the relevant supervisory agency under § 346.6 until at least April 1, 2002.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each insured depository institution or affiliate that was a party to the agreement must, by June 30, 2001, provide each relevant supervisory agency either—
</P>
<P>(A) A copy of the agreement under § 346.6(d)(1)(i); or
</P>
<P>(B) The information described in § 346.6(d)(1)(ii) for each agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of annual reports that relate to fiscal years ending on or before December 31, 2000.</I> In the event that a NGEP, insured depository institution or affiliate has any information to report under § 346.7 for a fiscal year that ends on or before December 31, 2000, and that concerns a covered agreement entered into between May 12, 2000, and December 31, 2000, the annual report for that fiscal year must be provided no later than June 30, 2001, to—
</P>
<P>(1) Each relevant supervisory agency; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a NGEP, to an insured depository institution or affiliate that is a party to the agreement in accordance with § 346.7(f)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 346.11" NODE="12:5.0.1.2.37.0.25.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 346.11   Other definitions and rules of construction used in this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> “Affiliate” means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company; and
</P>
<P>(2) For the purpose of determining whether an agreement is a covered agreement under § 346.2, an “affiliate” includes any company that would be under common control or merged with another company on consummation of any transaction pending before a Federal banking agency at the time—
</P>
<P>(i) The parties enter into the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The NGEP that is a party to the agreement makes a CRA communication, as described in § 346.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Control.</I> “Control” is defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CRA affiliate.</I> A “CRA affiliate” of an insured depository institution is any company that is an affiliate of an insured depository institution to the extent, and only to the extent, that the activities of the affiliate were considered by the appropriate Federal banking agency when evaluating the CRA performance of the institution at its most recent CRA examination prior to the agreement. An insured depository institution or affiliate also may designate any company as a CRA affiliate at any time prior to the time a covered agreement is entered into by informing the NGEP that is a party to the agreement of such designation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CRA public file.</I> “CRA public file” means the public file maintained by an insured depository institution and described in § 345.43 of appendix G to 12 CFR part 345.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Executive officer.</I> The term “executive officer” has the same meaning as in § 215.2(e)(1) of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(e)(1)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal banking agency; appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> The terms “Federal banking agency” and “appropriate Federal banking agency” have the same meanings as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fiscal year.</I> (1) The fiscal year for a NGEP that does not have a fiscal year shall be the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) Any NGEP, insured depository institution, or affiliate that has a fiscal year may elect to have the calendar year be its fiscal year for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Insured depository institution.</I> “Insured depository institution” has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>NGEP.</I> “NGEP” means a nongovernmental entity or person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nongovernmental entity or person</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A “nongovernmental entity or person” is any partnership, association, trust, joint venture, joint stock company, corporation, limited liability corporation, company, firm, society, other organization, or individual.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> A nongovernmental entity or person does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) The United States government, a state government, a unit of local government (including a county, city, town, township, parish, village, or other general-purpose subdivision of a state) or an Indian tribe or tribal organization established under Federal, state or Indian tribal law (including the Department of Hawaiian Home Lands), or a department, agency, or instrumentality of any such entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally-chartered public corporation that receives Federal funds appropriated specifically for that corporation;
</P>
<P>(iii) An insured depository institution or affiliate of an insured depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An officer, director, employee, or representative (acting in his or her capacity as an officer, director, employee, or representative) of an entity listed in paragraphs (j)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Party.</I> The term “party”. The authority citation for part 405 continues to read as follows: with respect to a covered agreement means each NGEP and each insured depository institution or affiliate that entered into the agreement.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Relevant supervisory agency.</I> The “relevant supervisory agency” for a covered agreement means the appropriate Federal banking agency for—
</P>
<P>(1) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution (or subsidiary thereof) or CRA affiliate that makes payments or loans or provides services that are subject to the covered agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any company (other than an insured depository institution or subsidiary thereof) that is a party to the covered agreement.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State savings association.</I> “State savings association” has the same meaning as in section 3(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3)).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Term of agreement.</I> An agreement that does not have a fixed termination date is considered to terminate on the last date on which any party to the agreement makes any payment or provides any loan or other resources under the agreement, unless the relevant supervisory agency for the agreement otherwise notifies each party in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 23692, Apr. 29, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 22069, Mar. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 9, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="6" NODE="12:6" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 6</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iii</E>—Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>347
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter iv</E>—Export-Import Bank of the United States 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>400
</PG></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<RESERVED><E T="04">chapter v</E> [Reserved]


</RESERVED></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="III" NODE="12:6.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER III—FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE CORPORATION (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—REGULATIONS AND STATEMENTS OF GENERAL POLICY (CONTINUED)








</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="347" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 347—INTERNATIONAL BANKING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1813, 1815, 1817, 1819, 1820, 1828, 3103, 3104, 3105, 3108, 3109; Pub L. No. 111-203, section 939A, 124 Stat. 1376, 1887 (July 21, 2010) (codified 15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 347.101" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.101   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is issued pursuant to section 18(d) and (<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(d), 1828(<I>l</I>)).
</P>
<P>(b) The rules in subpart A address the FDIC's requirements for insured state nonmember bank investments in foreign organizations, permissible foreign financial activities, loans or extensions of credit to or for the account of foreign organizations, and the FDIC's recordkeeping, supervision, and approval requirements. The rules also address the permissible activities for foreign branches of insured state nonmember banks, as well as the FDIC's requirements for establishing, operating, relocating and closing of branches in foreign countries. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.102" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) An affiliate of an insured state nonmember bank means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any entity of which the insured state nonmember bank is a direct or indirect subsidiary or which otherwise controls the insured state nonmember bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Any organization which is a direct or indirect subsidiary of such entity or which is otherwise controlled by such entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other organization that is a direct or indirect subsidiary of the insured state nonmember bank or is otherwise controlled by the insured state nonmember bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Control means the ability to control in any manner the election of a majority of an organization's directors or trustees; or the ability to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of an organization. An insured state nonmember bank is deemed to control an organization of which it is a general partner or its affiliate is a general partner.
</P>
<P>(c) Domestic means United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Eligible insured state nonmember bank means an eligible depository institution as defined in § 303.2(r) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) Equity interest means any ownership interest or rights in an organization, whether through an equity security, contribution to capital, general or limited partnership interest, debt or warrants convertible into ownership interests or rights, loans providing profit participation, binding commitments to acquire any such items, or some other form of business transaction.
</P>
<P>(f) Equity security means voting or nonvoting shares, stock, investment contracts, or other interests representing ownership or participation in a company or similar enterprise, as well as any instrument convertible to any such interest at the option of the holder without payment of substantial additional consideration.
</P>
<P>(g) FRB means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(h) Foreign bank means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country, a territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is recognized as a bank by the bank supervisory or monetary authority of the country of its organization or the country in which its principal banking operations are located;
</P>
<P>(2) Receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of its business; and
</P>
<P>(3) Has the power to accept demand deposits.
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign banking organization means a foreign organization that is formed for the sole purpose of either holding shares of a foreign bank or performing nominee, fiduciary, or other banking services incidental to the activities of a foreign branch or foreign bank affiliate of the insured state nonmember bank.
</P>
<P>(j) Foreign branch means an office or place of business located outside the United States, its territories, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, or the Virgin Islands, at which banking operations are conducted, but does not include a representative office.
</P>
<P>(k) Foreign country means any country other than the United States and includes any territory, dependency, or possession of any such country or of the United States.
</P>
<P>(l) Foreign organization means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(m) Insured state nonmember bank or bank means a state bank, as defined by § 3(a)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(2)), whose deposits are insured by the FDIC and that is not a member of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(n) Indirectly means investments held or activities conducted by a subsidiary of an organization.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Investment grade</I> means a security issued by an entity that has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the exposure. Such an entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P>(p) Loan or extension of credit means all direct and indirect advances of funds to a person, government, or entity made on the basis of any obligation of that person, government, or entity to repay funds.
</P>
<P>(q) Organization or entity means a corporation, partnership, association, bank, or other similar entity.
</P>
<P>(r) NRSRO means a nationally recognized statistical rating organization as designated by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(s) Representative office means an office that engages solely in representative functions such as soliciting new business for its home office or acting as liaison between the home office and local customers, but which has no authority to make business or contracting decisions other than those relating to the personnel and premises of the representative office.
</P>
<P>(t) Subsidiary means any organization more than 50 percent of the voting equity interests of which are directly or indirectly held by another organization.
</P>
<P>(u) Tier 1 capital means Tier 1 capital as defined in § 324.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) Well capitalized means well capitalized as defined in § 324.403 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 78 FR 55595, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 9143, Mar. 5, 2018; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.103" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.103   Effect of state law on actions taken under this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>A bank may acquire and retain equity interests in a foreign organization or establish a foreign branch, subject to the requirements of this subpart, if it is authorized to do so by the law of the state in which the bank is chartered. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.104" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.104   Insured state nonmember bank investments in foreign organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investment in foreign banks or foreign banking organizations.</I> A bank may directly or indirectly acquire and retain equity interests in a foreign bank or foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investment in other foreign organizations.</I> A bank may only:
</P>
<P>(1) acquire and retain equity interests in foreign organizations, other than foreign banks or foreign banking organizations in amounts of 50 percent or less of the foreign organization's voting equity interests, if the equity interest is held through a domestic or foreign subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(2) The bank meets its minimum capital requirements. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.105" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.105   Permissible financial activities outside the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on authorized activities.</I> A bank may not directly or indirectly acquire or hold equity interests in a foreign organization that will result in the bank and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(1) Holding more than 50 percent, in the aggregate, of the voting equity interest in such foreign organization; or
</P>
<P>(2) Controlling such foreign organization, unless the activities of a foreign organization are limited to those authorized under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorized activities.</I> The following financial activities are authorized outside the United States:
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial and other banking activities.
</P>
<P>(2) Financing, including commercial financing, consumer financing, mortgage banking, and factoring, subject to compliance with any attendant restrictions contained in 12 CFR 225.28(b).
</P>
<P>(3) Leasing real or personal property, acting as agent, broker or advisor in leasing real or personal property, subject to compliance with any attendant restrictions in 12 CFR 225.28(b).
</P>
<P>(4) Acting as a fiduciary, subject to compliance with any attendant restrictions in 12 CFR 225.28(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Underwriting credit life, credit accident and credit health insurance.
</P>
<P>(6) Performing services for other direct or indirect operations of a domestic banking organization, including representative functions, sale of long-term debt, name saving, liquidating assets acquired to prevent loss on a debt previously contracted in good faith, and other activities that are permissible for a bank holding company under sections 4(a)(2)(A) and 4(c)(1)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(7) Holding the premises of a branch of an Edge corporation or insured state nonmember bank or the premises of a direct or indirect subsidiary, or holding or leasing the residence of an officer or employee of a branch or a subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(8) Providing investment, financial, or economic services, subject to compliance with any attendant restrictions in 12 CFR 225.28(b).
</P>
<P>(9) General insurance agency and brokerage.
</P>
<P>(10) Data processing.
</P>
<P>(11) Organizing, sponsoring, and managing a mutual fund if the fund's shares are not sold or distributed in the United States or to U.S. residents and the fund does not exercise management control over the firms in which it invests.
</P>
<P>(12) Performing management consulting services, provided that such services when rendered with respect to the domestic market must be restricted to the initial entry.
</P>
<P>(13) Underwriting, distributing, and dealing in debt securities outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(14) With the prior approval of the FDIC under section 347.119(d), underwriting, distributing, and dealing in equity securities outside the United States.
</P>
<P>(15) Operating a travel agency in connection with financial services offered outside the United States by the bank or others.
</P>
<P>(16) Providing futures commission merchant services, subject to compliance with any attendant restrictions in 12 CFR 225.28(b).
</P>
<P>(17) Engaging in activities that the FRB has determined in Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)) are closely related to banking under section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(18) Engaging in other activities, with the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on activities authorized under Regulation Y.</I> If a bank relies solely on the cross-reference to Regulation Y contained in paragraph (b)(17) of this section as authority to engage in an activity, compliance with any attendant restrictions on the activity that are contained in 12 CFR 225.28(b) is required.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval of other activities.</I> Activities that are not specifically authorized by this section, but that are authorized by 12 CFR 211.10 or FRB interpretations of activities authorized by that section, may be authorized by specific consent of the FDIC on an individual basis and upon such terms and conditions as the FDIC may consider appropriate. Activities that will be engaged in as principal (defined by reference to section 362.1(b) of this chapter), and that are not authorized by 12 CFR 211.10 or FRB interpretations of activities authorized under that section, must satisfy the requirements of part 362 of this chapter and be approved by the FDIC under this part as well as part 362 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.106" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.106   Going concerns.</HEAD>
<P><I>Going concerns.</I> If a bank acquires an equity interest in a foreign organization that is a going concern, no more than 5 percent of either the consolidated assets or revenues of the foreign organization may be attributable to activities that are not permissible under § 347.105(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.107" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.107   Joint ventures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Joint ventures.</I> If a bank, directly or indirectly, acquires or holds an equity interest in a foreign organization that is a joint venture, and the bank or its affiliates do not control the foreign organization, no more than 10 percent of either the consolidated assets or revenues of the foreign organization may be attributable to activities that are not permissible under § 347.105(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint venture defined.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “joint venture” means any organization in which 20 percent or more but not in excess of 50 percent of the voting equity interests, in the aggregate, are directly or indirectly held by a bank or its affiliates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.108" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.108   Portfolio investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Portfolio investments.</I> If a bank, directly or indirectly, acquires or holds an equity interest in a foreign organization as a portfolio investment and the foreign organization is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by the bank or its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(1) No more than 10 percent of either the consolidated assets or revenues of the foreign organization may be attributable to activities that are not permissible under § 347.105(b); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any loans or extensions of credit made by the bank and its affiliates to the foreign organization must be on substantially the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions between the bank or its affiliates and nonaffiliated organizations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Portfolio investment defined.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “portfolio investment” means an investment in an organization in which less than 20 percent of the voting equity interests, in the aggregate, are directly or indirectly held by a bank or its affiliates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.109" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.109   Limitations on indirect investments in nonfinancial foreign organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank may, through a subsidiary authorized by §§ 347.105 or 347.106, or an Edge corporation if also authorized by the FRB, acquire and hold equity interests in foreign organizations that are not foreign banks or foreign banking organizations and that engage generally in activities beyond those listed in § 347.105(b), subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the investment does not exceed 15 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate holding of voting equity interests of one foreign organization by the bank and its affiliates must be less than:
</P>
<P>(i) 20 percent of the foreign organization's voting equity interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 40 percent of the foreign organization's voting and nonvoting equity interests;
</P>
<P>(b) The bank or its affiliates must not otherwise control the foreign organization; and
</P>
<P>(c) Loans or extensions of credit made by the bank and its affiliates to the foreign organization must be on substantially the same terms, including interest rates and collateral, as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions between the bank or its affiliates and nonaffiliated organizations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.110" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.110   Affiliate holdings.</HEAD>
<P>References in §§ 347.107, 347.108, and 347.109 to equity interests of foreign organizations held by an affiliate of a bank include equity interests held in connection with an underwriting or for distribution or dealing by an affiliate permitted to do so by §§ 362.8 or 362.18 of this chapter or section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(8)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.111" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.111   Underwriting and dealing limits applicable to foreign organizations held by insured state nonmember banks.</HEAD>
<P>A bank that holds an equity interest in one or more foreign organizations which underwrite, deal, or distribute equity securities outside the United States as authorized by § 347.105(b)(14) is subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting commitment limits.</I> (1) The aggregate underwriting commitments by the foreign organizations for the equity securities of a single entity, taken together with underwriting commitments by any affiliate of the bank under the authority of 12 CFR 211.10(b), may not exceed the lesser of $120 million, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or 25 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) Underwriting commitments in excess of this limit must be either:
</P>
<P>(i) Covered by binding commitments from subunderwriters or purchasers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Deducted from the capital of the bank, with at least 50 percent of the deduction being taken from Tier 1 capital, with the bank remaining well capitalized after this deduction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution and dealing limits.</I> The equity securities of any single entity held for distribution or dealing by the foreign organizations, taken together with equity securities held for distribution or dealing by any affiliate of the bank under the authority of 12 CFR 211.10:
</P>
<P>(1) May not exceed the lesser of $60 million, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or 5 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any equity securities acquired pursuant to any underwriting commitment extending up to 90 days after the payment date for the underwriting may be excluded from this limit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any equity securities of the entity held under the authority of §§ 347.105 through 347.109 or 12 CFR 211.10 for purposes other than distribution or dealing must be included in this limit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Up to 75 percent of the position in an equity security may be reduced by netting long and short positions in the same security, or offsetting cash positions against derivative instruments referenced to the same security so long as the derivatives are part of a prudent hedging strategy; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must be included in calculating the general consent limits under § 347.117(b)(3) if the bank relies on the general consent provisions as authority to acquire equity interests of the same foreign entity for investment or trading.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional distribution and dealing limits.</I> With the exception of equity securities acquired pursuant to any underwriting commitment extending up to 90 days after the payment date for the underwriting, equity securities of a single entity held for distribution or dealing by all affiliates of the bank (this includes shares held in connection with an underwriting or for distribution or dealing by an affiliate permitted to do so by §§ 362.8 or 362.18 of this chapter or section 4(c)(8) of the Bank Holding Company Act), combined with any equity interests held for investment or trading purposes by all affiliates of the bank, must conform to the limits of §§ 347.105 through 347.109.
</P>
<P>(d) Combined limits. The aggregate of the following may not exceed 25 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(1) All equity interests of foreign organizations held for investment or trading under § 347.109 or by an affiliate of the bank under the corresponding paragraph of 12 CFR 211.10.
</P>
<P>(2) All underwriting commitments under paragraph (a) of this section, taken together with all underwriting commitments by any affiliate of the bank under the authority of 12 CFR 211.10, after excluding the amount of any underwriting commitment:
</P>
<P>(i) Covered by binding commitments from subunderwriters or purchasers under paragraph (a)(1) of this section or the comparable provision of 12 CFR 211.10; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Already deducted from the bank's capital under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or the appropriate affiliate's capital under the comparable provisions of 12 CFR 211.10; and
</P>
<P>(3) All equity securities held for distribution or dealing under paragraph (b) of this section, taken together with all equity securities held for distribution or dealing by any affiliate of the bank under the authority of 12 CFR 211.10, after reducing by up to 75 percent the position in any equity security by netting and offset, as permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section or the comparable provision of 12 CFR 211.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.112" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.112   Restrictions applicable to foreign organizations that act as futures commission merchants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a bank acquires or retains an equity interest in a foreign organization that acts as a futures commission merchant pursuant to § 347.105(b)(16), the foreign organization may not be a member of an exchange or clearing association that requires members to guarantee or otherwise contract to cover losses suffered by other members unless the:
</P>
<P>(1) Foreign organization's liability does not exceed two percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital, or
</P>
<P>(2) Bank has obtained the prior approval of the FDIC under § 347.120(d).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.113" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.113   Restrictions applicable to activities by a foreign organization in the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank, acting under the authority provided in this subpart, may not directly or indirectly hold:
</P>
<P>(1) Equity interests of any foreign organization that engages in the general business of buying or selling goods, wares, merchandise, or commodities in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) More than 5 percent of the equity interests of any foreign organization that engages in activities in the United States unless any activities in which the foreign organization engages in the United States are incidental to its international or foreign business.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign organization is not engaged in any business or activities in the United States unless it maintains an office in the United States other than a representative office.
</P>
<P>(2) The following activities are incidental to international or foreign business:
</P>
<P>(i) Activities that are permissible for an Edge corporation in the United States under 12 CFR 211.6; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Other activities approved by the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.114" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.114   Extensions of credit to foreign organizations held by insured state nonmember banks; shares of foreign organizations held in connection with debts previously contracted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loans or extensions of credit.</I> A bank that directly or indirectly holds equity interests in a foreign organization pursuant to the authority of this subpart may make loans or extensions of credit to or for the accounts of the organization without regard to the provisions of section 18(j) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(j)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Debts previously contracted.</I> Equity interests acquired to prevent a loss upon a debt previously contracted in good faith are not subject to the limitations or procedures of this subpart; however, they must be disposed of promptly but in no event later than two years after their acquisition, unless the FDIC authorizes retention for a longer period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.115" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.115   Permissible activities for a foreign branch of an insured state nonmember bank.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to its general banking powers and if permitted by the law of the state in which the bank is chartered, a foreign branch of a bank may conduct the following activities to the extent that they are consistent with banking practices in a foreign country where the bank maintains a branch:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Guarantees.</I> Guarantee debts, or otherwise agree to make payments on the occurrence of readily ascertainable events including, without limitation, nonpayment of taxes, rentals, customs duties, or costs of transport and loss or nonconformance of shipping documents, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The guarantee or agreement specifies a maximum monetary liability; and
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent the guarantee or agreement is not subject to a separate amount limit under state or federal law, the amount of the guarantee or agreement is combined with loans and other obligations for purposes of applying any legal lending limits.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Government obligations.</I> Engage in the following types of transactions with respect to the obligations of foreign countries, so long as aggregate investments, securities held in connection with distribution and dealing, and underwriting commitments do not exceed ten percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(1) Underwrite, distribute and deal, invest in, or trade obligations of:
</P>
<P>(i) The national government of the country in which the branch is located or its political subdivisions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An agency or instrumentality of such national government if supported by the taxing authority, guarantee, or full faith and credit of the national government.
</P>
<P>(2) Underwrite, distribute and deal, invest in or trade obligations 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> rated as investment grade of: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If the obligation is an equity interest, it must be held through a subsidiary of the foreign branch and the insured state nonmember bank must meet its minimum capital requirements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(i) The national government of any foreign country or its political subdivisions, to the extent permissible under the law of the issuing foreign country; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An agency or instrumentality of the national government of any foreign country to the extent permissible under the law of the issuing foreign country, if supported by the taxing authority, guarantee, or full faith and credit of the national government.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Local investments.</I> (1) Acquire and hold local investments in:
</P>
<P>(i) Equity securities of the central bank, clearinghouses, governmental entities, and government sponsored development banks of the country in which the branch is located;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other debt securities eligible to meet local reserve or similar requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Shares of automated electronic payment networks, professional societies, schools, and similar entities necessary to the business of the branch.
</P>
<P>(2) Aggregate local investments (other than those required by the law of the foreign country or permissible under section 5136 of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24 (Seventh)) by all the bank's branches in a single foreign country must not exceed 1 percent of the total deposits in all the bank's branches in that country as reported in the preceding year-end Report of Income and Condition (Call Report): 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> If a branch has recently been acquired by the bank and the branch was not previously required to file a Call Report, branch deposits as of the acquisition date must be used.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance.</I> Act as an insurance agent or broker.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Employee benefits program.</I> Pay to an employee of a branch, as part of an employee benefits program, a greater rate of interest than that paid to other depositors of the branch.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> Engage in repurchase agreements involving securities and commodities that are the functional equivalents of extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Other activities.</I> Engage in other activities, with the prior approval of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Approval of other activities.</I> Activities that are not specifically authorized by this section, but that are authorized by 12 CFR 211.4 or FRB interpretations of activities authorized by that section, may be authorized by specific consent of the FDIC on an individual basis and upon such terms and conditions as the FDIC may consider appropriate. Activities that will be engaged in as principal (defined by reference to section 362.1(b) of this chapter), and that are not authorized by 12 CFR 211.4 or FRB interpretations of activities authorized under that section, must satisfy the requirements of part 362 of this chapter and be approved by the FDIC under this part as well as part 362 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.116" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.116   Recordkeeping and supervision of foreign activities of insured state nonmember banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records, controls and reports. A bank with any foreign branch, any investment in a foreign organization of 20 percent or more of the organization's voting equity interests, or control of a foreign organization must maintain a system of records, controls and reports that, at minimum, provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Risk assets. To permit assessment of exposure to loss, information furnished or available to the main office should be sufficient to permit periodic and systematic appraisals of the quality of risk assets, including loans and other extensions of credit. Coverage should extend to a substantial proportion of the risk assets in the branch or foreign organization, and include the status of all large credit lines and of credits to customers also borrowing from other offices or affiliates of the bank. Appropriate information on risk assets may include:
</P>
<P>(i) A recent financial statement of the borrower or obligee and current information on the borrower's or obligee's financial condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Terms, conditions, and collateral;
</P>
<P>(iii) Data on any guarantors;
</P>
<P>(iv) Payment history; and
</P>
<P>(v) Status of corrective measures employed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liquidity.</I> To enable assessment of local management's ability to meet its obligations from available resources, reports should identify the general sources and character of the deposits, borrowing, and other funding sources employed in the branch or foreign organization with special reference to their terms and volatility. Information should be available on sources of liquidity—cash, balances with banks, marketable securities, and repayment flows—such as will reveal their accessibility in time and any risk elements involved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contingencies.</I> Data on the volume and nature of contingent items such as loan commitments and guarantees or their equivalents that permit analysis of potential risk exposure and liquidity requirements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Controls.</I> Reports on the internal and external audits of the branch or foreign organization in sufficient detail to permit determination of conformance to auditing guidelines. Appropriate audit reports may include coverage of:
</P>
<P>(i) Verification and identification of entries on financial statements;
</P>
<P>(ii) Income and expense accounts, including descriptions of significant chargeoffs and recoveries;
</P>
<P>(iii) Operations and dual-control procedures and other internal controls;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conformance to head office guidelines on loans, deposits, foreign exchange activities, accounting procedures in compliance with applicable accounting standards, and discretionary authority of local management;
</P>
<P>(v) Compliance with local laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Compliance with applicable U.S. laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of information to examiners; reports.</I> (1) Information about foreign branches or foreign organizations must be made available to the FDIC by the bank for examination and other supervisory purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may from time to time require a bank to make and submit such reports and information as may be necessary to implement and enforce the provisions of this subpart, and the bank shall submit an annual report of condition for each foreign branch pursuant to instructions provided by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.117" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.117   General consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General consent to establish or relocate a foreign branch.</I> General consent of the FDIC is granted, subject to the written notification requirement contained in section 303.182(a) and consistent with the requirements of this subpart, for an:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible bank to establish a foreign branch conducting activities authorized by section 347.115 of this section in any foreign country in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The bank already operates one or more foreign branches or foreign bank subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank's holding company operates a foreign bank subsidiary; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An affiliated bank or Edge or Agreement corporation operates one or more foreign branches or foreign bank subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) Insured state nonmember bank to relocate an existing foreign branch within a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General consent to invest in a foreign organization.</I> General consent of the FDIC is granted, subject to the written notification requirement contained in section 303.183(a) (unless no notification is required because the investment is acquired for trading purposes) and consistent with the requirements of this subpart, for an eligible bank to make investments in foreign organizations, directly or indirectly, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The bank operates at least one foreign bank subsidiary or foreign branch, an affiliated bank or Edge or Agreement corporation operates at least one foreign bank subsidiary or foreign branch, or the bank's holding company operates at least one foreign bank subsidiary in the country where the foreign organization will be located;
</P>
<P>(2) In any instance where the bank and its affiliates will hold 20 percent or more of the foreign organization's voting equity interests or control the foreign organization, at least one state nonmember bank has a foreign bank subsidiary or foreign branch (other than a shell branch) in the country where the foreign organization will be located; 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> A list of these countries can be obtained from the FDIC's Internet Web Site at <I>http://www.fdic.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>(3) The investment is within one of the following limits:
</P>
<P>(i) The investment is acquired at net asset value from an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) The investment is a reinvestment of cash dividends received from the same foreign organization during the preceding 12 months; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The total investment, directly or indirectly, in a single foreign organization in any transaction or series of transactions during a twelve-month period does not exceed 2 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital, and such investments in all foreign organizations in the aggregate do not exceed:
</P>
<P>(A) 5 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital during a 12-month period; and
</P>
<P>(B) Up to an additional 5 percent of the bank's Tier 1 capital if the investments are acquired for trading purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.118" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.118   Expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Expedited processing of branch applications.</I> An eligible bank may establish a foreign branch conducting activities authorized by § 347.115 in an additional foreign country, after complying with the expedited processing requirements contained in § 303.182(b) and (c)(1), if any of the following are located in two or more foreign countries:
</P>
<P>(1) Foreign branches or foreign bank subsidiaries of the eligible bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign branches or foreign bank subsidiaries of banks and Edge or Agreement corporations affiliated with the eligible bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) Foreign bank subsidiaries of the eligible bank's holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expedited processing of applications for investment in foreign organizations.</I> An investment that does not qualify for general consent but is otherwise in conformity with the limits and requirements of this subpart may be made 45 days after an eligible bank files a substantially complete application with the FDIC in compliance with the expedited processing requirements contained in § 303.183(b) and (c)(1), or within such earlier time as authorized by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.119" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.119   Specific consent.</HEAD>
<P>General consent and expedited processing under this subpart do not apply in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Limitation on access to supervisory information in foreign country.</I> (1) Applicable law or practice in the foreign country where the foreign organization or foreign branch would be located would limit the FDIC's access to information for supervisory purposes; and
</P>
<P>(i) A bank would hold 20 percent or more of the voting equity interests of a foreign organization or control such organization as a result of a foreign investment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A bank would be establishing a foreign branch.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification or suspension of general consent or expedited processing.</I> The FDIC at any time notifies the bank that the FDIC is modifying or suspending its general consent or expedited processing procedure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific consent.</I> Direct or indirect investments in or activities of foreign organizations by banks, the establishment of foreign branches or issues regarding the types or amounts of activity that can be engaged in by foreign branches, which are not authorized under §§ 347.117 or 347.118 require prior review and specific consent of the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 72555, Nov. 13, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.120" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.120   Computation of investment amounts.</HEAD>
<P>In computing the amount that may be invested in any foreign organization under §§ 347.117 through 347.119, any investments held by an affiliate of a bank must be included.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.121" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.121   Requirements for insured state nonmember bank to close a foreign branch.</HEAD>
<P>A bank must comply with the written notification requirement contained in § 303.182(d) when it closes a foreign branch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.122" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.122   Limitations applicable to the authority provided in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may impose such conditions on authority granted in this subpart as it considers appropriate. If a bank is unable or fails to comply with the requirements of this subpart or any conditions imposed by the FDIC regarding transactions under this subpart, the FDIC may require termination of any activities or divestiture of investments permitted under this subpart after giving the bank notice and a reasonable opportunity to be heard on the matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Foreign Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.201" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.201   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is issued pursuant to sections 5(c) and 10(b)(4) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act)(12 U.S.C. 1815(c) and 1820(b)(4)) and sections 6, 7, and 15 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (IBA)(12 U.S.C. 3104, 3105, and 3109).
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart implements the insured branch asset pledge and examination commitment requirement for foreign banks in the FDI Act. It also implements the deposit insurance, permissible activity, and cross-border cooperation provisions of the IBA regarding the FDIC. Sections 347.203-347.211 apply to state and federal branches whose deposits are insured. Sections 347.204 and 347.207 are applicable to depository institution subsidiaries of a foreign bank. Section 347.212 applies to insured state branches and §§ 347.213-347.216 apply to state branches whose deposits are not insured by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.202" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) Affiliate means any entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another entity. An entity shall be deemed to “control” another entity if the entity directly or indirectly owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other entity or controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors or trustees of the other entity.
</P>
<P>(b) Agency means any office or any place of business of a foreign bank located in any State of the United States at which credit balances are maintained incidental to or arising out of the exercise of banking powers, checks are paid, or money is lent but at which deposits may not be accepted from citizens or residents of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) Branch means any office or place of business of a foreign bank located in any state of the United States at which deposits are received. The term does not include any office or place of business deemed by the state licensing authority or the Comptroller of the Currency to be an agency.
</P>
<P>(d) Deposit has the same meaning as that term in section 3(l) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(l)).
</P>
<P>(e) Depository means any insured state bank, national bank, or insured branch.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Domestic retail deposit activity</I> means the acceptance by a Federal or State branch of any initial deposit of less than an amount equal to the standard maximum deposit insurance amount (“SMDIA”).
</P>
<P>(g) Federal branch means a branch of a foreign bank established and operating under the provisions of section 4 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3102).
</P>
<P>(h) Foreign bank means any company organized under the laws of a foreign country, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Virgin Islands, which engages in the business of banking. The term includes foreign commercial banks, foreign merchant banks and other foreign institutions that engage in banking activities usual in connection with the business of banking in the countries where such foreign institutions are organized and operating. Except as otherwise specifically provided by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, banks organized under the laws of a foreign country, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Virgin Islands which are insured banks other than by reason of having an insured branch are not considered to be foreign banks for purposes of §§ 347.204, 347.205, 347.209, and 347.210.
</P>
<P>(i) Foreign business means any entity including, but not limited to, a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, association, foundation or trust, which is organized under the laws of a foreign country or any United States entity which is owned or controlled by an entity which is organized under the laws of a foreign country or a foreign national.
</P>
<P>(j) Foreign country means any country other than the United States and includes any colony, dependency or possession of any such country.
</P>
<P>(k) FRB means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(l) Highly liquid means, with respect to a security, that the security has low credit and market risk; is traded in an active secondary two-way market that has committed market makers and independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within one day and settled at that price within a reasonable time period conforming with trade custom; is a type of asset that investors historically have purchased in periods of financial market distress during which market liquidity has been impaired.
</P>
<P>(m) Home state of a foreign bank means the state so determined by the election of the foreign bank, or in default of such election, by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(n) Immediate family member of a natural person means the spouse, father, mother, brother, sister, son or daughter of that natural person.
</P>
<P>(o) Initial deposit means the first deposit transaction between a depositor and the branch where there is no existing deposit relationship. The initial deposit may be placed into different deposit accounts or into different kinds of deposit accounts, such as demand, savings or time. Deposit accounts that are held by a depositor in the same right and capacity may be added together for the purposes of determining the dollar amount of the initial deposit.
</P>
<P>(p) Insured bank means any bank, including a foreign bank with an insured branch, the deposits of which are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(q) Insured branch means a branch of a foreign bank any deposits of which branch are insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(r) Investment grade means a security issued by an entity that has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the exposure. Such an entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P>(s) Large United States business means any entity including, but not limited to, a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, association, foundation or trust which is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, and:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose securities are registered on a national securities exchange or quoted on the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has annual gross revenues in excess of $1,000,000 for the fiscal year immediately preceding the initial deposit.
</P>
<P>(t) A majority owned subsidiary means a company the voting stock of which is more than 50 percent owned or controlled by another company.
</P>
<P>(u) Noninsured branch means a branch of a foreign bank deposits of which branch are not insured in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(v) OCC means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P>(w) Person means an individual, bank, corporation, partnership, trust, association, foundation, joint venture, pool, syndicate, sole proprietorship, unincorporated organization, or any other form of entity.
</P>
<P>(x) Significant risk to the deposit insurance fund shall be understood to be present whenever there is a high probability that the Deposit Insurance Fund administered by the FDIC may suffer a loss.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Standard maximum deposit insurance amount,</I> referred to as the “SMDIA” hereafter, means $250,000 adjusted pursuant to subparagraph (F) of section 11(a)(1) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)(F)).
</P>
<P>(z) State means any state of the United States or the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(aa) State branch means a branch of a foreign bank established and operating under the laws of any state.
</P>
<P>(bb) Wholly owned subsidiary means a company the voting stock of which is 100 percent owned or controlled by another company except for a nominal number of directors' shares. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 74 FR 47718, Sept. 17, 2009; 75 FR 49365, Aug. 13, 2010; 83 FR 9143, Mar. 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.203" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.203   Deposit insurance required for all branches of foreign banks engaged in domestic retail deposit activity in the same State.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC will not insure deposits in any branch of a foreign bank unless the foreign bank agrees that every branch established or operated by the foreign bank in the same state that engages in domestic retail deposit activity will be an insured branch. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.204" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.204   Commitment to be examined and provide information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In connection with an application for deposit insurance for a U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary of a foreign bank that has been determined to be subject to comprehensive consolidated supervision by the appropriate Federal banking agency, as defined in section 3(q) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), the foreign bank shall provide binding written commitments (including a consent to U.S. jurisdiction and designation of agent for service, acceptable to the FDIC) to the following terms:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC will be provided with any information about the foreign bank and its affiliates located outside of the United States that the FDIC requests to determine:
</P>
<P>(i) The relationship between the U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary and its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The effect of such relationship on such U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC will be allowed to examine the affairs of any office, agency, branch or affiliate of the foreign bank located in the United States and will be provided any information requested to determine:
</P>
<P>(i) The relationship between the U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary and such offices, agencies, branches or affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The effect of such relationship on such U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC will not process a deposit insurance application for any U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary of a foreign bank if the foreign bank fails to provide the written commitments, consent to U.S. jurisdiction, and designation of agent for service required by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC will consider the existence and extent of any prohibition or restrictions, if any, on its ability to utilize the commitments, consent to U.S. jurisdiction, and designation of agent for service required by this section, in determining whether to grant or deny a deposit insurance application for the U.S. branch or depository institution subsidiary of the foreign bank. In addition, the FDIC may consider any additional assurances or commitments provided by the foreign bank, including that it will cooperate and assist the FDIC, without limitation, by seeking to obtain waivers and exemptions from applicable confidentiality or secrecy restrictions or requirements to enable the foreign bank or its affiliates to make information about the foreign bank and its affiliates located outside of the United States available to the FDIC for review.
</P>
<P>(c) The foreign bank's commitments, consent to U.S. jurisdiction, and designation of agent for service shall be signed by an officer of the foreign bank who has been so authorized by the foreign bank's board of directors and in all instances will be executed in a manner acceptable to the FDIC and shall be included with the branch or depository institution application for insurance. Any documents that are not in English shall be accompanied by an English translation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.205" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.205   Record maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>The records of each insured branch shall be kept as though it were a separate entity, with its assets and liabilities separate from the other operations of the head office, other branches or agencies of the foreign bank and its subsidiaries or affiliates. Each insured branch must keep a set of accounts and records in the words and figures of the English language that accurately reflects the business transactions of the insured branch on a daily basis. A foreign bank that has more than one insured branch in a state may treat such insured branches as one entity for record-keeping purposes and may designate one branch to maintain records for all the branches in the state. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.206" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.206   Domestic retail deposit activity requiring deposit insurance by U.S. branch of a foreign bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Domestic retail deposit activity.</I> To initiate or conduct domestic retail deposit activity requiring deposit insurance protection in any state after December 19, 1991, a foreign bank must establish one or more insured U.S. bank subsidiaries for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any bank organized under the laws of any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, or the Virgin Islands the deposits of which are insured by the FDIC pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grandfathered insured branches.</I> Domestic retail accounts with balances of less than an amount equal to the SMDIA that require deposit insurance protection may be accepted or maintained in an insured branch of a foreign bank only if such branch was an insured branch on December 19, 1991
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in ownership of grandfathered insured branch.</I> The grandfathered status of an insured branch may not be transferred, except in certain merger and acquisition transactions that the FDIC determines are not designed, or motivated by the desire, to avoid compliance with section 6(d)(1) of the International Banking Act (12 U.S.C. 3104(d)(1)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 47718, Sept. 17, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.207" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.207   Disclosure of supervisory information to foreign supervisors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure by the FDIC.</I> The FDIC may disclose information obtained in the course of exercising its supervisory or examination authority to a foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority, if the FDIC determines that disclosure is appropriate for bank supervisory or regulatory purposes and will not prejudice the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidentiality.</I> Before making any disclosure of information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the FDIC will obtain, to the extent necessary, the agreement of the foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority to maintain the confidentiality of such information to the extent possible under applicable law. The disclosure or transfer of information to a foreign bank regulatory or supervisory authority under this section will not waive any privilege applicable to the information that is disclosed or transferred. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.208" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.208   Assessment base deductions by insured branch.</HEAD>
<P>Deposits in an insured branch to the credit of the foreign bank or any of its offices, branches, agencies, or wholly owned subsidiaries may be deducted from the assessment base of the insured branch.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.209" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.209   Pledge of assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> A foreign bank that has an insured branch must pledge assets for the benefit of the FDIC or its designee(s). Whenever the FDIC is obligated under section 11(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(f)) to pay the insured deposits of an insured branch, the assets pledged under this section must become the property of the FDIC and be used to the extent necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of assets to be pledged.</I> (1) For a newly insured branch, a foreign bank must pledge assets equal to at least 5 percent of the liabilities of the branch, based on the branch's projection of its liabilities at the end of each of the first three years of operations. For all other insured branches, a foreign bank must pledge assets equal to the appropriate percentage applicable to the insured branch, as determined by reference to the risk-based assessment schedule contained in this paragraph, of the insured branch's average liabilities for the last 30 days of the most recent calendar quarter. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> This average must be computed by using the sum of the close of business figures for the 30 calendar days of the most recent calendar quarter, ending with and including the last day of the calendar quarter, divided by 30. For days on which the branch is closed, however, balances from the previous business day are to be used in determining its average liabilities. In determining its average liabilities, the insured branch may exclude liabilities to other offices, agencies, branches, and wholly owned subsidiaries of the foreign bank. The value of the pledged assets must be computed based on the lesser of the principal amount (par value) or market value of such assets at the time of the original pledge and thereafter as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-based assessment schedule.</I> The risk-based asset pledge required by paragraph (b)(1) will be determined by utilizing the following risk-based assessment schedule: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Asset maintenance level 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Supervisory risk subgroup 
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A (%) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B (%) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C (%) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equal to or greater than 108%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equal to or greater than 106%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 106%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The appropriate asset pledge percentage will be determined based on the supervisory risk subgroup and asset maintenance level applicable to the insured branch.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Supervisory risk factors.</I> For purposes of this section, within each asset maintenance group, each institution will be assigned to one of three subgroups based on consideration by the FDIC of supervisory evaluations provided by the primary federal regulator for the insured branch. The supervisory evaluations include the results of examination findings by the primary federal regulator, as well as other information the primary federal regulator determines to be relevant. In addition, the FDIC will take into consideration such other information (such as state examination findings, if appropriate) as it determines to be relevant to the financial condition and the risk posed to the Deposit Insurance Fund. The three supervisory subgroups are:
</P>
<P>(i) Subgroup “A”. This subgroup consists of financially sound institutions with only a few minor weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subgroup “B”. This subgroup consists of institutions that demonstrate weaknesses which, if not corrected, could result in significant deterioration of the institution and increased risk of loss to the deposit insurance fund; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Subgroup “C”. This subgroup consists of institutions that pose a substantial probability of loss to the deposit insurance fund.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC may require a foreign bank to pledge additional assets or to compute its pledge on a daily basis whenever the FDIC determines that the condition of the foreign bank or the insured branch is such that the assets pledged under this section will not adequately protect the deposit insurance fund. In requiring a foreign bank to pledge additional assets, the FDIC will consult with the primary regulator for the insured branch. Among the factors to be considered in imposing these requirements are the concentration of risk to any one borrower or group of related borrowers, the concentration of transfer risk related to any one country, including the country in which the foreign bank's head office is located or any other factor the FDIC determines is relevant.
</P>
<P>(5) Each insured branch must separately comply with the requirements of this section. A foreign bank which has more than one insured branch in a state may, however, treat all of its insured branches in the same state as one entity and will designate one insured branch to be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Depository.</I> A foreign bank must place pledged assets for safekeeping at any depository which is located in any state. However, a depository may not be an affiliate of the foreign bank whose insured branch is seeking to use the depository. A foreign bank must obtain the FDIC's prior written approval of the depository selected, and such approval may be revoked and dismissal of the depository required whenever the depository does not fulfill any one of its obligations under the pledge agreement. A foreign bank shall appoint and constitute the depository as its attorney in fact for the sole purpose of transferring title to pledged assets to the FDIC as may be required to effectuate the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assets that may be pledged.</I> (1) This paragraph sets forth the kinds of assets that may be pledged to satisfy the requirements of this section. A foreign bank shall be deemed to have pledged any such assets for the benefit of the FDIC or its designee at such time as any such asset is placed with the depository. The FDIC reserves the right to require the substitution of pledged assets with other assets deemed acceptable to the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank may pledge the kinds of assets set forth in this paragraph (d)(2), provided that: Such assets are denominated in United States dollars; such assets are investment grade, as that term is defined in § 347.202(r); and such assets are highly liquid, as that term is defined in § 347.202(l). Furthermore, for the purposes of calculating the amount of assets required to be pledged under paragraph (b) of this section, the assets that are eligible for pledging under this paragraph (d)(2) must be discounted at the rates set forth in Table 1 to § 347.209.
</P>
<P>(i) Cash;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treasury bills, interest bearing bonds, notes, debentures, or other direct obligations of or obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States or any agency thereof;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obligations of United States government-sponsored enterprises;
</P>
<P>(iv) Negotiable certificates of deposit that are payable in the United States and that are issued by any state bank, national bank, state or federal savings association, or branch of a foreign bank which has executed a valid waiver of offset agreement or similar debt instruments that are payable in the United States and that are issued by any agency of a foreign bank which has executed a valid waiver of offset agreement; provided, that the maturity of any certificate or issuance is not greater than one year; and provided further, that the issuing branch or agency of a foreign bank is not an affiliate of the pledging bank or from the same country as the pledging bank's domicile;
</P>
<P>(v) Obligations of the African Development Bank, Asian Development Bank, Inter-American Development Bank, and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development;
</P>
<P>(vi) Commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(vii) Notes issued by bank and savings and loan holding companies, banks, or savings associations organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof or notes issued by branches or agencies of foreign banks, provided that the notes are payable in the United States, and provided further, that the issuing branch or agency of a foreign bank is not an affiliate of the pledging bank or from the same country as the pledging bank's domicile;
</P>
<P>(viii) Banker's acceptances that are payable in the United States and that are issued by any state bank, national bank, state or federal savings association, or branch or agency of a foreign bank; provided, that the maturity of any acceptance is not greater than 180 days; and provided further, that the branch or agency issuing the acceptance is not an affiliate of the pledging bank or from the same country as the pledging bank's domicile;
</P>
<P>(ix) General obligations of any state of the United States, or any county or municipality of any state of the United States, or any agency, instrumentality, or political subdivision of the foregoing or any obligation guaranteed by a state of the United States or any county or municipality of any state of the United States;
</P>
<P>(x) Any other asset determined by the FDIC to be acceptable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Pledge agreement.</I> A foreign bank shall not pledge any assets unless a pledge agreement in form and substance satisfactory to the FDIC has been executed by the foreign bank and the depository. The agreement, in addition to other terms not inconsistent with this paragraph (e), shall give effect to the following terms:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Original pledge.</I> The foreign bank shall place with the depository assets of the kind described in paragraph (d) of this section, having an aggregate value in the amount as required pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional assets required to be pledged.</I> Whenever the foreign bank is required to pledge additional assets for the benefit of the FDIC or its designees pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section, it shall deliver (within two business days after the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, unless otherwise ordered) additional assets of the kind described in paragraph (d) of this section, having an aggregate value in the amount required by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substitution of assets.</I> The foreign bank, at any time, may substitute any assets for pledged assets, and, upon such substitution, the depository shall promptly release any such assets to the foreign bank; provided, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign bank pledges assets of the kind described in paragraph (d) of this section having an aggregate value not less than the value of the pledged assets for which they are substituted and certified as such by the foreign bank; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC has not by written notification to the foreign bank, a copy of which shall be provided to the depository, suspended or terminated the foreign bank's right of substitution.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delivery of other documents.</I> Concurrently with the pledge of any assets, the foreign bank will deliver to the depository all documents and instruments necessary or advisable to effectuate the transfer of title to any such assets and thereafter, from time to time, at the request of the FDIC, deliver to the depository any such additional documents or instruments. The foreign bank shall provide copies of all such documents described in this paragraph (e)(4) to the appropriate regional director concurrently with their delivery to the depository.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Acceptance and safekeeping responsibilities of the depository.</I> (i) The depository will accept and hold any assets pledged by the foreign bank pursuant to the pledge agreement for safekeeping free and clear of any lien, charge, right of offset, credit, or preference in connection with any claim the depository may assert against the foreign bank and shall designate any such assets as a special pledge for the benefit of the FDIC or its designee. The depository shall not accept the pledge of any such assets unless, concurrently with such pledge, the foreign bank delivers to the depository the documents and instruments necessary for the transfer of title thereto as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The depository shall hold any such assets separate from all other assets of the foreign bank or the depository. Such assets may be held in book-entry form but must at all times be segregated on the records of the depository and clearly identified as assets subject to the pledge agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Reporting requirements of the insured branch and the depository</I>—(i) <I>Initial reports.</I> Upon the original pledge of assets as provided in paragraph (e)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The depository shall provide to the foreign bank and to the appropriate FDIC regional director a written report in the form of a receipt identifying each asset pledged and specifying in reasonable detail with respect to each such asset the complete title, interest rate, series, serial number (if any), principal amount (par value), maturity date and call date; and
</P>
<P>(B) The foreign bank shall provide to the appropriate regional director a written report certified as correct by the foreign bank which sets forth the value of each pledged asset and the aggregate value of all such assets, and which states that the aggregate value of all such assets is at least equal to the amount required pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section and that all such assets are of the kind described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quarterly reports.</I> Within ten calendar days after the end of the most recent calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The depository shall provide to the appropriate regional director a written report specifying in reasonable detail with respect to each asset currently pledged (including any asset pledged to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (b)(4) of this section and identified as such), as of two business days after the end of the most recent calendar quarter, the complete title, interest rate, series, serial number (if any), principal amount (par value), maturity date, and call date, provided, that if no substitution of any asset has occurred during the reporting period, the reporting need only specify that no substitution of assets has occurred; and
</P>
<P>(B) The foreign bank shall provide as of two business days after the end of the most recent calendar quarter to the appropriate regional director a written report certified as correct by the foreign bank which sets forth the value of each pledged asset and the aggregate value of all such assets, which states that the aggregate value of all such assets is at least equal to the amount required pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section and that all such assets are of the kind described in paragraph (d) of this section, and which states the average of the liabilities of each insured branch of the foreign bank computed in the manner and for the period prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional reports.</I> The foreign bank shall, from time to time, as may be required, provide to the appropriate regional director a written report in the form specified containing the information requested with respect to any asset then currently pledged.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Access to assets.</I> With respect to any asset pledged pursuant to the pledge agreement, the depository will provide representatives of the FDIC or the foreign bank with access (during regular business hours of the depository and at the location where any such asset is held, without other limitation or qualification) to all original instruments, documents, books, and records evidencing or pertaining to any such asset.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Release upon the order of the FDIC.</I> The depository shall release to the foreign bank any pledged assets, as specified in a written notification of the appropriate regional director, upon the terms and conditions provided in such notification, including without limitation the waiver of any requirement that any assets be pledged by the foreign bank in substitution of any released assets.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Release to the FDIC.</I> Whenever the FDIC is obligated under section 11(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act to pay insured deposits of an insured branch, the FDIC by written certification shall so inform the depository; and the depository, upon receipt of such certification, shall thereupon promptly release and transfer title to any pledged assets to the FDIC or release such assets to the foreign bank, as specified in the certification. Upon release and transfer of title to all pledged assets specified in the certification, the depository shall be discharged from any further obligation under the pledge agreement.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Interest earned on assets.</I> The foreign bank may retain any interest earned with respect to the assets currently pledged unless the FDIC by written notice prohibits retention of interest by the foreign bank, in which case the notice shall specify the disposition of any such interest.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Expenses of agreement.</I> The FDIC shall not be required to pay any fees, costs, or expenses for services provided by the depository to the foreign bank pursuant to, or in connection with, the pledge agreement.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Substitution of depository.</I> The depository may resign, or the foreign bank may discharge the depository, from its duties and obligations under the pledge agreement by giving at least 60 days' written notice thereof to the other party and to the appropriate regional director. The FDIC, upon 30 days' written notice to the foreign bank and the depository, may require the foreign bank to dismiss the depository if the FDIC in its discretion determines that the depository is in breach of the pledge agreement. The depository shall continue to function as such until the appointment of a successor depository becomes effective and the depository has released to the successor depository the pledged assets and documents and instruments to effectuate transfer of title in accordance with the written instructions of the foreign bank as approved by the FDIC. The appointment by the foreign bank of a successor depository shall not be effective until:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC has approved in writing the successor depository; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A pledge agreement in form and substance satisfactory to the FDIC has been executed.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Waiver of terms.</I> The FDIC may by written order waive compliance by the foreign bank or the depository with any term or condition of the pledge agreement.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 347.209—Supervisory Haircuts for Assets Pledged Under § 347.209(<E T="01">d</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Haircut % assigned based on maturity and risk weight
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Risk weight (%) by issuer as specified in part 324.32
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">0%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤to 1 Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;1 Year but ≤5 Years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 83 FR 9143, Mar. 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.210" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.210   Asset maintenance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An insured branch of a foreign bank shall maintain on a daily basis eligible assets in an amount not less than 106 percent of the preceding quarter's average book value of the insured branch's liabilities or, in the case of a newly-established insured branch, the estimated book value of its liabilities at the end of the first full quarter of operation, exclusive of liabilities due to the foreign bank's head office, other branches, agencies, offices, or wholly owned subsidiaries. The Director of the Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection or his designee may impose a computation of total liabilities on a daily basis in those instances where it is found necessary for supervisory purposes. The FDIC Board of Directors, after consulting with the insured branch's primary regulator, may require that a higher ratio of eligible assets be maintained if the financial condition of the insured branch warrants such action. Among the factors which will be considered in requiring a higher ratio of eligible assets are the concentration of risk to any one borrower or group of related borrowers, the concentration of transfer risk to any one country, including the country in which the foreign bank's head office is located or any other factor the FDIC determines is relevant. Eligible assets shall be payable in United States dollars.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining eligible assets for the purposes of compliance with paragraph (a) of this section, the insured branch shall exclude the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any asset due from the foreign bank's head office, or its other branches, agencies, offices or affiliates;
</P>
<P>(2) Any asset classified “Value Impaired,” to the extent of the required Allocated Transfer Risk Reserves or equivalent write down, or “Loss” in the most recent state or federal examination report;
</P>
<P>(3) Any deposit of the insured branch in a bank unless the bank has executed a valid waiver of offset agreement;
</P>
<P>(4) Any asset not supported by sufficient credit information to allow a review of the asset's credit quality, as determined at the most recent state or federal examination, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether an asset has sufficient credit information will be a function of the size of the borrower and the location within the foreign bank of the responsibility for authorizing and monitoring extensions of credit to the borrower. For large, well known companies, when credit responsibility is located in an office of the foreign bank outside the insured branch, the insured branch must have adequate documentation to show that the asset is of good quality and is being supervised adequately by the foreign bank. In such cases, copies of periodic memoranda that include an analysis of the borrower's recent financial statements and a report on recent developments in the borrower's operations and borrowing relationships with the foreign bank generally would constitute sufficient information. For other borrowers, periodic memoranda must be supplemented by information such as copies of recent financial statements, recent correspondence concerning the borrower's financial condition and repayment history, credit terms and collateral, data on any guarantors, and where necessary, the status of any corrective measures being employed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subsequent to the determination that an asset lacks sufficient credit information, an insured branch may not include the amount of that asset among eligible assets until the FDIC determines that sufficient documentation exists. Such a determination may be made either at the next federal examination, or upon request of the insured branch, by the appropriate regional director;
</P>
<P>(5) Any asset not in the insured branch's actual possession unless the insured branch holds title to such asset and the insured branch maintains records sufficient to enable independent verification of the insured branch's ownership of the asset, as determined at the most recent state or federal examination;
</P>
<P>(6) Any intangible asset;
</P>
<P>(7) Any other asset not considered bankable by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) A foreign bank which has more than one insured branch in a state may treat all of its insured branches in the same state as one entity for purposes of compliance with paragraph (a) of this section and shall designate one insured branch to be responsible for maintaining the records of the insured branches' compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The average book value of the insured branch's liabilities for a quarter shall be, at the insured branch's option, either an average of the balances as of the close of business for each day of the quarter or an average of the balances as of the close of business on each Wednesday during the quarter. Quarters end on March 31, June 30, September 30, and December 31 of any given year. For days on which the insured branch is closed, balances from the previous business day are to be used. Calculations of the average book value of the insured branch's liabilities for a quarter shall be retained by the insured branch until the next federal examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.211" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.211   Examination of branches of foreign banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Frequency of on-site examination.</I> Each branch or agency of a foreign bank shall be examined on-site at least once during each 12-month period (beginning on the date the most recent examination of the office ended) by:
</P>
<P>(1) The FRB;
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC, if an insured branch;
</P>
<P>(3) The OCC, if the branch or agency of the foreign bank is licensed by the OCC; or
</P>
<P>(4) The state supervisor, if the office of the foreign bank is licensed or chartered by the state.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>18-month cycle for certain small institutions</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory standards.</I> The FDIC may conduct a full-scope, on-site examination at least once during each 18-month period, rather than each 12-month period as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, if the insured branch:
</P>
<P>(i) Has total assets of less than $3 billion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has received a composite ROCA supervisory rating (which rates risk management, operational controls, compliance, and asset quality) of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination;
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the requirement of either the following paragraph (b)(iii)(A) or (B):
</P>
<P>(A) The foreign bank's most recently reported capital adequacy position consists of, or is equivalent to, Tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios of at least 6 percent and 10 percent, respectively, on a consolidated basis; or
</P>
<P>(B) The insured branch has maintained on a daily basis, over the past three quarters, eligible assets in an amount not less than 108 percent of the preceding quarter's average third party liabilities (determined consistent with applicable federal and state law) and sufficient liquidity is currently available to meet its obligations to third parties;
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not subject to a formal enforcement action or order by the FRB, FDIC, or the OCC; and
</P>
<P>(v) Has not experienced a change in control during the preceding 12-month period in which a full-scope, on-site examination would have been required but for this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discretionary standards.</I> In determining whether an insured branch that meets the standards of paragraph (b)(1) of this section should not be eligible for an 18-month examination cycle pursuant to this paragraph (b), the FDIC may consider additional factors, including whether:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the individual components of the ROCA supervisory rating of an insured branch is rated “3” or worse;
</P>
<P>(ii) The results of any off-site monitoring indicate a deterioration in the condition of the insured branch;
</P>
<P>(iii) The size, relative importance, and role of a particular insured branch when reviewed in the context of the foreign bank's entire U.S. operations otherwise necessitate an annual examination; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The condition of the parent foreign bank gives rise to such a need.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to conduct more frequent examinations.</I> Nothing in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section limits the authority of the FDIC to examine any insured branch as frequently as it deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) From December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, for purposes of determining eligibility for the extended examination cycle described in paragraph (b) of this section, the total assets of an insured branch shall be determined based on the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets of the insured branch as of December 31, 2019; and
</P>
<P>(2) The assets of the insured branch as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, as amended at 72 FR 17803, Apr. 10, 2007; 81 FR 10070, Feb. 29, 2016; 83 FR 43965, Aug. 29, 2018; 85 FR 77364, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.212" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.212   FDIC approval to conduct activities that are not permissible for federal branches.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> A foreign bank operating an insured state branch which desires to engage in or continue to engage in any type of activity that is not permissible for a federal branch, pursuant to the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 21 <I>et seq.</I>) or any other federal statute, regulation, official bulletin or circular, written order or interpretation, or decision of a court of competent jurisdiction, must file a written application for permission to conduct such activity with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> If the FDIC has already determined, pursuant to part 362 of this chapter, “Activities and Investment of Insured State Banks,” that an activity does not present a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund, no application is required under paragraph (a) of this section for a foreign bank operating an insured branch to engage or continue to engage in the same activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency activities.</I> A foreign bank operating an insured state branch is not required to submit an application pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section to engage in or continue engaging in an activity conducted as agent if the activity is:
</P>
<P>(1) permissible agency activity for a state-chartered bank located in the state which the state-licensed insured branch of the foreign bank is located;
</P>
<P>(2) permissible agency activity for a state-licensed branch of a foreign bank located in that state; and
</P>
<P>(3) permissible pursuant to any other applicable federal law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions of approval.</I> (1) Approval of such an application required by paragraph (a) of this section may be conditioned on the agreement by the foreign bank and its insured state branch to conduct the activity subject to specific limitations, which may include pledging of assets in excess of the asset pledge and asset maintenance requirements contained in §§ 347.209 and 347.210.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an application to initially engage in an activity, as opposed to an application to continue to conduct an activity, the insured state branch shall not commence the activity until it has been approved in writing by the FDIC pursuant to this part and the FRB, and any and all conditions imposed in such approvals have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Divestiture or cessation.</I> (1) If an application for permission to continue to conduct an activity is not approved by the FDIC or the FRB, the applicant shall submit a plan of divestiture or cessation of the activity to the appropriate regional director.
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank operating an insured state branch which elects not to apply to the FDIC for permission to continue to conduct an activity which is rendered impermissible by any change in statute, regulation, official bulletin or circular, written order or interpretation, or decision of a court of competent jurisdiction shall submit a plan of divestiture or cessation to the appropriate regional director.
</P>
<P>(3) All plans of divestitures or cessation required by this paragraph must be completed within one year from the date of the disapproval, or within such shorter period as the FDIC may direct.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures.</I> Procedures for applications under this section are set out in section 303.187.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.213" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.213   Establishment or operation of noninsured foreign branch.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A foreign bank may establish or operate a state branch, as provided by state law, without federal deposit insurance whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The branch only accepts initial deposits in an amount equal to the SMDIA or greater; or
</P>
<P>(2) The branch meets the criteria set forth in § 347.214 or § 347.215.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 47718, Sept. 17, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.214" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.214   Branch established under section 5 of the International Banking Act.</HEAD>
<P>A foreign bank may operate any state branch as a noninsured branch whenever the foreign bank has entered into an agreement with the FRB to accept at that branch only those deposits as would be permissible for a corporation organized under section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I>) and implementing rules and regulations administered by the FRB (12 CFR 211).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.215" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.215   Exemptions from deposit insurance requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deposit activities not requiring insurance.</I> A State branch will not be considered to be engaged in domestic retail deposit activity that requires the foreign bank parent to establish an insured U.S. bank subsidiary if the State branch accepts initial deposits only in an amount of less than an amount equal to the SMDIA that are derived solely from the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals who are not citizens or residents of the United States at the time of the initial deposit;
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not citizens of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are residents of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Are employed by a foreign bank, foreign business, foreign government, or recognized international organization;
</P>
<P>(3) Persons (including immediate family members of natural persons) to whom the branch or foreign bank (including any affiliate thereof) has extended credit or provided other nondeposit banking services within the past twelve months or has entered into a written agreement to provide such services within the next twelve months;
</P>
<P>(4) Foreign businesses, large United States businesses, and persons from whom an Edge or agreement corporation may accept deposits under 12 CFR 211.6(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(5) Any governmental unit, including the United States government, any state government, any foreign government and any political subdivision or agency of any of the foregoing, and recognized international organizations;
</P>
<P>(6) Persons who are depositing funds in connection with the issuance of a financial instrument by the branch for the transmission of funds or the transmission of such funds by any electronic means; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other depositor, but only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The branch's average deposits under this paragraph (a)(7) do not exceed one percent of the branch's average total deposits, as calculated under paragraph (a)(7)(ii) if this section (<I>de minimis</I> exception).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of calculating this exception:
</P>
<P>(A) The branch's average deposits under this paragraph and the average total deposits must be computed by summing the close of business figures for each of the last 30 calendar days, ending with and including the last day of the calendar quarter, and dividing the resulting sum by 30;
</P>
<P>(B) For days on which the branch is closed, balances from the last previous business day are to be used;
</P>
<P>(C) The branch may exclude deposits in the branch of other offices, branches, agencies or wholly owned subsidiaries of the bank to determine its average deposits;
</P>
<P>(D) The branch must not solicit deposits from the general public by advertising, display of signs, or similar activity designed to attract the attention of the general public; and
</P>
<P>(E) A foreign bank that has more than one state branch in the same state may aggregate deposits in such branches (excluding deposits of other branches, agencies or wholly owned subsidiaries of the bank) for the purpose of this paragraph (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application for an exemption.</I> (1) Whenever a foreign bank proposes to accept at a State branch initial deposits of less than an amount equal to the SMDIA and such deposits are not otherwise exempted under paragraph (a) of this section, the foreign bank may apply to the FDIC for consent to operate the branch as a noninsured branch. The Board of Directors may exempt the branch from the insurance requirement if the branch is not engaged in domestic retail deposit activities requiring insurance protection. The Board of Directors will consider the size and nature of depositors and deposit accounts, the importance of maintaining and improving the availability of credit to all sectors of the United States economy, including the international trade finance sector of the United States economy, whether the exemption would give the foreign bank an unfair competitive advantage over United States banking organizations, and any other relevant factors in making this determination.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for applications under this section are set out in § 303.186.
</P>
<P>(c) Transition period. A noninsured state branch may maintain a retail deposit lawfully accepted prior to April 1, 1996 pursuant to regulations in effect prior to July 1, 1998:
</P>
<P>(1) If the deposit qualifies pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the deposit does not qualify pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, in the case of a time deposit, no later than the first maturity date of the time deposit after April 1, 1996.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 47718, Sept. 17, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.216" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.216   Depositor notification.</HEAD>
<P>Any state branch that is exempt from the insurance requirement pursuant to § 347.215 shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Display conspicuously at each window or place where deposits are usually accepted a sign stating that deposits are not insured by the FDIC; and
</P>
<P>(b) Include in bold face conspicuous type on each signature card, passbook, and instrument evidencing a deposit the statement “This deposit is not insured by the FDIC”; or require each depositor to execute a statement which acknowledges that the initial deposit and all future deposits at the branch are not insured by the FDIC. This acknowledgment shall be retained by the branch so long as the depositor maintains any deposit with the branch. This provision applies to any negotiable certificates of deposit made in a branch on or after July 6, 1989, as well as to any renewals of such deposits which become effective on or after July 6, 1989.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—International Lending</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 347.301" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.301   Purpose, authority, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Under the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (Title IX, Pub. L. 98-181, 97 Stat. 1153) (12 U.S.C. 3901 <I>et seq.</I>) (ILSA), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation prescribes the regulations in this subpart relating to international lending activities of banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.302" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.302   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative cost</I> means those costs which are specifically identified with negotiating, processing and consummating the loan. These costs include, but are not necessarily limited to: legal fees; costs of preparing and processing loan documents; and an allocable portion of salaries and related benefits of employees engaged in the international lending function. No portion of supervisory and administrative expenses or other indirect expenses such as occupancy and other similar overhead costs shall be included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking institution</I> means an insured state nonmember bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International assets</I> means those assets required to be included in banking institutions' “Country Exposure Report” form (FFIEC No. 009).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>International loan</I> means a loan as defined in the instructions to the “Report of Condition and Income” for the respective banking institution (FFIEC Nos. 031, 032, 033 and 034) and made to a foreign government, or to an individual, a corporation, or other entity not a citizen of, resident in, or organized or incorporated in the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Restructured international loan</I> means a loan that meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower is unable to service the existing loan according to its terms and is a resident of a foreign country in which there is a generalized inability of public and private sector obligors to meet their external debt obligations on a timely basis because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country; and
</P>
<P>(2) Either:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the existing loan are amended to reduce stated interest or extend the schedule of payments; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A new loan is made to, or for the benefit of, the borrower, enabling the borrower to service or refinance the existing debt.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Transfer risk</I> means the possibility that an asset cannot be serviced in the currency of payment because of a lack of, or restraints on the availability of, needed foreign exchange in the country of the obligor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.303" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.303   Allocated transfer risk reserve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment of Allocated Transfer Risk Reserve.</I> A banking institution shall establish an allocated transfer risk reserve (ATRR) for specified international assets when required by the FDIC in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and standards</I>—(1) <I>Joint agency determination.</I> At least annually, the federal banking agencies shall determine jointly, based on the standards set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Which international assets subject to transfer risk warrant establishment of an ATRR;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the ATRR for the specified assets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether an ATRR established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for requiring ATRR</I>—(i) <I>Evaluation of assets.</I> The federal banking agencies shall apply the following criteria in determining whether an ATRR is required for particular international assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the quality of a banking institution's assets has been impaired by a protracted inability of public or private obligors in a foreign country to make payments on their external indebtedness as indicated by such factors, among others, as whether:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such obligors have failed to make full interest payments on external indebtedness; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such obligors have failed to comply with the terms of any restructured indebtedness; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A foreign country has failed to comply with any International Monetary Fund or other suitable adjustment program; or
</P>
<P>(B) Whether no definite prospects exist for the orderly restoration of debt service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Determination of amount of ATRR.</I> (A) In determining the amount of the ATRR, the federal banking agencies shall consider:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The length of time the quality of the asset has been impaired;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Recent actions taken to restore debt service capability;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prospects for restored asset quality; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Such other factors as the federal banking agencies may consider relevant to the quality of the asset.
</P>
<P>(B) The initial year's provision for the ATRR shall be ten percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the federal banking agencies. Additional provision, if any, for the ATRR in subsequent years shall be fifteen percent of the principal amount of each specified international asset, or such greater or lesser percentage determined by the federal banking agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FDIC notification.</I> Based on the joint agency determinations under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the FDIC shall notify each banking institution holding assets subject to an ATRR:
</P>
<P>(i) Of the amount of the ATRR to be established by the institution for specified international assets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That an ATRR established for specified assets may be reduced.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accounting treatment of ATRR</I>—(1) <I>Charge to current income.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR by a charge to current income and the amounts so charged shall not be included in the banking institution's capital or surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate accounting.</I> A banking institution shall account for an ATRR separately from the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable, and shall deduct the ATRR from “gross loans and leases” to arrive at “net loans and lease.” The ATRR must be established for each asset subject to the ATRR in the percentage amount specified.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consolidation.</I> A banking institution shall establish an ATRR, as required, on a consolidated basis. For banks, consolidation should be in accordance with the procedures and tests of significance set forth in the instructions for preparation of Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (FFIEC Nos. 031, 032, 033 and 034).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative accounting treatment.</I> A banking institution need not establish an ATRR if it writes down in the period in which the ATRR is required, or has written down in prior periods, the value of the specified international assets in the requisite amount for each such asset. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(4), international assets may be written down by a charge to the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable, or a reduction in the principal amount of the asset by application of interest payments or other collections on the asset; provided, that only those international assets that may be charged to the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable, pursuant to U.S. generally accepted accounting principles may be written down by a charge to the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable. However, the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses or allowance for credit losses, as applicable, must be replenished in such amount necessary to restore it to a level which adequately provides for the estimated losses inherent in the banking institution's loan and lease portfolio.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Reduction of ATRR.</I> A banking institution may reduce an ATRR when notified by the FDIC or, at any time, by writing down such amount of the international asset for which the ATRR was established.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 17560, Apr. 6, 2005; 70 FR 20704, Apr. 21, 2005, as amended at 84 FR 4249, Feb. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.304" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.304   Accounting for fees on international loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions on fees for restructured international loans.</I> No banking institution shall charge, in connection with the restructuring of an international loan, any fee exceeding the administrative cost of the restructuring unless it amortizes the amount of the fee exceeding the administrative cost over the effective life of the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting treatment.</I> Subject to paragraph (a) of this section, banking institutions shall account for fees on international loans in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 347.305" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 347.305   Reporting and disclosure of international assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) Pursuant to section 907(a) of ILSA, a banking institution shall submit to the FDIC, at least quarterly, information regarding the amounts and composition of its holdings of international assets.
</P>
<P>(2) Pursuant to section 907(b) of ILSA, a banking institution shall submit to the FDIC information regarding concentrations in its holdings of international assets that are material in relation to total assets and to capital of the institution, such information to be made publicly available by the FDIC on request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> The format, content and reporting and filing dates of the reports required under paragraph (a) of this section shall be determined jointly by the federal banking agencies. The requirements to be prescribed by the federal banking agencies may include changes to existing forms (such as revisions to the Country Exposure Report, Form FFIEC No. 009) or such other requirements as the federal banking agencies deem appropriate. The federal banking agencies also may determine to exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section banking institutions that, in the federal banking agencies' judgment, have <I>de minimis</I> holdings of international assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of Authority.</I> Nothing contained in this subpart shall preclude the FDIC from requiring from a banking institution such additional or more frequent information on the institution's holdings of international assets as the agency may consider necessary.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="348" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 348—MANAGEMENT OFFICIAL INTERLOCKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3207, 12 U.S.C. 1823(k).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 79252, Dec. 21, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 348.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (Interlocks Act) (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the Interlocks Act and this part is to foster competition by generally prohibiting a management official from serving two nonaffiliated depository organizations in situations where the management interlock likely would have an anticompetitive effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to management officials of FDIC-supervised institutions and their affiliates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.2   Other definitions and rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term affiliate has the meaning given in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201). For purposes of section 202, shares held by an individual include shares held by members of his or her immediate family. “Immediate family” means spouse, mother, father, child, grandchild, sister, brother or any of their spouses, whether or not any of their shares are held in trust.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(3)(B) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(3)(B)), an affiliate relationship involving an FDIC-supervised institution based on common ownership does not exist if the FDIC determines, after giving the affected persons the opportunity to respond, that the asserted affiliation was established in order to avoid the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act and does not represent a true commonality of interest between the depository organizations. In making this determination, the FDIC considers, among other things, whether a person, including members of his or her immediate family whose shares are necessary to constitute the group, owns a nominal percentage of the shares of one of the organizations and the percentage is substantially disproportionate to that person's ownership of shares in the other organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the metropolitan statistical area (MSA), if a depository organization is located in an MSA; or
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a depository organization is located outside an MSA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community</I> means a city, town, or village, and contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages</I> means cities, towns, or villages whose borders touch each other or whose borders are within 10 road miles of each other at their closest points. The property line of an office located in an unincorporated city, town, or village is the boundary line of that city, town, or village for the purpose of this definition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository holding company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company (as more fully defined in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201)) having its principal office located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depository institution</I> means a commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union, chartered under the laws of the United States and having a principal office located in the United States. Additionally, a United States office, including a branch or agency, of a foreign commercial bank is a depository institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution affiliate</I> means a depository institution that is an affiliate of a depository organization.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depository organization</I> means a depository institution or a depository holding company.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means either an insured state nonmember bank or a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Low- and moderate-income areas</I> means census tracts (or, if an area is not in a census tract, block numbering areas delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census) where the median family income is less than 100 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Management official.</I> (1) The term <I>management official</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A director;
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory or honorary director of a depository institution with total assets of $100 million or more;
</P>
<P>(iii) A senior executive officer as that term is defined in 12 CFR 303.101(b).
</P>
<P>(iv) A branch manager;
</P>
<P>(v) A trustee of a depository organization under the control of trustees; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person who has a representative or nominee serving in any of the capacities in this paragraph (j)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>management official</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose management functions relate exclusively to the business of retail merchandising or manufacturing;
</P>
<P>(ii) A person whose management functions relate principally to the business outside the United States of a foreign commercial bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A person described in the provisos of section 202(4) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(4)) (referring to an officer of a State-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or trust company that neither makes real estate mortgage loans nor accepts savings).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Office</I> means a principal or branch office of a depository institution located in the United States. Office does not include a representative office of a foreign commercial bank, an electronic terminal, or a loan production office.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Relevant metropolitan statistical area (RMSA)</I> means an MSA, a primary MSA, or a consolidated MSA that is not comprised of designated Primary MSAs to the extent that these terms are defined and applied by the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Representative or nominee</I> means a natural person who serves as a management official and has an obligation to act on behalf of another person with respect to management responsibilities. The FDIC will find that a person has an obligation to act on behalf of another person only if the first person has an agreement, express or implied, to act on behalf of the second person with respect to management responsibilities. The FDIC will determine, after giving the affected persons an opportunity to respond, whether a person is a <I>representative or nominee.</I>
</P>
<P>(p) <I>State savings association</I> has the same meaning as in section (3)(b)(3) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Total assets.</I> (1) The term <I>total assets</I> includes assets measured on a consolidated basis and reported in the most recent fiscal year-end Consolidated Report of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>total assets</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Assets of a diversified savings and loan holding company as defined by section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of a bank holding company that are exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 pursuant to an order issued under section 4(d) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(d)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Assets of offices of a foreign commercial bank other than the assets of its United States branch or agency.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Temporary relief for 2020 and 2021.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (q)(1) of this section, from December 2, 2020, through December 31, 2021, except as provided in paragraph (q)(3)(ii) of this section, the term <I>total assets,</I> with respect to a depository organization, means the lesser of assets of the depository organization reported on a consolidated basis as of December 31, 2019, and assets reported on a consolidated basis as of December 31, 2020.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The temporary relief provided under this paragraph (q)(3)(i) of this section does not apply to an FDIC-supervised institution if the FDIC determines that permitting the FDIC-supervised institution to determine its assets in accordance with that paragraph would not be commensurate with the risk posed by the institution. When making this determination, the FDIC will consider all relevant factors, including the extent of asset growth of the FDIC-supervised institution since December 31, 2019; the causes of such growth, including whether growth occurred as a result of mergers or acquisitions; whether such growth is likely to be temporary or permanent; whether the FDIC-supervised institution has become involved in any additional activities since December 31, 2019; and the type of assets held by the FDIC-supervised institution.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>United States</I> means the United States of America, any State or territory of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 79252, Dec. 21, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 77364, Dec. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.3   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same community.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RMSA.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same RMSA and each depository organization has total assets of $50 million or more.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major assets.</I> A management official of a depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization) may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization with total assets exceeding $10 billion (or any affiliate of such an organization), regardless of the location of the two depository organizations. The FDIC will adjust these thresholds, as necessary, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for the Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, with rounding to the nearest $100 million. The FDIC will announce the revised thresholds by publishing a final rule without notice and comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 79252, Dec. 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 54472, Oct. 10, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.4   Interlocking relationships permitted by statute.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions of § 348.3 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof:
</P>
<P>(a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function;
</P>
<P>(b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.,</I> respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations);
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union;
</P>
<P>(d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation;
</P>
<P>(f) A Federal Home Loan bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies;
</P>
<P>(g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired;
</P>
<P>(h) A savings association whose acquisition has been authorized on an emergency basis in accordance with section 13(k) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)) with resulting dual service by a management official that would otherwise be prohibited under the Interlocks Act which may continue for up to 10 years from the date of the acquisition provided that the FDIC has given its approval for the continuation of such service;
</P>
<P>(i)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F))) with respect to the service of a director of such company who is also a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if:
</P>
<P>(i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that:
</P>
<P>(i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (i) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period.
</P>
<P>(j) Any FDIC-supervised institution which is a State savings association that has issued stock in connection with a qualified stock issuance pursuant to section 10(q) of the Home Owners' Loan Act, except that this paragraph (j) shall apply only with regard to service as a single management official of such State savings association or any subsidiary of such State savings association by a single management official of a savings and loan holding company which purchased the stock issued in connection with such qualified stock issuance, and shall apply only when the FDIC has determined that such service is consistent with the purposes of the Interlocks Act and the Home Owners' Loan Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 79252, Dec. 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 2706, Feb. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.5   Small market share exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A management interlock that is prohibited by § 348.3 is permissible, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The interlock is not prohibited by § 348.3(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The depository organizations (and their depository institution affiliates) hold, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the deposits in each RMSA or community in which both depository organizations (or their depository institution affiliates) have offices. The amount of deposits shall be determined by reference to the most recent annual Summary of Deposits published by the FDIC for the RMSA or community.
</P>
<P>(b) Confirmation and records. Each depository organization must maintain records sufficient to support its determination of eligibility for the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, and must reconfirm that determination on an annual basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.6   General exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> The FDIC may by agency order exempt an interlock from the prohibitions in § 348.3 if the FDIC finds that the interlock would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition and would not present safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> In reviewing an application for an exemption under this section, the FDIC will apply a rebuttable presumption that an interlock will not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition if the depository organization seeking to add a management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily serves low- and moderate-income areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Is controlled or managed by persons who are members of a minority group, or women;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a depository institution that has been chartered for less than two years; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is deemed to be in “troubled condition” as defined in § 303.101(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> Unless a shorter expiration period is provided in the FDIC approval, an exemption permitted by paragraph (a) of this section may continue so long as it does not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, or is unsafe or unsound. If the FDIC grants an interlock exemption in reliance upon a presumption under paragraph (b) of this section, the interlock may continue for three years, unless otherwise provided by the FDIC in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures.</I> Procedures for applying for an exemption under this section are set forth in 12 CFR 303.249.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.7   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A management official shall terminate his or her service or apply for an exemption if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the FDIC-supervised institution involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. The FDIC may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 348.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 348.8   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, the FDIC administers and enforces the Interlocks Act with respect to FDIC-supervised institutions and their affiliates and may refer any case of a prohibited interlocking relationship involving these entities to the Attorney General of the United States to enforce compliance with the Interlocks Act and this part. If an affiliate of an FDIC-supervised institution is subject to the primary regulation of another federal depository organization supervisory agency, then the FDIC does not administer and enforce the Interlocks Act with respect to that affiliate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="349" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 349—DERIVATIVES
</HEAD>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Margin and Capital Requirements for Covered Swap Entities</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), and 12 U.S.C. 1818 and 12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth), 12 U.S.C.1813(q), 1818, 1819, and 3108.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 349.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.1   Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), and section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the FDIC to establish capital and margin requirements for any FDIC-insured state-chartered bank that is not a member of the Federal Reserve System or FDIC-insured state-chartered savings association that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statutes and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this subpart with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This subpart applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this subpart is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 45.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security-based swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 349.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this subpart on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin and § 349.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 349.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 349.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this subpart with respect to that counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this subpart (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Legacy swaps.</I> Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this subpart if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The swap was originally entered into, booked at, or otherwise held at, an entity located in the United Kingdom before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:
</P>
<P>(A) A covered swap entity, or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section; subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply [to] the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap or non-cleared swap;
</P>
<P>(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:
</P>
<P>(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);
</P>
<P>(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swap[s] or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.
</P>
<P>(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or
</P>
<P>(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50812, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9949, Mar. 19, 2019; 85 FR 39469, 39775, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> A company is an affiliate of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on FDIC's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Covered swap entity</I> means any FDIC-insured state-chartered bank that is not a member of the Federal Reserve System or FDIC-insured state-chartered savings association that is a swap entity, or any other entity that the FDIC determines.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P><I>Currency of settlement</I> means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.
</P>
<P><I>Day of execution</I> means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral described in § 349.6.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, Subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of Title 12, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Financial end user</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange forward</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin</I> means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 349.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin collection amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 349.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin model</I> means an internal risk management model that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been approved by the FDIC pursuant to § 349.8.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin threshold amount</I> means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 349.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Major currency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) United States Dollar (USD);
</P>
<P>(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);
</P>
<P>(3) Euro (EUR);
</P>
<P>(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);
</P>
<P>(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);
</P>
<P>(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);
</P>
<P>(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);
</P>
<P>(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);
</P>
<P>(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);
</P>
<P>(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);
</P>
<P>(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or
</P>
<P>(12) Any other currency as determined by the FDIC.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means initial margin and variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Market intermediary</I> means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P><I>Material swaps exposure</I> for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 349.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FDIC determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared swap</I> means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared security-based swap</I> means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Prudential regulator</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P><I>Security-based swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a subsidiary of another company if<I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on FDIC's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).
</P>
<P><I>Swap entity</I> means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50812, Oct. 10, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.3   Initial margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap <I>less</I> the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 349.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.4   Variation margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 349.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Netting arrangements.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § 349.3 using an initial margin model as described in § 349.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 349.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this subpart on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 349.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this subpart and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 349.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 349.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this subpart. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 349.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this subpart to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this subpart to post margin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum transfer amount.</I> Notwithstanding § 349.3 or § 349.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this subpart with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this subpart to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</I> A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 349.3, § 349.4, or § 349.6(e) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity has:
</P>
<P>(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of the FDIC that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.6   Eligible collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this subpart solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to initial margin only:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 349.12;
</P>
<P>(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the FDIC; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 349.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Gold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this subpart solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 349.12;
</P>
<P>(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the terms of 12 CFR 1.2(d) and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the FDIC; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 349.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(10) Gold.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this subpart is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this subpart does not include a security issued by:
</P>
<P>(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).
</P>
<P>(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this subpart. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this subpart. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 349.3(d) or § 349.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this subpart in any form of collateral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.7   Segregation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 349.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 349.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 349.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 349.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 349.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 349.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this subpart would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 349.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 349.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this subpart would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 349.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.8   Initial margin models and standardized amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized amounts.</I> Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 349.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of initial margin models.</I> A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 349.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for initial margin model.</I> (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of the FDIC before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered swap entity must notify the FDIC in writing 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that the FDIC has approved under this section to an additional product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by the FDIC under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.
</P>
<P>(4) The FDIC may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if the FDIC determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative requirements.</I> (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.
</P>
<P>(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.
</P>
<P>(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.
</P>
<P>(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.
</P>
<P>(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the FDIC that such omission is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the FDIC that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.
</P>
<P>(15) The FDIC may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if the FDIC determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic review.</I> A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.
</P>
<P>(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify the FDIC of the problems, describe to the FDIC any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.
</P>
<P>(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.9   Cross-border application of margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions to which this rule does not apply.</I> The requirements of §§ 349.3 through 349.8 and §§ 349.10 through 349.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign non-cleared swap</I> or <I>foreign non-cleared security-based swap</I> is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign covered swap entity</I> is any covered swap entity that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply</I>—(1) <I>Determinations and reliance.</I> For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this subpart by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 349.3 through 349.8 and §§ 349.10 through 349.12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard.</I> In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this subpart and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance.</I> A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement.</I> A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 349.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for determinations.</I> (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:
</P>
<P>(A) The scope of transactions covered;
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;
</P>
<P>(C) The timing of margin requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) Any documentation requirements;
</P>
<P>(E) The forms of eligible collateral;
</P>
<P>(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Segregation unavailable.</I> Sections ____.3(b) and ____.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 349.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 349.7;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 349.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 349.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 349.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 349.6(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) The FDIC provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarantee</I> means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) is not subject to the requirements of § 349.3(a) or § 349.11 for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in § 349.11(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39775, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.10   Documentation of margin matters.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this subpart, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 349.3 or § 349.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and
</P>
<P>(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39775, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.11   Special rules for affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 349.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 349.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 45.3(c), until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or
</P>
<P>(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 349.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (a), “tier 1 capital” means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 324.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 324.20(c), as reported in the institution's most recent Consolidated Reports of Income and Condition (Call Report); and
</P>
<P>(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 349.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 349.3(a) from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 349.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 349.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An affiliate as defined in § 349.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>subsidiary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 349.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39776, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.12   Capital.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall comply with the capital requirements that are applicable to the covered swap entity under part 324 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.13.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 349—Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non—cleared Security-based Swaps

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non-cleared Security-Based Swaps
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gross initial margin
<br/>(% of notional exposure)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Exchange/Currency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">where;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.1.1.13.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart A of Part 349—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 349.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Retail Foreign Exchange Transactions</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C.1813(q), 1818, 1819, and 3108; 7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E), 27 <I>et seq.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 349.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.13   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that engages in retail forex transactions shall comply with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes rules applicable to retail forex transactions engaged in by FDIC-supervised insured depository institutions and applies on or after the effective date.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, this part applies to FDIC-supervised insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International applicability.</I> Sections 349.15 and 349.17 through 349.28 do not apply to retail foreign exchange transactions between a foreign branch of an FDIC-supervised IDI and a non-U.S. customer. With respect to those transactions, an FDIC-supervised IDI must comply with any disclosure, recordkeeping, capital, margin, reporting, business conduct, documentation, and other requirements of applicable foreign law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.14   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part—
</P>
<P>The following terms have the same meaning as in the Commodity Exchange Act: “Affiliated person of a futures commission merchant”; “Associated person”; “Contract of sale”; “Commodity”; “Eligible contract participant”; “Futures commission merchant”; “Security”; and “Security futures product”.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in § 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>FDIC-supervised insured depository institution</I> means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to § 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Forex</I> means foreign exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Institution-affiliated party</I> or <I>IAP</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(u)(1), (2), or (3).
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> or <I>IDI</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Introducing broker</I> means any person who solicits or accepts orders from a retail forex customer in connection with retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Related person,</I> when used in reference to a retail forex counterparty, means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any general partner, officer, director, or owner of ten percent or more of the capital stock of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) An associated person or employee of the retail forex counterparty, if the retail forex counterparty is not an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(3) An IAP, if the retail forex counterparty is an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any relative or spouse of any of the foregoing persons, or any relative of such spouse, who shares the same home as any of the foregoing persons.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex account</I> means the account of a retail forex customer, established with an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution, in which retail forex transactions with the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution as counterparty are undertaken, or the account of a retail forex customer that is established in order to enter into such transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex account agreement</I> means the contractual agreement between an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution and a retail forex customer that contains the terms governing the customer's retail forex account with the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex business</I> means engaging in one or more retail forex transactions with the intent to derive income from those transactions, either directly or indirectly.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex counterparty</I> includes, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A retail foreign exchange dealer;
</P>
<P>(3) A futures commission merchant; and
</P>
<P>(4) An affiliated person of a futures commission merchant.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex customer</I> means a customer that is not an eligible contract participant, acting on his, her, or its own behalf and engaging in retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex obligations</I> means obligations of a retail forex customer with respect to retail forex transactions, including, but not limited to, trading losses, fees, and commissions.
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex proprietary account</I> means: a retail forex account carried on the books of an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution for one of the following persons; a retail forex account of which 10 percent or more is owned by one of the following persons; or a retail forex account of which an aggregate of 10 percent or more of which is owned by more than one of the following persons:
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) An officer, director or owner of ten percent or more of the capital stock of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) An employee of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution, whose duties include:
</P>
<P>(i) The management of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's business;
</P>
<P>(ii) The handling of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's retail forex transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) The keeping of records, including without limitation the software used to make or maintain those records, pertaining to the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's retail forex transactions; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The signing or co-signing of checks or drafts on behalf of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(4) A spouse or minor dependent living in the same household as of any of the foregoing persons; or
</P>
<P>(5) An affiliate of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex transaction</I> means an agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency, other than an identified banking product or a part of an identified banking product, that is offered or entered into by FDIC-supervised insured depository institution with a person that is not an eligible contract participant and that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract;
</P>
<P>(2) An option, other than an option executed or traded on a national securities exchange registered pursuant to § 6(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78(f)(a)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Offered or entered into on a leveraged or margined basis, or financed by an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution, its affiliate, or any person acting in concert with the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or its affiliate on a similar basis, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is not a security futures product as defined in § 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contract of sale that—
</P>
<P>(A) Results in actual delivery within two days; or
</P>
<P>(B) Creates an enforceable obligation to deliver between a seller and buyer that have the ability to deliver and accept delivery, respectively, in connection with their line of business; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An agreement, contract, or transaction that the FDIC determines is not functionally or economically similar to:
</P>
<P>(A) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery or an option on such a contract; or
</P>
<P>(B) An option, other than an option executed or traded on a national securities exchange registered pursuant to Section 6(a) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78(f)(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Retail forex obligations</I> means obligations of a retail forex customer with respect to retail forex transactions, including, but not limited to, trading losses, fees, and commissions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.15   Prohibited transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fraudulent conduct prohibited.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or its IAPs may, directly or indirectly, in or in connection with any retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Cheat or defraud or attempt to cheat or defraud any person;
</P>
<P>(2) Willfully make or cause to be made to any person any false report or statement or cause to be entered for any person any false record; or
</P>
<P>(3) Willfully deceive or attempt to deceive any person by any means whatsoever.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acting as counterparty and exercising discretion prohibited.</I> If an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution can cause retail forex transactions to be effected for a retail forex customer without the retail forex customer's specific authorization, then neither the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution nor its affiliates may act as the counterparty for any retail forex transaction with that retail forex customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.16   Filing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Before commencing a retail forex business, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall provide the FDIC prior written notice and obtain the FDIC's prior written consent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> A notice required by this section shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate FDIC office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of filing.</I> A complete letter notice shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Filings generally.</I> (i) A brief description of the FDIC-supervised institution's proposed retail forex business and the manner in which it will be conducted;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the institution's existing or proposed direct or indirect investment in the retail forex business as well as calculations sufficient to indicate compliance with all capital requirements in § 349.20 and all other applicable capital standards;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's comprehensive business plan that includes a discussion of, among other things, how the operation of the retail forex business is consistent with the institution's overall strategy;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's target customers for its proposed retail forex business and related information, including without limitation credit evaluations, customer appropriateness, and “know your customer” documentation;
</P>
<P>(v) A resolution by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's board of directors that the proposed retail forex business is an appropriate activity for the institution and that the institution's written policies, procedures, and risk measurement and management systems and controls address conducting retail forex business in a safe and sound manner and in compliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(vi) Sample risk disclosures sufficient to demonstrate compliance with § 349.18.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Copy of application or notice filed with another agency.</I> If an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has filed an application or notice with another regulatory authority which contains all of the information required by subparagraph (c)(1) of this part, the institution may submit a copy to the FDIC in lieu of a separate filing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional information.</I> The FDIC may request additional information to complete the processing of the notification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Treatment of Existing Retail Forex Business.</I> Any FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that is engaged in retail forex business on July 15, 2011 may continue to do so for up to six months, subject to an extension of time by the FDIC, provided that it notifies the FDIC of its retail forex business and requests the FDIC's written consent in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance with the Commodities Exchange Act.</I> Any FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that is engaged in retail forex business on July 15, 2011 shall be deemed, during the six-month period (including any extension) provided in paragraph (e) of this section, to be acting pursuant to a rule or regulation described in § 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(E)(ii)(I)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.17" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.17   Application and closing out of offsetting long and short positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of purchases and sales.</I> Any FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that—
</P>
<P>(1) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the purchase of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has an open retail forex transaction for the sale of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engages in a retail forex transaction involving the sale of any currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has an open retail forex transaction for the purchase of the same currency;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such purchase has a short put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that purchased; or
</P>
<P>(4) Sells a put or call option involving foreign currency for the account of any retail forex customer when the account of such retail forex customer at the time of such sale has a long put or call option position with the same underlying currency, strike price, and expiration date as that sold shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately apply such purchase or sale against such previously held opposite transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly furnish such retail forex customer with a statement showing the financial result of the transactions involved and the name of any introducing broker to the account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Close-out against oldest open position.</I> In all instances where the short or long position in a customer's retail forex account immediately prior to an offsetting purchase or sale is greater than the quantity purchased or sold, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall apply such offsetting purchase or sale to the oldest portion of the previously held short or long position.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transactions to be applied as directed by customer.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the offsetting transaction shall be applied as directed by a retail forex customer's specific instructions. These instructions may not be made by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or an IAP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.18" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.18   Disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk disclosure statement required.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may open or maintain open an account that will engage in retail forex transactions for a retail forex customer unless the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has furnished the retail forex customer with a separate written disclosure statement containing only the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement of risk disclosure statement required.</I> The FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must receive from the retail forex customer a written acknowledgement signed and dated by the customer that the customer received and understood the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Placement of risk disclosure statement.</I> The disclosure statement may be attached to other documents as the initial page(s) of such documents and as the only material on such page(s).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of risk disclosure statement.</I> The language set forth in the written disclosure statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Risk Disclosure Statement
</HD1>
<P>Retail forex transactions involve the leveraged trading of contracts denominated in foreign currency with an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution as your counterparty. Because of the leverage and the other risks disclosed here, you can rapidly lose all of the funds or property you give the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution as margin for such trading and you may lose more than you pledge as margin.
</P>
<P>Your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution is prohibited from applying losses that you experience on retail forex transactions on any funds or property of yours other than funds or property that you have given or pledged as margin for retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>You should be aware of and carefully consider the following points before determining whether such trading is appropriate for you.
</P>
<P>(1) Trading is a not on a regulated market or exchange—your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution is your trading counterparty and has conflicting interests. The retail forex transaction you are entering into is not conducted on an interbank market, nor is it conducted on a futures exchange subject to regulation as a designated contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission. The foreign currency trades you transact are trades with your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution as the counterparty. When you sell, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution is the buyer. When you buy, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution is the seller. As a result, when you lose money trading, your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution is making money on such trades, in addition to any fees, commissions, or spreads the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may charge.
</P>
<P>(2) An electronic trading platform for retail foreign currency transactions is not an exchange. It is an electronic connection for accessing your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution. The terms of availability of such a platform are governed only by your contract with your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution. Any trading platform that you may use to enter into off-exchange foreign currency transactions is only connected to your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution. You are accessing that trading platform only to transact with your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution. You are not trading with any other entities or customers of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution by accessing such platform. The availability and operation of any such platform, including the consequences of the unavailability of the trading platform for any reason, is governed only by the terms of your account agreement with the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) You may be able to offset or liquidate any trading positions only through your banking entity because the transactions are not made on an exchange or regulated contract market, and your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may set its own prices. Your ability to close your transactions or offset positions is limited to what your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution will offer to you, as there is no other market for these transactions. Your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may offer any prices it wishes, including prices derived from outside sources or not in its discretion. Your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may establish its prices by offering spreads from third party prices, but it is under no obligation to do so or to continue to do so. Your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may offer different prices to different customers at any point in time on its own terms. The terms of your account agreement alone govern the obligations your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has to you to offer prices and offer offset or liquidating transactions in your account and make any payments to you. The prices offered by your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may or may not reflect prices available elsewhere at any exchange, interbank, or other market for foreign currency.
</P>
<P>(4) Paid solicitors may have undisclosed conflicts. The FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may compensate introducing brokers for introducing your account in ways that are not disclosed to you. Such paid solicitors are not required to have, and may not have, any special expertise in trading, and may have conflicts of interest based on the method by which they are compensated. You should thoroughly investigate the manner in which all such solicitors are compensated and be very cautious in granting any person or entity authority to trade on your behalf. You should always consider obtaining dated written confirmation of any information you are relying on from your FDIC-supervised insured depository institution in making any trading or account decisions.
</P>
<P>(5) Retail forex transactions are not insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(6) Retail forex transactions are not a deposit in, or guaranteed by, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(7) Retail forex transactions are subject to investment risks, including possible loss of all amounts invested.
</P>
<P>Finally, you should thoroughly investigate any statements by any FDIC-supervised insured depository institution that minimize the importance of, or contradict, any of the terms of this risk disclosure. These statements may indicate sales fraud.
</P>
<P>This brief statement cannot, of course, disclose all the risks and other aspects of trading off-exchange foreign currency with an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>I hereby acknowledge that I have received and understood this risk disclosure statement.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Customer</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Disclosure of profitable accounts ratio.</I> Immediately following the language set forth in paragraph (d) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include, for each of the most recent four calendar quarters during which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution maintained retail forex customer accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of retail forex customer accounts maintained by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution over which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution does not exercise investment discretion;
</P>
<P>(ii) The percentage of such accounts that were profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for retail forex customer accounts during the quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's statement of profitable trades shall include the following legend: “Past performance is not necessarily indicative of future results.” Each FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall provide, upon request, to any retail forex customer or prospective retail forex customer the total number of retail forex accounts maintained by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution for which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution does not exercise investment discretion, the percentage of such accounts that were profitable, and the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable for each calendar quarter during the most recent five-year period during which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution maintained such accounts.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of fees and other charges.</I> Immediately following the language required by paragraph (e) of this section, the statement required by paragraph (a) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any fee, charge, commission, or spreads that the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may impose on the retail forex customer in connection with a retail forex account or retail forex transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation of how the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution will determine the amount of such fees, charges, commissions, or spreads; and
</P>
<P>(3) The circumstances under which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may impose such fees, charges, commissions, or spreads.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Future disclosure requirements.</I> If, with regard to a retail forex customer, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution changes any fee, charge, commission or spreads required to be disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section, then the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall mail or deliver to the retail forex customer a notice of the changes at least 15 days prior to the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall be clear and conspicuous and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other disclosure requirements unaffected.</I> This section does not relieve an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution from any other disclosure obligation it may have under applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.19" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.19   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall keep full, complete and systematic records, together with all pertinent data and memoranda, pertaining to its retail forex business, including:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retail forex account records.</I> For each retail forex account:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the person for whom the account is carried or introduced and the principal occupation or business of the person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of any other person guaranteeing the account or exercising trading control with respect to the account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The establishment or termination of the account; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A means to identify the person who has solicited and is responsible for the account or assign account numbers in such a manner as to identify that person.
</P>
<P>(v) The funds in the account, net of any commissions and fees;
</P>
<P>(vi) The account's net profits and losses on open trades;
</P>
<P>(vii) The funds in the account plus or minus the net profits and losses on open trades, adjusted for the net option value in the case of open options positions;
</P>
<P>(viii) Financial ledger records that show separately for each retail forex customer all charges against and credits to such retail forex customer's account, including deposits, withdrawals, and transfers, and charges or credits resulting from losses or gains on closed transactions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A list of all retail forex transactions executed for the account, with the details specified in paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retail forex transaction records.</I> For each retail forex transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The price at which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution placed the order, or, in the case of an option, the premium that the retail forex customer paid;
</P>
<P>(ii) The customer account identification information;
</P>
<P>(iii) The currency pair;
</P>
<P>(iv) The size or quantity of the order;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the order was a buy or sell order;
</P>
<P>(vi) The type of order, if the order was not a market order;
</P>
<P>(vii) The size and price at which the order is executed, or in the case of an option, the amount of the premium paid for each option purchased, or the amount credited for each option sold;
</P>
<P>(viii) For options, whether the option is a put or call, expiration date, quantity, underlying contract for future delivery or underlying physical, strike price, and details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission, and fees; and
</P>
<P>(ix) For futures, the delivery date; and
</P>
<P>(x) If the order was made on a trading platform:
</P>
<P>(A) The price quoted on the trading platform when the order was placed, or, in the case of an option, the premium quoted;
</P>
<P>(B) The date and time the order was transmitted to the trading platform; and
</P>
<P>(C) The date and time the order was executed;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Price changes on a trading platform.</I> If a trading platform is used, daily logs showing each price change on the platform, the time of the change to the nearest second, and the trading volume at that time and price;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Methods or algorithms.</I> Any method or algorithm used to determine the bid or asked price for any retail forex transaction or the prices at which customer orders are executed, including, but not limited to, any markups, fees, commissions or other items which affect the profitability or risk of loss of a retail forex customer's transaction;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Daily records</I> which show for each business day complete details of:
</P>
<P>(i) All retail forex transactions that are futures transactions executed on that day, including the date, price, quantity, market, currency pair, delivery date, and the person for whom such transaction was made;
</P>
<P>(ii) All retail forex transactions that are option transactions executed on that day, including the date, whether the transaction involved a put or call, the expiration date, quantity, currency pair, delivery date, strike price, details of the purchase price of the option, including premium, mark-up, commission and fees, and the person for whom the transaction was made;
</P>
<P>(iii) All other retail forex transactions executed on that day for such account, including the date, price, quantity, currency and the person for whom such transaction was made; and
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other records.</I> Written acknowledgements of receipt of the risk disclosure statement required by § 349.18(b), records required under paragraph (b) through (f) of this section, trading cards, signature cards, street books, journals, ledgers, payment records, copies of statements of purchase, and all other records, data and memoranda that have been prepared in the course of the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ratio of profitable accounts.</I> (1) With respect to its active retail forex customer accounts over which it did not exercise investment discretion and that are not retail forex proprietary accounts open for any period of time during the quarter, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall prepare and maintain on a quarterly basis (calendar quarter):
</P>
<P>(i) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were profitable;
</P>
<P>(ii) A calculation of the percentage of such accounts that were not profitable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Data supporting the calculations described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) In calculating whether a retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall compute the realized and unrealized gains or losses on all retail forex transactions carried in the retail forex account at any time during the quarter, and subtract all fees, commissions, and any other charges posted to the retail forex account during the quarter, and add any interest income and other income or rebates credited to the retail forex account during the quarter. All deposits and withdrawals of funds made by the retail forex customer during the quarter must be excluded from the computation of whether the retail forex account was profitable or not profitable during the quarter. Computations that result in a zero or negative number shall be considered a retail forex account that was not profitable. Computations that result in a positive number shall be considered a retail forex account that was profitable.
</P>
<P>(3) A retail forex account shall be considered “active” for purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section if and only if, for the relevant calendar quarter, a retail forex transaction was executed in that account or the retail forex account contained an open position resulting from a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records related to possible violations of law.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall make a record of all communications, including customer complaints, received by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or its IAPs concerning facts giving rise to possible violations of law related to the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's retail forex business. The record shall contain: the name of the complainant, if provided; the date of the communication; the relevant agreement, contract, or transaction; the substance of the communication; the name of the person who received the communication, and the final disposition of the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records for noncash margin.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall maintain a record of all noncash margin collected pursuant to § 349.21. The record shall show separately for each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the securities or property received;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of such retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) The dates when the securities or property were received;
</P>
<P>(4) The identity of the depositories or other places where such securities or property are segregated or held, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) The dates in which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution placed or removed such securities or property into or from such depositories; and
</P>
<P>(6) The dates of return of such securities or property to such retail forex customer, or other disposition thereof, together with the facts and circumstances of such other disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Order Tickets.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, immediately upon the receipt of a retail forex transaction order, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must prepare an order ticket for the order (whether unfulfilled, executed, or canceled). The order ticket must include:
</P>
<P>(i) Account identification (account or customer name with which the retail forex transaction was effected);
</P>
<P>(ii) Order number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Type of order (market order, limit order, or subject to special instructions);
</P>
<P>(iv) Date and time, to the nearest minute, the retail forex transaction order was received (as evidenced by timestamp or other timing device);
</P>
<P>(v) Time, to the nearest minute, the retail forex transaction order was executed; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Price at which the retail forex transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-execution allocation of bunched orders.</I> Specific identifiers for retail forex accounts included in bunched orders need not be recorded at time of order placement or upon report of execution as required under paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC-supervised insured depository institution placing and directing the allocation of an order eligible for post-execution allocation has been granted written investment discretion with regard to participating customer accounts and makes the following information available to retail forex customers upon request:
</P>
<P>(A) The general nature of the post-execution allocation methodology the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution will use;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has any interest in accounts which may be included with customer accounts in bunched orders eligible for post-execution allocation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Summary or composite data sufficient for that customer to compare its results with those of other comparable customers and, if applicable, any account in which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has an interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Post-execution allocations are made as soon as practicable after the entire transaction is executed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Post-execution allocations are fair and equitable, with no account or group of accounts receiving consistently favorable or unfavorable treatment; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The post-execution allocation methodology is sufficiently objective and specific to permit the FDIC to verify the fairness of the allocations using that methodology.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Record of monthly statements and confirmations.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall retain a copy of each monthly statement and confirmation required by § 349.22.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Manner of maintenance.</I> The records required by this section must clearly and accurately reflect the information required and provide an adequate basis for the audit of the information. Record maintenance may include the use of automated or electronic records provided that the records are easily retrievable, readily available for inspection, and capable of being reproduced in hard copy.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Length of maintenance.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall keep each record required by this section for at least five years from the date the record is created.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.20" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.20   Capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution offering or entering into retail forex transactions must be well capitalized as defined by 12 CFR part 324, unless specifically exempted by the FDIC in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.21" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.21   Margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Margin required.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging, or offering to engage, in retail forex transactions must collect from each retail forex customer an amount of margin not less than:
</P>
<P>(1) Two percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for major currency pairs and 5 percent of the notional value of the retail forex transaction for all other currency pairs;
</P>
<P>(2) For short options, 2 percent for major currency pairs and 5 percent for all other currency pairs of the notional value of the retail forex transaction, plus the premium received by the retail forex customer; or
</P>
<P>(3) For long options, the full premium charged and received by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Form of margin.</I> Margin collected under paragraph (a) of this section or pledged by a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions in excess of the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must be in the form of cash or the following financial instruments:
</P>
<P>(i) Obligations of the United States and obligations fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) General obligations of any State or of any political subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(iii) General obligations issued or guaranteed by any enterprise, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(10);
</P>
<P>(iv) Certificates of deposit issued by an insured depository institution, as defined in § 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2));
</P>
<P>(v) Commercial paper;
</P>
<P>(vi) Corporate notes or bonds;
</P>
<P>(vii) General obligations of a sovereign nation;
</P>
<P>(viii) Interests in money market mutual funds; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Such other financial instruments as the FDIC deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Haircuts.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall establish written policies and procedures that include:
</P>
<P>(i) Haircuts for noncash margin collected under this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual evaluation, and, if appropriate, modification of the haircuts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Separate margin account.</I> Margin collected by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution from a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions or pledged by a retail forex customer for retail forex transactions shall be placed into a separate account containing only such margin.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Margin calls; liquidation of position.</I> For each retail forex customer, at least once per day, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Mark the value of the retail forex customer's open retail forex positions to market;
</P>
<P>(2) Mark the value of the margin collected under this section from the retail forex customer to market;
</P>
<P>(3) Determine if, based on the marks in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has collected margin from the retail forex customer sufficient to satisfy the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Collect such margin from the retail forex customer as the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may require to satisfy the requirements of this section, or liquidate the retail forex customer's retail forex transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Set-off prohibited.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may not:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply a retail forex customer's retail forex obligations against any funds or other asset of the retail forex customer other than margin in the separate margin account described in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Apply a retail forex customer's retail forex obligations to increase the amount owed by the retail forex customer to the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution under any loan; or
</P>
<P>(3) Collect the margin required under this section by use of any right of set-off.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.22" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.22   Required reporting to customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Monthly statements.</I> Each FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must promptly furnish to each retail forex customer, as of the close of the last business day of each month or as of any regular monthly date selected, except for accounts in which there are neither open positions at the end of the statement period nor any changes to the account balance since the prior statement period, but in any event not less frequently than once every three months, a statement that clearly shows:
</P>
<P>(1) For each retail forex customer:
</P>
<P>(i) The open retail forex transactions with prices at which acquired;
</P>
<P>(ii) The net unrealized profits or losses in all open retail forex transactions marked to the market;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any money, securities or other property in the separate margin account required by § 349.21(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; and fees, charges, commissions, and spreads.
</P>
<P>(2) For each retail forex customer engaging in retail forex transactions that are options:
</P>
<P>(i) All such options purchased, sold, exercised, or expired during the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(ii) The open option positions carried for such customer and arising as of the end of the monthly reporting period, identified by underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency, strike price, transaction date, and expiration date;
</P>
<P>(iii) All such option positions marked to the market and the amount each position is in the money, if any;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any money, securities or other property in the separate margin account required by § 349.21(c); and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed accounting of all financial charges and credits to the retail forex customer's retail forex accounts during the monthly reporting period, including: money, securities, or property received from or disbursed to such customer; realized profits and losses; premiums and mark-ups; and fees, charges, and commissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation statement.</I> Each FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must, not later than the next business day after any retail forex transaction, send:
</P>
<P>(1) To each retail forex customer, a written confirmation of each retail forex transaction caused to be executed by it for the customer, including offsetting transactions executed during the same business day and the rollover of an open retail forex transaction to the next business day;
</P>
<P>(2) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, a written confirmation of each forex option transaction, containing at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The retail forex customer's account identification number;
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate listing of the actual amount of the premium, as well as each mark-up thereon, if applicable, and all other commissions, costs, fees and other charges incurred in connection with the forex option transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The strike price;
</P>
<P>(iv) The underlying retail forex transaction or underlying currency;
</P>
<P>(v) The final exercise date of the forex option purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The date the forex option transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(3) To each retail forex customer engaging in forex option transactions, upon the expiration or exercise of any option, a written confirmation statement thereof, which statement shall include the date of such occurrence, a description of the option involved, and, in the case of exercise, the details of the retail forex or physical currency position which resulted therefrom including, if applicable, the final trading date of the retail forex transaction underlying the option.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, a retail forex transaction that is caused to be executed for a pooled investment vehicle that engages in retail forex transactions need be confirmed only to the operator of such pooled investment vehicle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Controlled accounts.</I> With respect to any account controlled by any person other than the retail forex customer for whom such account is carried, each FDIC-supervised insured depository institution shall promptly furnish in writing to such other person the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Introduced accounts.</I> Each statement provided pursuant to the provisions of this section must, if applicable, show that the account for which the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution was introduced by an introducing broker and the name of the introducing broker.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated and amended at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.23" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.23   Unlawful representations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No implication or representation of limiting losses.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaged in retail foreign exchange transactions or its IAPs may imply or represent that it will, with respect to any retail customer forex account, for or on behalf of any person:
</P>
<P>(1) Guarantee such person or account against loss;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit the loss of such person or account; or
</P>
<P>(3) Not call for or attempt to collect margin as established for retail forex customers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No implication of representation of engaging in prohibited acts.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or its IAPs may in any way imply or represent that it will engage in any of the acts or practices described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No Federal government endorsement.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or its IAPs may represent or imply in any manner whatsoever that any retail forex transaction or retail forex product has been sponsored, recommended, or approved by the FDIC, the Federal government, or any agency thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assuming or sharing of liability from bank error.</I> This section shall not be construed to prevent an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution from assuming or sharing in the losses resulting from the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's error or mishandling of a retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain guaranties unaffected.</I> This section shall not affect any guarantee entered into prior to the effective date of this part, but this section shall apply to any extension, modification or renewal thereof entered into after such date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.24" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.24   Authorization to trade.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specific authorization required.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may directly or indirectly effect a retail forex transaction for the account of any retail forex customer unless, before the transaction occurs, the retail forex customer specifically authorized the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution to effect the retail forex transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) Requirements for specific authorization. A retail forex transaction is “specifically authorized” for purposes of this section if the retail forex customer specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The precise retail forex transaction to be effected;
</P>
<P>(2) The exact amount of the foreign currency to be purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an option, the identity of the foreign currency or contract that underlies the option.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.25" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.25   Trading and operational standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Internal rules, procedures, and controls required.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall establish and implement internal policies, procedures, and controls designed, at a minimum, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure, to the extent reasonable, that each order received from a retail forex transaction that is executable at or near the price that the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has quoted to the retail forex customer is entered for execution before any order in any retail forex transaction for
</P>
<P>(i) A any proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(ii) An account in which a related person has an interest, or any account for which such a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account;
</P>
<P>(iii) an account in which such a related person has an interest, if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) an account in which such a related person may originate orders without the prior specific consent of the account owner if the related person has gained knowledge of the retail forex customer's order prior to the transmission of an order for a proprietary account.
</P>
<P>(2) Prevent FDIC-supervised insured depository institution related persons from placing orders, directly or indirectly, with another person in a manner designed to circumvent the provisions of paragraph (a)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Fairly and objectively establish settlement prices for retail forex transactions; and
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of retail forex transactions.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions may disclose that an order of another person is being held by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution, unless the disclosure is necessary to the effective execution of such order or the disclosure is made at the request of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Handling of retail forex accounts of related persons of retail forex counterparties.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions may knowingly handle the retail forex account of an employee of another retail forex counterparty's retail forex business unless the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization from a person designated by the other retail forex counterparty with responsibility for the surveillance over the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepares immediately upon receipt of an order for the account a written record of the order, including the account identification and order number, and records thereon to the nearest minute, by time-stamp or other timing device, the date and time the order is received; and
</P>
<P>(3) Transmits on a regular basis to the other retail forex counterparty copies of all statements for the account and of all written records prepared upon the receipt of orders for such account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Related person of FDIC-supervised insured depository institution establishing account at another retail forex counterparty.</I> No related person of an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution working in the institution's retail forex business may have an account, directly or indirectly, with another retail forex counterparty unless the other retail forex counterparty:
</P>
<P>(1) Receives written authorization to open and maintain the an account from a person designated by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution of which it is a related person with responsibility for the surveillance over the account pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Transmits on a regular basis to the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution copies of all statements for such account and of all written records prepared by the other retail forex counterparty upon receipt of orders for the account pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section are transmitted on a regular basis to the retail forex counterparty of which it is a related person.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited trading practices.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions may:
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into a retail forex transaction, to be executed pursuant to a market or limit order at a price that is not at or near the price at which other retail forex customers, during that same time period, have executed retail forex transactions with the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Adjust or alter prices for a retail forex transaction after the transaction has been confirmed to the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is higher than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also higher than its previous asked price by a similar amount;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a retail forex customer a new bid price for a retail forex transaction that is lower than its previous bid without providing a new asked price that is also lower than its previous asked price by a similar amount; or
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a new position for a retail forex customer (except one that offsets an existing position for that retail forex customer) where the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution holds outstanding orders of other retail forex customers for the same currency pair at a comparable price.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.26" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.26   Supervision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision by the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution engaging in retail forex transactions shall diligently supervise the handling by its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) of all retail forex accounts carried, operated, or advised by at the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution and all activities of its officers, employees, and agents (or persons occupying a similar status or performing a similar function) relating to its retail forex business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supervision by officers, employees, or agents.</I> An officer, employee, or agent of an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must diligently supervise his or her subordinates' handling of all retail forex accounts at the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution and all the subordinates' activities relating to the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution's retail forex business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.27" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.27   Notice of transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prior notice generally required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must provide a retail forex customer with 30 days' prior notice of any assignment of any position or transfer of any account of the retail forex customer. The notice must include a statement that the retail forex customer is not required to accept the proposed assignment or transfer and may direct the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution to liquidate the positions of the retail forex customer or transfer the account to a retail forex counterparty of the retail forex customer's selection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to transfers:
</P>
<P>(1) Requested by the retail forex customer;
</P>
<P>(2) Made by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation as receiver or conservator under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise authorized by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligations of transferee FDIC-supervised insured depository institution.</I> An FDIC-supervised insured depository institution to which retail forex accounts or positions are assigned or transferred under paragraph (a) of this section must provide to the affected retail forex customers the risk disclosure statements and forms of acknowledgment required by this part and receive the required signed acknowledgments within sixty days of such assignments or transfers. This requirement shall not apply if the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution has clear written evidence that the retail forex customer has received and acknowledged receipt of the required disclosure statements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 349.28" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.3.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 349.28   Customer dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary submission of claims to dispute or settlement procedures.</I> No FDIC-supervised insured depository institution may enter into any agreement or understanding with a retail forex customer in which the customer agrees, prior to the time a claim or grievance arises, to submit such claim or grievance to any settlement procedure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Election of forum.</I> (1) Within ten business days after receipt of notice from the retail forex customer that the customer intends to submit a claim to arbitration, the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution must provide the customer with a list of persons qualified in dispute resolution.
</P>
<P>(2) The customer shall, within 45 days after receipt of such list, notify the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution of the person selected. The customer's failure to provide such notice shall give the FDIC-supervised insured depository institution the right to select a person from the list.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforceability.</I> A dispute settlement procedure may require parties using such procedure to agree, under applicable state law, submission agreement or otherwise, to be bound by an award rendered in the procedure, provided that the agreement to submit the claim or grievance to the voluntary procedure under paragraph (a) of this section or that agreement to submit the claim or grievance was made after the claim or grievance arose. Any award so rendered shall be enforceable in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits for submission of claims.</I> The dispute settlement procedure used by the parties shall not include any unreasonably short limitation period foreclosing submission of a customer's claims or grievances or counterclaims.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counterclaims.</I> A procedure for the settlement of a retail forex customer's claims or grievances against an FDIC-supervised insured depository institution or employee thereof may permit the submission of a counterclaim in the procedure by a person against whom a claim or grievance is brought. Such a counterclaim may be permitted where it arises out of the transaction or occurrence that is the subject of the customer's claim or grievance and does not require for adjudication the presence of essential witnesses, parties, or third persons over which the settlement process lacks jurisdiction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 40789, July 12, 2011. Redesignated at 80 FR 74912, Nov. 30, 2015]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="350" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 350 [RESERVED]
</HEAD>
</DIV5>

<P> 




</P>

<DIV5 N="351" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 351—PROPRIETARY TRADING AND CERTAIN INTERESTS IN AND RELATIONSHIPS WITH COVERED FUNDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1851; 1811 <I>et seq.;</I> 3101 <I>et seq.;</I> and 5412.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and relationship to other authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the FDIC under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1851).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act establishes prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and investments in or relationships with covered funds by certain banking entities, including any insured depository institution as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)) and certain subsidiaries thereof for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency as defined in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)). This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and investments in or relationships with covered funds, and explaining the statute's requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part implements section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act with respect to insured depository institutions for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency, as defined in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and certain subsidiaries of the foregoing, but does not include such entities to the extent they are not within the definition of banking entity in § 351.2(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relationship to other authorities.</I> Except as otherwise provided in under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, the prohibitions and restrictions under section 13 of Bank Holding Company Act shall apply to the activities and investments of a banking entity, even if such activities and investments are authorized for a banking entity under other applicable provisions of law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part limits in any way the authority of the FDIC to impose on a banking entity identified in paragraph (c) of this section additional requirements or restrictions with respect to any activity, investment, or relationship covered under section 13 of the Bank Holding Company Act or this part, or additional penalties for violation of this part provided under any other applicable provision of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35021, July 22, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified, for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(k)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank holding company</I> has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Banking entity.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, <I>banking entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any affiliate or subsidiary of any entity described in paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Banking entity does not include:
</P>
<P>(vii) A covered fund that is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) A portfolio company held under the authority contained in section 4(k)(4)(H) or (I) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H), (I)), or any portfolio concern, as defined under 13 CFR 107.50, that is controlled by a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), so long as the portfolio company or portfolio concern is not itself a banking entity under paragraph (c)(1)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ix) The FDIC acting in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>CFTC</I> means the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(5) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Derivative.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, <I>derivative</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale of a commodity, that is not an excluded commodity, for deferred shipment or delivery that is intended to be physically settled;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)) or foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25));
</P>
<P>(iv) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(C)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(C)(i));
</P>
<P>(v) Any agreement, contract, or transaction in a commodity other than foreign currency described in section 2(c)(2)(D)(i) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(c)(2)(D)(i)); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any transaction authorized under section 19 of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 23(a) or (b));
</P>
<P>(2) A derivative does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any consumer, commercial, or other agreement, contract, or transaction that the CFTC and SEC have further defined by joint regulation, interpretation, or other action as not within the definition of swap, as that term is defined in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)), or security-based swap, as that term is defined in section 3(a)(68) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any identified banking product, as defined in section 402(b) of the Legal Certainty for Bank Products Act of 2000 (7 U.S.C. 27(b)), that is subject to section 403(a) of that Act (7 U.S.C. 27a(a)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Employee</I> includes a member of the immediate family of the employee.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Excluded commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(19) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(19)).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Board, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Foreign banking organization</I> has the same meaning as in § 211.21(o) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(o)), but does not include a foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that is organized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, or the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Foreign insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of any country other than the United States that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under foreign insurance law.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>General account</I> means all of the assets of an insurance company except those allocated to one or more separate accounts.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Insurance company</I> means a company that is organized as an insurance company, primarily and predominantly engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, subject to supervision as such by a state insurance regulator or a foreign insurance regulator, and not operated for the purpose of evading the provisions of section 13 of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1851).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)), but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution that is described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution if it has, and if every company that controls it has, total consolidated assets of $10 billion or less and total trading assets and trading liabilities, on a consolidated basis, that are 5 percent or less of total consolidated assets.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limited trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, is less than $1 billion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC has not determined pursuant to § 351.20(g) or (h) of this part that the banking entity should not be treated as having limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity other than a banking entity described in paragraph (s)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (s) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (s)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States, including branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a U.S. branch or agency of the foreign banking organization, for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Loan</I> means any loan, lease, extension of credit, or secured or unsecured receivable that is not a security or derivative.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Moderate trading assets and liabilities</I> means, with respect to a banking entity, that the banking entity does not have significant trading assets and liabilities or limited trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Primary financial regulatory agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(12) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5301(12)).
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Purchase</I> includes any contract to buy, purchase, or otherwise acquire. For security futures products, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, purchase includes any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, purchase includes the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Qualifying foreign banking organization</I> means a foreign banking organization that qualifies as such under § 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c), or (e)).
</P>
<P>(y) <I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Sale</I> and <I>sell</I> each include any contract to sell or otherwise dispose of. For security futures products, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a commodity future, such terms include any contract, agreement, or transaction for future delivery. With respect to a derivative, such terms include the execution, termination (prior to its scheduled maturity date), assignment, exchange, or similar transfer or conveyance of, or extinguishing of rights or obligations under, a derivative, as the context may require.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Security</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(10) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(10)).
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Security-based swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(71) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Security future</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(55) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(55)).
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Separate account</I> means an account established and maintained by an insurance company in connection with one or more insurance contracts to hold assets that are legally segregated from the insurance company's other assets, under which income, gains, and losses, whether or not realized, from assets allocated to such account, are, in accordance with the applicable contract, credited to or charged against such account without regard to other income, gains, or losses of the insurance company.
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Significant trading assets and liabilities</I> means with respect to a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The banking entity has, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, trading assets and liabilities the average gross sum of which over the previous consecutive four quarters, as measured as of the last day of each of the four previous calendar quarters, equals or exceeds $20 billion; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC has determined pursuant to § 351.20(h) of this part that the banking entity should be treated as having significant trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a banking entity, other than a banking entity described in paragraph (ee)(3) of this section, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) on a worldwide consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization or a subsidiary of a foreign banking organization, trading assets and liabilities for purposes of this paragraph (ee) means the trading assets and liabilities (excluding trading assets and liabilities attributable to trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a)(1) and (2) of subpart B) of the combined U.S. operations of the top-tier foreign banking organization (including all subsidiaries, affiliates, branches, and agencies of the foreign banking organization operating, located, or organized in the United States as well as branches outside the United States that are managed or controlled by a branch or agency of the foreign banking entity operating, located or organized in the United States).
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary. For purposes of paragraph (ee)(3)(i) of this section, all foreign operations of a U.S. agency, branch, or subsidiary of a foreign banking organization are considered to be located in the United States for purposes of calculating the banking entity's U.S. trading assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the United States Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(d) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(d)).
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>State insurance regulator</I> means the insurance commissioner, or a similar official or agency, of a State that is engaged in the supervision of insurance companies under State insurance law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Swap dealer</I> has the same meaning as in section 1(a)(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62165, Nov. 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Proprietary Trading</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.3   Prohibition on proprietary trading.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not engage in proprietary trading. <I>Proprietary trading</I> means engaging as principal for the trading account of the banking entity in any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of trading account</I>—(1) <I>Trading account.</I> Trading account means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments principally for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging one or more of the positions resulting from the purchases or sales of financial instruments described in this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments that are both market risk capital rule covered positions and trading positions (or hedges of other market risk capital rule covered positions), if the banking entity, or any affiliate with which the banking entity is consolidated for regulatory reporting purposes, calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any account that is used by a banking entity to purchase or sell one or more financial instruments, if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is licensed or registered, or is required to be licensed or registered, to engage in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities that require the banking entity to be licensed or registered as such; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is engaged in the business of a dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer outside of the United States, to the extent the instrument is purchased or sold in connection with the activities of such business.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trading account application for certain banking entities.</I> (i) A banking entity that is subject to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account is not subject to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not calculate risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule and is not a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule may elect to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph. A banking entity that elects under this subsection to apply paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section in determining the scope of its trading account as if it were subject to that paragraph is not required to apply paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consistency of account election for certain banking entities.</I> (i) Any election or change to an election under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section must apply to the electing banking entity and all of its wholly owned subsidiaries. The primary financial regulatory agency of a banking entity that is affiliated with but is not a wholly owned subsidiary of such electing banking entity may require that the banking entity be subject to this uniform application requirement if the primary financial regulatory agency determines that it is necessary to prevent evasion of the requirements of this part after notice and opportunity for response as provided in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that does not elect under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section to be subject to the trading account definition in (b)(1)(ii) of this section may continue to apply the trading account definition in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section for one year from the date on which it becomes, or becomes a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes with, a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebuttable presumption for certain purchases and sales.</I> The purchase (or sale) of a financial instrument by a banking entity shall be presumed not to be for the trading account of the banking entity under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section if the banking entity holds the financial instrument for sixty days or longer and does not transfer substantially all of the risk of the financial instrument within sixty days of the purchase (or sale).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial instrument</I>—(1) <I>Financial instrument</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A security, including an option on a security;
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative, including an option on a derivative; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery, or option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial instrument does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) A commodity that is not:
</P>
<P>(A) An excluded commodity (other than foreign exchange or currency);
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative;
</P>
<P>(C) A contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(D) An option on a contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreign exchange or currency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Proprietary trading.</I> Proprietary trading does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a repurchase or reverse repurchase agreement pursuant to which the banking entity has simultaneously agreed, in writing, to both purchase and sell a stated asset, at stated prices, and on stated dates or on demand with the same counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that arises under a transaction in which the banking entity lends or borrows a security temporarily to or from another party pursuant to a written securities lending agreement under which the lender retains the economic interests of an owner of such security, and has the right to terminate the transaction and to recall the loaned security on terms agreed by the parties;
</P>
<P>(3) Any purchase or sale of a security, foreign exchange forward (as that term is defined in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)), foreign exchange swap (as that term is defined in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)), or cross-currency swap by a banking entity for the purpose of liquidity management in accordance with a documented liquidity management plan of the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically contemplates and authorizes the particular financial instruments to be used for liquidity management purposes, the amount, types, and risks of these financial instruments that are consistent with liquidity management, and the liquidity circumstances in which the particular financial instruments may or must be used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires that any purchase or sale of financial instruments contemplated and authorized by the plan be principally for the purpose of managing the liquidity of the banking entity, and not for the purpose of short-term resale, benefitting from actual or expected short-term price movements, realizing short-term arbitrage profits, or hedging a position taken for such short-term purposes;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requires that any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes be highly liquid and limited to financial instruments the market, credit, and other risks of which the banking entity does not reasonably expect to give rise to appreciable profits or losses as a result of short-term price movements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Limits any financial instruments purchased or sold for liquidity management purposes, together with any other financial instruments purchased or sold for such purposes, to an amount that is consistent with the banking entity's near-term funding needs, including deviations from normal operations of the banking entity or any affiliate thereof, as estimated and documented pursuant to methods specified in the plan;
</P>
<P>(v) Includes written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis, and independent testing to ensure that the purchase and sale of financial instruments that are not permitted under § 351.6(a) or (b) of this subpart are for the purpose of liquidity management and in accordance with the liquidity management plan described in this paragraph (d)(3); and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is consistent with the FDIC's regulatory requirements regarding liquidity management;
</P>
<P>(4) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency in connection with clearing financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(5) Any excluded clearing activities by a banking entity that is a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(6) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an existing delivery obligation of the banking entity or its customers, including to prevent or close out a failure to deliver, in connection with delivery, clearing, or settlement activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase (or sale) satisfies an obligation of the banking entity in connection with a judicial, administrative, self-regulatory organization, or arbitration proceeding;
</P>
<P>(7) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity that is acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian;
</P>
<P>(8) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the purchase or sale is made directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity;
</P>
<P>(9) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments by a banking entity in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the financial instrument as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such instrument for longer than such period permitted by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(10) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that was made in error by a banking entity in the course of conducting a permitted or excluded activity or is a subsequent transaction to correct such an error;
</P>
<P>(11) Contemporaneously entering into a customer-driven swap or customer-driven security-based swap and a matched swap or security-based swap if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity retains no more than minimal price risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity is not a registered dealer, swap dealer, or security-based swap dealer;
</P>
<P>(12) Any purchase or sale of one or more financial instruments that the banking entity uses to hedge mortgage servicing rights or mortgage servicing assets in accordance with a documented hedging strategy; or
</P>
<P>(13) Any purchase or sale of a financial instrument that does not meet the definition of trading asset or trading liability under the applicable reporting form for a banking entity as of January 1, 2020.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definition of other terms related to proprietary trading.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Anonymous</I> means that each party to a purchase or sale is unaware of the identity of the other party(ies) to the purchase or sale.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(23) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commodity</I> has the same meaning as in section 1a(9) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(9)), except that a commodity does not include any security;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contract of sale of a commodity for future delivery</I> means a contract of sale (as that term is defined in section 1a(13) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(13)) for future delivery (as that term is defined in section 1a(27) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(27))).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A derivatives clearing organization registered under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1);
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is exempt from the registration requirements under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1); or
</P>
<P>(iii) A foreign derivatives clearing organization that, pursuant to CFTC regulation, is permitted to clear for a foreign board of trade that is registered with the CFTC.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exchange,</I> unless the context otherwise requires, means any designated contract market, swap execution facility, or foreign board of trade registered with the CFTC, or, for purposes of securities or security-based swaps, an exchange, as defined under section 3(a)(1) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(1)), or security-based swap execution facility, as defined under section 3(a)(77) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(77)).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Excluded clearing activities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to customer transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, a clearing agency, or a designated financial market utility, any purchase or sale necessary to correct trading errors made by or on behalf of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a customer provided that such purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with, for transactions cleared on a derivatives clearing organization, the Commodity Exchange Act, CFTC regulations, and the rules or procedures of the derivatives clearing organization, or, for transactions cleared on a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the clearing agency, or, for transactions cleared on a designated financial market utility that is neither a derivatives clearing organization nor a clearing agency, the rules or procedures of the designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of a default or threatened imminent default of a member of a clearing agency, a member of a derivatives clearing organization, or a member of a designated financial market utility;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any purchase or sale in connection with and related to the management of the default or threatened default of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any purchase or sale that is required by the rules or procedures of a clearing agency, a derivatives clearing organization, or a designated financial market utility to mitigate the risk to the clearing agency, derivatives clearing organization, or designated financial market utility that would result from the clearing by a member of security-based swaps that reference the member or an affiliate of the member.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Designated financial market utility</I> has the same meaning as in section 803(4) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5462(4)).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(4) of the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(4)).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Market risk capital rule covered position and trading position</I> means a financial instrument that meets the criteria to be a covered position and a trading position, as those terms are respectively defined, without regard to whether the financial instrument is reported as a covered position or trading position on any applicable regulatory reporting forms:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a banking entity that is a bank holding company, savings and loan holding company, or insured depository institution, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a banking entity that is affiliated with a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company, other than a banking entity to which a market risk capital rule is applicable, under the market risk capital rule that is applicable to the affiliated bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Market risk capital rule</I> means the market risk capital rule that is contained in 12 CFR part 3, subpart F, with respect to a banking entity for which the OCC is the primary financial regulatory agency, 12 CFR part 217 with respect to a banking entity for which the Board is the primary financial regulatory agency, or 12 CFR part 324 with respect to a banking entity for which the FDIC is the primary financial regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Municipal security</I> means a security that is a direct obligation of or issued by, or an obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by, a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any agency or instrumentality of a State or any political subdivision thereof, or any municipal corporate instrumentality of one or more States or political subdivisions thereof.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Trading desk</I> means a unit of organization of a banking entity that purchases or sells financial instruments for the trading account of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that is:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Structured by the banking entity to implement a well-defined business strategy;
</P>
<P>(B) Organized to ensure appropriate setting, monitoring, and management review of the desk's trading and hedging limits, current and potential future loss exposures, and strategies; and
</P>
<P>(C) Characterized by a clearly defined unit that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Engages in coordinated trading activity with a unified approach to its key elements;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Operates subject to a common and calibrated set of risk metrics, risk levels, and joint trading limits;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Submits compliance reports and other information as a unit for monitoring by management; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Books its trades together; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, or a consolidated affiliate for regulatory reporting purposes of a banking entity that calculates risk-based capital ratios under the market risk capital rule, established by the banking entity or its affiliate for purposes of market risk capital calculations under the market risk capital rule.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62167, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.4   Permitted underwriting and market making-related activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted underwriting activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The underwriting activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is acting as an underwriter for a distribution of securities and the trading desk's underwriting position is related to such distribution;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The amount and type of the securities in the trading desk's underwriting position are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities; and
</P>
<P>(B) Reasonable efforts are made to sell or otherwise reduce the underwriting position within a reasonable period, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a), including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The products, instruments or exposures each trading desk may purchase, sell, or manage as part of its underwriting activities;
</P>
<P>(B) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(D) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (a)(2)(iii)(B) and (C) of this section by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (a) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in the activity described in this paragraph (a) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of distribution.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), a <I>distribution</I> of securities means:
</P>
<P>(i) An offering of securities, whether or not subject to registration under the Securities Act of 1933, that is distinguished from ordinary trading transactions by the presence of special selling efforts and selling methods; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An offering of securities made pursuant to an effective registration statement under the Securities Act of 1933.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of underwriter.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>underwriter</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who has agreed with an issuer or selling security holder to:
</P>
<P>(A) Purchase securities from the issuer or selling security holder for distribution;
</P>
<P>(B) Engage in a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(C) Manage a distribution of securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person who has agreed to participate or is participating in a distribution of such securities for or on behalf of the issuer or selling security holder.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of selling security holder.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), <I>selling security holder</I> means any person, other than an issuer, on whose behalf a distribution is made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definition of underwriting position.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>underwriting position</I> means the long or short positions in one or more securities held by a banking entity or its affiliate, and managed by a particular trading desk, in connection with a particular distribution of securities for which such banking entity or affiliate is acting as an underwriter.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis, refer to market participants that may transact with the banking entity in connection with a particular distribution for which the banking entity is acting as underwriter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Market making-related activities</I>—(1) <I>Permitted market making-related activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to a banking entity's market making-related activities conducted in accordance with this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> The market making-related activities of a banking entity are permitted under paragraph (b)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The trading desk that establishes and manages the financial exposure, routinely stands ready to purchase and sell one or more types of financial instruments related to its financial exposure, and is willing and available to quote, purchase and sell, or otherwise enter into long and short positions in those types of financial instruments for its own account, in commercially reasonable amounts and throughout market cycles on a basis appropriate for the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(ii) The trading desk's market-making related activities are designed not to exceed, on an ongoing basis, the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, including reasonably designed written policies and procedures, internal controls, analysis and independent testing identifying and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial instruments each trading desk stands ready to purchase and sell in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The actions the trading desk will take to demonstrably reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate promptly the risks of its financial exposure consistent with the limits required under paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(C) of this section; the products, instruments, and exposures each trading desk may use for risk management purposes; the techniques and strategies each trading desk may use to manage the risks of its market making-related activities and positions; and the process, strategies, and personnel responsible for ensuring that the actions taken by the trading desk to mitigate these risks are and continue to be effective;
</P>
<P>(C) Limits for each trading desk, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that would exceed a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval; and
</P>
<P>(E) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring and analysis of each trading desk's compliance with its limits; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(C) and (D) of this section by complying with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The compensation arrangements of persons performing the activities described in this paragraph (b) are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The banking entity is licensed or registered to engage in activity described in this paragraph (b) in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition of client, customer, and counterparty.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, the terms <I>client, customer, and counterparty,</I> on a collective or individual basis refer to market participants that make use of the banking entity's market making-related services by obtaining such services, responding to quotations, or entering into a continuing relationship with respect to such services, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) A trading desk or other organizational unit of another banking entity is not a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk if that other entity has trading assets and liabilities of $50 billion or more as measured in accordance with the methodology described in § 351.2(ee) of this part, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The trading desk documents how and why a particular trading desk or other organizational unit of the entity should be treated as a client, customer, or counterparty of the trading desk for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase or sale by the trading desk is conducted anonymously on an exchange or similar trading facility that permits trading on behalf of a broad range of market participants.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition of financial exposure.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>financial exposure</I> means the aggregate risks of one or more financial instruments and any associated loans, commodities, or foreign exchange or currency, held by a banking entity or its affiliate and managed by a particular trading desk as part of the trading desk's market making-related activities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definition of market-maker positions.</I> For the purposes of this section, <I>market-maker positions</I> means all of the positions in the financial instruments for which the trading desk stands ready to make a market in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, that are managed by the trading desk, including the trading desk's open positions or exposures arising from open transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance</I>—(1) <I>Internal limits.</I> (i) A banking entity shall be presumed to meet the requirement in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) or (b)(2)(ii) of this section with respect to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument if the banking entity has established and implements, maintains, and enforces the internal limits for the relevant trading desk as described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to underwriting activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of securities and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's underwriting activities, on the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risk of its underwriting position;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its underwriting position; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Period of time a security may be held.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to market making-related activities conducted pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall be available to each trading desk that establishes, implements, maintains, and enforces internal limits that should take into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and are designed not to exceed the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties, based on the nature and amount of the trading desk's market-making related activities, that address the:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Amount, types, and risks of its market-maker positions;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Amount, types, and risks of the products, instruments, and exposures the trading desk may use for risk management purposes;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Level of exposures to relevant risk factors arising from its financial exposure; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Period of time a financial instrument may be held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Supervisory review and oversight.</I> The limits described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be subject to supervisory review and oversight by the FDIC on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit Breaches and Increases.</I> (i) With respect to any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, a banking entity shall maintain and make available to the FDIC upon request records regarding:
</P>
<P>(A) Any limit that is exceeded; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any temporary or permanent increase to any limit(s), in each case in the form and manner as directed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a breach or increase of any limit set pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, the presumption described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall continue to be available only if the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Takes action as promptly as possible after a breach to bring the trading desk into compliance; and
</P>
<P>(B) Follows established written authorization procedures, including escalation procedures that require review and approval of any trade that exceeds a trading desk's limit(s), demonstrable analysis of the basis for any temporary or permanent increase to a trading desk's limit(s), and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rebutting the presumption.</I> The presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section may be rebutted by the FDIC if the FDIC determines, taking into account the liquidity, maturity, and depth of the market for the relevant types of financial instruments and based on all relevant facts and circumstances, that a trading desk is engaging in activity that is not based on the reasonably expected near term demands of clients, customers, or counterparties. The FDIC's rebuttal of the presumption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62169, Nov. 14, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.5   Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity in connection with and related to individual or aggregated positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity and designed to reduce the specific risks to the banking entity in connection with and related to such positions, contracts, or other holdings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> (1) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program required by subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures regarding the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging, including documentation indicating what positions, contracts or other holdings a particular trading desk may use in its risk-mitigating hedging activities, as well as position and aging limits with respect to such positions, contracts or other holdings;
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(C) The conduct of analysis and independent testing designed to ensure that the positions, techniques and strategies that may be used for hedging may reasonably be expected to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risk(s) being hedged;
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is conducted in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is consistent with the written hedging policies and procedures required under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks that develop over time from the risk-mitigating hedging activities undertaken under this section and the underlying positions, contracts, and other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the underlying and hedging positions, contracts and other holdings of the banking entity and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Requires ongoing recalibration of the hedging activity by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The compensation arrangements of persons performing risk-mitigating hedging activities are designed not to reward or incentivize prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity that does not have significant trading assets and liabilities are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section only if the risk-mitigating hedging activity:
</P>
<P>(i) At the inception of the hedging activity, including, without limitation, any adjustments to the hedging activity, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks, including market risk, counterparty or other credit risk, currency or foreign exchange risk, interest rate risk, commodity price risk, basis risk, or similar risks, arising in connection with and related to identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity, based upon the facts and circumstances of the identified underlying and hedging positions, contracts or other holdings and the risks and liquidity thereof; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is subject, as appropriate, to ongoing recalibration by the banking entity to ensure that the hedging activity satisfies the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(2) of this section and is not prohibited proprietary trading.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation requirement.</I> (1) A banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, unless the requirements of paragraph (c)(4) of this section are met, with respect to any purchase or sale of financial instruments made in reliance on this section for risk-mitigating hedging purposes that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Not established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the hedging activity is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) Established by the specific trading desk establishing or responsible for the underlying positions, contracts, or other holdings the risks of which the purchases or sales are designed to reduce, but that is effected through a financial instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy that is not specifically identified in the trading desk's written policies and procedures established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section or under § 351.4(b)(2)(iii)(B) of this subpart as a product, instrument, exposure, technique, or strategy such trading desk may use for hedging; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Established to hedge aggregated positions across two or more trading desks.
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with any purchase or sale identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a banking entity must, at a minimum, and contemporaneously with the purchase or sale, document:
</P>
<P>(i) The specific, identifiable risk(s) of the identified positions, contracts, or other holdings of the banking entity that the purchase or sale is designed to reduce;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific risk-mitigating strategy that the purchase or sale is designed to fulfill; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The trading desk or other business unit that is establishing and responsible for the hedge.
</P>
<P>(3) A banking entity must create and retain records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (c) for a period that is no less than five years in a form that allows the banking entity to promptly produce such records to the FDIC on request, or such longer period as required under other law or this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The financial instrument purchased or sold is identified on a written list of pre-approved financial instruments that are commonly used by the trading desk for the specific type of hedging activity for which the financial instrument is being purchased or sold; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time the financial instrument is purchased or sold, the hedging activity (including the purchase or sale of the financial instrument) complies with written, pre-approved limits for the trading desk purchasing or selling the financial instrument for hedging activities undertaken for one or more other trading desks. The limits shall be appropriate for the:
</P>
<P>(A) Size, types, and risks of the hedging activities commonly undertaken by the trading desk;
</P>
<P>(B) Financial instruments purchased and sold for hedging activities by the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>(C) Levels and duration of the risk exposures being hedged.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62171, Nov. 14, 2019; 84 FR 66063, Dec. 3, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.6   Other permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted trading in domestic government obligations.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale by a banking entity of a financial instrument that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation, participation, or other instrument of, or issued or guaranteed by, an agency of the United States, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, a Federal Home Loan Bank, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or a Farm Credit System institution chartered under and subject to the provisions of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) An obligation of any State or any political subdivision thereof, including any municipal security; or
</P>
<P>(4) An obligation of the FDIC, or any entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired or held by the FDIC in its corporate capacity or as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permitted trading in foreign government obligations</I>—(1) <I>Affiliates of foreign banking entities in the United States.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of such foreign sovereign, by a banking entity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is organized under or is directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of a foreign sovereign and is not directly or indirectly controlled by a top-tier banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign banking entity referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale as principal is not made by an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign affiliates of a U.S. banking entity.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument that is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, a foreign sovereign (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign, by a foreign entity that is owned or controlled by a banking entity organized or established under the laws of the United States or any State, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The foreign entity is a foreign bank, as defined in section 211.2(j) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2(j)), or is regulated by the foreign sovereign as a securities dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial instrument is an obligation of, or issued or guaranteed by, the foreign sovereign under the laws of which the foreign entity is organized (including any multinational central bank of which the foreign sovereign is a member), or any agency or political subdivision of that foreign sovereign; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The financial instrument is owned by the foreign entity and is not financed by an affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted trading on behalf of customers</I>—(1) <I>Fiduciary transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity, so long as:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity does not have or retain beneficial ownership of the financial instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Riskless principal transactions.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity acting as riskless principal in a transaction in which the banking entity, after receiving an order to purchase (or sell) a financial instrument from a customer, purchases (or sells) the financial instrument for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted trading by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity that is an insurance company or an affiliate of an insurance company if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate purchases or sells the financial instruments solely for:
</P>
<P>(i) The general account of the insurance company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A separate account established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase or sale is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws, regulations, and written guidance of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law, regulation, or written guidance described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the covered banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permitted trading activities of foreign banking entities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase or sale by the banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale meets the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A purchase or sale of financial instruments by a banking entity is made pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase or sale is conducted in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) A purchase or sale by a banking entity is permitted for purposes of this paragraph (e) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity engaging as principal in the purchase or sale (including relevant personnel) is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to purchase or sell as principal is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchase or sale, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to the instruments purchased or sold, is not accounted for as principal directly or on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (e), a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is considered to be located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Permitted trading activities of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.3(a) does not apply to the purchase or sale of a financial instrument by a qualifying foreign excluded fund. For purposes of this paragraph (f), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(3) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity's acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 351.13(b);
</P>
<P>(4) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62172, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46509, July 31, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.7   Limitations on permitted proprietary trading activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 351.4 through 351.6 if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 351.8-351.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 351.8-351.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Covered Funds Activities and Investments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.10   Prohibition on acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in and having certain relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a banking entity may not, as principal, directly or indirectly, acquire or retain any ownership interest in or sponsor a covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not include acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in a covered fund by a banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Acting solely as agent, broker, or custodian, so long as;
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, a customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest;
</P>
<P>(ii) Through a deferred compensation, stock-bonus, profit-sharing, or pension plan of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) that is established and administered in accordance with the law of the United States or a foreign sovereign, if the ownership interest is held or controlled directly or indirectly by the banking entity as trustee for the benefit of persons who are or were employees of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(iii) In the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith, provided that the banking entity divests the ownership interest as soon as practicable, and in no event may the banking entity retain such ownership interest for longer than such period permitted by the FDIC; or
</P>
<P>(iv) On behalf of customers as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity for a customer that is not a covered fund, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The activity is conducted for the account of, or on behalf of, the customer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity and its affiliates do not have or retain beneficial ownership of such ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, covered fund means:
</P>
<P>(i) An issuer that would be an investment company, as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>), <I>but for</I> section 3(c)(1) or 3(c)(7) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-3(c)(1) or (7));
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commodity pool under section 1a(10) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a(10)) for which:
</P>
<P>(A) The commodity pool operator has claimed an exemption under 17 CFR 4.7; or
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) A commodity pool operator is registered with the CFTC as a commodity pool operator in connection with the operation of the commodity pool;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Substantially all participation units of the commodity pool are owned by qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Participation units of the commodity pool have not been publicly offered to persons who are not qualified eligible persons under 17 CFR 4.7(a)(2) and (3); or
</P>
<P>(iii) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, an entity that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside the United States and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities; and
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) Has as its sponsor that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Has issued an ownership interest that is owned directly or indirectly by that banking entity (or an affiliate thereof).
</P>
<P>(2) An issuer shall not be deemed to be a covered fund under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section if, were the issuer subject to U.S. securities laws, the issuer could rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine otherwise, a covered fund does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Foreign public funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is organized or established outside of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is authorized to offer and sell ownership interests, and such interests are offered and sold, through one or more public offerings.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and any issuer for which such banking entity acts as sponsor, the sponsoring banking entity may not rely on the exemption in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section for such issuer unless more than 75 percent of the ownership interests in the issuer are sold to persons other than:
</P>
<P>(A) Such sponsoring banking entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Such issuer;
</P>
<P>(C) Affiliates of such sponsoring banking entity or such issuer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Directors and senior executive officers as defined in § 225.71(c) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.71(c)) of such entities.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the term <I>public offering</I> means a distribution (as defined in § 351.4(a)(3)) of securities in any jurisdiction outside the United States to investors, including retail investors, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The distribution is subject to substantive disclosure and retail investor protection laws or regulations;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to an issuer for which the banking entity serves as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, commodity pool operator, or sponsor, the distribution complies with all applicable requirements in the jurisdiction in which such distribution is being made;
</P>
<P>(C) The distribution does not restrict availability to investors having a minimum level of net worth or net investment assets; and
</P>
<P>(D) The issuer has filed or submitted, with the appropriate regulatory authority in such jurisdiction, offering disclosure documents that are publicly available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wholly-owned subsidiaries.</I> An entity, all of the outstanding ownership interests of which are owned directly or indirectly by the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to five percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests, less any amounts outstanding under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, may be held by employees or directors of the banking entity or such affiliate (including former employees or directors if their ownership interest was acquired while employed by or in the service of the banking entity); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be held by a third party if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by the third party for the purpose of establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture between a banking entity or any of its affiliates and one or more unaffiliated persons, provided that the joint venture:
</P>
<P>(i) Is composed of no more than 10 unaffiliated co-venturers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is in the business of engaging in activities that are permissible for the banking entity or affiliate, other than investing in securities for resale or other disposition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Acquisition vehicles.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) Formed solely for the purpose of engaging in a <I>bona fide</I> merger or acquisition transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That exists only for such period as necessary to effectuate the transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Foreign pension or retirement funds.</I> A plan, fund, or program providing pension, retirement, or similar benefits that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Organized and administered outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) A broad-based plan for employees or citizens that is subject to regulation as a pension, retirement, or similar plan under the laws of the jurisdiction in which the plan, fund, or program is organized and administered; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Established for the benefit of citizens or residents of one or more foreign sovereigns or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Insurance company separate accounts.</I> A separate account, provided that no banking entity other than the insurance company participates in the account's profits and losses.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bank owned life insurance.</I> A separate account that is used solely for the purpose of allowing one or more banking entities to purchase a life insurance policy for which the banking entity or entities is beneficiary, provided that no banking entity that purchases the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Controls the investment decisions regarding the underlying assets or holdings of the separate account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Participates in the profits and losses of the separate account other than in compliance with applicable requirements regarding bank owned life insurance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loan securitizations</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An issuing entity for asset-backed securities that satisfies all the conditions of this paragraph (c)(8) and the assets or holdings of which are composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 351.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to holders of such securities and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the loans, provided that each asset that is a security (other than special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates meeting the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section) meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates that meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Debt securities, other than asset-backed securities and convertible securities, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The aggregate value of such debt securities does not exceed five percent of the aggregate value of loans held under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(A) of this section, cash and cash equivalents held under paragraph (c)(8)(iii)(A) of this section, and debt securities held under this paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The aggregate value of the loans, cash and cash equivalents, and debt securities for purposes of this paragraph is calculated at par value at the most recent time any such debt security is acquired, except that the issuing entity may instead determine the value of any such loan, cash equivalent, or debt security based on its fair market value if:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The issuing entity is required to use the fair market value of such assets for purposes of calculating compliance with concentration limitations or other similar calculations under its transaction agreements, and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The issuing entity's valuation methodology values similarly situated assets consistently.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Impermissible assets.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(8), except as permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, the assets or holdings of the issuing entity shall not include any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A security, including an asset-backed security, or an interest in an equity or debt security other than as permitted in paragraphs (c)(8)(iii), (iv), or (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A derivative, other than a derivative that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(8)(iv) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) A commodity forward contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Permitted securities.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(8)(ii)(A) of this section, the issuing entity may hold securities, other than debt securities permitted under paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section, if those securities are:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash equivalents—which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the securitization's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the asset-backed securities—for purposes of the rights and assets in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to the loans supporting the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Derivatives.</I> The holdings of derivatives by the issuing entity shall be limited to interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives that satisfy all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The written terms of the derivatives directly relate to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) The derivatives reduce the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, the asset-backed securities, the contractual rights or other assets described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(B) of this section, or the debt securities described in paragraph (c)(8)(i)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Special units of beneficial interest and collateral certificates.</I> The assets or holdings of the issuing entity may include collateral certificates and special units of beneficial interest issued by a special purpose vehicle, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate meets the requirements in this paragraph (c)(8);
</P>
<P>(B) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is used for the sole purpose of transferring to the issuing entity for the loan securitization the economic risks and benefits of the assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under this paragraph (c)(8) and does not directly or indirectly transfer any interest in any other economic or financial exposure;
</P>
<P>(C) The special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate is created solely to satisfy legal requirements or otherwise facilitate the structuring of the loan securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) The special purpose vehicle that issues the special unit of beneficial interest or collateral certificate and the issuing entity are established under the direction of the same entity that initiated the loan securitization.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Qualifying asset-backed commercial paper conduits.</I> (i) An issuing entity for asset-backed commercial paper that satisfies all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit holds only:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Loans and other assets permissible for a loan securitization under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Asset-backed securities supported solely by assets that are permissible for loan securitizations under paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section and acquired by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit as part of an initial issuance either directly from the issuing entity of the asset-backed securities or directly from an underwriter in the distribution of the asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(B) The asset-backed commercial paper conduit issues only asset-backed securities, comprised of a residual interest and securities with a legal maturity of 397 days or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide full and unconditional liquidity coverage with respect to all of the outstanding asset-backed securities issued by the asset-backed commercial paper conduit (other than any residual interest) in the event that funds are required to redeem maturing asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(9), a regulated liquidity provider means:
</P>
<P>(A) A depository institution, as defined in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c));
</P>
<P>(B) A bank holding company, as defined in section 2(a) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841(a)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(C) A savings and loan holding company, as defined in section 10a of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(D) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor, as defined in § 211.21(q) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21(q)), has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord for the Basel Committee on banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(E) The United States or a foreign sovereign.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Qualifying covered bonds</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> An entity owning or holding a dynamic or fixed pool of loans or other assets as provided in paragraph (c)(8) of this section for the benefit of the holders of covered bonds, provided that the assets in the pool are composed solely of assets that meet the conditions in paragraph (c)(8)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered bond.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(10), a covered bond means:
</P>
<P>(A) A debt obligation issued by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization, the payment obligations of which are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A debt obligation of an entity that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section, provided that the payment obligations are fully and unconditionally guaranteed by an entity that meets the definition of foreign banking organization and the entity is a wholly-owned subsidiary, as defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, of such foreign banking organization.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>SBICs and public welfare investment funds.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), or that has received from the Small Business Administration notice to proceed to qualify for a license as a small business investment company, which notice or license has not been revoked, or that has voluntarily surrendered its license to operate as a small business investment company in accordance with 13 CFR 107.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such voluntary surrender;
</P>
<P>(ii) The business of which is to make investments that are:
</P>
<P>(A) Designed primarily to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs) and including investments that qualify for consideration under the regulations implementing the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(B) Qualified rehabilitation expenditures with respect to a qualified rehabilitated building or certified historic structure, as such terms are defined in section 47 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 or a similar State historic tax credit program;
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated or is regulated as a rural business investment company, as described in 15 U.S.C. 80b-3(b)(8)(A) or (B), or that has terminated its participation as a rural business investment company in accordance with 7 CFR 4290.1900 and does not make any new investments (other than investments in cash equivalents, which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to the issuer's assets) after such termination; or
</P>
<P>(iv) That is a qualified opportunity fund, as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1400Z-2(d).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Registered investment companies and excluded entities.</I> An issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) That is registered as an investment company under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-8), or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a registered investment company as described in § 351.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 18 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-18);
</P>
<P>(ii) That may rely on an exclusion or exemption from the definition of “investment company” under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) other than the exclusions contained in section 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of that Act; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 80a-53) and has not withdrawn its election, or that is formed and operated pursuant to a written plan to become a business development company as described in § 351.20(e)(3) of subpart D and that complies with the requirements of section 61 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-60).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Issuers in conjunction with the FDIC's receivership or conservatorship operations.</I> An issuer that is an entity formed by or on behalf of the FDIC for the purpose of facilitating the disposal of assets acquired in the FDIC's capacity as conservator or receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Other excluded issuers.</I> (i) Any issuer that the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, and the CFTC jointly determine the exclusion of which is consistent with the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) A determination made under paragraph (c)(14)(i) of this section will be promptly made public.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Credit funds.</I> Subject to paragraphs (c)(15)(iii), (iv), and (v) of this section, an issuer that satisfies the asset and activity requirements of paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Asset requirements.</I> The issuer's assets must be composed solely of:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans as defined in § 351.2(t);
</P>
<P>(B) Debt instruments, subject to paragraph (c)(15)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Rights and other assets that are related or incidental to acquiring, holding, servicing, or selling such loans or debt instruments, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Each right or asset held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) that is a security is either:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A cash equivalent (which, for the purposes of this paragraph, means high quality, highly liquid investments whose maturity corresponds to the issuer's expected or potential need for funds and whose currency corresponds to either the underlying loans or the debt instruments);
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A security received in lieu of debts previously contracted with respect to such loans or debt instruments; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) An equity security (or right to acquire an equity security) received on customary terms in connection with such loans or debt instruments; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Rights or other assets held under this paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section may not include commodity forward contracts or any derivative; and
</P>
<P>(D) Interest rate or foreign exchange derivatives, if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The written terms of the derivative directly relate to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The derivative reduces the interest rate and/or foreign exchange risks related to the loans, debt instruments, or other rights or assets described in paragraph (c)(15)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Activity requirements.</I> To be eligible for the exclusion of paragraph (c)(15) of this section, an issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 351.3(b)(l)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Not issue asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Requirements for a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor.</I> A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 351.11(a)(8) of this subpart, as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the limitations imposed in § 351.14, as if the issuer were a covered fund, except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Additional Banking Entity Requirements.</I> A banking entity may not rely on this exclusion with respect to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraphs (c)(15)(i) and (ii) of this section unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer or of any entity to which such issuer extends credit or in which such issuer invests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any assets the issuer holds pursuant to paragraphs (c)(15)(i)(B) or (i)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section would be permissible for the banking entity to acquire and hold directly under applicable federal banking laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Investment and Relationship Limits.</I> A banking entity's investment in, and relationship with, the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 351.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Qualifying venture capital funds.</I> (i) Subject to paragraphs (c)(16)(ii) through (iv) of this section, an issuer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a venture capital fund as defined in 17 CFR 275.203(l)-1; and
</P>
<P>(B) Does not engage in any activity that would constitute proprietary trading under § 351.3(b)(1)(i), as if the issuer were a banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity that acts as a sponsor, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor to an issuer that meets the conditions in paragraph (c)(16)(i) of this section may not rely on this exclusion unless the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Provides in writing to any prospective and actual investor in the issuer the disclosures required under § 351.11(a)(8), as if the issuer were a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensures that the activities of the issuer are consistent with safety and soundness standards that are substantially similar to those that would apply if the banking entity engaged in the activities directly; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the restrictions in § 351.14 as if the issuer were a covered fund (except the banking entity may acquire and retain any ownership interest in the issuer).
</P>
<P>(iii) The banking entity must not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the issuer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A banking entity's ownership interest in or relationship with the issuer must:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the limitations imposed in § 351.15, as if the issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be conducted in compliance with, and subject to, applicable banking laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Family wealth management vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(17)(ii) of this section, any entity that is not, and does not hold itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in securities for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in securities, and:
</P>
<P>(A) If the entity is a trust, the grantor(s) of the entity are all family customers; and
</P>
<P>(B) If the entity is not a trust:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A majority of the voting interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A majority of the interests in the entity are owned (directly or indirectly) by family customers;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The entity is owned only by family customers and up to 5 closely related persons of the family customers; and
</P>
<P>(C) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(17)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the entity's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not family customers or closely related persons if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(17)(i) of this section with respect to an entity provided that the banking entity (or an affiliate):
</P>
<P>(A) Provides bona fide trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services to the entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such entity;
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with the disclosure obligations under § 351.11(a)(8), as if such entity were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the entity;
</P>
<P>(D) Does not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the entity, other than as described in paragraph (c)(17)(i)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Complies with the requirements of §§ 351.14(b) and 351.15, as if such entity were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(F) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, complies with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the entity were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(17) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Closely related person</I> means a natural person (including the estate and estate planning vehicles of such person) who has longstanding business or personal relationships with any family customer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Family customer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A family client, as defined in Rule 202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (17 CFR 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1(d)(4)); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any natural person who is a father-in-law, mother-in-law, brother-in-law, sister-in-law, son-in-law or daughter-in-law of a family client, or a spouse or a spousal equivalent of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Customer facilitation vehicles.</I> (i) Subject to paragraph (c)(18)(ii) of this section, an issuer that is formed by or at the request of a customer of the banking entity for the purpose of providing such customer (which may include one or more affiliates of such customer) with exposure to a transaction, investment strategy, or other service provided by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity may rely on the exclusion in paragraph (c)(18)(i) of this section with respect to an issuer provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) All of the ownership interests of the issuer are owned by the customer (which may include one or more of its affiliates) for whom the issuer was created;
</P>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(A) of this section, up to an aggregate 0.5 percent of the issuer's outstanding ownership interests may be acquired or retained by one or more entities that are not customers if the ownership interest is acquired or retained by such parties for the purpose of and to the extent necessary for establishing corporate separateness or addressing bankruptcy, insolvency, or similar concerns; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Maintain documentation outlining how the banking entity intends to facilitate the customer's exposure to such transaction, investment strategy, or service;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of such issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Comply with the disclosure obligations under § 351.11(a)(8), as if such issuer were a covered fund, provided that the content may be modified to prevent the disclosure from being misleading and the manner of disclosure may be modified to accommodate the specific circumstances of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Do not acquire or retain, as principal, an ownership interest in the issuer, other than as described in paragraph (c)(18)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Comply with the requirements of §§ 351.14(b) and 351.15, as if such issuer were a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Except for riskless principal transactions as defined in paragraph (d)(11) of this section, comply with the requirements of 12 CFR 223.15(a), as if such banking entity and its affiliates were a member bank and the issuer were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definition of other terms related to covered funds.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable accounting standards</I> means U.S. generally accepted accounting principles, or such other accounting standards applicable to a banking entity that the FDIC determines are appropriate and that the banking entity uses in the ordinary course of its business in preparing its consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Asset-backed security</I> has the meaning specified in Section 3(a)(79) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Director</I> has the same meaning as provided in section 215.2(d)(1) of the Board's Regulation O (12 CFR 215.2(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuer</I> has the same meaning as in section 2(a)(22) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(22)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Issuing entity</I> means with respect to asset-backed securities the special purpose vehicle that owns or holds the pool assets underlying asset-backed securities and in whose name the asset-backed securities supported or serviced by the pool assets are issued.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Ownership interest</I>—(i) <I>Ownership interest</I> means any equity, partnership, or other similar interest. An other similar interest means an interest that:
</P>
<P>(A) Has the right to participate in the selection or removal of a general partner, managing member, member of the board of directors or trustees, investment manager, investment adviser, or commodity trading advisor of the covered fund, excluding:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The right to participate in the removal of an investment manager for “cause” or participate in the selection of a replacement manager upon an investment manager's resignation or removal. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(6)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>), “cause” for removal of an investment manager means one or more of the following events: <I>(i)</I> The bankruptcy, insolvency, conservatorship or receivership of the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(ii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of any material provision of the covered fund's transaction agreements applicable to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(iii)</I> The breach by the investment manager of material representations or warranties;
</P>
<P><I>(iv)</I> The occurrence of an act that constitutes fraud or criminal activity in the performance of the investment manager's obligations under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P><I>(v)</I> The indictment of the investment manager for a criminal offense, or the indictment of any officer, member, partner or other principal of the investment manager for a criminal offense materially related to his or her investment management activities;
</P>
<P><I>(vi)</I> A change in control with respect to the investment manager;
</P>
<P><I>(vii)</I> The loss, separation or incapacitation of an individual critical to the operation of the investment manager or primarily responsible for the management of the covered fund's assets; or
</P>
<P><I>(viii)</I> Other similar events that constitute “cause” for removal of an investment manager, provided that such events are not solely related to the performance of the covered fund or the investment manager's exercise of investment discretion under the covered fund's transaction agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) Has the right under the terms of the interest to receive a share of the income, gains or profits of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Has the right to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed and/or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event);
</P>
<P>(D) Has the right to receive all or a portion of excess spread (the positive difference, if any, between the aggregate interest payments received from the underlying assets of the covered fund and the aggregate interest paid to the holders of other outstanding interests);
</P>
<P>(E) Provides under the terms of the interest that the amounts payable by the covered fund with respect to the interest could be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest;
</P>
<P>(F) Receives income on a pass-through basis from the covered fund, or has a rate of return that is determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(G) Any synthetic right to have, receive, or be allocated any of the rights in paragraphs (d)(6)(i)(A) through (F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Ownership interest does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Restricted profit interest, which is an interest held by an entity (or an employee or former employee thereof) in a covered fund for which the entity (or employee thereof) serves as investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or other service provider, so long as:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sole purpose and effect of the interest is to allow the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to share in the profits of the covered fund as performance compensation for the investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services provided to the covered fund by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof), provided that the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) may be obligated under the terms of such interest to return profits previously received;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All such profit, once allocated, is distributed to the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) promptly after being earned or, if not so distributed, is retained by the covered fund for the sole purpose of establishing a reserve amount to satisfy contractual obligations with respect to subsequent losses of the covered fund and such undistributed profit of the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) does not share in the subsequent investment gains of the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any amounts invested in the covered fund, including any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining the restricted profit interest, are within the limits of § 351.12 of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest is not transferable by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) except to an affiliate thereof (or an employee of the banking entity or affiliate), to immediate family members, or through the intestacy, of the employee or former employee, or in connection with a sale of the business that gave rise to the restricted profit interest by the entity (or employee or former employee thereof) to an unaffiliated party that provides investment management, investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) Any senior loan or senior debt interest that has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Under the terms of the interest the holders of such interest do not have the right to receive a share of the income, gains, or profits of the covered fund, but are entitled to receive only:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Interest at a stated interest rate, as well as commitment fees or other fees, which are not determined by reference to the performance of the underlying assets of the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Repayment of a fixed principal amount, on or before a maturity date, in a contractually-determined manner (which may include prepayment premiums intended solely to reflect, and compensate holders of the interest for, forgone income resulting from an early prepayment);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The entitlement to payments under the terms of the interest are absolute and could not be reduced based on losses arising from the underlying assets of the covered fund, such as allocation of losses, write-downs or charge-offs of the outstanding principal balance, or reductions in the amount of interest due and payable on the interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The holders of the interest are not entitled to receive the underlying assets of the covered fund after all other interests have been redeemed or paid in full (excluding the rights of a creditor to exercise remedies upon the occurrence of an event of default or an acceleration event).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prime brokerage transaction</I> means any transaction that would be a covered transaction, as defined in section 23A(b)(7) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), that is provided in connection with custody, clearance and settlement, securities borrowing or lending services, trade execution, financing, or data, operational, and administrative support.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Resident of the United States</I> means a person that is a “U.S. person” as defined in rule 902(k) of the SEC's Regulation S (17 CFR 230.902(k)).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Sponsor</I> means, with respect to a covered fund:
</P>
<P>(i) To serve as a general partner, managing member, or trustee of a covered fund, or to serve as a commodity pool operator with respect to a covered fund as defined in (b)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) In any manner to select or to control (or to have employees, officers, or directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of a covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To share with a covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes, the same name or a variation of the same name, except as permitted under § 351.11(a)(6).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Trustee.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (d)(9) of this section and § 351.11 of subpart C, a trustee does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A trustee that does not exercise investment discretion with respect to a covered fund, including a trustee that is subject to the direction of an unaffiliated named fiduciary who is not a trustee pursuant to section 403(a)(1) of the Employee's Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1103(a)(1)); or
</P>
<P>(B) A trustee that is subject to fiduciary standards imposed under foreign law that are substantially equivalent to those described in paragraph (d)(10)(i)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any entity that directs a person described in paragraph (d)(10)(i) of this section, or that possesses authority and discretion to manage and control the investment decisions of a covered fund for which such person serves as trustee, shall be considered to be a trustee of such covered fund.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Riskless principal transaction.</I> Riskless principal transaction means a transaction in which a banking entity, after receiving an order from a customer to buy (or sell) a security, purchases (or sells) the security in the secondary market for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35021, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62172, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46510, July 31, 2020]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.11   Permitted organizing and offering, underwriting, and market making with respect to a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Organizing and offering a covered fund in general.</I> Notwithstanding § 351.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering a covered fund, including serving as a general partner, managing member, trustee, or commodity pool operator of the covered fund and in any manner selecting or controlling (or having employees, officers, directors, or agents who constitute) a majority of the directors, trustees, or management of the covered fund, including any necessary expenses for the foregoing, only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) provides <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered fund is organized and offered only in connection with the provision of <I>bona fide</I> trust, fiduciary, investment advisory, or commodity trading advisory services and only to persons that are customers of such services of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), pursuant to a written plan or similar documentation outlining how the banking entity or such affiliate intends to provide advisory or similar services to its customers through organizing and offering such fund;
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity and its affiliates do not acquire or retain an ownership interest in the covered fund except as permitted under § 351.12 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) The banking entity and its affiliates comply with the requirements of § 351.14 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) The banking entity and its affiliates do not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests;
</P>
<P>(6) The covered fund, for corporate, marketing, promotional, or other purposes:
</P>
<P>(i) Does not share the same name or a variation of the same name with the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof), except that a covered fund may share the same name or a variation of the same name with a banking entity that is an investment adviser to the covered fund if:
</P>
<P>(A) The investment adviser is not an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(B) The investment adviser does not share the same name or a variation of the same name as an insured depository institution, a company that controls an insured depository institution, or a company that is treated as a bank holding company for purposes of section 8 of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not use the word “bank” in its name;
</P>
<P>(7) No director or employee of the banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) takes or retains an ownership interest in the covered fund, except for any director or employee of the banking entity or such affiliate who is directly engaged in providing investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund at the time the director or employee takes the ownership interest; and
</P>
<P>(8) The banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Clearly and conspicuously discloses, in writing, to any prospective and actual investor in the covered fund (such as through disclosure in the covered fund's offering documents):
</P>
<P>(A) That “any losses in [such covered fund] will be borne solely by investors in [the covered fund] and not by [the banking entity] or its affiliates; therefore, [the banking entity's] losses in [such covered fund] will be limited to losses attributable to the ownership interests in the covered fund held by [the banking entity] and any affiliate in its capacity as investor in the [covered fund] or as beneficiary of a restricted profit interest held by [the banking entity] or any affiliate”;
</P>
<P>(B) That such investor should read the fund offering documents before investing in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) That the “ownership interests in the covered fund are not insured by the FDIC, and are not deposits, obligations of, or endorsed or guaranteed in any way, by any banking entity” (unless that happens to be the case); and
</P>
<P>(D) The role of the banking entity and its affiliates and employees in sponsoring or providing any services to the covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Complies with any additional rules of the appropriate Federal banking agencies, the SEC, or the CFTC, as provided in section 13(b)(2) of the BHC Act, designed to ensure that losses in such covered fund are borne solely by investors in the covered fund and not by the covered banking entity and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Organizing and offering an issuing entity of asset-backed securities.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 351.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity is not prohibited from acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in, or acting as sponsor to, a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities in connection with, directly or indirectly, organizing and offering that issuing entity, so long as the banking entity and its affiliates comply with all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(3) through (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b), organizing and offering a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities means acting as the securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)) of the issuing entity, or acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in the issuing entity as required by section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C.78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting and market making in ownership interests of a covered fund.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to a banking entity's underwriting activities or market making-related activities involving a covered fund so long as:
</P>
<P>(1) Those activities are conducted in accordance with the requirements of § 351.4(a) or (b) of subpart B, respectively; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any banking entity (or any affiliate thereof) that: Acts as a sponsor, investment adviser or commodity trading advisor to a particular covered fund or otherwise acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund in reliance on paragraph (a) of this section; or acquires and retains an ownership interest in such covered fund and is either a securitizer, as that term is used in section 15G(a)(3) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11(a)(3)), or is acquiring and retaining an ownership interest in such covered fund in compliance with section 15G of that Act (15 U.S.C.78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder each as permitted by paragraph (b) of this section, then in each such case any ownership interests acquired or retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in connection with underwriting and market making related activities for that particular covered fund are included in the calculation of ownership interests permitted to be held by the banking entity and its affiliates under the limitations of § 351.12(a)(2)(ii) and (iii) and (d) of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 35021, July 22, 2019; 84 FR 62172, Nov. 14, 2019]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.12   Permitted investment in a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and limitations on permitted investments in covered funds.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart, a banking entity may acquire and retain an ownership interest in a covered fund that the banking entity or an affiliate thereof organizes and offers pursuant to § 351.11, for the purposes of:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Establishment.</I> Establishing the fund and providing the fund with sufficient initial equity for investment to permit the fund to attract unaffiliated investors, subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>De minimis investment.</I> Making and retaining an investment in the covered fund subject to the limits contained in paragraphs (a)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment limits</I>—(i) <I>Seeding period.</I> With respect to an investment in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the banking entity and its affiliates:
</P>
<P>(A) Must actively seek unaffiliated investors to reduce, through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods, the aggregate amount of all ownership interests of the banking entity in the covered fund to the amount permitted in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must, no later than 1 year after the date of establishment of the fund (or such longer period as may be provided by the Board pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section), conform its ownership interest in the covered fund to the limits in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Per-fund limits.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, an investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in any covered fund made or held pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section may not exceed 3 percent of the total number or value of the outstanding ownership interests of the fund.
</P>
<P>(B) An investment by a banking entity and its affiliates in a covered fund that is an issuing entity of asset-backed securities may not exceed 3 percent of the total fair market value of the ownership interests of the fund measured in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, unless a greater percentage is retained by the banking entity and its affiliates in compliance with the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>o</I>-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder, in which case the investment by the banking entity and its affiliates in the covered fund may not exceed the amount, number, or value of ownership interests of the fund required under section 15G of the Exchange Act and the implementing regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> The aggregate value of all ownership interests of the banking entity and its affiliates in all covered funds acquired or retained under this section may not exceed 3 percent of the tier 1 capital of the banking entity, as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, and shall be calculated as of the last day of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Date of establishment.</I> For purposes of this section, the date of establishment of a covered fund shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>In general.</I> The date on which the investment adviser or similar entity to the covered fund begins making investments pursuant to the written investment strategy for the fund;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, the date on which the assets are initially transferred into the issuing entity of asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of construction</I>—(1) <I>Attribution of ownership interests to a covered banking entity.</I> (i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the amount and value of a banking entity's permitted investment in any single covered fund shall include any ownership interest held under § 351.12 directly by the banking entity, including any affiliate of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Treatment of registered investment companies, SEC-regulated business development companies, and foreign public funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a registered investment company, SEC-regulated business development companies, or foreign public fund as described in § 351.10(c)(1) will not be considered to be an affiliate of the banking entity so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity, together with its affiliates, does not own, control, or hold with the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting shares of the company or fund; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity, or an affiliate of the banking entity, provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, administrative, and other services to the company or fund in compliance with the limitations under applicable regulation, order, or other authority.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covered funds.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, a covered fund will not be considered to be an affiliate of a banking entity so long as the covered fund is held in compliance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Treatment of employee and director investments financed by the banking entity.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires an ownership interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the ownership interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of permitted ownership interests in a single covered fund.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) or (4), for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate number of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the total number of ownership interests held under this section by the banking entity in a covered fund divided by the total number of ownership interests held by all entities in that covered fund, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (both measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment);
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests held by the banking entity shall be the aggregate fair market value of all investments in and capital contributions made to the covered fund by the banking entity, divided by the value of all investments in and capital contributions made to that covered fund by all entities, as of the last day of each calendar quarter (all measured without regard to committed funds not yet called for investment). If fair market value cannot be determined, then the value shall be the historical cost basis of all investments in and contributions made by the banking entity to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, once a valuation methodology is chosen, the banking entity must calculate the value of its investment and the investments of all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Issuing entities of asset-backed securities.</I> In the case of an ownership interest in an issuing entity of asset-backed securities, for purposes of determining whether an investment in a single covered fund complies with the restrictions on ownership interests under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For securitizations subject to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), the calculations shall be made as of the date and according to the valuation methodology applicable pursuant to the requirements of section 15G of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11) and the implementing regulations issued thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the calculations shall be made as of the date of establishment as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(iv)(B) of this section or such earlier date on which the transferred assets have been valued for purposes of transfer to the covered fund, and thereafter only upon the date on which additional securities of the issuing entity of asset-backed securities are priced for purposes of the sales of ownership interests to unaffiliated investors.
</P>
<P>(iii) For securitization transactions completed prior to the compliance date of such implementing regulations (or as to which such implementing regulations do not apply), the aggregate value of the outstanding ownership interests in the covered fund shall be the fair market value of the assets transferred to the issuing entity of the securitization and any other assets otherwise held by the issuing entity at such time, determined in a manner that is consistent with its determination of the fair market value of those assets for financial statement purposes.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of the calculation under paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair market value of the ownership interests must be the same for both the ownership interests held by a banking entity and the ownership interests held by all others in the covered fund in the same manner and according to the same standards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multi-tier fund investments</I>—(i) <I>Master-feeder fund investments.</I> If the principal investment strategy of a covered fund (the “feeder fund”) is to invest substantially all of its assets in another single covered fund (the “master fund”), then for purposes of the investment limitations in paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(B) and (a)(2)(ii) of this section, the banking entity's permitted investment in such funds shall be measured only by reference to the value of the master fund. The banking entity's permitted investment in the master fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in the master fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the master fund that is held through the feeder fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fund-of-funds investments.</I> If a banking entity organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 351.11 for the purpose of investing in other covered funds (a “fund of funds”) and that fund of funds itself invests in another covered fund that the banking entity is permitted to own, then the banking entity's permitted investment in that other fund shall include any investment by the banking entity in that other fund, as well as the banking entity's pro-rata share of any ownership interest in the fund that is held through the fund of funds. The investment of the banking entity may not represent more than 3 percent of the amount or value of any single covered fund.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Parallel Investments and Co-Investments.</I> (i) A banking entity shall not be required to include in the calculation of the investment limits under paragraph (a)(2) of this section any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(ii) A banking entity shall not be restricted under this section in the amount of any investment the banking entity makes alongside a covered fund as long as the investment is made in compliance with applicable laws and regulations, including applicable safety and soundness standards.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Aggregate permitted investments in all covered funds.</I> (1)(i) For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section, the aggregate value of all ownership interests held by a banking entity shall be the sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest in covered funds (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii)), on a historical cost basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of tier 1 capital.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Entities that are required to hold and report tier 1 capital.</I> If a banking entity is required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital of the banking entity as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter, as reported to its primary financial regulatory agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If a banking entity is not required to calculate and report tier 1 capital, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be determined to be equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a banking entity that is controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by such controlling depository institution in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a banking entity that is not controlled, directly or indirectly, by a depository institution that calculates and reports tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Bank holding company subsidiaries.</I> If the banking entity is a subsidiary of a bank holding company or company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the amount of tier 1 capital reported by the top-tier affiliate of such covered banking entity that calculates and reports tier 1 capital in the manner described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Other holding companies and any subsidiary or affiliate thereof.</I> If the banking entity is not a subsidiary of a bank holding company or a company that is treated as a bank holding company, be equal to the total amount of shareholders' equity of the top-tier affiliate within such organization as of the last day of the most recent calendar quarter that has ended, as determined under applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Treatment of foreign banking entities</I>—(A) <I>Foreign banking entities.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(B) of this section, with respect to a banking entity that is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, the tier 1 capital of the banking entity shall be the consolidated tier 1 capital of the entity as calculated under applicable home country standards.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>U.S. affiliates of foreign banking entities.</I> With respect to a banking entity that is located or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State and is controlled by a foreign banking entity identified under paragraph (c)(2)(iii)(A) of this section, the banking entity's tier 1 capital shall be as calculated under paragraphs (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital treatment for a permitted investment in a covered fund.</I> For purposes of calculating compliance with the applicable regulatory capital requirements, a banking entity shall deduct from the banking entity's tier 1 capital (as determined under paragraph (c)(2) of this section) the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The sum of all amounts paid or contributed by the banking entity in connection with acquiring or retaining an ownership interest (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), on a historical cost basis, plus any earnings received; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The fair market value of the banking entity's ownership interests in the covered fund as determined under paragraph (b)(2)(ii) or (b)(3) of this section (together with any amounts paid by the entity in connection with obtaining a restricted profit interest under § 351.10(d)(6)(ii) of subpart C of this part), if the banking entity accounts for the profits (or losses) of the fund investment in its financial statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Treatment of employee and director restricted profit interests financed by the banking entity. For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an investment by a director or employee of a banking entity who acquires a restricted profit interest in his or her personal capacity in a covered fund sponsored by the banking entity will be attributed to the banking entity if the banking entity, directly or indirectly, extends financing for the purpose of enabling the director or employee to acquire the restricted profit interest in the fund and the financing is used to acquire such ownership interest in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extension of time to divest an ownership interest</I>—(1) <I>Extension period.</I> Upon application by a banking entity, the Board may extend the period under paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for up to 2 additional years if the Board finds that an extension would be consistent with safety and soundness and not detrimental to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application requirements.</I> An application for extension must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the reasons for application, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (e)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the banking entity's plan for reducing the permitted investment in a covered fund through redemption, sale, dilution or other methods as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Factors governing the Board determinations.</I> In reviewing any application under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the permitted investment in a covered fund, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the investment would result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(ii) The contractual terms governing the banking entity's interest in the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date on which the covered fund is expected to have attracted sufficient investments from investors unaffiliated with the banking entity to enable the banking entity to comply with the limitations in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total exposure of the covered banking entity to the investment and the risks that disposing of, or maintaining, the investment in the covered fund may pose to the banking entity and the financial stability of the United States;
</P>
<P>(v) The cost to the banking entity of divesting or disposing of the investment within the applicable period;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the investment or the divestiture or conformance of the investment would involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and unaffiliated parties, including clients, customers, or counterparties to which it owes a duty;
</P>
<P>(vii) The banking entity's prior efforts to reduce through redemption, sale, dilution, or other methods its ownership interests in the covered fund, including activities related to the marketing of interests in such covered fund;
</P>
<P>(viii) Market conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any other factor that the Board believes appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Authority to impose restrictions on activities or investment during any extension period.</I> The Board may impose such conditions on any extension approved under paragraph (e)(1) of this section as the Board determines are necessary or appropriate to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity or the financial stability of the United States, address material conflicts of interest or other unsound banking practices, or otherwise further the purposes of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consultation.</I> In the case of a banking entity that is primarily regulated by another Federal banking agency, the SEC, or the CFTC, the Board will consult with such agency prior to acting on an application by the banking entity for an extension under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62172, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46514, July 31, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.13   Other permitted covered fund activities and investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permitted risk-mitigating hedging activities.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart does not apply with respect to an ownership interest in a covered fund acquired or retained by a banking entity that is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate the specific, identifiable risks to the banking entity in connection with:
</P>
<P>(i) A compensation arrangement with an employee of the banking entity or an affiliate thereof that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory or other services to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A position taken by the banking entity when acting as intermediary on behalf of a customer that is not itself a banking entity to facilitate the exposure by the customer to the profits and losses of the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(2) The risk-mitigating hedging activities of a banking entity are permitted under this paragraph (a) only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has established and implements, maintains and enforces an internal compliance program in accordance with subpart D of this part that is reasonably designed to ensure the banking entity's compliance with the requirements of this section, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Reasonably designed written policies and procedures; and
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls and ongoing monitoring, management, and authorization procedures, including relevant escalation procedures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or retention of the ownership interest:
</P>
<P>(A) Is made in accordance with the written policies, procedures, and internal controls required under this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the inception of the hedge, is designed to reduce or otherwise significantly mitigate one or more specific, identifiable risks arising:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Out of a transaction conducted solely to accommodate a specific customer request with respect to the covered fund; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In connection with the compensation arrangement with the employee that directly provides investment advisory, commodity trading advisory, or other services to the covered fund;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not give rise, at the inception of the hedge, to any significant new or additional risk that is not itself hedged contemporaneously in accordance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is subject to continuing review, monitoring and management by the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to risk-mitigating hedging activity conducted pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the compensation arrangement relates solely to the covered fund in which the banking entity or any affiliate has acquired an ownership interest pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) and such compensation arrangement provides that any losses incurred by the banking entity on such ownership interest will be offset by corresponding decreases in amounts payable under such compensation arrangement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain permitted covered fund activities and investments outside of the United States.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund by a banking entity only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity is not organized or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States;
</P>
<P>(ii) The activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) No ownership interest in the covered fund is offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) An activity or investment by the banking entity is pursuant to paragraph (9) or (13) of section 4(c) of the BHC Act for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The activity or investment is conducted in accordance with the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) With respect to a banking entity that is a foreign banking organization, the banking entity meets the qualifying foreign banking organization requirements of section 211.23(a), (c) or (e) of the Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.23(a), (c) or (e)), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a banking entity that is not a foreign banking organization, the banking entity is not organized under the laws of the United States or of one or more States and the banking entity, on a fully-consolidated basis, meets at least two of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Total assets of the banking entity held outside of the United States exceed total assets of the banking entity held in the United States;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceed total revenues derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Total net income derived from the business of the banking entity outside of the United States exceeds total net income derived from the business of the banking entity in the United States.
</P>
<P>(3) An ownership interest in a covered fund is not offered for sale or sold to a resident of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section only if it is not sold and has not been sold pursuant to an offering that targets residents of the United States in which the banking entity or any affiliate of the banking entity participates. If the banking entity or an affiliate sponsors or serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity pool operator or commodity trading advisor to a covered fund, then the banking entity or affiliate will be deemed for purposes of this paragraph (b)(3) to participate in any offer or sale by the covered fund of ownership interests in the covered fund.
</P>
<P>(4) An activity or investment occurs solely outside of the United States for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity acting as sponsor, or engaging as principal in the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in the covered fund, is not itself, and is not controlled directly or indirectly by, a banking entity that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) The banking entity (including relevant personnel) that makes the decision to acquire or retain the ownership interest or act as sponsor to the covered fund is not located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The investment or sponsorship, including any transaction arising from risk-mitigating hedging related to an ownership interest, is not accounted for as principal directly or indirectly on a consolidated basis by any branch or affiliate that is located in the United States or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank, or any subsidiary thereof, is located in the United States; however, a foreign bank of which that branch, agency, or subsidiary is a part is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operation of the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Permitted covered fund interests and activities by a regulated insurance company.</I> The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) of this subpart does not apply to the acquisition or retention by an insurance company, or an affiliate thereof, of any ownership interest in, or the sponsorship of, a covered fund only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The insurance company or its affiliate acquires and retains the ownership interest solely for the general account of the insurance company or for one or more separate accounts established by the insurance company;
</P>
<P>(2) The acquisition and retention of the ownership interest is conducted in compliance with, and subject to, the insurance company investment laws and regulations of the State or jurisdiction in which such insurance company is domiciled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agencies, after consultation with the Financial Stability Oversight Council and the relevant insurance commissioners of the States and foreign jurisdictions, as appropriate, have not jointly determined, after notice and comment, that a particular law or regulation described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is insufficient to protect the safety and soundness of the banking entity, or the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted covered fund activities and investments of qualifying foreign excluded funds.</I> (1) The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a) does not apply to a qualifying foreign excluded fund.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (d), a qualifying foreign excluded fund means a banking entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is organized or established outside the United States, and the ownership interests of which are offered and sold solely outside the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Would be a covered fund if the entity were organized or established in the United States, or
</P>
<P>(B) Is, or holds itself out as being, an entity or arrangement that raises money from investors primarily for the purpose of investing in financial instruments for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in financial instruments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Would not otherwise be a banking entity except by virtue of the acquisition or retention of an ownership interest in, sponsorship of, or relationship with the entity, by another banking entity that meets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is not organized, or directly or indirectly controlled by a banking entity that is organized, under the laws of the United States or of any State; and
</P>
<P>(B) The banking entity's acquisition of an ownership interest in or sponsorship of the fund by the foreign banking entity meets the requirements for permitted covered fund activities and investments solely outside the United States, as provided in § 351.13(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) Is established and operated as part of a bona fide asset management business; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is not operated in a manner that enables the banking entity that sponsors or controls the qualifying foreign excluded fund, or any of its affiliates, to evade the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62172, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46515, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.14   Limitations on relationships with a covered fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relationships with a covered fund.</I> (1) Except as provided for in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, no banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 351.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 351.11(b) of this subpart, and no affiliate of such entity, may enter into a transaction with the covered fund, or with any other covered fund that is controlled by such covered fund, that would be a covered transaction as defined in section 23A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c(b)(7)), as if such banking entity and the affiliate thereof were a member bank and the covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a banking entity may:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquire and retain any ownership interest in a covered fund in accordance with the requirements of §§ 351.11, 351.12, or 351.13;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into any prime brokerage transaction with any covered fund in which a covered fund managed, sponsored, or advised by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof) has taken an ownership interest, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The banking entity is in compliance with each of the limitations set forth in § 351.11 of this subpart with respect to a covered fund organized and offered by such banking entity (or an affiliate thereof);
</P>
<P>(B) The chief executive officer (or equivalent officer) of the banking entity certifies in writing annually no later than March 31 to the FDIC (with a duty to update the certification if the information in the certification materially changes) that the banking entity does not, directly or indirectly, guarantee, assume, or otherwise insure the obligations or performance of the covered fund or of any covered fund in which such covered fund invests; and
</P>
<P>(C) The Board has not determined that such transaction is inconsistent with the safe and sound operation and condition of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(C) The Board has not determined that such transaction is inconsistent with the safe and sound operation and condition of the banking entity; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Enter into a transaction with a covered fund that would be an exempt covered transaction under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42) subject to the limitations specified under 12 U.S.C. 371c(d) or § 223.42 of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42), as applicable,
</P>
<P>(iv) Enter into a riskless principal transaction with a covered fund; and
</P>
<P>(v) Extend credit to or purchase assets from a covered fund, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) Each extension of credit or purchase of assets is in the ordinary course of business in connection with payment transactions; settlement services; or futures, derivatives, and securities clearing;
</P>
<P>(B) Each extension of credit is repaid, sold, or terminated by the end of five business days; and
</P>
<P>(C) The banking entity making each extension of credit meets the requirements of § 223.42(l)(1)(i) and (ii) of the Board's Regulation W (12 CFR 223.42(l)(1)(i) and(ii)), as if the extension of credit was an intraday extension of credit, regardless of the duration of the extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(3) Any transaction or activity permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(iii), (iv) or (v) must comply with the limitations in § 351.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions on transactions with covered funds.</I> A banking entity that serves, directly or indirectly, as the investment manager, investment adviser, commodity trading advisor, or sponsor to a covered fund, or that organizes and offers a covered fund pursuant to § 351.11 of this subpart, or that continues to hold an ownership interest in accordance with § 351.11(b) of this subpart, shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1), as if such banking entity were a member bank and such covered fund were an affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on other permitted transactions.</I> Any transaction permitted under paragraphs (a)(2)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of this section shall be subject to section 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c-1) as if the counterparty were an affiliate of the banking entity under section 23B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62173, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46515, July 31, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.15   Other limitations on permitted covered fund activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No transaction, class of transactions, or activity may be deemed permissible under §§ 351.11 through 351.13 of this subpart if the transaction, class of transactions, or activity would:
</P>
<P>(1) Involve or result in a material conflict of interest between the banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure by the banking entity to a high-risk asset or a high-risk trading strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) Pose a threat to the safety and soundness of the banking entity or to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of material conflict of interest.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, a material conflict of interest between a banking entity and its clients, customers, or counterparties exists if the banking entity engages in any transaction, class of transactions, or activity that would involve or result in the banking entity's interests being materially adverse to the interests of its client, customer, or counterparty with respect to such transaction, class of transactions, or activity, and the banking entity has not taken at least one of the actions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to effecting the specific transaction or class or type of transactions, or engaging in the specific activity, the banking entity:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Timely and effective disclosure.</I> (A) Has made clear, timely, and effective disclosure of the conflict of interest, together with other necessary information, in reasonable detail and in a manner sufficient to permit a reasonable client, customer, or counterparty to meaningfully understand the conflict of interest; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such disclosure is made in a manner that provides the client, customer, or counterparty the opportunity to negate, or substantially mitigate, any materially adverse effect on the client, customer, or counterparty created by the conflict of interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information barriers.</I> Has established, maintained, and enforced information barriers that are memorialized in written policies and procedures, such as physical separation of personnel, or functions, or limitations on types of activity, that are reasonably designed, taking into consideration the nature of the banking entity's business, to prevent the conflict of interest from involving or resulting in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty. A banking entity may not rely on such information barriers if, in the case of any specific transaction, class or type of transactions or activity, the banking entity knows or should reasonably know that, notwithstanding the banking entity's establishment of information barriers, the conflict of interest may involve or result in a materially adverse effect on a client, customer, or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of high-risk asset and high-risk trading strategy.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-risk asset</I> means an asset or group of related assets that would, if held by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-risk trading strategy</I> means a trading strategy that would, if engaged in by a banking entity, significantly increase the likelihood that the banking entity would incur a substantial financial loss or would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.16   Ownership of Interests in and Sponsorship of Issuers of Certain Collateralized Debt Obligations Backed by Trust-Preferred Securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition contained in § 351.10(a)(1) does not apply to the ownership by a banking entity of an interest in, or sponsorship of, any issuer if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuer was established, and the interest was issued, before May 19, 2010;
</P>
<P>(2) The banking entity reasonably believes that the offering proceeds received by the issuer were invested primarily in Qualifying TruPS Collateral; and
</P>
<P>(3) The banking entity acquired such interest on or before December 10, 2013 (or acquired such interest in connection with a merger with or acquisition of a banking entity that acquired the interest on or before December 10, 2013).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this § 351.16, <I>Qualifying TruPS Collateral</I> shall mean any trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a depository institution holding company that, as of the end of any reporting period within 12 months immediately preceding the issuance of such trust preferred security or subordinated debt instrument, had total consolidated assets of less than $15,000,000,000 or issued prior to May 19, 2010 by a mutual holding company.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a banking entity may act as a market maker with respect to the interests of an issuer described in paragraph (a) of this section in accordance with the applicable provisions of §§ 351.4 and 351.11.
</P>
<P>(d) Without limiting the applicability of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board, the FDIC and the OCC will make public a non-exclusive list of issuers that meet the requirements of paragraph (a). A banking entity may rely on the list published by the Board, the FDIC and the OCC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5228, Jan. 31, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 351.17-351.19" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 351.17-351.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compliance Program Requirement; Violations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.20" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.20   Program for compliance; reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each banking entity (other than a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities or a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 351.6(f) or 351.13(d)) shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a compliance program reasonably designed to ensure and monitor compliance with the prohibitions and restrictions on proprietary trading and covered fund activities and investments set forth in section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. The terms, scope, and detail of the compliance program shall be appropriate for the types, size, scope, and complexity of activities and business structure of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Banking entities with significant trading assets and liabilities.</I> With respect to a banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities, the compliance program required by paragraph (a) of this section, at a minimum, shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Written policies and procedures reasonably designed to document, describe, monitor and limit trading activities subject to subpart B (including those permitted under §§ 351.3 to 351.6 of subpart B), including setting, monitoring and managing required limits set out in § 351.4 and § 351.5, and activities and investments with respect to a covered fund subject to subpart C (including those permitted under §§ 351.11 through 351.14 of subpart C) conducted by the banking entity to ensure that all activities and investments conducted by the banking entity that are subject to section 13 of the BHC Act and this part comply with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(2) A system of internal controls reasonably designed to monitor compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to prevent the occurrence of activities or investments that are prohibited by section 13 of the BHC Act and this part;
</P>
<P>(3) A management framework that clearly delineates responsibility and accountability for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and includes appropriate management review of trading limits, strategies, hedging activities, investments, incentive compensation and other matters identified in this part or by management as requiring attention;
</P>
<P>(4) Independent testing and audit of the effectiveness of the compliance program conducted periodically by qualified personnel of the banking entity or by a qualified outside party;
</P>
<P>(5) Training for trading personnel and managers, as well as other appropriate personnel, to effectively implement and enforce the compliance program; and
</P>
<P>(6) Records sufficient to demonstrate compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, which a banking entity must promptly provide to the FDIC upon request and retain for a period of no less than 5 years or such longer period as required by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CEO attestation.</I> The CEO of a banking entity that has significant trading assets and liabilities must, based on a review by the CEO of the banking entity, attest in writing to the FDIC, each year no later than March 31, that the banking entity has in place processes to establish, maintain, enforce, review, test and modify the compliance program required by paragraph (b) of this section in a manner reasonably designed to achieve compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. In the case of a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign banking entity, the attestation may be provided for the entire U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity by the senior management officer of the U.S. operations of the foreign banking entity who is located in the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting requirements under appendix A to this part.</I> (1) A banking entity (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 351.6(f) or 351.13(d)) engaged in proprietary trading activity permitted under subpart B shall comply with the reporting requirements described in appendix A to this part, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The banking entity has significant trading assets and liabilities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC notifies the banking entity in writing that it must satisfy the reporting requirements contained in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Frequency of reporting: Unless the FDIC notifies the banking entity in writing that it must report on a different basis, a banking entity subject to appendix A to this part shall report the information required by appendix A for each quarter within 30 days of the end of the quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional documentation for covered funds.</I> A banking entity with significant trading assets and liabilities (other than a qualifying foreign excluded fund under section 351.6(f) or 351.13(d)) shall maintain records that include:
</P>
<P>(1) Documentation of the exclusions or exemptions other than sections 3(c)(1) and 3(c)(7) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 relied on by each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) in determining that such fund is not a covered fund;
</P>
<P>(2) For each fund sponsored by the banking entity (including all subsidiaries and affiliates) for which the banking entity relies on one or more of the exclusions from the definition of covered fund provided by §§ 351.10(c)(1),351.10(c)(5), 351.10(c)(8), 351.10(c)(9), or 351.10(c)(10) of subpart C, documentation supporting the banking entity's determination that the fund is not a covered fund pursuant to one or more of those exclusions;
</P>
<P>(3) For each seeding vehicle described in § 351.10(c)(12)(i) or (iii) of subpart C that will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company, a written plan documenting the banking entity's determination that the seeding vehicle will become a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company; the period of time during which the vehicle will operate as a seeding vehicle; and the banking entity's plan to market the vehicle to third-party investors and convert it into a registered investment company or SEC-regulated business development company within the time period specified in § 351.12(a)(2)(i)(B) of subpart C;
</P>
<P>(4) For any banking entity that is, or is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is, located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State, if the aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds that are described in § 351.10(c)(1) of subpart C owned by such banking entity (including ownership interests owned by any affiliate that is controlled directly or indirectly by a banking entity that is located in or organized under the laws of the United States or of any State) exceeds $50 million at the end of two or more consecutive calendar quarters, beginning with the next succeeding calendar quarter, documentation of the value of the ownership interests owned by the banking entity (and such affiliates) in each foreign public fund and each jurisdiction in which any such foreign public fund is organized, calculated as of the end of each calendar quarter, which documentation must continue until the banking entity's aggregate amount of ownership interests in foreign public funds is below $50 million for two consecutive calendar quarters; and
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign banking entity is located in the United States; however, the foreign bank that operates or controls that branch, agency, or subsidiary is not considered to be located in the United States solely by virtue of operating or controlling the U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Simplified programs for less active banking entities</I>—(1) <I>Banking entities with no covered activities.</I> A banking entity that does not engage in activities or investments pursuant to subpart B or subpart C (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a) of subpart B) may satisfy the requirements of this section by establishing the required compliance program prior to becoming engaged in such activities or making such investments (other than trading activities permitted pursuant to § 351.6(a) of subpart B).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Banking entities with moderate trading assets and liabilities.</I> A banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities may satisfy the requirements of this section by including in its existing compliance policies and procedures appropriate references to the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and adjustments as appropriate given the activities, size, scope, and complexity of the banking entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rebuttable presumption of compliance for banking entities with limited trading assets and liabilities</I>—(1) <I>Rebuttable presumption.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, a banking entity with limited trading assets and liabilities shall be presumed to be compliant with subpart B and subpart C of this part and shall have no obligation to demonstrate compliance with this part on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rebuttal of presumption.</I> If upon examination or audit, the FDIC determines that the banking entity has engaged in proprietary trading or covered fund activities that are otherwise prohibited under subpart B or subpart C of this part, the FDIC may require the banking entity to be treated under this part as if it did not have limited trading assets and liabilities. The FDIC's rebuttal of the presumption in this paragraph must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the FDIC retains its authority to require a banking entity without significant trading assets and liabilities to apply any requirements of this part that would otherwise apply if the banking entity had significant or moderate trading assets and liabilities if the FDIC determines that the size or complexity of the banking entity's trading or investment activities, or the risk of evasion of subpart B or subpart C of this part, does not warrant a presumption of compliance under paragraph (g) of this section or treatment as a banking entity with moderate trading assets and liabilities, as applicable. The FDIC's exercise of this reservation of authority must be made in accordance with the notice and response procedures in paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice and response procedures</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The FDIC will notify the banking entity in writing of any determination requiring notice under this part and will provide an explanation of the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response.</I> The banking entity may respond to any or all items in the notice described in paragraph (i)(1) of this section. The response should include any matters that the banking entity would have the FDIC consider in deciding whether to make the determination. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated FDIC official within 30 days after the date on which the banking entity received the notice. The FDIC may shorten the time period when, in the opinion of the FDIC, the activities or condition of the banking entity so requires, provided that the banking entity is informed of the time period at the time of notice, or with the consent of the banking entity. In its discretion, the FDIC may extend the time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Waiver.</I> Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the FDIC shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the FDIC determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision.</I> The FDIC will notify the banking entity of the decision in writing. The notice will include an explanation of the decision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5805, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 84 FR 62173, Nov. 14, 2019; 85 FR 46515, July 31, 2020; 85 FR 60355, Sept. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 351.21" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 351.21   Termination of activities or investments; penalties for violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any banking entity that engages in an activity or makes an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or acts in a manner that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, including through an abuse of any activity or investment permitted under subparts B or C, or otherwise violates the restrictions and requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, shall, upon discovery, promptly terminate the activity and, as relevant, dispose of the investment.
</P>
<P>(b) Whenever the FDIC finds reasonable cause to believe any banking entity has engaged in an activity or made an investment in violation of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, or engaged in any activity or made any investment that functions as an evasion of the requirements of section 13 of the BHC Act or this part, the FDIC may take any action permitted by law to enforce compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part, including directing the banking entity to restrict, limit, or terminate any or all activities under this part and dispose of any investment.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.5.6.1.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 351—Reporting and Recordkeeping Requirements for Covered Trading Activities
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Purpose
</HD1>
<P>a. This appendix sets forth reporting and recordkeeping requirements that certain banking entities must satisfy in connection with the restrictions on proprietary trading set forth in subpart B (“proprietary trading restrictions”). Pursuant to § 351.20(d), this appendix applies to a banking entity that, together with its affiliates and subsidiaries, has significant trading assets and liabilities. These entities are required to (i) furnish periodic reports to the FDIC regarding a variety of quantitative measurements of their covered trading activities, which vary depending on the scope and size of covered trading activities, and (ii) create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports. The requirements of this appendix must be incorporated into the banking entity's internal compliance program under § 351.20.
</P>
<P>b. The purpose of this appendix is to assist banking entities and the FDIC in:
</P>
<P>(1) Better understanding and evaluating the scope, type, and profile of the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitoring the banking entity's covered trading activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Identifying covered trading activities that warrant further review or examination by the banking entity to verify compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions;
</P>
<P>(4) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks engaged in market making-related activities subject to § 351.4(b) are consistent with the requirements governing permitted market making-related activities;
</P>
<P>(5) Evaluating whether the covered trading activities of trading desks that are engaged in permitted trading activity subject to § 351.4, § 351.5, or § 351.6(a) and (b) (<I>i.e.,</I> underwriting and market making-related activity, risk-mitigating hedging, or trading in certain government obligations) are consistent with the requirement that such activity not result, directly or indirectly, in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies;
</P>
<P>(6) Identifying the profile of particular covered trading activities of the banking entity, and the individual trading desks of the banking entity, to help establish the appropriate frequency and scope of examination by the FDIC of such activities; and
</P>
<P>(7) Assessing and addressing the risks associated with the banking entity's covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>c. Information that must be furnished pursuant to this appendix is not intended to serve as a dispositive tool for the identification of permissible or impermissible activities.
</P>
<P>d. In addition to the quantitative measurements required in this appendix, a banking entity may need to develop and implement other quantitative measurements in order to effectively monitor its covered trading activities for compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part and to have an effective compliance program, as required by § 351.20. The effectiveness of particular quantitative measurements may differ based on the profile of the banking entity's businesses in general and, more specifically, of the particular trading desk, including types of instruments traded, trading activities and strategies, and history and experience (e.g., whether the trading desk is an established, successful market maker or a new entrant to a competitive market). In all cases, banking entities must ensure that they have robust measures in place to identify and monitor the risks taken in their trading activities, to ensure that the activities are within risk tolerances established by the banking entity, and to monitor and examine for compliance with the proprietary trading restrictions in this part.
</P>
<P>e. On an ongoing basis, banking entities must carefully monitor, review, and evaluate all furnished quantitative measurements, as well as any others that they choose to utilize in order to maintain compliance with section 13 of the BHC Act and this part. All measurement results that indicate a heightened risk of impermissible proprietary trading, including with respect to otherwise-permitted activities under §§ 351.4 through 351.6(a) and (b), or that result in a material exposure to high-risk assets or high-risk trading strategies, must be escalated within the banking entity for review, further analysis, explanation to the FDIC, and remediation, where appropriate. The quantitative measurements discussed in this appendix should be helpful to banking entities in identifying and managing the risks related to their covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD1>II. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>The terms used in this appendix have the same meanings as set forth in §§ 351.2 and 351.3. In addition, for purposes of this appendix, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Applicability</I> identifies the trading desks for which a banking entity is required to calculate and report a particular quantitative measurement based on the type of covered trading activity conducted by the trading desk.
</P>
<P><I>Calculation period</I> means the period of time for which a particular quantitative measurement must be calculated.
</P>
<P><I>Comprehensive profit</I> and loss means the net profit or loss of a trading desk's material sources of trading revenue over a specific period of time, including, for example, any increase or decrease in the market value of a trading desk's holdings, dividend income, and interest income and expense.
</P>
<P><I>Covered trading activity</I> means trading conducted by a trading desk under § 351.4, § 351.5, § 351.6(a), or § 351.6(b). A banking entity may include in its covered trading activity trading conducted under § 351.3(d), § 351.6(c), § 351.6(d) or § 351.6(e).
</P>
<P><I>Measurement frequency</I> means the frequency with which a particular quantitative metric must be calculated and recorded.
</P>
<P><I>Trading day</I> means a calendar day on which a trading desk is open for trading.
</P>
<HD1>III. Reporting and Recordkeeping
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Scope of Required Reporting
</HD2>
<P>1. Quantitative measurements. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 must furnish the following quantitative measurements, as applicable, for each trading desk of the banking entity engaged in covered trading activities and calculate these quantitative measurements in accordance with this appendix:
</P>
<P>i. Internal Limits and Usage;
</P>
<P>ii. Value-at-Risk;
</P>
<P>iii. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution;
</P>
<P>iv. Positions; and
</P>
<P>v. Transaction Volumes.
</P>
<P>2. Trading desk information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 must provide certain descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<P>3. Quantitative measurements identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 must provide certain identifying and descriptive information, as further described in this appendix, regarding its quantitative measurements.
</P>
<P>4. Narrative statement. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 may provide an optional narrative statement, as further described in this appendix.
</P>
<P>5. File identifying information. Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 must provide file identifying information in each submission to the FDIC pursuant to this appendix, including the name of the banking entity, the RSSD ID assigned to the top-tier banking entity by the Board, and identification of the reporting period and creation date and time.
</P>
<HD2>b. Trading Desk Information
</HD2>
<P>1. Each banking entity must provide descriptive information regarding each trading desk engaged in covered trading activities, including:
</P>
<P>i. Name of the trading desk used internally by the banking entity and a unique identification label for the trading desk;
</P>
<P>ii. Identification of each type of covered trading activity in which the trading desk is engaged;
</P>
<P>iii. Brief description of the general strategy of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>v. A list identifying each Agency receiving the submission of the trading desk;
</P>
<P>2. Indication of whether each calendar date is a trading day or not a trading day for the trading desk; and
</P>
<P>3. Currency reported and daily currency conversion rate.
</P>
<HD2>c. Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity must provide the following information regarding the quantitative measurements:
</P>
<P>1. An Internal Limits Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each limit reported pursuant to the Internal Limits and Usage quantitative measurement, including the name of the limit, a unique identification label for the limit, a description of the limit, the unit of measurement for the limit, the type of limit, and identification of the corresponding risk factor attribution in the particular case that the limit type is a limit on a risk factor sensitivity and profit and loss attribution to the same risk factor is reported; and
</P>
<P>2. A Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule that provides identifying and descriptive information for each risk factor attribution reported pursuant to the Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution quantitative measurement, including the name of the risk factor or other factor, a unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor, a description of the risk factor or other factor, and the risk factor or other factor's change unit.
</P>
<HD2>d. Narrative Statement
</HD2>
<P>Each banking entity made subject to this appendix by § 351.20 may submit in a separate electronic document a Narrative Statement to the FDIC with any information the banking entity views as relevant for assessing the information reported. The Narrative Statement may include further description of or changes to calculation methods, identification of material events, description of and reasons for changes in the banking entity's trading desk structure or trading desk strategies, and when any such changes occurred.
</P>
<HD2>e. Frequency and Method of Required Calculation and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must calculate any applicable quantitative measurement for each trading day. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement electronically to the FDIC on the reporting schedule established in § 351.20 unless otherwise requested by the FDIC. A banking entity must report the Trading Desk Information, the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information, and each applicable quantitative measurement to the FDIC in accordance with the XML Schema specified and published on the FDIC's website.
</P>
<HD2>f. Recordkeeping
</HD2>
<P>A banking entity must, for any quantitative measurement furnished to the FDIC pursuant to this appendix and § 351.20(d), create and maintain records documenting the preparation and content of these reports, as well as such information as is necessary to permit the FDIC to verify the accuracy of such reports, for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the measurement was taken. A banking entity must retain the Narrative Statement, the Trading Desk Information, and the Quantitative Measurements Identifying Information for a period of five years from the end of the calendar year for which the information was reported to the FDIC.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Quantitative Measurements
</HD1>
<HD2>a. Risk-Management Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Internal Limits and Usage
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Internal Limits are the constraints that define the amount of risk and the positions that a trading desk is permitted to take at a point in time, as defined by the banking entity for a specific trading desk. Usage represents the value of the trading desk's risk or positions that are accounted for by the current activity of the desk. Internal limits and their usage are key compliance and risk management tools used to control and monitor risk taking and include, but are not limited to, the limits set out in §§ 351.4 and 351.5. A trading desk's risk limits, commonly including a limit on “Value-at-Risk,” are useful in the broader context of the trading desk's overall activities, particularly for the market making activities under § 351.4(b) and hedging activity under § 351.5. Accordingly, the limits required under §§ 351.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 351.5(b)(1)(i)(A) must meet the applicable requirements under §§ 351.4(b)(2)(iii)(C) and 351.5(b)(1)(i)(A) and also must include appropriate metrics for the trading desk limits including, at a minimum, “Value-at-Risk” except to the extent the “Value-at-Risk” metric is demonstrably ineffective for measuring and monitoring the risks of a trading desk based on the types of positions traded by, and risk exposures of, that desk.
</P>
<P>A. A banking entity must provide the following information for each limit reported pursuant to this quantitative measurement: The unique identification label for the limit reported in the Internal Limits Information Schedule, the limit size (distinguishing between an upper and a lower limit), and the value of usage of the limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>2. Value-at-Risk
</HD2>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Value-at-Risk (“VaR”) is the measurement of the risk of future financial loss in the value of a trading desk's aggregated positions at the ninety-nine percent confidence level over a one-day period, based on current market conditions.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>b. Source-of-Revenue Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Comprehensive Profit and Loss Attribution is an analysis that attributes the daily fluctuation in the value of a trading desk's positions to various sources. First, the daily profit and loss of the aggregated positions is divided into two categories: (i) Profit and loss attributable to a trading desk's existing positions that were also positions held by the trading desk as of the end of the prior day (“existing positions”); and (ii) profit and loss attributable to new positions resulting from the current day's trading activity (“new positions”).
</P>
<P>A. The comprehensive profit and loss associated with existing positions must reflect changes in the value of these positions on the applicable day. The comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions must be further attributed, as applicable, to (i) changes in the specific risk factors and other factors that are monitored and managed as part of the trading desk's overall risk management policies and procedures; and (ii) any other applicable elements, such as cash flows, carry, changes in reserves, and the correction, cancellation, or exercise of a trade.
</P>
<P>B. For the attribution of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions to specific risk factors and other factors, a banking entity must provide the following information for the factors that explain the preponderance of the profit or loss changes due to risk factor changes: The unique identification label for the risk factor or other factor listed in the Risk Factor Attribution Information Schedule, and the profit or loss due to the risk factor or other factor change.
</P>
<P>C. The comprehensive profit and loss attributed to new positions must reflect commissions and fee income or expense and market gains or losses associated with transactions executed on the applicable day. New positions include purchases and sales of financial instruments and other assets/liabilities and negotiated amendments to existing positions. The comprehensive profit and loss from new positions may be reported in the aggregate and does not need to be further attributed to specific sources.
</P>
<P>D. The portion of comprehensive profit and loss from existing positions that is not attributed to changes in specific risk factors and other factors must be allocated to a residual category. Significant unexplained profit and loss must be escalated for further investigation and analysis.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks engaged in covered trading activities.
</P>
<HD2>c. Positions and Transaction Volumes Measurements
</HD2>
<HD3>1. Positions
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Positions is the value of securities and derivatives positions managed by the trading desk. For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, do not include in the Positions calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>1225</SU>
<FTREF/> A banking entity must separately report the trading desk's market value of long securities positions, short securities positions, derivatives receivables, and derivatives payables.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1225</SU> <I>See</I> § 351.2(h), (aa). For example, under this part, a security-based swap is both a “security” and a “derivative.” For purposes of the Positions quantitative measurement, security-based swaps are reported as derivatives rather than securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 351.4(a) or § 351.4(b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<HD3>2. Transaction Volumes
</HD3>
<P>i. <I>Description:</I> For purposes of this appendix, Transaction Volumes measures three exclusive categories of covered trading activity conducted by a trading desk. A banking entity is required to report the value and number of security and derivative transactions conducted by the trading desk with: (i) Customers, excluding internal transactions; (ii) non-customers, excluding internal transactions; and (iii) trading desks and other organizational units where the transaction is booked into either the same banking entity or an affiliated banking entity. For securities, value means gross market value. For derivatives, value means gross notional value. For purposes of calculating the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, do not include in the Transaction Volumes calculation for “securities” those securities that are also “derivatives,” as those terms are defined under subpart A; instead, report those securities that are also derivatives as “derivatives.” 
<SU>1226</SU>
<FTREF/> Further, for purposes of the Transaction Volumes quantitative measurement, a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 351.4(a) to conduct underwriting activity is a market participant identified in § 351.4(a)(7), and a customer of a trading desk that relies on § 351.4(b) to conduct market making-related activity is a market participant identified in § 351.4(b)(3).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1226</SU> <I>See</I> § 351.2(h), (aa).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. <I>Calculation Period:</I> One trading day.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Measurement Frequency:</I> Daily.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Applicability:</I> All trading desks that rely on § 351.4(a) or § 351.4(b) to conduct underwriting activity or market-making-related activity, respectively.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 62174, Nov. 14, 2019]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="352" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 352—NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819(a); 29 U.S.C. 794d.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 26492, May 13, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 352.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) One purpose of this part is to implement the spirit of section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (the Rehabilitation Act) as amended by section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 and the Workforce Investment Act of 1998. Section 504 prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by a federal executive agency. Although the FDIC does not believe that Congress contemplated coverage of non-appropriated, independent regulatory agencies such as the FDIC, the FDIC has chosen to promulgate this final regulation to ensure that, to the extent practicable, persons with disabilities are provided with equal access to FDIC programs and activities.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is also intended to implement section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act as amended. Section 508 requires each federal agency or department to ensure that the electronic and information technology they procure allows individuals with disabilities access to that technology comparable to the access of those who are not disabled, unless the agency would incur an undue burden.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.2   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all programs, activities, and electronic and information technology developed, procured, maintained, used or conducted by the FDIC. The following programs and activities involve the direct provision of benefits and services to, or participation by, members of the public:
</P>
<P>(1) Attending Board of Directors meetings open to the public and all other public meetings;
</P>
<P>(2) Making inquiries or filing complaints at the FDIC Office of Legislative Affairs and Office of Public Affairs;
</P>
<P>(3) Using the FDIC library in Washington, DC;
</P>
<P>(4) Using the FDIC Web site on the Internet;
</P>
<P>(5) Visiting an insured bank at which they conducted business (or an alternative liquidation site selected by the FDIC) and which has become insolvent, or been purchased by another bank under FDIC supervision, for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(i) Collecting FDIC checks for the insured amount of their deposits previously held in such bank; and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) Discussing with FDIC representatives matters related to the repayment of debts which they previously owed to such bank, prior to its failure or purchase by another bank under FDIC supervision;
</P>
<P>(6) Seeking employment with the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation governs the conduct of FDIC personnel in their interaction with employees of insured banks and employees of other state or federal agencies while discharging the FDIC's statutory obligations as insurer and/or receiver of financial institutions. It does not apply to financial institutions insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) Although application for employment and employment with the FDIC are programs and activities of the FDIC for purposes of this regulation, they shall be governed only by the standards set forth in § 352.6 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P>(a) “Auxiliary aids” means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the FDIC programs or activities, and Electronic and Information Technology set forth in § 352.2.
</P>
<P>(b) “Electronic and Information Technology” (“EIT”) has the same meaning as “information technology” except EIT also includes any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the creation, conversion, or duplication of data or information. The term EIT includes, but is not limited to, telecommunication products (such as telephones), information kiosks and transaction machines, worldwide web sites, multimedia, and office equipment (such as copiers and fax machines).
</P>
<P>(c) “Facility” means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots and other real or personal property. As used in this definition, “personal property” means only furniture, carpeting and similar features not considered to be real property.
</P>
<P>(d) “Individual with a disability” means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>(e) “Qualified individual with a disability” means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any FDIC program or activity in which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements and can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the FDIC can determine on the basis of a written record would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with a disability who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to employment, an individual with a disability as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(g), which is made applicable to this part by § 352.6.
</P>
<P>(f) “Sections 504 and 508” mean sections 504 and 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794 and 794d)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955), and the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-220, 112 Stat. 936). As used in this regulation, sections 504 and 508 shall be applied only to the programs, activities, and EIT conducted by the FDIC as set forth in §§ 352.2 and 352.3(b) of this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.4   Nondiscrimination in any program or activity conducted by the FDIC.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act, no qualified individual with a disability shall, solely by reason of his or her disability, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or be subjected to discrimination in any program or activity conducted by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.5   Accessibility to electronic and information technology.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act, the FDIC shall ensure, absent an undue burden, that the electronic and information technology the agency develops, procures, maintains or allows:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals with disabilities who are FDIC employees or applicants to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of information and data by FDIC employees or applicants who are not individuals with disabilities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals with disabilities who are members of the public seeking information or services from the FDIC to have access to and use of information and data that is comparable to the access to and use of information and data by members of the public who are not individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) When development or procurement of electronic and information technology that meets the standards published by the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board, 36 CFR 1194, would pose an undue burden, the FDIC shall provide individuals with disabilities covered by paragraph (a) of this section with the information and data by an alternative means of access that allows the individuals to use the information and data.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.6   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with a disability shall, on the basis of that disability, be subjected to discrimination in employment in any program or activity conducted by the FDIC. The definitions, requirements, and procedures (including those pertaining to employment discrimination complaints) of sections 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as established in 29 CFR parts 1614 and 1630, shall apply to employment in the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.7   Accessibility of programs and activities: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall operate each of the programs or activities set forth in § 352.2 of this part so that when viewed in its entirety, the program or activity is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.8   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building, whether newly constructed, or substantially altered, in which FDIC programs or activities will be conducted, shall be designed, constructed or altered so as to be readily accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.9   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with participants in FDIC programs, activities and EIT.
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, the FDIC programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the FDIC shall give primary consideration to any reasonable requests of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the FDIC communicates by telephone, it shall use telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems with hearing impaired participants and beneficiaries.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, facilities and EIT. Interested persons may obtain such information by calling, writing or visiting the FDIC Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI), located at 3501 Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22226. The FDIC telephone number is (877) 275-3342 or (703) 562-2473 (TTY).
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC shall provide information at a primary entrance to each of its facilities where programs or activities are conducted, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 26492, May 13, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 45857, Aug. 7, 2008; 80 FR 62445, Oct. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.10   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> Paragraph (b) of this section applies to employment complaints. The remaining sections concern complaints alleging disability discrimination in FDIC programs or activities and denial of technology access.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employment complaints.</I> The FDIC shall process complaints alleging employment discrimination on the basis of disability according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR parts 1614 and 1630 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Informal process.</I> A complainant shall first exhaust informal administrative procedures before filing a formal complaint alleging disability discrimination in FDIC programs or activities, or a denial of technology access. The FDIC's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. An aggrieved individual initiates the process by filing an informal complaint with OMWI within 180 calendar days from the date of the alleged disability discrimination or denial of access to electronic information technology. An informal complaint with respect to any FDIC program or activity must include a written statement containing the individual's name and address which describes the FDIC's action in sufficient detail to inform the FDIC of the nature and date of the alleged violation of these regulations. An informal complaint for denial of technology access must clearly identify the individual and the manner in which the EIT was inaccessible. All informal complaints shall be signed by the complainant or one authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Informal complaints filed on behalf of third parties shall describe or identify (by name if possible) the alleged victim of discrimination or denial of technology access. During the informal resolution process, OMWI has 30 days to attempt a resolution of the matter. If the aggrieved individual elects to participate in mediation, the period for attempting informal resolution will be extended for an additional 60 calendar days. If the matter is not resolved informally, the individual will be provided written notice of the right to file a formal complaint. All complaints should be sent to the FDIC's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Arlington, VA 22226.
</P>
<P>(d) If the FDIC receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complainant to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Formal complaints.</I> The individual must file a written formal complaint within 15 calendar days after receiving the notice of a right to file a formal complaint. Formal complaints must be filed with the FDIC Chairman or the OMWI Director. Within 120 days of the receipt of such a complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the FDIC shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) A finding regarding the alleged violations;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) Appeals of the findings or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 30 days of receipt from the FDIC of the letter required by § 352.10 (e). The FDIC may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(g) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the FDIC Chairman or OMWI Director.
</P>
<P>(h) The FDIC Chairman or ODEO Director shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the FDIC Chairman or OMWI Director determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make a determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(i) The time limits set forth in (e) and (h) above may be extended for an individual case when the FDIC Chairman or OMWI Director determines that there is good cause, based on the particular circumstances of that case.
</P>
<P>(j) The FDIC may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other federal agencies or independent contractors, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 26492, May 13, 2004, as amended at 73 FR 45857, Aug. 7, 2008; 80 FR 62445, Oct. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 352.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.6.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 352.11   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the FDIC, and make such information available to them in such manner as the Chairman or designee finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination under section 504 or technology access provided under section 508 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="353" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 353—SUSPICIOUS ACTIVITY REPORTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED> Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818, 1819; 31 U.S.C. 5318.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 6099, Feb. 16, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 353.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 353.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to ensure that an FDIC supervised institution files a Suspicious Activity Report when it detects a known or suspected criminal violation of federal law or a suspicious transaction related to a money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act. This part applies to all FDIC supervised institutions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 3247, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 353.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 353.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>FinCEN</I> means the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network of the Department of the Treasury. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in sections 3(u) and 8(b)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(u) and 1818(b)(5)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDIC-supervised institution</I> means an entity for which the FDIC is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 6099, Feb. 16, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 3247, Jan. 21, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 353.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 353.3   Reports and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspicious activity reports required.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall file a suspicious activity report with the appropriate federal law enforcement agencies and the Department of the Treasury, in accordance with the form's instructions, by sending a completed suspicious activity report to FinCEN in the following circumstances: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Insider abuse involving any amount.</I> Whenever the FDIC-supervised institution detects any known or suspected federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the FDIC-supervised institution or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the FDIC-supervised institution, where the FDIC-supervised institution believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the FDIC-supervised institution was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the FDIC-supervised institution has a substantial basis for identifying one of the FDIC-supervised institution's directors, officers, employees, agents, or other institution-affiliated parties as having committed or aided in the commission of the criminal violation, regardless of the amount involved in the violation; 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified.</I> Whenever the FDIC-supervised institution detects any known or suspected federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the FDIC-supervised institution or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the FDIC-supervised institution, and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the FDIC-supervised institution believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the FDIC-supervised institution was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the FDIC-supervised institution has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined prior to filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an “alias”, then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as driver's license or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transactions aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of potential suspects.</I> Whenever the FDIC-supervised institution detects any known or suspected federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the FDIC-supervised institution or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the FDIC-supervised institution, involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the FDIC-supervised institution believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the FDIC-supervised institution was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though the FDIC-supervised institution has no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects; or 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violations of the Bank Secrecy Act.</I> Any transaction (which for purposes of this paragraph (a)(4) means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, certificate of deposit, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected) conducted or attempted by, at or through the FDIC-supervised institution and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the FDIC-supervised institution knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any federal law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under federal law; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort of transaction in which the particular customer would normally be expected to engage, and the FDIC-supervised institution knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time for reporting.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution shall file the suspicious activity report no later than 30 calendar days after the date of initial detection of facts that may constitute a basis for filing a suspicious activity report. If no suspect was identified on the date of detection of the incident requiring the filing, an FDIC-supervised institution may delay filing a suspicious activity report for an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect. In no case shall reporting be delayed more than 60 calendar days after the date of initial detection of a reportable transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing, the FDIC-supervised institution shall immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and the appropriate FDIC regional office (Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC)) in addition to filing a timely report. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports to state and local authorities.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution is encouraged to file a copy of the suspicious activity report with state and local law enforcement agencies where appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) An FDIC-supervised institution need not file a suspicious activity report for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted, that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities. 
</P>
<P>(2) An FDIC-supervised institution need not file a suspicious activity report for lost, missing, counterfeit, or stolen securities if it files a report pursuant to the reporting requirements of 17 CFR 240.17f-1. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retention of records.</I> An FDIC-supervised institution shall maintain a copy of any suspicious activity report filed and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of filing the suspicious activity report. Supporting documentation shall be identified and maintained by the FDIC-supervised institution as such, and shall be deemed to have been filed with the suspicious activity report. An FDIC-supervised institution must make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement authorities upon request. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification to board of directors.</I> The management of an FDIC-supervised institution shall promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee thereof, of any report filed pursuant to this section. The term “board of directors” includes the managing official of a foreign bank having an insured branch for purposes of this part. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Confidentiality of suspicious activity reports.</I> Suspicious activity reports are confidential. An FDIC-supervised institution subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a suspicious activity report or the information contained in a suspicious activity report shall decline to produce the suspicious activity report or to provide any information that would disclose that a suspicious activity report has been prepared or filed citing this part, applicable law (<I>e.g.,</I> 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)), or both, and notify the appropriate FDIC regional office (Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection (DSC)). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Safe harbor.</I> The safe harbor provisions of 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), which exempts an FDIC-supervised institution that makes a disclosure of any possible violation of law or regulation from liability under any law or regulation of the United States, or any constitution, law or regulation of any state or political subdivision, cover all reports of suspected or known criminal violations and suspicious activities to law enforcement and financial institution supervisory authorities, including supporting documentation, regardless of whether such reports are filed pursuant to this part or are filed on a voluntary basis. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 6099, Feb. 16, 1996, as amended at 85 FR 3247, Jan. 21, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="354" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 354—INDUSTRIAL BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1811, 1815, 1816, 1817, 1818, 1819(a) (Seventh) and (Tenth), 1820(g), 1831<I>o</I>-1, 3108, 3207.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 10727, Feb. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 354.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to the applicable filing procedures of part 303 of this chapter, this part establishes certain requirements for filings involving an industrial bank or a Covered Company.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of this part do not apply to an industrial bank that is organized as a subsidiary of a company that is not subject to Federal consolidated supervision by the Federal Reserve Board (FRB) before April 1, 2021. In addition, this part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any industrial bank that is or becomes controlled by a company that is subject to Federal consolidated supervision by the FRB; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any industrial bank that is not or will not become a subsidiary of a company.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 354.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless defined in this section, terms shall have the meaning given to them in section 3 of the FDI Act.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the management or policies of a company or to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of a company, and includes the rebuttable presumptions of control at § 303.82(b)(1) of this chapter and of acting in concert at § 303.82(b)(2) of this chapter. For purposes of this part, the presumptions set forth in § 303.82(b)(1) and (2) of this chapter shall apply with respect to any company in the same manner and to the same extent as if they applied to an acquisition of securities of the company.
</P>
<P><I>Covered Company</I> means any company that is not subject to Federal consolidated supervision by the FRB and that controls an industrial bank:
</P>
<P>(1) As a result of a change in bank control pursuant to section 7(j) of the FDI Act;
</P>
<P>(2) As a result of a merger transaction pursuant to section 18(c) of the FDI Act; or
</P>
<P>(3) That is granted deposit insurance by the FDIC pursuant to section 6 of the FDI Act, in each case on or after April 1, 2021.
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1811, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Filing</I> has the meaning given to it in § 303.2(s) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>FRB</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and each Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial bank</I> means any insured State bank that is an industrial bank, industrial loan company, or other similar institution that is excluded from the definition of the term “bank” in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act, 12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H).
</P>
<P><I>Senior executive officer</I> has the meaning given it in § 303.101(b) of this chapter.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 354.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.3   Written agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No industrial bank may become a subsidiary of a Covered Company unless the Covered Company enters into one or more written agreements with both the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) and the subsidiary industrial bank, which contain commitments by the Covered Company to comply with each of paragraphs (a)(1) through (8) in § 354.4 and such other written agreements, commitments, or restrictions as the FDIC deems appropriate, including, but not limited to, the provisions of §§ 354.4 and 354.5.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC may, at its sole discretion, condition a grant of deposit insurance, issuance of a non-objection to a change in control, or approval of a merger on an individual who is a controlling shareholder of a Covered Company joining as a party to any written agreement required by paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 354.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.4   Required commitments and provisions of written agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The commitments required to be made in the written agreements referenced in § 354.3 are set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (8) of this section. In addition, with respect to an industrial bank subject to this part, the FDIC will condition each grant of deposit insurance, each issuance of a non-objection to a change in control, and each approval of a merger on compliance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (8) of this section by the parties to the written agreement. As required, each Covered Company must:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit to the FDIC an initial listing of all of the Covered Company's subsidiaries and update such list annually;
</P>
<P>(2) Consent to the examination by the FDIC of the Covered Company and each of its subsidiaries to permit the FDIC to assess compliance with the provisions of any written agreement, commitment, or condition imposed; the FDI Act; or any other Federal law for which the FDIC has specific enforcement jurisdiction against such Covered Company or subsidiary, and all relevant laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Submit to the FDIC an annual report describing the Covered Company's operations and activities, in the form and manner prescribed by the FDIC, and such other reports as may be requested by the FDIC to inform the FDIC as to the Covered Company's:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial condition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Systems for identifying, measuring, monitoring, and controlling financial and operational risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Transactions with depository institution subsidiaries of the Covered Company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Systems for protecting the security, confidentiality, and integrity of consumer and nonpublic personal information; and
</P>
<P>(v) Compliance with applicable provisions of the FDI Act and any other law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain such records as the FDIC may deem necessary to assess the risks to the subsidiary industrial bank or to the Deposit Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P>(5) Cause an independent audit of each subsidiary industrial bank to be performed annually;
</P>
<P>(6) Limit the Covered Company's direct and indirect representation on the board of directors or board of managers, as the case may be, of each subsidiary industrial bank to less than 50 percent of the members of such board of directors or board of managers, in the aggregate, and, in the case of a subsidiary industrial bank that is organized as a member-managed limited liability company, limit the Covered Company's direct and indirect representation as a managing member to less than 50 percent of the managing member interests of the subsidiary industrial bank, in the aggregate;
</P>
<P>(7) Maintain the capital and liquidity of the subsidiary industrial bank at such levels as the FDIC deems appropriate, and take such other actions as the FDIC deems appropriate to provide the subsidiary industrial bank with a resource for additional capital and liquidity including, for example, pledging assets, obtaining and maintaining a letter of credit from a third-party institution acceptable to the FDIC, and providing indemnification of the subsidiary industrial bank; and
</P>
<P>(8) Execute a tax allocation agreement with its subsidiary industrial bank that expressly states that an agency relationship exists between the Covered Company and the subsidiary industrial bank with respect to tax assets generated by such industrial bank, and that further states that all such tax assets are held in trust by the Covered Company for the benefit of the subsidiary industrial bank and will be promptly remitted to such industrial bank. The tax allocation agreement also must provide that the amount and timing of any payments or refunds to the subsidiary industrial bank by the Covered Company should be no less favorable than if the subsidiary industrial bank were a separate taxpayer.
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC may require such Covered Company and industrial bank to commit to provide to the FDIC, and, thereafter, implement and adhere to, a contingency plan subject to the FDIC's approval that sets forth, at a minimum, recovery actions to address significant financial or operational stress that could threaten the safe and sound operation of the industrial bank and one or more strategies for the orderly disposition of such industrial bank without the need for the appointment of a receiver or conservator.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 354.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.5   Restrictions on industrial bank subsidiaries of Covered Companies.</HEAD>
<P>Without the FDIC's prior written approval, an industrial bank that is controlled by a Covered Company shall not:
</P>
<P>(a) Make a material change in its business plan after becoming a subsidiary of such Covered Company;
</P>
<P>(b) Add or replace a member of the board of directors, board of managers, or a managing member, as the case may be, of the subsidiary industrial bank during the first three years after becoming a subsidiary of such Covered Company;
</P>
<P>(c) Add or replace a senior executive officer during the first three years after becoming a subsidiary of such Covered Company;
</P>
<P>(d) Employ a senior executive officer who is, or during the past three years has been, associated in any manner (<I>e.g.,</I> as a director, officer, employee, agent, owner, partner, or consultant) with an affiliate of the industrial bank; or
</P>
<P>(e) Enter into any contract for services material to the operations of the industrial bank (for example, loan servicing function) with such Covered Company or any subsidiary thereof.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 354.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 354.6   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part limits the authority of the FDIC under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement actions, including actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="357" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 357—DETERMINATION OF ECONOMICALLY DEPRESSED REGIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819, 1823(k)(5).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 357.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 357.1   Economically depressed regions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 13(k)(5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(k)(5)) provides that the FDIC shall consider proposals for financial assistance for eligible insured savings associations before grounds exist for appointment of a conservator or receiver for such member. One of the criteria for eligibility is that an institution's offices are located in an economically depressed region as determined by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Economically depressed regions.</I> (1) For the purpose of determining “economically depressed regions”, the FDIC will determine whether an institution qualifies as being located in an “economically depressed region” on a case-by-case basis. That determination will be based on four criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) High unemployment rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Significant declines in non-farm employment;
</P>
<P>(iii) High delinquency rates of real estate assets at insured depository institutions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Evidence indicating declining real estate values.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the FDIC will also consider relevant information from institutions regarding their geographic market area, as well as information on whether that market is “economically depressed”.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 11161, Mar. 27, 1990, as amended at 63 FR 10295, Mar. 3, 1998; 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="359" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 359—GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1828(k). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 5930, Feb. 15, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 359.0" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part limits and/or prohibits, in certain circumstances, the ability of insured depository institutions, their subsidiaries and affiliated depository institution holding companies to enter into contracts to pay and to make golden parachute and indemnification payments to institution-affiliated parties (IAPs). 
</P>
<P>(b) The limitations on golden parachute payments apply to troubled insured depository institutions which seek to enter into contracts to pay or to make golden parachute payments to their IAPs. The limitations also apply to depository institution holding companies which are troubled and seek to enter into contracts to pay or to make golden parachute payments to their IAPs as well as healthy holding companies which seek to enter into contracts to pay or to make golden parachute payments to IAPs of a troubled insured depository institution subsidiary. A “golden parachute payment” is generally considered to be any payment to an IAP which is contingent on the termination of that person's employment and is received when the insured depository institution making the payment is troubled or, if the payment is being made by an affiliated holding company, either the holding company itself or the insured depository institution employing the IAP, is troubled. The definition of golden parachute payment does not include payments pursuant to qualified retirement plans, nonqualified <I>bona fide</I> deferred compensation plans, nondiscriminatory severance pay plans, other types of common benefit plans, state statutes and death benefits. Certain limited exceptions to the golden parachute payment prohibition are provided for in cases involving the hiring of a white knight and unassisted changes in control. A procedure is also set forth whereby an institution or IAP can request permission to make what would otherwise be a prohibited golden parachute payment. 
</P>
<P>(c) The limitations on indemnification payments apply to all insured depository institutions, their subsidiaries and affiliated depository institution holding companies regardless of their financial health. Generally, this part prohibits insured depository institutions, their subsidiaries and affiliated holding companies from indemnifying an IAP for that portion of the costs sustained with regard to an administrative or civil enforcement action commenced by any federal banking agency which results in a final order or settlement pursuant to which the IAP is assessed a civil money penalty, removed from office, prohibited from participating in the affairs of an insured depository institution or required to cease and desist from or take an affirmative action described in section 8(b) (12 U.S.C. 1818(b)) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act). However, there are exceptions to this general prohibition. First, an institution or holding company may purchase commercial insurance to cover such expenses, except judgments and penalties. Second, the institution or holding company may advance legal and other professional expenses to an IAP directly (except for judgments and penalties) if its board of directors makes certain specific findings and the IAP agrees in writing to reimburse the institution if it is ultimately determined that the IAP violated a law, regulation or other fiduciary duty. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1811, <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appropriate federal banking agency, bank holding company, depository institution holding company</I> and <I>savings and loan holding company</I> have the meanings given to such terms in section 3 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit plan</I> means any plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement which is an “employee welfare benefit plan” as that term is defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)), or other usual and customary plans such as dependent care, tuition reimbursement, group legal services or cafeteria plans; provided however, that such term shall not include any plan intended to be subject to paragraphs (f)(2)(iii) and (v) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement</I> means any plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement whereby: 
</P>
<P>(1) An IAP voluntarily elects to defer all or a portion of the reasonable compensation, wages or fees paid for services rendered which otherwise would have been paid to such party at the time the services were rendered (including a plan that provides for the crediting of a reasonable investment return on such elective deferrals) and the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company either: 
</P>
<P>(i) Recognizes compensation expense and accrues a liability for the benefit payments according to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregates or otherwise sets aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan and other benefits, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the institution's or holding company's creditors in the case of insolvency; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution or depository institution holding company establishes a nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plan, other than an elective deferral plan described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for certain IAPs in excess of the limitations on contributions and benefits imposed by sections 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g) or any other applicable provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g)); or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Primarily for the purpose of providing supplemental retirement benefits or other deferred compensation for a select group of directors, management or highly compensated employees (excluding severance payments described in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section and permissible golden parachute payments described in § 359.4); and 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of any nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plans as described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, the following requirements shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(i) The plan was in effect at least one year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is made in accordance with the terms of the plan as in effect no later than one year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section and in accordance with any amendments to such plan during such one year period that do not increase the benefits payable thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The IAP has a vested right, as defined under the applicable plan document, at the time of termination of employment to payments under such plan; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Benefits under such plan are accrued each period only for current or prior service rendered to the employer (except that an allowance may be made for service with a predecessor employer); 
</P>
<P>(v) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is not based on any discretionary acceleration of vesting or accrual of benefits which occurs at any time later than one year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The insured depository institution or depository institution holding company has previously recognized compensation expense and accrued a liability for the benefit payments according to GAAP or segregated or otherwise set aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan benefits, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the institution's or holding company's creditors in the case of insolvency; and 
</P>
<P>(vii) Payments pursuant to such plans shall not be in excess of the accrued liability computed in accordance with GAAP. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, in its corporate capacity. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Golden parachute payment.</I> (1) The term <I>golden parachute payment</I> means any payment (or any agreement to make any payment) in the nature of compensation by any insured depository institution or an affiliated depository institution holding company for the benefit of any current or former IAP pursuant to an obligation of such institution or holding company that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is contingent on, or by its terms is payable on or after, the termination of such party's primary employment or affiliation with the institution or holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is received on or after, or is made in contemplation of, any of the following events: 
</P>
<P>(A) The insolvency (or similar event) of the insured depository institution which is making the payment or bankruptcy or insolvency (or similar event) of the depository institution holding company which is making the payment; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The appointment of any conservator or receiver for such insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(C) A determination by the insured depository institution's or depository institution holding company's appropriate federal banking agency, respectively, that the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company is in a troubled condition, as defined in the applicable regulations of the appropriate federal banking agency (§ 303.101(c) of this chapter); or
</P>
<P>(D) The insured depository institution is assigned a composite rating of 4 or 5 by the appropriate federal banking agency or informed in writing by the Corporation that it is rated a 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, or the depository institution holding company is assigned a composite rating of 4 or 5 or unsatisfactory by its appropriate federal banking agency; or 
</P>
<P>(E) The insured depository institution is subject to a proceeding to terminate or suspend deposit insurance for such institution; and 
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) Is payable to an IAP whose employment by or affiliation with an insured depository institution is terminated at a time when the insured depository institution by which the IAP is employed or with which the IAP is affiliated satisfies any of the conditions enumerated in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section, or in contemplation of any of these conditions; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Is payable to an IAP whose employment by or affiliation with an insured depository institution holding company is terminated at a time when the insured depository institution holding company by which the IAP is employed or with which the IAP is affiliated satisfies any of the conditions enumerated in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii)(A), (C) or (D) of this section, or in contemplation of any of these conditions. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The term <I>golden parachute payment</I> shall not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any payment made pursuant to a pension or retirement plan which is qualified (or is intended within a reasonable period of time to be qualified) under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401) or pursuant to a pension or other retirement plan which is governed by the laws of any foreign country; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to a benefit plan as that term is defined in paragraph (c) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payment made pursuant to a <I>bona fide</I> deferred compensation plan or arrangement as defined in paragraph (d) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any payment made by reason of death or by reason of termination caused by the disability of an institution-affiliated party; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Any payment made pursuant to a nondiscriminatory severance pay plan or arrangement which provides for payment of severance benefits to all eligible employees upon involuntary termination other than for cause, voluntary resignation, or early retirement; <I>provided, however,</I> that no employee shall receive any such payment which exceeds the base compensation paid to such employee during the twelve months (or such longer period or greater benefit as the Corporation shall consent to) immediately preceding termination of employment, resignation or early retirement, and such severance pay plan or arrangement shall not have been adopted or modified to increase the amount or scope of severance benefits at a time when the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company was in a condition specified in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section or in contemplation of such a condition without the prior written consent of the appropriate federal banking agency; or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any severance or similar payment which is required to be made pursuant to a state statute or foreign law which is applicable to all employers within the appropriate jurisdiction (with the exception of employers that may be exempt due to their small number of employees or other similar criteria); or 
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other payment which the Corporation determines to be permissible in accordance with § 359.4. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association the deposits of which are insured by the Corporation pursuant to the Act, or any subsidiary thereof. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-affiliated party (IAP)</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder (other than a depository institution holding company) of, or agent for, an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person who has filed or is required to file a change-in-control notice with the appropriate federal banking agency under section 7(j) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j));
</P>
<P>(3) Any shareholder (other than a depository institution holding company), consultant, joint venture partner, and any other person as determined by the appropriate federal banking agency (by regulation or case-by-case) who participates in the conduct of the affairs of an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any independent contractor (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant) who knowingly or recklessly participates in: Any violation of any law or regulation, any breach of fiduciary duty, or any unsafe or unsound practice, which caused or is likely to cause more than a minimal financial loss to, or a significant adverse effect on, the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Liability or legal expense</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any legal or other professional fees and expenses incurred in connection with any claim, proceeding, or action; 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any settlement of any claim, proceeding, or action; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any judgment or penalty imposed with respect to any claim, proceeding, or action. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nondiscriminatory</I> means that the plan, contract or arrangement in question applies to all employees of an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company who meet reasonable and customary eligibility requirements applicable to all employees, such as minimum length of service requirements. A nondiscriminatory plan, contract or arrangement may provide different benefits based only on objective criteria such as salary, total compensation, length of service, job grade or classification, which are applied on a proportionate basis (with a variance in severance benefits relating to any criterion of plus or minus ten percent) to groups of employees consisting of not less than the lesser of 33 percent of employees or 1,000 employees. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Payment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct or indirect transfer of any funds or any asset; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any forgiveness of any debt or other obligation; 
</P>
<P>(3) The conferring of any benefit, including but not limited to stock options and stock appreciation rights; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Any segregation of any funds or assets, the establishment or funding of any trust or the purchase of or arrangement for any letter of credit or other instrument, for the purpose of making, or pursuant to any agreement to make, any payment on or after the date on which such funds or assets are segregated, or at the time of or after such trust is established or letter of credit or other instrument is made available, without regard to whether the obligation to make such payment is contingent on: 
</P>
<P>(i) The determination, after such date, of the liability for the payment of such amount; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquidation, after such date, of the amount of such payment. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Prohibited indemnification payment.</I> (1) The term <I>prohibited indemnification payment</I> means any payment (or any agreement or arrangement to make any payment) by any insured depository institution or an affiliated depository institution holding company for the benefit of any person who is or was an IAP of such insured depository institution or holding company, to pay or reimburse such person for any civil money penalty or judgment resulting from any administrative or civil action instituted by any federal banking agency, or any other liability or legal expense with regard to any administrative proceeding or civil action instituted by any federal banking agency which results in a final order or settlement pursuant to which such person: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is assessed a civil money penalty; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is removed from office or prohibited from participating in the conduct of the affairs of the insured depository institution; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is required to cease and desist from or take any affirmative action described in section 8(b) of the Act with respect to such institution. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) The term <I>prohibited indemnification payment</I> shall not include any reasonable payment by an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company which is used to purchase any commercial insurance policy or fidelity bond, provided that such insurance policy or bond shall not be used to pay or reimburse an IAP for the cost of any judgment or civil money penalty assessed against such person in an administrative proceeding or civil action commenced by any federal banking agency, but may pay any legal or professional expenses incurred in connection with such proceeding or action or the amount of any restitution to the insured depository institution, depository institution holding company or receiver. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The term <I>prohibited indemnification payment</I> shall not include any reasonable payment by an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company that represents partial indemnification for legal or professional expenses specifically attributable to particular charges for which there has been a formal and final adjudication or finding in connection with a settlement that the IAP has not violated certain banking laws or regulations or has not engaged in certain unsafe or unsound banking practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, unless the administrative action or civil proceeding has resulted in a final prohibition order against the IAP. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 5930, Feb. 15, 1996, as amended at 68 FR 50461, Aug. 21, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.2   Golden parachute payments prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No insured depository institution or depository institution holding company shall make or agree to make any golden parachute payment, except as provided in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.3   Prohibited indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>No insured depository institution or depository institution holding company shall make or agree to make any prohibited indemnification payment, except as provided in this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.4   Permissible golden parachute payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An insured depository institution or depository institution holding company may agree to make or may make a golden parachute payment if and to the extent that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate federal banking agency, with the written concurrence of the Corporation, determines that such a payment or agreement is permissible; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Such an agreement is made in order to hire a person to become an IAP either at a time when the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company satisfies or in an effort to prevent it from imminently satisfying any of the criteria set forth in § 359.1(f)(1)(ii), and the institution's appropriate federal banking agency and the Corporation consent in writing to the amount and terms of the golden parachute payment. Such consent by the FDIC and the institution's appropriate federal banking agency shall not improve the IAP's position in the event of the insolvency of the institution since such consent can neither bind a receiver nor affect the provability of receivership claims. In the event that the institution is placed into receivership or conservatorship, the FDIC and/or the institution's appropriate federal banking agency shall not be obligated to pay the promised golden parachute and the IAP shall not be accorded preferential treatment on the basis of such prior approval; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Such a payment is made pursuant to an agreement which provides for a reasonable severance payment, not to exceed twelve months salary, to an IAP in the event of a change in control of the insured depository institution; <I>provided, however,</I> that an insured depository institution or depository institution holding company shall obtain the consent of the appropriate federal banking agency prior to making such a payment and this paragraph (a)(3) shall not apply to any change in control of an insured depository institution which results from an assisted transaction as described in section 13 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1823) or the insured depository institution being placed into conservatorship or receivership; and 
</P>
<P>(4) An insured depository institution, depository institution holding company or IAP making a request pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section shall demonstrate that it does not possess and is not aware of any information, evidence, documents or other materials which would indicate that there is a reasonable basis to believe, at the time such payment is proposed to be made, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The IAP has committed any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the depository institution or depository institution holding company that has had or is likely to have a material adverse effect on the institution or holding company; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The IAP is substantially responsible for the insolvency of, the appointment of a conservator or receiver for, or the troubled condition, as defined by applicable regulations of the appropriate federal banking agency, of the insured depository institution, depository institution holding company or any insured depository institution subsidiary of such holding company; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The IAP has materially violated any applicable federal or state banking law or regulation that has had or is likely to have a material effect on the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The IAP has violated or conspired to violate section 215, 656, 657, 1005, 1006, 1007, 1014, 1032, or 1344 of title 18 of the United States Code, or section 1341 or 1343 of such title affecting a federally insured financial institution as defined in title 18 of the United States Code. 
</P>
<P>(b) In making a determination under paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, the appropriate federal banking agency and the Corporation may consider: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and to what degree, the IAP was in a position of managerial or fiduciary responsibility; 
</P>
<P>(2) The length of time the IAP was affiliated with the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company, and the degree to which the proposed payment represents a reasonable payment for services rendered over the period of employment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factors or circumstances which would indicate that the proposed payment would be contrary to the intent of section 18(k) of the Act or this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.5   Permissible indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An insured depository institution or depository institution holding company may make or agree to make reasonable indemnification payments to an IAP with respect to an administrative proceeding or civil action initiated by any federal banking agency if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The insured depository institution's or depository institution holding company's board of directors, in good faith, determines in writing after due investigation and consideration that the institution-affiliated party acted in good faith and in a manner he/she believed to be in the best interests of the institution; 
</P>
<P>(2) The insured depository institution's or depository institution holding company's board of directors, respectively, in good faith, determines in writing after due investigation and consideration that the payment of such expenses will not materially adversely affect the institution's or holding company's safety and soundness; 
</P>
<P>(3) The indemnification payments do not constitute prohibited indemnification payments as that term is defined in § 359.1(l); and 
</P>
<P>(4) The IAP agrees in writing to reimburse the insured depository institution or depository institution holding company, to the extent not covered by payments from insurance or bonds purchased pursuant to § 359.1(l)(2), for that portion of the advanced indemnification payments which subsequently become prohibited indemnification payments, as defined in § 359.1(l) 
</P>
<P>(b) An IAP requesting indemnification payments shall not participate in any way in the board's discussion and approval of such payments; <I>provided, however,</I> that such IAP may present his/her request to the board and respond to any inquiries from the board concerning his/her involvement in the circumstances giving rise to the administrative proceeding or civil action. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that a majority of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the remaining members of the board may authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the remaining members of the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions delineated in paragraph (a) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel opines that said conditions have been met, the remaining members of the board of directors may rely on such opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification. 
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that all of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the board shall authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions delineated in paragraph (a) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel opines that said conditions have been met, the board of directors may rely on such opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.6   Filing instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Requests to make excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments pursuant to § 359.1(f)(2)(v) and golden parachute payments permitted by § 359.4 shall be submitted in writing to the appropriate regional director (DSC). For filing requirements, consult 12 CFR 303.244. In the event that the consent of the institution's primary federal regulator is required in addition to that of the FDIC, the requesting party shall submit a copy of its letter to the FDIC to the institution's primary federal regulator. In the case of national banks, such written requests shall be submitted to the OCC. In the case of state member banks and bank holding companies, such written requests shall be submitted to the Federal Reserve district bank where the institution or holding company, respectively, is located. In the case of savings associations and savings association holding companies, such written requests shall be submitted to the OTS regional office where the institution or holding company, respectively, is located. In cases where only the prior consent of the institution's primary federal regulator is required and that agency is not the FDIC, a written request satisfying the requirements of this section shall be submitted to the primary federal regulator as described in this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 44751, Aug. 20, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 359.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 359.7   Applicability in the event of receivership.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part, or any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by the FDIC (in its corporate capacity), shall not in any way bind any receiver of a failed insured depository institution. Any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by the FDIC or any other federal banking agency shall not in any way obligate such agency or receiver to pay any claim or obligation pursuant to any golden parachute, severance, indemnification or other agreement. Claims for employee welfare benefits or other benefits which are contingent, even if otherwise vested, when the FDIC is appointed as receiver for any depository institution, including any contingency for termination of employment, are not provable claims or actual, direct compensatory damage claims against such receiver. Nothing in this part may be construed to permit the payment of salary or any liability or legal expense of any IAP contrary to 12 U.S.C. 1828(k)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="360" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 360—RESOLUTION AND RECEIVERSHIP RULES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.,</I> 1817(a)(2)(B), 1817(b), 1818(a)(2), 1818(t), 1819(a) Seventh, Eighth, Ninth, and Tenth, 1820(b)(3) and (4), 1820(g), 1821(d)(1), (4), (10)(C), and (11), 1821(e)(1) and (8)(D)(i), 1821(f)(1), 1823(c)(4), and 1823(e)(2).




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 360.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.1   Least-cost resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in section 13(c)(4)(G) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1823 (c)(4)(G)), the FDIC shall not take any action, directly or indirectly, under sections 13(c), 13(d), 13(f), 13(h) or 13(k) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1823 (c), (d), (f), (h) or (k)) with respect to any insured depository institution that would have the effect of increasing losses to any insurance fund by protecting: 
</P>
<P>(1) Depositors for more than the insured portion of their deposits (determined without regard to whether such institution is liquidated); or 
</P>
<P>(2) Creditors other than depositors. 
</P>
<P>(b) Purchase and assumption transactions. Subject to the requirement of section 13(c)(4)(A) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1823(c)(4)(A)), paragraph (a) of this section shall not be construed as prohibiting the FDIC from allowing any person who acquires any assets or assumes any liabilities of any insured depository institution, for which the FDIC has been appointed conservator or receiver, to acquire uninsured deposit liabilities of such institution as long as the applicable insurance fund does not incur any loss with respect to such uninsured deposit liabilities in an amount greater than the loss which would have been incurred with respect to such liabilities if the institution had been liquidated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 67664, Dec. 22, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 37761, July 14, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.2   Federal Home Loan banks as secured creditors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any other provisions of federal or state law or any other provisions of these regulations, the receiver of a borrower from a Federal Home Loan Bank shall recognize the priority of any security interest granted to a Federal Home Loan Bank by any member of any Federal Home Loan Bank or any affiliate of any such member, whether such security interest is in specifically designated assets or a blanket interest in all assets or categories of assets, over the claims and rights of any other party (including any receiver, conservator, trustee or similar party having rights of a lien creditor) other than claims and rights that 
</P>
<P>(1) Would be entitled to priority under otherwise applicable law; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Are held by actual bona fide purchasers for value or by actual secured parties that are secured by actual perfected security interests. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the receiver rather than the Bank shall have possession of any collateral consisting of notes, securities, other instruments, chattel paper or cash securing advances of the Bank, the receiver shall, upon request by the Bank, promptly deliver possession of such collateral to the Bank or its designee.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that a receiver is appointed for any member of a Federal Home Loan Bank, the following procedures shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) The receiver and the Bank shall immediately seek and develop a mutually agreeable plan for the payment of any advances made by the Bank to such borrower or for the servicing, foreclosure upon and liquidation of the collateral securing any such advances, taking into account the nature and amount of such collateral, the markets in which such collateral is normally traded or sold and other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that the receiver and the Bank shall not, in good faith, be able to develop such a mutually agreeable plan, or, in the interim, the Bank in good faith reasonably concludes that the value of such collateral is decreasing, because of interest rate or other market changes, at such a rate that to delay liquidation or other exercise of the Bank's rights as a secured party for the development of a mutually agreeable plan could reasonably cause the value of such collateral to decrease to an amount that is insufficient to satisfy the Bank's claim in full, the Bank may, at any time thereafter if permitted to do so by the terms of the advances or other security agreement with such borrower or otherwise by applicable law, proceed to foreclose upon, sell, lease or otherwise dispose of such collateral (or any portion thereof), or otherwise exercise its rights as a secured party, provided that the Bank acts in good faith and in a commercially reasonable manner and otherwise in accordance with applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(3) The foregoing provisions of this paragraph (c) shall not apply in the event that a purchase and assumption transaction is entered into regarding any such member. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Bank's rights pursuant to the second sentence of section 10(d) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act shall not be affected or diminished by any provisions of state law that may be applicable to a security interest in property of the member. 
</P>
<P>(e) The receiver for a borrower from a Federal Home Loan Bank shall allow a claim for a prepayment fee by the Bank if, and only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The claim is made pursuant to a written contract that provides for a prepayment fee, provided, however, that such prepayment fee allowed by the receiver shall not exceed the present value of the loss attributable to the difference between the contract rate of the secured borrowing and the reinvestment rate then available to the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) The indebtedness owed to the Bank by such borrower is secured by sufficient collateral in which a perfected security interest in favor of the Bank exists or as to which the Bank's security interest is entitled to priority under section 306(d) of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987 (CEBA) (12 U.S.C. 1430(e), footnote (1), or otherwise so that the aggregate of the outstanding principal on the advances secured by such collateral, the accrued but unpaid interest thereon and the prepayment fee applicable to such advances can be paid in full from the amounts realized from such collateral. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2), the adequacy of such collateral shall be determined as of the date such prepayment fees shall be due and payable under the terms of the written contract providing therefor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 19156, May 4, 1989. Redesignated at 54 FR 42801, Oct. 18, 1989, and further redesignated at 55 FR 46496, Nov. 5, 1990. Redesignated at 58 FR 67664, Dec. 22, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 37761, July 14, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.3   Priorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unsecured claims against an association or the receiver that are proved to the satisfaction of the receiver shall have priority in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative expenses of the receiver, including the costs, expenses, and debts of the receiver;
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative expenses of the association, <I>provided</I> that such expenses were incurred within thirty (30) days prior to the receiver's taking possession, and that such expenses shall be limited to reasonable expenses incurred for services actually provided by accountants, attorneys, appraisers, examiners, or management companies, or reasonable expenses incurred by employees which were authorized and reimbursable under a pre-existing expense reimbursement policy, that, in the opinion of the receiver, are of benefit to the receivership, and shall not include wages or salaries of employees of the association; 
</P>
<P>(3) Claims for wages and salaries, including vacation and sick leave pay and contributions to employee benefit plans, earned prior to the appointment of the receiver by an employee of the association whom the receiver determines it is in the best interests of the receivership to engage or retain for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(4) If authorized by the receiver, claims for wages and salaries, including vacation and sick leave pay and contributions to employee benefits plans, earned prior to the appointment of the receiver, up to a maximum of three thousand dollars ($3,000) per person, by an employee of the association not engaged or retained pursuant to a determination by the receiver pursuant to the third category above;
</P>
<P>(5) Claims of governmental units for unpaid taxes, other than Federal income taxes, except to the extent subordinated pursuant to applicable law; but no other claim of a governmental unit shall have a priority higher than that of a general creditor under paragraph (a)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(6) Claims for withdrawable accounts, including those of the Corporation as subrogee or transferee, and all other claims which have accrued and become unconditionally fixed on or before the date of default, whether liquidated or unliquidated, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section, provided, however, that if the association is chartered and was operated under the laws of a state that provided a priority for holders of withdrawable accounts over such other claims or general creditors, such priority within this paragraph (a)(6) shall be observed by the receiver; and provided further, that if deposits of a Federal association are booked or registered at an office of such association that is located in a State that provides such priority with respect to State-chartered associations, such deposits in a Federal association shall have priority over such other claims or general creditors, which shall be observed by the receiver;
</P>
<P>(7) Claims other than those that have accrued and become unconditionally fixed on or before the date of default, including claims for interest after the date of default on claims under paragraph (a)(6) of this section, <I>Provided</I> that any claim based on an agreement for accelerated, stipulated, or liquidated damages, which claim did not accrue prior to the date of default, shall be considered as not having accrued and become unconditionally fixed on or before the date of default;
</P>
<P>(8) Claims of the United States for unpaid Federal income taxes;
</P>
<P>(9) Claims that have been subordinated in whole or in part to general creditor claims, which shall be given the priority specified in the written instruments that evidence such claims; and 
</P>
<P>(10) Claims by holders of nonwithdrawable accounts, including stock, which shall have priority within this paragraph (a)(10) in accordance with the terms of the written instruments that evidence such claims.
</P>
<P>(b) Interest after the date of default on claims under paragraph (a)(6) of this section shall be at a rate or rates adjusted monthly to reflect the average rate for U.S. Treasury bills with maturities of not more than ninety-one (91) days during the preceding three (3) months.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) All unsecured claims of any category or class or priority described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(10) of this section shall be paid in full, or provision made for such payment, before any claims of lesser priority are paid. If there are insufficient funds to pay all claims of a category or class in full, distribution to claimants in such category or class shall be made pro rata. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, the receiver may, at any time, and from time to time, prior to the payment in full of all claims of a category or class with higher priority, make such distributions to claimants in priority classes outlined in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(6) of this section as the receiver believes are reasonably necessary to conduct the receivership, 
</P>
<P><I>Provided</I> that the receiver determines that adequate funds exist or will be recovered during the receivership to pay in full all claims of any higher priority.
</P>
<P>(e) If the association is in mutual form, and a surplus remains after making distribution in full of allowed claims as set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, such surplus shall be distributed to the depositors in proportion to their accounts as of the date of default.
</P>
<P>(f) Under the provisions of section 11(d)(11) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(11)), the provisions of this § 360.3 do not apply to any receivership established and liquidation or other resolution occurring after August 10, 1993. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 25132, July 5, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 30667, Aug. 15, 1988. Redesignated and amended at 54 FR 42801, Oct. 18, 1989, and further redesignated and amended at 55 FR 46496, Nov. 5, 1990; 58 FR 43070, Aug. 13, 1993. Redesignated at 58 FR 67664, Dec. 22, 1993; 60 FR 35488, July 10, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.4   Administrative expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The priority for <I>administrative expenses of the receiver,</I> as that term is used in section 11(d)(11) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(11), shall include those necessary expenses incurred by the receiver in liquidating or otherwise resolving the affairs of a failed insured depository institution. Such expenses shall include pre-failure and post-failure obligations that the receiver determines are necessary and appropriate to facilitate the smooth and orderly liquidation or other resolution of the institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 35488, July 10, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.5   Definition of qualified financial contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purpose.</I> Sections 11(e) (8) through (10) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(e) (8) through (10), provide special rules for the treatment of qualified financial contracts of an insured depository institution for which the FDIC is appointed conservator or receiver, including rules describing the manner in which qualified financial contracts may be transferred or closed out. Section 11(e)(8)(D)(i) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(i), grants the Corporation authority to determine by regulation whether any agreement, other than those identified within section 11(e)(8)(D), should be recognized as qualified financial contracts under the statute. The purpose of this section is to identify additional agreements which the Corporation has determined to be qualified financial contracts. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> The following agreements shall be deemed “repurchase agreements” under section 11(e)(8)(D)(v) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(v)): A repurchase agreement on qualified foreign government securities is an agreement or combination of agreements (including master agreements) which provides for the transfer of securities that are direct obligations of, or that are fully guaranteed by, the central governments (as set forth at 12 CFR 324.2 (definition of sovereign exposure), as may be amended from time to time) of the OECD-based group of countries (as generally discussed in 12 CFR 324.32) against the transfer of funds by the transferee of such securities with a simultaneous agreement by such transferee to transfer to the transferor thereof securities as described above, at a date certain not later than one year after such transfers or on demand, against the transfer of funds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Swap agreements.</I> The following agreements shall be deemed “swap agreements” under section 11(e)(8)(D)(vi) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(vi)): A spot foreign exchange agreement is any agreement providing for or effecting the purchase or sale of one currency in exchange for another currency (or a unit of account established by an intergovernmental organization such as the European Currency Unit) with a maturity date of two days or less after the agreement has been entered into, and includes short-dated transactions such as tomorrow/next day and same day/tomorrow transactions. 
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed as limiting or changing a party's obligation to comply with all reasonable trading practices and requirements, non-insolvency law requirements and any other requirements imposed by other provisions of the FDI Act. This section in no way limits the authority of the Corporation to take supervisory or enforcement actions, or to otherwise manage the affairs of a financial institution for which the Corporation has been appointed conservator or receiver. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 66865, Dec. 27, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 55595, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.6   Treatment of financial assets transferred in connection with a securitization or participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions—</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicable compliance date</I> means, with respect to a securitization, the date on which compliance with Section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.,</I> added by Section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act is required with respect to that securitization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial asset</I> means cash or a contract or instrument that conveys to one entity a contractual right to receive cash or another financial instrument from another entity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Investor</I> means a person or entity that owns an obligation issued by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuing entity</I> means an entity that owns a financial asset or financial assets transferred by the sponsor and issues obligations supported by such asset or assets. Issuing entities may include, but are not limited to, corporations, partnerships, trusts, and limited liability companies and are commonly referred to as special purpose vehicles or special purpose entities. To the extent a securitization is structured as a multi-step transfer, the term issuing entity would include both the issuer of the obligations and any intermediate entities that may be a transferee. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a Specified GSE or an entity established or guaranteed by a Specified GSE shall not constitute an issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Monetary default</I> means a default in the payment of principal or interest when due following the expiration of any cure period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Obligation</I> means a debt or equity (or mixed) beneficial interest or security that is primarily serviced by the cash flows of one or more financial assets or financial asset pools, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period, or upon the disposition of the underlying financial assets, and by any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distributions of proceeds to the security holders issued by an issuing entity. The term may include beneficial interests in a grantor trust, common law trust or similar issuing entity to the extent that such interests satisfy the criteria set forth in the preceding sentence, but does not include LLC interests, partnership interests, common or preferred equity, or similar instruments evidencing ownership of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Participation</I> means the transfer or assignment of an undivided interest in all or part of a financial asset, that has all of the characteristics of a “participating interest,” from a seller, known as the “lead,” to a buyer, known as the “participant,” without recourse to the lead, pursuant to an agreement between the lead and the participant. “Without recourse” means that the participation is not subject to any agreement that requires the lead to repurchase the participant's interest or to otherwise compensate the participant upon the borrower's default on the underlying obligation.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Securitization</I> means the issuance by an issuing entity of obligations for which the investors are relying on the cash flow or market value characteristics and the credit quality of transferred financial assets (together with any external credit support permitted by this section) to repay the obligations.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Servicer</I> means any entity responsible for the management or collection of some or all of the financial assets on behalf of the issuing entity or making allocations or distributions to holders of the obligations, including reporting on the overall cash flow and credit characteristics of the financial assets supporting the securitization to enable the issuing entity to make payments to investors on the obligations. The term “servicer” does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the holders of obligations that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the obligations if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Specified GSE</I> means each of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof;
</P>
<P>(ii) Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Government National Mortgage Association; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any federal or state sponsored mortgage finance agency.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Sponsor</I> means a person or entity that organizes and initiates a securitization by transferring financial assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to an issuing entity, whether or not such person owns an interest in the issuing entity or owns any of the obligations issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Transfer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) The conveyance of a financial asset or financial assets to an issuing entity or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creation of a security interest in such asset or assets for the benefit of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage.</I> This section shall apply to securitizations that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital Structure and Financial Assets.</I> The documents creating the securitization must define the payment structure and capital structure of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The securitization shall not consist of re-securitizations of obligations or collateralized debt obligations unless the documents creating the securitization require that disclosures required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are made available to investors for the underlying assets supporting the securitization at initiation and while obligations are outstanding; and
</P>
<P>(B) The documents creating the securitization shall require that payment of principal and interest on the securitization obligation must be primarily based on the performance of financial assets that are transferred to the issuing entity and, except for interest rate or currency mismatches between the financial assets and the obligations, shall not be contingent on market or credit events that are independent of such financial assets. The securitization may not be an unfunded securitization or a synthetic transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The capital structure of the securitization shall be limited to no more than six credit tranches and cannot include “sub-tranches,” grantor trusts or other structures. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the most senior credit tranche may include time-based sequential pay or planned amortization and companion sub-tranches; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit quality of the obligations cannot be enhanced at the issuing entity or pool level through external credit support or guarantees. However, the credit quality of the obligations may be enhanced by credit support or guarantees provided by Specified GSEs and the temporary payment of principal and/or interest may be supported by liquidity facilities, including facilities designed to permit the temporary payment of interest following appointment of the FDIC as conservator or receiver. Individual financial assets transferred into a securitization may be guaranteed, insured or otherwise benefit from credit support at the loan level through mortgage and similar insurance or guarantees, including by private companies, agencies or other governmental entities, or government-sponsored enterprises, and/or through co-signers or other guarantees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> The documents shall require that the sponsor, issuing entity, and/or servicer, as appropriate, shall make available to investors, information describing the financial assets, obligations, capital structure, compensation of relevant parties, and relevant historical performance data set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of an issuance of obligations that is subject to 17 CFR part 229, subpart 229.1100 (Regulation AB of the Securities and Exchange Commission (Regulation AB)), the documents shall require that, on or prior to issuance of obligations and at the time of delivery of any periodic distribution report and, in any event, at least once per calendar quarter, while obligations are outstanding, information about the obligations and the securitized financial assets shall be disclosed to all potential investors at the financial asset or pool level, as appropriate for the financial assets, and security-level to enable evaluation and analysis of the credit risk and performance of the obligations and financial assets. The documents shall require that such information and its disclosure, at a minimum, shall comply with the requirements of Regulation AB. Information that is unknown or not available to the sponsor or the issuer after reasonable investigation may be omitted if the issuer includes a statement in the offering documents disclosing that the specific information is otherwise unavailable;
</P>
<P>(B) The documents shall require that, on or prior to issuance of obligations, the structure of the securitization and the credit and payment performance of the obligations shall be disclosed, including the capital or tranche structure, the priority of payments and specific subordination features; representations and warranties made with respect to the financial assets, the remedies for and the time permitted for cure of any breach of representations and warranties, including the repurchase of financial assets, if applicable; liquidity facilities and any credit enhancements permitted by this rule, any waterfall triggers or priority of payment reversal features; and policies governing delinquencies, servicer advances, loss mitigation, and write-offs of financial assets;
</P>
<P>(C) The documents shall require that while obligations are outstanding, the issuing entity shall provide to investors information with respect to the credit performance of the obligations and the financial assets, including periodic and cumulative financial asset performance data, delinquency and modification data for the financial assets, substitutions and removal of financial assets, servicer advances, as well as losses that were allocated to such tranche and remaining balance of financial assets supporting such tranche, if applicable, and the percentage of each tranche in relation to the securitization as a whole; and
</P>
<P>(D) In connection with the issuance of obligations, the documents shall require that the nature and amount of compensation paid to the originator, sponsor, rating agency or third-party advisor, any mortgage or other broker, and the servicer(s), and the extent to which any risk of loss on the underlying assets is retained by any of them for such securitization be disclosed. The securitization documents shall require the issuer to provide to investors while obligations are outstanding any changes to such information and the amount and nature of payments of any deferred compensation or similar arrangements to any of the parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Prior to issuance of obligations, sponsors shall disclose loan level information about the financial assets including, but not limited to, loan type, loan structure (for example, fixed or adjustable, resets, interest rate caps, balloon payments, etc.), maturity, interest rate and/or Annual Percentage Rate, and location of property; and
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to issuance of obligations, sponsors shall affirm compliance in all material respects with applicable statutory and regulatory standards for origination of mortgage loans, including that the mortgages are underwritten at the fully indexed rate relying on documented income, and comply with supervisory guidance governing the underwriting of residential mortgages, including the Interagency Guidance on Non-Traditional Mortgage Products, October 5, 2006, and the Interagency Statement on Subprime Mortgage Lending, July 10, 2007, and such other or additional guidance applicable at the time of loan origination. Sponsors shall disclose a third party due diligence report on compliance with such standards and the representations and warranties made with respect to the financial assets; and
</P>
<P>(C) The documents shall require that prior to issuance of obligations and while obligations are outstanding, servicers shall disclose any ownership interest by the servicer or an affiliate of the servicer in other whole loans secured by the same real property that secures a loan included in the financial asset pool. The ownership of an obligation, as defined in this regulation, shall not constitute an ownership interest requiring disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentation and recordkeeping.</I> The documents creating the securitization must specify the respective contractual rights and responsibilities of all parties and include the requirements described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and use as appropriate any available standardized documentation for each different asset class.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> The documents shall define the contractual rights and responsibilities of the parties, including but not limited to representations and warranties and ongoing disclosure requirements, and any measures to avoid conflicts of interest; and provide authority for the parties, including but not limited to the originator, sponsor, servicer, and investors, to fulfill their respective duties and exercise their rights under the contracts and clearly distinguish between any multiple roles performed by any party.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Servicing and other agreements must provide servicers with authority, subject to contractual oversight by any master servicer or oversight advisor, if any, to mitigate losses on financial assets consistent with maximizing the net present value of the financial asset. Servicers shall have the authority to modify assets to address reasonably foreseeable default, and to take other action to maximize the value and minimize losses on the securitized financial assets. The documents shall require that the servicers apply industry best practices for asset management and servicing. The documents shall require the servicer to act for the benefit of all investors, and not for the benefit of any particular class of investors, that the servicer maintain records of its actions to permit full review by the trustee or other representative of the investors and that the servicer must commence action to mitigate losses no later than ninety (90) days after an asset first becomes delinquent unless all delinquencies have been cured, <I>provided</I> that this requirement shall not be deemed to require that the documents include any provision concerning loss mitigation that requires any action that may conflict with the requirements of Regulation X (12 CFR part 1024), as Regulation X may be amended or modified from time to time.
</P>
<P>(B) The servicing agreement shall not require a primary servicer to advance delinquent payments of principal and interest for more than three payment periods, unless financing or reimbursement facilities are available, which may include, but are not limited to, the obligations of the master servicer or issuing entity to fund or reimburse the primary servicer, or alternative reimbursement facilities. Such “financing or reimbursement facilities” under this paragraph shall not be dependent for repayment on foreclosure proceeds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation.</I> The following requirements apply only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans. Compensation to parties involved in the securitization of such financial assets must be structured to provide incentives for sustainable credit and the long-term performance of the financial assets and securitization as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The documents shall require that any fees or other compensation for services payable to credit rating agencies or similar third-party evaluation companies shall be payable, in part, over the five (5) year period after the first issuance of the obligations based on the performance of surveillance services and the performance of the financial assets, with no more than sixty (60) percent of the total estimated compensation due at closing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The documents shall provide that compensation to servicers shall include incentives for servicing, including payment for loan restructuring or other loss mitigation activities, which maximizes the net present value of the financial assets. Such incentives may include payments for specific services, and actual expenses, to maximize the net present value or a structure of incentive fees to maximize the net present value, or any combination of the foregoing that provides such incentives.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Origination and retention requirements</I>—(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> (A) Prior to the applicable compliance date for regulations required under Section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.,</I> added by Section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, the documents creating the securitization shall require that the sponsor retain an economic interest in a material portion, defined as not less than five (5) percent, of the credit risk of the financial assets. This retained interest may be either in the form of an interest of not less than five (5) percent in each of the credit tranches sold or transferred to the investors or in a representative sample of the securitized financial assets equal to not less than five (5) percent of the principal amount of the financial assets at transfer. This retained interest may not be sold, pledged or hedged, except for the hedging of interest rate or currency risk, during the term of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(B) For any securitization that closes upon or following the applicable compliance date for regulations required under Section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.,</I> added by Section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, the documents creating the securitization shall instead require retention of an economic interest in the credit risk of the financial assets in accordance with such regulations, including the restrictions on sale, pledging and hedging set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(C) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i)(A) of this section, for any securitization that closes following ________________ November 24, 2015 and prior to the applicable compliance date for regulations required under Section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.,</I> added by Section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, at the option of the sponsor, the requirements of paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) of this section may be satisfied if (in lieu of the requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(A) of this section) the documents creating the securitization require retention of an economic interest in the credit risk of the financial assets in accordance with the requirements of the Section 15G regulations as though such regulations were then in effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The documents shall require the establishment of a reserve fund equal to at least five (5) percent of the cash proceeds of the securitization payable to the sponsor to cover the repurchase of any financial assets required for breach of representations and warranties. The balance of such fund, if any, shall be released to the sponsor one year after the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(B) The documents shall include a representation that the assets shall have been originated in all material respects in compliance with statutory, regulatory, and originator underwriting standards in effect at the time of origination. The documents shall include a representation that the mortgages included in the securitization were underwritten at the fully indexed rate, based upon the borrowers' ability to repay the mortgage according to its terms, and rely on documented income and comply with all existing supervisory guidance governing the underwriting of residential mortgages, including the Interagency Guidance on Non-Traditional Mortgage Products, October 5, 2006, and the Interagency Statement on Subprime Mortgage Lending, July 10, 2007, and such other or additional regulations or guidance applicable to insured depository institutions at the time of loan origination. Residential mortgages originated prior to the issuance of such guidance shall meet all supervisory guidance governing the underwriting of residential mortgages then in effect at the time of loan origination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> (1) The transaction should be an arms length, bona fide securitization transaction. The documents shall require that the obligations issued in a securitization shall not be predominantly sold to an affiliate (other than a wholly-owned subsidiary consolidated for accounting and capital purposes with the sponsor) or insider of the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization agreements are in writing, approved by the board of directors of the bank or its loan committee (as reflected in the minutes of a meeting of the board of directors or committee), and have been, continuously, from the time of execution in the official record of the bank;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization was entered into in the ordinary course of business, not in contemplation of insolvency and with no intent to hinder, delay or defraud the bank or its creditors;
</P>
<P>(4) The transfer was made for adequate consideration;
</P>
<P>(5) The transfer and/or security interest was properly perfected under the UCC or applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(6) The transfer and duties of the sponsor as transferor must be evidenced in a separate agreement from its duties, if any, as servicer, custodian, paying agent, credit support provider or in any capacity other than the transferor; and
</P>
<P>(7) The documents shall require that the sponsor separately identify in its financial asset data bases the financial assets transferred into any securitization and maintain an electronic or paper copy of the closing documents for each securitization in a readily accessible form, a current list of all of its outstanding securitizations and issuing entities, and the most recent Form 10-K, if applicable, or other periodic financial report for each securitization and issuing entity. The documents shall provide that to the extent serving as servicer, custodian or paying agent for the securitization, the sponsor shall not comingle amounts received with respect to the financial assets with its own assets except for the time, not to exceed two business days, necessary to clear any payments received. The documents shall require that the sponsor shall make these records readily available for review by the FDIC promptly upon written request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe harbor</I>—(1) <I>Participations.</I> With respect to transfers of financial assets made in connection with participations, the FDIC as conservator or receiver shall not, in the exercise of its statutory authority to disaffirm or repudiate contracts, reclaim, recover, or recharacterize as property of the institution or the receivership any such transferred financial assets, provided that such transfer satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles, except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this section. The foregoing paragraph shall apply to a last-in, first-out participation, provided that the transfer of a portion of the financial asset satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles that would have applied to such portion if it had met the definition of a “participating interest,” except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transition period safe harbor.</I> With respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any participation or securitization for which transfers of financial assets were made on or before December 31, 2010 or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any obligations of revolving trusts or master trusts, for which one or more obligations were issued as of the date of adoption of this rule, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any obligations issued under open commitments up to the maximum amount of such commitments as of the date of adoption of this rule if one or more obligations were issued under such commitments on or before December 31, 2010, the FDIC as conservator or receiver shall not, in the exercise of its statutory authority to disaffirm or repudiate contracts, reclaim, recover, or recharacterize as property of the institution or the receivership the transferred financial assets notwithstanding that the transfer of such financial assets does not satisfy all conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles as effective for reporting periods after November 15, 2009, provided that such transfer satisfied the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles in effect for reporting periods before November 15, 2009, except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this paragraph and the transaction otherwise satisfied the provisions of § 360.6 in effect prior to the effective date of this regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For securitizations meeting sale accounting requirements.</I> With respect to any securitization for which transfers of financial assets were made after December 31, 2010, or from a master trust or revolving trust established after adoption of this rule or from any open commitments that do not meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, and which complies with the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the FDIC as conservator or receiver shall not, in the exercise of its statutory authority to disaffirm or repudiate contracts, reclaim, recover, or recharacterize as property of the institution or the receivership such transferred financial assets, provided that such transfer satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles in effect for reporting periods after November 15, 2009, except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this paragraph (d)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For securitization not meeting sale accounting requirements.</I> With respect to any securitization for which transfers of financial assets were made after December 31, 2010, or from a master trust or revolving trust established after adoption of this rule or from any open commitments that do not meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section, and which complies with the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, but where the transfer does not satisfy the conditions for sale accounting treatment set forth by generally accepted accounting principles in effect for reporting periods after November 15, 2009:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Monetary default.</I> If at any time after appointment, the FDIC as conservator or receiver is in a monetary default under a securitization due to its failure to pay or apply collections from the financial assets received by it in accordance with the securitization documents, whether as servicer or otherwise, and remains in monetary default for ten (10) business days after actual delivery of a written notice to the FDIC pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section requesting the exercise of contractual rights because of such monetary default, the FDIC hereby consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(13)(C) and 12 U.S.C. 1825(b)(2) to the exercise of any contractual rights in accordance with the documents governing such securitization, including but not limited to taking possession of the financial assets and exercising self-help remedies as a secured creditor under the transfer agreements, provided no involvement of the receiver or conservator is required other than such consents, waivers, or execution of transfer documents as may be reasonably requested in the ordinary course of business in order to facilitate the exercise of such contractual rights. Such consent shall not waive or otherwise deprive the FDIC or its assignees of any seller's interest or other obligation or interest issued by the issuing entity and held by the FDIC or its assignees, but shall serve as full satisfaction of the obligations of the insured depository institution in conservatorship or receivership and the FDIC as conservator or receiver for all amounts due.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Repudiation.</I> If the FDIC as conservator or receiver provides a written notice of repudiation of the securitization agreement pursuant to which the financial assets were transferred, and the FDIC does not pay damages, defined in this paragraph, within ten (10) business days following the effective date of the notice, the FDIC hereby consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(13)(C) and 12 U.S.C. 1825(b)(2) to the exercise of any contractual rights in accordance with the documents governing such securitization, including but not limited to taking possession of the financial assets and exercising self-help remedies as a secured creditor under the transfer agreements, provided no involvement of the receiver or conservator is required other than such consents, waivers, or execution of transfer documents as may be reasonably requested in the ordinary course of business in order to facilitate the exercise of such contractual rights. For purposes of this paragraph, the damages due shall be in an amount equal to the par value of the obligations outstanding on the date of appointment of the conservator or receiver, less any payments of principal received by the investors through the date of repudiation, plus unpaid, accrued interest through the date of repudiation in accordance with the contract documents to the extent actually received through payments on the financial assets received through the date of repudiation. Upon payment of such repudiation damages, all liens or claims on the financial assets created pursuant to the securitization documents shall be released. Such consent shall not waive or otherwise deprive the FDIC or its assignees of any seller's interest or other obligation or interest issued by the issuing entity and held by the FDIC or its assignees, but shall serve as full satisfaction of the obligations of the insured depository institution in conservatorship or receivership and the FDIC as conservator or receiver for all amounts due.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effect of repudiation.</I> If the FDIC repudiates or disaffirms a securitization agreement, it shall not assert that any interest payments made to investors in accordance with the securitization documents before any such repudiation or disaffirmance remain the property of the conservatorship or receivership.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent to certain actions.</I> Prior to repudiation or, in the case of a monetary default referred to in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section, prior to the effectiveness of the consent referred to therein, the FDIC as conservator or receiver consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(13)(C) to the making of, or if serving as servicer, shall make, the payments to the investors to the extent actually received through payments on the financial assets (but in the case of repudiation, only to the extent supported by payments on the financial assets received through the date of the giving of notice of repudiation) in accordance with the securitization documents, and, subject to the FDIC's rights to repudiate such agreements, consents to any servicing activity required in furtherance of the securitization or, if acting as servicer the FDIC as receiver or conservator shall perform such servicing activities in accordance with the terms of the applicable servicing agreements, with respect to the financial assets included in securitizations that meet the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice for consent.</I> Any party requesting the FDIC's consent as conservator or receiver under 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(13)(C) and 12 U.S.C. 1825(b)(2) pursuant to paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section shall provide notice to the Deputy Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., F-7076, Washington, DC 20429-0002, and a statement of the basis upon which such request is made, and copies of all documentation supporting such request, including without limitation a copy of the applicable agreements and of any applicable notices under the contract.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contemporaneous requirement.</I> The FDIC will not seek to avoid an otherwise legally enforceable agreement that is executed by an insured depository institution in connection with a securitization or in the form of a participation solely because the agreement does not meet the “contemporaneous” requirement of 12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(9), 1821(n)(4)(I), or 1823(e).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Limitations.</I> The consents set forth in this section do not act to waive or relinquish any rights granted to the FDIC in any capacity, pursuant to any other applicable law or any agreement or contract except as specifically set forth herein. Nothing contained in this section alters the claims priority of the securitized obligations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>No waiver.</I> Except as specifically set forth herein, this section does not authorize, and shall not be construed as authorizing the waiver of the prohibitions in 12 U.S.C. 1825(b)(2) against levy, attachment, garnishment, foreclosure, or sale of property of the FDIC, nor does it authorize nor shall it be construed as authorizing the attachment of any involuntary lien upon the property of the FDIC. Nor shall this section be construed as waiving, limiting or otherwise affecting the rights or powers of the FDIC to take any action or to exercise any power not specifically mentioned, including but not limited to any rights, powers or remedies of the FDIC regarding transfers or other conveyances taken in contemplation of the institution's insolvency or with the intent to hinder, delay or defraud the institution or the creditors of such institution, or that is a fraudulent transfer under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>No assignment.</I> The right to consent under 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(13)(C) or 12 U.S.C. 1825(b)(2), may not be assigned or transferred to any purchaser of property from the FDIC, other than to a conservator or bridge bank.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Repeal.</I> This section may be repealed by the FDIC upon 30 days notice provided in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> but any repeal shall not apply to any issuance made in accordance with this section before such repeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 60297, Sept. 30, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 73089, Nov. 24, 2015; 81 FR 41423, June 27, 2016; 85 FR 12731, Mar. 4, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.7   Post-insolvency interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section establishes rules governing the calculation and distribution of post-insolvency interest to creditors with proven claims in all FDIC-administered receiverships established after June 13, 2002. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Equityholder.</I> The owner of an equity interest in a failed depository institution, whether such ownership is represented by stock, membership in a mutual association, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-insolvency interest.</I> Interest calculated from the date the receivership is established on proven creditor claims in receiverships with surplus funds. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Post-insolvency interest rate.</I> For any calendar quarter, the coupon equivalent yield of the average discount rate set on the three-month Treasury bill at the last auction held by the United States Treasury Department during the preceding calendar quarter, and adjusted each quarter thereafter. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Principal amount.</I> The proven claim amount and any interest accrued thereon as of the date the receivership is established. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Proven claim.</I> A claim that is allowed by a receiver or upon which a final non-appealable judgment has been entered in favor of a claimant against a receivership by a court with jurisdiction to adjudicate the claim. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Post-insolvency interest distributions.</I> (1) Post-insolvency interest shall only be distributed following satisfaction by the receiver of the principal amount of all creditor claims. 
</P>
<P>(2) The receiver shall distribute post-insolvency interest at the post-insolvency interest rate prior to making any distribution to equityholders. Post-insolvency interest distributions shall be made in the order of priority set forth in section 11(d)(11)(A) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(11)(A). 
</P>
<P>(3) Post-insolvency interest distributions shall be made at such time as the receiver determines that such distributions are appropriate and only to the extent of funds available in the receivership estate. Post-insolvency interest shall be calculated on the outstanding balance of a proven claim, as reduced from time to time by any interim dividend distributions, from the date the receivership is established until the principal amount of a proven claim has been fully distributed but not thereafter. Post-insolvency interest shall be calculated on a contingent claim from the date such claim becomes proven. 
</P>
<P>(4) Post-insolvency interest shall be determined using a simple interest method of calculation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 34386, May 14, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.8   Method for determining deposit and other liability account balances at a failed insured depository institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to describe the process the FDIC will use to determine deposit and other liability account balances for insurance coverage and receivership purposes at a failed insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) The <I>FDIC Cutoff Point</I> means the point in time the FDIC establishes after it has been appointed receiver of a failed insured depository institution and takes control of the failed institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The <I>Applicable Cutoff Time</I> for a specific type of deposit account transaction means the <I>earlier</I> of either the failed institution's normal cutoff time for that specific type of transaction or the <I>FDIC Cutoff Point.</I>
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Close-of-Business Account Balance</I> means the closing end-of-day ledger balance of a deposit or other liability account on the day of failure of an insured depository institution determined by using the <I>Applicable Cutoff Times.</I> This balance may be adjusted to reflect steps taken by the receiver to ensure that funds are not received by or removed from the institution after the <I>FDIC Cutoff Point.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) A <I>sweep account</I> is an account held pursuant to a contract between an insured depository institution and its customer involving the pre-arranged, automated transfer of funds from a deposit account to either another account or investment vehicle located within the depository institution (<I>internal sweep account</I>), or an investment vehicle located outside the depository institution (<I>external sweep account</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principles.</I> (1) In making deposit insurance determinations and in determining the value and nature of claims against the receivership on the institution's date of failure, the FDIC, as insurer and receiver, will treat deposits and other liabilities of the failed institution according to the ownership and nature of the underlying obligations based on end-of-day ledger balances for each account using, except as expressly provided otherwise in this section, the depository institution's normal posting procedures.
</P>
<P>(2) In its role as receiver of a failed insured depository institution, in order to ensure the proper distribution of the failed institution's assets under the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(11)) as of the FDIC Cutoff Point, the FDIC will use its best efforts to take all steps necessary to stop the generation, via transactions or transfers coming from or going outside the institution, of new liabilities or extinguishing existing liabilities for the depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) End-of-day ledger balances are subject to corrections for posted transactions that are inconsistent with the above principles.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Determining closing day balances.</I> (1) In determining account balances for insurance coverage and receivership purposes at a failed insured depository institution, the FDIC will use <I>Close-of-Business Account Balances.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A check posted to the <I>Close-of-Business Account Balance</I> but not collected by the depository institution will be included as part of the balance, subject to the correction of errors and omissions and adjustments for uncollectible items that the FDIC may make in its role as receiver of the failed depository institution.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining <I>Close-of-Business Account Balances</I> involving sweep accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) For internal sweep accounts, the FDIC will determine the ownership of the funds and the nature of the receivership claim based on the records established and maintained by the institution for that specific account or investment vehicle as of the closing day end-of-day ledger balance. (For example, if a sweep account entails the daily transfer of funds from a demand deposit account to a Eurodollar account at a foreign branch of the insured depository institution, if the institution should fail on that day, the FDIC would treat the funds swept to the Eurodollar account, as reflected on the institution's end-of-day records, as an unsecured general creditor's claim against the receivership.);
</P>
<P>(ii) For external sweep accounts, the FDIC will treat swept funds consistent with their status in the end-of-day ledger balances of the depository institution and the external entity, as long as the transfer of funds is completed prior to the Applicable Cutoff Time. (For example, if funds held in connection with a money market sweep account are wired from a customer's deposit account at the insured depository institution to the mutual fund prior to the Applicable Cutoff Time, if the institution should fail on that day, the FDIC would recognize that sweep transaction as completed for claims and receivership purposes.);
</P>
<P>(iii) For repurchase agreement sweep accounts, where, as a result of the sweep transaction, the customer becomes either the legal owner of identified assets subject to repurchase or obtains a perfected security interest in those assets, the FDIC will recognize, for receivership purposes, the customer's ownership interest or security interest in the assets.
</P>
<P>(4) For deposit insurance and receivership purposes in connection with the failure of an insured depository institution, the FDIC will determine the rights of the depositor or other liability holder as of the point the <I>Close-of-Business Account Balance</I> is calculated.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> Beginning July 1, 2009, in all new sweep account contracts, in renewals of existing sweep account contracts and within sixty days after July 1, 2009, and no less than annually thereafter, institutions must prominently disclose in writing to sweep account customers whether their swept funds are deposits within the meaning of 12 U.S.C. 1813(l). If the funds are not deposits, the institution must further disclose the status such funds would have if the institution failed—for example, general creditor status or secured creditor status. Such disclosures must be consistent with how the institution reports such funds on its quarterly Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income or Thrift Financial Reports. The disclosure requirements imposed under this provision do not apply to sweep accounts where: The transfers are within a single account, or a sub-account; or the sweep account involves only deposit-to-deposit sweeps, such as zero-balance accounts, unless the sweep results in a change in the customer's insurance coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5806, Feb. 2, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.9   Large-bank deposit insurance determination modernization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This section is intended to allow the deposit and other operations of a large insured depository institution (defined as a “Covered Institution”) to continue functioning on the day following failure. It also is intended to permit the FDIC to fulfill its legal mandates regarding the resolution of failed insured institutions to provide liquidity to depositors promptly, enhance market discipline, ensure equitable treatment of depositors at different institutions and reduce the FDIC's costs by preserving the franchise value of a failed institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) A <I>covered Institution</I> means an insured depository institution which, based on items as defined in Reports of Income and Condition or Thrift Financial Reports filed with the applicable federal regulator, has at least $2 billion in deposits and at least either:
</P>
<P>(i) 250,000 deposit accounts; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $20 billion in total assets, regardless of the number of deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deposits, number of deposit accounts and total assets</I> are as defined in the instructions for the filing of Reports of Income and Condition and Thrift Financial Reports, as applicable to the insured depository institution for determining whether it qualifies as a covered institution. A foreign deposit means an uninsured deposit liability maintained in a foreign branch of an insured depository institution. An <I>international banking facility deposit</I> is as defined by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System in Regulation D (12 CFR § 204.8(a)(2)). A <I>demand deposit account, NOW account, money market deposit account, savings deposit account and time deposit account</I> are as defined in the instructions for the filing of Reports of Income and Condition and Thrift Financial Reports.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sweep account arrangements</I> consist of a deposit account linked to an interest-bearing investment vehicle whereby funds are swept to and from the deposit account according to prearranged rules, usually on a daily basis, where the sweep investment vehicle is not a deposit and is reflected on the books and records of the <I>Covered Institution.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Automated credit account arrangements</I> consist of a deposit account into which funds are automatically credited from an interest-bearing investment vehicle where the funds in the interest-bearing investment vehicle were not invested by prearranged rules.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-covered institution</I> means an insured depository institution that does not meet the definition of a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Provisional hold</I> means an effective restriction on access to some or all of a deposit or other liability account after the failure of an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Posting and removing provisional holds.</I> (1) A covered institution shall have in place an automated process for implementing a provisional hold on deposit accounts, foreign deposit accounts and sweep and automated credit account arrangements immediately following the determination of the close-of-business account balances, as defined in § 360.8(b)(3), at the failed covered institution.
</P>
<P>(2) The system requirements under paragraph (c)(1) must have the capability of placing the provisional holds prescribed under that provision no later than 9 a.m. local time the day following the FDIC cutoff point, as defined in § 360.8(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to instructions to be provided by the FDIC, a covered institution must notify the FDIC of the person(s) responsible for producing the standard data download and administering provisional holds, both while the functionality is being constructed and on an on-going basis.
</P>
<P>(4) For deposit accounts held in domestic offices of an insured depository institution, the provisional hold algorithm must be designed to exempt accounts below a specific account balance threshold, as determined by the FDIC. The account balance threshold could be any amount, including zero. For accounts above the account balance threshold determined by the FDIC, the algorithm must be designed to calculate and place a hold equal to the dollar amount of funds in excess of the account balance threshold multiplied by the provisional hold percentage determined by the FDIC. The provisional hold percentage could be any amount, from zero to one hundred percent. The account balance threshold as well as the provisional hold percentage could vary for the following four categories, as the covered institution customarily defines consumer accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Consumer demand deposit, NOW and money market deposit accounts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other consumer deposit accounts (time deposit and savings accounts, excluding NOW and money market deposit accounts);
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-consumer demand deposit, NOW and money market deposit accounts; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other non-consumer deposit accounts (time deposit and savings accounts, excluding NOW and money market deposit accounts).
</P>
<P>(5) For deposit accounts held in foreign offices of an insured depository institution, other than those connected to a sweep or automated credit arrangement, the provisional hold algorithm will apply a provisional hold percentage to the entire account balance. For deposit accounts held in foreign offices the provisional hold percentage may differ from that applied to deposit accounts. Also, the provisional hold percentage would not vary by account category (<I>i.e.</I>, consumer versus non-consumer and transaction versus non-transaction) as is the case with deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>(6) For international banking facility deposits, other than those connected to a sweep or automated credit arrangements, the provisional hold algorithm will apply a provisional hold percentage to the entire account balance. For IBF deposits the provisional hold percentage may differ from that applied to deposit or foreign deposit accounts. Also, the provisional hold percentage would not vary by account category (<I>i.e.</I>, consumer versus non-consumer, and transaction versus non-transaction) as is the case with deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>(7) For the interest-bearing investment vehicle of a sweep arrangement, the provisional hold algorithm must be designed with the capability to place a provisional hold on the interest-bearing investment vehicle with possibly a different account balance threshold and a different hold percentage according to the type of interest-bearing investment vehicle.
</P>
<P>(8) For the interest-bearing investment vehicle of an automated credit account arrangement, the provisional hold algorithm must be designed with the capability to place a provisional hold on the interest-bearing investment vehicle with possibly a different account balance threshold and a different hold percentage according to the type of interest-bearing investment vehicle.
</P>
<P>(9) A covered institution may submit a request to the FDIC, using the address indicated in § 360.9(g): to develop a provisional hold process involving memo holds or alternative account mechanisms; or to exempt from the provisional hold requirements of this section those account systems servicing a relatively small number of accounts where the manual application of provisional holds is feasible. Such requests may be in the form of a letter and must include a justification for the request and address the relative effectiveness of the alternative for posting provisional holds in the event of failure. The FDIC will consider such requests on a case-by-case basis in light of the objectives of this section.
</P>
<P>(10) The automated process for provisional holds required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section must include the capability of removing provisional holds in batch mode and, during the same processing cycle, applying debits, credits or additional holds on the deposit or other accounts from which the provisional holds were removed, as determined by the FDIC. The FDIC will provide files listing the accounts subject to: removal of provisional holds or additional holds (file format as specified in appendix A); application of debits or credits (file format as specified in appendix B); and application of additional holds (file format as specified in appendix A). In addition to the batch process used to remove provisional holds, the Covered Institution is required to have in place a mechanism for manual removal of provisional holds on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Providing a standard data format for generating deposit account and customer data.</I> (1) A covered institution must have in place practices and procedures for providing the FDIC in a standard format upon the close of any day's business with required depositor and customer data for all deposit accounts held in domestic and foreign offices and interest-bearing investment accounts connected with sweep and automated credit arrangements. Such standard data files are to be created through a mapping of pre-existing data elements and internal institution codes into standard data formats. Deposit account and customer data provided must be current as of the close of business for that day.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall be provided in five separate files, as indicated in the appendices C through G to this part 360.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon request by the FDIC, a covered institution must submit the data required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section to the FDIC, in a manner prescribed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(4) In providing the data required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section to the FDIC, the <I>Covered Institution</I> must be able to reconcile the total deposit balances and the number of deposit accounts to the institution's subsidiary system control totals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implementation requirements.</I> (1) A covered institution must comply with the requirements of this section no later than February 18, 2010.
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution not within the definition of a covered institution on the effective date of this section must comply with the requirements of this section no later than eighteen months following the end of the second calendar quarter for which it meets the criteria for a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon the merger of two or more non-covered institutions, if the resulting institution meets the criteria for a covered institution, that covered institution must comply with the requirements of this section no later than eighteen months after the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>(4) Upon the merger of two or more covered institutions, the merged institution must comply with the requirements of this section within eighteen months following the effective date of the merger. This provision, however, does not supplant any preexisting implementation date requirement, in place prior to the date of the merger, for the individual covered institution(s) involved in the merger.
</P>
<P>(5) Upon the merger of one or more covered institutions with one or more non-covered institutions, the merged institution(s) must comply with the requirements of this section within eighteen months following the effective date of the merger. This provision, however, does not supplant any preexisting implementation date requirement for the individual covered institution(s) involved in the merger.
</P>
<P>(6) Notwithstanding the general requirements of this paragraph (e), on a case-by-case basis, the FDIC may accelerate, upon notice, the implementation timeframe of all or part of the requirements of this section for a covered institution that: Has a composite rating of 3, 4, or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution's Rating System, or in the case of an insured branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating; is undercapitalized, as defined under the prompt corrective action provisions of 12 CFR part 324; or is determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency or the FDIC in consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency to be experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the institution by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination. In implementing this paragraph (e)(6), the FDIC must consult with the covered institution's primary federal regulator and consider the: Complexity of the institution's deposit systems and operations, extent of the institution's asset quality difficulties, volatility of the institution's funding sources, expected near-term changes in the institution's capital levels, and other relevant factors appropriate for the FDIC to consider in its roles as insurer and possible receiver of the institution.
</P>
<P>(7) Notwithstanding the general requirements of this paragraph (e), a covered institution may request, by letter, that the FDIC extend the deadline for complying with the requirements of this section. A request for such an extension is subject to the FDIC's rules of general applicability under 12 CFR. 303.251.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered institution may apply to the FDIC for an exemption from the requirements of this § 360.9 if it has a high concentration of deposits incidental to credit card operations. The FDIC will consider such applications on a case-by-case basis in light of the objectives of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Requests for exemptions from the requirements of this section, for flexibility in the use of provisional holds or for extensions of the implementation requirements of this section and the submission of point-of-contact information should be submitted in writing to: Office of the Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429-0002.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Testing requirements.</I> Covered institutions must provide appropriate assistance to the FDIC in its testing of the systems required by this section. The FDIC will provide testing details to covered institutions through the issuance of subsequent procedures and/or guidelines.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41195, July 17, 2008, as amended at 78 FR 55595, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.10   Resolution plans required for insured depository institutions with $100 billion or more in total assets; informational filings required for insured depository institutions with at least $50 billion but less than $100 billion in total assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> This section applies to insured depository institutions with $50 billion or more in total assets. It requires a covered insured depository institution with $100 billion or more in total assets (a group A CIDI, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) to submit a resolution plan that should enable the FDIC, as receiver, to resolve the institution under 12 U.S.C. 1821 and 1823 in a manner that provides depositors timely access to their insured deposits, maximizes the net present value return from the sale or disposition of assets and minimizes the amount of any loss realized by the creditors in the resolution, and addresses risks of adverse effects on U.S. economic conditions or economic stability. Other covered insured depository institutions (group B CIDIs, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section) are required under this section to submit to the FDIC an informational filing containing information relevant to the group B CIDI's resolution that will support the development of strategic options for resolution of the CIDI by the FDIC. This section also establishes the requirements regarding the submission of resolution plans and informational filings and their contents, as well as procedures for their review by the FDIC. This rule is intended to ensure that each group A CIDI develops a credible strategy to facilitate the FDIC's resolution of the institution across a range of possible scenarios and, with respect to each group A CIDI and each group B CIDI, the FDIC has access to all of the material information and analysis it needs to resolve efficiently the covered insured depository institution in the event of its failure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(6).
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P><I>Biennial filer</I> is defined in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Bridge depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(i)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Capabilities testing</I> is defined in paragraph (f)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>CIDI or covered insured depository institution</I> means a group A CIDI or a group B CIDI.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 362.2(d).
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(5).
</P>
<P><I>Core business lines</I> means those business lines of the CIDI, including associated operations, services, functions, and support, that, in the view of the CIDI, upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value of the CIDI.
</P>
<P><I>Critical services</I> means services and operations, including shared and outsourced services, that are necessary to continue the day-to-day operations of the CIDI, and, in the case of a group A CIDI, to support the execution of the identified strategy, and includes all services and operations that are necessary to continue any critical operation conducted by the CIDI that has been included in the most recent DFA resolution plan of the CIDI's parent company.
</P>
<P><I>Critical services support</I> means resources, including shared and outsourced resources, that are necessary to support the provision of critical services, including systems, technology infrastructure, data, key personnel, intellectual property, and facilities.
</P>
<P><I>DFA resolution plan</I> means a resolution plan filed by a CIDI's parent company under 12 U.S.C. 5365(d).
</P>
<P><I>DIF</I> means the deposit insurance fund established by 11 U.S.C. 1821(a)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Engagement</I> is defined in paragraph (f)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Failure scenario</I> means a scenario as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign-based company</I> means any company that is not incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Franchise component</I> means a business segment, regional branch network, major asset, material asset portfolio, or other key component of a CIDI's franchise that can be separated and sold or divested.
</P>
<P><I>Full resolution submission</I> means a resolution plan for a group A CIDI, and an informational filing for a group B CIDI.
</P>
<P><I>Group A CIDI</I> means an insured depository institution with $100 billion or more in total assets, as determined based upon the average of the institution's four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. An insured depository institution that is a group A CIDI remains a group A CIDI until it has less than $100 billion in total assets for each of the institution's four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. In the event of a merger, acquisition of assets, combination, or similar transaction by an insured depository institution that causes it to exceed $100 billion in total assets, the FDIC may alternatively consider, in its discretion, to the extent and in the manner the FDIC considers to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income of the insured depository institutions that will become a group A CIDI effective as of the date of the consummation of such merger, acquisition, combination, or other transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Group B CIDI</I> means an insured depository institution with at least $50 billion but less than $100 billion in total assets, as determined based upon the average of the institution's four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. An insured depository institution that is a group B CIDI remains a group B CIDI until it is a group A CIDI or has less than $50 billion in total assets, in either case, for each of the institution's four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income. In the event of a merger, acquisition of assets, combination, or similar transaction by an insured depository institution that causes it to have at least $50 billion but less than $100 billion in total assets, the FDIC may alternatively consider, in its discretion, to the extent and in the manner the FDIC considers to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income of the insured depository institutions that will become a group B CIDI effective as of the date of the consummation of such merger, acquisition, combination, or other transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Identified strategy</I> means the strategy chosen by a group A CIDI for its resolution plan as required pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, covering the time period from the point of failure to disposition of substantially all of the assets and operations of the group A CIDI through wind-down, liquidation, divestiture, or other return to the private sector.
</P>
<P><I>IDI franchise</I> means all core business lines and all other business segments, branches, and assets that constitute the CIDI and its businesses as a whole.
</P>
<P><I>Informational filing</I> means the full resolution submission submitted by a group B CIDI pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Key depositors</I> is defined in paragraph (d)(7)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Key personnel</I> means personnel tasked with an essential role in support of a core business line, franchise component, or critical service, or having a function, responsibility, or knowledge that may be significant to the FDIC's resolution of the CIDI. Key personnel may be employed by the CIDI, a CIDI subsidiary, the parent company, a parent company affiliate, or a third party.
</P>
<P><I>Least-cost test</I> means the process for determining the resolution strategy that is least costly to the DIF, as required under 12 U.S.C. 1823(c).
</P>
<P><I>Material asset portfolio</I> means a pool or portfolio of assets, such as loans, securities, or other assets that may be sold in resolution by the bridge depository institution or the receivership and is significant in terms of income or value to the CIDI.
</P>
<P><I>Material change</I> means a change in organization, operations, or strategic direction of the CIDI that results from an extraordinary event or other circumstance that could reasonably be foreseen to have a material effect on the resolvability of the CIDI. Such changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of a new core business line;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification of a new material entity or the de-identification of a material entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Legal or functional organizational structure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Overall deposit structure;
</P>
<P>(v) Critical services or critical services support;
</P>
<P>(vi) The identification or de-identification of a franchise component;
</P>
<P>(vii) The acquisition or disposition of a material asset portfolio; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Cross-border elements.
</P>
<P><I>Material entity</I> means a company, a domestic branch, or a foreign branch as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(o) that is significant to the activities of a critical service or core business line, and includes all IDIs that are subsidiaries or affiliates of the CIDI.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple-acquirer exit</I> means an exit from a bridge depository institution through the sale of all or nearly all of the CIDI's IDI franchise to multiple acquirers, such as a regional breakup of the CIDI's IDI franchise or a sale of business segments to multiple acquirers, and may also include the wind-down or other disposition of franchise components, or material asset portfolios incidental to the divestitures of going concern elements, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Parent company</I> means the company that controls, directly or indirectly, an insured depository institution. In a multi-tiered holding company structure, parent company means the top-tier of the multi-tiered holding company only.
</P>
<P><I>Parent company affiliate</I> means any affiliate of the parent company other than the CIDI and the CIDI's subsidiaries.
</P>
<P><I>Payment, clearing, and settlement service provider (PCS service provider)</I> is defined in paragraph (d)(16) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8).
</P>
<P><I>Regulated subsidiary</I> is defined in paragraph (d)(4)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Resolution plan</I> means the full resolution submission submitted by a group A CIDI pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> has the meaning given in the instructions for the filing of Reports of Condition and Income.
</P>
<P><I>Triennial filer</I> is defined in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> has the same meaning as the term State as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Virtual data room</I> means an online repository where information pertinent to a sale or disposition of a CIDI or its franchise components is maintained in a secure and confidential manner to facilitate, whether by the CIDI or the FDIC, such sale or disposition to one or more third party acquirers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Full resolution submissions required</I>—(1) <I>Biennial filers</I>—(i) <I>Definition.</I> Biennial filer means a CIDI affiliate of a biennial filer, as defined in § 381.4(a)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Submission date.</I> Each biennial filer must provide a full resolution submission to the FDIC on or before the date that is two years after the date of its most recent full resolution submission (or first business day thereafter), unless it has received written notice of a different date from the FDIC. All biennial filers will receive a written notice specifying the date on which their initial full resolution submission or interim supplement is due, which will be at least 270 days after October 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Triennial filers</I>—(i) <I>Definition.</I> Triennial filer means all CIDIs that are not biennial filers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Submission date.</I> Each triennial filer must provide a full resolution submission to the FDIC on or before the date that is three years after the date of its most recent full resolution submission (or first business day thereafter), unless it has received written notice of a different date from the FDIC. All triennial filers will receive a written notice specifying the date on which their initial full resolution submission or interim supplement is due, which will be at least 270 days after October 1, 2024.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Full resolution submission by new CIDIs.</I> An insured depository institution that becomes a CIDI after October 1, 2024, must submit its initial full resolution submission on or before the date specified in writing by the FDIC. Such date will occur no earlier than 270 days after the date on which the insured depository institution became a CIDI. A CIDI that transitions between groups will file a full resolution submission or interim supplement, as applicable, pursuant to the requirements applicable to its new filing group on or before the date that its next full resolution submission or interim supplement is due, unless it receives written notice of a different date from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of extraordinary event.</I> (i) <I>Requirements.</I> Each CIDI must provide the FDIC with a notice no later than 45 days after any material merger, acquisition or disposition of assets, or similar transaction or fundamental change to the CIDI's organizational structure, core business lines, size, or complexity. Such notice must describe the extraordinary event and explain how the event impacts the resolvability of the CIDI. The CIDI must address any material changes resulting from the extraordinary event with respect to which it has provided notice pursuant to this paragraph (c)(4)(i) in the subsequent full resolution submission or interim supplement submitted by the CIDI.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> A CIDI is not required to submit a notice under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section if the date by which the CIDI would be required to submit the notice under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section would be within 90 days before the date on which the CIDI is required to make a full resolution submission under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Approval by the CIDI board of directors.</I> The CIDI's board of directors or, in the case of an insured branch only, a delegee acting under the express authority of the CIDI's board of directors, must approve the full resolution submission. That approval or delegation of express authority must be noted in the minutes of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Incorporation from other sources</I>—(i) <I>Sources.</I> A CIDI may incorporate information or analysis into the confidential section of its full resolution submission or its interim supplement from one or more of the following without seeking the authorization for disclosure of FDIC confidential information required under 12 CFR part 309:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent full resolution submission submitted by the CIDI or an affiliate of the CIDI.
</P>
<P>(B) The most recent DFA resolution plan of a company that is a CIDI affiliate.
</P>
<P>(C) Any other regulatory filing by the CIDI or a CIDI affiliate with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements for incorporation from other sources.</I> A CIDI may incorporate information from other sources only if:
</P>
<P>(A) The full resolution submission seeking to incorporate information or analysis from other sources clearly indicates the source and as-of date of the information or analysis the CIDI is incorporating, and the information or analysis required by this section is readily distinguishable from any extraneous parent company (or parent company affiliate) information or analysis, with a description of any material differences.
</P>
<P>(B) The CIDI certifies that the information or analysis the CIDI is incorporating from other sources remains accurate in all respects that are material to the CIDI's full resolution submission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of the full resolution submissions for CIDIs.</I> Each group A CIDI must submit a resolution plan that includes all content specified in this paragraph (d). Each group B CIDI must submit an informational filing that includes the content specified in paragraphs (d)(4) through (9), (d)(10)(i) through (iii) and (vii) through (viii), (d)(11), and (d)(13) through (27) of this section, inclusive; a description of each material change since the submission of its prior informational filing or, where relevant, interim supplement (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred); and a discussion of the changes to the CIDI's previously submitted informational filing resulting from any change in law or regulation, guidance, or feedback from the FDIC, or material change.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Identified strategy.</I> (i) Each resolution plan must include an identified strategy for the resolution of the CIDI in the event of its failure that meets the credibility criteria in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A CIDI must utilize as its identified strategy the formation and stabilization of a bridge depository institution that continues operation through the completion of the resolution and exit from the bridge depository institution unless the CIDI determines and demonstrates in its resolution plan why another strategy:
</P>
<P>(A) Would be more appropriate for the size, complexity, and risk profile of the CIDI;
</P>
<P>(B) Reasonably could be executed by the FDIC across a range of likely failure scenarios; and
</P>
<P>(C) Best addresses the credibility criteria described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The identified strategy must include meaningful optionality for execution across a range of scenarios. The exit from the bridge depository institution may be through a multiple acquirer exit, or any other exit strategy following the stabilization of the operations of the bridge depository institution. The identified strategy may not be based upon a sale or other disposition to one or more acquirers over resolution weekend.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure scenario.</I> For the identified strategy, the CIDI must use a failure scenario that demonstrates that the CIDI is experiencing material financial distress, such that the quality of the CIDI's asset base has deteriorated and high-quality liquid assets have been depleted or pledged in the stress period before failure due to high, unexpected outflows of deposits and increased liquidity requirements from counterparties that would impact the CIDI's ability to pay its obligations in the normal course of business before the FDIC's appointment as receiver. Though the immediate failure event may be liquidity-related and associated with a lack of market confidence in the financial condition of the CIDI before the final recognition of losses, the identified strategy must also consider the depletion of capital before and at the time of the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. The CIDI may not assume any regulatory waivers in connection with the actions proposed to be taken before or in resolution. To the extent that the CIDI assumes that DIF funding is used during the resolution by a bridge depository institution, it must demonstrate the capacity for such borrowing on a fully secured basis and the source of repayment. The identified strategy must take into account that failure of the CIDI will occur under severely adverse economic conditions developed by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(1)(B), and must assume that the U.S. parent company (if any) is in resolution under 11 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I> or another applicable insolvency regime. The FDIC may provide a CIDI additional or alternative parameters for the failure scenario detailed in this paragraph (d)(2). The FDIC will endeavor to provide a CIDI notice of such additional or alternative parameters for the failure scenario at least one year before the applicable resolution plan is due. Any such additional or alternative parameters:
</P>
<P>(i) May be applicable to all CIDIs or only specific individual CIDIs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May include additional conditions, such as different macroeconomic stress scenario information or assumptions with respect to the cause of failure. If the FDIC provides such additional or alternative parameters, the CIDI must use the additional or alternative parameters rather than the conditions specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, to the extent inconsistent with the conditions specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Executive summary.</I> A resolution plan must include an executive summary providing:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the key elements of the identified strategy;
</P>
<P>(ii) An overview of the CIDI's core business lines and franchise components;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of each material change since the prior resolution plan addressing the changed element (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred);
</P>
<P>(iv) A discussion of the changes to the CIDI's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any change in law or regulation, guidance, or feedback from the FDIC, or material change; and
</P>
<P>(v) A discussion of any actions taken by the CIDI since the submission of its prior resolution plan to further develop the quality or comprehensiveness of the information and analysis included in the resolution plan, including the identified strategy, or to improve its capabilities to develop and timely deliver that information and analysis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Organizational structure: legal entities; core business lines; and branches.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and describe the CIDI's, the parent company's, and the parent company affiliates' legal and functional structures, including all material entities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify and describe each of the CIDI's core business lines, including whether any core business line draws additional value from, or relies on the operations of, the parent company or a parent company affiliate, and identify any such operations that are cross-border. Provide information about the assets and annual revenue for each core business line, clearly identifying revenue to the CIDI.
</P>
<P>(iii) Map franchise components to core business lines, and franchise components and core business lines to material entities and regulated subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe the CIDI's branch organization, both domestic and foreign, including the address and total domestic and foreign deposits of each branch.
</P>
<P>(v) Identify each CIDI subsidiary that is one of the following legal entities (each a “regulated subsidiary”), and provide the address and asset size of each regulated subsidiary:
</P>
<P>(A) A broker or dealer that is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(B) A registered investment adviser, properly registered by or on behalf of either the Securities and Exchange Commission or any State, with respect to the investment advisory activities of such investment adviser and activities incidental to such investment advisory activities;
</P>
<P>(C) An investment company that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(D) An insurance company, with respect to insurance activities of the insurance company and activities incidental to such insurance activities, that is subject to supervision by a State insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(E) A legal entity that is subject to regulation by, or registration with, the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, with respect to activities conducted as a futures commission merchant, commodity trading adviser, commodity pool, commodity pool operator, swap execution facility, swap data repository, swap dealer, major swap participant, and activities that are incidental to such commodities and swaps activities;
</P>
<P>(F) A corporation organized under12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.</I> or a corporation having an agreement or undertaking with the Federal Reserve Board under 12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.;</I> or
</P>
<P>(G) Any legal entity that is organized under the law of any jurisdiction other than the United States and that is authorized or supervised by a regulatory authority of such jurisdiction in a manner generally comparable to the U.S. legal entities and authorities described in paragraphs (d)(4)(v)(A) through (E) of this section, and includes any subsidiary that takes deposits or conducts the business of banking under the laws of such jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(vi) Identify all of the CIDI's subsidiaries, offices, and agencies with cross-border operations associated with the operations of any core business line or franchise component. For each such subsidiary, office, or agency, provide metrics that appropriately depict its size and significance, and the location of each such subsidiary, office, and agency.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Methodology for material entity designation.</I> A full resolution submission must describe the CIDI's methodology for identifying material entities. The methodology must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the CIDI's operations.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Separation from parent; potential barriers or material obstacles to orderly resolution.</I> The full resolution submission must address the CIDI's ability to operate separately from the parent company's organization, and any impact on maintaining economic viability and preservation of franchise value in a bridge depository institution, with the assumption that the parent company and parent company affiliates are in resolution under 11 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I> or another applicable insolvency regime. The full resolution submission must describe the actions necessary to separate the CIDI and its subsidiaries from the organizational structure of its parent company in a cost-effective and timely fashion. The full resolution submission must identify potential barriers or other material obstacles to an orderly resolution of the CIDI that may occur upon the CIDI's separation from the parent company's organization, as well as risks to the identified strategy (if required), and inter-connections and inter-dependencies that may hinder the timely and effective resolution of the CIDI, and include the remediation steps or mitigating responses necessary to eliminate or minimize such barriers or obstacles.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Overall deposit activities.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the CIDI's overall deposit activities, including, insured and uninsured deposits, and particular deposit concentrations or other aspects of the deposit base or underlying systems that may create operational complexity for the FDIC. Describe how any types or groups of deposits are related to a core business line, business segment, or franchise component, and if so, how those types or groups of deposits are identified on the records or systems of the CIDI.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the total amount of foreign deposits by jurisdiction and what percentage of foreign deposits is dually payable in the United States. Describe any relationship between foreign deposits and core business lines and any deposit sweep arrangements with foreign branches, subsidiaries, and affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify and describe deposit sweep arrangements, if any, that the CIDI has with the parent company, parent company affiliates, or third parties, and identify contracts governing such deposit sweep arrangements. Describe the CIDI's reporting capabilities on sweep deposits, including whether such reporting is automated and any data lag that affects the accuracy of such reports. If the CIDI receives significant amounts of deposits through such deposit sweep arrangements with the parent company or parent company affiliates, include a detailed discussion of such relationships and the business objectives of such deposit sweep arrangements.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify all omnibus, deposit sweep, and pass-through accounts, and identify the accountholder, the location of relevant contracts, and the system on which the accounts are maintained. Provide a detailed discussion of the capabilities and timeliness of deposit reporting systems and capabilities to generate accurate and timely contact information with respect to any omnibus, deposit sweep, or pass-through accounts.
</P>
<P>(v) Provide a report regarding the CIDI's depositors that hold or control the largest deposits (whether in one account or multiple accounts) that collectively are material to one or more business segments (“key depositors”). The report must identify key depositors by name and business segment and the amount of deposit of each key depositor, and for each key depositor must identify other services provided by the CIDI to that depositor, such as lending, wealth management, brokerage services, or custody services. The full resolution submission must describe the CIDI's approach to identifying these key depositors and must describe how long it would take the CIDI to generate such a report and the timeliness of the information provided.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Critical services.</I> A CIDI must be able to demonstrate capabilities necessary to ensure continuity of critical services in resolution. In order to support these capabilities, a full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and describe the CIDI's critical services and critical services support, including whether they are provided, in whole or in part, by or through:
</P>
<P>(A) The CIDI or a CIDI subsidiary or branch (and further indicate whether those critical services or critical services support are ultimately provided by a third party), or
</P>
<P>(B) The parent company or a parent company affiliate (and further indicate whether those critical services or critical services support are ultimately provided by a third party).
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the CIDI's process for identifying critical services and critical services support. Describe the CIDI's process for collecting and monitoring the terms of contracts governing critical services and critical services support, and whether services provided pursuant to such contracts and associated costs can be segmented by the material entity, core business line, or franchise component that receives the critical service or critical service support.
</P>
<P>(iii) Map critical services support to the legal entities that own, contract for, or employ them, and map critical services to the material entities, core business lines, and franchise components that they support.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the physical locations and jurisdictions of critical service providers and critical services support that are located outside of the United States.
</P>
<P>(v) Identify the critical services and critical services support that may be at risk of interruption in the event of the CIDI's failure and describe the process used to make this determination. Describe the CIDI's approach for continuing critical services in the event of the CIDI's failure. Identify contracts for critical services that contain provisions that, upon the insolvency of the CIDI or the FDIC being appointed receiver of the CIDI, purport to permit the service provider to stop providing services, to alter pricing, or to alter other terms of service. Discuss potential obstacles to maintaining critical services that could occur in the event of the CIDI's failure and steps that could be taken to remediate or otherwise mitigate the risk of interruption, to include those critical services and critical services support provided by the parent company or a parent company affiliate and addressing:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the CIDI and the parent company or parent company affiliate have entered into a written agreement and whether the written agreement has a cost plus or arms' length pricing rate, and the processes used by the CIDI to identify and project liquidity needs associated with those costs; and
</P>
<P>(B) The impact on continuity of critical services or critical services support provided by the parent company or a parent company affiliate if the parent company or parent company affiliate is in resolution under 11 U.S.C. 101 <I>et seq.</I> or other applicable insolvency regime.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Key personnel.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify all key personnel by title, function, location, core business line, and employing legal entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the CIDI's methodology for identifying key personnel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a recommended approach for retaining key personnel during the CIDI's resolution.
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify all employee benefit programs provided to key personnel, including health insurance, defined contribution and defined benefit retirement programs, and any other employee wellness programs, as well as any collective bargaining agreements or other similar arrangements. Identify the legal entity sponsor of each employee benefit program, and provide a description of and points of contact (by title) for such programs.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Franchise components.</I> A CIDI must be able to demonstrate the capabilities necessary to ensure that franchise components and the IDI franchise are marketable in resolution. A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify franchise components that are currently separable, and are marketable in a timely manner in resolution. For a resolution plan of a group A CIDI, the franchise components identified must be sufficient to implement the identified strategy.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide metrics that depict the size and significance of each franchise component.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify by position the senior management officials of the CIDI who are primarily responsible for overseeing the business activities underlying the franchise component.
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe the CIDI's current capabilities and process to initiate marketing of franchise components to potential third party acquirers, and describe the process by which the CIDI would identify prospective bidders for such franchise components.
</P>
<P>(v) Describe the key assumptions (such as market conditions, available time to market assets, and anticipated client behaviors) underpinning each franchise component divestiture.
</P>
<P>(vi) Describe any significant impediments and obstacles to execution, including significant legal, regulatory, cross-border or operational challenges to the divestiture of each franchise component. This description must also address impediments and obstacles to maintaining internal operations (for example, shared services, information technology requirements, and human resources) and to maintaining access to financial market utilities. Identify the material actions that would be needed to facilitate the sale or disposition of each franchise component and, based on the CIDI's current capabilities, describe the projected time frame to prepare for and execute the disposition of each franchise component.
</P>
<P>(vii) If a CIDI subsidiary or a parent company affiliate is a broker-dealer that provides services to the CIDI or customers of the CIDI, describe such services and the integration of the broker-dealer with the CIDI's business and operations. Provide an analysis discussing the challenges that could arise upon the discontinuation of services if the CIDI were separated from the broker-dealer, and actions to mitigate such challenges.
</P>
<P>(viii) Describe the CIDI's current capabilities and processes to establish a virtual data room promptly in the run-up to or upon failure of the CIDI that could be used to carry out sale of the IDI franchise as well as any or all of the CIDI's franchise components, including a description of the organizational structure of information within the virtual data room. Information in the virtual data room must support the ability of the FDIC to market and execute a timely sale or disposition of the IDI franchise or the CIDI's franchise components, be appropriate for a buyer to conduct due diligence for a timely sale or disposition of the IDI franchise or the CIDI's franchise components, and be sufficient to permit a bidder to provide a competitive bid on the IDI franchise or the CIDI's franchise components. A full resolution submission must also describe expected access protocols and requirements for the FDIC to use the virtual data room in order to carry out the sale of the IDI franchise or the CIDI's franchise components, including the FDIC's ability to facilitate bidder due diligence, and describe how information populated within the virtual data room could be transferred to a virtual data room hosted by the FDIC. The full resolution submission should identify the time required to capture all elements of information in the virtual data room, indicating number of days it would take to populate each category of information described below, and the process for each, including any potential obstacles or impediments in producing accurate, timely, and complete information in a useful format. The content of the virtual data room must include the following elements, or those that are applicable in the case of a sale of a franchise component:
</P>
<P>(A) Financial information, including annual and interim financial statements, including carve-out financial statements for franchise components, general ledger, and relevant financial information;
</P>
<P>(B) Deposit data and information;
</P>
<P>(C) Loan and lending operations information;
</P>
<P>(D) Securities information, including relevant information describing the CIDI's securities and investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(E) Corporate organization information, including current organizational chart;
</P>
<P>(F) Employee information, including organization charts, compensation, and benefits;
</P>
<P>(G) Material contracts and critical services information, including key critical services agreements, leases, and bond indentures; and
</P>
<P>(H) Other information necessary to facilitate a rapid and effective due diligence process for the sale of the IDI franchise or the CIDI's franchise components.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Material asset portfolios.</I> A full resolution submission must identify each material asset portfolio by size, and by category and classes of assets within such material asset portfolio, and include a breakdown of those assets within a material asset portfolio that are held by a foreign branch or regulated subsidiary. For each material asset portfolio, describe how the assets within the portfolio are valued and how they are maintained on the books and records of the CIDI. Identify and discuss impediments to the sale of each material asset portfolio identified and provide a timeline for such sale.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Valuation to facilitate FDIC's assessment of least-costly resolution method.</I> A CIDI must be able to demonstrate the capabilities necessary to produce valuations needed in assessing the least-cost test. A resolution plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a detailed description of the approaches the CIDI would employ for determining the values of the franchise components and the IDI franchise as a whole, including the underlying assumptions and rationale. Describe the CIDI's approach to the development of the information needed to support valuation analysis, including a description of the CIDI's current ability to produce updated projections, timely if necessary, to support the FDIC's analysis to determine whether a resolution strategy would be the least costly to the Deposit Insurance Fund in the event of failure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the following valuation analysis based upon the failure scenario assumed in the development of the identified strategy, with such adjustments to the scenario as may be necessary to demonstrate the analysis required under paragraph (d)(12)(ii)(B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Valuation estimates of the IDI franchise, and where a multiple acquirer exit strategy is incorporated in the identified strategy, a sum-of-the-parts analysis. In determining these valuation estimates, the CIDI must consider appropriate valuation approaches, such as the income-based approach, asset-based approach, and market-based approach. In deriving a range of estimates of value, the CIDI must assess and provide a reasoned quantitative or qualitative analysis in support of whether the conclusion of value should reflect the results of one valuation approach and method, or a combination of the results of more than one valuation approach and method; as appropriate, the resolution plan must discuss the relevance and weight given to the different valuation approaches and methods used.
</P>
<P>(B) A qualitative analysis of the impact on franchise value that may result from not transferring any uninsured deposits to the bridge depository institution, including a narrative describing any options to mitigate franchise value destruction where there is not a transfer of all deposits to a bridge depository institution such as, an advance dividend payment to depositors that takes into account the expected loss to depositors, and the impact of such an advance dividend on depositor behavior and preservation of franchise value at different levels of loss. Such qualitative analysis should reflect reasonable assumptions of customer behavior based upon the CIDI's range of services provided to, and interconnections with, depositors.
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide all content responsive to paragraph (d)(12)(ii) of this section as an appendix to the resolution plan, including any analysis of liquidity and deposit runoff assumptions and factors underlying such runoff estimates.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Off-balance-sheet exposures.</I> A full resolution submission must describe any material off-balance-sheet exposures (including the amount and nature of unfunded commitments, guarantees, and contractual obligations) of the CIDI and map those exposures to core business lines, franchise components, and material asset portfolios.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Qualified financial contracts.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe the types of qualified financial contract transactions the CIDI is involved with in respect of its customers and business activities, the core business lines and franchise components with which such transactions are associated, and how the CIDI offsets position risk from such transactions. Identify customers of the CIDI that are counterparties to qualified financial contracts transactions with the CIDI that are significant in terms of gross notional amounts or volumes of transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the booking models for risk from derivative transactions, including whether customer-facing risk or other dealer-facing risk resides in the CIDI while the position risk hedging is performed by a parent company affiliate. Describe the CIDI's use of any “global risk book,” “remote bookings,” or “back-to-backs” booking model, identify the challenges these booking models present to the transfer or unwind of such related derivatives, and analyze approaches for addressing those challenges.
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe how the CIDI uses qualified financial contracts to manage its hedging or liquidity needs, including specifying the hedged items (including underlying risk, cash flow, assets or liability being hedged) and the applicable core business line, as well as the approach used to mitigate such risks.
</P>
<P>(iv) For each of paragraphs (d)(14)(i) through (iii) of this section, identify hedges that receive hedge accounting treatment, core business line-specific hedges, and reporting capabilities and practices for hedge accounting information and other end-user hedges.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Unconsolidated balance sheet; material entity and regulated subsidiary financial statements.</I> A full resolution submission must provide an unconsolidated balance sheet for the CIDI and a consolidating schedule for all material entities and regulated subsidiaries that are subject to consolidation with the CIDI. Amounts attributed to legal entities that are not material entities or regulated subsidiaries may be aggregated on the consolidating schedule. Provide financial statements for each material entity and regulated subsidiary. When available, audited financial statements should be provided.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Payment, clearing, and settlement.</I> A full resolution submission must identify each provider of payment, clearing, and settlement services, and agent banks, and other financial market utilities (each, a “PCS service provider”), of which the CIDI directly is a member or has a direct relationship that is a critical service or a critical service support. For each such PCS service provider:
</P>
<P>(i) Map those PCS service providers to the CIDI's legal entities, core business lines, and franchise components;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the PCS services provided by such PCS service providers, including the value and volume of activities on a per-provider basis; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the CIDI's role as a PCS service provider that is material in terms of revenue to, or value of, any franchise component or core business line.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Capital structure; funding sources.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide descriptions of the current processes used by the CIDI to identify the funding, liquidity, and capital needs of and resources available to each material entity that is a CIDI subsidiary or foreign branch. Describe the current capabilities of the CIDI to project and report its funding and liquidity needs (<I>e.g.,</I> next day, cumulative next five days, cumulative next 30 days).
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the composition of the liabilities of the CIDI including the types and amounts of short-term and long-term liabilities by type and term to maturity, secured and unsecured liabilities, and subordinated liabilities. Such information must include whether such liabilities are held by affiliates, whether they are publicly issued, their maturity, any call rights provided, and, where applicable, the identity of their indenture trustees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the material funding relationships and material inter-affiliate exposures between the CIDI and any CIDI subsidiary or foreign branch that is a material entity, including material inter-affiliate financial exposures, claims or liens, lending or borrowing lines and relationships, guaranties, deposits, and derivatives transactions.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Parent and parent company affiliate funding, transactions, accounts, exposures, and concentrations.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify material affiliate funding relationships, and material inter-affiliate exposures, including terms, purpose, and duration, that the CIDI or any CIDI subsidiary has with the parent company or any parent company affiliate. Such information must include material affiliate financial exposures, claims or liens, lending or borrowing lines and relationships, guaranties, deposits, and derivatives transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the nature and extent to which the parent company or any parent company affiliate serves as a source of funding to the CIDI and CIDI subsidiaries, the terms of any contractual arrangements, including any capital maintenance agreements, the location of related assets, funds, or deposits, and the mechanisms by which funds are transferred from the parent company or any parent company affiliate to the CIDI and CIDI subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Economic effects of resolution.</I> A full resolution submission must identify any activities of the CIDI that provide a service or function that is material:
</P>
<P>(i) To a geographic area or region of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) To a business sector or product line in that geographic area or region, or nationally; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To other financial institutions. The full resolution submission must include a discussion of mitigants to the potential impact of termination of those activities in the event of failure of the CIDI, including whether the activity is readily substitutable.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Non-deposit claims.</I> A full resolution submission must identify and describe the CIDI's systems and processes used to identify the unsecured creditors of the CIDI that are not depositors, as well as the unsecured creditors of each CIDI subsidiary that is a material entity. Such description must identify the location of the CIDI's records and recordkeeping practices regarding unsecured debt issued by the CIDI and any inter-creditor agreements for unsecured debt. The description must include a description of the CIDI's capabilities to identify each such unsecured creditor by name, address, nature of the liability, and amount owed by the CIDI and each CIDI subsidiary or, in the case of indentured securities, the identity of the indenture trustee.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Cross-border elements.</I> A full resolution submission must describe all components of the parent company's and parent company affiliates' operations that are based or located outside the United States, including regulated subsidiaries, and foreign branches and offices that contribute to the value, revenues, or operations of the CIDI. A full resolution submission must also identify all authorities with regulatory or supervisory authority over these operations, and identify regulatory or other impediments to divestiture, transfer, or continuation of any of the CIDI's foreign branches, subsidiaries, and offices in resolution, including with respect to retention or termination of personnel and transfer or continuation of licenses or authorizations.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Management information systems; software licenses; intellectual property.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a detailed inventory and description of the key management information systems and applications, including systems and applications for risk management, accounting, and financial and regulatory reporting, as well as those used to provide the information required to be provided in the full resolution submission, used by or for the benefit of the CIDI and CIDI subsidiaries. For each system or application the description must identify the legal owner or licensor, the key personnel needed to support and operate the system or application, the system or application's use and function, any core business line that uses the system or application, its physical location (if any), any related third party contracts or service-level agreements, any related software or systems licenses, and any other related intellectual property.
</P>
<P>(ii) For any key management information system or application for which the CIDI or CIDI subsidiary is not the owner or licensor, describe both any obstacles to maintaining access to such system or application when the CIDI is in resolution, and approaches for maintaining access to such system or application when the CIDI is in resolution, including the projected costs of maintaining access when the CIDI is in resolution.
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the capabilities of the CIDI's processes and systems to collect, maintain, and produce the information and other data underlying the full resolution submission. Identify all relevant management information systems and applications, and describe how the information is managed and maintained. Describe any deficiencies, gaps, or weaknesses in such capabilities and the actions the CIDI intends to take to address promptly any such deficiencies, gaps, or weaknesses, and the time frame for implementing such actions.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Digital services and electronic platforms.</I> A full resolution submission must:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe all digital services and electronic platforms offered to customers to support banking transactions for retail or business customers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify whether such services and platforms are provided by the CIDI, a CIDI subsidiary, a parent company affiliate, or a third party, and which of them owns the related intellectual property or is the licensee.
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss how these services or platforms are significant to the operations or customer relationships of the CIDI, and their impact on franchise value and depositor behavior.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Communications playbook.</I> A full resolution submission must include a communications playbook that describes the CIDI's current communication capabilities, including capabilities to communicate with personnel, customers, and counterparties, and how those capabilities could be used from the point of the CIDI's failure through the CIDI's resolution. The description must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify categories of key stakeholders addressed in the CIDI's communications plans including, counterparties, domestic and foreign regulatory authorities, customers, and personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify communication channels for each key stakeholder category and describe the logistics and limitations of the use of each communication channel.
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the procedures to generate contact lists for each key stakeholder category and estimate the time required to generate each list.
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe procedures for coordinating communications across key stakeholder categories and communications channels, including cross-border communications, if any.
</P>
<P>(v) Identify key personnel that are responsible for the CIDI's crisis communications across key stakeholder categories and communications channels and the functional and legal entity organization of relevant communications activities.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Corporate governance.</I> A full resolution submission must include a detailed description of: how resolution planning is integrated into the corporate governance structure and processes of the CIDI; the CIDI's policies, procedures, and internal controls governing preparation and approval of the full resolution submission; and the identity and position of the senior management official of the CIDI who is primarily responsible and accountable for the development, maintenance, and filing of the full resolution submission, and for the CIDI's compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>CIDI's assessment of the full resolution submission.</I> A full resolution submission must describe the nature, extent, and results of any contingency planning or similar exercise conducted by the CIDI since the date of the most recently filed full resolution submission to assess the viability of the identified strategy (if required) or improve any capabilities described in the full resolution submission.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Any other material factor.</I> A full resolution submission must identify and discuss any other material factor that may impede the resolution of the CIDI.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Interim supplement.</I> Each CIDI must submit interim supplements containing current and accurate information regarding the specified full resolution submission content items in accordance with this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Submission date.</I> (i) Each interim supplement must be submitted to the FDIC on or before the anniversary date (or first business day thereafter) of its most recent full resolution submission, or its most recent interim supplement, unless the CIDI has received written notice of a different date from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, with respect to all CIDIs, no interim supplement is required in the calendar year in which a full resolution submission is made and, with respect to a biennial filer, no interim supplement is required in the calendar year in which it submits a DFA resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content items for interim supplement.</I> Each CIDI must submit interim supplements that address each of the following content items:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of all material changes resulting from an extraordinary event;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each material change applicable to interim supplement content items since the submission of its prior full resolution submission (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred);
</P>
<P>(iii) The content required under paragraph (d)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) From paragraph (d)(7) of this section, the content required under paragraph (d)(7)(i), the first sentence of paragraph (d)(7)(ii), the first sentence of paragraph (d)(7)(iii), the first sentence of paragraph (d)(7)(iv), and the first two sentences of paragraph (d)(7)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) From paragraph (d)(8) of this section, the content required under paragraphs (d)(8)(i) and (iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) From paragraph (d)(9) of this section, the content required under paragraph (d)(9)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vii) From paragraph (d)(10) of this section, the content required under paragraphs (d)(10)(i) through (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(viii) From paragraph (d)(11) of this section, the content required under the first sentence of paragraph (d)(11) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ix) The content required under paragraph (d)(13) of this section, excluding the requirement to “map those exposures to core business lines, franchise components and material asset portfolios”;
</P>
<P>(x) The content required under paragraph (d)(15) of this section;
</P>
<P>(xi) From paragraph (d)(16) of this section, the content required under the first sentence of paragraph (d)(16) of this section;
</P>
<P>(xii) From paragraph (d)(17) of this section, the content required under the first sentence of paragraph (d)(17)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(xiii) The content required under paragraph (d)(21) of this section;
</P>
<P>(xiv) From paragraph (d)(22) of this section, the content required under paragraph (d)(22)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(xv) Any other content element expressly identified for the next interim supplement by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credibility; review of full resolution submissions; engagement; capabilities testing</I>—(1) <I>Credibility criteria.</I> Each full resolution submission must be credible. The FDIC may, at its sole discretion, determine that the full resolution submission is not credible if:
</P>
<P>(i) The identified strategy would not provide timely access to insured deposits, maximize value from the sale or disposition of assets, minimize any losses realized by creditors of the CIDI in resolution, and address potential risk of adverse effects on U.S. economic conditions or financial stability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The information and analysis in the full resolution submission is not supported with observable and verifiable capabilities and data and reasonable projections or the CIDI fails to comply in any material respect with the requirements of paragraph (d) or (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resolution submission review and credibility determination.</I> The FDIC will review the full resolution submission in consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency for the CIDI and its parent company. If, after consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency for the CIDI, the FDIC determines that the full resolution submission of a CIDI is not credible pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the FDIC must notify the CIDI in writing of such determination. Any notice provided under this paragraph (f)(2) must include a description of the material weaknesses in the full resolution submission identified by the FDIC that resulted in the determination that the full resolution submission is not credible. A material weakness is an aspect of a CIDI's full resolution submission that individually or in conjunction with other aspects fails to meet the credibility criteria described in paragraph (f)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Resubmission of a full resolution submission.</I> Within 90 days of receiving a notice issued by the FDIC pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section that the full resolution submission is not credible based on identified material weaknesses, or such shorter or longer period as the FDIC may determine, a CIDI must submit a revised full resolution submission, or such other information or material specified by the FDIC, to the FDIC that addresses any material weaknesses identified by the FDIC and discusses in detail the revisions made to address such material weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure regarding resubmission.</I> If the CIDI fails to submit the revised full resolution submission within the required time-period under paragraph (f)(3) of this section or the FDIC determines that the revised full resolution submission fails to address adequately the material weaknesses identified in the notice issued by the FDIC, the FDIC may take enforcement action against the CIDI in accordance with paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Significant findings.</I> The FDIC may also identify significant findings and other observations after review of a full resolution submission. A significant finding is a weakness or gap that raises questions about the credibility of a CIDI's full resolution submission but does not rise to the level of a material weakness. If a significant finding is not satisfactorily explained or addressed before or in the CIDI's next full resolution submission, it may be found to be a material weakness in the CIDI's next full resolution submission. The FDIC may require a project plan with identified milestones to assure that the significant finding is timely addressed. The FDIC may identify an aspect of a CIDI's full resolution submission as a material weakness even if such aspect was not identified as a significant finding in an earlier full resolution submission. The FDIC must notify the CIDI in writing of any significant findings that are identified in the full resolution submission.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Engagement.</I> Each CIDI must provide the FDIC such information and access to such personnel of the CIDI as the FDIC in its discretion determines is relevant to any of the provisions of this section (“engagement”). Personnel made available must have sufficient expertise and responsibility to address the informational and data requirements of the engagement. Engagement between the CIDI and the FDIC may be required at any time. This engagement may include the FDIC requiring the CIDI to provide information or data to support the content items required by paragraph (d) or (e) of this section, other information related to a group A CIDI's identified strategy, or, for any CIDI, other resolution options being considered by the FDIC. The FDIC will provide the CIDI with timely notification of the scope of any engagement before such engagement begins and will notify the CIDI on the conclusion of the engagement.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Capabilities testing.</I> At the discretion of the FDIC, the FDIC may require any CIDI to demonstrate the CIDI's capabilities described, or required to be described, in the full resolution submission, including the ability to provide the information, data and analysis underlying the full resolution submission (“capabilities testing”). The CIDI must perform such capabilities testing promptly, and provide the results in a time frame and format acceptable to the FDIC. Capabilities testing may be included in connection with full resolution submission review under paragraph (f)(2) of this section or any engagement under paragraph (f)(6) of this section. The FDIC will provide the CIDI with timely notification of the scope of any capabilities testing before such capabilities testing begins and will notify the CIDI on the conclusion of the capabilities testing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>No limiting effect on FDIC.</I> No full resolution submission or interim supplement provided pursuant to this section will be binding on the FDIC as supervisor, deposit insurer, or receiver for a CIDI or otherwise require the FDIC to act in conformance with such full resolution submission or interim supplement.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial information.</I> The full resolution submission or interim supplement must, to the greatest extent possible, use financial information as of the most recent fiscal year-end for which the CIDI has financial statements or, if the use of financial information as of a more recent date as of which the CIDI has financial statements would more accurately reflect the operations of the CIDI on the date of the submission, financial information as of that more recent date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indexing of information and analysis to full resolution submission and interim supplement content requirements.</I> A full resolution submission or interim supplement must include an index of each content requirement in paragraph (d) or (e)(2) of this section, as applicable, required to be included in that full resolution submission or interim supplement, as applicable, to every instance of its location in the full resolution submission, or interim supplement, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined full resolution submission or interim supplements by affiliated CIDIs.</I> CIDIs that are affiliates may submit a single, combined full resolution submission or interim supplement, but only if all affiliated CIDIs submitting the combined full resolution submission or interim supplement are within the same CIDI group, whether group A or group B. The combined full resolution submission or interim supplement must satisfy the content requirements for each CIDI's full resolution submission or interim supplement, as applicable, and the FDIC must be able to readily identify the portions of a combined full resolution submission or interim supplement that comprise each CIDI's full resolution submission or interim supplement.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of full resolution submissions; confidential treatment of full resolution submissions and interim supplements.</I> (1) Each full resolution submission must be divided into a Public Section and a Confidential Section. Each CIDI must segregate and separately identify the Public Section from the Confidential Section. The Public Section must consist of a summary overview of the full resolution submission that describes the business of the CIDI. For each CIDI, the Public Section must include, to the extent material to the CIDI's full resolution submission:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of material entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iii) Consolidated financial information regarding assets, liabilities, capital and major funding sources;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of derivative activities and hedging activities;
</P>
<P>(v) A list of PCS service providers;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of foreign operations;
</P>
<P>(vii) The identities of material supervisory authorities;
</P>
<P>(viii) The identities of the principal officers;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the corporate governance structure and processes related to resolution planning;
</P>
<P>(x) A description of material management information systems; and
</P>
<P>(xi) For group A CIDIs only, a description, at a high level, of the CIDI's identified strategy.
</P>
<P>(2) The confidentiality of full resolution submissions and interim supplements must be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and the FDIC's Disclosure of Information Rules (12 CFR part 309).
</P>
<P>(3) Any CIDI submitting a full resolution submission, interim supplement, or related materials pursuant to this section that desires confidential treatment of the information submitted pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and 12 CFR part 309 and related policies may file a request for confidential treatment in accordance with those rules.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent permitted by law, information comprising the Confidential Section of a full resolution submission and the information comprising an interim supplement will be treated as confidential.
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent permitted by law, the submission of any non-publicly available data or information under this section will not constitute a waiver of, or otherwise affect, any privilege arising under Federal or State law (including the rules of any Federal or State court) to which the data or information is otherwise subject. Privileges that apply to full resolution submissions and related materials are protected pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1828(x).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extensions and exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Extension.</I> Notwithstanding the general requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, on a case-by-case basis, the FDIC may extend, on its own initiative or upon written request, any time frame or deadline of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver.</I> The FDIC may, on its own initiative or upon written request, exempt a CIDI from one or more of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Enforcement.</I> Violating any provision of this section constitutes a violation of a regulation and may subject the CIDI to enforcement actions under 12 U.S.C. 1818, including paragraph (t) thereunder.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 56648, July 9, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 360.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 360.11   Records of failed insured depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Failed insured depository institution</I> is an insured depository institution for which the FDIC has been appointed receiver pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as provided by 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records</I> means any reasonably accessible document, book, paper, map, photograph, microfiche, microfilm, computer or electronically-created record generated or maintained by an insured depository institution in the course of and necessary to its transaction of business.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of records include, without limitation, board or committee meeting minutes, contracts to which the insured depository institution was a party, deposit account information, employee and employee benefits information, general ledger and financial reports or data, litigation files, and loan documents.
</P>
<P>(ii) Records do not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Multiple copies of records; or
</P>
<P>(B) Examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the FDIC or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of records.</I> In determining whether particular documentary material obtained from a failed insured depository institution is a record for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(15)(D), the FDIC in its discretion will consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the documentary material related to the business of the insured depository institution,
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the documentary material was generated or maintained as records in the regular course of the business of the insured depository institution in accordance with its own recordkeeping practices and procedures or pursuant to standards established by its regulators,
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the documentary material is needed by the FDIC to carry out its receivership function, and
</P>
<P>(4) The expected evidentiary needs of the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC's determination that documentary material from a failed insured depository institution constitutes records is solely for the purpose of identifying that documentary material that must be maintained pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(15)(D) and shall not bear on the discoverability or admissibility of such documentary material in any court, tribunal or other adjudicative proceeding, nor on whether such documentary material is subject to release under the Freedom of Information Act, the Privacy Act or other law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Destruction of records.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, after the end of the six-year period beginning on the date the FDIC is appointed as receiver of a failed insured depository institution, the FDIC may destroy any records of an institution which the FDIC, in its discretion, determines to be unnecessary unless directed not to do so by a court of competent jurisdiction or governmental agency, prohibited by law, or subject to a legal hold imposed by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the FDIC may destroy records of a failed insured depository institution which are at least 10 years old as of the date on which the FDIC is appointed as the receiver of such institution in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section at any time after such appointment is final, without regard to the six-year period of limitation contained in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transfer of records.</I> If the FDIC transfers records to a third party in connection with a transaction involving the purchase and assumption of assets and liabilities of an insured depository institution, the recordkeeping requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1821(d)(15)(D), and paragraph (d) of this section shall be satisfied if the transferee agrees that it will not destroy such records for at least six years from the date the FDIC was appointed as receiver of such failed insured depository institution unless otherwise notified in writing by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> The FDIC may establish policies and procedures with respect to the retention and destruction of records that are consistent with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 54376, Sept. 4, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 360—Non-Monetary Transaction File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file the FDIC will provide to remove or add a FDIC hold for an individual account or sub-account. The file will be in a tab- or pipe-delimited ASCII format and provided through FDICconnect or Direct Connect. The file will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account. This field may be the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the second element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25). 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the third element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the Sub-Account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. PH__Hold__Action</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Action
<br/>The requested hold action to be taken for this account or sub-account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Possible values are:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• R = Remove
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• A = Add
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. PH__Hold__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dollar amount of the FDIC hold to be removed or added
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. PH__Hold__Desc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (225).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDIC hold to be removed or added</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 360—Debit/Credit File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file the FDIC will provide to apply debits and credits to an individual account or sub-account after the removal of FDIC holds. The file will be in a tab- or pipe-delimited ASCII format and provided through FDICconnect or Direct Connect. The file will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account. This field may the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the second element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the third element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. DC__Debit__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Debit Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dollar amount of the debit to be applied to the account or sub-account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. DC__Credit__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dollar amount of the credit to be applied to the account or sub-account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. DC__Transaction__Desc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Debit/Credit Description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (225).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDIC message associated with the debit or credit transaction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 360—Deposit File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure for the data file to provide deposit data to the FDIC. If data or information are not maintained or do not apply, a null value in the appropriate field should be indicated. The file will be in a tab-or pipe-delimited ASCII format. Each file name will contain the institution's FDIC Certificate Number, an indication that it is a deposit file type and the date of the extract. The files will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm. The FDIC will transmit to the covered institution the encryption algorithm over FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<P>The total deposit balances and the number of deposit accounts in each deposit file must be reconciled to the subsidiary system control totals.
</P>
<P>The FDIC intends to fully utilize a covered institution's understanding of its customers and the data maintained around deposit accounts. Should additional information be available to the covered institution to help the FDIC more quickly complete its insurance determination process, it may add this information to the end of this data file. Should additional data elements be provided, a complete data dictionary for these elements must be supplied along with a description of how this information could be best used to establish account ownership or insurance category.
</P>
<P>The deposit data elements provide information specific to deposit account balances and account data. The sequencing of these elements, their physical data structures and the field data format and field length must be provided to the FDIC along with the data structures identified below.
</P>
<P>A header record will also be required at the beginning of this file. This record will contain the number of accounts to be included in this file, the maximum number of characters contained in largest account title field maintained within the deposit file and the maximum number of characters contained in largest address field maintained within the deposit file.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Each record must contain the account title/name and current account statement mailing address. Fields 17-33 relate to the account name and address information. Some systems provide for separate fields for account title/name, street address, city, state, ZIP, and country, all of which are parsed out. Others systems may simply provide multiple lines for name, street address, city, state, ZIP, with no distinction. Populate fields that best fit the system's data, either fields 17-27 or fields 28-33.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account. This field may be the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2
<br/>If necessary, the second element used to identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3
<br/>If necessary, the third element used to identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4
<br/>If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5
<br/>If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. DP__Bank__No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Bank Number
<br/>The bank number assigned to the deposit account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (15).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. DP__Tax__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tax ID
<br/>The tax identification number maintained on the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For consumer accounts, typically, this would be the primary account holder's social security number (“SSN”). For business accounts it would be the federal tax identification number (“TIN”). Hyphens are optional in this field.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (15).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. DP__Tax__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tax ID Code
<br/>The type of the tax identification number. Possible values are:
<br/>• S = Social Security Number.
<br/>• T = Federal Tax Identification Number.
<br/>• O = Other.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Generally deposit systems have flags or indicators set to indicate whether the number is an SSN or TIN.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. DP__Branch</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Branch Number
<br/>The branch or office associated with the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In lieu of a branch number this field may represent a specialty department or division.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (15).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. DP__Cost__Center</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cost Center or G/L Code
<br/>The identifier used for organization reporting or ownership of the account. Insert null value if the cost center is not carried in the deposit record.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field ties to the general ledger accounts.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (20).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. DP__Dep__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit Type Indicator
<br/>The type of deposit by office location. Possible values are:
<br/>• D = Deposit (Domestic).
<br/>• F = Foreign Deposit.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A deposit—also called a “domestic deposit”—includes only deposit liabilities payable in the United States, typically those deposits maintained in a domestic office of an insured depository institution, as defined in section 3(l) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(l)). A foreign deposit is a deposit liability in a foreign branch payable solely at a foreign branch or branches.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. DP__Currency__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Currency Type
<br/>The ISO 4217 currency code.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. DP__Ownership__Ind</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Ownership Indicator
<br/>The type of ownership at the account level. Possible values are:
<br/>• S = Single.
<br/>• J = Joint Account.
<br/>• P = Partnership account.
<br/>• C = Corporation.
<br/>• B = Brokered Deposits.
<br/>• I = IRA Accounts.
<br/>• U = Unincorporated Association.
<br/>• R = Revocable Trust.
<br/>• IR = Irrevocable Trust.
<br/>• G = Government Accounts.
<br/>• E = Employee Benefit Plan Accounts.
<br/>• O = Other.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Single:</E> Accounts owned by an individual and those accounts held as Minor Accounts, Estate Accounts, Non-Minor Custodian/Guardian Accounts, Attorney in Fact Accounts and Sole Proprietorships
<br/><E T="03">Joint Account:</E> Accounts owned by two or more individuals, but does not include the ownership of a Payable on Death Account or Trust Account.
<br/><E T="03">Partnership Account:</E> Accounts owned by a Partnership
<br/><E T="03">Corporation:</E> Accounts owned by a Corporation (e.g. Inc., L.L.C., or P.C.).
<br/><E T="03">Brokered Deposits:</E> Accounts placed by a deposit broker who acts as an intermediary for the actual owner or sub-broker.
<br/><E T="03">IRA Accounts:</E> Accounts for which the owner has the right to direct how the funds are invested including Keoghs and other Self-Directed Retirement Accounts.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Unincorporated Association:</E> An account owned by an association of two or more persons formed for some religious, educational, charitable, social or other non-commercial purpose.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Revocable Trusts:</E> Including PODs and formal revocable trusts (e.g. Living Trusts, Intervivos Trusts or Family Trusts).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Irrevocable Trusts:</E> Accounts held by a trust established by statute or written trust in which the grantor relinquishes all power to revoke the trust.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Government Accounts:</E> Accounts owned by a government entity (e.g. City, State, County or Federal government entities and their sub-divisions).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Employee Benefit Plan:</E> Accounts established by the administrator of an Employee Benefit Plan including defined contribution, defined benefit and employee welfare plans.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Other Accounts:</E> Accounts owned by an entity not described above.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. DP__Prod__Cat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product Category
<br/>The product classification. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product Category is sometimes referred to as “application type” or “system type”.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• DDA = Non-Interest Bearing Checking accounts.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• NOW = Interest Bearing Checking accounts.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• MMA = Money Market Deposit Accounts.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• SAV = Other savings accounts.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• CDS = Time Deposit accounts and Certificate of Deposit accounts, including any accounts with specified maturity dates that may or may not be renewable.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. DP__Stat__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Status Code
<br/>Status or condition of the account. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• O = Open.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• D = Dormant.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• I = Inactive.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• E = Escheatment.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• A = Abandoned.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• C = Closing.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• R = Restricted/Frozen/Blocked.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. DP__Acct__Title—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Title Line 1
<br/>Account styling or titling of the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">These data will be used to identify the owners and beneficiaries of the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. DP__Acct__Title—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Title Line 2
<br/>If available, the second account title line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. DP__Acct__Title—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Title Line 3
<br/>If available, the third account title line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20. DP__Acct__Title—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Title Line 4
<br/>If available, the fourth account title line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21. DP__Street__Add__Ln—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street Address Line 1
<br/>The current account statement mailing address of record.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22. DP__Street__Add__Ln—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street Address Line 2
<br/>If available, the second mailing address line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23. DP__Street__Add__Ln—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street Address Line 3
<br/>If available, the third mailing address line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24. DP__City</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">City
<br/>The city associated with the mailing address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (50).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25. DP__State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">State
<br/>The state abbreviation associated with the mailing address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use a two-character state code (official U.S. Postal Service abbreviations).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26. DP__ZIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ZIP
<br/>The ZIP + 4 code associated with the mailing address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the “ + 4” code is not available provide only the 5-digit ZIP code. Hyphens are optional in this field.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27. DP__Country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Country
<br/>The country associated with the mailing address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the country name or the standard IRS country code.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28. DP__NA__Line—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 1
<br/>Alternate name/address format for the current account statement mailing address of record, first line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fields 28-33 are to be used if address data are not parsed to populate Fields 17-27.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29. DP__NA__Line—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 2
<br/>Alternate name/address format, second line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30. DP__NA__Line—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 3
<br/>Alternate name/address format, third line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31. DP__NA__Line—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 4
<br/>Alternate name/address format, fourth line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32. DP__NA__Line—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 5
<br/>Alternate name/address format, fifth line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">33. DP__NA__Line—6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name/Address Line 6
<br/>Alternate name/address format, sixth line.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">34. DP__Cur__Bal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current Balance
<br/>The current balance in the account at the end of business on the effective date of this file.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This balance should not be reduced by float or holds. For CDs and time deposits, the balance should reflect the principal balance plus any interest paid and available for withdrawal not already included in the principal (do not include accrued interest). The total of all current balances in this file should reconcile to the total deposit trial balance totals or other summary reconciliation of deposits performed by the institution.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">35. DP__Int__Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interest Rate
<br/>The current interest rate in effect for interest bearing accounts.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interest rate should be expressed in decimal format, i.e., 2.0% should be represented as 0.020000000.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (10,9).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">36. DP__Acc__Int</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accrued Interest
<br/>The amount of interest that has been earned but not yet paid to the account as of the date of the file.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">37. DP__Lst__Int__Pd</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date Last Interest Paid
<br/>The date through which interest was last paid to the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">38. DP__Lst__Deposit</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date Last Deposit
<br/>The date of the last deposit transaction posted to the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For example, a deposit that included checks and/or cash.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">39. DP__Int__Term__No</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Interest Term Number
<br/>The number of months in the current interest term.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (3,0).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">40. DP__Nxt__Mat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date of Next Maturity
<br/>For CD and time deposit accounts, the next date the account is to mature.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For non-renewing CDs that have matured and are waiting to be redeemed this date may be in the past.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">41. DP__Open__DT</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Open Date
<br/>The date the account was opened.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the account had previously been closed and re-opened, this should reflect the most recent re-opened date.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">42. DP__Sweep__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicates if the account is a sweep account. Possible values are:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Y = Yes.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• N = No.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">43. DP__Hold__To__Post</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full Hold on the account: Indicator if all postings to this account are restricted. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Y = Yes.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• N = No.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">44. DP__Issue__Val__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Issued Value Amount
<br/>The value of the current CD when issued.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For CDs only.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">45. DP__Int__CD__Cde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of Interest for CD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For CDs only.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Possible values are:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• C = Rate Change Allowed.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• N = Rate Change Not Allowed.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• R = Change Rate to Default at Renewal.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• T = Rate Change Allowed Only During the Term.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46. DP__IRA__Cde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IRA Code
<br/>The type of IRA. Possible values are:
<br/>• C = Corporate Retirement
<br/>• E = Educational IRA.
<br/>• I = IRA Account.
<br/>• K = Keogh Account.
<br/>• R = Roth IRA Account.
<br/>• S = SEP Account.
<br/>• T = Transitional Roth IRA.
<br/>• V = Versa Account.
<br/>• H = Health Savings Account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Optional code field to be used if available to help further identify the types of IRA accounts.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">47. DP__Deposit__Class__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit Class Type
<br/>The deposit class. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The institution may also use more or fewer class types.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• RTL = Retail.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• FED = Federal government.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• STATE = State government.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• COMM = Commercial.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• CORP = Corporate.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• BANK = Bank Owned.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• DUE TO = Other Banks.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">48. DP__Product__Class__Cde</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit Class Codes
<br/>The deposit class codes. Possible values are:
<br/>RTL
<br/>• 1 = Payable on Death.
<br/>• 2 = Individual.
<br/>• 3 = Living Trust—Intervivos or Family.
<br/>• 4 = Irrevocable Trust (includes Educational IRAs).
<br/>• 5 = Estate.
<br/>• 6 = Attorney in Fact.
<br/>• 7 = Minor—(includes all variations of Uniform Gifts to Minor Accounts).
<br/>• 8 = Bankruptcy Personal.
<br/>• 9 = Pre-Need Burial.
<br/>• 10 = Escrow.
<br/>• 11 = Representative Payee/Beneficiary.
<br/>• 12 = Sole Proprietorship.
<br/>• 13 = Joint.
<br/>• 14 = Non-Minor Custodian/Guardian.
<br/>• 15 = Other Retail.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">These Product Class codes are used in conjunction with the Deposit Class Types in field 51. This field is to be used in concert with fields 12 and 13 identified above to enable the financial institution to capture more detailed information concerning account types. It is the intent of the FDIC to have the financial institution map its detailed account types to the codes identified in this field. The institution may also use additional codes, but in this event the institution must supply the detailed description and code value for each additional code used. If no additional account product type detail is available then this field should be left blank.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FED
<br/>• 16 = FHA.
<br/>• 17 = Federal Government.
<br/>STATE
<br/>• 18 = City.
<br/>• 19 = State.
<br/>• 20 = County, Clerk of Court.
<br/>• 21 = Other State.
<br/>COMMERCIAL
<br/>• 22 = Business Escrow.
<br/>• 23 = Bankruptcy.
<br/>• 24 = Club.
<br/>• 25 = Church.
<br/>• 26 = Unincorporated Association.
<br/>• 27 = Unincorporated Non-Profit.
<br/>• • 28 = Other Commercial.
<br/>CORPORATION
<br/>• 29 = Business Trust.
<br/>• 30 = Business Agent.
<br/>• 31 = Business Guardian.
<br/>• 32 = Incorporated Association.
<br/>• 33 = Incorporated Non-Profit.
<br/>• 33 = Incorporated Non-Profit.
<br/>• 34 = Corporation.
<br/>• 35 = Corporate Partnership.
<br/>• 36 = Corporate Partnership Trust.
<br/>• 37 = Corporate Agent.
<br/>• 38 = Corporate Guardian.
<br/>• 39 = Pre-Need Funeral Trust.
<br/>• 40 = Limited Liability Incorporation.
<br/>• 41 = LLC partnership.
<br/>• 42 = Lawyer Trust.
<br/>• 43 = Realtor Trust.
<br/>• 44 = Other Corporation.
<br/>BANK
<br/>• 45 = Certified &amp; Official Checks, Money Orders, Loan Disbursements Checks, and Expense Checks.
<br/>• 46 = ATM Settlement.
<br/>• 47 = Other Bank Owned Accounts.
<br/>DUE TO (Other Banks)
<br/>• 48 = Due to U.S. Banks.
<br/>• 49 = Due to U.S. Branches of Foreign Banks.
<br/>• 50 = Due to Other Depository Institutions.
<br/>• 51 = Due to Foreign Banks.
<br/>• 52 = Due to Foreign Branches of U.S. banks.
<br/>• 53 = Due to Foreign Governments and Official Institutions.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 360—Sweep/Automated Credit Account File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file to provide information to the FDIC on funds residing in investment vehicles linked to each non-closed deposit account or sub-account: (1) Involved in sweep activity where the sweep investment vehicle is not a deposit and is reflected on the books and records of the covered institution or (2) which accepts automated credits. A single record should be used for each instance where funds affiliated with the deposit account are held in an alternative investment vehicle. For any alternative investment vehicle, a separate account may or may not exist. If an account exists for the investment vehicle, it should be noted in the record. If no account exists, then a null value for the Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifiers should be provided, but the remainder of the data fields defined below should be populated.
</P>
<P>For data provided in the Sweep/Automated Credit Account File, the total account balances and the number of accounts must be reconciled to subsidiary system control totals. The file will be in a tab- or pipe-delimited ASCII format. The files will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm. The FDIC will transmit the encryption algorithm over FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account from which funds are swept or debited. The field may be the Account number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2
<br/>If necessary, the second element used to identify the account from which funds are swept or debited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3
<br/>If necessary, the third element used to identify the account from which funds are swept or debited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4
<br/>If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account from which funds are swept or debited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5
<br/>If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account from which funds are swept or debited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. SW__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account into which funds are swept or credited. This field may be the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Funds may be swept into an investment vehicle not represented as an account. In this case this field should be a null value
<br/>The Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. SW__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier—2
<br/>If necessary, the second element of the account identifier used to identify the account into which funds are swept or credited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. SW__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier—3
<br/>If necessary, the third element of the account identifier used to identify the account into which funds are swept or credited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. SW__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier—4
<br/>If necessary, the fourth element of the account identifier used to identify the account into which funds are swept or credited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. SW__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Account Identifier-5
<br/>If necessary, the fifth element of the account identifier used to identify the account into which funds are swept or credited.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. SW__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. SW__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Automated Credit Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The investment vehicle. Possible values are:
<br/>• RE = Repurchase Agreement.
<br/>• DD = Deposit Held in a Domestic Office.
<br/>• DF = Deposit Held in a Foreign Office.
<br/>• IBF = Deposit Held in an International Banking Facility.
<br/>• AI = Deposit Held in an affiliated depository institution.
<br/>• FF = Federal Funds.
<br/>• CP = Commercial Paper.
<br/>• OT = Other.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. SW__Inv__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Fund Balance in Sweep/Automated Credit Investment Vehicle.
<br/>Dollar amount residing in the investment vehicle.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. SW__Currency__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Currency Type
<br/>The ISO 4217 currency code.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. SW__Hold__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FDIC Hold Amount
<br/>Amount of FDIC hold on funds residing in the investment vehicle.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. SW__Sweep__Interval</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sweep/Investment Frequency
<br/>The frequency with which the sweep or investment occurs. Possible values are:
<br/>• D = Daily.
<br/>• W = Weekly.
<br/>• BW = Bi-Weekly.
<br/>• M = Monthly.
<br/>• BM = Bi-Monthly.
<br/>• Q = Quarterly.
<br/>• O = Other.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 360—Hold File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file to provide information to the FDIC for each legal or collateral hold placed on a deposit account or sub-account. If data or information are not maintained or do not apply, a null value in the appropriate field should be indicated. The file will be in a tab-or pipe-delimited ASCII format. Each file name will contain the institution's FDIC Certificate Number, an indication that it is a hold data file type and the date of the extract. The files will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm. The FDIC will transmit the encryption algorithm over FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account. This field may be the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the second element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the third element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. HD__Hold__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dollar amount of the hold
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. HD__Hold__Reason</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Reason
<br/>Reason for the hold. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• LN = Loan Collateral Hold
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• LG = Court Order Hold
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• FD = FDIC hold
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• OT = Other (do not include daily operational type holds)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. HD__Hold__Desc</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (255).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of the hold available on the system
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. HD__Hold__Start__Dt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Start Date
<br/>The date the hold was initiated.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. HD__Hold__Exp__Dt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold Expiration Date
<br/>The date the hold is to expire.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 360—Customer File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file to provide to the FDIC information related to each customer who has an account or sub-account reported in the deposit data or sweep/automated credit account file. If data or information are not maintained or do not apply, a null value in the appropriate field should be indicated. The file will be in a tab-or pipe-delimited ASCII format. Each file name will contain the institution's FDIC Certificate Number, an indication that it is a customer file type and the date of the extract. The files will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm. The FDIC will transmit the encryption algorithm over FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Each record must contain the customer's name and permanent legal address. Fields 4-12 relate to the customer name for individuals only. Fields 13-14 relate to the customer name for entities other than individuals. Some systems provide for separate fields for name, street address, city, state, ZIP, and country, all of which are parsed out. Others systems may simply provide multiple lines for name, street address, city, state, ZIP, with no distinction. In this case, certain name and address data elements must be parsed and provided in the appropriate fields.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Cust__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The unique field used by the institution to identify the customer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. CS__Tax__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Tax ID Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hyphens are optional in this field</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (11).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The tax identification number on record for the customer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. CS__Tax__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Tax ID Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The type of the tax identification number of the customer. Possible values are:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• S = Social Security Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• T = Federal Tax Identification Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• O = Other
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. CS__Name__Line—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Name Line 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the free-form name narrative of the customer, first line
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. CS__Name__Line—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Name Line 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the free-form name narrative of the customer, second line.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. CS__Last__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Last Name
<br/>For individuals, the customer's last name.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (50).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. CS__First__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer First Name
<br/>For individuals, the customer's first name.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (50).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. CS__Middle__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Middle Name
<br/>For individuals, the customer's middle name.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (50).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. CS__Suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Professional Suffix
<br/>For individuals, the suffix designating customer's academic, professional or honorary status, such as Esq., Ph.D., M.D., and D.D.S.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (20).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. CS__Generation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Generational Suffix
<br/>For individuals, the suffix designating the customer's generational status, such as Jr., Sr. or III.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. CS__Prefix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Prefix
<br/>For individuals, the prefix of the customer, such as Rev., Dr., Mrs., Mr. or Ms.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required if the data element is in the institution's records. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 4 or 5 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. CS__Birth__Dt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Individual Customer Birth Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date (YYYYMMDD).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For individuals, the customer's birth date
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. CS__Ent__Name__Line—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity Name Line 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For entities other than individuals, the free-form name narrative of the customer, first line
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. CS__Ent__Name__Line—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity Name Line 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available for entities other than individuals, the free-form name narrative of the customer, second line
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. CS__Nar__Addr__Line—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Address Line 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the free-form permanent legal address narrative for the customer, line one
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. CS__Nar__Addr__Line—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Address Line 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the free-form permanent legal address narrative of the customer, line two
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. CS__Nar__Addr__Line—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Address Line 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the free-form permanent legal address narrative of the customer, line three
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. CS__Street__Address—1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street Address Line 1
<br/>The permanent legal address of the customer, line one.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. CS__Street__Address—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street Address Line 2
<br/>The permanent legal address of the customer, line two.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (100).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20. CS__City</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">City
<br/>The city associated with the permanent legal address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21. CS__State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">State
<br/>The state abbreviation associated with the permanent legal address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element. Use a two-character state code (official U.S. Postal Service abbreviations)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (2).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22. CS__ZIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ZIP
<br/>The ZIP + 4 code associated with the permanent legal address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element. If the “ + 4” code is not available, provide only the 5-digit ZIP code. Hyphens are optional in this field</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23. CS__Country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Country
<br/>The country associated with the permanent legal address.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is required. If necessary, data should be parsed from fields 16 or 17 to obtain this element. Provide the name of the country or the standard IRS country code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (10).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24. CS__Telephone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Telephone Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (20).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The telephone number on record for the customer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25. CS__Email</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Email Address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (150).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The e-mail address on record for the customer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 360—Deposit-Customer Join File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>This is the structure of the data file to provide to the FDIC information necessary to link the records in the deposit and customer files. If data or information are not maintained or do not apply, a null value in the appropriate field should be indicated. The file will be in a tab- or pipe-delimited ASCII format. Each file name will contain the institution's FDIC Certificate Number, an indication that it is a join file type and the date of the extract. The files will be encrypted using an FDIC-supplied algorithm. The FDIC will transmit the encryption algorithm over FDIC<I>connect.</I>
</P>
<P>The deposit-customer join file will have one or more records for each deposit account, depending on the number of relationships to each account. A simple individual account, for example, will be associated with only one record in the deposit-customer join file indicating the owner of the account. A joint account with two owners will be associated with two records in the deposit-customer join file, one for each owner. The deposit-customer join file will contain other records associated with a deposit account to designate, among other things, beneficiaries, custodians, trustees and agents. This methodology allows the FDIC to know all of the possible relationships for an individual account and also whether a single customer is involved in many accounts.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FDIC field description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Comments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Cust__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The unique field used by the institution to identify the customer
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier
<br/>The primary field used to identify the account. This field may be the Account Number.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Account Identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element. If multiple fields are required to identify the account, the data should be placed in separate fields and the FDIC instructed how these fields are combined to uniquely identify the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the second element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Acct__Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the third element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Acct__Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fourth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Acct__Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account Identifier—5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If necessary, the fifth element used to identify the account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. DP__Sub__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-Account Identifier
<br/>If available, the sub-account identifier for the account.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Sub-Account Identifier may identify separate deposits tied to this account where there are different processing parameters such as interest rates or maturity dates, but all owners are the same</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (25).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. CS__Rel__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Relationship Code
<br/>The code indicating how the customer is related to the account. Possible values are:
<br/>• ADM = Administrator.
<br/>• AGT = Agent/Representative.
<br/>• ATF = Attorney For.
<br/>• AUT = Authorized Signer.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institutions must map their relationship codes to the codes in the list to the left. If the institution maintains more relationships they must supply the additional relationship codes being utilized along with the code definition</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (5).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• BNF = Beneficiary
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• CSV = Conservator
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• CUS = Custodian
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• DBA = Doing Business As
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• EXC = Executor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• GDN = Guardian
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• MIN = Minor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• PRI = Primary Owner
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• SEC = Secondary Owner(s)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• TTE = Trustee
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. CS__Bene__Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Beneficiary Type Code
<br/>If the customer is considered a beneficiary, the type of account associated with this customer. Possible values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This includes beneficiaries on retirement accounts, trust accounts, minor accounts, and payable-on-death accounts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• I = IRA
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• T = Trust—Irrevocable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• R = Trust—Revocable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• M = Uniform Gift to Minor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• P = Payable on Death
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• O = Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.11.0.1.12.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 360—Possible File Combinations for Deposit Data
</HEAD>
<P>A covered institution must provide deposit data using separate deposit, sweep/automated credit, hold, customer, and deposit-customer join files. The simplest file structure involves providing one of each file. This basic file format is shown in Figure 1.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jy08.000.gif"/>
<P>Multiple combinations of deposit, sweep/automated credit, hold, customer, and deposit-customer join files are permissible, but only in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>1. Each separate deposit file must have companion sweep/automated credit and hold files covering the same deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>2. A single customer file may be submitted covering customers affiliated with deposit accounts in one or more deposit files as long as the customer file contains information on all of the customers affiliated with the deposit files.
</P>
<P>3. Several customer files may be submitted as long as each separate customer file contains information on all of the customers affiliated with the associated deposit files.
</P>
<P>Figure 2 shows a permissible file configuration using a single Customer File affiliated with Deposit File A and Deposit File B. As required, Deposit File A has a companion Sweep/Automated Credit File A and Hold File A. The same is true for Deposit File B.
</P>
<P>Another permissible combination of files is shown in Figure 3, which is a variation of the basic data file structure shown in Figure 1.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17jy08.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17jy08.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 41197, July 17, 2008]





</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="361" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 361—MINORITY AND WOMEN OUTREACH PROGRAM CONTRACTING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1833e. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 31253, May 17, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 361.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.1   Why do minority- and women-owned businesses need this outreach regulation?</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the FDIC Minority and Women Outreach Program (MWOP) is to ensure that minority- and women-owned businesses (MWOBs) are given the opportunity to participate fully in all contracts entered into by the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 361.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.2   Why does the FDIC have this outreach program?</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the FDIC that minorities and women, and businesses owned by them have the maximum practicable opportunity to participate in contracts awarded by the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 361.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.3   Who may participate in this outreach program?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Minority</I> has the same meaning as defined by the Small Business Administration at 13 CFR 124.103(b). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Legal Services</I> means all services provided by attorneys or law firms (including services of support staff). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 361.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.4   What contracts are eligible for this outreach program?</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC outreach program applies to all contracts entered into by the FDIC. The outreach program is incorporated into FDIC policies and guidelines governing contracting and the retention of legal services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 361.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.5   What are the FDIC's oversight and monitoring responsibilities in administering this program?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) has overall responsibility for nationwide outreach oversight, which includes, but is not limited to, the monitoring, review and interpretation of relevant regulations. In addition, the OMWI is responsible for providing the FDIC with technical assistance and guidance to facilitate the identification, registration, and solicitation of MWOBs. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each FDIC office that performs contracting or outreach activities will submit information to the OMWI on a quarterly basis, or upon request. Quarterly submissions will include, at a minimum, statistical information on contract awards and solicitations by designated demographic categories. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 31253, May 17, 2000, as amended at 80 FR 62445, Oct. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 361.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.12.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 361.6   What outreach efforts are included in this program?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each office engaged in contracting with the private sector will designate one or more MWOP coordinators. The coordinators will perform outreach activities for MWOP and act as liaison between the FDIC and the public on MWOP issues. On a quarterly basis, or as requested by the OMWI, the coordinators will report to the OMWI on their implementation of the outreach program. 
</P>
<P>(b) Outreach includes the identification and registration of MWOBs who can provide goods and services utilized by the FDIC. This includes distributing information concerning the MWOP. 
</P>
<P>(c) The identification of MWOBs for the provision of legal and non-legal services will primarily be accomplished by: 
</P>
<P>(1) Obtaining various lists and directories of MWOBs maintained by other federal, state, and local governmental agencies; 
</P>
<P>(2) Participating in conventions, seminars and professional meetings comprised of, or attended predominately by, MWOBs; 
</P>
<P>(3) Conducting seminars, meetings, workshops and other various functions to promote the identification and registration of MWOBs; 
</P>
<P>(4) Placing MWOP promotional advertisements indicating opportunities with the FDIC in minority- and women-owned media; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Monitoring to assure that FDIC staff interfacing with the contracting community are knowledgeable of, and actively promoting, the MWOP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 31253, May 17, 2000, as amended at 80 FR 62445, Oct. 16, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="362" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 362—ACTIVITIES OF INSURED STATE BANKS AND INSURED SAVINGS ASSOCIATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1816, 1818, 1819(a)(Tenth), 1828(j), 1828(m), 1828a, 1831a, 1831e, 1831w, 1843(l).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Activities of Insured State Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart, along with the notice and application procedures in subpart G of part 303 of this chapter, implements the provisions of section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a) that restrict and prohibit insured State banks and their subsidiaries from engaging in activities and investments that are not permissible for national banks and their subsidiaries. The phrase “activity permissible for a national bank” means any activity authorized for national banks under any statute including the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 21 <I>et seq.</I>), as well as activities recognized as permissible for a national bank in regulations, official circulars, bulletins, orders or written interpretations issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC).
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not cover the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities conducted other than “as principal,” defined for purposes of this subpart as activities conducted as agent for a customer, conducted in a brokerage, custodial, advisory, or administrative capacity, or conducted as trustee, or in any substantially similar capacity. For example, this subpart does not cover acting solely as agent for the sale of insurance, securities, real estate, or travel services; nor does it cover acting as trustee, providing personal financial planning advice, or safekeeping services;
</P>
<P>(2) Interests in real estate in which the real property is used or intended in good faith to be used within a reasonable time by an insured State bank or its subsidiaries as offices or related facilities for the conduct of its business or future expansion of its business or used as public welfare investments of a type permissible for national banks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Equity investments acquired in connection with debts previously contracted (DPC) if the insured State bank does not hold the property for speculation and takes only such actions as would be permissible for a national bank's DPC. The bank must dispose of the property within the shorter of the period set by Federal law for national banks or the period allowed under State law. For real estate, national banks may not hold DPC for more than 10 years. For equity securities, national banks must generally divest DPC as soon as possible consistent with obtaining a reasonable return.
</P>
<P>(c) A subsidiary of an insured state bank may not engage in real estate investment activities that are not permissible for a subsidiary of a national bank unless the bank does so through a subsidiary of which the bank is a majority owner, is in compliance with applicable capital standards, and the FDIC has determined that the activity poses no significant risk to the appropriate deposit insurance fund. This subpart provides standards for majority-owned subsidiaries of insured state banks engaging in real estate investment activities that are not permissible for a subsidiary of a national bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FDIC intends to allow insured State banks and their subsidiaries to undertake only safe and sound activities and investments that do not present significant risks to the Deposit Insurance Fund and that are consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law. This subpart does not authorize any insured State bank to make investments or to conduct activities that are not authorized or that are prohibited by either State or Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001; 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank, State bank, savings association, State savings association, depository institution, insured depository institution, insured State bank, Federal savings association,</I> and <I>insured State nonmember bank</I> shall each have the same respective meaning contained in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activity</I> means the conduct of business by a state-chartered depository institution, including acquiring or retaining an equity investment or other investment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Change in control</I> means any transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) By a State bank or its holding company for which a notice is required to be filed with the FDIC, or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (FRB), pursuant to section 7(j) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1817(j)) except a transaction that is presumed to be an acquisition of control under the FDIC's or FRB's regulations implementing section 7(j);
</P>
<P>(2) As a result of which a State bank eligible for the exception described in § 362.3(a)(2)(iii) is acquired by or merged into a depository institution that is not eligible for the exception, or as a result of which its holding company is acquired by or merged into a holding company which controls one or more bank subsidiaries not eligible for the exception; or
</P>
<P>(3) In which control of the State bank is acquired by a bank holding company in a transaction requiring FRB approval under section 3 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1842), other than a one bank holding company formation in which all or substantially all of the shares of the holding company will be owned by persons who were shareholders of the bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, association, joint venture, pool, syndicate or other similar business organization.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control</I> means the power to vote, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of any class of the voting securities of a company, the ability to control in any manner the election of a majority of a company's directors or trustees, or the ability to exercise a controlling influence over the management and policies of a company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Convert its charter</I> means an insured State bank undergoes any transaction that causes the bank to operate under a different form of charter than it had as of December 19, 1991, except a change from mutual to stock form shall not be considered a charter conversion.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Equity investment</I> means an ownership interest in any company; any membership interest that includes a voting right in any company; any interest in real estate; any transaction which in substance falls into any of these categories even though it may be structured as some other form of business transaction; and includes an equity security. The term “equity investment” does not include any of the foregoing if the interest is taken as security for a loan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Equity security</I> means any stock (other than adjustable rate preferred stock, money market (auction rate) preferred stock, or other newly developed instrument determined by the FDIC to have the character of debt securities), certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement, collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, or voting-trust certificate; any security immediately convertible at the option of the holder without payment of substantial additional consideration into such a security; any security carrying any warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase any such security; and any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, or receipt for any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Extension of credit, executive officer, director, principal shareholder,</I> and <I>related interest</I> each has the same respective meaning as is applicable for the purposes of section 22(h) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 375b) and § 337.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Institution</I> shall have the same meaning as “state-chartered depository institution.”
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Majority-owned subsidiary</I> means any corporation in which the parent insured State bank owns a majority of the outstanding voting stock.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>National securities exchange</I> means a securities exchange that is registered as a national securities exchange by the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78f) and the National Market System, i.e., the top tier of the National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Real estate investment activity</I> means any interest in real estate (other than as security for a loan) held directly or indirectly that is not permissible for a national bank.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Residents of the state</I> includes individuals living in the State, individuals employed in the State, any person to whom the company provided insurance as principal without interruption since such person resided in or was employed in the State, and companies or partnerships incorporated in, organized under the laws of, licensed to do business in, or having an office in the State.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Security</I> has the same meaning as it has in part 344 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund</I> shall be understood to be present whenever the FDIC determines there is a high probability that the Deposit Insurance Fund administered by the FDIC may suffer a loss. Such risk may be present either when an activity contributes or may contribute to the decline in condition of a particular state-chartered depository institution or when a type of activity is found by the FDIC to contribute or potentially contribute to the deterioration of the overall condition of the banking system.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State-chartered depository institution</I> means any State bank or State savings association insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Subsidiary</I> means any company that is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by one or more insured depository institutions. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Tier one capital</I> has the same meaning as set forth in part 324 of this chapter for an insured State nonmember bank or insured state savings association. For other state-chartered depository institutions, the term “tier one capital” has the same meaning as set forth in the capital regulations adopted by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Well-capitalized</I> has the same meaning set forth in part 324 of this chapter for an insured State nonmember bank or insured state savings association. For other state-chartered depository institutions, the term “well-capitalized” has the same meaning as set forth in the capital regulations adopted by the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001; 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 78 FR 55596, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.3   Activities of insured State banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equity investments</I>—(1) <I>Prohibited equity investments.</I> No insured State bank may directly or indirectly acquire or retain as principal any equity investment of a type that is not permissible for a national bank unless one of the exceptions in paragraph (a)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Equity investment in majority-owned subsidiaries.</I> An insured State bank may acquire or retain an equity investment in a subsidiary of which the bank is a majority owner, provided that the subsidiary is engaging in activities that are allowed pursuant to the provisions of or by application under § 362.4(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Investments in qualified housing projects.</I> An insured State bank may invest as a limited partner in a partnership, or as a noncontrolling interest holder of a limited liability company, the sole purpose of which is to invest in the acquisition, rehabilitation, or new construction of a qualified housing project, provided that the bank's aggregate investment (including legally binding commitments) does not exceed, when made, 2 percent of total assets as of the date of the bank's most recent consolidated report of condition prior to making the investment. For the purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(ii), <I>Aggregate investment</I> means the total book value of the bank's investment in the real estate calculated in accordance with the instructions for the preparation of the consolidated report of condition. <I>Qualified housing project</I> means residential real estate intended to primarily benefit lower income persons throughout the period of the bank's investment including any project that has received an award of low income housing tax credits under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42) (such as a reservation or allocation of credits) from a State or local housing credit agency. A residential real estate project that does not qualify for the tax credit under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code will qualify under this exception if 50 percent or more of the housing units are to be occupied by lower income persons. A project will be considered residential despite the fact that some portion of the total square footage of the project is utilized for commercial purposes, provided that such commercial use is not the primary purpose of the project. <I>Lower income</I> has the same meaning as “low income” and “moderate income” as defined for the purposes of § 345.12(n)(1) and (2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Grandfathered investments in common or preferred stock; shares of investment companies</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> An insured State bank that is located in a State which as of September 30, 1991, authorized investment in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) Common or preferred stock listed on a national securities exchange (listed stock); or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Shares of an investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) (registered shares); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which during the period beginning on September 30, 1990, and ending on November 26, 1991, made or maintained an investment in listed stock or registered shares, may retain whatever lawfully acquired listed stock or registered shares it held and may continue to acquire listed stock and/or registered shares, provided that the bank files a notice in accordance with section 24(f)(6) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC processes the notice without objection under § 303.122 of this chapter. Approval will be granted only if the FDIC determines that acquiring or retaining the stock or shares does not pose a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Approval may be subject to whatever conditions or restrictions the FDIC determines are necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Loss of grandfather exception.</I> The exception for grandfathered investments under paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall no longer apply if the bank converts its charter or the bank or its parent holding company undergoes a change in control. If any of these events occur, the bank may retain its existing investments unless directed by the FDIC or other applicable authority to divest the listed stock or registered shares.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Maximum permissible investment.</I> A bank's aggregate investment in listed stock and registered shares under paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A) of this section shall in no event exceed, when made, 100 percent of the bank's tier one capital as measured on the bank's most recent consolidated report of condition (call report) prior to making any such investment. The lower of the bank's cost as determined in accordance with call report instructions or the market value of the listed stock and shares shall be used to determine compliance. The FDIC may determine when acting upon a notice filed in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section that the permissible limit for any particular insured State bank is something less than 100 percent of tier one capital.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Stock investment in insured depository institutions owned exclusively by other banks and savings associations.</I> An insured State bank may acquire or retain the stock of an insured depository institution if the insured depository institution engages only in activities permissible for national banks; the insured depository institution is subject to examination and regulation by a State bank supervisor; the voting stock is owned by 20 or more insured depository institutions, but no one institution owns more than 15 percent of the voting stock; and the insured depository institution's stock (other than directors' qualifying shares or shares held under or acquired through a plan established for the benefit of the officers and employees) is owned only by insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Stock investment in insurance companies</I>—(A) <I>Stock of director and officer liability insurance company.</I> An insured State bank may acquire and retain up to 10 percent of the outstanding stock of a corporation that solely provides or reinsures directors', trustees', and officers' liability insurance coverage or bankers' blanket bond group insurance coverage for insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Stock of savings bank life insurance company.</I> An insured State bank located in Massachusetts, New York, or Connecticut may own stock in a savings bank life insurance company, provided that the savings bank life insurance company provides written disclosures to purchasers or potential purchasers of life insurance policies, other insurance products, and annuities that are consistent with the disclosures described in the Interagency Statement on the Retail Sale of Nondeposit Investment Products (FIL-9-94, 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> February 17, 1994) or any successor requirement which indicates that the policies, products, and annuities are not FDIC insured deposits, are not guaranteed by the bank and are subject to investment risks, including possible loss of the principal amount invested.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Financial institution letters (FILs) are available in the FDIC Public Information Center, room 100, 801 17th Street, N.W., Washington, D.C. 20429.</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Activities other than equity investments</I>—(1) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> An insured State bank may not directly or indirectly engage as principal in any activity, that is not an equity investment, and is of a type not permissible for a national bank unless one of the exceptions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Consent obtained through application.</I> An insured State bank that meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency may conduct activities prohibited by paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the bank obtains the FDIC's prior written consent. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that the activity poses no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Applications for consent should be filed in accordance with § 303.121 of this chapter and will be processed under § 303.122(b) of this chapter. Approvals granted under § 303.122(b) of this chapter may be made subject to any conditions or restrictions found by the FDIC to be necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund from risk, to prevent unsafe or unsound banking practices, and/or to ensure that the activity is consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Insurance underwriting</I>—(A) <I>Savings bank life insurance.</I> An insured State bank that is located in Massachusetts, New York or Connecticut may provide as principal savings bank life insurance through a department of the bank, provided that the department meets the core standards of paragraph (c) of this section or submits an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC grants its consent under the procedures in § 303.122(b) of this chapter, and the department provides purchasers or potential purchasers of life insurance policies, other insurance products and annuities written disclosures that are consistent with the disclosures described in the Interagency Statement on the Retail Sale of Nondeposit Investment Products (FIL-9-94, February 17, 1994) and any successor requirement which indicates that the policies, products and annuities are not FDIC insured deposits, are not guaranteed by the bank, and are subject to investment risks, including the possible loss of the principal amount invested.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Federal crop insurance.</I> Any insured State bank that was providing insurance as principal on or before September 30, 1991, which was reinsured in whole or in part by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation, may continue to do so.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Grandfathered insurance underwriting.</I> A well-capitalized insured State bank that on November 21, 1991, was lawfully providing insurance as principal through a department of the bank may continue to provide the same types of insurance as principal to the residents of the State or States in which the bank did so on such date provided that the bank's department meets the core standards of paragraph (c) of this section, or submits an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC grants its consent under the procedures in § 303.122(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Acquiring and retaining adjustable rate and money market preferred stock.</I> (A) An insured State bank's investment of up to 15 percent of the bank's tier one capital in adjustable rate preferred stock or money market (auction rate) preferred stock does not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. An insured State bank may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(B) An insured State bank may acquire or retain other instruments of a type determined by the FDIC to have the character of debt securities and not to represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Such instruments shall be included in the 15 percent of tier one capital limit imposed in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section. An insured State bank may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Core standards.</I> For any insured State bank to be eligible to conduct insurance activities listed in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) or (C) of this section, the bank must conduct the activities in a department that meets the following core separation and operating standards:
</P>
<P>(1) The department is physically distinct from the remainder of the bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The department maintains separate accounting and other records;
</P>
<P>(3) The department has assets, liabilities, obligations and expenses that are separate and distinct from those of the remainder of the bank;
</P>
<P>(4) The department is subject to State statute that requires its obligations, liabilities and expenses be satisfied only with the assets of the department; and
</P>
<P>(5) The department informs its customers that only the assets of the department may be used to satisfy the obligations of the department.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.4   Subsidiaries of insured State banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> A subsidiary of an insured State bank may not engage as principal in any activity that is not of a type permissible for a subsidiary of a national bank, unless it meets one of the exceptions in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Consent obtained through application.</I> A subsidiary of an insured State bank may conduct otherwise prohibited activities if the bank obtains the FDIC's prior written consent and the insured State bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that the activity poses no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Applications for consent should be filed in accordance with § 303.121 of this chapter and will be processed under § 303.122(b) of this chapter. Approvals granted under § 303.122(b) of this chapter may be made subject to any conditions or restrictions found by the FDIC to be necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund from risk, to prevent unsafe or unsound banking practices, and/or to ensure that the activity is consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Grandfathered insurance underwriting subsidiaries.</I> A subsidiary of an insured State bank may:
</P>
<P>(i) Engage in grandfathered insurance underwriting if the insured State bank or its subsidiary on November 21, 1991, was lawfully providing insurance as principal. The subsidiary may continue to provide the same types of insurance as principal to the residents of the State or states in which the bank or subsidiary did so on such date provided that:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) The bank meets the capital requirements of paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The subsidiary is an “eligible subsidiary” as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The bank submits an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC grants its consent under the procedures in § 303.122(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Continue to provide as principal title insurance, provided the bank was required before June 1, 1991, to provide title insurance as a condition of the bank's initial chartering under State law and neither the bank nor its parent holding company undergoes a change in control.
</P>
<P>(iii) May continue to provide as principal insurance which is reinsured in whole or in part by the Federal Crop Insurance Corporation if the subsidiary was engaged in the activity on or before September 30, 1991.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Majority-owned subsidiaries' ownership of equity investments that represent a control interest in a company.</I> The FDIC has determined that investment in the following by a majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank does not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund:
</P>
<P>(i) Equity investment in a company engaged in real estate or securities activities authorized in paragraph (b)(5) of this section if the bank complies with the following restrictions and files a notice in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC processes the notice without objection under § 303.122(a) of this chapter. The FDIC is not precluded from taking any appropriate action or imposing additional requirements with respect to the activity if the facts and circumstances warrant such action. If changes to the management or business plan of the company at any time result in material changes to the nature of the company's business or the manner in which its business is conducted, the insured State bank shall advise the appropriate regional director (DSC) in writing within 10 business days after such change. Investment under this paragraph is authorized if:
</P>
<P>(A) The majority-owned subsidiary controls the company;
</P>
<P>(B) The bank meets the core eligibility criteria of paragraph (c)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) The majority-owned subsidiary meets the core eligibility criteria of paragraph (c)(2) of this section (including any modifications thereof applicable under paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section), or the company is a corporation meeting such criteria;
</P>
<P>(D) The bank's transactions with the majority-owned subsidiary, and the bank's transactions with the company, comply with the investment and transaction limits of paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) The bank complies with the capital requirements of paragraph (e) of this section with respect to the majority-owned subsidiary and the company; and
</P>
<P>(F) To the extent the company is engaged in securities activities authorized by paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, the bank and the company comply with the additional requirements therein as if the company were a majority-owned subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Equity securities of a company engaged in the following activities, if the majority-owned subsidiary controls the company or the company is controlled by insured depository institutions, and the bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The FDIC consents that a majority-owned subsidiary may conduct such activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activity if the facts and circumstances warrant such action:
</P>
<P>(A) Any activity that is permissible for a national bank, including such permissible activities that may require the company to register as a securities broker;
</P>
<P>(B) Acting as an insurance agency;
</P>
<P>(C) Engaging in any activity permissible for an insured State bank under § 362.3(b)(2)(iii) to the same extent permissible for the insured bank thereunder, so long as instruments held under this paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C), paragraph (b)(7) of this section, and § 362.3(b)(2)(iii) in the aggregate do not exceed the limit set by § 362.3(b)(2)(iii);
</P>
<P>(D) Engaging in any activity permissible for a majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank under paragraph (b)(6) of this section to the same extent and manner permissible for the majority-owned subsidiary thereunder; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Majority-owned subsidiary's ownership of certain securities that do not represent a control interest</I>—(i) <I>Grandfathered investments in common or preferred stock and shares of investment companies.</I> Any insured State bank that has received approval to invest in common or preferred stock or shares of an investment company pursuant to § 362.3(a)(2)(iii) may conduct the approved investment activities through a majority-owned subsidiary of the bank without any additional approval from the FDIC provided that any conditions or restrictions imposed with regard to the approval granted under § 362.3(a)(2)(iii) are met.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Bank stock.</I> An insured State bank may indirectly through a majority-owned subsidiary organized for such purpose invest in up to ten percent of the outstanding stock of another insured bank.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Majority-owned subsidiaries conducting real estate investment activities and securities underwriting.</I> The FDIC has determined that the following activities do not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund, provided that the activities are conducted by a majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank in compliance with the core eligibility requirements listed in paragraph (c) of this section; any additional requirements listed in paragraph (b)(5)(i) or (ii) of this section; the bank complies with the investment and transaction limitations of paragraph (d) of this section; and the bank meets the capital requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. The FDIC consents that these listed activities may be conducted by a majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank if the bank files a notice in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC processes the notice without objection under § 303.122(a) of this chapter. The FDIC is not precluded from taking any appropriate action or imposing additional requirements with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action. If changes to the management or business plan of the majority-owned subsidiary at any time result in material changes to the nature of the majority-owned subsidiary's business or the manner in which its business is conducted, the insured State bank shall advise the appropriate regional director (DSC) in writing within 10 business days after such change. Such a majority-owned subsidiary may:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Real estate investment activities.</I> Engage in real estate investment activities. However, the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(ii), (v), (vi), and (xi) of this section need not be met if the bank's investment in the equity securities of the subsidiary does not exceed 2 percent of the bank's tier one capital; the bank has only one subsidiary engaging in real estate investment activities; and the bank's total investment in the subsidiary does not include any extensions of credit from the bank to the subsidiary, any debt instruments issued by the subsidiary, or any other transaction originated by the bank that is used to benefit the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Securities activities.</I> Engage in the public sale, distribution or underwriting of securities that are not permissible for a national bank under section 16 of the Banking Act of 1933 (12 U.S.C. 24 Seventh), provided that the insured state nonmember bank lawfully controlled or acquired the subsidiary and had an approved notice or order from the FDIC prior to November 12, 1999 and provided that the following additional conditions are, and continue to be, met:
</P>
<P>(A) The state-chartered depository institution adopts policies and procedures, including appropriate limits on exposure, to govern the institution's participation in financing transactions underwritten or arranged by an underwriting majority-owned subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(B) The state-chartered depository institution may not express an opinion on the value or the advisability of the purchase or sale of securities underwritten or dealt in by a majority-owned subsidiary unless the state-chartered depository institution notifies the customer that the majority-owned subsidiary is underwriting or distributing the security;
</P>
<P>(C) The majority-owned subsidiary is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission, is a member in good standing with the appropriate self-regulatory organization, and promptly informs the appropriate regional director (DSC) in writing of any material actions taken against the majority-owned subsidiary or any of its employees by the State, the appropriate self-regulatory organizations or the Securities and Exchange Commission; and
</P>
<P>(D) The state-chartered depository institution does not knowingly purchase as principal or fiduciary during the existence of any underwriting or selling syndicate any securities underwritten by the majority-owned subsidiary unless the purchase is approved by the state-chartered depository institution's board of directors before the securities are initially offered for sale to the public.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Real estate leasing.</I> A majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank acting as lessor under a real property lease which is the equivalent of a financing transaction, meeting the lease criteria of paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section and the underlying real estate requirements of paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, does not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. A majority-owned subsidiary may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activity if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Lease criteria</I>—(A) <I>Capital lease.</I> The lease must qualify as a capital lease as to the lessor under generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nonoperating basis.</I> The bank and the majority-owned subsidiary shall not, directly or indirectly, provide or be obligated to provide servicing, repair, or maintenance to the property, except that the lease may include provisions permitting the subsidiary to protect the value of the leased property in the event of a change in circumstances that increases the subsidiary's exposure to loss, or the subsidiary may take reasonable and appropriate action to salvage or protect the value of the leased property in such circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Underlying real property requirements</I>—(A) <I>Acquisition.</I> The majority-owned subsidiary may acquire specific real estate to be leased only after the subsidiary has entered into:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A lease meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A legally binding written commitment to enter into such a lease; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A legally binding written agreement that indemnifies the subsidiary against loss in connection with its acquisition of the property.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Improvements.</I> Any expenditures by the majority-owned subsidiary to make reasonable repairs, renovations, and improvements necessary to render the property suitable to the lessee shall not exceed 25 percent of the majority-owned subsidiary's full investment in the real estate.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Divestiture.</I> At the expiration of the initial lease (including any renewals or extensions thereof), the majority-owned subsidiary shall, as soon as practicable but in any event no less than two years, either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Re-lease the property under a lease meeting the requirement of paragraph (b)(6)(i)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Divest itself of all interest in the property.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Acquiring and retaining adjustable rate and money market preferred stock and similar instruments.</I> The FDIC has determined it does not present a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund for a majority-owned subsidiary of an insured State bank to engage in any activity permissible for an insured State bank under § 362.3(b)(2)(iii), so long as instruments held under this paragraph, paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, and § 362.3(b)(2)(iii) in the aggregate do not exceed the limit set by § 362.3(b)(2)(iii). A majority-owned subsidiary may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the bank meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activity if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Core eligibility requirements.</I> If specifically required by this part or by FDIC order, any state-chartered depository institution that wishes to be eligible and continue to be eligible to conduct as principal activities through a subsidiary that are not permissible for a subsidiary of a national bank must be an “eligible depository institution” and the subsidiary must be an “eligible subsidiary”.
</P>
<P>(1) A state-chartered depository institution is an “eligible depository institution” if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been chartered and operating for three or more years, unless the appropriate regional director (DSC) finds that the state-chartered depository institution is owned by an established, well-capitalized, well-managed holding company or is managed by seasoned management;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an FDIC-assigned composite rating of 1 or 2 assigned under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (UFIRS) (or such other comparable rating system as may be adopted in the future) as a result of its most recent Federal or State examination for which the FDIC assigned a rating;
</P>
<P>(iii) Received a rating of 1 or 2 under the “management” component of the UFIRS as assigned by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has a satisfactory or better Community Reinvestment Act rating at its most recent examination conducted by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(v) Has a compliance rating of 1 or 2 at its most recent examination conducted by the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Is not subject to a cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, formal or informal written agreement, or other administrative agreement with its appropriate Federal banking agency or chartering authority.
</P>
<P>(2) A subsidiary of a state-chartered depository institution is an “eligible subsidiary” if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Meets applicable statutory or regulatory capital requirements and has sufficient operating capital in light of the normal obligations that are reasonably foreseeable for a business of its size and character within the industry;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is physically separate and distinct in its operations from the operations of the state-chartered depository institution, provided that this requirement shall not be construed to prohibit the state-chartered depository institution and its subsidiary from sharing the same facility if the area where the subsidiary conducts business with the public is clearly distinct from the area where customers of the state-chartered depository institution conduct business with the institution. The extent of the separation will vary according to the type and frequency of customer contact;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintains separate accounting and other business records;
</P>
<P>(iv) Observes separate business entity formalities such as separate board of directors' meetings;
</P>
<P>(v) Has a chief executive officer of the subsidiary who is not an employee of the institution;
</P>
<P>(vi) Has a majority of its board of directors who are neither directors nor executive officers of the state-chartered depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(vii) Conducts business pursuant to independent policies and procedures designed to inform customers and prospective customers of the subsidiary that the subsidiary is a separate organization from the state-chartered depository institution and that the state-chartered depository institution is not responsible for and does not guarantee the obligations of the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(viii) Has only one business purpose within the types described in paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ix) Has a current written business plan that is appropriate to the type and scope of business conducted by the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(x) Has qualified management and employees for the type of activity contemplated, including all required licenses and memberships, and complies with industry standards; and
</P>
<P>(xi) Establishes policies and procedures to ensure adequate computer, audit and accounting systems, internal risk management controls, and has necessary operational and managerial infrastructure to implement the business plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investment and transaction limits</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> If specifically required by this part or FDIC order, the following conditions and restrictions apply to an insured State bank and its subsidiaries that engage in and wish to continue to engage in activities which are not permissible for a national bank subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment limits</I>—(i) <I>Aggregate investment in subsidiaries.</I> An insured state bank's aggregate investment in all subsidiaries conducting activities subject to this paragraph (d) shall not exceed 20 percent of the insured State bank's tier one capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Definition of investment.</I> (A) For purposes of this paragraph (d), the term “investment” means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any extension of credit to the subsidiary by the insured State bank;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any debt securities, as such term is defined in part 344 of this chapter, issued by the subsidiary held by the insured State bank;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The acceptance by the insured State bank of securities issued by the subsidiary as collateral for an extension of credit to any person or company; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Any extensions of credit by the insured State bank to any third party for the purpose of making a direct investment in the subsidiary, making any investment in which the subsidiary has an interest, or which is used for the benefit of, or transferred to, the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(B) For the purposes of this paragraph (d), the term “investment” does not include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Extensions of credit by the insured State bank to finance sales of assets by the subsidiary which do not involve more than the normal degree of risk of repayment and are extended on terms that are substantially similar to those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with or involving unaffiliated persons or companies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An extension of credit by the insured State bank to the subsidiary that is fully collateralized by government securities, as such term is defined in § 344.3 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An extension of credit by the insured State bank to the subsidiary that is fully collateralized by a segregated deposit in the insured State bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transaction requirements</I>—(i) <I>Arm's length transaction requirement.</I> With the exception of giving the subsidiary immediate credit for uncollected items received in the ordinary course of business, an insured State bank may not carry out any of the following transactions with a subsidiary subject to this paragraph (d) unless the transaction is on terms and conditions that are substantially the same as those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with unaffiliated parties:
</P>
<P>(A) Make an investment in the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(B) Purchase from or sell to the subsidiary any assets (including securities);
</P>
<P>(C) Enter into a contract, lease, or other type of agreement with the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(D) Pay compensation to a majority-owned subsidiary or any person or company who has an interest in the subsidiary; or
</P>
<P>(E) Engage in any such transaction in which the proceeds thereof are used for the benefit of, or are transferred to, the subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prohibition on purchase of low quality assets.</I> An insured State bank is prohibited from purchasing a low quality asset from a subsidiary subject to this paragraph (d). For purposes of this subsection, “low quality asset” means:
</P>
<P>(A) An asset classified as “substandard”, “doubtful”, or “loss” or treated as “other assets especially mentioned” in the most recent report of examination of the bank;
</P>
<P>(B) An asset in a nonaccrual status;
</P>
<P>(C) An asset on which principal or interest payments are more than 30 days past due; or
</P>
<P>(D) An asset whose terms have been renegotiated or compromised due to the deteriorating financial condition of the obligor.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Insider transaction restriction.</I> Neither the insured State bank nor the subsidiary subject to this paragraph (d) may enter into any transaction (exclusive of those covered by § 337.3 of this chapter) with the bank's executive officers, directors, principal shareholders or related interests of such persons which relate to the subsidiary's activities unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The transactions are on terms and conditions that are substantially the same as those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with persons not affiliated with the insured State bank; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transactions are pursuant to a benefit or compensation program that is widely available to employees of the bank, and that does not give preference to the bank's executive officers, directors, principal shareholders or related interests of such persons over other bank employees.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Anti-tying restriction.</I> Neither the insured State bank nor the majority-owned subsidiary may require a customer to either buy any product or use any service from the other as a condition of entering into a transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateralization requirements.</I> (i) An insured State bank is prohibited from making an investment in a subsidiary subject to this paragraph (d) unless such transaction is fully-collateralized at the time the transaction is entered into. No insured State bank may accept a low quality asset as collateral. An extension of credit is fully collateralized if it is secured at the time of the transaction by collateral having a market value equal to at least:
</P>
<P>(A) 100 percent of the amount of the transaction if the collateral is composed of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Obligations of the United States or its agencies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notes, drafts, bills of exchange or bankers acceptances that are eligible for rediscount or purchase by the Federal Reserve Bank; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A segregated, earmarked deposit account with the insured State bank;
</P>
<P>(B) 110 percent of the amount of the transaction if the collateral is composed of obligations of any State or political subdivision of any State;
</P>
<P>(C) 120 percent of the amount of the transaction if the collateral is composed of other debt instruments, including receivables; or
</P>
<P>(D) 130 percent of the amount of the transaction if the collateral is composed of stock, leases, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P>(ii) An insured State bank may not release collateral prior to proportional payment of the extension of credit; however, collateral may be substituted if there is no diminution of collateral coverage.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Investment and transaction limits extended to insured State bank subsidiaries.</I> For purposes of applying paragraphs (d)(2) through (d)(4) of this section, any reference to “insured State bank” means the insured State bank and any subsidiaries of the insured State bank which are not themselves subject under this part or FDIC order to the restrictions of this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital requirements.</I> If specifically required by this part or by FDIC order, any insured State bank that wishes to conduct or continue to conduct as principal activities through a subsidiary that are not permissible for a subsidiary of a national bank must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be well-capitalized after deducting from its tier one capital the investment in equity securities of the subsidiary as well as the bank's pro rata share of any retained earnings of the subsidiary;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflect this deduction on the appropriate schedule of the bank's consolidated report of income and condition; and
</P>
<P>(3) Use such regulatory capital amount for the purposes of the bank's assessment risk classification under part 327 of this chapter and its categorization as a “well-capitalized”, an “adequately capitalized”, an “undercapitalized”, or a “significantly undercapitalized” institution as defined in § 324.403(b) of this chapter, provided that the capital deduction shall not be used for purposes of determining whether the bank is “critically undercapitalized” under part 324 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001; 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 78 FR 55596, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.5   Approvals previously granted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FDIC consent by order or notice.</I> An insured State bank that previously filed an application or notice under part 362 in effect prior to January 1, 1999 (see 12 CFR part 362 revised as of January 1, 1998), and obtained the FDIC's consent to engage in an activity or to acquire or retain a majority-owned subsidiary engaging as principal in an activity or acquiring and retaining any investment that is prohibited under this subpart may continue that activity or retain that investment without seeking the FDIC's consent, provided that the insured State bank and its subsidiary, if applicable, continue to meet the conditions and restrictions of the approval. An insured State bank which was granted approval based on conditions which differ from the requirements of § 362.4(c)(2), (d) and (e) will be considered to meet the conditions and restrictions of the approval relating to being an eligible subsidiary, meeting investment and transactions limits, and meeting capital requirements if the insured State bank and subsidiary meet the requirements of § 362.4(c)(2), (d) and (e). If the majority-owned subsidiary is engaged in real estate investment activities not exceeding 2 percent of the tier one capital of a bank and meeting the other conditions of § 362.4(b)(5)(i), the majority-owned subsidiary's compliance with § 362.4(c)(2) under the preceding sentence may be pursuant to the modifications authorized by § 362.4(b)(5)(i). Once an insured State bank elects to comply with § 362.4(c)(2), (d), and (e), it may not revert to the corresponding provisions of the approval order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approvals by regulation</I>— 
</P>
<P>(1)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Adjustable rate or money market preferred stock.</I> An insured State bank owning adjustable rate or money market (auction rate) preferred stock pursuant to § 362.4(c)(3)(v) in effect prior to January 1, 1999 (see 12 CFR part 362 revised as of January 1, 1998), in excess of the amount limit in § 362.3(b)(2)(iii) may continue to hold any overlimit shares of such stock acquired before January 1, 1999, until redeemed or repurchased by the issuer, but such stock shall be included as part of the amount limit in § 362.3(b)(2)(iii) when determining whether the bank may acquire new stock thereunder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charter conversions.</I> (1) An insured State bank that has converted its charter from an insured state savings association may continue activities through a majority-owned subsidiary that were permissible prior to the time it converted its charter only if the insured State bank receives the FDIC's consent. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the insured State bank should apply under § 362.4(b)(1), submit any notice required under § 362.4(b)(4) or (5), or comply with the provisions of § 362.4(b)(3), (6), or (7) if applicable, to continue the activity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for prior consent.</I> If the FDIC had granted consent to the savings association under section 28 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831(e)) prior to the time the savings association converted its charter, the insured State bank may continue the activities without providing notice or making application to the FDIC, provided that the bank and its subsidiary as applicable are in compliance with:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the FDIC approval order; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of § 362.4(c)(2), (d), and (e) regarding operating as an “eligible subsidiary”, “investment and transaction limits”, and “capital requirements'.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Divestiture.</I> An insured State bank that does not receive FDIC consent shall divest of the nonconforming investment as soon as practical but in no event later than two years from the date of charter conversion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Safety and Soundness Rules Governing Insured State Nonmember Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.6   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, along with the notice and application procedures in subpart G of part 303 of this chapter apply to certain banking practices that may have adverse effects on the safety and soundness of insured state nonmember banks. This subpart contains the required prudential separations between certain securities underwriting affiliates and insured state nonmember banks. The standards only will apply to affiliates of insured state nonmember banks that are not controlled by an entity that is supervised by a federal banking agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.7   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning contained in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activity, company, control, equity security, insured state nonmember bank, security and subsidiary</I> have the same meaning as provided in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.8   Restrictions on activities of insured state nonmember banks affiliated with certain securities companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC has found that an unrestricted affiliation between an insured state nonmember bank and certain companies may have adverse effects on the safety and soundness of insured state nonmember banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) An insured state nonmember bank is prohibited from becoming or remaining affiliated with any securities underwriting affiliate company that directly engages in the public sale, distribution or underwriting of stocks, bonds, debentures, notes, or other securities activity, of a type not permissible for a national bank directly, unless the company is controlled by an entity that is supervised by a federal banking agency or the state nonmember bank submits an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and the FDIC grants its consent under the procedure in § 303.122(b) of this chapter, or the state nonmember bank and the securities underwriting affiliate company comply with the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The securities business of the affiliate is physically separate and distinct in its operations from the operations of the bank, provided that this requirement shall not be construed to prohibit the bank and its affiliate from sharing the same facility if the area where the affiliate conducts retail sales activity with the public is physically distinct from the routine deposit taking area of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The affiliate conducts business pursuant to independent policies and procedures designed to inform customers and prospective customers of the affiliate that the affiliate is a separate organization from the bank and the state-chartered depository institution is not responsible for and does not guarantee the obligations of the affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(3) The bank adopts policies and procedures, including appropriate limits on exposure, to govern its participation in financing transactions underwritten by an underwriting affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(4) The bank does not express an opinion on the value or the advisability of the purchase or sale of securities underwritten or dealt in by an affiliate unless it notifies the customer that the entity underwriting, making a market, distributing or dealing in the securities is an affiliate of the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The bank complies with the investment and transaction limitations in sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1) with respect to the affiliate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 1028, Jan. 5, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities of Insured State Savings Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.9   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart, along with the notice and application procedures in subpart H of part 303 of this chapter, implements the provisions of section 28(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831e(a)) that restrict and prohibit insured state savings associations and their service corporations from engaging in activities and investments of a type that are not permissible for a Federal savings association and their service corporations. This subpart also implements the provision of section 28(d) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831e(d)) that restricts state and federal savings associations from investing in certain corporate debt securities. The phrase “activity permissible for a Federal savings association” means any activity authorized for a Federal savings association under any statute including the Home Owners' Loan Act (HOLA) (12 U.S.C. 1464 <I>et seq.</I>), as well as activities recognized as permissible for a Federal savings association in regulations issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) or in bulletins, orders or written interpretations issued by the OCC, or by the former Office of Thrift Supervision until modified, terminated, set aside, or superseded by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not cover the following activities:
</P>
<P>(1) Activities conducted by the insured state savings association other than “as principal”, defined for purposes of this subpart as activities conducted as agent for a customer, conducted in a brokerage, custodial, advisory, or administrative capacity, or conducted as trustee, or in any substantially similar capacity. For example, this subpart does not cover acting solely as agent for the sale of insurance, securities, real estate, or travel services; nor does it cover acting as trustee, providing personal financial planning advice, or safekeeping services.
</P>
<P>(2) Interests in real estate in which the real property is used or intended in good faith to be used within a reasonable time by an insured savings association or its service corporations as offices or related facilities for the conduct of its business or future expansion of its business or used as public welfare investments of a type and in an amount permissible for Federal savings associations.
</P>
<P>(3) Equity investments acquired in connection with debts previously contracted (DPC) if the insured savings association or its service corporation takes only such actions as would be permissible for a Federal savings association's or its service corporation's DPC holdings.
</P>
<P>(c) The FDIC intends to allow insured state savings associations and their service corporations to undertake only safe and sound activities and investments that do not present significant risks to the Deposit Insurance Fund and that are consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law. This subpart does not authorize any insured state savings association to make investments or conduct activities that are not authorized or that are prohibited by either Federal or state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 77 FR 43155, July 24, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the definitions provided in § 362.2 apply. Additionally, the following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as provided in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corporate debt securities not of investment grade</I> means any corporate debt security that when acquired was not rated among the four highest rating categories by at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization. The term shall not include any obligation issued or guaranteed by a corporation that may be held by a Federal savings association without limitation as to percentage of assets under subparagraphs (D), (E), or (F) of section 5(c)(1) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(1) (D), (E), (F)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insured state savings association</I> means any state-chartered savings association insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualified affiliate</I> means, in the case of a stock insured state savings association, an affiliate other than a subsidiary or an insured depository institution. In the case of a mutual savings association, “qualified affiliate” means a subsidiary other than an insured depository institution provided that all of the savings association's investments in, and extensions of credit to, the subsidiary are deducted from the savings association's capital.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service corporation</I> means any corporation the capital stock of which is available for purchase by savings associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1029, Jan. 5, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.11   Activities of insured savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equity investments</I>—(1) <I>Prohibited investments.</I> No insured state savings association may directly acquire or retain as principal any equity investment of a type, or in an amount, that is not permissible for a Federal savings association unless the exception in paragraph (a)(2) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception: Equity investment in service corporations.</I> An insured state savings association that is and continues to be in compliance with the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency may acquire or retain an equity investment in a service corporation:
</P>
<P>(i) Not permissible for a Federal savings association to the extent the service corporation is engaging in activities that are allowed pursuant to the provisions of or an application under § 362.12(b); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Of a type permissible for a Federal savings association, but in an amount exceeding the investment limits applicable to Federal savings associations, if the insured state savings association obtains the FDIC's prior consent. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that the amount of the investment in a service corporation engaged in such activities does not present a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Applications should be filed in accordance with § 303.141 of this chapter and will be processed under § 303.142(b) of this chapter. Approvals granted under § 303.142(b) of this chapter may be made subject to any conditions or restrictions found by the FDIC to be necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund from significant risk, to prevent unsafe or unsound practices, and/or to ensure that the activity is consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Activities other than equity investments</I>—(1) <I>Prohibited activities.</I> An insured state savings association may not directly engage as principal in any activity, that is not an equity investment, of a type not permissible for a Federal savings association, and an insured state savings association shall not make nonresidential real property loans in an amount exceeding that described in section 5(c)(2)(B) of HOLA (12 U.S.C. 1464(c)(2)(B)), unless one of the exceptions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies. This section shall not be read to require the divestiture of any asset (including a nonresidential real estate loan), if the asset was acquired prior to August 9, 1989; however, any activity conducted with such asset must be conducted in accordance with this subpart. On and after July 21, 2012, an insured savings association directly or through a subsidiary (other than, in the case of a mutual savings association, a subsidiary that is a qualified affiliate), shall not acquire or retain a corporate debt security unless the savings association, prior to acquiring the security and periodically thereafter, determines that the issuer of the security has adequate capacity to meet all financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the security. Saving associations have until January 1, 2013 to come into compliance with this treatment of corporate debt securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Consent obtained through application.</I> An insured state savings association that meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency may directly conduct activities prohibited by paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the savings association obtains the FDIC's prior consent. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that conducting the activity designated poses no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Applications should be filed in accordance with § 303.141 of this chapter and will be processed under § 303.142(b) of this chapter. Approvals granted under § 303.142(b) of this chapter may be made subject to any conditions or restrictions found by the FDIC to be necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund from significant risk, to prevent unsafe or unsound practices, and/or to ensure that the activity is consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Nonresidential realty loans permissible for a Federal savings association conducted in an amount not permissible.</I> An insured state savings association that meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency may make nonresidential real property loans in an amount exceeding the amount described in section 5(c)(2)(B) of HOLA, if the savings association files a notice in compliance with § 303.141 of this chapter and the FDIC processes the notice without objection under § 303.142(a) of this chapter. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that engaging in such lending in the amount designated poses no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Acquiring and retaining adjustable rate and money market preferred stock.</I> (A) An insured state savings association's investment of up to 15 percent of the association's tier one capital in adjustable rate preferred stock or money market (auction rate) preferred stock does not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. An insured state savings association may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the association meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(B) An insured state savings association may acquire or retain other instruments of a type determined by the FDIC to have the character of debt securities and not to represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Such instruments shall be included in the 15 percent of tier one capital limit imposed in paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section. An insured state savings association may conduct this activity without first obtaining the FDIC's consent, provided that the association meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Activities permissible for a Federal savings association conducted in an amount not permissible.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, an insured state savings association may engage as principal in any activity, which is not an equity investment of a type permissible for a Federal savings association, in an amount in excess of that permissible for a Federal savings association, if the savings association meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency, the institution has advised the appropriate regional director (DSC) under the procedure in § 303.142(c) of this chapter within thirty days before engaging in the activity, and the FDIC has not advised the insured state savings association that conducting the activity in the amount indicated poses a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. This section shall not be read to require the divestiture of any asset if the asset was acquired prior to August 9, 1989; however, any activity conducted with such asset must be conducted in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006; 77 FR 43155, July 24, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.12   Service corporations of insured State savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> A service corporation of an insured state savings association may not engage in any activity that is not permissible for a service corporation of a Federal savings association, unless it meets one of the exceptions in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Consent obtained through application.</I> A service corporation of an insured state savings association may conduct activities prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section if the savings association obtains the FDIC's prior written consent and the insured state savings association meets and continues to meet the applicable capital standards set by the appropriate Federal banking agency. Consent will be given only if the FDIC determines that the activity poses no significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund. Applications for consent should be filed in accordance with § 303.141 of this chapter and will be processed under § 303.142(b) of this chapter. Approvals granted under § 303.142(b) of this chapter may be made subject to any conditions or restrictions found by the FDIC to be necessary to protect the Deposit Insurance Fund from risk, to prevent unsafe or unsound banking practices, and/or to ensure that the activity is consistent with the purposes of Federal deposit insurance and other applicable law. The activities covered by this paragraph may include, but are not limited to, acquiring and retaining equity securities of a company engaged in the public sale distribution or underwriting of securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service corporations conducting unrestricted activities.</I> The FDIC has determined that the following activities do not represent a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) A service corporation of an insured state savings association may acquire and retain equity securities of a company engaged in the following activities, if the service corporation controls the company or the company is controlled by insured depository institutions, and the association continues to meet the applicable capital standards as prescribed by the appropriate Federal banking agency. The FDIC consents that such activity may be conducted by a service corporation of an insured state savings association without first obtaining the FDIC's consent. The fact that prior consent is not required by this subpart does not preclude the FDIC from taking any appropriate action with respect to the activities if the facts and circumstances warrant such action.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Equity securities of a company that engages in permissible activities.</I> A service corporation may own the equity securities of a company that engages in any activity permissible for a Federal savings association.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Equity securities of a company that acquires and retains adjustable-rate and money market preferred stock.</I> A service corporation may own the equity securities of a company that engages in any activity permissible for an insured state savings association under § 362.11(b)(2)(iii) so long as instruments held under this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B), paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section, and § 362.11(b)(2)(iii) in the aggregate do not exceed the limit set by § 362.11(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Equity securities of a company acting as an insurance agency.</I> A service corporation may own the equity securities of a company that acts as an insurance agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Activities that are not conducted “as principal</I>”. A service corporation controlled by the insured state savings association may engage in activities which are not conducted “as principal” such as acting as an agent for a customer, acting in a brokerage, custodial, advisory, or administrative capacity, or acting as trustee, or in any substantially similar capacity.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Acquiring and retaining adjustable-rate and money market preferred stock.</I> A service corporation may engage in any activity permissible for an insured state savings association under § 362.11(b)(2)(iii) so long as instruments held under this paragraph (b)(2)(iv), paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, and § 362.11(b)(2)(iii) in the aggregate do not exceed the limit set by § 362.11(b)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment and transaction limits.</I> The restrictions detailed in § 362.4(d) apply to transactions between an insured state savings association and any service corporation engaging in activities which are not permissible for a service corporation of a Federal savings association if specifically required by this part or FDIC order. For purposes of applying the investment limits in § 362.4(d)(2), the term “investment” includes only those items described in § 362.4(d)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>3</I>) and (<I>4</I>). For purposes of applying § 362.4(d)(2), (3), and (4) to this paragraph (c), references to the terms “insured State bank” and “subsidiary” in § 362.4(d)(2), (3), and (4), shall be deemed to refer, respectively, to the insured state savings association and the service corporation. For purposes of applying § 362.4(d)(5), references to the terms “insured State bank” and “subsidiary” in § 362.4(d)(5) shall be deemed to refer, respectively, to the insured state savings association and the service corporations or subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital requirements.</I> If specifically required by this part or by FDIC order, an insured state savings association that wishes to conduct as principal activities through a service corporation which are not permissible for a service corporation of a Federal savings association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be well-capitalized after deducting from its capital any investment in the service corporation, both equity and debt.
</P>
<P>(2) Use such regulatory capital amount for the purposes of the insured state savings association's assessment risk classification under part 327 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 66 FR 1029, Jan. 5, 2001; 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.13   Approvals previously granted.</HEAD>
<P><I>FDIC consent by order or notice.</I> An insured state savings association that previously filed an application and obtained the FDIC's consent to engage in an activity or to acquire or retain an investment in a service corporation engaging as principal in an activity or acquiring and retaining any investment that is prohibited under this subpart may continue that activity or retain that investment without seeking the FDIC's consent, provided the insured state savings association and the service corporation, if applicable, continue to meet the conditions and restrictions of approval. An insured state savings association which was granted approval based on conditions which differ from the requirements of §§ 362.4(c)(2) and 362.12 (c) and (d) will be considered to meet the conditions and restrictions of the approval if the insured state savings association and any applicable service corporation meet the requirements of §§ 362.4(c)(2) and 362.12 (c) and (d). For the purposes of applying § 362.4(c)(2), references to the terms “eligible subsidiary” and “subsidiary” in § 362.4(c)(2) shall be deemed to refer, respectively, to the eligible service corporation and the service corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Acquiring, Establishing, or Conducting New Activities Through a Subsidiary by an Insured Savings Association</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.14   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart implements section 18(m) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(m)) which requires that prior notice be given the FDIC when an insured savings association establishes or acquires a subsidiary or engages in any new activity in a subsidiary. For the purposes of this subpart, the term “subsidiary” does not include any insured depository institution as that term is defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. Unless otherwise indicated, the definitions provided in § 362.2 apply to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.15   Acquiring or establishing a subsidiary; conducting new activities through a subsidiary.</HEAD>
<P>No state insured savings association may establish or acquire a subsidiary, or conduct any new activity through a subsidiary, unless it files a notice in compliance with § 303.142(c) of this chapter at least 30 days prior to establishment of the subsidiary or commencement of the activity and the FDIC does not object to the notice. This section does not apply to any state savings association that acquired its principal assets from a Federal savings bank that was chartered prior to October 15, 1982, as a savings bank under state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 8104, Feb. 3, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Financial Subsidiaries of Insured State Nonmember Banks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 1029, Jan. 5, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 362.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.16   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart, along with the notice and application procedures in subpart G of part 303 of this chapter, implements section 46 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w) and requires that an insured state nonmember bank certify certain facts and file a notice with the FDIC before the insured state nonmember bank may control or hold an interest in a financial subsidiary under section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. This subpart also implements the statutory Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) requirement set forth in subsection (4)(l)(2) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(l)(2)), which is applicable to state nonmember banks that commence new activities through a financial subsidiary or directly or indirectly acquire control of a company engaged in an activity under section 46(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not cover activities conducted other than “as principal”. For purposes of this subpart, activities conducted other than “as principal” are defined as activities conducted as agent for a customer, conducted in a brokerage, custodial, advisory, or administrative capacity, or conducted as trustee, or in any substantially similar capacity. For example, this subpart does not cover acting solely as agent for the sale of insurance, securities, real estate, or travel services; nor does it cover acting as trustee, providing personal financial planning advice, or safekeeping services. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.17" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.17   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions will apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Activity, company, control, insured depository institution, insured state bank, insured state nonmember bank and subsidiary</I> have the same meaning as provided in subpart A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning provided in subpart B of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial subsidiary</I> means any company that is controlled by one or more insured depository institutions other than: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subsidiary that only engages in activities that the state nonmember bank is permitted to engage in directly and that are conducted on the same terms and conditions that govern the conduct of the activities by the state nonmember bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) A subsidiary that the state nonmember bank is specifically authorized to control by the express terms of a federal statute (other than section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w)), and not by implication or interpretation, such as the Bank Service Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1861 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tangible equity</I> and <I>Tier 2 capital</I> have the same meaning as set forth in part 324 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Well-managed</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise determined in writing by the appropriate federal banking agency, the institution has received a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (or an equivalent rating under an equivalent rating system) in connection with the most recent state or federal examination or subsequent review of the depository institution and at least a rating of 2 for management, if such a rating is given; or 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of any depository institution that has not been examined by its appropriate federal banking agency, the existence and use of managerial resources that the appropriate federal banking agency determines are satisfactory. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 78 FR 55596, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17741, Apr. 24, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 362.18" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.13.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 362.18   Financial subsidiaries of insured state nonmember banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>“As principal” activities.</I> An insured state nonmember bank may not obtain control of or hold an interest in a financial subsidiary that engages in activities as principal or commence any such new activity pursuant to section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w) unless the insured state nonmember bank files a notice containing the information required in § 303.121(b) of this chapter and certifies that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The insured state nonmember bank is well-managed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The insured state nonmember bank and all of its insured depository institution affiliates are well-capitalized as defined in the appropriate capital regulation and guidance of each institution's primary federal regulator; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The insured state nonmember bank will deduct the aggregate amount of its outstanding equity investment, including retained earnings, in all financial subsidiaries that engage in activities as principal pursuant to section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w(a)), from the bank's total assets and tangible equity and deduct such investment from its total risk-based capital (this deduction shall be made equally from tier 1 and tier 2 capital) or from common equity tier 1 capital in accordance with 12 CFR part 324, subpart C, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Community Reinvestment Act (CRA).</I> An insured state nonmember bank may not commence any new activity subject to section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w) or directly or indirectly acquire control of a company engaged in any such activity pursuant to § 362.18(a)(1), if the bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates received a CRA rating of less than “satisfactory record of meeting community credit needs” in its most recent CRA examination. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> An insured state nonmember bank controlling or holding an interest in a financial subsidiary under section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w) must meet and continue to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section as long as the insured state nonmember bank holds the financial subsidiary and: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose and continue to disclose the capital separation required in paragraph (a)(3) in any published financial statements; 
</P>
<P>(2) Comply and continue to comply with sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c and 371c-1) as if the subsidiary were a financial subsidiary of a national bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) Comply and continue to comply with the financial and operational standards provided by section 5136A(d) of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24A(d)), unless otherwise determined by the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Securities underwriting.</I> If the financial subsidiary of the insured state nonmember bank will engage in the public sale, distribution or underwriting of stocks, bonds, debentures, notes, or other securities activity of a type permissible for a national bank only through a financial subsidiary, then the state nonmember bank and the financial subsidiary also must comply and continue to comply with the following additional requirements: 
</P>
<P>(1) The securities business of the financial subsidiary must be physically separate and distinct in its operations from the operations of the bank, provided that this requirement shall not be construed to prohibit the bank and its financial subsidiary from sharing the same facility if the area where the financial subsidiary conducts securities business with the public is physically distinct from the routine deposit taking area of the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The financial subsidiary must conduct its securities business pursuant to independent policies and procedures designed to inform customers and prospective customers of the financial subsidiary that the financial subsidiary is a separate organization from the insured state nonmember bank and that the insured state nonmember bank is not responsible for and does not guarantee the obligations of the financial subsidiary; 
</P>
<P>(3) The bank must adopt policies and procedures, including appropriate limits on exposure, to govern its participation in financing transactions underwritten by its financial subsidiary; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The bank must not express an opinion on the value or the advisability of the purchase or sale of securities underwritten or dealt in by its financial subsidiary unless the bank notifies the customer that the entity underwriting, making a market, distributing or dealing in the securities is a financial subsidiary of the bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applications for exceptions to certain requirements.</I> Any insured state nonmember bank that is unable to comply with the well-managed requirement of § 362.18(a)(1) and (c)(1), any state nonmember bank that has appropriate reasons for not meeting the financial and operational standards applicable to a financial subsidiary of a national bank conducting the same activities as provided in § 362.18(c)(3) or any state nonmember bank and its financial subsidiary subject to the securities underwriting activities requirements in § 362.18(d) that is unable to meet such requirements may submit an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter to seek a waiver or modification of such requirements under the procedure in § 303.122(b) of this chapter. The FDIC may impose additional prudential safeguards as are necessary as a condition of its consent. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure to meet requirements</I>—(1) <I>Notification by FDIC.</I> The FDIC will notify the insured state nonmember bank in writing and identify the areas of noncompliance, if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The FDIC finds that an insured state nonmember bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates is not in compliance with the CRA requirement of § 362.18(b) at the time any new activity is commenced or control of the financial subsidiary is acquired; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The FDIC finds that the facts to which an insured state nonmember bank certified under § 362.18(a) are not accurate in whole or in part; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The FDIC finds that the insured state nonmember bank or any of its insured depository institution affiliates or the financial subsidiary fails to meet or continue to comply with the requirements of § 362.18(c) and (d), if applicable, and the FDIC has not granted an exception under the procedures set forth in § 362.18(e) and in § 303.122(b) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification by state nonmember bank.</I> An insured state nonmember bank that controls or holds an interest in a financial subsidiary must promptly notify the FDIC if the bank becomes aware that any depository institution affiliate of the bank has ceased to be well-capitalized. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subsequent action by FDIC.</I> The FDIC may take any appropriate action or impose any limitations, including requiring that the insured state nonmember bank to divest control of any such financial subsidiary, on the conduct or activities of the insured state nonmember bank or any financial subsidiary of the insured state bank that fails to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the requirements listed in § 362.18(a) and (b) at the time that any new section 46 activity is commenced or control of a financial subsidiary is acquired by an insured state nonmember bank; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Meet and continue to meet the requirements listed in § 362.18(c) and (d), as applicable. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Coordination with section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I>—(1) <I>Continuing authority under section 24.</I> Notwithstanding § 362.18(a) through (f), an insured state bank may retain its interest in any subsidiary: 
</P>
<P>(i) That was conducting a financial activity with authorization in accordance with section 24 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a) and the applicable implementing regulation found in subpart A of this part 362 before the date on which any such activity became for the first time permissible for a financial subsidiary of a national bank; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Which insured state nonmember bank and its subsidiary continue to meet the conditions and restrictions of the section 24 order or regulation approving the activity as well as other applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Continuing authority under section 24(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.</I> Notwithstanding § 362.18(a) through (f), an insured state bank with authority under section 24(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831a(f)) to hold equity securities may continue to establish new subsidiaries to engage in that investment activity. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relief from conditions.</I> Any state nonmember bank that meets the requirements of paragraph (g)(1) of this section or that is subject to section 46(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w(b)) may submit an application in compliance with § 303.121 of this chapter and seek the consent of the FDIC under the procedure in § 303.122(b) of this chapter for modification of any conditions or restrictions the FDIC previously imposed in connection with a section 24 order or regulation approving the activity. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>New financial subsidiaries.</I> Notwithstanding subpart A of this part 362, an insured state bank may not, on or after November 12, 1999, acquire control of, or acquire an interest in, a financial subsidiary that engages in activities as principal or commences any new activity under section 46(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w) other than as provided in this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 66326, Dec. 1, 1998, as amended at 78 FR 55596, Sept. 10, 2013]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="363" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 363—ANNUAL INDEPENDENT AUDITS AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1831m.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 363.0" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.0   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The information collection requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under OMB control number 3064-0113.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.1   Scope and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to any insured depository institution with respect to any fiscal year in which its consolidated total assets as of the beginning of such fiscal year are $1 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more. The requirements specified in this part are in addition to any other statutory and regulatory requirements otherwise applicable to an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance by subsidiaries of holding companies.</I> (1) For an insured depository institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company, the audited financial statements requirement of § 363.2(a) may be satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) For fiscal years ending on or before June 14, 2010, by audited consolidated financial statements of the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company.
</P>
<P>(ii) For fiscal years ending on or after June 15, 2010, by audited consolidated financial statements of the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company provided that the consolidated total assets of the insured depository institution (or the consolidated total assets of all of the holding company's insured depository institution subsidiaries, regardless of size, if the holding company owns or controls more than one insured depository institution) comprise 75 percent or more of the consolidated total assets of this top-tier or mid-tier holding company as of the beginning of its fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) The other requirements of this part for an insured depository institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company may be satisfied by the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company if the insured depository institution meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1) and if:
</P>
<P>(i) The services and functions comparable to those required of the insured depository institution by this part are provided at this top-tier or mid-tier holding company level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The insured depository institution has as of the beginning of its fiscal year:
</P>
<P>(A) Total assets of less than $5 billion; or
</P>
<P>(B) Total assets of $5 billion or more and a composite CAMELS rating of 1 or 2.
</P>
<P>(3) The appropriate Federal banking agency may revoke the exception in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for any institution with total assets in excess of $9 billion for any period of time during which the appropriate Federal banking agency determines that the institution's exemption would create a significant risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial reporting.</I> For purposes of the management report requirement of § 363.2(b) and the internal control reporting requirement of § 363.3(b), “financial reporting,” at a minimum, includes both financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles for the insured depository institution or its holding company and financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes. For recognition and measurement purposes, financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes shall conform to generally accepted accounting principles and section 37 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>AICPA</I> means the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>PCAOB</I> means the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public company</I> means an insured depository institution or other company that has a class of securities registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission or the appropriate Federal banking agency under Section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and <I>nonpublic company</I> means an insured depository institution or other company that does not meet the definition of a <I>public company.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) <I>SEC</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>SOX</I> means the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 85 FR 67433, Oct. 23, 2020; 86 FR 66155, Nov. 22, 2021; 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.2   Annual reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Audited financial statements.</I> Each insured depository institution shall prepare annual financial statements in accordance with GAAP, which shall be audited by an independent public accountant. The annual financial statements must reflect all material correcting adjustments necessary to conform with GAAP that were identified by the independent public accountant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management report.</I> Each insured depository institution annually shall prepare, as of the end of the institution's most recent fiscal year, a management report that must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of management's responsibilities for preparing the institution's annual financial statements, for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, and for complying with laws and regulations relating to safety and soundness that are designated by the FDIC and the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(2) An assessment by management of the insured depository institution's compliance with such laws and regulations during such fiscal year. The assessment must state management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution has complied with the designated safety and soundness laws and regulations during the fiscal year and disclose any noncompliance with these laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(3) For an insured depository institution with consolidated total assets of $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more as of the beginning of such fiscal year, an assessment by management of the effectiveness of such internal control structure and procedures as of the end of such fiscal year that must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement identifying the internal control framework 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> used by management to evaluate the effectiveness of the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> For example, in the United States, the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) of the Treadway Commission has published <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework,</I> including an addendum on safeguarding assets. Known as the COSO report, this publication provides a suitable and available framework for purposes of management's assessment.</P></FTNT>
<P>(ii) A statement that the assessment included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement expressing management's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of its fiscal year. Management must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting, if any, that it has identified that have not been remediated prior to the insured depository institution's fiscal year-end. Management is precluded from concluding that the institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Management report signatures.</I> Subject to the criteria specified in § 363.1(b):
</P>
<P>(1) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the insured depository institution level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the holding company level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officer and the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the holding company; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the audited financial statements requirement specified in § 363.2(a) is satisfied at the holding company level and (i) the management report requirement specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied in its entirety at the insured depository institution level or (ii) one or more of the components of the management report specified in § 363.2(b) is satisfied at the holding company level and the remaining components of the management report are satisfied at the insured depository institution level, the management report must be signed by the chief executive officers and the chief accounting officers or chief financial officers of both the holding company and the insured depository institution and the management report must clearly indicate the level (institution or holding company) at which each of its components is being satisfied.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.3   Independent public accountant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual audit of financial statements.</I> Each insured depository institution shall engage an independent public accountant to audit and report on its annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards or the PCAOB's auditing standards, if applicable, and section 37 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831n). The scope of the audit engagement shall be sufficient to permit such accountant to determine and report whether the financial statements are presented fairly and in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Internal control over financial reporting.</I> For each insured depository institution with total assets of $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more at the beginning of the institution's fiscal year, the independent public accountant who audits the institution's financial statements shall examine, attest to, and report separately on the assertion of management concerning the effectiveness of the institution's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting. The attestation and report shall be made in accordance with generally accepted standards for attestation engagements or the PCAOB's auditing standards, if applicable. The accountant's report must not be dated prior to the date of the management report and management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting. Notwithstanding the requirements set forth in applicable professional standards, the accountant's report must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement identifying the internal control framework used by the independent public accountant, which must be the same as the internal control framework used by management, to evaluate the effectiveness of the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the independent public accountant's evaluation included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement expressing the independent public accountant's conclusion as to whether the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of its fiscal year. The report must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting that the independent public accountant has identified that have not been remediated prior to the insured depository institution's fiscal year-end. The independent public accountant is precluded from concluding that the insured depository institution's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice by accountant of termination of services.</I> An independent public accountant performing an audit under this part who ceases to be the accountant for an insured depository institution shall notify the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor in writing of such termination within 15 days after the occurrence of such event, and set forth in reasonable detail the reasons for such termination. The written notice shall be filed at the place identified in § 363.4(f).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communications with audit committee.</I> In addition to the requirements for communications with audit committees set forth in applicable professional standards, the independent public accountant must report the following on a timely basis to the audit committee:
</P>
<P>(1) All critical accounting policies and practices to be used by the insured depository institution,
</P>
<P>(2) All alternative accounting treatments within GAAP for policies and practices related to material items that the independent public accountant has discussed with management, including the ramifications of the use of such alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the independent public accountant, and
</P>
<P>(3) Other written communications the independent public accountant has provided to management, such as a management letter or schedule of unadjusted differences.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retention of working papers.</I> The independent public accountant must retain the working papers related to the audit of the insured depository institution's financial statements and, if applicable, the evaluation of the institution's internal control over financial reporting for seven years from the report release date, unless a longer period of time is required by law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Independence.</I> The independent public accountant must comply with the independence standards and interpretations of the AICPA, the SEC, and the PCAOB. To the extent that any of the rules within any one of these independence standards (AICPA, SEC, and PCAOB) is more or less restrictive than the corresponding rule in the other independence standards, the independent public accountant must comply with the more restrictive rule.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Peer reviews and inspection reports.</I> (1) Prior to commencing any services for an insured depository institution under this part, the independent public accountant must have received a peer review, or be enrolled in a peer review program, that meets acceptable guidelines. Acceptable peer reviews include peer reviews performed in accordance with the AICPA's Peer Review Standards and inspections conducted by the PCAOB.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 days of receiving notification that a peer review has been accepted or a PCAOB inspection report has been issued, or before commencing any audit under this part, whichever is earlier, the independent public accountant must file two copies of the most recent peer review report and the public portion of the most recent PCAOB inspection report, if any, accompanied by any letters of comments, response, and acceptance, with the FDIC, Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429, if the report has not already been filed. The peer review reports and the public portions of the PCAOB inspection reports will be made available for public inspection by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(3) Within 15 days of the PCAOB making public a previously nonpublic portion of an inspection report, the independent public accountant must file two copies of the previously nonpublic portion of the inspection report with the FDIC, Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. Such previously nonpublic portion of the PCAOB inspection report will be made available for public inspection by the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.4   Filing and notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Part 363 Annual Report.</I> (1) Each insured depository institution shall file with each of the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor, two copies of its Part 363 Annual Report. A Part 363 Annual Report must contain audited comparative annual financial statements, the independent public accountant's report thereon, a management report, and, if applicable, the independent public accountant's attestation report on management's assessment concerning the institution's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting as required by §§ 363.2(a), 363.3(a), 363.2(b), and 363.3(b), respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the criteria specified in § 363.1(b), each insured depository institution with consolidated total assets of less than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of its fiscal year that is required to file, or whose parent holding company is required to file, management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting with the SEC or the appropriate Federal banking agency in accordance with section 404 of SOX must submit a copy of such assessment to the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor with its Part 363 Annual Report as additional information. This assessment will not be considered part of the institution's Part 363 Annual Report.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Each insured depository institution that is neither a public company nor a subsidiary of a public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1) shall file its Part 363 Annual Report within 120 days after the end of its fiscal year. (ii) Each insured depository institution that is a public company or a subsidiary of public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1) shall file its Part 363 Annual Report within 90 days after the end of its fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public availability.</I> Except for the annual report in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the peer reviews and inspection reports in § 363.3(g), which shall be available for public inspection, the FDIC has determined that all other reports and notifications required by this part are exempt from public disclosure by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent public accountant's letters and reports.</I> Except for the independent public accountant's reports that are included in its Part 363 Annual Report, each insured depository institution shall file with the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor, a copy of any management letter or other report issued by its independent public accountant with respect to such institution and the services provided by such accountant pursuant to this part within 15 days after receipt. Such reports include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any written communication regarding matters that are required to be communicated to the audit committee (for example, critical accounting policies, alternative accounting treatments discussed with management, and any schedule of unadjusted differences),
</P>
<P>(2) Any written communication of significant deficiencies and material weaknesses in internal control required by the AICPA's or the PCAOB's auditing standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For institutions with total assets of less than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of their fiscal year that are public companies or subsidiaries of public companies that meet the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1), any independent public accountant's report on the audit of internal control over financial reporting required by section 404 of SOX and the PCAOB's auditing standards; and
</P>
<P>(4) For all institutions that are public companies or subsidiaries of public companies that meet the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1), any independent public accountant's written communication of all deficiencies in internal control over financial reporting that are of a lesser magnitude than significant deficiencies required by the PCAOB's auditing standards.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of engagement or change of accountants.</I> Each insured depository institution shall provide, within 15 days after the occurrence of any such event, written notice to the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor of the engagement of an independent public accountant, or the resignation or dismissal of the independent public accountant previously engaged. The notice shall include a statement of the reasons for any such resignation or dismissal in reasonable detail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of late filing.</I> No extensions of time for filing reports required by § 363.4 shall be granted. An insured depository institution that is unable to timely file all or any portion of its Part 363 Annual Report or any other report or notice required by § 363.4 shall submit a written notice of late filing to the FDIC, the appropriate Federal banking agency, and any appropriate State bank supervisor. The notice shall disclose the institution's inability to timely file all or specified portions of its Part 363 Annual Report or any other report or notice and the reasons therefore in reasonable detail. The late filing notice shall also state the date by which the report or notice will be filed. The written notice shall be filed on or before the deadline for filing the Part 363 Annual Report or any other report or notice, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Place for filing.</I> The Part 363 Annual Report, any written notification of late filing, and any other report or notice required by § 363.4 should be filed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FDIC:</I> Appropriate FDIC Regional or Area Office (Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection), <I>i.e.,</I> the FDIC regional or area office in the FDIC region or area that is responsible for monitoring the institution or, in the case of a subsidiary institution of a holding company, the consolidated company. A filing made on behalf of several covered institutions owned by the same parent holding company should be accompanied by a transmittal letter identifying all of the institutions covered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC):</I> Appropriate OCC Supervisory Office.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Federal Reserve:</I> Appropriate Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS):</I> Appropriate OTS District Office.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>State bank supervisor:</I> The filing office of the appropriate State bank supervisor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.5   Audit committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Composition and duties.</I> Each insured depository institution shall establish an audit committee of its board of directors, the composition of which complies with paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section. The duties of the audit committee shall include the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the independent public accountant who performs services required under this part, and reviewing with management and the independent public accountant the basis for the reports issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Each insured depository institution with total assets of $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more as of the beginning of its fiscal year shall establish an independent audit committee of its board of directors, the members of which shall be outside directors who are independent of management of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Each insured depository institution with total assets of $1 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more but less than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of its fiscal year shall establish an audit committee of its board of directors, the members of which shall be outside directors, the majority of whom shall be independent of management of the institution. The appropriate Federal banking agency may, by order or regulation, permit the audit committee of such an insured depository institution to be made up of less than a majority of outside directors who are independent of management, if the agency determines that the institution has encountered hardships in retaining and recruiting a sufficient number of competent outside directors to serve on the audit committee of the institution.
</P>
<P>(3) An outside director is a director who is not, and within the preceding fiscal year has not been, an officer or employee of the institution or any affiliate of the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Committees of large institutions.</I> The audit committee of any insured depository institution with total assets of more than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of its fiscal year shall include members with banking or related financial management expertise, have access to its own outside counsel, and not include any large customers of the institution. If a large institution is a subsidiary of a holding company and relies on the audit committee of the holding company to comply with this rule, the holding company's audit committee shall not include any members who are large customers of the subsidiary institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent public accountant engagement letters.</I> (1) In performing its duties with respect to the appointment of the institution's independent public accountant, the audit committee shall ensure that engagement letters and any related agreements with the independent public accountant for services to be performed under this part do not contain any limitation of liability provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Indemnify the independent public accountant against claims made by third parties;
</P>
<P>(ii) Hold harmless or release the independent public accountant from liability for claims or potential claims that might be asserted by the client insured depository institution, other than claims for punitive damages; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Limit the remedies available to the client insured depository institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Alternative dispute resolution agreements and jury trial waiver provisions are not precluded from engagement letters provided that they do not incorporate any limitation of liability provisions set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 363.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 363.6   Discretion to exempt certain insured depository institutions from this part.</HEAD>
<P>If an insured depository institution likely will no longer be subject to a requirement of this part as a result of the application of a threshold adjusted in accordance with § 314.1 of this chapter that is scheduled to occur during the insured depository institution's current fiscal year, the appropriate Federal banking agency with respect to the insured depository institution may exercise discretion to not require compliance from the insured depository institution with respect to such requirement as of the beginning of the insured depository institution's current fiscal year. If the insured depository institution's total assets exceed such a threshold subsequent to the threshold adjustment occurring, the insured depository institution would be required to comply with the relevant requirement notwithstanding this section, unless the appropriate Federal banking agency again drew the same conclusion with respect to a future threshold adjustment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.8.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 363—Guidelines and Interpretations


</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Scope of Rule and Definitions (§ 363.1)
</FP-2>
<P>1. Measuring Total Assets
</P>
<P>2. Insured Branches of Foreign Banks
</P>
<P>3. Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries
</P>
<P>4. Comparable Services and Functions
</P>
<P>4A. Financial Reporting
</P>
<FP-2>Annual Reporting Requirements (§ 363.2) 
</FP-2>
<P>5. Annual Financial Statements
</P>
<P>5A. Institutions Merged out of Existence 
</P>
<P>6. Holding Company Statements 
</P>
<P>7. Insured Branches of Foreign Banks
</P>
<P>7A. Compliance with Designated Laws and Regulations 
</P>
<P>8. Management Report
</P>
<P>8A. Management's Reports on Internal Control over Financial Reporting under Part 363 and Section 404 of SOX
</P>
<P>8B. Internal Control Reports and Part 363 Annual Reports for Acquired Businesses
</P>
<P>8C. Management's Disclosure of Noncompliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations
</P>
<P>9. Safeguarding of Assets
</P>
<P>10. Standards for Internal Control 
</P>
<P>11. Service Organizations 
</P>
<P>12. Reserved
</P>
<FP-2>Role of Independent Public Accountant (§ 363.3) 
</FP-2>
<P>13. General Qualifications 
</P>
<P>14. Reserved 
</P>
<P>15. Peer Review Guidelines 
</P>
<P>16. Reserved 
</P>
<P>17. Information to be Provided to the Independent Public Accountant 
</P>
<P>18. Attestation Report and Management Letters
</P>
<P>18A. Internal Control Attestation Standards for Independent Auditors
</P>
<P>19. Reviews with Audit Committee and Management 
</P>
<P>20. Notice of Termination 
</P>
<P>21. Reliance on Internal Auditors 
</P>
<FP-2>Filing and Notice Requirements (§ 363.4) 
</FP-2>
<P>22. Reserved 
</P>
<P>23. Notification of Late Filing 
</P>
<P>24. Public Availability 
</P>
<P>25. Reserved 
</P>
<P>26. Notices Concerning Accountants 
</P>
<FP-2>Audit Committees (§ 363.5) 
</FP-2>
<P>27. Composition 
</P>
<P>28. “Independent of Management” Considerations 
</P>
<P>29. Reserved 
</P>
<P>30. Holding Company Audit Committees 
</P>
<P>31. Duties 
</P>
<P>32. Banking or Related Financial Management Expertise 
</P>
<P>33. Large Customers 
</P>
<P>34. Access to Counsel 
</P>
<P>35. Transition Period for Forming and Restructuring Audit Committees
</P>
<FP-2>Other 
</FP-2>
<P>36. Modifications of Guidelines 
</P>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Congress added section 36, “Early Identification of Needed Improvements in Financial Management” (section 36), to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act) in 1991.
</P>
<P>The FDIC Board of Directors adopted 12 CFR part 363 of its rules and regulations (the Rule) to implement those provisions of section 36 that require rulemaking. The FDIC also approved these “Guidelines and Interpretations” (the Guidelines) and directed that they be published with the Rule to facilitate a better understanding of, and full compliance with, the provisions of section 36.
</P>
<P>Although not contained in the Rule itself, some of the guidance offered restates or refers to statutory requirements of section 36 and is therefore mandatory. If that is the case, the statutory provision is cited.
</P>
<P>Furthermore, upon adopting the Rule, the FDIC reiterated its belief that every insured depository institution, regardless of its size or charter, should have an annual audit of its financial statements performed by an independent public accountant, and should establish an audit committee comprised entirely of outside directors.
</P>
<P>The following Guidelines reflect the views of the FDIC concerning the interpretation of section 36. The Guidelines are intended to assist insured depository institutions (institutions), their boards of directors, and their advisors, including their independent public accountants and legal counsel, and to clarify section 36 and the Rule. It is recognized that reliance on the Guidelines may result in compliance with section 36 and the Rule which may vary from institution to institution. Terms which are not explained in the Guidelines have the meanings given them in the Rule, the FDI Act, or professional accounting and auditing literature.
</P>
<HD1>Scope of Rule and Definitions (§ 363.1)
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Measuring Total Assets.</I> To determine whether this part applies, an institution should use total assets as reported on its most recent Report of Condition (Call Report) or Thrift Financial Report (TFR), the date of which coincides with the end of its preceding fiscal year. If its fiscal year ends on a date other than the end of a calendar quarter, it should use its Call Report or TFR for the quarter end immediately preceding the end of its fiscal year.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insured Branches of Foreign Banks.</I> Unlike other institutions, insured branches of foreign banks are not separately incorporated or capitalized. To determine whether this part applies, an insured branch should measure claims on non-related parties reported on its Report of Assets and Liabilities of U.S. Branches and Agencies of Foreign Banks (form FFIEC 002).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries.</I> Audited consolidated financial statements and other reports or notices required by this part that are submitted by a holding company for any subsidiary institution should be accompanied by a cover letter identifying all subsidiary institutions subject to part 363 that are included in the holding company's submission. When submitting a Part 363 Annual Report, the cover letter should identify all subsidiary institutions subject to part 363 included in the consolidated financial statements and state whether the other annual report requirements (<I>i.e.,</I> management's statement of responsibilities, management's assessment of compliance with designated safety and soundness laws and regulations, and, if applicable, management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting and the independent public accountant's attestation report on management's internal control assessment) are being satisfied for these institutions at the holding company level or at the institution level. An institution filing holding company consolidated financial statements as permitted by § 363.1(b)(1) also may report on changes in its independent public accountant on a holding company basis. An institution that does not meet the criteria in § 363.1(b)(2) must satisfy the remaining provisions of this part on an individual institution basis and maintain its own audit committee. Subject to the criteria in §§ 363.1(b)(1) and (2), a multi-tiered holding company may satisfy all of the requirements of this part at the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company level.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Comparable Services and Functions.</I> Services and functions will be considered “comparable” to those required by this part if the holding company:
</P>
<P>(a) Prepares reports used by the subsidiary institution to meet the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Has an audit committee that meets the requirements of this part appropriate to its largest subsidiary institution; and
</P>
<P>(c) Prepares and submits management's assessment of compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations defined in guideline 7A and, if applicable, management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting based on information concerning the relevant activities and operations of those subsidiary institutions within the scope of the Rule.
</P>
<P>4A. <I>Financial Statements Prepared for Regulatory Reporting Purposes.</I> (a) As set forth in § 363.3(c) of this part, “financial reporting,” at a minimum, includes both financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles for the insured depository institution or its holding company and financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes. More specifically, financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes include the schedules equivalent to the basic financial statements that are included in an insured depository institution's or its holding company's appropriate regulatory report (for example, Schedules RC, RI, and RI-A in the Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report) for an insured bank; and Schedules SC and SO, and the Summary of Changes in Equity Capital section in Schedule SI in the Thrift Financial Report (TFR) for an insured thrift institution). For recognition and measurement purposes, financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes shall conform to generally accepted accounting principles and section 37 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes do not include regulatory reports prepared by a non-bank subsidiary of a holding company or an institution. For example, if a bank holding company or an insured depository institution owns an insurance subsidiary, financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes would not include any regulatory reports that the insurance subsidiary is required to submit to its appropriate insurance regulatory agency.
</P>
<HD1>Annual Reporting Requirements (§ 363.2)
</HD1>
<P>5. <I>Annual Financial Statements.</I> Each institution (other than an insured branch of a foreign bank) should prepare comparative annual consolidated financial statements (balance sheets and statements of income, changes in equity capital, and cash flows, with accompanying footnote disclosures) in accordance with GAAP for each of its two most recent fiscal years. Statements for the earlier year may be presented on an unaudited basis if the institution was not subject to this part for that year and audited statements were not prepared.
</P>
<P>5A. <I>Institutions Merged Out of Existence.</I> An institution that is merged out of existence after the end of its fiscal year, but before the deadline for filing its Part 363 Annual Report (120 days after the end of its fiscal year for an institution that is neither a public company nor a subsidiary of a public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1), and 90 days after the end of its fiscal year for an institution that is a public company or a subsidiary of a public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1)), is not required to file a Part 363 Annual Report for the last fiscal year of its existence.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Holding Company Statements.</I> Subject to the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1), subsidiary institutions may file copies of their holding company's audited financial statements filed with the SEC or prepared for their FR Y-6 Annual Report under the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 to satisfy the audited financial statements requirement of § 363.2(a).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Insured Branches of Foreign Banks.</I> An insured branch of a foreign bank should satisfy the financial statements requirement by filing one of the following for each of its two most recent fiscal years:
</P>
<P>(a) Audited balance sheets, disclosing information about financial instruments with off-balance-sheet risk;
</P>
<P>(b) Schedules RAL and L of form FFIEC 002, prepared and audited on the basis of the instructions for its preparation; or
</P>
<P>(c) With written approval of the appropriate Federal banking agency, consolidated financial statements of the parent bank.
</P>
<P>7A. <I>Compliance with Designated Laws and Regulations.</I> The designated laws and regulations are the Federal laws and regulations concerning loans to insiders and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations concerning dividend restrictions (the Designated Laws and Regulations). Table 1 to this Appendix A lists the designated Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and dividend restrictions (but not the State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions) that are applicable to each type of institution.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Management Report.</I> Management should perform its own investigation and review of compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations and, if required, the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting. Management should maintain records of its determinations and assessments until the next Federal safety and soundness examination, or such later date as specified by the FDIC or the appropriate Federal banking agency. Management should provide in its assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, or supplementally, sufficient information to enable the accountant to report on its assertions. The management report of an insured branch of a foreign bank should be signed by the branch's managing official if the branch does not have a chief executive officer or a chief accounting or financial officer.
</P>
<P>8A. <I>Management's Reports on Internal Control over Financial Reporting under Part 363 and Section 404 of SOX.</I> An institution with $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more in total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year that is subject to both part 363 and the SEC's rules implementing section 404 of SOX (as well as a public holding company permitted under the holding company exception in § 363.1(b)(2) to file an internal control report on behalf of one or more subsidiary institutions with $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more in total assets) can choose either of the following two options for filing management's report on internal control over financial reporting.
</P>
<P>(i) Management can prepare two separate reports on the institution's or the holding company's internal control over financial reporting to satisfy the FDIC's part 363 requirements and the SEC's section 404 requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Management can prepare a single report on internal control over financial reporting provided that it satisfies all of the FDIC's part 363 requirements and all of the SEC's section 404 requirements.
</P>
<P>8B. <I>Internal Control Reports and Part 363 Annual Reports for Acquired Businesses.</I> Generally, the FDIC expects management's and the related independent public accountant's report on an institution's internal control over financial reporting to include controls at an institution in its entirety, including all of its consolidated entities. However, it may not always be possible for management to conduct an assessment of the internal control over financial reporting of an acquired business in the period between the consummation date of the acquisition and the due date of management's internal control assessment.
</P>
<P>(a) In such instances, the acquired business's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting may be excluded from management's assessment report and the accountant's attestation report on internal control over financial reporting. However, the FDIC expects management's assessment report to identify the acquired business, state that the acquired business is excluded, and indicate the significance of this business to the institution's consolidated financial statements. Notwithstanding management's exclusion of the acquired business's internal control from its assessment, management should disclose any material change to the institution's internal control over financial reporting due to the acquisition of this business. Also, management may not omit the assessment of the acquired business's internal control from more than one annual part 363 assessment report on internal control over financial reporting. When the acquired business's internal control over financial reporting is excluded from management's assessment, the independent public accountant may likewise exclude this acquired business's internal control over financial reporting from the accountant's evaluation of internal control over financial reporting.
</P>
<P>(b) If the acquired business is or has a consolidated subsidiary that is an insured depository institution subject to part 363 and the institution is not merged out of existence before the deadline for filing its Part 363 Annual Report (120 days after the end of its fiscal year for an institution that is neither a public company nor a subsidiary of a public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1), and 90 days after the end of its fiscal year for an institution that is a public company or a subsidiary of public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1)), the acquired institution must continue to comply with all of the applicable requirements of part 363, including filing its Part 363 Annual Report.
</P>
<P>8C. <I>Management's Disclosure of Noncompliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations.</I> Management's disclosure of noncompliance, if any, with the Designated Laws and Regulations should separately indicate the number of instances or frequency of noncompliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal (and, if applicable, State) laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions. The disclosure is not required to specifically identify by name the individuals (<I>e.g.,</I> officers or directors) who were responsible for or were the subject of any such noncompliance. However, the disclosure should include appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount of the insider loan(s) or dividend(s) involved. Similar instances of noncompliance may be aggregated as to number of instances and quantified as to the dollar amounts or the range of dollar amounts of insider loans and/or dividends for which noncompliance occurred. Management may also wish to describe any corrective actions taken in response to the instances of noncompliance as well any controls or procedures that are being developed or that have been developed and implemented to prevent or detect and correct future instances of noncompliance on a timely basis.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Safeguarding of Assets.</I> “Safeguarding of assets,” as the term relates to internal control policies and procedures regarding financial reporting and which has precedent in accounting and auditing literature, should be encompassed in the management report and the independent public accountant's attestation discussed in guideline 18. Testing the existence of and compliance with internal controls on the management of assets, including loan underwriting and documentation, represents a reasonable implementation of section 36. The FDIC expects such internal controls to be encompassed by the assertion in the management report, but the term “safeguarding of assets” need not be specifically stated. The FDIC does not require the accountant to attest to the adequacy of safeguards, but does require the accountant to determine whether safeguarding policies exist.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> It is management's responsibility to establish policies concerning underwriting and asset management and to make credit decisions. The auditor's role is to test compliance with management's policies relating to financial reporting.</P></FTNT>
<P>10. <I>Standards for Internal Control.</I> The management of each insured depository institution with $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more in total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year should base its assessment of the effectiveness of the institution's internal control over financial reporting on a suitable, recognized control framework established by a body of experts that followed due-process procedures, including the broad distribution of the framework for public comment. In addition to being available to users of management's reports, a framework is suitable only when it:
</P>
<P>• Is free from bias;
</P>
<P>• Permits reasonably consistent qualitative and quantitative measurements of an institution's internal control over financial reporting;
</P>
<P>• Is sufficiently complete so that those relevant factors that would alter a conclusion about the effectiveness of an institution's internal control over financial reporting are not omitted; and
</P>
<P>• Is relevant to an evaluation of internal control over financial reporting.
</P>
<P>In the United States, <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework,</I> including its addendum on safeguarding assets, which was published by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission, and is known as the COSO report, provides a suitable and recognized framework for purposes of management's assessment. Other suitable frameworks have been published in other countries or may be developed in the future. Such other suitable frameworks may be used by management and the institution's independent public accountant in assessments, attestations, and audits of internal control over financial reporting.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Service Organizations.</I> Although service organizations should be considered in determining if internal control over financial reporting is effective, an institution's independent public accountant, its management, and its audit committee should exercise independent judgment concerning that determination. Onsite reviews of service organizations may not be necessary to prepare the report required by the Rule, and the FDIC does not intend that the Rule establish any such requirement.
</P>
<P>12. [Reserved]
</P>
<HD1>Role of Independent Public Accountant (§ 363.3)
</HD1>
<P>13. <I>General Qualifications.</I> To provide audit and attest services to insured depository institutions, an independent public accountant should be registered or licensed to practice as a public accountant, and be in good standing, under the laws of the State or other political subdivision of the United States in which the home office of the institution (or the insured branch of a foreign bank) is located. As required by section 36(g)(3)(A)(i), the accountant must agree to provide copies of any working papers, policies, and procedures relating to services performed under this part.
</P>
<P>14. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>15. <I>Peer Review Guidelines.</I> The following peer review guidelines are acceptable:
</P>
<P>(a) The external peer review should be conducted by an organization independent of the accountant or firm being reviewed, as frequently as is consistent with professional accounting practices;
</P>
<P>(b) The peer review (other than a PCAOB inspection) should be generally consistent with AICPA Peer Review Standards; and
</P>
<P>(c) The review should include, if available, at least one audit on an insured depository institution or consolidated depository institution holding company.
</P>
<P>16. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>17. <I>Information to be Provided to the Independent Public Accountant.</I> Attention is directed to section 36(h) which requires institutions to provide specified information to their accountants. An institution also should provide its accountant with copies of any notice that the institution's capital category is being changed or reclassified under section 38 of the FDI Act, and any correspondence from the appropriate Federal banking agency concerning compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Attestation Report and Management Letters.</I> The independent public accountant should provide the institution with any management letter and, if applicable, an internal control attestation report (as required by section 36(c)(1)) at the conclusion of the audit. The independent public accountant's attestation report on internal control over financial reporting must specifically include a statement as to regulatory reporting. If a holding company subsidiary relies on its holding company's management report to satisfy the Part 363 Annual Report requirements, the accountant may attest to and report on the management's assertions in one report, without reporting separately on each subsidiary covered by the Rule. The FDIC has determined that management letters are exempt from public disclosure.
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<P>18A. <I>Internal Control Attestation Standards for Independent Auditors.</I> (a) § 363.3(b) provides that the independent public accountant's attestation and report on management's assertion concerning the effectiveness of an institution's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting shall be made in accordance with generally accepted standards for attestation engagements or the PCAOB's auditing standards, if applicable. The standards that should be followed by the institution's independent public accountant concerning internal control over financial reporting for institutions with $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more in total assets can be summarized as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For an insured institution that is neither a public company nor a subsidiary of a public company, its independent public accountant need only follow the AICPA's attestation standards.
</P>
<P>(2) For an insured institution that is a public company that is required to comply with the auditor attestation requirement of section 404 of SOX, its independent public accountant should follow the PCAOB's auditing standards.
</P>
<P>(3) For an insured institution that is a public company but is not required to comply with the auditor attestation requirement of section 404 of SOX, its independent public accountant is not required to follow the PCAOB's auditing standards. In this case, the accountant need only follow the AICPA's attestation standards.
</P>
<P>(4) For an insured institution that is a subsidiary of a public company that is required to comply with the auditor attestation requirement of section 404 of SOX, but is not itself a public company, the institution and its independent public accountant have flexibility in complying with the internal control requirements of part 363. If the conditions specified in § 363.1(b)(2) are met, management and the independent public accountant may choose to report on internal control over financial reporting at the consolidated holding company level. In this situation, the independent public accountant's work would be performed for the public company in accordance with the PCAOB's auditing standards. Alternatively, the institution may choose to comply with the internal control reporting requirements of part 363 at the institution level and its independent public accountant could follow the AICPA's attestation standards.
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<P>(b) If an independent public accountant need only follow the AICPA's attestation standards, the accountant and the insured institution may instead agree to have the internal control attestation performed under the PCAOB's auditing standards.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Reviews with Audit Committee and Management.</I> The independent public accountant should meet with the institution's audit committee to review the accountant's reports required by this part before they are filed. It also may be appropriate for the accountant to review its findings with the institution's board of directors and management.
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<P>20. <I>Notice of Termination.</I> The notice of termination required by § 363.3(c) should state whether the independent public accountant agrees with the assertions contained in any notice filed by the institution under § 363.4(d), and whether the institution's notice discloses all relevant reasons for the accountant's termination. Subject to the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1) regarding compliance with the audited financial statements requirement at the holding company level, the independent public accountant for an insured depository institution that is a public company and files reports with its appropriate Federal banking agency, or is a subsidiary of a public company that files reports with the SEC, may submit the letter it furnished to management to be filed with the institution's or the holding company's current report (<I>e.g.,</I> SEC Form 8-K) concerning a change in accountant to satisfy the notice requirements of § 363.3(c). Alternatively, if the independent public accountant confirms that management has filed a current report (<I>e.g.,</I> SEC Form 8-K) concerning a change in accountant that satisfies the notice requirements of § 363.4(d) and includes an independent public accountant's letter that satisfies the requirements of § 363.3(c), the independent public accountant may rely on the current report (<I>e.g.,</I> SEC Form 8-K) filed with the FDIC by management concerning a change in accountant to satisfy the notice requirements of § 363.3(c).
</P>
<P>21. <I>Reliance on Internal Auditors.</I> Nothing in this part or this Appendix is intended to preclude the ability of the independent public accountant to rely on the work of an institution's internal auditor.
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<HD1>Filing and Notice Requirements (§ 363.4)
</HD1>
<P>22. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>23. <I>Notification of Late Filing.</I> (a) An institution's submission of a written notice of late filing does not cure the requirement to timely file the Part 363 Annual Report or other reports or notices required by § 363.4. An institution's failure to timely file is considered an apparent violation of part 363.
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<P>(b) If the late filing notice submitted pursuant to § 363.4(e) relates only to a portion of a Part 363 Annual Report or any other report or notice, the insured depository institution should file the other components of the report or notice within the prescribed filing period together with a cover letter that indicates which components of its Part 363 Annual Report or other report or notice are omitted. An institution may combine the written late filing notice and the cover letter into a single notice that is submitted together with the other components of the report or notice that are being timely filed.
</P>
<P>24. <I>Public Availability.</I> Each institution's Part 363 Annual Report should be available for public inspection at its main and branch offices no later than 15 days after it is filed with the FDIC. Alternatively, an institution may elect to mail one copy of its Part 363 Annual Report to any person who requests it. The Part 363 Annual Report should remain available to the public until the Part 363 Annual Report for the next year is available. An institution may use its Part 363 Annual Report under this part to meet the annual disclosure statement required by 12 CFR 350.3, if the institution satisfies all other requirements of 12 CFR Part 350.
</P>
<P>25. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>26. <I>Notices Concerning Accountants.</I> With respect to any selection, change, or termination of an independent public accountant, an institution's management and audit committee should be familiar with the notice requirements in § 363.4(d) and guideline 20, and management should send a copy of any notice required under § 363.4(d) to the independent public accountant when it is filed with the FDIC. An insured depository institution that is a public company and files reports required under the Federal securities laws with its appropriate Federal banking agency, or is a subsidiary of a public company that files such reports with the SEC, may use its current report (<I>e.g.,</I> SEC Form 8-K) concerning a change in accountant to satisfy the notice requirements of § 363.4(d) subject to the criterion of § 363.1(b)(1) regarding compliance with the audited financial statements requirement at the holding company level.
</P>
<HD1>Audit Committees (§ 363.5)
</HD1>
<P>27. <I>Composition.</I> The board of directors of each institution should determine whether each existing or potential audit committee member meets the requirements of section 36 and this part. To do so, the board of directors should maintain an approved set of written criteria for determining whether a director who is to serve on the audit committee is an outside director (as defined in § 363.5(a)(3)) and is independent of management. At least annually, the board of each institution should determine whether each existing or potential audit committee member is an outside director. In addition, at least annually, the board of an institution with $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more in total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year should determine whether all existing and potential audit committee members are “independent of management of the institution” and the board of an institution with total assets of $1 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more but less than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of its fiscal year should determine whether the majority of all existing and potential audit committee members are “independent of management of the institution.” The minutes of the board of directors should contain the results of and the basis for its determinations with respect to each existing and potential audit committee member. Because an insured branch of a foreign bank does not have a separate board of directors, the FDIC will not apply the audit committee requirements to such branch. However, any such branch is encouraged to make a reasonable good faith effort to see that similar duties are performed by persons whose experience is generally consistent with the Rule's requirements for an institution the size of the insured branch.
</P>
<P>28. <I>“Independent of Management” Considerations.</I> It is not possible to anticipate, or explicitly provide for, all circumstances that might signal potential conflicts of interest in, or that might bear on, an outside director's relationship to an insured depository institution and whether the outside director should be deemed “independent of management.” When assessing an outside director's relationship with an institution, the board of directors should consider the issue not merely from the standpoint of the director himself or herself, but also from the standpoint of persons or organizations with which the director has an affiliation. These relationships can include, but are not limited to, commercial, banking, consulting, charitable, and family relationships. To assist boards of directors in fulfilling their responsibility to determine whether existing and potential members of the audit committee are “independent of management,” paragraphs (a) through (d) of this guideline provide guidance for making this determination.
</P>
<P>(a) If an outside director, either directly or indirectly, owns or controls, or has owned or controlled within the preceding fiscal year, 10 percent or more of any outstanding class of voting securities of the institution, the institution's board of directors should determine, and document its basis and rationale for such determination, whether such ownership of voting securities would interfere with the outside director's exercise of independent judgment in carrying out the responsibilities of an audit committee member, including the ability to evaluate objectively the propriety of management's accounting, internal control, and reporting policies and practices. Notwithstanding the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this guideline, if the board of directors determines that such ownership of voting securities would interfere with the outside director's exercise of independent judgment, the outside director will not be considered “independent of management.”
</P>
<P>(b) The following list sets forth additional criteria that, at a minimum, a board of directors should consider when determining whether an outside director is “independent of management.” The board of directors may conclude that additional criteria are also relevant to this determination in light of the particular circumstances of its institution. Accordingly, an outside director will not be considered “independent of management” if: (1) The director serves, or has served within the last three years, as a consultant, advisor, promoter, underwriter, legal counsel, or trustee of or to the institution or its affiliates.
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<P>(2) The director has been, within the last three years, an employee of the institution or any of its affiliates or an immediate family member is, or has been within the last three years, an executive officer of the institution or any of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) The director has participated in the preparation of the financial statements of the institution or any of its affiliates at any time during the last three years.
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<P>(4) The director has received, or has an immediate family member who has received, during any twelve-month period within the last three years, more than $120,000 in direct and indirect compensation from the institution, its subsidiaries, and its affiliates for consulting, advisory, or other services other than director and committee fees and pension or other forms of deferred compensation for prior service (provided such compensation is not contingent in any way on continued service). Direct compensation also would not include compensation received by the director for former service as an interim chairman or interim chief executive officer.
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<P>(5) The director or an immediate family member is a current partner of a firm that performs internal or external auditing services for the institution or any of its affiliates; the director is a current employee of such a firm; the director has an immediate family member who is a current employee of such a firm and who participates in the firm's audit, assurance, or tax compliance practice; or the director or an immediate family member was within the last three years (but no longer is) a partner or employee of such a firm and personally worked on the audit of the insured depository institution or any of its affiliates within that time.
</P>
<P>(6) The director or an immediate family member is, or has been within the last three years, employed as an executive officer of another entity where any of the present executive officers of the institution or any of its affiliates at the same time serves or served on that entity's compensation committee.
</P>
<P>(7) The director is a current employee, or an immediate family member is a current executive officer, of an entity that has made payments to, or received payments from, the institution or any of its affiliates for property or services in an amount which, in any of the last three fiscal years, exceeds the greater of $200 thousand, or 5 percent of such entity's consolidated gross revenues. This would include payments made by the institution or any of its affiliates to not-for-profit entities where the director is an executive officer or where an immediate family member of the director is an executive officer.
</P>
<P>(8) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this guideline:
</P>
<P>(i) An “immediate family member” includes a person's spouse, parents, children, siblings, mothers- and fathers-in-law, sons- and daughters-in-law, brothers- and sisters-in-law, and anyone (other than domestic employees) who shares such person's home.
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<P>(ii) The term affiliate of, or a person affiliated with, a specified person, means a person or entity that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term indirect compensation for consulting, advisory, or other services includes the acceptance of a fee for such services by a director's immediate family member or by an organization in which the director is a partner or principal that provides accounting, consulting, legal, investment banking, or financial advisory services to the institution, any of its subsidiaries, or any of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms direct and indirect compensation and payments do not include payments such as dividends arising solely from investments in the institution's equity securities, provided the same per share amounts are paid to all shareholders of that class; interest income from investments in the institution's deposit accounts and debt securities; loans from the institution that conform to all regulatory requirements applicable to such loans except that interest payments or other fees paid in association with such loans would be considered payments; and payments under non-discretionary charitable contribution matching programs.
</P>
<P>(c) An insured depository institution that is a public company and a listed issuer (as defined in Rule 10A-3 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (Exchange Act)), or is a subsidiary of a public company that meets the criterion specified in § 363.1(b)(1) and is a listed issuer, may choose to use the definition of audit committee member independence set forth in the listing standards applicable to the public institution or its public company parent for purposes of determining whether an outside director is “independent of management.”
</P>
<P>(d) All other insured depository institutions may choose to use the definition of audit committee member independence set forth in the listing standards of a national securities exchange that is registered with the SEC pursuant to section 6 of the Exchange Act or a national securities association that is registered with the SEC pursuant to section 15A(a) of the Exchange Act for purposes of determining whether an outside director is “independent of management.”
</P>
<P>29. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>30. <I>Holding Company Audit Committees.</I> (a) When an insured depository institution satisfies the requirements for the holding company exception specified in §§ 363.1(b)(1) and (2), the audit committee requirement of this part may be satisfied by the audit committee of the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company. Members of the audit committee of the holding company should meet all the membership requirements applicable to the largest subsidiary depository institution subject to part 363 and should perform all the duties of the audit committee of a subsidiary institution subject to part 363, even if the holding company directors are not directors of the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) When an insured depository institution subsidiary with total assets of $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more as of the beginning of its fiscal year does not meet the requirements for the holding company exception specified in §§ 363.1(b)(1) and (2) or maintains its own separate audit committee to satisfy the requirements of this part, the members of the audit committee of the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company may serve on the audit committee of the subsidiary institution if they are otherwise independent of management of the subsidiary institution, and, if applicable, meet any other requirements for a large subsidiary institution covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) When an insured depository institution with total assets of $1 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more but less than $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, as of the beginning of its fiscal year does not meet the requirements for the holding company exception specified in §§ 363.1(b)(1) and (2) or maintains its own separate audit committee to satisfy the requirements of this part, the members of the audit committee of the top-tier or any mid-tier holding company may serve on the audit committee of the subsidiary institution provided a majority of the institution's audit committee members are independent of management of the subsidiary institution.
</P>
<P>(d) Officers and employees of a top-tier or any mid-tier holding company may not serve on the audit committee of a subsidiary institution subject to part 363.
</P>
<P>31. <I>Duties.</I> The audit committee should perform all duties determined by the institution's board of directors and it should maintain minutes and other relevant records of its meetings and decisions. The duties of the audit committee should be appropriate to the size of the institution and the complexity of its operations, and, at a minimum, should include the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the independent public accountant; reviewing with management and the independent public accountant the basis for their respective reports issued under §§ 363.2(a) and (b) and §§ 363.3(a) and (b); reviewing and satisfying itself as to the independent public accountant's compliance with the required qualifications for independent public accountants set forth in §§ 363.3(f) and (g) and guidelines 13 through 16; ensuring that audit engagement letters comply with the provisions of § 363.5(c) before engaging an independent public accountant; being familiar with the notice requirements in § 363.4(d) and guideline 20 regarding the selection, change, or termination of an independent public accountant; and ensuring that management sends a copy of any notice required under § 363.4(d) to the independent public accountant when it is filed with the FDIC. Appropriate additional duties could include:
</P>
<P>(a) Reviewing with management and the independent public accountant the scope of services required by the audit, significant accounting policies, and audit conclusions regarding significant accounting estimates;
</P>
<P>(b) Reviewing with management and the accountant their assessments of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, and the resolution of identified material weaknesses and significant deficiencies in internal control over financial reporting, including the prevention or detection of management override or compromise of the internal control system;
</P>
<P>(c) Reviewing with management the institution's compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations identified in guideline 7A;
</P>
<P>(d) Discussing with management and the independent public accountant any significant disagreements between management and the independent public accountant; and
</P>
<P>(e) Overseeing the internal audit function.
</P>
<P>32. <I>Banking or Related Financial Management Expertise.</I> At least two members of the audit committee of a large institution shall have “banking or related financial management expertise” as required by section 36(g)(1)(C)(i). This determination is to be made by the board of directors of the insured depository institution. A person will be considered to have such required expertise if the person has significant executive, professional, educational, or regulatory experience in financial, auditing, accounting, or banking matters as determined by the board of directors. Significant experience as an officer or member of the board of directors or audit committee of a financial services company would satisfy these criteria. A person who has the attributes of an “audit committee financial expert” as set forth in the SEC's rules would also satisfy these criteria.
</P>
<P>33. <I>Large Customers.</I> Any individual or entity (including a controlling person of any such entity) which, in the determination of the board of directors, has such significant direct or indirect credit or other relationships with the institution, the termination of which likely would materially and adversely affect the institution's financial condition or results of operations, should be considered a “large customer” for purposes of § 363.5(b).
</P>
<P>34. <I>Access to Counsel.</I> The audit committee should be able to retain counsel at its discretion without prior permission of the institution's board of directors or its management. Section 36 does not preclude advice from the institution's internal counsel or regular outside counsel. It also does not require retaining or consulting counsel, but if the committee elects to do either, it also may elect to consider issues affecting the counsel's independence. Such issues would include whether to retain or consult only counsel not concurrently representing the institution or any affiliate, and whether to place limitations on any counsel representing the institution concerning matters in which such counsel previously participated personally and substantially as outside counsel to the committee.
</P>
<P>35. <I>Transition Period for Forming and Restructuring Audit Committees.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) When an insured depository institution's total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year are $1 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more for the first time and it thereby becomes subject to part 363, no regulatory action will be taken if the institution (1) develops and approves a set of written criteria for determining whether a director who is to serve on the audit committee is an outside director and is independent of management and (2) forms or restructures its audit committee to comply with § 363.5(a)(2) by the end of that fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) When an insured depository institution's total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year are $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more for the first time, no regulatory action will be taken if the institution forms or restructures its audit committee to comply with § 363.5(a)(1) by the end of that fiscal year, provided that the composition of its audit committee meets the requirements specified in § 363.5(a)(2) at the beginning of that fiscal year, if such requirements were applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) When an insured depository institution's total assets as of the beginning of its fiscal year are $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more for the first time, no regulatory action will be taken if the institution forms or restructures its audit committee to comply with § 363.5(b) by the end of that fiscal year, provided that the composition of its audit committee meets the requirements specified in § 363.5(a)(1) at the beginning of that fiscal year, if such requirements were applicable.
</P>
<HD1>Other
</HD1>
<P>36. <I>Modifications of Guidelines.</I> The FDIC's Board of Directors has delegated to the Director of the FDIC's Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection authority to make and publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> minor technical amendments to the Guidelines in this Appendix and the guidance and illustrative reports in Appendix B, in consultation with the other appropriate Federal banking agencies, to reflect the practical experience gained from implementation of this part. It is not anticipated any such modification would be effective until affected institutions have been given reasonable advance notice of the modification. Any material modification or amendment will be subject to review and approval of the FDIC Board of Directors.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix A—Designated Federal Laws and Regulations Applicable to:
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">National banks
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State member banks
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State
<br/>non-member banks
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Savings
<br/>associations
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row"><E T="02">Insider Loans—Parts and/or Sections of Title 12 of the United States Code</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">375a</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loans to Executive Officers of Banks</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(A)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(A)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">375b</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extensions of Credit to Executive Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders of Banks</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(A)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(A)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1468(b)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extensions of Credit to Executive Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1828(j)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extensions of Credit to Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1828(j)(3)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extensions of Credit to Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(B)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(C)
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row"><E T="02">Parts and/or Sections of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Extensions of Credit to Insiders</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">32</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lending Limits</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">215</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loans to Executive Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders of Member Banks</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(D)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(E)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">337.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Limits on Extensions of Credit to Executive Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders of Insured Nonmember Banks</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390.338 (state savings associations)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loans by Savings Associations to Their Executive Officers, Directors, and Principal Shareholders</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row"><E T="02">Dividend Restrictions—Parts and/or Sections of Title 12 of the United States Code</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">56</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prohibition on Withdrawal of Capital and Unearned Dividends</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">60</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dividends and Surplus Fund</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1467a(f)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Declaration of Dividend</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1831o(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prompt Corrective Action—Capital Distributions Restricted</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="6" scope="row"><E T="02">Parts and/or Sections of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Subpart E</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Payment of Dividends</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prompt Corrective Action—Restrictions on Undercapitalized Institutions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">208.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dividends and Other Distributions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">208.45</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prompt Corrective Action—Restrictions on Undercapitalized Institutions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">324.405</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prompt Corrective Action—Restrictions on Undercapitalized Institutions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390.342-.348 (state savings associations)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Capital Distributions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">390.455 (state savings associations)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prompt Corrective Action—Restrictions on Undercapitalized Institutions</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">√
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">(A) Subsections (g) and (h) of section 22 of the Federal Reserve Act [12 U.S.C. 375a, 375b]
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(B) Applies only to insured Federal branches of foreign banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(C) Applies only to insured State branches of foreign banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(D) See 12 CFR 337.3.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">(E) See 12 CFR 390.338 (state savings associations).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 55596, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17742, Apr. 24, 2018; 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.14.0.1.8.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 363—Illustrative Management Reports
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>1. General
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2. Reporting Scenarios for Institutions that are Holding Company Subsidiaries
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3. Illustrative Statements of Management's Responsibilities
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4. Illustrative Reports on Management's Assessment of Compliance with Designated Laws and Regulations
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5. Illustrative Reports on Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>6. Illustrative Management Report—Combined Statement of Management's Responsibilities, Report on Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations, and Report on Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>7. Illustrative Cover Letter—Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries
</FP-2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The reporting scenarios, illustrative management reports, and the cover letter (when complying at the holding company level) in Appendix B to part 363 are intended to assist managements of insured depository institutions in complying with the annual reporting requirements of § 363.2 and guideline 3, <I>Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries,</I> of Appendix A to part 363. However, use of the illustrative management reports and cover letter is not required. The managements of insured depository institutions are encouraged to tailor the wording of their management reports and cover letters to fit their particular circumstances, especially when reporting on material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting or noncompliance with designated laws and regulations. Terms that are not explained in Appendix B have the meanings given them in part 363, the FDI Act, or professional accounting and auditing literature. Instructions to the preparer of the management reports are shown in brackets within the illustrative reports.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reporting Scenarios for Institutions that are Holding Company Subsidiaries.</I> (a) Subject to the criteria specified in § 363.1(b), an insured depository institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company has flexibility in satisfying the reporting requirements of part 363. When reporting at the holding company level, the management report, or the individual components thereof, should identify those subsidiary institutions that are subject to part 363 and the extent to which they are included in the scope of the management report or a component of the report. The following reporting scenarios reflect how an insured depository institution that meets the criteria set forth in § 363.1(b) could satisfy the annual reporting requirements of § 363.2. Other reporting scenarios are possible.
</P>
<P>(i) An institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company may satisfy the requirements for audited financial statements; management's statement of responsibilities; management's assessment of the institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions; management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable; and the independent public accountant's attestation on management's assertion as to the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable, at the insured depository institution level.
</P>
<P>(ii) An institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company may satisfy the requirements for audited financial statements; management's statement of responsibilities; management's assessment of the institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions; management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable; and the independent public accountant's attestation on management's assertion as to the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable, at the holding company level.
</P>
<P>(iii) An institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company may satisfy the requirement for audited financial statements at the holding company level and may satisfy the requirements for management's statement of responsibilities; management's assessment of the institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions; management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable; and the independent public accountant's attestation on management's assertion as to the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable, at the insured depository institution level.
</P>
<P>(iv) An institution that is a subsidiary of a holding company may satisfy the requirements for audited financial statements; management's statement of responsibilities; and management's assessment of the institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions at the insured depository institution level and may satisfy the requirements for the assessment by management of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable; and the independent public accountant's attestation on management's assertion as to the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable, at the holding company level.
</P>
<P>(b) For an institution with total assets of $5 billion, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, or more as of the beginning of its fiscal year, the assessment by management of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting and the independent public accountant's attestation on management's assertion as to the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, if applicable, must both be performed at the same level, <I>i.e.,</I> either at the insured depository institution level or at the holding company level.
</P>
<P>(c) Financial statements prepared for regulatory reporting purposes encompass the schedules equivalent to the basic financial statements in an institution's appropriate regulatory report, <I>e.g.,</I> the bank Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income (Call Report) and the Thrift Financial Report (TFR). Guideline 4A in Appendix A to part 363 identifies the schedules equivalent to the basic financial statements in the Call Report and TFR. When internal control assessments and attestations are performed at the holding company level, the FDIC believes that holding companies have flexibility in interpreting “financial reporting” as it relates to “regulatory reporting” and has not objected to several reporting approaches employed by holding companies to cover “regulatory reporting.” Certain holding companies have had management's assessment and the accountant's attestation cover the schedules equivalent to the basic financial statements that are included in the appropriate regulatory report, <I>e.g.,</I> Call Report and the TFR, of each subsidiary institution subject to part 363. Other holding companies have had management's assessment and the accountant's attestation cover the schedules equivalent to the basic financial statements that are included in the holding company's year-end regulatory report (FR Y-9C report) to the Federal Reserve Board.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Illustrative Statements of Management's Responsibilities.</I> The following illustrative statements of management's responsibilities satisfy the requirements of § 363.2(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(a) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level
</P>
<HD1>Statement of Management's Responsibilities
</HD1>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) is responsible for preparing the Institution's annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report]; and for complying with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions.
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(b) Statement Made at Holding Company Level
</HD3>
<HD1>Statement of Management's Responsibilities
</HD1>
<P>The management of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) is responsible for preparing the Company's annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report]; and for complying with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this statement of management's responsibilities: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>4. <I>Illustrative Reports on Management's Assessment of Compliance with Designated Laws and Regulations.</I> The following illustrative reports on management's assessment of compliance with Designated Laws and Regulations satisfy the requirements of § 363.2(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>(a) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) has assessed the Institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Institution complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(b) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Both Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) has assessed the Institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Institution did not comply with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amounts of the insider loan(s) and dividend(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(c) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) has assessed the Institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Institution complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Also, based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Institution did not comply with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount(s) of the dividend(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(d) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) has assessed the Institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Institution did not comply with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Also, based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Institution complied with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount(s) of the insider loan(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(e) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) has assessed the Company's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Company complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of compliance with these designated laws and regulations: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(f) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Both Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) has assessed the Company's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of compliance with these designated laws and regulations: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>Based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Company did not comply with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to identify the subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 that had instances of noncompliance and describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount(s) of the insider loan(s) and dividend(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(g) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) has assessed the Company's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of compliance with these designated laws and regulations: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Company complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Also, based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Company did not comply with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to identify the subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 that had instances of noncompliance and describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount(s) of the dividend(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(h) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—Noncompliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Dividend Restrictions
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD1>
<P>The management of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) has assessed the Company's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of compliance with these designated laws and regulations: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>Based upon its assessment, management has determined that, because of the instance(s) of noncompliance noted below, the Company did not comply with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Also, based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Company complied with the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the instance or instances of noncompliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans, including appropriate qualitative and quantitative information to identify the subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 that had instances of noncompliance and describe the nature, type, and severity of the noncompliance and the dollar amount(s) of the insider loan(s) involved.]
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>5. <I>Illustrative Reports on Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting.</I> The following illustrative reports on management's assessment of internal control over financial reporting satisfy the requirements of § 363.2(b)(3).
</P>
<HD3>(a) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—No Material Weaknesses
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD1>
<P>ABC Depository Institution's (the “Institution”) internal control over financial reporting is a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.,</I> [specify the regulatory reports]. The Institution's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Institution; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Institution are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Institution; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Institution's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management is responsible for establishing and maintaining effective internal control over financial reporting including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements. Management assessed the effectiveness of the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that, as of December 31, 20XX, the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], is effective based on the criteria established in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I>
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(b) Statement Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—One or More Material Weaknesses
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD1>
<P>ABC Depository Institution's (the “Institution”) internal control over financial reporting is a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.</I>, [specify the regulatory reports]. The Institution's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Institution; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Institution are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Institution; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Institution's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management is responsible for establishing and maintaining effective internal control over financial reporting including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements. Management assessed the effectiveness of the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> Because of the material weakness (or weaknesses) noted below, management determined that the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], was not effective as of December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the material weakness or weaknesses.]
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(c) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—No Material Weaknesses
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD1>
<P>BCD Holding Company's (the “Company”) internal control over financial reporting is a process designed and effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.</I>, [specify the regulatory reports]. The Company's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Company; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Company are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Company; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Company's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management is responsible for establishing and maintaining effective internal control over financial reporting including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements. Management assessed the effectiveness of the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> Based on that assessment, management concluded that, as of December 31, 20XX, the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], is effective based on the criteria established in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(d) Statement Made at Holding Company Level—One or More Material Weaknesses
</HD3>
<HD1>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD1>
<P>BCD Holding Company's (the “Company”) internal control over financial reporting is a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.</I>, [specify the regulatory reports]. The Company's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Company; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Company are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Company; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Company's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management is responsible for establishing and maintaining effective internal control over financial reporting including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements. Management assessed the effectiveness of the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> Because of the material weakness (or weaknesses) noted below, management determined that the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], was not effective as of December 31, 20XX. The following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in this assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>[Identify and describe the material weakness or weaknesses.]
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>6. <I>Illustrative Management Report—Combined Statement of Management's Responsibilities, Report on Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations, and Report on Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting</I>, if applicable. The following illustrative management reports satisfy the requirements of §§ 363.2(b)(1), (2), and (3).
</P>
<HD3>(a) Management Report Made at Insured Depository Institution Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions and No Material Weaknesses in Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD3>
<HD1>Management Report
</HD1>
<HD2>Statement of Management's Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>The management of ABC Depository Institution (the “Institution”) is responsible for preparing the Institution's annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report]; and for complying with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions.
</P>
<HD2>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD2>
<P>The management of the Institution has assessed the Institution's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Institution complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<HD2>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD2>
<P>The Institution's internal control over financial reporting is a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.</I>, [specify the regulatory reports]. The Institution's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Institution; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Institution are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Institution; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Institution's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management assessed the effectiveness of the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I>
</P>
<P>Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that, as of December 31, 20XX, the Institution's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], is effective based on the criteria established in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I>
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>ABC Depository Institution
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>(b) Management Report Made at Holding Company Level—Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations Pertaining to Insider Loans and Dividend Restrictions and No Material Weaknesses in Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD3>
<HD1>Management Report
</HD1>
<P>[<I>Instruction</I>—The following illustrative introductory paragraph for the management report is applicable only if the same group of subsidiary institutions of the holding company that are subject to Part 363 are included in all three components of the management report required by Part 363: the statement of management's responsibilities, the report on management's assessment of compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations pertaining to insider loans and dividend restrictions, and the report on management's assessment of internal control over financial reporting.]
</P>
<P>In this management report, the following subsidiary institutions of the BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) that are subject to Part 363 are included in the statement of management's responsibilities; the report on management's assessment of compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions; and the report on management's assessment of internal control over financial reporting: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<P>[<I>Instruction</I>—The following illustrative introductory paragraph for the management report is applicable if the same group of subsidiary institutions of the holding company that are subject to Part 363 are included in the statement of management's responsibilities and management's assessment of compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations pertaining to insider loans and dividend restrictions, but only some of the subsidiary institutions in the group are included in management's assessment of internal control over financial reporting.]
</P>
<P>In this management report, the following subsidiary institutions of BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) that are subject to Part 363 are included in the statement of management's responsibilities and the report on management's assessment of compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.] In addition, the following subsidiary institutions of the Company that are subject to Part 363 are included in the report on management's assessment of internal control over financial reporting: [Identify the subsidiary institutions.]
</P>
<HD2>Statement of Management's Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>The management of the Company is responsible for preparing the Company's annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report]; and for complying with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions.
</P>
<HD2>Management's Assessment of Compliance With Designated Laws and Regulations
</HD2>
<P>The management of the Company has assessed the Company's compliance with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX. Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that the Company complied with the Federal laws and regulations pertaining to insider loans and the Federal and, if applicable, State laws and regulations pertaining to dividend restrictions during the fiscal year that ended on December 31, 20XX.
</P>
<HD2>Management's Assessment of Internal Control Over Financial Reporting
</HD2>
<P>The Company's internal control over financial reporting is a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the reliability of financial reporting and the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, <I>i.e.</I>, [specify the regulatory reports]. The Company's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that (1) pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the Company; (2) provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America and financial statements for regulatory reporting purposes, and that receipts and expenditures of the Company are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and directors of the Company; and (3) provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the Company's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P>Because of its inherent limitations, internal control over financial reporting may not prevent, or detect and correct misstatements. Also, projections of any evaluation of effectiveness to future periods are subject to the risk that controls may become inadequate because of changes in conditions, or that the degree of compliance with the policies and procedures may deteriorate.
</P>
<P>Management assessed the effectiveness of the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, based on the framework set forth by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I> Based upon its assessment, management has concluded that, as of December 31, 20XX, the Company's internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], is effective based on the criteria established in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework.</I>
</P>
<P>Management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting, including controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with the instructions for the [specify the regulatory report], as of December 31, 20XX, has been audited by [name of auditing firm], an independent public accounting firm, as stated in their report dated March XX, 20XY.
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>John Doe, Chief Executive Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Jane Doe, Chief Financial Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>7. <I>Illustrative Cover Letter—Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries.</I> The following illustrative cover letter satisfies the requirements of guideline 3, <I>Compliance by Holding Company Subsidiaries</I>, of Appendix A to part 363.
</P>
<FP-2><I>To:</I> (Appropriate FDIC Regional or Area Office) Division of Supervision and Consumer Protection, FDIC, and (Appropriate District or Regional Office of the Primary Federal Regulator(s), if not the FDIC), and
</FP-2>
<P>(Appropriate State Bank Supervisor(s), if applicable)
</P>
<FP>Dear [Insert addressees]:
</FP>
<P>BCD Holding Company (the “Company”) is filing two copies of the Part 363 Annual Report for the fiscal year ended December 31, 20XX, on behalf of its insured depository institution subsidiaries listed in the chart below that are subject to Part 363. The Part 363 Annual Report contains audited comparative annual financial statements, the independent public accountant's report on the audited financial statements, management's statement of responsibilities, management's assessment of compliance with the Designated Laws and Regulations pertaining to insider loans and dividend restrictions, and [if applicable] management's assessment of and the independent public accountant's attestation report on internal control over financial reporting. The chart below also indicates the level (institution or holding company) at which the requirements of Part 363 are being satisfied for each listed insured depository institution subsidiary. [If applicable] The Company's other insured depository institution subsidiaries that are subject to Part 363, which comply with all of the Part 363 annual reporting requirements at the institution level, have filed [or will file] their Part 363 Annual Reports separately.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Institutions subject to Part 363
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Audited financial statements
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Management's
<br/>statement of
<br/>responsibilities
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Management's assessment of compliance with designated laws and regulations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Management's
<br/>internal control
<br/>assessment
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Independent auditor's internal control
<br/>attestation report
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ABC Depository Institution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DEF Depository Institution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Holding Company Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institution Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institution Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institution Level</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Institution Level.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>If you have any questions regarding the annual report [or reports] of the Company's insured depository institution subsidiaries subject to Part 363 or if you need any further information, you may contact me at 987-654-3210.
</P>
<HD3>BCD Holding Company
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Insert officer's name and title.]
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 35745, July 20, 2009, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="364" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 364—STANDARDS FOR SAFETY AND SOUNDNESS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1818 and 1819 (Tenth), 1831p-1; 15 U.S.C. 1681b, 1681s, 1681w, 6801(b), 6805(b)(1).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 65907, Oct. 28, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 364.100" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 364.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act requires the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation to establish safety and soundness standards. Pursuant to section 39, this part establishes safety and soundness standards by guideline.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 364.101" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 364.101   Standards for safety and soundness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General standards.</I> The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), as set forth as appendix A to this part, apply to all insured state nonmember banks, to state-licensed insured branches of foreign banks, that are subject to the provisions of section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, and to state savings associations (in aggregate, bank or banks and savings association or savings associations).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards.</I> The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards prescribed pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1), and sections 501 and 505(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801, 6805(b)), and with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information requirements pursuant to section 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681w), as set forth in appendix B to this part, apply to all insured state nonmember banks, insured state licensed branches of foreign banks, any subsidiaries of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers), and to state savings associations. The interagency regulations and guidelines on identity theft detection, prevention, and mitigation prescribed pursuant to section 114 of the Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003, 15 U.S.C. 1681m(e), are set forth in §§ 334.90, 334.91, and appendix J of part 334.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.15.0.1.3.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 364—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safety and Soundness
</HEAD>
<FP-2><I>I. Introduction.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Preservation of existing authority.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Definitions.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2><I>II. Operational and Managerial Standards.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Internal controls and information systems.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Internal audit system.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Loan documentation.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Credit underwriting.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Interest rate exposure.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Asset growth.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Asset quality.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>H. Earnings.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>I. Compensation, fees and benefits.
</FP1-2>
<FP-2><I>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice.</I>
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Excessive compensation.
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Compensation leading to material financial loss.
</FP1-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>i. Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act 
<SU>1</SU> (FDI Act) requires each Federal banking agency (collectively, the agencies) to establish certain safety and soundness standards by regulation or by guidelines for all insured depository institutions. Under section 39, the agencies must establish three types of standards: (1) Operational and managerial standards; (2) compensation standards; and (3) such standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation as they determine to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 39(a) requires the agencies to establish operational and managerial standards relating to: (1) Internal controls, information systems and internal audit systems, in accordance with section 36 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831m); (2) loan documentation; (3) credit underwriting; (4) interest rate exposure; (5) asset growth; and (6) compensation, fees, and benefits, in accordance with subsection (c) of section 39. Section 39(b) requires the agencies to establish standards relating to asset quality, earnings, and stock valuation that the agencies determine to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>iii. Section 39(c) requires the agencies to establish standards prohibiting as an unsafe and unsound practice any compensatory arrangement that would provide any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder of the institution with excessive compensation, fees or benefits and any compensatory arrangement that could lead to material financial loss to an institution. Section 39(c) also requires that the agencies establish standards that specify when compensation is excessive.
</P>
<P>iv. If an agency determines that an institution fails to meet any standard established by guidelines under subsection (a) or (b) of section 39, the agency may require the institution to submit to the agency an acceptable plan to achieve compliance with the standard. In the event that an institution fails to submit an acceptable plan within the time allowed by the agency or fails in any material respect to implement an accepted plan, the agency must, by order, require the institution to correct the deficiency. The agency may, and in some cases must, take other supervisory actions until the deficiency has been corrected.
</P>
<P>v. The agencies have adopted amendments to their rules and regulations to establish deadlines for submission and review of compliance plans.
<SU>2</SU>
</P>
<P>vi. The following Guidelines set out the safety and soundness standards that the agencies use to identify and address problems at insured depository institutions before capital becomes impaired. The agencies believe that the standards adopted in these Guidelines serve this end without dictating how institutions must be managed and operated. These standards are designed to identify potential safety and soundness concerns and ensure that action is taken to address those concerns before they pose a risk to the Deposit Insurance Fund.
</P>
<HD2>A. Preservation of Existing Authority
</HD2>
<P>Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limits the authority of the agencies to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. Action under section 39 and these Guidelines may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the agencies. Nothing in these Guidelines limits the authority of the FDIC pursuant to section 38(i)(2)(F) of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1831o) and part 324 of title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
</P>
<HD2>B. Definitions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> For purposes of these Guidelines, except as modified in the Guidelines or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the FDI Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Board of directors,</I> in the case of a state-licensed insured branch of a foreign bank and in the case of a federal branch of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the insured foreign branch.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensation</I> means all direct and indirect payments or benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, including but not limited to payments or benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, postemployment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Director</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(d).
<SU>3</SU>
</P>
<P>5. <I>Executive officer</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(e).
<SU>4</SU>
</P>
<P>6. <I>Principal shareholder</I> shall have the meaning described in 12 CFR 215.2(m).
<SU>5</SU>
</P>
<HD1>II. Operational and Managerial Standards
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Internal controls and information systems.</I> An institution should have internal controls and information systems that are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature, scope and risk of its activities and that provide for:
</P>
<P>1. An organizational structure that establishes clear lines of authority and responsibility for monitoring adherence to established policies;
</P>
<P>2. Effective risk assessment;
</P>
<P>3. Timely and accurate financial, operational and regulatory reports;
</P>
<P>4. Adequate procedures to safeguard and manage assets; and
</P>
<P>5. Compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Internal audit system.</I> An institution should have an internal audit system that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities and that provides for:
</P>
<P>1. Adequate monitoring of the system of internal controls through an internal audit function. For an institution whose size, complexity or scope of operations does not warrant a full scale internal audit function, a system of independent reviews of key internal controls may be used;
</P>
<P>2. Independence and objectivity;
</P>
<P>3. Qualified persons;
</P>
<P>4. Adequate testing and review of information systems;
</P>
<P>5. Adequate documentation of tests and findings and any corrective actions;
</P>
<P>6. Verification and review of management actions to address material weaknesses; and
</P>
<P>7. Review by the institution's audit committee or board of directors of the effectiveness of the internal audit systems.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Loan documentation.</I> An institution should establish and maintain loan documentation practices that:
</P>
<P>1. Enable the institution to make an informed lending decision and to assess risk, as necessary, on an ongoing basis;
</P>
<P>2. Identify the purpose of a loan and the source of repayment, and assess the ability of the borrower to repay the indebtedness in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>3. Ensure that any claim against a borrower is legally enforceable;
</P>
<P>4. Demonstrate appropriate administration and monitoring of a loan; and
</P>
<P>5. Take account of the size and complexity of a loan.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Credit underwriting.</I> An institution should establish and maintain prudent credit underwriting practices that:
</P>
<P>1. Are commensurate with the types of loans the institution will make and consider the terms and conditions under which they will be made;
</P>
<P>2. Consider the nature of the markets in which loans will be made;
</P>
<P>3. Provide for consideration, prior to credit commitment, of the borrower's overall financial condition and resources, the financial responsibility of any guarantor, the nature and value of any underlying collateral, and the borrower's character and willingness to repay as agreed;
</P>
<P>4. Establish a system of independent, ongoing credit review and appropriate communication to management and to the board of directors;
</P>
<P>5. Take adequate account of concentration of credit risk; and
</P>
<P>6. Are appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Interest rate exposure.</I> An institution should:
</P>
<P>1. Manage interest rate risk in a manner that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the complexity of its assets and liabilities; and
</P>
<P>2. Provide for periodic reporting to management and the board of directors regarding interest rate risk with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of risk.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Asset growth.</I> An institution's asset growth should be prudent and consider:
</P>
<P>1. The source, volatility and use of the funds that support asset growth;
</P>
<P>2. Any increase in credit risk or interest rate risk as a result of growth; and
</P>
<P>3. The effect of growth on the institution's capital.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Asset quality.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to identify problem assets and prevent deterioration in those assets. The institution should:
</P>
<P>1. Conduct periodic asset quality reviews to identify problem assets;
</P>
<P>2. Estimate the inherent losses in those assets and establish reserves that are sufficient to absorb estimated losses;
</P>
<P>3. Compare problem asset totals to capital;
</P>
<P>4. Take appropriate corrective action to resolve problem assets;
</P>
<P>5. Consider the size and potential risks of material asset concentrations; and
</P>
<P>6. Provide periodic asset reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess the level of asset risk.
</P>
<P>H. <I>Earnings.</I> An insured depository institution should establish and maintain a system that is commensurate with the institution's size and the nature and scope of its operations to evaluate and monitor earnings and ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves. The institution should:
</P>
<P>1. Compare recent earnings trends relative to equity, assets, or other commonly used benchmarks to the institution's historical results and those of its peers;
</P>
<P>2. Evaluate the adequacy of earnings given the size, complexity, and risk profile of the institution's assets and operations;
</P>
<P>3. Assess the source, volatility, and sustainability of earnings, including the effect of nonrecurring or extraordinary income or expense;
</P>
<P>4. Take steps to ensure that earnings are sufficient to maintain adequate capital and reserves after considering the institution's asset quality and growth rate; and
</P>
<P>5. Provide periodic earnings reports with adequate information for management and the board of directors to assess earnings performance.
</P>
<P>I. <I>Compensation, fees and benefits.</I> An institution should maintain safeguards to prevent the payment of compensation, fees, and benefits that are excessive or that could lead to material financial loss to the institution.
</P>
<HD1>III. Prohibition on Compensation That Constitutes an Unsafe and Unsound Practice
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Excessive Compensation
</HD2>
<P>Excessive compensation is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice. Compensation shall be considered excessive when amounts paid are unreasonable or disproportionate to the services performed by an executive officer, employee, director, or principal shareholder, considering the following:
</P>
<P>1. The combined value of all cash and noncash benefits provided to the individual;
</P>
<P>2. The compensation history of the individual and other individuals with comparable expertise at the institution;
</P>
<P>3. The financial condition of the institution;
</P>
<P>4. Comparable compensation practices at comparable institutions, based upon such factors as asset size, geographic location, and the complexity of the loan portfolio or other assets;
</P>
<P>5. For postemployment benefits, the projected total cost and benefit to the institution;
</P>
<P>6. Any connection between the individual and any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the institution; and
</P>
<P>7. Any other factors the agencies determine to be relevant.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Compensation Leading to Material Financial Loss</I>
</P>
<P>Compensation that could lead to material financial loss to an institution is prohibited as an unsafe and unsound practice.
</P>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831p-1) was added by section 132 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (FDICIA), Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236 (1991), and amended by section 956 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Pub. L. 102-550, 106 Stat. 3895 (1992) and section 318 of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994, Pub. L. 103-325, 108 Stat. 2160 (1994).
</P>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 30; for the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 263; and for the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, these regulations appear at 12 CFR Part 308, subpart R.
</P>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> In applying these definitions for savings associations, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1464, savings associations shall use the terms “savings association” and “insured savings association” in place of the terms “member bank” and “insured bank”.
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See footnote 3 in section I.B.4. of this appendix.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 65907, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 17742, Apr. 24, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.15.0.1.3.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 364—Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards


</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Scope
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Preservation of Existing Authority
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Definitions
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>II. Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Information Security Program
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Objectives
</FP1-2>
<FP-2>III. Development and Implementation of Customer Information Security Program
</FP-2>
<FP1-2>A. Involve the Board of Directors
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Assess Risk
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Manage and Control Risk
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Adjust the Program
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>F. Report to the Board
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>G. Implement the Standards
</FP1-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to section 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1831p-1, and sections 501 and 505(b), 15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805(b), of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act. These Guidelines address standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information. These Guidelines also address standards with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information pursuant to sections 621 and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s and 1681w).
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> The Guidelines apply to customer information maintained by or on behalf of, and to the disposal of consumer information by or on the behalf of, entities over which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) has authority. Such entities, referred to as “insured depository institution” or “institution” are banks insured by the FDIC (other than members of the Federal Reserve System), state savings associations insured by the FDIC, insured state branches of foreign banks, and any subsidiaries of such entities (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Preservation of Existing Authority.</I> Neither section 39 nor these Guidelines in any way limit the authority of the FDIC to address unsafe or unsound practices, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The FDIC may take action under section 39 and these Guidelines independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to, any other enforcement action available to the FDIC.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Definitions.</I> 1. Except as modified in the Guidelines, or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in sections 3 and 39 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813 and 1831p-1).
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Board of directors</I>, in the case of a branch or agency of a foreign bank, means the managing official in charge of the branch or agency.
</P>
<P>b. <I>Consumer Information</I> means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the institution for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not personally identify an individual.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples:</I> (1) <I>Consumer information</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A consumer report that an institution obtains;
</P>
<P>(B) information from a consumer report that the institution obtains from its affiliate after the consumer has been given a notice and has elected not to opt out of that sharing;
</P>
<P>(C) information from a consumer report that the institution obtains about an individual who applies for but does not receive a loan, including any loan sought by an individual for a business purpose;
</P>
<P>(D) information from a consumer report that the institution obtains about an individual who guarantees a loan (including a loan to a business entity); or
</P>
<P>(E) information from a consumer report that the institution obtains about an employee or prospective employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer information</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) aggregate information, such as the mean score, derived from a group of consumer reports; or
</P>
<P>(B) blind data, such as payment history on accounts that are not personally identifiable, that may be used for developing credit scoring models or for other purposes.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>d. <I>Customer</I> means any customer of the institution as defined in § 332.3(h) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Customer information</I> means any record containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in § 332.3(n) of this chapter, about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the institution.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Customer information systems</I> means any methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information.
</P>
<P>g. <I>Service provider</I> means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information or consumer information through its provision of services directly to the institution.
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Information Security
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Information Security Program.</I> Each insured depository institution shall implement a comprehensive written information security program that includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the institution are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> An institution's information security program shall be designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information;
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer; and
</P>
<P>4. Ensure the proper disposal of customer information and consumer information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Development and Implementation of Information Security Program
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Involve the Board of Directors.</I> The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each insured depository institution shall:
</P>
<P>1. Approve the institution's written information security program; and
</P>
<P>2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the institution's information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Assess Risk.</I>
</P>
<P>Each institution shall:
</P>
<P>1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems.
</P>
<P>2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information.
</P>
<P>3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Manage and Control Risk.</I> Each institution shall:
</P>
<P>1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the institution's activities. Each institution must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the institution and, if so, adopt those measures the institution concludes are appropriate:
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means.
</P>
<P>b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing customer information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals;
</P>
<P>c. Encryption of electronic customer information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access;
</P>
<P>d. Procedures designed to ensure that customer information system modifications are consistent with the institution's information security program;
</P>
<P>e. Dual control procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to customer information;
</P>
<P>f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into customer information systems;
</P>
<P>g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and
</P>
<P>h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of customer information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technological failures.
</P>
<P>2. Train staff to implement the institution's information security program.
</P>
<P>3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the institution's risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs.
</P>
<P>4. Develop, implement, and maintain, as part of its information security program, appropriate measures to properly dispose of customer information and consumer information in accordance with each of the requirements of this paragraph III.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oversee Service Provider Arrangements.</I> Each institution shall:
</P>
<P>1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers;
</P>
<P>2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these Guidelines; and
</P>
<P>3. Where indicated by the institution's risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by paragraph D.2. As part of this monitoring, an institution should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers.
</P>
<P>E. <I>Adjust the Program.</I> Each institution shall monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its customer information, internal or external threats to information, and the institution's own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to customer information systems.
</P>
<P>F. <I>Report to the Board.</I> Each institution shall report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the institution's compliance with these Guidelines. The report, which will vary depending upon the complexity of each institution's program should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: Risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations, and management's responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program.
</P>
<P>G. <I>Implement the Standards.</I> 1. <I>Effective date.</I> Each institution must implement an information security program pursuant to these Guidelines by July 1, 2001.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Two-year grandfathering of agreements with service providers.</I> Until July 1, 2003, a contract that an institution has entered into with a service provider to perform services for it or functions on its behalf, satisfies the provisions of paragraph III.D., even if the contract does not include a requirement that the servicer maintain the security and confidentiality of customer information as long as the institution entered into the contract on or before March 5, 2001.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effective date for measures relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Each institution must satisfy these Guidelines with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2005.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Exception for existing agreements with service providers relating to the disposal of consumer information.</I> Notwithstanding the requirement in paragraph III.G.3., an institution's contracts with its service providers that have access to consumer information and that may dispose of consumer information, entered into before July 1, 2005, must comply with the provisions of the Guidelines relating to the proper disposal of consumer information by July 1, 2006.
</P>
<P/>
<HD1>Supplement A to Appendix B to Part 364 Interagency Guidance on Response Programs for Unauthorized Access to Customer Information and Customer Notice
</HD1>
<HD1>I. Background
</HD1>
<P>This Guidance 
<SU>1</SU> interprets section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) and the Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards (the Security Guidelines) 
<SU>2</SU> and describes response programs, including customer notification procedures, that a financial institution should develop and implement to address unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to a customer. The scope of, and definitions of terms used in, this Guidance are identical to those of the Security Guidelines. For example, the term “customer information” is the same term used in the Security Guidelines, and means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a customer, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, maintained by or on behalf of the institution.
</P>
<HD2>A. Interagency Security Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the Agencies to establish appropriate standards for financial institutions subject to their jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards, to protect the security and confidentiality of customer information. Accordingly, the Agencies issued Security Guidelines requiring every financial institution to have an information security program designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of customer information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Assessment and Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
</P>
<P>a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of customer information or customer information systems;
</P>
<P>b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, customer information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks.
<SU>3</SU>
</P>
<P>2. Following the assessment of these risks, the Security Guidelines require a financial institution to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures an institution should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the financial institution is required to consider the specific security measures enumerated in the Security Guidelines,
<SU>4</SU> and adopt those that are appropriate for the institution, including:
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on customer information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing customer information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
</P>
<P>b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to customer information; and
</P>
<P>c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the financial institution suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to customer information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies.
<SU>5</SU>
</P>
<HD2>C. Service Providers
</HD2>
<P>The Security Guidelines direct every financial institution to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customers.
<SU>6</SU>
</P>
<HD1>II. Response Program
</HD1>
<P>Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft.
<SU>7</SU> Identity thieves misuse personal information they obtain from a number of sources, including financial institutions, to perpetrate identity theft. Therefore, financial institutions should take preventative measures to safeguard customer information against attempts to gain unauthorized access to the information. For example, financial institutions should place access controls on customer information systems and conduct background checks for employees who are authorized to access customer information.
<SU>8</SU> However, every financial institution should also develop and implement a risk-based response program to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems 
<SU>9</SU> that occur nonetheless. A response program should be a key part of an institution's information security program.
<SU>10</SU> The program should be appropriate to the size and complexity of the institution and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>In addition, each institution should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to customer information in customer information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in the Guidelines that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the Agencies,
<SU>11</SU> an institution's contract with its service provider should require the service provider to take appropriate actions to address incidents of unauthorized access to the financial institution's customer information, including notification to the institution as soon as possible of any such incident, to enable the institution to expeditiously implement its response program.
</P>
<HD2>A. Components of a Response Program
</HD2>
<P>1. At a minimum, an institution's response program should contain procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what customer information systems and types of customer information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>b. Notifying its primary Federal regulator as soon as possible when the institution becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of <I>sensitive</I> customer information, as defined below;
</P>
<P>c. Consistent with the Agencies' Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations,
<SU>12</SU> notifying appropriate law enforcement authorities, in addition to filing a timely SAR in situations involving Federal criminal violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing;
</P>
<P>d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of customer information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence; 
<SU>13</SU> and
</P>
<P>e. Notifying customers when warranted.
</P>
<P>2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to customer information involves customer information systems maintained by an institution's service providers, it is the responsibility of the financial institution to notify the institution's customers and regulator. However, an institution may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the institutions' customers or regulator on its behalf.
</P>
<HD1>III. Customer Notice
</HD1>
<P>Financial institutions have an affirmative duty to protect their customers' information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying customers of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the customer's information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty. Timely and effective notice also may reduce an institution's legal risk, assist in maintaining good customer relations, and enable the institution's customers to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When customer notification is warranted, an institution may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the institution believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
</P>
<HD2>A. Standard for Providing Notice
</HD2>
<P>When a financial institution becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive customer information, the institution should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the institution determines that misuse of its information about a customer has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected customer as soon as possible. Customer notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the institution with a written request for the delay. However, the institution should notify its customers as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>1. Sensitive Customer Information
</HD3>
<P>Under the Guidelines, an institution must protect against unauthorized access to or use of customer information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any customer. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to <I>sensitive customer information</I> because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft. For purposes of this Guidance, <I>sensitive customer information</I> means a customer's name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the customer's social security number, driver's license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the customer's account. <I>Sensitive customer information</I> also includes any combination of components of customer information that would allow someone to log onto or access the customer's account, such as user name or password or password and account number.
</P>
<HD3>2. Affected Customers
</HD3>
<P>If a financial institution, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which customers' information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those customers with regard to whom the institution determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the institution determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific customers' information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the institution to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all customers in the group.
</P>
<HD2>B. Content of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. Customer notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of customer information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the institution has done to protect the customers' information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that customers can call for further information and assistance.
<SU>14</SU> The notice also should remind customers of the need to remain vigilant over the next twelve to twenty-four months, and to promptly report incidents of suspected identify theft to the institution. The notice should include the following additional items, when appropriate:
</P>
<P>a. A recommendation that the customer review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the institution;
</P>
<P>b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the customer may place a fraud alert in the customer's consumer reports to put the customer's creditors on notice that the customer may be a victim of fraud;
</P>
<P>c. A recommendation that the customer periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
</P>
<P>d. An explanation of how the customer may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
</P>
<P>e. Information about the availability of the FTC's online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the customer to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC's Web site address and toll-free telephone number that customers may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft.
<SU>15</SU>
</P>
<P>2. The Agencies encourage financial institutions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of customers that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
</P>
<HD2>C. Delivery of Customer Notice
</HD2>
<P>Customer notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a customer can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the institution may choose to contact all customers affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those customers for whom it has a valid email address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
</P>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This Guidance was jointly issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), and the Office of Thrift Supervision (OTS). Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5412, the OTS is no longer a party to this Guidance.
</P>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 CFR part 30, app. B (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, app. D-2 and part 225, app. F (Board); and 12 CFR part 364, app. B (FDIC). The “Interagency Guidelines Establishing Information Security Standards” were formerly known as “The Interagency Guidelines Establishing Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information.”
</P>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.B.
</P>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.
</P>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, III.C.
</P>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, II.B, and III.D. Further, the Agencies note that, in addition to contractual obligations to a financial institution, a service provider may be required to implement its own comprehensive information security program in accordance with the Safeguards Rule promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), 12 CFR part 314.
</P>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> The FTC estimates that nearly 10 million Americans discovered they were victims of some form of identity theft in 2002. <I>See</I> The Federal Trade Commission. <I>Identity Theft Survey Report</I> (September 2003), available at <I>http://www.ftc.gov/os/2003/09/synovatereport.pdf.</I>
</P>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Institutions should also conduct background checks of employees to ensure that the institution does not violate 12 U.S.C. 1829, which prohibits an institution from hiring an individual convicted of certain criminal offenses or who is subject to a prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 1818(e)(6).
</P>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Under the Guidelines, an institution's <I>customer information systems</I> consist of all of the methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of customer information, including the systems maintained by its service providers. <I>See</I> Security Guidelines, I.C.2.d.
</P>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002 available at <I>http://ithandbook.ffiec.gov/it-booklets/information-security.aspx.</I> Federal Reserve SR 97-32, Sound Practice Guidance for Information Security for Networks, Dec. 4, 1997; OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000), for additional guidance on preventing, detecting, and responding to intrusions into financial institutions computer systems.
</P>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> <I>See</I> Federal Reserve SR Ltr. 13-19, Guidance on Managing Outsourcing Risk, Dec. 5, 2013; OCC Bulletin 2013-29, “Third-Party Relationships—Risk Management Guidance,” Oct. 30, 2013; and FDIC FIL 44-08, Guidance for Managing Third Party Risk, June 6, 2008 and FIL 68-99, Risk Assessment Tools and Practices for Information System Security, July 7, 1999.
</P>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> An institution's obligations to file a SAR is set out in the Agencies' SAR regulations and Agency guidance. <I>See, for example, 12 CFR 21.11</I> (national banks, Federal branches and agencies); 12 CFR 163.180 (Federal savings associations); 12 CFR 208.62 (State member banks); 12 CFR 211.5(k) (Edge and agreement corporations); 12 CFR 211.24(f) (uninsured State branches and agencies of foreign banks); 12 CFR 225.4(f) (bank holding companies and their nonbank subsidiaries); and 12 CFR part 353 (FDIC-supervised institutions). National banks must file SARs in connection with computer intrusions and other computer crimes. <I>See</I> OCC Bulletin 2000-14, “Infrastructure Threats—Intrusion Risks” (May 15, 2000); Advisory Letter 97-9, “Reporting Computer Related Crimes” (November 19, 1997) (general guidance still applicable though instructions for new SAR form published in 65 FR 1229, 1230 (January 7, 2000)). <I>See also</I> Federal Reserve SR 01-11, Identity Theft and Pretext Calling, Apr. 26, 2001.
</P>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, Dec. 2002, pp. 68-74.
</P>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The institution should, therefore, ensure that it has reasonable policies and procedures in place, including trained personnel, to respond appropriately to customer inquiries and requests for assistance.
</P>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Currently, the FTC Web site for the ID Theft brochure and the FTC Hotline phone number are <I>http://www.consumer.gov/idtheft</I> and 1-877-IDTHEFT. The institution may also refer customers to any materials developed pursuant to section 151(b) of the FACT Act (educational materials developed by the FTC to teach the public how to prevent identity theft).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 65907, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 91 FR 18294, Apr. 10, 2026]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="365" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 365—REAL ESTATE LENDING STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1828(o) and 5101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 62896, 62900, Dec. 31, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Real Estate Lending Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 365.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 365.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart, issued pursuant to section 304 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, 12 U.S.C. 1828(o), prescribes standards for real estate lending to be used by FDIC-supervised institutions in adopting internal real estate lending policies. For purposes of this subpart, the term “FDIC-supervised institution” means any insured depository institution for which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is the appropriate Federal banking agency pursuant to section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31173, July 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 365.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 365.2   Real estate lending standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each FDIC-supervised institution shall adopt and maintain written policies that establish appropriate limits and standards for extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate, or that are made for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real estate. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with safe and sound banking practices; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Be appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its operations; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Be reviewed and approved by the FDIC-supervised institution's board of directors at least annually. 
</P>
<P>(2) The lending policies must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan portfolio diversification standards;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prudent underwriting standards, including loan-to-value limits, that are clear and measurable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan administration procedures for the FDIC-supervised institution's real estate portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation, approval, and reporting requirements to monitor compliance with the FDIC-supervised institution's real estate lending policies.
</P>
<P>(c) Each FDIC-supervised institution must monitor conditions in the real estate market in its lending area to ensure that its real estate lending policies continue to be appropriate for current market conditions.
</P>
<P>(d) The real estate lending policies adopted pursuant to this section should reflect consideration of the Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies established by the Federal bank and thrift supervisory agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62896, 62900, Dec. 31, 1992, as amended at 84 FR 31173, July 1, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16.1.1.3.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart A of Part 365—Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies
</HEAD>
<P>The agencies' regulations require that each insured depository institution adopt and maintain a written policy that establishes appropriate limits and standards for all extensions of credit that are secured by liens on or interests in real estate or made for the purpose of financing the construction of a building or other improvements. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> These guidelines are intended to assist institutions in the formulation and maintenance of a real estate lending policy that is appropriate to the size of the institution and the nature and scope of its individual operations, as well as satisfies the requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The agencies have adopted a uniform rule on real estate lending. See 12 CFR part 365 (FDIC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart C (FRB); 12 CFR part 34, subpart D (OCC); and 12 CFR 563.100-101 (OTS).</P></FTNT>
<P>Each institution's policies must be comprehensive, and consistent with safe and sound lending practices, and must ensure that the institution operates within limits and according to standards that are reviewed and approved at least annually by the board of directors. Real estate lending is an integral part of many institutions' business plans and, when undertaken in a prudent manner, will not be subject to examiner criticism. 
</P>
<HD1>Loan Portfolio Management Considerations
</HD1>
<P>The lending policy should contain a general outline of the scope and distribution of the institution's credit facilities and the manner in which real estate loans are made, serviced, and collected. In particular, the institution's policies on real estate lending should: 
</P>
<P>• Identify the geographic areas in which the institution will consider lending. 
</P>
<P>• Establish a loan portfolio diversification policy and set limits for real estate loans by type and geographic market (e.g., limits on higher risk loans).
</P>
<P>• Identify appropriate terms and conditions by type of real estate loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish loan origination and approval procedures, both generally and by size and type of loan.
</P>
<P>• Establish prudent underwriting standards that are clear and measurable, including loan-to-value limits, that are consistent with these supervisory guidelines. 
</P>
<P>• Establish review and approval procedures for exception loans, including loans with loan-to-value percentages in excess of supervisory limits. 
</P>
<P>• Establish loan administration procedures, including documentation, disbursement, collateral inspection, collection, and loan review. 
</P>
<P>• Establish real estate appraisal and evaluation programs. 
</P>
<P>• Require that management monitor the loan portfolio and provide timely and adequate reports to the board of directors.
</P>
<P>The institution should consider both internal and external factors in the formulation of its loan policies and strategic plan. Factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution. 
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending staff. 
</P>
<P>• The need to avoid undue concentrations of risk.
</P>
<P>• Compliance with all real estate related laws and regulations, including the Community Reinvestment Act, anti-discrimination laws, and for savings associations, the Qualified Thrift Lender test.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions. 
</P>
<P>The institution should monitor conditions in the real estate markets in its lending area so that it can react quickly to changes in market conditions that are relevant to its lending decisions. Market supply and demand factors that should be considered include:
</P>
<P>• Demographic indicators, including population and employment trends.
</P>
<P>• Zoning requirements.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected vacancy, construction, and absorption rates.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected lease terms, rental rates, and sales prices, including concessions.
</P>
<P>• Current and projected operating expenses for different types of projects.
</P>
<P>• Economic indicators, including trends and diversification of the lending area.
</P>
<P>• Valuation trends, including discount and direct capitalization rates.
</P>
<HD1>Underwriting Standards
</HD1>
<P>Prudently underwritten real estate loans should reflect all relevant credit factors, including:
</P>
<P>• The capacity of the borrower, or income from the underlying property, to adequately service the debt.
</P>
<P>• The value of the mortgaged property.
</P>
<P>• The overall creditworthiness of the borrower.
</P>
<P>• The level of equity invested in the property.
</P>
<P>• Any secondary sources of repayment.
</P>
<P>• Any additional collateral or credit enhancements (such as guarantees, mortgage insurance or takeout commitments). 
</P>
<P>The lending policies should reflect the level of risk that is acceptable to the board of directors and provide clear and measurable underwriting standards that enable the institution's lending staff to evaluate these credit factors. The underwriting standards should address:
</P>
<P>• The maximum loan amount by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Maximum loan maturities by type of property.
</P>
<P>• Amortization schedules.
</P>
<P>• Pricing structure for different types of real estate loans.
</P>
<P>• Loan-to-value limits by type of property. 
</P>
<P>For development and construction projects, and completed commercial properties, the policy should also establish, commensurate with the size and type of the project or property:
</P>
<P>• Requirements for feasibility studies and sensitivity and risk analyses (<I>e.g.,</I> sensitivity of income projections to changes in economic variables such as interest rates, vacancy rates, or operating expenses).
</P>
<P>• Minimum requirements for initial investment and maintenance of hard equity by the borrower (<I>e.g.,</I> cash or unencumbered investment in the underlying property).
</P>
<P>• Minimum standards for net worth, cash flow, and debt service coverage of the borrower or underlying property.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on non-amortizing loans.
</P>
<P>• Standards for the acceptability of and limits on the use of interest reserves.
</P>
<P>• Pre-leasing and pre-sale requirements for income-producing property.
</P>
<P>• Pre-sale and minimum unit release requirements for non-income-producing property loans.
</P>
<P>• Limits on partial recourse or nonrecourse loans and requirements for guarantor support.
</P>
<P>• Requirements for takeout commitments.
</P>
<P>• Minimum covenants for loan agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Loan Administration
</HD1>
<P>The institution should also establish loan administration procedures for its real estate portfolio that address:
</P>
<P>• Documentation, including:
</P>
<FP1-2> Type and frequency of financial statements, including requirements for verification of information provided by the borrower;
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Type and frequency of collateral evaluations (appraisals and other estimates of value).
</FP1-2>
<P>• Loan closing and disbursement.
</P>
<P>• Payment processing.
</P>
<P>• Escrow administration.
</P>
<P>• Collateral administration.
</P>
<P>• Loan payoffs.
</P>
<P>• Collections and foreclosure, including:
</P>
<FP1-2> Delinquency follow-up procedures; 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2> Foreclosure timing; 
</FP1-2>
<P> Extensions and other forms of forbearance; 
</P>
<FP1-2> Acceptance of deeds in lieu of foreclosure.
</FP1-2>
<P>• Claims processing (<I>e.g.,</I> seeking recovery on a defaulted loan covered by a government guaranty or insurance program).
</P>
<P>• Servicing and participation agreements.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>Institutions should establish their own internal loan-to-value limits for real estate loans. These internal limits should not exceed the following supervisory limits:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan-to-value limit (percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raw land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commercial, multifamily, 
<sup>2</sup> and other nonresidential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1- to 4-family residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Improved property</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">(
<sup>3</sup>)
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A loan-to-value limit has not been established for permanent mortgage or home equity loans on owner-occupied, 1- to 4-family residential property. However, for any such loan with a loan-to-value ratio that equals or exceeds 90 percent at origination, an institution should require appropriate credit enhancement in the form of either mortgage insurance or readily marketable collateral.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>The supervisory loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (e.g., a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under supervisory loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the supervisory limits, lenders should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
</P>
<P>In establishing internal loan-to-value limits, each lender is expected to carefully consider the institution-specific and market factors listed under “Loan Portfolio Management Considerations,” as well as any other relevant factors, such as the particular subcategory or type of loan. For any subcategory of loans that exhibits greater credit risk than the overall category, a lender should consider the establishment of an internal loan-to-value limit for that subcategory that is lower than the limit for the overall category.
</P>
<P>The loan-to-value ratio is only one of several pertinent credit factors to be considered when underwriting a real estate loan. Other credit factors to be taken into account are highlighted in the “Underwriting Standards” section above. Because of these other factors, the establishment of these supervisory limits should not be interpreted to mean that loans at these levels will automatically be considered sound.
</P>
<HD1>Loans in Excess of the Supervisory Loan-to-Value Limits
</HD1>
<P>The agencies recognize that appropriate loan-to-value limits vary not only among categories of real estate loans but also among individual loans. Therefore, it may be appropriate in individual cases to originate or purchase loans with loan-to-value ratios in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits, based on the support provided by other credit factors. Such loans should be identified in the institution's records, and their aggregate amount reported at least quarterly to the institution's board of directors. (See additional reporting requirements described under “Exceptions to the General Policy.”)
</P>
<P>The aggregate amount of all loans in excess of the supervisory loan-to-value limits should not exceed 100 percent of total capital.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> Moreover, within the aggregate limit, total loans for all commercial, agricultural, multifamily or other non-1-to-4 family residential properties should not exceed 30 percent of total capital. An institution will come under increased supervisory scrutiny as the total of such loans approaches these levels.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> For the purposes of these Guidelines, for state non-member banks and state savings associations, “total capital” refers to the FDIC-supervised institution's tier 1 capital, as defined in § 324.2 of this chapter, plus the allowance for loan and leases losses or the allowance for credit losses attributable to loans and leases, as applicable. The allowance for credit losses attributable to loans and leases is applicable for institutions that have adopted the Current Expected Credit Losses methodology.</P></FTNT>
<P>In determining the aggregate amount of such loans, institutions should: (a) Include all loans secured by the same property if any one of those loans exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limits; and (b) include the recourse obligation of any such loan sold with recourse. Conversely, a loan should no longer be reported to the directors as part of aggregate totals when reduction in principal or senior liens, or additional contribution of collateral or equity (<I>e.g.,</I> improvements to the real property securing the loan), bring the loan-to-value ratio into compliance with supervisory limits.
</P>
<HD1>Excluded Transactions
</HD1>
<P>The agencies also recognize that there are a number of lending situations in which other factors significantly outweigh the need to apply the supervisory loan-to-value limits. These include:
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by the U.S. government or its agencies, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans backed by the full faith and credit of a state government, provided that the amount of the assurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit.
</P>
<P>• Loans guaranteed or insured by a state, municipal or local government, or an agency thereof, provided that the amount of the guaranty or insurance is at least equal to the portion of the loan that exceeds the supervisory loan-to-value limit, and provided that the lender has determined that the guarantor or insurer has the financial capacity and willingness to perform under the terms of the guaranty or insurance agreement.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are to be sold promptly after origination, without recourse, to a financially responsible third party.
</P>
<P>• Loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured without the advancement of new funds or an increase in the line of credit (except for reasonable closing costs), or loans that are renewed, refinanced, or restructured in connection with a workout situation, either with or without the advancement of new funds, where consistent with safe and sound banking practices and part of a clearly defined and well-documented program to achieve orderly liquidation of the debt, reduce risk of loss, or maximize recovery on the loan.
</P>
<P>• Loans that facilitate the sale of real estate acquired by the lender in the ordinary course of collecting a debt previously contracted in good faith.
</P>
<P>• Loans for which a lien on or interest in real property is taken as additional collateral through an abundance of caution by the lender (e.g., the institution takes a blanket lien on all or substantially all of the assets of the borrower, and the value of the real property is low relative to the aggregate value of all other collateral).
</P>
<P>• Loans, such as working capital loans, where the lender does not rely principally on real estate as security and the extension of credit is not used to acquire, develop, or construct permanent improvements on real property.
</P>
<P>• Loans for the purpose of financing permanent improvements to real property, but not secured by the property, if such security interest is not required by prudent underwriting practice.
</P>
<HD1>Exceptions to the General Lending Policy
</HD1>
<P>Some provision should be made for the consideration of loan requests from creditworthy borrowers whose credit needs do not fit within the institution's general lending policy. An institution may provide for prudently underwritten exceptions to its lending policies, including loan-to-value limits, on a loan-by-loan basis. However, any exceptions from the supervisory loan-to-value limits should conform to the aggregate limits on such loans discussed above.
</P>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for establishing standards for the review and approval of exception loans. Each institution should establish an appropriate internal process for the review and approval of loans that do not conform to its own internal policy standards. The approval of any such loan should be supported by a written justification that clearly sets forth all of the relevant credit factors that support the underwriting decision. The justification and approval documents for such loans should be maintained as a part of the permanent loan file. Each institution should monitor compliance with its real estate lending policy and individually report exception loans of a significant size to its board of directors.
</P>
<HD1>Supervisory Review of Real Estate Lending Policies and Practices
</HD1>
<P>The real estate lending policies of institutions will be evaluated by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine if the policies are consistent with safe and sound lending practices, these guidelines, and the requirements of the regulation. In evaluating the adequacy of the institution's real estate lending policies and practices, examiners will take into consideration the following factors:
</P>
<P>• The nature and scope of the institution's real estate lending activities.
</P>
<P>• The size and financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>• The quality of the institution's management and internal controls.
</P>
<P>• The expertise and size of the lending and loan administration staff.
</P>
<P>• Market conditions.
</P>
<P>Lending policy exception reports will also be reviewed by examiners during the course of their examinations to determine whether the institutions' exceptions are adequately documented and appropriate in light of all of the relevant credit considerations. An excessive volume of exceptions to an institution's real estate lending policy may signal a weakening of its underwriting practices, or may suggest a need to revise the loan policy.
</P>
<HD1>Definitions 
</HD1>
<P>For the purposes of these Guidelines: 
</P>
<P><I>Construction loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of erecting or rehabilitating buildings or other structures, including any infrastructure necessary for development. 
</P>
<P><I>Extension of credit</I> or <I>loan</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total amount of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment with respect to real property; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount, based on the amount of consideration paid, of any loan, line of credit, or other legally binding lending commitment acquired by a lender by purchase, assignment, or otherwise. 
</P>
<P><I>Improved property loan</I> means an extension of credit secured by one of the following types of real property: 
</P>
<P>(1) Farmland, ranchland or timberland committed to ongoing management and agricultural production; 
</P>
<P>(2) 1- to 4-family residential property that is not owner-occupied; 
</P>
<P>(3) Residential property containing five or more individual dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(4) Completed commercial property; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Other income-producing property that has been completed and is available for occupancy and use, except income-producing owner-occupied 1- to 4-family residential property. 
</P>
<P><I>Land development loan</I> means an extension of credit for the purpose of improving unimproved real property prior to the erection of structures. The improvement of unimproved real property may include the laying or placement of sewers, water pipes, utility cables, streets, and other infrastructure necessary for future development. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan origination</I> means the time of inception of the obligation to extend credit (<I>i.e.</I>, when the last event or prerequisite, controllable by the lender, occurs causing the lender to become legally bound to fund an extension of credit). 
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value</I> or <I>loan-to-value ratio</I> means the percentage or ratio that is derived at the time of loan origination by dividing an extension of credit by the total value of the property(ies) securing or being improved by the extension of credit plus the amount of any readily marketable collateral and other acceptable collateral that secures the extension of credit. The total amount of all senior liens on or interests in such property(ies) should be included in determining the loan-to-value ratio. When mortgage insurance or collateral is used in the calculation of the loan-to-value ratio, and such credit enhancement is later released or replaced, the loan-to-value ratio should be recalculated. 
</P>
<P><I>Other acceptable collateral</I> means any collateral in which the lender has a perfected security interest, that has a quantifiable value, and is accepted by the lender in accordance with safe and sound lending practices. Other acceptable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral. Other acceptable collateral includes, among other items, unconditional irrevocable standby letters of credit for the benefit of the lender. 
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied,</I> when used in conjunction with the term <I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means that the owner of the underlying real property occupies at least one unit of the real property as a principal residence of the owner.
</P>
<P><I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means insured deposits, financial instruments, and bullion in which the lender has a perfected interest. Financial instruments and bullion must be salable under ordinary circumstances with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based on actual transactions, on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market. Readily marketable collateral should be appropriately discounted by the lender consistent with the lender's usual practices for making loans secured by such collateral.
</P>
<P><I>Value</I> means an opinion or estimate, set forth in an appraisal or evaluation, whichever may be appropriate, of the market value of real property, prepared in accordance with the agency's appraisal regulations and guidance. For loans to purchase an existing property, the term “value” means the lesser of the actual acquisition cost or the estimate of value.
</P>
<P><I>1- to 4-family residential property</I> means property containing fewer than five individual dwelling units, including manufactured homes permanently affixed to the underlying property (when deemed to be real property under state law).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 62896, 62900, Dec. 31, 1992; 58 FR 4460, Jan. 14, 1993. Redesignated at 75 FR 44692, July 28, 2010; 78 FR 55597, Sept. 10, 2013; 83 FR 17743, Apr. 24, 2018; 84 FR 61804, Nov. 13, 2019; 85 FR 15917, Mar. 20, 2020; 86 FR 59282, Oct. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="366" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 366—MINIMUM STANDARDS OF INTEGRITY AND FITNESS FOR AN FDIC CONTRACTOR 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 9 (Tenth) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDI Act), 12 U.S.C. 1819 (Tenth); sections 12(f)(3) and (4) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1822(f)(3) and (4); and section 19 of Pub. L. 103-204, 107 Stat. 2369.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 69991, Nov. 20, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 366.0" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.0   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) The word <I>person</I> refers to an individual, corporation, partnership, or other entity with a legally independent existence.
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>we, our,</I> and <I>us</I> refer to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), except when acting as conservator or operator of a bridge bank.
</P>
<P>(c) The terms <I>I, me, my, mine, you,</I> and <I>yourself</I> refer to a person who submits an offer to perform or performs, directly or indirectly, contractual services or functions on our behalf.
</P>
<P>(d) The phrase <I>insured depository institution</I> refers to any bank or savings association whose deposits are insured by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.1   What is the purpose of this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes the minimum standards of integrity and fitness that contractors, subcontractors, and employees of contractors and subcontractors must meet if they perform any service or function on our behalf. This part includes regulations governing conflicts of interest, ethical responsibility, and use of confidential information in accordance with section 12(f)(3) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1822(f)(3), and the prohibitions and the requirements for submission of information in accordance with section 12(f)(4) of the FDI Act, 12 U.S.C. 1822(f)(4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.2   What is the scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to a person who submits an offer to perform or performs, directly or indirectly, a contractual service or function on our behalf.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) An FDIC employee for the purposes of title 18, United States Code; or
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC when we operate an insured depository institution such as a bridge bank or conservatorship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.3   Who cannot perform contractual services for the FDIC?</HEAD>
<P>We will not enter into a contract with you to perform a service or function on our behalf, if you or any person that owns or controls you, or any entity you own or control:
</P>
<P>(a) Has a felony conviction;
</P>
<P>(b) Was removed from or is prohibited from participating in the affairs of an insured depository institution as a result of a federal banking agency final enforcement action;
</P>
<P>(c) Has a pattern or practice of defalcation; or
</P>
<P>(d) Is responsible for a substantial loss to the Deposit Insurance Fund (or any predecessor deposit insurance fund).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 69991, Nov. 20, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.4   When is there a pattern or practice of defalcation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You have a pattern or practice of defalcation under § 366.3(c) when you, any person that owns or controls you, or any entity you own or control has a legal responsibility for the payment on at least two obligations that are:
</P>
<P>(1) To one or more insured depository institutions;
</P>
<P>(2) More than 90 days delinquent in the payment of principal, interest, or a combination thereof; and
</P>
<P>(3) More than $50,000 each.
</P>
<P>(b) The following are examples of when you have or do not have a pattern or practice of defalcation. These examples are not inclusive.
</P>
<P>(1) You have five loans at insured depository institutions. Three of them are 90 days past due. Two of the three loans have outstanding balances of more than $50,000 each. You have a pattern or practice of defalcation.
</P>
<P>(2) You have five loans at insured depository institutions. Two of them are 90 days past due. One of the two is with ABC Bank for $170,000. The other one is with XYZ bank for $60,000. You have a pattern or practice of defalcation.
</P>
<P>(3) You have five loans at insured depository institutions. Three of them are 90 days past due. One of the three has an outstanding balance of more than $50,000. The other two have outstanding balances of less than $50,000. You do not have a pattern or practice of defalcation.
</P>
<P>(4) You have five loans at insured depository institutions. Three of them have outstanding balances of more than $50,000. Two of those three were 90 days past due but are now current. You do not have a pattern or practice of defalcation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.5   What causes a substantial loss to a federal deposit insurance fund?</HEAD>
<P>You cause a substantial loss to the Deposit Insurance Fund (or any predecessor deposit insurance fund) under § 366.3(d) when you, or any person that owns or controls you, or any entity you own or control has:
</P>
<P>(a) An obligation to us that is delinquent for 90 days or more and on which there is an outstanding balance of principal, interest, or a combination thereof of more than $50,000;
</P>
<P>(b) An unpaid final judgment in our favor that is in excess of $50,000, regardless of whether it becomes discharged in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding;
</P>
<P>(c) A deficiency balance following foreclosure of collateral on an obligation owed to us that is in excess of $50,000, regardless of whether it becomes discharged in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(d) A loss to us that is in excess of $50,000 that we report on IRS Form 1099-C, Information Reporting for Discharge of Indebtedness.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 69991, Nov. 20, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.6   How is my ownership or control determined?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Your ownership or control is determined on a case-by-case basis. Your ownership or control depends on the specific facts of your situation and the particular industry and legal entity involved. You must provide documentation to us to use in determining your ownership or control.
</P>
<P>(b) The interest of a spouse or other family member in the same organization is imputed to you in determining your ownership or control.
</P>
<P>(c) The following are examples of when your ownership or control may or may not exist. These examples are not inclusive.
</P>
<P>(1) You have control if you are the president or chief executive officer of an organization. 
</P>
<P>(2) You have ownership or control if you are a partner in a small law firm. You might not have ownership or control if you are a partner in a large national law firm. 
</P>
<P>(3) You have control if you are a general partner of a limited partnership. You have ownership or control if you have a limited partnership interest of 25 percent or more. 
</P>
<P>(4) You have ownership or control if you have the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Power to vote, directly or indirectly, 25% or more interest of any class of voting stock of a company; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Ability to direct in any manner the election of a majority of a company's directors or trustees; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Ability to exercise a controlling influence over the company's management and policies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.7   Will the FDIC waive the prohibitions under § 366.3?</HEAD>
<P>We may waive the prohibitions for entities other than individuals for good cause shown at our discretion when our need to contract for your services outweighs all relevant factors. The statute does not allow us to waive the prohibitions for individuals. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.8   Who can grant a waiver of a prohibition or conflict of interest?</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC's Board of Directors delegates to the Chairman, or his designee, authority to issue waivers and implement procedures for part 366. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.9   What other requirements could prevent me from performing contractual services for the FDIC?</HEAD>
<P>You must avoid a conflict of interest, be ethically responsible, and maintain confidential information as described in §§ 366.10 through 366.13. You must also provide us with the information we require in § 366.14. Failure to meet these requirements may prevent you from contracting with us. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.10   When would I have a conflict of interest?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You have a conflict of interest when you, any person that owns or controls you, or any entity you own or control: 
</P>
<P>(1) Has a personal, business, or financial interest or relationship that relates to the services you perform under the contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is a party to litigation against us, or represents a party that is; 
</P>
<P>(3) Submits an offer to acquire an asset from us for which services were performed during the past three years, unless the contract allows for the acquisition; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Engages in an activity that would cause us to question the integrity of the service you provided, are providing or offer to provide us, or impairs your independence. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following are examples of a conflict of interest. These examples are not inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(1) You submit an offer to perform property management services for us and you own or manage a competing property. 
</P>
<P>(2) You audit a business under a contract with us and you or a partner in your firm has an ownership interest in that business. 
</P>
<P>(3) You perform loan services on a pool of loans we are selling, and you submit a bid to purchase one or more of the loans in the pool. 
</P>
<P>(4) You audit your own work or provide nonaudit services that are significant or material to the subject matter of the audit. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.11   Will the FDIC waive a conflict of interest?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We may waive a conflict of interest for good cause shown at our discretion when our need to contract for your services outweighs all relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following are examples of when we may grant you a waiver for a conflict of interest. These examples are not inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(1) We may grant a waiver to an outside counsel who has a representational conflict. We will weigh all relevant facts and circumstances in making our determination. 
</P>
<P>(2) We may grant a waiver to allow a contractor to acquire an asset from us who is providing or has provided services on that asset. We will consider whether granting the waiver will adversely affect the fairness of the sale, the type of services provided, and other facts and circumstances relevant to the sale in making our determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.12   What are the FDIC's minimum standards of ethical responsibility?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You and any person who performs services for us must not provide preferential treatment to any person in your dealings with the public on our behalf. 
</P>
<P>(b) You must ensure that any person you employ to perform services for us is informed about their responsibilities under this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) You must disclose to us waste, fraud, abuse or corruption. Contact the Inspector General at 1-800-964-FDIC or <I>Ighotline@fdic.gov.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) You and any person who performs contract services to us must not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Accept or solicit for yourself or others any favor, gift, or other item of monetary value from any person who you reasonably believe is seeking an official action from you on our behalf, or has an interest that the performance or nonperformance of your duties to us may substantially affect;
</P>
<P>(2) Use or allow the use of our property, except as specified in the contract; 
</P>
<P>(3) Make an unauthorized promise or commitment on our behalf; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide impermissible gifts or entertainment to an FDIC employee or other person providing services to us. 
</P>
<P>(e) The following are examples of when you are engaging in unethical behavior. These examples are not inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(1) Using government resources, including our Internet connection, to conduct any business that is unrelated to the performance of your contract with us. 
</P>
<P>(2) Submitting false invoices or claims, or making misleading or false statements. 
</P>
<P>(3) Committing us to forgive or restructure a debt or portion of a debt, unless we provide you with written authority to do so. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.13   What is my obligation regarding confidential information?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Neither you nor any person who performs services on your behalf may use or disclose information obtained from us or a third party in connection with an FDIC contract, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The contract allows or we authorize the use or disclosure; 
</P>
<P>(2) The information is generally available to the general public; or 
</P>
<P>(3) We make the information available to the general public. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following are examples of when your use of confidential information is inappropriate. These examples are not inclusive. 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosing information about an asset, such as internal asset valuations, appraisals or environmental reports, except as part of authorized due diligence materials, to a prospective asset purchaser. 
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosing a borrower's or guarantor's personal or financial information, such as a financial statement to an unauthorized party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.14   What information must I provide the FDIC?</HEAD>
<P>You must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Certify in writing that you can perform services for us under § 366.3 and have no conflict of interest under § 366.10(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) Submit a list and description of any instance during the preceding five years in which you, any person that owns or controls you, or any entity you own or control, defaulted on a material obligation to an insured depository institution. A default on a material obligation occurs when a loan or advance with an outstanding balance of more than $50,000 is or was delinquent for 90 days or more. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notify us within 10 business days after you become aware that you, or any person you employ to perform services for us, are not in compliance with this part. Your notice must include a detailed description of the facts of the situation and how you intend to resolve the matter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Agree in writing that you will employ only persons who meet the requirements of this part to perform services on our behalf. 
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with any request from us for information.
</P>
<P>(f) Retain any information you prepare or rely upon regarding the provisions of this part for a period of three years following termination or expiration and final payment of the related contract for services whichever occurs last. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.15   What advice or determinations will the FDIC provide me on the applicability of this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) We are available to you for consultation on those determinations you are responsible for making under this part, including those with respect to any person you employ or engage to perform services for us. 
</P>
<P>(b) We will determine if this part prohibits you from performing services for us prior to contract award, after contract award, and during the performance of a contract. 
</P>
<P>(c) We may determine what corrective action you must take. 
</P>
<P>(d) We may grant you a waiver for good cause shown where provided for under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.16   When may I seek a reconsideration or review of an FDIC determination?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may seek reconsideration or review of our initial determination by sending a written request to the individual who issued you the initial decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) You must provide new information or explain a change in circumstances for our reconsideration of an initial decision. The individual who issued you the initial decision may either make a new determination or refer your request to a higher authority for review. 
</P>
<P>(c) You must provide an explanation of how you perceive that we misapplied this part that sets forth the legal or factual errors for our review of an initial decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 366.17" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.17.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 366.17   What are the possible consequences for violating this part?</HEAD>
<P>Depending on the circumstances, violations of this part may result in rescission or termination of a contract, as well as administrative, civil, or criminal sanctions.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="367" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 367—SUSPENSION AND EXCLUSION OF CONTRACTOR AND TERMINATION OF CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1822(f) (4) and (5). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 68560, Dec. 30, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 367.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.1   Authority, purpose, scope and application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is adopted pursuant to section 12(f) (4) and (5) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1822(f) (4) and (5), and the rule-making authority of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) found at 12 U.S.C. 1819. Other regulations implementing these statutory directives appear at 12 CFR part 366. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part is designed to inform contractors and subcontractors (including their affiliated business entities, key employees and management officials) regarding their rights to notice and an opportunity to be heard on FDIC actions involving suspension and exclusion from contracting and rescission of existing contracts. This part is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any other statute or regulation that may apply to such contractual activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contractors, other than attorneys or law firms providing legal services, submitting offers to provide services or entering into contracts to provide services to the FDIC acting in any capacity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Subcontractors entering into contracts to perform services under a proposed or existing contract with the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application.</I> (1) This part will apply to entities that become contractors, as defined in § 367.2(f), on or after December 30, 1996. In addition, this part will apply to contractors as defined in § 367.2(f) that are performing contracts on December 30, 1996. 
</P>
<P>(2) This part will also apply to actions initiated on or after December 30, 1996 regardless of the date of the cause giving rise to the actions. 
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts entered into by the former Resolution Trust Corporation (RTC) that were transferred to the FDIC will be treated in the same manner as FDIC contracts under this part. 
</P>
<P>(4) RTC actions taken under the RTC regulations on or before December 31, 1995, will be honored as if taken by the FDIC. A contractor subject to an RTC exclusion or suspension will be precluded thereby from participation in the FDIC's contracting program unless that exclusion or suspension is modified or terminated under the provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adequate evidence</I> means information sufficient to support the reasonable belief that a particular act or omission has occurred. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliated business entity</I> means a company that is under the control of the contractor, is in control of the contractor, or is under common control with the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Civil judgment</I> means a judgment of a civil offense or liability by any court of competent jurisdiction in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, firm, partnership, society, joint venture, business trust, association, consortium or similar organization. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conflict of interest</I> means a situation in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) A contractor; any management officials or affiliated business entities of a contractor; or any employees, agents, or subcontractors of a contractor who will perform services under a proposed or existing contract with the FDIC: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has one or more personal, business, or financial interests or relationships which would cause a reasonable individual with knowledge of the relevant facts to question the integrity or impartiality of those who are or will be acting under a proposed or existing FDIC contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is an adverse party to the FDIC, RTC, the former Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation (FSLIC), or their successors in a lawsuit; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has ever been suspended, excluded, or debarred from contracting with a federal entity or has ever had a contract with the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC or their successors rescinded or terminated prior to the contract's completion and which rescission or termination involved issues of conflicts of interest or ethical responsibilities; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Any other facts exist which the FDIC, in its sole discretion, determines may, through performance of a proposed or existing FDIC contract, provide a contractor with an unfair competitive advantage which favors the interests of the contractor or any person with whom the contractor has or is likely to have a personal or business relationship. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contractor</I> means a person or company which has submitted an offer to perform services for the FDIC or has a contractual arrangement with the FDIC to perform services. For purposes of this part, contractor also includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A contractor's affiliated business entities, key employees, and management officials of the contractor; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any subcontractor performing services for the FDIC and the management officials and key employees of such subcontractors; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity or organization seeking to perform services for the FDIC as a minority or woman-owned business (MWOB). 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contract(s)</I> means agreement(s) between FDIC and a contractor, including, but not limited to, agreements identified as “Task Orders”, for a contractor to provide services to FDIC. Contracts also mean contracts between a contractor and its subcontractor. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Control</I> means the power to vote, directly or indirectly, 25 percent or more of any class of the voting stock of a company; the ability to direct in any manner the election of a majority of a company's directors or trustees; or the ability to exercise a controlling influence over the company's management and policies. For purposes of this definition, a general partner of a limited partnership is presumed to be in control of that partnership. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conviction</I> means a judgment or conviction of a criminal offense by any court of competent jurisdiction, whether entered upon a verdict or plea, and includes pleas of nolo contendere. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting in its receivership and corporate capacities, and FDIC officials or committees acting under delegated authority. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Indictment</I> shall include an information or other filing by a competent authority charging a criminal offense. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Key employee</I> means an individual who participates personally and substantially in the negotiation of, performance of, and/or monitoring for compliance under a contract with the FDIC. Such participation is made through, but is not limited to, decision, approval, disapproval, recommendation, or the rendering of advice under the contract. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Management official</I> means any shareholder, employee or partner who controls a company and any individual who directs the day-to-day operations of a company. With respect to a partnership, all partners are deemed to be management officials unless the partnership is governed by a management or executive committee with responsibility for the day-to-day operations. In partnerships with such committees, management official means only those partners who are a member of such a committee. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Material fact</I> means one that is necessary to determine the outcome of an issue or case and without which the case could not be supported. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Offer</I> means a proposal or other written or oral offer to provide services to FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations</I> means two or more instances in which a loan or advance from an insured depository institution: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is in default for ninety (90) or more days as to payment of principal, interest, or a combination thereof, and there remains a legal obligation to pay an amount in excess of $50,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Where there has been a failure to comply with the terms of a loan or advance to such an extent that the collateral securing the loan or advance was foreclosed upon, resulting in a loss in excess of $50,000 to the insured depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Preponderance of the evidence</I> means proof by information that, compared with that opposing it, leads to the conclusion that the fact at issue is more probably true than not. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Subcontractor</I> means an entity or organization that enters into a contract with an FDIC contractor or another subcontractor to perform services under a proposed or existing contract with the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Substantial loss to federal deposit insurance funds</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A loan or advance from an insured depository institution, which is currently owed to the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC or their successors, or the former Bank Insurance Fund (BIF), the former Savings Association Insurance Fund (SAIF) or the Deposit Insurance Fund, the FSLIC Reserve Fund (FRF), or funds that were maintained by the RTC for the benefit of insured depositors, that is or has ever been delinquent for ninety (90) or more days as to payment of principal, interest, or a combination thereof and on which there remains a legal obligation to pay an amount in excess of $50,000; 
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation to pay an outstanding, unsatisfied, final judgment in excess of $50,000 in favor of the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC, or their successors, or the BIF, the SAIF, the FRF or the funds that were maintained by the RTC for the benefit of insured depositors; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A loan or advance from an insured depository institution which is currently owed to the FDIC, RTC, FSLIC or their successors, or the former BIF, the former SAIF, the Deposit Insurance Fund , the FRF or the funds that were maintained by the RTC for the benefit of insured depositors, where there has been a failure to comply with the terms to such an extent that the collateral securing the loan or advance was foreclosed upon, resulting in a loss in excess of $50,000. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68560, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 20527, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.3   Appropriate officials.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The <I>Ethics Counselor</I> is the Executive Secretary of the FDIC. The Ethics Counselor shall act as the official responsible for rendering suspension and exclusion decisions under this part. In addition to taking suspension and/or exclusion action under this part, the Ethics Counselor has authority to terminate exclusion and suspension proceedings. As used in this part, “Ethics Counselor” includes any official designated by the Ethics Counselor to act on the Ethics Counselor's behalf. 
</P>
<P>(b) The <I>Corporation Ethics Committee</I> is the Committee appointed by the Chairman of the FDIC, or Chairman's designee, which provides review of any suspension or exclusion decision rendered by the Ethics Counselor that is appealed by a contractor who has been suspended and/or excluded from FDIC contracting. 
</P>
<P>(c) Information concerning the possible existence of any cause for suspension or exclusion shall be reported to the Office of the Executive Secretary (Ethics Section). This part does not modify the responsibility to report allegations of fraud, waste and abuse, including but not limited to criminal violations, to the Office of Inspector General. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.5   Exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Ethics Counselor may exclude a contractor from the FDIC contracting program for any of the causes set forth in § 367.6, using procedures established in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) Exclusion is a serious action to be imposed when there exists a preponderance of the evidence that a contractor has violated one or more of the causes set forth in § 367.6. Contractors excluded from FDIC contracting programs are prohibited from entering into any new contracts with FDIC for the duration of the period of exclusion as determined pursuant to this part. The FDIC shall not solicit offers from, award contracts to, extend or modify existing contracts, award task orders under existing contracts, or consent to subcontracts with such contractors. Excluded contractors are also prohibited from conducting business with FDIC as agents or representatives of other contractors. <I>Provided however,</I> that these limitations do not become effective upon the notification of the contractor that there is a possible cause to exclude under § 367.13. Rather, they become effective only upon the Ethics Counselor's decision to exclude the contractor pursuant to § 367.16. <I>Provided further,</I> that the causes for exclusion set forth in § 367.6(a)(1) through (4) reflect statutorily established mandatory bars to contracting with the FDIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) Except when one or more of the statutorily established mandatory bars to contracting are shown to exist, the existence of a cause for exclusion does not necessarily require that the contractor be excluded; the seriousness of the contractor's acts or omissions and any mitigating or aggravating circumstances shall be considered in making any exclusion decision. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.6   Causes for exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>The FDIC may exclude a contractor, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, upon a finding that: 
</P>
<P>(a) The contractor has been convicted of any felony; 
</P>
<P>(b) The contractor has been removed from, or prohibited from participating in the affairs of, any insured depository institution pursuant to any final enforcement action by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the FDIC or their successors; 
</P>
<P>(c) The contractor has demonstrated a pattern or practice of defalcation; 
</P>
<P>(d) The contractor has caused a substantial loss to Deposit Insurance Fund (or any predecessor deposit insurance fund); 
</P>
<P>(e) The contractor has failed to disclose, pursuant to 12 CFR 366.6, a material fact to the FDIC; 
</P>
<P>(f) The contractor has failed to disclosed any material adverse change in the representations and certifications provided to FDIC under 12 CFR 366.6; 
</P>
<P>(g) The contractor has miscertified its status as a minority and/or woman owned business (MWOB); 
</P>
<P>(h) The contractor has a conflict of interest that was not waived by the Ethics Counselor or designee; 
</P>
<P>(i) The contractor has been subject to a final enforcement action by any federal financial institution regulatory agency, or has stipulated to such action; 
</P>
<P>(j) The contractor is debarred from participating in other federal programs; 
</P>
<P>(k) The contractor has been convicted of, or subject to a civil judgment for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Commission of fraud or a criminal offense in connection with obtaining, attempting to obtain, or performing a public or private agreement or transaction, or conspiracy to do the same; 
</P>
<P>(2) Violation of federal or state antitrust statutes, including those proscribing price fixing between competitors, allocation of customers between competitors, and bid rigging, or conspiracy to do the same; 
</P>
<P>(3) Commission of embezzlement, theft, forgery, bribery, falsification or destruction of records, making false statements, receiving stolen property, making false claims, obstructing of justice, or conspiracy to do the same; 
</P>
<P>(4) Commission of any other offense indicating a breach of trust, dishonesty or lack of integrity, or conspiracy to do the same; 
</P>
<P>(l) The contractor's performance under previous contract(s) with FDIC or RTC has resulted in: 
</P>
<P>(1) The FDIC or RTC declaring such contract(s) to be in default; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The termination of such contract(s) for poor performance; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A violation of the terms of a contract that would have resulted in a default or termination of the contract for poor performance if that violation had been discovered during the course of the contract; or 
</P>
<P>(m) The contractor has engaged in any conduct: 
</P>
<P>(1) Indicating a breach of trust, dishonesty, or lack of integrity that seriously and directly affects its ability to meet standards of present responsibility required of an FDIC contractor; or 
</P>
<P>(2) So serious or compelling in nature that it adversely affects the ability of a contractor to meet the minimum ethical standards required by 12 CFR part 366. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 68560, Dec. 30, 1996, as amended at 71 FR 20528, Apr. 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.7   Suspensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Ethics Counselor may suspend a contractor for any of the causes in § 367.8 using the procedures established in this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) Suspension is an action to be imposed when there exists adequate evidence of one or more of the causes set out in § 367.8. This includes, but is not limited to, situations where immediate action is necessary to protect the integrity of the FDIC contracting program and/or the security of FDIC assets during the pendency of legal or investigative proceedings initiated by FDIC, any federal agency or any law enforcement authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) The duration of any suspension action shall be for a temporary period pending the completion of an investigation and such other legal proceedings as may ensue. 
</P>
<P>(d) A suspension shall become effective immediately upon issuance of the notice specified in § 367.13(b). 
</P>
<P>(e) Contractors suspended from FDIC contracting programs are prohibited from entering into any new contracts with the FDIC for the duration of the period of suspension. The FDIC shall not solicit offers from, award contracts to, extend or modify existing contracts, award task orders under existing contracts, or consent to subcontracts with such contractors. Suspended contractors are also prohibited from conducting business with FDIC as agents or representatives of other contractors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.8   Causes for suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Suspension may be imposed under the procedures set forth in this section upon adequate evidence: 
</P>
<P>(1) Of suspension by another federal agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) That a cause for exclusion under § 367.6 may exist; 
</P>
<P>(3) Of the commission of any other offense indicating a breach of trust, dishonesty, or lack of integrity that seriously and directly affects the minimum ethical standards required of an FDIC contractor; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Of any other cause so serious or compelling in nature that it adversely affects the ability of a contractor to meet the minimal ethical standards required by 12 CFR part 366. 
</P>
<P>(b) Indictment for any offense described in § 367.6 is adequate evidence to suspend a contractor. 
</P>
<P>(c) In assessing the adequacy of the evidence, FDIC will consider how much information is available, how credible it is given the circumstances, whether or not important allegations are corroborated and what inferences can reasonably be drawn as a result. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.9   Imputation of causes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where there is cause to suspend and/or exclude any affiliated business entity of the contractor, that conduct may be imputed to the contractor if the conduct occurred in connection with the affiliated business entity's performance of duties for or on behalf of the contractor, or with the contractor's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. The contractor's acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct shall be evidence of such knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. 
</P>
<P>(b) Where there is cause to suspend and/or exclude any contractor, that conduct may be imputed to any affiliated business entity, key employee, or management official of a contractor who participated in, knew of or had reason to know of the contractor's conduct. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where there is cause to suspend and/or exclude a key employee or management official of a contractor, that cause may be imputed to the contractor if the conduct occurred in connection with the key employee or management official's performance of duties for or on behalf of the contractor, or with the contractor's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. The contractor's acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct shall be evidence of such knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where there is cause to suspend and/or exclude one contractor participating in a joint venture or similar arrangement, that cause may be imputed to other participating contractors if the conduct occurred for or on behalf of the joint venture or similar arrangement, or with the knowledge, approval, or acquiescence of these contractors. Acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct shall be evidence of such knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. 
</P>
<P>(e) Where there is cause to suspend and/or exclude a subcontractor, that cause may be imputed to the contractor for which the subcontractor performed services, if the conduct occurred for or on behalf of the contractor and with the contractor's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. Acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct shall be evidence of such knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 367.10-367.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 367.10-367.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.12   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FDIC shall process suspension and exclusion actions as informally as practicable, consistent with its policy of providing contractors with adequate information on the grounds that give rise to the proposed action and affording contractors with a reasonable opportunity to respond. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of determining filing dates for the pleadings required by this part, including responses, notices of appeal, appeals and requests for reconsideration, the provisions relating to the construction of time limits in 12 CFR 308.12 will control. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.13   Notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusions.</I> Before excluding a contractor, the FDIC shall send it a written notice of possible cause to exclude. Such notice shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notification that exclusion for a specified period of time is being considered based on the specified cause(s) in § 367.6 to be relied upon; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the event(s), circumstance(s), or condition(s) that indicates that there is cause to believe a cause for exclusion exists, described in sufficient detail to put the contractor on notice of the conduct or transaction(s) upon which an exclusion proceeding is based; 
</P>
<P>(3) Notification that the contractor is not prohibited from contracting with the FDIC unless and until it is either suspended from FDIC contracting or the FDIC Ethics Counselor issues a decision excluding the contractor, <I>provided however,</I> in any case where the possible cause for exclusion would also be an impediment to the contractor's eligibility pursuant to 12 CFR part 366, the contractor's eligibility for any contract will be determined under that part; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Notification of the regulatory provisions governing the exclusion proceeding and the potential effect of a final exclusion decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspensions.</I> Before suspending a contractor, the FDIC shall send it notice, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notice that a suspension is being imposed based on specified causes in § 367.8; 
</P>
<P>(2) Identification of the event(s), circumstance(s), or condition(s) that indicate that there is adequate evidence to believe a cause for suspension exists, described in sufficient detail to put the contractor on notice of the basis for the suspension, recognizing that the conduct of ongoing investigations and legal proceedings, including criminal proceedings, place limitations on the evidence that can be released; 
</P>
<P>(3) Notification that the suspension prohibits the contractor from contracting with the FDIC for a temporary period, pending the completion of an investigation or other legal proceedings; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Notification of the regulatory provisions governing the suspension proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of notices.</I> Notices will be sent to the contractor by first class mail, postage prepaid. For purposes of compliance with this section, notice shall be considered to have been received by the contractor if the notice is properly mailed to the last known address of such contractor. Whenever practical, a copy of the notice will also be transmitted to the contractor by facsimile. In the event the notice is not sent by facsimile, a copy will be sent by an overnight delivery service such as Express Mail or a commercial equivalent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.14   Responses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The contractor will have 15 days from the date of the notice within which to respond. 
</P>
<P>(b) The response shall be in writing and may include: information and argument in opposition to the proposed exclusion and/or suspension, including any additional specific information pertaining to the possible causes for exclusion; and information and argument in mitigation of the proposed period of exclusion. 
</P>
<P>(c) The response may request a meeting with an FDIC official identified in the notice to permit the contractor to discuss issues of fact or law relating to the suspension and/or proposed exclusion or to otherwise resolve the pending matters. 
</P>
<P>(1) Any such meetings between a contractor and FDIC shall take such form as the FDIC deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) In cases of suspensions, no meeting will be held where a representative of the Department of Justice has advised in writing that the substantial interests of the Government would be prejudiced by such a meeting and the Ethics Counselor determines that a suspension is based on the same facts as pending or contemplated legal proceedings referenced by the representative of the Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P>(d) Failure to respond to the notice shall be deemed an admission of the existence of the cause(s) for suspension and/or exclusion set forth in the notice and an acceptance of the period of exclusion proposed therein. In such circumstances, the FDIC may proceed to a final decision without further proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(e) Where a contractor has received more than one notice, the FDIC may consolidate the pending proceedings, including the scheduling of any meetings, in accordance with this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.15   Additional proceedings as to disputed material facts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In actions not based upon a conviction or civil judgment, if the Ethics Counselor finds that the contractor's submission raises a genuine dispute over facts material to the proposed suspension and/or exclusion, the contractor shall be afforded an opportunity to appear (with counsel, if desired), submit documentary evidence, present witnesses, and confront any witnesses the FDIC presents. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Ethics Counselor may refer disputed material facts to another official for analysis and recommendation. 
</P>
<P>(c) If requested, a transcribed record of any additional proceedings shall be made available at cost to the contractor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.16   Ethics Counselor decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Standard of proof: 
</P>
<P>(1) An exclusion must be based on a finding that the cause(s) for exclusion is established by a preponderance of the evidence in the administrative record of the case; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A suspension must be based on a finding that the cause(s) for suspension is established by adequate evidence in the administrative record of the case. 
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative record consists of the portion of any information, reports, documents or other evidence identified and relied upon in the Notice of Possible Cause to Exclude, the Notice of Suspension and/or supplemental notices, if any, together with any material portions of the contractor's response. When additional proceedings are necessary to determine disputed material facts, the Ethics Counselor shall base the decision on the facts as found, together with any information and argument submitted by the contractor and any other information in the administrative record. 
</P>
<P>(c) In actions based upon a conviction, judgment, a final enforcement action by a federal financial institution regulatory agency, or in which all facts and circumstances material to the exclusion action have been finally adjudicated in another forum, the Ethics Counselor may exclude a contractor without regard to the procedures set out in §§ 367.13 and 367.14. Any such decisions will be subject to the review and reconsideration provisions of § 367.20. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of decisions.</I> Contractors shall be given prompt notice of the Ethics Counselor's decision in the manner described in § 367.13(c). If the Ethics Counselor suspends a contractor or imposes a period of exclusion, the decision shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth the cause(s) for suspension and/or exclusion included in the notice that were found by a preponderance of the evidence with reference to the administrative record support for that finding; 
</P>
<P>(2) Set forth the effect of the exclusion action and the effective dates of that action; 
</P>
<P>(3) Refer the contractor to its procedural rights of review and reconsideration under § 367.20; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Inform the contractor that a copy of the exclusion decision shall be placed in the FDIC Public Reading Room. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the FDIC Ethics Counselor decides that a period of exclusion is not warranted, the Notice of Possible Cause to Exclude may be withdrawn or the proceeding may be otherwise terminated. A decision to terminate an exclusion proceeding may include the imposition of appropriate conditions on the contractor in their future dealings with the FDIC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.17" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.17   Duration of suspensions and exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspensions.</I> (1) Suspensions shall be for a temporary period pending the completion of an investigation or other legal or exclusion proceedings. 
</P>
<P>(2) If legal or administrative proceedings are not initiated within 12 months after the date of the suspension notice, the suspension shall be terminated unless a representative of the Department of Justice requests its extension in writing. In such cases, the suspension may be extended for an additional six months. In no event may a suspension be imposed for more than 18 months, unless such proceedings have been initiated within that period. 
</P>
<P>(3) FDIC shall notify the Department of Justice of an impending termination of a suspension at least 30 days before the 12-month period expires to give the Department of Justice an opportunity to request an extension. 
</P>
<P>(4) The time limitations for suspension in this section may be waived by the affected contractor. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> (1) Exclusions shall be for a period commensurate with the seriousness of the cause(s) after due consideration of mitigating evidence presented by the contractor. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a suspension precedes an exclusion, the suspension period shall be considered in determining the exclusion period. 
</P>
<P>(3) Exclusion for causes other than the mandatory bars in 12 CFR 366.4(a) generally should not exceed three years, but where circumstances warrant, a longer period of exclusion may be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Ethics Counselor may extend an existing exclusion for an additional period if the Ethics Counselor determines that an extension is necessary to protect the integrity of the FDIC contracting program and the public interest. However, an exclusion may not be extended solely on the basis of the facts and circumstances upon which the initial exclusion action was based. The standards and procedures in this part shall be applied in any proceeding to extend an exclusion. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.18" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.18   Abrogation of contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC may, in its discretion, rescind or terminate any contract in existence at the time a contractor is suspended or excluded. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any contract not rescinded or terminated shall continue in force in accordance with the terms thereof. 
</P>
<P>(c) The right to rescind or terminate a contract in existence is cumulative and in addition to any other remedies or rights the FDIC may have under the terms of the contract, at law, or otherwise. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.19" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.19   Exceptions to suspensions and exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Exceptions to the effects of suspensions and exclusions may be available in unique circumstances, where there are compelling reasons to utilize a particular contractor for a specific task. Requests for such exceptions may be submitted only by the FDIC program office requesting the contract services. 
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of the modification or extension of an existing contract, the Ethics Counselor may except such a contracting action from the effects of suspension and/or exclusion upon a determination, in writing, that a compelling reason exists for utilization of the contractor in the particular instance. The Ethics Counselor's authority under this section shall not be delegated to any lower official. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of new contracts, the Corporation Ethics Committee may except a particular new contract from the effects of suspension and/or exclusion upon a determination in writing that a compelling reason exists for utilization of the contractor in the particular instance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 367.20" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.18.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 367.20   Review and reconsideration of Ethics Counselor decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review.</I> (1) A suspended and/or excluded contractor may appeal the exclusion decision to the Corporation Ethics Committee. 
</P>
<P>(2) In order to avail itself of the right to appeal, a suspended and/or excluded contractor must file a written notice of intent to appeal within 5 days of the Ethics Counselor's decision. 
</P>
<P>(3) The appeal shall be filed in writing within 30 days of the decision. 
</P>
<P>(4) The Corporation Ethics Committee, at its discretion and after determining that it is in the best interests of the FDIC, may stay the effect of the suspension and/or exclusion pending conclusion of its review of the matter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reconsideration.</I> (1) A suspended and/or excluded contractor may submit a request to the Ethics Counselor to reconsider the suspension and/or exclusion decision, reduce the period of exclusion or terminate the suspension and/or exclusion. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such requests shall be in writing and supported by documentation that the requested action is justified by: 
</P>
<P>(i) Reversal of the conviction or civil judgment upon which the suspension and/or exclusion was based; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Newly discovered material evidence; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Bona fide change in ownership or management; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Elimination of other causes for which the suspension and/or exclusion was imposed; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Other reasons the FDIC Ethics Counselor deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(3) A request for reconsideration based on the reversal of the conviction or civil judgment may be filed at any time. 
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for reconsideration based on other grounds may only be filed during the period commencing 60 days after the Ethics Counselor's decision imposing the suspension and/or exclusion. Only one such request may be filed in any twelve month period. 
</P>
<P>(5) The Ethics Counselor's decision on a request for reconsideration is subject to the review procedure set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="368" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 368—GOVERNMENT SECURITIES SALES PRACTICES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 78o-5. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 13287, Mar. 19, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 368.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part is applicable to state nonmember banks and insured state branches of foreign banks that have filed notice as, or are required to file notice as, government securities brokers or dealers pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 368.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank that is a government securities broker or dealer</I> means a state nonmember bank or an insured state branch of a foreign bank that has filed notice, or is required to file notice, as a government securities broker or dealer pursuant to section 15C of the Securities Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-5) and Department of the Treasury rules under section 15C (17 CFR 400.1(d) and part 401). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Customer</I> does not include a broker or dealer or a government securities broker or dealer. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Government security</I> has the same meaning as this term has in section 3(a)(42) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(42)). 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-institutional customer</I> means any customer other than: 
</P>
<P>(1) A bank, savings association, insurance company, or registered investment company; 
</P>
<P>(2) An investment adviser registered under section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-3); or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any entity (whether a natural person, corporation, partnership, trust, or otherwise) with total assets of at least $50 million. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 368.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.3   Business conduct.</HEAD>
<P>A bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall observe high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of its business as a government securities broker or dealer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 368.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.4   Recommendations to customers.</HEAD>
<P>In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale or exchange of a government security, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and as to the customer's financial situation and needs. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 368.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.5   Customer information.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the execution of a transaction recommended to a non-institutional customer, a bank that is a government securities broker or dealer shall make reasonable efforts to obtain information concerning: 
</P>
<P>(a) The customer's financial status; 
</P>
<P>(b) The customer's tax status; 
</P>
<P>(c) The customer's investment objectives; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Such other information used or considered to be reasonable by such bank in making recommendations to the customer. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 368.100" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.19.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 368.100   Obligations concerning institutional customers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a result of broadened authority provided by the Government Securities Act Amendments of 1993 (15 U.S.C. 78o-3 and 78o-5), the FDIC is adopting sales practice rules for the government securities market, a market with a particularly broad institutional component. Accordingly, the FDIC believes it is appropriate to provide further guidance to banks on their suitability obligations when making recommendations to institutional customers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The FDIC's suitability rule (§ 368.4) is fundamental to fair dealing and is intended to promote ethical sales practices and high standards of professional conduct. Banks' responsibilities include having a reasonable basis for recommending a particular security or strategy, as well as having reasonable grounds for believing the recommendation is suitable for the customer to whom it is made. Banks are expected to meet the same high standards of competence, professionalism, and good faith regardless of the financial circumstances of the customer. 
</P>
<P>(c) In recommending to a customer the purchase, sale, or exchange of any government security, the bank shall have reasonable grounds for believing that the recommendation is suitable for the customer upon the basis of the facts, if any, disclosed by the customer as to the customer's other security holdings and financial situation and needs. 
</P>
<P>(d) The interpretation in this section concerns only the manner in which a bank determines that a recommendation is suitable for a particular institutional customer. The manner in which a bank fulfills this suitability obligation will vary, depending on the nature of the customer and the specific transaction. Accordingly, the interpretation in this section deals only with guidance regarding how a bank may fulfill customer-specific suitability obligations under § 368.4. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The interpretation in this section does not address the obligation related to suitability that requires that a bank have “ * * * a ‘reasonable basis’ to believe that the recommendation could be suitable for at least some customers.” <I>In the Matter of the Application of F.J. Kaufman and Company of Virginia and Frederick J. Kaufman, Jr.,</I> 50 SEC 164 (1989).</P></FTNT>
<P>(e) While it is difficult to define in advance the scope of a bank's suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction recommended by a bank, the FDIC has identified certain factors that may be relevant when considering compliance with § 368.4. These factors are not intended to be requirements or the only factors to be considered but are offered merely as guidance in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations. 
</P>
<P>(f) The two most important considerations in determining the scope of a bank's suitability obligations in making recommendations to an institutional customer are the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk independently and the extent to which the customer is exercising independent judgement in evaluating a bank's recommendation. A bank must determine, based on the information available to it, the customer's capability to evaluate investment risk. In some cases, the bank may conclude that the customer is not capable of making independent investment decisions in general. In other cases, the institutional customer may have general capability, but may not be able to understand a particular type of instrument or its risk. This is more likely to arise with relatively new types of instruments, or those with significantly different risk or volatility characteristics than other investments generally made by the institution. If a customer is either generally not capable of evaluating investment risk or lacks sufficient capability to evaluate the particular product, the scope of a bank's customer-specific obligations under § 368.4 would not be diminished by the fact that the bank was dealing with an institutional customer. On the other hand, the fact that a customer initially needed help understanding a potential investment need not necessarily imply that the customer did not ultimately develop an understanding and make an independent investment decision. 
</P>
<P>(g) A bank may conclude that a customer is exercising independent judgement if the customer's investment decision will be based on its own independent assessment of the opportunities and risks presented by a potential investment, market factors and other investment considerations. Where the bank has reasonable grounds for concluding that the institutional customer is making independent investment decisions and is capable of independently evaluating investment risk, then a bank's obligations under § 368.4 for a particular customer are fulfilled. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> Where a customer has delegated decision-making authority to an agent, such as an investment advisor or a bank trust department, the interpretation in this section shall be applied to the agent. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See footnote 1 in paragraph (d) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(h) A determination of capability to evaluate investment risk independently will depend on an examination of the customer's capability to make its own investment decisions, including the resources available to the customer to make informed decisions. Relevant considerations could include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The use of one or more consultants, investment advisers, or bank trust departments; 
</P>
<P>(2) The general level of experience of the institutional customer in financial markets and specific experience with the type of instruments under consideration; 
</P>
<P>(3) The customer's ability to understand the economic features of the security involved; 
</P>
<P>(4) The customer's ability to independently evaluate how market developments would affect the security; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The complexity of the security or securities involved. 
</P>
<P>(i) A determination that a customer is making independent investment decisions will depend on the nature of the relationship that exists between the bank and the customer. Relevant considerations could include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any written or oral understanding that exists between the bank and the customer regarding the nature of the relationship between the bank and the customer and the services to be rendered by the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) The presence or absence of a pattern of acceptance of the bank's recommendations; 
</P>
<P>(3) The use by the customer of ideas, suggestions, market views and information obtained from other government securities brokers or dealers or market professionals, particularly those relating to the same type of securities; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The extent to which the bank has received from the customer current comprehensive portfolio information in connection with discussing recommended transactions or has not been provided important information regarding its portfolio or investment objectives. 
</P>
<P>(j) Banks are reminded that these factors are merely guidelines that will be utilized to determine whether a bank has fulfilled its suitability obligation with respect to a specific institutional customer transaction and that the inclusion or absence of any of these factors is not dispositive of the determination of suitability. Such a determination can only be made on a case-by-case basis taking into consideration all the facts and circumstances of a particular bank/customer relationship, assessed in the context of a particular transaction. 
</P>
<P>(k) For purposes of the interpretation in this section, an institutional customer shall be any entity other than a natural person. In determining the applicability of the interpretation in this section to an institutional customer, the FDIC will consider the dollar value of the securities that the institutional customer has in its portfolio and/or under management. While the interpretation in this section is potentially applicable to any institutional customer, the guidance contained in this section is more appropriately applied to an institutional customer with at least $10 million invested in securities in the aggregate in its portfolio and/or under management.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="369" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 369—PROHIBITION AGAINST USE OF INTERSTATE BRANCHES PRIMARILY FOR DEPOSIT PRODUCTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819 (Tenth) and 1835a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 47737, Sept. 10, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 369.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1835a) of the Riegle-Neal Interstate Banking and Branching Efficiency Act of 1994 (Interstate Act). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to any State nonmember bank that has operated a covered interstate branch for a period of at least one year. 
</P>
<P>(2) This part describes the requirements imposed under 12 U.S.C. 1835a, which requires the appropriate Federal banking agencies (the FDIC, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System) to prescribe uniform rules that prohibit a bank from using any authority to engage in interstate branching pursuant to the Interstate Act, or any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law, primarily for the purpose of deposit production. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means, unless the context indicates otherwise: 
</P>
<P>(1) A State nonmember bank; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A foreign bank as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 3101(7) and 12 CFR 346.1(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered interstate branch</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any branch of a State nonmember bank, and any insured branch of a foreign bank licensed by a State, that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is established or acquired outside the bank's home State pursuant to the interstate branching authority granted by the Interstate Act or by any amendment made by the Interstate Act to any other provision of law; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Could not have been established or acquired outside of the bank's home State but for the establishment or acquisition of a branch described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank or branch of a bank controlled by an out-of-State bank holding company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Home State</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a State bank, the State that chartered the bank; 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a national bank, the State in which the main office of the bank is located; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to a bank holding company, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such company are the largest on the later of: 
</P>
<P>(i) July 1, 1966; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the company becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act; 
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a foreign bank:
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of determining whether a U.S. branch of a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the home State of the foreign bank as determined in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 3103(c) and 12 CFR 347.202(j); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of determining whether a branch of a U.S. bank controlled by a foreign bank is a covered interstate branch, the State in which the total deposits of all banking subsidiaries of such foreign bank are the largest on the later of: 
</P>
<P>(A) July 1, 1966; or 
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the foreign bank becomes a bank holding company under the Bank Holding Company Act. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Host State</I> means a State in which a covered interstate branch is established or acquired. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Host state loan-to-deposit ratio</I> generally means, with respect to a particular host state, the ratio of total loans in the host state relative to total deposits from the host state for all banks (including institutions covered under the definition of “bank” in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(1)) that have that state as their home state, as determined and updated periodically by the appropriate Federal banking agencies and made available to the public. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Out-of-State bank holding company</I> means, with respect to any State, a bank holding company whose home State is another State. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State</I> means state as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(a)(3). 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Statewide loan-to-deposit ratio</I> means, with respect to a bank, the ratio of the bank's loans to its deposits in a state in which the bank has one or more covered interstate branches, as determined by the FDIC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 47737, Sept. 10, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 38848, June 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.3   Loan-to-deposit ratio screen.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application of screen.</I> Beginning no earlier than one year after a covered interstate branch is acquired or established, the FDIC will consider whether the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the relevant host State loan-to-deposit ratio. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Results of screen.</I> (1) If the FDIC determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is 50 percent or more of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, no further consideration under this part is required. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the FDIC determines that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, or if reasonably available data are insufficient to calculate the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio, the FDIC will make a credit needs determination for the bank as provided in § 369.4. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 47737, Sept. 10, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 38848, June 6, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.4   Credit needs determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The FDIC will review the loan portfolio of the bank and determine whether the bank is reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities in the host state that are served by the bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines.</I> The FDIC will use the following considerations as guidelines when making the determination pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether covered interstate branches were formerly part of a failed or failing depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether covered interstate branches were acquired under circumstances where there was a low loan-to-deposit ratio because of the nature of the acquired institution's business or loan portfolio; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether covered interstate branches have a high concentration of commercial or credit card lending, trust services, or other specialized activities, including the extent to which the covered interstate branches accept deposits in the host state; 
</P>
<P>(4) The Community Reinvestment Act (CRA) ratings received by the bank, if any, under 12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.;</I> 
</P>
<P>(5) Economic conditions, including the level of loan demand, within the communities served by the covered interstate branches; 
</P>
<P>(6) The safe and sound operation and condition of the bank; and 
</P>
<P>(7) The FDIC's Community Reinvestment regulations (12 CFR Part 345) and interpretations of those regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 369.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.20.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 369.5   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If the FDIC determines that a bank is not reasonably helping to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state, and that the bank's statewide loan-to-deposit ratio is less than 50 percent of the host state loan-to-deposit ratio, the FDIC: 
</P>
<P>(1) May order that a bank's covered interstate branch or branches be closed unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the FDIC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank has an acceptable plan under which the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the communities served by the bank in the host state; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Will not permit the bank to open a new branch in the host state that would be considered to be a covered interstate branch unless the bank provides reasonable assurances to the satisfaction of the FDIC, after an opportunity for public comment, that the bank will reasonably help to meet the credit needs of the community that the new branch will serve. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice prior to closure of a covered interstate branch.</I> Before exercising the FDIC's authority to order the bank to close a covered interstate branch, the FDIC will issue to the bank a notice of the FDIC's intent to order the closure and will schedule a hearing within 60 days of issuing the notice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing.</I> The FDIC will conduct a hearing scheduled under paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 1818(h) and 12 CFR part 308.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="370" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 370—RECORDKEEPING FOR TIMELY DEPOSIT INSURANCE DETERMINATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1817(a)(9), 1819 (Tenth), 1821(f)(1), 1822(c), 1823(c)(4).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 37042, July 30, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 370.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise provided in this part, each “covered institution” (defined in § 370.2(c)) is required to implement the information technology system and recordkeeping capabilities needed to calculate the amount of deposit insurance coverage available for each deposit account in the event of its failure. Doing so will improve the FDIC's ability to fulfill its statutory mandates to pay deposit insurance as soon as possible after a covered institution's failure and to resolve a covered institution at the least cost to the Deposit Insurance Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account holder</I> means the person or entity who has opened a deposit account with a covered institution and with whom the covered institution has a direct legal and contractual relationship with respect to the deposit.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution which, based on its Reports of Condition and Income filed with the appropriate federal banking agency, has 2 million or more deposit accounts during the two consecutive quarters preceding the effective date of this part or thereafter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other insured depository institution that delivers written notice to the FDIC that it will voluntarily comply with the requirements set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance date</I> means, except as otherwise provided in § 370.6(b):
</P>
<P>(1) April 1, 2020, for any insured depository institution that was a covered institution as of April 1, 2017;
</P>
<P>(2) The date that is three years after the date on which an insured depository institution becomes a covered institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) The date on which an insured depository institution that elects to be a covered institution under § 370.2(c)(2) files its first certification of compliance and deposit insurance coverage summary report pursuant to § 370.10(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deposit</I> has the same meaning as provided under section 3(<I>l</I>) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(<I>l</I>)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Deposit account records</I> has the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 330.1(e).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ownership rights and capacities</I> are set forth in 12 CFR part 330.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Payment instrument</I> means a check, draft, warrant, money order, traveler's check, electronic instrument, or other instrument, payment of funds, or monetary value (other than currency).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Standard maximum deposit insurance amount</I> (or SMDIA) has the same meaning as provided pursuant to section 11(a)(1)(E) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)(E)) and 12 CFR 330.1(o).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Transactional features</I> with respect to a deposit account means that the account holder or the beneficial owner of deposits can make a transfer from the deposit account to a party other than the account holder, beneficial owner of deposits, or the covered institution itself, by method that may result in such transfer being reflected in the end-of-day ledger balance for such deposit account on a day that is later than the day that such transfer is initiated, even if initiated prior to the institution's normal cutoff time for such transaction. A deposit account also has transactional features if preauthorized or automatic instructions provide for transfer of deposits in the deposit account to another deposit account at the same institution, if such other deposit account itself has transactional features.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Unique identifier</I> means an alpha-numeric code associated with an individual or entity that is used consistently and continuously by a covered institution to monitor the covered institution's relationship with that individual or entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.3   Information technology system requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered institution must configure its information technology system to be capable of performing the functions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver. To the extent that a covered institution does not maintain its deposit account records in the manner prescribed under § 370.4(a) but instead in the manner prescribed under § 370.4(b), (c) or (d), the covered institution's information technology system must be able to perform the functions set forth in paragraph (b) of this section upon input by the FDIC of additional information collected after failure of the covered institution.
</P>
<P>(b) Each covered institution's information technology system must be capable of:
</P>
<P>(1) Accurately calculating the deposit insurance coverage for each deposit account in accordance with 12 CFR part 330;
</P>
<P>(2) Generating and retaining output records in the data format and layout specified in appendix B to this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Restricting access to some or all of the deposits in a deposit account until the FDIC has made its deposit insurance determination for that deposit account using the covered institution's information technology system; and
</P>
<P>(4) Debiting from each deposit account the amount that is uninsured as calculated pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.4   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General recordkeeping requirements.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a covered institution must maintain in its deposit account records for each account the information necessary for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3. The information must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The unique identifier of each:
</P>
<P>(i) Account holder;
</P>
<P>(ii) Beneficial owner of a deposit, if the account holder is not the beneficial owner; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Grantor and each beneficiary, if the deposit account is held in connection with an informal revocable trust that is insured pursuant to 12 CFR 330.10 (<I>e.g.,</I> payable-on-death accounts, in-trust-for accounts, and <I>Totten</I> Trust accounts).
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable ownership right and capacity code listed and described in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative recordkeeping requirements.</I> As permitted under this paragraph, a covered institution may maintain in its deposit account records less information than is required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) For each deposit account for which a covered institution's deposit account records disclose the existence of a relationship which might provide a basis for additional deposit insurance in accordance with 12 CFR 330.5 or 330.7 and for which the covered institution does not maintain information that would be needed for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3, the covered institution must maintain, at a minimum, the following in its deposit account records:
</P>
<P>(i) The unique identifier of the account holder; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The corresponding “pending reason” code listed in data field 2 of the pending file format set forth in appendix B to this part (and need not maintain a “right and capacity” code).
</P>
<P>(2) For each formal revocable trust account that is insured as described in 12 CFR 330.10 and for each irrevocable trust account that is insured as described in either 12 CFR 330.12 or 12 CFR 330.13, and for which the covered institution does not maintain the information that would be needed for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3, the covered institution must, at a minimum, maintain in its deposit account records:
</P>
<P>(i) The unique identifier of the account holder;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unique identifier of a grantor if the deposit account has transactional features (unless the account is insured as described in 12 CFR 330.12, in which case the unique identifier of a grantor need not be maintained for purposes of this part); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The corresponding “right and capacity” code listed in data field 4 of the pending file format set forth in appendix B to this part if it can be identified, otherwise the corresponding “pending reason” code from data field 2 of the pending file format set forth in appendix B.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recordkeeping requirements for official items.</I> A covered institution must maintain in its deposit account records the information needed for its information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3 with respect to accounts held in the name of the covered institution from which withdrawals are made to honor a payment instrument issued by the covered institution, such as a certified check, loan disbursement check, interest check, traveler's check, expense check, official check, cashier's check, money order, or similar payment instrument. To the extent that the covered institution does not have such information, it need only maintain in its deposit account records for those accounts the corresponding “pending reason” code listed in data field 2 of the pending file format set forth in appendix B to this part (and need not maintain a “right and capacity” code).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping requirements for deposits resulting from credit balances on an account for debt owed to the covered institution.</I> A covered institution is not required to meet the recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section with respect to deposit liabilities reflected as credit balances on an account for debt owed to the covered institution if its information technology system is capable of:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately upon failure, restricting access to all of the deposits in every borrower's deposit account(s) at the covered institution in accordance with § 370.3(b)(3); and
</P>
<P>(2) Producing a file in the format provided in appendix C to this part for:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit balances on open-end credit accounts (revolving credit lines) such as credit card accounts and home equity lines of credit within a time frame that will allow the covered institution's information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3(b)(1), (2), and (4) within 24 hours after failure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit balances on closed-end loan accounts that can be used by the covered institution's information technology system to meet the requirements set forth in § 370.3(b)(1), (2) and (4).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.5   Actions required for certain deposit accounts with transactional features.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For each deposit account with transactional features for which the covered institution maintains its deposit account records in accordance with § 370.4(b)(1), a covered institution must take steps reasonably calculated to ensure that the account holder will provide to the FDIC the information needed for the covered institution's information technology system to perform the functions set forth in § 370.3(b). At a minimum, “steps reasonably calculated” shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A good faith effort to enter into contractual arrangements with the account holder that obligate the account holder to deliver information needed for deposit insurance calculation to the FDIC in a format compatible with the covered institution's information technology system within a timeframe sufficient to allow the covered institution's information technology system to perform the functions set forth in § 370.3(b) within 24 hours after the appointment of the FDIC as receiver in order for the account holder to have access to deposits on the next business day after failure; and
</P>
<P>(2) Regardless of whether the covered institution and the account holder enter into contractual arrangements as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the covered institution providing the account holder with:
</P>
<P>(i) A written disclosure specifying the information and format requirements of its information technology system and stating that the account holder may not have access to deposits in its deposit account before delivery of information in a format that is compatible with the covered institution's information technology system; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An opportunity to validate the capability to deliver the required information in the appropriate format so that a timely calculation of deposit insurance coverage can be made.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered institution need not take the steps required pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments by mortgagors;
</P>
<P>(2) Accounts maintained by real estate brokers, real estate agents, or title companies in which funds from multiple clients are deposited and held for a short period of time in connection with a real estate transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) Accounts established by an attorney or law firm on behalf of clients, commonly known as an <I>Interest on Lawyers Trust Accounts,</I> or functionally equivalent accounts;
</P>
<P>(4) Accounts held in connection with an employee benefit plan (as defined in 12 CFR 330.14); and
</P>
<P>(5) An account maintained by an account holder for the benefit of others, to the extent that the deposits in the account are held for the benefit of:
</P>
<P>(i) A formal revocable trust that would be insured as described in 12 CFR 330.10;
</P>
<P>(ii) An irrevocable trust that would be insured as described in 12 CFR 330.12; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An irrevocable trust that would be insured as described in 12 CFR 330.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.6   Implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial compliance.</I> A covered institution must satisfy the information technology system and recordkeeping requirements set forth in this part before the compliance date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> (1) A covered institution may submit a request to the FDIC for an extension of its compliance date. The request shall state the amount of additional time needed to meet the requirements of this part, the reason(s) for which such additional time is needed, and the total number and dollar value of accounts for which deposit insurance coverage could not be calculated using the covered institution's information technology system were the covered institution to fail as of the date of the request. The FDIC's grant of a covered institution's request for extension may be conditional or time-limited.
</P>
<P>(2) An insured depository institution that became a covered institution on April 1, 2017, may extend its compliance date for up to one year upon written notice to the FDIC prior to April 1, 2020. Such notice shall state the total number of, and dollar amount of deposits in, deposit accounts for which the covered institution's information technology system cannot calculate deposit insurance coverage as of April 1, 2020.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.7   Accelerated implementation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On a case-by-case basis, the FDIC may accelerate, upon notice, the implementation time frame for all or part of the requirements of this part for a covered institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating of 3, 4, or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution's Rating System (<I>CAMELS</I> rating), or in the case of an insured branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating;
</P>
<P>(2) Is undercapitalized, as defined under the prompt corrective action provisions of 12 CFR part 324; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is determined by the appropriate federal banking agency or the FDIC in consultation with the appropriate federal banking agency to be experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the covered institution by its appropriate federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination.
</P>
<P>(b) In implementing this section, the FDIC must consult with the covered institution's appropriate federal banking agency and consider the complexity of the covered institution's deposit system and operations, extent of the covered institution's asset quality difficulties, volatility of the institution's funding sources, expected near-term changes in the covered institution's capital levels, and other relevant factors appropriate for the FDIC to consider in its role as insurer of the covered institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.8   Relief.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A covered institution may submit a request in the form of a letter to the FDIC for an exemption from this part if it demonstrates that it does not take deposits from any account holder which, when aggregated, would exceed the SMDIA for any owner of the funds on deposit and will not in the future.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> (1) One or more covered institutions may submit a request in the form of a letter to the FDIC for exception from one or more of the requirements set forth in this part if circumstances exist that would make it impracticable or overly burdensome to meet those requirements. The request letter must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the covered institution(s) requesting the exception;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the requirement(s) of this part from which exception is sought;
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the deposit accounts the request concerns and state the number of, and dollar amount of deposits in, such deposit accounts for each covered institution requesting the exception;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate the need for exception for each covered institution requesting the exception; and
</P>
<P>(v) Explain the impact of the exception on the ability of each covered institution's information technology system to quickly and accurately calculate deposit insurance for the related deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>(2) The FDIC shall publish a notice of its response to each exception request in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(3) By following the procedure set forth in this paragraph, a covered institution may rely upon another covered institution's exception request which the FDIC has previously granted. The covered institution must notify the FDIC that it will invoke relief from certain part 370 requirements by submitting a notification letter to the FDIC demonstrating that the covered institution has substantially similar facts and circumstances as those of the covered institution that has already received the FDIC's approval. The covered institution's notification letter must also include the information required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and cite the applicable notice published pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The covered institution's notification for exception shall be deemed granted subject to the same conditions set forth in the FDIC's published notice unless the FDIC informs the covered institution to the contrary within 120 days after receipt of a complete notification for exception.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Release from this part.</I> A covered institution may submit a request in the form of a letter to the FDIC for release from this part if, based on its Reports of Condition and Income filed with the appropriate federal banking agency, it has less than two million deposit accounts during any three consecutive quarters after becoming a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Release from 12 CFR 360.9 requirements.</I> A covered institution is released from the provisional hold and standard data format requirements of 12 CFR 360.9 upon submitting to the FDIC the compliance certification required under § 370.10(a). A covered institution released from 12 CFR 360.9 under this paragraph (d) shall remain released for so long as it is a covered institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FDIC approval of a request.</I> The FDIC will consider all requests submitted in writing by a covered institution on a case-by-case basis in light of the objectives of this part, and the FDIC's grant of any request made by a covered institution pursuant to this section may be conditional or time-limited.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.9   Communication with the FDIC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Point of contact.</I> Not later than ten business days after either the effective date of this part or becoming a covered institution, a covered institution must notify the FDIC of the person(s) responsible for implementing the recordkeeping and information technology system capabilities required by this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Address.</I> Point-of-contact information, reports and requests made under this part shall be submitted in writing to: Office of the Director, Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429-0002.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 370.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 370.10   Compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification and report. A</I> covered institution shall submit to the FDIC a certification of compliance and a deposit insurance coverage summary report on or before its compliance date and annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(1) The certification must:
</P>
<P>(i) Confirm that the covered institution has implemented all required capabilities and tested its information technology system during the preceding twelve months;
</P>
<P>(ii) Confirm that such testing indicates that the covered institution is in compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be signed by the covered institution's chief executive officer or chief operating officer and made to the best of his or her knowledge and belief after due inquiry.
</P>
<P>(2) The deposit insurance coverage summary report must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of any material change to the covered institution's information technology system or deposit taking operations since the prior annual certification;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of deposit accounts, number of different account holders, and dollar amount of deposits by ownership right and capacity code (as listed and described in Appendix A);
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of fully-insured deposit accounts and the total dollar amount of deposits in all such accounts;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total number of deposit accounts with uninsured deposits and the total dollar amount of uninsured amounts in all of those accounts; and
</P>
<P>(v) By deposit account type, the total number of, and dollar amount of deposits in, deposit accounts for which the covered institution's information technology system cannot calculate deposit insurance coverage using information currently maintained in the covered institution's deposit account records.
</P>
<P>(3) If a covered institution experiences a significant change in its deposit taking operations, the FDIC may require that it submit a certification of compliance and a deposit insurance coverage summary report more frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FDIC Testing.</I> (1) The FDIC will conduct periodic tests of a covered institution's compliance with this part. These tests will begin no sooner than the last day of the first calendar quarter following the compliance date and would occur no more frequently than on a three-year cycle thereafter, unless there is a material change to the covered institution's information technology system, deposit-taking operations, or financial condition following the compliance date, in which case the FDIC may conduct such tests at any time thereafter.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered institution shall provide the appropriate assistance to the FDIC as the FDIC tests the covered institution's ability to satisfy the requirements set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of pending requests.</I> A covered institution that has submitted a request pursuant to § 370.6(b) or § 370.8(a) through (c) will not be considered to be in violation of this part as to the requirements that are the subject of the request while awaiting the FDIC's response to such request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of changes to law.</I> A covered institution will not be considered to be in violation of this part as a result of a change in law that alters the availability or calculation of deposit insurance for such period as specified by the FDIC following the effective date of such change.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of merger.</I> An instance of non-compliance occurring as the direct result of a merger transaction shall be deemed not to constitute a violation of this part for a period of 24 months following the effective date of the merger transaction.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.11.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 370—Ownership Right and Capacity Codes

</HEAD>
<P>A covered institution must use the codes defined below when assigning ownership right and capacity codes.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="02">Code</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> <E T="02">Illustrative description</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SGL</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Single Account (12 CFR 330.6): An account owned by one person with no testamentary or “payable-on-death” beneficiaries. It includes individual accounts, sole proprietorship accounts, single-name accounts containing community property funds, and accounts of a decedent and accounts held by executors or administrators of a decedent's estate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">JNT</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Joint Account (12 CFR 330.9): An account owned by two or more persons with no testamentary or “payable-on-death” beneficiaries (other than surviving co-owners) An account does not qualify as a joint account unless: (1) All co-owners are living persons; (2) each co-owner has personally signed a deposit account signature card (except that the signature requirement does not apply to certificates of deposit, to any deposit obligation evidenced by a negotiable instrument, or to any account maintained on behalf of the co-owners by an agent or custodian); and (3) each co-owner possesses withdrawal rights on the same basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">REV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Revocable Trust Account (12 CFR 330.10): An account owned by one or more persons that evidences an intention that, upon the death of the owner(s), the funds shall belong to one or more beneficiaries. There are two types of revocable trust accounts:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Payable-on-Death Account (Informal Revocable Trust Account): An account owned by one or more persons with one or more testamentary or “payable-on-death” beneficiaries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Revocable Living Trust Account (Formal Revocable Trust Account): An account in the name of a formal revocable “living trust” with one or more grantors and one or more testamentary beneficiaries.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IRR</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Irrevocable Trust Account (12 CFR 330.13): An account in the name of an irrevocable trust (unless the trustee is an insured depository institution, in which case the applicable code is DIT).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Certain Other Retirement Accounts (12 CFR 330.14 (b)-(c)) to the extent that participants under such plan have the right to direct the investment of assets held in individual accounts maintained on their behalf by the plan, including an individual retirement account described in section 408(a) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 408(a)), an account of a deferred compensation plan described in section 457 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 457), an account of an individual account plan as defined in section 3(34) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1002), a plan described in section 401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(d)).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">EBP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Employee Benefit Plan Account (12 CFR 330.14): An account of an employee benefit plan as defined in section 3(3) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (29 U.S.C. 1002), including any plan described in section 401(d) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(d)), but not including any account classified as a Certain Retirement Account.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BUS</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Business/Organization Account (12 CFR 330.11): An account of an organization engaged in an `independent activity' (as defined in § 330.1(g)), but not an account of a sole proprietorship.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This category includes:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Corporation Account: An account owned by a corporation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Partnership Account: An account owned by a partnership.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Unincorporated Association Account: An account owned by an unincorporated association (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> an account owned by an association of two or more persons formed for some religious, educational, charitable, social, or other noncommercial purpose).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GOV1-GOV2-GOV3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Government Account (12 CFR 330.15): An account of a governmental entity.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GOV1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All time and savings deposit accounts of the United States and all time and savings deposit accounts of a state, county, municipality, or political subdivision depositing funds in an insured depository institution in the state comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located (including any insured depository institution having a branch in said state)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GOV2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All demand deposit accounts of the United States and all demand deposit accounts of a state, county, municipality, or political subdivision depositing funds in an insured depository institution in the state comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located (including any insured depository institution having a branch in said state)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">GOV3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All deposits, regardless of whether they are time, savings or demand deposit accounts of a state, county, municipality or political subdivision depositing funds in an insured depository institution outside of the state comprising the public unit or wherein the public unit is located.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MSA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Mortgage Servicing Account (12 CFR 330.7(d)): An account held by a mortgage servicer, funded by payments by mortgagors of principal and interest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">PBA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Public Bond Accounts (12 CFR 330.15(c)): An account consisting of funds held by an officer, agent or employee of a public unit for the purpose of discharging a debt owed to the holders of notes or bonds issued by the public unit.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DIT</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IDI as trustee of irrevocable trust accounts (12 CFR 330.12): “Trust funds” (as defined in § 330.1(q)) account held by an insured depository institution as trustee of an irrevocable trust.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">ANC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annuity Contract Accounts (12 CFR 330.8): Funds held by an insurance company or other corporation in a deposit account for the sole purpose of funding life insurance or annuity contracts and any benefits incidental to such contracts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BIA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Custodian accounts for American Indians (12 CFR 330.7(e)): Funds deposited by the Bureau of Indian Affairs of the United States Department of the Interior (the “BIA”) on behalf of American Indians pursuant to 25 U.S.C. 162(a), or by any other disbursing agent of the United States on behalf of American Indians pursuant to similar authority, in an insured depository institution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DOE</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">IDI Accounts under Department of Energy Program: Funds deposited by an insured depository institution pursuant to the Bank Deposit Financial Assistance Program of the Department of Energy.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.11.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 370—Output Files Structure
</HEAD>
<P>These output files will include the data necessary for the FDIC to determine deposit insurance coverage in a resolution. A covered institution's information technology system must have the capability to prepare and maintain the files detailed below. These files must be prepared in successive iterations as the FDIC receives additional data from external sources necessary to complete the deposit insurance determinations, and, as it updates pending determinations. The files will be comprised of the following four tables. The unique identifier and government identification are required in all four tables so those tables can be linked where necessary.
</P>
<P>A null value, as indicated in the table below, is allowed for fields that are not immediately needed to calculate deposit insurance. To ensure timely calculations for depositor liquidity purposes, the information with null-value designations can be obtained after the initial deposit insurance calculation. As due diligence for recordkeeping progresses throughout the years of ongoing compliance, the FDIC expects that the banks will continue efforts to capture the null-value designations and populate the output file to alleviate the burden at failure. If a null value is allowed in a field, the record should not be placed in the pending file.
</P>
<P>These files must be prepared in successive iterations as the covered institution receives additional data from external sources necessary to complete any pending deposit insurance calculations. The unique identifier is required in all four files to link the customer information. All files are pipe delimited. Do not pad leading and trailing spacing or zeros for the data fields.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30jy19.000.gif"/>
<P><I>Customer File.</I> Customer File will be used by the FDIC to identify the customers. One record represents one unique customer.
</P>
<P>The data elements will include:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Null value
<br/>allowed?
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Unique__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is the unique identifier that is the primary key for the depositor data record. It will be generated by the covered institution and there shall not be duplicates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. CS__Govt__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field shall contain the ID number that identifies the entity based on a government issued ID or corporate filling. Populate as follows:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a United States individual—SSN or TIN
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a foreign national individual—where a SSN or TIN does not exist, a foreign passport or other legal identification number (e.g., Alien Card)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a Non-Individual—the Tax identification Number (TIN), or other register entity number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. CS__Govt__ID__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The valid customer identification types are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SSN—Social Security Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—TIN—Tax Identification Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DL—Driver's License, issued by a State or Territory of the United States
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ML—Military ID
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PPT—Valid Passport
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—AID—Alien Identification Card
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OTH—Other
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. CS__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The customer type field indicates the type of entity the customer is at the covered institution. The valid values are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—IND—Individual
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BUS—Business
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—TRT—Trust
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—NFP—Non-Profit
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—GOV—Government
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OTH—Other
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. CS__First__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer first name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. CS__Middle__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer middle name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. CS__Last__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer last name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. CS__Name__Suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. CS__Entity__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The registered name of the entity. Do not use this field if the customer is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. CS__Street__Add__Ln1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 1. The current account statement mailing address of record</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. CS__Street__Add__Ln2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 2. If available, the second address line</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. CS__Street__Add__Ln3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 3. If available, the third address line</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. CS__City</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The city associated with the mailing address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. CS__State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The state for United States addresses or state/province/county for international addresses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For United States addresses use a two-character state code (official United States Postal Service abbreviations) associated with the mailing address.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For international address follow that country state code.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. CS__ZIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Zip/Postal Code associated with the customer's mailing address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For United States zip codes, use the United States Postal Service ZIP+4 standard
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For international zip codes follow that standard format of that country.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. CS__Country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The country associated with the mailing address. Provide the country name or the standard International Organization for Standardization (ISO) country code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. CS__Telephone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer telephone number. The telephone number on record for the customer, including the country code if not within the United States</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. CS__Email</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The email address on record for the customer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. CS__Outstanding__Debt__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates whether the customer has outstanding debt with covered institution. This field may be used by the FDIC to determine offsets. Enter “Y” if customer has outstanding debt with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20. CS__Security__Pledge__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field shall only be used for Government customers. This field indicates whether the covered institution has pledged securities to the government entity, to cover any shortfall in deposit insurance. Enter “Y” if the government entity has outstanding security pledge with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Account File.</I> The Account File contains the deposit ownership rights and capacities information, allocated balances, insured amounts, and uninsured amounts. The balances are in U.S. dollars. The Account file is linked to the Customer File by the CS__Unique__ID.
</P>
<P>The data elements will include:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Null value
<br/>allowed?
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Unique__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is the unique identifier that is the primary key for the depositor data record. It will be generated by the covered institution and there cannot be duplicates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit account identifier. The primary field used to identify a deposit account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The account identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element to uniquely identify a deposit account
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Right__Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account ownership categories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SGL—Single accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—JNT—Joint accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—REV—Revocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—IRR—Irrevocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—CRA—Certain retirement accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—EBP—Employee benefit plan accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BUS—Business/Organization accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—GOV1, GOV2, GOV3—Government accounts (public unit accounts)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MSA—Mortgage servicing accounts for principal and interest payments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DIT—Accounts held by a depository institution as the trustee of an irrevocable trust
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ANC—Annuity contract accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PBA—Public bond accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BIA—Custodian accounts for American Indians
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DOE—Accounts of an IDI pursuant to the Bank Deposit Financial Assistance Program of the Department of Energy
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Prod__Cat</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product category or classification
<br/>—DDA—Demand Deposit Accounts
<br/>—NOW—Negotiable Order of Withdrawal
<br/>—MMA—Money Market Deposit Accounts
<br/>—SAV—Other savings accounts
<br/>—CDS—Time Deposit accounts and Certificate of Deposit accounts, including any accounts with specified maturity dates that may or may not be renewable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes. For credit card accounts with a credit balance that create a deposit liability, use a NULL value for this field.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Allocated__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The current balance in the account at the end of business on the effective date of the file, allocated to a specific owner in that insurance category</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For JNT accounts, this is a calculated field that represents the allocated amount to each owner in JNT category
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For REV accounts, this is a calculated field that represents the allocated amount to each owner-beneficiary in REV category
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For other accounts with only one owner, this is the account current balance
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This balance shall not be reduced by float or holds. For CDs and time deposits, the balance shall reflect the principal balance plus any interest paid and available for withdrawal not already included in the principal (do not include accrued interest)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Acc__Int</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accrued interest allocated similarly as data field #5 DP__Allocated__Amt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of interest that has been earned but not yet paid to the account as of the date of the file
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. DP__Total__PI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total amount adding #5 DP__Allocated__Amt and #6 DP__Acc__Int</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. DP__Hold__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold amount on the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The available balance of the account is reduced by the hold amount. It has no effect on current balance (ledger balance)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. DP__Insured__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The insured amount of the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. DP__Uninsured__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The uninsured amount of the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. DP__Prepaid__Account__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates a prepaid account with covered institution. Enter “Y” if account is a prepaid account with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. DP__PT__Account__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates a pass-through account with covered institution. Enter “Y” if account is a pass-through with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. DP__PT__Trans__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates whether the fiduciary account has sub-accounts that have transactional features. Enter “Y” if account has transactional features, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Account Participant File.</I> The Account Participant File will be used by the FDIC to identify account participants, to include the official custodian, beneficiary, bond holder, mortgagor, or employee benefit plan participant, for each account and account holder. One record represents one unique account participant. The Account Participant File is linked to the Account File by CS__Unique__ID and DP__Acct__Identifier.
</P>
<P>The data elements will include:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Null value
<br/>allowed?
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Unique__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is the unique identifier that is the primary key for the depositor data record. It will be generated by the covered institution and there shall not be duplicates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit account identifier. The primary field used to identify a deposit account
<br/>The account identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element to uniquely identify a deposit account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Right__Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account ownership categories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SGL—Single accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—JNT—Joint accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—REV—Revocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—IRR—Irrevocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—CRA—Certain retirement accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—EBP—Employee benefit plan accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BUS—Business/Organization accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—GOV1, GOV2, GOV3—Government accounts (public unit accounts)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MSA—Mortgage servicing accounts for principal and interest payments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DIT—Accounts held by a depository institution as the trustee of an irrevocable trust
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ANC—Annuity contract accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PBA—Public bond accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BIA—Custodian accounts for American Indians
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DOE—Accounts of an IDI pursuant to the Bank Deposit Financial Assistance Program of the Department of Energy
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Prod__Category</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product category or classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DDA—Demand Deposit Accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—NOW—Negotiable Order of Withdrawal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MMA—Money Market Deposit Accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SAV—Other savings accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—CDS—Time Deposit accounts and Certificate of Deposit accounts, including any accounts with specified maturity dates that may or may not be renewable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. AP__Allocated__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Amount of funds attributable to the account participant as an account holder (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> Public account holder of a public bond account) or the amount of funds entitled to the beneficiary for the purpose of insurance determination (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> Revocable Trust)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. AP__Participant__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is the unique identifier for the Account Participant. It will be generated by the covered institution and there shall not be duplicates. If the account participant is an existing bank customer, this field is the same as CS__Unique__ID field</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. AP__Govt__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field shall contain the ID number that identifies the entity based on a government issued ID or corporate filing. Populate as follows:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a United States individual—Legal identification number (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> SSN, TIN, Driver's License, or Passport Number)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a foreign national individual—where a SSN or TIN does not exist, a foreign passport or other legal identification number (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> Alien Card)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a Non-Individual—the Tax identification Number (TIN), or other register entity number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. AP__Govt__ID__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The valid customer identification types are:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SSN—Social Security Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—TIN—Tax Identification Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DL—Driver's License, issued by a State or Territory of the United States
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ML—Military ID
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PPT—Valid Passport
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—AID—Alien Identification Card
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OTH—Other
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. AP__First__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer first name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. AP__Middle__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer middle name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. AP__Last__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer last name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. AP__Entity__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The registered name of the entity. Do not use this field if the participant is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. AP__Participant__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is used as the participant type identifier. The field will list the “beneficial owner” type:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OC—Official Custodian
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BEN—Beneficiary
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BHR—Bond Holder
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MOR—Mortgagor
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—EPP—Employee Benefit Plan Participant</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Pending File.</I> The Pending File contains the information needed for the FDIC to contact the owner or agent requesting additional information to complete the deposit insurance calculation. Each record represents a deposit account.
</P>
<P>The data elements will include:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Null value allowed?
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. CS__Unique__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field is the unique identifier that is the primary key for the depositor data record. It will be generated by the covered institution and there cannot be duplicates</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Pending__Reason</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reason code for the account to be included in Pending file</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For deposit account records maintained by the bank, use the following codes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—A—agency or custodian
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—B—beneficiary
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OI—official item
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—RAC—right and capacity code
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For alternative recordkeeping requirements, use the following codes
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARB—depository organization for brokered deposits (Brokered deposit has the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 337.6(a)(2))
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARBN—non-depository organization for brokered deposits (Brokered deposit has the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 337.6(a)(2))
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARCRA—certain retirement accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—AREBP—employee benefit plan accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARM—mortgage servicing for principal and interest payments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARO—other deposits
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ARTR—trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The FDIC needs these codes to initiate the collection of needed information
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. DP__Acct__Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Deposit account identifier. The primary field used to identify a deposit account
<br/>The account identifier may be composed of more than one physical data element to uniquely identify a deposit account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. DP__Right__Capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account ownership categories</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SGL—Single accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—JNT—Joint accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—REV—Revocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—IRR—Irrevocable trust accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—CRA—Certain retirement accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—EBP—Employee benefit plan accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BUS—Business/Organization accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—GOV1, GOV2, GOV3—Government accounts (public unit accounts)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MSA—Mortgage servicing accounts for principal and interest payments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DIT—Accounts held by a depository institution as the trustee of an irrevocable trust
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ANC—Annuity contract accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PBA—Public bond accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—BIA—Custodian accounts for American Indians
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DOE—Accounts of an IDI pursuant to the Bank Deposit Financial Assistance Program of the Department of Energy
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. DP__Prod__Category</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product category or classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DDA—Demand Deposit Accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—NOW—Negotiable Order of Withdrawal
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—MMA—Money Market Deposit Accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SAV—Other savings accounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—CDS—Time Deposit accounts and Certificate of Deposit accounts, including any accounts with specified maturity dates that may or may not be renewable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. DP__Cur__Bal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current balance—The current balance in the account at the end of business on the effective date of the file</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This balance shall not be reduced by float or holds. For CDs and time deposits, the balance shall reflect the principal balance plus any interest paid and available for withdrawal not already included in the principal (do not include accrued interest)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. DP__Acc__Int</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Accrued interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of interest that has been earned but not yet paid to the account as of the date of the file
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. DP__Total__PI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Total of principal and accrued interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. DP__Hold__Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Hold amount on the account</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Decimal (14,2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The available balance of the account is reduced by the hold amount. It has no impact on current balance (ledger balance)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. DP__Prepaid__Account__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates a prepaid account with covered institution. Enter “Y” if account is a prepaid account, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. CS__Govt__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field shall contain the ID number that identifies the entity based on a government issued ID or corporate filing. Populate as follows:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a United States individual SSN or TIN
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a foreign national individual—where a SSN or TIN does not exist, a foreign passport or other legal identification number (e.g., Alien Card)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For a Non-Individual—the Tax identification Number (TIN), or other register entity number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. CS__Govt__ID__Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The valid customer identification types:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—SSN—Social Security Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—TIN—Tax Identification Number
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—DL—Driver's License, issued by a State or Territory of the United States
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—ML—Military ID
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—PPT—Valid Passport
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—AID—Alien Identification Card
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—OTH—Other
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. CS__First__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer first name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14. CS__Middle__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer middle name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15. CS__Last__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer last name. Use only for the name of individuals and the primary contact for entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16. CS__Name__Suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer suffix</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17. CS__Entity__Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The registered name of the entity. Do not use this field if the customer is an individual</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18. CS__Street__Add__Ln1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 1. The current account statement mailing address of record</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19. CS__Street__Add__Ln2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 2. If available, the second address line</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20. CS__Street__Add__Ln3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Street address line 3. If available, the third address line</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21. CS__City</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The city associated with the mailing address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22. CS__State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The state for United States addresses or state/province/county for international addresses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For United States addresses use a two-character state code (official United States Postal Service abbreviations) associated with the mailing address
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For international address follow that country state code
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23. CS__ZIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Zip/Postal Code associated with the customer's mailing address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For United States zip codes, use the United States Postal Service ZIP+4 standard
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">—For international zip codes follow the standard format of that country
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24. CS__Country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The country associated with the mailing address. Provide the country name or the standard International Organization for Standardization (ISO) country code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25. CS__Telephone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Customer telephone number. The telephone number on record for the customer, including the country code if not within the United States</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26. CS__Email</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The email address on record for the customer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27. CS__Outstanding__Debt__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates whether the customer has outstanding debt with covered institution. This field may be used to determine offsets. Enter “Y” if customer has outstanding debt with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28. CS__Security__Pledge__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates whether the CI has pledged securities to the government entity, to cover any shortfall in deposit insurance. Enter “Y” if the government entity has outstanding security pledge with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise. This field shall only be used for Government customers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29. DP__PT__Account__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates a pass-through account with covered institution. Enter “Y” if account is a pass-through with covered institutions, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">30. PT__Parent__Customer__ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field contains the unique identifier of the parent customer ID who has the fiduciary responsibility at the covered institution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Variable Character</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">31. DP__PT__Trans__Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">This field indicates whether the fiduciary account has sub-accounts that have transactional features. Enter “Y” if account has transactional features, enter “N” otherwise</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Character (1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.21.0.1.11.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 370—Credit Balance Processing File Structure
</HEAD>
<P>A covered institution's IT system should be able to produce a file in the format below that can be used to calculate deposit insurance coverage for deposits resulting from credit balances on accounts for debt owed to the covered institution (“credit balances”). This file format is derived from the “Broker Submission File Format” found in the FDIC's “Deposit Broker's Processing Guide,” supplemented by the “Addendum to the Deposit Broker's Processing Guide” used for Part 370 alternative recordkeeping entity processing. The file format below identifies fields that are not applicable for processing credit balances. These fields should be null while also maintaining the pipe delimiters. Additional information regarding the FDIC's Deposit Broker's Processing Guide for part 370 covered institutions may be found at <I>https://www.fdic.gov/deposit/deposits/brokers/part-370-appendix.html</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Null value
<br/>allowed?
<br/>(Y/N)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">01 Broker Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">02 Account Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account number of account holding pending payments or other items for refunds of credit balances</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">03 Customer Account Number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assigned customer account number</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">04 CUSIP</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">05 Tax ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Taxpayer identification number of the account holder</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">06 Tax ID Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Code indicates corporate (TIN) or personal tax identification number (SSN)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">07 Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full name of credit balance owner</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">08 Name 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">09 Address 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Address line 1 as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 Address 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Address line 2 as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Address 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Address line 3 as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 City</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Address city as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 State</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">State postal abbreviation as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 Zip/Postal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The zip/postal code associated with the credit balance owner's address at it appears on the credit balance owner's statement. For United States zip codes, use the United States Postal Service ZIP+4 standard. For international zip codes follow that standard format of that country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 Country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Country code as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 Province</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Province as it appears on the credit balance owner's statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 IRA Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 Credit Balance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit balance of the account as of the institution failure date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19 Sub-broker Indicator</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 Deposit Account Ownership Category</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Account ownership right and capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 Transactional Flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22 Retained Interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">23 Amount of Overfunding</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">24 Account Participant Full Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25 Account Participant Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">26 Amount of Account Participant's Non-contingent Interests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">27 Amount of Account Participant's Contingent Interests</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">28 Account Participant's Government-Issued ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">29 Account Participant's Government-Issued ID Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="371" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 371—RECORDKEEPING REQUIREMENTS FOR QUALIFIED FINANCIAL CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819(a)(Tenth); 1820(g); 1821(e)(8)(D) and (H); 1831g; 1831i; and 1831s.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 35599, July 31, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 371.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.1   Scope, purpose, and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to each insured depository institution that qualifies as a “records entity” under the definition set forth in § 371.2(r).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes recordkeeping requirements with respect to qualified financial contracts for insured depository institutions that are in a troubled condition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance dates.</I> (1) Within 3 business days of becoming a records entity, the records entity shall provide to the FDIC, in writing, the name and contact information for the person at the records entity who is responsible for recordkeeping under this part and, unless not required to maintain files in electronic form pursuant to § 371.4(d), a directory of the electronic files that will be used to maintain the information required to be kept by this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 371.6:
</P>
<P>(i) A records entity, other than an accelerated records entity, shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 270 days after it becomes a records entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) An accelerated records entity shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 60 days after it becomes a records entity.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, a records entity that becomes an accelerated records entity after it became a records entity shall comply with all applicable recordkeeping requirements of this part within 60 days after it becomes an accelerated records entity or its original 270 day compliance period, whichever time period is shorter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extensions of time to comply.</I> The FDIC may, in its discretion, grant one or more extensions of time for compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, no single extension for a records entity shall be for a period of more than 120 days.
</P>
<P>(2) For a records entity that is an accelerated records entity at the time of a request for an extension, no single extension shall be for a period of more than 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) A records entity may request an extension of time by submitting a written request to the FDIC at least 15 days prior to the deadline for its compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of this part. The written request for an extension must contain a statement of the reasons why the records entity cannot comply by the deadline for compliance, a project plan (including timeline) for achieving compliance, and a progress report describing the steps taken to achieve compliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accelerated records entity</I> means a records entity that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating, as determined by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination, of 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution Rating System, or in the case of an insured branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency or by the FDIC in consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency to be experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the institution by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means any entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> means the agency or agencies designated under 12 U.S.C. 1813(q).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business day</I> means any day other than any Saturday, Sunday or any day on which either the New York Stock Exchange or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York is closed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Control.</I> An entity controls another entity if:
</P>
<P>(1) The entity directly or indirectly or acting through one or more persons owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 per centum or more of any class of voting securities of the other entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The entity controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors or trustees of the other entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing in accordance with 12 CFR 225.31, that the entity directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other entity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate group</I> means an entity and all affiliates of that entity.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Counterparty</I> means any natural person or entity (or separate non-U.S. branch of any entity) that is a party to a QFC with a records entity or, if the records entity is required or chooses to maintain the records specified in § 371.4(b), a reportable subsidiary of such records entity.
</P>
<P><I>(h) Effective date</I> means October 1, 2017.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Full scope entity</I> means a records entity that has total consolidated assets equal to or greater than $50 billion or that is a Part 148 affiliate.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813, the deposits of which are insured by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Legal entity identifier</I> or <I>LEI</I> for an entity means the global legal entity identifier maintained for such entity by a utility accredited by the Global LEI Foundation or by a utility endorsed by the Regulatory Oversight Committee. As used in this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Regulatory Oversight Committee</I> means the Regulatory Oversight Committee (of the Global LEI System), whose charter was set forth by the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the Group of Twenty and the Financial Stability Board, or any successor thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Global LEI Foundation</I> means the not-for-profit organization organized under Swiss law by the Financial Stability Board in 2014, or any successor thereof.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Limited scope entity</I> means a records entity that is not a full scope entity.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Parent entity</I> with respect to an entity means an entity that controls that entity.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Part 148</I> means 31 CFR part 148.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Part 148 affiliate</I> means a records entity that, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. generally accepted accounting principles or other applicable accounting standards, consolidates, or is consolidated by or with (or is required to consolidate or be consolidated by or with), a member of a corporate group one or more members of which are required to maintain QFC records pursuant to Part 148.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Position</I> means an individual transaction under a qualified financial contract and includes the rights and obligations of a person or entity as a party to an individual transaction under a qualified financial contract.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Qualified financial contract</I> or <I>QFC</I> means any qualified financial contract as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D), and any agreement or transaction that the FDIC determines by regulation, resolution, or order to be a QFC, including without limitation, any securities contract, commodity contract, forward contract, repurchase agreement, and swap agreement.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Records entity</I> means any insured depository institution that has received written notice from the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency or the FDIC that it is in a troubled condition and written notice from the FDIC that it is subject to the recordkeeping requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Reportable subsidiary</I> means any subsidiary of a records entity that is incorporated or organized under U.S. federal law or the laws of any State that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) A functionally regulated subsidiary as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5);
</P>
<P>(2) A security-based swap dealer as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71); or
</P>
<P>(3) A major security-based swap participant as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(67).
</P>
<P>(t) <I>State</I> means any state, commonwealth, territory or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(u)<I> Subsidiary,</I> with respect to another entity, means an entity that is, or is required to be, consolidated by such other entity on such other entity's financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. generally accepted accounting principles or other applicable accounting standards.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Total consolidated assets</I> means the total consolidated assets of a records entity and its consolidated subsidiaries as reported in the records entity's most recent year-end audited consolidated statement of financial condition filed with the appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Troubled condition</I> means an insured depository institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has a composite rating, as determined by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination, of 3 (only for insured depository institutions with total consolidated assets of $10 billion or greater), 4 or 5 under the Uniform Financial Institution Rating System, or in the case of an insured branch of a foreign bank, an equivalent rating;
</P>
<P>(2) Is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FDIC for termination or suspension of deposit insurance;
</P>
<P>(3) Is subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by the appropriate Federal banking agency, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(q), that requires action to improve the financial condition of the insured depository institution or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the appropriate Federal banking agency which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve the financial condition of the insured depository institution, unless otherwise informed in writing by the appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(4) Is informed in writing by the insured depository institution's appropriate Federal banking agency that it is in troubled condition for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1831i on the basis of the institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination, or other information available to the institution's appropriate Federal banking agency; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is determined by the appropriate Federal banking agency or the FDIC in consultation with the appropriate Federal banking agency to be experiencing a significant deterioration of capital or significant funding difficulties or liquidity stress, notwithstanding the composite rating of the institution by its appropriate Federal banking agency in its most recent report of examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.3   Maintenance of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form and availability.</I> (1) Unless it is not required to maintain records in electronic form as provided in § 371.4(d), a records entity shall maintain the records described in § 371.4 in electronic form and shall be capable of producing such records electronically in the format set forth in the appendices of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) All such records shall be updated on a daily basis and shall be based upon values and information no less current than previous end-of-day values and information.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in § 371.4(d), a records entity shall compile the records described in § 371.4(a) or § 371.4(b) (as applicable) in a manner that permits aggregation and disaggregation of such records by counterparty. If the records are maintained pursuant to § 371.4(b), they must be compiled by the records entity on a consolidated basis for itself and its reportable subsidiaries in a manner that also permits aggregation and disaggregation of such records by the records entity and its reportable subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(4) Records maintained pursuant to § 371.4(b) by a records entity that is a Part 148 affiliate shall be compiled consistently, in all respects, with records compiled by its affiliate(s) pursuant to Part 148.
</P>
<P>(5) A records entity shall maintain each set of daily records for a period of not less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Change in point of contact.</I> A records entity shall provide to the FDIC, in writing, any change to the name and contact information for the person at the records entity who is responsible for recordkeeping under this part within 3 business days of any change to such information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to records.</I> A records entity shall be capable of providing the records specified in § 371.4 (based on the immediately preceding day's end-of-day values and information) to the FDIC no later than 7 a.m. (Eastern Time) each day. A records entity is required to make such records available to the FDIC following a written request by the FDIC for such records. Any such written request shall specify the date such records are to be made available (and the period of time covered by the request) and shall provide the records entity at least 8 hours to respond to the request. If the request is made less than 8 hours before such 7 a.m. deadline, the deadline shall be automatically extended to the time that is 8 hours following the time of the request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maintenance of records after a records entity is no longer in a troubled condition.</I> A records entity shall continue to maintain the capacity to produce the records required under this part on a daily basis for a period of one year after the date that the appropriate Federal banking agency or the FDIC notifies the institution, in writing, that it is no longer in a troubled condition as defined in § 371.2(w).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Maintenance of records after an acquisition of a records entity.</I> If a records entity ceases to exist as an insured depository institution as a result of a merger or a similar transaction with an insured depository institution that is not in a troubled condition immediately following the transaction, the obligation to maintain records under this part on a daily basis will terminate when the records entity ceases to exist as a separately insured depository institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.4   Content of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limited scope entities.</I> Except as provided in § 371.6, a limited scope entity must maintain (at the election of such records entity) either the records described in paragraph (b) of this section or the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) The position-level data listed in Table A-1 in Appendix A of this part with respect to each QFC to which it is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty-level data listed in Table A-2 in Appendix A of this part with respect to each QFC to which it is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(3) The corporate organization master table in Appendix A of this part for the records entity and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(4) The counterparty master table in Appendix A of this part with respect to each QFC to which it is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(5) All documents that govern QFC transactions between the records entity and each counterparty, including, without limitation, master agreements and annexes, schedules, netting agreements, supplements, or other modifications with respect to the agreements, confirmations for each QFC position that has been confirmed and all trade acknowledgments for each QFC position that has not been confirmed, all credit support documents including, but not limited to, credit support annexes, guarantees, keep-well agreements, or net worth maintenance agreements that are relevant to one or more QFCs, and all assignment or novation documents, if applicable, including documents that confirm that all required consents, approvals, or other conditions precedent for such assignment or novation have been obtained or satisfied.
</P>
<P>(6) A list of vendors directly supporting the QFC-related activities of the records entity and the vendors' contact information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full scope entities.</I> Except as provided in § 371.6, a full scope entity must maintain the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) The position-level data listed in Table A-1 in Appendix B of this part with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty-level data listed in Table A-2 in Appendix B of this part with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(3) The legal agreements information listed in Table A-3 in Appendix B of this part with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(4) The collateral detail data listed in Table A-4 in Appendix B of this part with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(5) The corporate organization master table in Appendix B of this part for the records entity and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(6) The counterparty master table in Appendix B of this part with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(7) The booking location master table in Appendix B of this part for each booking location used with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(8) The safekeeping agent master table in Appendix B of this part for each safekeeping agent used with respect to each QFC to which it or any of its reportable subsidiaries is a party, without duplication.
</P>
<P>(9) All documents that govern QFC transactions between the records entity (or any of its reportable subsidiaries) and each counterparty, including, without limitation, master agreements and annexes, schedules, netting agreements, supplements, or other modifications with respect to the agreements, confirmations for each QFC position that has been confirmed and all trade acknowledgments for each QFC position that has not been confirmed, all credit support documents including, but not limited to, credit support annexes, guarantees, keep-well agreements, or net worth maintenance agreements that are relevant to one or more QFCs, and all assignment or novation documents, if applicable, including documents that confirm that all required consents, approvals, or other conditions precedent for such assignment or novation have been obtained or satisfied.
</P>
<P>(10) A list of vendors directly supporting the QFC-related activities of the records entity and its reportable subsidiaries and the vendors' contact information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Change in recordkeeping status.</I> (1) A records entity that was a limited scope entity maintaining the records specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section and that subsequently becomes a full scope entity must maintain the records specified in paragraph (b) of this section within 270 days of becoming a full scope entity (or 60 days of becoming a full scope entity if it is an accelerated records entity). Until the records entity maintains the records required by paragraph (b) of this section it must continue to maintain the records required by paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A records entity that was a full scope entity maintaining the records specified in paragraph (b) of this section and that subsequently becomes a limited scope entity may continue to maintain the records specified in paragraph (b) of this section or, at its option, may maintain the records specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section, provided however, that such records entity shall continue to maintain the records specified in paragraph (b) of this section until it maintains the records specified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) A records entity that changes from a limited scope entity to a full scope entity and at the time it becomes a full scope entity is not yet maintaining the records specified in paragraph (a) of this section or paragraph (b) of this section must satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (b) of this section within 270 days of first becoming a records entity (or 60 days of first becoming a records entity if it is an accelerated records entity).
</P>
<P>(4) A records entity that changes from a full scope entity to a limited scope entity and at the time it becomes a limited scope entity is not yet maintaining the records specified in paragraph (b) of this section must satisfy the recordkeeping requirements of paragraph (a) of this section within 270 days of first becoming a record entity (or 60 days of first becoming a record entity if it is an accelerated records entity).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Records entities with 50 or fewer QFC positions.</I> Notwithstanding any other requirement of this part, if a records entity and, if it is a full scope entity, its reportable subsidiaries, have 50 or fewer open QFC positions in total (without duplication) on the date the institution becomes a records entity, the records required by this section are not required to be recorded and maintained in electronic form as would otherwise be required by this section, so long as all required records are capable of being updated on a daily basis. If at any time after it becomes a records entity, the institution and, if it is a full scope entity, its reportable subsidiaries, if applicable, have more than 50 open QFC positions in total (without duplication), it must record and maintain records in electronic form as required by this section within 270 days (or, if it is an accelerated records entity at that time, within 60 days). The records entity must provide to the FDIC, within 3 business days of reaching the 51-QFC threshold, a directory of the electronic files that will be used to maintain the information required to be kept by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.5   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request.</I> A records entity may request an exemption from one or more of the requirements of § 371.4 by submitting a written request to the Executive Secretary of the FDIC referring to this part. The written request for an exemption must:
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the requirement(s) under this part from which the records entity is requesting to be exempt and whether the exemption is sought to apply solely to the records entity or to one or more identified reportable subsidiaries of the records entity or to the records entity and one or more identified reportable subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the reasons why it would be appropriate for the FDIC to grant the exemption;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the reasons why granting the exemption will not impair or impede the FDIC's ability to fulfill its statutory obligations under 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8), (9), or (10) or the FDIC's ability to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the QFC exposures of the records entity and its reportable subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(4) Include such additional information (if any) that the FDIC may require.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination.</I> Following its evaluation of a request for exemption, the FDIC will determine, in its sole discretion, whether to grant or deny the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.6   Transition for existing records entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limited scope entities.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, an insured depository institution that became a records entity prior to October 1, 2017, and constitutes a limited scope entity on October 1, 2017, shall continue to comply with this part as in effect immediately prior to October 1, 2017, or, if it elects to comply with this part as in effect on and after October 1, 2017, as so in effect, for so long as the entity remains a limited scope entity that has not ceased to be required to maintain the capacity to produce records pursuant to § 371.3(d).
</P>
<P><I>(b) Transition for full scope entities maintaining records on effective date.</I> If an insured depository institution that constitutes a full scope entity on October 1, 2017, became a records entity prior to October 1, 2017, and is maintaining the records required by this part as in effect immediately prior to October 1, 2017, then:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, such records entity shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this part within 270 days after October 1, 2017 (or no later than 60 days after October 1, 2017 if it is an accelerated records entity); and
</P>
<P>(2) If—
</P>
<P>(i) Such records entity is a Part 148 affiliate and, on October 1, 2017, is not an accelerated records entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The compliance date for any other member of such record entity's corporate group to comply with Part 148 is set forth in 31 CFR 148.1(d)(1)(i)(B),(C), or (D), as in effect on October 1, 2017, such records entity shall be permitted to delay compliance with the recordkeeping requirements of this part until the first date on which members of any corporate group of which such records entity is a member is required to comply with Part 148 pursuant to 31 CFR 148.1(d)(1)(i)(B),(C), or (D), as in effect on October 1, 2017; provided, that if such records entity becomes an accelerated records entity, it shall comply with the recordkeeping requirements of this part no later than 60 days after it becomes an accelerated records entity; provided, that in the case of each of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section until such full scope entity maintains the records required by § 371.4, it continues to maintain the records required by this part as in effect immediately prior to October 1, 2017.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transition for full scope entities not maintaining records on effective date.</I> If an insured depository institution that constitutes a full scope entity on October 1, 2017, became a records entity prior to October 1, 2017, but is not maintaining the records required by this part as in effect immediately prior to October 1, 2017, such records entity shall comply with all recordkeeping requirements of this part within 270 days after the date that it first became a records entity (or no later than 60 days after it first became a records entity if it is an accelerated records entity).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 371.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 371.7   Enforcement actions.</HEAD>
<P>Violating the terms or requirements set forth in this part constitutes a violation of a regulation and subjects the records entity to enforcement actions under Section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.8.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 371—File Structure for Qualified Financial Contract (QFC) Records for Limited Scope Entities

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1—Position-Level Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide LEI for records entity if available. Information needed to review position-level data by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Position identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20058953</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a position identifier. Use the unique transaction identifier if available. Information needed to readily track and distinguish positions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a counterparty identifier. Use LEI if counterparty has one. Information needed to identify counterparty by reference to Counterparty Master Table</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Internal booking location identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide office where the position is booked. Information needed to determine system on which the trade is booked and settled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unique booking unit or desk identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for unit or desk at which the position is booked. Information needed to help determine purpose of position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit, equity, foreign exchange, interest rate (including cross-currency), other commodity, securities repurchase agreement, securities lending, loan repurchase agreement, guarantee or other third party credit enhancement of a QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide type of QFC. Use unique product identifier if available. Information needed to determine the nature of the QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of QFC covered by guarantee or other third party credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit, equity, foreign exchange, interest rate (including cross-currency), other commodity, securities repurchase agreement, securities lending, or loan repurchase agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC type is guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, provide type of QFC that is covered by such guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use unique product identifier if available. If multiple asset classes are covered by the guarantee or credit enhancement, enter the asset classes separated by comma. If all the QFCs of the underlying QFC obligor identifier are covered by the guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, enter “All”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Only required if QFC type (A1.7) is a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underlying QFC obligor identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC type is guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for the QFC obligor whose obligation is covered by the guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use LEI if underlying QFC obligor has one. Complete the counterparty master table with respect to a QFC obligor that is a non-affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Only required if QFC asset type (A1.7) is a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Validated against CO.2 if affiliate or CP.2 if non-affiliate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for primary governing documentation, e.g. the master agreement or guarantee agreement, as applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for netting agreement. If this agreement is the same as provided in A1.10, use same identifier. Information needed to identify unique netting sets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a netting agreement counterparty identifier. Use same identifier as provided in A1.4 if counterparty and netting agreement counterparty are the same. Use LEI if netting agreement counterparty has one. Information needed to identify unique netting sets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trade date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2014-12-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide trade or other commitment date for the QFC. Information needed to determine when the entity's rights and obligations regarding the position originated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Termination date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2014-03-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide date the QFC terminates or is expected to terminate, expire, mature, or when final performance is required. Information needed to determine when the entity's rights and obligations regarding the position are expected to end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next call, put, or cancellation date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next call, put, or cancellation date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value of the position in U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">995000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancements, provide the current mark-to-market expected value of the exposure. Information needed to determine the current size of the obligation/benefit associated with the QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional or principal amount of the position In U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the notional or principal amount, as applicable, in U.S. dollars. In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancements, provide the maximum possible exposure. Information needed to help evaluate the position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the records entity)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement. Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N“
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for provider. Use LEI if available. Complete the counterparty master table with respect to a provider that is a non-affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.20 is “Y”. Validated against CP.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for the agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.20 is “Y”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Related position of records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3333333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use this field to link any related positions of the records entity. All positions that are related to one another should have same designation in this field</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reference number for any related loan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a unique reference number for any loan held by the records entity or a member of its corporate group related to the position (with multiple entries delimited by commas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identifier of the lender of the related loan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any loan recorded in A1.23, provide identifier for records entity or member of its corporate group that holds any related loan. Use LEI if entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-2—Counterparty Netting Set Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the LEI for the records entity if available</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the netting agreement counterparty. Use LEI if counterparty has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underlying QFC obligor identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier for underlying QFC obligor if netting agreement is associated with a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use LEI if available</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2 or CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the records entity)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the positions subject to the netting set agreement are covered by a third-party credit enhancement agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to identity third-party credit enhancement provider</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.6 is “Y”. Should be a valid entry in the Counterparty Master Table. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4444444</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.6 is “Y”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate current market value in U.S. dollars of all positions under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">-1000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all positions in A1 for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to this value. A2.9 = A2.10 + A2.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all positive positions, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all positive positions in A1 for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to this value. A2.9 = A2.10 + A2.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all negative positions, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">-4000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all negative positions in A1 for the given Netting Agreement Identifier should be equal to this value. A2.9 = A2.10 + A2.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by records entity, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by counterparty, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity collateral—net</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide records entity's collateral excess or deficiency with respect to all of its positions, as determined under each applicable agreement, including thresholds and haircuts where applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be less than or equal to A2.15.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty collateral—net</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide counterparty's collateral excess or deficiency with respect to all of its positions, as determined under each applicable agreement, including thresholds and haircuts where applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be less than or equal to A2.16.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next margin payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-11-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next margin payment date for position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next margin payment amount in U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use positive value if records entity is due a payment and use negative value if records entity has to make the payment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Corporate Organization Master Table *
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide unique identifier. Use LEI if available. Information needed to identify entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be unique across all record entities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether the entity identifier provided is an LEI.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide legal name of entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77777777</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for immediate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether the immediate parent entity identifier provided is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of immediate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage ownership of immediate parent entity in the entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (5,2).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subsidiary, foreign branch, foreign division</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domicile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as city, state or city, foreign country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jurisdiction under which incorporated or organized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as state or foreign jurisdiction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Foreign branches and divisions shall be separately identified to the extent they are identified in an entity's reports to its appropriate Federal banking agency.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Counterparty Master Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if counterparty has one
<br/>The counterparty identifier shall be the global legal entity identifier if one has been issued to the entity. If a counterparty transacts with the records entity through one or more separate foreign branches or divisions and any such branch or division does not have its own unique global legal entity identifier, the records entity must include additional identifiers, as appropriate to enable the FDIC to aggregate or disaggregate the data for each counterparty and for each entity with the same ultimate parent entity as the counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for counterparty identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the counterparty identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domicile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as city, state or city, foreign country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jurisdiction under which incorporated or organized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as state or foreign jurisdiction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77777777</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the parent entity that directly controls the counterparty. Use LEI if immediate parent entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for immediate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the immediate parent entity identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of immediate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ultimate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">666666666</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the parent entity that is a member of the corporate group of the counterparty that is not controlled by another entity. Information needed to identify counterparty. Use LEI if ultimate parent entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for ultimate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the ultimate parent entity identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of ultimate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Details of Formats
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Content in brief
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional explanation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">YYYY-MM-DD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY = four digit date, MM = 2 digit month, DD = 2 digit date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-11-12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 25 numerical characters including 5 decimals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 numerical characters before the decimal point and up to 5 numerical characters after the decimal point. The dot character is used to separate decimals.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1352.67
<br/>12345678901234567890
<br/>12345
<br/>0
<br/>−20000.25
<br/>−0.257
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Char(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The length is fixed at 3 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USD
<br/>X1X
<br/>999
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Varchar(25)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 25 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The length is not fixed but limited at up to 25 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">asgaGEH3268EFdsagtTRCF543</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.22.0.1.8.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 371—File Structure for Qualified Financial Contract Records for Full Scope Entities
</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to § 371.4(b), the records entity is required to provide the information required by this appendix B for itself and each of its reportable subsidiaries in a manner that can be disaggregated by legal entity. Accordingly, the reference to “records entity” in the tables of appendix B should be read as referring to each of the separate legal entities (<I>i.e.,</I> the records entity and each reportable subsidiary).

</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-1—Position-Level Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and
<br/>data application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Definition
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide LEI for records entity. Information needed to review position-level data by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Position identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20058953</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a position identifier. Should be used consistently across all records entities. Use the unique transaction identifier if available. Information needed to readily track and distinguish positions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a counterparty identifier. Use LEI if counterparty has one. Should be used consistently by all records entities. Information needed to identify counterparty by reference to Counterparty Master Table</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Internal booking location identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide office where the position is booked. Information needed to determine system on which the trade is booked and settled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combination A1.2 + A1.5 + A1.6 should have a corresponding unique combination BL.2 + BL.3 + BL.4 entry in Booking Location Master Table.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unique booking unit or desk identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for unit or desk at which the position is booked. Information needed to help determine purpose of position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Combination A1.2 + A1.5 + A1.6 should have a corresponding unique combination BL.2 + BL.3 + BL.4 entry in Booking Location Master Table.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit, equity, foreign exchange, interest rate (including cross-currency), other commodity, securities repurchase agreement, securities lending, loan repurchase agreement, guarantee or other third party credit enhancement of a QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide type of QFC. Use unique product identifier if available. Information needed to determine the nature of the QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.7.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of QFC covered by guarantee or other third party credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Credit, equity, foreign exchange, interest rate (including cross-currency), other commodity, securities repurchase agreement, securities lending, or loan repurchase agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC type is guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, provide type of QFC that is covered by such guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use unique product identifier if available. If multiple asset classes are covered by the guarantee or credit enhancement, enter the asset classes separated by comma. If all the QFCs of the underlying QFC obligor identifier are covered by the guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, enter “All.”</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Only required if QFC type (A1.7) is a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.7.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underlying QFC obligor identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC type is guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for the QFC obligor whose obligation is covered by the guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use LEI if underlying QFC obligor has one. Complete the counterparty master table with respect to a QFC obligor that is a non-affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Only required if QFC asset type (A1.7) is a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Validated against CO.2 if affiliate or CP.2 if non-affiliate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the primary governing documentation, <E T="03">e.g.,</E> the master agreement or guarantee agreement, as applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for netting agreement. If this agreement is the same as provided in A1.8, use same identifier. Information needed to identify unique netting sets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a netting agreement counterparty identifier. Use same identifier as provided in A1.4 if counterparty and netting agreement counterparty are the same. Use LEI if netting agreement counterparty has one. Information needed to identify unique netting sets</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Trade date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2014-12-20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide trade or other commitment date for the QFC. Information needed to determine when the entity's rights and obligations regarding the position originated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Termination date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2014-03-31</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide date the QFC terminates or is expected to terminate, expire, mature, or when final performance is required. Information needed to determine when the entity's rights and obligations regarding the position are expected to end</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next call, put, or cancellation date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next call, put, or cancellation date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local Currency Of Position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide currency in which QFC is denominated. Use ISO currency code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(3).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value of the position in local currency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">995000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide current market value of the position in local currency. In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancements, provide the current mark-to-market expected value of the exposure. Information needed to determine the current size of the obligation or benefit associated with the QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value of the position in U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">995000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancements, provide the current mark-to-market expected value of the exposure. Information needed to determine the current size of the obligation/benefit associated with the QFC</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asset Classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide fair value asset classification under GAAP, IFRS, or other accounting principles or standards used by records entity. Provide “1” for Level 1, “2” for Level 2, or “3” for Level 3. Information needed to assess fair value of the position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.19</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional or principal amount of the position in local currency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the notional or principal amount, as applicable, in local currency. In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement, provide the maximum possible exposure. Information needed to help evaluate the position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.20</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Notional or principal amount of the position In U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the notional or principal amount, as applicable, in U.S. dollars. In the case of a guarantee or other third party credit enhancements, provide the maximum possible exposure. Information needed to help evaluate the position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the records entity)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement. Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N“.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for provider. Use LEI if available. Complete the counterparty master table with respect to a provider that is a non-affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.21 is “Y”. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4444444</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for the agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.21 is “Y.” Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the counterparty)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement. Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N“.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for provider. Use LEI if available. Complete the counterparty master table with respect to a provider that is a non-affiliate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.21.3 is “Y”. Validated against CO.2 or CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.21.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4444444</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If QFC is covered by a guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement, provide an identifier for agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A1.21.3 is “Y”. Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.22</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Related position of records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3333333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use this field to link any related positions of the records entity. All positions that are related to one another should have same designation in this field</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Reference number for any related loan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide a unique reference number for any loan held by the records entity or a member of its corporate group related to the position (with multiple entries delimited by commas)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A1.24</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identifier of the lender of the related loan</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For any loan recorded in A1.23, provide identifier for records entity or member of its corporate group that holds any related loan. Use LEI if entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-2—Counterparty Netting Set Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the LEI for the records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the netting agreement counterparty. Use LEI if counterparty has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.4.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underlying QFC obligor identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier for underlying QFC obligor if netting agreement is associated with a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use LEI if available</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2 or CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the records entity)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the positions subject to the netting set agreement are covered by a third-party credit enhancement agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to identity third-party credit enhancement provider</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.5 is “Y”. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4444444</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.5 is “Y”. Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the counterparty)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to identity third-party credit enhancement provider</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.5.3 is “Y”. Should be a valid entry in the Counterparty Master Table. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.5.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement agreement identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4444444</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information used to determine guarantee or other third-party credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A2.5.3 is “Y”. Validated against A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Aggregate current market value in U.S. dollars of all positions under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">-1000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all positions in A1 for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to this value. A2.6 = A2.7 + A2.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all positive positions, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all positive positions in A1 for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to this value. A2.6 = A2.7 + A2.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all negative positions, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">-4000000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to help evaluate the positions subject to the netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all negative positions in A1 for the given Netting Agreement Identifier should be equal to this value. A2.6 = A2.7 + A2.8.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by records entity, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all collateral posted by records entity for the given netting agreement Identifier should be equal to sum of all A4.9 for the same netting agreement identifier in A4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by counterparty, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all collateral posted by counterparty for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to sum of all A4.9 for the same netting agreement identifier in A4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by records entity that is subject to re-hypothecation, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Current market value in U.S. dollars of all collateral posted by counterparty that is subject to re-hypothecation, as aggregated under this netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine the extent to which collateral has been provided by records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity collateral—net</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide records entity's collateral excess or deficiency with respect to all of its positions, as determined under each applicable agreement, including thresholds and haircuts where applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be less than or equal to A2.9.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty collateral—net</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">950,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide counterparty's collateral excess or deficiency with respect to all of its positions, as determined under each applicable agreement, including thresholds and haircuts where applicable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be less than or equal to A2.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next margin payment date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-11-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide next margin payment date for position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Next margin payment amount in U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">150,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use positive value if records entity is due a payment and use negative value if records entity has to make the payment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.17</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safekeeping agent identifier for records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the records entity's safekeeping agent, if any. Use LEI if safekeeping agent has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against SA.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A2.18</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safekeeping agent identifier for counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the counterparty's safekeeping agent, if any. Use LEI if safekeeping agent has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against SA.2.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-3—Legal Agreements
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide LEI for records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier for each master agreement, governing document, netting agreement or third-party credit enhancement agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Name of agreement or governing document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ISDA Master 1992 or Guarantee Agreement or Master Netting Agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide name of agreement or governing document</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2010-01-25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide the date of the agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if counterparty has one. Information needed to identify counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against field CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.6.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Underlying QFC obligor identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide underlying QFC obligor identifier if document identifier is associated with a guarantee or other third party credit enhancement. Use LEI if underlying QFC obligor has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2 or CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agreement governing law</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide law governing contract disputes</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cross-default provision?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether agreement includes default or other termination event provisions that reference an entity not a party to the agreement (“cross-default Entity”). Information needed to determine exposure to affiliates or other entities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identity of cross-default entities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">777777777</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identity of any cross-default entities referenced in A3.8. Use LEI if entity has one. Information needed to determine exposure to other entities</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(500)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A3.8 is “Y”. ID should be a valid entry in Corporate Org Master Table or Counterparty Master Table, if applicable. Multiple entries comma separated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the records entity)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to identity Third-Party Credit Enhancement Provider</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A3.10 is “Y”. Should be a valid entry in the Counterparty Master Table. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Associated third-party credit enhancement agreement document identifier (for the benefit of the records entity)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33333333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A3.10 is “Y”. Validated against field A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.12.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Covered by third-party credit enhancement agreement (for the benefit of the counterparty)?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.12.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third-party credit enhancement provider identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to identity Third-Party Credit Enhancement Provider</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A3.12.1 is “Y”. Should be a valid entry in the Counterparty Master. Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.12.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Associated third-party credit enhancement agreement document identifier (for the benefit of the counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">33333333</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to determine credit enhancement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Required if A3.12.1 is “Y”. Validated against field A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty contact information: name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide contact name for counterparty as provided under notice section of agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty contact information: address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123 Main St, City, State Zip code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide contact address for counterparty as provided under notice section of agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty contact information: phone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-999-999-9999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide contact phone number for counterparty as provided under notice section of agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A3.16</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty's contact information: email address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Jdoe@JohnDoe.com</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide contact email address for counterparty as provided under notice section of agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A-4—Collateral Detail Data
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide LEI for records entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CO.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Collateral posted/collateral received flag</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">P/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter “P” if collateral has been posted by the records entity. Enter “R” for collateral received by Records Entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier for counterparty. Use LEI if counterparty has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against CP.2.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Netting agreement identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier for applicable netting agreement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Validated against field A3.3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unique collateral item identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">CUSIP/ISIN</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide identifier to reference individual collateral posted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Original face amount of collateral item in local currency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1500000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to evaluate collateral sufficiency and marketability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Local currency of collateral item</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use ISO currency code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(3).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value amount of collateral item in U.S. dollars</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">850000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to evaluate collateral sufficiency and marketability and to permit aggregation across currencies</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Market value of all collateral posted by Records Entity or Counterparty A2.9 or A2.10 for the given netting agreement identifier should be equal to sum of all A4.9 for the same netting agreement identifier in A4.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Description of collateral item</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">U.S. Treasury Strip, maturity 2020/6/30</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to evaluate collateral sufficiency and marketability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asset classification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide fair value asset classification for the collateral item under GAAP, IFRS, or other accounting principles or standards used by records entity. Provide “1” for Level 1, “2” for Level 2, or “3” for Level 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “1” or “2” or “3”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Collateral or portfolio segregation status</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether the specific item of collateral or the related collateral portfolio is segregated from assets of the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.13</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Collateral location</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ABC broker-dealer (in safekeeping account of counterparty)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide location of collateral posted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.14</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Collateral jurisdiction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide jurisdiction of location of collateral posted</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A4.15</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Is collateral re-hypothecation allowed?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to evaluate exposure of the records entity to the counterparty or vice-versa for re-hypothecated collateral</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Corporate Organization Master Table *
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide unique identifier. Use LEI if available. Information needed to identify entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be unique across all records entities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether the entity identifier provided is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide legal name of entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77777777</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if available. Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for immediate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Specify whether the immediate parent entity identifier provided is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of immediate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Percentage ownership of immediate parent entity in the entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Num (5,2).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Entity type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subsidiary, foreign branch, foreign division</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to complete org structure</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domicile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as city, state or city, foreign country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CO.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jurisdiction under which incorporated or organized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as state or foreign jurisdiction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Foreign branches and divisions shall be separately identified to the extent they are identified in an entity's reports to its appropriate Federal banking agency.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Counterparty Master Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Counterparty identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use LEI if counterparty has one. Should be used consistently across all records entities within a corporate group. The counterparty identifier shall be the global legal entity identifier if one has been issued to the entity. If a counterparty transacts with the records entity through one or more separate foreign branches or divisions and any such branch or division does not have its own unique global legal entity identifier, the records entity must include additional identifiers, as appropriate to enable the FDIC to aggregate or disaggregate the data for each counterparty and for each entity with the same ultimate parent entity as the counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for counterparty identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the counterparty identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Domicile</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as city, state or city, foreign country</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Jurisdiction under which incorporated or organized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Enter as state or foreign jurisdiction</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Immediate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">77777777</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the parent entity that directly controls the counterparty. Use LEI if immediate parent entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.8</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for immediate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the immediate parent entity identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.9</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of immediate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.10</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Ultimate parent entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">666666666</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the parent entity that is a member of the corporate group of the counterparty that is not controlled by another entity. Information needed to identify counterparty. Use LEI if ultimate parent entity has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.11</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Has LEI been used for ultimate parent entity identifier?</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Y/N</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicate whether the ultimate parent entity identifier is an LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Char(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be “Y” or “N”.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CP.12</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of ultimate parent entity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with Counterparty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Booking Location Master Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Records entity identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">999999999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Should be a valid entry in the Corporate Org Master Table.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Internal booking location identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New York, New York</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide office where the position is booked. Information needed to determine the headquarters or branch where the position is booked, including the system on which the trade is booked, as well as the system on which the trade is settled</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unique booking unit or desk identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">xxxxxx</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide unit or desk at which the position is booked. Information needed to help determine purpose of position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unique booking unit or desk description</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">North American trading desk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Additional information to help determine purpose of position</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booking unit or desk contact—phone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-999-999-9999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to communicate with the booking unit or desk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BL.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Booking unit or desk contact—email</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Desk@Desk.com</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to communicate with the booking unit or desk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Safekeeping Agent Master Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Field
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Example
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instructions and data
<br/>application
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Def
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Validation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">As of date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-01-05</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Data extraction date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY-MM-DD.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Safekeeping agent identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">888888888</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Provide an identifier for the safekeeping agent. Use LEI if safekeeping agent has one</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Legal name of safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe &amp; Co</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.4</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Point of contact—name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">John Doe</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(200).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.5</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Point of contact—address</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">123 Main St, City, State Zip Code</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.6</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Point of contact—phone</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-999-999-9999</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(50).
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">SA.7</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Point of contact—email</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"><E T="03">Jdoe@JohnDoe.com</E></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Information needed to identify and, if necessary, communicate with the safekeeping agent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Varchar(100).</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Details of Formats
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Format
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Content in brief
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional explanation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Examples
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">YYYY-MM-DD</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">YYYY = four digit date, MM = 2 digit month, DD = 2 digit date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2015-11-12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Num (25,5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 25 numerical characters including 5 decimals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 20 numerical characters before the decimal point and up to 5 numerical characters after the decimal point. The dot character is used to separate decimals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1352.67
<br/>12345678901234567890.12345
<br/>0
<br/>−20000.25
<br/>−0.257
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Char(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The length is fixed at 3 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">USD
<br/>X1X
<br/>999
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Varchar(25)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to 25 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The length is not fixed but limited at up to 25 alphanumeric characters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">asgaGEH3268EFdsagtTRCF543</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="373" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 373—CREDIT RISK RETENTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I> and 3103 <I>et seq.,</I> and 15 U.S.C. 78o-11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority, Purpose, Scope and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This part is issued by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) under section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended (Exchange Act) (15 U.S.C. 78o-11), as well as the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>) and the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the FDIC to take action under provisions of law other than 15 U.S.C. 78o-11, including to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part requires securitizers to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and it establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to any securitizer that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A state nonmember bank (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(e)(2));
</P>
<P>(2) An insured state branch of a foreign bank (as defined in 12 CFR 347.202);
</P>
<P>(3) A state savings association (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(3)); or
</P>
<P>(4) Any subsidiary of an entity described in paragraph (c)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>ABS interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any type of interest or obligation issued by an issuing entity, whether or not in certificated form, including a security, obligation, beneficial interest or residual interest (other than an uncertificated regular interest in a REMIC that is held by another REMIC, where both REMICs are part of the same structure and a single REMIC in that structure issues ABS interests to investors, or a non-economic residual interest issued by a REMIC), payments on which are primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral owned or held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include common or preferred stock, limited liability interests, partnership interests, trust certificates, or similar interests that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are issued primarily to evidence ownership of the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payments, if any, on which are not primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include the right to receive payments for services provided by the holder of such right, including servicing, trustee services and custodial services.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> of, or a person <I>affiliated</I> with, a specified person means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Asset</I> means a self-liquidating financial asset (including but not limited to a loan, lease, mortgage, or receivable).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(79) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79)).
</P>
<P><I>Collateral</I> means, with respect to any issuance of ABS interests, the assets that provide the cash flow and the servicing assets that support such cash flow for the ABS interests irrespective of the legal structure of issuance, including security interests in assets or other property of the issuing entity, fractional undivided property interests in the assets or other property of the issuing entity, or any other property interest in or rights to cash flow from such assets and related servicing assets. Assets or other property <I>collateralize</I> an issuance of ABS interests if the assets or property serve as collateral for such issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate loan</I> has the same meaning as in § 373.14.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> including the terms “controlling,” “controlled by” and “under common control with”:
</P>
<P>(1) Means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) Without limiting the foregoing, a person shall be considered to control another person if the first person:
</P>
<P>(i) Owns, controls or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees or persons performing similar functions of the other person.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk of loss that could result from the failure of the borrower in the case of a securitized asset, or the issuing entity in the case of an ABS interest in the issuing entity, to make required payments of principal or interest on the asset or ABS interest on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(2) The risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding with respect to the borrower or issuing entity, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(3) The effect that significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the asset or ABS interest may have on the market value of the asset or ABS interest.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(g).
</P>
<P><I>Depositor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor, in the case of a securitization transaction where there is not an intermediate transfer of the assets from the sponsor to the issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity in the case of a securitization transaction where the person transferring or selling the securitized assets directly to the issuing entity is itself a trust.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal residual interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest in the issuing entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That is an interest in a single class or multiple classes in the issuing entity, provided that each interest meets, individually or in the aggregate, all of the requirements of this definition;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to which, on any payment date or allocation date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds to satisfy its obligation to pay all contractual interest or principal due, any resulting shortfall will reduce amounts payable to the eligible horizontal residual interest prior to any reduction in the amounts payable to any other ABS interest, whether through loss allocation, operation of the priority of payments, or any other governing contractual provision (until the amount of such ABS interest is reduced to zero); and
</P>
<P>(3) That, with the exception of any non-economic REMIC residual interest, has the most subordinated claim to payments of both principal and interest by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal cash reserve account</I> means an account meeting the requirements of § 373.4(b).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible vertical interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, a single vertical security or an interest in each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as part of the securitization transaction that constitutes the same proportion of each such class.
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing entity</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the trust or other entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That owns or holds the pool of assets to be securitized; and
</P>
<P>(2) In whose name the asset-backed securities are issued.
</P>
<P><I>Majority-owned affiliate</I> of a person means an entity (other than the issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, such person. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means a person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Through an extension of credit or otherwise, creates an asset that collateralizes an asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sells the asset directly or indirectly to a securitizer or issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>REMIC</I> has the same meaning as in 26 U.S.C. 860D.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A transaction that is a covered transaction as defined in § 1026.43(b) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(2) Any transaction that is exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loan secured by a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium or cooperative unit and, if used as a residence, a mobile home or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Retaining sponsor</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the sponsor that has retained or caused to be retained an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization transaction</I> means a transaction involving the offer and sale of asset-backed securities by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitized asset</I> means an asset that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is transferred, sold, or conveyed to an issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralizes the ABS interests issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitizer</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, either:
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor of the asset-backed securities (if the depositor is not the sponsor); or
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor of the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means any person responsible for the management or collection of the securitized assets or making allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests, but does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the asset-backed securities that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Servicing assets</I> means rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to ABS interest holders and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the issuing entity's securitized assets. Servicing assets include amounts received by the issuing entity as proceeds of securitized assets, including proceeds of rights or other assets, whether as remittances by obligors or as other recoveries.
</P>
<P><I>Single vertical security</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest entitling the sponsor to a specified percentage of the amounts paid on each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity (other than such single vertical security).
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who organizes and initiates a securitization transaction by selling or transferring assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the same meaning as in Section 3(a)(16) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(16)).
</P>
<P><I>United States or U.S.</I> means the United States of America, including its territories and possessions, any State of the United States, and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Wholly-owned affiliate</I> means a person (other than an issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, wholly controls, is wholly controlled by, or is wholly under common control with, another person. For purposes of this definition, “wholly controls” means ownership of 100 percent of the equity of an entity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Credit Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.3   Base risk retention requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Base risk retention requirement.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 373.4 through 373.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multiple sponsors.</I> If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 373.4, 373.5, 373.8, 373.9, or 373.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.4   Standard risk retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as provided in §§ 373.5 through 373.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account.</I> In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and
</P>
<P>(3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or
</P>
<P>(B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Horizontal interest.</I> With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Discount rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Loss given default (recovery);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prepayment rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Lag time between default and recovery; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The basis of forward interest rates used.
</P>
<P>(F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vertical interest.</I> With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;
</P>
<P>(B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.5   Revolving pool securitizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Revolving pool securitization</I> means an issuing entity that is established to issue on multiple issuance dates more than one series, class, subclass, or tranche of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of securitized assets that will change in composition over time, and that does not monetize excess interest and fees from its securitized assets.
</P>
<P><I>Seller's interest</I> means an ABS interest or ABS interests:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized by the securitized assets and servicing assets owned or held by the issuing entity, other than the following that are not considered a component of seller's interest:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing assets that have been allocated as collateral only for a specific series in connection with administering the revolving pool securitization, such as a principal accumulation or interest reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets that are not eligible under the terms of the securitization transaction to be included when determining whether the revolving pool securitization holds aggregate securitized assets in specified proportions to aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) That is <I>pari passu</I> with each series of investor ABS interests issued, or partially or fully subordinated to one or more series in identical or varying amounts, with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets prior to early amortization of the revolving securitization (as specified in the securitization transaction documents); and
</P>
<P>(3) That adjusts for fluctuations in the outstanding principal balance of the securitized assets in the pool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 373.3 with respect to a securitization transaction for which the issuing entity is a revolving pool securitization if the sponsor maintains a seller's interest of not less than 5 percent of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests in the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Measuring the seller's interest.</I> In measuring the seller's interest for purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets for the numerator of the 5 percent ratio shall not include assets of the types excluded from the definition of seller's interest in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator of the 5 percent ratio may be reduced by the amount of funds held in a segregated principal accumulation account for the repayment of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the securitization transaction documents prevent funds in the principal accumulation account from being applied for any purpose other than the repayment of the unpaid principal of outstanding investor ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Funds in that account are invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 373.4 are permitted to be invested;
</P>
<P>(3) If the terms of the securitization transaction documents set minimum required seller's interest as a proportion of the unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, rather than as a proportion of the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests in all outstanding series combined, the percentage of the seller's interest for each such series must, when combined with the percentage of any minimum seller's interest set by reference to the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests, equal at least 5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) The 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied at the closing of each issuance of ABS interests to investors by the issuing entity, and
</P>
<P>(i) At least monthly at a seller's interest measurement date specified under the securitization transaction documents, until no ABS interest in the issuing entity is held by any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the revolving pool securitization fails to meet the 5 percent test as of any date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, and the securitization transaction documents specify a cure period, the 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied within the earlier of the cure period, or one month after the date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measuring outstanding investor ABS interests.</I> In measuring the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for purposes of this section, ABS interests held for the life of such ABS interests by the sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates may be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holding and retention of the seller's interest; legacy trusts.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 373.12(a), the seller's interest, and any offsetting horizontal retention interest retained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, must be retained by the sponsor or by one or more wholly-owned affiliates of the sponsor, including one or more depositors of the revolving pool securitization.
</P>
<P>(2) If one revolving pool securitization issues collateral certificates representing a beneficial interest in all or a portion of the securitized assets held by that securitization to another revolving pool securitization, which in turn issues ABS interests for which the collateral certificates are all or a portion of the securitized assets, a sponsor may satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section by retaining the seller's interest for the assets represented by the collateral certificates through either of the revolving pool securitizations, so long as both revolving pool securitizations are retained at the direction of the same sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains the seller's interest associated with the collateral certificates at the level of the revolving pool securitization that issues those collateral certificates, the proportion of the seller's interest required by paragraph (b) of this section retained at that level must equal the proportion that the principal balance of the securitized assets represented by the collateral certificates bears to the principal balance of the securitized assets in the revolving pool securitization that issues the ABS interests, as of each measurement date required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offset for pool-level excess funding account.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced on a dollar-for-dollar basis by the balance, as of such date, of an excess funding account in the form of a segregated account that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is funded in the event of a failure to meet the minimum seller's interest requirements or other requirement to maintain a minimum balance of securitized assets under the securitization transaction documents by distributions otherwise payable to the holder of the seller's interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Is invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in a horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 373.4 are permitted to be invested; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of an early amortization, makes payments of amounts held in the account to holders of investor ABS interests in the same manner as payments to holders of investor ABS interests of amounts received on securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combined seller's interests and horizontal interest retention.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced to a percentage lower than 5 percent to the extent that, for all series of investor ABS interests issued after the applicable effective date of this § 373.5, the sponsor, or notwithstanding § 373.12(a) a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, retains, at a minimum, a corresponding percentage of the fair value of ABS interests issued in each series, in the form of one or more of the horizontal residual interests meeting the requirements of paragraphs (h) or (i).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Residual ABS interests in excess interest and fees.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for a residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, whether certificated or uncertificated, in a single or multiple classes, subclasses, or tranches, that meets, individually or in the aggregate, the requirements of this paragraph (h);
</P>
<P>(1) Each series of the revolving pool securitization distinguishes between the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows and the series' share of the principal repayment cash flows from the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization, which may according to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, include not only the series' ratable share of such cash flows but also excess cash flows available from other series;
</P>
<P>(2) The residual ABS interest's claim to any part of the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows for any interest payment period is subordinated to all accrued and payable interest due on the payment date to more senior ABS interests in the series for that period, and further reduced by the series' share of losses, including defaults on principal of the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization (whether incurred in that period or carried over from prior periods) to the extent that such payments would have been included in amounts payable to more senior interests in the series;
</P>
<P>(3) The revolving pool securitization continues to revolve, with one or more series, classes, subclasses, or tranches of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of assets that change in composition over time; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, and the fair value of the series of outstanding investor ABS interests to which it is subordinated and supports using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP, as of:
</P>
<P>(i) The closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller's interest measurement dates described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except that for these periodic determinations the sponsor must update the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees for the numerator of the percentage ratio, but may at the sponsor's option continue to use the fair values determined in (h)(4)(i) for the outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Offsetting eligible horizontal residual interest.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for ABS interests that would meet the definition of eligible horizontal residual interests in § 373.2 but for the sponsor's simultaneous holding of subordinated seller's interests, residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, or a combination of the two, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor complies with all requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section for its holdings of subordinated seller's interest, and paragraph (h) for its holdings of residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests in the series supported by the eligible horizontal residual interest, determined using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Without including in the numerator of the percentage ratio any fair value based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The subordinated seller's interest or residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees;
</P>
<P>(B) the interest payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section in taking the offset in paragraph (g) of this section; and,
</P>
<P>(C) the principal payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of the seller's interest pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and distributions on that seller's interest are available to reduce charge-offs that would otherwise be allocated to reduce principal payable to the offset eligible horizontal residual interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Specified dates.</I> A sponsor using data about the revolving pool securitization's collateral, or ABS interests previously issued, to determine the closing-date percentage of a seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this § 373.5 may use such data prepared as of specified dates if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor describes the specified dates in the disclosures required by paragraph (k) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dates are no more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors of disclosures required for the interest by paragraph (k) of this section, or for revolving pool securitizations that make distributions to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, no more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors of such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Disclosure and record maintenance</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” the following disclosure in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (k):
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security, a description of the material terms of the seller's interest, and the percentage of the seller's interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction, measured in accordance with the requirements of this § 373.5, as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests issued, or as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, as required by the terms of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of seller's interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the material terms of any horizontal residual interests offsetting the seller's interest in accordance with paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure of the fair value of those horizontal residual interests retained by the sponsor for the series being offered to investors and described in the disclosures, as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests issued, described in the same manner and within the same timeframes required for disclosure of the fair values of eligible horizontal residual interests specified in § 373.4(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted data.</I> Disclosures required by this paragraph (k) to be made a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security of the amount of seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest may include adjustments to the amount of securitized assets for additions or removals the sponsor expects to make before the closing date and adjustments to the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for expected increases and decreases of those interests under the control of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraph (k)(1) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Early amortization of all outstanding series.</I> A sponsor that organizes a revolving pool securitization that relies on this § 373.5 to satisfy the risk retention requirements of § 373.3, does not violate the requirements of this part if its seller's interest falls below the level required by § 373. 5 after the revolving pool securitization commences early amortization, pursuant to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, of all series of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor was in full compliance with the requirements of this section on all measurement dates specified in paragraph (c) of this section prior to the commencement of early amortization;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the seller's interest continue to make it <I>pari passu</I> with or subordinate in identical or varying amounts to each series of outstanding investor ABS interests issued with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any horizontal interest relied upon by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (g) to offset the minimum seller's interest amount continue to require the interests to absorb losses in accordance with the terms of paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) The revolving pool securitization issues no additional ABS interests after early amortization is initiated to any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, either at the time of issuance or during the amortization period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.6   Eligible ABCP conduits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>100 percent liquidity coverage</I> means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP</I> means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP conduit</I> means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP conduit</I> means an ABCP conduit, <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:
</P>
<P>(i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,
</P>
<P>(B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or
</P>
<P>(C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section).
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate SPV</I> means a special purpose vehicle that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Originator-seller</I> means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 373.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated liquidity provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 373.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 373.4 or § 373.5; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Originator-seller compliance with risk retention.</I> The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Periodic disclosures to investors.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits.</I> At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.7   Commercial mortgage-backed securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Special servicer</I> means, with respect to any securitization of commercial real estate loans, any servicer that, upon the occurrence of one or more specified conditions in the servicing agreement, has the right to service one or more assets in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third-party purchaser.</I> A sponsor may satisfy some or all of its risk retention requirements under § 373.3 with respect to a securitization transaction if a third party (or any majority-owned affiliate thereof) purchases and holds for its own account an eligible horizontal residual interest in the issuing entity in the same form, amount, and manner as would be held by the sponsor under § 373.4 and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Number of third-party purchasers.</I> At any time, there are no more than two third-party purchasers of an eligible horizontal residual interest. If there are two third-party purchasers, each third-party purchaser's interest must be <I>pari passu</I> with the other third-party purchaser's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composition of collateral.</I> The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by commercial real estate loans and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Source of funds.</I> (i) Each third-party purchaser pays for the eligible horizontal residual interest in cash at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) No third-party purchaser obtains financing, directly or indirectly, for the purchase of such interest from any other person that is a party to, or an affiliate of a party to, the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer other than a special servicer affiliated with the third-party purchaser), other than a person that is a party to the transaction solely by reason of being an investor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Third-party review.</I> Each third-party purchaser conducts an independent review of the credit risk of each securitized asset prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction that includes, at a minimum, a review of the underwriting standards, collateral, and expected cash flows of each commercial real estate loan that is collateral for the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Affiliation and control rights.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, no third-party purchaser is affiliated with any party to the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer) other than investors in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a third-party purchaser may be affiliated with:
</P>
<P>(A) The special servicer for the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) One or more originators of the securitized assets, as long as the assets originated by the affiliated originator or originators collectively comprise less than 10 percent of the unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets included in the securitization transaction at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operating Advisor.</I> The underlying securitization transaction documents shall provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The appointment of an operating advisor (the Operating Advisor) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with other parties to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not directly or indirectly have any financial interest in the securitization transaction other than in fees from its role as Operating Advisor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is required to act in the best interest of, and for the benefit of, investors as a collective whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) Standards with respect to the Operating Advisor's experience, expertise and financial strength to fulfill its duties and responsibilities under the applicable transaction documents over the life of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation with respect to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the eligible horizontal residual interest has been reduced by principal payments, realized losses, and appraisal reduction amounts (which reduction amounts are determined in accordance with the applicable transaction documents) to a principal balance of 25 percent or less of its initial principal balance, the special servicer for the securitized assets must consult with the Operating Advisor in connection with, and prior to, any material decision in connection with its servicing of the securitized assets, including, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) Any material modification of, or waiver with respect to, any provision of a loan agreement (including a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement);
</P>
<P>(B) Foreclosure upon or comparable conversion of the ownership of a property; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any acquisition of a property.
</P>
<P>(v) The Operating Advisor shall have adequate and timely access to information and reports necessary to fulfill its duties under the transaction documents, including all reports made available to holders of ABS interests and third-party purchasers, and shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(A) Reviewing the actions of the special servicer;
</P>
<P>(B) Reviewing all reports provided by the special servicer to the issuing entity or any holder of ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(C) Reviewing for accuracy and consistency with the transaction documents calculations made by the special servicer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Issuing a report to investors (including any third-party purchasers) and the issuing entity on a periodic basis concerning:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that the special servicer is operating in compliance with any standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which, if any, standards the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, the special servicer has failed to comply.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) The Operating Advisor shall have the authority to recommend that the special servicer be replaced by a successor special servicer if the Operating Advisor determines, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The special servicer has failed to comply with a standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such replacement would be in the best interest of the investors as a collective whole; and
</P>
<P>(B) If a recommendation described in paragraph (b)(6)(vi)(A) of this section is made, the special servicer shall be replaced upon the affirmative vote of a majority of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests voting on the matter, with a minimum of a quorum of ABS interests voting on the matter. For purposes of such vote, the applicable transaction documents shall specify the quorum and may not specify a quorum of more than the holders of 20 percent of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests in the issuing entity, with such quorum including at least three ABS interest holders that are not affiliated with each other.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of each initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each initial third-party purchaser's experience in investing in commercial mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information regarding each initial third-party purchaser or each initial third-party purchaser's retention of the eligible horizontal residual interest that is material to investors in light of the circumstances of the particular securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that will be retained (or was retained) by each initial third-party purchaser, as well as the amount of the purchase price paid by each initial third-party purchaser for such interest;
</P>
<P>(v) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction that the sponsor would have retained pursuant to § 373.4 if the sponsor had relied on retaining an eligible horizontal residual interest in that section to meet the requirements of § 373.3 with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by each initial third-party purchaser, including the same information as is required to be disclosed by sponsors retaining horizontal interests pursuant to § 373.4;
</P>
<P>(vii) The material terms of the applicable transaction documents with respect to the Operating Advisor, including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and form of organization of the Operating Advisor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of any material conflict of interest or material potential conflict of interest between the Operating Advisor and any other party to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) The standards required by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section and a description of how the Operating Advisor satisfies each of the standards; and
</P>
<P>(D) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The representations and warranties concerning the securitized assets, a schedule of any securitized assets that are determined not to comply with such representations and warranties, and what factors were used to make the determination that such securitized assets should be included in the pool notwithstanding that the securitized assets did not comply with such representations and warranties, such as compensating factors or a determination that the exceptions were not material.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging, transfer and pledging</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, each third-party purchaser and its affiliates must comply with the hedging and other restrictions in § 373.12 as if it were the retaining sponsor with respect to the securitization transaction and had acquired the eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to § 373.4; provided that, the hedging and other restrictions in § 373.12 shall not apply on or after the date that each CRE loan (as defined in § 373.14) that serves as collateral for outstanding ABS interests has been defeased. For purposes of this section, a loan is deemed to be defeased if:
</P>
<P>(A) cash or cash equivalents of the types permitted for an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 373.4 whose maturity corresponds to the remaining debt service obligations, have been pledged to the issuing entity as collateral for the loan and are in such amounts and payable at such times as necessary to timely generate cash sufficient to make all remaining debt service payments due on such loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) the issuing entity has an obligation to release its lien on the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions</I>—(A) <I>Transfer by initial third-party purchaser or sponsor.</I> An initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, or a sponsor that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, may, on or after the date that is five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction, transfer that interest to a subsequent third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The initial third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the subsequent third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Transfer by subsequent third-party purchaser.</I> At any time, a subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this section may transfer its interest to a different third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The transferring third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the acquiring third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Requirements applicable to subsequent third-party purchasers.</I> A subsequent third-party purchaser is subject to all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section applicable to third-party purchasers, provided that obligations under paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section that apply to initial third-party purchasers at or before the time of closing of the securitization transaction shall apply to successor third-party purchasers at or before the time of the transfer of the eligible horizontal residual interest to the successor third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section by itself and for compliance by each initial or subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures to monitor each third-party purchaser's compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the sponsor determines that a third-party purchaser no longer complies with one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), or (b)(8) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such third-party purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.8   Federal National Mortgage Association and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation ABS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies its risk retention requirement under this part if the sponsor fully guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on all ABS interests issued by the issuing entity in the securitization transaction and is:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617) with capital support from the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any limited-life regulated entity succeeding to the charter of either the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 1367(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617(i)), provided that the entity is operating with capital support from the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain provisions not applicable.</I> The provisions of § 373.12(b), (c), and (d) shall not apply to a sponsor described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, its affiliates, or the issuing entity with respect to a securitization transaction for which the sponsor has retained credit risk in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide to investors, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” and, upon request, to the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Commission, a description of the manner in which it has met the credit risk retention requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.9   Open market CLOs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>CLO</I> means a special purpose entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Issues debt and equity interests, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose assets consist primarily of loans that are securitized assets and servicing assets.
</P>
<P><I>CLO-eligible loan tranche</I> means a term loan of a syndicated facility that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>CLO manager</I> means an entity that manages a CLO, which entity is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>), or is an affiliate of such a registered investment adviser and itself is managed by such registered investment adviser.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial borrower</I> means an obligor under a corporate credit obligation (including a loan).
</P>
<P><I>Initial loan syndication transaction</I> means a transaction in which a loan is syndicated to a group of lenders.
</P>
<P><I>Lead arranger</I> means, with respect to a CLO-eligible loan tranche, an institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is active in the origination, structuring and syndication of commercial loan transactions (as defined in § 373.14) and has played a primary role in the structuring, underwriting and distribution on the primary market of the CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has taken an allocation of the funded portion of the syndicated credit facility under the terms of the transaction that includes the CLO-eligible loan tranche of at least 20 percent of the aggregate principal balance at origination, and no other member (or members affiliated with each other) of the syndication group that funded at origination has taken a greater allocation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is identified in the applicable agreement governing the CLO-eligible loan tranche; represents therein to the holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche and to any holders of participation interests in such CLO-eligible loan tranche that such lead arranger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i) of this definition and, at the time of initial funding of the CLO-eligible tranche, will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (ii) of this definition; further represents therein (solely for the purpose of assisting such holders to determine the eligibility of such CLO-eligible loan tranche to be held by an open market CLO) that in the reasonable judgment of such lead arranger, the terms of such CLO-eligible loan tranche are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section; and covenants therein to such holders that such lead arranger will fulfill the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Open market CLO</I> means a CLO:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose assets consist of senior, secured syndicated loans acquired by such CLO directly from the sellers thereof in open market transactions and of servicing assets,
</P>
<P>(ii) That is managed by a CLO manager, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That holds less than 50 percent of its assets, by aggregate outstanding principal amount, in loans syndicated by lead arrangers that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager or originated by originators that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager.
</P>
<P><I>Open market transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Either an initial loan syndication transaction or a secondary market transaction in which a seller offers senior, secured syndicated loans to prospective purchasers in the loan market on market terms on an arm's length basis, which prospective purchasers include, but are not limited to, entities that are not affiliated with the seller, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A reverse inquiry from a prospective purchaser of a senior, secured syndicated loan through a dealer in the loan market to purchase a senior, secured syndicated loan to be sourced by the dealer in the loan market.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market transaction</I> means a purchase of a senior, secured syndicated loan not in connection with an initial loan syndication transaction but in the secondary market.
</P>
<P><I>Senior, secured syndicated loan</I> means a loan made to a commercial borrower that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not subordinate in right of payment to any other obligation for borrowed money of the commercial borrower,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is secured by a valid first priority security interest or lien in or on specified collateral securing the commercial borrower's obligations under the loan, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The value of the collateral subject to such first priority security interest or lien, together with other attributes of the obligor (including, without limitation, its general financial condition, ability to generate cash flow available for debt service and other demands for that cash flow), is adequate (in the commercially reasonable judgment of the CLO manager exercised at the time of investment) to repay the loan and to repay all other indebtedness of equal seniority secured by such first priority security interest or lien in or on the same collateral, and the CLO manager certifies, on or prior to each date that it acquires a loan constituting part of a new CLO-eligible tranche, that it has policies and procedures to evaluate the likelihood of repayment of loans acquired by the CLO and it has followed such policies and procedures in evaluating each CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 373.3 with respect to an open market CLO transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) The open market CLO does not acquire or hold any assets other than CLO-eligible loan tranches that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) The governing documents of such open market CLO require that, at all times, the assets of the open market CLO consist of senior, secured syndicated loans that are CLO-eligible loan tranches and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The open market CLO does not invest in ABS interests or in credit derivatives other than hedging transactions that are servicing assets to hedge risks of the open market CLO;
</P>
<P>(4) All purchases of CLO-eligible loan tranches and other assets by the open market CLO issuing entity or through a warehouse facility used to accumulate the loans prior to the issuance of the CLO's ABS interests are made in open market transactions on an arms-length basis;
</P>
<P>(5) The CLO manager of the open market CLO is not entitled to receive any management fee or gain on sale at the time the open market CLO issues its ABS interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CLO-eligible loan tranche.</I> To qualify as a CLO-eligible loan tranche, a term loan of a syndicated credit facility to a commercial borrower must have the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum of 5 percent of the face amount of the CLO-eligible loan tranche is retained by the lead arranger thereof until the earliest of the repayment, maturity, involuntary and unscheduled acceleration, payment default, or bankruptcy default of such CLO-eligible loan tranche, provided that such lead arranger complies with limitations on hedging, transferring and pledging in § 373.12 with respect to the interest retained by the lead arranger.
</P>
<P>(2) Lender voting rights within the credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranche are defined so as to give holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche consent rights with respect to, at minimum, any material waivers and amendments of such applicable documents, including but not limited to, adverse changes to the calculation or payments of amounts due to the holders of the CLO-eligible tranche, alterations to <I>pro rata</I> provisions, changes to voting provisions, and waivers of conditions precedent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The pro rata provisions, voting provisions, and similar provisions applicable to the security associated with such CLO-eligible loan tranches under the CLO credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranches are not materially less advantageous to the holder(s) of such CLO-eligible tranche than the terms of other tranches of comparable seniority in the broader syndicated credit facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction and at least annually with respect to the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Open market CLOs.</I> A complete list of every asset held by an open market CLO (or before the CLO's closing, in a warehouse facility in anticipation of transfer into the CLO at closing), including the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The full legal name, Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) category code, and legal entity identifier (LEI) issued by a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee or the Global LEI Foundation (if an LEI has been obtained by the obligor) of the obligor of the loan or asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name of the specific loan tranche held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iii) The face amount of the entire loan tranche held by the CLO, and the face amount of the portion thereof held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iv) The price at which the loan tranche was acquired by the CLO; and
</P>
<P>(v) For each loan tranche, the full legal name of the lead arranger subject to the sales and hedging restrictions of § 373.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CLO manager.</I> The full legal name and form of organization of the CLO manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.10   Qualified tender option bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Municipal security</I> or <I>municipal securities</I> shall have the same meaning as the term “municipal securities” in Section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)) and any rules promulgated pursuant to such section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tender option bond entity</I> means an issuing entity with respect to tender option bonds for which each of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Such entity is collateralized solely by servicing assets and by municipal securities that have the same municipal issuer and the same underlying obligor or source of payment (determined without regard to any third-party credit enhancement), and such municipal securities are not subject to substitution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such entity issues no securities other than:
</P>
<P>(A) A single class of tender option bonds with a preferred variable return payable out of capital that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) One or more residual equity interests that, in the aggregate, are entitled to all remaining income of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(C) The types of securities referred to in paragraphs (ii)(A) and (B) of this definition must constitute asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The municipal securities held as assets by such entity are issued in compliance with Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “IRS Code”, 26 U.S.C. 103), such that the interest payments made on those securities are excludable from the gross income of the owners under Section 103 of the IRS Code.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms of all of the securities issued by the entity are structured so that all holders of such securities who are eligible to exclude interest received on such securities will be able to exclude that interest from gross income pursuant to Section 103 of the IRS Code or as “exempt-interest dividends” pursuant to Section 852(b)(5) of the IRS Code (26 U.S.C. 852(b)(5)) in the case of regulated investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) Such entity has a legally binding commitment from a regulated liquidity provider as defined in § 373.6(a), to provide a 100 percent guarantee or liquidity coverage with respect to all of the issuing entity's outstanding tender option bonds.
</P>
<P>(vi) Such entity qualifies for monthly closing elections pursuant to IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Tender option bond</I> means a security which has features which entitle the holders to tender such bonds to the issuing entity for purchase at any time upon no more than 397 days' notice, for a purchase price equal to the approximate amortized cost of the security, plus accrued interest, if any, at the time of tender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention options.</I> Notwithstanding anything in this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds may retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 373.4. In order to satisfy its risk retention requirements under this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 373.4; or
</P>
<P>(2) An interest that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal security that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any combination of interests and securities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section such that the sum of the percentages held in each form equals at least five.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tender option termination event.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain an interest that upon issuance meets the requirements of an eligible horizontal residual interest but that upon the occurrence of a “tender option termination event” as defined in Section 4.01(5) of IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time will meet the requirements of an eligible vertical interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of a municipal security outside of the qualified tender option bond entity.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may satisfy its risk retention requirements under this Section by holding municipal securities from the same issuance of municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity, the face value of which retained municipal securities is equal to 5 percent of the face value of the municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the form and subordination features of such retained interest in accordance with the disclosure obligations in § 373.4(c);
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible horizontal residual interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 373.10(c)), the fair value of that interest (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and as a dollar amount);
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible vertical interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 373.10(c)), the percentage of ABS interests issued represented by the eligible vertical interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent any portion of the retained interest claimed by the sponsor is a municipal security held outside of the qualified tender option bond entity, the name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity, the identity of the issuer of the municipal securities, the face value of the municipal securities deposited into the qualified tender option bond entity, and the face value of the municipal securities retained by the sponsor or its majority-owned affiliates and subject to the transfer and hedging prohibition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on Hedging and Transfer.</I> The prohibitions on transfer and hedging set forth in § 373.12, apply to any interests or municipal securities retained by the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity pursuant to of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Transfer of Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.11   Allocation of risk retention to an originator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor choosing to retain an eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest (including an eligible horizontal cash reserve account), or combination thereof under § 373.4, with respect to a securitization transaction may offset the amount of its risk retention requirements under § 373.4 by the amount of the eligible interests, respectively, acquired by an originator of one or more of the securitized assets if:
</P>
<P>(1) At the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator acquires the eligible interest from the sponsor and retains such interest in the same manner and proportion (as between horizontal and vertical interests) as the sponsor under § 373.4, as such interest was held prior to the acquisition by the originator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the percentage of eligible interests acquired and retained by the originator to the percentage of eligible interests otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 373.4, does not exceed the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets originated by the originator; to
</P>
<P>(B) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets in the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator acquires and retains at least 20 percent of the aggregate risk retention amount otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 373.4; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The originator purchases the eligible interests from the sponsor at a price that is equal, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the amount by which the sponsor's required risk retention is reduced in accordance with this section, by payment to the sponsor in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash; or
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction in the price received by the originator from the sponsor or depositor for the assets sold by the originator to the sponsor or depositor for inclusion in the pool of securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to the disclosures required pursuant to § 373.4(c), the sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, the name and form of organization of any originator that will acquire and retain (or has acquired and retained) an interest in the transaction pursuant to this section, including a description of the form and amount (expressed as a percentage and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) and nature (<I>e.g.,</I> senior or subordinated) of the interest, as well as the method of payment for such interest under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hedging, transferring and pledging.</I> The originator and each of its affiliates complies with the hedging and other restrictions in § 373.12 with respect to the interests retained by the originator pursuant to this section as if it were the retaining sponsor and was required to retain the interest under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A retaining sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor the compliance by each originator that is allocated a portion of the sponsor's risk retention obligations with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the sponsor determines that any such originator no longer complies with any of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such originator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.12   Hedging, transfer and financing prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer.</I> Except as permitted by § 373.7(b)(8), and subject to § 373.5, a retaining sponsor may not sell or otherwise transfer any interest or assets that the sponsor is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part to any person other than an entity that is and remains a majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor and each such majority-owned affiliate shall be subject to the same restrictions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited hedging by sponsor and affiliates.</I> A retaining sponsor and its affiliates may not purchase or sell a security, or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or other position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited hedging by issuing entity.</I> The issuing entity in a securitization transaction may not purchase or sell a security or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor for the transaction (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to the securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted hedging activities.</I> The following activities shall not be considered prohibited hedging activities under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Hedging the interest rate risk (which does not include the specific interest rate risk, known as spread risk, associated with the ABS interest that is otherwise considered part of the credit risk) or foreign exchange risk arising from one or more of the particular ABS interests required to be retained by the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) under subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that underlie the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Purchasing or selling a security or other financial instrument or entering into an agreement, derivative, or other position with any third party where payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are based, directly or indirectly, on an index of instruments that includes asset-backed securities if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any class of ABS interests in the issuing entity that were issued in connection with the securitization transaction and that are included in the index represents no more than 10 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All classes of ABS interests in all issuing entities that were issued in connection with any securitization transaction in which the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain an interest pursuant to subpart B of this part and that are included in the index represent, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited non-recourse financing.</I> Neither a retaining sponsor nor any of its affiliates may pledge as collateral for any obligation (including a loan, repurchase agreement, or other financing transaction) any ABS interest that the sponsor is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part unless such obligation is with full recourse to the sponsor or affiliate, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duration of the hedging and transfer restrictions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance (if applicable) of the securitized assets that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the total unpaid principal obligations under the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal obligations of the ABS interests at closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Two years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Securitizations of residential mortgages.</I> (i) If all of the assets that collateralize a securitization transaction subject to risk retention under this part are residential mortgages, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance of the residential mortgages that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 25 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of such residential mortgages at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire with respect to the sponsor of a securitization transaction described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section on or after the date that is seven years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conservatorship or receivership of sponsor.</I> A conservator or receiver of the sponsor (or any other person holding risk retention pursuant to this part) of a securitization transaction is permitted to sell or hedge any economic interest in the securitization transaction if the conservator or receiver has been appointed pursuant to any provision of federal or State law (or regulation promulgated thereunder) that provides for the appointment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or an agency or instrumentality of the United States or of a State as conservator or receiver, including without limitation any of the following authorities:
</P>
<P>(i) 12 U.S.C. 1811;
</P>
<P>(ii) 12 U.S.C. 1787;
</P>
<P>(iii) 12 U.S.C. 4617; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 12 U.S.C. 5382.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Revolving pool securitizations.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) are not available to sponsors of revolving pool securitizations with respect to the forms of risk retention specified in § 373.5.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exceptions and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.13   Exemption for qualified residential mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Currently performing</I> means the borrower in the mortgage transaction is not currently thirty (30) days or more past due, in whole or in part, on the mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified residential mortgage</I> means a “qualified mortgage” as defined in section 129C of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C.1639c) and regulations issued thereunder, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction, if:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) None of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(3) As of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, each qualified residential mortgage collateralizing the asset-backed securities is currently performing; and
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The depositor with respect to the securitization transaction certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed security are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls must be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security in reliance on this section, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repurchase of loans subsequently determined to be non-qualified after closing.</I> A sponsor that has relied on the exemption provided in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a securitization transaction shall not lose such exemption with respect to such transaction if, after closing of the securitization transaction, it is determined that one or more of the residential mortgage loans collateralizing the asset-backed securities does not meet all of the criteria to be a qualified residential mortgage <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining aggregate unpaid principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) no later than 90 days after the determination that the loans do not satisfy the requirements to be a qualified residential mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor promptly notifies, or causes to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is (or are) required to be repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, including the amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.14   Definitions applicable to qualifying commercial loans, qualifying commercial real estate loans, and qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of §§ 373.15 through 373.18:
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Standards Board</I> means the board of the Appraisal Foundation that develops, interprets, and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), establishing generally accepted standards for the appraisal profession.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile loan:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Means any loan to an individual to finance the purchase of, and that is secured by a first lien on, a passenger car or other passenger vehicle, such as a minivan, van, sport-utility vehicle, pickup truck, or similar light truck for personal, family, or household use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include any:
</P>
<P>(i) Loan to finance fleet sales;
</P>
<P>(ii) Personal cash loan secured by a previously purchased automobile;
</P>
<P>(iii) Loan to finance the purchase of a commercial vehicle or farm equipment that is not used for personal, family, or household purposes;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lease financing;
</P>
<P>(v) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle with a salvage title; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Loan to finance the purchase of a vehicle intended to be used for scrap or parts.
</P>
<P><I>Combined loan-to-value (CLTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the sum of the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property, plus the principal balance of any junior-lien mortgage loan that, to the creditor's knowledge, would exist at the closing of the transaction and that is secured by the same property, divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 373.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 373.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial loan</I> means a secured or unsecured loan to a company or an individual for business purposes, other than any:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan to purchase or refinance a one-to-four family residential property;
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial real estate loan.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate (CRE) loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan secured by a property with five or more single family units, or by nonfarm nonresidential real property, the primary source (50 percent or more) of repayment for which is expected to be:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the sale, refinancing, or permanent financing of the property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Rental income associated with the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans secured by improved land if the obligor owns the fee interest in the land and the land is leased to a third party who owns all improvements on the land, and the improvements are nonresidential or residential with five or more single family units; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A land development and construction loan (including 1- to 4-family residential or commercial construction loans);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other land loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unsecured loan to a developer.
</P>
<P><I>Debt service coverage (DSC) ratio</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For qualifying leased CRE loans, qualifying multi-family loans, and other CRE loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual NOI less the annual replacement reserve of the CRE property at the time of origination of the CRE loan(s) divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest (calculated at the fully-indexed rate) on any debt obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) For commercial loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower's EBITDA as of the most recently completed fiscal year divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest on all debt obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Debt to income (DTI) ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan, divided by the borrower's monthly income.
</P>
<P><I>Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA)</I> means the annual income of a business before expenses for interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization are deducted, as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental risk assessment</I> means a process for determining whether a property is contaminated or exposed to any condition or substance that could result in contamination that has an adverse effect on the market value of the property or the realization of the collateral value.
</P>
<P><I>First lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that has priority over all other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Junior lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that is lower in priority relative to other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Leverage ratio</I> means the borrower's total debt divided by the borrower's EBITDA.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 373.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 373.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Model year</I> means the year determined by the manufacturer and reflected on the vehicle's Motor Vehicle Title as part of the vehicle description.
</P>
<P><I>Net operating income (NOI)</I> refers to the income a CRE property generates for the owner after all expenses have been deducted for federal income tax purposes, except for depreciation, debt service expenses, and federal and state income taxes, and excluding any unusual and nonrecurring items of income.
</P>
<P><I>Operating affiliate</I> means an affiliate of a borrower that is a lessor or similar party with respect to the commercial real estate securing the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Payments-in-kind</I> means payments of accrued interest that are not paid in cash when due, and instead are paid by increasing the principal balance of the loan or by providing equity in the borrowing company.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money security interest</I> means a security interest in property that secures the obligation of the obligor incurred as all or part of the price of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase price</I> means the amount paid by the borrower for the vehicle net of any incentive payments or manufacturer cash rebates.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tenant</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A tenant with a lease who has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner; or
</P>
<P>(2) A tenant who originally had a lease that subsequently expired and currently is leasing the property on a month-to-month basis, has occupied the property for at least three years prior to the date of origination, and has satisfied all obligations with respect to the property in a timely manner.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying leased CRE loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by commercial nonfarm real property, other than a multi-family property or a hotel, inn, or similar property:
</P>
<P>(1) That is occupied by one or more qualified tenants pursuant to a lease agreement with a term of no less than one (1) month; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where no more than 20 percent of the aggregate gross revenue of the property is payable from one or more tenants who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are subject to a lease that will terminate within six months following the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not qualified tenants.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying multi-family loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by any residential property (excluding a hotel, motel, inn, hospital, nursing home, or other similar facility where dwellings are not leased to residents):
</P>
<P>(1) That consists of five or more dwelling units (including apartment buildings, condominiums, cooperatives and other similar structures) primarily for residential use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where at least 75 percent of the NOI is derived from residential rents and tenant amenities (including income from parking garages, health or swim clubs, and dry cleaning), and not from other commercial uses.
</P>
<P><I>Rental income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Income derived from a lease or other occupancy agreement between the borrower or an operating affiliate of the borrower and a party which is not an affiliate of the borrower for the use of real property or improvements serving as collateral for the applicable loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other income derived from hotel, motel, dormitory, nursing home, assisted living, mini-storage warehouse or similar properties that are used primarily by parties that are not affiliates or employees of the borrower or its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement reserve</I> means the monthly capital replacement or maintenance amount based on the property type, age, construction and condition of the property that is adequate to maintain the physical condition and NOI of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Salvage title</I> means a form of vehicle title branding, which notes that the vehicle has been severely damaged and/or deemed a total loss and uneconomical to repair by an insurance company that paid a claim on the vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Total debt,</I> with respect to a borrower, means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an automobile loan, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) All monthly housing payments (rent- or mortgage-related, including property taxes, insurance and home owners association fees); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any of the following that is dependent upon the borrower's income for payment:
</P>
<P>(A) Monthly payments on other debt and lease obligations, such as credit card loans or installment loans, including the monthly amount due on the automobile loan;
</P>
<P>(B) Estimated monthly amortizing payments for any term debt, debts with other than monthly payments and debts not in repayment (such as deferred student loans, interest-only loans); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any required monthly alimony, child support or court-ordered payments; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a commercial loan, the outstanding balance of all long-term debt (obligations that have a remaining maturity of more than one year) and the current portion of all debt that matures in one year or less.
</P>
<P><I>Total liabilities ratio</I> means the borrower's total liabilities divided by the sum of the borrower's total liabilities and equity, less the borrower's intangible assets, with each component determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Trade-in allowance</I> means the amount a vehicle purchaser is given as a credit at the purchase of a vehicle for the fair exchange of the borrower's existing vehicle to compensate the dealer for some portion of the vehicle purchase price, not to exceed the highest trade-in value of the existing vehicle, as determined by a nationally recognized automobile pricing agency and based on the manufacturer, year, model, features, mileage, and condition of the vehicle, less the payoff balance of any outstanding debt collateralized by the existing vehicle.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)</I> means generally accepted standards for professional appraisal practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.15" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.15   Qualifying commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exception for qualifying assets.</I> Commercial loans, commercial real estate loans, and automobile loans that are securitized through a securitization transaction shall be subject to a 0 percent risk retention requirement under subpart B, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The assets meet the underwriting standards set forth in §§ 373.16 (qualifying commercial loans), 373.17 (qualifying CRE loans), or 373.18 (qualifying automobile loans) of this part, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by loans of the same asset class and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization transaction does not permit reinvestment periods; and
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities of the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission, and to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a description of the manner in which the sponsor determined the aggregate risk retention requirement for the securitization transaction after including qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans with 0 percent risk retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention requirement.</I> For any securitization transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section, the percentage of risk retention required under § 373.3(a) is reduced by the percentage evidenced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans (as applicable) to the total unpaid principal balance of commercial loans, CRE loans, or automobile loans (as applicable) that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the qualifying asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The qualifying asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the qualifying asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the qualifying asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section also includes descriptions of the qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, and qualifying automobile loans (qualifying assets) and descriptions of the assets that are not qualifying assets, and the material differences between the group of qualifying assets and the group of assets that are not qualifying assets with respect to the composition of each group's loan balances, loan terms, interest rates, borrower credit information, and characteristics of any loan collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for securitizations of qualifying assets only.</I> Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, the risk retention requirements of subpart B of this part shall not apply to securitization transactions where the transaction is collateralized solely by servicing assets and either qualifying commercial loans, qualifying CRE loans, or qualifying automobile loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the certifications required in §§ 373.16(a)(8), 373.17(a)(10), and 373.18(a)(8), as applicable, in its records until three years after all ABS interests issued in the securitization are no longer outstanding. The sponsor must provide the disclosures and certifications upon request to the Commission and the sponsor's appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.16" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.16   Underwriting standards for qualifying commercial loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the commercial loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the financial condition of the borrower:
</P>
<P>(A) As of the end of the borrower's two most recently completed fiscal years; and
</P>
<P>(B) During the period, if any, since the end of its most recently completed fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections;
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined that, based on the previous two years' actual performance, the borrower had:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater;
</P>
<P>(iv) Determined that, based on the two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the closing date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A total liabilities ratio of 50 percent or less;
</P>
<P>(B) A leverage ratio of 3.0 or less; and
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to, upon or promptly following the inception of the loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) If the loan is originated on a secured basis, obtains a perfected security interest (by filing, title notation or otherwise) or, in the case of real property, a recorded lien, on all of the property pledged to collateralize the loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the loan documents indicate the purpose of the loan is to finance the purchase of tangible or intangible property, or to refinance such a loan, obtains a first lien on the property.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the commercial loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide to the servicer of the commercial loan the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibit the borrower from retaining or entering into a debt arrangement that permits payments-in-kind;
</P>
<P>(iii) Impose limits on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest or lien with respect to any of the borrower's property that serves as collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any of the borrower's assets that serve as collateral for the loan; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of the borrower, or any other party that pledges collateral for the loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower and any other party that pledges collateral for the loan to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on the collateral for the commercial loan at least up to the amount of the loan, and that names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on any collateral;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to perfect or protect the security interest and first lien (as applicable) of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any collateral for the commercial loan or the priority thereof, and to defend any collateral against claims adverse to the lender's interest;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer of the loan, to inspect any collateral for the commercial loan and the books and records of the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of any collateral for the commercial loan.
</P>
<P>(4) Loan payments required under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) that fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed five years from the date of origination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than quarterly over a term that does not exceed five years.
</P>
<P>(5) The primary source of repayment for the loan is revenue from the business operations of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) The loan was funded within the six (6) months prior to the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying commercial loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 373.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 373.15 with respect to a qualifying commercial loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the commercial loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.17" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.17   Underwriting standards for qualifying CRE loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) The CRE loan must be secured by the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An enforceable first lien, documented and recorded appropriately pursuant to applicable law, on the commercial real estate and improvements;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) An assignment of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Leases and rents and other occupancy agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor or similar party and all payments under such leases and occupancy agreements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All franchise, license and concession agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor, licensor, concession granter or similar party and all payments under such other agreements, whether the assignments described in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) are absolute or are stated to be made to the extent permitted by the agreements governing the applicable franchise, license or concession agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) An assignment of all other payments due to the borrower or due to any operating affiliate in connection with the operation of the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The right to enforce the agreements described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the agreements under which payments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are due against, and collect amounts due from, each lessee, occupant or other obligor whose payments were assigned pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section upon a breach by the borrower of any of the terms of, or the occurrence of any other event of default (however denominated) under, the loan documents relating to such CRE loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A security interest:
</P>
<P>(A) In all interests of the borrower and any applicable operating affiliate in all tangible and intangible personal property of any kind, in or used in the operation of or in connection with, pertaining to, arising from, or constituting, any of the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the form of a perfected security interest if the security interest in such property can be perfected by the filing of a financing statement, fixture filing, or similar document pursuant to the law governing the perfection of such security interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to origination of the CRE loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the current financial condition of the borrower and each operating affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtained a written appraisal of the real property securing the loan that:
</P>
<P>(A) Had an effective date not more than six months prior to the origination date of the loan by a competent and appropriately State-certified or State-licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(B) Conforms to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the USPAP and the appraisal requirements 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Federal banking agencies; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 CFR part 34, subpart C (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E, and 12 CFR part 225, subpart G (Board); and 12 CFR part 323 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Provides an “as is” opinion of the market value of the real property, which includes an income approach; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See USPAP, Standard 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Qualified the borrower for the CRE loan based on a monthly payment amount derived from level monthly payments consisting of both principal and interest (at the fully-indexed rate) over the term of the loan, not exceeding 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multi-family property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducted an environmental risk assessment to gain environmental information about the property securing the loan and took appropriate steps to mitigate any environmental liability determined to exist based on this assessment;
</P>
<P>(v) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections (including operating income projections for the property);
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Determined that based on the two years' actual performance immediately preceding the origination of the loan, the borrower would have had:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(B) If the borrower did not own the property for any part of the last two years prior to origination, the calculation of the DSC ratio, for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, shall include the property's operating income for any portion of the two-year period during which the borrower did not own the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Determined that, based on two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the origination date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the CRE loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules to the servicer on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly, including information on existing, maturing and new leasing or rent-roll activity for the property securing the loan, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose prohibitions on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest with respect to the collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section or of any other collateral consisting of fixtures, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment other than any such fixture, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment that is obsolete or surplus; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of any borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor unless such borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor shall have given the holder of the loan at least 30 days advance notice and, pursuant to applicable law governing perfection and priority, the holder of the loan is able to take all steps necessary to continue its perfection and priority during such 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Require each borrower and each operating affiliate to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for an amount no less than the replacement cost of the property improvements, and names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or lender loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Protect the security interest and the enforceability and priority thereof in the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and defend such collateral against claims adverse to the originator's or any subsequent holder's interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perfect the security interest of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any other collateral for the CRE loan to the extent that such security interest is required by this section to be perfected;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer, to inspect any collateral for the CRE loan and the books and records of the borrower or other party relating to any collateral for the CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Comply with all environmental, zoning, building code, licensing and other laws, regulations, agreements, covenants, use restrictions, and proffers applicable to collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Comply with leases, franchise agreements, condominium declarations, and other documents and agreements relating to the operation of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and to not modify any material terms and conditions of such agreements over the term of the loan without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer; and
</P>
<P>(H) Not materially alter collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer.
</P>
<P>(4) The loan documentation for the CRE loan prohibits the borrower and each operating affiliate from obtaining a loan secured by a junior lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the principal amount of such junior lien loan, plus the principal amount of all other loans secured by collateral described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, does not exceed the applicable CLTV ratio in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, based on the appraisal at origination of such junior lien loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such loan is a purchase money obligation that financed the acquisition of machinery or equipment and the borrower or operating affiliate (as applicable) pledges such machinery and equipment as additional collateral for the CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(5) At origination, the applicable loan-to-value ratios for the loan are:
</P>
<P>(i) LTV less than or equal to 65 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 70 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) LTV less than or equal to 60 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 65 percent, if an appraisal used to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section used a direct capitalization rate, and that rate is less than or equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The 10-year swap rate, as reported in the Federal Reserve's H.15 Report (or any successor report) as of the date concurrent with the effective date of such appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(B) 300 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the appraisal required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section included a direct capitalization method using an overall capitalization rate, that rate must be disclosed to potential investors in the securitization.
</P>
<P>(6) All loan payments required to be made under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) to fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multifamily loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than monthly over a term of at least ten years.
</P>
<P>(7) Under the terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Any maturity of the note occurs no earlier than ten years following the date of origination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is not permitted to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The interest rate on the loan is:
</P>
<P>(A) A fixed interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that effectively results in a fixed interest rate; or
</P>
<P>(C) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that established a cap on the interest rate for the term of the loan, and the loan meets the underwriting criteria in paragraphs (a)(2)(vi) and (vii) of this section using the maximum interest rate allowable under the interest rate cap.
</P>
<P>(8) The originator does not establish an interest reserve at origination to fund all or part of a payment on the loan.
</P>
<P>(9) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying CRE loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 373.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any; and
</P>
<P>(11) Within two weeks of the closing of the CRE loan by its originator or, if sooner, prior to the transfer of such CRE loan to the issuing entity, the originator shall have obtained a UCC lien search from the jurisdiction of organization of the borrower and each operating affiliate, that does not report, as of the time that the security interest of the originator in the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section was perfected, other higher priority liens of record on any property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, other than purchase money security interests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 373.15 with respect to a qualifying CRE loan and it is subsequently determined that the CRE loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the CRE loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section is not material; or;
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) or (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, restoring conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.18" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.18   Underwriting standards for qualifying automobile loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) Prior to origination of the automobile loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented that within 30 days of the date of origination:
</P>
<P>(A) The borrower was not currently 30 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(B) Within the previous 24 months, the borrower has not been 60 days or more past due, in whole or in part, on any debt obligation;
</P>
<P>(C) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Been a debtor in a proceeding commenced under Chapter 7 (Liquidation), Chapter 11 (Reorganization), Chapter 12 (Family Farmer or Family Fisherman plan), or Chapter 13 (Individual Debt Adjustment) of the U.S. Bankruptcy Code; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Been the subject of any federal or State judicial judgment for the collection of any unpaid debt;
</P>
<P>(D) Within the previous 36 months, no one-to-four family property owned by the borrower has been the subject of any foreclosure, deed in lieu of foreclosure, or short sale; or
</P>
<P>(E) Within the previous 36 months, the borrower has not had any personal property repossessed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determined and documented that the borrower has at least 24 months of credit history; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined and documented that, upon the origination of the loan, the borrower's DTI ratio is less than or equal to 36 percent.
</P>
<P>(A) For the purpose of making the determination under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, the originator must:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Verify and document all income of the borrower that the originator includes in the borrower's effective monthly income (using payroll stubs, tax returns, profit and loss statements, or other similar documentation); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) On or after the date of the borrower's written application and prior to origination, obtain a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintain files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p)) and verify that all outstanding debts reported in the borrower's credit report are incorporated into the calculation of the borrower's DTI ratio under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) An originator will be deemed to have met the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator, no more than 30 days before the closing of the loan, obtains a credit report regarding the borrower from a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis (within the meaning of 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p));
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the information in such credit report, the borrower meets all of the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and no information in a credit report subsequently obtained by the originator before the closing of the loan contains contrary information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator obtains electronic or hard copies of the credit report.
</P>
<P>(3) At closing of the automobile loan, the borrower makes a down payment from the borrower's personal funds and trade-in allowance, if any, that is at least equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The full cost of the vehicle title, tax, and registration fees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any dealer-imposed fees;
</P>
<P>(iii) The full cost of any additional warranties, insurance or other products purchased in connection with the purchase of the vehicle; and
</P>
<P>(iv) 10 percent of the vehicle purchase price.
</P>
<P>(4) The originator records a first lien securing the loan on the purchased vehicle in accordance with State law.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of the loan agreement provide a maturity date for the loan that does not exceed the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) Six years from the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 10 years minus the difference between the current model year and the vehicle's model year.
</P>
<P>(6) The terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify a fixed rate of interest for the life of the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for a level monthly payment amount that fully amortizes the amount financed over the loan term;
</P>
<P>(iii) Do not permit the borrower to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Require the borrower to make the first payment on the automobile loan within 45 days of the loan's contract date.
</P>
<P>(7) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current; and
</P>
<P>(8)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying automobile loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 373.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 373.15 with respect to a qualifying automobile loan and it is subsequently determined that the loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the automobile loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(8) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section is not material; or
</P>
<P>(2) No later than ninety (90) days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (7) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, establishing conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.19" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.19   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Community-focused residential mortgage</I> means a residential mortgage exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (v) of the CFPB's Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)).
</P>
<P><I>First pay class</I> means a class of ABS interests for which all interests in the class are entitled to the same priority of payment and that, at the time of closing of the transaction, is entitled to repayments of principal and payments of interest prior to or pro-rata with all other classes of securities collateralized by the same pool of first-lien residential mortgages, until such class has no principal or notional balance remaining.
</P>
<P><I>Inverse floater</I> means an ABS interest issued as part of a securitization transaction for which interest or other income is payable to the holder based on a rate or formula that varies inversely to a reference rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan</I> means a mortgage loan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured by a dwelling (as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19)) that is owner occupied and contains three-to-four housing units;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is deemed to be for business purposes for purposes of Regulation Z under 12 CFR part 1026, Supplement I, paragraph 3(a)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise meets all of the requirements to qualify as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) and (f) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(e) and (f)) as if the loan were a covered transaction under that section.
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S. Government-backed securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets that are insured or guaranteed (in whole or in part) as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States, and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves the issuance of asset-backed securities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Are insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Are collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets or interests in such assets, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain agricultural loan securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by loans or other assets made, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by any institution that is subject to the supervision of the Farm Credit Administration, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State and municipal securitizations.</I> Any asset-backed security that is a security issued or guaranteed by any State, or by any political subdivision of a State, or by any public instrumentality of a State that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of section 3(a)(2) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified scholarship funding bonds.</I> Any asset-backed security that meets the definition of a qualified scholarship funding bond, as set forth in section 150(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 150(d)(2)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pass-through resecuritizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by asset-backed securities:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is structured so that it involves the issuance of only a single class of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for the pass-through of all principal and interest payments received on the underlying asset-backed securities (net of expenses of the issuing entity) to the holders of such class.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First-pay-class securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by first-pay classes of asset-backed securities collateralized by first-lien residential mortgages on properties located in any state:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not provide for any ABS interest issued in the securitization transaction to share in realized principal losses other than pro rata with all other ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction based on the current unpaid principal balance of such ABS interests at the time the loss is realized;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is structured to reallocate prepayment risk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not reallocate credit risk (other than as a consequence of reallocation of prepayment risk); and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not include any inverse floater or similarly structured ABS interest.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Seasoned loans.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by seasoned loans that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The loans have not been modified since origination; and
</P>
<P>(B) None of the loans have been delinquent for 30 days or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a <I>seasoned loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of five years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 25 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, any residential mortgage loan that has been outstanding and performing for a period of at least seven years shall be deemed a seasoned loan.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to all other classes of asset-backed securities, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of at least two years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 33 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certain public utility securitizations.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction where the asset-back securities issued in the transaction are secured by the intangible property right to collect charges for the recovery of specified costs and such other assets, if any, of an issuing entity that is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by an investor owned utility company that is subject to the regulatory authority of a State public utility commission or other appropriate State agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specified cost</I> means any cost identified by a State legislature as appropriate for recovery through securitization pursuant to specified cost recovery legislation; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Specified cost recovery legislation</I> means legislation enacted by a State that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Authorizes the investor owned utility company to apply for, and authorizes the public utility commission or other appropriate State agency to issue, a financing order determining the amount of specified costs the utility will be allowed to recover;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides that pursuant to a financing order, the utility acquires an intangible property right to charge, collect, and receive amounts necessary to provide for the full recovery of the specified costs determined to be recoverable, and assures that the charges are non-bypassable and will be paid by customers within the utility's historic service territory who receive utility goods or services through the utility's transmission and distribution system, even if those customers elect to purchase these goods or services from a third party; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Guarantees that neither the State nor any of its agencies has the authority to rescind or amend the financing order, to revise the amount of specified costs, or in any way to reduce or impair the value of the intangible property right, except as may be contemplated by periodic adjustments authorized by the specified cost recovery legislation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for securitizations of assets issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized solely by obligations issued by the United States or an agency of the United States and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralized solely by assets that are fully insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States (other than those referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the United States or any agency of the United States;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation securitizations.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction that is sponsored by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting as conservator or receiver under any provision of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reduced requirement for certain student loan securitizations.</I> The 5 percent risk retention requirement set forth in § 373.4 shall be modified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by student loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan Program (“FFELP loans”) that are guaranteed as to 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 0 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans that are guaranteed as to at least 98 percent but less than 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community-focused lending securitizations.</I> (1) This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by community-focused residential mortgages and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) For any securitization transaction that includes both community-focused residential mortgages and residential mortgages that are not exempt from risk retention under this part, the percent of risk retention required under § 373.4(a) is reduced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the community-focused residential mortgages to the total unpaid principal balance of residential mortgages that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the pool assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions for securitizations of certain three-to-four unit mortgage loans.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages as defined in § 373.13, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor with respect to the securitization provides the certifications set forth in § 373.13(b)(4) with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages, or servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor of the securitization complies with the repurchase requirements in § 373.13(c) with respect to a loan if, after closing, it is determined that the loan does not meet all of the criteria to be either a qualified residential mortgage or a qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Securitization transactions involving the issuance of asset-backed securities that are either issued, insured, or guaranteed by, or are collateralized by obligations issued by, or loans that are issued, insured, or guaranteed by, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or a Federal home loan bank shall not on that basis qualify for exemption under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.20" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.20   Safe harbor for certain foreign-related transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>U.S. person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any natural person resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;
</P>
<P>(C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The estate is governed by foreign law;
</P>
<P>(C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;
</P>
<P>(F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:
</P>
<P>(i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evasions prohibited.</I> In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.21" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.21   Additional exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization transactions.</I> The federal agencies with rulewriting authority under section 15G(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)) with respect to the type of assets involved may jointly provide a total or partial exemption of any securitization transaction as such agencies determine may be appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions, exemptions, and adjustments.</I> The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, may jointly adopt or issue exemptions, exceptions or adjustments to the requirements of this part, including exemptions, exceptions or adjustments for classes of institutions or assets in accordance with section 15G(e) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 373.22" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.23.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 373.22   Periodic review of the QRM definition, exempted three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, and community-focused residential mortgage exemption</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, shall commence a review of the definition of qualified residential mortgage in § 373.13, a review of the community-focused residential mortgage exemption in § 373.19(f), and a review of the exemption for qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans in § 373.19(g):
</P>
<P>(1) No later than four years after the effective date of the rule (as it relates to securitizers and originators of asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages), five years following the completion of such initial review, and every five years thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(2) At any time, upon the request of any Federal banking agency, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency or the Department of Housing and Urban Development, specifying the reason for such request, including as a result of any amendment to the definition of qualified mortgage or changes in the residential housing market.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal banking agencies, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the commencement of a review and, in the case of a review commenced under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the reason an agency is requesting such review. After completion of any review, but no later than six months after the publication of the notice announcing the review, unless extended by the agencies, the agencies shall jointly publish a notice disclosing the determination of their review. If the agencies determine to amend the definition of qualified residential mortgage, the agencies shall complete any required rulemaking within 12 months of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of such notice disclosing the determination of their review, unless extended by the agencies.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="380" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 380—ORDERLY LIQUIDATION AUTHORITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5385(h); 12 U.S.C. 5389; 12 U.S.C. 5390(s)(3); 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1)(C); 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(7)(D); 12 U.S.C. 5381(b); 12 U.S.C. 5390(r); 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(16)(D).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 4215, Jan. 25, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General and Miscellaneous Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> The term “<I>affiliate”</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company at the time of, or immediately prior to, the appointment of receiver of the covered financial company.
</P>
<P><I>Allowed claim.</I> The term “allowed claim” means a claim against the covered financial company or receiver that is allowed by the Corporation as receiver or upon which a final non-appealable judgment has been entered in favor of a claimant against a receivership by a court with jurisdiction to adjudicate the claim.
</P>
<P><I>Board of Governors.</I> The term “Board of Governors” means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Bridge financial company.</I> The term “bridge financial company” means a new financial company organized by the Corporation in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(h) for the purpose of resolving a covered financial company.
</P>
<P><I>Business day.</I> The term “<I>business day”</I> means any day other than any Saturday, Sunday or any day on which either the New York Stock Exchange or the Federal Reserve Bank of New York is closed.
</P>
<P><I>Claim.</I> The term “claim” means any right to payment from either the covered financial company or the Corporation as receiver, whether or not such right is reduced to judgment, liquidated, unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured, unmatured, disputed, undisputed, legal, equitable, secured, or unsecured.
</P>
<P><I>Compensation.</I> The term “compensation” means any direct or indirect financial remuneration received from the covered financial company, including, but not limited to, salary; bonuses; incentives; benefits; severance pay; deferred compensation; golden parachute benefits; benefits derived from an employment contract, or other compensation or benefit arrangement; perquisites; stock option plans; post-employment benefits; profits realized from a sale of securities in the covered financial company; or any cash or non-cash payments or benefits granted to or for the benefit of the senior executive or director.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> The term “<I>control”,</I> when used in the definitions of “affiliate” and “subsidiary”, has the meaning given to such term under 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2)(A) and (B) as such law, or any successor, may be in effect at the date of the appointment of the receiver, together with any regulations promulgated thereunder then in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Corporation.</I> The term “Corporation” means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Covered financial company.</I> The term “covered financial company” means (a) a financial company for which a determination has been made under 12 U.S.C. 5383(b) and (b) does not include an insured depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Covered subsidiary.</I> The term “covered subsidiary” means a subsidiary of a covered financial company other than:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) An insurance company; or
</P>
<P>(3) A covered broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor.</I> The term “creditor” means a person asserting a claim.
</P>
<P><I>Director.</I> The term “director” means a member of the board of directors of a company or of a board or committee performing a similar function to a board of directors with authority to vote on matters before the board or committee.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act.</I> The term “Dodd-Frank Act” shall mean the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 12 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.</I> (2010).
</P>
<P><I>Employee benefit plan.</I> The term “employee benefit plan” has the meaning set forth in the Employee Retirement Income Security Act, 29 U.S.C. 1002(3).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company.</I> The term “insurance company” means any entity that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Engaged in the business of insurance,
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to regulation by a State insurance regulator, and
</P>
<P>(3) Covered by a State law that is designed to specifically deal with the rehabilitation, liquidation or insolvency of an insurance company.
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate insurance stock holding company.</I> The term “<I>intermediate insurance stock holding company</I>” means a corporation organized either at the time of, or at any time after, the organization of the mutual insurance holding company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a subsidiary of a mutual insurance holding company;
</P>
<P>(2) Holds a majority of the issued and outstanding voting stock of the converted mutual insurance company created at the time of formation of the mutual insurance holding company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Holds, as its largest United States subsidiary (as measured by total assets as of the end of the previous calendar quarter), an insurance company.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual insurance company.</I> The term “<I>mutual insurance company”</I> means an insurance company organized under the laws of a State that provides for the formation of such an entity as a non-stock mutual corporation in which the surplus and voting rights are vested in the policyholders.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual insurance holding company.</I> The term “<I>mutual insurance holding company</I>” means a corporation that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is lawfully organized under state law authorizing its formation in connection with the reorganization of a mutual insurance company that converts the mutual insurance company to a stock insurance company, and—
</P>
<P>(2) Holds either:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority of the issued and outstanding voting stock of the intermediate insurance stock holding company, if any, or
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is no intermediate insurance stock holding company, a majority of the issued and outstanding voting stock of the converted mutual insurance company.
</P>
<P><I>Senior executive.</I> The term “senior executive” means any person who participates or has authority to participate (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the company, whether or not: The person has an official title; the title designates the officer an assistant; or the person is serving without salary or other compensation. The chairman of the board, the president, every vice president, the secretary, and the treasurer or chief financial officer, general partner and manager of a company are considered senior executives, unless the person is excluded, by resolution of the board of directors, the bylaws, the operating agreement or the partnership agreement of the company, from participation (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the company, and the person does not actually participate therein.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> The term “<I>subsidiary”</I> means any company which is controlled by another company at the time of, or immediately prior to, the appointment of receiver of the covered financial company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41639, July 15, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 25353, Apr. 30, 2012; 77 FR 63214, Oct. 16, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.3   Treatment of personal service agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section, the term “personal service agreement” means a written agreement between an employee and a covered financial company or a bridge financial company setting forth the terms of employment. This term also includes an agreement between any group or class of employees and a covered financial company, or a bridge financial company, including, without limitation, a collective bargaining agreement.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If before repudiation or disaffirmance of a personal service agreement, the Corporation as receiver of a covered financial company, or a bridge financial company accepts performance of services rendered under such agreement, then:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms and conditions of such agreement shall apply to the performance of such services; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payments for the services accepted by the Corporation as receiver shall be treated as an administrative expense of the receiver.
</P>
<P>(2) If a bridge financial company accepts performance of services rendered under such agreement, then the terms and conditions of such agreement shall apply to the performance of such services.
</P>
<P>(c) No party acquiring a covered financial company or any operational unit, subsidiary or assets thereof from the Corporation as receiver or from any bridge financial company shall be bound by a personal service agreement unless the acquiring party expressly assumes the personal service agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) The acceptance by the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company, or by any bridge financial company or the Corporation as receiver for a bridge financial company of services subject to a personal service agreement shall not limit or impair the authority of the receiver to disaffirm or repudiate any personal service agreement in the manner provided for the disaffirmance or repudiation of any agreement under 12 U.S.C. 5390(c).
</P>
<P>(e) Paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to any personal service agreement with any senior executive or director of the covered financial company or covered subsidiary, nor shall it in any way limit or impair the ability of the receiver to recover compensation from any senior executive or director of a covered financial company under 12 U.S.C. 5390 and the regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41640, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.4   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.5   Treatment of covered financial companies that are subsidiaries of insurance companies.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation as receiver shall distribute the value realized from the liquidation, transfer, sale or other disposition of the direct or indirect subsidiaries of an insurance company, that are not themselves insurance companies, solely in accordance with the order of priorities set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1) and the regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41640, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.6   Limitation on liens on assets of covered financial companies that are insurance companies or covered subsidiaries of insurance companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that the Corporation makes funds available to a covered financial company that is an insurance company or to any covered subsidiary of an insurance company, or enters into any other transaction with respect to such covered entity under 12 U.S.C. 5384(d), the Corporation will exercise its right to take liens on any or all assets of the covered entities receiving such funds to secure repayment of any such transactions only when the Corporation, in its sole discretion, determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) Taking such lien is necessary for the orderly liquidation of the entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Taking such lien will not either unduly impede or delay the liquidation or rehabilitation of such insurance company, or the recovery by its policyholders.
</P>
<P>(b) This section shall not be construed to restrict or impair the ability of the Corporation to take a lien on any or all of the assets of any covered financial company or covered subsidiary in order to secure financing provided by the Corporation or the receiver in connection with the sale or transfer of the covered financial company or covered subsidiary or any or all of the assets of such covered entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41640, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.7   Recoupment of compensation from senior executives and directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Substantially responsible.</I> The Corporation, as receiver of a covered financial company, may file an action to recover from any current or former senior executive or director substantially responsible for the failed condition of the covered financial company any compensation received during the 2-year period preceding the date on which the Corporation was appointed as the receiver of the covered financial company, except that, in the case of fraud, no time limit shall apply. A senior executive or director shall be deemed to be substantially responsible for the failed condition of a covered financial company that is placed into receivership under the orderly liquidation authority of the Dodd-Frank Act if he or she:
</P>
<P>(1) Failed to conduct his or her responsibilities with the degree of skill and care an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would exercise under similar circumstances, and
</P>
<P>(2) As a result, individually or collectively, caused a loss to the covered financial company that materially contributed to the failure of the covered financial company under the facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> The following presumptions shall apply for purposes of assessing whether a senior executive or director is substantially responsible for the failed condition of a covered financial company:
</P>
<P>(1) It shall be presumed that a senior executive or director is substantially responsible for the failed condition of a covered financial company that is placed into receivership under the orderly liquidation authority of the Dodd-Frank Act under any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) The senior executive or director served as the chairman of the board of directors, chief executive officer, president, chief financial officer, or in any other similar role regardless of his or her title if in this role he or she had responsibility for the strategic, policymaking, or company-wide operational decisions of the covered financial company prior to the date that it was placed into receivership under the orderly liquidation authority of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The senior executive or director is adjudged liable by a court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction for having breached his or her duty of loyalty to the covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(iii) The senior executive was removed from the management of the covered financial company under 12 U.S.C. 5386(4); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The director was removed from the board of directors of the covered financial company under 12 U.S.C. 5386(5).
</P>
<P>(2) The presumption under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section may be rebutted by evidence that the senior executive or director conducted his or her responsibilities with the degree of skill and care an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would exercise under similar circumstances. The presumptions under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii), (b)(1)(iii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section may be rebutted by evidence that the senior executive or director did not cause a loss to the covered financial company that materially contributed to the failure of the covered financial company under the facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) The presumptions do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A senior executive hired by the covered financial company during the two years prior to the Corporation's appointment as receiver to assist in preventing further deterioration of the financial condition of the covered financial company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A director who joined the board of directors of the covered financial company during the two years prior to the Corporation's appointment as receiver under an agreement or resolution to assist in preventing further deterioration of the financial condition of the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding that the presumption does not apply under paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the Corporation as receiver still may pursue recoupment of compensation from a senior executive or director in paragraphs (b)(3)(i) or (ii) if they are substantially responsible for the failed condition of the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Savings Clause.</I> Nothing in this section shall limit or impair any rights of the Corporation as receiver under other applicable law, including any rights under title II of the Dodd-Frank Act to pursue any other claims or causes of action it may have against senior executives and directors of the covered financial company for losses they cause to the covered financial company in the same or separate actions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41640, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.8   Predominantly engaged in activities that are financial or incidental thereto.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of sections 201(a)(11) and 201(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> (“Dodd-Frank Act”) and this part, a company is predominantly engaged in activities that the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (“Board of Governors”) has determined are financial in nature or incidental thereto for purposes of section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (“BHC Act”) (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)), if:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(11) and (b).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) At least 85 percent of the total consolidated revenues of such company (determined in accordance with applicable accounting standards) for either of its two most recently completed fiscal years were derived, directly or indirectly, from financial activities, or
</P>
<P>(2) Based upon all of the relevant facts and circumstances, the consolidated revenues of the company from financial activities constitute 85 percent or more of the total consolidated revenues of the company.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “applicable accounting standards” means the accounting standards utilized by the company in the ordinary course of business in preparing its consolidated financial statements, provided that those standards are:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. generally accepted accounting principles,
</P>
<P>(ii) International Financial Reporting Standards, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other accounting standards that are determined to be appropriate on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “broker” and “dealer” have the same meanings as in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c).
</P>
<P>(3) The term “financial activity” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding money or securities.
</P>
<P>(ii) Insuring, guaranteeing, or indemnifying against loss, harm, damage, illness, disability, or death, or providing and issuing annuities, and acting as principal, agent, or broker for purposes of the foregoing, in any state.
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing financial, investment, or economic advisory services, including advising an investment company (as defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940).
</P>
<P>(iv) Issuing or selling instruments representing interests in pools of assets permissible for a bank to hold directly.
</P>
<P>(v) Underwriting, dealing in, or making a market in securities.
</P>
<P>(vi) Engaging in any activity that the Board of Governors has determined to be so closely related to banking or managing or controlling banks as to be a proper incident thereto, which include—
</P>
<P>(A) Extending credit and servicing loans. Making, acquiring, brokering, or servicing loans or other extensions of credit (including factoring, issuing letters of credit and accepting drafts) for the company's account or for the account of others.
</P>
<P>(B) Activities related to extending credit. Any activity usual in connection with making, acquiring, brokering or servicing loans or other extensions of credit, including the following activities—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Real estate and personal property appraising. Performing appraisals of real estate and tangible and intangible personal property, including securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Arranging commercial real estate equity financing. Acting as intermediary for the financing of commercial or industrial income-producing real estate by arranging for the transfer of the title, control, and risk of such a real estate project to one or more investors.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Check-guaranty services. Authorizing a subscribing merchant to accept personal checks tendered by the merchant's customers in payment for goods and services, and purchasing from the merchant validly authorized checks that are subsequently dishonored.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Collection agency services. Collecting overdue accounts receivable, either retail or commercial.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Credit bureau services. Maintaining information related to the credit history of consumers and providing the information to a credit grantor who is considering a borrower's application for credit or who has extended credit to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Asset management, servicing, and collection activities. Engaging under contract with a third party in asset management, servicing, and collection 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> of assets of a type that an insured depository institution may originate and own.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Asset management services include acting as agent in the liquidation or sale of loans and collateral for loans, including real estate and other assets acquired through foreclosure or in satisfaction of debts previously contracted.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Acquiring debt in default. Acquiring debt that is in default at the time of acquisition.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Real estate settlement servicing. Providing real estate settlement services.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For purposes of this section, real estate settlement services do not include providing title insurance as principal, agent, or broker.</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Leasing personal or real property. Leasing personal or real property or acting as agent, broker, or adviser in leasing such property if—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The lease is on a nonoperating basis; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The requirement that the lease is on a nonoperating basis means that the company does not, directly or indirectly, engage in operating, servicing, maintaining, or repairing leased property during the lease term. For purposes of the leasing of automobiles, the requirement that the lease is on a nonoperating basis means that the company does not, directly or indirectly: (1) Provide servicing, repair, or maintenance of the leased vehicle during the lease term; (2) purchase parts and accessories in bulk or for an individual vehicle after the lessee has taken delivery of the vehicle; (3) provide the loan of an automobile during servicing of the leased vehicle; (4) purchase insurance for the lessee; or (5) provide for the renewal of the vehicle's license merely as a service to the lessee where the lessee could renew the license without authorization from the lessor.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The initial term of the lease is at least 90 days; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In the case of leases involving real property:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) At the inception of the initial lease, the effect of the transaction will yield a return that will compensate the lessor for not less than the lessor's full investment in the property plus the estimated total cost of financing the property over the term of the lease from rental payments, estimated tax benefits, and the estimated residual value of the property at the expiration of the initial lease; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The estimated residual value of property for purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(C)(<I>3</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section shall not exceed 25 percent of the acquisition cost of the property to the lessor.
</P>
<P>(D) Operating nonbank depository institutions—(<I>1</I>) Industrial banking. Owning, controlling, or operating an industrial bank, Morris Plan bank, or industrial loan company that is not a bank for purposes of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Operating savings associations. Owning, controlling, or operating a savings association.
</P>
<P>(E) Trust company functions. Performing functions or activities that may be performed by a trust company (including activities of a fiduciary, agency, or custodial nature), in the manner authorized by federal or state law that is not a bank for purposes of section 2(c) of the BHC Act.
</P>
<P>(F) Financial and investment advisory activities. Acting as investment or financial advisor to any person, including (without, in any way, limiting the foregoing):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Serving as investment adviser (as defined in section 2(a)(20) of the Investment Company Act of 1940, 15 U.S.C. 80a-2(a)(20)), to an investment company registered under that act, including sponsoring, organizing, and managing a closed-end investment company;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Furnishing general economic information and advice, general economic statistical forecasting services, and industry studies;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Providing advice in connection with mergers, acquisitions, divestitures, investments, joint ventures, leveraged buyouts, recapitalizations, capital structurings, financing transactions and similar transactions, and conducting financial feasibility studies; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Feasibility studies do not include assisting management with the planning or marketing for a given project or providing general operational or management advice.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Providing information, statistical forecasting, and advice with respect to any transaction in foreign exchange, swaps, and similar transactions, commodities, and any forward contract, option, future, option on a future, and similar instruments;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Providing educational courses, and instructional materials to consumers on individual financial management matters; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Providing tax-planning and tax-preparation services to any person.
</P>
<P>(G) Agency transactional services for customer investments—(<I>1</I>) Securities brokerage. Providing securities brokerage services (including securities clearing and/or securities execution services on an exchange), whether alone or in combination with investment advisory services, and incidental activities (including related securities credit activities and custodial services).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Riskless principal transactions. Buying and selling in the secondary market all types of securities on the order of customers as a “riskless principal” to the extent of engaging in a transaction in which the company, after receiving an order to buy (or sell) a security from a customer, purchases (or sells) the security for its own account to offset a contemporaneous sale to (or purchase from) the customer.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Private placement services. Acting as agent for the private placement of securities in accordance with the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 (“1933 Act”) and the rules of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Futures commission merchant. Acting as a futures commission merchant (“FCM”) for unaffiliated persons in the execution, clearance, or execution and clearance of any futures contract and option on a futures contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Other transactional services. Providing to customers as agent transactional services with respect to swaps and similar transactions, any transaction described in paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(H) of this section, any transaction that is permissible for a state member bank, and any other transaction involving a forward contract, option, futures, option on a futures or similar contract (whether traded on an exchange or not) relating to a commodity that is traded on an exchange.
</P>
<P>(H) Investment transactions as principal—(<I>1</I>) Underwriting and dealing in government obligations and money market instruments. Underwriting and dealing in obligations of the United States, general obligations of states and their political subdivisions, and other obligations that state member banks of the Federal Reserve System may be authorized to underwrite and deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335, including banker's acceptances and certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Investing and trading activities. Engaging as principal in:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Foreign exchange;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Forward contracts, options, futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on any rate, price, financial asset (including gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, or any other metal), nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, other than a bank- ineligible security,
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> if: a state member bank is authorized to invest in the asset underlying the contract; the contract requires cash settlement; the contract allows for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration, and the company makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract, or receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset; or the contract does not allow for assignment, termination, or offset prior to delivery or expiration and is based on an asset for which futures contracts or options on futures contracts have been approved for trading on a U.S. contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission, and the company makes every reasonable effort to avoid taking or making delivery of the asset underlying the contract, or receives and instantaneously transfers title to the underlying asset, by operation of contract and without taking or making physical delivery of the asset.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> A bank-ineligible security is any security that a state member bank is not permitted to underwrite or deal in under 12 U.S.C. 24 and 335.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Forward contracts, options,
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> futures, options on futures, swaps, and similar contracts, whether traded on exchanges or not, based on an index of a rate, a price, or the value of any financial asset, nonfinancial asset, or group of assets, if the contract requires cash settlement.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> This reference does not include acting as a dealer in options based on indices of bank-ineligible securities when the options are traded on securities exchanges. These options are securities for purposes of the federal securities laws and bank-ineligible securities for purposes of section 20 of the Glass-Steagall Act, 12 U.S.C. 337. Similarly, this reference does not include acting as a dealer in any other instrument that is a bank-ineligible security for purposes of section 20. Bank holding companies that deal in these instruments must do so in accordance with the Board of Governor's orders on dealing in bank-ineligible securities.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Buying and selling bullion, and related activities. Buying, selling and storing bars, rounds, bullion, and coins of gold, silver, platinum, palladium, copper, and any other metal for the company's own account and the account of others, and providing incidental services such as arranging for storage, safe custody, assaying, and shipment.
</P>
<P>(I) Management consulting and counseling activities—(<I>1</I>) Management consulting. Providing management consulting advice: 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> In performing this activity, companies are not authorized to perform tasks or operations or provide services to client institutions either on a daily or continuing basis, except as necessary to instruct the client institution on how to perform such services for itself. See also the Board of Governors' interpretation of bank management consulting advice (12 CFR 225.131).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>i</I>) On any matter to unaffiliated depository institutions, including commercial banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, credit unions, industrial banks, Morris Plan banks, cooperative banks, industrial loan companies, trust companies, and branches or agencies of foreign banks;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) On any financial, economic, accounting, or audit matter to any other company.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Revenues derived from a company's management consulting activities under this paragraph (b)(3)(vi) will not be considered to be financial if the company:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Owns or controls, directly or indirectly, more than 5 percent of the voting securities of the client institution; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Allows a management official, as defined in 12 CFR 212.2(h), of the company or any of its affiliates to serve as a management official of the client institution, except where such interlocking relationship is permitted pursuant to an exemption permitted by the Board of Governors.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Up to 30 percent of a nonbank company's revenues related to management consulting services provided to customers not described in paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) or regarding matters not described in paragraph (b)(3)(vi)(I)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section will be included in the company's financial revenues.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Employee benefits consulting services. Providing consulting services to employee benefit, compensation and insurance plans, including designing plans, assisting in the implementation of plans, providing administrative services to plans, and developing employee communication programs for plans.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Career counseling services. Providing career counseling services to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A financial organization 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> and individuals currently employed by, or recently displaced from, a financial organization;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> Financial organization refers to insured depository institution holding companies and their subsidiaries, other than nonbanking affiliates of diversified savings and loan holding companies that engage in activities not permissible under section 4(c)(8) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1842(c)(8)).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Individuals who are seeking employment at a financial organization; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Individuals who are currently employed in or who seek positions in the finance, accounting, and audit departments of any company.
</P>
<P>(J) Support services—(<I>1</I>) Courier services. Providing courier services for:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Checks, commercial papers, documents, and written instruments (excluding currency or bearer-type negotiable instruments) that are exchanged among banks and financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Audit and accounting media of a banking or financial nature and other business records and documents used in processing such media.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> See also the Board of Governors' interpretation on courier activities (12 CFR 225.129), which sets forth conditions for company entry into the activity.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Printing and selling MICR-encoded items. Printing and selling checks and related documents, including corporate image checks, cash tickets, voucher checks, deposit slips, savings withdrawal packages, and other forms that require Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) encoding.
</P>
<P>(K) Insurance agency and underwriting—(<I>1</I>) Credit insurance. Acting as principal, agent, or broker for insurance (including home mortgage redemption insurance) that is:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Directly related to an extension of credit by the company or any of its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Limited to ensuring the repayment of the outstanding balance due on the extension of credit 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> in the event of the death, disability, or involuntary unemployment of the debtor.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> Extension of credit includes direct loans to borrowers, loans purchased from other lenders, and leases of real or personal property so long as the leases are nonoperating and full-payout leases that meet the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(vi)(C) of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Finance company subsidiary. Acting as agent or broker for insurance directly related to an extension of credit by a finance company 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> that is a subsidiary of a company, if:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Finance company includes all non-deposit-taking financial institutions that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending (excluding lending secured by first mortgages) and all financial institutions specifically defined by individual states as finance companies and that engage in a significant degree of consumer lending.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The insurance is limited to ensuring repayment of the outstanding balance on such extension of credit in the event of loss or damage to any property used as collateral for the extension of credit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The extension of credit is not more than $10,000, or $25,000 if it is to finance the purchase of a residential manufactured home 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and the credit is secured by the home; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> These limitations increase at the end of each calendar year, beginning with 1982, by the percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The applicant commits to notify borrowers in writing that: they are not required to purchase such insurance from the applicant; such insurance does not insure any interest of the borrower in the collateral; and the applicant will accept more comprehensive property insurance in place of such single-interest insurance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Insurance in small towns. Engaging in any insurance agency activity in a place where the company or a subsidiary has a lending office and that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Has a population not exceeding 5,000 (as shown in the preceding decennial census); or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Has inadequate insurance agency facilities, as determined by the Board of Governors, after notice and opportunity for hearing.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Insurance-agency activities conducted on May 1, 1982. Engaging in any specific insurance-agency activity 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> if the company, or subsidiary conducting the specific activity, conducted such activity on May 1, 1982, or received approval from the Board of Governors to conduct such activity on or before May 1, 1982.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> Revenues derived from a company's specific insurance agency activity under this clause will be considered financial only if the company:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> Nothing contained in this provision precludes a subsidiary that is authorized to engage in a specific insurance-agency activity under this clause from continuing to engage in the particular activity after merger with an affiliate, if the merger is for legitimate business purposes.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> For the purposes of this paragraph, activities engaged in on May 1, 1982, include activities carried on subsequently as the result of an application to engage in such activities pending before the Board of Governors on May 1, 1982, and approved subsequently by the Board of Governors or as the result of the acquisition by such company pursuant to a binding written contract entered into on or before May 1, 1982, of another company engaged in such activities at the time of the acquisition.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Engages in such specific insurance agency activity only at locations: in the state in which the company has its principal place of business (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1842(d)); in any state or states immediately adjacent to such state; and in any state in which the specific insurance-agency activity was conducted (or was approved to be conducted) by such company or subsidiary thereof or by any other subsidiary of such company on May 1, 1982; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Provides other insurance coverages that may become available after May 1, 1982, so long as those coverages insure against the types of risks as (or are otherwise functionally equivalent to) coverages sold or approved to be sold on May 1, 1982, by the company or subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Supervision of retail insurance agents. Supervising on behalf of insurance underwriters the activities of retail insurance agents who sell:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Fidelity insurance and property and casualty insurance on the real and personal property used in the operations of the company or its subsidiaries; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Group insurance that protects the employees of the company or its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Small companies. Engaging in any insurance-agency activity if the company has total consolidated assets of $50 million or less. Revenues derived from a company's insurance-agency activities under this paragraph will be considered financial only if the company does not engage in the sale of life insurance or annuities except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(vi)(K)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>3</I>) of this section, and does not continue to engage in insurance-agency activities pursuant to this provision more than 90 days after the end of the quarterly reporting period in which total assets of the company and its subsidiaries exceed $50 million.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) Insurance-agency activities conducted before 1971. Engaging in any insurance-agency activity performed at any location in the United States directly or indirectly by a company that was engaged in insurance-agency activities prior to January 1, 1971, as a consequence of approval by the Board of Governors prior to January 1, 1971.
</P>
<P>(L) Community development activities—(<I>1</I>) Financing and investment activities. Making equity and debt investments in corporations or projects designed primarily to promote community welfare, such as the economic rehabilitation and development of low-income areas by providing housing, services, or jobs for residents.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Advisory activities. Providing advisory and related services for programs designed primarily to promote community welfare.
</P>
<P>(M) Money orders, savings bonds, and traveler's checks. The issuance and sale at retail of money orders and similar consumer-type payment instruments; the sale of U.S. savings bonds; and the issuance and sale of traveler's checks.
</P>
<P>(N) Data processing.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Providing data processing, data storage and data transmission services, facilities (including data processing, data storage and data transmission hardware, software, documentation, or operating personnel), databases, advice, and access to such services, facilities, or databases by any technological means, if the data to be processed, stored or furnished are financial, banking or economic.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Up to 30 percent of a nonbank company's revenues related to providing general purpose hardware in connection with providing data processing products or services described in (b)(2)(vi)(N)(<I>1</I>) of this section will be included in the company's financial revenues.
</P>
<P>(O) Administrative services. Providing administrative and other services to mutual funds.
</P>
<P>(P) Securities exchange. Owning shares of a securities exchange.
</P>
<P>(Q) Certification authority. Acting as a certification authority for digital signatures and authenticating the identity of persons conducting financial and nonfinancial transactions.
</P>
<P>(R) Employment histories. Providing employment histories to third parties for use in making credit decisions and to depository institutions and their affiliates for use in the ordinary course of business.
</P>
<P>(S) Check cashing and wire transmission. Check cashing and wire transmission services.
</P>
<P>(T) Services offered in connection with banking services. In connection with offering banking services, providing notary public services, selling postage stamps and postage-paid envelopes, providing vehicle registration services, and selling public transportation tickets and tokens.
</P>
<P>(U) Real estate title abstracting.
</P>
<P>(vii) Engaging, in the United States, in any activity that a bank holding company may engage in outside of the United States; and the Board has determined, under regulations prescribed or interpretations issued pursuant to section 4(c)(13) of the BHC Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(c)(13)) to be usual in connection with the transaction of banking or other financial operations abroad. Those activities include—
</P>
<P>(A) Providing management consulting services, including to any person with respect to nonfinancial matters, so long as the management consulting services are advisory and do not allow the company to control the person to which the services are provided.
</P>
<P>(B) Operating a travel agency in connection with financial services.
</P>
<P>(C) Organizing, sponsoring, and managing a mutual fund.
</P>
<P>(D) Commercial banking and other banking activities.
</P>
<P>(viii)(A) Acting as a finder in bringing together one or more buyers and sellers of any product or service for transactions that the parties themselves negotiate and consummate, including providing any or all of the following services through any means—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identifying potential parties, making inquiries as to interest, introducing, and referring potential parties to each other, and arranging contacts between and meetings of interested parties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Conveying between interested parties expressions of interest, bids, offers, orders and confirmations relating to a transaction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Transmitting information conveying products and services to potential parties in connection with the activities described paragraphs (b)(3)(viii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The following are examples of finder services when done in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3)(viii)(C)-(D) of this section. These examples are not exclusive.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Hosting an electronic marketplace on the company's Internet Web site by providing hypertext or similar links to the Web sites of third party buyers or sellers.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hosting on the company's servers the Internet Web site of—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A buyer (or seller) that provides information concerning the buyer (or seller) and the products or services it seeks to buy (or sell) and allows sellers (or buyers) to submit expressions of interest, bids, offers, orders and confirmations relating to such products or services; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A government or government agency that provides the information concerning the services or benefits made available by government or government agency, assists persons in completing applications to receive such services or benefits from the government or agency, and allows persons to transmit their applications for services or benefits to the government or agency.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Operating an Internet Web site that allows multiple buyers and sellers to exchange information concerning the products and services that they are willing to purchase or sell, locate potential counterparties for transactions, aggregate orders for goods or services with those made by other parties, and enter into transactions between themselves.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Operating a telephone call center that provides permissible finder services.
</P>
<P>(C) To be a finder service for purposes of this section, the company providing the service must comply with the following limitations.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A company providing the service may act only as an intermediary between a buyer and a seller.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A company providing the service may not bind any buyer or seller to the terms of a specific transaction or negotiate the terms of a specific transaction on behalf of a buyer or seller, except that the company may—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Arrange for buyers to receive preferred terms from sellers so long as the terms are not negotiated as part of any individual transaction, are provided generally to customers or broad categories of customers, and are made available by the seller (and not by the company); and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Establish rules of general applicability governing the use and operation of the finder service, including rules that govern the submission of bids and offers by buyers and sellers that use the finder service and the circumstances under which the finder service will match bids and offers submitted by buyers and sellers, and govern the manner in which buyers and sellers may bind themselves to the terms of a specific transaction.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Services provided by a company will not be considered finder services if the company providing the service—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Takes title to or acquires or holds an ownership interest in any product or service offered or sold through the finder service;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Provides distribution services for physical products or services offered or sold through the finder service;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Owns or operates any real or personal property that is used for the purpose of manufacturing, storing, transporting, or assembling physical products offered or sold by third parties; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) Owns or operates any real or personal property that serves as a physical location for the physical purchase, sale or distribution of products or services offered or sold by third parties.
</P>
<P>(D) Services provided by a company will not be considered finder services if the company providing such services engages in any activity that would require the company to register or obtain a license as a real estate agent or broker under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(E) To be a finder service for purposes of this section, a company providing the service must distinguish the products and services offered by the company from those offered by a third party through the finder service.
</P>
<P>(ix) Directly, or indirectly acquiring or controlling, whether as principal, on behalf of one or more entities, or otherwise, shares, assets, or ownership interests (including debt or equity securities, partnership interests, trust certificates, or other instruments representing ownership) of a company or other entity, whether or not constituting control of such company or entity, engaged in any activity not financial in nature as defined in this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are acquired and held as part of a bona fide underwriting or merchant or investment banking activity, including investment activities engaged in for the purpose of appreciation and ultimate resale or disposition of the investment;
</P>
<P>(B) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held for a period of time to enable the sale or disposition thereof on a reasonable basis consistent with the financial viability of the activities described in paragraph (b)(3)(ix)(A) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) During the period such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held, the company does not routinely manage or operate such company or entity except as may be necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on investment upon resale or disposition.
</P>
<P>(x) Directly or indirectly acquiring or controlling, whether as principal, on behalf of one or more entities, or otherwise, shares, assets, or ownership interests (including debt or equity securities, partnership interests, trust certificates or other instruments representing ownership) of a company or other entity, whether or not constituting control of such company or entity engaged in any activity not financial in nature as defined in this section if—
</P>
<P>(A) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests are acquired and held by an insurance company that is predominantly engaged in underwriting life, accident and health, or property and casualty insurance (other than credit-related insurance) or providing and issuing annuities;
</P>
<P>(B) Such shares, assets, or ownership interests represent an investment made in the ordinary course of business of such insurance company in accordance with relevant State law governing such investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) During the period such shares, assets, or ownership interests are held, the company does not routinely manage or operate such company except as may be necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on investment.
</P>
<P>(xi) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding financial assets other than money or securities.
</P>
<P>(xii) Providing any device or other instrumentality for transferring money or other financial assets.
</P>
<P>(xiii) Arranging, effecting, or facilitating financial transactions for the account of third parties.
</P>
<P>(xiv) Ownership or control of one or more depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “recommending agencies” means:
</P>
<P>(i) The Board of Governors and the Securities and Exchange Commission in consultation with the FDIC, for a company;
</P>
<P>(A) That is a broker or a dealer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Whose largest U.S. subsidiary is a broker or a dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board of Governors and the Director of the Federal Insurance Office in consultation with the FDIC, for a company that is an “insurance company”, or whose largest U.S. subsidiary is an insurance company, as that term is defined in section 201(a)(13) of the Dodd-Frank Act; 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(13).</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) The Board of Governors and the FDIC, for any other company.
</P>
<P>(5) The term “total consolidated revenues” means the total gross revenues of the company and all entities subject to consolidation by the company for a fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of other authority.</I> Any activity described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section is considered financial in nature or incidental thereto for purposes of this section regardless of whether—
</P>
<P>(1) A bank holding company (including a financial holding company or a foreign bank) may be authorized to engage in the activity, or own or control shares of a company engaged in such activity, under any other provisions of the BHC Act or other Federal law including, but not limited to, section 4(a)(2), section 4(c)(5), section 4(c)(6), section 4(c)(7), section 4(c)(9), or section 4(c)(13) of the BHC Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(a)(2), (c)(5), (c)(6), (c)(7), (c)(9), or (c)(13)) and the Board of Governors' implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other provisions of Federal or state law or regulations prohibit, restrict, or otherwise place conditions on the conduct of the activity by a bank holding company (including a financial holding company or foreign bank) or bank holding companies generally.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Revenues derived from an investment by the company in an entity whose financial statements are not consolidated with those of the company will be treated as revenues derived from financial activities, unless such treatment is not appropriate based on information that the recommending agencies or the Secretary, have at the time a written recommendation or determination is made under section 203 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 34731, June 10, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.9   Treatment of fraudulent and preferential transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> This section shall apply to all receiverships in which the FDIC is appointed as receiver under 12 U.S.C. 5382(a) or 5390(a)(1)(E) of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary, respectively, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5381(a)(8) and (9).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Avoidance standard for transfer of property.</I> (1) In applying 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(H)(i)(II) to a transfer of property for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(A), the Corporation, as receiver of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary, which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), shall determine whether the transfer has been perfected such that a <I>bona fide</I> purchaser from such covered financial company or such covered subsidiary, as applicable, against whom applicable law permits such transfer to be perfected cannot acquire an interest in the property transferred that is superior to the interest in such property of the transferee.
</P>
<P>(2) In applying 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(H)(i)(II) to a transfer of real property, other than fixtures, but including the interest of a seller or purchaser under a contract for the sale of real property, for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(B), the Corporation, as receiver of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary, which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), shall determine whether the transfer has been perfected such that a <I>bona fide</I> purchaser from such covered financial company or such covered subsidiary, as applicable, against whom applicable law permits such transfer to be perfected cannot acquire an interest in the property transferred that is superior to the interest in such property of the transferee. For purposes of this section, the term fixture shall be interpreted in accordance with U.S. Federal bankruptcy law.
</P>
<P>(3) In applying 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(H)(i)(II) to a transfer of a fixture or property, other than real property, for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(B), the Corporation, as receiver of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), shall determine whether the transfer has been perfected such that a creditor on a simple contract cannot acquire a judicial lien that is superior to the interest of the transferee, and the standard of whether the transfer is perfected such that a bona fide purchaser cannot acquire an interest in the property transferred that is superior to the interest in such property of the transferee of such property shall not apply to any such transfer under this paragraph (b)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Grace period for perfection.</I> In determining when a transfer occurs for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(11)(B), the Corporation, as receiver of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary, which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), shall apply the following standard:
</P>
<P>(1) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a transfer shall be deemed to have been made
</P>
<P>(i) At the time such transfer takes effect between the transferor and the transferee, if such transfer is perfected at, or within 30 days after, such time, except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time such transfer takes effect between the transferor and the transferee, with respect to a transfer of an interest of the transferor in property that creates a security interest in property acquired by the transferor:
</P>
<P>(A) To the extent such security interest secures new value that was:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Given at or after the signing of a security agreement that contains a description of such property as collateral;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Given by or on behalf of the secured party under such agreement;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Given to enable the transferor to acquire such property; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) In fact used by the transferor to acquire such property; and
</P>
<P>(B) That is perfected on or before 30 days after the transferor receives possession of such property;
</P>
<P>(iii) At the time such transfer is perfected, if such transfer is perfected after the 30-day period described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Immediately before the appointment of the Corporation as receiver of a covered financial company or a covered subsidiary which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), if such transfer is not perfected at the later of—
</P>
<P>(A) The earlier of
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The date of the filing, if any, of a petition by or against the transferor under title 11 of the United States Code; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver of such covered financial company or such covered subsidiary; or
</P>
<P>(B) Thirty days after such transfer takes effect between the transferor and the transferee.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this paragraph (c), a transfer is not made until the covered financial company or a covered subsidiary, which is thereafter deemed to be a covered financial company pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(1)(E)(ii), has acquired rights in the property transferred.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> The provisions of this section do not act to waive, relinquish, limit or otherwise affect any rights or powers of the Corporation in any capacity, whether pursuant to applicable law or any agreement or contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 41641, July 15, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.10   Maximum obligation limitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The FDIC shall not, in connection with the orderly liquidation of a covered financial company, issue or incur any obligation, if, after issuing or incurring the obligation, the aggregate amount of such obligations outstanding for each covered financial company would exceed—
</P>
<P>(1) An amount that is equal to 10 percent of the total consolidated assets of the covered financial company, based on the most recent financial statement available, during the 30-day period immediately following the date of appointment of the FDIC as receiver (or a shorter time period if the FDIC has calculated the amount described under paragraph (a)(2) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(2) The amount that is equal to 90 percent of the fair value of the total consolidated assets of each covered financial company that are available for repayment, after the time period described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions:</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The term “fair value” means the expected total aggregate value of each asset, or group of assets that are managed within a portfolio, of a covered financial company on a consolidated basis if such asset, or group of assets, was sold or otherwise disposed of in an orderly transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “most recent financial statement available” means a covered financial company's:
</P>
<P>(i) Most recent financial statement filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission or any other regulatory body;
</P>
<P>(ii) Most recent financial statement audited by an independent CPA firm; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other available financial statements. The FDIC and the Treasury will jointly determine the most pertinent of the above financial statements, taking into consideration the timeliness and reliability of the statements being considered.
</P>
<P>(3) The term “obligation” means, with respect to any covered financial company:
</P>
<P>(i) Any guarantee issued by the FDIC on behalf of the covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any amount borrowed pursuant to section 210(n)(5)(A) of the Dodd-Frank Act; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other obligation with respect to the covered financial company for which the FDIC has a direct or contingent liability to pay any amount.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “total consolidated assets of each covered financial company that are available for repayment” means the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The total assets of the covered financial company on a consolidated basis that are available for liquidation during the operation of the receivership; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent included in (b)(4)(i) of this section, all assets that are separated from, or made unavailable to, the covered financial company by a statutory or regulatory barrier that prevents the covered financial company from possessing or selling assets and using the proceeds from the sale of such assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 37557, June 22, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.11   Treatment of mutual insurance holding companies.</HEAD>
<P>A mutual insurance holding company shall be treated as an insurance company for the purpose of section 203(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5383(e); provided that—
</P>
<P>(a) The company is subject to the insurance laws of the state of its domicile, including, specifically and without limitation, a statutory regime for the rehabilitation or liquidation of insurance companies that are in default or in danger of default;
</P>
<P>(b) The company is not subject to bankruptcy proceedings under title 11 of the United States Code;
</P>
<P>(c) The largest United States subsidiary of the company (as measured by total assets as of the end of the previous calendar quarter) is an insurance company or an intermediate insurance stock holding company; and
</P>
<P>(d) The assets and investments of the company are limited to the securities of an intermediate insurance stock holding company, the securities of the converted mutual insurance company and other assets and securities of the type authorized for holding and investment by an insurance company domiciled in its state of incorporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 25353, Apr. 30, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.12   Enforcement of subsidiary and affiliate contracts by the FDIC as receiver of a covered financial company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Contracts of subsidiaries or affiliates of a covered financial company that are linked to or supported by the covered financial company shall remain in full force and effect notwithstanding any specified financial condition clause contained in such contract and no counterparty shall be entitled to terminate, accelerate, liquidate or exercise any other remedy arising solely by reason of such specified financial condition clause. The Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company shall have the power to enforce such contracts according to their terms.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, if the obligations under such contract are supported by the covered financial company then such contract shall be enforceable only if—
</P>
<P>(i) Any such support together with all related assets and liabilities are transferred to and assumed by a qualified transferee not later than 5 p.m. (eastern time) on the business day following the date of appointment of the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If and to the extent paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is not satisfied, the Corporation as receiver otherwise provides adequate protection to the counterparties to such contracts with respect to the covered financial company's support of the obligations or liabilities of the subsidiary or affiliate and provides notice consistent with the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section not later than 5 p.m. (eastern time) on the business day following the date of appointment of the Corporation as receiver.
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation as receiver of a subsidiary of a covered financial company (including a failed insured depository institution that is a subsidiary of a covered financial company) may enforce any contract that is enforceable by the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company under paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part, the following terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
</P>
<P>(1) A contract is “<I>linked”</I> to a covered financial company if it contains a specified financial condition clause that specifies the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A “<I>specified financial condition</I> <I>clause”</I> means any provision of any contract (whether expressly stated in the contract or incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement or document) that permits a contract counterparty to terminate, accelerate, liquidate or exercise any other remedy under any contract to which the subsidiary or affiliate is a party or to obtain possession or exercise control over any property of the subsidiary or affiliate or affect any contractual rights of the subsidiary or affiliate directly or indirectly based upon or by reason of
</P>
<P>(A) A change in the financial condition or the insolvency of a specified company that is a covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(B) The appointment of the FDIC as receiver for the specified company or any actions incidental thereto including, without limitation, the filing of a petition seeking judicial action with respect to the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for the specified company or the issuance of recommendations or determinations of systemic risk;
</P>
<P>(C) The exercise of rights or powers by the Corporation as receiver for the specified company, including, without limitation, the appointment of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC) as trustee in the case of a specified company that is a covered broker-dealer and the exercise by SIPC of all of its rights and powers as trustee;
</P>
<P>(D) The transfer of assets or liabilities to a bridge financial company or other qualified transferee;
</P>
<P>(E) Any actions taken by the FDIC as receiver for the specified company to effectuate the liquidation of the specified company;
</P>
<P>(F) Any actions taken by or on behalf of the bridge financial company to operate and terminate the bridge financial company including the dissolution, conversion, merger or termination of a bridge financial company or actions incidental or related thereto; or
</P>
<P>(G) The transfer of assets or interests in a transferee bridge financial company or its successor in full or partial satisfaction of creditors' claims against the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(ii) Without limiting the general language of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a specified financial condition clause includes a “walkaway clause” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(F)(iii) or any regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(3) The term “<I>support”</I> means undertaking any of the following for the purpose of supporting the contractual obligations of a subsidiary or affiliate of a covered financial company for the benefit of a counterparty to a linked contract—
</P>
<P>(i) To guarantee, indemnify, undertake to make any loan or advance to or on behalf of the subsidiary or affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) To undertake to make capital contributions to the subsidiary or affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To be contractually obligated to provide any other financial assistance to the subsidiary or affiliate.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “<I>related assets and liabilities”</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Any assets of the covered financial company that directly serve as collateral for the covered financial company's support (including a perfected security interest therein or equivalent under applicable law);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any rights of offset or setoff or netting arrangements that directly arise out of or directly relate to the covered financial company's support of the obligations or liabilities of its subsidiary or affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any liabilities of the covered financial company that directly arise out of or directly relate to its support of the obligations or liabilities of the subsidiary or affiliate.
</P>
<P>(5) A “<I>qualified transferee”</I> means any bridge financial company or any third party (other than a third party for which a conservator, receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, or other legal custodian has been appointed, or which is otherwise the subject of a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding).
</P>
<P>(6) A “<I>successor”</I> of a bridge financial company means
</P>
<P>(i) A company into which the bridge financial company is converted by way of incorporation under the laws of a State of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The surviving company of a merger or consolidation of the bridge financial company with another company (whether before or after the conversion (if any) of the bridge financial company).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adequate protection.</I> The Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company may provide adequate protection with respect to a covered financial company's support of the obligations and liabilities of a subsidiary or an affiliate pursuant to paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Making a cash payment or periodic cash payments to the counterparties of the contract to the extent that the failure to cause the assignment and assumption of the covered financial company's support and related assets and liabilities causes a loss to the counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing to the counterparties a guaranty, issued by the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company, of the obligations of the subsidiary or affiliate of the covered financial company under the contract; or
</P>
<P>(3) Providing relief that will result in the realization by the counterparty of the indubitable equivalent of the covered financial company's support of such obligations or liabilities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of transfer of support or provision of adequate protection.</I> If the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company transfers any support and related assets and liabilities of the covered financial company in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section or provides adequate protection in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, it shall promptly take steps to notify contract counterparties of such transfer or provision of adequate protection. Notice shall be given in a manner reasonably calculated to provide notification in a timely manner, including, but not limited to, notice posted on the Web site of the Corporation, the covered financial company or the subsidiary or affiliate, notice via electronic media, or notice by publication. Neither the failure to provide actual notice to any party nor the lack of actual knowledge on the part of any party shall affect the authority of the Corporation to enforce any contract or exercise any rights or powers under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 63214, Oct. 16, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.13" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.13   Restrictions on sale of assets of a covered financial company by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose and applicability</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this section is to prohibit individuals or entities that profited or engaged in wrongdoing at the expense of a covered financial company or an insured depository institution, or seriously mismanaged a covered financial company or an insured depository institution, from buying assets of a covered financial company from the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability.</I> (i) The restrictions of this section apply to the sale of assets of a covered financial company by the FDIC as receiver or in its corporate capacity.
</P>
<P>(ii) The restrictions in this section apply to the sale of assets of a bridge financial company if:
</P>
<P>(A) The sale is not in the ordinary course of business of the bridge financial company, and
</P>
<P>(B) The approval or non-objection of the FDIC is required in connection with the sale according to the charter, articles of association, bylaws or other documents or instruments establishing the governance of the bridge financial company and the authorities of its board of directors and executive officers.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a sale of securities backed by a pool of assets that may include assets of a covered financial company by a trust or other entity, this section applies only to the sale of assets by the FDIC to an underwriter in an initial offering, and not to any other purchaser of the securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) The restrictions of this section do not apply to a sale of a security or a group or index of securities, a commodity, or any qualified financial contract that customarily is traded through a financial intermediary, as defined in paragraph (b) of this section, where the seller cannot control selection of the purchaser and the sale is consummated through that customary practice.
</P>
<P>(v) The restrictions of this section do not apply to a judicial sale or a trustee's sale of property that secures an obligation to the FDIC where the sale is not conducted or controlled by the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(vi) The restrictions of this section do not apply to the sale or transfer of an asset if such sale or transfer resolves or settles, or is part of the resolution or settlement of, one (1) or more claims or obligations that have been, or could have been, asserted by the FDIC against the person with whom the FDIC is settling regardless of the amount of such claims or obligations.
</P>
<P>(3) The FDIC retains the authority to establish other policies restricting asset sales. Neither 12 U.S.C. 5390(r) nor this section in any way limits the authority of the FDIC to establish policies prohibiting the sale of assets to prospective purchasers who have injured the respective covered financial company, or to other prospective purchasers, such as certain employees or contractors of the FDIC, or individuals who are not in compliance with the terms of any debt or duty owed to the FDIC in any of its capacities. Any such policies may be independent of, in conjunction with, or in addition to the restrictions set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> Many of the terms used in this section are defined in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5301, <I>et seq.</I> Additionally, for the purposes of this section, the following terms are defined:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Associated person.</I> An “associated person” of an individual or entity means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to an individual:
</P>
<P>(A) The individual's spouse or dependent child or any member of his or her immediate household;
</P>
<P>(B) A partnership of which the individual is or was a general or limited partner or a limited liability company of which the individual is or was a member; or
</P>
<P>(C) A corporation of which the individual is or was an officer or director;
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a partnership, a managing or general partner of the partnership or with respect to a limited liability company, a manager; or
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to any entity, an individual or entity who, acting individually or in concert with one or more individuals or entities, owns or controls 25 percent or more of the entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Default.</I> The term “default” means any failure to comply with the terms of an obligation to such an extent that:
</P>
<P>(i) A judgment has been rendered in favor of the FDIC or a covered financial company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a secured obligation, the lien on property securing such obligation has been foreclosed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial intermediary.</I> The term “financial intermediary” means any broker, dealer, bank, underwriter, exchange, clearing agency registered with the SEC under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, transfer agent (as defined in section 3(a)(25) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934), central counterparty or any other entity whose role is to facilitate a transaction by, as a riskless intermediary, purchasing a security or qualified financial contract from one counterparty and then selling it to another.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Obligation.</I> The term “obligation” means any debt or duty to pay money owed to the FDIC or a covered financial company, including any guarantee of any such debt or duty.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Person.</I> The term “person” means an individual, or an entity with a legally independent existence, including: A trustee; the beneficiary of at least a 25 percent share of the proceeds of a trust; a partnership; a limited liability company; a corporation; an association; or other organization or society.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Substantial loss.</I> The term “substantial loss” means:
</P>
<P>(i) An obligation that is delinquent for ninety (90) or more days and on which there remains an outstanding balance of more than $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unpaid final judgment in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1 regardless of whether it becomes forgiven in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) A deficiency balance following a foreclosure of collateral in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1, regardless of whether it becomes forgiven in whole or in part in a bankruptcy proceeding; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any loss in excess of $100,000, as adjusted from time to time in accordance with 12 CFR 314.1 evidenced by an IRS Form 1099-C (Information Reporting for Cancellation of Debt).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions on the sale of assets.</I> (1) A person may not acquire any assets of a covered financial company from the FDIC if, prior to the appointment of the FDIC as receiver for the covered financial company, the person or its associated person:
</P>
<P>(i) Has participated as an officer or director of a covered financial company or of an affiliate of a covered financial company in a material way in one or more transactions that caused a substantial loss to a covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been removed from, or prohibited from participating in the affairs of, a financial company pursuant to any final enforcement action by its primary financial regulatory agency;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has demonstrated a pattern or practice of defalcation regarding obligations to a covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has been convicted of committing or conspiring to commit any offense under 18 U.S.C. 215, 656, 657, 1005, 1006, 1007, 1008, 1014, 1032, 1341, 1343 or 1344 affecting any covered financial company and there has been a default with respect to one or more obligations owed by that person or its associated person; or
</P>
<P>(v) Would be prohibited from purchasing the assets of a failed insured depository institution from the FDIC under 12 U.S.C. 1821(p) or its implementing regulation at 12 CFR part 340.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a person has participated in a “material way in a transaction that caused a substantial loss to a covered financial company” if, in connection with a substantial loss to the covered financial company, the person has been found in a final determination by a court or administrative tribunal, or is alleged in a judicial or administrative action brought by a primary financial regulatory agency or by any component of the government of the United States or of any state:
</P>
<P>(i) To have violated any law, regulation, or order issued by a federal or state regulatory agency, or breached or defaulted on a written agreement with a federal or state regulatory agency, or breached a written agreement with a covered financial company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To have breached a fiduciary duty owed to a covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a person or its associated person has demonstrated a “pattern or practice of defalcation” regarding obligations to a covered financial company if the person or associated person has:
</P>
<P>(i) Engaged in more than one transaction that created an obligation on the part of such person or its associated person with intent to cause a loss to any financial company or with reckless disregard for whether such transactions would cause a loss to any such financial company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The transactions, in the aggregate, caused a substantial loss to one or more covered financial companies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions when FDIC provides seller financing.</I> A person may not borrow money or accept credit from the FDIC in connection with the purchase of any assets from the FDIC or any covered financial company if:
</P>
<P>(1) There has been a default with respect to one or more obligations totaling in excess of $1,000,000 owed by that person or its associated person; and
</P>
<P>(2) The person or its associated person made any fraudulent misrepresentations in connection with any such obligation(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No obligation to provide seller financing.</I> The FDIC still has the right to make an independent determination, based upon all relevant facts of a person's financial condition and history, of that person's eligibility to receive any loan or extension of credit from the FDIC, even if the person is not in any way disqualified from purchasing assets from the FDIC under the restrictions set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Purchaser eligibility certificate required.</I> (1) Before any person may purchase any asset from the FDIC that person must certify, under penalty of perjury, that none of the restrictions contained in this section applies to the purchase. The person must also certify that neither the identity nor form of the person, nor any aspect of the contemplated transaction, has been created or altered with the intent, in whole or in part, to allow an individual or entity who otherwise would be ineligible to purchase assets from the FDIC to benefit directly or indirectly from the proposed transaction. The FDIC may establish the form of the certification and may change the form from time to time.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and unless the Director of the FDIC's Division of Resolutions and Receiverships, or designee, in his or her discretion so requires, a certification need not be provided by:
</P>
<P>(i) A state or political subdivision of a state;
</P>
<P>(ii) A federal agency or instrumentality such as the Government National Mortgage Association;
</P>
<P>(iii) A federally-regulated, government-sponsored enterprise such as Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A bridge financial company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 20766, Apr. 14, 2014, as amended at 90 FR 55811, Dec. 4, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.14" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.14   Record retention requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(16)(D) requires that the Corporation establish retention schedules for the maintenance of certain documents and records of a covered financial company for which the Corporation has been appointed receiver and certain documents and records generated by the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company in connection with the exercise of its authorities under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5397. This section addresses retention of those two categories of documents and records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documentary material.</I> The term <I>documentary material</I> means any reasonably accessible document, book, paper, map, photograph, microfiche, microfilm, or writing regardless of physical form or characteristics and includes any computer or electronically-created data or file.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inherited record.</I> The term <I>inherited record</I> means documentary material of a covered financial company, provided that such documentary material existed on the date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for such covered financial company and was generated or maintained by the covered financial company in the course of, and necessary to, the transaction of its business. The determination of whether documentary material was generated or maintained by the covered financial company in the course of, and necessary to, the transaction of its business shall be based on an analysis of the following factors;
</P>
<P>(i) Whether such documentary material was generated or maintained in accordance with the covered financial company's own practices and procedures (including the document retention policies of the covered financial company) or pursuant to standards established by the covered financial company's regulators;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether such documentary material is necessary for the Corporation to carry out its obligations as receiver for the covered financial company; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether there is a present or reasonably foreseeable evidentiary need for such documentary material by the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company or the public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Receivership record.</I> The term <I>receivership record</I> means documentary material generated or maintained by the Corporation in accordance with the policies and procedures of the Corporation (including the document retention policies of the Corporation) that relates to the Corporation's appointment as receiver for a covered financial company or the exercise of its authorities as receiver for the covered financial company under 12 U.S.C. 5381 through 5397.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inherited records</I>—(1) <I>Retention schedule for inherited records.</I> The Corporation shall retain any inherited record of a covered financial company that was created fewer than ten years before the date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company for a period of no less than six years from the date of such appointment, provided however that an inherited record shall be retained indefinitely so long as it is:
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to a litigation hold imposed by the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a Congressional subpoena or relates to an ongoing investigation by Congress, the United States Government Accountability Office, or the Corporation's Inspector General; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An inherited record that the Corporation has determined is necessary for a present or reasonably foreseeable future evidentiary need of the Corporation or the public.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> Examples of inherited records include, without limitation: Correspondence; tax forms, accounting forms, and related work papers; internal audits; inventories; board of directors or committee meeting minutes; personnel files and employee benefits information; general ledger and financial reports; financial data; litigation files; loan documents including records relating to intercompany debt; contracts and agreements to which the covered financial company was a party; customer accounts and transactions; qualified financial contracts and related information; and reports or other records of subsidiaries or affiliates of the covered financial company that were provided to the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transfer of an inherited record to an acquirer of assets or liabilities of a covered financial company.</I> If the Corporation transfers an inherited record of a covered financial company to a third party (including a bridge financial company) in connection with the acquisition of assets or liabilities of the covered financial company by such third party, the record retention requirements of 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(16)(D) and paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be satisfied if the third party agrees, in writing, that:
</P>
<P>(i) It will maintain the inherited record for at least six years from the date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company unless otherwise notified in writing by the Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to destruction of such inherited record it will provide the Corporation with notice and the opportunity to cause the inherited record to be returned to the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Receivership records</I>—(1) <I>Retention schedule for receivership records.</I> (i) A receivership record shall be retained indefinitely to the extent that there is a present or reasonably foreseeable future evidentiary or historical need for such receivership record.
</P>
<P>(ii) A receivership record that is subject to a litigation hold imposed by the Corporation, is subject to a Congressional subpoena, or relates to an ongoing investigation by Congress, the United States Government Accountability Office, or the Corporation's Office of Inspector General shall be retained pursuant to the conditions of such hold, subpoena, or investigation.
</P>
<P>(iii) In no event shall a receivership record be retained by the Corporation for a period of less than six years following the termination of the receivership to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Not included in receivership records.</I> Receivership records do not include inherited records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> Examples of receivership records include, without limitation: Correspondence; tax forms, accounting forms and related work papers; inventories; contracts and other information relating to the management and disposition of the assets of the covered financial company; documentary material relating to the appointment of the Corporation as receiver; administrative records and other information relating to administrative proceedings; pleadings and similar documents in civil litigation, criminal restitution, forfeiture litigation, and all other litigation matters in which the Corporation as receiver is a party; the charter and formation documents of a bridge financial company; contracts, other documents, and information relating to the role of the Corporation as receiver in overseeing the operations of the bridge financial company; reports or other records of the bridge financial company and its subsidiaries or affiliates that were provided to the Corporation as receiver; and documentary material relating to the administration, determination, and payment of claims by the Corporation as receiver.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>General provisions.</I> With respect to any documentary material described in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the following applies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Impact on discoverability, admissibility, or release; compliance with court orders.</I> The Corporation's determination that documentary material must be maintained pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(16)(D) and this section shall not bear on the discoverability or admissibility of such documentary material in any court, tribunal, or other adjudicative proceeding nor on whether such documentary material is subject to release under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or any other law. The Corporation shall comply with any applicable court order concerning mandatory retention or destruction of any documentary material subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> Documentary material is not an inherited record nor a receivership record and is not subject to the record retention requirements of section 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(16)(D) and this section if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) A duplicate copy of retained documentary material, reference material, a draft of a document that is superseded by later drafts or revisions, documentary material provided to the Corporation by other parties in concluded litigation for which all appeals have expired, transitory information including routine system messages and system-generated log files, notes and other material of a personal nature, or other documentary material not routinely maintained under the standard record retention policies and procedures of the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Documentary material generated or maintained by a bridge financial company, or by a subsidiary or affiliate of a covered financial company, that was not provided to the covered financial company or to the Corporation as receiver; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-publicly available confidential supervisory information or operating or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or at the requirement of any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial companies or their subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> The Corporation may establish policies and procedures with respect to the retention of inherited records and receivership records that are consistent with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 41417, June 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 380.15-380.19" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 380.15-380.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Priorities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 41642, July 15, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 380.20" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.21" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.21   Priorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The unsecured amount of allowed claims shall be paid in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(1) Repayment of debt incurred by or credit obtained by the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company, provided that the receiver has determined that it is otherwise unable to obtain unsecured credit for the covered financial company from commercial sources.
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative expenses of the receiver, as defined in § 380.22, other than those described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Any amounts owed to the United States, as defined in § 380.23 (which is not an obligation described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(4) Wages, salaries, or commissions, including vacation, severance, and sick leave pay earned by an individual (other than an individual described in paragraph (a)(9) of this section), but only to the extent of $11,725 for each individual (as adjusted for inflation in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section) earned within 180 days before the date of appointment of the receiver.
</P>
<P>(5) Contributions owed to employee benefit plans arising from services rendered within 180 days before the date of appointment of the receiver, to the extent of the number of employees covered by each such plan multiplied by $11,725 (as adjusted for inflation in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section); less the sum of (i) the aggregate amount paid to such employees under paragraph (a)(4) of this section, plus (ii) the aggregate amount paid by the Corporation as receiver on behalf of such employees to any other employee benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(6) Any amounts due to creditors who have an allowed claim for loss of setoff rights as described in § 380.24.
</P>
<P>(7) Any other general or senior liability of the covered financial company (which is not a liability described under paragraphs (a)(8), (9) or (11) of this section).
</P>
<P>(8) Any obligation subordinated to general creditors (which is not an obligation described under paragraphs (a)(9) or (11) of this section).
</P>
<P>(9) Any wages, salaries, or commissions, including vacation, severance, and sick leave pay earned, that is owed to senior executives and directors of the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(10) Post-insolvency interest in accordance with § 380.25, provided that interest shall be paid on allowed claims in the order of priority of the claims set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) Any amount remaining shall be distributed to shareholders, members, general partners, limited partners, or other persons with interests in the equity of the covered financial company arising as a result of their status as shareholders, members, general partners, limited partners, or other persons with interests in the equity of the covered financial company, in proportion to their relative equity interests.
</P>
<P>(b) All payments under paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section shall be adjusted for inflation in the same manner that claims under 11 U.S.C. 507(a)(1)(4) are adjusted for inflation by the Judicial Conference of the United States pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 104.
</P>
<P>(c) All unsecured claims of any category or priority described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(10) of this section shall be paid in full or provision made for such payment before any claims of lesser priority are paid. If there are insufficient funds to pay all claims of a particular category or priority of claims in full, then distributions to creditors in such category or priority shall be made <I>pro rata.</I> A subordination agreement is enforceable with respect to the priority of payment of allowed claims within any creditor class or among creditor classes to the extent that such agreement is enforceable under applicable non-insolvency law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.22" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.22   Administrative expenses of the receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “administrative expenses of the receiver” includes those actual and necessary pre- and post-failure costs and expenses incurred by the Corporation in connection with its role as receiver in liquidating the covered financial company; together with any obligations that the receiver for the covered financial company determines to be necessary and appropriate to facilitate the smooth and orderly liquidation of the covered financial company. Administrative expenses of the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company include:
</P>
<P>(1) Contractual rent pursuant to an existing lease or rental agreement accruing from the date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver until the later of
</P>
<P>(i) The date a notice of the dissaffirmance or repudiation of such lease or rental agreement is mailed, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The date such disaffirmance or repudiation becomes effective; provided that the lesser of such lease is not in default or breach of the terms of the lease.
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts owed pursuant to the terms of a contract for services performed and accepted by the receiver after the date of appointment of the receiver up to the date the receiver repudiates, terminates, cancels or otherwise discontinues such contract or notifies the counterparty that it no longer accepts performance of such services;
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts owed under the terms of a contract or agreement executed in writing and entered into by the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company after the date of appointment, or any contract or agreement entered into by the covered financial company before the date of appointment of the receiver that has been expressly approved in writing by the receiver after the date of appointment; and
</P>
<P>(4) Expenses of the Inspector General of the Corporation incurred in carrying out its responsibilities under 12 U.S.C. 5391(d).
</P>
<P>(b) Obligations to repay any extension of credit obtained by the Corporation as receiver through enforcement of any contract to extend credit to the covered financial company that was in existence prior to appointment of the receiver pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(D) shall be treated as administrative expenses of the receiver. Other unsecured credit extended to the receivership shall be treated as administrative expenses except with respect to debt incurred by, or credit obtained by, the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company as described in § 380.21(a)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.23" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.23   Amounts owed to the United States.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “amounts owed to the United States” as used in § 380.21(a)(3) includes all unsecured amounts owed to the United States, other than expenses included in the definition of administrative expenses of the receiver under § 380.22 that are related to funds provided for the orderly liquidation of a covered financial company, funds provided to avoid or mitigate adverse effects on the financial stability of the United States or unsecured amounts owed to the U.S. Treasury on account of tax liabilities of the covered financial company, without regard for whether such amounts are included as debt or capital on the books and records of the covered financial company. Such amounts shall include obligations incurred before and after the appointment of the Corporation as receiver. Without limitation, “amounts owed to the United States” include all of the following, which all shall have equal priority under § 380.21(a)(3):
</P>
<P>(1) Unsecured amounts owed to the Corporation for any extension of credit by the Corporation, including any amounts made available under 12 U.S.C. 5384(d);
</P>
<P>(2) Unsecured amounts owed to the U.S. Treasury on account of unsecured tax liabilities of the covered financial company;
</P>
<P>(3) Unsecured amounts paid or payable by the Corporation pursuant to its guarantee of any debt issued by the covered financial company under the Temporary Liquidity Guaranty Program, 12 CFR part 370, any widely available debt guarantee program authorized under 12 U.S.C. 5612, or any other debt or obligation of any kind or nature that is guaranteed by the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(4) The unsecured amount of any debt owed to a Federal reserve bank including loans made through programs or facilities authorized under the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 221 <I>et seq.;</I> and
</P>
<P>(5) Any unsecured amount expressly designated in writing in a form acceptable to the Corporation by the appropriate United States department, agency or instrumentality that shall specify the particular debt, obligation or amount to be included as an “amount owed to the United States” for the purpose of this rule at the time of such advance, guaranty or other transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) Other than those amounts included in paragraph (a) of this section, unsecured amounts owed to a department, agency or instrumentality of the United States that are obligations incurred in the ordinary course of the business of the covered financial company prior to the appointment of the receiver generally will not be in the class of claims designated as “amounts owed to the United States” under section 380.21(a)(3), including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Unsecured amounts owed to government sponsored entities including, without limitation, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and the Federal National Mortgage Corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) Unsecured amounts owed to Federal Home Loan Banks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Unsecured amounts owed as satisfaction of filing, registration or permit fees due to any government department, agency or instrumentality.
</P>
<P>(c) The United States may, in its sole discretion, consent to subordinate the repayment of any amount owed to the United States to any other obligation of the covered financial company provided that such consent is provided in writing in a form acceptable to the Corporation by the appropriate department, agency or instrumentality and shall specify the particular debt, obligation or other amount to be subordinated including the amount thereof and shall reference this paragraph (c) or 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1); and provided further that unsecured claims of the United States shall, at a minimum, have a higher priority than liabilities of the covered financial company that count as regulatory capital on the books and records of the covered financial company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.24" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.24   Priority of claims arising out of loss of setoff rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding any right of any creditor to offset a mutual debt owed by such creditor to any covered financial company that arose before the date of appointment of the receiver against a claim by such creditor against the covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver may sell or transfer any assets of the covered financial company to a bridge financial company or to a third party free and clear of any such rights of setoff.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Corporation as receiver sells or transfers any asset free and clear of the setoff rights of any party, such party shall have a claim against the receiver in the amount of the value of such setoff established as of the date of the sale or transfer of such assets, provided that the setoff rights meet all of the criteria established under 12 U.S.C. 3590(a)(12).
</P>
<P>(c) Any allowed claim pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(12) shall be paid prior to any other general or senior liability of the covered financial company described in section 380.21(a)(7). In the event that the setoff amount is less than the amount of the allowed claim, the balance of the allowed claim shall be paid at the otherwise applicable level of priority for such category of claim under § 380.21.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this section shall modify in any way the treatment of qualified financial contracts under title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.25" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.25   Post-insolvency interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Date of accrual.</I> Post-insolvency interest shall be paid at the post-insolvency interest rate calculated on the principal amount of an allowed claim from the later of 
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for the covered financial company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a claim arising or becoming fixed and certain after the date of the appointment of the receiver, the date such claim arises or becomes fixed and certain.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interest rate.</I> Post-insolvency interest rate shall equal, for any calendar quarter, the coupon equivalent yield of the average discount rate set on the three-month U.S. Treasury bill at the last auction held by the United States Treasury Department during the preceding calendar quarter. Post-insolvency interest shall be computed quarterly and shall be computed using a simple interest method of calculation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principal amount.</I> The principal amount of an allowed claim shall be the full allowed claim amount, including any interest that may have accrued to the extent such interest is included in the allowed claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Post-insolvency interest distributions.</I> (1) Post-insolvency interest shall only be distributed following satisfaction of the principal amount of all creditor claims set forth in § 380.21(a)(1) through 380.21(a)(9) and prior to any distribution pursuant to § 380.21(a)(11).
</P>
<P>(2) Post-insolvency interest distributions shall be made at such time as the Corporation as receiver determines that such distributions are appropriate and only to the extent of funds available in the receivership estate. Post-insolvency interest shall be calculated on the outstanding principal amount of an allowed claim, as reduced from time to time by any interim distributions on account of such claim by the receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.26" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.26   Effect of transfer of assets and obligations to a bridge financial company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purchase of any asset or assumption of any asset or liability of a covered financial company by a bridge financial company, through the express agreement of such bridge financial company, constitutes assumption of any contract or agreement giving rise to such asset or liability. Such contracts or agreements, together with any contract the bridge financial company may through its express agreement enter into with any other party, shall become the obligation of the bridge financial company from and after the effective date of the purchase, assumption or agreement, and the bridge financial company shall have the right and obligation to observe, perform and enforce their terms and provisions. In the event that the Corporation shall act as receiver of the bridge financial company any allowed claim arising out of any breach of such contract or agreement by the bridge financial company shall be paid as an administrative expense of the receiver of the bridge financial company.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that the Corporation as receiver of a bridge financial company shall act to dissolve the bridge financial company, it shall wind up the affairs of the bridge financial company in conformity with the laws, rules and regulations relating to the liquidation of covered financial companies, including the laws, rules and regulations governing priorities of claims, subject however to the authority of the Corporation to authorize the bridge financial company to obtain unsecured credit or issue unsecured debt with priority over any or all of the other unsecured obligations of the bridge financial company, provided that unsecured debt is not otherwise generally available to the bridge financial company.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the final dissolution or termination of the bridge financial company whether following a merger or consolidation, a stock sale, a sale of assets, or dissolution and liquidation at the end of the term of existence of such bridge financial company, any proceeds that remain after payment of all administrative expenses of the bridge financial company and all other claims against such bridge financial company will be distributed to the receiver for the related covered financial company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.27" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.27   Treatment of similarly situated claimants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section, the term “long-term senior debt” means senior debt issued by the covered financial company to bondholders or other creditors that has a term of more than 360 days. It does not include partially funded, revolving or other open lines of credit that are necessary to continuing operations essential to the receivership or any bridge financial company, nor to any contracts to extend credit enforced by the receiver under 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(D).
</P>
<P>(b) In applying any provision of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act permitting the Corporation as receiver to exercise its discretion, upon appropriate determination, to make payments or credit amounts, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(4), (d)(4), or (h)(5)(E) to or for some creditors but not others similarly situated at the same level of payment priority, the receiver shall not exercise such authority in a manner that would result in the following recovering more than the amount established and due under 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1), or other priorities of payment specified by law:
</P>
<P>(1) Holders of long-term senior debt who have a claim entitled to priority of payment at the level set out under 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1)(E);
</P>
<P>(2) Holders of subordinated debt who have a claim entitled to priority of payment at the level set out under 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1)(F);
</P>
<P>(3) Shareholders, members, general partners, limited partners, or other persons who have a claim entitled to priority of payment at the level set out under 12 U.S.C. 5390 (b)(1)(H); or
</P>
<P>(4) Other holders of claims entitled to priority of payment at the level set out under 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(1)(E) unless the Corporation, through the affirmative vote of a majority the members of the Board of Directors then serving, and in its sole discretion, specifically determines that additional payments or credit amounts to such holders are necessary and meet all of the requirements under 12 U.S.C. 5390(b)(4), (d)(4), or (h)(5)(E), as applicable. The authority of the Board to make the foregoing determination cannot be delegated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 380.28-380.29" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 380.28-380.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Receivership Administrative Claims Process</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 41644, July 15, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 380.30" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.30   Receivership administrative claims process.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation as receiver of a covered financial company shall determine claims against the covered financial company and the receiver of the covered financial company in accordance with the procedures set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2)-(5) and the regulations promulgated by the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.31" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.31   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart C shall apply to any liability or obligation of a bridge financial company or its assets or liabilities, or to any extension of credit from a Federal reserve bank or the Corporation to a covered financial company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.32" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.32   Claims bar date.</HEAD>
<P>Upon its appointment as receiver for a covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall establish a claims bar date by which date creditors of the covered financial company shall present their claims, together with proof, to the receiver. The claims bar date shall be not less than 90 days after the date on which the notice to creditors to file claims is first published under § 380.33(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.33" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.33   Notice requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice by publication.</I> Promptly after its appointment as receiver for a covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall publish a notice to the creditors of the covered financial company to file their claims with the receiver no later than the claims bar date. The Corporation as receiver shall republish such notice 1 month and 2 months, respectively, after the date the notice is first published. The notice to creditors shall be published in one or more newspapers of general circulation where the covered financial company has its principal place or places of business. In addition to such publication in a newspaper, the Corporation as receiver may post the notice on the FDIC's Web site at <I>www.fdic.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice by mailing.</I> At the time of the first publication of the notice to creditors, the Corporation as receiver shall mail a notice to present claims no later than the claims bar date to any creditor shown in the books and records of the covered financial company. Such notice shall be sent to the last known address of the creditor appearing in the books and records or appearing in any claim found in the records of the covered financial company.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice by electronic media.</I> After publishing and mailing notice as required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Corporation as receiver may communicate by electronic media with any claimant who expressly agrees to such form of communication.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discovered claimants.</I> Upon discovery of the name and address of a claimant not appearing in the books and records of the covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall, not later than 30 days after the discovery of such name and address, mail a notice to such claimant to file a claim no later than the claims bar date. Any claimant not appearing on the books and records that is discovered before the claims bar date shall be required to file a claim before the claims bar date, subject to the exception of § 380.35(b)(2). If a claimant not appearing on the books and records is discovered after the claims bar date, the Corporation as receiver shall notify the claimant to file a claim by a date not later than 90 days from the date appearing on the notice that is mailed to such creditor. Any claim filed after such date shall be disallowed, and such disallowance shall be final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.34" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.34   Procedures for filing claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall provide, in a reasonably practicable manner, instructions for filing a claim, including by the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing contact information in the publication notice;
</P>
<P>(2) Including in the mailed notice a proof of claim form that has filing instructions; or
</P>
<P>(3) Posting filing instructions on the Corporation's public Web site at <I>www.fdic.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When claim is deemed filed.</I> A claim that is mailed to the receiver in accordance with the instructions established under paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be filed as of the date of postmark. A claim that is sent to the receiver by electronic media or fax in accordance with the instructions established under paragraph (a) shall be deemed to be filed as of the date of transmission by the claimant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Class claimants.</I> If a claimant is a member of a class for purposes of a class action lawsuit, whether or not the class has been certified by a court, each claimant must file its claim with the Corporation as receiver separately.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Indenture trustee.</I> A trustee appointed under an indenture or other applicable trust document related to investments or other financial activities may file a claim on behalf of the persons who appointed the trustee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Legal effect of filing.</I> (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(E)(i), the filing of a claim with the receiver shall constitute a commencement of an action for purposes of any applicable statute of limitations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No prejudice to continuation of action.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(E)(ii) and subject to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(8), the filing of a claim with the receiver shall not prejudice any right of the claimant to continue, after the receiver's determination of the claim, any action which was filed before the date of appointment of the receiver for the covered financial company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.35" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.35   Determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall allow any claim received by the receiver on or before the claims bar date if such claim is proved to the satisfaction of the receiver. Except as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(D)(iii), the Corporation as receiver may disallow any portion of any claim by a creditor or claim of a security, preference, setoff, or priority which is not proved to the satisfaction of the receiver.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disallowance of claims filed after the claims bar date.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, any claim filed after the claims bar date shall be disallowed, and such disallowance shall be final, as provided by 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(C)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain exceptions.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply with respect to any claim filed by a claimant after the claims bar date and such claim shall be considered by the receiver if:
</P>
<P>(i) The claimant did not receive notice of the appointment of the receiver in time to file such claim before the claims bar date, or the claim is based upon an act or omission of the Corporation as receiver that occurs after the claims bar date has passed, and
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim is filed in time to permit payment. A claim is “filed in time to permit payment” when it is filed before a final distribution is made by the receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.36" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.36   Decision period.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Prior to the 180th day after the date on which a claim against a covered financial company or the Corporation as receiver is filed with the receiver, the receiver shall notify the claimant whether it allows or disallows the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension of time.</I> The 180-day period described in paragraph (a) of this section may be extended by a written agreement between the claimant and the Corporation as receiver executed not later than 180 days after the date on which the claim against the covered financial company or the receiver is filed with the receiver. If an extension is agreed to, the Corporation as receiver shall notify the claimant whether it allows or disallows the claim prior to the end of the extended claims determination period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.37" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.37   Notification of determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall notify the claimant by mail of the decision to allow or disallow the claim. Notice shall be mailed to the address of the claimant as it last appears on the books, records, or both of the covered financial company; in the claim filed by the claimant with the Corporation as receiver; or in documents submitted in the proof of the claim. If the claimant has filed the claim electronically, the receiver may notify the claimant of the determination by electronic means.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice of disallowance.</I> If the Corporation as receiver disallows a claim, the notice to the claimant shall contain a statement of each reason for the disallowance, and the procedures required to file or continue an action in court.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to notify deemed to be disallowance.</I> If the Corporation as receiver does not notify the claimant before the end of the 180-day claims determination period, or before the end of any extended claims determination period, the claim shall be deemed to be disallowed, and the claimant may file or continue an action in court pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.38" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.38   Procedures for seeking judicial determination of disallowed claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In order to seek a judicial determination of a claim that has been disallowed, in whole or in part, by the Corporation as receiver, the claimant, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4)(A), may either:
</P>
<P>(1) File suit on such claim in the district or territorial court of the United States for the district within which the principal place of business of the covered financial company is located; or
</P>
<P>(2) Continue an action commenced before the date of appointment of the receiver, in the court in which the action was pending.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4)(B), a claimant who seeks a judicial determination of a claim disallowed by the Corporation as receiver must file suit on such claim before the end of the 60-day period beginning on the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date of any notice of disallowance of such claim;
</P>
<P>(2) The end of the 180-day claims determination period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If the claims determination period was extended with respect to such claim under § 380.36(b), the end of such extended claims determination period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4)(C), if any claimant fails to file suit on such claim (or to continue an action on such claim commenced before the date of appointment of the Corporation as receiver) prior to the end of the 60-day period described in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4)(B), the claim shall be deemed to be disallowed (other than any portion of such claim which was allowed by the receiver) as of the end of such period, such disallowance shall be final, and the claimant shall have no further rights or remedies with respect to such claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jurisdiction.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(9)(D), unless the claimant has first exhausted its administrative remedies by obtaining a determination from the receiver regarding a claim filed with the receiver, no court shall have jurisdiction over:
</P>
<P>(1) Any claim or action for payment from, or any action seeking a determination of rights with respect to, the assets of any covered financial company for which the Corporation has been appointed receiver, including any assets which the Corporation may acquire from itself as such receiver; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any claim relating to any act or omission of such covered financial company or the Corporation as receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.39" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.39   Contingent claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation as receiver shall not disallow a claim based on an obligation of the covered financial company solely because the obligation is contingent. To the extent the obligation is contingent, the receiver shall estimate the value of the claim, as such value is measured based upon the likelihood that such contingent obligation would become fixed and the probable magnitude thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) If the receiver repudiates a contingent obligation of a covered financial company consisting of a guarantee, letter of credit, loan commitment, or similar credit obligation, the actual direct compensatory damages for repudiation shall be no less than the estimated value of the claim as of the date the Corporation was appointed receiver of the covered financial company, as such value is measured based upon the likelihood that such contingent claim would become fixed and the probable magnitude thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation as receiver shall estimate the value of a claim under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section no later than 180 days after the claim is filed, unless such period is extended by a written agreement between the claimant and the receiver.
</P>
<P>(d) Except for a contingent claim that becomes absolute and fixed prior to the receiver's determination of the estimated value, such estimated value of a contingent claim shall be recognized as the allowed amount of the claim for purposes of distribution.
</P>
<P>(e) The estimated value of a contingent claim shall constitute the receiver's determination of the claim for purposes of § 380.38(d) and 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(9)(D).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 380.40-380.49" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 380.40-380.49   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.50" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.50   Determination of secured claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of a claim against a covered financial company that is secured by any property of the covered financial company, the Corporation as receiver shall determine the amount of the claim, whether the claimant's security interest is legally enforceable and perfected, the priority of the claimant's security interest, and the fair market value of the property that is subject to the security interest. The Corporation as receiver may treat the portion of the claim which exceeds an amount equal to the fair market value of such property as an unsecured claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The fair market value of any property of a covered financial company that secures a claim shall be determined in light of the purpose of the valuation and of the proposed disposition or use of such property and at the time of such proposed disposition or use.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation as receiver may recover from any property of a covered financial company that secures a claim the reasonable and necessary costs and expenses of preserving or disposing of such property to the extent of any benefit to the claimant, including the payment of all ad valorem property taxes with respect to such property.
</P>
<P>(d) To the extent that a claim is secured by property of a covered financial company and the value of such property, after any recovery under paragraph (c) of this section, is greater than the amount of such claim, there shall be allowed to the claimant a secured claim for interest on such claim and any reasonable fees, costs, or charges provided for under the agreement or State statute under which the claim arose to the extent of the value of such property.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.51" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.51   Consent to certain actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any claimant alleging a legally valid and enforceable or perfected security interest in property of a covered financial company or control of any legally valid and enforceable security entitlement in respect of any asset held by the covered financial company for which the Corporation has been appointed receiver may seek the consent of the receiver for relief from the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(C).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for consent of the Corporation as receiver for relief from the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(C) shall be in writing and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the claim, with supporting documentation;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the property that secures the claim, with supporting documentation of the claimant's interest in the property;
</P>
<P>(3) The value of the property, as established by an appraisal or other supporting documentation; and
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed disposition of the property by the claimant, including the expected date of such disposition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination by receiver.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall grant its consent to a request for relief from the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(C) if it determines that the claimant has a legally valid and enforceable or perfected security interest or other lien against the property of a covered financial company and the receiver will not use, sell, or lease the property. If the Corporation as receiver determines that it will use, sell, or lease such property and that adequate protection is necessary and appropriate, the receiver may provide adequate protection instead of granting consent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consent deemed granted.</I> If the Corporation as receiver has not notified the claimant of the determination whether to grant or withhold consent under this section within 30 days after a request for consent has been submitted, consent shall be deemed to be granted.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expiration by operation of law.</I> Notwithstanding any determination by the Corporation as receiver to withhold consent under this section, the prohibitions described in 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(13)(C)(i) are no longer applicable 90 days after the appointment of the receiver.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> Any consent granted by the Corporation as receiver under this section shall not act to waive or relinquish any rights granted to the Corporation in any capacity, pursuant to any other applicable law or any agreement or contract, and shall not be construed as waiving, limiting or otherwise affecting the rights or powers of the Corporation as receiver to take any action or to exercise any power not specifically mentioned, including but not limited to any rights, powers or remedies of the receiver regarding transfers taken in contemplation of the covered financial company's insolvency or with the intent to hinder, delay or defraud the covered financial company or the creditors of such company, or that is a fraudulent transfer under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) This section shall not apply in the case of a contract that is repudiated or disaffirmed by the Corporation as receiver.
</P>
<P>(2) This section shall not apply to a director or officer liability insurance contract, a financial institution bond, the rights of parties to certain qualified financial contracts pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8), the rights of parties to netting contracts pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4401 <I>et seq.,</I> or any extension of credit from any Federal reserve bank or the Corporation to any covered financial company or any security interest in the assets of a covered financial company securing any such extension of credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.52" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.52   Adequate protection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Corporation as receiver determines that it will use, sell, or lease or grant a security interest or other lien against property of the covered financial company that is subject to a security interest of a claimant, the receiver shall provide adequate protection by any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(1) Making a cash payment or periodic cash payments to the claimant to the extent that the sale, use, or lease of the property or the grant of a security interest or other lien against the property by the Corporation as receiver results in a decrease in the value of such claimant's security interest in the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing to the claimant an additional or replacement lien to the extent that the sale, use, or lease of the property or the grant of a security interest against the property by the Corporation as receiver results in a decrease in the value of the claimant's security interest in the property; or
</P>
<P>(3) Providing any other relief that will result in the realization by the claimant of the indubitable equivalent of the claimant's security interest in the property.
</P>
<P>(b) Adequate protection of the claimant's security interest will be presumed if the value of the property is not depreciating or is sufficiently greater than the amount of the claim so that the claimant's security interest is not impaired.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.53" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.53   Repudiation of secured contract.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that a contract to which a covered financial company is a party is secured by property of the covered financial company, the repudiation of the contract by the Corporation as receiver shall not be construed as permitting the avoidance of any legally enforceable and perfected security interest in the property, and the security interest shall secure any claim for repudiation damages.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Orderly Liquidation of Covered Brokers or Dealers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 53665, Aug. 31, 2020, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 380.60" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.60   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart D, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Appointment date.</I> The term <I>appointment date</I> means the date of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for a covered financial company that is a covered broker or dealer. This date shall constitute the <I>filing date</I> as that term is used in SIPA.
</P>
<P><I>Bridge broker or dealer.</I> The term <I>bridge broker or dealer</I> means a new financial company organized by the Corporation in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(h) for the purpose of resolving a covered broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Commission.</I> The term <I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Covered broker or dealer.</I> The term <I>covered broker or dealer</I> means a covered financial company that is a qualified broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Customer.</I> The term <I>customer</I> of a covered broker or dealer shall have the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 78<I>lll</I>(2) <I>provided that</I> the references therein to <I>debtor</I> shall mean the covered broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Customer name securities.</I> The term <I>customer name securities</I> shall have the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 78<I>lll</I>(3) <I>provided that</I> the references therein to <I>debtor</I> shall mean the covered broker or dealer and the references therein to <I>filing date</I> shall mean the appointment date.
</P>
<P><I>Customer property.</I> The term <I>customer property</I> shall have the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 78<I>lll</I>(4) <I>provided that</I> the references therein to <I>debtor</I> shall mean the covered broker or dealer.
</P>
<P><I>Net equity.</I> The term <I>net equity</I> shall have the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 78<I>lll</I>(11) <I>provided that</I> the references therein to <I>debtor</I> shall mean the covered broker or dealer and the references therein to <I>filing date</I> shall mean the appointment date.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified broker or dealer.</I> The term <I>qualified broker or dealer</I> means a broker or dealer that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is registered with the Commission under section 15(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o(b)); and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a member of SIPC.
</P>
<P><I>SIPA.</I> The term <I>SIPA</I> means the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970, 15 U.S.C. 78aaa-<I>lll.</I>
</P>
<P><I>SIPC.</I> The term <I>SIPC</I> means the Securities Investor Protection Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.61" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.61   Appointment of receiver and trustee for covered broker or dealer.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for a covered broker or dealer, the Corporation shall appoint SIPC to act as trustee for the covered broker or dealer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.62" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.62   Notice and application for protective decree for covered broker or dealer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) SIPC and the Corporation, upon consultation with the Commission, shall jointly determine the terms of a notice and application for a protective decree that will be filed promptly with the Federal district court for the district within which the principal place of business of the covered broker or dealer is located; <I>provided that</I> if a case or proceeding under SIPA with respect to such covered broker or dealer is then pending, then such notice and application for a protective decree will be filed promptly with the Federal district court in which such case or proceeding under SIPA is pending. If such notice and application for a protective decree is filed on a date other than the appointment date, such filing shall be deemed to have occurred on the appointment date for the purposes of this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice and application for a protective decree may, among other things, provide for notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver and the appointment of SIPC as trustee for the covered broker or dealer; and
</P>
<P>(2) That the provisions of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act and any regulations promulgated thereunder may apply, including without limitation the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any existing case or proceeding with respect to a covered broker or dealer under the Bankruptcy Code or SIPA shall be dismissed effective as of the appointment date and no such case or proceeding may be commenced with respect to a covered broker or dealer at any time while the Corporation is receiver for such covered broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The revesting of assets in a covered broker or dealer to the extent that they have vested in any entity other than the covered broker or dealer as a result of any case or proceeding commenced with respect to the covered broker or dealer under the Bankruptcy Code, SIPA, or any similar provision of State liquidation or insolvency law applicable to the covered broker or dealer; <I>provided that</I> any such revesting shall not apply to assets held by the covered broker or dealer, including customer property, transferred prior to the appointment date pursuant to an order entered by the bankruptcy court presiding over the case or proceeding with respect to the covered broker or dealer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The request of the Corporation as receiver for a stay in any judicial action or proceeding (other than actions dismissed in accordance with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section) in which the covered broker or dealer is or becomes a party for a period of up to 90 days from the appointment date;
</P>
<P>(iv) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section with respect to qualified financial contracts, no person may exercise any right or power to terminate, accelerate or declare a default under any contract to which the covered broker or dealer is a party (and no provision in any such contract providing for such default, termination or acceleration shall be enforceable), or to obtain possession of or exercise control over any property of the covered broker or dealer or affect any contractual rights of the covered broker or dealer without the consent of the Corporation as receiver of the covered broker or dealer upon consultation with SIPC during the 90-day period beginning from the appointment date; and
</P>
<P>(v) The exercise of rights and the performance of obligations by parties to qualified financial contracts with the covered broker or dealer may be affected, stayed, or delayed pursuant to the provisions of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (including 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)) and the regulations promulgated thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.63" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.63   Bridge broker or dealer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation, as receiver for one or more covered brokers or dealers or in anticipation of being appointed receiver for one or more covered broker or dealers, may organize one or more bridge brokers or dealers with respect to a covered broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Corporation establishes one or more bridge brokers or dealers with respect to a covered broker or dealer, then, subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the Corporation as receiver for such covered broker or dealer shall transfer all customer accounts and all associated customer name securities and customer property to such bridge brokers or dealers unless the Corporation determines, after consultation with the Commission and SIPC, that:
</P>
<P>(1) The customer accounts, customer name securities, and customer property are likely to be promptly transferred to one or more qualified brokers or dealers such that the use of a bridge broker or dealer would not facilitate such transfer to one or more qualified brokers or dealers; or
</P>
<P>(2) The transfer of such customer accounts to a bridge broker or dealer would materially interfere with the ability of the Corporation to avoid or mitigate serious adverse effects on financial stability or economic conditions in the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation, as receiver for such covered broker or dealer, also may transfer any other assets and liabilities of the covered broker or dealer (including non-customer accounts and any associated property and any assets and liabilities associated with any trust or custody business) to such bridge brokers or dealers as the Corporation may, in its discretion, determine to be appropriate in accordance with, and subject to the requirements of, 12 U.S.C. 5390(h), including 12 U.S.C. 5390(h)(1) and 5390(h)(5), and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(d) In connection with customer accounts transferred to the bridge broker or dealer pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, claims for net equity shall not be transferred but shall remain with the covered broker or dealer. Customer property transferred from the covered broker or dealer, along with advances from SIPC, shall be allocated to customer accounts at the bridge broker or dealer in accordance with § 380.64(a)(3). Such allocations initially may be based upon estimates, and such estimates may be based upon the books and records of the covered broker or dealer or any other information deemed relevant in the discretion of the Corporation as receiver, in consultation with SIPC, as trustee. Such estimates may be adjusted from time to time as additional information becomes available. With respect to each account transferred to the bridge broker or dealer pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the bridge broker or dealer shall undertake the obligations of a broker or dealer only with respect to property transferred to and held by the bridge broker or dealer, and allocated to the account as provided in § 380.64(a)(3), including any customer property and any advances from SIPC. The bridge broker or dealer shall have no obligations with respect to any customer property or other property that is not transferred from the covered broker or dealer to the bridge broker or dealer. The transfer of customer property to such an account shall have no effect on calculation of the amount of the affected account holder's net equity, but the value, as of the appointment date, of the customer property and advances from SIPC so transferred shall be deemed to satisfy any such claim, in whole or in part.
</P>
<P>(e) The transfer of assets or liabilities held by a covered broker or dealer, including customer accounts and all associated customer name securities and customer property, assets and liabilities held by a covered broker or dealer for any non-customer creditor, and assets and liabilities associated with any trust or custody business, to a bridge broker or dealer, shall be effective without any consent, authorization, or approval of any person or entity, including but not limited to, any customer, contract party, governmental authority, or court.
</P>
<P>(f) Any succession to or assumption by a bridge broker or dealer of rights, powers, authorities, or privileges of a covered broker or dealer shall be effective without any consent, authorization, or approval of any person or entity, including but not limited to, any customer, contract party, governmental authority, or court, and any such bridge broker or dealer shall upon its organization by the Corporation immediately and by operation of law—
</P>
<P>(1) Be established and deemed registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(2) Be deemed to be a member of SIPC; and
</P>
<P>(3) Succeed to any and all registrations and memberships of the covered broker or dealer with or in any self-regulatory organizations.
</P>
<P>(g) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, the bridge broker or dealer shall be subject to applicable Federal securities laws and all requirements with respect to being a member of a self-regulatory organization and shall operate in accordance with all such laws and requirements and in accordance with its articles of association; provided, however, that the Commission may, in its discretion, exempt the bridge broker or dealer from any such requirements if the Commission deems such exemption to be necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(h) At the end of the term of existence of a bridge broker or dealer, any proceeds that remain after payment of all administrative expenses of such bridge broker or dealer and all other claims against such bridge broker or dealer shall be distributed to the receiver for the related covered broker or dealer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.64" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.64   Claims of customers and other creditors of a covered broker or dealer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Trustee's role.</I> (1) SIPC, as trustee for a covered broker or dealer, shall determine customer status, claims for net equity, claims for customer name securities, and whether property of the covered broker or dealer qualifies as customer property. SIPC, as trustee for a covered broker or dealer, shall make claims determinations in accordance with SIPA and with paragraph (a)(3) of this section, but such determinations, and any claims related thereto, shall be governed by the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) SIPC shall make advances in accordance with, and subject to the limitations imposed by, 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3. Where appropriate, SIPC shall make such advances by delivering cash or securities to the customer accounts established at the bridge broker or dealer.
</P>
<P>(3) Customer property held by a covered broker or dealer shall be allocated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) First, to SIPC in repayment of advances made by SIPC pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5385(f) and 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3(c)(1), to the extent such advances effected the release of securities which then were apportioned to customer property pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78fff(d);
</P>
<P>(ii) Second, to customers of such covered broker or dealer, or in the case that customer accounts are transferred to a bridge broker or dealer, then to such customer accounts at a bridge broker or dealer, who shall share ratably in such customer property on the basis and to the extent of their respective net equities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Third, to SIPC as subrogee for the claims of customers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Fourth, to SIPC in repayment of advances made by SIPC pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78fff-3(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) The determinations and advances made by SIPC as trustee for a covered broker or dealer under this subpart D shall be made in a manner consistent with SIPC's customary practices under SIPA. The allocation of customer property, advances from SIPC, and delivery of customer name securities to each customer or to its customer account at a bridge broker or dealer, in partial or complete satisfaction of such customer's net equity claims as of the close of business on the appointment date, shall be in a manner, including form and timing, and in an amount at least as beneficial to such customer as would have been the case had the covered broker or dealer been liquidated under SIPA. Any claims related to determinations made by SIPC as trustee for a covered broker or dealer shall be governed by the procedures set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receiver's role.</I> Any claim shall be determined in accordance with the procedures set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2) through (5) and the regulations promulgated by the Corporation thereunder, provided however, that—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice requirements.</I> The notice of the appointment of the Corporation as receiver for a covered broker or dealer shall also include notice of the appointment of SIPC as trustee. The Corporation as receiver shall coordinate with SIPC as trustee to post the notice on SIPC's public website in addition to the publication procedures set forth in § 380.33.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedures for filing a claim.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall consult with SIPC, as trustee, regarding a claim form and filing instructions with respect to claims against the Corporation as receiver for a covered broker or dealer, and such information shall be provided on SIPC's public website in addition to the Corporation's public website. Any such claim form shall contain a provision permitting a claimant to claim status as a customer of the broker or dealer, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Claims bar date.</I> The Corporation as receiver shall establish a claims bar date in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2)(B)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder by which date creditors of a covered broker or dealer, including all customers of the covered broker or dealer, shall present their claims, together with proof. The claims bar date for a covered broker or dealer shall be the date following the expiration of the six-month period beginning on the date a notice to creditors to file their claims is first published in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(2)(B)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder. Any claim filed after the claims bar date shall be disallowed, and such disallowance shall be final, as provided by 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(C)(i) and any regulations promulgated thereunder, except that a claim filed after the claims bar date shall be considered by the receiver as provided by 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(C)(ii) and any regulations promulgated thereunder. In accordance with section 8(a)(3) of SIPA, 15 U.S.C. 78fff-2(a)(3), any claim for net equity filed more than sixty days after the date the notice to creditors to file claims is first published need not be paid or satisfied in whole or in part out of customer property and, to the extent such claim is paid by funds advanced by SIPC, it shall be satisfied in cash or securities, or both, as SIPC, as trustee, determines is most economical to the receivership estate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision period.</I> The Corporation as receiver of a covered broker or dealer shall notify a claimant whether it allows or disallows the claim, or any portion of a claim or any claim of a security, preference, set-off, or priority, within the 180-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(A) and any regulations promulgated thereunder (as such 180-day period may be extended by written agreement as provided therein) or within the 90-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(5)(B) and any regulations promulgated thereunder, whichever is applicable. In accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, the Corporation, as receiver, shall issue the notice required by this paragraph (c), which shall utilize the determination made by SIPC, as trustee, in a manner consistent with SIPC's customary practices in a liquidation under SIPA, with respect to any claim for net equity or customer name securities. The process established herein for the determination, within the 180-day period set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(3)(A) and any regulations promulgated thereunder (as such 180-day period may be extended by written agreement as provided therein), of claims by customers of a covered broker or dealer for customer property or customer name securities shall constitute the exclusive process for the determination of such claims, and any procedure for expedited relief established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(5) and any regulations promulgated thereunder shall be inapplicable to such claims.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Judicial review.</I> The claimant may seek a judicial determination of any claim disallowed, in whole or in part, by the Corporation as receiver, including any claim disallowed based upon any determination(s) of SIPC as trustee made pursuant to § 380.64(a), by the appropriate district or territorial court of the United States in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5390(a)(4) or (5), whichever is applicable, and any regulations promulgated thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.65" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.65   Priorities for unsecured claims against a covered broker or dealer.</HEAD>
<P>Allowed claims not satisfied pursuant to § 380.63(d), including allowed claims for net equity to the extent not satisfied after final allocation of customer property in accordance with § 380.64(a)(3), shall be paid in accordance with the order of priority set forth in § 380.21 subject to the following adjustments:
</P>
<P>(a) Administrative expenses of SIPC incurred in performing its responsibilities as trustee for a covered broker or dealer shall be included as administrative expenses of the receiver as defined in § 380.22 and shall be paid <I>pro rata</I> with such expenses in accordance with § 380.21(c).
</P>
<P>(b) Amounts paid by the Corporation to customers or SIPC shall be included as amounts owed to the United States as defined in § 380.23 and shall be paid <I>pro rata</I> with such amounts in accordance with § 380.21(c).
</P>
<P>(c) Amounts advanced by SIPC for the purpose of satisfying customer claims for net equity shall be paid following the payment of all amounts owed to the United States pursuant to § 380.21(a)(3) but prior to the payment of any other class or priority of claims described in § 380.21(a)(4) through (11).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.66" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.66   Administrative expenses of SIPC.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In carrying out its responsibilities, SIPC, as trustee for a covered broker or dealer, may utilize the services of third parties, including private attorneys, accountants, consultants, advisors, outside experts, and other third party professionals. SIPC shall have an allowed claim for administrative expenses for any amounts paid by SIPC for such services to the extent that such services are available in the private sector, and utilization of such services is practicable, efficient, and cost effective. The term <I>administrative expenses of SIPC</I> includes the costs and expenses of such attorneys, accountants, consultants, advisors, outside experts, and other third party professionals, and other expenses that would be allowable to a third party trustee under 15 U.S.C. 78eee(b)(5)(A), including the costs and expenses of SIPC employees that would be allowable pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 78fff(e).
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>administrative expenses of SIPC</I> shall not include advances from SIPC to satisfy customer claims for net equity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 380.67" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.24.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 380.67   Qualified Financial Contracts.</HEAD>
<P>The rights and obligations of any party to a qualified financial contract to which a covered broker or dealer is a party shall be governed exclusively by 12 U.S.C. 5390, including the limitations and restrictions contained in 12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(10)(B), and any regulations promulgated thereunder.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="381" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 381—RESOLUTION PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5365(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 59228, Nov. 1, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 381.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.1   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to section 165(d)(8) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1426-1427), as amended by the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296) (the <I>Dodd-Frank Act</I>), 12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(8), which requires the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (Corporation) to jointly issue rules implementing the provisions of section 165(d) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to each covered company and establishes rules and requirements regarding the submission and content of a resolution plan, as well as procedures for review by the Board and Corporation of a resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy Code</I> means Title 11 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P><I>Biennial filer</I> is defined in § 381.4(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Category II banking organization</I> means a covered company that is a category II banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Category III banking organization</I> means a covered company that is a category III banking organization pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization, but does not include any organization, the majority of the voting securities of which are owned by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Control.</I> A company controls another company when the first company, directly or indirectly, owns, or holds with power to vote, 25 percent or more of any class of the second company's outstanding voting securities.
</P>
<P><I>Core business lines</I> means those business lines of the covered company, including associated operations, services, functions and support, that, in the view of the covered company, upon failure would result in a material loss of revenue, profit, or franchise value.
</P>
<P><I>Core elements</I> mean the information required to be included in a full resolution plan pursuant to § 381.5(c), (d)(1)(i), (iii), and (iv), (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2), (3), and (5), (f)(1)(v), and (g) regarding capital, liquidity, and the covered company's plan for executing any recapitalization contemplated in its resolution plan, including updated quantitative financial information and analyses important to the execution of the covered company's resolution strategy.
</P>
<P><I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council established by section 111 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P><I>Covered company</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered company means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any global systemically important BHC;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any bank holding company, as that term is defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841), and part 225 of this title (the Board's Regulation Y), that has $250 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined based on the average of the company's four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C; provided that in the case of a company whose total consolidated assets have increased as the result of a merger, acquisition, combination, or similar transaction, the Board and the Corporation may alternatively consider, in their discretion, to the extent and in the manner the Board and the Corporation jointly consider to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q of the companies that were party to the merger, acquisition, combination or similar transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any foreign bank or company that is a bank holding company or is treated as a bank holding company under section 8(a) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3106(a)), and that has $250 billion or more in total consolidated assets, as determined annually based on the foreign bank's or company's most recent annual or, as applicable, quarterly based on the average of the foreign bank's or company's four most recent quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q; provided that in the case of a company whose total consolidated assets have increased as the result of a merger, acquisition, combination, or similar transaction, the Board and the Corporation may alternatively consider, in their discretion, to the extent and in the manner the Board and the Corporation jointly consider to be appropriate, one or more of the four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations as reported on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q of the companies that were party to the merger, acquisition, combination or similar transaction; and
</P>
<P>(v) Any additional covered company as determined pursuant to § 243.13 of this title.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cessation of covered company status for nonbank financial companies supervised by the Board and global systemically important BHCs.</I> Once a covered company meets the requirements described in paragraph (1)(i) or (ii) of this definition of covered company, the company shall remain a covered company until it no longer meets any of the requirements described in paragraph (1) of this definition of covered company.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cessation of covered company status for other covered companies.</I> Once a company meets the requirements described in paragraph (1)(iii) or (iv) of this definition of covered company, the company shall remain a covered company until—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iii) of this definition of covered company or a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iv) of this definition of covered company that files quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, the company has reported total consolidated assets that are below $250 billion for each of four consecutive quarters, as determined based on its total consolidated assets as reported on each of its four most recent Consolidated Financial Statements for Holding Companies on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-9C or Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a covered company described in paragraph (1)(iv) of this definition of covered company that does not file quarterly Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, the company has reported total consolidated assets that are below $250 billion for each of two consecutive years, as determined based on its total consolidated assets as reported on each of its two most recent annual Capital and Asset Reports for Foreign Banking Organizations on the Federal Reserve's Form FR Y-7Q, or such earlier time as jointly determined by the Board and the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multi-tiered holding company.</I> In a multi-tiered holding company structure, covered company means the top-tier of the multi-tiered holding company unless the Board and the Corporation jointly identify a different holding company to satisfy the requirements that apply to the covered company. In making this determination, the Board and the Corporation shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The ownership structure of the foreign banking organization, including whether the foreign banking organization is owned or controlled by a foreign government;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the action would be consistent with the purposes of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other factors that the Board and the Corporation determine are relevant.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Asset threshold for bank holding companies and foreign banking organizations.</I> The Board may, pursuant to a recommendation of the Council, raise any asset threshold specified in paragraph (1)(iii) or (iv) of this definition of covered company.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Exclusion.</I> A bridge financial company chartered pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(h) shall not be deemed to be a covered company hereunder.
</P>
<P><I>Critical operations</I> means those operations of the covered company, including associated services, functions and support, the failure or discontinuance of which would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Deficiency</I> is defined in § 381.8(b).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(c)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1)) and includes a state-licensed uninsured branch, agency, or commercial lending subsidiary of a foreign bank.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign banking organization</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b)(7) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101(7)), that:
</P>
<P>(i) Operates a branch, agency, or commercial lending company subsidiary in the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls a bank in the United States; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Controls an Edge corporation acquired after March 5, 1987; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any company of which the foreign bank is a subsidiary.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign-based covered company</I> means any covered company that is not incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Full resolution plan</I> means a full resolution plan described in § 381.5.
</P>
<P><I>Functionally regulated subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Global systemically important BHC</I> means a covered company that is a global systemically important BHC pursuant to § 252.5 of this title.
</P>
<P><I>Identified critical operations</I> means the critical operations of the covered company identified by the covered company or jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 381.3(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Material change</I> means an event, occurrence, change in conditions or circumstances, or other change that results in, or could reasonably be foreseen to have, a material effect on:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolvability of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company's resolution strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) How the covered company's resolution strategy is implemented. Such changes include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The identification of a new critical operation or core business line;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identification of a new material entity or the de-identification of a material entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Significant increases or decreases in the business, operations, or funding or interconnections of a material entity; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in the primary regulatory authorities of a material entity or the covered company on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P><I>Material entity</I> means a subsidiary or foreign office of the covered company that is significant to the activities of an identified critical operation or core business line, or is financially or operationally significant to the resolution of the covered company.
</P>
<P><I>Material financial distress</I> with regard to a covered company means that:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company has incurred, or is likely to incur, losses that will deplete all or substantially all of its capital, and there is no reasonable prospect for the company to avoid such depletion;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets of the covered company are, or are likely to be, less than its obligations to creditors and others; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered company is, or is likely to be, unable to pay its obligations (other than those subject to a bona fide dispute) in the normal course of business.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company supervised by the Board</I> means a nonbank financial company or other company that the Council has determined under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323) shall be supervised by the Board and for which such determination is still in effect.
</P>
<P><I>Rapid and orderly resolution</I> means a reorganization or liquidation of the covered company (or, in the case of a covered company that is incorporated or organized in a jurisdiction other than the United States, the subsidiaries and operations of such foreign company that are domiciled in the United States) under the Bankruptcy Code that can be accomplished within a reasonable period of time and in a manner that substantially mitigates the risk that the failure of the covered company would have serious adverse effects on financial stability in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Reduced resolution plan</I> means a reduced resolution plan described in § 381.7.
</P>
<P><I>Shortcoming</I> is defined in § 381.8(e).
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means a company that is controlled by another company, and an indirect subsidiary is a company that is controlled by a subsidiary of a company.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted resolution plan</I> means a targeted resolution plan described in § 381.6.
</P>
<P><I>Triennial full filer</I> is defined in § 381.4(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Triennial reduced filer</I> is defined in § 381.4(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>United States</I> means the United States and includes any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.3   Critical operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Identification of critical operations by covered companies</I>—(1) <I>Process and methodology required.</I> (i) Each biennial filer and triennial full filer shall establish and implement a process designed to identify each of its critical operations. After July 1, 2022, each triennial reduced filer that has any identified critical operation shall establish and implement a process designed to identify each of its critical operations. The scale of the process must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the covered company's operations. The covered company must review its process periodically and update it as necessary to ensure its continued effectiveness. The covered company shall describe its process and how it is applied as part of its corporate governance relating to resolution planning under § 381.5(d)(1). The covered company must conduct the process described in this paragraph (a)(1) sufficiently in advance of its next resolution plan submission so that the covered company is prepared to submit the information required under §§ 381.5 through 381.7 for each identified critical operation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The process required under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section must include a methodology for evaluating the covered company's participation in activities and markets that may be critical to the financial stability of the United States. The methodology must be designed, taking into account the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the covered company's operations, to identify and assess:
</P>
<P>(A) The markets and activities in which the covered company participates or has operations;
</P>
<P>(B) The significance of those markets and activities with respect to the financial stability of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(C) The significance of the covered company as a provider or other participant in those markets and activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver requests.</I> A covered company that has previously submitted a resolution plan under this part may request a waiver of the requirement to have a process and methodology under paragraph (a)(1) of this section by submitting a waiver request in accordance with this paragraph (a)(2) if the covered company does not have an identified critical operation as of the date it submits the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(i) Each waiver request shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. A covered company shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section. A covered company shall include in the confidential section of a waiver request its rationale for why a waiver of the requirement would be appropriate, including an explanation of why the process and methodology are not likely to identify any critical operation given its business model, operations, and organizational structure. A covered company shall describe in the public section of a waiver request that it is seeking to waive the requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 18 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, with respect to any resolution plan that a covered company is required to submit on or before July 1, 2021, any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 17 months before that date.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board and Corporation may jointly approve or deny a waiver request in their discretion. Unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly approved a waiver request, the waiver request will be deemed denied on the date that is 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan that immediately follows submission of the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(iv) An approved waiver request under this paragraph (a)(2) is effective for the resolution plan submission that immediately follows submission of the waiver request and for any resolution plan submitted thereafter until, but not including, the covered company's next full resolution plan submission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited exemption.</I> A foreign-based covered company is exempt from the requirement to have a process and methodology under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in connection with any requirement to submit a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2021 if the foreign-based covered company does not have an identified critical operation as of the date that is 17 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint identification of critical operations by the Board and the Corporation.</I> (1) The Board and the Corporation shall, not less frequently than every six years, jointly review the operations of covered companies to determine whether to jointly identify critical operations of any covered company in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or to jointly rescind any currently effective joint identification in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Board and the Corporation jointly identify a covered company's operation as a critical operation, the Board and the Corporation shall jointly notify the covered company in writing. A covered company is not required to include the information required under §§ 381.5 through 381.7 for the identified critical operation in any resolution plan that the covered company is required to submit within 12 months after the joint notification unless the operation had been identified by the covered company as a critical operation on or before the date the Board and the Corporation jointly notified the covered company.
</P>
<P>(3) The Board and the Corporation may jointly rescind a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section by providing the covered company with joint notice of the rescission. Upon the notification, the covered company is not required to include the information regarding the operation required for identified critical operations under §§ 381.5 through 381.7 in any subsequent resolution plan unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered company identifies the operation as a critical operation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board and the Corporation subsequently provide a joint notification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section to the covered company regarding the operation.
</P>
<P>(4) A joint notification provided by the Board and the Corporation to a covered company before [effective date of final rule] that identifies any of its operations as a critical operation and not previously jointly rescinded is deemed to be a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for reconsideration of jointly identified critical operations.</I> A covered company may request that the Board and the Corporation reconsider a joint identification under paragraph (b)(2) of this section in accordance with this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written request for reconsideration.</I> The covered company must submit a written request for reconsideration to the Board and the Corporation that includes a clear and complete statement of all arguments and all relevant, material information that the covered company expects to have considered. If a covered company has previously requested reconsideration regarding the operation, the written request must also describe the material differences between the new request and the most recent prior request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> (i) If a covered company submits a request for reconsideration on or before the date that is 18 months before the date by which it is required to submit its next resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation will complete their reconsideration no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan. Notwithstanding the foregoing, if the Board and the Corporation jointly find that additional information from the covered company is required to complete their reconsideration, the Board and the Corporation will jointly request in writing the additional information from the covered company. The Board and the Corporation will then complete their reconsideration no later than the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Ninety (90) days after receipt of all additional information from the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Twelve (12) months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a covered company submits a request for reconsideration less than 18 months before the date by which it is required to submit its next resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation may, in their discretion, defer reconsideration of the joint identification until after the submission of that resolution plan, with the result that the covered company must include the identified critical operation in that resolution plan and the Board and the Corporation will complete their reconsideration in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section as though the covered company had submitted the request after the date by which the covered company is required to submit that resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint communication following reconsideration.</I> The Board and the Corporation will communicate jointly the results of their reconsideration in writing to the covered company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>De-identification by covered company of self-identified critical operations.</I> A covered company may cease to include in its resolution plans the information required under §§ 381.5 through 381.7 regarding an operation previously identified only by the covered company (and not also jointly by the Board and the Corporation) as a critical operation only in accordance with this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of de-identification.</I> If a covered company ceases to identify an operation as a critical operation, the covered company must notify the Board and the Corporation of its de-identification. The notice must be in writing and include a clear and complete explanation of:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the covered company previously identified the operation as a critical operation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Why the covered company no longer identifies the operation as a critical operation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> Notwithstanding a covered company's de-identification, and unless otherwise notified in writing jointly by the Board and the Corporation, a covered company shall include the applicable information required under §§ 381.5 through § 381.7 regarding an operation previously identified by the covered company as a critical operation in any resolution plan the covered company is required to submit during the period ending 12 months after the covered company notifies the Board and the Corporation in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No effect on joint identifications.</I> Neither a covered company's de-identification nor notice thereof under paragraph (d)(1) of this section rescinds a joint identification made by the Board and the Corporation under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.4   Resolution plan required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Biennial filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Biennial filer means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any global systemically important BHC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that has not been jointly designated a triennial full filer by the Board and Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section or that has been jointly re-designated a biennial filer by the Board and the Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonbank financial companies.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly designate a nonbank financial company supervised by the Board as a triennial full filer in their discretion, taking into account facts and circumstances that each of the Board and the Corporation in its discretion determines to be relevant. The Board and the Corporation may in their discretion jointly re-designate as a biennial filer a nonbank financial company that the Board and the Corporation had previously designated as a triennial filer, taking into account facts and circumstances that each of the Board and the Corporation in its discretion determines to be relevant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Biennial filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every two years.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Submission date.</I> Biennial filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Biennial filers shall alternate submitting a full resolution plan and a targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>New covered companies that are biennial filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a biennial filer after [effective date of final rule] shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other biennial filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be of the type required to be submitted by the other biennial filers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Triennial full filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Triennial full filer means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any category II banking organization;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any category III banking organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any nonbank financial company supervised by the Board that is jointly designated a triennial full filer by the Board and Corporation under paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Triennial full filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every three years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission date.</I> Triennial full filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Triennial full filers shall alternate submitting a full resolution plan and a targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New covered companies that are triennial full filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a triennial full filer after [effective date of final rule] shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other triennial full filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be of the type required to be submitted by the other triennial full filers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Triennial reduced filers</I>—(1) <I>Group members.</I> Triennial reduced filer means any covered company that is not a global systemically important BHC, nonbank financial company supervised by the Board, category II banking organization, or category III banking organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Frequency of submission.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall each submit a resolution plan to the Board and the Corporation every three years.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission date.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall submit their resolution plans on or before July 1 of each year in which a resolution plan is due.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Type of resolution plan required to be submitted.</I> Triennial reduced filers shall submit a reduced resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>New covered companies that are triennial reduced filers.</I> A company that becomes a covered company and a triennial reduced filer after December 31, 2019 shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other triennial reduced filers are required to submit resolution plans pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the company became a covered company. The company's subsequent resolution plans shall be reduced resolution plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General</I>—(1) <I>Changing filing groups.</I> If a covered company that is a member of a filing group specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (“original group filer”) becomes a member of a different filing group specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (“new group filer”), then the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the next date by which the original group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans is the same date by which the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans and:
</P>
<P>(A) That date is less than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer, the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan on or before that date. The resolution plan may be the type of resolution plan that the original group filers are required to submit on or before that date or the type of resolution plan that the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(B) That date is 12 months or more after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer, the covered company shall submit on or before that date the type of resolution plan the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the next date by which the original group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans is different from the date by which the new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans, the covered company shall submit its next resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other new group filers are required to submit a resolution plan that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer. The covered company shall submit the type of resolution plan that the other new group filers are required to submit on or before the date the covered company is required to submit its next resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, any triennial reduced filer that becomes a biennial filer or a triennial full filer shall submit a full resolution plan on or before the next date by which the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans that occurs no earlier than 12 months after the date as of which the covered company became a new group filer. After submitting a full resolution plan, the covered company shall submit, on or before the next date that the other new group filers are required to submit their next resolution plans, the type of resolution plan the other new group filers are required to submit on or before that date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Altering submission dates.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, the Board and Corporation may jointly determine that a covered company shall submit its resolution plan on or before a date other than as provided in paragraphs (a) through (c) or paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The Board and the Corporation shall provide a covered company with written notice of a determination under this paragraph (d)(2) no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authority to require interim updates.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly require that a covered company submit an update to a resolution plan submitted under this part, within a reasonable amount of time, as jointly determined by the Board and Corporation. The Board and the Corporation shall notify the covered company of its requirement to submit an update under this paragraph (d)(3) in writing, and shall specify the portions or aspects of the resolution plan the covered company shall update.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of extraordinary events</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Each covered company shall provide the Board and the Corporation with a notice no later than 45 days after any material merger, acquisition of assets, or similar transaction or fundamental change to the covered company's resolution strategy. Such notice must describe the event and explain how the event affects the resolvability of the covered company. The covered company shall address any event with respect to which it has provided notice pursuant to this paragraph (d)(4)(i) in the following resolution plan submitted by the covered company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> A covered company shall not be required to submit a notice under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section if the date by which the covered company would be required to submit the notice under paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section would be within 90 days before the date by which the covered company is required to submit a resolution plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Authority to require a full resolution plan submission.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, the Board and Corporation may jointly require a covered company to submit a full resolution plan instead of a targeted resolution plan or a reduced resolution plan that the covered company is otherwise required to submit under this section. The Board and the Corporation shall provide a covered company with written notice of a determination under this paragraph (d)(5) no later than 12 months before the date by which the covered company is required to submit the full resolution plan. The date on or before which a full resolution plan must be submitted under this paragraph (d)(5) will be the date by which the covered company would otherwise be required to submit its upcoming targeted resolution plan or reduced resolution plan under paragraphs (a) through (c), or (d)(1) or (2) of this section. The requirement to submit a full resolution plan under this paragraph (d)(5) does not alter the type of resolution plan the covered company will subsequently be required to submit under this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Waivers</I>—(i) <I>Authority to waive requirements.</I> The Board and the Corporation may jointly waive one or more of the resolution plan requirements of § 381.5, § 381.6, or § 381.7 for one or more covered companies for any number of resolution plan submissions. A request pursuant to paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section is not required for the Board and Corporation to exercise their authority under this paragraph (d)(6)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Waiver requests by covered companies.</I> In connection with the submission of a full resolution plan, a triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer that has previously submitted a resolution plan under this part may request a waiver of one or more of the informational content requirements of § 381.5 in accordance with this paragraph (d)(6)(ii).
</P>
<P>(A) A requirement to include any of the following information is not eligible for a waiver at the request of a triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Information specified in section 165(d)(1)(A) through (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A) through (C));
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any core element;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Information required to be included in the public section of a full resolution plan under § 381.11(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Information about the remediation of any previously identified deficiency or shortcoming unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly determined that the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer has satisfactorily remedied the deficiency or addressed the shortcoming before its submission of the waiver request; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Information about changes to the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer's last submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) Any material change experienced by the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer since it submitted that resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(B) Each waiver request shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. A triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall include in the confidential section of a waiver request a clear and complete explanation of why:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Each requirement sought to be waived is not a requirement described in paragraph (d)(6)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The information sought to be waived would not be relevant to the Board's and Corporation's review of the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer's next full resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A waiver of each requirement would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer shall include in the public section of a waiver request a list of the requirements that it is requesting be waived.
</P>
<P>(C) A triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer may not make more than one waiver request for any full resolution plan submission and any waiver request must be made in writing no later than 18 months before the date by which the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer is required to submit the full resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(D) The Board and Corporation may jointly approve or deny a waiver request, in whole or in part, in their discretion. Unless the Board and the Corporation have jointly approved a waiver request, the waiver request will be deemed denied on the date that is 12 months before the date by which the triennial full filer or triennial reduced filer is required to submit the full resolution plan to which the waiver request relates.
</P>
<P>(E) An approved waiver request under this paragraph (d)(6)(ii) is effective for only the full resolution plan that immediately follows submission of the waiver request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Access to information.</I> In order to allow evaluation of a resolution plan, each covered company must provide the Board and the Corporation such information and access to personnel of the covered company as the Board and the Corporation jointly determine during the period for reviewing the resolution plan is necessary to assess the credibility of the resolution plan and the ability of the covered company to implement the resolution plan. In order to facilitate review of any waiver request by a covered company under § 381.3(a)(2) or paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section, or any joint identification of a critical operation of a covered company under § 381.3(b), each covered company must provide such information and access to personnel of the covered company as the Board and the Corporation jointly determine is necessary to evaluate the waiver request or whether the operation is a critical operation. The Board and the Corporation will rely to the fullest extent possible on examinations conducted by or on behalf of the appropriate Federal banking agency for the relevant company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Board of directors approval of resolution plan.</I> Before submission of a resolution plan under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, the resolution plan of a covered company shall be approved by:
</P>
<P>(1) The board of directors of the covered company and noted in the minutes; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a foreign-based covered company only, a delegee acting under the express authority of the board of directors of the covered company to approve the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resolution plans provided to the Council.</I> The Board shall make the resolution plans and updates submitted by the covered company pursuant to this section available to the Council upon request.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Required and prohibited assumptions.</I> In preparing its resolution plan, a covered company shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Take into account that the material financial distress or failure of the covered company may occur under the severely adverse economic conditions provided to the covered company by the Board pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5365(i)(1)(B);
</P>
<P>(2) Not rely on the provision of extraordinary support by the United States or any other government to the covered company or its subsidiaries to prevent the failure of the covered company, including any resolution actions taken outside the United States that would eliminate the need for any of a covered company's U.S. subsidiaries to enter into resolution proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to foreign banking organizations, not assume that the covered company takes resolution actions outside of the United States that would eliminate the need for any U.S. subsidiaries to enter into resolution proceedings.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Point of contact.</I> Each covered company shall identify a senior management official at the covered company responsible for serving as a point of contact regarding the resolution plan of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Incorporation of previously submitted resolution plan information by reference.</I> Any resolution plan submitted by a covered company may incorporate by reference information from a resolution plan previously submitted by the covered company to the Board and the Corporation, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolution plan seeking to incorporate information by reference clearly indicates:
</P>
<P>(i) The information the covered company is incorporating by reference; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan(s) originally contained the information the covered company is incorporating by reference and the specific location of the information in the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company certifies that the information the covered company is incorporating by reference remains accurate in all respects that are material to the covered company's resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Initial resolution plans after effective date.</I> (1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in paragraphs (a) through (c) or (d)(1) of this section, each company that is a covered company as of December 31, 2019 is required to submit its initial resolution plan after December 31, 2019, as provided in this paragraph (k). The submission date and resolution plan type for each subsequent resolution plan will be determined pursuant to paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Biennial filers.</I> Each covered company that is a biennial filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a biennial filer as of July 1, 2021, is required to submit a targeted resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (a)(4) of this section on or before July 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Triennial full filers.</I> Each covered company that is a triennial full filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a triennial full filer as of July 1, 2021 is required to submit a targeted resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section on or before July 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Triennial reduced filers.</I> Each covered company that is a triennial reduced filer on October 1, 2020 and remains a triennial reduced filer as of July 1, 2022 is required to submit a reduced resolution plan pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section on or before July 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any company that is a covered company as of December 31, 2019, and changes filings groups specified in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section after October 1, 2020 and before the date by which it would be required to submit a resolution plan under paragraph (k)(1) of this section, the requirements for its initial resolution plan after it changes filing groups will be determined pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this paragraph (k), a covered company that has been jointly directed by the Board and the Corporation before December 31, 2019, to submit a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 describing changes it has made to its most recent resolution plan submission to address each shortcoming the agencies identified in that resolution plan shall submit a responsive resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 in addition to any resolution plan that such covered company is otherwise required to submit under this section. The requirement to submit such a resolution plan on or before July 1, 2020 does not alter the timing or type of resolution plan any such covered company is required to submit under this section after July 1, 2020.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.5   Informational content of a full resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Domestic covered companies.</I> A full resolution plan of a covered company that is organized or incorporated in the United States shall include the information specified in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section with respect to the subsidiaries and operations that are domiciled in the United States as well as the foreign subsidiaries, offices, and operations of the covered company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign-based covered companies.</I> A full resolution plan of a covered company that is organized or incorporated in a jurisdiction other than the United States (other than a bank holding company) or that is a foreign banking organization shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The information specified in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section with respect to the subsidiaries, branches and agencies, and identified critical operations and core business lines, as applicable, that are domiciled in the United States or conducted in whole or material part in the United States. With respect to the information specified in paragraph (g) of this section, the resolution plan of a foreign-based covered company shall also identify, describe in detail, and map to legal entity the interconnections and interdependencies among the U.S. subsidiaries, branches, and agencies, and between those entities and:
</P>
<P>(A) The identified critical operations and core business lines of the foreign-based covered company; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any foreign-based affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed explanation of how resolution planning for the subsidiaries, branches and agencies, and identified critical operations and core business lines of the foreign-based covered company that are domiciled in the United States or conducted in whole or material part in the United States is integrated into the foreign-based covered company's overall resolution or other contingency planning process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Executive summary.</I> Each full resolution plan of a covered company shall include an executive summary describing:
</P>
<P>(1) The key elements of the covered company's strategic plan for rapid and orderly resolution in the event of material financial distress at or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred);
</P>
<P>(3) Changes to the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any actions taken by the covered company since filing of the previous resolution plan to improve the effectiveness of the covered company's resolution plan or remediate or otherwise mitigate any material weaknesses or impediments to effective and timely execution of the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Strategic analysis.</I> Each full resolution plan shall include a strategic analysis describing the covered company's plan for rapid and orderly resolution in the event of material financial distress or failure of the covered company. Such analysis shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include detailed descriptions of the:
</P>
<P>(i) Key assumptions and supporting analysis underlying the covered company's resolution plan, including any assumptions made concerning the economic or financial conditions that would be present at the time the covered company sought to implement such plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Range of specific actions to be taken by the covered company to facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution of the covered company, its material entities, and its identified critical operations and core business lines in the event of material financial distress or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(iii) Funding, liquidity and capital needs of, and resources available to, the covered company and its material entities, which shall be mapped to its identified critical operations and core business lines, in the ordinary course of business and in the event of material financial distress at or failure of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(iv) Covered company's strategy for maintaining operations of, and funding for, the covered company and its material entities, which shall be mapped to its identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(v) Covered company's strategy in the event of a failure or discontinuation of a material entity, core business line or identified critical operation, and the actions that will be taken by the covered company to prevent or mitigate any adverse effects of such failure or discontinuation on the financial stability of the United States; provided, however, if any such material entity is subject to an insolvency regime other than the Bankruptcy Code, a covered company may exclude that entity from its strategic analysis unless that entity either has $50 billion or more in total assets or conducts an identified critical operation; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Covered company's strategy for ensuring that any insured depository institution subsidiary of the covered company will be adequately protected from risks arising from the activities of any nonbank subsidiaries of the covered company (other than those that are subsidiaries of an insured depository institution);
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the time period(s) the covered company expects would be needed for the covered company to successfully execute each material aspect and step of the covered company's plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe any potential material weaknesses or impediments to effective and timely execution of the covered company's plan;
</P>
<P>(4) Discuss the actions and steps the covered company has taken or proposes to take to remediate or otherwise mitigate the weaknesses or impediments identified by the covered company, including a timeline for the remedial or other mitigatory action; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a detailed description of the processes the covered company employs for:
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the current market values and marketability of the core business lines, identified critical operations, and material asset holdings of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the feasibility of the covered company's plans (including timeframes) for executing any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions contemplated in the covered company's resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assessing the impact of any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions on the value, funding, and operations of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corporate governance relating to resolution planning.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include a detailed description of:
</P>
<P>(i) How resolution planning is integrated into the corporate governance structure and processes of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered company's policies, procedures, and internal controls governing preparation and approval of the covered company's resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identity and position of the senior management official(s) of the covered company that is primarily responsible for overseeing the development, maintenance, implementation, and filing of the covered company's resolution plan and for the covered company's compliance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The nature, extent, and frequency of reporting to senior executive officers and the board of directors of the covered company regarding the development, maintenance, and implementation of the covered company's resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the nature, extent, and results of any contingency planning or similar exercise conducted by the covered company since the date of the covered company's most recently filed resolution plan to assess the viability of or improve the resolution plan of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe the relevant risk measures used by the covered company to report credit risk exposures both internally to its senior management and board of directors, as well as any relevant risk measures reported externally to investors or to the covered company's appropriate Federal regulator.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Organizational structure and related information.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a detailed description of the covered company's organizational structure, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A hierarchical list of all material entities within the covered company's organization (including legal entities that directly or indirectly hold such material entities) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies the direct holder and the percentage of voting and nonvoting equity of each legal entity and foreign office listed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The location, jurisdiction of incorporation, licensing, and key management associated with each material legal entity and foreign office identified;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the covered company's identified critical operations and core business lines, including material asset holdings and liabilities related to such identified critical operations and core business lines, to material entities;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide an unconsolidated balance sheet for the covered company and a consolidating schedule for all material entities that are subject to consolidation by the covered company;
</P>
<P>(3) Include a description of the material components of the liabilities of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines that, at a minimum, separately identifies types and amounts of the short-term and long-term liabilities, the secured and unsecured liabilities, and subordinated liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Identify and describe the processes used by the covered company to:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine to whom the covered company has pledged collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the person or entity that holds such collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the jurisdiction in which the collateral is located, and, if different, the jurisdiction in which the security interest in the collateral is enforceable against the covered company;
</P>
<P>(5) Describe any material off-balance sheet exposures (including guarantees and contractual obligations) of the covered company and its material entities, including a mapping to its identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the practices of the covered company, its material entities and its core business lines related to the booking of trading and derivatives activities;
</P>
<P>(7) Identify material hedges of the covered company, its material entities, and its core business lines related to trading and derivative activities, including a mapping to legal entity;
</P>
<P>(8) Describe the hedging strategies of the covered company;
</P>
<P>(9) Describe the process undertaken by the covered company to establish exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(10) Identify the major counterparties of the covered company and describe the interconnections, interdependencies and relationships with such major counterparties;
</P>
<P>(11) Analyze whether the failure of each major counterparty would likely have an adverse impact on or result in the material financial distress or failure of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(12) Identify each trading, payment, clearing, or settlement system of which the covered company, directly or indirectly, is a member and on which the covered company conducts a material number or value amount of trades or transactions. Map membership in each such system to the covered company's material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Management information systems.</I> (1) Each full resolution plan shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed inventory and description of the key management information systems and applications, including systems and applications for risk management, accounting, and financial and regulatory reporting, used by the covered company and its material entities. The description of each system or application provided shall identify the legal owner or licensor, the use or function of the system or application, service level agreements related thereto, any software and system licenses, and any intellectual property associated therewith;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the key management information systems and applications to the material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines of the covered company that use or rely on such systems and applications;
</P>
<P>(iii) An identification of the scope, content, and frequency of the key internal reports that senior management of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines use to monitor the financial health, risks, and operation of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the process for the appropriate supervisory or regulatory agencies to access the management information systems and applications identified in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) A description and analysis of:
</P>
<P>(A) The capabilities of the covered company's management information systems to collect, maintain, and report, in a timely manner to management of the covered company, and to the Board, the information and data underlying the resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any gaps or weaknesses in such capabilities, and a description of the actions the covered company intends to take to promptly address such gaps, or weaknesses, and the time frame for implementing such actions.
</P>
<P>(2) The Board will use its examination authority to review the demonstrated capabilities of each covered company to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(v) of this section. The Board will share with the Corporation information regarding the capabilities of the covered company to collect, maintain, and report in a timely manner information and data underlying the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interconnections and interdependencies.</I> To the extent not provided elsewhere in this part, each full resolution plan shall identify and map to the material entities the interconnections and interdependencies among the covered company and its material entities, and among the identified critical operations and core business lines of the covered company that, if disrupted, would materially affect the funding or operations of the covered company, its material entities, or its identified critical operations or core business lines. Such interconnections and interdependencies may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Common or shared personnel, facilities, or systems (including information technology platforms, management information systems, risk management systems, and accounting and recordkeeping systems);
</P>
<P>(2) Capital, funding, or liquidity arrangements;
</P>
<P>(3) Existing or contingent credit exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) Cross-guarantee arrangements, cross-collateral arrangements, cross-default provisions, and cross-affiliate netting agreements;
</P>
<P>(5) Risk transfers; and
</P>
<P>(6) Service level agreements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Supervisory and regulatory information.</I> Each full resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify any:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal, state, or foreign agency or authority (other than a Federal banking agency) with supervisory authority or responsibility for ensuring the safety and soundness of the covered company, its material entities, identified critical operations and core business lines; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Other Federal, state, or foreign agency or authority (other than a Federal banking agency) with significant supervisory or regulatory authority over the covered company, and its material entities and identified critical operations and core business lines.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify any foreign agency or authority responsible for resolving a foreign-based material entity and identified critical operations or core business lines of the covered company; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include contact information for each agency identified in paragraphs (h)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.6   Informational content of a targeted resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A targeted resolution plan is a subset of a full resolution plan and shall include core elements of a full resolution plan and information concerning key areas of focus as set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Targeted resolution plan content.</I> Each targeted resolution plan of a covered company shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The core elements;
</P>
<P>(2) Such targeted information as the Board and Corporation may jointly identify pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred); and
</P>
<P>(4) A description of changes to the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any;
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Targeted information requests.</I> No less than 12 months before the date by which a covered company is required to submit a targeted resolution plan, the Board and Corporation may jointly identify in writing resolution-related key areas of focus, questions, and issues that must also be addressed in the covered company's targeted resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deemed incorporation by reference.</I> If a covered company does not include in its targeted resolution plan a description of changes to any information set forth in section 165(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C)) since its previously submitted resolution plan, such information from its previously submitted resolution plan are incorporated by reference into its targeted resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.7   Informational content of a reduced resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reduced resolution plan content.</I> Each reduced resolution plan of a covered company shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of each material change experienced by the covered company since the filing of the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan (or affirmation that no such material change has occurred); and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of changes to the strategic analysis that was presented in the covered company's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from the Board and the Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deemed incorporation by reference.</I> If a covered company does not include in its reduced resolution plan a description of changes to any information set forth in section 165(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365(d)(1)(A), (B), or (C)) since its previously submitted resolution plan, such information from its previously submitted resolution plan are incorporated by reference into its reduced resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.8" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.8   Review of resolution plans; resubmission of deficient resolution plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of resolution plans.</I> The Board and Corporation will seek to coordinate their activities concerning the review of resolution plans, including planning for, reviewing, and assessing the resolution plans, as well as such activities that occur during the periods between resolution plan submissions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Joint determination regarding deficient resolution plans.</I> If the Board and Corporation jointly determine that the resolution plan of a covered company submitted under § 381.4 is not credible or would not facilitate an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code, the Board and Corporation shall jointly notify the covered company in writing of such determination. Any joint notice provided under this paragraph (b) shall be provided pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section and shall identify the deficiencies identified by the Board and Corporation in the resolution plan. A deficiency is an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan that the Board and Corporation jointly determine presents a weakness that individually or in conjunction with other aspects could undermine the feasibility of the covered company's resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resubmission of a resolution plan.</I> Within 90 days of receiving a notice of deficiencies issued pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or such shorter or longer period as the Board and Corporation may jointly determine, a covered company shall submit a revised resolution plan to the Board and Corporation that addresses the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and Corporation, and that discusses in detail:
</P>
<P>(1) The revisions made by the covered company to address the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(2) Any changes to the covered company's business operations and corporate structure that the covered company proposes to undertake to facilitate implementation of the revised resolution plan (including a timeline for the execution of such planned changes); and
</P>
<P>(3) Why the covered company believes that the revised resolution plan is credible and would result in an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extensions of time.</I> Upon their own initiative or a written request by a covered company, the Board and Corporation may jointly extend any time period under this section. Each extension request shall be supported by a written statement of the covered company describing the basis and justification for the request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint determination regarding shortcomings in resolution plans.</I> The Board and Corporation may also jointly identify one or more shortcomings in a covered company's resolution plan. A shortcoming is a weakness or gap that raises questions about the feasibility of a covered company's resolution plan, but does not rise to the level of a deficiency for both the Board and Corporation. If a shortcoming is not satisfactorily explained or addressed before or in the submission of the covered company's next resolution plan, it may be found to be a deficiency in the covered company's next resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation may identify an aspect of a covered company's resolution plan as a deficiency even if such aspect was not identified as a shortcoming in an earlier resolution plan submission.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Feedback.</I> Following their review of a resolution plan, the Board and the Corporation will jointly send a notification to each covered company that identifies any deficiencies or shortcomings in the covered company's resolution plan (or confirms that no deficiencies or shortcomings were identified) and provides any feedback on the resolution plan. The Board and the Corporation will jointly send the notification no later than 12 months after the later of the date on which the covered company submitted the resolution plan and the date by which the covered company was required to submit the resolution plan, unless the Board and the Corporation jointly determine in their discretion that extenuating circumstances exist that require delay.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.9" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.9   Failure to cure deficiencies on resubmission of a resolution plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Board and Corporation may jointly determine that a covered company or any subsidiary of a covered company shall be subject to more stringent capital, leverage, or liquidity requirements, or restrictions on the growth, activities, or operations of the covered company or the subsidiary if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered company fails to submit a revised resolution plan under § 381.8(c) within the required time period; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Board and the Corporation jointly determine that a revised resolution plan submitted under § 381.8(c) does not adequately remedy the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 381.8(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of requirements or restrictions.</I> Any requirements or restrictions imposed on a covered company or a subsidiary thereof pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall cease to apply to the covered company or subsidiary, respectively, on the date that the Board and the Corporation jointly determine the covered company has submitted a revised resolution plan that adequately remedies the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 381.8(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Divestiture.</I> The Board and Corporation, in consultation with the Council, may jointly, by order, direct the covered company to divest such assets or operations as are jointly identified by the Board and Corporation if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board and Corporation have jointly determined that the covered company or a subsidiary thereof shall be subject to requirements or restrictions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered company has failed, within the 2-year period beginning on the date on which the determination to impose such requirements or restrictions under paragraph (a) of this section was made, to submit a revised resolution plan that adequately remedies the deficiencies jointly identified by the Board and the Corporation under § 381.8(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) The Board and Corporation jointly determine that the divestiture of such assets or operations is necessary to facilitate an orderly resolution of the covered company under the Bankruptcy Code in the event the company was to fail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.10" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.10   Consultation.</HEAD>
<P>Before issuing any notice of deficiencies under § 381.8(b), determining to impose requirements or restrictions under § 381.9(a), or issuing a divestiture order pursuant to § 381.9(c) with respect to a covered company that is likely to have a significant impact on a functionally regulated subsidiary or a depository institution subsidiary of the covered company, the Board—
</P>
<P>(a) Shall consult with each Council member that primarily supervises any such subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(b) May consult with any other Federal, state, or foreign supervisor as the Board considers appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.11" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.11   No limiting effect or private right of action; confidentiality of resolution plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No limiting effect on bankruptcy or other resolution proceedings.</I> A resolution plan submitted pursuant to this part shall not have any binding effect on:
</P>
<P>(1) A court or trustee in a proceeding commenced under the Bankruptcy Code;
</P>
<P>(2) A receiver appointed under title II of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(3) A bridge financial company chartered pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5390(h); or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other authority that is authorized or required to resolve a covered company (including any subsidiary or affiliate thereof) under any other provision of Federal, state, or foreign law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No private right of action.</I> Nothing in this part creates or is intended to create a private right of action based on a resolution plan prepared or submitted under this part or based on any action taken by the Board or the Corporation with respect to any resolution plan submitted under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of resolution plans</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Each full, targeted, and reduced resolution plan of a covered company shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. Each covered company shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public section of full and targeted resolution plans.</I> The public section of a full or targeted resolution plan shall consist of an executive summary of the resolution plan that describes the business of the covered company and includes, to the extent material to an understanding of the covered company:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of material entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iii) Consolidated or segment financial information regarding assets, liabilities, capital and major funding sources;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of derivative activities and hedging activities;
</P>
<P>(v) A list of memberships in material payment, clearing and settlement systems;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of foreign operations;
</P>
<P>(vii) The identities of material supervisory authorities;
</P>
<P>(viii) The identities of the principal officers;
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the corporate governance structure and processes related to resolution planning;
</P>
<P>(x) A description of material management information systems; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A description, at a high level, of the covered company's resolution strategy, covering such items as the range of potential purchasers of the covered company, its material entities, and its core business lines.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public section of reduced resolution plans.</I> The public section of a reduced resolution plan shall consist of an executive summary of the resolution plan that describes the business of the covered company and includes, to the extent material to an understanding of the covered company:
</P>
<P>(i) The names of material entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iii) The identities of the principal officers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description, at a high level, of the covered company's resolution strategy, referencing the applicable resolution regimes for its material entities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidential treatment of resolution plans.</I> (1) The confidentiality of resolution plans and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)), 12 CFR part 261 (the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information), and 12 CFR part 309 (the Corporation's Disclosure of Information rules).
</P>
<P>(2) Any covered company submitting a resolution plan or related materials pursuant to this part that desires confidential treatment of the information under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), 12 CFR part 261 (the Board's Rules Regarding Availability of Information), and 12 CFR part 309 (the Corporation's Disclosure of Information rules) may file a request for confidential treatment in accordance with those rules.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent permitted by law, information comprising the Confidential Section of a resolution plan will be treated as confidential.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent permitted by law, the submission of any nonpublic data or information under this part shall not constitute a waiver of, or otherwise affect, any privilege arising under Federal or state law (including the rules of any Federal or state court) to which the data or information is otherwise subject. Privileges that apply to resolution plans and related materials are protected pursuant to section 18(x) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1828(x)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 381.12" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.25.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 381.12   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The Board and Corporation may jointly enforce an order jointly issued by the Board and Corporation under § 381.9(a) or (c). The Board, in consultation with the Corporation, may take any action to address any violation of this part by a covered company under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1818).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="382" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 382—RESTRICTIONS ON QUALIFIED FINANCIAL CONTRACTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1816, 1818, 1819, 1820(g) 1828, 1828(m), 1831n, 1831o,1831p-l, 1831(u), 1831w.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 50262, Oct. 30, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 382.1" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in section 12 U.S.C. 1813(w).
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> has the same meaning as in § 324.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Chapter 11 proceeding</I> means a proceeding under Chapter 11 of Title 11, United States Code (11 U.S.C. 1101-74).
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated affiliate</I> means an affiliate of another company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Either consolidates the other company, or is consolidated by the other company, on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Is, along with the other company, consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to principles or standards referenced in paragraph (1), if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(w) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)).
</P>
<P><I>Covered bank</I> means a covered bank as defined by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency in 12 CFR part 47.
</P>
<P><I>Covered entity</I> means a covered entity as defined by the Federal Reserve Board in 12 CFR 252.82.
</P>
<P><I>Covered QFC</I> means a QFC as defined in § 382.2 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Credit enhancement</I> means a QFC of the type set forth in sections 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XII), (iii)(X), (iv)(V), (v)(VI), or (vi)(VI)) or a credit enhancement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines is a QFC pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Default right</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a QFC, any
</P>
<P>(i) Right of a party, whether contractual or otherwise (including, without limitation, rights incorporated by reference to any other contract, agreement, or document, and rights afforded by statute, civil code, regulation, and common law), to liquidate, terminate, cancel, rescind, or accelerate such agreement or transactions thereunder, set off or net amounts owing in respect thereto (except rights related to same-day payment netting), exercise remedies in respect of collateral or other credit support or property related thereto (including the purchase and sale of property), demand payment or delivery thereunder or in respect thereof (other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure), suspend, delay, or defer payment or performance thereunder, or modify the obligations of a party thereunder, or any similar rights; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Right or contractual provision that alters the amount of collateral or margin that must be provided with respect to an exposure thereunder, including by altering any initial amount, threshold amount, variation margin, minimum transfer amount, the margin value of collateral, or any similar amount, that entitles a party to demand the return of any collateral or margin transferred by it to the other party or a custodian or that modifies a transferee's right to reuse collateral or margin (if such right previously existed), or any similar rights, in each case, other than a right or operation of a contractual provision arising solely from a change in the value of collateral or margin or a change in the amount of an economic exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to § 382.4, does not include any right under a contract that allows a party to terminate the contract on demand or at its option at a specified time, or from time to time, without the need to show cause.
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act proceeding</I> means a proceeding in which the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation is appointed as conservator or receiver under section 11 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821).
</P>
<P><I>FDI Act stay period</I> means, in connection with an FDI Act proceeding, the period of time during which a party to a QFC with a party that is subject to an FDI Act proceeding may not exercise any right that the party that is not subject to an FDI Act proceeding has to terminate, liquidate, or net such QFC, in accordance with section 11(e) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Financial counterparty</I> means a person that is:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)); a U.S. intermediate holding company that is established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution as defined, in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)); an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) and (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841 (c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is State-licensed or registered as;
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary Federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any entity registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or an entity that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) A securities holding company within the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection act (12 U.S.C. 1850a); a broker or dealer as defined in sections 3(a)(4) and 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(45); an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(viii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(ix) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(x) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial counterparty described in paragraphs (1)(i) through (xi) of this definition, if the entity were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial counterparty” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements.
</P>
<P><I>Financial market utility (FMU)</I> means any person, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the person is located or organized, that manages or operates a multilateral system for the purpose of transferring, clearing, or settling payments, securities, or other financial transactions among financial institutions or between financial institutions and the person, but does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, security-based swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), solely by reason of their providing facilities for comparison of data respecting the terms of settlement of securities or futures transactions effected on such exchange or by means of any electronic system operated or controlled by such entities, provided that the exclusions in this clause apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a FMU or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the FMU of services to its participants or the use of services of the FMU by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the FMU.
</P>
<P><I>Investment advisory contract</I> means any contract or agreement whereby a person agrees to act as investment adviser to or to manage any investment or trading account of another person.
</P>
<P><I>Master agreement</I> means a QFC of the type set forth in sections 210(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(ii)(XI), (iii)(IX), (iv)(IV), (v)(V), or (vi)(V)) or a master agreement that the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determines is a QFC pursuant to section 210(c)(8)(D)(i) of Title II of the act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 225.2.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified financial contract (QFC)</I> has the same meaning as in section 210(c)(8)(D) of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5390(c)(8)(D)).
</P>
<P><I>Retail customer or counterparty</I> has the same meaning as in § 329.3 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Small financial institution</I> means a company that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is organized as a bank, as defined in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a savings association, as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a farm credit system institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971; or an insured Federal credit union or State-chartered credit union under the Federal Credit Union Act; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has total assets of $10,000,000,000 or less on the last day of the company's most recent fiscal year.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary of a covered FSI</I> means any subsidiary of a covered FSI as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(w).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. agency</I> has the same meaning as the term “agency” in 12 U.S.C. 3101.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. branch</I> has the same meaning as the term “branch” in 12 U.S.C. 3101.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. special resolution regimes</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811-1835a) and regulations promulgated thereunder and Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381-5394) and regulations promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50261, 50267, Oct. 30, 2017; 82 FR 61443, Dec. 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.2" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A covered FSI must ensure that each covered QFC conforms to the requirements of §§ 382.3 and 382.4 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered FSI.</I> For purposes of this part a covered FSI means
</P>
<P>(1) Any State savings association or State non-member bank (as defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(e)(2)) that is a direct or indirect subsidiary of:
</P>
<P>(i) A global systemically important bank holding company that has been designated pursuant to § 252.82(a)(1) of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation YY (12 CFR 252.82); or
</P>
<P>(ii) A global systemically important foreign banking organization that has been designated pursuant to subpart I of 12 CFR part 252 (FRB Regulation YY), and
</P>
<P>(2) Any subsidiary of a covered FSI other than:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary that is owned in satisfaction of debt previously contracted in good faith;
</P>
<P>(ii) A portfolio concern that is a small business investment company, as defined in section 103(3) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 662), or that has received from the Small Business Administration notice to proceed to qualify for a license as a Small Business Investment Company, which notice or license has not been revoked; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A subsidiary designed to promote the public welfare, of the type permitted under paragraph (11) of section 5136 of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24), including the welfare of low- to moderate-income communities or families (such as providing housing, services, or jobs).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered QFCs.</I> For purposes of this part, a covered QFC is:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a covered FSI that is a covered FSI on January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered FSI:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before January 1, 2019, if the covered FSI or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or a consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after January 1, 2019.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a covered FSI that becomes a covered FSI after January 1, 2018, an in-scope QFC that the covered FSI:
</P>
<P>(i) Enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to on or after the later of the date the covered FSI first becomes a covered FSI and January 1, 2019; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered, executed, or otherwise became a party to before the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered FSI, if the covered FSI or any affiliate that is a covered entity, covered bank or covered FSI also enters, executes, or otherwise becomes a party to a QFC with the same person or consolidated affiliate of the same person on or after the date identified in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section with respect to the covered FSI.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>In-scope QFCs.</I> An in-scope QFC is a QFC that explicitly:
</P>
<P>(1) Restricts the transfer of a QFC (or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, the QFC) from a covered FSI; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides one or more default rights with respect to a QFC that may be exercised against a covered FSI.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of this part,
</P>
<P>(1) A covered FSI does not become a party to a QFC solely by acting as agent with respect to the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) The exercise of a default right with respect to a covered QFC includes the automatic or deemed exercise of the default right pursuant to the terms of the QFC or other arrangement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial applicability of requirements for covered QFCs.</I> (1) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered FSI that is a covered FSI on January 1, 2018 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this part by:
</P>
<P>(i) January 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI.
</P>
<P>(ii) July 1, 2019, if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank or covered FSI; or
</P>
<P>(iii) January 1, 2020, if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is not described in paragraph (f)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is a small financial institution.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to each of its covered QFCs, a covered FSI that is not a covered FSI on January 1, 2018 must conform the covered QFC to the requirements of this part by:
</P>
<P>(i) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 1 year after the date the covered FSI first becomes a covered FSI if each party to the covered QFC is a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI;
</P>
<P>(ii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 18 months from the date the covered FSI first becomes a covered FSI if each party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is a financial counterparty that is not a covered entity, covered bank or covered FSI; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The first day of the calendar quarter immediately following 2 years from the date the covered FSI first becomes a covered FSI if a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is not described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section or if, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(ii), a party to the covered QFC (other than the covered FSI) is a small financial institution.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rights of receiver unaffected.</I> Nothing in this part shall in any manner limit or modify the rights and powers of the FDIC as receiver under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, including, without limitation, the rights of the receiver to enforce provisions of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act that limit the enforceability of certain contractual provisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50261, Oct. 30, 2017; 82 FR 61443, Dec. 28, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.3" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.3   U.S. special resolution regimes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered QFC designates, in the manner described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each party to the covered QFC, other than the covered FSI, is
</P>
<P>(A) An individual that is domiciled in the United States, including any State;
</P>
<P>(B) A company that is incorporated in or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(C) A company the principal place of business of which is located in the United States, including any State; or
</P>
<P>(D) A U.S. branch or U.S. agency.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC designates the U.S. special resolution regimes as part of the law governing the QFC if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(i) Explicitly provides that the covered QFC is governed by the laws of the United States or a State of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly provide that one or both of the U.S. special resolution regimes, or a broader set of laws that includes a U.S. special resolution regime, is excluded from the laws governing the covered QFC.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provisions required.</I> A covered QFC must explicitly provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) In the event the covered FSI becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, the transfer of the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) from the covered FSI will be effective to the same extent as the transfer would be effective under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC (and any interest and obligation in or under, and any property securing, the covered QFC) were governed by the laws of the United States or a State of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the covered FSI or an affiliate of the covered FSI becomes subject to a proceeding under a U.S. special resolution regime, default rights with respect to the covered QFC that may be exercised against the covered FSI are permitted to be exercised to no greater extent than the default rights could be exercised under the U.S. special resolution regime if the covered QFC were governed by the laws of the United States or a State of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relevance of creditor protection provisions.</I> The requirements of this section apply notwithstanding § 382.4(d), (f), and (h) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.4" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.4   Insolvency proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>This section does not apply to proceedings under Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Covered QFCs not required to be conformed.</I> Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform a covered QFC to the requirements of this section if the covered QFC:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not explicitly provide any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not explicitly prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or would prohibit such a transfer only if the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General prohibitions.</I> (1) A covered QFC may not permit the exercise of any default right with respect to the covered QFC that is related, directly or indirectly, to an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC may not prohibit the transfer of a covered affiliate credit enhancement, any interest or obligation in or under the covered affiliate credit enhancement, or any property securing the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee upon or following an affiliate of the direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding unless the transfer would result in the supported party being the beneficiary of the credit enhancement in violation of any law applicable to the supported party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions relevant to the general prohibitions</I>—(1) <I>Direct party.</I> Direct party means a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI that is a party to the direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct QFC.</I> Direct QFC means a QFC that is not a credit enhancement, <I>provided that,</I> for a QFC that is a master agreement that includes an affiliate credit enhancement as a supplement to the master agreement, the direct QFC does not include the affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliate credit enhancement.</I> Affiliate credit enhancement means a credit enhancement that is provided by an affiliate of a party to the direct QFC that the credit enhancement supports.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>General creditor protections.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered direct QFC and covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC may permit the exercise of a default right with respect to the covered QFC that arises as a result of
</P>
<P>(1) The direct party becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to the covered QFC or another contract between the same parties that gives rise to a default right in the covered QFC; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider or transferee not satisfying a payment or delivery obligation pursuant to a covered affiliate credit enhancement that supports the covered direct QFC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Definitions relevant to the general creditor protections</I>—(1) <I>Covered direct QFC.</I> Covered direct QFC means a direct QFC to which a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI is a party.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered affiliate credit enhancement.</I> Covered affiliate credit enhancement means an affiliate credit enhancement in which a covered entity, covered bank, or covered FSI is the obligor of the credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered affiliate support provider.</I> Covered affiliate support provider means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the affiliate of the direct party that is obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement and is not a transferee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Supported party.</I> Supported party means, with respect to a covered affiliate credit enhancement and the direct QFC that the covered affiliate credit enhancement supports, a party that is a beneficiary of the covered affiliate support provider's obligation(s) under the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional creditor protections for supported QFCs.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right after the stay period that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered affiliate support provider that remains obligated under the covered affiliate credit enhancement becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding other than a Chapter 11 proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (h) of this section, the transferee, if any, becomes subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) The covered affiliate support provider does not remain, and a transferee does not become, obligated to the same, or substantially similar, extent as the covered affiliate support provider was obligated immediately prior to entering the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered affiliate credit enhancement;
</P>
<P>(ii) All other covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of other covered direct QFCs between the direct party and the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All covered affiliate credit enhancements provided by the covered affiliate support provider in support of covered direct QFCs between the direct party and affiliates of the supported party referenced in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a transfer of the covered affiliate credit enhancement to a transferee,
</P>
<P>(i) All of the ownership interests of the direct party directly or indirectly held by the covered affiliate support provider are not transferred to the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable assurance has not been provided that all or substantially all of the assets of the covered affiliate support provider (or net proceeds therefrom), excluding any assets reserved for the payment of costs and expenses of administration in the receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, will be transferred or sold to the transferee in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Definitions relevant to the additional creditor protections for supported QFCs</I>—(1) <I>Stay period.</I> Stay period means, with respect to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding, the period of time beginning on the commencement of the proceeding and ending at the later of 5 p.m. (EST) on the business day following the date of the commencement of the proceeding and 48 hours after the commencement of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business day.</I> Business day means a day on which commercial banks in the jurisdiction the proceeding is commenced are open for general business (including dealings in foreign exchange and foreign currency deposits).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transferee.</I> Transferee means a person to whom a covered affiliate credit enhancement is transferred upon the covered affiliate support provider entering a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding or thereafter as part of the resolution, restructuring, or reorganization involving the covered affiliate support provider.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Creditor protections related to FDI Act proceedings.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (d) and (f) of this section, which are inapplicable to FDI Act proceedings, and notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, with respect to a covered direct QFC that is supported by a covered affiliate credit enhancement, the covered direct QFC and the covered affiliate credit enhancement may permit the exercise of a default right that is related, directly or indirectly, to the covered affiliate support provider becoming subject to FDI Act proceedings only in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) After the FDI Act stay period, if the covered affiliate credit enhancement is not transferred pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(9)-(10) and any regulations promulgated thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(2) During the FDI Act stay period, if the default right may only be exercised so as to permit the supported party under the covered affiliate credit enhancement to suspend performance with respect to the supported party's obligations under the covered direct QFC to the same extent as the supported party would be entitled to do if the covered direct QFC were with the covered affiliate support provider and were treated in the same manner as the covered affiliate credit enhancement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibited terminations.</I> A covered QFC must require, after an affiliate of the direct party has become subject to a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding,
</P>
<P>(1) The party seeking to exercise a default right to bear the burden of proof that the exercise is permitted under the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(2) Clear and convincing evidence or a similar or higher burden of proof to exercise a default right.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.5" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.5   Approval of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Protocol compliance.</I> (1) Unless the FDIC determines otherwise based on the specific facts and circumstances, a covered QFC is deemed to comply with this part if it is amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered QFC will be deemed to be amended by the universal protocol for purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section notwithstanding the covered QFC being amended by one or more Country Annexes, as the term is defined in the universal protocol.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The universal protocol means the ISDA 2015 Universal Resolution Stay Protocol, including the Securities Financing Transaction Annex and Other Agreements Annex, published by the International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc., as of May 3, 2016, and minor or technical amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(ii) The U.S. protocol means a protocol that is the same as the universal protocol other than as provided in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A) through (F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The provisions of Section 1 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities, covered banks, and covered FSIs and may be limited with respect to resolutions under the Identified Regimes, as those regimes are identified by the universal protocol;
</P>
<P>(B) The provisions of Section 2 of the attachment to the universal protocol may be limited in their application to covered entities, covered banks, and covered FSIs;
</P>
<P>(C) The provisions of Section 4(b)(i)(A) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply with respect to U.S. special resolution regimes;
</P>
<P>(D) The provisions of Section 4(b) of the attachment to the universal protocol may only be effective to the extent that the covered QFCs affected by an adherent's election thereunder would continue to meet the requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(E) The provisions of Section 2(k) of the attachment to the universal protocol must not apply; and
</P>
<P>(F) The U.S. protocol may include minor and technical differences from the universal protocol and differences necessary to conform the U.S. protocol to the differences described in paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amended by the universal protocol or the U.S. protocol, with respect to covered QFCs between adherents to the protocol, includes amendments through incorporation of the terms of the protocol (by reference or otherwise) into the covered QFC; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The attachment to the universal protocol means the attachment that the universal protocol identifies as “ATTACHMENT to the ISDA 2015 UNIVERSAL RESOLUTION STAY PROTOCOL.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposal of enhanced creditor protection conditions.</I> (1) A covered FSI may request that the FDIC approve as compliant with the requirements of §§ 382.3 and 382.4 proposed provisions of one or more forms of covered QFCs, or proposed amendments to one or more forms of covered QFCs, with enhanced creditor protection conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) Enhanced creditor protection conditions means a set of limited exemptions to the requirements of § 382.4(b) of this part that is different than that of § 382.4(d), (f), and (h).
</P>
<P>(3) A covered FSI making a request under paragraph (b)(1) of this section must provide
</P>
<P>(i) An analysis of the proposal that addresses each consideration in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A written legal opinion verifying that proposed provisions or amendments would be valid and enforceable under applicable law of the relevant jurisdictions, including, in the case of proposed amendments, the validity and enforceability of the proposal to amend the covered QFCs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information that the FDIC requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FDIC approval.</I> The FDIC may approve, subject to any conditions or commitments the FDIC may set, a proposal by a covered FSI under paragraph (b) of this section if the proposal, as compared to a covered QFC that contains only the limited exemptions in § 382.4(d), (f), and (h) or that is amended as provided under paragraph (a) of this section, would promote the safety and soundness of covered FSIs by mitigating the potential destabilizing effects of the resolution of a global significantly important banking entity that is an affiliate of the covered FSI to at least the same extent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Considerations.</I> In reviewing a proposal under this section, the FDIC may consider all facts and circumstances related to the proposal, including:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would reduce the resiliency of such covered FSIs during distress or increase the impact on U.S. financial stability were one or more of the covered FSIs to fail;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would materially decrease the ability of a covered FSI, or an affiliate of a covered FSI, to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether, and the extent to which, the set of conditions or the mechanism in which they are applied facilitates, on an industry-wide basis, contractual modifications to remove impediments to resolution and increase market certainty, transparency, and equitable treatment with respect to the default rights of non-defaulting parties to a covered QFC;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal applies to existing and future transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether, and the extent to which, the proposal would apply to multiple forms of QFCs or multiple covered FSIs;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the proposal would permit a party to a covered QFC that is within the scope of the proposal to adhere to the proposal with respect to only one or a subset of covered FSIs;
</P>
<P>(7) With respect to a supported party, the degree of assurance the proposal provides to the supported party that the material payment and delivery obligations of the covered affiliate credit enhancement and the covered direct QFC it supports will continue to be performed after the covered affiliate support provider enters a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, resolution, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) The presence, nature, and extent of any provisions that require a covered affiliate support provider or transferee to meet conditions other than material payment or delivery obligations to its creditors;
</P>
<P>(9) The extent to which the supported party's overall credit risk to the direct party may increase if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are not met and the likelihood that the supported party's credit risk to the direct party would decrease or remain the same if the enhanced creditor protection conditions are met; and
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the proposal provides the counterparty with additional default rights or other rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.6" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 382.7" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.26.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 382.7   Exclusion of certain QFCs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exclusion of QFCs with FMUs.</I> Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform to the requirements of this part a covered QFC to which:
</P>
<P>(1) A CCP is party; or
</P>
<P>(2) Each party (other than the covered FSI) is an FMU.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusion of certain covered entity and covered bank QFCs.</I> If a covered QFC is also a covered QFC under part 252 or part 47 of this title that an affiliate of the covered FSI is also required to conform pursuant to part 252 or part 47 and the covered FSI is:
</P>
<P>(1) The affiliate credit enhancement provider with respect to the covered QFC, then the covered FSI is required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) The direct party to which the covered entity or covered bank is the affiliate credit enhancement provider, then the covered FSI is required to conform the direct QFC to the requirements of this part but is not required to conform the credit enhancement to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion of certain contracts.</I> Notwithstanding § 382.2 of this part, a covered FSI is not required to conform the following types of contracts or agreements to the requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) An investment advisory contract that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is with a retail customer or counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not explicitly restrict the transfer of the contract (or any QFC entered into pursuant thereto or governed thereby, or any interest or obligation in or under, or any property securing, any such QFC or the contract) from the covered FSI except as necessary to comply with section 205(a)(2) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-5(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not explicitly provide a default right with respect to the contract or any QFC entered pursuant thereto or governed thereby.
</P>
<P>(2) A warrant that:
</P>
<P>(i) Evidences a right to subscribe to or otherwise acquire a security of the covered FSI or an affiliate of the covered FSI; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Was issued prior to January 1, 2018.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemption by order.</I> The FDIC may exempt by order one or more covered FSI(s) from conforming one or more contracts or types of contracts to one or more of the requirements of this part after considering:
</P>
<P>(1) The potential impact of the exemption on the ability of the covered FSI(s), or affiliates of the covered FSI(s), to be resolved in a rapid and orderly manner in the event of the financial distress or failure of the entity that is required to submit a resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The burden the exemption would relieve; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factor the FDIC deems relevant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="390" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 390—REGULATIONS TRANSFERRED FROM THE OFFICE OF THRIFT SUPERVISION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1819.
</PSPACE><P>Subpart Q also issued under 12 U.S.C. 1462; 1462a; 1463; 1464.
</P><P>Subpart W also issued under 12 U.S.C. 1462a; 1463; 1464; 15 U.S.C. 78c; 78l; 78m; 78n; 78p; 78w.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 47655, Aug. 5, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-P [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Definitions for Regulations Affecting All State Savings Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.280" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.280   When do the definitions in this subpart apply?</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in this subpart apply throughout parts 390 and 391, unless another definition is specifically provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.281" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.281   Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>account</I> means any savings account, demand account, certificate account, tax and loan account, note account, United States Treasury general account or United States Treasury time deposit-open account, whether in the form of a deposit or a share, held by an accountholder in a State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.282" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.282   Accountholder.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>accountholder</I> means the holder of an account or accounts in a State savings association insured by the Deposit Insurance Fund. The term does not include the holder of any subordinated debt security or any mortgage-backed bond issued by the State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.283" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.283   Affiliate.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>affiliate</I> of a State savings association, unless otherwise defined, means any corporation, business trust, association, or other similar organization:
</P>
<P>(a) Of which a State savings association, directly or indirectly, owns or controls either a majority of the voting shares or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions at the preceding election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions; or
</P>
<P>(b) Of which control is held, directly or indirectly through stock ownership or in any other manner, by the shareholders of a State savings association who own or control either a majority of the shares of such State savings association or more than 50 per centum of the number of shares voted for the election of directors of such State savings association at the preceding election, or by trustees for the benefit of the shareholders of any such State savings association; or
</P>
<P>(c) Of which a majority of its directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions are directors of any one State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.284" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.284   Affiliated person.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>affiliated person</I> of a State savings association means the following:
</P>
<P>(a) A director, officer, or controlling person of such association;
</P>
<P>(b) A spouse of a director, officer, or controlling person of such association;
</P>
<P>(c) A member of the immediate family of a director, officer, or controlling person of such association, who has the same home as such person or who is a director or officer of any subsidiary of such association or of any holding company affiliate of such association;
</P>
<P>(d) Any corporation or organization (other than the State savings association or a corporation or organization through which the State savings association operates) of which a director, officer or the controlling person of such association:
</P>
<P>(1) Is chief executive officer, chief financial officer, or a person performing similar functions;
</P>
<P>(2) Is a general partner;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a limited partner who, directly or indirectly either alone or with his or her spouse and the members of his or her immediate family who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns an interest of 10 percent or more in the partnership (based on the value of his or her contribution) or who, directly or indirectly with other directors, officers, and controlling persons of such association and their spouses and their immediate family members who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns an interest of 25 percent or more in the partnership; or
</P>
<P>(4) Directly or indirectly either alone or with his or her spouse and the members of his or her immediate family who are also affiliated persons of the association, owns or controls 10 percent or more of any class of equity securities or owns or controls, with other directors, officers, and controlling persons of such association and their spouses and their immediate family members who are also affiliated persons of the association, 25 percent or more of any class of equity securities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any trust or other estate in which a director, officer, or controlling person of such association or the spouse of such person has a substantial beneficial interest or as to which such person or his or her spouse serves as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.285" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.285   Audit period.</HEAD>
<P>The <I>audit period</I> of a State savings association means the twelve month period (or other period in the case of a change in audit period) covered by the annual audit conducted to satisfy § 390.350.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.286" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.286   Certificate account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>certificate account</I> means a savings account evidenced by a certificate that must be held for a fixed or minimum term.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.287" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.287   Consumer credit.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>consumer credit</I> means credit extended to a natural person for personal, family, or household purposes, including loans secured by liens on real estate and chattel liens secured by mobile homes and leases of personal property to consumers that may be considered the functional equivalent of loans on personal security: <I>Provided,</I> the State savings association relies substantially upon other factors, such as the general credit standing of the borrower, guaranties, or security other than the real estate or mobile home, as the primary security for the loan. Appropriate evidence to demonstrate justification for such reliance should be retained in a State savings association's files. Among the types of credit included within this term are consumer loans; educational loans; unsecured loans for real property alteration, repair or improvement, or for the equipping of real property; loans in the nature of overdraft protection; and credit extended in connection with credit cards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.288" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.288   Controlling person.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>controlling person</I> of a State savings association means any person or entity which, either directly or indirectly, or acting in concert with one or more other persons or entities, owns, controls, or holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, ten percent or more of the voting shares or rights of such State savings association; or controls in any manner the election or appointment of a majority of the directors of such State savings association. However, a director of a State savings association will not be deemed to be a controlling person of such State savings association based upon his or her voting, or acting in concert with other directors in voting, proxies:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtained in connection with an annual solicitation of proxies, or
</P>
<P>(b) Obtained from savings account holders and borrowers if such proxies are voted as directed by a majority vote of the entire board of directors of such association, or of a committee of such directors if such committee's composition and authority are controlled by a majority vote of the entire board and if its authority is revocable by such a majority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.289" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.289   Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The terms <I>Corporation</I> and <I>FDIC</I> mean the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.290" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.290   Demand accounts.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>demand accounts</I> means non-interest-bearing demand deposits that are subject to check or to withdrawal or transfer on negotiable or transferable order to the State savings association and that are permitted to be issued by statute, regulation, or otherwise and are payable on demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.291" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.291   Director.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>director</I> means any director, trustee, or other person performing similar functions with respect to any organization whether incorporated or unincorporated. Such term does not include an advisory director, honorary director, director emeritus, or similar person, unless the person is otherwise performing functions similar to those of a director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.292" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.292   Financial institution.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>financial institution</I> has the same meaning as the term <I>depository institution</I> set forth in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.293" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.293   Immediate family.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>immediate family</I> of any natural person means the following (whether by the full or half blood or by adoption):
</P>
<P>(a) Such person's spouse, father, mother, children, brothers, sisters, and grandchildren;
</P>
<P>(b) The father, mother, brothers, and sisters of such person's spouse; and
</P>
<P>(c) The spouse of a child, brother, or sister of such person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.294" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.294   Land loan.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>land loan</I> means a loan:
</P>
<P>(a) Secured by real estate upon which all facilities and improvements have been completely installed, as required by local regulations and practices, so that it is entirely prepared for the erection of structures;
</P>
<P>(b) To finance the purchase of land and the accomplishment of all improvements required to convert it to developed building lots; or
</P>
<P>(c) Secured by land upon which there is no structure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.295" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.295   Low-rent housing.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>low-rent housing</I> means real estate which is, or which is being constructed, remodeled, rehabilitated, modernized, or renovated to be, the subject of an annual contributions contract for low-rent housing under the provisions of the United States Housing Act of 1937, as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.296" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.296   Money Market Deposit Accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Money Market Deposit Accounts</I> (<I>MMDAs</I>) offered by State savings associations in accordance with applicable state law are savings accounts on which interest may be paid if issued subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) The State savings association shall reserve the right to require at least seven days' notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The depositor is authorized by the State savings association to make no more than six transfers per calendar month or statement cycle (or similar period) of at least four weeks by means of preauthorized, automatic, telephonic, or data transmission agreement, order, or instruction to another account of the depositor at the same State savings association to the State savings association itself, or to a third party.
</P>
<P>(ii) State savings associations may permit holders of MMDAs to make unlimited transfers for the purpose of repaying loans (except overdraft loans on the depositor's demand account) and associated expenses at the same State savings association (as originator or servicer), to make unlimited transfers of funds from this account to another account of the same depositor at the same State savings association or to make unlimited payments directly to the depositor from the account when such transfers or payments are made by mail, messenger, automated teller machine, or in person, or when such payments are made by telephone (via check mailed to the depositor).
</P>
<P>(3) In order to ensure that no more than the number of transfers specified in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section are made, a State savings association must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Prevent transfers of funds in excess of the limitations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Adopt procedures to monitor those transfers on an after-the-fact basis and contact customers who exceed the limits on more than an occasional basis. For customers who continue to violate those limits after being contacted by the depository State savings association the depository State savings association must either place funds in another account that the depositor is eligible to maintain or take away the account's transfer and draft capacities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Insured State savings associations at their option, may use on a consistent basis either the date on a check or the date it is paid in determining whether the transfer limitations within the specified interval are exceeded.
</P>
<P>(b) State savings associations may offer MMDAs to any depositor not inconsistent with applicable state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.297" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.297   Negotiable Order of Withdrawal Accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Negotiable Order of Withdrawal (NOW)</I> accounts are savings accounts authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1832 on which the State savings association reserves the right to require at least seven days' notice prior to withdrawal or transfer of any funds in the account.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1832:
</P>
<P>(1) An organization shall be deemed “operated primarily for religious, philanthropic, charitable, educational, or other similar purposes and * * * not * * * for profit” if it is described in sections 501(c)(3) through (13), 501(c)(19), or 528 of the Internal Revenue Code; and
</P>
<P>(2) The funds of a sole proprietorship or unincorporated business owned by a husband and wife shall be deemed beneficially owned by “one or more individuals.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.298" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.298   Nonresidential construction loan.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>nonresidential construction loan</I> means a loan for construction of other than one or more dwelling units.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.299" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.299   Nonwithdrawable account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>nonwithdrawable account</I> means an account which by the terms of the contract of the accountholder with the State savings association or by provisions of state law cannot be paid to the accountholder until all liabilities, including other classes of share liability of the State savings association have been fully liquidated and paid upon the winding up of the State savings association is referred to as a <I>nonwithdrawable account.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.300" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.300   Note account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>note account</I> means a note, subject to the right of immediate call, evidencing funds held by depositories electing the note option under applicable United States Treasury Department regulations. Note accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.301" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.301   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.302" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.302   Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Officer</I> means the president, any vice-president (but not an assistant vice-president, second vice-president, or other vice president having authority similar to an assistant or second vice-president), the secretary, the treasurer, the comptroller, and any other person performing similar functions with respect to any organization whether incorporated or unincorporated. The term <I>officer</I> also includes the chairman of the board of directors if the chairman is authorized by the charter or by-laws of the organization to participate in its operating management or if the chairman in fact participates in such management.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.303" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.303   Parent company; subsidiary.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>parent company</I> means any company which directly or indirectly controls any other company or companies. The term <I>subsidiary</I> means any company which is owned or controlled directly or indirectly by a person, and includes a subsidiary owned in whole or in part by a State savings association, or a subsidiary of that subsidiary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.304" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.304   Political subdivision.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>political subdivision</I> includes any subdivision of a public unit, any principal department of such public unit:
</P>
<P>(a) The creation of which subdivision or department has been expressly authorized by state statute,
</P>
<P>(b) To which some functions of government have been delegated by state statute, and
</P>
<P>(c) To which funds have been allocated by statute or ordinance for its exclusive use and control. It also includes drainage, irrigation, navigation, improvement, levee, sanitary, school or power districts and bridge or port authorities and other special districts created by state statute or compacts between the states. Excluded from the term are subordinate or nonautonomous divisions, agencies or boards within principal departments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.305" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.305   Principal office.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>principal office</I> means the home office of a State savings association established as such in conformity with the laws under which the State savings association is organized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.306" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.306   Public unit.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>public unit</I> means the United States, any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, any county, any municipality or any political subdivision thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.307" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.307   Savings account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>savings account</I> means any withdrawable account, except a demand account as defined in § 390.290, a tax and loan account, a note account, a United States Treasury general account, or a United States Treasury time deposit-open account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.308" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.308   State savings association.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>State savings association</I> means a State savings association as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, the deposits of which are insured by the Corporation. It includes a building and loan, savings and loan, or homestead association, or a cooperative bank (other than a cooperative bank which is a State bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) organized and operating according to the laws of the State in which it is chartered or organized, or a corporation (other than a bank as defined in section 3(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act) that the Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation determine to be operating substantially in the same manner as a State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.309" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.309   Security.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>security</I> means any non-withdrawable account, note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement, collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a <I>security,</I> or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing, except that a <I>security</I> shall not include an account or deposit insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.310" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.310   Service corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>service corporation</I> means any corporation, the majority of the capital stock of which is owned by one or more savings associations and which engages, directly or indirectly, in any activities similar to activities which may be engaged in by a service corporation in which a Federal savings association may invest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.311" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.311   State.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>State</I> means a State, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, and the Virgin Islands of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.312" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.312   Subordinated debt security.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>subordinated debt security</I> means any unsecured note, debenture, or other debt security issued by a State savings association and subordinated on liquidation to all claims having the same priority as account holders or any higher priority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.313" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.313   Tax and loan account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>tax and loan account</I> means an account, the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, established for receipt of payments of Federal taxes and certain United States obligations. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.314" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.314   United States Treasury General Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>United States Treasury General Account</I> means an account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, except in the case of the closure of the member, and in which a zero balance may be maintained. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.315" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.315   United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Account.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>United States Treasury Time Deposit Open Account</I> means a non-interest-bearing account maintained in the name of the United States Treasury which may not be withdrawn prior to the expiration of 30 days' written notice from the United States Treasury, or such other period of notice as the Treasury may require. Such accounts are not savings accounts or savings deposits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.316" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.2.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.316   With recourse.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term <I>with recourse</I> means, in connection with the sale of a loan or a participation interest in a loan, an agreement or arrangement under which the purchaser is to be entitled to receive from the seller a sum of money or thing of value, whether tangible or intangible (including any substitution), upon default in payment of any loan involved or any part thereof or to withhold or to have withheld from the seller a sum of money or anything of value by way of security against default. The recourse liability resulting from a sale with recourse shall be the total book value of any loan sold with recourse less:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any insurance or guarantee against loss in the event of default provided by a third party,
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of any loss to be borne by the purchaser in the event of default, and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of any loss resulting from a recourse obligation entered on the books and records of the State savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>with recourse</I> does not include loans or interests therein where the agreement of sale provides for the State savings association directly or indirectly
</P>
<P>(1) To hold or retain a subordinate interest in a specified percentage of the loans or interests; or
</P>
<P>(2) To guarantee against loss up to a specified percentage of the loans or interests, which specified percentage shall not exceed ten percent of the outstanding balance of the loans or interests at the time of sale: <I>Provided,</I> that the State savings association designates adequate reserves for the subordinate interest or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(c) This definition does not apply for purposes of determining the capital adequacy requirements under part 324 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 47655, Aug. 5, 2011, as amended at 83 FR 17743, Apr. 24, 2018]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts R-V [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="W" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart W—Securities Offerings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.410" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.410   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accredited investor</I> means the same as in Commission Rule 501(a) (17 CFR 230.501(a)) under the Securities Act, and includes any State savings association.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Dividend or interest reinvestment plan</I> means a plan which is offered solely to existing security holders of the State savings association which allows such persons to reinvest dividends or interest paid to them on securities issued by the State savings association, and which also may allow additional cash amounts to be contributed by the participants in the plan, provided that the securities to be issued are newly issued, or are purchased for the account of plan participants, at prices not in excess of current market prices at the time of purchase, or at prices not in excess of an amount determined in accordance with a pricing formula specified in the plan and based upon average or current market prices at the time of purchase.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employee benefit plan</I> means any purchase, savings, option, rights, bonus, ownership, appreciation, profit sharing, thrift, incentive, pension or similar plan solely for officers, directors or employees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a-78jj).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Filing date</I> means the date on which a document is actually received during business hours, 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern Standard Time, by the FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429. However if the last date on which a document can be accepted falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday, such document may be filed on the next business day.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Issuer</I> means a State savings association which issues or proposes to issue any security.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Offer; Sale</I> or <I>sell.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>offer, offer to sell,</I> or <I>offer for sale</I> shall include every attempt or offer to dispose of, or solicitation of an offer to buy, a security or interest in a security, for value. However, these terms shall not include preliminary negotiations or agreements between an issuer and any underwriter or among underwriters who are or are to be in privity of contract with the issuer. <I>Sale</I> and <I>sell</I> includes every contract to sell or otherwise dispose of a security or interest in a security for value. Every offer or sale of a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to another security of the same or another issuer, as well as every sale or offer of a security which gives the holder a present or future right or privilege to convert the security into another security of the same or another issuer, includes an offer and sale of the other security only at the time of the offer or sale of the warrant or right or convertible security; but neither the exercise of the right to purchase or subscribe or to convert nor the issuance of securities pursuant thereto is an offer or sale.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Person</I> means the same as in 12 CFR 192.25, and includes a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Purchase</I> and <I>buy</I> mean the same as in 12 CFR 192.25.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>State savings association</I> means the same as in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)), and includes a state-chartered savings association in organization which is granted conditional approval of insurance of accounts by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. In addition, for purposes of § 390.411, <I>State savings association</I> includes any underwriter participating in the distribution of securities of a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Securities Act</I> means the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a-77aa).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Security</I> means any non-withdrawable account, note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement, collateral-trust certificate, preorganization or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting trust certificate or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a <I>security,</I> or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or warrant or right to subscribe to or purchase any of the foregoing, except that a <I>security</I> shall not include an account insured, in whole or in part, by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Underwriter</I> means any person who has purchased from an issuer with a view to, or offers or sells for an issuer in connection with, the distribution of any security, or participates or has a participation in the direct or indirect underwriting of any such undertaking; but such term shall not include a person whose interest is limited to a commission from an underwriter or dealer not in excess of the usual and customary distributors' or sellers' commission and such term shall also not include any person who has continually held the securities being transferred for a period of two (2) consecutive years provided that the securities sold in any one (1) transaction shall be less than ten percent (10%) of the issued and outstanding securities of the same class. The following shall apply for the purpose of determining the period securities have been held:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Stock dividends, splits and recapitalizations.</I> Securities acquired from the issuer as a dividend or pursuant to a stock split, reverse split or recapitalization shall be deemed to have been acquired at the same time as the securities on which the dividend or, if more than one, the initial dividend was paid, the securities involved in the split or reverse split, or the securities surrendered in connection with the recapitalization.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conversions.</I> If the securities sold were acquired from the issuer for consideration consisting solely of other securities of the same issuer surrendered for conversion, the securities so acquired shall be deemed to have been acquired at the same time as the securities surrendered for conversion.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Contingent issuance of securities.</I> Securities acquired as a contingent payment of the purchase price of an equity interest in a business, or the assets of a business, sold to the issuer or an affiliate of the issuer shall be deemed to have been acquired at the time of such sale if the issuer was then committed to issue the securities subject only to conditions other than the payment of further consideration for such securities. An agreement entered into in connection with any such purchase to remain in the employment of, or not to compete with, the issuer or affiliate or the rendering of services pursuant to such agreement shall not be deemed to be the payment of further consideration for such securities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Pledged securities.</I> Securities which are <I>bona fide</I> pledged by any person other than the issuer when sold by the pledgee, or by a purchaser, after a default in the obligation secured by the pledge, shall be deemed to have been acquired when they were acquired by the pledgor, except that if the securities were pledged without recourse they shall be deemed to have been acquired by the pledgee at the time of the pledge or by the purchaser at the time of purchase.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Gifts of securities.</I> Securities acquired from any person, other than the issuer, by gift shall be deemed to have been acquired by the donee when they were acquired by the donor.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Trusts.</I> Securities acquired from the settler of a trust by the trust or acquired from the trust by the beneficiaries thereof shall be deemed to have been acquired when they were acquired by the settler.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Estates.</I> Securities held by the estate of a deceased person or acquired from such an estate by the beneficiaries thereof shall be deemed to have been acquired when they were acquired by the deceased person, except that no holding period is required if the estate is not an affiliate of the issuer or if the securities are sold by a beneficiary of the estate who is not such an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Exchange transactions.</I> A person receiving securities in a transaction involving an exchange of the securities of one issuer for securities of another issuer shall be deemed to have acquired the securities received when such person acquired the securities exchanged.
</P>
<P>(b) A term not defined in this subpart but defined elsewhere in this part, when used in subpart, shall have the meanings given elsewhere in this part, unless the context otherwise requires.
</P>
<P>(c) When used in the rules, regulations, or forms of the Commission referred to in this subpart, the term <I>Commission</I> shall be deemed to refer to the FDIC, the term <I>registrant</I> shall be deemed to refer to an issuer defined in this subpart, and the term <I>registration statement</I> or <I>prospectus</I> shall be deemed to refer to an offering circular filed under this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.411" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.411   Offering circular requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No State savings association shall offer or sell, directly or indirectly, any security issued by it unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The offer or sale is accompanied or preceded by an offering circular which includes the information required by this subpart and which has been filed and declared effective pursuant to this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exemption is available under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communications not deemed an offer.</I> The following communications shall not be deemed an offer under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) Prior to filing an offering circular, any notice of a proposed offering which satisfies the requirements of Commission Rule 135 (17 CFR 230.135) under the Securities Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Subsequent to filing an offering circular, any notice circular, advertisement, letter, or other communication published or transmitted to any person which satisfies the requirements of Commission Rule 134 (17 CFR 230.134) under the Securities Act; and
</P>
<P>(3) Oral offers of securities covered by an offering circular made after filing the offering circular with the FDIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Preliminary offering circular.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a preliminary offering circular may be used for an offer of any security prior to the effective date of the offering circular if:
</P>
<P>(1) The preliminary offering circular has been filed pursuant to this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The preliminary offering circular includes the information required by this subpart, except for the omission of information relating to offering price, discounts or commissions, amount of proceeds, conversion rates, call prices, or other matters dependent on the offering price; and
</P>
<P>(3) The offering circular declared effective by the FDIC is furnished to the purchaser prior to, or simultaneously with, the sale of any such security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.412" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.412   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The offering circular requirement of § 390.411 shall not apply to an issuer's offer or sale of securities:
</P>
<P>(a) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) Exempt from registration under either section 3(a) or section 4 of the Securities Act, but only by reason of an exemption other than section 3(a)(5) (for regulated State savings associations), and section 3(a)(11) (for intrastate offerings) of the Securities Act;
</P>
<P>(c) In a conversion from the mutual to the stock form of organization pursuant to12 CFR part 192, except for a supervisory conversion undertaken pursuant to subpart C of 12 CFR part 192;
</P>
<P>(d) In a non-public offering which satisfies the requirements of § 390.413;
</P>
<P>(e) That are debt securities issued in denominations of $100,000 or more, which are fully collateralized by cash, any security issued, or guaranteed as to principal and interest, by the United States, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, Federal National Mortgage Association, Government National Mortgage Association or by interests in mortgage notes secured by real property;
</P>
<P>(f) Distributed exclusively abroad to foreign nationals: <I>Provided,</I> That—
</P>
<P>(1) The offering is made subject to safeguards reasonably designed to preclude distribution or redistribution of the securities within, or to nationals of, the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such safeguards include, without limitation, measures that would be sufficient to ensure that registration of the securities would not be required if the securities were not exempt under the Securities Act; or
</P>
<P>(g) To its officers, directors or employees pursuant to an employee benefit plan or a dividend or interest reinvestment plan, and provided that any such plan has been approved by the majority of shareholders present in person or by proxy at an annual or special meeting of the shareholders of the State savings association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.413" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.413   Non-public offering.</HEAD>
<P>Offers and sales of securities by an issuer that satisfy the conditions of paragraph (a) or (b) of this section and the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section shall be deemed to be transactions not involving any public offering within the meaning of section 4(2) of the Securities Act and §§ 390.412(b) and 390.412(d). However, an issuer shall not be deemed to be not in compliance with the provisions of this subpart solely by reason of making an untimely filing of the notice required to be filed by paragraph (c) of this section so long as the notice is actually filed and all other conditions and requirements of this subpart are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Regulation D.</I> The offer and sale of all securities in the transaction satisfies the Commission's Regulation D (17 CFR 230.501-230.506), except for the notice requirements of Commission Rule 503 (17 CFR 230.503) and the limitations on resale in Commission Rule 502(d) (17 CFR 230.502(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sales to 35 persons.</I> The offer and sale of all securities in the transaction satisfies each of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Sales of the security are not made to more than 35 persons during the offering period, as determined under the integration provisions of Commission Rule 502(a) (17 CFR 230.502(a)). The number of purchasers referred to above is exclusive of any accredited investor, officer, director or affiliate of the issuer. For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, a husband and wife (together with any custodian or trustee acting for the account of their minor children) are counted as one person and a partnership, corporation or other organization which was not specifically formed for the purpose of purchasing the security offered in reliance upon this exemption, is counted as one person.
</P>
<P>(2) All purchasers either have a preexisting personal or business relationship with the issuer or any of its officers, directors or controlling persons, or by reason of their business or financial experience or the business or financial experience of their professional advisors who are unaffiliated with and who are not compensated by the issuer or any affiliate or selling agent of the issuer, directly or indirectly, could reasonably be assumed to have the capacity to protect their own interests in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) Each purchaser represents that the purchaser is purchasing for the purchaser's own account (or a trust account if the purchaser is a trustee) and not with a view to or for sale in connection with any distribution of the security.
</P>
<P>(4) The offer and sale of the security is not accomplished by the publication of any advertisement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of notice of sales.</I> Within 30 days after the first sale of the securities, every six months after the first sale of the securities and not later than 30 days after the last sale of securities in an offering pursuant to this subpart, the issuer, shall file with the FDIC a report describing the results of the sale of securities as required by § 390.421(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitation on resale.</I> The issuer shall exercise reasonable care to assure that the purchasers of the securities are not underwriters within the meaning of § 390.410(a)(14), which reasonable care shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonable inquiry to determine if the purchaser is acquiring the securities for the purchaser or for other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Written disclosure to each purchaser prior to the sale that the securities are not offered by an offering circular filed with, and declared effective by, the FDIC pursuant to § 390.411, but instead are being sold in reliance upon the exemption from the offering circular requirement provided for by this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(3) Placement of a legend on the certificate, or other document evidencing the securities, indicating that the securities have not been offered by an offering circular filed with, and declared effective by, the FDIC and that due care should be taken to ensure that the seller of the securities is not an underwriter within the meaning of § 390.410(a)(14).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.414" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.414   Filing and signature requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> An offering circular, amendment, notice, report, or other document required by this subpart shall, unless otherwise indicated, be filed in accordance with the requirements of 12 CFR 192.115(a), 192.150(a)(6), 192.155, 192.180(b), and Form AC, General Instruction B, of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Number of copies.</I> (1) Unless otherwise required, any filing under this subpart shall include nine copies of the document to be filed with the FDIC, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Seven copies, which shall include one manually signed copy with exhibits, three conformed copies with exhibits, and three conformed copies without exhibits, to the FDIC, ATTN: Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, 550 17th Street NW, Washington, DC 20429; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Two copies, which shall include one manually signed copy with exhibits and one conformed copy, without exhibits, to the appropriate regional director.
</P>
<P>(2) Within five days after the effective date of an offering circular or the commencement of a public offering after the effective date, whichever occurs later, nine copies of the offering circular used shall be filed with the FDIC as follows: Seven copies to the FDIC, 550 17th Street NW., ATTN: Accounting and Securities Disclosure Section, Washington, DC, and two copies to the appropriate Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(3) After the effective date of an offering circular, an offering circular which varies from the form previously filed shall not be used, unless it includes only non-material supplemental or additional information and until 10 copies have been filed with the FDIC in the manner required.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signature.</I> (1) Any offering circular, amendment, or consent filed with the FDIC pursuant to this subpart shall include an attached manually signed signature page which authorizes the filing and has been signed by:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuer, by its duly authorized representative;
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuer's principal executive officer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The issuer's principal financial officer;
</P>
<P>(iv) The issuer's principal accounting officer; and
</P>
<P>(v) At least a majority of the issuer's directors.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other document filed pursuant to this subpart shall be signed by a person authorized to do so.
</P>
<P>(3) At least <I>one copy</I> of every document filed pursuant to this subpart shall be manually signed, and every copy of a document filed shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Have the name of each person who signs typed or printed beneath the signature;
</P>
<P>(ii) State the capacity or capacities in which the signature is provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide the name of each director of the issuer, if a majority of directors is required to sign the document; and
</P>
<P>(iv) With regard to any copies not manually signed, bear typed or printed signatures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.415" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.415   Effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section, an offering circular filed by a State savings association shall be deemed to be automatically declared effective by the FDIC on the twentieth day after filing or on such earlier date as the FDIC may determine for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) If any amendment is filed prior to the effective date, the offering circular shall be deemed to have been filed when such amendment was filed.
</P>
<P>(c) The period until automatic effectiveness under this subpart shall be stated at the bottom of the facing page of the Form OC or any amendment.
</P>
<P>(d) The effectiveness will be delayed if a duly authorized amendment, telegram confirmed in writing, or letter states that the effective date is delayed until a further amendment is filed specifically stating that the offering circular will become effective in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) An amendment filed after the effective date of the offering circular shall become effective on such date as the FDIC may determine.
</P>
<P>(f) If it appears to the FDIC at any time that the offering circular includes any untrue statement of a material fact or omits to state any material fact required to be stated therein or necessary to make the statements therein not misleading, then the FDIC may pursue any remedy it is authorized to pursue under section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1818), including, but not limited to, institution of cease-and-desist proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.416" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.416   Form, content, and accounting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form and content.</I> Any offering circular or amendment filed pursuant to this subpart shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be filed under cover of Form OC, which is under 12 CFR part 192;
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with the requirements of Items 3 and 4 of Form OC and the requirements of all items of the form for registration (17 CFR part 239) that the issuer would be eligible to use were it required to register the securities under the Securities Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Comply with all item requirements of the Form S-1 (17 CFR part 239) for registration under the Securities Act, if the association issuing the securities is not in compliance with the FDIC's regulatory capital requirements during the time the offering is made;
</P>
<P>(4) Where a form specifies that the information required by an item in the Commission's Regulation S-K (17 CFR part 229) should be furnished, include such information and all of the information required by Item 7 of Form PS, which is under 12 CFR part 192;
</P>
<P>(5) Include after the facing page of the Form OC a cross-reference sheet listing each item requirement of the form for registration under the Securities Act and indicate for each item the applicable heading or subheading in the offering circular under which the required information is disclosed;
</P>
<P>(6) Include in part II of the Form OC the applicable undertakings required by the form for registration under the Securities Act;
</P>
<P>(7) If the issuer has not previously been required to file reports pursuant to section 13(a) of the Exchange Act or § 390.427, include in part II of Form OC the following undertaking: “The issuer hereby undertakes, in connection with any distribution of the offering circular, to have a preliminary or effective offering circular including the information required by this subpart distributed to all persons expected to be mailed confirmations of sale not less than 48 hours prior to the time such confirmations are expected to be mailed;”
</P>
<P>(8) In offerings involving the issuance of options, warrants, subscription rights or conversion rights within the meaning of § 390.410(a)(8), include in part II of Form OC an undertaking to provide a copy of the issuer's most recent audited financial statements to persons exercising such options, warrants or rights promptly upon receiving written notification of the exercise thereof;
</P>
<P>(9) Include as supplemental information and not as part of the Form OC and only with respect to <I>de novo</I> offerings, a copy of the application for insurance of accounts as submitted to the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation for state-chartered savings associations; and
</P>
<P>(10) In addition to the information expressly required to be included by this subpart, there shall be added such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting requirements.</I> To be declared effective an offering circular or amendment shall satisfy the accounting requirements in subpart T.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.417" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.417   Use of the offering circular.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An offering circular or amendment declared effective by the FDIC shall not be used more than nine months after the effective date, unless the information contained therein is as of a date not more than 16 months prior to such use.
</P>
<P>(b) An offering circular filed under § 390.414(b)(3) shall not extend the period for which an effective offering circular or amendment may be used under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If any event arises, or change in fact occurs, after the effective date and such event or change in fact, individually or in the aggregate, results in the offering circular containing any untrue statement of material fact, or omitting to state a material fact necessary in order to make statements made in the offering circular not misleading under the circumstances, then no offering circular, which has been declared effective under this subpart, shall be used until an amendment reflecting such event or change in fact has been filed with, and declared effective by, the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.418" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.418   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any funds received in an offering which is offered and sold on a best efforts all-or-none condition or with a minimum-maximum amount to be sold shall be held in an escrow or similar separate account until such time as all of the securities are sold with respect to a best efforts all-or-none offering or the stated minimum amount of securities are sold in a minimum-maximum offering.
</P>
<P>(b) If the amount of securities required to be sold under escrow conditions in paragraph (a) of this section are not sold within the time period for the offering as disclosed in the offering circular, all funds in the escrow account shall be promptly refunded unless the FDIC otherwise approves an extension of the offering period upon a showing of good cause and provided that the extension is consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.419" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.419   Unsafe or unsound practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall directly or indirectly,
</P>
<P>(1) Employ any device, scheme or artifice to defraud,
</P>
<P>(2) Make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make statements made, in light of the circumstances under which they were made, not misleading, or
</P>
<P>(3) Engage in any act, practice, or course of business which operates as a fraud or deceit upon any person, in connection with the purchase or sale of any security of a State savings association.
</P>
<P>(b) Violations of this subpart shall constitute an unsafe or unsound practice within the meaning of section 8 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 1818.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as a limitation on the applicability of section 10(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78j(b)) or Rule 10b-5 promulgated thereunder (17 CFR 240.10b-5).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.420" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.420   Withdrawal or abandonment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any offering circular, amendment, or exhibit may be withdrawn prior to the effective date. A withdrawal shall be signed and state the grounds upon which it is made. Any document withdrawn will not be removed from the files of the FDIC, but will be marked “Withdrawn upon the request of the issuer on (date).”
</P>
<P>(b) When an offering circular or amendment has been on file with the FDIC for a period of nine months and has not become effective, the FDIC may, in its discretion, determine whether the filing has been abandoned, after notifying the issuer that the filing is out of date and must either be amended to comply with the applicable requirements of this subpart or be withdrawn within 30 days after the date of such notice. When a filing is abandoned, the filing will not be removed from the files of the FDIC, but will be marked “Declared abandoned by the FDIC on (date).”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.421" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.421   Securities sale report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after the first sale of the securities, every six months after such 30 day period and not later than 30 days after the later of the last sale of securities in an offering pursuant to § 390.411 or the application of the proceeds therefrom, the issuer shall file with the FDIC a report describing the results of the sale of the securities and the application of the proceeds, which shall include all of the information required by Form G-12 set forth at § 390.429 and shall also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and docket number of the issuer;
</P>
<P>(2) The title, number, aggregate and per-unit offering price of the securities sold;
</P>
<P>(3) The aggregate and per-unit dollar amounts of actual itemized expenses, discounts or commissions, and other fees;
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate and per-unit dollar amounts of the net proceeds raised, and the use of proceeds therefrom; and
</P>
<P>(5) The number of purchasers of each class of securities sold and the number of owners of record of each class of the issuer's equity securities after the issuance of the securities or termination of the offer.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 30 days after the first sale of the securities, every six months after the first sale of the securities and not later than 30 days after the last sale of securities in an offering pursuant to § 390.413, the issuer shall file with the FDIC a report describing the results of the sale of securities, which shall include all of the information required by Form G-12 set forth at § 390.429, and shall also include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the information required by paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement of the factual and legal grounds for the exemption claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.422" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.422   Public disclosure and confidential treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any offering circular, amendment, exhibit, notice, or report filed pursuant to this subpart will be publicly available. Any other related documents will be treated in accordance with the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), and parts 309 and 310 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Any requests for confidential treatment of information in a document required to be filed under this subpart shall be made as required under Commission Rule 24b-2 (17 CFR 240.24b-2) under the Exchange Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.423" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.423   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FDIC may waive any requirement of this subpart, or any required information:
</P>
<P>(1) Determined to be unnecessary by the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with a transaction approved by the FDIC for supervisory reasons, or
</P>
<P>(3) Where a provision of this subpart conflicts with a requirement of applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(b) Any condition, stipulation or provision binding any person acquiring a security issued by a State savings association which seeks to waive compliance with any provision of this subpart shall be void, unless approved by the FDIC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.424" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.424   Requests for interpretive advice or waiver.</HEAD>
<P>Any requests to the FDIC for interpretive advice or a waiver with respect to any provision of this subpart shall satisfy the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the request, including any attachments, shall be filed with the FDIC;
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of this subpart to which the request relates, the participants in the proposed transaction, and the reasons for the request, shall be specifically identified or described; and
</P>
<P>(c) The request shall include a legal opinion as to each legal issue raised and an accounting opinion as to each accounting issue raised.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.425" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.425   Delayed or continuous offering and sale of securities.</HEAD>
<P>Any offer or sale of securities under § 390.411 may be made on a continuous or delayed basis in the future, if:
</P>
<P>(a) The securities would satisfy all of the eligibility requirements of the Commission's Rule 415, 17 CFR 230.415; and
</P>
<P>(b) The association issuing the securities is in compliance with the FDIC's regulatory capital requirements during the time the offering is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.426" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.426   Sales of securities at an office of a State savings association.</HEAD>
<P>Sales of securities of a State savings association or its affiliates at an office of a State savings association may only be made in accordance with the provisions of § 390.340.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.427" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.427   Current and periodic reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each State savings association which files an offering circular which becomes effective pursuant to this subpart, after such effective date, shall file with the FDIC periodic and current reports on Forms 8-K, 10-Q and 10-K as may be required by section 13 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78m) as if the securities sold by such offering circular were securities registered pursuant to section 12 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>). The duty to file periodic and current reports under this subpart shall be automatically suspended if and so long as any issue of securities of the State savings association is registered pursuant to section 12 of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78<I>l</I>). The duty to file under this subpart shall also be automatically suspended as to any fiscal year, other than the fiscal year within which such offering circular became effective, if, at the beginning of such fiscal year, the securities of each class to which the offering circular relates are held of record by less than three hundred persons and upon the filing of a Form 15.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of registering securities under section 12(b) or 12(g) of the Exchange Act, an issuer subject to the reporting requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may use the Commission's registration statement on Form 10 or Form 8-A or 8-B as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.428" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.428   Approval of the security.</HEAD>
<P>Any securities of a State savings association which are not exempt under this subpart and are offered or sold pursuant to an offering circular which becomes effective under this subpart, are deemed to be approved as to form and terms for purposes of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.429" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.429   Form for securities sale report.</HEAD>
<HD3>FDIC, 550 17th Street, NW., Washington, DC 20429
</HD3>
<HD3>[Form G-12]
</HD3>
<HD2>Securities Sale Report Pursuant to § 390.12
</HD2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>FDIC No.
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issuer's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>If in organization, state the date of FDIC certification of insurance of accounts: ____
</P>
<P>State the title, number, aggregate and per-unit offering price of the securities sold: ________
</P>
<P>State the aggregate and per-unit dollar amounts of actual itemized offering expenses, discounts, commissions, and other fees: ________
</P>
<P>State the aggregate and per-unit dollar amounts of the net proceeds raised: ________
</P>
<P>Describe the use of proceeds. If unknown, provide reasonable estimates of the dollar amount allocated to each purpose for which the proceeds will be used: ________
</P>
<P>State the number of purchasers of each class of securities sold and the number of owners of record of each class of the issuer's equity securities at the close or termination of the offering: ________
</P>
<P>For a non-public offering, also state the factual and legal grounds for the exemption claimed (attach additional pages if necessary): ________
</P>
<P>For a non-public offering, all offering materials used should be listed: ________
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>Person to Contact:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone No.:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>This issuer has duly caused this securities sale report to be signed on its behalf by the undersigned person.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-DASH>Date of securities sale report
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Issuer:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>Instruction: Print the name and title of the signing representative under his or her signature. Ten copies of the securities sale report should be filed, including one copy manually signed, as required under 12 CFR 390.414.
</P>
<P>Attention
</P>
<P>Intentional misstatements or omissions of fact constitute violations of Federal law (See 18 U.S.C. 1001 and § 390.355(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 390.430" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.4.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 390.430   Filing of copies of offering circulars in certain exempt offerings.</HEAD>
<P>A copy of the offering circular, or similar document, if any, used in connection with an offering exempt from the offering circular requirement of § 390.411 by reason of § 390.412(e) or § 390.413 shall be mailed to the FDIC within 30 days after the first sale of such securities. Such copy of the offering circular, or similar document, is solely for the information of the FDIC and shall not be deemed to be “filed” with the FDIC pursuant to § 390.411. The mailing to the FDIC of such offering circular, or similar document, shall not be a pre-condition of the applicable exemption from the offering circular requirements of § 390.411.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="X" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.27.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart X-Z [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="391-399" NODE="12:6.0.1.1.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 391-399 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="IV" NODE="12:6.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER IV—EXPORT-IMPORT BANK OF THE UNITED STATES</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="400" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 400—EMPLOYEE FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE AND ETHICAL CONDUCT STANDARDS REGULATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 17628, Apr. 7, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 400.101" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 400.101   Cross-reference to employee financial disclosure and ethical conduct standards regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Employees of the Export-Import Bank of the United States (Bank) should refer to:
</P>
<P>(a) The executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634;
</P>
<P>(b) The executive branch-wide Standards of Ethical Conduct at 5 CFR part 2635; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The Bank regulations at 5 CFR part 6201 which supplement the executive branch-wide standards.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="403" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 403—CLASSIFICATION, DECLASSIFICATION, AND SAFEGUARDING OF NATIONAL SECURITY INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>E.O. 12356, National Security Information, April 2, 1982 (3 CFR, 1982 Comp. p. 166) (hereafter referred to as the <I>Order</I>), Information Security Oversight Directive No. 1, June 25, 1982 (32 CFR part 2001) (hereafter referred to as the <I>Directive</I>), and National Security Decision Directive 84, “Safeguarding National Security Information,” signed by the President on March 11, 1983 (hereafter referred to as <I>NSDD 84</I>).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>50 FR 27215, July 2, 1985, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 403.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.1   General policies and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation of the Export-Import Bank (the Bank) implements executive orders which govern the classification, declassification, and safeguarding of national security information and material of the United States. This regulation is based on Executive Order 12356, National Security Information, April 2, 1982 (3 CFR, 1982 Comp. p. 166) (hereafter referred to as the <I>Order</I>), Information Security Oversight Directive No. 1, June 25, 1982 (32 CFR part 2001) (hereafter referred to as the <I>Directive</I>), and National Security Decision Directive 84, “Safeguarding National Security Information,” signed by the President on March 11, 1983 (hereafter referred to as <I>NSDD 84</I>). Violation of the provisions of part 403 may result in the imposition of administrative penalties, and civil and criminal penalties under applicable law. Executive Order 12356 prescribes a uniform system for classifying, declassifying, and safeguarding national security information. It recognizes that it is essential that the public be informed concerning the activities of the Government, but that the interests of the United States and its citizens require that certain information concerning the national defense and foreign relations be protected against unauthorized disclosure. Information may not be classified under the Order unless its disclosure reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of the Order, the Directive and these guidelines, the following terms shall have the meanings specified below:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information</I> means any information or material, regardless of its physical form or characteristics, that is owned by, produced by or for, or is under the control of the United States Government.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>National security information</I> means information that has been determined pursuant to this Order or any predecessor order to require protection against unauthorized disclosure and that is so designated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Foreign government information</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Information provided by a foreign government or governments, an international organization of governments, or any element thereof with the expectation, expressed or implied, that the information, the source of the information, or both, are to be held in confidence; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information produced by the United States pursuant to or as a result of a joint arrangement with a foreign government or governments or an international organization of governments, or any element thereof, requiring that the information, the arrangement, or both, are to be held in confidence.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>National security</I> means the national defense or foreign relations of the United States.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential source</I> means any individual or organization that has provided, or that may reasonably be expected to provide, information to the United States on matters pertaining to the national security with the expectation, expressed or implied, that the information or relationship, or both, be held in confidence.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Original classification</I> means an initial determination that information requires, in the interest of national security, protection against unauthorized disclosure, together with a classification designation signifying the level of protection required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.2" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.2   Responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>In the carrying out of security procedures, responsibility falls on all personnel generally and on certain personnel in a more particular manner.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual.</I> Each employee of the Bank having access to classified material has an individual responsibility to protect such information. Classified information should be secured in approved equipment or facilities whenever it is not under the direct control of the employee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Office and Division Heads.</I> These officials have the additional responsibility of a continuing review for ascertaining that security procedures are properly observed by the personnel comprising their respective offices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Security Officer.</I> (1) The Security Officer has the responsibility for developing, inspecting, and advising on procedures and controls for safeguarding classified material originating in, received by, in transit through, or in custody of the Bank; the training and orientation of employees; the carrying out of inspections; and the destruction of obsolete and non-record material.
</P>
<P>(2) The Security Officer shall be responsible for disseminating written material and conducting oral briefings to inform Bank personnel of the Order, Directive, and regulations. An explanation of the practical application of these procedures and the underlying policy objectives thereof shall be emphasized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Security Committee.</I> (1) This Committee consists of the General Counsel, as Chairperson, the Security Officer, and other Bank employees, as designated by the President and Chairman (hereinafter referred to as the <I>Chairman)</I> and is responsible for the implementation and enforcement of the Order and the Directive. This Committee will act on all matters with respect to the Bank's administration of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) All suggestions and complaints regarding the Bank's Information Security Program, including those regarding over-classification, failure to declassify, or delay in declassifying, not otherwise provided for herein, shall be referred to the Security Committee for review.
</P>
<P>(3) The Security Committee shall have responsibility for recommending to the Chairman appropriate administrative action to correct abuse or violation of these regulations or of any provision of the Order or Directive thereunder, including but not limited to notification by warning letter, formal suspension without pay, and removal. Upon receipt of such a recommendation, the Chairman shall make a decision and advise the Security Committee of this action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.3" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.3   Classification principles and authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Classification Principles.</I> (1) Except as provided in the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, as amended, the Order provides the only basis for classifying national security information. Information held by the Bank will be made available to the public to the extent possible consistent with the need to protect the national defense or foreign relations, as required by the interests of the United States and its citizens. Accordingly, security classification shall be applied only to protect the national security.
</P>
<P>(2) Before a classification determination is made, each item of information that may require protection shall be identified exactly. This requires identification of that specific information, disclosure of which could affect the national security. When there is reasonable doubt about the need to classify, the information should be safeguarded as if it were confidential until a final determination is made by an authorized classifier as to its classification. The final determination must be made within thirty (30) days.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classification Designations.</I> Information which requires protection against unauthorized disclosure in the interest of national security (<I>classified information</I>) shall be classified at one of the following three levels:
</P>
<P>(1) TOP SECRET shall be applied only to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(2) SECRET shall be applied only to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause serious damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(3) CONFIDENTIAL shall be applied to information, the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<FP>Except as provided by statute, no other terms, such as <I>SENSITIVE, OFFICIAL BUSINESS ONLY, AGENCY, BUSINESS, ADMINISTRATIVELY,</I> etc., shall be used within the Bank in conjunction with any of the three classification levels defined above.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Original Classification Authority and Criteria.</I> (1) The Bank's authority to assign original classification to any document is limited as follows and is nondelegable:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Classifier 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CONFIDENTIAL 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">President and Chairman.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Vice President and Vice Chairman.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">General Counsel.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Senior Vice Presidents.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Security Officer.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) A determination to classify information shall be made by an original classification authority when the information concerns one or more of categories (i) through (x) of this paragraph, and when the unauthorized disclosure of the information, either by itself or in the context of other information, reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security. Information shall be considered for classification if it concerns:
</P>
<P>(i) Military plans, weapons, or operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The vulnerabilities or capabilities of systems, installations, projects, or plans relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(iii) Foreign government information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Intelligence activities (including special activities), or intelligence sources or methods;
</P>
<P>(v) Foreign relations or foreign activities of the United States;
</P>
<P>(vi) Scientific, technological, or economic matters relating to the national security;
</P>
<P>(vii) United States Government programs for safeguarding nuclear materials or facilities;
</P>
<P>(viii) Cryptology;
</P>
<P>(ix) A confidential source; or
</P>
<P>(x) Other categories of information that are related to the national security and that require protection against unauthorized disclosure as determined by the President of the United States, by the Chairman or by other officials who have been delegated original classification authority by the President. Recommendations concerning the need to designate additional categories of information that may be considered for classification shall be forwarded through the Security Officer to the Chairman for determination. Such a determination shall be reported to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.
</P>
<P>(3) Information that is determined to concern one or more of the above categories shall be classified when an original classification authority also determines that its unauthorized disclosure, either by itself or in the context of other information, reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security. Accordingly, certain information which would otherwise be unclassified may require classification when associated with other unclassified or classified information. Classification on this basis shall be supported by a written explanation that, at a minimum, shall be maintained with the file or reference on the recent copy of the information.
</P>
<P>(4) Unauthorized disclosure of foreign government information, the identity of a confidential foreign source, or disclosure of intelligence sources or methods is presumed to cause damage to the national security.
</P>
<P>(5) Information classified in accordance with the above classification categories shall not be declassified automatically as a result of any unofficial publication or inadvertent or unauthorized disclosure in the United States or abroad of identical or similar information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration of Original Classification.</I> (1) Information shall be classified as long as required by national security considerations. When it can be determined, a specific date or event for declassification shall be set by the original classification authority at the time the information is originally classified. If the date or event for declassification cannot be determined at the time of classification, the standard notation “Originating Agency's Determination Required”, or its abbreviation “OADR”, should be entered on the “Declassify on” line.
</P>
<P>(2) Automatic declassification determinations under predecessor orders shall remain valid unless the classification is extended by an authorized declassification authority. These extensions may be by individual documents or categories of information, provided, however, that any extension of classification on other than an individual document basis shall be reported to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office. The declassification authority shall be responsible for notifying holders of the information of such extensions.
</P>
<P>(3) Information classified under predecessor orders and marked for declassification review shall remain classified until reviewed for declassification under the provisions of the Order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Marking and Identification.</I> (1) Classified information must be marked, or otherwise identified, to inform and warn the holder of the information of its sensitivity. The classifier is responsible for ensuring that proper classification markings are applied. At the time of classification, the following information shall be shown on the face of all classified documents, or clearly associated with other forms of classified information in a manner appropriate to the medium involved, unless this information itself would reveal a confidential source or relationship not otherwise evident in the document or information:
</P>
<P>(i) One of the three classification levels defined in § 403.3(b); “(TS)” for Top Secret, “(S)” for Secret, “(C)” for Confidential, and “(U)” for Unclassified; with each page marked at top and bottom according to the highest level of classified information on each page.
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of the original classification authority if other than the person whose name appears as the approving or signing official;
</P>
<P>(iii) The agency and office of origin; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The date or event for declassification, or the notation “Originating Agency's Determination Required.”
</P>
<P>(2) Each classified document shall, by marking or other means, indicate which portions are classified, with the applicable classification level, and which portions are not classified. The Chairman may, for good cause, grant and revoke waivers of this requirement for specified classes of documents or information. The Director of the Information Security Oversight Office shall be notified of any waivers.
</P>
<P>(3) Marking designations implementing the provisions of the Order, including abbreviations, shall conform to the standards prescribed in implementing directives issued by the Information Security Oversight Office. All authorized classifiers shall be issued a uniform stamp that has a “Classified by” line and a “Declassify on” line.
</P>
<P>(4) Documents that contain foreign government information shall include either the marking, “FOREIGN GOVERNMENT INFORMATION”, or a marking that otherwise indicates that the information is foreign government information. If that fact must be concealed, the document will be marked as if it were of U.S. origin. Foreign government information shall either retain its original classification or be assigned a United States classification that shall ensure a degree of protection at least equivalent to that required by the entity that furnished the information.
</P>
<P>(5) Documents that contain information relating to intelligence sources or methods shall include the following marking unless proscribed by the Director of the Central Intelligence; WARNING NOTICE—INTELLIGENCE SOURCES OR METHODS INVOLVED.
</P>
<P>(6) Information assigned a level of classification under predecessor orders shall be considered as classified at that level of classification despite the omission of other required markings. Omitted markings may be inserted on a document by the General Counsel or the Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations on Classification.</I> (1) In no case shall information be classified in order to conceal violations of law, inefficiency, or administrative error; to prevent embarrassment to a person, organization, or agency; to restrain competition; or to prevent or delay the release of information that does not require protection in the interest of national security.
</P>
<P>(2) Basic scientific research information not clearly related to the national security may not be classified.
</P>
<P>(3) The Chairman or other authorized original classifiers may reclassify information previously declassified and disclosed if it is determined in writing that—
</P>
<P>(i) The information requires protection in the interest of national security, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The information may reasonably be recovered.
</P>
<FP>In making such determination, the Chairman or any other authorized original classifier shall consider the following factors: The lapse of time following disclosure; the nature and extent of disclosure; the ability to bring the fact of reclassification to the attention of persons to whom the information was disclosed; the ability to prevent further disclosure; and the ability to retrieve the information voluntarily from persons not authorized access to its reclassified state. These reclassification actions shall be reported promptly to the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office.
</FP>
<P>(4) Information may be classified or reclassified after an agency has received a request for it under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) or the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a), or the mandatory review provisions of the Order and these regulations, if such classification meets the requirements of the Order and is accomplished personally and on a document-by-document basis by the Chairman, the Vice Chairman, or the Security Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.4" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.4   Derivative classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of derivative classification.</I> (1) Unlike original classification which is an initial determination, derivative classification is an incorporation, paraphrasing, restatement, or generation in new form of information that is already classified. Derivative classification is the responsibility of those who only reproduce, extract, or summarize classified information, or who only apply classification markings derived from source material or as directed by a classification guide. Original classification authority is not required for derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(2) Persons who apply such derivative classification markings shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Respect original classification decisions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Verify the information's current level of classification so far as practicable before applying the markings; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Carry forward to any newly created documents the assigned dates or events for declassification or review. The latest date for declassification should be entered in the case of multiple source documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New Material.</I> (1) New material that derives its classification from information classified on or after the effective date of the Order, April 2, 1982, shall be marked with the declassification date or event, or the date for review, as assigned to the source information.
</P>
<P>(2) New material that derives its classification under prior orders shall be treated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the source material bears a classification date or event 20 years or less from the date or origin, that date or event shall be carried forward on the new material.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the source material bears no declassification date or event or is marked for declassification beyond 20 years, the new material shall be marked with a date for review for declassification at 20 years from the date of original classification of the source material.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the source material is foreign government information bearing no date or event for declassification or is marked for declassification beyond 30 years, the new material shall be marked for review for declassification at 30 years from the date of original classification of the source materials.
</P>
<P>(iv) A copy of the source document or documents should be maintained with the file copy of the new document or documents which have been derivatively classified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.5" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.5   Declassification and downgrading.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and policy for declassification and downgrading.</I> Information that continues to meet the classification requirements prescribed in § 403.3(c) despite the passage of time will continue to be safeguarded. However, information which is properly classified at the time it is developed may not necessarily require protection indefinitely. National security information over which the Bank exercises final classification jurisdiction shall be declassified or downgraded as soon as national security considerations permit. Information shall be declassified or downgraded by:
</P>
<P>(1) The official who authorized the original classification, if that official is still serving in the same position, by a successor, or by a supervisory official of either; or
</P>
<P>(2) Officials specifically delegated this authority in writing by the Chairman or by the Security Officer. A list of those who may be so delegated shall be maintained by the Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Director of the Information Security Oversight Office determines that information is unlawfully classified, the Director may require the Export-Import Bank to declassify it. Any such decision by the Director may be appealed to the National Security Council. The information shall remain classified until the appeal is decided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Declassification Procedure.</I> Information marked with a specific declassification date or event shall be declassified on that date or upon occurrence of that event. The overall classification markings shall be lined through a statement placed on the cover or first page to indicate the declassification authority, by name and title, and the date of declassification. If practicable, the classification markings on each page shall be cancelled; otherwise, the statement on the cover or first page shall indicate that the declassification applies to the entire document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to Holders.</I> When classified information has been properly marked with specific dates or events for declassification it is not necessary to issue notices of declassification to any holders. However, when declassification action is taken earlier than originally scheduled, or the duration of classification is extended, the authority making such changes shall promptly notify all holders to whom the information was originally transmitted. This notification shall include the marking action to be taken, the authority for the change (name and title), and the effective date of the change. Upon receipt of notification, recipients shall make the proper changes and shall notify holders to whom they have transmitted the classified information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Downgrading.</I> Information designated a particular level of classification may be assigned a lower classification level by the original classifier or by an official authorized to declassify the same information. Prompt notice of such downgrading shall be provided to known holders of the information. Classified information marked for automatic downgrading under previous Executive Orders shall be reviewed to determine that it no longer continues to meet classification requirements despite the passage of time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transferred Information.</I> Classified information transferred from one agency to another in conjunction with a transfer of functions, and not merely for storage purposes, shall be considered under the control of the receiving agency for purposes of downgrading and declassification, subject to consultation with any other agency that has an interest in the subject matter of the information. Prior to forwarding classified information to an approved storage facility of the Bank, to a Federal records center, or to the National Archives for permanent preservation, the information shall be reviewed for downgrading or declassification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.6" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.6   Systematic review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>Classified information determined by the Archivist of the United States to be of sufficient value to warrant permanent retention will be subject to systematic declassification review by the Archivist in accordance with guidelines provided by the Bank, as originator of the information. These guidelines shall be developed by the Security Officer who is designated by the Bank to assist the Archivist in the review process. The guidelines shall be reviewed every five years or as requested by the Archivist of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.7" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.7   Mandatory review for declassification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Classified information under the jurisdiction of the Bank shall be reviewed for declassification upon receipt of a request by a United States citizen or permanent resident alien, a Federal agency, or a State or local government. A request for mandatory review of classified information shall be submitted in writing and describe the information with sufficient particularity to locate it with a reasonable amount of effort. Requests may be addressed to the:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>General Counsel, Export-Import Bank of the U.S., 811 Vermont Avenue, NW., Washington, DC 20571</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) The Bank's response to mandatory review requests will be governed by the amount of search and review time required to process the request. The Bank will acknowledge receipt of all requests, and will inform the requester if additional time is needed to process the request. Except in unusual circumstances, the Bank will make a final determination within one year from the date of receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) When information cannot be declassified in its entirety, the Bank will make a reasonable effort to release, consistent with other applicable laws, those declassified portions that constitute a coherent segment.
</P>
<P>(d) The bank shall determine whether information under the classification jurisdiction of the Bank or any reasonably segregable portion of it no longer requires protection. If so, the General Counsel shall promptly make such information available to the requester, and shall inform the requester of any fees due before releasing the document. If the information may not be released, in whole or in part, the General Counsel shall give the requester a brief statement of the reasons, and a notice, mailed with return receipt requested, of the right to appeal the determination within 60 days of the denial letter's receipt. 
</P>
<P>(e) The agency that initially received or classified records containing foreign government information shall be responsible for making a declassification determination on review requests for classified records which contain such foreign government information. Such requests shall be referred to the appropriate agency for action.
</P>
<P>(f) When the Bank receives a mandatory declassification review request for records in its possession that were originated by another agency, it shall forward the request to that agency. The Bank may request notification of the declassification determination.
</P>
<P>(g) Information originated by a President, the White House staff, by committees, commissions, or boards appointed by the President, or other specifically providing advice and counsel to a President or acting on behalf of a President is exempted from the provisions of mandatory review for declassification, except as consistent with applicable laws that pertain to presidential papers or records.
</P>
<P>(h) The bank shall process requests for declassification that are submitted under the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, as amended, or the Privacy Act of 1974, in accordance with the provisions of those acts. (<I>See,</I> 12 CFR part 404 and 12 CFR part 405, respectively.) In any case, however, exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act or other exemptions under applicable law may be invoked by the Bank to deny material on grounds other than classification. 
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank shall refuse to confirm or deny the existence or non-existence of requested information whenever the fact of its existence or non-existence is itself classifiable under the Order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.8" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.8   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Vice Chairman is designated to receive appeals on requests for declassification which have been denied by the Bank. Such appeals shall be addressed to:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>First Vice President &amp; Vice Chairman, Export-Import Bank of the United States, 811 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20571</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<FP>The appeal must be received within 60 days after receipt by appellant of the denial letter. Appeals shall be decided within 30 days of their receipt by the Vice Chairman.
</FP>
<P>(1) If the decision is to declassify the materials in their entirety, the Vice Chairman shall promptly make such information available to the requester, and inform the requester of any fees due before releasing the documents.
</P>
<P>(2) If the decision is to deny declassification of a portion of the material, the Vice Chairman shall promptly make the part which was declassified available to the requester, and shall advise the requester, in writing, of the reasons for the partial denial of declassification.
</P>
<P>(3) If the decision is to deny declassification of all the material, the Vice Chairman shall promptly advise the requester, in writing, of the reasons for such denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.9" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.9   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>The following specific fees shall be applicable with respect to services rendered to members of the public under these regulations, by the Bank, except that the search fee will normally be waived when the search involves less than one-half hour of clerical time.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP1-2>(a) Search for records, per hour or fraction thereof:</FP1-2></EXTRACT>
<LDRWK>
<FL-2> (i) Professional</FL-2>
<LDRFIG> $11.00
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (ii) Clerical</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  6.00
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (b) Computer service charges per second for actual use of computer central processing unit</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  .25
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (c) Copies made by photostat or otherwise (per page); maximum of 5 copies will be provided</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  .10
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (d) Certification of each record as a true copy</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  1.00
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (e) Certification of each record as a true copy under official seal</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  1.50
</LDRFIG>
<FL-2> (f) Duplication of architectural photographs and drawings</FL-2>
<LDRFIG>  2.00</LDRFIG></LDRWK>
<FP>Fees must be paid in full prior to issuance of requested copies. Remittances shall be in the form either of a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the order of the Export-Import Bank of the United States, and mailed to:
</FP>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>General Counsel, Export-Import Bank of the United States, 811 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20571</FP-1></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.10" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.10   Safeguarding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Access Requirements.</I> Except as provided in § 403.10(c), access to classified information shall be granted in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Determination of Trustworthiness.</I> No person shall be given access to classified information or material unless a favorable determination has been made as to his trustworthiness. The determination of eligibility, referred to as a security clearance, shall be based on such investigations as the Bank may require in accordance with the standards and criteria of applicable law and Executive orders.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of Need to Know.</I> In addition to a security clearance, a person must have a need for access to the particular classified information or material sought in connection with the performance of official duties or contractual obligations. The determination of that need shall be made by officials having responsibility for the classified information or material.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement.</I> All persons with authorized access to classified information shall be required to sign a nondisclosure agreement, Standard Form 189, as a condition of access. This form shall be retained in the security file of the individual for 50 years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access by Historical Researchers and Former Presidential Appointees.</I> The Bank shall obtain written agreements from requesters to safeguard the information to which they are given access as permitted by the Order and written consent to the Bank's review of their notes and manuscripts for the purpose of determining that no classified information is contained therein. A determination of trustworthiness is a pre-condition to a requester's access. If the access requested by historical researchers and former Presidential Appointees requires the rendering of services for which fair and equitable fees may be charged pursuant to title 5 of the Independent Offices Appropriations Act, 65 Stat. 290, 31 U.S.C. 483a (1976), the requester shall be so notified and the fees may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Media Contacts.</I> All contacts by members of the media which concern classified information shall be directed to the attention of the Security Officer, Room 1031, Export-Import Bank of the United States, 811 Vermont Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20571.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dissemination.</I> Except as otherwise provided by directives issued by the President through the National Security Council, classified information originating in another agency and in the possession of the Bank may not be disseminated outside the Bank without the consent of the originating agency.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accountability Procedures.</I> Dissemination of various levels of classified information or material shall be within the control and responsibility of designated control officers. Particularly stringent controls shall be placed on information and material classified as TOP SECRET.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>TOP SECRET.</I> Designated as TOP SECRET control officers are the Chairman, Vice Chairman and the Security Officer who alone have authority to receive TOP SECRET information for the Bank. Other personnel authorized in writing by the Chairman or Security Officer also may receive TOP SECRET information for the Bank. It shall be the responsibility of these individuals with respect to all TOP SECRET information:
</P>
<P>(i) To receive the material for the Bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) To maintain registers which will reflect the routing of the material and the return thereof in a reasonable length of time for security storage;
</P>
<P>(iii) To dispatch and make record of material disseminated to authorize persons outside the Bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) To make a physical inventory of all material at least annually; and
</P>
<P>(v) To maintain current access records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>SECRET.</I> Designated as SECRET control officers are the Security Officer and the Analysis, Records &amp; Communications Manager, who have the responsibility with respect to all information classified in this category:
</P>
<P>(i) To receive the material for the Bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) To maintain registers which will reflect the routing of the material and the return thereof in a reasonable length of time for security storage;
</P>
<P>(iii) To dispatch and make record of material disseminated to authorized persons outside the Bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) To maintain current access records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CONFIDENTIAL.</I> Designated as CONFIDENTIAL control officers are the Security Officer and the Analysis, Records &amp; Communications Manager who have responsibility with respect to all information classified in this category:
</P>
<P>(i) To review material for the Bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) To route the material to proper Bank offices;
</P>
<P>(iii) To dispatch and make record of material disseminated to authorized persons outside the Bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) To maintain current access records.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Storage.</I> Classified information shall be stored only in facilities or under conditions adequate to prevent unauthorized persons from gaining access to it and in accordance with the Directive as well as General Services Administration standards and specifications. Reference may be made to 32 CFR 2001.41, 2001.43 for preliminary guidance regarding these standards and specifications.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Coversheets.</I> Department of State (DSC) classified incoming cables are to be logged in and routed to the appropriate offices in double envelopes. When these cables are being used in various offices, classified coversheets must be used to protect the documents. This practice eliminates the possibility of inadvertently mixing classified with non-classified material, and promotes security awareness. Coversheets are obtainable from the Office of the Security Director.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Transmittal.</I> (1) To be transmitted outside the Bank, all classified documents must be sent through the Security Office and have attached EIB Form 71-2, approved by one of the following: the President and Chairman, First Vice President and Vice Chairman, a Senior Vice President, General Counsel, Vice President or Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preparation and Receipting.</I> Classified information shall be enclosed in opaque inner and outer covers before transmitting. The inner cover shall be a sealed wrapper or envelope plainly marked with the assigned classification and addresses of both sender and addressee. Transmittal documents shall indicate on their face the highest level of any information transmitted, and must clearly state whether or not the transmittal document itself is classified after removal of enclosures and attachments. The outer cover shall be sealed and addressed with no identification of the classification of its contents. A receipt shall be attached to or enclosed in the inner cover, except that CONFIDENTIAL information shall require a receipt only if the sender deems it necessary. The receipt shall identify the sender, addressee, and the document but shall contain no classified information. It shall be immediately signed by the recipient and returned to the sender. Any of these wrapping and receipting requirements may be waived by agency heads under conditions that will provide adequate protection and prevent access by unauthorized persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transmittal of CONFIDENTIAL information.</I> CONFIDENTIAL information shall be transmitted within and between the fifty States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and U.S. territories or possessions by one of the means established for higher classifications, or by United States Postal Service, certified first class, or express mail service, when prescribed by an agency head. Outside these areas, CONFIDENTIAL information shall be transmitted only as is authorized for higher classification levels.
</P>
<P>(4) Transmittal of TOP SECRET and SECRET information shall be in accordance with the Directive. Reference may be made to 32 CFR 2001.44 for preliminary guidance.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Destruction.</I> Classified information no longer needed in working files or for record or reference purposes shall be processed for appropriate disposition in accordance with Chapters 21 and 33 of title 44 U.S.C., when govern disposition of Federal Records. All classified information approved for destruction must be torn and placed in containers designated as burnbags which are available through the Office Services Section of the Bank. Destruction of such information will be carried out by the Security Officer or a designee by use of a disintegrator or by burning. The method of destruction selected must preclude recognition or reconstruction of the classified information or material. Records of destruction will be maintained by the Security Office for TOP SECRET information and material with serialized markings or material for which there is a special need to record its destruction.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Reproduction controls.</I> (1) Reproduction of classified documents is prohibited, except by personnel authorized in writing by the Chairman or Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) TOP SECRET documents may not be reproduced without the consent of the originating agency unless otherwise marked by the originating office.
</P>
<P>(3) Reproduction of SECRET and CONFIDENTIAL documents may be restricted by the originating agency.
</P>
<P>(4) Reproduced copies of classified documents are subject to the same accountability and controls as the original documents.
</P>
<P>(5) Records shall be maintained by the Security Officer to show the number and distribution or reproduced copies of all TOP SECRET documents, of all documents covered by special access programs distributed outside the originating agency, and all SECRET and all CONFIDENTIAL documents which are marked with special dissemination and reproduction limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 403.11" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 403.11   Enforcement and investigation procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loss or Possible Compromise.</I> Any person who has knowledge of the loss or possible compromise of classified information shall immediately report the circumstances to the Security Officer of the Bank. In turn, the originating agency shall be notified about the loss or compromise in order that a damage assessment may be conducted and appropriate measures taken to negate or minimize any adverse effect, and prevent further such loss or compromise. An immediate inquiry shall be initiated by the Bank for the purposes: (1) Of determining cause and responsibility and (2) taking corrective measures and appropriate administrative, disciplinary, or legal action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting and Investigating Unauthorized Disclosures.</I> (1) Employees who have reason to believe that an unauthorized disclosure of classified information has occurred shall report the disclosure to their supervisor, who shall inform the Security Officer.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank shall promptly notify the Information Security Oversight Office at the General Services Administration, Washington, DC 20405, of all unauthorized disclosures of classified information.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Bank believes that it is the source of an unauthorized disclosure of classified information that it originated, it shall evaluate the disclosure under paragraph (b)(7) of this section. If the disclosure is serious, the Bank shall report the disclosure and the results of the evaluation to the Department of Justice together with notification that it is conducting an internal investigation.
</P>
<P>(4) If the Bank believes that it is the source of an unauthorized disclosure of classified information that it handled but did not originate, it shall report the disclosure to the Department of Justice and to the originating agency(ies) or department(s) for evaluation under paragraph (b)(7) of this section. If the Bank cannot determine the identity of the originating agency(ies) or department(s), it shall report the disclosure to the Department of Justice together with any information or reasonable inferences as to the identity of the originating agency(ies) or department(s).
</P>
<P>(5) If the Bank receives a request for an evaluation of information it originated, it shall, if the evaluation shows the disclosure was serious, inform the agency(ies) or department(s) from which the disclosure occurred of this conclusion and request that the agency(ies) or department(s) conduct an internal investigation.
</P>
<P>(6) If the Bank determines that an unauthorized disclosure of classified information has occurred but that it neither originated, handled nor disclosed the information, it shall report the disclosure to the likely originating agency(ies) or department(s).
</P>
<P>(7) In determining whether a disclosure is sufficiently serious to warrant reporting to the Department of Justice, the Bank, if it is the originating agency, shall ascertain the nature of the disclosed information, determine the extent to which it disseminated the information and evaluate the disclosure to determine whether it seriously damages its mission and responsibilities. In evaluating the damage caused by the disclosure, the Bank shall consider such matters as whether the disclosure jeopardizes an ongoing project, operation or source of information and to what extent the policy goals underlying the project or operation must be altered.
</P>
<P>(8) In any instance where the Bank is determined to be the source of an unauthorized disclosure and an evaluation by the Bank or the originating agency(ies) or department(s) determines the disclosure to be of a serious nature, an internal investigation will be initiated and an investigation report, containing such information as may be required by the Department of Justice, will be submitted to the Department of Justice within 15 days after notification from the originating agency or Department of Justice, but in any case no later than 30 days. If the investigation report is not completed within 15 days, the Bank shall submit as much of the required information as is available at that time and furnish additional information as it is developed. 
</P>
<P>(9) Whenever the Bank determines during the course of an investigation that it is necessary to compel or induce the cooperation of an employee, the Bank shall first consult with the Department of Justice. The Department of Justice will coordinate with the Bank to determine the procedures the Bank may use to compel an employee's participation without foreclosing possible criminal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(10) The Bank shall maintain records of all disclosures that have been reported or investigated.
</P>
<P>(11) All employees shall cooperate fully with officials of the Bank or other agencies who are conducting investigations of unauthorized disclosures of classified information.
</P>
<P>(12) Employees determined by the Bank to have knowingly participated in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information or who have refused to cooperate with an investigation of such a disclosure shall be denied further access to classified information and shall be subject to other appropriate administrative sanctions. Prior to taking action against an employee in connection with the unauthorized disclosure or classified information, the Bank shall consult with the Department of Justice, National Security Division. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 27215, July 2, 1985, as amended at 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="404" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 404—INFORMATION DISCLOSURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 635(a)(1); 5 U.S.C. 552, 5 U.S.C. 552(a), 5 U.S.C. 553.
</PSPACE><P>Section 404.7 also issued under E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235.
</P><P>Section 404.21 also issued under 5 U.S.C. 552a note.
</P><P>Subpart C also issued under 5 U.S.C. 301, 12 U.S.C. 635.
</P></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for Disclosure of Records Under the Freedom of Information Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 404.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.1   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart contains the rules that the Export-Import Bank of the United States (EXIM) follows in processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552. This subpart should be read in conjunction with the text of the FOIA and the Uniform Freedom of Information Fee Schedule and Guidelines published by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB Guidelines).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Requests made by individuals for records about themselves under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, are processed in accordance with EXIM's Privacy Act regulations in subpart B of this part as well as under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegation.</I> Any action or determination in this subpart which is the responsibility of a specific EXIM employee may be delegated.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.2" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.2   Proactive disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Records that the FOIA requires agencies to make available for public inspection in an electronic format may be accessed through the EXIM internet site at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia/frequently-requested-records-and-proactive-disclosures</I> and <I>https://data.exim.gov/.</I> EXIM is responsible for determining which records must be made publicly available, for identifying additional records of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records. EXIM must ensure that its website of posted records and indices is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. EXIM's FOIA Public Liaison can assist individuals in locating records particular to the agency. The contact information for the Public Liaison is available at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia,</I> along with other FOIA resources.
</P>
<P>(b) EXIM proactively discloses information at <I>data.exim.gov</I> on applications and transactions, whether denied or authorized, including: unique identifiers EXIM assigns; approval and declination decisions; the expiration date for a guarantee or insurance policy; whether an insurance policy was brokered or not; whether an approved transaction was cancelled after approval; the country where the credit risk is; the financing program or product that was applied for, including the type of any insurance; the primary export product; a product description; the length of financing on a deal; the principal applicant; the principal lender; the principal exporter; the city and state of the primary exporter; the company name of the principal borrower; the primary source of repayment; the amount of financing approved or declined; the amount of the loan or guarantee that has been disbursed or the amount that has been shipped on an insurance policy; the undisbursed exposure amount; the portion of the disbursed/shipped amount that has not been repaid; the portion of an approved amount that assisted a small business; the portion of an approved company that assisted a woman owned company; the portion of an approved amount that assisted a minority owned company; the interest rate being applied to a direct loan; and whether a working capital amount is pursuant to an extension of a previously approved working capital facility.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.3" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.3   Request requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before submitting a FOIA request, potential requesters are encouraged to review the information publicly available at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia/frequently-requested-records-and-proactive-disclosures</I> and <I>https://data.exim.gov/.</I> The material you seek may be immediately available at no cost.
</P>
<P>(b)(1)(i) A request for records must be made directly to EXIM in writing. Requests may be submitted to the EXIM FOIA Office:
</P>
<P>(A) By email to <I>foia@exim.gov</I>;
</P>
<P>(B) Using the online form available at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia</I>;
</P>
<P>(C) Using the online FOIAXpress PAL Portal available at <I>https://palprod.eximefoia.com/</I>; and
</P>
<P>(D) By mail addressed to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office, 811 Vermont Ave. NW, Washington, DC 20571.
</P>
<P>(E) In the alternative, requests may be submitted to the national request portal at <I>https://www.foia.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional resources and contact information are available at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who is making a request for records about himself or herself must comply with the verification of identity requirements as set forth at § 404.16(d). This requires the request and signature to be notarized. Requester may instead submit a statement under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a request for records pertains to another individual, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 by that individual authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or by submitting proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). As an exercise of administrative discretion, EXIM can require a requester to supply additional information if necessary, in order to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Each request must describe the records sought in sufficient detail to enable EXIM personnel to locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent possible, requesters should include specific information that may help EXIM identify the requested records, such as relevant dates, format, subject matter, title, transaction or reference number, and the name of any person to whom the record is known to relate. For assistance in drafting a records request, requesters can contact EXIM's FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(2) If after receiving a request EXIM determines that it does not reasonably describe the records sought, EXIM must inform the requester what additional information is needed or why the request is otherwise insufficient. Requesters who are attempting to reformulate or modify such a request may discuss their request with EXIM's FOIA contact or FOIA Public Liaison. If, after contacting the requestor, EXIM is unable to clarify the timeframe for which a particular request seeks records, EXIM may deem the request to be a request for records created within the preceding twelve months.
</P>
<P>(d) Requests may specify the preferred form or format (including electronic formats) for the records sought. EXIM will accommodate your request if the records are readily reproducible in that form or format.
</P>
<P>(e) Requesters must provide contact information, such as their phone number, email, and mailing address, to assist EXIM in communicating with them and providing released records.
</P>
<P>(f) A request must state the requester's willingness to pay any applicable fees or contain a request for a fee waiver. A requester may set a maximum amount the requester is willing to pay. The fee schedule and related provisions are provided in § 404.10. The ability to request fee waivers is set forth at § 404.11. EXIM will not process your request while clarifying fee issues.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.5" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.5   Responsibility for responding to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, EXIM ordinarily will only include records that qualify as agency records under the FOIA on the date EXIM begins its search. If any other date is used, EXIM must inform the requester of that date. A record that is excluded from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), is not considered responsive to a request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office is authorized to grant or deny any requests for records. This is the initial determination that can be appealed. The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office is also responsible for coordinating the search for responsive records and other matters concerning the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation, referral, and coordination.</I> When reviewing records located by EXIM in response to a request, EXIM will determine whether another agency of the Federal Government is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. With any such record, EXIM must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consultation.</I> When records originated with EXIM, but contain within them information of interest to another agency or Federal Government office, EXIM will typically consult with that other entity prior to making a release determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When EXIM determines that a different agency is best able to determine whether to disclose the record, EXIM will typically refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to that agency. Ordinarily, the agency that originated the record is presumed to be the best agency to make the disclosure determination. However, if the agency processing the request and the originating agency jointly agree that the agency processing the request is in the best position to respond regarding the record, then the record may be handled as a consultation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever EXIM refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it must document the referral, maintain a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name(s) of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption under FOIA, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. For example, if a non-law enforcement agency responding to a request for records on a living third party locates within its files records originating with a law enforcement agency, and if the existence of that law enforcement interest in the third party was not publicly known, then to disclose that law enforcement interest could cause an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of the third party. Similarly, if an agency locates within its files material originating with an Intelligence Community agency, and the involvement of that agency in the matter is classified and not publicly acknowledged, then to disclose or give attribution to the involvement of that Intelligence Community agency could cause national security harms. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, EXIM will typically coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the releasability of the record. Subsequently, EXIM will convey the release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Classified information.</I> On receipt of any request involving classified information, EXIM must determine whether the information is currently and properly classified in accordance with applicable laws. When a request involves a record containing information that has been classified or may be appropriate for classification by another agency under an applicable Executive order, EXIM must refer the request for response to the agency that classified the information, or should consider the information for classification. Whenever an agency's record contains information that has been derivatively classified (for example, when it contains information classified by another agency), EXIM must refer the responsibility for responding to that portion of the request to the agency that classified the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing of responses to consultations and referrals.</I> All consultations and referrals received by EXIM will be handled according to the date that the first agency received the FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Agreements regarding consultations and referrals.</I> EXIM may establish agreements with other agencies to eliminate the need for consultations or referrals with respect to particular types of records.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.6" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.6   Time for processing response to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> EXIM is obligated to respond to requests within 20 working days of the date of receipt of the request unless unusual circumstances exist. EXIM ordinarily processes requests according to their order of receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unusual circumstances</I> means, only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper process of requests:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect requested records from facilities that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation with another agency that has a substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of the agency having substantial subject matter interest therein. EXIM shall conduct any such consultations with all practicable speed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Working days</I> means all calendar days excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal Government holidays.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date of receipt.</I> A request will be deemed to have been received on the date that the request is received in the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office, provided that the requester has met all the mandatory requirements of § 404.4. EXIM will notify the requester of the date on which a request was officially received in the acknowledgment correspondence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order of processing.</I> EXIM will ordinarily process requests in order of receipt within their processing track.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> EXIM has designated processing tracks that distinguish between expedited, simple, and complex requests based on the estimated amount of work or time needed to process the request. Among the factors EXIM considers are the number of offices involved, the number of pages involved in processing the request and the need for consultation or referrals. EXIM will advise requesters of the track into which their request falls and, when appropriate, EXIM may offer the requester an opportunity to narrow or modify their request so that it can be placed in a different processing track.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> When EXIM cannot meet the statutory time limit for processing a request because of “unusual circumstances,” as defined in the FOIA, and extends the time limit on that basis, EXIM must, before expiration of the 20-day period to respond, notify the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances involved and of the date by which EXIM estimates processing of the request will be completed. Where the extension exceeds 10 working days, EXIM must provide the requester with an opportunity to modify the request or arrange an alternative time period for processing the original or modified request. EXIM's FOIA contact or Public Liaison is available for this purpose. EXIM will also alert requesters to the availability of the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) to provide dispute resolution services.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> To satisfy unusual circumstances under the FOIA, EXIM may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. EXIM cannot aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (1) EXIM must process requests and appeals on an expedited basis when EXIM determines that the requester or appellant has demonstrated:
</P>
<P>(i) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited processing could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a requester who is primarily engaged in disseminating information, an urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity. A requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the Government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about Government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic.
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing may be made at any time. When making a request for expedited processing of an administrative appeal, the request should be submitted to the EXIM's Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Law and Board Support.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for expedited processing and other submissions in support of the request must be accompanied by a statement certified by the requester to be true and correct to the best of his or her knowledge and belief. EXIM may waive this formal certification requirement as a matter of discretion. The statement must be in the form prescribed by 28 U.S.C. 1746:
</P>
<P>(i) If executed within the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. Executed on [date]. (signature).”
</P>
<P>(ii) If executed outside the United States: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on (date). (Signature).”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Determination.</I> Upon receipt of a request for expedited processing, EXIM will consider the request and notify the requester of its determination within 10 calendar days of receipt of the request. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request will be given priority and will be placed in a processing track for expedited requests and processed as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Appeal.</I> A requester may file an administrative appeal, as set forth at § 404.12, based on a denial of a request for expedited processing. EXIM will grant expeditious consideration to any such appeal. The appeal should be clearly marked “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.7" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.7   Release of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Foreseeable harm standard.</I> As required by the FOIA, EXIM will disclose material unless it reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption or disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Segregable records.</I> Whenever it is determined that a portion of a record is exempt from disclosure, any reasonably segregable portion of the record will be provided to the requester after redaction of the exempt material.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.8" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.8   Responses to requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> To the extent practicable, EXIM will communicate with requesters having access to the internet electronically through email or web portal available at <I>https://www.exim.gov/about/foia.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgment of request.</I> EXIM must acknowledge all FOIA requests in writing and assign a request number for reference and tracking the status of the request online. EXIM must also include in the acknowledgment a brief description of the records sought to allow requesters to more easily keep track of their request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Estimated dates of completion and interim responses.</I> Upon request, EXIM will provide an estimated date by which EXIM expects to provide a response to the requester. If a request involves a voluminous amount of material or searches in multiple locations, EXIM may provide interim responses, releasing the records on a rolling basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grant of request.</I> Once EXIM has made a determination to grant a request in whole or in part, it will notify the requester in writing. EXIM also will inform the requester of any fees charged under § 404.10 and will disclose the requested records to the requester promptly upon payment of any applicable fees. EXIM shall inform the requester that EXIM's FOIA Public Liaison is available to offer assistance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adverse determination.</I> EXIM will notify the requester in writing if it makes an adverse determination denying a request in any respect. Adverse determination or denials of request may include decisions that: the requested records are exempt in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested records do not exist, cannot be located or have been destroyed; or the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester. Adverse determinations also include denials involving fees or fee waiver matters or denials of requests for expedited processing. Whenever EXIM makes an adverse determination, the denial notice will be signed by the Chief FOIA Officer or other appropriate executive or designee and include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(2) A brief statement of the reasons for the denial, including any FOIA exemption applied in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the volume of any records or information withheld, such as the number of pages or some other reasonable form of estimation, although such an estimate is not required if the volume is otherwise indicated by deletions marked on records that are disclosed in part, or if providing an estimate would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the denial may be appealed under § 404.12(a) and a description of the requirements of § 404.12(a); and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement notifying the requester of the assistance available from FOIA Public Liaison and the dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Markings on released documents.</I> Markings on released documents must be clearly visible to the requester. Records disclosed in part will be marked to show the amount of information deleted and the exemption under which the deletion was made unless doing so would harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of record exclusions.</I> (1) In the event that EXIM identifies records that may be subject to exclusion from the requirements of the FOIA pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(c), EXIM must confer with the Department of Justice (DOJ) Office of Information Policy (OIP) to obtain approval to apply the exclusion.
</P>
<P>(2) When invoking an exclusion EXIM will maintain an administrative record of the process of invocation and approval of the exclusion by OIP.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.9" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.9   Confidential commercial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information.</I> Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained by EXIM from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter.</I> Any person or entity, including a corporation, State, or foreign government, but not including another Federal Government entity, that provides confidential commercial information, either directly or indirectly to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submitter designation.</I> All submitters of confidential commercial information must use good faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, at the time of submission, any portion of their submissions that they consider to be exempt from disclosure under Exemption 4. This obligation continues after submission, such that a submitter should inform EXIM if it later identifies submitted information that was not marked or newly considers submitted information to be protected by Exemption 4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-disclosure notice to the submitter.</I> EXIM must provide prompt written notice to the submitter of information that is potentially confidential commercial information whenever records containing such information are requested under the FOIA if EXIM determines that it may be required to disclose the records and:
</P>
<P>(1) The requested information has been designated by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(2) EXIM has a reason to believe that the requested information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4, but has not yet determined whether the information is protected from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice requirements.</I> The notice must either describe the commercial information requested or include a copy of the requested records or portions of records containing the information. In cases involving a voluminous number of submitters, EXIM may post or publish a notice in a place or manner reasonably likely to inform the submitters of the proposed disclosure, instead of sending individual notifications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When notice is not required.</I> EXIM does not need to send the notice called for by paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) EXIM determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA, and therefore will not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by a statute other than the FOIA or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 of June 23, 1987; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (b) of this section appears obviously frivolous. In such case, EXIM must give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date, as specified in paragraph (g) of this section for disclosures made over a submitter's objection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Timeline for a response.</I> (i) A submitter located within the United States will have 10 working days from and including the date of the notification letter to respond to an EXIM notice sent under paragraph (c) of this section, unless another reasonable time period is specified in EXIM's notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) A submitter located outside the United States will have 20 working days from and including the date of the notification letter to respond to an EXIM notice sent under paragraph (c) of this section, unless another reasonable time period is specified in EXIM's notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) EXIM may extend the time for objection upon timely request from the submitter and for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of submitter's response.</I> (i) If a submitter has any objections to EXIM's disclosure of the information identified in the notice, the submitter should specify all grounds for EXIM to withhold the particular information under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(ii) In order to rely on Exemption 4 as a basis for EXIM withholding any of the information as confidential commercial information, the submitter must provide a specific and detailed written explanation of why the information constitutes a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. A submitter invoking Exemption 4 in its response should consider including or addressing the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Why the information qualifies as a trade secret or is privileged; or
</P>
<P>(B) Why the information is confidential commercial or financial information.
</P>
<P>(iii) A submitter who fails to respond within the time period specified will be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. EXIM will not consider any information received after this time period.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any information provided by a submitter under this subpart may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA and should be appropriately marked if confidential.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notices to the requester.</I> EXIM will notify the requester in writing whenever EXIM provides a submitter the opportunity to object to disclosure of records pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section; whenever EXIM notifies the submitter of EXIM's intent to disclose information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consideration of a submitter's response.</I> EXIM must consider a submitter's timely response prior to making its disclosure decision, including all objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> Whenever EXIM decides to disclose information over the objection of a submitter, EXIM must notify the submitter, in writing, of EXIM's determination. EXIM must include in this notice:
</P>
<P>(1) The reasons for the disclosure decision, including a response to each of the submitter's disclosure objections; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed or copies of the records as EXIM intends to release them; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date, which must provide the submitter a reasonable time after the notice to file suit to prevent the disclosure. This time period will be at least 10 working days from EXIM's transmission of the notice of intent to disclose.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Appeals by requesters.</I> In response to a requester's administrative appeal of a withholding under Exemption 4, EXIM will comply with the provisions of this section before disclosing any such information.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Notice of requester's FOIA lawsuit.</I> EXIM must promptly notify the submitter whenever a requester brings suit against EXIM seeking to compel the disclosure of confidential commercial information.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Publicly available information.</I> EXIM may, upon request or on its own initiative, publicly disclose the information contained at <I>exim.data.gov,</I> listed at § 404.2, including the parties to transactions for which EXIM approves support, the amount of such support, the identity of any primary participants involved, a general description of the related U.S. exports, and the country to which such exports are destined.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.10" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.10   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> EXIM will charge fees to recover the full allowable direct costs it incurs in processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and OMB Guidelines. OMB Guidelines are accessible at <I>https://www.justice.gov/oip/foia-resources.</I> Requesters may seek a fee waiver. EXIM will consider requests for fee waiver in accordance with the requirements in § 404.11. To resolve any fee issues that arise under this section, EXIM may contact a requester for additional information. EXIM will attempt to conduct searches in the most efficient manner to minimize costs. EXIM ordinarily will collect all applicable fees before sending copies of records to a requester. Requesters must pay fees by check or money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States, or another method EXIM determines.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use request.</I> A request for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade or profit interest of the requester, which can include furthering those interests through litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Direct costs.</I> Expenditures EXIM incurs in searching for and duplicating (and, in the case of commercial use requests, reviewing) records in response to a FOIA request. For example, direct costs include the salary of the employee performing the work (<I>i.e.,</I> the basic rate of pay for the employee, including locality pay adjustment, plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits), fees associated with the return of records stored offsite, the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment, such as photocopiers and scanners. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as the costs of space, and of heating or lighting a facility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duplication.</I> Is reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Educational institution.</I> Any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in the fee category in this paragraph (b)(4) must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the education institution. EXIM may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Example 1.</I> A request from a professor of geology at a university for records relating to soil erosion, written on letterhead of the Department of Geology, would be presumed to be from an educational institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example 2.</I> A request from the same professor of geology seeking drug information from the Food and Drug Administration in furtherance of a murder mystery he is writing would not be presumed to be an institutional request, regardless of whether it was written on institutional stationery.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Example 3.</I> A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request, would qualify as part of this fee category.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution.</I> An institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for purposes of a “commercial use request,” and is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A requester in the fee category in this paragraph (b)(5) must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for commercial use. EXIM will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Representative of the news media.</I> Any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw material into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations that broadcast “news” to the public at large and publishers of periodicals that disseminate “news” and make their products available through a variety of means to the general public, including news organizations that disseminate solely on the internet. A request for records supporting the news-dissemination function of the requester will not be considered to be for a commercial use. “Freelance” journalists who demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through a news media entity will be considered as a representative of the news media. A publishing contract would provide the clearest evidence that publication is expected; however EXIM can also consider a requester's past publication record in making this determination. EXIM will advise requesters of their placement in the fee category in this paragraph (b)(6).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Review.</I> The process of examining a record in response to a request to determine whether any portion is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by confidential commercial information submitter under § 404.9, but it does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Search.</I> The process of looking for, identifying, and collecting records responsive to a request. For fee purposes, this refers to all time spent looking for materials that is responsive to a request. Searches may be conducted manually or by electronic means. Search time includes page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within records and the reasonable efforts expended to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categories of requesters.</I> Fees will be assessed depending on the category of the requester. The specific schedule of fees for each requester category is prescribed as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use requesters.</I> EXIM will charge the full costs for search, review, and duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational, non-commercial scientific institution, and representatives of the news media requesters.</I> When the records are not sought for commercial use, EXIM will charge only for the cost of duplication in excess of 100 pages and no fee will be charged for search or review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>All other requesters.</I> For requesters who are not covered by paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, EXIM will charge for the cost of search and duplication, except that the first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent of other media) and two hours of search time will be furnished without charge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Search and review fees.</I> Subject to the restrictions in paragraph (i) of this section and in accordance with the applicable requester categories in paragraph (c) of this section, EXIM will charge the following fees for search and review, based on:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Clerical.</I> Hourly rate—$33.00.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Professional.</I> Hourly rate—$57.00
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Direct cost.</I> Hourly rate—based upon the salary of the employee performing (base salary, including locality pay adjustment, and 16 percent for benefits). May also include fees for the return of records stored offsite, the cost of operating computers and other electronic equipment.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quarter-hour period.</I> No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No fee.</I> No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Search.</I> (1) Subject to the restrictions in paragraph (i) of this section EXIM will charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2) EXIM may properly charge for time spent searching even if EXIM does not locate any responsive records or if EXIM determines that the records are entirely exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) EXIM will charge the direct cost associated with conducting any search that requires the creation of a new computer program to locate the requested records. EXIM must notify the requester of the cost associated with creating such a program, and the requester must agree to pay the associated cost before the costs may be incurred.
</P>
<P>(4) For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by EXIM at a records storage facility, including a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), EXIM will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transactional Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duplication.</I> EXIM will charge duplication fees to all requesters, subject to the restrictions of paragraph (b) of this section. EXIM must honor a requester's preference for receiving a record in a particular form or format where EXIM can readily produce it in the form or format requested. Where photocopies are supplied, EXIM will provide one copy per request at the cost of $.10 per page. For copies of records produced on disk or other media, EXIM will charge the direct cost of producing the copy, including operator time. Where paper documents must be scanned in order to comply with a requester's preference to receive the records in an electronic format, the requester must also pay the direct costs associated with scanning those materials. For other forms of duplication, EXIM will charge the direct costs. EXIM may also offer the requester the opportunity to alter the request in order to reduce duplication costs.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review.</I> EXIM will charge review fees to requesters who make commercial use requests. Review fees will be assessed in connection with the initial review of the record, <I>i.e.,</I> the review conducted by EXIM to determine whether an exemption applies to a particular record or portion of a record. No charge will be made for review at the administrative appeal stage of exemptions applied at the initial review stage. However, if a particular exemption is deemed to no longer apply, any costs associated with EXIM's re-review of the records in order to consider the use of other exemptions may be assessed as review fees. Review fees will be charged at the same rates as those charged for a search under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special services charges.</I> Complying with requests for special services such as those listed in this paragraph (h) is entirely at the discretion of EXIM. EXIM will recover the full costs of providing such services to the extent that it elects to provide them.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certifications.</I> EXIM will charge $25.00 to certify the authenticity of any EXIM record or any copy of such record.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special shipping.</I> EXIM may ship by special means (<I>e.g.,</I> express mail) if the requester so desires, provided that the requester has paid or has expressly undertaken to pay all costs of such special services. EXIM will not charge for ordinary packaging and mailing.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When EXIM determines that a requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, it will not charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2) If EXIM fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to a request:
</P>
<P>(i) It will not charge search fees, or, in the instance of request from requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may not charge duplication fees, except as follows in paragraphs (d)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If EXIM has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and EXIM provided timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 working days.
</P>
<P>(iii) If EXIM has determined that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, EXIM may charge search fees, or in the case of requesters described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. EXIM must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA and EXIM must have discussed with the requester via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If the exception in this paragraph (d)(2)(iii) is satisfied, EXIM may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> (1) When EXIM determines or estimates that the fees to be assessed in accordance with this section will exceed $25.00, EXIM must notify the requester of the actual or estimated amount of the fees, including a breakdown of the fees for search, review, or duplication, unless the requester has indicated a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. If only a portion of the fees can be estimated readily, EXIM will advise the requester accordingly. If the request is not for noncommercial use, the notice will specify that the requester is entitled to the statutory entitlements of 100 pages of duplication at no charge and, if the requester is charged search fees, two hours of search time at no charge, and will advise the requester whether those entitlements have been provided.
</P>
<P>(2) If EXIM notifies the requester that the actual or estimated fees are in excess of $25.00, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the requester commits in writing to pay actual or estimated total fees, or designates some amount of fees the requester is willing to pay, or in the case of a non-commercial use requester who has not yet been provided with the requester's statutory entitlements, designates that the requester seeks only that which can be provided by statutory entitlements. The requester must provide the commitment or designation in writing, and must, when applicable, designate an exact dollar amount the requester is willing to pay. EXIM will not accept payments in installments.
</P>
<P>(3) If the requester has indicated a willingness to pay some designated amount of fees, but EXIM estimates that the total fee will exceed that amount, EXIM will toll the processing of the request when it notifies the requester of the estimated fees in excess of the amount the requester has indicated a willingness to pay. EXIM will inquire whether the requester wishes to revise the amount of fees the requester is willing to pay or modify the request. Once the requester responds, the time to respond will resume from where it was at the date of notifications.
</P>
<P>(4) EXIM's FOIA Public Liaison or another FOIA professional is available to assist any requester in reformulating a request to meet the requester's needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Charging interest.</I> EXIM may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided by 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the billing date until payment is received by EXIM. EXIM follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat.1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Aggregating requests for fee purposes.</I> When EXIM reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting in concert is attempting to divide a single request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, EXIM may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. EXIM may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a 30-day period have been made in order to avoid fees. For requests separated by a longer period, EXIM will aggregate them only where there is a reasonable basis for determining that aggregation is warranted in view of all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters cannot be aggregated.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Advance payments.</I> (1) For requests other than those described in paragraph (n)(2) or (3) of this section, EXIM cannot require the requester to make an advance payment before work is commenced or continues on a request. Payment owed for work already completed (<I>i.e.,</I> payment before copies are sent to the request) is not an advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) When EXIM determines or estimates that a total fee to be charged under this section will exceed $250.00, it may require that the requester make an advance payment up to the amount of the entire anticipated fee before beginning to process the request. EXIM may elect to process the request prior to collecting fees when it receives a satisfactory assurance of full payment from a requester with a history of prompt payment.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a requester has previously failed to pay a properly charged FOIA fee to any agency within 30 calendar days of the billing date, EXIM may require that the requester pay the full amount due, plus any applicable interest on that prior request, and EXIM may require that the requester make an advance payment of the full amount of any anticipated fee before EXIM begins to process a new request or continues to process a pending request or any pending appeal. Where EXIM has a reasonable basis to believe that a requester has misrepresented the requester's identity in order to avoid paying outstanding fees, it may require that the requester provide proof of identity.
</P>
<P>(4) In cases in which EXIM requires advance payment, the request will not be considered received and further work will not be completed until the required payment is received. If the requester does not pay the advance payment within 30 calendar days after the date of EXIM's fee determination, the request will be closed.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Other statutes specifically providing for fees.</I> The fee schedule of this section does not apply to fees charged under any statute that specifically requires an agency to set and collect fees for particular types of records. In instances where records responsive to a request are subject to a statutorily-based fee schedule program, EXIM must inform the requester of the contact information for that program.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.11" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.11   Fee waivers or reductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Requesters may seek a waiver of fees by submitting a written request demonstrating how disclosure of the requested information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of request for fee waiver.</I> EXIM must furnish records responsive to a request without charge or at a reduced rate when it determines, based on all available information, that the factors described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure of the requester information would shed light on the operations or activities of the Government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure of the requested information is likely to contribute to the public understanding of those operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about Government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or substantially identical for, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public understanding.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area as well as the requester's ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, EXIM will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) EXIM must identify whether the requester has any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. Requesters must be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest EXIM must determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request.
</P>
<P>(4) A waiver or reduction of fees is justified when the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section are satisfied and any commercial interest is not the primary interest furthered by the request. EXIM ordinarily will presume that when a news media requester has satisfied paragraphs (b)(1) and (2), the request is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return will not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(5) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees under this section, a waiver must be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(6) Requests for a waiver or reduction of fees should be made when the request is first submitted to EXIM and should address the criteria referenced in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) of this section. A requester may submit a fee waiver request at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. When a requester who has committed to pay fees subsequently asks for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, the requester must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received.
</P>
<P>(7) In all cases, the requester has the burden of presenting sufficient evidence or information to justify the fee waiver or reduction. The requester may use the procedures set forth in § 404.12 to appeal a denial of a fee waiver request.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.12" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.12   Administrative appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for making an appeal.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determination to the EXIM's Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Law and Board Support. Requesters can submit appeals by mail or via email at <I>FOIA.Appeals@exim.gov</I> in accordance with the following requirements: Appeals must be made in writing and contain the appellant's contact information, such as return address, email, or telephone number. To be timely it must be postmarked, or in the case of electronic submissions, transmitted within 90 calendar days after the date of the final response. The appeal should clearly identify the EXIM determination that is being appealed and the assigned request number. To facilitate handling, the requester should mark both appeal letter and envelope, or subject line of the electronic transmission, “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudication of appeals.</I> (1) The Assistant General Counsel for Administrative Law and Board Support or designee will act on behalf of EXIM's Chief FOIA officer on all appeals under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) On receipt of any appeal involving classified information, EXIM must take appropriate action to ensure compliance with applicable classification laws.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisions on appeals.</I> A decision that upholds an agency's determination, in whole or in part, must contain a statement that identifies the reasons for the affirmance, including any FOIA exemptions applied. The decision must provide the requester with notification of the statutory right to file a lawsuit and will inform the requester of the mediation services offered by the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) of National Archives and Records Administration as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation. If EXIM's initial determination is remanded or modified on appeal, EXIM will notify the requester of that determination in writing. EXIM will then further process the request in accordance with that appeal determination and will respond directly to the requester.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Engaging in dispute resolution services provided by OGIS.</I> Mediation is a voluntary process. If EXIM agrees to participate in the mediation services provided by OGIS, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When appeal is required.</I> Before seeking review by a court of an adverse determination, a requester generally must submit a timely administrative appeal.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.13" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.13   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>EXIM will preserve all correspondence pertaining to the request that it receives under this subpart, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized pursuant to title 44 of the United States Code or the General Records Schedule 4.2 of the National Archives and Records Administration. EXIM will not dispose or destroy records while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, or lawsuit under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Access to Records Under the Privacy Act of 1974</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.14" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.14   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes policies, procedures, requirements, and responsibilities for administration of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, at the Export-Import Bank of the United States (Ex-Im Bank).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relationship to the Freedom of Information Act.</I> The Privacy Act applies to records contained in a systems of records, as defined in § 404.15. If an individual submits a request for access to records and cites the Privacy Act, but the records sought are not contained in a Privacy Act system of records, then the request shall be processed only under subpart A of this part, Procedures for Disclosure of Records Under the Freedom of Information Act. All requests properly processed under this subpart B shall also be processed under subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appellate authority.</I> The Ex-Im Bank Assistant General Counsel for Administration is the appellate authority for all Privacy Act requests.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delegation.</I> Any action or determination in this subpart which is the responsibility of a specific Ex-Im Bank employee may be delegated to a duly designated alternate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Ex-Im Bank address.</I> The Export-Import Bank of the United States is located at 811 Vermont Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20571.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41041, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.15" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.15   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Appeal</I>—A written request to the Ex-Im Bank Assistant General Counsel for Administration for reversal of an adverse initial determination.
</P>
<P><I>Final determination</I>—The written decision by the Assistant General Counsel for Administration on an appeal.
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I>—A citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
</P>
<P><I>Initial determination</I>—The initial written determination in response to a Privacy Act request.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I>—Any item, collection or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained within a system of records and that contains the individual's name or an identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Redaction</I>—The process of removing non-disclosable material from a record so that the remainder may be released.
</P>
<P><I>Request for access</I>—A request to view a record.
</P>
<P><I>Request for accounting</I>—A request for a list of all disclosures of a record.
</P>
<P><I>Request for correction</I>—A request to modify a record.
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I>—An individual who makes a request under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I>—The process of examining a record to determine whether any portion is required to be withheld.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I>—The process of identifying and collecting records pursuant to a request.
</P>
<P><I>System of records</I>—A group of any records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or some identifying number, symbol or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<P><I>Working days</I>—All calendar days excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal Government holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.16" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.16   Requirements of request for access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> Requests for access must be made in writing and must be signed by the requester. Requests should be addressed to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office at the address in § 404.14(e) and should contain both the return address and telephone number of the requester.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of records sought.</I> A request for access must describe the records sought in sufficient detail so as to enable Ex-Im Bank personnel to locate the system of records containing the records with a reasonable amount of effort. To the extent practicable, such description should include the nature of the record sought, the date of the record or the period in which the record was compiled, and the name or identifying number of the system of records in which the requester believes the record is kept. A requester may include his or her social security number in the request in order to facilitate the identification and location of the requested records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee statement.</I> The request must contain a statement expressing willingness to pay fees for processing the request or a request for a fee waiver (see § 404.18(d)).
</P>
<P>(1) Whenever a requester submits a request for access that does not contain a fee statement or a request for a fee waiver, Ex-Im Bank shall advise the requester of the requirements of this section. If the requester fails to respond within ten working days of such notification, then the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall notify the requester, in writing, that Ex-Im Bank will not process the request.
</P>
<P>(2) A general statement by the requester expressing willingness to pay all applicable fees shall be deemed an agreement to pay up to $25.00. If Ex-Im Bank estimates that the fees for a request will exceed $25.00, then Ex-Im Bank shall notify the requester. Ex-Im Bank shall offer the requester the opportunity to agree, in writing, either to pay a greater fee or to modify the request as a means of limiting the cost.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever the estimated fee chargeable under this section exceeds $25.00, Ex-Im Bank reserves the right to require a requester to make an advance payment prior to processing the request.
</P>
<P>(4) Ex-Im Bank shall not process a request by a requester who has failed to pay a fee for a previous request unless and until such requester had paid the full amount owed and also has paid, in advance, the total estimated charges for the new request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Verification of identity.</I> An individual who submits a request for access must verify his or her identity. The request must include the requesters full name, current address, and date and place of birth. In addition, such requester must provide a notarized statement attesting to his or her identity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Verification of guardianship.</I> When a parent or guardian of a minor or the guardian of a person judicially determined to be incompetent submits a request for access to records that relate to the minor or incompetent, such parent or guardian must establish:
</P>
<P>(1) His or her own identity and the identity of the subject of the record in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) Parentage or guardianship of the subject of the record, either by providing a copy of the subject's birth certificate showing parentage or by providing a court order establishing guardianship.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Written notice of amendment.</I> The requester must provide any amendment to the original request in writing to Ex-Im Bank.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requester assistance.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall make reasonable efforts to assist a requester in complying with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Date of receipt.</I> Requests for access shall be deemed to have been received on the date that the request is received by the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office, provided that all the requirements of this section have been met. Ex-Im Bank shall notify the requester of the date on which it officially received a request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41041, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.17" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.17   Initial determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time for processing.</I> The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall respond to valid requests for access within twenty working days of the date of receipt of the request letter. The time for response may be extended an additional ten working days for good cause, provided that the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office notifies the requester in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice regarding request for access.</I> The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall notify the requester in writing of its decision to grant or deny a request for access.
</P>
<P>(1) If the request is granted, then the notice shall either include the requested records, in releasable form, or shall describe the manner in which access to the record will be granted. The notice also shall inform the requester of any processing fee.
</P>
<P>(2) A denial is a determination to withhold any requested record in whole or in part or a determination that the requested record does not exist or cannot be located. If the request is denied, then the denial notice shall state:
</P>
<P>(i) The name, signature, and title or position of the person responsible for the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for the denial; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedure for appeal of the denial under § 404.19 and a brief description of the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of record disclosure.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall grant access to the requested records either by providing the requester with a copy of the record or, at the requester's option, by making the record available for inspection at a reasonable time and place. If Ex-Im Bank makes the record available for inspection, such inspection shall not unreasonably disrupt Ex-Im Bank operations. In addition, the requester must provide a form of official photographic identification—such as a passport, driver's license or identification badge—and any other form of identification bearing his or her name and address prior to inspection of the requested records. Records may be inspected by the requester in the presence of another individual, provided that the requester signs a form stating that Ex-Im Bank is authorized to disclose the record in the presence of both individuals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41042, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.18" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.18   Schedule of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Search and review.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall not charge for search and review.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duplication.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall charge $.10 per page for paper copy duplication. Ex-Im Bank shall charge the actual or estimated cost of copies prepared by computer, such as tape or printouts, or for other methods of reproduction or duplication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum fee.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall waive final fees of $5.00 or less.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fee waivers.</I> Ex-Im Bank may waive fees whenever it is determined to be in the public interest. Fees of less than $50.00 shall be waived in connection with any request by an employee, former employee or applicant for employment, related to a grievance or complaint of discrimination against Ex-Im Bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Special services charges.</I> Complying with requests for special services such as those listed in this paragraph is entirely at the discretion of Ex-Im Bank. Ex-Im Bank shall recover the full costs of providing such services to the extent that it elects to provide them.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certifications.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall charge $25.00 to certify the authenticity of any Ex-Im Bank record or any copy of such record.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special shipping.</I> Ex-Im Bank may ship by special means (e.g., express mail) if the requester so desires, provided that the requester has paid or has expressly undertaken to pay all costs of such special services. Ex-Im Bank shall not charge for ordinary packaging and mailing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.19" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.19   Appeal of denials of access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeals to the Assistant General Counsel for Administration.</I> Whenever Ex-Im Bank denies a request for access or for waiver or reduction of fees, the requester may appeal the denial to the Assistant General Counsel for Administration within 30 working days of the date of Ex-Im Bank's issuance of notice of such action. Appeals must be made in writing and must be signed by the appellant. Appeals should be addressed to the Assistant General Counsel for Administration at the address in § 404.14(e). Both the envelope and the appeal letter should be clearly marked in capital letters: “PRIVACY ACT APPEAL.” Failure to properly mark or address the appeal may slow its processing. An appeal shall not be deemed to have been received by Ex-Im Bank until the Assistant General Counsel for Administration receives the appeal letter. The letter should include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the denied request or a description of the records requested;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and title of the Ex-Im Bank employee who denied the request;
</P>
<P>(3) The date on which the request was denied; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Ex-Im Bank identification number assigned to the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final determination.</I> The disposition of an access appeal shall be made in writing within twenty working days after the date of receipt of the appeal. The Assistant General Counsel for Administration may extend the time for response an additional ten working days for good cause, provided that the requester is notified in writing. A decision affirming the denial of a request for access shall include a brief statement of the reasons for affirming the denial and shall advise the requester of the right to seek judicial review. If the initial determination is reversed, then the request shall be remanded to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office to be processed in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41042, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.20" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.20   Requests for correction of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> Requests for correction must be made in writing and must be signed by the requester. Requests should be addressed to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office at the address in § 404.14(e) and should contain both the return address and telephone number of the requester. The request must identify the particular record in question, state the correction sought, and set forth the justification for the correction. The requester also must verify his or her identity in accordance with the procedures set forth at § 404.16(d) and (e). Both the envelope and the request for correction itself should be clearly marked in capital letters: “PRIVACY ACT CORRECTION REQUEST.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination.</I> The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall respond to valid correction requests within ten working days of receipt of the request letter. If Ex-Im Bank grants the request for correction, then the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall advise the requester of his or her right to obtain a copy, in releasable form, of the corrected record. A denial notice shall state the reasons for the denial and shall advise the requester of the right to appeal. Ex-Im Bank shall not charge for processing requests for correction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appeal of denial of request for correction.</I> Whenever Ex-Im Bank denies a request for correction, the requester may appeal the denial to the Assistant General Counsel for Administration within thirty working days of Ex-Im Bank's issuance of notice of such action. Appeals must be made in writing and must be signed by the appellant. Appeals should be addressed to the Assistant General Counsel for Administration at the address set forth in § 404.14(e). Both the envelope and the appeal letter should be clearly marked in capital letters: “PRIVACY ACT CORRECTION APPEAL.” Failure to properly mark or address the appeal may slow its processing. An appeal shall not be deemed to have been received by Ex-Im Bank until the Assistant General Counsel for Administration receives the appeal letter. The letter must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the denied request or a description of the correction sought;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and title of the Ex-Im Bank employee who denied the request;
</P>
<P>(3) The date on which the request was denied;
</P>
<P>(4) The Ex-Im Bank identification number assigned to the request; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any information said to justify the correction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final determination on correction appeal.</I> (1) The disposition of an appeal shall be made in writing within twenty working days after the date of receipt of an appeal. The Assistant General Counsel for Administration may extend the time for response an additional ten working days for good cause, provided that the requester is notified in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) A decision affirming the denial of a request for access shall advise the appellant of the:
</P>
<P>(i) Reasons for affirming the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) Right to seek judicial review; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Right to file a statement of disagreement, as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If the initial determination is reversed, then the request shall be remanded to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office to be processed in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Statement of disagreement.</I> Upon denial of a correction appeal, the appellant shall have the right to file a statement of disagreement with Ex-Im Bank, setting forth his or her reasons for disagreeing with the Agency's action. The statement should be addressed to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office at the address in § 404.14(e) and must be received within thirty working days of Ex-Im Bank's issuance of the denial notice. A statement of disagreement must not exceed one typed page per fact disputed. Statements exceeding this limit shall be returned to the requester for editing. Upon receipt of a statement of disagreement under this section, the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall have the statement included in the system of records in which the disputed record is maintained and shall have the disputed record marked so as to indicate that a Statement of Disagreement has been filed. Ex-Im Bank may also append to the disputed record a written statement regarding Ex-Im Bank's reasons for denying the request to correct the record.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notices of correction or disagreement.</I> In any disclosure of a record for which Ex-Im Bank has received a statement of disagreement, Ex-Im Bank shall clearly note any portion of the record which is disputed and shall provide a copy of the statement of disagreement. Ex-Im Bank also may provide its own statement regarding the disputed record. In addition, whenever Ex-Im Bank corrects a record or receives a statement of disagreement, Ex-Im Bank shall, as is reasonable under the circumstances, advise any person or agency to which it previously disclosed such record of the correction or statement, provided that an accounting of such disclosure exists.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41042, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.21" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.21   Request for accounting of record disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required information.</I> With respect to each system of records under Ex-Im Bank control, Ex-Im Bank shall maintain an accurate accounting of the date, nature, and purpose of each external disclosure of a record and the name and address of all persons, organizations, and agencies to which disclosure has been made. Ex-Im Bank shall retain this accounting for at least five years or the life of the record, whichever is longer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form.</I> An individual may obtain an accounting of all disclosures of a record, provided that such individual establishes his or her identity as the subject of such record in accordance with the procedures set forth at § 404.16(d) and (e). A request for an accounting must be made in writing and must be signed by the requester. The request should be addressed to the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office at the address in § 404.14(e) and should contain both the return address and telephone number of the requester. Both the envelope and the request itself should be clearly be marked in capital letters: “PRIVACY ACT ACCOUNTING REQUEST.” Failure to properly mark or address the request may slow its processing. The request shall not be deemed to have been received by Ex-Im Bank until the Freedom of Information and Privacy Office receives the request. The letter must clearly identify the particular record for which the accounting is requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial determination.</I> The Freedom of Information and Privacy Office shall notify the requester whether the request will be granted or denied within ten working days of receipt of a valid request for an accounting. Ex-Im Bank shall not charge for processing such a request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall not be required to provide an accounting to an individual when the accounting relates to a disclosure made:
</P>
<P>(1) To an employee within the agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Under the FOIA; or
</P>
<P>(3) To a law enforcement agency for an authorized law enforcement activity in response to a written request from such agency which specified the law enforcement activity for which the disclosure was sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41042, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.22" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.22   Notice of court-ordered and emergency disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Court-ordered disclosures.</I> When a record pertaining to an individual is required to be disclosed by a court order, the Assistant General Counsel for Administration shall make reasonable efforts to provide notice to the subject individual. Notice shall be given within a reasonable time after Ex-Im Bank's receipt of the order, except that in a case in which the order is not a matter of public record, notice shall be given only after the order becomes public. Such notice shall be mailed to the individual's last known address and shall contain a copy of the order and a description of the information disclosed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency disclosures.</I> If a record has been disclosed by Ex-Im Bank under compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of any person, then, within ten working days, the Assistant General Counsel for Administration shall notify the subject individual of the disclosure at his or her last known address. The notice of such disclosure shall be in writing and shall state the:
</P>
<P>(1) Nature of the information disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) Person, organization or agency to which it was disclosed;
</P>
<P>(3) Date of disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(4) Compelling circumstances justifying the disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.23" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.23   Submission of social security and passport numbers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policy.</I> Ex-Im Bank recognizes the importance of assessing, to the extent reasonably possible, the risks associated with transactions supported by Ex-Im Bank. It is often difficult to assess risks related to individuals and non-publicly trade entities. Therefore, when an individual or a non-publicly traded entity applies for participation in an Ex-Im Bank program or is proposed as a guarantor for an Ex-Im Bank transaction, Ex-Im Bank may request social security and/or U.S. passport numbers from such individual or from the principals of such entity. Ex-Im Bank shall not require submission of this information, and unwillingness or inability to provide a social security or passport number shall not affect Ex-Im Bank's decision on an application for Ex-Im Bank assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall use social security and passport numbers to assess the creditworthiness of Ex-Im Bank program participants and as a mechanism for enforcing agreements with Ex-Im Bank. Such information shall not be disclosed, except as warranted by law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice.</I> Whenever Ex-Im Bank requests a social security or passport number, Ex-Im Bank shall place an appropriate Privacy Act notification on the form used to collect the information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.24" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.24   Government contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval by Assistant General Counsel for Administration.</I> Ex-Im Bank shall not contract for the operation of a system of records or for an activity that requires access to a system of records without the express, written approval of the Assistant General Counsel for Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contract clauses.</I> Any contract authorized under paragraph (a) of this section shall contain the standard contract clauses required by the Federal Acquisition Regulation (48 CFR 24.104) to ensure compliance with the requirements imposed by the Privacy Act. The division within Ex-Im Bank that is responsible for technical supervision of the contract shall be responsible for ensuring that the contractor complies with the Privacy Act contract requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contractor status.</I> Any contractor that operates an Ex-Im Bank system of records or engages in an activity that requires access to an Ex-Im Bank system of records shall be considered an Ex-Im Bank employee for purposes of this subpart. Ex-Im Bank shall supply any such contractor with a copy of the regulations in this subpart upon entering into a contract with Ex-Im Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.25" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.25   Other rights and services.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to entitle any person to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 14374, Mar. 25, 1999. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Demands for Testimony of Current and Former Ex-Im Bank Personnel and for Production of Ex-Im Bank Records</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 404.26" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.26   Exemptions: EIB-35—Office of Inspector General Investigative Records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal Law Enforcement</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), Ex-Im Bank hereby exempts the system of records entitled “EIB-35—Office of Inspector General Investigative Records” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1) through (3), (e)(4)(G) and (H), (e)(5), (e)(8), (f), and (g) because the system contains information pertaining to the enforcement of criminal laws. “EIB-35—Office of Inspector General Investigative Records” is maintained by the Ex-Im Bank Office of Inspector General (“OIG” or “Ex-Im Bank OIG.”)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure to the individual named in the record pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (c)(4), or (d)(1) through (4) could seriously impede or compromise the investigation by alerting the target(s), subjecting a potential witness or witnesses to intimidation or improper influence, and leading to destruction of evidence. Disclosure could enable suspects to take action to prevent detection of criminal activities, conceal evidence, or escape prosecution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Application of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1) is impractical because the relevance of specific information might be established only after considerable analysis and as the investigation progresses. Effective law enforcement requires the OIG to keep information that may not be relevant to a specific OIG investigation, but which may provide leads for appropriate law enforcement and to establish patterns of activity that might relate to the jurisdiction of the OIG and/or other agencies.
</P>
<P>(iii) Application of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2) would be counterproductive to the performance of a criminal investigation because it would alert the individual to the existence of an investigation. In any investigation, it is necessary to obtain evidence from a variety of sources other than the subject of the investigation in order to verify the evidence necessary for successful litigation or prosecution.
</P>
<P>(iv) Application of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3) could discourage the free flow of information in a criminal law enforcement inquiry.
</P>
<P>(v) The requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(G) and (H) and (f) would be counterproductive to the performance of a criminal investigation. To notify an individual at the individual's request of the existence of records in an investigative file pertaining to such individual, or to grant access to an investigative file could interfere with investigative and enforcement proceedings, deprive co-defendants of a right to a fair trial or other impartial adjudication, constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy of others, disclose the identity or confidential sources, reveal confidential information supplied by these sources and disclose investigative techniques and procedures. Nevertheless, Ex-Im Bank OIG has published notice of its notification, access, and contest procedures because access may be appropriate in some cases.
</P>
<P>(vi) Although the OIG endeavors to maintain accurate records, application of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(5) is impractical because maintaining only those records that are accurate, relevant, timely, and complete and that assure fairness in determination is contrary to established investigative techniques. Information that may initially appear inaccurate, irrelevant, untimely, or incomplete may, when collated and analyzed with other available information, become more pertinent as an investigation progresses.
</P>
<P>(vii) Application of 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(8) could prematurely reveal an ongoing criminal investigation to the subject of the investigation.
</P>
<P>(viii) The provisions of subsection (g) do not apply to this system if an exemption otherwise applies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other Law Enforcement</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), Ex-Im Bank hereby exempts the system of records entitled “EIB-35—Office of Inspector General Investigative Records” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f) for the same reasons as stated in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, that is, because the system contains investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes other than material within the scope of subsection 552a(j)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are because the disclosure and other requirements of the Privacy Act could substantially compromise the efficacy and integrity of OIG operations. Disclosure could invade the privacy of other individuals and disclose their identity when they were expressly promised confidentiality. Disclosure could interfere with the integrity of information which would otherwise be subject to privileges (see, e.g., 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(5)), and which could interfere with other important law enforcement concerns (see, e.g., 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal Civilian or Contract Employment</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Under the authority granted by 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), Ex-Im Bank hereby exempts the system of records entitled “EIB-35—Office of Inspector General Investigative Records” from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d)(1) through (4), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G) and (H), and (f) because the system contains investigatory material compiled for the purpose of determining eligibility or qualifications for federal civilian or contract employment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasons for exemption.</I> The reasons for asserting this exemption are the same as described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 41886, July 17, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 42949, July 23, 2012. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.27" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.27   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies exclusively to demands for testimony and/or production of records issued to Ex-Im Bank personnel, in connection with legal proceedings to which Ex-Im Bank is not a party, regarding information acquired in the course of the performance of official duties or due to their official status. Nothing in this subpart shall be construed to waive the sovereign immunity of the United States. This subpart shall not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Demands for testimony and/or production of records pursuant to a legal proceeding to which Ex-Im Bank is a party:
</P>
<P>(b) Demands for testimony and/or production of records in those instances in which Ex-Im Bank personnel are asked to disclose information wholly unrelated to their official duties; and
</P>
<P>(c) Congressional demands and requests for testimony or records.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.28" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.28   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply—
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I>—includes an order, subpoena, or other compulsory process issued by a party in litigation or a court of competent jurisdiction, requiring the production or release of Ex-Im Bank information or records, or requiring the testimony of Ex-Im Bank personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Ex-Im Bank personnel</I>—includes any current or former officer or employee of Ex-Im Bank, including all individuals who have been appointed by, or subject to, the official supervision, jurisdiction, or control of any Ex-Im Bank employees. This definition encompasses all individuals hired through contractual agreements with Ex-Im Bank, such as: consultants, contractors, sub-contractors, and their employees.
</P>
<P><I>Legal proceeding</I>—a case or controversy pending before any federal, state, or local court, including a grand jury proceeding; a proceeding before a federal, state, or local administrative judge, board, or other similar body with adjudicative powers; or a legislative proceeding before a state or local legislative body.
</P>
<P><I>Records</I>—all documentary materials that Ex-Im Bank creates or receives in connection with the transaction of official business, including any materials classified as “Federal records” under 44 U.S.C. 3301 and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Testimony</I>—written or oral statements, including, but not limited to, depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, and any other statements made in a legal proceeding, including any expert or opinion testimony.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.29" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.29   Demand requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A party's demand for testimony and/or production of records by Ex-Im Bank personnel regarding information acquired in the course of their performance of official duties or due to their official status shall be set forth in, or accompanied by, a signed affidavit or other written statement. Such affidavit or written statement must be submitted at least 30 days prior to the date such testimony and/or production of records is requested to be taken and/or produced. A copy of the affidavit or written statement shall be served on the other parties to the legal proceeding. The affidavit or written statement must:
</P>
<P>(a) Be addressed to the Export-Import Bank of the United States, Office of the General Counsel, 811 Vermont Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20571;
</P>
<P>(b) State the nature of the legal proceeding, including any docket number, title of the case, and the name of the administrative or adjudicative body before which the proceedings are to be heard;
</P>
<P>(c) State the nature of the testimony or records sought;
</P>
<P>(d) State the relevance of the information sought to the legal proceedings;
</P>
<P>(e) State why such information can only be obtained through testimony or production of records by Ex-Im Bank personnel; and
</P>
<P>(f) Comply with all procedures governing valid service of process.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.30" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.30   Notification of General Counsel required.</HEAD>
<P>Ex-Im Bank personnel receiving a demand for testimony and/or production of records regarding information acquired in the course of their performance of official duties, or due to their official status, shall immediately notify the General Counsel of Ex-Im Bank (“General Counsel”) upon receipt of such demand. The General Counsel maintains the exclusive authority to waive the requirements of any or all sections of this subpart and reserves the right to delegate his or her authority under this subpart to other appropriate Ex-Im Bank personnel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.31" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.31   Restrictions on testimony and production of records.</HEAD>
<P>Ex-Im Bank personnel may not provide testimony and/or produce records regarding information acquired in the course of their performance of official duties, or due to their official status, in connection with any legal proceeding to which this subpart applies, without authorization by the General Counsel. Such authorization must be in writing, unless the General Counsel determines that circumstances warrant an oral authorization, and such oral authorization is subsequently documented.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.32" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.32   Factors General Counsel may consider in determining whether to authorize testimony and/or the production of records.</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether to authorize Ex-Im Bank personnel to provide testimony and/or produce records regarding information acquired in the course of their performance of official duties, or due to their official status, the General Counsel may consider factors including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Efficiency—the conservation of the time and resources of Ex-Im Bank personnel for the conduct of official business;
</P>
<P>(b) Undue burden—whether the demand creates an undue burden upon Ex-Im Bank or is otherwise inappropriate under any applicable administrative or court rules;
</P>
<P>(c) Appearance of bias—whether the testimony and/or production of records could result in the public perception that Ex-Im Bank is favoring one party over another, or advocating the position of a party to the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(d) Furtherance of agency policy—whether the testimony and/or production of records is consistent with the policy and mission of the Ex-Im Bank;
</P>
<P>(e) Prevention of fraud or injustice—whether the disclosure of the information requested is necessary to prevent the perpetration of fraud or injustice;
</P>
<P>(f) Relevance to litigation—whether the testimony and/or production of records sought is relevant to the subject litigation;
</P>
<P>(g) Necessity—whether the testimony and/or production of records, including a release of such <I>in camera</I>, is appropriate or necessary as determined by either the procedural rules governing the legal proceeding, or according to the relevant laws concerning privilege;
</P>
<P>(h) Availability from another source—whether the information sought through testimony or production of records is available from another source;
</P>
<P>(i) Violations of laws or regulations—whether the testimony and/or production of records would violate a statute, regulation, executive order, or other official directive;
</P>
<P>(j) Classified information—whether the testimony and/or production of records would improperly reveal information classified pursuant to applicable statute or Executive Order; and
</P>
<P>(k) Compromise of rights and interests—whether the testimony and/or production of records would compromise any of the following: law enforcement interests, constitutional rights, national security interests, foreign policy interests, or the confidentiality of commercial and/or financial information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.33" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.33   Procedure for declining to testify and/or produce records.</HEAD>
<P>Ex-Im Bank personnel receiving a demand to provide testimony and/or produce records regarding information acquired in the course of their performance of official duties, or due to their official status, and who have not received written authorization from the General Counsel to provide such information, shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Respectfully decline to answer or appear for examination on the grounds that such testimony is forbidden by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(b) Request the opportunity to consult with the General Counsel;
</P>
<P>(c) Explain that only upon consultation may they be granted approval to provide such testimony;
</P>
<P>(d) Explain that providing such testimony or records absent approval may subject the individual to criminal liability under 18 U.S.C. 641, as well as other applicable laws, and other disciplinary action; and
</P>
<P>(e) Request a stay of the request or demand pending a determination by the General Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.34" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.34   Procedure in the event a decision concerning a demand is not made prior to the time a response to the demand is required.</HEAD>
<P>If response to a demand is required before a determination has been rendered by the General Counsel, the U.S. Attorney or such other attorney as may be designated for the purpose will appear with the Ex-Im Bank personnel upon whom the demand has been made, and will furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart and inform the court or other authority that the demand has been or is being, as the case may be, referred for prompt consideration of the General Counsel. The court or other authority shall be requested respectfully to stay the demand pending determination by the General Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.35" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.35   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If the court or other authority declines to stay the effect of the demand in response to a request made in accordance with § 404.34 pending a determination by the General Counsel, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of the instructions from the General Counsel not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the Ex-Im Bank personnel upon whom the demand has been made shall respectfully decline to comply with the demand (<I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated and amended at 87 FR 41034, 41042, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.36" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.36   Procedure for demands for testimony or production of documents regarding confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to compliance with the requirements of this subpart, demands to provide testimony and/or produce records that concern information protected by the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or any other authority mandating confidentiality of certain classes of records or information, must also satisfy the requirements for disclosure imposed by such authority before records may be produced or testimony given.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.37" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.37   Procedures for requests for Ex-Im Bank employees to provide expert or opinion testimony.</HEAD>
<P>No Ex-Im Bank personnel may, unless specifically authorized by the General Counsel, testify in any legal proceeding as an expert or opinion witness as to any matter related to his or her duties or the functions of the Ex-Im Bank, including the meaning of Ex-Im Bank documents. Any demand for expert or opinion testimony shall comply with the policies and procedures outlined in this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 404.38" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 404.38   No private right of action.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall be construed as creating any right, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law or equity by a party against Ex-Im Bank or the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14361, Mar. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 87 FR 41034, July 11, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts D-E [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="405" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 405 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="407" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 407—REGULATIONS GOVERNING PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF EXIMBANK MEETINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. (g) Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(g); secs. (b) through (f), 5 U.S.C. 552b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 407.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.1   Purpose, scope and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consistent with the principles that: (1) The public is entitled to the fullest practicable information regarding the decision-making processes of the Federal Government, and (2) the rights of individuals and the ability of the Export-Import Bank of the United States to carry out its statutory responsibilities should be protected, this part is promulgated pursuant to the directive of section (g) of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b(g), and specifically implements sections (b) through (f) of said Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b (b) through (f). 
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>meeting</I> means any meeting of the Board of Directors of Eximbank at which a quorum is present and where deliberations determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official Eximbank business.
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>regularly scheduled meeting</I> means meetings of the Board of Directors or the Executive Committee which are held at 9:30 a.m. on Thursday of each week. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel and his or her designees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 12136, Mar. 22, 1982; 49 FR 41237, Oct. 22, 1984; 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.2" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.2   Closing meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except where Eximbank finds that the public interest requires otherwise, a meeting, or any portion thereof, may be closed to the public, where the Board of Directors determines that such meetings, or any portion thereof, or information pertaining to such meeting, or any portion thereof, is likely to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of Eximbank or any other agency; 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5 U.S.C.), provided that such statute: </P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential; 
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person; 
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, 
</P>
<P>(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would: 
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an agency which regulates currencies, securities, commodities, or financial institutions, be likely to: (A) Lead to significant financial speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of Eximbank or any other agency, be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed agency action;
</P>
<FP>except that paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section shall not apply in any instance where the agency has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the agency is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final agency on such proposal; or 
</FP>
<P>(10) Specifically concern Eximbank's issuance of a subpoena, or Eximbank's participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(b) Inasmuch as opening any regularly scheduled meeting, or any portion thereof, to public observation will be likely to result in the disclosure of the kind of information set forth in paragraph (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (a)(10) of this section, or any combination thereof, of paragraph (a) of this section, the Board of Directors expects to close all regularly scheduled meetings to the public. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any other meeting of Eximbank, or any portion thereof, will be open to public observation except where the Board of Directors determines that such meeting, or any portion thereof, is likely to disclose information of the kind set forth in any paragraph of § 407.2(a). In the event that the Board of Directors closes such meeting, or any portion thereof, by virtue of paragraph (a)(4), (8), (9)(i)(A) or (a)(10) of this section, or any combination thereof, the procedure set forth in § 407.3 below will apply, and in the event that the Board of Directors closes such meeting, or any portion thereof, by virtue of any of the remaining paragraphs of § 407.2(a), or any combination thereof, the procedures set forth in § 407.4 will apply. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.3" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.3   Procedures applicable to regularly scheduled meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Announcements.</I> Regularly scheduled meetings of the Board of Directors will be held at 9:30 a.m. every Thursday in the Board Room (Room 1141) of the Bank's headquarters. In the event that a regularly scheduled meeting is rescheduled, public announcement of the time, date and place of such meeting will be made at the earliest practicable time in the form of a notice posted in the Office of the Secretary. An agenda setting forth the subject matter of each regularly scheduled meeting will be made available in the Office of the Secretary (Room 935), telephone number (202) (566-8871) at the earliest practicable time, <I>Provided,</I> That individual items may be added to or deleted from any agenda at any time. Inquiries from the public regarding any regularly scheduled meeting shall be directed to the Office of the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voting.</I> At the beginning of each regularly scheduled meeting, the Board of Directors will vote by recorded vote on whether to close such meeting. No proxy vote will be permitted. A record of such vote indicating the vote of each Director will be posted in the Office of the Secretary immediately following the conclusion of such meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 12136, Mar. 22, 1982; 49 FR 9560, Mar. 14, 1984; 49 FR 41237, Oct. 22, 1984; 50 FR 8606, Mar. 4, 1985; 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.4" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.4   Procedures applicable to other meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> (1) For every meeting which is to be open to public observation or which is to be closed pursuant to any paragraph of § 407.2(a) other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10), or any combination thereof, public announcement will be made at least one week before the meeting of the time, place, and the agenda setting forth the subject matter of such meeting, and whether the meeting, or any portion thereof, is to be open or closed to the public. 
</P>
<P>(2) Inquiries from the public regarding any such meeting shall be directed to the Office of the Secretary. 
</P>
<P>(3) The one-week period for the announcement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be reduced if the Board of Directors determines by a recorded vote that Eximbank business requires such meeting to be called at an earlier date. Public announcement of the time, place, and subject matter of such meeting, and whether open or closed to the public, will be made at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(4) The time or place of a meeting may be changed following the announcement required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section only if public announcement is made of such change at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(5) The subject matter of a meeting or the determination of the Board of Directors to open or close a meeting, or any portion thereof, to the public, may be changed following the announcement required by paragraph (a) of this section only if: 
</P>
<P>(i) A majority of the entire voting membership of the Board of Directors determines by a recorded vote that Eximbank business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Board of Directors announces such change and the vote of each Director upon such change at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(6) Individual items may be added to or deleted from any agenda at any time. 
</P>
<P>(7) The announcements required pursuant to this section shall be made in the form of a notice posted in the Office of the Secretary. In addition, immediately following each announcement required by this section, notice of: 
</P>
<P>(i) The time, place and subject matter of a meeting which is to be open to public observation or which is to be closed pursuant to any section of § 407.2(a) other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10), or any combination thereof, 
</P>
<P>(ii) the decision to open or close such meeting, or any portion thereof, or 
</P>
<P>(iii) any change in any announcement previously made shall be submitted for publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(8) The information required by this subsection shall be disclosed except to the extent that it is exempt from disclosure under any section of § 407.2(a). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voting.</I> (1) Action to close a meeting, or any portion thereof, pursuant to any section of § 407.2(a), other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i), or (10), or any combination thereof, shall be taken only when a majority of the entire voting membership of the Board of Directors votes to take such action. 
</P>
<P>(2) A separate vote of the Board of Directors shall be taken with respect to each meeting, or any portion thereof, which is proposed to be closed to the public pursuant to any section of § 407.2(a) other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10), or any combination thereof, or with respect to any information which is proposed to be withheld under any section of § 407.2(a), other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10), or any combination thereof. 
</P>
<P>(3) A single vote of the Board of Directors may be taken with respect to a series of meetings, or any portion thereof, which are proposed to be closed to the public pursuant to any paragraph of § 407.2(a), other than paragraphs (a)(4), (8), (9)(i) or (10), or combination thereof, or with respect to any information concerning such series of meetings, so long as each meeting in such series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than 30 days after the initial meeting in such series. 
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever any person whose interests may be directly affected by any portion of a meeting which is to be open to public observation submits a request in writing to the Office of the Secretary that the Board of Directors close such portion to the public under paragraph (a)(5), (6) or (7) of § 407.2, the Board of Directors, shall vote by recorded vote on whether to close such portion. 
</P>
<P>(5) No proxy vote will be permitted for any vote required under this section. 
</P>
<P>(6) A record of each vote indicating the vote of each Director pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1), (2), (3) or (4) of this section will be posted in the Office of the Secretary within one day after it has been taken, <I>Provided,</I> That if a meeting or portion thereof is to be closed, such record shall be accompanied by: 
</P>
<P>(i) A full written explanation of the reasons for closing such meeting or portion thereof and 
</P>
<P>(ii) a list of all persons expected to attend such meeting or portion thereof and their affiliation. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.5" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.5   Certification by General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>For every meeting closed pursuant to any paragraph of § 407.2(a), the General Counsel of Eximbank will be asked to certify prior to such meeting that in his or her opinion such meeting may properly be closed to the public, and to state which of the exemptions set forth in § 407.2(a) he or she has relied upon. A copy of such certification will be posted in the Office of the Secretary. The original certification together with a statement from the presiding officer of such meeting setting forth the time, date and place of such meeting and the persons present will be retained by Eximbank as part of the transcript, recording or minutes of such meeting described below. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.6" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.6   Transcripts, recordings and minutes of closed meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Eximbank will maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording of the proceedings of every meeting or portion thereof closed to the public, <I>Provided, however,</I> That if any meeting or portion thereof is closed pursuant to paragraphs (8), (9)(i) or (10) of § 407.2(a), Eximbank may maintain a set of detailed minutes for such meetings in lieu of a transcript or electronic recording. The entire transcript, electronic recording or set of minutes of a meeting will be made promptly available to the public for inspection and copying in the Office of the Secretary. Copies of such transcript or minutes, as well as copies of the transcription of such recording disclosing the identity of each speaker, will be furnished to any person at the actual cost of duplication or transcription. However, Eximbank will not make available for inspection or copying the transcript, electronic recording or minutes of the discussions of any item on the agenda of such meeting which contains information of the kind described in § 407.2(a). Requests to inspect or to have copies made of any transcript, electronic recording or set of minutes of any meeting or item(s) on the agenda, thereof should be made in writing to the General Counsel and if possible, identify the time, date and place of such meeting and briefly describe the item(s) being sought. Eximbank will maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete electronic recording or a complete copy of the minutes of each meeting, or portion thereof, closed to the public for two years after such meeting or one year from the date of final action of the Board of Directors on all items on the agenda of such meeting, whichever occurs later. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12417, Mar. 4, 1977, as amended at 72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 407.7" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 407.7   Relationship to Freedom of Information Act.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part expands or limits the present rights of any person under part 404, except that the exemptions contained in § 407.2 shall govern in the case of any request made pursuant to part 404 to copy or inspect the transcripts, recordings or minutes described in § 407.6. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="408" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 408—PROCEDURES FOR COMPLIANCE WITH THE NATIONAL ENVIRONMENTAL POLICY ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>National Environmental Policy Act of 1969; 42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I> 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 50811, Aug. 30, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.1   Background.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 (42 U.S.C. 4321 <I>et seq.</I>) establishes national policies and goals for the protection of the environment. Section 102(2) of NEPA contains certain procedural requirements directed toward the attainment of such goals. In particular, all Federal agencies are required to give appropriate consideration to the environmental effects of their proposed actions in their decision-making and to prepare detailed environmental statements on recommendations or reports on proposals for legislation and other major Federal Actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment.
</P>
<P>(b) Executive Order 11991 of May 24, 1977, directed the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ) to issue regulations to implement the procedural provisions of NEPA (NEPA Regulations). Accordingly, CEQ issued final NEPA Regulations which are binding on all Federal agencies as of July 30, 1979 (40 CFR parts 1500 through 1508) on November 29, 1979. These Regulations provide that each Federal agency shall as necessary adopt implementing procedures to supplement the NEPA Regulations. Section 1507.3(b) of the NEPA Regulations identifies those sections of the NEPA Regulations which must be addressed in agency procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.2" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish procedures which supplement the NEPA Regulations and provide for the implementation of those provisions identified in § 1507.3(b) of the NEPA Regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.3" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.3   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Historically, virtually all financing provided by Eximbank has been in aid of U.S. exports which involve no effects on the quality of the environment within the United States, its territories or possessions. Eximbank has separate procedures for conducting environmental reviews where such reviews are required by E.O. 12114 (January 4, 1979) because of potential effects on the environment of global commons areas or on the environment of foreign nations. The procedures set forth in this part apply to the relatively rare cases where Eximbank financing of U.S. exports may affect environmental quality in the United States, its territories or possessions. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eximbank Implementing Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.4" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.4   Early involvement in foreign activities for which Eximbank financing may be requested.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 1501.2(d) of the NEPA Regulations requires agencies to provide for early involvement in actions which, while planned by private applicants or other non-Federal entities, require some form of Federal approval. Pursuant to the Export-Import Bank Act of 1945, as amended, Eximbank is asked to provide financing for transactions involving exports of U.S. goods and services for projects in foreign countries which are planned by non-U.S. entities (Transactions).
</P>
<P>(b) To implement the requirements of § 1501.2(d) with respect to these Transactions, Eximbank: 
</P>
<P>(1) Will provide on a project-by-project basis to applicant seeking financing from Eximbank guidance as to the scope and level of environmental information to be used in evaluating a proposed Transaction where: 
</P>
<P>(i) The proposed Eximbank financing would be a major action and 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Transaction may significantly affect the quality of the human environment in the United States, its territories or possessions.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of an application for Eximbank financing or notification that an application will be filed, will consult as required with other appropriate parties to initiate and coordinate the necessary environmental analyses.
</P>
<FP>These responsibilities will be performed by the General Counsel and the Engineers of Eximbank.
</FP>
<P>(c) To facilitate Eximbank review of Transactions for which positive determinations have been made under paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, applicants should: 
</P>
<P>(1) Consult with the Engineer as early as possible in the planning process for guidance on the scope and level of environmental information required to be submitted in support of their application;
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct any studies which are deemed necessary and appropriate by Eximbank to determine the impact of the proposed action on the quality of the human environment;
</P>
<P>(3) Consult with appropriate U.S. (Federal, regional, State and local) agencies and other potentially interested parties during preliminary planning stages to ensure that all environmental factors are identified;
</P>
<P>(4) Submit applications for all U.S. (Federal, regional, State and local) approvals as early as possible in the planning process;
</P>
<P>(5) Notify Eximbank as early as possible of all other applicable legal requirements for project completion so that all applicable Federal environmental reviews may be coordinated; and
</P>
<P>(6) Notify Eximbank of all known parties potentially affected by or interested in the proposed action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.5" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.5   Ensuring environmental documents are actually considered in Agency decision-making.</HEAD>
<P>Section 1505.1 of the NEPA Regulations contains requirements to ensure adequate consideration of environmental documents in agency decision-making. To implement these requirements, Eximbank officials will: 
</P>
<P>(a) Consider all relevant environmental documents in evaluating applications for Eximbank financing;
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure that all relevant environmental documents, comments and responses accompany the application through Eximbank's review processes;
</P>
<P>(c) Consider only those alternatives encompassed by the range of alternatives discussed in the relevant environmental documents when evaluating an application which is the subject of an EIS.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eximbank actions
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Start of NEPA process
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Completion of NEPA process
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Key officials or offices required to consider environmental documents
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Issuance of Preliminary Commitment (P.C.)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When application is received</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the Board of Directors meets to consider application. The Board may notify applicant that environmental effects will be considered when final commitment is requested and request information on environmental matters</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Under § 408.4(b)(1)(i) and (ii), General Counsel to determine whether requested Eximbank financing is a major action and Engineer to determine whether proposed Transaction may significantly affect the quality of the human environment in the United States, its territories or possessions.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Issuance of Final Commitment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When application is received</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When the Board of Directors meets to consider application</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(If no P.C. has been issued, key offices will make determinations mentioned above.) Engineer to collect, prepare or arrange for preparation of all environmental documents.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.6" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.6   Typical classes of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 1507.3(c)(2) of the NEPA Regulations in conjunction with § 1508.4 thereof requires agencies to establish three typical classes of action for similar treatment under NEPA. These typical classes of action are set forth below: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Actions normally requiring EIS's
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Actions normally requiring assessments but not necessarily EIS's
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Actions normally not requiring assessments or EIS's
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applications for Eximbank financing under the direct lending program in support of transactions for which determinations under § 408.4(b)(1)(i) and (ii) above may be affirmative</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Applications for Eximbank financing in the form of insurance or guarantees.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) Eximbank will independently determine whether an EIS or an environmental assessment is required where: 
</P>
<P>(1) A proposal for agency action is not covered by one of the typical classes of action above; or
</P>
<P>(2) For actions which are covered, the presence of extraordinary circumstances indicates that some other level of environmental review may be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 408.7" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 408.7   Environmental information.</HEAD>
<P>Interested persons may contact the General Counsel regarding Eximbank's compliance with NEPA. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="410" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 410—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY EXPORT-IMPORT BANK OF THE UNITED STATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 4575, 4579, Feb. 5, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 410.101" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.102" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.103" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one of more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to any agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 410.140.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4575, 4579, Feb. 5, 1986; 51 FR 7543, Mar. 5, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.104-410.109" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.104-410.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.110" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by April 9, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written).
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspections:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.111" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.112-410.129" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.112-410.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.130" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.131-410.139" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.131-410.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.140" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.141-410.148" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.141-410.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.149" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 410.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.150" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 410.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is nor required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by June 6, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by April 7, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by October 7, 1986, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4575, 4579, Feb. 5, 1986; 51 FR 7543, Mar. 5, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.151" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.152-410.159" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.152-410.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.160" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 410.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.161-410.169" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.161-410.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 410.170" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 410.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>(c) General Counsel, Export-Import Bank of the United States shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to General Counsel, Export-Import Bank of the United States, 811 Vermont Avenue, NW., Room 947, Washington, DC 20571.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing—
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found;
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 410.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 4575, 4579, Feb. 5, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 7543, Mar. 5, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 410.171-410.999" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.7.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 410.171-410.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="411" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 411—NEW RESTRICTIONS ON LOBBYING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 319, Pub. L. 101-121 (31 U.S.C. 1352); 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 6737, 6747, Feb. 26, 1990, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<CROSSREF>
<HED>Cross Reference:</HED>
<P>See also Office of Management and Budget notice published at 54 FR 52306, Dec. 20, 1989.</P></CROSSREF>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.100" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.100   Conditions on use of funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No appropriated funds may be expended by the recipient of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement to pay any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any of the following covered Federal actions: the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a certification, set forth in appendix A, that the person has not made, and will not make, any payment prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a Federal contract, grant, loan, or a cooperative agreement shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if such person has made or has agreed to make any payment using nonappropriated funds (to include profits from any covered Federal action), which would be prohibited under paragraph (a) of this section if paid for with appropriated funds.
</P>
<P>(d) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a statement, set forth in appendix A, whether that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.
</P>
<P>(e) Each person who requests or receives from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan shall file with that agency a disclosure form, set forth in appendix B, if that person has made or has agreed to make any payment to influence or attempt to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with that loan insurance or guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.105" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.105   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency,</I> as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(f), includes Federal executive departments and agencies as well as independent regulatory commissions and Government corporations, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 9101(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered Federal action</I> means any of the following Federal actions:
</P>
<P>(1) The awarding of any Federal contract;
</P>
<P>(2) The making of any Federal grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The making of any Federal loan;
</P>
<P>(4) The entering into of any cooperative agreement; and,
</P>
<P>(5) The extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<FP>Covered Federal action does not include receiving from an agency a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan. Loan guarantees and loan insurance are addressed independently within this part.
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Federal contract</I> means an acquisition contract awarded by an agency, including those subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR), and any other acquisition contract for real or personal property or services not subject to the FAR.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal cooperative agreement</I> means a cooperative agreement entered into by an agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Federal grant</I> means an award of financial assistance in the form of money, or property in lieu of money, by the Federal Government or a direct appropriation made by law to any person. The term does not include technical assistance which provides services instead of money, or other assistance in the form of revenue sharing, loans, loan guarantees, loan insurance, interest subsidies, insurance, or direct United States cash assistance to an individual.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Federal loan</I> means a loan made by an agency. The term does not include loan guarantee or loan insurance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indian tribe</I> and <I>tribal organization</I> have the meaning provided in section 4 of the Indian Self-Determination and Education Assistance Act (25 U.S.C. 450B). Alaskan Natives are included under the definitions of Indian tribes in that Act.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Influencing or attempting to influence</I> means making, with the intent to influence, any communication to or appearance before an officer or employee or any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with any covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan guarantee</I> and <I>loan insurance</I> means an agency's guarantee or insurance of a loan made by a person.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Local government</I> means a unit of government in a State and, if chartered, established, or otherwise recognized by a State for the performance of a governmental duty, including a local public authority, a special district, an intrastate district, a council of governments, a sponsor group representative organization, and any other instrumentality of a local government.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Officer or employee of an agency</I> includes the following individuals who are employed by an agency:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who is appointed to a position in the Government under title 5, U.S. Code, including a position under a temporary appointment;
</P>
<P>(2) A member of the uniformed services as defined in section 101(3), title 37, U.S. Code; 
</P>
<P>(3) A special Government employee as defined in section 202, title 18, U.S. Code; and,
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who is a member of a Federal advisory committee, as defined by the Federal Advisory Committee Act, title 5, U.S. Code appendix 2.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, association, authority, firm, partnership, society, State, and local government, regardless of whether such entity is operated for profit or not for profit. This term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Reasonable compensation</I> means, with respect to a regularly employed officer or employee of any person, compensation that is consistent with the normal compensation for such officer or employee for work that is not furnished to, not funded by, or not furnished in cooperation with the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Reasonable payment</I> means, with respect to professional and other technical services, a payment in an amount that is consistent with the amount normally paid for such services in the private sector.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Recipient</I> includes all contractors, subcontractors at any tier, and subgrantees at any tier of the recipient of funds received in connection with a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. The term excludes an Indian tribe, tribal organization, or any other Indian organization with respect to expenditures specifically permitted by other Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Regularly employed</I> means, with respect to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, an officer or employee who is employed by such person for at least 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for receipt of such contract, grant, loan, cooperative agreement, loan insurance commitment, or loan guarantee commitment. An officer or employee who is employed by such person for less than 130 working days within one year immediately preceding the date of the submission that initiates agency consideration of such person shall be considered to be regularly employed as soon as he or she is employed by such person for 130 working days. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>State</I> means a State of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, a territory or possession of the United States, an agency or instrumentality of a State, and a multi-State, regional, or interstate entity having governmental duties and powers. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.110" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.110   Certification and disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, with each submission that initiates agency consideration of such person for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Award of a Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) An award of a Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each person shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, upon receipt by such person of: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal contract, grant, or cooperative agreement exceeding $100,000; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal loan or a commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan exceeding $150,000,
</P>
<FP>Unless such person previously filed a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, under paragraph (a) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) Each person shall file a disclosure form at the end of each calendar quarter in which there occurs any event that requires disclosure or that materially affects the accuracy of the information contained in any disclosure form previously filed by such person under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section. An event that materially affects the accuracy of the information reported includes: 
</P>
<P>(1) A cumulative increase of $25,000 or more in the amount paid or expected to be paid for influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A change in the person(s) or individual(s) influencing or attempting to influence a covered Federal action; or, 
</P>
<P>(3) A change in the officer(s), employee(s), or Member(s) contacted to influence or attempt to influence a covered Federal action. 
</P>
<P>(d) Any person who requests or receives from a person referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal contract; 
</P>
<P>(2) A subgrant, contract, or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal grant; 
</P>
<P>(3) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal loan exceeding $150,000; or, 
</P>
<P>(4) A contract or subcontract exceeding $100,000 at any tier under a Federal cooperative agreement,
</P>
<FP>Shall file a certification, and a disclosure form, if required, to the next tier above.
</FP>
<P>(e) All disclosure forms, but not certifications, shall be forwarded from tier to tier until received by the person referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section. That person shall forward all disclosure forms to the agency.
</P>
<P>(f) Any certification or disclosure form filed under paragraph (e) of this section shall be treated as a material representation of fact upon which all receiving tiers shall rely. All liability arising from an erroneous representation shall be borne solely by the tier filing that representation and shall not be shared by any tier to which the erroneous representation is forwarded. Submitting an erroneous certification or disclosure constitutes a failure to file the required certification or disclosure, respectively. If a person fails to file a required certification or disclosure, the United States may pursue all available remedies, including those authorized by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code.
</P>
<P>(g) For awards and commitments in process prior to December 23, 1989, but not made before that date, certifications shall be required at award or commitment, covering activities occurring between December 23, 1989, and the date of award or commitment. However, for awards and commitments in process prior to the December 23, 1989 effective date of these provisions, but not made before December 23, 1989, disclosure forms shall not be required at time of award or commitment but shall be filed within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(h) No reporting is required for an activity paid for with appropriated funds if that activity is allowable under either subpart B or C.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Activities by Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.200" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.200   Agency and legislative liaison.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 411.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if the payment is for agency and legislative liaison activities not directly related to a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, providing any information specifically requested by an agency or Congress is allowable at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agency and legislative liaison activities are allowable at any time only where they are not related to a specific solicitation for any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Discussing with an agency (including individual demonstrations) the qualities and characteristics of the person's products or services, conditions or terms of sale, and service capabilities; and, 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions and other activities regarding the application or adaptation of the person's products or services for an agency's use.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the following agencies and legislative liaison activities are allowable only where they are prior to formal solicitation of any covered Federal action:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing any information not specifically requested but necessary for an agency to make an informed decision about initiation of a covered Federal action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Technical discussions regarding the preparation of an unsolicited proposal prior to its official submission; and, 
</P>
<P>(3) Capability presentations by persons seeking awards from an agency pursuant to the provisions of the Small Business Act, as amended by Pub. L. 95-507 and other subsequent amendments. 
</P>
<P>(e) Only those activities expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.205" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.205   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 411.100 (a), does not apply in the case of a payment of reasonable compensation made to an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or an extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of a Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement if payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting of a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.210" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.210   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>No reporting is required with respect to payments of reasonable compensation made to regularly employed officers or employees of a person.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Activities by Other Than Own Employees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.300" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.300   Professional and technical services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The prohibition on the use of appropriated funds, in § 411.100 (a), does not apply in the case of any reasonable payment to a person, other than an officer or employee of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action, if the payment is for professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any bid, proposal, or application for that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement or for meeting requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving that Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The reporting requirements in § 411.110 (a) and (b) regarding filing a disclosure form by each person, if required, shall not apply with respect to professional or technical services rendered directly in the preparation, submission, or negotiation of any commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, <I>professional and technical services</I> shall be limited to advice and analysis directly applying any professional or technical discipline. For example, drafting or a legal document accompanying a bid or proposal by a lawyer is allowable. Similarly, technical advice provided by an engineer on the performance or operational capability of a piece of equipment rendered directly in the negotiation of a contract is allowable. However, communications with the intent to influence made by a professional (such as a licensed lawyer) or a technical person (such as a licensed accountant) are not allowable under this section unless they provide advice and analysis directly applying their professional or technical expertise and unless the advice or analysis is rendered directly and solely in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action. Thus, for example, communications with the intent to influence made by a lawyer that do not provide legal advice or analysis directly and solely related to the legal aspects of his or her client's proposal, but generally advocate one proposal over another are not allowable under this section because the lawyer is not providing professional legal services. Similarly, communications with the intent to influence made by an engineer providing an engineering analysis prior to the preparation or submission of a bid or proposal are not allowable under this section since the engineer is providing technical services but not directly in the preparation, submission or negotiation of a covered Federal action.
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements imposed by or pursuant to law as a condition for receiving a covered Federal award include those required by law or regulation, or reasonably expected to be required by law or regulation, and any other requirements in the actual award documents.
</P>
<P>(e) Persons other than officers or employees of a person requesting or receiving a covered Federal action include consultants and trade associations.
</P>
<P>(f) Only those services expressly authorized by this section are allowable under this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Penalties and Enforcement</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.400" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.400   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who makes an expenditure prohibited herein shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such expenditure.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person who fails to file or amend the disclosure form (see appendix B) to be filed or amended if required herein, shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<P>(c) A filing or amended filing on or after the date on which an administrative action for the imposition of a civil penalty is commenced does not prevent the imposition of such civil penalty for a failure occurring before that date. An administrative action is commenced with respect to a failure when an investigating official determines in writing to commence an investigation of an allegation of such failure.
</P>
<P>(d) In determining whether to impose a civil penalty, and the amount of any such penalty, by reason of a violation by any person, the agency shall consider the nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation, the effect on the ability of such person to continue in business, any prior violations by such person, the degree of culpability of such person, the ability of the person to pay the penalty, and such other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) First offenders under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty of $10,000, absent aggravating circumstances. Second and subsequent offenses by persons shall be subject to an appropriate civil penalty between $10,000 and $100,000, as determined by the agency head or his or her designee.
</P>
<P>(f) An imposition of a civil penalty under this section does not prevent the United States from seeking any other remedy that may apply to the same conduct that is the basis for the imposition of such civil penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.405" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.405   Penalty procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Agencies shall impose and collect civil penalties pursuant to the provisions of the Program Fraud and Civil Remedies Act, 31 U.S.C. sections 3803 (except subsection (c)), 3804, 3805, 3806, 3807, 3808, and 3812, insofar as these provisions are not inconsistent with the requirements herein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.410" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.410   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each agency shall take such actions as are necessary to ensure that the provisions herein are vigorously implemented and enforced in that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.500" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.500   Secretary of Defense.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Secretary of Defense may exempt, on a case-by-case basis, a covered Federal action from the prohibition whenever the Secretary determines, in writing, that such an exemption is in the national interest. The Secretary shall transmit a copy of each such written exemption to Congress immediately after making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(b) The Department of Defense may issue supplemental regulations to implement paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Agency Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.600" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.600   Semi-annual compilation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The head of each agency shall collect and compile the disclosure reports (see appendix B) and, on May 31 and November 30 of each year, submit to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives a report containing a compilation of the information contained in the disclosure reports received during the six-month period ending on March 31 or September 30, respectively, of that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The report, including the compilation, shall be available for public inspection 30 days after receipt of the report by the Secretary and the Clerk.
</P>
<P>(c) Information that involves intelligence matters shall be reported only to the Select Committee on Intelligence of the Senate, the Permanent Select Committee on Intelligence of the House of Representatives, and the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(d) Information that is classified under Executive Order 12356 or any successor order shall be reported only to the Committee on Foreign Relations of the Senate and the Committee on Foreign Affairs of the House of Representatives or the Committees on Armed Services of the Senate and the House of Representatives (whichever such committees have jurisdiction of matters involving such information) and to the Committees on Appropriations of the Senate and the House of Representatives in accordance with procedures agreed to by such committees. Such information shall not be available for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(e) The first semi-annual compilation shall be submitted on May 31, 1990, and shall contain a compilation of the disclosure reports received from December 23, 1989 to March 31, 1990.
</P>
<P>(f) Major agencies, designated by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB), are required to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives no later than with the compilations due on May 31, 1991. OMB shall provide detailed specifications in a memorandum to these agencies.
</P>
<P>(g) Non-major agencies are requested to provide machine-readable compilations to the Secretary of the Senate and the Clerk of the House of Representatives.
</P>
<P>(h) Agencies shall keep the originals of all disclosure reports in the official files of the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 411.605" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 411.605   Inspector General report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Inspector General, or other official as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, of each agency shall prepare and submit to Congress each year, commencing with submission of the President's Budget in 1991, an evaluation of the compliance of that agency with, and the effectiveness of, the requirements herein. The evaluation may include any recommended changes that may be necessary to strengthen or improve the requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an agency that does not have an Inspector General, the agency official comparable to an Inspector General shall prepare and submit the annual report, or, if there is no such comparable official, the head of the agency shall prepare and submit the annual report.
</P>
<P>(c) The annual report shall be submitted at the same time the agency submits its annual budget justifications to Congress.
</P>
<P>(d) The annual report shall include the following: All alleged violations relating to the agency's covered Federal actions during the year covered by the report, the actions taken by the head of the agency in the year covered by the report with respect to those alleged violations and alleged violations in previous years, and the amounts of civil penalties imposed by the agency in the year covered by the report.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.8.1.1.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 411—Certification Regarding Lobbying
</HEAD>
<HD2>Certification for Contracts, Grants, Loans, and Cooperative Agreements
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned certifies, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>(1) No Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid, by or on behalf of the undersigned, to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of an agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with the awarding of any Federal contract, the making of any Federal grant, the making of any Federal loan, the entering into of any cooperative agreement, and the extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) If any funds other than Federal appropriated funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this Federal contract, grant, loan, or cooperative agreement, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>(3) The undersigned shall require that the language of this certification be included in the award documents for all subawards at all tiers (including subcontracts, subgrants, and contracts under grants, loans, and cooperative agreements) and that all subrecipients shall certify and disclose accordingly.
</P>
<P>This certification is a material representation of fact upon which reliance was placed when this transaction was made or entered into. Submission of this certification is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required certification shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.
</P>
<HD2>Statement for Loan Guarantees and Loan Insurance
</HD2>
<P>The undersigned states, to the best of his or her knowledge and belief, that:
</P>
<P>If any funds have been paid or will be paid to any person for influencing or attempting to influence an officer or employee of any agency, a Member of Congress, an officer or employee of Congress, or an employee of a Member of Congress in connection with this commitment providing for the United States to insure or guarantee a loan, the undersigned shall complete and submit Standard Form-LLL, “Disclosure Form to Report Lobbying,” in accordance with its instructions.
</P>
<P>Submission of this statement is a prerequisite for making or entering into this transaction imposed by section 1352, title 31, U.S. Code. Any person who fails to file the required statement shall be subject to a civil penalty of not less than $10,000 and not more than $100,000 for each such failure.



</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.8.8.1.1.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 411—Disclosure Form To Report Lobbying

</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/ec23se91.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec23se91.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/ec23se91.005.gif"/>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="412" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 412—ACCEPTANCE OF PAYMENT FROM A NON-FEDERAL SOURCE FOR TRAVEL EXPENSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5701-5709; 12 U.S.C. 635(2)(a)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 31136, June 17, 1994, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 412.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>This part is issued under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 553, 5 U.S.C. 5701-5709 and 12 U.S.C. 635(2)(a)(1). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.3" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.3   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This part applies to acceptance by the Export-Import Bank of the United States (Eximbank) of payment from a non-Federal source for travel, subsistence, and related expenses with respect to the attendance of an employee in a travel status at any meeting or similar event relating to the official duties of the employee, other than those described in 41 CFR 304-1.2. This part does not authorize acceptance of such payments by an employee in his/her personal capacity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Solicitation prohibited.</I> An employee shall not solicit payment for travel, subsistence and related expenses from a non-Federal source. However, after receipt of an invitation from a non-Federal source to attend a meeting or similar event, Eximbank or the employee may inform the non-Federal source of this authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Conflicting non-Federal source. Conflicting non-Federal source</I> means any person who, or entity other than the Government of the United States which, has interests that may be substantially affected by the performance or nonperformance of the employee's duties. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee. Employee</I> means any director, officer or other employee of Eximbank. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Meeting or similar event. Meeting or similar event</I> means a meeting, formal gathering, site visit, negotiation session or similar event that takes place away from the employee's official station and which is directly related to the mission of Eximbank. This term does not include any meeting or similar function described in 41 CFR 304-1.2 or sponsored by Eximbank. A meeting or similar event need not be widely attended for purposes of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-Federal source. Non-Federal source</I> means any person or entity other than the Government of the United States. The term includes any individual, private or commercial entity, nonprofit organization or association, state, local, or foreign government, or international or multinational organization. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment. Payment</I> means funds paid or reimbursed to Eximbank by a non-Federal source for travel, subsistence, and related expenses by check or similar instrument, or payment in kind. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Payment in kind. Payment in kind</I> means goods, services or other benefits provided by a non-Federal source for travel, subsistence, and related expenses in lieu of funds paid to Eximbank by check or similar instrument for the same purpose. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Travel, subsistence and related expenses. Travel, subsistence and related expenses</I> means the same types of expenses payable under 41 CFR chapter 301. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.5" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.5   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>As provided in this part, Eximbank may accept payment from a non-Federal source (or authorize an employee to receive such payment on its behalf) with respect to attendance of the employee at a meeting or similar event which the employee has been authorized to attend in an official capacity on behalf of Eximbank. The employee's immediate supervisor and Eximbank's designated agency ethics official or his/her designee (DAEO) must approve any offer and acceptance of payment under this part in accordance with the procedures described below. If the employee is a member of Eximbank's Board of Directors, only the DAEO's approval is required. Any employee authorized to travel in accordance with this part is subject to the maximum per diem or actual subsistence expense rates and transportation class of service limitations prescribed in 41 CFR chapter 301. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.7" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.7   Conditions for acceptance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eximbank may accept payment for employee travel from a non-Federal source when a written authorization to accept payment is issued in advance of the travel following a determination by the employee's supervisor (except in the case of Board members) and the DAEO that the payment is: 
</P>
<P>(1) For travel relating to an employee's official duties under an official travel authorization issued to the employee; 
</P>
<P>(2) For attendance at a meeting or similar event as defined in § 412.3(c)(3): 
</P>
<P>(i) In which the employee's participation is necessary in order to further the mission of Eximbank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Which cannot be held at the offices of Eximbank for justifiable business reasons in light of the location and number of participants and the purpose of the meeting or similar event; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Which is taking place at a location and for a period of time that is appropriate for the purpose of the meeting or similar event; 
</P>
<P>(3) From a non-Federal source that is not a conflicting non-Federal source or from a conflicting non-Federal source that has been approved under § 412.9; and 
</P>
<P>(4) In an amount which does not exceed the maximum per diem or actual subsistence expense rates and transportation class of service limitations prescribed in 41 CFR chapter 301. 
</P>
<P>(b) An employee requesting approval of payment of travel expenses by a non-Federal source under this part shall submit to the employee's supervisor (except in the case of Board members) and the DAEO a written description of the following: the nature of the meeting or similar event and the reason that it cannot be held at Eximbank, the date(s) and location of the meeting or similar event, the identities of all participants in the meeting or similar event, the name of the non-Federal source offering to make the payment, the amount and method of the proposed payment, and the nature of the expenses. 
</P>
<P>(c) Payments may be accepted from multiple sources under paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.9" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.9   Conflict of interest analysis.</HEAD>
<P>Eximbank may accept payment from a conflicting non-Federal source if the conditions of § 412.7 are met and the employee's supervisor (except in the case of Board members) and the DAEO determine that Eximbank's interest in the employee's attendance at or participation in the meeting or similar event outweighs concern that acceptance of the payment by Eximbank may cause a reasonable person to question the integrity of Eximbank's programs and operations. In determining whether to accept payment, Eximbank shall consider all relevant factors, including the purpose of the meeting or similar event, the importance of the travel for Eximbank, the nature and sensitivity of any pending matter affecting the interests of the conflicting non-Federal source, the significance of the employee's role in any such matter, the identity of other expected participants, and the location and duration of the meeting or similar event. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.11" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.11   Payment guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Payments from a non-Federal source, other than payments in kind, shall be by check or similar instrument made payable to Eximbank. Payments from a non-Federal source, including payments in kind, are subject to the maximum per diem or actual subsistence expense rates and transportation class of service limitations prescribed in 41 CFR chapter 301. 
</P>
<P>(b) If Eximbank determines in advance of the travel that a payment covers some but not all of the per diem costs to be incurred by the employee, Eximbank shall authorize a reduced per diem rate, in accordance with 41 CFR part 301-7.12. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 412.13" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.9.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 412.13   Limitations and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is in addition to and not in place of any other authority under which Eximbank may accept payment from a non-Federal source or authorize an employee to accept such payment on behalf of Eximbank. This part shall not be applied in connection with the acceptance by Eximbank of payment for travel, subsistence, and related expenses incurred by an employee to attend a meeting or similar function described in and authorized by 41 CFR part 304-1. 
</P>
<P>(b) An employee who accepts any payment in violation of this part is subject to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The employee may be required, in addition to any penalty provided by law and applicable regulations, to repay for deposit to the general fund of the Treasury, an amount equal to the amount of the payment so accepted; and 
</P>
<P>(2) When repayment is required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the employee shall not be entitled to any payment or reimbursement from Eximbank for such expenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="414" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 414—CONFERENCE AND OTHER FEES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 635(a)(1), 5 U.S.C. 553.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 66043, Nov. 27, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 414.1" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 414.1   Collection of conference and other fees.</HEAD>
<P>Ex-Im Bank may impose and collect reasonable fees to cover the costs of conferences and seminars sponsored by, and publications provided by Ex-Im Bank. Amounts received under the preceding sentence shall be credited to the fund which initially paid for such activities and shall be offset against the expenses of Ex-Im Bank for such activities.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="415-499" NODE="12:6.0.2.2.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 415-499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="0" NODE="12:6.0.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">
<HEAD>CHAPTER V [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>July 16, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="7" NODE="12:7" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 7</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter vi</E>—Farm Credit Administration 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>600
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter vii</E>—National Credit Union Administration 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>700
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter viii</E>—Federal Financing Bank 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>810


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="VI" NODE="12:7.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER VI—FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—ADMINISTRATIVE PROVISIONS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="600" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 600—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.7, 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 5.17, 8.11 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2241, 2242, 2243, 2244, 2245, 2252, 2279aa-11).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 16693, May 11, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Farm Credit Administration</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 600.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.1   The Farm Credit Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit Act of 1971, Public Law 92-181 recodified and replaced the prior laws under which the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) and the institutions of the Farm Credit System (System or FCS) were organized and operated. The prior laws, which were repealed and superseded by the Act, are identified in section 5.40(a) of the Act. Subsequent amendments to the Act and enactment dates are as follows: Public Law 94-184, December 31, 1975; Public Law 95-443, October 10, 1978; Public Law 96-592, December 24, 1980; Public Law 99-190, December 19, 1985; Public Law 99-198, December 23, 1985; Public Law 99-205, December 23, 1985; Public Law 99-509, October 21, 1986; Public Law 100-233, January 6, 1988; Public Law 100-399, August 17, 1988; Public Law 100-460, October 1, 1988; Public Law 101-73, August 9, 1989; Public Law 101-220, December 12, 1989; Public Law 101-624, November 28, 1990; Public Law 102-237, December 13, 1991; Public Law 102-552, October 28, 1992; Public Law 103-376, October 19, 1994; Public Law 104-105, February 10, 1996; Public Law 104-316, October 19, 1996; Public Law 107-171, May 13, 2002; Public Law 110-246, June 18, 2008. The law is codified at 12 U.S.C. 2000, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 68428, Nov. 5, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.2   Farm Credit Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Background.</I> The Farm Credit Administration is an independent, non-appropriated fund agency in the executive branch of the Federal Government. The FCA Board and employees carry out the FCA's functions, powers, and duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Locations.</I> FCA's headquarters address is 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. The FCA has the following field offices:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090
</FP-1>
<FP-1>7900 International Drive, Suite 200, Bloomington, MN 55425-2563
</FP-1>
<FP-1>500 East John Carpenter Freeway, Suite 400, Irving, TX 75062-3906
</FP-1>
<FP-1>8101 East Prentice Avenue, Suite 1200, Greenwood Village, CO 80111-2939
</FP-1>
<FP-1>2180 Harvard Street, Suite 300, Sacramento, CA 95815-3323.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 40897, July 14, 2015; 81 FR 47691, July 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.3   Farm Credit Administration Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FCA Board.</I> The President appoints the three full-time Board members with the advice and consent of the Senate. The Board manages, administers, and establishes policies for FCA. The Board promulgates the rules and regulations implementing the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, and provides for the examination of Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Chairman of the FCA Board.</I> The Chairman of the Board is FCA's Chief Executive Officer. The Chairman directs the implementation of the policies and regulations adopted by the Board and, after consulting the Board, the execution of the administrative functions and duties of FCA. In carrying out the Board's policies, the Chairman acts as the spokesperson for the Board and represents the Board and FCA in their official relations within the Federal Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.4   Organization of the Farm Credit Administration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Offices and functions.</I> The primary offices of the FCA are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Office of Inspector General.</I> The Office of Inspector General conducts independent audits, inspections, and investigations of Agency programs and operations and reviews proposed legislation and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secretary to the Board.</I> The Secretary to the Board serves as the parliamentarian for the Board and keeps permanent and complete records and minutes of the acts and proceedings of the Board.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Equal Employment and Inclusion Director.</I> The Office of Equal Employment and Inclusion manages and directs the Agency-wide Diversity, Inclusion, and Equal Employment Opportunity Program for FCA and FCSIC. The office serves as the chief liaison with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and the Office of Personnel Management on all EEO, diversity, and inclusion issues. The office provides counsel and leadership to Agency management to carry out its continuing policy and program of nondiscrimination, affirmative action, and diversity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Designated Agency Ethics Official.</I> The Designated Agency Ethics Official is designated by the FCA Chairman to administer the provisions of title I of the Ethics in Government Act of 1978, as amended, to coordinate and manage FCA's ethics program and to provide liaison to the Office of Government Ethics with regard to all aspects of FCA's ethics program.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Office of Congressional and Public Affairs.</I> The Office of Congressional and Public Affairs performs Congressional liaison duties and coordinates and disseminates Agency communications.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Office of Secondary Market Oversight.</I> The Office of Secondary Market Oversight regulates and examines the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation for safety and soundness and compliance with law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Office of the Chief Operating Officer.</I> The Chief Operating Officer has broad responsibility for planning, directing, and controlling the operations of the Offices of Agency Services, Chief Financial Officer, Examination, Regulatory Policy, Information Technology, Data Analysis and Economics, and General Counsel in accordance with the operating philosophy and policies of the FCA Board.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Office of Agency Services.</I> The Office of Agency Services, manages human capital and administrative services for the Agency. This includes providing the following services to the Agency: Staffing and placement, personnel security programs, job evaluation, compensation and benefits, payroll administration, performance management and awards, employee relations, employee training and development, contracting, acquisitions, records and property management, supply services, agency purchase cards, design, publication, and mail service.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Office of the Chief Financial Officer.</I> The Office of the Chief Financial Officer, manages and delivers timely, accurate, and reliable financial services to the Agency. The office establishes financial policies and procedures and oversees the formulation and execution of the Agency's budget. The office reports periodically on the status of the Agency's financial position, results of operations, and budgetary resources. It also oversees the Agency's travel management and internal controls.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Office of Regulatory Policy.</I> The Office of Regulatory Policy develops policies and regulations for the FCA Board's consideration; evaluates regulatory and statutory prior approvals; manages the Agency's chartering activities; and analyzes policy and strategic risks to the System.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Office of Examination.</I> The Office of Examination evaluates the safety and soundness of FCS institutions and their compliance with law and regulations and manages FCA's enforcement and supervision functions.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Office of Information Technology.</I> The Office of Information Technology manages and delivers the Agency's information technology, data analysis infrastructure, and the security supporting Agency technology resources.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Office of Data Analytics and Economics.</I> The Office of Data Analytics and Economics evaluates strategic risks to the System using data, analytics, economic trends, and other risk factors. The Office serves as a steward for Agency data and as a provider of information for objective, evidence-based decision making across the Agency. The Office facilitates an agency wide strategy for analytics and collaborates across Offices on business intelligence tools and development of models to meet the strategic needs of the Agency.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Office of General Counsel.</I> The Office of General Counsel provides legal advice and services to the FCA Chairman, the FCA Board, and Agency staff.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> You may obtain more information on the FCA's organization by visiting our website at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I> You may also contact the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs:
</P>
<P>(1) In writing at FCA, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090;
</P>
<P>(2) By email at <I>info-line@fca.gov;</I> or
</P>
<P>(3) By telephone at (703) 883-4056.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 6421, Feb. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules and Procedures for Service Upon the Farm Credit Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 600.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 600.10   Service of Process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in the Farm Credit Administration regulations, the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure or by order of a court with jurisdiction over the Farm Credit Administration, any legal process upon the Farm Credit Administration shall be duly issued and served upon the Secretary to the Farm Credit Administration Board, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<P>(b) Service of process upon the Secretary to the Farm Credit Administration Board may be effected by personally delivering a copy of the documents to the Secretary or by sending a copy of the documents to the Secretary by registered or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) The Secretary shall promptly forward a copy of all documents to the General Counsel and to any Farm Credit Administration personnel named in the caption of the documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 21642, Apr. 26, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="601" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 601—EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301; 12 U.S.C. 2243, 2252. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 601.100" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 601.100   Cross-references to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Board members, officers, and other employees of the Farm Credit Administration are subject to the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR part 2635, the Farm Credit Administration regulation at 5 CFR part 4101, which supplements the Executive Branch-wide Standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 30782, June 12, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="602" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 602—RELEASING INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.17, 5.59 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2252, 2277a-8); 5 U.S.C 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 1821(t); 52 FR 10012; E.O. 12600; 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR 1987, p. 235.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Information and Records Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains FCA's rules for disclosing our records or information; processing requests for records under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552, as amended)(FOIA); FOIA fees; disclosing otherwise exempt information in litigation when FCA is not a party; and getting documents in public rulemaking files. Part 603 of this chapter tells you how to get records about yourself under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.2   Disclosing reports of examination and other non-public information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure by FCA.</I> Reports of examination are FCA property. We prepare them for our confidential use and the use of the institution examined. We do not give reports of examination to the public. Except as provided in this section, only the Chairman or the Chairman's designee may consent to disclosing reports of examination of Farm Credit System institutions and other institutions subject to our examination. You may send a written request to our General Counsel that explains why we should give permission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure by Farm Credit System institutions.</I> An institution that we have examined may disclose its report of examination to its officers, directors, and agents, such as its attorney or accountant, if they agree to keep the report confidential. In addition, banks may disclose their reports of examination to their affiliated associations, associations may disclose their reports to their supervisory bank, and service corporations may disclose their reports of examination to the institutions that own them. An institution may not disclose these institutions' reports of examination to any other person without our written permission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</I> Without waiving any privilege or limiting any of the requirements of section 5.59 of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, we may disclose reports of examination and other examination and non-public information, including data from reports of System accounts and exposures received pursuant to § 621.15 of this chapter, to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation pursuant to confidentiality and data security agreements executed between the agencies.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure to governmental entities.</I> Without waiving any privilege, we will disclose reports of examination to other Federal government entities:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to a Federal court order;
</P>
<P>(2) In response to a request of either House or a Committee or Subcommittee of Congress; or
</P>
<P>(3) When requested for confidential use in an official investigation by authorized representatives of other Federal agencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999, as amended at 78 FR 77561, Dec. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Availability of Records of the Farm Credit Administration</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Appeal</I> means a request under the FOIA asking for the reversal of a decision.
</P>
<P><I>Business information</I> means trade secrets or other commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P><I>Business submitter</I> means any person or entity that gives business information to the Government.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA request</I> means a written request for FCA records, made by any person or entity that either directly or indirectly invokes the FOIA or this part.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means all documentary materials, such as books, papers, maps, photographs, and machine-readable materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics (for example, electronic format) in our possession and control when we receive your FOIA request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.4   How to make a request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to make and address a request.</I> Your request for records must be in writing and addressed to the FOIA Officer, Farm Credit Administration. You may send it:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail to 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090;
</P>
<P>(2) By facsimile to (703) 790-0052; or
</P>
<P>(3) By E-mail to <I>foiaofficer@fca.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of requested records.</I> You must describe the requested records in enough detail to let us find them with a reasonable effort. If the description is inadequate, we will ask you to provide more information and the 20-day response period under § 602.5(a) will not begin until we receive your reply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Faster response.</I> You may ask for a faster response to your FOIA request by giving us a statement, certified to be true, that you have a “compelling need.” The FOIA Officer will tell you within 10 calendar days after receiving the request whether we will respond to it faster. If so, we will respond to your request as soon as we can. A <I>compelling need</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Someone's life or physical safety may be in danger if we do not respond to the request faster; or
</P>
<P>(2) You urgently need to tell the public about Federal government activity as a representative of the news media.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for personal information.</I> If you or your representative requests your personal information, we may require you to give us a notarized request, identify yourself under penalty of perjury, or provide other proof of your identity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees.</I> When making a request, you must tell us the most you are willing to pay. Our charges are in the fee tables in §§ 602.11 and 602.12. You may also want to tell us the purpose of your request so we can classify your request for fee purposes.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other requests.</I> To ensure the public has timely information about our activities, the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs will make available copies of public documents, such as the FCA annual report and media advisories.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.5   FCA response to requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Response time.</I> Within 20 business days of receiving your request, the FOIA Officer will tell you whether we have granted or denied it. If you send your request to the wrong address, the 20-day response time will not begin until the FOIA Officer receives your request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension of response time.</I> In “unusual circumstances,” the FOIA Officer may extend the 20-day response time for up to 10 more business days by telling you in writing why we need more time and the date we will mail you our response. As used in this subpart, “unusual circumstances” means our need to:
</P>
<P>(1) Search for and get the requested records from field offices or other locations;
</P>
<P>(2) Search for, get, and review many records identified in a single request;
</P>
<P>(3) Consult with another Federal agency having a substantial interest in the request; or
</P>
<P>(4) Consult with two or more FCA offices having a substantial interest in the request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referrals.</I> If you ask for records we have that another Federal agency originated, we will refer the request to the originating agency and tell you about the referral. If you should have sent your request to another Federal agency, we will refer the request to that agency and so advise you.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.6   FOIA exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The FOIA allows agencies to withhold documents in certain categories. For instance, we do not have to give you documents that relate to our examination of institutions or that would violate the personal privacy of an individual. If we do not give you a document because the FOIA does not require us to, we will tell you which FOIA exemption applies to our decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.7   Confidential business information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FCA disclosure.</I> FCA may disclose business information from a business submitter only under this section. This section will not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) We decide the business submitter has no valid basis to object to disclosure;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been published lawfully or made available to the public; or
</P>
<P>(3) Law (other than the FOIA) requires disclosure of the information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice by FCA.</I> When we receive a request for confidential business information, the FOIA Officer will promptly tell the requester and the business submitter in writing that the responsive records may be free from disclosure under the FOIA. We will give the business submitter a reasonable time to object to the proposed disclosure of the responsive records and tell the requester whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The business submitter has in good faith labeled the information a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. We will provide such notice for 10 years after receiving the information unless the business submitter justifies the need for a longer period; or
</P>
<P>(2) We believe that disclosing the information may result in commercial or financial injury to the business submitter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Objection to release.</I> A business submitter who objects to our releasing the requested information should tell us in writing why the information is a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FCA response.</I> (1) We will consider carefully a business submitter's objections. If we decide to disclose business information over the submitter's objection, the FOIA Officer will explain to the submitter in writing why we disagreed with the submitter's objection and describe the business information to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) We will tell the requester and the submitter the proposed disclosure date at the same time.
</P>
<P>(3) If a submitter sues to prevent release, we will promptly tell the requester and will not disclose the business information until after the court's decision.
</P>
<P>(4) If a requester sues to compel disclosure, we will promptly tell the business submitter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.8" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.8   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to appeal.</I> You may appeal a total or partial denial of your FOIA request within 90 calendar days of the date of the denial letter. Your appeal must be in writing and addressed to the Director, Office of Agency Services (OAS), Farm Credit Administration. You may send it:
</P>
<P>(1) By mail to 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090;
</P>
<P>(2) By facsimile to (703) 893-2608; or
</P>
<P>(3) By Email to <I>foiaappeal@fca.gov.</I> You also have the right to seek dispute resolution services from FCA's FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FCA action on appeal.</I> Within 20 business days of receiving your appeal, the OAS Director will tell you, in writing, whether we have granted or denied it. If you send your appeal to the wrong address, the 20-day response time will not begin until the OAS Director receives your appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> In unusual circumstances, the OAS Director may extend the 20-day response time by telling you in writing why we need more time and the date we will mail you our response. All extensions, including any extension of the response time for the first request, may not total more than 10 business days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How to seek dispute resolution services.</I> Requesters may seek dispute resolution services from:
</P>
<P>(1) FCA's FOIA Public Liaison;
</P>
<P>(i) By mail addressed to FOIA Public Liaison, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22101-5090;
</P>
<P>(ii) By facsimile at 703-790-3260; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By Email at <I>FOIAPublicLiaison@fca.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Office of Government Information Services;
</P>
<P>(i) By mail to Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road—OGIS, College Park, Maryland, 20740-6001;
</P>
<P>(ii) By facsimile at (202) 741-5769; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By Email at <I>ogis@nara.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005; 81 FR 47692, July 22, 2016; 81 FR 63366, Sept. 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.9   Current FOIA index.</HEAD>
<P>FCA will make a current index available for public inspection and copying, as required by the FOIA. We will give you an index for the cost of copying it. Because we rarely receive requests for an index, we have not published one in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—FOIA Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Commercial use request</I> means an information request by an individual or entity seeking information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of that individual or entity.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> means the costs FCA incurs in searching for and reproducing documents to respond to a FOIA request. For a commercial use request, it also means the costs we incur in reviewing documents to respond to the request. Direct costs include the pro rated cost of the salary of the employee performing the work (based on the basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover benefits) and the cost of operating reproduction equipment. They do not include overhead expenses.
</P>
<P><I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, or an institution of vocational education that runs a program of scholarly research.
</P>
<P><I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means a nonprofit institution that conducts scientific research that is not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P><I>Pages</I> mean 8-1/2 × 11 inch or 11 × 14 inch paper copies.
</P>
<P><I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person actively gathering news for an entity that publishes or broadcasts news to the public. <I>News</I> means information about current events or of current interest to the public.
</P>
<P><I>Reproduce (or reproduction)</I> means copying a record.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means looking at documents found in response to a FOIA request to decide whether any portion should be withheld. It does not include the time spent resolving legal or policy issues.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means all time spent looking for material responsive to a FOIA request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.11   Fees by type of requester.</HEAD>
<P>Depending on your identity and the purpose of your request, the FCA may charge you the direct costs of searching for responsive records, reviewing the records, and reproducing them. If necessary, we will seek clarification before classifying the request.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Educational institutions and noncommercial scientific institutions.</I> We charge fees for reproduction costs only. The first 100 pages are free. You must show that the request is sanctioned by an educational or noncommercial scientific institution and that you seek the records for scholarly or scientific research, not for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representatives of the news media.</I> We charge fees for reproduction costs only. The first 100 pages are free. You must be a representative of the news media, and the request must not be made for a commercial use. A request for records supporting news distribution is not a request for a commercial use.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commercial use.</I> We charge the direct cost for search, review, and reproduction. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to free search time or free reproduction. We will charge you even if we do not disclose any records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>All others.</I> The first 2 hours of search time and the first 100 pages of reproduction are free. After that, we will charge you for search and reproduction costs. We will charge you for a search even if we do not disclose any records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fee table.</I> The fee information in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section is presented in the table to this paragraph. You may apply for a waiver if your request is not mostly in your commercial interest and the disclosure is in the public interest. <I>See</I> § 602.13.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Fee Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Type of requester
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Charges for
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Reproduction
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Search time
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Review time
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">•Educational
<br/>•Noncommercial scientific users
<br/>•News media</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No Charge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No charge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages free, $ 0.15 a page after that.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial Users 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All direct costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">All direct costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.15 a page.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All others 
<sup>1</sup></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 2 hours free, all direct costs after that</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No charge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First 100 pages free, $0.15 a page after that.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> You are responsible for fees even if we do not disclose any records.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999; 64 FR 45589, Aug. 20, 1999]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.12" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.12   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FCA may charge:
</P>
<P>(1) For manual searches for records and for review, the pro rated cost of the salary of the employee doing the work.
</P>
<P>(2) For computer searches for records, the direct costs of computer search time and supply or material costs.
</P>
<P>(3) For each page made by photocopy or similar method, fifteen cents a page, and for other forms of copying, the direct costs.
</P>
<P>(4) The direct costs of elective services, such as certifying records as true copies or sending records by special methods.
</P>
<P>(b) We will not charge fees when total assessed fees are less than $15.00.
</P>
<P>(c) You must pay by personal check, bank draft drawn on a United States bank, or postal money order made payable to the Treasury of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) We treat a request about yourself under Privacy Act fee rules.
</P>
<P>(e) The information in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is presented in the table to this paragraph. Direct costs means the costs FCA incurs in searching for, reviewing, and reproducing documents to respond to a request. Direct costs include pro rated salary and reproduction costs. We will not charge fees when they total less than $15.00.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Fee Amounts Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of fee
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Amount of fee
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Manual Search and Review</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Pro rated Salary Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Computer Search</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Photocopy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.15 a page.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Reproduction Costs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Costs.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Elective Services</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Direct Costs.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(f) We will not assess fees if we fail to comply with any time limit under the FOIA or these regulations, and have not timely notified the requester, in writing, that an unusual circumstance exists. If an unusual circumstance exists, and timely, written notice is given to the requester, we may be excused an additional 10 working days before fees are automatically waived under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(g) If we determine that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to a request, we may charge fees if we provided a timely, written notice to the requester and discussed with the requester via mail, Email, or telephone (or made at least three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(h) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, a failure to comply with time limits imposed by these regulations or FOIA shall be excused for the length of time provided by court order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 63366, Sept. 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.13" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.13   Fee waiver.</HEAD>
<P>We may waive or reduce fees if disclosure is not mostly in your commercial interest but, instead, is in the public interest because it will advance public understanding of the Federal government's operations or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.14" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.14   Advance payments—notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If fees will be more than $25.00 and you have not told us in advance that you will pay estimated fees, we will tell you the estimated amount and ask that you agree to pay it. Except as noted in this section, we will begin processing the FOIA request when we receive your agreement to pay.
</P>
<P>(b) If estimated fees exceed $250.00 and you have a history of promptly paying fees charged for information requests, we may respond to your request based on your agreement to pay.
</P>
<P>(c) If estimated fees exceed $250.00 and you have no history of paying fees, we may require you to pay in advance.
</P>
<P>(d) If you have previously failed to pay fees for information requests or paid them late, you must pay any fees still owed, plus interest calculated under § 602.15, and the estimated fees before we will respond to a new or a pending request.
</P>
<P>(e) If we require advance payment or an advance agreement to pay, we will not consider your request to be received and will not respond to it until you meet the requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.15   Interest on unpaid fees.</HEAD>
<P>If you fail to pay fees on time, FCA may charge you interest starting on the 31st calendar day following the date we bill you. We will charge you interest at the rate allowed by law (31 U.S.C. 3717) on the billing date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.16" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.16   Combining requests.</HEAD>
<P>You may not avoid paying fees by filing multiple requests at the same time. When FCA reasonably believes that you, alone or with others, are breaking down one request into a series of requests to avoid fees, we will combine the requests and charge accordingly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 63366, Sept. 15, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Testimony and Production of Documents in Legal Proceedings in Which FCA is Not a Named Party</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.17" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.17   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules in this subpart preserve the confidentiality of FCA's documents and information, conserve employees' time for official duties, uphold fairness in litigation, and help the Chairman decide when to allow testimony and to produce documents. This subpart does not affect access to documents under the FOIA or the Privacy Act. See subpart B of this part and part 603 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) Generally, we will not produce documents voluntarily and employees will not appear as witnesses voluntarily in any legal proceeding. However, in limited circumstances, the Chairman may allow the production of documents or testimony when the Chairman decides it would be in the best interest of FCA or the public. All privileged documents produced under this subpart remain our property. Any employee having information or privileged documents may disclose them only as allowed by the Chairman.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.18" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.18   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Court</I> means any entity conducting a legal proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I> means any order, subpoena, or other legal process for testimony or documents.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> means FCA's costs to search for, review, and reproduce documents to respond to a request. Direct costs include the pro rated cost of the salary of the employee performing the work (based on the basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover benefits) and the cost of operating reproduction equipment.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means any record or other documentary materials, such as books, papers, maps, photographs, and machine-readable materials, regardless of physical form or characteristics (for example, electronic format) in our possession and control when we receive the request.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any present or former FCA employee, any present or former FCA Board member, any former Federal Farm Credit Board member, any present or former FCA-appointed receiver or conservator, and any present or former agent or contractor.
</P>
<P><I>FCA Counsel</I> means the General Counsel, a Department of Justice attorney, or counsel authorized by FCA to act for the FCA or an employee.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the FCA's General Counsel or designee.
</P>
<P><I>Legal proceeding</I> means any administrative, civil, or criminal proceeding, including a discovery proceeding, before a court when FCA is not a named party and has not instituted the legal proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.19" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.19   Request for testimony or production of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to make and address a request.</I> Your request for an employee's testimony about official matters or the production of documents must be in writing and addressed to the General Counsel, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<P>(b) Your request must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Title of the case;
</P>
<P>(2) Forum;
</P>
<P>(3) Your interest in the case;
</P>
<P>(4) Summary of the litigation issues;
</P>
<P>(5) Reasons for the request;
</P>
<P>(6) Why the confidential information is important; and
</P>
<P>(7) An explanation of why the testimony or document you want is not reasonably available from another source. If you want testimony, you must also state how you intend to use the testimony, provide a subject matter summary of the requested testimony, and explain why a document could not be used instead.
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel may ask you to limit your request to make it less burdensome or to give us information to help us decide if providing documents or testimony is in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.20   Testimony of FCA employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee may testify only as the Chairman approves in writing. Generally, an employee may testify only by deposition or written interrogatory. An employee may give only factual testimony and may not give opinion testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) If, in response to your request, the Chairman decides that an employee may testify, you must serve the employee with a subpoena under applicable Federal or State rules of procedure and at the same time send a copy of the subpoena by registered mail to the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) Normally, depositions will be taken at the employee's office, at a time convenient to the employee and the FCA. FCA counsel may represent FCA's interests at the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) If you request the deposition, you must give the General Counsel a copy of the deposition transcript at no charge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.21   Production of FCA documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An FCA employee may produce documents only as the Chairman allows.
</P>
<P>(b) Before we will release any documents, the requesting party must get an acceptable protective order from the court before which the action is pending that will preserve the confidentiality of the documents to be released.
</P>
<P>(c) On request, we may provide certified or authenticated copies of documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.22" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.22   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For documents released under this subpart, FCA will charge:
</P>
<P>(1) The direct costs of searching for responsive records, including the use of a computer, reviewing the records, and reproducing them. We also will charge for the direct costs of any other services and materials that we provide at your request.
</P>
<P>(2) Fifteen cents a copy for each page made by photocopy or similar process.
</P>
<P>(3) The direct costs for each certification or authentication of documents.
</P>
<P>(b) You must pay by personal check, bank draft drawn on a United States bank, or postal money order made payable to FCA. We will waive fees of $15.00 or less. We will send the documents after we receive your payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.23" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.23   Responses to demands served on FCA employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee served with a demand or a subpoena in a legal proceeding must immediately tell the General Counsel of such service, the testimony or documents described in the demand, and all relevant facts.
</P>
<P>(b) When the Chairman does not allow testimony or production of documents, FCA Counsel will provide the regulations in this subpart to the party or court issuing the demand and explain that the employee may not testify or produce documents without the Chairman's prior approval.
</P>
<P>(c) If the court rules the employee must comply with the demand regardless of the Chairman's instructions not to do so, the employee must respectfully refuse to comply.
</P>
<P>(d) FCA's decision under this subpart to comply or not to comply with any demand is not a waiver, an assertion of privilege, or an objection based on relevance, technical deficiency, or any other ground. We may oppose any demand on any legal ground.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.24" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.24   Responses to demands served on non-FCA employees or entities.</HEAD>
<P>If you are not an employee and are served with a demand or a subpoena in a legal proceeding directing you to produce or testify about an FCA report of examination, other document created or adopted by FCA, or any related document, you must object and immediately tell the General Counsel of such service, the testimony or documents described in the demand, and all relevant facts. You also must object to the production of any documents on the basis that they are FCA's property and cannot be released without FCA's consent. You should tell the requester the production of documents or testimony must follow the procedures in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Release of Records in Public Rulemaking Files</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 602.25" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 602.25   General.</HEAD>
<P>FCA has a public rulemaking file for each regulation. You may get copies of documents in the public rulemaking file by sending a written request to the Director, Office of Regulatory Policy, Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. We will charge fifteen cents a copy for each page. We will waive fees of $15.00 or less. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41770, Aug. 2, 1999, as amended at 81 FR 47692, July 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="603" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 603—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2252); 5 U.S.C. app. 3, 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2) and (k)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 603.300" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.300   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is published by the Farm Credit Administration pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a) which requires each Federal agency to promulgate rules to establish procedures for notification and disclosure to an individual of agency records pertaining to that person, and for review of such records.
</P>
<P>(b) The records covered by this part include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel and employment records maintained by the Farm Credit Administration which are not covered by §§ 293.101 through 293.108 of the regulations of the Office of Personnel Management (5 CFR 293.101 through 293.108), and
</P>
<P>(2) Other records contained in record systems maintained by the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 41941, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.305" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.305   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency including, but not limited to, that person's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, and that contains that person's name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or photograph;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8;
</P>
<P>(g) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41941, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.310" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.310   Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a record system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any present or former employee of the Farm Credit Administration seeking access to that person's official civil service records maintained by the Farm Credit Administration shall submit a request in such manner as is prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management.
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals shall submit their requests in writing to the Privacy Act Officer, Office of General Counsel, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090, when seeking to obtain from the Farm Credit Administration:
</P>
<P>(1) Notification of whether the agency maintains a record pertaining to that person in a system of records;
</P>
<P>(2) Notification of whether the agency has disclosed a record for which an accounting of disclosure is required to be maintained and made available to that person;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of a record pertaining to that person or the accounting of its disclosure;
</P>
<P>(4) The review of a record pertaining to that person or the accounting of its disclosure. The request shall state the full name and address of the individual, and identify the system or systems of records believed to contain the information or record sought.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41941, Nov. 20, 1986, as amended at 61 FR 67185, Dec. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.315" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.315   Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>The individual making written requests for information or records ordinarily will not be required to verify that person's identity. The signature upon such requests shall be deemed to be a certification by the requester that he or she is the individual to whom the record pertains, or the parent of a minor, or the duly appointed legal guardian of the individual to whom the record pertains. The Privacy Act Officer, however, may require such additional verification of identity in any instance in which the Privacy Act Officer deems it advisable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41941, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.320" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.320   Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Privacy Act Officer shall, within a reasonable period of time after the date of receipt of a request for information of records:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether or not such request shall be granted, 
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the requester of the determination and, if the request is denied, of the reasons therefor, and 
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the requester that fees for reproducing copies of records may be charged as provided in § 603.345 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) If access to a record is denied because the information therein has been compiled by the Farm Credit Administration in reasonable anticipation of a civil or criminal action proceeding, the Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requester of that person's right to judicial appeal under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g).
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If access to a record is granted, the requester shall notify the Officer whether the requested record is to be copied and mailed to the requester or whether the record is to be made available for personal inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who is an individual may be accompanied by an individual selected by the requester when the record is disclosed, in which case the requester may be required to furnish a written statement authorizing the discussion of the record in the presence of the accompanying person.
</P>
<P>(d) If the record is to be made available for personal inspection, the requester shall arrange with the Privacy Act Officer a mutually agreeable time in the offices of the Farm Credit Administration for inspection of the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 41941, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.325" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.325   Special procedures for medical records.</HEAD>
<P>Medical records in the custody of the Farm Credit Administration which are not subject to Office of Personnel Management regulations shall be disclosed either to the individual to whom they pertain or that person's authorized or legal representative or to a licensed physician named by the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.330" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.330   Request for amendment to record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after disclosure of the requested information, an individual believes that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete, that person may request in writing that the record be amended. Such a request shall be submitted to the Privacy Act Officer and shall contain identification of the system of records and the record or information therein, a brief description of the material requested to be changed, the requested change or changes, and the reason for such change or changes.
</P>
<P>(b) The Privacy Act Officer shall acknowledge receipt of the request within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) and, if a determination has not been made, advise the individual when that person may expect to be advised of action taken on the request. The acknowledgment may contain a request for additional information needed to make a determination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.335" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.335   Agency review of request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a request for amendment of a record, the Privacy Act Officer shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Correct any portion of a record which the individual making the request believes is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete and thereafter inform the individual in writing of such correction, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Inform the individual in writing of refusal to amend the record and of the reasons therefor, and advise that the individual may appeal such determination as provided in § 603.340 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.340" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.340   Appeal of an initial adverse determination of a request to amend a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not more than 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) after receipt by an individual of an adverse determination on the individual's request to amend a record or otherwise, the individual may appeal to the Director, Office of Agency Services. 
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal shall be by letter, mailed or delivered to the Director, Office of Agency Services, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. The letter shall identify the records involved in the same manner they were identified to the Privacy Act Officer, shall specify the dates of the request and adverse determination, and shall indicate the expressed basis for that determination. Also, the letter shall state briefly and succinctly the reasons why the adverse determination should be reversed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The review shall be completed and a final determination made by the Director not later than 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) from receipt of the request for such review, unless the Director extends such 30-day period for good cause. If the 30-day period is extended, the individual shall be notified of the reasons therefor. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Director refuses to amend the record in accordance with the request, the individual shall be notified of the right to file a concise statement setting forth that person's disagreement with the final determination and that person's right under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A) to a judicial review of the final determination. 
</P>
<P>(e) If an amendment of a record as requested upon review is refused, there shall be included in the disputed portion of the record a copy of the concise statement filed by the individual together with a concise statement of the reasons for not amending the record as requested. Such statements will be included when disclosure of the disputed record is made to persons and agencies as authorized under 5 U.S.C. 552a. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986; 56 FR 2673, Jan. 24, 1991; 70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005; 81 FR 47692, July 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.345" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.345   Fees for providing copies of records.</HEAD>
<P>Fees for providing copies of records shall be charged in accordance with §§ 602.11 and 602.12 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 56 FR 28479, June 21, 1991; 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.350" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.350   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Section 552a (i)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)) makes it a misdemeanor, subject to a maximum fine of $5,000, to knowingly and willfully request or obtain any record concerning any individual from an agency under false pretenses. Sections 552a (i) (1) and (2) of the Act (5 U.S.C. 552a (i) (1), (2)) provide penalties for violation by agency employees of the Act or regulations established thereunder. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 40454, Sept. 2, 1975, as amended at 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 603.355" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.4.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 603.355   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Specific.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes in the following systems of records is exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I) and (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a and from the provisions of this part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-1>Farm Credit Bank loans—FCA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Production Credit Association loans—FCA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Agricultural Credit Association loans—FCA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Federal Land Credit Association loans—FCA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Agricultural Credit Bank loans—FCA.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Office of Inspector General Investigative Files—FCA.</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> (1) In addition, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a (j)(2), investigatory materials compiled for criminal law enforcement in the system of records described in (b)(2) are exempt from all subsections of 5 U.S.C. 552a, except (b), (c) (1) and (2), (e)(4) (A) through (F), (e) (6), (7), (9), (10), and (11), and (i). Exemptions from the particular subsections are justified for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) From subsection (c)(3) because making available to a record subject the accounting of disclosures from records concerning him/her would reveal investigative interest on the part of the OIG. This would enable record subjects to impede the investigation by, for example, destroying evidence, intimidating potential witnesses, or fleeing the area to avoid inquiries or apprehension by law enforcement personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) From subsection (c)(4) because this system is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d) pursuant to subsection (j)(2) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) From subsection (d) because the records contained in this system relate to official Federal investigations. Individual access to those records might compromise ongoing investigations, reveal confidential informants or constitute unwarranted invasions of the personal privacy of third parties who are involved in a certain investigation. Amendment of the records would interfere with ongoing criminal law enforcement proceedings and impose an impossible administrative burden by requiring criminal investigations to be continuously reinvestigated.
</P>
<P>(iv) From subsections (e) (1) and (5) because in the course of law enforcement investigations, information may occasionally be obtained or introduced the accuracy of which is unclear or which is not strictly relevant or necessary to a specific investigation. In the interests of effective law enforcement, it is appropriate to retain all information that may aid in establishing patterns of criminal activity. Moreover, it would impede the specific investigative process if it were necessary to assure the relevance, accuracy, timeliness and completeness of all information obtained.
</P>
<P>(v) From subsection (e)(2) because in a law enforcement investigation the requirement that information be collected to the greatest extent possible from the subject individual would present a serious impediment to law enforcement in that the subject of the investigation would be informed of the existence of the investigation and would therefore be able to avoid detection, apprehension, or legal obligations or duties.
</P>
<P>(vi) From subsection (e)(3) because to comply with the requirements of this subsection during the course of an investigation could impede the information gathering process, thus hampering the investigation.
</P>
<P>(vii) From subsections (e)(4) (G), and (H), and (I), (e)(8), (f), (g) and (h) because this system is exempt from the access provisions of subsection (d) pursuant to subsection (j) of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Office of Inspector General Investigative Files—FCA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 2673, Jan. 24, 1991, as amended at 57 FR 32421, July 22, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="604" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 604—FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION BOARD MEETINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2243, 2252. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 604.400" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.400   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Farm Credit Administration Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt meeting</I> and <I>exempt portion of a meeting</I> mean, respectively, a meeting or that part of a meeting designated as provided in § 604.430 of this part as closed to the public by reason of one or more of the exemptive provisions listed in § 604.420 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Meeting</I> means the deliberations of at least two (quorum) members of the Board where such deliberations determine or result in joint conduct or disposition of official Farm Credit Administration business. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member</I> means any one of the members of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Open meeting</I> means a meeting or portion of a meeting which is not an exempt meeting or an exempt portion of a meeting. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public observation</I> means the right of any member of the public to attend and observe, but not participate or interfere in any way in, an open meeting of the Board, within the limits of reasonable and comfortable accommodations made available for such purpose by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.405" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.405   Notice of public observation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the public is not required to give advance notice to the Farm Credit Administration of an intention to exercise the right of public observation of an open meeting of the Board. However, in order to permit the Farm Credit Administration to determine the amount of space and number of seats which must be made available to accommodate individuals who desire to exercise the right of public observation, such individuals are requested to give notice to the Farm Credit Administration at least two business days before the start of the open meeting of the intention to exercise such right. 
</P>
<P>(b) Notice of intention to exercise the right of public observation may be given in writing, in person, or by telephone to the official designated in § 604.440 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Individuals who have not given advance notice of intention to exercise the right of public observation will not be permitted to attend and observe the open meeting of the Board if the available space and seating are necessary to accommodate individuals who gave advance notice of such intention to the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12161, Mar. 3, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.410" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.410   Scope of application.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to meetings of the Board, and do not apply to conferences or other gatherings of employees of the Farm Credit Administration who meet or join with others, except at meetings of the Board, to deliberate official agency business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41942, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.415" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.415   Open meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Every meeting and portion of a meeting of the Board shall be open to public observation unless the Board determines that such meeting or portion of a meeting will involve the discussion of matters which are within one or more of the exemptive provisions listed in § 604.420 of this part, and that the public interest is not served by the discussion of such matters in an open meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41943, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.420" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.420   Exemptive provisions.</HEAD>
<P>Except in a case where the Board determines that the public interest requires otherwise, a meeting or portion of a meeting may be closed to public observation where the Board determines that the meeting or portion of the meeting is likely to: 
</P>
<P>(a) Disclose matters that are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy, and 
</P>
<P>(2) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order; 
</P>
<P>(b) Relate solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Farm Credit Administration; 
</P>
<P>(c) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552): <I>Provided,</I> That such statute: 
</P>
<P>(1) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Establishes particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(d) Disclose trade secrets and privileged or confidential commercial or financial information obtained from a person; 
</P>
<P>(e) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person; 
</P>
<P>(f) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(g) Disclose investigator records compiled for law enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would:
</P>
<P>(1) Interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(2) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(3) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source;
</P>
<P>(5) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures; or
</P>
<P>(6) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel;
</P>
<P>(h) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, supervision, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would:
</P>
<P>(1) Significantly endanger the stability of any Farm Credit System institution, including banks, associations, service corporations chartered under the Act, or the Funding Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action of the Farm Credit Administration: <I>Provided,</I> said Administration has not already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or is not required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or 
</P>
<P>(j) Specifically concern participation by the Farm Credit Administration in a civil action or proceeding otherwise involving a determination on the record before an opportunity for a hearing. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41943, Nov. 20, 1986, as amended at 56 FR 2673, Jan. 24, 1991; 75 FR 35967, June 24, 2010; 78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.425" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.425   Announcement of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board meets in the offices of the Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090, on the second Thursday of each month, unless the Board fixes a different time and/or place for a meeting and follows the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Farm Credit Administration shall make available for public inspection the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting, and whether it is to be open or closed, by posting notice on its public notice board or on its public Web site except to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure under the provisions of § 604.420 of this part. The public announcement must be made at least 1 week before the meeting, unless a majority of the FCA Board determines by a recorded vote that agency business requires that a meeting be called on lesser notice, in which case the announcement shall be made at the earliest practicable time.
</P>
<P>(2) Once a meeting has been announced, the time, place, and subject matter of the meeting and whether it is open or closed to the public may be changed following the requirements of the Government in the Sunshine Act, 5 U.S.C. 552b. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 44727, Aug. 31, 2009, as amended at 85 FR 6422, Feb. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.430" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.430   Closure of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A majority of the meetings or portions of a majority of the meetings of the board are exempt by reason of § 604.420 (d), (h), (i)(1), or (j) of this part. An exempt meeting or an exempt portion of a meeting shall be closed to the public when at least two members of the Board vote by a recorded vote of the Board at the beginning of the exempt meeting or exempt portion of a meeting to close such meeting or such exempt portion, and the General Counsel, Farm Credit Administration, publicly certifies that, in his or her opinion, the meeting or portion of the meeting may be closed to the public stating each relevant exemptive provision listed in § 604.420 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the vote of the Board to close a meeting or an exempt portion thereof reflecting the vote of each member on the question, and a copy of the certification of General Counsel, shall be made available for public inspection in the offices of the Farm Credit Administration, or pursuant to telephonic or written requests. 
</P>
<P>(c) A copy of the certification of the General Counsel, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of an exempt meeting or an exempt portion of a meeting which was closed and the persons present, shall be retained by the Farm Credit Administration for a period of at least 2 years after the date of such closed meeting or closed portion of a meeting. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12161, Mar. 3, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 51 FR 41943, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.435" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.435   Record of closed meetings or closed portion of a meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit Administration shall maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each closed meeting or closed portion of a meeting, except that in the case of a meeting or portion of a meeting closed to the public pursuant to § 604.420 (d), (h), (i)(1), or (j) of this part, the Farm Credit Administration shall maintain either such transcript, recording, or a set of minutes.
</P>
<P>(b) Any minutes so maintained shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of each of the views expressed on any item and the record of any roll call vote. All documents considered in connection with any action shall be identified in the minutes. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Farm Credit Administration shall promptly make available to the public, in its offices, the transcript, electronic recording, or minutes, of the discussion of any item on the agenda of a closed meeting, or closed portion of a meeting, except for such item or items of discussion which the Farm Credit Administration determines to contain information which may be withheld under § 604.420 of this part. Copies of such transcript or minutes, or a transcription of such recording disclosing the identity of each speaker, shall be furnished to any person at the actual cost of duplication or transcription.
</P>
<P>(d) The Farm Credit Administration shall maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes, or a complete electronic recording of each closed meeting or closed portion of a meeting for a period of 2 years after the date of such closed meeting or closed portion of a meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) All actions required or permitted by this section to be undertaken by the Farm Credit Administration shall be by or under the authority of the Secretary to the Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 12161, Mar. 3, 1977. Redesignated and amended at 51 FR 41943, Nov. 20, 1986; 56 FR 2673, Jan. 24, 1991; 70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 604.440" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 604.440   Requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>Requests to the Farm Credit Administration for information about the time, place, and subject matter of a meeting, whether it or any portion thereof is closed to the public, and any requests for copies of the transcript or minutes, or of a transcript of an electronic recording of a closed meeting, or closed portion of a meeting, to the extent not exempt from disclosure by the provisions of § 604.420 of this part, shall be addressed to the Secretary to the Board, Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 6422, Feb. 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="605" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 605—INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.12, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2243, 2246, 2252. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 605.500" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.500   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Farm Credit Administration to act in matters relating to national security information in accordance with Executive Order 13292 and directives issued thereunder by the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9859, Mar. 16, 1984, as amended at 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.501" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.501   Information Security Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Information Security Officer of the Farm Credit Administration shall be responsible for implementation and oversight of the information security program and procedures adopted by the Agency pursuant to the Executive order. This officer shall be the recipient of questions, suggestions, and complaints regarding all elements of this program and shall be solely responsible for changes to it and for the assurance that it is at all times consistent with the Executive order and ISOO directive.
</P>
<P>(b) The Information Security Officer shall be the Farm Credit Administration's official contact for requests for declassification of materials submitted under the Executive order, regardless of the point of origin of such requests, and shall assure that such requests for records in the Farm Credit Administration's possession that were originated by another agency shall be forwarded to the originating agency. The Farm Credit Administration shall include a copy of the records requested together with its recommendation for action. Upon receipt, the originating agency shall process the request in accordance with 32 CFR 2001.33(a)(2)(i). Upon request, the originating agency shall communicate its declassification determination to the Farm Credit Administration. The Farm Credit Administration shall inform the requester of the determination within 1 year from the date of receipt, except in unusual circumstances. If an appeal is made on a denial of a mandatory declassification review request, the originating agency's appellate authority shall normally make a determination within 30 working days following the receipt of an appeal. If additional time is required to make a determination, the originating appellate authority shall notify the requester of the additional time needed and provide the requester with the reason for extension. The originating agency's appellate authority shall notify the requester in writing of the final determination and of the reasons for any denial. Such officer shall also assure that requests for declassification submitted under the Freedom of Information Act are handled in accordance with that Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9859, Mar. 16, 1984, as amended at 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 605.502" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 605.502   Program and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit Administration has no authority for the original classification of information for national security purposes. Only those agencies described in the Executive order may so classify information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Derivative classification.</I> “Derivative classification” means the incorporating, paraphrasing, restating or generating in new form information that is already classified, and marking the newly developed material consistent with the classification markings that apply to the source information. Derivative classification includes the classification of information based on classification guidance. The duplication or reproduction of existing classified information is not derivative classification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mandatory declassification review.</I> “Mandatory declassification review” means the review for declassification of classified information in response to a request for declassification that meets the requirements under section 3.5 of the Executive order. All requests for review for declassification under the mandatory review provisions of the Executive order shall be handled by the Information Security Officer or his/her designee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Handling of classified documents.</I> All documents bearing the terms “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential” shall be delivered to the Information Security Officer or his/her designee immediately upon receipt. All potential recipients of such documents shall be advised of the names of such designees. In the event that the Information Security Officer or his/her designee is not available to receive such documents, they shall be sent to the FCA mailroom and stored in the combination safe and secured unopened until the Information Security Officer is available. Under no cirumstances shall classified materials that cannot be delivered be stored other than in the designated safe. All materials not immediately deliverable or able to be secured in the designated safe shall be returned to the sender, under appropriate cover, for redelivery to the FCA at the next earliest opportunity. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reproduction.</I> Reproduction of classified materials shall take place only in accordance with section 4.2(g) of the Executive order and any limitations imposed by the originator. Should copies be made, they shall be subject to the same controls as the original document. Records showing the number and distribution of copies shall be maintained by the Information Security Officer or his/her designee, and the log stored with the original documents. These measures shall not restrict reproduction for the purposes of Mandatory Review.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Storage.</I> In accordance with 32 CFR 2001.43, all classified documents shall be stored in combination safes located at the primary headquarters and/or a Field Office, Office of Examination, Farm Credit Administration. The combinations shall be changed as required by directives issued by ISOO. The combinations shall be known only to the Information Security Officer and his/her designees who have appropriate security clearances. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employee education.</I> All employees who have been granted a security clearance and who have occasion to handle classified materials shall be advised of handling, reproduction, and storage procedures and shall be required to review the Executive order and appropriate ISOO directives.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Agency terminology.</I> No official of the Farm Credit Administration shall use the terms “Top Secret”, “Secret”, or “Confidential” except in relation to materials classified for national security purposes. As a Federal regulatory agency, the Farm Credit Administration maintains certain internal documents that relate to its examination and supervision of the institutions of the Farm Credit System. Such documents are limited in use and distribution. Material that is of a sensitive nature to the Farm Credit Administration may be designated “Executive Document.”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nondisclosure agreement.</I> In accordance with 32 CFR 2003.20, the Farm Credit Administration requires that any person whose position requires access to classified information must execute a nondisclosure agreement on Standard Form 312—Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement. Persons not executing such nondisclosure agreements are subject to sanctions of Executive Order 13292. It is the policy of the Farm Credit Administration that any employee authorized access to classified information holds a personal responsibility for safeguarding against unlawful disclosures, and such employees are prohibited from disclosure without consent of the FCA Information Security Officer. Any such unauthorized disclosure will be reported to the Information Security Oversight Office, the Department of Justice, the Department of State, the Federal Emergency Management Agency, and to any other Federal agency for which the Farm Credit Administration has access to classified information, as such reportings are subject to interpretation as required by statute and Executive order. Any employee who knowingly disclosed classified information or who refuses to cooperate with an investigation may be subject to mandatory administrative sanctions, including as a minimum, denial of further access to classified information. Further sanctions could include demotion or dismissal depending on the circumstances of a particular case.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Freedom of Information request.</I> All inquiries regarding requests for classified information under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552), including those from the news media, shall be referred to the FCA FOI Officer, Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, Farm Credit Administration, and shall be handled in accordance with provisions of that statute and applicable regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 9859, Mar. 16, 1984, as amended at 52 FR 18200, May 14, 1987; 59 FR 21643, Apr. 26, 1994; 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="606" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 606—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 19889, June 1, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 606.601" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.601   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to effectuate section 119 of the Rehabilitation Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.602" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.602   Application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, members of the public may participate in the following “programs and activities” of the FCA:
</P>
<P>(1) Attending open meetings of the Farm Credit Board.
</P>
<P>(2) Making inquiries or filing complaints.
</P>
<P>(3) Using the FCA library in McLean, Virginia. 
</P>
<P>(4) Seeking employment with FCA. 
</P>
<P>(5) Attending any meeting, conference, seminar, or other program open to the public.
</P>
<FP>This list is illustrative only and failure to include an activity does not necessarily mean that it is not covered by this regulation. 
</FP>
<P>(b) This regulation does not apply to the institutions that are regulated or examined by the FCA. However, this regulation governs the conduct of FCA personnel, in their interaction with employees of such institutions and employees of other Federal agencies, while discharging their official FCA duties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.603" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.603   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings, and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDDs), interpreters, note-takers, written materials, and other similar services and devices. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Individual with handicaps</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alcoholism. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one more major life activities. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (f)(1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Qualified individual with handicaps</I> means an individual with handicaps who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in the program or activity conducted by the agency. With respect to employment, a qualified individual with handicaps is one who meets the definition of <I>qualified handicapped person</I> set forth in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 606.640 of this rule. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617); the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955); and the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.604-606.609" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.604-606.609   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.610" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.610   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, within one year of the effective date of this part, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, for at least three years following completion of the evaluation required under paragraph (a) of this section, maintain on file and make available for public inspection: 
</P>
<P>(1) A list of the interested persons who commented, with copies of comments received;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.611" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.611   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the agency head finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.612-606.629" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.612-606.629   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.630" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.630   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with handicaps, on the basis of handicap, shall be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap: 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the oportunity to participate in or benefit from the activity, aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with handicaps an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified individual with handicaps with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to individuals with handicaps or to any class of individuals with handicaps than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with handicaps with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; 
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified individual with handicaps in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service. 
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified individual with handicaps the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities. 
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with handicaps from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with handicaps to discrimination on the basis of handicap. 
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to individuals with handicaps or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with handicaps from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with handicaps is not prohibited by this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with handicaps. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.631-606.639" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.631-606.639   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.640" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.640   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with handicaps shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.641-606.648" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.641-606.648   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.649" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.649   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 606.650, no qualified individual with handicaps shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with handicaps, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.650" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.650   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. This paragraph does not: 
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps; 
</P>
<P>(2) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with paragraph (a) of this section would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. In preparing the report, the agency shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person(s) to be accommodated has an opportunity to provide relevant information. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with handicaps in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section within sixty days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve accessibility, the agency shall develop, within six months of the effective date of this part, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with handicaps or organizations representing individuals with handicaps, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to individuals with handicaps; 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible; 
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section, and if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; 
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Identify the persons or groups who commented on the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.651" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.651   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.652-606.659" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.652-606.659   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.660" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.660   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public. 
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with handicaps an equal opportunity to participate in and enjoy the benefits of a program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the individual with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature. 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDDs) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility. 
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with this section would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. In preparing the report, the agency shall make reasonable efforts to ensure that the person(s) to be accommodated has an opportunity to provide relevant information. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, individuals with handicaps receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.661-606.669" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.661-606.669   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 606.670" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 606.670   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs and activities conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791). 
</P>
<P>(c) Responsibility for implementation and operation of this section shall be vested in the Director, Office of Agency Services, Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate Government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151 through 4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with handicaps. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing: 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by this paragraph. The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Equal Employment Opportunity and Inclusion Director, or his/her designee, Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19889, June 1, 1988, as amended at 56 FR 2674, Jan. 24, 1991; 70 FR 69645, Nov. 17, 2005; 80 FR 68429, Nov. 5, 2015; 81 FR 47692, July 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 606.671-606.999" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.7.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 606.671-606.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="607" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 607—ASSESSMENT AND APPORTIONMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE EXPENSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.15, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2250, 2252) and 12 U.S.C. 3025.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 10942, Feb. 23, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 607.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in part 607 implement the provisions of section 5.15 of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I> (Act) relating to Farm Credit Administration (FCA) assessments. The regulations prescribe the procedures for the equitable apportionment of FCA annual administrative expenses and necessary reserves among Farm Credit System (System) institutions. Pursuant to section 5.15(a) of the Act, the regulations also provide for the separate assessment of the FCA's costs of supervising and examining the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (FAMC). The regulations further provide for the reimbursement of expenses incurred in performing statutorily required examinations of non-System entities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment</I> means the annual amount to be paid by each System institution to the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with section 5.15 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Average risk-adjusted asset base</I> means the average of the risk-adjusted asset base (as defined in § 615.5201 of this chapter) of banks, associations, and designated other System entities, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) For a bank, association, or designated other System entity with four quarters of risk-adjusted assets as of June 30 of each year, the sum of the average daily risk-adjusted assets as of the last day of the quarter for the most recent four quarters immediately preceding each September 15, divided by four;
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3) and (b)(4) of this section, for a bank, association, or designated other System entity with less than four quarters of risk-adjusted assets as of June 30 of each year, the sum of the average daily risk-adjusted assets as of the last day of the quarter for the quarters in which it was in existence immediately preceding September 15, divided by the number of quarters in which it was in existence immediately preceding September 15;
</P>
<P>(3) For a bank, association, or designated other System entity that is the continuing institution after a merger of existing institutions or a newly formed institution formed through a consolidation of existing institutions and that has less than four quarters of risk-adjusted assets as of June 30 of each year, the sum of the average daily risk-adjusted assets as of the last day of the quarter for the most recent four quarters immediately preceding September 15 for all the institutions that were merged or consolidated, divided by four;
</P>
<P>(4) For a bank, association, or designated other System entity chartered during the period July 1 through September 30 of each year that is not the continuing institution after a merger of existing institutions or a newly formed institution formed through a consolidation of existing institutions, the total of the average daily risk-adjusted assets as of the last day of the quarter ending September 30.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Composite Financial Institution Rating System (FIRS) rating</I> means the composite numerical assessment of the financial condition of an institution assigned to the institution by the FCA based on its most recent examination of the institution. The FIRS factors are generally considered to be important indicators of an institution's financial health. Institutions are rated on each of the factors during an examination. The composite FIRS rating ranges from 1 to 5, with a lower number indicating a better financial condition than a higher number.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delinquent amount</I> means an amount owed to the FCA that has not been paid by the date specified in the FCA's Notice of Assessment or billing. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Designated other System entities</I> means other System entities designated by the FCA in § 607.3(c) to be assessed on the same basis as banks and associations under § 607.3. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Direct expenses</I> means the expenses of the FCA attributable to the performance of examinations. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Indirect expenses</I> means all FCA expenses that are not attributable to the performance of examinations. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-System entities</I> means the National Consumer Cooperative Bank, the National Cooperative Bank Development Corporation, and any other entity that is required to be examined, supervised, or otherwise regulated by the FCA that is not a System institution. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of Assessment</I> means a written notice to each System institution showing the total amount assessed and owing, the fiscal year covered by the assessment, the amounts of installment payments, and the due dates for such payments. For banks, associations, and designated other System entities, the Notice of Assessment shall also include an individualized assessment table showing the assessment under § 607.3(b)(2), where applicable. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Other System entities</I> means any service corporation chartered under section 4.25 of the Act, the FAMC, the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, the Farm Credit Finance Corporation of Puerto Rico, and any other entity statutorily designated as a System institution that is not a bank or association. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>System institutions</I> means banks, associations, and other System entities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 10942, Feb. 23, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 37403, July 22, 1994; 63 FR 34268, June 24, 1998; 70 FR 35348, June 17, 2005; 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010; 81 FR 49772, July 28, 2016; 82 FR 48759, Oct. 20, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.3   Assessment of banks, associations, and designated other System entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Banks, associations, and other System entities designated in paragraph (c) of this section will be assessed annually pursuant to this section for funds to cover a portion of the FCA's administrative expenses and for such funds as may be required to maintain a necessary reserve. The total amount of the annual assessment of banks, associations, and designated other System entities shall be based on the FCA budget for each fiscal year plus such amount as may be required to maintain a necessary reserve, excluding amounts to be assessed against other System entities and reimbursements received from non-System entities. 
</P>
<P>(b) The assessment shall be apportioned among the banks, associations, and designated other System entities as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Thirty (30) percent of the assessment under this section shall be apportioned to each bank, association, and designated other System entity on the basis of each institution's pro rata share of the total average risk-adjusted asset base. 
</P>
<P>(2) Seventy (70) percent of the assessment under this section shall be apportioned to each bank, association, and designated other System entity based upon the amounts of the institution's average risk-adjusted assets that fall within the graduated risk-adjusted asset tiers contained in the following table. An institution's total assessment under this paragraph is the sum of the amounts assessed for risk-adjusted assets falling into each applicable tier, subject to adjustment for its FIRS rating as required in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section. The same assessment rate (designated as X<E T="52">1</E> or a declining percentage of X<E T="52">1</E> in the following table) will be applied to each dollar value of risk-adjusted assets falling within each tier, increased where applicable, by the amounts prescribed in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section. The actual assessment rate under this paragraph shall be determined annually based on relative average risk-adjusted asset bases, the FIRS ratings of individual institutions, and the FCA budget as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, but the relationship between the rates applied to each tier shall remain constant as set forth in the following table. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Average risk-adjusted asset size range (in millions) 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Assessment rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Over 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">To 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">X<E T="52">1</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.85X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.75X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.60X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.50X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.35X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.20X<E T="52">1</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">.10X<E T="52">1</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example:</HED><PSPACE>XYZ association has a FIRS rating of 2 and average risk-adjusted assets of $500.4 million. The value of X<E T="52">1</E> has been determined to be .000917, based on an FCA budget of $40.29 million. 
</PSPACE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">1</E>= .000917 therefore $25,000,000 × .0917%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$22,925 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.85X<E T="52">1</E>= .000780 therefore $25,000,000 × .0780%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19,500 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.75X<E T="52">1</E>= .000688 therefore $50,000,000 × .0688%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34,400 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.60X<E T="52">1</E>= .000550 therefore $400,000,000 × .0550%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">220,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">.50X<E T="52">1</E>= .000458 therefore $400,000 × .0458%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">183
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total Assessment under § 607.3(b)(2)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">=</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">297,008</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXAMPLE>
<P>(i) If the FCA assigns a bank, association, or designated other System entity a composite FIRS rating of 3 following its most recent examination of the institution prior to the date of assessment, the assessment provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be increased by 20 percent. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If the FCA assigns a bank, association, or designated other System entity a composite FIRS rating of 4 or 5 following its most recent examination of the institution prior to the date of assessment, the assessment provided for in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be increased by 40 percent. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Banks, associations, and designated other System entities that were formed through mergers or consolidations and have not been examined before their initial assessment under this section shall be deemed to have a composite FIRS rating equivalent to the best composite FIRS rating assigned to the merged or consolidated institutions in the FCA's most recent examination of the individual institutions prior to the date of merger or consolidation. Newly chartered institutions not formed through mergers or consolidations that have not been examined before their initial assessment under this section shall be deemed to have a composite FIRS rating of 2. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each bank, association, and designated other System entity shall pay a minimum assessment of $20,000 regardless of the result of the application of the assessment formula established by paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section. If such a minimum assessment is apportioned to an institution, that institution's average risk-adjusted asset base shall be deducted from the total average risk-adjusted asset base, and $20,000 shall be deducted from the total assessment amount for purposes of determining the assessments of banks, associations, and designated other System entities paying more than the $20,000 minimum assessment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Other System entities designated to be assessed in accordance with this section are: 
</P>
<P>The Farm Credit Services Leasing Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(d) Assessments may be adjusted periodically to reflect: 
</P>
<P>(1) Changes in the FCA budget and necessary reserve; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Any overpayment or underpayment by a bank, association, or designated other System entity in the prior fiscal year. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 10942, Feb. 23, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 34268, June 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.4   Assessment of other System entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Unless otherwise designated to be assessed under § 607.3, and with the exception of FAMC as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, other System entities will be assessed for estimated direct expenses plus an allocated portion of FCA indirect expenses and such amount as may be required to maintain a necessary reserve. The estimate for direct expenses shall take into account the direct expenses incurred in the most recent examination of the entity preceding each September 15 and expected increases or decreases in examination work for the next fiscal year. A proportional amount of FCA indirect expenses will be allocated to each entity based on the estimated direct expenses related to the particular entity as a percentage of the total budgeted direct expenses of the agency (excluding direct expenses under paragraph (b) of this section) for the fiscal year covered by the assessment. 
</P>
<P>(2) Assessments of other System entities under paragraph (a)(1) of this section may be adjusted periodically to reflect: 
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in the FCA budget and necessary reserve; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any overpayment or underpayment by such other System entity in the prior fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment of Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation.</I> The FCA shall assess FAMC for the estimated cost of FCA's regulation, supervision, and examination of FAMC, including reasonably related administrative and overhead expenses. FAMC's assessment may be adjusted periodically to reflect changes in the FCA budget and to reconcile differences between FAMC's assessment and FCA's actual expenditures for regulation of FAMC in the prior fiscal year. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.5   Notice of assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, prior to September 15 of each year, the FCA shall determine the amount of assessment to be collected from each System institution for the next fiscal year under §§ 607.3 and 607.4 and shall provide each System institution with a Notice of Assessment. The total amount assessed each System institution in the Notice of Assessment shall be an obligation of each institution on October 1 of each fiscal year. The total amount assessed each System institution shall be payable not less often than quarterly in equal installments during each fiscal year, subject to adjustment pursuant to §§ 607.3(d), 607.4(a)(2), 607.4(b), and 607.10. 
</P>
<P>(b) For banks, associations and designated other System entities chartered during the period July 1 through September 30 of each year, the FCA shall, prior to December 15, determine the amount of assessment to be collected from each such institution for the remainder of the fiscal year and provide the institution with a Notice of Assessment. The total amount of the assessment becomes an obligation of the institution on January 1 and shall be payable in equal installments, subject to adjustment pursuant to §§ 607.3(d) and 607.10, not less often than quarterly for the remainder of the fiscal year. The first installment shall be due on January 1. This paragraph shall not apply to banks, associations, and designated other System entities formed by merger, consolidation, or transfer of direct lending authority. 
</P>
<P>(c) In the event of the proposed cancellation of the charter of a System institution, the unpaid installments of the total amount of the institution's assessment shall be provided for prior to the cancellation of the charter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.6   Payment of assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) System institutions shall pay the amounts due as scheduled in the FCA Notice of Assessment. Payment shall be made by electronic funds transfer (EFT) for credit to the FCA's account in the Department of the Treasury, by check to the FCA for deposit, or by such other means as the FCA may authorize. 
</P>
<P>(b) Payments made by EFT that are not received by the close of business on the due date shall be considered delinquent in accordance with § 607.7. 
</P>
<P>(c) Payments made by check that are not received by the FCA before the close of business on the third workday preceding the due date shall be considered delinquent in accordance with § 607.7. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.7   Late-payment charges on assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If any portion of a scheduled installment of a System institution's total assessment or the reimbursement billed to a non-System entity is not paid by the due date, the overdue amount shall be considered delinquent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Delinquent amounts shall be charged late-payment interest at the United States Treasury Department's current value of funds rate published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Late payment interest shall be expressed as an annual rate of interest and shall accrue on a daily basis starting on the due date of the delinquent amount and continuing through the date payment is received by the FCA. 
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA shall waive the collection of interest on the delinquent amounts if such amounts are paid within 30 days of the date interest begins to accrue. The FCA may waive interest due on delinquent amounts upon finding no fault with the performance of the remitter. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA shall charge an amount necessary to cover the administrative costs incurred as a result of collection of any delinquent amount. 
</P>
<P>(e) The FCA shall charge a penalty of 6 percent per annum on any portion of a delinquent amount that is more than 90 days past due. Such penalty shall accrue from the date the amount became delinquent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.8" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.8   Reimbursements for services to non-System entities.</HEAD>
<P>Non-System entities shall be assessed for direct expenses plus an amount for FCA indirect expenses reasonably related to the services rendered to the non-System entity. Such related indirect expenses shall be calculated as a percentage of the FCA's overall indirect expenses based on the extent of FCA activities with respect to the non-System entity during the period since the entity's most recent assessment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.9   Reimbursable billings.</HEAD>
<P>The FCA shall bill the amounts due for services to non-System entities each year subsequent to the issuance of their respective Reports of Examination. Amounts billed are due in full within 30 days from the date billed. If the billed amount or any portion thereof remains unpaid at close of business on the due date, such amount or portion shall be considered delinquent in accordance with § 607.7. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.10   Adjustments for overpayment or underpayment of assessments.</HEAD>
<P>Where adjustments for overpayment or underpayment of assessments are made pursuant to §§ 607.3(d), 607.4(a)(2), and 607.4(b), credits for overpayments or charges for underpayments shall be based on FCA administrative operating expenses incurred in the applicable fiscal year and on funds required to be maintained pursuant to section 5.15 of the Act. Such credits or charges shall be applied to the next applicable assessment payment due during the current or subsequent fiscal year. Where such adjustments are made, the FCA shall provide the institution with a statement of adjustment at least 15 days prior to the date when the institution's next assessment payment is due. Adjustments in assessments shall be made in principal amount only. Overdue amounts under § 607.7 are not underpayments for assessment adjustment purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 607.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.8.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 607.11   Report of assessments and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>By January 15 of each calendar year, the FCA shall provide each assessed System institution with a report of assessments and expenses for the preceding fiscal year showing total assessments and other income received as applied to expenses incurred by major budget category and amounts set aside for a necessary reserve. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="608" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 608—COLLECTION OF CLAIMS OWED THE UNITED STATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2252; 31 U.S.C. 3701-3719; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 4 CFR parts 101-105; 5 CFR part 550. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 13187, Mar. 21, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administrative Collection of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.801" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.801   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations of this part are issued under the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982, 31 U.S.C. 3701-3719 and 5 U.S.C. 5514, and in conformity with the joint regulations issued under that Act by the General Accounting Office and the Department of Justice (joint regulations) prescribing standards for administrative collection, compromise, suspension, and termination of agency collection actions, and referral to the General Accounting Office and to the Department of Justice for litigation of civil claims for money or property owed to the United States (4 CFR parts 101-105). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.802" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.802   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all claims of indebtedness due and owing to the United States and collectible under procedures authorized by the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982. The joint regulations and this part do not apply to conduct in violation of antitrust laws, tax claims, claims between Federal agencies, or to any claim which appears to involve fraud, presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any other party having an interest in the claim, unless the Justice Department authorizes the Farm Credit Administration, pursuant to 4 CFR 101.3, to handle the claim in accordance with the provisions of 4 CFR parts 101-105. Additionally, this part does not apply to Farm Credit Administration assessments under part 607 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.803" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.803   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part (except where the term is defined elsewhere in this part), the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative offset</I> or <I>offset,</I> as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1), means withholding money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the Government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> means a department, agency, or instrumentality in the executive or legislative branch of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim</I> or <I>debt</I> means money or property owed by a person or entity to an agency of the Federal Government. A “claim” or “debt” includes amounts due the Government from loans insured by or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayment, penalties, damages, interest, and fines. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claim certification</I> means a creditor agency's written request to a paying agency to effect an administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Creditor agency</I> means an agency to which a claim or debt is owed. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Debtor</I> means the person or entity owing money to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing official</I> means an individual who is responsible for reviewing a claim under § 608.810 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Paying agency</I> means an agency of the Federal Government owing money to a debtor against which an administrative or salary offset can be effected. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.804" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.804   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The FCA official(s) designated by the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration are authorized to perform all duties which the Chairman is authorized to perform under these regulations, the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, and the joint regulations issued under that Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.805" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.805   Responsibility for collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collection of claims shall be aggressively pursued in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, the joint regulations issued under that Act, and these regulations. Debts owed to the United States, together with charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs, should be collected in one lump sum unless otherwise provided by law. If a debtor requests installment payments, the debtor, as requested by the FCA, shall provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the debtor is unable to pay the debt in one lump sum. When appropriate, the FCA shall arrange an installment payment schedule. Claims which cannot be collected directly or by administrative offset shall be either written off as administratively uncollectible or referred to the General Counsel for further consideration. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may compromise claims for money or property arising out of the activities of the FCA, where the claim (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs) does not exceed $100,000. When the claim exceeds $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs), the authority to accept a compromise rests solely with the Department of Justice. The standards governing the compromise of claims are set forth in 4 CFR part 103. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may suspend or terminate the collection of claims which do not exceed $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs) after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections. If, after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections, a claim exceeds $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs), the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with the Department of Justice. The standards governing the suspension or termination of claim collections are set forth in 4 CFR part 104. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA shall refer claims to the Department of Justice for litigation or to the General Accounting Office (GAO) for claims arising from audit exceptions taken by the GAO to payments made by the FCA in accordance with 4 CFR part 105. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.806" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.806   Demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals should normally be made upon a debtor, unless a response or other information indicates that additional written demands would either be unnecessary or futile. When necessary to protect the Government's interest, written demands may be preceded by other appropriate actions under Federal law, including immediate referral for litigation and/or administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) The initial demand for payment shall be in writing and shall inform the debtor of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the debt, the date it was incurred, and the facts upon which the determination of indebtedness was made; 
</P>
<P>(2) The payment due date, which shall be 30 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand for payment; 
</P>
<P>(3) The right of the debtor to inspect and copy the records of the agency related to the claim or to receive copies if personal inspection is impractical. The debtor shall be informed that the debtor may be assessed for the cost of copying the documents in accordance with § 608.807; 
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the debtor to obtain a review of the FCA's determination of indebtedness; 
</P>
<P>(5) The right of the debtor to offer to enter into a written agreement with the agency to repay the amount of the claim. The debtor shall be informed that the acceptance of such an agreement is discretionary with the agency; 
</P>
<P>(6) That charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed against the debtor, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717, if payment is not received by the payment due date; 
</P>
<P>(7) That if the debtor has not entered into an agreement with the FCA to pay the debt, has not requested the FCA to review the debt, or has not paid the debt by the payment due date, the FCA intends to collect the debt by all legally available means, which may include initiating legal action against the debtor, referring the debt to a collection agency for collection, collecting the debt by offset, or asking other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset; 
</P>
<P>(8) The name and address of the FCA official to whom the debtor shall send all correspondence relating to the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Other information, as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, prior to, during, or after completion of the demand cycle, the FCA determines to collect the debt by either administrative or salary offset, the FCA shall follow, as applicable, the requirements for a Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset or a Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset set forth in § 608.822. 
</P>
<P>(d) If no response to the initial demand for payment is received by the payment due date, the FCA shall take further action under this part, under the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, under the joint regulations (4 CFR parts 101-105), or under any other applicable State or Federal law. These actions may include reports to credit bureaus, referrals to collection agencies, termination of contracts, debarment, and salary or administrative offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.807" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.807   Right to inspect and copy records.</HEAD>
<P>The debtor may inspect and copy the FCA records related to the claim. The debtor shall give the FCA reasonable advance notice that it intends to inspect and copy the records involved. The debtor shall pay copying costs unless they are waived by the FCA. Copying costs shall be assessed pursuant to §§ 602.11 and 602.12 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 13187, Mar. 21, 1994, as amended at 71 FR 54900, Sept. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.808" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.808   Right to offer to repay claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor may offer to enter into a written agreement with the FCA to repay the amount of the claim. The acceptance of such an offer and the decision to enter into such a written agreement is at the discretion of the FCA. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor requests a repayment arrangement because payment of the amount due would create a financial hardship, the FCA shall analyze the debtor's financial condition. The FCA may enter into a written agreement with the debtor permitting the debtor to repay the debt in installments if the FCA determines, in its sole discretion, that payment of the amount due would create an undue financial hardship for the debtor. The written agreement shall set forth the amount and frequency of installment payments and shall, in accordance with § 608.812, provide for the imposition of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs unless waived by the FCA. 
</P>
<P>(c) The written agreement may require the debtor to execute a confess-judgment note when the total amount of the deferred installments will exceed $750. The FCA shall provide the debtor with a written explanation of the consequences of signing a confess-judgment note. The debtor shall sign a statement acknowledging receipt of the written explanation. The statement shall recite that the written explanation was read and understood before execution of the note and that the debtor signed the note knowingly and voluntarily. Documentation of these procedures will be maintained in the FCA's file on the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.809" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.809   Right to agency review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor disputes the claim, the debtor may request a review of the FCA's determination of the existence of the debt or of the amount of the debt. If only part of the claim is disputed, the undisputed portion should be paid by the payment due date. 
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a review, the debtor shall submit a written request for review to the FCA official named in the initial demand letter, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the letter. The debtor's request for review shall state the basis on which the claim is disputed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA shall promptly notify the debtor, in writing, that the FCA has received the request for review. The FCA shall conduct its review of the claim in accordance with § 608.810. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon completion of its review of the claim, the FCA shall notify the debtor whether the FCA's determination of the existence or amount of the debt has been sustained, amended, or canceled. The notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official pursuant to § 608.810(e). If the FCA's determination is sustained, this notification shall contain a provision which states that the FCA intends to collect the debt by all legally available means, which may include initiating legal action against the debtor, referring the debt to a collection agency for collection, collecting the debt by offset, or asking other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.810" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.810   Review procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless an oral hearing is required by § 608.823(d), the FCA's review shall be a review of the written record of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an oral hearing is required under § 608.823(d), the FCA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for such a hearing. The oral hearing, however, shall not be an adversarial adjudication and need not take the form of a formal evidentiary hearing. All significant matters discussed at the hearing, however, will be carefully documented. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any review required by this part, whether a review of the written record or an oral hearing, shall be conducted by a hearing official. In the case of a salary offset, the hearing official shall not be under the supervision or control of the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA may be represented by legal counsel. The debtor may represent himself or herself or may be represented by an individual of the debtor's choice and at the debtor's expense. 
</P>
<P>(e) The hearing official shall issue a final written decision based on documentary evidence and, if applicable, information developed at an oral hearing. The written decision shall be issued as soon as practicable after the review but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for review was received by the FCA, unless the debtor requests a delay in the proceedings. A delay in the proceedings shall be granted if the hearing official determines, in his or her sole discretion, that there is good cause to grant the delay. If a delay is granted, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the review was postponed. 
</P>
<P>(f) Upon issuance of the written opinion, the FCA shall promptly notify the debtor of the hearing official's decision. Said notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.811" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.811   Special review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee subject to salary offset, under subpart C of this part, or a voluntary repayment agreement, may, at any time, request a special review by the FCA of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances such as, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability. 
</P>
<P>(b) To determine whether an offset would prevent the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses (costs incurred for food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care), the employee shall submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating: 
</P>
<P>(1) Income from all sources; 
</P>
<P>(2) Assets; 
</P>
<P>(3) Liabilities; 
</P>
<P>(4) Number of dependents; 
</P>
<P>(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation; 
</P>
<P>(6) Medical expenses; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Exceptional expenses, if any. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the employee requests a special review under this section, the employee shall file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in an extreme financial hardship to the employee. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents, and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes an undue financial hardship on the employee. The FCA shall notify the employee in writing of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.812" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.812   Charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the FCA shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Assess interest on unpaid claims; 
</P>
<P>(2) Assess administrative costs incurred in processing and handling overdue claims; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Assess penalty charges not to exceed 6 percent a year on any part of a debt more than 90 days past due. The imposition of charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties shall be made in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Interest shall accrue from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand for payment or the Notice of Intent to Collect by either Administrative or Salary Offset if the amount of the claim is not paid within 30 days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand or notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) The 30-day period may be extended on a case-by-case basis if the FCA reasonably determines that such action is appropriate. Interest shall only accrue on the principal of the claim and the interest rate shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness, except, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, in cases where a debtor has defaulted on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, or if the FCA reasonably determines that a higher rate is necessary to protect the interests of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a debtor defaults on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, the FCA may assess a new interest rate on the unpaid claim. In addition, charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties which accrued but were not collected under the original repayment agreement shall be added to the principal of the claim to be paid under the new repayment agreement. Interest shall accrue on the entire principal balance of the claim, as adjusted to reflect any increase resulting from the addition of these charges. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA may waive charges for interest, administrative costs, and/or penalties if it determines that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the claim within a reasonable period of time; 
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, and/or penalties would jeopardize collection of the principal of the claim; 
</P>
<P>(3) Collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, or penalties would be against equity and good conscience; or 
</P>
<P>(4) It is otherwise in the best interest of the United States, including the situation where an installment payment agreement or offset is in effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.813" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.813   Contracting for collection services.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may contract for collection services in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718 and 4 CFR 102.6 to recover debts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.814" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.814   Reporting of credit information.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may disclose to a consumer reporting agency information that an individual is responsible for a debt owed to the United States. Information will be disclosed to reporting agencies in accordance with the terms and conditions of agreements entered into between the FCA and the reporting agencies. The terms and conditions of such agreements shall specify that all of the rights and protection afforded to the debtor under 31 U.S.C. 3711(f) have been fulfilled. The FCA shall notify each consumer reporting agency, to which a claim was disclosed, when the debt has been satisfied. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.815" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.815   Credit report.</HEAD>
<P>In order to aid the FCA in making appropriate determinations regarding the collection and compromise of claims; the collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties; the use of administrative offset; the use of other collection methods; and the likelihood of collecting the claim, the FCA may institute, consistent with the provisions of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681, <I>et seq.</I>), a credit investigation of the debtor immediately following a determination that the claim exists. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.820" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.820   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart shall apply to the collection of debts by administrative [or salary] offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, or other statutory or common law. 
</P>
<P>(b) Offset shall not be used to collect a debt more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the Government who were charged with the responsibility of discovering and collecting such debt. 
</P>
<P>(c) Offset shall not be used with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Debts owed by other agencies of the United States or by any State or local government; 
</P>
<P>(2) Debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or tariff laws of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any case in which collection by offset of the type of debt involved is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute. 
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments which are not subject to offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 or 5 U.S.C. 5514 may be collected by offset if such collection is authorized under common law or other applicable statutory authority. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.821" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.821   Collection by offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Collection of a debt by administrative [or salary] offset shall be accomplished in accordance with the provisions of these regulations, of 4 CFR 102.3, and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K. It is not necessary for the debt to be reduced to judgment or to be undisputed for offset to be used. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may determine that it is feasible to collect a debt to the United States by offset against funds payable to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(c) The feasibility of collecting a debt by offset will be determined on a case-by-case basis. This determination shall be made by considering all relevant factors, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The degree to which the offset can be accomplished in accordance with law. This determination should take into consideration relevant statutory, regulatory, and contractual requirements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The degree to which the FCA is certain that its determination of the existence and amount of the debt is correct; 
</P>
<P>(3) The practicality of collecting the debt by offset. The cost, in time and money, of collecting the debt by offset and the amount of money which can reasonably be expected to be recovered through offset will be relevant to this determination; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the use of offset will substantially interfere with or defeat the purpose of a program authorizing payments against which the offset is contemplated. For example, under a grant program in which payments are made in advance of the grantee's performance, the imposition of offset against such a payment may be inappropriate. 
</P>
<P>(d) The collection of a debt by offset may not be feasible when there are circumstances which would indicate that the likelihood of collection by offset is less than probable. 
</P>
<P>(e) The offset will be effected 31 days after the debtor receives a Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset (or Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset if the offset is a salary offset), or upon the expiration of a stay of offset, unless the FCA determines under § 608.824 that immediate action is necessary. 
</P>
<P>(f) If the debtor owes more than one debt, amounts recovered through offset may be applied to them in any order. Applicable statutes of limitation would be considered before applying the amounts recovered to any debts owed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.822" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.822   Notice requirements before offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 608.824, the FCA will provide the debtor with 30 calendar days' written notice that unpaid debt amounts shall be collected by administrative [or salary] offset (Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset) before the FCA imposes offset against any money that is to be paid to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset shall be delivered to the debtor by hand or by mail and shall provide the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the debt, the date it was incurred, and the facts upon which the determination of indebtedness was made; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an administrative offset, the payment due date, which shall be 30 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the Notice; 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a salary offset: (i) The FCA's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest is paid in full; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount, frequency, proposed beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions; 
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the debtor to inspect and copy the records of the FCA related to the claim or to receive copies if personal inspection is impractical. The debtor shall be informed that the debtor shall be assessed for the cost of copying the documents in accordance with § 608.807; 
</P>
<P>(5) The right of the debtor to obtain a review of, and to request a hearing, on the FCA's determination of indebtedness, the propriety of collecting the debt by offset, and, in the case of salary offset, the propriety of the proposed repayment schedule (i.e., the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period). The debtor shall be informed that to obtain a review, the debtor shall deliver a written request for a review to the FCA official named in the Notice, within 15 calendar days after the debtor's receipt of the Notice. In the case of a salary offset, the debtor shall also be informed that the review shall be conducted by an official arranged for by the FCA who shall be a hearing official not under the control of the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration, or an administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(6) That the filing of a petition for hearing within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice will stay the commencement of collection proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(7) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the written request for review unless the employee requests, and the hearing official grants, a delay in the proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(8) The right of the debtor to offer to enter into a written agreement with the FCA to repay the amount of the claim. The debtor shall be informed that the acceptance of such an agreement is discretionary with the FCA; 
</P>
<P>(9) That charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs shall be assessed against the debtor, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717, if payment is not received by the payment due date. The debtor shall be informed that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR parts 103 and 104); 
</P>
<P>(10) The amount of accrued interest and the amount of any other penalties or administrative costs which may have been added to the principal debt; 
</P>
<P>(11) That if the debtor has not entered into an agreement with the FCA to pay the debt, has not requested the FCA to review the debt, or has not paid the debt prior to the date on which the offset is to be imposed, the FCA intends to collect the debt by administrative [or salary] offset or by requesting other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset. The debtor shall be informed that the offset shall be imposed against any funds that might become available to the debtor, until the principal debt and all accumulated interest and other charges are paid in full; 
</P>
<P>(12) The date on which the offset will be imposed, which shall be 31 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the Notice. The debtor shall be informed that the FCA reserves the right to impose an offset prior to this date if the FCA determines that immediate action is necessary; 
</P>
<P>(13) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the debtor to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Penalties under the False Claims Act, sections 3729 through 3731 of title 31, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Criminal penalties under sections 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 of title 18, United States Code, or any other applicable statutory authority; and, with regard to employees, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under chapter 75 of title 5, United States Code; part 752 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any other applicable statute or regulation; 
</P>
<P>(14) The name and address of the FCA official to whom the debtor shall send all correspondence relating to the debt or the offset; 
</P>
<P>(15) Any other rights and remedies available to the debtor under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made;
</P>
<P>(16) That unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt, which are later waived or found not owed to the United States, will be promptly refunded to the employee; and 
</P>
<P>(17) Other information, as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the procedural requirements of this section have been provided to the debtor in connection with the same debt or under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the FCA is not required to duplicate those requirements before effecting offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.823" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.823   Right to review of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor disputes the claim, the debtor may request a review of the FCA's determination of the existence of the debt, the amount of the debt, the propriety of collecting the debt by offset, and in the case of salary offset, the propriety of the proposed repayment schedule. If only part of the claim is disputed, the undisputed portion should be paid by the payment due date. 
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a review, the debtor shall submit a written request for review to the FCA official named in the Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset within 15 calendar days after receipt of the notice. The debtor's written request for review shall state the basis on which the claim is disputed and shall specify whether the debtor requests an oral hearing or a review of the written record of the claim. If an oral hearing is requested, the debtor shall explain in the request why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of the documentary evidence alone. 
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA shall promptly notify the debtor, in writing, that the FCA has received the request for review. The FCA shall conduct its review of the claim in accordance with § 608.810. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA's review of the claim, under this section, shall include providing the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing if: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the FCA to consider waiver of the indebtedness, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the FCA determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by reviewing the documentary evidence; for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(e) A debtor waives the right to a hearing and will have his or her debt offset in accordance with the proposed offset schedule if the debtor: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fails to file a written request for review within the timeframe set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, unless the FCA determines that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to appear at an oral hearing of which he or she was notified unless the hearing official determines that the failure to appear was due to circumstances beyond the employee's control. 
</P>
<P>(f) Upon completion of its review of the claim, the FCA shall notify the debtor whether the FCA's determination of the existence or amount of the debt has been sustained, amended, or canceled. The notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official, pursuant to § 608.810(e). If the FCA's determination is sustained, this notification shall contain a provision which states that the FCA intends to collect the debt by offset or by requesting other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt. 
</P>
<P>(g) When the procedural requirements of this section have been provided to the debtor in connection with the same debt or under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the FCA is not required to duplicate those requirements before effecting offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.824" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.824   Waiver of procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FCA may impose offset against a payment to be made to a debtor prior to the completion of the procedures required by this part, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to impose the offset would substantially prejudice the Government's ability to collect the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The timing of the payment against which the offset will be imposed does not reasonably permit the completion of those procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures required by this part shall be complied with promptly after the offset is imposed. Amounts recovered by offset, which are later found not to be owed to the Government, shall be promptly refunded to the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.825" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.825   Coordinating offset with other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any creditor agency which requests the FCA to impose an offset against amounts owed to the debtor shall submit to the FCA a claim certification which meets the requirements of this paragraph. The FCA shall submit the same certification to any agency that the FCA requests to effect an offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) The claim certification shall be in writing. It shall certify the debtor owes the debt and that all of the applicable requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 4 CFR part 102 have been met. If the intended offset is to be a salary offset, a claim certification shall instead certify that the debtor owes the debt and that the applicable requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met. 
</P>
<P>(3) A certification that the debtor owes the debt shall state the amount of the debt, the factual basis supporting the determination of indebtedness, and the date on which payment of the debt was due. A certification that the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 4 CFR part 102 have been met shall include a statement that the debtor has been sent a notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset at least 31 calendar days prior to the date of the intended offset or a statement that pursuant to 4 CFR 102.3(b)(5) said Notice was not required to be sent. A certification that the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met shall include a statement that the debtor has been sent a Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset at least 31 calendar days prior to the date of the intended offset or a statement that pursuant to 4 CFR 102.3(b)(5) said Notice was not required to be sent. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The FCA shall not effect an offset requested by another Federal agency without first obtaining the claim certification required by paragraph (a) of this section. If the FCA receives an incomplete claim certification, the FCA shall return the claim certification with notice that a claim certification which complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the FCA before the FCA will consider effecting an offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) The FCA may rely on the information contained in the claim certification provided by a requesting creditor agency. The FCA is not authorized to review a creditor agency's determination of indebtedness. 
</P>
<P>(c) Only the creditor agency may agree to enter into an agreement with the debtor for the repayment of the claim. Only the creditor agency may agree to compromise, suspend, or terminate collection of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA may decline, for good cause, a request by another agency to effect an offset. Good cause includes that the offset might disrupt, directly or indirectly, essential FCA operations. The refusal and the reasons shall be sent in writing to the creditor agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.826" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.826   Stay of offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's request for inspection of agency records, the offset is stayed for 10 calendar days beyond the date set for the record inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's offer to enter into a repayment agreement, the offset is stayed until the debtor is notified as to whether the proposed agreement is acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(3) When a review is conducted, the offset is stayed until the creditor agency issues a final written decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) When offset is stayed, the amount of the debt and the amount of any accrued interest or other charges will be withheld from payments to the debtor. The withheld amounts shall not be applied against the debt until the stay expires. If withheld funds are later determined not to be subject to offset, they will be promptly refunded to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the FCA is the creditor agency and the offset is stayed, the FCA will immediately notify an offsetting agency to withhold the payment pending termination of the stay. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.827" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.827   Offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</HEAD>
<P>The FCA may request that monies payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset to collect debts owed to the FCA by the debtor. The FCA must certify that the debtor owes the debt, the amount of the debt, and that the FCA has complied with the requirements set forth in this part, 4 CFR 102.3, and the Office of Personnel Management regulations. The request shall be submitted to the official designated in the Office of Personnel Management regulations to receive the request. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Offset Against Salary</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.835" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.835   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 5 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365)(5 U.S.C. 5514), which authorizes the collection of debts owed by Federal employees to the Federal Government by means of salary offsets. These regulations provide procedures for the collection of a debt owed to the Government by the imposition of a salary offset against amounts payable to a Federal employee as salary. These regulations are consistent with the regulations on salary offset published by the Office of Personnel Management, codified in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K. Since salary offset is a type of administrative offset, this subpart supplements subpart B. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.836" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.836   Applicability of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations apply to the following cases: 
</P>
<P>(1) Where the FCA is owed a debt by an individual currently employed by another agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the FCA is owed a debt by an individual who is currently employed by the FCA; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the FCA currently employs an individual who owes a debt to another Federal agency. Upon receipt of proper certification from the creditor agency, the FCA will offset the debtor-employee's salary in accordance with these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations do not apply to the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Debts or claims rising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>); the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>); the tariff laws of the United States; or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108). 
</P>
<P>(2) Any adjustment to pay arising from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. 
</P>
<P>(3) A claim which has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the creditor agency's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials charged with the responsibility for discovery and collection of such debts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.837" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.837   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An executive agency as defined by 5 U.S.C. 105, including the United States Postal Service and the United States Postal Rate Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) A military department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or court of the judicial branch, including a court as defined in 28 U.S.C. 610, the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multi-district Litigation; 
</P>
<P>(4) An agency of the legislative branch, including the United States Senate and the United States House of Representatives; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Other independent establishments that are entities of the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposable pay</I> means, for an officially established pay interval, that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or, in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay, remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. The FCA shall allow the deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105 (b) through (f). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means a current employee of the FCA or other agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or nonrecovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to the FCA or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.838" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.838   Waiver requests and claims to the General Accounting Office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations contained in this subpart do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the General Accounting Office in accordance with the procedures prescribed by the General Accounting Office. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations also do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver pursuant to other statutory provisions pertaining to the particular debts being collected. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.839" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.839   Procedures for salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, shall determine the amount of an employee's disposable pay and the amount to be deducted from the employee's disposable pay at regular pay intervals. 
</P>
<P>(b) Deductions shall begin within three official pay periods following the date of mailing or delivery of the Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If the amount of the debt is equal to or is less than 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay, such debt should be collected in one lump-sum deduction. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the amount of the debt is not collected in one lump-sum deduction, the debt shall be collected in installment deductions over a period of time not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted from any pay period will not exceed 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay for that period, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. 
</P>
<P>(3) A deduction exceeding the 15-percent disposable pay limitation may be made from any final salary payment pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 in order to liquidate the debt, whether the employee is being separated voluntarily or involuntarily. 
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever an employee subject to salary offset is separated from the FCA and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary check pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, the FCA may offset any later payments of any kind against the balance of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(d) In instances where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offsets against current employees of the FCA or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, the FCA, at its discretion, may determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15-percent limitation. Debts owed to the FCA should generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.840" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.840   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In instances where the FCA is the creditor agency, it shall promptly refund any amounts deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when: 
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owed to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulations); or 
</P>
<P>(2) An administrative or judicial order directs the FCA to make a refund. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.841" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.841   Requesting current paying agency to offset salary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request a paying agency to impose a salary offset against amounts owed to the debtor, the FCA shall provide the paying agency with a claim certification which meets the requirements set forth in § 608.825(a). The FCA shall also provide the paying agency with a repayment schedule determined under the provisions of § 608.839 or in accordance with a repayment agreement entered into with the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the employee separates from the paying agency before the debt is paid in full, the paying agency shall certify the total amount collected on the debt. A copy of this certification shall be sent to the employee and a copy shall be sent to the FCA. If the paying agency is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the provisions of this section have been fully complied with. However, the FCA must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before the collection can be made. 
</P>
<P>(c) When an employee transfers to another paying agency, the FCA is not required to repeat the due process procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this part to resume the collection. The FCA shall, however, review the debt upon receiving the former paying agency's notice of the employee's transfer to make sure the collection is resumed by the new paying agency. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a special review is conducted pursuant to § 608.811 and results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, the FCA shall provide a new claim certification to the paying agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.842" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.842   Responsibility of the FCA as the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the FCA receives a claim certification from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin at the next officially established pay interval. The FCA shall send the debtor written notice which provides: 
</P>
<P>(1) That the FCA has received a valid claim certification from the creditor agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which salary offset will begin; 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of such deductions. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, after the creditor agency has submitted the claim certification to the FCA, the employee transfers to a different agency before the debt is collected in full, the FCA must certify the total amount collected on the debt. The FCA shall send a copy of this certification to the creditor agency and a copy to the employee. If the FCA is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it shall provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 608.843" NODE="12:7.0.1.1.9.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 608.843   Nonwaiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under this subpart shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provisions of a written contract or law unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—FARM CREDIT SYSTEM 




</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="609" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 609—CYBER RISK MANAGEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 5.9 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243); 5 U.S.C. 301; Pub. L. 106-229 (114 Stat. 464).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 85832, Dec. 11, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.905" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.905   In general.</HEAD>
<P>Farm Credit System (System) institutions must engage in appropriate risk management practices to ensure safety and soundness of their operations. A System institution's board and management must maintain and document effective policies, procedures, and controls to mitigate cyber risks. This includes establishing an appropriate vulnerability management program to monitor cyber threats, mitigate any known vulnerabilities, and establish appropriate reporting mechanisms to the institution's board and the Farm Credit Administration (FCA). The vulnerability management programs should be commensurate with the size, risk profile, and complexity of the institution and based on sound industry standards and practices.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards for Boards and Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.930" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.930   Cyber risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cyber risk management program.</I> Each System institution must implement a comprehensive, written cyber risk management program consistent with the size, risk profile, and complexity of the institution's operations. The program must ensure controls exist to protect the security and confidentiality of current, former, and potential customer and employee information, protect against reasonably anticipated cyber threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information, and protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Role of the board.</I> Each year, the board of directors of each System institution or an appropriate committee of the board must:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve a written cyber risk program. The program must be consistent with industry standards to ensure the institution's safety and soundness and compliance with law and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the institution's cyber risk program; and
</P>
<P>(3) Determine necessary expertise for executing the cyber risk management plan and, where practical, delegate day-to-day responsibilities to management and employees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cyber risk program.</I> Each institution's cyber risk program must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Include an annual risk assessment of the internal and external factors likely to affect the institution. The risk assessment, at a minimum, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and assess internal and external factors that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of current, former, and potential customer and employee information or information systems; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, internal controls, and other practices in place to mitigate risks.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify systems and software vulnerabilities, prioritize the vulnerabilities and the affected systems based on risk, and perform timely remediation. The particular security measures an institution adopts will depend upon the size, risk profile, and complexity of the institution's operations and activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain an incident response plan that contains procedures the institution must implement when it suspects or detects unauthorized access to current, former, or potential customer, employee, or other sensitive or confidential information. An institution's incident response plan must be reviewed and updated periodically, but at least annually, to address new threats, concerns, and evolving technology. The incident response plan must contain procedures for:
</P>
<P>(i) Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what information systems and types of information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acting to contain the incident while preserving records and other evidence;
</P>
<P>(iii) Resuming business activities during intrusion response;
</P>
<P>(iv) Notifying the institution's board of directors when the institution learns of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of sensitive or confidential customer, and/or employee information, or unauthorized access to financial institution information including proprietary information;
</P>
<P>(v) Notifying FCA as soon as possible or no later than 36 hours after the institution determines that an incident has occurred; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Notifying former, current, or potential customers and employees and known visitors to your website of an incident when warranted, and in accordance with state and federal laws.
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the plan to train employees, vendors, contractors, and the institution board to implement the institution's cyber risk program.
</P>
<P>(5) Include policies for vendor management and oversight. Each institution, at a minimum, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting vendors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Negotiate contract provisions, when feasible, that facilitate effective risk management and oversight and specify the expectations and obligations of both parties;
</P>
<P>(iii) Conduct a vendor risk assessment on all vendors; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Monitor its IT and cyber risk management related vendors to ensure they have satisfied agreed upon expectations and deliverables. Monitoring may include reviewing audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its vendors.
</P>
<P>(6) Maintain robust internal controls by regularly testing the key controls, systems, and procedures of the cyber risk management program.
</P>
<P>(i) The frequency and nature of such tests are to be determined by the institution's risk assessment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Tests must be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those who develop or maintain the cyber risk management program.
</P>
<P>(iii) Internal systems and controls must provide reasonable assurances that System institutions will prevent, detect, and remediate material deficiencies on a timely basis.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privacy.</I> Institutions must consider privacy and other legal compliance issues, including but not limited to, the privacy and security of System institution information; current, former, and potential borrower information; and employee information, as well as compliance with statutory requirements for the use of electronic media.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Board reporting requirements.</I> At a minimum, each institution must report quarterly to its board or an appropriate committee of the board. The report must contain material matters related to the institution's cyber risk management program, including specific risks and threats.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.935" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.935   Business planning.</HEAD>
<P>The annually approved business plan required under subpart J of part 618 of this chapter, and § 652.60 of this chapter for System institutions and the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, respectively, must include a technology plan that, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(a) Describes the institution's intended technology goals, performance measures, and objectives;
</P>
<P>(b) Details the technology budget;
</P>
<P>(c) Identifies and assesses the adequacy of the institution's entire cyber risk management program, including proposed technology changes;
</P>
<P>(d) Describes how the institution's technology and security support the current and planned business operations; and
</P>
<P>(e) Reviews internal and external technology factors likely to affect the institution during the planning period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.945" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.945   Records retention.</HEAD>
<P>Records stored electronically must be accurate, accessible, and reproducible for later reference.










</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—General Requirements for Electronic Communications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 609.950" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.10.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 609.950   Electronic communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agreement.</I> In accordance with E-SIGN, System institutions may communicate electronically in business, consumer, or commercial transactions. E-commerce transactions require the agreement of all parties when you do business. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communications with consumers.</I> E-SIGN and Federal Reserve Board Regulations B, M, and Z (12 CFR parts 202, 213, and 226) outline specific disclosure requirements for communications with consumers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communications with parties other than consumers.</I> The consumer disclosure requirements of E-SIGN and of Federal Reserve Board Regulation B (12 CFR part 202) do not apply to your communications with parties other than consumers. (Federal Reserve Board Regulations M and Z (12 CFR parts 213 and 226) apply to consumers only.) Nonetheless, you must ensure that your communications, including those disclosures required under the Act and the regulations in this part, demonstrate good business practices in the delivery of credit and closely related services and in your obtaining goods and services.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="610" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 610—REGISTRATION OF MORTGAGE LOAN ORIGINATORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.9, 1.10, 1.11, 1.13, 2.2, 2.4, 2.12, 5.9, 5.17, 7.2, 7.6, 7.8 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2021, 2073, 2075, 2093, 2243, 2252, 2279a-2, 2279b, 2279c-10); and secs. 1501 <I>et seq.</I> of Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 51048, Aug. 20, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 610.101" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 610.101   Cross reference.</HEAD>
<P>The rules formerly at 12 CFR part 610 have been recodified by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at 12 CFR part 1007, “S.A.F.E. Mortgage Licensing Act—Federal Registration of Residential Mortgage Loan Originators (Regulation G)”.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="611" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 611—ORGANIZATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5, 1.12, 1.13, 2.0, 2.1, 2.2, 2.10, 2.11, 2.12, 3.0, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.7, 3.8, 3.9, 4.3A, 4.12, 4.12A, 4.15, 4.20, 4.25, 4.26, 4.27, 4.28A, 5.9, 5.17, 5.25, 7.0-7.3, 7.6-7.13, 8.5(e) of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2002, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2020, 2021, 2071, 2072, 2073, 2091, 2092, 2093, 2121, 2122, 2123, 2124, 2128, 2129, 2130, 2154a, 2183, 2184, 2203, 2208, 2211, 2212, 2213, 2214, 2243, 2252, 2261, 2279a-2279a-3, 2279b-2279f-1, 2279aa-5(e)); secs. 411 and 412, Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1638, as amended by secs. 403 and 404, Pub. L. 100-399, 102 Stat. 989, 999 (12 U.S.C. 2071 note and 2202 note).




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 11415, June 7, 1972, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 18740, Apr. 12, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.100   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Business day</I> means a day the institution is open for business, excluding the legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mail ballot</I> means a ballot cast by regular or electronic mail.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Online meeting</I> means a meeting that is conducted over the Internet through the use of mediating technologies, such as online services, computer hardware and software, etc., where technology is used to generate objects and environments that are presented to users through a number of senses (e.g., vision and hearing). The mediating technologies allow people or objects at remote locations to appear locally present or at least allow them to be treated that way during the course of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Online meeting space</I> means an online environment where Farm Credit institutions can hold stockholder meetings that allow stockholders to communicate, collaborate, and share information. Any stockholder with the necessary technology requirements and access (e.g., password-protected meetings) must be allowed to connect to his or her institution's online meeting space.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Regional election</I> means the apportionment of a Farm Credit institution's territory into regions in which a director or directors from a region are elected only by those voting stockholders who reside or conduct agricultural or aquatic operations in that same region.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Stockholder-association</I> means an association within a Farm Credit bank district holding voting stock in that bank.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Stockholder-elected director</I> means a director who is elected by the majority vote of the voting stockholders voting to serve as a member of a Farm Credit institution's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Voting record date</I> or <I>record date</I> means the official date set by a Farm Credit institution whereby a stockholder must own voting stock in that institution in order to cast a vote.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Voting record date list</I> or <I>record date list</I> means the list of names, addresses, and classes of stock held by stockholders in the Farm Credit institution who are eligible to vote as of a specific voting record date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18740, Apr. 12, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 60595, Oct. 3, 2012; 79 FR 17856, Mar. 31, 2014; 80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.110" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.110   Meetings of stockholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement.</I> Associations must have annual meetings of stockholders for the purpose of conducting annual director elections. Farm Credit banks are encouraged to hold annual or periodic meetings of stockholders. The bylaws of each Farm Credit bank and association must specify the quorum requirements for stockholder meetings. Associations must elect at least one director at each annual meeting, but the vote on the election of a director or directors by mail ballot may only occur in the period following an annual meeting. An online meeting space may be used in addition to a physical meeting space to conduct a stockholders' meeting or director election. A physical meeting space must always exist for association meetings involving director elections and other stockholders' votes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> Each association, and those Farm Credit banks holding annual meetings, must issue an Annual Meeting Information Statement in accordance with the requirements of §§ 620.20 and 620.21 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Online meeting.</I> Each Farm Credit bank and association using an online meeting space as part of a meeting or election must have policies and procedures in place addressing how the online meeting space will be accessed and used by participants. The policies and procedures must specifically identify any technological adaptations necessary to address the confidentiality and security in voting requirements of § 611.340.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Bank and Association Board of Directors</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 5761, Feb. 2, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.210" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.210   Director qualifications and training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualifications.</I> (1) Each bank and association board of directors must establish and maintain a policy identifying desirable director qualifications. The policy must explain the type and level of knowledge and experience desired for board members, explaining how the desired qualifications were identified. The policy must be periodically updated and provided to the institution's nominating committee.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Farm Credit institution board must have a director who is a financial expert. Boards of directors for associations with $500 million or less in total assets as of January 1 of each year may satisfy this requirement by retaining an advisor who is a financial expert. The financial advisor must report to the board of directors and be free of any affiliation with the external auditor or institution management. A financial expert is one recognized as having education or experience in: Accounting, internal accounting controls, or preparing or reviewing financial statements for financial institutions or large corporations consistent with the breadth and complexity of accounting and financial reporting issues that can reasonably be expected to be raised by the institution's financial statements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Training.</I> Each bank and association board of directors must establish and maintain a policy for director training that includes appropriate implementing procedures. The policy must identify training areas supporting desired director qualifications. Each Farm Credit bank and association must require newly elected or appointed directors to complete director orientation training within 1 year of assuming their position and require incumbent directors to attend training periodically to advance their skills. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.220" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.220   Outside directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility, number and term</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> No candidate for an outside director position may be a director, officer, employee, agent, or stockholder of an institution in the Farm Credit System. Farm Credit banks and associations must make a reasonable effort to select outside directors possessing some or all of the desired director qualifications identified pursuant to § 611.210(a) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Number.</I> Stockholder-elected directors must constitute at least 60 percent of the members of each institution's board.
</P>
<P>(i) Each Farm Credit bank must have at least two outside directors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Associations with total assets exceeding $500 million as of January 1 of each year must have no fewer than two outside directors on the board. However, this requirement does not apply if it causes the percent of stockholder-elected directors to be less than 75 percent of the board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Associations with $500 million or less in total assets as of January 1 of each year must have at least one outside director.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Terms of office.</I> Banks and associations may not establish a different term of office for outside directors than that established for stockholder-elected directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Removal.</I> Each institution must establish and maintain procedures for removal of outside directors. When the removal of an outside director is sought before the expiration of the outside director's term, the reason for removal must be documented. An institution's director removal procedures must allow for removal of an outside director by a majority vote of all voting stockholders voting, in person or by proxy, or by a two-thirds majority vote of the full board of directors. The outside director subject to the removal action is prohibited from voting in his or her own removal action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Election of Directors and Other Voting Procedures</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 50392, Dec. 15, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.310" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.310   Eligibility for membership on bank and association boards and subsequent employment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No person shall be eligible for membership on a bank or association board who is or has been, within 1 year preceding the date the term of office begins, a salaried officer or employee of any bank or association in the System.
</P>
<P>(b) No bank or association director shall be eligible to continue to serve in that capacity and his or her office shall become vacant if after election as a member of the board, he or she becomes legally incompetent or is convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust or held liable in damages for fraud.
</P>
<P>(c) No bank director shall, within 1 year after the date when he or she ceases to be a member of the board, serve as a salaried officer or employee of such bank, or any association with which the bank has a discount or agent relationship.
</P>
<P>(d) No director of an association shall, within 1 year after he or she ceases to be a member of the board, serve as a salaried officer or employee of such association.
</P>
<P>(e) No person shall be eligible for membership on a Farm Credit bank or association board of directors in the same election cycle for which the Farm Credit institution's nominating committee is identifying candidates if that person was elected to serve on that institution's nominating committee and attended any meeting called by the nominating committee.
</P>
<P>(f) Out-of-territory borrowers who hold voting stock in the association may serve as association directors unless prohibited by the association's bylaws. If an association's bylaws prohibit it, that association must inform, in writing and at the time of loanmaking, each out-of-territory borrower that out-of-territory borrowers may not serve as directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50392, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 37095, Sept. 7, 1989; 75 FR 18740, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.320" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.320   Impartiality in the election of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit institution shall adopt policies and procedures that are designed to assure that the elections of board members are conducted in an impartial manner.
</P>
<P>(b) No employee or agent of a Farm Credit institution shall take any part, directly or indirectly, in the nomination or election of members to the board of directors of a Farm Credit institution, or make any statement, either orally or in writing, which may be construed as intended to influence any vote in such nominations, or elections. This paragraph shall not prohibit employees or agents from providing biographical and other similar information or engaging in other activities pursuant to policies and procedures for nominations and elections. This paragraph does not affect the right of an employee or agent to nominate or vote for stockholder-elected directors of an institution in which the employee or agent is a voting member. 
</P>
<P>(c) No property, facilities, or resources, including information technology and human or financial resources, of any Farm Credit institution shall be used by any candidate for nomination or election or by any other person for the benefit of any candidate for nomination or election, unless the same property, facilities, or resources are simultaneously available and made known to be available for use by all declared candidates, including floor nominees. For the limited purpose of Farm Credit bank board elections, each Farm Credit bank may allow its stockholder-associations to use stockholder-association property, facilities, or resources in support of bank director candidates. Any Farm Credit bank permitting this activity by its stockholder-associations must have a policy in place approved by its board of directors establishing reasonable standards that stockholder-associations must follow, and those standards must give appropriate consideration to the various sizes of stockholder-associations within a bank's district and include a maximum amount that a stockholder-association may expend in support of a bank director candidate.
</P>
<P>(d) No director, employee, or agent of a Farm Credit institution shall, for the purpose of furthering the interests of any candidates for nomination or election, furnish or make use of records that are not made available for use by all declared candidates.
</P>
<P>(e) No Farm Credit institution may in any way distribute or mail, whether at the expense of the institution or another, any campaign materials for director candidates. Institutions may request biographical information, as well as the disclosure information required under § 611.330, from all declared candidates who certify that they are eligible, restate such information in a standard format, and distribute or mail it with ballots or proxy ballots.
</P>
<P>(f) No director of a Farm Credit institution shall, in his or her capacity as a director, make any statement, either orally or in writing, which may be construed as intending to influence any vote in that institution's director nominations or elections. This paragraph shall not prohibit director candidates from engaging in campaign activities on their own behalf.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50392, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 5761, Feb. 2, 2006; 75 FR 18740, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.325" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.325   Bank and association nominating committees.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit bank and association may have only one nominating committee in any one election cycle. Each Farm Credit bank and association's board of directors must establish and maintain policies and procedures on its nominating committee, describing the formation, composition, operation, resources, and duties of the committee, consistent with current laws and regulations. Each nominating committee must conduct itself in the impartial manner prescribed by the policies and procedures adopted by its institution under § 611.320 and this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Composition.</I> The voting stockholders of each bank and association must elect a nominating committee of no fewer than three members. Unless prohibited by association bylaws, out-of-territory borrowers who hold voting stock may serve as members of an association's nominating committee. If an association's bylaws prohibit it, that association must inform, in writing and at the time of loanmaking, each out-of-territory borrower that out-of-territory borrowers may not serve on the association's nominating committee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Election.</I> Farm Credit banks and associations may use in-person (including use of an online medium and proxy ballots) or mail balloting procedures to elect a nominating committee.
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations must provide voting stockholders the opportunity to vote on the candidates for each nominating committee position.
</P>
<P>(2) Association nominating committee members may only be elected to a 1-year term. Farm Credit Banks must use weighted voting, with no cumulative voting permitted, when electing members to serve on a nominating committee. Farm Credit banks and associations may permit nominating committee members to be re-nominated and stand for re-election to serve successive terms.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> No individual may serve on a nominating committee who, at the time of election to, or during service on, a nominating committee, is an employee, director, or agent of that bank or association. A nominating committee member may not be a candidate for election to the board in the same election for which the committee is identifying nominees. A nominating committee member may resign from the committee to run for election to the board only if the individual did not attend any nominating committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responsibilities.</I> It is the responsibility of each nominating committee to identify, evaluate, and nominate candidates for stockholder election to a Farm Credit bank or association board of directors. A nominating committee's responsibilities are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Nominate individuals who the committee determines meet the eligibility requirements to run for open director positions. The committee must endeavor to ensure representation from all areas of the Farm Credit bank's or association's territory and, as nearly as possible, all types of agriculture practiced within the territory.
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate the qualifications of the director candidates. The evaluation process must consider whether there are any known obstacles preventing a candidate from performing the duties of the position.
</P>
<P>(3) Nominate at least two candidates for each director position being voted on by stockholders. If two nominees cannot be identified, the nominating committee must provide written explanation to the existing board of the efforts to locate candidates or the reasons for disqualifying any other candidate that resulted in fewer than two nominees.
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain records of its meetings, including a record of attendance at meetings.
</P>
<P>(5) Identify, evaluate, and nominate eligible individuals for service on the next nominating committee, if permitted by the institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resources.</I> Each Farm Credit bank and association must provide its nominating committee reasonable access to administrative resources in order for the committee to perform its duties. Each Farm Credit bank and association must, at a minimum, provide its nominating committee with FCA regulations and guidance on nominating committees, a current list of stockholders, the most recent bylaws, the current director qualifications policy, and a copy of the policies and procedures that the bank or the association has adopted pursuant to § 611.320(a) ensuring impartial elections. On the request of the nominating committee, the institution must also provide a summary of the current board self-evaluation. The bank or association may require a pledge of confidentiality by committee members prior to releasing evaluation documents.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18741, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.326" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.326   Floor nominations for open Farm Credit bank and association director positions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each floor nominee must be eligible for the director position for which the person has been nominated.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Voting stockholders of associations must be allowed to make floor nominations for every open stockholder-elected director position. Associations using only mail ballots must allow nominations from the floor at every session of an annual meeting. Associations permitting stockholders to cast votes during annual meetings may only allow nominations from the floor at the first session of the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) If floor nominations are permitted by a Farm Credit bank's election policies and procedures, voting stockholders must be allowed to make floor nominations for every open stockholder-elected director position and a physical meeting space must exist. Before every director election by a Farm Credit bank, the bank must inform voting stockholders whether floor nominations will be accepted.
</P>
<P>(c) Each association's board of directors must adopt policies and procedures for making and accepting floor nominations of candidates to stand for election to its board of directors. Each Farm Credit bank's board of directors allowing nominations from the floor must also adopt policies and procedures for making and accepting floor nominations. Policies and procedures for floor nominations must, at a minimum, provide that:
</P>
<P>(1) Floor nominations may only be made after the nominating committee has provided its list of director-nominees.
</P>
<P>(2) No more than a second by a voting stockholder to a nomination from the floor is required. After receiving a floor nomination, the floor nominee must state if he or she accepts the nomination.
</P>
<P>(3) Floor nominees must make the disclosures required by § 611.330 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18741, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.330" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.330   Disclosures of Farm Credit bank and association director-nominees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit bank and association's board of directors must adopt policies and procedures that ensure a disclosure statement is prepared by each director-nominee. At a minimum, each disclosure statement for each nominee must:
</P>
<P>(1) State the nominee's name, city and state of residence, business address if any, age, and business experience during the last 5 years, including each nominee's principal occupation and employment during the last 5 years.
</P>
<P>(2) List all business interests on whose board of directors the nominee serves or is otherwise employed in a position of authority and state the principal business in which the business interest is engaged.
</P>
<P>(3) Identify any family relationship of the nominee that would be reportable under part 612 of this chapter if elected to the institution's board.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Floor nominees who are not incumbent directors must provide to the Farm Credit bank or association the information referred to in this section and in § 620.6(e) and (f) of this chapter. The information must be provided in either paper or electronic form within the time period prescribed by the institution's bylaws or policies and procedures. If the institution does not have a prescribed time period, each floor nominee must provide this information to the institution within 5 business days of the nomination. If stockholders will not vote solely by mail ballot upon conclusion of the meeting, each floor nominee must provide the information at the first session at which voting is held.
</P>
<P>(2) For each nominee who is not an incumbent director or a nominee from the floor, the nominee must provide the information referred to in this section and in § 620.6(e) and (f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Each Farm Credit bank and association must distribute director-nominee disclosure information to all stockholders eligible to vote in the election. Institutions may either restate such information in a standard format or provide complete copies of each nominee's disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure information for each director-nominee must be provided as part of the Annual Meeting Information Statement (AMIS) issued for director elections in accordance with § 620.21(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclosure information for each director-nominee must be distributed or mailed with ballots or proxy ballots. Farm Credit banks and associations must ensure that the disclosure information on floor nominees is provided to voting stockholders by delivering ballots for the election of directors in the same format as the comparable information contained in the AMIS.
</P>
<P>(d) No person may be a nominee for director who does not make the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18742, Apr. 12, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 60596, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.340" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.340   Confidentiality and security in voting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit bank and association's board of directors must adopt policies and procedures that:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure the security of all records and materials related to a stockholder vote including, but not limited to, ballots, proxy ballots, and other related materials.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that ballots and proxy ballots are provided only to stockholders who are eligible to vote as of the record date set for the stockholder vote.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for the establishment of a tellers committee or an independent third party who will be responsible for validating ballots and proxies and tabulating voting results. A tellers committee may only consist of voting stockholders who are not employees, directors, director-nominees, or members of that election cycle's nominating committee.
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that a list of eligible voting stockholders (or identity codes of eligible voting stockholders) as of the voting record date is provided to the tellers committee or independent third party that will be tabulating the vote to ensure the validity of the votes cast. A small number of specifically authorized administrative employees of the institution may assist the tellers committee in such verifications, provided the institution implements procedures to ensure the confidentiality and security of the information made available to the employees. If an institution is using a tellers committee, verification of voter eligibility must be done separate and apart from the opening and tabulating of the actual ballots and may be done in advance of the vote tabulation, any time after the list of eligible voting stockholders has been provided to the tellers committee.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure that all information and materials regarding how or whether an individual stockholder has voted remain confidential, including protecting the information from disclosure to the institution's directors, stockholders, or employees, or any other person except:
</P>
<P>(i) A duly appointed tellers committee;
</P>
<P>(ii) A small number of specifically authorized administrative employees assisting the tellers committee by validating stockholders' eligibility to vote;
</P>
<P>(iii) An independent third party tabulating the vote; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) No Farm Credit bank or association may use signed ballots in stockholder votes. A bank or association may use balloting procedures, such as an identity code, that can be used to identify whether an individual stockholder is eligible to vote or has previously submitted a vote. In weighted voting, the votes must be tabulated by an independent third party.
</P>
<P>(c) An independent third party or each member of the tellers committee that tabulates the votes, and any administrative employees assisting the tellers committee in verifying stockholder eligibility to vote, must sign a certificate declaring that such party, member, or employee will not disclose to any person (including the institution, its directors, stockholders, or employees) any information about how or whether an individual stockholder has voted, except that the information must be disclosed to the Farm Credit Administration, if requested.
</P>
<P>(d) Once a Farm Credit bank or association receives a ballot, the vote of that stockholder is final, except that a stockholder may withdraw a proxy ballot before balloting begins at a stockholders' meeting. A Farm Credit bank or association may give a stockholder voting by proxy an opportunity to give voting discretion to the proxy of the stockholder's choice, provided that the proxy is also a stockholder eligible to vote.
</P>
<P>(e) Ballots and proxy ballots must be safeguarded before the time of distribution or mailing to voting stockholders and after the time of receipt by the bank or association until disposal. When stockholder meetings are held for the purpose of conducting elections or other votes, only proxy ballots may be accepted prior to any or all sessions of the stockholders' meeting and mail ballots may only be distributed after the conclusion of the meeting. In an election of directors, ballots, proxy ballots, and election records must be retained at least until the end of the term of office of the director. In other stockholder votes, ballots, proxy ballots, and records must be retained for at least 3 years after the vote.
</P>
<P>(f) An institution and its officers, directors, and employees may not make any public announcement of the results of a stockholder vote before the tellers committee or independent third party has validated the results of the vote.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30335, May 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.350" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.350   Application of cooperative principles to the election of directors.</HEAD>
<P>In the election of directors, each Farm Credit institution shall comply with the following cooperative principles as well as those set forth in § 615.5230 of this chapter, unless otherwise required by statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(a) Each voting stockholder of an association or bank for cooperatives has only one vote, regardless of the number of shares owned or the number of loans outstanding. Each voting stockholder-association of a Farm Credit Bank has only one vote that is assigned a weight proportional to the number of that association's voting stockholders. Each voting stockholder of an agricultural credit bank has only one vote, unless another voting scheme has been approved by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) If an association apportions its territory into geographic regions for director nomination or election purposes, out-of-territory voting stockholders must be assigned to a geographic region.
</P>
<P>(c) All voting stockholders of a Farm Credit institution have the right to vote in any stockholder vote to remove any director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18742, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.360" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.360   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Compensation Practices of Farm Credit Banks and Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.400" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.400   Compensation of bank board members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farm Credit banks are authorized to pay fair and reasonable compensation to directors for services performed in an official capacity at a rate not to exceed the level established in section 4.21 of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, unless the FCA determines that such a level adversely affects the safety and soundness of the institution. 
</P>
<P>(b) The bank director compensation level established in section 4.21 of the Act shall be adjusted to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index (CPI) for all urban consumers, as published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, in the following manner: Current year's maximum compensation = Prior year's maximum compensation adjusted by the prior year's annual average percent change in the CPI for all urban consumers. Adjustments will be made to the bank director statutory compensation limit beginning from October 28, 1992 (the date of enactment of the Farm Credit Banks and Associations Safety and Soundness Act of 1992). Additionally, each year the FCA will communicate the CPI adjusted bank director statutory compensation limit. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) A Farm Credit bank is authorized to pay a director up to 30 percent more than the statutory compensation limit in exceptional circumstances where the director contributes extraordinary time and effort in the service of the bank and its shareholders.
</P>
<P>(2) Banks must document the exceptional circumstances justifying additional director compensation. The documentation must describe:
</P>
<P>(i) The exceptional circumstances justifying the additional director compensation, including the extraordinary time and effort the director devoted to bank business; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and the terms and conditions of the additional director compensation.
</P>
<P>(d) Each bank board shall adopt a written policy regarding compensation of bank directors. The policy shall address, at a minimum, the following areas: 
</P>
<P>(1) The activities or functions for which attendance is necessary and appropriate and may be compensated, except that a Farm Credit bank shall not compensate any director for rendering services on behalf of any other Farm Credit System institution or a cooperative of which the director is a member, or for performing other assignments of a non-official nature; 
</P>
<P>(2) The methodology for determining each director's rate of compensation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The exceptional circumstances under which the board would pay additional compensation for any of its directors as authorized by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Directors may also be reimbursed for reasonable travel, subsistence, and other related expenses in accordance with the bank's policy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 37411, July 22, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 16618, Apr. 6, 1999; 65 FR 8023, Feb. 17, 2000; 77 FR 60596, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.410" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.410   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Transfer of Authorities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 50393, Dec. 15, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.500" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.500   General.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit Bank or Agricultural Credit Bank is authorized, in accordance with section 7.6 of the Act, to transfer certain authorities to Federal land bank associations. The regulations in this subpart set forth the procedures and voting and approval requirements applicable to such transfers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.501" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.501   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The boards of directors of a bank and an association which seek to transfer authorities may adopt appropriate resolutions approving such transfer and providing for the submission of such a proposal to their respective stockholders for a vote.
</P>
<P>(b) The resolutions accompanied by the following information shall be submitted to the Farm Credit Administration for review and approval:
</P>
<P>(1) Any proposed amendments to the charters of the institutions;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the transfer plan as required under § 611.520 of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) An information statement that complies with the requirements of § 611.515;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed bylaws of the bank and the association, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any additional information the boards of directors wish to submit in support of the request or that the Farm Credit Administration requests.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.505" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.505   Farm Credit Administration review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the board of directors resolution and the accompanying documents, the Farm Credit Administration shall review the request and either deny or give its preliminary approval to the request.
</P>
<P>(b) If the request is denied, written notice stating the reasons for the denial shall be transmitted to the chief executive officer of the bank and the association who shall promptly notify their respective boards of directors.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon approval of the proposed transfer of authorities by the stockholders as provided in § 611.510, the secretary of the bank and the secretary of the association shall forward to the Farm Credit Administration a certified record of the results of the stockholder votes.
</P>
<P>(d) Each institution shall notify its stockholders not later than 30 days after the stockholder vote of the final results of the vote. If no petition for reconsideration is filed with the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with § 611.525, the transfer shall be effective on the date specified in the transfer plan, or at such later date as may be required by the Farm Credit Administration to grant final approval. Notice of final approval shall be transmitted to the institutions involved.
</P>
<P>(e) The effective date of a transfer may not be less than 35 days after mailing of the notification to stockholders of the results of the stockholder vote, or 15 days after the date of submission to the Farm Credit Administration of all required documents for the Agency's consideration of final approval, whichever occurs later. If a petition for reconsideration is filed within 35 days after the date of mailing of the notification of stockholder vote, the constituent institutions must agree on a second effective date to be used in the event the transfer is approved on reconsideration. The second effective date may not be less than 60 days after stockholder notification of the results of the first vote, or 15 days after the date of the reconsideration vote, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50393, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 63 FR 64844, Nov. 24, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.510" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.510   Approval procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of approval of a resolution by the Farm Credit Administration, the bank and the association shall call a meeting of their voting stockholders. Each institution shall notify each stockholder that the resolution has been filed and that a meeting will be held in accordance with the institution's bylaws. The stockholders meeting of the bank and the association shall be held within 60 days of receipt of the approval from the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of meeting to consider and act upon the directors' resolution shall be accompanied by an information statement that complies with the requirements of § 611.515.
</P>
<P>(c) The proposal shall be approved if agreed to by:
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of the stockholders of the bank voting in person or by proxy, with each association entitled to cast a number of votes equal to the number of its voting stockholders;
</P>
<P>(2) A majority of the stockholders of the association voting, in person or by proxy;
</P>
<P>(3) The Farm Credit Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.515" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.515   Information statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The bank and association shall prepare an information statement which will inform stockholders about the provisions of the proposed transfer of authorities and the effect of the proposal on the bank and the association.
</P>
<P>(b) The information statement for each institution involved shall contain the following materials as applicable to the institution:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement either on the first page of the materials or on the notice of the stockholders meeting, in capital letters and boldface type, that:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>THE FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION HAS NEITHER APPROVED NOR PASSED UPON THE ACCURACY OR ADEQUACY OF THE INFORMATION ACCOMPANYING THE NOTICE OF MEETING OR PRESENTED AT THE MEETING AND NO REPRESENTATION TO THE CONTRARY SHALL BE MADE OR RELIED UPON.</HD1></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) A description of the material provisions of the plan under § 611.520 and the effect of the transaction on the institution, its stockholders, and the territory to be served.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement enumerating the potential advantages and disadvantages of the proposed transfer including, but not limited to, changes in operating efficiencies, one-stop service, branch offices, local control, and financial condition.
</P>
<P>(4) A summary of the provisions of the charter and bylaws following the transfer that differ materially from the charter or bylaws currently existing.
</P>
<P>(5) A brief statement by the board of directors of the institution setting forth the board's opinion on the advisability of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(6) A presentation of the following financial data:
</P>
<P>(i) An audited balance sheet and income statement and notes thereto of the bank or the association, as applicable, for the preceding 2 fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transfer of authority includes any material transfer of assets, a balance sheet and income statement of the bank and the association showing its financial condition before the transfer of authority and a pro forma balance sheet and income statement for the bank or association, as applicable, showing its financial condition after the transfer. The statements shall meet the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) Such financial statements shall be presented in columnar form, showing the financial condition as of the end of the most recent quarter of the institution, and operating results since the end of the last fiscal year through the end of the most recent quarter of the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) If the request is made within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year, the institution's financial statements shall be as of the most recent fiscal yearend.
</P>
<P>(C) If the request is made within 45 days after the end of the most recent quarter, the institution's financial statements shall be as of the end of the quarter preceding the quarter just ended.
</P>
<P>(D) If the request is made more than 45 days after the end of the most recent quarter, the institution's financial statements shall be as of the end of that quarter. 
</P>
<P>(E) The financial statements must be accompanied by appropriate notes, describing any assets being transferred and including data relating to high-risk assets and other property owned, allowance for credit losses, and current year-to-date chargeoffs.
</P>
<P>(F) The amount and nature of start-up costs estimated to be associated with the transfer.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the type and dollar amount of any financial assistance that has been provided to the bank or the association, as applicable, during the past year; the conditions on which the financial assistance was extended, the terms of repayment or retirement, if any; and, the liability for repayment of this assistance by the bank or the association if the transfer were approved.
</P>
<P>(8) A statement as to whether the bank or the association, as applicable, would require financial assistance during the first 3 years of operation, the estimated type and dollar amount of the assistance, and terms of repayment or retirement, if known.
</P>
<P>(9) A statement indicating the possible tax consequences to stockholders and whether any legal opinion, ruling or external auditor's opinion has been obtained on the matter.
</P>
<P>(10) A presentation of the association's interest rate and fee programs, interest collection policy, capitalization plan and other factors that would affect a borrower's cost of doing business with the association.
</P>
<P>(11) A description of any event subsequent to the date of the last quarterly report, but prior to the stockholder vote, that would have a material impact on the financial condition of the bank or the association.
</P>
<P>(12) A statement of any other material fact or circumstances that a stockholder would need in order to make an informed and responsible decision, or that would be necessary in order to provide a disclosure that is not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(13) A form of written proxy, together with instructions on its purpose, use and authorization by the stockholder. The proxy instructions must ensure the secrecy of the stockholder's ballot if the stockholder votes by proxy.
</P>
<P>(14) A copy of the plan of transfer provided for in § 611.520 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) No bank or association director, officer, or employee shall make any untrue or misleading statement of a material fact, or fail to disclose any material fact necessary under the circumstances to make statements made not misleading, to a stockholder of the association in connection with a transfer under this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50393, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 48790, Sept. 20, 1993; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.520" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.520   Plan of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>The transfer of authorities and assets, as appropriate, shall occur pursuant to a written plan which shall be agreed to by the bank and the association involved. The written plan shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) An explanation of the value of the equity ownership as of the last monthend held by stockholders of the bank and the association and the impact, if any, of the transfer on the value of that equity.
</P>
<P>(b) If the plan provides for a transfer of assets, a description of the terms and conditions upon which such transfer will occur, including, but not limited to, any warranties or representations regarding the value of such assets.
</P>
<P>(c) A description of how the association would obtain loan funds after the transfer.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement on how the expenses connected with the transfer are to be borne by the affected parties.
</P>
<P>(e) A statement of any conditions which must be satisfied prior to the effective date of the transfer, including but not limited to approval by stockholders and approval by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(f) A statement that prior to the effective date of the transfer the board of directors of the bank or the association may rescind its resolution and void the transfer, with the concurrence of the Farm Credit Administration, on the basis that:
</P>
<P>(1) The information disclosed to stockholders contained material errors or omissions;
</P>
<P>(2) Material misrepresentations were made to stockholders regarding the impact of the transfer;
</P>
<P>(3) Fraudulent activities were used to obtain the stockholders' approval; or,
</P>
<P>(4) An event occurred between the time of the vote and the transfer that would have a significant adverse impact on the future viability of the association.
</P>
<P>(g) A designation of those persons who have authority to carry out the plan of transfer, including the authority to execute any documents necessary to perfect title, on behalf of the bank and the association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.525" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.525   Stockholder reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Stockholders have the right to reconsider the approval of the transfer provided that a petition signed by 15 percent of the stockholders of either institution involved in the transfer is filed with the Farm Credit Administration within 35 days after the date of mailing of the notification of the final results of the stockholder vote required under § 611.505(d) and such petition is approved by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) A special stockholders meeting shall be called by the institution to vote on the reconsideration following the Farm Credit Administration's approval of a stockholder petition to reconsider the transfer. If a majority of stockholders of any institution involved in the transfer votes against the transfer, the transfer is not approved. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Bank Mergers, Consolidations and Charter Amendments</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 50393, Dec. 15, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.1000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1000   General authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An amendment to a Farm Credit bank charter may relate to any provision that is properly the subject of a charter, including, but not limited to, the name of the bank, the location of its offices, or the territory served.
</P>
<P>(b) The FCA may make changes in the charter of a Farm Credit bank as may be requested by that bank and approved by the FCA pursuant to § 611.1010 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA may, on its own initiative, make changes in the charter of a Farm Credit bank, and any chartered service corporation thereof, where the FCA determines that the change is necessary to accomplish the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1010   Farm Credit bank charter amendment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Farm Credit bank may recommend a charter amendment to accomplish any of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) A merger or consolidation with any other Farm Credit bank or banks operating under title I or III of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) A transfer of territory with any other Farm Credit bank operating under the same title of the Act;
</P>
<P>(3) A change to its name or location;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other change that is properly the subject of a Farm Credit bank charter;
</P>
<P>(b) Upon approval of an appropriate resolution by the Farm Credit bank board, the certified resolution, together with supporting documentation, must be submitted to the FCA for preliminary or final approval, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA will review the material submitted and either approve or disapprove the request. The FCA may require submission of any supplemental information and analysis it deems appropriate. If the request is for merger, consolidation, or transfer of territory, the approval of the FCA will be preliminary only, with final approval subject to a vote of the Farm Credit bank's stockholders.
</P>
<P>(d) Following receipt of the FCA's written preliminary approval, the proposal must be submitted for approval to the voting stockholders of the Farm Credit bank. A proposal will be considered approved if agreed to by a majority of the voting stockholders of each Farm Credit bank voting, in person or by proxy, at a duly authorized stockholder meeting with each stockholder-association entitled to cast a number of votes equal to the number of the association's voting shareholders, unless another voting scheme has been approved by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon approval by the stockholders of the Farm Credit bank, the request for final approval and issuance of the appropriate charter or amendments to charter for the Farm Credit banks involved must be submitted to the FCA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1020   Requirements for mergers or consolidations of Farm Credit banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As authorized under sections 7.0 and 7.12 of the Act, a Farm Credit bank may merge or consolidate with one or more Farm Credit banks operating under the same or different titles of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The plan to merge or consolidate two or more Farm Credit banks is subject to the requirements of §§ 611.1122, 611.1123, and 611.1126 of this part, unless otherwise instructed by the FCA. In interpreting those sections, the phrase “Farm Credit bank(s)” will be read for the word “association(s)” and references to “funding bank” are to be ignored.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1030   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1040" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1040   Creation of new associations.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for the issuance of a charter to a new production credit association or Federal land bank association must meet the requirements of sections 2.0 or 2.10, respectively, of the Act. Any application for the issuance of a charter for an agricultural credit association must meet the requirements of section 2.0 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50393, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Mergers, Consolidations, and Charter Amendments of Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1120" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1120   General authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An amendment to an association charter may relate to any provision that is properly the subject of a charter, including, but not limited to, the name of the association, the location of its offices, or the territory served.
</P>
<P>(b) The FCA may make changes in the charter of an association as may be requested by that association and approved by the FCA pursuant to § 611.1121 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA may, on its own initiative, make changes in the charter of an agricultural credit association, Federal land bank association, or a production credit association, and any chartered service corporation thereof, where the FCA determines that the change is necessary to accomplish the purposes of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 20400, May 16, 1985, as amended at 51 FR 41945, Nov. 20, 1986; 80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1121" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1121   Association charter amendment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An association that proposes to amend its charter must submit a request to its funding bank containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the provision(s) of the charter that the association proposes to amend and the proposed amendment(s);
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the reasons for the proposed amendment(s), the impact of the amendment(s) on the association and its stockholders, and the requested effective date of the amendment(s);
</P>
<P>(3) A certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of the association approving the amendment(s);
</P>
<P>(4) Any additional information or documents that the association wishes to submit in support of the request or that may be requested by the funding bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a proposed amendment from an association, the funding bank must review the materials submitted and provide the association with its analysis of the proposal within a reasonable period of time. Concurrently, the funding bank must communicate its recommendation on the proposal to the FCA, including the reasons for the recommendation, and any analysis the bank believes appropriate. Following review by the bank, the association must transmit the proposed amendment with attachments to the FCA.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of an association's request for a charter amendment, the FCA will review the materials submitted and either approve or disapprove the request. The FCA may require submission of any supplemental information and analysis it deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA will notify the association of its approval or disapproval of the amendment request, including a copy of the amended charter with the approval notification, and provide a copy of such communication to the funding bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51116, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1122" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1122   Requirements for association mergers or consolidations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where two or more associations plan to merge or consolidate, or where the funding bank board has adopted a reorganization plan for the associations in the district, the associations involved must jointly submit a request to the funding bank containing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a merger, a copy of the charter of the continuing association reflecting any proposed amendments. In the case of consolidation, a copy of the proposed charter of the new association;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the reasons for the proposed merger or consolidation, the impact of the proposed transaction on the associations and their stockholders, and the planned effective date of the merger or consolidation;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of each association recommending approval of the merger or consolidation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a district reorganization plan, a certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of each association recommending either approval or disapproval of the proposal.
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the agreement of merger or consolidation;
</P>
<P>(5) Two signed copies of the continuing or proposed Articles of Association;
</P>
<P>(6) All of the information specified in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(7) Any additional information or documents each association wishes to submit in support of the request; and
</P>
<P>(8) All additional information and documentation that the funding bank or the FCA requests.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon receipt of a request for approval of an association merger or consolidation, the funding bank must review the materials submitted to determine whether they comply with the requirements of these regulations and must communicate with the associations concerning any deficiency. When the bank approves the request to merge or consolidate it must notify the associations. The bank must also notify the FCA of its approval together with the reasons for its approval and any supporting analysis. The associations must jointly submit the proposal together with required documentation to the FCA for preliminary approval.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of a complete association merger or consolidation request, the FCA will review the request and either deny or give its written preliminary approval to the request within 60 days. The FCA will notify the requesting associations when the 60-day preliminary approval review period begins. The FCA may require submission of any supplemental information and analysis it deems appropriate for its consideration of the merger or consolidation request.
</P>
<P>(1) When a request is denied, written notice stating the reasons for the denial will be transmitted to the associations and a copy provided to the funding bank(s).
</P>
<P>(2) When a request is preliminarily approved, written notice of the preliminary approval will be given to the associations and a copy provided to the funding bank(s). Preliminary approval by the FCA does not constitute approval of the merger or consolidation. Approval of a merger or consolidation is only issued pursuant to this subpart. In connection with granting preliminary approval, the FCA may impose conditions in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of preliminary approval by the FCA of a merger or consolidation request, each constituent association must call a meeting of its voting stockholders. The FCA may also require, when considered appropriate to the merger or consolidation request under review, the associations to hold informational meetings before a stockholder vote. The stockholder meeting to vote on a merger or consolidation must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be called on written notice to each stockholder entitled to vote on the transaction as of the record date and be held in accordance with the terms of each association's bylaws.
</P>
<P>(2) Follow the voting procedures of § 611.340, except associations may not use tellers committees to validate ballots and tabulate votes on the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(3) Require the affirmative vote of a majority of the voting stockholders of each association present and voting, either in person or by written proxy, at a meeting at which a quorum is present to constitute stockholder approval of a merger or consolidation proposal.
</P>
<P>(e) Notice of the stockholder meeting to consider and act upon a proposed merger or consolidation must be accompanied by the information required under this paragraph. The notice and accompanying information must not be sent to stockholders until preliminary approval of the merger or consolidation has been given by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(1) A statement either on the first page of the materials or on the notice of the stockholders' meeting, in capital letters and bold face type, that:
</P>
<HD1>THE FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION HAS NEITHER APPROVED NOR PASSED UPON THE ACCURACY OR ADEQUACY OF THE INFORMATION ACCOMPANYING THE NOTICE OF MEETING OR PRESENTED AT THE MEETING AND NO REPRESENTATION TO THE CONTRARY SHALL BE MADE OR RELIED UPON.
</HD1>
<P>(2) A description of the material provisions of the agreement of merger or consolidation and the effect of the proposed merger or consolidation on the associations, their stockholders, the new or continuing board of directors, and the territory to be served. In addition, a copy of the agreement must be furnished with the notice to stockholders.
</P>
<P>(3) A summary of the provisions of the charter and bylaws of the continuing or new association that differ materially from the existing charter or bylaw provisions of the constituent associations.
</P>
<P>(4) A brief statement by the boards of directors of the constituent associations setting forth the basis for the boards' recommendation on the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(5) A description of any agreement or arrangement between a constituent association and any of its officers relating to employment or termination of employment and arising from the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(6) A presentation of the following financial data:
</P>
<P>(i) A balance sheet and income statement for each constituent association for each of the 2 preceding fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(ii) A balance sheet for each constituent association as of a date within 90 days of the date the request for preliminary approval is forwarded to the FCA presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the prior fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(iii) An income statement for the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the required balance sheet presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the preceding fiscal year. The balance sheet and income statement format must be that contained in the association's annual report to stockholders; must contain any significant changes in accounting policies that differ from those in the latest association annual report to stockholders; and must contain appropriate footnote disclosures, including data relating to high-risk assets and other property owned, and allowance for credit 

losses, including net chargeoffs as required in paragraph (e)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) The financial statements (balance sheet and income statement) must be in sufficient detail to show separately all significant categories of interest-earning assets and interest-bearing liabilities and the income or expense accrued thereon.
</P>
<P>(8) Attached to the financial statements for each constituent association, either:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement signed by the chief executive officer and each member of the board of directors of the association that the various financial statements are unaudited, but have been prepared in all material respects in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (except as otherwise disclosed therein) and are, to the best of the knowledge of the board, a fair and accurate presentation of the financial condition of the association; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A signed opinion by an independent certified public accountant that the various financial statements have been examined in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards and, accordingly, included such tests of the accounting records and such other auditing procedures as were considered necessary in the circumstances, and, as of the date of the statements, present fairly the financial position of the association in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles applied on a consistent basis, except as otherwise noted thereon.
</P>
<P>(9) A presentation for each constituent association regarding its policy on accounting for loan performance, together with the number and dollar amount of loans in all performance categories, including those categorized as high-risk assets.
</P>
<P>(10) Information of each constituent association concerning the amount of loans charged off in each of the 2 fiscal years preceding the date of the balance sheet, the current year-to-date net chargeoff amount, and the balance in the allowance for credit losses account and a statement regarding whether, in the opinion of management, the allowance for credit losses is adequate to absorb the risk currently existing in the loan portfolio. This information may be appropriately included in the footnotes to the financial statements.
</P>
<P>(11) A management discussion and analysis of the financial condition and results of operation for the past 2 fiscal years for each constituent institution. This requirement can be satisfied by including the materials contained in the management discussion and analysis of each institution's most recent annual report.
</P>
<P>(12) A discussion of any material changes in financial condition of each constituent institution from the end of the last fiscal year to the date of the interim balance sheet provided.
</P>
<P>(13) A discussion of any material changes in the results of operations of each constituent institution with respect to the most recent fiscal-year-to-date period for which an income statement is provided.
</P>
<P>(14) A discussion of any change in the tax status of the new institution from those of the constituent institutions as a result of merger or consolidation. A statement on any adverse tax consequences to the stockholders of the institution as a result of the change in tax status.
</P>
<P>(15) A statement on the proposed institution's relationship with an independent public accountant, including any change that may occur as a result of the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(16) A pro forma balance sheet of the continuing or consolidated association presented as if the merger or consolidation had occurred as of the date on the balance sheets required in paragraph (e)(6) of this section, as recommended to the stockholders. A pro forma summary of earnings for the continuing or consolidated association presented as if the merger or consolidation had been effective at the beginning of the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the balance sheets.
</P>
<P>(17) A description of the type and dollar amount of any financial assistance that has been provided during the past year or will be provided by the funding bank or other party to assist the constituent or the continuing or new association(s), the conditions on which financial assistance has been or will be extended, the terms of repayment or retirement, if any, and the impact of the assistance on the subject association(s) or the stockholders.
</P>
<P>(18) A presentation for each constituent association of interest rate comparisons for the last 2 fiscal years preceding the date of the balance sheet, together with a statement of the continuing or new association's proposed interest rate and fee programs, interest collection policies, capitalization rates, dividends or patronage refunds, and other factors that would affect a borrower's cost of doing business with the continuing or new association. Where agreement has not been reached on such matters, current related information must be presented for each constituent association.
</P>
<P>(19) A description for each constituent association of any event subsequent to the date of the financial statements, but prior to the merger or consolidation vote, that would have a material impact on the financial condition of the constituent or continuing or new association(s).
</P>
<P>(20) A statement of any other material fact or circumstance that a stockholder would need in order to make an informed decision on the merger or consolidation proposal, or that is necessary to make the required disclosures not misleading.
</P>
<P>(21) Where proxies are to be solicited, a form of written proxy, together with instructions on the purpose and authority for its use, and the proper method for signature by the stockholder.
</P>
<P>(f) Where a proposed merger or consolidation will involve more than three associations, the FCA may require the supplementation, or allow the condensation or omission of any information required under paragraph (e) of this section in furtherance of meaningful disclosure to stockholders. Any waiver sought under this paragraph must be obtained before preparation of the financial statements and accompanying schedules required under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) The effective date of a merger or consolidation may not be less than 35 days after the date of mailing of the notification to stockholders of the results of the stockholder vote, or 15 days after the date of submission to the FCA of all required documents for the FCA's consideration of final approval, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<P>(1) The constituent institutions must agree on a second effective date to be used in the event the merger or consolidation is approved on reconsideration. The second effective date may not be less than 60 days after stockholder notification of the results of the first vote, or 15 days after the date of the reconsideration vote, whichever occurs later.
</P>
<P>(2) If no reconsideration petition is filed with the FCA, upon final approval by the FCA, the merger or consolidation will be effective on the date specified in the merger agreement or at such later date as may be required by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(h) Each constituent association must notify its stockholders not later than 30 days after the stockholder vote of the final results of the vote. Upon approval of a proposed merger or consolidation by the stockholders of the constituent associations, each association must submit to the FCA a certified copy of the stockholders' resolution on which the stockholders cast their votes and a certification of the stockholder vote from the independent third party(s) used to tally the vote. After the time for submitting reconsideration petitions has expired, and if no petition is filed, the FCA will make a final approval decision on the merger or consolidation, imposing conditions as appropriate. The FCA will send written notice of the final FCA approval decision to the associations and provide a copy to the affiliated funding bank(s).
</P>
<P>(i) No Farm Credit institution, or any director, officer, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs thereof, may make any untrue or misleading statement of a material fact, or fail to disclose any material fact necessary under the circumstances to make statements made not misleading, to a stockholder of any association in connection with an association merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(1) No Farm Credit institution or any director, officer, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of a Farm Credit institution may make an oral or written representation to any person that a preliminary or final approval by the FCA of a merger or consolidation constitutes, directly or indirectly, either a recommendation on the merits of the transaction or an assurance concerning the adequacy or accuracy of any information provided to any association's stockholders in connection therewith.
</P>
<P>(2) When a Farm Credit institution, or any of its employees, officers, directors, agents, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs thereof, make disclosures or representations in connection with an association merger or consolidation that, in the judgment of the FCA, are incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading, whether or not such disclosure or representation is made in disclosure statements required by this subpart, such institution must make such additional or corrective disclosure as directed by the FCA and as is necessary to provide stockholders and the general public with full and fair disclosure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51117, Aug. 24, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1123" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1123   Association merger or consolidation agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Associations operating under the same title of the Act may merge or consolidate voluntarily, but only pursuant to a written agreement. The agreement must set forth all of the terms of the transaction, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed effective date of the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed name and headquarters location of the continuing or consolidated association.
</P>
<P>(3) The names of the persons nominated to serve as directors until the first regular annual meeting of the continuing or consolidated association to be held after the effective date of the merger or consolidation. Any director of a constituent association may be designated in the agreement to serve as a director of the continuing or consolidated association for a period not to exceed his or her current term, after which he or she must stand for reelection. However, the terms of the agreement must provide for the election of at least one director at each annual meeting subsequent to the effective date of the merger or consolidation. The bylaws of the continuing or consolidated association must reflect the provisions of the merger or consolidation agreement regarding director terms.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the formula to be used to exchange the stock of the constituent associations for the stock of the continuing or consolidated association. No fractional shares of stock may be issued.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of any conditions which must be satisfied prior to the effective date of the proposed transaction, including but not limited to approval by stockholders, the funding bank, and the FCA.
</P>
<P>(6) A statement of the representations or warranties, if any, made or to be made by any association, or its officers, directors, or employees that is a party to the proposed transactions.
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the board of directors of each constituent association can terminate the agreement before the effective date upon a determination by an association, with the concurrence of the FCA, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The information disclosed to stockholders contained material errors or omissions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Material misrepresentations were made to stockholders regarding the impact of the merger or consolidation; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Fraudulent activities were used to obtain stockholders' approval; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) An event occurred between the time of the vote and the merger that would have a significant adverse impact on the future viability of the continuing or consolidated association. 
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the legal opinions or rulings (including those related to tax matters), if any, that have been obtained or furnished by any party in connection with the proposed transaction. Also, refer to paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) The capitalization plan and capital structure for the continuing or consolidated association and a statement that the capitalization plan must comply with applicable FCA regulations.
</P>
<P>(10) Provision for the employee benefits plan, its subsequent continuation or adaptation by the board of directors of the continuing or consolidated association following the merger or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(11) A statement of the authority of those persons designated to carry out the terms of the agreement, including the authority to waive provisions of the agreement and to execute any documents necessary to perfect title, on behalf of the constituent associations.
</P>
<P>(b) As an attachment to the agreement, the constituent associations must set forth those provisions of the charter and bylaws of the continuing or consolidated association which differ from the existing charter or bylaw provisions of the constituent associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 20400, May 16, 1985, as amended at 51 FR 32442, Sept. 12, 1986; 53 FR 50396, Dec. 15, 1988; 80 FR 51119, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1124" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1124   Territorial adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to any request submitted to the FCA to modify association charters for the purpose of transferring territory from one association to another.
</P>
<P>(a) Territorial adjustments, except as specified in paragraph (m) of this section, require approval of a majority of the voting stockholders of each association present and voting or voting by written proxy at a duly authorized meeting at which a quorum is present.
</P>
<P>(b) When two or more associations agree to transfer territory, each association must submit a proposal to the funding bank containing the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons for the proposed transfer and the impact the transfer will have on its stockholders and holders of participation certificates;
</P>
<P>(2) A certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of each association approving the proposed territory transfer;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the agreement to transfer territory that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the territory to be transferred;
</P>
<P>(ii) Transferor association's plan to transfer loans and the types of loans to be transferred;
</P>
<P>(iii) Transferor association's plan to retire and transferee association's plan to issue equities held by holders of stock, participation certificates, and allocated equities, if any, and a statement by each association that the book value of its equities is at least equal to par;
</P>
<P>(iv) An inventory of the assets to be sold by the transferor association and purchased by the transferee association;
</P>
<P>(v) An inventory of the liabilities to be assumed from the transferor association by the transferee association;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the holders of stock and participation certificates whose loans are subject to transfer have 60 days from the effective date of the territory transfer to inform the transferor association of their decision to remain with the transferor association for normal servicing until the current loan is paid;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement that the transfer is conditioned upon the approval of the stockholders of each constituent association; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The effective date of the proposed territory transfer.
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the stockholder disclosure statement provided for in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any additional relevant information or documents that the association wishes to submit in support of its request or that may be required by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon receipt of documents supporting a proposed territory transfer, the funding bank must review the materials submitted and provide the associations with its analysis of the proposal within a reasonable period of time. The funding bank must concurrently advise the FCA of its recommendation regarding the proposed territory transfer. Following review by the bank, the associations must transmit the proposal to the FCA together with all required documents.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon receipt of an association's request to transfer territory, the FCA will review the request and either deny or grant preliminary approval to the request. The FCA may require submission of any supplemental information and analysis it deems appropriate for its consideration of the request to transfer territory.
</P>
<P>(1) When a request is denied, written notice stating the reasons for the denial will be transmitted to the associations, and a copy provided to the funding bank.
</P>
<P>(2) When a request is preliminarily approved, written notice of the preliminary approval will be transmitted to the associations, and a copy provided to the funding bank. Preliminary approval by the FCA does not constitute approval of the territory transfer. Final approval is granted only in accordance with paragraph (h) of this section. In connection with granting preliminary approval, the FCA may impose conditions in writing.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon receipt of preliminary approval by the FCA, each constituent association must, by written notice, and in accordance with its bylaws, call a meeting of its voting stockholders. The affirmative vote of a majority of the voting stockholders of each association present and voting or voting by written proxy at a meeting at which a quorum is present is required for stockholder approval of a territory transfer.
</P>
<P>(f) Notice of the meeting to consider and act upon a proposed territory transfer must be accompanied by the following information covering each constituent association:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement either on the first page of the materials or on the notice of the stockholders' meeting, in capital letters and bold face type, that:
</P>
<HD1>THE FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION HAS NEITHER APPROVED NOR PASSED UPON THE ACCURACY OR ADEQUACY OF THE INFORMATION ACCOMPANYING THE NOTICE OF MEETING OR PRESENTED AT THE MEETING AND NO REPRESENTATION TO THE CONTRARY SHALL BE MADE OR RELIED UPON.
</HD1>
<P>(2) A copy of the Agreement to Transfer Territory and a summary of the major provisions of the Agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) The reason the territory transfer is proposed;
</P>
<P>(4) A map of the association's territory as it would look after the transfer;
</P>
<P>(5) A summary of the differences, if any, between the transferor and transferee associations' interest rates, interest rate policies, collection policies, service fees, bylaws, and any other items of interest that would impact a borrower's lending relationship with the institution;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that all loans of the transferor association that finance operations located in the transferred territory will be transferred to the transferee association except as otherwise provided for in this section or in accordance with agreements between the associations as provided for in § 614.4070;
</P>
<P>(7) Where proxies are to be solicited, a form of written proxy, together with instructions on the purpose and authority for its use, and the proper method for signature by the stockholders; and
</P>
<P>(8) A statement that the associations' bylaws, financial statements for the previous 3 years, and any financial information prepared by the associations concerning the proposed transfer of territory are available on request to the stockholders of any association involved in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(g) No Farm Credit institution, or director, officer, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs thereof, may make any untrue or misleading statement of a material fact, or fail to disclose any material fact necessary under the circumstances to make statements made not misleading, to a stockholder of any Farm Credit institution in connection with a territory transfer.
</P>
<P>(h) Upon approval of a proposed territory transfer by the stockholders of the constituent associations, a certified copy of the stockholders' resolution for each constituent association and one executed Agreement to Transfer Territory must be forwarded to the FCA. The territory transfer will be effective when thereafter finally approved and on the date as specified by the FCA. Notice of final approval will be transmitted to the associations and a copy provided to the bank.
</P>
<P>(i) No director, officer, employee, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of a Farm Credit institution may make an oral or written representation to any person that a preliminary or final approval by the FCA of a territory transfer constitutes, directly or indirectly, a recommendation on the merits of the transaction or an assurance concerning the adequacy or accuracy of any information provided to any association's stockholders in connection therewith.
</P>
<P>(j) When a Farm Credit institution, or any of its employees, officers, directors, agents, or other persons participating in the conduct of the affairs thereof, make disclosures or representations that, in the judgment of the FCA, are incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading in connection with a territory transfer, whether or not such disclosure or representation is made in disclosure statements required by this subpart, such institution must make such additional or corrective disclosure as directed by the FCA and as is necessary to provide stockholders and the general public with full and fair disclosure.
</P>
<P>(k) The notice and accompanying information required under paragraph (f) of this section may not be sent to stockholders until preliminary approval of the territory transfer has been granted by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(l) Where a territory transfer is proposed simultaneously with a merger or consolidation, both transactions may be voted on by stockholders at the same meeting. Only stockholders of a transferee or transferor association may vote on a territory transfer.
</P>
<P>(m) Each borrower whose real estate or operations is located in a territory that will be transferred must be provided with a written Notice of Territory Transfer immediately after the FCA has granted final approval of the territory transfer. The Notice must inform the borrower of the transfer of the borrower's loan to the transferee association and the exchange of related equities for equities of like kinds and amounts in the transferee association. If a like kind of equity is not available in the transferee association, similar equities must be offered that will not adversely affect the interest of the owner. The Notice must give the borrower 60 days from the effective date of the territory transfer to notify the transferor association in writing if the borrower decides to stay with the transferor association for normal servicing until the current loan is paid. Any application by the borrower for renewal or for additional credit must be made to the transferee association, except as otherwise provided for by an agreement between associations in accordance with § 614.4070.
</P>
<P>(n) This section does not apply to territory transfers initiated by order of the FCA or to territory transfers due to the liquidation of the transferor association.
</P>
<P>(o) Where a proposed action involves the transfer of a portion of an association's territory to an association operating in a different district, such proposal must comply with the provisions of this section and section 5.17(a) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51119, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1125" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1125   Treatment of associations not approving districtwide mergers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of charters.</I> When issuing charters or certificates of territory for districtwide mergers or consolidations of associations, the FCA will not issue any charters or certificates of territory that include the territory of one or more associations whose stockholders voted to disapprove the merger or consolidation. 
</P>
<P>(b) A funding bank must not take any of the following actions with respect to an association that has determined to not participate in a districtwide merger or consolidation: 
</P>
<P>(1) Discriminate in the provision of any financial service and assistance, including, but not limited to, access to loan funds and rates of interest on loans and discounts offered by the funding bank to associations and their member/borrowers; 
</P>
<P>(2) Discriminate in the provision of any related services that are offered by the funding bank to associations and their member/borrowers; 
</P>
<P>(3) Discriminate in the provision of any professional assistance that may be normally provided by the funding bank to associations; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Discriminate in the provision of any technical assistance that may be normally provided by the funding bank to associations. 
</P>
<P>(c) This regulation does not prohibit a funding bank from taking any action with respect to an association, including, but not limited to, charging different rates of interest or different prices for services, or declining to provide financial assistance; provided that any such action is fully documented and based on an objective analysis of applicable criteria that are uniformly and consistently applied by the funding bank to all associations in the district.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 32443, Sept. 12, 1986, as amended at 60 FR 34099, June 30, 1995; 80 FR 51121, Aug. 24, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1126" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1126   Reconsiderations of mergers and consolidations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Voting stockholders have the right to reconsider their approval of a merger or consolidation, provided that a petition is filed with the FCA. The petition must be signed by 15 percent of the stockholders (who were eligible to vote on the merger or consolidation proposal) of one or more of the constituent associations. The reconsideration petition must be filed with the FCA within 35 days after the date when the association mailed the notification of the final results of the stockholder vote pursuant to § 611.1122(h).
</P>
<P>(b) Voting stockholders that intend to file a reconsideration petition have a right to obtain from the association of which they are a voting stockholder the voting record date list used by that association for the merger or consolidation vote. The association must provide the voting record date list as soon as possible, but not later than 7 days after receipt of the request. The list must be provided pursuant to the provisions of § 618.8310(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A reconsideration petition must be addressed to the Secretary of the FCA Board and filed with the FCA on or before the deadline described in paragraph (a) of this section. Reconsideration petitions must identify a contact person and provide contact information for that person.
</P>
<P>(1) Filing of a reconsideration petition may only be accomplished through in-person delivery during normal business hours to any FCA employee in official duty status or by sending the petition by mail, facsimile, electronic transmission, carrier delivery, or other similar means to an FCA office.
</P>
<P>(2) The FCA will use the postmark, ship date, electronic stamp, or similar evidence as the date of filing the reconsideration petition.
</P>
<P>(d) The FCA will notify the named contact on the reconsideration petition whether the petition was filed on time. On the timely receipt of a reconsideration petition, the FCA will review the petition to determine whether it complies with the requirements of section 7.9 of the Act. Following a determination that the petition was timely filed and complies with applicable requirements, the FCA will give notice to the associations involved in the merger or consolidation for which the reconsideration petition was filed. The associations are not entitled to either a copy of the petition or the names of the petitioners.
</P>
<P>(e) Following FCA notification that a reconsideration petition has been properly filed, a special stockholders meeting must be called by the association(s) to reconsider the merger or consolidation vote. The reconsideration vote must be conducted according to the merger and consolidation voting requirements of § 611.1122(d). If a majority of the stockholders voting, in person or by proxy, at a duly authorized stockholders' meeting from any one of the constituent associations vote against the merger or consolidation under the reconsideration vote, the merger or consolidation will not take place. In the event that the merger or consolidation is approved on reconsideration, the constituent associations must use the second effective date developed under § 611.1122(g)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 51121, Aug. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Rules for Inter-System Fund Transfers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1130   Inter-System transfer of funds and equities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Section 5.17(a)(6) of the Act authorizes the FCA to regulate the borrowing, repayment, and transfer of funds and equities between institutions of the System, including banks, associations, and service corporations chartered under the Act. This section sets forth the circumstances and procedures under which the FCA may direct such a transfer of funds and equities based on its determination with respect to the financial condition of one or more institutions of the System. For purposes of this section, the term “bond” refers to long-term notes, bonds, debentures, or other similar obligations, or short-term discount notes issued by one or more banks pursuant to section 4.2 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) The FCA may direct a transfer of funds or equities by one or more banks of the System to another bank of the System where it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The receiving institution will not be able to make payments of principal or interest on bonds for which it is primarily liable within the meaning of section 4.4(a) of the Act; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The common or preferred stock, participation certificates, or allocated equities of the receiving institution have a book value less than their par or stated values; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The total bonds outstanding for which the receiving institution is primarily liable exceed 20 times the combined capital and surplus accounts of the bank; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Based on application to it of one or more of the following ratios, the receiving institution is not financially viable in that it will not be able to continue to extend new or additional credit or financial assistance to its eligible borrowers:
</P>
<P>(i) The ratio of stock to earned net worth (including legal reserve, unallocated and reserved surplus, undistributed earnings, and allowance for credit losses) exceeds 2 to 1;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the outstanding bonds to capital and surplus exceeds 15 to 1;
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonearning assets (any noninterest-bearing assets, including but not limited to cash, noninterest-earning loans, net fixed assets, other property owned, accrued interest receivable, and accounts receivable) exceed 15 percent of total assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lendable net worth (interest-earning assets less interest-bearing liabilities) is zero or less.
</P>
<P>(c) The FCA may direct a transfer of funds or equities between two or more Federal land bank associations or two or more production credit associations in district where it determines that such transfer:
</P>
<P>(1) Is necessary to provide financial support to the district bank in which those associations are stockholders based on application of the criteria to the bank as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is necessary to provide financial support to one or more other like associations in the district based on application of the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2) or (b)(4) of this section to the associations, provided that in applying paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section the ratio of outstanding indebtedness to capital and surplus of the receiving association(s) shall not exceed 9 to 1; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Is an integral part of a plan that has been adopted by other institutions of the System, and approved by the FCA, under which those institutions will extend financial assistance to the district bank in which those associations are stockholders.
</P>
<P>(d) A direction by the FCA for a transfer of funds or equities pursuant to this section shall be signed by the Chairman and shall establish the amount, timing, duration, repayment, and other terms of assessments necessary to accomplish such transfer, taking into consideration the financial condition of each institution to be assessed. Where the FCA directs a transfer of funds or equities between associations under paragraph (c) (1) or (2) of this section, it may authorize the district bank in which such associations are stockholders to accomplish the necessary assessments through debits and credits to the accounts of the bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 36986, Sept. 11, 1985. Redesignated at 51 FR 8666, Mar. 13, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 41945, Nov. 20, 1986; 58 FR 48790, Sept. 20, 1993; 59 FR 21643, Apr. 26, 1994; 78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Service Corporations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 16843, Mar. 28, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.1135" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1135   Incorporation of service corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is the process for chartering a service corporation?</I> A Farm Credit bank or association (you or your) may organize a corporation acting alone or with other Farm Credit banks or associations to perform, for you or on your behalf, any function or service that you are authorized to perform under the Act and Farm Credit Administration (we, us, or our) regulations, with two exceptions. Those exceptions are that your corporation may not extend credit or provide insurance services. To organize a service corporation, you must submit an application to us following the applicable requirements of paragraph (c) of this section. If what you propose in your application meets the requirements of the Act, our regulations, and any other conditions we may impose, we may issue a charter for your service corporation making it a federally chartered instrumentality of the United States. Your service corporation will be subject to examination, supervision, and regulation by us. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may own equities in your service corporation?</I> (1) Your service corporation may only issue voting and non-voting stock to:
</P>
<P>(i) One or more Farm Credit banks and associations; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Persons that are not Farm Credit banks or associations, provided that at least 80 percent of the voting stock is at all times held by Farm Credit banks or associations.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this subpart, we define persons as individuals or legal entities organized under the laws of the United States or any state or territory thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What must be included in your application to form a service corporation?</I> Your application for a corporate charter must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The certified resolution of the board of each organizing bank or association authorizing the incorporation; 
</P>
<P>(2) A request signed by the president(s) of the organizing bank(s) or association(s) to us to issue a charter, supported by a detailed statement demonstrating the need and the justification for the proposed entity; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed articles of incorporation addressing, at a minimum, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The name of your corporation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The city and state where the principal offices of your corporation are to be located; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The general purposes for the formation of your corporation; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The general powers of your corporation; 
</P>
<P>(v) The procedures for a Farm Credit bank or association or persons that are not Farm Credit institutions to become a stockholder; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The procedures to adopt and amend your corporation's bylaws; 
</P>
<P>(vii) The title, par value, voting and other rights, and authorized amount of each class of stock that your corporation will issue and the procedures to retire each class; 
</P>
<P>(viii) The notice and quorum requirement for a meeting of shareholders, and the vote required for shareholder action on various matters; 
</P>
<P>(ix) The procedures and shareholder voting requirements for the merger, voluntary liquidation, or dissolution of your corporation or the distribution of corporate assets; 
</P>
<P>(x) The standards and procedures for the application and distribution of your corporation's earnings; and 
</P>
<P>(xi) The length of time your corporation will exist. 
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed bylaws, which must include the provisions required by § 615.5220(b) of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the proposed amounts and sources of capitalization and operating funds; 
</P>
<P>(6) Any agreements between the organizing banks and associations relating to the organization or the operation of the corporation; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other supporting documentation that we may request. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What will we do with your application?</I> If we approve your completed application, we will issue a charter for your service corporation as a corporate body and a federally chartered instrumentality. We may condition the issuance of a charter, including imposing minimum capital requirements, as we deem appropriate. For good cause, we may deny your application. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Once your service corporation is formed, how are its articles of incorporation amended?</I> Your service corporation's articles of incorporation may be amended in either of two ways: 
</P>
<P>(1) The board of directors of the corporation may request that we amend the articles of incorporation by sending us a certified resolution of the board of directors of the service corporation that states the: 
</P>
<P>(i) Section(s) to be amended; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Reason(s) for the amendment; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Language of the articles of incorporation provision, as amended; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Requisite shareholder approval has been obtained. The request will be subject to our approval as stated in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) We may at any time make any changes in the articles of incorporation of your service corporation that are necessary and appropriate for the accomplishment of the purposes of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>When your service corporation issues equities, what are the disclosure requirements?</I> Your service corporation must provide the disclosures described in § 615.5255 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 16843, Mar. 28, 2001, as amended at 70 FR 53907, Sept. 13, 2005; 71 FR 65386, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1136" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1136   Regulation and examination of service corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What regulations apply to a service corporation?</I> Because a service corporation is formed by banks and associations, it is subject to applicable Farm Credit Administration (we, our) regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who examines a service corporation?</I> We examine service corporations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What types of service corporations are subject to our regulations and examination?</I> All incorporated service corporations formed by banks and associations are subject to our regulations and examination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 16843, Mar. 28, 2001, as amended at 78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1137" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1137   Title VIII service corporations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is a title VIII service corporation?</I> A title VIII service corporation is a service corporation organized for the purpose of exercising the authorities granted under title VIII of the Act to act as an agricultural mortgage marketing facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do I form a title VIII service corporation?</I> A title VIII service corporation is formed and subject to the same requirements as a service corporation formed under § 611.1135, with one exception. The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or its affiliates may not form or own stock in a title VIII service corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Unincorporated Business Entities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.1150" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1150   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart sets forth the parameters for one or more Farm Credit System (System) institutions to organize or invest in an Unincorporated Business Entity (UBE) in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Except as authorized under these regulations, no System institution may manage, control, become a member or partner, or invest in a State-organized or chartered business entity. This subpart applies to each System institution that organizes or invests in a UBE, including a UBE organized for the express purpose of investing in a Rural Business Investment Company. This subpart does not apply to UBEs that one or more System institutions have the authority to establish as Rural Business Investment Companies pursuant to the provisions of title VI of the Farm Security and Rural Investment Act of 2002, as amended (FSRIA) and United States Department of Agriculture regulations implementing FSRIA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1151" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1151   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Articles of formation</I> means registration certificates, charters, articles of organization, partnership agreements, membership or trust agreements, operating, administration or management agreements, fee agreements or any other documentation on the establishment, ownership, or operation of a UBE.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means that one System institution, directly or indirectly, owns more than 50 percent of the UBE's equity <I>or</I> serves as the general partner of an LLLP, or constitutes the sole manager or the managing member of a UBE. However, under generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), the power to control may also exist with a lesser percentage of ownership, for example, if a System institution is the UBE's primary beneficiary, exercises significant influence over the UBE or establishes control under other facts and circumstances in accordance with GAAP. Under this definition, a System institution also will be deemed to have control over the UBE if it exercises decision-making authority in a principal capacity of the UBE as defined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Equity investment</I> means a System institution's contribution of money or assets to the operating capital of a UBE that provides ownership rights in return.
</P>
<P><I>System institution</I> means each System bank under titles I or III of the Act, each System association under title II of the Act, and each service corporation chartered under section 4.25 of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Third-party UBE</I> means a UBE that is owned or controlled by one or more non-System persons or entities as the term “control” is defined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>UBE</I> means a Limited Partnership (LP), Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), Limited Liability Limited Partnership (LLLP), Limited Liability Company (LLC), Business or other Trust Entity (TE), or other business entity established and maintained under State law that is not incorporated under any law or chartered under Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>UBE business activity</I> means the services and functions delivered by a UBE for one or more System institutions.
</P>
<P><I>Unusual and complex collateral</I> means acquired property that may expose the owner to risks beyond those commonly associated with loans, including, but not limited to, acquired industrial or manufacturing properties where there is increased risk of incurring potential environmental or other liabilities that may accrue to the owners of such properties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1152" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1152   Authority over equity investments in UBEs for business activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulation, supervisory, oversight, examination and enforcement authority.</I> FCA has regulatory, supervisory, oversight, examination and enforcement authority over each System institution's equity investment in or control of a UBE and the services and functions that a UBE performs for the System institution. This includes FCA's authority to require a System institution's dissolution of, disassociation from, or divestiture of an equity investment in a UBE, or to otherwise condition the approval of equity investments in UBEs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessing UBE investments and business activity.</I> In accordance with section 5.15 of the Act, the cost of regulating and examining System institutions' activities involving UBEs will be taken into account when assessing a System institution for the cost of administering the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1153" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1153   General restrictions and prohibitions on the use of UBEs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorized UBE business activity.</I> All UBE business activity must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Necessary or expedient to the business of one or more System institutions owning the UBE; and
</P>
<P>(2) In no instance greater than the functions and services that one or more System institutions owning the UBE are authorized to perform under the Act and as determined by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Circumvention of cooperative principles.</I> System institutions are prohibited from using UBEs to engage in direct lending activities or any other activity that would circumvent the application of cooperative principles, including borrower rights as described in section 4.14A of the Act, or stock ownership, voting rights or patronage as described in section 4.3A of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transparency and the avoidance of conflicts of interest.</I> Each System institution must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) The UBE is held out to the public as a separate or subsidiary entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The business transactions, accounts, and records of the UBE are not commingled with those of the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(3) All transactions between the UBE and System institution directors, officers, employees, and agents are conducted at arm's length, in the interest of the System institution, and in compliance with the standards of conduct rules in 12 CFR 612, subpart A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limit on one-member UBEs.</I> A UBE owned solely by a single System institution (including between and among a parent agricultural credit association and its production credit association and Federal land credit association subsidiaries and between a parent agricultural credit bank and its subsidiary Farm Credit Bank) as a one-member UBE is limited to the following special purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) Acquiring and managing the unusual or complex collateral associated with loans; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing limited services such as electronic transaction, fixed asset, trustee or other services that are integral to the daily internal operations of a System institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limit on UBE partnerships.</I> A System institution operating through a parent-subsidiary structure may not create a UBE partnership between or among the parent agricultural credit association and its production credit association and Federal land credit association subsidiaries or between a parent Agricultural Credit Bank and its Farm Credit Bank subsidiary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition on UBE subsidiaries.</I> Except as provided in this paragraph, a System institution may not create a subsidiary of a UBE that it has organized or invested in under this subpart or enable the UBE itself to create a subsidiary or any other type of affiliated entity. A System institution may establish a UBE as a subsidiary of a UBE formed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section to hold each investor's pro-rata interest in acquired property provided that the loan collateral at issue involves a multi-lender transaction that includes System and non-System lenders.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Limit on potential liability.</I> (1) Each System institution's equity investment in a UBE must be established in a manner that will limit potential exposure of the System institution to no more than the amount of its investment in the UBE.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution cannot become a general partner of any partnership other than an LLLP.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Limit on amount of equity investment in UBEs.</I> The aggregate amount of equity investments that a single System institution is authorized to hold in UBEs must not exceed one percent of the institution's total outstanding loans, calculated at the time of each investment. On a case-by-case basis, FCA may approve an exception to this limitation that would exceed the one-percent aggregate limit. Conversely, FCA may impose a percentage limit lower than the one-percent aggregate limit based on safety or soundness and other relevant concerns. This one-percent aggregate limit does not apply to equity investments in one-member UBEs formed for acquired property as permitted in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Any equity investment made in a UBE by a service corporation must be attributed to its System institution owners based on the ownership percentage of each bank or association.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibition on relationship with a third-party UBE.</I> A System institution is prohibited from:
</P>
<P>(1) Making any equity investment in a third-party UBE except as may be authorized on a case-by-case basis under § 615.5140(e) of this chapter for de minimis and passive investments. Such requests would be considered outside of this rule.
</P>
<P>(2) Serving as the general partner or manager of a third-party UBE; or
</P>
<P>(3) Being designated as the primary beneficiary of a third-party UBE, either alone or with other System institutions.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Limitation on non-System equity investments.</I> Non-System persons or entities may not invest in a UBE that is controlled by a System institution except that non-System persons or entities may own 20 percent or less of the equity of a System-controlled UBE organized to deliver services integral to the daily internal operations of a System institution.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>UBEs formed for acquiring and managing collateral.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section do not apply to UBEs formed for the purpose of acquiring and managing unusual or complex collateral associated with multiple-lender loan transactions in which non-System persons or entities are participants.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013, as amended at 86 FR 58559, Oct. 22, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1154" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1154   Notice of equity investments in UBEs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> This notice provision is applicable only to System institutions that wish to make an equity investment in UBEs whose activities are limited to the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) Acquiring and managing unusual or complex collateral associated with loans;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing hail or multi-peril crop insurance services in collaboration with another System institution in accordance with § 618.8040 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other UBE business activity that FCA determines to be appropriate for this notice provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice requirements.</I> System institutions must provide written notice to FCA so that the notice is received by FCA no later than 10 business days in advance of making an equity investment in a UBE for authorized UBE business activity described in paragraph (a) of this section. The notice must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The UBE's articles of formation, including its name and the State in which it is organized, length of time it will exist, its partners or members, and its management structure;
</P>
<P>(2) The dollar amount of the System institution's equity investment in the UBE;
</P>
<P>(3) A certified resolution of the System institution's board of directors authorizing the equity investment in, and business activity of, the UBE and the board's approval to submit the notice to the FCA. For UBEs organized to acquire and manage unusual or complex collateral associated with loans as identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the board of directors may adopt a blanket board resolution to cover all such UBEs that the System institution will organize.
</P>
<P>(4) Except for those UBEs identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a board statement included with the certified board resolution affirming that the UBE:
</P>
<P>(i) Is needed to achieve operating efficiencies and benefits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is necessary or expedient to the System institution's business;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will operate with transparency;
</P>
<P>(iv) Will conduct its business activity in a manner designed to prevent conflicts of interest between its purpose and operations and the mission and operations of the System institution(s);
</P>
<P>(v) Will otherwise be in compliance with applicable Federal, State, and local laws; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Will not be used by the System institution to make direct loans; perform any functions or provide any services that the System institution is not authorized to perform or provide under the Act and FCA regulations; or to exceed the stated purpose of the UBE as set forth in its articles of formation.
</P>
<P>(5) A letter from the funding bank that it has approved the institution's equity investment in the UBE. For those UBEs organized to acquire and manage unusual or complex collateral associated with loans as identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the funding bank may provide a blanket approval letter to cover all such UBEs that its district associations may invest in or organize.
</P>
<P>(6) Any additional information the System institution wishes to submit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplementation or omission of information.</I> FCA may require the supplementation or allow the omission of any information required under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other requirements.</I> A System institution may not organize or invest in those UBEs identified in paragraph (a) of this section if the FCA notifies the institution before the end of the 10 business day advance notice period that such investment requires FCA approval under the provisions of § 611.1155.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1155" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1155   Approval of equity investments in UBEs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request.</I> System institutions must receive FCA approval before organizing or investing in any UBE that does not qualify for the notice provision set forth in § 611.1154(a). A request for approval under this section must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A detailed statement of the risk characteristics of the investment, as required by § 615.5140(e) of this chapter and the initial amount of equity investment;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement on the purpose and objectives of the UBE; the need for the UBE and the operating efficiencies and benefits that will be achieved by using the UBE;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed articles of formation addressing, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The UBE's name, the State in which it is organized, the city and State in which its principal office is to be located, and its partners or members and management structure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specific business activities that the UBE will conduct;
</P>
<P>(iii) General powers of the UBE;
</P>
<P>(iv) Ownership, voting, partnership, membership and operating agreements for the UBE;
</P>
<P>(v) Procedures to adopt and amend the partnership, membership or operating agreement of the UBE;
</P>
<P>(vi) The standards and procedures for the application and distribution of the UBE's earnings; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Length of time the UBE will exist.
</P>
<P>(4) A certified resolution of the System institution's board of directors authorizing the equity investment in the UBE and the UBE business activity and the board's approval to submit the request to the FCA. The certified board resolution must include a board statement affirming that the UBE:
</P>
<P>(i) Is necessary or expedient to the System institution's business;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will operate with transparency;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will conduct its business activity in a manner designed to prevent conflicts of interest between its purpose and operations and the mission and operations of the System institution(s);
</P>
<P>(iv) Will comply with applicable Federal, State, and local laws; and
</P>
<P>(v) Will not be used by the System institution to make direct loans; perform any functions or provide any services that the System institution is not authorized to perform or provide under the Act and FCA regulations; or exceed the purpose of the UBE as stated in its articles of formation.
</P>
<P>(5) A letter from the funding bank that it has approved the institution's equity investment in the UBE;
</P>
<P>(6) Any additional information the System institution wishes to submit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplementation or omission of information.</I> FCA may require the supplementation or allow the omission of any information required under paragraph (a) of this section based on the complex or noncomplex nature of the proposed UBE.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of a request.</I> The FCA will specify in writing to the submitting System institutions the reasons for denial of any request to organize or invest in a UBE.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1156" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1156   Ongoing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A System institution that organizes or invests in a UBE must also comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain and ensure FCA's access to all books, papers, records, agreements, reports and other documents of each UBE necessary to document and protect the institution's interest in each entity;
</P>
<P>(b) Divest, as soon as practicable, the institution's equity or beneficial interest in, and sever any relationship with a UBE:
</P>
<P>(1) That conducts activities beyond those authorized to carry out its limited purpose or that are contrary to the Act or FCA regulations, or as otherwise directed to do so by FCA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where non-System persons or entities obtain control as defined under GAAP. This paragraph does not apply to UBEs formed for the purpose of acquiring and managing unusual or complex collateral associated with multiple-lender loan transactions in which non-System persons or entities are participants.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1157" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1157   Disclosure and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual report to shareholders.</I> In its annual report to shareholders, as set forth in § 620.5(a)(11) of this chapter, a System institution must provide information on its UBE investment and business activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Periodic reports as directed.</I> As directed by FCA, a System institution must submit periodic reports to FCA on any equity investment in a UBE or UBE status as provided under § 621.12 of this chapter, and in accordance with §§ 621.13 and 621.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dissolution of a UBE.</I> A System institution must submit a timely report to FCA on the dissolution of a UBE that it controls.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 31831, May 28, 2013, as amended at 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1158" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1158   Grandfather provision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The following equity investments in UBEs are grandfathered from the Notice and Approval provisions under §§ 611.1154 and 611.1155, respectively.
</P>
<P>(1) Those UBE formations or equity investments that received specific, written approval by FCA prior to the effective date of this regulation; and
</P>
<P>(2) Those UBE formations or equity investments that occurred prior to the effective date of this regulation to acquire or manage unusual or complex collateral associated with loans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>System institutions' obligations.</I> All System institutions with grandfathered UBEs:
</P>
<P>(1) Remain subject to their conditions of approval;
</P>
<P>(2) Are subject to the ongoing requirements of § 611.1156 and the disclosure and reporting requirements of § 611.1157; and
</P>
<P>(3) May not change or expand the authorized business activity, service, or function of the UBE as approved by FCA, add or increase the level of non-System ownership in the UBE to the extent such ownership is authorized under § 611.1153(j), or change control of the UBE as control is defined in § 611.1151 without giving written notice of such changes to FCA at least 10 business days in advance of any such change or expansion.
</P>
<P>(4) A System institution may not proceed with any change or expansion as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section if the FCA notifies the institution before the end of the 10 business day advance notice period that the proposed change or expansion is material and must be submitted for FCA approval under the provisions of § 611.1155.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System institution investments or reinvestments in grandfathered UBEs.</I> System institutions investing for the first time in grandfathered UBEs or reinvesting after having previously divested their equity investment must provide notice to FCA or obtain FCA approval under either the notice provision in § 611.1154 or the approval provision in § 611.1155 depending on the function, service, or activity of the grandfathered UBE in which the institution seeks to invest or reinvest.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts K-O [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Termination of System Institution Status</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 611.1200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1200   Applicability of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this subpart apply to each bank and association that desires to terminate its System institution status and become chartered as a bank, savings association, or other financial institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1205" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1205   Definitions that apply in this subpart.</HEAD>
<P><I>Assets</I> means all assets determined in conformity with GAAP, except as otherwise required in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Business days</I> means days the FCA is open for business.
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days.
</P>
<P><I>Equity holders</I> means holders of stock, participation certificates, or other equities such as allocated equities.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means “generally accepted accounting principles” as that term is defined in § 621.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>OFI</I> means an “other financing institution” that has a funding and discount agreement with a Farm Credit bank under section 1.7(b)(1) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Successor institution</I> means the bank, savings association, or other financial institution that the terminating bank or association will become when we revoke its Farm Credit charter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, as amended at 85 FR 52253, Aug. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1210" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1210   Advance notices—commencement resolution and notice to equity holders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption of commencement resolution.</I> Your board of directors must begin the termination process by adopting a commencement resolution stating your intention to terminate Farm Credit status under section 7.10 of the Act. Immediately after you adopt the commencement resolution, send a certified copy by overnight mail to us and to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (FCSIC). If your institution is an association, also send a copy to your affiliated bank. If your institution is a bank, also send a copy to your affiliated associations, the other Farm Credit banks, and the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation (Funding Corporation).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance notice.</I> Within 5 business days after adopting the commencement resolution, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Send us copies of all contracts and agreements related to the termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Send an advance notice to all equity holders stating you are taking steps to terminate System status. Immediately upon mailing the notice to equity holders, you must also place it in a prominent location on your Web site. The advance notice must describe the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The process of termination;
</P>
<P>(B) The expected effect of termination on borrowers and other equity holders, including the effect on borrower rights and the consequences of any stock retirements before termination;
</P>
<P>(C) The type of charter the successor institution will have; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any bylaw creating a special class of borrower stock and participation certificates under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Send us a draft of the advance notice by facsimile or electronic mail before mailing it to your equity holders. If we have not contacted you within 2 business days of our receipt of the draft notice regarding modifications, you may mail the notice to your equity holders.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank negotiations on joint and several liability.</I> If your institution is a terminating bank, within 10 days of adopting the commencement resolution, your bank and the other Farm Credit banks must begin negotiations to provide for your satisfaction of liabilities (other than your primary liability) under section 4.4 of the Act. The Funding Corporation may, at its option, be a party to the negotiations to the extent necessary to fulfill its duties with respect to financing and disclosure. The agreement must comply with the requirements in § 611.1270(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure to loan applicants and equity holders after commencement resolution.</I> Between the date your board of directors adopts the commencement resolution and the termination date, you must give the following information to your loan applicants and equity holders:
</P>
<P>(1) For each loan applicant who is not a current stockholder, describe at the time of loan application:
</P>
<P>(i) The effect of the proposed termination on the prospective loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether, after the proposed termination, the borrower will continue to have any of the borrower rights provided under the Act and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) For any equity holders who ask to have their equities retired, explain that the retirement would extinguish the holder's right to exchange those equities for an interest in the successor institution. In addition, inform holders of equities entitled to your residual assets in liquidation that retirement before termination would extinguish their right to dissent from the termination and have their equities retired.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Terminating bank's right to continue issuing debt.</I> Through the termination date, a terminating bank may continue to participate in the issuance of consolidated and System-wide obligations to the same extent it would be able to participate if it were not terminating.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Special class of stock.</I> Notwithstanding any requirements to the contrary in § 615.5230(c) of this chapter, you may adopt bylaws providing for the issuance of a special class of stock and participation certificates between the date of adoption of a commencement resolution and the termination date. Your voting stockholders must approve the special class before you adopt the commencement resolution. The equities must comply with section 4.3A of the Act and be identical in all respects to existing classes of equities that are entitled to the residual assets of the institution in a liquidation, except for the value a holder will receive in a termination. In a termination, the holder of the special class of stock receives value equal to the lower of either par (or face) value, or the value calculated under § 611.1280(c) and (d). A holder must have the same right to vote (if the equity is held on the voting record date) and to dissent as holders of similar equities issued before the commencement resolution. If the termination does not occur, the special classes of stock and participation certificates must automatically convert into shares of the otherwise identical equities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 18743, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1211" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1211   Special requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Special assessments, analyses, studies, and rulings.</I> At any time after we receive your commencement resolution, and as we deem necessary or useful to evaluate your proposal, we may require you to engage independent experts, acceptable to us, to conduct assessments, analyses, or studies, or to request rulings, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Assessments of fair value;
</P>
<P>(2) Analyses and rulings on tax implications; and
</P>
<P>(3) Studies of the effect of your proposal on equity holders (including the effect on holders in their capacity as borrowers), the System, and other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Informational meetings.</I> After the advance notice, but before the stockholder vote, we may require you to hold regional or local informational meetings in convenient locations, at convenient times, and in a manner conducive to accommodating all equity holders that wish to attend, to discuss equity holder issues and answer questions. These meetings are subject to the plain language requirements of § 611.1217(b) regarding balanced statements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1215" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1215   Communications with the public and equity holders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Communications after commencement resolution and before termination.</I> The terminating institution may communicate with equity holders and the public regarding the proposed termination, as long as written communications (other than non-public communications among participants, <I>i.e.</I>, persons or entities that are parties to a proposed corporate restructuring involving the successor institution, or their agents) made in connection with or relating to the proposed termination and any related transactions are filed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and the conditions in this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) To rely on this section, you must include the following legend in each communication in a prominent location:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>Equity holders should read the plan of termination that they have received or will receive (as appropriate) because it contains important information, including an enumerated statement of the anticipated benefits and potential disadvantages of the proposal.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) All your written communications and all written communications by your directors, employees, and agents in connection with or relating to the proposed termination or any related transactions must be filed with us under this section on or before the date of first use.
</P>
<P>(d) We will require you to correct communications that we deem are misleading or inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the filings we require under paragraph (c) of this section, we may require you to file timely any written communications you have knowledge of that are made by any other participants or their agents in connection with or related to the proposed termination or to any transaction related to the proposed termination.
</P>
<P>(f) An immaterial or unintentional failure to file or a delay in filing a written communication described in this section will not result in a violation of this section, as long as:
</P>
<P>(1) A good faith and reasonable effort was made to comply with the filing requirement; and
</P>
<P>(2) The written communication is filed as soon as practicable after discovery of the failure to file.
</P>
<P>(g) Communications that exist in electronic form must be filed electronically with the FCA as we direct. For communications that do not exist in electronic form, you must timely notify us by electronic mail and send us a copy by regular mail.
</P>
<P>(h) You do not need to file a written communication that does not contain new or different information from that which you have previously publicly disclosed and filed under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1216" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1216   Public availability of documents related to the termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) We may post on our Web site, or require you to post on your Web site:
</P>
<P>(1) Results of any special assessments, analyses, studies, and rulings required under § 611.1211;
</P>
<P>(2) Documents you submit to us or file with us under § 611.1215; and
</P>
<P>(3) Documents you submit to us under section 7.11 of the Act that are related directly or indirectly to the proposed termination, including but not limited to contracts entered into in connection with or relating to the proposed termination and any related transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) We will not post confidential information on our Web site and will not require you to post it on your Web site.
</P>
<P>(c) You may request that we treat specific information as confidential under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (<I>see</I> 12 CFR part, 602 subpart B). You should draft your request for confidential treatment narrowly to extend only to those portions of a document you consider to be confidential. If you request confidential treatment for information that we do not consider to be confidential, we may post that information on our Web site after providing notice to you. On our own initiative, we may determine that certain information should be treated as confidential and, if so, we will not make that information public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1217" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1217   Plain language requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Plain language presentation.</I> All communications to equity holders required under §§ 611.1210, 611.1223, 611.1240, and 611.1280 must be clear, concise, and understandable. You must:
</P>
<P>(1) Use short, explanatory sentences, bullet lists or charts where helpful, and descriptive headings and subheadings;
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the use of glossaries or defined terms;
</P>
<P>(3) Write in the active voice when possible; and
</P>
<P>(4) Avoid legal and highly technical business terminology.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Balanced statements.</I> Communications to equity holders that describe or enumerate anticipated benefits of the proposed termination should also describe or enumerate the potential disadvantages to the same degree of detail.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1218" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1218   Role of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statements by directors.</I> Directors may not be prohibited by confidentiality agreements or otherwise from publicly or privately commenting orally or in writing on the termination proposal and related matters.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Directors' right to obtain independent advice.</I> One or more directors of a terminating institution or an institution that is considering terminating have the right to obtain independent legal and financial advice regarding the proposed termination and related transactions. The institution must pay for such advice and related expenses as are reasonable in light of the circumstances. A request by a director or directors for the institution to pay such expenses cannot be denied unless the board of directors, by at least a two-thirds vote of the full board (the total number of current directors), denies the request. The institution must act on any request in a timely manner. For any denial of payment, the board must provide notice to the FCA within 1 business day of the denial, fully document the reasons for such a denial, and ensure that the institution discloses the nature of the request and the reasons for any denial to the terminating institution's equity holders in the plan of termination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1219" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1219   Prohibited acts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statements about termination.</I> Neither the institution nor any director, officer, employee, or agent may make any untrue or misleading statement of a material fact, or fail to disclose any material fact, to the FCA or a current or prospective equity holder about the proposed termination and any related transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Representations regarding FCA approval.</I> Neither the institution nor any director, officer, employee, or agent may make an oral or written representation to anyone that our approval of the plan of termination or the termination is, directly or indirectly, either a recommendation on the merits of the proposal or an assurance that the information you give to your equity holders is adequate or accurate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1220" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1220   Termination resolution.</HEAD>
<P>No more than 1 week before you submit your plan of termination to us, your board of directors must adopt a termination resolution stating its support for terminating your status as a System institution and authorizing:
</P>
<P>(a) Submission to us of a plan of termination and other required submissions that comply with § 611.1223; and
</P>
<P>(b) Submission of the plan of termination to the voting stockholders if we approve the plan of termination under § 611.1230 or, if we take no action, after the end of our approval period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1221" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1221   Submission to FCA of plan of termination and disclosure information; other required submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Send us an original and five copies of the plan of termination, including the disclosure information, and other required submissions. You may not file the plan of termination until at least 30 days after you mail the equity holder notice under § 611.1210(b). If you send us the plan of termination in electronic form, you must send us at least one hard copy with original signatures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan contents.</I> The plan of termination must include your equity holder disclosure information that complies with § 611.1223.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other submissions.</I> You must also submit the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of how you will transfer assets to, and have your liabilities assumed by, the successor institution;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the charter application for the successor institution, with any exhibits or other supporting information; and
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, if applicable, whether the successor institution will continue to borrow from a Farm Credit bank and how such a relationship will affect your provision for payment of debts. You must also provide evidence of any agreement and plan for satisfaction of outstanding debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1223" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1223   Plan of termination—contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclaimer.</I> Place the following statement in boldface type in the material to be sent to equity holders, either on the notice of meeting or the first page of the plan of termination:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P><I>The Farm Credit Administration has not determined if this information is accurate or complete. You should not rely on any statement to the contrary.</I></P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Summary.</I> The first part of the plan of termination must be a summary that concisely explains:
</P>
<P>(1) Which stockholders have a right to vote on the termination and related transactions;
</P>
<P>(2) The material changes the termination will cause to the rights of borrowers and other equity holders;
</P>
<P>(3) The effect of those changes;
</P>
<P>(4) The anticipated benefits and potential disadvantages of the termination;
</P>
<P>(5) The right of certain equity holders to dissent and receive payment for their existing equities; and
</P>
<P>(6) The estimated termination date.
</P>
<P>(7) If applicable, an explanation of any corporate restructuring that the successor institution expects to engage in within 18 months after the date of termination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remaining requirements.</I> You must also disclose the following information to equity holders:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Termination resolution.</I> Provide a certified copy of the termination resolution required under § 611.1220.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan of termination.</I> Summarize the plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Benefits and disadvantages.</I> Provide an enumerated statement of the anticipated benefits and potential disadvantages of the termination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Recommendation.</I> Explain the board's basis for recommending the termination.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exit fee.</I> Explain the preliminary exit fee estimate, with any adjustments we require, and estimated expenses of termination and organization of the successor institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Initial board of directors.</I> List the initial board of directors and senior officers for the successor institution, with a brief description of the business experience of each person, including principal occupation and employment during the past 5 years.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Relevant contracts and agreements.</I> Include copies of all contracts and agreements related to the termination, including any proposed contracts in connection with the termination and subsequent operations of the successor institution. The FCA may, in its discretion, permit or require you to provide a summary or summaries of the documents in the disclosure information to be submitted to equity holders instead of copies of the documents.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Bylaws and charter.</I> Summarize the provisions of the bylaws and charter of the successor institution that differ materially from your bylaws and charter. The summary must state:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the successor institution will require a borrower to hold an equity interest as a condition for having a loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the successor institution will require equity holders to do business with the institution.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Changes to equity.</I> Explain any changes in the nature of equity investments in the successor institution, such as changes in dividends, patronage, voting rights, preferences, retirement of equities, and liquidation priority. If equities protected under section 4.9A of the Act are outstanding, the plan of termination must state that the Act's protections will be extinguished on termination.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Effect of termination on statutory and regulatory rights.</I> Explain the effect of termination on rights granted to equity holders by the Act and FCA regulations. You must explain the effect termination will have on borrower rights granted in the Act and part 617 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Loan refinancing by borrowers.</I> (i) State, as applicable, that borrowers may seek to refinance their loans with the System institutions that already serve, or will be permitted to serve, your territory. State that no System institution is obligated to refinance your loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) If we have assigned the chartered territory you serve to another System institution before the plan of termination is mailed to equity holders, or if another System institution is already chartered to make the same type of loans you make in the chartered territory, identify such institution(s) and provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name, address, and telephone number of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) An explanation of the institution's procedures for borrowers to apply for refinancing.
</P>
<P>(iii) If we have not assigned the territory before you mail the plan of termination, give the name, address, and telephone number of the System institution specified by us and state that borrowers may contact the institution for information about loan refinancing.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Equity exchanges.</I> Explain the formula and procedure to exchange equity in your institution for equity in the successor institution.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Employment, retirement, and severance agreements.</I> Describe any employment agreement or arrangement between the successor institution and any of your senior officers or directors. Describe any severance and retirement plans that cover your employees or directors and state the costs you expect to incur under the plans in connection with the termination.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Final exit fee and its calculation.</I> Explain how the final exit fee will be calculated under § 611.1255 and how it will be paid.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>New charter.</I> Describe the nature and type of financial institution the successor institution will be and any conditions of approval of the new chartering authority or regulator.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Differences in successor institution's programs and policies.</I> Summarize any differences between you and the successor institution on:
</P>
<P>(i) Interest rates and fees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Collection policies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Services provided; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other item that would affect a borrower's lending relationship with the successor institution, including whether a stockholder's ability to borrow from the institution will be restricted.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Capitalization.</I> Discuss expected capital requirements of the successor institution, and the amount and method of capitalization.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Sources of funding.</I> Explain the sources and manner of funding for the successor institution's operations.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Contingent liabilities.</I> Describe how the successor institution will address any contingent liability it will assume from you.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Tax status.</I> Summarize the differences in tax status between your institution and the successor institution, and explain how the differences may affect equity holders.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Regulatory environment.</I> Describe briefly how the regulatory environment for the successor institution will differ from your current regulatory environment, and any effect on the cost of doing business or the value of stockholders' equity.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Dissenters' rights.</I> Explain which equity holders are entitled to dissenters' rights and what those rights are. The explanation must include the estimated liquidation value of the stock, procedures for exercising dissenters' rights, and a statement of when the rights may be exercised.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Financial information.</I> (i) Present the following financial data:
</P>
<P>(A) A balance sheet and income statement for each of the 3 preceding fiscal years;
</P>
<P>(B) A balance sheet as of a date within 90 days of the date you send the plan of termination to us, presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the previous 2 fiscal years;
</P>
<P>(C) An income statement for the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the balance sheet required by paragraph (d)(23)(i)(B) of this section, presented on a comparative basis with the corresponding period of the previous 2 fiscal years;
</P>
<P>(D) A pro forma balance sheet of the successor institution presented as if termination had occurred as of the date of the most recent balance sheet presented in the plan of termination; and
</P>
<P>(E) A pro forma summary of earnings for the successor institution presented as if the termination had been effective at the beginning of the interim period between the end of the last fiscal year and the date of the balance sheet presented under paragraph (d)(23)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The format for the balance sheet and income statement must be the same as the format in your annual report and must contain appropriate footnote disclosures, including data on high-risk assets, other property owned, and allowance for credit losses.
</P>
<P>(iii) The financial statements must include either:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement signed by the chief executive officer and each board member that the various financial statements are unaudited but have been prepared in all material respects in conformity with GAAP (except as otherwise disclosed) and are, to the best of each signer's knowledge, a fair and accurate presentation of the financial condition of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(B) A signed opinion by an independent certified public accountant that the various financial statements have been examined in conformity with generally accepted auditing standards and included such tests of the accounting records and other such auditing procedures as were considered necessary in the circumstances, and, as of the date of the statements, present fairly the financial position of the institution in conformity with GAAP applied on a consistent basis, except as otherwise disclosed.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Subsequent financial events.</I> Describe any event after the date of the financial statements, but before the date you send the plan of termination to us, that would have a material impact on your financial condition or the condition of the successor institution.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Other subsequent events.</I> Describe any event after you send the plan of termination to us that could have a material impact on any information in the plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>Other material disclosures.</I> Describe any other material fact or circumstance that a stockholder would need to know to make an informed decision on the termination, or that is necessary to make the disclosures not misleading. We may require you to disclose any assessments, analyses, studies, or rulings we require under § 611.1211.
</P>
<P>(27) <I>Ballot and proxy.</I> Include a ballot and proxy, with instructions on the purpose and authority for their use, and the proper method for the stockholder to sign the proxy.
</P>
<P>(28) <I>Board of directors certification.</I> Include a certification signed by the entire board of directors as to the truth, accuracy, and completeness of the information contained in the plan of termination. If any director refuses to sign the certification, the director must inform us of the reasons for refusing.
</P>
<P>(29) <I>Directors' statements.</I> You must include statements, if any, by directors regarding the proposed termination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirement to provide updated information.</I> After you send us the plan of termination, you must immediately send us:
</P>
<P>(1) Any material change to information in the plan of termination, including financial information, that occurs between the date you file the plan of termination and the termination date;
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of any additional written information on the termination that you have given or give to current or prospective equity holders before termination; and
</P>
<P>(3) A description of any subsequent event(s) that could have a material impact on any information in the plan of termination or on the termination.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1230" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1230   FCA review and approval—plan of termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FCA review period.</I> No later than 60 days after we receive the plan of termination, we will review it and either approve or disapprove the plan for submission to your equity holders. If we take no action on the plan of termination within the 60 days, you may submit the plan to your equity holders. The 60-day review period under section 7.11 of the Act will begin on the date we receive a complete plan of termination. We will advise you in writing when the 60-day period begins.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FCA approval of the plan of termination.</I> Our approval of the plan of termination for submission to your equity holders:
</P>
<P>(1) Is not our approval of the termination; and
</P>
<P>(2) May be subject to any condition we impose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1235" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1235   Plan of termination—distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reaffirmation resolution.</I> Not more than 14 days before mailing the plan of termination to your equity holders, your board of directors must adopt a resolution reaffirming support of the termination. A certified copy of the resolution must be sent to us and must accompany the plan of termination when it is distributed to stockholders.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of meeting and distribution of plan.</I> You must provide all equity holders with a notice of meeting and the plan of termination at least 45 days before the stockholder vote. You must also provide a copy of the plan to us when you provide it to your equity holders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1240" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1240   Voting record date and stockholder approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Stockholder meeting.</I> You must call the meeting by written notice in compliance with your bylaws. The stockholder meeting to vote on the termination must occur at least 60 days after our approval of the plan of termination (or, if we take no action, at least 60 days after the end of our approval period).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Voting record date.</I> The voting record date may not be more than 70 days before the stockholders' meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quorum requirement for termination vote.</I> At least 30 percent, unless your bylaws provide for a higher quorum, of the voting stockholders of the institution must be present at the meeting either in person or by proxy in order to hold the vote on the termination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval requirement.</I> The affirmative vote of a majority of the voting stockholders of the institution present and voting or voting by proxy at the duly authorized meeting at which a quorum is present as prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section is required for approval of the termination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voting procedures.</I> The voting procedures must comply with § 611.340. You must have an independent third party count the ballots. If a voting stockholder notifies you of the stockholder's intent to exercise dissenters' rights, the tabulator must be able to verify to you that the stockholder voted against the termination. Otherwise, the votes of stockholders must remain confidential.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice to FCA and equity holders of voting results.</I> Within 10 days of the termination vote, you must send us a certified record of the results of the vote. You must notify all equity holders of the results within 30 days after the stockholder meeting. If the stockholders approve the termination, you must give the following information to equity holders:
</P>
<P>(1) Stockholders who voted against termination and equity holders who were not entitled to vote have a right to dissent as provided in § 611.1280; and
</P>
<P>(2) Voting stockholders have a right, under § 611.1245, to file a petition with the FCA for reconsideration within 35 days after the date you mail to them the notice of the results of the termination vote.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requirement to notify new equity holders.</I> You must provide the information described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section to each person that becomes an equity holder after the termination vote and before termination.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 18743, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1245" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1245   Stockholder reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right to reconsider termination.</I> Voting stockholders have the right to reconsider their approval of the termination if a petition signed by at least 15 percent of the voting stockholders is filed with us within 35 days after you mail notices to stockholders that the termination was approved. If we determine that the petition complies with the requirements of section 7.9 of the Act, you must call a special stockholders' meeting to reconsider the vote. The meeting must occur within 60 days after the date on which you mailed to stockholders the results of the termination vote.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quorum requirement for termination reconsideration vote.</I> At least 30 percent, unless your bylaws provide for a higher quorum, of the voting stockholders of the institution must be present at the stockholders' meeting either in person or by proxy in order to hold the reconsideration vote. If a majority of the voting stockholders voting in person or by proxy vote against the termination, the termination may not take place.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stockholder list and expenses.</I> You must, at your expense, timely give stockholders who request it a list of the names and addresses of stockholders eligible to vote in the reconsideration vote. The petitioners must pay all other expenses for the petition. You must pay expenses that you incur for the reconsideration vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1246" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1246   Filing of termination application and its contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of termination application.</I> Send us your termination application no later than 90 days after you send us notice of the stockholder vote approving the termination. Please send us an original and five copies of the termination application for review and approval. If you send us the termination application in electronic form, you must send us at least one hard copy with original signatures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of termination application.</I> The application must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A certified copy of the termination and reaffirmation resolutions;
</P>
<P>(2) A certification signed by the board of directors that the board continues to support the termination, there has been no material change to any of the information contained in the plan of termination or information statement after the FCA approved the plan of termination, and there have not been any subsequent events that could have a material impact on any of the information in the plan of termination or the termination; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional information that is required under this subpart, that we request or that your board of directors wishes to submit in support of the application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1247" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1247   FCA review and approval—termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FCA action on application.</I> After we receive the termination application, we will review it and either approve or disapprove the termination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basis for disapproval.</I> We will disapprove the termination if we determine that there are one or more appropriate reasons for disapproval consistent with our authorities under the Act and our regulations. We will inform you of our reason(s) for disapproval in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conditions of FCA approval.</I> We will approve your termination application only if:
</P>
<P>(1) Your stockholders have voted in favor of termination in the termination vote and in any reconsideration vote;
</P>
<P>(2) You have given us executed copies of all contracts, agreements, and other documents submitted under §§ 611.1221 and 611.1223;
</P>
<P>(3) You have paid or made adequate provision for payment of debts, including responsibility for any contingent liabilities, and for retirement of equities;
</P>
<P>(4) A Federal or State chartering authority has granted a new charter to the successor institution;
</P>
<P>(5) You deposit into escrow an amount equal to 110 percent of the estimated exit fee plus 110 percent of the estimated amount you must pay to retire equities of dissenting stockholders and Farm Credit institutions, as described in § 611.1255(c); and
</P>
<P>(6) You have fulfilled any condition of termination we impose.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective date of termination.</I> If we approve the termination, we will revoke your charter, and the termination will be effective on the date that we provide, but no earlier than the last to occur of:
</P>
<P>(1) Fulfillment of all conditions listed in or imposed under paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Your proposed termination date;
</P>
<P>(3) Ninety (90) days after we receive your termination application described in § 611.1246; or
</P>
<P>(4) Fifteen (15) days after any reconsideration vote.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1250" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1250   Preliminary exit fee estimate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary exit fee estimate—terminating association.</I> You must provide a preliminary exit fee estimate to us when you submit the plan of termination under § 611.1221. Calculate the preliminary exit fee estimate in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Base your exit fee calculation on the average daily balances of assets and liabilities for the 12-month period as of the quarter end immediately before the date you send us your plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Any amounts we refer to in this section are average daily balances unless we specify that they are not. Amounts that are not average daily balances will be referred to as “dollar amount.”
</P>
<P>(3) Compute the average daily balances based on financial statements that comply with GAAP. The financial statements, as of the quarter end immediately before the date you send us your plan of termination, must be independently audited by a qualified public accountant. We may, in our discretion, waive the audit requirement if an independent audit was performed as of a date less than 6 months before you submit the plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(4) Make adjustments to assets as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Add back expenses you have incurred related to termination. Related expenses include, but are not limited to, legal services, accounting services, tax services, studies, auditing, business planning, equity holder meetings, and application fees for the termination and reorganization. Do not add back to assets expenses related to a requirement by the FCA to engage independent experts to conduct assessments, analyses, or studies, or to request rulings that solely address the impact of the termination on the System or parties other than the terminating institution and its stockholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subtract the dollar amount of estimated current and deferred tax expenses, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Add the dollar amount of estimated current and deferred tax benefits, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(iv) Adjust for the dollar amount of significant transactions you reasonably expect to occur between the quarter end before you file your plan of termination and date of termination. Examples of these transactions include, but are not limited to, gains or losses on the sale of assets, retirements of equity, loan repayments, and patronage distributions. Do not make adjustments for future expenses related to termination, such as severance or special retirement payments, or stock retirements to dissenting stockholders and Farm Credit institutions.
</P>
<P>(5) Subtract from liabilities any liability that we treat as regulatory capital under the capital or collateral requirements in subparts H and K of part 615 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) Make any adjustments we require under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) After making these adjustments to assets and liabilities, subtract liabilities from assets. This is your preliminary total capital for purposes of termination.
</P>
<P>(8) Multiply assets as adjusted above by 6 percent, and subtract this amount from preliminary total capital. This is your preliminary exit fee estimate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preliminary exit fee estimate—terminating bank.</I> (1) Affiliated associations that are terminating with you must calculate their individual preliminary exit fee estimates as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Base your exit fee calculation on the average daily balances of assets and liabilities for the 12-month period as of the quarter end immediately before the date you send us your plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(3) Any amounts we refer to in this section are average daily balances unless we specify that they are not. Amounts that are not average daily balances will be referred to as “dollar amount.”
</P>
<P>(4) Compute the average daily balances based on bank-only financial statements that comply with GAAP. The financial statements, as of the quarter end immediately before the date you send us your plan of termination, must be independently audited by a qualified public accountant. We may, in our discretion, waive this requirement if an independent audit was performed as of a date less than 6 months before you submit the plan of termination.
</P>
<P>(5) Make adjustments to assets and liabilities as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Add back to assets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Expenses you have incurred related to termination. Related expenses include, but are not limited to, legal services, accounting services, tax services, studies, auditing, business planning, equity holder meetings, and application fees for the termination and reorganization. Do not add back to assets expenses related to a requirement by the FCA to engage independent experts to conduct assessments, analyses, or studies, or to request rulings that solely address the impact of the termination on the System or parties other than the terminating institution and its stockholders.
</P>
<P>(B) Any specific allowance for losses, and a pro rata portion of any general allowance for credit losses, on direct loans to associations that you do not expect to incur before or at termination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subtract from your assets and liabilities an amount equal to your direct loans to your affiliated associations that are not terminating.
</P>
<P>(iii) Subtract the following from assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Equity investments in your institution that are held by nonterminating associations and that you expect to transfer to another System bank before or at termination. A nonterminating association's investment consists of purchased equities, allocated equities, and a share of the bank's unallocated surplus calculated in accordance with the bank's bylaw provisions on liquidation. We may require a different calculation method for the unallocated surplus if we determine that using the liquidation provision would be inequitable to stockholders; and
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amount of estimated current and deferred tax expenses, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(iv) Add the dollar amount of current and deferred estimated tax benefits, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(v) Subtract from liabilities any liability that we treat as regulatory capital under the capital or collateral requirements in subparts H and K of part 615 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) Adjust for the dollar amount of significant transactions you reasonably expect to occur between the quarter end before you file your plan of termination and date of termination. Examples of these transactions include, but are not limited to, retirements of equity, loan repayments, and patronage distributions. Do not make adjustments for future expenses related to termination, such as severance or special retirement payments, or stock retirements to dissenting stockholders and Farm Credit institutions.
</P>
<P>(6) Make any adjustments we require under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) After the above adjustments, combine your balance sheet with the balance sheets of your terminating associations after they have made the adjustments required in paragraph (a) of this section. Subtract liabilities from assets. This is your preliminary total capital estimate for purposes of termination.
</P>
<P>(8) Multiply the assets of the combined balance sheet after the above adjustments by 6 percent. Subtract this amount from the preliminary total capital estimate of the combined balance sheet. The remainder is the preliminary exit fee estimate of the bank and terminating affiliated associations.
</P>
<P>(9) Your preliminary exit fee estimate is the amount by which the preliminary exit fee estimate for the combined entity exceeds the total of the individual preliminary exit fee estimates of your affiliated terminating associations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments.</I> (1) We will review your account balances, transactions over the 3 years before the date of the termination resolution under § 611.1220, and any subsequent transactions. Our review will include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Additions to or subtractions from any allowance for losses;
</P>
<P>(ii) Additions to assets or liabilities, or subtractions from assets or liabilities, due to transactions that are outside your ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(iii) Dividends or patronage refunds exceeding your usual practices;
</P>
<P>(iv) Changes in the institution's capital plan, or in implementing the plan, that increased or decreased the level of borrower investment;
</P>
<P>(v) Contingent liabilities, such as loss-sharing obligations, that can be reasonably quantified; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Assets, including real property and servicing rights, that may be overvalued, undervalued, or not recorded on your books.
</P>
<P>(2) If we determine the account balances do not accurately show the value of your assets and liabilities (whether the assets and liabilities were booked before or during the 3-year look-back adjustment period), we will make any adjustments we deem necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) We may require you to reverse the effect of a transaction if we determine that:
</P>
<P>(i) You have retired capital outside the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(ii) You have taken any other actions unrelated to your core business that have the effect of changing the exit fee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) You incurred expenses related to termination prior to the 12-month average daily balance period on which the exit fee calculation is based.
</P>
<P>(4) We may require you to make these adjustments to the preliminary exit fee estimate that is disclosed in the information statement, the final exit fee calculation, and the calculations of the value of equities held by dissenting stockholders, Farm Credit institutions that choose to have their equities retired at termination, and reaffiliating associations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 17909, Apr. 12, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 76118, Dec. 20, 2006; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1255" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1255   Exit fee calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Final exit fee calculation—terminating association.</I> Calculate the final exit fee in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Base your exit fee calculation on the average daily balances of assets and liabilities for the 12-month period preceding the termination date. Assume for this calculation that you have not paid or accrued the items described in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any amounts we refer to in this section are average daily balances unless we specify that they are not. Amounts that are not average daily balances will be referred to as “dollar amount.”
</P>
<P>(3) Compute the average daily balances based on financial statements that comply with GAAP. The financial statements, as of the termination date, must be independently audited by a qualified public accountant.
</P>
<P>(4) Make adjustments to assets and liabilities as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Add back expenses related to the termination. Related expenses include, but are not limited to, legal services, accounting services, tax services, studies, auditing, business planning, payments of severance and special retirements, equity holder meetings, and application fees for the termination and reorganization. Do not add back to assets expenses related to a requirement by the FCA to engage independent experts to conduct assessments, analyses, or studies, or to request rulings that solely address the impact of the termination on the System or parties other than the terminating institution and its stockholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subtract from assets the dollar amount of current and deferred tax expenses, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Add to assets the dollar amount of current and deferred tax benefits, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(iv) Subtract from liabilities any liability that we treat as regulatory capital under the capital or collateral requirements in subparts H and K of part 615 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(v) Make the adjustments that we require under § 611.1250(c). For the final exit fee, we will review and may require additional adjustments for transactions between the date you adopted the termination resolution and the termination date.
</P>
<P>(5) After making these adjustments to assets and liabilities, subtract liabilities from assets. This is your total capital for purposes of termination.
</P>
<P>(6) Multiply assets by 6 percent, and subtract this amount from total capital. This is your final exit fee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final exit fee calculation—terminating bank.</I> (1) The individual exit fees of affiliated associations that are terminating with you must be calculated as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Base your exit fee calculation on the average daily balances of assets and liabilities for the 12-month period preceding the termination date. Assume for this calculation that you have not paid or accrued the items described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) and (b)(5)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Any amounts we refer to in this section are average daily balances unless we specify that they are not. Amounts that are not average daily balances will be referred to as “dollar amount.”
</P>
<P>(4) Compute the average daily balances based on bank-only financial statements that comply with GAAP. The financial statements, as of the termination date, must be independently audited by a qualified public accountant.
</P>
<P>(5) Make adjustments to assets and liabilities as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Add back the following to your assets:
</P>
<P>(A) Expenses you have incurred related to termination. Related expenses include, but are not limited to, legal services, accounting services, tax services, studies, auditing, business planning, payments of severance and special retirements, equity holder meetings, and application fees for the termination and reorganization. Do not add back to assets expenses related to a requirement by the FCA to engage independent experts to conduct assessments, analyses, or studies, or to request rulings that solely address the impact of the termination on the System or parties other than the terminating institution and its stockholders.
</P>
<P>(B) Any specific allowance for losses, and a pro rata share of any general allowance for credit losses, on direct loans to associations that are paid off or transferred before or at termination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subtract from your assets and liabilities your direct loans to affiliated associations that were paid off or transferred in the 12-month period before termination or at termination.
</P>
<P>(iii) Subtract from your assets the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Equity investments held in your institution by affiliated associations that you transferred at termination or during the 12 months before termination; and
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amount of current and deferred tax expenses, if any, due to the termination;
</P>
<P>(iv) Add to assets, the dollar amount of estimated current and deferred tax benefits, if any, due to the termination.
</P>
<P>(v) Subtract from liabilities any liability that we treat as regulatory capital (or that we do not treat as a liability) under the capital or collateral requirements in subparts H and K of part 615 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) Make the adjustments that we require under § 611.1250(c). For the final exit fee, we will review and may require additional adjustments for transactions between the date you adopted the termination resolution and the termination date.
</P>
<P>(6) After the above adjustments, combine your balance sheet with the balance sheets of terminating associations after making the adjustments required in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) Subtract combined liabilities from combined assets. This is the total capital of the combined balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(8) Multiply the assets of the combined balance sheet after the above adjustments by 6 percent. Subtract this amount from the total capital of the combined balance sheet. This amount is the combined final exit fee for your institution and the terminating affiliated associations.
</P>
<P>(9) Your final exit fee is the amount by which the combined final exit fee exceeds the total of the individual final exit fees of your affiliated terminating associations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment of exit fee.</I> On the termination date, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Deposit into an escrow account acceptable to us and the FCSIC an amount equal to 110 percent of the preliminary exit fee estimate, adjusted to account for stock retirements to dissenting stockholders and Farm Credit institutions, and any other adjustments we require.
</P>
<P>(2) Deposit into an escrow account acceptable to us an amount equal to 110 percent of the equity you must retire for dissenting stockholders and System institutions holding stock that would be entitled to a share of the remaining assets in a liquidation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pay-out of escrow.</I> Following the independent audit of the institution's account balances as of the termination date, we will determine the amount of the final exit fee and the amounts owed to stockholders to retire their equities. We will then direct the escrow agent to:
</P>
<P>(1) Pay the exit fee to the Farm Credit Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P>(2) Pay the amounts owed to dissenting stockholders and Farm Credit institutions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Return any remaining amounts to the successor institution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional payment.</I> If the amount held in escrow is not enough to pay the amounts under paragraph (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section, the successor institution must pay any remaining liability to the escrow agent for distribution to the appropriate parties. The termination application must include evidence that, after termination, the successor institution will pay any remaining amounts owed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 17909, Apr. 12, 2002, as amended at 71 FR 76118, Dec. 20, 2006; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1260" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1260   Payment of debts and assessments—terminating association.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If your institution is a terminating association, you must pay or make adequate provision for the payment of all outstanding debt obligations and assessments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No OFI relationship.</I> If the successor institution will not become an OFI, you must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Pay debts and assessments owed to your affiliated Farm Credit bank at termination; or
</P>
<P>(2) With your affiliated Farm Credit bank's concurrence, arrange to pay any obligations or assessments to the bank after termination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligations to other Farm Credit institutions.</I> You must pay or make adequate provision for payment of obligations to any Farm Credit institution (other than your affiliated bank) under any loss-sharing or other agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1265" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1265   Retirement of a terminating association's investment in its affiliated bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Safety and soundness restrictions.</I> Notwithstanding anything in this subpart to the contrary, we may prohibit a bank from retiring the equities you hold in the bank if the retirement would cause the bank to fall below its regulatory capital requirements after retirement, or if we determine that the bank would be in an unsafe or unsound condition after retirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retirement agreement.</I> Your affiliated bank may retire the purchased and allocated equities held by your institution in the bank according to the terms of the bank's capital revolvement plan or an agreement between you and the bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retirement in absence of agreement.</I> Your affiliated bank must retire any equities not subject to an agreement or revolvement plan no later than when you or the successor institution pays off your loan from the bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No retirement of unallocated surplus.</I> When your bank retires equities you own in the bank, the bank must pay par or face value for purchased and allocated equities, less any impairment. The bank may not pay you any portion of its unallocated surplus.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exclusion of equities from capital ratios.</I> If another Farm Credit institution makes an agreement to retire equities you hold in that institution after termination, we may require that institution to exclude part or all of those equities from assets and capital when the institution calculates its regulatory capital under parts 615 and 628 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 44420, Aug. 4, 2006, as amended at 81 FR 49772, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1270" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1270   Repayment of obligations—terminating bank.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If your institution is a terminating bank, you must pay or make adequate provision for the payment of all outstanding debt obligations, and provide for your responsibility for any probable contingent liabilities identified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Satisfaction of primary liability on consolidated or System-wide obligations.</I> After consulting with the other Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the FCSIC, you must pay or make adequate provision for payment of your primary liability on consolidated or System-wide obligations in a method that we deem acceptable. Before we make a final decision on your proposal and as we deem necessary, we may consult with the other Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the FCSIC.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of joint and several liability and liability for interest on individual obligations.</I> (1) You and the other Farm Credit banks must enter into an agreement, which is subject to our approval, covering obligations issued under section 4.2 of the Act and outstanding on the termination date. The agreement must specify how you and your successor institution will make adequate provision for the payment of your joint and several liability to holders of obligations other than those obligations on which you are primarily liable, in the event we make calls for payment under section 4.4 of the Act. You and your successor institution must also provide for your liability under section 4.4(a)(1) of the Act to pay interest on the individual obligations issued by other System banks. As a part of the agreement, you must also agree that your successor institution will provide ongoing information to the Funding Corporation to enable it to fulfill its funding and disclosure duties. The Funding Corporation may, at its option, be a party to the agreement to the extent necessary to fulfill its duties with respect to financing and disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) If you and the other Farm Credit banks are unable to reach agreement within 90 days before the proposed termination date, we will specify the manner in which you will make adequate provision for the payment of the liabilities in question and how we will make joint and several calls for those obligations outstanding on the termination date.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding any other provision in these regulations, the successor institution will be jointly and severally liable for consolidated and System-wide debt outstanding on the termination date (other than the obligations on which you are primarily liable). The successor institution will also be liable for interest on other banks' individual obligations as described in section 4.4(a)(1) of the Act and outstanding on the termination date. The termination application must include evidence that the successor institution will continue to be liable for consolidated and System-wide debt and for interest on other banks' individual obligations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1275" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1275   Retirement of equities held by other System institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retirement at option of equity holder.</I> If your institution is a terminating institution, System institutions that own your equities have the right to require you to retire the equities on the termination date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Value of equity holders' interests.</I> You must retire the equities in accordance with the liquidation provisions in your bylaws unless we determine that the liquidation provisions would result in an inequitable distribution to stockholders. If we make such a determination, we will require you to distribute the equity in accordance with another method that we deem equitable to stockholders. Before you retire any equity, you must make the following adjustments to the amount of stockholder equity as stated in the financial statements on the termination date:
</P>
<P>(1) Make deductions for any taxes due to the termination that have not yet been recorded;
</P>
<P>(2) Deduct the amount of the exit fee; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make any adjustments described under § 611.1250(c) that we may require as we deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transfer of affiliated association's investment.</I> As an alternative to equity retirement, an affiliated association that reaffiliates with another Farm Credit bank instead of terminating with its bank has the right to require the terminating bank to transfer its investment to its new affiliated bank when it reaffiliates. If your institution is a terminating bank, at the time of reaffiliation you must transfer the purchased and allocated equities held by the association, as well as its share of unallocated surplus, to the new affiliated bank. Calculate the association's share before deduction of the exit fee as of the month end preceding the reaffiliation date (or the termination date if it is the same as the reaffiliation date) in accordance with the liquidation provisions of your bylaws, unless we determine that the liquidation provisions would result in an inequitable distribution. If we make such a determination, we will require you to distribute the association's share of your unallocated surplus in accordance with another method that we deem equitable to stockholders. Before you distribute any unallocated surplus, you must make the following adjustments to stockholder equity as stated in the financial statements as of the month end preceding the reaffiliation date (or the termination date if it is the same as the reaffiliation date):
</P>
<P>(1) Add back any taxes due to the termination, and the exit fee; and
</P>
<P>(2) Make any adjustments described under § 611.1250(c) that we may require as we deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on certain affiliations.</I> No Farm Credit institution may retain an equity interest otherwise prohibited by law in a successor institution 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1280" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1280   Dissenting stockholders' rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> A dissenting stockholder is an equity holder (other than a System institution) in a terminating institution on the termination date who either:
</P>
<P>(1) Was eligible to vote on the termination resolution and voted against termination;
</P>
<P>(2) Was an equity holder on the voting record date but was not eligible to vote; or
</P>
<P>(3) Became an equity holder after the voting record date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retirement at option of a dissenting stockholder.</I> A dissenting stockholder may require a terminating institution to retire the stockholder's equity interest in the terminating institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Value of a dissenting stockholder's interest.</I> You must pay a dissenting stockholder according to the liquidation provision in your bylaws, except that you must pay at least par or face value for eligible borrower stock (as defined in section 4.9A(d)(2) of the Act). If we determine that the liquidation provision is inequitable to stockholders, we will require you to calculate their share in accordance with another formula that we deem equitable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculation of interest of a dissenting stockholder.</I> Before you retire any equity, you must make the following adjustments to the amount of stockholder equity as stated in the financial statements on the termination date:
</P>
<P>(1) Deduct any taxes due to the termination that you have not yet recorded;
</P>
<P>(2) Deduct the amount of the exit fee; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make any adjustments described under § 611.1250(c) that we may require as we deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of payment to a dissenting stockholder.</I> You must pay dissenting stockholders for their equities as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Pay cash for the par or face value of purchased stock, less any impairment;
</P>
<P>(2) For equities other than purchased equities, you may:
</P>
<P>(i) Pay cash;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cause or otherwise provide for the successor institution to issue, on the date of termination, subordinated debt to the stockholder with a face value equal to the value of the remaining equities. This subordinated debt must have a maturity date of 7 years or less, must have priority in liquidation ahead of all equity, and must carry a rate of interest not less than the rate (at the time of termination) for debt of comparable maturity issued by the U.S. Treasury plus 1 percent; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide for a combination of cash and subordinated debt as described above.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment to holders of special class of stock.</I> If you have adopted bylaws under § 611.1210(f), you must pay a dissenting stockholder who owns shares of the special class of stock an amount equal to the lower of the par (or face) value or the value of such stock as determined under § 611.1280(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice to equity holders.</I> The notice to equity holders required in § 611.1240(f) must include a form for stockholders to send back to you, stating their intention to exercise dissenters' rights. The notice must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the rights of dissenting stockholders set forth in this section and the approximate value per share that a dissenting stockholder can expect to receive. State whether the successor institution will require borrowers to be stockholders or whether it will require stockholders to be borrowers.
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the current book and par value per share of each class of equities, and the expected book and market value of the stockholder's interest in the successor institution.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that a stockholder must return the enclosed form to you within 30 days if the stockholder chooses to exercise dissenters' rights.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice to subsequent equity holders.</I> Equity holders that acquire their equities after the termination vote must also receive the notice described in paragraph (g) of this section. You must give them at least 5 business days to decide whether to request retirement of their stock.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reconsideration.</I> If a reconsideration vote is held and the termination is disapproved, the right of stockholders to exercise dissenters' rights is rescinded. If a reconsideration vote is held and the termination is approved, you must retire the equities of dissenting stockholders as if there had been no reconsideration vote. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1285" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1285   Loan refinancing by borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of credit and loan information.</I> At the request of a borrower seeking refinancing with another System institution before you terminate, you must give credit and loan information about the borrower to such institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No reassignment of territory.</I> If, at the termination date, we have not assigned your territory to another System institution, any System institution may lend in your territory, to the extent otherwise permitted by the Act and the regulations in this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 611.1290" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.12.12.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 611.1290   Continuation of borrower rights.</HEAD>
<P>You may not require a waiver of contractual borrower rights provisions as a condition of borrowing from and owning equity in the successor institution. Institutions that become other financing institutions on termination must comply with the applicable borrower rights provisions in the Act and part 617 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="612" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 612—STANDARDS OF CONDUCT AND REFERRAL OF KNOWN OR SUSPECTED CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.17, 5.19, 5.31A of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, (Act) (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2252, 2254, 2267a); Sec. 514 of Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 24894, May 13, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Standards of Conduct</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 50975, Sept. 13, 2021, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 612.2130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2130   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following terms and definitions apply excepting that words like document, record, certify, report, sign, and write generally should be interpreted to permit their electronic equivalents:
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means any person, other than a director or employee of the institution, with the power to act for the institution either by contract or apparent authority and who currently either represents the System institution in contacts with third parties or provides professional or fiduciary services to the institution.
</P>
<P><I>Code of Ethics</I> means a written statement of the principles and values the System institution follows to establish a culture of ethical conduct for directors and employees, including, at a minimum, the core principles established under this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Conflicts of interest</I> means a set of circumstances or appearance thereof where a person has a financial interest in a transaction, relationship, or activity that could or does actually affect (or has the appearance of affecting) that person's ability to perform official duties and responsibilities in a totally impartial manner and in the best interest of the institution when viewed from the perspective of a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any individual working on a part-time, full-time, or temporary basis by the System institution, including those identified as officers of the institution. Persons not maintained on the institution's payroll (<I>i.e.,</I> independent contractors) are not employees for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Entity</I> means a corporation, company, association, firm, joint venture, partnership (general or limited), trust (business or otherwise) or other business operation whether or not incorporated.
</P>
<P><I>Family</I> means parents, spouses or civil union partners, children, siblings, uncles, aunts, nephews, nieces, grandparents, grandchildren, and the spouses of the foregoing, whether arising from biological, adoptive, marital, or other legal means (<I>e.g.,</I> stepparents, stepchildren, half-siblings, in-laws). The term also includes anyone residing in the household or who is a legal or financial dependent, regardless of any familial relationship.
</P>
<P><I>Financial interest</I> means an interest in an activity, transaction, property, or relationship with a person that involves receiving or providing something of monetary value or other present or deferred compensation.
</P>
<P><I>Financially obligated with</I> means having a legally enforceable joint obligation with, being financially obligated on behalf of (contingently or otherwise), having an enforceable legal obligation secured by property owned by another person, or owning property that secures an enforceable legal obligation of another.
</P>
<P><I>Material,</I> when applied to a financial interest or transaction (including a series of transactions viewed in the aggregate), means that the interest or transaction is of sufficient magnitude that a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would question the ability of the person who has the interest or is party to such transaction(s) to perform the person's official duties objectively and impartially and in the best interest of the institution and its statutory purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Mineral interest</I> means any interest in minerals, oil, or gas, including but not limited to, any right derived directly or indirectly from a mineral, oil, or gas lease, deed, or royalty conveyance.
</P>
<P><I>Officer</I> means the chief executive officer, president, chief operating officer, vice president, secretary, treasurer, general counsel, chief financial officer, and chief credit officer of the System institution, and any person not so designated but who holds a similar position of authority.
</P>
<P><I>Ordinary course of business,</I> when applied to a transaction, means:
</P>
<P>(1) A transaction that is usual and customary in the business in question on terms that are not preferential; or
</P>
<P>(2) A transaction with a person who is in the business of offering the goods or services that are the subject of the transaction on terms that are not preferential.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means individual or entity (including sole proprietorships).
</P>
<P><I>Preferential</I> means that the transaction is not on the same terms as those prevailing at the same time for comparable transactions for other persons who are not directors, employees or agents of a System institution.
</P>
<P><I>Reportable business entity</I> means an entity in which the reporting individual, directly or indirectly, or acting through or in concert with one or more persons:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns a material percentage of the equity;
</P>
<P>(2) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote a material percentage of any class of voting securities; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has the power to exercise a material influence over the management of policies of such entity from his or her status as a partner, director, officer, or majority shareholder in the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Resolved</I> means an actual or apparent conflict of interest that has been addressed with an action such as recusal, divestiture, approval or exception, job reassignment, employee supervision, employment separation or other action, with the result that a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would conclude that the conflicting interest is unlikely to adversely affect the person's performance of official duties in an objective and impartial manner and in furtherance of the interests and statutory purposes of the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P><I>Standards of Conduct Official or “SOCO”</I> means a person appointed by the institution's board of directors pursuant to this subpart to administer and report on the institution's Standards of Conduct Program, as well as investigate allegations of misconduct by institution directors, employees or agents.
</P>
<P><I>Standards of Conduct Program or SOC program</I> means the policies and procedures, internal controls and other actions a System institution must implement to put into practice the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Supervised institution</I> is a term that only applies within the context of a Farm Credit bank or employee of a Farm Credit bank and refers to each association supervised by that Farm Credit bank.
</P>
<P><I>Supervising institution</I> is a term that only applies within the context of an association or employee of an association and refers to the Farm Credit bank that supervises that association.
</P>
<P><I>System institution</I> and <I>institution</I> means any Farm Credit System bank, association, or service corporation chartered under section 4.25 of the Act, and the Funding Corporation. It does not include the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2135" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2135   Standards of conduct—core principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct.</I> If you are a System institution director or employee, you must:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain high ethical standards, including high standards of care, honesty, integrity, and fairness.
</P>
<P>(2) Act in the best interest of the institution.
</P>
<P>(3) Preserve the reputation of the institution and the public's confidence in the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P>(4) Exercise diligence and good business judgment in carrying out official duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(5) Report to the Standards of Conduct Official conflicts of interest and circumstances or transactions that have the appearance of creating a conflict of interest involving yourself, your family, or your reportable business entity.
</P>
<P>(6) Work with the Standards of Conduct Official to identify conflicts and resolve reported conflicts of interest and appearances of conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(7) Avoid self-dealing and acceptance of gifts or favors that may be deemed as offered, or have the appearance of being offered, to influence official actions or decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities.</I> To achieve the high standards of conduct of this subpart, every institution director and employee must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with the standards of conduct and Code of Ethics policies and procedures maintained at his or her institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Comply with all applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Timely report to the Standards of Conduct Official, or use the institution's anonymous reporting procedures, any known or suspected:
</P>
<P>(i) Illegal or unethical activity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Violation of the institution's standards of conduct and Code of Ethics.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fiduciary duties.</I> Every officer or director of a System institution must fulfill his or her fiduciary duties to the institution and its stockholders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2137" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2137   Elements of a Standards of Conduct Program.</HEAD>
<P>Each System institution board of directors is ultimately responsible for the implementation, oversight of, and compliance with, the Standards of Conduct Program. In fulfilling these responsibilities, each System institution board of directors must do the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Establish a SOC program.</I> Each institution's board of directors must establish and maintain a Standards of Conduct Program that sets forth the core principles of § 612.2135 and meets the requirements of this subpart. The board must act to ensure the SOC program has adequate resources for its implementation and operation. The SOC program must include maintaining conflicts of interest and other reports required under this subpart, along with any investigations, determinations, and supporting documentation, for a minimum of 6 years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appoint a Standards of Conduct Official.</I> Each institution must have a Standards of Conduct Official who is appointed pursuant to § 612.2170. An institution may use one of its officers to serve as SOCO or may use a chartered service corporation or third-party to provide the services of a SOCO. Institutions may also use another institution's SOCO or hire a SOCO under a shared contract with other System institutions when each institution has a separate confidential relationship with the person serving as SOCO.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adopt a written Code of Ethics.</I> Each institution as part of its SOC program must adopt and maintain an up-to-date written Code of Ethics. The Code must establish the institution's values and expectations for the ethical conduct of directors and employees in business transactions and include a general statement of expectations for appropriate professional conduct. The entire Code of Ethics must be available to all directors, employees, agents, and shareholders of the institution. The institution must post on its external website a statement that it has adopted a professional Code of Ethics, summarizing what that Code is, and advising the public the entire Code of Ethics is available on request at no cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establish Standards of Conduct policies and procedures.</I> Each institution's board of directors must adopt policies and procedures to implement the institution's SOC program. These policies and procedures must address all aspects of the SOC program, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Requiring conflict of interest reporting from all directors and employees pursuant to § 612.2145. The frequency of conflicts of interest reporting and other disclosures must be addressed in SOC program policies and procedures using the institution's fiscal year calendar. At a minimum, each person must annually report to the SOCO known conflicts occurring in the current year. Pursuant to § 612.2145(c), the board must also require directors and officers to give the SOCO the disclosures required under § 620.6(a), (e), and (f) of this chapter, regardless of who else in the institution receives the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) Explaining what constitutes SOC program compliance, including setting criteria for documentation submitted with conflicts of interest reports and providing instructions to help directors and employees identify and report on interests or circumstances that could give rise to an actual or apparent conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(i) The board must explain within the policies and procedures what transactions are likely to present real or potential conflicts, setting benchmarks and thresholds for both single and aggregate activities. The policies and procedures must also explain how transactions in the ordinary course of business are identified.
</P>
<P>(ii) The board must explain within the policies and procedures, setting benchmarks and thresholds, how materiality of a conflict is identified. The materiality guidelines must be used when evaluating conflicts of interest reports filed by employees and directors. An exception for those matters affecting all shareholders or borrowers may be used in making the determination of materiality.
</P>
<P>(3) Addressing the process by which real and apparent conflicts will be resolved. The procedures must also explain action(s) to be taken when a conflict cannot be resolved to the satisfaction of the institution. The procedures must explain the role and authorities of the SOCO in resolving conflicts.
</P>
<P>(4) Addressing the conduct of third-party relationships. The board of directors at each institution must adopt conflict-of-interest policies for third-party relationships and develop safeguards for use in contractual obligations that require third-party service providers to perform services on behalf of the institution in an ethical manner. At a minimum, the policies for third-party relationships must set forth expectations for disclosing known conflicts of interest to the institution. The policies must also implement the requirements of § 612.2180 for agents of the institution.
</P>
<P>(5) Setting criteria for accepting gifts that are not otherwise prohibited by this subpart. The criteria must explain the scope of application and may make appropriate exceptions for non-business events where the gift is not viewed by the institution as attempting to influence official institution business. The gift criteria must include de minimis dollar thresholds for all permissible gifts, regardless of the gift giving reason. The thresholds must apply both per gift and in the aggregate per recipient, per year. The institution must also establish disclosure requirements for gifts received as well as procedures for disposing of impermissible gifts.
</P>
<P>(6) Identifying the appropriate actions that may be taken against any director or employee who violates the standards of conduct policies and procedures, Code of Ethics, or regulations under this subpart. The board must also identify who is authorized to take which action and when. The board must address how the SOCO exercises his or her authority under § 612.2170 to investigate certain conduct issues.
</P>
<P>(7) Providing for anonymous reporting by individuals of known or suspected violations of the institution's Standards of Conduct Program and Code of Ethics, through a hotline or other venue.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Monitor the SOC program through internal controls.</I> Each institution's board of directors must establish a system of internal controls for its SOC program that includes, at a minimum, a process to:
</P>
<P>(1) Protect against unauthorized disclosure of confidential information maintained by the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Conduct scheduled periodic reviews of the Standards of Conduct Program that determine the continued adequacy of the program. Each review must look for consistency with institution practices, financial services industry best practices, and Farm Credit Administration (FCA) regulations in this chapter, identifying any required updates.
</P>
<P>(3) Perform internal audits of the Standards of Conduct Program. The board of directors, with the assistances of the SOCO and appropriate officers of the institution, must determine the scope and depth of the audit. The board is responsible for identifying who will conduct the internal audit. The audit findings must be given directly to the institution's board or designated board committee. The audit itself must be designed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Review the effectiveness of advancing the core principles;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(iii) Recommend and report necessary corrective actions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Cover the entire Standards of Conduct Program across the institution, including all activities conducted through a System institution unincorporated business entity (UBE) formed under § 611.1150(b) of this chapter, including UBEs organized for the express purpose of investing in a Rural Business Investment Company.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Train institution personnel.</I> Each institution's board of directors must establish a training program to administer periodic Standards of Conduct and Code of Ethics training to directors and employees. The training must be given by the SOCO and the board must address how the SOCO will exercises his or her training responsibilities under § 612.2170. The Standards of Conduct training must be administered under the following timeframes:
</P>
<P>(1) Newly elected or appointed directors must receive Standards of Conduct training within 60 calendar days of the director assuming his or her position.
</P>
<P>(2) New employees must receive Standards of Conduct training within 10 business days of beginning work.
</P>
<P>(3) Periodic training for all directors and employees must occur at least annually but may be more frequent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2140" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2140   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2145" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2145   Disclosing and reporting conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities.</I> As a director or employee of a System institution you must identify, disclose, and report on any interest or circumstances that does or could constitute a conflict of interest and potential conflict of interest. You must carry out this responsibility to the best of your knowledge and belief. You must cooperate with, and provide information requested by, the Standards of Conduct Official for use in determining the materiality of a conflict and to resolve conflicts of interest and potential conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(1) If you have a conflict of interest in a matter, transaction, or activity subject to official action by the institution or before the board of directors then you must disclose it and refrain from participating in official action or board discussion of the matter, transaction, or activity. You must also avoid voting on or influencing any decision directed at the matter, transaction, or activity.
</P>
<P>(2) You must report, either to the SOCO or by using the institution's anonymous reporting procedures, any known or suspected activity by a person affiliated with the institution that you suspect is illegal, unethical, or a violation of the institution's standards of conduct and Code of Ethics.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting conflicts of interest.</I> As a director or employee of a System institution, you must file with the SOCO reports on any real or potential conflicts of interest. The reports must be filed at least annually and at such other times as may be required by your institution policies and procedures. The reports must be in sufficient detail for a reasonable person to make a conflict of interest determination and decide if the conflict is material. You must file a report with the SOCO that contains the disclosures required by this section and those required by the institution's SOC program policies and procedures. At a minimum, the report must be signed by you and include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any interest you have in any business matter, including any loan or loan application, to be considered by the System institution, or supervised or supervising institution in the current year;
</P>
<P>(2) All material financial interests, including those arising in the ordinary course of business, you have with any director, employee, agent, or borrower of your System institution, or a supervised or supervising institution;
</P>
<P>(3) The name(s) of your reportable business entities that you know or have reason to know in the current year transacted business with:
</P>
<P>(i) Your System institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any supervised or supervising institution; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A borrower that transacts business with your System institution, or any supervised or supervising institution.
</P>
<P>(4) The name(s) of your family members you know or have reason to know transacted business with your System institution or any supervised or supervising institution in the current year.
</P>
<P>(5) Reportable gifts received or disposed of under the institution's SOC program policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other required disclosures for directors and officers.</I> If you are a director or officer at the institution, you must give the SOCO the disclosures required under § 620.6(a), (e), and (f) of this chapter, regardless of who else in the institution has been provided them. The timing and frequency of disclosing the information to the SOCO, or any updates to them, is determined by your institution's SOC program policies and procedures but must occur no less than annually and at issuance of the institution's Annual Meeting Information Statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2150" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2150   Prohibited conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If you are a System institution director or employee you must not act inconsistently with the Standards of Conduct core principles set forth in this subpart. You also must not act in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Use your position for personal gain or advantage.</I> Do not participate in deliberations on, or the determination of, any matter affecting your financial interest either directly or indirectly. Matters affecting your financial interest include financial interests of family or reportable business entities. You also may not use your position as a director or employee of the institution to obtain special advantage or favoritism for yourself, your family, or a reportable business entity. However, you may participate in matters of general applicability affecting shareholders or borrowers of a particular class if your participation occurs in a nondiscriminatory way.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Divulge confidential information.</I> Do not make use of or disclose any fact, information, or document not generally available to the public that you acquired by virtue of your position as a director or employee of the institution. You may use confidential information in the performance of your official duties.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accept prohibited gifts.</I> Do not solicit, obtain, or accept (directly or indirectly), any gift, fee, or other compensation that is offered or requested based on your position as a director or employee of an institution if it could be viewed as being offered to influence your decision-making, an official action, or to obtain information related to your institution's operations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Purchase property owned by the institution.</I> Do not knowingly purchase or otherwise acquire (directly or indirectly) any interest (including mineral interests) in any real or personal property that currently is owned, or within the past 12 months was owned, by your institution, your supervising institution, or institutions supervised by your institution as a result of foreclosure, deed in lieu, or similar action. The prohibition in this paragraph (a)(4) extends to property held or sold by a chartered service corporation or a System unincorporated business entity. The prohibition does not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) You acquire the property by inheritance.
</P>
<P>(ii) You are exercising your rights of first refusal under section 4.36 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) If you are a director of the institution, you may purchase property from a System institution when the property is sold through public auction or similar open, competitive bidding process. The exception in this paragraph (a)(4)(iii) only applies if you did not participate in the decision to foreclose upon the property nor did you participate in deciding how the institution would dispose of the property. Participating in these decisions includes setting the sale terms or receiving information as a result of your position with the institution that could give you an advantage over other potential bidders or purchasers of the property.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Enter into transactions with prohibited sources.</I> Do not directly or indirectly borrow from, lend to, or become financially obligated with or on behalf of a director, employee, or agent of your institution, your supervising institution, or institution supervised by your institution. You are also prohibited from directly or indirectly borrowing, lending to, or becoming financially obligated with or on behalf of a borrower or loan applicant of your institution. The transaction prohibition does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Transactions with family members.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transactions that occur in the ordinary course of business as determined and documented by the written policies and procedures of your institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transactions undertaken in an official capacity and in connection with the institution's discounting, lending, or participation relationships with other financing institutions (OFIs) and other lenders.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Purchase System obligations.</I> Do not purchase any obligation of a System institution, including any joint, consolidated or System-wide obligation, unless such obligation is part of an offering available to the public and you either purchase it through a dealer or dealer bank affiliated with a member of the selling group designated by the Funding Corporation or purchase it in the secondary markets.
</P>
<P>(i) Do not purchase or retire any stock in advance of the release of material, non-public, information concerning the institution to other stockholders.
</P>
<P>(ii) If you are a director or employee of the Funding Corporation, do not purchase or otherwise acquire, directly or indirectly, except by inheritance, any obligation or equity of a System institution, including any joint, consolidated or System-wide obligations, unless it is a common cooperative equity as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employees only.</I> In addition to the prohibitions under paragraph (a) of this section, if you are an institution employee you must not:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Serve as a director or employee of certain entities.</I> Do not serve as a director or employee of any commercial bank, savings and loan, or other non-System financial institution. You may not serve as a director or employee of a non-System entity that transacts business with a System institution within your institution's district unless specifically allowed in this paragraph (b). For the purpose of this paragraph (b)(1), “transacts business” does not include loans by a System institution to a family-owned entity or a reportable business entity; service on the board of directors of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation; transactions with non-profit entities; or transactions with entities in which the System institution has an ownership interest. The prohibition in this paragraph (b)(1) does not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) You may serve as a director or employee of an employee credit union.
</P>
<P>(ii) You may serve as a director of a cooperative that borrows from the System under the Act's Title III authorities if you are not employed at an institution with Title III lending authority and your employing institution approves your service on the cooperative's board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Act as a real estate agent or broker.</I> Do not act as a real estate agent or broker unless you are buying or selling real estate for your own use or for family.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Act as an insurance agent or broker.</I> Do not act as an insurance agent or broker for the sale and placement of insurance, unless authorized by section 4.29 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Serve as a joint employee.</I> Do not serve as an employee for your supervising institution if you are an officer at your association. Do not serve as an employee for a supervised institution if you are an officer at your Farm Credit bank. The prohibition in this paragraph (b)(4) does not apply in the following situations:
</P>
<P>(i) You may be both a non-officer employee at a Farm Credit bank and a supervised association if the employment expenses are appropriately reflected in each institution's financial statements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If you are currently employed with a Farm Credit bank as other than an officer, in extraordinary circumstances, FCA may approve your serving as an officer of a supervised association. This requires the boards at both institutions to agree to the joint service and for the duties and compensation at each institution to be delineated in the board approval documents. The board documents, along with the request, must be sent at least 10 business days before the effective date to the Director of Regulatory Policy, Farm Credit Administration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 612.2155-612.2165" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 612.2155-612.2165   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2170" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2170   Standards of Conduct Official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Standards of Conduct Official must be appointed by the board of directors for the institution and the board of directors must empower the appointed SOCO with all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct access to the board (or designated board committee) for the purpose of discussing and reporting on matters related to the institution's Standards of Conduct Program and Code of Ethics;
</P>
<P>(2) Authority to carry out the responsibilities set forth in this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Accessibility to all directors, employees, and agents of the institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Legal authority to receive confidential SOC program communications from all directors, employees, and agents of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(5) Resources adequate for implementing a successful Standards of Conduct Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Program administration.</I> The Standards of Conduct Official must implement the institution's Standards of Conduct Program as determined by the written policies and procedures of his or her institution and FCA regulations in this chapter. This may include, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing guidance and information to directors and employees on conflicts of interest, including aiding in the identification of reportable conflicts of interest and reportable financial interests in accordance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) Receiving reports required under this subpart from directors, employees, and agents;
</P>
<P>(3) Receiving from directors and officers the disclosures required under § 620.6(a), (e), and (f) of this chapter for treatment as a supplement to an individual's conflicts of interest report;
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing and acting upon all SOC program reports and disclosures, including documenting resolved and unresolved conflicts of interest that are material, and making written determinations on how conflicts of interest will be resolved;
</P>
<P>(5) Maintaining all SOC program records for the required period of time, including documentation that explains how conflicts are being handled;
</P>
<P>(6) Conducting investigations as either authorized under this subpart or by the institution's SOC program policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(7) Reporting promptly to the institution's board of directors (or designated board committee) those SOC program or Code of Ethics matters required by the institution's SOC program policies and procedures or FCA regulations in this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(8) Reporting to the institution's board of directors those activities investigated pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Training duties.</I> The Standards of Conduct Official must give standards of conduct training to all directors and employees at the institution. The training must comply with the requirement of § 612.2137 and the institution's Standards of Conduct policies and procedures. In addition to other matters, periodic training must cover updates or revisions to the institution's SOC program and Code of Ethics. The SOCO must obtain written participation certifications from every director and employee taking the training.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Investigative duties.</I> The Standards of Conduct Official is responsible for investigating complaints alleging misconduct or possible criminal behavior by the institution, its directors, or its employees.
</P>
<P>(1) At a minimum, the Standards of Conduct Official must investigate, or cause to be investigated, all cases involving:
</P>
<P>(i) Possible violations of criminal statutes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Possible violations of director or employee prohibited conduct regulations in § 612.2150, and the applicable institution policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Complaints of misconduct received against directors and employees of the institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) Possible violations of other provisions of this part; and
</P>
<P>(v) Suspected activities of a sensitive nature which could affect continued public confidence in the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P>(2) The SOCO serves as the reporting official for all cases investigated under subpart B of this part (criminal referrals). In this capacity, the SOCO must report to both the institution's board and the Farm Credit Administration's Office of General Counsel all cases where:
</P>
<P>(i) A preliminary investigation indicates that a Federal criminal statute may have been violated;
</P>
<P>(ii) An investigation results in the removal of a director or discharge of an employee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A violation may have an adverse impact on continued public confidence in the System or any of its institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2180" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2180   Standards of conduct for agents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agents.</I> Agents of System institutions must maintain high standards of honesty, integrity, and impartiality in order to ensure the proper performance of System business and continued public confidence in the System and all its institutions. The avoidance of misconduct and conflicts of interest is indispensable to the maintenance of these standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Institutions.</I> Each institution must use safe and sound business practices in the engagement, utilization, and retention of agents. These practices shall provide for the selection of qualified and reputable agents. The institution is responsible for the administration of relationships with its agents and must take appropriate investigative and corrective action in the case of a breach of fiduciary duties by an agent or failure of an agent to carry out other duties as required by contract, FCA regulations in this chapter, or law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control.</I> System institutions are responsible for exercising special diligence and control, through good business practices, to avoid or control situations that have inherent potential for sensitivity, either real or perceived. These areas include:
</P>
<P>(1) The employment of agents who are related to directors or employees of the institutions;
</P>
<P>(2) The solicitation and acceptance of gifts, contributions, or special considerations by agents; and
</P>
<P>(3) The use of System and borrower information obtained in the course of the agent's work with the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement.</I> Agents of System institutions are “institution-affiliated parties” as that term is defined in the Act and therefore subject to certain FCA enforcement authorities contained in part C of title V of the Act. An “institution-affiliated party” is:
</P>
<P>(1) A director, officer, employee, shareholder, or agent of a System institution;
</P>
<P>(2) An independent contractor (including an attorney, appraiser, or accountant) who knowingly or recklessly participates in:
</P>
<P>(i) A violation of law (including regulations) that is associated with the operations and activities of one or more System institutions;
</P>
<P>(ii) A breach of fiduciary duty; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unsafe practice that causes or is likely to cause more than a minimum financial loss to, or a significant adverse effect on, a System institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other person, as determined by the Farm Credit Administration (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) who participates in the conduct of the affairs of a System institution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 612.2260-612.2270" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 612.2260-612.2270   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Referral of Known or Suspected Criminal Violations</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 24566, May 6, 1997, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 69 FR 10907, Mar. 9, 2004. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 612.2300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2300   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part applies to all institutions of the Farm Credit System as defined in section 1.2(a) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, (Act) (12 U.S.C. 2002(a)) including, but not limited to, associations, banks, service corporations chartered under section 4.25 of the Act, the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, the Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation, and the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (hereinafter, institutions). The purposes of this part are to ensure public confidence in the Farm Credit System, to ensure the reporting of known or suspected criminal activity, to reduce potential losses to institutions, and to ensure the safety and soundness of institutions. This part requires that institutions use the Farm Credit Administration Criminal Referral Form (hereinafter FCA Referral Form) to notify the appropriate Federal authorities when any known or suspected Federal criminal violations of the type described in § 612.2301 are discovered by institutions. 
</P>
<P>(b) The specific referral requirements of this part apply to known or suspected criminal violations of the United States Code involving the assets, operations, or affairs of an institution. This part prescribes procedures for referring those violations to the proper Federal authorities and the Farm Credit Administration. No specific procedural requirements apply to the referral of violations of State or local laws. 
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part should be construed as reducing in any way an institution's ability to report known or suspected criminal activities to the appropriate investigatory or prosecuting authorities, whether Federal, State, or local, even when the circumstances in which a report is required under § 612.2301 are not present. 
</P>
<P>(d) It shall be the responsibility of each System institution to determine whether there appears to be a reasonable basis to conclude that a criminal violation has been committed and, if so, to report the matter to the proper law enforcement authorities for consideration of prosecution. 
</P>
<P>(e) Each referral required by § 612.2301(a) shall be made on the FCA Referral Form in accordance with the FCA Referral Form instructions relating to its filing and distribution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 24566, May 6, 1997. Redesignated and amended at 69 FR 10907, Mar. 9, 2004; 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010.]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2301" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2301   Referrals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution and its board of directors shall exercise due diligence to ensure the discovery, appropriate investigation, and reporting of criminal activity. Within 30 calendar days of determining that there is a known or suspected criminal violation of the United States Code involving or affecting its assets, operations, or affairs, the institution shall refer such criminal violation to the appropriate regional offices of the United States Attorney, and the Federal Bureau of Investigation or the United States Secret Service or both, using the FCA Referral Form. A copy of the completed FCA Referral Form, accompanied by any relevant documentation, shall be provided at the same time to the Farm Credit Administration's Office of General Counsel. In the event that a Farm Credit bank makes a loan through a Federal land bank association which services the loan, the Federal land bank association must inform the Farm Credit bank of any known or suspected violation involving that loan and the Farm Credit bank shall refer the violation to Federal law enforcement authorities under this section. A report is required in circumstances where there is: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any known or suspected criminal activity (e.g., theft, embezzlement), mysterious disappearance, unexplained shortage, misapplication, or other defalcation of property and/or funds, regardless of amount, where an institution employee, officer, director, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of such an institution is suspected; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any known or suspected criminal activity involving an actual or potential loss of $5,000 or more, through false statements or other fraudulent means, where the institution has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects and the suspect(s) is not an institution employee, officer, director, agent, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of such an institution; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any known or suspected criminal activity involving an actual or potential loss of $25,000 or more, through false statements or other fraudulent means, where the institution has no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Any known or suspected criminal activity involving a financial transaction in which the institution was used as a conduit for such criminal activity (such as money laundering/structuring schemes). 
</P>
<P>(b) In circumstances where there is a known or suspected violation of State or local criminal law, the institution shall notify the appropriate State or local law enforcement authorities. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, the institution shall immediately notify by telephone the appropriate Federal law enforcement authorities and FCA offices specified on the FCA Referral Form upon determining that a known or suspected criminal violation of Federal law requiring urgent attention has occurred or is ongoing. Such cases include, but are not limited to, those where: 
</P>
<P>(1) There is a likelihood that the suspect(s) will flee; 
</P>
<P>(2) The magnitude or the continuation of the known or suspected criminal violation may imperil the institution's continued operation; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Key institution personnel are involved. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2302" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2302   Notification of board of directors and bonding company.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The institution's board of directors shall be promptly notified of any criminal referral by the institution, except that if the criminal referral involves a member of the board of directors, discretion may be exercised in notifying such member of the referral. 
</P>
<P>(b) The institution involved shall promptly make all required notifications under any applicable surety bond or other contract for protection. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 612.2303" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.13.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 612.2303   Institution responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution shall establish effective policies and procedures designed to ensure compliance with this part, including, but not limited to, adequate internal controls. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="613" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 613—ELIGIBILITY AND SCOPE OF FINANCING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.9, 1.10, 1.11, 2.2, 2.4, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 3.8, 3.22, 4.18A, 4.25, 4.26, 4.27, 5.9, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2073, 2075, 2093, 2122, 2128, 2129, 2143, 2206a, 2211, 2212, 2213, 2243, 2252).


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Financing Under Titles I and II of the Farm Credit Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 613.3000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3000   Financing for farmers, ranchers, and aquatic producers or harvesters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bona fide farmer or rancher</I> means a person owning agricultural land or engaged in the production of agricultural products, including aquatic products under controlled conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal entity</I> means any partnership, corporation, estate, trust, or other legal entity that is established pursuant to the laws of the United States, any State thereof, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the District of Columbia, or any tribal authority and is legally authorized to conduct a business.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Person</I> means a legal entity or an individual who is a citizen of the United States or a foreign national who has been lawfully admitted into the United States either for permanent residency pursuant to 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(20) or on a visa pursuant to a provision in 8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(15) that authorizes such individual to own property or operate or manage a business or a legal entity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Producer or harvester of aquatic products</I> means a person engaged in producing or harvesting aquatic products for economic gain in open waters under uncontrolled conditions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible borrower.</I> Farm Credit institutions that operate under titles I or II of the Act may provide financing to a bona fide farmer or rancher, or producer or harvester of aquatic products for any agricultural or aquatic purpose and for other credit needs. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 73 FR 30475, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3005" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3005   Lending objective.</HEAD>
<P>It is the objective of each bank and association, except for banks for cooperatives, to provide full credit, to the extent of creditworthiness, to the full-time bona fide farmer (one whose primary business and vocation is farming, ranching, or producing or harvesting aquatic products); and conservative credit to less than full-time farmers for agricultural enterprises, and more restricted credit for other credit requirements as needed to ensure a sound credit package or to accommodate a borrower's needs as long as the total credit results in being primarily an agricultural loan. However, the part-time farmer who needs to seek off-farm employment to supplement farm income or who desires to supplement off-farm income by living in a rural area and is carrying on a valid agricultural operation, shall have availability of credit for mortgages, other agricultural purposes, and family needs in the preferred position along with full-time farmers. Loans to farmers shall be on an increasingly conservative basis as the emphasis moves away from the full-time bona fide farmer to the point where agricultural needs only will be financed for the applicant whose business is essentially other than farming. Credit shall not be extended where investment in agricultural assets for speculative appreciation is a primary factor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3010   Financing for processing or marketing operations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible borrowers.</I> A borrower is eligible for financing for a processing or marketing operation under titles I and II of the Act only if the borrower:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a bona fide farmer, rancher, or producer or harvester of aquatic products who regularly produces some portion of the throughput used in the processing or marketing operation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal entity not eligible under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in which eligible borrowers under § 613.3000(b) own more than 50 percent of the voting stock or equity and regularly produce some portion of the throughput used in the processing or marketing operation; or
</P>
<P>(3) Is a legal entity not eligible under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in which eligible borrowers under § 613.3000(b) own 50 percent or less of the voting stock or equity, regularly produce some portion of the throughput used in the processing or marketing operation and:
</P>
<P>(i) Exercise majority voting control over the legal entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Constitute a majority of the directors of a corporation, general partners of a limited partnership, or managing members of a limited liability company who exercise control over the legal entity by determining and overseeing the policies, business practices, management, and decision-making process of the legal entity; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is a legal entity not eligible under paragraph (a)(1) of this section in which eligible borrowers under § 613.3000(b) meet all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Own at least 25 percent of the voting stock or equity in the processing or marketing operation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Regularly produce 20 percent or more of the throughput used in the processing or marketing operation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintain representation on the board of directors or in the applicable management structure of the entity.
</P>
<P>(5) Is a legal entity not eligible under paragraph (a)(1) of this section that is a direct extension or outgrowth of an eligible borrower's operation and meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The legal entity was created for the primary purpose of processing or marketing the eligible borrower's throughput and would not exist but for the eligible borrower's involvement,
</P>
<P>(ii) The legal entity fulfills a business need and supports the operation of the eligible borrower through product branding or other value-added business activity directly related to the operations of the eligible borrower,
</P>
<P>(iii) The legal entity and the eligible borrower coordinate to operate in a functionally integrated manner, and
</P>
<P>(iv) The legal entity regularly receives throughput produced by the eligible borrower representing either:
</P>
<P>(A) At least 20 percent of the throughput used by the legal entity in the processing or marketing operation; or
</P>
<P>(B) At least 50 percent of the eligible borrower's total output of the commodity processed or marketed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Portfolio restrictions for certain processing and marketing loans.</I> Processing or marketing loans to eligible borrowers who regularly supply less than 20 percent of the throughput are subject to the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Bank limitation.</I> The aggregate of such processing and marketing loans made by a Farm Credit bank shall not exceed 15 percent of all its outstanding retail loans at the end of the preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Association limitation.</I> The aggregate of such processing and marketing loans made by all direct lender associations affiliated with the same Farm Credit bank shall not exceed 15 percent of the aggregate of their outstanding retail loans at the end of the preceding fiscal year. Each Farm Credit bank, in conjunction with all its affiliated direct lender associations, shall ensure that such processing or marketing loans are equitably allocated among its affiliated direct lender associations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of outstanding retail loans.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph, “outstanding retail loans” includes loans, loan participations, and other interests in loans that are either bought without recourse or sold with recourse. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> Each System institution shall include information on loans made under authority of this section in the Reports of Condition and Performance required under § 621.12 of this chapter, in the format prescribed by FCA reporting instructions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Institution policies.</I> The board of directors of each System institution making processing and marketing loans to legal entities under authority of this section must adopt a policy that addresses eligibility requirements for such entities and ensures that the institution, at a minimum, develops and implements:
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures on how, at or before the time a loan is made, the institution will document:
</P>
<P>(i) Eligible borrower ownership, control, throughput, integration of operations and other factors, as applicable, sufficient to establish eligibility of legal entities at the time a loan is made under this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each legal entity's plan and intent for maintaining eligible borrower ownership, control, throughput, and integration of operations, as applicable, during the duration of the loan;
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures that encourage financing under paragraph (a)(4) of this section of credit-worthy entities whose operations directly benefit producers, have local community investment support and provide accessible ownership opportunities for local farmers and ranchers.
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for determining functional integration for loans made under paragraph (a)(5) of this section that require consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances, which include the extent to which:
</P>
<P>(i) The operations share resources such as management, employees, facilities, and equipment;
</P>
<P>(ii) The operations are conducted in coordination with or reliance upon each other; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The eligible borrower and legal entity are dependent upon each other for economic success.
</P>
<P>(4) Portfolio restrictions necessary to comply with paragraph (b) of this section and any board-defined limits on financing provided under this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Reporting requirements necessary to comply with paragraph (c) of this section and any board-defined reporting on financing provided under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 73 FR 30475, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3020   Financing for farm-related service businesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> An individual or legal entity that furnishes farm-related services to farmers and ranchers that are directly related to their agricultural production is eligible to borrow from a Farm Credit bank or association that operates under titles I or II of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes of financing.</I> A Farm Credit Bank, agricultural credit bank, or direct lender association may finance:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the farm-related business activities of an eligible borrower who derives more than 50 percent of its annual income (as consistently measured on either a gross sales or net sales basis) from furnishing farm-related services that are directly related to the agricultural production of farmers and ranchers; or
</P>
<P>(2) Only the farm-related services activities of an eligible borrower who derives 50 percent or less of its annual income (as consistently measured on either a gross sales or net sales basis) from furnishing farm-related services that are directly related to the agricultural production of farmers and ranchers. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> The authority of Farm Credit banks and associations operating under section 1.7(a) of the Act to finance eligible farm-related service businesses under paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section is limited to necessary capital structures, equipment, and initial working capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 28643, May 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3030   Rural home financing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Rural homeowner</I> means an individual who resides in a rural area and is not a bona fide farmer, rancher, or producer or harvester of aquatic products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rural home</I> means a single-family moderately priced dwelling located in a rural area that will be owned and occupied as the rural homeowner's principal residence.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rural area</I> means open country within a State or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, which may include a town or village that has a population of not more than 2,500 persons.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Moderately priced</I> means the price of any rural home that either:
</P>
<P>(i) Satisfies the criteria in section 8.0 of the Act pertaining to rural home loans that collateralize securities that are guaranteed by the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is otherwise determined to be moderately priced for housing values for the rural area where it is located, as documented by data from a credible, independent, and recognized national or regional source, such as a Federal, State, or local government agency, or an industry source. Housing values at or below the 75th percentile of values reflected in such data will be deemed moderately priced.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility.</I> Any rural homeowner is eligible to obtain financing on a rural home. No borrower shall have a loan from the Farm Credit System on more than one rural home at any one time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purposes of financing.</I> Loans may be made to rural homeowners for the purpose of buying, building, remodeling, improving, repairing rural homes, and refinancing existing indebtedness thereon.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Portfolio limitations.</I> (1) The aggregate of retail rural home loans by any Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall not exceed 15 percent of the total of all of its outstanding loans at any one time.
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate of rural home loans made by each direct lender association shall not exceed 15 percent of the total of its outstanding loans at the end of its preceding fiscal year, except with the prior approval of its funding bank.
</P>
<P>(3) The aggregate of rural home loans made by all direct lender associations that are funded by the same Farm Credit bank shall not exceed 15 percent of the total outstanding loans of all such associations at the end of the funding bank's preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 66 FR 28643, May 24, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Financing for Banks Operating Under Title III of the Farm Credit Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 4442, Jan. 30, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 613.3100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3100   Domestic lending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cooperative</I> means any association of farmers, ranchers, producers or harvesters of aquatic products, or any federation of such associations, or a combination of such associations and farmers, ranchers, or producers or harvesters of aquatic products that conducts business for the mutual benefit of its members and has the power to:
</P>
<P>(i) Process, prepare for market, handle, or market farm or aquatic products;
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchase, test, grade, process, distribute, or furnish farm or aquatic supplies; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Furnish business and financially related services to its members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Farm or aquatic supplies and farm or aquatic business services</I> are any goods or services normally used by farmers, ranchers, or producers and harvesters of aquatic products in their business operations, or to improve the welfare or livelihood of such persons.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public utility</I> means a cooperative or other entity that is licensed under Federal, State, or local law to provide electric, telecommunication, cable television, water, or waste treatment services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rural area</I> means all territory of a State that is not within the outer boundary of any city or town having a population of more than 20,000 inhabitants based on the latest decennial census of the United States.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Service cooperative</I> means a cooperative that is involved in providing business and financially related services (other than public utility services) to farmers, ranchers, aquatic producers or harvesters, or their cooperatives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cooperatives and other entities that serve agricultural or aquatic producers</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility of cooperatives.</I> A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank may lend to a cooperative that satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Unless the bank's board of directors establishes by resolution a higher voting control threshold for any type of cooperative, the percentage of voting control of the cooperative held by farmers, ranchers, producers or harvesters of aquatic products, or cooperatives shall be 80 percent except:
</P>
<P>(A) Sixty (60) percent for a service cooperative;
</P>
<P>(B) Sixty (60) percent for local farm supply cooperatives that have historically served the needs of a community that would not be adequately served by other suppliers and have experienced a reduction in the percentage of membership by agricultural or aquatic producers due to changed circumstances beyond their control; and
</P>
<P>(C) Sixty (60) percent for local farm supply cooperatives that provide or will provide needed services to a community, and are or will be in competition with a cooperative specified in § 613.3100(b)(1)(i)(B);
</P>
<P>(ii) The cooperative deals in farm or aquatic products, or products processed therefrom, farm or aquatic supplies, farm or aquatic business services, or financially related services with or for members in an amount at least equal in value to the total amount of such business it transacts with or for non-members, excluding from the total of member and non-member business, transactions with the United States, or any agencies or instrumentalities thereof, or services or supplies furnished by a public utility; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The cooperative complies with one of the following two conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) No member of the cooperative shall have more than one vote because of the amount of stock or membership capital owned therein; or
</P>
<P>(B) The cooperative restricts dividends on stock or membership capital to the maximum percentage per year permitted by applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any cooperative that has received a loan from a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank shall, without regard to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, continue to be eligible for as long as more than 50 percent (or such higher percentage as is established by the bank board) of the voting control of the cooperative is held by farmers, ranchers, producers or harvesters of aquatic products, or other eligible cooperatives.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other eligible entities.</I> The following entities are eligible to borrow from banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks:
</P>
<P>(i) Any legal entity that holds more than 50 percent of the voting control of a cooperative that is an eligible borrower under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and uses the proceeds of the loan to fund the activities of its cooperative subsidiary on the terms and conditions specified by the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any legal entity in which an eligible cooperative (or a subsidiary or other entity in which an eligible cooperative has an ownership interest) has an ownership interest, <I>provided that</I> if the percentage of ownership attributable to the eligible cooperative is less than 50 percent, financing may not exceed the percentage of ownership attributable to the eligible cooperative multiplied by the value of the total assets of such entity; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any creditworthy private entity operated on a non-profit basis that satisfies the requirements for a service cooperative and complies with the requirements of either paragraphs (b)(1)(i)(A) and (b)(1)(iii) of this section, or paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, and any subsidiary of such entity. An entity that is eligible to borrow under this paragraph shall be organized to benefit agriculture in furtherance of the welfare of the farmers, ranchers, and aquatic producers or harvesters who are its members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electric and telecommunication utilities</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank may lend to:
</P>
<P>(i) Electric and telephone cooperatives as defined by section 3.8(a)(4)(A) of the Act that satisfy the eligibility criteria in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cooperatives and other entities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Have received a loan, loan commitment, insured loan, or loan guarantee from the Rural Utilities Service of the United States Department of Agriculture to finance rural electric and telecommunication services;
</P>
<P>(B) Have received a loan or a loan commitment from the Rural Telephone Bank of the United States Department of Agriculture; or
</P>
<P>(C) Are eligible under the Rural Electrification Act of 1936, as amended, for a loan, loan commitment, or loan guarantee from the Rural Utilities Service or the Rural Telephone Bank.
</P>
<P>(iii) The subsidiaries of cooperatives or other entities that are eligible under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any legal entity that holds more than 50 percent of the voting control of any public utility that is an eligible borrower under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, and uses the proceeds of the loan to fund the activities of the eligible subsidiary on the terms and conditions specified by the bank.
</P>
<P>(v) Any legal entity in which an eligible utility under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section (or a subsidiary or other entity in which an eligible utility under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) has an ownership interest) has an ownership interest, <I>provided that</I> if the percentage of ownership attributable to the eligible utility is less than 50 percent, financing may not exceed the percentage of ownership attributable to the eligible utility multiplied by the value of the total assets of such entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purposes for financing.</I> A bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank may extend credit to entities that are eligible to borrow under paragraph (c)(1) of this section in order to provide electric or telecommunication services in a rural area. A subsidiary that is eligible to borrow under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section may also obtain financing from a bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank for energy-related or public utility-related purposes that cannot be financed by the lenders referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(ii), including, without limitation, financing to operate a licensed cable television utility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Water and waste disposal facilities</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> A cooperative or a public agency, quasi-public agency, body, or other public or private entity that, under the authority of state or local law, establishes and operates water and waste disposal facilities in a rural area, as that term is defined by paragraph (a)(4) of this section, is eligible to borrow from a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purposes for financing.</I> A bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank may extend credit to entities that are eligible under paragraph (d)(1) of this section solely for installing, maintaining, expanding, improving, or operating water and waste disposal facilities in rural areas.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Domestic lessors.</I> A bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank may lend to domestic parties to finance the acquisition of facilities or equipment that will be leased to shareholders of the bank for use in their operations located inside of the United States. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4442, Jan. 30, 1997; 62 FR 33746, June 23, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004; 71 FR 65386, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3200   International lending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purpose of this section only, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Agricultural supply</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A farm supply; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Agriculture-related processing equipment, agriculture-related machinery, and other capital goods related to the storage or handling of agricultural commodities or products.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Farm supply</I> refers to an input that is used in a farming or ranching operation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Import transactions.</I> The following parties are eligible to borrow from a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank pursuant to section 3.7(b) of the Act for the purpose of financing the import of agricultural commodities or products therefrom, aquatic products, and agricultural supplies into the United States:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible cooperative as defined by § 613.3100(b);
</P>
<P>(2) A counterparty with respect to a specific import transaction with a voting stockholder of the bank for the substantial benefit of the shareholder; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any foreign or domestic legal entity in which eligible cooperatives hold an ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Export transactions.</I> Pursuant to section 3.7(b)(2) of the Act, a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank is authorized to finance the export (including the cost of freight) of agricultural commodities or products therefrom, aquatic products, or agricultural supplies from the United States to any foreign country. The board of directors of each bank for cooperatives and agricultural credit bank shall adopt policies that ensure that exports of agricultural products and commodities, aquatic products, and agricultural supplies which originate from eligible cooperatives are financed on a priority basis. The total amount of balances outstanding on loans made under this paragraph shall not, at any time, exceed 50 percent of the capital of any bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank for loans that:
</P>
<P>(1) Finance the export of agricultural commodities and products therefrom, aquatic products, or agricultural supplies that are not originally sourced from an eligible cooperative; and
</P>
<P>(2) At least 95 percent of the loan amount is not guaranteed by a department, agency, bureau, board, or commission of the United States or a corporation that is wholly owned directly or indirectly by the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International business operations.</I> A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank may finance a domestic or foreign entity which is at least partially owned by eligible cooperatives described in § 613.3100(b), and facilitates the international business operations of such cooperatives.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions.</I> (1) When eligible cooperatives own less than 50 percent of a foreign or domestic legal entity, the amount of financing that a bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank may provide to the entity for imports, exports, or international business operations shall not exceed the percentage of ownership that eligible cooperatives hold in such entity multiplied by the value of the total assets of such entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) A bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank shall not finance the relocation of any plant or facility from the United States to a foreign country.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4442, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Similar Entity Authority Under Sections 3.1(11)(B) and 4.18A of the Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 613.3300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 613.3300   Participations and other interests in loans to similar entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Participate</I> and <I>participation,</I> for the purpose of this section, refer to multi-lender transactions, including syndications, assignments, loan participations, subparticipations, other forms of the purchase, sale, or transfer of interests in loans, or other extensions of credit, or other technical and financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Similar entity</I> means a party that is ineligible for a loan from a Farm Credit bank or association, but has operations that are functionally similar to the activities of eligible borrowers in that a majority of its income is derived from, or a majority of its assets are invested in, the conduct of activities that are performed by eligible borrowers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Similar entity transactions.</I> A Farm Credit bank or a direct lender association may participate with a lender that is not a Farm Credit System institution in loans to a similar entity that is not eligible to borrow directly under § 613.3000, § 613.3010, § 613.3020, § 613.3100, or § 613.3200, for purposes similar to those for which an eligible borrower could obtain financing from the participating FCS institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Restrictions.</I> Participations by a Farm Credit bank or association in loans to a similar entity under this section are subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Lending limits</I>—(i) <I>Farm Credit banks operating under title I of the Act and direct lender associations.</I> The total amount of all loan participations that any Farm Credit bank, agricultural credit bank, or direct lender association has outstanding under paragraph (b) of this section to a single credit risk shall not exceed:
</P>
<P>(A) Ten (10) percent of its total capital; or
</P>
<P>(B) Twenty-five (25) percent of its total capital if a majority of voting stockholders voting of the respective Farm Credit bank or direct lender association so approve.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Farm Credit banks operating under title III of the Act.</I> The total amount of all loan participations that any bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank has outstanding under paragraph (b) of this section to a single credit risk shall not exceed 10 percent of its total capital;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Percentage held in the principal amount of the loan.</I> The participation interest in the same loan held by one or more Farm Credit bank(s) or association(s) shall not, at any time, equal or exceed 50 percent of the principal amount of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Portfolio limitations.</I> The total amount of participations that any Farm Credit bank or direct lender association has outstanding under paragraph (b) of this section shall not exceed 15 percent of its total outstanding assets at the end of its preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval by other Farm Credit System institutions.</I> A bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank may not participate in a loan to a similar entity under title III of the Act if the similar entity has a loan or loan commitment outstanding with a Farm Credit Bank or an association chartered under the Act, unless agreed to by the Farm Credit Bank or association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4444, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004; 75 FR 18743, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="614" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 614—LOAN POLICIES AND OPERATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.3, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.9, 1.10, 1.11, 2.0, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.10, 2.12, 2.13, 2.15, 3.0, 3.1, 3.3, 3.7, 3.8, 3.10, 3.20, 3.28, 4.12, 4.12A, 4.13B, 4.14, 4.14A, 4.14D, 4.14E, 4.18, 4.18A, 4.19, 4.25, 4.26, 4.27, 4.28, 4.36, 4.37, 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 7.0, 7.2, 7.6, 7.8, 7.12, 7.13, 8.0, 8.5 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2011, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2071, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2091, 2093, 2094, 2097, 2121, 2122, 2124, 2128, 2129, 2131, 2141, 2149, 2183, 2184, 2201, 2202, 2202a, 2202d, 2202e, 2206, 2206a, 2207, 2211, 2212, 2213, 2214, 2219a, 2219b, 2243, 2244, 2252, 2279a, 2279a-2, 2279b, 2279c-1, 2279f, 2279f-1, 2279aa, 2279aa-5); 12 U.S.C. 2121 note; 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Lending Authorities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4000   Farm Credit Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Long-term real estate lending.</I> Except to the extent such authorities are transferred pursuant to section 7.6 of the Act, Farm Credit Banks are authorized, subject to the requirements in § 614.4200 of this part, to make real estate mortgage loans with maturities of not less than 5 years nor more than 40 years and continuing commitments to make such loans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions of credit to Farm Credit direct lender associations.</I> Farm Credit Banks are authorized to make loans and extend other similar financial assistance to associations with direct lending authority and discount for or purchase from such associations, with the association's endorsement or guaranty, any note, draft, and other obligations for loans that have been made in accordance with the provisions of subparts D and E of part 614 of these regulations. Such extensions of credit shall be made pursuant to a written financing agreement meeting the requirements of § 614.4125.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extensions of credit to other financing institutions.</I> Farm Credit Banks are authorized to make loans and extend other similar financial assistance to any national bank, State bank, trust company, agricultural credit corporation, incorporated livestock loan company, savings institution, credit union, or any association of agricultural producers or any corporation engaged in the making of loans to farmers and ranchers or producers or harvesters of aquatic products (collectively, “other financing institutions”), for purposes eligible for financing by a production credit association in accordance with § 614.4130 and subpart P of this part. Farm Credit Banks are authorized to discount for or purchase from such institutions, with the institution's endorsement or guaranty, notes, drafts, and other obligations or loans made to persons and for purposes eligible for financing by a production credit association, in accordance with § 614.4130 and subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of part 614, a Farm Credit Bank may enter into loan participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under title I of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other interests in loans.</I> (1) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Farm Credit Banks may sell interests in loans only to:
</P>
<P>(i) Farm Credit System institutions authorized to purchase such interests;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other lenders that are not Farm Credit System institutions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Farm Credit Banks may purchase interests other than participation interests in loans and nonvoting stock from other Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) Farm Credit Banks, in their capacity as certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase interests in loans (other than participation interests authorized in paragraph (d) of this section) from institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions only for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Residual powers after the transfer of lending authority to an association.</I> After transferring its authority to make and participate in long-term real estate loans to an agricultural credit association or a Federal land credit association pursuant to section 7.6(a) of the Act and subpart E of part 611 of these regulations, a Farm Credit Bank retains residual authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into loan participation agreements pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchase or sell other interests in loans in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Make long-term real estate loans in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section in areas of its chartered territory where no active association operates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 38246, Aug. 24, 1992; 57 FR 43290, Sept. 18, 1992; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 63 FR 5723, Feb. 4, 1998; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 65 FR 24102, Apr. 25, 2000; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4010   Agricultural credit banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Long-term real estate lending.</I> Except to the extent such authorities are transferred pursuant to section 7.6 of the Act, agricultural credit banks are authorized, subject to the requirements of § 614.4200, to make real estate mortgage loans with maturities of not less than 5 years nor more than 40 years and continuing commitments to make such loans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extensions of credit to Farm Credit direct lender associations.</I> Agricultural credit banks are authorized to make loans and extend other similar financial assistance to associations with direct lending authority and discount for or purchase from such associations, with the association's endorsement or guaranty, any note, draft, and other obligations for loans made by the association in accordance with the provisions of this part. Such extensions of credit shall be made pursuant to a written financing agreement meeting the requirements of § 614.4125.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extensions of credit to other financing institutions.</I> Agricultural credit banks are authorized to make loans and extend other similar financial assistance to any national bank, State bank, trust company, agricultural credit corporation, incorporated livestock loan company, savings institution, credit union, or any association of agricultural producers or corporation engaged in the making of loans to farmers, ranchers, or producers or harvesters of aquatic products (collectively, “other financing institutions”), for purposes eligible for financing by a production credit association, in accordance with § 614.4130 and subpart P of this part. Agricultural credit banks are authorized to discount for or purchase from such other financing institutions, with the institution's endorsement or guaranty, notes, drafts, and other obligations or loans made to persons and for purposes eligible for financing by a production credit association, in accordance with the requirements of § 614.4130 and subpart P of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extensions of credit to or on behalf of eligible cooperatives.</I> Agricultural credit banks are authorized to make loans and commitments and extend other technical and financial assistance, including but not limited to, collateral custody, discounting notes and other obligations, guarantees, and currency exchanges necessary to service transactions financed under paragraphs (d)(4) and (d)(5) of this section, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible cooperatives, as defined in § 613.3100(b)(1), in accordance with §§ 614.4200, 614.4231, 614.4232, 614.4233, and subpart Q of part 614;
</P>
<P>(2) Other eligible entities, as defined in § 613.3100(b)(2), in accordance with §§ 614.4200, 614.4231, and 614.4232; 
</P>
<P>(3) Domestic lessors, for the purpose of providing leased assets to stockholders of the bank eligible to borrow under section 3.7(a) of the Act for use in such stockholders' operations in the United States, in accordance with § 614.4232;
</P>
<P>(4) Domestic or foreign parties with respect to a transaction with a voting stockholder of the bank, for the import of agricultural commodities, farm supplies, or aquatic products through purchases, sales or exchanges, provided such stockholder substantially benefits as a result of such extension of credit or assistance, in accordance with policies of the bank's board, § 614.4233, and subpart Q of part 614; and
</P>
<P>(5) Domestic or foreign parties in which a voting stockholder of the bank has a minimum ownership interest, for the purpose of facilitating such stockholder's import operations of the type described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, provided the stockholder substantially benefits as a result of such extension of credit or assistance, in accordance with policies of the bank's board, § 614.4233, and subpart Q of part 614.
</P>
<P>(6) Any party, subject to the requirements in § 613.3200(c) of this chapter, for the export (including the cost of freight) of agricultural commodities or products therefrom, aquatic products, or farm supplies from the United States to any foreign country, in accordance with § 614.4233 and subpart Q of this part 614; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Domestic or foreign parties in which eligible cooperatives, as defined in § 613.3100 of this chapter, hold an ownership interest, for the purpose of facilitating the international business operations of such cooperatives pursuant to the requirements of § 613.3200 (d) and (e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, an agricultural credit bank may enter into loan participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other interest in loans.</I> (1) Subject to subpart H of this part, agricultural credit banks may sell interests in real estate mortgage loans identified in paragraph (a) of this section to Farm Credit System institutions authorized to purchase such interests, other lenders, and certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities for the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation. Agricultural credit banks may also sell interests in the types of loans listed in paragraph (d) of this section to other Farm Credit System institutions that are authorized to purchase such interests.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, agricultural credit banks may purchase interests other than participation interests in loans and nonvoting stock from other Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) Agricultural credit banks, in their capacity as certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase interests in loans (other than participation interests authorized in paragraph (e) of this section) from institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions only for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residual powers after the transfer of lending authority to an association.</I> After transferring its authority to make and participate in long-term real estate loans to an agricultural credit association or a Federal land credit association pursuant to section 7.6(a) of the Act and subpart E of part 611 of these regulations, an agricultural credit bank retains residual authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Enter into loan participation agreements pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchase or sell other interests in loans in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make long-term real estate loans in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section in areas of its chartered territory where no active association operates.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 38246, Aug. 24, 1992; 57 FR 43290, Sept. 18, 1992; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 63 FR 5723, Feb. 4, 1998; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 65 FR 24102, Apr. 25, 2000; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002; 71 FR 65387, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4020   Banks for cooperatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Banks for cooperatives are authorized to make loans and commitments and extend other technical and financial assistance, including but not limited to, collateral custody, discounting notes and other obligations, guarantees, and currency exchanges necessary to service transactions financed under paragraphs (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this section, to:
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible cooperatives, as defined in § 613.3100(b)(1), in accordance with §§ 614.4200, 614.4231, 614.4232, 614.4233, and subpart Q of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Other eligible entities as defined in § 613.3100(b)(2), in accordance with §§ 614.4200, 614.4231, and 614.4232;
</P>
<P>(3) Domestic lessors, for the purpose of providing leased assets to stockholders of the bank eligible to borrow under section 3.7(a) of the Act for use in such stockholder's operations in the United States, in accordance with § 614.4232;
</P>
<P>(4) Domestic or foreign parties with respect to a transaction with a voting stockholder of the bank, for the import of agricultural commodities, farm supplies, or aquatic products through purchases, sales or exchanges, provided such stockholder substantially benefits as a result of such extension of credit or assistance, in accordance with policies of the bank's board, § 614.4233, and subpart Q of this part; and
</P>
<P>(5) Domestic or foreign parties in which a voting stockholder of the bank has an ownership interest, for the purpose of facilitating the import operations of the type described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, in accordance with policies of the bank's board, § 614.4233, and subpart Q of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) Any party, subject to the requirements in § 613.3200(c) of this chapter, for the export (including the cost of freight) of agricultural commodities or products therefrom, aquatic products, or farm supplies from the United States to any foreign country, in accordance with § 614.4233 and subpart Q of this part; and
</P>
<P>(7) Domestic or foreign parties in which eligible cooperatives, as defined in § 613.3100 of this chapter, hold an ownership interest, for the purpose of facilitating the international business operations of such cooperatives pursuant to the requirements in § 613.3200 (d) and (e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, a bank for cooperatives may enter into loan participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under title III of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans of the type it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002; 71 FR 65387, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4030   Federal land credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Long-term real estate lending.</I> Federal land credit associations are authorized, subject to the requirments of § 614.4200, to make real estate mortgage loans with maturities of not less than 5 years nor more than 40 years and continuing commitments to make such loans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Federal land credit associations may enter into participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under title I of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other interests in loans.</I> (1) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part and the supervision of their respective funding banks, Federal land credit associations may sell interests in loans made under paragraph (a) of this section only to:
</P>
<P>(i) Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks;
</P>
<P>(ii) Other lenders that are not Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, Federal land credit associations may purchase interests in loans that comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and nonvoting stock from Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal land credit associations, in their capacity as certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase interests in loans (other than participation interests under paragraph (b) of this section) from institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 65 FR 24102, Apr. 25, 2000; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4040" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4040   Production credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Short- and intermediate-term loans.</I> Production credit associations are authorized to make or guarantee short- and intermediate-term loans and provide other financial assistance for a term of:
</P>
<P>(1) Not more than 7 years;
</P>
<P>(2) More than 7 years, but not more than 10 years, as set forth in policies approved by the funding bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than 15 years to producers and harvesters of aquatic products for major capital expenditures, including but not limited to the purchase of vessels, construction or purchase of shore facilities, and similar purposes directly related to the operations of producers or harvesters of aquatic products.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, a production credit association may enter into participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under title II of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other interests in loans.</I> (1) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part and the supervision of their respective funding banks, production credit associations may sell interests in loans that are made under paragraph (a) of this section to:
</P>
<P>(i) Banks of the Farm Credit System, as authorized by their respective funding banks; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, production credit associations, as authorized by their respective funding banks, may purchase interests in loans that comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and nonvoting stock from banks of the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P>(3) Production credit associations, in their capacity as certified mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase from Farm Credit System institutions and institutions that are not Farm Credit System institutions interests in loans (other than participation interests authorized by paragraph (c) of this section) for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990; 55 FR 28511, July 11, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 65 FR 24102, Apr. 25, 2000; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002; 85 FR 60693, Sept. 28, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4050" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4050   Agricultural credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Terms to maturity on loans.</I> Agricultural credit associations are authorized to make or guarantee, subject to requirements of § 614.4200:
</P>
<P>(1) Long-term real estate mortgage loans with maturities of not less than 5 nor more than 40 years, and continuing commitments to make such loans; and
</P>
<P>(2) Short- and intermediate-term loans and provide other similar financial assistance for a term of not more than:
</P>
<P>(i) 10 years; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 15 years to aquatic producers and harvesters for their aquatic operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan participations.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, agricultural credit associations may enter into participation agreements with:
</P>
<P>(1) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders and lenders that are not Farm Credit institutions on loans of the type it is authorized to make under titles I and II of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Farm Credit banks and associations that are direct lenders on loans of the type it is not authorized to make, provided the borrower eligibility, membership, term, amount, loan security, and stock or participation certificate requirements of the originating institution are met; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation to the extent provided in § 614.4055.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other interests in loans.</I> (1) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part and the supervision of their respective funding banks, agricultural credit associations may sell:
</P>
<P>(i) Interests in loans made under paragraph (a)(1) of this section only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks;
</P>
<P>(B) Lenders that are not Farm Credit System institutions, as authorized by their respective funding banks; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) Interests in loans made under paragraph (a)(2) of this section only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Banks of the Farm Credit System, as authorized by their respective funding banks; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, as defined by section 8.0(3) of the Act, for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part, agricultural credit associations may purchase:
</P>
<P>(i) Interests in loans that comply with the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section from institutions of the Farm Credit System;
</P>
<P>(ii) Interests in loans that comply with the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section from banks of the Farm Credit System; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Nonvoting stock from institutions of the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P>(3) Agricultural credit associations, in their capacity as certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act, may purchase interests in loans, other than participation interests authorized by paragraph (b) of this section, from institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions for the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24880, June 19, 1990; 55 FR 28511, July 11, 1990, as amended at 57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992; 62 FR 51013, Sept. 30, 1997; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 65 FR 24102, Apr. 25, 2000; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002; 85 FR 60693, Sept. 28, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4055" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4055   Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation loan participations.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the requirements of subpart H of this part 614: 
</P>
<P>(a) Any Farm Credit System bank or direct lender association may buy from, and sell to, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, participation interests in “qualified loans.” 
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation may buy from, and sell to, any Farm Credit System bank or direct lender association, or lender that is not a Farm Credit System institution, participation interests in “qualified loans.” 
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, “qualified loans” means qualified loans as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4060" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4060   Affiliates established pursuant to section 8.5(e)(1) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971.</HEAD>
<P>An affiliate established by one or more Farm Credit System institutions pursuant to section 8.5(e)(1) of the Act and § 611.1137 of this chapter, as a certified agricultural mortgage marketing facility, may purchase loans from Farm Credit System institutions and institutions other than Farm Credit System institutions in accordance with title VIII of the Act and any applicable regulation promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Chartered Territories</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4070" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4070   Loans and chartered territory—Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, Federal land bank associations, Federal land credit associations, production credit associations, and agricultural credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank or association chartered under title I or II of the Act may finance eligible borrower operations conducted wholly within its chartered territory regardless of the residence of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) A bank or association operating under title I or II of the Act may finance the operations of a borrower headquartered and operating in its territory even though the operation financed is conducted partially outside its territory, provided notice is given to all Farm Credit institutions providing similar credit in the territory(ies) in which the operations being financed are conducted. A bank or association operating under title I or II of the Act may lend to a borrower headquartered outside its territory to finance eligible borrower operations that are conducted partially within its territory and partially outside its territory only if the concurrence of Farm Credit institutions providing similar credit for the territories in which the operations are conducted is obtained.
</P>
<P>(c) A bank or association chartered under title I or II of the Act may finance eligible borrower operations conducted wholly outside its chartered territory, provided such loans are authorized by the policies of the bank and/or association involved, do not constitute a significant shift in loan volume away from the bank or association's assigned territory, and are made and administered in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If a loan is made to an eligible borrower whose operations are conducted wholly outside the chartered territory of the lending bank or association, the lending institution shall obtain concurrence of all Farm Credit institutions providing similar credit in the territory(ies) in which the operation being financed is conducted.
</P>
<P>(2) Loans to finance eligible borrower operations conducted wholly outside a bank's or association's territory shall be appropriately designated by the bank or association to provide adequate identification of the number and volume of such loans, which shall be monitored by the bank or association.
</P>
<P>(d) A bank or association chartered under title I or II of the Act may finance eligible borrower operations conducted wholly or partially outside its chartered territory through the purchase of loans from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation in compliance with § 614.4325(b)(3), provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Notice is given to the Farm Credit System institution(s) chartered to serve the territory where the headquarters of the borrower's operation being financed is located; and
</P>
<P>(2) After loan purchase, additional financing of eligible borrower operations complies with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24882, June 19, 1990, as amended at 76 FR 30250, May 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4080" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4080   Loans and chartered territory—banks for cooperatives.</HEAD>
<P>Loans made under title III by banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks may be made to eligible domestic parties domiciled within any territory that may be served by Farm Credit institutions under section 1.2 of the Act and to eligible foreign parties without regard to domicile.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24882, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Bank/Association Lending Relationship</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4100   Policies governing lending through Federal land bank associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks may delegate authority to make credit decisions to Federal land bank associations that demonstrate the ability to extend and administer credit soundly, provided the association develops, implements and maintains adequate credit administration guidelines, standards, and practices.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors of each Farm Credit Bank and each agricultural credit bank lending through Federal land bank associations shall adopt policies and procedures governing the exercise of statutory and delegated authorities by such associations. Policies governing the delegated authorities shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Define authorities to be delegated;
</P>
<P>(2) Require the documented evaluation of the capability and responsibility of individuals exercising delegated authorities;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for reporting of actions taken under delegated authority to the delegating bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide procedures for periodic review and enforcement;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide for withdrawal of authority where appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(6) Where redelegation from the association's board to association employees is authorized, require similar control measures to be used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24883, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4110" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4110   Transfer of direct lending authority to Federal land bank associations and agricultural credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the transfer of authority to make and participate in long-term agricultural real estate mortgage loans by a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank to a Federal land bank association pursuant to section 7.6(a) of the Act and subpart E of part 611 of these regulations, the association shall be designated a Federal land credit association and shall have the powers set forth in § 614.4030.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the transfer of the authority to make and participate in long-term real estate loans by a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank to an agricultural credit association pursuant to section 7.6(d) of the Act, the association shall have all of the powers set forth in § 614.4050.
</P>
<P>(c) An association to which such long-term lending authority is to be transferred shall have in place, prior to the transfer, policies and procedures guiding the extension and administration of credit within its territory.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24883, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4120" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4120   Policies governing extensions of credit to direct lender associations and OFIs.</HEAD>
<P>The board of directors of each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall adopt policies and procedures governing the making of direct loans to and the discounting of loans for direct lender associations and OFIs. The policies and procedures shall prescribe lending policies and loan underwriting standards that are consistent with sound financial and credit practices. The policies shall require a periodic review of the lending relationship with each direct lender association and OFI at intervals consistent with the term of the general financing agreement but in no case longer than 5 years. The policies shall require an evaluation of the creditworthiness of a direct lender association on the basis of credit factors and lending policies and loan underwriting standards set forth in part 614, subpart D, and may permit lending to such an institution on an unsecured basis only if the overall condition of the institution warrants. The stated term of a general financing agreement shall not exceed 5 years but may be automatically renewable for additional terms not to exceed 5 years if neither party objects at the time of renewal. The term of any general financing agreement that provides for unsecured lending to a direct lender association shall not exceed 1 year and may not be automatically renewed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5724, Feb. 4, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4125" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4125   Funding and discount relationships between Farm Credit Banks or agricultural credit banks and direct lender associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall not advance funds to, or discount loans for, any direct lender association except pursuant to a general financing agreement. Each general financing agreement must require that the amount of financing available to a direct lender association not be based on loans that are ineligible under the Act and the regulations in this chapter. If financing under a general financing agreement is based on a loan that FCA determines is ineligible under the Act and the regulations in this chapter, then the amount of financing available must be recalculated without that ineligible loan.
</P>
<P>(b) The Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall deliver a copy of the executed general financing agreement and all related documents, such as a promissory note or security agreement, and all amendments of any of these documents, within 10 business days after any such document or amendment is executed, to the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, or to the Farm Credit Administration office that the Chief Examiner designates. 
</P>
<P>(c) The general financing agreement shall address only those matters that are reasonably related to the debtor/creditor relationship between the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank and the direct lender association. 
</P>
<P>(d) The total credit extended to a direct lender association, through direct loan or discounts, shall be consistent with the Farm Credit Bank's or agricultural credit bank's lending policies and loan underwriting standards and the creditworthiness of the direct lender association. The general financing agreement or promissory note shall establish a maximum credit limit determined by objective standards as established by the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank that provides notice to a direct lender association that it is in material default of any covenant, term, or condition of the general financing agreement, promissory note, security agreement, or other related documents simultaneously shall provide written notification to the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, or to the Farm Credit Administration office that the Chief Examiner designates and the Director, Risk Management, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(f) A direct lender association shall provide written notification to the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, or to the Farm Credit Administration office that the Chief Examiner designates, and the Director, Risk Management, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation immediately upon receipt of a notice that it is in material default under any general financing agreement, loan agreement, promissory note, security agreement, or other related documents with a Farm Credit Bank, agricultural credit bank or non-Farm Credit institution. 
</P>
<P>(g) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall obtain prior written consent of the Farm Credit Administration before it takes any action that leads to or could lead to the liquidation of a direct lender association. 
</P>
<P>(h) No direct lender association shall obtain financing from any party unless the parties agree to the requirements of this paragraph. No Farm Credit Bank, agricultural credit bank, or other party shall petition any Federal or State court to appoint a conservator, receiver, liquidation agent, or other administrator to manage the affairs of or liquidate a direct lender association. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5724, Feb. 4, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4130   Funding and discount relationships between Farm Credit Banks or agricultural credit banks and OFIs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall not advance funds to, or discount loans for, an OFI, as defined in § 611.1205 of this chapter, except pursuant to a general financing agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall deliver a copy of the executed general financing agreement and all related documents, such as a promissory note or security agreement, and all amendments of any of these documents, within 10 business days after any such document or amendment is executed, to the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, or to the Farm Credit Administration office that the Chief Examiner designates. 
</P>
<P>(c) The total credit extended to the OFI, through direct loan or discounts, shall be consistent with the Farm Credit Bank's or agricultural credit bank's lending policies and loan underwriting standards and the creditworthiness of the OFI. The general financing agreement or promissory note shall establish a maximum credit limit determined by objective standards as established by the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5724, Feb. 4, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 17917, Apr. 12, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—General Loan Policies for Banks and Associations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4150" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4150   Lending policies and loan underwriting standards.</HEAD>
<P>Under the policies of its board, each institution shall adopt written standards for prudent lending and shall issue written policies, operating procedures, and control mechanisms that reflect prudent credit practices and comply with all applicable laws and regulations. Written policies and procedures shall, at a minimum, prescribe:
</P>
<P>(a) The minimum supporting credit and financial information, frequency for collection of information, and verification of information required in relation to loan size, complexity and risk exposure
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures to be followed in credit analysis
</P>
<P>(c) The minimum standards for loan disbursement, servicing and collections
</P>
<P>(d) Requirements for collateral and methods for its administration
</P>
<P>(e) Loan approval delegations and requirements for reporting to the board
</P>
<P>(f) Loan pricing practices
</P>
<P>(g) Loan underwriting standards that include measurable standards:
</P>
<P>(1) For determining that an applicant has the operational, financial, and management resources necessary to repay the debt from cashflow
</P>
<P>(2) That are appropriate for each loan program and the institution's risk-bearing ability; and
</P>
<P>(3) That consider the nature and type of credit risk, amount of the loan, and enterprises being financed
</P>
<P>(h) Requirements that loan terms and conditions are appropriate for the loan; and
</P>
<P>(i) Such other requirements as are necessary for the professional conduct of a lending organization, including documentation for each loan transaction of compliance with the loan underwriting standards or the compensating factors or extenuating circumstances that establish repayment of the loan notwithstanding the failure to meet any one or more loan underwriting standard.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4155" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4155   Interest rates.</HEAD>
<P>Loans made by each bank and direct lender association shall bear interest at a rate or rates as may be determined by the institution board. The board shall set interest rates or approve individual interest rate changes either on a case-by-case basis or pursuant to an interest rate plan within which management may establish rates. Any interest rate plan shall set loan-pricing policies and objectives, provide guidance regarding the circumstances under which management may adjust rates, and provide the upper and lower limits on management authority. Any interest rate plan adopted shall be reviewed on a continuing basis by the board, as well as in conjunction with its review and approval of the institution's operational and strategic business plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 66818, Dec. 22, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4160" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4160   Differential interest rate programs.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to policies approved by the board of directors, differential interest rates may be established for loans based on a variety of factors that may include type, purpose, amount, quality, funding or operating costs, or similar factors or combinations of factors. Differential interest rate programs should achieve equitable rate treatment within categories of borrowers. In the adoption of differential interest rate programs, institutions may consider, among other things, the effect that such interest rate structures will have on the achievement of objectives relating to the special credit needs of young, beginning or small farmers. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67186, Dec. 20, 1996. Redesignated at 62 FR 66818, Dec. 22, 1997]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4165" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4165   Young, beginning, and small farmers and ranchers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Definitions.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this subpart, the term “credit” includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Loans made to farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products under title I or II of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interests in participations made to farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products under title I or II of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this subpart, the term “services” includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Leases made to farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products under title I or II of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Related services to farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products under title I or II of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Farm Credit banks oversight.
</P>
<P>(1) Each Farm Credit Bank and Agricultural Credit Bank must adopt written policies that direct:
</P>
<P>(i) The board of each affiliated direct lender association to establish a program to provide sound and constructive credit and related services to young, beginning, and small farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products (YBS farmers and ranchers or YBS);
</P>
<P>(ii) Each affiliated direct lender association to include in its YBS program provisions ensuring coordination with other System institutions in the territory and other governmental and private sources of credit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank to provide the FCA a complete and accurate annual report summarizing the YBS program operations and achievements of its affiliated direct lender associations.
</P>
<P>(2) Annually, the YBS program of each direct lender association must be reviewed and approved by its funding bank, provided review and approval shall solely be to determine whether the YBS program contains all required components as set forth in paragraph (d) of this section. Any conclusion by the bank that a YBS program is incomplete must be communicated in writing to the direct lender association and to the FCA within 30 days.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Farm Credit Bank and Agricultural Credit Bank must implement internal controls for requirements in paragraphs (b)(1)(iii) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Direct lender association YBS plan.
</P>
<P>(1) YBS program components outlined in paragraph (d) of this section must be included in each direct lender association's operational and strategic business plan for at least the succeeding 3 years (as set forth in § 618.8440 of this chapter).
</P>
<P>(2) The YBS portion of the operational and strategic business plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) Analyze the direct lender association's performance in the previous year toward achieving the components in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Discuss variances and reasons for the results; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify how the qualitive factors and quantitative goals in paragraph (d) of this section assist and expand access to credit and education for YBS farmers and ranchers.
</P>
<P>(d) Direct lender association YBS programs. The board of directors of each direct lender association must establish a program to provide sound and constructive credit and services to YBS farmers and ranchers in its territory. Each YBS program must operate in a safe and sound manner and within the direct lender association's risk-bearing capacity, while meeting the unique needs of YBS farmers and ranchers. Such a program must include the following minimum components:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualitative factors—
</P>
<P>(i) Corporate governance.
</P>
<P>(A) A mission statement describing program objectives and specific means for achieving such objectives.
</P>
<P>(B) Internal controls that establish clear lines of responsibility for YBS strategic plan development and the corresponding YBS program implementation, tracking YBS program performance, and YBS quarterly reporting to the direct lender association's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit and related services.
</P>
<P>(A) Efforts to offer credit and related services, either directly or in coordination with others, that are responsive to the needs of the YBS farmers and ranchers in the territory. Examples include customized loan underwriting standards, loan guarantee programs, fee waivers, or other credit enhancements commensurate with the credit risk approved by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(B) Coordination with other System institutions in the territory and other governmental and private sources who offer credit and services to YBS farmers and ranchers.
</P>
<P>(iii) Marketing, outreach, and education. Implementation of effective outreach programs to attract and retain YBS farmers and ranchers, which may include the use of advertising campaigns, educational programs, and advisory committees comprised of YBS farmers and ranchers and/or a YBS mentoring program to better serve and understand the needs of this lending segment.
</P>
<P>(2) Quantitative goals—
</P>
<P>(i) Annual quantitative goals. Annual quantitative goals for credit to YBS farmers and ranchers based on an understanding of reliable demographic data for the lending territory. Direct lender associations must identify the sources of data used to establish the goals. Such goals must include at least one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Loan volume and loan number goals for YBS farmers and ranchers in the territory;
</P>
<P>(B) Percentage goals representative of the demographics for YBS farmers and ranchers in the territory;
</P>
<P>(C) Percentage goals for loans made to new borrowers qualifying as YBS farmers and ranchers in the territory; or
</P>
<P>(D) Goals for capital committed to loans made YBS farmers and ranchers in the territory.
</P>
<P>(ii) Board of directors approval and review. Goals must be approved by the direct lender association's board of directors and reviewed quarterly with adjustments made as needed.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 89285, Dec. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4170" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4170   General.</HEAD>
<P>Direct lenders shall be responsible for the servicing of the loans that they make. However, loan participation agreements may designate specific loan servicing efforts to be accomplished by a participating institution. Each direct lender shall adopt loan servicing policies and procedures to assure that loans will be serviced fairly and equitably for the borrower while minimizing the risk for the lender. Procedures shall include specific plans that help preserve the quality of sound loans and that help correct credit deficiencies as they develop.
</P>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit Bank shall provide guidelines for the servicing of loans by the Federal land bank associations. The servicing may be accomplished either under the direct supervision of the bank or under delegated authority. 
</P>
<P>(b) The servicing of loans which are participated in by Farm Credit System institutions shall be in accordance with § 614.4325.
</P>
<P>(c) In the development of loan servicing policies and procedures, the following criteria shall be included: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Term loans.</I> The objective shall be to provide borrowers with prompt and efficient service with respect to actions in such areas as personal liability, partial release of security, insurance requirements or adjustments, loan divisions or transfers, or conditional payments. Procedures shall provide for adequate inspections, reanalyses, reappraisals, controls on payment of insurance and taxes (and for payment when necessary), and prompt exercise of legal options to preserve the lender's collateral position or guard against loss. Loan servicing policies for rural home loans shall recognize the inherent differences between agricultural and rural home lending.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operating loans.</I> The objective shall be to service such loans to assure disbursement in accordance with the basis of approval, repayment from the sources obligated or pledged, and to minimize risk exposure to the lender. Procedures shall require:
</P>
<P>(i) The procurement of periodic operating data essential for maintaining control, for the proper analysis of such data, and prompt action as needed;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inspections, reappraisals, and borrower visits appropriate to the nature and quality of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Controls on insurance, margin requirements, warehousing, and the prompt exercise of legal options to preserve the lender's collateral position and guard against loss.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Legal entity loans.</I> In addition to the foregoing servicing objectives for term and operating loans, procedures for servicing these loans shall require procurement of data on changes in ownership, control, and management; review of business objectives, financing programs, organizational structure, and operating methods, and appropriate analysis of such changes with provision for action as needed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11424, June 7, 1972, as amended at 40 FR 17745, Apr. 22, 1975. Redesignated at 46 FR 51878, Oct. 22, 1981 and amended at 48 FR 54475, Dec. 5, 1983; 51 FR 39502, Oct. 28, 1986; 57 FR 38250, Aug. 24, 1992; 61 FR 67187, Dec. 20, 1996. Redesignated at 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4175" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4175   Uninsured voluntary and involuntary accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Borrowers may make voluntary advance payments on their loans or, under agreement with a System institution, may make voluntary advance conditional payments intended to be applied to future maturities. The monies in the advance conditional payment accounts may be available for return to the borrower in lieu of increasing his loan. System institutions may pay interest on advance conditional payments for the time the funds are held unapplied at a rate not to exceed the rate charged on the related loan(s). System institutions shall hold any advance conditional payments received in accordance with this section in voluntary advance payment accounts. 
</P>
<P>(b) System institutions may establish involuntary payment accounts including, but not limited to, funds held for the borrower, such as loan proceeds to be disbursed for which the borrower is obligated; the unapplied insurance proceeds arising from any insured loss; and total insurance premiums and applicable taxes collected in advance in connection with any loan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 35454, Sept. 14, 1988. Redesignated at 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Loan Terms and Conditions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 24884, June 19, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4200   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> (1) The terms and conditions of each loan made by a Farm Credit bank or association shall be set forth in a written document or documents, such as a loan agreement, promissory note, or other instrument(s) appropriate to the type and amount of the credit extension, in order to establish loan conditions and performance requirements. Copies of all documents executed by the borrower in connection with the closing of a loan made under titles I or II of the Act shall be provided to the borrower at the time of execution and at any time thereafter that the borrower requests additional copies. 
</P>
<P>(2) The terms and conditions of all loans shall be adequately disclosed in writing to the borrower not later than loan closing. For loans made under titles I and II of the Act, the institution shall provide prompt written notice of the approval of the loan. 
</P>
<P>(3) Applicants shall be provided notification of the action taken on each credit application in compliance with the requirements of 12 CFR 1002.9. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Security.</I> (1) Long-term real estate mortgage loans must be secured by a first lien interest in real estate, except that the loans may be secured by a second lien interest if the institution also holds the first lien on the property. No funds shall be advanced, under a legally binding commitment or otherwise, if the outstanding loan balance after the advance would exceed 85 percent (or 97 percent as provided in section 1.10(a) of the Act) of the appraised value of the real estate, except that a loan on which private mortgage insurance is obtained may exceed 85 percent of the appraised value of the real estate to the extent that the loan amount in excess of 85 percent is covered by such insurance. The real estate that is used to satisfy the loan-to-value limitation must be comprised primarily of agricultural or rural property, including agricultural land and improvements thereto, a farm-related business, a marketing or processing operation, a rural residence, or real estate used as an integral part of an aquatic operation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the lending institution may advance funds for the payment of taxes or insurance premiums with respect to the real estate, reschedule loan payments, grant partial releases of security interests in the real estate, and take other actions necessary to protect the lender's collateral position. Any action taken that results in exceeding the loan-to-value limitation shall be in accordance with a policy of the institution's board of directors and adequately documented in the loan file. 
</P>
<P>(3) Short- and intermediate-term loans may be secured or unsecured as the documented creditworthiness of the borrower warrants. 
</P>
<P>(4) In addition to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a long-term, non-farm rural home loan, including a revolving line of credit, shall be secured by a first lien on the property, except that it may be secured by a second lien if the institution also holds the first lien on the property. A short- or intermediate-term loan on a rural home, including a revolving line of credit, must be secured by a lien on the property unless the financing is provided exclusively for repairs, remodeling, or other improvements to the rural home, in which case the loan may be secured by other property or unsecured if warranted by the documented creditworthiness of the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(5) Except as provided in § 614.4231, loans made under title III of the Act may be secured or unsecured, as appropriate for the purpose of the loan and the documented creditworthiness of the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loan amortization.</I> If a direct lender amortizes a loan over a period of time that is longer than the term to maturity under § 614.4000(a), § 614.4010(a), § 614.4030(a), § 614.4040(a), or § 614.4050(a)(1) or (2), it must establish a loan amortization schedule that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Consistent with its loan underwriting standards adopted pursuant to § 614.4150; and
</P>
<P>(2) Appropriate to the type and purpose of the loan, expected useful life of the asset being financed, and the repayment capacity of the borrower.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 51014, Sept. 30, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 60694, Sept. 28, 2020; 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4231" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4231   Certain seasonal commodity loans to cooperatives.</HEAD>
<P>Loans on certain commodities that are part of government programs shall comply with the criteria established for those programs. Security taken on program commodities shall be consistent with prudent lending practices and ensure compliance with the government program. The bank shall provide for periodic review by bank officials of any custodial activities and shall provide notice to the custodians that their activities are subject to review and examination by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4232" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4232   Loans to domestic lessors.</HEAD>
<P>Loans and financial assistance extended by banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks to domestic lessors to finance equipment or facilities leased by a stockholder of the bank shall be subject to the following terms and conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The term of the loan shall not be longer than the total period of the lease;
</P>
<P>(b) The contract between the lessor and lessee shall establish that the leased assets are effectively under the control of the lessee and that such control shall continue in effect for essentially all of the term of the lease;
</P>
<P>(c) The lessee must hold at least one share of stock or one participation certificate; and
</P>
<P>(d) The leased equipment and facilities must be primarily for use in the lessee's operations in the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24884, June 19, 1990, as amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4233" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4233   International loans.</HEAD>
<P>Term loans made by banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks under the authority of section 3.7(b) of the Act and § 613.3200 of this chapter to foreign or domestic parties who are not shareholders of the bank shall be subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The loan shall be denominated in a currency to eliminate foreign exchange risk on repayment.
</P>
<P>(b) The borrower's obligations shall be guaranteed or insured against default under such policies as are available in the United States and other countries. Exceptions may be made where a prospective borrower has had a longstanding successful business relationship with an eligible cooperative borrower or an eligible cooperative which is not a borrower if the prospective borrower has a high credit rating as determined by the bank.
</P>
<P>(c) For a borrower in which a voting stockholder of the bank has a majority ownership interest, financing may be extended for the full value of the transaction; otherwise, financing may be extended only to approximate the percent of ownership.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24884, June 19, 1990, as amended at 55 FR 28886, July 16, 1990; 55 FR 50544, Dec. 7, 1990; 56 FR 5927, Feb. 14, 1991; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Collateral Evaluation Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 46730, Sept. 12, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4240" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4240   Collateral definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Abundance of caution,</I> when used to describe decisions to require collateral, means that the collateral is taken in circumstances in which: 
</P>
<P>(1) It is not required by statute, regulation, or the institution's policies; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A prudent lender would extend credit based on a borrower's income and/or other collateral, absent the real estate, and the decision to extend credit was, in fact, based on other sources of revenue or collateral. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisal</I> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, by professional appraisal organizations, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois, in order to enhance the quality of professional appraisals. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Business loan</I> means a loan or other extension of credit to any corporation, general or limited partnership, business trust, joint venture, sole proprietorship, or other business entity (including entities and individuals engaged in farming enterprises). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Cost approach</I> means the process by which an evaluator establishes an indicated value by measuring the current market cost to construct a reproduction of or replacement for the improvements, minus the amount of depreciation (physical deterioration, or functional and/or external obsolescence) evident in the structure from all causes, plus the market value of the land. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Evaluation</I> means a study of the nature, quality, or utility of, interest in, or aspects of, an asset. An evaluation may take the form of a valuation or an appraisal.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fee appraiser</I> means a qualified evaluator who is not an employee of the party contracting for the completion of the evaluation and who performs an evaluation on a fee basis. For purposes of this subpart, a fee appraiser may include a staff evaluator from another Farm Credit System institution only if the employing institution is not operating under joint management with the contracting institution. In addition, for purposes of personal and intangible collateral evaluations, the term “fee appraiser” includes, but is not limited to, certified public accountants, equipment dealers, grain buyers, livestock buyers, and auctioneers. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>FIRREA</I> means the Financial Institutions Recovery, Reform, and Enforcement Act of 1989. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Highest and best use</I> means the reasonable and most probable use of the property that would result in the highest market value of vacant land or improved property, as of the date of valuation; or that use, from among reasonably probable and legally alternative uses, found to be physically possible, appropriately supported, financially feasible, and which results in the highest land value. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Income capitalization approach</I> means the procedure that values property by measuring the present value of the expected future benefits of property ownership. This value is derived from either: 
</P>
<P>(1) Capitalizing a single year's income expectancy or an annual average of several years' income expectancies at a market-derived capitalization rate that reflects a specific income pattern, return on investment, and change in the value of the investment; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Discounting the annual cashflows for the holding period and the reversion at a specified yield rate or specified yield rates which reflect market behavior. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Market value</I> means the most probable price that a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently, knowledgeably, and assuming neither is under duress. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby: 
</P>
<P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated; 
</P>
<P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their best interests; 
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market; 
</P>
<P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in United States dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Personal property,</I> for purposes of this subpart, means all tangible and movable property not considered real property or fixtures. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Qualified evaluator</I> means an individual who is competent, reputable, impartial, and has demonstrated sufficient training and experience to properly evaluate property of the type that is the subject of the evaluation. For the purposes of this definition, the term “qualified evaluator” includes an appraiser or valuator. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Real estate</I> means an identified parcel or tract of land, including improvements, if any. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Real estate-related financial transactions</I> means any transaction involving: 
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or exchange of real property, including interests in property or the financing thereof; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The use of real property or interests in real property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Real property</I> means all interests, benefits, and rights inherent in the ownership of real estate. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Sales comparison approach</I> means the procedure that values property by comparing the subject property to similar properties located in relatively close proximity, having similar size and utility, and having been recently sold in arm's-length transactions (comparable sales). The sales comparison approach requires the evaluator to estimate the degree of similarity and difference between the subject property and comparable sales. Such comparison shall be made on the basis of conditions of sale, financing terms, market conditions, location, physical characteristics, and income characteristics. Appropriate adjustments shall be made to the sales price of the comparable property based on the identified deficiencies or superiorities of the subject property to arrive at a probable price for which the subject property could be sold on the date of the collateral evaluation. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>State certified appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for and has been certified as a real estate appraiser by a State or territory whose requirements for certification currently meet or exceed the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualification Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a State certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade on a suitable examination administered by a State or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualification Board of the Appraisal Foundation. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>State licensed appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing and has been licensed as a real estate appraiser by a State or territory in which the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and in which the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Transaction value</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan, loan commitment, or other extensions of credit; 
</P>
<P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, investments in, or exchanges of real property, the market value of the property interest involved; and 
</P>
<P>(3) For the pools of loans or interests in real property, the transaction value of the individual loans or the market value of the real property interests comprising the pool. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>USPAP</I> means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice adopted by the Appraisal Foundation. 
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Valuation</I> means the process of estimating a defined value of an identified interest or interests in a specific asset or assets as of a given date. A valuation results from the completion of a collateral evaluation that does not require an appraisal. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4245" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4245   Collateral evaluation policies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each Farm Credit System institution that engages in lending or leasing secured by collateral shall adopt well-defined and effective collateral evaluation policies and standards, that comply with the regulations in this subpart, to ensure that collateral evaluations are: 
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficiently descriptive and detailed to provide ample support to the institution's related credit decisions; 
</P>
<P>(2) Performed based on criteria established for the purpose of determining the circumstances under which collateral evaluations will be required and when they will be required. Such criteria must, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(i) Establish when an institution will require a collateral appraisal completed under the USPAP rather than a collateral valuation; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into account such factors as market trends, market volatility, and various types of credit, loan servicing, collection, and liquidation actions; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Completed by a qualified evaluator in an unbiased manner. 
</P>
<P>(b) The policies and standards required by this section shall, at a minimum, address the criteria outlined in §§ 614.4250 through 614.4267 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Federal land bank association shall, with the approval of its respective Farm Credit bank, adopt collateral evaluation policies that are consistent with the bank's policies and standards. 
</P>
<P>(d) An institution's board of directors may adopt specific collateral evaluation requirements, consistent with the regulations in this subpart, for loans designated as part of a minimum information program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46730, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4250" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4250   Collateral evaluation standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When real, personal, or intangible property is taken as security for a loan or is the subject of a lease, an evaluation of such property shall be performed in accordance with § 614.4260 and the institutions' policies and procedures. Such a collateral evaluation shall be identified as either a collateral valuation or a collateral appraisal. Specifically, all collateral evaluations must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Value the subject property based upon market value as defined in § 614.4240(l); 
</P>
<P>(2) Be presented in a written format; 
</P>
<P>(3) Consider the purpose for which the property will be used and the property's highest and best use, if different from the intended use; 
</P>
<P>(4) Be sufficiently descriptive to enable the reader to ascertain the reasonableness of the estimated market value and the rationale for the estimate; 
</P>
<P>(5) Provide sufficient detail (including an identification and description of the property) and depth of analysis to reflect the relevant characteristics and complexity of the subject property; 
</P>
<P>(6) Analyze and report, as appropriate, for real, intangible, and/or personal property, on: 
</P>
<P>(i) The current income producing capacity of the property; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable marketing period for the property; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The current market conditions and trends that will affect projected income, to the extent such conditions will affect the value of the property; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The appropriate deductions and discounts as they would apply to the property, including but not limited to, those based on the condition of the property, as well as the specialization of the operation and property; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Potential liabilities, including those associated with any hazardous waste or other environmental concerns; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Include in the evaluation report a certification that the evaluation was not based on a requested minimum valuation or specific valuation or approval of a loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of determining appraisal value as required in section 1.10(a) of the Act, the definition of market value and the requirements of this subpart shall apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4255" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4255   Independence requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibitions.</I> For all personal and intangible property, and for all real property exempted under § 614.4260(c) of this subpart, no person may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Perform evaluations in connection with transactions in which such person has a direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the loan or subject property; 
</P>
<P>(2) As a director, vote on or approve a loan decision on which such person performed a collateral evaluation; or 
</P>
<P>(3) As a director, perform a collateral evaluation in connection with any transaction on which such person made or will be required to make a credit decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Officers and employees.</I> If the institution's internal control procedures required by § 618.8430 of this chapter include requirements for either a prior approval or post-review of credit decisions, officers and employees may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Participate in a vote or approval involving assets on which they performed a collateral evaluation; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Perform a collateral evaluation in connection with a transaction on which they have made or will be required to make a credit decision. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Real estate appraiser.</I> Except as provided in § 614.4260(c) of this subpart, all evaluations of real property that serve as the primary security for a loan shall be performed by a qualified real estate appraiser who has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the loan or subject property and is not engaged in the marketing, lending, collection, or credit decision processes of any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Farm Credit System institution making or originating the loan; 
</P>
<P>(2) A Farm Credit System institution operating under common management with the institution making or originating the loan; or 
</P>
<P>(3) A Farm Credit System institution purchasing an interest in the loan. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fee appraisers.</I> Fee appraisers shall be engaged directly by the Farm Credit System institution or its agent, and shall have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction. A Farm Credit System institution may accept a real estate appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another Farm Credit System institution, by a United States Government agency, a Government-Sponsored Enterprise or by a financial institution subject to title XI of FIRREA. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loan purchases.</I> No employee who, acting as a State licensed or State certified appraiser, performed a real estate appraisal on any collateral supporting a loan shall subsequently participate in any decision related to the loan purchase. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4260" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4260   Evaluation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Valuation.</I> Valuations of personal and intangible property, as well as real property exempted under paragraph (c) of this section, shall be performed by qualified individuals who meet the established standards of this subpart and the Farm Credit System institution obtaining the collateral valuation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appraisal.</I> (1) Appraisals for real estate-related financial transactions with transaction values of more than $250,000 shall be performed by a qualified appraiser who is a State licensed or a State certified real estate appraiser. 
</P>
<P>(2) Appraisals for real estate-related financial transactions with transaction values of more than $1,000,000 shall be performed by a qualified appraiser who is a State certified real estate appraiser. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals not required.</I> An appraisal performed by a State certified or State licensed appraiser is not required for any real estate-related financial transaction in which any of the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction value is $250,000 or less; 
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is a “business loan” as defined in § 614.4240(e) that: 
</P>
<P>(i) Has a transaction value of $1,000,000 or less; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not dependent on income derived from the sale or cash rental of real estate as the primary source of repayment; 
</P>
<P>(3) A lien on real property has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution, and the application, when evaluated on the five basic credit factors, without considering the subject real estate, would support the credit decision that was based on other sources of repayment or collateral; 
</P>
<P>(4) A lien on real estate is not statutorily required and has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value; 
</P>
<P>(5) Subsequent loan transactions (which include but are not limited to loan servicing actions, reamortizations, modifications of loan terms, and partial releases), provided that either: 
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction does not involve the advancement of new loan funds other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the Farm Credit System institution's real estate collateral protection, even with the advancement of new loan funds; 
</P>
<P>(6) A Farm Credit System institution purchases a loan or an interest in a loan, pool of loans, or interests in real property, including mortgage-backed securities, provided that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The appraisal prepared for each loan, pooled loan, or real property interest, when originated, met the standards of this subpart, other Federal regulations adopted pursuant to FIRREA, or the requirements of the government-sponsored secondary market intermediaries under whose auspices the interest is sold; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that would threaten the Farm Credit System institution's collateral position, or 
</P>
<P>(7) A Farm Credit System institution makes or purchases a loan secured by real estate, which loan is guaranteed by an agency of the United States Government and is supported by an appraisal that conforms to the requirements of the guaranteeing agency. 
</P>
<P>To qualify for exceptions in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(7) of this section from the requirements of this subpart, the institution must have documentation justifying the use of such exceptions in the applicable loan file(s). In addition, the institution must document that the repayment of a “business loan” is not dependent on income derived from the sale or cash rental of real estate. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FCA-required appraisals.</I> The FCA reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever it believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness issues. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reciprocity.</I> The requirements of this subpart are satisfied by the use of State certified or State licensed appraisers from any State provided that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The appraiser is qualified to perform such appraisals; 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable Farm Credit System institution has established policies providing for such interstate appraisals; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable State appraiser licensing and certification agency recognizes the certification or license of the appraiser's State of permanent certification or licensure. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46730, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 2687, Jan. 11, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4265" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4265   Real property evaluations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Real estate shall be valued on the basis of market value. 
</P>
<P>(b) Market value shall be determined by a reasonable valuation method that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Considers the income capitalization approach, the sales comparison approach, and/or the cost approach, as appropriate, to determine market value; 
</P>
<P>(2) Explains and documents the elimination of any approach not used. 
</P>
<P>(3) Reconciles the market values of the applicable approaches; and 
</P>
<P>(c) At a minimum, the institution shall develop and document the evaluation of the income and debt servicing capacity for the property and operation where the transaction value exceeds $250,000 and the real estate taken as collateral: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is an integral part of and supports the principal source of loan repayment; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not an integral part of and does not support the principal source of loan repayment, but has demonstrable rental market appeal, is statutorily required, and fully or partially constitutes an integral part of an agricultural or aquatic operation. 
</P>
<P>(d) The income-earning and debt-servicing capacity established under paragraph (c) of this section on such properties shall be documented as part of the credit analysis for any related loan action, whether or not the income capitalization approach value is used as the basis for the market value conclusion stated in the evaluation report. 
</P>
<P>(e) Collateral closely aligned with, an integral part of, and normally sold with real estate (fixtures) may be included in the value of the real estate. All other collateral associated with the real estate, but designated as personal property, shall be evaluated as personal property in accordance with §§ 614.4250 and 614.4266. 
</P>
<P>(f) The evaluation shall properly identify all nonagricultural influences, including, but not limited to, urban development, mineral deposits, and commercial building development value, and the reasoning supporting the evaluator's highest and best-use conclusion. 
</P>
<P>(g) Where an evaluation of real property is completed by a fee appraiser, as defined in § 614.4240(g), the institution's standards shall include provisions for periodic collateral inspections performed by the institution's account officer or appropriate designee. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46730, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 71 FR 65387, Nov. 8, 2006; 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4266" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4266   Personal and intangible property evaluations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Personal property and intangibles shall be valued on the basis of market value in accordance with the institution's evaluation standards and policies. 
</P>
<P>(b) Personal property evaluations shall include a source of comparisons of value (i.e., equipment dealer listings, Blue Book, market sales reports, etc.) and a description of the property being evaluated, including location of the property and, where applicable, quantity, species/variety, measure/weight, value per unit and in total, type of identification (such as brand, bill of lading, or warehouse receipt), quality, condition, and date. 
</P>
<P>(c) Evaluations of intangibles shall include a review and description of the documents supporting the property interests and the marketability of the intangible property, including applicable terms, conditions, and restrictions contained in the document that would affect the value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(d) Where an evaluation of personal or intangible property is completed by a fee appraiser, as defined in § 614.4240(g), the institution's standards shall include provisions for periodic collateral inspections and verification by the institution's account officer or appropriate designee. 
</P>
<P>(e) When a Farm Credit System institution deems an appraisal necessary, personal or intangible property shall be appraised in accordance with procedures and standards established by the institution by individuals deemed qualified by the institution to complete the work under the USPAP Competency and Ethics Provisions. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46730, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 59 FR 50964, Oct. 6, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4267" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.6.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4267   Professional association membership; competency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership in appraisal organizations.</I> A State certified appraiser or a State licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a real estate-related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competency.</I> All staff and fee evaluators, including appraisers, performing evaluations in connection with real, personal, or intangible property taken as collateral in connection with extensions of credit must meet the qualification requirements of this subpart. However, an evaluator (as defined in § 614.4240(n)) may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified, licensed, or accredited. Any determination of competency shall be based on the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular evaluation assignment for which such individual is being considered. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Loan Purchases and Sales</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4325" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4325   Purchase and sale of interests in loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interests in loans</I> means ownership interests in the principal amount, interest payments, or any aspect of a loan transaction and transactions involving a pool of loans, including servicing rights.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lead lender</I> means a lending institution having a direct contractual relationship with a borrower to advance funds, which institution sells or assigns an interest or interests in such loan to one or more other lenders.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan</I> means any extension of credit or similar financial assistance of the type authorized under the Act, such as guarantees, letters of credit, and other similar transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Participating institution</I> means an institution that purchases a participation interest in a loan originated by another lender.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sale with recourse</I> means a sale of a loan or an interest in a loan in which the seller:
</P>
<P>(i) Retains some risk of loss from the transferred asset for any cause except the seller's breach of usual and customary warranties or representations designed to protect the purchaser against fraud or misrepresentation; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an obligation to make payments of principal or interest to any party resulting from:
</P>
<P>(A) Default on the payment of principal or interest on the loan by the borrower or guarantor or any other deficiencies in the obligor's performance; 
</P>
<P>(B) Changes in the market value of the assets after transfer;
</P>
<P>(C) Any contractual relationship between the seller and purchaser incident to the transfer that, by its terms, could continue even after final payment, default, or other termination of the assets transferred; or 
</P>
<P>(D) Any other cause, except the retention at servicing rights alone shall not constitute recourse. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subordinated participation interest</I> means an interest in a loan that bears the first risk of loss, including the retention of such an interest when a loan is sold to a pooler certified by the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation pursuant to title VIII of the Act, or an interest in a pool of subordinated participation interests purchased to satisfy the requirements of title VIII of the Act with respect to a loan sold to such a certified pooler. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to purchase and sell interests in loans.</I> Loans and interests in loans may only be sold in accordance with each institution's lending authorities, as set forth in subpart A of this part. No Farm Credit System institution may purchase any interest in a loan from an institution that is not a Farm Credit System institution, except:
</P>
<P>(1) For the purpose of pooling and securitizing such loans under title VIII of the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchases of a participation interest that qualifies under the institution's lending authority, as set forth in subpart A of this part, and meets the requirements of § 614.4330 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) Loans purchased from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, provided that the Farm Credit System institution with direct lending authority under title I, II or III of the Act:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducts a thorough due diligence prior to purchase to ensure that the loan, or pool of loans, qualifies under the institution's lending authority as set forth in subpart A of this part, and meets scope of financing and eligibility requirements in subpart A or subpart B of part 613;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtains funding bank approval if a Farm Credit System association purchases loans or pools of loans that exceed 10 percent of total its capital;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes a program whereby each eligible borrower of the loan purchased is offered an opportunity to acquire the institution's required minimum amount of voting stock;
</P>
<P>(iv) Determines whether each loan purchased, except for loans purchased that could be financed only by a bank for cooperatives under title III of the Act, is a distressed loan as defined in § 617.7000, and provides borrowers of purchased loans who acquire voting stock the rights afforded in § 617.7000, subparts A, and D through G if the loan is distressed; and
</P>
<P>(v) Divests eligible purchased loans when the borrowers elect not to acquire stock under the program offered in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section in the same manner it would divest loans under its current business practices.
</P>
<P>(vi) Includes information on loans purchased under authority of this section in the Reports of Condition and Performance required under § 621.12 of this chapter, in the format prescribed by FCA reporting instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policies.</I> Each Farm Credit System institution that is authorized to sell or purchase interests in loans under subpart A of this part shall exercise that authority in accordance with a policy adopted by its board of directors that addresses the following matters:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of purchasers to which the institution is authorized to sell interests in loans;
</P>
<P>(2) The types of loans in which the institution may purchase or sell an interest and the types of interests which may be purchased or sold;
</P>
<P>(3) The underwriting standards to be applied in the purchase of interests in loans:
</P>
<P>(4) Such limitations on the aggregate principal amount of interests in loans that the institution may purchase from a single institution as are necessary to diversify risk, and such limitations on the aggregate amount the institution may purchase from all institutions as are necessary to assure that service to the territory is not impeded;
</P>
<P>(5) Provision for the identification and reporting of loans in which interests are sold or purchased;
</P>
<P>(6) Requirements for providing and securing in a timely manner adequate credit and other information needed to make an independent credit judgment; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Any limitations or conditions to which sales or purchases are subject that the board deems appropriate, including arbitration. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Purchase and sale agreements.</I> Agreements to purchase or sell an interest in a loan shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the particular loan(s) to be covered by the agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the transfer of credit and other borrower information on a timely and continuing basis;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide for sharing, dividing, or assigning collateral; 
</P>
<P>(4) Identify the nature of the interest(s) sold or purchased;
</P>
<P>(5) Set forth the rights and obligations of the parties and the terms and conditions of the sale; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Contain any terms necessary for the appropriate administration of the loan and the protection of the interests of the Farm Credit System institution. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Independent credit judgment.</I> Each institution that purchases an interest in a loan shall make a judgment on the creditworthiness of the borrower that is independent of the originating or lead lender and any intermediary seller or broker prior to the purchase of the interest and prior to any servicing action that alters the terms of the original agreement, which judgment shall not be delegated to any person(s) not employed by the institution. A Farm Credit System institution that purchases a loan or any interest therein may use information, such as appraisals or collateral inspections, furnished by the originating or lead lender, or any intermediary seller or broker; however, the purchasing Farm Credit System institution shall independently evaluate such information when exercising its independent credit judgment. No employee who performed a real estate appraisal on any collateral supporting a loan shall participate in the decision to purchase that loan. The independent credit judgment shall be documented by a credit analysis that considers factors set forth in the loan underwriting standards adopted pursuant to § 614.4150 of this part and is independent of the originating institution and any intermediary seller or broker. The credit analysis shall consider such credit and other borrower information as would be required by a prudent lender and shall include an evaluation of the capacity and reliability of the servicer. Boards of directors of jointly managed institutions shall adopt procedures to ensure that the interests of their respective shareholders are protected in participation between such institutions. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> The aggregate principal amount of interests in loans purchased from a single lead lender and the aggregate principal amount of interests in loans purchased from other institutions shall not exceed the limits set in the institution's policy. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Sales with recourse.</I> When a loan or interest in a loan is sold with recourse, it shall be accorded the following treatment: 
</P>
<P>(1) The loan shall be considered, to the extent of the recourse, an extension of credit by the purchaser to the seller, as well as an extension of credit from the seller to the borrower(s), for the purpose of determining whether credit extensions to a borrower are within the lending limits established in subpart J of this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of the loan subject to the recourse agreement shall be considered a loan sold with recourse for the purpose of computing permanent capital ratios. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Transactions through agents.</I> Transactions pertaining to purchases of loans, including the judgement on creditworthiness, may be performed through an agent, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution establishes the necessary criteria in a written agency agreement that outlines, at a minimum, the scope of the agency relationship and obligates the agent to comply with the institution's underwriting standards;
</P>
<P>(2) The institution periodically reviews the agency relationship to determine if the agent's actions are in the best interest of the institution;
</P>
<P>(3) The agent must be independent of the seller or intermediate broker in the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(4) If an association's funding bank serves as its agent, the agency agreement must provide that:
</P>
<P>(i) The association can terminate the agreement upon no more than 60 days notice to the bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The association may, in its discretion, require the bank to purchase from the association any interest in a loan that the association determines does not comply with the terms of the agency agreement or the association's loan underwriting standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992, as amended at 58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993; 62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997; 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002; 76 FR 30250, May 25, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4330" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4330   Loan participations.</HEAD>
<P>Agreements to purchase or sell a participation interest shall be subject to the provisions of § 614.4325 of this subpart, and, in addition, shall satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Participation agreements.</I> Agreements to purchase or sell a participation interest in a loan shall, in addition to meeting the requirements of § 614.4325(d) of this subpart, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Define the duties and responsibilities of the participating institution and the lead lender, and/or the servicing institution, if different from the lead lender. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for loan servicing and monitoring of the servicer; 
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth authorization and conditions for action in the event of borrower distress or default; 
</P>
<P>(4) Provide for sharing of risk; 
</P>
<P>(5) Set forth conditions for the offering and acceptance of the loan participation and termination of the agreement; 
</P>
<P>(6) Provide for sharing of fees, interest charges, and costs between participating institutions; 
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for a method of resolution of disagreements arising under the agreement between two or more institutions;
</P>
<P>(8) Specify whether the contract is assignable by either party; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Provide for the issuance of certificates evidencing a participation interest in a loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intrasystem participations.</I> Loans participated between or among Farm Credit System institutions shall meet the borrower eligibility, membership, loan term, loan amount, loan security, and stock purchase requirements of the originating lender. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 38247, Aug. 24, 1992, as amended at 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4335" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4335   Borrower stock requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a borrower shall meet the minimum borrower stock purchase requirements as a condition of obtaining a loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans designated for sale into a secondary market.</I> (1) An institution's bylaws may provide that the institution's minimum borrower stock purchase requirements do not apply if a loan is designated, at the time it is made, for sale into a secondary market.
</P>
<P>(2) If a loan designated for sale under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is not sold into a secondary market during the 180-day period that begins on the date of designation, the institution's minimum borrower stock purchase requirements shall apply.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retirement of borrower stock</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Borrower stock may be retired only if the institution meets the minimum permanent capital requirements imposed by the FCA pursuant to the Act or regulations and, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Borrower stock may be retired if the entire loan is sold without recourse, provided that when the loan is sold without recourse to another Farm Credit System institution, the borrower may elect to hold stock in either the selling or purchasing institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Borrower stock may not be retired when the entire loan is sold with recourse.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an interest in a loan is sold without recourse, a proportionate amount of borrower stock may be retired, but in no event may stock be retired below the institution's minimum stock purchase requirements for the interest retained.
</P>
<P>(iv) If an institution repurchases a loan on which the stock has been retired, the borrower shall be required to repurchase stock in the amount of the minimum stock purchase requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loans sold into a secondary market.</I> An institution's bylaws may provide that all outstanding voting stock held by a borrower with respect to a loan shall be retired when the loan is sold into a secondary market.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applicability.</I> In the case of a loan sold into a secondary market under title VIII of the Act, paragraphs (b)(1) and (c)(2) of this section apply regardless of whether the institution retains a subordinated participation interest in a loan or pool of loans or contributes to a cash reserve.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 63646, Dec. 2, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4337" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4337   Disclosure to borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>When a loan or an interest in a loan other than a participation interest is sold with servicing rights, the disclosure shall be made to the borrower in accordance with this section:
</P>
<P>(a) The selling institution shall disclose to the borrower at least 10 days prior to the borrower's next payment date;
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the purchasing institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and address of the party to whom payment is to be made; 
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the impact of the sale on statutory borrower rights after the sale;
</P>
<P>(4) Any terms in the agreement that would permit a purchaser to change the terms or conditions of the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) A Farm Credit System institution that purchases a loan or a non-participation interest therein shall not take any servicing action that adversely affects the borrower until it ensures that disclosure has been made to the borrower of:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the purchasing institution; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The address where the payment should be sent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Loss-Sharing Agreements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4340" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4340   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the approval of the board of directors of the respective Farm Credit System institutions, any System bank, association, or service corporation or service association may enter into an agreement to share loan and other losses with any other institution(s) of the System. As appropriate, a loss-sharing agreement may contain provisions relating to definitions of terms, terms and conditions for activation, determinations of assessment formulas, limitations on assessments, reimbursements, administration, arbitration, and provisions for amendment and termination.
</P>
<P>(b) System institutions may agree among themselves to share losses for the purpose of protecting against the impairment of capital stock or participation certificates, or for any other purpose. Agreements may provide for sharing losses that arise in the future or that were recognized by one or more of the signatory institutions before the date of the agreement. Agreements may contain provisions that are not entirely reciprocal among the signatories to the agreement. Loss-sharing agreements can provide for the sharing of loan losses, operating losses, casualty losses, losses on high risk assets, or any other losses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 48910, Dec. 17, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 1151, Jan. 12, 1989; 54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4345" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4345   Guaranty agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Guaranty agreements under which a percentage of the risk associated with specific loans is assumed may be entered into by or among System banks and associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 48910, Dec. 17, 1984, as amended at 54 FR 1151, Jan. 12, 1989; 54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Lending and Leasing Limits</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4350" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4350   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Borrower</I> means an individual, partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or other business entity to which an institution has made a loan or a commitment to make a loan either directly or indirectly. Excluded are a Farm Credit System association or other financing institution that comply with the criteria in section 1.7(b) of the Act and the regulations in subpart P of this part. For the purposes of this subpart, the term “borrower” includes any customer to whom an institution has made a lease or a commitment to make a lease.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commitment</I> means a legally binding obligation to extend credit, enter into lease financing, purchase or participate in loans or leases, or pay the obligation of another, which becomes effective at the time such commitment is made. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loan</I> means any extension of, or commitment to extend, credit authorized under the Act whether it results from direct negotiations between a lender and a borrower or is purchased from or discounted for another lender. This includes participation interests. The term “loan” includes loans and leases outstanding, obligated but undisbursed commitments to lend or lease, contracts of sale, notes receivable, other similar obligations, guarantees, and all types of leases. An institution “makes a loan or lease” when it enters into a commitment to lend or lease, advances new funds, substitutes a different borrower or lessee for a borrower or lessee who is released, or where any other person's liability is added to the outstanding loan, lease or commitment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Primary liability</I> means an obligation to repay that is not conditioned upon an unsuccessful prior demand on another party. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Secondary liability</I> means an obligation to repay that only arises after an unsuccessful demand on another party. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4351" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4351   Computation of lending and leasing limit base.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lending and leasing limit base.</I> An institution's lending and leasing limit base is composed of the total capital (tier 1 and tier 2) of the institution, as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter, with adjustments applicable to the institution provided for in § 628.22 of this chapter, and with the following further adjustments:
</P>
<P>(1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Eligible third-party capital that is required to be excluded from total capital under § 628.23 of this chapter may be included in the lending limit base.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of calculation.</I> The lending limit base will be calculated on a monthly basis as of the preceding month end. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 37403, July 22, 1994; 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 70 FR 35348, June 17, 2005; 70 FR 53907, Sept. 13, 2005; 81 FR 49772, July 28, 2016; 86 FR 54356, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4352" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4352   Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Farm Credit Banks.</I> No Farm Credit Bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed 15 percent of the bank's lending and leasing limit base. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agricultural credit banks.</I> (1) No agricultural credit bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower under the authority of title I of the Act if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed 15 percent of the bank's lending and leasing limit base. 
</P>
<P>(2) No agricultural credit bank may make or discount a loan to a borrower under the authority of title III of the Act if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed the lending and leasing limits prescribed in § 614.4355 of this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 76 FR 29997, May 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4353" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4353   Direct lender associations.</HEAD>
<P>No direct lender association may make a loan to a borrower if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceed 15 percent of the association's lending and leasing limit base. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1999, as amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 76 FR 29997, May 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4354" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4354   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4355" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4355   Banks for cooperatives.</HEAD>
<P>No bank for cooperatives may make a loan if the consolidated amount of all loans outstanding and undisbursed commitments to that borrower exceeds the following percentages of the lending and leasing limit base of the bank: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Basic limit.</I> (1) Term loans to eligible cooperatives: 25 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Term loans to foreign and domestic parties: 10 percent. 
</P>
<P>(3) Lease loans qualifying under § 614.4020(a)(3) and applying to the lessee: 25 percent. 
</P>
<P>(4) Standby letters of credit qualifying under § 614.4810: 35 percent. 
</P>
<P>(5) Guarantees qualifying under § 614.4800: 35 percent. 
</P>
<P>(6) Seasonal loans exclusive of commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 35 percent. 
</P>
<P>(7) Foreign trade receivables qualifying under § 614.4700: 50 percent. 
</P>
<P>(8) Commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(9) Export and import letters of credit qualifying under § 614.4720: 50 percent. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total limit.</I> (1) The sum of term and seasonal loans exclusive of commodity loans qualifying under § 614.4231: 35 percent. 
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(9) of this section: 50 percent. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997; 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 71 FR 65387, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4356" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4356   Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation may enter into a lease agreement with a lessee if the consolidated amount of all leases and undisbursed commitments to that lessee or any related entities does not exceed 15 percent of its lending and leasing limit base.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999,as amended at 76 FR 29997, May 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4357" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4357   Banks for cooperatives look-through notes.</HEAD>
<P>Where a bank for cooperatives makes a loan to an eligible borrower that is secured by notes of individuals or business entities, the basic lending limits provided in § 614.4355 may be applied to each original notemaker rather than to the loan to the eligible borrower, if: 
</P>
<P>(a) Each note is current and carries a full recourse endorsement or unconditional guarantee by the borrower; 
</P>
<P>(b) The bank determines the financial condition, repayment capacity, and other credit factors of the loan to the original maker reasonably justify the credit granted by the endorser; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The loans are fully supported by documented loan files, which include, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) A credit report supporting the bank's finding that the financial condition, repayment capacity, and other factors of the maker of the notes being pledged justify the credit extended by the bank and/or endorser; 
</P>
<P>(2) A certification by a bank officer designated for that purpose by the loan or executive committee that the financial responsibility of the original notemaker has been evaluated by the loan committee and the bank is relying primarily on each such maker for the payment of the obligation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Other credit information normally required of a borrower when making and administering a loan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993. Redesignated at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4358" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4358   Computation of obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inclusions.</I> The computation of total loans to each borrower for the purpose of computing their lending and leasing limit shall include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The total unpaid principal of all loans and lease balances outstanding and the total amount of undisbursed commitments except as excluded by paragraph (b) of this section. This amount shall include loans that have been charged off on the books of the institution in whole or in part but have not been collected, except to the extent that such amounts are not legally collectible; 
</P>
<P>(2) Purchased interests in loans, including participation interests, to the extent of the amount of the purchased interest, including any undisbursed commitment; 
</P>
<P>(3) Loans attributed to a borrower in accordance with § 614.4359. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> The following loans when adequately documented in the loan file, may be excluded from loans to a borrower subject to the lending and leasing limit: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any loan or portion of a loan that carries a full faith and credit performance guaranty or surety of any department, agency, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States government, provided there is no evidence to suggest that the guaranty has become unenforceable and the institution can demonstrate that it is in compliance with the terms and conditions of the guaranty. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any loan or portion of a loan guaranteed by a Farm Credit System institution, pursuant to the provisions of § 614.4345 on guaranty agreements. This exclusion does not apply to the institution providing the guaranty.
</P>
<P>(3) Any loan or portion of a loan that is secured by bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness, or Treasury bills of the United States or by other obligations guaranteed as to principal and interest by the United States government, provided the loans are fully secured by the current market value of such obligations. If the market value of the collateral declines to below the balance of the loan, and the entire loan, individually, or when combined with other loans and undisbursed commitments to or attributed to the borrower, causes the borrower's total indebtedness to exceed the institution's lending limit, the institution shall have 5 business days to bring the loan into conformance before it shall be deemed to be in violation of the lending limit. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interests in loans sold, including participation interests, when the sale agreement meets the following requirements: 
</P>
<P>(i) The interest must be sold without recourse; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement under which the interest is sold must provide for the sharing of all payments of principal, collection expenses, collateral proceeds, and risk of loss on a pro rata basis according to the percentage interest in the principal amount of the loan. Agreements that provide for the pro rata sharing to commence at the time of default or similar event, as defined in the agreement under which the interest is sold, shall be considered to be pro rata agreements, notwithstanding the fact that advances are made and payments are distributed on a basis other than pro rata prior to that time. 
</P>
<P>(5) Interests in leases sold when the sale agreement provides that:
</P>
<P>(i) The interest sold must be:
</P>
<P>(A) An undivided interest in all the lease payments or the residual value of all the leased property; or
</P>
<P>(B) A fractional undivided interest in the total lease transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest must be sold without recourse; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sharing of all lease payments must be on a pro rata basis according to the percentage interest in the lease payments.
</P>
<P>(6) Loans sold in their entirety to a pooler certified by the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, if an interest in a pool of subordinated participation interests is purchased to satisfy the requirements of title VIII of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993. Redesignated and amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999; 67 FR 1285, Jan. 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4359" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4359   Attribution rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of applying the lending and leasing limit to the indebtedness of a borrower, loans to a related borrower shall be combined with loans outstanding to the borrower and attributed to the borrower when any one of the following three conditions exist: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Liability.</I> (i) The borrower has primary or secondary liability on a loan made to the related borrower. The amount of such loan attributable to the borrower is limited to the amount of the borrower's liability. 
</P>
<P>(ii) This section does not require attribution of a guarantee taken out of an abundance of caution. To qualify for the abundance of caution exception to the requirements of this subpart, the institution must document in the loan file that the loan, when evaluated under the loan underwriting standards adopted pursuant to § 614.4150 of this part without considering the guarantee, would support the credit decision under the same basic terms and conditions. 
</P>
<P>(iii) For the banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks operating under title III authorities of the Act, look-through notes are exempt from the lending limit provisions provided they meet the criteria of § 614.4357. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial interdependence.</I> The operations of a borrower and related borrower are financially interdependent. Financial interdependence exists if the borrower is the primary source of repayment for a related borrower's loan, or if the operations of the borrower and the related borrower are commingled. 
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower shall be considered the primary source of repayment on the loan to the related borrower if the borrower is obligated to supply 50 percent or more of the related borrower's annual gross receipts, <I>and</I> reliance on the income from one another is such that, regardless of the solvency and liquidity of the borrower's operations, the debt service obligation of the related borrower could not be met if income flow from the borrower is interrupted or terminated. For the purpose of this paragraph, gross receipts include, but are not limited to, revenues, intercompany loans, dividends and capital contributions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The assets or operations of the borrower and related borrower are considered to be commingled if they cannot be separated without materially impacting the economic survival of the individual operations and their ability to repay their loans. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Control.</I> The borrower directly or indirectly controls the related borrower. A borrower is deemed to control a related borrower if either paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(ii) of this section exist: 
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower, directly or acting through one or more other persons, owns 50 percent or more of the stock of the related borrower; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower, directly or acting through one or more other persons, owns or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting stock of a related borrower, and meets at least one of the following three conditions: 
</P>
<P>(A) The borrower shares a common directorate or management with a related borrower. A common directorate is deemed to exist when a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons performing similar functions of one borrower also serves the other borrower in a like capacity. A common management is deemed to exist if any employee of the borrower holds the position of chief executive officer, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, or an equivalent position in the related borrower's organization. 
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower controls in any manner the election of a majority of directors of a related borrower. 
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower exercises or has the power to exercise a controlling influence over management of a related borrower's operations through the provisions of management placement or marketing agreements, or providing services such as insurance carrier or bookkeeping. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each institution shall make provisions for appropriately designating loans to a related borrower that are combined with the borrower's loan and attributed to the borrower to ensure that loans to the borrower are within the lending and leasing limits. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attribution rules table.</I> For the purposes of applying the lending and leasing limit to the indebtedness of a borrower, loans to a related borrower shall be combined with loans outstanding to the borrower and attributed to the borrower when any one of three attribution rules are met as outlined in Table 1. 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Attribution rule
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Criteria per § 614.4359
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Attribute
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(A) Liability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Borrower has primary or secondary liability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">*to the extent of the borrower's liability</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Borrower's liability is taken out of an abundance of caution</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.*
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Look-through notes (BC only)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(B) Financial Interdependence</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Source of Repayment:
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(Economic survival of the borrower's operation will materially impact economic survival of the related borrowers operation)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Borrower is obligated to supply 50 percent or more of related borrower's annual gross receipts, <E T="03">and</E> reliance on the income from one another is such that the debt service of the related borrower could not be met if income flow from the borrower is interrupted or terminated</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Commingled Operations: 
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Assets or operations of the borrowers are commingled and cannot be separated without materially impacting the borrowers' repayment capacity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(C) Control</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The borrower owns 50 percent or more of the stock of the related borrower</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(The borrower, directly or indirectly, controls the related borrower)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The borrower owns or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of the voting stock of a related borrower, and
<br/>(1) Shares a common directorate or management with a related borrower, or
<br/>(2) Controls the election of a majority of directors of a related borrower, or
<br/>(3) Exercises a controlling influence over management of a related borrower's operations through the provisions of management placement or marketing agreements, or providing services such as insurance carrier or bookkeeping</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993, as amended at 62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997. Redesignated and amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4360" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4360   Lending and leasing limit violations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each loan, except loans that are grandfathered under the provisions of § 614.4361, shall be in compliance with the lending and leasing limit on the date the loan is made, and at all times thereafter. Except as provided for in paragraph (b) of this section, loans which are in violation of the lending and leasing limit shall comply with the provisions of § 615.5090 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Under the following conditions a loan that violates the lending and leasing limit shall be exempt from the provisions of § 615.5090 of this chapter: 
</P>
<P>(1) A loan in which the total amount of principal outstanding and undisbursed commitments exceed the lending and leasing limit because of a decline in permanent capital after the loan was made. 
</P>
<P>(2) Loans on which funds are advanced pursuant to a commitment that was within the lending and leasing limit at the time the commitment was made, even if the lending and leasing limit subsequently declines. 
</P>
<P>(3) A loan that exceeds the lending and leasing limit as a result of the consolidation of the debt of two or more borrowers as a consequence of a merger or the acquisition of one borrower's operations by another borrower. Such a loan may be extended or renewed, for a period not to exceed 1 year from the date of such merger or acquisition, during which period the institution may advance and/or readvance funds not to exceed the greater of: 
</P>
<P>(i) 110 percent of the advances to the borrower in the prior calendar year; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) 110 percent of the average of the advances to the borrower in the past 3 calendar years. 
</P>
<P>(c) For all lending and leasing limit violations except those exempted under § 614.4360(b)(3), within 90 days of the identification of the violation, the institution must develop a written plan prescribing the specific actions that will be taken by the institution to bring the total amount of loans and commitments outstanding or attributed to that borrower within the new lending and leasing limit, and must document the plan in the loan file. 
</P>
<P>(d) All leases, except those permitted under § 614.4361, reading “effective date of this subpart” in § 614.4361(a) and “effective date of these regulations” in § 614.4361(b) as “effective date of this amendment,” must comply with the lending and leasing limit on the date the lease is made, and at all times after that.
</P>
<P>(e) Nothing in this section limits the authority of the FCA to take administrative action, including, but not limited to, monetary penalties, as a result of lending and leasing limit violations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993. Redesignated and amended at 64 FR 34517, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4361" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4361   Transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A loan (not including a commitment) made or attributed to a borrower prior to the effective date of this subpart, which does not comply with the limits contained in this subpart, will not be considered a violation of the lending and leasing limits during the existing contract terms of such loans. A new loan must conform with the rules set forth in this subpart. A new loan includes but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Funds advanced in excess of existing commitment; 
</P>
<P>(2) A different borrower is substituted for a borrower who is subsequently released; or 
</P>
<P>(3) An additional person becomes an obligor on the loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) A commitment made prior to the effective date of these regulations which exceeds the lending and leasing limit may be funded to the full extent of the legal commitment. Any advances that exceed the lending and leasing limit are subject to the provisions prescribed in § 614.4360. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 40321, July 28, 1993. Redesignated and amended at 64 FR 34517, 34518, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4362" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.10.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4362   Loan and lease concentration risk mitigation policy.</HEAD>
<P>The board of directors of each title I, II, and III System institution must adopt and ensure implementation of a written policy to effectively measure, limit and monitor exposures to concentration risks resulting from the institution's lending and leasing activities.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Policy elements.</I> The policy must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A purpose and objective;
</P>
<P>(2) Clearly defined and consistently used terms;
</P>
<P>(3) Quantitative methods to measure and limit identified exposures to significant and reasonably foreseeable loan and lease concentration risks (as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(4) Internal controls that delineate authorities delegated to management, authorities retained by the board, and a process for addressing exceptions and reporting requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quantitative methods.</I> (1) At a minimum, the quantitative methods included in the policy must measure and limit identified exposures to significant and reasonably foreseeable concentration risks emanating from:
</P>
<P>(i) A single borrower;
</P>
<P>(ii) A single-industry sector;
</P>
<P>(iii) A single counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other lending activities unique to the institution because of its territory, the nature and scope of its activities and its risk-bearing capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) In determining concentration limits, the policy must consider other risk factors that could identify significant and reasonably foreseeable loan and lease losses. Such risk factors could include borrower risk ratings, the institution's relationship with the borrower, the borrower's knowledge and experience, loan structure and purpose, type or location of collateral (including loss given default ratings), loans to emerging industries or industries outside of an institution's area of expertise, out-of-territory loans, counterparties, or weaknesses in due diligence practices.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29997, May 24, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts K-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Loan Approval Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4450" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4450   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Authority for loan approval is vested in the Farm Credit banks and associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 41947, Nov. 20, 1986]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4460" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4460   Loan approval responsibility.</HEAD>
<P>Approval of the following loans is the responsibility of each district board of directors. The responsibility may be discharged by prior approval of such loans by the appropriate bank board, or establishment of a policy under which the authority to approve such loans is delegated to bank management (except paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section which cannot be delegated to management). If the approval of such loans is to be delegated to bank management, the loans are to be submitted promptly for post review by the bank board and a report disclosing all material facts relating to the credit relationship involved shall be submitted annually by bank management to the district board. 
</P>
<P>(a) Loans to a member of the Farm Credit Administration Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) Loans to a member of the district board. 
</P>
<P>(c) Loans to a cooperative of which a member of a bank board of directors is a member of the board of directors, an officer, or employee. 
</P>
<P>(d) Loans to the president of a Farm Credit bank. 
</P>
<P>(e) Loans to employees of the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(f) Loans where directors, officers or employees designated above: 
</P>
<P>(1) Are to receive proceeds of the loan in excess of an amount prescribed by an appropriate bank board, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Are stockholders or owners of equity in a legal entity to which the loan is to be made wherein they have a significant personal or beneficial interest in the loan proceeds thereof or the security, or 
</P>
<P>(3) Are endorsers, guarantors or co-makers in excess of an amount prescribed by an appropriate bank board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[38 FR 27837, Oct. 9, 1973, as amended at 39 FR 29585, Aug. 16, 1974. Redesignated at 46 FR 51878, Oct. 22, 1981, and amended at 51 FR 41947, Nov. 20, 1986; 54 FR 1151, Jan. 12, 1989; 54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989; 56 FR 2674, Jan. 24, 1991]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4470" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4470   Loans subject to bank approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following loans (unless such loans are of a type prohibited under part 612) shall be subject to prior approval of the bank supervising the association in which the loan application originates:
</P>
<P>(1) Loans to a director of the association.
</P>
<P>(2) Loans to a director of an association which is under joint management when the application originates in one of the associations.
</P>
<P>(3) Loans to an employee of the association.
</P>
<P>(4) Loans to an employee of an association which is under joint management when the application originates in one of the associations.
</P>
<P>(5) Loans to bank employees when the application originates in one of the associations supervised by the employing bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Loans to any borrower shall be subject to the prior approval of the bank supervising the association in which the loan application originates whenever a director or an employee of the association or an employee of the bank supervising the association:
</P>
<P>(1) Will receive proceeds of the loan in excess of the amount prescribed by the supervising bank board, or
</P>
<P>(2) Has a significant personal or beneficial interest in the loan, the proceeds, or the security, or controls the borrower, or
</P>
<P>(3) Is an endorser, guarantor, or comaker with respect to the loan in excess of an amount prescribed by the supervising bank board.
</P>
<P>(c) Any loan which will result in any one borrower being obligated (as defined in subpart J of this part) in excess of an amount established by the supervising bank under its policies for delegation of authority to associations shall be subject to prior approval of the supervising bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 49832, Nov. 3, 1982, as amended at 58 FR 40324, July 28, 1993; 60 FR 20010, Apr. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Special Lending Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4525" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.14.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4525   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To provide the best possible credit service to farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products, bank and association boards may adopt policies permitting the bank or association to enter into agreements with agents, dealers, cooperatives, other lenders, and individuals to facilitate its making of loans to eligible farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products.
</P>
<P>(b) A bank or association, pursuant to its board policies, may enter into an agreement with third parties that will accrue to the benefit of the borrower and the lender to perform functions in the making or servicing of loans other than the evaluation and approval of loans. When such an agreement is developed, and the territory covered by the agreement extends outside the territorial limits of the originating association or bank, the written consent of all affected banks or associations is required. Reasonable compensation may be paid for services rendered. 
</P>
<P>(c) Production credit associations and agricultural credit associations may enter into agreements with private dealers or cooperatives permitting them to take applications for loans from the association to purchase farm or aquatic equipment, supplies, and machinery. Such agreements shall normally be limited to persons or businesses selling to farmers, ranchers, or producers or harvesters of aquatic products and shall contain credit limits consistent with sound credit standards. When the sales territory of a dealer or cooperative extends outside the territory of the originating association or the Farm Credit district, written consent of each bank and association affected shall be obtained before making such loans. Reasonable compensation may be paid or charged to a dealer or cooperative for services rendered in connection with such programs. 
</P>
<P>(d) Farm Credit System institutions that are direct lenders may enter into memoranda of understanding among themselves or with other lenders for the simultaneous processing and closing of loans to a mutual borrower. The basic policies and principles of each System lender shall apply.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 12146, Mar. 22, 1982. Redesignated at 53 FR 35454, Sept. 14, 1988, and amended at 55 FR 24886, June 19, 1990; 61 FR 67187, Dec. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4530" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.14.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4530   Special loans, production credit associations and agricultural credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>Under policies approved by the bank board and procedures developed by the bank, production credit associations and agricultural credit associations may make the following special types of loans on commodities covered by price support programs. Notwithstanding the regulations covering other loans made by an association, loans may be made to members on any commodity for which a Commodity Credit Corporation price support program is in effect, at such rate of interest and upon such terms as the bank board may prescribe subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(a) The commodity offered as security for the loan shall be eligible for price support under a Commodity Credit Corporation price support program and shall be stored in a bonded public warehouse, holding storage agreement for such commodity approved by Commodity Credit Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) The member shall have complied with all Commodity Credit Corporation eligibility requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) The loan shall mature not later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the period during which the Commodity Credit Corporation loan or other price support may be obtained on the commodity and shall be secured by pledge of negotiable warehouse receipts covering the commodity. 
</P>
<P>(d) The borrower shall appoint the association as his attorney-in-fact to obtain a Commodity Credit Corporation loan (or other such price support as is available) in the event that the borrower fails to do so prior to maturity or repayment of the loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11424, June 7, 1972. Redesignated at 46 FR 51878, Oct. 22, 1981, and amended at 55 FR 24886, June 19, 1990] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Farm Credit Bank and Agricultural Credit Bank Financing of Other Financing Institutions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 36547, July 7, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4540" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4540   Other financing institution access to Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks for funding, discount, and other similar financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic criteria for access.</I> Any national bank, State bank, trust company, agriculture credit corporation, incorporated livestock loan company, savings association, credit union, or any association of agricultural producers engaged in the making of loans to farmers and ranchers, and any corporation engaged in the making of loans to producers or harvesters of aquatic products may become an other financing institution (OFI) that funds, discounts, and obtains other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank in order to extend short- and intermediate-term credit to eligible borrowers for authorized purposes pursuant to sections 1.10(b) and 2.4(a) and (b) of the Act. Each OFI shall be duly organized and qualified to make loans and leases under the laws of each jurisdiction in which it operates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assured access.</I> Each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank must fund, discount, or provide other similar financial assistance to any creditworthy OFI that:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains at least 15 percent of its loan volume at a seasonal peak in loans and leases to farmers, ranchers, aquatic producers and harvesters. The Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall not include the loan assets of the OFI's parent, affiliates, or subsidiaries when determining compliance with the requirement of this paragraph; and
</P>
<P>(2) Executes a general financing agreement with the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank that establishes a financing or discount relationship for at least 2 years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Underwriting standards.</I> Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall establish objective policies, procedures, pricing guidelines, and loan underwriting standards for determining the creditworthiness of each OFI applicant. A copy of such policies, procedures, guidelines, and standards shall be made available, upon request to each OFI and OFI applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of OFI access.</I> A Farm Credit Bank or an agricultural credit bank may deny the funding request of any creditworthy OFI that meets the conditions in paragraph (b) of this section only when such request would:
</P>
<P>(1) Adversely affect a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank's ability to:
</P>
<P>(i) Achieve and maintain established or projected capital levels; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Raise funds in the money markets; or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise expose the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank to safety and soundness risks.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice to applicants.</I> Each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall render its decision on an OFI application in as expeditious a manner as is practicable. Upon reaching a decision on an application, the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall provide prompt written notice of its decision to the applicant. When the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank makes an adverse credit decision on an application, the written notice shall include the specific reason(s) for the decision.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reports to the board of directors.</I> Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall provide its board of directors with a written annual report regarding the scope of OFI program activities during the preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 36547, July 7, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 29862, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4550" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4550   Place of discount.</HEAD>
<P>A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank may provide funding, discounting, or other similar financial assistance to any OFI applicant. However, a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank cannot fund, discount, or extend other similar financial assistance to an OFI that maintains its headquarters, or has more than 50 percent of its outstanding loan volume to eligible borrowers who conduct agricultural or aquatic operations in the chartered territory of another Farm Credit bank unless it notifies such bank in writing within five (5) business days of receiving the OFI's application for financing. Two or more Farm Credit banks cannot simultaneously fund the same OFI.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29863, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4560" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4560   Requirements for OFI funding relationships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As a condition for extending funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI, each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall require every OFI to:
</P>
<P>(1) Execute a general financing agreement pursuant to the regulations in subpart C of part 614; and
</P>
<P>(2) Purchase non-voting stock in its Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank pursuant to the bank's bylaws.
</P>
<P>(b) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall extend funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI only for purposes and terms authorized under sections 1.10(b) and 2.4(a) and (b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Rural home loans to borrowers who are not <I>bona fide</I> farmers, ranchers, and aquatic producers and harvesters are subject to the restrictions in § 613.3030 of this chapter. Loans that an OFI makes to processing and marketing operators who supply less than 20 percent of the throughput shall be included in the calculation that § 613.3010(b)(1) of this chapter establishes for Farm Credit Banks and agricultural credit banks.
</P>
<P>(d) The borrower rights requirements in part C of title IV of the Act, and the regulations in part 617 of this chapter shall apply to all loans that an OFI funds or discounts through a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, unless such loans are subject to the Truth-in-Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(e) As a condition for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, all State banks, trust companies, or State-chartered savings associations shall execute a written consent that authorizes their State regulators to furnish examination reports to the Farm Credit Administration upon its request. Any OFI that is not a depository institution shall consent in writing to examination by the Farm Credit Administration as a condition precedent for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, and file such consent with its Farm Credit funding bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 36547, July 7, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 10906, Mar. 9, 2004; 69 FR 29863, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4570" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4570   Recourse and security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full recourse and guarantee.</I> All obligations that are funded or discounted through a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall be endorsed with the full recourse or unconditional guarantee of the OFI.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General collateral.</I> (1) Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall take as collateral all notes, drafts, and other obligations that it funds or discounts for each OFI; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall perfect, in accordance with State law, a senior security interest in any and all obligations and the proceeds thereunder that the OFI pledges as collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplemental collateral.</I> (1) Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall develop policies and loan underwriting standards that establish uniform and objective requirements to determine the need and amount of supplemental collateral or other credit enhancements that each OFI shall provide as a condition for obtaining funding, discount and other similar financial assistance from such Farm Credit bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, type, and quality of supplemental collateral or other credit enhancements required for each OFI shall be established in the general financing agreement and shall be proportional to the level of risk that the OFI poses to the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4580" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4580   Limitation on the extension of funding, discount and other similar financial assistance to an OFI.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No obligation shall be purchased from or discounted for and no loan shall be made or other similar financial assistance extended by a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank to an OFI if the amount of such obligation added to the aggregate liabilities of such OFI, whether direct or contingent (other than <I>bona fide</I> deposit liabilities), exceeds ten times the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus of such OFI or the amount of such liabilities permitted under the laws of the jurisdiction creating such OFI, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>(b) It shall be unlawful for any national bank that is indebted to any Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, on paper discounted or purchased, to incur any additional indebtedness, if by virtue of such additional indebtedness its aggregate liabilities, direct or contingent, will exceed the limitation described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4590" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4590   Equitable treatment of OFIs and Farm Credit System associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank shall apply comparable and objective loan underwriting standards and pricing requirements to both OFIs and Farm Credit System direct lender associations.
</P>
<P>(b) The total charges that a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank assesses an OFI through capitalization requirements, interest rates, and fees shall be comparable to the charges that the same Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank imposes on its direct lender associations. Any variation between the overall funding costs that OFIs and direct lender associations are charged by the same funding bank shall result from differences in credit risk and administrative costs to the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon request, each Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank must provide each OFI and OFI applicant, that has or is seeking to establish a funding relationship with the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, a copy of its policies, procedures, loan underwriting standards, and pricing guidelines for OFIs. The pricing guidelines must identify the specific components that make up the cost of funds for OFIs, and the amount of these components expressed in basis points.
</P>
<P>(d) Upon request of any OFI or OFI applicant, that has or is seeking to establish a funding relationship with the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank, the bank must explain in writing the reasons for any variation in the overall funding costs it charges to OFIs and affiliated direct lender associations. The written explanation must compare the cost of funds that the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank charges the OFIs and affiliated direct lender associations. When possible, the written explanation shall compare the costs of funding that the bank charges several OFIs and Farm Credit associations that are similar in size. However, the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank must not disclose financial or confidential information about any individual Farm Credit association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 36547, July 7, 1998, as amended at 69 FR 29863, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4595" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4595   Public disclosure about OFIs.</HEAD>
<P>A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank may disclose to members of the public the name, address, telephone number, and Internet Web site address of any affiliated OFI only if such OFI, through a duly authorized officer, consents in writing. Each Farm Credit Bank and agricultural credit bank must adopt policies and procedures for requesting, obtaining, and maintaining the consent of its OFIs and for disclosing this information to the public.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 29863, May 26, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4600" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.15.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4600   Insolvency of an OFI.</HEAD>
<P>If an OFI that is indebted to a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank becomes insolvent, is in process of liquidation, or fails to service its loans properly, the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank may take over such loans and other assets that the OFI pledged as collateral. Once the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank exercises its remedies, it shall have the authority to make additional advances, to grant renewals and extensions, and to take such other actions as may be necessary to collect and service loans to the OFI's borrower. The funding Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank may also liquidate the OFI's loans and other assets in order to achieve repayment of the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Banks for Cooperatives and Agricultural Credit Banks Financing International Trade</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4700" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4700   Financing foreign trade receivables.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks, under policies adopted by their boards of directors, are authorized to finance foreign trade receivables on behalf of eligible cooperatives to include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Advances against collections;
</P>
<P>(2) Trade acceptances;
</P>
<P>(3) Factoring; and
</P>
<P>(4) Open accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) To reduce credit, political, and other risks associated with foreign trade receivable financing, the banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks shall avail themselves of such guarantee and insurance plans as are available in the United States and other countries, such as the Foreign Credit Insurance Association and the Export-Import Bank of the United States. Exceptions may be made where a prospective borrower has had a longstanding successful business relationship with the eligible cooperative borrower or an eligible cooperative which is not a borrower if the prospective borrower has a high credit rating as determined by the bank.
</P>
<P>(c) When financing a draft drawn on a foreign importer, the banks should retain recourse to the exporter unless their credit evaluation of and experience with the importer indicate recourse is not necessary or unless appropriate guarantees or insurance plans are used.
</P>
<P>(d) The financing of foreign trade receivables shall be limited by the policies of each bank's board of directors. The policies shall provide a method of determining the maximum amount in dollars, by country, to be financed and establishing a maximum percentage of the amount of a draft drawn on a foreign party against which the bank may advance funds. The banks shall take into consideration the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The reputation and financial strength of the foreign importer.
</P>
<P>(2) The reputation and payment record of the class of importers in the same country as the subject importer in regard to prompt payment of drafts drawn upon them.
</P>
<P>(3) The quality of the supporting documents offered with the draft.
</P>
<P>(4) The degree of ease with which necessary foreign exchange conversion can be made, or the extent to which foreign currency exposure may be hedged by forward or future contracts.
</P>
<P>(5) The reputation and financial strength of the exporter.
</P>
<P>(e) The banks may establish foreign trade receivable financing programs by which eligible parties pledge collections to the bank, and then may borrow from the bank up to a stated maximum percentage of the total amount of receivables pledged at any one time.
</P>
<P>(f) When financing foreign trade receivables, the banks shall take such precautions and obtain such credit information as necessary to ascertain that all parties to the transaction(s) being financed are reputable and capable of performing their responsibilities under the contract of sale.
</P>
<P>(g) When financing foreign trade receivables, the banks shall determine that all shipments are covered by maritime insurance while on the high seas.
</P>
<P>(h) Countries where credit is to be extended will be analyzed periodically and systematically on a centralized basis. The resulting country studies will be disseminated to all banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks to be used as inputs in credit grading decisions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 51879, Oct. 22, 1981, as amended at 55 FR 24886, June 19, 1990; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4710" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4710   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4720" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4720   Letters of credit.</HEAD>
<P>Banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks, under policies adopted by their boards of directors, may issue, advise, or confirm import or export letters of credit in accordance with the Uniform Commercial Code, or the Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits, to or on behalf of its customers. In addition, as a matter of sound banking practice, letters of credit shall be issued in conformity with the list which follows.
</P>
<P>(a) Each letter of credit shall be in writing and shall conspicuously state that it is a letter of credit, or be conspicuously entitled as such.
</P>
<P>(b) The letter of credit shall contain a specified expiration date or be for a definite term.
</P>
<P>(c) The letter of credit shall contain a sum certain.
</P>
<P>(d) The bank's obligation to pay should arise only upon fulfilling the terms and conditions as specified in the letter of credit. The bank must not be called upon to determine questions of fact or law at issue between the account party and the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(e) The bank's customer should have an unqualified obligation to reimburse the bank for payments made under the letter of credit.
</P>
<P>(f) All letters of credit shall be irrevocable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 51879, Oct. 22, 1981, as amended at 55 FR 24887, June 19, 1990; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4800" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4800   Guarantees and contracts of suretyship.</HEAD>
<P>A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank, under a policy approved by the bank's board of directors, may lend its credit, be itself a surety to indemnify another, or otherwise become a guarantor if an eligible cooperative substantially benefits from the performance of the transaction involved. A bank may guarantee the debt of eligible cooperatives and foreign parties or otherwise agree to make payments on the occurrence of readily ascertainable events if the guarantee or agreement specifies a maximum monetary liability. Guarantees may be secured or unsecured, and can include, but are not limited to, such events as nonpayment of taxes, rentals, customs duties, costs of transport, and loss of or nonconformance of shipping documents. The bank's customer shall have an unqualified obligation to reimburse the bank for payments made under a guarantee or surety.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24887, June 19, 1990, as amended at 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4810" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4810   Standby letters of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks are authorized to issue on behalf of parties eligible for financing under regulations § 614.4010(d) or § 614.4020 standby letters of credit that represent an obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer:
</P>
<P>(1) To repay money borrowed by, advanced to, or for the account of the account party, or
</P>
<P>(2) To make payment on account of any indebtedness undertaken by the account party, or
</P>
<P>(3) To make payment on account of any default by the account party in the performance of an obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) As a matter of sound banking practice, banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks shall evaluate applications for standby letters of credit on the basis of the loan underwriting standards adopted pursuant to § 614.4150 of the regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 51879, Oct. 22, 1981, as amended at 55 FR 24887, June 19, 1990; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997; 62 FR 51015, Sept. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4900" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.16.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4900   Foreign exchange.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank may engage in any financial transaction which transports monetary instruments from any place within the United States to or through any place outside the United States or to any place within the United States, the bank must have policies adopted by the bank's board of directors governing such transactions and must have established bank procedures to safeguard the interests of the stockholders of the bank in regard to such transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) Under policies adopted by the bank's board of directors, a bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank may engage in currency exchange activities necessary to service individual transactions that may be financed under the regulations authorizing export, import, and other internationally related credit and financial services. These currency exchange activities shall not include any loans or commitments intended to finance speculative futures transactions by eligible borrowers in foreign currencies. The bank may engage, on behalf of the eligible borrowers or on its own behalf, in bona fide hedging transactions and positions, where such transactions or positions normally reduce risks in the conduct and management of international financial activities. The bank's policies should include established guidelines for:
</P>
<P>(1) Net overnight positions, by currency.
</P>
<P>(2) Maturity distribution, by currency, of foreign currency assets, liabilities, and foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P>(3) Outstanding contracts with individual customers and banks.
</P>
<P>(4) Credit approval procedures safeguarding against delivery or settlement risk.
</P>
<P>(5) Total value of outstanding contracts—spot and forward.
</P>
<P>(c) A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank is responsible for its compliance with the laws of the United States in regard to reporting requirements of the Department of the Treasury pertaining to currency exchange activities and international transfers of monetary instruments.
</P>
<P>(d) A bank for cooperatives or an agricultural credit bank engaged in foreign exchange trading shall have written policies describing the scope of trading activity authorized, delegation of authority, types of services offered, trading limits, reporting requirements, and internal accounting controls.
</P>
<P>(e) The bank's trading guideline policies should provide for reporting procedures adequate to inform management properly of trading activities and to facilitate detection of lack of compliance with policy directives.
</P>
<P>(f) The bank's policies shall establish foreign exchange delivery limits for eligible customers with relationship to the customer's financial capability to bear the financial risks assumed. The bank will be expected to maintain documentary evidence that a customer's delivery exposure is reasonable, and that responsible bank officers routinely review outstanding delivery exposure of individual customers.
</P>
<P>(g) The bank's personnel policies shall include written standards of conduct for those involved with foreign exchange activities, including the following which should be prohibited:
</P>
<P>(1) Trading with entities affiliated with the bank or with members of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) Foreign exchange and deposit transactions with other bank employees.
</P>
<P>(3) Personal business relationships with foreign exchange and money brokers with whom the bank deals.
</P>
<P>(h) The bank's policies should provide detailed instructions regarding the need for bank officers to disclose the limits of responsibility and liability of the bank when it holds positions or executes contracts for the account of eligible parties. The bank's policies regarding the respective procedures should provide reasonable assurance that reports on trading activities are current and complete, and that the opportunity for concealment of unauthorized transactions is kept at the absolute minimum.
</P>
<P>(i) The banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks shall use the Funding Corporation for purposes of trading foreign exchange. All foreign exchange transactions shall be made by the Funding Corporation on behalf of the banks consistent with instructions received from the respective banks.
</P>
<P>(j) Guidelines (b) through (i) of this section will not apply if a bank purchases or sells foreign exchange through a commercial bank and has no foreign exchange risk exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 51879, Oct. 22, 1981, as amended at 55 FR 24887, June 19, 1990; 62 FR 4445, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R—Secondary Market Authorities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4910" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4910   Basic authorities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any bank or association of the Farm Credit System, except a bank for cooperatives, with direct lending authority may originate agricultural real estate loans for sale to one or more certified agricultural mortgage marketing facilities under title VIII of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) Any bank or association of the Farm Credit System, except a bank for cooperatives, may operate as an agricultural mortgage marketing facility under title VIII of the Act, either acting alone or jointly with other banks and/or associations, if so certified by the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1155, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Flood Insurance Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 43254, July 21, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 614.4920" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4920   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart, except for §§ 614.4940 and 614.4950, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Sections 614.4940 and 614.4950 apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4925" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4925   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>1968 Act</I> means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator of FEMA</I> means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Building</I> means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
</P>
<P><I>Community</I> means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Designated loan</I> means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the 1968 Act.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term <I>mobile home</I> does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this subpart, the term <I>mobile home</I> means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term <I>mobile home</I> includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual aid society</I> means an organization—
</P>
<P>(1) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
</P>
<P>(2) That covers losses caused by damage to members' property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
</P>
<P>(3) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members' property caused by flooding.
</P>
<P><I>NFIP</I> means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the 1968 Act.
</P>
<P><I>Private flood insurance</I> means an insurance policy that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
</P>
<P>(v) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
</P>
<P>(A) The insured; and
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(iii) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Residential improved real estate</I> means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means the person responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>SFIP</I> means, for purposes of § 614.4925, a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to a System institution.
</P>
<P><I>Special flood hazard area</I> means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
</P>
<P><I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43254, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4973, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4930" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4930   Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A System institution shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the 1968 Act. Flood insurance coverage under the 1968 Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table funded loans.</I> A System institution that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Private flood insurance</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> A System institution must accept private flood insurance, as defined in § 614.4925, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance.</I> A System institution may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in § 614.4925, without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discretionary acceptance.</I> A System institution may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in § 614.4925 in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement of this section if the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
</P>
<P>(iii) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the System institution documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mutual aid societies.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a System institution may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in § 614.4925, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The FCA has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the System institution documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43254, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4973, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4932" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4932   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The flood insurance requirement prescribed by § 614.4930 does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any State-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of States falling within this exemption;
</P>
<P>(b) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
</P>
<P>(c) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the System institution that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4935" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4935   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) or paragraph (c) of this section, a System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 614.4930 for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of § 614.4930;
</P>
<P>(iii) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements of § 614.4930;
</P>
<P>(B) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
</P>
<P>(C) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The loan has a term of no longer than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duration of exception.</I> If a System institution, or a servicer acting its behalf, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply, then the System institution, or the servicer acting on its behalf, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 614.4930 as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Escrow account.</I> The System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan for which a System institution is required to escrow under paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (c)(2) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (a)(3) of this section during the term of the loan, the System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under § 614.4955 informing the borrower that the System institution is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small lender exception</I>—(1) <I>Qualification.</I> Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (a), (b), and (d) of this section do not apply to a System institution:
</P>
<P>(i) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On or before July 6, 2012:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
</P>
<P>(B) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in status.</I> If a System institution previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the System institution must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Option to escrow</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 614.4930 for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the System institution has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan or the System institution qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraph (a)(2) or (c) of this section, respectively;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The System institution is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the System institution has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The System institution, or the servicer acting on its behalf, must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the System institution, or servicer, receives the borrower's request to escrow.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43256, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4940" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4940   Required use of standard flood hazard determination form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of form.</I> A System institution shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the 1968 Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. A System institution may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA's Web site at <I>www.fema.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of form.</I> A System institution shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the System institution owns the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4945" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4945   Force placement of flood insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice and purchase of coverage.</I> If a System institution, or a servicer acting on behalf of the System institution, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under § 614.4930, then the System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower's expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under § 614.4930, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the System institution, or its servicer, shall purchase insurance on the borrower's behalf. The System institution, or its servicer, may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>Termination and refund.</I> Within 30 days of receipt by a System institution, or by a servicer acting on its behalf, of a confirmation of a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage, the System institution, or its servicer, shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the System institution, or its servicer, under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the System institution, or by its servicer, under paragraph (a) of this section during any period during which the borrower's flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the System institution, or its servicer, were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the System institution, or its servicer, during such period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sufficiency of demonstration.</I> For purposes of confirming a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (b) of this section, a System institution, or a servicer acting on its behalf, shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4950" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4950   Determination fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any System institution, or a servicer acting on behalf of the System institution, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrower fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
</P>
<P>(1) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's revision or updating of flood plain areas or flood-risk zones;
</P>
<P>(3) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's publication of a notice or compendium that:
</P>
<P>(i) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(4) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the lender, or its servicer, on behalf of the borrower under § 614.4945.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchaser or transferee fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4955" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4955   Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a System institution makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the System institution shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the 1968 Act for the collateral securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The written notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP also may be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The System institution shall provide the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the System institution provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the System institution provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of receipt.</I> The System institution shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time it owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate method of notice.</I> Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (a) of this section, a System institution may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The System institution shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time it owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use of sample form of notice.</I> A System institution will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A to this subpart within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A to this subpart satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the 1968 Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43254, July 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 43257, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 614.4960" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 614.4960   Notice of servicer's identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a System institution makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, it shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the System institution's notice of the servicer's identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer of servicing rights.</I> The System institution shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator's designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (b) shall transfer to the transferee servicer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.11.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart S of Part 614—Sample Form of Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HD1>
<P>We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
</P>
<P>The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA's <I>Flood Insurance Rate Map</I> or the <I>Flood Hazard Boundary Map</I> for the following community: ______. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
</P>
<P>Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
</P>
<P>____ The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
</P>
<P>• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover <I>the lesser of</I>:
</P>
<P>(1) The outstanding principal balance of the loan; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
</P>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community's participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
</P>
<P>• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
</P>
<HD3>Availability of Private Flood Insurance Coverage
</HD3>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>[Escrow Requirement for Residential Loans
</HD3>
<P>Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
</P>
<P>____ Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43258, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.15.18.1.11.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Subpart S of Part 614—Sample Clause for Option to Escrow for Outstanding Loans
</HEAD>
<HD3>Escrow Option Clause
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
</P>
<P>• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
</P>
<P>• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
</P>
<P>• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
</P>
<P>To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
</P>
<P>[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43258, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="615" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 615—FUNDING AND FISCAL AFFAIRS, LOAN POLICIES AND OPERATIONS, AND FUNDING OPERATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.10, 1.11, 1.12, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 3.11, 3.25, 4.3, 4.3A, 4.9, 4.14B, 4.25, 5.9, 5.17, 8.0, 8.3, 8.4, 8.6, 8.8, 8.10, 8.12 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2015, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2076, 2093, 2122, 2128, 2132, 2146, 2154, 2154a, 2160, 2202b, 2211, 2243, 2252, 2279aa, 2279aa-3, 2279aa-4, 2279aa-6, 2279aa-8, 2279aa-10, 2279aa-12); sec. 301(a), Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1608, as amended by sec. 301(a), Pub. L. 103-399, 102 Stat 989, 993 (12 U.S.C. 2154 note); sec. 939A, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1326, 1887 (15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Funding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5000   General responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The System banks, acting through the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation (Funding Corporation), have the primary responsibility for obtaining funds for the lending operations of the System institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) The System's funding operations have a significant impact upon the investment community, the general public, and the national economy in both the volume and the manner by which funds are raised. The Farm Credit Administration supervises compliance with the statutory collateral requirements for the debt obligations issued. The Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration, under policies adopted by the Board, consults with the Secretary of the Treasury concerning the System's funding activities, pursuant to section 5.10 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1158, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5010   Funding Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Funding Corporation shall issue, market, and handle the obligations of the banks issued under section 4.2(b) through (d) of the Act and interbank or intersystem flow of funds as may from time to time be required, and, upon request of the banks, shall handle investment portfolios. The Funding Corporation shall maintain accurate and timely records. The System banks shall provide for the sale of such obligations through the Funding Corporation by negotiation, offer, bid, or syndicate sale, and for the delivery of such obligations by book entry, wire transfer, or such other means as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The interaction of the System with the financial community shall be conducted principally through the Funding Corporation. The Funding Corporation shall be subject to regulation and examination by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1158, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5030   Borrowings from commercial banks.</HEAD>
<P>Each System bank board, by resolution, shall authorize all commercial bank borrowings by that System bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1159, Jan. 12, 1989, as amended at 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5040" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5040   Borrowings from financial institutions other than commercial banks.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit banks may borrow from other financial institutions, such as insurance companies, Federal agencies, or Federal reserve banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11434, June 7, 1972, as amended at 54 FR 1151, Jan. 12, 1989; 54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Collateral</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 1159, Jan. 12, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5045" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5045   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cost</I> means the actual amount paid for any asset.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Market value</I> means the price at which a willing seller would sell to a willing buyer, neither under any compulsion to buy or sell.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Unpaid balance</I> means total principal and accrued interest owed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secured interbank loan</I> means a loan from one Farm Credit System bank to another Farm Credit System bank, secured by assets of the borrowing Farm Credit System bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5050" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5050   Collateral requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each bank shall have on hand at the time of issuance of any notes, bonds, debentures, or other similar obligations, and at all times thereafter maintain, free from any lien or other pledge, assets consisting of notes and other obligations representing loans made under the authority of the Act, real or personal property acquired in connection with loans made under the Act, obligations of the United States or any agency thereof direct or fully guaranteed, other bank assets (including marketable securities) approved by the Farm Credit Administration, cash, or cash equivalents approved by the Farm Credit Administration, in an aggregate value equal to the total amount of notes, bonds, debentures, or other similar obligations outstanding for which the bank is primarily liable. 
</P>
<P>(b) The collateral value of eligible investments (as defined in § 615.5140) shall be the lower of cost or market value.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the collateral value of notes and other obligations representing loans made under the authority of any Farm Credit Act shall be the unpaid balance of such loans adjusted for any allowance for credit losses (except as provided for in § 615.5090). 
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral value of loans in process of liquidation or foreclosure, judgments, and sales contracts shall be the unpaid balance of such loans, judgments, and contracts adjusted for any allowance for credit losses. 
</P>
<P>(3) The collateral value of loans which have been restructured by any action, such as an extension, deferment, or partial release, shall be the new unpaid balance of the loans adjusted for any allowance for credit losses. 
</P>
<P>(4) The collateral value of property acquired in the liquidation of loans shall be the book value of such property adjusted for any allowance for credit losses. 
</P>
<P>(5) Collateral shall not include the amount of any loan that exceeds the maximum amount authorized under the Act or part 614 of these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(6) Collateral may include the collateral value of secured interbank loans, computed as provided in § 615.5050(c)(1), provided that the assets securing the loan could serve as collateral supporting the issuance of obligations under § 615.5050(a). In computing its eligible collateral, the borrowing bank shall not count the assets securing such loan. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each bank shall have procedures which will ensure that the bank is in compliance with the statutory requirements for maintenance of collateral. Such procedures shall include provisions for: 
</P>
<P>(1) Adequate safekeeping facilities; 
</P>
<P>(2) Methods to determine that debt instruments meet all requirements of law and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(3) A report signed by an authorized bank officer at each regular meeting of the board of directors certifying the eligibility and the adequacy of collateral. Items to be reported will include but not be limited to the total amount of eligible collateral, amount of ineligible loans, amount of deductions, and the amount of excess collateral; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Written procedures and practices to ensure that there will be a high degree of accuracy in protecting and accounting for the collateral. 




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1159, Jan. 12, 1989, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5060" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5060   Special collateral requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An attorney lien certification need not be obtained at the time a note is accepted as collateral if the counsel for the bank or association has determined, in writing, that the bank or association procedures provide sufficient safeguards to ensure that a real estate mortgage loan, within the meaning of section 1.7(a) of the Act, made by the bank or association will be secured by a first lien or its equivalent on the borrower's interest in the primary real estate security. However, the note shall be withdrawn from collateral upon the expiration of 1 year from the date of the loan closing, unless, before the end of such period: 
</P>
<P>(1) An attorney has certified that the bank or association has a first lien or its equivalent from a security standpoint in the primary real estate security for the loan; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The bank or association has obtained a title insurance policy insuring that it has a first lien or its equivalent from a security standpoint in the primary real estate security for the loan, and all of the following requirements are satisfied: 
</P>
<P>(i) The final policy was issued by a title insurance company that has been licensed to issue such policies by the appropriate state insurance regulatory body or bodies, has not been barred or suspended, and has been approved by the lending institution; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The standard form on which the final policy was issued has been approved by the counsel for the lending institution; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The final policy was issued for an amount at least equal to the balance outstanding on the real estate mortgage loan or, if separate policies are issued to insure separate tracts, the minimum amount insured by each policy shall bear the same ratio to the outstanding balance of the loan that the appraised value of the tract insured by that policy bears to the appraised value of all the real estate security for the loan; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Personnel meeting written standards of training and experience in real estate title matters prescribed by the counsel for the lending institution certified in writing that: 
</P>
<P>(A) They reviewed the final policy and that the policy complies with standards prescribed by such counsel; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The final policy insures that a first lien or its equivalent from a security standpoint has been obtained on the primary real estate security for the loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) A loan participation agreement to which a System bank or association is a participant and involving a loan originated by another lender shall constitute an obligation meeting the collateral requirements of § 615.5050(a). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1159, Jan. 12, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 3787, Jan. 27, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5090" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5090   Reduction in carrying value of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>When the bank or Farm Credit Administration determines that a loan did not conform to the requirements of the law or regulations at the time the loan was closed, such loan shall be withdrawn from collateral until the cause of ineligibility is remedied. When a loan has been classified as a loss loan, the bank shall adjust the collateral value of the loan accordingly. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Issuance of Bonds, Notes, Debentures and Similar Obligations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5100   Authority to issue.</HEAD>
<P>The Act authorizes each bank of the System, subject to the collateral requirements of section 4.3(c) of the Act, to issue:
</P>
<P>(a) Notes, bonds, debentures, or other similar obligations; 
</P>
<P>(b) Consolidated obligations, together with any or all banks organized and operating under the same title of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(c) Systemwide obligations, together with other banks of the System; and 
</P>
<P>(d) Investment bonds to the authorized purchasers subject to the limitations contained in the regulations set forth in subpart D. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1160, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5101" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5101   Requirements for issuance.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in section 4.2(e) of the Act, each debt obligation shall meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) Each debt obligation shall be issued through the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation acting for System banks. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each debt obligation shall be authorized by resolution of the board(s) of directors of the issuer(s). Each participating bank shall provide, in its authorizing resolution, for its primary liability on the portion of any consolidated or Systemwide obligation issued on its behalf and be jointly and severally liable for the payment of any additional sums as called upon by the Farm Credit Administration, in accordance with section 4.4 of the Act, in the event any bank primarily liable therefor is unable to pay.
</P>
<P>(c) Each issuance of debt obligations shall meet the collateral requirements set forth in subpart B. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each issuance of debt obligations shall be approved by the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury required by 31 U.S.C. 9108 shall be conducted by System representatives and shall have occurred prior to each debt issuance. 
</P>
<P>(2) Under policies adopted by the Board of the Farm Credit Administration, the Chairman will consult with the Secretary of the Treasury on a regular basis concerning the exercise by the System of the powers conferred under section 4.2 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1160, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5102" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5102   Issuance of debt obligations through the Funding Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The amount, maturities, rates or interest, terms and conditions of participation by the System banks in each issue of joint, consolidated or Systemwide obligations shall be determined by the Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 4.9 of the Act, acting for the banks of the System, subject to the approval of the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with § 615.5102. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Funding Corporation shall plan and develop funding guidelines, priorities, and objectives based upon the asset/liability management policies of the System institutions and the requirements of the market. The guidelines, priorities, and objectives shall be designed to ensure that the debt marketing responsibilities of the Funding Corporation will continue to provide flexibility for the banks and are fiscally sound.
</P>
<P>(c) For all debt issuances conducted by the Funding Corporation, the specific prior approval of the Farm Credit Administration must be obtained prior to the distribution and sale of the obligation pursuant to section 4.9 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1160, Jan. 12, 1989]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 615.5103-615.5104" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 615.5103-615.5104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5105" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5105   Consolidated Systemwide notes.</HEAD>
<P>Consolidated Systemwide notes authorized under § 615.5100(b) shall be subject to the following provisions unless otherwise approved by the Farm Credit Administration: 
</P>
<P>(a) Maturities shall be not less than five days nor more than 365 days. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prices shall be on a discount yield basis or as determined by the Funding Corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 32227, June 24, 1977, as amended at 47 FR 28609, July 1, 1982; 54 FR 1160, Jan. 12, 1989; 60 FR 20011, Apr. 24, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Other Funding</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5110" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5110   Authority to issue (other funding).</HEAD>
<P>Any Farm Credit bank may issue Farm Credit Investment Bonds directly to those eligible as set forth in § 615.5120(a). The bonds are subject to the limitations contained in the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation Q.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 47489, Oct. 16, 1978; 43 FR 55239, Nov. 27, 1978] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5120" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5120   Purchase eligibility requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations.</I> Eligibility to purchase Farm Credit Investment Bonds shall be limited to members and employees of the Farm Credit banks and associations, except any bank officers, directors, and employees who are involved in setting the term or rate, to retired employees who are beneficiaries of a pension or retirement program of the Farm Credit banks or associations, and to retired employees of the Farm Credit Administration. A member of a Farm Credit association or a bank for cooperatives need not be an active borrower to be eligible. A member of any Farm Credit institution may purchase investment bonds from any of the institutions in the district which offer the purchase program. Patrons, members, employees, or stockholder of other financing institutions discounting loans with a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank or of any legal entity which is a borrower from any Farm Credit institution as such are ineligible as they are not members of a Farm Credit institution. Stock or participation certificates shall not be sold merely to qualify a party for the purchase of Farm Credit Investment Bonds. For purposes of this section “member” means a stockholder or participation certificate holder who acquired stock or participation certificates to obtain a loan, to purchase stock for investment or to qualify for other services of the association or bank. A person who assumes a loan is not a member unless he becomes a stockholder or participation certificate holder in connection with that loan. Employee means a regular full-time employee of a Farm Credit bank or association. Retired employee means a retiree who is a direct beneficiary of a pension or retirement program of a Farm Credit bank or association or the Farm Credit Administration under civil service retirement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and ownership.</I> Farm Credit Investment Bonds are registered bonds issued in definitive or book-entry form depending on investor preference. The registration used must express the actual ownership of an interest in the bond and will be considered by the issuing institution as conclusive of such ownership and interest. No designation of an attorney, agent, or other representative to request or receive payment on behalf of the owner or coowner, nor any restriction on the right of the owner or coowner to receive payment of the bond or interest, except as provided in this section may be made in the registration or otherwise. Registrations requested in applications for the purchase shall be clear, accurate, complete, and conform with one of the registration provisions set forth in this section, and include the appropriate taxpayer identifying number. Registrations requested will be inscribed on the face of the bond if in definitive form or on the confirmation of investment if in book-entry form. The following provisions shall apply for registration of Farm Credit Investment Bonds: 
</P>
<P>(1) In all cases the member's name (whether a natural person, fiduciary, or legal entity) or employee's name must appear as owner of the bond. 
</P>
<P>(2) A bond may be registered in the name of a fiduciary only if the fiduciary is in fact the member. 
</P>
<P>(3) A member or employee may not use a form of registration (such as a gift to a minor, irrevocable trust, etc.) which would divest himself of ownership. However, a minor may be named as coowner or beneficiary. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a member is a natural person, a second natural person, member or nonmember, may be named as coowner or beneficiary. Coownership may not involve a fiduciary or private organization. 
</P>
<P>(5) In the coownership form the connective “or” shall serve the same purpose as “joint tenants with right of survivorship.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[43 FR 47489, Oct. 16, 1978; 43 FR 55239, Nov. 27, 1978, as amended at 56 FR 2675, Jan. 24, 1991; 61 FR 67187, Dec. 20, 1996] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5130   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Procedures relating to issuance, pricing, payment of interest, redemption, replacement of lost or stolen bonds and other matters shall be promulgated under the authority of this regulation as operating instructions to banks and associations. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11434, June 7, 1972]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Investment Management</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5131" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5131   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed securities (ABS)</I> mean investment securities that provide for ownership of a fractional undivided interest or collateral interests in specific assets of a trust that are sold and traded in the capital markets. For the purposes of this subpart, ABS exclude mortgage-backed securities that are defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Asset class</I> means a group of securities that exhibit similar characteristics and behave similarly in the marketplace. Asset classes include, but are not limited to, money market instruments, municipal securities, corporate bond securities, MBS, ABS, and any other asset class as determined by FCA.
</P>
<P><I>Country risk classification (CRC)</I> as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Diversified investment fund (DIF)</I> means an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940.
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the United States Government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Loans</I> are defined by § 621.2 of this chapter and they are calculated quarterly (as of the last day of March, June, September, and December) by using the average daily balance of loans during the quarter.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk to the financial condition of your institution because the value of your holdings may decline if interest rates or market prices change. Exposure to market risk is measured by assessing the effect of changing rates and prices on either the earnings or economic value of an individual instrument, a portfolio, or the entire institution.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed securities</I> (MBS) means securities that are either:
</P>
<P>(1) Pass-through securities or participation certificates that represent ownership of a fractional undivided interest in a specified pool of residential (excluding home equity loans), multifamily or commercial mortgages; or
</P>
<P>(2) A multiclass security (including collateralized mortgage obligations and real estate mortgage investment conduits) that is backed by a pool of residential, multifamily or commercial real estate mortgages, pass through MBS, or other multiclass MBSs.
</P>
<P><I>Obligor</I> means an issuer, guarantor, or other person or entity who has an obligation to pay a debt, including interest due, by a specified date or when payment is demanded.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person or entity that initiates a transaction by selling or pledging to a specially created issuing entity, such as a trust, a group of financial assets that the sponsor either has originated itself or has purchased.
</P>
<P><I>United States (U.S.) Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>You</I> means a Farm Credit bank, association, or service corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28895, May 28, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 51589, Aug. 31, 2005; 77 FR 66370, Nov. 5, 2012; 83 FR 27499, June 12, 2018; 85 FR 52253, Aug. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5132" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5132   Investment purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit bank may hold eligible investments, listed under § 615.5140, in an amount not to exceed 35 percent of its total outstanding loans, to comply with its liquidity requirements in § 615.5134, manage surplus short-term funds, and manage interest rate risk under § 615.5180. To comply with this calculation, the 30-day average daily balance of investments is divided by loans. Investments are calculated at amortized cost. Loans are calculated as defined in § 615.5131. For the purpose of this calculation, loans include accrued interest and do not include any allowance for credit loss adjustments. Compliance with the calculation is measured on the last day of every month.
</P>
<P>(b) The following investments may be excluded when calculating the amount of eligible investments held by the Farm Credit bank pursuant to § 615.5132(a):
</P>
<P>(1) Eligible investments listed under § 615.5140 that are pledged by a Farm Credit bank to meet margin requirements for derivative transactions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other investments FCA determines are appropriate for exclusion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66371, Nov. 5, 2012, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5133" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5133   Investment management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of board of directors.</I> The board of directors must adopt written policies for managing the institution's investment activities. The board must also ensure that management complies with these policies and that appropriate internal controls are in place to prevent loss. At least annually, the board, or a designated committee of the board, must review the sufficiency of these investment policies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investment policies—general requirements.</I> Investment policies must address the purposes and objectives of investments; risk tolerance; delegations of authority; internal controls; due diligence; and reporting requirements. The investment policies must fully address the extent of pre-purchase analysis that management must perform for various classes of investments. The investment policies must also address the means for reporting, and approvals needed for, exceptions to established policies. A Farm Credit bank's investment policy must address portfolio diversification and obligor limits under paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section. Investment policies must be sufficiently detailed, consistent with, and appropriate for the amounts, types, and risk characteristics of its investments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment policies—risk tolerance.</I> Investment policies must establish risk limits for eligible investments and for the entire investment portfolio. The investment policies must include concentration limits to ensure prudent diversification of credit, market, and, as applicable, liquidity risks in the investment portfolio. Risk limits must be based on all relevant factors, including the institution's objectives, capital position, earnings, and quality and reliability of risk management systems and must take into consideration the interest rate risk management program required by § 615.5180 or § 615.5182, as applicable. Investment policies must identify the types and quantity of investments that the institution will hold to achieve its objectives and control credit risk, market risk, and liquidity risk as applicable. Each association or service corporation that holds significant investments and each Farm Credit bank must establish risk limits in its investment policies, as applicable, for the following types of risk:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit risk.</I> Investment policies must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit quality standards.</I> Credit quality standards must be established for single or related obligors, sponsors, secured and unsecured exposures, and asset classes or obligations with similar characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Concentration limits.</I> Concentration limits must be established for single or related obligors, sponsors, geographical areas, industries, unsecured exposures, asset classes or obligations with similar characteristics.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Criteria for selecting brokers and, dealers.</I> Each institution must buy and sell eligible investments with more than one securities firm. The institution must define its criteria for selecting brokers and dealers used in buying and selling investments.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Collateral margin requirements on repurchase agreements.</I> To the extent the institution engages in repurchase agreements, it must regularly mark the collateral to fair market value and ensure appropriate controls are maintained over collateral held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market risk.</I> Investment policies must set market risk limits for specific types of investments and for the investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquidity risk</I>—(i) <I>Liquidity at Farm Credit banks.</I> Investment policies must describe the liquidity characteristics of eligible investments that the bank will hold to meet its liquidity needs and other institutional objectives.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity at associations.</I> Investment policies must describe the liquid characteristics of eligible investments that the association will hold.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operational risk.</I> Investment policies must address operational risks, including delegations of authority and internal controls under paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delegation of authority.</I> All delegations of authority to specified personnel or committees must state the extent of management's authority and responsibilities for investments.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal controls.</I> Each institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish appropriate internal controls to detect and prevent loss, fraud, embezzlement, conflicts of interest, and unauthorized investments.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain a separation of duties between personnel who supervise or execute investment transactions and personnel who supervise or engage in all other investment-related functions.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain records and management information systems that are appropriate for the level and complexity of the institution's investment activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Implement an effective internal audit program to review, at least annually, the investment management practices including internal controls, reporting processes, and compliance with FCA regulations. This annual review's scope must be appropriate for the size, risk and complexity of the investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Farm Credit bank portfolio diversification</I>—(1) <I>Well-diversified portfolio.</I> Subject to the exemptions set forth in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, each Farm Credit bank must maintain a well-diversified investment portfolio as set forth in paragraph (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Investment portfolio diversification requirements.</I> A well-diversified investment portfolio means that, at a minimum, investments are comprised of different asset classes, maturities, industries, geographic areas, and obligors. These diversification requirements apply to each individual security that the Farm Credit bank holds within a DIF. In addition, except as exempted by paragraph (f)(3) of this section, no more than 15 percent of the investment portfolio may be invested in any one asset class. Securities within each DIF count toward the appropriate asset class. Measurement of this diversification requirement must be based on the portfolio valued at amortized cost.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exemptions from investment portfolio diversification requirements.</I> The following investments are not subject to the 15-percent investment portfolio diversification requirement specified in paragraph (f)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Investments that are fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a U.S. Government agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Investments that are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a GSE, except that no more than 50 percent of the investment portfolio may be comprised of GSE MBS. Investments in Farmer Mac securities are governed by § 615.5174 and are not subject to this limitation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Money market instruments identified in § 615.5131.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Farm Credit bank obligor limit.</I> No more than 10 percent of a Farm Credit bank's total capital (Tier 1 and Tier 2) as defined by § 628.2 of this chapter may be invested in any one obligor. This obligor limit does not apply to investments in obligations that are fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by U.S. Government agencies or fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by GSEs. For a DIF, both the DIF itself and the entities obligated to pay the underlying debt are obligors.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Due diligence</I>—(1) <I>Pre-purchase analysis</I>—(i) <I>Eligibility and compliance with investment policies.</I> Before purchasing an investment, the institution must conduct sufficient due diligence to determine whether the investment is eligible under § 615.5140 and complies with its board's investment policies. The institution must document its assessment and retain any supporting information used in that assessment. The institution may hold an investment that does not comply with its investment policies only with the prior approval of its board.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Valuation.</I> Prior to purchase, the institution must verify the fair market value of the investment (unless it is a new issue) with a source that is independent of the broker, dealer, counterparty or other intermediary to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Risk assessment.</I> At purchase, the institution must at a minimum include an evaluation of the credit risk (including country risk when applicable), liquidity risk, market risk, interest rate risk, and underlying collateral of the investment, as applicable. This assessment must be commensurate with the complexity and type of the investment. The institution must also perform stress testing on any structured investment that has uncertain cash flows, including all MBS and ABS, before purchase. The stress test must be commensurate with the type and complexity of the investment and must enable the institution to determine that the investment does not expose its capital, earnings, or liquidity if applicable, to risks that are greater than those specified in its investment policies. The stress testing must comply with the requirements in paragraph (h)(4)(ii) of this section. The institution must document and retain its risk assessment and stress tests conducted on investments purchased.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ongoing value determination.</I> At least monthly, the institution must determine the fair market value of each investment in its portfolio and the fair market value of its whole investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ongoing analysis of credit risk.</I> The institution must establish and maintain processes to monitor and evaluate changes in the credit quality of each investment in its portfolio and in its whole investment portfolio on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quarterly stress testing.</I> (i) The institution must stress test its entire investment portfolio, including stress tests of each investment individually and the whole portfolio, at the end of each quarter. The stress tests must enable the institution to determine that its investment securities, both individually and on a portfolio-wide basis, do not expose its capital, earnings, or liquidity if applicable, to risks that exceed the risk tolerance specified in its investment policies. If the institution's portfolio risk exceeds its investment policy limits, the institution must develop a plan to comply with those limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution's stress tests must be defined in a board-approved policy and must include defined parameters for the security types purchased. The stress tests must be comprehensive and appropriate for the institution's risk profile. At a minimum, the stress tests must be able to measure the price sensitivity of investments over a range of possible interest rates and yield curve scenarios. The stress test methodology must be appropriate for the complexity, structure, and cash flows of the investments in the institution's portfolio. The institution must rely to the maximum extent practicable on verifiable information to support all its stress test assumptions, including prepayment and interest rate volatility assumptions. The institution must document the basis for all assumptions used to evaluate the security and its underlying collateral. The institution must also document all subsequent changes in its assumptions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Presale value verification.</I> Before the institution sells an investment, it must verify its fair market value with an independent source not connected with the sale transaction.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reports to the board of directors.</I> At least quarterly, the institution's management must report on the following to its board of directors or a designated board committee:
</P>
<P>(1) Plans and strategies for achieving the board's objectives for the investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the investment portfolio effectively achieves the board's objectives;
</P>
<P>(3) The current composition, quality, and the risk and liquidity profiles of the investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(4) The performance of each class of investments and the entire investment portfolio, including all gains and losses realized during the quarter on individual investments that the institution sold before maturity and why they were liquidated;
</P>
<P>(5) Potential risk exposure to changes in market interest rates as identified through quarterly stress testing and any other factors that may affect the value of its investment holdings;
</P>
<P>(6) How investments affect its capital, earnings, and overall financial condition;
</P>
<P>(7) Any deviations from the board's policies (must be specifically identified);
</P>
<P>(8) The status and performance of each investment described in § 615.5143(a) and (b) or that does not comply with the institution's investment policies; including the expected effect of these investments on its capital, earnings, liquidity, as applicable, and collateral position; and
</P>
<P>(9) The terms and status of any required divestiture plan or risk reduction plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27499, June 12, 2018; 83 FR 30833, July 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5134" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5134   Liquidity reserve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidity policy</I>—(1) <I>Board responsibility.</I> The board of each Farm Credit bank must adopt a written liquidity policy. The liquidity policy must be compatible with the investment management policies that the bank's board adopts pursuant to § 615.5133 of this part. At least once every year, the bank's board must review its liquidity policy, assess the sufficiency of its liquidity policy, and make any revisions it deems necessary. The board of each Farm Credit bank must ensure that adequate internal controls are in place so that management complies with and carries out this liquidity policy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Policy content.</I> At a minimum, the liquidity policy of each Farm Credit bank must address:
</P>
<P>(i) The purpose and objectives of the liquidity reserve;
</P>
<P>(ii) Diversification requirements for the liquidity reserve portfolio;
</P>
<P>(iii) The target amount of days of liquidity that the bank needs based on its business model and risk profile;
</P>
<P>(iv) Delegations of authority pertaining to the liquidity reserve; and
</P>
<P>(v) Reporting requirements, which at a minimum must require management to report to the board at least once every quarter about compliance with the bank's liquidity policy and the performance of the liquidity reserve portfolio. However, management must report any deviation from the bank's liquidity policy, or failure to meet the board's liquidity targets to the board before the end of the quarter if such deviation or failure has the potential to cause material loss to the bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidity reserve requirement.</I> Each Farm Credit bank must maintain at all times a liquidity reserve sufficient to fund at least 90 days of the principal portion of maturing obligations and other borrowings of the bank. At a minimum, each Farm Credit Bank must hold instruments in its liquidity reserve listed and discounted in the Table below that are sufficient to cover:
</P>
<P>(1) Days 1 through 15 only with Level 1 instruments;
</P>
<P>(2) Days 16 through 30 only with Level 1 and Level 2 instruments; and
</P>
<P>(3) Days 31 through 90 with Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3 instruments.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquidity level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instruments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (multiply by)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Cash, including cash due from traded but not yet settled debt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Overnight money market investment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Obligations of U.S. Government agencies with a final remaining maturity of 3 years or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">97 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• GSE senior debt securities that mature within 60 days, excluding securities issued by the Farm Credit System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of Level 1 instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Obligations of U.S. Government agencies with a final remaining maturity of more than 3 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">97 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• MBS that are fully guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency as to the timely repayment of principal and interest</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of Levels 1 and 2 instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• GSE senior debt securities with maturities exceeding 60 days, excluding senior debt securities of the Farm Credit System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">93 percent for all Level 3 instruments
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• MBS that are fully guaranteed by a GSE as to the timely repayment of principal and interest
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Money market instruments maturing within 90 days
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of levels 1, 2, and 3 instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Unencumbered.</I> All investments that a Farm Credit bank holds in its liquidity reserve and supplemental liquidity buffer in accordance with this section must be unencumbered. For the purpose of this section, an investment is unencumbered if it is free of lien, and it is not explicitly or implicitly pledged to secure, collateralize, or enhance the credit of any transaction. Additionally, an unencumbered investment held in the liquidity reserve cannot be used as a hedge against interest rate risk if liquidation of that particular investment would expose the bank to a material risk of loss.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Marketable.</I> All investments that a Farm Credit bank holds in its liquidity reserve in accordance with this section must be readily marketable. For the purposes of this section, an investment is marketable if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Can be easily and quickly converted into cash with little or no loss in value;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits low credit and market risks;
</P>
<P>(3) Has ease and certainty of valuation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Except for money market instruments, can be easily bought and sold in active and sizeable markets without significantly affecting prices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental liquidity buffer.</I> Each Farm Credit bank must hold supplemental liquid assets in excess of the 90-day minimum liquidity reserve. The supplemental liquidity buffer must be comprised of cash and qualified eligible investments authorized by § 615.5140 of this part. A Farm Credit bank must be able to liquidate any qualified eligible investment in its supplemental liquidity buffer within the liquidity policy timeframe established in the bank's liquidity policy at no less than 80 percent of its book value. A Farm Credit bank must remove from its supplemental liquidity buffer any investment that has, at any time, a market value that is less than 80 percent of its book value. Each investment in the supplemental liquidity buffer that has a market value of at least 80 percent of its book value, but does not qualify for Levels 1, 2, or 3 of the liquidity reserve, must be discounted to (multiplied by) 90 percent of its market value. The amount of supplemental liquidity that each Farm Credit bank holds, at minimum, must meet the requirements of its board's liquidity policy, provide excess liquidity beyond the days covered by the liquidity reserve, and satisfy the applicable portions of the bank's CFP in accordance with paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Contingency Funding Plan (CFP).</I> The board of each Farm Credit bank must adopt a CFP to ensure sources of liquidity are sufficient to fund normal operations under a variety of stress events. Such stress events include, but are not limited to market disruptions, rapid increase in loan demand, unexpected draws on unfunded commitments, difficulties in renewing or replacing funding with desired terms and structures, requirements to pledge collateral with counterparties, and reduced market access. Each Farm Credit bank must maintain an adequate level of unencumbered and marketable assets in its liquidity reserve that can be converted into cash to meet its net liquidity needs for 30 days based on estimated cash inflows and outflows under an acute stress scenario. The board of directors must review and approve the CFP at least once every year and make adjustments to reflect changes in the bank's risk profile and market conditions. The CFP must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be customized to the financial condition and liquidity risk profile of the bank and the board's liquidity risk tolerance policy.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify funding alternatives that the Farm Credit bank can implement whenever access to funding is impeded, which must include, at a minimum, arrangements for pledging collateral to secure funding and possible initiatives to raise additional capital.
</P>
<P>(3) Require periodic stress testing that analyzes the possible effects on the bank's cash inflows and outflows, liquidity position, profitability and solvency under a variety of stress scenarios.
</P>
<P>(4) Establish a process for managing events that imperil the bank's liquidity, and assign appropriate personnel and implement executable action plans that carry out the CFP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 23455, Apr. 18, 2013; 78 FR 26701, May 8, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 27501, June 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5136" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5136   Emergencies impeding normal access of Farm Credit banks to capital markets.</HEAD>
<P>An emergency shall be deemed to exist whenever a financial, economic, agricultural, national defense, or other crisis could impede the normal access of Farm Credit banks to the capital markets. Whenever the Farm Credit Administration determines, after consultation with the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation to the extent practicable, that such an emergency exists, the Farm Credit Administration Board may, in its sole discretion, adopt a resolution that:
</P>
<P>(a) Modifies the amount, qualities, and types of eligible investments that Farm Credit banks are authorized to hold pursuant to § 615.5132 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(b) Modifies or waives the liquidity requirement(s) in § 615.5134 of this subpart; and/or
</P>
<P>(c) Authorizes other actions as deemed appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66372, Nov. 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5140" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5140   Eligible investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Farm Credit banks</I>—(1) <I>Investment eligibility criteria.</I> A Farm Credit bank may purchase an investment only if it satisfies the following investment eligibility criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The investment must be purchased and held for one or more investment purposes authorized in § 615.5132.
</P>
<P>(ii) The investment must be one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A non-convertible senior debt security;
</P>
<P>(B) A money market instrument with a maturity of 1 year or less;
</P>
<P>(C) A portion of an MBS or ABS that is fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a U.S. Government agency;
</P>
<P>(D) A portion of an MBS or ABS that is fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a GSE;
</P>
<P>(E) The senior-most position of an MBS or ABS that a U.S. Government agency does not fully guarantee as to the timely payment of principal and interest or a GSE does not fully and explicitly guarantee as to the timely payment of principal and interest, provided that the MBS satisfies the definition of “mortgage related security” in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41);
</P>
<P>(F) An obligation of an international or multilateral development bank in which the U.S. is a voting member; or
</P>
<P>(G) Shares of a diversified investment fund registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940, if its portfolio consists solely of securities that satisfy paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) of this section, or are eligible under § 615.5174. The investment company's risk and return objectives and use of derivatives must be consistent with the Farm Credit bank's investment policies.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least one obligor of the investment must have very strong capacity to meet its financial commitment for the expected life of the investment. If any obligor whose capacity to meet its financial commitment is being relied upon to satisfy this requirement is located outside the U.S., either:
</P>
<P>(A) That obligor's sovereign host country must have the highest or second-highest consensus Country Risk Classification (0 or 1) as published by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) or be an OECD member that is unrated; or
</P>
<P>(B) The investment must be fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a U.S. Government agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) The investment must exhibit low credit risk and other risk characteristics consistent with the purpose or purposes for which it is held.
</P>
<P>(v) The investment must be denominated in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resecuritizations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, System banks may <I>not</I> purchase resecuritizations (except when both principal and interest are fully and explicitly guaranteed by the U.S. Government or a GSE) without approval under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Farm Credit associations</I>—(1) <I>Risk management investments.</I> Each Farm Credit System association, with the approval of its funding bank, may purchase and hold investments to manage risks. Each association must identify and evaluate how the investments that it purchases contributes to management of its risks. Only securities that are issued by, or are unconditionally guaranteed or insured as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the United States Government or its agencies are investments that associations may acquire for risk management purposes under this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secondary market Government-guaranteed loans.</I> In addition to investing in the securities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, each Farm Credit System association may also manage risk by holding those portions of loans that:
</P>
<P>(i) Lenders, which are not Farm Credit System institutions, originate and then sell in the secondary market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The United States Department of Agriculture fully and unconditionally guarantees or insures as to both principal and interest.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk management requirements.</I> Each association that purchases investments pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section must document how its investment activities contribute to managing risks as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Such documentation must address and evidence that the association:
</P>
<P>(i) Complies with § 615.5133(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (h), and (i). These investment management processes must be appropriate for the size, risk and complexity of the association's investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(ii) Complies with § 615.5182 for investments that exhibit interest rate risk that could lead to significant declines in net income or in the market value of capital.
</P>
<P>(iii) Assesses how these investments impact the association's overall credit risk profile and how these investment purchases aid in diversifying, hedging, or mitigating overall credit risk.
</P>
<P>(iv) Considers and evaluates any other relevant factors unique to the association or to the nature of the investments that could affect the association's overall risk-bearing capacity, including but not limited to management experience and capability to understand and manage unique risks in investments purchased.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Association investment portfolio limit.</I> The total amount of investments purchased and held under this section must not exceed 10 percent of the association's total outstanding loans. In computing this limit:
</P>
<P>(i) Include in the numerator the daily (point-in-time) balance of all investments purchased and held under this section. Unless otherwise directed by FCA, associations must use the investment balance on the last business day of the quarter when calculating the numerator of the portfolio limit under this paragraph. For this calculation, value investments at amortized cost and accrued interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) Include in the denominator the 90-day average daily balance of total outstanding loans as defined in § 615.5131. For this calculation, value loans at amortized cost and include accrued interest. The denominator does not include any allowance for credit loss adjustments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Exclude from the numerator the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Equity investments in unincorporated business entities authorized in § 611.1150 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(B) Equity investments in Rural Business Investment Companies organized under 7 U.S.C. 2009cc <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(C) Equity investments in Class B Farmer Mac stock authorized in § 615.5173; and
</P>
<P>(D) Farmer Mac agricultural mortgage-backed securities under § 615.5174.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Funding bank supervision of association investments.</I> (i) The association must not purchase and hold investments without the funding bank's prior approval. The bank must review the association's prior approval requests and explain in writing its reasons for approving or denying the request. The prior approval is required before the association engages in investment activities and with any significant change(s) in investment strategy.
</P>
<P>(ii) In deciding whether to approve an association's request to purchase and hold investments, the bank must evaluate and document that the association:
</P>
<P>(A) Has adequate policies, procedures, and controls, in place for its investment accounting and reporting;
</P>
<P>(B) Has capable staff with the necessary expertise to manage the risks in investments; and
</P>
<P>(C) Complies with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The bank must review annually the investment portfolio of every association that it funds. This annual review must evaluate whether the association's investments manage risks over time, and the continued adequacy of the associations' risk management practices.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transition for association investments.</I> (i) An association is not required to divest of any investment held on January 1, 2019 that was authorized under § 615.5140 as contained in 12 CFR part 615 revised as of January 1, 2018 or otherwise by official written FCA action that allowed the association to continue to hold such investment. Once such investment matures, the association must not renew it unless the investment is authorized pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) No association is required to divest of investments if a decline in total outstanding loans causes it to exceed the portfolio limit in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. However, the institution must not purchase new investments unless, after they are purchased, the total amount of investments held falls within the portfolio limit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> FCA may, on a case-by-case basis, determine that a particular investment you are holding poses inappropriate risk, notwithstanding that it satisfies the investment eligibility criteria. If so, we will notify you as to the proper treatment of the investment.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other investments approved by FCA.</I> You may purchase and hold investments that we approve. Your request for our approval must explain the risk characteristics of the investment and your purpose and objectives for making the investment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27502, June 12, 2018; 83 FR 30833, July 2, 2018, as amended at 85 FR 62949, Oct. 6, 2020; 85 FR 70955, Nov. 6, 2020; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5142" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5142   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5143" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5143   Management of ineligible investments and reservation of authority to require divestiture.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investments ineligible when purchased.</I> Investments that do not satisfy the eligibility criteria set forth in § 615.5140(a) or (b) or investments FCA had not approved under § 615.5140(e), as applicable, at the time of purchase are ineligible. System institutions must not purchase ineligible investments. If the institution determines that it has purchased an ineligible investment, it must notify FCA within 15 calendar days after the determination. The institution must divest of the investment no later than 60 calendar days after determining that the investment is ineligible unless FCA approves, in writing, a plan that authorizes the institution to divest the investment over a longer period. Until the institution divests of the ineligible investment:
</P>
<P>(1) A Farm Credit bank must not use the ineligible investment to satisfy its liquidity requirement(s) under § 615.5134;
</P>
<P>(2) The institution must include the ineligible investment in the portfolio limit calculation defined in § 615.5132 or § 615.5140(b)(4), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(3) A Farm Credit bank must exclude the ineligible investment as collateral under § 615.5050.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments that no longer satisfy investment eligibility criteria.</I> If the institution determines that an investment (that satisfied the eligibility criteria set forth in § 615.5140(a) or (b), as applicable, when purchased) no longer satisfies the criteria, or that an investment that FCA approved pursuant to § 615.5140(e), no longer satisfies the conditions of approval, the institution may continue to hold the investment, subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution must notify FCA within 15 calendar days after such determination;
</P>
<P>(2) A Farm Credit bank must not use the ineligible investment to satisfy its liquidity requirement(s) under § 615.5134;
</P>
<P>(3) The institution must include the ineligible investment in the portfolio limit calculation defined in § 615.5132 or § 615.5140(b)(4), as applicable;
</P>
<P>(4) A Farm Credit bank may continue to include the investment as collateral under § 615.5050 at the lower of cost or market value; and
</P>
<P>(5) The institution must develop a plan to reduce the investment's risk to the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> FCA retains the authority to require the institution to divest of any investment at any time for failure to comply with § 615.5132(a) or § 615.5140(a), (b), or (e), or for safety and soundness reasons. The timeframe set by FCA will consider the expected loss on the transaction (or transactions) and the effect on the institution's financial condition and performance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 27503, June 12, 2018; 83 FR 30833, July 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5144" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5144   Banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks.</HEAD>
<P>As may be authorized by the banks for cooperatives' or agricultural credit banks boards of directors ownership investment may be made in foreign business entities solely for the purpose of obtaining credit information and other services needed to facilitate transactions which may be financed under section 3.7(b) of the Farm Credit Act Amendments of 1980. Such an investment shall not exceed the level required to access credit and other services of the entity and shall not be made for earnings purposes. The business entity shall be deemed to be principally engaged in providing credit information to and performing such servicing functions for its members where such activities constitute a materially important line of business to its members. Also, investments must be made by a bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank for its own account and not on behalf of its members. The bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank shall use only those services provided by the business entity as necessary to facilitate transactions authorized by section 3.7(b) of the Farm Credit Act Amendments of 1980. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[46 FR 55088, Nov. 6, 1981, as amended at 54 FR 1151, Jan. 12, 1989; 54 FR 50736, Dec. 11, 1989; 61 FR 67187, Dec. 20, 1996. Redesignated at 64 FR 28899, May 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Property, Transfers of Capital, and Other Investments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5170" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5170   Real and personal property.</HEAD>
<P>Real estate and personal property may be acquired, held, or disposed of by any Farm Credit institution for the necessary and normal operations of its business. The purchase, lease, or construction of office quarters shall be limited to facilities reasonably necessary to meet the foreseeable requirements of the institution. Property shall not be acquired if it involves, or appears to involve, a bank or association in the real estate or other unrelated business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 48554, Nov. 26, 1985. Redesignated at 58 FR 63056, Nov. 30, 1993, and amended at 60 FR 20011, Apr. 24, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5171" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5171   Transfer of capital from banks to associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions for this section</I>—(1) <I>Transfer of capital</I> means any payment or forbearance by a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank (collectively, bank) to an affiliated association, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The purchase of nonvoting stock or participation certificates;
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment of cash;
</P>
<P>(iii) Debt forgiveness or reduction;
</P>
<P>(iv) Interest rate concessions or interest-free loans;
</P>
<P>(v) The transfer of loans at other than fair market value;
</P>
<P>(vi) The reduction or elimination of standard loan servicing or other fees; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The assumption of operating or other expenses, such as legal fees or insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preferential transfer of capital</I> means a transfer of capital that is not available to all similarly situated affiliated associations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonroutine transfer of capital</I> means a transfer of capital that is not available in the ordinary course of business.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Considerations for preferential or nonroutine transfers of capital.</I> Before authorizing a preferential or nonroutine transfer of capital, a bank board of directors must take into account and document whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The transfer of capital is in the best interests of all of the shareholders;
</P>
<P>(2) The bank will be able to achieve its capital adequacy and business plan goals after making the transfer of capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) The transfer of capital is the “least cost” alternative available and will enable the association to maintain sound, adequate, and constructive service to borrowers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification requirements.</I> At least 30 days before making a preferential or nonroutine transfer of capital to an affiliated association, banks must provide shareholders and the Chief Examiner of the Farm Credit Administration with a description of the transfer and the documentation required by paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 49961, Sept. 15, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5172" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5172   Production credit association and agricultural credit association investment in farmers' notes given to cooperatives and dealers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with policies prescribed by the board of directors of the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank and each production credit association and agricultural credit association (hereinafter association(s)), such association(s) may invest in notes, conditional sales contracts, and other similar obligations given to cooperatives and private dealers by farmers and ranchers eligible to borrow from such associations.
</P>
<P>(b) Such notes and other obligations evidencing purchases of farm machinery, supplies, equipment, home appliances, and other items of a capital nature handled by cooperatives and private dealers will be eligible for purchase as investments. 
</P>
<P>(c) The total amount which an association may invest in such obligations at any one time shall not exceed 15 percent of the balance of its loans outstanding at the close of the association's preceding fiscal year. In addition, the total amount which an association may invest in such obligations that are originated by any one cooperative or private dealer, at any one time, shall not exceed 50 percent of association capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(d) All notes in which an association invests shall be endorsed with full recourse against the cooperative or dealer. The association shall contact each notemaker who meets the association's credit standards to encourage him to become a borrower. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 1158, Jan. 12, 1989, as amended at 55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990; 55 FR 38313, Sept. 18, 1990. Redesignated at 58 FR 63056, Nov. 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5173" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5173   Stock of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>Banks and associations of the Farm Credit System are authorized to purchase and hold Class B common stock of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 8.4 of the Farm Credit Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 63058, Nov. 30, 1993]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5174" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5174   Farmer Mac securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General authority.</I> You may purchase and hold mortgage securities that are issued or guaranteed as to both principal and interest by the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac securities). You may purchase and hold Farmer Mac securities for the purposes of managing credit and interest rate risks, and furthering your mission to finance agriculture. The total value of your Farmer Mac securities cannot exceed your total outstanding loans, as defined by § 615.5131.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board and management responsibilities.</I> Your board of directors must adopt written policies that will govern your investments in Farmer Mac securities. All delegations of authority to specified personnel or committees must state the extent of management's authority and responsibilities for managing your investments in Farmer Mac securities. The board of directors must also ensure that appropriate internal controls are in place to prevent loss, in accordance with § 615.5133(e). Management must submit quarterly reports to the board of directors on the performance of all investments in Farmer Mac securities. Annually, your board of directors must review these policies and the performance of your Farmer Mac securities and make any changes that are needed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policies.</I> Your board of directors must establish investment policies for Farmer Mac securities that include your:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Objectives</I> for holding Farmer Mac securities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit risk</I> parameters including:
</P>
<P>(i) The quantities and types of Farmer Mac mortgage securities that are collateralized by qualified agricultural mortgages, rural home loans, and loans guaranteed by the Farm Service Agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) Product and geographic diversification for the loans that underlie the security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Minimum pool size, minimum number of loans in each pool, and maximum allowable premiums or discounts on these securities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquidity risk</I> tolerance and the liquidity characteristics of Farmer Mac securities that are suitable to meet your institutional objectives. A bank may not include Farmer Mac mortgage securities in the liquidity reserve maintained to comply with § 615.5134.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Market risk</I> limits based on the effects that the Farmer Mac securities have on your capital and earnings.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stress test.</I> You must perform stress tests, in accordance with § 615.5133(h)(1)(iii) and (h)(4), on mortgage securities, issued or guaranteed by Farmer Mac, that are backed by loans that you did not originate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>You.</I> Means a Farm Credit bank, association, or service corporation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28899, May 28, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 51590, Aug. 31, 2005; 77 FR 66374, Nov. 5, 2012; 83 FR 27503, June 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5175" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5175   Investments in Farm Credit System institution preferred stock.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided for in § 615.5171, Farm Credit banks, associations and service corporations may only purchase preferred stock issued by another Farm Credit System institution, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, with the written prior approval of the Farm Credit Administration. The request for approval should explain the terms and risk characteristics of the investment and the purpose and objectives for making the investment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 53908, Sept. 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Risk Assessment and Management</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 39225, July 22, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5180" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5180   Bank interest rate risk management program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each Farm Credit bank must develop, implement, and effectively oversee an interest rate risk management program tailored to the needs of the institution. The program must establish a risk management process that effectively identifies, measures, monitors, and controls interest rate risk. The board of directors of each Farm Credit bank must be knowledgeable of the nature and level of interest rate risk taken by the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) Senior management is responsible for ensuring that interest rate risk is properly managed on both a long-range and a day-to-day basis.
</P>
<P>(c) The board of directors of each Farm Credit bank must adopt an interest rate risk management section of an asset/liability management policy that establishes interest rate risk exposure limits as well as the criteria to determine compliance with these limits. At a minimum, the interest rate risk management section must establish policies and procedures for the bank to:
</P>
<P>(1) Address the purpose and objectives of interest rate risk management;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify and analyze the causes of risks within its existing balance sheet structure;
</P>
<P>(3) Measure the potential effect of these risks on projected earnings and market values by conducting interest rate shock tests and simulations of multiple economic scenarios at least on a quarterly basis and by considering the effect of investments on interest rate risk based on the results of the stress testing required under § 615.5133(h)(4);
</P>
<P>(4) Describe and implement actions needed to obtain its desired risk management objectives;
</P>
<P>(5) Identify exception parameters and approvals needed for any exceptions to the requirements of the board's policies;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe delegations of authority;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe reporting requirements, including exceptions to limits contained in the board's policies;
</P>
<P>(8) Consider the nature and purpose of derivative contracts and establish counterparty risk thresholds and limits for derivatives.
</P>
<P>(d) At least quarterly, management of each Farm Credit bank must report to its board of directors, or a designated committee of the board, describing the nature and level of interest rate risk exposure. Any deviations from the board's policy on interest rate risk must be specifically identified in the report and approved by the board or designated committee of the board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66374, Nov. 5, 2012, as amended at 83 FR 27503, June 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5182" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5182   Interest rate risk management by associations and other Farm Credit System institutions other than banks.</HEAD>
<P>Any association or other Farm Credit System institution other than Farm Credit banks, excluding the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, with interest rate risk that could lead to significant declines in net income or in the market value of capital must comply with the requirements of § 615.5180. The interest rate risk management program required under § 615.5180 must be commensurate with the level of interest rate risk of the institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66375, Nov. 5, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Capital Adequacy</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 39247, Oct. 6, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5200   Capital planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board of Directors of each System institution shall determine the amount of regulatory capital needed to assure the System institution's continued financial viability and to provide for growth necessary to meet the needs of its borrowers. The minimum capital standards specified in this part and part 628 of this chapter are not meant to be adopted as the optimal capital level in the System institution's capital adequacy plan. Rather, the standards are intended to serve as minimum levels of capital that each System institution must maintain to protect against the credit and other general risks inherent in its operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Board of Directors shall establish, adopt, and maintain a formal written capital adequacy plan as a part of the financial plan required by § 618.8440 of this chapter. The plan shall include the capital targets that are necessary to achieve the System institution's capital adequacy goals as well as the minimum permanent capital, common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital, tier 1 capital, total capital, and tier 1 leverage ratios (including the unallocated retained earnings (URE) and URE equivalents minimum) standards. The plan shall expressly acknowledge the continuing and binding effect of all board resolutions adopted in accordance with § 628.20(b)(1)(xiv), (c)(1)(xiv), and (d)(1)(xi) of this chapter, and with § 628.21 of this chapter. The plan shall address any projected dividend payments, patronage payments, equity retirements, or other action that may decrease the System institution's capital or the components thereof for which minimum amounts are required by this part and part 628 of this chapter. The plan shall set forth the circumstances and minimum timeframes in which equities may be redeemed or revolved consistent with the System institution's applicable bylaws or board of directors' resolutions.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to factors that must be considered in meeting the minimum standards, the board of directors shall also consider at least the following factors in developing the capital adequacy plan:
</P>
<P>(1) Capability of management and the board of directors (the assessment of which may be a part of the assessments required in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii) and (b)(7)(i) of § 618.8440 of this chapter);
</P>
<P>(2) Quality of operating policies, procedures, and internal controls;
</P>
<P>(3) Quality and quantity of earnings;
</P>
<P>(4) Asset quality and the adequacy of the allowance for credit losses to absorb potential loss within the loan and lease portfolios;
</P>
<P>(5) Sufficiency of liquid funds;
</P>
<P>(6) Needs of a System institution's customer base; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other risk-oriented activities, such as funding and interest rate risks, potential obligations under joint and several liability, contingent and off-balance-sheet liabilities or other conditions warranting additional capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 54356, Oct. 1, 2021, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5201" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5201   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Allocated investment</I> means earnings allocated but not paid in cash by a System bank to an association or other recipient.
</P>
<P><I>Deferred tax assets (DTAs)</I> means an amount of income taxes refundable or recoverable in future years as a result of temporary differences and net operating loss or tax credit carryforwards that exist at the reporting date. There are three types of DTAs and they arise from:
</P>
<P>(1) A temporary difference that a System institution could realize through a net loss carryback;
</P>
<P>(2) A temporary difference that a System institution could not realize through net loss carryback; and
</P>
<P>(3) An operating loss and tax credit carryforward.
</P>
<P><I>Nonagreeing association</I> means an association that does not have an allotment agreement in effect with a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank pursuant to § 615.5207(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Permanent capital,</I> subject to adjustments as described in § 615.5207, includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Current year earnings;
</P>
<P>(2) Allocated and unallocated earnings (which, in the case of earnings allocated in any form by a System bank to any association or other recipient and retained by the bank, must be considered, in whole or in part, permanent capital of the bank or of any such association or other recipient as provided under an agreement between the bank and each such association or other recipient);
</P>
<P>(3) All surplus;
</P>
<P>(4) Stock issued by a System institution, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Stock that may be retired by the holder of the stock on repayment of the holder's loan, or otherwise at the option or request of the holder;
</P>
<P>(ii) Stock that is protected under section 4.9A of the Act or is otherwise not at risk;
</P>
<P>(iii) Farm Credit Bank equities required to be purchased by Federal land bank associations in connection with stock issued to borrowers that is protected under section 4.9A of the Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Capital subject to revolvement, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The bylaws of the System institution clearly provide that there is no express or implied right for such capital to be retired at the end of the revolvement cycle or at any other time; and
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution clearly states in the notice of allocation that such capital may only be retired at the sole discretion of the board of directors in accordance with statutory and regulatory requirements and that the institution does not grant any express or implied right to have such capital retired at the end of the revolvement cycle or at any other time;
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) Financial assistance provided by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation that the FCA determines appropriate to be considered permanent capital; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other debt or equity instruments or other accounts the FCA has determined are appropriate to be considered permanent capital. The FCA may permit one or more System institutions to include all or a portion of such instrument, entry, or account as permanent capital, permanently or on a temporary basis, for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Preferred stock</I> means stock that is permanent capital and has dividend and/or liquidation preference over common stock.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-adjusted asset base</I> means “standardized total risk-weighted assets” as defined in § 628.2 of this chapter, adjusted in accordance with § 615.5207 and excluding the deduction in paragraph (2) of that definition for the amount of the System institution's adjusted allowance for credit losses that is not included in tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Stock</I> means stock and participation certificates.
</P>
<P><I>System bank</I> means a Farm Credit bank as defined in § 619.9140 of this chapter, which includes Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, and banks for cooperatives.
</P>
<P><I>System institution</I> means a System bank, an association of the Farm Credit System, and their successors, and any other institution chartered by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) that the FCA determines should be considered a System institution for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Term preferred stock</I> means preferred stock with an original maturity of at least 5 years and on which, if cumulative, the board of directors has the option to defer dividends, provided that, at the beginning of each of the last 5 years of the term of the stock, the amount that is eligible to be counted as permanent capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the stock (net of redemptions).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49773, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54356, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5205" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5205   Minimum permanent capital standards.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution shall at all times maintain permanent capital at a level of at least 7 percent of its risk-adjusted asset base.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4446, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5206" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5206   Permanent capital ratio computation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The System institution's permanent capital ratio is determined on the basis of the financial statements of the System institution prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(b) The System institution's asset base and permanent capital are computed using average daily balances for the most recent 3 months.
</P>
<P>(c) The System institution's permanent capital ratio is calculated by dividing the System institution's permanent capital, adjusted in accordance with § 615.5207 (the numerator), by the risk-adjusted asset base (the denominator) as defined in § 615.5201, to derive a ratio expressed as a percentage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49774, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5207" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5207   Capital adjustments and associated reductions to assets.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of computing the System institution's permanent capital ratio, the following adjustments must be made prior to assigning assets to risk-weight categories and computing the ratio:
</P>
<P>(a) Where two System institutions have stock investments in each other, such reciprocal holdings must be eliminated to the extent of the offset. If the investments are equal in amount, each System institution must deduct from its assets and its permanent capital an amount equal to the investment. If the investments are not equal in amount, each System institution must deduct from its permanent capital and its assets an amount equal to the smaller investment. The elimination of reciprocal holdings required by this paragraph must be made prior to making the other adjustments required by this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Where an association has an equity investment in a System bank, the double counting of capital is eliminated in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) For a purchased investment, each association must deduct its investment in a System bank from its permanent capital. Each System bank will consider all purchased stock investments as its permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(2) For an allocated investment, each System bank and each of its affiliated associations may enter into an agreement that specifies, for computing permanent capital only, a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the association's allocated investment between the bank and the association. Section 615.5208 provides conditions for allotment agreements or defines allotments in the absence of such agreements.
</P>
<P>(c) A Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank and a recipient, other than an affiliated association, of allocated earnings from such bank may enter into an agreement specifying a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the recipient's allocated earnings in the bank between the bank and the recipient. Such agreement must comply with § 615.5208, except that, in the absence of an agreement, the allocated investment must be allotted 100 percent to the allocating bank and 0 percent to the recipient. All equities of the bank that are purchased by a recipient are considered as permanent capital of the issuing bank.
</P>
<P>(d) A bank for cooperatives and a recipient of allocated earnings from such bank may enter into an agreement specifying a dollar amount and/or percentage allotment of the recipient's allocated earnings in the bank between the bank and the recipient. Such agreement must comply with § 615.5208, except that, in the absence of an agreement, the allocated investment must be allotted 100 percent to the allocating bank and 0 percent to the recipient. All equities of a bank that are purchased by a recipient shall be considered as permanent capital of the issuing bank.
</P>
<P>(e) Where a System institution has an equity investment in another System institution to capitalize a loan participation interest, the investing System institution must deduct from its permanent capital an amount equal to its investment in the participating System institution.
</P>
<P>(f) Each System institution must deduct from permanent capital any equity investment in a service corporation chartered under section 4.25 of the Act or the Funding Corporation chartered under section 4.9 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) Each System institution must deduct from its permanent capital an amount equal to all goodwill, whenever acquired.
</P>
<P>(h) Each System institution must deduct from its risk-adjusted asset base any item deducted from permanent capital under this section.
</P>
<P>(i) Where a System bank and an association have an enforceable written agreement to share losses on specifically identified assets on a predetermined quantifiable basis, such assets must be counted in each System institution's risk-adjusted asset base in the same proportion as the System institutions have agreed to share the loss.
</P>
<P>(j) The permanent capital of a System institution must exclude any accumulated other comprehensive income (loss) as reported under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(k) For purposes of calculating capital ratios under this part, deferred-tax assets are subject to the conditions, limitations, and restrictions described in § 628.22(a)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49774, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5208" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5208   Allotment of allocated investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following conditions apply to agreements that a System bank enters into with an affiliated association pursuant to § 615.5207(b)(2):
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement must be for a term of 1 year or longer.
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement must be entered into on or before its effective date.
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement may be amended according to its terms, but no more frequently than annually except in the event that a party to the agreement is merged or reorganized.
</P>
<P>(4) On or before the effective date of the agreement, a certified copy of the agreement, and any amendments thereto, must be sent to the field office of the Farm Credit Administration responsible for examining the System institution. A copy must also be sent within 30 calendar days of adoption to the bank's other affiliated associations.
</P>
<P>(5) Unless the parties otherwise agree, if the System bank and the association have not entered into a new agreement on or before the expiration of an existing agreement, the existing agreement will automatically be extended for another 12 months, unless either party notifies the Farm Credit Administration in writing of its objection to the extension prior to the expiration of the existing agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) In the absence of an agreement between a System bank and one or more associations, or in the event that an agreement expires and at least one party has timely objected to the continuation of the terms of its agreement, the following formula applies with respect to the allocated investments held by those associations with which there is no agreement (nonagreeing associations), and does not apply to the allocated investments held by those associations with which the bank has an agreement (agreeing associations):
</P>
<P>(1) The allotment formula must be calculated annually.
</P>
<P>(2) The permanent capital ratio of the System bank must be computed as of the date that the existing agreement terminates, using a 3-month average daily balance, excluding the allocated investment from nonagreeing associations but including any allocated investments of agreeing associations that are allotted to the bank under applicable allocation agreements. The permanent capital ratio of each nonagreeing association must be computed as of the same date using a 3-month average daily balance, and must be computed excluding its allocated investment in the bank.
</P>
<P>(3) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association whose permanent capital ratio calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the association.
</P>
<P>(4) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is 7 percent or above, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association whose capital ratio is below 7 percent must be allotted to the association until the association's capital ratio reaches 7 percent or until all of the investment is allotted to the association, whichever occurs first. Any remaining unallotted allocated investment must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the association.
</P>
<P>(5) If the permanent capital ratio of the System bank calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section is less than 7 percent, the amount of additional capital needed by the bank to reach a permanent capital ratio of 7 percent must be determined, and an amount of the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association must be allotted to the System bank, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the total of the allocated investments of all nonagreeing associations is greater than the additional capital needed by the bank, the allocated investment of each nonagreeing association must be multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the amount of capital needed by the bank and whose denominator is the total amount of allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations, and such amount must be allotted to the bank. Next, if the permanent capital ratio of any nonagreeing association is less than 7 percent, a sufficient amount of unallotted allocated investment must then be allotted to each nonagreeing association, as necessary, to increase its permanent capital ratio to 7 percent, or until all such remaining investment is allotted to the association, whichever occurs first. Any unallotted allocated investment still remaining must be allotted 50 percent to the bank and 50 percent to the nonagreeing association.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the additional capital needed by the bank is greater than the total of the allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations, all of the remaining allocated investments of the nonagreeing associations must be allotted to the bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49774, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 615.5209-615.5212" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 615.5209-615.5212   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5215" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5215   Distribution of earnings.</HEAD>
<P>The boards of directors of System institutions may not reduce the permanent capital of the institution through the payment of patronage refunds or dividends, or the retirement of stock or allocated equities except retirements pursuant to §§ 615.5280 and 615.5290 if, after or due to the action, the permanent capital of the institution would fail to meet the minimum permanent capital adequacy standard established under § 615.5205 for that period. This limitation shall not apply to the payment of noncash patronage refunds by any institution exempt from Federal income tax if the entire refund paid qualifies as permanent capital at the issuing institution. Any System institution subject to Federal income tax may pay patronage refunds partially in cash if the cash portion of the refund is the minimum amount required to qualify the refund as a deductible patronage distribution for Federal income tax purposes and the remaining portion of the refund paid qualifies as permanent capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 39247, Oct. 6, 1988, as amended at 53 FR 40046, Oct. 13, 1988] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5216" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.8.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5216   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Issuance of Equities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 40046, Oct. 13, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5220" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5220   Capitalization bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each System bank and association shall, pursuant to section 4.3A of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (Act), adopt capitalization bylaws, subject to the approval of its voting shareholders, that set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) Classes of equities and the manner in which they shall be issued, transferred, converted and retired;
</P>
<P>(2) For each class of equities, a description of the class(es) of persons to whom such stock may be issued, voting rights, dividend rights and preferences, and priority upon liquidation, including rights, if any, to share in the distribution of the residual estate;
</P>
<P>(3) The number of shares and par value of equities authorized to be issued for each class of equities. However, the bylaws need not state a number or value limit for these equities:
</P>
<P>(i) Equities that are required to be purchased as a condition of obtaining a loan, lease, or related service.
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-voting stock resulting from the conversion of voting stock due to repayment of a loan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Non-voting equities that are issued to an association's funding bank in conjunction with any agreement for a transfer of capital between the association and the bank.
</P>
<P>(iv) Equities resulting from the distribution of earnings.
</P>
<P>(4) For Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks (with respect to loans other than to cooperatives), and associations, the percentage or dollar amount of equity investment (which may be expressed as a range within which the board of directors may from time to time determine the requirement) that will be required to be purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan, which amount shall be not less than 2 percent of the loan amount or $1,000, whichever is less;
</P>
<P>(5) For banks for cooperatives and agricultural credit banks (with respect to loans to cooperatives), the percentage or dollar amount of equity or guaranty fund investment (which may be expressed as a range within which the board may from time to time determine the requirement) that serves as a target level of investment in the bank for patronage-sourced business, which amount shall not be less than, 2 percent of the loan amount or $1,000, whichever is less;
</P>
<P>(6) The manner in which equities will be retired, including a provision stating that equities other than those protected under section 4.9A of the Act are retireable at the sole discretion of the board, provided minimum capital adequacy standards established by the Farm Credit Administration, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution, are met;
</P>
<P>(7) The manner in which earnings will be allocated and distributed, including the basis on which patronage will be paid, which shall be in accord with cooperative principles; and
</P>
<P>(8) For System banks, the manner in which the capitalization requirements of the Farm Credit bank shall be allocated and equalized from time to time among its owners.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors of each service corporation (including the Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation) shall adopt capitalization bylaws, subject to the approval of its voting shareholders, that set forth the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1), (2), and (3) of this section to the extent applicable. Such bylaws shall also set forth the manner in which equities will be retired and the manner in which earnings will be distributed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49775, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54357, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5230" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5230   Implementation of cooperative principles.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Voting stockholders of Farm Credit banks and associations shall be accorded full voting rights in accordance with cooperative principles, including those set forth in § 611.350 of this chapter. Except as otherwise required by statute or regulation, and except as modified by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the voting rights of each voting shareholder are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Each voting stockholder of a Farm Credit Bank has only one vote that is assigned a weight proportional to the number of that association's voting stockholders and has the right to vote in the election of each stockholder-elected director and to cumulate such votes and distribute them among the candidates in the stockholder's discretion, except that cumulative voting for directors may be eliminated if 75 percent of the associations that are stockholders of the Farm Credit Bank vote in favor of elimination. In a vote to eliminate cumulative voting, each association shall be accorded one vote.
</P>
<P>(2) Each voting stockholder of an agricultural credit bank has only one vote, unless another voting scheme has been approved by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) Each voting stockholder of an association or bank for cooperatives has only one vote, regardless of the number of shares owned or the number of loans outstanding. Unless regional election of directors is provided for in the bylaws pursuant to § 615.5230(b), each voting stockholder of an association or bank for cooperatives has the right to vote in the election of each stockholder-elected director. Unless otherwise provided in the capitalization bylaws, each voting stockholder of an association or bank for cooperatives is allowed to cumulate such votes and distribute them among the candidates in the stockholder's discretion. Cumulative voting is not allowed in the regional election of stockholder-elected directors.
</P>
<P>(b) The regional election of stockholder-elected directors is only permitted under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) A bylaw establishing regional elections is approved by a majority of voting stockholders, voting in person or by proxy, prior to implementation.
</P>
<P>(2) The bylaw provides that the use of regional election of stockholder-elected directors does not prevent all voting stockholders of the institution, regardless of the region where they reside or conduct agricultural or aquatic operations, from voting in any stockholder vote to remove a director.
</P>
<P>(3) There are an approximately equal number of voting stockholders in each of the institution's voting regions. Regions will have an approximately equal number of voting stockholders if the number of voting stockholders in any one region does not exceed the number of voting stockholders in any other region by more than 25 percent. At least once every 3 years, the institution must count the number of voting stockholders in each region and, if the regions do not have an approximately equal number of stockholders, the regional boundaries must be adjusted to achieve such result.
</P>
<P>(4) An institution may provide for more than one director to represent a region. Institutions providing for more than one director to represent a region will determine the equitability of the regions by dividing the number of voting stockholders in that region by the number of director positions representing that region, and the resulting quotient shall be the number that is compared to the number of voting stockholders in other regions.
</P>
<P>(5) Each voting stockholder is accorded the right to vote in the election of each stockholder-elected director for his or her region. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each equityholder of each institution shall be equitably treated in the operation of the institution.
</P>
<P>(1) Each issuance of preferred stock (other than preferred stock outstanding on October 5, 1988, and stock into which such outstanding stock is converted that has substantially similar preferences) shall be approved by a majority of the shares voting of each class of equities adversely affected by the preference, voting as a class, whether or not such classes are otherwise authorized to vote; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any dividends paid to the holders of common stock and participation certificates shall be on a per share basis and without preference as to rate or priority of payment between classes of common stock, between classes of participation certificates, between classes of common stock and classes of participation certificates, or between holders of the same class of stock or participation certificates, except that any class of common stock or participation certificates that result from the conversion of allocated surplus may be subordinated to other classes of common stock and participation certificates in the payment of dividends.
</P>
<P>(3) Any patronage refunds that are paid shall be paid in accordance with cooperative principles, on an equitable and nondiscriminatory basis determined by the board of directors in accordance with the capitalization bylaws, provided that any earning pools that may be established for the payment of patronage shall be established on a rational and equitable basis that will ensure that each patron of the institution receives its fair share of the earnings of the institution and bears its fair share of the expenses of the institution.
</P>
<P>(4) All classes of common stock and participation certificates (except those resulting from a conversion of allocated surplus) must be accorded the same priority with respect to impairment and restoration of impairment and have the same rights and priority upon liquidation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 40046, Oct. 13, 1988, as amended at 54 FR 6118, Feb. 8, 1989; 60 FR 57921, Nov. 24, 1995; 62 FR 4446, Jan. 30, 1997; 62 FR 49908, Sept. 24, 1997; 63 FR 39228, July 22, 1998; 70 FR 53908, Sept. 13, 2005; 71 FR 5763, Feb. 2, 2006; 75 FR 18743, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5240" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5240   Regulatory capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The capitalization bylaws shall enable the institution to meet the capital adequacy standards established under subpart H of this part, part 628 of this chapter, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution.
</P>
<P>(b) In order to qualify as permanent capital, equities issued under the bylaws must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Retirement must be solely at the discretion of the board of directors and not upon a date certain (other than the original maturity date of preferred stock) or upon the happening of any event, such as repayment of the loan, and not pursuant to any automatic retirement or revolvement plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Retirement must be at not more than book value;
</P>
<P>(3) The institution must have made the disclosures required by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) For common stock and participation certificates, dividends must be noncumulative and payable only at the discretion of the board; and
</P>
<P>(5) For cumulative preferred stock, the board of directors must have discretion to defer payment of dividends.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49776, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5245" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5245   Limitations on association preferred stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each association offering preferred stock must adopt a policy that addresses the association's conditions or limits on the amount of preferred stock that any one holder, or small number of holders may acquire.
</P>
<P>(b) Each association offering preferred stock must make the stock available for purchase to each of its members on the same basis.
</P>
<P>(c) An association may not extend credit for purchases of preferred stock in the association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 53908, Sept. 13, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5250" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5250   Disclosure requirements for sales of borrower stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For sales of borrower stock, which for this subpart means equities purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan, a System institution must provide a prospective borrower with the following documents prior to loan closing:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution's most recent annual report filed under part 620 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) The institution's most recent quarterly report filed under part 620 of this chapter, if more recent than the annual report;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the institution's capitalization bylaws; and
</P>
<P>(4) A written description of the terms and conditions under which the equity is issued. In addition to specific terms and conditions, the description must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) That the equity is an at-risk investment and not a compensating balance;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the equity is retireable only at the discretion of the board of directors consistent with the institution's bylaws and only if minimum capital standards established under subpart H of this part and part 628 of this chapter are met and that such retirement may also require the approval of the FCA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the institution presently meets its minimum capital standards established under subpart H of this part and part 628 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the institution knows of any reason the institution may not meet its capital standards on the next earnings distribution date; and
</P>
<P>(v) The rights, if any, to share in patronage payments.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, no materials previously provided to a purchaser (except the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section) need be provided again unless the purchaser requests such materials.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49776, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5255" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.9.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5255   Disclosure and review requirements for sales of other equities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A bank, association, or service corporation must submit a proposed disclosure statement to the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) for review and clearance prior to the proposed sale of any other equities, which for this subpart means equities not purchased as a condition for obtaining a loan.
</P>
<P>(b) An institution may not offer to sell other equities until a disclosure statement is reviewed and cleared by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(c) A disclosure statement must include:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the information required by parts 620 and 628 of this chapter in the annual report to shareholders as of a date within 135 days of the proposed sale. An institution may satisfy this requirement by referring to its most recent annual report to shareholders and the most recent quarterly report filed with the FCA, provided such reports contain the required information;
</P>
<P>(2) The information required by § 615.5250(a)(3) and (4); and
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of the intended use of the sale proceeds.
</P>
<P>(d) An institution is not required to provide the materials identified in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section to a purchaser who previously received them unless the purchaser requests it.
</P>
<P>(e) For any class of stock where each purchaser and each subsequent transferee acquires at least $250,000 of the stock and meets the definition of “accredited investor” or “qualified institutional buyer” contained in 17 CFR 230.501 and 230.144A, a disclosure statement submitted pursuant to this section is deemed reviewed and cleared by the FCA and an institution may treat stock that meets all requirements of this part as permanent capital for the purpose of meeting the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H of this part, unless the FCA notifies the institution to the contrary within 30 days of receipt of a complete disclosure statement submission. A complete disclosure statement submission includes the proposed disclosure statement plus any additional materials requested by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(f) For all other issuances, a disclosure statement submitted pursuant to this section is deemed cleared by the FCA, and an institution may treat stock that meets all requirements of this part as permanent capital for the purpose of meeting the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H unless the FCA notifies the institution to the contrary within 60 days of receipt of a complete disclosure statement submission. A complete disclosure statement submission includes the proposed disclosure statement plus any additional materials requested by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(g) Upon request, the FCA will inform the institution how it will treat the proposed issuance for other regulatory capital ratios or computations.
</P>
<P>(h) No institution, officer, director, employee, or agent shall, in connection with the sale of equities, make any disclosure, through a disclosure statement or otherwise, that is inaccurate or misleading, or omit to make any statement needed to prevent other disclosures from being misleading.
</P>
<P>(i) Each bank and association must establish a method to disclose and make information on insider preferred stock purchases and retirements readily available to the public. At a minimum, each institution offering preferred stock must make this information available upon request.
</P>
<P>(j) The requirements of this section do not apply to the sale of Farm Credit System institution equities to:
</P>
<P>(1) Other Farm Credit System institutions;
</P>
<P>(2) Other financing institutions in connection with a lending or discount relationship; or
</P>
<P>(3) Non-Farm Credit System lenders that purchase equities in connection with a loan participation transaction.
</P>
<P>(k) In addition to the requirements of this section, each institution is responsible for ensuring its compliance with all applicable Federal and state securities laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49776, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Retirement of Equities and Payment of Dividends</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5260" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5260   Retirement of eligible borrower stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this subpart the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligible borrowers stock</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Stock, participation certificates or allocated equities outstanding on January 6, 1988, or purchased as a condition of obtaining a loan prior to the earlier of the date of shareholder approval of capitalization bylaws under section 4.3A of the Act or October 6, 1988; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any stock, participation certificates or allocated equities for which such eligible borrower stock is exchanged in connection with a merger, consolidation, or other reorganization or a transfer of territory. <I>Eligible borrower stock</I> does not include equities for which eligible borrower stock is required to be exchanged pursuant to the bylaws adopted under section 4.3A or equities for which eligible borrower stock is voluntarily exchanged except in connection with a merger, consolidation or other reorganization or a transfer of territory.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retirement in the ordinary course of business</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Retirement upon repayment of a loan or under a retirement or revolvement plan in effect prior to January 6, 1988, and for eligible borrower stock issued after that date, at the time the loan was made; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Retirement pursuant to §§ 615.5280 and 615.5290.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Par value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of stock, par value;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of participation certificates and other equities, face or equivalent value; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of participation certificates and allocated surplus subject to retirement under a revolving cycle and retired out or order pursuant to §§ 615.5280 and 615.5290 or otherwise under the Act, par or face value discounted at a rate determined by the institution to reflect the present value of the equity as of the date of such retirement.
</P>
<P>(b) When an institution retires eligible borrower stock in the ordinary course of business, such equities shall be retired at par, even if book value is less than par.
</P>
<P>(c) When a Farm Credit Bank retires stock for the sole purpose of enabling an association to retire eligible borrower stock that was issued in connection with a long term real estate loan, such stock shall be retired at par even if its book value is less than par.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 40048, Oct. 13, 1988; 54 FR 7029, Feb. 16, 1989, as amended at 62 FR 4447, Jan. 30, 1997; 63 FR 39228, July 22, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5270" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5270   Retirement of other equities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Equities other than eligible borrower stock shall be retired at not more than their book value.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the redemption restrictions in part 628 of this chapter, no equities shall be retired, except pursuant to §§ 615.5280 and 615.5290 or term stock at its stated maturity, unless after retirement the institution would continue to meet the minimum permanent capital standards established under subpart H of this part, part 628 of this chapter, and the capital requirements established by the board of directors of the System institution.
</P>
<P>(c) A System bank, association, or service corporation board of directors may delegate authority to retire at-risk stock to institution management if:
</P>
<P>(1) The board has determined that the institution's capital position is adequate;
</P>
<P>(2) All retirements are in accordance with applicable provisions of part 628 of this chapter and the institution's capital adequacy plan or capital restoration plan;
</P>
<P>(3) After any retirements, the institution's permanent capital ratio will be in excess of 9 percent, its capital conservation buffer set forth in § 628.11 of this chapter will be above 2.5 percent, and its leverage buffer set forth in § 628.11 of this chapter will be above 1.0 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) The institution will continue to satisfy all applicable regulatory capital standards after any retirements; and
</P>
<P>(5) Management reports the aggregate amount and net effect of stock purchases and retirements to the board of directors each quarter.
</P>
<P>(d) Each board of directors of a System bank, association, or service corporation that issues preferred stock must adopt a written policy covering the retirement of preferred stock that complies with this paragraph and part 628 of this chapter. The policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish any delegations of authority to retire preferred stock and the conditions of delegation, which must meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and include minimum levels for regulatory capital standards as applicable and commensurate with the volatility of the preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) Identify limitations on the amount of stock that may be retired during a single quarterly (or shorter) time period;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that all stockholder requests for retirement are treated fairly and equitably;
</P>
<P>(4) Prohibit any insider, including institution officers, directors, employees, or agents, from retiring any preferred stock in advance of the release of material non-public information concerning the institution to other stockholders; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish when insiders may retire their preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(e) The institution's board must review its policy at least annually to ensure that it continues to be appropriate for the institution's current financial condition and consistent with its long-term goals established in its capital adequacy plan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49777, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5280" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5280   Retirement in event of default.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the debt of a holder of eligible borrower stock issued by a production credit association, Federal land bank association, Federal land credit association or agricultural credit association is in default, such institution may, but shall not be required to, retire at par eligible borrower stock owned by such borrower on which the institution has a lien, in total or partial liquidation of the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) When the debt of a holder of stock, participation certificates or other equities issued by a production credit association, Federal land bank association, Federal land credit association or agricultural credit association is in default, such institution may, but shall not be required to, retire at book value not to exceed par all or part of such equities, other than eligible borrower stock as defined in § 615.5260(a)(1), owned by such borrower on which the institution has a lien, in total or partial liquidation of the debt.
</P>
<P>(c) When the debt of a holder of equities or guaranty fund certificates issued by a bank for cooperatives or agricultural credit bank is in default the bank may, but shall not be required to, retire all or part of such equities qualify or guaranty fund investments owned by the borrower on which the bank has a lien, in total or partial liquidation of the debt. If such investments qualify as eligible borrower stock, it shall be retired at par, as defined in § 615.5260(a)(3). All other investments shall be retired at a rate determined by the institution to reflect its present value on the date of retirement.
</P>
<P>(d) When the debt of a holder of the equities of a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank is in default the bank may, but shall not be required to, retire all or part of such equities owned by the borrower on which the bank has a lien, in total or partial liquidation of the debt. If such equities qualify as eligible borrower stock or are retired solely to permit a Federal land bank association to retire eligible borrower stock under § 615.5280(a), they shall be retired at par. All other equities shall be retired at book value not to exceed par. 
</P>
<P>(e) Any retirements made under this section by a Federal land bank association shall be made only upon the specific approval of, or in accordance with, approval procedures issued by the association's funding bank.
</P>
<P>(f) Prior to making any retirement pursuant to this section, except retirements pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the institution shall provide the borrower with written notice of the following matters;
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the institution has declared the borrower's loan to be in default;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the institution will retire all or part of the equities of the borrower in total or partial liquidation of his or her loan;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the effect of the retirement on the relationship of the borrower to the institution;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the amount of the outstanding debt that will be owed to the institution after the retirement of the borrower's equities; and
</P>
<P>(5) The date on which the institution will retire the equities of the borrower.
</P>
<P>(g) The notice required by this section shall be provided in person at least 10 days prior to the retirement of any equities of a holder, or by mailing a copy of the notice by first class mail to the last known address of the equity holder at least 13 days prior to the retirement of such person's equities.
</P>
<P>(h) The requirements of this section may be satisfied by notices given pursuant to §§ 617.7405, 617.7410, 617.7420, and 617.7425 of this chapter that contain the information required by this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 40048, Oct. 13, 1988; 54 FR 7029, Feb. 16, 1989, as amended at 61 FR 67187, Dec. 20, 1996; 62 FR 13213, Mar. 19, 1997; 69 FR 10907, Mar. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5290" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5290   Retirement of capital stock and participation certificates in event of restructuring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank forgives and writes off, under § 617.7415 of this chapter, any of the principal outstanding on a loan made to any borrower, where appropriate the Federal land bank association of which the borrower is a member and stockholder shall cancel the same dollar amount of borrower stock held by the borrower in respect of the loan, up to the total amount of such stock, and to the extent provided for in the bylaws of the Bank relating to its capitalization, the Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank shall retire an equal amount of stock owned by the Federal land bank association.
</P>
<P>(b) If an association forgives and writes off, under § 617.7415 of this chapter, any of the principal outstanding on a loan made to any borrower, the association shall cancel the same dollar amount of borrower stock held by the borrower in respect of the loan, up to the total amount of such loan.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the borrower shall be entitled to retain at least one share of stock to maintain the borrower's membership and voting interest. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49777, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5295" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.10.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5295   Payment of dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of a bank, association, or service corporation must declare a dividend on a class of stock before any dividends may be paid to stockholders.
</P>
<P>(b) No bank, association, or service corporation may declare or pay any dividend unless after declaration or payment of the dividend the institution would continue to meet its regulatory capital standards under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Each System bank, association, and service corporation must exclude any accrued but unpaid dividends from regulatory capital computations under this part and part 628 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 53909, Sept. 13, 2005, as amended at 81 FR 49777, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Establishment of Minimum Capital Ratios for an Individual Institution</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5350" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5350   General—Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The rules and procedures specified in this subpart are applicable to a proceeding to establish required minimum capital ratios that would otherwise be applicable to an institution under §§ 615.5205 and 628.10 of this chapter. The Farm Credit Administration is authorized to establish such minimum capital requirements for an institution as the Farm Credit Administration, in its discretion, deems to be necessary or appropriate in light of the particular circumstances of the institution. Proceedings under this subpart also may be initiated to require an institution having capital ratios greater than those set forth in § 615.5205 or § 628.10 of this chapter to continue to maintain those higher ratios.
</P>
<P>(b) The Farm Credit Administration may require higher minimum capital ratios for an individual institution in view of its circumstances. For example, higher capital ratios may be appropriate for:
</P>
<P>(1) An institution receiving special supervisory attention;
</P>
<P>(2) An institution that has, or is expected to have, losses resulting in capital inadequacy;
</P>
<P>(3) An institution with significant exposure due to operational risk, interest rate risk, the risks from concentrations of credit, certain risks arising from other products, services, or related activities, or management's overall inability to monitor and control financial risks presented by concentrations of credit and related services activities;
</P>
<P>(4) An institution exposed to a high volume of, or particularly severe, problem loans;
</P>
<P>(5) An institution that is growing rapidly; or
</P>
<P>(6) An institution that may be adversely affected by the activities or condition of System institutions with which it has significant business relationships or in which it has significant investments. 
</P>
<P>(7) An institution with significant exposures to declines in net income or in the market value of its capital due to a change in interest rates and/or the exercising of embedded or explicit options.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 39229, July 22, 1998; 81 FR 49777, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5351" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5351   Standards for determination of appropriate individual institution minimum capital ratios.</HEAD>
<P>The appropriate minimum capital ratios for an individual institution cannot be determined solely through the application of a rigid mathematical formula or wholly objective criteria. The decision is necessarily based in part on subjective judgment grounded in Agency expertise. The factors to be considered in the determination will vary in each case and may include, for example:
</P>
<P>(a) The conditions or circumstances leading to the Farm Credit Administration's determination that higher minimum capital ratios are appropriate or necessary for the institution;
</P>
<P>(b) The exigency of those circumstances or potential problems;
</P>
<P>(c) The overall condition, management strength, and future prospects of the institution and, if applicable, affiliated institutions;
</P>
<P>(d) The institution's capital, adverse assets (including nonaccrual and nonperforming loans), allowance for credit loss, and other ratios compared to the ratios of its peers or industry norms; and
</P>
<P>(e) The views of the institution's directors and senior management. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5352" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5352   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> When the Farm Credit Administration determines that minimum capital ratios greater than those set forth in § 615.5205 or § 628.10 of this chapter are necessary or appropriate for a particular institution, the Farm Credit Administration will notify the institution in writing of the proposed minimum capital ratios and the date by which they should be reached (if applicable) and will provide an explanation of why the ratios proposed are considered necessary or appropriate for the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Response.</I> (1) The institution may respond to any or all of the items in the notice. The response should include any matters which the institution would have the Farm Credit Administration consider in deciding whether individual minimum capital ratios should be established for the institution, what those capital ratios should be, and, if applicable, when they should be achieved. The response must be in writing and delivered to the designated Farm Credit Administration official within 30 days after the date on which the institution received the notice. In its discretion, the Farm Credit Administration may extend the time period for good cause. The Farm Credit Administration may shorten the time period with the consent of the institution or when, in the opinion of the Farm Credit Administration, the condition of the institution so requires, provided that the institution is informed promptly of the new time period.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the Farm Credit Administration shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed minimum capital ratios or the deadline for their achievement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> After the close of the institution's response period, the Farm Credit Administration will decide, based on a review of the institution's response and other information concerning the institution, whether individual minimum capital ratios should be established for the institution and, if so, the ratios and the date the requirements will become effective. The institution will be notified of the decision in writing. The notice will include an explanation of the decision, except for a decision not to establish individual minimum capital requirements for the institution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission of plan.</I> The decision may require the institution to develop and submit to the Farm Credit Administration, within a time period specified, an acceptable plan to reach the minimum capital ratios established for the institution by the date required.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reconsideration based on change in circumstances.</I> If, after the Farm Credit Administration's decision in paragraph (c) of this section, there is a change in the circumstances affecting the institution's capital adequacy or its ability to reach the required minimum capital ratios by the specified date, either the institution or the Farm Credit Administration may propose a change in the minimum capital ratios for the institution, the date when the minimums must be achieved, or the institution's plan (if applicable). The Farm Credit Administration may decline to consider proposals that are not based on a significant change in circumstances or are repetitive or frivolous. Pending a decision on reconsideration, the Farm Credit Administration's original decision and any plan required under that decision shall continue in full force and effect. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4448, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 81 FR 49778, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5353" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5353   Relation to other actions.</HEAD>
<P>In lieu of, or in addition to, the procedures in this subpart, the required minimum capital ratios for an institution may be established or revised through a written agreement or cease and desist proceedings under part C of title V of the Act, or as a condition for approval of an application. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5354" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5354   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>An institution that does not have or maintain the minimum capital ratios applicable to it, whether required in subpart H of this part or part 628 of this chapter, in a decision pursuant to this subpart, in a written agreement or temporary or final order under part C of title V of the Act, or in a condition for approval of an application, or an institution that has failed to submit or comply with an acceptable plan to attain those ratios, will be subject to such administrative action or sanctions as the Farm Credit Administration considers appropriate. These sanctions may include the issuance of a capital directive pursuant to subpart M of this part or other enforcement action, assessment of civil money penalties, and/or the denial or condition of applications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49778, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Issuance of a Capital Directive</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 4449, Jan. 30, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5355" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5355   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is applicable to proceedings by the Farm Credit Administration to issue a capital directive under sections 4.3(b) and 4.3A(e) of the Act. A capital directive is an order issued to an institution that does not have or maintain capital at or greater than the minimum ratios set forth in § 615.5205 or § 628.10 of this chapter; or established for the institution under subpart L of this part, by a written agreement under part C of title V of the Act, or as a condition for approval of an application. A capital directive may order the institution to:
</P>
<P>(1) Achieve the minimum capital ratios applicable to it by a specified date;
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to a previously submitted plan to achieve the applicable capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(3) Submit and adhere to a plan acceptable to the Farm Credit Administration describing the means and time schedule by which the institution shall achieve the applicable capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(4) Take other action, such as reduction of assets or the rate of growth of assets, restrictions on the payment of dividends or patronage, or restrictions on the retirement of stock, to achieve the applicable capital ratios, or reduce levels of interest rate and other risk exposures, or strengthen management expertise, or improve management information and measurement systems; or
</P>
<P>(5) A combination of any of these or similar actions.
</P>
<P>(b) A capital directive may also be issued to the board of directors of an institution, requiring such board to comply with the requirements of section 4.3A(d) of the Act prohibiting the reduction of permanent capital.
</P>
<P>(c) A capital directive issued under this rule, including a plan submitted under a capital directive, is enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as an effective and outstanding cease and desist order which has become final as defined in section 5.25 of the Act. Violation of a capital directive may result in assessment of civil money penalties in accordance with section 5.32 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 4449, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 63 FR 39229, July 22, 1998; 81 FR 49778, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5356" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5356   Notice of intent to issue a capital directive.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit Administration will notify an institution in writing of its intention to issue a capital directive. The notice will state:
</P>
<P>(a) The reasons for issuance of the capital directive;
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed contents of the capital directive, including the proposed date for achieving the minimum capital requirement; and
</P>
<P>(c) Any other relevant information concerning the decision to issue a capital directive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5357" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5357   Response to notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An institution may respond to the notice by stating why a capital directive should not be issued and/or by proposing alternative contents for the capital directive or seeking other appropriate relief. The response shall include any information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other relevant evidence that supports its position. The response may include a plan for achieving the minimum capital ratios applicable to the institution. The response must be in writing and delivered to the Farm Credit Administration within 30 days after the date on which the institution received the notice. In its discretion, the Farm Credit Administration may extend the time period for good cause. The Farm Credit Administration may shorten the 30-day time period:
</P>
<P>(1) When, in the opinion of the Farm Credit Administration, the condition of the institution so requires, provided that the institution shall be informed promptly of the new time period;
</P>
<P>(2) With the consent of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(3) When the institution already has advised the Farm Credit Administration that it cannot or will not achieve its applicable minimum capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(b) Failure to respond within 30 days or such other time period as may be specified by the Farm Credit Administration shall constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed capital directive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5358" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5358   Decision.</HEAD>
<P>After the closing date of the institution's response period, or receipt of the institution's response, if earlier, the Farm Credit Administration may seek additional information or clarification of the response. Thereafter, the Farm Credit Administration will determine whether or not to issue a capital directive, and if one is to be issued, whether it should be as originally proposed or in modified form. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5359" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5359   Issuance of a capital directive.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A capital directive will be served by delivery to the institution. It will include or be accompanied by a statement of reasons for its issuance.
</P>
<P>(b) A capital directive is effective immediately upon its receipt by the institution, or upon such later date as may be specified therein, and shall remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, or terminated by the Farm Credit Administration. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5360" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5360   Reconsideration based on change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>Upon a change in circumstances, an institution may request the Farm Credit Administration to reconsider the terms of its capital directive or may propose changes in the plan to achieve the institution's applicable minimum capital ratios. The Farm Credit Administration also may take such action on its own motion. The Farm Credit Administration may decline to consider requests or proposals that are not based on a significant change in circumstances or are repetitive or frivolous. Pending a decision on reconsideration, the capital directive and plan shall continue in full force and effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5361" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.13.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5361   Relation to other administrative actions.</HEAD>
<P>A capital directive may be issued in addition to, or in lieu of, any other action authorized by law, including cease and desist proceedings, civil money penalties, or the conditioning or denial of applications. The Farm Credit Administration also may, in its discretion, take any action authorized by law, in lieu of a capital directive, in response to an institution's failure to achieve or maintain the applicable minimum capital ratios. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Book-Entry Procedures for Farm Credit Securities</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 615.5450" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5450   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires or indicates: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adverse claim</I> means a claim that a claimant has a property interest in a security and that it is a violation of the rights of the claimant for another person to hold, transfer, or deal with the security. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Book-entry security</I> means a Farm Credit security issued or maintained in the Book-entry System. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Book-entry System</I> means the automated book-entry system operated by the Federal Reserve Banks, acting as the fiscal agent for the Farm Credit banks, through which book-entry securities are issued, recorded, transferred and maintained in book-entry form. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitive Farm Credit security</I> means a Farm Credit security in engraved or printed form, or that is otherwise represented by a certificate. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Eligible book-entry security</I> means a book-entry security issued or maintained in the Book-entry System, which by the terms of its securities documentation, is eligible to be converted from book-entry into definitive form. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Entitlement Holder</I> means a person to whose account an interest in a book-entry security is credited on the records of a securities intermediary. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Farm Credit banks</I> means one or more Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, and banks for cooperatives. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Farm Credit securities</I> means consolidated notes, bonds, debentures, or other similar obligations of the Farm Credit banks and Systemwide notes, bonds, debentures, or similar obligations of the Farm Credit banks issued under sections 4.2(c) and 4.2(d), respectively, of the Act, or laws repealed thereby. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Federal Reserve Bank</I> means a Federal Reserve Bank or Branch acting as agent for the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular</I> means the publication issued by each Federal Reserve Bank that sets forth the terms and conditions under which the Federal Reserve Bank maintains book-entry securities accounts and transfers book-entry securities. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Funding Corporation</I> means the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 4.9 of the Act, which issues Farm Credit securities on behalf of the Farm Credit banks. 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Funds Account</I> means a reserve and/or clearing account at a Federal Reserve Bank to which debits or credits are posted for transfers against payment, book-entry securities transaction fees, or principal and interest payments. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Participant</I> means a person that maintains a participant's securities account with a Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Participant's Securities Account</I> means an account in the name of a participant at a Federal Reserve Bank to which book-entry securities held for a participant are or may be credited. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Person</I> means an individual, corporation, company, governmental entity, association, firm, partnership, trust, estate, representative and any other similar organization, but does not mean the United States, a Farm Credit bank, the Funding Corporation or a Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Revised Article 8</I> means Uniform Commercial Code, Revised Article 8, Investment Securities (with Conforming and Miscellaneous Amendments to Articles 1, 3, 4, 5, 9, and 10) 1994 Official Text, and has the same meaning as in 31 CFR 357.2. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Securities Documentation</I> means the applicable statement of terms, trust indenture, securities agreement, offering circular or other documents establishing the terms of a book-entry security. 
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Securities Intermediary</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A person that is registered as a “clearing agency” under the Federal securities laws; a Federal Reserve Bank; any other person that provides clearance or settlement services with respect to a book-entry security that would require it to register as a clearing agency under the Federal securities laws but for an exclusion or exemption from the registration requirement, if its activities as a clearing corporation, including promulgation of rules, are subject to regulation by a Federal or State governmental authority; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A person (other than an individual, unless such individual is registered as a broker or dealer under the Federal securities laws) including a bank or broker, that in the ordinary course of its business maintains securities accounts for others and is acting in that capacity. 
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Security</I> means a Farm Credit security as defined in paragraph (h) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Security Entitlement</I> means the rights and property interest of an entitlement holder with respect to a book-entry security. 
</P>
<P>(u) <I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or any other territory or possession of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Transfer Message</I> means an instruction of a participant to a Federal Reserve Bank to effect a transfer of a book-entry security maintained in the Book-entry System, as set forth in Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53229, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5451" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5451   Book-entry and definitive securities.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to subpart C of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) Farm Credit banks operating under the same title of the Act may issue consolidated securities in book-entry form. 
</P>
<P>(b) Farm Credit banks may issue Systemwide securities in book-entry form. 
</P>
<P>(c) Consolidated and Systemwide securities also may be issued in either registered or bearer definitive form. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53229, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5452" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5452   Law governing rights and obligations of Federal Reserve Banks, Farm Credit banks, and Funding Corporation; rights of any person against Federal Reserve Banks, Farm Credit banks, and Funding Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the following are governed solely by the regulations contained in this subpart O, the securities documentation, and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars: 
</P>
<P>(1) The rights and obligations of the Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A book-entry security or security entitlement, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Farm Credit securities; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The rights of any person, including a participant, against the Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A book-entry security or security entitlement, and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Farm Credit securities. 
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a security entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a participant and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 615.5454(c)(1) of this subpart, is governed by the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction where the head office of the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the participant's securities account is located. A security interest in a security entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a person that is not a participant, and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 615.5454(c)(1)of this subpart, is governed by the law determined in the manner specified in § 615.5453 of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the jurisdiction specified in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted revised Article 8 (see 31 CFR 357.2) then the law specified in paragraph (b) of this section shall be the law of that State as though revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53229, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5453" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5453   Law governing other interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent not inconsistent with these regulations, the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of a securities intermediary's jurisdiction governs: 
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of a security entitlement from the securities intermediary; 
</P>
<P>(2) The rights and duties of the securities intermediary and entitlement holder arising out of a security entitlement; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the securities intermediary owes any duties to an adverse claimant to a security entitlement; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether an adverse claim can be asserted against a person who acquires a security entitlement from the securities intermediary or a person who purchases a security entitlement or interest therein from an entitlement holder; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection and priority of a security interest in a security entitlement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following rules determine a “securities intermediary's jurisdiction” for purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) If an agreement between the securities intermediary and its entitlement holder specifies that it is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the securities intermediary's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an agreement between the securities intermediary and its entitlement holder does not specify the governing law as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but expressly specifies that the securities account is maintained at an office in a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the securities intermediary's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(3) If an agreement between the securities intermediary and its entitlement holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the securities intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the office identified in an account statement as the office serving the entitlement holder's account. 
</P>
<P>(4) If an agreement between the securities intermediary and its entitlement holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and an account statement does not identify an office serving the entitlement holder's account as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the securities intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the chief executive office of the securities intermediary. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the general rule in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the law (but not the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction in which the person creating a security interest is located governs whether and how the security interest may be perfected automatically or by filing a financing statement. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the jurisdiction specified in paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted revised Article 8 (see 31 CFR 357.2), then the law for the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be the law of that State as though revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State. For purposes of the application of the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the securities account is a clearing corporation, and the participant's interest in a book-entry security is a security entitlement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5454" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5454   Creation of participant's security entitlement; security interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A participant's security entitlement is created when a Federal Reserve Bank indicates by book entry that a book-entry security has been credited to a participant's securities account. 
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a security entitlement of a participant in favor of the United States to secure deposits of public money, including without limitation deposits to the Treasury tax and loan accounts, or other security interest in favor of the United States that is required by Federal statute, regulation, or agreement, and that is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank is thereby effected and perfected, and has priority over any other interest in the securities. Where a security interest in favor of the United States in a security entitlement of a participant is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank, such Federal Reserve Bank may rely, and is protected in relying, exclusively on the order of an authorized representative of the United States directing the transfer of the security. For purposes of this paragraph, an “authorized representative of the United States” is the official designated in the applicable regulations or agreement to which a Federal Reserve Bank is a party, governing the security interest. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Farm Credit Banks, the Funding Corporation, and the Federal Reserve Banks have no obligation to agree to act on behalf of any person or to recognize the interest of any transferee of a security interest or other limited interest in favor of any person except to the extent of any specific requirement of Federal law or regulation or to the extent set forth in any specific agreement with the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the interest of the participant is recorded. To the extent required by such law or regulation or set forth in an agreement with a Federal Reserve Bank, or the Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular, a security interest in a security entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, a Farm Credit Bank, the Funding Corporation, or a person may be created and perfected by a Federal Reserve Bank marking its books to record the security interest. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a security interest in a security entitlement marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank shall have priority over any other interest in the securities.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the method provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a security interest, including a security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, may be perfected by any method by which a security interest may be perfected under applicable law as described in § 615.5452(b) or § 615.5453 of this subpart. The perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection and priority of a security interest are governed by that applicable law. A security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank shall be treated as a security interest in favor of a clearing corporation in all respects under that law, including with respect to the effect of perfection and priority of the security interest. A Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular shall be treated as a rule adopted by a clearing corporation for such purposes. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53229, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5455" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5455   Obligations of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation; no adverse claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of a security interest in favor of the United States or a Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise as provided in § 615.5454(c)(1), for the purposes of this subpart O, the Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks shall treat the participant to whose securities account an interest in a book-entry security has been credited as the person exclusively entitled to issue a transfer message, to receive interest and other payments with respect thereof and otherwise to exercise all the rights and powers with respect to such security, notwithstanding any information or notice to the contrary. The Federal Reserve Banks, the Farm Credit banks, and the Funding Corporation are not liable to a person asserting or having an adverse claim to a security entitlement or to a book-entry security in a participant's securities account, including any such claim arising as a result of the transfer or disposition of a book-entry security by a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to a transfer message that the Federal Reserve Bank reasonably believes to be genuine.
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation to make payments (including payments of interest and principal) with respect to book-entry securities is discharged at the time payment in the appropriate amount is made as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Interest or other payments on book-entry securities are either credited by a Federal Reserve Bank to a funds account maintained at the Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paid as directed by the participant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Book-entry securities are redeemed in accordance with their terms by a Federal Reserve Bank withdrawing the securities from the participant's securities account in which they are maintained and by either crediting the amount of the redemption proceeds, including both principal and interest, where applicable, to a funds account at the Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paying such principal and interest as directed by the participant. No action by the participant is required in connection with the redemption of a book-entry security. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53229, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5456" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5456   Authority of Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation to perform functions with respect to the issuance of book-entry securities offered and sold by the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation to which this subpart applies, in accordance with the terms of the securities documentation and the provisions of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(1) To service and maintain book-entry securities in accounts established for such purposes; 
</P>
<P>(2) To make payments of principal and interest, as directed by the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(3) To effect transfer of book-entry securities between participants' securities accounts as directed by the participants; 
</P>
<P>(4) To effect conversions between book-entry securities and definitive Farm Credit securities with respect to those securities as to which conversion rights are available pursuant to the applicable securities documentation; and 
</P>
<P>(5) To perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this subpart, governing the details of its handling of book-entry securities, security entitlements, and the operation of the Book-entry System under this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5457" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5457   Withdrawal of eligible book-entry securities for conversion to definitive form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible book-entry securities may be withdrawn from the Book-entry System by requesting delivery of like definitive Farm Credit securities. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal Reserve Bank shall, upon receipt of appropriate instructions to withdraw eligible book-entry securities from book-entry in the Book-entry System, convert such securities into definitive Farm Credit securities and deliver them in accordance with such instructions. 
</P>
<P>(c) Farm Credit securities which are to be delivered upon withdrawal may be issued in either registered or bearer form, to the extent permitted by the applicable securities documentation. 
</P>
<P>(d) All requests for withdrawal of eligible book-entry securities must be made prior to the maturity or the applicable date of call of the Farm Credit securities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53230, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5458" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5458   Waiver of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit Administration reserves the right, in the Farm Credit Administration's discretion, to waive any provision(s) of the regulations in this subpart in any case or class of cases for the convenience of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation or in order to relieve any person(s) of unnecessary hardship, if such action is not inconsistent with law, does not adversely affect any substantial existing rights, and the Farm Credit Administration is satisfied that such action will not subject the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation to any substantial expense or liability. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5459" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5459   Liability of Farm Credit banks, Funding Corporation and Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the Federal Reserve Banks may rely on the information provided in a transfer message or other transaction documentation, and are not required to verify the information. The Farm Credit banks, the Funding Corporation, and the Federal Reserve Banks shall not be liable for any action taken in accordance with the information set out in the transfer message, other transaction documentation, or evidence submitted in support thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5460" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5460   Additional provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional requirements.</I> In any case or any class of cases arising under the regulations in this subpart, the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation may require such additional evidence and a bond of indemnity, with or without surety, as may in the judgment of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation be necessary for the protection of the interests of the Farm Credit banks and the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of attachment for Farm Credit securities in the Book-entry System.</I> The interest of a debtor in a security entitlement may be reached by a creditor only by legal process upon the securities intermediary with whom the debtor's securities account is maintained, except where a security entitlement is maintained in the name of a secured party, in which case the debtor's interest may be reached by legal process upon the secured party. These regulations do not purport to establish whether a Federal Reserve Bank is required to honor an order or other notice of attachment in any particular case or class of cases. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conversion of definitive securities into book-entry securities.</I> Definitive Farm Credit securities may be converted to book-entry form in accordance with the terms of the applicable securities documentation and Federal Reserve Operating Circular.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67192, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 53230, Oct. 14, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5461" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5461   Lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated or defaced Farm Credit securities, including coupons.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Relief on the account of the loss, theft, destruction, mutilation, or defacement of any definitive consolidated or Systemwide securities of the Farm Credit banks and coupons of such securities may be granted on the same basis and to the same extent as relief may be granted under the statutes of the United States and the regulations of the Department of the Treasury on the account of the loss, theft, destruction, mutilation, or defacement of United States securities and coupons of such securities. 
</P>
<P>(b) Applicants for relief under paragraph (a) of this section, shall present claims and proof of loss:
</P>
<P>(1) To the Division of Special Investments, Bureau of the Public Debt, P.O. Box 396, Parkersburg, WV 26102-0396, in the case of consolidated or Systemwide securities of the Farm Credit banks issued prior to May 1, 1978; or 
</P>
<P>(2) To the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, 10 Exchange Place, Suite 1401, Jersey City, NJ 07302, in the case of consolidated or Systemwide securities issued on or after May 1, 1978. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5462" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.15.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5462   Restrictive endorsement of bearer securities.</HEAD>
<P>When consolidated and Systemwide bearer securities of the Farm Credit banks are being presented to Federal Reserve Banks, for redemption, exchange, or conversion to book entry, such securities may be restrictively endorsed. The restrictive endorsement shall be placed thereon in substantially the same manner and with the same effects as prescribed in United States Treasury Department regulations, now or hereafter in force, governing like transactions in United States bonds; and consolidated or Systemwide securities of the Farm Credit banks so endorsed shall be prepared for shipment and shipped in the manner prescribed in such regulations for United States bearer securities. (See 31 CFR part 328.) 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="P" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.16" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart P—Global Debt Securities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5500" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.16.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5500   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, unless the context otherwise requires or indicates: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Global debt securities</I> means consolidated Systemwide debt securities issued by the Funding Corporation on behalf of the Farm Credit banks under section 4.2(d) of the Act through a fiscal agent or agents and distributed either exclusively outside the United States or simultaneously inside and outside the United States. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Global agent</I> means any fiscal agent, other than the Federal Reserve Banks, used by the Funding Corporation to facilitate the sale of global debt securities. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57919, Nov. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5502" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.16.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5502   Issuance of global debt securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Funding Corporation may provide for the sale of global debt securities on behalf of the Farm Credit banks through a global agent or agents by negotiation, offer, bid, or syndicate sale, and deliver such obligations by book-entry, wire transfer, or such other means as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Funding Corporation Board of Directors shall establish appropriate criteria for the selection of global agents and shall approve each global agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 57919, Nov. 24, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="Q" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.17" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart Q—Bankers' Acceptances</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5550" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.17.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5550   Bankers' acceptances.</HEAD>
<P>Banks for cooperatives may rediscount with other purchasers the acceptances they have created. The bank for cooperatives' board of directors, under established policies, may delegate this authority to management.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 65387, Nov. 8, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="R" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.18" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart R [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="S" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.19" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart S—Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation Securities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 615.5570" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.16.19.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 615.5570   Book-entry procedures for Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation Securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) is a Federally chartered instrumentality of the United States and an institution of the Farm Credit System, subject to the examination and regulation of the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) Farmer Mac, either in its own name or through an affiliate controlled or owned by Farmer Mac, is authorized by section 8.6 of the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) To issue and/or guarantee the timely payment of principal and interest on securities representing interests in or obligations backed by pools of agricultural real estate loans (guaranteed securities); and
</P>
<P>(2) To issue debt obligations (which, together with the guaranteed securities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, are referred to as Farmer Mac securities). Farmer Mac may prescribe the forms, the denominations, the rates of interest, the conditions, the manner of issuance, and the prices of Farmer Mac securities.
</P>
<P>(c) Farmer Mac securities shall be governed by §§ 615.5450, and 615.5452 through 615.5460. In interpreting those sections for purposes of this subpart, unless the context requires otherwise, the term “Farmer Mac securities” shall be read for “Farm Credit securities,” and “Farmer Mac” shall be read for “Farm Credit banks” and “Funding Corporation.” These terms shall be read as though modified where necessary to effectuate the application of the designated sections of subpart O of this part to Farmer Mac.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 31394, June 20, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 67195, Dec. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="616" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 616—LEASING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.3, 1.5, 1.6, 1.7, 1.9, 1.10, 1.11, 2.0, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.10, 2.12, 2.13, 2.15, 3.0, 3.1, 3.3, 3.7, 3.8, 3.9, 3.10, 3.20, 3.28, 4.3, 4.3A, 4.13, 4.13A, 4.13B, 4.14, 4.14A, 4.14C, 4.14D, 4.14E, 4.18, 4.18A, 4.25, 4.26, 4.27, 4.28, 4.36, 4.37, 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 7.0, 7.2, 7.3, 7.6, 7.8, 7.12, 7.13 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2011, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2071, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2091, 2093, 2094, 2097, 2121, 2122, 2124, 2128, 2129, 2130, 2131, 2141, 2149, 2154, 2154a, 2199, 2200, 2201, 2202, 2202a, 2202c, 2202d, 2202e, 2206, 2206a, 2211, 2212, 2213, 2214, 2219a, 2219b, 2243, 2244, 2252, 2279a, 2279a-2, 2279a-3, 2279b, 2279c-1, 2279f, 2279f-1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 34518, June 28, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 616.600" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.600   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Interests in leases</I> means ownership interests in any aspect of a lease transaction, including, but not limited to, servicing rights.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lease</I> means any contractual obligation to own and lease, or lease with the option to purchase, equipment or facilities used in the operations of persons eligible to borrow under part 613 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sale with recourse</I> means a sale of a lease or an interest in a lease in which the seller:
</P>
<P>(1) Retains some risk of loss from the transferred asset for any cause except the seller's breach of usual and customary warranties or representations designed to protect the purchaser against fraud or misrepresentation; or
</P>
<P>(2) Has an obligation to make payments to any party resulting from:
</P>
<P>(i) Default on the lease by the lessee or guarantor or any other deficiencies in the lessee's performance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes in the market value of the assets after transfer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any contractual relationship between the seller and purchaser incident to the transfer that, by its terms, could continue even after final payment, default, or other termination of the assets transferred; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other cause, except that the retention of servicing rights alone shall not constitute recourse.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6100   Purchase and sale of interests in leases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to buy interests in leases.</I> A Farm Credit System institution may buy leases and interests in leases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies.</I> Each Farm Credit System institution that sells or buys interests in leases must do so only under a policy adopted by its board of directors that addresses the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of leases in which the institution may buy or sell an interest and the types of interests which may be bought or sold;
</P>
<P>(2) The underwriting standards for the purchase of interests in leases;
</P>
<P>(3) Such limits on the aggregate lease payments and residual amount of interests in leases that the institution may buy from a single institution as are necessary to diversify risk, and such limits on the aggregate amounts the institution may buy from all institutions as are necessary to assure that service to the territory is not impeded;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification and reporting of leases in which interests are sold or bought;
</P>
<P>(5) Requirements for securing from the selling lessor in a timely manner adequate financial and other information about the lessee needed to make an independent judgment; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any limits or conditions to which sales or purchases are subject that the board considers appropriate, including arbitration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchase and sale agreements.</I> Each agreement to buy or sell an interest in a lease must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the particular lease(s) to be covered by the agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for the transfer of lessee information on a timely and continuing basis;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the nature of the interest(s) sold or bought;
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the rights and obligations of the parties and the terms and conditions of the sale;
</P>
<P>(5) Contain any terms necessary for the appropriate administration of the lease, including lease servicing and monitoring of the servicer and authorization and conditions for action in the event of lessee distress or default;
</P>
<P>(6) Provide for a method of resolution of disagreements arising under the agreement;
</P>
<P>(7) Specify whether the contract is assignable by either party; and
</P>
<P>(8) In the case of lease transactions through agents, comply with § 614.4325(h) of this chapter, reading the term “lease” or “leases” in place of the term “loan” or “loans,” as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent judgment.</I> Each institution that buys an interest in a lease must make a judgment on the payment ability of the lessee that is independent of the originating or lead lessor and any intermediary seller or broker. This must occur before the purchase of the interest and before any servicing action that alters the terms of the original agreement. The institution must not delegate such judgment to any person(s) not employed by the institution. A Farm Credit System institution that buys a lease or any interest in a lease may use information, such as appraisals or inspections, provided by the originating or lead lessor, or any intermediary seller or broker; however, the buying Farm Credit System institution must independently evaluate such information when exercising its judgment. The independent judgment must be documented by a payment analysis that considers factors set forth in § 616.6300. The payment analysis must consider such financial and other lessee information as would be required by a prudent lessor and must include an evaluation of the capacity and reliability of the servicer. Boards of directors of jointly managed institutions must adopt procedures to ensure the interests of their respective shareholders are protected in participation between such institutions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sales with recourse.</I> When a lease or interest in a lease is sold with recourse:
</P>
<P>(1) For the purpose of determining the lending and leasing limit in subpart J of part 614 of this chapter, the lease must be considered, to the extent of the recourse or guaranty, a lease by the buyer to the seller, and in addition, the seller must aggregate the lease with other obligations of the lessee; and
</P>
<P>(2) The lease subject to the recourse agreement must be considered an asset sold with recourse for the purpose of computing capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Similar entity lease transactions.</I> The provisions of § 613.3300 of this chapter that apply to interests in loans made to similar entities apply to interests in leases made to similar entities. In applying these provisions, the term “loan” shall be read to include the term “lease” and the term “principal amount” shall be read to include the term “lease amount.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6200   Out-of-territory leasing.</HEAD>
<P>A System institution may make leases outside its chartered territory.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6300   Leasing policies, procedures, and underwriting standards.</HEAD>
<P>The board of each institution engaged in lease underwriting must adopt a written policy (or policies). Management, at the direction of the board, must develop procedures that reflect lease practices that control risk and comply with all applicable laws and regulations. Any leasing activity must comply with the lending policies and loan underwriting requirements in § 614.4150 of this chapter. An institution engaged in the making, buying, or syndicating of leases also must adopt written policies and procedures that address the additional risks associated with leasing. Written policies and procedures must address the following, if applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) Appropriateness of the lease amount, purpose, and terms and conditions, including the residual value established at the inception of the lease;
</P>
<P>(b) Process for estimating the leased asset's market value during the lease term;
</P>
<P>(c) Types of equipment and facilities the institution will lease;
</P>
<P>(d) Remarketing of leased property and associated risks;
</P>
<P>(e) Property tax and sales tax reporting;
</P>
<P>(f) Title and ownership of leased assets;
</P>
<P>(g) Title and licensing for motor vehicles;
</P>
<P>(h) Liability associated with ownership, including any environmental hazards or risks;
</P>
<P>(i) Insurance requirements for both the lessor and lessee;
</P>
<P>(j) Classification of leases in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; and
</P>
<P>(k) Tax treatment of lease transactions and associated risks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6400" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6400   Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution must document that any asset it leases is within its statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6500" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6500   Investment in leased assets.</HEAD>
<P>An institution may acquire property to be leased that is consistent with current or planned leasing programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6600" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6600   Leasing limit.</HEAD>
<P>All leases made by Farm Credit System institutions shall be subject to the lending and leasing limit in subpart J of part 614 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6700" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6700   Stock purchase requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each System institution, except the Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation, making an equipment lease under titles II or III of the Act must require the lessee to buy or own at least one share of stock or one participation certificate in the institution making the lease, in accordance with its bylaws.
</P>
<P>(b) The disclosure requirements of § 615.5250(a) and (b) of this chapter apply to stock (or participation certificates) bought as a condition for obtaining a lease.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 616.6800" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.17.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 616.6800   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each System institution must give to each lessee a copy of all lease documents signed by the lessee within a reasonable time following lease closing.
</P>
<P>(b) Each System institution must make its decision on a lease application as soon as possible and provide prompt written notice of its decision to the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="617" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 617—BORROWER RIGHTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.13, 4.13A, 4.13B, 4.14, 4.14A, 4.14C, 4.14D, 4.14E, 4.36, 5.9, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2199, 2200, 2201, 2202, 2202a, 2202c, 2202d, 2202e, 2219a, 2243, 2252).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 10907, 10908, Mar. 9, 2004, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7000   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following terms apply: 
</P>
<P><I>Adjustable rate loan</I> means a loan where the interest rate payable over the term of the loan may change. This includes adjustable rate, variable rate, or other similarly designated loans.
</P>
<P><I>Adverse credit decision</I> means a credit decision where a qualified lender: 
</P>
<P>(1) Decides not to make a loan to an applicant; 
</P>
<P>(2) Approves a loan in an amount less than the applicant requested; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Denies an application for restructuring. 
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any person who completes and executes a loan application from a qualified lender.
</P>
<P><I>Application for restructuring</I> means a written request from a borrower to restructure a distressed loan. The request must be submitted on the appropriate forms prescribed by the qualified lender and accompanied by sufficient financial information and repayment projections, where appropriate, as required by the qualified lender to support a sound credit decision.
</P>
<P><I>Distressed loan</I> means a loan that the borrower does not have the financial capacity to pay according to its terms, as determined by the qualified lender, and exhibits one or more of the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower is demonstrating adverse financial and repayment trends. 
</P>
<P>(2) The loan is delinquent or past due under the terms of the loan contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) One or both of the factors listed in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this section, together with inadequate collateralization, present a high probability of loss to the qualified lender. 
</P>
<P><I>Effective interest rate</I> means a measure of the cost of credit, expressed as an annual percentage rate, that shows the effect of the following costs, if any, on the interest rate on a loan charged by a qualified lender to a borrower:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of any stock or participation certificates that a borrower is required to buy to obtain the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any loan origination charges paid by a borrower to a qualified lender to obtain the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Foreclosure proceeding</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreclosure or similar legal proceeding to enforce a lien on property, whether real or personal, that secures a non-interest-earning asset or distressed loan; or
</P>
<P>(2) The seizing of and realizing on non-real property collateral, other than collateral subject to a statutory lien arising under titles I and II of the Act, to effect collection of a nonaccrual or distressed loan. 
</P>
<P><I>Independent evaluator</I> means an individual who is a qualified evaluator and who satisfies the standards of § 614.4260, subpart F of this chapter, and the standards set by the qualified lender for the type of property to be evaluated. The independent evaluator may not be an employee or agent of a qualified lender or have a relationship with the lender or any of its officers or directors in contravention of part 612 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate</I> means the stated contract rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Loan</I> means an extension of credit made to a farmer, rancher, or producer or harvester of aquatic products, for any agricultural or aquatic purpose and other credit needs of the borrower, including financing for basic processing and marketing that directly relates to the borrower's operations and those of other eligible farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan application</I> means a complete oral or written request for an extension of credit made in accordance with a qualified lender's procedures for the type of credit requested. An application is complete when the qualified lender receives all the information normally obtained and used in evaluating applications for credit. This information may include credit reports, supporting information for the credit requested, and reports by governmental agencies or other persons necessary to guarantee, insure, or provide security for the credit or collateral.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified lender</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A System institution, except a bank for cooperatives, that makes loans as defined in this section; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Each bank, institution, corporation, company, credit union, and association described in section 1.7(b)(1)(B) of the Act (commonly referred to as an other financing institution), but only with respect to loans discounted or pledged under section 1.7(b)(1). 
</P>
<P><I>Restructure and restructuring of a loan</I> means a reamortization, renewal, deferral of principal or interest, monetary concessions, or the taking of any other action to modify the terms of, or forbear on, a loan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 10907, 10908, Mar. 9, 2004, as amended at 69 FR 16459, Mar. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7005" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7005   When may electronic communications be used in the borrower rights process?</HEAD>
<P>Qualified lenders may use, with the parties' agreement, electronic commerce (E-commerce), including electronic communications for borrower rights disclosures. Part 609 of this chapter addresses when a qualified lender may use E-commerce. Consistent with these rules, a qualified lender should interpret part 617 broadly to allow electronic transmissions, communications, records, and submissions. However, electronic communications may not be used for a notice of default, acceleration, repossession, foreclosure, eviction, or the right to cure when a borrower's primary residence secures the loan. In these instances, a qualified lender must use paper disclosures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7010   May borrower rights be waived?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified lender may not obtain a waiver of borrower rights, except as indicated in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) A borrower may waive rights relating to distressed loan restructuring, credit reviews, and the right of first refusal when a loan is guaranteed by the Small Business Administration or in connection with a loan sale as provided in § 617.7015. Waivers obtained pursuant to this paragraph must be voluntary and in writing. The document evidencing the waiver must clearly explain the rights the borrower is being asked to waive.
</P>
<P>(c) A borrower may waive all borrower rights provided for in part 617 of these regulations in connection with a loan syndication transaction with non-System lenders that are otherwise not required by section 4.14A(a)(6) of the Act to provide borrower rights. For purposes of this paragraph, a “loan syndication” is a multi-lender transaction in which each member of the lending syndicate has a direct contractual relationship with the borrower, but does not include a transaction created for the primary purpose of avoiding borrower rights. Waivers obtained pursuant to this paragraph must be voluntary and in writing. The document evidencing the waiver must clearly disclose the rights the borrower is waiving. Additionally, the borrower's written waiver must contain a statement that the borrower was represented by legal counsel in connection with execution of the waiver.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 10907, 10908, Mar. 9, 2004, as amended at 70 FR 18968, Apr. 12, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7015" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7015   What happens to borrower rights when a loan is sold?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What happens when a qualified lender sells a loan to another qualified lender?</I> A loan made by a qualified lender and subsequently sold, in whole or in part, to another qualified lender is subject to the borrower rights provisions of title IV of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What happens when a qualified lender sells a loan into the secondary market?</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the borrower rights provisions of sections 4.14, 4.14A, 4.14B, 4.14C, 4.14D, and 4.36 of the Act do not apply to a loan made on or after February 10, 1996, and designated for sale into a secondary market at the time the loan was made. 
</P>
<P>(2) Borrower rights apply to a loan designated for sale under paragraph (b)(1) of this section but not sold into a secondary market during the 180-day period that begins on the date of designation. The provisions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section will subsequently apply on the date of sale if the loan is later sold into a secondary market.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What happens when a qualified lender sells a loan to a nonqualified lender?</I> (1) Except for loans sold to another qualified lender or designated for sale into a secondary market, a qualified lender must comply with one of the following requirements before selling a loan or interest in a loan subject to borrower rights:
</P>
<P>(i) The qualified lender and borrower must agree to include provisions in the loan contract with the borrower, or a written modification thereto, that ensure that the buyer of the loan will be obligated to provide the borrower the same rights a qualified lender must provide; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The qualified lender must obtain from the borrower a signed written consent to the sale, which clearly states the borrower waives statutory borrower rights. 
</P>
<P>(2) Before the qualified lender obtains the borrower's consent to the sale of the loan and the waiver of borrower rights under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the qualified lender must disclose in writing to the borrower: 
</P>
<P>(i) A complete description of the statutory rights the borrower will waive; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any changes in the loan terms or conditions that will occur if the qualified lender does not sell the loan; 
</P>
<P>(iii) That waiving borrower rights will not become effective unless the qualified lender sells the loan; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) That borrower rights will become effective again if any qualified lender repurchases the loan or any interest in the loan. 
</P>
<P>(3) The consent to the loan sale and waiver of borrower rights shall have no effect until the qualified lender sells the loan. Borrower rights become effective again if any qualified lender repurchases the loan or any interest in the loan. 
</P>
<P>(4) A qualified lender may not make a loan conditioned on the borrower consenting to the loan's sale and a waiver of borrower rights.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Disclosure of Effective Interest Rates</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 16459, Mar. 30, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 617.7100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7100   Who must make and who is entitled to receive an effective interest rate disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified lender must make the disclosures required by subparts B and C of this part to borrowers for all loans not subject to the Truth in Lending Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For a single loan involving more than one borrower, a qualified lender is required to provide only one set of disclosures to borrowers. All borrowers may designate, in writing, one person who will receive the effective interest rate disclosure. If the borrowers do not designate a particular recipient, the lender may provide the disclosure to at least one of the borrowers who is primarily liable for repayment of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7105" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7105   When must a qualified lender disclose the effective interest rate to a borrower?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure to prospective borrowers.</I> A qualified lender must provide written effective interest rate disclosure for each loan no later than the time of loan closing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure to existing borrowers.</I> (1) A qualified lender must provide a new effective interest rate disclosure to an existing borrower on or before the date:
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower executes a new promissory note or other comparable evidence of indebtedness;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower purchases additional stock or participation certificates as a condition of obtaining new funds from the qualified lender; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The borrower pays an additional loan origination charge to the qualified lender as a condition of obtaining new funds.
</P>
<P>(2) A qualified lender is not required to provide a new effective interest rate disclosure when it advances new funds to an existing borrower if none of the conditions of paragraph (b)(1) of this section apply and the advance is made pursuant to a preexisting contract that specifically provides for future advances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7110" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7110   How should a qualified lender disclose the cost of borrower stock or participation certificates?</HEAD>
<P>The cost of borrower stock or participation certificates must be included in the effective interest rate calculation at the time the stock or participation certificate is purchased in connection with a loan transaction. For subsequent loans to existing borrowers, only the cost of new stock or participation certificates, if any, purchased in connection with a new loan or advance of new funds must be included in the effective interest rate calculation for the transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7115" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7115   How should a qualified lender disclose loan origination charges?</HEAD>
<P>Any one-time charge paid by a borrower to a qualified lender in consideration for making a loan must be included in the effective interest rate as a loan origination charge. These include, but are not limited to, loan origination fees, application fees, and conversion fees. Loan origination charges also include any payments made by a borrower to a qualified lender to reduce the interest rate that would otherwise be charged, including any charges designated as “points.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7120" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7120   How should a qualified lender present the disclosures to a borrower?</HEAD>
<P>A qualified lender must:
</P>
<P>(a) Disclose the effective interest rate and other information required by subparts B and C of this part clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that is easy to read and understand and that the borrower may keep; and
</P>
<P>(b) Not combine the disclosures with any information not directly related to the information required by §§ 617.7130 and 617.7135.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7125" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7125   How should a qualified lender determine the effective interest rate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified lender must calculate the effective interest rate on a loan using the discounted cash flow method showing the effect of the time value of money.
</P>
<P>(b) For all loans, the cash flow stream used for calculating the effective interest rate of a loan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Principal and interest;
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of stock or participation certificates that a borrower is required to purchase in connection with the loan; and
</P>
<P>(3) Loan origination charges described in § 617.7115.
</P>
<P>(c) A qualified lender must establish policies and procedures for EIR disclosures that clearly show the effect of the cost of borrower stock (or participation certificates) and loan origination charges on the interest rate of a loan. A qualified lender must also establish policies and procedures for determining major assumptions used in calculating the effective interest rate, <I>e.g.,</I> criteria on how the cost of borrower stock (or participation certificates) and loan origination charges are assigned or allocated among multiple loans obtained by a borrower simultaneously.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7130   What initial disclosures must a qualified lender make to a borrower?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required disclosures—in general.</I> A qualified lender must disclose in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) The interest rate on the loan;
</P>
<P>(2) The effective interest rate of the loan;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of stock or participation certificates that a borrower is required to purchase in connection with the loan and included in the calculation of the effective interest rate of the loan;
</P>
<P>(4) All loan origination charges included in the effective interest rate;
</P>
<P>(5) That stock or participation certificates that borrowers are required to purchase are at risk and may only be retired at the discretion of the board of the institution; and
</P>
<P>(6) The various types of loan options available to borrowers, with an explanation of the terms and borrower rights that apply to each type of loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustable rate loans.</I> A qualified lender must provide the following information for adjustable rate loans in addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The circumstances under which the rate can be adjusted;
</P>
<P>(2) How much the rate can be adjusted at any one time and how much the rate can be adjusted during the term of the loan;
</P>
<P>(3) How often the rate can be adjusted;
</P>
<P>(4) Any limitations on the amount or frequency of adjustments;
</P>
<P>(5) The specific factors that the qualified lender may take into account in making adjustments to the interest rate on the loan; and
</P>
<P>(6) If the borrower's interest rate is directly tied to a widely publicized external index:
</P>
<P>(i) How and where the borrower may obtain information on changes to the index; and
</P>
<P>(ii) When the qualified lender will provide written notice of changes to the borrower's interest rate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 16459, Mar. 30, 2004, , as amended at 74 FR 67972, Dec. 22, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7135" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7135   What subsequent disclosures must a qualified lender make to a borrower?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of interest rate change.</I> (1) A qualified lender must provide written notice to a borrower of any change in interest rate on the borrower's existing loan, containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The new interest rate on the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the new rate is effective; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The factors used to adjust the interest rate on the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) If the borrower's interest rate is directly tied to a widely publicized external index, a qualified lender must provide written notice to the borrower of the rate change either:
</P>
<P>(i) Within forty-five (45) days after the effective date of the change; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of the borrower's first regularly scheduled billing statement affected by the rate change.
</P>
<P>(3) If the borrower's interest rate is not directly tied to a widely publicized external index, a qualified lender must send written notice to the borrower of the rate change within ten (10) days after the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to adjustable rate loan borrowers with interest rates directly tied to a widely publicized external index.</I> A qualified lender must provide the written disclosure required by § 617.7130(b)(6) to applicable borrowers who were not previously given the disclosure no later than the qualified lender's next regularly scheduled correspondence to those borrowers occurring after April 1, 2010.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of increase in stock purchase requirement.</I> If a qualified lender increases the amount of stock (or participation certificates) a borrower must own during the term of a loan, the lender must send a written notice to the borrower at least ten (10) days prior to the effective date of the increase. The notice must state:
</P>
<P>(1) The new effective interest rate on the outstanding balance for the remaining term of the borrower's loan;
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which the new rate is effective; and
</P>
<P>(3) The reason for the increase in the borrower stock (or participation certificates) purchase requirement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 16459, Mar. 30, 2004, , as amended at 74 FR 67972, Dec. 22, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure of Differential Interest Rates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7200   What disclosures must a qualified lender make to a borrower on loans offered with more than one rate of interest?</HEAD>
<P>A qualified lender that offers more than one rate of interest to borrowers must notify each borrower of the right to request a review of the interest rate charged on his or her loan no later than the time of loan closing. At the request of a borrower, the lender must:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide a review of the loan to determine if the proper interest rate has been established;
</P>
<P>(b) Explain to the borrower in writing the basis for the interest rate charged; and
</P>
<P>(c) Explain to the borrower in writing how the credit status of the borrower may be improved to receive a lower interest rate on the loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 16459, Mar. 30, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Actions on Applications; Review of Credit Decisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7300   When acting on a loan application, what are the notice requirements and review rights?</HEAD>
<P>Each qualified lender must make its decision on a loan application as quickly as possible. The qualified lender must provide prompt written notice of its decision to the applicant. The qualified lender is required to notify all primary applicants. If a loan application has more than one primary applicant, the qualified lender may send the original notice to the applicant designated to receive notices and may send copies to all other applicants. If the qualified lender makes an adverse credit decision on a loan application, the notice must include: 
</P>
<P>(a) The specific reasons for the qualified lender's decision; 
</P>
<P>(b) A statement that the applicant may request a review of the decision; 
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that a written request for review must be made within 30 days after the applicant receives the qualified lender's notice; and 
</P>
<P>(d) A brief explanation of the process for seeking review of the decision, including the independent collateral evaluation review process, whom to contact for access to information, and the applicant's right to appear in person before the credit review committee (CRC). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7305" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7305   What is a CRC and who are the members?</HEAD>
<P>The board of directors of each qualified lender must establish one or more CRCs to review adverse credit decisions made by a qualified lender. The CRC may only review adverse credit decisions at the request of the applicant or borrower. The CRC has the ultimate decision-making authority on the loan or application under review. CRC members are selected by the board of directors of each qualified lender and must include at least one of the qualified lender's farmer-elected board members. The loan officer involved in the adverse credit decision being reviewed may not serve on the CRC when it reviews that loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7310" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7310   What is the review process of the CRC?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How will an applicant or borrower know when the CRC will consider the review request?</I> The qualified lender must inform the applicant or borrower 15 days in advance of the CRC meeting where the applicant or borrower's request will be reviewed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Who may make a personal appearance before the CRC?</I> Each applicant or borrower who has requested a review may appear in person before the CRC. The applicant or borrower may be accompanied by counsel or other representative when seeking a reversal of a decision on a loan or an application for restructuring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What documents may the CRC consider?</I> An applicant or borrower may submit any documents or other evidence to support the information contained in the loan or application for restructuring. The documents should demonstrate that the application for a loan or restructuring satisfies the credit standards of the qualified lender and is an eligible loan or application for restructuring. Additionally, the applicant or borrower is entitled to a copy of each independent collateral evaluation used by the qualified lender.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>May an applicant obtain a new collateral evaluation even if collateral was not a reason for the adverse credit decision?</I> As part of a CRC review, an applicant may request an independent collateral evaluation of the agricultural real estate securing the loan or being offered as security, regardless of whether collateral was an identified reason for the adverse credit decision. The independent collateral evaluation may be for any interest(s) in the property securing the loan, except stock or participation certificates issued by the qualified lender and held by the applicant or borrower.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Who may conduct an independent collateral evaluation?</I> The independent collateral evaluation must be conducted by an independent evaluator. The CRC must provide the applicant or borrower with a list of three independent evaluators approved by the qualified lender within 30 days of the request for an independent collateral evaluation. The applicant or borrower must select and engage the services of an evaluator from the list. The evaluation must comply with the collateral evaluation requirements of part 614, subpart F, of this chapter. The qualified lender must provide the applicant or borrower a copy of part 614, subpart F, for presentation to the selected independent evaluator. A copy of part 614, subpart F, signed by the evaluator is a required exhibit in the subsequent evaluation report.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>When must an applicant or borrower obtain the independent collateral evaluation and who pays for the evaluation?</I> The applicant or borrower must enter into a contractual arrangement for evaluation services within 30 days of receiving the names of three approved independent evaluators. The contractual arrangement must be a written contract for services that complies with the lender's appraisal standards. The evaluation must be completed within a reasonable period of time, taking into consideration any extenuating circumstance. The applicant or borrower is responsible for the costs of the independent evaluation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>How does the CRC use an independent collateral evaluation when making a decision?</I> The CRC will consider the results of any independent collateral evaluation before making a final determination with respect to the loan or restructuring, except the CRC is not required to consider a collateral evaluation that does not conform to the collateral evaluation standards described in part 614, subpart F, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When must the CRC issue a decision?</I> The CRC must reach a decision, and it must be the final decision of the qualified lender, not later than 30 days after the meeting on the request under review. The CRC must make every reasonable effort to conduct reviews and render decisions in as expeditious a manner as possible. After making its decision, the committee must promptly notify the applicant or borrower in writing of the decision and the reasons for the decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7315" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7315   What records must the qualified lender maintain on behalf of the CRC?</HEAD>
<P>A qualified lender must maintain a complete file of all requests for CRC reviews, including participation in state mediation programs, the minutes of each CRC meeting, and the disposition of each review by the CRC.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Distressed Loan Restructuring; State Agricultural Loan Mediation Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7400" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7400   What protections exist for borrowers who meet all loan obligations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified lender may not foreclose on a loan because the borrower failed to post additional collateral when the borrower has made all accrued payments of principal, interest, and penalties on the loan. 
</P>
<P>(b) A qualified lender may not require a borrower to reduce the outstanding principal balance of a loan by any amount that exceeds the regularly scheduled principal installment when due and payable, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The borrower sells or otherwise disposes of part, or all, of the collateral without the prior approval of the qualified lender and the proceeds from the sale or disposition are not applied to the loan; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The parties agree otherwise in writing. 
</P>
<P>(c) After a borrower has made all accrued payments of principal, interest, and penalties on a loan, the qualified lender may not enforce acceleration of the borrower's repayment schedule due to the borrower's untimely payment of those principal, interest, or penalty payments. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a qualified lender places a loan in non-interest-earning status and this results in an adverse action being taken against the borrower, such as revoking any undisbursed loan commitment, the lender must document the change of status and promptly notify the borrower in writing of the action and the reasons for taking it. If the borrower was not delinquent on any principal, interest, or penalty payment at the time of such action and the borrower's request to have the loan placed back into accrual status is denied, the borrower may obtain a review of the denial before the CRC pursuant to § 617.7310 of this part. The borrower must request this review within 30 days after receiving the lender's notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7405" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7405   On what policies are loan restructurings based?</HEAD>
<P>Loan restructurings must be made in accordance with the policy adopted by the supervising bank board of directors under section 4.14A(g) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7410" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7410   When and how does a qualified lender notify a borrower of the right to seek loan restructuring?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What are the notice requirements?</I> When a qualified lender determines that a loan is, or has become, distressed, the lender must provide one of the following written notices to the borrower stating that the loan may be suitable for restructuring. 
</P>
<P>(1) A notice stating that the loan has been identified as distressed and that the borrower has the right to request a restructuring of the loan (nonforeclosure notice).
</P>
<P>(2) A notice that the loan has been identified as distressed, that the borrower has the right to request a restructuring of the loan, and that the alternative to restructuring may be foreclosure (45-day notice). The qualified lender must provide this notice to the borrower no later than 45 days before the qualified lender begins foreclosure proceedings with respect to any loan outstanding to the borrower. This notice must specifically state that if the loan is restructured and the borrower does not perform under the restructure agreement (as described in § 617.7410(e)), the qualified lender may initiate foreclosure proceedings without further notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What should each notice include?</I> (1) A copy of the policy the qualified lender established governing the treatment of distressed loans; and
</P>
<P>(2) All materials necessary for the borrower to submit an application for restructuring.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What notice should a qualified lender send to a borrower who is a debtor in a bankruptcy proceeding?</I> The qualified lender should send a notice that identifies the loan as distressed and the statutory right to file an application for a restructuring. The notice may also restate the language from the automatic stay provision to emphasize that the notice is not intended as an attempt to collect, assess, or recover a claim.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Whom should the qualified lender notify?</I> The qualified lender is required to notify all primary obligors. If the obligors identify one party to receive notices, the qualified lender should send the original notice to that person and send copies to the other obligors. For borrowers in a bankruptcy proceeding, the qualified lender should send the notice to the borrower and, if retained, the borrower's counsel. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When is a qualified lender required to send another restructure notice to a borrower whose loan was previously restructured?</I> A qualified lender must notify a borrower of the right to file another application to restructure the loan if the qualified lender sent the nonforeclosure notice to the borrower and the borrower has performed on the previous restructure agreement. Performance means that a borrower has made six consecutive monthly payments, four consecutive quarterly payments, three consecutive semiannual payments, or two consecutive annual payments. However, a qualified lender is not required to send another notice if they previously sent a 45-day notice, as described in § 617.7410(a)(2), and a borrower did not perform under a restructure agreement, as described above.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Does the borrower have the opportunity to meet with the qualified lender after receiving the restructure notice?</I> The qualified lender must provide any borrower to whom a notice has been sent with a reasonable opportunity to meet personally with a representative of the lender. The borrower and lender may meet to review the status of the loan, the financial condition of the borrower, and the suitability of the loan for restructuring. A meeting to discuss a loan that is in a non-interest-earning status may also involve developing a plan for restructuring, if the qualified lender determines the loan is suitable for restructuring.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>May the qualified lender voluntarily consider restructuring for a borrower who did not submit a restructuring application?</I> A qualified lender may, in the absence of an application for restructuring from a borrower, propose restructuring to an individual borrower.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7415" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7415   How does a qualified lender decide to restructure a loan?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What criteria does a qualified lender use to evaluate an application for restructuring?</I> The qualified lender should consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the cost to the lender of restructuring the loan is equal to or less than the cost of foreclosure, considering all relevant criteria. These criteria include:
</P>
<P>(i) The present value of interest and principal foregone by the lender in carrying out the application for restructuring;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable and necessary administrative expenses involved in working with the borrower to finalize and implement the application for restructuring;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the borrower's application for restructuring included a preliminary restructuring plan and cash flow analysis, taking into account income from all sources to be applied to the debt and all assets to be pledged, that show a reasonable probability that orderly debt retirement will occur as a result of the proposed restructuring; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the borrower has furnished, or is willing to furnish, complete and current financial statements in a form acceptable to the qualified lender.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the borrower is applying all income over and above necessary and reasonable living and operating expenses to the payment of primary obligations;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the borrower has the financial capacity and the management skills to protect the collateral from diversion, dissipation, or deterioration;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the borrower is capable of working out existing financial difficulties, taking into consideration any prior restructuring of the loan, reestablishing a viable operation, and repaying the loan on a rescheduled basis; and
</P>
<P>(5) In the case of a distressed loan that is not delinquent, whether restructuring consistent with sound lending practices may be taken to reasonably ensure that the loan will not have to be placed into non-interest-earning status in the future.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What should be included in determining the cost of foreclosure?</I> (1) The difference between the outstanding balance due, as provided by the loan documents, and the liquidation value of the loan, taking into consideration the borrower's repayment capacity and the liquidation value of the collateral used to secure the loan;
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated cost of maintaining a loan classified as a high-risk asset;
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated cost of administrative and legal actions necessary to foreclose a loan and dispose of property acquired as the result of the foreclosure, including attorneys' fees and court costs;
</P>
<P>(4) The estimated cost of value changes in collateral used to secure a loan during the period beginning on the date of the initiation of an action to foreclose or liquidate the loan and ending on the date of the disposition of the collateral; and
</P>
<P>(5) All other costs incurred as the result of the foreclosure or liquidation of a loan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What should the qualified lender do if the borrower and the qualified lender cannot agree on the financial projections used in the application for restructuring?</I> If the borrower and lender are not able to agree on supportable or realistic financial projections, the lender may use benchmarks to determine the operational input costs and chattel security values. These benchmarks may include, but are not limited to, the borrower's 5-year production average; averages in the county where the farming operation is located, based on data from United States Department of Agriculture, local colleges or universities, or other recognized authority; and other such reasonable sources. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How does the qualified lender decide whether to restructure or foreclose?</I> If a qualified lender determines the potential cost to the lender of restructuring the loan as proposed in the application for restructuring is less than or equal to the potential cost of foreclosure, the qualified lender must restructure the loan. If two or more restructuring alternatives are available, the qualified lender must restructure the loan using the alternative that results in the least cost to the lender. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What documentation should the qualified lender retain?</I> In the event that an application for restructuring is denied, a qualified lender must maintain sufficient documentation to demonstrate compliance with paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7420" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7420   How will a decision on an application for restructuring be issued?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When must a qualified lender make a decision on an application for restructuring?</I> Each qualified lender must provide a written decision on an application for restructuring and provide this decision to the borrower within 15 days from the conclusion of the negotiations used to develop the application for restructuring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How does a qualified lender notify the borrower of the decision?</I> On reaching a decision on an application for restructuring, the qualified lender must provide written notice in any manner that requires a primary obligor to acknowledge receipt of the lender's decision. In the case of a loan involving one or more primary obligors, the original notice may be provided to the primary obligor identified to receive such notice, with copies provided by regular mail to the other obligors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What notice is required if the restructuring request is denied?</I> When an application for restructuring is denied, the notice must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) The specific reason(s) for the denial and any critical assumptions and relevant information on which the specific reasons are based, except that any confidential information shall not be disclosed; 
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the borrower may request a review of the denial; 
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that any request for review must be made in writing within 7 days after receiving such notice. 
</P>
<P>(4) A brief explanation of the process for seeking review of the denial, including the appraisal review process and the right to appear before the CRC, pursuant to § 617.7310 of this part, accompanied by counsel or any other representative, if the borrower chooses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7425" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7425   What type of notice should be given to a borrower before foreclosure?</HEAD>
<P>The qualified lender must send the 45-day notice, as described in § 617.7410(a)(2), no later than 45 days before any qualified lender begins foreclosure proceedings. The notice informs the borrower in writing that the loan may be suitable for restructuring and that the qualified lender will review any suitable loan for possible restructuring. The 45-day notice must include a copy of the policy and the materials described in § 617.7410(b). The notice must also state that if the loan is restructured, the borrower must perform under this restructure agreement. If the borrower does not perform, the qualified lender may initiate foreclosure. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Does the notice have to inform the borrower that foreclosure is possible?</I> The notice must inform the borrower that the alternative to restructuring may be foreclosure. If the notice does not inform the borrower of potential foreclosure, then the qualified lender must send a second notice at least 45 days before foreclosure is initiated. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How are borrowers who are debtors in a bankruptcy proceeding notified?</I> A qualified lender must restate the language from the automatic stay provision to emphasize that the notice is not intended to be an attempt to collect, assess, or recover a claim. The qualified lender should send the notice to the borrower and, if retained, the borrower's counsel. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>May a qualified lender foreclose on a loan when there is a restructuring application on file?</I> No qualified lender may foreclose or continue any foreclosure proceeding with respect to a distressed loan before the lender has completed consideration of any pending application for restructuring and CRC consideration, if applicable. This section does not prevent a lender from taking any action necessary to avoid the dissipation of assets or the diversion, dissipation, or deterioration of collateral if the lender has reasonable grounds to believe that such diversion, dissipation, or deterioration may occur. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7430" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7430   Are institutions required to participate in state agricultural loan mediation programs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If initiated by a borrower, System institutions must participate in state mediation programs certified under section 501 of the Agricultural Credit Act of 1987 and present and explore debt restructuring proposals advanced in the course of such mediation. If provided in the certified program, System institutions may initiate mediation at any time. 
</P>
<P>(b) System institutions must cooperate in good faith with requests for information or analysis of information made in the course of mediation under any loan mediation program. 
</P>
<P>(c) No System institution may make a loan secured by a mortgage or lien on agricultural property to a borrower on the condition that the borrower waive any right under the agricultural loan mediation program of any state. 
</P>
<P>(d) A state mediation may proceed at the same time as the loan restructuring process of § 617.7415 or at any other appropriate time.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Distressed Loan Restructuring Directive</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7500" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7500   What is a directive used for and what may it require?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A distressed loan restructuring directive is an order issued to a qualified lender when FCA has determined that the lender has violated section 4.14A of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) A distressed loan restructuring directive requires the qualified lender to comply with the specific distressed loan restructuring requirements in the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) A distressed loan restructuring directive is enforceable in the same manner and to the same extent as an effective and outstanding cease and desist order that has become final. Any violation of a distressed loan restructuring directive may result in FCA assessing civil money penalties or seeking a court order pursuant to section 5.31 or 5.32 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7505" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7505   How will the qualified lender know when FCA is considering issuing a distressed loan restructuring directive?</HEAD>
<P>When FCA intends to issue a distressed loan restructuring directive, it will notify the qualified lender in writing. The notice will state: 
</P>
<P>(a) The reasons FCA intends to issue a distressed loan restructuring directive; 
</P>
<P>(b) The proposed contents of the distressed loan restructuring directive; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Any other relevant information. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7510" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7510   What should the qualified lender do when it receives notice of a distressed loan restructuring directive?</HEAD>
<P>(a) A qualified lender should respond to the notice by stating why FCA should not issue a distressed loan restructuring directive, by proposing changes to the directive, or by seeking other suitable relief. The response must include any information, documentation, or other relevant evidence that supports the qualified lender's position. The response may include a plan for achieving compliance with the distressed loan restructuring requirements of the Act. The response must be in writing and delivered to FCA within 30 days after the date on which the qualified lender received the notice. In its discretion, FCA may extend the time period for good cause. FCA may shorten the 30-day period with the consent of the qualified lender or when FCA determines that providing the full 30 days would result in a borrower not receiving distressed loan restructuring rights. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the qualified lender fails to respond within 30 days or such other time period specified by FCA, this failure will constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed distressed loan restructuring directive. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7515" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7515   How does the FCA decide whether to issue a directive?</HEAD>
<P>After the closing date of the qualified lender's response period, or following receipt of the qualified lender's response, FCA must decide if there is sufficient information to support the issuance of a directive or if additional information is necessary. Once FCA has received sufficient information, it must decide whether to issue a directive as originally proposed or as modified. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7520" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7520   How does the FCA issue a directive and when will it be effective?</HEAD>
<P>A distressed loan restructuring directive is effective immediately on receipt by the qualified lender, or on such later date as may be specified by FCA, and will remain effective and enforceable until it is stayed, modified, or terminated by FCA. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7525" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.6.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7525   May FCA use other enforcement actions?</HEAD>
<P>FCA may issue a distressed loan restructuring directive in addition to, or instead of, any other action allowed by law, including cease and desist proceedings, civil money penalties, or the granting or conditioning of any application or other requests by the System institution.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Right of First Refusal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7600" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7600   What are the definitions used in this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions in § 617.7000, the following definitions apply to this subpart. 
</P>
<P><I>Acquired agricultural real estate or property</I> means agricultural real estate acquired by a System institution as a result of a loan foreclosure or a voluntary conveyance by a borrower who, as determined by the institution, does not have the financial resources to avoid foreclosure. 
</P>
<P><I>Previous owner</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The prior record owner who was a borrower from a System institution and did not have the financial resources, as determined by the institution, to avoid foreclosure on acquired agricultural real estate; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The prior record owner who is not a borrower and whose acquired agricultural real estate was used as collateral for a loan to a System borrower. 
</P>
<P><I>System institution</I> means a Farm Credit System institution, except a bank for cooperatives, which makes loans as defined in § 617.7000. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7605" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7605   How should System institutions document whether the borrower had the financial resources to avoid foreclosure?</HEAD>
<P>The right of first refusal applies only to borrowers who did not have the financial resources to avoid foreclosure or voluntary conveyance. A System institution must clearly document in its files whether the borrower had the resources to avoid foreclosure or voluntary conveyance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7610" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7610   What should the System institution do when it decides to sell acquired agricultural real estate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notify the previous owner,
</P>
<P>(1) Within 15 days of the System institution's decision to sell acquired agricultural real estate, it must notify the previous owner, by certified mail, of the property's appraised fair market value as established by an accredited appraiser and of the previous owner's right to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Buy the property at the appraised fair market value, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Offer to buy the property at a price less than the appraised value. 
</P>
<P>(2) That any offer must be received within 30 days of receipt of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) Act on an offer to buy the acquired agricultural real estate at the appraised value. Within 15 days after the receipt of the previous owner's offer to buy the acquired agricultural real estate at the appraised value, the System institution must accept the offer and sell the property to the previous owner if the offer was received within 30 days of the notice required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) Act on an offer to buy the acquired agricultural real estate at less than the appraised value. 
</P>
<P>(1) The System institution must consider the offer if it was received within 30 days of the notice required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the System institution accepts this offer, it must notify the previous owner of the decision and sell the acquired agricultural real estate to the previous owner within 15 days of receiving the offer to buy the acquired agricultural real estate at a value less than the appraised value. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the System institution rejects this offer, it must notify the previous owner of the decision within 15 days of receiving the offer to buy the acquired agricultural real estate at a value less than the appraised value. The previous owner has 15 days from receipt of the notice to submit an offer to buy at such price or under such terms and conditions. The System institution may not sell the acquired agricultural real estate to any other person: 
</P>
<P>(i) At a price equal to, or less than, that offered by the previous owner; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) On different terms or conditions than those extended to the previous owner without first notifying the previous owner by certified mail and providing an opportunity to buy the property at such price or under such terms and conditions. 
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, financing by the System institution is not a term or condition of the sale of acquired agricultural real estate. A System institution is not required to provide financing to the previous owner for purchase of acquired agricultural real estate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7615" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7615   What should the System institution do when it decides to lease acquired agricultural real estate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notify the previous owner,
</P>
<P>(1) Within 15 days of the System institution's decision to lease acquired agricultural real estate, it must notify the previous owner, by certified mail, of the property's appraised rental value, as established by an accredited appraiser, and of the previous owner's right to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lease the property at a rate equivalent to the appraised rental value of the property, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Offer to lease the property at rate that is less than the appraised rental value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(2) That any offer must be received within 15 days of receipt of the notice. 
</P>
<P>(b) Act on an offer to lease the acquired agricultural real estate at a rate equivalent to the appraised rental value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(1) Within 15 days after receipt of such offer, the System institution may accept the offer to lease the property at the appraised rental value and lease the property to the previous owner, or 
</P>
<P>(2) Within 15 days after receipt of such offer, the System institution may reject the offer to lease the property at the appraised rental value when the institution determines that the previous owner: 
</P>
<P>(i) Does not have the resources available to conduct a successful farming or ranching operation; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cannot meet all the payments, terms, and conditions of such lease. 
</P>
<P>(c) Act on an offer to lease the acquired agricultural real estate at a rate that is less than the appraised rental value of the property. 
</P>
<P>(1) The System institution must consider the offer to lease the property at a rate that is less than the appraised rental value of the property. Notice of the decision to accept or reject such offer must be provided to the previous owner within 15 days of receipt of the offer. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the System institution accepts the offer to lease the property at less than the appraised rental value, it must notify the previous owner and lease the property to the previous owner. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the institution rejects the offer, the System institution must notify the previous owner of this decision. The previous owner has 15 days after receipt of the notice in which to agree to lease the property at such rate or under such terms and conditions. The System institution may not lease the property to any other person: 
</P>
<P>(i) At a rate equal to or less than that offered by the previous owner; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) On different terms and conditions than those that were extended to the previous owner without first informing the previous owner by certified mail and providing an opportunity to lease the property at such rate or under such terms and conditions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7620" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7620   What should the System institution do when it decides to sell acquired agricultural real estate at a public auction?</HEAD>
<P>System institutions electing to sell or lease acquired agricultural real estate or a portion of it through a public auction, competitive bidding process, or other similar public offering must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Notify the previous owner, by certified mail, of the availability of such property. The notice must contain the minimum amount, if any, required to qualify a bid as acceptable to the institution and any terms or conditions to which such sale or lease will be subject; 
</P>
<P>(b) Accept the offer by the previous owner if the System institution receives two or more qualified bids in the same amount, the bids are the highest received, and one of the qualified bids is from the previous owner; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Not discriminate against a previous owner in these proceedings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7625" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7625   Whom should the System institution notify?</HEAD>
<P>Each certified mail notice requirement in this section is fully satisfied by mailing one certified mail notice to the last known address of the previous owner or owners. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 617.7630" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.18.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 617.7630   Does this Federal requirement affect any state property laws?</HEAD>
<P>The rights provided under section 4.36 of the Act and this section do not affect any right of first refusal under the law of the state in which the property is located.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="618" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 618—GENERAL PROVISIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 1.11, 1.12, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 4.12, 4.13A, 4.25, 4.29, 5.9, 5.10, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2019, 2020, 2073, 2075, 2076, 2093, 2122, 2128, 2183, 2200, 2211, 2218, 2243, 2244, 2252). 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Related Services</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 34099, June 30, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 618.8000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8000   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Program</I> means the method or procedures used to deliver a related service. This distinguishes the particulars of how a related service will be provided from the type of activity or concept. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Related service</I> means any service or type of activity provided by a System bank or association that is appropriate to the recipient's operations, including control of related financial matters. The term “related service” includes, but is not limited to, technical assistance, financial assistance, financially related services and insurance, but does not include lending or leasing activities. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System banks and associations</I> means Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, banks for cooperatives, agricultural credit associations, production credit associations, Federal land bank associations, Federal land credit associations, and service corporations formed pursuant to section 4.25 of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 34099, June 30, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8005" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8005   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farm Credit Banks and associations may offer related services appropriate to on-farm and aquatic operations to persons eligible to borrow as defined in §§ 613.3000 (a) and (b), 613.3010, and 613.3300 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) Banks for cooperatives may offer related services to entities eligible to borrow as defined in §§ 613.3100, 613.3200, and 613.3300 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) Agricultural credit banks may offer related services appropriate to on-farm and aquatic operations of persons eligible to borrow specified in paragraph (a) of this section and may offer related services to entities eligible to borrow as specified in paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) Service corporations formed pursuant to section 4.25 of the Act may offer related services to persons eligible to borrow from the owners of the service corporation, pursuant to paragraphs (a), (b), (c), and (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) System banks and associations may provide related services to recipients that do not otherwise meet the requirements of this section in connection with loan applications, loan servicing, and other transactions between these recipients and persons eligible to borrow as defined in paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section, as long as the service provided is requested by an eligible borrower or necessary to the transaction between the parties. Such services include, but are not limited to, fee appraisals of agricultural assets provided to any Federal agency, commercial banks, and other lenders. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 34099, June 30, 1995, as amended at 62 FR 4450, Jan. 30, 1997; 69 FR 43514, July 21, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8010   Related services authorization process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authorities.</I> System banks and associations may only offer related services that meet the criteria specified in this regulation and are authorized by the FCA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New service proposals.</I> (1) A System bank or association that proposes or intends to offer a related service that the FCA has not previously authorized must submit to the FCA, in writing, a proposal that includes a description of the service, a statement of how it meets the regulatory definition of “related services” in § 618.8000(b), and the risk analysis cited in § 618.8020(b)(3). The FCA will evaluate the proposed service based on the information submitted, and may also consider whether there are extenuating circumstances or other compelling reasons that justify the proposed service or support a determination that the service is not authorized. This evaluation will focus primarily on Systemwide issues rather than on institution or program-specific factors. 
</P>
<P>(2) When authorizing a proposed related service, at its discretion, the FCA may impose special conditions or limitations on any related service or program to offer a related service. 
</P>
<P>(3) At its discretion the FCA may, at any time during its evaluation of a proposed related service, publish the proposed related service in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for public comment. 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 60 days of the FCA receiving a completed proposal, including any additional information the FCA may require, the FCA will act on the request to authorize a new service. The FCA shall approve the request, deny the request, or publish the service for public comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> For good cause and prior to the expiration of the 60 days, the FCA may extend this period for an additional 60 days. 
</P>
<P>(5) Within the time period established in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the FCA shall notify the requesting institution of its actions. Following notification of the requesting institution, the FCA will notify all System banks and associations of its determination on the proposed service by bookletter or other means. If a service is not authorized, the reasons for denial will be included in the notifications to the System and the requesting institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Previously authorized services.</I> (1) For related services that have been authorized by the FCA, any System bank or association may develop a program and subsequently offer the related service to eligible recipients, subject to any special conditions or institutional limits placed by the FCA. These programs will be subject to review and evaluation during the examination and enforcement process. 
</P>
<P>(2) The FCA shall make available to all System banks and associations a list of such related services (“related services list” or “list”) and will update the list in accordance with paragraph (b)(5) of this section. The list will contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) A description of each related service; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The types of institutions authorized to offer each type of related service; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identification of any special conditions on how the related service may be offered. The special conditions and description of the service will be fully detailed in FCA's notice to System institutions under paragraph (b)(5) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) At least 10 business days prior to implementing a related service program already on the list, the System bank or association must notify the FCA Office of Examination field office responsible for examining that institution in writing and provide it with a description of the proposed related service program. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8015" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8015   Policy guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each System bank or association providing related services must adopt a policy addressing related services. The policy shall include clearly stated purposes, objectives, and operating parameters for offering related services and a requirement that each service offered be consistent with the institution's business plan and long-term strategic goals. Such policy shall also be subject to review under an appropriate internal control policy. 
</P>
<P>(b) All related services must be offered to recipients on an optional basis. If the institution requires a related service as a condition to borrow, it must inform the recipient that the related service can be obtained from the institution or from any other person or entity offering the same or similar related services. 
</P>
<P>(c) All fees for related services must be separately identified from loan interest charges and disclosed to the recipient of the service prior to providing or implementing the service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8020   Feasibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>For every related service program a System bank or association provides, it must document program feasibility. The feasibility analysis shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Support for the determination that the related service is authorized; and 
</P>
<P>(b) An overall cost-benefit analysis that demonstrates program feasibility, taking into consideration the following items: 
</P>
<P>(1) An analysis of how the program relates to or promotes the institution's business plan and strategic goals, and whether offering the service is consistent with the long-term goals described in its capital plan; 
</P>
<P>(2) An analysis of the expected financial returns of the program which, at a minimum, must include an evaluation of market, pricing, competition issues, and expected profitability. This analysis should include an explanation of how the program will contribute to the overall financial health of the institution; and 
</P>
<P>(3) An analysis of the risk in the program, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the operational costs and risks involved in offering the program, such as management and personnel requirements, training requirements, and capital outlays; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An evaluation of the financial liability that may be incurred as a result of offering the program and any insurance or other measures that are necessary to minimize these risks; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) An evaluation of the conflicts of interest, whether real or perceived, that may arise as a result of offering the program and any steps that are necessary to eliminate or appropriately manage these conflicts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8025" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8025   Feasibility reviews.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to an association offering a related service program for the first time or offering a service that it did not offer during the most recently completed business cycle (generally 1 year), the board of directors of the funding bank must verify that the association has performed a feasibility analysis pursuant to § 618.8020. The bank review is limited to a determination that the feasibility analysis is complete and that the analysis establishes that it is feasible for the association to provide the program. Any conclusion by the bank that the feasibility analysis is incomplete or fails to demonstrate program feasibility must be fully supported and communicated to the association in writing within 60 days of its submission to the bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to a service corporation offering a service for the first time or offering a service that it did not offer during the most recently completed business cycle (generally 1 year), the owners of the service corporation must verify that the service corporation has performed a feasibility analysis pursuant to § 618.8020. If the owners all agree, one bank with a significant ownership interest can be delegated this responsibility. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 34099, June 30, 1995; 60 FR 42029, Aug. 15, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8030   Out-of-territory related services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) System banks and associations may offer related services outside their chartered territories subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The System bank or association obtains consent from all chartered institutions currently offering the same type of service in the territory in which the service is to be provided; or 
</P>
<P>(2) If no System bank or association is currently offering the same type of service in the territory, then the out-of-territory institution must obtain the consent of at least one direct lender institution chartered in the territory in which the related service is to be provided. 
</P>
<P>(3) The consent obtained pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section shall be in the form of a written agreement with specific terms and conditions including timeframes. 
</P>
<P>(b) System banks and associations providing out-of-territory services must fulfill all requirements of subparts A and B of this part 618. 
</P>
<P>(c) An institution that consents to another bank or association providing a related service in its chartered territory must meet the requirements of this section, but need not comply with the other requirements of subparts A and B of this part 618, unless the program consented to imposes a financial obligation on the consenting institution. If a financial obligation exists, then the consenting institution must comply with §§ 618.8015, 618.8020 and 618.8025. 
</P>
<P>(d) Service corporations must follow the requirements of this section in offering related services out-of-territory. A service corporation cannot consent to an out-of-territory institution providing services in its chartered territory. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Member Insurance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8040" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8040   Authorized insurance services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farm Credit System banks (excluding banks for cooperatives) (hereinafter banks) and associations may sell to their members and borrowers, on an optional basis, credit or term life and credit disability insurance appropriate to protect the loan commitment in the event of death or disability of the debtors. The sale of other insurance necessary to protect a member's or borrower's farm or aquatic unit is permitted, but limited to hail and multiple-peril crop insurance, title insurance, and insurance necessary to protect the facilities and equipment of aquatic members and borrowers. A member or borrower shall have the option, without coercion from the bank or association, to accept or reject such insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) Bank and association board policies governing the provision of member insurance programs shall be established within the following general guidelines:
</P>
<P>(1) A System bank or association may provide credit or term-life or credit-disability insurance only to persons who have a loan or lease with any System bank or association, without regard to whether such institution is the provider. Term-life insurance coverage may continue after the loan has been repaid or the lease terminated, provided the member can reasonably be expected to borrow again within 2 years, and provided the continuation of insurance is not contrary to state law. 
</P>
<P>(2) A debtor-creditor relationship is not required for the sale of other insurance specified in paragraph (a) of this section, as long as purchasers are members of a System bank or association. For the purposes of this section, “member” means someone eligible to borrow who is a stockholder or participation certificate holder and who acquired stock or participation certificates to obtain a loan, for investment purposes, or to qualify for other services of the association or bank. 
</P>
<P>(3) In making insurance available through private insurers, each bank shall approve the programs of more than two insurers for each type of insurance offered in the bank's chartered territory, provided that more than two insurers for each type of insurance have proposed programs to the bank that will, in all likelihood, have long-term viability, and meet the requirements of § 618.8040(b)(4)(i) of this section. The banks shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to attract more than two qualified insurers for each insurance program offered to borrowers in all States of the bank's chartered territory. Where the bank is unable to approve more than two insurers, the bank shall document its efforts to attract additional qualified insurers for the affected insurance program and State. The banks may provide comparative information relating to costs and quality of approved programs and the financial condition of approved companies.
</P>
<P>(4) Member insurance services may be offered only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurance program has been approved by the bank or association from among eligible programs made available to it by insurers—
</P>
<P>(A) Meeting reasonable financial and quality of service standards prescribed by the bank; and
</P>
<P>(B) Licensed under State law to do business in the State(s) in which the insurance is offered:
</P>
<P>(ii) The bank or association has the capacity to render authorized insurance services in an effective and efficient manner;
</P>
<P>(iii) There exists the probability that the service will generate sufficient revenue to cover all costs;
</P>
<P>(iv) Rendering the insurance service will not have an adverse effect on the credit or other operations of the bank or association; and
</P>
<P>(v) In making insurance available through approved insurers, the board of directors of the bank or association shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to select and offer at least two approved insurers for each type of insurance made available to the members and borrowers. In the event that the bank or association has selected less than two insurers for any insurance program, such bank or association shall document the reasons why it is unable to offer members and borrowers additional insurers for the affected insurance program.
</P>
<P>(5) All costs to members and borrowers for insurance services provided shall be disclosed separately from interest charges.
</P>
<P>(6) Bank and association personnel shall not benefit from insurance sales by receipt of commissions or gifts from underwriting insurance companies. However, employees may participate in an incentive plan under which incentive compensation is provided based on the sale of insurance. 
</P>
<P>(i) In any single year, for all employees except full-time insurance personnel or full-time supervisors or managers of insurance departments, incentive compensation attributable to sales of all types of insurance cannot exceed an amount equivalent to 5 percent of the recipient's annual base salary. 
</P>
<P>(ii) In any single year, for full-time insurance personnel and full-time supervisors and managers of insurance departments, incentive compensation for sales of credit life and similar types of insurance (i.e. insurance that pays on a loan or mortgage upon the death or disability of the debtor) cannot exceed an amount equivalent to 5 percent of the recipient's annual base salary. 
</P>
<P>(iii) No incentive compensation limit applies to sales of other insurance (crop, title, etc.) by full-time insurance personnel or full-time supervisors or managers of insurance departments. 
</P>
<P>(7) Term insurance may be written for the amount of coverage desired by the member or borrower, but in no case may the amount of term insurance, credit life insurance, or a combination of the two with an institution of the System, be in excess of total loan commitments to the member or borrower by the institution writing the insurance.
</P>
<P>(8) The banks may, only by agreement with an insurer, offer services traditionally furnished by insurers to the Farm Credit System. This shall include master marketers when considering the sale of Federal crop insurance. The banks shall not underwrite insurance, adjust claim payments or settlements, or train and school or service adjustors or insurance agents.
</P>
<P>(9) No bank or association shall, directly or indirectly, condition the extension of credit or provision of other service on the purchase of insurance sold or endorsed by a bank or association. At the time insurance sold or endorsed by a bank or association is offered to a member or borrower, a bank or association shall present a written notice that the service is optional. The notice shall be in prominent type and separately signed by the member or borrower. The bank or association shall explain to the member or borrower that purchase of insurance from the association is optional and that the member or borrower will not be discriminated against for obtaining the insurance elsewhere.
</P>
<P>(10) No bank or association shall, directly or indirectly, discriminate in any manner against any agent, broker, or insurer that is not affiliated with such bank or association, or against any party who purchases insurance through any such nonaffiliated insurance agent, broker, or insurer.
</P>
<P>(11) Bank supervision shall ensure that insurance services offered by approved insurers consistently provide members or borrowers with a high quality and cost-effective service as prescribed by policies of the bank's board of directors, but such supervision shall be without any coercion or suasion from any bank in favor of any agent or insurer.
</P>
<P>(12) Records must be maintained by banks and associations in sufficient detail to facilitate the review and supervision required herein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 38867, Sept. 3, 1982, as amended at 53 FR 35305, Sept. 13, 1988; 56 FR 65990, Dec. 20, 1991. Redesignated and amended at 60 FR 34099, 34101, June 30, 1995] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Releasing Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8300   General regulation.</HEAD>
<P>Except as necessary in performing official duties or as authorized by Farm Credit Administration regulations (§§ 618.8300 through 618.8330), no director or employee of a bank, association, or agency thereof shall disclose information of a type not ordinarily contained in published reports or press releases regarding any such banks or associations or their borrowers or members. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11442, June 7, 1972. Redesignated at 47 FR 12151, Mar. 22, 1982; 78 FR 77562, Dec. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8310" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8310   Lists of borrowers and stockholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any System institution, for the purpose of protecting the security position of the institution, may provide lists of borrowers to buyers, warehousemen, and others who deal in produce or livestock of the kind that secures such loans, except to the extent such actions are prohibited by State laws adopted in accordance with the Food Security Act of 1985, Pub. L. 99-198, 99 Stat. 1354. Lists of borrowers or stockholders shall not otherwise be released by any bank or association except in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Within 7 days after receipt of a written request by a stockholder, each Farm Credit bank or association must provide a current list of its stockholders' names, addresses, and classes of stock held to such requesting stockholder. As a condition to providing the list, the bank or association may only require that the stockholder agree and certify in writing that the stockholder will:
</P>
<P>(i) Utilize the list exclusively for communicating with stockholders for permissible purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not make the list available to any person, other than the stockholder's attorney or accountant, without first obtaining the written consent of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to receiving a list of stockholders, a stockholder may request the institution mail or otherwise furnish to each stockholder a communication for a permissible purpose on behalf of the requesting stockholder. This alternative may be used at the discretion of the requesting stockholder, provided that the requester agrees to defray the reasonable costs of the communication. In the event the requester decides to exercise this option, the institution must provide the requester with a written estimate of the costs of handling and mailing the communication as soon as practicable after receipt of the stockholder's request to furnish a communication. However, a stockholder may not exercise this option when requesting the list to distribute campaign material for election to the institution board or board committees. Farm Credit banks and associations are prohibited from distributing or mailing campaign material under § 611.320(e) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section “permissible purpose” is defined to mean matters relating to the business operations of the institutions. This includes matters relating to the effectiveness of management, the use of institution assets, the distribution by stockholder candidates of campaign material for election to the institution board or board committees, and the performance of directors and officers. This does not include communications involving commercial, social, political, or charitable causes, communications relating to the enforcement of a personal claim or the redress of a personal grievance, or proposals advocating that the bank or association violate any Federal, State, or local law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) In connection with preparing and submitting an electronic report of all System accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with the requirements of § 621.15 of this chapter, each bank and association may provide information from its lists of borrowers and stockholders to the Reporting Entity as defined in § 621.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 39503, Oct. 28, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 35457, Sept. 14, 1988; 61 FR 67188, Dec. 20, 1996; 71 FR 5763, Feb. 2, 2006; 78 FR 77561, Dec. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8320" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8320   Data regarding borrowers and loan applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the directors, officers, and employees of every bank and association shall hold in strict confidence all information regarding the character, credit standing, and property of borrowers and applicants for loans. They shall not exhibit or quote the following documents: Loan applications; supplementary statements by applicants; letters and statements relative to the character, credit standing, and property of borrowers and applicants; recommendations of loan committees; and reports of inspectors, fieldmen, investigators, and appraisers. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section are subject to the following exceptions. 
</P>
<P>(1) Examiners and other authorized representatives of the Farm Credit Administration and the bank concerned shall have free access to all information, records, and files. 
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with a legitimate law enforcement inquiry, accredited representatives of any agency or department of the United States may be given access to information upon presentation of official identification and a written request specifying:
</P>
<P>(i) The particular information desired; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That the information is relevant to the law enforcement inquiry and will be used only for the purpose for which it is sought.
</P>
<P>(3) The chairman of the presidents committees and the presidents of the banks may supply statistical and other impersonal information pertaining to groups of borrowers, applicants, and loans, in response to requests from any department or independent office of the Government of the United States, or responsible private organizations, with the understanding that the information will not be published. 
</P>
<P>(4) Information concerning borrowers may be given for the confidential use of any Farm Credit institution in contemplation of the extension of credit, administration of credit, or the collection of loans. 
</P>
<P>(5) Impersonal information based solely on transactions or experience with a borrower, such as amounts of loans, terms, and payment records, may be given by a bank or association to any reliable organization for its confidential use in contemplation of the extension of credit or to a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(6) Credit information concerning any borrower may be given when such borrower consents thereto in writing. 
</P>
<P>(7) An unsuccessful applicant for credit which primarily is for personal, family, or household purposes, if his application was rejected either wholly or partly because of information contained in a consumer report from a consumer reporting agency shall be advised as required in section 615(a) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (84 Stat. 1133), and if his application was rejected either wholly or partly because of information obtained from a person other than a consumer reporting agency shall be advised as required in section 615(b) thereof. 
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Any information or analysis of information requested during the course of mediation by a State agency, governor's office or mediator under any State mediation program certified under section 501 of the Agricultural Credit Act of 1987, may be provided to the State agency, governor's office or mediator, with the approval of the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Information concerning borrowers contained in an appraisal report may be given by a Farm Credit institution to any State agency certifying and licensing real estate appraisers provided that the Farm Credit institution: 
</P>
<P>(A) Certifies that the information is required in connection with an employee's application for certification and licensure and that the institution has taken appropriate steps to protect the confidentiality of any borrower information that is not essential to the State's evaluation of the application; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Determines that the State certification and licensing program makes reasonable provisions for protecting the confidentiality of the borrower information contained in the appraisal report. 
</P>
<P>(9) Collateral evaluation reports may be released to a loan applicant, when required by the Equal Credit Opportunity Act or related regulations. 
</P>
<P>(10) In connection with preparing and submitting an electronic report of all System accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with the requirements of § 621.15 of this chapter, each bank and association may provide data on its accounts and exposures to the Reporting Entity as defined in § 621.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) The exceptions in paragraph (b) of this section shall be exercised by Farm Credit institutions with full awareness of the requirements of the Fair Credit Reporting Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11442, June 7, 1972. Redesignated at 47 FR 12151, Mar. 22, 1982, and amended at 53 FR 35457, Sept. 14, 1988; 56 FR 2675, Jan. 24, 1991; 58 FR 51994, Oct. 6, 1993; 59 FR 46734, Sept. 12, 1994; 61 FR 67188, Dec. 20, 1996; 62 FR 25831, May 12, 1997; 64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999; 75 FR 35968, June 24, 2010; 78 FR 77562, Dec. 24, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8325" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8325   Disclosure of loan documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Borrower</I> means any signatory to a loan contract who is either primarily or secondarily liable on such contract, including guarantors, endorsers, cosigners or the like.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Execution of the loan</I> means the time at which the borrower and the qualified lender have entered into a legal, binding, and enforceable loan contract and any subsequent amendment or modification of such contract. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan</I> means a loan made to a farmer, rancher, or producer or harvester of aquatic products, for any agricultural or aquatic purpose and other credit needs of the borrower, including financing for basic processing and marketing directly related to the borrower's operations and those of other eligible farmers, ranchers, and producers or harvesters of aquatic products. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Loan contract</I> means any written agreement under which a qualified lender lends or agrees to lend funds to a borrower in consideration for, among other things, the borrower's promise to repay the loaned funds at an agreed-upon rate of interest. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Loan document</I> means any form, application, agreement, contract, instrument, or other writing to which a borrower affixes his signature or seal and which the qualified lender intends to retain in its files as evidence relating to the loan contract entered into between it and the borrower, but shall not include any document related to a loan which the borrower has not signed. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Qualified lender</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A System institution that makes loans (as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section) except a bank for cooperatives; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each bank, institution, corporation, company, union, and association described in section 1.7(b)(1)(B) of the Act, but only with respect to loans discounted or pledged under section 1.7(b)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each qualified lender shall provide a copy of all loan documents to the borrower or the borrower's legal representative at the execution of the loan. Subsequently, upon written request of a borrower or a borrower's legal representative, a qualified lender shall provide, as soon as practicable, a copy of any loan documents signed by the borrower, a copy of other documents delivered by such borrower to that qualified lender, and a copy of each collateral evaluation of the borrower's assets made or used by the qualified lender. To the extent that a collateral evaluation may contain confidential third party information, the lender may protect such confidential third party information by withholding any information that would disclose identifying characteristics of the third party or his property. One copy shall be furnished free of charge. The lender may assess reasonable copying charges for any additional copies requested by the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each System bank and association shall have available in its offices copies of the institution's articles of incorporation or charter and bylaws for inspection and shall furnish a copy of such documents to any owner of stock or participation certificates upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 39504, Oct. 28, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 35458, Sept. 14, 1988; 56 FR 2675, Jan. 24, 1991; 59 FR 46734, Sept. 12, 1994; 61 FR 67188, Dec. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8330" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8330   Production of documents and testimony during litigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If your bank or association is a party to litigation with a borrower or a successor in interest, you or your directors, officers, or employees may disclose confidential information about that borrower or the successor in interest during the litigation.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Government or your bank or association is not a party to litigation, you or your directors, officers, or employees may produce confidential documents or testimony only if a court of competent jurisdiction issues a lawful order signed by a judge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 43049, Aug. 9, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8340" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8340   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Disposition of Obsolete Records</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8360" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8360   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8370" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8370   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Internal Controls</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8430" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8430   Internal controls.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit institution's board of directors must adopt an internal control policy, providing adequate direction to the institution in establishing effective control over, and accountability for, operations, programs, and resources. The policy must include, at a minimum, the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) Direction to management which assigns responsibility for the internal control function (financial, credit, credit review, collateral, and administrative) to an officer (or officers) of the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) Adoption of internal audit and control procedures that evidence responsibility for review and maintenance of comprehensive and effective internal controls.
</P>
<P>(c) Direction for the operation of a program to review and assess its assets. These policies shall include standards which address the administration of this program, described in the list which follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan, loan-related assets, and appraisal review standards, including standards for scope of review selection and standards for workpapers and supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(2) Asset quality classification standards to be utilized in accordance with a standardized classification system consistent among associations within a district and their funding Farm Credit Bank or agricultural credit bank.
</P>
<P>(3) Standards for assessing credit administration, including the appraisal of collateral.
</P>
<P>(4) Standards for the training required to initiate the program.
</P>
<P>(d) The role of the audit committee in providing oversight and review of the institution's internal controls.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990, as amended at 71 FR 5763, Feb. 2, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 618.8440" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.19.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 618.8440   Planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Business plan requirement.</I> No later than 30 days after the commencement of each calendar year, the board of directors of each Farm Credit System institution must adopt an operational and strategic business plan for at least the succeeding 3 years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of business plan.</I> The plan must include, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A mission statement.
</P>
<P>(2) An annual review of the internal and external factors likely to affect the institution during the planning period. The review must:
</P>
<P>(i) Incorporate the description and assessment of workforce and management strengths and weaknesses required by paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Include an assessment of the needs of the board, including skills, based on the annual self-evaluation of the board's performance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Include strategies for correcting identified weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(3) Quantifiable goals and objectives.
</P>
<P>(4) Pro forma financial statements for each year of the plan.
</P>
<P>(5) A detailed operating budget for the first year of the plan.
</P>
<P>(6) The capital adequacy plan adopted pursuant to § 615.5200(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(7) A human capital plan that includes, at a minimum, the items specified in this paragraph (b)(7). These items may be contained in other board-approved documents that are adopted annually, provided the items are summarized in, and incorporated by reference into, the human capital plan.
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the institution's workforce and management and an assessment of their strengths and weaknesses; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the institution's workforce and management succession programs.


</P>
<P>(8) For each Farm Credit System institution in its exercise of title III lending authorities and direct lender association, a marketing plan that strategically addresses how the institution will further the objective of the Act, set forth in section 1.1(b) of the Act, that the System be responsive to the credit needs of all types of agricultural producers having a basis for credit. The marketing plan must include, at a minimum, the items specified in this paragraph (b)(8). These items may be contained in other board-approved documents that are adopted annually, provided the items are summarized in, and incorporated by reference into, the marketing plan.
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the institution's chartered territory by market segment, including the characteristics of demography, geography, and types of agriculture practiced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Strategies and actions to market the institution's products and services to all eligible and creditworthy persons within each market segment.
</P>
<P>(c) Each institution subject to paragraph (b)(8) of this section must report annually to its board of directors on the progress the institution has made in accomplishing the strategies and actions required by paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 25587, May 1, 2012, as amended at 91 FR 7819, Feb. 19, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="619" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 619—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.4, 1.5, 1.7, 2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.11, 2.12, 3.1, 3.2, 4.9, 5.9, 5.17, 5.19, 5.61C, 7.0, 7.1, 7.6, 7.8 and 7.12 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2012, 2013, 2015, 2072, 2073, 2075, 2092, 2093, 2122, 2123, 2160, 2243, 2252, 2254, 2279a, 2279a-1, 2279b, 2279c-1, 2279f); sec 514 of Pub. L. 102-552. 106 Stat. 4102.








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 11446, June 7, 1972, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 619.9000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9000   The Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit Act of 1971; Pub. L. 92-181 and amendments. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9010   Additional security.</HEAD>
<P>Supplementary collateral to the primary security taken in connection with the loan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9015" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9015   Agricultural credit associations.</HEAD>
<P>Agricultural credit associations are associations created by the merger of one or more Federal land bank associations or Federal land credit associations and one or more production credit associations and which have received a transfer of authority to make and participate in long-term real estate mortgage loans pursuant to section 7.6 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9020   Agricultural credit banks.</HEAD>
<P>Agricultural credit banks are those banks created by the merger of a Farm Credit Bank and a bank for cooperatives pursuant to section 7.0 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9025" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9025   Agricultural land.</HEAD>
<P>Land improved or unimproved which is devoted to or available for the production of crops and other products such as but not limited to fruits and timber or for the raising of livestock. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 11446, June 7, 1972. Redesignated at 55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9050" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9050   Associations.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>associations</I> includes (individually or collectively) Federal land bank associations, Federal land credit associations, production credit associations, and agricultural credit associations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24888, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9060" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9060   Bank for cooperatives.</HEAD>
<P>A bank for cooperatives is a bank that is operating under section 3.0 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 67188, Dec. 20, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9110" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9110   Consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>Creation of one new organizational entity from two or more existing entities or parts thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9130" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9130   Differential interest rates.</HEAD>
<P>An interest rate program under which different rates of interest may be made applicable to individual or classes of loans on the basis of type, purpose, amount, quality of loan, or a combination of these factors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9135" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9135   Direct lender.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>direct lender</I> refers to Farm Credit banks and associations (production credit associations, agricultural credit associations, and Federal land credit associations) authorized to lend to eligible borrowers identified in § 613.3000.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24889, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9140" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9140   Farm Credit bank(s).</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise defined, the term <I>Farm Credit bank(s)</I> includes Farm Credit Banks, agricultural credit banks, and banks for cooperatives, but excludes bridge System banks chartered by the Farm Credit Administration Board pursuant to section 5.61C(h)(2) of the Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 82244, Nov. 24, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9145" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9145   Farm Credit Bank.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Farm Credit Bank</I> refers to a bank resulting from the mandatory merger of the Federal land bank and the Federal intermediate credit bank in each Farm Credit district pursuant to section 410 of the Agricultural Credit Act of 1987, Pub. L. 100-233, or any bank resulting from a merger of two or more Farm Credit Banks.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24889, June 19, 1990]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9146" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9146   Farm Credit institutions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise defined, the term <I>Farm Credit institutions</I> refers to all institutions identified in section 1.2 of the Act and are chartered and regulated by the Farm Credit Administration but excludes bridge System banks chartered by the Farm Credit Administration Board pursuant to section 5.61C(h)(2) of the Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 82244, Nov. 24, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9155" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9155   Federal land credit association.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Federal land credit association</I> refers to a Federal land bank association that has received a transfer of direct long-term real estate lending authority pursuant to section 7.6 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24889, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9170" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9170   Fixed interest rate.</HEAD>
<P>The rate of interest specified in the note or loan document which will prevail as the maximum rate chargeable to the borrower during the period of the loan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9180" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9180   Fixed interest spread.</HEAD>
<P>A percentage to be added to the cost of money to the bank or association as the means of establishing a lending rate. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9185" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9185   Funding Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The term <I>Funding Corporation</I> refers to the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 4.9 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 24889, June 19, 1990]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9195" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9195   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9200" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9200   Loss-sharing agreements.</HEAD>
<P>A contractual arrangement under which the parties agree to share losses associated with loans or otherwise, as may be provided for in the agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[42 FR 20457, Apr. 20, 1977] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9210" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9210   Merger.</HEAD>
<P>Combining of one or more organizational entities into another similar entity. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9230" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9230   Open-end mortgage loan plans.</HEAD>
<P>A mortgage loan which permits the borrower to obtain additional sums during the term of the loan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9235" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9235   Outside director.</HEAD>
<P>A member of a board of directors selected or appointed by the board, who is not a director, officer, employee, agent, or stockholder of any Farm Credit System institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 5764, Feb. 2, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9240" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9240   Participation agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A contract under which a lender agrees to sell a portion of a loan to one or more purchasers under specific terms set forth in the agreement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9250" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9250   Participation certificates.</HEAD>
<P>Evidence of investment in a bank or association to which all the rights and obligations of stock attach with the exception of the right to vote in the affairs of the institution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9260" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9260   Primary security.</HEAD>
<P>The basic collateral securing the loan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9270" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9270   Qualified Public Accountant or External Auditor.</HEAD>
<P>A qualified public accountant or external auditor is a person who:
</P>
<P>(a) Holds a valid and unrevoked certificate, issued to such person by a legally constituted State authority, identifying such person as a certified public accountant;
</P>
<P>(b) Is licensed to practice as a public accountant by an appropriate regulatory authority of a State or other political subdivision of the United States;
</P>
<P>(c) Is in good standing as a certified and licensed public accountant under the laws of the State or other political subdivision of the United States in which is located the home office or corporate office of the institution that is to be audited;
</P>
<P>(d) Is not suspended or otherwise barred from practice as an accountant or public accountant before the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or any other appropriate Federal or State regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(e) Is independent of the institution that is to be audited. For the purposes of this definition, the term “independent” has the same meaning as under the rules and interpretations of the authoritative body governing overall audit performance. At a minimum, an accountant hired to audit a System institution is not independent if he or she functions in the role of management, audits his or her own work, or serves in an advocacy role for the institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 76119, Dec. 20, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 28599, June 17, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9310" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9310   Senior officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Executive Officer, the Chief Operations Officer, the Chief Financial Officer, the Chief Credit Officer, and the General Counsel, or persons in similar positions; and any other person responsible for a major policy-making function.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 5764, Feb. 2, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9320" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9320   Shareholder or stockholder.</HEAD>
<P>A holder of any equity interest in a Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18744, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9330" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9330   Speculative purposes.</HEAD>
<P>To buy or sell with the expectation of profiting by fluctuations in price. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[40 FR 49078, Oct. 21, 1975] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9335" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9335   Supplemental retirement plan or supplemental executive retirement plan.</HEAD>
<P>A nonqualified retirement plan that provides benefits in addition to those covered by other retirement plans for all employees and funded in whole or part by a Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 60596, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9338" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9338   Unincorporated business entities.</HEAD>
<P>An <I>Unincorporated Business Entity</I> means a Limited Partnership (LP), Limited Liability Partnership (LLP), Limited Liability Limited Partnership (LLLP), Limited Liability Company (LLC), Business or other Trust Entity (TE), or other business entity established and maintained under State law that is not incorporated under any law or chartered under Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 31834, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 619.9340" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.20.0.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 619.9340   Variable interest rate.</HEAD>
<P>An interest rate on the outstanding loan balances, which may be changed from time to time during the period of the loan, if provision is made in the note or loan document. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="620" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 620—DISCLOSURE TO SHAREHOLDERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.3, 4.3A, 4.19, 5.9, 5.17, 5.19 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2154, 2154a, 2207, 2243, 2252, 2254); sec. 424, Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1656 (12 U.S.C. 2252 note); sec. 514, Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102, 4134.






</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliated organization</I> means any organization, other than a Farm Credit organization, of which a director, senior officer or nominee for director of the reporting institution is a partner, director, officer, or majority shareholder. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Association</I> means any of the associations as described in § 619.9050 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank</I> means any of the Farm Credit banks as described in § 619.9140 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Direct lender association</I> means any association that is a direct lender as described in § 619.9135 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Immediate family</I> means spouse, parents, siblings, children, mothers- and fathers-in-law, brothers- and sisters-in-law, and sons- and daughters-in-law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Institution</I> means any bank or association chartered by the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Loan</I> means any extension of credit or lease that is recorded as an asset of a reporting institution, whether made directly or purchased from another lender. The term “loan” includes, but is not limited to, loans originated through direct negotiations between the reporting institution and a borrower; purchased loans or interests in loans, including participation interests, retained subordinated participation interests in loans sold, interests in pools of subordinated participation interests that are held in lieu of retaining a subordinated participation interest in loans sold; contracts of sale; notes receivable; and other similar obligations and lease financings.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Material.</I> The term <I>material,</I> when used to qualify a requirement to furnish information as to any subject, limits the information required to those matters to which there is a substantial likelihood that a reasonable person would attach importance in making shareholder decisions or determining the financial condition of the institution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Normal risk of collectibility</I> means the ordinary risk inherent in the lending operation. Loans that are deemed to have more than a normal risk of collectibility include, but are not limited to, any adversely classified loans.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Permanent capital</I> shall have the same meaning as set forth in § 615.5201 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Protected borrower capital</I> means eligible borrower stock as defined in § 615.5260 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Related association</I> means an association within the reporting bank's chartered territory that generates loans for the bank or whose operations the bank funds. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Related bank</I> means a reporting association's funding bank or the bank for which it generates loans.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Related organization</I> means any Farm Credit institution that is a shareholder of the reporting institution or in which the reporting institution has an ownership interest.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Report</I> refers to the annual report, quarterly report, notice, or information statement, regardless of form, required by this part unless otherwise specified. 
</P>
<P>(p) Signed, when referring to paper form, means a manual signature, and, when referring to electronic form, means marked in a manner that authenticates each signer's identity.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Significant event</I> means any event that is likely to have a material impact on the reporting institution's financial condition, results of operations, cost of funds, or reliability of sources of funds. The term “significant event” includes, but is not limited to, actual or probable noncompliance with the regulatory minimum permanent capital standards or capital adequacy requirements, stock impairment, the imposition of or entering into enforcement actions, execution of financial assistance agreements with other institutions, collateral deficiencies that impact a bank's ability to obtain loan funds, or defaults on debt obligations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 8656, Mar. 13, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 42086, Nov. 21, 1986; 53 FR 3337, Feb. 5, 1988; 56 FR 29421, June 27, 1991; 56 FR 42649, Aug. 28, 1991; 58 FR 48791, Sept. 20, 1993; 59 FR 37406, July 22, 1994; 62 FR 15092, Mar. 31, 1997; 63 FR 39229, July 22, 1998; 67 FR 16633, Apr. 8, 2002; 70 FR 35357, June 17, 2005; 71 FR 5764, Feb. 2, 2006; 75 FR 18744, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.2   Preparing and filing reports.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) Copies of each report required by this part, including financial statements and related schedules, exhibits, and all other papers and documents that are a part of the report, must be sent to the Farm Credit Administration according to our instructions. Submissions must comply with the requirements of § 620.3 of this part. The Farm Credit Administration must receive the report within the period prescribed under applicable subpart sections.
</P>
<P>(b) The reports must be available for public inspection at the issuing institution and the Farm Credit Administration office with which the reports are filed. Farm Credit bank reports must also be available for public inspection at each related association's office(s).
</P>
<P>(c) The reports sent to shareholders must comply with the requirements of § 620.3 and electronic delivery of those reports requires shareholder agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) Information in any part of a report may be incorporated by reference in answer or partial answer to any other item of the report, unless instructions for the report state otherwise.
</P>
<P>(e) All items of essentially the same character as items required to be reported in the reports of condition and performance pursuant to part 621 of this chapter shall be prepared in accordance with the rules set forth in part 621.
</P>
<P>(f) No disclosure required by subparts B and E of this part shall be deemed to violate any regulation of the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(g) Each Farm Credit institution shall present its reports in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and in a manner that provides the most meaningful disclosure to shareholders.
</P>
<P>(1) Any Farm Credit institution that presents its annual and quarterly financial statements on a combined or consolidated basis shall also include in the report the statement of condition and statement of income of the institution on a stand-alone basis. The stand-alone statements may be in summary form and shall disclose the basis of presentation if different from accounting policies of the combined or consolidated statements.
</P>
<P>(2) Any Farm Credit bank that prepares its annual financial statements on a stand-alone basis must also provide financial information on its related associations as part of its annual report. The information on the related associations must be presented on a combined basis with the bank's financial information and, at a minimum, include both a condensed statement of condition and a statement of income. The combined bank and association financial information may either be in the footnotes of the bank's annual report or located in a supplement to the report. All combined information provided through either a footnote or a supplement will be considered part of the bank's annual report, subject to the same annual report preparation, distribution, and accuracy requirements of part 620.
</P>
<P>(i) The combined bank and association financial information may be unaudited but must disclose the basis of presentation if different from accounting policies used for the bank-only financial statements.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the combined bank and association financial information is presented in the form of a supplement, the supplement must be referenced within the bank's annual report and accompany the annual report when distributed.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) Each institution's annual report or notice must state, in a prominent location within the report or notice: 
</P>
<P>(i) That the institution's quarterly reports are available free of charge on request; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The approximate dates the quarterly reports will be available; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The telephone numbers and addresses (including information on any other distribution method the institution makes available) where shareholders can request or obtain copies of the quarterly reports. 
</P>
<P>(2) Each association must state, in a prominent location within each report: 
</P>
<P>(i) That the shareholders' investment in the association may be materially affected by the financial condition and results of operations of the related bank; 
</P>
<P>(ii) That (if not otherwise provided) a copy of the bank's financial reports to shareholders will be made available free of charge on request; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The telephone numbers and addresses (including information on any other distribution method the association makes available) where shareholders can request or obtain copies of the related bank's financial reports. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each institution shall, after receiving a request for a report, provide the report to the requestor. The first copy of the requested report shall be provided to the requestor free of charge.
</P>
<P>(i) Any events that have affected one or more related organizations of the reporting institution that are likely to have a material effect on the financial condition, results of operations, cost of funds, or reliability of sources of funds of the reporting institution shall be considered significant events for the reporting institution and shall be disclosed in the reports. Any significant event affecting the reporting institution that occurred during the preceding fiscal quarters that continues to have a material effect on the reporting institution shall be considered significant events of the current fiscal quarter and shall be disclosed in the reports. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 8656, Mar. 13, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 21340, June 12, 1986; 56 FR 29421, June 27, 1991; 58 FR 27923, May 12, 1993; 58 FR 48791, Sept. 20, 1993; 62 FR 15092, Mar. 31, 1997; 66 FR 14301, Mar. 12, 2001; 67 FR 16633, Apr. 8, 2002; 71 FR 76119, Dec. 20, 2006; 77 FR 60597, Oct. 3, 2012; 85 FR 63430, Oct. 8, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.3   Accuracy of reports and assessment of internal control over financial reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition against incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading disclosures.</I> No institution and no employee, officer, director, or nominee for director of the institution shall make any disclosure to shareholders or the general public concerning any matter required to be disclosed by this part that is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading. When any such person makes disclosure that, in the judgment of the Farm Credit Administration, is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading, whether or not such disclosure is made in disclosure statements required by this part, such institution or person shall make such additional or corrective disclosure as is necessary to provide shareholders and the general public with a full and fair disclosure. Unless otherwise determined by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA), the appropriate use of the limited disclosure authorized by § 628.62(c) of this chapter does not create an incomplete disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signatures.</I> The name and position title of each person signing the report must be printed beneath his or her signature. If any person required to sign the report has not signed the report, the name and position title of the individual and the reason(s) such individual is unable or refuses to sign must be disclosed in the report. All reports must be dated and signed on behalf of the institution by:
</P>
<P>(1) The chief executive officer (CEO);
</P>
<P>(2) The chief financial officer (CFO), or if the institution has no CFO, the officer responsible for preparing financial reports; and
</P>
<P>(3) A board member formally designated by action of the board to certify reports on behalf of individual board members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification of financial accuracy.</I> The report must be certified as financially accurate by the signatories to the report. If any signatory is unable to, or refuses to, certify the report, the institution must disclose the individual's name and position title and the reason(s) such individual is unable or refuses to certify the report. At a minimum, the certification must include a statement that:
</P>
<P>(1) The signatories have reviewed the report,
</P>
<P>(2) The report has been prepared in accordance with all applicable statutory or regulatory requirements, and
</P>
<P>(3) The information is true, accurate, and complete to the best of signatories' knowledge and belief. If the report contains the limited disclosure authorized by § 628.62(c) of this chapter, the statement may be modified to explain that the completeness of the report was determined in consideration of § 628.62(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management assessment of internal control over financial reporting.</I> Annual reports of those institutions with over $1 billion in total assets (as of the end of the prior fiscal year) must include a report by management assessing the effectiveness of the institution's internal control over financial reporting. The assessment must be conducted during the reporting period and be reported to the institution's board of directors. Quarterly and annual reports for those institutions with over $1 billion in total assets (as of the end of the prior fiscal year) must disclose any material change(s) in the internal control over financial reporting occurring during the reporting period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 76119, Dec. 20, 2006, as amended at 74 FR 28599, June 17, 2009; 86 FR 54357, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Annual Report to Shareholders</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.4   Preparing and providing the annual report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution of the Farm Credit System must:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare and send to the Farm Credit Administration an electronic copy of its annual report within 75 calendar days of the end of its fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) Publish a copy of its annual report on its Web site when it sends the report electronically to the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide prior written notification to its shareholders that the institution will publish its annual report on the institution's Web site when the report is sent electronically to the Farm Credit Administration; and
</P>
<P>(4) Within 90 calendar days of the end of its fiscal year, prepare and provide to its shareholders an annual report substantively identical to the copy of the report sent to the Farm Credit Administration under paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A bank must provide its annual report to the shareholders of all related associations if the bank experiences a significant event that has a material effect on those associations. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any bank that is required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section to provide its annual report must coordinate its distribution with its related associations. 
</P>
<P>(c) The report must contain, at a minimum, the information required by §§ 620.5 and 620.6. In addition, the report must contain such other information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 8656, Mar. 13, 1986. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 29421, 29422, June 27, 1991; 62 FR 15093, Mar. 31, 1997; 66 FR 14301, Mar. 12, 2001; 67 FR 16633, Apr. 8, 2002; 71 FR 76119, Dec. 20, 2006; 72 FR 68061, Dec. 4, 2007; 77 FR 60597, Oct. 3, 2012] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.5   Contents of the annual report to shareholders.</HEAD>
<P>The report must contain the following items in substantially the same order:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description of business.</I> The description must include a brief discussion of the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) The territory served; 
</P>
<P>(2) The persons eligible to borrow;
</P>
<P>(3) The types of lending activities engaged in and related services offered. Each bank shall also briefly describe the lending and related services offered by its related associations, as well as related services offered to the borrowers in the bank's chartered territory by any service corporation chartered under the Act in which it has an ownership interest. Each association shall briefly describe the lending and related services offered by its related organizations or incorporate by reference relevant portions of the related bank's report, if such report is provided to association shareholders;
</P>
<P>(4) Any significant developments within the last 5 years that had or could have a material impact on earnings, interest rates to borrowers, patronage, or dividends, including, but not limited to, changes in the reporting entity, changes in patronage policies and practices, and financial assistance provided by or to the institution through loss-sharing or capital preservation agreements or from any other source;
</P>
<P>(5) Any acquisition or disposition of material assets during the last fiscal year, other than in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(6) Any material change during the last fiscal year in the manner of conducting the business; 
</P>
<P>(7) Any seasonal characteristics of the institution's business; 
</P>
<P>(8) Any concentrations of more than 10 percent of its assets in particular commodities or particular types of agricultural activity or business, and the institution's dependence, if any, upon a single customer, or a few customers, including other financing institutions (OFIs), the loss of any one of which would have a material effect on the institution; and 
</P>
<P>(9) A brief description of the business of any related Farm Credit institution, as described in § 619.9146 of this chapter, and the nature of the institution's relationship with such organization.
</P>
<P>(10) For associations, in a separate section of the annual report, discuss the interdependent relationship between the association and its funding bank, including, but not limited to, the financial relationship, a service provider relationship, other material operational relationships, and other specific issues or areas that create a material interdependent relationship between the association and its funding bank. This separate section may incorporate by reference information from other sections of the annual report. At a minimum, the separate section must include the statement required by § 620.2(h)(2)(i) of this part and the following information required elsewhere in this section, if applicable: 
</P>
<P>(i) The association's obligation to borrow only from the bank unless the bank gives the association approval to borrow elsewhere; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The major terms of any capital preservation, loss sharing, or financial assistance agreements between the association and the bank; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any statutory or bank bylaw provisions authorizing bank access to the capital of the association; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The extent the bank assumed the association's exposure to interest rate risk.
</P>
<P>(11) For banks and associations, business relationships with unincorporated business entities (UBEs).
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(11)(ii) of this section, describe the business relationship with any UBE, as defined in § 611.1151 of this chapter, that was organized by the bank or association or in which the bank or association has an equity interest. Include in the description the name of the UBE, the type of business entity, the purpose for which the UBE was organized, the scope of its activities, and the level of ownership. If the bank or association does not have an equity interest, but manages the operations of a UBE that is controlled by a System institution, describe this business relationship and any fees received.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the UBE is organized for the purpose of acquiring and managing unusual or complex collateral associated with loans, the bank or association need only disclose the name of the UBE, the type of business entity, and the purpose for which the UBE was organized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of property.</I> State the location of and briefly describe the principal offices, i.e., headquarters, and major facilities where the institution makes and services its loans, and other materially important physical properties (other than property acquired in the course of collecting a loan) of the institution. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Legal proceedings and enforcement actions.</I> (1) Describe briefly any material pending legal proceedings, other than ordinary routine litigation incidental to the business, to which the institution is a party, of which any of its property is the subject, or which involved claims that the institution may be required by contract or operation of law, to satisfy.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the type of and reason for each enforcement action in effect, i.e., agreements, cease and desist orders, temporary cease and desist orders, prohibitions and removals of officers or directors, or civil money penalties, if any, imposed or assessed on the institution or its officers or directors and the amount of any civil money penalties assessed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Description of capital structure.</I> (1) Describe each class of stock and participation certificates the institution is authorized to issue and the rights, duties, and liabilities of each class. The description shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of shares of each class outstanding;
</P>
<P>(ii) The par or face value;
</P>
<P>(iii) The voting and dividend rights;
</P>
<P>(iv) The order of priority upon impairment or liquidation;
</P>
<P>(v) The institution's retirement policies and restrictions on transfer;
</P>
<P>(vi) The statutory requirement that a borrower purchase stock as a condition to obtaining a loan;
</P>
<P>(vii) The manner in which the stock is purchased (i.e., promissory note to the issuer, or cash not advanced by issuing institution);
</P>
<P>(viii) The statutory authority of the institution to require additional capital contributions, if any; and 
</P>
<P>(ix) The statutory and regulatory restrictions regarding retirement of stock and distribution of earnings pursuant to § 615.5215 of this chapter, and any requirements to add capital under a plan approved by the Farm Credit Administration pursuant to § 615.5350, § 615.5351, § 615.5353, § 615.5357, or § 628.301 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe regulatory minimum capital standards, and the institution's compliance with such standards. For banks, also discuss any related associations that are not currently in compliance with the standards.
</P>
<P>(3) State whether the institution is currently prohibited from retiring stock or distributing earnings by the statutory and regulatory restrictions described in paragraph (d)(1)(ix) of this section, or knows of any reason such prohibitions may apply during the fiscal year subsequent to the fiscal year just ended.
</P>
<P>(4) Describe the institution's capital adequacy requirements and the minimum stock purchase requirement in effect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Description of liabilities.</I> (1) Describe separately the institution's insured and uninsured debt, indicating the type, amount, maturity, and interest rates of each category of obligations outstanding at the end of the fiscal year just ended. Describe the nature of the insurance provided under part E of title V of the Act. Describe any applicable statutory and regulatory restrictions on the institution's ability to incur debt.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe fully the institution's rights and obligations under any agreement, formal or informal, between the institution and any other person or entity having to do with capital preservation, loss sharing, or any other form of financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) Describe any statutory authorities or obligations to contribute to or on behalf of another institution of the Farm Credit System. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe supplemental retirement plans funded by the institution on behalf of senior officers and employees. The description for each plan must include the:
</P>
<P>(i) Plan name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Present value of accumulated benefits;
</P>
<P>(iii) Payments made during the reporting period;
</P>
<P>(iv) Funded and unfunded obligations; and
</P>
<P>(v) Off-balance sheet amounts, including benefits earned but not vested.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Selected financial data.</I> Furnish in comparative columnar form for each of the last 5 fiscal years the following financial data, if material:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For banks and direct lender associations</I>—(i) <I>Balance sheet.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Total assets.
</P>
<P>(B) Investments.
</P>
<P>(C) Loans.
</P>
<P>(D) Allowance for credit losses.
</P>
<P>(E) Net loans.
</P>
<P>(F) Other property owned.
</P>
<P>(G) Total liabilities.
</P>
<P>(H) Obligations with maturities less than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(I) Obligations with maturities longer than 1 year.
</P>
<P>(J) Protected borrower capital.
</P>
<P>(K) <I>At-risk capital.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Stock and participation certificates.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allocated surplus.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Unallocated surplus.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Statement of income.</I> (A) Net interest income.
</P>
<P>(B) Provision for credit losses.
</P>
<P>(C) Extraordinary items.
</P>
<P>(D) Net income.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Key financial ratios.</I> (A) Return on average assets.
</P>
<P>(B) Return on average protected borrower capital and at-risk capital.
</P>
<P>(C) Net interest margin as a percentage of average earning assets.
</P>
<P>(D) Protected and at-risk capital-to-total assets.
</P>
<P>(E) Net chargeoffs-to-average loans.
</P>
<P>(F) Allowance for credit losses-to-loans.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Net income distributed.</I> (A) Dividends.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Patronage refunds.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Stock.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Allocated surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For all banks (on a bank-only basis)</I>:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(ii) CET1 capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tier 1 capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(iv) Total capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(v) Tier 1 leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For all associations:</I>
</P>
<P>(i) Permanent capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(ii) CET1 capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(iii) Tier 1 capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(iv) Total capital ratio.
</P>
<P>(v) Tier 1 leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For all banks (on a bank only basis) and for all associations.</I> The following ratios shall be disclosed in comparative columnar form in each annual report through fiscal year end 2021, only as long as these ratios are part of the previous 5 fiscal years of financial data required under paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Core surplus ratio.
</P>
<P>(ii) Total surplus ratio.
</P>
<P>(iii) For banks only, net collateral ratio.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Management's discussion and analysis of financial condition and results of operations.</I> Fully discuss any material aspects of the institution's financial condition, changes in financial condition, and results of operations during the last 2 fiscal years, identifying favorable and unfavorable trends, and significant events or uncertainties. In addition to the items enumerated below, the discussion shall provide such other information as is necessary to an understanding of the institution's financial condition, changes in financial condition, and results of operations.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan portfolio.</I> (i) Describe the types of loans in the portfolio by major category (e.g., agricultural real estate mortgage loans, rural home loans, agricultural production loans, processing and marketing loans, farm business loans, and international loans), indicating the approximate percentage of the total dollar portfolio represented by each major category. Associations that make agricultural production loans shall provide the information required for such loans by major subcategory (e.g., cash grains, field crops, livestock, dairy, poultry, and timber). For each category and subcategory, discuss any special features of the loans that may be material to the evaluation of risk and any economic or business conditions that have had or are likely to have a material impact on their collectibility. For banks, also disclose separately the aggregate amount of loans outstanding to related associations and other financial institutions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the geographic distribution of the loan portfolio by State or other significant geographic division, if any.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Purchases and sales of loans.</I> (A) Describe any material participation in the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation program or origination of loans for resale. 
</P>
<P>(B) Disclose the amount of purchased loans, loans sold with recourse, retained subordinated participation interests in loans sold, and interests in pools of subordinated participation interests that are held in lieu of retaining a subordinated participation interest in the loans sold. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Risk exposure.</I> For the periods covered by the financial statements provide:
</P>
<P>(A) An analysis of high-risk assets and loan performance categories, to include, but not limited to, a discussion of the nature and extent of significant potential credit risks within the loan portfolio, or other information that could adversely impact performance of the loan portfolio in the near future;


</P>
<P>(B) An analysis of the allowance for credit losses that includes the ratios of the allowance for credit losses to loans and net chargeoffs to average loans, and a discussion of the adequacy of the allowance for credit losses given reasonable and supportable forecasts;




</P>
<P>(C) Financial assistance given or received under districtwide or Systemwide loss-sharing or capital preservation agreements or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(D) For banks, a description in the aggregate of the recent loss experience of related associations that are its shareholders, including the items enumerated in paragraphs (g)(1)(iv) (A), (B), and (C) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(E) Describe any material obligations with respect to loans sold and the amount of any material contributions made in connection with loans sold into the secondary market. Further disclose the amount of risk of loss associated with such obligations and the amount included in the allowance for credit losses to provide for such risk. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Results of operations.</I> (i) Describe, on a comparative basis, changes in the major components of net interest income during the last 2 fiscal years, describing significant factors that contributed to the changes and quantifying the amount of change(s) due to an increase in volume or the introduction of new services and the amount due to changes in interest rates earned and paid, based on averages for each period. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe any unusual or infrequent events or transactions or any significant economic changes, including, but not limited to, financial assistance received or paid that materially affected reported income. In each case, indicate the extent to which income was so affected. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss the factors underlying the material changes, if any, in the return on average assets, the return on average protected borrower capital and at-risk capital, and the permanent capital ratio as determined in accordance with part 615, subpart H of this chapter. An explanation of the basis of the calculation of ratios relating to permanent capital and at-risk capital shall be included. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe, on a comparative basis, the major components of operating expense, indicating the reasons for significant increases or decreases. 
</P>
<P>(v) Describe any other significant components of income or expense, including, but not limited to, income from investments, that should be described in order to understand the institution's results of operations. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Discuss any events affecting a related organization that are likely to have a material effect on the reporting institution's financial condition, results of operations, cost of funds, or reliability of sources of funds. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Describe any known trends or uncertainties that have had, or that the institution reasonably expects will have, a material impact on net interest income or net income. Disclose any events known to management that will cause a material change in the relationship between costs and revenues. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquidity and funding sources</I>—(i) <I>Funding sources.</I> (A) Describe the average and year end amounts, maturities, and interest rates on outstanding consolidated System-wide debt obligations, bond obligations, or any other obligations used to fund the institution's lending operations. 
</P>
<P>(B) Describe existing lines of credit and their terms. 
</P>
<P>(C) Describe the institution's capital accounts and other sources of lendable funds. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity.</I> (A) Discuss the institution's liquidity policy and the components of asset liquidity, including, but not limited to, cash, investment securities, and maturing loan repayments. Assess the ability of the institution to generate adequate amounts of cash to fund its operations and meet its obligations. 
</P>
<P>(B) Discuss any known trends that are likely to result in a liquidity deficiency and the course of action management intends to take to resolve it. Discuss any material increase or decrease in liquidity that is likely to occur. 
</P>
<P>(C) Discuss the institution's participation in the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation secondary market programs authorized by title VIII of the Act and the origination of loans for resale under other authorities, if any. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Funds management.</I> (A) Discuss the institution's interest rate programs and the institution's ability to control interest rate margins. 
</P>
<P>(B) Discuss changes in net interest margin (net interest income as a percentage of average earning assets), explaining the reasons therefor. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital resources.</I> (i) Describe any material commitments to purchase capital assets and the anticipated sources of funding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe any material trends or changes in the mix and cost of debt and capital resources. The discussion shall consider changes in permanent capital, CET1 capital, tier 1 capital, total capital, the tier 1 leverage ratio, debt, and any off-balance-sheet financial arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe any favorable or unfavorable trends in the institution's capital resources. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Discuss and explain any material changes in capital ratios, noting any material adverse variances from regulatory guidelines. 
</P>
<P>(v) Discuss the adequacy of the current capital position and any material changes in the capital plan adopted pursuant to § 615.5200 of this chapter, to the extent that such changes may have an effect on the institution's minimum stock purchase requirements and its ability to retire stock and distribute earnings. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Discuss any trends, commitments, contingencies, or events that are reasonably likely to have a materially adverse effect upon the institution's ability to meet the regulatory minimum capital standards and capital adequacy requirements. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Directors and senior officers.</I> In a separate section of the annual report, make the disclosures required in § 620.6 of this part. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Relationship with qualified public accountant.</I> (1) If a change or changes in qualified public accountants have taken place since the last annual report to shareholders or if a disagreement with a qualified public accountant has occurred that the institution would be required to report to the Farm Credit Administration under part 621 of this chapter, the information required by § 621.4(c) and (d) of this chapter must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose the total fees, by the category of services provided, paid during the reporting period to the qualified public accountant engaged to conduct the institution's financial statement audit. At a minimum, identify fees paid for audit services, tax services, and non-audit related services. The types of non-audit services must be identified and indicate audit committee approval of the services.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Financial statements.</I> (1) Furnish financial statements and related footnotes that have been prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and instructions and other requirements of the Farm Credit Administration and that have been audited in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a qualified public accountant and an opinion expressed thereon. The statements shall include the following statements and related footnotes for the last 3 fiscal years: balance sheet, statement of income, statement of changes in protected borrower capital and at-risk capital, and statement of cash flows.
</P>
<P>(2) State that the financial statements were prepared under the oversight of the audit committee, identifying the members of the audit committee. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Credit and services to young, beginning, and small farmers and ranchers and producers or harvesters of aquatic products.</I> (1) Each direct lender association must describe the YBS demographics in its territory and the source of the demographic data. If there are differences in the methods by which the demographic and YBS data are presented, these differences must be described. 


</P>
<P>(2) Each direct lender association must provide a description of its YBS program, including a status report on each program component as set forth in § 614.4165 (d) of this chapter and the definitions of “young,” “beginning,” and “small” farmers and ranchers. The discussion must provide such other information necessary for a comprehensive understanding of the direct lender association's YBS program and its results.


</P>
<P>(3) Each Farm Credit bank must include a summary report of the quantitative YBS data from its affiliated direct lender associations as described in FCA's instructions for the annual YBS yearend report. The report must include the definitions of “young,” “beginning,” and “small” farmers and ranchers. A narrative report may be necessary for an ample understanding of the YBS mission results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 8656, Mar. 13, 1986, as amended at 69 FR 16471, Mar. 30, 2004; 70 FR 53909, Sept. 13, 2005; 71 FR 5764, Feb. 2, 2006; 71 FR 76119, Dec. 20, 2006; 72 FR 4414, Jan. 31, 2007; 74 FR 28599, June 17, 2009; 75 FR 18744, Apr. 12, 2010; 77 FR 60597, Oct. 3, 2012; 78 FR 31834, May 28, 2013; 79 FR 17856, Mar. 31, 2014; 81 FR 49778, July 28, 2016; 86 FR 54357, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022; 88 FR 89286, Dec. 27, 2023; 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.6   Disclosures in the annual report to shareholders relating to directors and senior officers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) List the names of all directors and senior officers of the institution, indicating the position title and term of office of each director, and the position, title, and date each senior officer commenced employment in his or her current position.
</P>
<P>(2) Briefly describe the business experience during the past 5 years of each director and senior officer, including each person's principal occupation and employment during the past 5 years.
</P>
<P>(3) For each director and senior officer, list any other business interest where the director or senior officer serves on the board of directors or as a senior officer. Name the position held and state the principal business in which the business is engaged.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation of directors.</I> Describe the arrangements under which directors of the institution are compensated for all services as a director (including total cash compensation and noncash compensation). Noncash compensation with an annual aggregate value of less than $5,000 does not have to be reported. State the total cash and reportable noncash compensation paid to all directors as a group during the last fiscal year. For the purposes of this paragraph, disclosure of compensation paid to and days served by directors applies to any director who served in that capacity at any time during the reporting period. If applicable, describe any exceptional circumstances justifying the additional director compensation as authorized by § 611.400(c) of this chapter. For each director, state:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of days served at board meetings;
</P>
<P>(2) The total number of days served in other official activities, including any board committee(s);
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional compensation paid for service on a board committee, naming the committee; and
</P>
<P>(4) The total cash and noncash compensation paid to each director during the last fiscal year. Reportable compensation includes cash and the value of noncash items provided by a third party to a director for services rendered by the director on behalf of the reporting Farm Credit institution. Noncash compensation with an annual aggregate value of less than $5,000 does not have to be reported.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compensation of senior officers.</I> Disclose the information on senior officer compensation and compensation plans as required by this paragraph. The institution must disclose the total amount of compensation paid to senior officers in substantially the same manner as the tabular form specified in the Summary Compensation Table (Compensation Table), located in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) For each of the last 3 completed fiscal years, report the total amount of compensation paid and the amount of each component of compensation paid to the institution's chief executive officer (CEO), naming the individual. If more than one person served in the capacity of CEO during any given fiscal year, individual compensation disclosures must be provided for each CEO.
</P>
<P>(2) For each of the last 3 completed fiscal years, report the aggregate amount of compensation paid, and the components of compensation paid, to all senior officers as a group, stating the number of officers in the group without naming them.
</P>
<P>(i) If applicable, when any employee who is not a senior officer has annual compensation at a level that is among the five highest paid by the institution during the reporting period, include the highly compensated employee(s) in the aggregate number and amount of compensation reported in the Compensation Table. However, exclude any such employee from the Compensation Table if the employee would be considered highly compensated solely because of payments related to or change(s) in value of the employee's qualified pension plan provided that the plan was available to all similarly situated employees on the same basis at the time the employee joined the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The report containing the aggregate compensation disclosure must include a statement that disclosure of information on the total compensation paid during the last fiscal year to any senior officer, or to any other employee included in the aggregate, is available and will be disclosed to shareholders of the institution and shareholders of related associations (if applicable) upon request. This statement must be located directly beneath the Compensation Table.
</P>
<P>(3) The institution must complete the Compensation Table, or something substantially similar, according to the following instructions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Summary Compensation Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="7" scope="col">Annual
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of individual or number in group
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Salary
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bonus
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deferred/
<br/>perquisite
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(a)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(b)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(c)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(d)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(f)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">(g)
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CEO</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aggregate No. of Senior Officers (<E T="03">&amp; other highly compensated employees, if applicable</E>):
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(X)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(X)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX 
</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">(X)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">20XX</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Amounts shown as “Salary” (column (c)) and “Bonus” (column (d)) must reflect the dollar value of salary and bonus earned by the senior officer during the fiscal year. Amounts contributed during the fiscal year by the senior officer pursuant to a plan established under section 401(k) of the Internal Revenue Code, or similar plan, must be included in the salary column or bonus column, as appropriate. If the amount of salary or bonus earned during the fiscal year is not calculable by the time the report is prepared, the reporting institution must provide its best estimate of the compensation amount(s) and disclose that fact in a footnote to the table.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amounts shown as “deferred/perquisites” (column (e)) must reflect the dollar value of other annual compensation not properly categorized as salary or bonus, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Deferred compensation earned during the fiscal year, whether or not paid in cash; or
</P>
<P>(B) Perquisites and other personal benefits, including the value of noncash items, unless the annual aggregate value of such perquisites is less than $5,000. Reportable perquisites include cash and the value of noncash items provided by a third party to a senior officer for services rendered by the officer on behalf of the reporting institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) Compensation amounts reported under the category “Other” (column (f)) must reflect the dollar value of all other compensation not properly reportable in any other column. Items reported in this column must be specifically identified and described in a footnote to the table. “Other” compensation includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount paid to the senior officer pursuant to a plan or arrangement in connection with the resignation, retirement, or termination of such officer's employment with the institution.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of contributions by the institution on behalf of the senior officer to a vested or unvested defined contribution plan unless the plan is made available to all employees on the same basis.
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar value of any tax reimbursement provided by the institution.
</P>
<P>(D) Any changes in the value of pension benefits.
</P>
<P>(iv) Amounts displayed under “Total” (column (g)) shall reflect the sum total of amounts reported in columns (c), (d), (e), and (f).
</P>
<P>(4) If the institution provides a defined benefit plan or a supplemental executive retirement plan (SERP) to its senior officers, the institution must complete the following Pension Benefits Table, or something substantially similar, for each plan according to the following instructions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Pension Benefits Table
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">As of most recent fiscal year-end
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Name of individual
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Years of credited service
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Present value of accumulated benefits
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Payments made during reporting period
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CEO</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Senior Officers as a Group (<E T="03">&amp; other highly compensated employees, if applicable</E>).</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(i) Report the credited years of service for the CEO and the average credited years of service for the senior officer group under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Report the present value of accumulated benefits for the CEO and the senior officer group under the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) Report payments made during the reporting period under the plan for the CEO and the senior officer group.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a description of all compensation, retirement, incentive, and performance plans (plans) pursuant to which cash or noncash compensation was paid or distributed during the last fiscal year, or is proposed to be paid or distributed in the future for performance during the last fiscal year, to those individuals included in the Compensation Table. Provide the information individually for the chief executive officer and as a group for the senior officers. Information provided for the senior officer group includes any highly compensated employees whose compensation is reported in the Compensation Table. The description of each plan must include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of how each plan operates and who is covered by the plan. The summary must include the criteria used to determine amounts payable, including any performance formula or measure, as well as the time period over which the measurement of compensation will be determined, payment schedules, and any material amendments to the plan during the last fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The overall risk and reward structure of the plan as it relates to senior officers' compensation. The description must include, at a minimum, how each plan is compatible with and promotes the institution's goals and business strategy and the mission as a Government-sponsored enterprise.
</P>
<P>(iii) A discussion of the relationship between the CEO and senior officers' compensation to the reporting institution's overall performance. The disclosure must also discuss the relationship between the CEO's and senior officers' compensation to their performance.
</P>
<P>(6) Associations may disclose the information required by paragraph (c) of this section in the Annual Meeting Information Statement (AMIS) pursuant to subpart E of this part. Associations exercising this option must include a reference in the annual report stating that the senior officer compensation information is included in the AMIS and that the AMIS is available for public inspection at the reporting association offices pursuant to § 620.2(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Travel, subsistence, and other related expenses.</I> (1) Briefly describe your policy addressing reimbursements for travel, subsistence, and other related expenses as it applies to directors and senior officers. The report shall include a statement that a copy of the policy is available to shareholders of the institution and shareholders of related associations (if applicable) upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) For each of the last 3 fiscal years, state the aggregate amount of reimbursement for travel, subsistence, and other related expenses for all directors as a group.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transactions with senior officers and directors.</I> (1) State the institution's policies, if any, on loans to and transactions with officers and directors of the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transactions other than loans.</I> For each person who served as a senior officer or director on January 1 of the year following the fiscal year of which the report is filed, or at any time during the fiscal year just ended, describe briefly any transaction or series of transactions other than loans that occurred at any time since the last annual meeting between the institution and such person, any member of the immediate family of such person, or any organization with which such person is affiliated.
</P>
<P>(i) For transactions relating to the purchase or retirement of preferred stock issued by the institution, state the name of each senior officer or director that held preferred stock issued by the institution during the reporting period, the current amount of preferred stock held by the senior officer or director, the average dividend rate on the preferred stock currently held, and the amount of purchases and retirements by the individual during the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(ii) For all other transactions, state the name of the senior officer or director who entered into the transaction or whose immediate family member or affiliated organization entered into the transaction, the nature of the person's interest in the transaction, and the terms of the transaction. No information need be given where the purchase price, fees, or charges involved were determined by competitive bidding or where the amount involved in the transaction (including the total of all periodic payments) does not exceed $5,000, or the interest of the person arises solely as a result of his or her status as a stockholder of the institution and the benefit received is not a special or extra benefit not available to all stockholders.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loans to senior officers and directors.</I> (i) To the extent applicable, state that the institution (or in the case of an association that does not carry loans to its senior officers and directors on its books, its related bank) has had loans outstanding during the last full fiscal year to date to its senior officers and directors, their immediate family members, and any organizations with which such senior officers or directors are affiliated that:
</P>
<P>(A) Were made in the ordinary course of business; and
</P>
<P>(B) Were made on the same terms, including interest rate, amortization schedule, and collateral, as those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with other persons.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent applicable, state that no loan to a senior officer or director, or to any organization affiliated with such person, or to any immediate family member who resides in the same household as such person or in whose loan or business operation such person has a material financial or legal interest, involved more than the normal risk of collectability; provided that no such statement need be made with respect to any director or senior officer who has resigned before the time for filing the applicable report with the Farm Credit Administration (but in no case later than the actual filing), or whose term of office will expire or terminate no later than the date of the meeting of stockholders to which the report relates.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the conditions stated in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section do not apply to the loans of the persons or organizations specified therein, with respect to such loans state:
</P>
<P>(A) The name of the officer or director to whom the loan was made or to whose relative or affiliated organization the loan was made.
</P>
<P>(B) The largest aggregate amount of each indebtedness outstanding at any time during the last fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(C) The nature of the loan(s);
</P>
<P>(D) The amount outstanding as of the latest practicable date.
</P>
<P>(E) The reasons the loan does not comply with the criteria contained in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (e)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) If the loan does not comply with paragraph (e)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the rate of interest payable on the loan and the repayment terms.
</P>
<P>(G) If the loan does not comply with paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, the amount past due, if any, and the reason the loan is deemed to involve more than a normal risk of collectability.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Involvement in certain legal proceedings.</I> Describe any of the following events that occurred during the past 5 years and that are material to an evaluation of the ability or integrity of any person who served as director or senior officer on January 1 of the year following the fiscal year for which the report is filed or at any time during the fiscal year just ended:
</P>
<P>(1) A petition under the Federal bankruptcy laws or any State insolvency law was filed by or against, or a receiver, fiscal agent, or similar officer was appointed by a court for the business or property of such person, or any partnership in which such person was a general partner at or within 2 years before the time of such filing, or any corporation or business association of which such person was a senior officer at or within 2 years before the time of such filing;
</P>
<P>(2) Such person was convicted in a criminal proceeding or is a named party in a pending criminal proceeding (excluding traffic violations and other misdemeanors);
</P>
<P>(3) Such person was the subject of any order, judgment, or decree, not subsequently reversed, suspended, or vacated, by any court of competent jurisdiction, permanently or temporarily enjoining or otherwise limiting such person from engaging in any type of business practice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 60597, Oct. 3, 2012, as amended at 79 FR 17856, Mar. 31, 2014; 80 FR 10326, Feb. 26, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quarterly Report</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.10   Preparing the quarterly report.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution of the Farm Credit System must:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare and send to the Farm Credit Administration an electronic copy of its quarterly report within 40 calendar days after the end of each fiscal quarter, except that no report need be prepared for the fiscal quarter that coincides with the end of the fiscal year of the institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Publish a copy of its quarterly report on its Web site when it electronically sends the report to the Farm Credit Administration; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure the report complies with the applicable provisions of §§ 620.2 and 620.3.
</P>
<P>(b) The report shall contain, at a minimum, the information specified in § 620.11 and, in addition, such other material information (including significant events) as is necessary to make the required disclosures, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(c) Institutions may use the quarterly report to deliver any notice required under § 620.15. Notices required under § 620.17 must be issued separately from the quarterly report, unless otherwise authorized by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 15093, Mar. 31, 1997, as amended at 71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006; 74 FR 28600, June 17, 2009; 77 FR 60600, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.11   Content of quarterly report to shareholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The information required to be included in the quarterly report may be presented in any format deemed suitable by the institution, except as otherwise required by this section. The report must be organized in an easily understandable format and not presented in a manner that is misleading. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules for condensation.</I> For purposes of this section, major captions to be provided in the financial statements are the same as those provided in the financial statements contained in the institution's annual report to shareholders, except that the financial statements included in the quarterly report may be condensed into major captions in accordance with the rules prescribed under this paragraph. If any amount that would otherwise be required to be shown by this subpart with respect to any item is not material, it need not be separately shown. The combination of insignificant items is permitted.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interim balance sheets.</I> When any major balance sheet caption is less than 10 percent of total assets and the amount in the caption has not increased or decreased by more than 25 percent since the end of the preceding fiscal year, the caption may be combined with others.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interim statements of income.</I> When any major income statement caption is less than 15 percent of average net income for the 3 most recent fiscal years and the amount in the caption has not increased or decreased by more than 20 percent since the corresponding interim period of the preceding fiscal year, the caption may be combined with others. In calculating average net income, loss years should be excluded. If losses were incurred in each of the 3 most recent fiscal years, the average loss shall be used for purposes of this test.
</P>
<P>(3) The interim financial information shall include disclosure either on the face of the financial statements or in accompanying footnotes sufficient to make the interim information presented not misleading. Institutions may presume that users of the interim financial information have read or have access to the audited financial statements for the preceding fiscal year and the adequacy of additional disclosure needed for a fair presentation may be determined in that context. Accordingly, footnote disclosure that would substantially duplicate the disclosure contained in the most recent audited financial statements (such as a statement of significant accounting policies and practices), and details of accounts that have not changed significantly in amount or composition since the end of the most recent completed fiscal year may be omitted. However, disclosure shall be provided of events occurring subsequent to the end of the most recent fiscal year that have a material impact on the institution. Disclosures should encompass, for example, significant changes since the end of the most recently completed fiscal year in such items as accounting principles and practices; estimates inherent in the preparation of financial statements; status of long-term contracts; capitalization, including significant new indebtedness or modification of existing financing agreements; and the reporting entity resulting from business combinations or dispositions.
</P>
<P>(4) The interim financial statements furnished shall reflect all adjustments that are, necessary to a fair statement of the results for the interim periods presented. A statement to that effect shall be included. Furnish any material information necessary to make the information called for not misleading, such as a statement that the results for interim periods are not necessarily indicative of results to be expected for the year. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Required content.</I> A quarterly report must, at a minimum, contain the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Management's discussion and analysis of financial condition and results of operations.</I> Discuss material changes, if any, to the information provided to shareholders pursuant to § 620.5(g) that have occurred during the periods specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. Such additional information as is needed to enable the reader to assess material changes in financial condition and results of operations between the periods specified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Material changes in financial condition.</I> Discuss any material changes in financial condition from the end of the preceding fiscal year to the date of the most recent interim balance sheet provided. If the interim financial statements include an interim balance sheet as of the corresponding interim date of the preceding fiscal year, any material changes in financial conditions from that date to the date of the most recent interim balance sheet provided also shall be discussed. If discussions of changes from both the end and the corresponding interim date of the preceding fiscal year are required, the discussions may be combined at the discretion of the institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Material changes in results of operations.</I> Discuss any material changes in the institution's results of operations with respect to the most recent fiscal year-to-date period for which an income statement is provided and the corresponding year-to-date period of the preceding fiscal year. Such discussion also shall cover material changes with respect to that fiscal quarter and the corresponding fiscal quarter in the preceding fiscal year. In addition, if the institution has elected to provide an income statement for the 12-month period ended as of the date of the most recent interim balance sheet provided, the discussion also shall cover material changes with respect to that 12-month period and the 12-month period ended as of the corresponding interim balance sheet date of the preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interim financial statements.</I> The following financial statements must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) An interim balance sheet as of the end of the most recent fiscal quarter and as of the end of the preceding fiscal year. A balance sheet for the comparable quarter of the preceding fiscal year is optional.
</P>
<P>(ii) Interim statements of income for the most recent fiscal quarter, for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable periods for the previous fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Interim statements of changes in protected borrower capital and at-risk capital for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable period for the preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(iv) For banks, interim statements of cash flows for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable period for the preceding fiscal year. For associations, interim statements of cash flows are optional.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other related financial items.</I> State that the financial statements were prepared under the oversight of the audit committee. The interim financial information need not be audited or reviewed by a qualified public accountant or external auditor prior to filing. If, however, a review of the data is made in accordance with the established professional standards and procedures for such a review, the institution may state that a qualified public accountant or external auditor has performed such a review under the supervision of the institution's audit committee. If such a statement is made, the report of a qualified public accountant or external auditor on such review must accompany the interim financial information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notices.</I> Institutions using the quarterly report to deliver any notice required under § 620.15 must put the notice information at the beginning of the quarterly report. The notice must be conspicuous and may not be part of any footnotes to the quarterly report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21341, June 12, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 3337, Feb. 5, 1988. Redesignated and amended at 56 FR 29421, 29424, June 27, 1991; 67 FR 16633, Apr. 8, 2002; 71 FR 5765, Feb. 2, 2006; 74 FR 28600, June 17, 2009; 77 FR 60600, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Notice to Shareholders</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 15093, Mar. 31, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 620.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.15   Notice of significant or material events.</HEAD>
<P>When a Farm Credit bank or association determines that it has a significant or material event, the institution must prepare and provide to its shareholders and the Farm Credit Administration a notice disclosing the event(s).
</P>
<P>(a) Each bank and association board of directors must establish and maintain a policy identifying the categories and types of events that may result in a notice under this section. At a minimum, events covered under this provision include significant events defined in § 620.1(q) and material events defined in § 620.1(h). The policy must identify how the significance or materiality of an event will be determined.
</P>
<P>(b) A notice issued under this section must be made as soon as possible, but not later than 90 days after occurrence of the event.
</P>
<P>(1) Each institution must electronically provide the notice to the Farm Credit Administration at the same time as distribution of the notice to shareholders.
</P>
<P>(2) Delivery of the notice to shareholders may be accomplished by direct communications with the shareholders, posting the notice on the institution's Web site, as part of the quarterly report to shareholders, or by publishing the notice in any publication with circulation wide enough to reasonably assure that all of the institution's shareholders have access to the information in a timely manner. No matter how the notice is distributed, it must comply with all the provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) Every notice must be dated and signed in a manner similar to the requirements of § 620.3(b).
</P>
<P>(d) The information required to be included in a notice issued under this section must be conspicuous, easily understandable, complete, accurate, and not misleading.
</P>
<P>(e) A Farm Credit System institution may be required to issue a notice under this section at the direction of the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 60600, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.17" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.17   Special notice provisions for events related to noncompliance with minimum regulatory capital ratios.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, “regulatory capital ratios” include the capital ratios specified in § 628.10 of this chapter and the permanent capital standard prescribed under § 615.5205 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) When a Farm Credit bank or association determines that it is not in compliance with one or more applicable minimum regulatory capital ratios, that institution must prepare and provide to its shareholders and the FCA a notice stating that the institution has initially determined it is not in compliance with the minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios. Such notice must be given within 30 days following the month end.
</P>
<P>(c) When notice is given under paragraph (b) of this section, the institution must also notify its shareholders and the FCA when the regulatory capital ratio or ratios that are the subject of such notice decrease by one half of 1 percent or more from the level reported in the original notice, or from that reported in a subsequent notice provided under this paragraph (c). This notice must be given within 45 days following the end of every quarter at which the institution's regulatory capital ratio or ratios decrease as specified.
</P>
<P>(d) Each institution required to prepare a notice under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section shall provide the notice to shareholders or publish it in any publication with circulation wide enough to be reasonably assured that all of the institution's shareholders have access to the information in a timely manner. The information required to be included in this notice must be conspicuous, easily understandable, and not misleading.
</P>
<P>(e) A notice, at a minimum, shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Briefly describes the minimum regulatory capital ratios established by the FCA and the notice requirement of paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicates the institution's current level of capital; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Notifies shareholders that the institution's capital is below the FCA minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the effect that noncompliance has had on the institution and its shareholders, including whether the institution is currently prohibited by statute or regulation from retiring stock or distributing earnings or whether the FCA has issued a capital directive or other enforcement action to the institution.
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of any event(s) that may have significantly contributed to the institution's noncompliance with the minimum regulatory capital ratio or ratios.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the institution is required by regulation to provide another notice to shareholders within 45 days following the end of any subsequent quarter at which the regulatory capital ratio or ratios decrease by one half of 1 percent or more from the level reported in the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49778, July 28, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Annual Meeting Information Statements and Other Information To Be Furnished in Connection with Annual Meetings and Director Elections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.20   Preparing and distributing the information statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Each Farm Credit bank and association must prepare and provide an information statement (“statement” or “AMIS”) to its shareholders at least 10 business days, but not more than 30 business days, before any annual meeting or any director elections.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Farm Credit bank and association must provide the Farm Credit Administration an electronic copy of the AMIS when issued.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to the mailed AMIS, each Farm Credit bank and association may post its AMIS on its Web site. Any AMIS posted on an institution's Web site must remain on the Web site for a reasonable period of time, but not less than 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(b) Every AMIS must be dated and signed in accordance with the requirements of § 620.3(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Every AMIS must be available for public inspection at all offices of the issuing institution pursuant to § 620.2(b) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18744, Apr. 12, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.21   Contents of the information statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An AMIS must, at a minimum, address the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Date, time, and place of the meeting(s).</I> Notice of the date, time, and meeting location(s) must be provided at least 10 business days, but no more than 30 business days, before the meeting. If the Farm Credit bank or association will use an online meeting space as part of its meeting, the notice must also specify the date, time, and means of accessing the online meeting space. This information does not need to be part of an AMIS issued by a Farm Credit bank if no meeting is held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voting shareholders.</I> For each class of stock entitled to vote at the meeting, state the number of shareholders entitled to vote and, when shareholders are asked to vote on preferred stock, the number of shares entitled to vote. State the record date as of which the shareholders entitled to vote will be determined and the voting requirements for each matter to be voted upon. If association directors are nominated or elected by region, describe the regions and state the number of voting shareholders entitled to vote in each region.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial updates.</I> Each AMIS must reference the most recently issued annual report required by subpart B of this part. The AMIS must also include such other information considered material and necessary to make the required contents of the AMIS, in light of the circumstances under which it is made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(i) If any transactions between the institution and its senior officers and directors of the type required to be disclosed in the annual report to shareholders under § 620.6(e), or any of the events required to be disclosed in the annual report to shareholders under § 620.6(f) have occurred since the end of the last fiscal year and were not disclosed in the annual report to shareholders, the disclosures required by § 620.6(e) and (f) shall be made with respect to such transactions or events in the information statement. If any material change in the matters disclosed in the annual report to shareholders pursuant to § 620.6(e) and (f) has occurred since the annual report to shareholders was prepared, disclosure shall be made of such change in the information statement.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a Farm Credit institution has had a change or changes in its external auditor(s) since the last annual report to shareholders, or if a disagreement with an external auditor has occurred, the institution shall disclose the information required by § 621.4(c) and (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Directors.</I> State the names and ages of persons currently serving as directors of the institution, their terms of office, and the periods during which such persons have served. Institutions must also state the type or types of agriculture or aquaculture engaged in by each director. No information need be given with respect to any director whose term of office as a director will not continue after any meeting to which the statement relates.
</P>
<P>(i) Identify by name any incumbent director who attended fewer than 75 percent of the board meetings or any meetings of board committees on which he or she served during the last fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any director resigned or declined to stand for reelection since the last annual meeting because of a policy disagreement with the board, and if the director has provided a notice requesting disclosure of the nature of the disagreement, state the date of the director's resignation and summarize the director's description of the disagreement. If the institution holds a different view of the disagreement, the institution's view may be summarized as well.
</P>
<P>(b) An AMIS issued for director elections must also include the information required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the nominating committee's slate of director-nominees. If fewer than two director-nominees for each position are named, describe the efforts of the nominating committee to locate two willing nominees.
</P>
<P>(2) Provide, as part of the AMIS, the director-nominee disclosure information collected under § 611.330 of this chapter. Institutions may either restate such information in a standard format or provide complete copies of each nominee's disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>(3) State whether nominations will be accepted from the floor and explain the procedures for making floor nominations.
</P>
<P>(c) When the nominating committee will be elected during director elections, notice to voting shareholders of this event must be included in the AMIS. The AMIS must describe the balloting procedures that will be used to elect the nominating committee, including whether floor nominations for committee members will be permitted. The AMIS must state the number of committee positions to be filled and the names of the nominees for the committee.
</P>
<P>(d) If shareholders are asked to vote on matters not normally required to be submitted to shareholders for approval, the AMIS must describe fully the material circumstances surrounding the matter, the reason shareholders are asked to vote, and the vote required for approval of the proposition. The AMIS must describe any other matter that will be discussed at the meeting upon which shareholder vote is not required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 18744, Apr. 12, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 60601, Oct. 3, 2012] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Bank and Association Audit and Compensation Committees</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 5766, Feb. 2, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 620.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.30   Audit committees.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit bank and association must establish and maintain an audit committee. An audit committee is established by adopting a written charter describing the committee's composition, authorities, and responsibilities in accordance with this section. All audit committees must maintain records of meetings, including attendance, for at least 3 fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Composition.</I> Each member of an audit committee must be a member of the Farm Credit institution's board of directors. An audit committee may not consist of less than three members and must include any director designated as a financial expert under § 611.210(a)(2) of this chapter. All audit committee members should be knowledgeable in at least one of the following: Public and corporate finance, financial reporting and disclosure, or accounting procedures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Independence.</I> Every audit committee member must be free from any relationship that, in the opinion of the board, would interfere with the exercise of independent judgment as a committee member.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resources.</I> Farm Credit institutions must permit their audit committees to contract for independent legal counsel and expert advisors. If an institution hires a financial expert advisor pursuant to § 611.210(a)(2), that advisor will also serve as an advisor to the audit committee. Each institution is responsible for providing monetary and nonmonetary resources to enable its audit committee to contract for external auditors, outside advisors, and ordinary administrative expenses. A two-thirds majority vote of the full board of directors is required to deny an audit committee's request for resources.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties.</I> Each audit committee must report only to the board of directors. In its capacity as a committee of the board, the audit committee is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial reports.</I> Each audit committee must oversee management's preparation of the report to shareholders; review the impact of any significant accounting and auditing developments; review accounting policy changes relating to preparation of financial statements; and review annual and quarterly reports prior to release. After the audit committee reviews a financial policy, procedure, or report, it must record in its minutes its agreement or disagreement with the item(s) under review.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>External auditors.</I> The external auditor must report directly to the audit committee. Each audit committee must:
</P>
<P>(i) Determine the appointment, compensation, and retention of external auditors issuing audit reports of the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) Review the external auditor's work;
</P>
<P>(iii) Give prior approval for any non-audit services performed by the external auditor, except the audit committee may not approve those non-audit services specifically prohibited by FCA regulation; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Comply with the auditor independence provisions of part 621 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Internal controls.</I> Each audit committee must oversee the institution's system of internal controls relating to preparation of financial reports, including controls relating to the institution's compliance with applicable laws and regulations. Any internal audit functions of the institution must also be subject to audit committee review and supervision. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 50339, Dec. 15, 1988, as amended at 71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 620.31" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.21.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 620.31   Compensation committees.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit bank and association must establish and maintain a compensation committee by adopting a written charter describing the committee's composition, authorities, and responsibilities in accordance with this section. The compensation committee must report only to the board of directors. All compensation committees are required to maintain records of meetings, including attendance, for at least 3 fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Composition.</I> Each compensation committee must consist of at least three members and all committee members must be members of the institution's board of directors. Every member must be free from any relationship that, in the opinion of the board, would interfere with the exercise of independent judgment as a committee member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities.</I> It is the responsibility of each compensation committee to review the compensation policies and plans for senior officers and employees and to approve the overall compensation program for senior officers. In fulfilling its responsibilities, the compensation committee must document that it determined the:
</P>
<P>(1) Institution's projected long-term compensation and retirement benefit obligations are appropriate to the services performed and not excessive;
</P>
<P>(2) Incentive-based compensation programs and payments are reasonable and proportionate to the services performed and structured so the payout schedule considers the potential for future losses or undue risks to the institution;
</P>
<P>(3) Senior officer compensation, incentive, and benefit programs support the institution's long-term business strategy and mission, as well as promote safe and sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(4) Compensation programs designed for specific groups of employees, other than senior officers, pose no imprudent risks to the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resources.</I> Each institution must provide monetary and nonmonetary resources to enable its compensation committee to perform its duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 60601, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="621" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 621—ACCOUNTING AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.17, 5.19, 5.22A, 8.11 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2202, 2202a, 2202d, 2252, 2257a, 2279aa-11); Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102, 4134.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purpose and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth accounting and reporting requirements to be followed by all banks, associations, and service corporations chartered under the Act; the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation; and, where specifically indicated, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation. The requirements set forth in this part are of both general and specific applicability. Certain requirements focus on areas of financial condition and operating performance that are of special importance for generating, presenting, and disclosing accurate and reliable information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 78 FR 31835, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P><I>Accounts and exposures</I> means data related to any loan, lease, letter of credit, derivative, or, any other asset, liability, other balance sheet account, or off-balance-sheet exposure of a System institution.
</P>
<P><I>Accrual basis of accounting</I> means the accounting method in which expenses are recorded when incurred, whether paid or unpaid, and income is reported when earned, whether received or not received. 
</P>
<P><I>Adequately secured</I> means the loan is secured by either or both:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateral in the form of perfected security interests in, or pledges of, real and/or personal property (including securities with an estimable value) having a net realizable value sufficient to repay the loan's outstanding principal and accrued interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The guarantee of a financially responsible party in an amount sufficient to repay the loan's outstanding principal and accrued interest.
</P>
<P><I>Banks and associations</I> mean all Farm Credit Banks, Agricultural credit banks, and associations.
</P>
<P><I>Borrowing entity</I> means the individual(s), partnership, joint venture, trust, corporation, or other business entity, or any combination thereof, that is primarily obligated on the loan instrument. 
</P>
<P><I>Central data repository</I> means a central data warehouse that electronically collects and stores current and historical data and is created by integrating data from one or more disparate sources.
</P>
<P><I>Generally accepted accounting principles</I> means that body of conventions, rules, and procedures necessary to define accepted accounting practices at a particular time, as promulgated by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and other authoritative sources recognized as setting standards for the accounting profession in the United States. Generally accepted accounting principles include not only broad guidelines of general application but also detailed practices and procedures that constitute standards by which financial presentations are evaluated. 
</P>
<P><I>Generally accepted auditing standards</I> means the standards and guidelines that are generally accepted in the United States of America and that are adopted by the authoritative body that governs the overall quality of audit performance.
</P>
<P><I>In the process of collection</I> means debt collection or loan servicing efforts are proceeding in due course and are reasonably expected to result in the recovery of the loan's principal balance, accrued interest and penalties or reinstatement of the loan to current status within a reasonable time period.
</P>
<P><I>Institution</I> means any bank, association, or service corporation chartered under the Act; the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, and where specifically noted, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan</I> means any extension of credit or lease that is recorded as an asset of a reporting institution, whether made directly or purchased from another lender. The term “loan” includes, but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Loans originated through direct negotiations between the reporting institution and a borrower; 
</P>
<P>(2) Purchased loans or interests in loans, including participation interests, retained subordinated participation interests in loans sold, and interests in pools of subordinated participation interests that are held in lieu of retaining a subordinated participation interest in loans sold; 
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts of sale; notes receivable; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Other similar obligations and lease financing. 
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means the magnitude of an omission or misstatement of accounting information that, in light of surrounding circumstances, makes it probable that the judgment of a reasonable person relying on the information would have been changed or influenced by the omission or misstatement. 
</P>
<P><I>Net realizable value</I> means the net amount the lender would expect to be realized from the acquisition and subsequent sale or disposition of a loan's underlying collateral. Generally, net realizable value is equal to the estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business, less estimated costs of acquisition, completion, and disposal. 
</P>
<P><I>Past due</I> means a contractually scheduled loan payment has not been received in full on or before the contractual due date and remains due.
</P>
<P><I>Recorded investment</I> means the face amount of the loan increased or decreased by applicable accrued interest and unamortized premium, discount, finance charges, or acquisition costs, and may also reflect a previous direct write-down of the investment. 
</P>
<P><I>Reporting entity</I> means the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, or other entity approved by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Shared asset</I> means any account or exposure where two or more Farm Credit institutions have assumed a portion of the asset's benefits or risks. An institution's share in the asset may be established through means such as syndications, participation agreements, assignments, or other arrangements with System entities.
</P>
<P><I>Sustained performance</I> means the borrower has resumed on-time payment of the full amount of scheduled contractual loan payments over a sustained period. In accordance with the contractual payment schedule, the sustained on-time repayment period is demonstrated by making 6 consecutive monthly payments, 4 consecutive quarterly payments, 3 consecutive semiannual payments, or 2 consecutive annual payments. The payments considered are those listed in the loan contract as due during the sustained performance period, regardless of whether scheduled payments are interest-only, unequally amortized principal and interest, equally amortized principal and interest, or a combination of payment amounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006; 74 FR 28600, June 17, 2009; 78 FR 31835, May 28, 2013; 78 FR 77562, Dec. 24, 2013; 85 FR 52253, Aug. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—General Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.3   Application of generally accepted accounting principles.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Prepare and maintain, on an accrual basis, accurate and complete records of its business transactions as necessary to prepare financial statements and reports, including reports to the Farm Credit Administration, in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, except as otherwise directed by statutory and regulatory requirements; 
</P>
<P>(b) Prepare its financial statements and reports, including reports to the shareholders, investors, boards of directors, institution management and the Farm Credit Administration, in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, except as otherwise directed by statutory and regulatory requirements; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Prepare and maintain its books and records in such a manner as to facilitate reconciliation with financial statements and reports prepared from them. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.4   Audit by qualified public accountant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution shall, at least annually, have its financial statements audited by a qualified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. 
</P>
<P>(b) The qualified public accountant's opinion of each institution's financial statements must be included as a part of each annual report to shareholders. The accountant must comply with the auditor independence provisions of subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If an institution disagrees with the opinion of a qualified public accountant required by paragraph (b) of this section, the following actions shall be taken immediately: 
</P>
<P>(1) The institution shall prepare a brief but thorough written description of the scope and content of the disagreement, noting each point of disagreement and citing, in all cases, the specific provisions of generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing standards upon which the institution's position in the disagreement is based; 
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the institution's final description of the disagreement shall be given to the accountant who provided the opinion with which the institution disagrees; 
</P>
<P>(3) The accountant shall have 10 business days to develop and provide a brief but thorough final response to the institution's description of the disagreement, including all items believed to be incorrect or incomplete, and citing, in all cases, the specific provisions of generally accepted accounting principles and generally accepted auditing standards upon which the accountant's position in the disagreement is based; 
</P>
<P>(4) Both the institution's final description of the disagreement and the accountant's final response to it shall be included in the institution's annual report to shareholders directly following the accountant's opinion of the institution's financial statements; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The institution shall immediately notify the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, of any disagreement with its accountant and shall furnish the Farm Credit Administration with the written documentation required by paragraphs (c) (1) through (4) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) If an institution selects a qualified public accountant to audit its financial statements and provide an opinion thereon for its annual report who is different from the accountant whose opinion appeared in the institution's most recent annual report, the following items shall be sent to the Farm Credit Administration no later than 15 days after the end of the month in which the change took place and shall be included in the institution's annual meeting information statement and annual report to shareholders for the year in which the change of accountants took place: 
</P>
<P>(1) The name and address of the accountant whose opinion appeared in the institution's most recent annual report to shareholders; 
</P>
<P>(2) A brief but thorough statement of the reasons the accountant selected for the most recent annual report was not selected for the current annual report. If the change resulted from a disagreement with the accountant, the statement shall describe the institution's disagreement with the accountant's opinion and the accountant's final response to the institution's disagreement prepared pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The identification of the highest ranking officer, committee of officers, or board of directors, as appropriate, that recommended, approved, or otherwise made the decision to change qualified public accountants. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.5   Accounting for the allowance for credit losses and chargeoffs.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Maintain at all times an allowance for credit losses that is determined according to generally accepted accounting principles. 
</P>
<P>(b) Develop, adopt, and consistently apply policies and procedures governing the establishment and maintenance of the allowance for credit losses which, at a minimum, conform to the rules, definitions, and standards set forth in this part and any other applicable requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) Charge-off loans, wholly or partially, as appropriate, at the time they are determined to be uncollectible. 
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure that when an institution or the Farm Credit Administration determines that the value of a loan or other asset recorded on its books and records exceeds the amount that can reasonably be expected to be collectible, or when the documentation supporting the recorded asset value is inadequate, the institution shall immediately charge off the asset in the amount determined to be uncollectible. If the amount determined to be uncollectible by the institution is different from the amount determined to be uncollectible by the Farm Credit Administration, the institution shall charge off such amount as the Farm Credit Administration shall direct. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 74 FR 28600, June 17, 2009; 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Loan Performance and Valuation Assessment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.6   Categorizing high-risk loans and other property owned.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution must employ the practices of this section when categorizing high-risk loans and loan-related assets. A loan must not be put into more than one performance category.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Nonaccrual loans.</I> A loan is categorized as nonaccrual if there is a known risk to the continued collection of principal or interest. Once a loan is categorized as nonaccrual, it must remain in that category until reinstated to accrual status pursuant to § 621.9. Loans placed into nonaccrual status when current are also subject to the notice and review provisions of part 617 of this chapter. A loan must be categorized as nonaccrual if one or more of the following conditions exist:
</P>
<P>(1) The loan may or may not be past due, but the institution has determined collection of the outstanding principal and interest, plus future interest accruals, over the full term of the loan is not expected because of a documented deterioration in the financial condition of the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) The loan is 90 days or more past due and is not otherwise eligible for categorization under paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Legal action, including foreclosure or other forms of collateral conveyance, has been initiated to collect the outstanding principal and interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formally restructured loans (TDR).</I> A loan is categorized as a formally restructured loan (Troubled Debt Restructure(TDR)) if the restructuring is determined to be a TDR under generally accepted accounting principles and the guidance issued by the Financial Accounting Standards Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans 90 days past due still accruing interest.</I> A loan is categorized as 90 days past due still accruing interest when it is 90 days or more contractually past due, adequately secured, and in the process of collection. If the loan is not adequately secured, it cannot be categorized under this category unless there is evidence to suggest repayment within a reasonable time period of either the past due amount or the remaining principal and interest owed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other property owned.</I> Any real or personal property, other than an interest-earning asset, that has been acquired as a result of full or partial liquidation of a loan, through foreclosure, deed in lieu of foreclosure, or other legal means.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 52253, Aug. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.7   Rule of aggregation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When one loan to a borrower is placed in nonaccrual, an institution must immediately evaluate whether its other loans to that borrower, or related borrowers, should also be placed in nonaccrual. All loans on which a borrowing entity, or a component of a borrowing entity, is primarily obligated to the reporting institution shall be considered as one loan unless a review of all pertinent facts supports a reasonable determination that a particular loan constitutes an independent credit risk and such determination is adequately documented in the loan file. 
</P>
<P>(1) A loan shall be considered an independent credit risk if a substantial portion of the loan is guaranteed as to principal and interest by a government agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) Other loans shall be considered independent credit risks if and so long as: 
</P>
<P>(i) The primary sources of repayment are independent for each loan; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loans are not cross-collateralized; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The principal obligors are different person(s) and/or entity(ies). Related loans will not be considered independent credit risks if the operations of a related borrower are so financially interdependent with the borrower's operations that the economic survival of one will materially affect the economic survival of the other, determined in accordance with § 614.4359(a)(2) of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the evaluation required by paragraph (a) of this section results in a determination that the borrower's other loans with the institution do not represent an independent credit risk, and full collection of such loans is not expected, then all of the borrower's loans must be aggregated and classified as nonaccrual. If such other loans represent an independent credit risk and are fully collectible, then they may remain in their current performance category. 
</P>
<P>(c) When an institution becomes aware that a borrower has a loan that has been classified nonaccrual by any other lender, the institution must re-evaluate the credit risk in its loan to the borrower and then determine whether an independent credit risk exists. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 34519, June 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.8" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.8   Application of payments and income recognition on nonaccrual loans.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution shall employ the following practices with respect to application of cash payments on nonaccrual loans: 
</P>
<P>(a) If the ultimate collectibility of the recorded investment, in whole or in part, is in doubt, any payment received on such loan shall be applied to reduce the recorded investment to the extent necessary to eliminate such doubt. 
</P>
<P>(b) Once the ultimate collectibility of the recorded investment is no longer in doubt, payments received in cash on such loan may qualify for recognition as interest income if all of the following characteristics are met at the time the payment is received: 
</P>
<P>(1) The loan does not have a remaining unrecovered prior chargeoff associated with it, except in cases where the prior chargeoff was taken as part of a formal restructuring of the loan; 
</P>
<P>(2) The payment received has come from a source of repayment detailed in the plan of collection; 
</P>
<P>(3) The loan, after considering the payment, is not contractually past due more than 90 days and is not expected to become 90 days past due, or a repayment pattern has been established that reasonably demonstrates future repayment capacity. 
</P>
<P>(c) The institution shall employ the following practices with respect to earned but uncollected interest income on loans, leases, contracts, and similar assets that are determined not to be fully collectible: 
</P>
<P>(1) Earned but uncollected interest income that was accrued in the current fiscal year and is determined to be uncollectible shall be reversed from interest income; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Earned but uncollected interest income that was accrued in prior fiscal years and is determined to be uncollectible shall be charged off against the allowance for credit losses. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 87 FR 27492, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.9   Reinstatement to accrual status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before being reinstated to accrual status, a loan must be current on contractual payments and the borrower offered servicing in accordance with the institution's policies maintained under either § 614.4170 or part 617 of this chapter, whichever is applicable. Additional reinstatement eligibility requirements are dependent upon certain characteristics of the loan under review.
</P>
<P>(1) A loan that was current when placed in nonaccrual status pursuant to § 621.6(a)(1) may be reinstated to accrual status if the known risks to the continued collection of principal or interest have been mitigated. If the loan was past due when placed in nonaccrual status, it may only be reinstated under either paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) A loan placed in nonaccrual status when past due and not adequately secured must remain current on contractual payments for a period of sustained performance before it may be reinstated.
</P>
<P>(3) A loan placed in nonaccrual status when past due and adequately secured must have a recent repayment pattern demonstrating future repayment capacity to make on-time payments before it may be reinstated. The repayment pattern is established in one of two ways:
</P>
<P>(i) Sustained performance in making on-time contractual payments, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A recent history of making on-time partial payments in amounts the same or greater than newly restructured payment amounts.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this section prevents a current loan from being reinstated to accrual status in response to a Credit Review Committee decision issued under section 4.14D(d) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, when that decision was made in compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 52254, Aug. 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.10   Monitoring of performance categories and other property owned.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Account for, report, and disclose to shareholders, investors, boards of directors, and the Farm Credit Administration all material items with respect to performance categories and other property owned in accordance with the rules and definitions set forth in this part and any other applicable requirements; 
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with § 620.5(g)(1)(iv)(A) of this chapter, disclose to shareholders, investors, boards of directors, and the Farm Credit Administration the nature and extent of significant potential credit risks within the loan portfolio, or other information that could adversely impact performance of the loan portfolio in the near future; 
</P>
<P>(3) Develop, adopt, and consistently apply policies and procedures governing performance categories and other property owned, which, at a minimum, conform to the definitions, rules, and standards set forth in this part and such other requirements and procedures as may be required by the Farm Credit Administration; 
</P>
<P>(4) Review the loan portfolio at least quarterly to ensure that all high-risk loans have been assigned the appropriate performance category; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Review all high-risk loans in the loan portfolio at least quarterly to determine the collectibility of accrued but uncollected income, if any. 
</P>
<P>(b) Measures taken to enhance the collectibility of a loan shall not be deemed to relieve an institution of the requirement to monitor and evaluate the loan for the purpose of determining its performance status. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—-Reports of Condition and Performance and Accounts and Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.12" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.12   Reports of condition and performance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each institution, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, shall prepare and file such reports of condition and performance as may be required by the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) Reports of condition and performance shall be filed four times each year, and at such other times as the Farm Credit Administration may require. The reports shall be prepared on the accrual basis of accounting and shall fairly represent the financial condition and performance of each institution at the end of, and over the period of, each calendar quarter, provided that such additional reports as may be necessary to ensure timely, complete, and accurate monitoring and evaluation of the affairs, condition, and performance of Farm Credit institutions may be required, as determined by the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(c) All reports of condition and performance shall be submitted electronically in accordance with the instructions prescribed by the Farm Credit Administration and located on its Web site. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 48786, Sept. 20, 1993, as amended at 74 FR 28600, June 17, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.13" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.13   Content and standards—general rules.</HEAD>
<P>Each institution, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, shall prepare reports of condition and performance: 
</P>
<P>(a) In accordance with all applicable laws, regulations, standards, and such instructions and specifications and on such media as may be prescribed by the Farm Credit Administration; 
</P>
<P>(b) In accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and such other accounting requirements, standards, and procedures as may be prescribed by the Farm Credit Administration; and 
</P>
<P>(c) In such manner as to facilitate their reconciliation with the books and records of reporting institutions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.14" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.14   Certification of correctness.</HEAD>
<P>Each report of financial condition and performance filed with the Farm Credit Administration shall be certified as having been prepared in accordance with all applicable regulations and instructions and to be a true and accurate representation of the financial condition and performance of the institution to which it applies. The reports shall be certified by the officer of the reporting institution named for that purpose by action of the reporting institution's board of directors. If the board of directors of the institution has not acted to name an officer to certify the correctness of its reports of condition and performance, then the reports shall be certified by the president or chief executive officer of the reporting institution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.15   Reports of accounts and exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of banks and associations for</I> <I>preparing and submitting reports.</I> The banks and associations must prepare and submit an accurate and complete report of all bank and association accounts and exposures electronically to the Farm Credit Administration pursuant to the requirements of this part. In order to accomplish such submission, each bank and association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare and submit an accurate and complete report of its accounts and exposures electronically to the Reporting Entity:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with the instructions prescribed by the Farm Credit Administration, or as may be required by the Farm Credit Administration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 20 calendar days after each quarter-end date, and at such other times as the Farm Credit Administration may require.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit to the Farm Credit Administration and the Reporting Entity a written certification that the information provided in the report of accounts and exposures has been prepared in accordance with all applicable regulations and instructions, and is a true and accurate record of the data maintained by the bank or association, to the best of its knowledge and belief. The reports shall be certified by the officer of the reporting bank or association named for that purpose by action of the reporting bank's or association's board of directors. If the board of directors of the bank or association has not acted to name an officer to certify to the accuracy of its reports of accounts and exposures, then the reports shall be certified by the president or chief executive officer of the reporting bank or association. In the event the bank or association learns of a material error or misstatement in the information submitted to the Reporting Entity, it must notify the Reporting Entity and the Farm Credit Administration immediately of the error or misstatement and prepare and submit corrected information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(3) Respond promptly to any questions by the Reporting Entity related to information provided under this section in connection with the preparation of a report of accounts and exposures, including any data required to establish, implement and maintain consistent, accurate, and complete shared asset identification and reporting of shared asset exposures to the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(4) Develop, implement, and maintain an effective system of internal controls over the data included in the report of accounts and exposures, including controls for maintaining the confidentiality of borrower information. The system of internal controls, at a minimum, must comply with the requirements of applicable Farm Credit Administration regulations, including § 618.8430 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of the Reporting Entity for preparing and submitting reports.</I> The Reporting Entity must:
</P>
<P>(1) Collect, store, and manage the information submitted to it by each bank and association under the requirements of this section in a central data repository in accordance with Farm Credit Administration regulations and prescribed instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare and submit an electronic quarterly report of the accounts and exposures of all banks and associations to the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with the instructions prescribed by the Farm Credit Administration or as may be required by the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) Establish, implement, and maintain an automated mechanism to ensure the reliable, timely, accurate and consistent identification of the banks' and associations' shared asset exposures, and report these exposures and the shared asset identifiers in the electronic quarterly report of accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration. In connection with establishing and implementing the automated shared asset identification mechanism, the Reporting Entity may provide the banks and associations information from the central data repository to identify and report shared asset exposures.
</P>
<P>(4) Submit to the Farm Credit Administration a written certification that the information provided to the Farm Credit Administration in the report of accounts and exposures of all banks and associations accurately represents the information provided to it by the banks and associations and that the Reporting Entity has complied with the requirements of § 621.15(b). The reports shall be certified by the president or chief executive officer of the Reporting Entity. In the event the Reporting Entity learns of a material error or misstatement in the information submitted to the Farm Credit Administration, it must notify the Farm Credit Administration immediately of the error or misstatement and prepare and submit corrected information as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(5) Develop, implement, and maintain an effective system of internal controls over the central data repository, including controls for maintaining the confidentiality of borrower information. The system of internal controls, at a minimum, must comply with the requirements of applicable Farm Credit Administration regulations, including § 618.8430 of this chapter and require that the Reporting Entity:
</P>
<P>(i) Develop policies and procedures to ensure that the information submitted in the report of accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration is complete and consistent with the information submitted to the Reporting Entity from the banks and associations under § 621.15(a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify procedures for monitoring any material corrections or adjustments, in a timely manner, and provide timely notification and resubmission of the report of accounts and exposures to the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(6) Notify the Farm Credit Administration if it is unable to prepare and submit the quarterly report of accounts and exposures in compliance with the requirements of § 621.15(b)(1) through (b)(3). The notification:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be signed by the chief executive officer, or person in an equivalent position, and submitted to the Farm Credit Administration as soon as the Reporting Entity becomes aware of its inability to comply;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must explain the reasons for its inability to prepare and submit the report; and
</P>
<P>(iii) May include a request that the Farm Credit Administration extend the due date for the quarterly report of accounts and exposures.
</P>
<P>(7) In the event there is a breach of information, immediately provide written notice of the breach to:
</P>
<P>(i) The Farm Credit Administration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each bank and association concerned;
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purposes of this section, “breach of information” means any actual or attempted unauthorized access, possession, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction of information in the central data repository, any reports of accounts and exposures, or any other information received pursuant to § 621.15(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(8) Notify the Farm Credit Administration in writing of any request for data contained in the reports of accounts and exposures that are not explicitly allowed for in § 618.8320(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 77562, Dec. 24, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Auditor Independence</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 621.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.30   General.</HEAD>
<P>Each Farm Credit institution must ensure the independence of all qualified public accountants conducting the institution's audit by establishing and maintaining policies and procedures governing the engagement of external auditors. The policies and procedures must incorporate the provisions of this subpart and § 612.2180 of this chapter.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 76120, Dec. 20, 2006, as amended at 86 FR 58559, Oct. 22, 2021]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.31" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.31   Non-audit services.</HEAD>
<P>Non-audit services are any professional services provided by a qualified public accountant during the period of an audit engagement which are not connected to an audit or review of an institution's financial statements.
</P>
<P>(a) A qualified public accountant engaged to conduct a Farm Credit institution's audit may not perform the following non-audit services for that institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Bookkeeping,
</P>
<P>(2) Financial information systems design,
</P>
<P>(3) Appraisal and valuation services,
</P>
<P>(4) Actuarial services,
</P>
<P>(5) Internal audit outsourcing services,
</P>
<P>(6) Management or human resources functions,
</P>
<P>(7) Legal and expert services unrelated to the audit, and
</P>
<P>(8) Advocating an institution's interests in litigation, regulatory or administrative investigations and proceedings unrelated to external audit work.
</P>
<P>(b) A qualified public accountant engaged to conduct a Farm Credit institution's audit may only perform non-audit services, not otherwise prohibited in this section, if the institution's audit committee pre-approves the services and the services are fully disclosed in the annual report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 621.32" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.22.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 621.32   Conflicts of interest and rotation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> (1) A Farm Credit institution may not engage a qualified public accountant to conduct the institution's audit if the accountant uses a partner, concurring partner, or lead member in the audit engagement team who was a director, officer or employee of the Farm Credit institution within the past year.
</P>
<P>(2) A Farm Credit institution may not make an employment offer to a partner, concurring partner, or lead member serving on the institution's audit engagement team during the audit or within 1 year of the conclusion of the audit engagement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rotation.</I> Each institution may engage the same lead and reviewing audit partners of a qualified public accountant to conduct the institution's audit for no more than 5 consecutive years. The institution must then require the lead and reviewing audit partners assigned to the institution's audit team to rotate out of the audit team for 5 years. At the end of 5 years, the institution may again engage the audit services of those lead and reviewing audit partners.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="622" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 622—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 5.25-5.37 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2244, 2252, 2261-2273); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; and 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Rules Applicable to Formal Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.1   Scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure in connection with any formal hearing before the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) that is required by the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (Act) or is ordered for other reasons by the FCA. In connection with any particular matter, reference should also be made to any special requirements of practice and procedure that may be contained in applicable provisions of the Act or the rules adopted by the FCA in subpart B of this part, which special requirements are controlling. The rules in subpart A do not apply to the informal hearings described in subpart C of this part, to any other informal hearing that may be ordered by the FCA, or to formal investigations described in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended. 12 U.S.C. 2001, <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board</I> means the Farm Credit Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(d) The terms <I>institution in the System, System institution</I> and <I>institution</I> mean all institutions enumerated in section 1.2 of the Act, any institution chartered pursuant to or established by the Act, except for the Farm Credit System Assistance Board and the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, and any service corporation chartered under the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Party</I> means the FCA or a person or institution named as a party in any notice that commences a proceeding, or any person or institution who is admitted as a party or who has filed a written request and is entitled as of right to be a party.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Presiding officer</I> means an administrative law judge or any FCA employee or other person designated by the Board to conduct a hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ex parte communication</I> means an oral or written communication not on the record with respect to which reasonable prior notice to all parties is not given. It does not include requests for status reports.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 27284, July 19, 1988; 78 FR 31835, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.3   Appearance and practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the Board or a presiding officer</I>—(1) <I>By nonattorneys.</I> An individual may appear in his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a duly authorized officer or other agent of a corporation, trust association or other entity not specifically listed herein may represent the corporation, trust association, or other entity; and a duly authorized officer or employee of any government unit, agency or authority may represent that unit, agency or authority. Any person appearing in a representative capacity shall file a written notice of appearance with the Board which shall contain evidence of his or her authority to act in such capacity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By attorneys.</I> A party may be represented by an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth or the District of Columbia, and who has not been suspended or debarred from practice before the FCA in accordance with the provisions of part 623 of this chapter. Prior to appearing, an attorney representing a person in a proceeding shall file a written notice of appearance with the Board, which shall contain a declaration that he or she is currently qualified as provided by paragraph (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the party on whose behalf he or she acts.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Representation of multiple interests.</I> A person shall not represent more than one party without informing each party of any actual or potential conflict of interest that may be involved in such representation. Such person shall file a statement with the Board indicating that such disclosure has been made. The presiding officer has authority to take protective measures at any stage of a proceeding, including the authority to prohibit multiple representation when deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Summary suspension.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, contumacious, or other unethical or improper conduct at any proceeding before the Board or a presiding officer shall be grounds for exclusion therefrom and suspension for the duration of the proceeding, or other appropriate action by the Board or presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.4   Commencement of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings under this subpart are commenced by the issuance of a notice by the Board. Such notice shall state the time, place, and nature of the hearing, the name and address of the presiding officer if one has been designated, and a statement of the matters of fact and law constituting the grounds for the hearing. The matters of fact and law alleged in a notice may be amended by the Board at any stage of the proceeding and such amended notice may require an answer from the party or parties served and may set a new hearing date. A copy of any notice served by the FCA on any System association, director, officer or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of the association will also be sent to the supervisory bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.5   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Answer is required.</I> Unless a different period is specified by the Board, a party who does not wish to consent to a final order must file an answer within 20 days after being served with a notice that commences the proceeding. Any subsequent notice which contains amended allegations and by its terms requires an answer must similarly be answered within 20 days after service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of answer; effect of failure to deny.</I> An answer filed under this section shall concisely state any defenses and specifically admit or deny each allegation in the notice. A party who lacks information or knowledge sufficient to form a belief as to the truth of any particular allegation shall so state and this shall have the effect of a denial. Any allegation not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. A party who intends in good faith to deny only a part of or to qualify an allegation shall specify so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Admitted allegations.</I> If a party filing an answer under this section elects not to contest any of the allegations of fact set forth in the notice, the answer shall consist of a statement admitting all of the allegations to be true. Such answer constitutes a waiver of hearing as to the facts alleged in the notice, and together with the notice will provide a record basis on which the presiding officer shall file with the Board a recommended decision in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 557. The recommended decision shall be served on the party, who may file exceptions thereto within the time provided in § 622.13.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a party to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the party's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice and authorizes the presiding officer, without further notice to the party, to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice and to file with the Board a recommended decision containing such findings and appropriate conclusions. The Board or the presiding officer may, for good cause shown, permit the filing of a delayed answer after the time for filing and the answer has expired.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.6   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any interested party may at any time submit to the Board for consideration written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of the parties. No offer or proposal shall be admissible into evidence over the objection of any party in any hearing in connection with such proceeding. The foregoing provisions of this section shall not preclude settlement of any proceeding through the regular adjudicatory process by the filing of an answer as provided in § 622.5(c), or by submission of the case to the presiding officer on a stipulation of facts and an agreed order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.7   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority of presiding officer.</I> All hearings governed by this subpart shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The presiding officer designated by the Board to preside at any such hearing shall have complete charge of the hearing, shall have the duty to conduct it in a fair and impartial manner and shall take all necessary action to avoid delay in the disposition of the proceeding. Such officer shall have all powers necessary to that end, including the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations; 
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, as authorized by law, and to revoke, quash, or modify any such subpoena; 
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof; 
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken; 
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel; 
</P>
<P>(6) To hold conferences for the settlement or simplification of issues or for any proper purpose; and 
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon, as justice may require, all procedural and other motions appropriate in a proceeding under this subpart, except that a presiding officer shall not have power to decide any motion to dismiss the proceeding or other motion which results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding. This power rests only with the Board. Without limitation on the foregoing, the presiding officer shall, subject to the provisions of this subpart, have all the authority set forth in 5 U.S.C. 556(c). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conference.</I> The presiding officer may, on his or her own initiative or at the request of any party, direct counsel for all parties to meet with him or her at a specified time and place prior to the hearing, or to submit suggestions to him or her in writing, for the purpose of considering any or all of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues; 
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact and of the contents and authenticity of documents; 
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice will be taken; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<FP>At the conclusion of such conference(s) the presiding officer shall enter an order which recites the results of the conference. Such order shall include the presiding officer's rulings upon matters considered at the conference, together with appropriate directions, if any, to the parties. Such order shall control the subsequent course of the proceeding, unless modified at the hearing for good cause shown. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Exchange of information.</I> Thirty (30) days prior to the hearing, parties shall exchange a list of the names of witnesses with a general description of their expected testimony, and a list and one copy of all documents or other physical exhibits which will be introduced in evidence in the course of the proceeding. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendance at hearings.</I> All hearings shall be private and shall be attended only by the parties, their counsel or authorized representatives, witnesses while testifying, and other persons having an official interest in the proceeding. However, if the Board, in its discretion, after fully considering the views of the party afforded the hearing, determines that a public hearing is necessary to protect the public interest, the Board may in its sole discretion order that the hearing be public. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transcript of testimony.</I> Hearings shall be recorded. A copy of the transcript of the testimony taken at any hearing, duly certified by the reporter, together with all exhibits accepted into evidence shall be filed with the presiding officer. The presiding officer shall promptly serve notice upon all parties of such filing. The parties shall make their own arrangements with the person recording the testimony for copies of the testimony and exhibits. The presiding officer shall have authority to correct the record sua sponte with notice to all parties and to rule upon motions to correct the record. In the event the hearing is public, transcripts will be furnished to interested persons upon payment of the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuances and changes or extensions of time and changes of place of hearing.</I> Except as otherwise provided by law, the presiding officer may extend time limits prescribed by these rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings, may change the time for beginning any hearing, continue or adjourn a hearing from time to time, and/or change the location of the hearing. Prior to the appointment of a presiding officer and after the filing of a recommended decision pursuant to § 622.12, the Board may grant such extensions or changes. Subject to the approval of the presiding officer, the parties may by stipulation change the time limits specified by these rules or any notice or order issued hereunder.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Closing of hearing.</I> The record of the hearing shall be closed by an announcement to that effect by the presiding officer when the taking of evidence has been concluded. In the discretion of the presiding officer, the record may be closed as of a future date in order to permit the admission into the record, under circumstances determined by the presiding officer, of exhibits to be prepared.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Call for further evidence, oral arguments, briefs, reopening of hearing.</I> The presiding officer may call for the production of further evidence upon any issue, may permit oral argument and submission of briefs at the hearing and, upon appropriate notice, may reopen any hearing at any time prior to the filing of his or her recommended decision. The Board may reopen the record at anytime permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order of procedure.</I> The FCA shall open and close.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Ex parte communications.</I> (1) No person shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding to the presiding officer or anyone who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process.
</P>
<P>(2) No person who is or may reasonably be expected to be involved in the decisional process shall make or knowingly cause to be made an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of the proceeding to any person.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as authorized by law, the presiding officer shall not consult anyone on any fact in issue, unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. The presiding officer shall not be responsible to, or subject to the supervision or direction of, any officer, employee, or agent of the FCA engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions. An officer, employee or agent engaged in the performance of such functions in any case shall not, in that case or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision of the presiding officer, except as a witness or counsel in the proceedings, or as otherwise authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(4) If an ex parte communication is made or knowingly caused to be made, all such communications, and any responses, shall be placed in the record. 
</P>
<P>(5) Upon receipt of a communication knowingly made or caused to be made in violation of paragraph (j) of this section, the responsible party may be required to show cause why such party's claim or interest should not be dismissed, denied, or otherwise adversely affected. To the extent consistent with the interests of justice, a knowing violation of paragraph (j) of this section may be grounds for a decision adverse to a party in violation. 
</P>
<P>(6) The prohibitions against ex parte communications apply from the time a proceeding is noticed for hearing. However, when the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that the proceeding will be noticed, the prohibitions apply from the time such knowledge is acquired. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.8" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.8   Rules of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evidence.</I> Every party shall have the right to present a case or defense by oral and documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts. Irrelevant, immaterial or unduly repetitious evidence shall be excluded. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections.</I> Objections to the admission or exclusion of evidence shall be in short form, stating the grounds of objection relied upon but no argument thereon shall be permitted, except as ordered, allowed, or requested by the presiding officer. Rulings on such objections and all other matters shall be part of the transcript. Failure to object timely to the admission or exclusion of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of such objection. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stipulations.</I> Independently of the orders or rulings issued as provided by § 622.7(b), the parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authenticity of any relevant documents. Such stipulations may be received in evidence at the hearing, and when so received shall be binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Official notice.</I> All matters officially noticed by the presiding officer shall appear on the record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.9   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> The presiding officer or, in the event he or she is unavailable, the Board may issue subpoenas and subpoena duces tecum at the request of any party requiring the attendance of witnesses or the production of documents at a designated place. The person seeking the subpoena may be required, as a condition precedent to the issuance of the subpoena, to show the general relevance and reasonable scope of the testimony or other evidence sought. Where it appears to the presiding officer that a subpoena may be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or delay the proceeding, the presiding officer has discretion to refuse to issue a subpoena or to issue it only upon such conditions as fairness requires.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions to quash.</I> Any person to whom a subpoena is directed may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance but in no event more than 10 days after the date the subpoena was served, with notice to the party requesting the subpoena, apply to the presiding officer, or in the event he or she is unavailable to the Board, to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanying such application with a brief statement of the reasons therefor. The presiding officer may deny the application or, upon notice to the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued and after affording that party an opportunity to reply, may quash or modify the subpoena or impose reasonable conditions including, in the case of a subpoena duces tecum, a requirement that the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued pay in advance the reasonable cost of copying and transporting the documentary evidence to the designated place.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service of subpoena.</I> A subpoena may be served upon the person named therein by personal service or certified mail with a return receipt to the last known address of the person. The fees for one day's attendance and mileage as specified in paragraph (d) of this section must be tendered at the time of service unless the subpoena is issued on behalf of the FCA. If personal service is made by a U.S. marshal, a deputy U.S. marshal, or an employee of the FCA, such service shall be evidenced by the return thereon. If personal service is made by any other person, such person shall sign an affidavit describing the manner in which service is made, and return such affidavit with a copy of the subpoena. In case of failure to make service, reasons for the failure shall be stated on the original subpoena. The original or a copy of the subpoena, bearing or accompanied by the required return, affidavit, statement or return receipt, shall be returned without delay to the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Attendance of witnesses.</I> The attendance of witnesses at a designated place may be required from any place in any State or territory subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. Witnesses who are subpoenaed shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States. Fees required by this paragraph shall be paid by the party upon whose application the subpoena is issued.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Production of documents.</I> The production of documents at a designated place may be required from any place in any State or territory subject to the jurisdiction of the United States. In lieu of an original document, a certified or authenticated copy may be produced. However, any party has the right to inspect the original document.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.10   Depositions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application to take deposition.</I> Any party desiring to take the deposition of any person shall make written application to the presiding officer setting forth the name and address of the witness, the subject matter concerning which the witness is expected to testify, its relevance, the time and place of the deposition, and the reasons why such deposition should be taken. The application may include a request that specified documents be produced at the deposition. A copy of the application shall be served on the other parties at the same time the application is filed with the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpoena; notice to other parties.</I> Upon a showing that the testimony or other evidence sought will be material, and the taking of the deposition will not result in any undue burden to the witness or any party or undue delay of the proceedings, the presiding officer may issue a subpoena or subpoena duces tecum. Notice of the issuance of such subpoena shall be served upon all parties at least 10 days in advance of the date set for deposition.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deposition by notice.</I> The requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section may be waived by agreement of the parties and the witness whose testimony or documentary evidence is sought. Such agreement shall be embodied in a stipulation which becomes part of the record and may provide for the taking of depositions upon notice without leave of the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure on deposition.</I> Depositions may be taken before any person having the power to administer oaths. Each witness whose testimony is taken by deposition shall be duly sworn before any question is propounded. Examination and cross-examination of deponents may proceed as permitted at the hearing. Objections to questions or documents shall be in short form, stating the grounds relief upon for the objection. Failure to object to questions or evidence is deemed a waiver if the ground of the objection is one which might have been obviated or removed if presented at that time. The questions propounded and the answers thereto, together with all objections made (but not including argument or debate) shall be recorded by or under the direction of the person before whom the deposition is taken. The deposition shall be signed by the witness, unless the parties by stipulation waive the signing or the witness is physically unable to sign, cannot be found, or refuses to sign. The deposition shall also be certified as a true and complete transcript by the person recording the testimony. If the deposition is not signed by the witness, the person recording the testimony shall state this fact and the reason therefor on the record. The person before whom the deposition is taken shall promptly file the transcript and all exhibits with the presiding officer. Interested parties shall make their own arrangements with the person recording the testimony for copies of the testimony and exhibits.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Introduction as evidence.</I> Subject to appropriate rulings by the presiding officer on such objections and answers as were noted at the time the deposition was taken or as would be valid were the witness personally present and testifying at the hearing, the deposition or any part thereof may be received in evidence by the presiding officer in his or her discretion. Only such part of a deposition as is received in evidence at a hearing shall constitute a part of the record upon which a decision may be based.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment of fees.</I> Deponents whose depositions are taken and the reporter taking the same shall be entitled to the same fees as are paid for like services in the district courts of the United States, which fees shall be paid by the party upon whose application the deposition is taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.11   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How made.</I> An application or request for an order or ruling not otherwise specifically provided for in this subpart, unless made during a hearing, shall be made by written motion supported by a memorandum which concisely states the grounds therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opposition.</I> Within 10 days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be fixed by the presiding officer, any party may file a memorandum in opposition thereto. The moving party has no right to reply except as permitted by the presiding officer. The presiding officer has discretion to waive the requirements of this section as to motions for extension of time and may rule upon such motions ex parte.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oral argument.</I> No oral argument will be heard on motions except as otherwise directed by the presiding officer or the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rulings and orders.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, the presiding officer shall rule on all motions and may issue appropriate orders, except that motions may be referred to the Board if the presiding officer is unavailable or determines that such motion should be referred to the Board. Prior to the appointment of a presiding officer and after a recommended decision is filed pursuant to § 622.12, the Board shall rule on motions filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeal from rulings on motions.</I> All answers, motions, objections and rulings shall become part of the record. Rulings of a presiding officer on any motion may not be appealed to the Board prior to its consideration of the presiding officer's recommended decision, except by special permission of the Board. However, such rulings shall be considered by the Board in reviewing the record. Requests to the Board for special permission to appeal from a ruling of the presiding officer shall be filed in writing within 5 days of the ruling, and shall briefly state the grounds relied on. The moving party shall immediately serve a copy thereof on every other party to the proceeding who may then respond to such request within 5 days after service.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuation of hearing.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or the Board, the hearing shall continue pending the determination of any request or motion by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.12" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.12   Proposed findings and conclusions; recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions by parties.</I> Within 30 days after the hearing transcript has been filed, any party may file proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Such proposals shall be supported by citation of such statutes, decisions, and other authorities, and by specific page references to such portions of the record as may be relevant. All such proposals shall become a part of the record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recommended decision by presiding officer.</I> Within 30 days after the expiration of time allowed under paragraph (a) of this section, or within such further time as the Board for good cause allows, the presiding officer shall file the entire hearing record, including a recommended decision and findings and conclusions, the transcript, exhibits (including on request of any of the parties any exhibits excluded from evidence or tender of proof), exceptions, rulings and all briefs and memoranda filed in connection with the hearing. Promptly upon such filing, the presiding officer shall serve a copy of the recommended decision, findings and conclusions upon each party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board as presiding officer.</I> In proceedings in which the Board or one or more of its members has presided at the reception of evidence, the presiding officer's recommended decision, findings of fact, and conclusions of law will be omitted. In such proceedings the proposed findings and conclusions, briefs, and other submissions permitted under paragraph (a) of this section shall be filed with the Board for consideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.13" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.13   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Within 15 days after service of the recommended decision of the presiding officer, any party may file exceptions thereto or to any portion thereof, or to the failure of the presiding officer to make any recommendation, finding, or conclusion, or to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to any other ruling of the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> Each exception shall be supported by a concise argument and by citation of such statutes, decisions and other authorities, and by page references to such portions of the record as may be relevant. If the exception relates to the admission or exclusion of evidence, the substance of the evidence admitted or excluded shall be set forth in the brief with appropriate references to the transcript.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver.</I> Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed shall be a waiver of objection thereto.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.14" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.14   Briefs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> Any brief filed in a proceeding shall be confined to the particular matters in issue, citing statutes, decisions, and other authorities, and page references to such portions of the record or the recommended decision of the presiding officer as may be relevant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 10 days after service of original briefs of opposing parties, and shall be confined to matters in such briefs. Further briefs may be filed only with permission of the presiding officer or the Board with respect to a matter before the Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delayed filing.</I> Briefs not filed on or before the time fixed in this subpart or by the presiding officer will be received only upon special permission of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.15   Oral argument before the Board.</HEAD>
<P>Upon its own initiative or upon written request by any party, the Board, in its discretion, may order the matter to be set down for oral argument before the Board or one or more members thereof. Any request for oral argument by a party filing exceptions shall be made within the time prescribed for filing such exceptions, or by any other party, within the time prescribed for the filing of a reply brief. Oral argument before the Board shall be recorded unless otherwise ordered by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.16" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.16   Notice of submission to the Board.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the filing of the record with the Board, and upon the expiration of the time for the filing of exceptions and all briefs, including reply briefs or any further briefs permitted by the presiding officer or the Board, and upon the hearing of oral argument by the Board, if ordered by the Board, the Board shall notify the parties in writing that the case has been submitted for final decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.17" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.17   Decision of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who has not engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions in the case, or in a factually related case, may advise and assist the Board in the consideration of the case. Copies of the decision and order of the Board shall be served upon the parties. A copy of the order will also be sent to the supervisory bank if the order relates to a System association, director, officer, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of the association.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.18" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.18   Filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Papers required or permitted to be filed with the Board shall be filed with the Chairman of the Board, FCA, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090 or with the person designated to receive papers for the agency in a proceeding. Papers sent by mail must be postmarked or received within the prescribed time limit for filing. Papers sent by any other means must be received within the prescribed time limit for filing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Formal requirements.</I> All filed papers shall be printed, typewritten, or otherwise reproduced, and copies shall be clear and legible. The original of all papers filed by a party shall be signed and dated as of the date of execution by the party filing the same, or a duly authorized agent or attorney. The signer's address and telephone number must appear on the original. Counsel for the FCA shall sign the original of all papers filed on behalf of the FCA. All papers filed must name in the heading or on a title page, the parties, the docket number and the subject of the papers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Copies.</I> Parties shall file an original and three copies of all documents and papers required or permitted to be filed under this subpart (except the transcript of testimony and exhibits), unless otherwise specifically provided by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.19" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.19   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Except as otherwise provided in these rules, each party who files papers is responsible for serving a copy thereof upon the presiding officer and upon every other party or the attorney or representative of record of that party. A copy of all papers filed by the presiding officer or the Board, except for the transcript of testimony and exhibits, shall be served upon each of the parties. Service may be by personal service, private delivery service, or by express, certified or regular first-class mail. If a party is not represented, service shall be made at the last known address of the party or an officer thereof as shown on the records of the FCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proof of service.</I> Proof of service of papers filed by a party shall be filed before action is to be taken thereon. The proof shall show the date and manner of service, and may be by written acknowledgment of service, by declaration of the person making service, or by certificate of an attorney or other representative of record. Failure to make proof of service shall not affect the validity of service. The presiding officer may allow the proof to be amended or supplied, unless to do so would result in material prejudice to a party. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.20   Documents in proceedings confidential.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Board or required by law, the entire record in any proceeding under this subpart, including the notice of hearing, transcript, exhibits, proposed findings and conclusions, recommended decision of the presiding officer, exceptions thereto, decision and order of the Board, and any other papers which are filed in connection with the proceeding shall not be made public, and shall be for the confidential use only of the FCA and its staff, the presiding officer, the parties, and other appropriate supervisory authorities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.21   Computing time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act or event from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day so computed shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the period of time prescribed or allowed is 10 days or less, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays shall not be included in the computation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service by mail.</I> Whenever any party has the right or is required to do some act within the period of time prescribed in this subpart after the service upon the party of any document or other paper of any kind, and such service is made by mail, three days shall be added to the prescribed period from the date when the matter served is deposited in the United States mail. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.22" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.22   Retained authority.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing is this part is in derogation of powers of examination and investigation conferred on the FCA by any provision of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 622.23-622.50" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.1.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 622.23-622.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules and Procedures for Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 27284, July 19, 1988, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 622.51" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.51   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless noted otherwise, the definitions set forth in § 622.2 of subpart A shall apply to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.52" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.52   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures specified in this subpart and in subpart A are applicable to proceedings by the FCA to assess and collect civil money penalties:
</P>
<P>(a) For violations of the terms of a final cease and desist order issued under section 5.25 or 5.26 of the Act;
</P>
<P>(b) For violations of any provision of the Act or any regulation issued under the Act; or
</P>
<P>(c) For violations of the National Flood Insurance Reform Act (Reform Act) as set forth in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f) or any regulation issued under the Reform Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 70 FR 12584, Mar. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 622.53-622.54" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 622.53-622.54   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.55" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.55   Notice of assessment of civil money penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of assessment.</I> The notice of assessment for a civil money penalty will state:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the assessment;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of the civil money penalty being assessed;
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which the civil money penalty must be paid;
</P>
<P>(4) The matter of fact or law constituting the grounds for assessment of the civil money penalty;
</P>
<P>(5) The right of the institution or person being assessed to a formal hearing to challenge the assessment;
</P>
<P>(6) That failure to request a hearing constitutes a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing and the notice of assessment will constitute a final and unappealable order; and
</P>
<P>(7) The time limit to request such a formal hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> The notice of assessment may be served upon the institution or person being assessed by personal service or by certified mail with a return receipt to the institution's or the person's last known address. Such service constitutes issuance of the notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 70 FR 12585, Mar. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.56" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.56   Request for formal hearing on assessment.</HEAD>
<P>An institution or person being assessed may request a formal hearing to challenge the assessment of a civil money penalty. The request must be filed in writing, within 10 days of the issuance of the notice of assessment, with the Chairman of the Board, FCA, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.57" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.57   Waiver of hearing; consent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Waiver.</I> Failure to request a hearing pursuant to § 622.56 constitutes a waiver of the opportunity for a hearing and the notice of assessment issued pursuant to § 622.55 will constitute a final and unappealable order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consent.</I> Any party afforded a hearing who does not appear at the hearing personally or by a duly authorized representative is deemed to have consented to the issuance of an assessment order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 70 FR 12585, Mar. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.58" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.58   Hearing on assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time and place.</I> An institution or person requesting a hearing will be informed by order of the Board of the time and place set for hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Answer; procedures.</I> The hearing order may require the institution or person requesting the hearing to file an answer as prescribed in § 622.5 of subpart A. The procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) and subpart A of these rules will apply to the hearing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 70 FR 12585, Mar. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.59" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.59   Assessment order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consent.</I> In the event of consent of the parties concerned to an assessment, or if, upon the record made at a hearing ordered under this subpart, the Board finds that the grounds for having assessed the penalty have been established, the Board may issue an order of assessment of civil money penalty. In its assessment order, the Board may reduce the amount of the penalty specified in the notice of assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date and period.</I> An assessment order is effective immediately upon issuance, or upon such other date as may be specified therein, and will remain effective and enforceable unless it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the board or a reviewing court.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Service.</I> An assessment order may be served by personal service or by certified mail with a return receipt to the last known address of the institution or person being assessed. Such service constitutes issuance of the order.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21139, June 11, 1986, as amended at 70 FR 12585, Mar. 15, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.60" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.60   Payment of civil money penalty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment date.</I> Generally, the date designated in the notice of assessment for payment of the civil money penalty will be 60 days from the issuance of the notice. If, however, the Board finds, in a specific case, that the purposes of the relevant statutes would be better served if the 60-day period were changed, the Board may shorten or lengthen the period or make the civil money penalty payable immediately upon receipt of the notice of assessment. If a timely request for a formal hearing to challenge an assessment of a civil money penalty is filed, payment of the penalty will not be required unless and until the Board issues a final order of assessment following the hearing. If an assessment order is issued, it will specify the date by which the civil money penalty is to be paid or collected.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of payment.</I> Checks in payment of civil money penalties must be made payable to the “Farm Credit Administration.” Upon collection, the FCA will forward payment for penalties described in § 622.52(a) and (b) to the United States Department of Treasury. The FCA will forward payment for penalties described in § 622.52(c) to the National Flood Mitigation Fund as required by 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(8).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 12585, Mar. 15, 2005]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.61" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.61   Adjustment of civil money penalties by the rate of inflation under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The maximum amount of each civil money penalty within FCA's jurisdiction is adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 <I>note</I>), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amount of civil money penalty imposed under section 5.32 of the Act for violation of a final order issued under section 5.25 or 5.26 of the Act: The maximum daily amount is $2,904 for violations that occur on or after January 15, 2025.
</P>
<P>(2) Amount of civil money penalty for violation of the Act or regulations: the maximum daily amount is $1,313 for each violation that occurs on or after January 15, 2025.
</P>
<P>(b) The maximum civil money penalty amount assessed under 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f) is $2,730 for each violation that occurs on or after January 15, 2025, with no cap on the total amount of penalties that can be assessed against any single institution during any calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 3618, Jan. 15, 2025]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 622.62-622.75" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 622.62-622.75   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Suspension or Removal of an Individual Where Certain Crimes Are Charged or Proven</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.76" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.76   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless noted otherwise, the definitions set forth in § 622.2 of subpart A shall apply to this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.77" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.77   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to informal hearings afforded to any officer, director, or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of a System institution who has been suspended or removed from office or prohibited from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the institution's affairs by a notice or order issued by the Board upon the grounds set forth in section 5.29 of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.78" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.78   Suspension, prohibition or removal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content.</I> The Board may serve a notice of suspension or prohibition or order of removal upon a director, officer or other person participating in the conduct of the affairs of an institution. A copy of such notice or order shall also be served upon the institution, whereupon the individual concerned shall immediately cease service to the institution or participation in the affairs of the institution. Any notice or order shall indicate the basis for the suspension, prohibition, or removal and shall inform the individual of the right to request in writing, within 30 days of being served with such notice or order, an opportunity to show at an informal hearing that continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the institution does not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the institution's shareholders or the investors in Farm Credit System obligations or threaten to impair public confidence in the institution or the Farm Credit System. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> A notice or order of suspension, removal or prohibition may be served by personal service or by certified mail with a return receipt to the last known address of the person being served. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.79" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.79   Petition for informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> To obtain a hearing, the subject individual must file an original and three copies of a petition with the Board within 30 days of being served with the notice or order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> The petition shall:
</P>
<P>(1) State whether the petitioner is requesting termination or modification of the notice or order;
</P>
<P>(2) State with particularity how the petitioner intends to show that his or her continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the institution would not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the institution's shareholders or the investors in Farm Credit System obligations or threaten to impair public confidence in the institution or the Farm Credit System;
</P>
<P>(3) Include a request to present oral testimony or witnesses at the hearing, if the petitioner desires to do so. The request should specify the names of the witnesses and a summary of their expected testimony; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate whether the petitioner desires oral argument or elects to have the matter determined solely on the basis of written submissions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.80" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.80   Informal hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time and place.</I> Upon receipt of a timely petition for a hearing, the Board shall notify the petitioner of the time and place fixed for the hearing and shall designate one or more Board members or FCA employees to preside (“designated FCA representative”). The hearing shall be scheduled to be held no later than 30 days from the date a petition for hearing is received unless the time is extended at the request of the petitioner. Notice of the hearing shall also be sent to the FCA's Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appearance.</I> A petitioner may appear personally or through counsel to submit relevant written materials and oral argument. An attorney is subject to all the requirements and limitations imposed on attorneys in § 622.3 of subpart A. A representative(s) of the FCA's Office of General Counsel may participate in the hearing to the extent such representative deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written material.</I> Any written material the petitioner wishes to have considered must be submitted to the designated FCA representative and the FCA's Office of General Counsel at least 10 days prior to the date of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral testimony.</I> Oral testimony may be presented only if expressly permitted by the Board in the notice of hearing. The designated FCA representative may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Transcripts.</I> Oral testimony, if any, and oral argument shall be recorded. A copy of the transcript shall be filed with the designated FCA representative, who shall have authority to correct the record sua sponte upon notice, or upon the motion of the petitioner or the representative of the FCA's Office of General Counsel. The designated FCA representative shall promptly serve notice upon the petitioner and the FCA's Office of General Counsel of such filing. Such parties shall make arrangements with the person recording the testimony or argument for copies of the transcript.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Closing of record.</I> Upon the request of the petitioner or representative of the FCA's Office of General Counsel, the record shall remain open for a period of 5 business days following the hearing, during which time additional submissions for the record may be made. Thereafter, the record shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Rules of evidence and procedure.</I> Neither the formal rules of evidence nor the adjudicative procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) or subpart A of these rules shall apply to the informal hearing ordered under this subpart unless the Board orders that they apply in whole or in part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.81" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.81   Default.</HEAD>
<P>If the subject individual fails to file a petition for a hearing, or fails to appear at a hearing, either in person or by an attorney, or fails to submit a written argument where oral argument has been waived, the notice shall remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of and the order shall remain in effect until terminated by the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.82" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.82   Decision of the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recommended decision.</I> Within 30 days of the hearing, the designated FCA representative shall make a recommendation with findings and conclusions to the Board concerning the notice or order of suspension, removal, or prohibition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Final decision.</I> Within 60 days of the hearing, the Board shall notify the subject individual and the FCA's Office of General Counsel whether the suspension or removal from office, or prohibition from participation in any manner in the affairs of the institution, will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified. The Board's final decision, if adverse to the individual, shall contain a statement of the basis thereof. The Board may satisfy this requirement where it adopts the recommended decision of the designated FCA representative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Guilt not an issue.</I> In deciding upon any suspension of prohibition by notice, the ultimate question of the guilt or innocence of the individual with respect to the criminal charge that is outstanding will not be considered. A finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge shall not preclude the Board from thereafter instituting removal proceedings pursuant to section 5.28 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective period.</I> A removal or prohibition by order remains in effect until terminated by the Board. A suspension or prohibition by notice remains in effect until the criminal charge is finally disposed of or until terminated by the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A suspended or removed individual may petition the Board to reconsider the decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the decision, but no petition for reconsideration may be made within 12 months of a previous petition. A petition shall state with particularity the relief sought and the grounds therefor and may be accompanied by a supporting memorandum and any other documentation the petitioner wishes to have considered. No hearing need be granted on the petition for reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 622.83-622.100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 622.83-622.100   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Rules and Procedures Applicable to Formal Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.101" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless noted otherwise, the definitions set forth in § 622.2 of subpart A shall apply to this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.102" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.102   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart apply to formal investigations initiated by order of the Board and pertain to the exercise of powers specified in section 5.37 of the Act. These rules do not restrict or in any way affect the authority of the FCA, including but not limited to the powers enumerated in section 5.37 of the Act, to conduct examinations of System institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.103" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.103   Formal investigations are confidential.</HEAD>
<P>Information or documents obtained or testimony recorded in the course of a formal investigation shall be confidential and shall be disclosed only in accordance with the provisions of 12 CFR part 602. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.104" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.104   Order to conduct formal investigation.</HEAD>
<P>A formal investigation begins with the issuance of an order by the Board. The order shall designate the person or persons who will conduct the investigation, issue, revoke, quash or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum, take or cause to be taken depositions, administer oaths, and receive affirmations as to any matter under investigation by the FCA. Upon application and for good cause shown, the Board may limit, modify, or withdraw the order at any stage of the proceeding. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.105" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.105   Conduct of investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review of order.</I> Any person who is compelled or requested to furnish testimony, documentary evidence, or other information with respect to any matter under formal investigation shall upon request be shown the order initiating such investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Right to counsel.</I> Any person who, in a formal investigation, is compelled to appear and testify or who appears and testifies by request or permission of the Board may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel. The right to be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel shall mean the right of a person testifying to have an attorney present at all times while testifying and to have this attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise such person before, during and after the conclusion of testimony;
</P>
<P>(2) Question such person briefly at the conclusion of testimony to clarify any of the answers given; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make summary notes during the testimony solely for the use of such person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appearance.</I> The provisions of § 622.3 are applicable to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusion.</I> (1) Any person who has given or will give testimony, and counsel representing such person, may be excluded from the taking of testimony of any other witness in the discretion of the designated FCA representative conducting the investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) The designated FCA representative conducting the investigation shall report to the Board any instances where any person has been guilty of dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, contumacious or other unethical or improper conduct during the course of the proceeding or any other instance involving a violation of these rules. The Board may thereupon take such action as the circumstances may warrant, including exclusion of the offending individual or individual from participation in the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.106" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.106   Service of subpoena and payment of witness fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> A subpoena may be served upon the person named therein by personal service or certified mail with a return receipt to the last known address of the person. Witnesses who are subpoenaed shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid witnesses in the district courts of the United States. The fees and mileage need not be tendered at the time a subpoena is served.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions to quash.</I> Any person to whom a subpoena is directed may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than 5 days after the date of service of such subpoena, apply to the FCA representative authorized in the order, or if unavailable to the Board, to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanying such application with a brief statement of the reasons therefor. The FCA representative, or the Board, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Deny the application;
</P>
<P>(2) Quash or revoke the subpoena;
</P>
<P>(3) Modify the subpoena; or
</P>
<P>(4) Condition the granting of the application on such terms as the FCA representative or the Board, determines in his, her, or its discretion, to be just, reasonable, and proper. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 622.107" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.23.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 622.107   Transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>Transcripts, if any, of an investigative proceeding shall be recorded by any means authorized by the designated FCA representative conducting the investigation. A person who has given testimony in an investigative proceeding (or counsel for such person) upon proper identification shall have the right to inspect the transcript of the person's testimony but may not obtain a copy if the FCA's representative conducting the investigation has cause to believe that the contents should not be disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="623" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 623—PRACTICE BEFORE THE FARM CREDIT ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 5.25-5.37 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2244, 2252, 2261-2273).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 21147, June 11, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 623.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.1   Scope of part.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes rules with regard to persons who may practice before the Farm Credit Administration and the circumstances under which attorneys, accountants, appraisers, or other persons may be suspended or debarred, either temporarily or permanently, from practicing before the Farm Credit Administration. In connection with any particular matter, reference also should be made to any special requirements of procedure and practice that may be contained in the particular statute involved or the rules and forms adopted by the Farm Credit Administration thereunder, which special requirements are controlling. In addition to any suspension hereunder, a person may be excluded from further participation in a particular adjudicative proceeding in accordance with § 622.3 or in a formal investigation in accordance with § 622.105.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Board</I> means the Farm Credit Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Act</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended. 12 U.S.C. 2001, <I>et seq.</I> 
</P>
<P>(d) The terms <I>institution in the System, System institution</I> and <I>institution</I> mean all institutions enumerated in section 1.2 of the Act, any institution chartered pursuant to or established by the Act, except for the Farm Credit System Assistance Board and the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation and any service corporation chartered under the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The term <I>presiding officer</I> includes the Board, one or more members thereof, FCA employees, or an administrative law judge. As used in this part, the term shall be construed to refer to whichever of the above-identified individuals presides at a hearing or other proceeding, except as otherwise specified in the text; 
</P>
<P>(f) The term <I>attorney</I> means any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth or the District of Columbia; 
</P>
<P>(g) The term <I>practice</I> means transacting any business with the FCA, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The representation of another person at any adjudicatory, investigatory, removal or rulemaking proceeding conducted before the FCA or a presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The preparation or certification of any statement, opinion, report of financial condition and performance, financial statement, appraisal report, audit report, or other document or report by any attorney, accountant, appraiser or other person which is filed with or submitted to the FCA, with such person's consent or knowledge in connection with any filing with the FCA; 
</P>
<P>(3) A presentation to the FCA or a presiding officer at a conference or meeting relating to an institution's or person's rights, privileges or liabilities under the laws administered by the FCA and rules and regulations promulgated thereunder; 
</P>
<P>(4) Any business correspondence or communication with the FCA or a presiding officer; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The transaction of any other business with the FCA on behalf of another, in the capacity of an attorney, accountant, appraiser, licensed expert or any other capacity. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 21147, June 11, 1986, as amended at 53 FR 27285, July 19, 1988; 78 FR 31835, May 28, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.3   Who may practice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By nonattorneys.</I> (1) An individual may appear on his or her own behalf; a member of a partnership may represent the partnership; a bona fide and duly authorized officer or other designated representative of a corporation, trust, association or other entity not specifically listed herein may represent the corporation, trust, association or other entity; and an authorized officer or other designated representative of any government unit, agency or authority may represent that unit, agency or authority. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any accountant, appraiser or licensed expert may practice before the FCA in a professional capacity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any entity noted in paragraph (a) of this section may be represented in any proceeding or other matter before the FCA by an attorney. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any person transacting business with the FCA in a representative capacity may be required to show evidence of his or her authority to act in such capacity and certification of credentials. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.4   Suspension and debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> The Board may censure any person practicing before the FCA or may deny, temporarily or permanently, the privilege of any person to practice before the FCA if such person is found by the Board, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter: 
</P>
<P>(1) Not to possess the requisite qualifications to represent others; 
</P>
<P>(2) To be lacking in character or professional integrity; 
</P>
<P>(3) To have engaged in any dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, contumacious or other unethical or improper conduct before FCA; or 
</P>
<P>(4) To have willfully violated, or willfully aided and abetted the violation of, any provision of the laws administered by the FCA or the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic suspension.</I> (1) Any person who, after being licensed as a professional or expert by any competent authority, has been convicted by a Federal or State court of a felony, or of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude, personal dishonesty or breach of trust, shall be suspended automatically from practicing before the FCA without a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any accountant, appraiser or licensed expert whose license to practice has been revoked in any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth or the District of Columbia, or who has been suspended or otherwise barred from practice before any Federal or State regulatory authority, shall be suspended automatically from practicing before the FCA without a hearing. 
</P>
<P>(3) Any attorney who has been suspended or disbarred by a court of the United States or in any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth or the District of Columbia, shall be suspended automatically from practicing before the FCA without a hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) A conviction (including a judgment or order on a plea of nolo contendere), revocation, suspension or disbarment under paragraphs (b)(1), (2) and (3) of this section shall be deemed to have occurred when the convicting, revoking, suspending or disbarring agency or tribunal enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken. 
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of this section, it shall be irrelevant that any attorney, accountant, appraiser or licensed expert who has been suspended, disbarred or otherwise disqualified from practice before a court, regulatory authority, or in a jurisdiction continues in professional good standing before other courts, regulatory authorities, or in other jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Temporary suspension.</I> (1) The Board, with due regard to the public interest and without preliminary hearing, by order, may temporarily suspend any person from appearing or practicing before it who by name, has been:
</P>
<P>(i) Permanently enjoined (whether by consent, default or summary judgment or after trial) by any court of competent jurisdiction or by the Board in a final administrative order, by reason of his or her misconduct in any action brought by the FCA based upon violations of, or aiding and abetting the violation of any provision of any law that is administered by the FCA or of any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Found by any court of competent jurisdiction (whether by consent, default, upon summary judgment or after hearing) or in any administrative proceeding in which the FCA is a complainant and he or she is a party, to have willfully committed, caused, aided or abetted a violation of any provision of any law that is administered by the FCA, or of any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder.
</P>
<P>(2) An order of temporary suspension shall become effective when served by certified mail with a return receipt directed to the last known business or residential address of the person involved. No order of temporary suspension shall be entered by the Board pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section more than 3 months after the final judgment or order entered in a judicial or administrative proceeding described in paragraph (c)(1) (i) or (ii) of this section has become effective and all review or appeal procedures have been completed or are no longer available.
</P>
<P>(3) Any person temporarily suspended from appearing and practicing before the FCA in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section may, within 30 days after service of the order of temporary suspension, petition the Board to lift such suspension. If no petition is received by the Board within 30 days, the suspension shall become permanent.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 30 days after the filing of a petition in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the Board shall either lift the temporary suspension or set the matter down for hearing at a time and place to be designated by the Board, or both. After opportunity for hearing, the Board may censure the petitioner or may suspend the petitioner from appearing or practicing before the FCA temporarily or permanently. In any case in which the temporary suspension has not been lifted, the hearing and any other action taken pursuant to this paragraph shall be expedited by the Board in order to ensure the petitioner's right to address the allegations.
</P>
<P>(5) In any hearing held on a petition filed in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a showing that the petitioner has been enjoined or has been found to have committed, caused, aided or abetted violations as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, without more, may be a basis for suspension or debarment; that showing having been made, the burden shall then be on the petitioner to show why the petitioner should not be censured or be temporarily or permanently suspended or debarred. A petitioner will not be permitted to contest any findings against the petitioner or any admissions made by the petitioner in the judicial or administrative proceedings upon which the proposed censure, suspension or debarment is based. A petitioner who has consented to the entry of a permanent injunction or order as described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, without admitting the facts set forth in the complaint, shall nevertheless be presumed for all purposes under this section to have been enjoined or ordered by reason of the misconduct alleged in the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.5   Reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person who is suspended from practicing before the FCA under § 623.4 (a) or (c) of this part may file an application for reinstatement at any time. Denial of the privilege of practicing before the FCA shall continue unless and until the applicant has been reinstated by order of the Board for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person suspended under § 623.4(b) shall be reinstated by the Board, upon appropriate application, if all of the grounds for application of the provisions of that paragraph are removed subsequently by a reversal of the conviction or termination of the suspension, disbarment of revocation. An application for reinstatement on any other grounds by any person suspended under § 623.4(b) may be filed at any time. Such application shall state with particularity the relief requested and the grounds therefor and shall include supporting evidence, when available. The applicant shall be accorded an opportunity for an informal hearing in the matter, unless the applicant has waived a hearing in the application and, instead, has elected to have the matter determined on the basis of written submissions. Such hearing shall utilize the procedures established in part 622, subpart C. However, such suspension shall continue unless and until the applicant has been reinstated by order of the Board for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.6   Duty to file information concerning adverse judicial or administrative action.</HEAD>
<P>Any person appearing or practicing before the FCA who has been or is the subject of a conviction, suspension, debarment, license revocation, injunction or other finding of the kind described in § 623.4 (b) or (c) of this part is an action not instituted by the FCA shall promptly file a copy of the relevant order, judgment or decree with the Board together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved. Any person who fails to file a copy of such an order, judgment or decree within 30 days after the later of the entry of the order, judgment or decree, or the date such person initiates practice before the FCA, for that reason alone may be disqualified from practicing before the FCA until such time as the appropriate filing shall be made, but neither the filing of these documents nor the failure of a person to file them shall in any way impair the operation of any other provision of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 623.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.24.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 623.7   Proceeding under this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rules.</I> All hearings required or permitted to be held under paragraphs (a) and (c) of § 623.4 of this part shall be held before a presiding officer utilizing the procedures established in the rules of practice and procedure under part 622, subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closed hearings.</I> All hearings held under this part shall be closed to the public unless the Board directs otherwise on its own motion or upon the request of a party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collateral proceedings.</I> Any proceeding brought under any section of this part shall not preclude a proceeding under any other section of this part or any other part of the FCA's regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="624" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 624—MARGIN AND CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS FOR COVERED SWAP ENTITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 12 U.S.C. 2154, 12 U.S.C. 2243, 12 U.S.C. 2252, and 12 U.S.C. 2279bb-1.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 624.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.1   Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), and sections 4.3, 5.9, 5.17, and 8.32 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2154, 12 U.S.C. 2243, 12 U.S.C. 2252, and 12 U.S.C. 2279bb-1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require the FCA to establish capital and margin requirements for any System institution, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>) that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This regulation implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statutes' requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this part with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This part applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the relevant compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this part is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 624.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security-based swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 624.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this part on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin and § 624.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 624.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 624.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this part with respect to that counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Legacy swaps.</I> Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this subpart for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this subpart if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:
</P>
<P>(A) A covered swap entity, or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;
</P>
<P>(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:
</P>
<P>(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);
</P>
<P>(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swap[s] or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not extend the maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.
</P>
<P>(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or
</P>
<P>(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74913, 74924, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9949, Mar. 19, 2019; 84 FR 68326, Dec. 16, 2019; 85 FR 39469, 39776, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> A company is an affiliate of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(4) The FCA has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on FCA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Covered swap entity</I> means any institution chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>) that is a swap entity, or any other entity that the FCA determines.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P><I>Currency of settlement</I> means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.
</P>
<P><I>Day of execution</I> means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral described in § 624.6.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of title 12, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Financial end user</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange forward</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin</I> means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 624.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin collection amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 624.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin model</I> means an internal risk management model that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been approved by the FCA pursuant to § 624.8.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin threshold amount</I> means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 624.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means the issuer of a security has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Major currency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) United States Dollar (USD);
</P>
<P>(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);
</P>
<P>(3) Euro (EUR);
</P>
<P>(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);
</P>
<P>(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);
</P>
<P>(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);
</P>
<P>(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);
</P>
<P>(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);
</P>
<P>(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);
</P>
<P>(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);
</P>
<P>(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or
</P>
<P>(12) Any other currency as determined by the FCA.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means initial margin and variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Market intermediary</I> means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P><I>Material swaps exposure</I> for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 624.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FCA determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared security-based swap</I> means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared swap</I> means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).
</P>
<P><I>Prudential regulator</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P><I>Security-based swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a subsidiary of another company if<I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(3) The FCA has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on FCA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).
</P>
<P><I>Swap entity</I> means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015; 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.3   Initial margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap <I>less</I> the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 624.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.4   Variation margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 624.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Netting arrangements.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § 624.3 using an initial margin model as described in § 624.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 624.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this part on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 624.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this part and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 624.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 624.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this part. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 624.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to post margin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum transfer amount.</I> Notwithstanding § 624.3 or § 624.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this part with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this part to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</I> A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 624.3, § 624.4, or § 624.6(e) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity has:
</P>
<P>(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of the FCA that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.6   Eligible collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to initial margin only:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 624.12;
</P>
<P>(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of investment grade as defined in § 624.2 and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the terms of investment grade as defined in § 624.2 and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the FCA; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 624.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Gold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 624.12;
</P>
<P>(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the terms of investment grade as defined in § 624.2 and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the terms of investment grade as defined in § 624.2 and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by the FCA; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under the capital rules applicable to the covered swap entity as set forth in § 624.12, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(10) Gold.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this part is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this part does not include a security issued by:
</P>
<P>(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).
</P>
<P>(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 624.3(d) or § 624.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this part in any form of collateral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.7   Segregation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 624.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 624.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 624.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 624.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 624.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 624.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 624.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 624.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 624.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.8" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.8   Initial margin models and standardized amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized amounts.</I> Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 624.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of initial margin models.</I> A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 624.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for initial margin model.</I> (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of the FCA before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered swap entity must notify the FCA in writing 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that the FCA has approved under this section to an additional product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by the FCA under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.
</P>
<P>(4) The FCA may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if the FCA determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative requirements.</I> (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.
</P>
<P>(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.
</P>
<P>(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.
</P>
<P>(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.
</P>
<P>(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the FCA that such omission is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of the FCA that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.
</P>
<P>(15) The FCA may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if the FCA determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic review.</I> A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.
</P>
<P>(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify the FCA of the problems, describe to the FCA any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.
</P>
<P>(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this part. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.9   Cross-border application of margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions to which this rule does not apply.</I> The requirements of §§ 624.3 through 624.8 and §§ 624.10 through 624.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign non-cleared swap</I> or <I>foreign non-cleared security-based swap</I> is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign covered swap entity</I> is any covered swap entity that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply</I>—(1) <I>Determinations and reliance.</I> For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this part by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 624.3 through 624.8 and §§ 624.10 through 624.12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard.</I> In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this part and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance.</I> A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement.</I> A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 624.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for determinations.</I> (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:
</P>
<P>(A) The scope of transactions covered;
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;
</P>
<P>(C) The timing of margin requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) Any documentation requirements;
</P>
<P>(E) The forms of eligible collateral;
</P>
<P>(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Segregation unavailable.</I> Sections 624.3(b) and 624.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 624.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 624.7;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 624.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 624.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 624.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 624.6(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) The FCA provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarantee</I> means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section is not subject to the requirements of § 624.3(a) or § 624.11(a) for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in § 624.11(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39777, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.10   Documentation of margin matters.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this subpart, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 624.3 or § 624.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and
</P>
<P>(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74898, 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39777, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.11   Special rules for affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 624.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 624.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 624.3(c), until the earlier of;
</P>
<P>(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or
</P>
<P>(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 624.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this paragraph (a), “tier 1 capital” means:
</P>
<P>(i) For Farm Credit System banks and associations, the sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 628.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 628.20(c), and as reported in the institution's most recent Uniform Reports of Financial Condition and Performance (Call Report); or
</P>
<P>(ii) For the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, as defined and required in in 12 CFR 652.61, and as reported in the institution's most recent Call Report.
</P>
<P>(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 624.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of § 624.11(a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 624.3(a) from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 624.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 624.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An affiliate as defined in § 624.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>subsidiary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 624.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39777, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 624.12" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 624.12   Capital.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall comply with:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, the capital adequacy regulations set forth in part 652 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of any Farm Credit System institution other than the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, the capital regulations set forth in parts 615 and 628 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016]

</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.13.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 624—Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-Cleared Swaps and Non—Cleared Security-Based Swaps



</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non-cleared Security-Based Swaps
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gross initial margin
<br/>(% of notional exposure)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Exchange/Currency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">where;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.25.0.1.13.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 624—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral

</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 624.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="625" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 625—APPLICATION FOR AWARD OF FEES AND OTHER EXPENSES UNDER THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504, 12 U.S.C. 2252.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 60109, Dec. 18, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>These rules implement the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504 (EAJA). The EAJA provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (designated by the EAJA as “adversary adjudications”) before Federal agencies. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over an agency, unless the agency's position was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this part explain how the EAJA applies to Farm Credit Administration (FCA) proceedings. The rules describe the parties eligible for awards, how such parties may apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that govern FCA consideration of applications.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.2   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The EAJA applies to adversary adjudications conducted by the FCA either on its own behalf or in connection with any other agency of the United States that participates in or in any way is a part of the adversary adjudication. Adversary adjudications are:
</P>
<P>(1) Adjudications under 5 U.S.C. 554 in which the position of the FCA or other agency is presented by an attorney or other representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Enforcement proceedings under 12 U.S.C. 2261-2273. 
</P>
<P>(b) The failure of the FCA to identify a type of proceeding as an adversary adjudication shall not preclude the filing of an application by a party who believes that the proceeding is covered by the EAJA; whether the proceeding is covered shall then be an issue for resolution in proceedings on the application.
</P>
<P>(c) If a proceeding includes both matters covered and excluded from coverage by the EAJA, any award made will include only fees and expenses related to covered issues.
</P>
<P>(d) Proceedings under this part may be conducted by the FCA Board (Board) or by the presiding officer (referred to as the “adjudicative officer” in the EAJA), as defined in § 622.2(f) of this chapter. If the Board conducts proceedings, reference to the “presiding officer” in this part shall mean the Board, in applicable context. Where the Board presides, the recommended decision under § 625.26 of this part will be omitted and the Board will make a final decision on the application in accordance with § 625.27 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) If a court reviews the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication, an award for fees and other expenses may be made only pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2412(d)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.3   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award under the EAJA, an applicant must be a prevailing party named or admitted to the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought. The applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart and in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of $2 million or less;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has both a net worth of $7 million or less (including personal and business interests), and 500 or fewer employees;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with 500 or fewer employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with 500 or fewer employees; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization with a net worth of $7 million or less and 500 or fewer employees.
</P>
<P>(c) For eligibility purposes, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the adversary adjudication was initiated.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for that applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility unless the presiding officer determines that aggregation would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the EAJA in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this part, an affiliate is:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interests of the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interests.
</P>
<P>(2) The presiding officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant that participates in an adversary adjudication primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.4   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an eligible applicant prevails over the FCA in an adversary adjudication, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion thereof, the applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in the adjudication, or portion thereof, unless the position of the FCA over which the applicant prevailed was substantially justified.
</P>
<P>(b) The position of the FCA includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The position taken by the FCA in the adversary adjudication; and
</P>
<P>(2) The action or inaction of the FCA upon which the adversary adjudication is based.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the FCA must prove that its position was substantially justified before an award may be denied to an otherwise eligible applicant.
</P>
<P>(d) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the adversary adjudication or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.5   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under these rules may exceed $75 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the FCA pays expert witnesses. However, an award also may include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the presiding officer shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fees for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated costs of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services; 
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; 
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the adversary adjudication; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided. 
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, audit, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for the preparation of the applicant's case. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.6   Rulemaking on maximum rates for attorney fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances (such as limited availability of attorneys qualified to handle certain types of proceedings), the FCA may adopt regulations providing that attorney fees may be awarded at a rate higher than $75 per hour in some or all of the types of proceedings covered by this part. The FCA will conduct any rulemaking proceedings for this purpose under the informal rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person may file with the FCA a petition for rulemaking to increase the maximum rate for attorney fees. The petition should identify the rate the petitioner believes the FCA should establish and the types of proceedings in which the rate should be used. It should also explain fully the reasons why the higher rate is warranted. The FCA will respond to the petition within 90 days after it is filed, by initiating a rulemaking proceeding, denying the petition, or taking other appropriate action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.7   Awards against other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>If an applicant is entitled to an award because it prevails over another agency of the United States that participates in or in any way is a part of an adversary adjudication before the FCA and that agency's position is not substantially justified, the award or an appropriate portion of the award shall be made against that agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Applicant Information Required</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.10   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and other expenses under the EAJA shall identify the applicant and the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought. The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed in the adversary adjudication. If the application is made on the basis of significant and discrete substantive issues on which the applicant prevailed, the issues must be specifically identified. The application also shall identify each position of the FCA or other agencies that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified. Unless the applicant is an individual, the application shall describe briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business and state the number of persons employed. 
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall include a statement that the applicant's net worth does not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates). However, an applicant may omit this statement if: 
</P>
<P>(1) It states that it has 500 employees or fewer and attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section; or 
</P>
<P>(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with 500 or fewer employees. 
</P>
<P>(c) The application shall state the total amount of fees and other expenses for which an award is sought. 
</P>
<P>(d) The application may include any other relevant matters that the applicant wishes the FCA to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(e) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. The application must contain a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application and any supporting documents is accurate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.11   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant, except a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association, must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates (as defined in § 625.3(f)(1) of this part) as of the date when the adversary adjudication was initiated. The exhibit may be in any convenient form that provides full disclosure of the assets and liabilities of the applicant and its affiliates and is otherwise sufficient to demonstrate that the applicant qualifies under the standards in this part. The presiding officer may require an applicant to file additional information supporting its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(b) An applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the net worth exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that portion of the exhibit directly to the presiding officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion under § 622.11 of this chapter to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552(b) (1)-(9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on counsel representing the FCA, but need not be served on any other party to the application proceeding. If the presiding officer, or the FCA Board pursuant to § 622.11(e) of this chapter, finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the application proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be treated in accordance with the FCA's procedures regarding release of information (12 CFR part 602).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.12" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.12   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, audit, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter, for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rates at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. Under § 625.25 of this part, the presiding officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, logs, or other substantiation for any fees or expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.13" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.13   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the adversary adjudication, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion thereof, but in no case later than 30 days after the FCA's final disposition of the adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this rule, final disposition means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the adversary adjudication is issued or any other complete resolution of the adversary adjudication, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and is unreviewable by the FCA, any other administrative body, or the courts.
</P>
<P>(c) If review, reconsideration, or appeal is sought or taken of an adversary adjudication decision as to which an applicant believes it has prevailed, application proceedings for any award of fees and other expenses shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.20   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>A prevailing party and the FCA through its counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of an award at any time, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying adversary adjudication or after the underlying adversary adjudication has been concluded. If a prevailing party and the FCA counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award, the proposed settlement must be submitted to the presiding officer for a recommended decision pursuant to § 625.26 of this part. If it has not been previously filed, the application must be submitted to the presiding officer along with the proposed settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.21   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the adversary adjudication in the same manner as other pleadings in the adversary adjudication (<I>see</I> §§ 622.18 and 622.19 of this chapter), except as provided in § 625.11(b) of this part for confidential financial information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.22" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.22   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service, counsel for the FCA may file an answer to the application. Unless the FCA counsel requests an extension of time for filing or a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (c) of this section is filed, the presiding officer, upon a satisfactory showing of entitlement by the applicant, may make an award for the applicant's fees and other expenses under the EAJA.
</P>
<P>(b) The answer shall set forth any objections to the requested award and identify the facts relied on in support of the FCA's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, the FCA counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 625.25 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) If the FCA counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the presiding officer upon request by the FCA counsel and the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.23" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.23   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the adversary adjudication, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 625.25 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.24" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.24   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and FCA counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the presiding officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.25" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.25   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The determination of an award shall be made on the basis of the written record unless the presiding officer finds that further proceedings are necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application. Such further proceedings may be at the request of either the applicant or the FCA counsel, or on the presiding officer's own initiative, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible. Further proceedings may include an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or other actions required by the presiding officer, but may not include discovery or an evidentiary hearing with respect to the issue of whether the agency's position was substantially justified.
</P>
<P>(b) Whether or not the position of the agency was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the administrative record, as a whole, which is made in the adversary adjudication for which fees and other expenses are sought. 
</P>
<P>(c) A request that the presiding officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.26" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.26   Recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>The presiding officer shall file a recommended decision within 30 days after completion of proceedings on the application, and, promptly upon filing, shall serve a copy of the recommended decision upon each party to the proceedings. The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility, status as a prevailing party, the recommended amount of the award, if any, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the FCA's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the adversary adjudication, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the decision shall allocate responsibility for payment of any award made among the agencies, and shall explain the reasons for the allocation made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.27" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.27   Board decision.</HEAD>
<P>Following filing of the recommended decision with the Board, the Board shall render a final decision on the application. The Board maintains full discretion to uphold, reverse, remand, or alter the recommended decision. The Board may order further proceedings (including those set forth in §§ 622.11 and 622.13 through 622.16 of this chapter) upon request by any party to the application proceeding or on its own initiative, but such proceedings may not include discovery or an evidentiary hearing with respect to the issue of whether the agency's position was substantially justified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.28" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.28   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final FCA decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 625.29" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.26.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 625.29   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the Secretary to the Board a copy of the final decision granting the award, accompanied by a certification that the applicant will not seek judicial review of the decision. The required submission and certification should be sent to: Secretary to the Board, Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<P>(b) The FCA will pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days of receipt of the applicant's submission and certification.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="626" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 626—NONDISCRIMINATION IN LENDING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 2.2, 2.12, 3.1, 5.9, 5.17 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2073, 2093, 2122, 2243, 2252); 42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.;</I> 15 U.S.C. 1691 <I>et seq.;</I> 12 CFR 1002, 24 CFR 100, 110.








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 11421, June 7, 1972, and 57 FR 13637, Apr. 17, 1992, unless otherwise noted.. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 626.6000" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6000   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who requests or who has received an extension of credit from a creditor and includes any person who is or may become contractually liable regarding an extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dwelling</I> means any building, structure, or portion thereof which is occupied as, or designed or intended for occupancy as, a residence by one or more families, and any vacant land which is offered for sale or lease for the construction or location thereon of any such building, structure, or portion thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Familial status</I> means one or more individuals (who have not attained the age of 18 years) being domiciled with:
</P>
<P>(1) A parent or another person having legal custody of such individual or individuals; or
</P>
<P>(2) The designee of such parent or other person having such custody, with the written permission of such parent or other person.
</P>
<P>The protections afforded against discrimination on the basis of familial status shall apply to any person who is pregnant or is in the process of securing legal custody of any individual who has not attained the age of 18 years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Handicap</I> means, with respect to a person:
</P>
<P>(1) A physical or mental impairment which substantially limits one or more of such person's major life activities,
</P>
<P>(2) A record of having such an impairment, or
</P>
<P>(3) Being regarded as having such an impairment, 
</P>
<FP>but such term does not include current, illegal use of or addiction to a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)).
</FP>
<P>(e) <I>Residential real estate-related transaction</I> means any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The making or purchasing of loans or providing other financial assistance:
</P>
<P>(i) For purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Secured by residential real estate.
</P>
<P>(2) The selling, brokering, or appraising of residential real property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13637, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6005" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6005   Nondiscrimination in lending and other services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No Farm Credit institution may discriminate in making credit or other financial assistance available in a residential real estate-related transaction, or in the terms or conditions of such a transaction, because of race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status, or national origin.
</P>
<P>(b) No Farm Credit institution may discriminate in any aspect of a credit transaction or a financial service involving a credit transaction because of:
</P>
<P>(1) Race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); or
</P>
<P>(2) The fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or
</P>
<P>(3) The fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(c) Prohibited practices under this section include, but are not limited to, discrimination in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, or other terms or conditions of any loan or a financial service involving a credit transaction or in the purchase of loans and securities on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status (having one or more children under the age of 18), marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract), or national origin.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this subpart shall be deemed to change the eligibility requirements imposed by the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, or any Farm Credit Administration regulation adopted pursuant thereto.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13638, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6010" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6010   Nondiscrimination in applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No Farm Credit institution may discourage or refuse to allow, receive, or consider any application, request, or inquiry regarding an eligible loan or other eligible credit service or discriminate in imposing conditions upon, or in processing, any such application, request, or inquiry on the basis of:
</P>
<P>(1) Race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act or any state law upon which the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau has granted an exception, as prescribed under title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>), and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's implementing regulation (12 CFR part 1002); and
</P>
<P>(2) Race, color, religion, sex, national origin, handicap, or familial status, as prescribed under title VIII (the Fair Housing Act) of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended by the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>), and the Department of Housing and Urban Development's implementing regulations (24 CFR part 100).
</P>
<P>(b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall apply whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) An application is made for any such loan or other credit service; or
</P>
<P>(2) A request is made for forms or papers to be used to make application for any such loan or other credit service; or
</P>
<P>(3) An inquiry is made about the availability of such loan or other credit service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13638, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997; 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6015" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6015   Nondiscriminatory appraisal.</HEAD>
<P>No Farm Credit institution shall discriminate against any person on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, handicap, familial status, or national origin when conducting, using, or relying upon an appraisal of residential real property that is subject to sale, rental, or other financing transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13638, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6020" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6020   Nondiscriminatory advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Farm Credit institution that directly or through third parties engages in any form of advertising shall not use words, phrases, symbols, directions, forms, or models in such advertising which express, imply, or suggest a policy of discrimination or exclusion in violation of the provisions of title VIII (the Fair Housing Act) of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended by the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988 (42 U.S.C. 3601 <I>et seq.</I>); the Department of Housing and Urban Development's implementing regulations (24 CFR part 100), and title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>); and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's implementing regulation (12 CFR part 1002), or this subpart.




</P>
<P>(b) Written advertisements relating to dwellings shall include a facsimile of the following logotype and legend: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/ec21se91.000.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 16932, Aug. 23, 1972, as amended at 57 FR 13638, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997; 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6025" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6025   Equal housing lender poster.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Farm Credit institution that makes loans for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling or any loan secured by a dwelling shall post and maintain an Equal Housing Lender Poster in the lobby of each of its offices. The poster shall be in a prominent place readily apparent to all persons seeking such loans.
</P>
<P>(b) System institutions may continue to use and display posters printed before March 1, 2026.
</P>
<P>(c) The Equal Housing Lender Poster shall be at least 11 inches by 14 inches in size, and shall bear the logotype and legend set forth in § 626.6020(b) of this subpart and the following text:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>WE DO BUSINESS IN ACCORDANCE WITH FEDERAL FAIR LENDING LAWS
</HD1>
<P>(The Civil Rights Act of 1968, as amended by the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988)
</P>
<P>UNDER THE FEDERAL FAIR HOUSING ACT, IT IS ILLEGAL, ON THE BASIS OF RACE, COLOR, NATIONAL ORIGIN, RELIGION, SEX, HANDICAP, OR FAMILIAL STATUS (HAVING CHILDREN UNDER THE AGE OF 18), TO:
</P>
<P>• Deny a loan for the purpose of purchasing, constructing, improving, repairing, or maintaining a dwelling, or deny any loan secured by a dwelling; or
</P>
<P>• Discriminate in fixing the amount, interest rate, duration, application procedures, or other terms or conditions of such a loan, or in appraising property.
</P>
<HD1>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</HD1>
<FP-1>Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, Department of Housing and Urban Development, Washington, DC 20410, 1-800-669-9777 (Toll Free), 1-800-927-9275 (TDD), for processing under the Federal Fair Housing Act
</FP-1>
<FP>AND TO:
</FP>
<FP-1>Farm Credit Administration, Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090, 703-883-4056, 703-883-4444 (TDD), for processing under Farm Credit Administration Regulations
</FP-1>
<HD1>UNDER THE EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT
</HD1>
<P>(Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<HD1>IT IS ILLEGAL TO DISCRIMINATE IN ANY CREDIT TRANSACTION:
</HD1>
<P>• On the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, marital status, or age,
</P>
<P>• Because income is from public assistance, or
</P>
<P>• Because a right was exercised under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.
</P>
<HD1>IF YOU BELIEVE YOU HAVE BEEN DISCRIMINATED AGAINST, YOU SHOULD SEND A COMPLAINT TO:
</HD1>
<FP-1>Farm Credit Administration, Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090, 703-883-4056, 703-883-4444 (TDD).</FP-1></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13638, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997, as amended at 62 FR 4451, Jan. 30, 1997; 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 626.6030" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.27.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 626.6030   Complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Complaints regarding discrimination in lending by a Farm Credit institution under the Fair Housing Act shall be referred to the Assistant Secretary for Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity, United States Department of Housing and Urban Development, Washington, DC 20410, and to the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<P>(b) Complaints regarding discrimination in lending by a Farm Credit institution under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act shall be referred to the Office of Congressional and Public Affairs, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 13639, Apr. 17, 1992. Redesignated at 62 FR 4441, Jan. 30, 1997]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="627" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 627—TITLE IV CONSERVATORS, RECEIVERS, BRIDGE SYSTEM BANKS, AND VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATIONS




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.2, 5.9, 5.10, 5.17, 5.51, 5.58, 5.61, 5.61C of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2243, 2244, 2252, 2277a, 2277a-7.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 46482, Oct. 9, 1992, unless otherwise noted.














</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 82244, Nov. 24, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 627.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.1   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to conservatorships, receiverships, and voluntary liquidations of System institutions chartered under titles I, II, III, IV, and VII of the Act.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 627.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Conservator</I> means the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation acting in its capacity as the conservator of a Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<P><I>Farm Credit institution(s) or institution(s)</I> means all Farm Credit banks, associations, service corporations chartered under title IV of the Act, and the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation. These two terms do not include any bridge System bank chartered by FCA, in accordance with section 5.61C(h)(2) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>FCSIC</I> means the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Receiver</I> means FCSIC acting in its capacity as the receiver of a Farm Credit institution.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 627.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.3   Grounds for appointing FCSIC as conservator or receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FCA may, in its discretion, appoint a conservator or receiver of a Farm Credit institution if FCA determines that one or more of the grounds in paragraph (b) of this section exists. FCA must appoint FCSIC as conservator or receiver of a Farm Credit institution. To the extent practicable, FCA will consult with FCSIC before taking a pre-resolution action that may result in a conservatorship or receivership of a Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<P>(b) The grounds for appointing FCSIC as a conservator or receiver of a System institution are:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution is insolvent because the value of its assets is less than its obligations to creditors and others, including its members. For the purpose of determining insolvency, “obligations to members” does not include stock or allocated equites held by current or former borrowers.
</P>
<P>(2) There has been a substantial dissipation of assets or earnings of the institution due to the violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or one or more unsafe or unsound practice(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The institution is in an unsafe or unsound condition to transact business, including having insufficient capital levels or otherwise. For the purpose of this part, “unsafe or unsound condition” includes, but is not limited to, the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) For associations, a default by the association of one or more terms of its general financing agreement with its funding bank that the Farm Credit Administration determines to be a material default;
</P>
<P>(ii) For all institutions, permanent capital of less than one-half the minimum required level for the institution; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For associations, stock impairment.
</P>
<P>(4) The institution has committed a willful violation of a final cease and desist order issued by the Farm Credit Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(5) The institution is concealing its books, papers, records, or assets, or is refusing to submit its books, papers, records, assets, or other material relating to the affairs of the institution for inspection to any examiner or to any lawful agent of the Farm Credit Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(6) A Farm Credit bank is unable to make a timely payment of principal or interest on any insured obligation(s) defined in section 5.51(3) of the Act issued by the bank individually, or on which it is primarily liable.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 627.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.4   Action for the removal of the conservator or receiver.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the Farm Credit Administration Board appoints FCSIC as the conservator or receiver of a Farm Credit institution, pursuant to § 627.3, the institution may bring an action in the United States District Court for the judicial district in which its home office is located, or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the Farm Credit Administration Board to remove such conservator or receiver and, if the charter has been canceled, to rescind the cancellation of the charter. The institution's board of directors is empowered to meet subsequent to the appointment of a conservator or receiver and authorize the filing of an action in Federal court to remove the conservator or receiver. Only the institution's board of directors has the power to authorize an action to remove the conservator or receiver.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Conservator and Conservatorships</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 82244, Nov. 24, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 627.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.10   FCSIC as Conservator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> (1) The Farm Credit Administration Board may exercise its authority under section 4.12(b) of the Act and § 627.3 to appoint FCSIC as the conservator of a Farm Credit institution upon finding that one or more of the grounds identified in § 627.3(b) exists. The Farm Credit Administration Board may appoint, <I>ex parte</I> and without notice, FCSIC as conservator for any Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon appointing FCSIC as the conservator of an institution, the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration shall immediately notify such institution and, in the case of an association, its funding bank. The Farm Credit Administration will immediately publish notice of the appointment of the conservator in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Conservatorship.</I> (1) Once the Farm Credit Administration Board issues the order placing a Farm Credit institution in conservatorship, all rights, privileges, and powers of its members, board of directors, officers, and employees, are transferred to and vested exclusively in FCSIC as conservator, except that the board of directors of the institution retains authority to initiate an action in a Federal district court to remove the conservator pursuant to § 627.4.
</P>
<P>(2) The Farm Credit Administration will continue to examine Farm Credit institutions in conservatorship in accordance with section 5.19 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) A qualified public accountant must audit a Farm Credit institution in conservatorship in accordance with part 621 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) Pursuant to the requirements of part 621 of this chapter, each institution in conservatorship must prepare and file with the Farm Credit Administration financial reports, certified by FCSIC, as required by § 621.14.
</P>
<P>(5) Each institution in conservatorship must prepare and issue published financial reports in accordance with the requirements of part 620 of this chapter. FCSIC, as the conservator of the institution, will provide the signatures and certifications required by § 620.3.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Termination of the conservatorship.</I> (1) Whenever the Farm Credit Administration Board determines the problem(s) or condition(s) that led to the conservatorship have been corrected and resolved, and the institution is in a position to resume normal operations, it may terminate the conservatorship and direct FCSIC to turn over the institution's operations to such management that FCA designates. Once new management is in place, the conservatorship terminates and FCA discharges FCSIC as conservator; or
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Farm Credit Administration Board determines the institution should be placed in receivership, the Farm Credit Administration Board will appoint FCSIC as the receiver of such institution.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Receiver and Receiverships</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 82244, Nov. 24, 2023,  unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 627.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.20   FCSIC as receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> (1) The Farm Credit Administration Board may exercise its authority under section 4.12(b) of the Act and § 627.3 to appoint FCSIC as the receiver of a Farm Credit institution upon finding that one or more of the grounds identified in § 627.3(b) exists. The Farm Credit Administration Board may appoint, <I>ex parte</I> and without notice, FCSIC as receiver for any Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon appointing FCSIC as the receiver of an institution, the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration shall immediately notify such institution and, in the case of an association, its funding bank. The Farm Credit Administration will immediately publish notice of the appointment of the receiver in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding bank role for association in liquidation.</I> In the event of the voluntary or involuntary liquidation of an association, the funding bank must institute appropriate measures to minimize the adverse effect of the liquidation on those borrowers whose loans are purchased by, or otherwise transferred to another System institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receivership.</I> (1) Once the Farm Credit Administration Board issues the order placing a Farm Credit institution in receivership, all rights, privileges, and powers of its members, the board of directors, officers, and employees, are transferred to and vested exclusively in FCSIC as receiver, except that the institution's board of directors retains authority to initiate an action in a Federal district court to remove the receiver pursuant to § 627.4.
</P>
<P>(2) The Farm Credit Administration Board simultaneously will cancel the charter of the institution when it appoints FCSIC as receiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Uninsured accounts.</I> Once the Farm Credit Administration Board has placed an institution into receivership, FCSIC, in accordance with section 4.37 of the Act will, as soon as practicable, notify every borrower who holds an uninsured voluntary or involuntary account, as described in § 614.4175 of this subchapter, at the institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Such accounts ceased earning interest from the date the Farm Credit Administration Board placed the institution into receivership; and
</P>
<P>(2) FCSIC, as receiver, will immediately apply the funds in a borrower's uninsured account(s) as payment against the outstanding balance of the borrower's loan(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final discharge and release of the receiver.</I> The receivership terminates after FCSIC makes a final distribution of the assets of the liquidated institution. Then, the Farm Credit Administration Board will completely and finally release and discharge the receiver.


















</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Voluntary Liquidation</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 5725, Feb. 4, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 627.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.40   Voluntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Farm Credit institution may voluntarily liquidate by a resolution of its board of directors, but only with the consent of, and in accordance with a plan of liquidation approved by, the Farm Credit Administration Board. Upon adoption of such resolution to liquidate, the Farm Credit institution shall submit the proposed voluntary liquidation plan to the Farm Credit Administration for preliminary approval. The Farm Credit Administration Board, in its discretion, may appoint a receiver as part of an approved liquidation plan. If a receiver is appointed for the Farm Credit institution as part of a voluntary liquidation, the receivership shall be conducted pursuant to subpart 

C of this part, except to the extent that an approved plan of liquidation provides otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Farm Credit Administration Board gives preliminary approval to the liquidation plan, the board of directors of the Farm Credit institution shall submit the resolution to liquidate and the liquidation plan to the stockholders for approval.
</P>
<P>(c) The resolution to liquidate and the liquidation plan shall be approved by the stockholders if agreed to by at least a majority of the voting stockholders of the institution voting, in person or by written proxy, at a duly authorized stockholders' meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) The Farm Credit Administration Board will consider final approval of the liquidation plan after an affirmative stockholder vote on the resolution to liquidate.
</P>
<P>(e) Any subsequent amendments, modifications, revisions, or adjustments to the liquidation plan shall require Farm Credit Administration Board approval.
</P>
<P>(f) The Farm Credit Administration Board, in its discretion, reserves the right to terminate or modify the liquidation plan at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5725, Feb. 4, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 88 FR 82246, Nov. 24, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 627.41" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.28.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 627.41   Preservation of equity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately upon the adoption of a resolution by its board of directors to voluntarily liquidate a Farm Credit institution, the capital stock, participation certificates, equity reserves, and allocated equities of the Farm Credit institution shall not be issued, allocated, retired, sold, distributed, transferred, assigned, or applied against any indebtedness of the owners of such equities. Such activities could resume if the stockholders of the Farm Credit institution disapprove the resolution to liquidate or the Farm Credit Administration Board disapproves the liquidation plan. In the event the resolution to liquidate is approved by the stockholders of the Farm Credit institution and the liquidation plan is approved by the Farm Credit Administration Board, the liquidation plan shall govern disposition of the equities of the Farm Credit institution.
</P>
<P>(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, eligible borrower stock shall be retired in accordance with section 4.9A of the Act.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 5725, Feb. 4, 1998. Redesignated and amended at 88 FR 82246, Nov. 24, 2023]







 




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="628" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 628—CAPITAL ADEQUACY OF SYSTEM INSTITUTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 1.5, 1.7, 1.10, 1.11, 1.12, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.5, 2.12, 3.1, 3.7, 3.11, 3.25, 4.3, 4.3A, 4.9, 4.14B, 4.25, 5.9, 5.17, 8.0, 8.3, 8.4, 8.6, 8.8, 8.10, 8.12 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2013, 2015, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2073, 2074, 2075, 2076, 2093, 2122, 2128, 2132, 2146, 2154, 2154a, 2160, 2202b, 2211, 2243, 2252, 2279aa, 2279aa-3, 2279aa-4, 2279aa-6, 2279aa-8, 2279aa-10, 2279aa-12); sec. 301(a), Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1608 as amended by sec. 301(a), Pub. L. 103-399, 102 Stat 989, 993 (12 U.S.C. 2154 note); sec. 939A, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1326, 1887 (15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note).






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.1.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.1   Purpose, applicability, and reservations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards for System institutions. This part includes methodologies for calculating minimum capital requirements, public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements, and transition provisions for the application of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part limits the authority of FCA to take action under other provisions of law, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law or regulation under part C of title V of the Farm Credit Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability.</I> Subject to the requirements in paragraph (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards.</I> Each System institution must calculate its minimum capital requirements and meet the overall capital adequacy standards in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital.</I> Each System institution must calculate its regulatory capital in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) Each System institution must use the methodologies in subpart D of this part to calculate total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures.</I> (i) All System banks must make the public disclosures described in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Additional capital in the aggregate.</I> FCA may require a System institution to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under this part if FCA determines that the System institution's capital requirements under this part are not commensurate with the System institution's credit, market, operational, or other risks according to part 615, subparts L and M, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital elements.</I> (i) If FCA determines that a particular common equity tier 1 (CET1), additional tier 1 (AT1), or tier 2 capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its permanence or its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, FCA may require the System institution to exclude all or a portion of such element from CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, FCA may find that a capital element may be included in a System institution's CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 628.20(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amounts.</I> If FCA determines that the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under this part by the System institution for one or more exposures is not commensurate with the risks associated with those exposures, FCA may require the System institution to assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to the exposure(s) or to deduct the amount of the exposure(s) from its regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total leverage.</I> If FCA determines that the leverage exposure amount, or the amount reflected in the System institution's reported average total consolidated assets, for a balance sheet exposure calculated by a System institution under § 628.10 is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the System institution, FCA may require the System institution to adjust this exposure amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the leverage ratio calculations.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any deduction or limitation required under this part, FCA may require a different deduction or limitation, provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the System institution's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice and response procedures.</I> In making a determination under this section, FCA will apply notice and response procedures in the same manner as the notice and response procedures in § 615.5352 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.1.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1 capital (AT1)</I> is defined in § 628.20(c).


</P>
<P><I>Adjusted allowances for credit losses (AACL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings for expected credit losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost and a lessor's net investment in leases that have been established to reduce the amortized cost basis of the assets to amounts expected to be collected as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, adjusted allowances for credit losses includes allowances for expected credit losses on off-balance sheet credit exposures not accounted for as insurance as determined in accordance with GAAP. Adjusted allowances for credit losses excludes allowances created that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities.






</P>
<P><I>Allocated equities</I> means stock or surplus representing a patronage payment to a member-borrower that a System institution has retained for the benefit of its membership.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Allocated equities include qualified allocated equities and nonqualified allocated equities. Allocated equities are redeemable at the System institution board's discretion. Allocated equities contain no voting rights and are generally subordinated to borrower stock in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> System institutions as cooperatives are required to send borrowers a written notice of allocation specifying the amount of patronage payments retained as equity pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code section 1388.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> means a bank holding company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bank Holding Company Act</I> means the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, with respect to an entity or asset, that the entity or asset would be excluded from an insolvent entity's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower stock</I> means the capital investment a borrower holds in a System institution in connection with a loan.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means reports of condition and performance, as described in subpart D of part 621 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, the value of the asset on the balance sheet of the System institution, determined in accordance with GAAP. For all assets other than available-for-sale debt securities or purchased credit deteriorated assets, the carrying value is not reduced by any associated credit loss allowance that is determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearinghouse) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>CFTC</I> means the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating System institution or servicer to call securitization exposures before their stated maturity or call date.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared transaction</I> means an exposure associated with an outstanding derivative contract or repo-style transaction that a System institution or clearing member has entered into with a central counterparty (that is, a transaction that a central counterparty has accepted).
</P>
<P>(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client System institution and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 628.3(a) are met; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client System institution and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client System institution to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 628.3(a)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member</I> means a member of, or direct participant in, a CCP that is entitled to enter into transactions with the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member client</I> means a party to a cleared transaction associated with a CCP in which a clearing member either acts as a financial intermediary with respect to the party or guarantees the performance of the party to the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral agreement</I> means a legal contract that specifies the time when, and circumstances under which, a counterparty is required to pledge collateral to a System institution for a single financial contract or for all financial contracts in a netting set and confers upon the System institution a perfected, first-priority security interest (notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent), or the legal equivalent thereof, in the collateral posted by the counterparty under the agreement. This security interest must provide the System institution with a right to close-out the financial positions and liquidate the collateral upon an event of default of, or failure to perform by, the counterparty under the collateral agreement. A contract would not satisfy this requirement if the System institution's exercise of rights under the agreement may be stayed or avoided:
</P>
<P>(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to Government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, or part 382 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates a System institution to extend credit or to purchase assets.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity derivative contract</I> means a commodity-linked swap, purchased commodity-linked option, forward commodity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to commodities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Commodity Exchange Act</I> means the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Common cooperative equity issuance date</I> means the date in which the holding period for purchased stock (excluding statutory minimum borrower stock and third-party stock) and allocated equities start:
</P>
<P>(1) For allocated equities, the calendar quarter-ending in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The System institution's Board of Directors has passed a resolution declaring a patronage refund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The System institution has completed the applicable accounting treatment by segregating the new allocated equities from its unallocated retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(2) For purchased stock (excluding statutory minimum borrower stock and third-party stock), the calendar quarter-ending in which the stock is acquired by the holder and recognized on the institution's balance sheet.
</P>
<P><I>Common cooperative equity or equities</I> means common equities in the form of member-borrower stock, participation certificates, and allocated equities issued or allocated by a System institution to its current and former members.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital (CET1)</I> is defined in § 628.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, System institution, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate exposure</I> means an exposure to a company that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to a GSE;
</P>
<P>(3) A residential mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) A high volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure;
</P>
<P>(7) A cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(8) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(9) A securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(10) An equity exposure; or
</P>
<P>(11) An unsettled transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Country risk classification (CRC)</I> with respect to a sovereign, means the most recent consensus CRC published by the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) as of December 31st of the prior calendar year that provides a view of the likelihood that the sovereign will service its external debt.
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO)</I> means an on-balance sheet asset that, in form or in substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing representations and warranties</I> means representations and warranties that are made or assumed in connection with a transfer of underlying exposures (including loan servicing assets) and that obligate a System institution to protect another party from losses arising from the credit risk of the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties include provisions to protect a party from losses resulting from the default or nonperformance of the counterparties of the underlying exposures or from an insufficiency in the value of the collateral backing the underlying exposures. Credit-enhancing representations and warranties do not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Early default clauses and similar warranties that permit the return of, or premium refund clauses covering, 1-4 family residential first mortgage loans that qualify for a 50-percent risk weight for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer. These warranties may cover only those loans that were originated within 1 year of the date of transfer;
</P>
<P>(2) Premium refund clauses that cover assets guaranteed, in whole or in part, by the U.S. Government, a U.S. Government agency or a Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE), provided the premium refund clauses are for a period not to exceed 120 days from the date of transfer; or
</P>
<P>(3) Warranties that permit the return of underlying exposures in instances of misrepresentation, fraud, or incomplete documentation.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk mitigant</I> means collateral, a credit derivative, or a guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure</I> means, with respect to a netting set, the larger of 0 or the fair value of a transaction or portfolio of transactions within the netting set that would be lost upon default of the counterparty, assuming no recovery on the value of the transactions. Current exposure is also called replacement cost.
</P>
<P><I>Current exposure methodology</I> means the method of calculating the exposure amount for over-the-counter derivative contracts in § 628.34(a).
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a company that has legal custody of collateral provided to a CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution holding company</I> means a bank holding company or savings and loan holding company.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or 5 business days.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376).
</P>
<P><I>Early amortization provision</I> means a provision in the documentation governing a securitization that, when triggered, causes investors in the securitization exposures to be repaid before the original stated maturity of the securitization exposures, unless the provision:
</P>
<P>(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating System institution (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
</P>
<P><I>Effective notional</I> amount means, for an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the lesser of the contractual notional amount of the credit risk mitigant and the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, multiplied by the percentage coverage of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible clean-up call</I> means a clean-up call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating System institution or servicer;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a synthetic securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative in the form of a credit default swap, n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, total return swap, or any other form of credit derivative approved by the FCA, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or n
<SU>th</SU>-to-default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the System institution records net payments received on the swap as net income, the System institution records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantee</I> means a guarantee from an eligible guarantor that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is written;
</P>
<P>(2) Is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Unconditional; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. Government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
</P>
<P>(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment; and
</P>
<P>(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
</P>
<P>(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible margin loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral is marked-to-fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the System institution the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> This requirement is met where all transactions under the agreement are (i) executed under U.S. law and (ii) constitute “securities contracts” under section 555 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555), qualified financial contracts under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or netting contracts between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231).</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, or part 382 of this title, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, a System institution must comply with the requirements of § 628.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible servicer cash advance facility</I> means a servicer cash advance facility in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement of advances, except that a servicer may be obligated to make non-reimbursable advances for a particular underlying exposure if any such advance is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal balance of that exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer's right to reimbursement is senior in right of payment to all other claims on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3) The servicer has no legal obligation to, and does not make advances to the securitization if the servicer concludes the advances are unlikely to be repaid.
</P>
<P><I>Equity derivative contract</I> means an equity-linked swap, purchased equity-linked option, forward equity-linked contract, or any other instrument linked to equities that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Equity exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the System institution under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The System institution is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate derivative</I> contract means a cross-currency interest rate swap, forward foreign-exchange contract, currency option purchased, or any other instrument linked to exchange rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure</I> means an amount at risk.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security; an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the System institution determines the exposure amount under § 628.37; a cleared transaction; or a securitization exposure), the System institution's carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For a security (that is not a securitization exposure, equity exposure, or preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP) classified as available-for-sale or held-to-maturity, the System institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees) for the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) For available-for-sale preferred stock classified as an equity security under GAAP, the System institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the System institution's regulatory capital components.
</P>
<P>(4) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the System institution calculates the exposure amount under § 628.37; a cleared transaction; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 628.33.
</P>
<P>(5) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount determined under § 628.34.
</P>
<P>(6) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 628.35.
</P>
<P>(7) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the bank calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 628.37, the exposure amount determined under § 628.37.
</P>
<P>(8) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 628.42.
</P>
<P><I>Farm Credit Act</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4401).
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) In the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash on deposit at a depository institution or Federal Reserve Bank (including cash held for the System institution by a third-party custodian or trustee);
</P>
<P>(ii) Gold bullion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which the System institution has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit at a depository institution or Federal Reserve Bank and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent).
</P>
<P><I>First-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure secured by a first lien.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means a foreign bank as defined in § 211.2 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.2) (other than a depository institution).
</P>
<P><I>Forward agreement</I> means a legally binding contractual obligation to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date, not including commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Gain-on-sale</I> means an increase in the equity capital of a System institution (as reported on the Call Report) resulting from a traditional securitization (other than an increase in equity capital resulting from the System institution's receipt of cash in connection with the securitization or reporting of a mortgage servicing asset on the Call Report).
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity (PSE).
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. Government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or other similar financial instrument (other than a credit derivative) that allows one party (beneficiary) to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures (reference exposure) to another party (protection provider).


</P>
<P><I>High volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A credit facility secured by land or improved real property that, prior to being reclassified by the System institution as a non-HVCRE exposure pursuant to paragraph (6) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily finances, has financed, or refinances the acquisition, development, or construction of real property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the purpose of providing financing to acquire, develop, or improve such real property into income producing real property; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is dependent upon future income or sales proceeds from, or refinancing of, such real property for the repayment of such credit facility.
</P>
<P>(2) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility financing:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition, development, or construction of properties that are:
</P>
<P>(A) One- to four-family residential properties, provided that the dwelling (including attached components such as garages, porches, and decks) represents at least 50 percent of the total appraised value of the collateral secured by the first or subsequent lien. Credit facilities that do not finance the construction of one- to four-family residential structures, but instead solely finance improvements such as the laying of sewers, water pipes, and similar improvements to land, do not qualify for the one- to four-family residential properties exclusion;
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(C) Agricultural land, as defined in § 619.9025 of this chapter, or real estate used as an integral part of an aquatic operation. This provision applies only to financing for the agricultural and aquatic needs of bona fide farmers, ranchers, and producers and harvesters of aquatic products under § 613.3000 of this chapter. This provision does not apply to loans for farm property construction and land development purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The acquisition or refinance of existing income-producing real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the System institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings;
</P>
<P>(iii) Improvements to existing income producing improved real property secured by a mortgage on such property, if the cash flow being generated by the real property is sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the System institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial real property projects in which:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan-to-value ratio is less than or equal to the applicable loan-to-value limit set forth in Appendix A to this part;
</P>
<P>(B) The borrower has contributed capital of at least 15 percent of the real property's appraised, “as completed” value to the project. The use of an “as is” appraisal is allowed in instances where an “as completed” value appraisal is not available. The use of an evaluation of the real property instead of an appraisal to determine the “as completed” appraised value is allowed if § 614.4260(c) of this chapter permits evaluations to be used in lieu of appraisals. The contribution may be in the form of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Unencumbered readily marketable assets;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Paid development expenses out-of-pocket;
</P>
<P>or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Contributed real property or improvements; and
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower contributed the amount of capital required by paragraph (2)(iv)(B) of this definition before the System institution advances funds (other than the advance of a nominal sum made in order to secure the System institution's lien against the real property) under the credit facility, and such minimum amount of capital contributed by the borrower is contractually required to remain in the project until the HVCRE exposure has been reclassified by the System institution as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(v) Loans originated for less than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(3) An HVCRE exposure does not include any loan made prior to January 1, 2025.
</P>
<P>(4) An HVCRE exposure does not include a credit facility reclassified as a non-HVCRE exposure under paragraph (6) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(5) Value of contributed real property: For the purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition, the value of any real property contributed by a borrower as a capital contribution is the appraised value of the property as determined under standards prescribed in accordance with FCA regulations at subpart F of part 614 of this chapter, in connection with the extension of the credit facility or loan to such borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Reclassification as a non-HVCRE exposure: For purposes of this HVCRE exposure definition and with respect to a credit facility and a System institution, a System institution may reclassify an HVCRE exposure as a non-HVCRE exposure upon:
</P>
<P>(i) The substantial completion of the development or construction of the real property being financed by the credit facility; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash flow being generated by the real property being sufficient to support the debt service and expenses of the real property, in accordance with the System institution's applicable loan underwriting criteria for permanent financings.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]


</P>
<P><I>Home country</I> means the country where an entity is incorporated, chartered, or similarly established.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381).
</P>
<P><I>Insurance underwriting company</I> means an insurance company as defined in section 201 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5381) that engages in insurance underwriting activities.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate derivative contract</I> means a single-currency interest rate swap, basis swap, forward rate agreement, purchased interest rate option, when-issued securities, or any other instrument linked to interest rates that gives rise to similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>International Lending Supervision Act</I> means the International Lending Supervision Act of 1983 (12 U.S.C. 3907).
</P>
<P><I>Investment fund</I> means a company:
</P>
<P>(1) Where all or substantially all of the assets of the company are financial assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) That has no material liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means that the entity to which the System institution is exposed through a loan or security, or the reference entity with respect to a credit derivative, has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. Such an entity or reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Junior-lien residential mortgage exposure</I> means a residential mortgage exposure that is not a first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Member</I> means a borrower or former borrower from a System institution that holds voting or nonvoting cooperative equities of the institution.
</P>
<P><I>Money market fund</I> means an investment fund that is subject to 17 CFR 270.2a-7 or any foreign equivalent thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets (MSAs)</I> means the contractual rights owned by a System institution to service for a fee mortgage loans that are owned by others.
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank (MDB)</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. Government is a shareholder or contributing member or which the FCA determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>National Bank Act</I> means the National Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 24).
</P>
<P><I>Netting set</I> means a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement. For purposes of calculating risk-based capital requirements using the internal models methodology in subpart E of this part, this term does not cover a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) That is not subject to such a master netting agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Where the System institution has identified specific wrong-way risk.
</P>
<P><I>Nonqualified allocated equities</I> mean a patronage payment to a member-borrower in the form of stock or surplus that a System institution retains as equity for the benefit of the membership. A System institution does not deduct this patronage payment from its current taxable income according to the Internal Revenue Code sections 1382(b) and 1383. Nonqualified allocated equities also include allocated surplus in a tax-exempt institution or subsidiary. When a System institution revolves a nonqualified allocation, the System institution deducts the allocation from its taxable income, if any, and the borrower generally recognizes the tax liability, if any, as ordinary income. System institutions pay two types of nonqualified allocated equities through written notices of allocation to the borrowers:
</P>
<P>(1) Those subject to revolvement; and
</P>
<P>(2) Those not subject to revolvement. The second type for GAAP purposes is generally considered an equivalent of unallocated surplus and consolidated with unallocated surplus on externally prepared shareholder reports.
</P>
<P><I>N</I><E T="53">th</E>-<I>to-default credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative that provides credit protection only for the nth-defaulting reference exposure in a group of reference exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Operating entity</I> means a company established to conduct business with clients with the intention of earning a profit in its own right and that generally produces goods or provides services beyond the business of investing, reinvesting, holding, or trading in financial assets. All System banks, associations, and service corporations, and all unincorporated business entities, are operating entities.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> with respect to an off-balance sheet commitment means the length of time between the date a commitment is issued and:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the System institution can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
</P>
<P><I>Originating System institution,</I> with respect to a securitization, means a System institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly originated the underlying exposures included in the securitization; or
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Other financing institution (OFI)</I> means any entity referred to in section 1.7(b)(1)(B) of the Farm Credit Act.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Participation certificate</I> means borrower stock held by a borrower or customer of a System institution that does not have voting rights.
</P>
<P><I>Patronage payment</I> means a cash declaration or equity allocation to member-borrowers that pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 1381(a) is based on a System institution's net income and allocated to borrowers based on business conducted with the institution. Patronage payments may be paid as cash, allocated equity (stock or surplus), or a combination of cash and allocated equity.
</P>
<P><I>Performance standby letter of credit (or performance bond)</I> means an irrevocable obligation of a System institution to pay a third-party beneficiary when a customer (account party) fails to perform on any contractual nonfinancial or commercial obligation. To the extent permitted by law or regulation, performance standby letters of credit include arrangements backing, among other things; subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor; and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P><I>Protection amount (P)</I> means, with respect to an exposure hedged by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative, reduced to reflect any currency mismatch, maturity mismatch, or lack of restructuring coverage (as provided in § 628.36).
</P>
<P><I>Publicly traded</I> means traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified allocated equities</I> means patronage allocated to a member-borrower, in the form of stock or surplus, that a System institution retains as equity for the benefit of the membership. A System institution can deduct this patronage from its current taxable income provided that the borrower has agreed to include the patronage in its taxable income. A System institution must pay at least 20 percent of a qualified patronage payment in cash to borrowers. A System institution must provide the borrowers with a qualified written notice of allocation when they allocate qualified patronage payments pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 1381(b) and 1388(c). A System institution revolves qualified allocated equities according to a board-approved plan.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central counterparty (QCCP)</I> means a central counterparty that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU), as defined in section 803 of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution demonstrates to the satisfaction of the FCA that the central counterparty:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in sound financial condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is subject to supervision by the Board, the CFTC, or the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC), or, if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, is subject to effective oversight by a national supervisory authority in its home country; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Meets or exceeds the risk-management standards for central counterparties set forth in regulations established by the Board, the CFTC, or the SEC under title VII or title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act; or if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, meets or exceeds similar risk-management standards established under the law of its home country that are consistent with international standards for central counterparty risk management as established by the relevant standard setting body of the Bank of International Settlements; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Provides the System institution with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the System institution is required to obtain under § 628.35(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes available to the FCA and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by the FCA to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under § 628.35.
</P>
<P>(3) A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 628.3(f).
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the System institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, or part 382 of this title, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, a System institution must comply with the requirements of § 628.3(d) with respect to that agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Repo-style transaction</I> means a repurchase or reverse repurchase transaction, or a securities borrowing or securities lending transaction, including a transaction in which the System institution acts as agent for a customer and indemnifies the customer against loss, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or a netting contract between or among financial institutions under sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act or the Federal Reserve's Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the System institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, subpart I of part 252, or part 382 of this title, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either overnight or unconditionally cancelable at any time by the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Executed under an agreement that provides the System institution the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of counterparty default; and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction for purposes of this subpart, a System institution must comply with the requirements of § 628.3(e) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> means a securitization which has more than one underlying exposure and in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure (other than a securitization exposure or equity exposure) that is:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure that is primarily secured by a first or subsequent lien on one-to-four family residential property, provided that the dwelling (including attached components such as garages, porches, and decks) represents at least 50 percent of the total appraised value of the collateral secured by the first or subsequent lien; or
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> means a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 10 of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a).
</P>
<P><I>Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78).
</P>
<P><I>Securitization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure (including credit-enhancing representations and warranties) that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization); or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization special purpose entity (securitization SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of holding underlying exposures of a securitization, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the underlying exposures held by the entity from the credit risk of the seller of the underlying exposures to the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance facility</I> means a facility under which the servicer of the underlying exposures of a securitization may advance cash to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments to investors in the securitization, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Act</I> means the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632).
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Investment Act</I> means the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign</I> means a central government (including the U.S. Government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign default</I> means noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal and interest timely and fully, arrearages, or restructuring.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 628.31;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions as calculated under § 628.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 628.38;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures as calculated under § 628.42;
</P>
<P>(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under §§ 628.52 and 628.53; minus
</P>
<P>(vi) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(2) Any amount of the System institution's adjusted allowance for credit losses that is not included in tier 2 capital.




</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company, a company controlled by that company.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic exposure</I> means an exposure whose value is linked to the value of an investment in the System institution's own capital instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Synthetic securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual retail exposure);
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
</P>
<P><I>System bank</I> means a Farm Credit Bank, an agricultural credit bank, and a bank for cooperatives.
</P>
<P><I>System institution</I> means a System bank, an association of the Farm Credit System, and their successors, and any other institution chartered by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA) that the FCA determines should be considered a System institution for the purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> is defined in § 628.20(d).
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Traditional securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating entity;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a rural business investment company described in 7 U.S.C. 2009cc <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) The FCA may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) The FCA may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund (as defined in [12 CFR 9.18 (national bank) and 12 CFR 151.40 (Federal saving association) (OCC); 12 CFR 208.34 (Board)];
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of ERISA), a “governmental plan” (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code, or any similar employee benefit plan established under the laws of a foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a System institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 628.22; or
</P>
<P>(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means all securitization exposures associated with a securitization that have the same seniority level.
</P>
<P><I>Two-way market</I> means a market where there are independent bona fide offers to buy and sell so that a price reasonably related to the last sales price or current bona fide competitive bid and offer quotations can be determined within 1 day and settled at that price within a relatively short timeframe conforming to trade custom.
</P>
<P><I>Unallocated retained earnings (URE)</I> means accumulated net income that a System institution has not allocated to a member-borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Unallocated retained earnings (URE) equivalents</I> means nonqualified allocated equities, other than equities allocated to other System institutions, and paid-in capital resulting from a merger of System institutions or from a repurchase of third-party capital that a System institution:
</P>
<P>(1) Designates as URE equivalents at the time of allocation (or on or before March 31, 2017, if allocated prior to January 1, 2017) and undertakes in its capitalization bylaws or a currently effective board of directors resolution not to change the designation without prior FCA approval; and
</P>
<P>(2) Undertakes, in its capitalization bylaws or a currently effective board of directors resolution, not to exercise its discretion to revolve except upon dissolution or liquidation and not to offset against a loan in default except as required under final order of a court of competent jurisdiction or if required under § 615.5290 of this chapter in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means, with respect to a commitment that a System institution may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Underlying exposures</I> means one or more exposures that have been securitized in a securitization transaction.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54357, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022; 89 FR 25129, Apr. 10, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.1.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.3   Operational requirements for certain exposures.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subpart D of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleared transaction.</I> In order to recognize certain exposures as cleared transactions pursuant to paragraph (1)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of the definition of “cleared transaction” in § 628.2, the exposures must meet all of the requirements set forth in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the System institution from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients. Omnibus accounts established under 17 CFR parts 190 and 300 satisfy the requirements of this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(3) The System institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible margin loan.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan as defined in § 628.2, a System institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of “eligible margin loan” in § 628.2; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 628.2, a System institution must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 628.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 628.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repo-style transaction.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction as defined in § 628.2, a System institution must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 628.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure of a QCCP to satisfy the rule's requirements.</I> If a System institution determines that a CCP ceases to be a QCCP due to the failure of the CCP to satisfy one or more of the requirements set forth in paragraph (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a “QCCP” in § 628.2, the System institution may continue to treat the CCP as a QCCP for up to 3 months following the determination. If the CCP fails to remedy the relevant deficiency within 3 months after the initial determination, or the CCP fails to satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraph (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a QCCP continuously for a 3-month period after remedying the relevant deficiency, a System institution may not treat the CCP as a QCCP for the purposes of this part until after the System institution has determined that the CCP has satisfied the requirements in paragraph (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a QCCP for 3 continuous months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.4-628.9" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.1.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.4-628.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Ratio Requirements and Buffers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.2.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.10   Minimum capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Computation of regulatory capital ratios.</I> A System institution's regulatory capital ratios are determined on the basis of the financial statements of the institution prepared in accordance with GAAP using average daily balances for the most recent 3 months.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum capital requirements.</I> A System institution must maintain the following minimum capital ratios:
</P>
<P>(1) A common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital ratio of 4.5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) A tier 1 capital ratio of 6 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) A total capital ratio of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) A tier 1 leverage ratio of 4 percent, of which at least 1.5 percent must be composed of URE and URE equivalents.
</P>
<P>(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(6) A permanent capital ratio of 7 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital ratio calculations.</I> A System institution's regulatory capital ratios are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>CET1 capital ratio.</I> A System institution's CET1 capital ratio is the ratio of the System institution's CET1 capital to total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier 1 capital ratio.</I> A System institution's tier 1 capital ratio is the ratio of the System institution's tier 1 capital to total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total capital ratio.</I> A System institution's total capital ratio is the ratio of the System institution's total (tier 1 and tier 2) capital to total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tier 1 leverage ratio.</I> (i) A System institution's leverage ratio is the ratio of the institution's tier 1 capital to the institution's average total consolidated assets as reported on the institution's Call Report net of deductions and adjustments from tier 1 capital under §§ 628.22(a), (b), and (c) and 628.23.
</P>
<P>(ii) To calculate the measure of URE and URE equivalents described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a System institution must adjust URE and URE equivalents to reflect all the deductions and adjustments required under § 628.22(a), (b), and (c), and must use the denominator of the tier 1 leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permanent capital ratio.</I> A System institution's permanent capital ratio is the ratio of the institution's permanent capital to its total risk-adjusted asset base as reported on the institution's Call Report, calculated in accordance with the regulations in part 615, subpart H, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, a System institution must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the System institution is exposed. FCA may evaluate a System institution's capital adequacy and require the institution to maintain higher minimum regulatory capital ratios using the factors listed in § 615.5350 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital under § 615.5200 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54358, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.11" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.2.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.11   Capital buffer amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer and leverage buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer and leverage buffer.</I> (i) The capital conservation buffer for the CET1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, and total capital ratio is composed solely of CET1 capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) The leverage buffer for the tier 1 leverage ratio is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of a System institution is the System institution's net income for the 4 calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, based on the System institution's quarterly Call Reports, net of any capital distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a System institution can pay out in the form of capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum payout ratio is based on the System institution's capital conservation buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, as set forth in Table 1 to § 628.11.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Maximum payout amount.</I> A System institution's maximum payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the System institution's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum payout ratio, as set forth in Table 1 to § 628.11.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Maximum leverage payout ratio.</I> The maximum leverage payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that a System institution can pay out in the form of capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current quarter. The maximum leverage payout ratio is based on the System institution's leverage buffer, calculated as of the last day of the previous quarter, as set forth in Table 2 to § 628.11.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Maximum leverage payout amount.</I> A System institution's maximum leverage payout amount for the current calendar quarter is equal to the System institution's eligible retained income, multiplied by the applicable maximum leverage payout ratio, as set forth in Table 2 of § 628.11.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Capital distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase, redemption, or revolvement of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when a System institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased, redeemed, or revolved by issuing a purchased capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A CET1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased, redeemed, or revolved was part of the System institution's CET1 capital; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A CET1 or AT1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased, redeemed, or revolved was part of the System institution's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, redemption prior to maturity, or revolvement of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when a System institution, within the same quarter when the repurchase, redemption, or revolvement is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased, redeemed, or revolved by issuing a purchased capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(C) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(D) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any capital instrument other than a tier 1 capital instrument if the System institution has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default;
</P>
<P>(E) A cash patronage declaration or payment;
</P>
<P>(F) A patronage declaration in the form of allocated equities that did not qualify as tier 1 or tier 2 capital; or
</P>
<P>(G) Any similar transaction that the FCA determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> means a payment made to a senior officer of a System institution, where:
</P>
<P>(A) The System institution retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the senior officer;
</P>
<P>(B) The amount paid is determined by the System institution without prior promise to, or agreement with, the senior officer; and
</P>
<P>(C) The senior officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Senior officer</I> means the Chief Executive Officer, the Chief Operations Officer, the Chief Financial Officer, the Chief Credit Officer, and the General Counsel, or persons in similar positions; and any other person responsible for a major policy-making function.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of capital conservation buffer and leverage buffer.</I> (i) A System institution's capital conservation buffer is equal to the lowest of paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A), (B), and (C) of this section, and the leverage buffer is equal to paragraph (a)(3)(i)(D) of this section, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter based on the System institution's most recent Call Report:
</P>
<P>(A) The System institution's CET1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum CET1 capital ratio requirement under § 628.10;
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution's tier 1 capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum tier 1 capital ratio requirement under § 628.10;
</P>
<P>(C) The System institution's total capital ratio minus the System institution's minimum total capital ratio requirement under § 628.10; and
</P>
<P>(D) The System institution's tier 1 leverage ratio minus the System institution's minimum tier 1 leverage ratio requirement under § 628.10.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(3)(i)(A) through (D) of this section, if the System institution's CET1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, total capital ratio or tier 1 leverage ratio is less than or equal to the System institution's minimum CET1 capital ratio, tier 1 capital ratio, total capital ratio or tier 1 leverage ratio requirement under § 628.10, respectively, the System institution's capital conservation buffer or leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limits on capital distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> (i) A System institution must not make capital distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such capital distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the maximum payout amount or, as applicable, the maximum leverage payout amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution that has a capital conservation buffer that is greater than 2.5 percent and a leverage buffer that is greater than 1.0 percent is not subject to a maximum payout amount or maximum leverage payout amount under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Negative eligible retained income.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(iv) of this section, a System institution may not make capital distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if the System institution's:
</P>
<P>(A) Eligible retained income is negative; and
</P>
<P>(B) Capital conservation buffer was less than 2.5 percent, or the leverage buffer was less than 1.0 percent, as of the end of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Prior approval</I>. Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, FCA may permit a System institution to make a capital distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the System institution, if FCA determines that the capital distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section, or to the safety and soundness of the System institution. In making such a determination, FCA will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.11—Calculation of Maximum Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>payout ratio
<br/>(as a
<br/>percentage
<br/>of eligible
<br/>retained
<br/>income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;2.500 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤2.500 percent, and &gt;1.875 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤1.875 percent, and &gt;1.250 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤1.250 percent, and &gt;0.625 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤0.625 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 628.11—Calculation of Maximum Leverage Payout Amount
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Leverage buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>leverage
<br/>payout ratio
<br/>(as a
<br/>percentage
<br/>of eligible
<br/>retained
<br/>income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;1.00 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤1.00 percent, and &gt;0.75 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤0.75 percent, and &gt;0.50 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤0.50 percent, and &gt;0.25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">≤0.25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(v) <I>Other limitations on</I> capital distributions. Additional limitations on capital distributions may apply to a System institution under subpart C of this part and under part 615, subparts L and M, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(vi) A System institution is subject to the lower of the maximum payout amount as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(iii) of this section and the maximum leverage payout amount as determined under paragraph (a)(2)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.12-628.19" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.2.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.12-628.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definition of Capital</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.20   Capital components and eligibility criteria for tier 1 and tier 2 capital instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital components.</I> A System institution's regulatory capital components are:
</P>
<P>(1) CET1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) AT1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) Tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CET1 capital.</I> CET1 capital is the sum of the CET1 capital elements in paragraph (b) of this section, minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 628.22. The CET1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any common cooperative equity instrument issued by a System institution that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the System institution, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the System institution after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can be redeemed only at the discretion of the System institution and with the prior approval of FCA, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(iv) The System institution did not create, through any action or communication, an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, redeem, or revolve the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation, except that the establishment of a revolvement period of 7 years or more, or the practice of redeeming or revolving the instrument no less than 7 years after issuance or allocation, will not be considered to create such an expectation;
</P>
<P>(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income or unallocated retained earnings, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument;
</P>
<P>(vi) The System institution has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the System institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dividend payments and other distributions related to the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the System institution have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur before any losses are borne by holders of preferred stock claims on the System institution and holders of any other claims with priority over common cooperative equity instruments in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(x) The System institution, or an entity that the System institution controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument, except that where there is an obligation for a member of the institution to hold an instrument in order to receive a loan or service from the System institution, an amount of that loan equal to no more than $1,000 of the borrower stock requirement under section 4.3A of the Act will not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:
</P>
<P>(A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more member equities of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution;
</P>
<P>(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument is issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations and with the institution's capitalization bylaws;
</P>
<P>(xiii) The instrument is reported on the System institution's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments; and
</P>
<P>(xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Establishes a minimum redemption or revolvement period of 7 years for equities included in CET1; and
</P>
<P>(B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in CET1 without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section, except that the statutory borrower stock described in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section, not to exceed $1,000, may be redeemed without a minimum period outstanding after issuance and without the prior approval of the FCA, as long as after the redemption, the System institution continues to comply with all minimum regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Unallocated retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(3) Paid-in capital resulting from a merger of System institutions or repurchase of third-party capital.
</P>
<P>(4)-(5) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>AT1 capital.</I> AT1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in §§ 628.22 and 628.23. AT1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments and related surplus, other than common cooperative equities, that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors and subordinated debt holders of the System institution in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in AT1 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The System institution must receive prior approval from FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c),
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FCA that following redemption, the System institution will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing AT1 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from FCA;
</P>
<P>(vii) The System institution has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the System institution except in relation to any distributions to holders of common cooperative equity instruments or other instruments that are pari passu with the instrument;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any distributions on the instrument are paid out of the System institution's net income, unallocated retained earnings, or surplus related to other AT1 capital instruments;
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(xi) The System institution did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the System institution, such as provisions that require the System institution to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified timeframe; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(xiv) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Establishes a minimum redemption or no-call period of 5 years for equities included in additional tier 1; and
</P>
<P>(B) Shall not redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in additional tier 1 capital without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for AT1 capital instruments referenced in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) An instrument with terms that provide that the instrument may be called earlier than 5 years upon the occurrence of a rating agency event does not violate the criterion in paragraph (c)(1)(v) of this section provided that the instrument was issued and included in a System institution's core surplus capital prior to January 1, 2017, and that such instrument satisfies all other criteria under this § 628.20(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tier 2 Capital.</I> Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in §§ 628.22 and 628.23. Tier 2 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors of the System institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the System institution and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least 5 years. At the beginning of each of the last 5 years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than 1 year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the System institution to redeem the instrument prior to maturity; 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the System institution only after a minimum of 5 years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, or a tax event. In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The System institution must receive the prior approval of FCA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the System institution must either: replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FCA that following redemption, the System institution would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk;
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> A System institution may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal, dividends, or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the System institution;
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the System institution's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the System institution's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments;
</P>
<P>(viii) The System institution has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument, except that where common cooperative equity instruments are held by a member of the institution in connection with a loan, and the institution funds the acquisition of such instruments, that loan shall not be considered as a direct or indirect funding where:
</P>
<P>(A) The purpose of the loan is not the purchase of capital instruments of the System institution providing the loan;
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase or acquisition of one or more capital instruments of the institution is necessary in order for the beneficiary of the loan to become a member of the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(C) The capital instruments are in excess of $1,000.
</P>
<P>(ix) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase is at the discretion of the System institution and requires the prior approval of the FCA;
</P>
<P>(xi) The System institution's capitalization bylaws, or a resolution adopted by its board of directors under § 628.21, provides that the institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Establishes a minimum call, redemption or revolvement period of 5 years for equities included in tier 2 capital; and
</P>
<P>(B) Shall not call, redeem, revolve, cancel, or remove any equities included in tier 2 capital without prior approval of the FCA under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) AACL up to 1.25 percent of the System institution's total risk-weighted assets not including any amount of the AACL.
</P>
<P>(4)-(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FCA approval of a capital element.</I> (1) A System institution must receive FCA prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element FCA determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in a System institution's CET1 capital, AT1 capital, or tier 2 capital, FCA will make its decision publicly available.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FCA prior approval of capital redemptions and dividends included in tier 1 and tier 2 capital.</I> (1) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (f)(5) and (6) of this section, a System institution must obtain the prior approval of the FCA before paying cash dividend payments, cash patronage payments, or redeeming equities included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital, other than term equities redeemed on their maturity date.
</P>
<P>(2) At least 30 days prior to the intended action, the System institution must submit a request for approval to the FCA. The FCA's 30-day review period begins on the date on which the FCA receives the request.
</P>
<P>(3) The request is deemed to be granted if the FCA does not notify the System institution to the contrary before the end of the 30-day review period.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) A System institution may request advance approval to cover several anticipated cash dividend or patronage payments, or equity redemptions, provided that the institution projects sufficient current net income during those periods to support the amount of the cash dividend or patronage payments and equity redemptions. In determining whether to grant advance approval, the FCA will consider:
</P>
<P>(A) The reasonableness of the institution's request, including its historical and projected cash dividend and patronage payments and equity redemptions;
</P>
<P>(B) The institution's historical trends and current projections for capital growth through earnings retention;
</P>
<P>(C) The overall condition of the institution, with particular emphasis on current and projected capital adequacy as described in § 628.10(e); and
</P>
<P>(D) Any other information that the FCA deems pertinent to reviewing the institution's request.
</P>
<P>(ii) After considering these standards, the FCA may grant advance prior approval of an institution's request to pay cash dividends and patronage or to redeem or revolve equity. Notwithstanding any such approval, an institution may not declare a dividend or patronage payment or redeem or revolve equities if, after such declaration, redemption, or revolvement, the institution would not meet its regulatory capital requirements set forth in this part and part 615 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Subject to any capital distribution restrictions specified in § 628.11, a System institution is deemed to have FCA prior approval for revolvements and redemptions of common cooperative equities, for cash dividend payments on all equities, and for cash patronage payments on all cooperative equities, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) For redemptions or revolvements of common cooperative equities included in CET1 capital or tier 2 capital, other than as provided in paragraph (f)(6) of this section, the institution issued or allocated such equities at least 7 years ago for CET1 capital and at least 5 years ago for tier 2 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) After such cash payments have been declared and defined by resolution of the board, the dollar amount of the System institution's CET1 capital at quarter-end equals or exceeds the dollar amount of CET1 capital on the same quarter-end in the previous calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The System institution continues to comply with all regulatory capital requirements and supervisory or enforcement actions.
</P>
<P>(6) The following equities are eligible to be redeemed or revolved under paragraph (f)(5)(i) of this section in less than the applicable minimum required holding period (7 years for CET1 inclusion and 5 years for tier 2 inclusion), provided that the requirements of paragraphs (f)(5)(ii) and (iii) of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Equities mandated to be redeemed or retired by a final order of a court of competent jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Equities held by the estate of a deceased former borrower; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Equities that the institution is required to cancel under § 615.5290 of this chapter in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54359, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.21   Capital bylaw or board resolution to include equities in tier 1 and tier 2 capital.</HEAD>
<P>In order to include otherwise eligible purchased and allocated equities in tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital, the System institution must adopt a capitalization bylaw, or its board of directors must adopt a binding resolution, which resolution must be acknowledged by the board on an annual basis in the capital adequacy plan described in § 615.5200, in which the institution undertakes the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) The institution shall obtain prior FCA approval under § 628.20(f) before:
</P>
<P>(1) Redeeming or revolving the equities included in common equity tier 1 (CET1) capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Redeeming or calling the equities included in additional tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) Redeeming, revolving, or calling instruments included in tier 2 capital other than limited life preferred stock or subordinated debt on the maturity date.
</P>
<P>(b) The equities shall have a minimum redemption or revolvement period as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) 7 years for equities included in CET1 capital, except that the statutory borrower stock described in § 628.20(b)(1)(x) may be redeemed without a minimum holding period and that equities designated as unallocated retained earnings (URE) equivalents cannot be revolved without submitting a written request to the FCA for prior approval;
</P>
<P>(2) a minimum no-call, repurchase, or redemption period of 5 years for additional tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(3) a minimum no-call, repurchase, redemption, or revolvement period of 5 years for tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P>(c) The institution shall submit to FCA a written request for prior approval before:
</P>
<P>(1) Redesignating URE equivalents as equities that the institution may exercise its discretion to redeem other than upon dissolution or liquidation;
</P>
<P>(2) Removing equities or other instruments from CET1, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital other than through repurchase, cancellation, redemption or revolvement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Redesignating equities included in one component of regulatory capital (CET1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital) for inclusion in another component of regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(d) The institution shall not exercise its discretion to revolve URE equivalents except upon dissolution or liquidation and shall not offset URE equivalents against a loan in default except as required under final order of a court of competent jurisdiction or if required under § 615.5290 in connection with a restructuring under part 617 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) The minimum redemption and revolvement period (holding period) for purchased and allocated equities starts on the common cooperative equity issuance date, as defined in § 628.2.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 54359, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.22" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.22   Regulatory capital adjustments and deductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital deductions from CET1 capital.</I> A System institution must deduct from the sum of its CET1 capital elements the items set forth in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(1) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets, other than mortgage servicing assets (MSAs), net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(5) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, except that, with FCA prior approval, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the institution has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in that fund;
</P>
<P>(6) The System institution's allocated equity investment in another System institution or service corporation; and
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) If, without the required prior FCA approval, the System institution redeems or revolves purchased or allocated equities included in its CET1 capital that have been outstanding for less than 7 years, the FCA may take appropriate supervisory or enforcement actions against the institution, which may include requiring the institution to deduct a portion of its purchased and allocated equities from CET1 capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory adjustments to CET1 capital.</I> (1) Any accrual of a patronage or dividend payable or receivable recognized in the financial statements prior to a related board declaration or resolution must be reversed to or from unallocated retained earnings for purposes of calculating CET1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions from regulatory capital</I>.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The System institution must calculate amounts deducted under paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section and § 628.23 after it calculates the amount of AACL includable in tier 2 capital under § 628.20(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) <I>Corresponding deduction approach</I>. For purposes of subpart C of this part, the corresponding deduction approach is the methodology used for the deductions from regulatory capital related to purchased equity investments in another System institution (as described in paragraph (c)(5) of this section). Under the corresponding deduction approach, a System institution must make deductions from the component of capital for which the underlying instrument would qualify if it were issued by the System institution itself. If the System institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction, the shortfall must be deducted according to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i)-(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Purchased equity investments in another System institution.</I> System institutions must deduct all purchased equity investments in another System institution, service corporation, or the Funding Corporation by applying the corresponding deduction approach. The deductions described in this section are net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. With prior written approval of FCA, for the period stipulated by FCA, a System institution is not required to deduct an investment in the capital of another institution in distress if such investment is made to provide financial support to the System institution as determined by FCA.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Netting of DTLs against assets subject to deduction.</I> (1) The netting of DTLs against assets that are subject to deduction under this section is required, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(5) A System institution must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insufficient amounts of a specific regulatory capital component to effect deductions.</I> Under the corresponding deduction approach, if a System institution does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction after completing the deductions required under paragraph (c) of this section, the System institution must deduct the shortfall from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted.</I> A System institution must exclude from total risk-weighted assets any item deducted from regulatory capital under paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54360, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.23" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.23   Limit on inclusion of third-party capital in total (tier 1 and tier 2) capital.</HEAD>
<P>The combined amount of third-party capital instruments that a System institution may include in total (tier 1 and tier 2) capital is equal to the greater of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The then existing limit, if any; or
</P>
<P>(b) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) Forty percent of total capital, calculated by taking two thirds of the average of the previous 4 quarters of total capital reported on the institution's Call Report filed with the FCA, less any amounts of third-party capital reported in total capital; or
</P>
<P>(2) The average of the previous 4 quarters of CET1 capital reported on its Call Report filed with the FCA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted</I>. A System institution must exclude from total risk-weighted assets any item deducted from regulatory capital under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.24-628.29" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.3.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.24-628.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Risk-Weighted Assets—Standardized Approach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for all System institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV7 N="6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.31" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.31   Mechanics for calculating risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General risk-weighting requirements.</I> A System institution must apply risk weights to its exposures as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A System institution must determine the exposure amount of each on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, financial standby letter of credit, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 628.38;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 628.35;
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iv) A securitization exposure subject to §§ 628.41 through 628.45; or
</P>
<P>(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 628.51 through 628.53.
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.32" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.32   General risk weights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sovereign exposures</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to the U.S. Government.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, a System institution must assign a 0-percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) An exposure to the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency; and
</P>
<P>(B) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or other exposure that is insured or otherwise unconditionally guaranteed by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other sovereign exposures.</I> In accordance with Table 1 to § 628.32, a System institution must assign a risk weight to a sovereign exposure based on the Country Risk Classification (CRC) applicable to the sovereign or the sovereign's Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) membership status if there is no CRC applicable to the sovereign.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.32—Risk Weights for Sovereign Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with no CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with no CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Certain sovereign exposures.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a System institution may assign to a sovereign exposure a risk weight that is lower than the applicable risk weight in table 1 to § 628.32 if:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure is denominated in the sovereign's currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) The System institution has at least an equivalent amount of liabilities in that currency; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that the sovereign allows banking organizations under its jurisdiction to assign to the same exposures to the sovereign.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to a non-OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(3), (5), and (6) of this section, a System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to a sovereign exposure if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, a System institution must assign a 0-percent risk weight to an exposure to a sovereign that is a member of the OECD if the sovereign does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sovereign default.</I> A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to a sovereign exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs).</I> A System institution must assign a 0-percent risk weight to an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to Government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs).</I> (1) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to an exposure to a GSE other than an equity exposure or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to preferred stock issued by a non-System GSE.
</P>
<P>(3) Purchased equity investments (including preferred stock investments) in other System institutions do not receive a risk weight, because they are deducted from capital in accordance with § 628.22.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions.</I> A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to an exposure to a depository institution or credit union that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (d). This risk weight applies to an exposure a System bank has to another financing institution (OFI) that is a depository institution or credit union organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof or is owned and controlled by such an entity that guarantees the exposure. If the OFI exposure does not satisfy these requirements, it must be assigned a risk weight as a corporate exposure pursuant to paragraph (f)(1)(ii) or (f)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign banks.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided under paragraph (d)(2)(iv) of this section, a System institution must assign a risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank, in accordance with table 2 to § 628.32, based on the CRC rating that corresponds to the foreign bank's home country or the OECD membership status of the foreign bank's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the foreign bank's home country.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 628.32—Risk Weights for Exposures to Foreign Banks
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(iii) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC, with the exception of self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, and that have a maturity of 3 months or less, which may be assigned a 20-percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(iv) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to an exposure to a foreign bank immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in the bank's home country, or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the foreign bank's home country during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposures to public sector entities (PSEs)</I>—(1) <I>Exposures to U.S. PSEs.</I> (i) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposures to foreign PSEs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (3) of this section, a System institution must assign a risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a foreign PSE, in accordance with Table 3 to § 628.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(1) and (3) of this section, a System institution must assign a risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a foreign PSE, in accordance with Table 4 to § 628.32, based on the CRC that corresponds to the PSE's home country; or the OECD membership status of the PSE's home country if there is no CRC applicable to the PSE's home country.
</P>
<P>(3) A System institution may assign a lower risk weight than would otherwise apply under tables 3 and 4 to § 628.32 to an exposure to a foreign PSE if:
</P>
<P>(i) The PSE's home country supervisor allows banks under its jurisdiction to assign a lower risk weight to such exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk weight is not lower than the risk weight that corresponds to the PSE's home country in accordance with table 1 to § 628.32.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 628.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE General Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 628.32—Risk Weights for Non-U.S. PSE Revenue Obligations
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">CRC:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">0-1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">2-3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">4-7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Non-OECD Member with No CRC</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sovereign Default</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Exposures to PSEs from an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> (i) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE whose home country is a OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE whose country is an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposures to PSEs whose home country is not an OECD member sovereign with no CRC.</I> A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to an exposure to a PSE whose home country is not a member of the OECD and does not have a CRC.
</P>
<P>(6) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to a PSE exposure immediately upon determining that an event of sovereign default has occurred in a PSE's home country or if an event of sovereign default has occurred in the PSE's home country during the previous 5 years.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate exposures</I>—(1) <I>100-percent risk weight.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all its corporate exposures. Assets assigned a risk weight under this provision include:
</P>
<P>(i) Borrower loans such as agricultural loans and consumer loans, regardless of the corporate form of the borrower, unless those loans qualify for different risk weights under other provisions of this subpart D;
</P>
<P>(ii) System bank exposures to OFIs that do not satisfy the requirements for a 20-percent risk weight pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section or a 50-percent risk weight pursuant to paragraph (f)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Premises, fixed assets, and other real estate owned.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>50-percent risk weight.</I> Unless the OFI satisfies the requirements for a 20-percent risk weight pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to an exposure to an OFI that satisfies at least one of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) The OFI is investment grade or is owned and controlled by an investment grade entity that guarantees the exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The OFI meets capital, risk identification and control, and operational standards similar to the OFIs identified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential mortgage exposures.</I> (1) A System institution must assign a 50-percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is secured by a property that is either owner-occupied or rented;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards suitable for residential property, including standards relating to the loan amount as a percent of the appraised value of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not 90 days or more past due or carried in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not restructured or modified.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to a first-lien residential mortgage exposure that does not meet the criteria in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, and to junior-lien residential mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of this paragraph (g), if a System institution holds the first-lien and junior-lien(s) residential mortgage exposures, and no other party holds an intervening lien, the System institution must combine the exposures and treat them as a single first-lien residential mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) A loan modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program is not modified or restructured for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(h)-(i) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(j) <I>High volatility commercial real estate (HVCRE) exposures.</I> A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to an HVCRE exposure.


</P>
<P>(k) <I>Past due and nonaccrual exposures.</I> Except for a sovereign exposure or a residential mortgage exposure, a System institution must determine a risk weight for an exposure that is 90 days or more past due or in nonaccrual status according to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (k).
</P>
<P>(1) A System institution must assign a 150-percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is not secured by financial collateral.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.36 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(3) A System institution may assign a risk weight to the portion of a past due or nonaccrual exposure that is collateralized by financial collateral based on the risk weight that applies under § 628.37 if the financial collateral meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Other assets.</I> (1) A System institution must assign a 0-percent risk weight to cash owned and held in all offices of the System institution or in transit; to gold bullion held in the System institution's own vaults or held in a depository institution's vaults on an allocated basis, to the extent the gold bullion assets are offset by gold bullion liabilities; and to exposures that arise from the settlement of cash transactions (such as equities, fixed income, spot foreign exchange (FX), and spot commodities) with a central counterparty where there is no assumption of ongoing counterparty credit risk by the central counterparty after settlement of the trade.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution must assign a 20-percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to deferred tax assets (DTAs) arising from temporary differences in relation to net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(4) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all MSAs.
</P>
<P>(5) A System institution must assign a 100-percent risk weight to all assets that are not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 628.22.
</P>
<P>(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54360, Oct. 1, 2021; 89 FR 25130, Apr. 10, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.33" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.33   Off-balance sheet exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) A System institution must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where a System institution commits to provide a commitment, the System institution may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a System institution provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the System institution is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Where a System institution provides a commitment, enters into a repurchase agreement, or provides a credit enhancing representation and warranty, and such commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty is not a securitization exposure, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment, repurchase agreement, or credit-enhancing representation and warranty, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) The exposure amount of a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI is the difference between the association's or OFI's maximum credit limit with the System bank (as established by the general financing agreement or promissory note, as required by § 614.4125(d) of this chapter), and the amount the association or OFI has borrowed from the System bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit conversion factors</I>—(1) <I>Zero-percent (0%) CCF.</I> A System institution must apply a 0-percent CCF to a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the System institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Twenty-percent (20%) CCF.</I> A System institution must apply a 20-percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of 14 months or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the System institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Self-liquidating, trade-related contingent items that arise from the movement of goods, with an original maturity of 14 months or less.
</P>
<P>(iii) A System bank's commitment to an association or OFI that is not unconditionally cancelable by the System bank, regardless of maturity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fifty-percent (50%) CCF.</I> A System institution must apply a 50-percent CCF to the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Commitments, other than a System bank's commitment to an association or OFI, with an original maturity of more than 14 months that are not unconditionally cancelable by the System institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Transaction-related contingent items, including performance bonds, bid bonds, warranties, and performance standby letters of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>One hundred-percent (100%) CCF.</I> A System institution must apply a 100-percent CCF to the following off-balance sheet items and other similar transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has sold subject to repurchase);
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties that are not securitization exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the System institution has lent under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(v) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the System institution has posted as collateral under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(vi) Financial standby letters of credit; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Forward agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.34" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.34   OTC derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure amount</I>—(1) <I>Single OTC derivative contract.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (b) of this section, the exposure amount for a single OTC derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the System institution's current credit exposure and potential future credit exposure (PFE) on the OTC derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Current credit exposure.</I> The current credit exposure for a single OTC derivative contract is the greater of the mark-to-fair value of the OTC derivative contract or 0.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PFE.</I> (A) The PFE for a single OTC derivative contract, including an OTC derivative contract with a negative mark-to-fair value, is calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the OTC derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 to § 628.34.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of calculating either the PFE under this paragraph or the gross PFE under paragraph (a)(2) of this section for exchange rate contracts and other similar contracts in which the notional principal amount is equivalent to the cash flows, notional principal amount is the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.
</P>
<P>(C) For an OTC derivative contract that does not fall within one of the specified categories in Table 1 to § 628.34, the PFE must be calculated using the appropriate “other” conversion factor.
</P>
<P>(D) A System institution must use an OTC derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
</P>
<P>(E) The PFE of the protection provider of a credit derivative is capped at the net present value of the amount of unpaid premiums.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.34—Conversion Factor Matrix for Derivative Contracts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign
<br/>exchange
<br/>rate and gold
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit (investment grade reference asset) 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit (non- investment- grade reference asset)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Equity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Precious
<br/>metals
<br/>(except gold)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One (1) year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.01</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than one (1) year and less than or equal to five (5) years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.12
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than five (5) years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.075</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.05</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> For a derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the conversion factor is multiplied by the number of remaining payments in the derivative contract.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For an OTC derivative contract that is structured such that on specified dates any outstanding exposure is settled and the terms are reset so that the fair value of the contract is 0, the remaining maturity equals the time until the next reset date. For an interest rate derivative contract with a remaining maturity of greater than 1 year that meets these criteria, the minimum conversion factor is 0.005.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A System institution must use the column labeled “Credit (investment-grade reference asset)” for a credit derivative whose reference asset is an outstanding unsecured long-term debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade. A System institution must use the column labeled “Credit (non-investment-grade reference asset)” for all other credit derivatives.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (b) of this section, the exposure amount for multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the net current credit exposure and the adjusted sum of the PFE amounts for all OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net current credit exposure.</I> The net current credit exposure is the greater of the net sum of all positive and negative mark-to-fair values of the individual OTC derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement or 0.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted sum of the PFE amounts.</I> The adjusted sum of the PFE amounts, Anet, is calculated as:
</P>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">net</E> = (0.4×A<E T="52">gross</E>) + (0.6×NGR×A<E T="52">gross</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">gross</E> = the gross PFE (that is, the sum of the PFE amounts (as determined under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section for each individual derivative contract subject to the qualifying master netting agreement); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Net-to-gross Ratio (NGR) = the ratio of the net current credit exposure to the gross current credit exposure. In calculating the NGR, the gross current credit exposure equals the sum of the positive current credit exposures (as determined under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) of all individual derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> (1) A System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC derivative contract or multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) by using the simple approach in § 628.37(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Alternatively, if the financial collateral securing a contract or netting set described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, a System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures the contract or netting set by using the collateral haircut approach in § 628.37(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Counterparty credit risk for OTC credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection purchasers.</I> A System institution that purchases an OTC credit derivative that is recognized under § 628.36 as a credit risk mitigant is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 628.32 provided that the System institution does so consistently for all such credit derivatives. The System institution must either include all or exclude all such credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection providers.</I> (i) A System institution that is the protection provider under an OTC credit derivative must treat the OTC credit derivative as an exposure to the underlying reference asset. The System institution is not required to compute a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the OTC credit derivative under § 628.32, provided that this treatment is applied consistently for all such OTC credit derivatives. The System institution must either include all or exclude all such OTC credit derivatives that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of paragraph (c)(2) of this section apply to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counterparty credit risk for OTC equity derivatives.</I> (1) A System institution must treat an OTC equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the OTC equity derivative contract under §§ 628.51 through 628.53.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) If the System institution risk weights the contract under the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) in § 628.52, the System institution may choose not to hold risk-based capital against the counterparty credit risk of the OTC equity derivative contract, as long as it does so for all such contracts. Where the OTC equity derivative contracts are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, a System institution using the SRWA must either include all or exclude all of the contracts from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(e) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.35" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.35   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a)<I> General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> A System institution that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client System institutions</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a System institution that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client System institution's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is either a derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the current exposure method (CEM) for OTC derivative contracts under § 628.34; plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client System institution and held by the central counterparty (CCP), clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction, the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The exposure amount for the repo-style transaction calculated using the collateral haircut methodology under § 628.37(c); plus
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client System institution and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a qualifying CCP (QCCP), a clearing member client System institution must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) Two (2) percent if the collateral posted by the System institution to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the clearing member client System institution due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client System institution has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; or
</P>
<P>(B) Four (4) percent if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client System institution must apply the risk weight appropriate for the CCP according to § 628.32.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirements in this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client System institution that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, the custodian, clearing member and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client System institution must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member, or custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with the requirements under § 628.32.
</P>
<P>(c)-(d) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.36" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.36   Guarantees and credit derivatives: Substitution treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative by substituting the risk weight associated with the protection provider for the risk weight assigned to an exposure, as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) This section applies to exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the System institution and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 628.41 through 628.45.
</P>
<P>(4) If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, a System institution may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a System institution must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) A System institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is subordinated to, the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution approach</I>—(1) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, a System institution may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure by substituting the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider under § 628.32 for the risk weight assigned to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in §§ 628.36(a) and 628.37(b) and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, the System institution must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(i) The System institution may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under § 628.32, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The System institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under § 628.32, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) A System institution that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfill its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the System institution (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the System institution (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the System institution to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to 1 year and its residual maturity is greater than 3 months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the System institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant:
</P>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">m</E> <I>= E x [(t−0.25)/(T−0.25)]</I>
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>t</I> = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I> = the lesser of 5 or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment for credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If a System institution recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the System institution must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit derivative:
</P>
<FP-2>P<E T="54">r</E> = P<E T="54">m</E> x 0.60
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">m</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch, if applicable).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) If a System institution recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the System institution must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative:
</P>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">c</E> = <I>P</I><E T="54">r</E> x (<I>1-H</I><E T="54">fx</E>)
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">c</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>P</I><E T="54">r</E> = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">fx</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) A System institution must set <I>H</I><E T="54">fx</E> equal to 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) A System institution must adjust <I>H</I><E T="54">fx</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the System institution revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every 10 business days using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="44" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.001.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where <I>T</I><E T="54">M</E> equals the greater of 10 or the number of days between revaluation.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.37" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.6.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.37   Collateralized transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To recognize the risk-mitigating effects of financial collateral, a System institution may use:
</P>
<P>(i) The simple approach in paragraph (b) of this section for any exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral haircut approach in paragraph (c) of this section for repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized derivative contracts, and single-product netting sets of such transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution may use any approach described in this section that is valid for a particular type of exposure or transaction; however, it must use the same approach for similar exposures or transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The simple approach</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) A System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures any exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every 6 months; and
</P>
<P>(C) The collateral (other than gold) and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weight substitution.</I> (i) A System institution may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral (that meets the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section) based on the risk weight assigned to the collateral under § 628.32. For repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, and securities lending and borrowing transactions, the collateral is the instruments, gold, and cash the System institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the risk weight assigned to the collateralized portion of the exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight assigned to the exposure under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions to the 20-percent risk-weight floor and other requirements.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A System institution may assign a 0-percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-fair on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
</P>
<P>(ii) A System institution may assign a 10-percent risk weight to an exposure to an OTC derivative contract that is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a 0-percent risk weight under § 628.32.
</P>
<P>(iii) A System institution may assign a 0-percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
</P>
<P>(B) The financial collateral is an exposure to a sovereign that qualifies for a 0-percent risk weight under § 628.32, and the System institution has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A System institution may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or single-product netting set of such transactions by using the standard supervisory haircuts in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exposure amount equation.</I> A System institution must determine the exposure amount for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, collateralized derivative contract, or a single-product netting set of such transactions by setting the exposure amount equal to max:
</P>
<FP-2>{<I>0, [(∑E—∑C) + ∑(E</I><E T="54">s</E> <I>x H</I><E T="54">s</E><I>) + ∑(E</I><E T="54">fx</E> <I>x H</I><E T="54">fx</E>)]}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>∑E</I> = for eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions and netting sets thereof, the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the System institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set)); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>∑E</I> = for collateralized derivative contracts and netting sets thereof, the exposure amount of the OTC derivative contract (or netting set) calculated under § 628.34(c) or (d).
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>∑C</I> = the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold and cash the System institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="52">s</E> = the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in the instrument or gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the System institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the System institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">s</E> = the fair value price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in Es;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>E</I><E T="54">fx</E> = the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the System institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the System institution has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">fx</E> = the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in E<E T="52">fx</E> and the settlement currency.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(3) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> (i) A System institution must use the haircuts for fair value price volatility (Hs) provided in Table 1 to § 628.37, as adjusted in certain circumstances in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.37—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircut 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization exposures
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk weight under § 628.32 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk weight under § 628.32
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20% or −50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50%
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Great than 1 years and less than and equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publically traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">0%
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircut in Table 1 to § 628.37 are based on 10-day holding period.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a 0-percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) For currency mismatches, a System institution must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances under paragraphs (c)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) For repo-style transactions, a System institution may multiply the standard supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107).
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, a System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section upward on the basis of a holding period of 20 business days for the following quarter except in the calculation of the exposure amount for purposes of § 628.35. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, a System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period of 20 business days. If over the 2 previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the System institution must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set. A System institution must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward using the following formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="40" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.002.gif"/></MATH>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">M</E> = a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>H</I><E T="54">S</E> = the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>T</I><E T="54">S</E> = 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts or 5 business days for repo-style transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) If the instrument a System institution has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral in § 628.2, the System institution must use a 25-percent haircut for fair value price volatility (<I>H</I><E T="54">S</E>).
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="7" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.7" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Unsettled Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.38" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.7.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.38   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the fair value standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than 5 business days.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive current exposure of a System institution for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current fair value price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the System institution to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 628.34).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system or central counterparty, the FCA may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> A System institution must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the System institution's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within 5 business days after the settlement date. The System institution must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the System institution by the appropriate risk weight in Table 1 to § 628.38.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.38—Risk Weights for Unsettled DVP and PVP Transactions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of business days after contractual settlement date
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk weight to be applied to positive current exposure
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 5 to 15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 16 to 30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">625.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">From 31 to 45</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">937.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">46 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,250.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) A System institution must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the System institution has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The System institution must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the System institution has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the System institution has made its delivery until 5 business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the System institution must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the System institution as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under § 628.32.
</P>
<P>(3) If the System institution has not received its deliverables by the 5th business day after counterparty delivery was due, the System institution must assign a 1,250-percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the System institution.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.39-628.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.7.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.39-628.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="8" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Securitization Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.41" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.41   Operational requirements for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> A System institution that transfers exposures it has originated or purchased to a third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each condition in this section is satisfied. A System institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization. A System institution that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from CET1 capital, pursuant to § 628.22, any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the System institution's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, a System institution may recognize for risk-based capital purposes the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each condition in this paragraph is satisfied. A System institution that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. A System institution that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 628.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 628.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 628.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the System institution to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the pool of underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the System institution's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the System institution in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the System institution after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The System institution obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Due diligence requirements.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from CET1 capital (pursuant to § 628.22) and exposures subject to § 628.42(h), if a System institution is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the FCA a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the System institution must assign the securitization exposure a risk weight of 1,250 percent. The System institution's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the exposure in relation to its capital.
</P>
<P>(2) A System institution must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within 3 business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value (LTV) ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.42" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.42   Risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization risk weight approaches.</I> Except as provided in this section or in § 628.41:
</P>
<P>(1) A System institution must deduct from CET1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization (as provided in § 628.22) and must apply a 1,250-percent risk weight to the portion of a credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO) that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a System institution may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with § 628.43(a) through (d) and subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section. Alternatively, a System institution may assign a risk weight to the purchased securitization exposure using the gross-up approach in accordance with § 628.43(e), provided however, that such System institution must apply either the SSFA or the gross-up approach consistently across all of its securitization exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (a)(1), (3), and (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the System institution cannot or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the gross-up approach to the exposure, the System institution must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 628.44.
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by a System institution in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), a System institution may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> A System institution's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amount for securitization exposures that the System institution risk weights under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, §§ 628.41(c), and 628.43, 628.44, or § 628.45, except as provided in paragraphs (e) through (j) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure amount of a securitization exposure.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures (available-for-sale or held-to-maturity securities).</I> The exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure that is an available-for-sale or held-to-maturity security is the System institution's carrying value (including net accrued but unpaid interest and fees), less any net unrealized gains on the exposure and plus any net unrealized losses on the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Off-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization that is not a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, a cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative), or an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii)-(iii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and derivative contracts.</I> The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, an eligible margin loan, or a derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the exposure amount of the transaction as calculated under § 628.34 or § 628.37 as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If a System institution has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage to the underlying exposures of a securitization, the System institution is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the System institution may apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implicit support.</I> If a System institution provides support to a securitization in excess of the System institution's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The System institution must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from CET1 capital (pursuant to § 628.22) any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the System institution of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Undrawn portion of an eligible servicer cash advance facility.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, a System institution that is a servicer under an eligible servicer cash advance facility is not required to hold risk-based capital against potential future cash advance payments that it may be required to provide under the contract governing the facility.
</P>
<P>(2) For a System institution that acts as a servicer, the exposure amount for a servicer cash advance facility that is not an eligible cash advance facility is equal to the amount of all potential future cash payments that the System institution may be contractually required to provide during the subsequent 12-month period under the governing facility.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> Regardless of any other provisions of this subpart, the risk weight for a non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed security may not be less than 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Small-business loans and leases on personal property transferred with retained contractual exposure.</I> (1) Regardless of any other provisions of this subpart, a System institution that has transferred small-business loans and leases on personal property (small-business obligations) must include in risk-weighted assets only its contractual exposure to the small-business obligations if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction must be treated as a sale under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(ii) The System institution establishes and maintains, pursuant to GAAP, a non-capital reserve sufficient to meet the System institution's reasonably estimated liability under the contractual obligation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The small business obligations are to businesses that meet the criteria for a small-business concern established by the Small Business Administration under section 3(a) of the Small Business Act.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) The total outstanding amount of contractual exposure retained by a System institution on transfers of small-business obligations receiving the capital treatment specified in paragraph (h)(1) of this section cannot exceed 15 percent of the System institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(3) If a System institution exceeds the 15-percent capital limitation provided in paragraph (h)(2) of this section, the capital treatment under paragraph (h)(1) of this section will continue to apply to any transfers of small-business obligations with retained contractual exposure that occurred during the time that the System institution did not exceed the capital limit.
</P>
<P>(4) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i)-(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>N</I><E T="53">th</E><I>-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> A System institution must assign a risk weight to an nth-to-default credit derivative in accordance with FCA guidance.
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> A System institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 628.36(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the System institution synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. A System institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 628.34 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 628.36(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) A System institution that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a nth-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 628.36(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The System institution also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If a System institution satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the System institution must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the System institution had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the nth smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) A System institution must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 628.34 for a nth-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 628.36(b).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than nth-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) provided by a System institution that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the System institution must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative in accordance with FCA guidance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) A System institution that purchases a guarantee or OTC credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 628.45 as a credit risk mitigant (including via collateral recognized under § 628.37) is not required to compute a separate credit risk capital requirement under § 628.31, in accordance with § 628.34(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a System institution cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 628.45, the System institution must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 628.34.
</P>
<P>(A) If the System institution purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization special purpose entity (SPE), the System institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to general risk weights under § 628.32.
</P>
<P>(B) If the System institution purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the System institution must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this section, including paragraph (a)(4) of this section for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.43" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.43   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) and the gross-up approach.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, a System institution must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contract governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payment on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. A System institution that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, a System institution must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between 0 and 1 (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> equal to .08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter <I>W</I> is expressed as a decimal value between 0 and 1. Parameter <I>W</I> is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures within the securitized pool that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety (90) days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred interest payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for periods(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter <I>A</I> is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 628.42(i) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter <I>A</I> equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the System institution to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the System institution's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter <I>A</I> to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter <I>A</I> is expressed as a decimal value between 0 and 1.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter <I>D</I> is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 628.42(i) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter <I>D</I> equals parameter <I>A</I> plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter <I>D</I> is expressed as a decimal value between 0 and 1.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, <I>p,</I> is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the SSFA</I>. <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> and <I>W</I> are used to calculate <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the augmented value of <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying pool of exposures. <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters <I>A</I> and <I>D</I>, relative to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter <I>D</I>, for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter <I>A</I>, for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the System institution must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When <I>A</I> is less than <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and <I>D</I> is greater than <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent equals:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="18" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.003.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(ii) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent times <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> equals:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="18" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="1" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.004.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(iii) The risk weight will be set equal to:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="22" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.005.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(d) <I>SSFA equation.</I> (1) The System institution must define the following parameters:
</P>
<FP-2>K<E T="52">A</E> = (1−W) × K<E T="52">G</E> + (0.5 × W)
</FP-2>
<P>(2) Then the System institution must calculate <I>K</I><E T="52">SSFA</E> according to the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01oc21.002.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:</FP></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er01oc21.003.gif"/>
<P>(3) The risk weight for the exposure (expressed as a percent) is equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> <I>× 1,250.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Gross-up approach</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> A System institution may apply the gross-up approach set forth in this section instead of the SSFA to determine the risk weight of its securitization exposures, provided that it applies the gross-up approach to all of its securitization exposures, except as otherwise provided for certain securitization exposures in §§ 628.44 and 628.45.
</P>
<P>(2) To use the gross-up approach, a System institution must calculate the following four inputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Pro rata share <I>A</I>, which is the par value of the System institution's securitization exposure <I>X</I> as a percent of the par value of the tranche in which the securitization exposure resides <I>Y</I>:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="18" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er28jy16.007.gif"/></MATH>
<P>(ii) Enhanced amount <I>B</I>, which is the value of tranches that are more senior to the tranche in which the System institution's securitization resides;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposure amount (carrying value) <I>C</I> of the System institution's securitization exposure calculated under § 628.42(c); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk weight (<I>RW</I>), which is the weighted-average risk weight of underlying exposures in the securitization pool as calculated under this subpart. For example, <I>RW</I> for an asset-backed security with underlying car loans would be 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit equivalent amount (CEA).</I> The CEA of a securitization exposure under this section equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount <I>C</I> of the System institution's securitization exposure; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The pro rata share <I>A</I> multiplied by the enhanced amount <I>B</I>, each calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(2) of this section:
</P>
<FP-2><I>CEA = C + (A × B)</I>
</FP-2>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets (RWA)</I>. To calculate <I>RWA</I> for a securitization exposure under the gross-up approach, a System institution must apply the <I>RW</I> calculated under paragraph (e)(2) of this section to the <I>CEA</I> calculated in paragraph (e)(3) of this section:
</P>
<FP-2><I>RWA = RW × CEA</I>
</FP-2>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a System institution must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54360, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.44" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.44   Securitization exposures to which the SSFA and gross-up approach do not apply.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A System institution must assign a 1,250-percent risk weight to all securitization exposures to which the System institution does not apply the SSFA or the gross up approach under § 628.43.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.45" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.45   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An originating System institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 628.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 628.36 or § 628.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An investing System institution that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 628.36 or § 628.37, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mismatches.</I> A System institution must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 628.36(d), (e), and (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the System institution must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.46-628.50" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.8.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.46-628.50   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="9" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.9" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.51" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.9.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.51   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures that are not equity exposures to an investment fund, a System institution must use the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) provided in § 628.52. A System institution must use the look-through approaches provided in § 628.53 to calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures to investment funds. Equity investments (including preferred stock investments) in other System institutions, service corporations, and the Funding Corporation do not receive a risk weight, because they are deducted from capital in accordance with § 628.22.
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of §§ 628.51 through 628.53, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure (other than an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale), the System institution's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is classified as available-for-sale, the System institution's carrying value of the exposure less any net unrealized gains on the exposure that are reflected in such carrying value but excluded from the System institution's regulatory capital components;
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of 14 months or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over 14 months receive a CF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.52" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.9.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.52   Simple risk-weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, a System institution's total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the System institution's individual equity exposures (other than equity exposures to an investment fund) as determined under this section and the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the System institution's individual equity exposures to an investment fund as determined under § 628.53.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> A System institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure (other than an equity exposure to an investment fund) by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure or the effective portion and ineffective portion of a hedge pair (as defined in paragraph (c) of this section) by the lowest applicable risk weight in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Zero-percent (0%) risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, an MDB, and any other entity whose credit exposures receive a 0-percent risk weight under § 628.32 may be assigned a 0-percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Twenty-percent (20%) risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to a PSE or the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac) must be assigned a 20-percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>One hundred-percent (100%) risk weight equity exposures.</I> The equity exposures set forth in this paragraph (b)(3) must be assigned a 100-percent risk weight:
</P>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effective portion of hedge pairs.</I> The effective portion of a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-significant equity exposures.</I> Equity exposures, excluding exposures to an investment firm that would meet the definition of a traditional securitization in § 628.2 were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition and has greater than immaterial leverage, to the extent that aggregate adjusted carrying value of the exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the System institution's total capital.
</P>
<P>(A) Equity exposures subject to paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Equity exposures to unconsolidated unincorporated business entities and equity exposures held through consolidated unincorporated business entities, as authorized by subpart J of part 611 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Equity exposures to an unconsolidated rural business investment company and equity exposures held through a consolidated rural business investment company described in 7 U.S.C. 2009cc <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(B) To compute the aggregate adjusted carrying value of a System institution's equity exposures for purposes of this section, the System institution may exclude equity exposures described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) and (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the equity exposure in a hedge pair with the smaller adjusted carrying value, and a proportion of each equity exposure to an investment fund equal to the proportion of the assets of the investment fund that are not equity exposures or that meet the criterion of paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. If a System institution does not know the actual holdings of the investment fund, the System institution may calculate the proportion of the assets of the fund that are not equity exposures based on the terms of the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure classes within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the System institution must assume for purposes of this section that the investment fund invests to the maximum extent possible in equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) When determining which of a System institution's equity exposures qualify for a 100-percent risk weight under this paragraph, a System institution first must include equity exposures to unconsolidated rural business investment companies or held through consolidated rural business investment companies described in 7 U.S.C. 2009cc <I>et seq.;</I> then must include equity exposures to unconsolidated unincorporated business entities and equity exposures held through consolidated unincorporated business entities, as authorized by subpart J of part 611 of this chapter; then must include publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds); and then must include non-publicly traded equity exposures (including those held indirectly through investment funds).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other equity exposures.</I> The risk weight for any equity exposure that does not qualify for a risk weight under paragraph (b)(1), (2), (3), or (7) of this section will be determined by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(5)-(6) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Six hundred-percent (600%) risk weight equity exposures.</I> An equity exposure to an investment firm must be assigned a 600-percent risk weight, provided that the investment firm:
</P>
<P>(i) Would meet the definition of a traditional securitization in § 628.2 were it not for the application of paragraph (8) of that definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has greater than immaterial leverage.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hedge transactions</I>—(1) <I>Hedge pair.</I> A hedge pair is two equity exposures that form an effective hedge so long as each equity exposure is publicly traded or has a return that is primarily based on a publicly traded equity exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective hedge.</I> Two equity exposures form an effective hedge if the exposures either have the same remaining maturity or each has a remaining maturity of at least 3 months; the hedge relationship is formally documented in a prospective manner (that is, before the System institution acquires at least one of the equity exposures); the documentation specifies the measure of effectiveness (E) the System institution will use for the hedge relationship throughout the life of the transaction; and the hedge relationship has an E greater than or equal to 0.8. A System institution must measure E at least quarterly and must use one of three alternative measures of E as set forth in this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(i) Under the dollar-offset method of measuring effectiveness, the System institution must determine the ratio of value change (RVC). The RVC is the ratio of the cumulative sum of the changes in value of one equity exposure to the cumulative sum of the changes in the value of the other equity exposure. If RVC is positive, the hedge is not effective and E equals 0. If RVC is negative and greater than or equal to −1 (that is, less than 0 and greater than or equal to −1), then E equals the absolute value of RVC. If RVC is negative and less than −1, then E equals 2 plus RVC.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the variability-reduction method of measuring effectiveness:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er01oc21.004.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>X</I><E T="54">t</E> = <I>A</I><E T="54">t</E>−<I>B</I><E T="54">t</E>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I><E T="54">t</E> = the value at time t of one exposure in a hedge pair; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>Bt</I> = the value at time t of the other exposure in a hedge pair.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iii) Under the regression method of measuring effectiveness, E equals the coefficient of determination of a regression in which the change in value of one exposure in a hedge pair is the dependent variable and the change in value of the other exposure in a hedge pair is the independent variable. However, if the estimated regression coefficient is positive, then E equals 0.
</P>
<P>(3) The effective portion of a hedge pair is E multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<P>(4) The ineffective portion of a hedge pair is (1-E) multiplied by the greater of the adjusted carrying values of the equity exposures forming a hedge pair.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54360, Oct. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.53" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.9.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.53   Equity exposures to investment funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Available approaches.</I> (1) A System institution must determine the risk-weighted asset amount of an equity exposure to an investment fund under the full look-through approach described in paragraph (b) of this section, the simple modified look-through approach described in paragraph (c) of this section, or the alterative modified look-through approach described paragraph (d) of this section, provided, however, that the minimum risk weight that may be assigned to an equity exposure under this section is 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) If an equity exposure to an investment fund is part of a hedge pair and the System institution does not use the full look-through approach, the System institution must use the ineffective portion of the hedge pair as determined under § 628.52(c) as the adjusted carrying value for the equity exposure to the investment fund. The risk-weighted asset amount of the effective portion of the hedge pair is equal to its adjusted carrying value.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> A System institution that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund (as calculated under this subpart as if the proportional ownership share of the adjusted carrying value of each exposure were held directly by the System institution) may set the risk-weighted asset amount of the System institution's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under the simple modified look-through approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a System institution's equity exposure to an investment fund equals the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure multiplied by the highest risk weight that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar agreement that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under the alternative modified look-through approach, a System institution may assign the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories under this subpart based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the System institution's equity exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the adjusted carrying value assigned to an exposure type multiplied by the applicable risk weight under this subpart. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the System institution must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest applicable risk weight under this subpart and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest applicable risk weight under this subpart until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the System institution must use the highest applicable risk weight. A System institution may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.54-628.60" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.9.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.54-628.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.10" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.61" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.10.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 628.62 and 628.63 establish public disclosure requirements for each System bank related to the capital requirements contained in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.62" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.10.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.62   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A System bank must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 628.63. The System bank must make these disclosures in its quarterly and annual reports to shareholders required in part 620 of this chapter. The System bank need not make these disclosures in the format set out in the applicable tables or all in the same location in a report, as long as a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures is provided. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reported amounts are no longer reflective of the System bank's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter. This disclosure requirement may be satisfied by providing a notice under § 620.15 of this chapter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter (for example, a general summary of the System bank's risk management objectives and policies, reporting system, and definitions) may be disclosed annually after the end of the 4th calendar quarter, provided that any significant changes are disclosed in the interim.
</P>
<P>(b) A System bank must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over financial reporting, including the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. The chief executive officer, the chief financial officer, and a designated board member must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) If a System bank concludes that disclosure of specific proprietary or confidential commercial or financial information that it would otherwise be required to disclose under this section would compromise its position, then the System bank is not required to disclose that specific information pursuant to this section, but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.63" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.10.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.63   Disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 628.62, a System bank must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 10 of this section. The System bank must make these disclosures publicly available for each of the last 3 years (that is, 12 quarters) or such shorter period beginning on January 1, 2017.
</P>
<P>(b) A System bank must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
</P>
<P>(1) CET1 capital, tier 1 capital, and total capital ratios, including all the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements using month-end balances as they relate to its balance sheet in any applicable audited consolidated financial statements. The reconciliation must include a statement that compliance with the regulatory capital requirements outlined in subpart B of this part is determined using average daily balances for the most recent 3 months.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.63—Scope of Application
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The name of the top corporate entity in the group to which this subpart applies.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A brief description of the differences in the basis for consolidating entities 
<sup>2</sup> for accounting and regulatory purposes, with a description of those entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) That are fully consolidated;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) That are deconsolidated and deducted from total capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) For which the total capital requirement is deducted; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) That are neither consolidated nor deducted (for example, where the investment in the entity is assigned a risk weight in accordance with this subpart).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Any restrictions, or other major impediments, on transfer of funds or total capital within the group.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) [Reserved]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The aggregate amount by which actual total capital is less than the minimum total capital requirement in all subsidiaries, with total capital requirements and the name(s) of the subsidiaries with such deficiencies.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The System bank is the top corporate entity.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Entities include any subsidiaries authorized by the FCA, including operating subsidiaries, service corporations, and unincorporated business entities.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 628.63—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common cooperative equities
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">a. Statutory minimum purchased borrower stock;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">b. Other required member purchased stock;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">c. Allocated equities (stock or surplus):
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1. Qualified allocated equities subject to retirement;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2. Nonqualified allocated equities subject to retirement;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3. Nonqualified allocated equities not subject to retirement;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Unallocated retained earnings (URE);
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Paid-in capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common cooperative equities not included in common equity tier 1 capital;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to total capital, including deductions of third-party capital under § 628.23.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 628.63—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) A summary discussion of the System bank's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Risk-weighted assets for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to sovereign entities;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to certain supranational entities and MDBs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Exposures to GSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Exposures to depository institutions, foreign banks, and credit unions, including OFI exposures that are risk weighted as exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Exposures to PSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Corporate exposures, including borrower loans (including agricultural and consumer loans) and OFI exposures that are not risk weighted as exposures to U.S. depository institutions and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Residential mortgage exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) HVCRE exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9) Past due and nonaccrual exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10) Exposures to other assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11) Cleared transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12) Unsettled transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(13) Securitization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(14) Equity exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) [Reserved]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Common equity tier 1, tier 1 and total risk-based capital ratios for the System bank.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Total standardized risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 628.63—Capital Buffers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) At least quarterly, the System bank must calculate and publicly disclose the capital conservation buffer and leverage buffer as described under § 628.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) At least quarterly, the System bank must calculate and publicly disclose the eligible retained income of the System bank, as described under § 628.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) At least quarterly, the System bank must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the buffer framework described under § 628.11, including the maximum payout amount and/or maximum leverage payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>General qualitative disclosure requirement.</I> For each separate risk area described in tables 5 through 10 of this section, the System bank must describe its risk management objectives and policies, including: Strategies and processes; the structure and organization of the relevant risk management function; the scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges/mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 628.63 
<sup>1</sup>—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 6 of this section), including the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans in nonaccrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Definition of and policy for identifying impaired loans (for financial accounting purposes);


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Description of the methodology that the System bank uses to estimate its adjusted allowance for credit losses, including statistical methods used where applicable;






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Discussion of the System bank's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP, without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, System banks could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Geographic distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of impaired loans for which there was a related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of impaired loans for which there was no related allowance under GAAP;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and in nonaccrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>4</sup>


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the adjusted allowance for credit losses at the end of each period according to GAAP; and






</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Amount of impaired loans and, if available, the amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>5</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) Reconciliation of changes in adjusted allowance for credit losses.
<sup>6</sup>




</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Remaining contractual maturity delineation (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This Table 5 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 9 of this section.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> <E T="03">See</E>, for example, ASC Topic 815-10 and 210, as they may be amended from time to time.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> A System bank can satisfy this requirement by describing the geographic distribution of its loan portfolio by State or other significant geographic division, if any.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> A System bank is encouraged also to provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.




</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated credit losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.




</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to § 628.63—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk-Related Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The methodology used to assign credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The primary types of collateral taken; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The impact of the amount of collateral the System bank would have to provide given deterioration in the System bank's own creditworthiness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Gross positive fair value of contracts, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> A System bank also must disclose the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection and the distribution of current credit exposure by exposure type.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Notional amount of purchased credit derivatives used for the System bank's own credit portfolio.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering both the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to § 628.63—Credit Risk Mitigation
<sup>1 2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the System bank;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations with respect to credit risk mitigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) For each separately disclosed credit risk portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by eligible financial collateral, and after the application of haircuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives and the risk-weighted asset amount associated with that exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, a System bank must provide the disclosures in this Table 7 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, System banks are encouraged to give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives that are treated, for the purposes of this subpart, as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures and included within those relating to securitization (Table 8 of this section).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to § 628.63—Securitization 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to a securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The System bank's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the System bank to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (<E T="03">e.g.</E> liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the System bank in the securitization process 
<sup>3</sup> and an indication of the extent of the System bank's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The System bank's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the System bank follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) [Reserved]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Summary of the System bank's accounting policies for securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales or financings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart D of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the System bank to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) An explanation of significant changes to any quantitative information since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The total outstanding exposures securitized by the System bank in securitizations that meet the operational criteria provided in § 628.41 (categorized into traditional and synthetic securitizations), by exposure type.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) For exposures securitized by the System bank in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 628.41:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are impaired/past due categorized by exposure type; 
<sup>5</sup> and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the System bank during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>6</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) (1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> SSFA); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures that have been deducted entirely from tier 1 capital, CEIOs deducted from total capital (as described in § 628.42(a)(1)), and other exposures deducted from total capital should be disclosed separately by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j) Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k) Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> A System bank is not authorized to perform every role in a securitization, and nothing in these capital rules authorizes a System bank to engage in activities relating to securitizations that are not otherwise authorized.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> The System bank should describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description should be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the System bank is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Roles in securitizations generally could include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider. As noted in footnote 1 of this table, however, a System bank is not authorized to perform all of these roles.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the System bank, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the System bank's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the System bank from third-party entities) in which the originating System bank (as an originating System institution) does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception. System banks are required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> Include credit-related other than temporary impairment (OTTI).
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>6</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the System bank's balance sheet) or credit-related OTTI of interest-only strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the System bank with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to § 628.63—Equities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to equity risk:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those taken under other objectives including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity. This includes the accounting techniques and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Value disclosed on the balance sheet of investments, as well as the fair value of those investments; for securities that are publicly traded, a comparison to publicly quoted share values where the share price is materially different from fair value.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Publicly traded; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Non-publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) (1) Total unrealized gains (losses).
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Total latent revaluation gains (losses).
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) [Reserved]
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) recognized on the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either on the balance sheet or through earnings.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to § 628.63—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and behavior of non-maturity deposits, and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or market value of equity or other relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49779, July 28, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 54360, Oct. 1, 2021; 87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022; 89 FR 25130, Apr. 10, 2024]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 628.64-628.99" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.4.10.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 628.64-628.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts E-F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Transition Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.300" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.300   Transitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital conservation buffer.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) Beginning January 1, 2017 through December 31, 2019 a System institution's maximum capital conservation buffer payout ratio must be determined as set forth in Table 1 to § 628.300.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 628.300
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Transition Period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital conservation buffer
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum
<br/>payout ratio
<br/>(as a percentage of eligible retained
<br/>income)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2017</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;0.625 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.625 percent, and &gt;0.469 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.469 percent, and &gt;0.313 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.313 percent, and &gt;0.156 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.156 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2018</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1.25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1.25 percent, and &gt;0.938 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.938 percent, and &gt;0.625 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.625 percent, and &gt;0.313 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.313 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Calendar year 2019</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">&gt;1.875 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No limitation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1.875 percent, and &gt;1.406 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤1.406 percent, and &gt;0.938 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">40 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.938 percent, and &gt;0.469 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">20 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">≤0.469 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b)-(e) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 628.301" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 628.301   Initial compliance and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A System institution that fails to satisfy one or more of its minimum applicable CET1, tier 1, or total risk-based capital ratios or its tier 1 leverage ratio at the end of the quarter in which these regulations become effective shall report its initial noncompliance to the FCA within 20 days following such quarterend and shall also submit a capital restoration plan for achieving and maintaining the standards, demonstrating appropriate annual progress toward meeting the goal, to the FCA within 60 days following such quarterend. If the capital restoration plan is not approved by the FCA, the FCA will inform the institution of the reasons for disapproval, and the institution shall submit a revised capital restoration plan within the time specified by the FCA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval of compliance plans.</I> In determining whether to approve a capital restoration plan submitted under this section, the FCA shall consider the following factors, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions or circumstances leading to the institution's falling below minimum levels, the exigency of those circumstances, and whether or not they were caused by actions of the institution or were beyond the institution's control;
</P>
<P>(2) The overall condition, management strength, and future prospects of the institution and, if applicable, affiliated System institutions;
</P>
<P>(3) The institution's capital, adverse assets (including nonaccrual and nonperforming loans), ALL, and other ratios compared to the ratios of its peers or industry norms;
</P>
<P>(4) How far an institution's ratios are below the minimum requirements;
</P>
<P>(5) The estimated rate at which the institution can reasonably be expected to generate additional earnings;
</P>
<P>(6) The effect of the business changes required to increase capital;
</P>
<P>(7) The institution's previous compliance practices, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(8) The views of the institution's directors and senior management regarding the plan; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any other facts or circumstances that the FCA deems relevant.
</P>
<P>(c) An institution shall be deemed to be in compliance with the regulatory capital requirements of this subpart if it is in compliance with a capital restoration plan that is approved by the FCA within 180 days following the end of the quarter in which these regulations become effective.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.29.6.11.3.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 628—Loan-to-Value Limits for High Volatility Commercial Real Estate Exposures




</HEAD>
<P>Table A sets forth the loan-to-value limits specified in paragraph (2)(iv)(A) of the definition of high volatility commercial real estate exposure in § 628.2.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A: Loan-to-Value Limits for High Volatility Commercial Real Estate Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan-to-value


<br/>limit

<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Raw Land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Land development</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Construction:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Commercial, multifamily,
<sup>1</sup> and other non-residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">1- to 4-family residential</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Improved property</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Owner-occupied 1- to 4-family and home equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">
<sup>2</sup> 85
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Multifamily construction includes condominiums and cooperatives.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> If a loan is covered by private mortgage insurance, the loan-to-value (LTV) may exceed 85 percent to the extent that the loan amount in excess of 85 percent is covered by the insurance. If a loan is guaranteed by Federal, State, or other governmental agencies, the LTV limit is 97 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
<P>The loan-to-value limits should be applied to the underlying property that collateralizes the loan. For loans that fund multiple phases of the same real estate project (<I>e.g.,</I> a loan for both land development and construction of an office building), the appropriate loan-to-value limit is the limit applicable to the final phase of the project funded by the loan; however, loan disbursements should not exceed actual development or construction outlays. In situations where a loan is fully cross-collateralized by two or more properties or is secured by a collateral pool of two or more properties, the appropriate maximum loan amount under loan-to-value limits is the sum of the value of each property, less senior liens, multiplied by the appropriate loan-to-value limit for each property. To ensure that collateral margins remain within the limits, System institutions should redetermine conformity whenever collateral substitutions are made to the collateral pool.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 25130, Apr. 10, 2024, as amended at 91 FR 3029, Jan. 26, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="630" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 630—DISCLOSURE TO INVESTORS IN SYSTEMWIDE AND CONSOLIDATED BANK DEBT OBLIGATIONS OF THE FARM CREDIT SYSTEM 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.2, 4.9, 5.9, 5.17, 5.19 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2153, 2160, 2243, 2252, 2254); sec. 424, Pub. L. 100-233, 101 Stat. 1568, 1656 (12 U.S.C. 2252 note); sec. 514, Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102, 4134.






</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 46742, Sept. 12, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the requirements for preparation and publication by the Farm Credit System (FCS or System) of annual and quarterly reports to investors and potential investors in Systemwide and consolidated bank debt obligations of the System and to other users of the reports in the general public. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Bank</I> means any bank chartered under the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (Act). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined financial statements</I> means financial statements prepared on a combined basis by a group of affiliated entities that share the same financial interest, regardless of whether any of the entities has the ability to exercise control over another. For purposes of this part, unless otherwise specified, combined financial data of a bank and its related associations includes financial data of the bank's consolidated subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure entity</I> means any Farm Credit bank and the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation (Funding Corporation).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Engagement letter</I> means the proposal, contract, letter, and other documents reflecting the understandings between the audit committee or board of directors of a bank or an association and its independent public accountant regarding the scope, terms, and nature of the audit services to be performed. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Farm Credit System</I> means, collectively, the banks, associations, and such other institutions that are or may be made a part of the System under the Act, all of which are chartered by and subject to regulation by the Farm Credit Administration (FCA). For purposes of this part, the System does not include the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FCS debt obligation</I> means, collectively, notes, bonds, debentures, and other debt securities issued by banks pursuant to section 4.2(c) (consolidated bank debt securities) and section 4.2(d) (Systemwide debt securities) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Report to investors</I> or <I>report</I> means a report that presents the Systemwide combined financial statements, supplemental financial statement information, and related financial and nonfinancial information pertaining to the System required by this part. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Systemwide combined financial statements</I> means the combined financial statements required by this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46742, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 71 FR 76121, Dec. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.3   Publishing and filing the report to investors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The disclosure entities shall jointly publish the following reports in order to provide meaningful information pertaining to the financial condition and results of operations of the System to investors and potential investors in FCS debt obligations and other users of the report:
</P>
<P>(1) An annual report to investors within 75 calendar days after the end of each fiscal year;
</P>
<P>(2) A quarterly report to investors within 45 calendar days after the end of each quarter, except for the quarter that coincides with the end of the fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(3) Interim reports, as required by the Funding Corporation's written policies and procedures, disclosing significant events or material changes in information occurring since the most recently published report to investors.
</P>
<P>(b) Each report to investors shall present Systemwide combined financial statements and related footnotes deemed appropriate for the purpose of the report to provide investors with the most meaningful presentation pertaining to the financial condition and results of operations of the System. 
</P>
<P>(c) All items of essentially the same character as items required to be reported in the reports of condition and performance pursuant to part 621 of this chapter shall be prepared in accordance with the rules set forth in part 621 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each report to investors shall contain the information required by subparts B and C of this part, as applicable, and such other information as is necessary to make the required statements, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(e) Information in any part of the report may be referenced or incorporated in answer or partial answer to any other item of the report. Information required by this part may be presented in any order deemed suitable by the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(f) Information in documents prepared for investors in connection with the offering of debt securities issued through the Funding Corporation may be incorporated by reference in the annual and quarterly reports in answer or partial answer to any item required in the reports under this part. A complete description of any offering documents incorporated by reference must be clearly identified in the report (e.g., Federal Farm Credit Banks Consolidated System-wide Bonds and Discount Notes—Offering Circular issued on [insert date]). Offering documents incorporated by reference in either an annual or quarterly report prepared under this part must be filed with the Farm Credit Administration according to our instructions either prior to or at the time of submission of the report under paragraph (h) of this section. Any offering document incorporated by reference is subject to the delivery and availability requirements set forth in § 630.4(a)(5) and (a)(6).
</P>
<P>(g) The report shall include a statement in a prominent location that Systemwide debt securities and consolidated bank debt obligations are joint and several liabilities of individual banks and that copies of each bank's recent periodic reports to shareholders are available upon request. The report shall also include addresses and telephone numbers where copies of the report to investors and the periodic reports of individual banks can be obtained. Copies of the report to investors shall be available for public inspection at the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(h) Complete copies of the report must be filed with the Farm Credit Administration according to our instructions. All copies must comply with the requirements of § 630.5 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46724, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 15094, Mar. 31, 1997; 71 FR 76121, Dec. 20, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.4   Responsibilities for preparing the report to investors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the Funding Corporation.</I> The Funding Corporation shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Prepare the reports to investors required by § 630.3(a), including the Systemwide combined financial statements and notes thereto, and such other disclosures, supplemental information, and related analysis as are required by this part to make the reports meaningful and not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a system of internal controls sufficient to reasonably ensure that any information it releases to investors and the general public concerning any matter required to be disclosed by this part is true and that there are no omissions of material information. The system of internal controls, at a minimum, shall require that the Funding Corporation: 
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain written policies and procedures, approved by the System Audit Committee, to be carried out by the disclosure entities for preparation of the report to investors; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide instructions to the disclosure entities regarding the information needed for preparation of the Systemwide combined financial statements and disclosures required to be presented in the report to investors; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Review the information submitted to it for preparation of the report to investors, and make reasonable inquiries to ascertain whether the information is reliable, accurate, and complete; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Specify procedures for monitoring interim disclosures of System institutions and disclose, in a timely manner, any material changes in information contained in the most recently published report to investors. 
</P>
<P>(3) Collect from each disclosure entity financial data and related analyses and other information needed for preparation of the report to investors, including any information that is material to the disclosure entity. 
</P>
<P>(4) File the reports with the FCA in accordance with § 630.3(f) and (h) and § 630.5.
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure prompt delivery of sufficient copies of each report to selling group dealers for distribution to investors and potential investors in FCS debt obligations. 
</P>
<P>(6) Make the report available to the general public upon request. 
</P>
<P>(7) Notify the FCA if it is unable to prepare and publish the report to investors in compliance with the requirements of this part because one or more banks have failed to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. A notification, signed by the officer(s) designated by the board of directors of the Funding Corporation to certify the report to investors and by the chief executive officer, shall be made to the FCA as soon as the Funding Corporation becomes aware of its inability to comply. The Funding Corporation shall explain the reasons for the notification and may request that the FCA extend the due date for the report to investors. 
</P>
<P>(8) Include in the report a statement that briefly explains the respective responsibilities of the disclosure entities and states that the Funding Corporation has policies and procedures in place to ensure, to the best of the knowledge and belief of management and the board of the Funding Corporation, that the information contained in the report is true, accurate, and complete. The statement shall be signed by the chief executive officer and the chairperson of the board of the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(9) Request the FCA to provide information regarding the content of the latest Reports of Examination of any banks and related associations, if such information is necessary for preparation of a report that is meaningful and not misleading and is not forthcoming from a bank in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section. The request shall be made to the Chief Examiner, Farm Credit Administration, McLean, Virginia 22102-5090. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities of banks.</I> Each bank shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Provide to the Funding Corporation annual, quarterly, and interim financial and other information in accordance with instructions of the Funding Corporation for preparation of the report to investors, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) Financial data of the bank or, if the bank is required under generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) to prepare its financial statements on a consolidated basis with its subsidiaries, consolidated financial data of the bank and its consolidated subsidiaries; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Combined financial data of the bank (including any consolidated subsidiaries of the bank) and related associations of the bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Respond to Funding Corporation inquiries and provide any followup information requested by the Funding Corporation in connection with the preparation of the report to investors in accordance with instructions of the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the Funding Corporation promptly of any events occurring subsequent to publication of the report that may be material either to the financial condition and results of operations of the bank or to the combined financial condition and results of operations of the bank and its related associations. Furnish the Funding Corporation with any information necessary to provide interim Systemwide disclosure to investors to make the most recently published report to investors not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(4) Respond to inquiries from the Funding Corporation relating to preparation of the report.
</P>
<P>(5) Certify to the Funding Corporation that all information needed for preparation of the report to investors has been submitted in accordance with the instructions of the Funding Corporation and the information submitted complies with the signature and certification provisions of § 620.3(b) and (c), respectively.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities of associations.</I> Each association must:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide its related bank with the information necessary to allow the bank to provide accurate and complete information regarding the bank and its related associations to the Funding Corporation for preparation of the report. The financial information provided by the association to its related bank must be signed and certified in the same manner as provided in § 620.3(b) and (c), respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) Respond to inquiries of the related bank pertaining to preparation of the combined financial data of the association and its related bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46724, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 71 FR 76121, Dec. 20, 2006; 91 FR 3030, Jan. 26, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.5   Accuracy of reports and assessment of internal control over financial reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition against incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading disclosure.</I> Neither the Funding Corporation, nor any institution supplying information to the Funding Corporation under this part, nor any employee, officer, director, or nominee for director of the Funding Corporation or of such institutions, shall make or cause to be made any disclosure to investors and the general public required by this part that is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading. When any such institution or person makes or causes to be made disclosure under this part that, in the judgment of the FCA, is incomplete, inaccurate, or misleading, whether or not such disclosure is made in published statements required by this part, such institution or person shall promptly furnish to the Funding Corporation, and the Funding Corporation shall promptly publish, such additional or corrective disclosure as is necessary to provide full and fair disclosure to investors and the general public. Nothing in this section shall prevent the FCA from taking additional actions to enforce this section pursuant to its authority under title V, part C of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signatures.</I> The name and position title of each person signing the report must be printed beneath his or her signature. If any person required to sign the report has not signed the report, the name and position title of the individual and the reasons such individual is unable to, or refuses to, sign must be disclosed in the report. All reports must be dated and signed on behalf of the Funding Corporation by:
</P>
<P>(1) The chief executive officer (CEO);
</P>
<P>(2) The officer in charge of preparing financial statements; and
</P>
<P>(3) A board member formally designated by action of the board to certify reports of condition and performance on behalf of individual board members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification of financial accuracy.</I> The report must be certified as financially accurate by the signatories to the report. If any signatory is unable to, or refuses to, certify the report, the institution must disclose the individual's name and position title and the reason(s) such individual is unable or refuses to certify the report. At a minimum, the certification must include a statement that:
</P>
<P>(1) The signatories have reviewed the report,
</P>
<P>(2) The report has been prepared in accordance with all applicable statutory or regulatory requirements, and
</P>
<P>(3) The information is true, accurate, and complete to the best of signatories' knowledge and belief.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Management assessment of internal control over financial reporting.</I> (1) Annual reports must include a report by the Funding Corporation's management assessing the effectiveness of the internal control over financial reporting for the System-wide report to investors. The assessment must be conducted during the reporting period and be reported to the Funding Corporation's board of directors. Quarterly and annual reports must disclose any material change(s) in the internal control over financial reporting occurring during the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(2) The Funding Corporation must require its external auditor to issue an attestation report, which must express an opinion on the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting. The resulting attestation report must accompany management's assessment and be included in the annual report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 76121, Dec. 20, 2006, as amended at 72 FR 64130, Nov. 15, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.6   Funding Corporation committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>System Audit Committee.</I> The Funding Corporation must establish and maintain a System Audit Committee (SAC) by adopting a written charter describing the committee's composition, authorities, and responsibilities in accordance with this section. The SAC must maintain records of meetings, including attendance, for at least 3 fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Composition.</I> All SAC members should be knowledgeable in at least one of the following: Public and corporate finance, financial reporting and disclosure, or accounting procedures.
</P>
<P>(i) At least one-third of the SAC members must be representatives from the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P>(ii) The SAC may not consist of less than three members and at least one member must be a financial expert. A financial expert is one who either has experience with internal controls and procedures for financial reporting or experience in preparing or auditing financial statements.
</P>
<P>(iii) The chair of the SAC must be a financial expert.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independence.</I> Every audit committee member must be free from any relationship that, in the opinion of the Funding Corporation board, would interfere with the exercise of independent judgment as a committee member.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Resources.</I> The Funding Corporation must provide the SAC monetary and nonmonetary resources the SAC determines necessary to enable it to perform the duties listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section. The Funding Corporation must permit the SAC to contract, for reasons directly related to the duties listed in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, the services of external auditors, independent legal counsel, and outside advisors. The SAC must only use the resources of the Funding Corporation in a manner that complies with laws and regulations and for the purpose of preserving and promoting the safety and soundness of the System. The SAC must provide the Funding Corporation board of directors a quarterly accounting of expenditures made pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Duties.</I> The SAC reports only to the Funding Corporation board of directors. In its capacity as a committee of the board, the SAC is responsible for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial reports.</I> The SAC must oversee the Funding Corporation's preparation of the report to stockholders and investors; review the impact of any significant accounting and auditing developments; review accounting policy changes relating to preparation of the System-wide combined financial statements; and review annual and quarterly reports prior to release. After the SAC reviews a financial policy, procedure, or report, it must record in its minutes its agreement or disagreement with the item(s) under review.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>External auditors.</I> The external auditor must report directly to the SAC. The SAC must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine, with the agreement of the Funding Corporation board of directors, the appointment, compensation, and retention of the external auditors issuing System-wide audit reports;
</P>
<P>(B) Review the external auditor's work;
</P>
<P>(C) Give prior approval for any non-audit services performed by the external auditor, except the audit committee may not approve those non-audit services specifically prohibited by FCA regulation; and
</P>
<P>(D) Comply with the auditor independence provisions of part 621 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Internal controls.</I> The SAC must oversee the Funding Corporation's system of internal controls relating to preparation of financial reports, including controls relating to the Farm Credit System's compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation committee.</I> The Funding Corporation must establish and maintain a compensation committee by adopting a written charter describing the committee's composition, authorities, and responsibilities in accordance with this section. The compensation committee must report only to the board of directors. The compensation committee is required to maintain records of meetings, including attendance, for at least 3 fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Composition.</I> The committee must consist of at least three members and all members must be members of the Funding Corporation's board of directors. Every compensation committee member must be free from any relationship that, in the opinion of the board, would interfere with the exercise of independent judgment as a committee member.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Responsibilities.</I> It is the responsibility of the compensation committee to review the compensation policies and plans for senior officers and employees and to approve the overall compensation program for senior officers. In fulfilling its responsibilities, the compensation committee must document that it determined the:
</P>
<P>(i) Funding Corporation's projected long-term compensation and retirement benefit obligations are appropriate to the services performed and not excessive;
</P>
<P>(ii) Incentive-based compensation programs and payments are reasonable and proportionate to the services performed and structured so the payout schedule considers the potential for future losses or undue risks to the Funding Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Senior officer compensation, incentive, and benefit programs support the Funding Corporation's long-term business strategy and mission, as well as promote safe and sound business practices.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Resources.</I> The Funding Corporation must provide monetary and nonmonetary resources to enable its compensation committee to perform its duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 5767, Feb. 2, 2006, as amended at 71 FR 76122, Dec. 20, 2006; 77 FR 59052, Sept. 26, 2012; 77 FR 60602, Oct. 3, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Annual Report to Investors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.20   Contents of the annual report to investors.</HEAD>
<P>The annual report must contain the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description of business.</I> (1) The description shall include a brief discussion of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The System's overall organizational structure, its lending institutions by type and their respective authorities, the relationships between different types of institutions, and the overall geographic area and eligible borrowers served by those institutions; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The types of lending activities engaged in and financial services offered by System institutions; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any significant developments within the last 5 years that have had or could have a material impact on the System's organizational structure and the manner in which System institutions conduct business, including, but not limited to, statutory or regulatory changes, mergers or liquidations of System institutions, terminations of System institution status, and financial assistance provided by or to System institutions through loss-sharing or capital preservation agreements or from any other source; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any acquisition or disposition of material assets during the last fiscal year that took place outside the ordinary course of business; 
</P>
<P>(v) Any concentrations of more than 10 percent of total assets in particular types of agricultural activities or businesses, and any dependence of an institution or a group of institutions of the System upon a specific activity or business, a single customer, or a few customers, including other financing institutions (OFIs), the loss of any one of which would have a material effect on the System; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) The authority of System institutions to purchase and sell interests in loans in secondary markets and the risk involved in such activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) List the address of the headquarters of each disclosure entity and service corporation of the System. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal regulation and insurance</I>—(1) <I>Farm Credit Administration.</I> Describe the regulatory and enforcement authority of the FCA over System institutions under the Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</I> (i) Describe the role and authorities of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (FCSIC) under part E of title V of the Act. Describe specifically the role of the FCSIC in insuring the timely payment of principal and interest on FCS debt obligations and in providing assistance to System institutions. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the FCSIC's status as a Government corporation and state that System institutions have no control over the management of the FCSIC or the discretionary expenditures from the Farm Credit Insurance Fund (Insurance Fund), which are the sole prerogative of the FCSIC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Description of legal proceedings and enforcement actions.</I> (1) Describe any material pending legal proceedings in which one or more System institutions are a party, or that involve claims that a System institution(s) may be required by contract or operation of law to satisfy, and the potential impact of such proceedings, to the extent known, on the System. 
</P>
<P>(2) Provide a summary of the types of enforcement actions in effect during the year, and any material impact of such proceedings on the System. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Description of liabilities.</I> (1) Describe how the System funds its lending operations, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) System banks' authority to borrow, and issue notes, bonds, debentures, and other obligations, and limitations thereof under section 4.2 of the Act; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the types of debt obligations authorized to be issued under the Act, the types of debt obligations currently issued, the manner and form in which they are issued, rights of securities holders, risk factors, use of proceeds, tax effects of holding securities, market information, and other pertinent information; 
</P>
<P>(iii) For each of the types of obligations that may be issued, whether it is insured, and the extent of any joint and several liability for the obligations; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Any applicable statutory and regulatory requirements affecting a bank's ability to incur debt. 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe agreements among System banks and the Funding Corporation affecting a bank's ability to incur debt. 
</P>
<P>(3) Describe agreements among System institutions regarding capital preservation, loss sharing, or any other forms of financial assistance. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Description of capital.</I> (1) Describe the capitalization of the System, including capital structure, types of stock and participation certificates, and voting rights of holders of stock and participation certificates. 
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the statutory requirement that a borrower purchase stock as a condition of obtaining a loan; how such stock is purchased, transferred, and retired; and how earnings are distributed. 
</P>
<P>(3) Describe any statutory or other authority of a System institution to require additional capital contributions from stockholders. 
</P>
<P>(4) Describe regulatory minimum permanent capital standards and capital adequacy requirements for banks and associations. State the number of institutions, if any, categorized by banks and associations, that are not currently in compliance with such standards and include a brief discussion of the reasons for the noncompliance. 
</P>
<P>(5) Describe any statutory and regulatory restrictions on retirement of stock and distribution of earnings by System institutions. State the number of System institutions, if any, categorized by banks and associations, that are currently affected by such restrictions and provide a summary of the causes of such prohibitions. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Selected financial data.</I> At a minimum, furnish the following combined financial data of the System in comparative columnar form for each of the last 5 fiscal years, if material.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Balance sheet.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) Loans. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Allowance for credit losses. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Net loans. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Cash and investments. 
</P>
<P>(v) Other property owned. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Total assets. 
</P>
<P>(vii) FCS debt obligations and other bonds, notes, debentures, and obligations, presented by type, with a descriptive title. 
</P>
<P>(viii) Total liabilities. 
</P>
<P>(ix) Capital stock and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of income.</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) Net interest income. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Net other expenses. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision for credit losses. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Extraordinary items. 
</P>
<P>(v) Provision for income taxes. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Net income (loss). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Key financial ratios.</I> (i) Return on average assets. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Return on average capital stock and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Net interest income as a percentage of average earning assets. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Net loan chargeoffs as a percentage of average loans. 
</P>
<P>(v) Allowance for credit losses as a percentage of gross loans outstanding at yearend. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Capital stock and surplus as a percentage of total assets at yearend. 
</P>
<P>(vii) Debt to capital stock and surplus at yearend. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Discussion and analysis.</I> Fully discuss any material aspects of financial condition, changes in financial condition, and results of operations of System institutions, on a combined basis, for the comparative years required by paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section or such other time periods specified in the following paragraphs of this section. Identify favorable and unfavorable trends, and significant events or uncertainties necessary to understand the financial condition and results of operations of the System. At a minimum, the discussion shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan portfolio</I>—(i) <I>Categorization.</I> Describe the loan portfolio of the System by major loan purpose category, indicating the amount and approximate percentage of the total dollar portfolio represented by each major category. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk exposure.</I> (A) Describe and analyze all high-risk assets, including an analysis of the nature and extent of significant current and potential credit risks within the loan portfolio and of other information that could adversely affect the loan portfolio and other property owned. 


</P>
<P>(B) An analysis of the allowance for credit losses to loans and net chargeoffs to average loans and a discussion of the adequacy of the allowance for credit losses given reasonable and supportable forecasts.






</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Secondary market activities.</I> (A) If material, quantify System institutions' secondary market activities and the risk involved in such activities. 
</P>
<P>(B) If material, provide an analysis of historical loss experience and the amount provided for risk of loss associated with secondary market activities. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Results of operations.</I> (i) Describe, on a comparative basis, changes in the major components of net interest income. Include a discussion of significant factors that contributed to the changes and quantify the amount of change(s) due to an increase or decrease in volume and the amount due to changes in interest rates earned and paid, based on averages for each period. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe any unusual or infrequent events or transactions, or any significant economic changes that materially affected reported income and, in each case, indicate the extent to which income was so affected. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Discuss the factors underlying any material changes in the return on average assets and return on average capital stock and surplus. 
</P>
<P>(iv) Describe, on a comparative basis, the major components of operating expense and any other significant components of income or expense, indicating the reasons for any significant increases or decreases. 
</P>
<P>(v) Describe any known trends or uncertainties that have had, or that are reasonably expected to have, a material impact on net interest income or net income. Disclose any known events that will cause a material change in the relationship between costs and revenues. 
</P>
<P>(vi) Explain the changes that have taken place, by major components on a comparative basis, in Insurance Fund assets and related restricted capital and how such changes affected reported income. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Funding sources and liquidity</I>—(i) <I>Funding sources.</I> (A) Provide, in tabular form, the component amounts and the total amount of FCS debt obligations, debt obligations issued by banks individually, and Financial Assistance Corporation debt obligations outstanding at yearend for each of the past 2 fiscal years. List debt obligations issued by System institutions separately by type, also separating insured obligations from uninsured obligations. For each type of debt obligation listed, provide the following, at a minimum, for each fiscal year listed: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The beginning balance, the total amount of debt issued, the total amount of debt retired, and the yearend balance; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The average maturities and average interest rates on debt outstanding at yearend, and the average maturities and average interest rates of new debt issued during the year. 
</P>
<P>(B) Summarize any other sources of funds, including lines of credit with commercial lenders, and their terms. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidity.</I> (A) Include a brief overview of any FCA regulations or System policies with regard to liquidity and liquidity reserves. 
</P>
<P>(B) Identify any known trends, demands, commitments, events, or uncertainties that will result in, or that are reasonably likely to result in, System liquidity increasing or decreasing in any material way. If a material liquidity deficiency is identified, indicate the course of action that has been taken or is proposed to be taken by management of affected System institutions to remedy the deficiency. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Investment.</I> Provide a brief overview of the System's investment policies and objectives, any regulatory limitations thereon, and the contents of the System's existing investment portfolio. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Interest rate sensitivity.</I> (A) Provide a brief overview of the System's asset and liability management practices, including interest rate risk measurement systems, and methods used to control interest rate risk, such as the use of investments, derivatives, and other off-balance-sheet transactions. 
</P>
<P>(B) Provide an analysis of the System's exposure to interest rate risk and its ability to control such risk.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital resources.</I> (i) Describe any material commitments to purchase capital assets and the anticipated sources of funding. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe any material trends, favorable or unfavorable, in the System's capital resources, including any material changes in the mix of capital and debt, the relative cost of capital resources, and any off-balance- sheet financing arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a general discussion of any trends, commitments, contingencies, or events that are reasonably likely to have a material adverse effect on System institutions' ability to comply with regulatory capital standards. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Insurance Fund.</I> (i) Describe the purposes for which expenditures from the Insurance Fund may be made and the statutory requirements for making such expenditures. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide a schedule itemizing the amount of Insurance Fund assets that have been specifically identified by the FCSIC for payment of estimated obligations of the FCSIC and the amount of Insurance Fund assets for which no specific use has been identified or designated by the FCSIC. Information provided shall be as of the end of the most recent fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain how FCSIC expenditures or designations of Insurance Fund assets for payment of future obligations affect the combined assets and capital of the System, and quantify the effect, if any. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Instructions for discussion and analysis.</I> (i) The purpose of the discussion and analysis (D&amp;A) shall be to provide to investors and other users information relevant to an assessment of the combined financial condition and results of operations of System institutions as determined by evaluating the amounts and certainty of cashflows from operations and from outside sources. The information provided pursuant to this section need only include that which is available to System institutions and which does not clearly appear in the combined financial statements. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The D&amp;A of the financial statements and other statistical data shall be presented in a manner designed to enhance a reader's understanding of the combined financial condition, results of operations, cashflows, and changes in capital of System institutions. Unless otherwise specified in § 630.20(g), the discussion shall cover the period covered by the financial statements and shall use year-to-year comparisons or any other understandable format. Where trend information is relevant, reference to the 5-year selected financial data required by paragraph (f) of this section may be necessary. 
</P>
<P>(iii) The D&amp;A shall focus specifically on material events and uncertainties known at the time of reporting that would cause reported financial information not to be necessarily indicative of future operating results or of future financial condition. This should include descriptions and amounts of: 
</P>
<P>(A) Matters that would have an impact on future operations but that have not had an impact in the past; and 
</P>
<P>(B) Matters that have had an impact on reported operations but are not expected to have an impact on future operations. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Directors and management</I>—(1) <I>Board of directors.</I> Briefly describe the composition of boards of directors of the disclosure entities. List the name of each director of such entities, including the director's term of office and principal occupation during the past 5 years, or state that such information is available upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Senior officers.</I> List the names of all senior officers employed by the disclosure entities, including position title and length of service at current position. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Compensation of directors and senior officers.</I> State that information on the compensation of directors and senior officers of Farm Credit banks is contained in each bank's annual report to shareholders and that the annual report of each bank is available to investors upon request pursuant to § 630.3(g). </P>
<P>(j) <I>Related party transactions.</I> (1) Briefly describe how System institutions, in the ordinary course of business and subject to regulation by the FCA, may enter into loan transactions with related parties, including their directors, officers, and employees, the immediate family members (as defined in § 620.1(e) of this chapter) of such persons, and any organizations with which such persons and their immediate family members are affiliated. 
</P>
<P>(2) On a comparative basis for each of the fiscal years covered by the balance sheet, state the aggregate amount of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Loans made to related parties; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Loans outstanding at yearend to related parties; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Loans outstanding at yearend to related parties that are made on more favorable terms than those prevailing at the time for comparable transactions with unrelated borrowers; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Loans outstanding at yearend to related parties that involve more than a normal risk of collectibility (as defined in § 620.1(i) of this chapter). 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Relationship with qualified public accountant.</I> (1) If a change in the qualified public accountant who has previously examined and expressed an opinion on the System-wide combined financial statements has taken place since the last annual report to investors or if a disagreement with a qualified public accountant has occurred that the Funding Corporation would be required to report to the FCA under part 621 of this chapter, disclose the information required by § 621.4(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose the total fees paid during the reporting period to the qualified public accountant by the category of services provided. At a minimum, identify fees paid for audit services, tax services, and non-audit services. The types of non-audit services must be identified and indicate audit committee approval of the services.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Financial statements.</I> Furnish System-wide combined financial statements and related footnotes prepared in accordance with GAAP, and accompanied by supplemental information prepared in accordance with the requirements of § 630.20(m). The System-wide combined financial statements shall provide investors and potential investors in FCS debt obligations with the most meaningful presentation pertaining to the financial condition and results of operations of the System. The System-wide combined financial statement and accompanying supplemental information shall be audited in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a qualified public accountant. The System-wide combined financial statements shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A balance sheet as of the end of each of the 2 most recent fiscal years; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of income, statements of changes in capital stock and surplus (or, if applicable, statements of changes in protected borrower capital and capital stock and surplus), and statements of cash flows for each of the 3 most recent fiscal years. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Supplemental information.</I> Furnish supplemental information regarding the components of the Systemwide combined financial statements that has been prepared in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph and any additional guidance or instructions provided by the FCA. 
</P>
<P>(1) At a minimum, the supplemental information shall include the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) Supplemental balance sheet information as of the end of the most recent fiscal year; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Supplemental income statement information for the most recently completed fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(2) At a minimum, the report shall present supplemental information showing combined financial data for the following components on a stand-alone basis: 
</P>
<P>(i) Banks; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Associations; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Combined financial data of the System without the Insurance Fund; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Insurance Fund and related combination entries; and 
</P>
<P>(v) Combined financial data of the System with the Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>(3) The supplemental information shall be presented in a columnar format and include, at a minimum, the selected financial data listed in the schedules in appendix A of this part. The prescribed components shall be designated as column headings and they may be abbreviated in the schedules. The financial data required by § 630.20(m)(2)(i) shall include the financial data required to be submitted by each bank pursuant to the requirement of § 630.4(c)(1)(i). 
</P>
<P>(4) The supplemental information may be presented separately or in accompanying notes to the Systemwide combined financial statements and shall contain additional disclosures sufficient to explain the basis of the presentation of the supplemental information, the components, and any adjustments contained therein to enable readers to understand the effect of each component on the Systemwide combined financial statements. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>System Audit Committee.</I> The Funding Corporation must include in the System-wide Report to Investors a description of the System Audit Committee and its activities during the reporting period. At a minimum, the description must:
</P>
<P>(1) List the names of the System Audit Committee members, including each member's term of office and principal occupation during the past 5 years. For each member, state the total cash and noncash compensation paid for services on the System Audit Committee during the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose by category the monetary and nonmonetary resources used by the System Audit Committee during the reporting period. Discuss only those categories where the resources used within a category equaled or exceeded a total aggregate value of $5,000 during the reporting period. Fees paid for the audit of the System-wide financial statements, which are disclosed under paragraph (k)(2) of this section, are not included in any category under this paragraph. At a minimum, there must be separate categories for:
</P>
<P>(i) Administrative expenses,
</P>
<P>(ii) Contracted legal services,
</P>
<P>(iii) Contracted consultants and advisors, and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other contracted services, identifying the services. 
</P>
<P>(o) Include a detailed index setting forth the major disclosure captions of this subpart and the page or pages on which the required information appears in the report. 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Credit and services to young, beginning, and small farmers and ranchers and producers or harvesters of aquatic products.</I> The Farm Credit banks must include a report on consolidated YBS lending data of their affiliated associations. The report must include the definitions of “young,” “beginning,” and “small” farmers and ranchers. A narrative report may be necessary for an ample understanding of the YBS mission results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46742, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 63 FR 36549, July 7, 1998; 69 FR 16471, Mar. 30, 2004; 71 FR 5767, Feb. 2, 2006; 71 FR 76122, Dec. 20, 2006; 77 FR 59052, Sept. 26, 2012; 78 FR 31835, May 28, 2013; 79 FR 17856, Mar. 31, 2014; 87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quarterly Reports to Investors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 630.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 630.40   Contents of the quarterly report to investors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The quarterly report to investors shall contain the information specified in this section along with any other material information necessary to make the required disclosures, in light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading. The quarterly report must be presented in a format that is easily understandable and not misleading. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules for condensation.</I> For purposes of this subpart, major captions to be provided in interim financial statements are the same as those provided in the financial statements contained in the annual report to investors, except that the financial statements included in the quarterly report may be condensed into major captions in accordance with the rules prescribed under this paragraph. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interim balance sheets.</I> When any major balance sheet caption is less than 10 percent of total assets and the amount in the caption has not increased or decreased by more than 25 percent since the end of the preceding fiscal year, the caption may be combined with others. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interim statements of income.</I> When any major income statement caption is less than 15 percent of average net income for the 3 most recent fiscal years and the amount in the caption has not increased or decreased by more than 20 percent since the corresponding interim period of the preceding fiscal year, the caption may be combined with others. In calculating average net income, loss years should be excluded. If losses were incurred in each of the 3 most recent fiscal years, the average loss shall be used for purposes of this test. 
</P>
<P>(3) The interim financial information shall include disclosure either on the face of the financial statements or in accompanying footnotes sufficient to make the interim information presented not misleading. It may be presumed that users of the interim financial information have read or have access to the audited financial statements for the preceding fiscal year, and the adequacy of additional disclosure needed for a fair presentation may be determined in that context. Accordingly, footnote disclosure that would substantially duplicate the disclosure contained in the most recent audited financial statements (such as a statement of significant accounting policies and practices) and details of accounts that have not changed significantly in amount or composition since the end of the most recently completed fiscal year may be omitted. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interim reports shall disclose events that have occurred subsequent to the end of the most recently completed fiscal year that have a material impact on the System. Disclosures should encompass, for example, significant changes since the end of the most recently completed fiscal year in such items as accounting principles and practices, estimates used in the preparation of financial statements, status of long-term contracts, capitalization, significant new indebtedness or modification of existing financing agreements, financial assistance received, significant business combinations and liquidations of System institutions, and terminations of System institution status. Notwithstanding the provisions of this paragraph, where material contingencies exist, disclosure of such matters shall be provided even though a significant change since yearend may not have occurred. 
</P>
<P>(5) In addition to meeting the reporting requirements specified by existing accounting pronouncements for accounting changes, state the date of any material accounting change and the reasons for making it. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any material prior period adjustment made during any period covered by the interim financial statements shall be disclosed, together with its effect upon net income and upon the balance of surplus for any prior period included. If results of operations for any period presented have been adjusted retroactively by such an item subsequent to the initial reporting of such period, similar disclosure of the effect of the change shall be made. 
</P>
<P>(7) Interim financial statements furnished shall reflect all adjustments that are necessary to a fair statement of the results for the interim periods presented. A statement to that effect shall be included. Furnish any material information necessary to make the information called for not misleading, such as a statement that the results for interim periods are not necessarily indicative of results to be expected for the year. 
</P>
<P>(8) If any amount that would otherwise be required to be shown by this section with respect to any item is not material, it need not be separately shown. The combination of insignificant items is permitted. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discussion and analysis of interim financial condition and results of operations.</I> Discuss any material changes to the information disclosed to investors pursuant to § 630.20(g) that have occurred during the periods specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section. Provide any additional information needed to enable the reader to assess material changes in financial condition and results of operations between the periods specified in paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Material changes in financial condition.</I> Discuss any material changes in financial condition from the end of the preceding fiscal year to the date of the most recent interim balance sheet provided. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Material changes in results of operations.</I> Discuss any material changes in the combined results of operations of the System with respect to the most recent fiscal year-to-date period for which an income statement is provided and the corresponding year-to-date period of the preceding fiscal year. Such discussion shall also cover material changes with respect to the most recent fiscal quarter and the corresponding fiscal quarter in the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial statements.</I> Interim combined financial statements must be provided in the quarterly report to investors as set forth in paragraphs (d)(1) through (4). Indicate that the financial statements were prepared under the oversight of the System Audit Committee. 
</P>
<P>(1) An interim balance sheet as of the end of the most recent fiscal quarter and a balance sheet as of the end of the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(2) Interim statements of income for the most recent fiscal quarter, for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable periods for the previous fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(3) Interim statements of changes in capital stock and surplus (or, if applicable, interim statements of changes in protected borrower capital and capital stock and surplus) for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable period for the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(4) Interim statements of cash flows for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter, and for the comparable period for the preceding fiscal year. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supplemental information.</I> The interim report shall present supplemental information in accordance with the requirements of § 630.20 (m)(2), (m)(3), and (m)(4), as well as other requirements and instructions of the FCA, and shall include, at a minimum, the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Supplemental balance sheet information as of the end of the most recent quarter; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Supplemental income statement information for the period between the end of the preceding fiscal year and the end of the most recent fiscal quarter. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review by independent public accountant.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the FCA as a result of a supervisory action, the interim financial statements and supplemental information need not be audited or reviewed by an independent public accountant prior to filing. If, however, a review of the report is made in accordance with the established professional standards and procedures for such a review, a statement that the independent accountant has performed such a review may be included. If such a statement is made, the report of the independent accountant on such review shall accompany the interim financial information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 46742, Sept. 12, 1994, as amended at 71 FR 5768, Feb. 2, 2006]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.30.3.11.2.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 630—Supplemental Information Disclosure Guidelines


</HEAD>
<P>Supplemental information required by §§ 630.20(m) and 630.40(e) shall contain, at a minimum, the current year financial data for the components listed in the following tables and be presented in the columnar format illustrated in the following tables:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Supplemental Balance Sheet Information
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Banks 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Associations 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Financial
<br/>assistance
<br/>corporation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eliminations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined without
<br/>insurance fund 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Insurance fund and related combination entries
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined
<br/>with insurance
<br/>fund
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash and investments
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net loans
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restricted assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other Assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total assets
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total liabilities
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Protected borrower capital 
<sup>4</sup>
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restricted capital
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Capital stock and surplus
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Total liabilities, protected borrower capital, and capital stock and surplus
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Provided combined financial data of all FCS banks, including any consolidated subsidiaries of the banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Provide association-only combined financial data of all FCS associations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Provide the combined financial data of all columns on the left.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> Any item that is no longer applicable, <E T="03">e.g., protected borrower stock, may be omitted.</E></P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Supplemental Income Statement Information
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Banks 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Associations 
<sup>2</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Financial
<br/>assistance
<br/>corporation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Eliminations
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined without
<br/>insurance
<br/>fund 
<sup>3</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Insurance fund and related combination entries
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Combined with insurance fund
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Net interest income
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Provision for credit losses
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other income
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other expenses
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Net Income
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Provide combined financial data of all FCS banks, including any consolidated subsidiaries of the banks.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Provide association-only combined financial data of all FCS associations.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Provide the combined financial data of all columns on the left.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 27493, May 9, 2022]





</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="650" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 650—FEDERAL AGRICULTURAL MORTGAGE CORPORATION GENERAL PROVISIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.12, 5.9, 5.17, 5.25, 8.11, 8.12, 8.31, 8.32, 8.33, 8.34, 8.35, 8.36, 8.37, 8.41 of Pub. L. 92-181, 85 Stat. 583 (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2243, 2252, 2261, 2279aa-11, 2279aa-12, 2279bb, 2279bb-1, 2279bb-2, 2279bb-3, 2279bb-4, 2279bb-5, 2279bb-6, 2279cc); sec. 514 of Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102; sec. 118 of Pub. L. 104-105, 110 Stat. 168.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 43636, Aug. 15, 1997. Redesignated at 70 FR 40650, July 14, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Regulation, Examination and Enforcement</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 49151, July 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 650.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>Authorizing statut</I>e means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day the Corporation is open for business, excluding the legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> or <I>Farmer Mac</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration, an independent Federal agency of the executive branch.
</P>
<P><I>NYSE</I> means the New York Stock Exchange, a listing exchange.
</P>
<P><I>OSMO</I> means the FCA Office of Secondary Market Oversight, which is responsible for the general supervision of the safe and sound exercise of the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties and compliance with laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Our</I> or <I>we</I> means the FCA or OSMO, as appropriate to the context of the provision employing the term.
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Act</I> means the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>) or the Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), or both, as appropriate to the context of the provision employing the term.
</P>
<P><I>Signed,</I> when referring to paper form, means a manual signature, and, when referring to electronic form, means marked in a manner that authenticates each signer's identity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.2   Regulatory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Corporation is a for-profit Government-sponsored enterprise developed to provide a secondary market for qualified agricultural, USDA-guaranteed, and rural utility loans, with public policy objectives included in its statutory charter. The Corporation is regulated by the FCA, operating through OSMO. The Corporation also lists securities on the NYSE, making it subject to certain SEC listing and disclosure requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Primary regulator.</I> The FCA, operating through OSMO, holds primary regulatory, examination, and enforcement authority over the Corporation. The FCA, operating through OSMO, is responsible for the general supervision of the safe and sound exercise of the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties and compliance with applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other regulatory authorities.</I> The Corporation registers its common stock and certain offerings of Farmer Mac Guaranteed Securities under the Securities Act and related regulations so must comply with certain SEC reporting requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.3   Supervision and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The Act provides FCA, acting through OSMO, with enforcement authority to protect the financial safety and soundness of the Corporation and to ensure that the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties are exercised in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General supervision.</I> When we determine the Corporation has violated a law, rule, or regulation or is engaging in an unsafe or unsound condition or practice, we have enforcement authority that includes, but is not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue an order to cease and desist;
</P>
<P>(2) Issue a temporary order to cease and desist;
</P>
<P>(3) Assess civil monetary penalties against the Corporation and its directors, officers, employees, and agents; and
</P>
<P>(4) Issue an order to suspend, remove, or prohibit directors and officers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial safety and soundness of the Corporation.</I> When we determine the Corporation is taking excessive risks that adversely impact the adequacy of Regulatory Capital, we have authority to address that risk. This includes, but is not limited to, requiring capital restoration plans, restricting dividend distributions, requiring changes in the Corporation's obligations and assets, requiring the acquisition of new capital and restricting those Corporation activities determined to create excessive risk to the Corporation's Regulatory Capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.4   Access to Corporation records and personnel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation must make its records available promptly upon request by OSMO, at a location and in a form and manner acceptable to OSMO.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation must make directors, officers, employees and other individuals or entities engaged by the Corporation to participate in the conduct of the Corporation's business available to OSMO during the course of an examination or supervisory action when OSMO determines it necessary to facilitate an examination or supervisory action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.5   Reports of examination.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation is subject to the provisions in 12 CFR part 602 regarding FCA Reports of Examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.6" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.6   Criminal referrals.</HEAD>
<P>The rules at 12 CFR part 612, subpart B, regarding “Referral of Known or Suspected Criminal Violations” are applicable to the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Conservators, Receivers, and Liquidations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.10   Voluntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation may voluntarily liquidate by a resolution of its board of directors, but only with the consent of, and in accordance with a plan of liquidation approved by, the Farm Credit Administration Board. Upon adoption of such resolution, the Corporation shall submit the resolution and proposed voluntary liquidation plan to the Farm Credit Administration Board for preliminary approval. The Farm Credit Administration Board, in its discretion, may appoint a receiver as part of an approved liquidation plan. If a receiver is appointed for the Corporation as part of a voluntary liquidation, the receivership shall be conducted pursuant to the regulations of this part, except to the extent that an approved plan of liquidation provides otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the Farm Credit Administration Board gives preliminary approval to the liquidation plan, the board of directors of the Corporation shall submit the resolution to liquidate to the stockholders for a vote in accordance with the bylaws of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Farm Credit Administration Board will consider final approval of the resolution to voluntarily liquidate and the liquidation plan after an affirmative stockholder vote on the resolution. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.13" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.13   Grounds for appointment of a receiver or conservator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The grounds for the appointment of a receiver or conservator for the Corporation are: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation is insolvent. For purposes of this paragraph, insolvent means: 
</P>
<P>(i) The assets of the Corporation are less than its obligations to its creditors and others; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Corporation is unable to pay its debts as they fall due in the ordinary course of business; 
</P>
<P>(2) There has been a substantial dissipation of the assets or earnings of the Corporation due to the violation of any law, rule, or regulation, or the conduct of an unsafe or unsound practice; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Corporation is in an unsafe or unsound condition to transact business; 
</P>
<P>(4) The Corporation has committed a willful violation of a final cease-and-desist order issued by the Farm Credit Administration Board; 
</P>
<P>(5) The Corporation is concealing its books, papers, records, or assets, or is refusing to submit its books, papers, records, assets, or other material relating to the affairs of the Corporation for inspection to any examiner or any lawful agent of the Farm Credit Administration Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the grounds set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, a receiver can be appointed for the Corporation if the Farm Credit Administration Board determines that the appointment of a conservator would not be appropriate when one of the following conditions exists: 
</P>
<P>(1) The authority of the Corporation to purchase qualified loans or issue or guarantee loan-backed securities is suspended; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation is classified under section 8.35 of the Act as within enforcement level III or IV and the alternative actions available under subtitle B of title VIII of the Act are not satisfactory. 
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the grounds set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, a conservator can be appointed for the Corporation if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation is classified under section 8.35 of the Act as within enforcement level III or IV; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The authority of the Corporation to purchase qualified loans or issue or guarantee loan-backed securities is suspended. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 43636, Aug. 15, 1997. Redesignated at 70 FR 40650, July 14, 2005. Further redesignated at 81 FR 49151, July 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.14" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.14   Action for removal of receiver or conservator.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the appointment of a receiver or conservator for the Corporation by the Farm Credit Administration Board pursuant to § 650.50 of this subpart, the Corporation may, within 30 days of such appointment, bring an action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the Farm Credit Administration Board to remove the receiver or conservator and, if the charter has been canceled, to rescind the cancellation of the charter. Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, the Corporation's board of directors is empowered to meet subsequent to such appointment and authorize the filing of an action for removal. An action for removal may be authorized only by the Corporation's board of directors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 43636, Aug. 15, 1997. Redesignated at 70 FR 40650, July 14, 2005. Further redesignated at 81 FR 49151, July 27, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.15   Appointment of a receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit Administration Board may in its discretion appoint, ex parte and without prior notice, a receiver for the Corporation provided that one or more of the grounds for appointment as set forth in § 650.50 of this subpart exist. 
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the appointment of the receiver, the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration Board shall immediately notify the Corporation and shall publish a notice of the appointment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the issuance of the order placing the Corporation into liquidation and appointing the receiver, all rights, privileges, and powers of the board of directors, officers, and employees of the Corporation shall be vested exclusively in the receiver. The Farm Credit Administration Board may cancel the charter of the Corporation on such date as the Farm Credit Administration Board determines is appropriate, but not later than the conclusion of the receivership and discharge of the receiver. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.20   Powers and duties of the receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) Upon appointment as receiver, the receiver shall take possession of the Corporation in order to wind up the business operations of the Corporation, collect the debts owed to the Corporation, liquidate its property and assets, pay its creditors, and distribute the remaining proceeds to stockholders. The receiver is authorized to exercise all powers necessary to the efficient termination of the Corporation's operation as provided for in this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) Upon its appointment as receiver, the receiver automatically succeeds to: 
</P>
<P>(i) All rights, titles, powers, and privileges of the Corporation and of any stockholder, officer, or director of the Corporation with respect to the Corporation and the assets of the Corporation; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Title to the books, records, and assets of the Corporation in the possession of any other legal custodian of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(3) The receiver of the Corporation serves as the trustee of the receivership estate and conducts its operations for the benefit of the creditors and stockholders of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific powers.</I> The receiver may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise all powers as are conferred upon the officers and directors of the Corporation under law and the charter, articles, and bylaws of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(2) Take any action the receiver considers appropriate or expedient to carry on the business of the Corporation during the process of liquidating its assets and winding up its affairs. 
</P>
<P>(3) Borrow funds in accordance with section 8.41(f) of the Act to meet the ongoing administrative expenses or other liquidity needs of the receivership. 
</P>
<P>(4) Pay any sum the receiver deems necessary or advisable to preserve, conserve, or protect the Corporation's assets or property or rehabilitate or improve such property and assets. 
</P>
<P>(5) Pay any sum the receiver deems necessary or advisable to preserve, conserve, or protect any asset or property on which the Corporation has a lien or in which the Corporation has a financial or property interest, and pay off and discharge any liens, claims, or charges of any nature against such property. 
</P>
<P>(6) Investigate any matter related to the conduct of the business of the Corporation, including, but not limited to, any claim of the Corporation against any individual or entity, and institute appropriate legal or other proceedings to prosecute such claims. 
</P>
<P>(7) Institute, prosecute, maintain, defend, intervene, and otherwise participate in any legal proceeding by or against the Corporation or in which the Corporation or its creditors or stockholders have any interest, and represent in every way the Corporation, its stockholders and creditors. 
</P>
<P>(8) Employ attorneys, accountants, appraisers, and other professionals to give advice and assistance to the receivership generally or on particular matters, and pay their retainers, compensation, and expenses, including litigation costs. 
</P>
<P>(9) Hire any agents or employees necessary for proper administration of the receivership. 
</P>
<P>(10) Execute, acknowledge, and deliver, in person or through a general or specific delegation, any instrument necessary for any authorized purpose, and any instrument executed under this paragraph shall be valid and effective as if it had been executed by the Corporation's officers by authority of its board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(11) Sell for cash or otherwise any mortgage, deed of trust, chose in action, note, contract, judgment or decree, stock, or debt owed to the Corporation, or any property (real or personal, tangible or intangible). 
</P>
<P>(12) Purchase or lease office space, automobiles, furniture, equipment, and supplies, and purchase insurance, professional, and technical services necessary for the conduct of the receivership. 
</P>
<P>(13) Release any assets or property of any nature, regardless of whether the subject of pending litigation, and repudiate, with cause, any lease or executory contract the receiver considers burdensome. 
</P>
<P>(14) Settle, release, or obtain release of, for cash or other consideration, claims and demands against or in favor of the Corporation or receiver. 
</P>
<P>(15) Pay, out of the assets of the Corporation, all expenses of the receivership (including compensation to personnel employed to represent or assist the receiver) and all costs of carrying out or exercising the rights, powers, privileges, and duties as receiver. 
</P>
<P>(16) Pay, out of the assets of the Corporation, all approved claims of indebtedness in accordance with the priorities established in this part. 
</P>
<P>(17) Take all actions and have such rights, powers, and privileges as are necessary and incident to the exercise of any specific power. 
</P>
<P>(18) Take such actions, and have such additional rights, powers, privileges, immunities, and duties as the Farm Credit Administration Board authorizes by order or by amendment of any order or by regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.25" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.25   Report to Congress.</HEAD>
<P>On a determination by the receiver that there are insufficient assets of the receivership to pay all valid claims against the receivership, the receiver shall submit to the Secretary of the Treasury and Congress a report on the financial condition of the receivership. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.30   Preservation of equity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided for upon final distribution of the assets of the Corporation pursuant to § 650.62 of this subpart, no capital stock, equity reserves, or other allocated equities of the Corporation in receivership shall be issued, allocated, retired, sold, distributed, transferred, or assigned. 
</P>
<P>(b) Immediately upon the adoption of a resolution by its board of directors to voluntarily liquidate the Corporation, the capital stock, equity reserves, and allocated equities of the Corporation shall not be issued, allocated, retired, sold, distributed, transferred, or assigned. Such activities could resume if the stockholders of the Corporation or the Farm Credit Administration Board disapprove the resolution. In the event the resolution is approved by the stockholders of the Corporation and the Farm Credit Administration Board, the liquidation plan shall govern disposition of the equities of the Corporation as provided in § 650.52 of this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.35" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.35   Notice to stockholders.</HEAD>
<P>As soon as practicable after a receiver takes possession of the Corporation, the receiver shall notify, by first class mail, each holder of stock of the following matters: 
</P>
<P>(a) The number of shares such holder owns; 
</P>
<P>(b) That the stock and other equities of the Corporation may not be retired or transferred until the liquidation is completed, whereupon the receiver will distribute a liquidating dividend, if any, to the stockholders; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Such other matters as the receiver or the Farm Credit Administration Board deems necessary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.40   Creditor claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon appointment, the receiver shall promptly publish a notice to creditors to present their claims against the Corporation, with proof thereof, to the receiver by a date specified in the notice, which shall be not less than 90 calendar days after the first publication. The notice shall be republished approximately 30 days and 60 days after the first publication. The receiver shall promptly send, by first class mail, a similar notice to any creditor shown on the Corporation's books at the creditor's last address appearing thereon. Claims filed after the specified date shall be disallowed except as the receiver may approve them for full or partial payment from the Corporation's assets remaining undistributed at the time of approval. 
</P>
<P>(b) The receiver shall allow any claim that is timely received and proved to the receiver's satisfaction. The receiver may disallow in whole or in part any creditor's claim or claim of security, preference, or priority that is not proved to the receiver's satisfaction or is not timely received and shall notify the claimant of the disallowance and reason therefor. Sending the notice of disallowance by first class mail to the claimant's address appearing on the proof of claim shall be sufficient notice. The disallowance shall be final unless, within 30 days after the notice of disallowance is mailed, the claimant files a written request for payment regardless of the disallowance. The receiver shall reconsider any claim upon the timely request of the claimant and may approve or disapprove such claim in whole or in part. 
</P>
<P>(c) Creditors' claims that are allowed shall be paid by the receiver from time to time, to the extent funds are available therefor and in accordance with the priorities established in this part and in such manner and amounts as the receiver deems appropriate. In the event the Corporation has a claim against a creditor of the Corporation, the receiver shall offset the amount of such claim against the claim asserted by such creditor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.45" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.45   Priority of claims.</HEAD>
<P>The following priority of claims shall apply to the distribution of the assets of the Corporation in liquidation: 
</P>
<P>(a) All costs, expenses, and debts incurred by the receiver in connection with the administration of the receivership, all Farm Credit Administration assessments for the costs of supervising and examining the Corporation, and any amounts borrowed pursuant to § 650.56(b)(3). 
</P>
<P>(b) Administrative expenses of the Corporation, provided that such expenses were incurred within 60 days prior to the receiver's taking possession, and that such expenses shall be limited to reasonable expenses incurred for services actually provided by accountants, attorneys, appraisers, examiners, or management companies, or reasonable expenses incurred by employees that were authorized and reimbursable under a preexisting expense reimbursement policy and that, in the opinion of the receiver, are of benefit to the receivership, and shall not include wages or salaries of employees of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) If authorized by the receiver, claims for wages and salaries, including vacation pay, earned prior to the appointment of the receiver by an employee of the Corporation whom the receiver determines it is in the best interest of the receivership to engage or retain for a reasonable period of time. 
</P>
<P>(d) If authorized by the receiver, claims for wages and salaries, including vacation pay, earned prior to the appointment of the receiver, up to a maximum of three thousand dollars ($3,000) per person as adjusted for inflation, by an employee of the Corporation not engaged or retained by the receiver. The adjustment for inflation shall be the percentage by which the Consumer Price Index (as prepared by the Department of Labor) for the calendar year preceding the appointment of the receiver exceeds the Consumer Price Index for the calendar year 1992. 
</P>
<P>(e) All claims for taxes. 
</P>
<P>(f) All claims of creditors which are secured by specific assets of the Corporation, with priority of conflicting claims of creditors within this same class to be determined in accordance with priorities of applicable Federal or State law. 
</P>
<P>(g) All claims of general creditors. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.50" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.50   Payment of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All claims of each class described in § 650.61 of this subpart shall be paid in full or provisions shall be made for such payment prior to the payment of any claim of a lesser priority. If there are insufficient funds to pay all claims in a class in full, distribution to that class will be on a pro rata basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) Following the payment of all claims, the receiver shall distribute the remainder of the assets of the Corporation, if any, to the owners of stock and other equities in accordance with the priorities for impairment set forth in section 8.4(e)(3) of the Act and the bylaws of the Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.55" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.55   Inventory, audit, and reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As soon as practicable after taking possession of the Corporation, the receiver shall take an inventory of the assets and liabilities as of the date possession was taken. 
</P>
<P>(b) The receivership shall be audited on an annual basis by a certified public accountant selected by the receiver. 
</P>
<P>(c) The receiver shall make an annual accounting or report, as appropriate, available for review upon request to any stockholder of the Corporation or any member of the public, with a copy provided to the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(d) As soon as practicable after final distribution, the receiver shall send to each stockholder of record a report summarizing the disposition of the assets of the receivership and claims against the receivership. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.60" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.60   Final discharge and release of the receiver.</HEAD>
<P>After the receiver has made a final distribution of the assets of the receivership, the receivership shall be terminated, the charter shall be canceled by the Farm Credit Administration Board if such cancellation has not previously occurred, and the receiver shall be finally discharged and released. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.65" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.65   Appointment of a conservator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit Administration Board may in its discretion appoint, ex parte and without prior notice, a conservator for the Corporation provided that one or more of the grounds for appointment as set forth in § 650.50 of this subpart exist;
</P>
<P>(b) Upon the appointment of a conservator, the Chairman of the Farm Credit Administration shall immediately notify the Corporation and shall publish a notice of the appointment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> 
</P>
<P>(c) As soon as practicable after the conservator takes possession of the Corporation, the conservator shall notify, by first class mail, each holder of stock in the Corporation of the establishment of the conservatorship and shall describe the effect of the conservatorship on the Corporation's operations and equity holdings. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon the issuance of the order placing the Corporation in conservatorship, all rights, privileges, and powers of the board of directors, officers, and employees of the Corporation are vested exclusively in the conservator. 
</P>
<P>(e) The Farm Credit Administration Board may, at any time, terminate the conservatorship and direct the conservator to turn over the Corporation's operations to such management as the Farm Credit Administration Board may designate, in which event the provisions of this subpart shall no longer apply. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.70" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.70   Powers and duties of the conservator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The conservator shall direct the Corporation's further operation until the Farm Credit Administration Board decides that the Corporation can operate without the conservatorship or places the Corporation into receivership. Upon correction or resolution of the problem or condition that provided the basis for the appointment, the Farm Credit Administration Board may turn the Corporation over to such management as the Farm Credit Administration Board may direct. 
</P>
<P>(b) The conservator shall exercise all powers necessary to continue the ongoing operations of the Corporation, to conserve and preserve the Corporation's assets and property, and otherwise protect the interests of the Corporation, its stockholders, and creditors as provided in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(c) The conservator serves as the trustee of the Corporation and conducts its operations for the benefit of the creditors and stockholders of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(d) The conservator may exercise the powers that a receiver of the Corporation may exercise under any of the provisions of § 650.56(b) of this subpart, except paragraphs (b)(2) and (b)(16). In interpreting the applicable paragraphs for purposes of this section, the terms “conservator” and “conservatorship” shall be read for “receiver” and “receivership”. 
</P>
<P>(e) The conservator may also take any other action the conservator considers appropriate or expedient to the continuing operation of the Corporation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.75" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.75   Inventory, examination, and reports to stockholders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As soon as practicable after taking possession of the Corporation, the conservator shall take an inventory of the assets and liabilities of the Corporation as of the date possession was taken. One copy of the inventory shall be filed with the Farm Credit Administration. 
</P>
<P>(b) The conservatorship shall be examined by the Farm Credit Administration in accordance with section 8.11 of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(c) The conservatorship shall prepare and file financial reports and other documents in accordance with the requirements of § 655.1 and part 621 of this chapter. The conservator of the Corporation shall provide the certification required in § 621.14 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 43636, Aug. 15, 1997. Redesignated and amended at 70 FR 40650, 40651, July 14, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 650.80" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.31.2.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 650.80   Final discharge and release of the conservator.</HEAD>
<P>At such time as the conservator shall be relieved of its conservatorship duties, the conservator shall file a report on the conservator's activities with the Farm Credit Administration. The conservator shall thereupon be completely and finally released. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="651" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 651—FEDERAL AGRICULTURAL MORTGAGE CORPORATION GOVERNANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.12, 5.9, 5.17, 8.3, 8.11, 8.14, 8.31, 8.32, 8.33, 8.34, 8.35, 8.36, 8.37, 8.41 of Pub. L. 92-181, 85 Stat. 583 (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2243, 2252, 2279aa-3, 2279aa-11, 2279aa-14, 2279bb, 2279bb-1, 2279bb-2, 2279bb-3, 2279bb-4, 2279bb-5, 2279bb-6, 2279cc); sec. 514 of Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102; sec. 118 of Pub. L. 104-105, 110 Stat. 168.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 49152, July 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>Authorizing statute</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any entity established under authority granted to the Corporation under section 8.3(c)(14) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Agent</I> means any person (other than a director, officer, or employee of the Corporation) who represents the Corporation in contacts with third parties or who provides professional services such as legal, accounting, or appraisal services to the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Appointed director</I> means a member of the Corporation's board of directors who was appointed to the Corporation board by the President of the United States of America.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day the Corporation is open for business, excluding the legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P><I>Class A stockholders</I> means holders of common stock in the Corporation that are insurance companies, banks, or other financial institutions or entities.
</P>
<P><I>Class B stockholders</I> means holders of common stock in the Corporation that are Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P><I>Conflict-of-interest</I> means a director, officer, or employee of the Corporation has an interest in a transaction, relationship, or activity that might adversely affect, or appear to adversely affect, the ability of the director, officer, or employee to perform his or her official duties on behalf of the Corporation in an objective and impartial manner in furtherance of the interest of the Corporation and its statutory purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Director elections</I> mean the process of searching for director candidates, conducting director nominations, and voting for directors.
</P>
<P><I>Elected director</I> means a member of the Corporation's board of directors who was elected by either Class A or Class B stockholders.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any salaried individual working part-time, full-time, or temporarily for the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Entity</I> means a corporation, company, association, firm, joint venture, partnership (general or limited), society, joint stock company, trust (business or otherwise), fund, or other organization or institution.
</P>
<P><I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration, an independent Federal agency of the executive branch.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means conflicting interests of sufficient magnitude or significance that a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would question the ability of the person having such interest to discharge official duties in an objective and impartial manner in furtherance of the interests and statutory purposes of the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Officer</I> means the salaried president, vice presidents, secretary, treasurer, and general counsel, or other person, however designated, who holds a position of similar authority in the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>OSMO</I> means the FCA Office of Secondary Market Oversight, which is responsible for the general supervision of the safe and sound exercise of the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties and compliance with laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Our</I> or <I>we</I> means the FCA or OSMO, as appropriate to the context of the provision employing the term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means individual or entity.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable person</I> means a person under similar circumstances exercising the average level of care, skill, and judgment in his or her conduct.
</P>
<P><I>Resolved</I> means an actual or potential material conflict-of-interest that has been altered so that a reasonable person with knowledge of the relevant facts would conclude that the conflicting interest would not adversely affect the person's performance of official duties in an objective and impartial manner and in furtherance of the interests and statutory purposes of the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Signed,</I> when referring to paper form, means a manual signature, and, when referring to electronic form, means marked in a manner that authenticates each signer's identity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.22" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.22   Conflict-of-interest policy.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation shall establish and administer a conflict-of-interest policy that will provide reasonable assurance that the directors, officers, employees, and agents of the Corporation discharge their official responsibilities in an objective and impartial manner in furtherance of the interests and statutory purposes of the Corporation. The policy shall, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(a) Define the types of transactions, relationships, or activities that could reasonably be expected to give rise to potential conflicts of interest. For the purpose of determining whether a potential conflict of interest exists, the following interests shall be imputed to a person subject to this regulation as if they were that person's own interests:
</P>
<P>(1) Interests of any individual residing in that person's household;
</P>
<P>(2) Interests of any individual identified as a legal dependent of that person;
</P>
<P>(3) Interests of that person's general business partner;
</P>
<P>(4) Interests of an organization or entity that the person serves as officer, director, trustee, general partner or employee; and
</P>
<P>(5) Interests of a person, organization, or entity with which that person is negotiating for or has an arrangement concerning current or prospective employment.
</P>
<P>(b) Require each director, officer, and employee to report in writing, annually, and at such other times as conflicts may arise, sufficient information about financial interests, transactions, relationships, and activities to inform the Corporation of potential conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(c) Require each director, officer, and employee who had no transaction, relationship, or activity required to be reported under paragraph (b) of this section at any time during the year to file a signed statement to that effect;
</P>
<P>(d) Establish guidelines for determining when a potential conflict is material in accordance with this subpart;
</P>
<P>(e) Establish procedures for resolving or disclosing material conflicts of interest.
</P>
<P>(f) Provide internal controls to ensure that reports are filed as required and that conflicts are resolved or disclosed in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(g) Notify directors, officers, and employees of the conflict-of-interest policy and any subsequent changes thereto and allow them a reasonable period of time to conform to the policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.23" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.23   Implementation of policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation shall disclose any unresolved material conflicts of interest involving its directors, officers, and employees to:
</P>
<P>(1) Shareholders through annual reports and proxy statements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Investors and potential investors through disclosure documents supplied to them.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation shall make available to any shareholder, investor, or potential investor, upon request, a copy of its policy on conflicts of interest. The Corporation may charge a nominal fee to cover the costs of reproduction and handling.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation shall maintain all reports of all potential conflicts of interest and documentation of materiality determinations and resolutions of conflicts of interest for a period of 6 years.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.24" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.24   Director, officer, employee, and agent responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each director, officer, employee, and agent of the Corporation shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct the business of the Corporation following high standards of honesty, integrity, impartiality, loyalty, and care, consistent with applicable law and regulation in furtherance of the Corporation's public purpose;
</P>
<P>(2) Adhere to the requirements of the conflict-of-interest policy established by the Corporation and provide any information the Corporation deems necessary to discharge its responsibilities under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Directors, officers, employees, and agents of the Corporation shall be subject to the penalties of part C of title V of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, for violations of this regulation, including failure to adhere to the conflict-of-interest policy established by the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Board Governance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.30   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.35" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.35   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.40   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 651.50" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.32.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 651.50   Committees of the Corporation's board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> No committee of the board of directors may be delegated the authority of the board of directors to amend Corporation bylaws. No committee of the board of directors shall relieve the board of directors or any board member of a responsibility imposed by law or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required committees.</I> The board of directors of the Corporation must have committees, however styled, that address risk management, audit, compensation, and corporate governance. Neither the risk management committee nor the audit committee may be combined with any other committees. This provision does not prevent the board of directors from establishing any other committees that it deems necessary or useful to carrying out its responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charter.</I> Each committee required by this section must develop a formal written charter that specifies the scope of the committee's powers and responsibilities, as well as the committee's structure, processes, and membership requirements. To be effective, the charter must be approved by action of the full board of directors. No director may serve as chairman of more than one of the board committees required by this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency of meetings and records.</I> Each committee of the board of directors required by this section must meet with sufficient frequency to carry out its obligations and duties under applicable laws, regulations, and its operating charter. Each of these committees must maintain minutes of its meetings. The minutes must record attendance, the agenda (or equivalent list of issues under discussion), a summary of the relevant discussions held by the committee during the meeting, and any resulting recommendations to the board. Such minutes must be retained for a minimum of 3 years and must be available to the entire board of directors and to OSMO.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="652" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 652—FEDERAL AGRICULTURAL MORTGAGE CORPORATION FUNDING AND FISCAL AFFAIRS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 4.12, 5.9, 5.17, 8.11, 8.31, 8.32, 8.33, 8.34, 8.35, 8.36, 8.37, 8.41 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2183, 2243, 2252, 2279aa-11, 2279bb, 2279bb-1, 2279bb-2, 2279bb-3, 2279bb-4, 2279bb-5, 2279bb-6, 2279cc); sec. 514 of Pub. L. 102-552, 106 Stat. 4102; sec. 118 of Pub. L. 104-105, 110 Stat. 168; sec. 939A of Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1326, 1887 (15 U.S.C. 78o-7 note) (July 21, 2010).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 40644, July 14, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Investment Management</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 66382, Nov. 5, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 652.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to ensure safety and soundness, continuity of funding, and appropriate use of non-program investments considering the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation's (Farmer Mac or Corporation) special status as a Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE). The subpart contains requirements for Farmer Mac's board of directors to adopt policies covering such areas as investment management, interest rate risk, and liquidity reserves. The subpart also requires Farmer Mac to comply with various reporting requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.5" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.5   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any entity established under authority granted to the Corporation under section 8.3(c)(14) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed securities (ABS)</I> mean investment securities that provide for ownership of a fractional undivided interest or collateral interests in specific assets of a trust that are sold and traded in the capital markets. For the purpose of this subpart, ABS exclude mortgage-backed securities that are defined below.
</P>
<P><I>Cash</I> means cash balances held at Federal Reserve Banks, proceeds from traded-but-not-yet-settled debt, and deposit accounts at Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation-insured banks.
</P>
<P><I>Diversified investment fund (DIF)</I> means an investment company registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940.
</P>
<P><I>Farmer Mac, Corporation, you, and your</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>FCA, our, us, or we</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the United States Government to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>Long-Term Standby Purchase Commitment (LTSPC)</I> is a commitment by Farmer Mac to purchase specified eligible loans on one or more undetermined future dates. In consideration for Farmer Mac's assumption of the credit risk on the specified loans underlying an LTSPC, Farmer Mac receives an annual commitment fee on the outstanding balance of those loans in monthly installments based on the outstanding balance of those loans.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk to your financial condition because the value of your holdings may decline if interest rates or market prices change. Exposure to market risk is measured by assessing the effect of changing rates and prices on either the earnings or economic value of an individual instrument, a portfolio, or the entire Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Maturing obligations</I> means maturing debt and other obligations that may be expected, such as buyouts of long-term standby purchase commitments or repurchases of agricultural mortgage securities.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed securities</I> (MBS) means securities that are either:
</P>
<P>(1) Pass-through securities or participation certificates that represent ownership of a fractional undivided interest in a specified pool of residential (excluding home equity loans), multifamily or commercial mortgages, or
</P>
<P>(2) A multiclass security (including collateralized mortgage obligations and real estate mortgage investment conduits) that is backed by a pool of residential, multifamily or commercial real estate mortgages, pass through MBS, or other multiclass MBS.
</P>
<P>(3) This definition does not include agricultural mortgage-backed securities guaranteed by Farmer Mac itself.
</P>
<P><I>Non-program investments</I> means investments other than those in:
</P>
<P>(1) “Qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended; or
</P>
<P>(2) Securities collateralized by “qualified loans.”
</P>
<P><I>OSMO</I> means FCA's Office of Secondary Market Oversight.
</P>
<P><I>Program assets</I> means on-balance sheet “qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Program obligations</I> means off-balance sheet “qualified loans” as defined in section 8.0(9) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital</I> means your core capital plus an allowance for losses and guarantee claims, as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 53127, Sept. 8, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 55097, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.10   Investment management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities of the board of directors.</I> Your board of directors must adopt written policies for managing your non-program investment activities. Your board must also ensure that management complies with these policies and that appropriate internal controls are in place to prevent loss. At least annually, your board, or a designated committee of the board, must review the sufficiency of these investment policies. Any changes to the policies must be adopted by the board. You must report any changes to these policies to the OSMO within 10 business days of adoption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investment policies—general requirements.</I> Your investment policies must address the purposes and objectives of investments, risk tolerance, delegations of authority, internal controls, due diligence, and reporting requirements. Moreover, your investment policies must fully address the extent of pre-purchase analysis that management must perform for various types, classes, and structure of investments. Furthermore, the policies must include reporting requirements and approvals needed for exceptions to the board's policies. Investment policies must be sufficiently detailed, consistent with, and appropriate for the amounts, types, and risk characteristics of your investments. You must document in the Corporation's records any analyses used in formulating your policies or amendments to the policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment policies—risk tolerance.</I> Your investment policies must establish risk limits for the various types, classes, and sectors of eligible investments. These policies must include concentration limits to ensure prudent diversification of credit, market, and liquidity risks in the investment portfolio. Risk limits must be based on all relevant factors, including the Corporation's objectives, capital position, earnings, and quality and reliability of risk management systems. Your policies must identify the types and quantity of investments that you will hold to achieve your objectives and control credit, market, liquidity, and operational risks. Your policies must establish risk limits for the following types of risk:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit risk.</I> Your investment policies must establish:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit quality standards, limits on counterparty risk, and risk diversification standards that limit concentrations in a single or related counterparty(ies), industry sectors, and asset classes or obligations with similar characteristics.
</P>
<P>(ii) Criteria for selecting brokers, dealers, and investment bankers (collectively, securities firms). You must buy and sell eligible investments with more than one securities firm. As part of your review of your investment policies required under paragraph (a) of this section, your board of directors, or a designated committee of the board, must review the criteria for selecting securities firms. Any changes to the criteria must be approved by the board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Collateral margin requirements on repurchase agreements. You must regularly mark the collateral to market and ensure appropriate controls are maintained over collateral held.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market risk.</I> Your investment policies must set market risk limits for specific types of investments and for the investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liquidity risk.</I> Your investment policies must describe the liquidity characteristics of eligible investments that you will hold to meet your liquidity needs and the Corporation's other objectives.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Operational risk.</I> Investment policies must address operational risks, including delegations of authority and internal controls in accordance with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Concentration risk.</I> Your investment policies must set risk diversification standards. Diversification parameters must be based on the carrying value of investments. You may not invest more than 10 percent of your Regulatory Capital in allowable investments issued by any single entity, issuer, or obligor. Only investments in obligations backed by U.S. Government agencies or GSEs may exceed the 10-percent limit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delegation of authority.</I> All delegations of authority to specified personnel or committees must state the extent of management's authority and responsibilities for investments.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal controls.</I> You must:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish appropriate internal controls to detect and prevent loss, fraud, embezzlement, conflicts of interest, and unauthorized investments.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain a separation of duties between personnel who supervise or execute investment transactions and personnel who supervise or engage in all other investment-related functions.
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain records and management information systems that are appropriate for the level and complexity of your investment activities.
</P>
<P>(4) Implement an effective internal audit program to review, at least annually, your investment management functions, controls, processes, and compliance with FCA regulations. The scope of the annual review must be appropriate for the size, risk, and complexity of the investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Due diligence</I>—(1) <I>Pre-purchase analysis</I>—(i) <I>Objective, eligibility, and compliance with investment policies.</I> Before you purchase an investment, you must conduct sufficient due diligence to determine whether the investment is eligible under § 652.20, is for an authorized purpose under § 652.15(a), and complies with your board-approved investment policies. You must document its eligibility, purpose, and investment policy compliance and your investment objective. Your investment policies must fully address the extent of pre-purchase analysis that management must perform for various types, classes, and structure of investments. Your board must approve your decision to hold an investment that does not comply with your written investment policy requirements.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Valuation.</I> Prior to purchase, you must verify the value of the investment (unless it is a new issue) with a source that is independent of the broker, dealer, counterparty or other intermediary to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Risk assessment.</I> Your risk assessment must be documented and, at a minimum, include an evaluation of credit risk, market risk, and liquidity risk and the underlying collateral of the investment. You must conduct stress testing before you purchase any investment that is structured or that has uncertain cash flows, including all mortgage-backed securities or asset-backed securities. The stress testing must be commensurate with the risk and complexity of the investments and must comply with the requirements of paragraph (f)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Monthly fair value determination.</I> At least monthly, you must determine the fair market value of each investment in your portfolio and the fair market value of your whole investment portfolio.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Ongoing analysis of credit risk.</I> You must establish and maintain processes to monitor and evaluate changes in the credit quality of each security and the whole investment portfolio on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Quarterly stress testing.</I> (i) You must stress test your entire investment portfolio, including stress tests of all investments individually and stress tests of the portfolio as a whole, at the end of each quarter. The stress tests must enable you to determine that your investment securities, both individually and on a portfolio-wide basis, do not expose your capital, earnings, or liquidity to risks that exceed the risk tolerance specified in your investment policies. If your portfolio risk exceeds your investment policy limits, you must develop a plan to reduce risk and comply with your investment policy limits.
</P>
<P>(ii) Your stress tests must be comprehensive and appropriate for the risk profile of your investment portfolio and the Corporation. At a minimum, the stress tests must be able to measure the price sensitivity of investments over a range of possible interest rate/yield curve scenarios. The methodology that you use to analyze investment securities must be appropriate for the complexity, structure, and cash flows of the investments in your portfolio. You must rely to the maximum extent practicable on verifiable information to support all your assumptions, including prepayment and interest rate volatility assumptions, when you apply your stress tests. Your assumptions must be prudent and based on sound judgment, and you must document the basis for all assumptions that you use to evaluate the security and its underlying collateral. You must also document all subsequent changes in your assumptions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Presale value verification.</I> Before you sell an investment, you must verify its value with a source that is independent of the broker, dealer, counterparty, or other intermediary to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reports to the board of directors.</I> At least quarterly, executive management must report on the following to the board of directors or a designated committee of the board:
</P>
<P>(1) Plans and strategies for achieving the board's objectives for the investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the investment portfolio effectively achieves the board's objectives;
</P>
<P>(3) The current composition, quality, and liquidity profile of the investment portfolio;
</P>
<P>(4) The performance of each class of investments and the entire investment portfolio, including all gains and losses that you incurred during the quarter on individual securities that you sold before maturity and why they were liquidated;
</P>
<P>(5) Potential risk exposure to changes in market interest rates as identified through quarterly stress testing and any other factors that may affect the value of your investment holdings;
</P>
<P>(6) How investments affect your capital, earnings, and overall financial condition;
</P>
<P>(7) Any deviations from the board's policies. These deviations must be formally approved by the board of directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 66382, Nov. 5, 2012, as amended at 83 FR 55097, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.15   Non-program investment purposes and limitation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farmer Mac is authorized to hold eligible non-program investments listed under § 652.20 for the purposes of enterprise risk management, including complying with its interest rate risk requirements in § 652.30; complying with its liquidity requirements in § 652.40; managing surplus short-term funds; and complementing program business activities.
</P>
<P>(b) Non-program investments cannot exceed 35 percent of program assets and program obligations, excluding 75 percent of the program assets that are guaranteed by the United States Department of Agriculture as described in section 8.0(9)(B) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended. When calculating the total amount of non-program investments under this section, exclude investments pledged to meet margin requirements on derivative transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.20   Eligible non-program investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible investments consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) A non-convertible senior debt security.
</P>
<P>(2) A money market instrument with a maturity of 1 year or less.
</P>
<P>(3) A portion of an ABS or MBS that is fully guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency.
</P>
<P>(4) A portion of an ABS or MBS that is fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a GSE.
</P>
<P>(5) The senior-most position of an ABS or MBS that is not fully guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency or fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by a GSE, provided that the MBS satisfies the definition of “mortgage related security” in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41).
</P>
<P>(6) An obligation of an international or multilateral development bank in which the U.S. is a voting member.
</P>
<P>(7) Shares of a diversified investment fund, if its portfolio consists solely of securities that satisfy investments listed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Farmer Mac may only purchase those eligible investments satisfying all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) At a minimum, at least one obligor of the investment has a very strong capacity to meet financial commitments for the life of the investment, even under severely adverse or stressful conditions, and generally presents a very low risk of default. Investments whose obligors are located outside the U.S., and whose obligor capacity to meet financial commitments is being relied upon to satisfy this requirement, must also be fully guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The investment must exhibit low credit risk and other risk characteristics consistent with the purpose or purposes for which it is held.
</P>
<P>(3) The investment must be denominated in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 55097, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.23" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.23   Other non-program investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farmer Mac may make a written request for our approval to purchase and hold other non-program investments that do not satisfy the requirements of § 652.20. Your request for our approval to purchase and hold other non-program investments at a minimum must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the investment structure;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain the purpose and objectives for making the investment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Discuss the risk characteristics of the investment, including an analysis of the investment's impact to capital.
</P>
<P>(b) We may impose written conditions in conjunction with our approval of your request to invest in other non-program investments.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of applying the provisions of this subpart, except § 652.20, investments approved under this section are treated the same as eligible non-program investments unless our conditions of approval state otherwise.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 55098, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.25" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.25   Ineligible investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investments ineligible when purchased.</I> Non-program investments that do not satisfy the eligibility criteria set forth in § 652.20(a) or have not been approved by the FCA pursuant to § 652.23 at the time of purchase are ineligible. You must not purchase ineligible investments. If you determine that you have purchased an ineligible investment, you must notify us within 15 calendar days after such determination. You must divest of the investment no later than 60 calendar days after you determine that the investment is ineligible unless we approve, in writing, a plan that authorizes you to divest the investment over a longer period of time. Until you divest of the investment, it may not be used to satisfy your liquidity requirement(s) under § 652.40, but must continue to be included in the § 652.15(b) investment portfolio limit calculation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investments that no longer satisfy eligibility criteria.</I> If you determine that a non-program investment no longer satisfies the criteria set forth in § 652.20 or no longer satisfies the conditions of approval issued under § 652.23, you must notify us within 15 calendar days after such determination. If approved by the FCA in writing, you may continue to hold the investment, subject to the following and any other conditions we impose:
</P>
<P>(1) You may not use the investment to satisfy your § 652.40 liquidity requirement(s);
</P>
<P>(2) The investment must continue to be included in your § 652.15 investment portfolio limit calculation; and
</P>
<P>(3) You must develop a plan to reduce the investment's risk to you.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 55098, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.27" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.27   Reservation of authority for investment activities.</HEAD>
<P>FCA retains the authority to require you to divest of any investment at any time for failure to comply with applicable regulations, for safety and soundness reasons, or failure to comply with written conditions of approval. The timeframe set by FCA for such required divestiture will consider the expected loss on the transaction (or transactions) and the effect on your financial condition and performance. FCA may also, on a case-by-case basis, determine that a particular non-program investment poses inappropriate risk, notwithstanding that it satisfies investment eligibility criteria or received prior approval from us. If so, we will notify you as to the proper treatment of the investment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 55098, Nov. 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.30" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.30   Interest rate risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of Farmer Mac must provide effective oversight (direction, controls, and supervision) of interest rate risk management and must be knowledgeable of the nature and level of interest rate risk taken by Farmer Mac.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors of Farmer Mac must adopt an interest rate risk management policy that establishes appropriate interest rate risk exposure limits based on the Corporation's risk-bearing capacity and reporting requirements in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section. At least annually, the board of directors, or a designated committee of the board, must review the policy. Any changes to the policy must be approved by the board of directors. You must report any changes to the policy to the OSMO within 10 business days of adoption.
</P>
<P>(c) The interest rate risk management policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Address the purpose and objectives of interest rate risk management;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the causes of interest rate risk and set appropriate quantitative limits consistent with a clearly articulated board risk tolerance;
</P>
<P>(3) Require management to establish and implement comprehensive procedures to measure the potential effect of these risks on the Corporation's projected earnings and market values by conducting interest rate stress tests and simulations of multiple economic scenarios at least quarterly. Your stress tests must gauge how interest rate fluctuations affect the Corporation's capital, earnings, and liquidity position. The methodology that you use must be appropriate for the complexity of the structure and cash flows of your on- and off-balance sheet positions, including the nature and purpose of derivative contracts, and establish counterparty risk thresholds and limits for derivatives. It must also ensure an appropriate level of consistency with the stress-test scenarios considered under § 652.10(f)(4). Assumptions applied in stress tests must, to the maximum extent practicable, rely on verifiable information. You must document the basis for all assumptions that you use.
</P>
<P>(4) Describe and authorize management to implement actions needed to achieve Farmer Mac's desired risk management objectives;
</P>
<P>(5) Ensure procedures are established to evaluate and document, at least quarterly, whether actions taken have actually met the Corporation's desired risk management objectives;
</P>
<P>(6) Identify exception parameters and approvals needed for any exceptions to the policy's requirements;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe delegations of authority; and,
</P>
<P>(8) Describe reporting requirements, including exceptions to policy limits.
</P>
<P>(d) At least quarterly, management must report to the Corporation's board of directors, or a designated committee of the board, describing the nature and level of interest rate risk exposure. Any deviations from the board's policy on interest rate risk must be specifically identified in the report and approved by the board, or a designated committee of the board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.35" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.35   Liquidity management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Liquidity policy—board responsibilities.</I> Farmer Mac's board of directors must adopt a liquidity policy, which may be integrated into a comprehensive asset-liability management or enterprise-wide risk management policy. The risk tolerance embodied in the liquidity policy must be consistent with the investment management policies required by § 652.10 of this subpart. The board must ensure that management uses adequate internal controls to ensure compliance with its liquidity policy. At least annually, the board of directors or a designated committee of the board must review the sufficiency of the liquidity policy. The board of directors must approve any changes to the policy. You must provide a copy of the revised liquidity policy to the OSMO within 10 business days of adoption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policy content.</I> Your liquidity policy must contain at a minimum the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The purpose and objectives of liquidity reserves;
</P>
<P>(2) Diversification requirements for your liquidity reserve portfolio;
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum and target (or optimum) amounts of liquidity that the board has established for Farmer Mac, expressed in days of maturing obligations;
</P>
<P>(4) The maximum amount of non-program investments that can be held for meeting Farmer Mac's liquidity needs, expressed as a percentage of program assets and program obligations;
</P>
<P>(5) Exception parameters and approvals needed with respect to the liquidity reserve;
</P>
<P>(6) Delegations of authority pertaining to the liquidity reserve;
</P>
<P>(7) Reporting requirements which must comply with the requirements under paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Board reporting</I>—(i) <I>Periodic.</I> At least quarterly, Farmer Mac's management must report to Farmer Mac's board of directors or a designated committee of the board describing, at a minimum, the status of Farmer Mac's compliance with board policy and the performance of the liquidity reserve portfolio.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special.</I> Management must report any deviation from Farmer Mac's liquidity policy, or failure to meet the board's liquidity targets to the board before the end of the quarter if such deviation or failure has the potential to cause material loss.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>OSMO reporting.</I> Farmer Mac must report, in writing, to the OSMO no later than the next business day following the discovery of any breach of the minimum liquidity reserve requirement in § 652.40 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Liability maturity management plan.</I> Farmer Mac must have a liability maturity management plan (LMMP) that its board of directors reviews and approves at least once each year. The LMMP must establish a funding strategy that provides for effective diversification of the sources and tenors of funding, and considers Farmer Mac's risk profile and current market conditions. The LMMP must include targets of acceptable ranges of the proportion of debt maturing within specific time periods.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contingency funding plan.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> Farmer Mac must have a CFP to ensure sources of liquidity are sufficient to fund normal operations under a variety of stress events. Such stress events include, but are not limited to market disruptions, rapid increase in contractually required loan purchases, unexpected requirements to fund commitments or revolving lines of credit or to fulfill guarantee obligations, difficulties in renewing or replacing funding with desired terms and structures, requirements to pledge collateral with counterparties, and reduced market access.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CFP requirements.</I> Farmer Mac must maintain an adequate level of unencumbered and marketable assets (as defined in § 652.40(a) and (b) of this subpart) in its liquidity reserve that can be converted into cash to meet its net liquidity needs for 30 days based on estimated cash inflows and outflows under an acute stress scenario. The board of directors must review and approve the CFP at least once each year and must make adjustments to reflect changes in the results of stress tests, Farmer Mac's risk profile, and market conditions.
</P>
<P>(3) The CFP must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be customized to the financial condition and liquidity risk profile of Farmer Mac, the board's liquidity risk tolerance, and Farmer Mac's business model;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify funding alternatives that can be implemented as access to funding is impeded;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish a process for managing events that imperil Farmer Mac's liquidity. The process must assign appropriate personnel and executable action plans to implement the CFP;
</P>
<P>(iv) Require periodic stress testing that analyzes the possible impacts on Farmer Mac's cash flows, liquidity position, profitability, and solvency for a wide variety of stress scenarios.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65553, Nov. 1, 2013; 79 FR 29074, May 21, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.40" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.40   Liquidity reserve requirement and supplemental liquidity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unencumbered.</I> All investments that Farmer Mac holds in its liquidity reserve and as supplemental liquidity in accordance with this section must be unencumbered. For the purposes of this section, an investment is unencumbered if it is free of lien, and it is not explicitly or implicitly pledged to secure, collateralize, or enhance the credit of any transaction. Additionally, an unencumbered investment held in the liquidity reserve cannot be used as a hedge against interest rate risk if liquidation of that particular investment would expose Farmer Mac to a material risk of loss.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Marketable.</I> All investments that Farmer Mac holds in its liquidity reserve in accordance with this section must be readily marketable. For purposes of this section, an investment is readily marketable if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Can be easily and quickly converted into cash with little or no loss in value;
</P>
<P>(2) Exhibits low credit and market risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Has ease and certainty of valuation; and,
</P>
<P>(4) Except for money market instruments, can be easily sold or converted to cash through repurchase agreements in active and sizable markets without significantly affecting prices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquidity reserve requirement, supplemental liquidity, and discounts.</I> Farmer Mac must maintain at all times a liquidity reserve sufficient to fund at least 90 days of the principal portion of maturing obligations and other borrowings. Farmer Mac must also hold supplemental liquid assets sufficient to fund obligations and other borrowings maturing after 90 calendar days to meet board liquidity policy in accordance with § 652.35. At a minimum, Farmer Mac must hold instruments in the liquidity reserve, and as supplemental liquidity, that are listed and discounted in accordance with the following table, and are sufficient to cover:
</P>
<P>(1) Days 1 through 15 only with Level 1 instruments;
</P>
<P>(2) Days 16 through 30 only with Level 1 and Level 2 instruments; and,
</P>
<P>(3) Days 31 through 90 with Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3 instruments.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table to § 652.40(c)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Liquidity level
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instruments
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount
<br/>(multiply market value by)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cash, including cash due from traded but not yet settled debt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Overnight money market instruments, including repurchase agreements secured exclusively by Level 1 investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Obligations of U.S. Government agencies with a final remaining maturity of 3 years or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">97 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GSE senior debt securities that mature within 60 days, excluding securities issued by the Farm Credit System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of Level 1 instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Additional Level 1 investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Discount for each Level 1 investment applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Obligations of U.S. Government agencies with a final remaining maturity of more than 3 years</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">97 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MBS that are fully guaranteed by a U.S. Government agency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of Level 1 and 2 instruments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">95 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Level 3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Additional Level 1 or Level 2 investments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Discount for each Level 1 or Level 2 investment applies.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">GSE senior debt securities with maturities exceeding 60 days, excluding senior debt securities of the Farm Credit System</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">93 percent for all instruments in Level 3.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">MBS that are fully guaranteed by a GSE as to the timely repayment of principal and interest
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Money market instruments maturing within 90 days
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Diversified investment funds comprised exclusively of Levels 1, 2, and 3 instruments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Qualifying securities backed by Farmer Mac program assets (loans) guaranteed by the United States Department of Agriculture (excluding the portion that would be necessary to satisfy obligations to creditors and equity holders in Farmer Mac II LLC)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Supplemental Liquidity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Eligible investments under § 652.20 and those approved under § 652.23</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 percent except discounts for Level 1, 2 or 3 investments apply to such investments held as supplemental liquidity.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65553, Nov. 1, 2013; 79 FR 29074, May 21, 2014, as amended at 83 FR 55098, Nov. 2, 2018]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.45" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.45   Temporary regulatory waivers or modifications for extraordinary situations.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever the FCA determines that an extraordinary situation exists that necessitates a temporary regulatory waiver or modification, the FCA may, in its sole discretion:
</P>
<P>(a) Modify or waive the minimum liquidity reserve requirement in § 652.40 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(b) Modify the amount, qualities, and types of eligible investments that you are authorized to hold pursuant to § 652.20 of this subpart; and/or
</P>
<P>(c) Take other actions as deemed appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Risk-Based Capital Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 77253, Dec. 26, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 652.50" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.50   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P><I>AgVantage Plus</I> means both the product by that name used by Farmer Mac and other similarly structured program volume that Farmer Mac might finance in the future under other names. Those AgVantage securities with initial principal amounts under $25 million and whose issuers were part of the original AgVantage program are excluded from this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Farmer Mac, Corporation, you, and your</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates as defined in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Our, us, or we</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital</I> means the sum of the following as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles:
</P>
<P>(1) The par value of outstanding common stock;
</P>
<P>(2) The par value of outstanding preferred stock;
</P>
<P>(3) Paid-in capital, which is the amount of owner investment in Farmer Mac in excess of the par value of stock;
</P>
<P>(4) Retained earnings; and,
</P>
<P>(5) Any allowances for losses on loans and guaranteed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-based capital</I> means the amount of regulatory capital sufficient for Farmer Mac to maintain positive capital during a 10-year period of stressful conditions as determined by the risk-based capital stress test described in § 652.65.
</P>
<P><I>Rural utility guarantee fee</I> means the actual guarantee fee charged for off-balance sheet volume and the earnings spread over Farmer Mac's funding costs for on-balance sheet volume on rural utility loans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77253, Dec. 26, 2006, as amended at 76 FR 23467, Apr. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.55" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.55   General.</HEAD>
<P>You must hold risk-based capital in an amount determined in accordance with this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.60" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.60   Corporate business planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farmer Mac's board of directors is responsible for ensuring that Farmer Mac maintain capital at a level that is sufficient to ensure continued financial viability and provide for growth. In addition, Farmer Mac's capital must be sufficient to meet statutory and regulatory requirements as well as the goals and objectives required by paragraph (b)(5) of this section, including the Tier 1 ratio required in § 652.61(c)(2)(ii)(A). Farmer Mac must notify the OSMO within 10 calendar days of determining that capital is not sufficient to meet those goals and objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) No later than 65 days after the end of each calendar year, Farmer Mac's board of directors must adopt an operational and strategic business plan for at least the next 3 years. The plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A mission statement;
</P>
<P>(2) A business and organizational overview and an assessment of management capabilities;
</P>
<P>(3) An assessment of Farmer Mac's strengths and weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(4) A review of the internal and external factors that are likely to affect Farmer Mac during the planning period;
</P>
<P>(5) Measurable goals and objectives;
</P>
<P>(6) A discussion of how these factors might impact Farmer Mac's current financial position and business goals;
</P>
<P>(7) Forecasted income, expense, and balance sheet statements for each year of the plan;
</P>
<P>(8) A marketing plan, and
</P>
<P>(9) A capital plan in accordance with § 652.61.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65149, Oct. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.61" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.61   Capital planning.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes capital planning requirements for Farmer Mac.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and § 652.62, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Basel III</I> means the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision's document “Basel III: A Global Regulatory Framework for More Resilient Banks and Banking Systems,” June 2011 and as it may be updated from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Capital action</I> means any issuance of an equity capital instrument, and any capital distribution, as well as any similar action that OSMO determines could impact Farmer Mac's consolidated capital.
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> means a redemption or repurchase of any equity capital instrument, a payment of common or preferred stock dividends, a payment that may be temporarily or permanently suspended by the issuer on any instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of any minimum capital ratio, and any similar transaction that OSMO determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan</I> means a written presentation of Farmer Mac's capital planning strategies and capital adequacy process that includes the mandatory elements set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Capital policy</I> means Farmer Mac's written assessment of the principles and guidelines used for capital planning, capital issuance, usage and distributions, including internal capital goals; the quantitative or qualitative guidelines for dividend and stock repurchases; the strategies for addressing potential capital shortfalls; and the internal governance procedures around capital policy principles and guidelines.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least 12 quarters, beginning with the quarter preceding the quarter in which Farmer Mac submits its capital plan, over which the relevant projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 Capital</I> means the components meeting the criteria of Common Equity Tier 1 Capital and Additional Tier 1 Capital and the regulatory adjustments as set forth in Basel III, or Tier 1 Capital as defined in regulations of the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, as revised from time to time; or another measure of high quality capital as approved for use under this regulation by the Director of OSMO.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 ratio</I> means the ratio of Farmer Mac's Tier 1 Capital to Total Risk-Weighted Assets.
</P>
<P><I>Total Risk-Weighted Assets</I> means a risk-weighting approach that is appropriate given Farmer Mac's business activities and consistent with broadly accepted banking practices and standards (e.g., one of the frameworks of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision or similar U.S. regulations).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Annual capital planning.</I> (i) Farmer Mac must develop and maintain a capital plan each year.
</P>
<P>(ii) Farmer Mac must submit its complete annual capital plan to OSMO by March 1 or such later date as directed by OSMO, after consultation with the FCA Board.
</P>
<P>(iii) Prior to submission of the capital plan under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, Farmer Mac's board of directors must:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the robustness of Farmer Mac's process for assessing capital adequacy,
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any deficiencies in Farmer Mac's process for assessing capital adequacy are appropriately remedied; and
</P>
<P>(C) Approve Farmer Mac's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory elements of capital plan.</I> The capital plan must contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the expected uses and sources of capital over the planning horizon that reflects Farmer Mac's size, complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations, assuming both expected and stressful conditions, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Projected revenues, losses, reserves, and pro forma capital levels, including the core capital and regulatory capital ratios required by sections 8.32 and 8.33 of the Act, the Tier 1 ratio as defined in this section, and any additional capital measures deemed relevant by Farmer Mac, over the planning horizon under expected conditions and under a range of at least two progressively severe stress scenarios developed by Farmer Mac appropriate to its business model and portfolios, as well as any scenarios provided by the Director of OSMO. At least 15 calendar days prior to this stress testing, Farmer Mac must provide to OSMO a description of the expected and stressed scenarios that Farmer Mac intends to use to conduct its annual stress test under this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of all planned capital actions over the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of Farmer Mac's process for assessing capital adequacy, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of how Farmer Mac will, under expected and stressed conditions, maintain capital commensurate with its risks, maintain capital above the minimum core capital and regulatory capital ratios and above the Tier 1 ratio set in accordance with a well-articulated risk tolerance policy established by the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of how Farmer Mac will, under expected and stressed conditions, maintain sufficient capital to continue its operations by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve its statutory purposes; and
</P>
<P>(C) A discussion of the results of the risk-based stress test required by section 8.32 of the Act and the stress tests required by this section, as well as any other stress test required by law or regulation, and an explanation of how the capital plan takes these results into account.
</P>
<P>(iii) Farmer Mac's capital policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A discussion of any expected changes to Farmer Mac's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the Corporation's capital adequacy or liquidity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of capital plan by OSMO.</I> (1) OSMO will consider the following factors in reviewing Farmer Mac's capital plan:
</P>
<P>(i) The comprehensiveness of the capital plan, including the extent to which the analysis underlying the capital plan captures and addresses risks stemming from activities across Farmer Mac's business lines and operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasonableness of Farmer Mac's assumptions and analysis underlying the capital plan and its methodologies for reviewing the robustness of its capital adequacy process; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Farmer Mac's ability to maintain capital above the minimum core capital and regulatory capital ratios and above a Tier 1 ratio set in accordance with a risk tolerance policy established by the board of directors on a pro forma basis under expected and stressful conditions throughout the planning horizon, including but not limited to any stressed scenarios required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) All supervisory information about Farmer Mac and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(v) Farmer Mac's regulatory and financial reports, as well as supporting data that would allow for an analysis of its loss, revenue, and projections;
</P>
<P>(vi) As applicable, OSMO's own pro forma estimates of Farmer Mac's potential losses, revenues, and resulting capital adequacy measurements under expected and stressful conditions, including but not limited to any stressed scenarios required under paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section, as well as the results of any other stress tests conducted by Farmer Mac or OSMO; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Other information requested or required by OSMO, as well as any other information relevant to Farmer Mac's capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>OSMO action on a capital plan.</I> (1) OSMO will review the capital plan and provide an assessment to Farmer Mac of the capital adequacy and planning process through its ongoing examination and oversight process.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon a request by OSMO, Farmer Mac must provide OSMO with sufficient information regarding its planning assumptions, stress test strategies and results and any other relevant qualitative or quantitative information requested by OSMO to facilitate review of Farmer Mac's capital plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) OSMO may require Farmer Mac to revise and re-submit its capital plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Farmer Mac response to OSMO's assessment.</I> Regardless of whether re-submission is required, Farmer Mac must take the results of the stress tests conducted under paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) and (c)(2)(ii) of this section (including any revisions required under paragraph (e)(3) of this section) as well as OSMO's assessment into account in making changes, as appropriate, to Farmer Mac's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); its exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; any plans for recovery and resolution; and to improve overall risk management. Farmer Mac must document in writing its actions in response to the stress tests and assessment, as well as decisions not to take actions in response to any issues raised in the assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65149, Oct. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.62" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.62   Notice to OSMO of capital distributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Farmer Mac must provide OSMO with notice 15 calendar days prior to a board consideration of a declaration of a capital distribution or any material changes in capital distributions policies.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), notice under paragraph (a) of this section is not required with respect to capital distributions set forth (<I>i.e.</I>, specifically scheduled as to amount and timing along with a discussion of the planned distribution) in the capital plan or a regular periodic payment of dividends on common stock and preferred stock when there is no change in the amount of payment per share from the previous period.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that OSMO determines a capital plan has not adequately taken into account OSMO's assessment as required under § 652.61(f), the exception described in paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply, and Farmer Mac must provide notification of any and all capital distributions as set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 65149, Oct. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.65" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.65   Risk-based capital stress test.</HEAD>
<P>You will perform the risk-based capital stress test as described in summary form below and as described in detail in appendix A to this subpart. The risk-based capital stress test spreadsheet is also available electronically at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I> The risk-based capital stress test has five components:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Data requirements</I>. You will use the following data to implement the risk-based capital stress test.
</P>
<P>(1) You will use Corporation loan-level data to implement the credit risk component of the risk-based capital stress test.
</P>
<P>(2) You will use Call Report data as the basis for Corporation data over the 10-year stress period supplemented with your interest rate risk measurements and tax data.
</P>
<P>(3) You will use other data, including the 10-year Constant Maturity Treasury (CMT) rate and the applicable Internal Revenue Service corporate income tax schedule, as further described in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit risk.</I> The credit risk part estimates loan losses during a period of sustained economic stress.
</P>
<P>(1) For each loan in the Farmer Mac I portfolio, you will determine a default probability by using the logit functions specified in appendix A to this subpart with each of the following variables:
</P>
<P>(i) Borrower's debt-to-asset ratio at loan origination;
</P>
<P>(ii) Loan-to-value ratio at origination, which is the loan amount divided by the value of the property;
</P>
<P>(iii) Debt-service-coverage ratio at origination, which is the borrower's net income (on- and off-farm) plus depreciation, capital lease payments, and interest, less living expenses and income taxes, divided by the total term debt payments;
</P>
<P>(iv) The origination loan balance stated in 1997 dollars based on the consumer price index; and,
</P>
<P>(v) The worst-case percentage change in farmland values (23.52 percent).
</P>
<P>(2) You will then calculate the loss rate by multiplying the default probability for each loan by the estimated loss-severity rate, which is the average loss of the defaulted loans in the data set (20.9 percent).
</P>
<P>(3) You will calculate losses by multiplying the loss rate by the origination loan balances stated in 1997 dollars.
</P>
<P>(4) You will adjust the losses for loan seasoning, based on the number of years since loan origination, according to the functions in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) You will calculate loss rates on rural utility loans as further described in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(6) You will further adjust losses for loans that collateralize the general obligation of AgVantage Plus volume, and for loans where the program loan counterparty retains a subordinated interest in accordance with appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(7) The losses must be applied in the risk-based capital stress test as specified in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest rate risk.</I> (1) During the first year of the stress period, you will adjust interest rates for two scenarios, an increase in rates and a decrease in rates. You must determine your risk-based capital level based on whichever scenario would require more capital.
</P>
<P>(2) You will calculate the interest rate stress based on changes to the quarterly average of the 10-year CMT. The starting rate is the 3-month average of the most recent CMT monthly rate series. To calculate the change in the starting rate, determine the average yield of the preceding 12 monthly 10-year CMT rates. Then increase and decrease the starting rate by:
</P>
<P>(i) 50 percent of the 12-month average if the average rate is less than 12 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 600 basis points if the 12-month average rate is equal to or higher than 12 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) Following the first year of the stress period, interest rates remain at the new level for the remainder of the stress period.
</P>
<P>(4) You will apply the interest rate changes scenario as indicated in appendix A to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(5) You may use other interest rate indices in addition to the 10-year CMT subject to our concurrence, but in no event can your risk-based capital level be less than that determined by using only the 10-year CMT.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Cashflow generator.</I> (1) You must adjust your financial statements based on the credit risk inputs and interest rate risk inputs described above to generate pro forma financial statements for each year of the 10-year stress test. The cashflow generator produces these financial statements. You may use the cashflow generator spreadsheet that is described in appendix A to this subpart and available electronically at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I> You may also use any reliable cashflow program that can develop or produce pro forma financial statements using generally accepted accounting principles and widely recognized financial modeling methods, subject to our concurrence. You may disaggregate financial data to any greater degree than that specified in appendix A to this subpart, subject to our concurrence.
</P>
<P>(2) You must use model assumptions to generate financial statements over the 10-year stress period. The major assumption is that cashflows generated by the risk-based capital stress test are based on a steady-state scenario. To implement a steady-state scenario, when on- and off-balance sheet assets and liabilities amortize or are paid down, you must replace them with similar assets and liabilities (AgVantage Plus volume is not replaced when it matures). Replace amortized assets from discontinued loan programs with current loan programs. In general, keep assets with small balances in constant proportions to key program assets.
</P>
<P>(3) You must simulate annual pro forma balance sheets and income statements in the risk-based capital stress test using Farmer Mac's starting position, the credit risk and interest rate risk components, resulting cashflow outputs, current operating strategies and policies, and other inputs as shown in appendix A to this subpart and the electronic spreadsheet available at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of capital requirement.</I> The calculations that you must use to solve for the starting regulatory capital amount are shown in appendix A to this subpart and in the electronic spreadsheet available at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I> 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77253, Dec. 26, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 31940, June 5, 2008; 76 FR 23467, Apr. 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.70" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.70   Risk-based capital level.</HEAD>
<P>The risk-based capital level is the sum of the following amounts:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Credit and interest rate risk.</I> The amount of risk-based capital determined by the risk-based capital test under § 652.65.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Management and operations risk.</I> Thirty (30) percent of the amount of risk-based capital determined by the risk-based capital test in § 652.65.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.75" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.75   Your responsibility for determining the risk-based capital level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must determine your risk-based capital level using the procedures in this subpart, appendix A to this subpart, and any other supplemental instructions provided by us. You will report your determination to us as prescribed in § 652.90. At any time, however, we may determine your risk-based capital level using the procedures in § 652.65 and appendix A to this subpart, and you must hold risk-based capital in the amount we determine is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) You must at all times comply with the risk-based capital levels established by the risk-based capital stress test and must be able to determine your risk-based capital level at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) If at any time the risk-based capital level you determine is less than the minimum capital requirements set forth in section 8.33 of the Act, you must maintain the statutory minimum capital level.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.80" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.80   When you must determine the risk-based capital level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must determine your risk-based capital level at least quarterly, or whenever changing circumstances occur that have a significant effect on capital, such as exposure to a high volume of, or particularly severe, problem loans or a period of rapid growth.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, we may require you to determine your risk-based capital level at any time.
</P>
<P>(c) If you anticipate entering into any new business activity that could have a significant effect on capital, you must determine a pro forma risk-based capital level, which must include the new business activity, and report this pro forma determination to the Director, Office of Secondary Market Oversight, at least 10-business days prior to implementation of the new business program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.85" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.85   When to report the risk-based capital level.</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must file a risk-based capital report with us each time you determine your risk-based capital level as required by § 652.80.
</P>
<P>(b) You must also report to us at once if you identify in the interim between quarterly or more frequent reports to us that you are not in compliance with the risk-based capital level required by § 652.70.
</P>
<P>(c) If you make any changes to the data used to calculate your risk-based capital requirement that cause a material adjustment to the risk-based capital level you reported to us, you must file an amended risk-based capital report with us within 5-business days after the date of such changes;
</P>
<P>(d) You must submit your quarterly risk-based capital report for the last day of the preceding quarter by the earlier of the reporting deadlines for Securities and Exchange Commission Forms 10-K and 10-Q, or the 40th day after each of the quarters ending March 31st, June 30th, and September 30th, and the 75th day after the quarter ending on December 31st.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77253, Dec. 26, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 31940, June 5, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.90" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.90   How to report your risk-based capital determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Your risk-based capital report must contain at least the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) All data integral for determining the risk-based capital level, including any business policy decisions or other assumptions made in implementing the risk-based capital test;
</P>
<P>(2) Other information necessary to determine compliance with the procedures for determining risk-based capital as specified in appendix A to this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other information we may require in written instructions to you.
</P>
<P>(b) You must submit each risk-based capital report in such format or medium, as we require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.95" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.95   Failure to meet capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination and notice.</I> At any time, we may determine that you are not meeting your risk-based capital level calculated according to § 652.65, your minimum capital requirements specified in section 8.33 of the Act, or your critical capital requirements specified in section 8.34 of the Act. We will notify you in writing of this fact and the date by which you should be in compliance (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of capital restoration plan.</I> Our determination that you are not meeting your required capital levels may require you to develop and submit to us, within a specified time period, an acceptable plan to reach the appropriate capital level(s) by the date required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 652.100" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 652.100   Audit of the risk-based capital stress test.</HEAD>
<P>You must have a qualified, independent external auditor review your implementation of the risk-based capital stress test every 3 years and submit a copy of the auditor's opinion to us.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.33.2.11.14.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart B of Part 652—Risk-Based Capital Stress Test
</HEAD>
<FP-2>1.0 Introduction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.0 Credit Risk.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.1 Loss-Frequency and Loss-Severity Models for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.2 Loan-Seasoning Adjustment for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.3 Example Calculation of Dollar Loss on One Loan for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.4 Treatment of Loans Backed by an Obligation of the Counterparty and Loans for Which Pledged Loan Collateral Volume Exceeds Farmer Mac-Guaranteed Volume.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.5 Calculation of Loss Rates for Use in the Stress Test for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>2.6 Calculation of Loss Rates on Rural Utility Volume for Use in the Stress Test.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.0 Interest Rate Risk.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>3.1 Process for Calculating the Interest Rate Movement.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.0 Elements Used in Generating Cashflows.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.1 Data Inputs.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.2 Assumptions and Relationships.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.3 Risk Measures.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.4 Loan and Cashflow Accounts.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.5 Income Statements.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.6 Balance Sheets.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>4.7 Capital.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.0 Capital Calculations.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>5.1 Method of Calculation.
</FP-2>
<HD1>1.0 Introduction
</HD1>
<P>a. Appendix A provides details about the risk-based capital stress test (stress test) for Farmer Mac. The stress test calculates the risk-based capital level required by statute under stipulated conditions of credit risk and interest rate risk. The stress test uses loan-level data from Farmer Mac's agricultural mortgage portfolio or proxy data as described in section 4.1 d.(3) below, as well as quarterly Call Report and related information to generate pro forma financial statements and calculate a risk-based capital requirement. The stress test also uses historic agricultural real estate mortgage performance data, rural utility guarantee fees, relevant economic variables, and other inputs in its calculations of Farmer Mac's capital needs over a 10-year period.
</P>
<P>b. Appendix A establishes the requirements for all components of the stress test. The key components of the stress test are: Specifications of credit risk, interest rate risk, the cashflow generator, and the capital calculation. Linkages among the components ensure that the measures of credit and interest rate risk pass into the cashflow generator. The linkages also transfer cashflows through the financial statements to represent values of assets, liabilities, and equity capital. The 10-year projection is designed to reflect a steady state in the scope and composition of Farmer Mac's assets.
</P>
<HD1>2.0 Credit Risk
</HD1>
<P>Loan loss rates are determined by applying the loss-frequency equation and the loss-severity factor to Farmer Mac loan-level data. Using this equation and severity factor, you must calculate loan losses under stressful economic conditions assuming Farmer Mac's portfolio remains at a “steady state.” Steady state assumes the underlying characteristics and risks of Farmer Mac's portfolio remain constant over the 10 years of the stress test. Loss rates discussed in this section apply to all loans, unless otherwise indicated. Loss rates are computed from estimated dollar losses for use in the stress test. The loan volume subject to loss throughout the stress test is then multiplied by the loss rate. Lastly, the stress test allocates losses to each of the 10 years assuming a time pattern for loss occurrence as discussed in section 4.3, “Risk Measures.” 
</P>
<HD2>2.1 Loss-Frequency and Loss-Severity Models for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans
</HD2>
<P>a. Credit risks are modeled in the stress test using historical time series loan-level data to measure the frequency and severity of losses on agricultural mortgage loans. The model relates loss frequency and severity to loan-level characteristics and economic conditions through appropriately specified regression equations to account explicitly for the effects of these characteristics on loan losses. Loan losses for Farmer Mac are estimated from the resulting loss-frequency equation combined with the loss-severity factor by substituting the respective values of Farmer Mac's loan-level data or proxy data as described in section 4.1 d.(3) below, and applying stressful economic inputs.
</P>
<P>b. The loss-frequency equation and loss-severity factor were estimated from historical agricultural real estate mortgage loan data from the Farm Credit Bank of Texas (FCBT). Due to Farmer Mac's relatively short history, its own loan-level data are insufficiently developed for use in estimating the default frequency equation and loss-severity factor. In the future, however, expansions in both the scope and historic length of Farmer Mac's lending operations may support the use of its data in estimating the relationships.
</P>
<P>c. To estimate the equations, the data used included FCBT loans, which satisfied three of the four underwriting standards Farmer Mac currently uses (estimation data). The four standards specify: (1) The debt-to-assets ratio (D/A) must be less than 0.50, (2) the loan-to-value ratio (LTV) must be less than 0.70, (3) the debt-service-coverage ratio (DSCR) must exceed 1.25, (4) and the current ratio (current assets divided by current liabilities) must exceed 1.0. Furthermore, the D/A and LTV ratios were restricted to be less than or equal to 0.85.
</P>
<P>d. Several limitations in the FCBT loan-level data affect construction of the loss-frequency equation. The data contained loans that were originated between 1979 and 1992, but there were virtually no losses during the early years of the sample period. As a result, losses attributable to specific loans are only available from 1986 through 1992. In addition, no prepayment information was available in the data.
</P>
<P>e. The FCBT data used for estimation also included as performing loans, those loans that were re-amortized, paid in full, or merged with a new loan. Including these loans may lead to an understatement of loss-frequency probabilities if some of the re-amortized, paid, or merged loans experience default or incur losses. In contrast, when the loans that are re-amortized, paid in full, or merged are excluded from the analysis, the loss-frequency rates are overstated if a higher proportion of loans that are re-amortized, paid in full, or combined (merged) into a new loan are non-default loans compared to live loans. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Excluding loans with defaults, 11,527 loans were active and 7,515 loans were paid in full, re-amortized or merged as of 1992. A t-test 
<SU>2</SU> of the differences in the means for the group of defaulted loans and active loans indicated that active loans had significantly higher D/A and LTV ratios, and lower current ratios than defaulted loans where loss occurred. These results indicate that, on average, active loans have potentially higher risk than loans that were re-amortized, paid in full, or merged.</P></FTNT>
<P>f. The structure of the historical FCBT data supports estimation of loss frequency based on origination information and economic conditions. Under an origination year approach, each observation is used only once in estimating loan default. The underwriting variables at origination and economic factors occurring over the life of the loan are then used to estimate loan-loss frequency.
</P>
<P>g. The final loss-frequency equation is based on origination year data and represents a lifetime loss-frequency model. The final equation for loss frequency is:
</P>
<FP-2>p = 1/(1 + exp(−(BX))
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>BX = (−12.62738) + 1.91259 · X<E T="52">1</E> + (−0.33830) · X<E T="52">2</E> / (1 + 0.0413299)<E T="51">Periods</E> + (−0.19596) · X<E T="52">3</E> + 4.55390 · (1−exp((−0.00538178) · X<E T="52">4</E>) + 2.49482 · X<E T="52">5</E>
</FP-2>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>• p is the probability that a loan defaults and has positive losses (Pr (Y = 1 | x));
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• X<E T="52">1</E> is the LTV ratio at loan origination raised to the power 5.3914596; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Loss probability is likely to be more sensitive to changes in LTV at higher values of LTV. The power function provides a continuous relationship between LTV and defaults.</P></FTNT>
<FP-2>• X<E T="52">2</E> is the largest annual percentage decline in FCBT farmland values during the life of the loan dampened with a factor of 0.0413299 per year; 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The dampening function reflects the declining effect that the maximum land value decline has on the probability of default when it occurs later in a loan's life.</P></FTNT>
<FP-2>• X<E T="52">3</E> is the DSCR at loan origination; 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• X<E T="52">4</E> is 1 minus the exponential of the product of negative 0.00538178 and the original loan balance in 1997 dollars expressed in thousands; and 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• X<E T="52">5</E> is the D/A ratio at loan origination.
</FP-2>
<P>h. The estimated logit coefficients and p-values are: 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The nonlinear parameters for the variable transformations were simultaneously estimated using SAS version 8e NLIN procedure. The NLIN procedure produces estimates of the parameters of a nonlinear transformation for LTV, dampening factor, and loan-size variables. To implement the NLIN procedure, the loss-frequency equation and its variables are declared and initial parameter values supplied. The NLIN procedure is an iterative process that uses the initial parameter values as the starting values for the first iteration and continues to iterate until acceptable parameters are solved. The initial values for the power function and dampening function are based on the proposed rule. The procedure for the initial values for the size variable parameter is provided in an Excel spreadsheet posted at <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I> The Gauss-Newton method is the selected iterative solving process. As described in the preamble, the loss-frequency function for the nonlinear model is the negative of the log-likelihood function, thus producing maximum likelihood estimates. In order to obtain statistical properties for the loss-frequency equation and verify the logistic coefficients, the estimates for the nonlinear transformations are applied to the FCBT data and the loss-frequency model is re-estimated using the SAS Logistic procedure. The SAS procedures, output reports and Excel spreadsheet used to estimate the parameters of the loss-frequency equation are located on the Web site <I>http://www.fca.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Coefficients 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">p-value 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Intercept</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−12.62738</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.0001 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">1</E>: LTV variable</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.91259</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0001 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">2</E>: Max land value decline variable</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.33830</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.0001 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">3</E>: DSCR</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−0.19596</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0002 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">4</E>: Loan size variable</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.55390</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.0001 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">X<E T="52">5</E>: D/A ratio</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.49482</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">&lt;0.0000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>i. The low p-values on each coefficient indicate a highly significant relationship between the probability ratio of loan-loss frequency and the respective independent variables. Other goodness-of-fit indicators are: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Hosmer and Lemeshow goodness-of-fit p-value</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.1718 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Max-rescaled R
<sup>2</sup></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.2015 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Concordant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">85.2% 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Disconcordant</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0% 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tied</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.8%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>j. These variables have logical relationships to the incidence of loan default and loss, as evidenced by the findings of numerous credit-scoring studies in agricultural finance. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> Each of the variable coefficients has directional relationships that appropriately capture credit risk from underwriting variables and, therefore, the incidence of loan-loss frequency. The frequency of loan loss was found to differ significantly across all of the loan characteristics and lending conditions. Farmland values represent an appropriate variable for capturing the effects of exogenous economic factors. It is commonly accepted that farmland values at any point in time reflect the discounted present value of expected returns to the land. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Thus, changes in land values, as expressed in the loss-frequency equation, represent the combined effects of the level and growth rates of farm income, interest rates, and inflationary expectations—each of which is accounted for in the discounted, present value process.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Splett, N.S., P. J. Barry, B. Dixon, and P. Ellinger. “A Joint Experience and Statistical Approach to Credit Scoring,” <I>Agricultural Finance Review</I>, 54(1994):39-54.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Barry, P. J., P. N. Ellinger, J. A. Hopkin, and C. B. Baker. <I>Financial Management in Agriculture</I>, 5th ed., Interstate Publishers, 1995.</P></FTNT>
<P>k. When applying the equation to Farmer Mac's portfolio, you must get the input values for X<E T="52">1</E>, X<E T="52">3</E>, X<E T="52">4</E>, and X<E T="52">5</E> for each loan in Farmer Mac's portfolio on the date at which the stress test is conducted, using either submitted data or proxy data as described in section 4.1 d.(3) below. For the variable X<E T="52">2</E>, the stressful input value from the benchmark loss experience is −23.52 percent. You must apply this input to all Farmer Mac loans subject to loss to calculate loss frequency under stressful economic conditions. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> The maximum land value decline from the benchmark loss experience is the simple average of annual land value changes for Iowa, Illinois, and Minnesota for the years 1984 and 1985. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> On- and off-balance sheet Farmer Mac I agricultural mortgage program assets booked after the 1996 Act amendments are subject to the loss calculation.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> While the worst-case losses, based on origination year, occurred during 1983 and 1984, this benchmark was determined using annual land value changes that occurred 2 years later.</P></FTNT>
<P>l. Forecasting with data outside the range of the estimation data requires special treatment for implementation. While the estimation data embody Farmer Mac values for various loan characteristics, the maximum farmland price decline experienced in Texas was −16.69 percent, a value below the benchmark experience of −23.52 percent. To control for this effect, you must apply a procedure that restricts the slope of all the independent variables to that observed at the maximum land value decline observed in the estimation data. Essentially, you must approximate the slope of the loss-frequency equation at the point −16.69 percent in order to adjust the probability of loan default and loss occurrence for data beyond the range in the estimating data. The adjustment procedure is shown in step 4 of section 2.3 entitled, “Example Calculation of Dollar Loss on One Loan.”
</P>
<P>m. Loss severity was not found to vary systematically and was considered constant across the tested loan characteristics and lending conditions. Thus, the simple weighted average by loss volume of 20.9 percent is used in the stress test. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> You must multiply loss severity with the probability estimate computed from the loss-frequency equation to determine the loss rate for a loan.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> We calculated the weighted-average loss severity from the estimation data.</P></FTNT>
<P>n. Using original loan balance results in estimated probabilities of loss frequency over the entire life of a loan. To account for loan seasoning, you must reduce the loan-loss exposure by the cumulative probability of loss already experienced by each loan as discussed in section 2.2 entitled, “Loan-Seasoning Adjustment.” This subtraction is based on loan age and reduces the loss estimated by the loss-frequency and loss-severity equations. The result is an age-adjusted lifetime dollar loss that can be used in subsequent calculations of loss rates as discussed in section 2.4, “Calculation of Loss Rates for Use in the Stress Test.” 
</P>
<HD2>2.2 Loan-Seasoning Adjustment for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans
</HD2>
<P>a. You must use the seasoning function supplied by FCA to adjust the calculated probability of loss for each Farmer Mac loan for the cumulative loss exposure already experienced based on the age of each loan. The seasoning function is based on the same data used to determine the loss-frequency equation and an assumed average life of 14 years for agricultural mortgages. If we determine that the relationship between the loss experience in Farmer Mac's portfolio over time and the seasoning function can be improved, we may augment or replace the seasoning function.
</P>
<P>b. The seasoning function is parameterized as a beta distribution with parameters of p = 4.288 and q = 5.3185. 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> How the loan-seasoning distribution is used is shown in Step 7 of section 2.3, “Example Calculation of Dollar Loss on One Loan.” 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> We estimated the loan-seasoning distribution from portfolio aggregate charge-off rates from the estimation data. To do so, we arrayed all defaulting loans where loss occurred according to the time from origination to default. Then, a beta distribution, β(p, q), was fit to the estimation data scaled to the maximum time a loan survived (14 years).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>2.3 Example Calculation of Dollar Loss on One Loan for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans
</HD2>
<P>Here is an example of the calculation of the dollar losses for an individual loan with the following characteristics and input values: 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> In the examples presented we rounded the numbers, but the example calculation is based on a larger number of significant digits. The stress test uses additional digits carried at the default precision of the software.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Origination Year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1996 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Origination Balance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,250,000 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">LTV at Origination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">D/A at Origination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DSCR at Origination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3984 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Maximum Percentage Land Price Decline (MAX)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−23.52</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> Convert 1996 Origination Value to 1997 dollar value (LOAN) based on the consumer price index and transform as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>$1,278,500 = $1,250,000 · 1.0228 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>0.998972 = 1 − exp((−.00538178) · $1,278,500 / 1000)
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> Calculate the default probabilities using −16.64 percent and −16.74 percent land value declines as follows: 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> This process facilitates the approximation of slope needed to adjust the loss probabilities for land value declines greater than observed in the estimation data.</P></FTNT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>Z<E T="52">1</E> = (−12.62738) + 1.91259 · LTV<E T="51">5.3914596</E> − 0.33830 · (−16.6439443) − 0.19596 · DSCR + 4.55390 · 0.998972 + 2.49482 · DA = (−1.428509) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Default Loss Frequency at (−16.64%) =
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 / 1 + exp<E T="51">−(−1.428509)</E> = 0.19333111 
</FP-2>
<FP>And
</FP>
<FP-2>Z<E T="52">1</E> = (−12.62738) + 1.91259 · LTV<E T="51">5.3914596</E> − 0.33830 · (−16.7439443) − 0.19596 · DSCR + 4.55390 · 0.998972 + 2.49482 · DA = (−1.394679)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Loss Frequency Probability at (−16.74%) = 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>1 / 1 + exp<E T="51">−(−1.394679)</E> = 0.19866189
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 3:</I> Calculate the slope adjustment. You must calculate slope by subtracting the difference between “Loss-Frequency Probability at −16.64 percent” and “Loss-Frequency Probability at −16.74 percent” and dividing by −0.1 (the difference between −16.64 percent and −16.74 percent) as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>0.05330776 = (0.19333111 − 0.19866189) / −0.1
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 4:</I> Make the linear adjustment. You make the adjustment by increasing the loss-frequency probability where the dampened stressed farmland value input is less than −16.69 percent to reflect the stressed farmland value input, appropriately discounted. As discussed previously, the stressed land value input is discounted to reflect the declining effect that the maximum land value decline has on the probability of default when it occurs later in a loan's life. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> The linear adjustment is the difference between −16.69 percent land value decline and the adjusted stressed maximum land value decline input of −23.52 multiplied by the slope estimated in Step 3 as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> The dampened period is the number of years from the beginning of the origination year to the current year (i.e., January 1, 1996 to January 1, 2000 is 4 years).</P></FTNT>
<FP-2>Loss Frequency at −16.69 percent = 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Z<E T="52">1</E> = (−12.62738) + (1.91259)(LTV<E T="51">5.3914596</E>) − (0.33830)(−16.6939443) − (0.19596)(DSCR) + (4.55390)(0.998972) + (2.49482)(DA) = −1.411594 
</FP-2>
<FP>And
</FP>
<FP-2>1 / 1 + exp<E T="51">−(−1.411594)</E> = 0.19598279 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Dampened Maximum Land Price Decline = (−20.00248544) = (−23.52)(1.0413299)<E T="51">−4</E> 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Slope Adjustment = 0.17637092 = 0.053312247 · (−16.6939443 − (−20.00248544)) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Loan Default Probability = 0.37235371 = 0.19598279 + 0.17637092
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 5:</I> Multiply loan default probability times the average severity of 0.209 as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>0.077821926 = 0.37235371 · 0.209
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 6:</I> Multiply the loss rate times the origination loan balance as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>$97,277 = $1,250,000 · 0.077821926
</FP-2>
<P><I>Step 7:</I> Adjust the origination based dollar losses for 4 years of loan seasoning as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>$81,987 = $97,277 − $97,277 · (0.157178762) 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP-2>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> The age of adjustment of 0.157178762 is determined from the beta distribution for a 4-year-old loan.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>2.4 Treatment of Loans Backed by an Obligation of the Counterparty and Loans for Which Pledged Loan Collateral Volume Exceeds Farmer Mac-Guaranteed Volume 
</HD2>
<P>You must calculate the age-adjusted loss rates for these loans that include adjustments to scale losses according to the proportion of total submitted collateral to the guaranteed amount as provided for in the “Dollar Losses” column of the transformed worksheets in the Credit Loss Module based on new data inputs required in the “Coefficients” worksheet of the Credit Loss Module. Then, you must adjust the calculated loss rates as follows.
</P>
<P>a. For loans in which the seller retains a subordinated interest, subtract from the total estimated age-adjusted dollar losses on the pool the amount equal to current unpaid principal times the subordinated interest percentage.
</P>
<P>b. Some pools of loans underlying specific transactions could include loan collateral volume pledged to Farmer Mac in excess of Farmer Mac's guarantee amount (“overcollateral”). Overcollateral can be either: (i) Contractually required according to the terms of the transaction, or (ii) not contractually required, but pledged in addition to the contractually required amount at the discretion of the counterparty, often for purposes of administrative convenience regarding the collateral substitution process, or (iii) both (i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>1. If a pool of loans includes collateral pledged in excess of the guaranteed amount, you must adjust the age-adjusted, loan-level dollar losses by a factor equal to the ratio of the guarantee amount to total submitted collateral. For example, consider a pool of two loans serving as security for a Farmer Mac guarantee on a note with a total issuance face value of $2 million and on which the counterparty has submitted 10-percent overcollateral. The two loans in the example have the following characteristics and adjustments.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Origination
<br/>balance
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age-adjusted loss rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated age-adjusted losses
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Guarantee amount scaling adjustment
<br/>(2/2.2)
<br/>(Percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Losses adjusted for overcollateral
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,080,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$75,600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$68,727
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,120,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50,909</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>2. If a pool of loans includes collateral pledged in excess of the guaranteed amount that is required under the terms of the transaction, you must further adjust the dollar losses as follows. Calculate the total losses on the subject portfolio of loans after age adjustments and any adjustments related to total submitted overcollateral as described in “1.” above. Calculate the total dollar amount of contractually required overcollateral in the subject pool. Subtract the total dollars of contractually required overcollateral from the adjusted total losses on the subject pool. If the result is less than or equal to zero, input a loss rate of zero for this transaction pool in the Data Inputs worksheet of the RBCST. A new category must be created for each such transaction in the RBCST. If the loss rate after subtracting contractually required overcollateral is greater than zero, proceed to additional adjustment for the risk-reducing effects of the counterparty's general obligation described in “3.” below.
</P>
<P>3. Loans with a positive loss estimate remaining after adjustments in “1.” and “2.” above are further adjusted for the security provided by the general obligation of the counterparty. To make this adjustment in our example, multiply the estimated dollar losses remaining after adjustments in “1.” and “2.” above by the appropriate general obligation adjustment (GOA) factor based on the counterparty's whole-letter issuer credit rating by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization (NRSRO) and the ratio of the counterparty's concentration of risk in the same industry sector as the loans backing the AgVantage Plus volume, as determined by the Director.
</P>
<P>A. The Director will make final determinations of concentration ratios on a case-by-case basis by using publicly reported data on counterparty portfolios, non-public data submitted and certified by Farmer Mac as part of its RBCST submissions, and will generally recognize rural electric cooperatives and rural telephone cooperatives as separate rural utility sectors. The following table sets forth the GOA factors and their components by whole-letter credit rating (Adjustment Factor = Default Rate × Severity Rate × 3), which may be further adjusted for industry sector concentration by the Director.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Emery, K., Ou S., Tennant, J., Kim F., Cantor R., “Corporate Default and Recovery Rates, 1920—2007,” published by Moody's Investors Service, February 2008—the most recent edition as of March 2008; Default Rates, page 24, Recovery Rates (Severity Rate = 1 minus Senior Unsecured Average Recovery Rate) page 20.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">B
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">C
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">D
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">E
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">F
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">G
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Whole-letter
<br/>rating
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Default rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Severity rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">V3.0 GOA factor
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">V4.0 GOA
<br/>factors (D × 3)
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Concentration
<br/>ratio (e.g., 25%)
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Factor with
<br/>concentration
<br/>adjustment 1−
<br/>((1−E) × (1−F))
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AAA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.897</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.294</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.78
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.901</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.57</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28.84
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BBB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.061</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.48</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">33.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below BBB and Unrated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.827</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">58.39</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>B. The adjustment factors will be updated annually as Moody's annual report on Default and Recovery Rates of Corporate Bond Issuers becomes available, normally in January or February of each year. In the event that there is an interruption of Moody's publication of this annual report, or FCA determines that the format of the report has changed enough to prevent or call into question the identification of updated factors, the prior year's factors will remain in effect until FCA revises the process through rulemaking.
</P>
<P>4. Continuing the previous example, the pool contains two loans on which Farmer Mac is guaranteeing a total of $2 million and with total submitted collateral of 110 percent of the guaranteed amount. Of the 10-percent total overcollateral, 5 percent is contractually required under the terms of the transaction. The pool consists of two loans of slightly over $1 million. Total overcollateral is $200,000 of which $100,000 is contractually required. The counterparty has a single “A” credit rating, a 25-percent concentration ratio, and after adjusting for contractually required overcollateral, estimated losses are greater than zero. The net loss rate is calculated as described in the steps in the table below.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan A
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan B
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 Guaranteed Volume</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$2,000,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 Origination Balance of 2-Loan Portfolio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,080,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,120,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Age-Adjusted Loss Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Estimated Age-Adjusted Losses</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$75,600</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$56,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Guarantee Volume Scaling Factor</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.91%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90.91%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Losses Adjusted for Total Overcollateral</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$68,727</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$50,909
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 Contractually Required Overcollateral on Pool (5%)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$100,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 Net Losses on Pool Adjusted for Contractually Required Overcollateral</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$19,636
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 GOA Factor for “A” Issuer with 25% Concentration Ratio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">28.84%
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 Losses Adjusted for “A” General Obligation</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">$5,664
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Loss Rate Input in the RBCST for this Pool</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">0.28%</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>A. The net, fully adjusted losses are distributed over time on a straight-line basis. When a transaction reaches maturity within the 10-year modeling horizon, the losses are distributed on a straightline over a timepath that ends in the year of the transaction's maturity.
</P>
<P>B. [Reserved]
</P>
<HD2>2.5 Calculation of Loss Rates for Use in the Stress Test for All Types of Loans, Except Rural Utility Loans
</HD2>
<P>a. You must compute the loss rates by state as the dollar weighted average seasoned loss rates from the Cash Window and Standby loan portfolios by state. The spreadsheet entitled, “Credit Loss Module.XLS” can be used for these calculations. This spreadsheet is available for download on our Web site, <I>www.fca.gov</I>, or will be provided upon request. The blended loss rates for each state are copied from the “Credit Loss Module” to the stress test spreadsheet for determining Farmer Mac's regulatory capital requirement.
</P>
<P>b. The stress test use of the blended loss rates is further discussed in section 4.3, “Risk Measures.” 
</P>
<HD2>2.6 Calculation of Loss Rates on Rural Utility Volume for-Use in the Stress Test
</HD2>
<P>You must submit the outstanding principal, maturity date of the loan, maturity date of the AgVantage Plus contract (if applicable), and the rural utility guarantee fee percentage for each loan in Farmer Mac's rural utility loan portfolio on the date at which the stress test is conducted. You must multiply the rural utility guarantee fee by two to calculate the loss rate on rural utility loans under stressful economic conditions and then multiply the loss rate by the total outstanding principal. To arrive at the net rural utility loan losses, you must next apply the steps “5” through “11” of section 2.4.b.4 of this Appendix. For loans under an AgVantage Plus-type structure, the calculated losses are distributed over time on a straight-line basis. For loans that are not part of an AgVantage Plus-type structure, losses are distributed over the 10-year modeling horizon, consistent with other non-AgVantage Plus loan volume.
</P>
<HD1>3.0 Interest Rate Risk
</HD1>
<P>The stress test explicitly accounts for Farmer Mac's vulnerability to interest rate risk from the movement in interest rates specified in the statute. The stress test considers Farmer Mac's interest rate risk position through the current structure of its balance sheet, reported interest rate risk shock-test results, 
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> and other financial activities. The stress test calculates the effect of interest rate risk exposure through market value changes of interest-bearing assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet transactions, and thereby the effects to equity capital. The stress test also captures this exposure through the cashflows on rate-sensitive assets and liabilities. We discuss how to calculate the dollar impact of interest rate risk in section 4.6, “Balance Sheets.” 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See paragraph c. of section 4.1 entitled, “Data Inputs,” for a description of the interest rate risk shock-reporting requirement.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>3.1 Process for Calculating the Interest Rate Movement
</HD2>
<P>a. The stress test uses the 10-year Constant Maturity Treasury (10-year CMT) released by the Federal Reserve in HR. 15, “Selected Interest Rates.” The stress test uses the 10-year CMT to generate earnings yields on assets, expense rates on liabilities, and changes in the market value of assets and liabilities. For stress test purposes, the starting rate for the 10-year CMT is the 3-month average of the most recent monthly rate series published by the Federal Reserve. The 3-month average is calculated by summing the latest monthly series of the 10-year CMT and dividing by three. For instance, you would calculate the initial rate on June 30, 1999, as:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month end 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10-year CMT monthly series
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">04/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">05/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">06/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Average</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.54</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>b. The amount by which the stress test shocks the initial rate up and down is determined by calculating the 12-month average of the 10-year CMT monthly series. If the resulting average is less than 12 percent, the stress test shocks the initial rate by an amount determined by multiplying the 12-month average rate by 50 percent. However, if the average is greater than or equal to 12 percent, the stress test shocks the initial rate by 600 basis points. For example, determine the amount by which to increase and decrease the initial rate for June 30, 1999, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month end
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">10-year CMT monthly series
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">07/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">08/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.34
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">09/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.81
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.53
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12/1998</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.65
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">01/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">02/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">03/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">04/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">05/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">06/1999</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12-Month Average</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Calculation of shock amount
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12-Month Average Less than 12%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12-Month Average</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">5.10.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Multiply the 12-Month Average by</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">50%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Shock in basis points equals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">255.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>c. You must run the stress test for two separate changes in interest rates: (i) An immediate increase in the initial rate by the shock amount; and (ii) immediate decrease in the initial rate by the shock amount. The stress test then holds the changed interest rate constant for the remainder of the 10-year stress period. For example, at June 30, 1999, the stress test would be run for an immediate and sustained (for 10 years) upward movement in interest rates to 8.09 percent (5.54 percent plus 255 basis points) and also for an immediate and sustained (for 10 years) downward movement in interest rates to 2.99 percent (5.54 percent minus 255 basis points). The movement in interest rates that results in the greatest need for capital is then used to determine Farmer Mac's risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<HD1>4.0 Elements Used in Generating Cashflows
</HD1>
<P>a. This section describes the elements that are required for implementation of the stress test and assessment of Farmer Mac capital performance through time. An Excel spreadsheet named FAMC RBCST, available at <I>http://www.fca.gov</I>, contains the stress test, including the cashflow generator. The spreadsheet contains the following seven worksheets:
</P>
<P>(1) Data Input;
</P>
<P>(2) Assumptions and Relationships;
</P>
<P>(3) Risk Measures (credit risk and interest rate risk);
</P>
<P>(4) Loan and Cash Flow Accounts;
</P>
<P>(5) Income Statements;
</P>
<P>(6) Balance Sheets; and
</P>
<P>(7) Capital.
</P>
<P>b. Each of the components is described in further detail below with references where appropriate to the specific worksheets within the Excel spreadsheet. The stress test may be generally described as a set of linked financial statements that evolve over a period of 10 years using generally accepted accounting conventions and specified sets of stressed inputs. The stress test uses the initial financial condition of Farmer Mac, including earnings and funding relationships, and the credit and interest rate stressed inputs to calculate Farmer Mac's capital performance through time. The stress test then subjects the initial financial conditions to the first period set of credit and interest rate risk stresses, generates cashflows by asset and liability category, performs necessary accounting postings into relevant accounts, and generates an income statement associated with the first interval of time. The stress test then uses the income statement to update the balance sheet for the end of period 1 (beginning of period 2). All necessary capital calculations for that point in time are then performed.
</P>
<P>c. The beginning of the period 2 balance sheet then serves as the departure point for the second income cycle. The second period's cashflows and resulting income statement are generated in similar fashion as the first period's except all inputs (<I>i.e.</I>, the periodic loan losses, portfolio balance by category, and liability balances) are updated appropriately to reflect conditions at that point in time. The process evolves forward for a period of 10 years with each pair of balance sheets linked by an intervening set of cashflow and income statements. In this and the following sections, additional details are provided about the specification of the income-generating model to be used by Farmer Mac in calculating the risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<HD2>4.1 Data Inputs
</HD2>
<P>The stress test requires the initial financial statement conditions and income generating relationships for Farmer Mac. The worksheet named “Data Inputs” contains the complete data inputs and the data form used in the stress test. The stress test uses these data and various assumptions to calculate pro forma financial statements. For stress test purposes, Farmer Mac is required to supply:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Call Report Schedules RC: Balance Sheet and RI: Income Statement.</I> These schedules form the starting financial position for the stress test. In addition, the stress test calculates basic financial relationships and assumptions used in generating pro forma annual financial statements over the 10-year stress period. Financial relationships and assumptions are in section 4.2, “Assumptions and Relationships.”
</P>
<P>b. <I>Cashflow Data for Asset and Liability Account Categories.</I> The necessary cashflow data for the spreadsheet-based stress test are book value, weighted average yield, weighted average maturity, conditional prepayment rate, weighted average amortization, and weighted average guarantee fees and rural utility guarantee fees. The spreadsheet uses this cashflow information to generate starting and ending account balances, interest earnings, guarantee fees, rural utility guarantee fees, and interest expense. Each asset and liability account category identified in this data requirement is discussed in section 4.2 “Assumptions and Relationships.”
</P>
<P>c. <I>Interest Rate Risk Measurement Results.</I> The stress test uses the results from Farmer Mac's interest rate risk model to represent changes in the market value of assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet positions during upward and downward instantaneous shocks in interest rates of 300, 250, 200, 150, and 100 basis points. The stress test uses these data to calculate a schedule of estimated effective durations representing the market value effects from a change in interest rates. The stress test uses a linear interpolation of the duration schedule to relate a change in interest rates to a change in the market value of equity. This calculation is described in section 4.4 entitled, “Loan and Cashflow Accounts,” and is illustrated in the referenced worksheet of the stress test.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Loan-Level Data for all Farmer Mac I Program Assets.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The stress test requires loan-level data for all Farmer Mac I program assets to determine lifetime age-adjusted loss rates. The specific loan data fields required for running the credit risk component are:
</P>
<HD3>Farmer Mac I Program Loan Data Fields 
</HD3>
<FP-1>Loan Number 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Ending Scheduled Balance 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Group 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Pre/Post Act 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Property State 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Product Type 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Origination Date 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loan Cutoff Date 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Original Loan Balance 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Original Scheduled P&amp;I 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Original Appraised Value 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Loan-to-Value Ratio 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Debt-to-Assets Ratio 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Current Assets 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Current Liabilities 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total Assets 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total Liabilities 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Gross Farm Revenue 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Net Farm Income 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Depreciation 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Interest on Capital Debt 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Capital Lease Payments 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Living Expenses 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Income &amp; FICA Taxes 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Net Off-Farm Income 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total Debt Service 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Guarantee/Commitment Fee 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Seasoned Loan Flag
</FP-1>
<P>(2) From the loan-level data, you must identify the geographic distribution by state of Farmer Mac's loan portfolio and enter the current loan balance for each state in the “Data Inputs” worksheet. The lifetime age-adjustment of origination year loss rates was discussed in section 2.0, “Credit Risk.” The lifetime age-adjusted loss rates are entered in the “Risk Measures” worksheet of the stress test. The stress test application of the loss rates is discussed in section 4.3, “Risk Measures.”
</P>
<P>(3) Under certain circumstances, described below, you must substitute the following data proxies for the variables LTV, DSCR, and D/A: LTV = 0.70, DSCR = 1.25, and D/A = 0.50. The substitution must be done whenever any of these data are missing, i.e., cells are blank, or one or more of the conditions in the following table is true.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condition 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Apply 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Total Assets = 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy D/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Total Liabilities = 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy D/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Total assets less total liabilities &lt;0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy D/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Total debt service = 0 or not calculable</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy DSCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5. Net farm income = 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy DSCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6. LTV ratio = 0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy LTV.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7. Total assets less than original appraised value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy LTV, D/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8. Total liabilities less than the original loan amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy D/A.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9. Total debt service is less than original scheduled principal and interest payment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy DSCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10. Depreciation, interest on capital debt, capital lease payments, or living expenses are reported as less than zero</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy DSCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11. Original Scheduled Principal and Interest is greater than Total Debt Service</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy DSCR.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12. Calculated LTV (original loan amount divided by original appraised value) does not equal the submitted LTV ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The greater of the two LTV ratios.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13. Any of the fields referenced in “1.” through “12.” above are blank or contain spaces, periods, zeros, negative amounts, or fonts formatted to any setting other than numbers</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy all related ratios.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>In addition, the following loan data adjustments must be made in response to the situations listed below: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Situation 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data adjustment 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Original loan balance is less than scheduled loan balance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Substitute scheduled balance for origination.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Purchase (commitment) date (a.k.a. “cutoff” date) field and Origination date field are both blank</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Insert the quarter end “as of” date of the RBCST submission.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Origination date field is blank</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Model based on Cutoff date.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Seasoned Standby loans that include loan data</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Proxy data applied.* 
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* Application of proxy data recognizes that underwriting data on seasoned Standby loans are not reviewed by Farmer Mac in favor of other criteria and frequently not origination data.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>Further, because it would not be possible to compile an exhaustive list of loan data anomalies, FCA reserves the authority to require an explanation on other data anomalies it identifies and to apply the loan data proxies on such cases until the anomaly is adequately addressed by the Corporation.
</P>
<P>e. <I>Loan-Level Data for All Rural Utility Program Volume.</I> The stress test requires loan-level data for all rural utility program volume. The specific loan data fields required for calculating the credit risk are outstanding principal, maturity date of the loan, maturity date of the AgVantage Plus contract (if applicable), and the rural utility guarantee fee percentage for each loan in Farmer Mac's rural utility loan portfolio on the date at which the stress test is conducted.
</P>
<P>f. <I>Weighted Haircuts for Non-Program Investments.</I> For non-program investments, the stress test adjusts the weighted average yield data referenced in section 4.1.b. to reflect counterparty risk. Non-program investments are defined in § 652.5. The Corporation must calculate the haircut to be applied to each investment based on the lowest whole-letter credit rating the investment received from an NRSRO using the haircut levels in effect at the time. Haircut levels shall be the same amounts calculated for the GOA factor in section 2.4.b.3 above. The first table provides the mappings of NRSRO ratings to whole-letter ratings for purposes of applying haircuts. Any “ + ” or “−” signs appended to NRSRO ratings that are not shown in the table should be ignored for purposes of mapping NRSRO ratings to FCA whole-letter ratings. The second table provides the haircut levels by whole-letter rating category.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">FCA Whole-Letter Credit Ratings Mapped to Rating Agency Credit Ratings
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FCA Ratings Category</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AAA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BBB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below BBB and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard &amp; Poor's Long-Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AAA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BBB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below BBB and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fitch Long-Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AAA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">AA</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">BBB</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below BBB and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standard &amp; Poor's Short-Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-1 + 
<br/>SP-1 + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-1
<br/>SP-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-2
<br/>SP-2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">SP-3, B, or Below and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fitch Short-Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F-1 + </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F-1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F-2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">F-3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Below F-3 and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moody's</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prime-MIG12
<br/>VMIg1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prime-2 MIG2 VMIG2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Prime-3 MIG3 VMIG3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Not Prime, SG and Unrated.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Fitch Bank Ratings</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B
<br/>A/B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C
<br/>B/C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D
<br/>C/D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E.
<br/>D/E.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moody's Bank Financial Strength Rating</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">B</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">C</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">D</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">E.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Farmer Mac RBCST Maximum Haircut by Ratings Classification
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Ratings classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-program
<br/>investment
<br/>counterparties (excluding
<br/>derivatives)
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AAA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.41
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">AA</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">BBB</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Below BBB or Unrated</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">44.52</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>1. Certain special cases will receive the following treatment. For an investment structured as a collateralized obligation backed by the issuer's general obligation and, in turn, a pool of collateral, reference the Issuer Rating or Financial Strength Rating of that issuer as the credit rating applicable to the security. Unrated securities that are fully guaranteed by Government-sponsored enterprises (GSE) such as the Federal National Mortgage Corporation (Fannie Mae) will receive the same treatment as AAA securities. Unrated securities backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government will not receive a haircut. Unrated securities that are not fully guaranteed by a GSE will receive the haircut level in place at that time for “Below BBB and Unrated” investments unless the Director, at the Director's discretion, determines to apply a lesser haircut. In making this determination, the Director will consider the risk characteristics associated with the structure of individual instruments.
</P>
<P>2. If portions of investments are later sold by Farmer Mac according to their specific risk characteristics, the Director will take reasonable measures to adjust the haircut level applied to the investment to recognize the change in the risk characteristics of the retained portion. The Director will consider relevant similar methods for dealing with capital requirements adopted by other Federal financial institution regulators in similar situations.
</P>
<P>3. Individual investment haircuts must then be aggregated into weighted-average haircuts by investment category and submitted in the “Data Inputs” worksheet. The spreadsheet uses these inputs to reduce the weighted-average yield on the investment category to account for counterparty insolvency according to a 10-year linear phase-in of the haircuts. Each asset account category identified in this data requirement is discussed in section 4.2, “Assumptions and Relationships.”
</P>
<HD2>4.2 Assumptions and Relationships
</HD2>
<P>a. The stress test assumptions are summarized on the worksheet called “Assumptions and Relationships.” Some of the entries on this page are direct user entries. Other entries are relationships generated from data supplied by Farmer Mac or other sources as discussed in section 4.1, “Data Inputs.” After current financial data are entered, the user selects the date for running the stress test. This action causes the stress test to identify and select the appropriate data from the “Data Inputs” worksheet. The next section highlights the degree of disaggregation needed to maintain reasonably representative financial characterizations of Farmer Mac in the stress test. Several specific assumptions are established about the future relationships of account balances and how they evolve.
</P>
<P>b. From the data and assumptions, the stress test computes pro forma financial statements for 10 years. The stress test must be run as a “steady state” with regard to program balances (with the exception of AgVantage Plus volume, in which case maturities are recognized by the model), and where possible, will use information gleaned from recent financial statements and other data supplied by Farmer Mac to establish earnings and cost relationships on major program assets that are applied forward in time. As documented in the stress test, entries of “1” imply no growth and/or no change in account balances or proportions relative to initial conditions with the exception of pre-1996 loan volume being transferred to post-1996 loan volume. The interest rate risk and credit loss components are applied to the stress test through time. The individual sections of that worksheet are:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Elements related to cashflows, earnings rates, and disposition of discontinued program assets.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The stress test accounts for earnings rates by asset class and cost rates on funding. The stress test aggregates investments into the categories of: Cash and money market securities; commercial paper; certificates of deposit; agency mortgage-backed securities and collateralized mortgage obligations; and other investments. With FCA's concurrence, Farmer Mac is permitted to further disaggregate these categories. Similarly, we may require new categories for future activities to be added to the stress test. Loan items requiring separate accounts include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Farmer Mac I program assets post-1996 Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Farmer Mac I program assets post-1996 Act Swap balances;
</P>
<P>(iii) Farmer Mac I program assets pre-1996 Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Farmer Mac I AgVantage securities;
</P>
<P>(v) Loans held for securitization;
</P>
<P>(vi) Farmer Mac II program assets; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Rural Utility program volume on balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(B) The stress test also uses data elements related to amortization and prepayment experience to calculate and process the implied rates at which asset and liability balances terminate or “roll off” through time. Further, for each category, the stress test has the capacity to track account balances that are expected to change through time for each of the above categories. For purposes of the stress test, all assets are assumed to maintain a “steady state” with the implication that any principal balances retired or prepaid are replaced with new balances. The exceptions are that expiring pre-1996 Act program assets are replaced with post-1996 Act program assets and AgVantage Plus volume maturities are recognized by the model.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements related to other balance sheet assumptions through time.</I> As well as interest earning assets, the other categories of the balance sheet that are modeled through time include interest receivable, guarantee fees receivable, rural utility guarantee fees receivable, prepaid expenses, accrued interest payable, accounts payable, accrued expenses, reserves for losses (loans held and guaranteed securities), and other off-balance sheet obligations. The stress test is consistent with Farmer Mac's existing reporting categories and practices. If reporting practices change substantially, the above list will be adjusted accordingly. The stress test has the capacity to have the balances in each of these accounts determined based upon existing relationships to other earning accounts, to keep their balances either in constant proportions of loan or security accounts, or to evolve according to a user-selected rule. For purposes of the stress test, these accounts are to remain constant relative to the proportions of their associated balance sheet accounts that generated the accrued balances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elements related to income and expense assumptions.</I> Several other parameters that are required to generate pro forma financial statements may not be easily captured from historic data or may have characteristics that suggest that they be individually supplied. These parameters are the gain on agricultural mortgage-backed securities (AMBS) sales, miscellaneous income, operating expenses, reserve requirement, guarantee fees, rural utility guarantee fees, and loan loss resolution timing.
</P>
<P>(A) The stress test applies the actual weighted average gain rate on sales of AMBS over the most recent 3 years to the dollar amount of AMBS sold during the most recent four quarters in order to estimate gain on sale of AMBS over the stress period.
</P>
<P>(B) The stress test assumes miscellaneous income at a level equal to the average of the most recent 3-year's actual miscellaneous income as a percent of the sum of; cash, investments, guaranteed securities, and loans held for investment.
</P>
<P>(C) The stress test assumes that short-term cost of funds is incurred in relation to the amount of defaulting loans purchased from off-balance sheet pools. The remaining unpaid principal balance on this loan volume is the origination amount reduced by the proportion of the total portfolio that has amortized as of the end of the most recent quarter. This volume is assumed to be funded at the short-term cost of funds and this expense continues for a period equal to the loan loss resolution timing period (LLRT) period minus 1. We will calculate the LLRT period from Farmer Mac data. In addition, during the LLRT period, all guarantee income associated with the loan volume ceases.
</P>
<P>(D) The stress test generates no interest income on the estimated volume of defaulted on-balance sheet loan volume required to be carried during the LLRT period, but continues to accrue funding costs during the remainder of the LLRT period.
</P>
<P>(E) You must update the LLRT period in response to changes in the Corporation's actual experience with each quarterly submission.
</P>
<P>(F) Operating costs are determined in the model using weighted moving average of operating expenses as a percentage of the sum of on-balance sheet assets and off-balance sheet program activities over the previous four quarters inclusive of the current submission date. The share will then be applied forward to the balances of the same categories throughout the 10-year period of the RBCST model. As additional data accumulate, the specification will be re-examined and modified if we deem changing the specification results in a more appropriate representation of operating expenses.
</P>
<P>(G) The reserve requirement as a fraction of loan assets can also be specified. However, the stress test is run with the reserve requirement set to zero. Setting the parameter to zero causes the stress test to calculate a risk-based capital level that is comparable to regulatory capital, which includes reserves. Thus, the risk-based capital requirement contains the regulatory capital required, including reserves. The amount of total capital that is allocated to the reserve account is determined by GAAP. The stress test applies quarterly updates of the weighted average guarantee rates for post-1996 Farmer Mac I assets, pre-1996 Farmer Mac I assets, and Farmer Mac II assets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Elements related to earnings rates and funding costs.</I>
</P>
<P>(A) The stress test can accommodate numerous specifications of earnings and funding costs. In general, both relationships are tied to the 10-year CMT interest rate. Specifically, each investment account, each loan item, and each liability account can be specified as fixed rate, or fixed spread to the 10-year CMT with initial rates determined by actual data. The stress test calculates specific spreads (weighted average yield less initial 10-year CMT) by category from the weighted average yield data supplied by Farmer Mac as described earlier. For example, the fixed spread for Farmer Mac I program post-1996 Act mortgages is calculated as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>Fixed Spread = Weighted Average Yield less 10-year CMT 0.014 = 0.0694—0.0554
</FP-2>
<P>(B) The resulting fixed spread of 1.40 percent is then added to the 10-year CMT when it is shocked to determine the new yield. For instance, if the 10-year CMT is shocked upward by 300 basis points, the yield on Farmer Mac I program post-1996 Act loans would change as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>Yield = Fixed Spread + 10-year CMT .0994 = .014 + .0854
</FP-2>
<P>(C) The adjusted yield is then used for income calculations when generating pro forma financial statements. All fixed-spread asset and liability classes are computed in an identical manner using starting yields provided as data inputs from Farmer Mac. The fixed-yield option holds the starting yield data constant for the entire 10-year stress test period. You must run the stress test using the fixed-spread option for all accounts except for discontinued program activities, such as Farmer Mac I program loans made before the 1996 Act. For discontinued loans, the fixed-rate specification must be used if the loans are primarily fixed-rate mortgages.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Elements related to interest rate shock test.</I> As described earlier, the interest rate shock test is implemented as a single set of forward interest rates. The stress test applies the up-rate scenario and down-rate scenario separately. The stress test also uses the results of Farmer Mac's shock test, as described in paragraph c. of section 4.1, “Data Inputs,” to calculate the impact on equity from a stressful change in interest rates as discussed in section 3.0 titled, “Interest Rate Risk.” The stress test uses a schedule relating a change in interest rates to a change in the market value of equity. For instance, if interest rates are shocked upward so that the percentage change is 262 basis points, the linearly interpolated effective estimated duration of equity is −6.7405 years given Farmer Mac's interest rate measurement results at 250 and 300 basis points of −6.7316 and 76.7688 years, respectively found on the effective duration schedule. The stress test uses the linearly interpolated estimated effective duration for equity to calculate the market value change by multiplying duration by the base value of equity before any rate change from Farmer Mac's interest rate risk measurement results with the percentage change in interest rates.
</P>
<HD2>4.3 Risk Measures
</HD2>
<P>a. This section describes the elements of the stress test in the worksheet named “Risk Measures” that reflect the interest rate shock and credit loss requirements of the stress test.
</P>
<P>b. As described in section 3.1, the stress test applies the statutory interest rate shock to the initial 10-year CMT rate. It then generates a series of fixed annual interest rates for the 10-year stress period that serve as indices for earnings yields and cost of funds rates used in the stress test. (See the “Risk Measures” worksheet for the resulting interest rate series used in the stress test.)
</P>
<P>c. The Credit Loss Module's state-level loss rates, as described in section 2.4 entitled, “Calculation of Loss Rates for Use in the Stress Test,” are entered into the “Risk Measures” worksheet and applied to the loan balances that exist in each state. The distribution of loan balances by state is used to allocate new loans that replace loan products that roll off the balance sheet through time. The loss rates are applied both to the initial volume and to new loan volume that replaces expiring loans. The total life of loan losses that are expected at origination are then allocated through time based on a set of user entries describing the time-path of losses.
</P>
<P>d. The loss rates estimated in the credit risk component of the stress test are based on an origination year concept, adjusted for loan seasoning. All losses arising from loans originated in a particular year are expressed as lifetime age-adjusted losses irrespective of when the losses actually occur. The fraction of the origination year loss rates that must be used to allocate losses through time are 43 percent to year 1, 17 percent to year 2, 11.66 percent to year 3, and 4.03 percent for the remaining years. The total allocated losses in any year are expressed as a percent of loan volume in that year to reflect the conversion to exposure year.
</P>
<P>e. The credit loss exposure on rural utility volume, described in section 2.6, “Calculation of Loss Rates on Rural Utility Volume for Use in the Stress Test,” is entered into the “Risk Measures” worksheet applied to the volume balance. All losses arising from rural utility loans are expressed as annual loss rates and distributed over the weighted average maturity of the rural utility AgVantage Plus Volume, or as annual loss across the full 10-year modeling horizon in the case of rural utility Cash Window loans.
</P>
<HD2>4.4 Loan and Cashflow Accounts
</HD2>
<P>The worksheet labeled “Loan and Cashflow Data” contains the categorized loan data and cashflow accounting relationships that are used in the stress test to generate projections of Farmer Mac's performance and condition. The steady-state formulation results in account balances that remain constant except for the effects of discontinued programs, maturing AgVantage Plus positions, and the LLRT adjustment. For assets with maturities under 1 year, the results are reported for convenience as though they matured only one time per year with the additional convention that the earnings/cost rates are annualized. For the pre-1996 Act assets, maturing balances are added back to post-1996 Act account balances. The liability accounts are used to satisfy the accounting identity, which requires assets to equal liabilities plus owner equity. In addition to the replacement of maturities under a steady state, liabilities are increased to reflect net losses or decreased to reflect resulting net gains. Adjustments must be made to the long- and short-term debt accounts to maintain the same relative proportions as existed at the beginning period from which the stress test is run with the exception of changes associated with the funding of defaulted loans during the LLRT period. The primary receivable and payable accounts are also maintained on this worksheet, as is a summary balance of the volume of loans subject to credit losses.
</P>
<HD2>4.5 Income Statements
</HD2>
<P>a. Information related to income performance through time is contained on the worksheet named “Income Statements.” Information from the first period balance sheet is used in conjunction with the earnings and cost-spread relationships from Farmer Mac supplied data to generate the first period's income statement. The same set of accounts is maintained in this worksheet as “Loan and Cashflow Accounts” for consistency in reporting each annual period of the 10-year stress period of the test with the exception of the line item labeled “Interest reversals to carry loan losses” which incorporates the LLRT adjustment to earnings from the “Risk Measures” worksheet. Loans that defaulted do not earn interest or guarantee and commitment fees during LLRT period. The income from each interest-bearing account is calculated, as are costs of interest-bearing liabilities. In each case, these entries are the associated interest rate for that period multiplied by the account balances.
</P>
<P>b. The credit losses described in section 2.0, “Credit Risk,” are transmitted through the provision account, as is any change needed to re-establish the target reserve balance. For determining risk-based capital, the reserve target is set to zero as previously indicated in section 4.2. Under the income tax section, it must first be determined whether it is appropriate to carry forward tax losses or recapture tax credits. The tax section then establishes the appropriate income tax liability that permits the calculation of final net income (loss), which is credited (debited) to the retained earnings account.
</P>
<HD2>4.6 Balance Sheets
</HD2>
<P>a. The worksheet named “Balance Sheets” is used to construct pro forma balance sheets from which the capital calculations can be performed. As can be seen in the Excel spreadsheet, the worksheet is organized to correspond to Farmer Mac's normal reporting practices. Asset accounts are built from the initial financial statement conditions, and loan and cashflow accounts. Liability accounts including the reserve account are likewise built from the previous period's results to balance the asset and equity positions. The equity section uses initial conditions and standard accounts to monitor equity through time. The equity section maintains separate categories for increments to paid-in-capital and retained earnings and for mark-to-market effects of changes in account values. The process described below in the “Capital” worksheet uses the initial retained earnings and paid-in-capital account to test for the change in initial capital that permits conformance to the statutory requirements. Therefore, these accounts must be maintained separately for test solution purposes.
</P>
<P>b. The market valuation changes due to interest rate movements must be computed utilizing the linearly interpolated schedule of estimated equity effects due to changes in interest rates, contained in the “Assumptions &amp; Relationships” worksheet. The stress test calculates the dollar change in the market value of equity by multiplying the base value of equity before any rate change from Farmer Mac's interest rate risk measurement results, the linearly interpolated estimated effective duration of equity, and the percentage change in interest rates. In addition, the earnings effect of the measured dollar change in the market value of equity is estimated by multiplying the dollar change by the blended cost of funds rate found on the “Assumptions &amp; Relationships” worksheet. Next, divide by 2 the computed earnings effect to approximate the impact as a theoretical shock in the interest rates that occurs at the mid-point of the income cycle from period t <E T="52">0</E> to period t <E T="52">1</E>. The measured dollar change in the market value of equity and related earnings effect are then adjusted to reflect any tax-related benefits. Tax adjustments are determined by including the measured dollar change in the market value of equity and the earnings effect in the tax calculations found in the “Income Statements” worksheet. This approach ensures that the value of equity reflects the economic loss or gain in value of Farmer Mac's capital position from a change in interest rates and reflects any immediate tax benefits that Farmer Mac could realize. Any tax benefits in the module are posted through the income statement by adjusting the net taxes due before calculating final net income. Final net income is posted to accumulated unretained earnings in the shareholders' equity portion of the balance sheet. The tax section is also described in section 4.5 entitled, “Income Statements.”
</P>
<P>c. After one cycle of income has been calculated, the balance sheet as of the end of the income period is then generated. The “Balance Sheet” worksheet shows the periodic pro forma balance sheets in a format convenient to track capital shifts through time.
</P>
<P>d. The stress test considers Farmer Mac's balance sheet as subject to interest rate risk and, therefore, the capital position reflects mark-to-market changes in the value of equity. This approach ensures that the stress test captures interest rate risk in a meaningful way by addressing explicitly the loss or gain in value resulting from the change in interest rates required by the statute.
</P>
<HD2>4.7 Capital
</HD2>
<P>The “Capital” worksheet contains the results of the required capital calculations as described below, and provides a method to calculate the level of initial capital that would permit Farmer Mac to maintain positive capital throughout the 10-year stress test period.
</P>
<HD1>5.0 Capital Calculation
</HD1>
<P>a. The stress test computes regulatory capital as the sum of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The par value of outstanding common stock;
</P>
<P>(2) The par value of outstanding preferred stock;
</P>
<P>(3) Paid-in capital;
</P>
<P>(4) Retained earnings; and
</P>
<P>(5) Reserve for loan and guarantee losses.
</P>
<P>b. Inclusion of the reserve account in regulatory capital is an important difference compared to minimum capital as defined by the statute. Therefore, the calculation of reserves in the stress test is also important because reserves are reduced by loan and guarantee losses. The reserve account is linked to the income statement through the provision for loan-loss expense (provision). Provision expense reflects the amount of current income necessary to rebuild the reserve account to acceptable levels after loan losses reduce the account or as a result of increases in the level of risky mortgage positions, both on- and off-balance sheet. Provision reversals represent reductions in the reserve levels due to reduced risk of loan losses or loan volume of risky mortgage positions. The liabilities section of the “Balance Sheets” worksheet also includes separate line items to disaggregate the Guarantee and commitment obligation related to the Financial Accounting Standards Board Accounting Standards Codification Topic 460, Guarantees. This item is disaggregated to permit accurate calculation of regulatory capital post-adoption of FIN 45. When calculating the stress test, the reserve is maintained at zero to result in a risk-based capital requirement that includes reserves, thereby making the requirement comparable to the statutory definition of regulatory capital. By setting the reserve requirement to zero, the capital position includes all financial resources Farmer Mac has at its disposal to withstand risk.
</P>
<HD2>5.1 Method of Calculation
</HD2>
<P>a. Risk-based capital is calculated in the stress test as the minimum initial capital that would permit Farmer Mac to remain solvent for the ensuing 10 years. To this amount, an additional 30 percent is added to account for managerial and operational risks not reflected in the specific components of the stress test.
</P>
<P>b. The relationship between the solvency constraint (<I>i.e.</I>, future capital position not less than zero) and the risk-based capital requirement reflects the appropriate earnings and funding cost rates that may vary through time based on initial conditions. Therefore, the minimum capital at a future point in time cannot be directly used to determine the risk-based capital requirement. To calculate the risk-based capital requirement, the stress test includes a section to solve for the minimum initial capital value that results in a minimum capital level over the 10 years of zero at the point in time that it would actually occur. In solving for initial capital, it is assumed that reductions or additions to the initial capital accounts are made in the retained earnings accounts, and balanced in the debt accounts at terms proportionate to initial balances (same relative proportion of long- and short-term debt at existing initial rates). Because the initial capital position affects the earnings, and hence capital positions and appropriate discount rates through time, the initial and future capital are simultaneously determined and must be solved iteratively. The resulting minimum initial capital from the stress test is then reported on the “Capital” worksheet of the stress test. The “Capital” worksheet includes an element that uses Excel's “solver” or “goal seek” capability to calculate the minimum initial capital that, when added (subtracted) from initial capital and replaced with debt, results in a minimum capital balance over the following 10 years of zero.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77253, Dec. 26, 2006, as amended at 73 FR 31940, June 5, 2008; 76 FR 23467, Apr. 27, 2011; 78 FR 21037, Apr. 9, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="653" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 653—FEDERAL AGRICULTURAL MORTGAGE CORPORATION RISK MANAGEMENT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 8.3, 8.4, 8.6, 8.8, and 8.10 of Pub. L. 92-181, 85 Stat. 583 (12 U.S.C. 2279aa-3, 2279aa-4, 2279aa-6, 2279aa-8, and 2279aa-10).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 49154, July 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 653.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.34.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 653.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration, an independent Federal agency of the executive branch.
</P>
<P><I>OSMO</I> means the FCA Office of Secondary Market Oversight, which is responsible for the general supervision of the safe and sound exercise of the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties and compliance with laws and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 653.2" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.34.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 653.2   General.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation's board of directors must approve the overall risk-appetite of the Corporation and regularly monitor internal controls to provide reasonable assurance that risk-taking activities are conducted in a safe and sound manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 653.3" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.34.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 653.3   Risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk management program.</I> The Corporation's board of directors must establish, maintain, and periodically update an enterprise-wide risk management program addressing how the Corporation's activities are exercised in a safe and sound manner. The implementation of the risk management program may reside with senior management. The risk management program at a minimum must:
</P>
<P>(1) Periodically assess and document the Corporation's risk profile.
</P>
<P>(2) Align the Corporation's risk profile with the board-approved risk appetite and the Corporation's operational planning strategies and objectives.
</P>
<P>(3) Specify management's authority to carry out risk management responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(4) Integrate risk management and control objectives into management goals and compensation structures.
</P>
<P>(5) Comply with all applicable FCA regulations and policies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk committee.</I> The Corporation's board-level risk committee assists the full board of directors in the oversight of the enterprise-wide risk management program of the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(1) The risk committee must have at least one member with an understanding of risk management commensurate with the Corporation's capital structure, risk profile, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors.
</P>
<P>(2) The responsibilities of the risk committee include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Periodically assessing management's implementation of the enterprise-wide risk management program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommending changes to the risk management program to keep the program commensurate with the Corporation's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Receiving and reviewing regular reports directly from personnel responsible for implementing the Corporation's risk management program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Management of risk.</I> The Corporation must have a risk officer, however styled, who is responsible for implementing and maintaining the enterprise-wide risk management practices of the Corporation. The risk officer must have risk management experience commensurate with the Corporation's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, and size. The responsibilities of the risk officer include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying and monitoring compliance with risk limits, exposures, and controls;
</P>
<P>(2) Implementing risk management policies, procedures, and risk controls;
</P>
<P>(3) Developing appropriate processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;
</P>
<P>(4) Reporting on risk management issues, emerging risks, and compliance concerns; and
</P>
<P>(5) Making recommendations on adjustments to the risk management policies, procedures, and risk controls of the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 653.4" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.34.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 653.4   Internal controls.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation's board of directors must adopt an internal controls policy that provides adequate directions for, and identifies expectations in, establishing effective safety and soundness control over, and accountability for, the Corporation's operations, programs, and resources.
</P>
<P>(b) The internal controls system must address:
</P>
<P>(1) The efficiency and effectiveness of the Corporation's activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Safeguarding the assets of the Corporation;
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluating the reliability, completeness, and timely reporting of financial and management information;
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance with applicable laws, regulations, regulatory directives, and the policies of the Corporation's board of directors and senior management;
</P>
<P>(5) The appropriate segregation of duties among the Corporation personnel so that personnel are not assigned conflicting responsibilities; and
</P>
<P>(6) The completeness and quality of information provided to the Corporation's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation is responsible for establishing and implementing an effective system to identify internal controls weaknesses and taking action to correct detected weaknesses. The Corporation must document:
</P>
<P>(1) The process used to identify weaknesses,
</P>
<P>(2) Any found weaknesses, and
</P>
<P>(3) How identified weaknesses were addressed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="654" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 654 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="655" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 655—FEDERAL AGRICULTURAL MORTGAGE CORPORATION DISCLOSURE AND REPORTING REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.9, 8.3, 8.11, and 8.12 of Pub. L. 92-181, 85 Stat. 583 (12 U.S.C. 2243, 2279aa-3, 2279aa-11, 2279aa-12).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 49155, July 27, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 655.1" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> or <I>authorizing statute</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day the Corporation is open for business, excluding the legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P><I>Corporation</I> means the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration, an independent Federal agency of the executive branch.
</P>
<P><I>Material,</I> when used to qualify a requirement to furnish information as to any subject, means the information required for those matters to which there is a substantial likelihood that a reasonable person would attach importance in making investor decisions or determining the financial condition of the Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>NYSE</I> means the New York Stock Exchange, a listing exchange.
</P>
<P><I>OSMO</I> means the FCA Office of Secondary Market Oversight, which is responsible for the general supervision of the safe and sound exercise of the Corporation's powers, functions, and duties and compliance with laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Our</I> or <I>us</I> means the FCA or OSMO, as appropriate to the context of the provision employing the term.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means individual or entity.
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Act</I> means the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>) or the Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>, or both, as appropriate to the context of the provision employing the term.
</P>
<P><I>Signed,</I> when referring to paper form, means a manual signature, and, when referring to electronic form, means marked in a manner that authenticates each signer's identity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reports of Condition of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 655.10" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.10   Reports of condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Corporation must prepare and publish annual reports to its shareholders of its condition, including financial statements and related schedules, exhibits, and other documents that are part of the reports. The contents of each report must be equivalent in content to the annual report to shareholders required by the Securities Act unless we issue instructions otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signatures and certification.</I> Each report issued under this subpart must be signed. The Corporation must designate the representatives who will sign each report. The name and position title of each person signing the report must be printed beneath his or her signature. The signatories must certify the report by using the SEC rules on certifications for disclosures in annual reports to shareholders.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Distribution.</I> The Corporation must distribute the signed annual report of condition to its shareholders within 120 days of its fiscal year-end. Within 5 days of signing, the Corporation must provide to us an electronic copy of every signed report that is distributed to its shareholders. If it is impossible to provide an electronic copy, a paper copy must be submitted within the required time frame and an electronic copy as soon as possible after that.
</P>
<P>(1) The Corporation must publish on its Web site a copy of each annual report to shareholders within 3 business days of filing the report with us. The report must remain on the Web site until the next report is posted. When the reports are the same as those filed with the SEC, electronic links to the SEC filings Web site may be used in satisfaction of this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receiving a request for an annual report of condition from a stockholder, investor, or the public, the Corporation must promptly provide the requester the most recent annual report issued in compliance with this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49155, July 27, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 27798, May 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 655.15" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.15   Interim reports, notices, and proxy statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation must provide to us an electronic copy of every interim report, notice, and proxy statement filed with the SEC within 1 business day of filing the item with the SEC, including all papers and documents that are a part of the report, notice, or statement. If it is impossible to provide an electronic copy, a paper copy must be submitted within the required time frame and an electronic copy as soon as possible after that.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation must publish a copy of each interim report, notice, and proxy statement on its Web site within 5 business days of filing the document(s) with the SEC. The Corporation may omit from these postings confidential, non-public information contained in the interim report, notice, or proxy statement. The interim report, notice, or proxy statement must remain on the Web site for 6 months or until the next annual report of condition is posted, whichever is later. Electronic links to the SEC filings Web site may be used in satisfaction of this requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49155, July 27, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 27798, May 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Reports Relating to Securities Activities of the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 655.20" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.20   Securities not registered under the Securities Act.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation must make special filings with the Director of OSMO for securities either issued or guaranteed by the Corporation that are not registered under the Securities Act. These filings include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Either one paper or one electronic copy of any offering circular, private placement memorandum, or information statement prepared in connection with the securities offering at or before the time of the securities offering.
</P>
<P>(b) For securities backed by qualified loans as defined in section 8.0(9)(A) of the Act, either one paper or one electronic copy of the following within 1 business day of the finalization of the transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) The private placement memoranda for securities sold to investors; and
</P>
<P>(2) The final agreement and all supporting documents material to the Corporation's purchase of a security under section 8.6(e) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) For securities backed by qualified loans as defined in section 8.0(9)(B) of the Act, the Corporation must provide summary information on such securities issued during each calendar quarter in the form prescribed by us. Such summary information must be provided with each report of condition and performance (Call report) filed pursuant to § 621.12, and at such other times as we may require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 655.21" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.36.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 655.21   Filings and communications with the U.S. Treasury, the SEC, and NYSE.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation must send us an electronic copy of every filing made with U.S. Treasury, the SEC, or NYSE, including financial statements and related schedules, exhibits, and other documents that are a part of the filing. Such items must be filed with us no later than 1 business day after the U.S. Treasury, SEC, or NYSE filing. For those filings with the NYSE that duplicate ones made to the SEC, the Corporation may send only the SEC filing to us. If the filing is one addressed in subpart B of this part, no action under this paragraph is required. If it is impossible to provide an electronic copy, a paper copy must be submitted within the required time frame and an electronic copy as soon as possible after that.
</P>
<P>(b) The Corporation must send us, within 3 business days and according to instructions provided by us, electronic copies of all substantive correspondence between the Corporation and the U.S. Treasury, the SEC, or NYSE that are directed at the activities of the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation must notify us within 1 business day if it becomes exempt or claims exemption from the filing requirements of the Securities Act. Notice is not required when the Corporation claims an exemption that is generally available under SEC rules and regulations to similarly situated filers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 49155, July 27, 2016, as amended at 86 FR 27798, May 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="656-699" NODE="12:7.0.1.2.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 656-699 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="VII" NODE="12:7.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER VII—NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—REGULATIONS AFFECTING CREDIT UNIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="700" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 700—DEFINITIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1752, 1757(6), 1766.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 700.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.1.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions in § 700.2 apply to terms used in this chapter unless the context indicates otherwise. Many additional definitions appear in the parts where the terms are used.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 32543, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 700.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.1.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 700.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this chapter: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1751, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Administration</I> means the National Credit Union Administration. 
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> or <I>NCUA Board</I> refer to the Board of the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means a nonprofit financial cooperative chartered under the Federal Credit Union Act or under the laws of any State, the District of Columbia, the several territories and possessions of the United States, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, which laws provide for the organization of financial cooperatives similar in principle and objectives to cooperatives chartered under the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P><I>Federally insured credit union</I> means any credit union whose member accounts are insured by NCUA according to the provisions of Title II of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1782 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Insolvency.</I> (1) A credit union will be determined to be insolvent when the total amount of its shares exceeds the present cash value of its assets after providing for liabilities unless: 
</P>
<P>(i) It is determined by the Board that the facts that caused the deficient share-asset ratio no longer exist; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The likelihood of further depreciation of the share-asset ratio is not probable; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The return of the share-asset ratio to its normal limits within a reasonable time for the credit union concerned is probable; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The probability of a further potential loss to the insurance fund is negligible. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the following definitions are used: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cash value of assets.</I> Recorded value will be considered the cash value of any asset account providing accepted accounting principles and practices are followed and the provisions of law, regulation, and bylaws are met. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liabilities.</I> Recorded liabilities which are due and payable, excluding shares of members and non-members, are considered liabilities.
</P>
<P><I>NCUA</I> refers to the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth.</I> Unless otherwise noted, the term “net worth,” as applied to credit unions, has the same meaning as set forth in § 702.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Non-federally insured credit union</I> means a credit union chartered under the laws of any State, the District of Columbia, the several territories and possessions of the United States, the Panama Canal Zone, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, whose member accounts are not insured by the NCUA.


</P>
<P><I>ONES credit union</I> means a credit union subject to supervision by the Office of National Examinations and Supervision (ONES) and includes tier II and tier III credit unions, as defined under part 702 of this chapter. Tier I credit unions are subject to supervision by the appropriate Regional Office.






</P>
<P><I>Paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus</I> or <I>unimpaired capital and surplus</I> mean shares plus post-closing, undivided earnings. This does not include regular reserves or special reserves required by law, regulation or special agreement between the credit union and its regulator or share insurer. “Paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus” for purposes of the Central Liquidity Facility is defined in § 725.2(o) of this chapter.


</P>
<P><I>Regional Director</I> means the representative of NCUA in the designated geographical area in which the office of the federally insured credit union is located or, for ONES credit unions, the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.


</P>
<P><I>Regional Office</I> means the office of NCUA located in the designated geographical areas in which the office of the federally insured credit union is located or, for ONES credit unions, the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.






</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any of the several territories and possessions of the United States, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P><I>Troubled condition</I> means: (1) In the case of an insured natural person credit union:
</P>
<P>(i) A federal credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS composite rating by NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS composite rating by either NCUA, after an on-site contact, or its state supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A federal credit union or a federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been granted assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1788, that remains outstanding and unextinguished.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an insured corporate credit union:
</P>
<P>(i) A Federal credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS rating by NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS rating by either NCUA, after an on-site contact, or its state supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal credit union or a federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been granted assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C 1788, that remains outstanding and unextinguished.
</P>
<P><I>Unimpaired capital and surplus</I> means the same as “paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus,” as defined in paragraph (f) of this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[36 FR 23794, Dec. 15, 1971. Redesignated and amended at 66 FR 65624, Dec. 20, 2001; 86 FR 59288, Oct. 27, 2021] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 700.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="701" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 701—ORGANIZATION AND OPERATION OF FEDERAL CREDIT UNIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1752(5), 1755, 1756, 1757, 1758, 1759, 1761a, 1761b, 1766, 1767, 1782, 1784, 1785, 1786, 1787, 1788, 1789. Section 701.6 is also authorized by 15 U.S.C. 3717. Section 701.31 is also authorized by 15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.;</I> 42 U.S.C. 1981 and 3601-3610. Section 701.35 is also authorized by 12 U.S.C. 4311-4312.




</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 701.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.1   Federal credit union chartering, field of membership modifications, and conversions.</HEAD>
<P>National Credit Union Administration policies concerning chartering, field of membership modifications, and conversions, also known as the Chartering and Field of Membership Manual, are set forth in appendix B to this part and are available on-line at <I>http://www.ncua.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[ 75 FR 36263, June 25, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.2   Federal credit union bylaws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal credit unions must operate in accordance with their approved bylaws. The Federal Credit Union Bylaws are hereby published as appendix A to part 701 pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and accompanying regulations. Federal credit unions may adopt amendments to their bylaws as provided in the Bylaws, with the approval of the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of the Federal Credit Union Bylaws may be obtained at <I>http://www.ncua.gov</I> or by request addressed to <I>ogc-mail@ncua.gov</I> or National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314.
</P>
<P>(c) The National Credit Union Administration may issue revisions or amendments of the Federal Credit Union Bylaws from time to time. An historic file of amendments or revisions is maintained and made available for inspection at the National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 61500, Oct. 31, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.3   Member inspection of credit union books, records, and minutes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Member inspection rights.</I> A group of members of a Federal credit union has the right, upon submission of a petition to the credit union as described in paragraph (b) of this section, to inspect and copy nonconfidential portions of the credit union's:
</P>
<P>(1) Accounting books and records; and
</P>
<P>(2) Minutes of the proceedings of the credit union's members, board of directors, and committees of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Petition for inspection.</I> The petition must describe the particular records to be inspected and state a proper purpose for the inspection, that is, a purpose related to the protection of the members' financial interests in the credit union. The petition must state that the petitioners as a whole, or certain named petitioners, agree to pay the direct and reasonable costs associated with search and duplication of requested material. The petition must also state that the inspection is not desired for any purpose other than the stated purpose; that the members signing the petition will not sell or offer for sale any information obtained from the credit union; and that the members signing the petition have not within five years preceding the signature date sold or offered for sale any information acquired from the credit union or aided or abetted any person in procuring any information from the credit union for purposes of sale. The petition must name one member, and one alternate member, who will represent the petitioners on issues such as inspection procedures, costs, and potential disputes. At least one percent of the credit union's members, with a minimum of 20 members and a maximum of 500 members, must sign the petition. Each member who signs the petition must have been a member of the credit union for at least 180 days at the time the petitioners submit the petition to the credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection procedures.</I> (1) A Federal credit union must respond to petitioners within 14 days of receiving a petition. In its response, a credit union must inform petitioners either that it will provide inspection of the requested material and, if so, when, or, if a credit union is going to withhold all or part of the requested material, it must inform petitioners what part of the requested material it intends to withhold and the reasons for withholding the requested material. As soon as possible after receiving a petition, a credit union must schedule inspection and copying of nonconfidential requested material it determines petitioners may inspect and copy.
</P>
<P>(2) Inspection may be made in person or by agent or attorney and at any reasonable time or times. The credit union may, at its option, skip inspection and deliver copies of requested documents directly to the petitioners. Member inspection rights under this section are in addition to any other member inspection rights afforded by the credit union's charter or bylaws or other Federal law or Federal regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit union denies inspection because the petitioners have failed to obtain the minimum number of valid signatures, the credit union must inform the petitioners which signatures were not valid and why.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Confidential books, records, and minutes.</I> Members do not have the right to inspect any portion of the books, records, or minutes of a Federal credit union if:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal law or regulation prohibits disclosure of that portion;
</P>
<P>(2) The publication of that portion could cause the credit union predictable and substantial financial harm;
</P>
<P>(3) That portion contains nonpublic personal information as defined in 12 CFR 1016.3; or
</P>
<P>(4) That portion contains information about credit union employees or officials the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Costs.</I> A Federal credit union may charge petitioners the direct and reasonable costs associated with search and duplication. The credit union may not charge for other costs, including indirect costs or attorney's fees.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> (1) In the event of a dispute between a federal credit union and its members concerning a petition for inspection or the associated costs, either party may submit the dispute to the regional director. The regional director, after obtaining the views of both parties, will direct the credit union either to withhold the disputed materials or to make them available for member inspection and copying. The regional director may place conditions upon release. The decision of the regional director is a final agency decision and is not appealable to the Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The regional director has the discretion to refer any dispute to the credit union's supervisory committee for review and resolution. If petitioners are not satisfied with the supervisory committee's response, they may resubmit the dispute to the regional director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 56253, Oct. 3, 2007, as amended at 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.4   General authorities and duties of Federal credit union directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General direction and control of a Federal credit union.</I> The board of directors is responsible for the general direction and control of the affairs of each Federal credit union. While a Federal credit union board of directors may delegate the execution of operational functions to Federal credit union personnel, the ultimate responsibility of each Federal credit union's board of directors for that Federal credit union's direction and control is non-delegable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duties of Federal credit union directors.</I> Each Federal credit union director has the duty to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry out his or her duties as a director in good faith, in a manner such director reasonably believes to be in the best interests of the membership of the Federal credit union as a whole, and with the care, including reasonable inquiry, as an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would use under similar circumstances;
</P>
<P>(2) Administer the affairs of the Federal credit union fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any particular member;
</P>
<P>(3) At the time of election or appointment, or within a reasonable time thereafter, not to exceed six months, have at least a working familiarity with, and to ask, as appropriate, substantive questions of management and the internal and external auditors of:
</P>
<P>(i) Basic finance and accounting practices, including the ability to read and understand the Federal credit union's balance sheet and income statement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal credit union's succession plan established pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Direct management's operations of the Federal credit union in conformity with the requirements set forth in the Federal Credit Union Act, this chapter, other applicable law, and sound business practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority regarding staff and outside consultants.</I> (1) In carrying out its duties and responsibilities, each Federal credit union's board of directors and all its committees have authority to retain staff and outside counsel, independent accountants, financial advisors, and other outside consultants at the expense of the Federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal credit union staff providing services to the board of directors or any committee of the board under paragraph (c)(1) of this section may be required by the board of directors or such committee to report directly to the board or such committee, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) In discharging board or committee duties a director who does not have knowledge that makes reliance unwarranted is entitled to rely on information, opinions, reports or statements, including financial statements and other financial data, prepared or presented by any of the persons specified in paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reliance.</I> A director may rely on:
</P>
<P>(1) One or more officers or employees of the Federal credit union who the director reasonably believes to be reliable and competent in the functions performed or the information, opinions, reports or statements provided;
</P>
<P>(2) Legal counsel, independent public accountants, or other persons retained by the Federal credit union as to matters involving skills or expertise the director reasonably believes are matters:
</P>
<P>(i) Within the particular person's professional or expert competence, and
</P>
<P>(ii) As to which the particular person merits confidence; and
</P>
<P>(3) A committee of the board of directors of which the director is not a member if the director reasonably believes the committee merits confidence. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Succession planning requirements.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> A federal credit union must establish a written succession plan as provided in this paragraph that is approved by the board of directors and consistent with the credit union's size and complexity. In evaluating whether a succession plan meets the requirements of this paragraph, the NCUA will consider the size of the federal credit union, as well as the complexity and risk of its operations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered positions.</I> The succession plan shall, at a minimum, cover the following positions, or their equivalent if the federal credit union has adopted different position titles:
</P>
<P>(i) Members of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Management officials and assistant management officials, as those terms are defined in Appendix A, if provided for in the federal credit union's bylaws, and, to the extent not already covered, the senior executive officers identified in § 701.14(b)(2); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other personnel the board of directors deems critical given the federal credit union's size, complexity, or risk of operations. This includes new positions that may be required due to planned changes in operations, supervisory landscape, or corporate structure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of succession plan.</I> The succession plan must, at minimum, contain the following information regarding each of the positions covered under paragraph (e)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The title for each covered position and the expiration of the incumbent's term (if serving in a term-limited capacity) or other anticipated vacancy date if known (such as the incumbent's retirement eligibility date or announced departure date).
</P>
<P>(ii) The federal credit union's plan for permanently filling vacancies for each of the positions.
</P>
<P>(iii) The federal credit union's strategy for recruiting candidates with the potential to assume each of the positions.The strategy must consider how the selection and diversity of skills among the employees covered by the succession plan collectively and individually promotes the safe and sound operation of the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Board responsibilities.</I> The board of directors must:
</P>
<P>(i) Approve a written succession plan that meets the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Review, and update as necessary, the succession plan in accordance with a schedule established by the board of directors but no less than every 24 months.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81385, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 90 FR 104876, Dec. 26. 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.5   Preemption.</HEAD>
<P>This section states the NCUA Board's intent concerning preemption of state laws. The NCUA applies preemption principles derived from the United States Constitution, as interpreted through judicial precedent, when determining whether state laws apply.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Share, share draft or share certificate accounts.</I> A Federal credit union may, consistent with this section, parts 707 and 740 of this subchapter, other Federal law, and its contractual obligations, determine the types of fees or charges and other matters affecting the opening, maintaining and closing of a share, share draft or share certificate account. State laws regulating such activities are not applicable to Federal credit unions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans to members and lines of credit to members</I>—(1) <I>Preemption of state laws.</I> This paragraph (b) is promulgated pursuant to the NCUA Board's exclusive authority as set forth in section 107(5) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C 1757(5)) to regulate the rates, terms of repayment and other conditions of Federal credit union loans and lines of credit (including credit cards). This exercise of the Board's authority preempts any state law purporting to limit or affect:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Rates of interest and amounts of finance charges, including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The frequency or the increments by which a variable interest rate may be changed;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The index to which a variable interest rate may be tied;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The manner or timing of notifying the borrower of a change in interest rate;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The authority to increase the interest rate on an existing balance;
</P>
<P>(B) Late charges; and
</P>
<P>(C) Closing costs, application, origination, or other fees;
</P>
<P>(ii) Terms of repayment, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The maturity of loans and lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(B) The amount, uniformity, and frequency of payments, including the accrual of unpaid interest if payments are insufficient to pay all interest due;
</P>
<P>(C) Balloon payments; and
</P>
<P>(D) Prepayment limits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conditions related to:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the loan or line of credit;
</P>
<P>(B) The purpose of the loan or line of credit;
</P>
<P>(C) The type or amount of security and the relation of the value of the security to the amount of the loan or line of credit;
</P>
<P>(D) Eligible borrowers; and
</P>
<P>(E) The imposition and enforcement of liens on the shares of borrowers and accommodation parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Matters not preempted.</I> Except as provided by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, it is not the Board's intent to preempt state laws that do not affect rates, terms of repayment and other conditions described above concerning loans and lines of credit, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Insurance laws;
</P>
<P>(ii) Laws related to transfer of and security interests in real and personal property (see, however, paragraph (b)(5) of this section) concerning the use and exercise of due-on-sale clauses); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conditions related to:
</P>
<P>(A) Collection costs and attorneys' fees;
</P>
<P>(B) Requirements that consumer lending documents be in “plain language;” and
</P>
<P>(C) The circumstances in which a borrower may be declared in default and may cure default.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other Federal law.</I> Except as provided by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, it is not the Board's intent to preempt state laws affecting aspects of credit transactions that are primarily regulated by Federal law other than the Federal Credit Union Act, for example, state laws concerning credit cost disclosure requirements, credit discrimination, credit reporting practices, unfair credit practices, and debt collection practices. Applicability of state law in these instances should be determined pursuant to the preemption standards of the relevant Federal law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examination and enforcement.</I> Except as otherwise agreed by the NCUA Board, the Board retains exclusive examination and administrative enforcement jurisdiction over Federal credit unions. Violations of Federal or applicable state laws related to the lending activities of a Federal credit union should be referred to the appropriate NCUA regional office.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Due-on-sale clauses.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided herein, the exercise of a due-on-sale clause by a Federal credit union is governed exclusively by section 341 of Public Law 97-320 and by any regulations issued by the Federal Home Loan Bank Board implementing section 341.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a contract involving a long-term (greater than fifteen years), fixed rate first mortgage loan which was made or assumed, including a transfer of the liened property subject to the loan, during the period beginning on the date a State adopted a constitutional provision or statute prohibiting the exercise of due-on-sale clauses, or the date on which the highest court of such state has rendered a decision (or if the highest court has not so decided, the date on which the next highest court has rendered a decision resulting in a final judgment if such decision applies statewide) prohibiting such exercise, and ending on October 15, 1982, a Federal credit union may exercise a due-on-sale clause in the case of a transfer which occurs on or after November 18, 1982, unless exercise of the due-on-sale clause would be based on any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation of a lien or other encumbrance subordinate to the lender's security instrument which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property;
</P>
<P>(B) The creation of a purchase money security interest for household appliances;
</P>
<P>(C) A transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety;
</P>
<P>(D) The granting of a leasehold interest of 3 years or less not containing an option to purchase;
</P>
<P>(E) A transfer to a relative resulting from the death of a borrower;
</P>
<P>(F) A transfer where the spouse or children of the borrower become an owner of the property;
</P>
<P>(G) A transfer resulting from a decree of a dissolution of marriage, a legal separation agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement, by which the spouse of the borrower becomes an owner of the property;
</P>
<P>(H) A transfer into an inter vivos trust in which the borrower is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property; or
</P>
<P>(I) Any other transfer or disposition described in regulations promulgated by the Federal Home Loan Bank Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-interest charges and fees</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (c), <I>charge</I> means to directly or indirectly, through intermediaries, partners, payment networks, interchanges, or other third parties, assess, collect, impose, levy, receive, reserve, take, or otherwise obtain, including through a fee sharing or similar economic relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authority to impose charges and fees.</I> An FCU may charge non-interest charges and fees, including share account service charges and interchange fees from credit and debit card operations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Considerations.</I> (i) Business decisions regarding non-interest charges and fees permitted under this paragraph should be arrived at by each Federal credit union on a competitive basis and not on the basis of any agreement, arrangement, undertaking, understanding, or discussion with other financial institutions or their officers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Decisions regarding charging non-interest charges and fees, including their amounts, the method of calculating them, whether to enter into business relationships or lines of business, and whether they are set by or in consultation with third parties, are business decisions to be made by each Federal credit union, in its discretion, according to sound banking judgment and safe and sound banking principles. A Federal credit union establishes non-interest charges and fees in accordance with safe and sound banking principles if it employs a decision-making process through which it considers the following factors, among others:
</P>
<P>(A) The cost incurred by the Federal credit union in providing the service;
</P>
<P>(B) The deterrence of misuse by members of financial services;
</P>
<P>(C) The enhancement of the competitive position of the Federal credit union in accordance with its business plan and marketing strategy;
</P>
<P>(D) The use of third parties to provide or facilitate the provision of a product or service; and
</P>
<P>(E) The maintenance of the safety and soundness of the Federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State law.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>state law</I> means the constitution, statutes, regulations, and judicial decisions of any state, the District of Columbia, the several territories and possessions of the United States, and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 34732, June 9, 2026]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.6   Fees paid by Federal credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basis for assessment.</I> Each calendar year, or as otherwise directed by the NCUA Board, each Federal credit union shall pay an operating fee to the NCUA for the current fiscal year (January 1 to December 31) in accordance with a schedule fixed by the Board from time to time.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> The operating fee shall be based on the average of total assets of each Federal credit union based on data reported in NCUA Forms 5300 and 5310 from the four quarters immediately preceding the time the Board approves the agency's budget or as otherwise determined pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions from total assets.</I> For purposes of calculating the operating fee, total assets shall not include any loans on the books of a natural person Federal credit union made under the Small Business Administration's Paycheck Protection Program, 15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36), or any similar program approved for exclusion by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage.</I> The operating fee shall be paid by each Federal credit union engaged in operations as of January 1 of each calendar year in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, except as otherwise provided by this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>New charters.</I> A newly chartered Federal credit union will not pay an operating fee until the year following the first full calendar year after the date chartered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conversions.</I> (i) In the first calendar year following conversion:
</P>
<P>(A) A federally insured state-chartered credit union that converts to a Federal credit union charter must pay an operating fee based on the average assets reported in the year of conversion on NCUA Forms 5300 or 5310 from the four quarters immediately preceding the time the Board approves the agency's budget in the year of conversion.
</P>
<P>(B) An entity not insured by the NCUA that converts to a Federal credit union charter must pay an operating fee based on the assets, or average thereof, reported on NCUA Forms 5300 or 5310 for any one or more quarters immediately preceding the time the Board approves the agency's budget in the year of conversion.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal credit union converting to a different charter will not receive a refund of any operating fees paid to the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mergers.</I> (i) In the first calendar year following merger:
</P>
<P>(A) A continuing Federal credit union that has merged with one or more federally insured credit unions must pay an operating fee based on the average combined total assets of the Federal credit union and any merged federally insured credit unions as reported on NCUA Forms 5300 or 5310 in the four quarters immediately preceding the time the Board approves the agency's budget in the merger year.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), a purchase and assumption transaction where the continuing Federal credit union purchases all or essentially all of the assets of another depository institution shall be deemed a merger.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Federal credit union that merges with a Federal or state-chartered credit union, or an entity not insured by the NCUA, will not receive a refund of any operating fee paid to the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Liquidations.</I> A Federal credit union placed in liquidation will not pay any operating fee after the date of liquidation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> Each Federal credit union shall be notified at least 30 days in advance of the schedule of fees to be paid. A Federal credit union may submit written comments to the Board for consideration regarding the existing fee schedule. Any subsequent revision to the schedule shall be provided to each Federal credit union at least 15 days before payment is due.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Assessment of Administrative Fee and Interest for Delinquent Payment.</I> Each Federal credit union shall pay to the Administration an administrative fee, the costs of collection, and interest on any delinquent payment of its operating fee. A payment will be considered delinquent if it is postmarked later than the date stated in the notice to the credit union provided under § 701.6(c). The National Credit Union Administration may waive or abate charges or collection of interest if circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(1) The administrative fee for a delinquent payment shall be an amount fixed from time to time by the National Credit Union Administration Board and based upon the administrative costs of such delinquent payments to the Administration in the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(2) The costs of collection shall be the actual hours expended by Administration personnel multiplied by the average hourly salary and benefits costs of such personnel as determined by the National Credit Union Administration Board.
</P>
<P>(3) The interest rate charged on any delinquent payment shall be the U.S. Department of the Treasury Tax and Loan Rate in effect on the date when the payment is due as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</P>
<P>(4) If a credit union makes a combined payment of its operating fee and its share insurance deposit as provided in § 741.4 of this chapter and such payment is delinquent, only one administrative fee will be charged and interest will be charged on the total combined payment. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 27380, May 10, 1979, as amended at 50 FR 20745, May 20, 1985; 55 FR 1799, Jan. 19, 1990; 59 FR 33421, June 29, 1994; 60 FR 58503, Nov. 28, 1995; 74 FR 29936, June 24, 2009; 84 FR 1604, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 86803, Dec. 31, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 701.7-701.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 701.7-701.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.14   Change in official or senior executive officer in credit unions that are newly chartered or are in troubled condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of scope and purpose.</I> Section 212 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790a) sets forth conditions under which a credit union must notify NCUA in writing of any proposed changes in its board of directors, committee members or senior executive staff. The regulation only applies in cases of newly chartered credit unions and credit unions in troubled condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Committee member</I> means any individual who serves as an official of the credit union in the capacity of a credit committee member or supervisory committee member.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Senior executive officer</I> means a credit union's chief executive officer (typically this individual holds the title of president or treasurer/manager), any assistant chief executive officer (e.g., any assistant president, any vice president or any assistant treasurer/manager) and the chief financial officer (controller). The term “senior executive officer” also includes employees of an entity, such as a consulting firm, hired to perform the functions of positions covered by the regulation.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an insured natural person credit union, <I>Troubled condition</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A federal credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS composite rating by NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS composite rating by either NCUA, after an on-site contact, or its state supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A federal credit union or a federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been granted assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1788, that remains outstanding and unextinguished.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of an insured corporate credit union, <I>Troubled condition</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A Federal credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS rating by NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been assigned a 4 or 5 CAMELS rating by either NCUA, after an on-site contact, or its state supervisor; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A Federal credit union or a federally insured, state-chartered credit union that has been granted assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1788, that remains outstanding and unextinguished. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for Notice of Proposed Change in Official or Senior Executive Officer</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice requirement.</I> An insured credit union must give the NCUA written notice at least 30 days before the effective date of adding or replacing any member of its board of directors or committee member, employing any person as a senior executive officer of the credit union, or changing the responsibilities of a board member, committee member, or a senior executive officer so that the person would assume a different position if:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit union has been chartered for less than 2 years; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit union meets the definition of troubled condition in paragraph (b)(3) or (4) of this section.


</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of Prior Notice</I>—(i) <I>Waiver requests.</I> Parties may petition the appropriate Regional Director for a waiver of the prior notice required under this section. Waiver may be granted if it is found that delay could harm the credit union or the public interest.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Automatic waiver.</I> In the case of the election of a new member of the board of directors or credit committee member at a meeting of the members of a federally insured credit union, the prior 30-day notice is automatically waived and the individual may immediately begin serving, provided that a complete notice is filed with the appropriate Regional Director within 48 hours of the election. If NCUA disapproves a director or credit committee member, the board of directors of the credit union may appoint its own alternate, to serve until the next annual meeting, contingent on NCUA approval.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effect on disapproval authority.</I> A waiver does not affect the authority of NCUA to issue a Notice of Disapproval within 30 days of the waiver or within 30 days of any subsequent required notice.






</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing procedures</I>—(i) <I>Where to file.</I> Notices will be filed with the appropriate Regional Director or, in the case of a corporate credit union or a ONES credit union under part 700 of this chapter, with the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision. All references to Regional Director will, for corporate credit unions and ONES credit unions under part 700 of this chapter, mean the Director of Office of National Examinations and Supervision. State-chartered federally insured credit unions will also file a copy of the notice with their state supervisor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents.</I> The notice must contain information about the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual on whose behalf the notice is submitted. The Regional Director or his or her designee may require additional information. The information submitted must include the identity, personal history, business background, and experience of the individual, including material business activities and affiliations during the past five years, and a description of any material pending legal or administrative proceedings in which the individual is a party and any criminal indictment or conviction of the individual by a state or federal court. Each individual on whose behalf the notice is filed must attest to the validity of the information filed. At the option of the individual, the information may be forwarded to the Regional Director by the individual; however, in such cases, the credit union must file a notice to that effect.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Processing.</I> Within 15 calendar days after receiving the notice, the Regional Director will inform the credit union either that the notice is complete or that additional, specified information is needed and must be submitted within 30 calendar days. If the initial notice is complete, the Regional Director will issue a written decision of approval or disapproval to the individual and the credit union within 30 calendar days of receipt of the notice. If the initial notice is not complete, the Regional Director will issue a written decision within 30 calendar days of receipt of the original notice plus the amount of time the credit union takes to provide the requested additional information. If the additional information is not submitted within 30 calendar days of the Regional Director's request, the Regional Director may either disapprove the proposed individual or review the notice based on the information provided. If the credit union and the individual have submitted all requested information and the Regional Director has not issued a written decision within the applicable time period, the individual is approved. Regional Director communications may be done through electronic mail.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of Service.</I> A proposed director, committee member, or senior executive officer may begin service after the end of the 30-day period or any other additional period as provided under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, unless the NCUA disapproves the notice before the end of the period. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of disapproval.</I> NCUA may disapprove the individual serving as a director, committee member or senior executive officer if it finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual with respect to whom a notice under this section is submitted indicates that it would not be in the best interests of the members of the credit union or of the public to permit the individual to be employed by, or associated with, the credit union. The Notice of Disapproval will identify the reason(s) for the denial and advise the parties of their rights to request reconsideration from the Regional Director and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in 12 CFR part 746, subpart B.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 43086, Oct. 26, 1990, as amended at 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994; 60 FR 31911, June 19, 1995; 64 FR 28717, May 27, 1999; 66 FR 65624, Dec. 20, 2001; 69 FR 62562, Oct. 27, 2004; 75 FR 34620, June 18, 2010; 78 FR 4029, Jan. 18, 2013; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013; 78 FR 77564, Dec. 26, 2013; 82 FR 50291, Oct. 30, 2017; 86 FR 59288, Oct. 27, 2021; 87 FR 45009, July 27, 2022; 89 FR 79392, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 701.15-701.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 701.15-701.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.19   Benefits for employees of Federal credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General authority.</I> A federal credit union may provide employee benefits, including retirement benefits, to its employees and officers who are compensated in conformance with the Act and the bylaws, individually or collectively with other credit unions. The kind and amount of these benefits must be reasonable given the federal credit union's size, financial condition, and the duties of the employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Plan trustees and custodians.</I> Where a federal credit union is the benefit plan trustee or custodian, the plan must be authorized and maintained in accordance with the provisions of part 724 of this chapter. Where the benefit plan trustee or custodian is a party other than a federal credit union, the benefit plan must be maintained in accordance with applicable laws governing employee benefit plans, including any applicable rules and regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor, the Secretary of the Treasury, or any other federal or state authority exercising jurisdiction over the plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment authority.</I> A federal credit union investing to fund an employee benefit plan obligation is not subject to the investment limitations of the Act and part 703 or, as applicable, part 704, of this chapter and may purchase an investment that would otherwise be impermissible if the investment is directly related to the federal credit union's obligation or potential obligation under the employee benefit plan and the federal credit union holds the investment only for as long as it has an actual or potential obligation under the employee benefit plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Defined benefit plans.</I> Under paragraph (c) of this section, a federal credit union may invest to fund a defined benefit plan if the investment meets the conditions provided in that paragraph. If a federal credit union invests to fund a defined benefit plan that is not subject to the fiduciary responsibility provisions of part 4 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, it should diversify its investment portfolio to minimize the risk of large losses unless it is clearly prudent not to do so under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Liability insurance.</I> No federal credit union may occupy the position of a fiduciary, as defined in the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 and the rules and regulations issued by the Secretary of Labor, unless it has obtained appropriate liability insurance as described and permitted by Section 410(b) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> For this section, defined benefit plan has the same meaning as in 29 U.S.C. 1002(35) and employee benefit plan has the same meaning as in 29 U.S.C. 1002(3).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23027, Apr. 30, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.20   Suretyship and guaranty.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section authorizes a federal credit union to enter into a suretyship or guaranty agreement as an incidental powers activity. This section does not apply to the guaranty of public deposits or the assumption of liability for member accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> A <I>suretyship</I> binds a federal credit union with its principal to pay or perform an obligation to a third person. Under a <I>guaranty</I> agreement, a federal credit union agrees to satisfy the obligation of the principal only if the principal fails to pay or perform. The <I>principal</I> is the person primarily liable, for whose performance of his obligation the surety or guarantor has become bound.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements.</I> The suretyship or guaranty agreement must be for the benefit of a principal that is a member and is subject to the following conditions: 
</P>
<P>(1) The federal credit union limits its obligations under the agreement to a fixed dollar amount and a specified duration; 
</P>
<P>(2) The federal credit union's performance under the agreement creates an authorized loan that complies with the applicable lending regulations, including the limitations on loans to one member or associated members or officials for purposes of §§ 701.21(c)(5), (d); 723.4(c); and 
</P>
<P>(3) The federal credit union obtains a segregated deposit from the member that is sufficient in amount to cover the federal credit union's total potential liability. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collateral.</I> A segregated deposit under this section includes collateral: 
</P>
<P>(1) In which the federal credit union has perfected its security interest (for example, if the collateral is a printed security, the federal credit union must have obtained physical control of the security, and, if the collateral is a book entry security, the federal credit union must have properly recorded its security interest); and 
</P>
<P>(2) That has a market value, at the close of each business day, equal to 100 percent of the federal credit union's total potential liability and is composed of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Cash; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligations of the United States or its agencies; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Obligations fully guaranteed by the United States or its agencies as to principal and interest; or 
</P>
<P>(iv) Notes, drafts, or bills of exchange or banker's acceptances that are eligible for rediscount or purchase by a Federal Reserve Bank; or 
</P>
<P>(3) That has a market value equal to 110 percent of the federal credit union's total potential liability and is composed of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Real estate, the value of which is established by a signed appraisal or evaluation in accordance with part 722 of this chapter. In determining the value of the collateral, the federal credit union must factor in the value of any existing senior mortgages, liens or other encumbrances on the property except those held by the principal to the suretyship or guaranty agreement; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Marketable securities that the federal credit union is authorized to invest in. The federal credit union must ensure that the value of the security is 110 percent of the obligation at all times during the term of the agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 8547, Feb. 25, 2004, as amended at 84 FR 10975, Mar. 25, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.21   Loans to members and lines of credit to members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of scope and purpose.</I> Section 701.21 complements the provisions of section 107(5) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1757(5)) authorizing Federal credit unions to make loans to members and issue lines of credit (including credit cards) to members. Section 107(5) of the Act contains limitations on matters such as loan maturity, rate of interest, security, and prepayment penalties. Section 701.21 interprets and implements those provisions. In addition, § 701.21 states the NCUA Board's intent concerning preemption of state laws, and expands the authority of Federal credit unions to enforce due-on-sale clauses in real property loans. Also, while § 701.21 generally applies to Federal credit unions only, certain provisions apply to loans made by federally insured, state-chartered credit unions as specified in § 741.203 of this chapter. Part 722 of this chapter sets forth requirements for appraisals for certain real estate secured loans made under § 701.21 and any other applicable lending authority. Finally, it is noted that § 701.21 does not apply to loans by Federal credit unions to other credit unions (although certain statutory limitations in section 107 of the Act apply), nor to loans to credit union organizations which are governed by section 107(5)(D) of the Act and part 712 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The following general rules apply to all loans to members and, where indicated, all lines of credit (including credit cards) to members, except as otherwise provided in the remaining provisions of § 701.21. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written policies.</I> The board of directors of each Federal credit union shall establish written policies for loans and lines of credit consistent with the relevant provisions of the Act, NCUA's regulations, and other applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit applications and overdrafts.</I> Consistent with policies established by the board of directors, the credit committee or loan officer shall ensure that a credit application is kept on file for each borrower supporting the decision to make a loan or establish a line of credit. A credit union may advance money to a member to cover an account deficit without having a credit application from the borrower on file if the credit union has a written overdraft policy. The policy must: set a cap on the total dollar amount of all overdrafts the credit union will honor consistent with the credit union's ability to absorb losses; establish a time limit not to exceed forty-five calendar days for a member either to deposit funds or obtain an approved loan from the credit union to cover each overdraft; limit the dollar amount of overdrafts the credit union will honor per member; and establish the fee and interest rate, if any, the credit union will charge members for honoring overdrafts.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maturity</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The maturity of a loan to a member may not exceed 15 years. Lines of credit are not subject to a statutory or regulatory maturity limit. Amortization of line of credit balances and the type and amount of security on any line of credit shall be as determined by contract between the Federal credit union and the member/borrower. In the case of a lending action that qualifies as a “new loan” under GAAP, the new loan's maturity is calculated from the new date of origination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding the general 15-year maturity limit on loans to members, a federal credit union may make loans with maturities:
</P>
<P>(A) As specified in the law, regulations or program under which a loan is secured, in full or in part, by the insurance or guarantee of, or with an advance commitment to purchase the loan, in full or in part, by the Federal Government, a State government or any agency of either, as provided in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) of up to 20 years or such longer term as is provided in paragraph (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) of up to 40 years or such longer term as is provided in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Ten percent limit.</I> No loan or line of credit advance may be made to any member if such loan or advance would cause that member to be indebted to the Federal credit union upon loans and advances made to the member in an aggregate amount exceeding 10% of the credit union's total unimpaired capital and surplus. In the case of loan participations as defined in § 701.22(a) of this part and commercial loans as defined in § 723.2 of this chapter, additional limitations apply as set forth in § 701.22(b)(5)(iv) of this part and § 723.4(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Early payment.</I> A member may repay a loan, or outstanding balance on a line of credit, prior to maturity in whole or in part on any business day without penalty.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Loan interest rates</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except when the Board establishes a higher maximum rate, federal credit unions may not extend credit to members at rates exceeding 15 percent per year on the unpaid balance inclusive of all finance charges. Federal credit unions may use variable rates of interest but only if the effective rate over the term of a loan or line of credit does not exceed the maximum permissible rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Temporary rates.</I> (A) At least every 18 months, the Board will determine if federal credit unions may extend credit to members at an interest rate exceeding 15 percent. After consultation with appropriate congressional committees, the Department of Treasury, and other federal financial institution regulatory agencies, the Board may establish a rate exceeding the 15 percent per year rate, if it determines money market interest rates have risen over the preceding six-month period and prevailing interest rate levels threaten the safety and soundness of individual federal credit unions as evidenced by adverse trends in liquidity, capital, earnings, and growth.
</P>
<P>(B) When the Board establishes a higher maximum rate, the Board will provide notice to federal credit unions of the adjusted rate by issuing a <I>Letter to Federal Credit Unions</I>, as well as providing information in other NCUA publications and in a statement for the press.
</P>
<P>(C) Federal credit unions may continue to charge rates exceeding the established maximum rate only on existing loans or lines of credit made before the effective date of any lowering of the maximum rate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payday alternative loans (PALs I)</I>—(A) <I>Minimum requirements for PALs I.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a federal credit union may charge an interest rate that is 1000 basis points above the maximum interest rate established by the Board under paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section provided the federal credit union is offering closed-end credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(10) of this title, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The principal of the payday alternative loan is not less than $200 or more than $1,000;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The payday alternative loan has a minimum maturity of one month and a maximum maturity of six months;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The federal credit union does not make more than three payday alternative loans provided under either this paragraph (c)(7)(iii) or paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section in any rolling six-month period to any one borrower and does not make more than one payday alternative loan provided under either this paragraph (c)(7)(iii) or paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section at a time to any borrower;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The federal credit union does not rollover any payday alternative loan provided under this paragraph (c)(7)(iii) or paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section, provided that the prohibition against rollovers does not apply to an extension of a payday alternative loan term within the maximum loan term set forth in paragraph (c)(7)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section that does not include any additional fees assessed or extend additional credit to the borrower;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The federal credit union fully amortizes the payday alternative loan;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The federal credit union requires the borrower to be a member of the credit union for at least one month before receiving a payday alternative loan provided under this paragraph (c)(7)(iii);
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The federal credit union charges a reasonable application fee to all members applying for a new payday alternative loan offered under this paragraph (c)(7)(iii) that reflects the actual costs associated with processing the application, but that in no case exceeds $20; and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The federal credit union includes, in its written lending policies, a limit on the aggregate dollar amount of payday alternative loans made under this paragraph (c)(7)(iii) and paragraph (c)(7)(iv) of this section that does not exceed an aggregate of 20% of net worth and implements appropriate underwriting guidelines to minimize risk, such as, requiring a borrower to verify employment by providing at least two recent pay stubs.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>PALs I guidance and best practices.</I> In developing a successful payday alternative loan program, a federal credit union should consider how the program would benefit a member's financial well-being while considering the higher degree of risk associated with this type of lending. The guidance and best practices are intended to help federal credit unions minimize risk and develop a successful program, but are not an exhaustive checklist and do not guarantee a successful program with a low degree of risk.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Program features.</I> Several features that may increase the success of a payday alternative loan program and enhance member benefit include adding a savings component, financial education, reporting of members' payment of payday alternative loans to credit bureaus, or electronic loan transactions as part of a payday alternative loan program. In addition, although a federal credit union cannot require members to authorize a payroll deduction, a federal credit union should encourage or incentivize members to utilize payroll deduction.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Underwriting.</I> Federal credit unions should develop minimum underwriting standards that account for a member's need for quickly available funds, while adhering to principles of responsible lending. Underwriting standards should address required documentation for proof of employment or income, including at least two recent paycheck stubs. Federal credit unions should be able to use a borrower's proof of recurring income as the key criterion in developing standards for maturity lengths and loan amounts so a borrower can manage repayment of the loan. For members with established accounts, federal credit unions should only need to review a member's account records and proof of recurring income or employment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk avoidance.</I> Federal credit unions should consider risk avoidance strategies, including requiring members to participate in direct deposit and conducting a thorough evaluation of the federal credit union's resources and ability to engage in a payday alternative loan program.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Payday alternative loans (PALs II)</I>—(A) <I>Minimum requirements for PALs II.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a federal credit union may charge an interest rate that is 1000 basis points above the maximum interest rate established by the Board under paragraph (c)(7)(ii) of this section provided the federal credit union is offering closed-end credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(10) of this title, in accordance with the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The principal of the payday alternative loan is not more than $2,000;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The payday alternative loan has a minimum maturity of one month and a maximum maturity of 12 months;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The federal credit union does not make more than three payday alternative loans provided either under paragraph (c)(7)(iii) of this section or this paragraph (c)(7)(iv) in any rolling six-month period to any one borrower and does not make more than one payday alternative loan provided under either paragraph (c)(7)(iii) of this section or this paragraph (c)(7)(iv) at a time to any borrower;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The federal credit union does not rollover any payday alternative loan provided under paragraph (c)(7)(iii) of this section or this paragraph (c)(7)(iv), provided that the prohibition against rollovers does not apply to an extension of a payday alternative loan term within the maximum loan term set forth in paragraph (c)(7)(iv)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section that does not include any additional fees assessed or extend additional credit to the borrower;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The federal credit union fully amortizes the payday alternative loan;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The federal credit union charges a reasonable application fee to all members applying for a new payday alternative loan offered under this paragraph (c)(7)(iv) that reflects the actual costs associated with processing the application, but that in no case exceeds $20;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) The federal credit union does not assess a fee or charge, including a non-sufficient funds fee, on the borrower's account pursuant to the federal credit union's overdraft service, as defined in § 1005.17(a) of this title, in connection with any payday alternative loan provided under this paragraph (c)(7)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) The federal credit union includes, in its written lending policies, a limit on the aggregate dollar amount of payday alternative loans made under paragraph (c)(7)(iii) of this section and this paragraph (c)(7)(iv) that does not exceed an aggregate of 20% of net worth and implements appropriate underwriting guidelines to minimize risk, such as, requiring a borrower to verify employment by providing at least two recent pay stubs.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>PALs II guidance and best practices.</I> In developing a successful payday alternative loan program, a federal credit union should consider how the program would benefit a member's financial well-being while considering the higher degree of risk associated with this type of lending. The guidance and best practices are intended to help federal credit unions minimize risk and develop a successful program, but are not an exhaustive checklist and do not guarantee a successful program with a low degree of risk.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Program features.</I> Several features that may increase the success of a payday alternative loan program and enhance member benefit include adding a savings component, financial education, reporting of members' payment of payday alternative loans to credit bureaus, or electronic loan transactions as part of a payday alternative loan program. In addition, although a federal credit union cannot require members to authorize a payroll deduction, a federal credit union should encourage or incentivize members to utilize payroll deduction.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Underwriting.</I> Federal credit unions should develop minimum underwriting standards that account for a member's need for quickly available funds, while adhering to principles of responsible lending. Underwriting standards should address required documentation for proof of employment or income, including at least two recent paycheck stubs. Federal credit unions should be able to use a borrower's proof of recurring income as the key criterion in developing standards for maturity lengths and loan amounts so a borrower can manage repayment of the loan. For members with established accounts, federal credit unions should only need to review a member's account records and proof of recurring income or employment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Risk avoidance.</I> Federal credit unions should consider risk avoidance strategies, including requiring members to participate in direct deposit and conducting a thorough evaluation of the federal credit union's resources and ability to engage in a payday alternative loan program.
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Except as otherwise provided herein, no official or employee of a Federal credit union, or immediate family member of an official or employee of a Federal credit union, may receive, directly or indirectly, any commission, fee, or other compensation in connection with any loan made by the credit union. 
</P>
<P>(ii) For the purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> includes non-monetary items, except those of nominal value. 
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household. 
</P>
<P><I>Loan</I> includes line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Official</I> means any member of the board of directors or a volunteer committee. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual or an organization.
</P>
<P><I>Senior management employee</I> means the credit union's chief executive officer (typically, this individual holds the title of President or Treasurer/Manager), any assistant chief executive officers (e.g., Assistant President, Vice President, or Assistant Treasurer/Manager), and the chief financial officer (Comptroller). 
</P>
<P><I>Volunteer official</I> means an official of a credit union who does not receive compensation from the credit union solely for his or her service as an official. 
</P>
<P>(iii) This section does not prohibit: 
</P>
<P>(A) Payment, by a Federal credit union, of salary to employees; 
</P>
<P>(B) Payment, by a Federal credit union, of an incentive or bonus to an employee based on the credit union's overall financial performance; 
</P>
<P>(C) Payment, by a Federal credit union, of an incentive or bonus to an employee, other than a senior management employee, in connection with a loan or loans made by the credit union, provided that the board of directors of the credit union establishes written policies and internal controls in connection with such incentive or bonus and monitors compliance with such policies and controls at least annually. 
</P>
<P>(D) Receipt of compensation from a person outside a Federal credit union by a volunteer official or non-senior-management employee of the credit union, or an immediate family member of a volunteer official or employee of the credit union, for a service or activity performed outside the credit union, provided that no referral has been made by the credit union or the official, employee, or family member. 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Indirect lending and indirect leasing arrangements</I>—(i) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Indirect leasing arrangement</I> means a written agreement to purchase leases from the leasing company where the purchaser makes the final underwriting decision, and the lease agreement is assigned to the purchaser very soon after it is signed by the member and the leasing company.
</P>
<P><I>Indirect lending arrangement</I> means a written agreement to purchase loans from the loan originator where the purchaser makes the final underwriting decision regarding making the loan, and the loan is assigned to the purchaser very soon after the inception of the obligation to extend credit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Indirect lending.</I> A loan acquired pursuant to an indirect lending arrangement, and that meets the requirements of this section, is classified as a loan and not the purchase of a loan for purposes of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Indirect leasing.</I> A lease acquired pursuant to an indirect leasing arrangement, and that meets the requirements of part 714 of this chapter, is classified as a lease and not the purchase of a lease for purposes of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans and lines of credit to officials</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> Sections 107(5)(A) (iv) and (v) of the Act require the approval of the board of directors of the Federal credit union in any case where the aggregate of loans to an official and loans on which the official serves as endorser or guarantor exceeds $20,000 plus pledged shares. This paragraph implements the requirement by establishing procedures for determining whether board of directors's approval is required. The section also prohibits preferential treatment of officials.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Official.</I> An “official” is any member of the board of directors, credit committee or supervisory committee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial approval.</I> All applications for loans or lines of credit on which an official will be either a direct obligor or an endorser, cosigner or guarantor shall be initially acted upon by either the board of directors, the credit committee or a loan officer, as specified in the Federal credit union's bylaws.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Board of Directors' review.</I> The board of directors shall, in any case, review and approve or deny an application on which an official is a direct obligor, endorser, cosigner or guarantor if the following computation produces a total in excess of $20,000: 
</P>
<P>(i) Add: 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of the current application. 
</P>
<P>(B) The outstanding balances of loans, including the used portion of an approved line of credit, extended to or endorsed, cosigned or guaranteed by the official. 
</P>
<P>(C) The total unused portion of approved lines of credit extended to or endorsed, cosigned or guaranteed by the official. 
</P>
<P>(ii) From the above total subtract: 
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of shares pledged by the official on loans or lines of credit extended to or endorsed, cosigned or guaranteed by the official. 
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of shares to be pledged by the official on the loan or line of credit applied for. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Nonpreferential treatment.</I> The rates, terms and conditions on any loan or line of credit either made to, or endorsed or guaranteed by—
</P>
<P>(i) An official,
</P>
<P>(ii) An immediate family member of an official, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual having a common ownership, investment or other pecuniary interest in a business enterprise with an official or with an immediate family member of an official shall not be more favorable than the rates, terms and conditions for comparable loans or lines of credit to other credit union members. “Immediate family member” means a spouse or other family member living in the same household.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insured, guaranteed, and advance commitment loans.</I> Notwithstanding the general 15-year maturity limit on loans to members in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, a loan secured, in full or in part, by the insurance or guarantee of, or with an advance commitment to purchase the loan, in full or in part, by the Federal Government, a State government or any agency of either, may be made for the maturity and under the terms and conditions, including rate of interest, specified in the law, regulations or program under which the insurance, guarantee or commitment is provided.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>20-Year Loans.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the general 15-year maturity limit on loans to members in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, a federal credit union may make loans with maturities of up to 20 years in the case of:</P>
<P>(i) A loan to finance the purchase of a mobile home if the mobile home will be used as the member-borrower's residence and the loan is secured by a first lien on the mobile home, and the mobile home meets the requirements for the home mortgage interest deduction under the Internal Revenue Code,
</P>
<P>(ii) A second mortgage loan (or a nonpurchase money first mortgage loan in the case of a residence on which there is no existing first mortgage) if the loan is secured by a residential dwelling which is the residence of the member-borrower, and
</P>
<P>(iii) A loan to finance the repair, alteration, or improvement of a residential dwelling which is the residence of the member-borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (f), mobile home may include a recreational vehicle, house trailer or boat.
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding the general 20-year maturity limit on second mortgage loans, a federal credit union participating in the Department of the Treasury's Making Home Affordable Program may extend the term of a modified second mortgage to match the term of a modified first mortgage, in accordance with applicable program guidelines.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Long-Term Mortgage Loans</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> Notwithstanding the general 15-year maturity limit on loans to members in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, a federal credit union may make residential real estate loans to members, including loans secured by manufactured homes permanently affixed to the land, with maturities of up to 40 years, or such longer period as may be permitted by the NCUA Board on a case-by-case basis, subject to the conditions of this paragraph (g).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statutory limits.</I> The loan shall be made on a one to four family dwelling that is or will be the principal residence of the member-borrower and the loan shall be secured by a perfected first lien in favor of the credit union on such dwelling (or a perfected first security interest in the case of either a residential cooperative or a leasehold or ground rent estate). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan application.</I> The loan application shall be a completed standard Federal Housing Administration, Veterans Administration, Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation/Federal National Mortgage Association application form. In lieu of use of a standard application the Federal credit union may have a current attorney's opinion on file stating that the forms in use meet the requirements of applicable Federal, state and local laws. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security instrument and note.</I> The security instrument and note shall be executed on the most current version of the FHA, VA, FHLMC, FNMA, or FHLMC/FNMA Uniform Instruments for the jurisdiction in which the property is located. No prepayment penalty shall be allowed, although a Federal credit union may require that any partial prepayments be made on the date monthly installments are due and be in the amount of that part of one or more monthly installments that would be applicable to principal. In lieu of use of a standard security instrument and note, the Federal credit union may have a current attorney's opinion on file stating that the security instrument and note in use meet the requirements of applicable Federal, state and local laws. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>First lien, territorial limits.</I> The loan shall be secured by a perfected first lien or first security interest in favor of the credit union supported by a properly executed and recorded security instrument. No loan shall be secured by a residence located outside the United States of America, its territories and possessions, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Due-on-sale clauses.</I> See § 701.5(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Assumption of real estate loans by nonmembers.</I> A Federal credit union may permit a nonmember to assume a member's mortgage loan in conjunction with the nonmember's purchase of the member's principal residence, provided that the nonmember assumes only the remaining unpaid balance of the loan, the terms of the loan remain unchanged, and there is no extension of the original maturity date specified in the loan agreement with the member. An assumption is impermissible if the original loan was made with the intent of having a nonmember assume the loan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Third-party servicing of indirect vehicle loans.</I> (1) A federally insured credit union must not acquire any vehicle loan, or any interest in a vehicle loan, serviced by a third-party servicer if the aggregate amount of vehicle loans and interests in vehicle loans serviced by that third-party servicer and its affiliates would exceed:
</P>
<P>(i) 50 percent of the credit union's net worth during the initial thirty months of that third-party servicing relationship; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 100 percent of the credit union's net worth after the initial thirty months of that third-party servicing relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) Regional directors may grant a waiver of the limits in paragraph (h)(1) of this section to permit greater limits upon written application by a credit union. In determining whether to grant or deny a waiver, a regional director will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit union's understanding of the third-party servicer's organization, business model, financial health, and the related program risks;
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit union's due diligence in monitoring and protecting against program risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) If contracts between the credit union and the third-party servicer grant the credit union sufficient control over the servicer's actions and provide for replacing an inadequate servicer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other factors relevant to safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(3) A regional director will provide a written determination on a waiver request within 45 calendar days after receipt of the request; however, the 45-day period will not begin until the requesting credit union has submitted all necessary information to the regional director. If the regional director does not provide a written determination within the 45-day period the request is deemed denied. A credit union may request the regional director to reconsider a denied waiver request and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (h) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The term “third-party servicer” means any entity, other than a federally-insured depository institution or a wholly-owned subsidiary of a federally-insured depository institution, that receives any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower pursuant to the terms of a loan and distributes payments of principal and interest and any other payments with respect to the amounts received from the borrower as may be required pursuant to the terms of the loan. The term also excludes any servicing entity that meets the following three requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a majority of its voting interests owned by federally-insured credit unions;
</P>
<P>(B) Includes in its servicing agreements with credit unions a provision that the servicer will provide NCUA with complete access to its books and records and the ability to review its internal controls as deemed necessary by NCUA in carrying out NCUA's responsibilities under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(C) Has its credit union clients provide a copy of the servicing agreement to their regional directors.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “its affiliates,” as it relates to the third-party servicer, means any entities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Control, are controlled by, or are under common control with, that third-party servicer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Are under contract with that third-party servicer or other entity described in paragraph (h)(4)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “vehicle loan” means any installment vehicle sales contract or its equivalent that is reported as an asset under generally accepted accounting principles. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans made directly by a credit union to a member, or
</P>
<P>(B) Loans in which neither the third-party servicer nor any of its affiliates are involved in the origination, underwriting, or insuring of the loan or the process by which the credit union acquires its interest in the loan.
</P>
<P>(iv) The term “net worth” means the retained earnings balance of the credit union at quarter end as determined under generally accepted accounting principles and as further defined in § 702.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[49 FR 30685, Aug. 1, 1984] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 701.21, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.22   Loan participations.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies only to loan participations as defined in paragraph (a) of this section. It does not apply to the purchase of an investment interest in a pool of loans. This section establishes the requirements a federally insured credit union must satisfy to purchase a participation in a loan. Federally insured, state-chartered credit unions are required by § 741.225 of this chapter to comply with the loan participation requirements of this section. This section does not apply to corporate credit unions, as that term is defined in § 704.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Associated borrower</I> means any other person or entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower. This means any person or entity named as a borrower or debtor in a loan or extension of credit, or any other person or entity, such as a drawer, endorser, or guarantor, engaged in a common enterprise with the borrower, or deriving a direct benefit from the loan to the borrower. Exceptions to this definition for partnerships, joint ventures and associations are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the borrower is a partnership, joint venture or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is a member or partner of the borrower, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is the partnership, joint venture, or association and the borrower is a limited partner of that other entity, and by the terms of a partnership or membership agreement valid under applicable law, the borrower is not held generally liable for the debts or actions of that other entity, such other entity is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P>(3) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is another member or partner of the partnership, joint venture, or association, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Common enterprise</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The expected source of repayment for each loan or extension of credit is the same for each borrower and no individual borrower has another source of income from which the loan (together with the borrower's other obligations) may be fully repaid. An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment because of wages and salaries paid to an employee, unless the standards described in paragraph (2) are met;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans or extensions of credit are made:
</P>
<P>(i) To borrowers who are related directly or indirectly through common control, including where one borrower is directly or indirectly controlled by another borrower; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Substantial financial interdependence exists between or among the borrowers. Substantial financial interdependence means 50 percent or more of one borrower's gross receipts or gross expenditures (on an annual basis) are derived from transactions with another borrower. Gross receipts and expenditures include gross revenues or expenses, intercompany loans, dividends, capital contributions, and similar receipts or payments; or
</P>
<P>(3) Separate borrowers obtain loans or extensions of credit to acquire a business enterprise of which those borrowers will own more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means a person or entity directly or indirectly, or acting through or together with one or more persons or entities:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another person or entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Controls, in any manner, the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of another person or entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of another person or entity. 
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means any federal or state-chartered credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union organization</I> means any credit union service organization meeting the requirements of part 712 of this chapter. This term does not include trade associations or membership organizations principally composed of credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Direct benefit</I> means the proceeds of a loan or extension of credit to a borrower, or assets purchased with those proceeds, that are transferred to another person or entity, other than in a bona fide arm's-length transaction where the proceeds are used to acquire property, goods, or services. 
</P>
<P><I>Eligible organization</I> means a credit union, credit union organization, or financial organization.
</P>
<P><I>Financial organization</I> means any federally chartered or federally insured financial institution; and any state or federal government agency and its subdivisions.
</P>
<P><I>Loan participation</I> means a loan where one or more eligible organizations participate pursuant to a written agreement with the originating lender, and the written agreement requires the originating lender's continuing participation throughout the life of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Originating lender</I> means the participant with which the borrower initially or originally contracts for a loan and who, thereafter or concurrently with the funding of the loan, sells participations to other lenders. Originating lender includes a participant that acquires a loan through an indirect lending arrangement as defined under § 701.21(c)(9).
</P>
<P>(b) A federally insured credit union may purchase a participation interest in a loan from an eligible organization only if the loan is one the purchasing credit union is empowered to grant and the following additional conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase complies with all regulatory requirements to the same extent as if the purchasing federally insured credit union had originated the loan, including, for example, the loans-to-one-borrower provisions in § 701.21(c)(5) of this part for federal credit unions and § 723.4 of the member business loans rule in part 723 of this chapter for all federally insured credit unions;
</P>
<P>(2) The purchasing federally insured credit union has executed a written loan participation agreement with the originating lender and the agreement meets the minimum requirements for a loan participation agreement as described in paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The originating lender retains an interest in each participated loan. If the originating lender is a federal credit union, the retained interest must be at least 10 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan. If the originating lender is any other type of eligible organization, the retained interest must be at least 5 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan, unless a higher percentage is required under applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(4) The borrower becomes a member of one of the participating credit unions before the purchasing federally insured credit union purchases a participation interest in the loan; and
</P>
<P>(5) The purchase complies with the purchasing federally insured credit union's internal written loan participation policy, which, at a minimum, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Establish underwriting standards for loan participations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish a limit on the aggregate amount of loan participations that may be purchased from any one originating lender, not to exceed the greater of $5,000,000 or 100 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth, unless this amount is waived by the appropriate regional director, and, in the case of a federally insured state-chartered credit union, with prior written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish limits on the amount of loan participations that may be purchased by each loan type, not to exceed a specified percentage of the federally insured credit union's net worth; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Establish a limit on the aggregate amount of loan participations that may be purchased with respect to a single borrower, or group of associated borrowers, not to exceed 15 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth, unless waived by the appropriate regional director, and, in the case of a federally insured state-chartered credit union, with prior written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority.
</P>
<P>(c) To seek a waiver from any of the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, a federally insured credit union must submit a written request to its regional director with a full and detailed explanation of why it is requesting the waiver. Within 45 calendar days of receipt of a completed waiver request, including all necessary supporting documentation and, if appropriate, any written concurrence, the regional director will provide the federally insured credit union a written response. The regional director's decision will be based on safety and soundness and other considerations; however, the regional director will not grant a waiver to a federally insured State-chartered credit union without the prior written concurrence of the appropriate State supervisory authority. A federally insured credit union may request the regional director to reconsider a denied waiver request and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) A loan participation agreement must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be properly executed by authorized representatives of all parties under applicable law;
</P>
<P>(2) Be properly authorized by the federally insured credit union's board of directors or, if the board has so delegated in its policy, a designated committee or senior management official, under the federally insured credit union's bylaws and all applicable law;
</P>
<P>(3) Be retained in the federally insured credit union's office (original or copies); and
</P>
<P>(4) Include provisions which, at a minimum, address the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to purchase, the identification of the specific loan participation(s) being purchased, either directly in the agreement or through a document which is incorporated by reference into the agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest that the originating lender will retain in the loan to be participated. If the originating lender is a federal credit union, the retained interest must be at least 10 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan. If the originating lender is any other type of eligible organization, the retained interest must be at least 5 percent of the outstanding balance of the loan through the life of the loan, unless a higher percentage is required under state law;
</P>
<P>(iii) The location and custodian for original loan documents;
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of the conditions under which parties to the agreement can gain access to financial and other performance information about a loan, the borrower, and the servicer so the parties can monitor the loan;
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of the duties and responsibilities of the originating lender, servicer, and participants with respect to all aspects of the participation, including servicing, default, foreclosure, collection, and other matters involving the ongoing administration of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Circumstances and conditions under which participants may replace the servicer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 37956, June 25, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 13553, Mar. 14, 2016; 82 FR 50291, Oct. 30, 2017; 84 FR 1605, Feb. 5, 2019; 84 FR 10976, Mar. 25, 2019; 85 FR 22014, Apr. 21, 2020; 85 FR 62210, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 83409, Dec. 22, 2020; 86 FR 72520, Dec. 22, 2021; 88 FR 67600, Sept. 29, 2023] 




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.23" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.23   Purchase, sale, and pledge of eligible obligations.</HEAD>
<P>This section governs a Federal credit union's purchase, sale, or pledge of all or part of a loan to one of its own members, subject to certain exceptions. For purchases of eligible obligations, except as otherwise described under paragraph (b) of this section, the borrower must be a member of the purchasing Federal credit union before the purchase is made.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Eligible obligation</I> means a whole loan or part of a loan (other than a note held by a liquidating credit union) that does not meet the definition of a loan participation under § 701.22(a).
</P>
<P><I>Liquidating credit union</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a voluntary liquidation, a credit union is a liquidating credit union as of the date the members vote to approve liquidation.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an involuntary liquidation, a credit union is a liquidating credit union as of the date the board of directors is served an order of liquidation issued by either the NCUA or the state supervisory authority.
</P>
<P><I>Student loan</I> means a loan granted to finance the borrower's attendance at an institution of higher education or at a vocational school, which is secured by and on which payment of the outstanding principal and interest has been deferred in accordance with the insurance or guarantee of the Federal Government, of a state government, or any agency of either.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purchase of loans</I>—(1) <I>Purchase of obligations from any source.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase, in whole or in part, within the limitations of the board of directors' written purchase policies: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible obligations.</I> Eligible obligations of its members, from any source, if either: (A) They are loans it is empowered to grant or (B) they are refinanced with the consent of the borrowers, within 60 days after they are purchased, so that they are loans it is empowered to grant; 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notes of a liquidating credit union's individual members.</I> Notes of a liquidating credit union's individual members, from the liquidating credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Student loans.</I> Student loans, from any source, if the purchaser is granting student loans on an ongoing basis and if the purchase will facilitate the purchasing credit union's packaging of a pool of such loans to be sold or pledged on the secondary market; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Real estate-secured loans.</I> Real estate-secured loans, from any source, if the purchaser is granting real estate-secured loans pursuant to § 701.21 on an ongoing basis and if the purchase will facilitate the purchasing credit union's packaging of a pool of such loans to be sold or pledged on the secondary mortgage market. A pool must include a substantial portion of the credit union's members' loans and must be sold promptly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchases of obligations from a FICU.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase and hold the following obligations, provided that it would be empowered to grant them:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Eligible obligations.</I> Eligible obligations without regard to whether they are obligations of its members, provided they are purchased from a federally

insured credit union and the obligations are either:
</P>
<P>(A) Loans the purchasing credit union is empowered to grant; or
</P>
<P>(B) Loans refinanced with the consent of the borrowers, within 60 days after they are purchased, so that they are loans the purchasing credit union is empowered to grant;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notes of a liquidating credit union.</I> Notes of a liquidating credit union, without regard to whether they are notes of the liquidating credit union's members;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Student loans.</I> Student loans provided they are purchased from a federally insured credit union only;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Real estate-secured loans.</I> Real estate-secured loans provided they are purchased from a federally insured credit union only;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other requirements.</I> A Federal credit union may make purchases in accordance with this paragraph (b), provided: 
</P>
<P>(i) The board of directors or investment committee approves the purchase; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A written agreement and a schedule of the eligible obligations covered by the agreement are retained by the purchaser; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For purchases under paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, any advance written approval required by § 741.8 of this chapter is obtained before consummation of such purchase. 


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Five-percent limitation.</I> The aggregate of the unpaid balance of notes purchased under paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2)(ii) of this section shall not exceed 5 percent of the unimpaired capital and surplus of the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grandfathered purchases.</I> Subject to safety and soundness considerations, a Federal credit union may hold any of the loans described in paragraph (b) of this section that were acquired before October 30, 2023; provided the transaction complied with this section at the time the transaction was executed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Written purchase policies.</I> Purchases of eligible obligations and notes of liquidating credit unions must comply with the purchasing Federal credit union's internal written purchase policies, which must:
</P>
<P>(i) Require that the purchasing Federal credit union conduct due diligence on the seller of the loans and other counterparties to the transaction prior to the purchase.
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish risk assessment and risk management process requirements that are commensurate with the size, scope, type, complexity, and level of risk posed by the planned loan purchase activities.
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish internal underwriting and ongoing monitoring standards that are commensurate with the size, scope, type, complexity, and level of risk posed by the loan purchase activities. Underwriting and ongoing monitoring standards must address the borrower's creditworthiness and ability to repay, and the support provided by collateral if the collateral was used as part of the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(iv) Require that the written purchase agreement include:
</P>
<P>(A) The specific loans being purchased (either directly in the agreement or through a document that is incorporated by reference into the agreement);
</P>
<P>(B) The location and custodian for the original loan documents;
</P>
<P>(C) An explanation of the duties and responsibilities of the seller, servicer, and all parties with respect to all aspects of the loans being purchased, including servicing, default, foreclosure, collection, and other matters involving the ongoing administration of the loans, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(D) The circumstances and conditions under which the parties to the agreement may replace the servicer when the seller retains the servicing rights for the loans being purchased, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(v) Establish portfolio concentration limits by loan type and risk category in relation to net worth that are commensurate with the size, scope, and complexity of the credit union's loan purchases. The policy limits must consider the potential impact of loan concentrations on the purchasing credit union's earnings, loan loss reserves, and net worth.
</P>
<P>(vi) Address when a legal review of agreements or contracts will be performed to ensure that the legal and business interests of the credit union are protected against undue risk.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sale.</I> A Federal credit union may sell, in whole or in part, to any source, eligible obligations of its members, eligible obligations purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, student loans purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, and real estate loans purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, within the limitations of the board of directors' written sale policies, <I>Provided:</I> 


</P>
<P>(1) The board of directors or investment committee approves the sale;
</P>
<P>(2) A written agreement, and a schedule of the eligible obligations covered by the agreement, is retained by the selling credit union that identifies the specific loans being sold either directly in the agreement or through a document that is incorporated by reference into the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) A review of the written agreement is completed that includes the terms, recourse, and risk-sharing arrangements, and, as applicable, loan administration and controls, to ensure that the selling Federal credit union's legal and business interests are protected from undue risks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pledge.</I> (1) A Federal credit union may pledge, in whole or in part, to any source, eligible obligations of its members, eligible obligations purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, student loans purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, and real estate loans purchased in accordance with paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, within the limitations of the board of directors' written pledge policies, <I>Provided:</I> 
</P>
<P>(i) The board of directors or investment committee approves the pledge; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of the original loan documents are retained; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A written agreement covering the pledging arrangement is retained by the credit union that pledges the eligible obligations.
</P>
<P>(2) The pledge agreement shall identify the eligible obligations covered by the agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Servicing.</I> A Federal credit union may agree to service any eligible obligation it purchases or sells in whole or in part. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>10 Percent limitation.</I> The total indebtedness owing to any Federal credit union by any person, inclusive of retained and reacquired interests, shall not exceed 10 percent of its unimpaired capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payments and compensation</I>—(1) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> No federal credit union official, employee, or their immediate family member may receive, directly or indirectly, any compensation in connection with that credit union's purchase, sale, or pledge of an eligible obligation under the provisions of § 701.23.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible payments.</I> This section does not prohibit:
</P>
<P>(i) A federal credit union's payment of salary to employees;
</P>
<P>(ii) A federal credit union's payment of an incentive or bonus to an employee based on the credit union's overall financial performance;
</P>
<P>(iii) A federal credit union's payment of an incentive or bonus to an employee, other than a senior management employee, in connection with that credit union's purchase, sale or pledge of an eligible obligation. This payment is permissible if the board of directors establishes a written policy and internal controls for the incentive or bonus program and monitors compliance with the policy and controls at least annually; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Payment by a person other than the federal credit union of compensation to a volunteer official, non-senior management employee, or their immediate family member, for a service or activity performed outside the credit union provided that the federal credit union, the official, employee, or their immediate family member has not made a referral.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business associates and family members.</I> All transactions under this section with business associates or family members not specifically prohibited by paragraph (g)(1) of this section must be conducted at arm's length and in the interest of the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions.</I> The definitions in § 701.21(c)(8)(ii) of this part apply to this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Additional authority</I>—(1) <I>Expanded purchase authority.</I> A federal credit union may submit a written request to its regional director seeking expanded authority to purchase loans described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, if it is not otherwise authorized by this section. The written request must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the credit union's purchase policy;
</P>
<P>(ii) The types of eligible obligations under paragraph (b)(2) of this section that the credit union seeks to purchase;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the need for additional authority; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An analysis of the credit union's prior experience with the purchase of eligible obligations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval process.</I> A regional director will provide a written determination on a request for expanded authority within 60 calendar days after receipt of the request; however, the 60-day period will not begin until the requesting credit union has submitted all necessary information to the regional director. The regional director will inform the requesting credit union, in writing, of the date the request was received and of any additional documentation that the regional director requires in support of the request. If the regional director approves the request, the regional director will establish a limit on loan purchases as appropriate and subject to the limitations in this section. If the regional director does not notify the credit union of the action taken on its request within 60 calendar days of the receipt of the request or the receipt of additional requested supporting information, whichever occurs later, the credit union may purchase loans it requested under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appeal to NCUA Board.</I> A Federal credit union may request the regional director to reconsider a denied request for expanded authority and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 27071, May 9, 1979, as amended at 46 FR 38680, July 29, 1981. Redesignated at 49 FR 30688, Aug. 1, 1984] 
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 701.23, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at www.govinfo.gov.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.24" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.24   Refund of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of a Federal credit union may authorize an interest refund to members who paid interest to the credit union during any dividend period and who are members of record at the close of business on the last day of such dividend period. Interest refunds may be made for a dividend period only if dividends on share accounts have been declared and paid for that period.
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of interest refund to each member shall be determined as a percentage of the interest paid by the member. Such percentage may vary according to the type of extension of credit and the interest rate charged.
</P>
<P>(c) The board of directors may exclude from an interest refund: 
</P>
<P>(1) A particular type of extension of credit; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any extension of credit made at a particular interest rate; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any extension of credit that is presently delinquent or has been delinquent within the period for which the refund is being made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 19747, May 31, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.25" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.25   Loans to credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits.</I> A Federal credit union may make loans, including investments in Subordinated Debt, to other credit unions, including corporate credit unions and privately insured credit unions, subject to the following limits:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> The aggregate principal amount of loans to other credit unions may not exceed 25 percent of the Federal credit union's paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Single borrower limit.</I> The aggregate principal amount of loans made to any one credit union may not exceed the greater of 15 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth, as defined in part 702 of this chapter, at the time of the closing of the loan or $100,000, plus an additional 10 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth if the amount that exceeds the Federal credit union's 15 percent general limit is fully secured at all times with a perfected security interest by readily marketable collateral as defined in § 723.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval and policies.</I> A Federal credit union's board of directors must approve all loans to other credit unions and establish written policies for making such loans. The written policies must, at a minimum, include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) How the Federal credit union will manage the credit risk of loans to other credit unions; and
</P>
<P>(2) The limits on the aggregate principal amount of loans the Federal credit union can make to other credit unions. The policies must specify the limits on the aggregate principal amount of loans the Federal credit union can make to all other credit unions and the aggregate principal amount of loans the Federal credit union can make to any single credit union; provided that any limits included in such policies do not exceed the limits in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment in Subordinated Debt</I>—(1) <I>Eligibility.</I> A Federal credit union may only invest, directly or indirectly, in the Subordinated Debt of federally insured, natural person credit unions, or in loans or obligations issued by a privately insured credit union that are subordinate to the private insurer; provided that the investing Federal credit union:
</P>
<P>(i) Has at the time of the investment, a capital classification of “well capitalized,” as defined in part 702 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not have any outstanding Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital, in each case with respect to which it was the Issuing Credit Union (as defined in part 702 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not eligible to issue Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital pursuant to an unexpired approval from the NCUA under subpart D of part 702 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Aggregate limit</I>—(i) <I>Aggregate limit.</I> A Federal credit union's aggregate investment (direct or indirect) in the Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital of any federally insured, natural person credit union, and in loans or obligations issued by a privately insured credit union that are subordinate to the private insurer, may not cause such aggregate investment to exceed, at the time of the investment, the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) 25 percent of the investing Federal credit union's net worth at the time of the investment; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any amount of net worth in excess of seven percent (7%) of total assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculation of aggregate limit.</I> The amount subject to the limit in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section is calculated at the time of investment, and is based on a Federal credit union's aggregate outstanding:
</P>
<P>(A) Investment in Subordinated Debt;
</P>
<P>(B) Investment in Grandfathered Secondary Capital;
</P>
<P>(C) Investment in loans or obligations issued by a privately insured credit union that are subordinate to the private insurer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Loans or portion of loans made by the credit union that is secured by any Subordinated Debt, Grandfathered Secondary Capital, or loans or obligations issued by a privately insured credit union that are subordinate to the private insurer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indirect investment.</I> A Federal credit union must determine its indirect exposure by calculating its proportional ownership share of each exposure held in a fund, or similar indirect investment. The Federal credit union's exposure to the fund is equal to the exposure held by the fund as if they were held directly by the Federal credit union, multiplied by the Federal credit union's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11072, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.26" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.26   Credit union service contracts.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal credit union may act as a representative of and enter into a contractual agreement with one or more credit unions or other organizations for the purpose of sharing, utilizing, renting, leasing, purchasing, selling, and/or joint ownership of fixed assets or engaging in activities and/or services which relate to the daily operations of credit unions. Agreements must be in writing, and shall advise all parties subject to the agreement that the goods and services provided shall be subject to examination by the NCUA Board to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 30462, July 14, 1982, as amended at 63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 701.27-701.29" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 701.27-701.29   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.30" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.30   Services for nonmembers within the field of membership.</HEAD>
<P>Federal credit unions may provide the following services to persons within their fields of membership, regardless of membership status:
</P>
<P>(a) Selling negotiable checks including travelers checks, money orders, and other similar money transfer instruments (including international and domestic electronic fund transfers and remittance transfers, as defined in section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act); and 
</P>
<P>(b) Cashing checks and money orders for a fee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 62876, Oct. 27, 2006, as amended at 76 FR 44762, July 27, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.31" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.31   Nondiscrimination requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this part, the term: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application</I> carries the meaning of that term as defined in 12 CFR 1002.2(f) (Regulation B)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dwelling</I> carries the meaning of that term as defined in 42 U.S.C. 3602(b) (Fair Housing Act), which is as follows: “Any building, structure, or portion thereof which is occupied as, or designed or intended for occupancy as, a residence by one or more families, and any vacant land which is offered for sale or lease for the construction or location thereon of any building, structure, or portion thereof”; and 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Real estate-related loan</I> means any loan for which application is made to finance or refinance the purchase, construction, improvement, repair, or maintenance of a dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondiscrimination in Lending.</I> (1) A Federal credit union may not deny a real estate-related loan, nor may it discriminate in setting or exercising its rights pursuant to the terms or conditions of such a loan, nor may it discourage an application for such a loan, on the basis of the race, color, national origin, religion, sex, handicap, or familial status (having children under the age of 18) of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any applicant or joint applicant; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person associated, in connection with a real estate-related loan application, with an applicant or joint applicant; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of the dwelling for which a real estate-related loan is requested; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of other dwellings in the vicinity of the dwelling for which a real estate-related loan is requested. 
</P>
<P>(2) With regard to a real estate-related loan, a Federal credit union may not consider a lending criterion or exercise a lending policy which has the effect of discriminating on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, handicap, or familial status (having children under the age of 18). Guidelines concerning possible exceptions to this provision appear in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) Consideration of any of the following factors in connection with a real estate-related loan is not necessary to a Federal credit union's business, generally has a discriminatory effect, and is therefore prohibited: 
</P>
<P>(i) The age or location of the dwelling; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Zip code of the applicant's current residence; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Previous home ownership; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The age or location of dwellings in the neighborhood of the dwelling; 
</P>
<P>(v) The income level of residents in the neighborhood of the dwelling.
</P>
<FP>Guidelines concerning possible exceptions to this provision appear in paragraph (e)(2) of this section. 
</FP>
<P>(c) <I>Nondiscrimination in appraisals.</I> (1) A Federal credit union may not rely upon an appraisal of a dwelling if it knows or should know that the appraisal is based upon consideration of the race, color, national origin, religion, sex, handicap, or familial status (having children under the age of 18) of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any applicant or joint applicant; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person associated, in connection with a real estate-related loan application, with an applicant or joint applicant; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of the dwelling for which a real estate-related loan is requested; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The present or prospective owners, lessees, tenants, or occupants of other dwellings in the vicinity of the dwelling for which a real estate-related loan is requested. 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a real-estate related loan, a Federal credit union may not rely upon an appraisal of a dwelling if it knows or should know that the appraisal is based upon consideration of a criterion which has the effect of discriminating on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, sex, handicap, or familial status (having children under the age of 18). Guidelines concerning possible exceptions to this provision appear in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal credit union may not rely upon an appraisal that it knows or should know is based upon consideration of any of the following criteria, for such criteria generally have a discriminatory effect, and are not necessary to a Federal credit union's business: 
</P>
<P>(i) The age or location of the dwelling; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The age or location of dwellings in the neighborhood of the dwelling; 
</P>
<P>(iii) The income level of the residents in the neighborhood of the dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3) of this section, it is recognized that there may be factors concerning location of the dwelling which can be properly considered in an appraisal. If any such factor(s) is relied upon, it must be specifically documented in the appraisal, accompanied by a brief statement demonstrating the necessity of using such factor(s). Guidelines concerning the consideration of location factors appear in paragraph (e)(3) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(5) Each Federal credit union shall make available, to any requesting member/applicant, a copy of the appraisal used in connection with that member's application for a loan to be secured by a subordinate lien on a dwelling. The appraisal shall be available for a period of 25 months after the applicant has received notice from the Federal credit union of the action taken by the Federal credit union on the application for a loan to be secured by a subordinate lien on a dwelling. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nondiscrimination in advertising.</I> No federal credit union may engage in any form of advertising of real estate-related loans that indicates the credit union discriminates on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or familial status in violation of the Fair Housing Act. Advertisements must not contain any words, symbols, models or other forms of communication that suggest a discriminatory preference or policy of exclusion in violation of the Fair Housing Act or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Advertising notice of nondiscrimination compliance.</I> Any federal credit union that advertises real estate-related loans must prominently indicate in such advertisement, in a manner appropriate to the advertising medium and format used, that the credit union makes such loans without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, or familial status. 
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to written and visual advertisements, a credit union may satisfy the notice requirement by including in the advertisement a copy of the logotype, with the legend “Equal Housing Lender,” from the poster described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section or a copy of the logotype, with the legend “Equal Housing Opportunity,” from the poster described in § 110.25(a) of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development's (HUD) regulations (24 CFR 110.25(a)). 
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to oral advertisements, a credit union may satisfy the notice requirement by a spoken statement that the credit union is an “Equal Housing Lender” or an “Equal Opportunity Lender.” 
</P>
<P>(iii) When an oral advertisement is used in conjunction with a written or visual advertisement, the use of either of the methods specified in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section will satisfy the notice requirement. 
</P>
<P>(iv) A credit union may use any other method reasonably calculated to satisfy the notice requirement. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Lobby notice of nondiscrimination.</I> Every federal credit union that engages in real estate-related lending must display a notice of nondiscrimination. The notice must be placed in the public lobby of the credit union and in the public area of each office where such loans are made and must be clearly visible to the general public. The notice must incorporate either a facsimile of the logotype and language appearing in paragraph (d)(3) of this section or the logotype and language appearing at 24 CFR 110.25(a). Posters containing the logotype and language appearing in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may be obtained from the regional offices of the National Credit Union Administration. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Logotype and notice of nondiscrimination compliance.</I> The logotype and text of the notice required in paragraph (d)(2) of this section shall be as follows: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21mr12.003.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Guidelines.</I> (1) Compliance with the Fair Housing Act is achieved when each loan applicant's creditworthiness is evaluated on an individual basis, without presuming that the applicant has certain characteristics of a group. If certain lending policies or procedures do presume group characteristics, they may violate the Fair Housing Act, even though the characteristics are not based upon race, color, sex, national origin, religion, handicap, or familial status. Such a violation occurs when otherwise facially nondiscriminatory lending procedures (either general lending policies or specific criteria used in reviewing loan applications) have the effect of making real estate-related loans unavailable or less available on the basis of race, color, sex, national origin, religion, handicap, or familial status. Note, however, that a policy or criterion which has a discriminatory effect is not a violation of the Fair Housing Act if its use achieves a legitimate business necessity which cannot be achieved by using less discriminatory standards. It is also important to note that the Equal Credit Opportunity Act and Regulation B prohibit discrimination, either per se or in effect, on the basis of the applicant's age, marital status, receipt of public assistance, or the exercise of any rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. 
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (b)(3) of this section prohibits consideration of certain factors because of their likely discriminatory effect and because they are not necessary to make sound real estate-related loans. For purposes of clarification, the prohibited use of location factors in this section is intended to prevent abandonment of areas in which a Federal credit union's members live or want to live. It is not intended to require loans in those areas that are geographically remote from the FCU's main or branch offices or that contravene the parameters of a Federal credit union's charter. Further, this prohibition does not preclude requiring a borrower to obtain flood insurance protection pursuant to the National Flood Insurance Act and part 760 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations, nor does it preclude involvement with Federal or state housing insurance programs which provide for lower interest rates for the purchase of homes in certain urban or rural areas. Also, the legitimate use of location factors in an appraisal does not constitute a violation of the provision of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, which prohibits consideration of location of the dwelling. Finally, the prohibited use of prior home ownership does not preclude a Federal credit union from considering an applicant's payment history on a loan which was made to obtain a home. Such action entails consideration of the payment record on a previous loan in determining creditworthiness; it does not entail consideration of prior home ownership. 
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Paragraph (c)(3) of this section prohibits consideration of the age or location of a dwelling in a real estate-related loan appraisal. These restrictions are intended to prohibit the use of unfounded or unsubstantiated assumptions regarding the effect upon loan risk of the age of a dwelling or the physical or economic characteristics of an area. Appraisals should be based on the present market value of the property offered as security (including consideration of specific improvements to be made by the borrower) and the likelihood that the property will retain an adequate value over the term of the loan. 
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “age of the dwelling” does not encompass structural soundness. In addition, the age of the dwelling may be used by an appraiser as a basis for conducting further inspections of certain structural aspects of the dwelling. Paragraph (c)(3) of this section does, however, prohibit an unsubstantiated determination that a house over X years in age is not structurally sound. 
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to location factors, paragraph (c)(4) of this section recognizes that there may be location factors which may be considered in an appraisal, and requires that the use of any such factors be specifically documented in the appraisal. These factors will most often be those location factors which may negatively affect the short range future value (up to 3-5 years) of a property. Factors which in some cases may cause the market value of a property to decline are recent zoning changes or a significant number of abandoned homes in the immediate vicinity of the property. However, not all zoning changes will cause a decline in property values, and proximity to abandoned buildings may not affect the market value of a property because the cause of abandonment is unrelated to high risk. Proper considerations include the condition and utility of the improvement and various physical factors such as street conditions, amenities such as parks and recreation areas, availability of public utilities and municipal services, and exposure to flooding and land faults.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 46223, Nov. 2, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 66 FR 48206, Sept. 19, 2001; 77 FR 16426, Mar. 21, 2012; 77 FR 71084, Nov. 29, 2012; 79 FR 75748, Dec. 19, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.32" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.32   Payment on shares by public units and nonmembers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> A Federal credit union may, to the extent permitted under Section 107(6) of the Act and this section, receive payments on shares, (regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts) from public units and political subdivisions thereof (as those terms are defined in § 745.1) and nonmember credit unions, and to the extent permitted under the Act, this section and § 701.34, receive payments on shares (regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts) from other nonmembers. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations</I>—(1) <I>Aggregate limit on public unit and nonmember shares.</I> Except as permitted under paragraph (c) of this section, a federal credit union may not receive public unit and nonmember shares in excess of the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) 50 percent of the net amount of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus less any public unit and nonmember shares, as measured at the time of acceptance of each public unit or nonmember share (<I>i.e.,</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31oc19.019.gif"/>
<P>(ii) $3 million.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required due diligence.</I> Before receiving public unit or nonmember shares that, taken together with any borrowings, exceed 70 percent of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, the board of directors must adopt a specific written plan concerning the intended use of these funds that is consistent with prudent risk management principles.
</P>
<P>(c) The limitations herein do not apply to accounts maintained in accordance with § 701.37 (Treasury Tax and Loan Depositaries; Depositaries and Financial Agents of the Government) and matching funds required by § 705.5(g) (Community Development Revolving Loan Program for Credit Unions). Once a loan granted pursuant to part 705 is repaid, nonmember share deposits accepted to meet the matching requirement are subject to this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 31184, July 27, 1989, as amended at 54 FR 51384, Dec. 15, 1989; 55 FR 1794, Jan. 19, 1990; 58 FR 21645, Apr. 23, 1993; 59 FR 26102, May 19, 1994; 61 FR 3790, Feb. 2, 1996; 76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011; 77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012; 82 FR 50291, Oct. 30, 2017; 84 FR 58309, Oct. 31, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.33" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.33   Reimbursement, insurance, and indemnification of officials and employees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Dependent care costs. Dependent care costs</I> mean expenses for the care of a qualifying individual (as defined in 26 U.S.C. 21(b)).
</P>
<P><I>Official.</I> An <I>official</I> is a person who is or was a member of the board of directors, credit committee or supervisory committee, or other volunteer committee established by the board of directors.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensation.</I> (1) Only one board officer, if any, may be compensated as an officer of the board. The bylaws must specify the officer to be compensated, if any, as well as the specific duties of each of the board officers. No other official may receive compensation for performing the duties or responsibilities of the board or committee position to which the person has been elected or appointed. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term <I>compensation</I> specifically excludes:



 
</P>
<P>(i) Payment (by reimbursement to an official or direct credit union payment to a third party) for reasonable and proper costs incurred by an official in carrying out the responsibilities of the position to which that person has been elected or appointed, if the payment is determined by the board of directors to be necessary or appropriate in order to carry out the official business of the credit union, and is in accordance with written policies and procedures, including documentation requirements, established by the board of directors. Such payments may include the payment of: (A) travel costs for officials and one guest per official and (B) dependent care costs for a volunteer official (as defined in § 701.21(c)(8)(ii));
</P>
<P>(ii) Provision of reasonable health, accident and related types of personal insurance protection, supplied for officials at the expense of the credit union: <I>Provided,</I> that such insurance protection must exclude life insurance; must be limited to areas of risk, including accidental death and dismemberment, to which the official is exposed by reason of carrying out the duties or responsibilities of the official's credit union position; must cease immediately upon the insured person's leaving office, without providing residual benefits other than from pending claims, if any; except that a credit union must comply with federal and state laws providing departing officials the right to maintain health insurance coverage at their own expense and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Indemnification and related insurance consistent with paragraph (c) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indemnification.</I> (1) A Federal credit union may indemnify its officials and current and former employees for expenses reasonably incurred in connection with judicial or administrative proceedings to which they are or may become parties by reason of the performance of their official duties. 
</P>
<P>(2) Indemnification shall be consistent either with the standards applicable to credit unions generally in the state in which the principal or home office of the credit union is located, or with the relevant provisions of the Model Business Corporation Act. A Federal credit union that elects to provide indemnification shall specify whether it will follow the relevant state law or the Model Business Corporation Act. Indemnification and the method of indemnification may be provided for by charter or bylaw amendment, contract or board resolution, consistent with the procedural requirements of the applicable state law or the Model Business Corporation Act, as specified. A charter or bylaw amendment must be approved by the National Credit Union Administration. 
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal credit union may purchase and maintain insurance on behalf of its officials and employees against any liability asserted against them and expenses incurred by them in their official capacities and arising out of the performance of their official duties to the extent such insurance is permitted by the applicable state law or the Model Business Corporation Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, a federal credit union may not indemnify a dual employee for duties performed for any employer other than the federal credit union. For purposes of this subsection, a dual employee is a federal credit union employee who also performs work functions for another entity as part of a sharing arrangement between the federal credit union and the other entity.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, a Federal credit union may not indemnify an official or employee for personal liability related to any decision made by that individual on a matter significantly affecting the fundamental rights and interests of the Federal credit union's members where the decision giving rise to the claim for indemnification is determined by a court to have constituted gross negligence, recklessness, or willful misconduct. Matters affecting the fundamental rights and interests of Federal credit union members include charter and share insurance conversions and terminations.
</P>
<P>(6) A Federal credit union may, before final disposition of a proceeding referred to in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, advance funds to pay for or reimburse the expenses, including legal fees, reasonably incurred in connection with the proceeding by an official or employee who is a party to the proceeding because that individual is or was an official or employee of the credit union if:
</P>
<P>(i) The disinterested members of the credit union's board of directors (or in the event there are fewer than two disinterested directors, the supervisory committee), in good faith, determine in writing after due investigation and consideration that the official or employee acted in good faith and in a manner he or she reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the credit union's members;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disinterested members of the credit union's board of directors (or the supervisory committee, as the case may be), in good faith, determine in writing after due investigation and consideration that the payment or reimbursement of the expenses will not materially adversely affect the credit union's safety and soundness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The official or employee provides:
</P>
<P>(A) A written affirmation of the individual's reasonable good faith belief that the relevant standard of conduct described in § 701.4(b) of this chapter has been met by the individual; and
</P>
<P>(B) A written undertaking to repay the credit union for any funds advanced or reimbursed, to the extent not covered by payments from insurance, if the official or employee is not entitled to indemnification under paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) To the extent a Federal credit union has elected to follow State law or the Model Business Corporation Act in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the credit union must substitute the phrase “in the best interests of the members” for any language indicating that fiduciary duties are owed to persons or entities other than the members of the credit union, including, but not limited to, language such as “in the best interests of the credit union” or “in the best interests of the corporation.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29642, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 57 FR 54503, Nov. 19, 1992; 66 FR 65629, Dec. 20, 2001; 72 FR 30246, May 31, 2007; 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010; 91 FR 34739, June 9, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.34" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.34   Designation of low income status.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of low-income status.</I> (1) Based on data obtained through examinations, NCUA will notify a federal credit union that it qualifies for designation as a low-income credit union if a majority of its membership qualifies as low-income members. A federal credit union that wishes to receive the designation must notify NCUA in writing within 90 days of receipt of any NCUA notifications.
</P>
<P>(2) Low-income members are those members whose family income is 80% or less than the median family income for the metropolitan area where they live or national metropolitan area, whichever is greater, or those members who earn 80% or less than the total median earnings for individuals for the metropolitan area where they live or national metropolitan area, whichever is greater. NCUA will use the statewide or national, non-metropolitan area median family income instead of the metropolitan area or national metropolitan area median family income for members living outside a metropolitan area. Member earnings will be estimated based on data reported by the U.S. Census Bureau for the geographic area where the member lives. The term “low-income members” also includes those members enrolled as students in a college, university, high school, or vocational school.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal credit unions that do not receive notification that they qualify for a low-income credit union designation but believe they qualify may submit information to NCUA to demonstrate they qualify for a low-income credit union designation. For example, federal credit unions may provide actual member income from loan applications or surveys to demonstrate a majority of their membership is low-income members. Actual member income data must be compared to a like category of statistical data, for example, actual individual member income may only be compared to total median earnings for individuals for the metropolitan area where they live or national metropolitan area, whichever is greater. A Federal credit union may rely on a sample of membership income data drawn from loan files or a member survey provided the Federal credit union can demonstrate the sample is a statistically valid, random sample by submitting with its data a narrative describing its sampling technique and evidence supporting the validity of the analysis, including the actual data set used in the analysis. The random sample must be representative of the membership, must be sufficient in both number and scope on which to base conclusions, and must have a minimum confidence level of 95% and a confidence interval of 5%. A Federal credit union must draw the sample either entirely from loan files or entirely from the survey, and must not combine a loan file review with a survey. NCUA will provide a response to the Federal credit union within 60 days of its submission.
</P>
<P>(4) If NCUA determines a low-income designated Federal credit union no longer meets the criteria for the designation, NCUA will notify the Federal credit union in writing, and the Federal credit union must, within five years, meet the criteria for the designation or come into compliance with the regulatory requirements applicable to Federal credit unions that do not have a low-income designation. The designation will remain in effect during the five-year period. If a Federal credit union does not requalify and has secondary capital or nonmember deposit accounts with a maturity beyond the five-year period, NCUA may extend the time for a Federal credit union to come into compliance with regulatory requirements to allow the Federal credit union to satisfy the terms of any account agreements. A Federal credit union may request NCUA to reconsider a determination that it no longer meets the criteria for the designation and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Any credit union with a low-income credit union designation on January 1, 2009 will have five years from that date to meet the criteria for low-income designation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, unless NCUA determines a longer time is required to allow the low-income credit union to satisfy the terms of a secondary capital or nonmember deposit account agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply to this section:
</P>
<P><I>Median family income</I> and <I>total median earnings for individuals</I> are income statistics reported by the U.S. Census Bureau. The applicable income data can be obtained via the American Community Survey on the Census Bureau's web page at <I>http://www.census.gov.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means an area designated by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 1104(d), 44 U.S.C. 3504(c), and Executive Order 10253 (June 13, 1951) (as amended).
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 3790, Feb. 2, 1996, as amended at 61 FR 50695, 50697, Sept. 27, 1996; 64 FR 72270, Dec. 27, 1999; 65 FR 21131, Apr. 20, 2000; 71 FR 4238, Jan. 26, 2006; 73 FR 71912, Nov. 26, 2008; 75 FR 7342, Feb. 19, 2010; 75 FR 47172, Aug. 5, 2010; 75 FR 57843, Sept. 23, 2010; 76 FR 36979, June 24, 2011; 76 FR 80227, Dec. 23, 2011; 78 FR 4032, Jan. 18, 2013; 82 FR 50291, Oct. 30, 2017; 85 FR 62210, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 11072, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.35" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.35   Share, share draft, and share certificate accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal credit unions may offer share, share draft, and share certificate accounts in accordance with section 107(6) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1757(6)) and the board of directors may declare dividends on such accounts as provided in section 117 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1763).
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal credit union shall accurately represent the terms and conditions of its share, share draft, and share certificate accounts in all advertising, disclosures, or agreements, whether written or oral
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[47 FR 17979, Apr. 27, 1982, as amended at 50 FR 4637, Feb. 1, 1985; 58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993; 91 FR 34733, June 9, 2026] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.36" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.36   Federal credit union occupancy and disposal of acquired and abandoned premises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Section 107(4) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1757(4)) authorizes a federal credit union to purchase, hold, and dispose of property necessary or incidental to its operations. This section interprets and implements that provision by establishing occupancy and disposal requirements for acquired and abandoned premises, and by prohibiting certain transactions. This section applies only to federal credit unions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Abandoned premises</I> means premises previously used to transact credit union business but no longer used for that purpose. It also means premises originally acquired to transact future credit union business but no longer intended for that purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household.
</P>
<P><I>Partially occupy</I> means occupation and use, on a full-time basis, of at least fifty percent of each of the premises by the federal credit union, or the federal credit union and a credit union service organization in which the federal credit union has a controlling interest in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP).
</P>
<P><I>Premises</I> means any office, branch office, suboffice, service center, parking lot, other facility, or real estate where the federal credit union transacts or will transact business.
</P>
<P><I>Senior management employee</I> means the federal credit union's chief executive officer, any assistant chief executive officers, and the chief financial officer. For example, these individuals typically hold the title of President or Treasurer/Manager, Assistant President, Vice President or Assistant Treasurer/Manager, and Comptroller.
</P>
<P><I>Unimproved land or unimproved real property</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Raw land or land without development, significant buildings, structures, or site preparation;
</P>
<P>(2) Land that has never had improvements;
</P>
<P>(3) Land that was improved at one time but has functionally reverted to its unimproved state; or
</P>
<P>(4) Land that has been improved, but the improvements serve no purpose for the federal credit union's planned use of the property.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Premises not currently used to transact credit union business.</I> (1) If a federal credit union acquires premises, including unimproved land or unimproved real property, it must partially occupy each of them within a reasonable period, but no later than six years after the date of acquisition. NCUA may waive the partial occupation requirements. To seek a waiver, a federal credit union must submit a written request to its Regional Office and fully explain why it needs the waiver. The Regional Director will provide the federal credit union a written response, either approving or disapproving the request. The Regional Director's decision will be based on safety and soundness considerations.
</P>
<P>(2) A federal credit union must make diligent efforts to dispose of abandoned premises and any other real property it does not intend to use in transacting business. The federal credit union must seek fair market value for the property, and record its efforts to dispose of abandoned premises. After premises have been abandoned for four years, the federal credit union must publicly advertise the property for sale. The federal credit union must complete the sale within five years of abandonment, unless NCUA waives this requirement. To seek a waiver, a federal credit union must submit a written request to its Regional Office and fully explain why it needs the waiver. The Regional Director will provide the federal credit union a written response, either approving or disapproving the request. The Regional Director's decision will be based on safety and soundness considerations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited transactions.</I> (1) A federal credit union must not acquire, or lease for one year or longer, premises from any of the following, unless NCUA waives this prohibition:
</P>
<P>(i) A member of the federal credit union's board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, or senior management, or an immediate family member of such individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) A corporation in which a member of the federal credit union's board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, or senior management, or an immediate family member of such individual, is an officer or director, or has a stock interest of 10 percent or more; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A partnership, limited liability company, or other entity in which a member of the federal credit union's board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, or senior management, or an immediate family member of such individual, is a general partner, or a limited partner or entity member with an interest of 10 percent or more.
</P>
<P>(2) A federal credit union must not lease for one year or longer premises from any of its employees if the employee is directly involved in acquiring premises, unless the federal credit union's board of directors determines the employee's involvement is not a conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(3) All transactions with business associates or family members not specifically prohibited by this section must be conducted at arm's length and in the interest of the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) To seek a waiver from any of the prohibitions in this paragraph (d), a federal credit union must submit a written request to its Regional Office and fully explain why it needs the waiver. Within 45 days of the receipt of the waiver request or all necessary documentation, whichever is later, the Regional Director will provide the federal credit union a written response, either approving or disapproving its request. The Regional Director's decision will be based on safety and soundness considerations and a determination as to whether a conflict of interest exists.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 57252, Sept. 18, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 45850, Aug. 3, 2015; 81 FR 93580, Dec. 21, 2016; 85 FR 22014, Apr. 21, 2020; 85 FR 83409, Dec. 22, 2020; 86 FR 72520, Dec. 22, 2021]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.37" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.37   Treasury tax and loan depositaries; depositaries and financial agents of the Government.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) <I>Treasury Tax and Loan (TT&amp;L) Remittance Account</I> means a nondividend-paying account, the balance of which is subject to the right of immediate withdrawal, established for receipt of payments of Federal taxes and certain United States obligations under United States Treasury Department regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>TT&amp;L Note Account</I> means an account subject to the right of immediate call, evidencing funds held by depositaries electing the note option under United States Treasury Department regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Treasury General Account</I> means an account, established under United States Treasury Department regulations, in which a zero balance may be maintained and from which the entire balance may be withdrawn by the depositor immediately under all circumstances except closure of the credit union. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>U.S. Treasury Time Deposit—Open Account</I> means a nondividend-bearing account, established under United States Treasury Department regulations, which generally may not be withdrawn until the expiration of 14 days after the date of the United States Treasury Department's written notice of intent to withdraw.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to regulation of the United States Treasury Department, a Federal credit union may serve as a Treasury tax and loan depositary, a depositary of Federal taxes, a depositary of public money, and a financial agent of the United States Government. In serving in these capacities, a Federal credit union may maintain the accounts defined in subsection (a), pledge collateral, and perform the services described under United States Treasury Department regulations for institutions acting in these capacities.
</P>
<P>(c) Funds held in a TT&amp;L Remittance Account, a TT&amp;L Note Account, a Treasury General Account, and a U.S. Treasury Time Deposit—Open Account shall be considered deposits of public funds. Funds held in a TT&amp;L Remittance Account and a TT&amp;L Note Account shall be added together and insured up to a maximum of $250,000 in the aggregate. Funds held in a Treasury General Account and a U.S. Treasury Time Deposit—Open Account shall be added together and insured up to a maximum of $250,000 in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(d) Funds held in a TT&amp;L Remittance Account, a TT&amp;L Note Account, a Treasury General Account, and U.S. Treasury Time Deposit—Open Account are not subject to the 60-day notice requirement of Article III, section 5(a) of the Federal Credit Union Bylaws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18471, May 1, 1989, as amended at 78 FR 4030, Jan. 18, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.38" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.38   Borrowed funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal credit unions may borrow funds from any source; provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The borrowing is evidenced by a written contract, such as a signed promissory note, that sets forth the terms and conditions including, at a minimum, maturity, prepayment, interest rate, method of computation of interest, and method of payment; and
</P>
<P>(2) The written contract and any solicitation with respect to such borrowing contain clear and conspicuous language indicating that:
</P>
<P>(i) The funds represent money borrowed by the Federal credit union; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The funds do not represent shares and, therefore, are not insured by the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal credit union is subject to the maximum borrowing authority of an aggregate amount not exceeding 50 percent of its paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus. Provided that any Federal credit union may discount with or sell to any Federal intermediate credit bank any eligible obligations up to the amount of its paid-in and unimpaired capital (12 U.S.C. 1757(9)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11072, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 701.39" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 701.39   Statutory lien.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Within this section, each of the following terms has the meaning prescribed below:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Except as otherwise provided by law</I> or <I>except as otherwise provided by federal law</I> is a qualifying phrase referring to a federal and/or state law, as the case may be, which supersedes a requirement of this section. It is the responsibility of the credit union to ascertain whether such statutory or case law exists and is applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Impress</I> means to attach to a member's account and is the act which makes the lien enforceable against that account;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Member</I> means any member who is primarily, secondarily or otherwise responsible for an outstanding financial obligation to the credit union, including without limitation an obligor, maker, co-maker, guarantor, co-signer, endorser, surety or accommodation party;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice</I> means written notice to a member disclosing, in plain language, that the credit union has the right to impress and enforce a statutory lien against the member's shares and dividends in the event of failure to satisfy a financial obligation, and may enforce the right without further notice to the member. Such notice must be given at the time, or at any time before, the member incurs the financial obligation;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Statutory lien</I> means the right granted by section 107(11) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1757(11), to a federal credit union to establish a right in or claim to a member's shares and dividends equal to the amount of that member's outstanding financial obligation to the credit union, as that amount varies from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Superior claim.</I> Except as otherwise provided by law, a statutory lien gives the federal credit union priority over other creditors when claims are asserted against a member's account(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Impressing a statutory lien.</I> Except as otherwise provided by federal law, a credit union can impress a statutory lien on a member's account(s)—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account records.</I> By giving notice thereof in the member's account agreement(s) or other account opening documentation; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loan documents.</I> In the case of a loan, by giving notice thereof in a loan document signed or otherwise acknowledged by the member(s); or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>By-Law or policy.</I> Through a duly adopted credit union by-law or policy of the board of directors, of which the member is given notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing a statutory lien</I>—(1) <I>Application of funds.</I> Except as otherwise provided by federal law, a federal credit union may enforce its statutory lien against a member's account(s) by debiting funds in the account and applying them to the extent of any of the member's outstanding financial obligations to the credit union.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Default required.</I> A federal credit union may enforce its statutory lien against a member's account(s) only when the member fails to satisfy an outstanding financial obligation due and payable to the credit union.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Neither judgment nor set-off required.</I> A federal credit union need not obtain a court judgment on the member's debt, nor exercise the equitable right of set-off, prior to enforcing its statutory lien against the member's account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 56956, Oct. 22, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.29.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 701—Federal Credit Union Bylaws




</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<HD2>Effective Date
</HD2>
<P>The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) Board first incorporated the Federal Credit Union (FCU) Bylaws as Appendix A to Part 701 of the NCUA's regulations on November 30, 2007. FCUs may retain previously adopted versions of the FCU Bylaws including the November 30, 2007 version. Unless an FCU has adopted bylaws before January 2, 2020, it must adopt these revised bylaws.
</P>
<HD2>Adoption of All or Part of These Bylaws
</HD2>
<P>Although FCUs may retain any previously approved version of the FCU Bylaws, the NCUA Board encourages FCUs to adopt the revised bylaws because it believes they provide greater clarity and flexibility for credit unions and their officials and members. FCUs may also adopt portions of the revised bylaws and retain the remainder of previously approved bylaws, but the NCUA Board cautions FCUs to be extremely careful in making the decision. FCUs must be careful because they run the risk of having inconsistent or conflicting provisions because of the various options the revised bylaws provide, as well as other revisions in the text.
</P>
<HD2>Bylaw Amendments
</HD2>
<P>1. The FCU Bylaws contain provisions allowing FCU boards to select from an option or range of options or to fill in a blank. The “fill-in-the-blank” provisions are changes to the FCU's bylaws. Thus, they require a two-thirds vote of the FCU's board of directors. As long as the board selects from the permissible options, the FCU does not need to submit the change to the NCUA for its approval.
</P>
<P>2. FCUs continue to have the flexibility to request bylaw amendments. The NCUA must approve all bylaw amendments except for the provisions noted above. In the past, the NCUA has published a “Standard Bylaw Amendments” booklet containing a list of “standard” preapproved and optional amendments not included in the FCU Bylaws. That document remains on the NCUA's website for historical purposes. However, FCUs may not adopt amendments from the “Standard Bylaw Amendments” booklet, as the FCU Bylaws include sufficient flexibility to make a separate list of standard bylaw amendments unnecessary. Thus, the NCUA no longer makes a distinction between “standard” and “nonstandard” bylaw amendments. Consequently, the NCUA considers any change to the FCU Bylaws that is not a “fill-in-the-blank” provision or part of a range of options to be a bylaw amendment that requires the NCUA approval.
</P>
<P>3. The procedure for approval of a bylaw amendment is as follows:
</P>
<P>a. The FCU must submit its request to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion (CURE).
</P>
<P>b. The request must include:
</P>
<P>1. The section of the FCU Bylaws to be amended;
</P>
<P>2. The reason for, or purpose of, the amendment;
</P>
<P>3. An explanation of why the amendment is desirable and what it will accomplish for the federal credit union; and
</P>
<P>4. The specific wording of the proposed amendment.
</P>
<P>c. CURE will advise the credit union within 60 days if it approved the proposed amendment after its review and, if necessary, consultation with the NCUA's Office of General Counsel. If CURE does not reach a decision within 60 days, the proposed amendment is considered to be denied unless CURE requests an extension of time from the federal credit union and the credit union agrees to such a request. If CURE reaches an adverse decision or CURE fails to render a decision within the agreed timeframe, the credit union may appeal that decision in accordance with the procedures set out in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter. If CURE fails to render a timely decision, within thirty days it must provide the FCU with a written notice of its failure to render a timely decision and a statement of any concerns that CURE has with the bylaw amendment request.
</P>
<P>4. Federal credit unions considering an amendment may find it useful to review the bylaws section of the agency website, which includes the NCUA's Office of General Counsel opinions on proposed bylaw amendments.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Opinions issued after April 2006 include the language of the approved amendment.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>http://www.ncua.gov/Legal/Pages/BylawByYear.aspx.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>Because each decision by CURE is made on a case-by-case basis that depends on the unique facts and circumstances applicable to each FCU, the credit union must submit a proposed amendment to the NCUA for review under the procedure listed above, even if the NCUA previously approved an identical or similar amendment for another credit union.
</P>
<HD2>The Nature of the FCU Bylaws
</HD2>
<P>1. The Federal Credit Union Act requires the NCUA Board to prepare bylaws for federal credit unions.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The FCU Bylaws address a broad range of matters concerning a credit union's organization and governance, the relationship of the credit union to its members, and the procedures and rules a credit union follows.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1758.</P></FTNT>
<P>The FCU Bylaws supplement the broad provisions of:
</P>
<P>• A federal credit union's charter, which establishes the existence of a federal credit union;
</P>
<P>• The Federal Credit Union Act, which establishes the powers of federal credit unions; and
</P>
<P>• The NCUA's regulations, which implement the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>As a legal matter, a federal credit union's bylaws must conform to, and cannot be inconsistent with, any provision of its charter, the Federal Credit Union Act, the NCUA's regulations, or other laws or regulations applicable to the credit union's operations.
</P>
<P>2. The NCUA expects federal credit unions and their members will make every effort to resolve bylaw disputes using the credit union's internal member complaint resolution process. If a bylaw dispute cannot be resolved internally, credit union officials or members should contact the regional office with oversight over the credit union for assistance in resolving the dispute.
</P>
<P>3. The NCUA has discretion to take administrative actions when a credit union is not in compliance with its bylaws. If a potential violation is identified, the NCUA will carefully consider all of the facts and circumstances in deciding whether to take enforcement action. The NCUA will not generally take action against minor or technical violations, but emphasizes that it retains discretion to enforce the FCU Bylaws in appropriate cases, such as safety and soundness concerns or threats to fundamental, material credit union member rights.
</P>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>Article I. Name—Purposes
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article II. Qualifications for Membership
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article III. Shares of Members
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article IV. Meetings of Members
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article V. Elections
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article VI. Board of Directors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article VII. Board Officers, Management Officials and Executive Committee
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article VIII. Credit Committee or Loan Officers
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article IX. Supervisory Committee
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article X. Organization Meeting
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XI. Loans and Lines of Credit to Members
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XII. Dividends
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XIII. Reserved
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XIV. Expulsion and Withdrawal
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XV. Minors
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XVI. General
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XVII. Amendments of Bylaws and Charter
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Article XVIII. Definitions
</FP-2>
<HD1>Bylaws
</HD1>
<FP>Federal Credit Union, Charter No.________
</FP>
<FP>(A corporation chartered under the laws of the United States)
</FP>
<HD1>Article I. Name—Purposes
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Name.</I> The name of this credit union is as stated in Section 1 of its charter (approved organization certificate).
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Purposes.</I> This credit union is a member-owned, democratically operated, not-for-profit organization managed by a volunteer board of directors. Its stated mission is to meet the credit and savings needs of members, especially individuals of modest means. The purpose of this credit union is to promote thrift among its members by affording them an opportunity to accumulate their savings and to create a source of credit for provident or productive purposes. <I>The credit union may add business as one of its purposes by placing a comma after “provident” and inserting “business.”</I>




</P>
<HD1>Article II. Qualifications for Membership
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Field of membership.</I> The field of membership of this credit union is limited to that stated in Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Membership application procedures.</I> Persons eligible for membership under Section 5 of the charter must sign a membership application on approved forms. The applicant becomes a member upon approval of the application by a membership officer, after subscription to at least one share, payment of the initial installment, and payment of a uniform entrance fee if required by the board. If the membership officer denies a person's membership application, the credit union must explain the reasons for the denial in writing upon written request.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Maintenance of membership share required.</I> A member who withdraws all shareholdings or fails to comply with the time requirements for restoring his or her account balance to par value in Article III, section 3, ceases to be a member. By resolution, the board may require persons readmitted to membership to pay another entrance fee.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Continuation of membership.</I>
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Once a member, always a member.</I> Once a member, always a member until the person or organization chooses to withdraw its membership or is expelled under the Act and Article XIV of these bylaws.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation of services.</I> Notwithstanding any provision of these bylaws, the board of directors may adopt a policy that limits credit union services to any member not in good standing.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Member in good standing.</I> Members in good standing retain all their rights and privileges in the credit union. A member not in good standing may be subject to a policy that limits credit union services. A member not in good standing is one who has engaged in any of the conduct in Article XIV, section 3, related to for-cause expulsion. In the event of a suspension of service, the member will be notified of what accounts or services have been discontinued. Subject to Article XIV and any applicable limitation of services policy approved by the board, members not in good standing retain their right to attend, participate, and vote at the annual and special meetings of the members and maintain a share account.






</P>
<HD1>Article III. Shares of Members
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Par value.</I> The par value of each share is $________. Subscriptions to shares are payable at the time of subscription, or in installments of at least $________ per month.
</P>
<P>FCUs may establish differing par values for different classes of members or types of accounts (such as students, minors, or non-natural persons), provided this action does not violate any federal, state or local antidiscrimination laws. Below are some options an FCU can choose. The FCU may also establish differing par values for other classes of members not listed below. List all established par values in Section 1.
</P>
<FP>____ Option. <I>Par value for minors.</I> The par value of each share for members ________ years of age or younger is $________. Subscriptions to shares are payable at the time of subscription, or in installments of at least $________ per month.
</FP>
<FP>____ Option. <I>Par value for students.</I> The par value of each share for students is $________. Subscriptions to shares are payable at the time of subscription, or in installments of at least $________ per month.
</FP>
<FP>A student is defined as anyone enrolled □ full-time or □ part-time in ________.
</FP>
<FP>____ Option. <I>Par value for non-natural persons.</I> The par value of each share for non-natural persons is $________. Subscriptions to shares are payable at the time of subscription, or in installments of at least$______ per month.
</FP>
<FP>To establish membership, the member must subscribe to one par value of share. The share does not have to be in a regular share account. The board may choose the best account for the characteristics of its membership.
</FP>
<FP>____ <I>Option A—Regular Share account required to establish membership</I>
</FP>
<FP>To establish membership in the credit union, the member must subscribe to one share in a regular share account.
</FP>
<FP>____ <I>Option B—________account required to establish membership.</I>
</FP>
<FP>To established members in the credit union, the member must subscribe to one share in the stated account or accounts (note the account(s) in the blank above).
</FP>
<P>Section 2. <I>Cap on shares held by one person.</I> The board may establish, by resolution, the maximum amount of shares that any one member may hold.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Time periods for payment and maintenance of membership share.</I> The credit union will terminate from membership a member who:
</P>
<P>• Fails to complete payment of one share within __________ of admission to membership, or
</P>
<P>• Fails to complete payment of one share within ________ from the increase in the par value of shares, or
</P>
<P>• Reduces the share balance below the par value of one share and does not increase the balance to at least the par value of one share within ________ of the reduction.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Transferability.</I> Members may transfer shares to another member in any form approved by the board. Shares that accrue credits for unpaid dividends retain those credits when transferred.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Withdrawals.</I> Members may withdraw money paid in on shares provided that:
</P>
<P>(a) The board has the right, at any time, to require members, or a subset of members, to give up to 60 days written notice of intention to withdraw all or part of the amounts they paid in.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved].
</P>
<P>(c) A member delinquent on any loan or obligation to the credit union may not withdraw their shares below the delinquent amount without the written approval of the credit committee or loan officer. This withdrawal restriction also applies if the member is a comaker, endorser, or guarantor of a delinquent loan. Coverage of overdrafts under an overdraft protection policy does not constitute delinquency for purposes of this paragraph. Shares issued in an irrevocable trust as provided in Section 6 of this article are not subject to withdrawal restrictions except as stated in the trust agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) The share account of a deceased member (other than one held in joint tenancy with another member) may be continued until the close of the dividend period in which the administration of the deceased's estate is completed.
</P>
<P>(e) The board can impose a fee for excessive share withdrawals from regular share accounts. By resolution, the board can set the number of withdrawals not subject to a fee and the amount of the fee subject to regulations relevant to the advertising and disclosure of terms and conditions on member accounts.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Trusts.</I> Shares may be issued in a revocable or irrevocable trust, subject to the following:
</P>
<P>Shares issued in a revocable trust—the settlor must be a member of this credit union in his or her own right.
</P>
<P>Shares issued in an irrevocable trust—either the settlor or the beneficiary must be a member of this credit union.
</P>
<P>Both a revocable and irrevocable trust must state the name of the beneficiary. A trust may be a member of the credit union as an entity if all parties to the trust, including all settlors, beneficiaries and trustees, are within the credit union's field of membership.
</P>
<P>Shares issued through a pension plan authorized by the rules and regulations will be treated as an irrevocable trust unless otherwise indicated in the rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Joint accounts and membership requirements.</I> Select one option and check the box corresponding to that option.
</P>
<FP>____ Option A—Separate account not required to establish membership.
</FP>
<P>Owners of a joint account may both be members of the credit union without opening separate accounts. For joint membership, both owners are required to fulfill all of the membership requirements including each member purchasing and maintaining at least one share in the account and filling out the membership card.
</P>
<FP>____ Option B—Separate account required to establish membership.
</FP>
<P>Each member must purchase and maintain at least one share in a share account that names the member as the sole or primary owner. Being named as a joint owner of a joint account is not sufficient to establish membership.
</P>
<HD1>Article IV. Meetings of Members
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Annual meeting.</I> The board must hold the annual meeting of the members [insert time for annual meeting, for example, “during the month of March/on the third Saturday of April/no later than March 31”], in the county in which any office of the credit union is located or within a radius of 100 miles of an office, at the time and place as the board determines and announces in the notice of the annual meeting. This credit union may permit virtual attendance and participation in the annual meeting, provided that an in-person meeting complying with the geographic requirements of this paragraph is also held.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Notice of meetings required.</I> a. The secretary must give written notice to each member at least 30 but no more than 75 days before the date of any annual meeting. The secretary must give written notice to each member at least 7 days before the date of any special meeting of the members and at least 45 but no more than 90 days before the date of any meeting to vote on a merger with another credit union. The secretary may deliver the notice in person, by mail to the member's address, or, for members who have opted to receive statements and notices electronically, by electronic mail. The secretary must give notice of the annual meeting by posting the notice in a conspicuous place in the office of this credit union where members may read it at least 30 days before the meeting. The secretary must also prominently display the notice on the credit union's website if such credit union maintains a website.
</P>
<P>b. All special meeting notices must state the purpose of the meeting. The officials and members may only transact business related to the stated purpose at the meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Special meetings.</I> a. The board chair, the board of directors by majority vote, or the supervisory committee as provided in these bylaws may call a special meeting of the members. The chair must call and hold a special meeting within 30 days of the receipt of a written request from 25 members or 5% of the members as of the date of the request, whichever number is larger. However, a request of no more than 750 members may be required to call a special meeting.
</P>
<P>b. The credit union may hold a special meeting at any location permitted for the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Items of business for annual meeting and rules of order for annual and special meetings.</I> The suggested order of business at annual meetings of members is—
</P>
<P>(a) Ascertain that a quorum is present.
</P>
<P>(b) Reading and approval or correction of the minutes of the last meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) Report of directors, if there is one. For credit unions participating in the Community Development Revolving Loan Program, the directors must report on the credit union's progress on providing needed community services, if required by NCUA Regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) Report of the financial officer or the chief management official.
</P>
<P>(e) Report of the credit committee, if there is one.
</P>
<P>(f) Report of the supervisory committee, as required by Section 115 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(g) Unfinished business.
</P>
<P>(h) New business other than elections.
</P>
<P>(i) Elections, as required by Section 111 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(j) Adjournment.
</P>
<P>(k) To the extent consistent with these bylaws, the board will conduct all meetings of the members according to ________. The order of business for the annual meeting may vary from the suggested order, provided it includes all required items and complies with the rules of procedure adopted by the credit union.
</P>
<P><I>The credit union must fill in the blank with one of the following authorities, noting the edition to be used: Democratic Rules of Order, The Modern Rules of Order, Robert's Rules of Order, or Sturgis' Standard Code of Parliamentary Procedure.</I>
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Quorum.</I> Except as otherwise provided, 15 members constitute a quorum at annual or special meetings. If a quorum is not present, the board may adjourn to a date at least 7 but not more than 14 days thereafter. The members present at any adjourned meeting will constitute a quorum, regardless of the number of members present. The board must give the same notice for the adjourned meeting as prescribed in Section 2 of this article for the original meeting, except that they must give notice at least 5 days before the date of the meeting fixed in the adjournment.
</P>
<HD1>Article V. Elections
</HD1>
<P><I>The Credit Union must select one of the four voting options. The board may print the credit union's bylaws with the option selected or retain this copy and check the box of the option selected. All options continue with Section 3 of this article.</I>
</P>
<HD2>Option A1—In-Person Elections; Nominating Committee and Nominations From Floor
</HD2>
<P>Section 1. <I>Nomination procedures.</I> At least 30 days before each annual meeting, the chair will appoint a nominating committee of three or more members. The nominating committee will nominate at least one member for each vacancy, including any unexpired term vacancy, for which elections are being held, and determine that the members nominated are agreeable to the placing of their names in nomination and will accept office if elected. The nominating committee must widely publicize the call for nominations to all members by any medium and interview each member that meets any qualifications established by the nominating committee.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election procedures.</I> After placing the nominations of the nominating committee before the members, the chair calls for nominations from the floor. When nominations are closed, the chair appoints election tellers. The election tellers distribute the ballots, collect the ballots and tally the votes, and the chair announces the results. Except when there is only one nominee for each open office, all elections are by ballot and determined by the plurality of vote. If there is only one nominee for each open office, the chair may take a voice vote or declare the election of each nominee by general consent or acclamation.
</P>
<HD2>Option A2—In-Person Elections; Nominating Committee and Nominations by Petition
</HD2>
<P>Section 1. <I>Nomination procedures.</I> a. At least 120 days before each annual meeting the chair will appoint a nominating committee of three or more members. The nominating committee will nominate at least one member for each vacancy, including any unexpired term vacancy, for which elections are being held, and determine that the members nominated are agreeable to the placing of their names in nomination and will accept office if elected. The nominating committee must widely publicize the call for nominations to all members by any medium and interview each member that meets any qualifications established by the nominating committee.
</P>
<P>b. At least 90 days before the annual meeting, the nominating committee files its nominations with the secretary of the credit union. At least 75 days before the annual meeting, the secretary notifies, in writing, all members eligible to vote that they may make nominations for vacancies by petition signed by 1% of the members with a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 500. The secretary may use electronic mail to notify members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically.
</P>
<P>c. The written notice must specify that the credit union will not conduct the election by ballot and there will be no nominations from the floor when the number of nominees equals the number of open positions.
</P>
<P>d. The notice will include, in a form approved by the board of directors, a brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each nominee submitted by the nominating committee. Each nominee by petition must submit a similar statement of qualifications and biographical data with the petition.
</P>
<P>e. The written notice must state the closing date for receiving nominations by petition. At least 40 days before the annual meeting, nominee(s) must file the nomination petition with the secretary of the credit union. To be effective, nominee(s) must include a signed certificate with the nomination petition stating that they are agreeable to nomination and will serve if elected to office.
</P>
<P>f. At least 35 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will post the nominations by petition along with those of the nominating committee in a conspicuous place in each credit union office and on the credit union's website (if the credit union maintains a website).
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election procedures.</I> a. The secretary must place all persons nominated by either the nominating committee or by petition before the members. When nominations are closed, the chair appoints the election tellers. The election tellers distribute the ballots, collect the ballots, and tally the votes, and the chair announces the results. Except when there is only one nominee for each open office, all elections are by ballot and determined by the plurality of vote.
</P>
<P>b. There are no nominations from the floor if there are sufficient nominations by the nominating committee or by petition to provide at least one nominee for each open position. If there are nominations from the floor and they result in more nominees than open positions, the chair will close nominations, and appoint election tellers. The election tellers distribute the ballots, collect the ballots and tally the votes, and the chair announces the results. If there is only one nominee for each open office, the chair may take a voice vote or declare the election of each nominee by general consent or acclamation.
</P>
<HD2>Option A3—Election by Ballot Boxes or Voting Machine; Nominating Committee and Nomination by Petition
</HD2>
<P>Section 1. <I>Nomination procedures.</I> a. At least 120 days before each annual meeting, the chair will appoint a nominating committee of three or more members. The nominating committee will nominate at least one member for each vacancy, including any unexpired term vacancy, for which elections are being held, and determine that the members nominated are agreeable to the placing of their names in nomination and will accept office if elected. The nominating committee must widely publicize the call for nominations to all members by any medium and interview each member that meets any qualifications established by the nominating committee.
</P>
<P>b. At least 90 days before the annual meeting, the nominating committee files its nominations with the secretary of the credit union. At least 75 days before the annual meeting, the secretary notifies, in writing, all members eligible to vote that they may make nominations for vacancies by petition signed by 1% of the members with a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 500. The secretary may use electronic mail to notify members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically.
</P>
<P>c. The written notice must specify that the credit union will not conduct the election by ballot and there will be no nominations from the floor when the number of nominees equals the number of open positions.
</P>
<P>d. The notice will include, in a form approved by the board of directors, a brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each nominee submitted by the nominating committee. Each nominee by petition must submit a similar statement of qualifications and biographical data with the petition.
</P>
<P>e. The written notice must state the closing date for receiving nominations by petition. At least 40 days before the annual meeting, nominee(s) must file the nomination petition with the secretary of the credit union. To be effective, nominee(s) must include a signed certificate with the nomination petition stating that they are agreeable to nomination and will serve if elected to office.
</P>
<P>f. At least 35 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will post the nominations by petition along with those of the nominating committee in a conspicuous place in each credit union office and on the credit union's website (if the credit union maintains a website).
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election procedures.</I> The plurality of the vote determines all elections. The election is conducted by ballot boxes or voting machines, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The board of directors will appoint the election tellers;
</P>
<P>(b) At least 10 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will direct the preparation and placement of ballot boxes, printed ballots, or voting machines if there are sufficient nominations made by the nominating committee or by petition to provide more nominees than open positions. The secretary will place the boxes or voting machines in conspicuous locations as determined by the board of directors. The secretary will post the names of the candidates near the boxes or voting machines. The posting will include a brief statement of the candidates' qualifications and biographical data in a form approved by the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(c) The members have 24 hours to vote at conspicuous locations as the board determines. After 24 hours, election tellers will open the ballot boxes or voting machines, tally the vote, place the tally in the ballot boxes, and reseal the ballot boxes. The election tellers are responsible at all times for the ballot boxes or voting machines and the integrity of the vote. The election tellers will keep a record of all persons voting and must assure themselves that each person voting is entitled to vote; and
</P>
<P>(d) The election tellers will take the ballot boxes to the annual meeting and place them in conspicuous locations with the names of the candidates posted near them. At the annual meeting, the election tellers will distribute printed ballots to those in attendance who have not voted. Members will deposit their votes in the ballot boxes placed by the election tellers. After giving the members an opportunity to vote at the annual meeting, the chair will close balloting. The election tellers will open the ballot boxes, tally the vote, and add the vote to the previous count. The chair will then announce the result of the vote.
</P>
<HD2>Option A4—Election by Electronic Device (Including But Not Limited to Telephone and Electronic Mail) or Mail Ballot; Nominating Committee and Nominations by Petition
</HD2>
<P>Section 1. <I>Nomination procedures.</I> a. At least 120 days before each annual meeting, the chair will appoint a nominating committee of three or more members. The nominating committee will nominate at least one member for each vacancy, including any unexpired term vacancy, for which elections are being held, and determine that the members nominated are agreeable to the placing of their names in nomination and will accept office if elected. The nominating committee must widely publicize the call for nominations to all members by any medium and interview each member that meets any qualifications established by the nominating committee.
</P>
<P>b. At least 90 days before the annual meeting, the nominating committee files its nominations with the secretary of the credit union. At least 75 days before the annual meeting, the secretary notifies, in writing, all members eligible to vote that they may make nominations for vacancies by petition signed by 1% of the members with a minimum of 20 and a maximum of 500. The secretary may use electronic mail to notify members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically.
</P>
<P>c. The written notice must specify that the credit union will not conduct the election by ballot and there will be no nominations from the floor when the number of nominees equals the number of open positions.
</P>
<P>d. The notice will include, in a form approved by the board of directors, a brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each nominee submitted by the nominating committee. Each nominee by petition must submit a similar statement of qualifications and biographical data with the petition.
</P>
<P>e. The written notice must state the closing date for receiving nominations by petition. At least 40 days before the annual meeting, nominee(s) must file the nomination petition with the secretary of the credit union. To be effective, nominee(s) must include a signed certificate with the nomination petition stating that they are agreeable to nomination and will serve if elected to office.
</P>
<P>f. At least 35 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will post the nominations by petition along with those of the nominating committee in a conspicuous place in each credit union office and on the credit union's website (if the credit union maintains a website).
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election procedures.</I> The plurality of vote determines all elections. The election is conducted by electronic device or mail ballot, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) The board of directors will appoint the election tellers;
</P>
<P>(b) At least 30 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will ensure either a printed ballot or notice of ballot is mailed to all members eligible to vote if there are sufficient nominations made by the nominating committee or by petition to provide more nominees than open positions. The secretary may use electronic mail to provide the notice of ballot to members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically;
</P>
<P>(c) If the credit union conducts its elections electronically, the secretary will ensure the transmission of the following materials to each eligible voter using the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) One notice of balloting stating the names of the candidates for the board of directors and the candidates for other separately identified offices or committees. The notice must include a brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each candidate in a form approved by the board of directors. The secretary may use electronic mail to provide the notice of ballot to members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically.
</P>
<P>(2) One mail ballot that conforms to Section 2(d) of this article, as well as instructions for the electronic election procedure, including how to access and use the system and the timeframe for voting. The instructions will state that members without the requisite electronic device necessary to vote on the system may vote by submitting the enclosed mail ballot and specify the date the mail ballot must be received by the credit union. For members who have opted to receive notices or statements electronically, the mail ballot is not required and the secretary may use electronic mail to provide the instructions for the electronic election procedure.
</P>
<P>(3) The election tellers verify, or cause to be verified, the name of the voter and their credit union account number as registered in the electronic balloting system. The election tellers will test the integrity of the balloting system at regular intervals during the election period.
</P>
<P>(4) Election tellers must receive ballots no later than midnight, 5 calendar days before the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(5) Election tellers will tally the vote and the chair will make the result of the vote public at the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(6) If the electronic balloting system malfunctions, the board of directors may, in its discretion, hold the election by mail ballot only. The mail ballots must conform to Section 2(d) of this article and the secretary must mail them once more to all eligible members 30 days before the annual meeting. The board may make reasonable adjustments to the voting time frames above, or postpone the annual meeting when necessary, to complete the elections before the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) If the credit union conducts its election by mail ballot, the secretary will ensure the mailing of the following materials to each member using the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) One ballot, clearly identified as the ballot, with the names of the candidates for the board of directors and the candidates for other separately identified offices or committees printed in random order. A brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each candidate, in a form approved by the board of directors, will accompany the ballot;
</P>
<P>(2) One ballot envelope, with instructions to place the completed ballot placed in the envelope and seal the envelope;
</P>
<P>(3) One identification form the member completes that includes their name, address, signature and credit union account number;
</P>
<P>(4) One mailing envelope that instructs the member to insert the sealed ballot envelope and the identification form. The mailing envelope must have prepaid postage and be preaddressed for return to the election tellers;
</P>
<P>(5) When properly designed with features that preserve the secrecy of the ballot, the ballot, identification form, and prepaid postage and preaddressed return envelope may be combined;
</P>
<P>(6) The election tellers will verify, or cause to be verified, the name and credit union account number of the voter as appearing on the identification form. The tellers will retain the verified identification form and the sealed ballot envelope until the vote count is completed. In the event of a questionable or challenged identification form, the tellers must retain the identification form and sealed ballot envelope together until the verification or challenge is resolved;
</P>
<P>(7) Election tellers must receive ballots mailed to them no later than midnight 5 days before the date of the annual meeting;
</P>
<P>(8) The election tellers will tally the vote. They will verify the result at the annual meeting and the chair will make the result of the vote public at the annual meeting.
</P>
<HD2>All Options Continue Here
</HD2>
<P>Section 3. <I>Order of nominations.</I> Nominations may be in the following order:
</P>
<P>(a) Nominations for directors.
</P>
<P>(b) Nominations for credit committee members, if applicable. Elections may be by separate ballots following the same order as the above nominations or, if preferred, may be by one ballot for all offices.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Proxy and agent voting.</I> Members cannot vote by proxy. A member other than a natural person may vote through an agent designated in writing for the purpose.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>One vote per member.</I> Irrespective of the number of shares, no member has more than one vote.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Submission of information regarding credit union officials to NCUA.</I> The secretary must forward the names and business addresses of board members, board officers, executive committee, credit committee members, if applicable, and supervisory committee members to the Administration in accordance with the Act and regulations in the manner as required by the Administration.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Minimum age requirement.</I> Members must be at least ________ years of age by the date of the meeting (or for appointed offices, the date of appointment) in order to vote at meetings of the members, hold elective or appointive office, sign nominating petitions, or sign petitions requesting special meetings.
</P>
<P>The credit union may select the following option:
</P>
<P>Section 7. Members must be at least ________years of age by the date of the meeting in order to vote at meetings of the members, sign nominating petitions, or sign petitions requesting special meetings. Members must be at least ________ years of age to hold elective or appointive office.
</P>
<P><I>The Credit Union's board should adopt a resolution inserting an age no greater than 18, or the age of majority under the state law applicable to the credit union, in the blank space for voting, or not greater than 21 for holding elective or appointive office.</I>
</P>
<P><I>The Credit Union may select the absentee ballot provision in conjunction with the selected voting procedure. The board may do this by printing the credit union's bylaws with this provision or by retaining this copy and checking the box.</I>
</P>
<FP>____ Section 8. <I>Absentee ballots.</I> The board of directors may authorize the use of absentee ballots in conjunction with the other procedures authorized in this article, subject to the following conditions:
</FP>
<P>(a) The board of directors will appoint the election tellers;
</P>
<P>(b) If there are sufficient nominations made by the nominating committee or by petition to provide more than one nominee for each open position, at least 30 days before the annual meeting, the secretary will ensure a printed ballot is mailed to all members of the credit union who are eligible to vote and who have submitted a written or electronic request for an absentee ballot;
</P>
<P>(c) The secretary will ensure the following materials are mailed to each eligible voter who submitted a written or electronic request for an absentee ballot:
</P>
<P>(1) One ballot, clearly identified as the ballot, with the names of the candidates for the board of directors and the candidates for other separately identified offices or committees printed in random order. A brief statement of qualifications and biographical data for each candidate, in a form approved by the board of directors, will accompany the ballot;
</P>
<P>(2) One ballot envelope clearly marked with instructions to place the completed ballot placed in the envelope and seal the envelope;
</P>
<P>(3) One identification form the member completes that includes their name, address, signature and credit union account number;
</P>
<P>(4) One mailing envelope that instructs the member to insert the sealed ballot envelope and the identification form. The mailing envelope must have prepaid postage and be preaddressed for return to the election tellers;
</P>
<P>(5) When properly designed with features that preserve the secrecy of the ballot, the ballot, identification form, and prepaid postage and preaddressed return envelope may be combined;
</P>
<P>(d) The election tellers will verify, or cause to be verified, the name and credit union account number of the voter as appearing on the identification form. The tellers will retain the verified identification and the sealed ballot envelope until the vote count is completed. In the event of a questionable or challenged identification form, the tellers must retain the identification form and the sealed ballot envelope together until the verification or challenge is resolved. If more than one voting procedure is used, the tellers must verify that no eligible voter voted more than one time;
</P>
<P>(e) Election tellers must receive ballots mailed to them no later than midnight 5 days before the date of the annual meeting;
</P>
<P>(f) Members or authorized personnel will deposit absentee ballots in the ballot boxes taken to the annual meeting or included in a precount in accordance with procedures specified in Article V, Section 2; and
</P>
<P>(g) If a member has chosen to receive statements and notices electronically, the credit union may provide notices required in this section by email and provide instructions for voting by electronic means instead of mail ballots.
</P>
<HD1>Article VI. Board of Directors
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Number of members.</I> The board consists of ________ directors, all of whom must be members. By resolution, the board may change the number of directors to an odd number not fewer than 5 or more than 15. The board may not reduce the number of directors unless there is a corresponding vacancy as a result of a death, resignation, expiration of a term of office, or other action provided by these bylaws. The board must file a copy of the resolution covering any increase or decrease in the number of directors with the official copy of the bylaws.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Composition of board and committees.</I>
</P>
<FP>____ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) director(s) may be a paid employee of the credit union. The board may appoint a management official who ________ (may or may not) be a member of the board and one or more assistant management officials who________ (may or may not) be a member of the board. If the board permits the management official or assistant management official(s) to serve on the board, he or she may not serve as the chair.
</FP>
<FP>____ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) immediate family members, or those persons living in the same household, of a director may be a paid employee of the credit union.
</FP>
<P>The total number of directors serving who fall into the categories below must not constitute a majority of the board:
</P>
<P>• Management official plus assistant management official(s) plus other employees;
</P>
<P>• Immediate family members or persons in the same household as the management official, assistant management official(s), and other employees; or
</P>
<P>• Management official plus assistant management official(s) plus other employees, plus immediate family members or persons in the same household as management officials, assistant management officials, and other employees.
</P>
<FP>____ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) committee member(s) may be a paid employee of the credit union. ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) immediate family members, or those persons living in the same household, of a committee member(s) may be a paid employee of the credit union.
</FP>
<P>The board may also choose the option below:
</P>
<FP>____ No director or committee member, who is not then a paid employee of the credit union, may become a paid employee of this credit union for a minimum of ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) years from the date the official terminates his or her position as a director or committee member.
</FP>
<P>You can also add “unless the employee position to be filled exists as a result of a death or disability” after committee member.
</P>
<P>For this section, you can correct the syntax by omitting the plural(s) if applicable.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Terms of office.</I> Terms for directors are for periods of 2 or 3 years as decided by the board. All terms must be for the same number of years and until the election and qualification of successors. Terms are set and staggered at the first meeting, or when the number of directors changes, so that approximately an equal number of terms expire at each annual meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Vacancies.</I> The directors, by majority vote, will fill any vacancy on the board, credit committee, if applicable, or supervisory committee as soon as possible. If all director positions become vacant at once, the supervisory committee immediately becomes the temporary board of directors and must follow the procedures in Article IX, Section 3. Directors and credit committee members appointed to fill a vacancy hold office only until the next annual meeting. The FCU's members then vote to select a candidate to fill the remainder of the original director's unexpired term. Members of the supervisory committee appointed to fill a vacancy on the supervisory committee hold office through the remainder of the unexpired term.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Regular and special meetings.</I> The board must hold a regular meeting each month at the time and place fixed by resolution. The board must conduct one regular meeting each calendar year in person. If a quorum of the board is present at the in-person meeting, the remaining board members may participate by audio or video teleconference. The board may conduct the other regular meetings by audio or video teleconference. The chair, or in the chair's absence the ranking vice chair, may call a special meeting of the board at any time and must do so upon written request of a majority of the directors. The chair, or in the chair's absence the ranking vice chair, will fix the time and place of special meetings unless the board directs otherwise. The board will give notice of all meetings in the manner set by resolution. The board may conduct special meetings by audio or video teleconference. The board may take action and vote on resolutions without a meeting. The board must first obtain unanimous consent for the action in writing or by electronically recorded means.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Board responsibilities.</I> The board has the general direction and control of the affairs of this credit union. The board is responsible for performing all the duties customarily done by boards of directors. This includes but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(a) Directing the affairs of the credit union in accordance with the Act, these bylaws, the rules and regulations and sound business practices.
</P>
<P>(b) Establishing programs to achieve the purposes of this credit union as stated in Article I, Section 2, of these bylaws.
</P>
<P>(c) Establishing lending policies, a loan collection program, and authorizing the charge-off of uncollectible loans.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing policies to address training for directors and volunteer officials in areas such as ethics and fiduciary responsibility, regulatory compliance, and accounting.
</P>
<P>(e) Ensuring that staff and volunteers who handle the receipt, payment or custody of money or other property of this credit union; or property in its custody as collateral or otherwise, are properly bonded in accordance with the Act and regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) Performing additional acts and exercising additional powers as required or authorized by applicable law and regulation.
</P>
<P>If the credit union has an elected credit committee, you do not need to check a box. If the credit union has no credit committee check Option 1, and if it has an appointed credit committee check Option 2.
</P>
<FP>____ <I>Option 1. No Credit Committee.</I>
</FP>
<P>(g) Reviewing denied loan applications of members who file written requests for review.
</P>
<P>(h) Appointing one or more loan officers and delegating to those officers the power to approve or disapprove loans, lines of credit or advances from lines of credit.
</P>
<P>(i) In its discretion, appointing a loan review (the credit union may fill in another name if desired) committee to review loan denials and delegating to the committee the power to overturn denials of loan applications. The committee will function as a mid-level appeal committee for the board. The board must review all loans denied by the committee upon written request of the member.
</P>
<P><I>The credit union may select one of three options for the makeup and term of the committee. Enter the option selected</I> ________
</P>
<P>Option A. The committee must consist of three members with a term of office of____ (enter no more than 3) years. The committee may not have more than one loan officer.
</P>
<P>Option B. The committee must consist of three members and two alternates. The term of office of the committee members will be for ________ (enter no more than 3) years. The board may appoint any number of lending professionals within the organization to the committee, provided that no loan officer may review any loan that he or she denied. At least 3 members of the committee must review loan denials, none of whom have been a party to denying the loan.
</P>
<P>Option C. The board may, by resolution, change the number of committee members to an odd number no less than three and no more than seven. The board will determine the length of each committee member's term upon appointment and stagger terms as necessary to prevent a complete turnover of committee members. The board must file a copy of the resolution covering any increase or decrease in the number of committee members with the official copy of the bylaws of this credit union. The committee will act by majority vote of members present at a meeting. The committee may not have more than one loan officer.
</P>
<FP>____ <I>Option 2. Appointed Credit Committee.</I>
</FP>
<P>(g) Appointing an odd number of credit committee members as provided in Article VIII of these bylaws.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Quorum.</I> A majority of directors, including any vacant positions, constitutes a quorum for the transaction of business at any meeting. A majority of the directors holding office constitutes a quorum to fill any vacancies as stated in Section 4 of this article. Less than a quorum may adjourn from time to time until a quorum is in attendance.
</P>
<P>Section 8. <I>Attendance and removal.</I> a. If a director or a credit committee member, if applicable, fails to attend regular meetings of the board or credit committee, respectively, for 3 consecutive months, (choose one of the following) ________ or 4 meetings within a calendar year, or ________ 4 meetings within any 12 consecutive months or otherwise fails to perform any significant duties as a director or a credit committee member, the board may declare the office vacant and fill the vacancy as provided in the bylaws.
</P>
<P>b. The board may remove any board officer from office for failure to perform any significant duties as an officer. Prior to removal, the board must give the officer reasonable notice and an opportunity to respond to the issues.
</P>
<P>c. When any board officer, membership officer, executive committee member or investment committee member is absent, disqualified, or otherwise unable to perform the duties of the office, the board may by resolution designate another member of this credit union to fill the position temporarily. The board may also, by resolution, designate another member or members of this credit union to act on the credit committee when necessary in order to obtain a quorum.
</P>
<P>Section 9. <I>Suspension of supervisory committee members.</I> The board may suspend any member of the supervisory committee by a majority vote. In the event of a suspension, the board must hold a special meeting of the members at least 7 but no more than 14 days after any suspension. The members will decide whether to remove or to restore the suspended committee member of the supervisory committee.
</P>
<P>The credit union may add the optional Section 10 if desired.
</P>
<P>Section 10. <I>Director Emeritus.</I> The board of directors may appoint any former director who served on the board at least ________ (fill in the number) years as “Director Emeritus.” The board may substitute suitable volunteer service time for some of the board service time provided the candidate has served at least ________ (fill in the number) years on the board. The individuals appointed directors emeritus function as an advisory committee to the board of directors. Terms for directors emeritus are ________ (fill in the number) years. The board may increase or decrease the number of directors emeritus, or shorten or extend any director emeritus's term, by resolution. Unless separately elected or appointed, directors emeritus are not members of any other committee of the credit union. Directors emeritus are not a member or officer of the board of directors; they may not vote on any matter before the board or any other committee of the credit union; they may not receive any compensation from the credit union; and they are not required to attend any meetings or authorized to perform any duties other than providing advice to the credit union's board, staff and other committees as needed.
</P>
<HD1>Article VII. Board Officers, Management Officials and Executive Committee
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Board officers.</I> The board elects the following officers from their number: a chair, one or more vice chairs, a financial officer, and a secretary. The board determines the title and rank of each board officer and records them in the addendum to this article. The board may compensate one board officer, the ________, for services as they determine. If the board elects more than one vice chair, the board determines their rank as first vice chair, second vice chair, and so on. The same person may hold the offices of the financial officer and secretary. If the board permits a management official or assistant management official to serve on the board, he or she may not serve as the chair. Unless removed as provided in these bylaws, the board officers elected at the first meeting of the board hold office until the first meeting of the board following the first annual meeting of the members and until the election and qualification of their respective successors.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election and term of office.</I> The board must hold a meeting not later than 7 days after the annual meeting to elect officers. Board officers hold office for a 1-year term and until the election and qualification of their respective successors. Any person elected to fill a vacancy caused by the death, resignation, or removal of an officer is elected by the board to serve only for the unexpired term of that officer and until a successor is duly elected and qualified.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Duties of Chair.</I> The chair presides at all meetings of the members and at all meetings of the board, unless disqualified through suspension by the supervisory committee. The chair also performs other duties customarily assigned to the office of the chair or duties directed to perform by resolution of the board that are not inconsistent with the Act, regulations, and these bylaws.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Approval required.</I> The board must approve all individuals authorized to sign all notes, checks, drafts, and other orders for disbursement of credit union funds.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Vice chair.</I> The ranking vice chair has and may exercise all the powers, authority, and duties of the chair during the chair's absence or inability to act.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Duties of financial officer.</I> i. The financial officer manages this credit union under the control and direction of the board unless the board has appointed a management official to act as general manager. Subject to limitations, controls and delegations the board may impose, the financial officer will:
</P>
<P>(a) Have charge over all funds, securities, valuable papers and other assets of this credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide and maintain full and complete records of all the assets and liabilities of this credit union in accordance with prescribed law, regulation, and Administration guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 20 days after the close of each month, prepare and submit to the board a financial statement showing the condition of this credit union as of the end of the month, including a summary of delinquent loans; and post a copy of the statement in a conspicuous place in the office of the credit union where it will remain until replaced by the next month's financial statement.
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure that financial and other reports the Administration may require are prepared and sent.
</P>
<P>(e) Within standards and limitations set by the board, employ sufficient staff to run the credit union, and have the power to remove these employees.
</P>
<P>(f) Perform other duties customarily assigned to the office of the financial officer or duties assigned by board resolution that are not inconsistent with the Act, regulations, and these bylaws.
</P>
<P>ii. The board may employ one or more assistant financial officers, none of whom may also hold office as chair or vice chair. The board may authorize them, under the direction of the financial officer, to perform any of the duties falling to the financial officer, including the signing of checks. When designated by the board, any assistant financial officer may also act as financial officer during the financial officer's temporary absence or temporary inability to act.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Duties of management official and assistant management official.</I> The board may appoint a management official who is under the direction and control of the board or of the financial officer as determined by the board. The board may assign any or all of the responsibilities of the financial officer described in Section 6 of this article. The board will determine the title and rank of each management official and record them in the addendum to this article. The board may employ one or more assistant management officials. The board may authorize assistant management officials under the direction of the management official, to perform any of the duties falling to the management official, including the signing of checks. When designated by the board, any assistant management official may also act as management official during the management official's temporary absence or temporary inability to act.
</P>
<P>Section 8. <I>Board powers regarding employees.</I> The board employs, fixes the compensation, and prescribes the duties of employees as necessary, and has the power to remove employees, unless it has delegated these powers to the financial officer or management official. Management does not have the power or duty to employ, prescribe the duties of, or remove necessary clerical and auditing assistance employed or used by the supervisory committee or remove any loan officer appointed by the credit committee.
</P>
<P>The credit union may select one of the following options and add it to the end of Section 8.
</P>
<P>No director or committee member, who is not then a paid employee of the credit union, may become a paid employee of this credit union for a minimum of ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) years from the date the official terminates his or her position as a director or committee member.
</P>
<P>No director, committee member, immediate family member of a director or committee member, or person in the same household as a director or committee member, who is not then a paid employee of this credit union, may become a paid employee of the credit union for a minimum of ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) years from the date the official terminates his or her position as a director or committee member.
</P>
<P>No director, committee member, immediate family member of a director or committee member, or person in the same household as a director or committee member, who is not then a paid employee of the credit union, may become a paid employee of this credit union for a minimum of ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) years from the date the official terminates his or her position as a director or committee member, unless the employee position to be filled exists as a result of a death or disability.
</P>
<P>No official, who is not already a paid employee of this credit union, may become a paid employee of this credit union for a minimum of ________ (Fill in the number, which may be zero) years from the date the official terminates his or her position as a director or committee member, unless the employee position to be filled exists as a result of death or disability. The term “official” in this bylaw means a person who is a member of the board of directors, supervisory committee, or other volunteer committee established by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 9. <I>Duties of secretary.</I> The secretary prepares and maintains full and correct records of all meetings of the members and of the board. The secretary will prepare a record of each respective meeting within 7 days after its completion. The secretary must promptly inform the Administration in writing of any change in the address of the office of this credit union or the location of its principal records. The secretary provides the proper notice of all meetings of the members in the manner prescribed in these bylaws. The secretary also performs other duties as directed by resolution of the board that are not inconsistent with the Act, regulation, and these bylaws. The board may employ one or more assistant secretaries, none of whom may also hold office as chair, vice chair, or financial officer, and may authorize them under direction of the secretary to perform any of the duties assigned to the secretary.
</P>
<P>Section 10. <I>Executive committee.</I> As authorized by the Act, the board may appoint an executive committee of not fewer than three directors to serve at its pleasure, to act for it with respect to the board's specifically delegated functions. When making delegations to the executive committee, the board must be specific with regard to the committee's authority and limitations related to the particular delegation. The board may also authorize any of the following to act upon membership applications under conditions the board and these bylaws may prescribe: an executive committee; a membership officer(s) appointed by the board from the membership, other than a board member paid as an officer; the financial officer; any assistant to the paid officer of the board or to the financial officer; or any loan officer. The board may not compensate the executive committee member or membership officer as such.
</P>
<P>Section 11. <I>Investment committee.</I> The board may appoint an investment committee composed of not less than two, to serve at its pleasure to have charge of making investments under rules and procedures established by the board. The board may not compensate any member of the investment committee as such.
</P>
<P>Addendum: The board must list the positions of the board officers and management officials of this credit union. They are as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Position
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit union title
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Officer or official name
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Board Chair.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Vice Chair.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Treasurer.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Secretary.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Management Official.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other 1.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other 2.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other 3.
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other 4.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Select Option 1 if the credit union has a credit committee and Option 2 if it does not have a credit committee.
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII. Option 1 Credit Committee
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Credit committee members.</I> The credit committee consists of ________ members. All the members of the credit committee must be members of this credit union. The board determines the number of members on the credit committee, which must be an odd number and may not be fewer than 3 and no more than 7. The board may not reduce the number of members unless there is a corresponding vacancy as a result of a death, resignation, expiration of a term of office, or other action provided by these bylaws. The board must file a copy of the resolution covering any increase or decrease in the number of committee members with the official copy of the bylaws of this credit union.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Terms of office.</I> Regular terms of office for elected credit committee members are for periods of either 2 or 3 years as the board determines. All regular terms are for the same number of years and until the election and qualification of successors. The board will fix the regular terms at the beginning or upon any increase or decrease in the number of committee members so that approximately an equal number of regular terms expire at each annual meeting. The board determines the periods for the regular terms of office for appointed credit committee members and records these periods in the board's minutes.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Officers of credit committee.</I> The credit committee chooses from their number a chair and a secretary. The secretary of the committee prepares and maintains full and correct records of all actions taken by it. They must prepare those records within 3 days after the action. The same person may hold the offices of the chair and secretary.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Credit committee powers.</I> The credit committee may, by majority vote of its members, appoint one or more loan officers to serve at its pleasure. The committee may delegate to them the power to approve loan applications, share withdrawals, releases and substitutions of security, within limits specified by the committee and within limits of applicable law and regulations. The committee may not appoint more than one of its members as a loan officer. Each loan officer must furnish to the committee a record of each approved or not approved transaction within 7 days of the date of the filing of the application or request. This record becomes a part of the committee's records. The committee must act on all applications or requests not approved by a loan officer. No individual may disburse funds of this credit union for any application or share withdrawal that the individual has approved as a loan officer.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Credit committee meetings.</I> The credit committee must hold at least one meeting a month and as frequently as required to complete the business of this credit union. The committee will give notice of meetings to its members in the manner it prescribes by resolution.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Credit committee duties.</I> For each loan, the credit committee or loan officer must review the character and financial condition of the applicant and their surety, if any. The credit committee or loan officer will ascertain the applicant's ability to fully and promptly repay the loan. The credit union may use an automated loan processing system to conduct this review, subject to the conditions set forth in Section 7, below. Where appropriate, the credit committee or loan officers should provide, or refer applicants to, financial counseling assistance.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Unapproved loans prohibited.</I> The credit committee must approve all loans. If the credit union uses an automated lending system, the credit committee must review all loan applications the system has denied and review at least a sample of approved loans to screen for fraud and ensure the automated system is functioning within the lending policies the board has established.
</P>
<P>Section 8. <I>Lending procedures.</I> The credit committee, loan officer, or automated system determines the required security, if any, and the terms of repayment for each application. All lending decisions and loan terms must comply with applicable law and regulations, these bylaws, and board policy. The security furnished must be adequate in quality and character as well as consistent with sound lending practices. When the credit union does not have the funds available to make all the loans requested, the credit committee should give preference, in all cases, to the smaller applications if the need and credit factors are nearly equal.
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII. Option 2 Loan Officers (No Credit Committee)
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Records of loan officer; prohibition on loan officer disbursing funds.</I> Each loan officer must maintain a record of each approved or not approved transaction within 7 days of the filing of the application or request. This record then becomes a part of the records of the credit union. No individual may disburse funds of this credit union for any application or share withdrawal that the individual has approved as a loan officer.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Loan officer duties.</I> For each loan, the loan officer must review the character and financial condition of the applicant and their surety, if any. The loan officer will ascertain the applicant's ability to fully and promptly repay the loan. The credit union may use an automated loan processing system to conduct this review, subject to the conditions set forth in Section 3, below. Where appropriate, the loan officer should provide, or refer applicants to, financial counseling assistance.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Unapproved loans prohibited.</I> The loan officer must approve all loans. Loan terms and rates must comply with applicable law and regulations. If the credit union uses an automated lending system, the loan officer must review all loan applications the system has denied, and review at least a sample of approved loans to screen for fraud and ensure the automated system is functioning within the lending policies the board has established.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Lending procedures.</I> The loan officer or automated lending system determine the required security, if any, and the terms of repayment for each application. All lending decisions and loan terms must comply with applicable law and regulation, these bylaws, and board policy. The security furnished must be adequate in quality and character as well as consistent with sound lending practices. When the credit union does not have the funds available to make all the loans requested, the loan officer should give preference, in all cases, to the smaller applications if the need and credit factors are nearly equal.
</P>
<HD1>Article IX. Supervisory Committee
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Appointment and membership.</I> The board appoints the supervisory committee from members of this credit union. One of the committee members may be a director other than the financial officer or the paid officer of the board. The board determines the number of members on the committee, which may not be fewer than 3 or more than 5. No member of the credit committee, if applicable, or employee of this credit union may be appointed to the committee. Terms of committee members are for periods of 1, 2, or 3 years as decided by the board.
</P>
<P>However, all terms are for the same number of years and until the appointment and qualification of successors. Terms are set and staggered at the beginning, or on the increase or decrease in the number of committee members so that approximately an equal number of terms expire at each annual meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Officers of supervisory committee.</I> The supervisory committee members choose from their number a chair and a secretary. The secretary prepares, maintains, and has custody of all records of the committee's actions. The same person may hold the offices of chair and secretary.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Duties of supervisory committee.</I>
</P>
<P>a. The supervisory committee makes, or arranges for, the audits, and prepares and submits the written reports required by the Act and regulations. The committee may employ and use the clerical and auditing assistance required to carry out its responsibilities. The committee may request the board to provide compensation for this assistance. It will prepare and forward to the Administration required reports.
</P>
<P>b. If all director positions become vacant at once, the supervisory committee immediately assumes the role of the board of directors. The supervisory committee acting as the board must generally call and hold a special meeting to elect a board. That board will serve until the next annual meeting. They must hold the special meeting at least 7 but no more than 14 days after all director positions became vacant. Nominations for the board at the special meeting are by petition or from the floor. However, the supervisory committee may forego the special meeting if the next annual meeting will occur within 45 days after all the director positions become vacant.
</P>
<P>c. The supervisory committee acting as the board may not act on policy matters. However, directors elected at a special meeting have the same powers as directors elected at the annual meeting.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Verification of accounts.</I> The supervisory committee will cause the verification of the accounts of members with the records of the financial officer from time to time and not less frequently than as required by the Act and regulations. The committee must maintain a record of this verification.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Powers of supervisory committee—removal of directors and credit committee members.</I> By unanimous vote, the supervisory committee may suspend any director, board officer, or member of the credit committee. In the event of a suspension, the supervisory committee must call a special meeting of the members to act on the suspension. They must hold the meeting at least 7 but no more than 14 days after the suspension. The chair of the committee acts as chair of the meeting unless the members select another person to act as chair.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Powers of supervisory committee—special meetings.</I> By majority vote, the supervisory committee may call a special meeting of the members to: consider any violation of the provisions of the Act, the regulations, the credit union's charter or bylaws; or to consider any practice of this credit union the committee deems to be unsafe or unauthorized.
</P>
<HD1>Article X. Organization Meeting
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Initial meeting.</I> When making an application for a federal credit union charter, the subscribers to the organization certificate must meet to elect a board of directors and a credit committee, if applicable. The Agency may revoke the charter for failure to start operations within 60 days after receipt of the approved organization certificate unless the Agency approves an extension of time.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Election of directors and credit committee.</I> The subscribers elect a chair and a secretary for the meeting. The subscribers then elect a board of directors and a credit committee, if applicable. The elected directors or committee members will hold office until the first annual meeting of the members and until the election of their respective successors. Every person elected under this section or appointed under Section 3 of this article, must become a member within 30 days if they are not already. If any person elected as a director or committee member or appointed as a supervisory committee member does not become a member within 30 days of election or appointment, the office will automatically become vacant and be filled by the board.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Election of board officers.</I> Promptly after the elections held under the provisions of Section 2 of this article, the board must meet to elect the board officers. The officers will hold office until the first meeting of the board of directors after the first annual meeting of the members and until the election of their respective successors. The board also appoints a supervisory committee at this meeting as provided in Article IX, Section 1, of these bylaws and a credit committee, if applicable. The appointed members hold office until the first regular meeting of the board after the first annual meeting of the members and until the appointment of their respective successors.
</P>
<P>After five years of operation, the credit union may select the following:
</P>
<P>Article X of the bylaws shall be amended to read as follows:
</P>
<FP>Reserved.
</FP>
<HD1>Article XI. Loans and Lines of Credit to Members
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Loan purposes.</I> The credit union may make loans to members for provident or productive purposes in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>The credit union may add business as one of its purposes by placing a comma after “provident” and inserting “business.”.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Delinquency.</I> Any member whose loan is delinquent may be required to pay a late charge as determined by the board of directors.
</P>
<HD1>Article XII. Dividends
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Power of board to declare dividends.</I> The board sets dividend periods and declares dividends as permitted by the Act and applicable law and regulation.
</P>
<HD1>Article XIII. Reserved


</HD1>
<HD1>Article XIV. Expulsion and Withdrawal
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Expulsion procedure.</I> A credit union may expel a member in one of three ways. The first way is through a special meeting. Under this option, a credit union must call a special meeting of the members, provide the member the opportunity to be heard, and obtain a two-thirds vote of the members present at the special meeting to expel a member. The second way to expel a member is under a nonparticipation policy given to each member that follows the requirements found in the Act. The third way to expel a member is by a two-thirds vote of a quorum of the directors of the credit union. A credit union can only expel a member for cause and through a vote of the directors of the credit union if it follows the policy for expulsion in section 2.
</P>
<P>Section 2. A credit union's directors may vote to expel a member for cause if the credit union has provided a written copy of this Article or the optional standard disclosure notice to each member of the credit union. The communication of the policy, along with all notices required under this section, must be legible, written in plain language, reasonably understandable by ordinary members, and may be provided electronically only in the case of members who have elected to receive electronic communications from the credit union.
</P>
<P>If a member will be subject to expulsion, the member shall be notified in writing in advance, along with the reason for such expulsion. The notice must include, at minimum, (i) relevant dates, (ii) sufficient detail for the member to understand the grounds for expulsion, (iii) the member's right to request a hearing, (iv) how to request a hearing, (v) the procedures related to the hearing, (vi) notification that, if a hearing is not requested, membership will terminate after 60 calendar days, and (vii) if applicable, a general statement on the effect of expulsion related to the member's accounts or loans at the credit union. The notice cannot include only conclusory statements regarding the reason for the member's expulsion. The notice must also tell the member that any complaints related to the member's potential expulsion should be submitted to NCUA's Consumer Assistance Center if the complaint cannot be resolved directly with the credit union. The FCU must maintain a copy of the provided notice for its records. The notice shall be provided in person, by mail to the member's address, or, if the member has elected to receive electronic communications from the credit union, may be provided electronically.
</P>
<P>A member shall have 60 calendar days from the date of receipt of a notification to request a hearing from the board of directors of the credit union. A member is not entitled to attend the hearing in person, but the member must be provided a meaningful opportunity to present the member's case orally to the FCU board through a videoconference hearing. The member may choose to provide a written submission to the Board instead of a hearing with oral statements. If a member cannot participate in a videoconference hearing, then the FCU may offer a telephonic hearing. If a member does not request a hearing or provide a written submission, the member shall be expelled after the end of the 60-day period after receipt of the notice. If a member requests a hearing, the board of directors must provide the member with a hearing. At the hearing, the board of directors may not raise any rationale for expulsion that is not explicitly included in the notice to the member.
</P>
<P>After the hearing, the board of directors of the credit union must hold a vote within 30 calendar days on expelling the member. If a member is expelled, either through the expiration of the 60-day period or a vote to expel the member after a hearing, written notice of the expulsion must be provided to the member in person, by mail to the member's address, or, if the member has elected to receive electronic communications from the credit union, may be provided electronically. The notice must provide information on the effect of the expulsion, including information related to account access and any deductions by the credit union related to amounts due. The notice must also tell the member that any complaints related to their expulsion should be submitted to NCUA's Consumer Assistance Center if the complaint cannot be resolved directly with the credit union. The notice must also state that the member has an opportunity to request reinstatement.
</P>
<P>A member expelled under this authority must be given an opportunity to request reinstatement of membership. The FCU may act on a reinstatement request through a majority vote of a quorum of the directors of the credit union, a majority vote of the members of the credit union present at a special meeting, or a majority vote of members at an annual meeting, provided the annual meeting occurs within 90 days of the member's reinstatement request. If the FCU holds a meeting of the members to vote on the reinstatement request, an in-person vote is not required. An FCU is only required to hold a board vote or special meeting in response to a member's first reinstatement request following expulsion.
</P>
<P>FCUs are required to maintain records related to any member expelled through a vote of the directors of the credit union for six years.
</P>
<P>Section 3. The term cause in this Article means (A) a substantial or repeated violation of the membership agreement of the credit union; (B) a substantial or repeated disruption, including dangerous or abusive behavior, to the operations of a credit union, as defined below; or (C) fraud, attempted fraud, or conviction of other illegal conduct in relation to the credit union, including the credit union's employees conducting business on behalf of the credit union.
</P>
<P>If the FCU is considering expulsion of a member due to repeated non-substantial violations of the membership agreement or repeated disruptions to the credit union's operations, the credit union must provide written notice to the member at least once prior to the notice of expulsion, and the violation or conduct must be repeated within two years after having been notified of the violation. The written notice must state the specific nature of the violation or conduct and that if the violation or conduct occurs again, the member may be expelled from the credit union.
</P>
<P>Dangerous or abusive behavior includes the following: (1) violence, intimidation, physical threats, harassment, or physical or verbal abuse of officials or employees of the credit union, members, or agents of the credit union. This only includes (a) actions while on credit union premises or otherwise related to credit union activities, and through use of telephone, mail, email, or other electronic method; (b) behavior that causes or threatens damage to credit union property; or (c) unauthorized use or access of credit union property. Expressions of frustration with the credit union or its employees through elevated volume and tone; expressions of intent to seek lawful recourse, regardless of perceived merit; or repeated interactions with credit union employees are insufficient to constitute dangerous or abusive behavior. Additionally, members cannot be expelled due to or in retaliation for their complaints to the NCUA or any other regulatory agency or law enforcement, and members who are employees or former employees of the FCU cannot be expelled for any protected whistleblower activities.
</P>
<P>Section 4. Expulsion or withdrawal does not relieve a member of any liability to the credit union. The credit union will pay all of the member's shares upon the member's expulsion or withdrawal less any amounts due to the credit union.
</P>
<P>Section 5. An expulsion of a member pursuant to section 2 shall be done individually, on a case-by-case basis, and neither the NCUA Board nor any credit union may expel a class of members.






</P>
<HD1>Article XV. Minors
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Minors permitted to own shares.</I> The credit union may issue shares in the name of a minor. State law governs the rights of minors to transact business with this credit union.
</P>
<HD1>Article XVI. General
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Compliance with law and regulation.</I> The members, directors, officers, and employees of this credit union must exercise all power, authority, duties, and functions according to the provisions of these bylaws in strict conformity with the provisions of applicable law and regulations, and the credit union's charter and bylaws.
</P>
<P>Section 2. <I>Confidentiality.</I> The officers, directors, members of committees and employees of this credit union must keep all member transactions and all information respecting their personal affairs in confidence, unless otherwise directed by state or federal law.
</P>
<P>Section 3. <I>Removal of directors and committee members.</I> Notwithstanding any other provisions in these bylaws, any director or committee member of this credit union may be removed from office by the affirmative vote of a majority of the members present at a special meeting called for the purpose, but only after an opportunity has been given to be heard. If member votes at a special meeting result in the removal of all directors, the supervisory committee immediately becomes the temporary board of directors and must follow the procedures in Article IX, Section 3.
</P>
<P>Section 4. <I>Conflicts of interest prohibited.</I> No director, committee member, officer, agent, or employee of this credit union may participate in any manner, directly or indirectly, in the consideration or determination of any question affecting his or her pecuniary or personal interest or the pecuniary interest of any corporation, partnership, or association (other than this credit union) in which he or she is directly or indirectly interested.
</P>
<P>If the board receives a matter affecting any director's interest, the director must withdraw from the consideration or determination of that matter. If the remaining qualified directors present at the meeting plus the disqualified director or directors constitute a quorum, the remaining qualified directors, by majority vote, may exercise with respect to this matter all the powers of the board. In the event of the disqualification of any member of the credit committee, if applicable, or the supervisory committee, that committee member must withdraw from the deliberation or determination.
</P>
<P>Section 5. <I>Records.</I> The board must preserve copies of the organization certificate of this credit union, its bylaws, any amendments to the bylaws, and any special authorizations by the Administration. The board must attach copies of the organization certificate and field of membership amendments as an appendix to these bylaws. The board must record all returns of nominations, elections, and proceedings of all regular and special meetings of the members and directors in the minutes of this credit union. The respective chair or presiding officer and the person serving as secretary of the meeting must sign all minutes of the meetings of the members, the board, and the committees. All copies and records maintained under this section may be stored physically or electronically provided that the information is readily accessible to the directors, committee members of this credit union, members, and the Administration. Moreover, signatures may be provided electronically where permissible under federal or state law.
</P>
<P>Section 6. <I>Availability of credit union records.</I> All books of account and other records of this credit union must be available upon request at all times to the directors, committee members of this credit union, and members provided they have a proper purpose for obtaining the records. If this credit union maintains a website currently or in the future, the board must post the bylaws of this credit union on the website. The board must also make the charter and bylaws of this credit union available for inspection by any member, upon request. If the member requests a copy of the charter or bylaws, the board will provide a copy to the member. The board may provide this copy to the member in physical or electronic copy. If the member requests a physical copy, the board may charge a reasonable fee for the physical copy.
</P>
<P>Section 7. <I>Member contact information.</I> Members must keep the credit union informed of their current mailing address or, if the member has elected to receive electronic communications, their current email address.
</P>
<P>Section 8. <I>Indemnification.</I> (a) Subject to the limitations in § 701.33(c)(5) through (c)(7) of the regulations, the credit union may elect to indemnify to the extent authorized by (check one).
</P>
<P>[ ] Law of the State of ________:
</P>
<P>[ ] Model Business Corporation Act:
</P>
<P>The following individuals from any liability asserted against them and expenses reasonably incurred by them in connection with judicial or administrative proceedings to which they are or may become parties by reason of the performance of their official duties (check as appropriate).
</P>
<P>[ ] Current officials.
</P>
<P>[ ] Former officials.
</P>
<P>[ ] Current employees.
</P>
<P>[ ] Former employees.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union may purchase and maintain insurance on behalf of the individuals indicated in paragraph (a) of this section against any liability asserted against them and expenses reasonably incurred by them in their official capacities and arising out of the performance of their official duties to the extent such insurance is permitted by the applicable State law or the Model Business Corporation Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The term “official” in this bylaw means a person who is a member of the board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, other volunteer committee (including elected or appointed loan officers or membership officers), established by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>Section 9. <I>Pronouns, Singular and Plural.</I> Unless the context requires otherwise, words denoting the singular may be construed as denoting the plural, words of the plural may be construed as denoting the singular, and words of one gender may be construed as denoting such other gender as is appropriate.
</P>
<HD1>Article XVII. Amendments of Bylaws and Charter
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>Amendment procedures.</I> The board may adopt amendments of these bylaws by an affirmative two-thirds vote of the directors. Written NCUA approval is required for the amendment of the bylaws to become effective. After adopting amendments, the credit union will update the bylaws posted on its website (if such credit union maintains a website) and ensure that members seeking to inspect the bylaws receive the most current version of the bylaws. To adopt amendments to the credit union's charter, board members must vote at a duly held meeting after receiving prior written notice of the meeting and a copy of the proposed amendment or amendments with the notice. Written NCUA approval is required for the amendment to the charter to become effective.
</P>
<HD1>Article XVIII. Definitions
</HD1>
<P>Section 1. <I>General definitions.</I> When used in these bylaws the terms:
</P>
<P>“Act” means the Federal Credit Union Act, as amended.
</P>
<P>“Administration” means the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>“Agency” means the Regional Director, the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision, or the Director of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion.
</P>
<P>“Applicable law and regulations” means the Federal Credit Union Act and rules and regulations issued thereunder or other applicable federal and state statutes and rules and regulations issued thereunder as the context indicates.
</P>
<P>“Board” means board of directors of the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>“Board officers” means:
</P>
<P>1. “Chair” means Presiding Board officer, President of the Board, Presiding Board Officer, or Chairperson.
</P>
<P>2. “Vice Chair” means Vice President.
</P>
<P>3. “Financial Officer” means Treasurer.
</P>
<P>4. “Secretary” means Recording Officer.
</P>
<P>5. “Management Official” means General Manager, Manager, President, or Chief Executive Officer.
</P>
<P>“Charter” means the approved organization certificate and field of membership issued by the National Credit Union Administration or one of its predecessors. It is the document that authorizes a group to operate as a credit union, defines the fundamental limits of its operating authority, and includes the persons the credit union is permitted to accept for membership.
</P>
<P>“Field of membership” means the persons (including organizations and other legal entities) a credit union is permitted to accept for membership.
</P>
<P>“Immediate family member” means spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, grandchild, stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P>“Loans” means any type of loan product the credit union offers. This includes, but is not limited to, consumer loans, lines of credit, credit cards, member business loans, commercial loans, and real estate loans.
</P>
<P>“Management” means the Board, Financial Officer, and Management Official.
</P>
<P>“Member” means a person must:
</P>
<P>1. Be eligible for membership under Section 5 of the charter;
</P>
<P>2. Sign membership forms as approved by the credit union board;
</P>
<P>3. Subscribe to at least one share (par value) of stock;
</P>
<P>4. Pay the initial installment;
</P>
<P>5. Pay an entrance fee, if required; and
</P>
<P>6. Be eligible to vote upon reaching the minimum age the credit union establishes for voting and participation in the affairs of the credit union.
</P>
<P>“Membership Officer” means a majority of the board of directors, a majority of the members of a duly authorized executive committee, or an individual(s) appointed by the board of directors to serve as such.
</P>
<P>“NCUA Board” means the Board of the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>“Person in the same household” means an individual living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P>“Regulation” or “regulations” means rules and regulations issued by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>“Share” or “shares” means all classes of shares and share certificates that may be held in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<HD3>Official NCUA Commentary—Federal Credit Union Bylaws




</HD3>
<HD1>Article II. Qualifications for Membership
</HD1>
<P>i. <I>Entrance fee:</I> FCUs may not vary the entrance fee among different classes of members (such as students, minors, or non-natural persons) because the Act requires a uniform fee. FCUs may, however, eliminate the entrance fee for all applicants.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Membership application procedures:</I> Under section 113 of the Act,
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> the board acts upon applications for membership. However, the board can appoint membership officers from among the members of the credit union. Such membership officers cannot be a paid officer of the board, the financial board officer, any assistant to the paid officer of the board or to the financial officer, or any loan officer. As described under section 2 of this Article, an applicant becomes a member upon approval by a membership officer and payment of at least one share (or installment) and uniform entrance fee, if applicable.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> See 12 U.S.C. 1761b.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) <I>Violent, belligerent, disruptive, or abusive members:</I> Many credit unions have confronted the issue of handling a violent, belligerent, disruptive, or abusive individual. Doing so is not a simple matter insofar as it requires the credit union to balance the need to preserve the safety of individual staff, other members, and the integrity of the workplace, on one hand, with the rights of the affected member on the other. In accordance with the Act and applicable legal interpretations, there is a reasonably wide range within which FCUs may fashion a policy that addresses these interrelated responsibilities.
</P>
<P>Thus, an individual who has become violent, belligerent, disruptive, or abusive may be prohibited from entering the premises or making telephone contact with the credit union, and the individual may be severely restricted in terms of eligibility for products or services. So long as the individual is not barred from exercising the right to vote at annual meetings and is allowed to maintain a regular share account, the FCU may fashion and implement a policy that is reasonably designed to preserve the safety of its employees and the integrity of the workplace. The policy need not be identical nor applied uniformly in all cases; there is room for flexibility and a customized approach to fit the circumstances. In fact, the NCUA anticipates that in some circumstances, such as violence or a credible threat of violence against another member or credit union staff in the FCU or its surrounding property, an FCU may take immediate action to restrict most, if not all, services to the member. This may occur along a parallel track as the credit union begins the process of expelling the member under Article XIV. In other situations, such as a member who frequently writes checks with insufficient funds, the FCU may attempt to resolve the matter with the member before limiting check writing services. Once a limitation of services policy is adopted or revised, members must receive notice. The FCU should disclose the policy to new members when they join and notify existing members of the policy at least 30 calendar days before it becomes effective. The credit union's board has the option to adopt the amendment addressing members in good standing.




</P>
<HD1>Article III. Shares of Members
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Installments:</I> FCUs may insert zero for the number of installments. The Act allows membership upon the payment of the initial installment of a membership share, but the NCUA no longer views this provision as requiring FCUs to offer the option of paying for the membership share in installments.
</P>
<P><I>ii. Par value:</I> FCUs may establish differing par values for different classes of members or types of accounts (such as students, minors, or non-natural persons), provided this action does not violate any federal, state or local antidiscrimination laws. For example, an FCU may want to establish a higher par value for recent credit union members, without requiring long-time members to bring their accounts up to the new par value. A differing par value may also be permissible for different types of accounts, such as requiring a higher par value for a member with only a share draft account. If a credit union adopts differing par values, all of the possible par values must be stated in section 1. The FCU Bylaws include several options for differing par values. The credit union may select one or more of these or establish its own.
</P>
<P><I>iii. Regular share account:</I> To establish membership, the member must subscribe to one par value of share. The share does not have to be in a regular share account. The bylaws include two options. One option requires the member to have a regular share account to open membership, and one option allows them to use any other account. The board may select which option to use. If the board does not select an option, the member must have a regular share account to open an account. Please note, if the board selects an account other than the regular share, the requirements of Article III, section 3 still apply. The member must maintain one share to remain a member.
</P>
<P><I>iv. Reduction in share balance below par value:</I> When a member's account balance falls below the par value, section 3 of this article requires FCUs to allow members a minimum time period to restore their account balance to the par value before membership is terminated. FCUs may not delete this requirement or delete references to this requirement in Article II, section 3. If the share balance falls below the par value and does not increase the balance within the time set by the board, membership is terminated.
</P>
<P><I>v. Trusts:</I> Trusts and shares issued in trust can be a complicated subject. For purposes of the FCU Bylaws, perhaps the main issue is the distinction between revocable and irrevocable trusts. In the case of a revocable trust, the individual who establishes the trust is essentially still in control of the funds during his lifetime. Thus, the account owner can change the designated beneficiary at any time, and he or she can determine whether the identified beneficiary actually receives any money simply by deciding to withdraw the funds before his or her own death. Accordingly, the requirement in the case of revocable trust accounts is simply that the owner of the funds be a member of the FCU. Furthermore, provided the owner of the funds is within the field of membership and eligible for membership, he or she may use the vehicle of the payable-on-death or revocable trust account itself as the method of becoming a member. There is no requirement that the account holder first establish a regular share account to become a member. In accordance with legal opinions issued by the NCUA's Office of General Counsel, an individual may fulfill the requirement of becoming a member by subscribing to the equivalent of the par value of one share, which can be done through the opening of any type of account the credit union offers.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> <I>See</I> OGC Op. No. 92-0522 (June 15, 1992).</P></FTNT>
<P>There is no requirement that the beneficiaries be members, since they may never actually come to own the funds or have a right to them. Furthermore, in the case of a revocable trust, since it is essentially indistinguishable from the member, there is no need for the trust to have a separate account number assigned or for it to be viewed as a legal entity separate from the member who set it up.
</P>
<P>In the case of an irrevocable trust, the requirements are somewhat different. Membership requirements here may be met though either the settlor, who is the original owner of the funds, or the beneficiary, who obtains an equitable, beneficial interest in the funds once the trust is established. So long as one or the other is eligible for membership, the credit union may accept the account. Furthermore, as with revocable trusts, the membership obligation can be met through the opening of the trust account itself; it is not required that the beneficiary or the settlor have previously established a separate, regular share account. Most irrevocable trusts have a trustee who has administrative responsibility for the account, and so the credit union will typically deal with the trustee for purposes such as sending monthly statements and year-end tax reporting. However, the trustee need not actually be a member of the credit union, and the credit union need not necessarily view the trust account as a separate legal entity, with its own separate tax ID number. Instead, it need only verify and confirm the eligibility of either the settlor or the beneficiary (or all of the settlors or all of the beneficiaries in the case of multiple settlors or beneficiaries) to join the credit union.
</P>
<P>A trust itself, either revocable or irrevocable, may be a member of the credit union in its own right if all parties to the trust, including all settlors, beneficiaries and trustees, are within the field of membership.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> If all parties to the trust are within a credit union's field of membership, the trust will qualify as “an organization of such persons,” which is a standard clause in FCU fields of membership.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> OGC Op. No. 99-1110 (Feb. 25, 2000).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Article IV. Meetings of Members
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Annual and special meetings:</I> FCUs are encouraged to provide a live webcast of annual and special meetings for interested members, and/or post a video of the annual meeting on the FCU's website. The NCUA Board encourages this policy for FCUs that currently have a website.
</P>
<HD1>Article V. Elections
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Eligibility requirements:</I> The Act and the FCU Bylaws contain the only eligibility requirements for membership on an FCU's board of directors, which are as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) The individual must be a member of the FCU before distribution of ballots;
</P>
<P>(b) The individual cannot have been convicted of a crime covered under section 205(d) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1785(d)) unless the NCUA Board has waived the prohibition for the conviction; and
</P>
<P>(c) The individual meets the minimum age requirement established under Article V, § 7 of the FCU Bylaws.
</P>
<P>Anyone meeting the three eligibility requirements may run for a seat on the board of directors if properly nominated. It is the nominating committee's duty to ascertain that all nominated candidates, including those nominated by petition, meet the eligibility requirements.
</P>
<P><I>ii. Nomination criteria for nominating committee:</I> The Act and the FCU Bylaws do not prohibit a board of directors from establishing reasonable criteria, in addition to the eligibility requirements, for a nominating committee to follow in making its nominations, such as financial experience, years of membership, or conflict of interest provisions. The board's nomination criteria, however, applies only to individuals nominated by the nominating committee; they cannot be imposed on individuals who meet the eligibility requirements and are properly nominated from the floor or by petition.
</P>
<P><I>iii. Candidates' names on ballots:</I> When producing an election ballot, the FCU's secretary may order the names of the candidates on the ballot using any method for selection provided it is random and used consistently from year to year so as to avoid manipulation or favoritism.
</P>
<P><I>iv. Secret ballots:</I> An FCU must establish an election process that assures members their votes remain confidential and secret from all interested parties. If the election process does not separate the member's identity from the ballot, FCUs should use a third-party teller that has sole control over completed ballots. If the ballots are designed so that members' identities remain secret and are not disclosed on the ballot, FCUs may use election tellers from the FCU. In any case, FCU employees, officials, and members must not have access to ballots identifying members or to information that links members' votes to their identities.
</P>
<P><I>v. Plurality voting:</I> At least one nominee must be nominated for each vacant seat. When there are more nominees than seats open for election, the nominees who receive the greatest number of votes are elected to the vacant seats.
</P>
<P><I>vi. Minimum age requirement:</I> The age the board selects may not be greater than eighteen or the age of majority under the state law applicable to the credit union, whichever is lower.
</P>
<P><I>vii. Electronic voting:</I> Some members lack digital access or wish to have a choice to vote non-electronically. The FCU Bylaws protect members who cannot or choose not to vote electronically. For those members who vote electronically, credit unions have the flexibility to use as many forms of electronic voting (phone, internet, etc.) as they wish.
</P>
<P><I>viii. Voting methods:</I> Options A1, A2 and A3 provide for in-person voting at the annual meeting, or, for Option A3, by voting machine. Option A4 provides for remote voting by electronic device or mail ballot. The NCUA has approved several bylaw amendments for FCUs that combine in-person and remote options for member voting. The NCUA encourages FCUs using one of the first three options to consider whether they can also incorporate mail ballots or electronic voting. Likewise, the NCUA encourages FCUs using Option A4 to consider whether they can also provide a means to vote for members who come to the annual meeting but have not voted in the election, such as a paper ballot.
</P>
<P><I>ix. Uncontested elections:</I> Options A2, A3 and A4 provide for election by acclamation or consensus when the number of nominees for board positions equals the number of positions to be filled. These options do not permit nominations from the floor at the meeting, so a petition is the only way for members to nominate a candidate not on the nominating committee's slate. Accordingly, section (1)(c) in each of these options requires the notice to members to include the fact that there are no nominations from the floor at the meeting, as well as a notice that the credit union will not conduct a vote by ballot if the number of nominees equals the number of positions to be filled. The FCU Bylaws do not require a particular procedure for uncontested elections.
</P>
<P>The contents of the notice to members required in section (1)(c) does not alter the basic election procedures the credit union has selected. Should the number of the nominating committee nominees fall below the number of positions to be filled after the member notice is sent, this section does not permit nominations from the floor. Only option A1 permits nominations from the floor.
</P>
<P><I>x. Nomination procedures:</I> Under all options under this Article, the nominating committee must widely publicize the call for nominations to all members by any medium. This requirement can be satisfied by publicizing the information to a large audience, whether by newsletter, email, or any other satisfactory medium that reaches as many members as possible. The NCUA emphasizes that member participation is important during an election, and FCUs must make sure that members are aware of the nomination process.
</P>
<HD1>Article VI. Board of Directors
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Vacancies:</I> In accordance with the Act, when a vacancy on the board of directors occurs between annual elections, the remaining directors are to appoint a replacement. This replacement will serve as a director until the next annual meeting. The vacancy is then to be filled at the next annual meeting through the normal membership voting process, with the newly elected director serving out the remainder of the original term.
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> The number of director positions may be changed to any odd number between 5 and 15, inclusive, but a position may not be eliminated if it is currently an occupied position. As the bylaw itself specifies, no reduction in the number of director positions may be made unless there is a corresponding vacancy, caused by death, resignation, expiration of term or other action permissible under the FCU Bylaws. In other words, the FCU may not arbitrarily propose to reduce the number of director positions and terminate one or more incumbent directors.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1761(a).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>ii. Director emeritus:</I> As a matter of board policy, the board may establish the position of director emeritus for former directors who faithfully fulfilled their responsibilities as members of the board for at least a specified minimum number of years. The board may determine that director emeritus status confers authority to attend board meetings and to participate in discussions and other board events; however, directors emeritus may not vote on any matter before the board or exercise any official duties of a director. The position is essentially an honorary title designed to recognize and reward the good service of those designated and to retain some of their institutional knowledge for the benefit of the board and the FCU. The decision to establish a director emeritus position, as well as the selection of individuals to become directors emeritus, is solely within the discretion of the board. The board may establish a director emeritus position by adopting either the optional bylaw amendment or a board policy.
</P>
<P>To assist them in providing advice, Directors emeriti have access to confidential information, including but not limited to the credit union's examination reports and CAMEL ratings, to the same extent as members of the board. Directors emeriti are also subject to the same confidentiality and conflict of interest standards applicable to directors.
</P>
<P><I>iii. Associate directors:</I> The board may also establish the position of associate director through board policy. This position is designed to provide qualified individuals with an opportunity to gain exposure to board meetings and discussions but without formal director responsibility or the right to vote. It may be thought of as an apprenticeship position in which the incumbent receives training and knowledge about the business of the board, with the expectation that the experience will prepare him or her for an eventual election to a director position. As with the director emeritus position, the decision to establish an associate director position, as well as the selection of individuals to become associate directors, is solely within the discretion of the board.
</P>
<P>To assist their learning process, the board may determine to permit associate directors to have access to confidential information, including but not limited to the credit union's examination reports and CAMEL ratings, to the same extent as members of the board. Associate directors are also subject to the same confidentiality and conflict of interest standards applicable to directors.
</P>
<P><I>iv. Composition of the board:</I> The NCUA Board encourages the composition of the board of directors to reflect the field of membership of the FCU.
</P>
<P><I>v. Notice to members of change in size of board:</I> The NCUA encourages FCUs changing the size of their boards to post a notice of the change on the FCU's website (if the FCU maintains a website). An FCU is not required to establish and maintain a website solely for this purpose, however. An FCU that does not maintain a website can post such a notice in a conspicuous place in the office of the FCU, such as at the teller window or on the front door of the FCU.
</P>
<HD1>Article VII. Board Officers, Management Officials and Executive Committee
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Board officers:</I> As specified in this bylaw, members of the board are elected by the credit union membership to the board itself. Once on the board, the directors themselves vote to select individuals from among their number to serve as officers of the board (chair, one or more vice chairs, secretary and financial officer). One board officer may be compensated as such for services he or she performs in that capacity. The offices of financial officer and secretary may be held by the same person.
</P>
<P>Members of the board must hold the vote for the specified officer positions at the first board meeting following the annual meeting of the members. This board meeting should be held not later than seven days after the annual meeting. The Act requires the credit union to file a record of the names and addresses of the executive offices, members of the supervisory committee, credit committee, and loan officers with the Administration within ten days after election or appointment.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> The NCUA's regulations also require federally insured credit unions to file NCUA Form 4501 or its equivalent within 10 days after an election or appointment of senior management or volunteer officials.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1761(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> 12 CFR 741.6.</P></FTNT>
<P>Officers hold their respective officer positions for a term of one year, until the first board meeting that follows the next annual meeting of the members. At that board meeting, officer positions are again filled. Each board officer holds his or her position until the election and qualification of his or her successor. Thus, a board officer who is re-elected to the position he or she is currently holding serves for another year. Where another director is chosen to fill the position, he or she takes office effective as of the date of the election, assuming he or she is qualified—meaning simply that he or she was properly elected by the membership to the board in the first place and is in good standing as a director.
</P>
<P>As specified in this bylaw, the board chair presides at all board meetings. In the absence of the chair or his or her inability to act, the vice chair presides at the meeting. In the absence or inability to act of both the chair and the vice chair, those directors who are present may select from among their number an individual director to act as temporary chair for that particular meeting. Actions taken by the board under the direction of the temporary chair have the same validity and effect as if taken under the direction of the chair or the vice chair, provided a quorum of the board, including the temporary chair, is present. If the board secretary is absent for any reason from a meeting, the chair (or acting chair) must select another director to fulfill the secretary's function at the meeting.
</P>
<P><I>ii. Committee Membership:</I> The NCUA encourages FCUs to publicize the names of the members of each FCU committee to FCU members. FCUs could provide this information either on the FCU's public website or to the portion of the website only accessible to members after logging in. The NCUA encourages this policy for FCUs that have a website. An FCU is not required to establish and maintain a website solely for this purpose, however. Providing a short description of the committee's duties also assists members in better understanding the leadership structure of the FCU.
</P>
<HD1>Article VIII. Credit Committee or Loan Officers
</HD1>
<P>Many FCUs now use automated systems for accepting loan applications, loan underwriting, and loan processing, as permitted by several of the NCUA Office of General Counsel's legal opinions. The bylaws reflect that FCUs may use automated lending systems, as long as the credit committee or a loan officer: (1) reviews the loans the automated system granted for fraud and other purposes; and (2) reviews loans the automated system denied.
</P>
<HD1>Article IX. Supervisory Committee
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Nominations:</I> The Act requires that the FCU's board appoint the members of the Supervisory Committee. It is permissible for the board to seek nominations from members before making Supervisory Committee appointments.


</P>
<HD1>Article XIV. Expulsion and Withdrawal
</HD1>
<P>As noted in the commentary to Article II, there is a wide range of measures available to the credit union in responding to abusive or unreasonably disruptive members. A credit union can limit services under Article II for a member not in good standing. A credit union may also expel the member for cause after a two-thirds vote of the credit union's directors.
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> Dangerous and abusive behavior is considered any violent, belligerent, unreasonably disruptive, or abusive behavior. Examples of dangerous and abusive conduct include, but are not limited to, a member threatening physical harm to employees, a member repeatedly and unwelcomely giving gifts to or asking tellers on dates, a member repeatedly using racial or sexist language towards employees, and a member threatening to follow a loan officer home for denying a loan.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> See 12 U.S.C. 1764.</P></FTNT>
<P>A credit union must provide notice of the expulsion to the member. The notice must include the reason for the expulsion, and if a hearing was conducted or written testimony provided, the credit union should provide a response to the member's statements. The notice must be specific and not just include conclusory statements regarding the reason for the member's expulsion. For example, a general statement that the member's behavior has been deemed abusive and the member is being subject to expulsion procedures would be insufficient as an explanation. A credit union is prohibited from expelling a class of members under this provision. That would include a board acting to remove all delinquent members or class of delinquent members.
</P>
<P>If a special meeting of the members is called to expel the member, only in-person voting is permitted in conjunction with the special meeting, so that the affected member has an opportunity to present the member's case and respond to the credit union's concerns. However, an in-person meeting is not required if a member is expelled by a two-thirds vote of the board of directors. In addition, FCUs should consider the commentary under Article XVI about members using accounts for unlawful purposes.
</P>
<HD2>Optional Standard Disclosure of Expulsion Policy
</HD2>
<P>We may terminate your membership in [name of FCU] in one of three ways. The first way is through a special meeting. Under this option, we may call a special meeting of the members, provide you an opportunity to be heard, and obtain a two-thirds vote of the members present at the special meeting in favor of your expulsion. The second way to terminate your membership is under a nonparticipation policy given to each member that follows certain requirements. The third way to terminate your membership is by a two-thirds vote of a quorum of the directors of the credit union for cause.
</P>
<P>Cause is defined as follows: (A) a substantial or repeated violation of [name of membership agreement] with [us]; (B) a substantial or repeated disruption, including dangerous or abusive behavior, to the credit union's operations; or (C) fraud, attempted fraud, or a conviction of other illegal conduct that a member has been convicted of in relation to [us], including in connection with our employees conducting business on behalf of us.
</P>
<P>Before the board votes on an expulsion, [we] must provide written notice to your mail address (or email, if applicable) on record or personally provide the written notice. [We] must provide the specific reasons for the expulsion and allow you an opportunity to rebut those reasons through a hearing if you choose. It is your responsibility to keep your contact information with [us] up to date, and to open and read notices from [us]. Unless [we] determine to allow otherwise, there is no right to an in-person hearing with the board. If you fail to request a hearing within 60 calendar days of receipt of the notice, you will be expelled. You may submit any complaints about your pending expulsion or expulsion to NCUA's Consumer Assistance Center if the complaint cannot be resolved with the credit union.
</P>
<P>[We] will confirm any expulsion with a letter with information on the effect of the expulsion and how you can request reinstatement. Expulsion or withdrawal from membership does not relieve a member of liability to the credit union, and we may demand immediate repayment of the money you owe to us after expulsion, subject to any applicable contract terms and conditions.
</P>
<P>For additional information on expulsion and a copy of our expulsion policy, see [Article XIV of our Bylaws].






</P>
<HD1>Article XVI. General
</HD1>
<P><I>i. Special meeting requirements:</I> To remove a director under section 3 of this Article requires a majority vote of members present at a special meeting called for the purpose of voting on removal. The bylaw requires that the affected director have the “opportunity to be heard.” NCUA interprets this provision as requiring the vote to occur at an in-person meeting rather than by mail ballot. At an in-person meeting, the director subject to the removal vote can make his or her case before the members. The director removal provisions derive from provisions of the Act, as follows:
</P>
<P>• The bylaws govern the conduct of special meetings; 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1760.</P></FTNT>
<P>• Members must have the opportunity to vote, at a meeting, on the Supervisory Committee's suspension of a director; 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1761d.</P></FTNT>
<P>• FCU members may be expelled by vote of members present at a meeting called for that purpose.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1764(a).</P></FTNT>
<P><I>ii. Unlawful purposes:</I> FCUs expressed concerns that some members may be using their accounts for unlawful purposes. Section 1 of this Article specifies that the credit union, its powers and duties, and the functions of its members, officers and directors, are all strictly circumscribed by law and regulation. Insofar as this provision is included in the bylaws, an FCU need not adopt a specific policy or requirement that members conform their use of credit union products or services to lawful purposes. Furthermore, the existence of this bylaw provides ample support should an FCU determine to impose strict limits on products and services available to any individual who is found to be using the FCU in furtherance of unlawful purposes.
</P>
<P><I>iii. Posting of bylaws on website:</I> FCUs that maintain a website must post a copy of the FCU's bylaws on the website. After adopting amendments, FCUs must post an updated copy of the bylaws. An FCU is not required to establish and maintain a website solely for this purpose, however.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 53289, Oct. 4, 2019, as amended at 88 FR 48065, July 26, 2023; 89 FR 79393, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.2.0.11.29.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 701—Chartering and Field of Membership Manual 


</HEAD>
<HD1>Chapter 1 — Federal Credit Union Chartering
</HD1>
<HD1>I—Goals of NCUA Chartering Policy
</HD1>
<P>The National Credit Union Administration's (NCUA) chartering and field of membership policies are directed toward achieving the following goals:
</P>
<P>• To encourage the formation of credit unions;
</P>
<P>• To uphold the provisions of the Federal Credit Union Act; 
<SU>92</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>92</SU> 12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>• To promote thrift and credit extension;
</P>
<P>• To promote credit union safety and soundness; and
</P>
<P>• To make quality credit union service available to all eligible persons.
</P>
<P>NCUA may grant a charter to single occupational/associational groups, multiple groups, or communities if:
</P>
<P>• The occupational, associational, or multiple groups possess an appropriate common bond or the community represents a well-defined local community, neighborhood, or rural district;
</P>
<P>• The subscribers are of good character and are fit to represent the proposed credit union; and
</P>
<P>• The establishment of the credit union is economically advisable.
</P>
<P>Generally, these are the primary criteria that NCUA will consider. In unusual circumstances, however, NCUA may examine other factors, such as other federal law or public policy, in deciding if a charter should be approved.
</P>
<P>Unless otherwise noted, the policies outlined in this manual apply only to federal credit unions.
</P>
<HD1>II—Types of Charters
</HD1>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act recognizes three types of federal credit union charters— single common bond (occupational and associational), multiple common bond (more than one group each having a common bond of occupation or association), and community.
</P>
<P>The requirements that must be met to charter a federal credit union are described in Chapter 2. Special rules for credit unions serving low-income groups are described in Chapter 3.
</P>
<P>If a federal credit union charter is granted, Section 5 of the charter will describe the credit union's field of membership, which defines those persons and entities eligible for membership. Generally, federal credit unions are only able to grant loans and provide services to persons within the field of membership who have become members of the credit union.
</P>
<HD1>III—Subscribers
</HD1>
<P>Federal credit unions are generally organized by persons who volunteer their time and resources and are responsible for determining the interest, commitment, and economic advisability of forming a federal credit union. The organization of a successful federal credit union takes considerable planning and dedication.
</P>
<P>Persons interested in organizing a Federal credit union should contact one of the credit union trade associations or the NCUA Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion. Lists of NCUA offices and credit union trade associations are shown in the appendices. NCUA will provide information to groups interested in pursuing a federal charter and will assist them in contacting an organizer.
</P>
<P>While anyone may organize a credit union, a person with training and experience in chartering new federal credit unions is generally the most effective organizer. However, extensive involvement by the group desiring credit union service is essential.
</P>
<P>The functions of the organizer are to provide direction, guidance, and advice on the chartering process. The organizer also provides the group with information about a credit union's functions and purpose as well as technical assistance in preparing and submitting the charter application. Close communication and cooperation between the organizer and the proposed members are critical to the chartering process.
</P>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act requires that seven or more natural persons—the “subscribers”—present to NCUA for approval a sworn organization certificate stating at a minimum:
</P>
<P>• The name of the proposed federal credit union;
</P>
<P>• The location of the proposed federal credit union and the territory in which it will operate;
</P>
<P>• The names and addresses of the subscribers to the certificate and the number of shares subscribed by each;
</P>
<P>• The initial par value of the shares;
</P>
<P>• The detailed proposed field of membership; and
</P>
<P>• The fact that the certificate is made to enable such persons to avail themselves of the advantages of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>Willfully and knowingly making false statements on any of the required documentation filed in obtaining a federal credit union charter may be grounds for federal criminal prosecution under 18 U.S.C. 1001.
</P>
<HD1>IV—Economic Advisability
</HD1>
<HD2>IV.A—General
</HD2>
<P>Before chartering a federal credit union, NCUA must be satisfied that the institution will be viable and that it will provide needed services to its members. Economic advisability, which is a key factor in determining whether a potential charter will have a reasonable opportunity to succeed, is essential in order to qualify for a credit union charter.
</P>
<P>NCUA will conduct an independent on-site investigation of each charter application to ensure that the proposed credit union can be successful. In general, the success of any credit union depends on: (a) The character and fitness of management; (b) the depth of the members' support; and (c) present and projected market conditions.
</P>
<HD2>IV.B—Proposed Management's Character and Fitness
</HD2>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act requires NCUA to ensure that the subscribers are of good “general character and fitness.” Prospective officials and employees will be the subject of credit and background investigations. The investigation report must demonstrate each applicant's ability to effectively handle financial matters. Employees and officials should also be competent, experienced, honest and of good character. Factors that may lead to disapproval of a prospective official or employee include criminal convictions, indictments, and acts of fraud and dishonesty. Further, factors such as serious or unresolved past due credit obligations and bankruptcies disclosed during credit checks may disqualify an individual.
</P>
<P>NCUA also needs reasonable assurance that the management team will have the requisite skills—particularly in leadership and accounting—and the commitment to dedicate the time and effort needed to make the proposed federal credit union a success.
</P>
<P>Section 701.14 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations sets forth the procedures for NCUA approval of officials of newly chartered credit unions. If the application of a prospective official or employee to serve is not acceptable to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, the group can propose an alternate to act in that individual's place. If the charter applicant feels it is essential that the disqualified individual be retained, the individual may appeal the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director's decision to the NCUA Board. If an appeal is pursued, action on the application may be delayed. If the appeal is denied by the NCUA Board, an acceptable new applicant must be provided before the charter can be approved.
</P>
<HD2>IV.C—Member Support
</HD2>
<P>Economic advisability is a major factor in determining whether the credit union will be chartered. An important consideration is the degree of support from the field of membership. The charter applicant must be able to demonstrate that membership support is sufficient to ensure viability.
</P>
<P>NCUA has not set a minimum field of membership size for chartering a federal credit union. Consequently, groups of any size may apply for a credit union charter and be approved if they demonstrate economic advisability. However, it is important to note that often the size of the group is indicative of the potential for success. For that reason, a charter application with fewer than 3,000 primary potential members (<I>e.g.,</I> employees of a corporation or members of an association) may not be economically advisable. Therefore, a charter applicant with a proposed field of membership of fewer than 3,000 primary potential members may have to provide more support than an applicant with a larger field of membership. For example, a small occupational or associational group may be required to demonstrate a commitment for long-term support from the sponsor.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D—Present and Future Market Conditions—Business Plan
</HD2>
<P>The ability to provide effective service to members, to compete in the marketplace, and to adapt to changing market conditions are key to the survival of any enterprise. Before NCUA will charter a credit union, a business plan based on realistic and supportable projections and assumptions must be submitted.
</P>
<P>The business plan should contain, at a minimum, the following elements:
</P>
<P>• Mission statement;
</P>
<P>• Analysis of market conditions, including if applicable, geographic, demographic, employment, income, housing, and other economic data;
</P>
<P>• Evidence of member support;
</P>
<P>• Goals for shares, loans, and for number of members;
</P>
<P>• Financial services needed/desired;
</P>
<P>• Financial services to be provided to members of all segments within the field of membership;
</P>
<P>• How/when services are to be implemented;
</P>
<P>• Organizational/management plan addressing qualification and planned training of officials/employees;
</P>
<P>• Continuity plan for directors, committee members and management staff;
</P>
<P>• Operating facilities, to include office space/equipment and supplies, safeguarding of assets, insurance coverage, etc.;
</P>
<P>• Type of record-keeping and data processing system;
</P>
<P>• Detailed semiannual pro forma financial statements (balance sheet, income and expense projections) for 1st and 2nd year, including assumptions—<I>e.g.,</I> loan and dividend rates;
</P>
<P>• Plans for operating independently;
</P>
<P>• Written policies (shares, lending, investments, funds management, capital accumulation, dividends, collections, etc.);
</P>
<P>• Source of funds to pay expenses during initial months of operation, including any subsidies, assistance, etc., and terms or conditions of such resources; and
</P>
<P>• Evidence of sponsor commitment (or other source of support) if subsidies are critical to success of the federal credit union. Evidence may be in the form of letters, contracts, financial statements from the sponsor, and any other such document on which the proposed federal credit union can substantiate its projections.
</P>
<P>While the business plan may be prepared with outside assistance, the subscribers and proposed officials must understand and support the submitted business plan.
</P>
<HD1>V—Steps in Organizing a Federal Credit Union
</HD1>
<HD2>V.A—Getting Started
</HD2>
<P>Following the guidance contained throughout this policy, the organizers should submit wording for the proposed field of membership (the persons, organizations and other legal entities the credit union will serve) to NCUA early in the application process for written preliminary approval. The proposed field of membership must meet all common bond or community requirements.
</P>
<P>Once the field of membership has been given preliminary approval, the organizer should conduct an organizational meeting to elect seven to ten persons to serve as subscribers. The subscribers should locate willing individuals capable of serving on the board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, and as chief operating officer/manager of the proposed credit union.
</P>
<P>Subsequent organizational meetings may be held to discuss the progress of the charter investigation, to announce the proposed slate of officials, and to respond to any questions posed at these meetings.
</P>
<P>If NCUA approves the charter application, the subscribers, as their final duty, will elect the board of directors of the proposed federal credit union. The new board of directors will then appoint the supervisory committee.
</P>
<HD2>V. B—Charter Application Documentation
</HD2>
<HD3>V.B.1—General
</HD3>
<P>As discussed previously in this Chapter, the organizer of a federal credit union charter must, at a minimum, provide evidence that:
</P>
<P>• The group(s) possess an appropriate common bond or the geographical area to be served is a well-defined local community, neighborhood, or rural district;
</P>
<P>• The subscribers, prospective officials, and employees are of good character and fitness; and
</P>
<P>• The establishment of the credit union is economically advisable.
</P>
<P>As part of the application process, the organizer must submit the following forms, which are available in appendix 4 of this Manual:
</P>
<P>• Federal Credit Union Investigation Report, NCUA 4001;
</P>
<P>• Organization Certificate, NCUA 4008;
</P>
<P>• Report of Official and Agreement To Serve, NCUA 4012;
</P>
<P>• Application and Agreements for Insurance of Accounts, NCUA 9500; and
</P>
<P>• Certification of Resolutions, NCUA 9501.
</P>
<P>Each of these forms is described in more detail in the following sections.
</P>
<HD3>V.B.2—Federal Credit Union Investigation Report, NCUA 4001
</HD3>
<P>The application for a new federal credit union will be submitted on NCUA 4001. State-chartered credit unions applying for conversion to a federal charter will use NCUA 4000. (See Chapter 4 for a full discussion.) The organizer is required to certify the information and recommend approval or disapproval, based on the investigation of the request.
</P>
<HD3>V.B.3—Organization Certificate, NCUA 4008
</HD3>
<P>This document, which must be completed by the subscribers, includes the seven criteria established by the Federal Credit Union Act. NCUA staff assigned to the case will assist in the proper completion of this document.
</P>
<HD3>V.B.4—Report of Official and Agreement To Serve, NCUA 4012
</HD3>
<P>This form documents general background information of each official and employee of the proposed federal credit union. Each official and employee must complete and sign this form. The organizer must review each of the NCUA 4012s for elements that would prevent the prospective official or employee from serving. Further, such factors as serious, unresolved past due credit obligations and bankruptcies disclosed during credit checks may disqualify an individual.
</P>
<HD3>V.B.5—Application and Agreements for Insurance of Accounts, NCUA 9500
</HD3>
<P>This document contains the agreements with which federal credit unions must comply in order to obtain National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) coverage of member accounts. The document must be completed and signed by both the chief executive officer and chief financial officer. A federal credit union must qualify for federal share insurance.
</P>
<HD3>V.B.6—Certification of Resolutions, NCUA 9501
</HD3>
<P>This document certifies that the board of directors of the proposed federal credit union has resolved to apply for NCUSIF insurance of member accounts and has authorized the chief executive officer and recording officer to execute the Application and Agreements for Insurance of Accounts. Both the chief executive officer and recording officer of the proposed federal credit union must sign this form.
</P>
<HD1>VI—Name Selection
</HD1>
<P>It is the responsibility of the federal credit union organizers or officials of an existing credit union to ensure that the proposed federal credit union name or federal credit union name change does not constitute an infringement on the name of any corporation in its trade area. This responsibility also includes researching any service marks or trademarks used by any other corporation (including credit unions) in its trade area. NCUA will ensure, to the extent possible, that the credit union's name:
</P>
<P>• Is not already being officially used by another federal credit union;
</P>
<P>• Will not be confused with NCUA or another federal or state agency, or with another credit union; and
</P>
<P>• Does not include misleading or inappropriate language.
</P>
<P>The last three words in the name of every credit union chartered by NCUA must be “Federal Credit Union.”
</P>
<P>The word “community,” while not required, can only be included in the name of federal credit unions that have been granted a community charter.
</P>
<HD1>VII—NCUA Review
</HD1>
<HD2>VII.A—General
</HD2>
<P>Once NCUA receives a complete charter application package, an acknowledgment of receipt will be sent to the organizer. During the review process, a staff member will be assigned to perform an on-site contact with the proposed officials and others having an interest in the proposed federal credit union.
</P>
<P>NCUA staff will review the application package and verify its accuracy and reasonableness. A staff member will inquire into the financial management experience and the suitability and commitment of the proposed officials and employees, and will make an assessment of economic advisability. The staff member will also provide guidance to the subscribers in the proper completion of the Organization Certificate, NCUA 4008.
</P>
<P>Credit and background investigations may be conducted concurrently by NCUA with other work being performed by the organizer and subscribers to reduce the likelihood of delays in the chartering process.
</P>
<P>The staff member will analyze the prospective credit union's business plan for realistic projections, attainable goals, adequate service to all segments of the field of membership, sufficient start-up capital, and time commitment by the proposed officials and employees. Any concerns will be reviewed with the organizer and discussed with the prospective credit union's officials. Additional on-site contacts by NCUA staff may be necessary. The organizer and subscribers will be expected to take the steps necessary to resolve any issues or concerns. Such resolution efforts may delay processing the application.
</P>
<P>NCUA staff will then make a recommendation to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director regarding the charter application. The recommendation may include specific provisions to be included in a Letter of Understanding and Agreement. In most cases, NCUA will require the prospective officials to adhere to certain operational guidelines. Generally, the agreement is for a limited term of two to four years. A sample Letter of Understanding and Agreement is found in appendix 2.
</P>
<HD2>VII.B—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Approval
</HD2>
<P>Once approved, the board of directors of the newly formed federal credit union will receive a signed charter and standard bylaws from the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. Additionally, the officials will be advised of the name of the examiner assigned responsibility for supervising and examining the credit union.
</P>
<HD2>VII.C—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director disapproves any charter application, in whole or in part, the organizer will be informed in writing of the specific reasons for the disapproval. Where applicable, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will provide information concerning options or suggestions that the applicant could consider for gaining approval or otherwise acquiring credit union service. The letter of denial will include the procedures for appealing the decision.
</P>
<HD2>VII.D—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a charter application, in whole or in part, that decision may be appealed to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the prospective group may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial.
</P>
<HD2>VII.E—Commencement of Operations
</HD2>
<P>Assistance in commencing operations is generally available through the various credit union trade organizations listed in appendix 5.
</P>
<P>All new federal credit unions are also encouraged to establish a mentor relationship with a knowledgeable, experienced credit union individual or an existing, well-operated credit union. The mentor should provide guidance and assistance to the new credit union through attendance at meetings and general oversight. Upon request, NCUA will provide assistance in finding a qualified mentor.
</P>
<HD1>VIII—Future Supervision
</HD1>
<P>Each federal credit union will be examined regularly by NCUA to determine that it remains in compliance with applicable laws and regulations and to determine that it does not pose undue risk to the NCUSIF. The examiner will contact the credit union officials shortly after approval of the charter in order to arrange for the initial examination (usually within the first six months of operation).
</P>
<P>The examiner will be responsible for monitoring the progress of the credit union and providing the necessary advice and guidance to ensure it is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The examiner will also monitor compliance with the terms of any required Letter of Understanding and Agreement. Typically, the examiner will require the credit union to submit copies of monthly board minutes and financial statements.
</P>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act requires all newly chartered credit unions, up to two years after the charter anniversary date, to obtain NCUA approval prior to appointment of any new board member, credit or supervisory committee member, or senior executive officer. Section 701.14 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations sets forth the notice and application requirements. If NCUA issues a Notice of Disapproval, the newly chartered credit union is prohibited from making the change.
</P>
<P>NCUA may disapprove an individual serving as a director, committee member or senior executive officer if it finds that the competence, experience, character, or integrity of the individual indicates it would not be in the best interests of the members of the credit union or of the public to permit the individual to be employed by or associated with the credit union. If a Notice of Disapproval is issued, the credit union may appeal the decision to the NCUA Board.
</P>
<HD1>IX—Corporate Federal Credit Unions
</HD1>
<P>A corporate federal credit union is one that is operated primarily for the purpose of serving other credit unions. Corporate federal credit unions are not governed by this manual, but instead operate under and are administered by the NCUA Office of National Examinations and Supervision.
</P>
<HD1>X—Groups Seeking Credit Union Service
</HD1>
<P>NCUA will attempt to assist any group in chartering a credit union or joining an existing credit union. If the group is not eligible for federal credit union service, NCUA will refer the group to the appropriate state supervisory authority where different requirements may apply.
</P>
<HD1>XI—Field of Membership Designations
</HD1>
<P>NCUA will designate a credit union based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>Single Occupational: If a credit union serves a single occupational sponsor, such as ABC Corporation, it will be designated as an occupational credit union. A single occupational common bond credit union may also serve a trade, industry, or profession (TIP), such as all teachers.
</P>
<P>Single Associational: If a credit union serves a single associational sponsor, such as the Knights of Columbus, it will be designated as an associational credit union.
</P>
<P>Multiple Common Bond: If a credit union serves more than one group, each of which has a common bond of occupation and/or association, it will be designated as a multiple common bond credit union.
</P>
<P>Community: All community credit unions will be designated as such, followed by a description of their geographic boundaries, including but not limited to city or county boundaries, roadways, rivers, transportation lines.
</P>
<P>Credit unions desiring to confirm or submit an application to change their designations should contact the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion.
</P>
<HD1>XII—Foreign Branching
</HD1>
<P>A federal credit union is permitted to serve foreign nationals within its field of membership wherever such individuals reside if management has the ability and resources to serve them. Before a credit union opens a branch outside the United States, it must submit an application to do so and have prior written approval of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director. A federal credit union may establish a service facility on a United States military installation or United States embassy without prior NCUA approval.
</P>
<HD1>Chapter 2 — Field of Membership Requirements for Federal Credit Unions
</HD1>
<HD1>I—Introduction
</HD1>
<HD2>I.A.1—General
</HD2>
<P>As set forth in Chapter 1, the Federal Credit Union Act provides for three types of federal credit union charters—single common bond (occupational or associational), multiple common bond (multiple groups), and community. Section 109 (12 U.S.C. 1759) of the Federal Credit Union Act addresses the membership requirements for each type of charter.
</P>
<P>The field of membership, which is specified in Section 5 of the charter, defines those persons and entities eligible for membership. A single common bond federal credit union consists of one group having a common bond of occupation or association. A multiple common bond federal credit union consists of more than one group, each of which has a common bond of occupation or association. A community federal credit union consists of persons or organizations within a well-defined local community, neighborhood, or rural district.
</P>
<P>Once chartered, a federal credit union can amend its field of membership; however, the same common bond or community requirements for chartering the credit union must be satisfied. Since there are differences in the three types of charters, special rules apply to each, which are fully discussed in the following sections of this Chapter.
</P>
<HD2>I.A.2—Special Low-Income Rules
</HD2>
<P>Generally, federal credit unions can only grant loans and provide services to persons who have joined the credit union. The Federal Credit Union Act states that one of the purposes of federal credit unions is “to serve the productive and provident credit needs of individuals of modest means.” Although field of membership requirements are applicable, special rules set forth in Chapter 3 may apply to low-income designated credit unions and those credit unions assisting low-income groups or to a federal credit union that adds an underserved community to its field of membership.
</P>
<HD1>II—Occupational Common Bond
</HD1>
<HD2>II.A.1—General
</HD2>
<P>A single occupational common bond federal credit union may include in its field of membership all persons and entities who share that common bond. NCUA permits a person's membership eligibility in a single occupational common bond group to be established in five ways:
</P>
<P>• Employment (or a contractual relationship equivalent to employment) in a single corporation or other legal entity makes that person part of a single occupational common bond;
</P>
<P>• Employment in a corporation or other legal entity with a controlling ownership interest (which shall not be less than 10 percent) in or by another legal entity makes that person part of a single occupational common bond;
</P>
<P>• Employment in a corporation or other legal entity which is related to another legal entity (such as a company under contract and possessing a strong dependency relationship with another company) makes that person part of a single occupational common bond;
</P>
<P>• Employment or attendance at a school makes that person part of a single occupational common bond (see Chapter 2, Section III.A.1); or
</P>
<P>• Employment in the same Trade, Industry, or Profession (TIP) (see Chapter 2, Section II.A.2).
</P>
<P>A geographic limitation is not a requirement for a single occupational common bond. However, for purposes of describing the field of membership, the geographic areas being served may be included in the charter. For example:
</P>
<P>• Employees, officials, and persons who work regularly under contract in Miami, Florida for ABC Corporation and subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>• Employees of ABC Corporation who are paid from * * *;
</P>
<P>• Employees of ABC Corporation who are supervised from * * *;
</P>
<P>• Employees of ABC Corporation who are headquartered in * * *; and/or
</P>
<P>• Employees of ABC Corporation who work in the United States.
</P>
<P>The corporation or other legal entity (<I>i.e.,</I> the employer) may also be included in the common bond—<I>e.g.,</I> “ABC Corporation.” The corporation or legal entity will be defined in the last clause in Section 5 of the credit union's charter.
</P>
<P>A charter applicant must provide documentation to establish that the single occupational common bond requirement has been met.
</P>
<P>Some examples of valid single occupational common bonds are:
</P>
<P>• Employees of the Hunt Manufacturing Company who work in West Chester, Pennsylvania. (common bond—same employer with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees of the Buffalo Manufacturing Company who work in the United States. (common bond—same employer with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees, elected and appointed officials of municipal government in Parma, Ohio. (common bond—same employer with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees of Johnson Soap Company and its majority owned subsidiary, Johnson Toothpaste Company, who work in, are paid from, are supervised from, or are headquartered in Augusta and Portland, Maine. (common bond—parent and subsidiary company with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees of MMLLJS contractor who work regularly at the U.S. Naval Shipyard in Bremerton, Washington. (common bond—employees of contractors with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees, doctors, medical staff, technicians, medical and nursing students who work in or are paid from the Newport Beach Medical Center, Newport Beach, California. (single corporation with geographic definition);
</P>
<P>• Employees of JLS, Incorporated and MJM, Incorporated working for the LKM Joint Venture Company in Catalina Island, California. (common bond—same employer—ongoing dependent relationship);
</P>
<P>• Employees of and students attending Georgetown University. (common bond—same occupation);
</P>
<P>• Employees of all the schools supervised by the Timbrook Board of Education in Timbrook, Georgia. (common bond—same employer); or
</P>
<P>• All licensed nurses in Fairfax County, Virginia. (occupational common bond TIP).
</P>
<P>In contrast, some examples of insufficiently defined single occupational common bonds are:
</P>
<P>• Employees of manufacturing firms in Seattle, Washington. (no defined occupational sponsor; overly broad TIP);
</P>
<P>• Persons employed or working in Chicago, Illinois. (no occupational common bond).
</P>
<HD2>II.A.2—Trade, Industry, or Profession
</HD2>
<P>A common bond based on employment in a trade, industry, or profession can include employment at any number of corporations or other legal entities that—while not under common ownership—have a common bond by virtue of producing similar products, providing similar services, or participating in the same type of business.
</P>
<P>While proposed or existing single common bond credit unions have some latitude in defining a trade, industry, or profession occupational common bond, it cannot be defined so broadly as to include groups in fields which are not closely related. For example, the manufacturing industry, energy industry, communications industry, retail industry, or entertainment industry would not qualify as a TIP because each industry lacks the necessary commonality. However, textile workers, realtors, nurses, teachers, police officers, or U.S. military personnel are closely related and each would qualify as a TIP.
</P>
<P>The common bond relationship must be one that demonstrates a narrow commonality of interests within a specific trade, industry, or profession. If a credit union wants to serve a physician TIP, it can serve all physicians, but that does not mean it can also serve all clerical staff in the physicians' offices. However, if the TIP is based on the health care industry, then clerical staff would be able to be served by the credit union because they work in the same industry and have the same commonality of interests.
</P>
<P>If a credit union wants to include the airline services industry, it can serve airline and airport personnel but not passengers. Clients or customers of the TIP are not eligible for credit union membership (<I>e.g.,</I> patients in hospitals). Any company that is involved in more than one industry cannot be included in an industry TIP (<I>e.g.,</I> a company that makes tobacco products, food products, and electronics). However, employees of these companies may be eligible for membership in a variety of trade/profession occupational common bond TIPs.
</P>
<P>Although a TIP should be narrowly defined, and ordinarily would not include third-party vendors and other suppliers, it may include, on a case by case basis, employees of types of entities that have a “strong dependency relationship” and work directly with other types of entities within the industry. In this context, a “strong dependency relationship” between a TIP entity and its supplier/vendor must be demonstrated by their reliance on each other as measured by the presence of indicators of a likelihood that the absence of one would cause the other to suffer a material decline in either revenue, functionality or productivity.
</P>
<P>Under this definition, a firm whose employees are specially trained to protect nuclear facilities, and whose employees work primarily at such facilities, could be a part of a TIP based on the firm's participation in the nuclear energy industry.
</P>
<P>Other “strong relationship” indicators NCUA would consider include the regularity or frequency of work that employees of the entity perform at facilities directly related to the industry, or the degree to which employees must adjust their work practices to adapt to the needs of the industry. For example, a company's focus on producing specialized confectionary products for a hotel chain could add that company to a hospitality industry TIP. A credit union seeking to include a clause of this type in its TIP charter must provide a brief narrative identifying indicators that support the existence of a strong dependency relationship between the TIP entity and its individual supplier/vendors.
</P>
<P>Likewise, an FCU may serve employees of companies within the commercial airline industry that have a strong dependency relationship with airlines or airports, without the limitation that these employees work at an airport. However, these employees must work directly with the following: Air transportation of freight, air courier services; air passenger services; airport baggage handling; airport security; commercial airport janitorial services; maintenance, servicing, and repair services; and on board airline food services. The employees of those entities have a narrow commonality of interests, share the single occupational common bond, and can be included within the Air Transportation Industry field of membership.
</P>
<P>In general, except for credit unions serving a national field of membership or operating in multiple states, a geographic limitation is required for a TIP credit union. The geographic limitation will be part of the credit union's charter and generally correspond to its current or planned operational area. More than one federal credit union may serve the same trade, industry, or profession, even if both credit unions are in the same geographic location.
</P>
<P>This type of occupational common bond is only available to single common bond credit unions. A TIP cannot be added to a multiple common bond or community field of membership.
</P>
<P>To obtain a TIP designation, the proposed or existing credit union must submit a request to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. New charter applicants must follow the documentation requirements in Chapter 1. New charter applicants and existing credit unions must submit a business plan on how the credit union will serve the group with the request to serve the TIP. The business plan also must address how the credit union will verify the TIP. Examples of such verification include state licenses, professional licenses, organizational memberships, pay statements, union membership, or employer certification. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director must approve this type of field of membership before a credit union can serve a TIP. Credit unions converting to a TIP can retain members of record but cannot add new members from its previous group or groups, unless the group or groups are part of the TIP.
</P>
<P>Section II.B on Occupational Common Bond Amendments does not apply to a TIP common bond. Removing or changing a geographical limitation will be processed as a housekeeping amendment. If safety and soundness concerns are present, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require additional information before the request can be processed.
</P>
<P>Section II.H, on Other Persons Eligible for Credit Union Membership, applies to TIP based credit unions except for the corporate account provision which only applies to industry based TIPs. Credit unions with industry based TIPs may include corporations as members because they have the same commonality of interests as all employees in the industry. For example, an airline service TIP (industry) can serve an airline carrier (corporate account); however, a nurses TIP (profession) could not serve a hospital (corporate account) because not everyone working in the hospital shares the same profession.
</P>
<P>If a TIP designated credit union wishes to convert to a different TIP or employer-based occupational common bond, or different charter type, it only retains members of record after the conversion. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, for safety and soundness reasons, may approve a TIP designated credit union to convert to its original field of membership.
</P>
<HD1>II.B—Occupational Common Bond Amendments
</HD1>
<HD2>II.B.1—General
</HD2>
<P>Section 5 of every single occupational federal credit union's charter defines the field of membership the credit union can legally serve. Only those persons or legal entities specified in the field of membership can be served. There are a number of instances in which Section 5 must be amended by NCUA.
</P>
<P>First, a group sharing the credit union's common bond is added to the field of membership. This may occur through various ways including agreement between the group and the credit union directly, or through a merger, corporate acquisition, purchase and assumption (P&amp;A), or spin-off.
</P>
<P>Second, if the entire field of membership is acquired by another corporation, the credit union can serve the employees of the new corporation and any subsidiaries after receiving NCUA approval.
</P>
<P>Third, a federal credit union qualifies to change its common bond from:
</P>
<P>• A single occupational common bond to a single associational common bond;
</P>
<P>• A single occupational common bond to a community charter; or
</P>
<P>• A single occupational common bond to a multiple common bond.
</P>
<P>Fourth, a federal credit union removes a portion of the group from its field of membership through agreement with the group, a spin-off, or because a portion of the group is no longer in existence.
</P>
<P>An existing single occupational common bond federal credit union that submits a request to amend its charter must provide documentation to establish that the occupational common bond requirement has been met. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director must approve all amendments to an occupational common bond credit union's field of membership.
</P>
<HD2>II.B.2—Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>If the single common bond group that comprises a federal credit union's field of membership undergoes a substantial restructuring, the result is often that portions of the group are sold or spun off. This requires a change to the credit union's field of membership. NCUA will not permit a single common bond credit union to maintain in its field of membership a sold or spun-off group to which it has been providing service unless the group otherwise qualifies for membership in the credit union or the credit union converts to a multiple common bond credit union.
</P>
<P>If the group comprising the single common bond of the credit union merges with, or is acquired by, another group, the credit union can serve the new group resulting from the merger or acquisition after receiving a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<HD2>II.B.3—Economic Advisability
</HD2>
<P>Prior to granting a common bond expansion, NCUA will examine the amendment's likely effect on the credit union's operations and financial condition. In most cases, the information needed for analyzing the effect of adding a particular group will be available to NCUA through the examination and financial and statistical reports; however, in particular cases, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require additional information prior to making a decision.
</P>
<HD2>II.B.4—Documentation Requirements
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union requesting a common bond expansion must submit an Application for Field of Membership Amendment (NCUA 4015-EZ) to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. An authorized credit union representative must sign the request.
</P>
<HD1>II.C—NCUA's Procedures for Amending the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<HD2>II.C.1—General
</HD2>
<P>All requests for approval to amend a federal credit union's charter must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director.
</P>
<HD2>II.C.2—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>NCUA staff will review all amendment requests in order to ensure compliance with NCUA policy.
</P>
<P>Before acting on a proposed amendment, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require an on-site review. In addition, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may, after taking into account the significance of the proposed field of membership amendment, require the applicant to submit a business plan addressing specific issues.
</P>
<P>The financial and operational condition of the requesting credit union will be considered in every instance. NCUA will carefully consider the economic advisability of expanding the field of membership of a credit union with financial or operational problems.
</P>
<P>In most cases, field of membership amendments will only be approved for credit unions that are operating satisfactorily. Generally, if a federal credit union is having difficulty providing service to its current membership, or is experiencing financial or other operational problems, it may have more difficulty serving an expanded field of membership.
</P>
<P>Occasionally, however, an expanded field of membership may provide the basis for reversing current financial problems. In such cases, an amendment to expand the field of membership may be granted notwithstanding the credit union's financial or operational problems. The applicant credit union must clearly establish that the expanded field of membership is in the best interest of the members and will not increase the risk to the NCUSIF.
</P>
<HD2>II.C.3—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Approval
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director approves the requested amendment, the credit union will be issued an amendment to Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<HD2>II.C.4—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director disapproves any application, in whole or in part, to amend the field of membership under this chapter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• Options to consider, if appropriate, for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedure.
</P>
<HD2>II.C.5—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a field of membership expansion request, merger, or spin-off, that decision may be appealed to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial.
</P>
<HD1>II.D—Mergers, Purchase and Assumptions, and Spin-Offs
</HD1>
<P>In general, other than the addition of common bond groups, there are three additional ways a federal credit union with a single occupational common bond can expand its field of membership:
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a common bond or emergency merger;
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a common bond or emergency purchase and assumption (P&amp;A); or
</P>
<P>• By taking a portion of another credit union's field of membership through a common bond spin-off.
</P>
<HD2>II.D.1—Mergers
</HD2>
<P>Generally, the requirements applicable to field of membership expansions found in this chapter apply to mergers where the continuing credit union has a federal charter. That is, the two credit unions must share a common bond.
</P>
<P>Where the merging credit union is state-chartered, the common bond rules applicable to a federal credit union apply.
</P>
<P>Mergers must be approved by the NCUA regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union, and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<P>If a single occupational credit union wants to merge into a multiple common bond or community credit union, Section IV.D or Section V.D of this Chapter, respectively, should be reviewed.
</P>
<HD2>II.D.2—Emergency Mergers
</HD2>
<P>An emergency merger may be approved by NCUA without regard to common bond or other legal constraints. An emergency merger involves NCUA's direct intervention and approval. The credit union to be merged must either be insolvent or in danger of insolvency, as defined in the Glossary, and NCUA must determine that:
</P>
<P>• An emergency requiring expeditious action exists;
</P>
<P>• Other alternatives are not reasonably available; and
</P>
<P>• The public interest would best be served by approving the merger.
</P>
<P>If not corrected, conditions that could lead to insolvency include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>• Abandonment by management;
</P>
<P>• Loss of sponsor;
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent recordkeeping problems; or
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent operational concerns.
</P>
<P>In an emergency merger situation, NCUA will take an active role in finding a suitable merger partner (continuing credit union). NCUA is primarily concerned that the continuing credit union has the financial strength and management expertise to absorb the troubled credit union without adversely affecting its own financial condition and stability.
</P>
<P>As a stipulated condition to an emergency merger, the field of membership of the merging credit union may be transferred intact to the continuing federal credit union without regard to any common bond restrictions. Under this authority, therefore, a single occupational common bond federal credit union may take into its field of membership any dissimilar charter type.
</P>
<P>The common bond characteristic of the continuing credit union in an emergency merger does not change. That is, even though the merging credit union is a multiple common bond or community, the continuing credit union will remain a single common bond credit union. Similarly, if the merging credit union is also an unlike single common bond, the continuing credit union will remain a single common bond credit union. Future common bond expansions will be based on the continuing credit union's original single common bond.
</P>
<P>Emergency mergers involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA field regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>II.D.3—Purchase and Assumption (P&amp;A)
</HD2>
<P>Another alternative for acquiring the field of membership of a failing credit union is through a consolidation known as a P&amp;A. A P&amp;A has limited application because, in most cases, the failing credit union must be placed into involuntary liquidation. In the few instances where a P&amp;A may be appropriate, the assuming federal credit union, as with emergency mergers, may acquire the entire field of membership if the emergency merger criteria are satisfied. However, if the P&amp;A does not meet the emergency merger criteria, it must be processed under the common bond requirements.
</P>
<P>In a P&amp;A processed under the emergency criteria, specified loans, shares, and certain other designated assets and liabilities, without regard to common bond restrictions, may also be acquired without changing the character of the continuing federal credit union for purposes of future field of membership amendments.
</P>
<P>If the purchased and/or assumed credit union's field of membership does not share a common bond with the purchasing and/or assuming credit union, then the continuing credit union's original common bond will be controlling for future common bond expansions.
</P>
<P>P&amp;As involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the purchased and/or assumed credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>II.D.4—Spin-Offs
</HD2>
<P>A spin-off occurs when, by agreement of the parties, a portion of the field of membership, assets, liabilities, shares, and capital of a credit union are transferred to a new or existing credit union. A spin-off is unique in that usually one credit union has a field of membership expansion and the other loses a portion of its field of membership.
</P>
<P>All common bond requirements apply regardless of whether the spun-off group becomes a new credit union or goes to an existing federal charter.
</P>
<P>The request for approval of a spin-off must be supported with a plan that addresses, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>• Why the spin-off is being requested;
</P>
<P>• What part of the field of membership is to be spun off;
</P>
<P>• Whether the affected credit unions have a common bond (applies only to single occupational credit unions);
</P>
<P>• Which assets, liabilities, shares, and capital are to be transferred;
</P>
<P>• The financial impact the spin-off will have on the affected credit unions;
</P>
<P>• The ability of the acquiring credit union to effectively serve the new members;
</P>
<P>• The proposed spin-off date; and
</P>
<P>• Disclosure to the members of the requirements set forth above.
</P>
<P>The spin-off request must also include current financial statements from the affected credit unions and the proposed voting ballot.
</P>
<P>For federal credit unions spinning off a group, membership notice and voting requirements and procedures are the same as for mergers (see part 708 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations), except that only the members directly affected by the spin-off—those whose shares are to be transferred—are permitted to vote. Members whose shares are not being transferred will not be afforded the opportunity to vote. All members of the group to be spun off (whether they voted in favor, against, or not at all) will be transferred if the spin-off is approved by the voting membership. Voting requirements for federally insured state credit unions are governed by state law.
</P>
<P>Spin-offs involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by all regional directors and, if applicable, Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the credit unions are headquartered and the state regulators, as applicable. Spin-offs in the same region also require approval by the state regulator, as applicable. Spin-offs involving the creation of a new federally insured credit union require the approval of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion also provides advice regarding field of membership compatibility when appropriate.
</P>
<HD1>II.E—Overlaps
</HD1>
<HD2>II.E.1—General
</HD2>
<P>An overlap exists when a group of persons is eligible for membership in two or more credit unions. NCUA will permit single occupational federal credit unions to overlap any other charter without performing an overlap analysis.
</P>
<HD2>II.E.2—Organizational Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union's field of membership will always be governed by the common bond descriptions contained in Section 5 of its charter. Where a sponsor organization expands its operations internally, by acquisition or otherwise, the credit union may serve these new entrants to its field of membership if they are part of the common bond described in Section 5. NCUA will permit a complete overlap of the credit unions' fields of membership.
</P>
<P>If a sponsor organization sells off a group, new members can no longer be served unless they otherwise qualify for membership in the credit union or it converts to a multiple common bond charter.
</P>
<P>Credit unions must submit documentation explaining the restructuring and providing information regarding the new organizational structure.
</P>
<HD2>II.E.3—Exclusionary Clauses
</HD2>
<P>An exclusionary clause is a limitation precluding the credit union from serving the primary members of a portion of a group otherwise included in its field of membership. NCUA no longer grants exclusionary clauses. Those granted prior to the adoption of this new Chartering and Field of Membership Manual will remain in effect unless the credit unions agree to remove them or one of the affected credit unions submits a housekeeping amendment to have it removed.
</P>
<HD1>II.F—Charter Conversion
</HD1>
<P>A single occupational common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a community charter provided the field of membership requirements of the community charter are met. Groups within the existing charter which cannot qualify in the new charter cannot be served except for members of record, or groups or communities obtained in an emergency merger or P&amp;A. A credit union must notify all groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of conversion. Members of record can continue to be served. Also, in order to support a case for a conversion, the applicant federal credit union may be required to develop a detailed business plan as specified in Chapter 2, Section V.A.3.
</P>
<P>A single occupational common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a multiple common bond charter by adding a non-common bond group that is within a reasonable proximity of a service facility. Groups within the existing charter may be retained and continue to be served. However, future amendments, including any expansions of the original single common bond group, must be done in accordance with multiple common bond policy.
</P>
<HD1>II.G—Removal of Groups From the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<P>A credit union may request removal of a portion of the common bond group from its field of membership for various reasons. The most common reasons for this type of amendment are:
</P>
<P>• The group is within the field of membership of two credit unions and one wishes to discontinue service;
</P>
<P>• The federal credit union cannot continue to provide adequate service to the group;
</P>
<P>• The group has ceased to exist;
</P>
<P>• The group does not respond to repeated requests to contact the credit union or refuses to provide needed support; or
</P>
<P>• The group initiates action to be removed from the field of membership.
</P>
<P>When a federal credit union requests an amendment to remove a group from its field of membership, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will determine why the credit union desires to remove the group. If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director concurs with the request, membership will continue for those who are already members under the “once a member, always a member” provision of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<HD1>II.H—Other Persons Eligible for Credit Union Membership
</HD1>
<P>A number of persons, by virtue of their close relationship to a common bond group, may be included, at the charter applicant's option, in the field of membership. These include the following:
</P>
<P>• Spouses of persons who died while within the field of membership of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Employees of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Persons retired as pensioners or annuitants from the above employment;
</P>
<P>• Volunteers;
</P>
<P>• Members of the immediate family or household;
</P>
<P>• Honorably discharged veterans who served in any of the Armed Services of the United States listed in this charter;
</P>
<P>Organizations of such persons; and
</P>
<P>• Corporate or other legal entities in this charter.
</P>
<P>Immediate family is defined as spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P>Household is defined as persons living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P>Membership eligibility is extended only to individuals who are members of an “immediate family or household” of a credit union member. It is not necessary for the primary member to join the credit union in order for the immediate family or household member of the primary member to join, provided the immediate family or household clause is included in the field of membership. However, it is necessary for the immediate family member or household member to first join in order for that person's immediate family member or household member to join the credit union. A credit union can adopt a more restrictive definition of immediate family or household.
</P>
<P>Volunteers, by virtue of their close relationship with a sponsor group, may be included. Examples include volunteers working at a hospital or school.
</P>
<P>Under the Federal Credit Union Act, once a person becomes a member of the credit union, such person may remain a member of the credit union until the person chooses to withdraw or is expelled from the membership of the credit union. This is commonly referred to as “once a member, always a member.” The “once a member, always a member” provision does not prevent a credit union from restricting services to members who are no longer within the field of membership.
</P>
<HD1>III—Associational Common Bond
</HD1>
<HD2>III.A.1—General
</HD2>
<P>A single associational federal credit union may include in its field of membership, regardless of location, all members and employees of a recognized association. A single associational common bond consists of individuals (natural persons) and/or groups (non-natural persons) whose members participate in activities developing common loyalties, mutual benefits, and mutual interests. Separately chartered associational groups can establish a single common bond relationship if they are integrally related and share common goals and purposes. For example, two or more churches of the same denomination, Knights of Columbus Councils, or locals of the same union can qualify as a single associational common bond. Individuals and groups eligible for membership in a single associational credit union can include the following:
</P>
<P>• Natural person members of the association (for example, members of a union or church members);
</P>
<P>• Non-natural person members of the association;
</P>
<P>• Employees of the association (for example, employees of the labor union or employees of the church); and
</P>
<P>• The association.
</P>
<P>Generally, a single associational common bond does not include a geographic definition and can operate nationally. However, a proposed or existing federal credit union may limit its field of membership to a single association or geographic area. NCUA may impose a geographic limitation if it is determined that the applicant credit union does not have the ability to serve a larger group or there are other operational concerns. All single associational common bonds should include a definition of the group that may be served based on the association's charter, bylaws, and any other equivalent documentation.
</P>
<P>Applicants for a single associational common bond federal credit union charter or a field of membership amendment to include an association must provide, at the request of NCUA, a copy of the association's charter, bylaws, or other equivalent documentation, including any legal documents required by the state or other governing authority. The associational sponsor itself may also be included in the field of membership—<I>e.g.,</I> “Sprocket Association”—and will be shown in the last clause of the field of membership.
</P>
<HD3>III.A.1.a—Threshold Requirement Regarding the Purpose for Which an Associational Group Is Formed and the Totality of the Circumstances Criteria
</HD3>
<P>As a threshold matter, when reviewing an application to include an association in a federal credit union's field of membership, NCUA will determine if the association has been formed primarily for the purpose of expanding credit union membership. If NCUA makes such a determination, then the analysis ends and the association is denied inclusion in the federal credit union's field of membership. If NCUA determines that the association was formed to serve some other separate function as an organization, then NCUA will apply the following totality of the circumstances test to determine if the association satisfies the associational common bond requirements. The totality of the circumstances test consists of the following factors:
</P>
<P>1. Whether the association provides opportunities for members to participate in the furtherance of the goals of the association;
</P>
<P>2. Whether the association maintains a membership list;
</P>
<P>3. Whether the association sponsors other activities;
</P>
<P>4. Whether the association's membership eligibility requirements are authoritative;
</P>
<P>5. Whether members pay dues;
</P>
<P>6. Whether the members have voting rights; to meet this requirement, members need not vote directly for an officer, but may vote for a delegate who in turn represents the members' interests;
</P>
<P>7. The frequency of meetings; and
</P>
<P>8. Separateness—NCUA reviews if there is corporate separateness between the group and the federal credit union. The group and the federal credit union must operate in a way that demonstrates the separate corporate existence of each entity. Specifically, this means the federal credit union's and the group's respective business transactions, accounts, and corporate records are not intermingled.
</P>
<P>No one factor alone is determinative of membership eligibility as an association. The totality of the circumstances controls over any individual factor in the test. However, NCUA's primary focus will be on factors 1-4.
</P>
<HD3>III.A.1.b—Pre-Approved Groups
</HD3>
<P>NCUA automatically approves the below groups as satisfying the associational common bond provisions. NCUA only approves regular members of an approved group. Honorary, affiliate, or non-regular members do not qualify.
</P>
<P>These groups are:
</P>
<P>1. Alumni associations;
</P>
<P>2. Religious organizations, including churches or groups of related churches;
</P>
<P>3. Electric cooperatives;
</P>
<P>4. Homeowner associations;
</P>
<P>5. Labor unions;
</P>
<P>6. Scouting groups;
</P>
<P>7. Parent teacher associations (PTAs) organized at the local level to serve a single school district;
</P>
<P>8. Chamber of commerce groups (members only and not employees of members);
</P>
<P>9. Athletic booster clubs whose members have voting rights;
</P>
<P>10. Fraternal organizations or civic groups with a mission of community service whose members have voting rights;
</P>
<P>11. Organizations having a mission based on preserving or furthering the culture of a particular national or ethnic origin; and
</P>
<P>12. Organizations promoting social interaction or educational initiatives among persons sharing a common occupational profession.
</P>
<HD3>III.A.1.c—Additional Information
</HD3>
<P>A support group whose members are continually changing or whose duration is temporary may not meet the single associational common bond criteria. Each class of member will be evaluated based on the totality of the circumstances. Individuals or honorary members who only make donations to the association are not eligible to join the credit union.
</P>
<P>Student groups (<I>e.g.,</I> students enrolled at a public, private, or parochial school) may constitute either an associational or occupational common bond. For example, students enrolled at a church sponsored school could share a single associational common bond with the members of that church and may qualify for a federal credit union charter. Similarly, students enrolled at a university, as a group by itself, or in conjunction with the faculty and employees of the school, could share a single occupational common bond and may qualify for a federal credit union charter.
</P>
<P>Tenant groups, consumer groups, and other groups of persons having an “interest in” a particular cause and certain consumer cooperatives may also qualify as an association.
</P>
<P>Associations based primarily on a client-customer relationship do not meet associational common bond requirements. Health clubs are an example of a group not meeting associational common bond requirements, including YMCAs. However, having an incidental client-customer relationship does not preclude an associational charter as long as the associational common bond requirements are met. For example, a fraternal association that offers insurance, which is not a condition of membership, may qualify as a valid associational common bond.
</P>
<HD2>III.A.2—Subsequent Changes to Association's Bylaws
</HD2>
<P>If the association's membership or geographical definitions in its charter and bylaws are changed subsequent to the effective date stated in the field of membership, the credit union must submit the revised charter or bylaws for NCUA's consideration and approval prior to serving members of the association added as a result of the change.
</P>
<HD2>III.A.3—Sample Single Associational Common Bonds
</HD2>
<P>Some examples of associational common bonds are:
</P>
<P>• Regular members of Locals 10 and 13, IBEW, in Florida, who qualify for membership in accordance with their charter and bylaws in effect on May 20, 2001;
</P>
<P>• Members of the Hoosier Farm Bureau in Grant, Logan, or Lee Counties of Indiana, who qualify for membership in accordance with its charter and bylaws in effect on March 7, 1997;
</P>
<P>• Members of the Shalom Congregation in Chevy Chase, Maryland;
</P>
<P>• Regular members of the Corporate Executives Association, located in Westchester, New York, who qualify for membership in accordance with its charter and bylaws in effect on December 1, 1997;
</P>
<P>• Members of the University of Wisconsin Alumni Association, located in Green Bay, Wisconsin;
</P>
<P>• Members of the Marine Corps Reserve Officers Association; or
</P>
<P>• Members of St. John's Methodist Church and St. Luke's Methodist Church, located in Toledo, Ohio.
</P>
<P>Some examples of insufficiently defined single associational common bonds are:
</P>
<P>• All Lutherans in the United States (too broadly defined); or
</P>
<P>• Veterans of U.S. military service (group is too broadly defined; no formal association of all members of the group).
</P>
<P>Some examples of unacceptable single associational common bonds are:
</P>
<P>• Alumni of Amos University (no formal association);
</P>
<P>• Customers of Fleetwood Insurance Company (policyholders or primarily customer/client relationships do not meet associational standards);
</P>
<P>• Employees of members of the Reston, Virginia, Chamber of Commerce (not a sufficiently close tie to the associational common bond); or
</P>
<P>• Members of St. John's Lutheran Church and St. Mary's Catholic Church located in Anniston, Alabama (churches are not of the same denomination).
</P>
<HD1>III.B—Associational Common Bond Amendments
</HD1>
<HD2>III.B.1—General
</HD2>
<P>Section 5 of every associational federal credit union's charter defines the field of membership the credit union can legally serve. Only those persons who, or legal entities that, join the credit union and are specified in the field of membership can be served. There are three instances in which Section 5 must be amended by NCUA.
</P>
<P>First, a group that shares the credit union's common bond is added to the field of membership. This may occur through various ways including agreement between the group and the credit union directly, or through a merger, purchase and assumption (P&amp;A), or spin-off.
</P>
<P>Second, a federal credit union qualifies to change its common bond from:
</P>
<P>• A single associational common bond to a single occupational common bond;
</P>
<P>• A single associational common bond to a community charter; or
</P>
<P>• A single associational common bond to a multiple common bond.
</P>
<P>Third, a federal credit union removes a portion of the group from its field of membership through agreement with the group, a spin-off, or a portion of the group that is no longer in existence.
</P>
<P>An existing single associational federal credit union that submits a request to amend its charter must provide documentation to establish that the associational common bond requirement has been met. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director must approve all amendments to an associational common bond credit union's field of membership.
</P>
<HD2>III.B.2—Organizational Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>If the single common bond group that comprises a federal credit union's field of membership undergoes a substantial restructuring, the result is often that portions of the group are sold or spun off. This is an event requiring a change to the credit union's field of membership. NCUA may not permit a single associational credit union to maintain in its field of membership a sold or spun-off group to which it has been providing service unless the group otherwise qualifies for membership in the credit union or the credit union converts to a multiple common bond credit union.
</P>
<P>If the group comprising the single common bond of the credit union merges with, or is acquired by, another group, the credit union can serve the new group resulting from the merger or acquisition after receiving a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<HD2>III.B.3—Economic Advisability
</HD2>
<P>Prior to granting a common bond expansion, NCUA will examine the amendment's likely impact on the credit union's operations and financial condition. In most cases, the information needed for analyzing the effect of adding a particular group will be available to NCUA through the examination and financial and statistical reports; however, in particular cases, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require additional information prior to making a decision.
</P>
<HD2>III.B.4—Documentation Requirements
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union requesting a common bond expansion must submit an Application for Field of Membership Amendment (NCUA 4015-EZ) to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. An authorized credit union representative must sign the request.
</P>
<HD1>III.C—NCUA Procedures for Amending the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<HD2>III.C.1—General
</HD2>
<P>All requests for approval to amend a federal credit union's charter must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director.
</P>
<HD2>III.C.2—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>NCUA staff will review all amendment requests in order to ensure conformance to NCUA policy.
</P>
<P>Before acting on a proposed amendment, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require an on-site review. In addition, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may, after taking into account the significance of the proposed field of membership amendment, require the applicant to submit a business plan addressing specific issues.
</P>
<P>The financial and operational condition of the requesting credit union will be considered in every instance. The economic advisability of expanding the field of membership of a credit union with financial or operational problems must be carefully considered.
</P>
<P>In most cases, field of membership amendments will only be approved for credit unions that are operating satisfactorily. Generally, if a federal credit union is having difficulty providing service to its current membership, or is experiencing financial or other operational problems, it may have more difficulty serving an expanded field of membership.
</P>
<P>Occasionally, however, an expanded field of membership may provide the basis for reversing current financial problems. In such cases, an amendment to expand the field of membership may be granted notwithstanding the credit union's financial or operational problems. The applicant credit union must clearly establish that the expanded field of membership is in the best interest of the members and will not increase the risk to the NCUSIF.
</P>
<HD2>III.C.3—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Approval
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director approves the requested amendment, the credit union will be issued an amendment to Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<HD2>III.C.4—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director disapproves any application, in whole or in part, to amend the field of membership under this chapter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• Options to consider, if appropriate, for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedures.
</P>
<HD2>III.C.5—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a field of membership expansion request, merger, or spin-off, that decision may be appealed to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial or explain extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of existing material evidence or information that should have been filed with the request for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial. A petitioner may seek a second reconsideration based on new material evidence or information or extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of such information in the previous request.
</P>
<HD1>III.D—Mergers, Purchase and Assumptions, and Spin-Offs
</HD1>
<P>In general, other than the addition of common bond groups, there are three additional ways a federal credit union with a single associational common bond can expand its field of membership:
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a common bond or emergency merger;
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a common bond or emergency purchase and assumption (P&amp;A); or
</P>
<P>• By taking a portion of another credit union's field of membership through a common bond spin-off.
</P>
<HD2>III.D.1—Mergers
</HD2>
<P>Generally, the requirements applicable to field of membership expansions found in this section apply to mergers where the continuing credit union is a federal charter. That is, the two credit unions must share a common bond.
</P>
<P>Where the merging credit union is state-chartered, the common bond rules applicable to a federal credit union apply.
</P>
<P>Mergers must be approved by the NCUA regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union, and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<P>If a single associational credit union wants to merge into a multiple common bond or community credit union, Section IV.D or Section V.D of this Chapter, respectively, should be reviewed.
</P>
<HD2>III.D.2—Emergency Mergers
</HD2>
<P>An emergency merger may be approved by NCUA without regard to common bond or other legal constraints. An emergency merger involves NCUA's direct intervention and approval. The credit union to be merged must either be insolvent or in danger of insolvency, as defined in the Glossary, and NCUA must determine that:
</P>
<P>• An emergency requiring expeditious action exists;
</P>
<P>• Other alternatives are not reasonably available; and
</P>
<P>• The public interest would best be served by approving the merger.
</P>
<P>If not corrected, conditions that could lead to insolvency include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>• Abandonment by management;
</P>
<P>• Loss of sponsor;
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent record-keeping problems; or
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent operational concerns.
</P>
<P>In an emergency merger situation, NCUA will take an active role in finding a suitable merger partner (continuing credit union). NCUA is primarily concerned that the continuing credit union has the financial strength and management expertise to absorb the troubled credit union without adversely affecting its own financial condition and stability.
</P>
<P>As a stipulated condition to an emergency merger, the field of membership of the merging credit union may be transferred intact to the continuing federal credit union without regard to any common bond restrictions. Under this authority, therefore, a single associational common bond federal credit union may take into its field of membership any dissimilar charter type.
</P>
<P>The common bond characteristic of the continuing credit union in an emergency merger does not change. That is, even though the merging credit union is a multiple common bond or community, the continuing credit union will remain a single common bond credit union. Similarly, if the merging credit union is an unlike single common bond, the continuing credit union will remain a single common bond credit union. Future common bond expansions will be based on the continuing credit union's single common bond.
</P>
<P>Emergency mergers involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>III.D.3—Purchase and Assumption (P&amp;A)
</HD2>
<P>Another alternative for acquiring the field of membership of a failing credit union is through a consolidation known as a P&amp;A. A P&amp;A has limited application because, in most cases, the failing credit union must be placed into involuntary liquidation. In the few instances where a P&amp;A may be appropriate, the assuming federal credit union, as with emergency mergers, may acquire the entire field of membership if the emergency merger criteria are satisfied. However, if the P&amp;A does not meet the emergency merger criteria, it must be processed under the common bond requirements.
</P>
<P>In a P&amp;A processed under the emergency criteria, specified loans, shares, and certain other designated assets and liabilities, without regard to common bond restrictions, may also be acquired without changing the character of the continuing federal credit union for purposes of future field of membership amendments.
</P>
<P>If the purchased and/or assumed credit union's field of membership does not share a common bond with the purchasing and/or assuming credit union, then the continuing credit union's original common bond will be controlling for future common bond expansions.
</P>
<P>P&amp;As involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the purchased and/or assumed credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>III.D.4—Spin-Offs
</HD2>
<P>A spin-off occurs when, by agreement of the parties, a portion of the field of membership, assets, liabilities, shares, and capital of a credit union are transferred to a new or existing credit union. A spin-off is unique in that usually one credit union has a field of membership expansion and the other loses a portion of its field of membership.
</P>
<P>All common bond requirements apply regardless of whether the spun-off group becomes a new credit union or goes to an existing federal charter.
</P>
<P>The request for approval of a spin-off must be supported with a plan that addresses, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>• Why the spin-off is being requested;
</P>
<P>• What part of the field of membership is to be spun off;
</P>
<P>• Whether the affected credit unions have the same common bond (applies only to single associational credit unions);
</P>
<P>• Which assets, liabilities, shares, and capital are to be transferred;
</P>
<P>• The financial impact the spin-off will have on the affected credit unions;
</P>
<P>• The ability of the acquiring credit union to effectively serve the new members;
</P>
<P>• The proposed spin-off date; and
</P>
<P>• Disclosure to the members of the requirements set forth above.
</P>
<P>The spin-off request must also include current financial statements from the affected credit unions and the proposed voting ballot.
</P>
<P>For federal credit unions spinning off a group, membership notice and voting requirements and procedures are the same as for mergers (see part 708 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations), except that only the members directly affected by the spin-off—those whose shares are to be transferred—are permitted to vote. Members whose shares are not being transferred will not be afforded the opportunity to vote. All members of the group to be spun off (whether they voted in favor, against, or not at all) will be transferred if the spin-off is approved by the voting membership. Voting requirements for federally insured state credit unions are governed by state law.
</P>
<P>Spin-offs involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by all regional directors and, if applicable, Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the credit unions are headquartered and the state regulators, as applicable. Spin-offs in the same region also require approval by the state regulator, as applicable. Spin-offs involving the creation of a new federally insured credit union require the approval of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion also provides advice regarding field of membership compatibility when appropriate.
</P>
<HD1>III.E—Overlaps
</HD1>
<HD2>III.E.1—General
</HD2>
<P>An overlap exists when a group of persons is eligible for membership in two or more credit unions. NCUA will permit single associational federal credit unions to overlap any other charters without performing an overlap analysis.
</P>
<HD2>III.E.2—Organizational Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union's field of membership will always be governed by the common bond descriptions contained in Section 5 of its charter. Where a sponsor organization expands its operations internally, by acquisition or otherwise, the credit union may serve these new entrants to its field of membership if they are part of the common bond described in Section 5. NCUA will permit a complete overlap of the credit unions' fields of membership. If a sponsor organization sells off a group, new members can no longer be served unless they otherwise qualify for membership in the credit union or it converts to a multiple common bond.
</P>
<P>Credit unions must submit documentation explaining the restructuring and providing information regarding the new organizational structure.
</P>
<HD2>III.E.3—Exclusionary Clauses
</HD2>
<P>An exclusionary clause is a limitation precluding the credit union from serving the primary members of a portion of a group otherwise included in its field of membership. NCUA no longer grants exclusionary clauses. Those granted prior to the adoption of this new Chartering and Field of Membership Manual will remain in effect unless the credit unions agree to remove them or one of the affected credit unions submits a housekeeping amendment to have it removed.
</P>
<HD1>III.F—Charter Conversions
</HD1>
<P>A single associational common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a community charter provided the field of membership requirements of the community charter are met. Groups within the existing charter which cannot qualify in the new charter cannot be served except for members of record, or groups or communities obtained in an emergency merger or P&amp;A. A credit union must notify all groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of conversion. Members of record can continue to be served. Also, in order to support a case for a conversion, the applicant federal credit union may be required to develop a detailed business plan as specified in Chapter 2, Section V.A.3.
</P>
<P>A single associational common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a multiple common bond charter by adding a non-common bond group that is within a reasonable proximity of a service facility. Groups within the existing charter may be retained and continue to be served. However, future amendments, including any expansions of the original single common bond group, must be done in accordance with multiple common bond policy.
</P>
<HD1>III.G—Removal of Groups From the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<P>A credit union may request removal of a portion of the common bond group from its field of membership for various reasons. The most common reasons for this type of amendment are:
</P>
<P>• The group is within the field of membership of two credit unions and one wishes to discontinue service;
</P>
<P>• The federal credit union cannot continue to provide adequate service to the group;
</P>
<P>• The group has ceased to exist;
</P>
<P>• The group does not respond to repeated requests to contact the credit union or refuses to provide needed support; or
</P>
<P>• The group initiates action to be removed from the field of membership.
</P>
<P>When a federal credit union requests an amendment to remove a group from its field of membership, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will determine why the credit union desires to remove the group. If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director concurs with the request, membership will continue for those who are already members under the “once a member, always a member” provision of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<HD1>III.H—Other Persons Eligible for Credit Union Membership
</HD1>
<P>A number of persons by virtue of their close relationship to a common bond group may be included, at the charter applicant's option, in the field of membership. These include the following:
</P>
<P>• Spouses of persons who died while within the field of membership of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Employees of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Volunteers;
</P>
<P>• Members of the immediate family or household;
</P>
<P>• Honorably discharged veterans who served in any of the Armed Services of the United States in this charter;
</P>
<P>Organizations of such persons; and
</P>
<P>• Corporate or other legal entities in this charter.
</P>
<P>Immediate family is defined as spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P>Household is defined as persons living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P>Membership eligibility is extended only to individuals who are members of an “immediate family or household” of a credit union member. It is not necessary for the primary member to join the credit union in order for the immediate family or household member of the primary member to join, provided the immediate family or household clause is included in the field of membership. However, it is necessary for the immediate family member or household member to first join in order for that person's immediate family member or household member to join the credit union. A credit union can adopt a more restrictive definition of immediate family or household.
</P>
<P>Volunteers, by virtue of their close relationship with a sponsor group, may be included. One example is volunteers working at a church.
</P>
<P>Under the Federal Credit Union Act, once a person becomes a member of the credit union, such person may remain a member of the credit union until the person chooses to withdraw or is expelled from the membership of the credit union. This is commonly referred to as “once a member, always a member.” The “once a member, always a member” provision does not prevent a credit union from restricting services to members who are no longer within the field of membership.
</P>
<HD1>IV—Multiple Occupational/Associational Common Bonds


</HD1>
<HD2>IV.A.1—General
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union may be chartered to serve a combination of distinct, definable single occupational and/or associational common bonds. This type of credit union is called a multiple common bond credit union. Each group in the field of membership must have its own occupational or associational common bond. For example, a multiple common bond credit union may include two unrelated employers, or two unrelated associations, or a combination of two or more employers or associations. Additionally, these groups must be within reasonable geographic proximity of the credit union. That is, the groups must be within the service area of one of the credit union's service facilities. These groups are referred to as select groups. A multiple common bond credit union cannot include a TIP or expand using single common bond criteria.
</P>
<P>Employment in a corporation or other legal entity which is related to another legal entity (such as a company under contract to, and possessing a strong dependency relationship with, the other company) makes that person part of the occupational common bond of a select employee group within a multiple common bond. In this context, a “strong dependency relationship” is a relationship in which the entities rely on each other as measured by a pattern of regularly doing business with each other, for example, as documented by the number, the term length, and the dollar volume of prior and pending contracts between them.
</P>
<P>A multiple common bond credit union's charter may also combine individual occupational groups that each consist of employees of a retailer or other business tenant of an industrial park, a shopping mall, office park or office building (each “a park”). To be able to have this type of clause in its charter, the multiple common bond credit union first must receive a request from an authorized representative of the group or the park to establish credit union service. The park must be within the multiple common bond credit union's service area, and each occupational group must have fewer than 3,000 employees, who are eligible for membership only for so long as each is employed by a park tenant. Under this clause, a multiple common bond credit union can enroll group employees only while the group's retail or business employer is a park tenant, but such credit unions are free to serve employees of new groups under the above conditions as each respective employer becomes a park tenant.
</P>
<P>A federal credit union's service area is the area that can reasonably be served by the service facilities accessible to the groups within the field of membership. The service area will most often coincide with that geographic area primarily served by the service facility. Additionally, the groups served by the credit union must have access to the service facility. The non-availability of other credit union service is a factor to be considered in determining whether the group is within reasonable proximity of a credit union wishing to add the group to its field of membership.
</P>
<P>A service facility for multiple common bond credit unions is defined as a place where shares are accepted for members' accounts, loan applications are accepted, or loans are disbursed. This definition includes a credit union-owned branch, a mobile branch, an office operated on a regularly scheduled weekly basis, a credit union-owned ATM, or a credit union-owned electronic facility that meets, at a minimum, these requirements. A service facility also includes a shared branch or a shared branch network location, including a shared ATM or electronic facility that meets the above requirements, if the credit union participates in a shared branching network. This definition does not include the credit union's internet website.
</P>
<P>The select group as a whole will be considered to be within a credit union's service area when:
</P>
<P>• A majority of the persons in a select group live, work, or gather regularly within the service area;
</P>
<P>• The group's headquarters is located within the service area; or
</P>
<P>• The group's “paid from” or “supervised from” location is within the service area.


</P>
<HD2>IV.A.2—Sample Multiple Common Bond Field of Membership
</HD2>
<P>An example of a multiple common bond field of membership is:
</P>
<P>“The field of membership of this federal credit union shall be limited to the following:
</P>
<P>1. Employees of Teltex Corporation who work in Wilmington, Delaware;
</P>
<P>2. Partners and employees of Smith &amp; Jones, Attorneys at Law, who work in Wilmington, Delaware;
</P>
<P>3. Members of the M&amp;L Association in Wilmington, Delaware, who qualify for membership in accordance with its charter and bylaws in effect on December 31, 1997;
</P>
<P>4. Employees of tenants of MJB Office Park under the following conditions:
</P>
<FP-1>—Each tenant's employees form an individual occupational group;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—the tenant has fewer than 3,000 employees working at MJB Office Park; and
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—those employees work in MJB Office Park's Wilmington, Delaware location,”
</FP-1>
<HD1>IV.B—Multiple Common Bond Amendments
</HD1>
<HD2>IV.B.1—General
</HD2>
<P>Section 5 of every multiple common bond federal credit union's charter defines the field of membership and select groups the credit union can legally serve. Only those persons or legal entities specified in the field of membership can be served. There are a number of instances in which Section 5 must be amended by NCUA.
</P>
<P>First, a new select group is added to the field of membership. This may occur through agreement between the group and the credit union directly, or through a merger, corporate acquisition, purchase and assumption (P&amp;A), or spin-off.
</P>
<P>Second, a federal credit union qualifies to change its charter from:
</P>
<P>• A single occupational or associational charter to a multiple common bond charter;
</P>
<P>• A multiple common bond to a single occupational or associational charter;
</P>
<P>• A multiple common bond to a community charter; or
</P>
<P>• A community to a multiple common bond charter.
</P>
<P>Third, a federal credit union removes a group from its field of membership through agreement with the group, a spin-off, or because the group no longer exists.
</P>
<HD2>IV.B.2—Numerical Limitation of Select Groups
</HD2>
<P>An existing multiple common bond federal credit union that submits a request to amend its charter must provide documentation to establish that the multiple common bond requirements have been met. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director must approve all amendments to a multiple common bond credit union's field of membership.
</P>
<P>NCUA will approve groups to a credit union's field of membership if the agency determines in writing that the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>• The credit union has not engaged in any unsafe or unsound practice, as determined by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, with input from the appropriate regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director, which is material during the one year period preceding the filing to add the group;
</P>
<P>• The credit union is “adequately capitalized” pursuant to Part 702 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations. For low-income credit unions or credit unions chartered less than ten years, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, with input from the appropriate regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director, may determine that a less than “adequately capitalized” credit union can qualify for an expansion if it is making reasonable progress toward becoming “adequately capitalized.” For any other credit union, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, with input from the appropriate regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director, may determine that a less than “adequately capitalized” credit union can qualify for an expansion if it is making reasonable progress toward becoming “adequately capitalized,” and the addition of the group would not adversely affect the credit union's capitalization level;
</P>
<P>• The credit union has the administrative capability to serve the proposed group and the financial resources to meet the need for additional staff and assets to serve the new group;
</P>
<P>• Any potential harm the expansion may have on any other credit union and its members is clearly outweighed by the probable beneficial effect of the expansion. With respect to a proposed expansion's effect on other credit unions, the requirements on overlapping fields of membership set forth in Section IV.E of this Chapter are also applicable; and
</P>
<P>• If the formation of a separate credit union by such group is not practical and consistent with reasonable standards for the safe and sound operation of a credit union.
</P>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act presumes that a group of 3,000 or more primary potential members is able to form its own stand-alone credit union unless NCUA determines that it is infeasible to do so for reasons such as:
</P>
<P>(i) The group lacks sufficient volunteer and other resources to support the efficient and effective operation of its own credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) the group does not meet criteria that the Board has determined to be an important indicator of success in establishing and managing a new credit union, including demographic characteristics such as the geographic location of members, the diversity of ages and income levels among members, and other factors that may affect such a credit union's financial viability and stability; or
</P>
<P>(iii) the group would be unlikely to operate a safe and sound credit union.
</P>
<P>As such, NCUA requires additional information when a multiple common bond credit union applies to add a group of 3,000 or more primary potential members. For groups between 3,000 and 4,999 potential members, NCUA requires documentation indicating the group has a lack of available subsidies, interest among the group's members, and sufficient resources. For such cases NCUA, in its discretion, will accept a written statement indicating these conditions exist as sufficient documentation the group cannot form its own credit union. Groups with 5,000 or more members will be subject to the standard document requirements as discussed later in this chapter, requiring a group to fully describe its inability to establish a new single common bond credit union.
</P>
<HD2>IV.B.3—Documentation Requirements
</HD2>
<P>A multiple common bond credit union requesting a select group expansion must submit a formal written request, using the Application for Field of Membership Amendment (NCUA 4015-EZ, NCUA 4015-A or NCUA 4015) to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. An authorized credit union representative must sign the request.
</P>
<P>The NCUA 4015-EZ (for groups less than 3,000 potential members) must be accompanied by the following:
</P>
<P>• A letter, or equivalent documentation, from the group requesting credit union service. This letter must indicate:
</P>
<P>• That the group wants to be added to the applicant federal credit union's field of membership;
</P>
<P>• The number of persons currently included within the group to be added and their locations; and
</P>
<P>• The group's proximity to the credit union's nearest service facility.
</P>
<P>• The most recent copy of the group's charter and bylaws or equivalent documentation (for associational groups).
</P>
<P>The NCUA 4015-A (for groups between 3,000 and 4,999 primary potential members) must be accompanied by the following:
</P>
<P>• A letter, or equivalent documentation, from the group requesting credit union service. This letter must indicate:
</P>
<P>• That the group wants to be added to the federal credit union's field of membership;
</P>
<P>• The number of persons currently included within the group to be added and their locations;
</P>
<P>• The group's proximity to credit union's nearest service facility, and
</P>
<P>• Why the formation of a separate credit union for the group is not practical or consistent with safety and soundness standards because of a lack of available subsidies, interest among the group's members, and sufficient resources.
</P>
<P>The NCUA 4015 (for groups of 5,000 or more primary potential members) must be accompanied by the following:
</P>
<P>• A letter, or equivalent documentation, from the group requesting credit union service. This letter must indicate:
</P>
<P>• That the group wants to be added to the federal credit union's field of membership;
</P>
<P>• Whether the group presently has other credit union service available;
</P>
<P>• The number of persons currently included within the group to be added and their locations;
</P>
<P>• The group's proximity to credit union's nearest service facility, and
</P>
<P>• Why the formation of a separate credit union for the group is not practical or consistent with safety and soundness standards. A credit union need not address every item on the list, simply those issues that are relevant to its particular request:
</P>
<P>Member location—whether the membership is widely dispersed or concentrated in a central location.
</P>
<P>Demographics—the employee turnover rate, economic status of the group's members, and whether the group is more apt to consist of savers and/or borrowers.
</P>
<P>Market competition—the availability of other financial services.
</P>
<P>Desired services and products—the type of services the group desires in comparison to the type of services a new credit union could offer.
</P>
<P>Sponsor subsidies—the availability of operating subsidies.
</P>
<P>The desire of the sponsor—the extent of the sponsor's interest in supporting a credit union charter.
</P>
<P>Employee interest—the extent of the employees' interest in obtaining a credit union charter.
</P>
<P>Evidence of past failure—whether the group previously had its own credit union or previously filed for a credit union charter.
</P>
<P>Administrative capacity to provide services—will the group have the management expertise to provide the services requested.
</P>
<P>• If the group is eligible for membership in any other credit union, documentation must be provided to support inclusion of the group under the overlap standards set forth in Section IV.E of this Chapter; and
</P>
<P>• The most recent copy of the group's charter and bylaws or equivalent documentation (for associational groups).
</P>
<HD2>IV.B.4—Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>If a select group within a federal credit union's field of membership undergoes a substantial restructuring, a change to the credit union's field of membership may be required if the credit union is to continue to provide service to the select group. NCUA permits a multiple common bond credit union to maintain in its field of membership a sold, spun-off, or merged select group to which it has been providing service. This type of amendment to the credit union's charter is not considered an expansion; therefore, the criteria relating to adding new groups are not applicable.
</P>
<P>When two groups merge and each is in the field of membership of a credit union, then both (or all affected) credit unions can serve the resulting merged group, subject to any existing geographic limitation and without regard to any overlap provisions. However, the credit unions cannot serve the other multiple groups that may be in the field of membership of the other credit union.
</P>
<HD1>IV.C—NCUA's Procedures for Amending the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<HD2>IV.C.1—General
</HD2>
<P>All requests for approval to amend a federal credit union's charter must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director.
</P>
<HD2>IV.C.2—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>NCUA staff will review all amendment requests in order to ensure conformance to NCUA policy.
</P>
<P>Before acting on a proposed amendment, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require an on-site review. In addition, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may, after taking into account the significance of the proposed field of membership amendment, require the applicant to submit a business plan addressing specific issues.
</P>
<P>The financial and operational condition of the requesting credit union will be considered in every instance. An expanded field of membership may provide the basis for reversing adverse trends. In such cases, an amendment to expand the field of membership may be granted notwithstanding the credit union's adverse trends. The applicant credit union must clearly establish that the approval of the expanded field of membership meets the requirements of Section IV.B.2 of this Chapter and will not increase the risk to the NCUSIF.
</P>
<HD2>IV.C.3—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Approval
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director approves the requested amendment, the credit union will be issued an amendment to Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<HD2>IV.C.4—Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director disapproves any application, in whole or in part, to amend the field of membership under this chapter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• Options to consider, if appropriate, for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedure.
</P>
<HD2>IV.C.5—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a field of membership expansion request, merger, or spin-off, that decision may be appealed to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial or explain extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of existing material evidence or information that should have been filed with the request for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial. A petitioner may seek a second reconsideration based on new material evidence or information or extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of such information in the previous request.
</P>
<HD1>IV.D—Mergers, Purchase and Assumptions, and Spin-Offs
</HD1>
<P>In general, other than the addition of select groups, there are three additional ways a multiple common bond federal credit union can expand its field of membership:
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a merger;
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a purchase and assumption (P&amp;A); or
</P>
<P>• By taking a portion of another credit union's field of membership through a spin-off.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D.1—Voluntary Mergers
</HD2>
<HD3>a. All Select Groups in the Merging Credit Union's Field of Membership Have Less Than 3,000 Primary Potential Members
</HD3>
<P>A voluntary merger of two or more federal credit unions is permissible as long as each select group in the merging credit union's field of membership has less than 3,000 primary potential members. While the merger requirements outlined in Section 205 of the Federal Credit Union Act must still be met, the requirements of Chapter 2, Section IV.B.2 of this manual are not applicable.
</P>
<HD3>b. One or More Select Groups in the Merging Credit Union's Field of Membership Has 3,000 or More Primary Potential Members
</HD3>
<P>If the merging credit unions serve the same group, and the group consists of 3,000 or more primary potential members, then the ability to form a separate credit union analysis is not required for that group. If the merging credit union has any other groups consisting of 3,000 or more primary potential members, special requirements apply. NCUA will analyze each group of 3,000 or more primary potential members, except as noted above, to determine whether the formation of a separate credit union by such a group is practical. If the formation of a separate credit union by such a group is not practical because the group lacks sufficient volunteer and other resources to support the efficient and effective operations of a credit union or does not meet the economic advisable criteria outlined in Chapter 1, the group may be merged into a multiple common bond credit union. If the formation of a separate credit union is practical, the group must be spun-off before the merger can be approved.
</P>
<HD3>c. Merger of a Single Common Bond Credit Union Into a Multiple Common Bond Credit Union
</HD3>
<P>A financially healthy single common bond credit union with a primary potential membership of 3,000 or more cannot merge into a multiple common bond credit union, absent supervisory reasons, unless the continuing credit union already serves the same group.
</P>
<HD3>d. Merger Approval
</HD3>
<P>If the merger is approved, the qualifying groups within the merging credit union's field of membership will be transferred intact to the continuing credit union and can continue to be served.
</P>
<P>Where the merging credit union is state-chartered, the field of membership rules applicable to a federal credit union apply.
</P>
<P>Mergers must be approved by the applicable NCUA regional or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union, and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D.2—Supervisory Mergers
</HD2>
<P>The NCUA may approve the merger of any federally insured credit union when safety and soundness concerns are present without regard to the 3,000 numerical limitation. The credit union need not be insolvent or in danger of insolvency for NCUA to use this statutory authority. Examples constituting appropriate reasons for using this authority are: abandonment of the management and/or officials and an inability to find replacements, loss of sponsor support, serious and persistent record-keeping problems, sustained material decline in financial condition, or other serious or persistent circumstances.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D.3—Emergency Mergers
</HD2>
<P>An emergency merger may be approved by NCUA without regard to common bond or other legal constraints. An emergency merger involves NCUA's direct intervention and approval. The credit union to be merged must either be insolvent or in danger of insolvency, as defined in the Glossary, and NCUA must determine that:
</P>
<P>• An emergency requiring expeditious action exists;
</P>
<P>• Other alternatives are not reasonably available; and
</P>
<P>• The public interest would best be served by approving the merger.
</P>
<P>If not corrected, conditions that could lead to insolvency include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>• Abandonment by management;
</P>
<P>• Loss of sponsor;
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent record-keeping problems; or
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent operational concerns.
</P>
<P>In an emergency merger situation, NCUA will take an active role in finding a suitable merger partner (continuing credit union). NCUA is primarily concerned that the continuing credit union has the financial strength and management expertise to absorb the troubled credit union without adversely affecting its own financial condition and stability.
</P>
<P>As a stipulated condition to an emergency merger, the field of membership of the merging credit union may be transferred intact to the continuing federal credit union without regard to any field of membership restrictions including numerical limitation requirements. Under this authority, any single occupational or associational common bond, multiple common bond, or community charter may merger into a multiple common bond credit union and that credit union can continue to serve the merging credit union's field of membership. Subsequent field of membership expansions of the continuing multiple common bond credit union must be consistent with multiple common bond policies.
</P>
<P>Emergency mergers involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D.4—Purchase and Assumption (P&amp;A)
</HD2>
<P>Another alternative for acquiring the field of membership of a failing credit union is through a consolidation known as a P&amp;A. Generally, the requirements applicable to field of membership expansions found in this chapter apply to purchase and assumptions where the purchasing credit union is a federal charter.
</P>
<P>A P&amp;A has limited application because, in most cases, the failing credit union must be placed into involuntary liquidation. However, in the few instances where a P&amp;A may occur, the assuming federal credit union, as with emergency mergers, may acquire the entire field of membership if the emergency criteria are satisfied. Specified loans, shares, and certain other designated assets and liabilities, without regard to field of membership restrictions, may also be acquired without changing the character of the continuing federal credit union for purposes of future field of membership amendments. Subsequent field of membership expansions must be consistent with multiple common bond policies.
</P>
<P>P&amp;As involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the purchased and/or assumed credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>IV.D.5—Spin-Offs
</HD2>
<P>A spin-off occurs when, by agreement of the parties, a portion of the field of membership, assets, liabilities, shares, and capital of a credit union are transferred to a new or existing credit union. A spin-off is unique in that usually one credit union has a field of membership expansion and the other loses a portion of its field of membership.
</P>
<P>All common bond requirements apply regardless of whether the spun-off group becomes a new charter or goes to an existing federal charter.
</P>
<P>The request for approval of a spun-off group must be supported with a plan that addresses, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>• Why the spin-off is being requested;
</P>
<P>• What part of the field of membership is to be spun off;
</P>
<P>• Which assets, liabilities, shares, and capital are to be transferred;
</P>
<P>• The financial impact the spin-off will have on the affected credit unions;
</P>
<P>• The ability of the acquiring credit union to effectively serve the new members;
</P>
<P>• The proposed spin-off date; and
</P>
<P>• Disclosure to the members of the requirements set forth above.
</P>
<P>The spin-off request must also include current financial statements from the affected credit unions and the proposed voting ballot.
</P>
<P>For federal credit unions spinning off a group, membership notice and voting requirements and procedures are the same as for mergers (see part 708 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations), except that only the members directly affected by the spin-off—those whose shares are to be transferred—are permitted to vote. Members whose shares are not being transferred will not be afforded the opportunity to vote. All members of the group to be spun off (whether they voted in favor, against, or not at all) will be transferred if the spin-off is approved by the voting membership. Voting requirements for federally insured state credit unions are governed by state law.
</P>
<P>Spin-offs involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by all regional directors and, if applicable, the Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the credit unions are headquartered and the state regulators, as applicable. Spin-offs in the same region also require approval by the state regulator, as applicable.
</P>
<HD1>IV.E—Overlaps
</HD1>
<HD2>IV.E.1—General
</HD2>
<P>An overlap exists when a group of persons is eligible for membership in two or more credit unions, including state charters. An overlap is permitted when the expansion's beneficial effect in meeting the convenience and needs of the members of the group proposed to be included in the field of membership outweighs any adverse effect on the overlapped credit union.
</P>
<P>Credit unions must investigate the possibility of an overlap with federally insured credit unions prior to submitting an expansion request if the group has 5,000 or more primary potential members. If cases arise where the assurance given to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director concerning the unavailability of credit union service is inaccurate, the misinformation may be grounds for removal of the group from the federal credit union's charter.
</P>
<P>When an overlap situation requiring analysis does arise, officials of the expanding credit union must ascertain the views of the overlapped credit union. If the overlapped credit union does not object, the applicant must submit a letter or other documentation to that effect. If the overlapped credit union does not respond, the expanding credit union must notify NCUA in writing of its attempt to obtain the overlapped credit union's comments.
</P>
<P>NCUA will approve an overlap if the expansion's beneficial effect in meeting the convenience and needs of the members of the group outweighs any adverse effect on the overlapped credit union.
</P>
<P>In reviewing the overlap, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will consider:
</P>
<P>• The view of the overlapped credit union(s);
</P>
<P>• Whether the overlap is incidental in nature—the group of persons in question is so small as to have no material effect on the original credit union;
</P>
<P>• Whether there is limited participation by members or employees of the group in the original credit union after the expiration of a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>• Whether the original credit union fails to provide requested service;
</P>
<P>• Financial effect on the overlapped credit union;
</P>
<P>• The desires of the group(s);
</P>
<P>• The desire of the sponsor organization; and
</P>
<P>• The best interests of the affected group and the credit union members involved.
</P>
<P>Generally, if the overlapped credit union does not object, and NCUA determines that there is no safety and soundness problem, the overlap will be permitted.
</P>
<P>Potential overlaps of a federally insured state credit union's field of membership by a federal credit union will generally be analyzed in the same way as if two federal credit unions were involved. Where a federally insured state credit union's field of membership is broadly stated, NCUA will exclude its field of membership from any overlap protection.
</P>
<P>NCUA will permit multiple common bond federal credit unions to overlap community charters without performing an overlap analysis.
</P>
<HD2>IV.E.2—Overlap Issues as a Result of Organizational Restructuring
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union's field of membership will always be governed by the field of membership descriptions contained in Section 5 of its charter. Where a sponsor organization expands its operations internally, by acquisition or otherwise, the credit union may serve these new entrants to its field of membership if they are part of any select group listed in Section 5. Where acquisitions are made which add a new subsidiary, the group cannot be served until the subsidiary is included in the field of membership through a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<P>A federal credit union's field of membership will always be governed by the field of membership descriptions contained in Section 5 of its charter. Where a sponsor organization expands its operations internally, by acquisition or otherwise, the credit union may serve these new entrants to its field of membership if they are part of any select group listed in Section 5. Where acquisitions are made which add a new subsidiary, the group cannot be served until the subsidiary is included in the field of membership through a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<P>Overlaps may occur as a result of restructuring or merger of the parent organization. When such overlaps occur, each credit union must request a field of membership amendment to reflect the new groups each wishes to serve. The credit union can continue to serve any current group in its field of membership that is acquiring a new group or has been acquired by a new group.
</P>
<P>The new group cannot be served by the credit union until the field of membership amendment is approved by NCUA.
</P>
<P>Credit unions affected by organizational restructuring or merger should attempt to resolve overlap issues among themselves. Unless an agreement is reached limiting the overlap resulting from the corporate restructuring, NCUA will permit a complete overlap of the credit unions' fields of membership. When two groups merge, or one group is acquired by the other, and each is in the field of membership of a credit union, both (or all affected) credit unions can serve the resulting merged or acquired group, subject to any existing geographic limitation and without regard to any overlap provisions. This is accomplished through a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<P>Credit unions must submit to NCUA documentation explaining the restructuring and provide information regarding the new organizational structure.
</P>
<HD2>IV.E.3—Exclusionary Clauses
</HD2>
<P>An exclusionary clause is a limitation precluding the credit union from serving the primary members of a portion of a group otherwise included in its field of membership. NCUA no longer grants exclusionary clauses. Those granted prior to the adoption of this new Chartering and Field of Membership Manual will remain in effect unless the credit unions agree to remove them or one of the affected credit unions submits a housekeeping amendment to have it removed.
</P>
<HD1>IV.F—Charter Conversion
</HD1>
<P>A multiple common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a community charter provided the field of membership requirements of the community charter are met. Groups within the existing charter which cannot qualify in the new charter cannot be served except for members of record, or groups or communities obtained in an emergency merger or P&amp;A. A credit union must notify all groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of conversion. Members of record can continue to be served. Also, in order to support a case for a conversion, the applicant federal credit union may be required to develop a detailed business plan as specified in Chapter 2, Section V.A.3.
</P>
<P>A multiple common bond federal credit union may apply to convert to a single occupational or associational common bond charter provided the field of membership requirements of the new charter are met. Groups within the existing charter, which do not qualify in the new charter, cannot be served except for members of record, or groups or communities obtained in an emergency merger or P&amp;A. A credit union must notify all groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of conversion.
</P>
<HD1>IV.G—Credit Union Requested Removal of Groups From the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<P>A credit union may request removal of a group from its field of membership for various reasons. The most common reasons for this type of amendment are:
</P>
<P>• The group is within the field of membership of two credit unions and one wishes to discontinue service;
</P>
<P>• The federal credit union cannot continue to provide adequate service to the group;
</P>
<P>• The group has ceased to exist;
</P>
<P>• The group does not respond to repeated requests to contact the credit union or refuses to provide needed support;
</P>
<P>• The group initiates action to be removed from the field of membership; or
</P>
<P>• The federal credit union wishes to convert to a single common bond.
</P>
<P>When a federal credit union requests an amendment to remove a group from its field of membership, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will determine why the credit union desires to remove the group. If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director concurs with the request, membership will continue for those who are already members under the “once a member, always a member” provision of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<HD1>IV.H—NCUA Supervisory Action To Remove Groups From the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<P>NCUA has in place quality control processes that protect the integrity of its field of membership requirements. As part of this obligation, NCUA's Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will randomly select groups added through NCUA's Field of Membership Internet Application (FOMIA) system for quality assurance reviews even if the expansion application meets all the conditions for approval. Each FCU is responsible for obtaining certain documentation when seeking to add groups to its field of membership through FOMIA. In addition, as indicated in the FOMIA User Instruction Guide, available on NCUA's Web site, an FCU must permanently retain the documentation from the select group requesting service and the Confirmation Certificate generated at the time the FOMIA request is submitted to NCUA.
</P>
<P>As part of the quality assurance process, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion reserves the right to request this documentation at any time. If the FCU fails to provide this documentation when the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion requests it, the director of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion may consider removing the group from the FCU's field of membership and restricting the FCU from using the FOMIA system for future requests. Specifically, as part of the FOMIA quality assurance process, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion staff will do the following:
</P>
<P>1. Within 10 days of receiving an application selected for a quality assurance review, notify the FCU of the documentation the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion requires. The FCU will have 15 days to provide the necessary documentation. the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will respond to the FCU with a determination on the quality assurance review of the association within 15 days of receiving the requested information;
</P>
<P>2. After receiving the additional documentation, if any concerns remain outstanding, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will again correspond with the FCU and provide a 15-day time frame for correcting the concern. the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will respond to the FCU with a determination on the quality assurance review of the association within 15 days of receiving the requested information; and
</P>
<P>3. If the FCU does not provide the requested documentation, or cannot correct the concern, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will deny the application and notify the credit union of its appeal rights.
</P>
<HD1>IV.I—NCUA Investigation of Potential Field of Membership Violations
</HD1>
<P>NCUA's Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion is responsible for investigating field of membership complaints from the public, and matters referred to it from the field. It also pursues corrective action as needed for FCUs with confirmed field of membership violations. Although circumstances can vary with each case, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will generally adhere to the following process for investigating and addressing potential field of membership violations:
</P>
<P>1. Initially correspond with management to outline concerns and request clarifying information within 60 days. the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will also provide context as to the source of NCUA's concerns, such as the discovery of new information about a particular group or an examination finding brought to the attention of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion;
</P>
<P>2. If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion does not receive the requested information within 60 days, it will notify the FCU and again request the required information be provided within 30 days;
</P>
<P>3. After receiving the additional documentation, if any concerns remain outstanding, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will again correspond with the FCU to provide a 60-day time frame for addressing the concern; and
</P>
<P>4. If the FCU is unable to correct the concern, and after consultation with the Office of General Counsel and the appropriate Regional Office or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director, and in accordance with agency guidelines for administrative actions, the Director of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will remove the group from the FCU's field of membership pursuant to authority delegated by the NCUA Board. Removal of a group is treated the same as an initial denial under the Chartering Manual. In any adverse final determination on removal under the above delegations, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion will notify the FCU of its appeal rights.
</P>
<P>NCUA considers the removal of an association from an FCU's field of membership as an action of last resort. If a group is removed, the FCU can no longer add new members from the group, but can continue serving those who are already members of the FCU under the “once a member, always a member” provision of the Federal Credit Union Act. Also, if the group subsequently qualifies due to changes to the group itself, management can submit a new application at that time.
</P>
<HD1>IV.J—Other Persons Eligible for Credit Union Membership
</HD1>
<P>A number of persons, by virtue of their close relationship to a common bond group, may be included, at the charter applicant's option, in the field of membership. These include the following:
</P>
<P>• Spouses of persons who died while within the field of membership of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Employees of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Persons retired as pensioners or annuitants from the above employment;
</P>
<P>• Volunteers;
</P>
<P>• Members of the immediate family or household;
</P>
<P>• Honorably discharged veterans who served in any of the Armed Services of the United States in this charter;
</P>
<P>• Organizations of such persons; and
</P>
<P>• Corporate or other legal entities in this charter.
</P>
<P>Immediate family is defined as spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P>Household is defined as persons living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P>Membership eligibility is extended only to individuals who are members of an “immediate family or household” of a credit union member. It is not necessary for the primary member to join the credit union in order for the immediate family or household member of the primary member to join, provided the immediate family or household clause is included in the field of membership. However, it is necessary for the immediate family member or household member to first join in order for that person's immediate family member or household member to join the credit union. A credit union can adopt a more restrictive definition of immediate family or household.
</P>
<P>Volunteers, by virtue of their close relationship with a sponsor group, may be included. Examples include volunteers working at a hospital or church.
</P>
<P>Under the Federal Credit Union Act, once a person becomes a member of the credit union, such person may remain a member of the credit union until the person chooses to withdraw or is expelled from the membership of the credit union. This is commonly referred to as “once a member, always a member.” The “once a member, always a member” provision does not prevent a credit union from restricting services to members who are no longer within the field of membership
</P>
<HD1>V—Community Charter Requirements
</HD1>
<HD2>V.A.1—General
</HD2>
<P>There are two types of community charters. One is based on a single, geographically well- defined local community or neighborhood; the other is a rural district. More than one credit union may serve the same community.
</P>
<P>NCUA recognizes four types of affinity on which both a community charter and a rural district can be based—persons who live in, worship in, attend school in, or work in the community or rural district. Businesses and other legal entities within the community boundaries or rural district may also qualify for membership.
</P>
<P>NCUA has established the following requirements for community charters:
</P>
<P>• The geographic area's boundaries must be clearly defined; and
</P>
<P>• The area is a well-defined local community or a rural district.


</P>
<HD2>V.A.2—Definition of Well-Defined Local Community and Rural District
</HD2>
<P>In addition to the documentation requirements in Chapter 1 to charter a credit union, a community credit union applicant must provide additional documentation addressing the proposed area to be served and community service policies, as well as the business plan requirements set forth in this Chapter. An applicant must meet all of these requirements to obtain NCUA approval.
</P>
<P>An applicant has the burden of demonstrating to NCUA that the proposed community area meets the statutory requirements of being: (1) Well-defined, and (2) a local community or rural district. The applicant also has the burden of demonstrating that with respect to the proposed community, it has the capacity to provide financial services to low- and moderate-income areas of the community. The agency will reject any application that fails to establish the criteria set forth above.
</P>
<P>For an applicant seeking a community charter for a Statistical Area with multiple political jurisdictions with a population of 2.5 million people or more, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion (CURE) shall: (1) Publish a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> seeking comment from interested parties about the proposed community and (2) conduct a public hearing about this application.
</P>
<P>“Well-defined” means the proposed area has specific geographic boundaries. Geographic boundaries may include a city, township, county (single, multiple, or portions of a county) or a political equivalent, school districts, or a clearly identifiable neighborhood.
</P>
<P>The well-defined local community requirement is met if:
</P>
<P>• Single Political Jurisdiction—the area to be served is a recognized Single Political Jurisdiction, <I>i.e.,</I> a city, county, or their political equivalent, or any single portion thereof.
</P>
<P>• Statistical Area—A statistical area is all or an individual portion of a Combined Statistical Area (CSA) or a Core-Based Statistical Area (CBSA) designated by the U.S. Census Bureau, including a Metropolitan Statistical Area. To meet the well-defined local community requirement, the CSA or CBSA or a portion thereof, must be contiguous and have a population of 2.5 million or less people. An individual portion of a statistical area need not conform to internal boundaries within the area, such as metropolitan division boundaries within a Core-Based Statistical Area.
</P>
<P>• Compelling Evidence of Common Interests or Interaction—In lieu of a statistical area as defined above, this option is available when a credit union seeks to initially charter a community credit union; to expand an existing community; or to convert to a community charter. Under this option, the credit union must demonstrate that the areas in question are contiguous and further demonstrate a sufficient level of common interests or interaction among area residents to qualify the area as a local community. For that purpose, an applicant must submit for NCUA approval a narrative, supported by appropriate documentation, establishing that the area's residents meet the requirements of a local community.
</P>
<P>To assist a credit union in developing its narrative, Appendix 6 of this Manual identifies criteria a narrative should address, and which NCUA will consider in deciding a credit union's application to: Initially charter a community credit union; to expand an existing community, including by an adjacent area addition; or to convert to a community charter. In any case, the credit union must demonstrate, through its business and marketing plans, its ability and commitment to serve the entire community for which it seeks NCUA approval.
</P>
<P>An area of any geographic size qualifies as a Rural District if:
</P>
<P>• The proposed district has well-defined, contiguous geographic boundaries;
</P>
<P>• The total population of the proposed district does not exceed 1,000,000;
</P>
<P>• Either more than 50% of the proposed district's population resides in census blocks or other geographic units that are designated as rural by either the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau or the United States Census Bureau, OR the district has a population density of 100 persons or fewer per square mile; and
</P>
<P>• The boundaries of the well-defined rural district do not exceed the outer boundaries of the states that are <I>immediately contiguous</I> to the state in which the credit union maintains its headquarters (<I>i.e.,</I> not to exceed the outer perimeter of the layer of states immediately surrounding the headquarters state).
</P>
<P>The common bond affinity groups that apply to well-defined local communities also apply to Rural Districts.
</P>
<P>The requirements in Chapter 2, Sections V.A.4 through V.G also apply to a credit union that serves a rural district.


</P>
<HD2>V.A.3—Previously Approved Communities
</HD2>
<P>If NCUA has determined that a specific geographic area is a well-defined local community, then a new applicant need not reestablish that fact as part of its application to serve the exact area. The new applicant must, however, note NCUA's previous determination as part of its overall application. An applicant applying for an area that is not exactly the same as a previously approved well defined local community must comply with the current criteria in place for determining a well-defined local community.
</P>
<HD2>V.A.4—Business Plan Requirements for a Community Credit Union
</HD2>
<P>A community credit union is frequently more susceptible to competition from other local financial institutions and generally does not have substantial support from any single sponsoring company or association. As a result, a community credit union will often encounter financial and operational factors that differ from an occupational or associational charter. Its diverse membership may require special marketing programs targeted to different segments of the community. For example, the lack of payroll deduction creates special challenges in the development and promotion of savings programs and in the collection of loans. Accordingly, to support an application for a community charter, an applicant Federal credit union must develop a business plan incorporating the following data:
</P>
<P>• Pro forma financial statements for a minimum of 24 months after the proposed conversion, including the underlying assumptions and rationale for projected member, share, loan, and asset growth;
</P>
<P>• Anticipated financial impact on the credit union, including the need for additional employees and fixed assets, and the associated costs;
</P>
<P>• A description of the current and proposed office/branch structure, including a general description of the location(s); parking availability, public transportation availability, drive-through service, lobby capacity, or any other service feature illustrating community access;
</P>
<P>• A marketing plan addressing how the community will be served for the 24-month period after the proposed conversion to a community charter, including detailing: How the credit union will implement its business plan; the unique needs of the various demographic groups in the proposed community; how the credit union will market to each group, particularly underserved groups; which community-based organizations the credit union will target in its outreach efforts; the credit union's marketing budget projections dedicating greater resources to reaching new members; and the credit union's timetable for implementation, not just a calendar of events;
</P>
<P>• Details, terms and conditions of the credit union's financial products, programs, and services to be provided to the entire community; and
</P>
<P>• Maps showing the current and proposed service facilities, ATMs, political boundaries, major roads, and other pertinent information.
</P>
<P>An existing Federal credit union may apply to convert to a community charter. Groups currently in the credit union's field of membership, but outside the new community credit union's boundaries, may not be included in the new community charter. Therefore, the credit union must notify groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of the conversion. Members of record can continue to be served.
</P>
<P>Before approval of an application to convert to a community credit union, NCUA must be satisfied that the credit union will be viable and capable of providing services to its members.
</P>
<P>Community credit unions will be expected to regularly review and to follow, to the fullest extent economically possible, the marketing and business plans submitted with their applications. Additionally, NCUA will follow-up with an FCU every year for three years after the FCU has been granted a new or expanded community charter, and at any other intervals NCUA believes appropriate, to determine if the FCU is satisfying the terms of its marketing and business plans.
</P>
<P>An FCU failing to satisfy those terms will be subject to supervisory action. As part of this review process, the regional office or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director will report to the NCUA Board instances where an FCU is failing to satisfy the terms of its marketing and business plan and indicate what supervisory actions the region or ONES intends to take.
</P>
<HD2>V.A.5—Community Boundaries
</HD2>
<P>The geographic boundaries of a community Federal credit union are the areas defined in its charter. The boundaries can usually be defined using political borders, streets, rivers, railroad tracks, or other static geographical feature.
</P>
<P>A community that is a recognized legal entity may be stated in the field of membership— for example, “Gus Township, Texas,” “Isabella City, Georgia,” or “Fairfax County, Virginia.”
</P>
<P>A community that is an entire United States Census Bureau designated Core Based Statistical Area or Combined Statistical Area may be stated in the field of membership—for example, “Fort Wayne, IN Metropolitan Statistical Area,” “Albany, GA Metropolitan Statistical Area,” or “Syracuse-Auburn, NY Combined Statistical Area.”
</P>
<HD2>V.A.6—Special Community Charters
</HD2>
<P>A community field of membership may include persons who work or attend school in a particular industrial park, shopping mall, office building or complex, or similar development. The proposed field of membership must have clearly defined geographic boundaries.
</P>
<HD2>V.A.7—Ample Community Fields of Membership
</HD2>
<P>A community charter does not have to include all four affinities (<I>i.e.,</I> live, work, worship, or attend school in a community). Some examples of community fields of membership are:
</P>
<P>• Persons who live, work, worship, or attend school in, and businesses located in the area of Johnson City, Tennessee, bounded by Fern Street on the north, Long Street on the east, Fourth Street on the south, and Elm Avenue on the west;
</P>
<P>• Persons who live or work in Green County, Maine;
</P>
<P>• Persons who live, worship, work (or regularly conduct business in), or attend school on the University of Dayton campus, in Dayton, Ohio;
</P>
<P>• Persons who work for businesses located in Clifton Country Mall, in Clifton Park, New York;
</P>
<P>• Persons who live, work, or worship in the Binghamton, New York, Core Based Statistical Area, consisting of Broome and Tioga Counties, New York (a qualifying Core Based Statistical Area in its entirety);
</P>
<P>• Persons who live, work, worship, or attend school in the portion of the Oklahoma City, OK Metropolitan Statistical Area that includes Canadian and Oklahoma counties, Oklahoma (two contiguous counties in a portion of a qualifying Core Based Statistical Area that has seven counties in total); or
</P>
<P>• Persons who live, work, worship, or attend school in Uinta County or Lincoln County, Wyoming, a rural district.
</P>
<P>Some examples of insufficiently defined local communities, neighborhoods, or rural districts are:
</P>
<P>• Persons who live or work within and businesses located within a ten-mile radius of Washington, DC (not a permitted community);
</P>
<P>• Persons who live or work in the industrial section of New York, New York. (not well- defined nor a permitted community); or
</P>
<P>• Persons who live or work in the greater Boston area. (not well-defined).
</P>
<P>Some examples of unacceptable local communities, neighborhoods, or rural districts are:
</P>
<P>• Persons who live or work in the State of California. (not a permitted community). Persons who live in the first congressional district of Florida. (not a permitted community).


</P>
<HD2>V.A.8—Community Selection Requirements and Review
</HD2>
<P>The NCUA will not approve an application for a community charter consisting of all or a portion of a CSA or a CBSA, including an initial application, amendment, or expansion, unless the applicant demonstrates in its business and marketing plan that (1) the credit union will serve a community that is contiguous and (2) the credit union will provide financial services to low- and moderate-income and underserved people, and that the credit union has not selected its service area in order to exclude low- and moderate-income and underserved people or to engage in illegal discrimination. Upon receipt of this material, the NCUA will evaluate the business and marketing plan to ensure that low- and moderate-income and underserved people will be served and that the credit union has not selected the service area in order to exclude such people or to engage in illegal discrimination. This requirement is in addition to the requirement to document in the business and marketing plan the realistic assumptions that support the credit union's viability and its plan to serve its entire FOM.
</P>
<P>The NCUA may conduct such further inquiry or evaluation as it deems appropriate, as authorized by 12 U.S.C. 1754 and consistent with the principles of this Manual, other federal laws, and public policy. If the NCUA determines that the credit union's submission is inaccurate or unsupported, it may deny that application on those grounds, regardless of whether the application satisfies the other criteria for initial chartering, amendment, or expansion.


</P>
<HD1>V.B—Field of Membership Amendments
</HD1>
<P>A community credit union may amend its field of membership by adding additional affinities or removing exclusionary clauses. This can be accomplished with a housekeeping amendment.
</P>
<P>A community credit union also may expand its geographic boundaries. Persons who live, work, worship, or attend school within the proposed well-defined local community, neighborhood or rural district must have common interests and/or interact. The credit union must follow the requirements of Section V.A.4 and Section V.A.8 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>A community credit union that is based on a Single Political Jurisdiction, a Statistical Area (<I>e.g.,</I> Core Based Statistical Area or Combined Statistical Area) or a rural district may expand its geographic boundaries to add a bordering area, provided the area is well defined and the credit union demonstrates that persons who live, work, worship, or attend school within the proposed expanded community (<I>i.e.,</I> on both sides of the boundary separating the existing community and the bordering area) have common interests and/or interact. Such a credit union applying to expand its geographic boundaries to add a bordering area must follow a streamlined version of the business plan requirements of Section V.A.4 of this chapter and the expanded community would be subject to the corresponding population limit—2.5 million in the case of a Single Political Jurisdiction, or a Statistical Area and 1 million in the case of a rural district. The streamlined business plan requirements for adding a bordering area are:
</P>
<P>• Anticipated marginal financial impact on the credit union of adding the proposed bordering area, including the need for additional employees and fixed assets, and the associated costs;
</P>
<P>• A description of the current and, if applicable, proposed office/branch structure specific to serving the proposed bordering area;
</P>
<P>• A marketing plan addressing how the new community will be served for the 24-month period after the proposed expansion of a community charter, including detailing how the credit union will address the unique needs of any demographic groups in the proposed bordering community not presently served by the credit union and how the credit union will market to any new groups; and
</P>
<P>• Details, terms and conditions of any new financial products, programs, and services to be introduced as part of this expansion.


</P>
<HD1>V.C—NCUA Procedures for Amending the Field of Membership
</HD1>
<HD2>V.C.1—General
</HD2>
<P>All requests for approval to amend a community credit union's charter must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. If a decision cannot be made within a reasonable period of time, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will notify the credit union.
</P>
<HD2>V.C.2—NCUA's Decision
</HD2>
<P>The financial and operational condition of the requesting credit union will be considered in every instance. The economic advisability of expanding the field of membership of a credit union with financial or operational problems must be carefully considered.
</P>
<P>In most cases, field of membership amendments will only be approved for credit unions that are operating satisfactorily. Generally, if a federal credit union is having difficulty providing service to its current membership, or is experiencing financial or other operational problems, it may have more difficulty serving an expanded field of membership.
</P>
<P>Occasionally, however, an expanded field of membership may provide the basis for reversing current financial problems. In such cases, an amendment to expand the field of membership may be granted notwithstanding the credit union's financial or operational problems. The applicant credit union must clearly establish that the expanded field of membership is in the best interest of the members and will not increase the risk to the NCUSIF.
</P>
<HD2>V.C.3—NCUA Approval
</HD2>
<P>If the requested amendment is approved by NCUA, the credit union will be issued an amendment to Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<HD2>V.C.4—NCUA Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When NCUA disapproves any application to amend the field of membership, in whole or in part, under this chapter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• If appropriate, options or suggestions that could be considered for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedures.
</P>
<HD2>V.C.5—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a field of membership expansion request, merger, or spin-off, that decision may be appealed to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial or explain extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of existing material evidence or information that should have been filed with the request for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial. A petitioner may seek a second reconsideration based on new material evidence or information or extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of such information in the previous request.
</P>
<HD1>V.D—Mergers, Purchase and Assumptions, and Spin-Offs
</HD1>
<P>There are three additional ways a community federal credit union can expand its field of membership:
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership of another credit union through a merger;
</P>
<P>• By taking in the field of membership through a purchase and assumption (P&amp;A); or
</P>
<P>• By taking a portion of another credit union's field of membership through a spin-off.
</P>
<HD2>V.D.1—Mergers
</HD2>
<P>Generally, the requirements applicable to field of membership expansions apply to mergers where the continuing credit union is a community federal charter.
</P>
<P>Where both credit unions are community charters, the continuing credit union must meet the criteria for expanding the community boundaries. A community credit union cannot merge into a single occupational/associational, or multiple common bond credit union, except in an emergency merger. However, a single occupational or associational, or multiple common bond credit union can merge into a community charter as long as the merging credit union has a service facility within the community boundaries or a majority of the merging credit union's field of membership would qualify for membership in the community charter. While a community charter may take in an occupational, associational, or multiple common bond credit union in a merger, it will remain a community charter.
</P>
<P>Groups within the merging credit union's field of membership located outside of the community boundaries may not continue to be served. The merging credit union must notify groups that will be removed from the field of membership as a result of the merger. However, the credit union may continue to serve members of record.
</P>
<P>Where a state-chartered credit union is merging into a community federal credit union, the continuing federal credit union's field of membership will be worded in accordance with NCUA policy. Any subsequent field of membership expansions must comply with applicable amendment procedures.
</P>
<P>Mergers must be approved by the NCUA regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union, and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>V.D.2—Emergency Mergers
</HD2>
<P>An emergency merger may be approved by NCUA without regard to common bond or other legal constraints. An emergency merger involves NCUA's direct intervention and approval. The credit union to be merged must either be insolvent or in danger of insolvency, as defined in the Glossary, and NCUA must determine that:
</P>
<P>• An emergency requiring expeditious action exists;
</P>
<P>• Other alternatives are not reasonably available; and
</P>
<P>• The public interest would best be served by approving the merger.
</P>
<P>If not corrected, conditions that could lead to insolvency include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>• Abandonment by management;
</P>
<P>• Loss of sponsor;
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent record-keeping problems; or
</P>
<P>• Serious and persistent operational concerns.
</P>
<P>In an emergency merger situation, NCUA will take an active role in finding a suitable merger partner (continuing credit union). NCUA is primarily concerned that the continuing credit union has the financial strength and management expertise to absorb the troubled credit union without adversely affecting its own financial condition and stability.
</P>
<P>As a stipulated condition to an emergency merger, the field of membership of the merging credit union may be transferred intact to the continuing federal credit union without regard to any field of membership restrictions, including the service facility requirement. Under this authority, a federal credit union may take in any dissimilar field of membership.
</P>
<P>Even though the merging credit union is a single common bond credit union or multiple common bond credit union or community credit union, the continuing credit union will remain a community charter. Future community expansions will be based on the continuing credit union's original community area.
</P>
<P>Emergency mergers involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the merging credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>V.D.3—Purchase and Assumption (P&amp;A)
</HD2>
<P>Another alternative for acquiring the field of membership of a failing credit union is through a consolidation known as a P&amp;A. Generally, the requirements applicable to community expansions found in this chapter apply to purchase and assumptions where the purchasing credit union is a federal charter.
</P>
<P>A P&amp;A has limited application because, in most instances, the failing credit union must be placed into involuntary liquidation. However, in the few instances where a P&amp;A may occur, the assuming federal credit union, as with emergency mergers, may acquire the entire field of membership if the emergency criteria are satisfied.
</P>
<P>In a P&amp;A processed under the emergency criteria, specified loans, shares, and certain other designated assets and liabilities may also be acquired without regard to field of membership restrictions and without changing the character of the continuing federal credit union for purposes of future field of membership amendments.
</P>
<P>If the P&amp;A does not meet the emergency criteria, then only members of record can be obtained unless they otherwise qualify for membership in the community charter.
</P>
<P>P&amp;As involving federally insured credit unions in different NCUA regions must be approved by the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director where the continuing credit union is headquartered, with the concurrence of the regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director of the purchased and/or assumed credit union and, as applicable, the state regulators.
</P>
<HD2>V.D.4—Spin-Offs
</HD2>
<P>A spin-off occurs when, by agreement of the parties, a portion of the field of membership, assets, liabilities, shares, and capital of a credit union are transferred to a new or existing credit union. A spin-off is unique in that usually one credit union has a field of membership expansion and the other loses a portion of its field of membership.
</P>
<P>All field of membership requirements apply regardless of whether the spun-off group goes to a new or existing federal charter.
</P>
<P>The request for approval of a spin-off must be supported with a plan that addresses, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>• Why the spin-off is being requested;
</P>
<P>• What part of the field of membership is to be spun off;
</P>
<P>• Whether the field of membership requirements are met;
</P>
<P>• Which assets, liabilities, shares, and capital are to be transferred;
</P>
<P>• The financial impact the spin-off will have on the affected credit unions;
</P>
<P>• The ability of the acquiring credit union to effectively serve the new members;
</P>
<P>• The proposed spin-off date; and
</P>
<P>• Disclosure to the members of the requirements set forth above.
</P>
<P>The spin-off request must also include current financial statements from the affected credit unions and the proposed voting ballot.
</P>
<P>For federal credit unions spinning off a portion of the community, membership notice and voting requirements and procedures are the same as for mergers (see part 708 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations), except that only the members directly affected by the spin-off—those whose shares are to be transferred—are permitted to vote. Members whose shares are not being transferred will not be afforded the opportunity to vote. All members of the group to be spun off (whether they voted in favor, against, or not at all) will be transferred if the spin-off is approved by the voting membership. Voting requirements for federally insured state credit unions are governed by state law.
</P>
<HD1>V.E—Overlaps
</HD1>
<HD2>V.E.1—General
</HD2>
<P>Generally, an overlap exists when a group of persons is eligible for membership in two or more credit unions. NCUA will permit community credit unions to overlap any other charters without performing an overlap analysis.
</P>
<HD2>V.E.2—Exclusionary Clauses
</HD2>
<P>An exclusionary clause is a limitation precluding the credit union from serving the primary members of a portion of a group or community otherwise included in its field of membership.
</P>
<P>NCUA no longer grants exclusionary clauses. Those granted prior to the adoption of this new Chartering and Field of Membership Manual will remain in effect unless the credit unions agree to remove them or one of the affected credit unions submits a housekeeping amendment to have it removed.
</P>
<HD1>V.F—Charter Conversions
</HD1>
<P>A community federal credit union may convert to a single occupational or associational, or multiple common bond credit union. The converting credit union must meet all occupational, associational, and multiple common bond requirements, as applicable. The converting credit union may continue to serve members of record of the prior field of membership as of the date of the conversion, and any groups or communities obtained in an emergency merger or P&amp;A. A change to the credit union's field of membership and designated common bond will be necessary.
</P>
<P>A community credit union may convert to serve a new geographical area provided the field of membership requirements of V.A.3 of this chapter are met. Members of record of the original community can continue to be served.
</P>
<HD1>V.G—Other Persons With a Relationship to the Community
</HD1>
<P>A number of persons who have a close relationship to the community may be included, at the charter applicant's option, in the field of membership. These include the following:
</P>
<P>• Spouses of persons who died while within the field of membership of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Employees of this credit union;
</P>
<P>• Volunteers in the community;
</P>
<P>• Members of the immediate family or household; and
</P>
<P>• Organizations of such persons
</P>
<P>Immediate family is defined as spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P>Household is defined as persons living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P>Membership eligibility is extended only to individuals who are members of an “immediate family or household” of a credit union member. It is not necessary for the primary member to join the credit union in order for the immediate family or household member of the primary member to join, provided the immediate family or household clause is included in the field of membership. However, it is necessary for the immediate family member or household member to first join in order for that person's immediate family member or household member to join the credit union. A credit union can adopt a more restrictive definition of immediate family or household.
</P>
<P>Under the Federal Credit Union Act, once a person becomes a member of the credit union, such person may remain a member of the credit union until the person chooses to withdraw or is expelled from the membership of the credit union. This is commonly referred to as “once a member, always a member.” The “once a member, always a member” provision does not prevent a credit union from restricting services to members who are no longer within the field of membership.
</P>
<HD1>Chapter 3—Low-Income Credit Unions and Credit Unions Serving Underserved Areas
</HD1>
<HD1>I—Introduction
</HD1>
<P>One of the primary reasons for the creation of federal credit unions is to make credit available to people of modest means for provident and productive purposes. To help NCUA fulfill this mission, the agency has established special operational policies for federal credit unions that serve low-income groups and underserved areas. The policies provide a greater degree of flexibility that will enhance and invigorate capital infusion into low-income groups, low-income communities, and underserved areas. These unique policies are necessary to provide credit unions serving low-income groups with financial stability and potential for controlled growth and to encourage the formation of new charters as well as the delivery of credit union services in low-income communities.
</P>
<HD1>II—Low-Income Credit Union
</HD1>
<HD2>II.A—Defined
</HD2>
<P>A credit union serving predominantly low-income members may be designated as a low- income credit union. Section 701.34 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations defines the term “low- income members” as those members:
</P>
<P>• Who make less than 80 percent of the average for all wage earners as established by the Bureau of Labor Statistics; or
</P>
<P>• Whose median family income falls at or below 80 percent of the median family income for the nation as established by the Census Bureau.
</P>
<P>The term “low-income members” also includes members who are full-time or part-time students in a college, university, high school, or vocational school.
</P>
<P>To obtain a low-income designation from NCUA, an existing credit union must establish that a majority of its members meet the low-income definition. An existing community credit union that serves a geographic area where a majority of residents meet the annual income standard is presumed to be serving predominantly low-income members. A low-income designation for a new credit union charter may be based on a majority of the potential membership.
</P>
<HD2>II.B—Special Programs
</HD2>
<P>A credit union with a low-income designation has greater flexibility in accepting nonmember deposits insured by the NCUSIF, are exempt from the aggregate loan limit on business loans, and may offer secondary capital accounts to strengthen its capital base. It also may participate in special funding programs such as the Community Development Revolving Loan Program for Credit Unions (CDRLP) if it is involved in the stimulation of economic development and community revitalization efforts.
</P>
<P>The CDRLP provides both loans and grants for technical assistance to low-income credit unions. The requirements for participation in the revolving loan program are in part 705 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations. Only operating credit unions are eligible for participation in this program.
</P>
<HD2>II.C—Low-Income Documentation
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union charter applicant or existing credit union wishing to receive a low- income designation should forward a separate request for the designation to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, along with appropriate documentation supporting the request.
</P>
<P>For community charter applicants, the supporting material should include the median family income or annual wage figures for the community to be served. If this information is unavailable, the applicant should identify the individual zip codes or census tracts that comprise the community and NCUA will assist in obtaining the necessary demographic data.
</P>
<P>Similarly, if single occupational or associational or multiple common bond charter applicants cannot supply income data on its potential members, they should provide the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director with a list which includes the number of potential members, sorted by their residential zip codes, and NCUA will assist in obtaining the necessary demographic data.
</P>
<P>An existing credit union can perform a loan or membership survey to determine if the credit union is primarily serving low-income members.
</P>
<HD2>II.D—Third-Party Assistance
</HD2>
<P>A low-income federal credit union charter applicant may contract with a third party to assist in the chartering and low-income designation process. If the charter is granted, a low-income credit union may contract with a third party to provide necessary management services. Such contracts should not exceed the duration of one year subject to renewal.
</P>
<HD2>II.E—Special Rules for Low-Income Federal Credit Unions
</HD2>
<P>In recognition of the unique efforts needed to help make credit union service available to low-income groups, NCUA has adopted special rules that pertain to low-income credit union charters, as well as field of membership additions for low-income credit unions. These special rules provide additional latitude to enable underserved, low-income individuals to gain access to credit union service.
</P>
<P>NCUA permits credit union chartering and field of membership amendments based on associational groups formed for the sole purpose of making credit union service available to low- income persons. The association must be defined so that all of its members will meet the low- income definition of Section 701.34 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations. Any multiple common bond credit union can add low-income associations to their fields of membership.
</P>
<P>A low-income designated community federal credit union has additional latitude in serving persons who are affiliated with the community. In addition to serving members who live, work, worship, or attend school in the community, a low-income community federal credit union may also serve persons who participate in programs to alleviate poverty or distress, or who participate in associations headquartered in the community.
</P>
<P>Examples of a low-income designated community and an associational-based low-income federal credit union are as follows:
</P>
<P>• Persons who live in [the target area]; persons who work, worship, attend school, or participate in associations headquartered in [the target area]; persons participating in programs to alleviate poverty or distress which are located in [the target area]; incorporated and unincorporated organizations located in [the target area] or maintaining a facility in [the target area]; and organizations of such persons.
</P>
<P>• Members of the Canarsie Economic Assistance League, in Brooklyn, NY, an association whose members all meet the low-income definition of Section 701.34 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations.
</P>
<HD1>III—Service to Underserved Communities
</HD1>
<HD2>III.A—General
</HD2>
<P>A multiple common bond federal credit union may include in its field of membership, without regard to location, an “underserved area” as defined by the Federal Credit Union Act. 12 U.S.C. 1759(c)(2).
</P>
<P>The addition of an “underserved area” will not change the charter type of the multiple common bond federal credit union. More than one multiple common-bond federal credit union can serve the same “underserved area,” provided each credit union is approved as provided below.
</P>
<P>By adding an “underserved area,” a multiple common bond federal credit union does not become eligible to receive the benefits afforded to low-income designated credit unions, such as expanded use of nonmember deposits and access to the Community Development Revolving Loan Program for Credit Unions.
</P>
<HD2>III.B—“Underserved Area” Defined
</HD2>
<P>The Federal Credit Union Act defines an “underserved area” as (1) a “local community, neighborhood, or rural district” that (2) meets the definition of an “investment area” under section 103(16) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (“CDFI”), 12 U.S.C. 4702(16), and (3) is “underserved by other depository institutions” based on data of the NCUA Board and the federal banking agencies.
</P>
<HD3>III.B.1—Local Community
</HD3>
<P>To be eligible for approval as “underserved,” a proposed area must be a well-defined local community, neighborhood, or rural district as defined in Chapter 2, sections V.A.1. and V.A.2. of this Manual.
</P>
<HD3>III.B.2—Investment Area
</HD3>
<P>To be approved as an “underserved area,” the proposed area must meet the CDFI definition of an “investment area.” <I>Id.</I> § 4702(16). A proposed area that, at the time the credit union applies, is designated in its entirety as an Empowerment Zone or Enterprise Community (<I>id.</I> § 1391) automatically qualifies as an “investment area”; no further criteria of an “investment area” must be met. <I>Id.</I> § 4702(16)(B). A proposed area that is not designated as such must qualify as an “investment area” under “the objective criteria of economic distress” developed by the CDFI Fund (“distress criteria”) based on current decennial U.S. Census data, and also must have “significant unmet needs” for loans and financial services that credit unions are authorized to offer to their members. <I>Id.</I> § 4702(16)(A).
</P>
<HD3>III.B.2.a—Economic Distress Criteria
</HD3>
<P><I>Geographic Unit(s) By Proposed Area's Location.</I> The location of a proposed “underserved area” either within or outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area corresponding to the most recent completed decennial census published by the U.S. Bureau of the Census (“decennial Census”) determines the geographic unit(s) that apply to determine whether the area meets the distress criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Within a Metropolitan Statistical Area.</I> For a proposed area located, in whole or in part, within a Metropolitan Statistical Area, the permissible geographic units (“Metro units”) for implementing the economic distress criteria are: (i) A census tract; (ii) a block group; and (iii) an American Indian or Alaskan Native area. 12 CFR 1805.201(b)(3)(ii)(B) (2008). For ease of implementation, it is advisable to use a census tract as the proposed area's Metro unit.
</P>
<P><I>Outside a Metropolitan Statistical Area.</I> For a proposed area that is located entirely outside a Metropolitan Statistical Area, the permissible units (“Non-Metro units”) for implementing the economic distress criteria are: (i) A county or equivalent area; (ii) a minor civil division that is a unit of local government; (iii) an incorporated place; (iv) a census tract; (v) a block numbering area; (vi) a block group; and (vii) an American Indian or Alaskan Native area. <I>Id.</I> For ease of implementation, it is advisable to use either a census tract or county, as the case may be, as the proposed area's Non-Metro unit.
</P>
<P><I>Proposed Area Consisting of a Single Metro Unit.</I> A proposed area consisting of a single whole Metro unit (<I>e.g.,</I> a single census tract located within a Metropolitan Statistical Area) must meet one of the following distress criteria, as reported by the most recent decennial Census:
</P>
<P>• <I>Unemployment.</I> The proposed area's unemployment rate is at least 1.5 times the national average; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Poverty.</I> At least 20 percent (20%) of the proposed area's population lives in poverty; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Median Family Income.</I> The proposed area's Median Family Income (“MFI”) is at or below 80 percent (80%) of either the MFI of the corresponding Metropolitan Statistical Area, or of the national MFI for Metro Areas, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Other Criterion.</I> Any other economic distress criterion the CDFI Fund may adopt in the future.
</P>
<P><I>Id.</I> § 1805.201(b)(3)(ii)(D)(1), (2)(i) and (3) (2008).
</P>
<P><I>Proposed Area Consisting of a Single Non-Metro Unit.</I> A proposed area consisting of a single whole Non-Metro unit (<I>e.g.,</I> a single county located outside a Metropolitan Statistical Area) must meet one of the following distress criteria, as reported by the most recent decennial Census:
</P>
<P>• <I>Unemployment.</I> The proposed area's unemployment rate is at least 1.5 times the national average; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Poverty.</I> At least 20 percent (20%) of the proposed area's population lives in poverty; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Median Family Income.</I> The proposed area's MFI is at or below 80 percent (80%) of either the corresponding state's Non-Metro MFI or the national MFI for Non-Metro Areas, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>• <I>Other Criterion.</I> Any other economic distress criterion the CDFI Fund may adopt in the future.
</P>
<P>•
</P>
<P><I>Id.</I> § 1805.201(b)(3)(ii)(D)(1), (2)(ii) and (3) (2008). Alternatively, a proposed area consisting of a single Non-Metro county (located outside a Metropolitan Statistical Area) may instead meet either of the following two criteria, as reported by the decennial Census:
</P>
<P>• <I>County Population Loss.</I> County's population loss of at least 10 percent (10%) between the most recent and the preceding decennial Census; or
</P>
<P>• <I>County Migration Loss.</I> County's net migration loss of at least 5 percent (5%) in the 5- year period preceding the most recent decennial Census.
</P>
<P><I>Id.</I> § 1805.201(b)(3)(ii)(D)(4)-(5) (2008).
</P>
<P><I>Proposed Area Consisting of Multiple Contiguous Units.</I> When a proposed area consists of either multiple contiguous Metro units (<I>e.g.,</I> a group of adjoining census tracts) or multiple contiguous Non-Metro units (<I>e.g.,</I> a group of adjoining counties), a population threshold applies when implementing the economic distress criteria. At least 85 percent (85%) of the area's total population must reside within the units that are “distressed,” <I>i.e.,</I> that meet one of the applicable economic distress criteria above, as reported by the decennial Census (Unemployment, Poverty and MFI for census tracts plus, for counties only, Population Loss and Migration Loss); the balance of the area's population may reside in the non-“distressed” tract(s). The population threshold is met, and the whole proposed area qualifies as “distressed,” when the “distressed” units represent at least 85 percent of the area's total population.
</P>
<HD3>III.B.2.b—Proposed Area's “Significant Unmet Needs”
</HD3>
<P>A proposed area that is “distressed” also must display “significant unmet needs” for loans or for one or more of the financial services credit unions are authorized to offer. To meet this criterion, the credit union must include within its Business Plan a section, one page in length, entitled “Significant Unmet Needs for Credit Union Services” (“SUN section”) that establishes the existence of such unmet needs by identifying the credit and depository needs of the community and detailing how the credit union plans to serve those needs. The credit union may choose which among the following “credit and depository needs” to address in the SUN section: loans, share draft accounts, savings accounts, check cashing, money orders, certified checks, automated teller machines, deposit taking, safe deposit box services, and similar services. The existence of each “credit and depository need” the credit union identifies and plans to serve must be supported by objective reasons and/or accompanying documentation derived from an identified, authoritative source of the credit union's choice. Third-party documentation generally is the most compelling.
</P>
<HD3>III.B.3—Underserved by Other Depository Institutions
</HD3>
<P>A proposed area that meets the CDFI definition of an “investment area” (<I>i.e.,</I> is “distressed” and has “significant unmet needs”) must also be underserved by other insured depository institutions, including credit unions. 12 U.S.C. 1759(c)(2)(A)(ii). This statutory criterion is met when the concentration of depository institution facilities among the population of the proposed area's non-“distressed” tracts—which sets a benchmark level of adequate service—is greater than the concentration of facilities among the population of all of the proposed area's census tracts combined. This establishes the area's concentration of facilities ratio. If there are no non- “distressed” tracts within a proposed area, a non-“distressed” census tract or larger geographic unit (<I>e.g.,</I> city or county) of the credit union's choice that adjoins the proposed area may be used to set the benchmark concentration ratio.
</P>
<P>Without regard to a proposed area's location within or outside a Metropolitan Statistical Area, this criterion compares two ratios: the ratio of facilities to the population of the non- “distressed” tracts (the benchmark) versus the same facilities-to-population ratio among all the tracts of the proposed area as a whole. If the benchmark ratio is greater than the ratio for the whole area, then the area is “underserved by other depository institutions,” and vice versa.
</P>
<P>When, as the result of an initial Concentration of Facilities ratio calculation, a proposed area does not qualify as “underserved by other depository institutions,” NCUA will exclude non- depository banks (<I>e.g.,</I> trust companies) and non-community credit unions (<I>i.e.,</I> those institutions unable to serve the general public) from the computation. For the purposes of this analysis, a multiple common bond credit union already serving the area as an underserved area is considered able to serve the general public and thus would not be excluded. With both of these exclusions, NCUA will recalculate the concentration of facilities ratio to determine whether, as a result, the proposed area qualifies as “underserved by other depository institutions.”
</P>
<P>As one alternative to the concentration of facilities ratio, a proposed area will qualify as “underserved by other depository institutions” if it is designated an “underserved county” by NCUA based on data produced by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (available at: <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov/guidance/#ruralunderserved</I><I>).</I> NCUA will make its list of “underserved counties” available on its Web site.
</P>
<P>As another alternative to the concentration of facilities ratio, a proposed area will qualify as “underserved by other depository institutions” if the credit seeking to serve it, using a metric of its own choosing, provided that it is based on NCUA or other Federal banking agency data, that establishes to NCUA that the proposed area is “underserved by other depository institutions.”
</P>
<HD2>III.C—NCUA Approval
</HD2>
<P>If NCUA approves the request to add an “underserved area,” the credit union will be issued an amendment to Section 5 of its charter.
</P>
<HD2>III.D—Approval to Serve an Already Approved “Underserved Area”
</HD2>
<P>Once a credit union is initially approved to serve an “underserved area,” other credit unions that subsequently apply may be approved to serve the same area. To be approved, the area must qualify as “underserved” at the time the new applicant applies. An applicant must demonstrate that the area continues to be “distressed”, as provided above, only if a new decennial Census has been published since the date the area was last approved. In any case, the applicant must demonstrate that the area still has “significant unmet needs” for loans or credit union services (to qualify as an “investment area”), and remains “underserved by other depository institutions” (to qualify as “underserved”).
</P>
<HD2>III.E—Business Plan
</HD2>
<P>A federal credit union that desires to include an underserved community in its field of membership must first develop, and submit for approval, a business plan specifying how it will serve the community. In addition, the business plan must include a SUN section as provided in section III.B.2.b. above. The credit union will be expected to regularly review the business plan to determine if the community is being adequately served. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may require periodic service status reports from a credit union about the “underserved area” to ensure that the needs of the community are being met, and must require such reports before NCUA allows a multiple common bond federal credit union to add an additional “underserved area.”


</P>
<HD2>III.F—Service Facility
</HD2>
<P>Once an “underserved area” has been added to a federal credit union's field of membership, the credit union must establish within two years, and maintain, an office or service facility in the community. A service facility is defined as a place where shares are accepted for members' accounts, loan applications are accepted and loans are disbursed. By definition, a service facility includes a credit union-owned branch, a shared branch, a mobile branch, an office operated on a regularly scheduled weekly basis, or a credit union-owned electronic facility that meets, at a minimum, the above requirements. A service facility also includes a shared branch or a shared branch network location, including an electronic facility that meets the above requirements, if a credit union participates in a shared branching network.
</P>
<P>This definition does not include an ATM or the credit union's internet website.


</P>
<HD1>IV—Appeal Procedures for Denial of Underserved Area
</HD1>
<HD2>IV.A—NCUA Disapproval
</HD2>
<P>When NCUA disapproves any application to add an “underserved area” in whole or in part, under this chapter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• Options to consider, if appropriate, for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedures.
</P>
<HD2>IV.B—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD2>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies an “underserved area” request, the Federal credit union may appeal that decision to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial or explain extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of existing material evidence or information that should have been filed with the request for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial. A petitioner may seek a second reconsideration based on new material evidence or information or extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of such information in the previous request.
</P>
<HD1>Chapter 4—Charter Conversions
</HD1>
<HD1>I—Introduction
</HD1>
<P>A charter conversion is a change in the jurisdictional authority under which a credit union operates.
</P>
<P>Federal credit unions receive their charters from NCUA and are subject to its supervision, examination, and regulation.
</P>
<P>State-chartered credit unions are incorporated in a particular state, receiving their charter from the state agency responsible for credit unions and subject to the state's regulator. If the state-chartered credit union's deposits are federally insured, it will also fall under NCUA's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>A federal credit union's power and authority are derived from the Federal Credit Union Act and NCUA Rules and Regulations. State-chartered credit unions are governed by state law and regulation. Certain federal laws and regulations also apply to federally insured state chartered credit unions.
</P>
<P>There are two types of charter conversions: federal charter to state charter and state charter to federal charter. Common bond and community requirements are not an issue from NCUA's standpoint in the case of a federal to state charter conversion. The procedures and forms relevant to both types of charter conversion are included in appendix 4.
</P>
<HD1>II—Conversion of a State Credit Union to a Federal Credit Union
</HD1>
<HD2>II.A—General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>Any state-chartered credit union may apply to convert to a federal credit union. In order to do so it must:
</P>
<P>• Comply with state law regarding conversion and file proof of compliance with NCUA;
</P>
<P>• File the required conversion application, proposed federal credit union organization certificate, and other documents with NCUA;
</P>
<P>• Comply with the requirements of the Federal Credit Union Act, <I>e.g.,</I> chartering and reserve requirements; and
</P>
<P>• Be granted federal share insurance by NCUA.
</P>
<P>Conversions are treated the same as any initial application for a federal charter, including an on-site examination by NCUA where appropriate. NCUA will also consult with the appropriate state authority regarding the credit union's current financial condition, management expertise, and past performance. Since the applicant in a conversion is an ongoing credit union, the economic advisability of granting a charter is more readily determinable than in the case of an initial charter applicant.
</P>
<P>A converting state credit union's field of membership must conform to NCUA's chartering policy. The field of membership will be phrased in accordance with NCUA chartering policy. However, if the converting credit union is a multiple group charter and the new federal charter is a multiple group, then the new federal charter may retain in its field of membership any group that the state credit union was serving at the time of conversion. Subsequent changes must conform to NCUA chartering policy in effect at that time.
</P>
<P>If the converting credit union is a community charter and the new federal charter is community-based, it must meet the community field of membership requirements set forth in Chapter 2, Section V of this manual. If the state-chartered credit union's community boundary is more expansive than the approved federal boundary, only members of record outside of the new community boundary may continue to be served.
</P>
<P>The converting credit union, regardless of charter type, may continue to serve members of record. The converting credit union may retain in its field of membership any group or community added pursuant to state emergency provisions.
</P>
<HD2>II.B—Submission of Conversion Proposal to NCUA
</HD2>
<P>The following documents must be submitted with the conversion proposal:
</P>
<P>• Conversion of State Charter to Federal Charter (NCUA 4000);
</P>
<P>• Organization Certificate (NCUA 4008). Only Part (3) and the signature/notary section should be completed and, where applicable, signed by the credit union officials.
</P>
<P>• Report of Officials and Agreement to Serve (NCUA 4012);
</P>
<P>• The Application to Convert From State Credit Union to Federal Credit Union (NCUA 4401);
</P>
<P>• The Application and Agreements for Insurance of Accounts (NCUA 9500);
</P>
<P>• Certification of Resolution (NCUA 9501);
</P>
<P>• Written evidence regarding whether the state regulator is in agreement with the conversion proposal; and
</P>
<P>• Business plan, as appropriate, including the most current financial report and delinquent loan schedule.
</P>
<P>If the state charter is applying to become a federal community charter, it must also comply with the documentation requirements included in Chapter 2, Section V.A.2 of this manual.
</P>
<HD2>II.C—NCUA Consideration of Application To Convert
</HD2>
<HD3>II.C.1—Review by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director
</HD3>
<P>The application will be reviewed to determine that it is complete and that the proposal is in compliance with Section 125 of the Federal Credit Union Act. This review will include a determination that the state credit union's field of membership is in compliance with NCUA's chartering policies. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may make further investigation into the proposal and may require the submission of additional information to support the request to convert.
</P>
<HD3>II.C.2—On-Site Review
</HD3>
<P>NCUA may conduct an on-site examination of the books and records of the credit union. Non-federally insured credit unions will be assessed an insurance application fee.
</P>
<HD3>II.C.3—Approval by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director and Conditions to the Approval
</HD3>
<P>The conversion will be approved by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director if it is in compliance with Section 125 of the Federal Credit Union Act and meets the criteria for federal insurance. Where applicable, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will specify any special conditions that the credit union must meet in order to convert to a federal charter, including changes to the credit union's field of membership in order to conform to NCUA's chartering policies. Some of these conditions may be set forth in a Letter of Understanding and Agreement (LUA), which requires the signature of the officials and the appropriate NCUA regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director.
</P>
<HD3>II.C.4—Notification
</HD3>
<P>The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will notify both the credit union and the state regulator of the decision on the conversion.
</P>
<HD3>II.C.5—NCUA Disapproval
</HD3>
<P>When NCUA disapproves any application to convert to a federal charter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• Options to consider, if appropriate, for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedures.
</P>
<HD3>II.C.6—Appeal of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD3>
<P>If a conversion to a Federal charter is denied by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director, the applicant credit union may appeal that decision to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. A request for reconsideration should contain new and material evidence addressing the reasons for the initial denial or explain extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of existing material evidence or information that should have been filed with the request for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the request is again denied, the applicant may proceed with the appeal process within 60 days of the date of the last denial. A petitioner may seek a second reconsideration based on new material evidence or information or extenuating circumstances that precluded the inclusion of such information in the previous request.
</P>
<HD2>II.D—Action by Board of Directors
</HD2>
<HD3>II.D.1—General
</HD3>
<P>Upon being informed of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director's preliminary approval, the board must:
</P>
<P>• Comply with all requirements of the state regulator that will enable the credit union to convert to a federal charter and cease being a state credit union;
</P>
<P>• Obtain a letter or official statement from the state regulator certifying that the credit union has met all of the state requirements and will cease to be a state credit union upon its receiving a federal charter. A copy of this document must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director;
</P>
<P>• Obtain a letter from the private share insurer (includes excess share insurers), if applicable, certifying that the credit union has met all withdrawal requirements. A copy of this document must be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director; and
</P>
<P>• Submit a statement of the action taken to comply with any conditions imposed by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director in the preliminary approval of the conversion proposal and, if applicable, submit the signed LUA.
</P>
<HD3>II.D.2—Application for a Federal Charter
</HD3>
<P>When the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director has received evidence that the board of directors has satisfactorily completed the actions described above, the Federal charter and new Certificate of Insurance will be issued.
</P>
<P>The credit union may then complete the conversion as discussed in the following section. A credit union may request the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director to reconsider a denial of a conversion application and/or appeal a denial to the NCUA Board. For more information, refer to Section II.C.6 of this chapter.
</P>
<HD2>II.E—Completion of the Conversion
</HD2>
<HD3>II.E.1—Effective Date of Conversion
</HD3>
<P>The date on which the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director approves the Organization Certificate and the Application and Agreements for Insurance of Accounts is the date on which the credit union becomes a federal credit union. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will notify the credit union and the state regulator of the date of the conversion.
</P>
<HD3>II.E.2—Assumption of Assets and Liabilities
</HD3>
<P>As of the effective date of the conversion, the federal credit union will be the owner of all of the assets and will be responsible for all of the liabilities and share accounts of the state credit union.
</P>
<HD3>II.E.3—Board of Directors' Meeting
</HD3>
<P>Upon receipt of its federal charter, the board will hold its first meeting as a federal credit union. At this meeting, the board will transact such business as is necessary to complete the conversion as approved and to operate the credit union in accordance with the requirements of the Federal Credit Union Act and NCUA Rules and Regulations.
</P>
<P>As of the commencement of operations, the accounting system, records, and forms must conform to the standards established by NCUA.
</P>
<HD3>II.E.4—Credit Union's Name
</HD3>
<P>Changing of the credit union's name on all signage, records, accounts, investments, and other documents should be accomplished as soon as possible after conversion. The credit union has 180 days from the effective date of the conversion to change its signage and promotional material. This requires the credit union to discontinue using any remaining stock of “state credit union” stationery immediately, and discontinue using credit cards, ATM cards, etc., within 180 days after the effective date of the conversion, or the reissue date whichever is later. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director has the discretion to extend the timeframe for an additional 180 days. Member share drafts with the state-chartered name can be used by the members until depleted.
</P>
<HD3>II.E.5—Reports to NCUA
</HD3>
<P>Within 10 business days after commencement of operations, the recently converted federal credit union must submit to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director the following:
</P>
<P>• Report of Officials (NCUA 4501); and
</P>
<P>• Financial and Statistical Reports, as of the commencement of business of the federal credit union.
</P>
<HD1>III—Conversion of a Federal Credit Union to a State Credit Union
</HD1>
<HD2>III.A—General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>Any federal credit union may apply to convert to a state credit union. In order to do so, it must:
</P>
<P>• Notify NCUA prior to commencing the process to convert to a state charter and state the reason(s) for the conversion;
</P>
<P>• Comply with the requirements of Section 125 of the Federal Credit Union Act that enable it to convert to a state credit union and to cease being a federal credit union; and
</P>
<P>• Comply with applicable state law and the requirements of the state regulator.
</P>
<P>It is important that the credit union provide an accurate disclosure of the reasons for the conversion. These reasons should be stated in specific terms, not as generalities. The federal credit union converting to a state charter remains responsible for the entire operating fee for the year in which it converts.
</P>
<HD2>III.B—Special Provisions Regarding Federal Share Insurance
</HD2>
<P>If the federal credit union intends to continue federal share insurance after the conversion to a state credit union, it must submit an Application for Insurance of Accounts (NCUA 9600) to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director at the time it requests approval of the conversion proposal. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director has the authority to approve or disapprove the application.
</P>
<P>If the converting federal credit union does not intend to continue federal share insurance or if its application for continued insurance is denied, insurance will cease in accordance with the provisions of Section 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>If, upon its conversion to a state credit union, the federal credit union will be terminating its federal share insurance or converting from federal to non-federal share insurance, it must comply with the membership notice and voting procedures set forth in Section 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act and part 708 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations, and address the criteria set forth in Section 205(c) of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>Where the state credit union will be non-federally insured, federal insurance ceases on the effective date of the charter conversion. If it will be otherwise uninsured, then federal insurance will cease one year after the date of conversion subject to the restrictions in Section 206(d)(1) of the Federal Credit Union Act. In either case, the state credit union will be entitled to a refund of the federal credit union's NCUSIF capitalization deposit after the final date on which any of its shares are federally insured.
</P>
<P>The NCUA Board reserves the right to delay the refund of the capitalization deposit for up to one year if it determines that payment would jeopardize the NCUSIF.
</P>
<HD2>III.C—Submission of Conversion Proposal to NCUA
</HD2>
<P>Upon approval of a proposition for conversion by a majority vote of the board of directors at a meeting held in accordance with the federal credit union's bylaws, the conversion proposal will be submitted to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director and will include:
</P>
<P>• A current financial report;
</P>
<P>• A current delinquent loan schedule;
</P>
<P>• An explanation and appropriate documents relative to any changes in insurance of member accounts;
</P>
<P>• A resolution of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>• A proposed Notice of Special Meeting of the Members (NCUA 4221);
</P>
<P>• A copy of the ballot to be sent to all members (NCUA 4506);
</P>
<P>• If the credit union intends to continue with federal share insurance, an application for insurance of accounts (NCUA 9600);
</P>
<P>• Evidence that the state regulator is in agreement with the conversion proposal; and
</P>
<P>• A statement of reasons supporting the request to convert.
</P>
<HD2>III.D—Approval of Proposal to Convert
</HD2>
<HD3>III.D.1—Review by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director
</HD3>
<P>The proposal will be reviewed to determine that it is complete and is in compliance with Section 125 of the Federal Credit Union Act. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may make further investigation into the proposal and require the submission of additional information to support the request.
</P>
<HD3>III.D.2—Conditions to the Approval
</HD3>
<P>The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will specify any special conditions that the credit union must meet in order to proceed with the conversion.
</P>
<HD3>III.D.3—Approval by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director
</HD3>
<P>The proposal will be approved by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director if it is in compliance with Section 125 and, in the case where the state credit union will no longer be federally insured, the notice and voting requirements of Section 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<HD3>III.D.4—Notification
</HD3>
<P>The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will notify both the credit union and the state regulator of the decision on the proposal.
</P>
<HD3>III.D.5—Disapproval
</HD3>
<P>When NCUA disapproves any application to convert to a state charter, the applicant will be informed in writing of the:
</P>
<P>• Specific reasons for the action;
</P>
<P>• If appropriate, options or suggestions that could be considered for gaining approval; and
</P>
<P>• Appeal procedures.
</P>
<HD3>III.D.6—Appeal of Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director Decision
</HD3>
<P>If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director denies a conversion to a State charter, the Federal credit union may appeal that decision to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>Before appealing, the credit union may, within 30 days of the denial, provide supplemental information to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director for reconsideration. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will have 30 business days from the date of the receipt of the request for reconsideration to make a final decision. If the application is again denied, the credit union may proceed with the appeal process to the NCUA Board within 60 days of the date of the last denial by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director.
</P>
<HD2>III.E—Approval of Proposal by Members
</HD2>
<P>The members may not vote on the proposal until it is approved by the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. Once approval of the proposal is received, the following actions will be taken by the board of directors:
</P>
<P>• The proposal must be submitted to the members for approval and a date set for a meeting to vote on the proposal. The proposal may be acted on at the annual meeting or at a special meeting for that purpose. The members must also be given the opportunity to vote by written ballot to be filed by the date set for the meeting.
</P>
<P>• Members must be given advance notice (NCUA 4221) of the meeting at which the proposal is to be submitted. The notice must:
</P>
<P>• Specify the purpose, time and place of the meeting;
</P>
<P>• Include a brief, complete, and accurate statement of the reasons for and against the proposed conversion, including any effects it could have upon share holdings, insurance of member accounts, and the policies and practices of the credit union;
</P>
<P>• Specify the costs of the conversion, <I>i.e.,</I> changing the credit union's name, examination and operating fees, attorney and consulting fees, tax liability, etc.;
</P>
<P>• Inform the members that they have the right to vote on the proposal at the meeting, or by written ballot to be filed not later than the date and time announced for the annual meeting, or at the special meeting called for that purpose;
</P>
<P>• Be accompanied by a Federal to State Conversion—Ballot for Conversion Proposal (NCUA 4506); and
</P>
<P>• State in <E T="04">bold</E> face type that the issue will be decided by a majority of members who vote.
</P>
<P>• The proposed conversion must be approved by a majority of all of the members who vote on the proposal, a quorum being present, in order for the credit union to proceed further with the proposition, provided federal insurance is maintained. If the proposed state-chartered credit union will not be federally insured, 20 percent of the total membership must participate in the voting, and of those, a majority must vote in favor of the proposal. Ballots cast by members who did not attend the meeting but who submitted their ballots in accordance with instructions above will be counted with votes cast at the meeting. In order to have a suitable record of the vote, the voting at the meeting should be by written ballot as well.
</P>
<P>• The board of directors shall, within 10 days, certify the results of the membership vote to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. The statement shall be verified by affidavits of the Chief Executive Officer and the Recording Officer on NCUA 4505.
</P>
<HD2>III.F—Compliance With State Laws
</HD2>
<P>If the proposal for conversion is approved by a majority of all members who voted, the board of directors will:
</P>
<P>• Ensure that all requirements of state law and the state regulator have been accommodated;
</P>
<P>• Ensure that the state charter or the license has been received within 90 days from the date the members approved the proposal to convert; and
</P>
<P>• Ensure that the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director is kept informed as to progress toward conversion and of any material delay or of substantial difficulties which may be encountered.
</P>
<P>If the conversion cannot be completed within the 90-day period, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director should be informed of the reasons for the delay. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director may set a new date for the conversion to be completed.
</P>
<HD2>III.G—Completion of Conversion
</HD2>
<P>In order for the conversion to be completed, the following steps are necessary:
</P>
<P>• The board of directors will submit a copy of the state charter to the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director within 10 days of its receipt. This will be accompanied by the federal charter and the federal insurance certificate. A copy of the financial reports as of the preceding month-end should be submitted at this time.
</P>
<P>• The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will notify the credit union and the state regulator in writing of the receipt of evidence that the credit union has been authorized to operate as a state credit union.
</P>
<P>• The credit union shall cease to be a federal credit union as of the effective date of the state charter.
</P>
<P>• If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director finds a material deviation from the provisions that would invalidate any steps taken in the conversion, the credit union and the state regulator shall be promptly notified in writing. This notice may be either before or after the copy of the state charter is filed with the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director. The notice will inform the credit union as to the nature of the adverse findings. The conversion will not be effective and completed until the improper actions and steps have been corrected.
</P>
<P>• Upon ceasing to be a federal credit union, the credit union shall no longer be subject to any of the provisions of the Federal Credit Union Act, except as may apply if federal share insurance coverage is continued. The successor state credit union shall be immediately vested with all of the assets and shall continue to be responsible for all of the obligations of the federal credit union to the same extent as though the conversion had not taken place. Operation of the credit union from this point will be in accordance with the requirements of state law and the state regulator.
</P>
<P>• If the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director is satisfied that the conversion has been accomplished in accordance with the approved proposal, the federal charter will be canceled.
</P>
<P>• There is no federal requirement for closing the records of the federal credit union at the time of conversion or for the manner in which the records shall be maintained thereafter. The converting credit union is advised to contact the state regulator for applicable state requirements.
</P>
<P>• The credit union shall neither use the words “Federal Credit Union” in its name nor represent itself in any manner as being a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>• Changing of the credit union's name on all signage, records, accounts, investments, and other documents should be accomplished as soon as possible after conversion. Unless it violates state law, the credit union has 180 days from the effective date of the conversion to change its signage and promotional material. This requires the credit union to discontinue using any remaining stock of “federal credit union” stationery immediately, and discontinue using credit cards, ATM cards, etc., within 180 days after the effective date of the conversion, or the reissue date, whichever is later. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director has the discretion to extend the timeframe for an additional 180 days. Member share drafts with the federal chartered name can be used by the members until depleted. If the state credit union is not federally insured, it must change its name and must immediately cease using any credit union documents referencing federal insurance.
</P>
<P>• If the state credit union is to be federally insured, the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion Director will issue a new insurance certificate.
</P>
<HD1>APPENDIX 1 GLOSSARY
</HD1>
<P>These definitions apply only for use with this Manual. Definitions are not intended to be all inclusive or comprehensive. This Manual, the Federal Credit Union Act, and NCUA Rules and Regulations, as well as state laws, may be used for further reference.
</P>
<P><I>Adequately capitalized</I>—A credit union is considered “adequately capitalized” when it meets the “adequately capitalized” definition in Part 702 of NCUA's Rules and Regulations. A multiple common bond credit union must be “adequately capitalized” in order to add new groups to its charter. The Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion director, with input from the appropriate regional director or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director, may determine that a less than “adequately capitalized” credit union can qualify for an expansion if it is making reasonable progress toward becoming “adequately capitalized,” and the addition of the group would not adversely affect the credit union's capitalization level.
</P>
<P><I>Affinity</I>—A relationship upon which a community charter is based. Acceptable affinities include living, working, worshiping, or attending school in a community.
</P>
<P><I>Appeal</I>—The right of a credit union or charter applicant to request a formal review of the Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion, regional director's or Office of National Examinations and Supervision Director's adverse decision by the National Credit Union Administration Board.
</P>
<P><I>Associational common bond</I>—A common bond comprised of members and employees of a recognized association. It includes individuals (natural persons) and/or groups (non-natural persons) whose members participate in activities developing common loyalties, mutual benefits, and mutual interests.
</P>
<P><I>Business plan</I>—Plan submitted by a charter applicant or existing federal credit union addressing the economic advisability of a proposed charter or field of membership addition.
</P>
<P><I>Charter</I>—The document which authorizes a group to operate as a credit union and defines the fundamental limits of its operating authority, generally including the persons the credit union is permitted to accept for membership. Charters are issued by the National Credit Union Administration for federal credit unions and by the designated state chartering authority for credit unions organized under the laws of that state.
</P>
<P><I>Common bond</I>—The characteristic or combination of characteristics which distinguishes a particular group of persons from the general public. There are two common bonds which can serve as a basis for a group forming a federal credit union or being included in an existing federal credit union's field of membership: Occupational—employment by the same company, related companies or in a trade, industry, or profession (TIP); and associational—membership in the same association.
</P>
<P><I>Community credit union</I>—A credit union whose field of membership consists of persons who live, work, worship, or attend school in the same well-defined local community, neighborhood, or rural district.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I>—A member-owned, not-for-profit cooperative financial institution formed to permit those in the field of membership specified in the charter to save, borrow, and obtain related financial services.
</P>
<P><I>Economic advisability</I>—An overall evaluation of the credit union's or charter applicant's ability to operate successfully.
</P>
<P><I>Emergency merger</I>—Pursuant to Section 205(h) of the Federal Credit Union Act, authority of NCUA to merge two credit unions without regard to common bond policy.
</P>
<P><I>Exclusionary clause</I>—A limitation, written in a credit union's charter, which precludes the credit union from serving a portion of a group which otherwise could be included in its field of membership.
</P>
<P><I>Federal share insurance</I>—Insurance coverage provided by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund and administered by the National Credit Union Administration. Coverage is provided for qualified accounts in all federal credit unions and participating state credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Field of membership</I>—The persons (including organizations and other legal entities) a credit union is permitted to accept for membership.
</P>
<P><I>Household</I>—Persons living in the same residence maintaining a single economic unit.
</P>
<P><I>Housekeeping Amendment</I>—A field of membership amendment to delete groups, change group names, change group locations, remove exclusionary clauses, and to add other persons eligible for credit union membership by virtue of their close relationship to a common bond group or the community for community charters.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I>—A spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild. This includes stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships.
</P>
<P><I>In danger of insolvency</I>—In making the determination that a particular credit union is in danger of insolvency, NCUA will establish that the credit union falls into one or more of the following categories:
</P>
<P>1. The credit union's net worth is declining at a rate that will render it insolvent within 30 months. In projecting future net worth, NCUA may rely on data in addition to Call Report data. The trend must be supported by at least 12 months of historic data.
</P>
<P>2. The credit union's net worth is declining at a rate that will take it under two percent (2%) net worth within 18 months. In projecting future net worth, NCUA may rely on data in addition to Call Report data. The trend must be supported by at least 12 months of historic data.
</P>
<P>3. The credit union's net worth, as self-reported on its Call Report, is significantly undercapitalized, and NCUA determines that there is no reasonable prospect of the credit union becoming adequately capitalized in the succeeding 36 months. In making its determination on the prospect of achieving adequate capitalization, NCUA will assume that, if adverse economic conditions are affecting the value of the credit union's assets and liabilities, including property values and loan delinquencies related to unemployment, these adverse conditions will not further deteriorate.
</P>
<P>4. The credit union has been granted or received assistance under section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1788, in the 15 months prior to the Region's determination that the credit union is in danger of insolvency.
</P>
<P><I>Letter of Understanding and Agreement</I>—Agreement between NCUA and federal credit union officials not to engage in certain activities and/or to establish reasonable operational goals. These are normally entered into with new charter applicants for a limited time.
</P>
<P><I>Mentor</I>—An individual who provides guidance and assistance to newly chartered, small, or low-income credit unions. All new federal credit unions are encouraged to establish a mentor relationship with a trained, experienced credit union individual or an existing credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Statistical Area</I>—The Office of Management and Budget defines a metropolitan statistical area as an urbanized area that has at least one urbanized area in excess of 50,000 and “comprises the central county or counties containing the core, plus adjacent outlying counties having a high degree of social and economic integration with the central county as measured through commuting.”
</P>
<P><I>Merger</I>—Absorption by one credit union of all of the assets, liabilities and equity of another credit union. Mergers must be approved by the National Credit Union Administration and by the appropriate state regulator whenever a state credit union is involved.
</P>
<P><I>Multiple common bond credit union</I>—A credit union whose field of membership consists of more than one group, each of which has a common bond of occupation or association.
</P>
<P><I>Occupational common bond</I>—Employment by the same entity or related entities or a Trade, Industry, or Profession.
</P>
<P><I>Once a member, always a member</I>—A provision of the Federal Credit Union Act which permits an individual to remain a member of the credit union until he or she chooses to withdraw or is expelled from the membership of the credit union. Under this provision, leaving a group that is named in the credit union's charter does not terminate an individual's membership in the credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Organizations of such persons</I>—An organization or organizations composed exclusively of persons who are within the field of membership of the credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Overlap</I>—The situation which results when a group is eligible for membership in more than one credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Primary potential members</I>—Members or employees who belong to an associational or occupational group.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase and assumption</I>—Purchase of all or part of the assets of and assumption of all or part of the liabilities of one credit union by another credit union. The purchased and assumed credit union must first be placed into involuntary liquidation.
</P>
<P><I>Service area</I>—The area that can reasonably be served by the service facilities accessible to the groups within the field of membership.
</P>
<P><I>Service facility</I>—A place where shares are accepted for members' accounts, loan applications are accepted or loans are disbursed. This definition includes a credit union-owned branch, a mobile branch, an office operated on a regularly scheduled weekly basis, a credit union-owned ATM, or a credit union-owned electronic facility that meets, at a minimum, these requirements. A service facility also includes a shared branch or a shared branch network location, including a shared ATM or other electronic facility, if a credit union participates in a shared branching network. For purposes of serving an underserved area: (1) A service facility is a place where shares are accepted for members' accounts, loan applications are accepted, and loans are disbursed; and (2) a service facility does not include an ATM or shared ATM.
</P>
<P>The credit union's internet website is not a service facility.
</P>
<P><I>Single associational common bond credit union</I>—A credit union whose field of membership includes members and employees of a recognized association.
</P>
<P><I>Single common bond credit union</I>—A credit union whose field of membership consists of one group which has a common bond of occupation or association.
</P>
<P><I>Single occupational common bond credit union</I>—A credit union whose field of membership consists of employees of the same entity or related entities or part of a Trade, Industry, or Profession (TIP).
</P>
<P><I>Spin-off</I>—The transfer of a portion of the field of membership, assets, liabilities, shares, and capital of one credit union to a new or existing credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Subscribers</I>—For a federal credit union, at least seven individuals who sign the charter application and pledge at least one share.
</P>
<P><I>Trade, Industry, or Profession (TIP)</I>—A single occupational common bond credit union based on employment in a trade, industry, or profession including employment at any number of corporations or other legal entities that while not under common ownership—have a common bond by virtue of producing similar products, providing similar services, or participating in the same type of business.
</P>
<P><I>Underserved community</I>—A local community, neighborhood, or rural district that is an “investment area” as defined in Section 103(16) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994. The area must also be underserved based on other NCUA and federal banking agency data.
</P>
<P><I>Unsafe or unsound practice</I>—Any action, or lack of action, which would result in an abnormal risk or loss to the credit union, its members, or the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
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<img src="/graphics/er07de16.001.gif"/>
<HD1>Appendix 3
</HD1>
<HD1>NCUA Offices
</HD1>
<FP-1><I>Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion (CURE)</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phone:</I> 703-518-1150
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Fax:</I> 703-518-6672
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Email: DCAMail@NCUA.GOV</I>
</FP-1>
<P>The Divisions of Consumer Access (East, Central, and West) within CURE share the responsibility for chartering and field-of-membership matters, low-income designations, charter conversions, and bylaw amendments.
</P>
<FP-1><I>Eastern Region—Alexandria</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phone:</I> 703-519-4600
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Fax:</I> 703-519-6674
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Email: EasternMail@NCUA.GOV</I>
</FP-1>
<P>States in the Eastern Region include: Connecticut, Delaware, the District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia.
</P>
<FP-1><I>Southern Region—Austin</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>4807 Spicewood Springs Road, Suite 5200, Austin, TX 78759-8490
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phone:</I> 512-342-5600
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Fax:</I> 512-342-5620
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Email: SouthernMail@NCUA.GOV</I>
</FP-1>
<P>States in the Southern Region include: Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Indiana, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, South Carolina, Oklahoma, Tennessee, and Texas, as well as Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<FP-1><I>Western Region—Tempe</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1230 West Washington Street, Suite 301, Tempe, AZ 85281
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Phone:</I> 602-302-6000
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Fax:</I> 602-302-6024
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>Email: WesternMail@NCUA.GOV</I>
</FP-1>
<P>States in the Western Region include: Alaska, Arizona, California, Colorado, Hawaii, Idaho, Illinois, Iowa, Kansas, Minnesota, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, New Mexico, North Dakota, Nevada, Oregon, South Dakota, Utah, Washington, Wisconsin, and Wyoming, as well as Guam.
</P>
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<P> 
</P>
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<HD1>Appendix 5
</HD1>
<HD1>Trades Associations
</HD1>
<FP-1>Credit Union National Association (CUNA)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>www.cuna.org</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P.O. Box 431, Madison, WI 53701, 800-356-9655
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Association of Federally-Insured Credit Unions (NAFCU)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>www.nafcu.org</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>3138 N 10th Street, Suite 300, Arlington, VA 22201-2149, 800-336-4644
</FP-1>
<FP-1>National Association of State Credit Union Supervisors (NASCUS)
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>www.nascus.org</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>1655 North Fort Myer Drive, Suite 650, Arlington, VA 22209, 703-528-8351
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Inclusiv
</FP-1>
<FP-1><I>https://www.inclusiv.org/</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>39 Broadway, Suite 2140, New York, NY 10006-3063, 212-809-1850
</FP-1>
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<img src="/graphics/er28jn18.006.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 88424, Dec. 7, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 50291, Oct. 30, 2017; 82 FR 60290, 60292, Dec. 20, 2017; 83 FR 30295, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 1605, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 56513, Sept. 14, 2020; 85 FR 62210, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 66930, Nov. 24, 2021]



</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="702" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 702—CAPITAL ADEQUACY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757(9), 1766(a), 1784(a), 1786(e), 1790d.










</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 8584, Feb. 18, 2000, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 702 appear at 84 FR 1606, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and other supervisory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subparts A and B of this part and subpart L of part 747 of this chapter are issued by the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) pursuant to sections 120 and 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act (FCUA), 12 U.S.C. 1766 and 1790d (section 1790d), as revised by section 301 of the Credit Union Membership Access Act, Public Law 105-219, 112 Stat. 913 (1998).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The express purpose of prompt corrective action under section 1790d is to resolve the problems of federally insured credit unions at the least possible long-term loss to the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. Subparts A and B of this part carry out the purpose of prompt corrective action by establishing a framework of minimum capital requirements, and mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions applicable according to a credit union's capital classification, designed primarily to restore and improve the capital adequacy of federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> Subparts A and B of this part implement the provisions of section 1790d as they apply to federally insured credit unions, whether federally- or state-chartered; to such credit unions defined as “new” pursuant to section 1790d(b)(2); and to such credit unions defined as “complex” pursuant to section 1790d(d). Certain of these provisions also apply to officers and directors of federally insured credit unions. Subpart C applies capital planning and stress testing to credit unions defined as covered credit unions under § 702.302. This part does not apply to corporate credit unions. Unless otherwise provided, procedures for issuing, reviewing and enforcing orders and directives issued under this part are set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other supervisory authority.</I> Neither section 1790d nor this part in any way limits the authority of the NCUA Board or appropriate state official under any other provision of law to take additional supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of applicable law or regulations. Action taken under this part may be taken independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the NCUA Board or appropriate state official, including issuance of cease and desist orders, orders of prohibition, suspension and removal, or assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015; 85 FR 62210, Oct. 2, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 15401, Mar. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise provided in this part, the terms used in this part have the same meanings as set forth in FCUA sections 101 and 216, 12 U.S.C. 1752, 1790d. All accounting terms not otherwise defined in this section have meanings consistent with the commonly-accepted meanings under United States generally accepted accounting principles (U.S. GAAP). The following definitions apply to this part:
</P>
<P><I>Allowances for loan and lease losses (ALLL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses on loans, lease financing receivables or other extensions of credit as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Amortized cost</I> means the purchase price of a security adjusted for amortizations of premium or accretion of discount if the security was purchased at other than par or face value.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate state official</I> means the state commission, board or other supervisory authority that chartered the affected credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Call Report</I> means the Call Report required to be filed by all credit unions under § 741.6(a)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means the value of the asset or liability on the statement of financial condition of the credit union, determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>CCULR</I> means the complex credit union leverage ratio. It is calculated in the same manner as the net worth ratio under § 702.2.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Charitable donation account</I> means an account that satisfies all of the conditions in § 721.3(b)(2)(i), (b)(2)(ii), and (b)(2)(v) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial loan</I> means any loan, line of credit, or letter of credit (including any unfunded commitments) for commercial, industrial, and professional purposes, but not for investment or personal expenditure purposes. Commercial loan excludes loans to CUSOs, first- or junior-lien residential real estate loans, and consumer loans.
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates the credit union to extend credit, purchase or sell assets, enter into a borrowing agreement, or enter into a financial transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer loan</I> means a loan or lease for household, family, or other personal expenditures, including any loans or leases that, at origination, are wholly or substantially secured by vehicles generally manufactured for personal, family, or household use regardless of the purpose of the loan or lease. Consumer loan excludes commercial loans, loans to CUSOs, first- and junior-lien residential real estate loans, and loans for the purchase of one or more vehicles to be part of a fleet of vehicles.
</P>
<P><I>Contractual compensating balance</I> means the funds a commercial loan borrower must maintain on deposit at the lender credit union as security for the loan in accordance with the loan agreement, subject to a proper account hold and on deposit as of the measurement date.
</P>
<P><I>Credit conversion factor (CCF)</I> means the percentage used to assign a credit exposure equivalent amount for selected off-balance sheet accounts.
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means a federally insured, natural person credit union, whether federally- or state-chartered.
</P>
<P><I>Current</I> means, with respect to any loan or lease, that the loan or lease is less than 90 days past due, not placed on non-accrual status, and not restructured.
</P>
<P><I>CUSO</I> means a credit union service organization as defined in part 712 and 741 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a financial institution that has legal custody of collateral as part of a qualifying master netting agreement, clearing agreement, or other financial agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a financial institution that engages in the business of providing financial services; that is recognized as a bank or a credit union by the supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of its incorporation and the country of its principal banking operations; that receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and that has the power to accept demand deposits. Depository institution includes all federally insured offices of commercial banks, mutual and stock savings banks, savings or building and loan associations (stock and mutual), cooperative banks, credit unions and international banking facilities of domestic depository institutions, and all privately insured state chartered credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract that derives its value from the value and performance of some other underlying financial instrument or variable, such as an index or interest rate.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives Clearing Organization</I> has the meaning as defined by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) in 17 CFR 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Equity investment</I> means investments in equity securities and any other ownership interests, including, for example, investments in partnerships and limited liability companies.
</P>
<P><I>Equity investment in CUSOs</I> means the unimpaired value of the credit union's equity investments in a CUSO as recorded on the statement of financial condition in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange</I> means a central financial clearing market where end users can enter into derivative transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded goodwill</I> means the outstanding balance, maintained in accordance with GAAP, of any goodwill originating from a supervisory merger or combination that was completed on or before December 28, 2015.
</P>
<P><I>Excluded other intangible assets</I> means the outstanding balance, maintained in accordance with GAAP, of any other intangible assets such as core deposit intangible, member relationship intangible, or trade name intangible originating from a supervisory merger or combination that was completed on or before December 28, 2015.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The amortized cost for investments classified as held-to-maturity and available-for-sale, and the fair value for trading securities.
</P>
<P>(2) The outstanding balance for Federal Reserve Bank Stock, Central Liquidity Facility Stock, Federal Home Loan Bank Stock, nonperpetual capital and perpetual contributed capital at corporate credit unions, and equity investments in CUSOs.
</P>
<P>(3) The carrying value for non-CUSO equity investments, and investment funds.
</P>
<P>(4) The carrying value for the credit union's holdings of general account permanent insurance, and separate account insurance.
</P>
<P>(5) The amount calculated under § 702.105 of this part for derivative contracts.
</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> has the same meaning as provided in GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral approved by both the credit union and the counterparty as part of the collateral agreement in recognition of credit risk mitigation for derivative contracts.
</P>
<P><I>First-lien residential real estate loan</I> means a loan or line of credit primarily secured by a first-lien on a one-to-four family residential property where:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union made a reasonable and good faith determination at or before consummation of the loan that the member will have a reasonable ability to repay the loan according to its terms; and
</P>
<P>(2) In transactions where the credit union holds the first-lien and junior lien(s), and no other party holds an intervening lien, for purposes of this part the combined balance will be treated as a single first-lien residential real estate loan.
</P>
<P><I>Forward agreement</I> means a legally binding contractual obligation to purchase assets with certain drawdown at a specified future date, not including commitments to make residential mortgage loans or forward foreign exchange contracts.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles in the United States as set forth in the Financial Accounting Standards Board's (FASB) Accounting Standards Codification (ASC).
</P>
<P><I>General account permanent insurance</I> means an account into which all premiums, except those designated for separate accounts are deposited, including premiums for life insurance and fixed annuities and the fixed portfolio of variable annuities, whereby the general assets of the insurance company support the policy.
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity.
</P>
<P><I>Goodwill</I> means an intangible asset, maintained in accordance with GAAP, representing the future economic benefits arising from other assets acquired in a business combination (e.g., merger) that are not individually identified and separately recognized. Goodwill does not include excluded goodwill.
</P>
<P><I>Government guarantee</I> means a guarantee provided by the U.S. Government, FDIC, NCUA or other U.S. Government agency, or a public sector entity.
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. Government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress, but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government.
</P>
<P><I>Grandfathered Secondary Capital</I> means any secondary capital issued under § 701.34 of this chapter, before January 1, 2022 or, in the case of a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, with § 741.204(c) of this chapter, before January 1, 2022. (12 CFR 701.34 was recodified as § 702.414 as of January 1, 2022). This term also includes issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, irrespective of the date of issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or similar financial instrument that allows one party to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures to another party.
</P>
<P><I>Identified losses</I> means those items that have been determined by an evaluation made by NCUA, or in the case of a state chartered credit union the appropriate state official, as measured on the date of examination in accordance with GAAP, to be chargeable against income, equity or valuation allowances such as the allowances for loan and lease losses. Examples of identified losses would be assets classified as losses, off-balance sheet items classified as losses, any provision expenses that are necessary to replenish valuation allowances to an adequate level, liabilities not shown on the books, estimated losses in contingent liabilities, and differences in accounts that represent shortages.
</P>
<P><I>Industrial development bond</I> means a security issued under the auspices of a state or other political subdivision for the benefit of a private party or enterprise where that party or enterprise, rather than the government entity, is obligated to pay the principal and interest on the obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Intangible assets</I> mean assets, maintained in accordance with GAAP, other than financial assets, that lack physical substance.
</P>
<P><I>Investment fund</I> means an investment with a pool of underlying investment assets. Investment fund includes an investment company that is registered under section 8 of the Investment Company Act of 1940, and collective investment funds or common trust investments that are unregistered investment products that pool fiduciary client assets to invest in a diversified pool of investments.
</P>
<P><I>Junior-lien residential real estate loan</I> means a loan or line of credit secured by a subordinate lien on a one-to-four family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Loan secured by real estate</I> means a loan that, at origination, is secured wholly or substantially by a lien(s) on real property for which the lien(s) is central to the extension of the credit. A lien is “central” to the extension of credit if the borrowers would not have been extended credit in the same amount or on terms as favorable without the liens on real property. For a loan to be “secured wholly or substantially by a lien(s) on real property,” the estimated value of the real estate collateral at origination (after deducting any more senior liens held by others) must be greater than 50 percent of the principal amount of the loan at origination.
</P>
<P><I>Loan to a CUSO</I> means the outstanding balance of any loan from a credit union to a CUSO as recorded on the statement of financial condition in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Loans transferred with limited recourse</I> means the total principal balance outstanding of loans transferred, including participations, for which the transfer qualified for true sale accounting treatment under GAAP, and for which the transferor credit union retained some limited recourse (<I>i.e.,</I> insufficient recourse to preclude true sale accounting treatment). Loans transferred with limited recourse excludes transfers that qualify for true sale accounting treatment but contain only routine representation and warranty clauses that are standard for sales on the secondary market, provided the credit union is in compliance with all other related requirements, such as capital requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security (MBS)</I> means a security backed by first- or junior-lien mortgages secured by real estate upon which is located a dwelling, mixed residential and commercial structure, residential manufactured home, or commercial structure.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage partnership finance program</I> means a Federal Home Loan Bank program through which loans are originated by a depository institution that are purchased or funded by the Federal Home Loan Banks, where the depository institution receives fees for managing the credit risk of the loans. The credit risk must be shared between the depository institution and the Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets</I> mean those assets, maintained in accordance with GAAP, resulting from contracts to service loans secured by real estate (that have been securitized or owned by others) for which the benefits of servicing are expected to more than adequately compensate the servicer for performing the servicing.
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> (MDB) means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member.
</P>
<P><I>NCUSIF</I> means the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund as defined by 12 U.S.C. 1783.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth</I> means, with respect to any federally insured, natural person credit union, as of any date of determination:
</P>
<P>(1) The retained earnings balance of the credit union at the most recent quarter end, as determined in accordance with U.S. GAAP, subject to paragraph (3) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a low-income designated credit union, the outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt treated as Regulatory Capital in accordance with § 702.407, and the outstanding principal amount of Grandfathered Secondary Capital treated as Regulatory Capital in accordance with § 702.414, in each case that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Uninsured; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Subordinate to all other claims against the credit union, including claims of creditors, shareholders, and the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) For a credit union that acquires another credit union in a mutual combination, net worth also includes the retained earnings of the acquired credit union, or of an integrated set of activities and assets, less any bargain purchase gain recognized in either case to the extent the difference between the two is greater than zero. The acquired retained earnings must be determined at the point of acquisition under GAAP. A mutual combination, including a supervisory combination, is a transaction in which a credit union acquires another credit union or acquires an integrated set of activities and assets that is capable of being conducted and managed as a credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “net worth” also includes loans to and accounts in an insured credit union, established pursuant to section 208 of the Act [12 U.S.C. 1788], provided such loans and accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a remaining maturity of more than 5 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are subordinate to all other claims including those of shareholders, creditors, and the NCUSIF;
</P>
<P>(iii) Are not pledged as security on a loan to, or other obligation of, any party;
</P>
<P>(iv) Are not insured by the NCUSIF;
</P>
<P>(v) Have non-cumulative dividends;
</P>
<P>(vi) Are transferable; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Are available to cover operating losses realized by the insured credit union that exceed its available retained earnings.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth ratio</I> means the ratio of the net worth of the credit union to the total assets of the credit union, expressed as a percentage rounded to two decimal places.
</P>
<P><I>New credit union</I> has the same meaning as in § 702.201.
</P>
<P><I>Nonperpetual capital</I> has the same meaning as in § 704.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Non-security beneficial interest</I> is defined as the residual equity interest in the Special Purpose Entity (SPE) that represents a right to receive possible future payments after specified payment amounts are made to third-party investors in the securitized receivables. For purposes of this definition, a SPE means a trust, bankruptcy remote entity or other special purpose entity which is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by the credit union and which is formed for the purpose of, and engages in no material business other than, acting as an issuer or a depositor in a securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Off-balance sheet exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For unfunded commitments, excluding unconditionally cancellable commitments, the remaining unfunded portion of the contractual agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) For loans transferred with limited recourse, or other seller-provided credit enhancements, and that qualify for true sales accounting, the maximum contractual amount the credit union is exposed to according to the agreement, net of any related valuation allowance.
</P>
<P>(3) For loans transferred under the Federal Home Loan Bank (FHLB) mortgage partnership finance program, the outstanding loan balance as of the reporting date, net of any related valuation allowance.
</P>
<P>(4) For financial standby letters of credit, the total potential exposure of the credit union under the contractual agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) For forward agreements that are not derivative contracts, the future contractual obligation amount.
</P>
<P>(6) For sold credit protection through guarantees and credit derivatives, the total potential exposure of the credit union under the contractual agreement.
</P>
<P>(7) For off-balance sheet securitization exposures, the notional amount of the off-balance sheet credit exposure (including any credit enhancements, representations, or warranties that obligate a credit union to protect another party from losses arising from the credit risk of the underlying exposures) that arises from a securitization.
</P>
<P>(8) For securities borrowing or lending transactions, the amount of all securities borrowed or lent against collateral or on an uncollateralized basis.
</P>
<P><I>Off-balance sheet items</I> means off-balance sheet exposures and the off-balance sheet exposure amount of repurchase transactions.
</P>
<P><I>On-balance sheet</I> means a credit union's assets, liabilities, and equity, as disclosed on the statement of financial condition at a specific point in time.
</P>
<P><I>Other intangible assets</I> means intangible assets, other than servicing assets and goodwill, maintained in accordance with GAAP. Other intangible assets does not include excluded other intangible assets.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) interest rate derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not cleared on an exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Part 703 compliant investment fund</I> means an investment fund that is restricted to holding only investments that are permissible under § 703.14(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Perpetual contributed capital</I> has the same meaning as in § 704.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision of the United States below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default, including upon an event of conservatorship, receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the credit union the right to accelerate, terminate, and close out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of conservatorship, receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case, any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than in receivership, conservatorship, resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement for purposes of this part, a credit union must conduct sufficient legal review, at origination and in response to any changes in applicable law, to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from conservatorship, receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P><I>Recourse</I> means a credit union's retention, in form or in substance, of any credit risk directly or indirectly associated with an asset it has transferred that exceeds a <I>pro rata</I> share of that credit union's claim on the asset and disclosed in accordance with GAAP. If a credit union has no claim on an asset it has transferred, then the retention of any credit risk is recourse. A recourse obligation typically arises when a credit union transfers assets in a sale and retains an explicit obligation to repurchase assets or to absorb losses due to a default on the payment of principal or interest or any other deficiency in the performance of the underlying obligor or some other party. Recourse may also exist implicitly if the credit union provides credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has transferred.
</P>
<P><I>Repurchase transactions</I> means either a transaction in which a credit union agrees to sell a security to a counterparty and to repurchase the same or an identical security from that counterparty at a specified future date and at a specified price or a transaction in which an investor agrees to purchase a security from a counterparty and to resell the same or an identical security to that counterparty at a specified future date and at a specified price. The off-balance sheet exposure amount for a repurchase transaction equals all of the positions the credit union has sold or bought subject to repurchase or resale, which equals the sum of the current fair values of all such positions.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage-backed security</I> means a mortgage-backed security backed by loans secured by a first-lien on residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Residential property</I> means a house, condominium unit, cooperative unit, manufactured home, or the construction thereof, and unimproved land zoned for one-to-four family residential use. Residential property excludes boats or motor homes, even if used as a primary residence, or timeshare property.
</P>
<P><I>Restructured</I> means, with respect to any loan, a restructuring of the loan in which a credit union, for economic or legal reasons related to a borrower's financial difficulties, grants a concession to the borrower that it would not otherwise consider. Restructured excludes loans modified or restructured solely pursuant to the U.S. Treasury's Home Affordable Mortgage Program.
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-based capital ratio</I> means the percentage, rounded to two decimal places, of the risk-based capital ratio numerator to risk-weighted assets, as calculated in accordance with § 702.104(a).
</P>
<P><I>Risk-weighted assets</I> means the total risk-weighted assets as calculated in accordance with § 702.104(c).
</P>
<P><I>Secured consumer loan</I> means a consumer loan associated with collateral or other item of value to protect against loss where the creditor has a perfected security interest in the collateral or other item of value.
</P>
<P><I>Senior executive officer</I> means a senior executive officer as defined by § 701.14(b)(2) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Separate account insurance</I> means an account into which a policyholder's cash surrender value is supported by assets segregated from the general assets of the carrier.
</P>
<P><I>Share-secured loan</I> means a loan fully secured by shares, and does not include the imposition of a statutory lien under § 701.39 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Shares</I> means deposits, shares, share certificates, share drafts, or any other depository account authorized by federal or state law.
</P>
<P><I>STRIPS</I> means a separately traded registered interest and principal security.
</P>
<P><I>Structured product</I> means an investment that is linked, via return or loss allocation, to another investment or reference pool.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated</I> means, with respect to an investment, that the investment has a junior claim on the underlying collateral or assets to other investments in the same issuance. An investment that does not have a junior claim to other investments in the same issuance on the underlying collateral or assets is non-subordinated. A Security that is junior only to money market eligible securities in the same issuance is also non-subordinated.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated Debt</I> has the meaning as provided in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisory merger or combination</I> means a transaction that involved the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An assisted merger or purchase and assumption where funds from the NCUSIF were provided to the continuing credit union;
</P>
<P>(2) A merger or purchase and assumption classified by NCUA as an “emergency merger” where the acquired credit union is either insolvent or “in danger of insolvency” as defined under appendix B to Part 701 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) A merger or purchase and assumption that included NCUA's or the appropriate state official's identification and selection of the continuing credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Swap Dealer</I> has the meaning as defined by the CFTC in 17 CFR 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> means a credit union's total assets as measured by either:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Average quarterly balance. The credit union's total assets measured by the average of quarter-end balances of the current and three preceding calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Average monthly balance. The credit union's total assets measured by the average of month-end balances over the three calendar months of the applicable calendar quarter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Average daily balance. The credit union's total assets measured by the average daily balance over the applicable calendar quarter; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Quarter-end balance. The credit union's total assets measured by the quarter-end balance of the applicable calendar quarter as reported on the credit union's Call Report.
</P>
<P>(2) For each quarter, a credit union must elect one of the measures of total assets listed in paragraph (1) of this definition to apply for all purposes under this part except §§ 702.103 through 702.105 (risk-based capital requirement).
</P>
<P>(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of this definition, a credit union may exclude loans pledged as collateral for a non-recourse loan that is provided as part of the Paycheck Protection Program Lending Facility, announced by the Federal Reserve Board on April 7, 2020, from the calculation of total assets for the purpose of calculating its net worth ratio. For the purpose of this provision, a credit union's liability under the Facility must be reduced by the principal amount of the loans pledged as collateral for funds advanced under the Facility.
</P>
<P><I>Trading assets</I> means securities or other assets acquired, not including loans originated by the credit union, for the purpose of selling in the near term or otherwise with the intent to resell in order to profit from short-term price movements. Trading assets would not include shares of a registered investment company or a collective investment fund used for liquidity purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Trading liabilities</I> means the total liability for short positions of securities or other liabilities held for trading purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means one of a number of related securities offered as part of the same transaction. Tranche includes a structured product if it has a loss allocation based off of an investment or reference pool.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means with respect to a commitment, that a credit union may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Unsecured consumer loan</I> means a consumer loan not secured by collateral.
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government agency</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. U.S. Government agency includes NCUA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021; 86 FR 72803, Dec. 23, 2021; 86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021, § 702.2 was amended by revising the definition of “Regulatory Capital”; however, the definition did not exist. The amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.101   Capital measures, capital adequacy, effective date of classification, and notice to NCUA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital measures.</I> For purposes of this part, a credit union must determine its capital classification at the end of each calendar quarter using the following measures:
</P>
<P>(1) The net worth ratio; and
</P>
<P>(2) If determined to be applicable under § 702.103, either the risk-based capital ratio under § 702.104(a) through (c) or the CCULR framework under § 702.104(d).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, a credit union defined as complex must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the institution is exposed.
</P>
<P>(2) A credit union defined as complex must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive written strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date of capital classification.</I> For purposes of this part, the effective date of a federally insured credit union's capital classification shall be the most recent to occur of:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quarter-end effective date.</I> The last day of the calendar month following the end of the calendar quarter;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corrected capital classification.</I> The date the credit union received subsequent written notice from NCUA or, if state-chartered, from the appropriate state official, of a decline in capital classification due to correction of an error or misstatement in the credit union's most recent Call Report; or
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reclassification to lower category.</I> The date the credit union received written notice from NCUA or, if state-chartered, the appropriate state official, of reclassification on safety and soundness grounds as provided under § 702.102(b) or § 702. 202(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to NCUA by filing Call Report.</I> (1) Other than by filing a Call Report, a federally insured credit union need not notify the NCUA Board of a change in its capital measures that places the credit union in a lower capital category;
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to timely file a Call Report as required under this section in no way alters the effective date of a change in capital classification under paragraph (b) of this section, or the affected credit union's corresponding legal obligations under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 72804, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.102   Capital classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital categories.</I> Except for credit unions defined as “new” under subpart B of this part, a credit union shall be deemed to be classified (Table 1 of this section)—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well capitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) <I>Net worth ratio.</I> The credit union has a net worth ratio of 7.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Risk-based capital ratio.</I> The credit union, if complex, has a risk-based capital ratio of 10 percent or greater; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Complex credit union leverage ratio.</I> (A) The complex credit union is a qualifying complex credit union that has opted into the CCULR framework under § 702.104(d) and it has a CCULR of 9.0 percent or greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) The complex credit union is a qualifying complex credit union that has opted into the CCULR framework under § 702.104(d), is in the grace period, as defined in § 702.104(d)(7), and has a CCULR of 7.0 percent or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adequately capitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net worth ratio.</I> The credit union has a net worth ratio of 6.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-based capital ratio.</I> The credit union, if complex, has a risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not meet the definition of a well capitalized credit union.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Undercapitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net worth ratio.</I> The credit union has a net worth ratio of 4.0 percent or more but less than 6.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-based capital ratio.</I> The credit union, if complex, has a risk-based capital ratio of less than 8.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Significantly undercapitalized</I> if:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit union has a net worth ratio of 2.0 percent or more but less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit union has a net worth ratio of 4.0 percent or more but less than 5.0 percent, and either—
</P>
<P>(A) Fails to submit an acceptable net worth restoration plan within the time prescribed in § 702.110;
</P>
<P>(B) Materially fails to implement a net worth restoration plan approved by the NCUA Board; or
</P>
<P>(C) Receives notice that a submitted net worth restoration plan has not been approved.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Critically undercapitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of less than 2.0 percent.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 702.102—Capital Categories
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Capital classification
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Net worth ratio
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Risk-based capital
<br/>ratio, if applicable
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CCULR, if
<br/>applicable
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And subject to following
<br/>condition(s) . . .
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Well Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7% or greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">And</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10% or greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Or</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">9% or greater *
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adequately Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6% or greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">And</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">8% or greater</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Or</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">And does not meet the criteria to be classified as well capitalized.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Undercapitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4% to 5.99%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Or</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 8%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Or</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Significantly Undercapitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% to 3.99%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Or if “undercapitalized at &lt;5% net worth and (a) fails to timely submit, (b) fails to materially implement, or (c) receives notice of the rejection of a net worth restoration plan.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Critically Undercapitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 2%</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>*</sup> A qualifying complex credit union opting into the CCULR framework should refer to 12 CFR 702.104(d)(7) if its CCULR falls below 9.0 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than net worth.</I> The NCUA Board may reclassify a well capitalized credit union as adequately capitalized and may require an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized credit union to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if it were classified in the next lower capital category (each of such actions hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassification”) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> The NCUA Board has determined, after providing the credit union with notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 747.2003 of this chapter, that the credit union is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> The NCUA Board has determined, after providing the credit union with notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 747.2003 of this chapter, that the credit union has not corrected a material unsafe or unsound practice of which it was, or should have been, aware.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-delegation.</I> The NCUA Board may not delegate its authority to reclassify a credit union under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultation with state officials.</I> The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before reclassifying a federally insured state-chartered credit union under paragraph (b) of this section, and shall promptly notify the appropriate state official of its decision to reclassify.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 72804, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.103   Applicability of risk-based capital measures.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of § 702.102, a credit union is defined as “complex” and a risk-based capital measure is applicable only if the credit union's quarter-end total assets exceed five hundred million dollars ($500,000,000), as reflected in its most recent Call Report. A complex credit union may calculate its risk-based capital measure either by using the risk-based capital ratio under § 702.104(a) through (c), or, for a qualifying complex credit union opting into the CCULR framework, by using the CCULR framework under § 702.104(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 72805, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.104   Risk-based capital ratio.</HEAD>
<P>A complex credit union must calculate its risk-based capital measure in accordance with this section. A complex credit union may calculate its risk-based capital measure either by using the risk-based capital ratio under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, or, for a qualifying complex credit union opting into the CCULR framework, by using the CCULR framework under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Calculation of the risk-based capital ratio.</I> To determine its risk-based capital ratio, a complex credit union must calculate the percentage, rounded to two decimal places, of its risk-based capital ratio numerator as described in paragraph (b) of this section, to its total risk-weighted assets as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk-based capital ratio numerator.</I> The risk-based capital ratio numerator is the sum of the specific capital elements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, minus the regulatory adjustments in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital elements of the risk-based capital ratio numerator.</I> The capital elements of the risk-based capital numerator are:
</P>
<P>(i) Undivided earnings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriation for non-conforming investments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Other reserves;
</P>
<P>(iv) Equity acquired in merger;
</P>
<P>(v) Net income
</P>
<P>(vi) ALLL, maintained in accordance with GAAP;
</P>
<P>(vii) The outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt treated as Regulatory Capital in accordance with § 702.407 and the outstanding principal amount of Grandfathered Secondary Capital treated as Regulatory Capital in accordance with § 702.414; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 208 assistance included in net worth (as defined in § 702.2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-based capital ratio numerator deductions.</I> The elements deducted from the sum of the capital elements of the risk-based capital ratio numerator are:
</P>
<P>(i) NCUSIF Capitalization Deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Goodwill;
</P>
<P>(iii) Other intangible assets; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Identified losses not reflected in the risk-based capital ratio numerator; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mortgage servicing assets that exceed 25 percent of the sum of the capital elements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, less deductions required under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) thorough (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Risk-weighted assets includes risk- weighted on-balance sheet assets as described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section, plus the risk-weighted off-balance sheet assets in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, plus the risk-weighted derivatives in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, less the risk-based capital ratio numerator deductions in paragraph (b)(2) of this section. If a particular asset, derivative contract, or off balance sheet item has features or characteristics that suggest it could potentially fit into more than one risk weight category, then a credit union shall assign the asset, derivative contract, or off balance sheet item to the risk weight category that most accurately and appropriately reflects its associated credit risk.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk weights for on-balance sheet assets.</I> The risk categories and weights for assets of a complex credit union are as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Category 1—zero percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a zero percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) The balance of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cash, currency and coin, including vault, automatic teller machine, and teller cash.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) share-secured loans, where the shares securing the loan are on deposit with the credit union.
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An obligation of the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed, excluding detached security coupons, ex-coupon securities, and interest-only mortgage-backed-security STRIPS.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Federal Reserve Bank stock and Central Liquidity Facility stock.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An obligation of the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(C) Insured balances due from FDIC-insured depositories or federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P>(D) Covered loans issued under the Small Business Administration's Paycheck Protection Program, 15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Category 2—20 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 20 percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) The uninsured balances due from FDIC-insured depositories, federally insured credit unions, and all balances due from privately-insured credit unions.
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A non-subordinated obligation of the U.S. Government, its central bank, or a U.S. Government agency that is conditionally guaranteed, excluding interest-only mortgage-backed-security STRIPS.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A non-subordinated obligation of a GSE other than an equity exposure or preferred stock, excluding interest-only GSE mortgage-backed-security STRIPS.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Securities issued by PSEs that represent general obligation securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Part 703 compliant investment funds that are restricted to holding only investments that qualify for a zero or 20 percent risk-weight under this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Federal Home Loan Bank stock.
</P>
<P>(C) The balances due from Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P>(D) The balance of share-secured loans, where the shares securing the loan are on deposit with another depository institution.
</P>
<P>(E) The portions of outstanding loans with a government guarantee.
</P>
<P>(F) The portions of commercial loans secured with contractual compensating balances.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Category 3—50 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 50 percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) The outstanding balance (net of government guarantees), including loans held for sale, of current first-lien residential real estate loans less than or equal to 35 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities issued by PSEs in the U.S. that represent non-subordinated revenue obligation securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Other non-subordinated, non-U.S. Government agency or non-GSE guaranteed, residential mortgage-backed security, excluding interest-only mortgage-backed security STRIPS.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Category 4—75 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 75 percent risk weight to the outstanding balance (net of government guarantees), including loans held for sale, of:
</P>
<P>(A) Current first-lien residential real estate loans greater than 35 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(B) Current secured consumer loans.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Category 5—100 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 100 percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) The outstanding balance (net of government guarantees), including loans held for sale, of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) First-lien residential real estate loans that are not current.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Current junior-lien residential real estate loans less than or equal to 20 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Current unsecured consumer loans.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Current commercial loans, less contractual compensating balances that comprise less than 50 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Loans to CUSOs.
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Industrial development bonds.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Interest-only mortgage-backed security STRIPS.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Part 703 compliant investment funds, with the option to use the look-through approaches in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Corporate debentures and commercial paper.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Nonperpetual capital at corporate credit unions.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) General account permanent insurance.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) GSE equity exposure or preferred stock.
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) Non-subordinated tranches of any investment, with the option to use the gross-up approach in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>9</I>) Natural person credit union Subordinated Debt, Grandfathered Secondary Capital, and loans or obligations issued by a privately insured credit union that are subordinate to the private insurer.
</P>
<P>(C) All other assets listed on the statement of financial condition not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Category 6—150 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 150 percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(A) The outstanding balance, net of government guarantees and including loans held for sale, of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Current junior-lien residential real estate loans that comprise more than 20 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Junior-lien residential real estate loans that are not current.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Consumer loans that are not current.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Current commercial loans (net of contractual compensating balances), which comprise more than 50 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Commercial loans (net of contractual compensating balances), which are not current.
</P>
<P>(B) The exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Perpetual contributed capital at corporate credit unions.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Equity investments in CUSOs.
</P>
<P>(vii) Category 7—250 percent risk weight. A credit union must assign a 250 percent risk weight to the carrying value of mortgage servicing assets not deducted from the risk-based capital numerator pursuant to § 702.104(b).
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Category 8—300 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 300 percent risk weight to the exposure amount of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded equity investments, other than a CUSO investment.
</P>
<P>(B) Investment funds that do not meet the requirements under § 703.14(c) of this chapter, with the option to use the look-through approaches in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) Separate account insurance, with the option to use the look-through approaches in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Category 9</I>—400 percent risk weight. A credit union must assign a 400 percent risk weight to the exposure amount of non-publicly traded equity investments, other than equity investments in CUSOs.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Category 10—1,250 percent risk weight.</I> A credit union must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the exposure amount of any subordinated tranche of any investment, with the option to use the gross-up approach in paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A) of this section. However, a credit union may not use the gross-up approach for non-security beneficial interests.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative risk weights for certain on-balance sheet assets</I>—(i) <I>Non-significant equity exposures</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding the risk weights assigned in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a credit union must assign a 100 percent risk weight to non-significant equity exposures.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Determination of non-significant equity exposures.</I> A credit union has non-significant equity exposures if the aggregate amount of its equity exposures does not exceed 10 percent of the sum of the credit union's capital elements of the risk-based capital ratio numerator (as defined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section).
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Determination of the aggregate amount of equity exposures.</I> When determining the aggregate amount of its equity exposures, a credit union must include the total amounts (as recorded on the statement of financial condition in accordance with GAAP) of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Equity investments in CUSOs,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perpetual contributed capital at corporate credit unions,
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Nonperpetual capital at corporate credit unions, and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Equity investments subject to a risk weight in excess of 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Charitable donation accounts.</I> Notwithstanding the risk weights assigned in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a credit union may assign a 100 percent risk weight to a charitable donation account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Alternative approaches.</I> Notwithstanding the risk weights assigned in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a credit union may determine the risk weight of investment funds, and non-subordinated or subordinated tranches of any investment as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Gross-up approach.</I> A credit union may use the gross-up approach under appendix A of this part to determine the risk weight of the carrying value of non-subordinated or subordinated tranches of any investment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Look-through approaches.</I> A credit union may use one of the look-through approaches under appendix A of this part to determine the risk weight of the exposure amount of any investment funds, the holdings of separate account insurance, or both.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk weights for off-balance sheet items.</I> The risk weighted amounts for all off-balance sheet items are determined by multiplying the off-balance sheet exposure amount by the appropriate CCF and the assigned risk weight as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For the outstanding balance of loans transferred to a Federal Home Loan Bank under the mortgage partnership finance program, a 20 percent CCF and a 50 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(ii) For other loans transferred with limited recourse, a 100 percent CCF applied to the off-balance sheet exposure and:
</P>
<P>(A) For commercial loans, a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(B) For first-lien residential real estate loans, a 50 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(C) For junior-lien residential real estate loans, a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(D) For all secured consumer loans, a 75 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(E) For all unsecured consumer loans, a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(iii) For unfunded commitments:
</P>
<P>(A) For a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable, a 0 percent CCF.
</P>
<P>(B) For commercial loans, a 50 percent CCF with a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(C) For first-lien residential real estate loans, a 10 percent CCF with a 50 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(D) For junior-lien residential real estate loans, a 10 percent CCF with a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(E) For all secured consumer loans, a 10 percent CCF with a 75 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(F) For all unsecured consumer loans, a 10 percent CCF with a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(iv) For financial standby letter of credits, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(v) For forward agreements that are not derivative contracts, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(vi) For sold credit protection through guarantees and credit derivatives, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight for guarantees; for credit derivatives the risk weight is determined by the applicable provisions of 12 CFR 324.34 or 324.35.
</P>
<P>(vii) For off-balance sheet securitization exposures, a 100 percent CCF, and the risk weight is determined as if the exposure is an on-balance sheet securitization exposure.
</P>
<P>(viii) For securities borrowing or lending transactions, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight. A credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral, as defined under 12 CFR 324.2, by risk weighting the collateralized portion of the exposure under the applicable provisions of 12 CFR 324.35 or 324.37.
</P>
<P>(ix) For the off-balance sheet portion of repurchase transactions, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight. A credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral, as defined by 12 CFR 324.2, by risk weighting the collateralized portion of the exposure under the applicable provisions of 12 CFR 324.35 or 324.37.
</P>
<P>(x) For all other off-balance sheet exposures not explicitly provided a CCF or risk weight in this paragraph (c) that meet the definition of a commitment, a 100 percent CCF and a 100 percent risk weight.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Derivative contracts.</I> A complex credit union must assign a risk-weighted amount to any derivative contracts as determined under § 702.105.
</P>
<P>(6) Asset Securitizations Issued by Complex Credit Unions. A credit union must follow the requirements of the applicable provisions of 12 CFR 324.41 when it transfers exposures in connection with a securitization. A credit union may only exclude the transferred exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets if each condition in 12 CFR 324.41 is satisfied. A credit union that meets these conditions, but retains any credit risk for the transferred exposures, must hold risk-based capital against the credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complex Credit Union Leverage Ratio (CCULR) Framework</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A qualifying complex credit union that has opted into the CCULR framework under paragraph (d)(5) of this section is considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 702.102(a)(1) if it has a CCULR of 9.0 percent or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualifying Complex Credit Union.</I> For purposes of this part, a qualifying complex credit union means a complex credit union under § 702.103 that satisfies all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a CCULR of 9.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has total off-balance sheet exposures of 25 percent or less of its total assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has the sum of total trading assets and total trading liabilities of 5 percent or less of its total assets; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Has the sum of total goodwill and total other intangible assets of 2 percent or less of its total assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of Qualifying Criteria.</I> Each of the qualifying criteria in paragraph (d)(2) of this section is calculated based on data reported in the Call Report as of the end of the most recent calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Calculation of the CCULR.</I> A qualifying complex credit union opting into the CCULR framework under this paragraph (d) calculates its CCULR in the same manner as its net worth ratio under § 702.2.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Opting into the CCULR Framework.</I> (i) A qualifying complex credit union may opt into the CCULR framework by completing the applicable reporting requirements of its Call Report.
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualifying complex credit union can opt into the CCULR framework at the end of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Opting Out of the CCULR Framework.</I> (i) A qualifying complex credit union may voluntarily opt out of the framework at the end of each calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Treatment when ceasing to meet the qualifying complex credit union requirements.</I> (i) If a qualifying complex credit union that has opted into the CCULR framework ceases to meet the qualifying criteria in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the credit union has two calendar quarters (grace period) either to satisfy the requirements to be a qualifying complex credit union or to calculate its risk-based capital ratio under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The grace period begins at the end of the calendar quarter in which the credit union no longer satisfies the criteria to be a qualifying complex credit union. The grace period ends on the last day of the second consecutive calendar quarter following the beginning of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(iii) During the grace period, the credit union continues to be treated as a qualifying complex credit union for the purpose of this part and must continue calculating and reporting its CCULR, unless the qualifying complex credit union has opted out of using the CCULR framework under paragraph (d)(6) of this section. The qualifying complex credit union also continues to be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 702.102(a)(1). However, if the qualifying complex credit union has a CCULR of less than seven percent, it will not be considered to have met the capital ratio requirements for the well capitalized capital category under § 702.102(a)(1) and its capital classification is determined by its net worth ratio.
</P>
<P>(iv) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(v) A qualifying complex credit union that ceases to meet the qualifying criteria in paragraph (d)(2) of this section as a result of a merger or acquisition that is not a supervisory merger or combination has no grace period and must comply with the risk-based capital ratio under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section in the quarter it ceases to be a qualifying complex credit union.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> The NCUA may require a complex credit union that otherwise would meet the definition of a qualifying complex credit union to comply with the risk-based capital ratio under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section if the NCUA determines that the complex credit union's capital requirements under paragraph (d) of this section are not commensurate with its risks. Any credit union required to comply with the risk-based capital ratio under this paragraph (e), would be permitted a minimum of a two-quarter grace period before being subject to risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021; 86 FR 72805, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.105   Derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>OTC interest rate derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Exposure amount</I>—(i) <I>Single OTC interest rate derivative contract.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the exposure amount for a single OTC interest rate derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the credit union's current credit exposure and potential future credit exposure (PFE) on the OTC interest rate derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Current credit exposure.</I> The current credit exposure for a single OTC interest rate derivative contract is the greater of the fair value of the OTC interest rate derivative contract or zero.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>PFE.</I> (<I>1</I>) The PFE for a single OTC interest rate derivative contract, including an OTC interest rate derivative contract with a negative fair value, is calculated by multiplying the notional principal amount of the OTC interest rate derivative contract by the appropriate conversion factor in Table 1 of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2)</I> A credit union must use an OTC interest rate derivative contract's effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the OTC interest rate derivative contract) rather than the apparent or stated notional principal amount in calculating PFE.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 702.105—Conversion Factor Matrix for Interest Rate Derivative Contracts 
<sup>2</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Conversion
<br/>factor
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than one year and less than or equal to five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.005
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.015
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Non-interest rate derivative contracts are addressed in paragraph (d) of this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiple OTC interest rate derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.</I> Except as modified by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the exposure amount for multiple OTC interest rate derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement is equal to the sum of the net current credit exposure and the adjusted sum of the PFE amounts for all OTC interest rate derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Net current credit exposure.</I> The net current credit exposure is the greater of the net sum of all positive and negative fair value of the individual OTC interest rate derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement or zero.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Adjusted sum of the PFE amounts (Anet).</I> The adjusted sum of the PFE amounts is calculated as Anet = (0.4 × Agross) + (0.6 × NGR × Agross), where:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Agross equals the gross PFE (that is, the sum of the PFE amounts as determined under paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section for each individual derivative contract subject to the qualifying master netting agreement); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Net-to-gross Ratio (NGR) equals the ratio of the net current credit exposure to the gross current credit exposure. In calculating the NGR, the gross current credit exposure equals the sum of the positive current credit exposures (as determined under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section) of all individual derivative contracts subject to the qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> A credit union may recognize credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC derivative contract or multiple OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) by following the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cleared transactions for interest rate derivatives</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> A credit union must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a credit union must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A credit union's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> For a cleared transaction the trade exposure amount equals:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts, calculated using the methodology used to calculate exposure amount for OTC interest rate derivative contracts under paragraph (a) of this section; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The fair value of the collateral posted by the credit union and held by the, clearing member, or custodian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> A credit union must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(i) Two percent if the collateral posted by the credit union to the DCO or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any losses to the credit union due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member credit union has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Four percent if the requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(i) are not met.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized OTC derivative contracts.</I> A credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures a cleared derivative contract by following the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recognition of credit risk mitigation of collateralized interest rate derivative contracts.</I> (1) A credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an OTC interest rate derivative contract or multiple interest rate derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement (netting set) or clearing arrangement by using the simple approach in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the simple approach, a credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures such a contract or netting set if the financial collateral is marked-to-fair value on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement by applying a risk weight to the exposure as if it were uncollateralized and adjusting the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section using the collateral approach in paragraph (c)(3) of this section. The credit union must substitute the exposure amount calculated under paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section in the equation in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collateralized transactions</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A credit union may use the approach in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section to recognize the risk-mitigating effects of financial collateral.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Simple collateralized derivatives approach.</I> To qualify for the simple approach, the financial collateral must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral must be subject to a collateral agreement for at least the life of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral must be revalued at least every six months; and
</P>
<P>(C) The collateral and the exposure must be denominated in the same currency.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Risk weight substitution.</I> (A) A credit union may apply a risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is secured by the fair value of financial collateral (that meets the requirements for the simple collateralized approach of this section) based on the risk weight assigned to the collateral as established under § 702.104(c).
</P>
<P>(B) A credit union must apply a risk weight to the unsecured portion of the exposure based on the risk weight applicable to the exposure under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exceptions to the 20 percent risk weight floor and other requirements.</I> Notwithstanding the simple collateralized derivatives approach in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit union may assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to a derivatives contract that is marked-to-market on a daily basis and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent the contract is collateralized by cash on deposit.
</P>
<P>(B) A credit union may assign a 10 percent risk weight to an exposure to a derivatives contract that is marked-to-market daily and subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement, to the extent that the contract is collateralized by an exposure that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 702.104(c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(v) A credit union may assign a zero percent risk weight to the collateralized portion of an exposure where:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial collateral is cash on deposit; or
</P>
<P>(B) The financial collateral is an exposure that qualifies for a zero percent risk weight under § 702.104(c)(2)(i), and the credit union has discounted the fair value of the collateral by 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral haircut approach.</I> (i) A credit union may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures a collateralized derivative contract by using the standard supervisory haircuts in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral haircut approach applies to both OTC and cleared interest rate derivatives contracts discussed in this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit union must determine the exposure amount for a collateralized derivative contracts by setting the exposure amount equal to the max {0,[(exposure amount − value of collateral) + (sum of current fair value of collateral instruments * market price volatility haircut of the collateral instruments)]}, where:
</P>
<P>(A) The value of the exposure equals the exposure amount for OTC interest rate derivative contracts (or netting set) calculated under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The value of the exposure equals the exposure amount for cleared interest rate derivative contracts (or netting set) calculated under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The value of the collateral is the sum of cash and all instruments under the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<P>(D) The sum of current fair value of collateral instruments as of the measurement date.
</P>
<P>(E) A credit union must use the standard supervisory haircuts for market price volatility in Table 2 to this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 702.105—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Based on a 10 business-day holding period]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Collateral risk weight
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">Zero
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2">25.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>All other derivative contracts and transactions.</I> Credit unions must follow the requirements of the applicable provisions of 12 CFR part 324, when assigning risk weights to exposure amounts for derivatives contracts not addressed in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.106   Prompt corrective action for adequately capitalized credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Beginning on the effective date of classification as adequately capitalized or lower, a federally insured credit union must increase the dollar amount of its net worth quarterly either in the current quarter, or on average over the current and three preceding quarters, by an amount equivalent to at least 1/10th percent (0.1%) of its total assets (or more by choice), until it is well capitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decrease in retention.</I> Upon written application received no later than 14 days before the quarter end, the NCUA Board, on a case-by-case basis, may permit a credit union to increase the dollar amount of its net worth by an amount that is less than the amount required under paragraph (a) of this section, to the extent the NCUA Board determines that such lesser amount:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is necessary to avoid a significant redemption of shares; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Would further the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, from February 28, 2022, until March 31, 2023, for a credit union that is adequately capitalized:
</P>
<P>(i) The NCUA Board may issue an administrative order specifying temporary revisions to the earnings retention requirement, to the extent the NCUA Board determines that such lesser amount—
</P>
<P>(A) Is necessary to avoid a significant redemption of shares; and
</P>
<P>(B) Would further the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Despite the issuance of an administrative order under paragraph (b)(2) of the section, the Regional Director may require a credit union to submit an earnings retention waiver under paragraph (b)(1) if the credit union poses an undue risk the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or exhibits material safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decrease by FISCU.</I> The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before permitting a federally insured state-chartered credit union to decrease its earnings retention under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Periodic review.</I> A decision under paragraph (b) of this section to permit a credit union to decrease its earnings retention is subject to quarterly review and revocation except when the credit union is operating under an approved net worth restoration plan that provides for decreasing its earnings retention as provided under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 87 FR 10950, Feb. 28, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.107   Prompt corrective action for undercapitalized credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions by credit union.</I> A credit union which is undercapitalized must—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Increase net worth in accordance with § 702.106;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submit net worth restoration plan.</I> Submit a net worth restoration plan pursuant to § 702.111, <I>provided however,</I> that a credit union in this category having a net worth ratio of less than five percent (5%) which fails to timely submit such a plan, or which materially fails to implement an approved plan, is classified significantly undercapitalized pursuant to § 702.102(a)(4)(i);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrict increase in assets.</I> Beginning the effective date of classification as undercapitalized or lower, not permit the credit union's assets to increase beyond its total assets for the preceding quarter unless—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Plan approved.</I> The NCUA Board has approved a net worth restoration plan which provides for an increase in total assets and—
</P>
<P>(A) The assets of the credit union are increasing consistent with the approved plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit union is implementing steps to increase the net worth ratio consistent with the approved plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Plan not approved.</I> The NCUA Board has not approved a net worth restoration plan and total assets of the credit union are increasing because of increases since quarter-end in balances of:
</P>
<P>(A) Total accounts receivable and accrued income on loans and investments; or
</P>
<P>(B) Total cash and cash equivalents; or
</P>
<P>(C) Total loans outstanding, not to exceed the sum of total assets plus the quarter-end balance of unused commitments to lend and unused lines of credit provided however that a credit union which increases a balance as permitted under paragraphs (a)(3)(ii)(A), (B) or (C) of this section cannot offer rates on shares in excess of prevailing rates on shares in its relevant market area, and cannot open new branches;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Restrict member business loans.</I> Beginning the effective date of classification as undercapitalized or lower, not increase the total dollar amount of member business loans (defined as loans outstanding and unused commitments to lend) as of the preceding quarter-end unless it is granted an exception under 12 U.S.C. 1757a(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Second tier discretionary supervisory actions by NCUA.</I> Subject to the applicable procedures for issuing, reviewing and enforcing directives set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter, the NCUA Board may, by directive, take one or more of the following actions with respect to an undercapitalized credit union having a net worth ratio of less than five percent (5%), or a director, officer or employee of such a credit union, if it determines that those actions are necessary to carry out the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requiring prior approval for acquisitions, branching, new lines of business.</I> Prohibit a credit union from, directly or indirectly, acquiring any interest in any business entity or financial institution, establishing or acquiring any additional branch office, or engaging in any new line of business, unless the NCUA Board has approved the credit union's net worth restoration plan, the credit union is implementing its plan, and the NCUA Board determines that the proposed action is consistent with and will further the objectives of that plan;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricting transactions with and ownership of a CUSO.</I> Restrict the credit union's transactions with a CUSO, or require the credit union to reduce or divest its ownership interest in a CUSO;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restricting dividends paid.</I> Restrict the dividend rates the credit union pays on shares to the prevailing rates paid on comparable accounts and maturities in the relevant market area, as determined by the NCUA Board, except that dividend rates already declared on shares acquired before imposing a restriction under this paragraph may not be retroactively restricted;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Prohibiting or reducing asset growth.</I> Prohibit any growth in the credit union's assets or in a category of assets, or require the credit union to reduce its assets or a category of assets;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alter, reduce or terminate activity.</I> Require the credit union or its CUSO to alter, reduce, or terminate any activity which poses excessive risk to the credit union;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prohibiting nonmember deposits.</I> Prohibit the credit union from accepting all or certain nonmember deposits;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Dismissing director or senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, <I>provided however,</I> that a dismissal under this clause shall not be construed to be a formal administrative action for removal under 12 U.S.C. 1786(g);
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Employing qualified senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to employ qualified senior executive officers (who, if the NCUA Board so specifies, shall be subject to its approval); and
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Other action to carry out prompt corrective action.</I> Restrict or require such other action by the credit union as the NCUA Board determines will carry out the purpose of this part better than any of the actions prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First tier application of discretionary supervisory actions.</I> An undercapitalized credit union having a net worth ratio of five percent (5%) or more, or which is classified undercapitalized by reason of failing to maintain a risk-based capital ratio equal to or greater than 8 percent under § 702.104, is subject to the discretionary supervisory actions in paragraph (b) of this section if it fails to comply with any mandatory supervisory action in paragraph (a) of this section or fails to timely implement an approved net worth restoration plan under § 702.111, including meeting its prescribed steps to increase its net worth ratio.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.108" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.108   Prompt corrective action for significantly undercapitalized credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions by credit union.</I> A credit union which is significantly undercapitalized must—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Increase net worth in accordance with § 702.106;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submit net worth restoration plan.</I> Submit a net worth restoration plan pursuant to § 702.111;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrict increase in assets.</I> Not permit the credit union's total assets to increase except as provided in § 702.107(a)(3); and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Restrict member business loans.</I> Not increase the total dollar amount of member business loans (defined as loans outstanding and unused commitments to lend) as provided in § 702.107(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions by NCUA.</I> Subject to the applicable procedures for issuing, reviewing and enforcing directives set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter, the NCUA Board may, by directive, take one or more of the following actions with respect to any significantly undercapitalized credit union, or a director, officer or employee of such credit union, if it determines that those actions are necessary to carry out the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requiring prior approval for acquisitions, branching, new lines of business.</I> Prohibit a credit union from, directly or indirectly, acquiring any interest in any business entity or financial institution, establishing or acquiring any additional branch office, or engaging in any new line of business, except as provided in § 702.107(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricting transactions with and ownership of CUSO.</I> Restrict the credit union's transactions with a CUSO, or require the credit union to divest or reduce its ownership interest in a CUSO;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restricting dividends paid.</I> Restrict the dividend rates that the credit union pays on shares as provided in § 702.107(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Prohibiting or reducing asset growth.</I> Prohibit any growth in the credit union's assets or in a category of assets, or require the credit union to reduce assets or a category of assets;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alter, reduce or terminate activity.</I> Require the credit union or its CUSO(s) to alter, reduce, or terminate any activity which poses excessive risk to the credit union;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prohibiting nonmember deposits.</I> Prohibit the credit union from accepting all or certain nonmember deposits;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>New election of directors.</I> Order a new election of the credit union's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dismissing director or senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, <I>provided however,</I> that a dismissal under this clause shall not be construed to be a formal administrative action for removal under 12 U.S.C. 1786(g);
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Employing qualified senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to employ qualified senior executive officers (who, if the NCUA Board so specifies, shall be subject to its approval);
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Restricting senior executive officers' compensation.</I> Except with the prior written approval of the NCUA Board, limit compensation to any senior executive officer to that officer's average rate of compensation (excluding bonuses and profit sharing) during the four (4) calendar quarters preceding the effective date of classification of the credit union as significantly undercapitalized, and prohibit payment of a bonus or profit share to such officer;
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Other actions to carry out prompt corrective action.</I> Restrict or require such other action by the credit union as the NCUA Board determines will carry out the purpose of this part better than any of the actions prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Requiring merger.</I> Require the credit union to merge with another financial institution if one or more grounds exist for placing the credit union into conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), or into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discretionary conservatorship or liquidation if no prospect of becoming adequately capitalized.</I> Notwithstanding any other actions required or permitted to be taken under this section, when a credit union becomes significantly undercapitalized (including by reclassification under § 702.102(b)), the NCUA Board may place the credit union into conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), or into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(i), provided that the credit union has no reasonable prospect of becoming adequately capitalized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.109" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.109   Prompt corrective action for critically undercapitalized credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions by credit union.</I> A credit union which is critically undercapitalized must—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Increase net worth in accordance with § 702.106;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submit net worth restoration plan.</I> Submit a net worth restoration plan pursuant to § 702.111;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrictions on payments on Subordinated Debt.</I> Beginning 60 days after the effective date of a federally insured, natural person credit union being classified by the NCUA as “critically undercapitalized”, that credit union shall not pay principal of or interest on its Subordinated Debt, except that unpaid interest shall continue to accrue under the terms of the related Subordinated Debt Note (as defined in subpart D of this part), to the extent permitted by law;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Restrict increase in assets.</I> Not permit the credit union's total assets to increase except as provided in § 702.107(a)(3); and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Restrict member business loans.</I> Not increase the total dollar amount of member business loans (defined as loans outstanding and unused commitments to lend) as provided in § 702.107(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions by NCUA.</I> Subject to the applicable procedures for issuing, reviewing and enforcing directives set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter, the NCUA Board may, by directive, take one or more of the following actions with respect to any critically undercapitalized credit union, or a director, officer or employee of such credit union, if it determines that those actions are necessary to carry out the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requiring prior approval for acquisitions, branching, new lines of business.</I> Prohibit a credit union from, directly or indirectly, acquiring any interest in any business entity or financial institution, establishing or acquiring any additional branch office, or engaging in any new line of business, except as provided by § 702.107(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricting transactions with and ownership of CUSO.</I> Restrict the credit union's transactions with a CUSO, or require the credit union to divest or reduce its ownership interest in a CUSO;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restricting dividends paid.</I> Restrict the dividend rates that the credit union pays on shares as provided in § 702.107(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Prohibiting or reducing asset growth.</I> Prohibit any growth in the credit union's assets or in a category of assets, or require the credit union to reduce assets or a category of assets;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alter, reduce or terminate activity.</I> Require the credit union or its CUSO(s) to alter, reduce, or terminate any activity which poses excessive risk to the credit union;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prohibiting nonmember deposits.</I> Prohibit the credit union from accepting all or certain nonmember deposits;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>New election of directors.</I> Order a new election of the credit union's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Dismissing director or senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, <I>provided however,</I> that a dismissal under this clause shall not be construed to be a formal administrative action for removal under 12 U.S.C. 1786(g);
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Employing qualified senior executive officer.</I> Require the credit union to employ qualified senior executive officers (who, if the NCUA Board so specifies, shall be subject to its approval);
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Restricting senior executive officers' compensation.</I> Reduce or, with the prior written approval of the NCUA Board, limit compensation to any senior executive officer to that officer's average rate of compensation (excluding bonuses and profit sharing) during the four (4) calendar quarters preceding the effective date of classification of the credit union as critically undercapitalized, and prohibit payment of a bonus or profit share to such officer;
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Restrictions on payments on Grandfathered Secondary Capital.</I> Beginning 60 days after the effective date of classification of a credit union as “critically undercapitalized”, prohibit payments of principal, dividends or interest on the credit union's Grandfathered Secondary Capital (as defined in subpart D of this part), except that unpaid dividends or interest shall continue to accrue under the terms of the account to the extent permitted by law;
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Requiring prior approval.</I> Require a critically undercapitalized credit union to obtain the NCUA Board's prior written approval before doing any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Entering into any material transaction not within the scope of an approved net worth restoration plan (or approved revised business plan under subpart C of this part);
</P>
<P>(ii) Extending credit for transactions deemed highly leveraged by the NCUA Board or, if state-chartered, by the appropriate state official;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amending the credit union's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to comply with any law, regulation, or order;
</P>
<P>(iv) Making any material change in accounting methods; and
</P>
<P>(v) Paying dividends or interest on new share accounts at a rate exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in its relevant market area;
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Other action to carry out prompt corrective action.</I> Restrict or require such other action by the credit union as the NCUA Board determines will carry out the purpose of this part better than any of the actions prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1) through (12) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Requiring merger.</I> Require the credit union to merge with another financial institution if one or more grounds exist for placing the credit union into conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), or into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mandatory conservatorship, liquidation or action in lieu thereof</I>—(1) <I>Action within 90 days.</I> Notwithstanding any other actions required or permitted to be taken under this section (and regardless of a credit union's prospect of becoming adequately capitalized), the NCUA Board must, within 90 calendar days after the effective date of classification of a credit union as critically undercapitalized—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conservatorship.</I> Place the credit union into conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(G); or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Liquidation.</I> Liquidate the credit union pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Other corrective action.</I> Take other corrective action, in lieu of conservatorship or liquidation, to better achieve the purpose of this part, provided that the NCUA Board documents why such action in lieu of conservatorship or liquidation would do so, <I>provided however,</I> that other corrective action may consist, in whole or in part, of complying with the quarterly timetable of steps and meeting the quarterly net worth targets prescribed in an approved net worth restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renewal of other corrective action.</I> A determination by the NCUA Board to take other corrective action in lieu of conservatorship or liquidation under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section shall expire after an effective period ending no later than 180 calendar days after the determination is made, and the credit union shall be immediately placed into conservatorship or liquidation under paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, unless the NCUA Board makes a new determination under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section before the end of the effective period of the prior determination;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mandatory liquidation after 18 months</I>—(i) <I>Generally.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, the NCUA Board must place a credit union into liquidation if it remains critically undercapitalized for a full calendar quarter, on a monthly average basis, following a period of 18 months from the effective date the credit union was first classified critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, the NCUA Board may continue to take other corrective action in lieu of liquidation if it certifies that the credit union—
</P>
<P>(A) Has been in substantial compliance with an approved net worth restoration plan requiring consistent improvement in net worth since the date the net worth restoration plan was approved;
</P>
<P>(B) Has positive net income or has an upward trend in earnings that the NCUA Board projects as sustainable; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is viable and not expected to fail.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Review of exception.</I> The NCUA Board shall, at least quarterly, review the certification of an exception to liquidation under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section and shall either—
</P>
<P>(A) Recertify the credit union if it continues to satisfy the criteria of paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Promptly place the credit union into liquidation, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(ii), if it fails to satisfy the criteria of paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nondelegation.</I> The NCUA Board may not delegate its authority under paragraph (c) of this section, unless the credit union has less than $5,000,000 in total assets. A credit union shall have a right of direct appeal to the NCUA Board of any decision made by delegated authority under this section within ten (10) calendar days of the date of that decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mandatory liquidation of insolvent federal credit union.</I> In lieu of paragraph (c) of this section, a critically undercapitalized federal credit union that has a net worth ratio of less than zero percent (0%) may be placed into liquidation on grounds of insolvency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(1)(A).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.110" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.110   Consultation with state officials on proposed prompt corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consultation on proposed conservatorship or liquidation.</I> Before placing a federally insured state-chartered credit union into conservatorship (pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F) or (G)) or liquidation (pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)) as permitted or required under subparts A or B of this part to facilitate prompt corrective action—
</P>
<P>(1) The NCUA Board shall seek the views of the appropriate state official (as defined in § 702.2), and give him or her an opportunity to take the proposed action;
</P>
<P>(2) The NCUA Board shall, upon timely request of the appropriate state official, promptly provide him or her with a written statement of the reasons for the proposed conservatorship or liquidation, and reasonable time to respond to that statement; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the appropriate state official makes a timely written response that disagrees with the proposed conservatorship or liquidation and gives reasons for that disagreement, the NCUA Board shall not place the credit union into conservatorship or liquidation unless it first considers the views of the appropriate state official and determines that—
</P>
<P>(i) The NCUSIF faces a significant risk of loss if the credit union is not placed into conservatorship or liquidation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Conservatorship or liquidation is necessary either to reduce the risk of loss, or to reduce the expected loss, to the NCUSIF with respect to the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondelegation.</I> The NCUA Board may not delegate any determination under paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation on proposed discretionary action.</I> The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before taking any discretionary supervisory action under §§ 702.107(b), 702.108(b), 702.109(b), 702.204(b) and 702.205(b) with respect to a federally insured state-chartered credit union; shall provide prompt notice of its decision to the appropriate state official; and shall allow the appropriate state official to take the proposed action independently or jointly with NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.111" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.111   Net worth restoration plans (NWRP).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> A credit union shall file a written net worth restoration plan (NWRP) with the appropriate Regional Director and, if state-chartered, the appropriate state official, within 45 calendar days of the effective date of classification as either undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized, unless the NCUA Board notifies the credit union in writing that its NWRP is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> An otherwise adequately capitalized credit union that is reclassified undercapitalized on safety and soundness grounds under § 702.102(b) is not required to submit a NWRP solely due to the reclassification, unless the NCUA Board notifies the credit union that it must submit an NWRP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Filing of additional plan.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a credit union that has already submitted and is operating under a NWRP approved under this section is not required to submit an additional NWRP due to a change in net worth category (including by reclassification under § 702.102(b)), unless the NCUA Board notifies the credit union that it must submit a new NWRP. A credit union that is notified to submit a new or revised NWRP shall file the NWRP in writing with the appropriate Regional Director within 30 calendar days of receiving such notice, unless the NCUA Board notifies the credit union in writing that the NWRP is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to timely file plan.</I> When a credit union fails to timely file an NWRP pursuant to this paragraph, the NCUA Board shall promptly notify the credit union that it has failed to file an NWRP and that it has 15 calendar days from receipt of that notice within which to file an NWRP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistance to small credit unions.</I> Upon timely request by a credit union having total assets of less than $10 million (regardless how long it has been in operation), the NCUA Board shall provide assistance in preparing an NWRP required to be filed under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of NWRP.</I> An NWRP must—
</P>
<P>(1) Specify—
</P>
<P>(i) A quarterly timetable of steps the credit union will take to increase its net worth ratio, and risk-based capital measure if applicable, so that it becomes adequately capitalized by the end of the term of the NWRP, and to remain so for four (4) consecutive calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(ii) The projected amount of net worth increases in each quarter of the term of the NWRP as required under § 702.106(a), or as permitted under § 702.106(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) How the credit union will comply with the mandatory and any discretionary supervisory actions imposed on it by the NCUA Board under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(iv) The types and levels of activities in which the credit union will engage; and
</P>
<P>(v) If reclassified to a lower category under § 702.102(b), the steps the credit union will take to correct the unsafe or unsound practice(s) or condition(s);
</P>
<P>(2) Include pro forma financial statements, including any off-balance sheet items, covering a minimum of the next two years; and
</P>
<P>(3) Contain such other information as the NCUA Board has required.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, the Board may permit a credit union that is undercapitalized to submit to the Regional Director a streamlined NWRP attesting that its reduction in capital was caused by share growth and that such share growth is a temporary condition due to the COVID-19 pandemic. A streamlined NWRP plan may be accepted from February 28, 2022, until March 31, 2023.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Criteria for approval of NWRP.</I> The NCUA Board shall not accept a NWRP plan unless it—
</P>
<P>(1) Complies with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Is based on realistic assumptions, and is likely to succeed in restoring the credit union's net worth; and
</P>
<P>(3) Would not unreasonably increase the credit union's exposure to risk (including credit risk, interest-rate risk, and other types of risk).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consideration of regulatory capital.</I> To minimize possible long-term losses to the NCUSIF while the credit union takes steps to become adequately capitalized, the NCUA Board shall, in evaluating an NWRP under this section, consider the type and amount of any form of regulatory capital which may become established by NCUA regulation, or authorized by state law and recognized by NCUA, which the credit union holds, but which is not included in its net worth.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of NWRP</I>—(1) <I>Notice of decision.</I> Within 45 calendar days after receiving an NWRP under this part, the NCUA Board shall notify the credit union in writing whether the NWRP has been approved, and shall provide reasons for its decision in the event of disapproval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delayed decision.</I> If no decision is made within the time prescribed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the NWRP is deemed approved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consultation with state officials.</I> In the case of an NWRP submitted by a federally insured state-chartered credit union (whether an original, new, additional, revised or amended NWRP), the NCUA Board shall, when evaluating the NWRP, seek and consider the views of the appropriate state official, and provide prompt notice of its decision to the appropriate state official.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NWRP not approved</I>—(1) <I>Submission of revised NWRP.</I> If an NWRP is rejected by the NCUA Board, the credit union shall submit a revised NWRP within 30 calendar days of receiving notice of disapproval, unless it is notified in writing by the NCUA Board that the revised NWRP is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of decision on revised NWRP.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receiving a revised NWRP under paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the NCUA Board shall notify the credit union in writing whether the revised NWRP is approved. The Board may extend the time within which notice of its decision shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disapproval of reclassified credit union's NWRP.</I> A credit union which has been classified significantly undercapitalized shall remain so classified pending NCUA Board approval of a new or revised NWRP.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Submission of multiple unapproved NWRPs.</I> The submission of more than two NWRPs that are not approved is considered an unsafe and unsound condition and may subject the credit union to administrative enforcement actions under section 206 of the FCUA, 12 U.S.C. 1786 and 1790d.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Amendment of NWRP.</I> A credit union that is operating under an approved NWRP may, after prior written notice to, and approval by the NCUA Board, amend its NWRP to reflect a change in circumstance. Pending approval of an amended NWRP, the credit union shall implement the NWRP as originally approved.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Publication.</I> An NWRP need not be published to be enforceable because publication would be contrary to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Termination of NWRP.</I> For purposes of this part, an NWRP terminates once the credit union is classified as adequately capitalized and remains so for four consecutive quarters. For example, if a credit union with an active NWRP attains the classification as adequately classified on December 31, 2015 this would be quarter one and the fourth consecutive quarter would end September 30, 2016.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 72806, Dec. 23, 2021; 87 FR 10950, Feb. 28, 2022] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.112" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.112   Reserves.</HEAD>
<P>Each credit union shall establish and maintain such reserves as may be required by the FCUA, by state law, by regulation, or in special cases by the NCUA Board or appropriate state official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.113" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.113   Full and fair disclosure of financial condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full and fair disclosure defined.</I> “Full and fair disclosure” is the level of disclosure which a prudent person would provide to a member of a credit union, to NCUA, or, at the discretion of the board of directors, to creditors to fairly inform them of the financial condition and the results of operations of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full and fair disclosure implemented.</I> The financial statements of a credit union shall provide for full and fair disclosure of all assets, liabilities, and members' equity, including such valuation (allowance) accounts as may be necessary to present fairly the financial condition; and all income and expenses necessary to present fairly the statement of income for the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Declaration of officials.</I> The Statement of Financial Condition, when presented to members, to creditors or to NCUA, shall contain a dual declaration by the treasurer and the chief executive officer, or in the latter's absence, by any other officer designated by the board of directors of the reporting credit union to make such declaration, that the report and related financial statements are true and correct to the best of their knowledge and belief and present fairly the financial condition and the statement of income for the period covered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges for loan and lease losses.</I> Full and fair disclosure demands that a credit union properly address charges for loan losses as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Charges for loan and lease losses shall be made timely and in accordance with GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The ALLL must be maintained in accordance with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(3) At a minimum, adjustments to the ALLL shall be made prior to the distribution or posting of any dividend to the accounts of members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.114" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.114   Payment of dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restriction on dividends.</I> Dividends shall be available only from net worth, net of any special reserves established under § 702.112, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of dividends and interest refunds.</I> The board of directors must not pay a dividend or interest refund that will cause the credit union's capital classification to fall below adequately capitalized under this subpart unless the appropriate Regional Director and, if state-chartered, the appropriate state official, have given prior written approval (in an NWRP or otherwise). The request for written approval must include the plan for eliminating any negative retained earnings balance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Alternative Prompt Corrective Action for New Credit Unions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.201   Scope and definition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart B applies in lieu of subpart A of this part exclusively to credit unions defined in paragraph (b) of this section as “new” pursuant to section 216(b)(2) of the FCUA, 12 U.S.C. 1790d(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New credit union defined.</I> A “new” credit union for purposes of this subpart is a credit union that both has been in operation for less than ten (10) years and has total assets of not more than $10 million. Once a credit union reports total assets of more than $10 million on a Call Report, the credit union is no longer new, even if its assets subsequently decline below $10 million.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of spin-offs.</I> A credit union formed as the result of a “spin-off” of a group from the field of membership of an existing credit union is deemed to be in operation since the effective date of the spin-off. A credit union whose total assets decline below $10 million because a group within its field of membership has been spun-off is deemed “new” if it has been in operation less than 10 years.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Actions to evade prompt corrective action.</I> If the NCUA Board determines that a credit union was formed, or was reduced in asset size as a result of a spin-off, or was merged, primarily to qualify as “new” under this subpart, the credit union shall be deemed subject to prompt corrective action under subpart A of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.202   Net worth categories for new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Net worth measures.</I> For purposes of this part, a new credit union must determine its capital classification quarterly according to its net worth ratio.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of net worth classification of new credit union.</I> For purposes of subpart B of this part, the effective date of a new credit union's classification within a capital category in paragraph (c) of this section shall be determined as provided in § 702.101(c); and written notice of a decline in net worth classification in paragraph (c) of this section shall be given as required by § 702.101(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Net worth categories.</I> A credit union defined as “new” under this section shall be classified—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Well capitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of seven percent (7%) or greater;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adequately capitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of six percent (6%) or more but less than seven percent (7%);
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Moderately capitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of three and one-half percent (3.5%) or more but less than six percent (6%);
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Marginally capitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of two percent (2%) or more but less than three and one-half percent (3.5%);
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Minimally capitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of zero percent (0%) or greater but less than two percent (2%); and
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Uncapitalized</I> if it has a net worth ratio of less than zero percent (0%).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 702.202—Capital Categories for New Credit Unions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">A new credit union's capital classification is
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If it's net worth ratio is
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Well Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7% or above.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Adequately Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">6 to 7%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Moderately Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3.5% to 5.99%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Marginally Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2% to 3.49%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minimally Capitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0% to 1.99%.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Uncapitalized</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than 0%.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than net worth.</I> Subject to § 702.102(b), the NCUA Board may reclassify a well capitalized, adequately capitalized or moderately capitalized new credit union to the next lower capital category (each of such actions is hereinafter referred to generally as “reclassification”) in either of the circumstances prescribed in § 702.102(b).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consultation with state officials.</I> The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before reclassifying a federally insured state-chartered credit union under paragraph (d) of this section, and shall promptly notify the appropriate state official of its decision to reclassify.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.203   Prompt corrective action for adequately capitalized new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>Beginning on the effective date of classification, an adequately capitalized new credit union must increase the dollar amount of its net worth by the amount reflected in its approved initial or revised business plan in accordance with § 702.204(a)(2), or in the absence of such a plan, in accordance with § 702.106 until it is well capitalized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.204" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.204   Prompt corrective action for moderately capitalized, marginally capitalized, or minimally capitalized new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions by new credit union.</I> Beginning on the date of classification as moderately capitalized, marginally capitalized or minimally capitalized (including by reclassification under § 702.202(d)), a new credit union must—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Increase the dollar amount of its net worth by the amount reflected in its approved initial or revised business plan;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submit revised business plan.</I> Submit a revised business plan within the time provided by § 702.206 if the credit union either:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not increased its net worth ratio consistent with its then-present approved business plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no then-present approved business plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has failed to comply with paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrict member business loans.</I> Not increase the total dollar amount of member business loans (defined as loans outstanding and unused commitments to lend) as of the preceding quarter-end unless it is granted an exception under 12 U.S.C. 1757a(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions by NCUA.</I> Subject to the applicable procedures set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter for issuing, reviewing and enforcing directives, the NCUA Board may, by directive, take one or more of the actions prescribed in § 702.109(b) if the credit union's net worth ratio has not increased consistent with its then-present business plan, or the credit union has failed to undertake any mandatory supervisory action prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discretionary conservatorship or liquidation.</I> Notwithstanding any other actions required or permitted to be taken under this section, the NCUA Board may place a new credit union which is moderately capitalized, marginally capitalized or minimally capitalized (including by reclassification under § 702.202(d)) into conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), or into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(i), provided that the credit union has no reasonable prospect of becoming adequately capitalized.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.205" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.205   Prompt corrective action for uncapitalized new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions by new credit union.</I> Beginning on the effective date of classification as uncapitalized, a new credit union must—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Earnings retention.</I> Increase the dollar amount of its net worth by the amount reflected in the credit union's approved initial or revised business plan;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submit revised business plan.</I> Submit a revised business plan within the time provided by § 702.206, providing for alternative means of funding the credit union's earnings deficit, if the credit union either:
</P>
<P>(i) Has not increased its net worth ratio consistent with its then-present approved business plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has no then-present approved business plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Has failed to comply with paragraph (a)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrict member business loans.</I> Not increase the total dollar amount of member business loans as provided in § 702.204(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions by NCUA.</I> Subject to the procedures set forth in subpart L of part 747 of this chapter for issuing, reviewing and enforcing directives, the NCUA Board may, by directive, take one or more of the actions prescribed in § 702.109(b) if the credit union's net worth ratio has not increased consistent with its then-present business plan, or the credit union has failed to undertake any mandatory supervisory action prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mandatory liquidation or conservatorship.</I> Notwithstanding any other actions required or permitted to be taken under this section, the NCUA Board—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Plan not submitted.</I> May place into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(ii), or conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), an uncapitalized new credit union which fails to submit a revised business plan within the time provided under paragraph (a)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Plan rejected, approved, implemented.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, must place into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A)(ii), or conservatorship pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(h)(1)(F), an uncapitalized new credit union that remains uncapitalized one hundred twenty (120) calendar days after the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The effective date of classification as uncapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The last day of the calendar month following expiration of the time period provided in the credit union's initial business plan (approved at the time its charter was granted) to remain uncapitalized, regardless whether a revised business plan was rejected, approved or implemented.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> The NCUA Board may decline to place a new credit union into liquidation or conservatorship as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section if the credit union documents to the NCUA Board why it is viable and has a reasonable prospect of becoming adequately capitalized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discretionary liquidation of an uncapitalized new credit union.</I> In lieu of paragraph (c) of this section, an uncapitalized new credit union may be placed into liquidation on grounds of insolvency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(1)(A).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.206" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.206   Revised business plans (RBP) for new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a new credit union classified moderately capitalized or lower must file a written revised business plan (RBP) with the appropriate Regional Director and, if state-chartered, with the appropriate state official, within 30 calendar days of either:
</P>
<P>(i) The last of the calendar month following the end of the calendar quarter that the credit union's net worth ratio has not increased consistent with the-present approved business plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The effective date of classification as less than adequately capitalized if the credit union has no then-present approved business plan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The effective date of classification as less than adequately capitalized if the credit union has increased the total amount of member business loans in violation of § 702.204(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> The NCUA Board may notify the credit union in writing that its RBP is to be filed within a different period or that it is not necessary to file an RBP.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to timely file plan.</I> When a new credit union fails to file an RBP as provided under paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section, the NCUA Board shall promptly notify the credit union that it has failed to file an RBP and that it has 15 calendar days from receipt of that notice within which to do so.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of revised business plan.</I> A new credit union's RBP must, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Address changes, since the new credit union's current business plan was approved, in any of the business plan elements required for charter approval under chapter 1, section IV.D. of appendix B to part 701 of this chapter, or for state-chartered credit unions under applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish a timetable of quarterly targets for net worth during each year in which the RBP is in effect so that the credit union becomes adequately capitalized by the time it no longer qualifies as “new” per § 702.201;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the projected amount of earnings of net worth increases as provided under § 702.204(a)(1) or 702.205(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(4) Explain how the new credit union will comply with the mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions imposed on it by the NCUA Board under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) Specify the types and levels of activities in which the new credit union will engage;
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a new credit union reclassified to a lower category under § 702.202(d), specify the steps the credit union will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice; and
</P>
<P>(7) Include such other information as the NCUA Board may require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for approval.</I> The NCUA Board shall not approve a new credit union's RBP unless it—
</P>
<P>(1) Addresses the items enumerated in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Is based on realistic assumptions, and is likely to succeed in building the credit union's net worth; and
</P>
<P>(3) Would not unreasonably increase the credit union's exposure to risk (including credit risk, interest-rate risk, and other types of risk).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of revised business plan</I>—(1) <I>Notice of decision.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receiving an RBP under this section, the NCUA Board shall notify the credit union in writing whether its RBP is approved, and shall provide reasons for its decision in the event of disapproval. The NCUA Board may extend the time within which notice of its decision shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delayed decision.</I> If no decision is made within the time prescribed in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the RBP is deemed approved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consultation with state officials.</I> When evaluating an RBP submitted by a federally insured state-chartered new credit union (whether an original, new or additional RBP), the NCUA Board shall seek and consider the views of the appropriate state official, and provide prompt notice of its decision to the appropriate state official.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Plan not approved</I>—(1) <I>Submission of new revised plan.</I> If an RBP is rejected by the NCUA Board, the new credit union shall submit a new RBP within 30 calendar days of receiving notice of disapproval of its initial RBP, unless it is notified in writing by the NCUA Board that the new RBP is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of decision on revised plan.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receiving an RBP under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the NCUA Board shall notify the credit union in writing whether the new RBP is approved. The Board may extend the time within which notice of its decision shall be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission of multiple unapproved RBPs.</I> The submission of more than two RBPs that are not approved is considered an unsafe and unsound condition and may subject the credit union to administrative enforcement action pursuant to section 206 of the FCUA, 12 U.S.C. 1786 and 1790d.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendment of plan.</I> A credit union that has filed an approved RBP may, after prior written notice to and approval by the NCUA Board, amend it to reflect a change in circumstance. Pending approval of an amended RBP, the new credit union shall implement its existing RBP as originally approved.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Publication.</I> An RBP need not be published to be enforceable because publication would be contrary to the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015, as amended at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.207" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.207   Consideration of Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital for new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exception from prompt corrective action for new credit unions.</I> The requirements of §§ 702.204 and 702.205 do not apply to a new credit union if, as of the applicable date of determination, each of the following conditions is satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The new credit union has outstanding Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital;
</P>
<P>(2) The Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital would be treated as Regulatory Capital under subpart D of this part if the new credit union were a complex credit union or a low income-designated credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The ratio of the new credit union's net worth (including the amount of its Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital treated as Regulatory Capital (as defined in subpart D of this part)) to its total assets is at least seven percent (7%); and
</P>
<P>(4) The new credit union's net worth is increasing in a manner consistent with the new credit union's approved initial business plan or RBP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consideration of Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital in evaluating an RBP.</I> The NCUA shall, in evaluating an RBP under this subpart, consider a new credit union's aggregate outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prompt corrective action based on other supervisory criteria</I>—(1) <I>Application of prompt corrective action to an exempt new credit union.</I> The NCUA Board may apply prompt corrective action to a new credit union that is otherwise exempt under paragraph (a) of this section in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Unsafe or unsound condition.</I> The NCUA Board has determined, after providing the new credit union with written notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 747.2003 of this chapter, that the new credit union is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unsafe or unsound practice.</I> The NCUA Board has determined, after providing the new credit union with written notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to § 747.2003 of this chapter, that the new credit union has not corrected a material unsafe or unsound practice of which it was, or should have been, aware.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-delegation.</I> The NCUA Board may not delegate its authority under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consultation with state officials.</I> The NCUA Board shall consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state official before taking action under paragraph (c) of this section and shall promptly notify the appropriate state official of its decision to take action under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Discretionary liquidation.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, the NCUA may place a new credit union into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(3)(A), provided that the new credit union's ratio under paragraph (a)(3) of this section is, as of the applicable date of determination, below six percent (6%) and the new credit union has no reasonable prospect of becoming “adequately capitalized” under § 702.202.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restrictions on payments on Subordinated Debt.</I> Beginning 60 days after the effective date of a new credit union being classified by the NCUA as “uncapitalized”, the new credit union shall not pay principal of or interest on its Subordinated Debt, except that unpaid interest shall continue to accrue under the terms of the related Subordinated Debt Note, to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.208" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.208   Incentives for new credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assistance in revising business plans.</I> Upon timely request by a credit union having total assets of less than $10 million (regardless how long it has been in operation), the NCUA Board shall provide assistance in preparing a revised business plan required to be filed under § 702.206.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assistance.</I> Management training and other assistance to new credit unions will be provided in accordance with policies approved by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small credit union program.</I> A new credit union is eligible to join and receive comprehensive benefits and assistance under NCUA's Small Credit Union Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015. Redesignated at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.209" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.209   Reserves.</HEAD>
<P>Each new credit union shall establish and maintain such reserves as may be required by the FCUA, by state law, by regulation, or in special cases by the NCUA Board or appropriate state official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015. Redesignated at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.210" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.210   Full and fair disclosure of financial condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Full and fair disclosure defined.</I> “Full and fair disclosure” is the level of disclosure which a prudent person would provide to a member of a new credit union, to NCUA, or, at the discretion of the board of directors, to creditors to fairly inform them of the financial condition and the results of operations of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Full and fair disclosure implemented.</I> The financial statements of a new credit union shall provide for full and fair disclosure of all assets, liabilities, and members' equity, including such valuation (allowance) accounts as may be necessary to present fairly the financial condition; and all income and expenses necessary to present fairly the statement of income for the reporting period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Declaration of officials.</I> The Statement of Financial Condition, when presented to members, to creditors or to NCUA, shall contain a dual declaration by the treasurer and the chief executive officer, or in the latter's absence, by any other officer designated by the board of directors of the reporting credit union to make such declaration, that the report and related financial statements are true and correct to the best of their knowledge and belief and present fairly the financial condition and the statement of income for the period covered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges for loan and lease losses.</I> Full and fair disclosure demands that a new credit union properly address charges for loan losses as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Charges for loan and lease losses shall be made timely in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP);
</P>
<P>(2) The ALLL must be maintained in accordance with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(3) At a minimum, adjustments to the ALLL shall be made prior to the distribution or posting of any dividend to the accounts of members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015. Redesignated at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.211" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.211   Payment of dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restriction on dividends.</I> Dividends shall be available only from net worth, net of any special reserves established under § 702.208, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment of dividends and interest refunds.</I> The board of directors may not pay a dividend or interest refund that will cause the credit union's capital classification to fall below adequately capitalized under subpart A of this part unless the appropriate regional director and, if state-chartered, the appropriate state official, have given prior written approval (in an RBP or otherwise). The request for written approval must include the plan for eliminating any negative retained earnings balance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66706, Oct. 29, 2015. Redesignated at 86 FR 11073, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Capital Planning and Stress Testing</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 24315, Apr. 30, 2014, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 80 FR 66722, Oct. 29, 2015.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.301" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.301   Authority, purpose, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart requires covered credit unions to develop and maintain capital plans and describes stress testing requirements and actions on covered credit union capital plans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subpart, NCUA may modify some or all of the requirements of this subpart. Any exercise of authority under this section by NCUA will be in writing and will consider the financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, and level of capital of the covered credit union, in addition to any other relevant factors. Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of NCUA under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.302" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.302   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart—
</P>
<P><I>Baseline scenario</I> means a scenario that reflects the consensus views of the economic and financial outlook.
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan</I> means a written presentation of a covered credit union's capital planning strategies and capital adequacy process that includes the mandatory elements set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Capital planning process</I> means development of a capital policy and formulation of a capital plan that conforms to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Covered credit union</I> means a federally insured credit union whose assets are $10 billion or more.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timing.</I> A credit union that crosses the asset threshold as of March 31 of a given calendar year is subject to the applicable requirements of this subpart in the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory relief for 2021 and 2022.</I> If a federally insured credit union reaches or crosses an asset size threshold under this subpart on March 31, 2021, the NCUA will use the assets the federally insured credit union reported on March 31, 2020 for the purpose of determining the applicability of those thresholds.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of 3 years over which capital planning projections extend.
</P>
<P><I>Pre-provision net revenue</I> means the sum of net interest income and non-interest income, less expenses, before adjusting for loss provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Provision for loan and lease losses</I> means the provision for loan and lease losses as reported by the covered credit union on its Call Report.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse stress test</I> means a test that defines severely unfavorable outcomes and then identifies events or scenarios that lead to these outcomes. Examples of severely unfavorable outcomes are breaching regulatory capital, failing to meet obligations, or being unable to continue independent operations.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are those sets of conditions that affect the U.S. economy or the financial condition of a covered credit union that serve as the basis for stress testing, including, but not limited to, NCUA-established baseline, scenarios and stress scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Sensitivity testing</I> means testing the relationship between specific variables, parameters, and inputs and their impacts on analytical results.
</P>
<P><I>Stress scenario</I> means a scenario that is more adverse than that associated with the baseline scenario.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> means the process to assess the potential impact of expected and stressed economic conditions on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of a covered credit union over the planning horizon, taking into account the current state of the covered credit union and the covered credit union's risks, exposures, strategies, and activities. 
</P>
<P><I>Stress test capital</I> means net worth (less assistance provided under Section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act, subordinated debt included in net worth, and NCUSIF deposit) under stress test scenarios.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test capital ratio</I> means a covered credit union's stress test capital divided by its total consolidated assets less NCUSIF deposit.
</P>
<P><I>Tier I credit union</I> means a covered credit union that has less than $15 billion in total assets.
</P>
<P><I>Tier II credit union</I> means a covered credit union that has $15 billion or more in total assets but less than $20 billion in total assets, or is otherwise designated as a tier II credit union by NCUA.
</P>
<P><I>Tier III credit union</I> means a covered credit union that has $20 billion or more in total assets, or is otherwise designated as a tier III credit union by NCUA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 24315, Apr. 30, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 48012, Aug. 11, 2015; 83 FR 17909, Apr. 25, 2018; 86 FR 15401, Mar. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.303" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.303   Capital policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> The extent and sophistication of a covered credit union's governance over its capital planning and analysis process must align with the extent and sophistication of that process. The process must be consistent with the financial condition, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, and level of capital of the covered credit union. The ultimate responsibility for governance over a covered credit union's capital planning and analysis process rests with the credit union's board of directors. Senior management must establish a comprehensive, integrated, and effective process that fits into the broader risk management of the credit union. Senior management responsible for capital planning and analysis must provide regular reports on capital planning and analysis to the credit union's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory elements.</I> A covered credit union's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must review and approve a capital policy, along with procedures to implement it. The capital policy must:
</P>
<P>(1) State goals and limits for capital levels and risk exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) Establish requirements for reviewing and reporting capital levels and breaches of capital limits, with contingency plans for remedying any breaches.
</P>
<P>(3) State the governance over the capital analysis process, including all the activities that contribute to the analysis;
</P>
<P>(4) Specify capital analysis roles and responsibilities, including controls over external resources used for any part of capital analysis (such as vendors and data providers);
</P>
<P>(5) Specify the internal controls that govern capital planning, including review by internal audit, control of changes in capital planning procedures, and required documentation;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe the frequency with which capital analyses will be conducted;
</P>
<P>(7) State how capital analysis results are used and by whom; and
</P>
<P>(8) Be reviewed at least annually and updated as necessary to ensure that it remains current with changes in market conditions, credit union products and strategies, credit union risk exposures and activities, the credit union's established risk appetite, and industry practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.304" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.304   Capital planning.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="29">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38274, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Annual capital planning.</I> (1) A covered credit union must develop and maintain a capital plan. Tier I and tier II credit unions must complete this plan and their capital policy by December 31 each year, but are not required to submit this plan to the NCUA. For tier I and tier II credit unions, the plan must be based on the credit union's financial data from either of the two calendar quarters preceding the quarter in which the plan is approved by the credit union's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board). A tier III credit union must submit this plan and its capital policy to NCUA by May 31 each year, or such later date as directed by NCUA. For tier III credit unions, the plan must be based on the credit union's financial data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, or such other date as directed by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered credit union's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually, and for tier III credit unions, prior to the submission of the capital plan under paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Review the credit union's process for assessing capital adequacy;
</P>
<P>(ii) Ensure that any deficiencies in the credit union's process for assessing capital adequacy are appropriately remedied; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Approve the credit union's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory elements.</I> A capital plan must contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(1) A quarterly assessment of the expected sources and levels of stress test capital over the planning horizon that reflects the covered credit union's financial state, size, complexity, risk profile, scope of operations, and existing level of capital, assuming both expected and unfavorable conditions, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Estimates of projected revenues, losses, reserves, and pro forma capital levels, over each quarter of the planning horizon under expected and unfavorable conditions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the credit union's process for assessing capital adequacy;
</P>
<P>(2) A discussion of how the credit union will, under expected and unfavorable conditions, maintain stress test capital commensurate with all of its risks, including reputational, strategic, legal, and compliance risks;
</P>
<P>(3) A discussion of how the credit union will, under expected and unfavorable conditions, maintain ready access to funding, meet its obligations to all creditors and other counterparties, and continue to serve as an intermediary for its members;
</P>
<P>(4) A discussion of any expected changes to the credit union's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the credit union's capital adequacy and liquidity; and
</P>
<P>(5) A program to:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sensitivity testing to analyze the effect on the credit union's stress test capital of changes in variables, parameters, and inputs used by the credit union in preparing its capital plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conduct reverse stress testing to identify events and circumstances that cause severely unfavorable outcomes for the credit union; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Analyze the impact of credit risk and interest rate risk to capital under unfavorable economic conditions, both separately and in combination with each other.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 24315, Apr. 30, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 48012, Aug. 11, 2015; 81 FR 7198, Feb. 11, 2016; 83 FR 17910, Apr. 25, 2018]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 84 FR 1606, Feb. 5, 2019, § 702.504 (prior to redesignation as § 702.304) was amended in paragraph (b)(4) by revising the citation “§ 702.306(c)” to read “§ 702.506(c)”; however, that citation did not exist in the section and the amendment could not be incorporated due to inaccurate amendatory instruction.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.305" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.305   NCUA action on capital plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>Tier I &amp; tier II credit unions.</I> NCUA will address any deficiencies in the capital plans submitted by tier I and tier II credit unions through the supervisory process.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier III credit unions.</I> NCUA will notify tier III credit unions of the acceptance or rejection of their capital plans by August 31 of the year in which their plan is submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for rejection of capital plan.</I> NCUA may reject a capital plan if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered credit union has material unresolved supervisory issues associated with its capital planning process;
</P>
<P>(2) The capital analysis underlying the covered credit union's capital plan, or the covered credit union's methodologies for reviewing the robustness of its capital adequacy, are not reasonable or appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Data utilized for the capital analysis is insufficiently detailed to capture the risks of the covered credit union, or the data lacks integrity;
</P>
<P>(4) The plan does not meet all of the requirements of § 702.304;
</P>
<P>(5) Unacceptable weakness in the capital plan or policy, the capital planning analysis, or any critical system or process supporting capital analysis;
</P>
<P>(6) The covered credit union's capital planning process constitutes an unsafe or unsound practice, or would violate any law, regulation, NCUA order, directive, or any condition imposed by, or written agreement with, NCUA. In determining whether a capital plan would constitute an unsafe or unsound practice, NCUA considers whether the covered credit union is and would remain in sound financial condition after giving effect to the capital plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification in writing.</I> NCUA will notify the credit union in writing of the reasons for a decision to reject a capital plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> If NCUA rejects a tier III credit union's capital plan, the credit union must update and resubmit an acceptable capital plan to NCUA by November 30 of the year in which the credit union submitted its plan. The resubmitted capital plan must, at a minimum, address: 
</P>
<P>(1) NCUA-noted deficiencies in the credit union's original capital plan or policy; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Remediation plans for unresolved supervisory issues contributing to the rejection of the credit union's original capital plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> Any tier III credit union operating without a capital plan accepted by NCUA may be subject to supervisory actions on the part of NCUA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultation on proposed action.</I> Before taking any action under this section on the capital plan of a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, NCUA will consult and work cooperatively with the appropriate State official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 24315, Apr. 30, 2014, as amended at 80 FR 48012, Aug. 11, 2015; 83 FR 17910, Apr. 25, 2018; 80 FR 66722, Oct. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.306" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.306   Annual supervisory stress testing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> Only tier II and tier III credit unions are required to conduct supervisory stress tests. The supervisory stress tests consist of a baseline scenario, and stress scenarios, which NCUA will provide by February 28 of each year. The tests will be based on the credit union's financial data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year, or such other date as directed by NCUA. The tests will take into account all relevant exposures and activities of the credit union to evaluate its ability to absorb losses in specified scenarios over a planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit union-run supervisory stress tests</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> All supervisory stress tests must be conducted according to NCUA's instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tier III credit unions.</I> When conducting its stress test, a tier III credit union must apply the minimum stress test capital ratio to all time periods in the planning horizon. The minimum stress test capital ratio is 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>NCUA tests.</I> NCUA reserves the right to conduct the tests described in this section on any covered credit union at any time. Where both NCUA and a covered credit union have conducted the tests, the results of NCUA's tests will determine whether the covered credit union has met the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Potential impact on capital.</I> In conducting stress tests under this subpart, the credit union, or the NCUA if it elects to conduct the stress test under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, will estimate the following for each scenario during each quarter of the planning horizon:
</P>
<P>(1) Losses, pre-provision net revenues, loan and lease loss provisions, and net income; and
</P>
<P>(2) The potential impact on the stress test capital ratio, incorporating the effects of any capital action over the planning horizon and maintenance of an allowance for loan losses appropriate for credit exposures throughout the horizon. The credit union, or the NCUA if it elects to conduct the stress test under paragraph (b)(3) of this section, will conduct the stress tests without assuming any risk mitigation actions on the part of the credit union, except those existing and identified as part of the credit union's balance sheet, or off-balance sheet positions, such as derivative positions, on the date of the stress test.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information collection.</I> Upon request, the covered credit union must provide NCUA with any relevant qualitative or quantitative information requested by NCUA pertinent to the capital plans or stress tests under this part.






</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stress test results.</I> A credit union required to conduct stress tests under this section must incorporate the results of its tests in its capital plan. A credit union required to conduct stress tests must submit its stress test results to NCUA by May 31 of each year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Supervisory actions.</I> (1) If a credit union-run stress test shows a tier III credit union does not have the ability to maintain a stress test capital ratio of 5 percent or more under expected and stressed conditions in each quarter of the planning horizon, the credit union must incorporate, into its capital plan, a stress test capital enhancement plan that shows how it will meet that target.
</P>
<P>(2) If an NCUA-run stress test shows that a tier III credit union does not have the ability to maintain a stress test capital ratio of 5 percent or more under expected and stressed conditions in each quarter of the planning horizon, the credit union must provide NCUA, by November 30 of the calendar year in which NCUA conducted the tests, a stress test capital enhancement plan showing how it will meet that target.
</P>
<P>(3) A tier III credit union operating without an NCUA approved stress test capital enhancement plan required under this section may be subject to supervisory actions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consultation on proposed action.</I> Before taking any action under this section against a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, NCUA will consult and work cooperatively with the appropriate State official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 17910, Apr. 25, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 45009, July 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Subordinated Debt, Grandfathered Secondary Capital, and Regulatory Capital</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.401" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.401   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Subordinated Debt.</I> This subpart sets forth the requirements applicable to all Subordinated Debt issued by a federally insured, natural person credit union, including the NCUA's review and approval of that credit union's application to issue or prepay Subordinated Debt. This subpart shall apply to a federally insured, state-chartered credit union only to the extent that such federally insured, state-chartered credit union is permitted by applicable state law to issue debt instruments of the type described in this subpart. To the extent that such state law is more restrictive than this subpart with respect to the issuance of such debt instruments, that state law shall apply. Except as provided in the next sentence, any secondary capital, as that term is used in the Federal Credit Union Act, issued after January 1, 2022, is Subordinated Debt and subject to the requirements of this subpart. Issuances of secondary capital, as that term is used in the Federal Credit Union Act, to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, are not subject to the requirements applicable to Subordinated Debt, discussed elsewhere in this subpart, irrespective of the date of issuance.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grandfathered Secondary Capital.</I> Any secondary capital defined as “Grandfathered Secondary Capital” under § 702.402, is governed by § 702.414. Grandfathered Secondary Capital will no longer be treated as Regulatory Capital as of the later of 30 years from the date of issuance or January 1, 2052.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 18010, Mar. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.402" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.402   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent they differ, the definitions in this section apply only to Subordinated Debt and not to Grandfathered Secondary Capital. (Definitions applicable to Grandfathered Secondary Capital are in § 702.414.) All other terms in this subpart and not expressly defined in this section have the meanings assigned to them elsewhere in this part. For ease of use, certain key terms are included in this section using cross citations to other sections of this part where those terms are defined.
</P>
<P><I>Accredited Investor</I> means a Natural Person Accredited Investor or an Entity Accredited Investor, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Supervision Office</I> means, with respect to any credit union, the Regional Office or Office of National Examinations and Supervision that is responsible for supervision of that credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Complex credit union</I> has the same meaning as in subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Entity Accredited Investor</I> means an entity that, at the time of offering and closing of the issuance and sale of Subordinated Debt to that entity, meets the requirements of 17 CFR 230.501(a).
</P>
<P><I>Grandfathered Secondary Capital</I> means any secondary capital issued under § 701.34 of this chapter before January 1, 2022, or, in the case of a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, with § 741.204(c) of this chapter, before January 1, 2022. (12 CFR 701.34 was recodified as § 702.414 as of January 1, 2022). This term also includes issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, irrespective of the date of issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate Family Member</I> means spouse, child, sibling, parent, grandparent, or grandchild (including stepparents, stepchildren, stepsiblings, and adoptive relationships).
</P>
<P><I>Issuing Credit Union</I> means, for purposes of this subpart, a credit union that has issued, or is in the process of issuing, Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Low-income designated credit union (LICU)</I> is a credit union designated as having low-income status in accordance with § 701.34 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Natural Person Accredited Investor</I> means a natural person who, at the time of offering and closing of the issuance and sale of Subordinated Debt to that person, meets the requirements of 17 CFR 230.501(a); <I>provided</I> that, for purposes of purchasing or holding any Subordinated Debt Note, this term shall not include any board member or Senior Executive Officer of the Issuing Credit Union or any Immediate Family Member of any board member or Senior Executive Officer of the Issuing Credit Union.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth</I> has the same meaning as in § 702.2.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth ratio</I> has the same meaning as in § 702.2.
</P>
<P><I>New credit union</I> has the same meaning as in § 702.201.
</P>
<P><I>Offering Document</I> means the document(s) required by § 702.408, including any term sheet, offering memorandum, private placement memorandum, offering circular, or other similar document used to offer and sell Subordinated Debt Notes.
</P>
<P><I>Pro Forma Financial Statements</I> means projected financial statements that show the effects of proposed transactions as if they actually occurred in a variety of plausible scenarios, including both optimistic and pessimistic assumptions, over measurement horizons that align with the credit union's expected activities.


</P>
<P><I>Qualified Counsel</I> means an attorney licensed to practice law who has expertise in the areas of Federal and state securities laws and debt transactions similar to those described in this subpart.


</P>
<P><I>Regulatory Capital</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an Issuing Credit Union that is a LICU and not a complex credit union, the aggregate outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt and, until the later of 30 years from the date of issuance or January 1, 2052, Grandfathered Secondary Capital that is included in the credit union's net worth ratio;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an Issuing Credit Union that is a complex credit union and not a LICU, the aggregate outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt that is included in the credit union's RBC ratio, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to an Issuing Credit Union that is both a LICU and a complex credit union, the aggregate outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt and, until the later of 30 years from the date of issuance or January 1, 2052, Grandfathered Secondary Capital that is included in its net worth ratio and in its RBC ratio, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) With respect to a new credit union, the aggregate outstanding principal amount of Subordinated Debt and, until the later of 30 years from the date of issuance or January 1, 2052, Grandfathered Secondary Capital that is considered pursuant to § 702.207.




</P>
<P><I>Retained Earnings</I> has a meaning that is consistent with the one for this term under United States GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-based capital (RBC) ratio</I> has the same meaning as in § 702.2.
</P>
<P><I>Senior Executive Officer</I> means a credit union's chief executive officer (for example, president or treasurer/manager), any assistant chief executive officer (<I>e.g.,</I> any assistant president, any vice president or any assistant treasurer/manager) and the chief financial officer (controller). The term “Senior Executive Officer” also includes employees and contractors of an entity, such as a consulting firm, hired to perform the functions of positions covered by the term Senior Executive Officer.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated Debt</I> means an Issuing Credit Union's borrowing that meets the requirements of this subpart, including all obligations and contracts related to such borrowing.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated Debt Note</I> means the written contract(s) evidencing the Subordinated Debt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021; 88 FR 18010, Mar. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.403" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.403   Eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to receiving approval under § 702.408 or § 702.409, a credit union may issue Subordinated Debt only if, at the time of such issuance, the credit union is:
</P>
<P>(1) A complex credit union with a capital classification of at least “undercapitalized,” as defined in § 702.102;
</P>
<P>(2) A LICU;
</P>
<P>(3) Able to demonstrate to the satisfaction of the NCUA that it reasonably anticipates becoming either a complex credit union meeting the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section or a LICU within 24 months after issuance of the Subordinated Debt Notes; or
</P>
<P>(4) A new credit union with Retained Earnings equal to or greater than one percent (1%) of assets.
</P>
<P>(b) At the time of issuance of any Subordinated Debt, an Issuing Credit Union may not have any investments, direct or indirect, in Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital (or any interest therein) of another credit union. If a credit union acquires Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital in a merger or other consolidation, the Issuing Credit Union may still issue Subordinated Debt, but it may not invest (directly or indirectly) in the Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital of any other credit union while any Subordinated Debt Notes issued by the Issuing Credit Union remain outstanding.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Issuing Credit Union is a complex credit union that is not also a LICU, the aggregate outstanding principal amount of all Subordinated Debt issued by that Issuing Credit Union may not exceed 100 percent of its net worth, as determined at the time of each issuance of Subordinated Debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.404" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.404   Requirements of the Subordinated Debt Note.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> At a minimum, the Subordinated Debt or the Subordinated Debt Note, as applicable, must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in the form of a written, unconditional promise to pay on a specified date a sum certain in money in return for adequate consideration in money;


</P>
<P>(2) Have, at the time of issuance, a fixed stated maturity of at least five years. The stated maturity of the Subordinated Debt Note may not reset and may not contain an option to extend the maturity. A credit union seeking to issue Subordinated Debt Notes with maturities longer than 20 years from the date of issuance must provide the information required in § 702.408(b)(14) as part of its application for preapproval to issue Subordinated Debt;




</P>
<P>(3) Be subordinate to all other claims in liquidation under § 709.5(b) of this chapter, and have the same payout priority as all other outstanding Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital;
</P>
<P>(4) Be properly characterized as debt in accordance with U.S. GAAP;
</P>
<P>(5) Be unsecured, including, without limitation, prohibiting the establishment of any legally enforceable claim against funds earmarked for payment of the Subordinated Debt through:
</P>
<P>(i) A compensating balance or any other funds or assets subject to a legal right of offset, as defined by applicable state law; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A sinking fund, such as a fund formed by periodically setting aside money for the gradual repayment of the Subordinated Debt;
</P>
<P>(6) Be applied by the Issuing Credit Union at the end of each of its fiscal years (or more frequently as determined by the Issuing Credit Union) in which the Subordinated Debt remains outstanding to cover any deficit in Retained Earnings on a pro rata basis among all holders of the Subordinated Debt and Grandfathered Secondary Capital of the Issuing Credit Union; it being understood that any amounts applied to cover a deficit in Retained Earnings shall no longer be considered due and payable to the holder(s) of the Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital;
</P>
<P>(7) Except as provided in §§ 702.411 and 702.412(c), be payable in full by the Issuing Credit Union or its successor or assignee only at maturity;
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose any prepayment penalties or restrictions on prepayment;
</P>
<P>(9) Be offered, issued, and sold only to Entity Accredited Investors or Natural Person Accredited Investors, in accordance § 702.406; and
</P>
<P>(10) Be re-offered, reissued, and resold only to an Entity Accredited Investor (if the initial offering, issuance, and sale was solely made to Entity Accredited Investors) or any Accredited Investor (if the initial offering, issuance, and sale involved one or more Natural Person Accredited Investors).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restrictions.</I> The Subordinated Debt or the Subordinated Debt Note, as applicable, must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Be structured or identified as a share, share account, or any other instrument in the Issuing Credit Union that is insured by the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P>(2) Include any express or implied terms that make it senior to any other Subordinated Debt issued under this subpart or Grandfathered Secondary Capital;
</P>
<P>(3) Cause the Issuing Credit Union to exceed the borrowing limit in § 741.2 of this chapter or, for federally insured, state-chartered credit unions, any more restrictive state borrowing limit;
</P>
<P>(4) Provide the holder thereof with any management or voting rights in the Issuing Credit Union;
</P>
<P>(5) Be eligible to be pledged or provided by the investor as security for a loan from, or other obligation owing to, the Issuing Credit Union;
</P>
<P>(6) Include any express or implied term, condition, or agreement that would require the Issuing Credit Union to prepay or accelerate payment of principal of or interest on the Subordinated Debt prior to maturity, including investor put options;
</P>
<P>(7) Include an express or implied term, condition, or agreement that would trigger an event of default based on the Issuing Credit Union's default on other debts;
</P>
<P>(8) Include any condition, restriction, or requirement based on the Issuing Credit Union's credit quality or other credit-sensitive feature; or
</P>
<P>(9) Require the Issuing Credit Union to make any form of payment other than in cash.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Negative covenants.</I> A Subordinated Debt Note must not include any provision or covenant that unduly restricts or otherwise acts to unduly limit the authority of the Issuing Credit Union or interferes with the NCUA's supervision of the Issuing Credit Union. This includes, but is not limited to, a provision or covenant that:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires the Issuing Credit Union to maintain a minimum amount of Retained Earnings or other metric, such as a minimum net worth ratio or minimum asset, liquidity, or loan ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Unreasonably restricts the Issuing Credit Union's ability to raise capital through the issuance of additional Subordinated Debt;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides for default of the Subordinated Debt as a result of the Issuing Credit Union's compliance with any law, regulation, or supervisory directive from the NCUA or, if applicable, the state supervisory authority;
</P>
<P>(4) Provides for default of the Subordinated Debt as the result of a change in the ownership, management, or organizational structure or charter of the Issuing Credit Union; provided that, following such change, the Issuing Credit Union or the resulting institution, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Agrees to perform all of the obligations, terms, and conditions of the Subordinated Debt; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At the time of such change, is not in material default of any provision of the Subordinated Debt Note, after giving effect to the applicable cure period described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) Provides for default of the Subordinated Debt as the result of an act or omission of any third party, including but not limited to a credit union service organization, as defined in § 712.1(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default covenants.</I> A Subordinated Debt Note that includes default covenants must provide the Issuing Credit Union with a reasonable cure period of not less than 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Minimum denominations of issuances to Natural Person Accredited Investors.</I> An Issuing Credit Union may only issue Subordinated Debt Notes to Natural Person Accredited Investors in minimum denominations of $100,000, and cannot exchange any such Subordinated Debt Notes after the initial issuance or any subsequent resale for Subordinated Debt Notes of the Issuing Credit Union in denominations less than $10,000. Each such Subordinated Debt Note, if issued in certificate form, must include a legend disclosing that it cannot be exchanged for Subordinated Debt Notes of the Issuing Credit Union in denominations less than $100,000, and Subordinated Debt Notes issued in book-entry or other uncertificated form shall include appropriate instructions prohibiting the exchange of such Subordinated Debt Notes for Subordinated Debt Notes of the Issuing Credit Union in denominations that would violate the foregoing restrictions.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 18011, Mar. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.405" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.405   Disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Issuing Credit Union must disclose the following language clearly, in all capital letters, on the face of a Subordinated Debt Note:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>• THIS OBLIGATION IS NOT A SHARE IN THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION AND IS NOT INSURED BY THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION.
</P>
<P>• THIS OBLIGATION IS UNSECURED AND SUBORDINATE TO ALL CLAIMS AGAINST THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION AND IS INELIGIBLE AS COLLATERAL FOR A LOAN BY THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION.
</P>
<P>• AMOUNTS OTHERWISE PAYABLE HEREUNDER MAY BE REDUCED IN ORDER TO COVER ANY DEFICIT IN RETAINED EARNINGS OF THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION. AMOUNTS APPLIED TO COVER ANY SUCH DEFICIT WILL RESULT IN A CORRESPONDING REDUCTION OF THE PRINCIPAL AMOUNT OF ALL OUTSTANDING SUBORDINATED DEBT ISSUED BY THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION, AND WILL NO LONGER BE DUE AND PAYABLE TO THE HOLDERS OF SUCH SUBORDINATED DEBT. AMOUNTS APPLIED TO COVER ANY SUCH DEFICIT MUST BE APPLIED AMONG ALL HOLDERS OF SUCH SUBORDINATED DEBT PRO RATA BASED ON THE AGGREGATE AMOUNT OF SUBORDINATED DEBT OWED BY THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION TO EACH SUCH HOLDER AT THE TIME OF APPLICATION.
</P>
<P>• THIS OBLIGATION CAN ONLY BE REPAID AT MATURITY OR IN ACCORDANCE WITH 12 CFR 702.411. THIS OBLIGATION MAY ALSO BE REPAID IN ACCORDANCE WITH 12 CFR PART 710 IF THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION VOLUNTARILY LIQUIDATES.
</P>
<P>• THE NOTE EVIDENCING THIS OBLIGATION HAS NOT BEEN AND WILL NOT BE REGISTERED UNDER THE SECURITIES ACT OF 1933, AS AMENDED (THE “SECURITIES ACT”), OR THE SECURITIES LAWS OF ANY STATE OF THE UNITED STATES OR ANY OTHER JURISDICTION, AND MAY BE ISSUED, SOLD, PLEDGED, OR OTHERWISE TRANSFERRED ONLY (A) AS PERMITTED IN THE NOTE AND TO A PERSON WHOM THE ISSUER OR SELLER REASONABLY BELIEVES IS [AN “ACCREDITED INVESTOR” (AS DEFINED IN 12 CFR 702.402)] [AN “ENTITY ACCREDITED INVESTOR” (AS DEFINED IN 12 CFR 702.402)] (THAT IS NOT A MEMBER OF THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION'S BOARD, A SENIOR EXECUTIVE OFFICER OF THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION (AS THAT TERM IS DEFINED IN 12 CFR 702.402), OR ANY IMMEDIATE FAMILY MEMBER OF ANY SUCH BOARD MEMBER OR SENIOR EXECUTIVE OFFICER), PURCHASING FOR ITS OWN ACCOUNT, (1) TO WHOM NOTICE IS GIVEN THAT THE SALE, PLEDGE, OR OTHER TRANSFER IS BEING MADE IN RELIANCE ON THE EXEMPTION FROM SECURITIES ACT REGISTRATION PROVIDED BY SECTION 3(a)(5) OF THE SECURITIES ACT, OR (2) IN ACCORDANCE WITH ANOTHER EXEMPTION FROM THE REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS OF THE SECURITIES ACT (SUBJECT TO THE DELIVERY OF SUCH CERTIFICATIONS, LEGAL OPINIONS, OR OTHER INFORMATION AS THE ISSUING CREDIT UNION MAY REASONABLY REQUIRE TO CONFIRM THAT SUCH SALE, PLEDGE, OR TRANSFER IS BEING MADE PURSUANT TO AN EXEMPTION FROM, OR IN A TRANSACTION NOT SUBJECT TO, THE REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS OF THE SECURITIES ACT), (B) IN COMPLIANCE WITH THE CERTIFICATION AND OTHER REQUIREMENTS SPECIFIED IN THE [INDENTURE OR OTHER DOCUMENT PURSUANT TO WHICH THE SUBORDINATED DEBT NOTE IS ISSUED] REFERRED TO HEREIN, AND (C) IN ACCORDANCE WITH ANY APPLICABLE SECURITIES LAWS OF ANY STATE OF THE UNITED STATES AND ANY OTHER APPLICATION JURISDICTION.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) An Issuing Credit Union must also clearly and accurately disclose in the Subordinated Debt Note:</P>
<P>(1) The payout priority and level of subordination, as described in § 709.5(b) of this chapter, that would apply in the event of the involuntary liquidation of the Issuing Credit Union;
</P>
<P>(2) A general description of the NCUA's regulatory authority that includes, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Issuing Credit Union is “undercapitalized” or, if the Issuing Credit Union is a New Credit Union, “moderately capitalized” (each as defined in this part), and fails to submit an acceptable net worth restoration plan, capital restoration plan, or revised business plan, as applicable, or materially fails to implement such a plan that was approved by the NCUA, the Issuing Credit Union may be subject to all of the additional restrictions and requirements applicable to a “significantly undercapitalized” credit union or, if the Issuing Credit Union is a new credit union, a “marginally capitalized” new credit union; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Beginning 60 days after the effective date of an Issuing Credit Union being classified as “critically undercapitalized” or, in the case of a new credit union, “uncapitalized,” the Issuing Credit Union shall not pay principal of or interest on its Subordinated Debt, until reauthorized to do so by the NCUA; provided, however, that unpaid interest shall continue to accrue under the terms of the Subordinated Debt Note, to the extent permitted by law; and
</P>
<P>(3) The risk factors associated with the NCUA's or, if applicable, the state supervisory authority's, authority to conserve or liquidate a credit union under the Federal Credit Union Act (FCU Act) or applicable state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.406" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.406   Requirements related to the offer, sale, and issuance of Subordinated Debt Notes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Offering Document.</I> An Issuing Credit Union or person acting on behalf of or at the direction of any Issuing Credit Union may only issue and sell Subordinated Debt Notes if, a reasonable time prior to the issuance and sale of any Subordinated Debt Notes, each purchaser of a Subordinated Debt Note receives an Offering Document that meets the requirements of § 702.408(e) and such further material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required disclosures in that Offering Document, in the light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Territorial limitations.</I> An Issuing Credit Union may only offer, issue, and sell Subordinated Debt Notes in the United States of America (including any one of the states thereof and the District of Columbia), its territories, and its possessions. This limitation includes a prohibition on non-U.S. investors holding or purchasing Subordinated Debt Notes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accredited Investors.</I> An Issuing Credit Union may only offer, issue, and sell Subordinated Debt to Accredited Investors, and the terms of any Subordinated Debt Note must include the restrictions in § 702.404(a)(10); provided that no Subordinated Debt Note may be issued, sold, resold, pledged, or otherwise transferred to a member of the board of the Issuing Credit Union, any Senior Executive Officer of the Issuing Credit Union, or any Immediate Family Member of any such board member or Senior Executive Officer. Prior to the offer of any Subordinated Debt Note, the Issuing Credit Union must receive a signed, unambiguous certification from any potential investor of a Subordinated Debt Note. The certification must be in substantially the following form:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>CERTIFICATE OF ACCREDITED INVESTOR STATUS
</HD1>
<P>Except as may be indicated by the undersigned below, the undersigned is an accredited investor, as that term is defined in Regulation D under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (the “<I>Act</I>”). In order to demonstrate the basis on which it is representing its status as an accredited investor, the undersigned has checked one of the boxes below indicating that the undersigned is:
</P>
<P>[ ] Any bank as defined in section 3(a)(2) of the Act, or any savings and loan association or other institution as defined in section 3(a)(5)(A) of the Act whether acting in its individual or fiduciary capacity; any broker or dealer registered pursuant to section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; any investment adviser registered pursuant to section 203 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 or registered pursuant to the laws of a state; any investment adviser relying on the exemption from registering with the Securities and Exchange Commission under section 203(l) or (m) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940; any insurance company as defined in section 2(a)(13) of the Act; any investment company registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 or a business development company as defined in section 2(a)(48) of that act; any Small Business Investment Company licensed by the U.S. Small Business Administration under section 301(c) or (d) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958; any Rural Business Investment Company as defined in section 384A of the Consolidated Farm and Rural Development Act; any plan established and maintained by a state, its political subdivisions, or any agency or instrumentality of a state or its political subdivisions, for the benefit of its employees, if such plan has total assets in excess of $5,000,000; any employee benefit plan within the meaning of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 if the investment decision is made by a plan fiduciary, as defined in section 3(21) of such act, which is either a bank, savings and loan association, insurance company, or registered investment adviser, or if the employee benefit plan has total assets in excess of $5,000,000 or, if a self-directed plan, with investment decisions made solely by persons that are accredited investors; [ ] A private business development company as defined in section 202(a)(22) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, corporation, Massachusetts or similar business trust, partnership, or limited liability company, not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, with total assets in excess of $5,000,000; [ ] Any natural person whose individual net worth, or joint net worth with that person's spouse or spousal equivalent, exceeds $1,000,000; (excluding the value of the person's primary residence). For the purposes of calculating joint net worth in this paragraph: joint net worth can be the aggregate net worth of the investor and spouse or spousal equivalent; assets need not be held jointly to be included in the calculation;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any natural person who had an individual income in excess of $200,000 in each of the two most recent years or joint income with that person's spouse or spousal equivalent in excess of $300,000 in each of those years and has a reasonable expectation of reaching the same income level in the current year; [ ] A trust with total assets in excess of $5,000,000, not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, whose purchase is directed by a person who has such knowledge and experience in financial and business matters that he or she is capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment;
</P>
<P>[ ] An entity in which all of the equity holders are accredited investors by virtue of their meeting one or more of the above standards;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any entity, of a type not listed in paragraph (a)(1), (2), (3), (7), or (8) of 17 CFR 230.501(a), not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, owning investments in excess of $5,000,000;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any natural person holding in good standing one or more professional certifications or designations or credentials from an accredited educational institution that the Securities and Exchange Commission has designated as qualifying an individual for accredited investor status;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any natural person who is a “knowledgeable employee,” as defined in rule 3c5(a)(4) under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (17 CFR 270.3c-5(a)(4)), of the issuer of the securities being offered or sold where the issuer would be an investment company, as defined in section 3 of such act, but for the exclusion provided by either section 3(c)(1) or section 3(c)(7) of such act;
</P>
<P>[ ] Any “family office,” as defined in rule 202(a)(11)(G)-1 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (17 CFR 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1): (i) With assets under management in excess of $5,000,000, (ii) That is not formed for the specific purpose of acquiring the securities offered, and (iii) Whose prospective investment is directed by a person who has such knowledge and experience in financial and business matters that such family office is capable of evaluating the merits and risks of the prospective investment; and
</P>
<P>[ ] Any “family client,” as defined in rule 202(a)(11)(G)-1 under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (17 CFR 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1)), of a family office meeting the requirements in paragraph (a)(12) of § 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1 and whose prospective investment in the issuer is directed by such family office pursuant to paragraph (a)(12)(iii) of § 275.202(a)(11)(G)-1.
</P>
<P>The undersigned understands that [NAME OF ISSUING CREDIT UNION] (the “Credit Union”) is required to verify the undersigned's accredited investor status AND ELECTS TO DO ONE OF THE FOLLOWING:
</P>
<P>[ ] Allow the Credit Union's representative to review the undersigned's tax returns for the two most recently completed years and provide a written representation of the undersigned's reasonable expectation of reaching the income level necessary to qualify as an accredited investor during the current year;
</P>
<P>[ ] Allow the Credit Union's representative to: (1) obtain a written representation from the undersigned that states that all liabilities necessary to make a determination of net worth have been disclosed; and (2) review one or more of the following types of documentation dated within the past three months: bank statements, brokerage statements, tax assessments, appraisal reports as to assets, or a consumer report from a nationwide consumer reporting agency;
</P>
<P>[ ] Provide the Credit Union with a written confirmation from one of the following persons or entities that such person or entity has taken reasonable steps to verify that the undersigned is an accredited investor within the prior three months and has determined that the undersigned is an accredited investor:
</P>
<P>• A registered broker-dealer;
</P>
<P>• An investment adviser registered with the Securities Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>• A licensed attorney who is in good standing under the laws of the jurisdictions in which such attorney is admitted to practice law; or
</P>
<P>• A certified public accountant who is duly registered and in good standing under the laws of the place of such accountant's residence or principal office.
</P>
<P>IN WITNESS WHEREOF, the undersigned has executed this Certificate of Accredited Investor Status effective as of ____________________________, 20______.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Name of Investor
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Name of Authorized Representative
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Title of Authorized Representative]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Phone Number
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Email Address</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Use of trustees.</I> If using a trustee in connection with the offer, issuance, and sale of Subordinated Debt Notes, the trustee must meet the requirements set forth in the Trust Indenture Act of 1939, as amended, including requirements for qualification set forth in section 310 thereof; any rules related to such act in 17 CFR parts 260, 261, and 269; and any applicable state law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Offers, issuances, and sales of Subordinated Debt Notes.</I> Offers issuances, and sales of Subordinated Debt Notes are required to be made in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application to offer, issue, and sell at offices of Issuing Credit Union.</I> If the Issuing Credit Union intends to offer and sell Subordinated Debt Notes at one or more of its offices, the Issuing Credit Union must first apply in writing to the Appropriate Supervision Office indicating that it intends to offer, issue, and sell Subordinated Debt Notes at one or more of its offices. The application must include, at a minimum, the physical locations of such offices and a description of how the Issuing Credit Union will comply with the requirements of this paragraph (e);
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision on application.</I> Within 60 calendar days (which may be extended by the Appropriate Supervision Office) after the date of receipt of a complete application described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the Appropriate Supervision Office will provide the Issuing Credit Union with a written determination on its application to conduct offering and sales activity from its office(s). Any denial of an Issuing Credit Union's application under this section will include the reasons for such denial;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Commissions, bonuses, or comparable payments.</I> In connection with any offering and sale of Subordinated Debt Notes (whether or not conducted at offices of the Issuing Credit Union), an Issuing Credit Union shall not pay, directly or indirectly, any commissions, bonuses, or comparable payments to any employee of the Issuing Credit Union or any affiliated Credit Union Service Organizations (CUSOs) assisting with the offer, issuance, and sale of such Subordinated Debt Notes, or to any other person in connection with the offer, issuance, and sale of Subordinated Debt Notes; except that compensation and commissions consistent with industry norms may be paid to securities personnel of registered broker-dealers as otherwise permitted by applicable law;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuances by tellers.</I> No offers or sales may be made by tellers at the teller counter of any Issuing Credit Union, or by comparable persons at comparable locations;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permissible issuing personnel.</I> In connection with an offering or sale of Subordinated Debt Notes (whether or not conducted at offices of the Issuing Credit Union), such activity may be conducted only by regular, full-time employees of the Issuing Credit Union or by securities personnel who are subject to supervision by a registered broker-dealer, which securities personnel may be employees of the Issuing Credit Union's affiliated CUSO that is assisting the Issuing Credit Union with the offer, issuance, and sale of the Subordinated Debt Notes;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Issuance practices, advertisements, and other literature used in connection with the offer and sale of Subordinated Debt Notes.</I> In connection with an offering or sale of Subordinated Debt Notes (whether or not conducted at offices of the Issuing Credit Union), issuance practices, advertisements, and other issuance literature used in connection with offers and issuances of Subordinated Debt Notes by Issuing Credit Unions or any affiliated CUSOs assisting with the offer and issuance of such Subordinated Debt Notes shall be subject to the requirements of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Office of an Issuing Credit Union.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e), an “office” of an Issuing Credit Union means any premises used by the Issuing Credit Union that is identified to the public through advertising or signage using the Issuing Credit Union's name, trade name, or logo.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Securities laws.</I> An Issuing Credit Union must comply with all applicable Federal and state securities laws.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Resales.</I> All resales of Subordinated Debt Notes issued by an Issuing Credit Union by holders of such Subordinated Debt Notes must be made pursuant to 17 CFR 230.144 (Rule 144 under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended) (other than paragraphs (c), (e), (f), (g) and (h) of such Rule), 17 CFR 230.144A (Rule 144A under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended), or another exemption from registration under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended. Subordinated Debt Notes must include the restrictions on resales in § 702.404(a)(10).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.407" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.407   Discounting of amount treated as Regulatory Capital.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of outstanding Subordinated Debt that may be treated as Regulatory Capital shall reduce by 20 percent per annum of the initial aggregate principal amount of the applicable Subordinated Debt (as reduced by prepayments or amounts extinguished to cover a deficit under § 702.404(a)(6)), as required by the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 720.407
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Balance treated as
<br/>regulatory capital
<br/>%
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Four to less than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three to less than four years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two to less than three years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One to less than two years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than one year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.408" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.408   Preapproval to issue Subordinated Debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section requires all credit unions to receive written preapproval from the NCUA before issuing Subordinated Debt. Procedures related specifically to applications from federally insured, state-chartered credit unions are contained in § 702.409. A credit union seeking approval to offer and sell Subordinated Debt at one or more of its offices must also follow the application procedures in § 702.406(e). All approvals under this section are subject to the expiration limits specified in paragraph (k) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial application to issue Subordinated Debt.</I> A credit union requesting approval to issue Subordinated Debt must first submit an application to the Appropriate Supervision Office that, at a minimum, includes:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement indicating how the credit union qualifies to issue Subordinated Debt given the eligibility requirements of § 702.403 with additional supporting analysis if anticipating to meet the requirements of a LICU or complex credit union within 24 months after issuance of the Subordinated Debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum aggregate principal amount of Subordinated Debt Notes and the maximum number of discrete issuances of Subordinated Debt Notes that the credit union is proposing to issue within the period allowed under paragraph (k) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated number of investors and the status of such investors (Natural Person Accredited Investors and/or Entity Accredited Investors) to whom the credit union intends to offer and sell the Subordinated Debt Notes;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement identifying any outstanding Subordinated Debt or Grandfathered Secondary Capital previously issued by the credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the credit union's strategic plan, business plan, and budget, and an explanation of how the credit union intends to use the Subordinated Debt in conformity with those plans;
</P>
<P>(6) An analysis of how the credit union will provide for liquidity to repay the Subordinated Debt upon maturity of the Subordinated Debt;


</P>
<P>(7) Pro Forma Financial Statements (balance sheet and income statement) and cash flow projections, including any off-balance sheet items, covering at least two years. Analytical support for key assumptions and key assumption changes must be included in the application. Key assumptions include, but are not limited to, interest rate, liquidity, and credit loss scenarios;




</P>
<P>(8) A statement indicating how the credit union will use the proceeds from the issuance and sale of the Subordinated Debt;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement identifying the governing law specified in the Subordinated Debt Notes and the documents pursuant to which the Subordinated Debt Notes will be issued;
</P>
<P>(10) A draft written policy governing the offer, and issuance, and sale of the Subordinated Debt, developed in consultation with Qualified Counsel, which, at a minimum, addresses:
</P>
<P>(i) Compliance with all applicable Federal and state securities laws and regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compliance with applicable securities laws related to communications with investors and potential investors, including, but not limited to: Who may communicate with investors and potential investors; what information may be provided to investors and potential investors; ongoing disclosures to investors; who will review and ensure the accuracy of the information provided to investors and potential investors; and to whom information will be provided;
</P>
<P>(iii) Compliance with any laws that may require registration of credit union employees as broker-dealers; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any use of outside agents, including broker-dealers, to assist in the marketing and issuance of Subordinated Debt, and any limitations on such use;
</P>
<P>(11) A schedule that provides an itemized statement of all expenses incurred or expected to be incurred by the credit union in connection with the offer, issuance, and sale of the Subordinated Debt Notes to which the initial application relates, other than underwriting discounts and commissions or similar compensation payable to broker-dealers acting as placement agents. The schedule must include, as applicable, fees and expenses of counsel, auditors, any trustee or issuing and paying agent or any transfer agent, and printing and engraving expenses. If the amounts of any items are not known at the time of filing of the initial application, the credit union must provide estimates, clearly identified as such;
</P>
<P>(12) In the case of a new credit union, a statement that it is subject to either an approved initial business plan or revised business plan, as required by this part, and how the proposed Subordinated Debt would conform with the approved plan. Unless the new credit union has a LICU designation pursuant to § 701.34 of this chapter, it must also include a plan for replacing the Subordinated Debt with Retained Earnings before the credit union ceases to meet the definition of new credit union in § 702.2;
</P>
<P>(13) A statement describing any investments the credit union has in the Subordinated Debt of any other credit union, and the manner in which the credit union acquired such Subordinated Debt, including through a merger or other consolidation;


</P>
<P>(14) In the case of a credit union applying to issue Subordinated Debt Notes with maturities longer than 20 years, an analysis demonstrating that the proposed Subordinated Debt Notes would be properly characterized as debt in accordance with U.S. GAAP. The Appropriate Supervision Office may require that such analysis include one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A written legal opinion from a Qualified Counsel;
</P>
<P>(ii) A written opinion from a licensed certified public accountant (CPA); and
</P>
<P>(iii) An analysis conducted by the credit union or independent third party;






</P>
<P>(15) A signature page signed by the credit union's principal executive officer, principal financial officer or principal accounting officer, and a majority 'of the members of its board of directors. Amendments to an initial application must be signed and filed with the NCUA in the same manner as the initial application; and
</P>
<P>(16) Any additional information requested in writing by the Appropriate Supervision Office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision on initial application.</I> Upon receiving an initial application submitted under this paragraph (c) and any additional information requested in writing by the Appropriate Supervision Office, the Appropriate Supervision Office will evaluate, at a minimum, the credit union's compliance with this subpart and all other NCUA regulations in this chapter, the credit union's ability to manage and safely offer, issue, and sell the proposed Subordinated Debt, the safety and soundness of the proposed use of the Subordinated Debt, the overall condition of the credit union, and any other factors the Appropriate Supervision Office determines are relevant.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written determination.</I> Within 60 calendar days (which may be extended by the Appropriate Supervision Office) after the date of receipt of a complete application, the Appropriate Supervision Office will provide the credit union with a written determination on its application. In the case of a full or partial denial, or conditional approval under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the written decision will state the reasons for the denial or conditional approval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of approval.</I> Any approval granted by an Appropriate Supervision Office under this section may include one or more of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) Approval of an aggregate principal amount of Subordinated Debt that is lower than what the credit union requested;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any applicable minimum level of net worth that the credit union must maintain while the Subordinated Debt Notes are outstanding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Approved uses of the Subordinated Debt; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other limitations or conditions the Appropriate Supervision Office deems necessary to protect the NCUSIF.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Offering Document.</I> Following receipt of written approval of its initial application, an Issuing Credit Union must prepare an Offering Document for each issuance of Subordinated Debt Notes. In addition, as required in paragraph (f) of this section, an Issuing Credit Union that intends to offer Subordinated Debt Notes to any Natural Person Accredited Investors must have the related Offering Document declared “approved for use” by the NCUA before its first use. At a reasonable time prior to any issuance and sale of Subordinated Debt Notes, the Issuing Credit Union must provide each investor with an Offering Document as described in this section. All Offering Documents must be filed with the NCUA within two business days after their respective first use.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirements for all Offering Documents</I>—(1) <I>Minimum information required in an Offering Document.</I> An Offering Document must, at a minimum, include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the Issuing Credit Union and the address of its principal executive office;
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial principal amount of the Subordinated Debt being issued;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name(s) of any underwriter(s) or placement agents being used for the issuance;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the material risk factors associated with the purchase of the Subordinated Debt Notes, including any special or distinctive characteristics of the Issuing Credit Union's business, field of membership, or geographic location that are reasonably likely to have a material impact on the Issuing Credit Union's future financial performance;
</P>
<P>(v) The disclosures described in § 702.405 and such additional material information, if any, as may be necessary to make the required disclosures, in the light of the circumstances under which they are made, not misleading;
</P>
<P>(vi) Provisions related to the interest, principal, payment, maturity, and prepayment of the Subordinated Debt Notes;
</P>
<P>(vii) All material affirmative and negative covenants that may or will be included in the Subordinated Debt Note, including, but not limited to, the covenants discussed in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any legends required by applicable state law; and
</P>
<P>(ix) The following legend, displayed on the cover page in prominent type or in another manner:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>None of the Securities and Exchange Commission (the “SEC”), any state securities commission or the National Credit Union Administration has passed upon the merits of, or given its approval of, the purchase of any Subordinated Debt Notes offered or the terms of the offering, or passed on the accuracy or completeness of any Offering Document or other materials used in connection with the offer, issuance, and sale of the Subordinated Debt Notes. Any representation to the contrary is unlawful. These Subordinated Debt Notes have not been registered under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended (the “Act”) and are being offered and sold to [an Entity Accredited Investor][an Accredited Investor] (as defined in 12 CFR 702.402) pursuant to an exemption from registration under the Act; however, neither the SEC nor the NCUA has made an independent determination that the offer and issuance of the Subordinated Debt Notes are exempt from registration.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(2) <I>Legibility requirements.</I> An Issuing Credit Union's Offering Document must comply with the following legibility requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) Information in the Offering Document must be presented in a clear, concise, and understandable manner, incorporating plain English principles. The body of all printed Offering Documents shall be in type at least as large and as legible as 10-point type. To the extent necessary for convenient presentation, however, financial statements and other tabular data, including tabular data in notes, may be in type at least as large and as legible as 8-point type. Repetition of information should be avoided. Cross-referencing of information within the document is permitted; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Where an Offering Document is distributed through an electronic medium, the Issuing Credit Union may satisfy legibility requirements applicable to printed documents, such as paper size, type size and font, bold-face type, italics and red ink, by presenting all required information in a format readily communicated to offerees and, where indicated, in a manner reasonably calculated to draw the attention of offerees to specific information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offering Documents approved for use in offerings of Subordinated Debt to any Natural Person Accredited Investors</I>—(1) <I>Filing of a Draft Offering Document.</I> An Issuing Credit Union that intends to offer Subordinated Debt Notes to any Natural Person Accredited Investors must file a draft Offering Document with the NCUA and have such draft Offering Document declared “approved for use” by the NCUA before its first use.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Request for additional information, clarifications, or amendments.</I> Prior to declaring any Offering Document “approved for use,” the NCUA may ask questions, request clarifications, or direct the Issuing Credit Union to amend certain sections of the draft Offering Document. The NCUA will make any such requests in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written determination.</I> Within 60 calendar days (which may be extended by the NCUA) after the date of receipt of each of the initial filing and each filing of additional information, clarifications, or amendments requested by the NCUA under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, the NCUA will provide the Issuing Credit Union with a written determination on the applicable filing. The written determination will include any requests for additional information, clarifications, or amendments, or a statement that the Offering Document is “approved for use.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing of a final Offering Document.</I> At such time as the NCUA declares an Offering Document “approved for use” in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, the Issuing Credit Union may then use that Offering Document in the offer and sale of the Subordinated Debt Notes. The Issuing Credit Union must file a copy of each of its Offering Documents with the NCUA within two business days after their respective first use.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Filing of an Offering Document for offerings of Subordinated Debt exclusively to Entity Accredited Investors.</I> An Issuing Credit Union that is offering Subordinated Debt exclusively to Entity Accredited Investors is not required to have its Offering Document “approved for use” by the NCUA under paragraph (f) of this section before using it to offer and sell the Subordinated Debt Notes. As described in this section, however, the Issuing Credit Union must file a copy of each of its Offering Documents with the NCUA within two business days after their respective first use.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Material changes to any initial application or Offering Document</I>—(1) <I>Reapproval of initial application.</I> If any material event arises or material change in fact occurs after the approval of the initial application by the NCUA, but prior to the completion of the offer and sale of the related Subordinated Debt Notes, then no person shall offer or sell Subordinated Debt Notes to any other person until an amendment to the Offering Document reflecting the event or change has been filed with and approved by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reapproval of Offering Document.</I> If an Offering Document must be approved for use under paragraph (f) of this section, and any event arises or change in fact occurs after the approval for use of any Offering Document, and that event or change in fact, individually or in the aggregate, results in the Offering Document containing any untrue statement of material fact, or omitting to state a material fact necessary in order to make statements made in the Offering Document not misleading in light of the circumstances under which they were made, then no person shall offer or sell Subordinated Debt Notes to any other person until an amendment reflecting the event or change has been filed with and “approved for use” by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to request reapproval.</I> If an Issuing Credit Union fails to comply with paragraph (h)(1) or (2) of this section, the NCUA may, at its discretion, exercise the full range of administrative remedies available under the FCU Act, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Prohibiting the Issuing Credit Union from issuing any additional Subordinated Debt for a specified period; and/or
</P>
<P>(ii) Determining not to treat the Subordinated Debt as Regulatory Capital.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notification.</I> Not later than 10 business days after the closing of a Subordinated Debt Note issuance and sale, the Issuing Credit Union must submit to the Appropriate Supervision Office:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of each executed Subordinated Debt Note;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of each executed purchase agreement, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) Any indenture or other transaction document used to issue the Subordinated Debt Notes;
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of signed certificates of Accredited Investor status, in a form similar to that in § 702.406(c), from all investors;
</P>
<P>(5) All documentation provided to investors related to the offer and sale of the Subordinated Debt Note (other than any Offering Document that was previously filed with the NCUA); and
</P>
<P>(6) Any other material documents governing the issuance, sale or administration of the Subordinated Debt Notes.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Resubmissions.</I> An Issuing Credit Union that receives any adverse written determination from the Appropriate Supervision Office with respect to the approval of its initial application or any amendment thereto or, if applicable, the approval for use of an Offering Document or any amendment thereto, may cure any reasons noted in the written determination and refile under the requirements of this section. This paragraph (j) does not prohibit an Issuing Credit Union from appealing an Appropriate Supervision Office's decision under subpart A of part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Expiration of authority to issue Subordinated Debt.</I> (1) Any approvals to issue Subordinated Debt Notes under this section expire two years from the later of the date the Issuing Credit Union receives:
</P>
<P>(i) Approval of its initial application, if the Issuing Credit Union is offering Subordinated Notes exclusively to Entity Accredited Investors; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The initial approval for use of its Offering Document, if the Issuing Credit Union is offering Subordinated Debt Notes to any Natural Person Accredited Investors.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to issue all or part of the maximum aggregate principal amount of Subordinated Debt Notes approved in the initial application process within the applicable period specified in paragraph (k) of this section will result in the expiration of the NCUA's approval. An Issuing Credit Union may file a written extension request with the Appropriate Supervision Office. The Issuing Credit Union must demonstrate good cause for any extension(s), and must file the request at least 30 calendar days before the expiration of the applicable period specified in paragraph (k) of this section or any extensions granted under paragraph (k) of this section. In any such written application, the Issuing Credit Union must address whether any such extension poses any material securities law implications.


</P>
<P>(l) <I>Filing requirements.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, all initial applications, Offering Documents, amendments, notices, or other documents must be filed electronically with the Appropriate Supervision Office. Documents may be signed electronically using the signature provision in 17 CFR 230.402 (Rule 402 under the Securities Act of 1933, as amended).






</P>
<P>(2) Provided the Issuing Credit Union filing the document has complied with all requirements regarding the filing in this section, the date of filing of the document is the date the NCUA receives the filing. An electronic filing that is submitted on a business day by direct transmission commencing on or before 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is then currently in effect, would be deemed received by the NCUA on the same business day. An electronic filing that is submitted by direct transmission commencing after 5:30 p.m. Eastern Standard or Daylight Savings Time, whichever is then currently in effect, or on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, would be deemed received by the NCUA on the next business day. If an electronic filer in good faith attempts to file a document with the NCUA in a timely manner, but the filing is delayed due to technical difficulties beyond the electronic filer's control, the electronic filer may request that the NCUA adjust the filing date of such document. The NCUA may grant the request if it appears that such adjustment is appropriate and consistent with the public interest and the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(3) If an Issuing Credit Union experiences unanticipated technical difficulties preventing the timely preparation and submission of an electronic filing, the Issuing Credit Union may, upon notice to the Appropriate Supervision Office, file the subject filing in paper format no later than one business day after the date on which the filing was to be made.
</P>
<P>(4) Any filing of amendments or supplements to an Offering Document must include two copies, one of which must be marked to indicate clearly and precisely, by underlining or in some other conspicuous manner, the changes made from the previously filed Offering Document.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Filing fees.</I> (1) The NCUA may require filing fees to accompany certain filings made under this subpart before it will accept those filings. If the NCUA requires the aforementioned filing fee, the NCUA will publish an applicable fee schedule on its website at <I>http://www.NCUA.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) Filing fees must be paid to the NCUA by electronic transfer.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 18011, Mar. 27, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.409" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.409   Preapproval for federally insured, state-chartered credit unions to issue Subordinated Debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally insured, state-chartered credit union is required to submit the information required under § 702.408 and, if applicable, paragraph (b) of this section to both the Appropriate Supervision Office and its state supervisory authority. The Appropriate Supervision Office will issue decisions approving a federally insured, state-chartered credit union's application only after obtaining the concurrence of the federally insured, state-chartered credit union's state supervisory authority. The NCUA will notify a federally insured, state-chartered credit union's state supervisory authority before issuing a decision to “approve for use” a federally insured, state-chartered credit union's Offering Document and any amendments thereto, under § 702.408, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Appropriate Supervision Office has reason to believe that an issuance by a federally insured, state-chartered credit union under this subpart could subject that federally insured, state-chartered credit union to Federal income taxation, the Appropriate Supervision Office may require the federally insured, state-chartered credit union to provide:
</P>
<P>(1) A written legal opinion, satisfactory to the NCUA, from nationally recognized tax counsel or letter from the Internal Revenue Service indicating whether the proposed Subordinated Debt would be classified as capital stock for Federal income tax purposes and, if so, describing any material impact of Federal income taxes on the federally insured, state-chartered credit union's financial condition; or


</P>
<P>(2) Pro Forma Financial Statements (balance sheet and income statement) and cash flow projections, including any off-balance sheet items, covering at least two years. Analytical support for key assumptions and key assumption changes must be included in the application. Key assumptions include, but are not limited to, interest rate, liquidity, and credit loss scenarios.






</P>
<P>(c) If the Appropriate Supervision Office requires additional information from a federally insured, state-chartered credit union under paragraph (b) of this section, the federally insured, state-chartered credit union may determine, in its sole discretion, whether the information it provides is in the form described in paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, as amended at 88 FR 18011, Mar. 27, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.410" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.410   Interest payments on Subordinated Debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for interest payments.</I> An Issuing Credit Union is prohibited from paying interest on Subordinated Debt in accordance with § 702.109.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accrual of interest.</I> Notwithstanding nonpayment pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, interest on the Subordinated Debt may continue to accrue according to terms provided for in the Subordinated Debt Note and as otherwise permitted in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interest safe harbor.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the NCUA shall not impose a discretionary supervisory action that requires the Issuing Credit Union to suspend interest with respect to the Subordinated Debt if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuance and sale of the Subordinated Debt complies with all requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The Subordinated Debt is issued and sold in an arms-length, bona fide transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) The Subordinated Debt was issued and sold in the ordinary course of business, with no intent to hinder, delay, or defraud the Issuing Credit Union or its creditors; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Subordinated Debt was issued and sold for adequate consideration in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority, rights, and powers of the NCUA and the NCUA Board.</I> This section does not waive, limit, or otherwise affect the authority, rights, or powers of the NCUA or the NCUA Board in any capacity, including the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent, to take any action or to exercise any power not specifically mentioned, including but not limited to any rights, powers, or remedies of the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent regarding transfers or other conveyances taken in contemplation of the Issuing Credit Union's insolvency or with the intent to hinder, delay, or defraud the Issuing Credit Union or the creditors of such Issuing Credit Union, or that is fraudulent under applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.411" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.411   Prior written approval to prepay Subordinated Debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prepayment option.</I> An Issuing Credit Union may include in the terms of its Subordinated Debt an option that allows the Issuing Credit Union to prepay the Subordinated Debt in whole or in part prior to maturity, provided, however, that the Issuing Credit Union is required to:
</P>
<P>(1) Clearly disclose the requirements of this section in the Subordinated Debt Note; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtain approval under paragraph (b) of this section before exercising a prepayment option.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prepayment application.</I> Before an Issuing Credit Union can, in whole or in part, prepay Subordinated Debt prior to maturity, the Issuing Credit Union must first submit to the Appropriate Supervision Office an application that must include, at a minimum, the information required in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federally insured, state-chartered credit union prepayment applications.</I> Before a federally insured, state-chartered credit union may submit an application for prepayment to the Appropriate Supervision Office, it must obtain written approval from its state supervisory authority to prepay the Subordinated Debt it is proposing to prepay. A federally insured, state-chartered credit union must provide evidence of such approval as part of its application to the Appropriate Supervision Office.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application contents.</I> An Issuing Credit Union's application to prepay Subordinated Debt must include, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the Subordinated Debt Note and any agreement(s) reflecting the terms and conditions of the Subordinated Debt the Issuing Credit Union is proposing to prepay;
</P>
<P>(2) An explanation why the Issuing Credit Union believes it still would hold an amount of capital commensurate with its risk exposure notwithstanding the proposed prepayment or a description of the replacement Subordinated Debt, including the amount of such instrument, and the time frame for issuance, the Issuing Credit Union is proposing to use to replace the prepaid Subordinated Debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any additional information the Appropriate Supervision Office requests.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision on application to prepay.</I> (1) Within 45 calendar days (which may be extended by the Appropriate Supervision Office) after the date of receipt of a complete application, the Appropriate Supervision Office will provide the Issuing Credit Union with a written determination on its application. In the case of a full or partial denial, including a conditional approval under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the written decision will state the reasons for the denial or conditional approval.
</P>
<P>(2) The written determination from the Appropriate Supervision Office may approve the Issuing Credit Union's request, approve the Issuing Credit Union's request with conditions, or deny the Issuing Credit Union's request. In the case of a denial or conditional approval, the Appropriate Supervision Office will provide the Issuing Credit Union with a description of why it denied the Issuing Credit Union's request or imposed conditions on the approval of such request.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Issuing Credit Union proposes or the NCUA requires the Issuing Credit Union to replace the Subordinated Debt, the Issuing Credit Union must receive affirmative approval under this subpart and must issue and sell the replacement instrument prior to or concurrently with prepaying the Subordinated Debt.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Resubmissions.</I> An Issuing Credit Union that receives an adverse written determination on its application to prepay, in whole or in part, may cure any deficiencies noted in the Appropriate Supervision Office's written determination and reapply under the requirements of this section. This paragraph (f) does not prohibit an Issuing Credit Union from appealing the Appropriate Supervision Office's adverse decision under subpart A of part 746 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.412" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.412   Effect of a merger or dissolution on the treatment of Subordinated Debt as Regulatory Capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of a merger of an Issuing Credit Union into or the assumption of its Subordinated Debt by another federally insured credit union, the Subordinated Debt will be treated as Regulatory Capital only to the extent that the resulting credit union is either a LICU, a complex credit union, and/or a new credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event the resulting credit union is not a LICU, a complex credit union, or a new credit union, the Subordinated Debt of the merging credit union can either be:
</P>
<P>(1) If permitted by the terms of the Subordinated Debt Note, repaid by the resulting credit union upon approval by the NCUA under § 702.411; or
</P>
<P>(2) Continue to be held by the resulting credit union as Subordinated Debt, but will not be classified as Regulatory Capital under this subpart, unless the resulting credit union meets the eligibility requirements of § 702.403.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event of a voluntary dissolution of an Issuing Credit Union that has outstanding Subordinated Debt, the Subordinated Debt may be repaid in full according to 12 CFR part 710, subject to the requirements in § 702.411.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.413" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.413   Repudiation safe harbor.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA Board as conservator for a federally insured credit union, or its lawfully appointed designee, shall not exercise its repudiation authorities under 12 U.S.C. 1787(c) with respect to Subordinated Debt if:
</P>
<P>(1) The issuance and sale of the Subordinated Debt complies with all requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The Subordinated Debt was issued and sold in an arms-length, bona fide transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) The Subordinated Debt was issued and sold in the ordinary course of business, with no intent to hinder, delay, or defraud the Issuing Credit Union or its creditors; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Subordinated Debt was issued and sold for adequate consideration in U.S. dollars.
</P>
<P>(b) This section does not authorize the attachment of any involuntary lien upon the property of either the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent or its lawfully appointed designee. Nor does this section waive, limit, or otherwise affect the authority, rights, or powers of the NCUA or the NCUA Board in any capacity to take any action or to exercise any power not specifically mentioned, including but not limited to any rights, powers, or remedies of the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent (or its lawfully appointed designee) regarding transfers or other conveyances taken in contemplation of the Issuing Credit Union's insolvency or with the intent to hinder, delay or defraud the Issuing Credit Union or the creditors of such Issuing Credit Union, or that is fraudulent under applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.414" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.414   Regulations governing Grandfathered Secondary Capital.</HEAD>
<P>This section recodifies the requirements from 12 CFR 701.34(b), (c), and (d) that were in effect as of December 31, 2021, with minor modifications. The terminology used in this section is specific to this section. Except as provided in the next sentence, all secondary capital issued under § 701.34 of this chapter before January 1, 2022, or, in the case of a federally insured, state-chartered credit union, § 741.204(c) of this chapter, that is referred to elsewhere in this subpart as “Grandfathered Secondary Capital,” is subject to the requirements set forth in this section. Issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, are also considered “Grandfathered Secondary Capital” irrespective of the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(a) Secondary capital is subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Secondary capital plan.</I> A credit union that has Grandfathered Secondary Capital under this section must have a written, NCUA-approved “Secondary Capital Plan” that, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) States the maximum aggregate amount of uninsured secondary capital the LICU plans to accept;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies the purpose for which the aggregate secondary capital will be used, and how it will be repaid;
</P>
<P>(iii) Explains how the LICU will provide for liquidity to repay secondary capital upon maturity of the accounts;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrates that the planned uses of secondary capital conform to the LICU's strategic plan, business plan, and budget; and
</P>
<P>(v) Includes supporting pro forma financial statements, including any off-balance sheet items, covering a minimum of the next two years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Issuances not completed before January 1, 2022.</I> Except as provided in the next sentence, any issuances of secondary capital not completed by January 1, 2022, are, as of January 1, 2022, subject to the requirements applicable to Subordinated Debt discussed elsewhere in this subpart. Issuances of secondary capital to the U.S. Government or any of its subdivisions, under applications approved before January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 701.34 or § 741.204(c) of this chapter, are not subject to the requirements applicable to Subordinated Debt, discussed elsewhere in this subpart, irrespective of the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Nonshare account.</I> The secondary capital account is established as an uninsured secondary capital account or other form of non-share account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum maturity.</I> The maturity of the secondary capital account is a minimum of five years.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Uninsured account.</I> The secondary capital account is not insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or any governmental or private entity.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subordination of claim.</I> The secondary capital account investor's claim against the LICU is subordinate to all other claims including those of shareholders, creditors and the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Availability to cover losses.</I> Funds deposited into a secondary capital account, including interest accrued and paid into the secondary capital account, are available to cover operating losses realized by the LICU that exceed its net available reserves (exclusive of secondary capital and allowance accounts for loan and lease losses), and to the extent funds are so used, the LICU must not restore or replenish the account under any circumstances. The LICU may, in lieu of paying interest into the secondary capital account, pay accrued interest directly to the investor or into a separate account from which the secondary capital investor may make withdrawals. Losses must be distributed pro-rata among all secondary capital accounts held by the LICU at the time the losses are realized. In instances where a LICU accepted secondary capital from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions under the Community Development Capital Initiative of 2010 (“CDCI secondary capital”) and matching funds were required under the Initiative and are on deposit in the form of secondary capital at the time a loss is realized, a LICU must apply either of the following pro-rata loss distribution procedures to its secondary capital accounts with respect to the loss:
</P>
<P>(i) If not inconsistent with any agreements governing other secondary capital on deposit at the time a loss is realized, the CDCI secondary capital may be excluded from the calculation of the pro-rata loss distribution until all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted, thereby causing the CDCI secondary capital to be held as senior to all other secondary capital until its matching secondary capital is exhausted. The CDCI secondary capital should be included in the calculation of the pro-rata loss distribution and is available to cover the loss only after all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Regardless of any agreements applicable to other secondary capital, the CDCI secondary capital and its matching secondary capital may be considered a single account for purposes of determining a pro-rata share of the loss and the amount determined as the pro-rata share for the combined account must first be applied to the matching secondary capital account, thereby causing the CDCI secondary capital to be held as senior to its matching secondary capital. The CDCI secondary capital is available to cover the loss only after all of its matching secondary capital has been depleted.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Security.</I> The secondary capital account may not be pledged or provided by the account investor as security on a loan or other obligation with the LICU or any other party.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Merger or dissolution.</I> In the event of merger or other voluntary dissolution of the LICU, other than merger into another LICU, the secondary capital accounts will be closed and paid out to the account investor to the extent they are not needed to cover losses at the time of merger or dissolution.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Contract agreement.</I> A secondary capital account contract agreement must have been executed by an authorized representative of the account investor and of the LICU reflecting the terms and conditions mandated by this section and any other terms and conditions not inconsistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Disclosure and acknowledgement.</I> An authorized representative of the LICU and of the secondary capital account investor each must have executed a “Disclosure and Acknowledgment” as set forth in the appendix to this subpart at the time of entering into the account agreement. The LICU must retain an original of the account agreement and the “Disclosure and Acknowledgment” for the term of the agreement, and a copy must be provided to the account investor.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Prompt corrective action.</I> As provided in this part, the NCUA may prohibit a LICU as classified “critically undercapitalized” or, if “new,” as “moderately capitalized”, “marginally capitalized”, “minimally capitalized” or “uncapitalized,” as the case may be, from paying principal, dividends, or interest on its uninsured secondary capital accounts established after August 7, 2000, except that unpaid dividends or interest will continue to accrue under the terms of the account to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounting treatment; Recognition of net worth value of accounts</I>—(1) <I>Debt.</I> A LICU that issued secondary capital accounts pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must record the funds on its balance sheet as a debt titled “uninsured secondary capital account.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Schedule for recognizing net worth value.</I> The LICU's reflection of the net worth value of the accounts in its financial statement may never exceed the full balance of the secondary capital on deposit after any early redemptions and losses. For accounts with remaining maturities of less than five years, the LICU must reflect the net worth value of the accounts in its financial statement in accordance with the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining balance of the accounts after any redemptions and losses; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The amounts calculated based on the following schedule:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(b)(2)(ii)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Net worth value of
<br/>original
<br/>balance
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Four to less than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three to less than four years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two to less than three years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One to less than two years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than one year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(3) <I>Financial statement.</I> The LICU must reflect the full amount of the secondary capital on deposit in a footnote to its financial statement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redemption of secondary capital.</I> With the written approval of NCUA, secondary capital that is not recognized as net worth under paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be redeemed according to the remaining maturity schedule in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Request to redeem secondary capital.</I> A request for approval to redeem discounted secondary capital may be submitted in writing at any time, must specify the increment(s) to be redeemed and the schedule for redeeming all or any part of each eligible increment, and must demonstrate to the satisfaction of NCUA that:
</P>
<P>(i) The LICU will have a post-redemption net worth classification of at least “adequately capitalized” under this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The discounted secondary capital has been on deposit at least two years;
</P>
<P>(iii) The discounted secondary capital will not be needed to cover losses prior to final maturity of the account;
</P>
<P>(iv) The LICU's books and records are current and reconciled;
</P>
<P>(v) The proposed redemption will not jeopardize other current sources of funding, if any, to the LICU; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The request to redeem is authorized by resolution of the LICU's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision on request.</I> A request to redeem discounted secondary capital may be granted in whole or in part. If a LICU is not notified within 45 days of receipt of a request for approval to redeem secondary capital that its request is either granted or denied, the LICU may proceed to redeem secondary capital accounts as proposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Schedule for redeeming secondary capital.</I>
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph <E T="01">(c)(3)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Redemption limit as
<br/>percent of
<br/>original
<br/>balance
<br/>(%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Four to less than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Three to less than four years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Two to less than three years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One to less than two years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) <I>Early redemption exception.</I> Subject to the written approval of NCUA obtained pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a LICU can redeem all or part of secondary capital accepted from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions at any time after the secondary capital has been on deposit for two years. If the secondary capital was accepted under conditions that required matching secondary capital from a source other than the Federal Government, the matching secondary capital may also be redeemed in the manner set forth in the preceding sentence. For purposes of obtaining NCUA's approval, all secondary capital a LICU accepts from the United States Government or any of its subdivisions, as well as its matching secondary capital, if any, is eligible for early redemption regardless of whether any part of the secondary capital has been discounted pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11074, Feb. 23, 2021, as amended at 86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021; 88 FR 18011, Mar. 27, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.4.11.15.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart D of Part 702—Disclosure and Acknowledgement Form
</HEAD>
<P>A LICU that is authorized to accept uninsured secondary capital accounts and each investor in such an account must have executed and dated the following “Disclosure and Acknowledgment” form, a signed original of which must be retained by the credit union:
</P>
<HD3>Disclosure and Acknowledgment
</HD3>
<P>[Name of CU] and [Name of investor] hereby acknowledge and agree that [Name of investor] has committed [amount of funds] to a secondary capital account with [name of credit union] under the following terms and conditions:
</P>
<P>1. <I>Term.</I> The funds committed to the secondary capital account are committed for a period of __ years.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Redemption prior to maturity.</I> Subject to the conditions set forth in 12 CFR 702.414, the funds committed to the secondary capital account are redeemable prior to maturity only at the option of the LICU and only with the prior written approval of NCUA.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Uninsured, non-share account.</I> The secondary capital account is not a share account and the funds committed to the secondary capital account are not insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or any other governmental or private entity.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prepayment risk.</I> Redemption of U.S.C. prior to the account's original maturity date may expose the account investor to the risk of being unable to reinvest the repaid funds at the same rate of interest for the balance of the period remaining until the original maturity date. The investor acknowledges that it understands and assumes responsibility for prepayment risk associated with the [name of credit union]'s redemption of the investor's U.S.C. account prior to the original maturity date.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Availability to cover losses.</I> The funds committed to the secondary capital account and any interest paid into the account may be used by [name of credit union] to cover any and all operating losses that exceed the credit union's net worth exclusive of allowance accounts for loan losses, and in the event the funds are so used, (name of credit union) will under no circumstances restore or replenish those funds to [name of institutional investor]. Dividends are not considered operating losses and are not eligible to be paid out of secondary capital.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Accrued interest.</I> By initialing below, [name of credit union] and [name of institutional investor] agree that accrued interest will be:
</P>
<FP-1>____Paid into and become part of the secondary capital account;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>____Paid directly to the investor;
</FP-1>
<FP-1>____Paid into a separate account from which the investor may make withdrawals; or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>____Any combination of the above provided the details are specified and agreed to in writing.
</FP-1>
<P>7. <I>Subordination of claims.</I> In the event of liquidation of [name of credit union], the funds committed to the secondary capital account will be subordinate to all other claims on the assets of the credit union, including claims of member shareholders, creditors and the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Prompt Corrective Action.</I> Under certain net worth classifications (see 12 CFR 702.204(b)(11), 702.304(b) and 702.305(b), as the case may be), the NCUA may prohibit [name of credit union] from paying principal, dividends or interest on its uninsured secondary capital accounts established after August 7, 2000, except that unpaid dividends or interest will continue to accrue under the terms of the account to the extent permitted by law.
</P>
<P>ACKNOWLEDGED AND AGREED TO this ____ day of [month and year] by:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[name of investor's official]
</FP>
<FP>[title of official]
</FP>
<FP>[name of investor]
</FP>
<FP>[address and phone number of investor]
</FP>
<FP>[investor's tax identification number]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[name of credit union official]
</FP>
<FP>[title of official]


</FP>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts E-F [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—CECL Transition Provisions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 34932, July 1, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 702.701" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.6.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.701   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the National Credit Union Administration Board pursuant to section 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1790d, as added by section 301 of the Credit Union Membership Access Act, Public Law 105-219, 112 Stat. 913 (1998).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart provides for the phase in of the adverse effects on the regulatory capital of federally insured credit unions that may result from the adoption of the current expected credit losses (CECL) accounting methodology.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The transition provisions of this subpart apply to Federally insured credit unions, whether Federally or State-chartered, including credit unions defined as “new” pursuant to section 1790d(b)(2) that make charges for loan losses in accordance with:
</P>
<P>(i) Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) under § 702.402(d)(1)(i); or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of Federally-insured, State-chartered credit unions, any other applicable standard under State law or regulation under § 702.402(d)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>(2) The transition provisions of this subpart do not apply to Federally-insured credit unions, whether Federally or State-chartered, including credit unions defined as “new” pursuant to section 1790d(b)(2), that make charges for loan losses using a reasonable reserve methodology under § 702.402(d)(1)(ii)(A).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.702" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.6.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.702   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the definitions set forth in § 702.2, the following definitions apply to this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>CECL transitional amount</I> means the decrease of a credit union's retained earnings resulting from its adoption of CECL, as determined pursuant to § 702.703(b).
</P>
<P><I>Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL)</I> means the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Transition period</I> means the 12-quarter reporting period beginning the first day of the fiscal year in which the credit union adopts CECL.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 702.703" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.6.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 702.703   CECL transition provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> The NCUA shall use the transition provisions of this subpart in determining a credit union's net worth category under this part, as applicable, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union has not adopted CECL before its first fiscal year beginning after December 15, 2022; and
</P>
<P>(2) The credit union records a reduction in retained earnings due to the adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of CECL transition amount.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating the first three quarters of the transition period, as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the CECL transitional amount is equal to the difference between the credit union's retained earnings as of the beginning of the fiscal year in which the credit union adopts CECL and the credit union's retained earnings as of the closing of the fiscal year immediately prior to the credit union's adoption of CECL.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating the fourth through twelfth quarters of the transition period, as described in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, the CECL transitional amount is equal to the difference between the credit union's retained earnings as of the end of the fiscal year in which the credit union adopts CECL and the credit union's retained earnings as of the beginning of its next fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of CECL transition provision.</I> In determining the net worth category of a credit union as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the NCUA shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Increase retained earnings and total assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the net worth ratio by 100 percent of its CECL transitional amount during the first three quarters of the transition period (first three reporting quarters of the fiscal year in which the credit union adopts CECL);
</P>
<P>(2) Increase retained earnings and total assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the net worth ratio by sixty-seven percent of its CECL transitional amount during the second four quarters of the transition period (fourth reporting quarter of the fiscal year in which the credit union adopts CECL and first three reporting quarters of the next fiscal year); and
</P>
<P>(3) Increase retained earnings and total assets as reported on the Call Report for purposes of the net worth ratio by thirty-three percent of its CECL transitional amount during the final four quarters of the transition period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.3.6.11.4.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 702—Gross-Up Approach, and Look-Through Approaches
</HEAD>
<P>Instead of using the risk weights assigned in § 702.104(c)(2) a credit union may determine the risk weight of certain investment funds, and the risk weight of a non-subordinated or subordinated tranche of any investment as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Gross-up approach</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Section 702.104(c)(3)(iii)(A) of this part provides that, a credit union may use the gross-up approach in this appendix to determine the risk weight of the carrying value of non-subordinated or subordinated tranches of any investment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation.</I> To use the gross-up approach, a credit union must calculate the following four inputs:
</P>
<P>(i) Pro rata share, which is the par value of the credit union's exposure as a percent of the par value of the tranche in which the securitization exposure resides;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enhanced amount, which is the par value of tranches that are more senior to the tranche in which the credit union's securitization resides;
</P>
<P>(iii) Exposure amount, which is the amortized cost for investments classified as held-to-maturity and available-for-sale, and the fair value for trading securities; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk weight, which is the weighted-average risk weight of underlying exposures of the securitization as calculated under this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit equivalent amount.</I> The “credit equivalent amount” of a securitization exposure under this part equals the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The exposure amount of the credit union's exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The pro rata share multiplied by the enhanced amount, each calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> To calculate risk-weighted assets for a securitization exposure under the gross-up approach, a credit union must apply the risk weight required under paragraph (a)(2) of this appendix to the credit equivalent amount calculated in paragraph (a)(3) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Securitization exposure defined.</I> For purposes of this this paragraph (a), “securitization exposure” means:
</P>
<P>(i) A credit exposure that arises from a securitization; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Securitization defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a), “securitization” means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(ii) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as loans, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, or other debt securities).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Look-through approaches.</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Section 702.104(c)(3)(iii)(B) provides that, a credit union may use one of the look-through approaches in this appendix to determine the risk weight of the exposure amount of any investment fund, or the holding of separate account insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Full look-through approach.</I> (i) <I>General.</I> A credit union that is able to calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for its proportional ownership share of each exposure held by the investment fund may set the risk-weighted asset amount of the credit union's exposure to the fund equal to the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) The aggregate risk-weighted asset amounts of the exposures held by the fund as if they were held directly by the credit union; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit union's proportional ownership share of the fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Holding report.</I> To calculate the risk-weighted amount under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this appendix, a credit union should:
</P>
<P>(A) Use the most recently issued investment fund holding report; and
</P>
<P>(B) Use an investment fund holding report that reflects holding that are not older than 6-months from the quarter-end effective date (as defined in § 702.101(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Simple modified look-through approach.</I> Under the simple modified look-through approach, the risk-weighted asset amount for a credit union's exposure to an investment fund equals the exposure amount multiplied by the highest risk weight that applies to any exposure the fund is permitted to hold under the prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar agreement that defines the fund's permissible investments (excluding derivative contracts that are used for hedging rather than speculative purposes and that do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternative modified look-through approach.</I> Under the alternative modified look-through approach, a credit union may assign the credit union's exposure amount to an investment fund on a pro rata basis to different risk weight categories under subpart A of this part based on the investment limits in the fund's prospectus, partnership agreement, or similar contract that defines the fund's permissible investments. The risk-weighted asset amount for the credit union's exposure to the investment fund equals the sum of each portion of the exposure amount assigned to an exposure type multiplied by the applicable risk weight under subpart A of this part. If the sum of the investment limits for all exposure types within the fund exceeds 100 percent, the credit union must assume that the fund invests to the maximum extent permitted under its investment limits in the exposure type with the highest applicable risk weight under subpart A of this part and continues to make investments in order of the exposure type with the next highest applicable risk weight under subpart A of this part until the maximum total investment level is reached. If more than one exposure type applies to an exposure, the credit union must use the highest applicable risk weight. A credit union may exclude derivative contracts held by the fund that are used for hedging rather than for speculative purposes and do not constitute a material portion of the fund's exposures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66722, Oct. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="703" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 703—INVESTMENT AND DEPOSIT ACTIVITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757(7), 1757(8), 1757(14) and 1757(15).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Investment and Deposit Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part interprets several of the provisions of Sections 107(7), 107(8), and 107(15) of the Federal Credit Union Act (Act), 12 U.S.C. 1757(7), 1757(8), 1757(15), which list those securities, deposits, and other obligations in which a Federal credit union may invest. Part 703 identifies certain investments and deposit activities permissible under the Act and prescribes regulations governing those investments and deposit activities on the basis of safety and soundness concerns. Additionally, part 703 identifies and prohibits certain investments and deposit activities. Investments and deposit activities that are permissible under the Act and not prohibited or otherwise regulated by part 703 remain permissible for Federal credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Investment in loans to members and related activities, which is governed by §§ 701.21, 701.22, 701.23, and part 723 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase of real estate-secured loans pursuant to Section 107(15)(A) of the Act, which is governed by § 701.23 of this chapter, except those real estate-secured loans purchased as a part of an investment repurchase transaction, which is governed by §§ 703.13 and 703.14 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Investment in credit union service organizations, which is governed by part 712 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(4) Investment in fixed assets, which is governed by § 701.36 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(5) Investment by corporate credit unions, which is governed by part 704 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(6) Investment activity by State-chartered credit unions, except as provided in §§ 741.3(a)(2) and 741.219 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(7) Funding a Charitable Donation Account pursuant to § 721.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 27828, May 17, 2004; 71 FR 76124, Dec. 20, 2006; 78 FR 76730, Dec. 19, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>The following definitions apply to this part:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted trading</I> means selling an investment to a counterparty at a price above its current fair value and simultaneously purchasing or committing to purchase from the counterparty another investment at a price above its current fair value. 
</P>
<P><I>Associated personnel</I> means a person engaged in the investment banking or securities business who is directly or indirectly controlled by a Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) member, whether or not this person is registered or exempt from registration with FINRA. Associated personnel includes every sole proprietor, partner, officer, director, or branch manager of any FINRA member. 
</P>
<P><I>Banker's acceptance</I> means a time draft that is drawn on and accepted by a bank and that represents an irrevocable obligation of the bank. 
</P>
<P><I>Bank note</I> means a direct, unconditional, and unsecured general obligation of a bank that ranks equally with all other senior unsecured indebtedness of the bank, except deposit liabilities and other obligations that are subject to any priorities or preferences. 
</P>
<P><I>Borrowing repurchase transaction</I> means a transaction in which the Federal credit union agrees to sell a security to a counterparty and to repurchase the same or an identical security from that counterparty at a specified future date and at a specified price. 
</P>
<P><I>Call</I> means an option that gives the holder the right to buy a specified quantity of a security at a specified price during a fixed time period.
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized Mortgage Obligation (CMO)</I> means a multi-class mortgage related security.
</P>
<P><I>Collective investment fund</I> means a fund maintained by a national bank under 12 CFR part 9 (Comptroller of the Currency's regulations). 
</P>
<P><I>Commercial mortgage related security</I> means a mortgage related security, as defined below, except that it is collateralized entirely by commercial real estate, such as a warehouse or office building, or a multi-family dwelling consisting of more than four units. 
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means the party on the other side of the transaction. 
</P>
<P><I>Custodial Agreement</I> means a contract in which one party agrees to hold securities in safekeeping for others.
</P>
<P><I>Delivery versus payment</I> means payment for an investment must occur simultaneously with its delivery. 
</P>
<P><I>Embedded option</I> means a characteristic of an investment that gives the issuer or holder the right to alter the level and timing of the cash flows of the investment. Embedded options include call and put provisions and interest rate caps and floors. Since a prepayment option in a mortgage is a type of call provision, a mortgage-backed security composed of mortgages that may be prepaid is an example of an investment with an embedded option. 
</P>
<P><I>Eurodollar deposit</I> means a U.S. dollar-denominated deposit in a foreign branch of a United States depository institution. 
</P>
<P><I>European financial options contract</I> means an option that can be exercised only on its expiration date. 
</P>
<P><I>Exchangeable Collateralized Mortgage Obligation</I> means a class of a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) that, at the time of purchase, represents beneficial ownership interests in a combination of two or more underlying classes of the same CMO structure. The holder of an exchangeable CMO may pay a fee and take delivery of the underlying classes of the CMO.
</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> means the price that would be received to sell an asset, or paid to transfer a liability, in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date, as defined by GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Financial options contract</I> means an agreement to make or take delivery of a standardized financial instrument upon demand by the holder of the contract as specified in the agreement. 
</P>
<P><I>Forward sales commitment</I> means an agreement to sell an asset at a price and future date specified in the agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household. 
</P>
<P><I>Independent qualified agent</I> means an agent independent of an investment repurchase counterparty that does not receive a transaction fee from the counterparty and has at least two years experience assessing the value of mortgage loans.
</P>
<P><I>Industry-recognized information provider</I> means an organization that obtains compensation by providing information to investors and receives no compensation for the purchase or sale of investments.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate lock commitment</I> means an agreement by a credit union to hold a certain interest rate and points for a specified amount of time while a prospective borrower's application is processed.
</P>
<P><I>Investment</I> means any security, obligation, account, deposit, or other item authorized for purchase by a Federal credit union under Sections 107(7), 107(8), or 107(15) of the Act, or this part, other than loans to members. 
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means the issuer of a security has an adequate capacity to meet the financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure, even under adverse economic conditions. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest on the security is expected. A Federal credit union may consider any or all of the following factors, to the extent appropriate, with respect to the credit risk of a security: Credit spreads; securities-related research; internal or external credit risk assessments; default statistics; inclusion on an index; priorities and enhancements; price, yield, and/or volume; and asset class-specific factors. This list of factors is not meant to be exhaustive or mutually exclusive.
</P>
<P><I>Investment repurchase transaction</I> means a transaction in which an investor agrees to purchase a security from a counterparty and to resell the same or an identical security to that counterparty at a specified future date and at a specified price. 
</P>
<P><I>Maturity</I> means the date the last principal amount of a security is scheduled to come due and does not mean the call date or the weighted average life of a security. 
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage related security</I> means a security as defined in section 3(a)(41) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41)). 
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets</I> mean those assets, maintained in accordance with GAAP, resulting from contracts to service loans secured by real estate (that have been securitized or owned by others) for which the benefits of servicing are expected to more than adequately compensate the servicer for performing the servicing.
</P>
<P><I>Negotiable instrument</I> means an instrument that may be freely transferred from the purchaser to another person or entity by delivery, or endorsement and delivery, with full legal title becoming vested in the transferee. 
</P>
<P><I>Net worth</I> means the retained earnings balance of the credit union at quarter end as determined under generally accepted accounting principles and as further defined in § 702.2 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>Official</I> means any member of a Federal credit union's board of directors, credit committee, supervisory committee, or investment-related committee. 
</P>
<P><I>Ordinary care</I> means the degree of care, which an ordinarily prudent and competent person engaged in the same line of business or endeavor should exercise under similar circumstances. 
</P>
<P><I>Pair-off transaction</I> means an investment purchase transaction that is closed or sold on, or before the settlement date. In a pair-off, an investor commits to purchase an investment, but then pairs-off the purchase with a sale of the same investment before or on the settlement date. 
</P>
<P><I>Put</I> means an option that gives the holder the right to sell a specified quantity of a security at a specified price during a fixed time period.
</P>
<P><I>Registered investment company</I> means an investment company that is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a). Examples of registered investment companies are mutual funds and unit investment trusts. 
</P>
<P><I>Regular way settlement</I> means delivery of a security from a seller to a buyer within the time frame that the securities industry has established for immediate delivery of that type of security. For example, regular way settlement of a Treasury security includes settlement on the trade date (cash), the business day following the trade date (regular way), and the second business day following the trade date (skip day). 
</P>
<P><I>Residual interest</I> means the remainder cash flows from collateralized mortgage obligations/real estate mortgage investment conduits (CMOs/REMICs), or other mortgage-backed security transaction, after payments due bondholders and trust administrative expenses have been satisfied. 
</P>
<P><I>Securities lending</I> means lending a security to a counterparty, either directly or through an agent, and accepting collateral in return. 
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> means a share, participation, or other interest in property or in an enterprise of the issuer or an obligation of the issuer that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Either is represented by an instrument issued in bearer or registered form or, if not represented by an instrument, is registered in books maintained to record transfers by or on behalf of the issuer; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is of a type commonly dealt in on securities exchanges or markets or, when represented by an instrument, is commonly recognized in any area in which it is issued or dealt in as a medium for investment; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Either is one of a class or series or by its terms is divisible into a class or series of shares, participations, interests, or obligations. 
</P>
<P><I>Senior management employee</I> means a Federal credit union's chief executive officer (typically this individual holds the title of President or Treasurer/Manager), an assistant chief executive officer, and the chief financial officer. 
</P>
<P><I>Small business related security</I> means a security as defined in section 3(a)(53) of the securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(53)). This definition does not include Small Business Administration securities permissible under section 107(7) of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P><I>Weighted average life</I> means the weighted-average time to the return of a dollar of principal, calculated by multiplying each portion of principal received by the time at which it is expected to be received (based on a reasonable and supportable estimate of that time) and then summing and dividing by the total amount of principal. 
</P>
<P><I>When-issued trading of securities</I> means the buying and selling of securities in the period between the announcement of an offering and the issuance and payment date of the securities. 
</P>
<P><I>Yankee dollar deposit</I> means a deposit in a United States branch of a foreign bank licensed to do business in the State in which it is located, or a deposit in a State-chartered, foreign controlled bank. 
</P>
<P><I>Zero coupon investment</I> means an investment that makes no periodic interest payments but instead is sold at a discount from its face value. The holder of a zero coupon investment realizes the rate of return through the gradual appreciation of the investment, which is redeemed at face value on a specified maturity date. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39831, July 1, 2004; 71 FR 76124, Dec. 20, 2006; 77 FR 74109, Dec. 13, 2012; 79 FR 5241, Jan. 31, 2014; 84 FR 1606, Feb. 5, 2019; 86 FR 28247, May 26, 2021; 86 FR 72806, 72818, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.3   Investment policies.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal credit union's board of directors must establish written investment policies consistent with the Act, this part, and other applicable laws and regulations and must review the policy at least annually. These policies may be part of a broader, asset-liability management policy. Written investment policies must address the following: 
</P>
<P>(a) The purposes and objectives of the Federal credit union's investment activities; 
</P>
<P>(b) The characteristics of the investments the Federal credit union may make including the issuer, maturity, index, cap, floor, coupon rate, coupon formula, call provision, average life, and interest rate risk; 
</P>
<P>(c) How the Federal credit union will manage interest rate risk; 
</P>
<P>(d) How the Federal credit union will manage liquidity risk; 
</P>
<P>(e) How the Federal credit union will manage credit risk including specifically listing institutions, issuers, and counterparties that may be used, or criteria for their selection, and limits on the amounts that may be invested with each; 
</P>
<P>(f) How the Federal credit union will manage concentration risk, which can result from dealing with a single or related issuers, lack of geographic distribution, holding obligations with similar characteristics like maturities and indexes, holding bonds having the same trustee, and holding securitized loans having the same originator, packager, or guarantor; 
</P>
<P>(g) Who has investment authority and the extent of that authority. Those with authority must be qualified by education or experience to assess the risk characteristics of investments and investment transactions. Only officials or employees of the Federal credit union may be voting members of an investment-related committee; 
</P>
<P>(h) The broker-dealers the Federal credit union may use; 
</P>
<P>(i) The safekeepers the Federal credit union may use; 
</P>
<P>(j) How the Federal credit union will handle an investment that, after purchase, is outside of board policy or fails a requirement of this part; and 
</P>
<P>(k) How the Federal credit union will conduct investment trading activities, if applicable, including addressing: 
</P>
<P>(1) Who has purchase and sale authority; 
</P>
<P>(2) Limits on trading account size; 
</P>
<P>(3) Allocation of cash flow to trading accounts; 
</P>
<P>(4) Stop loss or sale provisions; 
</P>
<P>(5) Dollar size limitations of specific types, quantity and maturity to be purchased; 
</P>
<P>(6) Limits on the length of time an investment may be inventoried in a trading account; and 
</P>
<P>(7) Internal controls, including segregation of duties. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.4   Recordkeeping and documentation requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Federal credit unions with assets of $10,000,000 or greater must comply with all generally accepted accounting principles applicable to reports or statements required to be filed with NCUA. Federal credit unions with assets less than $10,000,000 are encouraged to do the same, but are not required to do so. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal credit union must maintain documentation for each investment transaction for as long as it holds the investment and until the documentation has been audited in accordance with § 715.4 of this chapter and examined by NCUA. The documentation should include, where applicable, bids and prices at purchase and sale and for periodic updates, relevant disclosure documents or a description of the security from an industry-recognized information provider, financial data, and tests and reports required by the Federal credit union's investment policy and this part. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Federal credit union must maintain documentation its board of directors used to approve a broker-dealer or a safekeeper for as long as the broker-dealer or safekeeper is approved and until the documentation has been audited in accordance with § 715.4 of this chapter and examined by NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(d) A Federal credit union must obtain an individual confirmation statement from each broker-dealer for each investment purchased or sold. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 27828, May 17, 2004; 72 FR 30246, May 31, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.5   Discretionary control over investments and investment advisers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a Federal credit union must retain discretionary control over its purchase and sale of investments. A Federal credit union has not delegated discretionary control to an investment adviser when the Federal credit union reviews all recommendations from investment advisers and is required to authorize a recommended purchase or sale transaction before its execution. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) A Federal credit union may delegate discretionary control over the purchase and sale of investments to a person other than a Federal credit union official or employee: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provided the person is an investment adviser registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b); and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In an amount up to 100 percent of its net worth in the aggregate at the time of delegation. 
</P>
<P>(2) At least annually, the Federal credit union must adjust the amount of funds held under discretionary control to comply with the 100 percent of net worth cap. The Federal credit union's board of directors must receive notice as soon as possible, but no later than the next regularly scheduled board meeting, of the amount exceeding the net worth cap and notify in writing the appropriate regional director within 5 days after the board meeting. The credit union must develop a plan to comply with the cap within a reasonable period of time. 
</P>
<P>(3) Before transacting business with an investment adviser, a Federal credit union must analyze his or her background and information available from State or Federal securities regulators, including any enforcement actions against the adviser, associated personnel, and the firm for which the adviser works. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Federal credit union may not compensate an investment adviser with discretionary control over the purchase and sale of investments on a per transaction basis or based on capital gains, capital appreciation, net income, performance relative to an index, or any other incentive basis. 
</P>
<P>(d) A Federal credit union must obtain a report from its investment adviser at least monthly that details the investments under the adviser's control and their performance. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.6   Credit analysis.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal credit union must conduct and document a credit analysis on an investment and the issuing entity before purchasing it, except for investments issued or fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. government or its agencies, enterprises, or corporations or fully insured (including accumulated interest) by the National Credit Union Administration or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. A Federal credit union must update this analysis at least annually for as long as it holds the investment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.7   Notice of non-compliant investments.</HEAD>
<P>A Federal credit union's board of directors must receive notice as soon as possible, but no later than the next regularly scheduled board meeting, of any investment that either is outside of board policy after purchase or has failed a requirement of this part. The board of directors must document its action regarding the investment in the minutes of the board meeting, including a detailed explanation of any decision not to sell it. The Federal credit union must notify in writing the appropriate regional director of an investment that has failed a requirement of this part within 5 days after the board meeting. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.8   Broker-dealers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal credit union may purchase and sell investments through a broker-dealer as long as the broker-dealer is registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>) or is a depository institution whose broker-dealer activities are regulated by a Federal or State regulatory agency. 
</P>
<P>(b) Before purchasing an investment through a broker-dealer, a Federal credit union must analyze and annually update the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The background of any sales representative with whom the Federal credit union is doing business; 
</P>
<P>(2) Information available from State or Federal securities regulators and securities industry self-regulatory organizations, such as the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority and the North American Securities Administrators Association, about any enforcement actions against the broker-dealer, its affiliates, or associated personnel; and 
</P>
<P>(3) If the broker-dealer is acting as the Federal credit union's counterparty, the ability of the broker-dealer and its subsidiaries or affiliates to fulfill commitments, as evidenced by capital strength, liquidity, and operating results. The Federal credit union should consider current financial data, annual reports, external assessments of creditworthiness, relevant disclosure documents, and other sources of financial information.
</P>
<P>(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply when the Federal credit union purchases a certificate of deposit or share certificate directly from a bank, credit union, or other depository institution. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39831, July 1, 2004; 77 FR 74109, Dec. 13, 2012; 84 FR 1606, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.9   Safekeeping of investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal credit union's purchased investments and repurchase collateral must be in the Federal credit union's possession, recorded as owned by the Federal credit union through the Federal Reserve Book-Entry System, or held by a board-approved safekeeper under a written custodial agreement that requires the safekeeper to exercise, at least, ordinary care. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any safekeeper used by a Federal credit union must be regulated and supervised by either the Securities and Exchange Commission, a Federal or State depository institution regulatory agency, or a State trust company regulatory agency. 
</P>
<P>(c) A Federal credit union must obtain and reconcile monthly a statement of purchased investments and repurchase collateral held in safekeeping. 
</P>
<P>(d) Annually, the Federal credit union must analyze the ability of the safekeeper to fulfill its custodial responsibilities, as evidenced by capital strength, liquidity, and operating results. The Federal credit union should consider current financial data, annual reports, external assessments of creditworthiness, relevant disclosure documents, and other sources of financial information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39831, July 1, 2004; 77 FR 74109, Dec. 13, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.10   Monitoring non-security investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least quarterly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report listing all of its shares and deposits in banks, credit unions, and other depository institutions, that have one or more of the following features: 
</P>
<P>(1) Embedded options; 
</P>
<P>(2) Remaining maturities greater than 3 years; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Coupon formulas that are related to more than one index or are inversely related to, or multiples of, an index. 
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement of paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to shares and deposits that are securities. 
</P>
<P>(c) If a Federal credit union does not have an investment-related committee, then each member of its board of directors must receive a copy of the report described in paragraph (a) of this section. If a Federal credit union has an investment-related committee, then each member of the committee must receive a copy of the report, and each member of the board must receive a summary of the information in the report. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.11   Valuing securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before purchasing or selling a security, a Federal credit union must obtain either price quotations on the security from at least two broker-dealers or a price quotation on the security from an industry-recognized information provider. This requirement to obtain price quotations does not apply to new issues purchased at par or at original issue discount. 
</P>
<P>(b) At least monthly, a Federal credit union must determine the fair value of each security it holds. It may determine fair value by obtaining a price quotation on the security from an industry-recognized information provider, a broker-dealer, or a safekeeper. 
</P>
<P>(c) At least annually, the Federal credit union's supervisory committee or its external auditor must independently assess the reliability of monthly price quotations received from a broker-dealer or safekeeper. The Federal credit union's supervisory committee or external auditor must follow generally accepted auditing standards, which require either re-computation or reference to market quotations. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a Federal credit union is unable to obtain a price quotation required by this section for a particular security, then it may obtain a quotation for a security with substantially similar characteristics. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.12   Monitoring securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At least monthly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report setting forth, for each security held, the fair value and dollar change since the prior month-end, with summary information for the entire portfolio. 
</P>
<P>(b) At least quarterly, a Federal credit union must prepare a written report setting forth the sum of the fair values of all fixed and variable rate securities held that have one or more of the following features: 
</P>
<P>(1) Embedded options; 
</P>
<P>(2) Remaining maturities greater than 3 years; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Coupon formulas that are related to more than one index or are inversely related to, or multiples of, an index. 
</P>
<P>(c) Where the amount calculated in paragraph (b) of this section is greater than a Federal credit union's net worth, the report described in that paragraph must provide a reasonable and supportable estimate of the potential impact, in percentage and dollar terms, of an immediate and sustained parallel shift in market interest rates of plus and minus 300 basis points on: 
</P>
<P>(1) The fair value of each security in the Federal credit union's portfolio; 
</P>
<P>(2) The fair value of the Federal credit union's portfolio as a whole; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal credit union's net worth. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Federal credit union does not have an investment-related committee, then each member of its board of directors must receive a copy of the reports described in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section. If the Federal credit union has an investment-related committee, then each member of the committee must receive copies of the reports, and each member of the board of directors must receive a summary of the information in the reports. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.13   Permissible investment activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regular way settlement and delivery versus payment basis.</I> A Federal credit union may only contract for the purchase or sale of a security as long as the delivery of the security is by regular way settlement and the transaction is accomplished on a delivery versus payment basis. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Federal funds.</I> A Federal credit union may sell Federal funds to an institution described in Section 107(8) of the Act and credit unions, as long as the interest or other consideration received from the financial institution is at the market rate for Federal funds transactions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investment repurchase transaction.</I> A Federal credit union may enter into an investment repurchase transaction so long as: 
</P>
<P>(1) Any securities the Federal credit union receives are permissible investments for Federal credit unions, the Federal credit union, or its agent, either takes physical possession or control of the repurchase securities or is recorded as owner of them through the Federal Reserve Book Entry Securities Transfer System, the Federal credit union, or its agent, receives a daily assessment of their market value, including accrued interest, and the Federal credit union maintains adequate margins that reflect a risk assessment of the securities and the term of the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal credit union has entered into signed contracts with all approved counterparties. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Borrowing repurchase transaction.</I> A Federal credit union may enter into a borrowing repurchase transaction so long as: 
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction meets the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any cash the Federal credit union receives is subject to the borrowing limit specified in Section 107(9) of the Act, and any investments the Federal credit union purchases with that cash are permissible for Federal credit unions; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The investments referenced in paragraph (d)(2) of this section must mature under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) No later than the maturity of the borrowing repurchase transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) No later than thirty days after the borrowing repurchase transaction, unless authorized under § 703.20, provided the value of all investments purchased with maturities later than borrowing repurchase transactions does not exceed 100 percent of the federal credit union's net worth; or
</P>
<P>(iii) At any time later than the maturity of the borrowing repurchase transaction, provided the value of all investments purchased with maturities later than borrowing repurchase transactions does not exceed 100 percent of the federal credit union's net worth and the credit union received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classifications of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Securities lending transaction.</I> A Federal credit union may enter into a securities lending transaction so long as: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal credit union receives written confirmation of the loan; 
</P>
<P>(2) Any collateral the Federal credit union receives is a legal investment for Federal credit unions, the Federal credit union, or its agent, obtains a first priority security interest in the collateral by taking physical possession or control of the collateral, or is recorded as owner of the collateral through the Federal Reserve Book Entry Securities Transfer System; and the Federal credit union, or its agent, receives a daily assessment of the market value of the collateral, including accrued interest, and maintains adequate margin that reflects a risk assessment of the collateral and the term of the loan; 
</P>
<P>(3) Any cash the Federal credit union receives is subject to the borrowing limit specified in Section 107(9) of the Act, and any investments the Federal credit union purchases with that cash are permissible for Federal credit unions and mature no later than the maturity of the transaction; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal credit union has executed a written loan and security agreement with the borrower. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) <I>Trading securities.</I> A Federal credit union may trade securities, including engaging in when-issued trading and pair-off transactions, so long as the Federal credit union can show that it has sufficient resources, knowledge, systems, and procedures to handle the risks. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal credit union must record any security it purchases or sells for trading purposes at fair value on the trade date. The trade date is the date the Federal credit union commits, orally or in writing, to purchase or sell a security. 
</P>
<P>(3) At least monthly, the Federal credit union must give its board of directors or investment-related committee a written report listing all purchase and sale transactions of trading securities and the resulting gain or loss on an individual basis. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012; 86 FR 59288, Oct. 27, 2021; 86 FR 72806, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.14   Permissible investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Variable rate investment.</I> A federal credit union may invest in a variable rate investment, as long as the index is tied to domestic interest rates. Except in the case of Treasury Inflation Protected Securities, the variable rate investment cannot, for example, be tied to foreign currencies, foreign interest rates, domestic or foreign commodity prices, equity prices, or inflation rates. For purposes of this part, the U.S. dollar-denominated London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) is a domestic interest rate. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corporate credit union shares or deposits.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase shares or deposits in a corporate credit union, except where the NCUA Board has notified it that the corporate credit union is not operating in compliance with part 704 of this chapter. A Federal credit union's aggregate amount of perpetual and nonperpetual capital, as defined in part 704 of this chapter, in one corporate credit union is limited to two percent of the federal credit union's assets measured at the time of investment or adjustment. A Federal credit union's aggregate amount of contributed capital in all corporate credit unions is limited to four percent of assets measured at the time of investment or adjustment. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Registered investment company.</I> A Federal credit union may invest in a registered investment company or collective investment fund, as long as the prospectus of the company or fund restricts the investment portfolio to investments and investment transactions that are permissible for Federal credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collateralized mortgage obligation/real estate mortgage investment conduit.</I> A Federal credit union may invest in a fixed or variable rate collateralized mortgage obligation/real estate mortgage investment conduit. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Municipal security.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase and hold a municipal security, as defined in section 107(7)(K) of the Act, only if it conducts and documents an analysis that reasonably concludes the security is at least investment grade. The Federal credit union must also limit its aggregate municipal securities holdings to no more than 75 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth and limit its holdings of municipal securities issued by any single issuer to no more than 25 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Instruments issued by institutions described in Section 107(8) of the Act.</I> A Federal credit union may invest in the following instruments issued by an institution described in Section 107(8) of the Act: 
</P>
<P>(1) Yankee dollar deposits; 
</P>
<P>(2) Eurodollar deposits; 
</P>
<P>(3) Banker's acceptances; 
</P>
<P>(4) Deposit notes; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Bank notes with weighted average maturities of less than 5 years. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>European financial options contract.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase a European financial options contract or a series of European financial options contracts only to fund the payment of dividends on member share certificates where the dividend rate is tied to an equity index provided: 
</P>
<P>(1) The option and dividend rate are based on a domestic equity index; 
</P>
<P>(2) Proceeds from the options are used only to fund dividends on the equity-linked share certificates; 
</P>
<P>(3) Dividends on the share certificates are derived solely from the change in the domestic equity index over a specified period; 
</P>
<P>(4) The options' expiration dates are no later than the maturity date of the share certificate.
</P>
<P>(5) The certificate may be redeemed prior to the maturity date only upon the member's death or termination of the corresponding option; 
</P>
<P>(6) The total costs associated with the purchase of the option is known by the Federal credit union prior to effecting the transaction; 
</P>
<P>(7) The options are purchased at the same time the certificate is issued to the member. 
</P>
<P>(8) The counterparty to the transaction is a domestic counterparty and has been approved by the Federal credit union's board of directors; 
</P>
<P>(9) The counterparty to the transaction meets the minimum credit quality standards as approved by the Federal credit union's board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(10) Any collateral posted by the counterparty is a permissible investment for Federal credit unions and is valued daily by an independent third party along with the value of the option; 
</P>
<P>(11) The aggregate amount of equity-linked member share certificates does not exceed 50 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth; 
</P>
<P>(12) The terms of the share certificate include a guarantee that there can be no loss of principal to the member regardless of changes in the value of the option unless the certificate is redeemed prior to maturity; and 
</P>
<P>(13) The Federal credit union provides its board of directors with a monthly report detailing at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar amount of outstanding equity-linked share certificates; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Their maturities; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The fair value of the options as determined by an independent third party. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Mortgage note repurchase transactions.</I> A federal credit union may invest in securities that are offered and sold pursuant to section 4(5) of the Securities Act of 1933, 15 U.S.C. 77d(5), only as a part of an investment repurchase agreement under § 703.13(c), subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate of the investments with any one counterparty is limited to 25 percent of the Federal credit union's net worth and 50 percent of its net worth with all counterparties;
</P>
<P>(2) At the time the Federal credit union purchases the securities, the counterparty, or a party fully guaranteeing the counterparty, must meet the minimum credit quality standards as approved by the Federal credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(3) The federal credit union must obtain a daily assessment of the market value of the securities under § 703.13(c)(1) using an independent qualified agent;
</P>
<P>(4) The mortgage note repurchase transaction is limited to a maximum term of 90 days;
</P>
<P>(5) All mortgage note repurchase transactions will be conducted under tri-party custodial agreements; and
</P>
<P>(6) A federal credit union must obtain an undivided interest in the securities.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Zero-coupon investments.</I> A federal credit union may only purchase a zero-coupon investment with a maturity date that is no greater than 10 years from the related settlement date, unless authorized under § 703.20 or otherwise provided in this paragraph. A federal credit union that received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classification of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters may purchase a zero-coupon investment with a maturity date that is no greater than 30 years from the related settlement date.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Commercial mortgage related security (CMRS).</I> A federal credit union may purchase a CMRS permitted by Section 107(7)(E) of the Act; and, pursuant to Section 107(15)(B) of the Act, a CMRS of an issuer other than a government-sponsored enterprise enumerated in Section 107(7)(E) of the Act, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal credit union conducts and documents a credit analysis that reasonably concludes the CMRS is at least investment grade.
</P>
<P>(2) The CMRS meets the definition of mortgage related security as defined in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(41) and the definition of commercial mortgage related security as defined in § 703.2 of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The CMRS's underlying pool of loans contains more than 50 loans with no one loan representing more than 10 percent of the pool; and
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate amount of private label CMRS purchased by the federal credit union does not exceed 25 percent of its net worth, unless authorized under § 703.20 or as otherwise provided in this paragraph (j)(4). A federal credit union that has received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classification of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters may hold private label CMRS in an aggregate amount not to exceed 50% of its net worth.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Loan pipeline management.</I> A Federal credit union may enter into the following transactions related to the management of its loan pipeline:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest rate lock commitments and forward sales commitments; and
</P>
<P>(2) Transactions to manage Interest Rate Risk, as defined in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Embedded options.</I> A Federal credit union may enter into embedded options not required under generally accepted accounting principles adopted in the United States (GAAP) to be accounted for separately from the host contract. Embedded options that are required, under GAAP, to be accounted for separately from the host contract, are addressed in § 703.103(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Mortgage servicing assets.</I> A Federal credit union may purchase mortgage servicing assets from other federally insured credit unions if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal credit union received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2,” with a Management component rating of a “1” or “2,” for the last full examination;
</P>
<P>(2) The underlying mortgage loans of the mortgage servicing assets are loans the Federal credit union is empowered to grant;
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal credit union purchases the mortgage servicing assets within the limitations of its board of directors' written purchase policies; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Board of Directors or Investment Committee approves the purchase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39831, July 1, 2004; 71 FR 76124, Dec. 20, 2006; 75 FR 64826, Oct. 20, 2010; 77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012; 77 FR 74110, Dec. 13, 2012; 78 FR 13213 Feb. 27, 2013; 79 FR 5241, Jan. 31, 2014; 80 FR 66722, Oct. 29, 2015; 81 FR 17602, Mar. 30, 2016; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 28247, May 26, 2021; 86 FR 59288, Oct. 27, 2021; 86 FR 72818, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.15   Prohibited investment activities.</HEAD>
<P><I>Adjusted trading or short sales.</I> A Federal credit union may not engage in adjusted trading or short sales. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.16   Prohibited investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stripped mortgage backed securities (SMBS).</I> A Federal credit union may not invest in SMBS or securities that represent interests in SMBS except as described in paragraphs (1) and (3) below.
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal credit union may invest in and hold exchangeable collateralized mortgage obligations (exchangeable CMOs) representing beneficial ownership interests in one or more interest-only classes of a CMO (IO CMOs) or principal-only classes of a CMO (PO CMOs), but only if:
</P>
<P>(i) At the time of purchase, the ratio of the market price to the remaining principal balance is between .8 and 1.2, meaning that the discount or premium of the market price to par must be less than 20 points;
</P>
<P>(ii) The offering circular or other official information available at the time of purchase indicates that the notional principal on each underlying IO CMO should decline at the same rate as the principal on one or more of the underlying non-IO CMOs, and that the principal on each underlying PO CMO should decline at the same rate as the principal, or notional principal, on one or more of the underlying non-PO CMOs; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The credit union staff has the expertise dealing with exchangeable CMOs to apply the conditions in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal credit union that invests in an exchangeable CMO may exercise the exchange option only if all of the underlying CMOs are permissible investments for that credit union.
</P>
<P>(3) A Federal credit union may accept an exchangeable CMO representing beneficial ownership interests in one or more IO CMOs or PO CMOs as an asset associated with an investment repurchase transaction or as collateral in a securities lending transaction. When the exchangeable CMO is associated with one of these two transactions, it need not conform to the conditions in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other prohibited investments.</I> A Federal credit union may not purchase residual interests in collateralized mortgage obligations, real estate mortgage investment conduits, or small business related securities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39832, July 1, 2004; 77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012; 79 FR 5241, Jan. 31, 2014; 86 FR 72818, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.17   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Federal credit union's officials and senior management employees, and their immediate family members, may not receive anything of value in connection with its investment transactions. This prohibition also applies to any other employee, such as an investment officer, if the employee is directly involved in investments, unless the Federal credit union's board of directors determines that the employee's involvement does not present a conflict of interest. This prohibition does not include compensation for employees. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal credit union's officials and employees must conduct all transactions with business associates or family members that are not specifically prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section at arm's length and in the Federal credit union's best interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.18   Grandfathered investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to safety and soundness considerations, a Federal credit union may hold a CMO/REMIC residual, stripped mortgage-backed securities, or zero coupon security with a maturity greater than 10 years, if it purchased the investment: 
</P>
<P>(1) Before December 2, 1991; or 
</P>
<P>(2) On or after December 2, 1991, but before January 1, 1998, if for the purpose of reducing interest rate risk and if the Federal credit union meets the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Federal credit union has a monitoring and reporting system in place that provides the documentation necessary to evaluate the expected and actual performance of the investment under different interest rate scenarios; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal credit union uses the monitoring and reporting system to conduct and document an analysis that shows, before purchase, that the proposed investment will reduce its interest rate risk; 
</P>
<P>(iii) After purchase, the Federal credit union evaluates the investment at least quarterly to determine whether or not it actually has reduced the interest rate risk; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) The Federal credit union accounts for the investment consistent with generally accepted accounting principles. 
</P>
<P>(b) A federal credit union may hold a zero-coupon investment with a maturity greater than 10 years, a borrowing repurchase transaction in which the investment matures at any time later than the maturity of the borrowing, or CMRS that cause the credit union's aggregate amount of CMRS from issuers other than government-sponsored enterprises to exceed 25% of its net worth, in each case if it purchased the investment or entered the transaction under the Regulatory Flexibility Program before July 2, 2012.
</P>
<P>(c) All grandfathered investments are subject to the valuation and monitoring requirements of §§ 703.10, 703.11, and 703.12 of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.19   Investment pilot program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the investment pilot program, NCUA will permit a limited number of Federal credit unions to engage in investment activities prohibited by this part but permitted by the Act. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, before a Federal credit union may engage in additional activities it must obtain written approval from NCUA. To obtain approval, a Federal credit union must submit a request to its regional director that addresses the following items: 
</P>
<P>(1) Certification that the Federal credit union is “well-capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(2) Board policies approving the activities and establishing limits on them; 
</P>
<P>(3) A complete description of the activities, with specific examples of how they will benefit the Federal credit union and how they will be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(4) A demonstration of how the activities will affect the Federal credit union's financial performance, risk profile, and asset-liability management strategies; 
</P>
<P>(5) Examples of reports the Federal credit union will generate to monitor the activities; 
</P>
<P>(6) Projections of the associated costs of the activities, including personnel, computer, audit, and so forth; 
</P>
<P>(7) Descriptions of the internal systems that will measure, monitor, and report the activities; 
</P>
<P>(8) Qualifications of the staff and officials responsible for implementing and overseeing the activities; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Internal control procedures that will be implemented, including audit requirements. 
</P>
<P>(c) A third-party seeking approval of an investment pilot program must submit a request to the Director of the Office of Capital Markets and Planning that addresses the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) A complete description of the activities with specific examples of how a credit union will conduct and account for them, and how they will benefit a Federal credit union; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any risks to a Federal credit union from participating in the program; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Contracts that must be executed by the Federal credit union. 
</P>
<P>(d) A Federal credit union need not obtain individual written approval to engage in investment activities prohibited by this part but permitted by statute where the activities are part of a third-party investment program that NCUA has approved under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32960, June 3, 2003, as amended at 69 FR 39832, July 1, 2004; 70 FR 55517, Sept. 22, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.1.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.20   Request for additional authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional authority.</I> A federal credit union may submit a written request to its regional director seeking expanded authority above the following limits in this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Borrowing repurchase transaction maximum maturity mismatch of 30 days under § 703.13(d)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(2) Zero-coupon investment 10-year maximum maturity under § 703.14(i), up to a maturity of no more than 30 years.
</P>
<P>(3) CMRS aggregate limit of 25% of net worth under § 703.14(j), up to no more than 50% of net worth. To obtain approval for additional authority, the federal credit union must demonstrate three consecutive years of effective CMRS portfolio management and the ability to evaluate key risk factors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written request.</I> A federal credit union desiring additional authority must submit a written request to the NCUA regional office having jurisdiction over the geographical area in which the credit union's main office is located, that includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the credit union's investment policy;
</P>
<P>(2) The higher limit sought;
</P>
<P>(3) An explanation of the need for additional authority;
</P>
<P>(4) Documentation supporting the credit union's ability to manage the investment or activity; and
</P>
<P>(5) An analysis of the credit union's prior experience with the investment or activity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Approval process.</I> A regional director will provide a written determination on a request for expanded authority within 60 calendar days after receipt of the request; however, the 60-day period will not begin until the requesting credit union has submitted all necessary information to the regional director. The regional director will inform the requesting credit union, in writing, of the date the request was received and of any additional documentation that the regional director requires in support of the request. If the regional director approves the request, the regional director will establish a limit on the investment or activity as appropriate and subject to the limitations in this part. If the regional director does not notify the credit union of the action taken on its request within 60 calendar days of the receipt of the request or the receipt of additional requested supporting information, whichever occurs later, the credit union may proceed with its proposed investment or investment activity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appeal to NCUA Board.</I> A Federal credit union may request the regional director to reconsider any part of the determination made under paragraph (c) of this section and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 31991, May 31, 2012, as amended at 82 FR 50293, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Derivatives</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 28247, May 26, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 703.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.101   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart grants Federal credit unions limited authority to enter into Derivatives only for the purpose of managing Interest Rate Risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to all Federal credit unions. Except as provided in § 741.219, this rule does not apply to federally insured, state-chartered credit unions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prior approvals.</I> Any Federal credit union with an active approval, under the prior version of this subpart, on June 25, 2021 is subject to the provisions of this subpart and is no longer subject to the restrictions, limits, or terms contained in the Federal credit union's approved application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pending Approvals.</I> Any application for Derivatives authority pending on June 25, 2021, except for such applications submitted by a Federal credit union that would be subject to the requirements of § 703.108(b), is deemed to be withdrawn and such applicant is subject to the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means a Swap Dealer, Derivatives Clearing Organization, or exchange that participates as the other party in a derivatives transaction with a Federal credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative</I> means a financial contract that derives its value from the value and performance of some other underlying financial instrument or variable, such as an index or interest rate.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives Clearing Organization</I> has the meaning as defined by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (CFTC) in 17 CFR 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Domestic interest rates</I> means interest rates derived in the United States and are U.S. dollar-denominated.
</P>
<P><I>Earnings at Risk</I> means the changes to earnings, typically in the short term (for example, 12 to 36 months), caused by changes in interest rates.
</P>
<P><I>Economic Effectiveness</I> means the extent to which a Derivatives transaction results in offsetting changes in the Interest Rate Risk that the transaction was, and is, intended to provide.
</P>
<P><I>External Service Provider</I> means any entity that provides services to assist a Federal credit union in carrying out its Derivatives program and the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Futures Commission Merchant</I> (FCM) has the meaning as defined by the CFTC in 17 CFR 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Interest Rate Risk</I> means the current and prospective risk to a credit union's capital and earnings arising from movements in interest rates.
</P>
<P><I>Introducing Broker</I> means a futures brokerage firm that deals directly with the client, while the trade execution is done by an FCM.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means the minimum amount of eligible collateral, as defined in § 703.104(c), that must be deposited between parties to a Derivatives transaction, as detailed in a Master Services Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Master Services Agreement</I> means a document agreed upon between two parties that sets out standard terms that apply to all transactions entered into between those parties. The most common form of a Master Services Agreement for Derivatives is an International Swap Dealer Association Master Agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Net Economic Value</I> means the measurement of changes in the economic value of Net Worth caused by changes in interest rates.
</P>
<P><I>Net Worth</I> has the meaning specified in part 702 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared</I> means transactions that do not go through a Derivatives Clearing Organization
</P>
<P><I>Regional Director</I> means an NCUA Regional Director or the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.
</P>
<P><I>Senior Executive Officer</I> has the meaning specified in § 701.14 of this chapter and includes any other similar employee that is directly within the chain of command for the oversight of a Federal credit union's Derivatives program.
</P>
<P><I>Structured Liability Offering</I> means a share product created by a Federal credit union with contractual option features, such as periodic caps and calls, similar to those found in structured securities or structured notes.
</P>
<P><I>Swap Dealer</I> has the meaning as defined by the CFTC in 17 CFR 1.3.
</P>
<P><I>Threshold Amount</I> means an unsecured credit exposure that a party to a Derivatives transaction is prepared to accept before requesting additional eligible collateral, as defined in § 703.104(c), from the other party.
</P>
<P><I>Trade Date</I> means the date that a Derivatives order (new transactions, terminations, or assignments) is executed with a Counterparty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.103   Requirements related to the characteristics of permissible Interest Rate Risk Derivatives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under this subpart, a Federal credit union may only enter into Derivatives that have the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>(1) Are for the purpose of managing Interest Rate Risk;
</P>
<P>(2) Denominated in U.S. dollars;
</P>
<P>(3) Based on Domestic Interest Rates or the U.S. dollar-denominated London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR);
</P>
<P>(4) A contract maturity equal to or less than 15 years, as of the Trade Date; and
</P>
<P>(5) Not used to create Structured Liability Offerings for members or nonmembers.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal credit union may not engage in embedded options required under U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) to be accounted for separately from the host contract.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.104   Requirements for Counterparty agreements, collateral and Margining.</HEAD>
<P>To enter into Derivative transactions under this subpart, a Federal credit union must:
</P>
<P>(a) Have an executed Master Services Agreement with a Counterparty. Such agreement must be reviewed by counsel with expertise in similar types of transactions to ensure the agreement reasonably protects the interests of the Federal credit union;
</P>
<P>(b) Use only the following Counterparties:
</P>
<P>(1) For exchange-traded and cleared Derivatives: Swap Dealers, Introducing Brokers, and/or FCMs that are current registrants of the CFTC; or
</P>
<P>(2) For Non-cleared Derivative transactions: Swap Dealers that are current registrants of the CFTC.
</P>
<P>(c) Utilize contracted Margin requirements with a maximum Margin threshold amount of $250,000; and
</P>
<P>(d) For Non-cleared Derivative transactions, accept as eligible collateral, for Margin requirements, only the following: Cash (U.S. dollars), U.S. Treasuries, government-sponsored enterprise debt, U.S. government agency debt, government-sponsored enterprise residential mortgage-backed security pass-through securities, and U.S. government agency residential mortgage-backed security pass-through securities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.105   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board reporting.</I> At least quarterly, a Federal credit union's Senior Executive Officers must deliver a comprehensive Derivatives report, as described in paragraph (c) of this section to the Federal credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Senior Executive Officer and asset liability or similarly functioning committee.</I> At least monthly, Federal credit union staff must deliver a comprehensive Derivatives report, as described in paragraph (c) of this section to the Federal credit union's Senior Executive Officers and, if applicable, the Federal credit union's asset liability or similarly functioning committee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Comprehensive Derivatives management report.</I> At a minimum, the reports required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of any areas of noncompliance with any provision of this subpart or the Federal credit union's policies, and the planned remediation of such noncompliance;
</P>
<P>(2) An itemization of the Federal credit union's individual transactions subject to this subpart, the current values of such transactions, and each individual transaction's intended use for Interest Rate Risk mitigation; and
</P>
<P>(3) A comprehensive view of the Federal credit union's risk reports, including, but not limited to, Interest Rate Risk calculations with details of the transactions subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of noncompliance.</I> Notification of any noncompliance as part of the Derivatives management report required in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must be submitted to the applicable Regional Director immediately after it has been submitted to the Federal credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>NCUA request.</I> The NCUA may, at any time, request the Derivatives management report required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 28247, May 26, 2021, as amended at 91 FR 36076, June 16, 2026]



 
</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.106   Operational support requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required experience and competencies.</I> A Federal credit union using Derivative transactions subject to this subpart must internally possess the following experience and competencies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Board.</I> (i) Before entering into the initial Derivatives transaction, a Federal credit union's board members must receive training that provides a general understanding of Derivative transactions, and the knowledge required to provide strategic oversight of the Federal credit union's Derivatives program.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person that becomes a board member after the initial Derivatives transaction must receive the same training, updated if necessary, as required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) At least annually after the initial Derivatives transaction, as part of the Derivatives reporting requirement in § 703.105(a), the Federal credit union's Senior Executive Officers must brief the board members on the Federal credit union's use of Derivatives to manage Interest Rate Risk.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Senior Executive Officers.</I> A Federal credit union's Senior Executive Officers must be able to understand, approve, and provide oversight for the Derivatives program. These individuals must have a comprehensive understanding of how the Derivative transactions fit into the Federal credit union's Interest Rate Risk management process.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Qualified Derivatives personnel.</I> To engage in the Derivative transactions, a Federal credit union must employ staff with experience in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Asset/liability risk management.</I> Staff must be qualified to understand and oversee asset/liability risk management, including the appropriate role of the transactions subject to this subpart. Staff must also be qualified to understand and undertake or oversee the appropriate modeling and analytics related to Net Economic Value and Earnings at Risk;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accounting and financial reporting.</I> Staff must be qualified to understand and oversee appropriate accounting and financial reporting for Derivatives in accordance GAAP;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Derivatives execution and oversight.</I> Staff must be qualified to undertake or oversee Derivative trade executions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Counterparty, collateral, and Margin management.</I> Staff must be qualified to evaluate Counterparty, collateral, and Margin risk as described in § 703.104 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required review and internal controls structure.</I> To effectively manage the transactions subject to this subpart, a Federal credit union must assess the effectiveness of its management and internal controls structure. At a minimum, the internal controls structure must include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transaction review.</I> Before executing any Derivatives transaction, a Federal credit union must identify and document the circumstances that lead to the decision to execute the Derivatives transaction, specify the strategy the Federal credit union will employ, and demonstrate the economic effectiveness of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Internal controls review.</I> Within the first year after commencing its first Derivatives transaction, a Federal credit union must have an internal controls review that is focused on the integration and introduction of the program, and ensure the timely identification of weaknesses in internal controls, accounting, and all operational and oversight processes. This review must be performed by an independent external unit or, if applicable, the Federal credit union's internal auditor;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial statement audit.</I> Any Federal credit union engaging in Derivative transactions pursuant to this subpart must obtain an annual financial statement audit, as defined in § 715.2(d) of this chapter, and be compliant with GAAP for all Derivatives-related accounting and reporting;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral management review.</I> Before executing its first Derivative transaction, a Federal credit union must establish a collateral management process that monitors the Federal credit union's collateral and Margining requirements and ensures that its transactions are collateralized in accordance with the collateral requirements of this subpart and the Federal credit union's Master Services Agreement with its Counterparty;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Liquidity review.</I> Before executing its first Derivative transaction, a Federal credit union must establish a liquidity review process to analyze and measure potential liquidity needs related to its Derivatives program and the additional collateral requirements due to changes in interest rates. The Federal credit union must, as part of its liquidity risk management, calculate and track contingent liquidity needs in the event a transaction needs to be novated or terminated, and must establish effective controls for liquidity exposures arising from both market or product liquidity and instrument cash flows; and
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Separation of duties.</I> A Federal credit union's process, whether conducted internally or by an External Service Provider, must have appropriate separation of duties for the following functions defined in subsection (a)(3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Asset/liability risk management;
</P>
<P>(ii) Accounting and financial reporting;
</P>
<P>(iii) Derivatives execution and oversight; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Counterparty, collateral and Margin management.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A Federal credit union using Derivatives, permitted under this subpart, must operate according to comprehensive written policies and procedures for control, measurement, and management of Derivative transactions. At a minimum, the policies and procedures must address the requirements of this subpart and any additional limitations imposed by the Federal credit union's board of directors. A Federal credit union's board of directors must review the policies and procedures described in this section at least annually and update them when necessary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.107   External service providers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Federal credit union using Derivatives may use External Service Providers to support or conduct aspects of its Derivative management program, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The External Service Provider, including affiliates, does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Act as a Counterparty to any Derivative transactions that involve the Federal credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) Act as a principal or agent in any Derivative transactions that involve the Federal credit union; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Have discretionary authority to execute any of the Federal credit union's Derivative transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal credit union has the internal capacity, experience, and skills to oversee and manage any External Service Providers it uses; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal credit union documents the specific uses of External Service Providers in its policies and procedures, as described in § 703.106(c) of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relation to § 703.106.</I> This section does not alleviate the responsibility of the Federal credit union to employ qualified staff in accordance with § 703.106 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.108" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.108   Notification and application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification.</I> A Federal credit union that meets the following requirements must notify the applicable Regional Director in writing or via electronic mail within five business days after entering into its first Derivatives transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal credit union's most recent NCUA Management CAMEL component is a rating of 1 or 2; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal credit union has assets of at least $500 million as of its most recent call report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> A Federal credit union that does not meet the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) and/or (2) of this section must obtain approval before engaging in Derivatives under this subpart from its applicable Regional Director, by submitting an application, that, at a minimum, includes the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An Interest Rate Risk mitigation plan that shows how Derivatives are one aspect of the Federal credit union's overall Interest Rate Risk mitigation strategy, and an analysis showing how the Federal credit union will use Derivatives in conjunction with other on-balance sheet instruments and strategies to effectively manage its Interest Rate Risk;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the Derivatives products and characteristics of such products the Federal credit union is planning to use;
</P>
<P>(3) Draft policies and procedures that the Federal credit union has prepared in accordance with § 703.106;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of how the Federal credit union plans to acquire, employ, and/or create the resources, policies, processes, systems, internal controls, modeling, experience, and competencies to meet the requirements of this subpart. This includes a description of how the Federal credit union will ensure that Senior Executive Officers, the board of directors, and personnel have the knowledge and experience in accordance with the requirements of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) A description of how the Federal credit union intends to use External Service Providers as part of its Derivatives program, and a list of the name(s) of and service(s) provided by the External Service Providers, as described in § 703.107 of this subpart, it intends to use;
</P>
<P>(6) A description of how the Federal credit union will support the operations of Margining and collateral, as described in § 703.104 of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(7) A description of how the Federal credit union will comply with the accounting and financial reporting in GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional information requested by the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application review.</I> (1) After the applicable Regional Director has completed his or her review, including any requests for additional information, the Regional Director will notify the Federal credit union in writing of his or her decision. Any denials will include the reason(s) for such denial. A Federal credit union subject to paragraph (b) of this section may not enter into any Derivative transactions under this subpart until it receives approval from the applicable Regional Director. At a Regional Director's discretion, a Federal credit union may reapply if its initial application is denied.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federal credit union that receives a denial of its application may appeal such decision in accordance with part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Change in condition</I>—(1) <I>Negative change in condition.</I> A Federal credit union that at any time, experiences a change in negative condition such that it no longer meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section or renders its approved application inaccurate must immediately:
</P>
<P>(i) Cease entering into any new Derivatives; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the applicable Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Remedial action for a Federal credit union that experiences a negative change in condition.</I> The applicable Regional Director may take all necessary actions, including, but not limited to, revoking a Federal credit union's authority to engage in Derivatives and/or requiring divesture of current Derivatives. A Federal credit union subject to this paragraph may not enter into new Derivatives unless notified in writing by the applicable Regional Director of its authority to do so.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Positive change in condition for a Federal credit union subject to paragraph (b) of this section.</I> A Federal credit union that is required to submit an application under paragraph (b) of this section that, at any time after approval of such application, meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section shall no longer be subject to the requirements included in its approved application, but will continue to be subject to the requirements of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 703.109" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.4.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 703.109   Regulatory violation or unsafe and unsound condition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon determination by the applicable Regional Director, and written notice by the same, a Federal credit union that no longer meets the requirements of this subpart; if applicable, fails to comply with its approved application; or is operating in an unsafe or unsound condition must immediately stop entering into any new Derivative transactions until the Federal credit union is notified by the applicable Regional Director in writing that it is permitted to resume engaging in Derivative transactions under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicable Regional Director determines a Federal credit union must take any action under paragraph (a) of this section, he or she will provide the Federal credit union with written notice including the reason(s) for such determination and the remedial actions that are required.
</P>
<P>(c) During this period, however, the Federal credit union may terminate existing Derivative transactions. A Regional Director may permit a Federal credit union to enter into offsetting transactions if he or she determines such transactions are part of a corrective action strategy; and
</P>
<P>(d) A Federal credit union that receives written notice under this section may appeal such determination in accordance with part 746 of the NCUA's regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="704" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 704—CORPORATE CREDIT UNIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766(a), 1781, 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 704.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes special rules for all federally insured corporate credit unions. Non-federally insured corporate credit unions must agree, by written contract, to both adhere to the requirements of this part and submit to examinations, as determined by NCUA, as a condition of receiving shares or deposits from federally insured credit unions. This part grants certain additional authorities to federal corporate credit unions. Except to the extent that they are inconsistent with this part, other provisions of NCUA's Rules and Regulations (12 CFR chapter VII) and the Federal Credit Union Act apply to federally chartered corporate credit unions and federally insured state-chartered corporate credit unions to the same extent that they apply to other federally chartered and federally insured state-chartered credit unions, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board has the authority to issue orders which vary from this part. This authority is provided under Section 120(a) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1766(a). Requests by state-chartered corporate credit unions for waivers to this part and for expansions of authority under appendix B of this part must be approved by the state regulator before being submitted to NCUA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 84 FR 1606, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>As used in this part:</I>
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted trading</I> means any method or transaction whereby a corporate credit union sells a security to a vendor at a price above its current market price and simultaneously purchases or commits to purchase from the vendor another security at a price above its current market price.
</P>
<P><I>Applicable state regulator</I> means the prudential state regulator of a state chartered corporate credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> (ABS) means a security that is primarily serviced by the cashflows of a discrete pool of receivables or other financial assets, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period plus any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to the security holders. Mortgage-backed securities are a type of asset-backed security.
</P>
<P><I>Available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings</I> means that the funds are available to cover operating losses realized, in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), by the corporate credit union that exceed retained earnings and equity acquired in a combination. Likewise, <I>available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and perpetual contributed capital (PCC)</I> means that the funds are available to cover operating losses realized, in accordance with GAAP, by the corporate credit union that exceed retained earnings and equity acquired in a combination and PCC. Any such losses must be distributed <I>pro rata</I> at the time the loss is realized first among the holders of PCC, and when all PCC is exhausted, then <I>pro rata</I> among all nonperpetual capital accounts (NCAs) and unconverted membership capital accounts, all subject to the optional prioritization described in appendix A of this part. To the extent that any contributed capital funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union must not restore or replenish the affected capital accounts under any circumstances. In addition, contributed capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P><I>CLF-related bridge loan</I> means interim financing, extending up to ten business days, that a corporate credit union provides for a natural person credit union from the time the CLF approves a loan to the natural person credit union until the CLF funds the loan. To repay a CLF-related bridge loan, the borrowing natural person credit union assigns the proceeds of the CLF advance to the corporate credit union making the CLF-related bridge loan for the duration of the bridge loan.
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized Debt Obligation or Collateralized Loan Obligation</I> means a debt security collateralized by mortgage-backed securities, other asset-backed securities, or corporate obligations in the form of nonmortgage loans or debt. For purposes of this part, the term collateralized debt obligation or collateralized loan obligation does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Senior tranches of Re-REMIC's consisting of senior mortgage-and asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(2) Any security that is fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. Government or its agencies or its sponsored enterprises; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any security collateralized by other securities where all the underlying securities are fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. Government or its agencies or its sponsored enterprises.
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized mortgage obligation</I> (CMO) means a multi-class mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial mortgage-backed security</I> (CMBS) means a mortgage-backed security collateralized primarily by multi-family and commercial property loans.
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> means all salaries, fees, wages, bonuses, severance payments, current year contributions to employee benefit plans (for example, medical, dental, life insurance, and disability), current year contributions to deferred compensation plans and future severance payments, including payments in connection with a merger or similar combination (whether or not funded; whether or not vested; and whether or not the deferred compensation plan is a qualified plan under Section 401(a) of the IRS Code). Compensation also includes expense accounts and other allowances (for example, the value of the personal use of housing, automobiles or other assets owned by the corporate credit union; expense allowances or reimbursements that recipients must report as income on their separate income tax return; payments made under indemnification arrangements; and payments made for the benefit of friends or relatives). In calculating required compensation disclosures, reasonable estimates may be used if precise cost figures are not readily available.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated Credit Union Service Organization</I> (Consolidated CUSO) means any CUSO the assets of which are consolidated with those of the corporate credit union for purposes of reporting under Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP). Generally, consolidated CUSOs are majority-owned CUSOs.
</P>
<P><I>Contributed capital</I> means either perpetual or nonperpetual capital.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate credit union</I> means an organization that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is chartered under Federal or state law as a credit union;
</P>
<P>(2) Receives shares from and provides loan services to credit unions;
</P>
<P>(3) Is operated primarily for the purpose of serving other credit unions;
</P>
<P>(4) Is designated by NCUA as a corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) Limits natural person members to the minimum required by state or federal law to charter and operate the credit union; and
</P>
<P>(6) Does not condition the eligibility of any credit union to become a member on that credit union's membership in any other organization.
</P>
<P><I>Corporate CUSO</I> means a CUSO, as defined in part 712 of this chapter, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is a consolidated CUSO;
</P>
<P>(2) A corporate credit union has the power, directly or indirectly, to direct the CUSO's management or policies;
</P>
<P>(3) A corporate credit union owns 25 percent or more of the CUSO's contributed equity, stock, or membership interests; or
</P>
<P>(4) The aggregate corporate credit union ownership meets or exceeds 50 percent of the CUSO's contributed equity, stock, or membership interests.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union service organization (CUSO)</I> means both a CUSO under part 712 of this chapter and a corporate CUSO under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Critical accounting policies</I> means those policies that are most important to the portrayal of a corporate credit union's financial condition and results and that require management's most difficult, subjective, or complex judgments, often as a result of the need to make estimates about the effect of matters that are inherently uncertain.
</P>
<P><I>Daily average net assets</I> means the average of net assets calculated for each day during the period.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives</I> means a financial contract which derives its value from the value and performance of some other underlying financial instrument or variable, such as an index or interest rate.
</P>
<P><I>Dollar roll</I> means the purchase or sale of a mortgage-backed security to a counterparty with an agreement to resell or repurchase a substantially identical security at a future date and at a specified price.
</P>
<P><I>Embedded option</I> means a characteristic of certain assets and liabilities which gives the issuer of the instrument the ability to change the features such as final maturity, rate, principal amount and average life. Options include, but are not limited to, calls, caps, and prepayment options.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise risk management</I> means the process of addressing risk on an entity-wide basis. The purpose of this process is not to eliminate risk but, rather, to provide the knowledge the board of directors and management need to effectively measure, monitor, and control risk and to then plan appropriate strategies to achieve the entity's business objectives with a reasonable amount of risk taking.
</P>
<P><I>Equity investment</I> means an investment in an equity security and other ownership interest, including, for example, an investment in a partnership or limited liability company.
</P>
<P><I>Equity security</I> means any security representing an ownership interest in an enterprise (for example, common, preferred, or other capital stock) or the right to acquire (for example, warrants and call options) or dispose of (for example, put options) an ownership interest in an enterprise at fixed or determinable prices. However, the term does not include Federal Home Loan Bank stock, convertible debt, or preferred stock that by its terms either must be redeemed by the issuing enterprise or is redeemable at the option of the investor.
</P>
<P><I>Examination of internal control</I> means an engagement of an independent public accountant to report directly on internal control or on management's assertions about internal control. An examination of internal control over financial reporting includes controls over the preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America (GAAP) and NCUA regulatory reporting requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Exchangeable collateralized mortgage obligation</I> means a class of a collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) that, at the time of purchase, represents beneficial ownership interests in a combination of two or more underlying classes of the same CMO structure. The holder of an exchangeable CMO may pay a fee and take delivery of the underlying classes of the CMO.
</P>
<P><I>Fair value</I> means the price that would be received to sell an asset, or paid to transfer a liability, in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date, as defined by GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Federal funds transaction</I> means a short-term or open-ended unsecured transfer of immediately available funds by one depository institution to another depository institution or entity.
</P>
<P><I>Financial statements</I> means the presentation of a corporate credit union's financial data, including accompanying notes, derived from accounting records of the credit union, and intended to disclose the credit union's economic resources or obligations at a point in time, or the changes therein for a period of time, in conformity with GAAP. Each of the following is considered to be a financial statement: a balance sheet or statement of financial condition; statement of income or statement of operations; statement of undivided earnings; statement of cash flows; statement of changes in members' equity; statement of revenue and expenses; and statement of cash receipts and disbursements.
</P>
<P><I>Financial statement audit</I> means an audit of the financial statements of a corporate credit union performed in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by an independent person who is licensed by the appropriate State or jurisdiction. The objective of a financial statement audit is to express an opinion as to whether those financial statements of the credit union present fairly, in all material respects, the financial position and the results of its operations and its cash flows in conformity with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an institution which is organized under the laws of a country other than the United States, is engaged in the business of banking, and is recognized as a bank by the banking supervisory authority of the country in which it is organized.
</P>
<P><I>Generally accepted auditing standards</I> (GAAS) means the standards approved and adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants which apply when an independent, licensed certified public accountant audits private company financial statements in the United States of America. Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures address acts to be performed, whereas standards measure the quality of the performance of those acts and the objectives to be achieved by use of the procedures undertaken. In addition, auditing standards address the auditor's professional qualifications as well as the judgment exercised in performing the audit and in preparing the report of the audit.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household.
</P>
<P><I>Independent public accountant</I> (IPA) means a person who is licensed by, or otherwise authorized by, the appropriate State or jurisdiction to practice public accounting. An IPA must be able to exercise fairness toward credit union officials, members, creditors and others who may rely upon the report of a supervisory committee audit and to demonstrate the impartiality necessary to produce dependable findings. As used in this part, IPA is synonymous with the terms “auditor” and “accountant.” The term IPA does not include a licensed person working in his or her capacity as an employee of an unlicensed entity and issuing an audit opinion in the unlicensed entity's name, <I>e.g.,</I> a licensed league auditor or licensed retired examiner working for a non-licensed entity.
</P>
<P><I>Intangible assets</I> means assets considered to be intangible assets under GAAP. These assets include, but are not limited to, core deposit premiums, purchased credit card relationships, favorable leaseholds, and servicing assets (mortgage and non-mortgage). Interest-only strips receivable are not intangible assets under this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Internal control</I> means the process, established by the corporate credit union's board of directors, officers and employees, designed to provide reasonable assurance of reliable financial reporting and safeguarding of assets against unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition. A credit union's internal control structure generally consists of five components: Control environment; risk assessment; control activities; information and communication; and monitoring. Reliable financial reporting refers to preparation of Call Reports as well as financial data published and presented to members that meet management's financial reporting objectives. Internal control over safeguarding of assets against unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition refers to prevention or timely detection of transactions involving such unauthorized access, use, or disposition of assets which could result in a loss that is material to the financial statements.
</P>
<P><I>Internal control framework</I> means criteria such as that established in <I>Internal Control—Integrated Framework,</I> issued by the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO), or comparable, reasonable, and U.S.-recognized criteria.
</P>
<P><I>Internal control over financial reporting</I> means a process effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the preparation of reliable financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America. A corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting includes those policies and procedures that:
</P>
<P>(1) Pertain to the maintenance of records that, in reasonable detail, accurately and fairly reflect the transactions and dispositions of the assets of the entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide reasonable assurance that transactions are recorded as necessary to permit preparation of financial statements in accordance with accounting principles generally accepted in the United States of America, and that receipts and expenditures of the entity are being made only in accordance with authorizations of management and those charged with governance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide reasonable assurance regarding prevention, or timely detection and correction, of unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition of the entity's assets that could have a material effect on the financial statements.
</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means the issuer of the security has an adequate capacity to meet the financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure, even under adverse economic conditions. An issuer has an adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest on the security is expected. A corporate credit union may consider any or all of the following factors, to the extent appropriate, with respect to the credit risk of a security: Credit spreads; securities-related research; internal or external credit risk assessments; default statistics; inclusion on an index; priorities and enhancements; price, yield, and/or volume; and asset class-specific factors. This list of factors is not meant to be exhaustive or mutually exclusive.
</P>
<P><I>Leverage ratio</I> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to moving daily average net assets.
</P>
<P><I>Limited liquidity investment</I> means a private placement or funding agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Member reverse repurchase transaction</I> means an integrated transaction in which a corporate credit union purchases a security from one of its member credit unions under agreement by that member credit union to repurchase the same security at a specified time in the future. The corporate credit union then sells that same security, on the same day, to a third party, under agreement to repurchase it on the same date on which the corporate credit union is obligated to return the security to its member credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Minimal amount of credit risk</I> means the amount of credit risk when the issuer of a security has a very strong capacity to meet all financial commitments under the security for the projected life of the asset or exposure, even under adverse economic conditions. An issuer has a very strong capacity to meet all financial commitments if the risk of default by the obligor is very low, and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest on the security is expected. A corporate credit union may consider any or all of the following factors, to the extent appropriate, with respect to the credit risk of a security: Credit spreads; securities-related research; internal or external credit risk assessments; default statistics; inclusion on an index; priorities and enhancements; price, yield, and/or volume; asset class-specific factors. This list of factors is not meant to be exhaustive or mutually exclusive.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security</I> (MBS) means a security backed by first or second mortgages secured by real estate upon which is located a dwelling, mixed residential and commercial structure, residential manufactured home, or commercial structure.
</P>
<P><I>Moving daily average net assets</I> means the average of daily average net assets for the month being measured and the previous eleven (11) months.
</P>
<P><I>Moving monthly average net risk-weighted assets</I> means the average of the net risk-weighted assets for the month being measured and the previous eleven (11) months. Measurements must be taken on the last day of each month.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual combination</I> means a transaction or event in which a corporate credit union acquires another credit union, or acquires an integrated set of activities and assets that is capable of being conducted and managed as a credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Natural person credit union subordinated debt instrument</I> is any debt instrument issued by a natural person credit union that is subordinate to all other claims against the credit union, including the claims of creditors, shareholders, and either the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund or the insurer of a privately insured credit union.
</P>
<P><I>NCUA</I> means NCUA Board (Board), unless the particular action has been delegated by the Board.
</P>
<P><I>Net assets</I> means total assets less Central Liquidity Facility (CLF) stock subscriptions, CLF-related bridge loans, loans guaranteed by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF), and member reverse repurchase transactions. For its own account, a corporate credit union's payables under reverse repurchase agreements and receivables under repurchase agreements may be netted out if the GAAP conditions for offsetting are met. Also, any amounts deducted in calculating Tier 1 capital are also deducted from net assets.
</P>
<P><I>Net economic value</I> (NEV) means the fair value of assets minus the fair value of liabilities. All fair value calculations must include the value of forward settlements and embedded options. Perpetual contributed capital, and the unamortized portion of nonperpetual capital that is, the portion that qualifies as capital for purposes of any of the minimum capital ratios, is excluded from liabilities for purposes of this calculation. The NEV ratio is calculated by dividing NEV by the fair value of assets.
</P>
<P><I>Net interest margin security</I> means a security collateralized by residual interests in collateralized mortgage obligations, residual interests in real estate mortgage investment conduits, or residual interests in other asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Net risk-weighted</I> assets means risk-weighted assets less CLF stock subscriptions, CLF-related bridge loans, loans guaranteed by the NCUSIF, and member reverse repurchase transactions. For its own account, a corporate credit union's payables under reverse repurchase agreements and receivables under repurchase agreements may be netted out if the GAAP conditions for offsetting are met. Also, any amounts deducted in calculating Tier 1 capital are also deducted from net risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P><I>Nonperpetual capital</I> means funds contributed by members or nonmembers that: are term certificates with an original minimum term of five years or that have an indefinite term (<I>i.e.,</I> no maturity) with a minimum withdrawal notice of five years; are available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and perpetual contributed capital; are not insured by the NCUSIF or other share or deposit insurers; and cannot be pledged against borrowings. In the event the corporate is liquidated, the holders of nonperpetual capital accounts (NCAs) will claim equally. These claims will be subordinate to all other claims (including NCUSIF claims), except that any claims by the holders of perpetual contributed capital (PCC) will be subordinate to the claims of holders of NCAs.
</P>
<P><I>Obligor</I> means the primary party obligated to repay an investment, <I>e.g.,</I> the issuer of a security, such as a Qualified Special Purpose Entity (QSPE) trust; the taker of a deposit; or the borrower of funds in a federal funds transaction. Obligor does not include an originator of receivables underlying an asset-backed security, the servicer of such receivables, or an insurer of an investment.
</P>
<P><I>Official</I> means any director or committee member.
</P>
<P><I>Pair-off transaction</I> means a security purchase transaction that is closed out or sold at, or prior to, the settlement or expiration date.
</P>
<P><I>Perpetual contributed capital</I> (PCC) means accounts or other interests of a corporate credit union that: are perpetual, non-cumulative dividend accounts; are available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings; are not insured by the NCUSIF or other share or deposit insurers; and cannot be pledged against borrowings. In the event the corporate is liquidated, any claims made by the holders of perpetual contributed capital will be subordinate to all other claims (including NCUSIF claims).
</P>
<P><I>Private label security</I> means a security that is not issued or guaranteed by the U.S. government, its agencies, or its government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs).
</P>
<P><I>Quoted market price</I> means a recent sales price or a price based on current bid and asked quotations.
</P>
<P><I>Repurchase transaction</I> means a transaction in which a corporate credit union agrees to purchase a security from a counterparty and to resell the same or any identical security to that counterparty at a specified future date and at a specified price.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage-backed security</I> (RMBS) means a mortgage-backed security collateralized primarily by mortgage loans on residential properties.
</P>
<P><I>Residential properties</I> means houses, condominiums, cooperative units, and manufactured homes. This definition does not include boats or motor homes, even if used as a primary residence, or timeshare properties.
</P>
<P><I>Residual interest</I> means the ownership interest in remainder cash flows from a CMO or ABS transaction after payments due bondholders and trust administrative expenses have been satisfied.
</P>
<P><I>Retained earnings</I> means undivided earnings, regular reserve, reserve for contingencies, supplemental reserves, reserve for losses, GAAP equity acquired in a merger, and other appropriations from undivided earnings as designated by management or the NCUA.
</P>
<P><I>Retained earnings ratio</I> means the corporate credit union's retained earnings divided by its moving daily average net assets.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-weighted assets</I> means a corporate credit union's risk-weighted assets as calculated in accordance with appendix C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Section 107(8) institution</I> means an institution described in Section 107(8) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1757(8)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities lending</I> means lending a security to a counterparty, either directly or through an agent, and accepting collateral in return.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization</I> means the pooling and repackaging by a special purpose entity of assets or other credit exposures that can be sold to investors. Securitization includes transactions that create stratified credit risk positions whose performance is dependent upon an underlying pool of credit exposures, including loans and commitments.
</P>
<P><I>Senior executive officer</I> means a chief executive officer, any assistant chief executive officer (<I>e.g.,</I> any assistant president, any vice president or any assistant treasurer/manager), and the chief financial officer (controller). This term also includes employees of any entity hired to perform the functions described above.
</P>
<P><I>Settlement date</I> means the date originally agreed to by a corporate credit union and a counterparty for settlement of the purchase or sale of a security.
</P>
<P><I>Short sale</I> means the sale of a security not owned by the seller.
</P>
<P><I>Small business related security</I> means a security that represents an interest in one or more promissory notes or leases of personal property evidencing the obligation of a small business concern and originated by an insured depository institution, insured credit union, insurance company, or similar institution which is supervised and examined by a Federal or State authority, or a finance company or leasing company. This definition does not include Small Business Administration securities permissible under section 107(7) of the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Stripped mortgage-backed security</I> means a security that represents either the principal-only or interest-only portion of the cash flows of an underlying pool of mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>Subordinated security</I> means a security that, at the time of purchase, has a junior claim on the underlying collateral or assets to other securities in the same issuance. If a security is junior only to money market fund eligible securities in the same issuance, the former security is not subordinated for purposes of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisory committee</I> means, for federally chartered corporate credit unions, the supervisory committee as defined in Section 111(b) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1761(b). For state chartered corporate credit unions, the term supervisory committee refers to the audit committee, or similar committee, designated by state statute or regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of items in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition from which items in paragraphs (3) through (7) of this definition are deducted:
</P>
<P>(1) Retained earnings;
</P>
<P>(2) Perpetual contributed capital;
</P>
<P>(3) Deduct the amount of the corporate credit union's intangible assets that exceed one half percent of its moving daily average net assets (however, the NCUA may direct the corporate credit union to add back some of these assets on the NCUA's own initiative, or the NCUA's approval of petition from the applicable state regulator or application from the corporate credit union);
</P>
<P>(4) Deduct investments, both equity and debt, in unconsolidated CUSOs;
</P>
<P>(5) Deduct an amount equal to any PCC or NCA that the corporate credit union maintains at another corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(6) Deduct any amount of PCC received from federally insured credit unions that causes PCC minus retained earnings, all divided by moving daily average net assets, to exceed two percent when a corporate credit union's retained earnings ratio is less than two and a half percent; and
</P>
<P>(7) Deduct any natural person credit union subordinated debt instrument held by the corporate credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of Tier 1 capital to the moving monthly average net risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> means the sum of paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonperpetual capital accounts, as amortized under § 704.3(b)(3);
</P>
<P>(2) Allowance for loan and lease losses calculated under GAAP to a maximum of 1.25 percent of risk-weighted assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Any PCC deducted from Tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(4) Forty-five percent of unrealized gains on available-for-sale equity securities with readily determinable fair values. Unrealized gains are unrealized holding gains, net of unrealized holding losses, calculated as the amount, if any, by which fair value exceeds historical cost. NCUA may disallow such inclusion in the calculation of Tier 2 capital if NCUA determines that the securities are not prudently valued.
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> means the sum of all a corporate credit union's assets as calculated under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital, less the corporate credit union's equity investments not otherwise deducted when calculating Tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Total risk-based capital ratio</I> means the ratio of total capital to moving monthly average net risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P><I>Trade date</I> means the date a corporate credit union originally agrees, whether orally or in writing, to enter into the purchase or sale of a security.
</P>
<P><I>Trigger</I> means an event in a securitization that will redirect cash-flows if predefined thresholds are breached. Examples of triggers are delinquency and cumulative loss triggers.
</P>
<P><I>Weighted average life</I> means the weighted-average time to the return of a dollar of principal, calculated by multiplying each portion of principal received by the time at which it is expected to be received (based on a reasonable and supportable estimate of that time) and then summing and dividing by the total amount of principal. The calculation of weighted average life for interest only securities means the weighted-average time to the return of a dollar of interest, calculated by multiplying each portion of interest received by the time at which it is expected to be received (based on a reasonable and supportable estimate of that time) and then summing and dividing by the total amount of interest to be received.
</P>
<P><I>When-issued trading</I> means the buying and selling of securities in the period between the announcement of an offering and the issuance and payment date of the securities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64829, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23867, Apr. 29, 2011; 76 FR 79533, Dec. 22, 2011; 77 FR 74110, Dec. 13, 2012; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013; 80 FR 25936, May 6, 2015; 80 FR 57284, Sept. 23, 2015; 82 FR 55499, Nov. 22, 2017; 85 FR 71825, Nov. 12, 2020; 86 FR 10731, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.3   Corporate credit union capital.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital requirements.</I> (1) A corporate credit union must maintain at all times:
</P>
<P>(i) A leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater.
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure it meets its capital requirements, a corporate credit union must develop and ensure implementation of written short- and long-term capital goals, objectives, and strategies which provide for the building of capital consistent with regulatory requirements, the maintenance of sufficient capital to support the risk exposures that may arise from current and projected activities, and the periodic review and reassessment of the capital position of the corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(3) Beginning with the first call report submitted on or after October 21, 2013, a corporate credit union must calculate and report to NCUA the ratio of its retained earnings to its moving daily average net assets. If this ratio is less than 0.45 percent, the corporate credit union must, within 30 days, submit a retained earnings accumulation plan to the NCUA for NCUA's approval. The plan must contain a detailed explanation of how the corporate credit union will accumulate earnings sufficient to meet all its future minimum leverage ratio requirements, including specific semiannual milestones for accumulating retained earnings. In the case of a state-chartered corporate credit union, the NCUA will consult with the appropriate state supervisory authority (SSA) before making a determination to approve or disapprove the plan, and will provide the SSA a copy of the completed plan. If the corporate credit union fails to submit a plan acceptable to NCUA, or fails to comply with any element of a plan approved by NCUA, the corporate will immediately be classified as significantly undercapitalized or, if already significantly undercapitalized, as critically undercapitalized for purposes of prompt corrective actions. The corporate credit union will be subject to all the associated actions under § 704.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for nonperpetual capital accounts (NCAs)</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> NCA funds may be in the form of a term certificate or a no-maturity notice account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure.</I> The terms and conditions of a nonperpetual capital account must be disclosed to the recorded owner of the account at the time the account is opened and at least annually thereafter.
</P>
<P>(i) The initial NCA disclosure must be signed by either all of the directors of the member credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The annual disclosure notice must be signed by the chair of the corporate credit union. The chair must sign a statement that certifies that the notice has been sent to all entities with NCAs. The certification must be maintained in the corporate credit union's files and be available for examiner review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Five-year remaining maturity.</I> When a no-maturity NCA has been placed on notice, or a term account has a remaining maturity of less than five years, the corporate will reduce the amount of the account that can be considered as nonperpetual capital by a constant monthly amortization that ensures the capital is fully amortized one year before the date of maturity or one year before the end of the notice period. The full balance of an NCA being amortized, not just the remaining non-amortized portion, is available to absorb losses in excess of the sum of retained earnings and perpetual contributed capital until the funds are released by the corporate credit union at the time of maturity or the conclusion of the notice period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Release.</I> Nonperpetual capital may not be released due solely to the merger, charter conversion, or liquidation of the account holder. In the event of a merger, the capital account transfers to the continuing entity. In the event of a charter conversion, the capital account transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the corporate may release a member capital account to facilitate the payout of shares, but only with the prior written approval of the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Redemption.</I> A corporate credit union may redeem NCAs prior to maturity or prior to the end of the notice period only if it meets its minimum required capital and net economic value ratios after the funds are redeemed and only with the prior approval of NCUA and, for state chartered corporate credit unions, the applicable state regulator.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Sale.</I> A member may transfer its interest in a nonperpetual capital account to another member or to a nonmember (other than a natural person). At least 14 days before consummating such a transfer, the member must notify the corporate credit union of the pending transfer. The corporate credit union must, within 10 days of such notice, provide the member and the potential transferee all financial information about the corporate credit union that is available to the public or that the corporate credit union has provided to its members, including any call report data submitted by the corporate credit union to NCUA but not yet posted on NCUA's Web site.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Merger.</I> In the event of a merger of a corporate credit union, nonperpetual capital will transfer to the continuing corporate credit union. The minimum five-year notice period for withdrawal of no-maturity capital remains in effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for perpetual contributed capital (PCC)</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> The terms and conditions of any perpetual contributed capital instrument must be disclosed to the recorded owner of the instrument at the time the instrument is created and must be signed by either all of the directors of the member credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Release.</I> Perpetual contributed capital may not be released due solely to the merger, charter conversion or liquidation of a member credit union. In the event of a merger, the perpetual contributed capital transfers to the continuing credit union. In the event of a charter conversion, the perpetual contributed capital transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the perpetual contributed capital may be released to facilitate the payout of shares with NCUA's prior written approval.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Callability.</I> A corporate credit union may call PCC instruments only if it meets its minimum required capital and net economic value ratios after the funds are called and only with the prior approval of the NCUA and, for state chartered corporate credit unions, the applicable state regulator. PCC accounts are callable on a pro-rata basis across an issuance class.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Perpetual contributed capital.</I> A corporate credit union may issue perpetual contributed capital to both members and nonmembers.
</P>
<P>(5) The holder of a PCC instrument may transfer its interests in the instrument to another member or to a nonmember (other than a natural person). At least 14 days before consummating such a transfer, the member must notify the corporate credit union of the pending transfer. The corporate credit union must, within 10 days of such notice, provide the member and the potential transferee all financial information about the corporate credit union that is available to the public or that the corporate credit union has provided to its members, including any call report data submitted by the corporate credit union to NCUA but not yet posted on NCUA's Web site.
</P>
<P>(6) A corporate credit union is permitted to condition membership, services, or prices for services on a member's ownership of PCC, provided the corporate credit union gives existing members at least six months written notice of:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirement to purchase PCC, including specific amounts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The effects of a failure to purchase the requisite PCC on the pricing of services or on the member's access to membership or services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individual minimum capital requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The rules and procedures specified in this paragraph apply to the establishment of an individual minimum capital requirement for a corporate credit union that varies from any of the risk-based capital requirement(s) or leverage ratio requirements that would otherwise apply to the corporate credit union under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appropriate considerations for establishing individual minimum capital requirements.</I> Minimum capital levels higher than the risk-based capital requirements or the leverage ratio requirement under this part may be appropriate for individual corporate credit unions. The NCUA may establish increased individual minimum capital requirements, including modification of the minimum capital requirements related to being either significantly and critically undercapitalized for purposes of § 704.4 of this part, upon a determination that the corporate credit union's capital is or may become inadequate in view of the credit union's circumstances. For example, higher capital levels may be appropriate when NCUA determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) A corporate credit union is receiving special supervisory attention;
</P>
<P>(ii) A corporate credit union has or is expected to have losses resulting in capital inadequacy;
</P>
<P>(iii) A corporate credit union has a high degree of exposure to interest rate risk, prepayment risk, credit risk, concentration risk, certain risks arising from nontraditional activities or similar risks, or a high proportion of off-balance sheet risk including standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(iv) A corporate credit union has poor liquidity or cash flow;
</P>
<P>(v) A corporate credit union is growing, either internally or through acquisitions, at such a rate that supervisory problems are presented that are not dealt with adequately by other NCUA regulations or other guidance;
</P>
<P>(vi) A corporate credit union may be adversely affected by the activities or condition of its CUSOs or other persons or entities with which it has significant business relationships, including concentrations of credit;
</P>
<P>(vii) A corporate credit union with a portfolio reflecting weak credit quality or a significant likelihood of financial loss, or has loans or securities in nonperforming status or on which borrowers fail to comply with repayment terms;
</P>
<P>(viii) A corporate credit union has inadequate underwriting policies, standards, or procedures for its loans and investments;
</P>
<P>(ix) A corporate credit union has failed to properly plan for, or execute, necessary retained earnings growth, or
</P>
<P>(ix) A corporate credit union has a record of operational losses that exceeds the average of other, similarly situated corporate credit unions; has management deficiencies, including failure to adequately monitor and control financial and operating risks, particularly the risks presented by concentrations of credit and nontraditional activities; or has a poor record of supervisory compliance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Standards for determination of appropriate individual minimum capital requirements.</I> The appropriate minimum capital levels for an individual corporate credit union cannot be determined solely through the application of a rigid mathematical formula or wholly objective criteria. The decision is necessarily based, in part, on subjective judgment grounded in agency expertise. The factors to be considered in NCUA's determination will vary in each case and may include, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) The conditions or circumstances leading to the determination that a higher minimum capital requirement is appropriate or necessary for the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) The exigency of those circumstances or potential problems;
</P>
<P>(iii) The overall condition, management strength, and future prospects of the corporate credit union and, if applicable, its subsidiaries, affiliates, and business partners;
</P>
<P>(iv) The corporate credit union's liquidity, capital and other indicators of financial stability, particularly as compared with those of similarly situated corporate credit unions; and
</P>
<P>(v) The policies and practices of the corporate credit union's directors, officers, and senior management as well as the internal control and internal audit systems for implementation of such adopted policies and practices.
</P>
<P>(4) Procedures—(i) In the case of a state chartered corporate credit union, NCUA will consult with the appropriate state regulator when considering imposing a new minimum capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the NCUA determines that a minimum capital requirement is necessary or appropriate for a particular corporate credit union, it will notify the corporate credit union in writing of its proposed individual minimum capital requirement; the schedule for compliance with the new requirement; and the specific causes for determining that the higher individual minimum capital requirement is necessary or appropriate for the corporate credit union. The NCUA shall forward the notifying letter to the appropriate state supervisory authority (SSA) if a state-chartered corporate credit union would be subject to an individual minimum capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(iii) The corporate credit union's response must include any information that the credit union wants the NCUA to consider in deciding whether to establish or to amend an individual minimum capital requirement for the corporate credit union, what the individual capital requirement should be, and, if applicable, what compliance schedule is appropriate for achieving the required capital level. The responses of the corporate credit union and SSA must be in writing and must be delivered to the NCUA within 30 days after the date on which the notification was received. The NCUA may extend the time period for good cause, and the time period for response by the insured corporate credit union may be shortened for good cause:
</P>
<P>(A) When, in the opinion of the NCUA, the condition of the corporate credit union so requires, and the NCUA informs the corporate credit union of the shortened response period in the notice;
</P>
<P>(B) With the consent of the corporate credit union; or
</P>
<P>(C) When the corporate credit union already has advised the NCUA that it cannot or will not achieve its applicable minimum capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(iv) Failure by the corporate credit union to respond within 30 days, or such other time period as may be specified by the NCUA, may constitute a waiver of any objections to the proposed individual minimum capital requirement or to the schedule for complying with it, unless the NCUA has provided an extension of the response period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(v) After expiration of the response period, the NCUA will decide whether or not the proposed individual minimum capital requirement should be established for the corporate credit union, or whether that proposed requirement should be adopted in modified form, based on a review of the corporate credit union's response and other relevant information. The NCUA's decision will address comments received within the response period from the corporate credit union and the appropriate state supervisory authority (SSA) (if a state-chartered corporate credit union is involved) and will state the level of capital required, the schedule for compliance with this requirement, and any specific remedial action the corporate credit union could take to eliminate the need for continued applicability of the individual minimum capital requirement. The NCUA will provide the corporate credit union and the appropriate SSA (if a state-chartered corporate credit union is involved) with a written decision on the individual minimum capital requirement, addressing the substantive comments made by the corporate credit union and setting forth the decision and the basis for that decision. Upon receipt of this decision by the corporate credit union, the individual minimum capital requirement becomes effective and binding upon the corporate credit union. This decision represents final agency action.
</P>
<P>(vi) In lieu of the procedures established above, a corporate credit union may request an informal hearing. The corporate credit union must make the request for a hearing in writing, and NCUA must receive the request no later than 10 days following the date of the notice described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section. Upon receipt of the request for hearing, NCUA will conduct an informal hearing and render a decision using the procedures described in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of § 747.3003 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Failure to comply.</I> Failure to satisfy any individual minimum capital requirement, or to meet any required incremental additions to capital under a schedule for compliance with such an individual minimum capital requirement, will constitute a basis to take action as described in § 704.4.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Change in circumstances.</I> If, after a decision is made under paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section, there is a change in the circumstances affecting the corporate credit union's capital adequacy or its ability to reach its required minimum capital level by the specified date, the NCUA may amend the individual minimum capital requirement or the corporate credit union's schedule for such compliance. The NCUA may decline to consider a corporate credit union's request for such changes that are not based on a significant change in circumstances or that are repetitive or frivolous. Pending the NCUA's reexamination of the original decision, that original decision and any compliance schedule established in that decision will continue in full force and effect.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Transactions for purposes of evasion.</I> The NCUA may disregard any transaction entered into primarily for the purpose of reducing the minimum required amount of regulatory capital or otherwise evading the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Period-end versus average figures.</I> The NCUA reserves the right to require a corporate credit union to compute its capital ratios on the basis of period-end assets rather than average assets when the NCUA determines this requirement is appropriate to carry out the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> (i) Notwithstanding the definitions of Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital in paragraph (d) of this section, NCUA may find that a particular asset or Tier 1 capital or Tier 2 capital component has characteristics or terms that diminish its contribution to a corporate credit union's ability to absorb losses, and NCUA may require the discounting or deduction of such asset or component from the computation of Tier 1 capital, Tier 2 capital, or total capital.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding appendix C to this part, the NCUA will look to the substance of a transaction and may find that the assigned risk-weight for any asset, or credit equivalent amount or credit conversion factor for any off-balance sheet item does not appropriately reflect the risks imposed on the corporate credit union. The NCUA may require the corporate credit union to apply another risk-weight, credit equivalent amount, or credit conversion factor that NCUA deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) If appendix C to this part does not specifically assign a risk-weight, credit equivalent amount, or credit conversion factor to a particular asset or activity of the corporate credit union, the NCUA may assign any risk-weight, credit equivalent amount, or credit conversion factor that it deems appropriate. In making this determination, NCUA will consider the risks associated with the asset or off-balance sheet item as well as other relevant factors.
</P>
<P>(4) Where practicable, the NCUA will consult with the appropriate state regulator before taking any action under this paragraph (e) that involves a state chartered corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(5) Before taking any action under this paragraph (e), NCUA will provide the corporate credit union with written notice of the intended action and the reasons for such action. The corporate credit union will have seven days to provide the NCUA with a written response, and the NCUA will consider the response before taking the action. Upon the timely request of the corporate credit union, and for good cause, NCUA may extend the seven day response period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Former capital accounts.</I> This paragraph addresses membership capital accounts (MCAs) that qualified as corporate capital prior to October 20, 2011 but which no longer satisfy the definitions of capital because the accounts have not been converted by the member to nonperpetual capital accounts (NCAs) or to perpetual contributed capital (PCC).
</P>
<P>(1) For MCAs structured as adjustable balance accounts, the corporate will immediately place the account on notice of withdrawal if the member has not already done so. The corporate will continue to adjust the balance of the MCA account in accordance with the original terms of the account until the entire notice period has run and then return the remaining balance, less any losses, to the member. Until the expiration of the notice period the entire adjusted balance will be available to cover losses at the corporate credit union that exceed retained earnings and PCC (excluding, if a corporate credit union exercises the capital prioritization option under Part I of appendix A to this part, any PCC with priority under that option).
</P>
<P>(2) For term MCAs, the corporate credit union will return the balance of the MCA account to the member at the expiration of the term. Until the expiration of term, the entire account balance will be available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and PCC (excluding, if a corporate credit union exercises the capital prioritization option under part I of appendix A to this part, any PCC with priority under that option).
</P>
<P>(3) A corporate credit union may count a portion of unconverted MCAs as Tier 2 capital. Beginning on the date of issuance (for term MCAs) or the date of notice of withdrawal (for other MCAs), the corporate may count the entire account balance as Tier 2 capital, but will then reduce the amount of the account that can be considered as Tier 2 capital by a constant monthly amortization that ensures the capital is fully amortized one year before the date of maturity or one year before the end of the notice period. For adjustable balance account MCAs where the adjustment is determined based on some impermanent measure, such as shares on deposit with the corporate, the corporate credit union may not treat any part of the account as capital.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64829, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25937, May 6, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.4   Prompt corrective action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The principal purpose of this section is to define, for corporate credit unions that are not adequately capitalized, the capital measures and capital levels that are used for determining appropriate supervisory actions. This section establishes procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans and for issuance and review of capital directives, orders, and other supervisory directives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to corporate credit unions, including officers, directors, and employees.
</P>
<P>(1) This section does not limit the authority of NCUA in any way to take supervisory actions to address unsafe or unsound practices, deficient capital levels, violations of law, unsafe or unsound conditions, or other practices. The NCUA may take action under this section independently of, in conjunction with, or in addition to any other enforcement action available to the NCUA, including issuance of cease and desist orders, approval or denial of applications or notices, assessment of civil money penalties, or any other actions authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless permitted by the NCUA or otherwise required by law, no corporate credit union may state in any advertisement or promotional material its capital category under this part or that the NCUA has assigned the corporate credit union to a particular category.
</P>
<P>(3) Any group of credit unions applying for a new corporate credit union charter will submit, as part of the charter application, a detailed draft plan for soliciting contributed capital and building retained earnings. The draft plan will include specific levels of contributed capital and retained earnings and the anticipated timeframes for achieving those levels. The Board will review the draft plan and modify it as necessary. If the Board approves the plan, the Board will include any necessary waivers of this section or part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice of capital category.</I> (1) Effective date of determination of capital category. A corporate credit union will be deemed to be within a given capital category as of the most recent date:
</P>
<P>(i) A 5310 Financial Report is required to be filed with the NCUA;
</P>
<P>(ii) A final NCUA report of examination is delivered to the corporate credit union; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice is provided by the NCUA to the corporate credit union that its capital category has changed as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) or (d)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Adjustments to reported capital levels and category—
</P>
<P>(i) Notice of adjustment by corporate credit union. A corporate credit union must provide the NCUA with written notice that an adjustment to the corporate credit union's capital category may have occurred no later than 15 calendar days following the date that any material event has occurred that would cause the corporate credit union to be placed in a lower capital category from the category assigned to the corporate credit union for purposes of this section on the basis of the corporate credit union's most recent call report or report of examination.
</P>
<P>(ii) Determination by the NCUA to change capital category. After receiving notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, or on its own initiative, the NCUA will determine whether to change the capital category of the corporate credit union and will notify the corporate credit union of the NCUA's determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital measures and capital category definitions</I>—(1) <I>Capital measures.</I> For purposes of this section, the relevant capital measures are:
</P>
<P>(i) The total risk-based capital ratio;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The leverage ratio.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital categories.</I> For purposes of this section, a corporate credit union is:
</P>
<P>(i) Well capitalized if the corporate credit union:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a total risk-based capital ratio of 10.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 6.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(C) Has a leverage ratio of 5.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(D) Is not subject to any written agreement, order, capital directive, or prompt corrective action directive issued by NCUA to meet and maintain a specific capital level for any capital measure.
</P>
<P>(ii) Adequately capitalized if the corporate credit union:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a total risk-based capital ratio of 8.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(C) Has:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A leverage ratio of 4.0 percent or greater; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Does not meet the definition of a well capitalized corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(iii) Undercapitalized if the corporate credit union:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 8.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Has a Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(C) Has a leverage ratio that is less than 4.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(iv) Significantly undercapitalized if the corporate credit union has:
</P>
<P>(A) A total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 6.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 3.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(C) A leverage ratio that is less than 3.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) Critically undercapitalized if the corporate credit union has:
</P>
<P>(A) A total risk-based capital ratio that is less than 4.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) A Tier 1 risk-based capital ratio that is less than 2.0 percent; or
</P>
<P>(C) A leverage ratio that is less than 2.0 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reclassification based on supervisory criteria other than capital.</I> Notwithstanding the elements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the NCUA may reclassify a well capitalized corporate credit union as adequately capitalized, and may require an adequately capitalized or undercapitalized corporate credit union to comply with certain mandatory or discretionary supervisory actions as if the corporate credit union were in the next lower capital category, in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) Unsafe or unsound condition. The NCUA has determined, after notice and opportunity for hearing pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section, that the corporate credit union is in an unsafe or unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Unsafe or unsound practice. NCUA has determined, after notice and an opportunity for hearing pursuant to paragraph (h)(1) of this section, that the corporate credit union received a less-than-satisfactory CAMELS rating (<I>i.e.,</I> three or lower) for any rating category (other than in a rating category specifically addressing capital adequacy) and has not corrected the conditions that served as the basis for the less than satisfactory rating. Ratings under this paragraph (d)(3)(ii) refer to the most recent ratings (as determined either on-site or off-site by the most recent examination) of which the corporate credit union has been notified in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) The NCUA may, for good cause, modify any of the percentages in paragraph (d)(2) of this section as described in § 704.3(d).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Capital restoration plans</I>—(1) <I>Schedule for filing plan</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A corporate credit union must file a written capital restoration plan with the NCUA within 45 days of the date that the corporate credit union receives notice or is deemed to have notice that the corporate credit union is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless the NCUA notifies the corporate credit union in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period. An adequately capitalized corporate credit union that has been required pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section to comply with supervisory actions as if the corporate credit union were undercapitalized is not required to submit a capital restoration plan solely by virtue of the reclassification.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Additional capital restoration plans.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, a corporate credit union that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved under this section is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a revised calculation of its capital measures or a reclassification of the institution under paragraph (d)(3) of this section unless the NCUA notifies the corporate credit union that it must submit a new or revised capital plan. A corporate credit union that is notified that it must submit a new or revised capital restoration plan must file the plan in writing with the NCUA within 45 days of receiving such notice, unless the NCUA notifies the corporate credit union in writing that the plan is to be filed within a different period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of plan.</I> All financial data submitted in connection with a capital restoration plan must be prepared in accordance with the instructions provided on the call report, unless the NCUA instructs otherwise. The capital restoration plan must include all of the information required to be filed under paragraph (k)(2)(ii) of this section. A corporate credit union required to submit a capital restoration plan as the result of a reclassification of the corporate credit union pursuant to paragraph (d)(3) of this section must include a description of the steps the corporate credit union will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to submit a capital restoration plan.</I> A corporate credit union that is undercapitalized and that fails to submit a written capital restoration plan within the period provided in this section will, upon the expiration of that period, be subject to all of the provisions of this section applicable to significantly undercapitalized credit unions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Review of capital restoration plans.</I> Within 60 days after receiving a capital restoration plan under this section, the NCUA will provide written notice to the corporate credit union of whether it has approved the plan. The NCUA may extend this time period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disapproval of capital plan.</I> If the NCUA does not approve a capital restoration plan, the corporate credit union must submit a revised capital restoration plan, when directed to do so, within the time specified by the NCUA. An undercapitalized corporate credit union is subject to the provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized credit unions until it has submitted, and NCUA has approved, a capital restoration plan. If the NCUA directs that the corporate credit union submit a revised plan, it must do so in time frame specified by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Failure to implement a capital restoration plan.</I> Any undercapitalized corporate credit union that fails in any material respect to implement a capital restoration plan will be subject to all of the provisions of this section applicable to significantly undercapitalized institutions.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Amendment of capital plan.</I> A corporate credit union that has filed an approved capital restoration plan may, after prior written notice to and approval by the NCUA, amend the plan to reflect a change in circumstance. Until such time as NCUA has approved a proposed amendment, the corporate credit union must implement the capital restoration plan as approved prior to the proposed amendment.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mandatory and discretionary supervisory actions</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory supervisory actions</I>—

(i) <I>Provisions applicable to all corporate credit unions.</I> All corporate credit unions are subject to the restrictions contained in paragraph (k)(1) of this section on capital distributions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provisions applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions. Immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice, as provided in paragraph (c) or (e) of this section, that the corporate credit union is undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, the corporate credit union will be subject to the following provisions of paragraph (k) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Restricting capital distributions (paragraph (k)(1));
</P>
<P>(B) NCUA monitoring of the condition of the corporate credit union (paragraph (k)(2)(i));
</P>
<P>(C) Requiring submission of a capital restoration plan (paragraph (k)(2)(ii));
</P>
<P>(D) Restricting the growth of the corporate credit union's assets (paragraph (k)(2)(iii)); and
</P>
<P>(E) Requiring prior approval of certain expansion proposals (paragraph (k)(2)(iv)).
</P>
<P>(iii) Additional provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions. In addition to the mandatory requirements described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice that the corporate credit union is significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, or that the corporate credit union is subject to the provisions applicable to corporate credit unions that are significantly undercapitalized because the credit union failed to submit or implement in any material respect an acceptable capital restoration plan, the corporate credit union will become subject to the provisions of paragraph (k)(3)(iii) of this section that restrict compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution.
</P>
<P>(iv) Additional provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions. In addition to the provisions described in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii) and (f)(1)(iii) of this section, immediately upon receiving notice or being deemed to have notice that the corporate credit union is critically undercapitalized, the corporate credit union will become subject to these additional provisions of paragraph (k) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Restricting the activities of the corporate credit union ((k)(5)(i)); and
</P>
<P>(B) Restricting payments on subordinated debt of the corporate credit union ((k)(5)(ii)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discretionary supervisory actions.</I> (i) All PCA actions listed in paragraph (k) of this section that are not discussed in paragraph (f)(1) of this section are discretionary.
</P>
<P>(ii) All discretionary actions available to NCUA in the case of an undercapitalized corporate credit union are available to NCUA in the case of a significantly undercapitalized credit union. All discretionary actions available to NCUA in the case of an undercapitalized corporate credit union or a significantly undercapitalized corporate credit union are available to NCUA in the case of a critically undercapitalized corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(iii) In taking any discretionary PCA actions with a corporate credit union that is deemed to be undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized, or has been reclassified as undercapitalized, or significantly undercapitalized; or an action in connection with an officer or director of such corporate credit union; the NCUA will follow the procedures for issuing directives under paragraphs (g) and (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) NCUA will consult and seek to work cooperatively with the appropriate state supervisory authority (SSA) before taking any discretionary supervisory action with respect to a state-chartered corporate credit union; will provide notice of its decision to the SSA; and will allow the appropriate SSA an opportunity to take the proposed action independently or jointly with NCUA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Directives to take prompt corrective action.</I> The NCUA will provide an undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized corporate credit union prior written notice of the NCUA's intention to issue a directive requiring such corporate credit union to take actions or to follow proscriptions described in this part. Section 747.3002 of this chapter prescribes the notice content and associated process.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Procedures for reclassifying a corporate credit union based on criteria other than capital.</I> When the NCUA intends to reclassify a corporate credit union or subject it to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capitalization category based on an unsafe or unsound condition or practice, the NCUA will provide the credit union with prior written notice of such intent. Section 747.3003 of this chapter prescribes the notice content and associated process.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Order to dismiss a Director or senior executive officer.</I> When the NCUA issues and serves a directive on a corporate credit union requiring it to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under paragraphs (k)(3) of this section, the NCUA will also serve upon the person the corporate credit union is directed to dismiss (Respondent) a copy of the directive (or the relevant portions, where appropriate) and notice of the Respondent's right to seek reinstatement. Section 747.3004 of this chapter prescribes the content of the notice of right to seek reinstatement and the associated process.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Enforcement of directives.</I> Section 747.3005 of this chapter prescribes the process for enforcement of directives.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Remedial actions towards undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, and critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions.</I> (1) Provision applicable to all corporate credit unions. A corporate credit union is prohibited from making any capital distribution, including payment of dividends on perpetual and nonperpetual capital accounts, if, after making the distribution, the credit union would be undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(2) Provisions applicable to undercapitalized corporate credit unions.
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring required. The NCUA will—
</P>
<P>(A) Closely monitor the condition of any undercapitalized corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(B) Closely monitor compliance with capital restoration plans, restrictions, and requirements imposed under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Periodically review the plan, restrictions, and requirements applicable to any undercapitalized corporate credit union to determine whether the plan, restrictions, and requirements are achieving the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Capital restoration plan required.
</P>
<P>(A) Any undercapitalized corporate credit union must submit an acceptable capital restoration plan to the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(B) The capital restoration plan will—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Specify—
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The steps the corporate credit union will take to become adequately capitalized;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The levels of capital to be attained during each year in which the plan will be in effect;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) How the corporate credit union will comply with the restrictions or requirements then in effect under this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The types and levels of activities in which the corporate credit union will engage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Contain such other information as the NCUA may require.
</P>
<P>(C) The NCUA will not accept a capital restoration plan unless the NCUA determines that the plan—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Complies with paragraph (k)(2)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is based on realistic assumptions, and is likely to succeed in restoring the corporate credit union's capital; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Would not appreciably increase the risk (including credit risk, interest-rate risk, and other types of risk) to which the corporate credit union is exposed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Asset growth restricted. An undercapitalized corporate credit union must not permit its daily average net assets during any calendar month to exceed its moving daily average net assets unless—
</P>
<P>(A) The NCUA has accepted the corporate credit union's capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any increase in total assets is consistent with the plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) Prior approval required for acquisitions, branching, and new lines of business. An undercapitalized corporate credit union must not, directly or indirectly, acquire any interest in any entity, establish or acquire any additional branch office, or engage in any new line of business unless the NCUA has accepted the corporate credit union's capital restoration plan, the corporate credit union is implementing the plan, and the NCUA determines that the proposed action is consistent with and will further the achievement of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) Provisions applicable to significantly undercapitalized corporate credit unions and undercapitalized corporate credit unions that fail to submit and implement capital restoration plans.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> This paragraph applies with respect to any corporate credit union that—
</P>
<P>(A) Is significantly undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is undercapitalized and—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fails to submit an acceptable capital restoration plan within the time allowed by the NCUA under paragraph (e)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Fails in any material respect to implement a plan accepted by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Specific actions authorized.</I> The NCUA may take one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(A) Requiring recapitalization.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Requiring the corporate credit union to seek and obtain additional contributed capital.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Requiring the corporate credit union to increase its rate of earnings retention.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Requiring the corporate credit union to combine, in whole or part, with another insured depository institution, if one or more grounds exist under this section or the Federal Credit Union Act for appointing a conservator or liquidating agent.
</P>
<P>(B) Restricting any ongoing or future transactions with affiliates.
</P>
<P>(C) Restricting interest rates paid.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>In general.</I> Restricting the rates of dividends and interest that the corporate credit union pays on shares and deposits to the prevailing rates on shares and deposits of comparable amounts and maturities in the region where the institution is located, as determined by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Retroactive restrictions prohibited.</I> Paragraph (k)(3)(ii)(c) of this section does not authorize the NCUA to restrict interest rates paid on time deposits or shares made before (and not renewed or renegotiated after) the date the NCUA announced this restriction.
</P>
<P>(D) Restricting asset growth. Restricting the corporate credit union's asset growth more stringently than in paragraph (k)(2)(iii) of this section, or requiring the corporate credit union to reduce its total assets.
</P>
<P>(E) Restricting activities. Requiring the corporate credit union or any of its CUSOs to alter, reduce, or terminate any activity that the NCUA determines poses excessive risk to the corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(F) Improving management. Doing one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) New election of directors. Ordering a new election for the corporate credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Dismissing directors or senior executive officers. Requiring the corporate credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer who had held office for more than 180 days immediately before the corporate credit union became undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Employing qualified senior executive officers. Requiring the corporate credit union to employ qualified senior executive officers (who, if the NCUA so specifies, will be subject to approval by the NCUA).
</P>
<P>(G) Requiring divestiture. Requiring the corporate credit union to divest itself of or liquidate any interest in any entity if the NCUA determines that the entity is in danger of becoming insolvent or otherwise poses a significant risk to the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(H) Conserve or liquidate the corporate credit union if NCUA determines the credit union has no reasonable prospect of becoming adequately capitalized; and
</P>
<P>(I) Requiring other action. Requiring the corporate credit union to take any other action that the NCUA determines will better carry out the purpose of this section than any of the actions described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(iii) Senior executive officers' compensation restricted.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>In general.</I> The corporate credit union is prohibited from doing any of the following without the prior written approval of the NCUA:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Pay any bonus or profit-sharing to any senior executive officer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provide compensation to any senior executive officer at a rate exceeding that officer's average rate of compensation (excluding bonuses and profit-sharing) during the 12 calendar months preceding the calendar month in which the corporate credit union became undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Failing to submit plan.</I> The NCUA will not grant approval with respect to a corporate credit union that has failed to submit an acceptable capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) Discretion to impose certain additional restrictions. The NCUA may impose one or more of the restrictions prescribed by regulation under paragraph (k)(5) of this section if the NCUA determines that those restrictions are necessary to carry out the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) More stringent treatment based on other supervisory criteria.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> If the NCUA determines, after notice and an opportunity for hearing as described in subpart M of part 747 of this chapter, that a corporate credit union is in an unsafe or unsound condition or deems the corporate credit union to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice, the NCUA may—
</P>
<P>(A) If the corporate credit union is well capitalized, reclassify the corporate credit union as adequately capitalized;
</P>
<P>(B) If the corporate credit union is adequately capitalized (but not well capitalized), require the corporate credit union to comply with one or more provisions of paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section, as if the corporate credit union were undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(C) If the corporate credit union is undercapitalized, take any one or more actions authorized under paragraph (k)(3)(ii) of this section as if the corporate credit union were significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of plan.</I> Any plan required under paragraph (k)(4)(i) of this section will specify the steps that the corporate credit union will take to correct the unsafe or unsound condition or practice. Capital restoration plans, however, will not be required under paragraph (k)(4)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Provisions applicable to critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions.
</P>
<P>(i) Activities restricted. Any critically undercapitalized corporate credit union must comply with restrictions prescribed by the NCUA under paragraph (k)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments on contributed capital and subordinated debt prohibited. A critically undercapitalized corporate credit union must not, beginning no later than 60 days after becoming critically undercapitalized, make any payment of dividends on contributed capital or any payment of principal or interest on the corporate credit union's subordinated debt unless the NCUA determines that an exception would further the purpose of this section. Interest, although not payable, may continue to accrue under the terms of any subordinated debt to the extent otherwise permitted by law. Dividends on contributed capital do not, however, continue to accrue.
</P>
<P>(iii) Conservatorship, liquidation, or other action. The NCUA may, at any time, conserve or liquidate any critically undercapitalized corporate credit union or require the credit union to combine, in whole or part, with another institution. NCUA will consider, not later than 90 days after a corporate credit union becomes critically undercapitalized, whether NCUA should liquidate, conserve, or combine the institution.
</P>
<P>(6) Restricting activities of critically undercapitalized corporate credit unions. To carry out the purpose of this section, the NCUA will, by order—
</P>
<P>(i) Restrict the activities of any critically undercapitalized corporate credit union; and
</P>
<P>(ii) At a minimum, prohibit any such corporate credit union from doing any of the following without the NCUA's prior written approval:
</P>
<P>(A) Entering into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business, including any investment, expansion, acquisition, sale of assets, or other similar action.
</P>
<P>(B) Extending credit for any transaction NCUA determines to be highly leveraged.
</P>
<P>(C) Amending the corporate credit union's charter or bylaws, except to the extent necessary to carry out any other requirement of any law, regulation, or order.
</P>
<P>(D) Making any material change in accounting methods.
</P>
<P>(E) Paying compensation or bonuses NCUA determines to be excessive.
</P>
<P>(F) Paying interest on new or renewed liabilities at a rate that would increase the corporate credit union's weighted average cost of funds to a level significantly exceeding the prevailing rates of interest on insured deposits in the corporate credit union's normal market areas.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64836, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 77565, Dec. 26, 2013; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 59288, Oct. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.5   Investments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies.</I> A corporate credit union must operate according to an investment policy that is consistent with its other risk management policies, including, but not limited to, those related to credit risk management, asset and liability management, and liquidity management. The policy must address, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate tests and criteria for evaluating investments and investment transactions before purchase; and
</P>
<P>(2) Reasonable and supportable concentration limits for limited liquidity investments in relation to capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> All investments must be U.S. dollar-denominated and subject to the credit policy restrictions set forth in § 704.6.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authorized activities.</I> A corporate credit union may invest in:
</P>
<P>(1) Securities, deposits, and obligations set forth in Sections 107(7), 107(8), and 107(15) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1757(7), 1757(8), and 1757(15), except as provided in this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits in, the sale of federal funds to, and debt obligations of corporate credit unions, Section 107(8) institutions, and state banks, trust companies, and mutual savings banks not domiciled in the state in which the corporate credit union does business;
</P>
<P>(3) CUSOs, subject to the limitations of § 704.11;
</P>
<P>(4) Marketable debt obligations of corporations chartered in the United States. This authority does not apply to debt obligations that are convertible into the stock of the corporation; and
</P>
<P>(5) Domestically-issued asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> A corporate credit union may enter into a repurchase agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The corporate credit union, directly or through its agent, receives written confirmation of the transaction, and either takes physical possession or control of the repurchase securities or is recorded as owner of the repurchase securities through the Federal Reserve Book-Entry Securities Transfer System;
</P>
<P>(2) The repurchase securities are legal investments for that corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The corporate credit union, directly or through its agent, receives daily assessment of the market value of the repurchase securities and maintains adequate margin that reflects a risk assessment of the repurchase securities and the term of the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(4) The corporate credit union has entered into signed contracts with all approved counterparties and agents, and ensures compliance with the contracts. Such contracts must address any supplemental terms and conditions necessary to meet the specific requirements of this part. Third party arrangements must be supported by tri-party contracts in which the repurchase securities are priced and reported daily and the tri-party agent ensures compliance; and
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Securities Lending.</I> A corporate credit union may enter into a securities lending transaction provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The corporate credit union, directly or through its agent, receives written confirmation of the loan, obtains a first priority security interest in the collateral by taking physical possession or control of the collateral, or is recorded as owner of the collateral through the Federal Reserve Book-Entry Securities Transfer System;
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral is a legal investment for that corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The corporate credit union, directly or through its agent, receives daily assessment of the market value of collateral and maintains adequate margin that reflects a risk assessment of the collateral and terms of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(4) The corporate credit union has entered into signed contracts with all agents and, directly or through its agent, has executed a written loan and security agreement with the borrower. The corporate credit union or its agent ensures compliance with the agreements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Investment companies.</I> A corporate credit union may invest in an investment company registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a), or a collective investment fund maintained by a national bank under 12 CFR 9.18 or a mutual savings bank under 12 CFR 550.260, provided that the company or fund prospectus restricts the investment portfolio to investments and investment transactions that are permissible for that corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Investment settlement.</I> A corporate credit union may only contract for the purchase or sale of an investment if the transaction is settled on a delivery versus payment basis within 60 days for mortgage-backed securities, within 30 days for new issues (other than mortgage-backed securities), and within three days for all other securities.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A corporate credit union is prohibited from:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchasing or selling derivatives, except for embedded options not required under GAAP to be accounted for separately from the host contract or forward sales commitments on loans to be purchased by the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(2) Engaging in trading securities unless accounted for on a trade date basis;
</P>
<P>(3) Engaging in adjusted trading or short sales;
</P>
<P>(4) Purchasing mortgage servicing rights, small business related securities, residual interests in collateralized mortgage obligations, residual interests in real estate mortgage investment conduits, or residual interests in asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(5) Purchasing net interest margin securities;
</P>
<P>(6) Purchasing collateralized debt obligations or collateralized loan obligations;
</P>
<P>(7) Purchasing private label residential mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(8) Purchasing subordinated securities; and
</P>
<P>(9) Purchasing stripped mortgage-backed securities (SMBS), or securities that represent interests in SMBS, except as described in subparagraphs (i) and (iii) below.
</P>
<P>(i) A corporate credit union may invest in exchangeable collateralized mortgage obligations (exchangeable CMOs) representing beneficial ownership interests in one or more interest-only classes of a CMO (IO CMOs) or principal-only classes of a CMO (PO CMOs), but only if:
</P>
<P>(A) At the time of purchase, the ratio of the market price to the remaining principal balance is between .8 and 1.2, meaning that the discount or premium of the market price to par must be less than 20 points;
</P>
<P>(B) The offering circular or other official information available at the time of purchase indicates that the notional principal on each underlying IO CMO should decline at the same rate as the principal on one or more of the underlying non-IO CMOs, and that the principal on each underlying PO CMO should decline at the same rate as the principal, or notional principal, on one or more of the underlying non-PO CMOs; and
</P>
<P>(C) The credit union investment staff has the expertise dealing with exchangeable CMOs to apply the conditions in paragraphs (h)(5)(i)(A) and (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A corporate credit union that invests in an exchangeable CMO may exercise the exchange option only if all of the underlying CMOs are permissible investments for that credit union.
</P>
<P>(iii) A corporate credit union may accept an exchangeable CMO representing beneficial ownership interests in one or more IO CMOs or PO CMOs as an asset associated with an investment repurchase transaction or as collateral in a securities lending transaction. When the exchangeable CMO is associated with one of these two transactions, it need not conform to the conditions in paragraphs (h)(5)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> A corporate credit union's officials, employees, and immediate family members of such individuals, may not receive pecuniary consideration in connection with the making of an investment or deposit by the corporate credit union. Employee compensation is exempt from this prohibition. All transactions not specifically prohibited by this paragraph must be conducted at arm's length and in the interest of the corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Grandfathering.</I> A corporate credit union's authority to hold an investment is governed by the regulation in effect at the time of purchase. However, all grandfathered investments are subject to the other requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64839, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25937, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 71826, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.6   Credit risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies.</I> A corporate credit union must operate according to a credit risk management policy that is commensurate with the investment risks and activities it undertakes. The policy must address at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) The approval process associated with credit limits;
</P>
<P>(2) Due diligence analysis requirements;
</P>
<P>(3) Maximum credit limits with each obligor and transaction counterparty, set as a percentage of capital. In addition to addressing deposits and securities, limits with transaction counterparties must address aggregate exposures of all transactions including, but not limited to, repurchase agreements, securities lending, and forward settlement of purchases or sales of investments; and
</P>
<P>(4) Concentrations of credit risk (<I>e.g.,</I> originator of receivables, servicer of receivables, insurer, industry type, sector type, geographic, collateral type, and tranche priority).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> The limitations and requirements of this section do not apply to certain assets, whether or not considered investments under this part, including fixed assets, individual loans and loan participation interests, investments in CUSOs, investments that are issued or fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. government or its agencies or its sponsored enterprises (but not exempting, for purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, mortgage backed securities), investments that are fully insured or guaranteed (including accumulated dividends and interest) by the NCUSIF or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and settlement funds in federally insured depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Issuer concentration limits</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The aggregate value recorded on the books of the corporate credit union of all investments in any single obligor is limited to 25 percent of total capital or $5 million, whichever is greater.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) Investments in one obligor where the remaining maturity of all obligations is less than 30 days are limited to 50 percent of total capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Investments in credit card master trust asset-backed securities are limited to 50 percent of total capital in any single obligor;
</P>
<P>(iii) Aggregate investments in repurchase and securities lending agreements with any one counterparty are limited to 200 percent of total capital;
</P>
<P>(iv) Investments in non-money market registered investment companies are limited to 50 percent of total capital in any single obligor;
</P>
<P>(v) Investments in money market registered investment companies are limited to 100 percent of total capital in any single obligor; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Investments in CUSOs are subject to the limitations of section 11 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sector concentration limits.</I> (1) A corporate credit union must establish sector limits based on the value recorded on the books of the corporate credit union that do not exceed the following maximums:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgage-backed securities (inclusive of commercial mortgage-backed securities)—the lower of 1000 percent of total capital or 50 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial mortgage-backed securities—the lower of 300 percent of total capital or 15 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal Family Education Loan Program student loan asset-backed securities—the lower of 1000 percent of total capital or 50 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) Private student loan asset-backed securities—the lower of 500 percent of total capital or 25 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(v) Auto loan/lease asset-backed securities—the lower of 500 percent of total capital or 25 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(vi) Credit card asset-backed securities—the lower of 500 percent of total capital or 25 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(vii) Other asset-backed securities not listed in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) through (vi) of this section—the lower of 500 percent of total capital or 25 percent of assets;
</P>
<P>(viii) Corporate debt obligations—the lower of 1000 percent of total capital or 50 percent of assets; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Municipal securities—the lower of 1000 percent of total capital or 50 percent of assets.
</P>
<P>(2) Registered investment companies—A corporate credit union must limit its investment in registered investment companies to the lower of 1000 percent of total capital or 50 percent of assets. In addition to applying the limit in this paragraph, a corporate credit union must also include the underlying assets in each registered investment company in the relevant sectors described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section when calculating those sector limits.
</P>
<P>(3) A corporate credit union must limit its aggregate holdings in any investments not described in paragraphs (d)(1) or (2) of this section to the lower of 100 percent of total capital or 5 percent of assets. The NCUA may approve a higher percentage in appropriate cases.
</P>
<P>(4) Investments in other federally insured credit unions, deposits and federal funds investments in other federally insured depository institutions, and investment repurchase agreements are excluded from the concentration limits in paragraphs (d)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corporate debt obligation subsector limits.</I> In addition to the limitations in paragraph (d)(1)(viii) of this section, a corporate credit union must not exceed the lower of 200 percent of total capital or 10 percent of assets in any single North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) industry sector based on the value recorded on the books of the corporate credit union. If a corporation in which a corporate credit union is interested in investing does not have a readily ascertainable NAICS classification, a corporate credit union will use its reasonable judgment in assigning such a classification. NCUA may direct, however, that the corporate credit union change the classification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit ratings.</I> (1) Before purchasing an investment, a corporate credit union must conduct and document an analysis that reasonably concludes the investment has no more than a minimal amount of credit risk.
</P>
<P>(2) A corporate credit union must identify and monitor any changes in credit quality of the investment and retain appropriate supporting documentation as long as the corporate credit union owns the investment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reporting and documentation.</I> (1) At least annually, a written evaluation of each credit limit with each obligor or transaction counterparty must be prepared and formally approved by the board or an appropriate committee. At least monthly, the board or an appropriate committee must receive an investment watch list of existing and/or potential credit problems and summary credit exposure reports, which demonstrate compliance with the corporate credit union's risk management policies.
</P>
<P>(2) At a minimum, the corporate credit union must maintain:
</P>
<P>(i) A justification for each approved credit limit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosure documents, if any, for all instruments held in portfolio. Documents for an instrument that has been sold must be retained until completion of the next NCUA examination; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The latest available financial reports, industry analyses, and internal and external analyst evaluations sufficient to support each approved credit limit.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Requirements for investment action plans.</I> An investment is subject to the requirements of § 704.10 of this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) Appropriate monitoring of the investment would reasonably lead to the conclusion that the investment presents more than a minimal amount of credit risk; or
</P>
<P>(2) The investment is part of an asset class or group of investments that exceeds the issuer, sector, or subsector concentration limits of this section. For purposes of measurement, each new credit transaction must be evaluated in terms of the corporate credit union's capital at the time of the transaction. An investment that fails a requirement of this section because of a subsequent reduction in capital will be deemed nonconforming. A corporate credit union is required to exercise reasonable efforts to bring nonconforming investments into conformity within 90 calendar days. Investments that remain nonconforming for more than 90 calendar days will be deemed to fail a requirement of this section and the corporate credit union will have to comply with § 704.10 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64841, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 71528, Nov. 24, 2010; 76 FR 79533, Dec. 22, 2011; 77 FR 74110, Dec. 13, 2012; 80 FR 25937, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 71826, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.7   Lending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies.</I> A corporate credit union must operate according to a lending policy which addresses, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(1) Loan types and limits; 
</P>
<P>(2) Required documentation and collateral; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Analysis and monitoring standards. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> Each loan or line of credit limit will be determined after analyzing the financial and operational soundness of the borrower and the ability of the borrower to repay the loan. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans to members</I>—(1) <I>Credit unions.</I> (i) The maximum aggregate amount in unsecured loans and lines of credit from a corporate credit union to any one member credit union, excluding CLF-related bridge loans and pass-through and guaranteed loans from the CLF and the NCUSIF, must not exceed 50 percent of the corporate credit union's total capital. </P>
<P>(ii) The maximum aggregate amount in secured loans (excluding those secured by shares or marketable securities and member reverse repurchase transactions) and unsecured loans (excluding pass-through and guaranteed loans from the CLF and the NCUSIF) and lines of credit from a corporate credit union to any one member credit union must not exceed 150 percent of the corporate credit union's total capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CUSOs.</I> Any loan or line of credit from a corporate credit union to a CUSO must comply with § 704.11.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other members.</I> The maximum aggregate amount of loans and lines of credit from a corporate credit union to any other one member must not exceed 15 percent of the corporate credit union's total capital plus pledged shares.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans to nonmembers</I>—(1) <I>Credit unions.</I> A loan to a nonmember credit union, other than through a loan participation with another corporate credit union or a CLF-related bridge loan, is only permissible if the loan is for an overdraft related to the providing of correspondent services pursuant to § 704.12. Generally, such a loan will have a maturity of one business day.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CUSOs.</I> Any loan or line of credit must comply with § 704.11.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Member business loan rule.</I> Loans, lines of credit and letters of credit to:
</P>
<P>(1) Member credit unions are exempt from part 723 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) CUSOs are not subject to part 723 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) Other members not excluded under § 723.1(b) of this chapter must comply with part 723 of this chapter unless the loan or line of credit is fully guaranteed by a credit union or fully secured by U.S. Treasury or agency securities. Those guaranteed and secured loans must comply with the aggregate limits of § 723.8 but are exempt from the other requirements of part 723.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Participation loans with other corporate credit unions.</I> A corporate credit union is permitted to participate in a loan with another corporate credit union provided the corporate retains an interest of at least 5 percent of the face amount of the loan and a master participation loan agreement is in place before the purchase or the sale of a participation. A participating corporate credit union must exercise the same due diligence as if it were the originating corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> If provided for in the loan contract, a corporate credit union is authorized to assess prepayment penalties on loans. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 67 FR 65655, Oct. 25, 2002; 68 FR 56550, Oct. 1, 2003; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010; 80 FR 25938, May 6, 2015; 80 FR 57284, Sept. 23, 2015; 85 FR 71826, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.8   Asset and liability management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies.</I> A corporate credit union must operate according to a written asset and liability management policy which addresses, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) The purpose and objectives of the corporate credit union's asset and liability activities;
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum allowable percentage decline in net economic value (NEV), compared to base case NEV;
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum allowable NEV ratio;
</P>
<P>(4) Policy limits and specific test parameters for the NEV sensitivity analysis requirements set forth in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(5) The modeling of indexes that serve as references in financial instrument coupon formulas; and
</P>
<P>(6) The tests that will be used, prior to purchase, to estimate the impact of investments on the percentage decline in NEV compared to base case NEV. The most recent NEV analysis, as determined under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section may be used as a basis of estimation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Asset and liability management committee (ALCO).</I> A corporate credit union's ALCO must have at least one member who is also a member of the board of directors. The ALCO must review asset and liability management reports on at least a monthly basis. These reports must address compliance with Federal Credit Union Act, NCUA Rules and Regulations (12 CFR chapter VII), and all related risk management policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Penalty for early withdrawals.</I> A corporate credit union that permits early certificate/share withdrawals must assess market-based penalties sufficient to cover the estimated replacement cost of the certificate redeemed. This means the minimum penalty must be reasonably related to the rate that the corporate credit union would be required to offer to attract funds for a similar term with similar characteristics.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interest rate sensitivity analysis.</I> (1) A corporate credit union must:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the risk in its balance sheet by measuring, at least quarterly, including once on the last day of the calendar quarter, the impact of an instantaneous, permanent, and parallel shock in the yield curve of plus and minus 100, 200, and 300 BP on its NEV and NEV ratio. If the base case NEV ratio falls below 3 percent at the last testing date, these tests must be calculated at least monthly, including once on the last day of the month, until the base case NEV ratio again exceeds 3 percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Limit its risk exposure to levels that do not result in a base case NEV ratio or any NEV ratio resulting from the tests set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section below 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Limit its risk exposures to levels that do not result in a decline in NEV of more than 15 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) A corporate credit union must assess annually if it should conduct periodic additional tests to address market factors that may materially impact that corporate credit union's NEV. These factors should include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in the shape of the Treasury yield curve;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments to prepayment projections used for amortizing securities to consider the impact of significantly faster/slower prepayment speeds; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Adjustments to volatility assumptions to consider the impact that changing volatilities have on embedded option values.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Net interest income modeling.</I> A corporate credit union must perform net interest income (NII) modeling to project earnings in multiple interest rate environments for a period of no less than 1 year. NII modeling must, at minimum, be performed at least quarterly, including once on the last day of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Weighted average asset life.</I> The weighted average life (WAL) of a corporate credit union's financial assets, consisting of cash, investments, and loans, but excluding derivative contracts and equity investments, may not exceed 2 years. A corporate credit union must test its financial assets at least quarterly, including once on the last day of the calendar quarter, for compliance with this WAL limitation. When calculating its WAL, a corporate credit union must assume that no issuer or market options will be exercised. If the WAL of a corporate credit union's assets exceeds 2 years on the testing date, this test must be calculated at least monthly, including once on the last day of the month, until the WAL is below 2 years.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Weighted average asset life with 50 percent slowdown in prepayment speeds.</I> The weighted average life (WAL) of a corporate credit union's financial assets, consisting of cash, investments, and loans, but excluding derivative contracts and equity investments, may not exceed 2.25 years when prepayment speeds are reduced by 50 percent. A corporate credit union must test its financial assets at least quarterly, including once on the last day of the calendar quarter, for compliance with this WAL limitation. When calculating its WAL, a corporate credit union must assume that no issuer or market options will be exercised. If the WAL of a corporate credit union's assets exceeds 2.25 years, this test must be calculated at least monthly, including once on the last day of the month, until the WAL with the 50 slowdown in prepayment speeds is below 2.25 years.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Government issued or guaranteed securities.</I> The WAL of investments that are issued or fully guaranteed as to principal and interest by the U.S. government, its agencies or sponsored enterprises, including investments that are fully insured or guaranteed (including accumulated dividends and interest) by the NCUSIF or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, will be multiplied by a factor of 0.50 for purposes of the WAL tests of paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effective and spread durations.</I> A corporate credit union must measure at least once a quarter, including once on the last day of the calendar quarter, the effective duration and spread durations of each of its assets and liabilities, where the values of these are affected by changes in interest rates or credit spreads.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Limit breaches.</I> (1)(i) If a corporate credit union's decline in NEV, base case NEV ratio, or any NEV ratio calculated under paragraph (d) of this section exceeds established or permitted limits, or the corporate credit union is unable to satisfy the tests in paragraph (f) or (g) of this section, the operating management of the corporate credit union must immediately report this information to its board of directors and ALCO; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the corporate credit union cannot adjust its balance sheet to meet the requirements of paragraph (d), (f), or (g) of this section within 10 calendar days after detection by the corporate credit union, the corporate credit union must notify in writing the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.
</P>
<P>(2) If any breach described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section persists for 30 or more calendar days, the corporate credit union:
</P>
<P>(i) Must immediately submit a detailed, written action plan to the NCUA that sets forth the time needed and means by which it intends to come into compliance and, if the NCUA determines that the plan is unacceptable, the corporate credit union must immediately restructure its balance sheet to bring the exposure back within compliance or adhere to an alternative course of action determined by the NCUA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If presently categorized as adequately capitalized or well capitalized for prompt corrective action purposes, and the breach was of paragraph (d) of this section, the corporate credit union will immediately be recategorized as undercapitalized until coming into compliance, and
</P>
<P>(iii) If presently categorized as less than adequately capitalized for prompt corrective action purposes, and the breach was of paragraph (d) of this section, the corporate credit union will immediately be downgraded one additional capital category.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Overall limit on business generated from individual credit unions.</I> On or after April 22, 2013, a corporate credit union is prohibited from accepting from any member, or any nonmember credit union, any investment, including shares, loans, PCC, or NCAs if, following that investment, the aggregate of all investments from that entity in the corporate credit union would exceed 15 percent of the corporate credit union's moving daily average net assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64842, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 79533, Dec. 22, 2011; 80 FR 25938, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 71826, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.9   Liquidity management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In the management of liquidity, a corporate credit union must:
</P>
<P>(1) Evaluate the potential liquidity needs of its membership in a variety of economic scenarios;
</P>
<P>(2) Regularly monitor and demonstrate accessibility to sources of internal and external liquidity;
</P>
<P>(3) Keep a sufficient amount of cash and cash equivalents on hand to support its payment system obligations;
</P>
<P>(4) Demonstrate that the accounting classification of investment securities is consistent with its ability to meet potential liquidity demands; and
</P>
<P>(5) Develop a contingency funding plan that addresses alternative funding strategies in successively deteriorating liquidity scenarios. The plan must:
</P>
<P>(i) List all sources of liquidity, by category and amount, that are available to service an immediate outflow of funds in various liquidity scenarios;
</P>
<P>(ii) Analyze the impact that potential changes in fair value will have on the disposition of assets in a variety of interest rate scenarios; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Be reviewed by the board or an appropriate committee no less frequently than annually or as market or business conditions dictate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrowing limits.</I> A corporate credit union may borrow up to 10 times its total capital.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Secured borrowings.</I> A corporate credit union may borrow on a secured basis for liquidity purposes, but the maturity of the borrowing may not exceed 180 days. Only a corporate credit union with Tier 1 capital in excess of five percent of its moving daily average net assets (DANA) may borrow on a secured basis for nonliquidity purposes, and the outstanding amount of secured borrowing for nonliquidity purposes may not exceed an amount equal to the difference between the corporate credit union's Tier 1 capital and five percent of its moving DANA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions.</I> CLF borrowings and borrowed funds created by the use of member reverse repurchase agreements are excluded from the limit in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64843, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25938, May 6, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.10   Investment action plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any corporate credit union in possession of an investment, including a derivative, that fails to meet a requirement of this part must, within 30 calendar days of the failure, report the failed investment to its board of directors, supervisory committee and the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision (ONES). If the corporate credit union does not sell the failed investment, and the investment continues to fail to meet a requirement of this part, the corporate credit union must, within 30 calendar days of the failure, provide to the ONES Director a written action plan that addresses: 
</P>
<P>(1) The investment's characteristics and risks; 
</P>
<P>(2) The process to obtain and adequately evaluate the investment's market pricing, cash flows, and risk; 
</P>
<P>(3) How the investment fits into the credit union's asset and liability management strategy; 
</P>
<P>(4) The impact that either holding or selling the investment will have on the corporate credit union's earnings, liquidity, and capital in different interest rate environments; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The likelihood that the investment may again pass the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) The ONES Director may require, for safety and soundness reasons, a shorter time period for plan development than that set forth in paragraph (a) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the plan described in paragraph (a) of this section is not approved by the ONES Director, the credit union must adhere to the ONES Director's directed course of action. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 65656, 65659, Oct. 25, 2002; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.11   Credit Union Service Organizations (CUSOs).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investment and loan limitations.</I> (1) The aggregate of all investments in member and non-member CUSOs that a corporate credit union may make must not exceed 15 percent of a corporate credit union's total capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate of all investments in and loans to member and nonmember CUSOs a corporate credit union may make must not exceed 30 percent of a corporate credit union's total capital. A corporate credit union may lend to member and nonmember CUSOs an additional 15 percent of total capital if the loan is collateralized by assets in which the corporate has a perfected security interest under state law.
</P>
<P>(3) If the limitations in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are reached or exceeded because of the profitability of the CUSO and the related GAAP valuation of the investment under the equity method without an additional cash outlay by the corporate, divestiture is not required. A corporate credit union may continue to invest up to the regulatory limit without regard to the increase in the GAAP valuation resulting from the CUSO's profitability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Due diligence.</I> A corporate credit union must comply with the commercial loan policy and due diligence requirements of § 723.4 of this chapter for all loans to CUSOs unless the loan or line of credit is fully secured by U.S. Treasury or agency securities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for CUSOs that are not corporate CUSOs.</I> Corporate credit union investments in and lending to CUSOs that are not corporate CUSOs are subject to part 712 of this chapter, except that investment and loan limitations and due diligence requirements are governed by this section. CUSOs of state-chartered natural person credit unions are subject to part 712 of this chapter to the same extent as a CUSO of a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requirements for corporate CUSOs.</I> Corporate credit union authority to invest in or loan to a corporate CUSO is limited to that provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Structure.</I> A corporate CUSO must be structured as a corporation, limited liability company, or limited partnership under state law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Separate entity.</I> (i) A corporate CUSO must be operated as an entity separate from a corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(ii) A corporate credit union investing in or lending to a corporate CUSO must obtain a written legal opinion that concludes the corporate CUSO is organized and operated in a manner that the corporate credit union will not reasonably be held liable for the obligations of the corporate CUSO. This opinion must address factors that have led courts to “pierce the corporate veil,” such as inadequate capitalization, lack of corporate identity, common boards of directors and employees, control of one entity over another, and lack of separate books and records.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permissible activities.</I> (i) A corporate CUSO must agree to limit its activities to:
</P>
<P>(A) Brokerage services,
</P>
<P>(B) Investment advisory services, and
</P>
<P>(C) Other categories of activities as approved in writing by the NCUA and published on the NCUA's website.
</P>
<P>(ii) Once the NCUA has approved an activity and published that activity on its website, the NCUA will not remove that particular activity from the approved list, or make substantial changes to the content or description of that approved activity, except through the formal rulemaking process.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation restrictions.</I> An official of a corporate credit union which has invested in or loaned to a corporate CUSO may not receive, either directly or indirectly, any salary, commission, investment income, or other income, compensation, or consideration from the corporate CUSO. This prohibition also extends to immediate family members of officials.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Written agreement between the corporate credit union and corporate CUSO.</I> Prior to making an investment in or loan to a corporate CUSO, a corporate credit union must obtain a written agreement that the corporate CUSO:
</P>
<P>(i) Will follow GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will provide financial statements to the corporate credit union at least quarterly;
</P>
<P>(iii) Will obtain an annual CPA opinion audit and provide a copy to the corporate credit union. A consolidated CUSO is not required to obtain a separate annual audit if it is included in the corporate credit union's annual audit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Will provide the reports as required by § 712.3(d)(4) and (5) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(v) Will not acquire control, directly or indirectly, of another depository financial institution or to invest in shares, stocks, or obligations of an insurance company, trade association, liquidity facility, or similar organization;
</P>
<P>(vi) Will allow the auditor, board of directors, and NCUA complete access to the CUSO's personnel, facilities, equipment, books, records, and any other documentation that the auditor, directors, or NCUA deem pertinent;
</P>
<P>(vii) Will inform the corporate, at least quarterly, of all the compensation paid by the CUSO to its employees who are also employees of the corporate credit union; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Will comply with all the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Subsidiary restrictions.</I> Any subsidiary of a corporate CUSO is automatically designated a corporate CUSO and subject to all the requirements of this section. The requirements of this section apply to all tiers or levels of a corporate CUSO's structure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 71826, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.12   Permissible services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preapproved services.</I> A corporate credit union may provide to members the preapproved services set out in this section. NCUA may at any time, based upon supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons, limit or prohibit any preapproved service. The specific activities listed within each preapproved category are provided as illustrations of activities permissible under the particular category, not as an exclusive or exhaustive list. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Correspondent services agreement.</I> A corporate credit union may only provide financial services to nonmembers through a correspondent services agreement. A correspondent services agreement is an agreement between two corporate credit unions, whereby one of the corporate credit unions agrees to provide services to the other corporate credit union or its members. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit and investment services.</I> Credit and investment services are advisory and consulting activities that assist the member in lending or investment management. These services may include loan reviews, investment portfolio reviews and investment advisory services. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic financial services.</I> Electronic financial services are any services, products, functions, or activities that a corporate credit union is otherwise authorized to perform, provide or deliver to its members but performed through electronic means. Electronic services may include automated teller machines, online transaction processing through a website, website hosting services, account aggregation services, and internet access services to perform or deliver products or services to members. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Excess capacity.</I> Excess capacity is the excess use or capacity remaining in facilities, equipment or services that: a corporate credit union properly invested in or established, in good faith, with the intent of serving its members; and it reasonably anticipates will be taken up by the future expansion of services to its members. A corporate credit union may sell or lease the excess capacity in facilities, equipment or services, such as office space, employees and data processing. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Liquidity and asset and liability management.</I> Liquidity and asset and liability management services are any services, functions or activities that assist the member in liquidity and balance sheet management. These services may include liquidity planning and balance sheet modeling and analysis. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operational services.</I> Operational services are services established to deliver financial products and services that enhance member service and promote safe and sound operations. Operational services may include tax payment, electronic fund transfers and providing coin and currency service. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Payment systems.</I> Payment systems are any methods used to facilitate the movement of funds for transactional purposes. Payment systems may include Automated Clearing House, wire transfer, item processing and settlement services. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Trustee or custodial services.</I> Trustee services are services in which the corporate credit union is authorized to act under a written trust agreement to the extent permitted under part 724 of this chapter. Custodial and safekeeping services are services a corporate credit union performs on behalf of its member to act as custodian or safekeeper of investments. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure for adding services that are not preapproved.</I> To provide a service to its members that is not preapproved by NCUA: 
</P>
<P>(1) A federal corporate credit union must request approval from NCUA. The request must include a full explanation and complete documentation of the service and how the service relates to a corporate credit union's authority to provide services to its members. The request must be submitted jointly to the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision and the Secretary of the Board. The request will be treated as a petition to amend § 704.12 and NCUA will request public comment or otherwise act on the petition within a reasonable period of time. Before engaging in the formal approval process, a corporate credit union should seek an advisory opinion from NCUA's Office of General Counsel as to whether a proposed service is already covered by one of the authorized categories without filing a petition to amend the regulation; and 
</P>
<P>(2) A state-chartered corporate credit union must submit a request for a waiver that complies with § 704.1(b) to the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition.</I> A corporate credit union is prohibited from purchasing loan servicing rights. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[67 FR 65656, Oct. 25, 2002, as amended at 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.13   Board responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A corporate credit union's board of directors must approve comprehensive written strategic plans and policies, review them annually, and provide them upon request to the auditors, supervisory committee, and NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies.</I> A corporate credit union's policies must be commensurate with the scope and complexity of the corporate credit union. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> The board of directors of a corporate credit union must ensure: 
</P>
<P>(1) Senior managers have an in-depth, working knowledge of their direct areas of responsibility and are capable of identifying, hiring, and retaining qualified staff; 
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified personnel are employed or under contract for all line support and audit areas, and designated back-up personnel or resources with adequate cross-training are in place; 
</P>
<P>(3) GAAP is followed, except where law or regulation has provided for a departure from GAAP; 
</P>
<P>(4) Accurate balance sheets, income statements, and internal risk assessments (<I>e.g.,</I> risk management measures of liquidity, market, and credit risk associated with current activities) are produced timely in accordance with §§ 704.6, 704.8, and 704.9; 
</P>
<P>(5) Systems are audited periodically in accordance with industry-established standards; 
</P>
<P>(6) Financial performance is evaluated to ensure that the objectives of the corporate credit union and the responsibilities of management are met;
</P>
<P>(7) Planning addresses the retention of external consultants, as appropriate, to review the adequacy of technical, human, and financial resources dedicated to support major risk areas; and
</P>
<P>(8) For each item before the board, the meeting minutes list the names of directors and their votes, as well as the names of any directors who did not vote, except that if the minutes include a complete list of directors attending the meeting, the vote tally need only list the names of directors who voted against the item or who abstained. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 65654, Oct. 25, 2002. Redesignated at 75 FR 64836, Oct. 20, 2010; 76 FR 23868, Apr. 29, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.14   Representation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board representation.</I> The board will be determined as stipulated in its bylaws governing election procedures, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) At least a majority of directors, including the chair of the board, must serve on the board as representatives of member credit unions;
</P>
<P>(2) Only an individual who currently holds a senior staff position (e.g., position of chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, chief information officer, chief risk officer, treasurer/manager, etc.) at a member credit union, and will hold that position at the time he or she is seated on the corporate credit union board if elected, may seek election or re-election to the corporate credit union board;
</P>
<P>(3) No individual may be elected or appointed to serve on the board if, after such election or appointment, the individual would be a director at more than one corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(4) No individual may be elected or appointed to serve on the board if, after such election or appointment, any member of the corporate credit union would have more than one representative on the board of the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) The chair of the board may not serve simultaneously as an officer, director, or employee of a credit union trade association;
</P>
<P>(6) A majority of directors may not serve simultaneously as officers, directors, or employees of the same credit union trade association or its affiliates (not including chapters or other subunits of a state trade association);
</P>
<P>(7) For purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraphs (a)(5) and (a)(6) of this section, an individual may not serve as a director or chair of the board if that individual holds a subordinate employment relationship to another employee who serves as an officer, director, or employee of a credit union trade association;
</P>
<P>(8) In the case of a corporate credit union whose membership is composed of more than 25 percent non-credit unions, the majority of directors serving as representatives of member credit unions, including the chair, must be elected only by member credit unions; and
</P>
<P>(9) At least a majority of directors of every corporate credit union, including the chair of the board, must serve on the corporate board as representatives of natural person credit union members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit union trade association.</I> As used in this section, a credit union trade association includes but is not limited to, state credit union leagues and league service corporations and national credit union trade associations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Representatives of organizational members.</I> (1) An organizational member of a corporate credit union is a member that is not a natural person. An organizational member may appoint one of its members or officials as a representative to the corporate credit union. The representative shall be empowered to attend membership meetings, to vote, and to stand for election on behalf of the member. No individual may serve as the representative of more than one organizational member in the same corporate credit union. 
</P>
<P>(2) Any vacancy on the board of a corporate credit union caused by a representative being unable to complete his or her term shall be filled by the board of the corporate credit union according to its bylaws governing the filling of board vacancies. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recusal provision.</I> (1) No director, committee member, officer, or employee of a corporate credit union shall in any manner, directly or indirectly, participate in the deliberation upon or the determination of any question affecting his or her pecuniary interest or the pecuniary interest of any entity (other than the corporate credit union) in which he or she is interested, except if the matter involves general policy applicable to all members, such as setting dividend or loan rates or fees for services. 
</P>
<P>(2) An individual is “interested” in an entity if he or she: 
</P>
<P>(i) Serves as a director, officer, or employee of the entity; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a business, ownership, or deposit relationship with the entity; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a business, financial, or familial relationship with an individual whom he or she knows has a pecuniary interest in the entity. 
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of the disqualification of any directors, by operation of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the remaining qualified directors present at the meeting, if constituting a quorum with the disqualified directors, may exercise, by majority vote, all the powers of the board with respect to the matter under consideration. Where all of the directors are disqualified, the matter must be decided by the members of the corporate credit union. 
</P>
<P>(4) In the event of the disqualification of any committee member by operation of paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the remaining qualified committee members, if constituting a quorum with the disqualified committee members, may exercise, by majority vote, all the powers of the committee with respect to the matter under consideration. Where all of the committee members are disqualified, the matter shall be decided by the board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration.</I> (1) A corporate credit union shall be under the direction and control of its board of directors. While the board may delegate the performance of administrative duties, the board is not relieved of its responsibility for their performance. The board may employ a chief executive officer who shall have such authority and such powers as delegated by the board to conduct business from day to day. Such chief executive officer must answer solely to the board of the corporate credit union, and may not be an employee of a credit union trade association. 
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of § 701.14 of this chapter apply to corporate credit unions, except that where “Regional Director” is used, read “Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 65657, Oct. 25, 2002; 75 FR 64844, Oct. 20, 2010; 80 FR 25938, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 71827, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.15   Audit and reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Audited financial statements.</I> A corporate credit union must prepare annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), which must be audited by an independent public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. The annual financial statements and regulatory reports must reflect all material correcting adjustments necessary to conform with GAAP that were identified by the corporate credit union's independent public accountant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Management report.</I> Each corporate credit union must prepare, as of the end of the previous calendar year, an annual management report that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of management's responsibilities for preparing the corporate credit union's annual financial statements, for establishing and maintaining an adequate internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting, and for complying with laws and regulations relating to safety and soundness in the following areas: affiliate transactions, legal lending limits, loans to insiders, restrictions on capital and share dividends, and regulatory reporting that meets full and fair disclosure;
</P>
<P>(ii) An assessment by management of the corporate credit union's compliance with such laws and regulations during the past calendar year. The assessment must state management's conclusion as to whether the corporate credit union has complied with the designated safety and soundness laws and regulations during the calendar year and disclose any noncompliance with the laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An assessment by management of the effectiveness of the corporate credit union's internal control structure and procedures as of the end of the past calendar year that must include the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement identifying the internal control framework used by management to evaluate the effectiveness of the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the assessment included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement expressing management's conclusion as to whether the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of the previous calendar year. Management must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting, if any, that it has identified that have not been remediated prior to the calendar year-end. Management may not conclude that the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Management report signatures.</I> The chief executive officer and either the chief accounting officer or chief financial officer of the corporate credit union must sign the management report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Independent public accountant</I>—(1) <I>Annual audit of financial statements.</I> Each corporate credit union must engage an independent public accountant to audit and report on its annual financial statements in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. The scope of the audit engagement must be sufficient to permit such accountant to determine and report whether the financial statements are presented fairly and in accordance with GAAP. A corporate credit union must provide its independent public accountant with a copy of its most recent Call Report and NCUA examination report. It must also provide its independent public accountant with copies of any notice that its capital category is being changed or reclassified and any correspondence from NCUA regarding compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Internal control over financial reporting.</I> The independent public accountant who audits the corporate credit union's financial statements must examine, attest to, and report separately on the assertion of management concerning the effectiveness of the corporate credit union's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting. The attestation and report must be made in accordance with generally accepted standards for attestation engagements. The accountant's report must not be dated prior to the date of the management report and management's assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting. Notwithstanding the requirements set forth in applicable professional standards, the accountant's report must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement identifying the internal control framework used by the independent public accountant, which must be the same as the internal control framework used by management, to evaluate the effectiveness of the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the independent public accountant's evaluation included controls over the preparation of regulatory financial statements in accordance with regulatory reporting instructions including identification of such regulatory reporting instructions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement expressing the independent public accountant's conclusion as to whether the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting is effective as of the end of the previous calendar year. The report must disclose all material weaknesses in internal control over financial reporting that the independent public accountant has identified that have not been remediated prior to the calendar year-end. The independent public accountant may not conclude that the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting is effective if there are one or more material weaknesses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice by accountant of termination of services.</I> An independent public accountant performing an audit under this part who ceases to be the accountant for a corporate credit union must notify NCUA in writing of such termination within 15 days after the occurrence of such event and set forth in reasonable detail the reasons for such termination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Communications with supervisory committee.</I> In addition to the requirements for communications with audit committees set forth in applicable professional standards, the independent public accountant must report the following on a timely basis to the supervisory committee:
</P>
<P>(i) All critical accounting policies and practices to be used by the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) All alternative accounting treatments within GAAP for policies and practices related to material items that the independent public accountant has discussed with management, including the ramifications of the use of such alternative disclosures and treatments, and the treatment preferred by the independent public accountant; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Other written communications the independent public accountant has provided to management, such as a management letter or schedule of unadjusted differences.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Retention of working papers.</I> The independent public accountant must retain the working papers related to the audit of the corporate credit union's financial statements and, if applicable, the evaluation of the corporate credit union's internal control over financial reporting for seven years from the report release date, unless a longer period of time is required by law.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Independence.</I> The independent public accountant must comply with the independence standards and interpretations of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Peer reviews and inspection reports.</I> (i) Prior to commencing any services for a corporate credit union under this section, the independent public accountant must have received a peer review, or be enrolled in a peer review program, that meets acceptable guidelines. Acceptable peer reviews include peer reviews performed in accordance with the AICPA's Peer Review Standards and inspections conducted by the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB).
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 15 days of receiving notification that the AICPA has accepted a peer review or the PCAOB has issued an inspection report, or before commencing any audit under this section, whichever is earlier, the independent public accountant must file a copy of the most recent peer review report and the public portion of the most recent PCAOB inspection report, if any, accompanied by any letters of comments, response, and acceptance, with NCUA if the report has not already been filed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Within 15 days of the PCAOB making public a previously nonpublic portion of an inspection report, the independent public accountant must file a copy of the previously nonpublic portion of the inspection report with NCUA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing and notice requirements</I>—(1) <I>Annual Report.</I> Each corporate credit union must, no later than 180 days after the end of the calendar year, file an Annual Report with NCUA consisting of the following documents:
</P>
<P>(i) The audited comparative annual financial statements;
</P>
<P>(ii) The independent public accountant's report on the audited financial statements;
</P>
<P>(iii) The management report; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The independent public accountant's attestation report on management's assessment concerning the corporate credit union's internal control structure and procedures for financial reporting.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public availability.</I> The annual report in paragraph (c)(1) of this section will be made available by NCUA for public inspection.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Independent public accountant's letters and reports.</I> Each corporate credit union must file with NCUA a copy of any management letter or other report issued by its independent public accountant with respect to such corporate credit union and the services provided by such accountant pursuant to this part (except for the independent public accountant's reports that are included in the Annual Report) within 15 days after receipt by the corporate credit union. Such reports include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any written communication regarding matters that are required to be communicated to the supervisory committee (for example, critical accounting policies, alternative accounting treatments discussed with management, and any schedule of unadjusted differences); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any written communication of significant deficiencies and material weaknesses in internal control required by the AICPA's auditing standards.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of engagement or change of accountants.</I> Each corporate credit union that engages an independent public accountant, or that loses an independent public accountant through dismissal or resignation, must notify NCUA within 15 days after the engagement, dismissal, or resignation. The corporate credit union must include with the notice a reasonably detailed statement of the reasons for any dismissal or resignation. The corporate credit union must also provide a copy of the notice to the independent public accountant at the same time the notice is filed with NCUA.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notification of late filing.</I> A corporate credit union that is unable to timely file any part of its Annual Report or any other report or notice required by this paragraph (c) must submit a written notice of late filing to NCUA. The notice must disclose the corporate credit union's inability to timely file all or specified portions of its Annual Report or other report or notice and the reasons therefore in reasonable detail. The late filing notice must also state the date by which the report or notice will be filed. The written notice must be filed with NCUA before the deadline for filing the Annual Report or any other report or notice, as appropriate. NCUA may take appropriate enforcement action for failure to timely file any report, or notice of late filing, required by this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Report to Members.</I> A corporate credit union must submit a preliminary Annual Report to the membership at the next calendar year's annual meeting.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supervisory committee</I>—(1) <I>Composition.</I> Each corporate credit union must establish a supervisory committee, all of whose members must be independent. A committee member is independent if:
</P>
<P>(i) Neither the committee member, nor any immediate family member of the committee member, is supervised by, or has any material business or professional relationship with, the chief executive officer (CEO) of the corporate credit union, or anyone directly or indirectly supervised by the CEO, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Neither the committee member, nor any immediate family member of the committee member, has had any of the relationships described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) for at least the past three years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duties.</I> In addition to any duties specified under the corporate credit union's bylaws and these regulations, the duties of the credit union's supervisory committee include the appointment, compensation, and oversight of the independent public accountant who performs services required under this section and reviewing with management and the independent public accountant the basis for all the reports prepared and issued under this section. The supervisory committee must submit the audited comparative annual financial statements and the independent public accountant's report on those statements to the corporate credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Independent public accountant engagement letters.</I> (i) In performing its duties with respect to the appointment of the corporate credit union's independent public accountant, the supervisory committee must ensure that engagement letters and/or any related agreements with the independent public accountant for services to be performed under this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Obligate the independent public accountant to comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section (including, but not limited to, the notice of termination of services, communications with the supervisory committee, and notifications of peer reviews and inspection reports); and
</P>
<P>(B) Do not contain any limitation of liability provisions that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Indemnify the independent public accountant against claims made by third parties;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Hold harmless or release the independent public accountant from liability for claims or potential claims that might be asserted by the client corporate credit union, other than claims for punitive damages; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Limit the remedies available to the client corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(ii) Engagement letters may include alternative dispute resolution agreements and jury trial waiver provisions provided that the letters do not incorporate any limitation of liability provisions set forth in paragraph (d)(3)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Outside counsel.</I> The supervisory committee of any corporate credit union must, when deemed necessary by the committee, have access to its own outside counsel.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Internal audit.</I> A corporate credit union with average daily assets in excess of $400 million for the preceding calendar year, or as ordered by NCUA, must employ or contract, on a full- or part-time basis, the services of an internal auditor. The internal auditor's responsibilities will, at a minimum, comply with the Standards and Professional Practices of Internal Auditing, as established by the Institute of Internal Auditors. The internal auditor will report directly to the chair of the corporate credit union's supervisory committee, who may delegate supervision of the internal auditor's daily activities to the chief executive officer of the corporate credit union. The internal auditor's reports, findings, and recommendations will be in writing and presented to the supervisory committee no less than quarterly, and will be provided upon request to the IPA and NCUA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 23868, Apr. 29, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.16   Contracts/written agreements.</HEAD>
<P>Services, facilities, personnel, or equipment shared with any party shall be supported by a written contract, with the duties and responsibilities of each party specified and the allocation of service fee/expenses fully supported and documented. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.17   State-chartered corporate credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part does not expand the powers and authorities of any state-chartered corporate credit union, beyond those powers and authorities provided under the laws of the state in which it was chartered. 
</P>
<P>(b) A state-chartered corporate credit union that is not insured by the NCUSIF, but that receives funds from federally insured credit unions, is considered an “institution-affiliated party” within the meaning of Section 206(r) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1786(r). 
</P>
<P>(c) NCUA will notify, consult with, and provide explanation to the appropriate state supervisory authority before taking administrative action against a state-chartered corporate credit union. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.18   Fidelity bond coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section provides the fidelity bond requirements for employees and officials in corporate credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of bond coverage.</I> (1) The board of directors of each corporate credit union shall, at least annually, carefully review the bond coverage in force to determine its adequacy in relation to risk exposure and to the minimum requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors of each corporate credit union must review all applications for purchase or renewal of its fidelity bond coverage. After review, the credit union's board must pass a resolution approving the purchase or renewal of fidelity bond coverage and delegate one member of the board, who is not an employee of the credit union, to sign the purchase or renewal agreement and all attachments; provided, however, that no board members may be a signatory on consecutive purchase or renewal agreements for the same fidelity bond coverage policy.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Minimum coverage; approved forms.</I> (1) The fidelity bond coverage must be purchased from a company holding a certificate of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury.
</P>
<P>(2) Fidelity bonds must provide coverage for the fraud and dishonesty of all employees, directors, officers, and supervisory and credit committee members.
</P>
<P>(3) The NCUA Board must approve all bond forms before a corporate credit union may use them. Corporate credit unions may not use any bond form that has been amended since the time the NCUA Board approved the form or any rider, endorsement, renewal, or other document that limits coverage of approved bond forms without receiving approval from the NCUA Board. Approval on all bond forms expires 10 years after the date the NCUA Board approved or reapproved use of the bond form unless otherwise determined by the NCUA Board; provided, however, that any bond forms approved before 2019 will expire on January 1, 2029, unless otherwise determined by the NCUA Board. The NCUA reserves the right to review a bond form at any point after its approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Fidelity bonds must include an option for the liquidating agent to purchase coverage in the event of an involuntary liquidation that extends the discovery period for a covered loss for at least one year after liquidation. In the case of a voluntary liquidation, fidelity bonds must remain in effect, or provide that the discovery period is extended, for at least four months after the final distribution of assets.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding the foregoing, all bonds must include a provision, in a form approved by the NCUA Board, requiring written notification by surety to NCUA:
</P>
<P>(i) When the fidelity bond of a credit union is terminated in its entirety;
</P>
<P>(ii) When fidelity bond coverage is terminated, by issuance of a written notice, on an employee, director, officer, supervisory or credit committee member; or
</P>
<P>(iii) When a deductible is increased above permissible limits. Said notification shall be sent to NCUA and shall include a brief statement of cause for termination or increase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Minimum coverage amounts.</I> (1) The minimum amount of bond coverage will be computed based on the corporate credit union's daily average net assets for the preceding calendar year. The following table lists the minimum requirements: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Daily average net assets
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum
<br/>bond
<br/>(million) 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than $50 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$1.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50-$99 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100-$499 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$500-$999 million</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1.0-$1.999 billion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$2.0-$4.999 billion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$5.0-$9.999 billion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$10.0-$24.999 billion</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20.0 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$25.0 billion plus</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) It is the duty of the board of directors of each corporate credit union to provide adequate protection to meet its unique circumstances by obtaining, when necessary, bond coverage in excess of the minimums in the table in paragraph (d)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deductibles.</I> (1) The maximum amount of deductibles allowed are based on the corporate credit union's leverage ratio. The following table sets out the maximum deductibles, except that in each category the maximum deductible shall be $5 million: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Leverage ratio
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum deductible
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than 1.0 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">7.5 percent of Tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.0-1.74 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0 percent of Tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1.75-2.24 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0 percent of Tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 2.25 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0 percent of Tier 1 capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) A deductible may be applied separately to one or more insuring clauses in a blanket bond. Deductibles in excess of those showing in this section must have the written approval of NCUA at least 30 calendar days prior to the effective date of the deductibles. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional coverage.</I> NCUA may require additional coverage for any corporate credit union when, in the opinion of NCUA, current coverage is insufficient. The board of directors of the corporate credit union must obtain additional coverage within 30 calendar days after the date of written notice from NCUA. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 12938, Mar. 19, 1997, as amended at 67 FR 65657, Oct. 25, 2002; 76 FR 79533, Dec. 22, 2011; 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015; 84 FR 35524, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.19   Disclosure of executive compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual disclosure.</I> A corporate credit union must annually prepare and maintain a disclosure of the dollar amount of compensation paid to its most highly compensated employees, including compensation from any CUSO in which the corporate credit union has invested or made a loan, in accordance with the following schedule:
</P>
<P>(1) For corporate credit unions with forty-one or more full time employees, disclosure is required of the compensation paid to the five most highly compensated employees;
</P>
<P>(2) For corporate credit unions with between thirty and forty-one full time employees, disclosure is required of the compensation paid to the four most highly compensated employees;
</P>
<P>(3) For corporate credit unions with thirty or fewer full time employees, disclosure is required of the compensation paid to the three most highly compensated employees; and
</P>
<P>(4) In all cases, compensation paid to the corporate credit union's chief executive officer must also be disclosed, if the chief executive officer is not already included among the most highly compensated employees described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Availability of disclosure.</I> Any member may obtain a copy of the most current disclosure, and all disclosures for the previous three years, on request made in person or in writing. The corporate credit union must provide the disclosure(s), at no cost to the member, within five business days of receiving the request. In addition, the corporate must distribute the most current disclosure to all its members at least once a year, either in the annual report or in some other manner of the corporate's choosing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Supplemental information.</I> In providing the disclosure required by this section, a corporate credit union may also provide supplementary information to put the disclosure in context, for example, salary surveys, a discussion of compensation in relation to other credit union expenses, or compensation information from similarly sized credit unions or financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for mergers.</I> With respect to any merger involving a corporate credit union that would result in a material increase in compensation, <I>i.e.,</I> an increase of more than 15 percent or $10,000, whichever is greater, for any senior executive officer or director of the merging corporate, the corporate must:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the compensation arrangement in the merger plan documents submitted to NCUA for approval of the merger, pursuant to § 708b of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of any federally chartered corporate credit union, describe the compensation arrangement in the materials provided to the membership of the merging credit union before the member vote on approving the merger.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64844, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 23871, Apr. 29, 2011; 76 FR 79534, Dec. 22, 2011; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020; 85 FR 71827, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.20   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.21   Enterprise risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union must develop and follow an enterprise risk management policy.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors of a corporate credit union must establish an enterprise risk management committee (ERMC) responsible for reviewing the enterprise-wide risk management practices of the corporate credit union. The ERMC must report at least quarterly to the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(c) The ERMC must include at least one risk management expert who may report either directly to the board of directors or to the ERMC. The risk management expert's experience must be commensurate with the size of the corporate credit union and the complexity of its operations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 23871, Apr. 29, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 71827, Nov. 12, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 704.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 704.22   Membership fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union may charge its members a membership fee. The fee may be one-time or periodic.
</P>
<P>(b) The corporate credit union must calculate the fee uniformly for all members as a percentage of each member's assets, except that the corporate credit union may reduce the amount of the fee for members that have contributed capital to the corporate credit union. Any reduction must be proportional to the amount of the member's nondepleted contributed capital.
</P>
<P>(c) The corporate credit union must give its members at least six months advance notice of any initial or new fee, including terms and conditions, before invoicing the fee. For a recurring fee, the corporate credit union must also give six months notice of any material change to the terms and conditions of the fee.
</P>
<P>(d) The corporate credit union may terminate the membership of any credit union that fails to pay the fee in full within 60 days of the invoice date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 23871, Apr. 29, 2011, as amended at 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.23.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 704—Capital Prioritization and Model Forms 
</HEAD>
<HD1>Part I—Optional Capital Prioritization
</HD1>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision in this chapter, a corporate credit union, at its option, may determine that capital contributed to the corporate credit union on or after January 18, 2011 will have priority, for purposes of availability to absorb losses and payout in liquidation, over capital contributed to the corporate credit union before that date. The board of directors at a corporate credit union that desires to make this determination must:
</P>
<P>(a) On or before January 18, 2011, adopt a resolution implementing its determination.
</P>
<P>(b) Inform the credit union's members and NCUA, in writing and as soon as practicable after adoption of the resolution, of the contents of the board resolution.
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure the credit union uses the appropriate initial and periodic Model Form disclosures in Part II below.
</P>
<HD1>Part II—Model Forms
</HD1>
<P>Part II contains model forms intended for use by corporate credit unions to aid in compliance with the capital disclosure requirements of § 704.3 and Part I of this Appendix. 
</P>
<HD2>Model Form A
</HD2>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Nonperpetual Capital
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is for use on and after October 20, 2011 in the circumstances where the credit union has determined NOT to give newly issued capital priority over older capital as described in Part I of this Appendix. Also, corporate credit unions should ensure that existing membership capital accounts that do not meet the qualifying conditions for nonperpetual capital are modified so as to meet those conditions.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Nonperpetual Capital Account
</HD3>
<P>(1) A nonperpetual capital account is not subject to share insurance coverage by the NCUSIF or other deposit insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) A nonperpetual capital account is not releasable due solely to the merger, charter conversion or liquidation of the member credit union. In the event of a merger, the nonperpetual capital account transfers to the continuing credit union. In the event of a charter conversion, the nonperpetual capital account transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the nonperpetual capital account may be released to facilitate the payout of shares with the prior written approval of NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) If the nonperpetual capital account is a notice account, a member credit union may withdraw the nonperpetual capital with a minimum of five years' notice. If the nonperpetual capital account is a term instrument it may be redeemed only at maturity. The corporate credit union may not redeem any account prior to the expiration of the notice period, or maturity, without the prior written approval of the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(4) Nonperpetual capital cannot be used to pledge borrowings.
</P>
<P>(5) Nonperpetual capital is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and perpetual contributed capital. Any such losses will be distributed <I>pro rata</I> among nonperpetual capital account holders at the time the loss is realized. To the extent that NCA funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(6) Where the corporate credit union is liquidated, nonperpetual capital accounts are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF. However, nonperpetual capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>(7) Where the corporate credit union is merged into another corporate credit union, the nonperpetual capital account will transfer to the continuing corporate credit union. For notice accounts, the five-year notice period for withdrawal of the nonperpetual capital account will remain in effect. For term accounts, the original term will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(8) If a term certificate—: The nonperpetual capital account is a term certificate that will mature on—(date)—(insert date with a minimum five-year original maturity).
</P>
<P>I have read the above terms and conditions and I understand them.
</P>
<P>I further agree to maintain in the credit union's files the annual notice of terms and conditions of the nonperpetual capital account.
</P>
<P>The notice form must be signed by either all of the directors of the member credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board of the credit union.
</P>
<P>The annual disclosure notice form must be signed by the chair of the corporate credit union. The chair must then sign a statement that certifies that the notice has been sent to member credit unions with nonperpetual capital accounts. The certification must be maintained in the corporate credit union's files and be available for examiner review.
</P>
<HD2>Model Form B
</HD2>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Nonperpetual Capital
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is for use on and after October 20, 2011, in the circumstances where the corporate credit union has determined that it will give newly issued capital priority over older capital as described in Part I of this Appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Nonperpetual Capital Account
</HD3>
<P>(1) A nonperpetual capital account is not subject to share insurance coverage by the NCUSIF or other deposit insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) A nonperpetual capital account is not releasable due solely to the merger, charter conversion or liquidation of the member credit union. In the event of a merger, the nonperpetual capital account transfers to the continuing credit union. In the event of a charter conversion, the nonperpetual capital account transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the nonperpetual capital account may be released to facilitate the payout of shares with the prior written approval of NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) If the nonperpetual capital account is a notice account, a member credit union may withdraw the nonperpetual capital with a minimum of five years' notice. If the nonperpetual capital account is a term instrument it may be redeemed only at maturity. The corporate credit union may not redeem any account prior to the expiration of the notice period, or maturity, without the prior written approval of the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(4) Nonperpetual capital cannot be used to pledge borrowings.
</P>
<P>(5)(a) Nonperpetual capital that is issued on or after January 18, 2011 is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings, all contributed capital issued before January 18, 2011, and perpetual capital issued on or after January 18, 2011. Any such losses will be distributed <I>pro rata,</I> at the time the loss is realized, among nonperpetual capital account holders with accounts issued on or after January 18, 2011. To the extent that NCA funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) Nonperpetual capital that is issued before January 18, 2011, is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and perpetual capital issued before January 18, 2011. Any such losses will be distributed <I>pro rata,</I> at the time the loss is realized, among nonperpetual capital account holders with accounts issued before January 18, 2011. To the extent that NCA funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Attached to this disclosure is a statement that describes the amount of NCA the credit union has with the corporate credit union in each of the categories described in paragraphs (5)(a) and (5)(b) above.
</P>
<P>(6) If the corporate credit union is liquidated:
</P>
<P>(a) Nonperpetual capital accounts issued on or after January 18, 2011 are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF, but not including contributed capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011 or perpetual capital accounts issued on or after January 18, 2011. However, nonperpetual capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>(b) Nonperpetual capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011 are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF, but not including perpetual capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011. However, nonperpetual capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>(7) Where the corporate credit union is merged into another corporate credit union, the nonperpetual capital account will transfer to the continuing corporate credit union. For notice accounts, the five-year notice period for withdrawal of the nonperpetual capital account will remain in effect. For term accounts, the original term will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(8) If a term certificate—: The nonperpetual capital account is a term certificate that will mature on—(date)—(insert date with a minimum five-year original maturity).
</P>
<P>I have read the above terms and conditions and I understand them.
</P>
<P>I further agree to maintain in the credit union's files the annual notice of terms and conditions of the nonperpetual capital account.
</P>
<P>The notice form must be signed by either all of the directors of the member credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board of the credit union.
</P>
<P>The annual disclosure notice form must be signed by the chair of the corporate credit union. The chair must then sign a statement that certifies that the notice has been sent to member credit unions with nonperpetual capital accounts. The certification must be maintained in the corporate credit union's files and be available for examiner review.
</P>
<HD2>Model Form C
</HD2>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Perpetual Contributed Capital
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is for use on and after October 20, 2011 in the circumstances where the credit union has determined NOT to give newly issued capital priority over older capital as described in Part I of this Appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) A perpetual contributed capital account is not subject to share insurance coverage by the NCUSIF or other deposit insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) A perpetual contributed capital account is not releasable due solely to the merger, charter conversion or liquidation of the member credit union. In the event of a merger, the perpetual contributed capital account transfers to the continuing credit union. In the event of a charter conversion, the perpetual contributed capital account transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the perpetual contributed capital account may be released to facilitate the payout of shares with the prior written approval of NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) The funds are callable only at the option of the corporate credit union and only if the corporate credit union meets its minimum required capital and NEV ratios after the funds are called. The corporate credit union must also obtain the prior, written approval of the NCUA before releasing any perpetual contributed capital funds.
</P>
<P>(4) Perpetual contributed capital cannot be used to pledge borrowings.
</P>
<P>(5) Perpetual contributed capital is perpetual maturity and noncumulative dividend.
</P>
<P>(6) Perpetual contributed capital is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings. Any such losses must be distributed <I>pro rata</I> among perpetual contributed capital holders at the time the loss is realized. To the extent that perpetual contributed capital funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(7) Where the corporate credit union is liquidated, perpetual contributed capital accounts are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF, and nonperpetual capital holders. However, perpetual contributed capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>I have read the above terms and conditions and I understand them. I further agree to maintain in the credit union's files the annual notice of terms and conditions of the perpetual contributed capital instrument.
</P>
<P>The notice form must be signed by either all of the directors of the credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board of the credit union.
</P>
<HD2>Model Form D
</HD2>
<HD3>Terms and Conditions of Perpetual Contributed Capital
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is for use on and after October 20, 2011, in the circumstances where the corporate credit union has determined that it will give newly issued capital priority over older capital as described in Part I of this Appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P>(1) A perpetual contributed capital account is not subject to share insurance coverage by the NCUSIF or other deposit insurer.
</P>
<P>(2) A perpetual contributed capital account is not releasable due solely to the merger, charter conversion or liquidation of the member credit union. In the event of a merger, the perpetual contributed capital account transfers to the continuing credit union. In the event of a charter conversion, the perpetual contributed capital account transfers to the new institution. In the event of liquidation, the perpetual contributed capital account may be released to facilitate the payout of shares with the prior written approval of NCUA.
</P>
<P>(3) The funds are callable only at the option of the corporate credit union and only if the corporate credit union meets its minimum required capital and NEV ratios after the funds are called. The corporate credit union must also obtain the prior, written approval of the NCUA before releasing any perpetual contributed capital funds.
</P>
<P>(4) Perpetual contributed capital cannot be used to pledge borrowings.
</P>
<P>(5) Perpetual contributed capital is perpetual maturity and noncumulative dividend.
</P>
<P>(6) Availability to cover losses.
</P>
<P>(a) Perpetual contributed capital issued before January 18, 2011 is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings. Any such losses must be distributed <I>pro rata,</I> at the time the loss is realized, among holders of perpetual contributed capital issued before January 18, 2011. To the extent that perpetual contributed capital funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) Perpetual contributed capital issued on or after January 18, 2011 is available to cover losses that exceed retained earnings and any contributed capital issued before January 18, 2011. Any such losses must be distributed <I>pro rata,</I> at the time the loss is realized, among holders of perpetual contributed capital issued on or after January 18, 2011. To the extent that perpetual contributed capital funds are used to cover losses, the corporate credit union is prohibited from restoring or replenishing the affected accounts under any circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Attached to this disclosure is a statement that describes the amount of perpetual capital the credit union has with the corporate credit union in each of the categories described in paragraphs (6)(a) and (6)(b) above.
</P>
<P>(7) Where the corporate credit union is liquidated:
</P>
<P>(a) Perpetual contributed capital accounts issued on or after January 18, 2011 are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF, but not including contributed capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011. However, perpetual contributed capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>(b) Perpetual contributed capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011 are payable only after satisfaction of all liabilities of the liquidation estate including uninsured obligations to shareholders and the NCUSIF, nonperpetual capital accounts issued before January 18, 2011, and all contributed capital accounts issued on or after January 18, 2011. However, perpetual contributed capital that is used to cover losses in a calendar year previous to the year of liquidation has no claim against the liquidation estate.
</P>
<P>I have read the above terms and conditions and I understand them. I further agree to maintain in the credit union's files the annual notice of terms and conditions of the perpetual contributed capital instrument.
</P>
<P>The notice form must be signed by either all of the directors of the credit union or, if authorized by board resolution, the chair and secretary of the board of the credit union. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64848, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 71528, Nov. 24, 2010; 76 FR 79534, Dec. 22, 2011; 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62211, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.23.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 704—Expanded Authorities and Requirements 
</HEAD>
<P>A corporate credit union may obtain all or part of the expanded authorities contained in this appendix if it meets the applicable requirements of part 704 and appendix B, fulfills additional management, infrastructure, and asset and liability requirements, and receives NCUA's written approval. Additional guidance is set forth in the NCUA publication Guidelines for Submission of Requests for Expanded Authority.
</P>
<P>A corporate credit union seeking expanded authorities must submit to NCUA a self-assessment plan supporting its request. A corporate credit union may adopt expanded authorities when NCUA has provided final approval. If NCUA denies a request for expanded authorities, it will advise the corporate credit union of the reason(s) for the denial and what it must do to resubmit its request. NCUA may revoke these expanded authorities at any time if an analysis indicates a significant deficiency. NCUA will notify the corporate credit union in writing of the identified deficiency. A corporate credit union may request, in writing, reinstatement of the revoked authorities by providing a self-assessment plan detailing how it has corrected the deficiency.
</P>
<P>A state chartered corporate credit union may not exercise any expanded authority that exceeds the powers and authorities provided for under its state laws. Accordingly, requests by state chartered corporate credit unions for expansions under this part must be approved by the state regulator before being submitted to NCUA.
</P>
<HD2>Minimum Requirement
</HD2>
<P>In order to participate in any of the authorities set forth in Base-Plus, Part I, Part II, Part III, or Part IV of this Appendix, a corporate credit union must evaluate monthly, including once on the last day of the month, the changes in NEV, NEV ratio, NII, WAL, and duration as required by paragraphs (d)(1)(i), (e), (f), (g), and (i) of § 704.8.
</P>
<HD3>Base-Plus
</HD3>
<P>A corporate credit union that has met the requirements for this Base-plus authority may, in performing the rate stress tests set forth in 704.8(d)(1)(i), allow its NEV to decline as much as 20 percent.
</P>
<HD3>Part I
</HD3>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union that has met all the requirements established by NCUA for this Part I, including a minimum leverage ratio of at least six percent, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchase an investment after conducting and documenting an analysis that reasonably concludes the investment is at least investment grade;
</P>
<P>(2) Engage in short sales of permissible investments to reduce interest rate risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchase principal only (PO) stripped mortgage-backed securities to reduce interest rate risk; and
</P>
<P>(4) Enter into a dollar roll transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) In performing the rate stress tests set forth in § 704.8(d), the NEV of a corporate credit union that has met the requirements of this Part I may decline as much as:
</P>
<P>(1) 20 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) 28 percent if the corporate credit union has a seven percent minimum leverage ratio and a two and a half percent retained earnings ratio, and is specifically approved by the NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(3) 35 percent if the corporate credit union has an eight percent minimum leverage ratio and a three percent retained earnings ratio and is specifically approved by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(c) The maximum aggregate amount in unsecured loans and lines of credit to any one member credit union, excluding pass-through and guaranteed loans from the CLF and the NCUSIF, must not exceed 100 percent of the corporate credit union's total capital. The board of directors must establish the limit, as a percent of the corporate credit union's total capital plus pledged shares, for secured loans and lines of credit.
</P>
<P>(d) The aggregate total of investments purchased under the authority of Part I (a)(1) and Part I (a)(2) may not exceed the lower of 500 percent of the corporate credit union's total capital or 25 percent of assets.
</P>
<HD3>Part II
</HD3>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union that has met the requirements of Part I of this Appendix and the additional requirements established by NCUA for Part II may invest in:
</P>
<P>(1) Debt obligations of a foreign country;
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits and debt obligations of foreign banks or obligations guaranteed by these banks;
</P>
<P>(3) Marketable debt obligations of foreign corporations. This authority does not apply to debt obligations that are convertible into the stock of the corporation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Foreign issued asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(b) All foreign investments are subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Investments must be made pursuant to an explicit policy established by the corporate credit union's board of directors. Before purchasing an investment, the corporate credit union must conduct and document an analysis that reasonably concludes the foreign issue or issuer has no more than a minimal amount of credit risk;
</P>
<P>(2) For each approved foreign bank line, the corporate credit union must identify the specific banking centers and branches to which it will lend funds;
</P>
<P>(3) Obligations of any single foreign obligor may not exceed 25 percent of total capital or $5 million, whichever is greater; and
</P>
<P>(4) Obligations in any single foreign country may not exceed 250 percent of capital.
</P>
<HD3>Part III
</HD3>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union that has met the requirements established by NCUA for this Part III may enter into derivative transactions specifically approved by NCUA to:
</P>
<P>(1) Create structured products;
</P>
<P>(2) Mitigate interest rate risk and credit risk on its own balance sheet; and
</P>
<P>(3) Hedge the balance sheets of its members.
</P>
<P>(b) Credit Quality:
</P>
<P>All derivative transactions are subject to the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) If the intended counterparty is domestic, the counterparty must meet minimum credit quality standards as established by the corporate credit union's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(2) If the intended counterparty is foreign, the corporate credit union must have Part II expanded authority and the counterparty must meet minimum credit quality standards as established by the corporate credit union's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(3) The corporate credit union must identify the criteria relied upon to determine that the counterparty meets the credit quality requirements of this part at the time the transaction is entered into and monitor those criteria for as long as the contract remains open; and
</P>
<P>(4) The corporate credit union must comply with § 704.10 of this part if the credit quality of the counterparty deteriorates below the minimum credit quality standards established by the corporate credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<HD3>Part IV
</HD3>
<P>A corporate credit union that has met all the requirements established by NCUA for this Part IV may participate in loans with member natural person credit unions as approved by the NCUA and subject to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The maximum aggregate amount of participation loans with any one member credit union must not exceed 25 percent of capital; and
</P>
<P>(b) The maximum aggregate amount of participation loans with all member credit unions will be determined on a case-by-case basis by the NCUA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64851, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 74111, Dec. 13, 2012; 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015; 82 FR 55500, Nov. 22, 2017; 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.5.0.11.23.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 704—Risk-Based Capital Credit Risk-Weight Categories
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2> I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (a) Scope
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (b) Definitions
</FP-2>
<FP-2> II. Risk-Weightings
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (a) On-balance sheet assets
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (b) Off-balance sheet activities
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (c) Recourse obligations, direct credit substitutes, and certain other positions
</FP-2>
<FP-2> (d) Collateral
</FP-2>
<HD1>Part I: Introduction
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) Scope
</HD2>
<P>(1) This Appendix explains how a corporate credit union must compute its risk-weighted assets for purposes of determining its capital ratios.
</P>
<P>(2) Risk-weighted assets equal risk-weighted on-balance sheet assets (computed under Section II(a) of this Appendix), plus risk-weighted off-balance sheet activities (computed under Section II(b) of this Appendix), plus risk-weighted recourse obligations, direct credit substitutes, and certain other positions (computed under Section II(c) of this Appendix).
</P>
<P>(3) Assets not included (<I>i.e.,</I> deducted from capital) for purposes of calculating capital under part 704 are not included in calculating risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(4) Although this Appendix describes risk-weightings for various assets and activities, this Appendix does not provide authority for corporate credit unions to invest in or purchase any particular type of asset or to engage in any particular type of activity. A corporate credit union <I>must have other identifiable authority</I> for any investment it makes or activity it engages in. So, for example, this Appendix describes risk weightings for subordinated securities. Section 704.5, however, prohibits corporate credit unions from investing in subordinated securities, and so a corporate credit union cannot invest in subordinated securities.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Definitions
</HD2>
<P>The following definitions apply to this Appendix. Additional definitions, applicable to this entire part, are located in § 704.2 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Cash items in the process of collection</I> means checks or drafts in the process of collection that are drawn on another depository institution, including a central bank, and that are payable immediately upon presentation; U.S. Government checks that are drawn on the United States Treasury or any other U.S. Government or Government-sponsored agency and that are payable immediately upon presentation; broker's security drafts and commodity or bill-of-lading drafts payable immediately upon presentation; and unposted debits.
</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any arrangement that obligates a corporate credit union to:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchase loans or securities;
</P>
<P>(2) Extend credit in the form of loans or leases, participations in loans or leases, overdraft facilities, revolving credit facilities, home equity lines of credit, eligible ABCP liquidity facilities, or similar transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a financial institution that engages in the business of providing financial services; that is recognized as a bank or a credit union by the supervisory or monetary authorities of the country of its incorporation and the country of its principal banking operations; that receives deposits to a substantial extent in the regular course of business; and that has the power to accept demand deposits. In the United States, this definition encompasses all federally insured offices of commercial banks, mutual and stock savings banks, savings or building and loan associations (stock and mutual), cooperative banks, credit unions, and international banking facilities of domestic depository institutions.
</P>
<P>Bank holding companies and savings and loan holding companies are excluded from this definition. For the purposes of assigning risk-weights, the differentiation between OECD depository institutions and non-OECD depository institutions is based on the country of incorporation. Claims on branches and agencies of foreign banks located in the United States are to be categorized on the basis of the parent bank's country of incorporation.
</P>
<P><I>Direct credit substitute</I> means an arrangement in which a corporate credit union assumes, in form or in substance, credit risk associated with an on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet asset or exposure that was not previously owned by the corporate credit union (third-party asset) and the risk assumed by the corporate credit union exceeds the <I>pro rata</I> share of the corporate credit union's interest in the third-party asset. If a corporate credit union has no claim on the third-party asset, then the corporate credit union's assumption of any credit risk is a direct credit substitute. Direct credit substitutes include:
</P>
<P>(1) Financial standby letters of credit that support financial claims on a third party that exceed a corporate credit union's <I>pro rata</I> share in the financial claim;
</P>
<P>(2) Guarantees, surety arrangements, credit derivatives, and similar instruments backing financial claims that exceed a corporate credit union's <I>pro rata</I> share in the financial claim;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchased subordinated interests that absorb more than their <I>pro rata</I> share of losses from the underlying assets, including any tranche of asset-backed securities that is not the most senior tranche;
</P>
<P>(4) Credit derivative contracts under which the corporate credit union assumes more than its <I>pro rata</I> share of credit risk on a third-party asset or exposure;
</P>
<P>(5) Loans or lines of credit that provide credit enhancement for the financial obligations of a third party;
</P>
<P>(6) Purchased loan servicing assets if the servicer is responsible for credit losses or if the servicer makes or assumes credit-enhancing representations and warranties with respect to the loans serviced. Servicer cash advances as defined in this section are not direct credit substitutes;
</P>
<P>(7) Clean-up calls on third-party assets. However, clean-up calls that are 10 percent or less of the original pool balance and that are exercisable at the option of the corporate credit union are not direct credit substitutes; and
</P>
<P>(8) Liquidity facilities that provide support to asset-backed commercial paper.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate contracts</I> means cross-currency interest rate swaps; forward foreign exchange rate contracts; currency options purchased; and any similar instrument that, in the opinion of the NCUA, may give rise to similar risks.
</P>
<P><I>Face amount</I> means the notional principal, or face value, amount of an off-balance sheet item or the amortized cost of an on-balance sheet asset.
</P>
<P><I>Financial asset</I> means cash or other monetary instrument, evidence of debt, evidence of an ownership interest in an entity, or a contract that conveys a right to receive or exchange cash or another financial instrument from another party.
</P>
<P><I>Financial standby letter of credit</I> means a letter of credit or similar arrangement that represents an irrevocable obligation to a third-party beneficiary:
</P>
<P>(1) To repay money borrowed by, or advanced to, or for the account of, a second party (the account party); or
</P>
<P>(2) To make payment on behalf of the account party, in the event that the account party fails to fulfill its obligation to the beneficiary.
</P>
<P><I>OECD-based country</I> means a member of that grouping of countries that are full members of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) plus countries that have concluded special lending arrangements with the International Monetary Fund (IMF) associated with the IMF's General Arrangements To Borrow. This term excludes any country that has rescheduled its external sovereign debt within the previous five years. A rescheduling of external sovereign debt generally would include any renegotiation of terms arising from a country's inability or unwillingness to meet its external debt service obligations, but generally would not include renegotiations of debt in the normal course of business, such as a renegotiation to allow the borrower to take advantage of a decline in interest rates or other change in market conditions.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> means, with respect to a commitment, the earliest date after a commitment is made on which the commitment is scheduled to expire (<I>i.e.,</I> it will reach its stated maturity and cease to be binding on either party), provided that either:
</P>
<P>(1) The commitment is not subject to extension or renewal and will actually expire on its stated expiration date; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the commitment is subject to extension or renewal beyond its stated expiration date, the stated expiration date will be deemed the original maturity only if the extension or renewal must be based upon terms and conditions independently negotiated in good faith with the member at the time of the extension or renewal and upon a new, bona fide credit analysis utilizing current information on financial condition and trends.
</P>
<P><I>Performance-based standby letter of credit</I> means any letter of credit, or similar arrangement, however named or described, which represents an irrevocable obligation to the beneficiary on the part of the issuer to make payment on account of any default by a third party in the performance of a nonfinancial or commercial obligation. Such letters of credit include arrangements backing subcontractors' and suppliers' performance, labor and materials contracts, and construction bids.
</P>
<P><I>Prorated assets</I> means the total assets (as determined in the most recently available GAAP report but in no event more than one year old) of a consolidated CUSO multiplied by the corporate credit union's percentage of ownership of that consolidated CUSO.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying mortgage loan</I> means a loan that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is fully secured by a first lien on a one-to four-family residential property;
</P>
<P>(2) Is underwritten in accordance with prudent underwriting standards, including standards relating to the ratio of the loan amount to the value of the property (LTV ratio), as presented in the <I>Interagency Guidelines for Real Estate Lending Policies</I> (December 31, 1992). A nonqualifying mortgage loan that is paid down to an appropriate LTV ratio (calculated using value at origination, appraisal obtained within the prior six months, or updated value using an automated valuation model) may become a qualifying loan if it meets all other requirements of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintains an appropriate LTV ratio based on the amortized principal balance of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is performing and is not more than 90 days past due.
</P>
<P>If a corporate credit union holds the first and junior lien(s) on a residential property and no other party holds an intervening lien, the transaction is treated as a single loan secured by a first lien for the purposes of determining the LTV ratio and the appropriate risk-weight under Appendix C. Also, a loan to an individual borrower for the construction of the borrower's home may be included as a qualifying mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying multifamily mortgage loan.</I> (1) <I>Qualifying multifamily mortgage loan</I> means a loan secured by a first lien on multifamily residential properties consisting of 5 or more dwelling units, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The amortization of principal and interest occurs over a period of not more than 30 years;
</P>
<P>(ii) The original minimum maturity for repayment of principal on the loan is not less than seven years;
</P>
<P>(iii) When considering the loan for placement in a lower risk-weight category, all principal and interest payments have been made on a timely basis in accordance with its terms for the preceding year;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is performing and not 90 days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is made in accordance with prudent underwriting standards; and
</P>
<P>(vi) If the interest rate on the loan does not change over the term of the loan, the current loan balance amount does not exceed 80 percent of the value of the property securing the loan, and for the property's most recent calendar year, the ratio of annual net operating income generated by the property (before payment of any debt service on the loan) to annual debt service on the loan is not less than 120 percent, or in the case of cooperative or other not-for-profit housing projects, the property generates sufficient cash flows to provide comparable protection to the institution; or
</P>
<P>(vii) If the interest rate on the loan changes over the term of the loan, the current loan balance amount does not exceed 75 percent of the value of the property securing the loan, and for the property's most recent calendar year, the ratio of annual net operating income generated by the property (before payment of any debt service on the loan) to annual debt service on the loan is not less than 115 percent, or in the case of cooperative or other not-for-profit housing projects, the property generates sufficient cash flows to provide comparable protection to the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraphs (1)(vi) and (1)(vii) of this definition, the term value of the property means, at origination of a loan to purchase a multifamily property, the lower of the purchase price or the amount of the initial appraisal, or if appropriate, the initial evaluation. In cases not involving purchase of a multifamily loan, the value of the property is determined by the most current appraisal, or if appropriate, the most current evaluation. In cases where a borrower refinances a loan on an existing property, as an alternative to paragraphs (1)(iii), (1)(vi), and (1)(vii) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) All principal and interest payments on the loan being refinanced have been made on a timely basis in accordance with the terms of that loan for the preceding year; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The net income on the property for the preceding year would support timely principal and interest payments on the new loan in accordance with the applicable debt service requirement.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying residential construction loan,</I> also referred to as a residential bridge loan, means a loan made in accordance with sound lending principles satisfying the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The builder must have substantial project equity in the home construction project;
</P>
<P>(2) The residence being constructed must be a 1-4 family residence sold to a home purchaser;
</P>
<P>(3) The lending entity must obtain sufficient documentation from a permanent lender (which may be the construction lender) demonstrating that the home buyer intends to purchase the residence and has the ability to obtain a permanent qualifying mortgage loan sufficient to purchase the residence;
</P>
<P>(4) The home purchaser must have made a substantial earnest money deposit;
</P>
<P>(5) The construction loan must not exceed 80 percent of the sales price of the residence;
</P>
<P>(6) The construction loan must be secured by a first lien on the lot, residence under construction, and other improvements;
</P>
<P>(7) The lending credit union must retain sufficient undisbursed loan funds throughout the construction period to ensure project completion;
</P>
<P>(8) The builder must incur a significant percentage of direct costs (<I>i.e.,</I> the actual costs of land, labor, and material) before any drawdown on the loan;
</P>
<P>(9) If at any time during the life of the construction loan any of the criteria of this rule are no longer satisfied, the corporate must immediately recategorize the loan at a 100 percent risk-weight and must accurately report the loan in the corporate's next quarterly call report;
</P>
<P>(10) The home purchaser must intend that the home will be owner-occupied;
</P>
<P>(11) The home purchaser(s) must be an individual(s), not a partnership, joint venture, trust corporation, or any other entity (including an entity acting as a sole proprietorship) that is purchasing the home(s) for speculative purposes; and
</P>
<P>(12) The loan must be performing and not more than 90 days past due.
</P>
<P>The NCUA retains the discretion to determine that any loans not meeting sound lending principles must be placed in a higher risk-weight category. The NCUA also reserves the discretion to modify these criteria on a case-by-case basis provided that any such modifications are not inconsistent with the safety and soundness objectives of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying securities firm</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A securities firm incorporated in the United States that is a broker-dealer that is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and that complies with the SEC's net capital regulations (17 CFR 240.15c3(1)); and
</P>
<P>(2) A securities firm incorporated in any other OECD-based country, if the corporate credit union is able to demonstrate that the securities firm is subject to consolidated supervision and regulation (covering its subsidiaries, but not necessarily its parent organizations) comparable to that imposed on depository institutions in OECD countries. Such regulation must include risk-based capital requirements comparable to those imposed on depository institutions under the Accord on International Convergence of Capital Measurement and Capital Standards (1988, as amended in 1998).
</P>
<P><I>Recourse</I> means a corporate credit union's retention, in form or in substance, of any credit risk directly or indirectly associated with an asset it has sold (in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles) that exceeds a <I>pro rata</I> share of that corporate credit union's claim on the asset. If a corporate credit union has no claim on an asset it has sold, then the retention of any credit risk is recourse. A recourse obligation typically arises when a corporate credit union transfers assets in a sale and retains an explicit obligation to repurchase assets or to absorb losses due to a default on the payment of principal or interest or any other deficiency in the performance of the underlying obligor or some other party. Recourse may also exist implicitly if a corporate credit union provides credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has sold. Recourse obligations include:
</P>
<P>(1) Credit-enhancing representations and warranties made on transferred assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Loan servicing assets retained pursuant to an agreement under which the corporate credit union will be responsible for losses associated with the loans serviced. Servicer cash advances as defined in this section are not recourse obligations;
</P>
<P>(3) Retained subordinated interests that absorb more than their <I>pro rata</I> share of losses from the underlying assets;
</P>
<P>(4) Assets sold under an agreement to repurchase, if the assets are not already included on the balance sheet;
</P>
<P>(5) Loan strips sold without contractual recourse where the maturity of the transferred portion of the loan is shorter than the maturity of the commitment under which the loan is drawn;
</P>
<P>(6) Credit derivatives that absorb more than the corporate credit union's <I>pro rata</I> share of losses from the transferred assets;
</P>
<P>(7) Clean-up calls on assets the corporate credit union has sold. However, clean-up calls that are 10 percent or less of the original pool balance and that are exercisable at the option of the corporate credit union are not recourse arrangements; and
</P>
<P>(8) Liquidity facilities that provide support to asset-backed commercial paper.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement</I> cost means, with respect to interest rate and exchange-rate contracts, the loss that would be incurred in the event of a counterparty default, as measured by the net cost of replacing the contract at the current market value. If default would result in a theoretical profit, the replacement value is considered to be zero. This mark-to-market process must incorporate changes in both interest rates and counterparty credit quality.
</P>
<P><I>Residential properties</I> means houses, condominiums, cooperative units, and manufactured homes. This definition does not include boats or motor homes, even if used as a primary residence, or timeshare properties.
</P>
<P><I>Residual interest.</I> (1) <I>Residual interest</I> means any on-balance sheet asset that:
</P>
<P>(i) Represents an interest (including a beneficial interest) created by a transfer that qualifies as a sale (in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles) of financial assets, whether through a securitization or otherwise; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Exposes a corporate credit union to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the transferred asset that exceeds a <I>pro rata</I> share of that corporate credit union's claim on the asset, whether through subordination provisions or other credit enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P>(2) Residual interests generally include spread accounts, cash collateral accounts, retained subordinated interests (and other forms of overcollateralization), and similar assets that function as a credit enhancement. Residual interests further include those exposures that, in substance, cause the corporate credit union to retain the credit risk of an asset or exposure that had qualified as a residual interest before it was sold.
</P>
<P>(3) Corporate credit unions will use this definition of the term “residual interests,” and not the definition in § 704.2, for purposes of applying this Appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Risk participation</I> means a participation in which the originating party remains liable to the beneficiary for the full amount of an obligation (<I>e.g.,</I> a direct credit substitute), notwithstanding that another party has acquired a participation in that obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-weighted assets</I> means the sum total of risk-weighted on-balance sheet assets, as calculated under Section II(a) of this Appendix, and the total of risk-weighted off-balance sheet credit equivalent amounts. The total of risk-weighted off-balance sheet credit equivalent amounts equals the risk-weighted off-balance sheet activities as calculated under Section II(b) of this Appendix plus the risk-weighted recourse obligations, risk-weighted direct credit substitutes, and certain other risk-weighted positions as calculated under Section II(c) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance</I> means funds that a residential mortgage servicer advances to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the loan. A servicer cash advance is not a recourse obligation or a direct credit substitute if:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer is entitled to full reimbursement and this right is not subordinated to other claims on the cash flows from the underlying asset pool; or
</P>
<P>(2) For any one loan, the servicer's obligation to make nonreimbursable advances is contractually limited to an insignificant amount of the outstanding principal amount on that loan.
</P>
<P><I>Structured financing program</I> means a program where receivable interests and asset-or mortgage-backed securities issued by multiple participants are purchased by a special purpose entity that repackages those exposures into securities that can be sold to investors. Structured financing programs allocate credit risk, generally, between the participants and credit enhancement provided to the program.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means, with respect to a commitment-type lending arrangement, that the corporate credit union may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to advance funds or extend credit under the facility.
</P>
<P><I>United States Government or its agencies</I> means an instrumentality of the U.S. Government whose debt obligations are fully and explicitly guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.
</P>
<P><I>United States Government-sponsored agency or corporation</I> means an agency or corporation originally established or chartered to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress but whose obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government.
</P>
<HD1>Part II: Risk-Weightings
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) On-Balance Sheet Assets
</HD2>
<P>Except as provided in Section II(b) of this Appendix, risk-weighted on-balance sheet assets are computed by multiplying the on-balance sheet asset amounts times the appropriate risk-weight categories. The risk-weight categories are:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero percent Risk-Weight (Category 1).
</P>
<P>(i) Cash, including domestic and foreign currency owned and held in all offices of a corporate credit union or in transit. Any foreign currency held by a corporate credit union must be converted into U.S. dollar equivalents;
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities issued by and other direct claims on the U.S. Government or its agencies (to the extent such securities or claims are unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government) or the central government of an OECD country;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notes and obligations issued or guaranteed by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund and backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government;
</P>
<P>(iv) Deposit reserves at, claims on, and balances due from Federal Reserve Banks;
</P>
<P>(v) The book value of paid-in Federal Reserve Bank stock;
</P>
<P>(vi) That portion of assets directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the United States Government or its agencies, or the central government of an OECD country.
</P>
<P>(viii) Claims on, and claims guaranteed by, a qualifying securities firm that are collateralized by cash on deposit in the corporate credit union or by securities issued or guaranteed by the United States Government or its agencies, or the central government of an OECD country. To be eligible for this risk-weight, the corporate credit union must maintain a positive margin of collateral on the claim on a daily basis, taking into account any change in a corporate credit union's exposure to the obligor or counterparty under the claim in relation to the market value of the collateral held in support of the claim.
</P>
<P>(2) 20 percent Risk-Weight (Category 2).
</P>
<P>(i) Cash items in the process of collection;
</P>
<P>(ii) That portion of assets conditionally guaranteed by the United States Government or its agencies, or the central government of an OECD country;
</P>
<P>(iii) That portion of assets collateralized by the current market value of securities issued or guaranteed by the United States government or its agencies, or the central government of an OECD country;
</P>
<P>(iv) Securities (not including equity securities) issued by and other claims on the U.S. Government or its agencies which are not backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government;
</P>
<P>(v) Securities (not including equity securities) issued by, or other direct claims on, United States Government-sponsored agencies;
</P>
<P>(vi) That portion of assets guaranteed by United States Government-sponsored agencies;
</P>
<P>(vii) That portion of assets collateralized by the current market value of securities issued or guaranteed by United States Government-sponsored agencies;
</P>
<P>(viii) Claims on, and claims guaranteed by, a qualifying securities firm, subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) A qualifying securities firm must meet the minimum credit quality standards as established by the corporate credit union's board of directors or have at least one issue of long-term unsecured debt that is reasonably determined to present no more than a minimal amount of credit risk, whichever requirement is more stringent. Alternatively, a qualifying securities firm may rely on the creditworthiness of its parent consolidated company, if the parent consolidated company guarantees the claim.
</P>
<P>(B) A collateralized claim on a qualifying securities firm does not have to comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section of Appendix C if the claim arises under a contract that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is a reverse repurchase/repurchase agreement or securities lending/borrowing transaction executed using standard industry documentation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is collateralized by debt or equity securities that are liquid and readily marketable;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Is marked-to-market daily;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Is subject to a daily margin maintenance requirement under the standard industry documentation; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Can be liquidated, terminated or accelerated immediately in bankruptcy or similar proceeding, and the security or collateral agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction. For example, a claim is exempt from the automatic stay in bankruptcy in the United States if it arises under a securities contract or a repurchase agreement subject to Section 555 or 559 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under Section 207(c)(8) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(8)) or Section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)), or a netting contract between or among financial institutions under Sections 401-407 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 4401-4407), or Regulation EE (12 CFR part 231).
</P>
<P>(C) If the securities firm uses the claim to satisfy its applicable capital requirements, the claim is not eligible for a risk-weight under this paragraph II(a)(2)(viii);
</P>
<P>(ix) Claims representing general obligations of any public-sector entity in an OECD country, and that portion of any claims guaranteed by any such public-sector entity;
</P>
<P>(x) Balances due from and all claims on domestic depository institutions. This includes demand deposits and other transaction accounts, savings deposits and time certificates of deposit, federal funds sold, loans to other depository institutions, including overdrafts and term federal funds, holdings of the corporate credit union's own discounted acceptances for which the account party is a depository institution, holdings of bankers acceptances of other institutions and securities issued by depository institutions, except those that qualify as capital;
</P>
<P>(xi) The book value of paid-in Federal Home Loan Bank stock;
</P>
<P>(xii) Deposit reserves at, claims on and balances due from the Federal Home Loan Banks;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Assets collateralized by cash held in a segregated deposit account by the reporting corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Claims on, or guaranteed by, official multilateral lending institutions or regional development institutions in which the United States Government is a shareholder or contributing member; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> These institutions include, but are not limited to, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (World Bank), the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Investments Bank, the International Monetary Fund and the Bank for International Settlements.</P></FTNT>
<P>(xv) That portion of assets collateralized by the current market value of securities issued by official multilateral lending institutions or regional development institutions in which the United States Government is a shareholder or contributing member.
</P>
<P>(xvi) All claims on depository institutions incorporated in an OECD country, and all assets backed by the full faith and credit of depository institutions incorporated in an OECD country. This includes the credit equivalent amount of participations in commitments and standby letters of credit sold to other depository institutions incorporated in an OECD country, but only if the originating bank remains liable to the member or beneficiary for the full amount of the commitment or standby letter of credit. Also included in this category are the credit equivalent amounts of risk participations in bankers' acceptances conveyed to other depository institutions incorporated in an OECD country. However, bank-issued securities that qualify as capital of the issuing bank are not included in this risk category;
</P>
<P>(xvii) Claims on, or guaranteed by depository institutions other than the central bank, incorporated in a non-OECD country, with a remaining maturity of one year or less;
</P>
<P>(xviii) That portion of local currency claims conditionally guaranteed by central governments of non-OECD countries, to the extent the corporate credit union has local currency liabilities in that country.
</P>
<P>(3) 50 percent Risk-Weight (Category 3).
</P>
<P>(i) Revenue bonds issued by any public-sector entity in an OECD country for which the underlying obligor is a public-sector entity, but which are repayable solely from the revenues generated from the project financed through the issuance of the obligations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifying mortgage loans and qualifying multifamily mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(iii) Privately-issued mortgage-backed securities (<I>i.e.,</I> those that do not carry the guarantee of the U.S. Government, a U.S. government agency, or a U.S. government sponsored enterprise) representing an interest in qualifying mortgage loans or qualifying multifamily mortgage loans. If the security is backed by qualifying multifamily mortgage loans, the corporate credit union must receive timely payments of principal and interest in accordance with the terms of the security. Payments will generally be considered timely if they are not 30 days past due; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Qualifying residential construction loans.
</P>
<P>(4) 100 percent Risk-Weight (Category 4).
</P>
<P>All assets not specified above or deducted from calculations of capital pursuant to § 704.2 and § 704.3 of this part, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Consumer loans;
</P>
<P>(ii) Commercial loans;
</P>
<P>(iii) Home equity loans;
</P>
<P>(iv) Non-qualifying mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(v) Non-qualifying multifamily mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(vi) Residential construction loans;
</P>
<P>(vii) Land loans;
</P>
<P>(viii) Nonresidential construction loans;
</P>
<P>(ix) Obligations issued by any state or any political subdivision thereof for the benefit of a private party or enterprise where that party or enterprise, rather than the issuing state or political subdivision, is responsible for the timely payment of principal and interest on the obligations, <I>e.g.,</I> industrial development bonds;
</P>
<P>(x) Debt securities not specifically risk-weighted in another category;
</P>
<P>(xi) Investments in fixed assets and premises;
</P>
<P>(xii) Servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(xiii) Interest-only strips receivable;
</P>
<P>(xiv) Equity investments;
</P>
<P>(xv) The prorated assets of subsidiaries (except for the assets of consolidated CUSOs) to the extent such assets are included in adjusted total assets;
</P>
<P>(xvi) All repossessed assets or assets that are more than 90 days past due; and
</P>
<P>(xvii) Intangible assets not specifically weighted in some other category.
</P>
<P>(5) Indirect ownership interests in pools of assets. Assets representing an indirect holding of a pool of assets, <I>e.g.,</I> mutual funds, are assigned to risk-weight categories under this section based upon the risk-weight that would be assigned to the assets in the portfolio of the pool. An investment in shares of a mutual fund whose portfolio consists primarily of various securities or money market instruments that, if held separately, would be assigned to different risk-weight categories, generally is assigned to the risk-weight category appropriate to the highest risk-weighted asset that the fund is permitted to hold in accordance with the investment objectives set forth in its prospectus. The corporate credit union may, at its option, assign the investment on a <I>pro rata</I> basis to different risk-weight categories according to the investment limits in its prospectus. In no case will an investment in shares in any such fund be assigned to a total risk-weight less than 20 percent. If the corporate credit union chooses to assign investments on a <I>pro rata</I> basis, and the sum of the investment limits of assets in the fund's prospectus exceeds 100 percent, the corporate credit union must assign the highest <I>pro rata</I> amounts of its total investment to the higher risk categories. If, in order to maintain a necessary degree of short-term liquidity, a fund is permitted to hold an insignificant amount of its assets in short-term, highly liquid securities of superior credit quality that do not qualify for a preferential risk-weight, such securities will generally be disregarded in determining the risk-weight category into which the corporate credit union's holding in the overall fund should be assigned. The prudent use of hedging instruments by a mutual fund to reduce the risk of its assets will not increase the risk-weighting of the mutual fund investment. For example, the use of hedging instruments by a mutual fund to reduce the interest rate risk of its government bond portfolio will not increase the risk-weight of that fund above the 20 percent category. Nonetheless, if the fund engages in any activities that appear speculative in nature or has any other characteristics that are inconsistent with the preferential risk-weighting assigned to the fund's assets, holdings in the fund will be assigned to the 100 percent risk-weight category.
</P>
<P>(6) Derivatives. Certain transactions or activities, such as derivatives transactions, may appear on a corporate credit union's balance sheet but are not specifically described in the Section II(a) on-balance sheet risk-weight categories. These items will be assigned risk-weights as described in Section II(b) or II(c) below.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Off-Balance Sheet Items
</HD2>
<P>Except as provided in Section II(c) of this Appendix, risk-weighted off-balance sheet items are determined by the following two-step process. First, the face amount of the off-balance sheet item must be multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor listed in this Section II(b). This calculation translates the face amount of an off-balance sheet exposure into an on-balance sheet credit-equivalent amount. Second, the credit-equivalent amount must be assigned to the appropriate risk-weight category using the criteria regarding obligors, guarantors, and collateral listed in Section II(a) of this Appendix.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> The following are the credit conversion factors and the off-balance sheet items to which they apply. 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The sufficiency of collateral and guarantees for off-balance sheet items is determined by the market value of the collateral or the amount of the guarantee in relation to the face amount of the item, except for derivative contracts, for which this determination is generally made in relation to the credit equivalent amount. Collateral and guarantees are subject to the same provisions noted under paragraph II(d) of this Appendix C.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) 100 percent credit conversion factor (Group A).
</P>
<P>(i) Risk participations purchased in bankers' acceptances;
</P>
<P>(ii) Forward agreements and other contingent obligations with a certain draw down, <I>e.g.,</I> legally binding agreements to purchase assets at a specified future date. On the date a corporate credit union enters into a forward agreement or similar obligation, it should convert the principal amount of the assets to be purchased at 100 percent as of that date and then assign this amount to the risk-weight category appropriate to the obligor or guarantor of the item, or the nature of the collateral;
</P>
<P>(iii) Indemnification of members whose securities the corporate credit union has lent as agent. If the member is not indemnified against loss by the corporate credit union, the transaction is excluded from the risk-based capital calculation. When a corporate credit union lends its own securities, the transaction is treated as a loan. When a corporate credit union lends its own securities or is acting as agent, agrees to indemnify a member, the transaction is assigned to the risk-weight appropriate to the obligor or collateral that is delivered to the lending or indemnifying institution or to an independent custodian acting on their behalf; and
</P>
<P>(2) 50 percent credit conversion factor (Group B).
</P>
<P>(i) Transaction-related contingencies, including, among other things, performance bonds and performance-based standby letters of credit related to a particular transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unused portions of commitments (including home equity lines of credit and eligible ABCP liquidity facilities) with an original maturity exceeding one year except those listed in paragraph II (b)(5) of this Appendix. For eligible ABCP liquidity facilities, the resulting credit equivalent amount is assigned to the risk category appropriate to the assets to be funded by the liquidity facility based on the assets of the obligor, after considering any collateral of guarantees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Revolving underwriting facilities, note issuance facilities, and similar arrangements pursuant to which the corporate credit union's CUSO or member can issue short-term debt obligations in its own name, but for which the corporate credit union has a legally binding commitment to either:
</P>
<P>(A) Purchase the obligations the member is unable to sell by a stated date; or
</P>
<P>(B) Advance funds to its member, if the obligations cannot be sold.
</P>
<P>(3) 20 percent credit conversion factor (Group C). Trade-related contingencies, <I>i.e.,</I> short-term, self-liquidating instruments used to finance the movement of goods and collateralized by the underlying shipment. A commercial letter of credit is an example of such an instrument.
</P>
<P>(4) Zero percent credit conversion factor (Group E). (i) Unused portions of commitments with an original maturity of one year or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unused commitments with an original maturity greater than one year, if they are unconditionally cancelable at any time at the option of the corporate credit union and the corporate credit union has the contractual right to make, and in fact does make, either:
</P>
<P>(A) A separate credit decision based upon the borrower's current financial condition before each drawing under the lending facility; or
</P>
<P>(B) An annual (or more frequent) credit review based upon the borrower's current financial condition to determine whether or not the lending facility should be continued; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The unused portion of retail credit card lines or other related plans that are unconditionally cancelable by the corporate credit union in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(5) Off-balance sheet derivative contracts; interest rate and foreign exchange rate contracts (Group F).
</P>
<P>(i) Calculation of credit equivalent amounts. The credit equivalent amount of an off-balance sheet derivative contract that is not subject to a qualifying bilateral netting contract in accordance with paragraph II(b)(6)(ii) of this Appendix is equal to the sum of the current credit exposure, <I>i.e.,</I> the replacement cost of the contract, and the potential future credit exposure of the contract. The calculation of credit equivalent amounts is measured in U.S. dollars, regardless of the currency or currencies specified in the contract.
</P>
<P>(A) Current credit exposure. The current credit exposure of an off-balance sheet derivative contract is determined by the mark-to-market value of the contract. If the mark-to-market value is positive, then the current credit exposure equals that mark-to-market value. If the mark-to-market value is zero or negative, then the current exposure is zero. In determining its current credit exposure for multiple off-balance sheet derivative contracts executed with a single counterparty, a corporate credit union may net positive and negative mark-to-market values of off-balance sheet derivative contracts if subject to a bilateral netting contract as provided in paragraph II(b)(6)(ii) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(B) Potential future credit exposure. The potential future credit exposure of an off-balance sheet derivative contract, including a contract with a negative mark-to-market value, is estimated by multiplying the notional principal by a credit conversion factor.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Corporate credit unions, subject to examiner review, should use the effective rather than the apparent or stated notional amount in this calculation. The conversion factors are: 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> For purposes of calculating potential future credit exposure for foreign exchange contracts and other similar contracts, in which notional principal is equivalent to cash flows, total notional principal is defined as the net receipts to each party falling due on each value date in each currency.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> No potential future credit exposure is calculated for single currency interest rate swaps in which payments are made based upon two floating rate indices, so-called floating/floating or basis swaps; the credit equivalent amount is measured solely on the basis of the current credit exposure.</P></FTNT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
<br/>contracts (percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Foreign
<br/>exchange rate
<br/>contracts
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Other derivative contracts
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">One year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over one year but less than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Off-balance sheet derivative contracts subject to bilateral netting contracts. In determining its current credit exposure for multiple off-balance sheet derivative contracts executed with a single counterparty, a corporate credit union may net off-balance sheet derivative contracts subject to a bilateral netting contract by offsetting positive and negative mark-to-market values, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The bilateral netting contract is in writing;
</P>
<P>(B) The bilateral netting contract creates a single legal obligation for all individual off-balance sheet derivative contracts covered by the bilateral netting contract. In effect, the bilateral netting contract provides that the corporate credit union has a single claim or obligation either to receive or pay only the net amount of the sum of the positive and negative mark-to-market values on the individual off-balance sheet derivative contracts covered by the bilateral netting contract. The single legal obligation for the net amount is operative in the event that a counterparty, or a counterparty to whom the bilateral netting contract has been validly assigned, fails to perform due to any of the following events: Default, insolvency, bankruptcy, or other similar circumstances;
</P>
<P>(C) The corporate credit union obtains a written and reasoned legal opinion(s) representing, with a high degree of certainty, that in the event of a legal challenge, including one resulting from default, insolvency, bankruptcy or similar circumstances, the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the corporate credit union's exposure to be the net amount under:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The law of the jurisdiction in which the counterparty is chartered or the equivalent location in the case of noncorporate entities, and if a branch of the counterparty is involved, then also under the law of the jurisdiction in which the branch is located;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The law that governs the individual off-balance sheet derivative contracts covered by the bilateral netting contract; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The law that governs the bilateral netting contract;
</P>
<P>(D) The corporate credit union establishes and maintains procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the bilateral netting contract continues to satisfy the requirements of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) The corporate credit union maintains in its files documentation adequate to support the netting of an off-balance sheet derivative contract.
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> By netting individual off-balance sheet derivative contracts for the purpose of calculating its credit equivalent amount, a corporate credit union represents that documentation adequate to support the netting of an off-balance sheet derivative contract is in the corporate credit union's files and available for inspection by the NCUA. Upon determination by the NCUA that a corporate credit union's files are inadequate or that a bilateral netting contract may not be legally enforceable under any one of the bodies of law described in paragraphs II(b)(5)(ii) of this Appendix, the underlying individual off-balance sheet derivative contracts may not be netted for the purposes of this section.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Walkaway clause. A bilateral netting contract that contains a walkaway clause is not eligible for netting for purposes of calculating the current credit exposure amount. The term “walkaway clause” means a provision in a bilateral netting contract that permits a nondefaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it would make otherwise under the bilateral netting contract, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the bilateral netting contract.
</P>
<P>(iv) Risk-weighting. Once the corporate credit union determines the credit equivalent amount for an off-balance sheet derivative contract, that amount is assigned to the risk-weight category appropriate to the counterparty, or, if relevant, to the nature of any collateral or guarantee. Collateral held against a netting contract is not recognized for capital purposes unless it is legally available for all contracts included in the netting contract. However, the maximum risk-weight for the credit equivalent amount of such off-balance sheet derivative contracts is 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(v) Exceptions. The following off-balance sheet derivative contracts are not subject to the above calculation, and therefore, are not part of the denominator of a corporate credit union's risk-based capital ratio:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign exchange rate contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any interest rate or foreign exchange rate contract that is traded on an exchange requiring the daily payment of any variations in the market value of the contract.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Recourse Obligations, Direct Credit Substitutes, and Certain Other Positions
</HD2>
<P>(1) In general. Except as otherwise permitted in this Section II(c), to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a recourse obligation or a direct credit substitute (but not a residual interest):
</P>
<P>(i) Multiply the full amount of the credit-enhanced assets for which the corporate credit union directly or indirectly retains or assumes credit risk by a 100 percent conversion factor (For a direct credit substitute that is an on-balance sheet asset (<I>e.g.,</I> a purchased subordinated security), a corporate credit union must use the amount of the direct credit substitute and the full amount of the asset it supports, <I>i.e.,</I> all the more senior positions in the structure); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assign this credit equivalent amount to the risk-weight category appropriate to the obligor in the underlying transaction, after considering any associated guarantees or collateral. Section II(a) lists the risk-weight categories.
</P>
<P>(2) Residual interests. Except as otherwise permitted under this Section II(c), a corporate credit union must maintain risk-based capital for residual interests as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Other residual interests. A corporate credit union must maintain risk-based capital for a residual interest equal to the face amount of the residual interest, even if the amount of risk-based capital that must be maintained exceeds the full risk-based capital requirement for the assets transferred.
</P>
<P>(ii) Residual interests and other recourse obligations. Where a corporate credit union holds a residual interest and another recourse obligation in connection with the same transfer of assets, the corporate credit union must maintain risk-based capital equal to the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The risk-based capital requirement for the residual interest as calculated under Section II(c)(2)(i) through (ii) of this Appendix; or
</P>
<P>(B) The full risk-based capital requirement for the assets transferred, subject to the low-level recourse rules under Section II(c)(5) of this Appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) Internal ratings-based approach—
</P>
<P>(i) Calculation. Corporate credit unions with advanced risk management and reporting systems may seek NCUA approval to use credit risk models to calculate risk-weighted asset amounts for positions described in paragraphs II (c)(1) and (2) of this section of the Appendix C. In determining whether to grant approval, NCUA will consider the financial condition and risk management sophistication of the corporate credit union and the adequacy of the corporate credit union's risk models and supporting management information systems.
</P>
<P>(ii) Consistent use of internal ratings-based approach. A corporate credit union that has been granted NCUA approval to use an internal ratings-based approach and that has determined to use such an approach must do so in a consistent manner for all securities so rated.
</P>
<P>(4) Limitations on risk-based capital requirements—
</P>
<P>(i) Low-level exposure rule. If the maximum contractual exposure to loss retained or assumed by a corporate credit union is less than the effective risk-based capital requirement, as determined in accordance with this Section II(c), for the assets supported by the corporate credit union's position, the risk-based capital requirement is limited to the corporate credit union's contractual exposure less any recourse liability account established in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles. This limitation does not apply when a corporate credit union provides credit enhancement beyond any contractual obligation to support assets it has sold.
</P>
<P>(ii) Mortgage-related securities or participation certificates retained in a mortgage loan swap. If a corporate credit union holds a mortgage-related security or a participation certificate as a result of a mortgage loan swap with recourse, it must hold risk-based capital to support the recourse obligation and that percentage of the mortgage-related security or participation certificate that is not covered by the recourse obligation. The total amount of risk-based capital required for the security (or certificate) and the recourse obligation is limited to the risk-based capital requirement for the underlying loans, calculated as if the corporate credit union continued to hold these loans as an on-balance sheet asset.
</P>
<P>(iii) Related on-balance sheet assets. If an asset is included in the calculation of the risk-based capital requirement under this Section II(c) and also appears as an asset on the corporate credit union's balance sheet, the corporate credit union must risk-weight the asset only under this Section II(c), except in the case of loan servicing assets and similar arrangements with embedded recourse obligations or direct credit substitutes. In that case, the corporate credit union must separately risk-weight the on-balance sheet servicing asset and the related recourse obligations and direct credit substitutes under this section, and incorporate these amounts into the risk-based capital calculation.
</P>
<P>(5) Obligations of CUSOs. All recourse obligations and direct credit substitutes retained or assumed by a corporate credit union on the obligations of CUSOs in which the corporate credit union has an equity investment are risk-weighted in accordance with this Section II(c), unless the corporate credit union's equity investment is deducted from the credit union's capital and assets under § 704.2 and § 704.3.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Collateral.</I> The only forms of collateral that are recognized for risk-weighting purposes are cash on deposit in the corporate credit union; Treasuries, U.S. Government agency securities, and U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise securities; and securities issued by multilateral lending institutions or regional development banks. Claims secured by cash on deposit are assigned to the zero percent risk-weight category (to the extent of the cash amount). Claims secured by securities are assigned to the twenty percent risk-weight category (to the extent of the fair market value of the securities).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 64852, Oct. 20, 2010, as amended at 77 FR 74111, Dec. 13, 2012; 80 FR 25939, May 6, 2015; 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="705" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 705—COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT REVOLVING LOAN FUND ACCESS FOR CREDIT UNIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1756, 1757(5)(D), and (7)(I), 1766, 1782, 1784, 1785 and 1786. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 705 appear at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 705.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part 705 is issued by the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) under section 130 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1772c-1, which implements the Community Development Credit Union Revolving Loan Fund Transfer Act (Pub. L. 99-609, 100 Stat. 3475 (Nov. 6, 1986)).
</P>
<P>(b) This part describes how NCUA makes money available to credit unions from its Community Development Revolving Loan Fund (Fund). NCUA administers the Fund and makes both loans and technical assistance grants to credit unions in accordance with the eligibility criteria and other qualifications, subject to the terms and conditions set out in this part. All loans and technical assistance grants made under this part are subject to funds availability and NCUA's discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) NCUA's policy is to revolve the loan funds to credit unions as often as practical in order to achieve maximum economic impact on as many credit unions as possible.
</P>
<P>(d) The financial awards provided to credit unions through the Fund will better enable them to support the communities in which they operate; provide basic financial services to low-income residents of these communities, and result in more opportunities for the residents of those communities to improve their financial circumstances.
</P>
<P>(e) The Fund is intended to support the efforts of credit unions through loans and technical assistance grants needed for:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing basic financial and related services to residents in their communities;
</P>
<P>(2) Enhancing their capacity to better serve their members and the communities in which they operate; and
</P>
<P>(3) Responding to emergencies.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms shall have the meanings assigned to them in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means a form supplied by the NCUA by which a Qualifying Credit Union may apply for a loan or a technical assistance grant from the Fund.
</P>
<P><I>Loan</I> is an award in the form of an extension of credit from the Fund to a Participating Credit Union that must be repaid, with interest.
</P>
<P><I>Low-income Members</I> are those members defined in § 701.34 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of Funding Opportunity</I> means the Notice NCUA publishes describing one or more loan or technical assistance grant programs or initiatives currently being supported by the Fund and inviting Qualifying Credit Unions to submit applications to participate in the program(s) or initiatives(s).
</P>
<P><I>Participating Credit Union</I> refers to a Qualifying Credit Union that has submitted an application for a loan or a technical assistance grant from the Fund which has been approved by NCUA. A Participating Credit Union shall not be deemed to be an agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States because of its receipt of a financial award from the Fund.
</P>
<P><I>Program</I> means the Community Development Revolving Loan Fund Program under which NCUA makes loans and technical assistance grants available to credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying Credit Union</I> means a credit union that may be, or has agreed to be, examined by NCUA, with a current low-income designation pursuant to § 701.34(a)(1) or § 741.204 of this chapter or, in the case of a non-federally insured credit union, a low-income designation from a state regulator, made under appropriate state standards with the concurrence of NCUA. Services to low-income members must include, at a minimum, offering share accounts and loans.
</P>
<P><I>Technical Assistance Grant</I> means an award of money from the Fund to a Participating Credit Union that does not have to be repaid.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.3   Eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>To be eligible to receive a CDRLF award, in the form of either a loan or a technical assistance grant, a Qualifying Credit Union must, within the timeframes specified in any Notice of Funding Opportunity:
</P>
<P>(a) Complete and submit an Application; and
</P>
<P>(b) Meet the underwriting standards established by NCUA, including those pertaining to financial viability, as set forth in the Application and any related materials developed by NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.4   Permissible uses of loan funds.</HEAD>
<P>NCUA may make loans from the Fund to Participating Credit Unions for various uses. The following is a non-exhaustive list of permissible uses or projects:
</P>
<P>(a) Development of new products or services for members, including new or expanded share draft or credit card programs;
</P>
<P>(b) Partnership arrangements with community-based service organizations or government agencies;
</P>
<P>(c) Loan programs, including, but not limited to, microbusiness loans, payday loan alternatives, education loans, and real estate loans;
</P>
<P>(d) Acquisition, expansion, or improvement of office space or equipment, including branch facilities, ATMs, and electronic banking facilities; and
</P>
<P>(e) Operational programs such as security or disaster recovery.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.5   Terms and conditions for loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA may make loans, in such amounts and subject to such terms and conditions as it may determine, from the Fund to Participating Credit Unions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding Limits.</I> NCUA will publish any applicable loan funding limits in the applicable Notice of Funding Opportunity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Recording of a loan.</I> At the discretion of NCUA, a loan will be recorded by a Participating Credit Union as either a note payable or a nonmember deposit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interest rate.</I> The rate of interest on loans is governed by the CDRLF Loan Interest Rate Policy, which can be found on NCUA's Web site or by contacting NCUA's Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion. The specific interest rate for a particular funding will be announced in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. The Board will announce changes, if any, to the CDRLF Loan Interest Rate Policy and those changes will apply to loans made under future Notices of Funding Opportunities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repayment and maturity.</I> (1) Awards made available through loans, whether recorded as a note payable or nonmember deposit, must be repaid to NCUA. All loans will be scheduled for repayment consistent with sound business practices and the objectives of the Program, but in no case will the term exceed five years.
</P>
<P>(2) Interest payments will be required semiannually beginning six months after the initial distribution of a loan.
</P>
<P>(3) NCUA may allow flexible repayment of loan principal. Details and specific provisions will be addressed in the Notice of Funding Opportunity and other program materials.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Acceleration.</I> The terms of each loan agreement will provide for the immediate acceleration of the unpaid balance for breach or default in performance by the Participating Credit Union of the terms or conditions of the loan. Default and breach include misrepresentation; failure to make interest or principal payments when due; failure to file required reports; insolvency of the Participating Credit Union; and, if required by NCUA, failure to maintain adequate matching funds for the duration of the loan. Other specific causes of default and breach will be identified in the loan documents between the Participating Credit Union and NCUA. The unpaid balance will also be accelerated and immediately due if any part of the loan funds are improperly used or if uninvested loan proceeds remain unused for an unreasonable or unjustified period of time.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Matching requirements.</I> At its discretion, NCUA may require a Participating Credit Union to develop and implement a plan to match all or a portion of the funds represented by loan proceeds. Such requirement will be based on the financial condition of the Participating Credit Union, which will be evaluated under criteria contained in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. Matching funds must be from non-governmental member or nonmember share deposits. Participating Credit Unions required to provide matching funds are subject to the following general provisions and any other conditions in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity and agreements between the Participating Credit Union and NCUA:
</P>
<P>(1) Loan monies made available generally must be matched by the Participating Credit Union in an amount equal to the loan amount. Any loan monies matched by nonmember share deposits are not subject to the 20% limitation on nonmember deposits under § 701.32 of this chapter. Participating Credit Unions must maintain the increase in the total amount of share deposits for the duration of the loan. Once the loan is repaid, nonmember share deposits accepted to meet the matching requirement are subject to § 701.32 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon approval of its loan application, and before it meets its matching, if required, a Participating Credit Union may receive the entire loan commitment in a single payment. If, at NCUA's discretion, any funds are withheld, the remainder of the funds committed will be available to the Participating Credit Union only after it has documented that it has met the match requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure of a Participating Credit Union to generate the required match within the time specified in the loan documents may result in the reduction of the loan proportionate to the amount of match actually generated. Payment of any additional funds initially approved may be limited as appropriate to reflect the revised amount of the loan approved. Any funds already advanced to the Participating Credit Union in excess of the revised amount of loan approval must be repaid immediately to NCUA. Failure to repay such funds to NCUA upon demand may result in the default of the entire loan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other terms and conditions.</I> Other terms and conditions pertaining to loans, including but not necessarily limited to duration, repayment obligations, security agreements (if any), and covenants, will be specified in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity or applicable loan documents to be signed by the Participating Credit Union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016; 82 FR 60292, Dec. 20, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.6   Terms and conditions for technical assistance grants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Participating Credit Unions must comply with the terms and conditions for technical assistance grants specified for each funding opportunity offered under a Notice of Funding Opportunity.
</P>
<P>(b) NCUA will establish applicable funding limits for technical assistance grants in the Notice of Funding Opportunity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.7   Application and award processes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of Funding Opportunity.</I> NCUA will publish a Notice of Funding Opportunity in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and on its Web site. The Notice of Funding Opportunity will describe the loan and technical assistance grant programs for the period in which funds are available. It also will announce special initiatives, the amount of funds available, funding priorities, permissible uses of funds, funding limits, deadlines, and other pertinent details. The Notice of Funding Opportunity will also advise potential applicants on how to obtain an Application and related materials. NCUA may supplement the information contained in the Notice of Funding Opportunity through such other media as it determines appropriate, including Letters to Credit Unions, press releases, direct notices to Qualifying Credit Unions, and announcements on its Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application requirements.</I> A Qualifying Credit Union must demonstrate a sound financial position and ability to manage its day-to-day business affairs. It also must show that its planned use of proceeds is consistent with the purpose of the Program, the requirements of this part, and the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. The related Notice of Funding Opportunity may include additional details and requirements.
</P>
<P>(1) Applications to participate and qualify for a loan or technical assistance grant under the Program may be obtained from the National Credit Union Administration as outlined in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to loans, NCUA will also require a Qualifying Credit Union to develop and submit a narrative describing how the Qualifying Credit Union intends to use the money obtained from the Fund to enhance the products or services it provides to its membership and how those enhanced products or services support the membership and community served by the Qualifying Credit Union.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to those items required in this section, a Qualifying Credit Union that is a non-federally insured credit union must also include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of its most recent external audit report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Proof of deposit and surety bond insurance which states the maximum insurance levels permitted by the policies;
</P>
<P>(iii) A balance sheet, an income and expense statement, and a schedule of delinquent loans, for each of the four most recent quarter-ends;
</P>
<P>(iv) Documentation of the credit union's status as a low-income credit union by the appropriate state supervisory agency consistent with NCUA Rules and Regulations at §§ 701.34(a) and 741.204(b); and
</P>
<P>(v) An agreement to be subject to examination by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evaluation and selection of Qualifying Credit Unions.</I> NCUA will generally evaluate applications submitted by Qualifying Credit Unions in accordance with the criteria described in this section. Nothing in this section, however, precludes NCUA from considering other criteria included in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity that NCUA determines to be necessary based on the type of funding initiative, economic environment, or other factors or conditions that warrant the evaluation of additional or alternative criteria. Generally, NCUA will evaluate complete applications to determine if the Qualifying Credit Union satisfies the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financial and Performance.</I> The Qualifying Credit Union must exhibit a safe and sound financial condition, including a demonstrated ability to perform the requirements associated with the type of award being sought and compliance with NCUA's underwriting standards. In this respect, NCUA will consider the Qualifying Credit Union's long-term financial viability, including absence of indicators suggesting the Qualifying Credit Union is a candidate for merger, a purchase and assumption transaction, or conservatorship. NCUA will also consider the Qualifying Credit Union's compliance with the provisions of any previous loan or technical assistance grant received. NCUA may also consider information concerning the Qualifying Credit Union to which it already has access, including information obtained through the examination process and data contained in Call Reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compatibility.</I> NCUA will evaluate whether the stated objectives to be accomplished through the use of the loan or technical assistance grant proceeds conform to the broad purposes and rationale underlying the Fund. Specifically, NCUA will consider whether the award will enable the Qualifying Credit Union to provide basic financial products and related services to its members or enhance its capacity to better serve its members and the community in which it operates. NCUA will also consider whether the use of the financial award will conform to any applicable funding priority, special initiative, or special instruction announced in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Feasibility.</I> NCUA will consider the likelihood of the Qualifying Credit Union's success in accomplishing its stated objectives, based on its Application and the factors NCUA determines are relevant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examination Information and Applicable Concurrence.</I> In evaluating a Qualifying Credit Union, NCUA will consider all information provided by NCUA staff or state supervisory authority staff that performed the Qualifying Credit Union's most recent examination. In addition:
</P>
<P>(i) NCUA will only provide a loan to a qualifying federal credit union with the concurrence of that credit union's supervising Regional Director; and
</P>
<P>(ii) NCUA will only provide a loan to a qualifying state-charted credit union with the written concurrence of the applicable Regional Director and the credit union's state supervisory authority. A qualifying state-chartered credit union should notify its state supervisory authority that it is applying for a loan from the Fund before submitting its application to NCUA. However, a qualifying state-chartered credit union is not required to obtain concurrence before applying for a loan. NCUA will obtain the concurrence directly from the state supervisory authority rather than through the qualifying state-chartered credit union. Additionally, before NCUA will provide a loan to a qualifying state-charted credit union the credit union must make copies of its state examination reports available to NCUA and agree to examination by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests for additional information.</I> NCUA will make its funding determinations among the several qualified Applications based on its discretion and consideration of which best meet the priorities and initiatives established and announced by NCUA. During its evaluation process, however, NCUA may request a Qualifying Credit Union to provide additional clarifying or technical information to support its application. NCUA may determine not to provide further consideration of any Application failing to provide additional required information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing.</I> NCUA will announce, in the related Notice of Funding Opportunity, the deadline for Qualifying Credit Unions to submit all required documentation, including the Application. Failure to submit all of the requested information or to submit the information within the timeframe specified in the Notice of Funding Opportunity, or in the case of requests for additional clarifying or technical information, within the time specified by NCUA, may result in rejection of the Application without further consideration.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of Award.</I> NCUA will determine whether an application meets NCUA's standards established by this part and the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. NCUA will provide written notice to a Qualifying Credit Union as to whether or not it has qualified for a loan or technical assistance grant under this part. A Qualifying Credit Union whose application has been denied for failure of a qualification may appeal that decision in accordance with § 705.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Disbursement</I>—(1) <I>Loans.</I> Before NCUA will disburse a loan, the Participating Credit Union must sign the loan agreement, promissory note, and any other loan related documents. NCUA may, in its discretion, choose not to disburse the entire amount of the loan at once.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Technical Assistance Grants.</I> NCUA will disburse technical assistance grants in such amounts, and in accordance with such terms and conditions, as NCUA may establish. In general, technical assistance grants are provided on a reimbursement basis, to cover expenditures approved in advance by NCUA and supported by receipts evidencing payment by the Participating Credit Union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011. Redesignated and amended at 81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016; 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.8   Urgency.</HEAD>
<P>On an emergency basis, subject to funds availability, NCUA may consider a funding request from a Qualifying Credit Union experiencing an unplanned or unexpected expense that the Qualifying Credit Union is unable to meet with its own resources. The Qualifying Credit Union must demonstrate a compelling need for immediate assistance without which its continued operations would be threatened or severely disrupted. NCUA, in its discretion, will determine whether the situation constitutes an emergency and if the Qualifying Credit Union is required to submit any additional information to show why the funds are needed on an emergency basis. NCUA will determine and substantiate any reason to expedite funding in such case. Requests for loans or technical assistance grants under this section will be addressed on an ongoing basis and are outside the scope of the related Notice of Funding Opportunity. Technical assistance grants and loans provided on this basis must still demonstrate a purpose consistent with the goals of the Fund. Loans and technical assistance grants made under this section are not anticipated to be a regular source of funding for any Qualifying Credit Unions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011. Redesignated at 81 FR 85112, Nov. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.9   Reporting and monitoring.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> NCUA's policy is to monitor Participating Credit Unions to assure that loan and technical assistance grant funds awarded under this part have been used in accordance with their intended purposes and to determine whether anticipated outcomes have been achieved. Particular emphasis will be placed on reviewing loan funds earmarked for programs or initiatives proposed by the Participating Credit Union to determine if the funds have been used as represented and whether the program or initiative has had the impact anticipated by the Participating Credit Union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting</I>—(1) <I>Reporting to NCUA.</I> A Participating Credit Union must complete and submit to NCUA all required reports, at such times and in such formats as NCUA will direct. Such reports must describe how the Participating Credit Union has used the loan or technical assistance grant proceeds and the results it has obtained, in relation to the programs, policies, or initiatives identified by the Participating Credit Union in its application. NCUA may request additional information as it determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reporting to Members</I>—(i) <I>Loans.</I> A Participating Credit Union that receives a loan under this part must report on the progress of providing needed community services to the Participating Credit Union's members once a year, either at the annual meeting or in a written report sent to all members. The Participating Credit Union must also submit to NCUA the written report or a summary of the report provided to members.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Technical Assistance Grants.</I> A Participating Credit Union that receives a technical assistance grant under this part should report on the progress of providing needed community services to the Participating Credit Union's members once a year, either at the annual meeting or in a written report sent to all members.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Monitoring.</I> At its discretion, for verification purposes and as part of its evaluation of the effectiveness of the loan and technical assistance grant programs, NCUA may elect to review information concerning Participating Credit Unions to which it already has access, including information obtained through the examination process and data contained in Call Reports.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 67587, Nov. 2, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 85113, Nov. 25, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 705.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.6.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 705.10   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeals of non-qualification.</I> A Qualifying Credit Union whose application for a loan or technical assistance grant has been denied under § 705.7(f) for failure to satisfy any of the conditions set forth in § 705.7(c), including any additional criteria set forth in the related notice of funding opportunity, may request the Director of the Office of Small Credit Union Initiatives to reconsider the denial and/or appeal that decision to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter, subject to the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scope.</I> The scope of the Board's review is limited to the threshold question of qualification and not the issue of whether, among qualified applicants, a particular loan or technical assistance grant is funded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appeals procedures inapplicable.</I> The foregoing procedure applies during an open period in which funds are available and NCUA has called for applications. NCUA will reject any application submitted during a period in which NCUA has not called for applications, except for applications submitted under § 705.8. Such rejections are not subject to appeal or review by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeals of technical assistance grant reimbursement denials.</I> Pursuant to NCUA Interpretative Ruling and Policy Statement 11-1, any Participating Credit Union may appeal a denial of a technical assistance grant reimbursement to NCUA's Supervisory Review Committee. All appeals of technical assistance grant reimbursements must be submitted to the Supervisory Review Committee within 30 days from the date of the denial. The decisions of the Supervisory Review Committee are final and may not be appealed to the NCUA Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 85113, Nov. 25, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 50293, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="706" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 706 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="707" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 707—TRUTH IN SAVINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4311. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 707.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.1   Authority, purpose, coverage and effect on State laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This regulation is issued by the National Credit Union Administration to implement the Truth in Savings Act of 1991 (TISA), contained in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991, 12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.,</I> Pub. L. 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236. Information collection requirements in this regulation have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 3133-0134. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to enable credit union members and potential members to make informed decisions about accounts at credit unions. This part requires credit unions to provide disclosures so that members and potential members can make meaningful comparisons among credit unions and depository institutions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> This part applies to all credit unions whose accounts are either insured by, or eligible to be insured by, the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund, except for any credit union that has been designated as a corporate credit union by the National Credit Union Administration and any credit union that has $2 million or less in assets, after subtracting any nonmember deposits, and is determined to be nonautomated by the National Credit Union Administration. In addition, the advertising rules in § 707.8 apply to any person who advertises an account offered by a credit union, including any person who solicits any amount from any other person for placement in a credit union. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect on state laws.</I> State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the TISA and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 68129, Dec. 27, 1996; 74 FR 36103, July 22, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> means a share or deposit account at a credit union held by or offered to a member or potential member. It includes, but is not limited to, accounts such as share, share draft, checking and term share accounts. For purposes of the advertising regulations in § 707.8, the term also includes an account at a credit union that is held by or offered by a share or deposit broker.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message, appearing in any medium, that promotes directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(1) The availability or terms of, or a deposit in, a new account; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of §§ 707.8(a) and 707.11 of this part, the terms of, or a deposit in, a new or existing account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual percentage yield</I> means a percentage rate reflecting the total amount of dividends paid on an account, based on the dividend rate and the frequency of compounding for a 365-day period and calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Average daily balance method</I> means the application of a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is determined by adding the full amount of principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bonus</I> means a premium, gift, award, or other consideration worth more than $10 (whether in the form of cash, credit, merchandise, or any equivalent) given or offered to a member during a year in exchange for opening, maintaining, or renewing an account, or increasing an account balance. The term does not include dividends, other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits, or extraordinary dividends.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit union</I> means a federal or state-chartered credit union that is either insured by, or is eligible to apply for insurance from, the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Daily balance method</I> means the application of a daily periodic rate to the full amount of principal in the account each day.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Dividend</I> and <I>dividends</I> mean any declared or prospective earnings on a member's shares in a credit union to be paid to a member or to the member's account. For purposes of this part, the term does not include the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits, or extraordinary dividends.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dividend declaration date</I> means the date that the board of directors of a credit union declares a dividend for the preceding dividend period.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dividend period</I> means the span of time established by the board of directors of a credit union by the end of which shares in a member account earn dividend credit. The dividend period may be different for each type of account.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Dividend rate</I> means the declared or prospective annual dividend rate paid on an account, which does not reflect compounding. For purposes of the account disclosures in § 707.4(b)(1)(i), the rate may, but need not, be referred to as the “annual percentage rate” in addition to being referred to as the “dividend rate.”
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Extraordinary dividends</I> means a nonrepetitive dividend paid at an irregular time from funds legally available for such distribution.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Fixed-rate account</I> means an account that is not a variable rate account as defined in paragraph (z) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Grace period</I> means a period following the maturity of an automatically renewing term share account during which the member may withdraw funds without being assessed a penalty.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Interest</I> means any payment to a member or to a member's account for the use of funds in a nondividend-bearing account at a state-chartered credit union offered pursuant to state law, calculated by application of a periodic rate to the balance. For purposes of this regulation, the term does not include the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits, or extraordinary dividends. Except as is specifically otherwise provided in this part, in the case of an interest-bearing account held in or offered by a state-chartered credit union pursuant to state law, the word “interest” shall be substituted for all references to “dividend” or “dividends” in this part.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Member</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A natural person member of the credit union who holds an account primarily for personal, family, or household purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A natural person nonmember who holds an account primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, either jointly with a natural person member or in a credit union designated as a low-income credit union, or to whom such an account is offered; and
</P>
<P>(3) A natural person nonmember who holds a deposit account in a state-chartered credit union pursuant to state law, or to whom such deposit account is offered.
</P>
<FP>The term does not include a natural person who holds an account for another in a professional capacity or an unincorporated nonbusiness association of natural person members.
</FP>
<P>(q) <I>Non-dividend membership benefits</I> means any property or service provided by a credit union to its members, the nature of which makes its valuation unreasonable and administratively impracticable.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Passbook account</I> means an account in which the member retains a book or other document in which the credit union records transactions on the account.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Periodic statement</I> means a statement setting forth information about an account (other than a term share account or passbook account) that is provided to a member on a regular basis four or more times a year.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Potential member</I> means a natural person within the credit union's field of membership (or an unincorporated nonbusiness association of such persons) or otherwise eligible to become a member as defined in paragraph (q) of this section.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Stepped-rate account</I> means an account that has two or more dividend rates that take effect in succeeding periods and are known when the account is opened.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Term share account</I> means any share certificate, interest-bearing certificate of deposit account, or other account with a maturity of at least seven days in which the member generally does not have a right to make withdrawals for six days after the account is opened, unless the account is subject to an early withdrawal penalty of at least seven days' dividends on amounts withdrawn, offered by a credit union to a member or potential member.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Tiered-rate account</I> means an account that has two or more dividend rates that are applicable to specified balance levels.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Variable-rate account</I> means a share, share draft, checking, or term share account in which the simple dividend rate may change after the account is opened, unless the credit union contracts to give at least thirty days advance written notice of rate decreases.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 13436, Mar. 22, 1994; 59 FR 59899, Nov. 21, 1994; 70 FR 72898, Dec. 8, 2005; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.3   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> Credit unions must make the disclosures required by §§ 707.4 through 707.6 of this part, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously, in writing, and in a form the member or potential member may keep. Credit unions may provide the disclosures required by this part to a member or potential member in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act), 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I> Credit unions may provide the disclosures required by §§ 707.4(a)(2) and 707.8 to a member or potential member in electronic form without regard to the consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. Disclosures for each account offered by a credit union may be presented separately or combined with disclosures for the credit union's other accounts, as long as it is clear which disclosures are applicable to the member or potential member's account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the member and the credit union. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided the disclosures are available in English upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005).</I> Disclosures required by and provided in accordance with the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1601) and its implementing Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) that are also required by this part may be substituted for the disclosures required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple members.</I> If an account is held by more than one member, disclosures may be made to any one of the members.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral responses to inquiries.</I> In an oral response to a member or potential member's inquiry about dividend rates payable on its accounts, the credit union shall state the annual percentage yield. The dividend rate may be stated in addition to the annual percentage yield. No other rate may be stated. In stating a dividend rate and annual percentage yield, a credit union shall:
</P>
<P>(1) For dividend-bearing accounts other than term share accounts, specify a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. In the event that disclosures of a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date might be inaccurate because of known or contemplated dividend rate changes, the credit union may disclose the prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield may be disclosed either in lieu of, or in addition to, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. 
</P>
<P>(2) For interest-bearing accounts and for dividend-bearing term share accounts, specify an interest (dividend) rate and annual percentage yield that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days; state that the rate and yield are accurate as of an identified date; and provide a telephone number members may call to obtain current rate information. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields</I>—(1) <I>Rounding.</I> The annual percentage yield, the annual percentage yield earned, and the dividend rate shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percentage point (.01%) and expressed to two decimal places. For account disclosures, the dividend rate may be expressed to more than two decimal places. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accuracy.</I> The annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) will be considered accurate if not more than one-twentieth of one percentage point (.05%) above or below the annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) determined in accordance with the rules in appendix A of this part. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 66 FR 33162, June 21, 2001; 74 FR 36104, July 22, 2009; 77 FR 71084, Nov. 29, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.4   Account disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delivery of account disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Account opening</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A credit union must provide account disclosures to a member or potential member before an account is opened or a service is provided, whichever is earlier. A credit union is deemed to have provided a service when a fee required to be disclosed is assessed. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, if a member or potential member is not present at the credit union when the account is opened or the service is provided and has not already received the disclosures, the credit union must mail or deliver the disclosures no later than 10 business days after the account is opened or the service is provided, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of electronic disclosures.</I> If a member or potential member who is not present at the credit union uses electronic means, for example, an internet Web site, to open an account or request a service, the disclosures required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided before the account is opened or the service is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests.</I> (i) A credit union must provide account disclosures to a member or potential member upon request. If a member or potential member who is not present at the credit union makes a request, the credit union must mail or deliver the disclosures within a reasonable time after it receives the request and may provide the disclosures in paper form or electronically if the member or potential member agrees.
</P>
<P>(ii) In providing disclosures upon request, the credit union may: 
</P>
<P>(A) Specify rates as follows: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For dividend-bearing accounts other than term share accounts, specify a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. In the event that disclosures of a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date might be inaccurate because of known or contemplated dividend rate changes, the credit union may disclose the prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield may be disclosed either in lieu of, or in addition to, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For interest bearing accounts and for dividend-bearing term share accounts, specify an interest rate and annual percentage yield that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days; state that the rate and yield are accurate as of an identified date; and provide a telephone number members may call to obtain current rate information; and 
</P>
<P>(B) State the maturity of a term share account as either a term or a date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of account disclosures.</I> Account disclosures shall include the following, as applicable: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rate information</I>—(i) <I>Annual percentage yield and dividend rate.</I> (A) For interest-bearing accounts and for dividend-bearing term share accounts, the “annual percentage yield” and the “interest rate” (“dividend rate”), using those terms, and for fixed-rate accounts the period of time the interest (dividend) rate will be in effect. 
</P>
<P>(B) For dividend-bearing accounts other than term share accounts, a credit union shall specify a dividend rate and annual percentage yield (using those terms) as of the last dividend declaration date. In the event that disclosures of a dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date might be inaccurate because of known or contemplated dividend rate changes, the credit union may disclose the prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective dividend rate and prospective annual percentage yield may be disclosed either in lieu of, or in addition to, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable rates.</I> For variable-rate accounts: 
</P>
<P>(A) The fact that the dividend rate and annual percentage yield may change; 
</P>
<P>(B) How the dividend rate is determined; 
</P>
<P>(C) The frequency with which the dividend rate may change; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Any limitation on the amount the dividend rate may change. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compounding and crediting</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The frequency with which dividends are compounded and credited, and the dividend period for dividend-bearing accounts. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effect of closing an account.</I> If members will forfeit dividends if they close an account before accrued dividends are credited, a statement that the dividends will not be paid in such cases. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Balance information</I>—(i) <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> Any minimum balance required to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Open the account; 
</P>
<P>(B) Avoid the imposition of a fee; or 
</P>
<P>(C) Obtain the annual percentage yield disclosed.
</P>
<FP>Except for the balance to open the account, the disclosure shall state how the balance is determined for these purposes. 
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Balance computation method.</I> An explanation of the balance computation method specified in § 707.7, used to calculate dividends on the account. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>When dividends begin to accrue.</I> A statement of when dividends begin to accrue on noncash deposits. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fees.</I> The amount of any fee that may be imposed in connection with the account (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined) and the conditions under which the fee may be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transaction limitations.</I> Any limitations on the number or dollar amount of withdrawals or deposits. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Features of term share accounts.</I> For term share accounts: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time requirements.</I> The maturity date. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Early withdrawal penalties.</I> A statement that a penalty will be imposed for early withdrawal, how it is calculated, and the conditions for its assessment. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Withdrawal of dividends prior to maturity.</I> If compounding occurs and dividends may be withdrawn prior to maturity, a statement that the annual percentage yield assumes dividends remain in the account until maturity and that a withdrawal will reduce earnings. For accounts with a stated maturity greater than 1 year that do not compound dividends on an annual or more frequent basis, that require dividend payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that dividends cannot remain on account and that payout of dividends is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Renewal policies.</I> A statement of whether or not the account will renew automatically at maturity. If it will, a statement of whether or not a grace period will be provided and, if so, the length of that period must be stated. If the account will not renew automatically, a statement of whether dividends will be paid after maturity if the member does not renew the account must be stated. 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bonuses.</I> The amount or type of any bonus, when the bonus will be provided, and any minimum balance and time requirements to obtain the bonus. 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Nature of dividends.</I> For accounts earning dividends, other than term share accounts, a statement that dividends are paid from current income and available earnings, after required transfers to reserves at the end of a dividend period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to existing account holders</I>—(1) <I>Notice of availability of disclosures.</I> Credit unions shall provide a notice to members who receive periodic statements and who hold existing accounts of the type offered by the credit union on January 1, 1995. The notice shall be included on or with the first periodic statement sent after January 1, 1995 (or on or with the first periodic statement for a statement cycle beginning on or after that date). The notice shall state that the members may request account disclosures containing terms, fees, and rate information for the account. In responding to such a request, credit unions shall provide disclosures in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative to notice.</I> As an alternative to the notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, credit unions may provide account disclosures to members. The disclosures may be provided either with a periodic statement or separately, but must be sent no later than when the periodic statement described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is sent.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 63 FR 71574, Dec. 29, 1998; 66 FR 33163, June 21, 2001; 74 FR 36104, July 22, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.5   Subsequent disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Change in terms</I>—(1) <I>Advance notice required.</I> A credit union shall give advance notice to affected members of any change in a term required to be disclosed under § 707.4(b), if the change may reduce the annual percentage yield or adversely affect the member. The notice shall include the effective date of the change. The notice shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No notice required.</I> No notice under this section is required for:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Variable-rate changes.</I> Changes in the dividend rate and corresponding changes in the annual percentage yield in variable-rate accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Share draft and check printing fees.</I> Changes in fees for check printing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Short-term term share accounts.</I> Changes in any term for term share accounts with maturities of one month or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice before maturity for term share accounts longer than one month that renew automatically.</I> For term share accounts with a maturity longer than one month that renew automatically at maturity, credit unions shall provide the disclosures described below before maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before maturity of the existing account. Alternatively, the disclosures may be mailed or delivered at least 20 calendar days before the end of the grace period on the existing account, provided a grace period of at least five calendar days is allowed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Maturities of longer than one year.</I> If the maturity is longer than one year, the credit union shall provide account disclosures set forth in § 707.4(b) for the new account, along with the date the existing account matures. If the dividend rate and annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account are unknown when disclosures are provided, the credit union shall state that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number members may call to obtain the dividend rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maturities of one year or less but longer than one month.</I> If the maturity is one year or less but longer than one month, the credit union shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide disclosures as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclose to the member:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the existing account matures and the new maturity date if the account is renewed;
</P>
<P>(B) The dividend rate and the annual percentage yield for the new account if they are known (or that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number the member may call to obtain the dividend rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any difference in the terms of the new account as compared to the terms required to be disclosed under § 707.4(b) for the existing account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice before maturity for term share accounts longer than one year that do not renew automatically.</I> For term share accounts with a maturity longer than one year that do not renew automatically at maturity, credit unions shall disclose to members the maturity date and whether dividends will be paid after maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 10 calendar days before maturity of the existing account.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 63 FR 71574, Dec. 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.6   Periodic statement disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rule when statement and crediting periods vary.</I> In making the disclosures described in paragraph (b) of this section, credit unions that calculate and credit dividends for a period other than the statement period, such as the dividend period, may calculate and disclose the annual percentage yield earned and amount of dividends earned based on that period rather than the statement period. The information in paragraph (b)(4) shall be stated for that period as well as for the statement period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement disclosures.</I> If a credit union mails or delivers a periodic statement, the statement shall include the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual percentage yield earned.</I> The “annual percentage yield earned,” using that term as calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of dividends.</I> The dollar amount of dividends earned (accrued or paid and credited) on the account. The dollar amount of any extraordinary dividends earned during the statement period shall be shown as a separate figure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees imposed.</I> Fees required to be disclosed under § 707.4(b)(4) of this part that were debited from the account during the statement period. The fees must be itemized by type and dollar amounts. Except as provided in § 707.11(a)(1) of this part, when fees of the same type are imposed more than once in a statement period, a credit union may itemize each fee separately or group the fees together and disclose a total dollar amount for all fees of that type.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Length of period.</I> The total number of days in the statement period, or the beginning and ending dates of the period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Aggregate fee disclosure.</I> If applicable, the total overdraft and returned item fees required to be disclosed by § 707.11(a).
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 59899, Nov. 21, 1994; 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 64 FR 66356, Nov. 26, 1999; 66 FR 33163, June 21, 2001; 70 FR 72898, Dec. 8, 2005; 75 FR 47175, Aug. 5, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.7   Payment of dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible methods</I>—(1) <I>Balance on which dividends are calculated.</I> Credit unions shall calculate dividends on the full amount of principal in an account for each day by use of either the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. Credit unions shall calculate dividends by use of a daily rate of at least 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the dividend rate. In a leap year a daily rate of 
<FR>1/366</FR> of the dividend rate may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of minimum balance to earn dividends.</I> A credit union shall use the same method to determine any minimum balance required to earn dividends as it uses to determine the balance on which dividends are calculated. A credit union may use an additional method that is unequivocally beneficial to the member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compounding and crediting policies.</I> This section does not require credit unions to compound or credit dividends at any particular frequency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date dividends begin to accrue.</I> Dividends shall begin to accrue not later than the day specified in section 606 of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4005) and implementing Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229). Dividends shall accrue on funds until the day funds are withdrawn.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.8   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Misleading or inaccurate advertisements.</I> An advertisement must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Be misleading or inaccurate or misrepresent a credit union's account agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) Refer to or describe an account as “free” or “no cost” or contain a similar term if any maintenance or activity fee may be imposed on the account. The word “profit” must not be used in referring to dividends or interest paid on an account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible rates.</I> If an advertisement states a rate of return, it shall state the rate as an “annual percentage yield,” using that term. (The abbreviation “APY” may be used provided the term “annual percentage yield” is stated at least once in the advertisement.) The advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that the “dividend rate,” using that term, may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage yield to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When additional disclosures are required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if the annual percentage yield is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Variable rates.</I> For variable-rate accounts, a statement that the rate may change after the account is opened. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time annual percentage yield is offered.</I> For interest-bearing accounts and dividend-bearing term share accounts, the period of time the annual percentage yield will be offered, or a statement that the annual percentage yield is accurate as of a specified date. For dividend-bearing accounts other than term share accounts, a statement that the annual percentage yield is accurate as of the last dividend declaration date. In the event that disclosure of an annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date might be inaccurate because of known or contemplated dividend rate changes, the credit union may disclose the prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective annual percentage yield may be disclosed either in lieu of, or in addition to, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield as of the last dividend declaration date. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum balance.</I> The minimum balance required to earn the advertised annual percentage yield. For tiered-rate accounts, the minimum balance required for each tier shall be stated in close proximity and with equal prominence to the applicable annual percentage yield. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum opening deposit.</I> The minimum deposit required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to earn the advertised annual percentage yield. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of fees.</I> A statement that fees could reduce the earnings on the account.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Features of term share accounts.</I> For term share accounts: 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time requirements.</I> The term of the account. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Early withdrawal penalties.</I> A statement that a penalty will or may be imposed for early withdrawal. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Required dividend payouts.</I> For noncompounding term share accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound dividends on an annual or more frequent basis, that require dividend payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that dividends cannot remain on account and that payout of dividends is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bonuses.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if a bonus is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously: 
</P>
<P>(1) The “annual percentage yield,” using that term; 
</P>
<P>(2) The time requirements to obtain the bonus; 
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum balance required to obtain the bonus; 
</P>
<P>(4) The minimum balance required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to obtain the bonus; and 
</P>
<P>(5) When the bonus will be provided. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for certain advertisements</I>—(1) <I>Certain media.</I> If an advertisement is made through one of the following media, it need not contain the information in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6)(ii), (d)(4) and (d)(5) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Outdoor media, such as billboards; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Telephone response machines. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indoors signs.</I> (i) Signs inside the premises of a credit union (or the premises of a share or deposit broker) are not subject to paragraphs (b), (c), (d) or (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a sign exempted by paragraph (e)(2) of this section states a rate of return, it shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) State the rate as an “annual percentage yield,” using that term or the term “APY.” The sign shall not state any other rate, except that the dividend rate may be stated in conjunction with the annual percentage yield to which it relates. 
</P>
<P>(B) Contain a statement advising members to contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Newsletters.</I> (i) Newsletters sent by a credit union to existing members only are not subject to paragraphs (b), (c), (d) or (e)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(ii) If a newsletter exempted by paragraph (e)(3) of this section states a rate of return, it shall: 
</P>
<P>(A) State the rate as an “annual percentage yield,” using that term or the term “APY.” The newsletter shall not state any other rate, except that the dividend rate may be stated in conjunction with the annual percentage yield to which it relates. 
</P>
<P>(B) Contain a statement advising members to contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts.</I> Credit unions that promote the payment of overdrafts in an advertisement must include in the advertisement the disclosures required by § 707.11(b) of this part.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 13436, Mar. 22, 1994; 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 63 FR 71575, Dec. 29, 1998; 70 FR 72898, Dec. 8, 2005; 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.9   Enforcement and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> Section 270 of TISA (12 U.S.C. 4309) contains the provisions relating to administrative sanctions for failure to comply with the requirements of TISA and this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil liability.</I> Section 271 of TISA (12 U.S.C. 4310) contains the provisions relating to civil liability for failure to comply with the requirements of TISA and this part; Section 271 is repealed effective September 30, 2001.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention.</I> A credit union shall retain evidence of compliance with this regulation for a minimum of two years after the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. 
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0134)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 13436, Mar. 22, 1994; 61 FR 114, Jan. 3, 1996; 63 FR 71575, Dec. 29, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 707.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 707.11   Additional disclosure requirements for overdraft services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A credit union must separately disclose on each periodic statement, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying checks or other items when there are insufficient or unavailable funds and the account becomes overdrawn, using the term “Total Overdraft Fees;” and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for returning items unpaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Totals required.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format requirements.</I> The aggregate fee disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be disclosed in close proximity to fees identified under § 707.6(a)(3), using a format substantially similar to Sample Form B-10 in appendix B.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertising disclosures for overdraft services</I>—(1) <I>Disclosures.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2),(b)(3), and (b)(4) of this section, any advertisement promoting the payment of overdrafts must disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(i) The fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft;
</P>
<P>(ii) The categories of transactions for which a fee for paying an overdraft may be imposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time period by which the member must repay or cover any overdraft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances under which the credit union will not pay an overdraft.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Communications about the payment of overdrafts not subject to additional advertising disclosures.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) An advertisement promoting a service where the credit union's payment of overdrafts will be agreed upon in writing and subject to part 1026 of this title (Regulation Z);
</P>
<P>(ii) A communication by a credit union about the payment of overdrafts in response to a member-initiated inquiry about share accounts or overdrafts. Providing information about the payment of overdrafts in response to a balance inquiry made through an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM, or a credit union's Internet site, is not a response to a member-initiated inquiry for purposes of this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(iii) An advertisement made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio;
</P>
<P>(iv) An advertisement made on outdoor media, such as billboards;
</P>
<P>(v) An ATM receipt;
</P>
<P>(vi) An in-person discussion with a member;
</P>
<P>(vii) Disclosures required by Federal or other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(viii) Information included on a periodic statement or a notice informing a member about a specific overdrawn item or the amount the account is overdrawn;
</P>
<P>(ix) A term in a share account agreement discussing the credit union's right to pay overdrafts;
</P>
<P>(x) A notice provided to a member, such as at an ATM, that completing a requested transaction may trigger a fee for overdrawing an account, or a general notice that items overdrawing an account may trigger a fee;
</P>
<P>(xi) Informational or educational materials concerning the payment of overdrafts if the materials do not specifically describe the credit union's overdraft service; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An opt-out or opt-in notice regarding the credit union's payment of overdrafts or provision of discretionary overdraft services.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for ATM screens and telephone response machines.</I> The disclosures described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (b)(1)(iv) of this section are not required in connection with any advertisement made on an ATM screen or using a telephone response machine.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for indoor signs.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to advertisements for the payment of overdrafts on indoor signs as described by § 707.8(e)(2) of this part, provided that the sign contains a clear and conspicuous statement that fees may apply and that members should contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), an indoor sign does not include an ATM screen.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of account balances.</I> If a credit union discloses balance information to a member through an automated system, the balance may not include additional amounts that the credit union may provide to cover an item when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the member's account, whether under a service provided in its discretion, a service subject to part 1026 of this title (Regulation Z), or a service to transfer funds from another member account. The credit union may, at its option, disclose additional account balances that include such additional amounts, if the credit union prominently states that any such balance includes such additional amounts and, if applicable, that additional amounts are not available for all transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 72898, Dec. 8, 2005, as amended at 74 FR 36104, July 22, 2009; 75 FR 47175, Aug. 5, 2010; 77 FR 71084, Nov. 29, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.12.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 707—Annual Percentage Yield Calculation
</HEAD>
<P>The annual percentage yield (APY) measures the total amount of dividends a credit union pays on an account based on the dividend rate and the frequency of compounding. The annual percentage yield is expressed as an annualized rate, based on a 365-day year. (Credit unions may calculate the annual percentage yield based on a 365-day or a 366-day year in a leap year.) Part I of this appendix discusses the annual percentage yield calculations for account disclosures and advertisements, while Part II discusses annual percentage yield earned calculations for statements. The annual percentage yield reflects only dividends and does not include the value of any bonus, as that term is defined in part 707, that may be provided to the member to open, maintain, increase or renew an account. Dividends, interest or other earnings are not to be included in the annual percentage yield if such amounts are determined by circumstances that may or may not occur in the future. These formulas apply to both dividend-bearing and interest-bearing accounts held by credit unions. 
</P>
<HD1>Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes 
</HD1>
<P>In general, the annual percentage yield for account disclosures under §§ 707.4 and 707.5 and for advertising under § 707.8 is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of dividends that would be earned by the member for the term of the account and the amount of principal used to calculate those dividends. The amount of dividends that would be earned may be projected based on the most recent past declared rate or an anticipated future rate, whichever the credit union judges to most reasonably approximate the dividends to be earned. Special rules apply to accounts with tiered and stepped dividend rates, and to certain term share accounts with a stated maturity greater than 1 year.
</P>
<HD2>A. General Rules
</HD2>
<P>Except as provided in Part I. E. of this appendix, the annual percentage yield shall be calculated by the formula shown below. Credit unions may calculate the annual percentage yield using projected dividends based on either the rate at the last dividend declaration date or the rate anticipated at a future date. The credit union must disclose whichever option it uses to members. Credit unions shall calculate the annual percentage yield based on the actual number of days for the term of the account. For accounts without a stated maturity date (such as a typical share or share draft account), the calculation shall be based on an assumed term of 365 days. In determining the total dividends figure to be used in the formula, credit unions shall assume that all principal and dividends remain on deposit for the entire term, and that no other transactions (deposits or withdrawals) occur during the term. (This assumption shall not be used if a credit union requires, as a condition of the account, that members withdraw dividends during the term. In such a case, the dividends (and annual percentage yield calculation) shall reflect that requirement.) For term share accounts that are offered in multiples of months, credit unions may base the number of days on either the actual number of days during the applicable period, or the number of days that would occur for any actual sequence of that many calendar months. If credit unions choose to use this permissive rule, they must use the same number of days to calculate the dollar amount of dividends that will be earned on the account in the annual percentage yield formula (where “Dividends” are divided by “Principal”.) 
</P>
<P>The annual percentage yield is to be calculated by use of the following general formula ((“APY”) is used for convenience in the formulas):
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + Dividends/Principal) <E T="51">(365/Days in term)</E> −1].
</FP-2>
<P>“Principal” is the amount of funds assumed to have been deposited at the beginning of the account. 
</P>
<P>“Dividends” is the total dollar amount of dividends earned on the Principal for the term of the account. 
</P>
<P>“Days in term” is the actual number of days in the term of the account. 
</P>
<P>When the “days in term” is 365 (that is, where the stated maturity is 365 days or where the account does not have a stated maturity), the APY can be calculated by use of the following simple formula:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (Dividends/Principal). 
</FP-2>
<FP>Examples: 
</FP>
<P>(1) If a credit union would pay $61.68 in dividends for a 365-day year on $1,000 deposited into a share draft account, the APY is 6.17%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + 61.68/1,000) <E T="51">(365/365)</E> −1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 6.17%. 
</FP-2>
<P>Or, using the simple formula above (since the term is deemed to be 365 days):
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100(61.68/1,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 6.17%. 
</FP-2>
<P>(2) If a credit union pays $30.37 in dividends on a $1,000 six-month term share certificate account (where the six-month period used by the credit union contains 182 days), using the general formula above, the APY is 6.18%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + 30.37/1,000)<E T="51">(365/182)</E> −1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 6.18%.
</FP-2>
<P>The APY is affected by the frequency of compounding, i.e., the amount of dividends will be greater the more frequently dividends are compounded for a given nominal rate. When two credit unions are offering the same dividend rate on, for example, a share account, the APY disclosed may be different if the credit unions use a different frequency of compounding. 
</P>
<FP>Examples: 
</FP>
<P>(1) If a credit union pays $1,268.25 in dividends for a 365-day year on $10,000 deposited into a regular share account earning 12%, and the dividends are compounded monthly, the APY will be 12.68%. 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100($1,268.25/10,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 12.68% 
</FP-2>
<P>(2) However, if a credit union is compounding dividends on a quarterly basis on an account which otherwise has the same terms, the dividends will be $1,255.09 and the APY will be 12.55%. 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 ($1,255.09/10,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 12.55% 
</FP-2>
<HD2>B. Stepped-Rate Accounts (Different Rates Apply in Succeeding Periods)
</HD2>
<P>For accounts with two or more dividend rates applied in succeeding periods (where the rates are known at the time the account is opened), a credit union shall assume each dividend rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in any share agreement. 
</P>
<FP>Examples: 
</FP>
<P>(1) If a credit union offers a $1,000 6-month term share (certificate) account on which it pays a 5% dividend rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which contain 91 days), and a 5.5% dividend rate, compounded daily, for the next three months (which contain 92 days), the total dividends for six months is $26.68, and, using the general formula above, the APY is 5.39%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + 26.68/1,000)<E T="51">(365/183)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.39%. 
</FP-2>
<P>(2) If a credit union offers a $1,000 2-year share certificate on which it pays a 6% dividend rate, compounded daily, for the first year, and a 6.5% dividend rate, compounded daily, for the next year, the total dividends for two years is $133.13, and, using the general formula above, the APY is 6.45%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + 133.13/1,000)<E T="51">(365/730)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 6.45%. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>C. Variable-Rate Accounts
</HD2>
<P>For variable-rate accounts without an introductory premium or discounted rate, a credit union must base the calculation only on the initial dividend rate in effect when the account is opened (or advertised), and assume that this rate will not change during the year. 
</P>
<P>Variable-rate accounts with an introductory premium or discount rate must be treated like stepped-rate accounts. Thus, a credit union shall assume that: (1) The introductory simple dividend rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in the account contract; and (2) the variable dividend rate that would have been in effect when the account is opened or advertised (but for the introductory rate) is in effect for the remainder of the year. If the variable rate is tied to an index, the index-based rate in effect at the time of disclosure must be used for the remainder of the year. If the rate is not tied to an index, the rate in effect for existing members holding the same account (who are not receiving the introductory dividend rate) must be used for the remainder of the year. 
</P>
<P>For example, if a credit union offers an account on which it pays a 7% dividend rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which, for example, contains 91 days), while the variable dividend rate that would have been in effect when the account was opened was 5%, the total dividends for a 365-day year for a $1,000 account balance is $56.52, (based on 91 days at 7% followed by 274 days at 5%). Using the simple formula, the APY is 5.65%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (56.52/1,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.65%. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>D. Accounts With Tiered Rates (Different Rates Apply to Specified Balance Level)
</HD2>
<P>For accounts in which two or more dividend rates paid on the account are applicable to specified balance levels, the credit union must calculate the annual percentage yield in accordance with the method described below that it uses to calculate dividends. In all cases, an annual percentage yield (or a range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate) must be disclosed for each balance tier. 
</P>
<P>For purposes of the examples discussed below, assume the following: 
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Simple dividend rate (Percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Share balance required to earn rate 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to but not exceeding $2,500. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above $2,500, but not exceeding $15,000. 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above $15,000.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD2>Tiering Method A 
</HD2>
<P>Under this method, a credit union pays on the full balance in the account the stated dividend rate that corresponds to the applicable share balance tier. For example, if a member deposits $8,000, the credit union pays the 5.50% dividend rate on the entire $8,000. This is also known as a “hybrid” or “plateau” tiered rate account. 
</P>
<P>When this method is used to determine dividends, only one annual percentage yield will apply to each tier. Within each tier, the annual percentage yield will not vary with the amount of principal assumed to have been deposited. 
</P>
<P>For the dividend rates and account balances assumed above, the credit union will state three annual percentage yields—one corresponding to each balance tier. Calculation of each annual percentage yield is similar for this type of account as for accounts with a single fixed dividend rate. Thus, the calculation is based on the total amount of dividends that would be received by the member for each tier of the account for a year and the principal assumed to have been deposited to earn that amount of dividends. 
</P>
<P><I>First tier.</I> Assuming daily compounding, the credit union will pay $53.90 in dividends on a $1,000 account balance. Using the general formula for the first tier, the APY is 5.39%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 [(1 + 53.90/1,000)<E T="51">(365/365)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.39%.
</FP-2>
<P>Using the simple formula: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (53.90/1,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.39%. 
</FP-2>
<P><I>Second tier.</I> The credit union will pay $452.29 in dividends on an $8,000 deposit. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the second tier is 5.65%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100(452.29/8,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.65%. 
</FP-2>
<P><I>Third tier.</I> The credit union will pay $1,183.61 in dividends on a $20,000 account balance. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the third tier is 5.92%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100(1,183.61/20,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.92%. 
</FP-2>
<HD2>Tiering Method B
</HD2>
<P>Under this method, a credit union pays the stated dividend rate only on that portion of the balance within the specified tier. For example, if a member deposits $8,000, the credit union pays 5.25% on only $2,500 and 5.50% on $5,500 (the difference between $8,000 and the first tier cutoff of $2,500). This is also known as a “pure” tiered rate account. 
</P>
<P>The credit union that computes dividends in this manner must provide a range that shows the lowest and the highest annual percentage yields for each tier (other than for the first tier, which, like the tiers in Method A, has the same annual percentage yield throughout). The low figure for an annual percentage yield is calculated based on the total amount of dividends earned for a year assuming the <I>minimum</I> principal required to earn the dividend rate for that tier. The high figure for an annual percentage yield is based on the amount of dividends the credit union would pay on the <I>highest</I> principal that could be deposited to earn that same dividend rate. If the account does not have a limit on the amount that can be deposited, the credit union may assume any amount. 
</P>
<P>For the tiering structure assumed above, the credit union would state a total of five annual percentage yields—one figure for the first tier and two figures stated as a range for the other two tiers. 
</P>
<P><I>First tier.</I> Assuming daily compounding, the credit union could pay $53.90 in dividends on a $1,000 account balance. For this first tier, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (53.90/1,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.39%. 
</FP-2>
<P><I>Second tier.</I> For the second tier the credit union would pay between $134.75 and $841.45 in dividends, based on assumed balances of $2,500.01 and $15,000, respectively. For $2,500.01, dividends would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% dividend rate plus dividends on $.01 at 5.50%. For the low end of the second tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%. Using the simple formula:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (134.75/2,500) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.39%. 
</FP-2>
<P>For $15,000, dividends are figured on $2,500 at 5.25% dividend rate plus dividends on $12,500 at 5.50% dividend rate. For the high end of the second tier, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.61%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (841.45/15,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.61%. 
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the second tier is 5.39% to 5.61%. 
</P>
<P><I>Third tier.</I> For the third tier, the credit union would pay $841.45 and $5,871.78 in dividends on the low end of the third tier (a balance of $15,000.01). For $15,000.01, dividends would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% dividend rate, plus dividends on $12,500 at 5.50% dividend rate, plus dividends on $.01 at 5.75% dividend rate. For the low end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.61%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (841.45/15,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.61%. 
</FP-2>
<P>Assuming the credit union does not limit the account balance, it may assume any maximum amount for the purposes of computing the annual percentage yield for the high end of the third tier. For an assumed maximum balance amount of $100,000, dividends would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% dividend rate, plus dividends on $12,500 at 5.50% dividend rate, plus dividends on $85,000 at 5.75% dividend rate. For the high end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.87%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (5,871.78/100,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.87%. 
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.87%. If the assumed maximum balance amount is $1,000,000, credit unions would use $985,000 rather than $85,000 in the last calculation. In that case for the high end of the third tier, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.91%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY = 100 (59,134.22/1,000,000) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY = 5.91% 
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.91%. 
</P>
<HD2>E. Term Share Accounts with a Stated Maturity Greater than One Year that Pay Dividends At Least Annually
</HD2>
<P>1. For term share accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year, that do not compound dividends on an annual or more frequent basis, and that require the member to withdraw dividends at least annually, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the dividend rate.
</P>
<FP>Example:
</FP>
<P>If a credit union offers a $1,000 two-year term share account that does not compound and that pays out dividends semi-annually by check or transfer at a 6.00% dividend rate, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as 6.00%.
</P>
<P>2. For term share accounts covered by this paragraph that are also stepped-rate accounts, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the composite dividend rate.
</P>
<FP>Example:
</FP>
<P>(1) If a credit union offers a $1,000 three-year term share account that does not compound and that pays out dividends annually by check or transfer at a 5.00% dividend rate for the first year, 6.00% dividend rate for the second year, and 7.00% dividend rate for the third year, the credit union may compute the composite dividend rate and APY as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Multiply each dividend rate by the number of days it will be in effect;
</P>
<P>(b) Add these figures together; and
</P>
<P>(c) Divide by the total number of days in the term.
</P>
<P>(2) Applied to the example, the products of the dividend rates and days the rates are in effect are (5.00% × 365 days) 1825, (6.00% × 365 days) 2190, and (7.00% × 365) 2555, respectively. The sum of these products, 6570, is divided by 1095, the total number of days in the term. The composite dividend rate and APY are both 6.00%.
</P>
<HD1>Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Statements 
</HD1>
<P>The annual percentage yield earned for statements under § 707.6 is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of dividends actually earned (accrued or paid and credited) to the member's account during the period and the average daily balance in the account for the period over which the dividends were earned. 
</P>
<P>Pursuant to § 707.6(a), when dividends are paid less frequently than statements are sent, the APY Earned may reflect the number of days over which dividends were earned rather than the number of days in the statement period, e.g., if a credit union uses the average daily balance method and calculates dividends for a period other than the statement period, the annual percentage yield earned shall reflect the relationship between the amount of dividends earned and the average daily balance in the account for the other period, such as a crediting or dividend period. 
</P>
<P>The annual percentage yield shall be calculated by using the following formulas (“APY Earned” is used for convenience in the formulas): 
</P>
<HD2>A. General Formula 
</HD2>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 100 [(1 + Dividends earned/Balance)<E T="51">(365/Daysinperiod)</E>−1]. 
</FP-2>
<P>“Balance” is the average daily balance in the account for the period. 
</P>
<P>“Dividends earned” is the actual amount of dividends accrued or paid and credited to the account for the period. 
</P>
<P>“Days in period” is the actual number of days over which the dividends disclosed on the statement were earned. 
</P>
<FP>Examples: 
</FP>
<P>(1) If a credit union calculates dividends for the statement period (and uses either the daily balance or the average daily balance method), and the account had a balance of $1,500 for 15 days and a balance of $500 for the remaining 15 days of a 30-day statement period, the average daily balance for the period is $1,000. Assume that $5.25 in dividends was earned during the period. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 6.58%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 100 [(1 + 5.25/1,000)<E T="51">(365/30)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 6.58%. 
</FP-2>
<P>(2) Assume a credit union calculates dividends on the average daily balance for the calendar month and provides periodic statements that cover the period from the 16th of one month to the 15th of the next month. The account has a balance of $2,000 September 1 through September 15 and a balance of $1,000 for the remaining 15 days of September. The average daily balance for the month of September is $1,500, which results in $6.50 in dividends earned for the month. The annual percentage yield earned for the month of September would be shown on the periodic statement covering September 16 through October 15. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 5.40%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 100 [(1 + 6.50/1,500)<E T="51">(365/30)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 5.40%. 
</FP-2>
<P>(3) Assume a credit union calculates dividends on the average daily balance for a quarter (for example, the calendar months of September through November), and provides monthly periodic statements covering calendar months. The account has a balance of $1,000 throughout the 30 days of September, a balance of $2,000 throughout the 31 days of October, and a balance of $3,000 throughout the 30 days of November. The average daily balance for the quarter is $2,000, which results in $21 in dividends earned for the quarter. The annual percentage yield earned would be shown on the periodic statement for November. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 4.28%: 
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 100 [(1 + 21/2,000)<E T="51">(365/91)</E>−1] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned = 4.28%. 
</FP-2>
<HD1>B. Special formula for use where periodic statement is sent more often than the period for which dividends are compounded.
</HD1>
<P>Credit unions that use the daily balance method to accrue dividends and that issue periodic statements more often than the period for which dividends are compounded shall use the following special formula:
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="38" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27se93.000.gif"/></MATH>
<P>The following definition applies for use in this formula (all other terms are defined under Part II): 
</P>
<P>“Compounding” is the number of days in each compounding period. 
</P>
<P>Assume a credit union calculates dividends for the statement period using the daily balance method, pays a 5.00% dividend rate, compounded annually, and provides periodic statements for each monthly cycle. The account has a daily balance of $1000.00 for a 30-day statement period. The dividend earned of $4.11 for the period, and the annual percentage yield earned (using the special formula above) is 5.00%: 
</P>
<MATH BORDER="NODRAW" DEEP="38" HTYPE="CENTER" POSITION="NOFLOAT" ROTATION="P" SPAN="2" STRIP="YES">
<img src="/graphics/er27se93.001.gif"/></MATH>
<FP>APY Earned = 5.00%.

</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 63 FR 71575, Dec. 29, 1998]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.12.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 707—Model Clauses and Sample Forms
</HEAD>
<HD3>Table of Contents 
</HD3>
<FP-2>B-1—Model Clauses for Account Disclosures (§ 707.4(b)) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-2—Model Clauses for Changes in Terms (§ 707.5(a)) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-3—Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Term Share Accounts (§ 707.5(b-d)) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-4—Sample Form (Signature Card/ Application for Membership) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-5—Sample Form (Term Share (Certificate) Account) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-6—Sample Form (Regular Share Account Disclosures) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>B-7—Sample Form (Share Draft Account Disclosures)
</FP-2>
<HD3>B-8—Sample Form (Money Market Share Account Disclosures) 
</HD3>
<HD3>B-9—Sample Form (Term Share (Certificate) Account Disclosures) 
</HD3>
<HD3>B-10—Sample Form (Periodic Statement) 
</HD3>
<HD3>B-11—Sample Form (Rate and Fee Schedule)
</HD3>
<HD3>B-12 Aggregate Overdraft and Returned Item Fees Sample Form
</HD3>
<NOTE>
<HED>General Note:</HED>
<P>Appendix B contains model clauses and sample forms intended for optional use by credit unions to aid in compliance with the disclosure requirements of §§ 707.4 (account disclosures), 707.5 (subsequent disclosures), 707.6 (statement disclosures), and 707.8 (advertisements). Section 269(b) of TISA provides that credit unions that use these clauses and forms will be in compliance with TISA's disclosure provisions.</P></NOTE>
<P>As discussed in the supplementary information to § 707.3(a), this final rule provides for flexibility in designing the format of the disclosures. Credit unions can choose to prepare a single document or brochure that incorporates disclosures for all accounts offered, or to prepare different documents for each type of account. Credit unions may also use inserts to a document, or fill in blanks to show current rates, fees and other terms. 
</P>
<P>In the model clauses, words in parentheses indicate the type of disclosure a credit union should insert in the space provided (for example, a credit union might insert “July 23, 1995” in the blank for a “(date)” disclosure). Brackets and “/” indicate that a credit union must choose the alternative that best describes its practice (for example, “[daily balance/ average daily balance]”). It should be noted that only in sections B-6 through B-10 of this appendix have specific examples of disclosures been given, with dates and figures. Sections B-1 through B-5, and section B-11 provide only unspecific model clauses or blank forms. The Board felt, as articulated in the appendix A to Regulation DD, that a mix of blank clauses and forms and application of the model clauses to real specific situations would benefit those who must comply with TISA. 
</P>
<P>Any references to NCUA Rules and Regulations, the <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws,</I> or the <I>NCUA Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> are provided for guidance and as a point of reference for credit unions. Citations to these sources does not indicate that their application is required for those credit unions who need not follow them.
</P>
<P>Note also that certain information that appeared in previous versions of the <I>NCUA Accounting Manual for FCUs</I> that served as a model for this appendix do not appear in the current version of that publication.


</P>
<HD1>B-1 Model Clauses for Account Disclosures (§ 707.4(b)) 
</HD1>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) <I>Rate Information (Sec. 707.4(b)(1))</I> 
</HD1>
<HD1>(<E T="01">i</E>) <I>Fixed-Rate Accounts (§ 707.4(b)(1)(i)(A-B))</I> 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Interest-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The interest rate on your deposit account is ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days].
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This provision reflects an accurate statement for an interest-bearing account authorized by state law for state-chartered credit unions. While the definition of the term “interest” permits its substitution for the term “dividends,” separate disclosures should be made for interest-bearing accounts. Since account opening disclosures may be provided to potential members requesting account information before opening an account, and members opening new accounts, information is provided indicating that the rate may not be current, but that the potential member or member may call the credit union to obtain up-to-date information. When opening a new account, of course, a credit union could provide the contractual rate alone, and delete the sentences in brackets. Given the definition of fixed-rate account in § 707.2(n), credit unions offering fixed-rate accounts must contract to hold rates steady for at least a 30-day period. Thus, if the 30-day option of the last sentence is not chosen, the period chosen must be longer than 30 days.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>2. Dividend-bearing Term Share Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The dividend rate on your term share account is ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days].
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This provision reflects an accurate statement for a fixed-rate, dividend-bearing term share account. Interest-bearing term share accounts would use the disclosure in § 1, above. Since account opening disclosures may be provided to potential members requesting account information before opening an account, and members opening new accounts, information is provided indicating that the rate may not be current, but that the potential member or member may call the credit union to obtain up-to-date information. When opening a new account, of course, a credit union could provide the contractual rate alone, and delete the sentences in brackets. Given the definition of fixed-rate account in § 707.2(n), credit unions offering fixed-rate accounts must contract to hold rates steady for at least a 30-day period. Thus, if the 30-day option of the last sentence is not chosen, the period chosen must be longer than 30 days.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>3. Other Dividend-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<FP>[As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], the dividend rate was ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% on your account. /or The prospective dividend rate on your account is ______% with a prospective APY of ______% for the current dividend period.] You will be paid this rate for [(time period)/at least 30 calendar days].
</FP>
<FP>  or
</FP>
<FP>[As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], the dividend rate was ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% on your account. /or The prospective dividend rate on your account is ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% for this dividend period.] This rate will not change unless the credit union notifies you at least 30 calendar days prior to any change.
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Credit unions may disclose the dividend rate and annual percentage yield on accounts as of the last dividend declaration date. This necessitates inclusion of a disclosure of the actual calendar date of the last dividend declaration date. Additionally or alternatively (if the last dividend rate could be inaccurate), credit unions may disclose a prospective dividend rate and a prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective rates and yields must be estimated in good faith, and must be declared at the proper time if it is at all possible to do so. As for the last sentence in these disclosures, this provision reflects a credit union policy to set prospective dividend rates for the next month (or at least 30 days), quarter or other period. Many credit unions, at their mid-monthly board meeting, set prospective dividend rates for the next month beginning on the 1st day of the month and continuing to the last day of the month. These rates must be formalized or ratified at the end of a dividend period. Given the timing of the board meetings, the time to prepare and mail notices and the 30 day period, it will often take credit unions 45 to 60 days to effectively change rates. For these reasons, the Board strongly suggests that credit unions do not offer fixed-rate, dividend-bearing accounts.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">ii</E>) <I>Variable-Rate Accounts (§ 707.4(b)(1)(ii))</I> 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Interest-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The interest rate on your deposit account is ______%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] The interest rate and annual percentage yield may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/the determination of the credit union board of directors]. The interest rate for your account will [never change by more than ______% each (time period)/never be less/more than ______%/never exceed ______% above or fall more than ______% below the initial interest rate].
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This disclosure combines the requirements of § 707.4(b)(1)(i) with § 707.4(b)(1)(ii) for interest-bearing accounts. The variable nature of a deposit account usually is based on an external index or is set at the discretion of the board. If another means of rate setting is used, that, instead of the proposed language, must be disclosed. Since account opening disclosures may be provided to potential members requesting account information before opening an account, and members opening new accounts, information is provided indicating that the rate may not be current, but that the potential member or member may call the credit union to obtain up-to-date information. When opening a new account, of course, a credit union could provide the contractual rate alone, and delete the sentences in brackets. Rarely would there be limitations on rate changes, but language is provided for this situation in the last sentence. Of course, it is only to be used if it applies to an account.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>2. Dividend-bearing Term Share Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The dividend rate on your term share account is ______%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] The dividend rate and annual percentage yield may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/the determination of the credit union board of directors]. The dividend rate for your account will [never change by more than ______% each (time period)/never be less/more than ______% /never exceed ______% above or fall more than ______% below the initial dividend rate]. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This disclosure combines the requirements of § 707.4(b)(1)(i) with § 707.4(b)(1)(ii) for dividend-bearing, variable-rate term share accounts. The variable nature of a deposit account usually is based on an external index or is set at the discretion of the board. If another means of rate setting is used, that, instead of the model language, must be disclosed. Since account opening disclosures may be provided to potential members requesting account information before opening an account, and members opening new accounts, information is provided indicating that the rate may not be current, but that the potential member or member may call the credit union to obtain up-to-date information. When opening a new account, of course, a credit union could provide the contractual rate alone, and delete the sentences in brackets. Rarely would there be limitations on rate changes, but language is provided for this situation in the last sentence. Of course, it is only to be used if it applies to an account.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>3. Other Dividend-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<FP>[As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], the dividend rate was ______% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% on your account. /or The prospective dividend rate on your account is ______% with an anticipated annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% for the current dividend period.] The dividend rate and annual percentage yield may change every (dividend period) as determined by the credit union board of directors. 
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This language combines the requirements of § 707.4(b)(1)(i) with § 707.4(b)(1)(ii). Credit unions may disclose the dividend rate and annual percentage yield on accounts as of the last dividend declaration date. This necessitates inclusion of a disclosure of the actual calendar date of the last dividend declaration date or use of the phrase “last dividend declaration date”. Additionally or alternatively, credit unions may disclose a prospective dividend rate and a prospective annual percentage yield. Such prospective rates and yields must be estimated in good faith, and must be declared at the proper time if it is at all possible to do so. As for the last sentence in these disclosures, this provision reflects the variable nature of the account. Generally, there is only one variable-rate feature for share accounts: the frequency of dividend period rate changes (e.g., daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly, semi-annually, annually). Normally, there are no contractual limitations on share account earnings (unless imposed by a regulator), nor are earnings based on any internal or external index. If contractual limitations or an index are involved, however, those factors would need to be disclosed (unless a regulator orders otherwise).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">iii</E>) <I>Stepped-Rate Accounts (§ 707.4(b)(1)(i))</I> 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Interest-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The initial interest rate on your deposit account is ______%. You will be paid that rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. After that time, the interest rate for your deposit account will be ______% and you will be paid that rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. The annual percentage yield (APY) for your account is ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]. 
</P>
<HD2>2. Dividend-bearing Term Share Accounts 
</HD2>
<P>The initial dividend rate on your term share account is ______%. You will be paid that rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. After that time, the dividend rate for your term share account will be ______% and you will be paid that rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. The annual percentage yield (APY) for your account is ______%. [For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]. 
</P>
<HD2>3. Other Dividend-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<FP>[As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], the initial dividend rate on your account was ______%. /or The prospective dividend rate on your account is ______%.] You will be paid that rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. After that time, the prospective dividend rate for your share account will be ______% and you will be paid such rate [for (time period)/ until (date)]. The annual percentage yield (APY) for your account is ______%. You will be paid this rate for [(time period)/at least 30 calendar days]. 
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Stepped-rate accounts are accounts with two or more rates that take effect in succeeding periods. The applicable rates and time periods <I>are known</I> when the account is opened. By nature these are fixed-rate accounts and are usually associated with term share (certificate) accounts. Accordingly, a contract provision (for share accounts) to change rates should be included.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">iv</E>) <I>Tiered-Rate Accounts (§ 707.4(b)(1)(i))</I> 
</HD1>
<HD2>1. Interest-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<HD2>Tiering Method A 
</HD2>
<P>1* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $______ or more, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ______%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. 
</P>
<P>2* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is more than $______, but less than $______, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ______%, with an APY of ______%. 
</P>
<P>3* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $______ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ______% with an APY of ______%.
</P>
<P>[For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] 
</P>
<P>[<I>Fixed-rate</I>—You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]./ <I>Variable-rate</I>—The interest rate and APY may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/ the determination of the credit union board of directors.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method A pays the stated interest rate that corresponds to the applicable deposit tier on the full balance in the account. This example contemplates a two-tier system. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. For tiered-rate accounts, a disclosure may be added about the currency of the rate, as is provided in the first set of brackets. A disclosure regarding the fixed-rate or variable-rate nature of the account must be added, as is provided in the last set of brackets.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>Tiering Method B 
</HD2>
<P>1* An interest rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier will range from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. 
</P>
<P>2* An interest rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________, but less than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier will range from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. 
</P>
<P>3* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. 
</P>
<P>[For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] 
</P>
<P>[<I>Fixed-rate</I>—You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]./ <I>Variable-rate</I>—The interest rate and APY may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/ the determination of the credit union board of directors.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method B pays different stated interest rates corresponding to applicable deposit tiers, on the applicable balance in each tier of the account. For example, a credit union might pay 3% interest on account funds of $500 or below, and pay 4% interest on the portion of the same account that exceeds $500. The example contemplates an account with two tiers, but additional tiers are possible. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. For tiered-rate accounts, a disclosure may be added about the currency of the rate, as is provided in the first set of brackets. 
</P>
<P>Tiered-rate accounts can be either fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts. The last sentence offers an option of either fixed-rate or variable-rate disclosure. Thus, the disclosures outlined above will be made in addition to either: (i) Disclosure of the period the fixed-rates are in effect or (ii) the variable-rate disclosures. Tiered-rate accounts are also subject to the requirement for disclosure of the balance computation method, <I>see</I> paragraph (e) to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>2. Dividend-bearing Term Share Accounts 
</HD2>
<HD2>Tiering Method A 
</HD2>
<P>1* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or more, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. 
</P>
<P>2* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is more than $________, but less than $________, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ________%, with an APY of ________%. 
</P>
<P>3* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or less, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance will be ________% with an APY of ________%. 
</P>
<P>[For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] 
</P>
<P>[<I>Fixed-rate</I>—You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]./ <I>Variable-rate</I>—The interest rate and APY may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/ the determination of the credit union board of directors.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method A pays the stated dividend rate that corresponds to the applicable account balance tier on the full balance in the account. This example contemplates a two-tier system. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. For tiered-rate accounts, a disclosure may be added about the currency of the rate, as is provided in the first set of brackets. A disclosure regarding the fixed-rate or variable-rate nature of the account must be added, as is provided in the last set of brackets.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>Tiering Method B 
</HD2>
<P>1* A dividend rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier will range from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. 
</P>
<P>2* A dividend rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________, but less than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier will range from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. 
</P>
<P>3* If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or less, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance will be ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. 
</P>
<P>[For purposes of this disclosure, this is a rate and APY that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days and were accurate as of (date). Please call (credit union telephone number) to obtain current rate information.] 
</P>
<P>[<I>Fixed-rate</I>—You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days]./ <I>Variable-rate</I>—The interest rate and APY may change every (time period) based on [(name of index)/ the determination of the credit union board of directors.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method B pays different stated dividend rates corresponding to applicable account balance tiers, on the applicable balance in each tier of the account. For example, a credit union might pay 3% dividend on account funds of $500 or below, and pay 4% dividend on the portion of the same account that exceeds $500. The example contemplates an account with two tiers, but additional tiers are possible. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. For tiered-rate accounts, a disclosure may be added about the currentness of the rate, as is provided in the first set of brackets. 
</P>
<P>Tiered-rate accounts can be either fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts. The last sentence offers an option of either fixed-rate or variable-rate disclosure. Thus, the disclosures outlined above will be made in addition to either: (i) Disclosure of the period the fixed-rates are in effect or (ii) the variable-rate disclosures. Tiered-rate accounts are also subject to the requirement for disclosure of the balance computation method, <I>see</I> paragraph (e) to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>3. Other Dividend-bearing Accounts 
</HD2>
<HD2>Tiering Method A 
</HD2>
<P>1* [As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], if your [daily balance/average daily balance] was $________ or more, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account was ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. /or If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or more, a prospective dividend rate of ________% will be paid on the entire balance in your account with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) of ________% for this dividend period.] 
</P>
<P>2* [As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], if your [daily balance/average daily balance] was more than $________, but was less than $________, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account was ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. /or If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is more than $________, but is less than $________, a prospective dividend rate of ________% will be paid on the entire balance in your account with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) of ________% for this dividend period.] 
</P>
<P>3* [As of the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], if your [daily balance/average daily balance] was $________ or less, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ________% with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. /or If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $________ or less, the prospective dividend rate of ________% will be paid on the entire balance in your account with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) of ________% for this dividend period. 
</P>
<P>[<I>Fixed-rate</I>—You will be paid this rate for [(time period)/at least 30 calendar days]./ <I>Variable-rate</I>—The dividend rate and APY may change every (dividend period) as determined by the credit union board of directors.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method A pays the stated dividend rate that corresponds to the applicable deposit tier on the full balance in the account. This example contemplates a two-tier system. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. For tiered-rate accounts, a disclosure may be added about the prospective rate. Note that the prospective rate disclosure options match the required tiered-rate disclosures based on the previous dividend declaration date. A disclosure regarding the fixed-rate or variable-rate nature of the account must be added, as is provided in the last set of brackets.</P></NOTE>
<HD2>Tiering Method B
</HD2>
<P>1* [As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], a dividend rate of ________% was paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that was greater than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier ranged from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. /or A prospective dividend rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________ with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) ranging from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account, for this dividend period.]
</P>
<P>2* [As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], a dividend rate of ________% was paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that was greater than $________ but less than $________. The annual percentage yield (APY) for this tier ranged from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account. /or A prospective dividend rate of ________% will be paid only on the portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $________, but less than $________] with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) ranging from ________% to ________%, depending on the balance in the account, for this dividend period.]
</P>
<P>3* [As of [the last dividend declaration date/ (date)], if your [daily balance/average daily balance] was $________ or less, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance was ________%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ________%. /or If your [daily balance/average daily balance] was $______ or less, the prospective dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ______% with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) of ______% for this dividend period.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Tiering Method B pays different stated dividend rates corresponding to applicable account tiers, on the applicable balance in each tier of the account. For example, a credit union might pay a 3% dividend on account funds of $500 or below, and pay a 4% dividend on the portion of the same account that exceeds $500. The example contemplates an account with two tiers, but additional tiers are possible. The option (1, 2 or 3) most closely matching the terms of the account should be chosen as the appropriate disclosure. Note that the prospective rate disclosure options match the required tiered-rate disclosures based on the previous dividend declaration date.
</P>
<P>Tiered-rate accounts can be either fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts. The last sentence offers an option of either fixed-rate or variable-rate disclosures. Thus, the disclosures outlined above must be made in addition to either: (i) Disclosure of the period the fixed-rates are in effect or (ii) the variable-rate disclosures. Tiered-rate accounts are also subject to the requirement for disclosure of the balance computation method, see paragraph (e) to this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) <I>Nature of Dividends (§ 707.4(b)(8))</I>
</HD1>
<P>Dividends are paid from current income and available earnings, after required transfers to reserves at the end of a dividend period.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The Board of Directors declares dividends based on current income and available earnings of the credit union after providing for the required reserves at the end of the month. The dividend rate and annual percentage yield shown may reflect either the last dividend declaration date on the account or the earnings the credit union anticipates having available for distribution. This disclosure only applies to share and share draft (as opposed to deposit) accounts and should be grouped with the Rate Information to make the disclosures more meaningful. This disclosure also does not apply to term share accounts for reasons discussed in the supplementary information regarding §§ 707.3(e) and 707.4(b)(8).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">c</E>) <I>Compounding and Crediting (§ 707.4(b)(2))</I>
</HD1>
<P>[Dividends/Interest] will be compounded (frequency) and will be credited (frequency).
</P>
<FP>and, if applicable:
</FP>
<P>If you close your [share/deposit] account before [dividends/interest] [are/is] paid, you will not receive the accrued [dividends/interest].
</P>
<FP>and, if applicable (for dividend-bearing accounts):
</FP>
<P>For this account type, the dividend period is (frequency), for example, the beginning date of the first dividend period of the calendar year is (date) and the ending date of such dividend period is (date). All other dividend periods follow this same pattern of dates. The dividend declaration date follows the ending date of a dividend period, and for the example is (date).
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where the word “(frequency)” appears, time periods must be inserted to coincide with those specified in board resolutions of each credit union's board of directors. A disclosure of dividend period was added to § 707.4(b)(2)(i) in the final rule to assist members in knowing when dividend rate and APY disclosures would be given by a credit union using the optional statement rule of § 707.6(a). The dividend declaration date is important for purposes of § 707.4(a)(2)(ii), request disclosures, § 707.4(b)(2), account opening disclosures, and § 707.8(c)(2), advertising disclosures. The Board believes that this is critical information for dividend-bearing accounts, but that provision by an example (whether of the first dividend period of the year, or of any randomly chosen dividend period) is favorable to providing a list of such dates for the entire year or for a period of years (although these methods would also be permissible). As noted in the supplementary information to § 707.2(j), dividend declaration date, the dividend period and actual dividend distribution date may vary. Thus, it is possible for crediting periods and dividend periods not to coincide, though the Board believes that credit unions should make every effort to attempt to coordinate the two periods.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">d</E>) <I>Minimum Balance Requirements (§ 707.4(b)(3)(i))</I>
</HD1>
<P>(i) <I>To open the account</I>
</P>
<P>The minimum balance required to open this account is $________.
</P>
<FP>or, for first share account at a credit union
</FP>
<P>The minimum required to open this account is the purchase of a (par value of a share) share in the credit union.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>To avoid imposition of fees</I>
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum daily balance of $________ in your account to avoid a service fee. If, during any (time period), your account balance falls below the required minimum daily balance, your account will be subject to a service fee of $________ for that (time period).
</P>
<FP>or
</FP>
<P>You must maintain a minimum average daily balance of $________ in your account to avoid a service fee. If, during any (time period), your average daily balance is below the required minimum, your account will be subject to a service fee of $________ for that (time period).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>To obtain the annual percentage yield disclosed</I>
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum daily balance of $________ in your account each day to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>or
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum average daily balance of $________ in your account to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Absence of minimum balance requirements</I>
</P>
<P>No minimum balance requirements apply to this account.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Par value</I>
</P>
<P>The par value of a share in this credit union is $________.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Where the words “(time period)” appear, time periods should be inserted to coincide with those specified in board resolutions of each credit union's board of directors. As the supplementary information to § 707.4(b)(3)(i) explains, the par value of a share to establish membership is a critical disclosure to be made to potential members of credit unions. The par value disclosure is required by § 707.4(b)(3)(i) as being analogous to a minimum balance account opening requirement.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">e</E>) <I>Balance Computation Method (§ 707.4(b)(3)(ii))</I>
</HD1>
<P>(i) <I>Daily Balance Method</I>
</P>
<P>[Dividends/Interest] [are/is] calculated by the daily balance method which applies a daily periodic rate to the balance in the account each day.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Average Daily Balance Method</I>
</P>
<P>[Dividends/Interest] [are/is] calculated by the average daily balance method which applies a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the balance in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Any explanation of balance computation method must contain enough information for members to grasp the means by which dividends or interest will be calculated on their accounts. Using a shorthand form, such as “day in/day out” for the daily balance method or “average balance” for the average daily balance method, without more information, is insufficient. In addition, any disclosure based on the equivalency of the two allowable methods, such as stating that the average daily balance method was the same as the daily balance method, is impermissible and misleading.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">f</E>) <I>Accrual of Dividends/Interest on Noncash Deposits (§ 704.4(b)(3)(iii))</I> 
</HD1>
<P>[Dividends/Interest] will begin to accrue on the business day you [place/deposit] noncash items (e.g. checks) to your account. 
</P>
<FP>or 
</FP>
<P>[Dividends/Interest] will begin to accrue no later than the business day we receive provisional credit for the [placement/deposit] of noncash items (e.g. checks) to your account. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Accrual information is not included in the explanation of balance computation method required by § 707.4(b)(4)(ii). In addition, the disclosures required by TISA do not affect the substantive requirements of the EFAA and Regulation CC.</P></NOTE>
<P>The EFAA and Regulation CC control, and any modifications to them should occasion credit unions to revisit this disclosure with a view to revising it to reflect current law. 
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">g</E>) <I>Fees and Charges (§ 707.4(b)(4))</I> 
</HD1>
<P>The following fees and charges may be assessed against your account: 
</P>
<FP>(Service/explanation)—$______. 
</FP>
<FP>(Service/explanation)—$______.
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Fees and charges may be disclosed in an account disclosure, or separately in a Rate and Fee Schedule (see section B-11 of this appendix). In either event, the disclosure should also specify when the fee will be assessed by using phrases such as “per item,” “per month,” or “per inquiry.”</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">h</E>) <I>Transaction Limitations (§ 707.4(b)(5))</I> 
</HD1>
<P>The minimum amount you may [withdraw/write a draft for] is $________
</P>
<P>During any statement period, you may not make more than six withdrawals or transfers to another credit union account of yours or to a third party by means of a preauthorized or automatic transfer or telephonic order or instruction. No more than three of the six transfers may be made by check, draft, debit card, if applicable, or similar order to a third party. If you exceed the transfer limitations set forth above in any statement period, your account will be subject to [closure by the credit union/a fee of $________.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This paragraph satisfies the requirements of § 707.4(b)(6) with respect to the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D limitations on share accounts and money market accounts. These are some of the more common limitations applicable.</P></NOTE>
<P>The credit union reserves the right to require a member intending to make a withdrawal from any account (except a share draft account) to give written notice of such intent not less than seven days and up to 60 days before such withdrawal.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This disclosure is limited to federal credit unions with Bylaws containing this limitation. See <I>Standard Federal Credit Union Bylaws,</I> Art. III, section 5(a). Similar disclosures are required of any state-chartered credit unions having similar limitations in their bylaws, or under state law. This limitation does not directly relate to the “number” or “amount” of transactions, and accordingly, may not be necessary under § 707.4(b)(5), but would, if applicable, be required by § 707.3(b).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>(<E T="01">i</E>) <I>Disclosures Related to Term Share Accounts (§ 707.4(b)(6))</I> 
</HD1>
<P>(i) <I>Time requirements</I> 
</P>
<P>Your account will mature on (date). 
</P>
<FP>or 
</FP>
<P>Your account will mature after (time period). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Early withdrawal penalties</I> 
</P>
<P>We [will/may] impose a penalty if you withdraw [any/all] of the [funds/principal] in your account before the maturity date. The penalty will equal [________ [days'/weeks'/months'] [dividends/interest] on your account. 
</P>
<FP>or 
</FP>
<P>We [will/may] impose a penalty of $__________ if you withdraw [any/all] of the [funds/principal] before the maturity date. 
</P>
<P>If you withdraw some of your funds before maturity, the [dividend/interest] rate for the remaining funds in your account will be ______%, with an annual percentage yield of ______%.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>In most cases, the dividend rate and annual percentage yield on the funds remaining in the account after early withdrawal are the same as before the withdrawal. Accordingly, the disclosure of dividend rate and annual percentage yield after withdrawal is required only if the dividend rate and APY will change.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iii) <I>Withdrawal of Dividends/Interest Prior to Maturity</I> 
</P>
<P>The annual percentage yield is based on an assumption that [dividends/interest] will remain in the account until maturity. A withdrawal will reduce earnings.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This disclosure may be used if the credit union compounds dividends/interest and allows withdrawal of accrued dividends/interest before maturity. This disclosure alerts members that the annual percentage yield is based on an assumption that the dividends/interest remain on deposit until maturity.</P></NOTE>
<P>(iv) <I>Renewal Policies</I> 
</P>
<HD1>1. <I>Automatically Renewable Term Share Accounts</I> 
</HD1>
<P>Your term share account will automatically renew at maturity. You will have a grace period of ________ [calendar/business] days after the maturity date to withdraw the funds in the account without being charged an early withdrawal penalty. 
</P>
<FP>  or
</FP>
<P>Your term share account will automatically renew at maturity. There is no grace period following the maturity of this account. 
</P>
<HD1>2. <I>Non-Automatically Renewable Term Share Accounts</I> 
</HD1>
<P>This account will not renew automatically at maturity. If you do not renew the account, your account will [continue to earn/no longer earn] [dividends/interest] after the maturity date.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>These disclosures should agree with the necessary pre-maturity notices for term share accounts in B-3 of this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<P>(v) <I>Required dividend distribution.</I>
</P>
<P>This account requires the distribution of dividends and does not allow dividends to remain in the account.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">j</E>) <I>Bonuses (§ 704.4(b)(7))</I> 
</HD1>
<P>You will [be paid/receive] [$__________/(description of item)] as a bonus [when you open the account/on (date)]. 
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum [daily balance/average daily balance] of $__________ to obtain the bonus. 
</P>
<P>To earn the bonus, [$__________/your entire principal] must remain on deposit [for (time period)/until (date)].
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>These disclosures follow the requirements of § 707.4(b)(7) and should be used as applicable. Further information may also be added, especially if it clarifies the conditions and timing of receiving the bonus, or better informs the member about the bonus.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-2 Model Clauses for Changes in Terms (§ 707.5(<E T="01">a</E>))
</HD1>
<P>On (date), the (type of fee) will increase to $__________. 
</P>
<P>On (date), the [dividend/interest] rate on your account will decrease to ______%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of ______%. 
</P>
<P>On (date), the [minimum daily balance/average daily balance] required to avoid imposition of a fee will increase to $__________. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>These examples apply to the more common changes necessitating a change in terms notice. However, any change, amendment or modification reducing the APY or adversely affecting the members holding such accounts must be disclosed. For such changes not contemplated by the model clauses, the Board recommends the use of as simple language as possible to convey the change, along with cross-referencing to the particular sections or paragraph numbers of the account opening disclosures, when to do so 
</P>
<FP>will assist members in reviewing and understanding the change.</FP></NOTE>
<HD1>B-3 Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Term Share Accounts (§ 707.5(<E T="01">b-c</E>)) 
</HD1>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) <I>Maturity Date</I> 
</HD1>
<P>Your term share account will mature on __________. 
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) <I>Nonrenewal</I> 
</HD1>
<P>Unless your term share account is renewed, it will not accrue further [dividends/interest] after the maturity date. 
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">c</E>) <I>Rate Information</I> 
</HD1>
<P>The [dividend/interest] rate and annual percentage yield that will apply to your term share account if it is renewed have not yet been determined. That information will be available on ________. After that date, you may call the credit union during regular business hours at (telephone number) to find out the [dividend/interest] rate and annual percentage yield (APY) that will apply to your term share account if it is renewed.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Pre-maturity notices should follow the requirements of § 707.5(b-d) as closely as possible. Care should be taken to explain any grace periods used. See discussion of use of alternative timing in supplementary information to § 707.2(o) and § 707.5(b-d).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-4 Sample Form (Signature Card/Application for Membership)
</HD1>
<HD2>Application for Membership/Account Signature Card
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>     ACCOUNT NUMBER
</FP-DASH>
<FP>__________ __________ __________
</FP>
<FP>(last name) (first name) (middle name)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(street address) (apartment number)
</FP>
<FP>__________ ______ ________
</FP>
<FP>(city) (state) (zip code)
</FP>
<FP>____________ ____________
</FP>
<FP>(home telephone number) (business telephone number)
</FP>
<FP>____-____-________  __________
</FP>
<FP>(Social Security # or TIN) (date of birth)
</FP>
<FP>______________ ________________
</FP>
<FP> (mother's maiden name) (employer, occupation)
</FP>
<P>I hereby make application for membership in and agree to conform to the Bylaws, as amended, of __________ Credit Union (the “Credit Union”). I certify that: I am within the field of membership of this Credit Union; the information provided on this application is true and correct; and my signature on this card applies to all accounts under my name at this Credit Union. I also agree to be bound to the terms and conditions of any account that I have in the Credit Union now or in the future.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (signature of applicant)
</FP>
<P>This application approved________(date) by the (Check one)
</P>
<FP>( ) Board  ( ) Exec. Committee
</FP>
<FP>( ) Membership Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signed:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>  (Secretary; Exec. Cmte. Member, or Membership Officer)
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on NCUA Form FCU 150, Application for Membership, as discussed in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> §§ 5030.1, 5150.3. It is noted that other information can also be requested on the signature card, as long as it is in accordance with federal and state laws. For example, information identifying the member, such as a state driver's license number, could be added. The types of accounts that the signature applies to could be specified. Furthermore, the Board notes that this card contains much identification information that may not be necessary for all credit unions; common sense should guide credit union boards of directors in designing their applications for membership/signature cards. However, the Board believes that the information solicited on this form is reasonable and prudent for many credit unions. Payable on death designations, joint account language required under state law, life savings beneficiary designations, and other like variations and designations may be added to the card if so desired. The proposed signature card/ application for membership form contained taxpayer certification language. One commenter noted that the IRS may always change its requirements in this area, which are beyond the authority of the Board. Therefore, the Board has deleted reference to the IRS taxpayer certification required by 26 U.S.C. 3406, but notes that such certification must be made in accordance with applicable law and IRS rules. The information may be included on the front and back of a standard size signature card, or on the front of a large size signature card. However, no account terms may be included on a signature card unless a copy of the signature card is provided to the member at the time of account opening. The Board recommends that credit unions refrain from this practice, and instead use standard account disclosures. One reason for this is that if laws, regulations or credit union policies change, discrepancies may result between them and the earlier signature card terms. Given the longevity of credit union membership, signature cards may well be in use for up to or over a century. In addition, as signature cards are relatively small, they probably will not contain enough space to make all desired and required disclosures. Fragmentation of terms, some on signature cards, some on separate disclosures, could easily lead to member confusion. As terms are usually construed against the drafter, credit unions should be very careful in their use of account terms and conditions varying from those provided as model clauses and sample forms in this appendix.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-5 Sample Form (Term Share (Certificate) Account)
</HD1>
<HD2>Term Share Certificate
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date Issued
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Account Number
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Certificate Number
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Social Security Number
</FP>
<P>This is to certify that (name(s)) __________________ [is/ are] the owner(s) of a term share certificate account in the __________ Credit Union (the “Credit Union”) in the amount of __________ Dollars ($__________). This term share certificate account may be redeemed on (maturity date) __________ only upon presentation of the certificate to the Credit Union. The dividend rate of this certificate account is ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%. The annual percentage yield and dividend rate assume that dividends are to be [check one] ( ) added to principal/( ) paid to regular share account number __________/ ( ) mailed to owner(s). This account is subject to all terms and conditions stated in the Term Share Certificate Account Disclosures, as they may be amended from time to time, and incorporates the same by reference into this agreement.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Authorized signature
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Authorized signature
</FP>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on NCUA Form FCU 107SCP, Credit Union Share Certificate, as discussed in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> §§ 5030.1, 5150.6. It is simplified to reflect the term share (certificate) account agreement, the parties involved, the maturity term and the annual percentage yield and dividend rate. All other terms are incorporated by reference. This should allow the credit union maximum flexibility in fashioning certificate, and other term share account, products. If a credit union so desired, other terms and conditions could be incorporated into the term share certificate itself, as long as a copy is presented to the member at the account opening. Care should also be taken to ensure that the term share certificate format addresses any necessary state law concerns. As the FRB's Regulation D on reserve requirements permits all term share accounts to be represented by a transferable or nontransferable, or a negotiable or nonnegotiable, certificate, instrument, passbook, statement or otherwise, and still be considered a “time deposit”, the Board has made no entry on this sample form regarding such terms, leaving the decision instead to each credit union's board of directors. 12 CFR 204.2(c)(2).</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-6 Sample Form (Regular Share Account Disclosures)
</HD1>
<HD2>Regular Share Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rate information.</I> As of April 1, 1995, the dividend rate was 5.00% and the annual percentage yield (APY) was 5.13% on your regular share account. In addition, the credit union estimates a prospective dividend rate of 5.25% and a prospective APY of 5.39% on your share account for this dividend period. The dividend rate and annual percentage yield may change every quarter as determined by the credit union board of directors.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compounding and crediting.</I> Dividends will be compounded daily and will be credited quarterly. For this account type, the dividend period is quarterly, for example, the beginning date of the first dividend period of the calendar year is January 1 and the ending date of such dividend period is March 31. All other dividend periods follow this same pattern of dates. The dividend declaration date follows the ending date of a dividend period, and for the example is April 1. If you close your regular share account before dividends are credited, you will not receive accrued dividends.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> The minimum balance to open this account is the purchase of a $5 share in the Credit Union. You must maintain a minimum daily balance of $500 in your account to avoid a service fee. If, during any day during a quarter, your account balance falls below the required minimum daily balance, your account will be subject to a service fee of $5 for that quarter.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balance computation method.</I> Dividends are calculated by the daily balance method which applies a daily periodic rate to the principal in your account each day.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Accrual of dividends.</I> Dividends will begin to accrue on the business day you deposit noncash items (e.g., checks) to your account.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fees and charges.</I> The following fees and charges may be assessed against your account. 
</P>
<P>a. Statement copies—$5.00 per statement. 
</P>
<P>b. Account inquiries—$3.00 per inquiry. 
</P>
<P>c. Dormant account fee—$10.00 per month. 
</P>
<P>d. Wire transfers—$8.00 per transfer. 
</P>
<P>e. Minimum balance service fee—$5.00 per quarter. 
</P>
<P>f. Share transfer—$1.00 per transfer. 
</P>
<P>g. Excessive share withdrawals $1.00 per item. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Transaction limitations.</I> During any statement period, you may not make more than six withdrawals or transfers to another credit union account of yours or to a third party by means of a preauthorized or automatic transfer or telephonic order or instruction. No more than three of the six transfers may be made by check, draft, debit card, if applicable, or similar order to a third party. If you exceed the transfer limitations set forth above in any statement period, your account will be subject to closure by the credit union or to a fee of $1.00 per item. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Nature of dividends.</I> Dividends are paid from current income and available earnings, after required transfers to reserves at the end of a dividend period. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Bylaw Requirements.</I> A member who fails to complete payment of one share within __________ of his admission to membership, or within __________ from the increase in the par value in shares, or a member who reduces his share balance below the par value of one share and does not increase the balance to at least the par value of one share within __________ of the reduction may be terminated from membership at the end of a dividend period. [All blanks should be filled with time chosen by credit union board of directors.] Shares may be transferred only from one member to another, by written instrument in such form as the Credit Union may prescribe. The Credit Union reserves the right, at any time, to require members to give, in writing, not more than 60 days notice of intention to withdraw the whole or any part of the amounts so paid in by them. No member may withdraw shareholdings that are pledged as required on security on loans without the written approval of the credit committee or a loan officer, except to the extent that such shares exceed the member's total primary and contingent liability to the Credit Union. No member may withdraw any shareholdings below the amount of his/her primary or contingent liability to the Credit Union if he/she is delinquent as a borrower, or if borrowers for whom he/she is comaker, endorser, or guarantor are delinquent, without the written approval of the credit committee or loan officer. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Par value of shares; Dividend period.</I> The par value of a regular share in this Credit Union is $5. The dividend period of the Credit Union is quarterly. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.</I> Member accounts in this Credit Union are federally insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Other Terms and Conditions.</I> [In this item, which may be titled or subdivided in any manner by each credit union, NCUA suggests that the following issues be covered or handled: Statutory lien or setoff; expenses (garnishments and bankruptcy orders and holds on account); joint ownership accounts; trust accounts; payable-on-death accounts; retirement accounts; Uniform Transfer to Minor Act accounts; sole proprietorship accounts; escrow and custodial accounts; corporation accounts; not-for-profit corporation accounts; voluntary association accounts; partnership accounts; public unit accounts; powers of attorney (guardianship orders); tax disclosures and certifications; Uniform Commercial Code variances; amendments; reliance on signature card; change of address; incorporations of other documents by reference, such as expedited funds availability policies, service charges schedules or electronic banking disclosures; ability to suspend services; and operational matters (stop payment orders—verbal and written, satisfactory identification, refusal of deposits not in proper form, wire transfers, stale check deposits, availability of periodic statements or passbook feature.)] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on the share account disclosures in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> § 5150.7. The disclosures are for a variable-rate, daily balance method dividend calculation regular share account in an FCU with a $500 minimum balance to avoid service fees. For the example, the account was opened on May 1, 1995. Other terms are self-explanatory. The dividend rate paid and annual percentage yield disclosures will reflect the prospective dividend rate for a given dividend period. Item nos. 1-8 reflect standard TISA and part 707 disclosures discussed in sections B-1 through B-3 of this appendix. Note that if the credit union limits the maximum amount of shares which may be held by one member under <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws,</I> Art. III, section 2, that this should be stated in item no. 7, transaction limitations. Item no. 9 reflects various terms provided in Art. III, sections 3-6 of the <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws.</I> Item no. 10 reflects the par value amount of regular shares in a federal credit union, pursuant to section 117 of the FCU Act, 12 U.S.C. 117. It also states the dividend period of the credit union, which is set by the board of directors. Item no. 11 addresses the requirements of 12 CFR part 740. Non-federally insured credit unions (NICUs) would be expected to disclose information required by section 151 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991. 12 U.S.C. 1831t. By December 19, 1992, all NICUs were required to include conspicuously on all periodic statements of account, signature cards, passbooks, share certificates and other similar instruments of deposit and in all advertising a notice that the credit union is not federally insured. Additional disclosures will be required of NICUs by June 19, 1994. Item no. 12 is inserted to ensure that credit unions add other account terms and conditions not covered by the proposed regulation. These sorts of terms are contemplated by proposed § 707.3(b), requiring that the disclosures reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the member and the credit union. This list is not meant to be exhaustive, but to give a general idea of other topics often covered in share account contracts. Item no. 12 is not expressly required by either TISA or part 707, but any of these terms that are disclosed must be accurate and not misleading. Also the Board strongly recommends that such terms are included in account opening disclosures to inform the membership and to clearly set forth the legal relationship between the members and their credit union.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-7 Sample Form (Share Draft Account Disclosures)
</HD1>
<HD2>Share Draft Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rate information.</I> As of January 1, 1995, the dividend rate was 3.00% and the annual percentage yield (APY) was 3.04% on your share account. In addition, the prospective dividend rate on your account is 3.15% with a prospective annual percentage yield (APY) of 3.20% for the current dividend period. The dividend rate and APY may change every dividend period as determined by the credit union board of directors. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compounding and crediting.</I> Dividends will be compounded monthly and will be credited monthly. For this account type, the dividend period is monthly, for example, the beginning date of the first dividend period of the calendar year is January 1 and the ending date of such dividend period is January 31. All other dividend periods follow this same pattern of dates. The dividend declaration date follows the ending date of a dividend period, and for the example above is February 1. If you close your share draft account before dividends are credited, you will not receive accrued dividends. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>No Minimum balance requirements apply to this account.</I> 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balance computation method.</I> Dividends are calculated by the average daily balance method which applies a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the balance in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Accrual of dividends.</I> Dividends will begin to accrue no later than the business day we receive provisional credit for the placement of noncash items (e.g. checks) to your account. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fees and charges.</I> The following fees and charges may be assessed against your account. 
</P>
<P>a. Statement copies—$5.00 per statement.
</P>
<P>b. Account inquiries—$3.00 per inquiry.
</P>
<P>c. Dormant account fee—$10.00 per month.
</P>
<P>d. Wire transfers—$8.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>e. Overdrafts/Returned Items—$5.00 per draft.
</P>
<P>f. Share transfer—$1.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>g. Excessive share withdrawals—$1.00 per item.
</P>
<P>h. Certified checks—$5.00 per check.
</P>
<P>i. Stop Payment Order—$5.00 per order.
</P>
<P>j. Check Printing Fee—$12.00 per 200 checks (varies depending on style of check ordered).
</P>
<P>7. <I>No transaction limitations apply to this account.</I> 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Nature of dividends.</I> Dividends are paid from current income and available earnings, after required transfers to reserves at the end of a dividend period. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Bylaw Requirements.</I> A member who fails to complete payment of one share within __________ of his admission to membership, or within __________ from the increase in the par value in shares, or a member who reduces his share balance below the par value of one share and does not increase the balance to at least the par value of one share within __________ of the reduction may be terminated from membership at the end of a dividend period. [All blanks should be filled with time chosen by credit union board of directors.] Shares may be transferred only from one member to another, by written instrument in such form as the Credit Union may prescribe. The Credit Union reserves the right, at any time, to require members to give, in writing, not more than 60 days notice of intention to withdraw the whole or any part of the amounts so paid in by them. Shares paid in under an accumulated payroll deduction plan may not be withdrawn until credited to a member's account. No member may withdraw shareholdings that are pledged as required on security on loans without the written approval of the credit committee or a loan officer, except to the extent that such shares exceed the member's total primary and contingent liability to the Credit Union. No member may withdraw any shareholdings below the amount of his/her primary or contingent liability to the Credit Union if he/she is delinquent as a borrower, or if borrowers for whom he/she is comaker, endorser, or guarantor are delinquent, without the written approval of the credit committee or loan officer. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Par value of shares; Dividend period.</I> The par value of a regular share in this Credit Union is $5. The dividend period of the Credit Union is monthly, beginning on the first of a month and ending on the last day of the month. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.</I> Member accounts in this Credit Union are federally insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Other Terms and Conditions.</I> [See section B-6, item 12, of this appendix]. 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on the share account disclosures in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> § 5150.7. The disclosures are for a variable-rate, average daily balance method dividend calculation share draft account in an FCU with no minimum balance requirement. For purposes of this example, the account was opened on January 15, 1995. The Credit Union has monthly dividend periods. Other terms are self-explanatory. The dividend rate paid and annual percentage yield disclosures will reflect the prospective dividend rate for a given dividend period. The disclosures are very similar to the ones in section B-6 of appendix B, except for the rollback and par value disclosures, which have been removed from the final rule and appendices.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-8 Sample Form (Money Market Share Account Disclosures)
</HD1>
<HD2>Money Market Share Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rate information.</I> As of January 1, 1995, if your average daily balance was $500 or more, the dividend rate paid on the entire balance in your account was 4.75%, with an annual percentage yield (APY) of 4.85%. If your average daily balance is $500 or more, a prospective dividend rate of 4.95% will be paid on the entire balance in your account with a prospective APY of 5.00% for this dividend period on your account. The dividend rate and APY may change every dividend period as determined by the credit union board of directors.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compounding and crediting.</I> Dividends will be compounded monthly and will be credited quarterly. If you close your share money market account before dividends are credited, you will not receive accrued dividends.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> The minimum balance required to open this account is $500. You must maintain a minimum daily balance of $500 in your account to avoid a service fee. If, during any (time period), your account falls below the required minimum daily balance, your account will be subject to a service fee of $5 for that (time period).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balance computation method.</I> Dividends are calculated by the average daily balance method which applies a periodic rate to the average daily balance in your account for the period. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Accrual of dividends.</I> Dividends will begin to accrue on the business day you deposit noncash items (e.g., checks) to your account.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fees and charges.</I> The following fees and charges may be assessed against your account.
</P>
<P>a. Statement copies—$5.00 per statement.
</P>
<P>b. Account inquiries—$3.00 per inquiry.
</P>
<P>c. Dormant account fee—$10.00 per month.
</P>
<P>d. Wire transfers—$8.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>e. Minimum balance service fee—$5.00 per (time period).
</P>
<P>f. Share transfer—$1.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>g. Excessive share withdrawals—$1.00 per item.
</P>
<P>h. Certified checks—$5.00 per check.
</P>
<P>i. Stop Payment Order—$5.00 per order.
</P>
<P>j. Check Printing Fee—$12.00 per 200 checks (varies depending on style of check ordered).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Transaction limitations.</I> During any statement period, you may not make more than six withdrawals or transfers to another credit union account of yours or to a third party by means of a preauthorized or automatic transfer or telephonic order or instruction. No more than three of the six transfers may be made by check, draft, debit card, if applicable, or similar order to a third party. If you exceed the transfer limitations set forth above in any statement period, your account will be subject to closure by the credit union or to a fee of $1.00 per item.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Nature of dividends.</I> Dividends are paid from current income and available earnings, after required transfers to reserves at the end of a dividend period.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Bylaw Requirements.</I> [This section should reflect any requirements concerning share accounts in the FISCU's bylaws or charter.]
</P>
<P>10. <I>Par value of shares; Dividend period.</I> The par value of a regular share in this Credit Union is $50. The dividend period of the Credit Union is monthly, beginning on the first of a month and ending on the last day of the month. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.</I> Member accounts in this Credit Union are federally insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>12. <I>Other Terms and Conditions.</I> [See section B-6, item 12, of this appendix.] 
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on the share account disclosures in the Accounting Manual for FCUs, § 5150.7 and on the share draft account disclosures in section B-7 of this appendix. The disclosures are for a variable-rate, tiered-rate (method A, option 1), average daily balance method dividend calculation, money market share account in a FISCU with a $500 minimum balance to open the account and to avoid service fees. For purposes of this example, the account was opened on January 29, 1995. Other terms are self-explanatory. The dividend rate paid and annual percentage yield disclosures will reflect the prospective dividend rate for a given dividend period. Note that the contents of Item 9, Bylaw requirements, must be tailored to the specific bylaws of a FISCU or NICU. Also note the high par value amount in Item 10.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-9 Sample Form (Term Share (Certificate) Account Disclosures)
</HD1>
<HD2>Term Share (Certificate) Account Disclosures 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rate information.</I> [Repeat rates disclosed on face of term share certificate, <I>see</I> § B-5, Sample Form (Term Share (Certificate) Account)]. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compounding and crediting.</I> Dividends will be compounded monthly and will be credited annually. If you close your certificate account before dividends are credited, you will not receive accrued dividends. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> The minimum balance required to open this account is $500. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balance computation method.</I> Dividends are calculated by the daily balance method, which applies a daily periodic rate to the principal in your account each day. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Accrual of dividends.</I> Dividends will begin to accrue on the business day you deposit noncash items (e.g., checks) to your account. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fees and charges.</I> The following fees and charges may be assessed against your account. 
</P>
<P>a. Statement copies—$5.00 per statement.
</P>
<P>b. Account inquiries—$3.00 per inquiry.
</P>
<P>c. Share transfer—$1.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Transaction limitations.</I> After the account is opened, you may not make deposits into the account until the maturity date stated on the certificate. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Maturity date.</I> Your account will mature on January 1, 1996. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Early withdrawal penalties.</I> We may impose a penalty if you withdraw any of the funds before the maturity date. The penalty will equal three months' dividends on your deposit. 
</P>
<P>10. <I>Renewal policies.</I> Your certificate account will automatically renew at maturity. You will have a grace period of 10 business days after the maturity date to withdraw the funds in the account without being charged an early withdrawal penalty. 
</P>
<P>11. <I>Bonus.</I> You will receive a new (insert brand name) toaster-oven as a bonus when you open the account after December 31, 1994, and before June 30, 1995. You must maintain your entire principal on deposit until the maturity date of your certificate account to obtain the bonus. 
</P>
<P>12. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>13. <I>Bylaw Requirements.</I> [This section should reflect any requirements concerning share accounts in the FISCU's bylaws or charter.] 
</P>
<P>14. <I>Par value of shares; Dividend period.</I> The par value of a regular share in this Credit Union is $25. The dividend period of the Credit Union on this type of account is annual, beginning on the date the account is opened, and ending on the stated maturity date, unless renewed. 
</P>
<P>15. <I>National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.</I> Member accounts in this Credit Union are federally insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund. 
</P>
<P>16. <I>Other Terms and Conditions.</I> [See section B-6, item 12, of this appendix.]
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>Even though this disclosure if for an account at a FISCU, this form is modeled on the share account disclosures in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> § 5150.7 and upon the regular share account disclosures in section B-6 of this appendix. The disclosures are for a fixed-rate, daily balance method dividend calculation, automatically renewing term share certificate account in a FISCU with a $500 minimum balance to open the account and a ten day grace period. For the example, the account is opened on January 1, 1995 and matures on January 1, 1996. Other terms are self-explanatory. The dividend rate paid and annual percentage yield disclosures reflect the contracted, prospective dividend rate for a given dividend period. Note the special disclosures for term share certificate accounts, items nos. 8-10. Note also the bonus disclosure, item no. 11.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-10 Sample Form (Periodic Statement)
</HD1>
<HD2>Periodic Statement 
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Member Name
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Account Number 
</FP>
<FP-2>[Transaction account activity by date.] 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>[Average daily balance of $1,500 for the month, daily compounding.]
</FP-2>
<P>Your account earned $6.72, with an annual percentage yield earned of 5.40%, for the statement period from May 1 through and including May 31. In addition, your account earned $15 in extraordinary dividends for this period. Any fees assessed against your account are shown in the body of the periodic statement and are identified by the code at the bottom margin of this statement. 
</P>
<HD2>Service Charge Codes 
</HD2>
<FP-2>SC-1 Stop Payment Order Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-2 Statement Copy Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-3 Draft Return Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-4 Transfer from Shares 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-5 Microfilm Copy 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-6 Share Draft Printing Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-7 Dormant Account Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-8 Wire Transfer Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-9 Excessive Share Withdrawal Fee 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>SC-10 ______________________
</FP-2>
<HD2>Other Transactions 
</HD2>
<FP-2>D Dividends 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>EC Error Correction 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OR Overdraft Returned 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OL Overdraft Loan 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>OS Overdraft Share Transfer
</FP-2>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This form is modeled on the share draft statement of account, Form FCU 107G-SD, in the <I>Accounting Manual for FCUs,</I> § 5150.4. All information is self-explanatory. Codes of transactions are not required, but are a common credit union practice. The information regarding fees could also be included on the line of the periodic statement showing when the fees were debited from the account. Alternatively, a credit union could show all fees debited against the account for the statement period in a special area of the periodic statement. Clarity to the member of the required information—annual percentage yield earned; amount of dividends; fees imposed and length of period—is the important goal. An additional disclosure regarding the dollar value of any extraordinary dividends earned must be added to those statements showing the payment of such extraordinary dividends to the member.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>B-11 Sample Form (Rate and Fee Schedule)
</HD1>
<HD2>Rate and Fee Schedule 
</HD2>
<P>This Rate and Fee Schedule for all Accounts sets forth certain conditions, rates, fees and charges applicable to your regular share, share draft, and money market accounts at the __________ Federal Credit Union as of __________ [insert date of delivery to member]. This schedule is incorporated as part of your account agreement with the __________ Federal Credit Union. 
</P>
<HD2>Regular Share 
</HD2>
<P>Dividend Rate as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%.
</P>
<P>Annual Percentage Yield as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%. 
</P>
<P>Prospective Dividend Rate ______%.
</P>
<P>Prospective Annual Percentage Yield ______%. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Compounded [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily]. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Credited—At close of a dividend period. 
</P>
<P>Dividend Period [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily].
</P>
<P>Minimum Opening Deposit $5.00 par value share. 
</P>
<P>Minimum Monthly Balance [None, $ amount]. 
</P>
<HD2>Share Draft 
</HD2>
<P>Dividend Rate as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%. 
</P>
<P>Annual Percentage Yield as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%. 
</P>
<P>Prospective Dividend Rate ______%. 
</P>
<P>Prospective Annual Percentage Yield ______%. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Compounded [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily]. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Credited—At close of a dividend period. 
</P>
<P>Dividend Period [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily].
</P>
<P>Minimum Opening Deposit [None, $ amount]. 
</P>
<P>Minimum Monthly Balance [None, $ amount].
</P>
<HD2>Money Market 
</HD2>
<P>Dividend Rate as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%. 
</P>
<P>Annual Percentage Yield as of Last Dividend Declaration Date ______%. 
</P>
<P>Prospective Dividend Rate ______%. 
</P>
<P>Prospective Annual Percentage Yield ______%. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Compounded [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily]. 
</P>
<P>Dividends Credited—At close of a dividend period. 
</P>
<P>Dividend Period [Annually, Semiannually, Quarterly, Monthly, Weekly, Daily]. 
</P>
<P>Minimum Opening Deposit [None, $ amount]. 
</P>
<P>Minimum Monthly Balance [None, $ amount]. 
</P>
<P>The following fees may be assessed in connection with your accounts: 
</P>
<HD1>Fees Applicable to All Accounts
</HD1>
<P>Returned item fee—$____.00 per item.
</P>
<P>Account reconciliation fee—$____.00 per hour.
</P>
<P>Statement copies fee—$____.00 per statement.
</P>
<P>Certified draft fee—$____.00 per draft.
</P>
<P>Wire transfer fee—$____.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>Account inquiry fee—$____.00 per inquiry.
</P>
<P>Dormant account fee—$____.00 per month.
</P>
<P>Minimum balance service fee—$____.00 per day.
</P>
<P>Share transfer fee—$____.00 per transfer.
</P>
<P>Excessive share withdrawals fee—$____.00 per item.
</P>
<HD1>Share Draft Account Fees
</HD1>
<P>Monthly service fee—$____.00 per month.
</P>
<P>Overdraft transfers fee—$____.00 per overdraft.
</P>
<P>Drafts returned insufficient funds fee—$____.00 per draft.
</P>
<P>Stop payment order fee—$____.00 per order.
</P>
<P>Draft copy fee—$____.00 per copy.
</P>
<P>Check printing fee—$____.00 per 200 drafts.
</P>
<HD1>Money Market Share Account Fees
</HD1>
<P>Monthly service fee—$____.00 per month.
</P>
<P>Check printing fee—$____.00 per 200 drafts.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>This illustration is for use of an FCU. The information provided on a Rate and Fee Schedule can be presented in any format. To ensure that it is a part of the account agreement, if used, it should be incorporated by reference into the appropriate share account disclosures. The figures used are illustrative only.</P></NOTE>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">B-12 Aggregate Overdraft and Returned Item Fees Sample Form
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total for this period
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Total year-to-date 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total overdraft fees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$60.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$150.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total returned item fees</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$30.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 50445, Sept. 27, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 13436, 13437, Mar. 22, 1994; 63 FR 71575, Dec. 29, 1998; 72 FR 30246, May 31, 2007; 74 FR 36104, July 22, 2009; 75 FR 47175, Aug. 5, 2010; 77 FR 71084, Nov. 29, 2012; 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.8.0.11.12.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 707—Official Staff Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> This commentary is the means by which the staff of the Office of General Counsel of the National Credit Union Administration issues official staff interpretations of Part 707 of the NCUA Rules and Regulations. Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under section 271(f) of the Truth in Savings Act (TISA), 12 U.S.C. 4311.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.1—Authority, Purpose, Coverage, and Effect on State Laws
</HD3>
<HD2>(c) Coverage
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Part 707 applies to all credit unions that offer share and deposit accounts to residents (including resident aliens) of any state as defined in § 707.2(v) and that offer accounts insurable by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) whether or not such accounts are insured by the NCUSIF. Corporate credit unions designated as such by NCUA under 12 CFR 704.2 (definition of “corporate credit union”) are exempt from part 707.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Persons who advertise accounts.</I> Persons who advertise accounts are subject to the advertising rules. This includes agent and agented accounts, such as a member who subdivides interests in a jumbo term share certificate account for sale to other parties or among members who form a certificate account investment club. For example, if an agent places an advertisement that offers members an interest in an account at a credit union, the advertising rules apply to the advertisement, whether the account is held by the agent or directly by the member.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Nonautomated credit unions.</I> Nonautomated credit unions with an asset size of $2 million or less, after subtracting any nonmember deposits, are exempt from TISA and part 707. NCUA defines a “nonautomated credit union” as a credit union without sufficient data processing capability and capacity to establish, operate and maintain a share and loan software system to timely and accurately process all account transactions of all members. The nonautomated credit union exemption is available to all credit unions meeting the asset size and automation standards of this comment, including newly chartered credit unions. If any of the credit unions eligible for this exemption grow to have more than $2 million in assets as of December 31 of any year, the NCUA Board will require such credit unions to comply with TISA and part 707 on January 1 of one year after such credit union loses its exemption eligibility. Similarly, if a credit union becomes sufficiently automated to operate a complete share and loan system, such credit union will be entitled to the same compliance phase-in period. 
</P>
<HD2>(d) Effect on State Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preemption of state laws/Inconsistent requirements.</I> State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of TISA and part 707 are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is inconsistent if it requires a credit union to make disclosures or take actions that contradict the requirements of the federal law. A state law is also contradictory if it requires the use of the same term to represent a different amount or a different meaning than the federal law, requires the use of a term different from that required in the federal law to describe the same item, or permits a method of calculating dividends or interest on an account different from that required in the federal law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preemption determinations.</I> A credit union, state, or other interested party may request the Board to determine whether a state law requirement is inconsistent with the federal requirements. A request for a determination should be addressed to NCUA's Office of General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314. Written preemption requests should cite (or include a copy of) the allegedly inconsistent state law, demonstrate the inconsistency with TISA and part 707 and the burden on credit unions, and formally request a preemption determination. The Office of General Counsel may provide other interested parties, particularly affected states, an informal opportunity to comment on any request for a preemption determination, unless it finds that such notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. NCUA will publicize any preemption determinations using any means readily at its disposal.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of preemption determinations.</I> After the Board, through its Office of General Counsel, determines that a state law is inconsistent, a credit union may not make disclosures using the inconsistent term or take actions relying on the inconsistent law.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reversal of determination.</I> The Board reserves the right to reverse a determination for any reason bearing on the coverage or effect of state or federal law.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.2—Definitions
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Covered accounts.</I> Examples of accounts subject to the regulation are:
</P>
<P>i. Dividend-bearing and interest-bearing accounts.
</P>
<P>ii. Non-dividend-bearing and non-interest-bearing accounts.
</P>
<P>iii. Accounts opened as a condition of obtaining a credit card.
</P>
<P>iv. Escrow accounts with a consumer purpose, such as an account established by a member to escrow rental payments, pending resolution of a dispute with the member's landlord.
</P>
<P>v. Accounts held by a parent or custodian for a minor under a state's Uniform Gift to Minors Act (or Uniform Transfers to Minors Act).
</P>
<P>vi. Individual retirement accounts (IRAs) and simplified employee pension (SEP) accounts.
</P>
<P>vii. Payable-on-Death (POD) or “Totten trust” accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other accounts.</I> Examples of accounts <I>not</I> subject to the regulation are:
</P>
<P>i. Mortgage escrow accounts for collecting taxes and property insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>ii. Accounts established to make periodic disbursements on construction loans.
</P>
<P>iii. Trust accounts opened by a trustee pursuant to a formal written trust agreement (not merely declarations of trust on a signature card such as a “Totten trust,” or an IRA or SEP account).
</P>
<P>iv. Accounts opened by an executor in the name of decedent's estate.
</P>
<P>v. Accounts of individuals operating businesses as sole proprietors.
</P>
<P>vi. Certificates of indebtedness. Some credit unions borrow funds from their members through a certificate of indebtedness that sets forth the terms and conditions of the repayment of the borrowing, such as federal credit unions do through 12 CFR 701.38. Such an account does not represent an account in a credit union and is not covered by part 707.
</P>
<P>vii. Unincorporated nonbusiness association accounts.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other investments.</I> The term “account” does not apply to these products. Examples of products not covered are:
</P>
<P>i. Government securities.
</P>
<P>ii. Mutual funds.
</P>
<P>iii. Annuities.
</P>
<P>iv. Securities or obligations of a credit union.
</P>
<P>v. Contractual arrangements such as repurchase agreements, interest rate swaps, and bankers acceptances.
</P>
<P>vi. Purchases of U.S. Savings Bonds through a credit union.
</P>
<P>vii. Services offered through a group purchasing plan or a credit union service organization (CUSO).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Options.</I> All dividend-bearing and interest-bearing accounts are either fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Use of synonyms.</I> Generally, it is not the purpose of part 707 to prohibit specific descriptive terms for accounts. For example, credit unions can use adjectives and trade names to describe accounts such as “Best Share Draft Account,” or “Ultra Money Market Share Account.” Synonyms for share, share draft, money market share, and term share accounts may be used to describe various types of credit union share and deposit accounts as long as the synonym is accurate and not misleading and, for account disclosures, is used in conjunction with the correct legal term. For example, the following synonyms may be used:
</P>
<P>i. The term “checking account” may be used to describe share draft accounts.
</P>
<P>ii. The term “money market account” may be used to describe money market share accounts.
</P>
<P>iii. The term “savings account” may be used to describe regular share and share accounts.
</P>
<P>iv. The terms “share certificate,” “certificate account,” or “certificate” may be used to describe share certificates and other dividend-bearing term share accounts.
</P>
<P>v. However, under no circumstances may a credit union describe a share account as a deposit account, or vice versa. For example, the term “certificate of deposit” or “CD” may not be used to describe share certificates and other dividend-bearing term share accounts. Similarly, the terms “time account” (used in Regulation DD, 12 CFR 1030.2(u)) and “time deposit” (used in Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(c)) may not be used to describe term share accounts.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Advertisement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Covered messages.</I> Advertisements include commercial messages in visual, oral, or print media that invite, offer, or otherwise announce generally to members and potential members the availability of member accounts such as:
</P>
<P>i. Telephone solicitations.
</P>
<P>ii. Messages on automated teller machine (ATM) screens (including any printout).
</P>
<P>iii. Messages on a computer screen in a credit union's lobby (including any printout) other than a screen viewed solely by the credit union's employee.
</P>
<P>iv. Messages in a newspaper, magazine, or promotional flyer or on radio or television.
</P>
<P>v. Messages promoting an account that are provided along with information about the member's existing account at a credit union and that promote another account at the credit union (such as account promotional messages on the periodic statement).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other messages.</I> Examples of messages that are <I>not</I> advertisements are:
</P>
<P>i. Rate sheets published in newspapers, periodicals, or trade journals (unless the credit union or share and deposit broker that offers accounts at the credit union pays a fee to have the information included or otherwise controls publication).
</P>
<P>ii. Telephone conversations initiated by a member or potential member about an account.
</P>
<P>iii. An in-person discussion with a member about the terms for a specific account.
</P>
<P>iv. For purposes of § 707.8(b) of this part through § 707.8(e) of this part, information given to members about existing accounts, such as current rates recorded on a voice-response machine or notices for automatically renewable time account sent before renewal.
</P>
<P>v. Information about a particular transaction in an existing account.
</P>
<P>vi. Disclosures required by Federal or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>vii. A share account agreement.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Annual Percentage Yield.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The annual percentage yield (APY) is required for disclosures for new accounts, oral responses to inquiries about rates; disclosures provided upon request; initial disclosures (if the credit union chooses to provide full disclosures instead of the abbreviated notice); notices prior to the renewal of a term share account, if known at the time the notice is sent, and in advertising. The annual percentage yield shows the total amount of dividends for a 365 day period (or a 366 day period for a leap year) on an assumed principal amount based on the dividend rate and frequency of compounding as a percentage of the assumed principal (for accounts such as share or share draft accounts) or for the total amount of dividends over the term of the account for term share accounts. The annual percentage yield assumes the principal amount remains in the account for 365 days (366 days for leap year) or for the term of the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>How Annual Percentage Yield Differs from Annual Percentage Yield Earned.</I> The annual percentage yield (APY) differs from the annual percentage yield earned (APYE). The annual percentage yield earned is required for periodic statements only. The annual percentage yield earned shows the total amount of dividends earned for the dividend or statement period as a percent of the actual average daily balance in the member's account. Unlike the annual percentage yield, the annual percentage yield earned is affected by additions and withdrawals during the period. The annual percentage yield and the annual percentage yield earned must be calculated according to the formulas provided in appendix A to this rule.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Average Daily Balance Method
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> One of the two required methods (the daily balance is the other) of determining the balance upon which dividends must be accrued and paid. The average daily balance method requires the application of a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the average daily balance calculation period. The average daily balance is determined by adding the full amount of principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<HD2>(e) Board.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The NCUA Board.
</P>
<HD2>(f) Bonus 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Bonuses include items of value offered as incentives to members, such as an offer to pay the final installment deposit for a holiday club account if the final installment is over $10. Bonuses do not include the payment of dividends (including extraordinary dividends), the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits, or other consideration aggregating $10 or less per year. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of bonuses. 
</P>
<P>i. A credit union offers $25 to potential members for becoming a member and opening an account. The $25 could be provided by check, cash, or direct deposit. 
</P>
<P>ii. A credit union offers $25 to a member with only a regular share account to open a share draft account. The $25 could be provided by check, cash, or direct deposit. 
</P>
<P>iii. A credit union offers a portable radio with a value of $20 to members and potential members for opening a share draft account. 
</P>
<P>iv. A credit union pays the final installment deposit for a holiday club account if over $10. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples not comprising bonuses.</I> The following are examples of items that are <I>not</I> bonuses: 
</P>
<P>i. Discount coupons distributed by credit unions for use at restaurants or stores. 
</P>
<P>ii. A credit union offers $20 to any member if the member is responsible for encouraging a potential member to open an account. The $20 is not a bonus because the $20 is not paid to the individual opening the account. Any item, including cash, given or offered to a third party (that is not a joint member or joint owner in an account being opened) in exchange for a member or potential member opening (or a member renewing or adding to) an account is not a bonus. 
</P>
<P>iii. A credit union offers $25 to a member if the member can locate his name in the body of a newsletter. 
</P>
<P>iv. Life savings benefits. Many credit unions offer life savings benefits to beneficiaries of deceased members. Because the benefit accrues to a third party, such life savings plans offered are not bonuses. 
</P>
<P>v. A credit union offers to pay annual membership dues in a benevolent organization for a class of members. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>De minimis rule.</I> Items with a <I>de minimis</I> value of $10 or less are not bonuses. Credit unions may rely on the valuation standard used by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) to determine if the value of the item is <I>de minimis.</I> Items required to be reported by the credit union under IRS rules are bonuses under this regulation. Examples of items of <I>de minimis</I> values are: 
</P>
<P>i. Disability insurance premiums on a share account valued at an amount of $10 or less per year. 
</P>
<P>ii. Coffee mugs, T-shirts or other merchandise with a market value of $10 or less per year. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Aggregation.</I> In determining if an item valued at $10 or less is a bonus, credit unions must aggregate per account per calendar year items that may be given to members. In making this determination, credit unions aggregate per account only the market value of items that may be given for a specific promotion. To illustrate, assume a credit union offers in January to give members an item valued at $7 for each calendar quarter during the year that the average account balance in a share draft account exceeds $10,000. The bonus rules are triggered, since members are eligible under the promotion to receive up to $28 during the year. However, the bonus rules are not triggered if an item valued at $7 is offered to members opening a share draft account during the month of January, even though in November the credit union introduces a new promotion that includes, for example, an offer to existing share draft accountholders for an item valued at $8 for maintaining an average balance of $5,000 for the month. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Waiver or reduction of a fee or absorption of expenses.</I> Bonuses do not include value received by members through the waiver or reduction of fees for credit union-related services (even if the fees waived exceed $10), such as the following: 
</P>
<P>i. Waiving a safe deposit box rental fee for one year for members who open a new account. 
</P>
<P>ii. Waiving fees for travelers checks for members, and waiving check and share draft printing fees. 
</P>
<P>iii. Nondiscriminatorily waiving all fees for a particular class of members, such as seniors or minors. 
</P>
<P>iv. Discounts on interest rates charged for loans at the credit union. 
</P>
<P>v. Rebates of loan interest already paid by a member. 
</P>
<P>vi. Discounts on application fees charged for loans at the credit union. 
</P>
<P>vii. Packaged, linked, or tied-account services. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Non-dividend membership benefits.</I> Such benefits are not bonuses because they are sporadic in nature, often difficult to value, and providing non-dividend membership benefits is a long-standing unique credit union practice. (See commentary to § 707.2(r) for examples of such benefits.) 
</P>
<HD2>(g) Credit Union 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Includes credit unions in the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, U.S. Virgin Islands, and U.S. territories. Applies to credit unions whether or not the accounts in the credit union are federally, state, privately insured, or uninsured. 
</P>
<HD2>(h) Daily Balance Method 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> One of the two required methods (the average daily balance is the other) of determining the balance upon which dividends must be accrued and paid. The daily balance method requires the application of a daily periodic rate to the full amount of principal in the account each day.
</P>
<HD2>(i) Dividend and Dividends
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Member savings placed in share accounts are equity investments, and the returns earned on these accounts are dividends. Federal credit unions may only offer dividend-bearing and non-dividend-bearing share accounts. State-chartered credit unions may offer both share and deposit accounts if permitted by state law. State law, including without limitation regulations and official interpretations, will determine if returns earned in accounts in state-chartered credit unions are dividends. Dividends exclude the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits and extraordinary dividends. Dividend-bearing accounts must be either fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> Credit unions must follow appropriate law (state law for state-chartered credit unions and federal law for federal credit unions) in determining dividend policies and declaring dividends. Generally, dividends may be viewed as a portion of the available account and undivided earnings of the credit union which is set apart, after required transfer to reserves, by valid act of the board of directors, for distribution among the members. As a matter of legal procedure, members are usually not entitled to dividends until the following steps are completed: (1) The board of the credit union develops a nondiscriminatory dividend policy, by establishing dividend periods, dividend credit determination dates dividend distribution dates, any associated penalties (if applicable), and the method of dividend computation for each type of share account; (2) the provisions for required transfers to reserves are made; (3) sufficient and available prior and/or current earnings are available at the end of the dividend period; (4) the board formally makes a dividend declaration in accordance with the credit union's dividend policy; and (5) dividends must be paid to members by a credit to the appropriate share account, payment by check or share draft, or by a combination of the two methods.
</P>
<P>3. <I>When available.</I> Credit unions must follow the law of their primary chartering authority to determine when dividends are available. Generally, it is the declaration of the dividend itself which creates the dividend and the member has no right to receive a dividend until it is so declared. The decision of when to declare dividends lies within the official discretion of each credit union's board of directors and cannot be abrogated by contract. An agreement to pay dividends on a share account is generally interpreted not as an obligation to pay the stipulated dividends absolutely and unconditionally, but as an undertaking to pay them out of the earnings when sufficiently accumulated from which dividends in general are properly payable. Generally, “prospective rates” are rates set in good faith in advance of the close of a dividend period, that may be altered if sufficient funds are not available, or in the event of a superseding event, such as a strike, plant closure, significant fluctuation in market rates and/or a significant change in financial structure, natural disaster or emergency that alters the assumptions under which the “prospective rates” were made. It is the intent of TISA that all disclosure be accurate when made, and credit unions are urged to make every effort to ratify disclosed “prospective rates.” “Prospective rates” may also be referred to as “projected rates” or similar wording, but not as “estimated rates.” (See comment 3(b)-2, prohibiting use of estimates).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Sample dividend resolutions.</I> (i) The following resolution may be used where the dividend rates are set after the close of a dividend period.
</P>
<HD1>Resolution of Board of Directors for the Declaration of Dividends
</HD1>
<P>A. I, ________________, certify that I am Secretary of ________________ Credit Union Board of Directors, and that the following is a correct copy of the resolution for declaring dividend adopted by the ________________ Credit Union at a meeting of the Board of Directors duly and properly held on __________________, 19____. This resolution appears in the minutes of this meeting and has not been rescinded or modified.
</P>
<P>B. Resolved, that
</P>
<P>(1) The Board of Directors has developed a nondiscriminatory dividend policy, by establishing dividend periods, dividend credit determination dates, dividend distribution dates, any associated penalties (if applicable), and the method of dividend computation for each type of share account; 
</P>
<P>(2) The required transfers to reserves have been made; and
</P>
<P>(3) Sufficient and available prior and/or current earnings are available at the end of this dividend period.
</P>
<P>C. Resolved, further, that the Board of Directors now formally makes a dividend declaration in accordance with the Credit Union's dividend policy and authorizes that on ________________, 19____, dividends must be paid to members by a credit to the appropriate share account, payment by share draft or by a combination of the two methods.
</P>
<P>D. I further certify that the Board of Directors of this Credit Union has, and at the time of adoption of this resolution had, full power and lawful authority to adopt the foregoing resolutions and that this resolution revokes any prior resolution.
</P>
<P>In witness whereof, this is my signature and the date on which I signed this Resolution.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP>[Attach list of accounts with dividend rates for each type of account.]
</FP>
<P>(ii) The following resolution may be used where the dividend rates are set before the close of a dividend period.


</P>
<HD1>Resolution of Board of Directors for the Declaration of Dividends
</HD1>
<P>A. I, ________________, certify that I am the Secretary of ________________ Credit Union, and that the following is a correct copy of the resolution for declaring dividends adopted by the ________________ Credit Union at a meeting of the Board of Directors duly and properly held on ____________________, 19____. This resolution appears in the minutes of that meeting and has not been rescinded or modified.
</P>
<P>B. Resolved, that the Board of Directors has adopted a nondiscriminatory dividend policy, by establishing dividend periods, dividend credit determination dates, dividend distribution dates, any associated penalties (if applicable) and the method of dividend computation for each type of share account.
</P>
<P>C. Resolved, that it is the policy and practice of the Board of Directors to meet periodically to establish prospective dividend rates for each type of dividend-bearing share account.
</P>
<P>D. Resolved, that if the required transfers to reserves have been made and there are sufficient and available prior and/or current earnings available at the end of a dividend period, the officers of the Credit Union are authorized to pay dividends at the rate prospectively established by the Board of Directors for each account for the dividend period. The officers may pay the dividends without any further action of the Board of Directors. The act of paying the dividends shall constitute the declaration of the dividends and shall be a ratification of the prospective dividend rate.
</P>
<P>In witness whereof, this is my signature and the date on which I signed this Resolution.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP>[Attach list of accounts with prospective dividend rates for each type of account.]
</FP>
<P>5. <I>Referencing.</I> Except where specifically stated otherwise, use of the term “share” in part 707, as in “share account,” also refers to “deposit,” as in “deposit account,” where appropriate (for interest-bearing or non-interest-bearing deposit accounts at some state-chartered credit unions).
</P>
<HD2>(j) Dividend Declaration Date
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The importance of the dividend declaration date is to tie the last paid dividend to a certain period of time to place members and potential members on notice that the last paid dividend is different from the next dividend to be paid. In order to achieve this purpose, a credit union may use any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>i. “As of 3/15/95” (the date the board of directors last met and declared the last paid dividend).
</P>
<P>ii. “As of 3/31/95” (the last day of the last dividend period upon which a dividend has been paid).
</P>
<P>iii. “For the period 1/1/95 to 3/31/95” (the last dividend period upon which a dividend has been paid).
</P>
<P>iv. “For the first quarter of 1995” (the last dividend period upon which a dividend has been paid).
</P>
<P>v. “For April 1995” (the last dividend period upon which a dividend has been paid).
</P>
<P>vi. “As of the last dividend declaration date” (the last dividend period upon which a dividend has been paid). 
</P>
<HD2>(k) Dividend Period
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The dividend period is to be set by a credit union's board of directors for each account type, e.g., regular share, share draft, money market share, and term share. The most common dividend periods are weekly, monthly, quarterly, semi-annually, and annually. Dividend periods need not agree with calendar months, e.g., a monthly dividend period could begin March 15 and end April 14.
</P>
<HD2>(l) Dividend Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The dividend rate does not reflect compounding. Compounding is reflected in the “annual percentage yield” definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Referencing.</I> Except where specifically stated otherwise, use of the term “dividend rate” in part 707 also refers to “interest rate,” where appropriate (for interest-bearing and non-interest-bearing deposit accounts at some state-chartered credit unions).
</P>
<HD2>(m) Extraordinary Dividends
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The definition encompasses all irregularly scheduled and declared dividends, and as dividends, extraordinary dividends are exempt from the “bonus” disclosure requirements. Extraordinary dividends do not have to be disclosed on account disclosures, but the dollar amount of an extraordinary dividend credited to the account during the statement period does have to be separately disclosed on the periodic statement for the dividend period during which the extraordinary dividends are earned. Extraordinary dividends, like ordinary dividends, do not include the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses or non-dividend membership benefits. See comments 2(f) 1 through 7 and 2(i) 1 through 4. Extraordinary dividends may be calculated by any means determined by the board of directors of a credit union and may not be used in the annual percentage yield earned calculation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of synonym.</I> Extraordinary dividends may be described as “bonus dividends.”
</P>
<HD2>(n) Fixed-Rate Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Includes all accounts in which the credit union, by contract, agrees to give at least 30 days advance written notice of decreases in the dividend rate. Thus, credit unions can decrease rates only after providing advance written notice of rate decreases, <I>e.g.,</I> a “change-in-terms notice.”
</P>
<HD2>(o) Grace Period
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A period after maturity of an automatically renewing term share account during which the member may withdraw funds without being assessed a penalty. Use of a “grace period” is discretionary, not mandatory. This definition does not refer to the “grace period” account, which is a synonym for “federal rollback method” or “in by the 10th” accounts, which are prohibited by TISA and part 707.
</P>
<HD2>(p) Interest
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Member savings placed in deposit accounts are debt investments, and the return earned on these accounts is interest. Federal credit unions are not authorized to offer any interest-bearing deposit accounts. State-chartered credit unions may offer both share and deposit accounts if permitted by state law. State law, including without limitation regulations and official interpretations, will determine if returns earned in accounts in state-chartered credit unions are interest. Interest excludes the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver of reduction of a fee, the absorption of expenses, non-dividend membership benefits, and extraordinary dividends.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Differences between dividends and interest.</I> Generally, dividends are returns on an equity investment (shares); interest is return on a debt investment (deposits). Dividends, in general, are not properly payable until declared at the close of a dividend period; interest, in general, is properly payable daily according to the deposit contract. Dividend rates are prospective until actually declared; interest rates are set according to contract in advance and are earned on that basis. Share accounts establish a member (owner)/credit union (cooperative) relationship; deposit accounts establish a depositor (creditor)/depository (debtor) relationship.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Referencing.</I> Except where specifically stated otherwise, use of the terms “dividend” or “dividends” in part 707 also refers to “interest” where appropriate (for interest-bearing and non-interest-bearing deposit accounts at some state-chartered credit unions).
</P>
<HD2>(q) Member
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Professional capacity.</I> Examples of accounts held by a natural person in a professional capacity for another are:
</P>
<P>i. Attorney-client trust accounts.
</P>
<P>ii. Trust, estate and court-ordered accounts.
</P>
<P>iii. Landlord-tenant security accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other accounts.</I> Examples of accounts <I>not</I> held in a professional capacity include accounts held by parents for a child under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act (or Uniform Transfers to Minors Act.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Retirement plans.</I> IRAs and SEP accounts are member accounts to the extent that funds are invested in accounts subject to the regulation. Keogh accounts, like sole proprietor accounts, are not subject to the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>(r) Non-Dividend Membership Benefits
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Term reflects unique credit union practices that are difficult to value, encourage community spirit, and are not granted in such quantity as to be includable as calculable dividends.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. Food, refreshments, and drawings and raffles at annual meetings, member functions, and branch openings.
</P>
<P>ii. Travel club benefits.
</P>
<P>iii. Prizes offered at annual meetings, such as U.S. Savings Bonds, a deposit of funds into the winner's account, trips, and other gifts. Such prizes are not bonuses because they are offered as an incentive to increase attendance at the annual meeting, and not to entice members to open, maintain, or renew accounts or increase an account balance. 
</P>
<P>iv. Life savings benefits. 
</P>
<HD2>(s) Passbook Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation E.</I> Passbook accounts include accounts accessed by preauthorized electronic fund transfers to the account (as defined in 12 CFR 1005.2(k)), such as an account credited by direct share and deposit of social security payments. Accounts that permit access by other electronic means are not “passbook accounts,” and any statements that are sent four or more times a year must comply with the requirements of § 707.6. 
</P>
<HD2>(t) Periodic Statement 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Periodic statements are not required by part 707. Passbook and term share accounts are exempt from periodic statement requirements. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Periodic statements do not include: 
</P>
<P>i. Additional statements provided solely upon request. 
</P>
<P>ii. General service information such as a quarterly newsletter or other correspondence that describes available services and products. 
</P>
<HD2>(u) Potential Member 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A potential member is a natural person eligible for membership in a credit union, who has not yet taken the steps necessary to become a member. The term also includes natural person nonmembers eligible to hold accounts in a credit union pursuant to relevant federal or state law. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Verification of eligibility.</I> It is recommended that credit unions have sound written procedures in place to identify those eligible for membership. If these procedures include verification measures, such as an application process, verification telephone call or letter to an employer or association within the field of membership, witnessing by an existing member, or similar procedure, then the credit union may first verify the membership eligibility of a potential member before providing account disclosures or other information to the potential member. This process of verifying a member's eligibility status, making a recommendation for membership, and providing account disclosures should be completed within 20 calendar days. This period also applies when potential members not on credit union premises request disclosures. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Nonmembers.</I> Within its sole discretion, the board of directors of a credit union may provide TISA disclosures to nonmembers who are ineligible for membership or to hold an account at the credit union. If disclosures are made to such nonmembers, it is the position of the Board that no civil liability can accrue to the credit union for any errors in such disclosures. (See commentary to § 707.3(d)). 
</P>
<HD2>(v) State 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Territories and possessions include American Samoa, Guam, the Mariana Islands, and the Marshall Islands. 
</P>
<HD2>(w) Stepped-Rate Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Stepped-rate accounts are those accounts in which two or more dividend rates (known at the time the account is opened) will take effect in succeeding periods. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> An example of a stepped-rate account is a one-year term share certificate account in which a 5.00% dividend rate is paid for the first six months, and 5.50% for the second six months. 
</P>
<HD2>(x) Term Share Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relation to the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D.</I> Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D permits, in limited circumstances, the withdrawal of funds without penalty during the first six days after a “time deposit” is opened. (See 12 CFR 204.2(c)(1)(i).) But the fact that a member makes a withdrawal as permitted by Regulation D does not disqualify the account from being a term share account for purposes of this regulation (such as withdrawals upon the death of the member, or within a “grace period” for automatically renewable term share accounts). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Club accounts.</I> Club accounts, including Christmas club, holiday club, and vacation club accounts may be either term share or regular share accounts, depending on the terms of the account. Although club accounts typically have a maturity date, they are not term share accounts unless they also require a penalty of at least seven days' dividends for withdrawals during the first six days after the account is opened. 
</P>
<HD2>(y) Tiered-Rate Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Tiered-rate accounts are those accounts in which two or more dividend rates are paid on the account and are determined by reference to a specified balance level. Tiered-rate accounts are of two types: Tiering Method A and Tiering Method B. In Tiering Method A accounts, the credit union pays the applicable tiered dividends rate on the entire amount in the account. This method is also known as the “hybrid” or “plateau” tiered-rate account. In Tiering Method B accounts, the credit union does not pay the applicable tiered dividends rate on the entire amount in the account, but only on the portion of the share account balance that falls within each specified tier. This method is also known as the “pure” or “split-rate” tiered-rate account. (See appendix A, part I, D.) 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> An example of a tiered-rate account is one in which a credit union pays a 5.00% dividend rate on balances below $1,000, and 5.50% on balances $1,000 and above. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Term share accounts.</I> Term share accounts that pay different rates based solely on the amount of the initial share and deposit are not tiered-rate accounts.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Minimum balance accounts.</I> A requirement to maintain a minimum balance to earn dividends does not make an account a tiered-rate account. If dividends are not paid on amounts below a specified balance level, then the account has a minimum balance requirement (required to be disclosed under § 707.4(b)(3)(i)), but the account does not constitute a tiered-rate account. A zero rate (0%) cannot constitute a tier. Minimum balance accounts are single rate accounts with a minimum balance requirement.
</P>
<HD2>(z) Variable-Rate Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Includes accounts in which the credit union does not contract to give at least 30 days advance written notice of decreases in the dividend rate. An account meets this definition whether the rate change is determined by reference to an index, by use of a formula, or merely at the discretion of the credit union's board of directors. An account that permits one or more rate adjustments prior to maturity at the member's option, such as a rate relock option, is a variable-rate account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Differences between fixed-rate and variable-rate accounts.</I> All accounts must either be fixed-rate or variable-rate accounts. Classifying an account as variable-rate affects credit unions three ways:
</P>
<P>i. Additional account disclosures are required (§ 707.4(b)(1)(ii));
</P>
<P>ii. Rate decreases are exempted from change-in-terms requirements (§ 707.5(a)(2)(i)); and
</P>
<P>iii. Advertising notice required (§ 707.8(c)(1)).
</P>
<P>Fixed-rate accounts require a contract term obligating the credit union to a 30-day advance, written notice to members before decreasing the dividend rate on the account. Term changes adversely affecting the member and rate decreases cannot take effect until 30 days after such fixed-rate change-in-terms notices are mailed or delivered to members (§ 707.5(a)).
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.3—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Form
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> All required disclosures (e.g., account disclosures, change-in-terms notices, term share renewal/maturity notices, statement disclosures and advertising disclosures) must be made clearly and conspicuously, in a form the member may retain. Disclosures need be made only as applicable (e.g., disclosures for a non-dividend-bearing account would not include disclosure of annual percentage yield, dividend rate, or other disclosures pertaining to dividend calculations).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Design requirements.</I> Disclosures must be presented in a format that allows members and potential members to readily understand the terms of their account. Credit unions are not required to use a particular type size or typeface, nor are credit unions required to state any term more conspicuously than any other term. Disclosures may be made:
</P>
<P>i. In any order.
</P>
<P>ii. In combination with other disclosures or account terms.
</P>
<P>iii. In combination with disclosures for other types of accounts, as long as it is clear to members and potential members which disclosures apply to their account.
</P>
<P>iv. On more than one page and on the front and reverse sides.
</P>
<P>v. By using inserts to a document or filling in blanks.
</P>
<P>vi. On more than one document, as long as the documents are provided at the same time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consistent terminology.</I> A credit union must use the same terminology to describe terms or features that are required to be disclosed. For example, if a credit union describes a monthly fee (regardless of account activity), as a “monthly service fee” in account opening disclosures, the periodic statements and change-in-terms notices must use the same terminology so that members and potential members can readily identify the fee.
</P>
<HD2>(b) General
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Terms and conditions.</I> Credit unions are required to have disclosures reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the credit union and a member at the time the member opens the account. This provision does not impose any contract terms or supersede state or other laws that define how the legal obligations between a credit union and its membership are determined.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Specificity of legal obligation.</I> Credit unions may refer to the calendar month or to roughly equivalent intervals during a calendar year as a “month.” Use of estimates is prohibited in TISA disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Foreign language.</I> Disclosures may be made in any foreign language, if desired by the board of directors of a credit union. However, disclosures must also be provided in English, upon request.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Relation to Regulation E
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Compliance with Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) is deemed to satisfy the disclosure requirements of this regulation, such as when:
</P>
<P>i. A credit union changes a term that triggers a notice under Regulation E, and the timing and disclosure rules of Regulation E for sending change-in-terms notices.
</P>
<P>ii. A member adds an ATM access feature to an account, and the credit union provides disclosures pursuant to Regulation E, including disclosure of fees before the member receives ATM access. (See 12 CFR 1005.7.)
</P>
<P>iii. A credit union complying with the timing rules of Regulation E discloses at the same time fees for electronic services (such as balance inquiry fees imposed if the inquiry is made at an ATM) that are required to be disclosed by this regulation, but not by Regulation E.
</P>
<P>iv. A credit union relies on Regulation E's rules regarding disclosures of limitations on the frequency and amount of electronic fund transfers, including security-related exceptions. But any limitation on the number of “intra-institutional transfers” to or from the member's other accounts at the credit union during a given time period must be disclosed, even though intra-institutional transfers are exempt from Regulation E.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Multiple Members
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> When an account has multiple natural person member accountholders, delivery of disclosures to any member accountholder or agent authorized by the accountholder satisfies the disclosure requirements of part 707.
</P>
<HD2>(e) Oral Response to Inquiries
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of rule.</I> Credit unions need not provide rate information orally. Disclosures need be made only as appropriate. For example, the requirement to give a telephone number for a member to call about rates for interest-bearing accounts and dividend-bearing term share accounts, would not be necessary for members calling the credit union for information. Also, the disclosure requirements are applicable only to credit union employees and volunteers acting in the ordinary course of credit union business.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to advertising.</I> The advertising rules do not cover an oral response to a question about rates.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Existing accounts.</I> This paragraph does not apply to oral responses about rate information for existing term share accounts or accounts not currently offered. For example, if a member holding a one-year term share account requests dividend rate information about the account during the term, the credit union need not disclose the annual percentage yield, unless the member is calling for rate information under a maturity notice.
</P>
<HD2>(f) Rounding and Accuracy Rules for Rates and Yields
</HD2>
<HD2>(f)(1) Rounding
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Permissible rounding.</I> The annual percentage yield, annual percentage yield earned and dividend rate must be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percentage point (.01%) when disclosed. Examples of permissible rounding are an annual percentage yield calculated to be 5.644%, rounded down and shown as 5.64%; 5.645% would be rounded up and disclosed as 5.65%. For account disclosures, the dividend rate may be expressed to more than two decimal places.
</P>
<HD2>(f)(2) Accuracy
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned.</I> The tolerance for annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned calculations is designed to accommodate inadvertent errors. Credit unions may not purposely incorporate the one-twentieth of one percentage point (.05%) tolerance into their calculation of yields.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Dividend rate.</I> There is no tolerance for an inaccuracy in the dividend rate.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.4—Account Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Delivery of Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>(a)(1) Account Opening
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>New accounts.</I> New account disclosures must be provided when:
</P>
<P>i. A term share account that does not automatically rollover is renewed by a member.
</P>
<P>ii. A member changes the term for a renewable term share account (from a one-year term share account to a six-month term share account, for instance) (see comment 5(b)-5 regarding disclosure alternatives).
</P>
<P>iii. A credit union transfers funds from an account to open a new account not at the member's request, unless the credit union previously gave account disclosures and any change-in-terms notices for the new account (e.g., funds in a money market share account are transferred by a credit union to open a new account for the member, such as a share draft account, because the member exceeded transaction limitations on the money market share account).
</P>
<P>iv. A credit union accepts a deposit from a member to an account that the credit union had previously deemed to be “closed,” under applicable federal or state law, for the purpose of treating accrued, but uncredited, dividends as forfeited dividends. New account numbers are not required by this requirement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> New account disclosures need not be given when a credit union acquires an account through an acquisition of, or merger with, another credit union (but see § 707.5(a) regarding advance notice requirements if terms are changed).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combination disclosures.</I> New account disclosures need not be given when a member has already received disclosures covering several accounts, and opens a new account properly disclosed by the already received combination disclosures, if the new account is opened within a reasonable amount of time after receipt of the combination disclosures and if the received disclosures and terms are accurate at the time the new account is opened.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(2) Requests
</HD2>
<HD2>(a)(2)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Inquiries versus requests.</I> A response to an oral inquiry (by telephone or in person) about rates and yields or fees does not trigger the duty to provide account disclosures. But, when a member asks for written information about an account (whether by telephone, in person, or by other means), the credit union must provide disclosures unless the account is no longer offered to the public.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General requests.</I> When members or potential members request disclosures about a type of account (a share draft account, for example), a credit union that offers several variations may provide disclosures for any one of them. No disclosures need be made to nonmembers, though a credit union may provide disclosures to nonmembers within its sole discretion.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing for response.</I> Ten business days is a reasonable time for responding to requests for account information that members or potential members do not make in person, including requests made by electronic means, such as by electronic mail.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Use of electronic means.</I> If a member or potential member who is not present at the credit union makes a request for account disclosures, including a request made by telephone, e-mail, or via the credit union's Web site, the credit union may send the disclosures in paper form or, if the member or potential member agrees, may provide the disclosures electronically, such as to an e-mail address that the member or potential member provides for that purpose, or on the credit union's Web site, without regard to the consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act. The regulation does not require a credit union to provide, nor a member or potential member to agree to receive, the disclosures required by § 707.4(a)(2) in electronic form.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(2)(ii)(A)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Recent rates.</I> Credit unions comply with this paragraph if they disclose an interest rate (or dividend rate on a dividend-bearing term share account) and annual percentage yield accurate within the seven calendar days preceding the date they send the disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(2)(ii)(B)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Term.</I> Describing the maturity of a term share account as “1 year” or “6 months,” for example, illustrates a response stating the maturity of a term share account as a term rather than a date (e.g., “June 1, 1995”).
</P>
<HD2>(b) Content of Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(1) Rate Information
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(1)(i) Annual Percentage Yield and Dividend Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rate disclosures.</I> In addition to the dividend rate and annual percentage yield, credit unions may disclose a periodic rate corresponding to the dividend rate. No other rate or yield (such as “tax effective yield”) is permitted. If the annual percentage yield is the same as the dividend rate, credit unions may disclose a single figure but must use both terms.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fixed-rate accounts.</I> For fixed-rate term share accounts paying the opening rate until maturity, credit unions may disclose the period of time the dividend rate will be in effect by stating, or cross-referencing, the maturity date. For other fixed-rate accounts, credit unions may use a date (such as “This rate will be in effect through June 30, 1995”) or a period (such as “This rate will be in effect for at least 30 days”).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> Each dividend rate, along with the corresponding annual percentage yield for each specified balance level (or range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate), must be disclosed for tiered-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph D.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Stepped-rate accounts.</I> A single composite annual percentage yield must be disclosed for stepped-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph B.) The dividend rates and the period of time each will be in effect also must be provided. When the initial rate offered for a specified time on a variable-rate account is higher or lower than the rate that would otherwise be paid on the account, the calculation of the annual percentage yield must be made as if for a stepped-rate account. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph C.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Minimum balance accounts.</I> If a credit union sets a minimum balance to earn dividends, the credit union may, but need not, state that the annual percentage yield is 0% for those days the balance in the account drops below the minimum balance level when using the daily balance method. Nor is a disclosure of 0% required for credit unions using the average daily balance method, if the member fails to meet the minimum balance required for the average daily balance period. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(1)(ii) Variable Rates 
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(1)(ii)(B)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determining dividend rates.</I> To disclose how the dividend rate is determined, credit unions must:
</P>
<P>i. Identify the index and specific margin, if the dividend rate is tied to an index. 
</P>
<P>ii. State that rate changes are within the credit union's discretion, if the credit union does not tie changes to an index.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(1)(ii)(C)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Frequency of rate changes.</I> A credit union reserving the right to change rates at its discretion must state the fact that rates may change at any time. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(1)(ii)(D)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Limitations.</I> A floor or ceiling on rates or on the amount the rate may decrease or increase during any time period must be disclosed. Credit unions need not disclose the absence of limitations on rate changes.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(2) Compounding and Crediting
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(2)(i) Frequency
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Descriptions such as “quarterly” or “monthly” are sufficient. Irregular crediting and compounding periods, such as if a cycle is out short at year end for tax reporting purposes, need not be disclosed. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Dividend period.</I> For dividend-bearing accounts, the dividend period must be disclosed. (A specific example must also be given, see appendix B, § B-1(c).) The dividend period for term share accounts generally may be disclosed as the account's term (e.g., two years).
</P>
<HD2>(b)(2)(ii) Effect of Closing an Account 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Deeming an account closed.</I> A credit union may, subject to state or other law, provide in account contracts the actions by members that will be treated as closing the account and that will result in the forfeiture of accrued but uncredited dividends. An example is the withdrawal of all funds from the account prior to the date dividends are credited. Credit unions are cautioned that bylaw requirements may prevent a credit union from deeming a member's account closed until certain time periods are extinguished if funds remain in a member's account. <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws,</I> Art. III, § 3. Such bylaw requirements may not be overridden without proper agency approval. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(3) Balance Information 
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(3)(i) Minimum Balance Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Par value.</I> Credit unions must disclose any minimum balance required to open the account, to avoid the imposition of a fee, or to obtain the annual percentage yield. Since members cannot generally maintain any accounts until the par value of the membership share is paid in full, this section requires that credit unions disclose the par value of a share necessary to become a member and maintain accounts at the credit union. The par value of a share and the minimum balance requirement do not have to be the same amount (e.g., a credit union may have a $5 par value for a membership share, in order for accounts to be opened and maintained, and a $100 minimum balance requirement, in order for the account to earn dividends). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosures.</I> The explanation of minimum balance computation methods may be combined with the balance computation method disclosures (§ 707.4(b)(3)(ii)) if they are the same. If a credit union uses different cycles for determining minimum balance requirements for purposes of assessing fees and for paying dividends, the credit union must disclose the specific cycle or time period used for each purpose (e.g., use of a midmonth statement cycle for determining dividends, and use of a calendar month cycle for determining fees). Credit unions may assess fees by using any method. If fees on one account are tied to the balance in another account, such provision must be explained (e.g., if share draft fees are tied to a minimum balance in the regular share account (or a combination of the share draft and regular share accounts), the share draft account must explain that fact and how the balance in the regular share account (or both accounts) is determined). The fee need not be disclosed in the account disclosures if the fee is not imposed on that account. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(3)(ii) Balance Computation Method
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Methods and periods.</I> Credit unions may use different methods or periods to calculate minimum balances for purposes of imposing a fee (the daily balance for a calendar month, for example) and accruing dividends (the average daily balance for a statement period, for example). Each method and corresponding period must be disclosed.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(3)(iii) When dividends begin to accrue
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Additional information.</I> Credit unions must include a statement as to when dividends begin to accrue for noncash deposits. Credit unions may disclose additional information such as the time of day after which deposits are treated as having been received the following business day, and may use additional descriptive terms such as “ledger” or “collected” balances to disclose when dividends begin to accrue. Under the ledger balance method, dividends begin to accrue on the day of deposit. Under the collected balance methods, dividends begin to accrue when provisional credit is received for the item deposited.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(4) Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Types of fees.</I> Fees related to the routine use of an account must be disclosed. The following are types of fees that must be disclosed in connection with an account:
</P>
<P>i. Maintenance fees, such as monthly service fees.
</P>
<P>ii. Fees related to share deposits or withdrawals.
</P>
<P>iii. Fees for special services, such as stop payment fees, fees for balance inquiries or verification of share and deposits, fees associated with checks returned unpaid, fees for regularly sending to members share drafts that otherwise would be held by the credit union, and overdraft line of credit access fees (if charged against the share account).
</P>
<P>iv. Fees to open or to close an account.
</P>
<P>v. Fees imposed upon dormant or inactive accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other fees.</I> Credit unions need not disclose fees such as the following:
</P>
<P>i. Fees for services offered to members and nonmembers alike, such as fees for certain travelers checks, for wire transfers and automated clearinghouse (ACH) transfers, to process credit card cash advances, or to handle U.S. Savings Bond Redemption (even if different amounts are charged to members and nonmembers).
</P>
<P>ii. Incidental fees, such as fees associated with state escheat laws, garnishment or attorneys fees, to change names on an account, to generate a midcycle periodic statement, to wrap loose coins, for photocopying, for statements returned to the credit union because of a wrong address, and locator fees.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amount of fees.</I> Credit unions are cautioned that merely providing fee information in an account disclosure may not be sufficient to gain the legal right to impose the fee involved under applicable law. Credit unions must state the amount and conditions under which a fee may be imposed. Naming and describing the fee typically satisfies this requirement. Some examples are:
</P>
<P>i. “$4.00 monthly service fee”.
</P>
<P>ii. $7.00 and up” or “fee depends on style of checks ordered” for check printing fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Tied-accounts.</I> Credit unions must state if fees that may be assessed against an account are tied to other accounts at the credit union. For example, if a credit union ties the fees payable on a share draft account to balances held in the share draft account and in a regular share account, the share draft account disclosures must state that fact and explain how the fee is determined.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Regulation E statements.</I> Some fees are required to be disclosed under both Regulation E (12 CFR 1005.7) and part 707. If such fees, such as ATM transaction fees, are disclosed on a Regulation E statement, they need not be disclosed again on a periodic statement required under part 707.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Fees for overdrawing an account.</I> Under § 707.4(b)(4) of this part, credit unions must disclose the conditions under which a fee may be imposed. In satisfying this requirement credit unions must specify the categories of transactions for which an overdraft fee may be imposed. An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. It is sufficient for a credit union to state that the fee applies to overdrafts “created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means.” Disclosing a fee “for overdraft items” would not be sufficient.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(5) Transaction Limitations
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Examples of limitations on the number of dollar amount of share deposits or withdrawals that credit unions must disclose are:
</P>
<P>i. Limits on the number of share drafts or checks that may be written on an account for a given time period.
</P>
<P>ii. Limits on withdrawals or share deposits during the term of a term share account.
</P>
<P>iii. Limitations required by Regulation D, such as the number of withdrawals permitted from money market share accounts by check to third parties each month (credit unions need not disclose reservation of right to require a notice for withdrawals from accounts required by federal or state law).
</P>
<HD2>(b)(6) Features of Term Share Accounts
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(6)(i) Time Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>“Callable” term share accounts.</I> In addition to the maturity date, credit unions must state the date or the circumstances under which the credit union may redeem a term share account at the credit union's option (a “callable” term share account).
</P>
<HD2>(b)(6)(ii) Early Withdrawal Penalties
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The term “penalty” may, but need not, be used to describe the loss that may be incurred by members for early withdrawal of funds from term share accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of early withdrawal penalties are:
</P>
<P>i. Monetary penalties, such as a specific dollar amount (<I>e.g.,</I> “$10.00”) or a specific days' worth of dividends (<I>e.g.,</I> “seven days' dividends plus accrued but uncredited dividends, but only if the account is closed”).
</P>
<P>ii. Adverse changes to terms such as the lowering of the dividend rate, annual percentage yield, or reducing the compounding or crediting frequency for funds remaining in shares or on deposit.
</P>
<P>iii. Reclamation of bonuses.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to rules for IRAs or similar plans.</I> Penalties imposed by the Internal Revenue Code for certain withdrawals from IRAs or similar pension or savings plans are not early withdrawal penalties for purposes of this regulation. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosing penalties.</I> Penalties may be stated in months, whether credit unions assess the penalty using the actual number of days during the period or using another method such as a number of days that occurs in any actual sequence of the total calendar months involved. For example, stating “one month's dividends” is permissible, whether the credit union assesses 30 days' dividends during the month of April, or selects a time period between 28 and 31 days for calculating the dividends for all early withdrawals regardless of when the penalty is assessed. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(6)(iv) Renewal Policies 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rollover term share accounts.</I> Credit unions are not required to provide a grace period, to pay dividends during the grace period, or to disclose whether or not dividends will be paid during the grace period. Credit unions offering a grace period on term share accounts must give the length of the grace period. Commentary, appendix B, Model Clauses, § B-1(i)(iv). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Nonrollover term share accounts.</I> Credit unions that pay dividends on funds following the maturity of term share accounts that do not renew automatically need not state the rate (or annual percentage yield) that may be paid. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(7) Bonuses 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Credit unions are required to state the amount and type of bonus, and disclose any minimum balance or time requirement to obtain the bonus and when the bonus will be provided. If the minimum balance or time requirement is otherwise required to be disclosed, credit unions need not duplicate the disclosure for purposes of this paragraph. 
</P>
<HD2>(b)(8) Nature of Dividends 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Dividends are not payable until declared and unless sufficient current and undivided earnings are available after required transfers to reserves at the close of a dividend period. A disclosure explaining dividends educates members and protects credit unions in the event that a prospective dividend cannot be paid, or is not properly payable. This disclosure is required for all dividend-bearing share accounts. Term share accounts need not include a statement regarding the nature of dividends. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>State-chartered credit unions with interest-bearing deposit accounts.</I> State law controls the nature of accounts (i.e., whether an account is a share account or a deposit account). If a member of a state-chartered credit union is opening only an interest-bearing deposit account, or is requesting account disclosures only for an interest-bearing deposit account (if state law requires the depositor to hold a share account), the disclosures must generally include the following information on any dividend-bearing share portion of the account (e.g., membership share): the par value of a share; a statement that the portion of the deposit that represents the par value of the membership share will earn dividends, and that dividends are paid from current income and available earnings after required transfers to reserves. Further additional disclosures, such as a separate dividend rate and annual percentage yield for the membership share, are not required (if the additional disclosures would agree with the remainder of the account which is invested in an interest-bearing deposit). 
</P>
<HD2>(c) Notice to Existing Accountholders 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Only members who receive periodic statements (provided regularly at least four times per year) and who hold accounts of the type offered by the credit union as of the compliance date of part 707 (generally January 1, 1995) must receive the notice. If following receipt of the notice members request disclosures, credit unions have twenty calendar days from receipt of the request to provide the disclosures. Rate and annual percentage yield information in such disclosures must conform to that required for disclosures upon request. As an alternative to including the notice in or on the periodic statement, the final rule permits credit unions to send the account disclosures themselves, as long as they are sent at the same time as the periodic statement (the disclosures may be mailed either with the periodic statement or separately). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice may be included on the periodic statement, in a member newsletter, or on a statement stuffer or other insert, if it is clear and conspicuous. The notice cannot be sent in a separate mailing from the periodic statement. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing.</I> The notice may accompany the first periodic statement after the compliance date for part 707, or the periodic statement for the first cycle beginning after that date. For example, a credit union's statement cycle is December 15, 1994-January 14, 1995. The statement is mailed on January 15, The next cycle is January 15, 1995 through February 14, 1995, and the statement for that cycle is mailed on February 15. The credit union may provide the notice either on or with the January 15 statement or on or with the February 15 statement, as it covers the first cycle after January 1, 1995. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Early compliance.</I> Credit unions that provide the notice to existing members prior to the compliance date of part 707, must be prepared to provide accurate and timely disclosures when, following receipt of the notice, members ask for account disclosures. Such disclosures must be provided even if they are requested before the compliance date of part 707. Credit unions who provide early notice to existing members need to comply with other aspects of part 707, but need not provide disclosures already provided in compliance with part 707. 
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.5—Subsequent Disclosures 
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Change in Terms 
</HD2>
<HD2>(a)(1) Advance Notice required 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of notice.</I> Credit unions may provide a change-in-term notice on or with a regular periodic statement or in another mailing (such as a highlighted portion of a newsletter or statement stuffer insert). If a credit union provides notice through revised account disclosures, the changed term must be highlighted in some manner. For example, credit unions may state that a particular fee has been changed (also specifying the new amount) or use an accompanying letter that refers to the changed term. Credit unions are cautioned that unless credit unions have reserved the right to change terms in the account agreement or disclosures, a change-in-terms notice may not be sufficient to amend the terms under applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effective date.</I> An example of a language for disclosing the effective date of a change is: “As of May 11, 1995”.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terms that change upon the occurrence of an event.</I> A credit union offering terms that will automatically change upon the occurrence of a stated event need not send an advance notice of the change provided the credit union fully describes the conditions of the change in the account opening disclosures (and sends any change-in-term notices regardless of whether the changed term affects that member's account at that time).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of changes not requiring an advance change-in-terms notice are:
</P>
<P>i. The termination of employment for employee-members for whom account maintenance or activity fees were waived during their employment by the credit union.
</P>
<P>ii. The expiration of one year in a promotion described in the account opening disclosures to “waive $4.00 monthly service charges for one year”.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(2) No Notice Required 
</HD2>
<HD2>(a)(2)(ii) Check Printing Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Increase in fees.</I> A notice is not required for an increase in fees for printing share drafts (or deposit and withdrawal slips) even if the credit union adds some amount to the price charged by the vendor.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Notice Before Maturity for Term Share Accounts Longer Than One Month That Renew Automatically.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Maturity dates on nonbusiness days.</I> In determining the term of a term share account, credit unions may disregard the fact that the term will be extended beyond the disclosed number of days if the maturity date falls on a nonbusiness day. For example, a holiday or weekend may cause a “one-year” term share account to extend beyond 365 days (or 366, in a leap year), or a “one-month” term share account to extend beyond 31 days.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosing when rates will be determined.</I> Ways to disclose when the annual percentage yield will be available include the use of:
</P>
<P>i. A specific date, such as “October 28”.
</P>
<P>ii. A date that is easily discernible, such as “the Tuesday prior to the maturity date stated on the notice” or “as of the maturity date stated on this notice”.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Alternative timing rule.</I> Under the alternative timing rule, a credit union that offers a 10-day grace period would have to provide the disclosures at least 10 calendar days prior to the scheduled maturity date.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Club accounts.</I> If members have agreed to the transfer of payments from another account to a club term share account for the next club period, the credit union must comply with the requirements for automatically renewable term share accounts—even though members may withdraw funds from the club account at the end of the current club period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Renewal of a term share account.</I> In the case of a change-in-terms that becomes effective if a rollover term share account is subsequently renewed:
</P>
<P>i. If the change is initiated by the credit union, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph apply. (Section 707.5(a) applies if the change becomes effective prior to the maturity of the existing term share account.)
</P>
<P>ii. If the change is initiated by the member, the account opening disclosure requirements of § 707.4(b) apply. (If the notice required by this paragraph has been provided, credit unions may give new account disclosures or disclosures that reflect the new term.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Example.</I> If a member receives a notice prior to maturity on a one-year term share account and requests a rollover to a six-month account, the credit union must provide either account opening disclosures including the new maturity date or, if all other terms previously disclosed in the prematurity notice remain the same, only the new maturity date.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(1) Maturities of Longer Than One Year
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Highlighting changed terms.</I> Credit unions need not highlight terms that have changed since the last account disclosures were provided. 
</P>
<HD2>(c) Notice Before Maturity for Term Share Accounts Longer Than One Year That Do not Renew Automatically
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent account.</I> When funds are transferred following maturity of a nonrollover term share account, credit unions need not provide account disclosures unless a new account is established. 


</P>
<HD3>Section 707.6—Periodic Statement Disclosures 
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Rule When Statement and Crediting Periods Vary 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Credit unions are not required to provide periodic statements. If they provide periodic statements, disclosures need only be furnished to the extent applicable. For example, if no dividends are earned for a statement period, credit unions need not state that fact. Or, credit unions may disclose “$0” dividends earned and “0%” annual percentage yield earned. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Regulation E interim statements.</I> When a credit union provides regular quarterly statements, and in addition provides a monthly interim statement to comply with Regulation E, the interim statement need not comply with this section unless it states dividend or rate information. (See 12 CFR 1005.9). For credit unions that choose not to treat Regulation E activity statements as part 707 periodic statements, the quarterly periodic statement must reflect the annual percentage yield earned and dividends earned for the full quarter. However, credit unions choosing this option need not redisclose fees already disclosed on an interim Regulation E activity statement on the quarterly periodic statement. For credit unions that choose to treat Regulation E activity statements as part 707 periodic statements, the Regulation E statement must meet all part 707 requirements. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combined statements.</I> Credit unions may provide certain information about an account (such as a money market share account or regular share account) on the periodic statement for another account (such as a share draft account) without triggering the disclosures required by this section, as long as: 
</P>
<P>i. The information is limited to information such as the account number, the type of account, balance information, accountholders' names, and social security or tax identification number; and 
</P>
<P>ii. The credit union also provides members a periodic statement complying with this section for the account (the money market share account or regular share account, in the example). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other information.</I> Additional information that may be given on or with a periodic statement, includes: 
</P>
<P>i. Dividend rates and corresponding periodic rates to the dividend rate applied to balances during the statement period. 
</P>
<P>ii. The dollar amount of dividends earned year-to-date. 
</P>
<P>iii. Bonuses paid (or any <I>de minimis</I> consideration of $10 or less). 
</P>
<P>iv. Fees for other products, such as safe deposit boxes. 
</P>
<P>v. Accounts not covered by the periodic statement disclosure requirements (passbook and term share accounts) may disclose any information on the statement related to such accounts, so long as such information is accurate and not misleading. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>When statement and crediting periods vary.</I> This rule permits credit unions, on dividend-bearing share accounts, to report the annual percentage yield earned and the amount of dividends earned on a statement other than on each periodic statement when the dividend period does not agree with, varies from, or is different than, the statement period. For dividend-bearing share accounts, credit unions may disclose the required information either upon each periodic statement, or on the statement on which dividends are actually earned (credited or posted) to the member's account. In addition, for accounts using the average daily balance method of calculating dividends, when the average daily balance period and the statement periods do not agree, vary or are different, credit unions may also report annual percentage yield earned and the dollar amount of dividends earned on the periodic statement on which the dividends or interest is earned. For example, if a credit union has quarterly dividend periods, or uses a quarterly average daily balance on an account, the first two monthly statements may not state annual percentage yield earned and dividends earned figures; the third “monthly” statement will reflect the dividends earned and the annual percentage yield earned for the entire quarter. The fees imposed disclosure must be given on the periodic statement on which they are imposed. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Length of the period.</I> Credit unions must disclose the length of both the dividend period (or average daily balance calculation period) and the statement period. For example, a statement could disclose a statement period of April 16 through May 15 and further state that “the dividends earned and the annual percentage yield earned are based on your dividend period (or average daily balance) for the period April 1 through April 30.” 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Dividend period more frequent than statement period.</I> Credit unions that calculate dividends on a monthly basis, but send statements on a quarterly basis, may disclose a single dividend (and annual percentage yield earned) figure. Alternatively, a credit union may disclose three dividends earned and three annual percentage yield earned figures, one of each month in the quarter, as long as the credit union states the number of days (or beginning and ending date) in each dividend period if it varies from the statement period. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Additional voluntary disclosures.</I> For credit unions not disclosing the annual percentage yield earned and dividends earned on all periodic statements, credit unions may place a notice on statements without dividends and annual percentage yield earned figures, that the annual percentage yield earned and dollar amount of dividends earned will appear on the first statement at the close of the dividend (or average daily balance) period, or similar wording. Credit unions may also choose to include a telephone number to call for interim information, if desired by a member. 
</P>
<HD2>(b) Statement Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>(b)(1) Annual Percentage Yield Earned
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Ledger and collected balances.</I> Credit unions that accrue interest using the collected balance method may use either the ledger or collected balance methods to determine the balance used to determine the annual percentage yield earned. Ledger balance means the record of the balance in a member's account, as per the credit union's records. (The ledger balance may reflect additions and deposits for which the credit union has not yet received final payment). Collected balance means the record of balance in a member's account reflecting collected funds, that is, cash or checks deposited in the credit union which have been presented for payment and for which payment has actually been received. (See Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.14).
</P>
<HD2>(b)(2) Amount of Dividends or Interest
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Definition of earned.</I> The term “earned” is defined to include dividends and interest either “accrued” or “paid and credited.” Credit unions may use either the “ledger” or the “collected” balance for either option. (See 707.6(b)(1)1. and 707.7(c)2. of this appendix.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Accrued interest.</I> Credit unions must state the amount of interest that accrued during the statement period, even if it was not credited.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> In disclosing dividends earned for the period, credit unions must use the term “dividends” or terminology such as: “Dividends paid,” to describe dividends that have been credited; “Dividends accrued,” to indicate that dividends are not yet credited.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Closed accounts.</I> If a member closes an account between crediting periods and forfeits accrued dividends, the credit union may not show any figures for “dividends earned” or annual percentage yield earned for the period (other than zero, at the credit union's option).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Extraordinary dividends.</I> Extraordinary dividends are not a component of the annual percentage yield earned or the dividend rate, but are an addition to the member's account. The dollar amount of the extraordinary dividends paid, denoted as a separate, identified figure, must be disclosed on the periodic statement on which the extraordinary dividends are earned. A credit union may also disclose information regarding the calculation of the extraordinary dividends, and additional annual percentage yield earned and dividend rate figures taking into account the extraordinary dividend, so long as such information is accurate and not misleading.
</P>
<HD2>(b)(3) Fees Imposed
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Periodic statements must state fees disclosed under § 707.4(b) that were debited to the account during the statement period, even if assessed for an earlier period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemizing fees by type.</I> In itemizing fees imposed more than once in the period, credit unions may group fees if they are the same type. (<I>See</I> § 707.11(a)(1) of this part regarding certain fees that are required to be grouped.) When fees of the same type are grouped together, the description must make clear that the dollar figure represents more than a single fee, for example, “total fees for checks written this period.” Examples of fees that may not be grouped together are—
</P>
<P>i. Monthly maintenance and excess-activity fees.
</P>
<P>ii. “Transfer” fees, if different dollar amounts are imposed, such as $.50 for deposits and $1.00 for withdrawals.
</P>
<P>iii. Fees for electronic fund transfers and fees for other services, such as balance-inquiry or maintenance fees.
</P>
<P>iv. Fees for paying overdrafts and fees for returning checks or other items unpaid.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Identifying fees.</I> Statement details must enable the member to identify the specific fee. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Credit unions may use a code to identify a particular fee if the code is explained on the periodic statement or in documents accompanying the statement. 
</P>
<P>ii. Credit unions using debit slips may disclose the date the fee was debited on the periodic statement and show the amount and type of fee on the dated debit slip. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relation to Regulation E.</I> Disclosure of fees in compliance with Regulation E complies with this section for fees related to electronic fund transfers (for example, totaling all electronic funds transfer fees in a single figure).
</P>
<HD2>(b)(4) Length of Period
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Credit unions providing the beginning and ending dates of the period must make clear whether both dates are included in the period. For example, stating “April 1 through April 30” would clearly indicate that both April 1 and April 30 are included in the period. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Opening or closing an account mid-cycle.</I> If an account is opened or closed during the period for which a statement is sent, credit unions must calculate the annual percentage yield earned based on account balances for each day the account was open.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.7—Payment of Dividends
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Permissible Methods
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited calculation methods.</I> Calculation methods that do not comply with the requirement to pay dividends on the full amount of principal in the account each day include: 
</P>
<P>i. The “rollback” method, also known as the “grace period” or “in by the 10th” method, where credit unions pay dividends on the lowest balance in the account for the period. 
</P>
<P>ii. The “increments of par value” method, where credit unions only pay dividends on full shares in an account, e.g., a credit union with $5 par value shares pays dividends on $20 of a $24 account balance. 
</P>
<P>iii. The “ending balance” method, where credit unions pay dividends on the balance in the account at the end of the period. 
</P>
<P>iv. The “investable balance” method, where credit unions pay dividends on a percentage of the balance, excluding an amount credit unions set aside for reserve requirements. 
</P>
<P>v. The “low balance” method, where credit unions pay dividends on the lowest balance in the account for any day in that period. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of 365-day basis.</I> Credit unions may apply a daily periodic rate that is greater than 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the dividend rate—such as 
<FR>1/360</FR> of the dividend rate—as long as it is applied 365 days a year. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Periodic dividend payments.</I> A credit union can pay dividends each day on the account and still make uniform dividend payments. For example, for a one-year term share account, a credit union could make monthly dividend payments that are equal to 
<FR>1/12</FR> of the amount of dividends that will be earned for a 365-day period (or 11 uniform monthly payments—each equal to roughly 
<FR>1/12</FR> of the total amount of dividends—and one payment that accounts to the remainder of the total amount of dividends earned for the period).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Leap year.</I> Credit unions may apply a daily rate of 
<FR>1/366</FR> or 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the dividend rate for 366 days in a leap year, if the account will earn dividends for February 29. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Maturity of term share accounts.</I> Credit unions are not required to pay dividends after term share accounts mature. Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. During any grace period offered by a credit union for an automatically renewable term share account, if the member decides during that period not to renew the account. 
</P>
<P>ii. Following the maturity of nonrollover term share accounts. 
</P>
<P>iii. When the maturity date falls on a holiday, and the member must wait until the next business day to obtain the funds. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Dormant accounts.</I> Credit unions must pay dividends on funds in an account, even if inactivity or the infrequency of transactions would permit the credit union to consider the account to be “inactive” or “dormant” (or similar status) as defined by state or other law or the account contract. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Insufficient funds.</I> Credit unions are not required to pay dividends on checks or share drafts deposited to a member's account that are returned for insufficient funds. If a credit union accrues dividends on a check that it later determines is not good, it may deduct from the accrued dividends any dividends attributed to the proceeds of the returned check. If dividends have already been credited before the credit union determines the item has insufficient funds, the credit union may deduct the amount of the check and associated dividends from the account balance. The amount deducted will not be reflected in the dividend amount and annual percentage yield earned reported for the next period. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Account drawn below par value of a share.</I> If a member draws his or her account below the par value of a share, dividends would continue to accrue on the account so long as any minimum balance requirement is met. However, under the <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws,</I> if a member who reduces his or her share balance below the value of a par value share and does not increase the balance within at least six months, the credit union may terminate the member's membership. State-chartered credit unions may have similar termination provisions. 


</P>
<HD2>(a2) Determination of Minimum Balance To Earn Dividends
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Credit unions may set minimum balance requirements that must be met in order to earn dividends. However, credit unions must use the same method to determine a minimum balance required to earn dividends as they use to determine the balance upon which dividends will accrue and pay. For example, a credit union that calculates dividends on the daily balance method must use the daily balance method to determine if the minimum balance to earn dividends has been met. Similarly, a credit union that calculates dividends on the average daily balance method must use the average daily balance method to determine if the minimum to earn dividends has been met. Credit unions may have a par value of a share that is different from the minimum balance requirement to earn dividends. (See commentary to § 707.4(b)(3)(i)). 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Daily balance accounts.</I> Credit unions that require a minimum balance to earn dividends may choose not to pay dividends for days when the balance drops below the required minimum balance if they use the daily balance method to calculate dividends. For example, a credit union could set a minimum daily balance level of $200 and pay dividends only those days the $200 daily balance is maintained. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Average daily balance accounts.</I> Credit unions that require a minimum balance to earn dividends may choose not to pay dividends for the average daily balance calculation period in which the average daily balance drops below the required minimum, if they use the average daily balance method to calculate dividends. For example, a credit union could set a minimum average daily balance level of $200 and pay dividends only if the $200 average daily balance is met for the calculation period. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Beneficial method.</I> Credit unions may not require members to maintain both a minimum daily balance and a minimum average daily balance to earn dividends, such as by requiring the member to maintain a $500 daily balance and a prescribed average daily balance (whether higher or lower). But a credit union could offer a minimum balance to earn dividends that includes an additional method that is “unequivocally beneficial” to the member such as the following: 
</P>
<P>i. A credit union using the daily balance method to calculate dividends and requiring a $500 minimum daily balance could choose to pay dividends on the account (for those days the minimum balance is not met) as long as the member maintained an average daily balance throughout the month of $400. 
</P>
<P>ii. A credit union using the average daily balance method to calculate dividends and requiring a $400 minimum average daily balance could choose to pay dividends on the account as long as the member maintained a daily balance of $500 for at least half of the days in the period.
</P>
<P>iii. A credit union using either the daily balance method or average daily balance method to calculate dividends that requires: (A) a $500 daily balance; or (B) a $400 average daily balance to pay dividends on the account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Paying on full balance.</I> Credit unions must pay dividends on the full balance in the account that meets the required minimum balance. For example, if $300 is the minimum daily balance required to earn dividends, and a member deposits $500, the credit union must pay the stated dividend rate on the full $500 and not just on the $200.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Negative balances prohibited.</I> Credit unions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine:
</P>
<P>i. The daily or average daily balance on which dividends will be paid.
</P>
<P>ii. Whether any minimum balance to earn dividends is met. (See commentary to appendix A, Part II, which prohibits credit unions from using negative balances in calculating the dividends figure for the annual percentage yield earned.)
</P>
<P>7. <I>Club accounts.</I> Credit unions offering club accounts (such as a “holiday” or “vacation” club accounts) cannot impose a minimum balance requirement for dividends based on the total number or dollar amount of payments required under the club plan. For example, if a plan calls for $10 weekly payments for 50 weeks, the credit union cannot set a $500 minimum balance and then pay only if the member makes all 50 payments.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Minimum balances not affecting dividends.</I> Credit unions may use the daily balance, average daily balance, or other computation method to calculate minimum balance requirements not involving the payment of dividends—such as to compute minimum balances for assessing fees.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Compounding and Crediting Policies
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Credit unions choosing to compound dividends may compound or credit dividends annually, semi-annually, quarterly, monthly, daily, continuously, or on any other basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Withdrawals prior to crediting date.</I> If members withdraw funds (without closing the account), prior to a scheduled crediting date, credit unions may delay paying the accrued dividends on the withdrawn amount until the scheduled crediting date, but may not avoid paying dividends.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Closed accounts.</I> Subject to state or other law, a credit union may choose not to pay accrued dividends if members close an account prior to the date accrued dividends are credited, as long as the credit union has disclosed that fact. If accrued dividends are paid, accrued dividends must be paid on funds up until the account is closed or the account is deemed closed. For example, if an account is closed on a Tuesday, accrued dividends on the funds through Monday would be paid. Whether (and the conditions under which) credit unions are permitted to deem an account closed by a member is determined by state or other law, if any. Credit unions are cautioned that bylaw requirements may prevent a credit union from deeming a member's account closed until certain time periods are extinguished. (See <I>NCUA Standard FCU Bylaws,</I> Art. III, § 3. Such bylaw requirements may not be overridden without proper agency approval.)
</P>
<HD2>(c) Date Dividends Begin To Accrue
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation CC.</I> Credit unions may rely on the Expedited Funds Availability Act (EFAA) and Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229) to determine, for example, when a deposit is considered made for purposes of dividend accrual, or when dividends need not be paid on funds because a deposited check is later returned unpaid.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ledger and collected balances.</I> Credit unions may calculate dividends by using a “ledger” balance or “collected” balance method, as long as the crediting requirements of the EFAA are met (12 CFR 229.14).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Withdrawal of principal.</I> Credit unions must accrue dividends on funds until the funds are withdrawn from the account. For example, if a check is debited to an account on a Tuesday, the credit union must accrue dividends on those funds through Monday.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.8—Advertising
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Misleading or Inaccurate Advertisements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> All advertisements are subject to the rule against misleading or inaccurate advertisements, even though the disclosure applicable to various media differ. The word “profit” may be used when referring to dividend-bearing share accounts, as it reflects the nature of dividends. The word “profit” may not be used when referring to interest-bearing deposit accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Indoor signs.</I> An indoor sign advertising an annual percentage yield is not misleading or inaccurate if:
</P>
<P>i. For a tiered-rate account, it also provides the upper and lower dollar amounts of the tier corresponding to the advertised annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>ii. For a term share account, it also provides the term required to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>3. <I>“Free” or “no cost” accounts.</I> For purposes of determining whether an account can be advertised as “free” or “no cost,” maintenance and activity fees include:
</P>
<P>i. Any fee imposed if a minimum balance requirement is not met, or if the member exceeds a specified number of transactions. 
</P>
<P>ii. Transaction and service fees that members reasonably expect to be imposed on an account on a regular basis (see comments 4(b)(4)-1 and 2). 
</P>
<P>iii. A flat fee, such as a monthly service fee. 
</P>
<P>iv. Fees imposed to deposit, withdraw or transfer funds, including per-check or per-transaction charges (for example, $.25 for each withdrawal, whether by check, in person). 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other fees.</I> Examples of fees that are <I>not</I> maintenance or activity fees include: 
</P>
<P>i. Fees that are not required to be disclosed under § 707.4(b)(4). 
</P>
<P>ii. Check printing fees of any type. 
</P>
<P>iii. Fees for obtaining copies of checks, whether or not the original checks have been truncated or returned to the member periodically. 
</P>
<P>iv. Balance inquiry fees. 
</P>
<P>v. Fees assessed against a dormant account. 
</P>
<P>vi. Fees for using an ATM. 
</P>
<P>vii. Fees for electronic transfer services that are not required to obtain an account, such as preauthorized transfers or home electronic credit union services. 
</P>
<P>viii. Stop payment fees and fees for share drafts or checks returned unpaid. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Similar terms.</I> An advertisement may not use a term such as “fees waived” if a maintenance or activity fee may be imposed because it is similar to the terms “free” or “no cost.” 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Specific account services.</I> Credit unions may advertise a specific account service or feature as free as long as no fee is imposed for that service or feature. For example, credit unions offering an account that is free of deposit or withdrawal fees could advertise that fact, as long as the advertisement does not mislead members by implying that the account is free and that no other fee (a monthly service fee, for example) may be charged. 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Free for limited time.</I> If an account (or a specific account service) is free only for a limited period of time—for example, for one year following the account opening—the account (or service) may be advertised as free as long as the time period is stated. 
</P>
<P>8. <I>Conditions not related to share accounts.</I> Credit unions may advertise accounts as “free” for members that meet conditions not related to share accounts, such as the member's age. For example, credit unions may advertise a share draft account as “free for persons over 65 years old,” even though a maintenance or activity fee may be assessed on accounts held by members that are 65 or younger. 
</P>
<P>9. <I>Electronic advertising.</I> If an electronic advertisement, such as an advertisement appearing on an internet Web site, displays a triggering term, such as a bonus or annual percentage yield, the advertisement must clearly refer the member to the location where the additional required information begins. For example, an advertisement that includes a bonus or annual percentage yield may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the member to the additional information.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of advertisements that would ordinarily be misleading, inaccurate, or misrepresent the deposit contract are:
</P>
<P>i. Representing an overdraft service as a “line of credit,” unless the service is subject to 12 CFR part 1026 (Regulation Z).
</P>
<P>ii. Representing that the credit union will honor all checks or authorize payment of all transactions that overdraw an account, with or without a specified dollar limit, when the credit union retains discretion at any time not to honor checks or authorize transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. Representing that members with an overdrawn account can maintain a negative balance when the terms of the account's overdraft service require members promptly to return the share account to a positive balance.
</P>
<P>iv. Describing a credit union's overdraft service solely as protection against bounced checks when the credit union also permits overdrafts for a fee for overdrawing their accounts by other means, such as ATM withdrawals, debit card transactions, or other electronic fund transfers.
</P>
<P>v. Advertising an account-related service for which the credit union charges a fee in an advertisement that also uses the word “free” or “no cost” or a similar term to describe the account, unless the advertisement clearly and conspicuously indicates that there is a cost associated with the service. If the fee is a maintenance or activity fee under § 707.8(a)(2) of this part, however, an advertisement may not describe the account as “free” or “no cost” or contain a similar term even if the fee is disclosed in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts.</I> The rule in § 707.3(a), providing that disclosures required by § 707.8 may be provided to the member in electronic form without regard to E-Sign Act requirements, applies to the disclosures described in § 707.11(b), which are incorporated by reference in § 707.8(f).
</P>
<HD2>(b) Permissible Rates 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> An advertisement for a tiered-rate account that states an annual percentage yield must also state the annual percentage yield for each tier, along with corresponding minimum balance requirements. Any dividend rates stated must appear in conjunction with the annual percentage yields for each tier. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Stepped-rate accounts.</I> An advertisement that states a dividend rate for a stepped-rate account must state all the dividend rates and the time period that each rate is in effect. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Representative examples.</I> An advertisement that states an annual percentage yield for a type of account (such as a term share account for a specified term) need not state the annual percentage yield applicable to every variation offered by the credit union or indicate that other maturity terms are available. In an advertisement stating that rates for an account may vary depending on the amount of the initial deposit or the term of a term share account, credit unions need not list each balance level and term offered. Instead, the advertisement may: 
</P>
<P>i. Provide a representative example of the annual percentage yields offered, clearly described as such. For example, if a credit union offers a $25 bonus on all term share accounts and the annual percentage yield will vary depending on the term selected, the credit union may provide a disclosure of the annual percentage yield as follows: “For example, our 6-month share certificate currently pays a 3.15% annual percentage yield.” 
</P>
<P>ii. Indicate that various rates are available, such as by stating short-term and longer-term maturities along with the applicable annual percentage yields: “We offer share certificates with annual percentage yields that depend on the maturity you choose. For example, our one-month share certificate earns a 2.75% APY. Or, earn a 5.25% APY for a three-year share certificate.” 
</P>
<HD2>(c) When Additional Disclosures are Required 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Trigger terms.</I> The following are examples of information stated in advertisements that are not “trigger” terms: 
</P>
<P>i. “One, three, and five year share certificates available”. 
</P>
<P>ii. “Bonus rates available”. 
</P>
<P>iii. “1% over our current rate,” so long as the rates are not determinable from the advertisement. 
</P>
<HD2>(c)(2) Time Annual Percentage Yield is Offered 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Specified recent date.</I> If an advertisement discloses an annual percentage yield as of a specified date, that date must be recent in relation to the publication or broadcast frequency of the media used. For example, the printing date of a brochure printed once for an account promotion that will be in effect for six months would be considered “recent,” even though rates change during the six-month period. Dividend rates published in a daily newspaper or on television must be a rate offered shortly before (or on) the date the rates are published or broadcast. Similarly, dividend rates published in a daily newspaper or on television must be a rate reflecting either the preceding dividend period, or a prospective rate, and the option chosen should be noted. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reference to date of publication.</I> An advertisement may refer to the annual percentage yield as being accurate as of the date of publication, if the date is on the publication itself. For instance, an advertisement in a periodical may state that a rate is “current through the date of this issue,” if the periodical shows the date.
</P>
<HD2>(c)(5) Effect of Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> This requirement applies only to maintenance or activity fees as described in paragraph 8(a).
</P>
<HD2>(c)(6) Features of Term Share Accounts
</HD2>
<HD2>(c)(6)(i) Time Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Club accounts.</I> If a club account has a maturity date, but the term may vary depending on when the account is opened, credit unions may use a phrase such as: “The maturity date of this club account is November 15; its term varies depending on when the account is opened.”
</P>
<HD2>(c)(6)(ii) Early Withdrawal Penalties
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Discretionary penalties.</I> Credit unions imposing early withdrawal penalties on a case-by-case basis may disclose that they “may” (rather than “will”) impose a penalty if that accurately describes the account terms.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Bonuses
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General reference to “bonus.”</I> General statements such as “bonus checking” or “get a bonus when you open a checking account” do not trigger the bonus disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>(e) Exemption for Certain Advertisements
</HD2>
<HD2>(e)(1) Certain Media
</HD2>
<HD2>(e)(1)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Internet advertisements.</I> The exemption for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media does not extend to advertisements posted on the internet or sent by e-mail.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Internet advertisements.</I> The exemption for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media does not extend to advertisements made by electronic communication, such as advertisements posted on the Internet or sent by e-mail.
</P>
<HD2>(e)(1)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> Solicitations for tiered-rate accounts made through telephone response machines must provide all annual percentage yields and the balance requirements applicable to each tier.
</P>
<HD2>(e)(2) Indoor Signs
</HD2>
<HD2>(e)(2)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Indoor signs include advertisements displayed on computer screens, banners, preprinted posters, and chalk or peg boards. Any advertisement inside the premises that can be retained by a member (such as a brochure or a printout from a computer) is not an indoor sign.
</P>
<HD2>(e)(3) Newsletters
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The partial exemption applies to all credit union newsletters, whether instituted before or after the compliance date of part 707. Nor must a newsletter be of any particular circulation frequency (e.g., weekly, monthly, quarterly, biannually, annually, or irregularly) or of any certain format (e.g. magazine, bulletin, broadside, circular, mimeograph, letter, or pamphlet) in order to be eligible for the partial advertising exemption.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible Distribution.</I> In order for newsletters to retain the partial advertising exemption, newsletters can be sent to existing credit union members only. Any distribution reasonably calculated to reach only members is also acceptable, such as:
</P>
<P>i. Mailing newsletters to existing members.
</P>
<P>ii. Distributing newsletters at a function reasonably limited to members, such as an annual meeting or member picnic.
</P>
<P>iii. Displaying or offering newsletters at a credit union lobby, branch, or office.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Impermissible Distribution.</I> Distributing a newsletter in a place open to nonmembers, such as a sponsor's lunch room, is not reasonably calculated to reach only members, and such newsletter would be subject to all applicable advertising rules. 


</P>
<HD3>Section 707.9—Enforcement and Record Retention
</HD3>
<HD2>(c) Record Retention
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of required actions.</I> Credit unions comply with the regulation by demonstrating they have done the following: 
</P>
<P>i. Established and maintained procedures for paying dividends and providing timely disclosures as required by the regulation, and
</P>
<P>ii. Retained sample disclosures for each type of account offered to members, such as account-opening disclosures, copies of advertisements, and change-in-term notices; and information regarding the dividend rates and annual percentage yields offered.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methods of retaining evidence.</I> Credit unions must be able to reconstruct the required disclosures or other actions. They need not keep disclosures or other business records in hard copy. Records evidencing compliance may be retained on microfilm, microfiche, or by other methods that reproduce records accurately (including computer files). Credit unions must retain copies of all printed advertisements and the text of all advertisements conveyed by electronic or broadcast media, and newsletters.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment of dividends.</I> Credit unions must retain sufficient rate and balance information to permit the verification of dividends paid on an account, including the payment of dividends on the full principal balance.
</P>
<HD3>Section 707.10 [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD3>Section 707.11—Additional Disclosures Regarding the Payment of Overdrafts
</HD3>
<HD2>(a) Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements
</HD2>
<HD2>(a)(1) <I>General.</I>
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transfer services.</I> The overdraft services covered by § 707.11(a)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another share account of the member to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of credit unions advertising the payment of overdrafts.</I> A credit union would trigger the periodic statement disclosures if it: 
</P>
<P>i. Promotes the credit union's policy or practice of paying some overdrafts, unless the service would be subject to 12 CFR part 1026 (Regulation Z), in advertisements using broadcast media, brochures, telephone solicitations ,or electronic mail, or on Internet sites, ATM screens or receipts, billboards, or indoor signs. But see, Sec. 707.11(a)(2) of this part regarding communications about the payment of overdrafts that would not trigger periodic statement disclosures;
</P>
<P>ii. Includes a message on a periodic statement informing the member of an overdraft limit or the amount of funds available for overdrafts. For example, a credit union that includes a message on a periodic statement informing the member of a $500 overdraft limit or that the member has $300 remaining on the overdraft limit, is promoting an overdraft service;
</P>
<P>iii. Discloses an overdraft limit or includes the dollar amount of an overdraft limit in a balance disclosed by any means, including on an ATM receipt or on an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM screen, or the credit union's Internet site.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees for paying overdrafts.</I> Credit unions must disclose on periodic statements a total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying overdrafts. The credit union must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. The total dollar amount for each of these periods includes per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, or fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check, debit card transaction, or by any other transaction type. It also includes fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. It does not include fees for transferring funds from another account of the member to avoid an overdraft, or fees charged under a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026). <I>See also</I> comment 11(c)-2. Under § 707.11(a)(1)(i), the disclosure must describe the total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for the statement period and calendar year-to-date for paying overdrafts using the term “Total Overdraft Fees.” This requirement applies notwithstanding comment 3(a)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees for returning items unpaid.</I> The total dollar amount for all fees for returning items unpaid must include all fees charged to the account for dishonoring or returning checks or other items drawn on the account. The credit union must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. Fees imposed when deposited items are returned are not included. Credit unions may use terminology such as “returned item fee” or “NSF fee” to describe fees for returning items unpaid.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Waived fees.</I> In some cases, a credit union may provide a statement for the current period reflecting that fees imposed during a previous period were waived and credited to the account. Credit unions may, but are not required to, reflect the adjustment in the total for the calendar year-to-date and in the applicable statement period. For example, if a credit union assesses a fee in January and refunds the fee in February, the credit union could disclose a year-to-date total reflecting the amount credited, but it should not affect the total disclosed for the February statement period, because the fee was not assessed in the February statement period. If a credit union assesses and then waives and credits a fee within the same cycle, the credit union may, at its option, reflect the adjustment in the total disclosed for fees imposed during the current statement period and for the total for the calendar year-to-date. Thus, if the credit union assesses and waives the fee in the February statement period, the February fee total could reflect a total net of the waived fee.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Totals for the calendar year to date.</I> Some credit unions' statement periods do not coincide with the calendar month. In such cases, the credit union may disclose a calendar year-to-date total by aggregating fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during January and finishing with the period that begins during December. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering December 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007 may disclose the year-to-date total for fees imposed from January 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007. Alternatively, the credit union could provide a statement for the cycle ending January 9, 2007, showing the year-to-date total for fees imposed January 1, 2006 through December 31, 2006.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Itemization of fees.</I> A credit union may itemize each fee in addition to providing the disclosures required by § 707.11(a)(1) of this part.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(3) Time period covered by disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statement disclosures.</I> The disclosures under § 707.11(a) must be included on periodic statements provided by a credit union starting with the first statement period that begins after January 1, 2010. For example, if a member's statement period typically closes on the 15th of each month, a credit union must provide the disclosures required by § 707.11(a)(1) on subsequent periodic statements for that member beginning with the statement reflecting the period from January 16, 2010 to February 15, 2010.
</P>
<HD2>(a)(5) Acquired accounts
</HD2>
<HD2>(b) Advertising disclosures in connection with overdraft services
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples of credit unions promoting the payment of overdrafts.</I> A credit union must include the advertising disclosures in § 707.11(b)(1) of this part if the credit union:
</P>
<P>i. Promotes the credit union's policy or practice of paying overdrafts, unless the service would be subject to 12 CFR part 1026 (Regulation Z). This includes advertisements using print media such as newspapers or brochures, telephone solicitations, electronic mail, or messages posted on an Internet site. But see, § 707.11(b)(2) of this part for communications that are not subject to the additional advertising disclosures;
</P>
<P>ii. Includes a message on a periodic statement informing the member of an overdraft limit or the amount of funds available for overdrafts. For example, a credit union that includes a message on a periodic statement informing the member of a $500 overdraft limit or that the member has $300 remaining on the overdraft limit, is promoting an overdraft service.
</P>
<P>iii. Discloses an overdraft limit or includes the dollar amount of an overdraft limit in a balance disclosed on an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM screen, or the credit union's Internet site. See, however, § 707.11(b)(3) of this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfer services.</I> The overdraft services covered by § 707.11(b)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another share account of the member to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Electronic media.</I> The exception for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio, does not apply to advertisements posted on a credit union's Internet site, on an ATM screen, provided on telephone response machines, or sent by electronic mail.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees.</I> The fees that must be disclosed under § 707.11(b)(1) of this part include per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, and fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check or by other means. The fees also include fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. The fees do not include fees for transferring funds from another account to avoid an overdraft or fees charged when the credit union has previously agreed in writing to pay items that overdraw the account and the service is subject to 12 CFR part 1026 (Regulation Z).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Categories of transactions.</I> An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. Disclosing that a fee may be imposed for covering overdrafts created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means would satisfy the requirements of § 707.11(b)(1)(ii) of this part where the fee may be imposed in these circumstances. See comment 4(b)(4)-5 of this part.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Time period to repay.</I> If a credit union reserves the right to require a member to pay an overdraft immediately or on demand instead of affording members a specific time period to establish a positive balance in the account, a credit union may comply with § 707.11(b)(1)(iii) of this part by disclosing this fact.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Circumstances for nonpayment.</I> A credit union must describe the circumstances under which it will not pay an overdraft. It is sufficient to state, as applicable: “Whether your overdrafts will be paid is discretionary and we reserve the right not to pay. For example, we typically do not pay overdrafts if your account is not in good standing, or you are not making regular deposits, or you have too many overdrafts.”
</P>
<P>8. <I>Advertising an account as “free.”</I> If the advertised account-related service is an overdraft service subject to the requirements of § 707.11(b)(1) of this part, credit unions must disclose the fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft, not merely that a cost is associated with the overdraft service, as well as other required information. Compliance with comment 8(a)—10.v is not sufficient.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Disclosure of account balances
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Balance that does not include additional amounts.</I> For purposes of the balance disclosure requirement in § 707.11(c), if a credit union discloses balance information to a member through an automated system, it must disclose a balance that excludes any funds the credit union may provide to cover an overdraft pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service that will be paid by the credit union under a service subject to part 1026 of this title (Regulation Z) or that will be transferred from another account held individually or jointly by a member. The balance may, but need not, include funds that are deposited in the member's account, such as from a check, that are not yet made available for withdrawal in accordance with the funds availability rules under part 229 of the title (Regulation CC). In addition, the balance may, but need not, include funds that are held by the credit union to satisfy a prior obligation of the member, for example, to cover a hold for an ATM or debit card transaction that has been authorized but for which the credit union has not settled.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Retail sweep programs.</I> In a retail sweep program, a credit union establishes two legally distinct subaccounts, a share draft subaccount and a share savings subaccount, which together make up the member's account. The credit union allocates and transfers funds between the two subaccounts in order to maximize the balance in the share savings account while complying with the monthly limitations on transfers out of savings accounts under the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(d)(2). Retail sweep programs are generally not established for the purpose of covering overdrafts. Rather, credit unions typically establish retail sweep programs by agreement with the member in order for the credit union to minimize its transaction account reserve requirements and, in some cases, to provide a higher interest rate than the member would earn on a share draft account alone. Section 707.11(c) does not require a credit union to exclude funds from the member's balance that may be transferred from another account pursuant to a retail sweep program that is established for such purposes and that has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>i. The account involved complies with the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation D, 12 CFR 204.2(d)(2),
</P>
<P>ii. The member does not have direct access to the share savings subaccount that is part of the retail sweep program, and
</P>
<P>iii. The member's periodic statements show the account balance as the combined balance in the subaccounts.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional balance.</I> The credit union may disclose additional balances supplemented by funds that may be provided by the credit union to cover an overdraft, whether pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service, a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), or a service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by the member, so long as the credit union prominently states that any additional balance includes these additional overdraft amounts. The credit union may not simply state, for instance, that the second balance is the members “available balance,” or contains “available funds.” Rather, the credit union should provide enough information to convey that the second balance includes these amounts. For example, the credit union may state that the balance includes “overdraft funds.” Where a member has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of the credit union's discretionary overdraft service, any additional balance disclosed should not include funds that otherwise might be available under that service. Where a member has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of, the credit union's discretionary overdraft service for some, but not all transactions (<I>e.g.,</I> the member has not opted into overdraft services for ATM and one-time debit card transactions), a credit union that includes these additional overdraft funds in the second balance should convey that the overdraft funds are not available for all transactions. For example, the credit union could state that overdraft funds are not available for ATM and one-time (or everyday) debit card transactions. Similarly, if funds are not available for all transactions pursuant to a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) or a service that transfers funds from another account, a second balance that includes such funds should also indicate this fact.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automated systems.</I> The balance disclosure requirement in § 707.11(c) applies to any automated system through which the member requests a balance, including, but not limited to, a telephone response system, the credit union's Internet site, or an ATM. The requirement applies whether the credit union discloses a balance through an ATM owned or operated by the credit union or through an ATM not owned or operated by the credit union, including an ATM operated by an entity that is not a financial institution. If the balance is obtained at an ATM, the requirement also applies whether the balance is disclosed on the ATM screen or on a paper receipt.
</P>
<HD3>Appendix A to Part 707—Annual Percentage Yield Calculation 
</HD3>
<HD2>Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rounding for calculations.</I> The following are examples of permissible rounding rules for calculating dividends and the annual percentage yield: 
</P>
<P>i. The daily rate applied to a balance carried to five or more decimals. For example; .008219178%, 3.00% for a 365 day year, would be rounded to no less than .00822%. 
</P>
<P>ii. The daily dividends or interest earned carried to five or more decimals. For example; $.08219178082, daily dividends on $1,000 at 3% for a 365 day year, would be rounded to no less than $.08219. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exponents in a leap year.</I> The annual percentage yield formula's exponent numerator will remain 365 in leap years. The “days in term” figure used in the denominator should be consistent with the length of term used in the dividends calculation. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>First tier of a tiered-rate account.</I> When credit unions use a rate table, the first tier of a tiered rate account is to be disclosed and advertised; “Up to but not exceeding * * * ”, “$.01 to * * * ”, or similar language. 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Term Share Accounts Opened in Midterm.</I> For club accounts that meet the definition of a term share account, the annual percentage yield is based on the maximum number of days in the term not to exceed 365 days (or 366 days in a leap year). 
</P>
<HD2>Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Periodic Statements 
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Balance method.</I> The dividend or interest figure used in the calculation of the annual percentage yield earned may be derived from the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. Regardless of the dividend calculation method, the balance used in the annual percentage yield earned formula is the average daily balance. The average daily balance calculation is the sum of the balances for each day in the period divided by the number of days in the period. The balance for each day is based on a point in time; i.e. beginning of day balance, end of day balance, closing of day balance, etc. Each day's balance, for dividend accrual and payment purposes, must be based on the same point in time and cannot be based on the day's low balance. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative balances prohibited.</I> Credit unions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine the balance on which the annual percentage yield earned is calculated. (See commentary to § 707.7(a)(2).) 
</P>
<HD2>A. General Formula
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accrued but uncredited dividends.</I> To calculate the annual percentage yield earned, accrued but uncredited dividends: 
</P>
<P>i. May not be included in the balance for statements that are issued at the same time or less frequently than the account's compounding and crediting frequency. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds dividends daily and credits dividends monthly, the balance may not be increased each day to reflect the effect of daily compounding. Assume a credit union will pay $13.70 in dividends on $100,000 for the first day, $6.85 in dividends on $50,013.70 for the second day, and $3.43 in dividends on $25,020.55 for the third day. The sum of each days balance is $175,000 (does not include accrued, but uncredited, dividends amounts $13.70, $6.85, and $3.43), thereby resulting in an average daily balance for the three days of $58,333.33. 
</P>
<P>ii. Must be included in the balance for succeeding statements if a statement is issued more frequently than compounded dividends is credited on an account. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds dividends daily and credits dividends quarterly, the balance for the second monthly statement would include dividends that had accrued for the prior month. Assume a credit union will pay $411.78 in dividends on 30 days of $100,000, $427.28 in dividends on 31 days of $100,411.78, and $415.23 in dividends on 30 days of $100,839.06. The balance (average daily balance in the account for the period) for the second 31 days is $100,411.78. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding.</I> The dividends earned figure used to calculate the annual percentage yield earned must be rounded to two decimals to reflect the amount actually paid. For example, if the dividends earned for a statement period is $20.074 and the credit union pays the member $20.07, the credit union must use $20.07 (not $20.074) to calculate the annual percentage yield earned. For accounts that pay dividends based on the daily balance method, compound and credit dividends or interest quarterly, and send monthly statements, the credit union may, but need not, round accrued dividends to two decimals for calculating the “projected” or “anticipated” annual percentage yield earned on the first two monthly statements issued during the quarter. However, on the quarterly statement the dividends earned figure must reflect the amount actually paid. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compounding frequency using the average daily balance method.</I> Any compounding frequency, including daily compounding, can be used when calculating dividends using the average daily balance method. (See comment 707.7(b), which does not require credit unions to compound or credit dividends at any particular frequency). 
</P>
<HD2>B. Special Formula for Use Where Periodic Statement is Sent More Often Than the Period for Which Dividends are Compounded
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Statements triggered by Regulation E.</I> Credit unions may, but need not, use this formula to calculate the annual percentage yield earned for accounts that receive quarterly statements and that are subject to Regulation E's rule calling for monthly statements when an electronic fund transfer has occurred. They may do so even though no monthly statement was issued during a specific quarter. This formula must be used for accounts that compound and credit dividends quarterly and that receive monthly statements, triggered by Regulation E, which comply with the provisions of § 707.6. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Days in compounding period.</I> Credit unions using the special annual percentage yield earned formula must use the actual number of days in the compounding period. 
</P>
<HD3>Appendix B to Part 707—Model Clauses and Sample Forms 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> Credit unions that modify the model clauses will be deemed in compliance as long as they do not delete information required by TISA or regulation or rearrange the format so as to affect the substance or clarity of the disclosures. 
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> Credit unions may use inserts to a document (see Sample Form B-11) or fill-in blanks (see Sample Forms B-4 and B-5, which use double underlining to indicate terms that have been filled in) to show current rates, fees or other terms. 
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosures for opening accounts.</I> The sample forms illustrate the information that must be provided to a member when an account is opened, as required by § 707.4(a)(1). (See § 707.4(a)(2), which states the requirements for disclosing the annual percentage yield, the dividend rate, and the maturity of a term share account in responding to a member's request.) 
</P>
<P>4. <I>Compliance with Regulation E.</I> Credit unions may satisfy certain requirements under Part 707 with disclosures that meet the requirements of Regulation E. (See § 707.3(c).) The model clauses and sample forms do not give examples of disclosures that would be covered by both this regulation and Regulation E (such as disclosing the amount of a fee for ATM usage). Credit unions should consult appendix A to Regulation E for appropriate model clauses. 
</P>
<P>5. <I>Duplicate disclosures.</I> If a requirement such as a minimum balance applies to more than one account term (to obtain a bonus and determine the annual percentage yield, for example), credit unions need not repeat the requirement for each term, as long as it is clear which terms the requirement applies to. 
</P>
<P>6. <I>Guide to model clauses.</I> In the model clauses, italicized words indicate the type of disclosure a credit union should insert in the space provided (for example, a credit union might insert “March 25, 1995” in the blank for “(date)” disclosure). Brackets and diagonals (“/”) indicate a credit union must choose the alternative that describes its practice (for example, [daily balance/average daily balance]). 
</P>
<P>7. <I>Sample forms.</I> The sample forms (B-4 through B-11) serve a purpose different from the model clauses. They illustrate various ways of adapting the model clauses to specific accounts. The clauses shown relate only to the specific transactions described.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 59899, Nov. 21, 1994, as amended at 60 FR 21699, May 3, 1995; 61 FR 68129, Dec. 27, 1996; 63 FR 71575, Dec. 29, 1998; 66 FR 33163, June 21, 2001; 70 FR 72899, Dec. 8, 2005; 72 FR 30246, May 31, 2007; 74 FR 36105, July 22, 2009; 75 FR 47175, Aug. 5, 2010; 77 FR 71085, Nov. 29, 2012; 85 FR 62212, Oct. 2, 2020]
</CITA>
<P> 
</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="708a" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 708a—BANK CONVERSIONS AND MERGERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1785(b), and 1785(c).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 77167, Dec 22, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Conversion of Insured Credit Unions to Mutual Savings Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means text in bold type in a font size at least one size larger than any other text used in the document (exclusive of headings), but in no event smaller than 12 point.
</P>
<P><I>Conducted by an independent entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The independent entity will receive the ballots directly from voting members.
</P>
<P>(2) After the conclusion of the special meeting that ends the ballot period, the independent entity will open all the ballots in its possession and tabulate the results. The entity must not open or tabulate any ballots before the conclusion of the special meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The independent entity will certify the final vote tally in writing to the credit union and provide a copy to the NCUA Regional Director. The certification will include, at a minimum, the number of members who voted, the number of affirmative votes, and the number of negative votes. During the course of the voting period the independent entity may provide the credit union with the names of members who have not yet voted, but may not provide any voting results to the credit union prior to certifying the final vote tally.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> has the same meaning as <I>insured credit union</I> in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752).
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> have the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Independent entity</I> means a company with experience in conducting corporate elections. No official or senior management official of the credit union, or the immediate family member of any official or senior management official, may have any ownership interest in, or be employed by, the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual savings bank</I> and <I>savings association</I> have the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Regional Director</I> means either the director for the NCUA Regional Office for the region where a natural person credit union's main office is located or the director of the NCUA's Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion. For corporate credit unions and natural person credit unions defined as ONES credit unions under part 700 of this chapter, Regional Director means the Director of NCUA's Office of National Examinations and Supervision.
</P>
<P><I>Secret ballot</I> means no credit union employee or official can determine how a particular member voted. Credit union employees and officials are prohibited from assisting members in completing ballots or handling completed ballots.
</P>
<P><I>Senior management official</I> means a chief executive officer, an assistant chief executive officer, a chief financial officer, and any other senior executive officer as defined by the appropriate federal banking agencies pursuant to section 32(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010; 76 FR 13505, Mar. 14, 2011; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013; 81 FR 76496, Nov. 3, 2016; 82 FR 60292, Dec. 20, 2017; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019; 86 FR 15401, Mar. 23, 2021; 87 FR 45009, July 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.102   Authority to convert.</HEAD>
<P>A credit union, with the approval of its members, may convert to a mutual savings bank or a savings association that is in mutual form without the prior approval of the NCUA, subject to applicable law governing mutual savings banks and savings associations and the other requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.103   Board of directors' approval and members' opportunity to comment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A credit union's board of directors must comply with the following notice requirements before voting on a proposal to convert.
</P>
<P>(1) No later than 30 days before a board of directors votes on a proposal to convert, it must publish a notice in a general circulation newspaper, or in multiple newspapers if necessary, serving all areas where the credit union has an office, branch, or service center. It must also post the notice in a clear and conspicuous fashion in the lobby of the credit union's home office and branch offices and on the credit union's Web site, if it has one. If the notice is not on the home page of the Web site, the home page must have a clear and conspicuous link, visible on a standard monitor without scrolling, to the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The public notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) The type of institution to which the credit union's board is considering a proposal to convert;
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief statement of why the board is considering the conversion and the major positive and negative effects of the proposed conversion;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that directs members to submit any comments on the proposal to the credit union's board of directors by regular mail, electronic mail, or facsimile;
</P>
<P>(v) The date on which the board plans to vote on the proposal and the date by which members must submit their comments for consideration, which may not be more than 5 days before the board vote;
</P>
<P>(vi) The street address, electronic mail address, and facsimile number of the credit union where members may submit comments; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement that, in the event the board approves the proposal to convert, the proposal will be submitted to the membership of the credit union for a vote following a notice period that is no shorter than 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors must approve publication of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union must collect member comments and retain copies at the credit union's main office until the conversion process is completed.
</P>
<P>(c) The board of directors may vote on the conversion proposal only after reviewing and considering all member comments. The conversion proposal may only be approved by an affirmative vote of a majority of board members who have determined the conversion is in the best interests of the members. If approved, the board of directors must set a date for a vote on the proposal by the members of the credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.104   Disclosures and communications to members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the board of directors has complied with § 708a.103 and approves a conversion proposal, the credit union must provide written notice of its intent to convert to each member who is eligible to vote on the conversion. The notice to members must be submitted 90 calendar days, 60 calendar days, and 30 calendar days before the date of the membership vote on the conversion. A ballot must be included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice and only in the 30-day notice. A converting credit union may not distribute ballots with either the 90-day or 60-day notice, in any other written communications, or in person before the 30-day notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The notice to members must adequately describe the purpose and subject matter of the vote to be taken at the special meeting or by submission of the written ballot. The notice must clearly inform members that they may vote at the special meeting or by submitting the written ballot. The notice must state the date, time, and place of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The notices that are submitted 90 and 60 days before the membership vote on the conversion must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot will be mailed together with another notice 30 days before the date of the membership vote on conversion. The notice submitted 30 days before the membership vote on the conversion must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot is included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice materials.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of facilitating the member-to-member contact described in paragraph (f) of this section, the 90-day notice must indicate the number of credit union members eligible to vote on the conversion proposal and state how many members have agreed to accept communications from the credit union in electronic form. The 90-day notice must also include the information listed in paragraph (f)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The member ballot must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the proposal (e.g., “Proposal: Approval of the Plan of Charter Conversion by which (insert name of credit union) will convert its charter to that of a federal mutual savings bank.”);
</P>
<P>(ii) Two blocks marked respectively as “FOR” and “AGAINST;” and
</P>
<P>(iii) The following language: “A vote FOR the proposal means that you want your credit union to become a mutual savings bank. A vote AGAINST the proposal means that you want your credit union to remain a credit union.” This language must be displayed in a clear and conspicuous fashion immediately beneath the FOR and AGAINST blocks.
</P>
<P>(5) The ballot may also include voting instructions and the recommendation of the board of directors (i.e., “Your Board of Directors recommends a vote FOR the Plan of Conversion”) but may not include any further information without the prior written approval of the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(c) An adequate description of the purpose and subject matter of the member vote on conversion, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that the conversion from a credit union to a mutual savings bank could lead to members losing their ownership interests in the credit union if the mutual savings bank subsequently converts to a stock institution and the members do not become stockholders;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how a conversion from a credit union to a mutual savings bank will affect members' voting rights and if the mutual savings bank intends to base voting rights on account balances;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of any conversion-related economic benefit a director or senior management official will or may receive including receipt of or an increase in compensation and an explanation of any foreseeable stock-related benefits associated with a subsequent conversion to a stock institution or mutual holding company structure. The explanation of stock-related benefits must include a comparison of the opportunities to acquire stock available to officials and employees with those opportunities available to the general membership;
</P>
<P>(4) An affirmative statement that, at the time of conversion to a mutual savings bank, the credit union does or does not intend to convert to a stock institution or a mutual holding company structure;
</P>
<P>(5) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the estimated, itemized cost of the proposed conversion, including printing fees, postage fees, advertising, consulting and professional fees, legal fees, staff time, the cost of holding a special meeting, other costs of conducting the vote, and any other conversion-related expenses;
</P>
<P>(6) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the conversion from a credit union to a mutual savings bank will affect the institution's ability to make non-housing-related consumer loans because of a mutual savings bank's obligations to satisfy certain lending requirements as a mutual savings bank. This disclosure should specify possible reductions in some kinds of loans to members;
</P>
<P>(7) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that the National Credit Union Administration does not approve or disapprove of the conversion proposal or the reasons advanced in support of and the reasons against the proposal; and
</P>
<P>(8) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the conversion from a credit union to a mutual savings bank is likely to affect the availability of facilities and services. At a minimum, this disclosure should include the name and location of any branches, including shared branches, and automatic teller networks, to which members may lose access as a result of the conversion. This disclosure must be based on research and analysis completed before the date the board of directors votes to adopt the conversion proposal.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) A converting credit union must provide the following disclosures in a clear and conspicuous fashion with the 90-, 60-, and 30-day notices it sends to its members regarding the conversion:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">IMPORTANT REGULATORY DISCLOSURE ABOUT YOUR VOTE 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The National Credit Union Administration, the federal government agency that supervises credit unions, requires [insert name of credit union] to provide the following disclosures:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. LOSS OF CREDIT UNION MEMBERSHIP. A vote “FOR” the proposed conversion means you want your credit union to become a mutual savings bank. A vote “AGAINST” the proposed conversion means you want your credit union to remain a credit union.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. RATES ON LOANS AND SAVINGS. If your credit union converts to a bank, you may experience changes in your loan and savings rates. Available historic data indicates that, for most loan products, credit unions on average charge lower rates than banks. For most savings products, credit unions on average pay higher rates than banks.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. POTENTIAL PROFITS BY OFFICERS AND DIRECTORS. Conversion to a mutual savings bank is often the first step in a two-step process to convert to a stock-issuing bank or holding company structure. In such a scenario, the officers and directors of the institution often profit by obtaining stock in excess of that available to other members.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) This text must be placed in a box, must be the only text on the front side of a single piece of paper, and must be placed so that the member will see the text after reading the credit union's cover letter but before reading any other part of the member notice. The back side of the paper must be blank. A converting credit union may modify this text only with the prior written consent of the Regional Director and, in the case of a state-chartered credit union, the appropriate state regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(e) All written communications from a converting credit union to its members regarding the conversion must be written in a manner that is simple and easy to understand. Simple and easy to understand means the communications are written in plain language designed to be understood by ordinary consumers and use clear and concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections. For purposes of this part, examples of factors to be considered in determining whether a communication is in plain language and uses clear and concise sentences, paragraphs and sections include the use of short explanatory sentences; use of definite, concrete, everyday words; use of active voice; avoidance of multiple negatives; avoidance of legal and technical business terminology; avoidance of explanations that are imprecise and reasonably subject to different interpretations; and use of language that is not misleading.
</P>
<P>(f)(1) A converting credit union must mail or e-mail a requesting member's proper conversion-related materials to other members eligible to vote if:
</P>
<P>(i) A credit union's board of directors has adopted a proposal to convert;
</P>
<P>(ii) A member makes a written request that the credit union mail or e-mail materials for the member;
</P>
<P>(iii) The request is received by the credit union no later than 35 days after it sends out the 90-day member notice; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The requesting member agrees to reimburse the credit union for the reasonable expenses, excluding overhead, of mailing or e-mailing the materials and also provides the credit union with an appropriate advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) A member's request must indicate if the member wants the materials mailed or e-mailed. If a member requests that the materials be mailed, the credit union will mail the materials to all eligible voters. If a member requests the materials be e-mailed, the credit union will e-mail the materials to all members who have agreed to accept communications electronically from the credit union. The subject line of the credit union's e-mail will be “Proposed Credit Union Conversion to a Bank—Views of Member (insert member name).”
</P>
<P>(3) (i) A converting credit union may, at its option, include the following statement with a member's material:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On (date), the board of directors of (name of converting credit union) adopted a proposal to convert from a credit union to a mutual savings bank. Credit union members who wish to express their opinions about the proposed conversion to other members may provide those opinions to (name of credit union). By law, the credit union, at the requesting members' expense, must then send those opinions to the other members. The attached document represents the opinion of a member of this credit union. This opinion is a personal opinion and does not necessarily reflect the views of the management or directors of the credit union.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) A converting credit union may not add anything other than this statement to a member's material without the prior approval of the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “proper conversion-related materials” does not include materials that:
</P>
<P>(i) Due to size or similar reasons are impracticable to mail or e-mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
</P>
<P>(iii) Omit a material fact necessary to make the statements in the material not false or misleading;
</P>
<P>(iv) Relate to a personal claim or a personal grievance, or solicit personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;
</P>
<P>(v) Relate to any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause, that is not significantly related to the proposed conversion;
</P>
<P>(vi) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation impugn a person's character, integrity, or reputation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make statements impugning the stability and soundness of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(5) If a converting credit union believes some or all of a member's request is not proper it must submit the member materials to the Regional Director within seven days of receipt. The credit union must include with its transmittal letter a specific statement of why the materials are not proper and a specific recommendation for how the materials should be modified, if possible, to make them proper. The Regional Director will review the communication, communicate with the requesting member, and respond to the credit union within seven days with a determination on the propriety of the materials. The credit union must then immediately mail or e-mail the material to the members if so directed by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(6) A credit union must ensure that its members receive all materials that meet the requirements of § 708a.104(f) on or before the date the members receive the 30-day notice and associated ballot. If a credit union cannot meet this delivery requirement, it must postpone mailing the 30-day notice until it can deliver the member materials. If a credit union postpones the mailing of the 30-day notice, it must also postpone the special meeting by the same number of days. When the credit union has completed the delivery, it must inform the requesting member that the delivery was completed and provide the number of recipients.
</P>
<P>(7) The term “appropriate advance payment” means:
</P>
<P>(i) For requests to mail materials to all eligible voters, a payment in the amount of 150% of the first class postage rate times the number of mailings, and
</P>
<P>(ii) For requests to e-mail materials only to members that have agreed to accept electronic communications, a payment in the amount of 200 dollars.
</P>
<P>(8) If a credit union posts conversion-related information or material on its Web site, then it must simultaneously make a portion of its Web site available free of charge to its members to post and share their opinions on the conversion. A link to the portion of the Web site available to members to post their views on the conversion must be marked “Members: Share your views on the proposed conversion and see other members views” and the link must also be visible on all pages on which the credit union posts its own conversion-related information or material, as well as on the credit union's homepage. If a credit union believes a particular member submission is not proper for posting, it will provide that submission to the Regional Director for review as described in paragraph (f)(5) of this section. The credit union may also post a content-neutral disclaimer using language similar to the language in paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) A converting credit union must inform members with the 90-day notice that if they wish to provide their opinions about the proposed conversion to other members they can submit their opinions in writing to the credit union no later than 35 days from the date of the notice and the credit union will forward those opinions to other members. The 90-day notice will provide a contact at the credit union for delivery of communications, will explain that members must agree to reimburse the credit union's costs of transmitting the communication including providing an advance payment, and will refer members to this section of NCUA's rules for further information about the communication process. The credit union, at its option, may include additional factual information about the communication process with its 90-day notice.
</P>
<P>(10) A group of members may make a joint request that the credit union send its materials to other members. For purposes of paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section, the credit union will use the group name provided by the group.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.105   Notice to NCUA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a converting credit union's board of directors approves a proposal to convert, it must provide the Regional Director with notice of its intent to convert during the 90 calendar day period preceding the date of the membership vote on the conversion.
</P>
<P>(1) A credit union must give notice to the Regional Director of its intent to convert by providing a letter describing the material features of the conversion or a copy of the filing the credit union has made or intends to make with another federal or state regulatory agency in which the credit union seeks that agency's approval of the conversion. A credit union must include with the notice to the Regional Director copies of the notices the credit union has provided or intends to provide to members under §§ 708a.103 and 708a.104. The credit union must also include a copy of the ballot form and all written materials the credit union has distributed or intends to distribute to members. The term “written materials” includes written documentation or information of any sort, including electronic communications posted on a Web site or transmitted by electronic mail.
</P>
<P>(2) As part of its notice to NCUA of intent to convert, the credit union's board of directors must provide the Regional Director with a certification of its support for the conversion proposal and plan. Each director who voted in favor of the conversion proposal must sign the certification. The certification must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that each director signing the certification supports the proposed conversion and believes the proposed conversion is in the best interests of the members of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of all materials submitted to the Regional Director with the notice and certification;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that each board member signing the certification has examined all these materials carefully and these materials are true, correct, current, and complete as of the date of submission; and
</P>
<P>(iv) An acknowledgement that federal law (18 U.S.C. 1001) prohibits any misrepresentations or omissions of material facts, or false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations made with respect to the certification or the materials provided to the Regional Director or any other documents or information provided to the members of the credit union or NCUA in connection with the conversion.
</P>
<P>(3) A state-chartered credit union must state as part of the notice required by § 708a.105(a) if its state chartering law permits it to convert to a mutual savings bank and provide the specific legal citation. A state-chartered credit union will remain subject to any state law requirements for conversion that are more stringent than those this part imposes, including any internal governance requirements, such as the requisite membership vote for conversion and the determination of a member's eligibility to vote. If a state-chartered credit union relies for its authority to convert to a mutual savings bank on a state law parity provision, meaning a provision in state law permitting a state-chartered credit union to operate with the same or similar authority as a federal credit union, it must:
</P>
<P>(i) Include in its notice a statement that its state regulatory authority agrees that it may rely on the state law parity provision as authority to convert; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Indicate its state regulatory authority's position as to whether federal law and regulations or state law will control internal governance issues in the conversion such as the requisite membership vote for conversion and the determination of a member's eligibility to vote.
</P>
<P>(b) If it chooses, a credit union may seek a preliminary determination from the Regional Director regarding any of the notices required under this part and its proposed methods and procedures applicable to the membership conversion vote. The Regional Director will make a preliminary determination regarding the notices and methods and procedures applicable to the membership vote within 30 calendar days of receipt of a credit union's request for review unless the Regional Director extends the period as necessary to request additional information or review a credit union's submission. A credit union's prior submission of any notice or proposed voting procedures does not relieve the credit union of its obligation to certify the results of the membership vote required by § 708a.106 or eliminate the right of the Regional Director to disapprove the actual methods and procedures applicable to the membership vote if the credit union fails to conduct the membership vote in a fair and legal manner consistent with the Federal Credit Union Act and these rules.
</P>
<P>(c) After receiving the notice described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the Regional Director will contact and consult with the appropriate State Supervisory Authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.106   Membership approval of a proposal to convert.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A proposal for conversion approved by a board of directors requires approval by a majority of the members who vote on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors must set a voting record date to determine member voting eligibility that is at least one day before the publication of notice required in § 708a.103.
</P>
<P>(c) A member may vote on a proposal to convert in person at a special meeting held on the date set for the vote or by written ballot filed by the member. The vote on the conversion proposal must be by secret ballot and conducted by an independent entity. The independent entity must be a company with experience in conducting corporate elections. No official or senior management official of the credit union or the immediate family members of any official or senior management official may have any ownership interest in or be employed by the independent entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.107   Certification of vote on conversion proposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of the converting credit union must certify the results of the membership vote to the Regional Director within 14 calendar days after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(b) The certification must also include a statement that the notice, ballot and other written materials provided to members were identical to those submitted to NCUA pursuant to § 708a.105. If the board cannot certify this, the board must provide copies of any new or revised materials and an explanation of the reasons for any changes.
</P>
<P>(c) The certification must be accompanied by copies of all correspondence between the credit union and any Federal banking agency whose approval is required for the conversion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.108" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.108   NCUA oversight of methods and procedures of membership vote.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Regional Director will review the methods by which the membership vote was taken and the procedures applicable to the membership vote. The Regional Director will determine: if the notices and other communications to members were accurate, not misleading, and timely; the membership vote was conducted in a fair and legal manner; and the credit union has otherwise complied with part 708a.
</P>
<P>(b) After completion of this review, the Regional Director will issue a determination that the methods and procedures applicable to the membership vote are approved or disapproved. The Regional Director will issue this determination within 30 calendar days of receipt from the credit union of the certification of the result of the membership vote required under § 708a.107 unless the Regional Director extends the period as necessary to request additional information or review the credit union's submission. Approval of the methods and procedures under this paragraph remains subject to a credit union fulfilling the requirements in § 708a.110 for timely completion of the conversion.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Regional Director disapproves the methods by which the membership vote was taken or the procedures applicable to the membership vote, the Regional Director may direct that a new vote be taken.
</P>
<P>(d) A converting credit union may request the regional director to reconsider a determination regarding the methods and procedures of the membership vote and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 50293, Oct. 30, 2017; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.109" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.109   Other regulatory oversight of methods and procedures of membership vote.</HEAD>
<P>The federal or state regulatory agency that will have jurisdiction over the financial institution after conversion must verify the membership vote and may direct that a new vote be taken, if it disapproves of the methods by which the membership vote was taken or the procedures applicable to the membership vote.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.110" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.110   Completion of conversion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receipt of the approvals under §§ 708a.108 and 708a.109 the credit union may complete the conversion.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union must complete the conversion within one year of the date of receipt of NCUA approval under § 708a.108. If a credit union fails to complete the conversion within one year the Regional Director will disapprove of the methods and procedures. The credit union's board of directors must then adopt a new conversion proposal and solicit another member vote if it still desires to convert.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Director may, upon timely request and for good cause, extend the one year completion period for an additional six months.
</P>
<P>(d) After notification by the board of directors of the mutual savings bank or mutual savings association that the conversion has been completed, the NCUA will cancel the insurance certificate of the credit union and, if applicable, the charter of a federal credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.111" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.111   Limit on compensation of officials.</HEAD>
<P>No director or senior management official of an insured credit union may receive any economic benefit in connection with the conversion of a credit union other than compensation and other benefits paid to directors or senior management officials of the converted institution in the ordinary course of business.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.112" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.112   Voting incentives.</HEAD>
<P>If a converting credit union offers an incentive to encourage members to participate in the vote, including a prize raffle, every reference to such incentive made by the credit union in a written communication to its members must also state that members are eligible for the incentive regardless of whether they vote for or against the proposed conversion.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.113" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.113   Voting guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>A converting credit union must conduct its member vote on conversion in a fair and legal manner. NCUA provides the following guidelines as suggestions to help a credit union obtain a fair and legal vote and otherwise fulfill its regulatory obligations. These guidelines are not an exhaustive checklist and do not by themselves guarantee a fair and legal vote.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of state law.</I> While NCUA's conversion rule applies to all conversions of federally insured credit unions, federally insured state-chartered credit unions (FISCUs) are also subject to state law on conversions. NCUA's position is that a state legislature or state supervisory authority may impose conversion requirements more stringent or restrictive than NCUA's. States that permit this kind of conversion may have substantive and procedural requirements that vary from federal law. For example, there may be different voting standards for approving a vote. While the Federal Credit Union Act requires a simple majority of those who vote to approve a conversion, some states have higher voting standards requiring two-thirds or more of those who vote. A FISCU should be careful to understand both federal and state law to navigate the conversion process and conduct a proper vote.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility to vote.</I> (1) Determining who is eligible to cast a ballot is fundamental to any vote. No conversion vote can be fair and legal if some members are improperly excluded. A converting credit union should be cautious to identify all eligible members and make certain they are included on its voting list. NCUA recommends that a converting credit union establish internal procedures to manage this task.
</P>
<P>(2) A converting credit union should be careful to make certain its member list is accurate and complete. For example, when a credit union converts from paper recordkeeping to computer recordkeeping, some member names may not transfer unless the credit union is careful in this regard. This same problem can arise when a credit union converts from one computer system to another where the software is not completely compatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Problems with keeping track of who is eligible to vote can also arise when a credit union converts from a federal charter to a state charter or vice versa. NCUA is aware of an instance where a federal credit union used membership materials allowing two or more individuals to open a joint account and also allowed each to become a member. The federal credit union later converted to a state-chartered credit union that, like most other state-chartered credit unions in its state, used membership materials allowing two or more individuals to open a joint account but only allowed the first person listed on the account to become a member. The other individuals did not become members as a result of their joint account, but were required to open another account where they were the first or only person listed on the account. Over time, some individuals who became members of the federal credit union as the second person listed on a joint account were treated like those individuals who were listed as the second person on a joint account opened directly with the state-chartered credit union. Specifically, both of those groups were treated as non-members not entitled to vote. This example makes the point that a credit union must be diligent in maintaining a reliable membership list.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scheduling the special meeting.</I> NCUA's conversion rule requires a converting credit union to permit members to vote by written mail ballot or in person at a special meeting held for the purpose of voting on the conversion. Although most members may choose to vote by mail, a significant number may choose to vote in person. As a result, a converting credit union should be careful to conduct its special meeting in a manner conducive to accommodating all members wishing to attend, including selecting a meeting location that can accommodate the anticipated number of attendees and is conveniently located. The meeting should also be held on a day and time suitable to most members' schedules. A credit union should conduct its meeting in accordance with applicable federal and state law, its bylaws, Robert's Rules of Order or other appropriate parliamentary procedures, and determine before the meeting the nature and scope of any discussion to be permitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voting incentives.</I> Some credit unions may wish to offer incentives to members, such as entry to a prize raffle, to encourage participation in the conversion vote. The credit union must exercise care in the design and execution of such incentives.
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union should ensure that the incentive complies with all applicable state, federal, and local laws.
</P>
<P>(2) The incentive should not be unreasonable in size. The cost of the incentive should have a negligible impact on the credit union's net worth ratio and the incentive should not be so large that it distracts the member from the purpose of the vote. If the board desires to use such incentives, the cost of the incentive should be included in the directors' deliberation and determination that the conversion is in the best interests of the credit union's members.
</P>
<P>(3) The credit union should ensure that the incentive is available to every member that votes regardless of how or when he or she votes. All of the credit union's written materials promoting the incentive to the membership must disclose to the members, as required by § 708a.112, that they have an equal opportunity to participate in the incentive program regardless of whether they vote for or against the conversion. The credit union should also design its incentives so that they are available equally to all members who vote, regardless of whether they vote by mail or in person at the special meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Solicitation of votes.</I> Some credit unions may wish to contact members who have not voted and encourage them to vote on the conversion proposal. NCUA believes, however, that using credit union employees to solicit votes is problematic. Employees directed to solicit votes could easily neglect everyday duties critical to the credit union's safe and sound operation. Also, employees may very well feel pressured to solicit votes for the conversion, regardless of whether or not they support the conversion. Accordingly, NCUA strongly encourages converting credit unions to use an independent third party to solicit votes rather than diverting credit union employees from their usual duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 77167, Dec. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 75 FR 81386, Dec. 28, 2010. Amended at 75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Merger of Insured Credit Unions Into Banks</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 708a.301" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.301   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(a).
</P>
<P><I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means text in bold type in a font size at least one size larger than any other text used in the document (exclusive of headings), but in no event smaller than 12 point.
</P>
<P><I>Conducted by an independent entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The independent entity will receive the ballots directly from voting members.
</P>
<P>(2) After the conclusion of the special meeting that ends the ballot period, the independent entity will open all the ballots in its possession and tabulate the results. The entity must not open or tabulate any ballots before the conclusion of the special meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The independent entity will certify the final vote tally in writing to the credit union and provide a copy to the NCUA Regional Director. The certification will include, at a minimum, the number of members who voted, the number of affirmative votes, and the number of negative votes. During the course of the voting period the independent entity may provide the credit union with the names of members who have not yet voted, but may not provide any voting results to the credit union prior to certifying the final vote tally.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> has the same meaning as insured credit union in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution formula</I> is the formula the bank will use to determine each member's portion of that payment to be received upon completion of the merger.
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> have the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Merger</I> means any transaction in which a credit union transfers all, or substantially all, of its assets to a bank. The term <I>merger</I> includes any purported conversion of a credit union to a bank if the purported conversion is conducted pursuant to an agreement between a preexisting bank and the credit union that provides—
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union will not conduct business as a stand-alone bank, and
</P>
<P>(2) The purported conversion will be followed by the transfer of all, or substantially all, of the credit union's assets to the preexisting bank.
</P>
<P><I>Merger value</I> or <I>merger valuation</I> is the amount that a stock bank would pay in an arm's-length transaction to purchase the credit union's assets and assume its liabilities and shares (deposits).
</P>
<P><I>Qualified appraisal entity</I> means entity that has significant experience in the valuation of depository institutions and that has no past financial relationship with the merging credit union; the continuing bank, the continuing bank's owners, affiliates, or holding companies; or any law firm representing the credit union or the bank in connection with the merger.
</P>
<P><I>Regional Director</I> means the director of the NCUA Regional Office for the region where a natural person credit union's main office is located. For corporate credit unions and natural person credit unions defined as ONES credit unions under part 700 of this chapter, Regional Director means the Director of NCUA's Office of National Examinations and Supervision.




</P>
<P><I>Secret ballot</I> means no credit union employee or official can determine how a particular member voted. Credit union employees and officials are prohibited from assisting members in completing ballots or handling completed ballots.
</P>
<P><I>Senior management official</I> means a chief executive officer, an assistant chief executive officer, a chief financial officer, and any other senior executive officer as defined by the appropriate Federal banking agencies pursuant to section 32(f) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013; 86 FR 15401, Mar. 23, 2021; 87 FR 45010, July 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.302" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.302   Authority to merge.</HEAD>
<P>A credit union, with the approval of its members, may merge into a bank only with the prior approval of NCUA, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the regulator of the bank. If the credit union is State chartered, it also needs the prior approval of its State regulator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.303" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.303   Board of directors' approval and members' opportunity to comment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Merger valuation.</I> Before selecting a bank merger partner and voting on a proposal to merge, a credit union's board of directors must determine, as part of its due diligence, the merger value of the credit union. In making its determination of the merger value of the credit union, the credit union must either:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a well-publicized merger auction and obtain purchase quotations from at least three banks, two or more of which must be stock banks; or
</P>
<P>(2) Retain a qualified appraisal entity to analyze and estimate the merger value of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance notice.</I> A credit union that does not conduct a public auction as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section must comply with the following notice requirements before voting on a proposal to merge.
</P>
<P>(1) No later than 30 days before a board of directors votes on a proposal to merge, it must publish a notice in a general circulation newspaper, or in multiple newspapers if necessary, serving all areas where the credit union has an office, branch, or service center. It must also post the notice in a clear and conspicuous fashion in the lobby of the credit union's home office and branch offices and on the credit union's Web site, if it has one. If the notice is not on the home page of the Web site, the home page must have a clear and conspicuous link, visible on a standard monitor without scrolling, to the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The public notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and type of institution into which the credit union's board is considering a proposal to merge;
</P>
<P>(iii) A brief statement of why the board is considering the merger and the major positive and negative effects of the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that directs members to submit any comments on the proposal to the credit union's board of directors by regular mail, electronic mail, or facsimile;
</P>
<P>(v) The date on which the board plans to vote on the proposal and the date by which members must submit their comments for consideration; which submission date may not be more than 5 days before the board vote;
</P>
<P>(vi) The street address, electronic mail address, and facsimile number of the credit union where members may submit comments; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement that, in the event the board approves the proposal to merge, the proposal will be submitted to the membership of the credit union for a vote following a notice period that is no shorter than 90 days.
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors must approve publication of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Member comments.</I> A credit union must collect and review any member comments about the merger received during the merger process. The credit union must retain the comments until the merger is consummated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Approval of proposal to merge.</I> The merger proposal may only be approved by an affirmative vote of a majority of board members who have determined:
</P>
<P>(1) A merger with a bank is in the best interests of the members, and
</P>
<P>(2) The merger partner selected by the directors is the best choice for the members, taking into account the merger value of the credit union and the amount that the selected merger partner is willing to pay the credit union's members to effect the merger.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.304" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.304   Notice to NCUA and request to proceed with member vote.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>NIMRA.</I> If a credit union's board of directors adopts a proposal to merge, it must, within 30 days of the adoption, provide the Regional Director with a Notice of its Intent to Merge and Request for NCUA Authorization (NIMRA) to conduct a member vote. The NIMRA must include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The merger plan (as described below in paragraph (b) of this section);
</P>
<P>(2) Resolutions of the boards of directors of both institutions;
</P>
<P>(3) Certification of the board of directors (as described below);
</P>
<P>(4) Proposed Merger Agreement;
</P>
<P>(5) Proposed Notice of Special Meeting of the Members and any other communications about the merger that the credit union intends to send to its members, including electronic communications posted on a Web site or transmitted by electronic mail;
</P>
<P>(6) Proposed ballot to be sent to the members;
</P>
<P>(7) For State chartered credit unions, evidence that the proposed merger is authorized under State law (as described below);
</P>
<P>(8) A copy of the bank's last two examination reports;
</P>
<P>(9) A statement of the merger valuation of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(10) A statement of whether any merger payment will be made to the members and how such a payment will be distributed among the members;
</P>
<P>(11) Information about the due diligence of the directors in locating a merger partner and determining that the merger is in best interests of the members of the credit union (as described below);
</P>
<P>(12) Copies of all contracts reflecting any merger-related compensation or other benefit to be received by any director or senior management official of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(13) If the merging credit union's assets on its latest call report are equal to or greater than the threshold amount established annually by the Federal Trade Commission under 15 U.S.C. 18a(a)(2)(B)(i), a statement about whether the two institutions intend to make a Hart-Scott-Rodino Act premerger notification filing with the Federal Trade Commission and, if not, an explanation why not;
</P>
<P>(14) Copies of any filings the credit union or bank intends to make with another Federal or State regulatory agency in which the credit union or bank seeks that agency's approval of the merger; and
</P>
<P>(15) Proof that the accounts of the credit union will be accepted for coverage by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Merger plan.</I> The merger plan must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Current financial statements for both institutions;
</P>
<P>(2) Current delinquent loan summaries and analyses of the adequacy of the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses account for both institutions;
</P>
<P>(3) Consolidated financial statements of the continuing institution after the merger;
</P>
<P>(4) Explanation of any provisions for reserves, undivided earnings or dividends;
</P>
<P>(5) Provisions with respect to notification and payment of creditors; and
</P>
<P>(6) Explanation of any changes relative to insurance such as life savings and loan protection insurance and insurance of member accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Director certification.</I> The NIMRA must include a certification by the credit union's board of directors of their support for the merger proposal and plan. Each director who voted in favor of the merger proposal must sign the certification. The certification must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that each director signing the certification supports the proposed merger and believes the proposed merger, and the selected bank merger partner, are both in the best interests of the members of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of all materials submitted to the Regional Director with the notice and certification;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement that each board member signing the certification has examined all these materials carefully and these materials are true, correct, current, and complete as of the date of submission; and
</P>
<P>(4) An acknowledgement that Federal law (18 U.S.C. 1001) prohibits any misrepresentations or omissions of material facts, or false, fictitious or fraudulent statements or representations made with respect to the certification or the materials provided to the Regional Director or any other documents or information provided to the members of the credit union or NCUA in connection with the merger.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due diligence.</I> The NIMRA must include a description of all the credit union's due diligence in determining that the merger satisfies the factors contained in section 205(c) of the Act. In particular, the NIMRA must describe how the board located the merger partner, how the board negotiated the merger agreement, and how the board determined that this merger was in the best interests of the credit union's members. The description must include all information relied upon by the credit union in determining the merger value of the credit union, the amount of any payment to be made by the bank to the credit union's members (the “merger payment”), and, if that merger payment is less than the merger value of the credit union, an explanation why the merger and the merger partner selected is in the best interests of the members. The description must include an explanation of the distribution formula by which the merger payment will be distributed among the credit union's members.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State chartered credit unions.</I> A State chartered credit union must state as part of its NIMRA if its State chartering law permits it to merge into a bank and provide the specific legal citation. A State chartered credit union will remain subject to any State law requirements for merger that are more stringent than those this part imposes, including any internal governance requirements, such as the requisite membership vote for merger and the determination of a member's eligibility to vote. If a State chartered credit union relies for its authority to merge into a bank on a State law parity provision, meaning a provision in State law permitting a State chartered credit union to operate with the same or similar authority as a Federal credit union, it must:
</P>
<P>(1) Include in its notice a statement that its State regulatory authority agrees that it may rely on the State law parity provision as authority to merge; and
</P>
<P>(2) Indicate its State regulatory authority's position as to whether Federal law and regulations or State law will control internal governance issues in the merger such as the requisite membership vote for merger and the determination of a member's eligibility to vote.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultation with State authorities.</I> After receiving a NIMRA from a State chartered credit union, the Regional Director will consult with the appropriate State supervisory authority.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regional Director approval.</I> After receiving a NIMRA, the Regional Director will either disapprove the proposed merger or authorize the credit union to proceed with its membership vote.
</P>
<P>(1) The Regional Director will disapprove the proposed merger if the NIMRA either lacks the documentation required by this section or lacks substantial evidence to support each of the factors in section 205(c) of the Act. As part of this determination, the Regional Director must disapprove the proposed merger if:
</P>
<P>(i) The merger payment offered by the bank to the members is less than the merger valuation, absent some additional, quantifiable benefit to the members from the selected merger partner; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The NIMRA fails to adequately explain the nature and amount of any compensation to be received by the credit union's directors or senior management officials in connection with the merger or to justify that compensation.
</P>
<P>(2) NCUA's authorization to proceed with the member vote does not mean NCUA has approved of the merger proposal.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Appeal of adverse decision.</I> If the Regional Director disapproves a merger proposal, the credit union may request reconsideration and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 50293, Oct. 30, 2017; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.305" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.305   Disclosures and communications to members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the board of directors approves a merger proposal and receives NCUA's authorization as described in §§ 708a.303 and 708a.304, the credit union must provide written notice of its intent to merge to each member who is eligible to vote on the merger. The notice to members must be mailed 90 calendar days and 30 calendar days before the date of the membership vote on the merger. A ballot must be included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice and only with the 30-day notice. A merging credit union may not distribute ballots with the 90-day notice, in any other written communications, or in person before the 30-day notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The notice to members must adequately describe the purpose and subject matter of the vote and clearly inform members that they may vote at the special meeting or by submitting the written ballot. The notice must state the date, time, and place of the meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) The 90-day notice must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot will be mailed together with another notice 30 days before the date of the membership vote on merger. The 30-day notice must state in a clear and conspicuous fashion that a written ballot is included in the same envelope as the 30-day notice materials.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of facilitating the member-to-member contact described in paragraph (f) of this section, the 90-day notice must indicate the number of credit union members eligible to vote on the merger proposal and state how many members have agreed to accept communications from the credit union in electronic form. The 90-day notice must also include the information listed in paragraph (g)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) The member ballot must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of the proposal (<I>e.g.,</I> “Proposal: Approval of the Plan of Merger by which [insert name of credit union] will merge with a bank”);
</P>
<P>(ii) Two blocks marked respectively as “FOR” and “AGAINST;” and
</P>
<P>(iii) The following language: “A vote FOR the proposal means that you want your credit union to merge with and become a bank. A vote AGAINST the proposal means that you want your credit union to remain a credit union.” This language must be displayed in a clear and conspicuous fashion immediately beneath the FOR and AGAINST blocks.
</P>
<P>(5) The ballot may also include voting instructions and the recommendation of the board of directors (<I>i.e.,</I> “Your Board of Directors recommends a vote FOR the Plan of Merger”) but may not include any further information without the prior written approval of the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(c) For mergers into stock banks, an adequate description of the purpose and subject matter of the member vote on merger, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that if the merger is approved the members will lose all of their ownership interests in the institution, including the right to vote, the right to share in the value of the institution should it be liquidated, the right to share in any extraordinary dividends, and the right to have the net worth of the institution managed in their best interests;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of any post-merger employment or consulting relationships offered by the bank to any of the credit union's directors and senior management officials and the amount of the associated compensation;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger of the credit union will affect the members' ability to obtain non-housing-related consumer loans from the bank because of the bank's obligations to satisfy statutory or regulatory lending requirements (if any). This disclosure should specify possible reductions in some kinds of loans to members;
</P>
<P>(4) A clear and conspicuous statement of the merger value of the credit union, the total dollar amount the selected bank merger partner has agreed to pay to effect the merger, and the distribution formula the bank will use to determine each member's portion of that payment to be received upon completion of the merger.
</P>
<P>(d) For mergers into mutual banks, an adequate description of the purpose and subject matter of the member vote on merger, as required by paragraph (b) of this section, must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger will affect members' voting rights including whether the bank bases voting rights on account balances;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear and conspicuous disclosure that the merger could lead to members losing all of their ownership interests in the credit union if the bank subsequently converts to a stock institution and the members do not purchase stock;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of any post-merger employment or consulting relationships offered by the bank to the credit union's directors and senior management officials and the associated compensation for each;
</P>
<P>(4) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of how the merger of the credit union will affect the members' ability to obtain non-housing-related consumer loans from the bank because of the bank's obligations to satisfy statutory or regulatory lending requirements (if any). This disclosure should specify possible reductions in some kinds of loans to members;
</P>
<P>(5) A clear and conspicuous statement that, at the time of merger, the bank does or does not intend to convert to a stock institution or a mutual holding company structure;
</P>
<P>(6) A clear and conspicuous statement of the merger value of the credit union, the total dollar amount the selected bank merger partner has agreed to pay to effect the merger, and the distribution formula the bank will use to determine each member's portion of that payment to be received upon completion of the merger; and
</P>
<P>(7) If the bank plans to add one or more of the credit union's directors to its board or employ one or more senior officials of the credit union, a clear and conspicuous statement that bank could convert to a stock bank in the future and a comparison of the opportunities available to those officials and employees to obtain stock with the opportunities available to the depositors of the bank.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) A merging credit union must provide the following disclosures in a clear and conspicuous fashion with the 90-day and 30-day notices it sends to its members regarding the merger:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="03">IMPORTANT REGULATORY DISCLOSURE ABOUT YOUR VOTE</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">The National Credit Union Administration, the Federal government agency that supervises credit unions, requires [insert name of credit union] to provide the following disclosures:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. LOSS OF CREDIT UNION MEMBERSHIP. A vote “FOR” the proposed merger means you want your credit union to merge with and become a bank. A vote “AGAINST” the proposed merger means you want your credit union to remain a credit union.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. [For Mergers into Stock Banks Only]. LOSS OF OWNERSHIP INTERESTS. If your credit union merges into the bank, you will lose all the ownership interests you currently have in the credit union and you will become a customer of the bank. The bank's stockholders own the bank, and the directors of the bank have a fiduciary responsibility to run the bank in the best interests of the stockholders, not the customers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. [For Mergers into Mutual Banks Only]. POTENTIAL PROFITS BY OFFICERS AND DIRECTORS. Merger into a mutual savings bank is often the first step in a two-step process to convert to a stock-issuing bank or holding company structure. In such a scenario, the officers and directors of the bank often profit by obtaining stock in excess of that available to other members.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. RATES ON LOANS AND SAVINGS. If your credit union merges into the bank, you may experience changes in your loan and savings rates. Available historic data indicates that, for most loan products, credit unions on average charge lower rates than banks. For most savings products, credit unions on average pay higher rates than banks.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) This text must be placed in a box, must be the only text on the front side of a single piece of paper, and must be placed so that the member will see the text after reading the credit union's cover letter but before reading any other part of the member notice. The back side of the paper must be blank. A merging credit union may modify this text only with the prior written consent of the Regional Director and, in the case of a State chartered credit union, the appropriate State regulatory agency.
</P>
<P>(f) All written communications from a merging credit union to its members regarding the merger must be written in a manner that is simple and easy to understand. Simple and easy to understand means the communications are written in plain language designed to be understood by ordinary consumers and use clear and concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections. For purposes of this part, examples of factors to be considered in determining whether a communication is in plain language and uses clear and concise sentences, paragraphs and sections include the use of short explanatory sentences; use of definite, concrete, everyday words; use of active voice; avoidance of multiple negatives; avoidance of legal and technical business terminology; avoidance of explanations that are imprecise and reasonably subject to different interpretations; and use of language that is not misleading.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) A merging credit union must mail or e-mail a requesting member's proper merger-related materials to other members eligible to vote if:
</P>
<P>(i) A credit union's board of directors has adopted a proposal to merge;
</P>
<P>(ii) A member makes a written request that the credit union mail or e-mail materials for the member;
</P>
<P>(iii) The request is received by the credit union no later than 35 days after it sends out the 90-day member notice; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The requesting member agrees to reimburse the credit union for the reasonable expenses, excluding overhead, of mailing or e-mailing the materials and also provides the credit union with an appropriate advance payment.
</P>
<P>(2) A member's request must indicate if the member wants the materials mailed or e-mailed. If a member requests that the materials be mailed, the credit union will mail the materials to all eligible voters. If a member requests the materials be e-mailed, the credit union will e-mail the materials to all members who have agreed to accept communications electronically from the credit union. The subject line of the credit union's e-mail will be “Proposed Credit Union Merger—Views of Member (insert member name).”
</P>
<P>(3)(i) A merging credit union may, at its option, include the following statement with a member's material:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>On (date), the board of directors of (name of merging credit union) adopted a proposal to merge the credit union into a bank. Credit union members who wish to express their opinions about the proposed merger to other members may provide those opinions to (name of credit union). By law, the credit union, at the requesting members' expense, must then send those opinions to the other members. The attached document represents the opinion of a member (or group of members) of this credit union. This opinion is a personal opinion and does not necessarily reflect the views of the management or directors of the credit union.</P></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) A merging credit union may not add anything other than this statement to a member's material without the prior approval of the Regional Director.
</P>
<P>(4) The term “proper merger-related materials” does not include materials that:
</P>
<P>(i) Due to size or similar reasons are impracticable to mail or e-mail;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
</P>
<P>(iii) Omit a material fact necessary to make the statements in the material not false or misleading;
</P>
<P>(iv) Relate to a personal claim or a personal grievance, or solicit personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;
</P>
<P>(v) Relate to any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause, that is not significantly related to the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(vi) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation impugn a person's character, integrity, or reputation;
</P>
<P>(vii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make statements impugning the stability and soundness of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(5) If a merging credit union believes some or all of a member's request is not proper it must submit the member materials to the Regional Director within seven days of receipt. The credit union must include with its transmittal letter a specific statement of why the materials are not proper and a specific recommendation for how the materials should be modified, if possible, to make them proper. The Regional Director will review the communication, communicate with the requesting member, and respond to the credit union within seven days with a determination on the propriety of the materials. The credit union must then mail or e-mail the material to the members if so directed by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(6) A credit union must ensure that its members receive all materials that meet the requirements of § 708a.305(g) on or before the date the members receive the 30-day notice and associated ballot. If a credit union cannot meet this delivery requirement, it must postpone mailing the 30-day notice until it can deliver the member materials. If a credit union postpones the mailing of the 30-day notice, it must also postpone the special meeting by the same number of days. When the credit union has completed the delivery, it must inform the requesting member that the delivery was completed and provide the number of recipients.
</P>
<P>(7) The term “appropriate advance payment” means:
</P>
<P>(i) For requests to mail materials to all eligible voters, a payment in the amount of 150 percent of the first class postage rate times the number of mailings, and
</P>
<P>(ii) For requests to e-mail materials only to members that have agreed to accept electronic communications, a payment in the amount of 200 dollars.
</P>
<P>(8) If a credit union posts merger-related information or material on its Web site, then it must simultaneously make a portion of its Web site available free of charge to its members to post and share their opinions on the merger. A link to the portion of the Web site available to members to post their views on the merger must be marked “Members: Share your views on the proposed merger and see other members' views” and the link must also be visible on all pages on which the credit union posts its own merger-related information or material, as well as on the credit union's homepage. If a credit union believes a particular member submission is not proper for posting, it will provide that submission to the Regional Director for review as described in paragraph (g)(5) of this section. The credit union may also post a content-neutral disclaimer using language similar to the language in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(9) A merging credit union must inform members with the 90-day notice that if they wish to provide their opinions about the proposed merger to other members they can submit their opinions in writing to the credit union no later than 35 days from the date of the notice and the credit union will forward those opinions to other members. The 90-day notice will provide a contact at the credit union for delivery of communications, will explain that members must agree to reimburse the credit union's costs of transmitting the communication including providing an advance payment, and will refer members to this section of NCUA's rules for further information about the communication process. The credit union, at its option, may include additional factual information about the communication process with its 90-day notice.
</P>
<P>(10) A group of members may make a joint request that the credit union send its materials to other members. For purposes of paragraphs (g)(2) and (g)(3) of this section, the credit union will use the group name provided by the group.
</P>
<P>(h) If it chooses, a credit union may seek a preliminary determination from the Regional Director regarding any of the notices required under this subchapter and its proposed methods and procedures applicable to the membership merger vote. The Regional Director will make a preliminary determination regarding the notices and methods and procedures applicable to the membership vote within 30 calendar days of receipt of a credit union's request for review unless the Regional Director extends the period as necessary to request additional information or review a credit union's submission. A credit union's prior submission of any notice or proposed voting procedures does not relieve the credit union of its obligation to certify the results of the membership vote required by § 708a.307 or eliminate the right of the Regional Director to disapprove the merger if the credit union fails to conduct the membership vote in a fair and legal manner consistent with the Federal Credit Union Act and these rules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.306" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.306   Membership approval of a proposal to merge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A proposal for merger approved by a board of directors also requires approval by a majority of the members who vote on the proposal. At least 20 percent of the members eligible to vote must participate in the vote. The credit union must also have NCUA's written authorization to proceed with the member vote.
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors must set a voting record date to determine member voting eligibility. The record date must be at least one day before the publication of notice required in § 708a.303.
</P>
<P>(c) A member may vote on a proposal to merge in person at a special meeting held on the date set for the vote or by written ballot delivered by mail or otherwise. The vote on the merger proposal must be by secret ballot and conducted by an independent entity. The independent entity must be a company with experience in conducting corporate elections. No official or senior management official of the credit union or the immediate family members of any official or senior management official may have any ownership interest in or be employed by the independent entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.307" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.307   Certification of vote on merger proposal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of the merging credit union must certify the results of the membership vote to the Regional Director within 14 calendar days after the vote is taken.
</P>
<P>(b) The certification must also include a statement that the notice, ballot, and other written materials provided to members were identical to those submitted to NCUA pursuant to § 708a.305. If the board cannot certify this, the board must provide copies of any new or revised materials and an explanation of the reasons for any changes.
</P>
<P>(c) The certification must include copies of any correspondence between the credit union and other regulators related to the pending merger.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.308" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.308   NCUA approval of the merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Regional Director will review the methods by which the membership vote was taken and the procedures applicable to the membership vote. The Regional Director will determine if the notices and other communications to members were accurate, not misleading, and timely; if the membership vote was conducted in a fair and legal manner; and if the credit union has otherwise met the requirements of this subpart, including whether there is substantial evidence that the factors in section 205(c) of the Act are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(b) After completion of this review, the Regional Director will approve or disapprove the proposed merger. The Regional Director will issue the approval or disapproval within 30 calendar days of receipt from the credit union of the certification of the result of the membership vote required under § 708a.307, unless the Regional Director extends the period as necessary to request additional information or review the credit union's submission. The Regional Director's approval is conditional on the credit union completing the merger in the timeframes required by § 708a.309.
</P>
<P>(c) If the Regional Director disapproves the methods by which the membership vote was taken or the procedures applicable to the membership vote, the Regional Director may direct that a new vote be taken.
</P>
<P>(d) A merging credit union may request the Regional Director to reconsider the disapproval of a merger proposal and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 50293, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.309" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.309   Completion of merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After receipt of the approvals under §§ 708a.302 and 708a.308 a credit union may complete the merger.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union must complete the merger within one year of the date of NCUA approval under § 708a.308. If a credit union fails to complete the merger within one year the Regional Director will disapprove the merger. The credit union's board of directors must then adopt a new merger proposal and solicit another member vote if it still desires to merge.
</P>
<P>(c) The Regional Director may, upon timely request and for good cause, extend the one year completion period for an additional six months.
</P>
<P>(d) After notification by the board of directors of the bank that the merger has been completed, the NCUA will cancel the insurance certificate of the credit union and, if applicable, the charter of a Federal credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.310" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.310   Limits on compensation of officials.</HEAD>
<P>No director or senior management official of an insured credit union may receive any economic benefit in connection with the merger of a credit union other than reasonable compensation and other benefits paid in the ordinary course of business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.311" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.311   Voting incentives.</HEAD>
<P>If a merging credit union offers an incentive to encourage members to participate in the vote, including a prize raffle, every reference to such incentive made by the credit union in a written communication to its members must also state that members are eligible for the incentive regardless of whether they vote for or against the proposed merger.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708a.312" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.9.3.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708a.312   Voting guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>A merging credit union must conduct its member vote on merger in a fair and legal manner. NCUA provides the following guidelines as suggestions to help a credit union obtain a fair and legal vote and otherwise fulfill its regulatory obligations. These guidelines are not an exhaustive checklist and do not by themselves guarantee a fair and legal vote.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability of State law.</I> While NCUA's merger rules apply to all mergers of Federally insured credit unions, Federally insured state-chartered credit unions (FISCUs) are also subject to State law on mergers. NCUA's position is that no merger of a State chartered credit union is authorized unless permitted by State law, and also that a State legislature or State supervisory authority may impose merger requirements more stringent or restrictive than NCUA's. States that permit mergers may have substantive and procedural requirements that vary from Federal law. For example, there may be different voting standards for approving a vote. While the Federal Credit Union Act requires a simple majority of those who vote to approve a merger, some States have higher voting standards requiring two-thirds or more of those who vote. A FISCU should be careful to understand both Federal and State law to navigate the merger process and conduct a proper vote.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility to vote.</I> (1) Determining who is eligible to cast a ballot is fundamental to any vote. No merger vote can be fair and legal if some members are improperly excluded. A merging credit union should be cautious to identify all eligible members and make certain they are included on its voting list. NCUA recommends that a merging credit union establish internal procedures to manage this task.
</P>
<P>(2) A merging credit union should be careful to make certain its member list is accurate and complete. For example, when a credit union converts from paper record keeping to computer record keeping, some member names may not transfer unless the credit union is careful in this regard. This same problem can arise when a credit union merges from one computer system to another where the software is not completely compatible.
</P>
<P>(3) Problems with keeping track of who is eligible to vote can also arise when a credit union merges from a Federal charter to a State charter or vice versa. NCUA is aware of an instance where a Federal credit union used membership materials allowing two or more individuals to open a joint account and also allowed each to become a member. The Federal credit union later converted to a State chartered credit union that, like most other State chartered credit unions in its State, used membership materials allowing two or more individuals to open a joint account but only allowed the first person listed on the account to become a member. The other individuals did not become members as a result of their joint account, but were required to open another account where they were the first or only person listed on the account. Over time, some individuals who became members of the Federal credit union as the second person listed on a joint account were treated like those individuals who were listed as the second person on a joint account opened directly with the State chartered credit union. Specifically, both of those groups were treated as non-members not entitled to vote. This example makes the point that a credit union must be diligent in maintaining a reliable membership list.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scheduling the special meeting.</I> NCUA's merger rule requires a merging credit union to permit members to vote by written mail ballot or in person at a special meeting held for the purpose of voting on the merger. Although most members may choose to vote by mail, a significant number may choose to vote in person. As a result, a merging credit union should be careful to conduct its special meeting in a manner conducive to accommodating all members wishing to attend, including selecting a meeting location that can accommodate the anticipated number of attendees and is conveniently located. The meeting should also be held on a day and time suitable to most members' schedules. A credit union should conduct its meeting in accordance with applicable Federal and State law, its bylaws, Robert's Rules of Order or other appropriate parliamentary procedures, and determine before the meeting the nature and scope of any discussion to be permitted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voting incentives.</I> Some credit unions may wish to offer incentives to members, such as entry to a prize raffle, to encourage participation in the merger vote. The credit union must exercise care in the design and execution of such incentives.
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union should ensure that the incentive complies with all applicable State, Federal, and local laws.
</P>
<P>(2) The incentive should not be unreasonable in size. The cost of the incentive should have a negligible impact on the credit union's net worth ratio and the incentive should not be so large that it distracts the member from the purpose of the vote. If the board desires to use such incentives, the cost of the incentive should be included in the directors' deliberation and determination that the merger is in the best interests of the credit union's members.
</P>
<P>(3) The credit union should ensure that the incentive is available to every member that votes regardless of how or when he or she votes. All of the credit union's written materials promoting the incentive to the membership must disclose to the members, as required by § 708a.311 of this part, that they have an equal opportunity to participate in the incentive program regardless of whether they vote for or against the merger. The credit union should also design its incentives so that they are available equally to all members who vote, regardless of whether they vote by mail or in person at the special meeting.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Solicitation of votes.</I> Some credit unions may wish to contact members who have not voted and encourage them to vote on the merger proposal. NCUA believes, however, that using credit union employees to solicit votes is problematic. Employees directed to solicit votes could easily neglect everyday duties critical to the credit union's safe and sound operation. Also, employees may very well feel pressured to solicit votes for the merger, regardless of whether or not they support the merger. Accordingly, NCUA strongly encourages credit unions to use an independent third party to solicit votes rather than diverting credit union employees from their usual duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81387, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="708b" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 708b—MERGERS OF INSURED CREDIT UNIONS INTO OTHER CREDIT UNIONS; VOLUNTARY TERMINATION OR CONVERSION OF INSURED STATUS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1752(7), 1766, 1785, 1786, 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 708b appear at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019, and at 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 708b.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subpart A of this part prescribes the procedures for merging one or more credit unions with a continuing credit union where at least one of the credit unions is federally insured.
</P>
<P>(b) Subpart B of this part prescribes the procedures and notice requirements for termination of federal insurance or conversion of federal insurance to non-Federal insurance, including termination or conversion resulting from a merger.
</P>
<P>(c) Subpart C prescribes required forms for use in conversion of federal insurance to non-Federal insurance.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part restricts or otherwise impairs the authority of the NCUA to approve a merger pursuant to section 205(h) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) This part does not address procedures or requirements that may be applicable under state law for a state credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Conducted by an independent entity</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The independent entity will receive the ballots directly from voting members.
</P>
<P>(2) After the conclusion of the special meeting that ends the ballot period, the independent entity will open all the ballots in its possession and tabulate the results. The entity must not open or tabulate any ballots before the conclusion of the special meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) The independent entity will certify the final vote tally in writing to the credit union and provide a copy to the NCUA Regional Director. The certification will include, at a minimum, the number of members who voted, the number of affirmative votes, and the number of negative votes. During the course of the voting period the independent entity may provide the credit union with the names of members who have not yet voted, but may not provide any voting results to the credit union prior to certifying the final vote tally.
</P>
<P><I>Continuing credit union</I> means the credit union that will continue in operation after the merger.
</P>
<P><I>Convert, conversion,</I> and <I>converting,</I> when used in connection with insurance, refer to the act of canceling federal insurance and simultaneously obtaining insurance from another insurance carrier. They mean that after cancellation of federal insurance the credit union will be nonfederally insured.
</P>
<P><I>Covered person</I> means the chief executive officer or manager (or a person acting in a similar capacity); each of the four most highly compensated employees other than the chief executive officer or manager; and any member of the board of directors or the supervisory committee.
</P>
<P><I>Federally insured</I> means insured by the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) through the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF).
</P>
<P><I>Independent entity</I> means a company with experience in conducting corporate elections. No official or senior manager of the credit union, or the immediate family members of any official or senior manager, may have any ownership interest in, or be employed by, the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance</I> and <I>insured</I> refer to primary share or deposit insurance. These terms do not include excess share or deposit insurance as referred to in part 740 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Merger-related financial arrangement</I> means a material increase in compensation or benefits because of, or in anticipation of, a merger that any covered person of a merging credit union has received during the 24 months before the date the boards of directors of both credit unions approve the merger plan. It also means a material increase in compensation or benefits that any covered person of a merging credit union will receive in the future because of the merger. This includes the sum of all increases in direct and indirect compensation, such as salary, bonuses, leave, deferred compensation, early payout of retirement benefits, or any other financial rewards, other than benefits available to all employees of the continuing credit union on identical terms and conditions. A material increase is an increase in value that exceeds the greater of 15 percent of existing compensation or benefits or $10,000.
</P>
<P><I>Merging credit union</I> means the credit union that will cease to exist as an operating credit union at the time of the merger.
</P>
<P><I>Nonfederally insured</I> means insured by a private or cooperative insurance fund or guaranty corporation organized or chartered under state or territorial law.
</P>
<P><I>Record date</I> means a date announced by the board of directors of a merging credit union as the date by which a person must have been a member of the merging credit union to be eligible to vote on a proposed merger.
</P>
<P><I>Regional Director</I> means either the director for the NCUA Regional Office for the region where a natural person credit union's main office is located or the director of the NCUA's Office of Credit Union Resources and Expansion. For corporate credit unions and natural person credit unions defined as ONES credit unions under part 700 of this chapter, Regional Director means the Director of NCUA's Office of National Examinations and Supervision.</P>
<P><I>Secret ballot</I> means no credit union employee or official can determine how a particular member voted. Credit union employees and officials are prohibited from assisting members in completing ballots or handling completed ballots.
</P>
<P><I>Share insurance communication</I> means any written communication, excluding the forms in subpart C of this part, that is made by or on behalf of a federally insured credit union that is intended to be read by two or more credit union members and that mentions share insurance conversion or termination. The term:
</P>
<P>(1) Includes communications delivered or made available before, during, and after the credit union's board of directors decides to seek conversion or termination.
</P>
<P>(2) Includes, but is not limited to, communications delivered or made available by mail, e-mail, and internet website posting.
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include communications intended to be read only by the credit union's own employees or officials.
</P>
<P><I>State credit union</I> means any credit union organized and operated according to the laws of any state, the several territories and possessions of the United States, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. Accordingly, <I>state authority</I> means the appropriate state or territorial regulatory or supervisory authority for any such credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Terminate, termination,</I> and <I>terminating,</I> when used in reference to insurance, refer to the act of canceling federal insurance and mean that the credit union will become uninsured.
</P>
<P><I>Uninsured</I> means there is no share or deposit insurance available on the credit union accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 80680, Dec. 23, 2010; 75 FR 81393, Dec. 28, 2010; 78 FR 32544, May 31, 2013; 81 FR 76496, Nov. 3, 2016; 82 FR 60292, Dec. 20, 2017; 83 FR 30310, June 28, 2018; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019; 86 FR 15401, Mar. 23, 2021; 87 FR 45010, July 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Mergers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.101   Mergers generally.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where a merger will result in the termination of federal insurance or conversion to non-Federal insurance, the merging credit union must comply with the provisions of subparts B and C of this part in addition to this subpart A.
</P>
<P>(b) A federally insured credit union must have the prior written approval of the NCUA before merging with any other credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the continuing credit union is a federal credit union, it must be in compliance with the chartering policies of the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the continuing or merging credit union is a state credit union, the merger must be permitted by state law or authorized by the state authority.
</P>
<P>(e) Where both the merging and continuing credit unions are federally insured and the two credit unions have overlapping fields of membership, the continuing credit union must, within three months after completion of the merger, either:
</P>
<P>(1) Notify all members of the continuing credit union of the potential loss of insurance coverage if they had overlapping membership,
</P>
<P>(2) Notify all individuals and entities that were actually members of both credit unions of the potential loss of insurance coverage, or
</P>
<P>(3) Determine which members of both credit unions may actually have uninsured funds six months after the merger and notify those members of the potential loss of insurance coverage.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.102   Special provisions for federal insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the continuing credit union is federally insured, the NCUSIF will assess a deposit and a prorated insurance premium (unless waived in whole or in part for all insured credit unions during that year) on the additional share accounts insured as a result of the merger of a non-federally insured or uninsured credit union with a federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) Where the continuing credit union is non-federally insured or uninsured but desires to be federally insured as of the date of the merger, it must submit an application to the appropriate Regional Director when the merging credit union requests approval of the merger proposal. If the Regional Director approves the merger, the NCUSIF will assess a deposit and a prorated insurance premium (unless waived in whole or in part for all insured credit unions during that year) on any additional share accounts insured as a result of the merger.
</P>
<P>(c) Where the continuing credit union is non-federally insured or uninsured and does not make application for insurance, but the merging credit union is federally insured, the continuing credit union is entitled to a refund of the merging credit union's NCUSIF deposit and to a refund of the unused portion of the NCUSIF share insurance premium (if any). If the continuing credit union is uninsured, the NCUSIF will make the refund only after expiration of the one-year period of continued insurance coverage noted in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Where the continuing credit union is non-federally insured, NCUSIF insurance of the member accounts of a merging federally insured credit union ceases as of the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>(e) Where the continuing credit union is uninsured, NCUSIF insurance of the member accounts of the merging federally insured credit union will continue for a period of one year, subject to the restrictions in section 206(d)(1) of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.103   Preparation of merger plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon the approval of a proposition for merger by the boards of directors of the credit unions, the two credit unions must prepare a plan for the proposed merger that includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Current financial statements for both credit unions;
</P>
<P>(2) Current delinquent loan summaries and analyses of the adequacy of the Allowance for Loan and Lease Losses account;
</P>
<P>(3) Consolidated financial statements, including an assessment of the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) net worth of each credit union before the merger and the GAAP net worth of the continuing credit union after the merger;
</P>
<P>(4) Analyses of share values;
</P>
<P>(5) Explanation of any proposed share adjustments, and where the net worth ratio of the merging credit union is more than 500 basis points higher than the net worth ratio of the continuing credit union, an explanation of the factors considered in establishing the amount of any proposed adjustment or in determining no adjustment is necessary;
</P>
<P>(6) Explanation of any provisions for reserves, undivided earnings or dividends;
</P>
<P>(7) Description of any merger-related financial arrangement, as defined in § 708b.2;
</P>
<P>(8) Provisions with respect to notification and payment of creditors;
</P>
<P>(9) Explanation of any changes relative to insurance such as life savings and loan protection insurance and insurance of member accounts;
</P>
<P>(10) Provisions for determining that all assets and liabilities of the continuing credit union will conform with the requirements of the Act (where the continuing credit union is a federal credit union); and
</P>
<P>(11) Proposed charter amendments (where the continuing credit union is a federal credit union). These amendments, if any, will usually pertain to the name of the credit union and the definition of its field of membership.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved] 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.104   Submission of merger proposal to the NCUA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon approval of the merger plan by the boards of directors of the credit unions, the credit unions must submit the following information to the Regional Director:
</P>
<P>(1) The merger plan, as described in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Resolutions of the boards of directors;
</P>
<P>(3) Proposed Merger Agreement;
</P>
<P>(4) Proposed Notice of Special meeting of the Members;
</P>
<P>(5) Copy of the form of Ballot to be sent to the members;
</P>
<P>(6) Evidence that the state's supervisory authority approves the merger proposal (for states that require such agreement before NCUA approval);
</P>
<P>(7) Application and Agreement for Insurance of Member Accounts (for continuing state credit unions desiring to become federally insured);
</P>
<P>(8) If the merging credit union's assets on its latest call report are equal to or greater than the threshold amount established and published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> annually by the Federal Trade Commission under 15 U.S.C. 18a(a)(2)(B)(i), a statement about whether the two credit unions intend to make a Hart-Scott-Rodino Act premerger notification filing with the Federal Trade Commission and, if not, an explanation why not;
</P>
<P>(9) For mergers where the continuing credit union is not federally insured and will not apply for federal insurance:
</P>
<P>(i) A written statement from the continuing credit union that it “is aware of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831t(b), including all notification and acknowledgment requirements”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Proof that the accounts of the credit union will be accepted for coverage by the non-Federal insurer (if the credit union will have non-Federal insurance);
</P>
<P>(10) Board minutes for the merging and continuing credit union that reference the merger for the 24 months before the date the boards of directors of both credit unions approve the merger plan; and
</P>
<P>(11) A certification signed by the CEOs and Chairmen of the merging credit union and the continuing credit union, using the form in § 708b.304(c), that there are no merger-related financial arrangements to covered persons other than those disclosed in the notice required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010; 83 FR 30310, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.105   Approval of merger proposal by the NCUA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In any case where the continuing credit union is federally insured and the merging credit union is non-federally insured or uninsured, the NCUA will determine the potential risk to the NCUSIF.
</P>
<P>(b) If the NCUA finds that the merger proposal complies with the provisions of this part and does not present an undue risk to the NCUSIF, it may approve the proposal subject to any other specific requirements as it may prescribe to fulfill the intended purposes of the proposed merger. For mergers of federal credit unions into federally insured credit unions, if the NCUA determines that the merging credit union is in danger of insolvency and that the proposed merger would reduce the risk or avoid a threatened loss to the NCUSIF, the NCUA may permit the merger to become effective without an affirmative vote of the membership of the merging credit union otherwise required by § 708b.106 of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) NCUA may approve any proposed charter amendments for a continuing federal credit union contingent upon the completion of the merger. All charter amendments must be consistent with NCUA chartering policy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.106   Approval of the merger proposal by members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advance notice of member vote.</I> Members of the merging credit union must receive written notice at least 45 calendar days, but no more than 90 calendar days, before any member meeting called to vote on the merger proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of member notice.</I> While the merging credit union may refer members to attachments for additional information or explanation, the notice provided to members pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must be in the form set forth in subpart C of this part and contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the purpose of the meeting and the time and place;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that members may vote on the merger proposal in person or by mail ballot (or electronically, if the credit union's Bylaws so permit) received by the merging credit union no later than the date and time announced for the member meeting called to vote on the merger proposal;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement about the availability of a website where members of the merging credit union can share comments and questions about the merger pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) A summary of the merger plan, including but not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the merging credit union does or does not have a higher net worth percentage than the continuing credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement as to whether the members of the merging credit union will receive a share adjustment or other distribution of reserves or undivided earnings, including a summary of reasons for the decision and, at the merging credit union's discretion, a short explanation about the capital level;
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of any changes to ATM access or to services such as life savings protection insurance or loan protection insurance;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the continuing credit union is not federally insured, an explanation of any changes related to federal share insurance; and
</P>
<P>(v) A detailed description of all merger-related financial arrangements. This description must include the recipient's name and title as well as, at a minimum, the amount or value of the merger-related financial arrangement expressed, where possible, as a dollar figure;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the reasons for the proposed merger; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement identifying the physical locations of the merging credit union by street address, stating whether each location is to be closed or retained, and a list of branches of the continuing credit union by street address that are located in reasonable proximity to the merging credit union's locations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional documents.</I> The notice provided to members pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall be accompanied by the following separate documents:
</P>
<P>(1) The current financial statements for each credit union and a consolidated financial statement for the continuing credit union;
</P>
<P>(2) Any additional information or explanatory material that the merging credit union wishes to provide that does not detract from the required disclosures and gives further detail to members regarding information disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) A Ballot for Merger Proposal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Member information.</I> Within 30 calendar days of receiving the notice provided to members pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, members may jointly or individually submit a comment about the merger to the NCUA. The NCUA will post these comments on a website accessible to credit union members.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Posting member comments.</I> The NCUA reserves the right to not post comments that it reasonably believes:
</P>
<P>(1) Are false or misleading with respect to any material fact;
</P>
<P>(2) Omit a material fact necessary to make the statement in the material not false or misleading;
</P>
<P>(3) Relate to a personal claim or personal grievance, or solicit personal gain or business advantage by or on behalf of any party;
</P>
<P>(4) Address any matter, including a general economic, political, racial, religious, social, or similar cause that is not related to the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(5) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation impugn a person's character, integrity, or reputation;
</P>
<P>(6) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make charges concerning improper, illegal, or immoral conduct; or
</P>
<P>(7) Directly or indirectly and without expressed factual foundation make statements impugning the safety and soundness of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Clear and conspicuous disclosures required.</I> Any information required by paragraph (b) of this section to be disclosed on the notice provided to members pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must be legible, written in plain language, and reasonably understandable by ordinary consumers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Approval of a proposal to merge.</I> Approval of a proposal to merge a federally insured credit union into a federally insured credit union requires the affirmative vote of a majority of the members of the merging credit union who vote on the proposal. Members must be members as of the record date to vote. If the continuing credit union is not federally insured, the requirements of subpart B of this part also apply, and the merging credit union must use the appropriate form ballot and notice in subpart C of this part unless the Regional Director approves the use of different forms. If the continuing credit union is federally insured, use of the sample form notice, ballot, and certification of vote forms in subpart C of this part will satisfy the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 30310, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.107   Certification of vote on merger proposal.</HEAD>
<P>The board of directors of the merging federal credit union must certify the results of the membership vote to the Regional Director within 10 days after the vote is taken. The certification must include the total number of members of record of the credit union, the number who voted on the merger, the number who voted in favor, and the number who voted against. If the continuing credit union is non-federally insured, the merging credit union must use the certification form in subpart C of this part unless the Regional Director approves the use of a different form.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.108" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.108   Completion of merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon approval of the merger proposal by the NCUA and by the state supervisory authority (where the continuing or merging credit union is a state credit union) and by the members of each credit union where required, the credit unions may complete the merger.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon completion of the merger, the board of directors of the continuing credit union must certify the completion of the merger to the Regional Director within 30 days after the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the NCUA's receipt of certification that the merger has been completed, the NCUA will cancel the charter of the merging federal credit union (if applicable) and the insurance certificate of any merging federally insured credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Voluntary Termination or Conversion of Insured Status</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.201   Termination of insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A state credit union may terminate federal insurance, if permitted by state law, either on its own or by merging into an uninsured credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) A federal credit union may terminate federal insurance only by merging into, or converting its charter to, an uninsured state credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) A majority of the credit union's members must approve a termination of insurance by affirmative vote. The vote must be taken by secret ballot and conducted by an independent entity.
</P>
<P>(d) Termination of federal insurance requires the NCUA's prior written approval. A credit union must notify the NCUA and request approval of the termination through the Regional Director in writing at least 90 days before the proposed termination date and within one year after obtaining the membership vote. The notice to the NCUA must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement from the credit union that it “is aware of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831t(b), including all notification and acknowledgment requirements;” and
</P>
<P>(2) A certification of the member vote that must include the total number of members of record of the credit union, the number who voted in favor of the termination, and the number who voted against.
</P>
<P>(e) The NCUA will approve or disapprove the termination in writing within 90 days after being notified by the credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.202   Notice to members of proposal to terminate insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the board of directors of a federally insured credit union adopts a resolution proposing to terminate federal insurance, including termination due to a merger or conversion of charter, it must provide its members with written notice of the proposal to terminate and of the date set for the membership vote. The first written communication following the resolution that is made by or on behalf of the credit union and that informs the members that the credit union will seek termination is the notice of the proposal to terminate. This notice must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the members of the requirement for a membership vote and the date for the vote;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain that the insurance provided by the NCUA is federal insurance and is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include a conspicuous statement that if the termination or merger is approved, and the credit union, or the continuing credit union in the case of a merger, subsequently fails, the federal government does not guarantee the member will get his or her money back.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union must deliver the notice in person to each member, or mail it to each member at the address for the member as it appears on the records of the credit union, not more than 30 nor less than 7 days before the date of the vote. The membership must be given the opportunity to vote by mail ballot. The credit union may provide the notice of the proposal and the ballot to members at the same time.
</P>
<P>(c) If the membership and the NCUA approve the proposition for termination of insurance, the credit union must give the members prompt and reasonable notice of termination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.203   Conversion of insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally insured state credit union may convert to non-Federal insurance, if permitted by state law, either on its own or by merging into a non-federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) A federal credit union may convert to non-Federal insurance only by merging into, or converting its charter to, a non-federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) Conversion to non-Federal insurance requires the prior written approval of the NCUA. After the credit union board of directors resolves to seek a conversion, the credit union must notify the Regional Director promptly, in writing, of the desired conversion and request NCUA approval of the conversion. The notification must be in the form specified in subpart C of this part, unless the Regional Director approves a different form. The credit union must provide this notification and request for approval to the Regional Director at least 14 days before the credit union notifies its members and seeks their vote and at least 90 days before the proposed conversion date. NCUA will approve or disapprove the conversion as described in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) Approval of a conversion of Federal to non-Federal insurance requires the affirmative vote of a majority of the credit union's members who vote on the proposition, provided at least 20 percent of the total membership participates in the voting. The vote must be taken by secret ballot and conducted by an independent entity.
</P>
<P>(e) For all conversions, the notice to the NCUA must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement from the credit union that “it is aware of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831t(b), including all notification and acknowledgment requirements;” and
</P>
<P>(2) Proof that the non-Federal insurer is authorized to issue share insurance in the state where the credit union is located and that the insurer will insure the credit union.
</P>
<P>(f) The board of directors of the credit union and the independent entity that conducts the membership vote must certify the results of the membership vote to the NCUA within 14 calendar days after the deadline for receipt of votes. The certification must include the total number of members of record of the credit union, the number who voted on the conversion, the number who voted in favor of the conversion, and the number who voted against. The certification must be in the form specified in subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(g) Generally, the NCUA will conditionally approve or disapprove the conversion in writing within 14 days after receiving the certification of the vote. The credit union must complete the conversion within six months of the date of conditional approval. If a credit union fails to complete the conversion within six months the Regional Director will disapprove the conversion. The credit union's board of directors, if it still wishes to convert, must then adopt a new conversion proposal and solicit another member vote.
</P>
<P>(h) For conversions by merger, the merging credit unions must follow the procedures specified in subparts A and B of this part and use the forms specified in subpart C of this part. In the event the procedures of subpart A and B conflict, the credit union must follow subpart B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.204" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.204   Notice to members of proposal to convert insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the board of directors of a federally insured credit union adopts a resolution proposing to convert from federal to non-Federal insurance, including an insurance conversion associated with a merger or conversion of charter, it must provide its members with written notice of the proposal to convert insurance and of the date set for the membership vote. The first written communication following this resolution that is made by or on behalf of the credit union and that informs the members that the credit union will seek conversion of insurance is the notice of the proposal to convert. This notice must:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform the members of the requirement for a membership vote and the date for the vote;
</P>
<P>(2) Explain that the insurance provided by the NCUA is federal insurance and is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government, while the insurance provided by the non-Federal insurer is not guaranteed by the federal or any state government;
</P>
<P>(3) Include a conspicuous statement that if the conversion or merger is approved, and the credit union, or the continuing credit union in the case of a merger, subsequently fails, the federal government does not guarantee the member will get his or her money back; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be in the form set forth in subpart C of this part, unless the Regional Director approves a different form.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union must deliver the notice in person to each member or mail it to each member at the address for the member as it appears on the records of the credit union, not more than 30 nor less than 7 days before the date for the vote. The credit union must give the membership the opportunity to vote by mail ballot. The form of the ballot must be as set forth in subpart C of this part, unless the Regional Director approves the use of a different form. The notice of the proposal and the ballot may be provided to the members at the same time.
</P>
<P>(c) If the membership and the NCUA approve the proposition for conversion of insurance, the credit union will give prompt and reasonable notice to the membership. The credit union must deliver the notice at least 30 days before the effective date of the conversion. The notice must identify the effective date of the conversion, and the first page must also include a conspicuous statement (<I>i.e.</I>, in bold and no smaller than any other font size used in the notice) that:
</P>
<P>(1) The conversion will result in the loss of federal share insurance, and
</P>
<P>(2) The credit union will, at any time before the effective date of conversion, permit all members who have share certificates or other term accounts to close the federally insured portion of those accounts without an early withdrawal penalty.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.205" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.205   Modifications to notice and ballot.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Converting credit unions will use the form notice and ballot as provided in subpart C of this part unless the Regional Director approves the use of a different form.
</P>
<P>(b) A converting credit union will provide the Regional Director with a copy of the notice and ballot, including any reasons for conversion and estimated costs of conversion, on or before the date the notice and ballot are mailed to the members.
</P>
<P>(c) Federally insured state-chartered credit unions may include additional language in the notice and ballot regarding state requirements for mergers, where appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.206" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.206   Share insurance communications to members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Every share insurance communication must comply with § 740.2 of this chapter, which, in part, prohibits federally insured credit unions from making any representation that is inaccurate or deceptive in any particular.
</P>
<P>(b) Every share insurance communication must contain the following conspicuous statement: “IF YOU ARE A MEMBER OF THIS CREDIT UNION, YOUR ACCOUNTS ARE CURRENTLY INSURED BY THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION, A FEDERAL AGENCY. THIS FEDERAL INSURANCE IS BACKED BY THE FULL FAITH AND CREDIT OF THE UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT. IF THE CREDIT UNION CONVERTS TO PRIVATE INSURANCE WITH [insert name of private share insurer] AND THE CREDIT UNION FAILS, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT YOU WILL GET YOUR MONEY BACK.” The statement must:
</P>
<P>(1) Appear on the first page of the communication where conversion is discussed and, if the communication is on an Internet Web site posting, the credit union must make reasonable efforts to make it visible without scrolling; and (2) Must be in capital letters, bolded, offset from the other text by use of a border, and at least one font size larger than any other text (exclusive of headings) used in the communication.
</P>
<P>(c) Every share insurance communication about share insurance termination must contain the following conspicuous statement: “IF YOU ARE A MEMBER OF THIS CREDIT UNION, YOUR ACCOUNTS ARE CURRENTLY INSURED BY THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION, A FEDERAL AGENCY. THIS FEDERAL INSURANCE IS BACKED BY THE FULL FAITH AND CREDIT OF THE UNITED STATES GOVERNMENT. IF THE CREDIT UNION TERMINATES ITS FEDERAL INSURANCE AND THE CREDIT UNION FAILS, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT YOU WILL GET YOUR MONEY BACK.” The statement must:
</P>
<P>(1) Appear on the first page of the communication where termination is discussed and, if the communication is on an internet website posting, the credit union must make reasonable efforts to make it visible without scrolling; and
</P>
<P>(2) Must be in capital letters, bolded, offset from the other text by use of a border, and at least one font size larger than any other text (exclusive of headings) used in the communication.
</P>
<P>(d) A converting credit union must provide the Regional Director with a copy of any share insurance communication that the credit union will make during the voting period. The Regional Director must receive the copy at or before the time the credit union makes it available to members. The converting credit union must inform the Regional Director when the communication is to be made, to which members it will be directed, and how it will be disseminated. For purposes of this section, the voting period begins on the date of the board of director's resolution to seek conversion or termination and ends on the date the member voting closes.
</P>
<P>(e) The Regional Director may take appropriate action, including disapproving a conversion, if he or she determines that a converting credit union, by inclusion or omission of information in a share insurance communication, materially mislead or misinformed its membership. For example, the Regional Director will treat any share insurance communication that compares the relative strength, safety, or claims paying ability of a private insurer with that of the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund as materially misleading if the comparison fails to mention that the federal insurance provided by the NCUA is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 81394, Dec. 28, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Forms</HEAD>

<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to subpart C of part 708b appear at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 708b.301" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.301   Conversion of insurance (State Chartered Credit Union).</HEAD>
<P>Unless the Regional Director approves the use of different forms, a state chartered credit union must use the forms in this section in connection with a conversion to non-Federal insurance.
</P>
<P>(a) Form letter notifying NCUA of intent to convert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(insert name), NCUA Regional Director 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(insert address of NCUA Regional Director) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Re: Notice of Intent to Convert to Private Share Insurance
</FP-2>
<FP>Dear Director (insert name):
</FP>
<P>In accordance with federal law at title 12, United States Code Section 1785(b)(1)(D), I request the National Credit Union Administration approve the conversion of (insert name of credit union) from federal share insurance to private primary share insurance with (insert name of private insurance company).
</P>
<P>On (insert date), the board of directors of (insert name of credit union) resolved to pursue the conversion from federal insurance to private insurance. A copy of the resolution is enclosed.
</P>
<P>On (insert date), the credit union plans to solicit the vote of our members on the conversion. The credit union will employ (insert name, address, and telephone number of independent entity) to conduct the member vote. The credit union will use the form notice and ballot required by NCUA regulations, and will certify the results to NCUA as required by NCUA regulations.
</P>
<P>Aside from the notice and ballot, the credit union (does)(does not) intend to provide its members with additional written information about the conversion. I understand that NCUA regulations forbid any communications to members, including communications about NCUA insurance or private insurance, that are inaccurate or deceptive.
</P>
<P>(Insert name of State) allows credit unions to obtain primary share insurance from (insert name of private insurance company). I have enclosed a copy of a letter from (insert name and title of state regulator) establishing that (insert name of private insurer) has the authority to provide (insert name of credit union) with primary share insurance.
</P>
<P>I have enclosed a copy of a letter from (insert name of private insurer) indicating it has accepted (insert name of credit union) for primary share insurance and will insure the credit union immediately upon the date that it loses its federal share insurance.
</P>
<P>I am aware of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831t(b), including all notification and acknowledgment requirements.
</P>
<P>The point of contact for conversion matters is (insert name and title of credit union employee), who can be reached at (insert telephone number).
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<FP>(signature)
</FP>
<FP>Chief Executive Officer.
</FP>
<FP>Enclosures</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Form notice to members of intent to convert and special meeting of members:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Notice of Proposal to Convert to Non-federally insured Status and Special Meeting of Members 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Insert Name of Converting Credit Union)
</HD1>
<P>On (insert date), the board of directors of your credit union approved a proposition to convert from federal share (deposit) insurance to private insurance. You are encouraged to attend a special meeting of our credit union at (insert address) on (insert time and date) to address this proposition.
</P>
<HD1>Purpose of Meeting
</HD1>
<P>The meeting has two purposes:
</P>
<P>1. To consider and act upon a proposal to convert your account insurance from federal insurance to private insurance.
</P>
<P>2. To approve the action of the Board of Directors in authorizing the officers of the credit union to carry out the proposed conversion.
</P>
<HD1>Insurance Conversion
</HD1>
<P>Currently, your accounts have share insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration, an agency of the federal government. The basic federal coverage is up to $250,000, but accounts may be structured in different ways, such as joint accounts, payable-on-death accounts, or IRA accounts, to achieve federal coverage of much more than $250,000. If the conversion is approved, your federal insurance will terminate on the effective date of the conversion. Instead, your accounts in the credit union will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of State). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government. The private insurance you will receive from (insert name of insurer), however, is not guaranteed by the federal or any state or local government.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">IF THIS CONVERSION IS APPROVED, AND THE (insert name of credit</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE YOU</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">WILL GET YOUR MONEY BACK.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Also, because this conversion, if approved, would result in the loss of federal share insurance, the credit union will, at any time between the approval of the conversion and the effective date of conversion and upon request by the member, permit all members who have share certificates or other term accounts to close the federally insured portion of those accounts without an early withdrawal penalty. (This is an optional sentence. It may be deleted without the approval of the Regional Director. The members must be informed about this right, however, as described in 12 CFR 708b.204(c).)
</P>
<P>The board of directors has concluded that the proposed conversion is desirable for the following reasons: (insert reasons). (This is an optional paragraph. It may be deleted without the prior approval of the Regional Director.)
</P>
<P>The proposed conversion will result in the following one-time cost associated with the conversion: (List the total estimated dollar amount, including (1) the cost of conducting the vote, (2) the cost of changing the credit union's name and insurance logo, and (3) attorney and consultant fees.)
</P>
<P>The conversion must have the approval of a majority of members who vote on the proposal, provided at least 20 percent of the total membership participates in the voting.
</P>
<P>Enclosed with this Notice of Special Meeting is a ballot. If you cannot attend the meeting, please complete the ballot and return it to (insert name and address of independent entity conducting the vote) by no later than (insert time and date). To be counted, your ballot must reach us by that date and time.
</P>
<P>By order of the board of directors.
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer)
</FP>
<FP>(insert title and date)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Form ballot:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Ballot for Conversion to Non-federally insured Status 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Insert Name of Converting Credit Union) 
</HD1>
<FP-2>Name of Member: (insert name) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Account Number: (insert account number) 
</FP-2>
<P>The credit union must receive this ballot by (insert date and time for vote). Please mail or bring it to: (Insert name of independent entity and address).
</P>
<P>I understand if the conversion of the (insert name of credit union) is approved, the National Credit Union Administration share (deposit) insurance I now have, up to $250,000, or possibly more if I use different account structures, will terminate upon the effective date of the conversion. Instead, my shares in the (insert name of credit union) will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of state). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government. The private insurance provided by (insert name of insurer) is not.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">I FURTHER UNDERSTAND THAT IF THIS CONVERSION IS APPROVED</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">AND THE (insert name of credit union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT I WILL GET MY MONEY</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">BACK.</E> </TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I vote on the proposal as follows (check one box):
</P>
<P>[ ] Approve the conversion to private insurance and authorize the Board of Directors to take all necessary action to accomplish the conversion.
</P>
<P>[ ] Do not approve the conversion to private insurance.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signed:
</FP-DASH>
<P>    (Insert printed member's name) 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Form certification of member vote to NCUA:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of Vote on Conversion to Non-federally insured Status
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned officers of the (insert name of converting credit union), certify the completion of the following actions:
</P>
<P>1. At a meeting on (insert date), the Board of Directors adopted a resolution to seek the conversion of our primary share insurance coverage from NCUA to (insert name of private insurer).
</P>
<P>2. Not more than 30 nor less than 7 days before the date of the vote, copies of the notice of special meeting and the ballot, as approved by the National Credit Union Administration, were mailed to our members.
</P>
<P>3. The credit union arranged for the conduct of a special meeting of our members at the time and place announced in the Notice to consider and act upon the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>4. At the special meeting, the credit union arranged for an explanation of the conversion to the members present at the special meeting.
</P>
<P>5. The (insert name), an entity independent of the credit union, conducted the membership vote at the special meeting. The members voted as follows:
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of total members
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present at the special meeting
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted in favor of the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted against the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots in favor of the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots opposed to the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert “20% or more”) OR (insert “Less than 20%”) of the total membership voted. Of those who voted, a majority voted (insert “in favor of”) OR (“against”) conversion.
</P>
<P>The action of the members at the special meeting was recorded in the minutes.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date).
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer) 
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title) 
</FP>
<FP>(signature of Board Secretary)
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title) 
</FP>
<P>I (insert name), an officer of the (insert name of independent entity that conducted the vote), hereby certify that the information recorded in paragraph 5 above is accurate.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date):
</P>
<FP>(signature of officer of independent entity)
</FP>
<FP>(typed name, title, and phone number)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.302" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.302   Conversion of insurance (Federal Credit Union).</HEAD>
<P>Unless the Regional Director approves the use of different forms, a federal credit union must use the following forms in this section in connection with a conversion to a non-federally insured state charter.
</P>
<P>(a) Form letter notifying NCUA of intent to convert:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(insert name), NCUA Regional Director 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(insert address of NCUA Regional Director) 
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Re: Notice of Intent To Convert to State Charter and to Private Share Insurance 
</FP-2>
<FP>Dear Director (insert name):
</FP>
<P>In accordance with federal law at title 12, United States Code Section 1785(b)(1)(D), I request the National Credit Union Administration approve the conversion of (insert name of federal credit union) to a state charter in (insert name of state) and from federal share insurance to private primary share insurance with (insert name of private insurance company).
</P>
<P>On (insert date), the board of directors of (insert name of credit union) resolved to pursue the charter conversion and the conversion from federal insurance to private insurance. A copy of the resolution is enclosed.
</P>
<P>On (insert date), the credit union plans to solicit the vote of our members on the conversion. The credit union will employ (insert name, address, and telephone number of independent entity) to conduct the vote. The credit union will use the form notice and ballot required by NCUA regulations, and will certify the results to NCUA as required by NCUA regulations.
</P>
<P>Aside from the notice and ballot, the credit union (does)(does not) intend to provide our members with additional written information about the conversion. I understand that NCUA regulations forbid any communications to members, including communications about NCUA insurance or private insurance, that are inaccurate or deceptive.
</P>
<P>I have enclosed a copy of a letter from (insert name and title of state regulator) indicating approval of our conversion to a state charter.
</P>
<P>(Insert name of State) allows credit unions to obtain primary share insurance from (insert name of private insurance company). I have enclosed a copy of a letter from (insert name and title of state regulator) establishing that (insert name of private insurer) has the authority to provide (insert name of credit union), after conversion to a state charter, with primary share insurance.
</P>
<P>I have enclosed a copy of a letter from (insert name of private insurer) indicating it has accepted (insert name of credit union) for primary share insurance and will insure the credit union immediately upon the date that it loses its federal share insurance.
</P>
<P>I am aware of the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 1831t(b), including all notification and acknowledgment requirements.
</P>
<P>Enclosed you will also find other information required by NCUA's Chartering and Field of Membership Manual, Chapter 4, § III.C.
</P>
<P>The point of contact for conversion matters is (insert name and title of credit union employee), who can be reached at (insert telephone number).
</P>
<P>  Sincerely, 
</P>
<FP>(signature),
</FP>
<FP>Chief Executive Officer.
</FP>
<FP>Enclosures</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Form notice to members of intent to convert and special meeting of members:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Notice of Proposal To Convert to a State Charter and to Non-federally insured Status and Special Meeting of Members 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Insert Name of Converting Credit Union)
</HD1>
<P>On (insert date), the board of directors of your credit union approved a proposition to convert from federal share (deposit) insurance to private insurance and to convert from a federal credit union to a state-chartered credit union. You are encouraged to attend a special meeting of our credit union at (insert address) on (insert time and date) to address this proposition.
</P>
<HD1>Purpose of Meeting
</HD1>
<P>The meeting has two purposes:
</P>
<P>1. To consider and act upon a proposal to convert your credit union from a federal charter to a state charter and your account insurance from federal insurance to private insurance.
</P>
<P>2. To approve the action of the Board of Directors in authorizing the officers of the credit union to carry out the proposed conversion.
</P>
<HD1>Insurance Conversion
</HD1>
<P>Currently, your accounts have share insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration, an agency of the federal government. The basic federal coverage is up to $250,000, but accounts may be structured in different ways, such as joint accounts, payable-on-death accounts, or IRA accounts, to achieve federal coverage of much more than $250,000. If the conversion is approved, your federal insurance will terminate on the effective date of the conversion. Instead, your accounts in the credit union will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of State). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government. The private insurance you will receive from (insert name of insurer), however, is not guaranteed by the federal or any state or local government.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">IF THIS CONVERSION IS APPROVED, AND THE (insert name of credit</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE YOU</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">WILL GET YOUR MONEY BACK.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Also, because this conversion, if approved, would result in the loss of federal share insurance, the credit union will, at any time between the approval of the conversion and the effective date of conversion and upon request of the member, permit all members who have share certificates or other term accounts to close the federally insured portion of those accounts without an early withdrawal penalty. (This is an optional sentence. It may be deleted without the approval of the Regional Director. The members must be informed about this right, however, as described in 12 CFR 708b.204(c).)
</P>
<P>The board of directors has concluded that the proposed conversion is desirable for the following reasons: (Insert reasons). (This is an optional paragraph. It may be deleted without the approval of the Regional Director.).
</P>
<P>The proposed conversion will result in the following one-time cost associated with the conversion: (List the total estimated dollar amount, including (1) the cost of conducting the vote, (2) the cost of changing the credit union's name and insurance logo, and (3) attorney and consultant fees.)
</P>
<P>The conversion must have the approval of a majority of members who vote on the proposal, provided at least 20 percent of the total membership participates in the voting.
</P>
<P>Enclosed with this Notice of Special Meeting is a ballot. If you cannot attend the meeting, please complete the ballot and return it to (insert name and address of independent entity conducting the vote) by no later than (insert time and date). To be counted, your ballot must reach us by that date and time.
</P>
<P>By order of the board of directors.
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer)
</FP>
<FP>(insert title and date)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Form ballot:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Ballot for Conversion to State Charter and Non-federally insured Status 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Insert Name of Converting Credit Union) 
</HD1>
<FP>Name of Member: (insert name) 
</FP>
<FP>Account Number: (insert account number) 
</FP>
<P>The credit union must receive this ballot by (insert date and time for vote). Please mail or bring it to: (Insert name of independent entity and address).
</P>
<P>I understand if the conversion of the (insert name of credit union) is approved, the National Credit Union Administration share (deposit) insurance I now have, up to $250,000, or possibly more if I use different accounts structures, will terminate upon the effective date of the conversion. Instead, my shares in the (insert name of credit union) will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of state). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government. The private insurance provided by (insert name of insurer) is not.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">I FURTHER UNDERSTAND THAT, IF THIS CONVERSION IS APPROVED</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">AND THE (insert name of credit union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT I WILL GET MY MONEY</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">BACK.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I vote on the proposal as follows (check one box):
</P>
<P>[ ] Approve the conversion of charter and conversion to private insurance and authorize the Board of Directors to take all necessary action to accomplish the conversion.
</P>
<P>[ ] Do not approve the conversion of charter and the conversion to private insurance.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signed:
</FP-DASH>
<P>    (Insert printed member's name) 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) Form certification to NCUA of member vote:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of Vote on Conversion to State Charter and Non-federally insured Status
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned officers of the (insert name of converting credit union), certify the completion of the following actions:
</P>
<P>1. At a meeting on (insert date), the Board of Directors adopted a resolution to seek the conversion of our credit union to a state charter and the conversion of our primary share insurance coverage from NCUA to (insert name of private insurer).
</P>
<P>2. Not more than 30 nor less than 7 days before the date of the vote, copies of the notice of special meeting and ballot, as approved by the National Credit Union Administration, were mailed to our members.
</P>
<P>3. The credit union arranged for the conduct of a special meeting of our members at the time and place announced in the Notice to consider and act upon the proposed conversion.
</P>
<P>4. At the special meeting, the credit union arranged for an explanation of the conversion to the members present at the special meeting.
</P>
<P>5. The (insert name), an entity independent of the credit union, conducted the membership vote at the special meeting. The members voted as follows:
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of total members
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present at the special meeting
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted in favor of the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted against the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots in favor of the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots opposed to the conversion
</P>
<P>(insert “20% or more”) OR (insert “Less than 20%”) of the total membership voted. Of those who voted, a majority voted (inset “in favor of”) OR (“against”) conversion.
</P>
<P>The action of the members at the special meeting was recorded in the minutes.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date).
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer)
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title) 
</FP>
<FP>(signature of Board Secretary) 
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title)
</FP>
<P>I (insert name), an officer of the (insert name of independent entity that conducted the vote), hereby certify that the information recorded in paragraph 5 above is accurate.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date):
</P>
<FP>(signature of officer of independent entity)
</FP>
<FP>(typed name, title, and phone number)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.303" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.303   Conversion of insurance through merger.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the Regional Director approves the use of different forms, a federally insured credit union that is merging into a non-federally insured credit union must use the forms in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Form notice to members of intent to merge and convert and special meeting of members:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Notice of Special Meeting on Proposal To Merge and Convert to Non-federally insured Status 
</HD1>
<HD1>(Insert Name of Merging Credit Union)
</HD1>
<P>On (insert date), the Board of Directors of your credit union approved a proposition to merge with (insert name of continuing credit union) and to convert from federal share (deposit) insurance to private insurance. You are encouraged to attend a special meeting of our credit union at (insert address) on (insert time and date).
</P>
<HD1>Purpose of Meeting
</HD1>
<P>The meeting has two purposes:
</P>
<P>1. To consider and act upon a proposal to merge our credit union with (insert name of continuing credit union), the continuing credit union.
</P>
<P>2. To approve the action of the Board of Directors of our credit union in authorizing the officers of the credit union, subject to member approval, to carry out the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>If this merger is approved, our credit union will transfer all its assets and liabilities to the continuing credit union. As a member of our credit union, you will become a member of the continuing credit union. On the effective date of the merger, you will receive shares in the continuing credit union for the shares you own now in our credit union.
</P>
<HD1>Insurance Conversion
</HD1>
<P>Currently, your accounts have share insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration, an agency of the federal government. The basic federal coverage is up to $250,000, but accounts may be structured in different ways, such as joint accounts, payable-on-death accounts, or IRA accounts, to achieve federal coverage of much more than $250,000. If the merger is approved, your federal insurance will terminate on the effective date of the merger. Instead, your accounts in the credit union will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of State). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States government. The private insurance you will receive from (insert name of insurer), however, is not guaranteed by the federal or any state or local government.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">IF THIS MERGER IS APPROVED AND THE (insert name of continuing</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">credit union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT DOES NOT</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">GUARANTEE YOU WILL GET YOUR MONEY BACK.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>Also, because this merger, if approved, would result in the loss of federal share insurance, the (insert name of merging credit union) will, at any time between the approval of the merger and the effective date of merger and upon request of the member, permit all members who have share certificates or other term accounts to close the federally insured portion of those accounts without an early withdrawal penalty. (This is an optional sentence. It may be deleted without the approval of the Regional Director. The members must be informed about this right, however, as described in 12 CFR 708b.204(c).) 
</P>
<HD1>Other Information Related to the Proposed Merger
</HD1>
<P>The directors of the participating credit unions carefully analyzed the assets and liabilities of the participating credit unions and appraised each credit union's share values. The appraisal of the share values appears on the attached individual and consolidated financial statements of the participating credit unions.
</P>
<P>The directors of the participating credit unions have concluded that the proposed merger is desirable for the following reasons: (insert reasons)
</P>
<P>The Board of Directors of our credit union believes the merger should include/not include an adjustment in shares for the following reasons: (insert reasons)
</P>
<P>The main office of the continuing credit union will be as follows: (insert location)
</P>
<P>The branch office(s) of the continuing credit union will be as follows: (insert locations)
</P>
<P>The merger must have the approval of a majority of members who vote on the proposal, provided at least 20 percent of the total membership participates in the voting.
</P>
<P>Enclosed with this Notice of Special Meeting is a Ballot for Merger Proposal and Conversion to Non-federally insured Status. If you cannot attend the meeting, please complete the ballot and return it to (insert name of independent entity conducting vote) at (insert mailing address) by no later than (insert date and time). To be counted, your ballot must reach (insert name of independent entity conducting vote) by the date and time announced for the meeting.
</P>
<P>By order of the board of directors.
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer) 
</FP>
<FP>(insert name and title of Board Presiding Officer) (insert date)</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) Form ballot:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Ballot for Merger Proposal and Conversion to Non-federally insured Status 
</HD1>
<FP>Name of Member: (insert name) 
</FP>
<FP>Account Number: (insert account number) 
</FP>
<P>The credit union must receive this ballot by (insert date and time for vote). Please mail or bring it to: (Insert name of independent entity and address)
</P>
<P>I understand if the merger or conversion of the (insert name of merging credit union) into the (insert name of continuing credit union) is approved, the National Credit Union Administration share (deposit) insurance I now have, up to $250,000, or possibly more if I use different account structures, will terminate upon the effective date of the conversion. Instead, my shares in the (insert name of credit union) will be insured up to $(insert dollar amount) by (insert name of insurer), a corporation chartered by the State of (insert name of state). The federal insurance provided by the National Credit Union Administration is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States Government. The private insurance provided by (insert name of insurer) is not.</P></EXTRACT>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">I FURTHER UNDERSTAND THAT, IF THIS MERGER IS APPROVED AND</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">THE (insert name of continuing credit union) FAILS, THE FEDERAL</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">GOVERNMENT DOES NOT GUARANTEE THAT I WILL GET MY MONEY</E> 
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="02">BACK.</E></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<EXTRACT>
<P>I vote on the proposal as follows (check one box):
</P>
<P>[ ] Approve the merger and the conversion to private insurance and authorize the Board of Directors to take all necessary action to accomplish the merger and conversion.
</P>
<P>[ ] Do not approve the merger and the conversion to private insurance.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Signed:
</FP-DASH>
<P>    (Insert printed member's name) 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) Form certification of vote:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of Vote on Merger Proposal and Conversion to Non-federally insured Status of the (Insert Name of Merging Credit Union)
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned officers of the (insert name of merging credit union), certify the completion of the following actions:
</P>
<P>1. At a meeting on (insert date), the Board of Directors adopted a resolution approving the merger of our credit union with (insert name of continuing credit union).
</P>
<P>2. Not more than 30 nor less than 7 days before the date of the vote, copies of the notice of special meeting and the ballot, as approved by the National Credit Union Administration, and a copy of the merger plan announced in the notice, were mailed to our members.
</P>
<P>3. The credit union arranged for the conduct of a special meeting of our members at the time and place announced in the Notice to consider and act upon the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>4. At the special meeting, the credit union arranged for an explanation of the merger proposal and any changes in federally insured status to the members present at the special meeting.
</P>
<P>5. The (insert name), an entity independent of the credit union, conducted the membership vote at the special meeting. At least 20 percent of our total membership voted and a majority of voting members favor the merger as follows:
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of total members
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present at the special meeting
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted in favor of the merger
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of members present who voted against the merger
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots in favor of the merger
</P>
<P>(insert) Number of additional written ballots opposed to the merger
</P>
<P>6. The action of the members at the special meeting was recorded in the minutes.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date):
</P>
<FP>(signature of Board Presiding Officer) 
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title) 
</FP>
<FP>(signature of Board Secretary)
</FP>
<FP>(insert typed name and title) 
</FP>
<P>I (insert name), an officer of the (insert name of independent entity that conducted the vote), hereby certify that the information recorded in paragraph 5 above is accurate.
</P>
<P>This certification signed the (insert date):
</P>
<FP>(signature of officer of independent entity)
</FP>
<FP>(typed name, title, and phone number)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 3288, Jan. 24, 2005, as amended at 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 708b.304" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.10.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 708b.304   Merger of a federally insured credit union into another federally insured credit union.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Merger resolution for continuing credit union, NCUA 6302.</I> The continuing credit union's board of directors must complete this form after it votes to merge with the merging credit union. The merger package required by § 708b.104 must include merger resolutions from both the merging and continuing credit unions.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Merger Resolution (Continuing Credit Union)
</HD1>
<HD1>Resolution
</HD1>
<P>The Board of Directors believes our credit union should merge with [name of merging credit union] (merging credit union). Our credit union will assume the merging credit union's shares and liabilities. The merging credit union will transfer to our credit union all of its assets, rights, and property. All members of the merging credit union will receive shares in our credit union, which will stay in business under its present charter.
</P>
<HD1>Certification
</HD1>
<P>We, the Board Presiding Officer and Secretary of this credit union, are authorized to:
</P>
<P>• Seek National Credit Union Administration Regional Director approval of the merger.
</P>
<P>• Execute and deliver the merger agreement on the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>• Execute all agreements and other papers required to complete the merger.
</P>
<P>We certify to the National Credit Union Administration that the foregoing is a full, true, and correct copy of a resolution adopted by the Board of Directors of our credit union at a meeting held under our bylaws on [month and date], 20____. A quorum was present and voted. The resolution is duly recorded in the minutes of the meeting and is still in full force and effect.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(b) <I>Merger resolution for merging credit union, NCUA 6303.</I> The merging credit union's board of directors must complete this form after it votes to merge with the continuing credit union. The merger package required by § 708b.104 must include merger resolutions from both the merging and continuing credit unions.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Merger Resolution (Merging Credit Union)
</HD1>
<HD1>Resolution
</HD1>
<P>The Board of Directors believes our credit union should merge with [name of continuing credit union] (continuing credit union). The continuing credit union will assume the shares and liabilities of our credit union. Our credit union will transfer to the continuing credit union all of our assets, rights, and property. All members of our credit union will receive shares in the continuing credit union, which will stay in business under its present charter.
</P>
<HD1>Certification
</HD1>
<P>We, the Board Presiding Officer and Secretary of this credit union, are authorized to:
</P>
<P>• Seek National Credit Union Administration Regional Director approval of the merger.
</P>
<P>• Execute and deliver the merger agreement on the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>• Execute all agreements and other papers required to complete the merger.
</P>
<P>We certify to the National Credit Union Administration that the foregoing is a full, true, and correct copy of a resolution adopted by the Board of Directors of our credit union at a meeting held under our bylaws on [month and day], 20____. A quorum was present and voted. The resolution is duly recorded in the minutes of the meeting and is still in full force and effect.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(c) <I>Merger agreement, Form 6304.</I> Submit a proposed merger agreement to the NCUA with the initial merger package required by § 708b.104. Do not sign, date, or notarize the proposed agreement. At the completion of the merger, officials of the merging and continuing credit unions must sign this agreement and have it notarized. The continuing credit union should retain the original document. Send one copy of the executed form to the NCUA Regional Director (see Form NCUA 6309 in paragraph (g) of this section). The date you execute this document is the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Merger Agreement
</HD1>
<P>This agreement is made and entered into on [month and day], 20____, by and between [name of continuing credit union] (continuing credit union) and [name of merging credit union] (merging credit union). The continuing credit union and the merging credit union agree to the following terms:
</P>
<P>1. The merging credit union will transfer to the continuing credit union all of its assets, rights, and property.
</P>
<P>2. The continuing credit union will assume and pay all liabilities of the merging credit union. In addition, the continuing credit union will issue all members of the merging credit union the same amount of shares they currently own in the merging credit union, subject to the following share adjustments (if any):
</P>
<HD3>[Name of continuing credit union] by:
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Treasurer
</FP>
<HD3>[Name of merging credit union] by:
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Treasurer
</FP>
<FP>Before me a Notary Public (or other authorized officer) appeared the above named [name of Board presiding officer] and [name of Treasurer], Board Presiding Officer and Treasurer of [name of continuing credit union], who being personally known to me as (or proved by the oath of credible witnesses to be) the persons who executed the annexed instrument acknowledged the same to be their free act and deed and in their respective capacities the free act and deed of said credit union.
</FP>
<HD3>(SEAL)
</HD3>
<FP>Notary Public
</FP>
<FP>My commission expires____________, 20____.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>State of
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County of
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Before me a Notary Public (or other authorized officer) appeared the above named [name of Board Presiding Officer] and [name of Treasurer], Board Presiding Officer and Treasurer of [name of merging credit union], who being personally known to me as (or proved by the oath of credible witnesses to be) the persons who executed the annexed instrument acknowledged the same to be their free act and deed and in their respective capacities the free act and deed of said credit union.
</FP>
<HD3>(SEAL)
</HD3>
<FP>Notary Public
</FP>
<FP>My commission expires____________, 20____.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>State of
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>County of</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(d) <I>Sample form notice to members, NCUA 6305A.</I> If a federally insured credit union is merging into another federally insured credit union, use of this form will meet the requirements of § 708b.106. Brackets provide instructions or indicate that the merging credit union should fill in the appropriate information, or select the appropriate option to conform the notice to the circumstances of the merger.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Notice of Meeting of the Members of [Name] Credit Union
</HD1>
<P>The Board of Directors of [name of merging credit union] have called a [special] meeting of the members of this credit union at [location, address], on [month, day, year] at [time]. The purpose of this meeting is:
</P>
<P>1. To consider and act upon a plan and proposal for merging [name of merging credit union] with and into [name of continuing credit union] (hereinafter referred to as the “Continuing Credit Union”), whereby all assets and liabilities of the [name of merging credit union] will be merged with and into the Continuing Credit Union. All members of [name of merging credit union] will become members of the Continuing Credit Union and will be entitled to and will receive shares in the Continuing Credit Union for the shares they own in [name of merging credit union] on the effective date of the merger.
</P>
<P>2. To ratify, confirm and approve the action of the Board of Directors in authorizing the officers of [name of merging credit union], subject to the approval of members, to do all things and to execute all agreements, documents, and other papers necessary to carry out the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>The Board of Directors of [name of merging credit union] encourages you to attend the meeting and vote on the proposed merger. Whether or not you expect to attend the meeting, we urge you to sign, date and promptly return the enclosed ballot to vote on the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>If you wish to submit comments about the merger to share with other members, you may submit them to the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) at [insert email address] or [insert physical address]. The NCUA will post comments received from members on its website, along with the member's name, subject to the limitations and requirements of its regulations.
</P>
<HD2><I>Other Information Related to the Proposed Merger:</I>
</HD2>
<P>The Board of Directors has carefully evaluated and analyzed the assets and liabilities of the credit unions and the value of shares in both credit unions. The financial statements of both credit unions, as well as the projected combined financial statement of the continuing credit union, follow as separate documents. In addition, the following information applies to the proposed merger.
</P>
<P><I>Reasons for merger:</I> The Board of Directors has concluded that the proposed merger is desirable and in the best interests of members because [insert reasons].
</P>
<P><I>Net worth:</I> The net worth of a merging credit union at the time of a merger transfers to the continuing credit union. [Name of merging credit union] [has or does not have] a higher net worth ratio than [name of continuing credit union].
</P>
<P><I>Share adjustment or distribution:</I> [Choose option A or B and delete the other.]
</P>
<P>A: [Name of merging credit union] will not distribute a portion of its net worth to its members in the merger. The board of directors has determined a share adjustment, or other distribution of [name of merging credit union]'s net worth is unnecessary because [insert reasons].
</P>
<P>B: [Name of merging credit union] will distribute a portion of its net worth to its members in the merger. The board of directors has determined to distribute a portion of [name of merging credit union]'s net worth as [describe method of calculating share adjustment or other provisions for reserves, undivided earnings or dividends.]
</P>
<P><I>Locations of merging and continuing credit union:</I> [Name of merging credit union]'s main office at [street address, city] will [close/remain open/remain open for____]. [If the merging credit union has branches, insert the same statement about the branch locations]. [Name of continuing credit union] has the following locations that are near [name of merging credit union]. [List address and type of location—i.e. main office, full-service branch for each non-ATM location of the continuing credit union in reasonable proximity to the locations of the merging credit unions.]
</P>
<P><I>Changes to services and member benefits:</I> [If applicable, explain any loss of services, such as increases in fees or loss of ATM access, as well as any changes to benefits such as life savings protection insurance or loan protection insurance. If inapplicable, delete entire section.]
</P>
<P><I>Merger-related financial arrangements:</I> [ ]
</P>
<P>[If inapplicable, delete entire section.] NCUA Regulations require merging credit unions to disclose certain increases in compensation that any of the merging credit union's officials or the five most highly compensated employees have received or will receive in connection with the merger. The following individuals have received or will receive such compensation:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="02">Name</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="02">Title</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="02">Description of increase</E>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"><E T="02">Amount</E>
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>Please note that the proposed merger must have the approval of the majority of members who vote.
</P>
<P>Enclosed with this Notice of Special Meeting is a Ballot for Merger Proposal. If you cannot attend the meeting, please complete the Ballot and return it to [mailing address]. To be counted, your Ballot must be received by [month, day, year] at [time of special meeting].
</P>
<HD3>BY THE ORDER OF THE BOARD OF DIRECTORS:
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>President
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(e) <I>Form ballot, NCUA 6306A.</I>
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Ballot for Merger Proposal
</HD1>
<FP>Name of Member:
</FP>
<FP>Account Number:
</FP>
<P>Your credit union must receive this ballot by [insert date of meeting]. Please mail or bring it to:
</P>
<FP>[insert credit union address]
</FP>
<P>I have read the Notice of Special Meeting for the members of Credit Union. The meeting will be held on the above date to consider and act upon the merger proposal described in the notice. I vote on the proposal as follows (check one box):
</P>
<FP>[ ] <E T="04">Approve</E> the proposed merger and authorize the Board of Directors to take all necessary action to accomplish the merger.
</FP>
<FP>[ ] <E T="04">Do not approve</E> the proposed merger.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Signed:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Member's Name
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:</FP-DASH></EXTRACT>
<P>(f) <I>Form certification of vote, NCUA 6308A.</I> Within ten calendar days after the membership vote, the merging credit union must complete this form and mail it to the NCUA Regional Director.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of Vote on Merger Proposal of the Credit Union
</HD1>
<HD3>[Merging]
</HD3>
<P>We, the undersigned officers of the [name of merging credit union], certify the completion of the following actions:
</P>
<P>1. At a meeting on [month and day], 20____, the Board of Directors adopted a resolution approving the merger of our credit union with [name of continuing credit union] (continuing credit union).
</P>
<P>2. Not more than 90 days or less than 45 days before the date of the vote, our members received copies of the notice of meeting and the ballot, as approved by the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>3. The credit union arranged for a meeting of our credit union members at the time and place announced in the notice to consider and act upon the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>4. At the meeting, the members present received an explanation of the merger proposal and any changes in products, services and locations.
</P>
<P>5. The members of our credit union voted on of the merger as follows:
</P>
<FP-1>______Number of members present at the meeting
</FP-1>
<FP-1>______Number of members present who voted in favor of the merger
</FP-1>
<FP-1>______Number of members present who voted against the merger
</FP-1>
<FP-1>______Number of additional written ballots in favor of the merger
</FP-1>
<FP-1>______Number of additional written ballots opposed to the merger
</FP-1>
<P>6. The action of the members at the meeting was recorded in the minutes.
</P>
<FP>This certification signed [month and day], 20____.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Secretary</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(g) <I>Form certification of completion of merger, NCUA 6309.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the effective date of the merger, the continuing credit union must complete this form and mail it to the NCUA Regional Director with the documents listed on the form.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of Completion of Merger
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned officers of the above-named credit union, certify to the National Credit Union Administration as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The merger of our credit union with [name of merging credit union] was completed as of [month day and year of the executed merger agreement], according to the terms and plan approved by this Board of Directors by a resolution adopted at the meeting held on [month day and year of board of directors meeting]. We previously provided a certified copy of the resolution to the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>2. We completed all required steps for the merger and transferred the merging credit union's assets.
</P>
<P>Attached to this certification are the following documents:
</P>
<P>1. Financial reports for each credit union immediately before the completion of the merger.
</P>
<P>2. A consolidated financial report for the continuing credit union immediately after the completion of the merger.
</P>
<P>3. The charter of the merging federal credit union [if available].
</P>
<P>4. The insurance certificate for the merging federally insured credit union [if available].
</P>
<P>5. A copy of the executed merger agreement, Form NCUA 6304.
</P>
<FP>This certification signed [month and day], 20____.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Treasurer</FP></EXTRACT>
<P>(h) <I>Form calculation of PAS ratio, NCUA 6311.</I> The merger package required by § 708b.104 must include PAS calculations for both the merging and continuing credit unions. The Probable Asset/Share Ratio (PAS) reflects the relative worth of $1 of shares in a credit union, assuming it will be an on-going concern. The ratio is computed by dividing the net value of assets by the credit union's total shares.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<P>ADDITIONS: Cash is valued at book less any known potential losses. Loans are valued at book net of probable estimated loan losses (ALLL). Investments are valued at book value less any known losses. However, if a long-term investment is likely to be liquidated prior to maturity, it is valued at current market value. Fixed Assets are valued at book, except when major fixed assets are not in use or are in the process of being sold. In these instances, the asset is valued at its probable market value. Other Assets are valued at the most realistic value to the credit union, usually not to exceed book value.
</P>
<P>DEDUCTIONS: Notes Payable are valued at book. Accounts Payable are valued at book. Other Liabilities are valued at book. Contingent and/or Unrecorded Liabilities are valued at the most realistic known value. This item should include any unrecorded dividends not accrued for the accounting period. Subsidiary Ledger Differences are deducted if the credit union is likely to suffer a loss due to the problem. Other Losses include any other known losses. Do not include deficits in undivided earnings or net losses because they have already reduced assets if properly recorded.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Probable Asset/Share Ratio—Continuing Credit Union
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Book Value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Market Value
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="0714">ADDITIONS:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cash
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Investments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fixed Assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other Assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total (A)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="0714">DEDUCTIONS:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Notes Payable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accounts Payable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other Recorded Liabilities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Contingent and/or Unrecorded Liabilities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Subsidiary Ledger Differences (Losses) Other Losses
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total (B)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Net Value of Assets (A−B)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total Shares
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Probable Asset/Share Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Probable Asset/Share Ratio—Merging Credit Union
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Book Value
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Market Value
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="0714">ADDITIONS:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Cash
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Loans
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Investments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Fixed Assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other Assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total (A)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"><E T="0714">DEDUCTIONS:</E>
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Notes Payable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Accounts Payable
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Other Recorded Liabilities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Contingent and/or Unrecorded Liabilities
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">Subsidiary Ledger Differences (Losses) Other Losses
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 8em">Total (B)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 12em">Net Value of Assets (A−B)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Total Shares
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Probable Asset/Share Ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV></EXTRACT>
<P>(i) <I>Certification of no non-disclosed merger-related financial arrangements.</I> The merger package required by § 708b.104 must include the following certification.
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD1>Certification of No Non-Disclosed Merger-Related Financial Arrangements
</HD1>
<P>We, the undersigned officials of [name of merging credit union] and [name of continuing credit union], certify to the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) as follows:
</P>
<P>1. The information provided to the NCUA in the merger application, and the proposed disclosure to the members of [name of merging credit union] includes a complete, true and accurate statement about all merger-related financial arrangements, if any, provided to covered persons, as those terms are defined in Part 708b of the NCUA's regulations.
</P>
<P>2. We understand that we have an affirmative duty to revise our merger application and the notice to the members of [name of merging credit union] if merger-related financial arrangements are added or increased after our application is submitted.
</P>
<FP>This certification signed [month and day], 20____.
</FP>
<FP>[name of continuing credit union]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>CEO
</FP>
<FP>[name of merging credit union]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Board Presiding Officer
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>CEO</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 30311, June 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="709" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 709—INVOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION OF FEDERAL CREDIT UNIONS AND ADJUDICATION OF CREDITOR CLAIMS INVOLVING FEDERALLY INSURED CREDIT UNIONS IN LIQUIDATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757, 1766, 1767, 1786(h), 1786(t), and 1787(b)(4), 1788, 1789, 1789a.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 56925, Nov. 7, 1991, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 709 appear at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 709.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures in this part apply to charter revocations of federal credit unions under 12 U.S.C. 1787(a)(1)(A), (B), the involuntary liquidation and adjudication of creditor claims in all cases involving federally insured credit unions, the treatment by the Board as conservator or liquidating agent of financial assets transferred in connection with a securitization or participation or of public funds held by a federally insured credit union, and the allowance of prepayment fees to Federal Home Loan Banks under specified conditions. Remaining sections of this part are applicable to all federally insured credit unions. This part does not apply to share insurance claims arising out of the liquidation of a federally insured credit union. Insurance claims are decided pursuant to part 745 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 56925, Nov. 7, 1991, as amended at 65 FR 55442, Sept. 14, 2000; 66 FR 11230, Feb. 23, 2001; 66 FR 40575, Aug. 3, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the National Credit Union Administration or any attorney assigned to the General Counsel's staff.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidating Agent</I> means the NCUA Board or person(s) appointed by it with delegated authority to carry out the liquidation of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insolvent</I> means insolvent as that term is defined in § 700.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claim</I> means a creditor's claim against the credit union in liquidation. This term does not include insurance claims arising out of the liquidation of a federally insured credit union. Insurance claims are decided pursuant to part 745 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Shareholder</I> means members, nonmembers, accountholders or any other party or entity that is the owner of a share, share certificate or share draft account or the equivalent of such accounts under state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 56925, Nov. 7, 1991, as amended at 69 FR 27828, May 17, 2004; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.2   NCUA Board as liquidating agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Board, as liquidating agent, by operation of law and without any conveyance or other instrument, act or deed, shall succeed to all the rights, titles, powers, and privileges of the credit union, and of its shareholders, officers, and directors, with respect to the credit union and its assets, and such shareholders, officers, or directors, shall not thereafter have or exercise any such rights, powers, or privileges or act in connection with any assets or property of any nature of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) The Board, as liquidating agent, shall take possession of and title to books, records, and assets of every description of such credit union to which such credit union has rights of possession and title to all offices and other facilities of such credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.3   Challenge to revocation of charter and involuntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>If a Federal credit union is determined to be insolvent and placed into liquidation pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787, the Federal credit union may, not later than 10 days after the date on which the Board closes the credit union for liquidation, apply to the United States District Court for the Judicial district in which the principal office of the credit union is located or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia for an order requiring the Board to show cause why it should not be prohibited from continuing such liquidation. Notwithstanding other provisions of this part, the board of directors of the credit union may meet following the placing of the institution into liquidation for the sole purpose of considering and authorizing the filing of this action in the name of the credit union. No such action in the name of the credit union may be instituted without the authorization of the board of directors of the institution pursuant to a valid board of directors resolution. No credit union funds shall be available to pay expenses incurred in bringing a legal action to challenge the Board's liquidation action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.4   Powers and duties of liquidating agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inventory of assets.</I> As soon as practicable after taking possession, the liquidating agent shall inventory the assets of such credit union as of the date of taking possession, showing the value as carried on the books of the credit union, and the security therefore, if any, a brief description of the assets and any security, and a record of the credit union's creditor and accounts liabilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to creditors.</I> The liquidating agent shall promptly publish a notice to the credit union's creditors to present their claims, together with proof, to the liquidating agent by a date specified in the notice. This date shall be not less than 90 days after the publication of the notice. The liquidating agent shall republish such notice approximately one and two months, respectively, after the initial publication. At the time of initial publication, the liquidating agent shall mail a notice similar to the published notice to any creditor shown on the credit union's books at the last address appearing therein. If the liquidating agent discovers the name of a creditor whose name does not appear on the credit union's books, a notice similar to the published notice shall be mailed to such creditor within 30 days after the discovery of the name and address.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General.</I> The liquidating agent shall collect all obligations and money due such credit union and may, to the extent consistent with its appointment, do all things desirable or expedient in its discretion to wind up the affairs of the credit union including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Exercise all rights and powers of the credit union including, but not limited to, any rights and powers under any mortgage, deed of trust, chose in action, option, collateral note, contract, judgment or decree, or instrument of any nature;
</P>
<P>(2) Institute, prosecute, maintain, defend, intervene, and otherwise participate in any and all actions, suits, or other legal proceedings by and against the liquidating agent or the credit union or in which the liquidating agent, the credit union, or its creditors or shareholders, or any of them, shall have an interest, and in every way to represent the credit union, its shareholders and creditors, subject to the direction of General Counsel;
</P>
<P>(3) Employ on a salary or fee basis such persons as in the judgment of the liquidating agent are necessary or desirable to carry out its responsibilities and functions, including, but not limited to, appraisers and Certified Public Accountants, and pay the costs out of the assets of the liquidated credit union;
</P>
<P>(4) Employ or retain any attorney or attorneys designated by, or acceptable to, the General Counsel in connection with litigation or for legal advice and assistance, for the liquidation generally or in particular instances, and pay compensation and retainers of such attorney or attorneys, together with all expenses, including, but not limited to, the costs and expenses of any litigation, as approved by the General Counsel, out of the assets of the liquidated credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) Execute, acknowledge, and deliver any and all deeds, contracts, leases, assignments, bills of sale, releases, extensions, satisfactions, and other instruments necessary or proper for any purposes, including, but not limited to, the effectuation, termination, or transfer of real, personal or mixed property, or that shall be necessary or proper to liquidate the credit union, and any deed or other instrument executed pursuant to the authority hereby given shall be as valid and effective for all purposes as if the same had been executed as the act and deed of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(6) With concurrence of General Counsel, disaffirm or repudiate any contract or lease to which the credit union is a party, the performance of which the liquidating agent, in his sole discretion, determines to be burdensome, and which disaffirmance or repudiation in the liquidating agent's sole discretion will promote the orderly administration of the credit union's affairs;
</P>
<P>(7) Deposit, withdraw, or transfer funds, and otherwise exercise complete control over all investment or depository accounts maintained by or for the credit union at financial dispository or similar institutions;
</P>
<P>(8) Do such things, and have such rights, powers, privileges, immunities, and duties, whether or not otherwise granted in this part 709, as shall be authorized, directed, conferred, or imposed from time to time by the Board, or as shall be conferred by the Federal Credit Union Act;
</P>
<P>(9) Exercise such other authority as is conferred by the Federal Credit Union Act; and
</P>
<P>(10) Where acting as liquidating agent for a federally insured state-chartered credit union, exercise all the rights, powers, and privileges granted by state law to such a liquidating agent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Expenditure of funds of the liquidation.</I> The liquidating agent shall have power to:
</P>
<P>(1) Pay all costs and expenses of the liquidation as determined by the liquidating agent;
</P>
<P>(2) Pay off and discharge taxes and liens;
</P>
<P>(3) Pay out and expend such sums as are deemed necessary or advisable for or in connection with the preservation, maintenance, conservation, protection, remodeling, repair, rehabilitation, or improvement of any asset or property of any nature of the credit union or the liquidating agent;
</P>
<P>(4) Pay off and discharge any assessments, liens, claims, or charges of any kind against any asset or property of any nature on which the credit union or the liquidating agent has a lien by way of mortgage, deed of trust, pledge, or otherwise, or in which the credit union or liquidating agent has any interest;
</P>
<P>(5) Settle, compromise, or obtain the release of, for cash or other consideration, claims and demands against the credit union or the liquidating agent; and
</P>
<P>(6) Indemnify its employees and agents from the assets of the credit union against liabilities incurred in the good faith performance of their duties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Assets, claims, and contracts.</I> The liquidating agent shall have power to:
</P>
<P>(1) Sell for cash or on terms, exchange, assign, or otherwise dispose of, in whole or in part, any or all of the assets and property of the credit union, real, personal and mixed, tangible and intangible, of any nature, including any mortgage, deed of trust, chose in action, bond, note, contract, judgment, or decree, share or certificate of share of stock or debt, owing to the credit union or the liquidating agent; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Surrender, abandon, and release any chose in action, or other assets or property of any nature, whether the subject of pending litigation or not, and settle, compromise, modify, or release, for cash or other consideration, claims and demands in favor of the credit union or the liquidating agent.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 56925, Nov. 7, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010; 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.5   Payout priorities in involuntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Claimants whose claims are secured shall receive their security. To the extent their respective claims exceed the value of the security for those claims, as determined to the satisfaction of the liquidating agent, they shall each have an unsecured claim against the credit union having priority as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Unsecured claims against the liquidation estate that are proved to the satisfaction of the liquidating agent shall have priority in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative costs and expenses of liquidation;
</P>
<P>(2) Claims for wages and salaries, including vacation, severance, and sick leave pay; <I>provided, however,</I> that, in accordance with § 750.7 of this chapter, no claim for vacation, severance, or sick leave pay is provable unless entitlement to the benefit is provided for in the credit union employee handbook or other written credit union record, is calculable in accordance with an objective formula, and is available to all employees who meet applicable eligibility requirements, such as minimum length of service, or if such payment is required by applicable state or local law;
</P>
<P>(3) Taxes legally due and owing to the United States or any state or subdivision thereof;
</P>
<P>(4) Debts due and owing the United States, including the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P>(5) General creditors, and secured creditors (to the extent that their respective claims exceed the value of the security for those claims);
</P>
<P>(6) Shareholders to the extent of their respective uninsured shares and the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund to the extent of its payment of share insurance; 
</P>
<P>(7) in a case involving liquidation of a corporate credit union, holders of then-outstanding membership capital accounts and nonperpetual capital accounts or instruments to the extent not depleted in a calendar year prior to the date of liquidation and also subject to the capital priority option described in appendix A of part 704 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(8) Outstanding Subordinated Debt (as defined in part 702 of this chapter) or outstanding Grandfathered Secondary Capital (as defined in part 702 of this chapter); and
</P>
<P>(9) in a case involving liquidation of a corporate credit union, holders of then-outstanding paid in capital or perpetual contributed capital instruments to the extent not depleted in a calendar year prior to the date of liquidation and also subject to the capital priority option described in appendix A of part 704 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(c) Priorities are to be based on the circumstances that exist on the date of liquidation. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the repudiation or disaffirmance of any contract or lease gives rise to a claim for damages, such claim shall be considered a general creditor claim under paragraph (b)(5) of this section and not a cost or expense of liquidation under paragraph (b)(1) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(e) All unsecured claims of any category or class or priority described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(7) of this section shall be paid in full, or provisions made for such payment, before any claims of lesser priority are paid. If there are insufficient funds to pay all claims of a category or class, payment shall be made pro rata. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary herein, the liquidating agent may, at any time, and from time to time, prior to the payment in full of all claims of a category or class with higher priority, make such distributions to claimants in priority categories described in paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(2), (b)(3), (b)(4), and (b)(5) of this section as the liquidating agent believes are reasonably necessary to conduct the liquidation, provided that the liquidating agent determines that adequate funds exist or will be recovered during the liquidation to pay in full all claims of any higher priority. If a surplus remains after making distribution in full on all allowed claims described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(9) of this section, such surplus shall be distributed pro rata to the credit union's shareholders.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 56825, Nov. 7, 1991, as amended at 61 FR 3791, Feb. 2, 1996; 62 FR 12949, Mar. 19, 1997; 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 75 FR 64859, Oct. 20, 2010; 83 FR 24652, May 30, 2018; 86 FR 11085, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.6   Initial determination of creditor claims by the liquidating agent.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any party wishing to submit a claim against the liquidated credit union must submit a written proof of claim in accordance with the requirements set forth in the notice to creditors. A failure to submit a written claim within the time provided in the notice to creditors shall be deemed a waiver of said claim and claimant shall have no further rights or remedies with respect to such claim.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the liquidating agent may, at his discretion, consider an untimely claim provide the following two criteria are present: 
</P>
<P>(i) The claimant did not receive notice of the appointment of the liquidating agent in time to file a claim before the date provided for in the notice; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The claim is filed in time to permit payment of the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) The liquidating agent may require submission of supplemental evidence by the claimant and by interested parties in the event of a dispute concerning a claim against any asset of the liquidated credit union. In requiring the submission of supplemental evidence, the liquidating agent may set such limitations of time, scope, and size as the liquidating agent deems reasonable in the circumstances, and may refuse to include in the record submissions or portions of submissions not in compliance with such limitations or requirements. The liquidating agent shall compile such written record of a claim or dispute as, in its discretion, is deemed sufficient to provide a reasonable basis for allowing or disallowing a claim or resolving a dispute. This written record shall be considered the administrative record.
</P>
<P>(c) The liquidating agent shall determine whether to allow or disallow a claim and shall notify the claimant within 180 days from the date a claim against a credit union is filed pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of the section. This 180-day period may be extended by written agreement between the claimant and the liquidating agent. Failure by the liquidating agent to determine a claim and notify the claimant within the 180-day period or, if the period is extended, within the extended period, shall be deemed a denial of the claim.
</P>
<P>(d) If a claim or any portion thereof is disallowed, the notice to the claimant shall contain a statement of the reasons for the disallowance and an explanation of appeal rights pursuant to § 709.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) Notice of any determination with respect to a claim shall be sufficient if mailed to the most recent address of the claimant which appears:
</P>
<P>(1) On the credit union's books;
</P>
<P>(2) In the claim filed by the claimant; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the documents submitted in the proof of claim.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event the liquidating agent disallows all or part of a claim, the liquidating agent shall file with the Board, or its designated agent, a report of its determination. This report shall become part of the record and shall include the notice to the claimant and findings on all issues raised and decided by the liquidating agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.7   Procedures for agency review or judicial determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A claimant may either request agency review of an initial determination of the liquidating agent to disallow a claim or seek a de novo judicial determination of claims. In order to receive agency review of an initial determination, a claimant must request an administrative appeal before the NCUA Board. In order to seek a judicial determination, a claimant must file suit (or continue an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent) in the district or territorial court of the United States for the district within which the credit union's principal place of business is located or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures for agency review.</I> A claimant requesting an administrative appeal may request a hearing on the record conducted pursuant to the procedures set forth in subpart A of part 747 of this chapter. The determination of whether to agree to a request for a hearing on the record shall rest solely with the NCUA Board, which shall notify the claimant of its decision in writing. Alternatively, a claimant may request an appeal before the NCUA Board pursuant to the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline to request agency review or file suit.</I> A claimant must request agency review of an initial determination or file suit (or continue an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent) within 60 days from the mailing of the initial determination or the expiration of the time period for the liquidating agent to determine claims under § 709.6(c), whichever is earlier. A request for a hearing on the record will suspend the 60-day period for filing a lawsuit (or continuing an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent) from the date of the claimant's request to the date of the NCUA Board's decision regarding that request. If a claimant fails to either request a hearing on the record or an appeal to the Board or file suit (or continue an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent) within the 60-day period, any disallowance of claims shall be final and the claimant shall have no further rights or remedies with respect to such claims.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Prior to requesting agency review or filing or continuing a lawsuit, a claimant may request reconsideration of the initial determination of the liquidating agent in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter. The deadline to request agency review or file suit (or continue an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent) in paragraph (c) of this section will be suspended from the date of the claimant's request to the date of the liquidating agent's decision regarding that request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.8   Expedited determination of creditor claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The provisions of this section establish procedures under which claimants may request expedited relief in lieu of the procedures set forth in § 709.6 of this part. A claimant shall be entitled to expedited determination of a claim only upon a showing that there exists a legally valid and enforceable or perfected security interest in assets of the liquidated credit union and that irreparable injury will occur if the routine claims procedure is followed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of request for expedited relief.</I> All requests for expedited relief must be filed within 30 days from the date of mailing, by the liquidating agent, of the notice to the creditor concerned. The request shall be deemed to be filed when received by the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. A copy of the request must be simultaneously served upon the liquidating agent for the credit union concerned. There shall be no right of personal appearance before the Board in connection with any claim submitted under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of request for expedited relief.</I> Any Request for Expedited Relief must contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A clear and concise statement of the facts and issues on which the request is based;
</P>
<P>(2) A clear and concise statement describing the nature of any security interests in any assets of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and concise statement of the probable, imminent and irreparable harm likely to occur if expedited relief is not granted;
</P>
<P>(4) An assessment of the likelihood of success on the merits of the underlying claim, including statutory citations and relevant documentation supporting the merits of the claim;
</P>
<P>(5) Any other relevant documentation that supports the request;
</P>
<P>(6) Citations to applicable statutes, regulations, or other legal authority; and
</P>
<P>(7) A signed statement certifying that a copy of the request has been mailed or hand delivered to the liquidating agent on or before the day that the request was filed with the Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The burden of proving entitlement to expedited relief rests at all times with the requester.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional information.</I> The Board may order the filing of additional information and or documentation in order to make its determination. Such filing shall be on a date certain, and failure to provide the additional documentation or information may constitute the sole grounds for denial of the request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decision.</I> Before the end of the 90-day period beginning on the date a request is filed, the Board shall render its decision and provide it to the requester. The Board will determine whether to grant expedited review and allow or disallow the claim or whether such claim should be resolved pursuant to the claims process described in § 709.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Expedited review denied.</I> A decision by the Board that expedited review is not appropriate shall be final and the claim shall be decided pursuant to the claims adjudication process set forth in § 709.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited review granted.</I> If expedited review is granted, the Board shall decide the claim. If the claim is disallowed, in whole or part, the decision shall contain a statement of each reason for the disallowance and the procedure for obtaining judicial review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Period for filing or renewing suit.</I> Any claimant who files a request for expedited relief shall be permitted to file a suit, or to continue a suit filed before the appointment of the liquidating agent, seeking a determination of the claimant's rights with respect to its security interest after the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) The end of the 90-day period beginning on the date of the filing of a request for expedited relief; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date the Board denies all or part of the claim.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> If an action described in paragraph (g) of this section is not filed, or the motion to renew a previously filed suit is not made, before the end of the 30-day period beginning on the date on which such action or motion may be filed in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, the claim shall be deemed to be disallowed as of the end of such period (other than any portion of such claim that was allowed by the Board). Such disallowance shall be final and the claimant shall have no further rights or remedies with respect to such claim. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 56925, Nov. 7, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.9   Treatment of financial assets transferred in connection with a securitization or participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Financial asset</I> means cash or a contract or instrument that conveys to one entity a contractual right to receive cash or another financial instrument from another entity.
</P>
<P><I>Investor</I> means a person or entity that owns an obligation issued by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing entity</I> means an entity that owns a financial asset or financial assets transferred by the sponsor and issues obligations supported by such asset or assets. Issuing entities may include, but are not limited to, corporations, partnerships, trusts, and limited liability companies and are commonly referred to as special purpose vehicles or special purpose entities. To the extent a securitization is structured as a multi-step transfer, the term issuing entity would include both the issuer of the obligations and any intermediate entities that may be a transferee. Notwithstanding the foregoing, a Specified GSE or an entity established or guaranteed by a Specified GSE does not constitute an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Monetary default</I> means a default in the payment of principal or interest when due following the expiration of any cure period.
</P>
<P><I>Obligation</I> means a debt or equity (or mixed) beneficial interest or security that is primarily serviced by the cash flows of one or more financial assets or financial asset pools, either fixed or revolving, that by their terms convert into cash within a finite time period, or upon the disposition of the underlying financial assets, and by any rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distributions of proceeds to the security holders issued by an issuing entity. The term may include beneficial interests in a grantor trust, common law trust or similar issuing entity to the extent that such interests satisfy the criteria set forth in the preceding sentence, but does not include LLC interests, partnership interests, common or preferred equity, or similar instruments evidencing ownership of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Participation</I> means the transfer or assignment of an undivided interest in all or part of a financial asset, that has all of the characteristics of a “participating interest,” from a seller, known as the “lead,” to a buyer, known as the “participant,” without recourse to the lead, pursuant to an agreement between the lead and the participant. “Without recourse” means that the participation is not subject to any agreement that requires the lead to repurchase the participant's interest or to otherwise compensate the participant upon the borrower's default on the underlying obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization</I> means the issuance by an issuing entity of obligations for which the investors are relying on the cash flow or market value characteristics and the credit quality of transferred financial assets (together with any external credit support permitted by this section) to repay the obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means any entity responsible for the management or collection of some or all of the financial assets on behalf of the issuing entity or making allocations or distributions to holders of the obligations, including reporting on the overall cash flow and credit characteristics of the financial assets supporting the securitization to enable the issuing entity to make payments to investors on the obligations. The term “servicer” does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the holders of obligations that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the obligations if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Specified GSE</I> means each of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof;
</P>
<P>(2) Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) The Government National Mortgage Association; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any Federal or State sponsored mortgage finance agency.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person or entity that organizes and initiates a securitization by transferring financial assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to an issuing entity, whether or not such person owns an interest in the issuing entity or owns any of the obligations issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The conveyance of a financial asset or financial assets to an issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(2) The creation of a security interest in such asset or assets for the benefit of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coverage.</I> This section applies to securitizations that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital structure and financial assets.</I> The documents creating the securitization must define the payment structure and capital structure of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> (A) The securitization may not consist of re-securitizations of obligations or collateralized debt obligations unless the documents creating the securitization require that disclosures required in paragraph (b)(2) of this section are made available to investors for the underlying assets supporting the securitization at initiation and while obligations are outstanding; and
</P>
<P>(B) The documents creating the securitization must require that payment of principal and interest on the securitization obligation will be primarily based on the performance of financial assets that are transferred to the issuing entity and, except for interest rate or currency mismatches between the financial assets and the obligations, will not be contingent on market or credit events that are independent of such financial assets. The securitization may not be an unfunded securitization or a synthetic transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans.</I> (A) The capital structure of the securitization must be limited to no more than six credit tranches and cannot include “sub-tranches,” grantor trusts or other structures. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the most senior credit tranche may include time-based sequential pay or planned amortization and companion sub-tranches; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit quality of the obligations cannot be enhanced at the issuing entity or pool level through external credit support or guarantees. However, the credit quality of the obligations may be enhanced by credit support or guarantees provided by Specified GSEs and the temporary payment of principal and/or interest may be supported by liquidity facilities, including facilities designed to permit the temporary payment of interest following appointment of the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent. Individual financial assets transferred into a securitization may be guaranteed, insured, or otherwise benefit from credit support at the loan level through mortgage and similar insurance or guarantees, including by private companies, agencies or other governmental entities, or government-sponsored enterprises, and/or through co-signers or other guarantees.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> The documents must require that the sponsor, issuing entity, and/or servicer, as appropriate, will make available to investors, information describing the financial assets, obligations, capital structure, compensation of relevant parties, and relevant historical performance data set forth in this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> (A) The documents must require that, on or prior to issuance of obligations and at the time of delivery of any periodic distribution report and, in any event, at least once per calendar quarter, while obligations are outstanding, information about the obligations and the securitized financial assets will be disclosed to all potential investors at the financial asset or pool level and security level, as appropriate for the financial assets, to enable evaluation and analysis of the credit risk and performance of the obligations and financial assets. The documents must require that such information and its disclosure, at a minimum, complies with the requirements of Securities and Exchange Commission Regulation AB, or any successor disclosure requirements for public issuances, even if the obligations are issued in a private placement or are not otherwise required to be registered. Information that is unknown or not available to the sponsor or the issuer after reasonable investigation may be omitted if the issuer includes a statement in the offering documents disclosing that the specific information is otherwise unavailable.
</P>
<P>(B) The documents must require that, on or prior to issuance of obligations, the structure of the securitization and the credit and payment performance of the obligations will be disclosed, including the capital or tranche structure, the priority of payments, and specific subordination features; representations and warranties made with respect to the financial assets, the remedies for, and the time permitted for cure of any breach of representations and warranties, including the repurchase of financial assets, if applicable; liquidity facilities and any credit enhancements permitted by this rule, any waterfall triggers, or priority of payment reversal features; and policies governing delinquencies, servicer advances, loss mitigation, and write-offs of financial assets.
</P>
<P>(C) The documents must require that while obligations are outstanding, the issuing entity will provide to investors information with respect to the credit performance of the obligations and the financial assets, including periodic and cumulative financial asset performance data, delinquency and modification data for the financial assets, substitutions and removal of financial assets, servicer advances, as well as losses that were allocated to such tranche and remaining balance of financial assets supporting such tranche, if applicable, and the percentage of each tranche in relation to the securitization as a whole.
</P>
<P>(D) In connection with the issuance of obligations, the documents must disclose the nature and amount of compensation paid to the originator, sponsor, rating agency or third-party advisor, any mortgage or other broker, and the servicer(s), and the extent to which any risk of loss on the underlying assets is retained by any of them for such securitization be disclosed. The securitization documents must require the issuer to provide to investors while obligations are outstanding any changes to such information and the amount and nature of payments of any deferred compensation or similar arrangements to any of the parties.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans.</I> (A) Prior to issuance of obligations, sponsors must disclose loan level information about the financial assets including, but not limited to, loan type, loan structure (for example, fixed or adjustable, resets, interest rate caps, balloon payments, etc.), maturity, interest rate and/or Annual Percentage Rate, and location of the property.
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to issuance of obligations, sponsors must affirm compliance in all material respects with applicable statutory and regulatory standards for the underwriting and origination of residential mortgage loans. Sponsors must disclose a third-party due diligence report on compliance with such standards and the representations and warranties made with respect to the financial assets.
</P>
<P>(C) The documents must require that prior to issuance of obligations and while obligations are outstanding, servicers will disclose any ownership interest by the servicer or an affiliate of the servicer in other whole loans secured by the same real property that secures a loan included in the financial asset pool. The ownership of an obligation, as defined in this regulation, does not constitute an ownership interest requiring disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentation and recordkeeping.</I> The documents creating the securitization must specify the respective contractual rights and responsibilities of all parties and include the requirements described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section and use as appropriate any available standardized documentation for each different asset class.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> The documents must define the contractual rights and responsibilities of the parties, including but not limited to representations and warranties and ongoing disclosure requirements, and any measures to avoid conflicts of interest; and provide authority for the parties, including but not limited to the originator, sponsor, servicer, and investors, to fulfill their respective duties and exercise their rights under the contracts and clearly distinguish between any multiple roles performed by any party.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans.</I> (A) Servicing and other agreements must provide servicers with authority, subject to contractual oversight by any master servicer or oversight advisor, if any, to mitigate losses on financial assets consistent with maximizing the net present value of the financial asset. Servicers shall have the authority to modify assets to address reasonably foreseeable default, and to take other action to maximize the value and minimize losses on the securitized financial assets. The documents shall require that the servicers apply industry best practices for asset management and servicing. The documents shall require the servicer to act for the benefit of all investors, and not for the benefit of any particular class of investors, that the servicer maintain records of its actions to permit full review by the trustee or other representative of the investors and that the servicer must commence action to mitigate losses no later than ninety (90) days after an asset first becomes delinquent unless all delinquencies have been cured, <I>provided</I> that this requirement will not be deemed to require that the documents include any provision concerning loss mitigation that requires any action that may conflict with the requirements of Regulation X (12 CFR part 1024), as Regulation X may be amended or modified from time to time.
</P>
<P>(B) The servicing agreement may not require a primary servicer to advance delinquent payments of principal and interest for more than three payment periods, unless financing or reimbursement facilities are available, which may include, but are not limited to, the obligations of the master servicer or issuing entity to fund or reimburse the primary servicer, or alternative reimbursement facilities. Such “financing or reimbursement facilities” under this paragraph may not be dependent for repayment on foreclosure proceeds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compensation.</I> The following requirements apply only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans. Compensation to parties involved in the securitization of such financial assets must be structured to provide incentives for sustainable credit and the long-term performance of the financial assets and securitization as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The documents must require that any fees or other compensation for services payable to credit rating agencies or similar third-party evaluation companies are payable, in part, over the five-year period after the first issuance of the obligations based on the performance of surveillance services and the performance of the financial assets, with no more than sixty percent of the total estimated compensation due at closing; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The documents must provide that compensation to servicers will include incentives for servicing, including payment for loan restructuring or other loss mitigation activities, which maximizes the net present value of the financial assets. Such incentives may include payments for specific services, and actual expenses, to maximize the net present value or a structure of incentive fees to maximize the net present value, or any combination of the foregoing that provides such incentives.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Origination and retention requirements</I>—(i) <I>Requirements applicable to all securitizations.</I> For any securitization, the documents creating the securitization shall require retention of an economic interest in the credit risk of the financial assets in accordance with the regulations required under Section 15G of the Securities Exchange Act, 15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.,</I> added by Section 941(b) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, including restrictions on sale, pledging and hedging set forth therein.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Requirements applicable only to securitizations in which the financial assets include any residential mortgage loans.</I> (A) The documents must require the establishment of a reserve fund equal to at least five (5) percent of the cash proceeds of the securitization payable to the sponsor to cover the repurchase of any financial assets required for breach of representations and warranties. The balance of such fund, if any, must be released to the sponsor one year after the date of issuance.
</P>
<P>(B) The documents must include a representation that the assets were originated in all material respects in compliance with statutory, regulatory, and originator underwriting standards in effect at the time of origination. The documents must include a representation that the mortgages included in the securitization were underwritten at the fully indexed rate, based upon the borrowers' ability to repay the mortgage according to its terms, and rely on documented income and comply with all existing laws, rules, regulations, and guidance governing the underwriting of residential mortgages by federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> (1) The transaction should be an arms-length, bona fide securitization transaction. The documents must require that the obligations issued in a securitization shall not be predominantly sold to a credit union service organization in which the sponsor credit union has an interest (other than a wholly-owned credit union service organization consolidated for accounting and capital purposes with the credit union) or insider of the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization agreements are in writing, approved by the board of directors of the credit union or its loan committee (as reflected in the minutes of a meeting of the board of directors or committee), and have been, continuously, from the time of execution in the official record of the credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization was entered into in the ordinary course of business, not in contemplation of insolvency and with no intent to hinder, delay, or defraud the credit union or its creditors;
</P>
<P>(4) The transfer was made for adequate consideration;
</P>
<P>(5) The transfer and/or security interest was properly perfected under the UCC or applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(6) The transfer and duties of the sponsor as transferor must be evidenced in a separate agreement from its duties, if any, as servicer, custodian, paying agent, credit support provider, or in any capacity other than the transferor; and
</P>
<P>(7) The documents must require that the sponsor separately identify in its financial asset data bases the financial assets transferred into any securitization and maintain (i) an electronic or paper copy of the closing documents for each securitization in a readily accessible form, (ii) a current list of all of its outstanding securitizations and the respective issuing entities, and (iii) the most recent Securities and Exchange Commission Form 10-K, if applicable, or other periodic financial report for each securitization and issuing entity. The documents must provide that to the extent serving as servicer, custodian, or paying agent for the securitization, the sponsor may not comingle amounts received with respect to the financial assets with its own assets except for the time, not to exceed two business days, necessary to clear any payments received. The documents must require that the sponsor will make these records readily available for review by NCUA promptly upon written request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Safe harbor</I>—(1) <I>Participations.</I> With respect to transfers of financial assets made in connection with participations, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent will not, in the exercise of its statutory authority to disaffirm or repudiate contracts, reclaim, recover, or recharacterize as property of the credit union or the liquidation estate any such transferred financial assets, provided that such transfer satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles, except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this section. The foregoing sentence applies to a last-in, first-out participation, provided that the transfer of a portion of the financial asset satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles that would have applied to such portion if it had met the definition of a “participating interest,” except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For securitizations meeting sale accounting requirements.</I> With respect to any securitization for which transfers of financial assets were made after adoption of this rule, or from a master trust or revolving trust established after adoption of this rule, and which complies with the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent will not, in the exercise of its statutory authority to disaffirm or repudiate contracts, reclaim, recover, or recharacterize as property of the credit union or the liquidation estate such transferred financial assets, provided that such transfer satisfies the conditions for sale accounting treatment under generally accepted accounting principles in effect for reporting periods after November 15, 2009, except for the “legal isolation” condition that is addressed by this paragraph (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For securitizations not meeting sale accounting requirements.</I> With respect to any securitization for which transfers of financial assets were made after adoption of this rule, or from a master trust or revolving trust established after adoption of this rule, and which complies with the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, but where the transfer does not satisfy the conditions for sale accounting treatment set forth by generally accepted accounting principles in effect for reporting periods after November 15, 2009, the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Monetary default.</I> If, at any time after appointment, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent is in a monetary default under a securitization due to its failure to pay or apply collections from the financial assets received by it in accordance with the securitization documents, whether as servicer or otherwise, and remains in monetary default for ten business days after actual delivery of a written notice to the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section requesting the exercise of contractual rights because of such monetary default, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent hereby consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(13)(C) to the exercise of any contractual rights in accordance with the documents governing such securitization, including but not limited to taking possession of the financial assets and exercising self-help remedies as a secured creditor under the transfer agreements, provided no involvement of the conservator or liquidating agent is required other than such consents, waivers, or execution of transfer documents as may be reasonably requested in the ordinary course of business in order to facilitate the exercise of such contractual rights. Such consent does not waive or otherwise deprive the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent or its assignees of any seller's interest or other obligation or interest issued by the issuing entity and held by the conservator or liquidating agent or its assignees, but shall serve as full satisfaction of the obligations of the insured credit union in conservatorship or liquidation and the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent for all amounts due.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Repudiation.</I> If the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent provides a written notice of repudiation of the securitization agreement pursuant to which the financial assets were transferred, and does not pay damages, defined in this paragraph, within ten business days following the effective date of the notice, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent hereby consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(13)(C) to the exercise of any contractual rights in accordance with the documents governing such securitization, including but not limited to taking possession of the financial assets and exercising self-help remedies as a secured creditor under the transfer agreements, provided no involvement of the conservator or liquidating agent is required other than such consents, waivers, or execution of transfer documents as may be reasonably requested in the ordinary course of business in order to facilitate the exercise of such contractual rights. For purposes of this paragraph, the damages due will be in an amount equal to the par value of the obligations outstanding on the date of appointment of the conservator or liquidating agent, less any payments of principal received by the investors through the date of repudiation, plus unpaid, accrued interest through the date of repudiation in accordance with the contract documents to the extent actually received through payments on the financial assets received through the date of repudiation. Upon payment of such repudiation damages, all liens or claims on the financial assets created pursuant to the securitization documents shall be released. Such consent does not waive or otherwise deprive the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent or its assignees of any seller's interest or other obligation or interest issued by the issuing entity and held by the conservator or liquidating agent or its assignees, but serves as full satisfaction of the obligations of the insured credit union in conservatorship or liquidation and the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent for all amounts due.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Effect of repudiation.</I> If the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent repudiates or disaffirms a securitization agreement, it will not assert that any interest payments made to investors in accordance with the securitization documents before any such repudiation or disaffirmance remain the property of the conservatorship or liquidation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consent to certain actions.</I> Prior to repudiation or, in the case of a monetary default referred to in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, prior to the effectiveness of the consent referred to therein, the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent consents pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(13)(C) to the making of, or if serving as servicer, does make, the payments to the investors to the extent actually received through payments on the financial assets (but in the case of repudiation, only to the extent supported by payments on the financial assets received through the date of the giving of notice of repudiation) in accordance with the securitization documents, and, subject to the conservator's or liquidating agent's rights to repudiate such agreements, consents to any servicing activity required in furtherance of the securitization or, if acting as servicer, the conservator or liquidating agent performs such servicing activities in accordance with the terms of the applicable servicing agreements, with respect to the financial assets included in securitizations that meet the requirements applicable to that securitization as set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice for consent.</I> Any party requesting the NCUA Board's consent as conservator or liquidating agent under 12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(13)(C) pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section must provide notice to the President, NCUA Asset Management &amp; Assistance Center, 4807 Spicewood Springs Road, Suite 5100, Austin TX 78759-8490, and a statement of the basis upon which such request is made, and copies of all documentation supporting such request, including without limitation a copy of the applicable agreements and of any applicable notices under the contract.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Contemporaneous requirement.</I> The NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent will not seek to avoid an otherwise legally enforceable agreement that is executed by an insured credit union in connection with a securitization or in the form of a participation solely because the agreement does not meet the “contemporaneous” requirement of 12 U.S.C. 1787(b)(9) and 1788(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Limitations.</I> The consents set forth in this section do not act to waive or relinquish any rights granted to NCUA in any capacity, including the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent, pursuant to any other applicable law or any agreement or contract except as specifically set forth herein. Nothing contained in this section alters the claims priority of the securitized obligations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>No waiver.</I> This section does not authorize the attachment of any involuntary lien upon the property of the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent. Nor does this section waive, limit, or otherwise affect the rights or powers of NCUA in any capacity, including the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent, to take any action or to exercise any power not specifically mentioned, including but not limited to any rights, powers or remedies of the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent regarding transfers or other conveyances taken in contemplation of the credit union's insolvency or with the intent to hinder, delay or defraud the credit union or the creditors of such credit union, or that is a fraudulent transfer under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>No assignment.</I> The right to consent under 12 U.S.C. 1787(c)(13)(C) may not be assigned or transferred to any purchaser of property from the NCUA Board as conservator or liquidating agent, other than to a conservator or bridge credit union.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Repeal.</I> This section may be repealed by NCUA upon 30 days' notice provided in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> but any repeal does not apply to any issuance made in accordance with this section before such repeal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 29706, June 30, 2017. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.10   Treatment by conservator or liquidating agent of collateralized public funds.</HEAD>
<P>An agreement to provide for the lawful collateralization of funds of a federal, state, or local governmental entity or of any depositor or member referred to in section 207(k)(2)(A) of the Act will not be deemed to be invalid under sections 207(b)(9) and 208(a)(3) of the Act solely because such agreement was not executed contemporaneously with the acquisition of collateral or with any changes, increases, or substitutions in the collateral made in accordance with such agreement, provided the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(a) The agreement was undertaken in the ordinary course of business, not in contemplation of insolvency, and with no intent to hinder, delay or defraud the credit union or its creditors; 
</P>
<P>(b) The secured obligation represents a bona fide and arm's length transaction; 
</P>
<P>(c) The secured party or parties are not insiders or affiliates of the credit union; 
</P>
<P>(d) The grant or creation of the security interest was for adequate consideration; and, 
</P>
<P>(e) The security agreement evidencing the security interest is in writing, was approved by the credit union's board of directors, and has been continuously an official record of the credit union from the time of its execution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 55443, Sept. 14, 2000. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.11   Prepayment fees to Federal Home Loan Bank.</HEAD>
<P>The Board as conservator or liquidating agent of a federally insured credit union in receipt of any extension of credit from a Federal Home Loan Bank will allow a claim for a prepayment fee by the Bank if:
</P>
<P>(a) The claim is made pursuant to a written contract that provides for a prepayment fee but the prepayment fee allowed by the Board will not exceed the present value of the loss attributable to the difference between the contract rate of the secured borrowing and the reinvestment rate then available to the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(b) The indebtedness owed to the Bank is secured by sufficient collateral in which a perfected security interest in favor of the Bank exists or as to which the Bank's security interest is entitled to priority under section 306(d) of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987, 12 U.S.C. 1430(e), or otherwise so that the aggregate of the outstanding principal on the advances secured by the collateral, the accrued but unpaid interest on the outstanding principal and the prepayment fee applicable to the advances can be paid in full from the amounts realized from the collateral. For purposes of this paragraph, the adequacy of the collateral will be determined as of the date the prepayment fees are due and payable under the terms of the written contract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 40575, Aug. 3, 2001. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 709.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.11.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 709.12   Treatment of swap agreements in liquidation or conservatorship.</HEAD>
<P>The Board has determined that a swap agreement, as defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act at 12 U.S.C. 1821(e)(8)(D)(vi), is a qualified financial contract for purposes of the special treatment for qualified financial contracts provided in 12 U.S.C. 1787(c). Any master agreement for any swap agreement, together with all supplements to such master agreement, will be treated as one swap agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 32356, May 30, 2003. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="710" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 710—VOLUNTARY LIQUIDATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766(a), 1786, and 1787.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 35365, July 1, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 710 appear at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 710.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part describes the requirements that must be followed to accomplish the voluntary liquidation of a Federal credit union. Federally insured state-chartered credit unions are only subject to the notification requirement provided in § 710.9; voluntary liquidation is to be accomplished in accordance with state law or procedures established by the state regulatory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Voluntary liquidation</I> means the dissolution of a solvent Federal credit union with the assets being sold or collected, liabilities paid, and shares distributed under the direction of the board of directors or its duly appointed liquidating agent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liquidation date</I> means the date the members vote to approve liquidation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Liquidating agent</I> means the person or persons, including any legally recognized entity, appointed by the board of directors to liquidate the Federal credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.2   Responsibility for conducting voluntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors shall be responsible for conserving the assets, for expediting the liquidation, and for equitable distribution of the assets to the members.
</P>
<P>(b) After voting to present the question of liquidation to the members, the board of directors may appoint a liquidating agent and delegate all or part of the board's responsibility to such agent and authorize reasonable compensation for the services provided.
</P>
<P>(c) The board of directors shall determine that the liquidating agent and all persons who handle or have access to funds of the Federal credit union are adequately covered by surety bond and that either such coverage remains in effect, or the discovery period is extended, for at least four months after final distribution of assets.
</P>
<P>(d) Within three days after the decision of the board of directors to submit the question of liquidation to the members, the Regional Director will be notified in writing, setting forth in detail the reasons for the proposed action. A balance sheet and income statement as of the previous month-end will be included with the notification. During the liquidation process, financial statements will be submitted to the Regional Director as requested.
</P>
<P>(e) Promptly after the decision to present the question of liquidation to the members, the board of directors or liquidating agency shall develop a written plan for the liquidation of the assets and payment of shares (liquidation plan). The plan should provide for the liquidation of assets and payment of creditors and shareholders within one year of the liquidation date. If the liquidation period is projected to exceed one year, an explanation must be provided in the liquidation plan. A copy of the liquidation plan will be mailed to the Regional Director within 30 days of the date the board of directors votes to present the question of liquidation to the members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.3   Approval of the liquidation proposal by members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the board of directors decides to present the question of liquidation to the members, it shall act promptly to obtain the members' approval. The members shall be given advance notice of the membership meeting at which the liquidation proposal is to be submitted. The notice shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Inform members that they have the right to vote on the liquidation proposal in person at the membership meeting called for that purpose or by written ballot to be received no later than the time and date indicated on the notice. 
</P>
<P>(2) Include or be accompanied by a ballot for the liquidation proposal.
</P>
<P>(b) The liquidation proposal must be approved by the affirmative vote of a majority of the Federal credit union members who vote on the proposal.
</P>
<P>(c) If the members do not approve the liquidation, the board of directors, or if delegated the authority, the liquidating agent, must decide within seven days whether the Federal credit union should resume operations or, if good cause exists, to resubmit the question of liquidation to the members.
</P>
<P>(d) If the members approve the liquidation, neither the members nor the board of directors may rescind the decision to liquidate unless the Regional Director concurs in the recision.
</P>
<P>(e) The Regional Director will be notified in writing of the results of the membership vote on the voluntary liquidation proposal within three days of the date of the vote.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35365, July 1, 1993, as amended at 72 FR 30246, May 31, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.4   Transaction of business during liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Immediately upon decision by the board of directors to present the question of liquidation to the members, payments on shares, withdrawal of shares (except for transfer of shares to loans and interest), transfer of shares to another share account, granting of loans, and making of investments other than short-term investments shall be suspended pending action by the members on the proposal to liquidate. Collection of loans and interest, payment of necessary expenses, clearing of share drafts and credit card charges will continue.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon approval of the members, payments on shares, withdrawal of shares (except for transfer of shares to loans and interest), transfer of shares to another share account, granting of loans, and making of investments other than short-term investments shall be discontinued permanently. Collection of loans and interest and payment of necessary expenses will continue during the period of liquidation. Members will be notified to discontinue the use of share drafts and credit cards, and items will not be cleared 15 days from the liquidation date.
</P>
<P>(c) Approval of the Regional Director must be obtained prior to consummating any sale of assets which would not provide sufficient funds to pay shareholders at par.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.5   Notice of liquidation to creditors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When approval for liquidation is obtained from the members, the board of directors or the liquidating agent shall cause notice to be given to creditors to present their claims.
</P>
<P>(1) Federal credit unions with assets equal to or greater than $50 million as of the month end prior to the liquidation date shall publish the notice once a week in each of three successive weeks, in a newspaper of general circulation in each county in which the Federal credit union maintains an office or branch for the transaction of business on the liquidation date, or through any alternative publication through an electronic medium that is reasonably calculated to reach the general public in the relevant area or areas. The first notice shall be published within seven days of the liquidation date.
</P>
<P>(2) Federal credit unions with assets equal to or greater than $1 million but less than $50 million as of the month end prior to the liquidation date shall publish the notice described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section at least once. The notice shall be published within seven days of the liquidation date.
</P>
<P>(3) Federal credit unions with assets less than $1 million as of the month end prior to the liquidation date shall not be required to publish the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 10 days of the liquidation date, a copy of the notice of liquidation shall be mailed to all creditors reflected on the records of the Federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) Creditors shall be provided 30 days from the liquidation date to submit their claims.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35365, July 1, 1993, as amended at 79 FR 36198, June 26, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.6   Distribution of assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) With the approval of the Regional Director, a partial pro rata distribution of the Federal credit union's assets may be made to its members from cash funds available on authorization by the board of directors or liquidating agent. Payment of a partial distribution may exclude member accounts of less than $25.00 and must not exceed the insured amount applicable to any account or accounts, as determined under part 745 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) After all assets of the Federal credit union have been converted to cash or found to be worthless and all loans and debts owing to it have been collected or found to be uncollectible and all obligations of the Federal credit union have been paid, with the exception of shares due its members, the books shall be closed and the pro rata distribution to the members shall be computed. The computation shall be based on the total amount in each share account as of the liquidation date or the date on which all share drafts have cleared, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(c) Payments must be made to members promptly after the pro rata distribution has been computed. The Federal credit union may mail a check to a member at his or her last known address, deliver the check personally to the member, or make the payment by wire or any other electronic means approved by a member.
</P>
<P>(d) Unclaimed share accounts, unpaid claims, and unpaid claims of members or creditors who failed to cash their final distribution checks shall be trusteed or escheated in accordance with the laws of the state in which the member or creditor resides.
</P>
<P>(e) The Regional Director will be notified in writing within three days when the final distribution of assets to the members is started.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 35365, July 1, 1993, as amended at 79 FR 36198, June 26, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.7   Retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors or liquidating agent shall appoint a custodian for the Federal credit union's records which are to be retained after the final distribution of assets.
</P>
<P>(b) All records of the liquidated Federal credit union necessary to establish that creditors were paid and that assets were equitably distributed to the members shall be retained by the custodian for a period of five years following the date of charter cancellation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.8   Certificate of dissolution and liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>Within 120 days after the final distribution of assets to members is started, a duly executed Certificate of Dissolution and Liquidation shall be filed with the Regional Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 710.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.12.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 710.9   Federally insured state-chartered credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>A federal insured state credit union will notify the Regional Director in writing within three days after the board of directors' decision to liquidate is made. A balance sheet and income statement as of the previous month-end and a copy of any liquidation plan will be included with the notification to the Regional Director.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="711" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 711—MANAGEMENT OFFICIAL INTERLOCKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757 and 3201-3208. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 50702, Sept. 27, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 711.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (Interlocks Act) (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq</I>). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the Interlocks Act and this part is to foster competition by generally prohibiting a management official from serving two nonaffiliated depository organizations in situations where the management interlock likely would have an anticompetitive effect. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to management officials of federally insured credit unions. Section 711.4(c) exempts a management official of a credit union from the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act when the individual serves as a management official of another credit union. Therefore, the Interlocks Act prohibitions contained in this part only apply to a management official of a credit union when that individual also serves as a management official of another type of depository organization (usually a bank or thrift). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate.</I> (1) The term <I>affiliate</I> has the meaning given in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201). For purposes of that section 202, shares held by an individual include shares held by members of his or her immediate family. “Immediate family” means spouse, mother, father, child, grandchild, sister, brother, or any of their spouses, whether or not any of their shares are held in trust. 
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of section 202(3)(B) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(3)(B)), an affiliate relationship involving a depository institution based on common ownership does not exist if the appropriate federal supervisory agency determines, after giving the affected persons the opportunity to respond, that the asserted affiliation was established in order to avoid the prohibitions of the Interlocks Act and does not represent a true commonality of interest between the depository organizations. In making this determination, the appropriate Federal supervisory agency considers, among other things, whether a person, including members of his or her immediate family, whose shares are necessary to constitute the group owns a nominal percentage of the shares of one of the organizations and the percentage is substantially disproportionate to that person's ownership of shares in the other organization. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Area median income</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) The median family income for the metropolitan statistical area (MSA), if a depository organization is located in an MSA; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The statewide nonmetropolitan median family income, if a depository organization is located outside an MSA. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Community</I> means a city, town, or village, and contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Contiguous or adjacent cities, towns, or villages</I> means cities, towns, or villages whose borders touch each other or whose borders are within 10 road miles of each other at their closest points. The property line of an office located in an unincorporated city, town, or village is the boundary line of that city, town, or village for the purpose of this definition. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Depository holding company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company (as more fully defined in section 202 of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201)) having its principal office located in the United States. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depository institution</I> means a commercial bank (including a private bank), a savings bank, a trust company, a savings and loan association, a building and loan association, a homestead association, a cooperative bank, an industrial bank, or a credit union, chartered under the laws of the United States and having a principal office located in the United States. Additionally, a United States office, including a branch or agency, of a foreign commercial bank is a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Depository institution affiliate</I> means a depository institution that is an affiliate of a depository organization. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depository organization</I> means a depository institution or a depository holding company. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>District bank</I> means any State bank operating under the Code of Law of the District of Columbia. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Low and moderate-income areas</I> means census tracts (or, if an area is not in a census tract, block numbering areas delineated by the United States Bureau of the Census) where the median family income is less than 100 percent of the area median income. 
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Management official.</I> (1) The term <I>management official</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(i) A director; 
</P>
<P>(ii) An advisory or honorary director of a depository institution with total assets of $100 million or more; 
</P>
<P>(iii) A senior executive officer as that term is defined in 12 CFR 701.14(b)(2), or a person holding an equivalent position regardless of title; 
</P>
<P>(iv) A branch manager; 
</P>
<P>(v) A trustee of a depository organization under the control of trustees; and 
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person who has a representative or nominee serving in any of the capacities in this paragraph (m)(1). 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>management official</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A person whose management functions relate exclusively to the business of retail merchandising or manufacturing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A person whose management functions relate principally to the business outside the United States of a foreign commercial bank; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) A person described in the provisions of section 202(4) of the Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201(4)) (referring to an officer of a State-chartered savings bank, cooperative bank, or trust company that neither makes real estate mortgage loans nor accepts savings). 
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Office</I> means a principal or branch office of a depository institution located in the United States. <I>Office</I> does not include a representative office of a foreign commercial bank, an electronic terminal, or a loan production office. 
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, or other business entity. 
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Relevant metropolitan statistical area (RMSA)</I> means an MSA, a primary MSA, or a consolidated MSA that is not comprised of designated primary MSAs to the extent that these terms are defined and applied by the Office of Management and Budget. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Representative or nominee</I> means a natural person who serves as a management official and has an obligation to act on behalf of another person with respect to management responsibilities. NCUA will find that a person has an obligation to act on behalf of another person only if the first person has an agreement, express or implied, to act on behalf of the second person with respect to management responsibilities. NCUA will determine, after giving the affected persons an opportunity to respond, whether a person is a <I>representative or nominee.</I> 
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Total assets.</I> (1) The term <I>total assets</I> means assets measured on a consolidated basis and reported in the most recent fiscal year-end Consolidated Report of Condition and Income. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>total assets</I> does not include: 
</P>
<P>(i) Assets of a diversified savings and loan holding company as defined by section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of a bank holding company that is exempt from the prohibitions of section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 pursuant to an order issued under section 4(d) of that Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(d)) other than the assets of its depository institution affiliate; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Assets of offices of a foreign commercial bank other than the assets of its United States branch or agency. 
</P>
<P>(q) <I>United States</I> includes any State or territory of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, and the Virgin Islands. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 50702, Sept. 27, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 66360, Nov. 26, 1999; 73 FR 30477, May 28, 2008; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.3   Prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Community.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same community. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>RMSA.</I> A management official of a depository organization may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization if the depository organizations in question (or a depository institution affiliate thereof) have offices in the same RMSA and each depository organization has total assets of $50 million or more. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Major assets.</I> A management official of a depository organization with total assets exceeding $2.5 billion (or any affiliate thereof) may not serve at the same time as a management official of an unaffiliated depository organization with total assets exceeding $1.5 billion (or any affiliate thereof), regardless of the location of the two depository organizations. The NCUA will adjust these thresholds, as necessary, based on year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for the Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, with rounding to the nearest $100 million. The NCUA will announce the revised thresholds by publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 50702, Sept. 27, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 66360, Nov. 26, 1999; 72 FR 58249, Oct. 15, 2007]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.4   Interlocking relationships permitted by statute.</HEAD>
<P>The prohibitions of § 711.3 do not apply in the case of any one or more of the following organizations or to a subsidiary thereof: 
</P>
<P>(a) A depository organization that has been placed formally in liquidation, or which is in the hands of a receiver, conservator, or other official exercising a similar function; 
</P>
<P>(b) A corporation operating under section 25 or section 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I> and 12 U.S.C. 611 <I>et seq.,</I> respectively) (Edge Corporations and Agreement Corporations); 
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union being served by a management official of another credit union; 
</P>
<P>(d) A depository organization that does not do business within the United States except as an incident to its activities outside the United States; 
</P>
<P>(e) A State-chartered savings and loan guaranty corporation; 
</P>
<P>(f) A Federal Home Loan Bank or any other bank organized solely to serve depository institutions (a bankers' bank) or solely for the purpose of providing securities clearing services and services related thereto for depository institutions and securities companies; 
</P>
<P>(g) A depository organization that is closed or is in danger of closing as determined by the appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency and is acquired by another depository organization. This exemption lasts for five years, beginning on the date the depository organization is acquired; and 
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A diversified savings and loan holding company (as defined in section 10(a)(1)(F) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(a)(1)(F)) with respect to the service of a director of such company who also is a director of an unaffiliated depository organization if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Both the diversified savings and loan holding company and the unaffiliated depository organization notify their appropriate Federal depository institutions regulatory agency at least 60 days before the dual service is proposed to begin; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The appropriate regulatory agency does not disapprove the dual service before the end of the 60-day period. 
</P>
<P>(2) The NCUA Board or its designee may disapprove a notice of proposed service if it finds that: 
</P>
<P>(i) The service cannot be structured or limited so as to preclude an anticompetitive effect in financial services in any part of the United States; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The service would lead to substantial conflicts of interest or unsafe or unsound practices; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) The notificant failed to furnish all the information required by NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(3) The NCUA Board or its designee may require that any interlock permitted under this paragraph (h) be terminated if a change in circumstances occurs with respect to one of the interlocked depository organizations that would have provided a basis for disapproval of the interlock during the notice period. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.5   Small market share exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> A management interlock that is prohibited by § 711.3(a) or § 711.3(b) is permissible, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) The interlock is not prohibited by § 711.3(c); and
</P>
<P>(2) The depository organizations (and their depository institution affiliates) hold, in the aggregate, no more than 20% of the deposits, in each RMSA or community in which the depository organizations (or their depository institution affiliates) are located. The amount of deposits will be determined by reference to the most recent annual Summary of Deposits published by the FDIC. This information is available on the Internet at <I>http://www.fdic.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confirmation and records.</I> Each depository organization must maintain records sufficient to support its determination of eligibility for the exemption under paragraph (a) of this section, and must reconfirm that determination on an annual basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 66360, Nov. 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.6   General exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption.</I> NCUA may, by agency order issued following receipt of an application, exempt an interlock from the prohibitions in § 711.3, if NCUA finds that the interlock would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, and would not present other safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Presumptions.</I> In reviewing applications for an exemption under this section, NCUA will apply a rebuttable presumption that an interlock will not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition if the depository organization seeking to add a management official:
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily serves, low- and moderate-income areas;
</P>
<P>(2) Is controlled or managed by persons who are members of a minority group or women;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a depository institution that has been chartered for less than two years; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is deemed to be in “troubled condition” as defined in § 701.14(b)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duration.</I> Unless a shorter expiration period is provided in the NCUA approval, an exemption permitted by paragraph (a) of this section may continue so long as it would not result in a monopoly or substantial lessening of competition, or be unsafe or unsound. If the NCUA grants an interlock exemption in reliance upon a presumption under paragraph (b) of this section, the interlock may continue for three years, unless otherwise provided in the approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 66360, Nov. 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.7   Change in circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Termination.</I> A management official shall terminate his or her service if a change in circumstances causes the service to become prohibited. A change in circumstances may include, but is not limited to, an increase in asset size of an organization, a change in the delineation of the RMSA or community, the establishment of an office, an increase in the aggregate deposits of the depository organization, or an acquisition, merger, consolidation, or reorganization of the ownership structure of a depository organization that causes a previously permissible interlock to become prohibited.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transition period.</I> A management official described in paragraph (a) of this section may continue to serve the depository organization involved in the interlock for 15 months following the date of the change in circumstances. NCUA may shorten this period under appropriate circumstances. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 50702, Sept. 27, 1996, as amended at 64 FR 66360, Nov. 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 711.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.13.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 711.8   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in this section, NCUA administers and enforces the Interlocks Act with respect to federally insured credit unions, and may refer any case of a prohibited interlocking relationship involving these entities to the Attorney General of the United States to enforce compliance with the Interlocks Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="712" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 712—CREDIT UNION SERVICE ORGANIZATIONS (CUSOs)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1756, 1757(5)(D) and (7)(I), 1766, 1782, 1784, 1785, 1786, and 1789(a)(11).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 712.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part establishes when a federal credit union (FCU) can invest in and make loans to credit union service organizations (CUSOs). CUSOs are subject to review by NCUA. This part does not apply to corporate credit unions that have CUSOs subject to § 704.11 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) All sections of this part apply to FCUs. Sections 712.2(d)(2)(ii), 712.3(d), 712.4 and 712.11(b) and (c) of this part apply to federally insured, state-chartered credit unions (FISCUs), as provided in § 741.222 of this chapter. FISCUs must follow the law in the state in which they are chartered with respect to the sections in this part that only apply to FCUs.
</P>
<P>(c) As used in this part, federally insured credit union (FICU) means an FCU or FISCU.
</P>
<P>(d) As used in this part, CUSO means any entity in which a FICU has an ownership interest or to which a FICU has extended a loan, and that entity is engaged primarily in providing products or services to credit unions or credit union members, or, in the case of checking and currency services, including cashing checks and money orders for a fee, and selling negotiable checks, including travelers checks, money orders, and other similar money transfer instruments (including international and domestic electronic fund transfers and remittance transfers, as defined in section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693o-1), to persons eligible for membership in any credit union having a loan, investment or contract with the entity. A CUSO also includes any entity in which a CUSO has an ownership interest of any amount, if that entity is engaged primarily in providing products or services to credit unions or credit union members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 72548, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.2   How much can an FCU invest in or loan to CUSOs, and what parties may participate?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Investments.</I> An FCU's total investments in CUSOs must not exceed, in the aggregate, 1% of its paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus as of its last calendar year-end financial report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loans.</I> An FCU's total loans to CUSOs must not exceed, in the aggregate, 1% of its paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus as of its last calendar year-end financial report. Loan authority is independent and separate from the 1% investment authority of subsection (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Parties.</I> An FCU may invest in or loan to a CUSO by itself, with other credit unions, or with non-credit union parties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measurement for calculating regulatory limitation.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Total investments in and total loans to CUSOs will be measured consistent with GAAP. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule in the case of less than adequately capitalized FICUs.</I> This rule applies in the case of a FICU that is currently less than adequately capitalized, as determined under part 702 of this chapter, or where the making of an investment in a CUSO would render the FICU less than adequately capitalized under part 702 of this chapter. Before making an investment in a CUSO:
</P>
<P>(i) A less than adequately capitalized FCU, or an FCU that would be rendered less than adequately capitalized by the recapitalization of a CUSO, must obtain prior written approval from the appropriate NCUA regional office if the making of the investment would result in an aggregate cash outlay, measured on a cumulative basis (regardless of how the investment is valued for accounting purposes, but limited to the immediately preceding seven (7) years) in an amount that is in excess of 1% of its paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A less than adequately capitalized FISCU, or a FISCU that would be rendered less than adequately capitalized by the recapitalization of a CUSO, must obtain prior written approval from the appropriate state supervisory authority if the making of the investment would result in an aggregate cash outlay, measured on a cumulative basis (regardless of how the investment is valued for accounting purposes, but limited to the immediately preceding seven (7) years) in an amount that is in excess of the investment limit in the state in which it is chartered. A FISCU must also contemporaneously submit a copy of this request to the appropriate NCUA regional office. If there is no state limit in the state in which a FISCU is chartered, the requirements in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section will apply to that FISCU.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Divestiture.</I> If the limitations in paragraph (a) of this section are reached or exceeded because of the profitability of the CUSO and the related GAAP valuation of the investment under the equity method, without an additional cash outlay by the FCU, divestiture is not required. An FCU may continue to invest up to 1% without regard to the increase in the GAAP valuation resulting from a CUSO's profitability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 33187, June 22, 1999; 66 FR 65624, Dec. 20, 2001; 73 FR 79312, Dec. 29, 2008; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 78 FR 72548, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.3   What are the characteristics of and what requirements apply to CUSOs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Structure.</I> An FCU can invest in or loan to a CUSO only if the CUSO is structured as a corporation, limited liability company, or limited partnership. An FCU may only participate in a limited partnership as a limited partner. For purposes of this part, “corporation” means a legally incorporated corporation as established and maintained under relevant federal or state law. For purposes of this part, “limited partnership” means a legally established limited partnership as established and maintained under relevant state law. For purposes of this part, “limited liability company” means a legally established limited liability company as established and maintained under relevant state law, provided that the FCU obtains written legal advice that the limited liability company is a recognized legal entity under the applicable laws of the state of formation and that the limited liability company is established in a manner that will limit potential exposure of the FCU to no more than the amount of funds invested in, or loaned to, the CUSO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Customer base.</I> An FCU can invest in or loan to a CUSO only if the CUSO primarily serves credit unions, its membership, or the membership of credit unions contracting with the CUSO <I>provided, however,</I> that with respect to any approved CUSO service, as set out in § 712.5, that also meets the description of services set out in § 701.30 of this chapter, this requirement is met if the CUSO primarily provides such services to persons who are eligible for membership in the FCU or are eligible for membership in credit unions contracting with the CUSO.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Federal credit union accounting for financial reporting purposes.</I> An FCU must account for its investments in or loans to a CUSO in conformity with “generally accepted accounting principles” (GAAP).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CUSO accounting; audits and financial statements; NCUA access to information.</I> A FICU must obtain a written agreement from a CUSO before investing in or lending to the CUSO that the CUSO will:
</P>
<P>(1) Account for all of its transactions in accordance with GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) Prepare quarterly financial statements and obtain an annual financial statement audit of its financial statements by a licensed certified public accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards. A wholly owned CUSO is not required to obtain a separate annual financial statement audit if that wholly owned CUSO is included in the annual consolidated financial statement audit of the investing FICU;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide NCUA, its representatives, and the state supervisory authority having jurisdiction over any FISCU with an outstanding loan to, investment in or contractual agreement for products or services with the CUSO with complete access to any books and records of the CUSO and the ability to review the CUSO's internal controls, as deemed necessary by NCUA or the state supervisory authority in carrying out their respective responsibilities under the Act and the relevant state credit union statute;
</P>
<P>(4) Annually submit, pursuant to NCUA guidance, a report directly to NCUA and the appropriate state supervisory authority, if applicable. A newly formed CUSO (including a pre-existing business which becomes subject to this regulation by virtue of a credit union investment or loan) must file a report within 60 days of its formation. The report must contain basic registration information, including the CUSO's legal name; tax identification number; address; telephone number; Web site; primary point of contact; services offered; the name(s) and charter(s) of credit union(s) investing in, lending to, or receiving services from the CUSO; and investor and/or subsidiary CUSO(s). In addition, for any CUSO engaged in complex or high-risk activities, the report must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) For each credit union investing in, lending to, or receiving services from the CUSO:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of services provided to each credit union;
</P>
<P>(B) The investment amount, loan amount, or level of activity of each credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) The CUSO's most recent year-end audited financial statements; and
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) For CUSOs engaged in credit and lending services:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total dollar amount of loans outstanding;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The total number of loans outstanding;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The total dollar amount of loans granted year-to-date; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The total number of loans granted year-to-date.
</P>
<P>(B) Such information must be provided by loan type for each type of loan originated or serviced by the CUSO.
</P>
<P>(5) For purposes of paragraph (d)(4) of this section, complex or high-risk activities include preapproved CUSO activities and services related to credit and lending, information technology, and custody, safekeeping, and investment management services for credit unions. Specific activities related to these categories include:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit and lending:
</P>
<P>(A) Loan support services, including servicing; and
</P>
<P>(B) Loan origination, including originating, purchasing, selling, and holding any loan as described in § 712.5(q).
</P>
<P>(ii) Information technology:
</P>
<P>(A) Electronic transaction services;
</P>
<P>(B) Record retention, security, and disaster recovery services; and
</P>
<P>(C) Payroll processing services.
</P>
<P>(iii) Custody, safekeeping, and investment management services for credit unions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other laws.</I> A CUSO must comply with applicable Federal, state and local laws.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 33187, June 22, 1999; 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 66 FR 40578, Aug. 3, 2001; 70 FR 55228, Sept. 21, 2005; 73 FR 79312, Dec. 29, 2008; 78 FR 72548, Dec. 3, 2013; 86 FR 59301, Oct. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.4   What must a FICU and a CUSO do to maintain separate corporate identities?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Corporate separateness.</I> A FICU and a CUSO must be operated in a manner that demonstrates to the public the separate corporate existence of the FICU and the CUSO. Good business practices dictate that each must operate so that:
</P>
<P>(1) Its respective business transactions, accounts, and records are not intermingled;
</P>
<P>(2) Each observes the formalities of its separate corporate procedures;
</P>
<P>(3) Each is adequately financed as a separate unit in the light of normal obligations reasonably foreseeable in a business of its size and character;
</P>
<P>(4) Each is held out to the public as a separate enterprise;
</P>
<P>(5) The FICU does not dominate the CUSO to the extent that the CUSO is treated as a department of the FICU; and
</P>
<P>(6) Unless the FICU has guaranteed a loan obtained by the CUSO, all borrowings by the CUSO indicate that the FICU is not liable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written legal advice.</I> Prior to a FICU investing in a CUSO, the FICU must obtain written legal advice as to whether the CUSO is established in a manner that will limit potential exposure of the FICU to no more than the loss of funds invested in, or loaned to, the CUSO. In addition, if a FICU invests in, or makes a loan to, a CUSO, and that CUSO plans to change its structure under § 712.3(a), the FICU must also obtain prior written legal advice that the CUSO will remain established in a manner that will limit potential exposure of the FICU to no more than the loss of funds invested in, or loaned to, the CUSO. The written legal advice must address factors that have led courts to “pierce the corporate veil,” such as inadequate capitalization, lack of separate corporate identity, common boards of directors and employees, control of one entity over another, and lack of separate books and records. The written legal advice must be provided by independent legal counsel of the investing FICU or the CUSO.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 72549, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.5   What activities and services are preapproved for CUSOs?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA may at any time, based upon supervisory, legal, or safety and soundness reasons, limit any CUSO activities or services, or refuse to permit any CUSO activities or services. Otherwise, an FCU may invest in, loan to, and/or contract with only those CUSOs that are sufficiently bonded or insured for their specific operations and engaged in the preapproved activities and services related to the routine daily operations of credit unions. The specific activities listed within each preapproved category are provided in this section as illustrations of activities permissible under the particular category, not as an exclusive or exhaustive list. 
</P>
<P>(a) Checking and currency services:
</P>
<P>(1) Check cashing;
</P>
<P>(2) Coin and currency services; 
</P>
<P>(3) Money order, savings bonds, travelers checks, and purchase and sale of U.S. Mint commemorative coins services; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stored value products; 
</P>
<P>(b) Clerical, professional and management services:
</P>
<P>(1) Accounting services;
</P>
<P>(2) Courier services;
</P>
<P>(3) Credit analysis;
</P>
<P>(4) Facsimile transmissions and copying services;
</P>
<P>(5) Internal audits for credit unions;
</P>
<P>(6) Locator services;
</P>
<P>(7) Management and personnel training and support;
</P>
<P>(8) Marketing services;
</P>
<P>(9) Research services; 
</P>
<P>(10) Supervisory committee audits; and
</P>
<P>(11) Employee leasing services;
</P>
<P>(c) Electronic transaction services:
</P>
<P>(1) Automated teller machine (ATM) services;
</P>
<P>(2) Credit card and debit card services;
</P>
<P>(3) Data processing;
</P>
<P>(4) Electronic fund transfer (EFT) services;
</P>
<P>(5) Electronic income tax filing;
</P>
<P>(6) Payment item processing;
</P>
<P>(7) Wire transfer services; and
</P>
<P>(8) Cyber financial services;
</P>
<P>(d) Financial counseling services:
</P>
<P>(1) Developing and administering Individual Retirement Accounts (IRA), Keogh, deferred compensation, and other personnel benefit plans;
</P>
<P>(2) Estate planning;
</P>
<P>(3) Financial planning and counseling;
</P>
<P>(4) Income tax preparation;
</P>
<P>(5) Investment counseling; 
</P>
<P>(6) Retirement counseling; and
</P>
<P>(7) Business counseling and consultant services; 
</P>
<P>(e) Fixed asset services:
</P>
<P>(1) Management, development, sale, or lease of fixed assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sale, lease, or servicing of computer hardware or software;
</P>
<P>(f) Insurance brokerage or agency:
</P>
<P>(1) Agency for sale of insurance;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of vehicle warranty programs; 
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of group purchasing programs; and
</P>
<P>(4) Real estate settlement services; 
</P>
<P>(g) Leasing:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal property; and
</P>
<P>(2) Real estate leasing of excess CUSO property;
</P>
<P>(h) Loan support services:
</P>
<P>(1) Debt collection services;
</P>
<P>(2) Loan processing, servicing, and sales; 
</P>
<P>(3) Sale of repossessed collateral;
</P>
<P>(4) Real estate settlement services;
</P>
<P>(5) Purchase and servicing of non-performing loans; and
</P>
<P>(6) Referral and processing of loan applications for members whose loan applications have been denied by the credit union; 
</P>
<P>(i) Record retention, security and disaster recovery services:
</P>
<P>(1) Alarm-monitoring and other security services;
</P>
<P>(2) Disaster recovery services;
</P>
<P>(3) Microfilm, microfiche, optical and electronic imaging, CD-ROM data storage and retrieval services;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision of forms and supplies; and
</P>
<P>(5) Record retention and storage;
</P>
<P>(j) Securities brokerage services;
</P>
<P>(k) Shared credit union branch (service center) operations;
</P>
<P>(l) Travel agency services;
</P>
<P>(m) Trust and trust-related services:
</P>
<P>(1) Acting as administrator for prepaid legal service plans;
</P>
<P>(2) Acting as trustee, guardian, conservator, estate administrator, or in any other fiduciary capacity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Trust services;
</P>
<P>(n) Real estate brokerage services;
</P>
<P>(o) In connection with providing a permissible service, a CUSO may invest in a non-CUSO service provider. The amount of the CUSO's investment is limited to the amount necessary to participate in the service provider, or a greater amount if necessary to receive a reduced price for goods or services;
</P>
<P>(p) Payroll processing services;
</P>
<P>(q) Loan origination, including originating, purchasing, selling, and holding any type of loan permissible for Federal credit unions to originate, purchase, sell, and hold, including the authority to purchase and sell participation interests that are permissible for Federal credit unions to purchase and sell; and
</P>
<P>(r) Other categories of activities as approved in writing by the NCUA and published on the NCUA's website. Once the NCUA has approved an activity and published that activity on its website, the NCUA will not remove that particular activity from the approved list or make substantial changes to the content or description of that approved activity, except through formal rulemaking procedures.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 33187, June 22, 1999; 64 FR 66361, Nov. 26, 1999; 66 FR 40578, Aug. 3, 2001; 68 FR 56551, Oct. 1, 2003; 73 FR 79312, Dec. 29, 2008; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010; 86 FR 59301, Oct. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.6   What activities and services are prohibited for CUSOs?</HEAD>
<P><I>General.</I> CUSOs must not acquire control of, either directly or indirectly, another depository financial institution, nor invest in shares, stocks, or obligations of an insurance company, trade association, liquidity facility or similar organization, corporation, or association.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 10756, Mar. 5, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 66361, Nov. 26, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.8   What transaction and compensation limits might apply to individuals related to both an FCU and a CUSO?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Officials and Senior Management Employees.</I> The officials, senior management employees, and their immediate family members of an FCU that has outstanding loans or investments in a CUSO must not receive any salary, commission, investment income, or other income or compensation from the CUSO either directly or indirectly, or from any person being served through the CUSO. This provision does not prohibit such FCU officials or senior management employees from assisting in the operation of a CUSO, provided the officials or senior management employees are not compensated by the CUSO. Further, the CUSO may reimburse the FCU for the services provided by such FCU officials and senior management employees only if the account receivable of the FCU due from the CUSO is paid in full at least every 120 days. For purposes of this paragraph (a), “official” means affiliated credit union directors or committee members. For purposes of this paragraph (a), “senior management employee” means affiliated credit union chief executive officer (typically this individual holds the title of President or Treasurer/Manager), any assistant chief executive officers (e.g. Assistant President, Vice President, or Assistant Treasurer/Manager) and the chief financial officer (Comptroller). For purposes of this paragraph (a), “immediate family member” means a spouse or other family members living in the same household.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Employees.</I> The prohibition contained in paragraph (a) of this section also applies to FCU employees not otherwise covered if the employees are directly involved in dealing with the CUSO unless the FCU's board of directors determines that the FCU employees' positions do not present a conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Others.</I> All transactions with business associates or family members of FCU officials, senior management employees, and their immediate family members, not specifically prohibited by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section must be conducted at arm's length and in the interest of the FCU.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.10   How can a state supervisory authority obtain an exemption for FISCUs from compliance with § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA Board may exempt FISCUs in a given state from compliance with any or all of § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3) if the NCUA Board determines the laws in that state are equal to, or more stringent than, § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3), and the laws and procedures available to the supervisory authority in that state are sufficient to provide NCUA with the degree of access and information it believes is necessary to evaluate the safety and soundness of FICUs having business relationships with CUSOs owned by FISCUs in that state.
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain an exemption, the state supervisory authority must submit a copy of the legal authority pursuant to which it secures the information required in § 712.3(d)(1), (2), and (3) of this part to NCUA's regional office having responsibility for that state, along with all procedural and operational documentation supporting and describing the actual practices by which it implements and exercises the authority.
</P>
<P>(c) The state supervisory authority must provide the regional director with an assurance that NCUA examiners will be provided with co-extensive authority and will be allowed direct access to CUSO books and records at such times as NCUA, in its sole discretion, may determine necessary or appropriate. For purposes of this section, access includes the right to make and retain copies of any CUSO record, as to which NCUA will accord the same level of control and confidentiality that it uses with respect to all other examination-related materials it obtains in the course of its duties.
</P>
<P>(d) The state supervisory authority must also provide the regional director with an assurance that NCUA, upon request, will have access to copies of any financial statements or reports which a CUSO has provided to the state supervisory authority.
</P>
<P>(e) The regional director will review the applicable authority, procedures and assurances and forward the exemption request, along with the regional director's recommendation, to the NCUA Board for a final determination.
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of this section, whether an entity is a CUSO shall be determined in accordance with the definition set out in § 741.222 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 72549, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 712.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.14.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 712.11   What requirements apply to subsidiary CUSOs?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FCUs investing in a CUSO with a subsidiary CUSO.</I> FCUs may only invest in or loan to a CUSO, which has a subsidiary CUSO, if the subsidiary CUSO satisfies all of the requirements of this part. The requirements of this part apply to all tiers or levels of a CUSO's structure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FISCUs investing in a CUSO with a subsidiary CUSO.</I> FISCUs may only invest in or loan to a CUSO which has a subsidiary CUSO, if the subsidiary CUSO complies with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) All applicable state laws and rules regarding CUSOs; and
</P>
<P>(2) All of the requirements of this part that apply to FISCUs, which are listed in § 712.1. The requirements of this part that apply to FISCUs apply to all tiers or levels of a CUSO's structure.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a subsidiary CUSO is any entity in which a CUSO has an ownership interest of any amount, if that entity is engaged primarily in providing products or services to credit unions or credit union members.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 72549, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="713" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 713—FIDELITY BOND AND INSURANCE COVERAGE FOR FEDERALLY INSURED CREDIT UNIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1761a, 1761b, 1766(a), 1766(h), 1789(a)(11).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 28720, May 27, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 713.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.1   What is the scope of this section?</HEAD>
<P>This section provides the requirements for fidelity bonds for federally insured credit union employees and officials and for other insurance coverage for losses such as theft, holdup, vandalism, etc., caused by persons outside the credit union. Federally insured, state-chartered credit unions are required by § 741.201 of this chapter to comply with the fidelity bond coverage requirements of this part. Corporate credit unions must comply with § 704.18 of this chapter in lieu of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35524, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.2   What are the responsibilities of a federally insured credit union's board of directors under this section?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of each federally insured credit union must at least annually review its fidelity and other insurance coverage to ensure that it is adequate in relation to the potential risks facing the federally insured credit union and the minimum requirements set by the NCUA Board; and
</P>
<P>(b) The board of directors of each federally insured credit union must review all applications for purchase or renewal of its fidelity bond coverage. After review, the federally insured credit union's board must pass a resolution approving the purchase or renewal of fidelity bond coverage and delegate one member of the board, who is not an employee of the federally insured credit union, to sign the purchase or renewal agreement and all attachments; provided, however, that no board members may be a signatory on consecutive purchase or renewal agreements for the same fidelity bond coverage policy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35524, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.3   What bond coverage must a federally insured credit union have?</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a minimum, your bond coverage must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be purchased in an individual policy from a company holding a certificate of authority from the Secretary of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(2) Cover fraud and dishonesty by all employees, directors, officers, supervisory committee members, and credit committee members;
</P>
<P>(3) Include an option for the liquidating agent to purchase coverage in the event of an involuntary liquidation that extends the discovery period for a covered loss for at least one year after liquidation; and
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a voluntary liquidation, remain in effect, or provide that the discovery period is extended, for at least four months after the final distribution of assets, as required in § 710.2(c) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement in subsection (a) of this section does not prohibit a federally insured credit union from having a fidelity bond that also covers its credit union service organization (CUSO(s)), provided the federally insured credit union owns more than 50 percent of the CUSO(s) or the CUSO(s) is organized by the federally insured credit union for the purpose of handling certain of its business transactions and composed exclusively of the federally insured credit union's employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35524, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.4   What bond forms may a federally insured credit union use?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA Board must approve all bond forms before federally insured credit unions may use them.
</P>
<P>(b) Bond forms the NCUA Board has approved for use by federally insured credit union are listed on the NCUA's website, <I>http://www.ncua.gov,</I> and may be used by federally insured credit unions without further NCUA approval. If you are unable to access the NCUA's website, you can obtain a current listing of approved bond forms by contacting the NCUA at (703) 518-6330.
</P>
<P>(c) Federally insured credit unions may not use any of the following without first receiving approval from the NCUA Board:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bond form that has been amended or changed since the time the NCUA Board approved the form; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any rider, endorsement, renewal, or other document that limits coverage of approved bond forms.
</P>
<P>(d) Approval on all bond forms expires after a period of 10 years from the date the NCUA Board approved or reapproved use of the bond form unless otherwise determined by the NCUA Board. Provided, however, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Any bond forms approved before 2019 will expire on January 1, 2029, unless otherwise determined by the NCUA Board; and
</P>
<P>(2) The NCUA reserves the right to review a bond form at any point after its approval.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35524, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.5   What is the required minimum dollar amount of coverage?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The minimum required amount of fidelity bond coverage for any single loss is computed based on a federally insured credit union's total assets.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assets 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum bond 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$0 to $4,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Lesser of total assets or $250,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$4,000,001 to $50,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$100,000 plus $50,000 for each million or fraction thereof over $1,000,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$50,000,000 to $500,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,550,000 plus $10,000 for each million or fraction thereof over $50,000,000, to a maximum of $5,000,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over $500,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">One percent of assets, rounded to the nearest hundred million, to a maximum of $9,000,000.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) This is the minimum coverage required, but a federally insured credit union's board of directors should purchase additional or enhanced coverage when its circumstances warrant. In making this determination, a board of directors should consider its own internal risk assessment, its fraud trends and loss experience, and factors such as its cash on hand, cash in transit, and the nature and risks inherent in any expanded services it offers such as wire transfer and remittance services.
</P>
<P>(c) While the above is the required minimum amount of bond coverage, federally insured credit unions should maintain increased coverage equal to the greater of either of the following amounts within thirty days of discovery of the need for such increase:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the daily cash fund, i.e. daily cash plus anticipated daily money receipts on the federally insured credit union's premises, or
</P>
<P>(2) The total amount of the federally insured credit union's money in transit in any one shipment.
</P>
<P>(3) Increased coverage is not required pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, however, when the federally insured credit union temporarily increased its cash fund because of unusual events which cannot reasonably be expected to recur.
</P>
<P>(d) Any aggregate limit of liability provided for in a fidelity bond policy must be at least twice the single loss limit of liability. This requirement does not apply to optional insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>(e) Any proposal to reduce a federally insured credit union's required bond coverage must be approved in writing by the NCUA Board at least twenty days in advance of the proposed effective date of the reduction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28720, May 27, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 61716, Oct. 26, 2005; 84 FR 35525, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.6   What is the permissible deductible?</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The maximum amount of allowable deductible is computed based on a federally insured credit union's asset size and capital level, as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Assets
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum deductible
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$0 to $100,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No deductible allowed.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$100,001 to $250,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$250,000 to $1,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Over $1,000,000</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,000 plus 1/1000 of total assets up to a maximum of $200,000; for credit unions that have received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classification of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters the maximum deductible is $1,000,000.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) The deductibles may apply to one or more insurance clauses in a policy. Any deductibles in excess of the above amounts must receive the prior written permission of the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(b) A deductible may not exceed 10 percent of a federally insured credit union's Regular Reserve unless a separate Contingency Reserve is set up for the excess. In computing the maximum deductible, valuation accounts such as the allowance for loan losses cannot be considered.
</P>
<P>(c) A federally insured credit union that has received a composite CAMELS rating of “1” or “2” for the last two (2) full examinations and maintained a capital classification of “well capitalized” under part 702 of this chapter for the six (6) immediately preceding quarters is eligible to qualify for a deductible in excess of $200,000. The federally insured credit union's eligibility is determined based on it having assets in excess of $1 million as reflected in its most recent year-end 5300 call report. A federally insured credit union that previously qualified for a deductible in excess of $200,000, but that subsequently fails to qualify based on its most recent year-end 5300 call report because either its assets have decreased or it no longer meets the capital requirements of this paragraph or fails to meet the CAMELS rating requirements of this paragraph as determined by its most recent examination report, must obtain the coverage otherwise required by paragraph (b) of this section within 30 days of filing its year-end call report and must notify the appropriate NCUA regional office in writing of its changed status and confirm that it has obtained the required coverage.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 28720, May 27, 1999, as amended at 70 FR 61716, Oct. 26, 2005; 77 FR 31992, May 31, 2012; 80 FR 66723, Oct. 29, 2015; 84 FR 35525, July 24, 2019; 86 FR 59289, Oct. 27, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 713.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.15.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 713.7   May the NCUA Board require a federally insured credit union to secure additional insurance coverage?</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA Board may require additional coverage when the NCUA Board determines that a federally insured credit union's current coverage is inadequate. The federally insured credit union must purchase this additional coverage within 30 days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35525, July 24, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="714" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 714—LEASING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1756, 1757, 1766, 1785, 1789. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 34585, May 31, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 714.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>This part covers the standards and requirements that you, a federal credit union, must follow when engaged in the leasing of personal property. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.2   What are the permissible leasing arrangements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You may engage in direct leasing. In direct leasing, you purchase personal property from a vendor, becoming the owner of the property at the request of your member, and then lease the property to that member. 


</P>
<P>(b) You may engage in indirect leasing as described under § 701.21(c)(9) of this chapter. In indirect leasing, a third party leases property to your member and you then purchase that lease from the third party for the purpose of leasing the property to your member. You do not have to purchase the leased property if you comply with the requirements of § 714.3.






</P>
<P>(c) You may engage in open-end leasing. In an open-end lease, your member assumes the risk and responsibility for any difference in the estimated residual value and the actual value of the property at lease end. 
</P>
<P>(d) You may engage in closed-end leasing. In a closed-end lease, you assume the risk and responsibility for any difference in the estimated residual value and the actual value of the property at lease end. However, your member is always responsible for any excess wear and tear and excess mileage charges as established under the lease. 


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 34585, May 31, 2000, as amended at 88 FR 67601, Sept. 29, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.3   Must you own the leased property in an indirect leasing arrangement?</HEAD>
<P>You do not have to own the leased property in an indirect leasing arrangement if: 
</P>
<P>(a) You obtain a full assignment of the lease. A full assignment is the assignment of all the rights, interests, obligations, and title in a lease to you, that is, you become the owner of the lease; 
</P>
<P>(b) You are named as the sole lienholder of the leased property; 
</P>
<P>(c) You receive a security agreement, signed by the leasing company, granting you a sole lien in the leased property and the right to take possession and dispose of the leased property in the event of a default by the lessee, a default in the leasing company's obligations to you, or a material adverse change in the leasing company's financial condition; and 
</P>
<P>(d) You take all necessary steps to record and perfect your security interest in the leased property. Your state's Commercial Code may treat the automobiles as inventory, and require a filing with the Secretary of State. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.4   What are the lease requirements?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Your lease must be a net lease. In a net lease, your member assumes all the burdens of ownership including maintenance and repair, licensing and registration, taxes, and insurance; 
</P>
<P>(b) Your lease must be a full payout lease. In a full payout lease, you must reasonably expect to recoup your entire investment in the leased property, plus the estimated cost of financing, from the lessee's payments and the estimated residual value of the leased property at the expiration of the lease term; and 
</P>
<P>(c) The amount of the estimated residual value you rely upon to satisfy the full payout lease requirement may not exceed 25% of the original cost of the leased property unless the amount above 25% is guaranteed. Estimated residual value is the projected value of the leased property at lease end. Estimated residual value must be reasonable in light of the nature of the leased property and all circumstances relevant to the leasing arrangement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.5   What is required if you rely on an estimated residual value greater than 25% of the original cost of the leased property?</HEAD>
<P>If the amount of the estimated residual value you rely upon to satisfy the full payout lease requirement of § 714.4(b) exceeds 25% of the original cost of the leased property, a financially capable party must guarantee the excess. The guarantor may be the manufacturer. The guarantor may also be an insurance company with an A.M. Best rating of at least a B + , or with at least the equivalent of an A.M. Best B + rating from another major rating company. You must obtain or have on file financial documentation demonstrating that the guarantor has the resources to meet the guarantee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.6   Are you required to retain salvage powers over the leased property?</HEAD>
<P>You must retain salvage powers over the leased property. Salvage powers protect you from a loss and provide you with the power to take action if there is an unanticipated change in conditions that threatens your financial position by significantly increasing your exposure to risk. Salvage powers allow you: 
</P>
<P>(a) As the owner and lessor, to take reasonable and appropriate action to salvage or protect the value of the property or your interests arising under the lease; or 
</P>
<P>(b) As the assignee of a lease, to become the owner and lessor of the leased property pursuant to your contractual rights, or take any reasonable and appropriate action to salvage or protect the value of the property or your interests arising under the lease. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.7   What are the insurance requirements applicable to leasing?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must maintain a contingent liability insurance policy with an endorsement for leasing or be named as the co-insured if you do not own the leased property. Contingent liability insurance protects you should you be sued as the owner of the leased property. You must use an insurance company with a nationally recognized industry rating of at least a B + . 
</P>
<P>(b) Your member must carry the normal liability and property insurance on the leased property. You must be named as an additional insured on the liability insurance policy and as the loss payee on the property insurance policy. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.8   Are the early payment provisions, or interest rate provisions, applicable in leasing arrangements?</HEAD>
<P>You are not subject to the early payment provisions set forth in § 701.21(c)(6) of this chapter. You are also not subject to the interest rate provisions in § 701.21(c)(7). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 714.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.16.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 714.10   What other laws must you comply with when engaged in leasing?</HEAD>
<P>You must comply with the Consumer Leasing Act, 15 U.S.C. 1667-67f, and its implementing regulation, Regulation M, 12 CFR part 1013. You must comply with state laws on consumer leasing, but only to the extent that the state leasing laws are consistent with the Consumer Leasing Act, 15 U.S.C. 1667e, or provide the member with greater protections or benefits than the Consumer Leasing Act. You are also subject to the lending rules set forth in § 701.21 of this chapter, except as provided in §§ 714.8 and 714.9 of this part. The lending rules in § 701.21 address the preemption of other state and federal laws that impact on credit transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 34585, May 31, 2000, as amended at 77 FR 71085, Nov. 29, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="715" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 715—SUPERVISORY COMMITTEE AUDITS AND VERIFICATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1761(b), 1761d, 1782(a)(6). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 715.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.1   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements section 202(a)(6)(D) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1782(a)(6)(D), as added by section 201(a) of the Credit Union Membership Access Act, Pub. L. No. 105-219, 112 Stat. 918 (1998). This part prescribes the responsibilities of the Supervisory Committee to obtain an annual audit of the credit union according to its charter type and asset size, and to conduct a verification of members' accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.2   Definitions used in this part.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compensated person</I> refers to any accounting/auditing professional, excluding a credit union employee, who is compensated for performing more than one supervisory committee audit and/or verification of members' accounts per calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial statements</I> refers to a presentation of financial data, including accompanying notes, derived from accounting records of the credit union, and intended to disclose a credit union's economic resources or obligations at a point in time, or the changes therein for a period of time, in conformity with GAAP, as defined herein, or regulatory accounting procedures. Each of the following is considered to be a financial statement: a balance sheet or statement of financial condition; statement of income or statement of operations; statement of undivided earnings; statement of cash flows; statement of changes in members' equity; statement of revenue and expenses; and statement of cash receipts and disbursements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financial statement audit</I> (also known as an “opinion audit”) refers to an audit of the financial statements of a credit union performed in accordance with GAAS by an independent person who is licensed by the appropriate State or jurisdiction. The objective of a financial statement audit is to express an opinion as to whether those financial statements of the credit union present fairly, in all material respects, the financial position and the results of its operations and its cash flows in conformity with GAAP, as defined herein, or regulatory accounting practices.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>GAAP</I> is an acronym for “generally accepted accounting principles” which refers to the conventions, rules, and procedures which define accepted accounting practice. GAAP includes both broad general guidelines and detailed practices and procedures, provides a standard by which to measure financial statement presentations, and encompasses not only accounting principles and practices but also the methods of applying them.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>GAAS</I> is an acronym for “generally accepted auditing standards” which refers to the standards approved and adopted by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants which apply when an “independent, licensed certified public accountant” audits financial statements. Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that “procedures” address acts to be performed, whereas “standards” measure the quality of the performance of those acts and the objectives to be achieved by use of the procedures undertaken. In addition, auditing standards address the auditor's professional qualifications as well as the judgment exercised in performing the audit and in preparing the report of the audit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Independent</I> means the impartiality necessary for the dependability of the compensated auditor's findings. Independence requires the exercise of fairness toward credit union officials, members, creditors and others who may rely upon the report of a supervisory committee audit report.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Internal control</I> refers to the process, established by the credit union's board of directors, officers and employees, designed to provide reasonable assurance of reliable financial reporting and safeguarding of assets against unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition. A credit union's internal control structure consists of five components: control environment; risk assessment; control activities; information and communication; and monitoring. Reliable financial reporting refers to preparation of Call Reports (NCUA Forms 5300 and 5310) that meet management's financial reporting objectives. Internal control over safeguarding of assets against unauthorized acquisition, use, or disposition refers to prevention or timely detection of transactions involving such unauthorized access, use, or disposition of assets which could result in a loss that is material to the financial statements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Reportable conditions</I> refers to a matter coming to the attention of the independent, compensated auditor which, in his or her judgment, represents a significant deficiency in the design or operation of the internal control structure of the credit union, which could adversely affect its ability to record, process, summarize, and report financial data consistent with the representations of management in the financial statements.
</P>
<P>(j) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(k) <I>State-licensed person</I> refers to a certified public accountant or public accountant who is licensed by the State or jurisdiction where the credit union is principally located to perform accounting or auditing services for that credit union.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Supervisory committee</I> refers to a supervisory committee as defined in Section 111(b) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1761(b). For some federally-insured state chartered credit unions, the “audit committee” designated by state statute or regulation is the equivalent of a supervisory committee.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Supervisory committee audit</I> refers to an engagement under either § 715.5 or § 715.6 of this part.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Working papers</I> refers to the principal record, in any form, of the work performed by the auditor and/or supervisory committee to support its findings and/or conclusions concerning significant matters. Examples include the written record of procedures applied, tests performed, information obtained, and pertinent conclusions reached in the engagement, proprietary audit programs, analyses, memoranda, letters of confirmation and representation, abstracts of credit union documents, reviewer's notes, if retained, and schedules or commentaries prepared or obtained in the course of the engagement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 66 FR 65624, Dec. 20, 2001; 84 FR 53307, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.3   General responsibilities of the Supervisory Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Basic.</I> The supervisory committee is responsible for ensuring that the board of directors and management of the credit union—
</P>
<P>(1) Meet required financial reporting objectives and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish practices and procedures sufficient to safeguard members' assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific.</I> To carry out the responsibilities set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, the supervisory committee must determine whether:
</P>
<P>(1) Internal controls are established and effectively maintained to achieve the credit union's financial reporting objectives which must be sufficient to satisfy the requirements of the supervisory committee audit, verification of members' accounts and its additional responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit union's accounting records and financial reports are promptly prepared and accurately reflect operations and results;
</P>
<P>(3) The relevant plans, policies, and control procedures established by the board of directors are properly administered; and
</P>
<P>(4) Policies and control procedures are sufficient to safeguard against error, conflict of interest, self-dealing and fraud.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mandates.</I> In carrying out the responsibilities set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Supervisory Committee must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the credit union adheres to the measurement and filing requirements for reports filed with the NCUA Board under § 741.6 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Perform or obtain a supervisory committee audit, as prescribed in § 715.4 of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Verify or cause the verification of members' passbooks and accounts against the records of the credit union, as prescribed in § 715.8 of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Act to avoid imposition of sanctions for failure to comply with the requirements of this part, as prescribed in §§ 715.11 and 715.12 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 69 FR 27828, May 17, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.4   Audit responsibility of the Supervisory Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual audit requirement.</I> A federally-insured credit union is required to obtain an annual supervisory committee audit which occurs at least once every calendar year (period of performance) and must cover the period elapsed since the last audit period (period effectively covered).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial statement audit option.</I> Any federally-insured credit union, whether Federal or State chartered and regardless of asset size, may choose to fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility by obtaining an annual audit of its financial statements performed in accordance with GAAS by an independent person who is licensed to do so by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located. (A “financial statement audit” is distinct from a “supervisory committee audit,” although a financial statement audit is included among the options for fulfilling the supervisory committee audit requirement in this section. <I>Compare</I> § 715.2(c).)
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other audit options.</I> A federally insured credit union which does not choose to obtain a financial statement audit as permitted by subsection (b) must fulfill its supervisory audit responsibility under either of § 715.5 or § 715.6 of this part, whichever is applicable. <I>See</I> Table 1. For purposes of this part, a credit union's asset size is the amount of total assets reported in the year-end Call Report (NCUA Form 5300) filed for the calendar year-end immediately preceding the period under audit.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 715.4
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of charter
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Minimum audit required to fulfill supervisory committee audit responsibility 
<sup>1</sup>
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Part 715
<br/>section
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Federal Charter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 Million or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Financial statement audit per GAAS by independent, State-licensed person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">715.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than $500 Million but greater than $10 Million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Either financial statement audit or other supervisory committee audit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10 Million or less</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Supervisory committee audit.</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">State Charter</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$500 Million or more</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Financial statement audit per GAAS by independent, State licensed person</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">715.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Less than $500 Million</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Supervisory committee audit unless audit prescribed by State law is more stringent</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The Supervisory Committee audit responsibility under this part can always be fulfilled by obtaining a financial statement audit. <E T="03">See</E> paragraph (b) of this section.</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019; 84 FR 53307, Oct. 7, 2019]





</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.5   Audit of Federal Credit Unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Total assets of $500 million or greater.</I> To fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility, a Federal credit union having total assets of $500 million or greater, except as provided in § 703.106(b)(3) of this chapter, must obtain an annual audit of its financial statements performed in accordance with Generally Accepted Auditing Standards by an independent person who is licensed to do so by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total assets of less than $500 million but more than $10 million.</I> To fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility, a Federally-chartered credit union having total assets of less than $500 million but more than $10 million which does not choose to obtain an audit under § 715.5(a), must obtain an annual supervisory committee audit as prescribed in § 715.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Total assets of $10 million or less.</I> To fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility, a Federally-chartered credit union having total assets of $10 million or less must obtain an annual Supervisory Committee audit as prescribed in § 715.7.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other requirements.</I> A federally chartered credit union, regardless of which audit it is required to obtain under this section, must meet other applicable requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010; 79 FR 5247, Jan. 31, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.6   Audit of Federally-insured State-chartered credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Total assets of $500 million or greater.</I> To fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility, a federally-insured State-chartered credit union having total assets of $500 million or greater must obtain an annual audit of its financial statements performed in accordance with GAAS by an independent person who is licensed to do so by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total assets of less than $500 million.</I> To fulfill its Supervisory Committee audit responsibility, a federally-insured State-chartered credit union having total assets of less than $500 million must obtain either an annual supervisory committee audit as prescribed under either § 715.6(a) or § 715.7, or an audit as prescribed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located, whichever audit is more stringent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other requirements.</I> A federally-insured, state-chartered credit union, regardless of which audit it is required to obtain under this section, must meet other applicable requirements of this part except §§ 715.5 and 715.12.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.7   Supervisory Committee audit alternatives to a financial statement audit.</HEAD>
<P>A credit union which is not required to obtain a financial statement audit may fulfill its supervisory committee responsibility by obtaining an <I>Other Supervisory Committee Audit.</I> Such an audit is one that is performed by the supervisory committee, its internal auditor, or any other qualified person (such as a certified public accountant, public accountant, league auditor, credit union auditor consultant, retired financial institutions examiner, etc.) that satisfies the minimum requirements in appendix A of this part. Qualified persons who are not State-licensed cannot provide assurance services under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 53308, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.8   Requirements for verification of accounts and passbooks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Verification obligation.</I> The Supervisory Committee shall, at least once every two years, cause the passbooks (including any book, statements of account, or other record approved by the NCUA Board) and accounts of the members to be verified against the records of the treasurer of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> Any of the following methods may be used to verify members' passbooks and accounts, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Controlled verification.</I> A controlled verification of 100 percent of members' share and loan accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statistical method.</I> A sampling method which provides for:
</P>
<P>(i) Random selection:
</P>
<P>(ii) A sample which is representative of the population from which it was selected;
</P>
<P>(iii) An equal chance of selecting each dollar in the population;
</P>
<P>(iv) Sufficient accounts in both number and scope on which to base conclusions concerning management's financial reporting objectives; and
</P>
<P>(v) Additional procedures to be performed if evidence provided by confirmations alone is not sufficient.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Non-statistical method.</I> When the verification is performed by an Independent person licensed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located, the auditor may choose among the sampling methods set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section and non-statistical sampling methods consistent with GAAS if such methods provide for:
</P>
<P>(i) Sufficient accounts in both number and scope on which to base conclusions concerning management's financial reporting objectives to provide assurance that the General Ledger accounts are fairly stated in relation to the financial statements taken as a whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) Additional procedures to be performed by the auditor if evidence provided by confirmations alone is not sufficient; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documentation of the sampling procedures used and of their consistency with GAAS (to be provided to the NCUA Board upon request).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retention of records.</I> The supervisory committee must retain the records of each verification of members' passbooks and accounts until it completes the next verification of members' passbooks and accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.9   Assistance from outside, compensated person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unrelated to officials.</I> A compensated auditor who performs a Supervisory Committee audit on behalf of a credit union shall not be related by blood or marriage to any management employee, member of either the board of directors, the Supervisory Committee or the credit committee, or loan officer of that credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Engagement letter.</I> The engagement of a compensated auditor to perform all or a portion of the scope of a financial statement audit or supervisory committee audit shall be evidenced by an engagement letter. In all cases, the engagement must be contracted directly with the Supervisory Committee. The engagement letter must be signed by the compensated auditor and acknowledged therein by the Supervisory Committee prior to commencement of the engagement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of letter.</I> The engagement letter shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the terms, conditions, and objectives of the engagement;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the basis of accounting to be used;
</P>
<P>(3) If an Other Supervisory Committee Audit, include an appendix setting forth the procedures to be performed;
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the rate of, or total, compensation to be paid for the audit;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that the auditor shall, upon completion of the engagement, deliver to the Supervisory Committee a written report of the audit and notice in writing, either within the report or communicated separately, of any internal control reportable conditions and/or irregularities or illegal acts, if any, which come to the auditor's attention during the normal course of the audit (i.e., no notice required if none noted);
</P>
<P>(6) Specify a target date of delivery of the written reports, so that such target date will enable the credit union to meet its annual audit requirements in this part;
</P>
<P>(7) Certify that NCUA staff and/or the State credit union supervisor, or designated representatives of each, will be provided unconditional access to the complete set of original working papers, either at the offices of the credit union or at a mutually agreed upon location, for purposes of inspection; and
</P>
<P>(8) Acknowledge that working papers shall be retained for a minimum of three years from the date of the written audit report.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complete scope.</I> If the engagement is to perform an Other Supervisory Committee Audit intended to fully meet the requirements of § 715.7, the engagement letter shall certify that the audit will address at least the minimum requirements in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exclusions from scope.</I> If the engagement is to perform an Other Supervisory Committee Audit which will exclude any of the minimum requirements in appendix A of this part, the engagement letter shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the excluded items;
</P>
<P>(2) State that, because of the exclusion(s), the resulting audit will not, by itself, fulfill the scope of a supervisory committee audit; and
</P>
<P>(3) Caution that the supervisory committee will remain responsible for fulfilling the scope of a supervisory committee audit with respect to the excluded items.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 84 FR 53308, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.10   Audit report and working paper maintenance and access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Audit report.</I> Upon completion and/or receipt of the written report of a financial statement audit or a supervisory committee audit, the Supervisory Committee must verify that the audit was performed and reported in accordance with the terms of the engagement letter prescribed herein. The Supervisory Committee must submit the report(s) to the board of directors, and provide a summary of the results of the audit to the members of the credit union orally or in writing at the next annual meeting of the credit union. If a member so requests, the Supervisory Committee shall provide the member access to the full audit report. If the NCUA so requests, the Supervisory Committee shall provide NCUA a copy of each of the audit reports it receives or produces.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Working papers.</I> The supervisory committee shall be responsible for preparing and maintaining, or making available, a complete set of original working papers supporting each supervisory committee audit. The supervisory committee shall, upon request, provide NCUA staff unconditional access to such working papers, either at the offices of the credit union or at a mutually agreeable location, for purposes of inspecting such working papers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 41035, July 29, 1999, as amended at 84 FR 1607, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.11   Sanctions for failure to comply with this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sanctions.</I> Failure of a supervisory committee and/or its independent compensated auditor or other person to comply with the requirements of this section, or the terms of an engagement letter required by this section, is grounds for:
</P>
<P>(1) The regional director to reject the supervisory committee audit and provide a reasonable opportunity to correct deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(2) The regional director to impose the remedies available in § 715.12, provided any of the conditions specified therein is present; and
</P>
<P>(3) The NCUA Board to seek formal administrative sanctions against the supervisory committee and/or its independent, compensated auditor pursuant to section 206(r) of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1786(r).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State Charters.</I> In the case of a federally-insured state chartered credit union, NCUA shall provide the state regulator an opportunity to timely impose a remedy satisfactory to NCUA before exercising it authority under § 741.202 of this chapter to impose a sanction permitted under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 715.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 715.12   Statutory audit remedies for Federal credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Audit by alternative licensed person.</I> The NCUA Board may compel a federal credit union to obtain a supervisory committee audit which meets the minimum requirements of § 715.5 or § 715.7, and which is performed by an independent person who is licensed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located, for any fiscal year in which any of the following three conditions is present:
</P>
<P>(1) The Supervisory Committee has not obtained an annual financial statement audit or performed a supervisory committee audit; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Supervisory Committee has obtained a financial statement audit or performed a supervisory committee audit which does not meet the requirements of part 715 including those in § 715.8.
</P>
<P>(3) The credit union has experienced serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies as defined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial statement audit required.</I> The NCUA Board may compel a federal credit union to obtain a financial statement audit performed in accordance with GAAS by an independent person who is licensed by the State or jurisdiction in which the credit union is principally located (even if such audit is not required by § 715.5), for any fiscal year in which the credit union has experienced serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies as defined in paragraph (c) of this section. The objective of a financial statement audit performed under this paragraph is to reconstruct the records of the credit union sufficient to allow an unqualified or, if necessary, a qualified opinion on the credit union's financial statements. An adverse opinion or disclaimer of opinion should be the exception rather than the norm.
</P>
<P>(c) “<I>Serious and persistent recordkeeping deficiencies.</I>” A record-keeping deficiency is “serious” if the NCUA Board reasonably believes that the board of directors and management of the credit union have not timely met financial reporting objectives and established practices and procedures sufficient to safeguard members' assets. A serious recordkeeping deficiency is “persistent” when it continues beyond a usual, expected or reasonable period of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.17.0.11.13.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 715—Supervisory Committee Audit—Minimum Procedures
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix presents minimum procedures which a supervisory committee, its internal auditor, or other qualified person must complete when a credit union chooses the Other Supervisory Committee Audit option for completing its annual audit requirements under § 715.7.
</P>
<P>This option may not be adequate for all credit unions as it is designed for smaller, less complex credit unions. The supervisory committee, internal auditor, or other qualified person may also need to perform additional procedures to supplement these minimum procedures if the specific circumstances of a particular credit union so dictate. The supervisory committee must apply its judgment in determining the procedures necessary to meet audit requirements in this part. The supervisory committee remains responsible to ensure that a complete set of test procedures is performed. All test procedures will be done using balances and samples for the applicable audit period under review.
</P>
<P>Any time the test or confirmation procedures include making a sample or selection, the supervisory committee's report, its internal auditor's report, or other qualified person's report on minimum procedures should describe the method of selection and the number of selected items.
</P>
<P>For purposes of this appendix, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P>• Confirm or confirmation refers to a written verification with a third-party (person or organization) pertaining to an account balance or condition. Examples of confirmation letters are bank/corporate credit union account confirmation, investment account confirmation, borrowing or line of credit confirmation, attorney letter confirmation, and member share/loan account confirmation.
</P>
<P>• Materiality refers to a statement, fact or item, which, giving full consideration to the surrounding circumstances as they exist at the time, it is of such a nature that its disclosure, or the method of treating it, would be likely to influence or to make a difference in the judgment and conduct of a reasonable person. Materiality should take into account ending balances as well as the volume of transactions in an account. Typically, balances or transaction volume greater than 5 percent of the credit union's net worth should be considered material for purposes of this appendix.
</P>
<P>• Review refers to the examination of Board minutes, policies and procedures, and a review of a <I>sample</I> portion of activities, rather than <I>all</I> of the activities.
</P>
<P>• Test refers to procedures applied to the individual items that compose an account balance or class of transactions. The tests involve confirmation, inspection, or observation procedures to provide evidence about the recorded amount.
</P>
<P>The supervisory committee, internal auditor, or other qualified person must perform and document the following minimum procedures:
</P>
<FP-1>• Review Board of Director minutes to determine whether there are any material changes to the credit union's activities or condition that are relevant to the areas to be reviewed in the audit
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Test and confirm material asset and liability accounts including, at a minimum:
</FP-1>
<P>○ Loans
</P>
<P>○ Cash on deposit
</P>
<P>○ Investments
</P>
<P>○ Shares
</P>
<P>○ Borrowings
</P>
<FP-1>• Test material equity, income, and expense accounts
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Test for unrecorded liabilities
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Review key internal controls including, at a minimum:
</FP-1>
<P>○ Bank reconciliation procedures
</P>
<P>○ Cash controls
</P>
<P>○ Dormant account controls
</P>
<P>○ Wire and ACH transfer controls
</P>
<P>○ Loan approval and disbursement procedures
</P>
<P>○ Controls over accounts of employees and officials
</P>
<P>○ Other real estate owned
</P>
<P>○ Foreclosed and repossessed assets
</P>
<FP-1>• Test the mathematical accuracy of the allowance for loan and lease loss account and ensure the methodology is properly applied
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Test loan delinquency and charge-offs
</FP-1>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 53308, Oct. 7, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="716" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 716—PRIVACY OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 716.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.18.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 716.1   Cross reference.</HEAD>
<P>The rules formerly at 12 CFR part 716 have been republished by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at 12 CFR part 1016, “Privacy of Consumer Financial Information (Regulation P)”.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="717" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 717—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766(a), 1789; 15 U.S.C. 1681m(e).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>69 FR 69273, Nov. 29, 2004, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts A-H [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Duties of Users of Consumer Reports Regarding Address Discrepancies and Records Disposal</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 717.80-717.81" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 717.80-717.81   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 717.82" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 717.82   Duties of users regarding address discrepancies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a user of consumer reports (user) that receives a notice of address discrepancy from a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p), and that is a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, a <I>notice of address discrepancy</I> means a notice sent to a user by a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681c(h)(1), that informs the user of a substantial difference between the address for the consumer that the user provided to request the consumer report and the address(es) in the agency's file for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable belief</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to form a reasonable belief.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures designed to enable the user to form a reasonable belief that a consumer report relates to the consumer about whom it has requested the report, when the user receives a notice of address discrepancy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of reasonable policies and procedures.</I> (i) Comparing the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with information the user:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtains and uses to verify the consumer's identity in accordance with the requirements of the Customer Identification Program (CIP) rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 1020.220);
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains in its own records, such as applications, change of address notifications, other member account records, or retained CIP documentation; or
</P>
<P>(C) Obtains from third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifying the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer's address</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to furnish consumer's address to a consumer reporting agency.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures for furnishing an address for the consumer that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) from whom it received the notice of address discrepancy when the user:
</P>
<P>(i) Can form a reasonable belief that the consumer report relates to the consumer about whom the user requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes a continuing relationship with the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Regularly and in the ordinary course of business furnishes information to the consumer reporting agency from which the notice of address discrepancy relating to the consumer was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of confirmation methods.</I> The user may reasonably confirm an address is accurate by:
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying the address with the consumer about whom it has requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing its own records to verify the address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verifying the address through third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Using other reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The policies and procedures developed in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section must provide that the user will furnish the consumer's address that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) as part of the information it regularly furnishes for the reporting period in which it establishes a relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63768, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22644, May 14, 2009; 76 FR 18365, Apr. 4, 2011; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 717.83" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 717.83   Disposal of consumer information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must properly dispose of any consumer information that you maintain or otherwise possess in a manner consistent with the Guidelines for Safeguarding Member Information, in appendix A to part 748 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> Appropriate measures to properly dispose of consumer information include the following examples. These examples are illustrative only and are not exclusive or exhaustive methods for complying with this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Burning, pulverizing, or shredding papers containing consumer information so that the information cannot practicably be read or reconstructed.
</P>
<P>(2) Destroying or erasing electronic media containing consumer information so that the information cannot practicably be read or reconstructed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction.</I> This section does not:
</P>
<P>(1) Require you to maintain or destroy any record pertaining to a consumer that is not imposed under any other law; or
</P>
<P>(2) Alter or affect any requirement imposed under any other provision of law to maintain or destroy such a record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer information</I> means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the credit union for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not identify an individual.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Consumer information</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A consumer report that you obtain;
</P>
<P>(B) Information from a consumer report that you obtain from your affiliate after the consumer has been given a notice and has elected not to opt out of that sharing;
</P>
<P>(C) Information from a consumer report that you obtain about an individual who applies for but does not receive a loan, including any loan sought by an individual for a business purpose;
</P>
<P>(D) Information from a consumer report that you obtain about an individual who guarantees a loan (including a loan to a business entity); or
</P>
<P>(E) Information from a consumer report that you obtain about an employee or prospective employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consumer information</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Aggregate information, such as the mean credit score, derived from a group of consumer reports; or
</P>
<P>(B) Blind data, such as payment history on accounts that are not personally identifiable, you use for developing credit scoring models or for other purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d). The meaning of consumer report is broad and subject to various definitions, conditions and exceptions in the Fair Credit Reporting Act. It includes written or oral communications from a consumer reporting agency to a third party of information used or collected for use in establishing eligibility for credit or insurance used primarily for personal, family or household purposes, and eligibility for employment purposes. Examples include credit reports, bad check lists, and tenant screening reports.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J—Identity Theft Red Flags</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>72 FR 63768, Nov. 9, 2007, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 717.90" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 717.90   Duties regarding the detection, prevention, and mitigation of identity theft.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a financial institution or creditor that is a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and appendix J, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> means a continuing relationship established by a person with a federal credit union to obtain a product or service for personal, family, household or business purposes. Account includes:
</P>
<P>(i) An extension of credit, such as the purchase of property or services involving a deferred payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A share or deposit account.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>board of directors</I> refers to a federal credit union's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered account</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An account that a federal credit union offers or maintains, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that involves or is designed to permit multiple payments or transactions, such as a credit card account, mortgage loan, automobile loan, checking account, or share account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other account that the federal credit union offers or maintains for which there is a reasonably foreseeable risk to members or to the safety and soundness of the federal credit union from identity theft, including financial, operational, compliance, reputation, or litigation risks.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Customer</I> means a member that has a covered account with a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Financial institution</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(t).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Identity theft</I> has the same meaning as in 16 CFR 603.2(a).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Red Flag</I> means a pattern, practice, or specific activity that indicates the possible existence of identity theft.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Service provider</I> means a person that provides a service directly to the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Periodic Identification of Covered Accounts.</I> Each federal credit union must periodically determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts. As a part of this determination, a federal credit union must conduct a risk assessment to determine whether it offers or maintains covered accounts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, taking into consideration:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods it provides to open its accounts;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to access its accounts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Establishment of an Identity Theft Prevention Program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each federal credit union that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts must develop and implement a written Identity Theft Prevention Program (Program) that is designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. The Program must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the federal credit union and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements of the Program.</I> The Program must include reasonable policies and procedures to:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify relevant Red Flags for the covered accounts that the federal credit union offers or maintains, and incorporate those Red Flags into its Program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Detect Red Flags that have been incorporated into the Program of the federal credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) Respond appropriately to any Red Flags that are detected pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section to prevent and mitigate identity theft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) is updated periodically, to reflect changes in risks to members and to the safety and soundness of the federal credit union from identity theft.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Administration of the Program.</I> Each federal credit union that is required to implement a Program must provide for the continued administration of the Program and must:
</P>
<P>(1) Obtain approval of the initial written Program from either its board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of directors;
</P>
<P>(2) Involve the board of directors, an appropriate committee thereof, or a designated employee at the level of senior management in the oversight, development, implementation and administration of the Program;
</P>
<P>(3) Train staff, as necessary, to effectively implement the Program; and
</P>
<P>(4) Exercise appropriate and effective oversight of service provider arrangements.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each federal credit union that is required to implement a Program must consider the guidelines in appendix J of this part and include in its Program those guidelines that are appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 717.91" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 717.91   Duties of card issuers regarding changes of address.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to an issuer of a debit or credit card (card issuer) that is a federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cardholder</I> means a member who has been issued a credit or debit card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Address validation requirements.</I> A card issuer must establish and implement reasonable policies and procedures to assess the validity of a change of address if it receives notification of a change of address for a member's debit or credit card account and, within a short period of time afterwards (during at least the first 30 days after it receives such notification), the card issuer receives a request for an additional or replacement card for the same account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not issue an additional or replacement card, until, in accordance with its reasonable policies and procedures and for the purpose of assessing the validity of the change of address, the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Notifies the cardholder of the request:
</P>
<P>(A) At the cardholder's former address; or
</P>
<P>(B) By any other means of communication that the card issuer and the cardholder have previously agreed to use; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides to the cardholder a reasonable means of promptly reporting incorrect address changes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Otherwise assesses the validity of the change of address in accordance with the policies and procedures the card issuer has established pursuant to § 717.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Alternative timing of address validation.</I> A card issuer may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if it validates an address pursuant to the methods in paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) of this section when it receives an address change notification, before it receives a request for an additional or replacement card.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Form of notice.</I> Any written or electronic notice that the card issuer provides under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous and provided separately from its regular correspondence with the cardholder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.3.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes A-D to Part 717 [Reserved]
</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.3.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 717—Interagency Guidelines Concerning the Accuracy and Integrity of Information Furnished to Consumer Reporting Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA encourages voluntary furnishing of information to consumer reporting agencies. Section 717.42 of this part requires each furnisher to establish and implement reasonable written policies and procedures concerning the accuracy and integrity of the information it furnishes to consumer reporting agencies. Under § 717.42(b), a furnisher must consider the guidelines set forth below in developing its policies and procedures. In establishing these policies and procedures, a furnisher may include any of its existing policies and procedures that are relevant and appropriate. Section 717.42(c) requires each furnisher to review its policies and procedures periodically and update them as necessary to ensure their continued effectiveness.
</P>
<HD1>I. Nature, Scope, and Objectives of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Nature and Scope.</I> Section 717.42(a) of this part requires that a furnisher's policies and procedures be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's activities. In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of business activities in which the furnisher engages;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and frequency of the information the furnisher provides to consumer reporting agencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) The technology used by the furnisher to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives.</I> A furnisher's policies and procedures should be reasonably designed to promote the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that is accurate, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the appropriate consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reflects the terms of and liability for those accounts or other relationships; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reflects the consumer's performance and other conduct with respect to the account or other relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that has integrity, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantiated by the furnisher's records at the time it is furnished;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is furnished in a form and manner that is designed to minimize the likelihood that the information may be incorrectly reflected in a consumer report; thus, the furnished information should:
</P>
<P>(A) Include appropriate identifying information about the consumer to whom it pertains; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be furnished in a standardized and clearly understandable form and manner and with a date specifying the time period to which the information pertains; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes the credit limit, if applicable and in the furnisher's possession;
</P>
<P>(3) To conduct reasonable investigations of consumer disputes and take appropriate actions based on the outcome of such investigations; and
</P>
<P>(4) To update the information it furnishes as necessary to reflect the current status of the consumer's account or other relationship, including, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Any transfer of an account (<I>e.g.,</I> by sale or assignment for collection) to a third party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any cure of the consumer's failure to abide by the terms of the account or other relationship.
</P>
<HD1>II. Establishing and Implementing Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In establishing and implementing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify practices or activities of the furnisher that can compromise the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing its existing practices and activities, including the technological means and other methods it uses to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies and the frequency and timing of its furnishing of information;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing its historical records relating to accuracy or integrity or to disputes; reviewing other information relating to the accuracy or integrity of information provided by the furnisher to consumer reporting agencies; and considering the types of errors, omissions, or other problems that may have affected the accuracy or integrity of information it has furnished about consumers to consumer reporting agencies;
</P>
<P>(3) Considering any feedback received from consumer reporting agencies, consumers, or other appropriate parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Obtaining feedback from the furnisher's staff; and
</P>
<P>(5) Considering the potential impact of the furnisher's policies and procedures on consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of existing policies and procedures of the furnisher regarding the accuracy and integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies; consider whether new, additional, or different policies and procedures are necessary; and consider whether implementation of existing policies and procedures should be modified to enhance the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Evaluate the effectiveness of specific methods (including technological means) the furnisher uses to provide information to consumer reporting agencies; how those methods may affect the accuracy and integrity of the information it provides to consumer reporting agencies; and whether new, additional, or different methods (including technological means) should be used to provide information to consumer reporting agencies to enhance the accuracy and integrity of that information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Specific Components of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should address the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishing and implementing a system for furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies that is appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's business operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Using standard data reporting formats and standard procedures for compiling and furnishing data, where feasible, such as the electronic transmission of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintaining records for a reasonable period of time, not less than any applicable recordkeeping requirement, in order to substantiate the accuracy of any information about consumers it furnishes that is subject to a direct dispute.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing and implementing appropriate internal controls regarding the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by implementing standard procedures and verifying random samples of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(e) Training staff that participates in activities related to the furnishing of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies to implement the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) Providing for appropriate and effective oversight of relevant service providers whose activities may affect the accuracy or integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies to ensure compliance with the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) Furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies following mergers, portfolio acquisitions or sales, or other acquisitions or transfers of accounts or other obligations in a manner that prevents re-aging of information, duplicative reporting, or other problems that may similarly affect the accuracy or integrity of the information furnished.
</P>
<P>(h) Deleting, updating, and correcting information in the furnisher's records, as appropriate, to avoid furnishing inaccurate information.
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting reasonable investigations of disputes.
</P>
<P>(j) Designing technological and other means of communication with consumer reporting agencies to prevent duplicative reporting of accounts, erroneous association of information with the wrong consumer(s), and other occurrences that may compromise the accuracy or integrity of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(k) Providing consumer reporting agencies with sufficient identifying information in the furnisher's possession about each consumer about whom information is furnished to enable the consumer reporting agency properly to identify the consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) Conducting a periodic evaluation of its own practices, consumer reporting agency practices of which the furnisher is aware, investigations of disputed information, corrections of inaccurate information, means of communication, and other factors that may affect the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(m) Complying with applicable requirements under the Fair Credit Reporting Act and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 31524, July 1, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.3.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes F-I to Part 717 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.19.3.11.3.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 717—Interagency Guidelines on Identity Theft Detection, Prevention, and Mitigation
</HEAD>
<P>Section 717.90 of this part requires each federal credit union that offers or maintains one or more covered accounts, as defined in § 717.90(b)(3) of this part, to develop and provide for the continued administration of a written Program to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft in connection with the opening of a covered account or any existing covered account. These guidelines are intended to assist federal credit unions in the formulation and maintenance of a Program that satisfies the requirements of § 717.90 of this part.
</P>
<HD3>I. The Program
</HD3>
<P>In designing its Program, a federal credit union may incorporate, as appropriate, its existing policies, procedures, and other arrangements that control reasonably foreseeable risks to members or to the safety and soundness of the federal credit union from identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>II. Identifying Relevant Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Risk Factors.</I> A federal credit union should consider the following factors in identifying relevant Red Flags for covered accounts, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of covered accounts it offers or maintains;
</P>
<P>(2) The methods it provides to open its covered accounts;
</P>
<P>(3) The methods it provides to access its covered accounts; and
</P>
<P>(4) Its previous experiences with identity theft.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sources of Red Flags.</I> Federal credit unions should incorporate relevant Red Flags from sources such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Incidents of identity theft that the federal credit union has experienced;
</P>
<P>(2) Methods of identity theft that the federal credit union has identified that reflect changes in identity theft risks; and
</P>
<P>(3) Applicable supervisory guidance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Categories of Red Flags.</I> The Program should include relevant Red Flags from the following categories, as appropriate. Examples of Red Flags from each of these categories are appended as Supplement A to this appendix J.
</P>
<P>(1) Alerts, notifications, or other warnings received from consumer reporting agencies or service providers, such as fraud detection services;
</P>
<P>(2) The presentation of suspicious documents;
</P>
<P>(3) The presentation of suspicious personal identifying information, such as a suspicious address change;
</P>
<P>(4) The unusual use of, or other suspicious activity related to, a covered account; and
</P>
<P>(5) Notice from members, victims of identity theft, law enforcement authorities, or other persons regarding possible identity theft in connection with covered accounts held by the federal credit union.
</P>
<HD3>III. Detecting Red Flags
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should address the detection of Red Flags in connection with the opening of covered accounts and existing covered accounts, such as by:
</P>
<P>(a) Obtaining identifying information about, and verifying the identity of, a person opening a covered account; for example, using the policies and procedures regarding identification and verification set forth in the Customer Identification Program rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 1020.220); and
</P>
<P>(b) Authenticating members, monitoring transactions, and verifying the validity of change of address requests, in the case of existing covered accounts.
</P>
<HD3>IV. Preventing and Mitigating Identity Theft
</HD3>
<P>The Program's policies and procedures should provide for appropriate responses to the Red Flags the federal credit union has detected that are commensurate with the degree of risk posed. In determining an appropriate response, a federal credit union should consider aggravating factors that may heighten the risk of identity theft, such as a data security incident that results in unauthorized access to a member's account records held by the federal credit union or a third party, or notice that a member has provided information related to a covered account held by the federal credit union to someone fraudulently claiming to represent the federal credit union or to a fraudulent website. Appropriate responses may include the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Monitoring a covered account for evidence of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Contacting the member;
</P>
<P>(c) Changing any passwords, security codes, or other security devices that permit access to a covered account;
</P>
<P>(d) Reopening a covered account with a new account number;
</P>
<P>(e) Not opening a new covered account;
</P>
<P>(f) Closing an existing covered account;
</P>
<P>(g) Not attempting to collect on a covered account or not selling a covered account to a debt collector;
</P>
<P>(h) Notifying law enforcement; or
</P>
<P>(i) Determining that no response is warranted under the particular circumstances.
</P>
<HD3>V. Updating the Program
</HD3>
<P>Federal credit unions should update the Program (including the Red Flags determined to be relevant) periodically, to reflect changes in risks to members or to the safety and soundness of the federal credit union from identity theft, based on factors such as:
</P>
<P>(a) The experiences of the federal credit union with identity theft;
</P>
<P>(b) Changes in methods of identity theft;
</P>
<P>(c) Changes in methods to detect, prevent, and mitigate identity theft;
</P>
<P>(d) Changes in the types of accounts that the federal credit union offers or maintains; and
</P>
<P>(e) Changes in the business arrangements of the federal credit union, including mergers, acquisitions, alliances, joint ventures, and service provider arrangements.
</P>
<HD3>VI. Methods for Administering the Program
</HD3>
<P>(a) <I>Oversight of Program.</I> Oversight by the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management should include:
</P>
<P>(1) Assigning specific responsibility for the Program's implementation;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing reports prepared by staff regarding compliance by the federal credit union with § 717.90 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Approving material changes to the Program as necessary to address changing identity theft risks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reports.</I> (1) <I>In general.</I> Staff of the federal credit union responsible for development, implementation, and administration of its Program should report to the board of directors, an appropriate committee of the board, or a designated employee at the level of senior management, at least annually, on compliance by the federal credit union with § 717.90 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The report should address material matters related to the Program and evaluate issues such as: the effectiveness of the policies and procedures of the federal credit union in addressing the risk of identity theft in connection with the opening of covered accounts and with respect to existing covered accounts; service provider arrangements; significant incidents involving identity theft and management's response; and recommendations for material changes to the Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oversight of service provider arrangements.</I> Whenever a federal credit union engages a service provider to perform an activity in connection with one or more covered accounts the federal credit union should take steps to ensure that the activity of the service provider is conducted in accordance with reasonable policies and procedures designed to detect, prevent, and mitigate the risk of identity theft. For example, a federal credit union could require the service provider by contract to have policies and procedures to detect relevant Red Flags that may arise in the performance of the service provider's activities, and either report the Red Flags to the federal credit union, or to take appropriate steps to prevent or mitigate identity theft.
</P>
<HD3>VII. Other Applicable Legal Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Federal credit unions should be mindful of other related legal requirements that may be applicable, such as:
</P>
<P>(a) Filing a Suspicious Activity Report under 31 U.S.C. 5318(g) and 12 CFR 748.1(c);
</P>
<P>(b) Implementing any requirements under 15 U.S.C. 1681c-1(h) regarding the circumstances under which credit may be extended when the federal credit union detects a fraud or active duty alert;
</P>
<P>(c) Implementing any requirements for furnishers of information to consumer reporting agencies under 15 U.S.C. 1681s-2, for example, to correct or update inaccurate or incomplete information, and to not report information that the furnisher has reasonable cause to believe is inaccurate; and
</P>
<P>(d) Complying with the prohibitions in 15 U.S.C. 1681m on the sale, transfer, and placement for collection of certain debts resulting from identity theft.
</P>
<HD2>Supplement A to Appendix J
</HD2>
<P>In addition to incorporating Red Flags from the sources recommended in section II.b. of the Guidelines in appendix J of this part, each federal credit union may consider incorporating into its Program, whether singly or in combination, Red Flags from the following illustrative examples in connection with covered accounts:
</P>
<HD2>Alerts, Notifications or Warnings From a Consumer Reporting Agency
</HD2>
<P>1. A fraud or active duty alert is included with a consumer report.
</P>
<P>2. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of credit freeze in response to a request for a consumer report.
</P>
<P>3. A consumer reporting agency provides a notice of address discrepancy, as defined in § 717.82(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>4. A consumer report indicates a pattern of activity that is inconsistent with the history and usual pattern of activity of an applicant or member, such as:
</P>
<P>a. A recent and significant increase in the volume of inquiries;
</P>
<P>b. An unusual number of recently established credit relationships;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in the use of credit, especially with respect to recently established credit relationships; or
</P>
<P>d. An account that was closed for cause or identified for abuse of account privileges by a financial institution or creditor.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Documents
</HD2>
<P>5. Documents provided for identification appear to have been altered or forged.
</P>
<P>6. The photograph or physical description on the identification is not consistent with the appearance of the applicant or member presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>7. Other information on the identification is not consistent with information provided by the person opening a new covered account or member presenting the identification.
</P>
<P>8. Other information on the identification is not consistent with readily accessible information that is on file with the federal credit union, such as a signature card or a recent check.
</P>
<P>9. An application appears to have been altered or forged, or gives the appearance of having been destroyed and reassembled.
</P>
<HD2>Suspicious Personal Identifying Information
</HD2>
<P>10. Personal identifying information provided is inconsistent when compared against external information sources used by the federal credit union. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address does not match any address in the consumer report; or
</P>
<P>b. The Social Security Number (SSN) has not been issued, or is listed on the Social Security Administration's Death Master File.
</P>
<P>11. Personal identifying information provided by the member is not consistent with other personal identifying information provided by the member. For example, there is a lack of correlation between the SSN range and date of birth.
</P>
<P>12. Personal identifying information provided is associated with known fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the federal credit union. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is the same as the address provided on a fraudulent application; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number on an application is the same as the number provided on a fraudulent application.
</P>
<P>13. Personal identifying information provided is of a type commonly associated with fraudulent activity as indicated by internal or third-party sources used by the federal credit union. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The address on an application is fictitious, a mail drop, or prison; or
</P>
<P>b. The phone number is invalid, or is associated with a pager or answering service.
</P>
<P>14. The SSN provided is the same as that submitted by other persons opening an account or other members.
</P>
<P>15. The address or telephone number provided is the same as or similar to the address or telephone number submitted by an unusually large number of other persons opening accounts or by other members.
</P>
<P>16. The person opening the covered account or the member fails to provide all required personal identifying information on an application or in response to notification that the application is incomplete.
</P>
<P>17. Personal identifying information provided is not consistent with personal identifying information that is on file with the federal credit union.
</P>
<P>18. For federal credit unions that use challenge questions, the person opening the covered account or the member cannot provide authenticating information beyond that which generally would be available from a wallet or consumer report.
</P>
<HD2>Unusual Use of, or Suspicious Activity Related to, the Covered Account
</HD2>
<P>19. Shortly following the notice of a change of address for a covered account, the institution or creditor receives a request for a new, additional, or replacement card or a cell phone, or for the addition of authorized users on the account.
</P>
<P>20. A new revolving credit account is used in a manner commonly associated with known patterns of fraud. For example:
</P>
<P>a. The majority of available credit is used for cash advances or merchandise that is easily convertible to cash (e.g., electronics equipment or jewelry); or
</P>
<P>b. The member fails to make the first payment or makes an initial payment but no subsequent payments.
</P>
<P>21. A covered account is used in a manner that is not consistent with established patterns of activity on the account. There is, for example:
</P>
<P>a. Nonpayment when there is no history of late or missed payments;
</P>
<P>b. A material increase in the use of available credit;
</P>
<P>c. A material change in purchasing or spending patterns;
</P>
<P>d. A material change in electronic fund transfer patterns in connection with a deposit account; or
</P>
<P>e. A material change in telephone call patterns in connection with a cellular phone account.
</P>
<P>22. A covered account that has been inactive for a reasonably lengthy period of time is used (taking into consideration the type of account, the expected pattern of usage and other relevant factors).
</P>
<P>23. Mail sent to the member is returned repeatedly as undeliverable although transactions continue to be conducted in connection with the member's covered account.
</P>
<P>24. The federal credit union is notified that the member is not receiving paper account statements.
</P>
<P>25. The federal credit union is notified of unauthorized charges or transactions in connection with a member's covered account.
</P>
<HD2>Notice From Members, Victims of Identity Theft, Law Enforcement Authorities, or Other Persons Regarding Possible Identity Theft in Connection With Covered Accounts Held by the Federal Credit Union
</HD2>
<P>26. The federal credit union is notified by a member, a victim of identity theft, a law enforcement authority, or any other person that it has opened a fraudulent account for a person engaged in identity theft.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[72 FR 63769, Nov. 9, 2007, as amended at 74 FR 22644, May 14, 2009; 76 FR 18365, Apr. 4, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="721" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 721—INCIDENTAL POWERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757(17), 1766 and 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>66 FR 40857, Aug. 6, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 721.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.1   What does this part cover?</HEAD>
<P>This part authorizes a federal credit union (you) to engage in activities incidental to your business as set out in this part. This part also describes how interested parties may request a legal opinion on whether an activity is within a federal credit union's incidental powers or apply to add new activities or categories to the regulation. An activity approved in a legal opinion to an interested party or as a result of an application by an interested party to add new activities or categories is recognized as an incidental powers activity for all federal credit unions. This part does not apply to the activities of corporate credit unions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.2   What is an incidental powers activity?</HEAD>
<P>An incidental powers activity is one that is necessary or requisite to enable you to carry on effectively the business for which you are incorporated. An activity meets the definition of an incidental power activity if the activity:
</P>
<P>(a) Is convenient or useful in carrying out the mission or business of credit unions consistent with the Federal Credit Union Act;
</P>
<P>(b) Is the functional equivalent or logical outgrowth of activities that are part of the mission or business of credit unions; and
</P>
<P>(c) Involves risks similar in nature to those already assumed as part of the business of credit unions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.3   What categories of activities are preapproved as incidental powers necessary or requisite to carry on a credit union's business?</HEAD>
<P>The categories of activities in this section are preapproved as incidental to carrying on your business under § 721.2. The examples of incidental powers activities within each category are provided in this section as illustrations of activities permissible under the particular category, not as an exclusive or exhaustive list.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Certification services.</I> Certification services are services whereby you attest or authenticate a fact for your members' use. Certification services may include such services as notary services, signature guarantees, certification of electronic signatures, and share draft certifications.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Charitable contributions and donations.</I> Charitable contributions and donations are gifts you provide to assist others through contributions of staff, equipment, money, or other resources. Examples of charitable contributions include donations to community groups, nonprofit organizations, other credit unions or credit union affiliated causes, political donations, as well as donations to create charitable foundations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Charitable donation accounts.</I> A charitable donation account (CDA) is a hybrid charitable and investment vehicle, satisfying the conditions in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) of this section, that you may fund as a means to provide charitable contributions and donations to qualified charities. If you fund a CDA that satisfies all of the conditions in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) of this section, then you may do so free from the investment limitations of the Federal Credit Union Act and part 703 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Maximum aggregate funding.</I> The book value of your investments in all CDAs, in the aggregate, as carried on your statement of financial condition prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, must be limited to 5 percent of your net worth at all times for the duration of the accounts, as measured every quarterly Call Report cycle. This means that regardless of how many CDAs you invest in, the combined book value of all such investments must not exceed 5 percent of your net worth. You must bring your aggregate accounts into compliance with the maximum aggregate funding limit within 30 days of any breach of this limit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Segregated account.</I> The assets of a CDA must be held in a segregated custodial account or special purpose entity and must be specifically identified as a CDA.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Regulatory oversight.</I> If you choose to establish a CDA using a trust vehicle, the trustee must be regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), another federal regulatory agency, or a state financial regulatory agency. A regulated trustee or other person or entity that is authorized to make investment decisions for a CDA (manager), other than the credit union itself, must be either a Registered Investment Adviser or regulated by the OCC.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Account documentation and other written requirements.</I> The parties to the CDA, typically the funding credit union and trustee or other manager of the account, must document the terms and conditions controlling the account in a written agreement. The terms of the agreement must be consistent with this section. Your board of directors must adopt written policies governing the creation, funding, and management of a CDA that are consistent with this section, must review the policies annually, and may amend them from time to time. Your CDA agreement and policies must at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide that the CDA will make charitable contributions and donations only to charities you name therein that are exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(B) Document the investment strategies and risk tolerances the CDA trustee or other manager must follow in administering the account;
</P>
<P>(C) Provide that you will account for all aspects of the CDA, including distributions to charities and liquidation of the account, in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; and
</P>
<P>(D) Indicate the frequency with which the trustee or manager of the CDA will make distributions to qualified charities as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Minimum distribution to charities.</I> You are required to distribute to one or more qualified charities, no less frequently than every 5 years, and upon termination of a CDA regardless of the length of its term, a minimum of 51 percent of the account's total return on assets over the period of up to 5 years. Other than upon termination, you may choose how frequently CDA distributions to charity will be made during each period of up to 5 years. For example, you may choose to make periodic distributions over a period of up to 5 years, or only a single distribution as required at the end of that period. You may choose to donate in excess of the minimum distribution frequency and amount;
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Liquidation of assets upon CDA termination.</I> Upon termination of the CDA, you may receive a distribution of the remaining account assets in cash or you may receive a distribution in kind of the remaining account assets but only if those assets are permissible investments for federal credit unions under the Federal Credit Union Act and part 703 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Distribution in kind</I> is your acceptance of remaining CDA assets, upon termination of the account, in their original form instead of in cash resulting from the liquidation of the assets.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Qualified charity</I> is a charitable organization or other non-profit entity recognized as exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) or 501(c)(19) of the Internal Revenue Code.


</P>
<P>(C) <I>Registered Investment Adviser</I> is an investment adviser registered with the SEC pursuant to the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Total return</I> is the actual rate of return on all investments in a CDA over a given period of up to 5 years, including realized interest, capital gains, dividends, and distributions, but exclusive of account fees and expenses provided they were not paid to the credit union that established the CDA or to any of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Affiliate</I> is an entity in which the credit union has any ownership interest directly or indirectly. This would not apply to ownership due to the funding of employee benefits. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Correspondent services.</I> Correspondent services are services you provide to other credit unions including foreign credit unions that you are authorized to perform for your members or as part of your operation. These services may include loan processing, loan servicing, member check cashing services, disbursing share withdrawals and loan proceeds, cashing and selling money orders, performing internal audits, and automated teller machine deposit services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic financial services.</I> Electronic financial services are any services, products, functions, or activities that you are otherwise authorized to perform, provide, or deliver to your members but performed through electronic means. Electronic services may include automated teller machines, electronic fund transfers, online transaction processing through a web site, web site hosting services, account aggregation services, and Internet access services to perform or deliver products or services to members.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Excess capacity.</I> Excess capacity is the excess use or capacity remaining in facilities, equipment, or services that you properly invested in or established, in good faith, with the intent of serving your members or supporting your business operations. You may sell or lease the excess capacity in facilities, such as office space and other premises. You may sell or lease the excess capacity in equipment or services, such as employees and data processing, if you reasonably anticipate that the excess capacity will be taken up by the future expansion of services to your members.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Financial counseling services.</I> Financial counseling services means advice, guidance or services that you offer to your members to promote thrift or to otherwise assist members on financial matters. Financial counseling services may include income tax preparation service, electronic tax filing for your members, counseling regarding estate and retirement planning, investment counseling, and debt and budget counseling.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Finder activities.</I> Finder activities are activities in which you introduce or otherwise bring together outside vendors with your members so that the two parties may negotiate and consummate transactions and include vendors of non-financial products, vendors that are other financial institutions, and vendors of financial products such as insurance and securities. Finder activities may include endorsing a product or service, negotiating group discounts on behalf of your members, offering third party products and services to members through the sale of advertising space on your website, account statements and receipts, and selling statistical or consumer financial information to outside vendors to facilitate the sale of their products to your members. You may perform administrative functions on behalf of vendors to facilitate transactions between your members and another institution.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Loan-related products.</I> Loan-related products are the products, activities or services you provide to your members in a lending transaction that protect you against credit-related risks or are otherwise incidental to your lending authority. These products or activities may include debt cancellation agreements, debt suspension agreements, letters of credit, leases, and mortgage loan servicing functions for a member as long as the loan is owned by a member.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Marketing activities.</I> Marketing activities are the activities or means you use to promote membership in your credit union and the products and services you offer to your members. Marketing activities may include advertising and other promotional activities such as raffles, membership referral drives, and the purchase or use of advertising.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Monetary instrument services.</I> Monetary instrument services are services that enable your members to purchase, sell, or exchange various currencies. These services may include the sale and exchange of foreign currency and U.S. commemorative coins. You may also use accounts you have in foreign financial institutions to facilitate your members' transfer and negotiation of checks denominated in foreign currency or engage in monetary transfer services for your members.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Operational programs.</I> Operational programs are programs that you establish within your business to establish or deliver products and services that enhance member service and promote safe and sound operation. Operational programs may include electronic funds transfers, remote tellers, point of purchase terminals, debit cards, payroll deduction, payroll services, pre-authorized member transactions, direct deposit, check clearing services, savings bond purchases and redemptions, tax payment services, wire transfers, safe deposit boxes, loan collection services, and service fees.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Stored value products.</I> Stored value products are alternate media to currency in which you transfer monetary value to the product and create a medium of exchange for your members' use. Examples of stored value products include stored value cards, public transportation tickets, event and attraction tickets, gift certificates, prepaid phone cards, postage stamps, electronic benefits transfer script, and similar media.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Trustee or custodial services.</I> Trustee or custodial services are services in which you are authorized to act under any written trust instrument or custodial agreement created or organized in the United States and forming part of a tax-advantaged savings plan, as authorized under the Internal Revenue Code. These services may include acting as a trustee or custodian for member retirement, education and health savings accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 40857, Aug. 6, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 45238, July 29, 2004; 73 FR 62856, Oct. 22, 2008; 75 FR 34621, June 18, 2010; 77 FR 31992, May 31, 2012; 78 FR 76731, Dec. 19, 2013; 81 FR 93580, Dec. 21, 2016; 86 FR 72818, Dec. 23, 2021; 88 FR 80952, Nov. 21, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.4   How may a credit union apply to engage in an activity that is not preapproved as within a credit union's incidental powers?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application contents.</I> To engage in an activity that may be within an FCU's incidental powers but that does not fall within a preapproved category listed in § 721.3, you may submit an application by certified mail, return receipt requested, to the NCUA Board. Your application must describe the activity, your explanation, consistent with the test provided in paragraph (c) of this section, of why this activity is within your incidental powers, your plan for implementing the proposed activity, any state licenses you must obtain to conduct the activity, and any other information necessary to describe the proposed activity adequately. Before you engage in the petition process you should seek an advisory opinion from NCUA's Office of General Counsel, as to whether a proposed activity fits into one of the authorized categories or is otherwise within your incidental powers without filing a petition to amend the regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Processing of application.</I> Your application must be filed with the Secretary of the NCUA Board. NCUA will review your application for completeness and will notify you whether additional information is required or whether the activity requested is permissible under one of the categories listed in § 721.3. If the activity falls within a category provided in § 721.3, NCUA will notify you that the activity is permissible and treat the application as withdrawn. If the activity does not fall within a category provided in § 721.3, NCUA staff will consider whether the proposed activity is legally permissible. Upon a recommendation by NCUA staff that the activity is within a credit union's incidental powers, the NCUA Board may amend § 721.3 and will request public comment on the establishment of a new category of activities within § 721.3. If the activity proposed in your application fails to meet the criteria established in paragraph (c) of this section, NCUA will notify you within a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision on application.</I> In determining whether an activity is authorized as an appropriate exercise of a federal credit union's incidental powers, the Board will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the activity is convenient or useful in carrying out the mission or business of credit unions consistent with the Act;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the activity is the functional equivalent or logical outgrowth of activities that are part of the mission or business of credit unions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the activity involves risks similar in nature to those already assumed as part of the business of credit unions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.5   What limitations apply to a credit union engaging in activities approved under this part?</HEAD>
<P>You must comply with any applicable NCUA regulations, policies, and legal opinions, as well as applicable state and federal law, if an activity authorized under this part is otherwise regulated or conditioned.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.6   May a credit union derive income from activities approved under this part?</HEAD>
<P>You may earn income for those activities determined to be incidental to your business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 721.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.20.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 721.7   What are the potential conflicts of interest for officials and employees when credit unions engage in activities approved under this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflicts.</I> No official, employee, or their immediate family member may receive any compensation or benefit, directly or indirectly, in connection with your engagement in an activity authorized under this part, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b) of this section. This section does not apply if a conflicts of interest provision within another section of this chapter applies to a particular activity; in such case, the more specific conflicts of interest provision controls. For example: An official or employee that refers loan-related products offered by a third-party to a member, in connection with a loan made by you, is subject to the conflicts of interest provision in § 701.21(c)(8) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible payments.</I> This section does not prohibit:
</P>
<P>(1) Payment, by you, of salary to your employees;
</P>
<P>(2) Payment, by you, of an incentive or bonus to an employee based on your overall financial performance;
</P>
<P>(3) Payment, by you, of an incentive or bonus to an employee, other than a senior management employee or paid official, in connection with an activity authorized by this part, provided that your board of directors establishes written policies and internal controls for the incentive program and monitors compliance with such policies and controls at least annually; and
</P>
<P>(4) Payment, by a person other than you, of any compensation or benefit to an employee, other than a senior management employee or paid official, in connection with an activity authorized by this part, provided that your board of directors establishes written policies and internal controls regarding third-party compensation and determines that the employee's involvement does not present a conflict of interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business associates and family members.</I> All transactions with business associates or family members not specifically prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section must be conducted at arm's length and in the interest of the credit union.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Senior management employee</I> means your chief executive officer (typically, this individual holds the title of President or Treasurer/Manager), any assistant chief executive officers (e.g. Assistant President, Vice President, or Assistant Treasurer/Manager), and the chief financial officer (Comptroller).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Official</I> means any member of your board of directors, credit committee or supervisory committee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="722" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 722—APPRAISALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1789, and 3331 <I>et seq.</I> Section 722.3(a) is also issued under 15 U.S.C. 1639h.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 30207, July 25, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Appraisals Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.101   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Part 722 is issued by the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”) under title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (“FIRREA”) (Pub. L. 101-73, 103 Stat. 183, 1989) and 12 U.S.C. 1757 and 1766.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) Title XI provides protection for federal financial and public policy interests in real estate-related transactions by requiring real estate appraisals used in connection with federally related transactions to be performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by appraisers whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision. This part implements the requirements of title XI and applies to all federally related transactions entered into by the National Credit Union Administration or by federally insured credit unions (“regulated institutions”).
</P>
<P>(2) This part: (i) Identifies which real estate-related financial transactions require the services of an appraiser;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prescribes which categories of federally related transactions shall be appraised by a state-certified appraiser and which by a state-licensed appraiser; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Prescribes minimum standards for the performance of real estate appraisals in connection with federally related transactions under the jurisdiction of the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30207, July 25, 1990. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Appraisal</I> means a written statement independently and impartially prepared by a qualified appraiser setting forth an opinion as to the market value of an adequately-described property as of a specific date(s), supported by the presentation and analysis of relevant market information.
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Foundation</I> means the Appraisal Foundation established on November 30, 1987, as a not-for-profit corporation under the laws of Illinois.
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P><I>Complex</I> means a transaction in which the property to be appraised, the form of ownership, or market conditions are atypical. A credit union may presume that appraisals of 1-to-4 family residential properties are not complex unless the institution has readily available information that a given appraisal will be complex.
</P>
<P><I>Federal financial institutions regulatory agency</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC); the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Treasury (OCC); the NCUA, and, formerly, the Office of Thrift Supervision.
</P>
<P><I>Federally related transaction</I> means any real estate-related financial transaction entered into on or after August 9, 1990 that:
</P>
<P>(1) The National Credit Union Administration, or any federally insured credit union, engages in or contracts for; and
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser.
</P>
<P><I>Market value</I> means the most probable price which a property should bring in a competitive and open market under all conditions requisite to a fair sale, the buyer and seller each acting prudently and knowledgeably and assuming the price is not affected by undue stimulus. Implicit in this definition is the consummation of a sale as of a specified date and the passing of title from seller to buyer under conditions whereby:
</P>
<P>(1) Buyer and seller are typically motivated;
</P>
<P>(2) Both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their own best interests;
</P>
<P>(3) A reasonable time is allowed for exposure in the open market;
</P>
<P>(4) Payment is made in terms of cash in U.S. dollars or in terms of financial arrangements comparable thereto; and
</P>
<P>(5) The price represents the normal consideration for the property sold unaffected by special or creative financing or sales concessions granted by anyone associated with the sale.
</P>
<P><I>Real estate</I> (or <I>real property</I>) means an identified parcel or tract of land, including easements, rights of way, undivided or future interests and similar rights in a parcel or tract of land, but does not include mineral rights, timber rights, and growing crops, water rights and similar interests severable from the land when the transaction does not involve the associated parcel or tract of land.
</P>
<P><I>Real estate-related financial transaction</I> means any transaction involving:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real estate, including interests in property, or the financing thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) The refinancing of real estate or interests in real estate; or
</P>
<P>(3) The use of real estate or interests in property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Residential real estate transaction</I> means a real estate-related financial transaction that is secured by a single 1-to-4 family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Staff appraiser</I> means a State-certified or a State-licensed appraiser that is an employee of the credit union.
</P>
<P><I>State-certified appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for certification in a state or territory whose criteria for certification as a real estate appraiser currently meet the minimum criteria for certification issued by the Appraiser Qualification Board of the Appraisal Foundation. No individual shall be a state-certified appraiser unless such individual has achieved a passing grade upon a suitable examination administered by a state or territory that is consistent with and equivalent to the Uniform State Certification Examination issued or endorsed by the Appraiser Qualification Board. In addition, the Appraisal Subcommittee must not have issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of a state or territory are inconsistent with title XI of FIRREA. The National Credit Union Administration may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for certified appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>State-licensed appraiser</I> means any individual who has satisfied the requirements for licensing in a state or territory where the licensing procedures comply with title XI of FIRREA and where the Appraisal Subcommittee has not issued a finding that the policies, practices, or procedures of the State or territory are inconsistent with title XI. The NCUA may, from time to time, impose additional qualification criteria for licensed appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions within its jurisdiction.
</P>
<P><I>Tract development</I> means a project of five units or more that is constructed or is to be constructed as a single development.
</P>
<P><I>Transaction value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For loans or other extensions of credit, the amount of the loan or extension of credit; and
</P>
<P>(2) For sales, leases, purchases, and investments in or exchanges of real estate, the market value of the real estate interest involved; and
</P>
<P>(3) For the pooling of loans or interests in real estate for resale or purchase, the amount of the loan or market value of the real estate calculated with respect to each such loan or interest in real estate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35536, July 24, 2019. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.103   Appraisals and written estimates of market value requirements for real estate-related financial transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Real estate-related financial transactions not requiring an appraisal under this part.</I> Provided the transaction is not a “higher-priced mortgage loan” under 12 CFR 1026.35, which must meet separate appraisal requirements under section 129H of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639h, an appraisal is not required for a real estate-related financial transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction involves an existing extension of credit at the lending credit union, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) There is no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There has been no obvious and material change in market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of the credit union's real estate collateral protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies;
</P>
<P>(2) A lien on real estate has been taken as collateral through an abundance of caution and where the terms of the transaction as a consequence have not been made more favorable than they would have been in the absence of a lien;
</P>
<P>(3) A lien on real estate has been taken for purposes other than the real estate's value;
</P>
<P>(4) A lease of real estate is entered into, unless the lease is the economic equivalent of a purchase or sale of the leased real estate;
</P>
<P>(5) The transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan or interest in a loan, pooled loans, or interests in real estate, including mortgage-backed securities, and each loan or interest in a loan, pooled loan, or real estate interest met the requirements of this regulation, if applicable, at the time of origination; or
</P>
<P>(6) The transaction either qualifies for sale to a United States government agency or United States government-sponsored agency, or involves a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to the Federal National Mortgage Association or Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation appraisal standards applicable to that category of real estate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Real estate-related financial transactions requiring an appraisal by a state-certified appraiser.</I> An appraisal performed by a state-certified appraiser is required for any real estate-related financial transaction not exempt under paragraph (a) of this section in which:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction value is $1,000,000 or more; or
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is complex, involves a residential real estate transaction, and $400,000 or more of the transaction value is not insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Real estate-related financial transactions requiring an appraisal by either a state-certified or state-licensed appraiser.</I> (1) An appraisal performed by a state-certified appraiser or a state-licensed appraiser is required for any real estate-related financial transaction not exempt under paragraph (a) of this section in which the transaction is not complex, involves a residential real estate transaction, and $400,000 or more of the transaction value is not insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government sponsored agency.

 </P>
<P>(2) If, during the course of an appraisal of a residential real estate transaction performed by a state-licensed appraiser, factors are identified that result in the transaction meeting the definition of complex, then the credit union may either:
</P>
<P>(i) Ask the state-licensed appraiser to complete the appraisal and have a state-certified appraiser approve and cosign the appraisal; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Engage a state-certified appraiser to complete the appraisal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Real estate-related financial transactions requiring a written estimate of market value</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Any real estate-related financial transaction must be supported by a written estimate of market value, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) An appraisal performed by a state-certified or state-licensed appraiser was obtained;
</P>
<P>(ii) An appraisal is not required under paragraphs (a)(2) through (6) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The transaction is fully insured or guaranteed by a United States government agency or United States government-sponsored agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirements.</I> All written estimates of market value required under this paragraph must be performed by an individual:
</P>
<P>(i) Independent of the loan production and collection processes (if independence cannot be achieved, the credit union must be able to demonstrate clearly that it has prudent safeguards to isolate its collateral valuation program from influence or interference from the loan production process and collection process);
</P>
<P>(ii) Having no direct, indirect, or prospective interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Qualified and experienced to perform such estimates of value for the type and amount of credit being considered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appraisals to address safety and soundness concerns.</I> The NCUA reserves the right to require an appraisal under this subpart whenever the agency believes it is necessary to address safety and soundness concerns.
</P>
<P>(f) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 35537, July 24, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 23917, Apr. 30, 2020. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.104   Minimum appraisal standards.</HEAD>
<P>For federally related transactions, all appraisals shall, at a minimum: 
</P>
<P>(a) Conform to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation, 1029 Vermont Ave., NW., Washington, DC 20005; 
</P>
<P>(b) Be written and contain sufficient information and analysis to support the institution's decision to engage in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(c) Be subject to appropriate review for compliance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice.
</P>
<P>(d) Analyze and report appropriate deductions and discounts for proposed construction or renovation, partially leased buildings, non-market lease terms, and tract developments with unsold units; 
</P>
<P>(e) Be based upon the definition of market value as set forth in § 722.2; and 
</P>
<P>(f) Be performed by State licensed or certified appraisers in accordance with requirements set forth in this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 51894, Oct. 4, 1995, as amended at 85 FR 23917, Apr. 30, 2020. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.105   Appraiser independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Staff appraiser.</I> If an appraisal is prepared by a staff appraiser, that appraiser must be independent of the lending, investment, and collection functions and not involved, except as an appraiser, in the federally related transaction, and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property. If the only qualified persons available to perform an appraisal are involved in the lending, investment, or collection functions of the credit union, the credit union shall take appropriate steps to ensure that the appraisers exercise independent judgment. Such steps include, but are not limited to, prohibiting an individual from performing an appraisal in connection with federally related transactions in which the appraiser is otherwise involved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fee appraisers.</I> (1) If an appraisal is prepared by a fee appraiser, the appraiser shall be engaged directly by the credit union or its agent and have no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or the transaction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A credit union also may accept an appraisal that was prepared by an appraiser engaged directly by another financial services institution; if:
</P>
<P>(i) The appraiser has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit union determines that the appraisal conforms to the requirement of this regulation and is otherwise acceptable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30207, July 25, 1990, as amended at 60 FR 51895, Oct. 4, 1995. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.106   Professional association membership; competency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership in appraisal organization.</I> A state-certified appraiser or a state-licensed appraiser may not be excluded from consideration for an assignment for a federally related transaction solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Competency.</I> All staff and fee appraisers performing appraisals in connection with federally related transactions must be state-certified or -licensed as appropriate. However, a state-certified or -licensed appraiser may not be considered competent solely by virtue of being certified or licensed. Any determination of competency shall be based upon the individual's experience and educational background as they relate to the particular appraisal assignment for which he or she is being considered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30207, July 25, 1990. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.107   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Credit unions and institution-affiliated parties, including staff appraisers and fee appraisers, may be subject to removal and/or prohibition orders, cease-and-desist orders, and the imposition of civil money penalties pursuant to section 1786 of the Federal Credit Union Act, or any other applicable law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30207, July 25, 1990. Redesignated at 89 FR 64575, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models Used for Mortgage Lending Purposes</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 64576, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 722.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.201   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to section 1125 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1375, 2198 (2010)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to credit unions insured by the NCUA that are mortgage originators or secondary market issuers.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include any person who is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Discloses to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(1) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least 1 unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 722.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.21.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 722.203   Quality control standards.</HEAD>
<P>Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="723" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 723—MEMBER BUSINESS LOANS; COMMERCIAL LENDING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1756, 1757, 1757A, 1766, 1785, 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 13554, Mar. 14, 2016, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 723 appear at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 723.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part is intended to accomplish two broad objectives. First, it sets out policy and program responsibilities that a federally insured credit union must adopt and implement as part of a safe and sound commercial lending program. Second, it incorporates the statutory limit on the aggregate amount of member business loans that a federally insured credit union may make pursuant to Section 107A of the Federal Credit Union Act. The rule distinguishes between these two distinct objectives.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit unions and loans covered by this part.</I> (1) This part applies to federally insured natural person credit unions. However, a federally insured natural person credit union is not subject to §§ 723.3 and 723.4 of this part if it meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit union's total assets are less than $250 million.
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit union's aggregate amount of outstanding commercial loan balances and unfunded commitments, plus any outstanding commercial loan balances and unfunded commitments of participations sold, plus any outstanding commercial loan balances and unfunded commitments sold and serviced by the credit union total less than 15 percent of the credit union's net worth.
</P>
<P>(iii) In a given calendar year the amount of originated and sold commercial loans the credit union does not continue to service total less than 15 percent of the credit union's net worth.
</P>
<P>(2) This part does not apply to loans:
</P>
<P>(i) Made by a corporate credit union, as defined in part 704 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Made by a federally insured credit union to another federally insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) Made by a federally insured credit union to a credit union service organization, as defined in part 712 and § 741.222 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Fully secured by a lien on a 1- to 4-family residential property that is a member's primary residence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other regulations that apply.</I> (1) For federal credit unions, the requirements of § 701.21(a) through (g) of this chapter apply to commercial loans granted by a federal credit union to the extent they are consistent with this part. As required by § 741.203 of this chapter, a federally insured state-chartered credit union must comply with § 701.21(c)(8) of this chapter concerning prohibited fees, and § 701.21(d)(5) of this chapter concerning non-preferential loans.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Federal credit union makes a commercial loan through a program in which a federal or state agency (or its political subdivision) insures repayment, guarantees repayment, or provides an advance commitment to purchase the loan in full, and that program has requirements that are less restrictive than those required by this rule, then the Federal credit union may follow the loan requirements of the relevant guaranteed loan program. A federally insured state-chartered credit union that is subject to this part and that makes a commercial loan as part of a loan program in which a federal or state agency (or its political subdivision) insures repayment, guarantees repayment, or provides an advance commitment to purchase the loan in full, and that program has requirements that are less restrictive than those required by this rule, then the federally insured state-chartered credit union may follow the loan requirements of the relevant guaranteed loan program, provided that its state supervisory authority has determined that it has authority to do so under state law.
</P>
<P>(3) The requirements of § 701.23 of this chapter apply to a Federal credit union's purchase, sale, or pledge of a commercial loan as an eligible obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) The requirements of § 701.22 of this chapter apply to a federally insured credit union's purchase of a participation interest in a commercial loan.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Associated borrower</I> means any other person or entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower. This means any person or entity named as a borrower or debtor in a loan or extension of credit, or any other person or entity, such as a drawer, endorser, or guarantor, engaged in a common enterprise with the borrower, or deriving a direct benefit from the loan to the borrower. Exceptions to this definition for partnerships, joint ventures and associations are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the borrower is a partnership, joint venture or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is a member or partner of the borrower, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other entity with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is the partnership, joint venture, or association and the borrower is a limited partner of that other entity, and by the terms of a partnership or membership agreement valid under applicable law, the borrower is not held generally liable for the debts or actions of that other entity, such other entity is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P>(3) If the borrower is a member or partner of a partnership, joint venture, or association, and the other person with a shared ownership, investment, or other pecuniary interest in a business or commercial endeavor with the borrower is another member or partner of the partnership, joint venture, or association, and neither a direct benefit nor a common enterprise exists, such other person is not an associated borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial loan</I> means any loan, line of credit, or letter of credit (including any unfunded commitments), and any interest a credit union obtains in such loans made by another lender, to individuals, sole proprietorships, partnerships, corporations, or other business enterprises for commercial, industrial, agricultural, or professional purposes, but not for personal expenditure purposes. Excluded from this definition are loans made by a corporate credit union; loans made by a federally insured credit union to another federally insured credit union; loans made by a federally insured credit union to a credit union service organization; loans secured by a 1- to 4-family residential property (whether or not it is the borrower's primary residence); loans fully secured by shares in the credit union making the extension of credit or deposits in other financial institutions; loans secured by a vehicle manufactured for household use; and loans that would otherwise meet the definition of commercial loan and which, when the aggregate outstanding balances plus unfunded commitments less any portion secured by shares in the credit union to a borrower or an associated borrower, are equal to less than $50,000. The definition of commercial loan also excludes covered loans issued under the Small Business Administration's Paycheck Protection Program, 15 U.S.C. 636(a)(36).
</P>
<P><I>Common enterprise</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The expected source of repayment for each loan or extension of credit is the same for each borrower and no individual borrower has another source of income from which the loan (together with the borrower's other obligations) may be fully repaid. An employer will not be treated as a source of repayment because of wages and salaries paid to an employee, unless the standards described in paragraph (2) of this definition are met;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans or extensions of credit are made:
</P>
<P>(i) To borrowers who are related directly or indirectly through common control, including where one borrower is directly or indirectly controlled by another borrower; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Substantial financial interdependence exists between or among the borrowers. Substantial financial interdependence means 50 percent or more of one borrower's gross receipts or gross expenditures (on an annual basis) are derived from transactions with another borrower. Gross receipts and expenditures include gross revenues or expenses, intercompany loans, dividends, capital contributions, and similar receipts or payments; or
</P>
<P>(3) Separate borrowers obtain loans or extensions of credit to acquire a business enterprise of which those borrowers will own more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means a person or entity directly or indirectly, or acting through or together with one or more persons or entities:
</P>
<P>(1) Owns, controls, or has the power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of another person or entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Controls, in any manner, the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or other persons exercising similar functions of another person or entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management or policies of another person or entity.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk rating system</I> means a formal process that identifies and assigns a relative credit risk score to each commercial loan in a federally insured credit union's portfolio, using ordinal ratings to represent the degree of risk. The credit risk score is determined through an evaluation of quantitative factors based on financial performance and qualitative factors based on management, operational, market, and business environmental factors.
</P>
<P><I>Direct benefit</I> means the proceeds of a loan or extension of credit to a borrower, or assets purchased with those proceeds, that are transferred to another person or entity, other than in a bona fide arm's-length transaction where the proceeds are used to acquire property, goods, or services.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a spouse or other family member living in the same household.
</P>
<P><I>Loan secured by a 1- to 4-family residential property</I> means a loan that, at origination, is secured wholly or substantially by a lien on a 1- to 4-family residential property for which the lien is central to the extension of the credit; that is, the borrower would not have been extended credit in the same amount or on terms as favorable without the lien. A loan is wholly or substantially secured by a lien on a 1- to 4-family residential property if the estimated value of the real estate collateral at origination (after deducting any senior liens held by others) is greater than 50 percent of the principal amount of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Loan secured by a vehicle manufactured for household use</I> means a loan that, at origination, is secured wholly or substantially by a lien on a new and used passenger car and other vehicle such as a minivan, sport-utility vehicle, pickup truck, and similar light truck or heavy-duty truck generally manufactured for personal, family, or household use and not used as a fleet vehicle or to carry fare-paying passengers, for which the lien is central to the extension of credit. A lien is central to the extension of credit if the borrower would not have been extended credit in the same amount or on terms as favorable without the lien. A loan is wholly or substantially secured by a lien on a vehicle manufactured for household use if the estimated value of the collateral at origination (after deducting any senior liens held by others) is greater than 50 percent of the principal amount of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value ratio</I> means, with respect to any item of collateral, the aggregate amount of all sums borrowed and secured by that collateral, including outstanding balances plus any unfunded commitment or line of credit from another lender that is senior to the federally insured credit union's lien position, divided by the current collateral value. The current collateral value must be established by prudent and accepted commercial lending practices and comply with all regulatory requirements. For a construction and development loan, the collateral value is the lesser of cost to complete or prospective market value, as determined in accordance with § 723.6 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Net worth</I> means a federally insured credit union's net worth, as defined in part 702 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Readily marketable collateral</I> means a financial instrument or bullion that is salable under ordinary market conditions with reasonable promptness at a fair market value determined by quotations based upon actual transactions on an auction or similarly available daily bid and ask price market.
</P>
<P><I>Residential property</I> means a house, condominium unit, cooperative unit, manufactured home (whether completed or under construction), or unimproved land zoned for 1- to 4-family residential use. A boat or motor home, even if used as a primary residence, or timeshare property is not residential property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13554, Mar. 14, 2016, as amended at 85 FR 23216, Apr. 27, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.3   Board of directors and management responsibilities.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to engaging in commercial lending, a federally insured credit union must address the following board responsibilities and operational requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Board of directors.</I> A federally insured credit union's board of directors, at a minimum, must:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve a commercial loan policy that complies with § 723.4 of this part. The board must review its policy on an annual basis, prior to any material change in the federally insured credit union's commercial lending program or related organizational structure, and in response to any material change in portfolio performance or economic conditions, and update it when warranted.
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure the federally insured credit union appropriately staffs its commercial lending program in compliance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Understand and remain informed, through periodic briefings from responsible staff and other methods, about the nature and level of risk in the federally insured credit union's commercial loan portfolio, including its potential impact on the federally insured credit union's earnings and net worth.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required expertise and experience.</I> A federally insured credit union making, purchasing, or holding any commercial loan must internally possess the following experience and competencies:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Senior executive officers.</I> A federally insured credit union's senior executive officers overseeing the commercial lending function must understand the federally insured credit union's commercial lending activities. At a minimum, senior executive officers must have a comprehensive understanding of the role of commercial lending in the federally insured credit union's overall business model and establish risk management processes and controls necessary to safely conduct commercial lending.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualified lending personnel.</I> A federally insured credit union must employ qualified staff with experience in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) Underwriting and processing for the type(s) of commercial lending in which the federally insured credit union is engaged;
</P>
<P>(ii) Overseeing and evaluating the performance of a commercial loan portfolio, including rating and quantifying risk through a credit risk rating system; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Conducting collection and loss mitigation activities for the type(s) of commercial lending in which the federally insured credit union is engaged.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Options to meet the required experience.</I> A federally insured credit union may meet the experience requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section by conducting internal training and development, hiring qualified individuals, or using a third-party, such as an independent contractor or a credit union service organization. However, with respect to the qualified lending personnel requirements in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, use of a third-party is permissible only if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The third-party has no affiliation or contractual relationship with the borrower or any associated borrowers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The actual decision to grant a loan must reside with the federally insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) Qualified federally insured credit union staff exercises ongoing oversight over the third party by regularly evaluating the quality of any work the third party performs for the federally insured credit union; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The third-party arrangement must otherwise comply with § 723.7 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.4   Commercial loan policy.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to engaging in commercial lending, a federally insured credit union must adopt and implement a comprehensive written commercial loan policy and establish procedures for commercial lending. The board-approved policy must ensure the federally insured credit union's commercial lending activities are performed in a safe and sound manner by providing for ongoing control, measurement, and management of the federally insured credit union's commercial lending activities. At a minimum, a federally insured credit union's commercial loan policy must address each of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Type(s) of commercial loans permitted.
</P>
<P>(b) Trade area.
</P>
<P>(c) Maximum amount of assets, in relation to net worth, allowed in secured, unsecured, and unguaranteed commercial loans and in any given category or type of commercial loan and to any one borrower or group of associated borrowers. The policy must specify that the aggregate dollar amount of commercial loans to any one borrower or group of associated borrowers may not exceed the greater of 15 percent of the federally insured credit union's net worth or $100,000, plus an additional 10 percent of the credit union's net worth if the amount that exceeds the credit union's 15 percent general limit is fully secured at all times with a perfected security interest by readily marketable collateral as defined in § 723.2 of this part. Any insured or guaranteed portion of a commercial loan made through a program in which a federal or state agency (or its political subdivision) insures repayment, guarantees repayment, or provides an advance commitment to purchase the loan in full, is excluded from this limit.
</P>
<P>(d) Qualifications and experience requirements for personnel involved in underwriting, processing, approving, administering, and collecting commercial loans.
</P>
<P>(e) Loan approval processes, including establishing levels of loan approval authority commensurate with the individual's or committee's proficiency in evaluating and understanding commercial loan risk, when considered in terms of the level of risk the borrowing relationship poses to the federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(f) Underwriting standards commensurate with the size, scope and complexity of the commercial lending activities and borrowing relationships contemplated. The standards must, at a minimum, address the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The level and depth of financial analysis necessary to evaluate the financial trends and condition of the borrower and the ability of the borrower to meet debt service requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) Thorough due diligence of the principal(s) to determine whether any related interests of the principal(s) might have a negative impact or place an undue burden on the borrower and related interests with regard to meeting the debt obligations with the credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) Requirements of a borrower-prepared projection when historic performance does not support projected debt payments. The projection must be supported by reasonable rationale and, at a minimum, must include a projected balance sheet and income and expense statement;
</P>
<P>(4) The financial statement quality and the degree of verification sufficient to support an accurate financial analysis and risk assessment;
</P>
<P>(5) The methods to be used in collateral evaluation, for all types of collateral authorized, including loan-to-value ratio limits. Such methods must be appropriate for the particular type of collateral. The means to secure various types of collateral, and the measures taken for environmental due diligence must also be appropriate for all authorized collateral; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other appropriate risk assessment including analysis of the impact of current market conditions on the borrower and associated borrowers.
</P>
<P>(g) Risk management processes commensurate with the size, scope and complexity of the federally insured credit union's commercial lending activities and borrowing relationships. These processes must, at a minimum, address the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Use of loan covenants, if appropriate, including frequency of borrower and guarantor financial reporting;
</P>
<P>(2) Periodic loan review, consistent with loan covenants and sufficient to conduct portfolio risk management. This review must include a periodic reevaluation of the value and marketability of any collateral;
</P>
<P>(3) A credit risk rating system. Credit risk ratings must be assigned to commercial loans at inception and reviewed as frequently as necessary to satisfy the federally insured credit union's risk monitoring and reporting policies, and to ensure adequate reserves as required by generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP); and
</P>
<P>(4) A process to identify, report, and monitor loans approved as exceptions to the credit union's loan policy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.5   Collateral and security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally insured credit union must require collateral commensurate with the level of risk associated with the size and type of any commercial loan. Collateral must be sufficient to ensure adequate loan balance protection along with appropriate risk sharing with the borrower and principal(s). A federally insured credit union making an unsecured loan must determine and document in the loan file that mitigating factors sufficiently offset the relevant risk.
</P>
<P>(b) A federally insured credit union that does not require the full and unconditional personal guarantee from the principal(s) of the borrower who has a controlling interest in the borrower must determine and document in the loan file that mitigating factors sufficiently offset the relevant risk.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transitional provision.</I> A federally insured credit union that, between May 13, 2016 and January 1, 2017, makes a member business loan and does not require the full and unconditional personal guarantee from the principal(s) of the borrower who has a controlling interest in the borrower is not required to seek a waiver from the requirement for personal guarantee, but it must determine and document in the loan file that mitigating factors sufficiently offset the relevant risk.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.6   Construction and development loans.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the foregoing, the following requirements apply to a construction and development loan made by any federally insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(a) For the purposes of this section, a construction or development loan means any financing arrangement to enable the borrower to acquire property or rights to property, including land or structures, with the intent to construct or renovate an income producing property, such as residential housing for rental or sale, or a commercial building, such as may be used for commercial, agricultural, industrial, or other similar purposes. It also means a financing arrangement for the construction, major expansion or renovation of the property types referenced in this section. The collateral valuation for securing a construction or development loan depends on the satisfactory completion of the proposed construction or renovation where the loan proceeds are disbursed in increments as the work is completed. A loan to finance maintenance, repairs, or improvements to an existing income producing property that does not change its use or materially impact the property is not a construction or development loan.
</P>
<P>(b) A federally insured credit union that elects to make a construction or development loan must ensure that its commercial loan policy includes adequate provisions by which the collateral value associated with the project is properly determined and established. For a construction or development loan, collateral value is the lesser of the project's cost to complete or its prospective market value.
</P>
<P>(1) For the purposes of this section, cost to complete means the sum of all qualifying costs necessary to complete a construction project and documented in an approved construction budget. Qualifying costs generally include on- or off-site improvements, building construction, other reasonable and customary costs paid to construct or improve a project, including general contractor's fees, and other expenses normally included in a construction contract such as bonding and contractor insurance. Qualifying costs include the value of the land, determined as the lesser of appraised market value or purchase price plus the cost of any improvements. Qualifying costs also include interest, a contingency account to fund unanticipated overruns, and other development costs such as fees and related pre-development expenses. Interest expense is a qualifying cost only to the extent it is included in the construction budget and is calculated based on the projected changes in the loan balance up to the expected “as-complete” date for owner-occupied non-income producing commercial real estate or the “as-stabilized” date for income producing real estate. Project costs for related parties, such as developer fees, leasing expenses, brokerage commissions, and management fees, are included in qualifying costs only if reasonable in comparison to the cost of similar services from a third party. Qualifying costs exclude interest or preferred returns payable to equity partners or subordinated debt holders, the developer's general corporate overhead, and selling costs to be funded out of sales proceeds such as brokerage commissions and other closing costs.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of this section, prospective market value means the market value opinion determined by an independent appraiser in compliance with the relevant standards set forth in the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice. Prospective value opinions are intended to reflect the current expectations and perceptions of market participants, based on available data. Two prospective value opinions may be required to reflect the time frame during which development, construction, and occupancy occur. The prospective market value “as-completed” reflects the property's market value as of the time that development is to be completed. The prospective market value “as-stabilized” reflects the property's market value as of the time the property is projected to achieve stabilized occupancy. For an income producing property, stabilized occupancy is the occupancy level that a property is expected to achieve after the property is exposed to the market for lease over a reasonable period of time and at comparable terms and conditions to other similar properties.
</P>
<P>(c) A federally insured credit union that elects to make a construction and development loan must also assure its commercial loan policy meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified personnel representing the interests of the federally insured credit union must conduct a review and approval of any line item construction budget prior to closing the loan;
</P>
<P>(2) A credit union approved requisition and loan disbursement process is established;
</P>
<P>(3) Release or disbursement of loan funds occurs only after on-site inspections, documented in a written report by qualified personnel representing the interests of the federally insured credit union, certifying that the work requisitioned for payment has been satisfactorily completed, and the remaining funds available to be disbursed from the construction and development loan is sufficient to complete the project; and
</P>
<P>(4) Each loan disbursement is subject to confirmation that no intervening liens have been filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.7   Prohibited activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ineligible borrowers.</I> A federally insured credit union may not grant a commercial loan to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any senior management employee directly or indirectly involved in the credit union's commercial loan underwriting, servicing, and collection process, and any of their immediate family members;
</P>
<P>(2) Any person meeting the definition of an associated borrower with respect to persons identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any compensated director, unless the federally insured credit union's board of directors approves granting the loan and the compensated director was recused from the board's decision making process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equity agreements/joint ventures.</I> A federally insured credit union may not grant a commercial loan if any additional income received by the federally insured credit union or its senior management employees is tied to the profit or sale of any business or commercial endeavor that benefits from the proceeds of the loan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conflicts of interest.</I> Any third party used by a federally insured credit union to meet the requirements of this part must be independent from the commercial loan transaction and may not have a participation interest in a loan or an interest in any collateral securing a loan that the third party is responsible for reviewing, or an expectation of receiving compensation of any sort that is contingent on the closing of the loan, with the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(1) A third party may provide a service to the federally insured credit union that is related to the transaction, such as loan servicing.
</P>
<P>(2) The third party may provide the requisite experience to a federally insured credit union and purchase a loan or a participation interest in a loan originated by the federally insured credit union that the third party reviewed.
</P>
<P>(3) A federally insured credit union may use the services of a credit union service organization that otherwise meets the requirements of § 723.3(b)(3) of this part even if the credit union service organization is not independent from the transaction, provided the federally insured credit union has a controlling financial interest in the credit union service organization as determined under GAAP.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.8   Aggregate member business loan limit; exclusions and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>This section incorporates the statutory limits on the aggregate amount of member business loans that may be held by a federally insured credit union and establishes the method for calculating a federally insured credit union's net member business loan balance for purposes of the statutory limits and NCUA form 5300 reporting.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory limits.</I> The aggregate limit on a federally insured credit union's net member business loan balances is the lesser of 1.75 times the actual net worth of the credit union, or 1.75 times the minimum net worth required under section 1790d(c)(1)(A) of the Federal Credit Union Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For the purposes of this section, member business loan means any commercial loan as defined in 723.2 of this part, except that the following commercial loans are not member business loans and are not counted toward the aggregate limit on a federally insured credit union's member business loans:
</P>
<P>(1) Any loan in which a federal or state agency (or its political subdivision) fully insures repayment, fully guarantees repayment, or provides an advance commitment to purchase the loan in full; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-member commercial loan or non-member participation interest in a commercial loan made by another lender, provided the federally insured credit union acquired the non-member loans and participation interests in compliance with all relevant laws and regulations and it is not, in conjunction with one or more other credit unions, trading member business loans to circumvent the aggregate limit.
</P>
<P>(3) Any loan that is fully secured by a lien on a 1- to 4- family dwelling.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception.</I> Any loan secured by a vehicle manufactured for household use that will be used for a commercial, corporate, or other business investment property or venture, or agricultural purpose, is not a commercial loan but it is a member business loan (if the outstanding aggregate net member business loan balance is $50,000 or greater) and must be counted toward the aggregate limit on a federally insured credit union's member business loans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statutory exemptions.</I> A federally insured credit union that has a low-income designation, or participates in the Community Development Financial Institutions program, or was chartered for the purpose of making member business loans, or which as of the date of enactment of the Credit Union Membership Access Act of 1998 had a history of primarily making commercial loans, is exempt from compliance with the aggregate member business loan limits in this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Method of calculation for net member business loan balance.</I> For the purposes of NCUA form 5300 reporting, a federally insured credit union's net member business loan balance is determined by calculating the outstanding loan balance plus any unfunded commitments, reduced by any portion of the loan that is secured by shares in the credit union, or by shares or deposits in other financial institutions, or by a lien on a member's primary residence, or insured or guaranteed by any agency of the federal government, a state or any political subdivision of such state, or subject to an advance commitment to purchase by any agency of the Federal Government, a state or any political subdivision of such state, or sold as a participation interest without recourse and qualifying for true sales accounting under generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 13554, Mar. 14, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 25882, June 5, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.9   Transitional provisions.</HEAD>
<P>This section governs circumstances in which, as of January 1, 2017, a federally insured credit union is operating in accordance with an approved waiver from NCUA or is subject to any enforcement constraint relative to its commercial lending activities.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Waivers.</I> As of January 1, 2017, any waiver approved by NCUA concerning a federally insured credit union's commercial lending activity is rendered moot except for waivers granted for borrowing relationship limits. Borrowing relationships granted a waiver will be grandfathered however the debt associated with those relationships may not be increased.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement constraints.</I> Limitations or other conditions imposed on a federally insured credit union in any written directive from NCUA, including but not limited to items specified in any Document of Resolution, any published or unpublished Letter of Understanding and Agreement, Regional Director Letter, Preliminary Warning Letter, or formal enforcement action, are unaffected by the adoption of this part. Included within this paragraph are any constraints or conditions embedded within any waiver issued by NCUA. As of January 1, 2017, all such limitations or other conditions remain in place until such time as they are modified by NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 723.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.22.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 723.10   State regulation of business lending.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>State rules.</I> Federally insured state chartered credit unions in a given state are exempted from compliance with this part if the state supervisory authority administers a state commercial and member business loan rule for use by federally insured credit unions chartered in that state, provided the state rule at least covers all the provisions in this part and is no less restrictive, upon determination by NCUA.
</P>
<P>(b)<I> Grandfathering of NCUA-approved state rules.</I> A state supervisory authority that administers a state commercial and member business loan rule previously approved by NCUA may continue to administer that rule in its current NCUA-approved format. Any modification of that rule must be consistent with this rule, but modification of one part of an existing NCUA-approved state rule will not cause other parts of that rule to lose their grandfathered status.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="724" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 724—TRUSTEES AND CUSTODIANS OF CERTAIN TAX-ADVANTAGED SAVINGS PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757, 1765, 1766 and 1787.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 30211, July 25, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 724.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.23.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.1   Federal credit unions acting as trustees and custodians of certain tax-advantaged savings plans.</HEAD>
<P>A federal credit union is authorized to act as trustee or custodian, and may receive reasonable compensation for so acting, under any written trust instrument or custodial agreement created or organized in the United States and forming part of a tax-advantaged savings plan which qualifies or qualified for specific tax treatment under sections 223, 401(d), 408, 408A and 530 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 223, 401(d), 408, 408A and 530), for its members or groups of its members, provided the funds of such plans are invested in share accounts or share certificate accounts of the Federal credit union. Federal credit unions located in a territory, including the trust territories, or a possession of the United States, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, are also authorized to act as trustee or custodian for such plans, if authorized under sections 223, 401(d), 408, 408A and 530 of the Internal Revenue Code as applied to the territory or possession under similar provisions of territorial law. All funds held in a trustee or custodial capacity must be maintained in accordance with applicable laws and rules and regulations as may be promulgated by the Secretary of Labor, the Secretary of the Treasury, or any other authority exercising jurisdiction over such trust or custodial accounts. The federal credit union shall maintain individual records for each participant which show in detail all transactions relating to the funds of each participant or beneficiary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30211, July 25, 1990, as amended at 63 FR 14026, Mar. 24, 1998; 65 FR 10934, Mar. 1, 2000; 69 FR 45238, July 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.23.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.2   Self-directed plans.</HEAD>
<P>A federal credit union may facilitate transfers of plan funds to assets other than share and share certificates of the credit union, provided the conditions of § 724.1 are met and the following additional conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(a) All contributions of funds are initially made to a share or share certificate account in the Federal credit union;
</P>
<P>(b) Any subsequent transfer of funds to other assets is solely at the direction of the member and the Federal credit union exercises no investment discretion and provides no investment advice with respect to plan assets (i.e., the credit union performs only custodial duties); and
</P>
<P>(c) The member is clearly notified of the fact that National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund coverage is limited to funds held in share or share certificate accounts of NCUSIF-insured credit unions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 30211, July 25, 1990, as amended at 69 FR 45239, July 29, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 724.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.23.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 724.3   Appointment of successor trustee or custodian.</HEAD>
<P>Any plan operated pursuant to this part shall provide for the appointment of a successor trustee or custodian by a person, committee, corporation or organization other than the Federal credit union or any person acting in his capacity as a director, employee or agent of the Federal credit union upon notice from the Federal credit union or the Board that the Federal credit union is unwilling or unable to continue to act as trustee or custodian.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="725" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 725—NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION CENTRAL LIQUIDITY FACILITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1795f(a)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 725 appear at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 725.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains the regulations implementing the National Credit Union Central Liquidity Facility Act, subchapter III of the Federal Credit Union Act. The National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility is a mixed-ownership Government corporation within the National Credit Union Administration. It is managed by the National Credit Union Administration Board and is owned by its member credit unions. The purpose of the Facility is to improve the general financial stability of credit unions by meeting their liquidity needs and thereby encourage savings, support consumer and mortgage lending and provide basic financial resources to all segments of the economy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agent</I> means an Agent member of the Facility.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agent group</I> means an Agent member of the Facility consisting of a group of corporate credit unions, one of which is designated as the group's <I>Agent group representative</I> and authorized to transact business with the Facility on behalf of the group or any member of the group.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agent loan</I> means an advance of funds by an Agent to a member natural person credit union to meet liquidity needs which have been the basis for a Facility advance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Corporate credit union</I> means a Federal or state-chartered credit union primarily serving other credit unions. A credit union is primarily serving other credit unions when the total dollar amount of the shares and deposits received from other credit unions plus loans to other credit unions exceeds 50 percent of the total dollar amount of all shares and deposits plus loans during the qualifying period, as defined in paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Facility</I> or <I>Central Liquidity Facility</I> means the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Facility advance</I> means an advance of funds by the Facility to a Regular or Agent member.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Facility lending officer</I> means any employee of the Facility or the National Credit Union Administration who has been designated by the NCUA Board as a Facility lending officer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Liquid assets</I> means the following unpledged assets:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash on hand;
</P>
<P>(2) Share or deposit accounts with remaining maturities of one year or less maintained in corporate credit unions or institutions insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(3) Investments in obligations of the United States or any agency thereof, or securities fully guaranteed as to principal and interest thereby, which are authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1757(7) and which have a remaining maturity of one year or less;
</P>
<P>(4) Common trust investments and similar investments in funds or securities authorized for Federal credit unions, the objectives of which are to provide daily liquidity for participating credit unions;
</P>
<P>(5) Shares in the National Credit Union Administration Central Liquidity Facility or in special share accounts authorized by § 725.7 of this part;
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of a federally insured state-chartered credit union, any asset held in satisfaction of liquidity requirements imposed by applicable state law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) Balances maintained by federally insured credit unions in a Federal Reserve bank, or in a pass-through account to a Federal Reserve bank, pursuant to the requirements of section 19(b) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461(b)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Liquidity needs</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) From April 29, 2020 to December 31, 2021, the needs of credit unions for:
</P>
<P>(i) Short-term adjustment credit available to assist in meeting temporary requirements for funds or to cushion more persistent outflows of funds pending an orderly adjustment of credit union assets and liabilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Seasonal credit available for longer periods to assist in meeting seasonal needs for funds arising from a combination of expected patterns of movement in share and deposit accounts and loans; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protracted adjustment credit available in the event of unusual or emergency circumstances of a longer-term nature resulting from national, regional or local difficulties.
</P>
<P>(2) After December 31, 2021, the needs of credit unions primarily serving natural persons for:
</P>
<P>(i) Short-term adjustment credit available to assist in meeting temporary requirements for funds or to cushion more persistent outflows of funds pending an orderly adjustment of credit union assets and liabilities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Seasonal credit available for longer periods to assist in meeting seasonal needs for funds arising from a combination of expected patterns of movement in share and deposit accounts and loans; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protracted adjustment credit available in the event of unusual or emergency circumstances of a longer-term nature resulting from national, regional or local difficulties.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Management policies</I> means policies of a credit union with respect to membership, shares, deposits, dividends, interest rates, lending, investing, borrowing, safeguarding of assets, hiring, training and supervision of employees, and general operating and control practices and procedures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Member</I> means a Regular or Agent member of the Facility, unless the context indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Member natural person credit union</I> means a natural person credit union which is a member of an Agent or of any corporate credit union in an Agent group. Member natural person credit unions are not members of the Facility unless they are also Regular members of the Facility.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Natural person credit union</I> means a Federal or state-chartered credit union primarily serving natural persons. A credit union is primarily serving natural persons if it is not a corporate credit union as defined in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus</I> means shares and deposits plus post-closing, undivided earnings. This does not include regular reserves or special reserves required by law, regulation or special agreement between the credit union and its regulator or share insurer. 
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Qualifying Period</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For initial qualification, any 7 months out of the 12 months immediately preceding the month in which application is made to become a member of the Facility; and
</P>
<P>(2) For qualification during each subsequent calendar year, any 7 months out of the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Stock subscription</I> means the stock subscription required for membership in the Facility. “Total subscribed Facility stock” is the sum of all members' stock subscriptions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 53 FR 22472, June 16, 1988; 66 FR 65624, Dec. 20, 2001; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 23735, Apr. 29, 2020; 86 FR 15571, Mar. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.3   Regular membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A natural person credit union may become a Regular member of the Facility by:
</P>
<P>(1) Making application on a form approved by the Facility;
</P>
<P>(2) Subscribing to capital stock of the Facility in an amount equal to one-half of 1 percent of the credit union's paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, as determined in accordance with § 725.5(b) of this part, and forwarding with its completed application funds equal to one-half of this stock subscription; and
</P>
<P>(3) Furnishing the following reports and documents with the completed membership application:
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the credit union's financial and statistical report for the most recent calendar month; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of the credit union's charter and bylaws, unless the credit union is federally chartered. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 1371, Jan. 13, 1982; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 23735, Apr. 29, 2020] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.4   Agent membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A corporate credit union or a group of corporate credit unions may become an Agent member of the Facility by (in the case of a group of corporate credit unions, each corporate credit union in the group must do each of the following except for paragraph (a)(2) of this section, which shall be done by the Agent group representative): 
</P>
<P>(1) Making application on a form approved by the Facility; 
</P>
<P>(2) Subscribing to the capital stock of the Facility in an amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) One-half of 1 percent of the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus (as determined in accordance with § 725.5(b) of this part) of all the corporate credit union's or corporate credit union group's member natural person credit unions, except those which are Regular members of the Facility or which have access to the Facility through, and are included in the stock subscription of, another Agent (a natural person credit union which is a member of more than one Agent member of the Facility must designate through which Agent it will deal with the Facility, and the designated Agent will be responsible for including the capital and surplus of such credit union in the calculation of its stock subscription). Upon approval of the application, the Agent shall forward funds equal to one-half of this initial stock subscription to the Facility;
</P>
<P>(ii) From April 29, 2020, until December 31, 2021, one-half of 1 percent of the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus (as determined in accordance with § 725.5(b) of this part) of such credit union members of the corporate credit union or corporate credit union group as the Board may determine in its sole discretion, except those which are Regular members of the Facility or which have access to the Facility through, and are included in the stock subscription of, another Agent (a natural person credit union which is a member of more than one Agent member of the Facility must designate through which Agent it will deal with the Facility, and the designated Agent will be responsible for including the capital and surplus of such credit union in the calculation of its stock subscription). Upon approval of the application, the Agent shall forward funds equal to one-half of this initial stock subscription to the Facility. A corporate credit union or corporate credit union group that became an Agent member of the Facility under this paragraph shall, after December 31, 2021, but before January 1, 2023, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Purchase Facility stock in accordance with the terms of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Terminate its membership in the facility.
</P>
<P>(iii) From April 29, 2020, until December 31, 2021, if borrowing for its own liquidity needs, one-half of 1 percent of the Agent's own paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus. Upon approval of the application, the Agent shall forward funds equal to one-half of this stock subscription to the Facility. This amount shall be in addition to the amounts required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, if a corporate credit union or corporate credit union group joined the facility as an Agent and intends to borrow for its own liquidity needs. Any corporate credit union or corporate credit union group that received a Facility advance for its own liquidity need under the temporary requirements set forth in this paragraph must, as of January 1, 2022 and thereafter:
</P>
<P>(A) Not request any additional Facility advances for its own liquidity needs; and
</P>
<P>(B) Continue to follow the terms of the Facility advance agreement entered into between the Agent and the Facility.
</P>
<P>(3) Furnishing the following reports and documents with the completed membership application: 
</P>
<P>(i) A copy of the corporate credit union's financial and statistical report for the most recent calendar month; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Copies of the corporate credit union's charter and bylaws, unless such credit union is federally chartered; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A list of all the corporate credit union's member natural person credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(4) Agreeing to submit to the supervision of the NCUA Board and to comply with all regulations and reporting requirements which the NCUA Board shall prescribe for Agent members; 
</P>
<P>(5) Agreeing to submit to periodic unrestricted examinations by the NCUA Board or its designee; and 
</P>
<P>(6) Obtaining the written approval of the NCUA Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NCUA Board may approve a corporate credit union or group of corporate credit unions as an Agent member of the Facility, provided the NCUA Board is satisfied that such credit union or credit union group meets certain criteria, including but not limited to the following (in the case of a group of corporate credit unions, each corporate credit union in the group must meet these criteria): 
</P>
<P>(1) The management policies are in writing, approved by the corporate credit union's board of directors, and reviewed annually by such board; 
</P>
<P>(2) Adequate internal controls are in place to assure accurate and timely reporting of transactions and the safeguarding of assets; 
</P>
<P>(3) The financial condition of the corporate credit union is sound with adequate reserves for losses; 
</P>
<P>(4) Surety bond coverage provides protection for the corporate credit union while the corporate credit union is performing the duties of an Agent member of the Facility; 
</P>
<P>(5) Management has demonstrated its ability to use such techniques as cash flow analysis, budgeting, and projections of sources and uses of funds to manage the affairs of the corporate credit union efficiently and in conformity with sound business practices; and 
</P>
<P>(6) There are no practices, procedures, policies, or other factors that would result in discrimination by the corporate credit union among natural person credit unions or inhibit its ability to act independently in its role as an Agent member of the Facility. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each Agent, or in the case of an Agent group, each corporate credit union in the group, must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Maintain records related to Facility activity in conformity with requirements prescribed by the NCUA Board from time to time; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Submit such reports as may be required by the Facility to determine financial soundness, quality and level of service, and conformity with established guidelines and procedures. 
</P>
<P>(d) Each Agent, or in the case of an Agent group, each corporate credit union in the group, must have on an annual basis a third party independent audit of its books and records and provide the Facility with copies of the report of such audit. The auditor selected must be recognized by a State or territorial licensing authority as possessing the requisite knowledge and experience to perform audits. 
</P>
<P>(e) Within 30 days after a natural person credit union becomes a member of a corporate credit union which is an Agent or a member of an Agent group, the Agent, or in the case of an Agent group, the Agent group representative, shall subscribe to additional capital stock of the Facility in an amount equal to one-half of 1 percent of such credit union's paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus, and shall forward funds equal to one-half of this stock subscription to the Facility. This subsection shall not apply if the natural person credit union is a Regular member of the Facility or has access to the Facility through, and is included in the stock subscription of, another Agent. 
</P>
<P>(f) A corporate credit union or group of corporate credit unions which becomes an Agent member of the Facility after February 23, 1980, may not receive a Facility advance without approval of the NCUA Board for a period of six months after becoming a member. This subsection shall not apply to any credit union which becomes an Agent member or a member of an Agent group within six months after such credit union is chartered or within six months after such credit union has been an Agent or a member of another Agent group. 
</P>
<P>(g) Agent members will be compensated for the services they perform for the Facility in a manner to be specified by the NCUA Board. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019; 85 FR 23735, Apr. 29, 2020; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 15571, Mar. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.5   Capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The capital stock of the Facility is divided into nonvoting shares having a par value of $50 each. The Facility issues whole and fractional shares. Shares are issued in book entry form upon receipt of payment for such shares, and cannot be transferred or hypothecated except to the Facility. 
</P>
<P>(b) The capital stock subscriptions provided for in §§ 725.3 and 725.4 shall be: 
</P>
<P>(1) Based on an arithmetic average of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus over the six months preceding application for membership, and 
</P>
<P>(2) Adjusted at the close of each calendar year in accordance with an arithmetic average of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus over the twelve months in such calendar year. Payments for adjustments to the capital stock subscription must be received by the Facility no later than March 31 of the following year. 
</P>
<P>(c) That part of a member's stock subscription which is not paid-in shall be held by the member on call of the NCUA Board and shall be invested in liquid assets.
</P>
<P>(d) Any member may at any time purchase additional shares of capital stock in the Facility. Any shares in excess of the member's required paid-in portion of its stock subscription can be redeemed by the member as long as the member maintains investments in other assets sufficient to meet the requirement of paragraph (c) of this section. The member's required paid-in portion of its stock subscription includes one-half of its stock subscription plus any “calls” that may have been issued by the NCUA Board against the “on-call” portion of such stock subscription. 
</P>
<P>(e) Dividends will be paid on capital stock at such times and rates as are determined by the NCUA Board. The NCUA Board shall declare such dividends no less frequently than annually. All issued (paid for) capital stock shall share in dividend distributions without preference. Payment of dividends will be made by the issuance of capital stock to the member in the amount of the dividend.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 45 FR 47122, July 14, 1980; 47 FR 1371, Jan. 13, 1982; 53 FR 22472, June 16, 1988]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.6   Termination of membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A member of the Facility whose stock subscription constitutes less than 5 percent of total subscribed Facility stock may withdraw from membership in the Facility six months after notifying the NCUA Board in writing of its intention to do so. 
</P>
<P>(b) A member of the Facility whose stock subscription constitutes 5 percent or more of total subscribed Facility stock may withdraw from membership in the Facility twenty-four months after notifying the NCUA Board in writing of its intention to do so. 
</P>
<P>(c) The NCUA Board may terminate membership in the Facility if, after the opportunity for a hearing, the NCUA Board determines the member has failed to comply with any provision of the National Credit Union Central Liquidity Facility Act or any regulation issued pursuant thereto. If membership is terminated under this subsection, the credit union will be required to obtain the approval of the NCUA Board before becoming a member of the Facility again. Such approval will be granted only if the NCUA Board is satisfied that the credit union will comply with such Act and regulations. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If membership is terminated under any provision of this section, the terminated member's stock shall be redeemed upon termination. In such event, the Facility may retain any amount owed to the Facility by the member. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a member natural person credit union withdraws from membership in a corporate credit union which is an Agent or a member of an Agent group, the stock subscription of the Agent, or in the case of an Agent group, the stock subscription of the Agent group representative, will be adjusted after the waiting period which would apply under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section if the withdrawing credit union were a member of the Facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.7   Special share accounts in federally chartered agent members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally chartered Agent member of the Facility may require its member natural person credit unions to establish and maintain special share accounts in the Agent member to reimburse it for the portion of the Agent's Facility stock subscription which is attributable to the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus of each such natural person credit union. 
</P>
<P>(b) The amount which the Agent member requires each member natural person credit union to maintain in such special share accounts shall be based on a uniform percentage of the paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus of such credit unions, and shall not exceed the amount of the Agent's stock subscription which is attributable to the capital and surplus of each such credit union. An Agent shall not permit a member to maintain in a special share account any amounts in excess of the required amount. 
</P>
<P>(c) A natural person credit union that withdraws from membership in an Agent member or that becomes a Regular member of the Facility, shall be entitled to the return of all amounts in its special share account upon withdrawal from membership in the Agent or upon becoming a Regular member, as applicable. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 47122, July 14, 1980]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 725.8-725.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 725.8-725.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.17   Applications for extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Regular member may apply for a Facility advance to meet its liquidity needs by filing an application on a Facility-approved form, or by any other method approved by the Facility.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) An Agent member may apply for a Facility advance by filing an application on a Facility-approved form, or by any other method approved by the Facility. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> If the Agent is an Agent group, the application must be filed by the Agent group representative, and any Facility advance will be made to the Agent group representative.</P></FTNT>
<P>(2) The Agent's application shall be based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Approved applications to the Agent by its member natural person credit unions for pending loans to meet liquidity needs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Outstanding loans previously made by the Agent to meet liquidity needs of its member natural person credit unions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other demonstrable liquidity needs as the NCUA Board may specify; or
</P>
<P>(iv) For the period beginning April 29, 2020, and ending on December 31, 2021, the applicant Agent's own liquidity needs. After the aforementioned period, an Agent is prohibited from submitting an application for an extension for its own liquidity needs.
</P>
<P>(3) An Agent shall not submit an application to the Facility based on the liquidity needs of any member natural person credit union which has not agreed to the repayment, security and credit reporting terms prescribed by the Facility for Agent loans;
</P>
<P>(4) Any loan to meet liquidity needs which have been or will be the basis for an application by the Agent for a Facility advance must be applied for on an application form approved by the Facility.
</P>
<P>(5) Unless approved by the Facility, an Agent shall not submit an application to the Facility based on the liquidity needs of any credit union which became a member natural person credit union of the Agent after February 2, 1980, unless such credit union has been a member natural person credit union of the Agent for six months, was chartered within six months before becoming a member natural person credit union of the Agent, or had access to the Facility either as a Regular member or through another Agent within six months before becoming a member natural person credit union of the Agent.
</P>
<P>(c) In emergency circumstances, the applications for extensions of credit required under paragraph (a) and paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(4) of this section may be verbal, but must be confirmed within five working days by an application as required by such subsection or paragraphs.
</P>
<P>(d) Applications of Regular and Agent members shall be filed with a Facility lending officer. Each application for credit which is completed and properly filed will be approved or denied within five working days after the day of receipt.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 47 FR 1371, Jan. 13, 1982; 85 FR 23735, Apr. 29, 2020; 86 FR 15572, Mar. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.18   Creditworthiness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to Facility approval of each application of a Regular member for a Facility advance or an Agent member for a Facility advance for such Agent member's own need (provided such Agent may submit an application under § 725.17(b)(2)(iv) of this part), the Facility shall consider the creditworthiness of such member.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to an Agent's approval of each application of a member natural person credit union for an extension of credit on which an application by the Agent to the Facility will be based, an Agent shall consider the creditworthiness of such member natural person credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) Specific characteristics of an uncreditworthy credit union include, but are not limited to, insolvency as defined in paragraph (1) to the definition of “insolvency” in § 700.2 of this chapter, unsatisfactory practices in extending credit, lower than desirable reserve levels, high expense ratio, failure to repay previous Facility advances as agreed, excessive dependence on borrowed funds, inadequate cash management policies and planning, or any other relevant characteristics creating a less than satisfactory condition. The presence of one or more of these characteristics will not necessarily mean that a credit union will be considered uncreditworthy.
</P>
<P>(d) A credit union (whether a Regular member of the Facility, Agent member (provided such Agent may submit an application under § 725.17(b)(2)(iv) of this part), or a member natural person credit union) which does not meet the Facility's creditworthiness standards may be limited in or denied the use of advances for its liquidity needs.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[44 FR 49437, Aug. 23, 1979, as amended at 69 FR 27829, May 17, 2004; 76 FR 60367, Sept. 29, 2011; 85 FR 23736, Apr. 29, 2020; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 15572, Mar. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.19   Collateral requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Facility advance and each Agent loan shall be secured by a first priority security interest in collateral of the credit union with a net book value at least equal to an amount as required by the Facility's collateral table, published at <I>www.NCUA.gov,</I> or by guarantee of the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) The Facility may accept as collateral for each Facility advance to a Regular member or to an Agent member, for such Agent member's own needs, a security interest in all assets of the member; provided however, that the value of any assets in which any third party has a perfected security interest that is superior to the security interest of the Facility shall be excluded for purposes of complying with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The Facility may accept as collateral for each Facility advance to an Agent member, a security interest in the Agent loans for which the Facility advance was made; provided however, that the collateral for such Agent loan meets the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 67550, Dec. 29, 1997, as amended at 85 FR 23736, Apr. 29, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.20   Repayment, security and credit reporting agreements; other terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Regular and Agent members, or in the case of an Agent group, the Agent group representative, shall sign the repayment, security and credit reporting agreements prescribed by the Facility, and all Facility advances to Regular and Agent members shall be governed by the terms and conditions of such agreements.
</P>
<P>(b) All Agent loans shall be made subject to the repayment, security and credit reporting terms prescribed by the Facility for Agent loans.
</P>
<P>(c) Other terms and conditions applicable to Facility advances and Agent loans will be specified in confirmations of credit provided in connection with such advances and loans, and/or in operating circulars of the Facility. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.21   Modification of agreements.</HEAD>
<P>The repayment, security, and credit reporting terms under which Facility advances and Agent loans will be made, as provided in § 725.20 of this part, shall be subject to modification from time to time as the NCUA Board may determine. Any change in such terms shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and shall apply to all advances disbursed by the Facility after the effective date of the change.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.22   Advances to insurance organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with policies established by the NCUA Board, the Facility may advance funds to a State credit union share or deposit insurance corporation, guaranty credit union, guaranty association, or similar organization. Requests for such advances shall be supported by an application which sets forth and supports the need for the advance.
</P>
<P>(b) Advances under paragraph (a) shall be subject to the approval of the NCUA Board and shall be made subject to the following terms:
</P>
<P>(1) The advance shall be fully secured,
</P>
<P>(2) The maturity of the advance shall not exceed 12 months,
</P>
<P>(3) The advance shall not be renewable at maturity, and
</P>
<P>(4) The funds advanced shall not be relent at an interest rate exceeding that imposed by the Facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 725.23" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.24.0.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 725.23   Other advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA Board may authorize extensions of credit to members of the Facility for purposes other than liquidity needs if the NCUA Board, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Secretary of the Treasury concur in a determination that such extensions of credit are in the national economic interest.
</P>
<P>(b) Extensions of credit approved under the conditions of paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to such terms and conditions as shall be established by the NCUA Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="740" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 740—ACCURACY OF ADVERTISING AND NOTICE OF INSURED STATUS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1781, 1785, and 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>68 FR 23382, May 2, 2003, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 740 appear at 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 740.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all federally insured credit unions. It prescribes the requirements for the official sign insured credit unions must display and the requirements with regard to the official advertising statement insured credit unions must include in their advertisements. It requires that all other kinds of advertisements be accurate. It also establishes requirements for advertisements of excess insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> or <I>accounts</I> as used in this part means share, share certificate or share draft accounts (or their equivalent under state law, as determined by the Board in the case of insured state credit unions) of a member (which includes other credit unions, public units, and nonmembers where permitted under the Act) in a credit union of a type approved by the Board which evidences money or its equivalent received or held by a credit union in the usual course of business and for which it has given or is obligated to give credit to the account of the member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement</I> as used in this part means a commercial message, in any medium, that is designed to attract public attention or patronage to a product or business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insured credit union and federally insured credit union</I> as used in this part mean a credit union with National Credit Union Administration share insurance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-federally insured credit union</I> as used in this part means a credit union with either no account insurance or with primary account insurance provided by some entity other than the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23382, May 2, 2003, as amended at 74 FR 9348, Mar. 4, 2009; 76 FR 30523, May 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.2   Accuracy of advertising.</HEAD>
<P>No insured credit union may use any advertising (which includes print, electronic, or broadcast media, displays and signs, stationery, and other promotional material) or make any representation which is inaccurate or deceptive in any particular, or which in any way misrepresents its services, contracts, or financial condition, or which violates the requirements of § 707.8 of this subchapter, if applicable. This provision does not prohibit an insured credit union from using a trade name or a name other than its official charter name in advertising or signage, so long as it uses its official charter name in communications with NCUA and for share certificates or certificates of deposit, signature cards, loan agreements, account statements, checks, drafts and other legal documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.3   Advertising of excess insurance.</HEAD>
<P>Any advertising that mentions share or savings account insurance provided by a party other than the NCUA must clearly explain the type and amount of such insurance and the identity of the carrier and must avoid any statement or implication that the carrier is affiliated with the NCUA or the federal government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.4   Requirements for the official sign.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each insured credit union must continuously display the official sign described in paragraph (b) of this section at each station or window where insured account funds or deposits are normally received in its principal place of business and in all its branches, 30 days after its first day of operation as an insured credit union. Each insured credit union must also display the official sign on its Internet page, if any, where it accepts deposits or open accounts, but it may vary the font sizes from that depicted in paragraph (b) of this section to ensure its legibility.
</P>
<P>(b) The official sign shall be as depicted below:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02se10.000.gif"/>
<P>(1) NCUA will automatically supply all insured credit unions an initial supply of official signs with a blue background and white lettering at no cost for compliance with paragraph (a) of this section. If the initial supply is not adequate, the insured credit unions must immediately request additional signs from NCUA. Any credit union that does not have an adequate supply but requests additional signs from NCUA will not be considered to have violated paragraph (a) of this section unless the credit union fails to display the signs after receiving them. 
</P>
<P>(2) An insured credit union may purchase signs from commercial suppliers or develop its own in any color scheme so long as they are legible and otherwise comply with this part. A credit union may alter the font size of the official sign to make it legible on its Internet page and on documents it provides to its members including advertisements, but it may not do so on signs to be placed at each station or window where the credit union normally receives insured funds or deposits in its principal place of business and all of its branches.
</P>
<P>(c) To avoid any member confusion from the use of the official NCUA sign, federally insured credit unions are prohibited from receiving account funds at any teller station or window where any non-federally insured credit union also receives account funds. As exceptions to this prohibition:
</P>
<P>(1) A teller in a branch of a federally insured credit union may accept account funds for non-federally insured credit unions, but only if the teller displays a conspicuous sign next to the official sign that states “This credit union participates in a shared branch network with other credit unions and accepts share deposits for members of those other credit unions. While this credit union is federally insured, not all of these other credit unions are federally insured. If you need information on the insurance status of your credit union, please contact your credit union directly.” This sign must be similar to the official sign in terms of design, color, and font.
</P>
<P>(2) A teller in a facility operated by a non-credit union entity may accept account funds for both federally insured credit unions and non-federally insured credit unions, but only if the teller displays a conspicuous sign next to the official sign stating “This facility accepts share deposits for multiple credit unions. Not all of these credit unions are federally insured. If you need information on the insurance status of your credit union, please contact your credit union directly.” This sign must be similar to the official sign in terms of design, color, and font.
</P>
<P>(3) A teller in a branch of a non-federally insured credit union may accept account funds for federally insured credit unions. No teller in a non-federally insured credit union may display the official NCUA sign.
</P>
<P>(d) The Board may require any insured credit union, upon at least 30 days' written notice, to change the wording of its official signs in a manner deemed necessary for the protection of shareholders or others.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this section, the terms “branch,” “station,” “teller station,” and “window” do not include automated teller machines or point of sale terminals.
</P>
<P>(f) An insured credit union that fails to comply with Section 205(a) of the Federal Credit Union Act regarding the official sign, 12 U.S.C. 1785(a), or any requirement in this part is subject to a daily penalty in the amount set forth in § 747.1001 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23382, May 2, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 67438, Nov. 22, 2006; 73 FR 62858, Oct. 22, 2008; 74 FR 9348, Mar. 4, 2009; 74 FR 55749, Oct. 29, 2009; 75 FR 53843, Sept. 2, 2010; 80 FR 57288, Sept. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 740.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.25.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 740.5   Requirements for the official advertising statement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each insured credit union must include the official advertising statement, prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, in all of its advertisements, including on its main internet page, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The official advertising statement is in substance one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) This credit union is federally insured by the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P>(ii) Federally insured by NCUA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Insured by NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A reproduction of the official sign as described in § 740.4(b) may be used in lieu of the other statements included in this section. If the official sign is used as the official advertising statement, an insured credit union may alter the font size to ensure its legibility as provided in § 740.4(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) The official advertising statement must be in a size and print that is clearly legible and may be no smaller than the smallest font size used in other portions of the advertisement intended to convey information to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) The following advertisements need not include the official advertising statement:
</P>
<P>(1) Credit union supplies such as stationery (except when used for circular letters), envelopes, deposit slips, checks, drafts, signature cards, account passbooks, and noninsurable certificates;
</P>
<P>(2) Signs or plates in the credit union office or attached to the building or buildings in which the offices are located;
</P>
<P>(3) Listings in directories;
</P>
<P>(4) Advertisements not setting forth the name of the insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) Display advertisements in credit union directories, provided the name of the credit union is listed on any page in the directory with a symbol or other descriptive matter indicating it is insured;
</P>
<P>(6) Joint or group advertisements of credit union services where the names of federally insured credit unions and Non-federally insured credit unions are listed and form a part of such advertisement;
</P>
<P>(7) Advertisements by radio which do not exceed thirty (30) seconds in time;
</P>
<P>(8) Advertisements by television, other than display advertisements, which do not exceed thirty (30) seconds in time;
</P>
<P>(9) Advertisements that because of their type or character would be impractical to include the official advertising statement, including but not limited to, promotional items such as calendars, matchbooks, pens, pencils, and key chains;
</P>
<P>(10) Advertisements that contain a statement to the effect that the credit union is insured by the National Credit Union Administration, or that its accounts and shares or members are insured by the Administration to the maximum insurance amount for each member or shareholder;
</P>
<P>(11) Advertisements that do not relate to member accounts, including but not limited to advertisements relating to loans by the credit union, safekeeping box business or services, traveler's checks on which the credit union is not primarily liable, and credit life or disability insurance.
</P>
<P>(d) The non-English equivalent of the official advertising statement may be used in any advertisement provided that the Regional Director gives prior approval to the translation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23382, May 2, 2003, as amended at 71 FR 67439, Nov. 22, 2006; 73 FR 56936, Oct. 1, 2008; 76 FR 30523, May 26, 2011; 83 FR 17913, Apr. 25, 2018; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="741" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 741—REQUIREMENTS FOR INSURANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757, 1766(a), 1781-1790, 1790d, 3331 <I>et seq;</I> 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 741 appear at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 741.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part apply to federal credit unions, federally insured state-chartered credit unions, and credit unions making application for insurance of accounts pursuant to title II of the Act, unless the context of a provision indicates its application is otherwise limited. This part prescribes various requirements for obtaining and maintaining federal insurance and the payment of insurance premiums and capitalization deposit. Subpart A of this part contains substantive requirements that are not codified elsewhere in this chapter. Subpart B of this part lists additional regulations, set forth elsewhere in this chapter as applying to federal credit unions, that also apply to federally insured state-chartered credit unions. As used in this part, “insured credit union” means a credit union whose accounts are insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Regulations That Apply to Both Federal Credit Unions and Federally Insured State-Chartered Credit Unions and That Are Not Codified Elsewhere in NCUA's Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.1   Examination.</HEAD>
<P>As provided in Sections 201 and 204 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1781 and 1784), the NCUA Board is authorized to examine any insured credit union or any credit union making application for insurance of its accounts. Such examination may require access to all records, reports, contracts to which the credit union is a party, and information concerning the affairs of the credit union. Upon request, such documentation must be provided to the NCUA Board or its representative. Any credit union which makes application for insurance will be required to pay the cost of such examination and processing. To the maximum extent feasible, the NCUA Board will utilize examinations conducted by state regulatory agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.2   Maximum borrowing authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union which makes application for insurance of its accounts pursuant to title II of the Act, or any insured credit union, must not borrow, from any source, an aggregate amount in excess of 50 per centum of its paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus (shares and undivided earnings, plus net income or minus net loss). 
</P>
<P>(b) A federally insured state-chartered credit union may apply to the regional director for a waiver of paragraph (a) of this section up to the amount permitted under the applicable state law or by the state regulator. The waiver request must include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Written approval from the state regulator; 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed analysis of the safety and soundness implications of the proposed waiver; 
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed aggregate dollar amount or percentage of paid-in and unimpaired capital and surplus limitation; and 
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation demonstrating the need to raise the limit. 
</P>
<P>(c) The regional director will approve the waiver request if the proposed borrowing limit will not adversely affect the safety and soundness of the federally insured state-chartered credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 69 FR 8547, Feb. 25, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.3   Criteria.</HEAD>
<P>In determining the insurability of a credit union which makes application for insurance and in continuing the insurability of its accounts pursuant to title II of the Act, the following criteria shall be applied: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Reserves</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> State-chartered credit unions are subject to section 216 of the Act, 12 U.S.C. 1790d, and to part 702 and subpart L of part 747 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special reserve for nonconforming investments.</I> State-chartered credit unions (except state-chartered corporate credit unions) are required to establish an additional special reserve for investments if those credit unions are permitted by their respective state laws to make investments beyond those authorized in the Act or the NCUA Rules and Regulations. For purposes of this paragraph, if a state-chartered credit union conducts and documents an analysis that reasonably concludes an investment is at least investment grade, as defined in § 703.2 of this chapter, and the investment is otherwise permissible for Federal credit unions, that investment is not considered to be beyond those authorized by the Act or the NCUA Rules and Regulations. For any investment other than loans to members and obligations or securities expressly authorized in title I of the Act and part 703 of this chapter, as amended, state-chartered credit unions (except state-chartered corporate credit unions) are required to establish and maintain at the end of each accounting period and prior to payment of any dividend, an Appropriation for Non-conforming Investments in an amount at least equal to the net excess of book value over current market value of the investments. If the market value cannot be determined, an amount equal to the full book value will be established. When at the end of any dividend period, the amount in the Appropriation for Non-conforming Investments exceeds the difference between book value and market value, the board of directors may authorize the transfer of the excess to Undivided Earnings. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial condition and policies.</I> The following factors are to be considered in determining whether the credit union's financial condition and policies are both safe and sound: 
</P>
<P>(1) The existence of unfavorable trends which may include excessive losses on loans (i.e., losses which exceed the regular reserve or its equivalent [in the case of state-chartered credit unions] plus other irrevocable reserves established as a contingency against losses on loans), the presence of special reserve accounts used specifically for charging off loan balances of deceased borrowers, and an expense ratio so high that the required transfers to reserves create a net operating loss for the period or that the net gain after these transfers is not sufficient to permit the payment of a nominal dividend; 
</P>
<P>(2) The existence of written lending policies, including adequate documentation of secured loans and the protection of security interests by recording, bond, insurance or other adequate means, adequate determination of the financial capacity of borrowers and co-makers for repayment of the loan, adequate determination of value of security on loans to ascertain that said security is adequate to repay the loan in the event of default, loan workout arrangements, and nonaccrual standards that include the discontinuance of interest accrual on loans past due by 90 days or more and requirements for returning such loans, including member business loans, to accrual status.
</P>
<P>(3) Investment policies which are within the provisions of applicable law and regulations, i.e., the Act and part 703 of this chapter for federal credit unions and the laws of the state in which the credit union operates for state-chartered credit unions, except state-chartered corporate credit unions. State-chartered corporate credit unions are permitted to make only those investments that are in conformance with part 704 of this chapter and applicable state laws and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(4) The presence of any account or security, the form of which has not been approved by the Board, except for accounts authorized by state law for state-chartered credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(5) The existence of a written interest rate risk policy (“IRR policy”) and an effective interest rate risk management program (“effective IRR program”) as part of asset liability management. Federally insured credit unions (“FICUs”) with assets of more than $50 million, as measured by the most recent Call Report filing, must adopt a written IRR policy and implement an effective IRR program. Appendix A to this part 741 provides guidance on how to develop an IRR policy and an effective IRR program. The guidance describes widely accepted best practices in the management of interest rate risk for the benefit of all FICUs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fitness of management.</I> The officers, directors, and committee members of the credit union must have conducted its operations in accordance with provisions of applicable law, regulations, its charter and bylaws. No person shall serve as a director, officer, committee member, or employee of an insured credit union who has been convicted of a crime covered under section 205(d) of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1785(d)), except with the written consent of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance of member accounts would not otherwise involve undue risk to the NCUSIF.</I> The credit union must maintain adequate fidelity bond coverage as specified in § 741.201. Any circumstances which may be unique to the particular credit union concerned shall also be considered in arriving at the determination of whether or not an undue risk to the NCUSIF is or may be present. For purposes of this section, the term “undue risk to the NCUSIF” is defined as a condition which creates a probability of loss in excess of that normally found in a credit union and which indicates a reasonably foreseeable probability of the credit union becoming insolvent because of such condition, with a resultant claim against the NCUSIF. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Powers and purposes.</I> The credit union must not perform services other than those which are consistent with the promotion of thrift and the creation of a source of credit for its members, except as otherwise permitted by law or regulation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Letter of disapproval.</I> A credit union whose application for share insurance is disapproved shall receive a letter indicating the reasons for such disapproval, a citation of the authority for such disapproval, and suggested methods by which the applying credit union may correct its deficiencies and thereby qualify for share insurance. 
</P>
<P>(g) Nothing in this section shall preclude the NCUA Board from imposing additional terms or conditions pursuant to the insurance agreement. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 41040, July 29, 1999; 65 FR 8593, Feb. 18, 2000; 67 FR 71094, Nov. 29, 2002; 77 FR 32001, May 31, 2012; 77 FR 5162, Feb. 2, 2012; 77 FR 74112, Dec. 13, 2012; 78 FR 4037, Jan. 18, 2013; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019; 89 FR 79393, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.4   Insurance premium and one percent deposit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section implements the requirements of Section 202 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782) providing for capitalization of the NCUSIF through the maintenance of a deposit by each insured credit union in an amount equaling one percent of its insured shares and payment of an insurance premium.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate amount of insured shares</I> means the sum of all insured shares reported by federally insured credit unions in calendar year-end Call Reports from the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate average amount of insured shares</I> means the sum of the average amount of insured shares as then reported by all financial institutions eligible to receive an NCUSIF equity distribution under subparagraph (e)(1) of this section in quarterly Call Reports over the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution divided by the number of reporting periods in that calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Available assets ratio</I> means the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount determined by subtracting—
</P>
<P>(A) Direct liabilities of the NCUSIF and contingent liabilities for which no provision for losses has been made from
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of cash and the market value of unencumbered investments authorized under § 203 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1783), to
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate amount of insured shares in all federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Average amount of insured shares</I> means the sum of insured shares as then reported by a financial institution eligible to receive an NCUSIF equity distribution under subparagraph (e)(1) of this section over the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution divided by the number of reporting periods in that calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the NCUA Board or any individual or group of individuals with the delegated authority to act on behalf of the Board to implement the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Equity ratio</I> means the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount determined by subtracting—
</P>
<P>(A) Direct liabilities of the NCUSIF and contingent liabilities for which no provision for losses has been made from
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of all one percent deposits made by federally insured credit unions pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section and the retained earnings balance of the NCUSIF, to
</P>
<P>(ii) The aggregate amount of insured shares in all federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Federally insured credit union</I> means a federal or state-chartered credit union that maintains federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF.
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> means a federally insured credit union, non-federally insured credit union, or an insured depository institution, including a liquidation or receivership estate of any such credit union or depository institution.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation pursuant to the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Insured shares</I> means the total amount of a federally insured credit union's share, share draft and share certificate accounts, or their equivalent under state law (which may include deposit accounts), authorized to be issued to members, other credit unions, public units, or nonmembers (where permitted under the Act or equivalent state law), but does not include amounts in excess of insurance coverage as provided in part 745 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Modified premium/distribution ratio</I> means one minus the premium/distribution ratio.
</P>
<P><I>National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund</I> or <I>NCUSIF</I> refers to a revolving fund established by Congress within the U.S. Treasury to provide federal share insurance coverage to federally insured credit union members and to offset the NCUA's administrative expenses associated with the conservatorship and liquidation of federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>NCUSIF equity distribution</I> means a distribution of excess equity from the NCUSIF to financial institutions eligible to receive a pro rata share of that distribution pursuant to the requirements of § 202 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1782) and the special rules set out in subparagraph (e)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Normal operating level</I> means an equity ratio not less than 1.2 percent and not more than 1.5 percent, as established by action of the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P><I>Premium/distribution ratio</I> means the number of full remaining months in the calendar year following the date of the institution's conversion or merger divided by 12.
</P>
<P><I>Reporting period</I> means span of time covered by a set of financial statements. For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, <I>reporting period</I> refers to a calendar year for federally insured credit unions with total assets of less than $50,000,000 and refers to a semiannual period for federally insured credit unions with total assets of $50,000,000 or more. For all other provisions of this section, <I>reporting period</I> refers to the span of time covered by a quarterly Call Report.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>One percent deposit.</I> Each insured credit union must maintain with the NCUSIF during each reporting period a deposit in an amount equaling one percent of the total of the credit union's insured shares at the close of the preceding reporting period. For credit unions with total assets of less than $50,000,000, insured shares will be measured and adjusted annually based on the insured shares reported in the credit union's 5300 report for December 31 of each year. For credit unions with total assets of $50,000,000 or more, insured shares will be measured and adjusted semiannually based on the insured shares reported in the credit union's 5300 reports for December 31 and June 30 of each year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance premium charges</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Each insured credit union will pay to the NCUSIF, on dates the NCUA Board determines, but not more than twice in any calendar year, an insurance premium in an amount stated as a percentage of insured shares, which will be the same percentage for all insured credit unions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relation of premium charge to equity ratio of NCUSIF.</I> (i) The NCUA Board may assess a premium charge only if the NCUSIF's equity ratio is less than 1.3 percent and the premium charge does not exceed the amount necessary to restore the equity ratio to 1.3 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the equity ratio of the NCUSIF falls to between 1.0 and 1.2 percent, the NCUA Board is required to assess a premium in an amount it determines is necessary to restore the equity ratio to at least 1.2 percent, as provided for in the restoration plan adopted under Section 202(c)(2)(D) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782(c)(20)(D)). If the equity ratio of the NCUSIF falls below 1.0 percent, the NCUA Board is required to assess a deposit replenishment charge in an amount it determines is necessary to restore the equity ratio to 1.0 percent and to assess a premium charge in an amount it determines is necessary to restore the equity ratio to, at least 1.2 percent, as provided for in the restoration plan adopted under Section 202(c)(2)(D) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782(c)(20)(D)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> Except as otherwise provided for by federal law or regulation, the following procedures shall apply to any NCUSIF equity distribution declared by the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Eligibility for an NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> The Board shall make an NCUSIF equity distribution to any financial institution that files at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the calendar year for which the Board declares the NCUSIF equity distribution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirement to make an NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> The Board shall make an NCUSIF equity distribution on a pro rata basis to financial institutions after each calendar year if, as of the end of the calendar year:
</P>
<P>(i) Any loans to the NCUSIF from the Federal Government, and any interest on those loans, have been repaid;
</P>
<P>(ii) The NCUSIF's equity ratio exceeds the normal operating level; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The NCUSIF's available assets ratio exceeds one percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amount of NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> The Board shall make the maximum possible NCUSIF equity distribution that does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Reduce the NCUSIF's equity ratio below the normal operating level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reduce the NCUSIF's available assets ratio below one percent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form of NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> The Board shall have the discretion to determine the form of an NCUSIF equity distribution including a waiver of federal share insurance premiums, a rebate of federal share insurance premiums, a dividend, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of pro rata share of NCUSIF equity distribution.</I> The Board shall determine a financial institution's pro rata share of an NCUSIF equity distribution by dividing the dollar amount of the declared NCUSIF equity distribution by the aggregate average amount of insured shares for that calendar year and then multiplying by a financial institution's average amount of insured shares.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Special rules.</I> The following special rules shall apply to newly chartered federally insured credit unions, financial institutions that convert to federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF, financial institutions that terminate federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF, mergers between federally insured credit unions, and purchase and assumption transactions:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>New charters.</I> A newly chartered federally insured credit union that obtains federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF during the calendar year shall not receive an NCUSIF equity distribution for that calendar year unless the federally insured credit union has filed at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the calendar year for which the Board has declared a distribution. For purposes of calculating the newly chartered federally insured credit union's average amount of insured shares, the federally insured credit union shall be treated as having no insured shares for reporting periods preceding the first reporting period in which the federally insured credit union files its first quarterly Call Report.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Conversion to federal share insurance.</I> A financial institution that converts to federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF during the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution (including through merger into a federally insured credit union) shall receive a prorated NCUSIF equity distribution for that calendar year provided that the financial institution has filed at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the applicable calendar year. For purposes of calculating the financial institution's average amount of insured shares, the financial institution shall be treated as having no insured shares for reporting periods preceding the date of conversion to federal share insurance coverage. In cases of conversion through merger, only the insured shares attributable to the continuing federally insured credit union shall be used to determine the average amount of insured shares for reporting periods preceding the date of conversion.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Conversion from, or termination of, federal share insurance.</I> A financial institution that terminates federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF during the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution (including through a conversion to, or merger into, a non-federally insured credit union or an insured depository institution) shall receive a prorated NCUSIF equity distribution for that calendar year provided that the financial institution has filed at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the applicable calendar year. For purposes of calculating the financial institution's average amount of insured shares, the financial institution shall be treated as having no insured shares for reporting periods following the date of termination of federal share insurance coverage. For purposes of this subparagraph, a financial institution that terminates federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF through liquidation will be treated as terminating federal share insurance coverage during the calendar year when it enters liquidation.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Mergers between federally insured credit unions.</I> A federally insured credit union that merges with a federally insured credit union shall receive an equity distribution equivalent to what the continuing federally insured credit union and the merging federally insured credit union would have received separately but for the consummation of the merger provided that the merging federally insured credit union has filed at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the calendar year for which the Board declares the distribution. For purposes of calculating the continuing federally insured credit union's average amount of insured shares, any insured shares previously reported by the merging federally insured credit union on its quarterly Call Reports filed prior to the consummation of the merger during that calendar year for which the Board declares the distribution shall be combined with the insured shares reported on the continuing federally insured credit union's quarterly Call Reports.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Purchase and assumption transactions.</I> A federally insured credit union that acquires all of the insured shares of another federally insured credit union in the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution shall receive an amount equivalent to what the acquiring federally insured credit union and the selling federally insured credit union would have received but for the consummation of the purchase and assumption transaction provided that the selling federally insured credit union has filed at least one quarterly Call Report as a federally insured credit union for a reporting period in the calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution. For purposes of calculating the acquiring federally insured credit union's average amount of insured shares, any insured shares previously reported during that calendar year for which the Board declares an NCUSIF equity distribution by the selling federally insured credit union on its quarterly Call Reports filed prior to the consummation of the purchase and assumption transaction shall be combined with the insured shares reported on the acquiring federally insured credit union's quarterly Call Reports.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Invoices.</I> The NCUA provides invoices to all federally insured credit unions stating any change in the amount of a credit union's one percent deposit and the computation and funding of any NCUSIF premium or deposit replenishment assessments due. Invoices for federal credit unions also include any annual operating fees that are due. Invoices are calculated based on a credit union's insured shares as of the most recently ended reporting period. The invoices may also provide for any distribution the NCUA Board declares in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, resulting in a single net transfer of funds between a credit union and the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>New charters.</I> A newly-chartered credit union that obtains share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF during the calendar year in which it has obtained its charter will not be required to pay for insurance for that calendar year. The credit union will fund its one percent deposit on a date to be determined by the NCUA Board in the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Depletion of one percent deposit.</I> All or part of the one percent deposit may be used by the NCUSIF if necessary to meet its expenses. The NCUSIF may invoice credit unions in an amount necessary to replenish the one percent deposit at any time following the effective date of the depletion.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conversion to Federal insurance.</I> (1) A credit union or other institution that converts to insurance coverage with the NCUSIF will:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately fund its one percent deposit based on the total of its insured shares as of the last day of the most recently ended reporting period prior to the date of conversion;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the NCUSIF assesses a premium in the calendar year of conversion, pay a premium based on the institution's insured shares as of the last day of the most recently ended reporting period preceding the invoice date times the institution's premium/distribution ratio;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the NCUSIF declares, in the calendar year of conversion on or before the date of conversion, an assessment to replenish the one-percent deposit, pay nothing related to that assessment;
</P>
<P>(iv) If the NCUSIF declares, at any time after the date of conversion through the end of that calendar year, an assessment to replenish the one-percent deposit, pay a replenishment amount based on the institution's insured shares as of the last day of the most recently ended reporting period preceding the invoice date; and
</P>
<P>(2) A federally insured credit union that merges with a non-federally insured credit union or other non-federally insured institution (the “merging institution”), where the federally insured credit union is the continuing institution, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Immediately on the date of merger increase the amount of its NCUSIF deposit by an amount equal to one percent of the merging institution's insured shares as of the last day of the merging institution's most recently ended reporting period preceding the date of merger;
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to any NCUSIF premiums assessed in the calendar year of merger, pay a two-part premium, with one part calculated on the merging institution's insured shares as described in paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, and the other part calculated on the continuing institution's insured shares as of the last day of its most recently ended reporting period preceding the date of merger; and
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Conversion from, or termination of, Federal share insurance.</I> (1) A federally insured credit union whose insurance coverage with the NCUSIF terminates, including through a conversion to, or merger into, a non-federally insured credit union or a noncredit union entity, will:
</P>
<P>(i) Receive the full amount of its NCUSIF deposit paid, less any amounts applied to cover NCUSIF losses that exceed NCUSIF retained earnings, immediately after the final date on which any shares of the credit union are NCUSIF-insured;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the NCUSIF assesses a premium in the calendar year of conversion or merger on or before the day in which the conversion or merger is completed, pay a prorated premium based on the financial institution's insured shares as of the last day of the most recently ended reporting period preceding the conversion or merger multiplied by the ratio of the amount of full calendar months for which the financial institution maintained federal share insurance coverage from the NCUSIF to the number of full calendar months for the entire calendar year. If the financial institution has previously paid a premium based on this same assessment that exceeds this amount, the financial institution will receive a refund of the difference following the completion of the conversion or merger.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (j)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Any insolvent credit union that is closed for involuntary liquidation will not be entitled to a return of its deposit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any solvent credit union that is closed due to voluntary or involuntary liquidation will be entitled to a return of its deposit paid, less any amounts applied to cover NCUSIF losses that exceed NCUSIF retained earnings, prior to final distribution of member shares; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The Board reserves the right to delay return of the deposit to any credit union converting from or terminating its federal insurance, or voluntarily liquidating, for up to one year if the Board determines that immediate repayment would jeopardize the NCUSIF.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Assessment of administrative fee and interest for delinquent payment.</I> Each federally insured credit union must pay to the NCUA an administrative fee, the costs of collection, and interest on any delinquent payment of its capitalization deposit or insurance premium. A payment will be considered delinquent if it is postmarked or electronically posted later than the date stated in the invoice provided to the credit union. The NCUA may waive or abate charges or collection of interest, if circumstances warrant.
</P>
<P>(1) The administrative fee for a delinquent payment shall be an amount as fixed from time to time by the NCUA Board based upon the administrative costs of such delinquent payments to the NCUA in the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(2) The costs of collection shall be calculated as the actual hours expended by NCUA personnel multiplied by the average hourly cost of the salaries and benefits of such personnel.
</P>
<P>(3) The interest rate charged on any delinquent payment shall be the U.S. Department of the Treasury Tax and loan Rate in effect on the date when the loan payment is due as provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</P>
<P>(4) The Act contains specific penalties and other consequences for delinquent payments, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 202(d)(2)(B) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782(d)(2)(B)) provides that the Board may assess and collect a penalty from an insured credit union, up to the amount specified in § 747.1001 of this chapter, for each day the credit union fails or refuses to pay any deposit or premium due to the fund; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 202(d)(3) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782(d)(3)) provides, generally, that no insured credit union shall pay any dividends on its insured shares or distribute any of its assets while it remains in default in the payment of its deposit or any premium charge due to the fund. Section 202(d)(3) further provides that any director or officer of any insured credit union who knowingly participates in the declaration or payment of any such dividend or in any such distribution shall, upon conviction, be fined not more than $1,000 or imprisoned more than one year, or both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 63279, Jan. 4, 2010, as amended at 76 FR 60367, Sept. 29, 2011; 80 FR 57288, Sept. 23, 2015; 83 FR 7960, Feb. 23, 2018; 83 FR 14741, Apr. 6, 2018; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.5   Notice of termination of excess insurance coverage.</HEAD>
<P>In the event of a credit union's termination of share insurance coverage other than that provided by the NCUSIF, the credit union must notify all members in writing of such termination at least thirty days prior to the effective date of termination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.6   Financial and statistical and other reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon written notice from the NCUA Board, Regional Director, Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance, or Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision, insured credit unions must file financial and other reports in accordance with the instructions in the notice. Insured credit unions must use NCUA's information management system, or other electronic means specified by NCUA, to submit their data online.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit Union Profile.</I> Insured credit unions must submit to NCUA a Credit Union Profile, NCUA Form 4501 or its equivalent, within 10 days after an election or appointment of senior management or volunteer officials or within 30 days of any change of the information in the profile.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial and statistical report.</I> Natural person credit unions must file a Call Report with NCUA quarterly in accordance with the instructions in the NCUA Form 5300. Corporate credit unions must file a Corporate Credit Union Call Report with NCUA monthly in accordance with the instructions in the NCUA Form 5310. Credit unions must submit a corrected Call Report upon notification or the discovery of a need for correction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consistency with GAAP.</I> The accounts of financial statements and reports required to be filed quarterly under paragraph (a) of this section must reflect GAAP if the credit union has total assets of $10 million or greater, but may reflect regulatory accounting principles other than GAAP if the credit union has total assets of less than $10 million (except that a Federally insured State-chartered credit union may be required by its state credit union supervisor to follow GAAP regardless of asset size).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>GAAP sources.</I> GAAP means generally accepted accounting principles, as defined in § 715.2(e) of this chapter. GAAP is distinct from GAAS, which means generally accepted auditing standards, as defined in § 715.2(f) of this chapter. Authoritative sources of GAAP include, but are not limited to, pronouncements of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and its predecessor organizations, the Accounting Standards Executive Committee (AcSEC) of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA), the FASB's Emerging Issues Task Force (EITF), and the applicable AICPA Audit and Accounting Guide.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 41040, July 29, 1999; 67 FR 12464, Mar. 19, 2002; 71 FR 4034, Jan. 25, 2006; 74 FR 35769, July 21, 2009; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 78 FR 64885, Oct. 30, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.7   Conversion to a state-chartered credit union.</HEAD>
<P>Any federal credit union that petitions to convert to a state-chartered federally insured credit union is required to apply to the Regional Director for continued insurance of its accounts and meet the requirements as stated in the Act and this part. If the application for continued insurance is not approved, such insurance will terminate subject to the conditions set forth in section 206(d) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.8   Purchase of assets and assumption of liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) must receive approval from the NCUA before purchasing loans or assuming an assignment of deposits, shares, or liabilities from:
</P>
<P>(1) Any credit union that is not insured by the NCUSIF;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other financial-type institution (including depository institutions, mortgage banks, consumer finance companies, insurance companies, loan brokers, and other loan sellers or liability traders); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any successor in interest to any institution identified in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Approval is not required for:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases of student loans or real estate secured loans to facilitate the packaging of a pool of loans to be sold or pledged on the secondary market under § 701.23(b)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this chapter or comparable state law for state-chartered credit unions, or purchases of member loans under § 701.23(b)(1)(i) of this chapter or comparable state law for state-chartered credit unions;
</P>
<P>(2) Assumption of deposits, shares or liabilities as rollovers or transfers of member retirement accounts or in which a federally insured credit union perfects a security interest in connection with an extension of credit to any member.
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases of assets, including loans, or assumptions of deposits, shares, or liabilities by any credit union insured by the NCUSIF from another credit union insured by the NCUSIF, except a purchase or assumption as a part of a merger under part 708b; or
</P>
<P>(4) Purchases of loan participations as defined in and meeting the requirements of § 701.22 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(c) A credit union seeking approval under paragraph (a) of this section must submit a request for approval to the appropriate regional director. The request must state the nature of the transaction and include copies of all relevant transaction documents. The regional director will approve or disapprove the request as soon as possible depending on the complexity of the proposed transaction. Credit unions should submit a request for approval in sufficient time to close the transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 75725, Dec. 21, 2005, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 78 FR 37958, June 25, 2013; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.9   Uninsured membership shares.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured pursuant to title II of the Act may not offer membership shares that, due to the terms and conditions of the account, are not eligible for insurance coverage. This prohibition does not apply to shares that are uninsured solely because the amount is in excess of the maximum insurance coverage provided pursuant to part 745 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.10   Disclosure of share insurance.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act and is permitted by state law to accept nonmember shares or deposits from sources other than other credit unions and public units (or, for low-income designated credit unions, any nonmembers), shall identify such nonmember accounts as nonmember shares or deposits on any statement or report required by the NCUA Board for insurance purposes. Immediately after a state-chartered credit union receives notice from NCUA that its member accounts are federally insured, the credit union shall advise any present nonmember share and deposit holders by letter that their accounts are not insured by the NCUSIF. Also, future nonmember share and deposit fund holders will be so advised by letter as they open accounts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.11   Foreign branching.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application and prior NCUA approval required.</I> Any credit union insured under title II of the Act must apply for and receive approval from the regional director before establishing a credit union branch outside the United States unless the foreign branch is located on a United States military instillation or embassy outside the United States. The regional director will have 60 days to approve or deny the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of application.</I> The application must include a business plan, written approval by the state supervisory agency if the applicant is a state-chartered credit union, and documentation evidencing written permission from the host country to establish the branch that explicitly recognizes NCUA's authority to examine and take any enforcement action, including conservatorship and liquidation actions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of business plan.</I> The written business plan must address the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Analysis of market conditions in the area where the branch is to be established;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit union's plan for addressing foreign currency risk;
</P>
<P>(3) Operating facilities, including office space/equipment and supplies;
</P>
<P>(4) Safeguarding of assets, bond coverage, insurance coverage, and records preservation;
</P>
<P>(5) Written policies regarding the branch (shares, lending, capital, charge-offs, collections);
</P>
<P>(6) The field of membership or portion of the field of membership to be served through the foreign branch and the financial needs of the members to be served and services and products to be provided;
</P>
<P>(7) Detailed <I>pro forma</I> financial statements for branch operations (balance sheet and income and expense projections) for the first and second year including assumptions;
</P>
<P>(8) Internal controls including cash disbursal procedures for shares and loans at the branch;
</P>
<P>(9) Accounting procedures used to identify branch activity and performance; and
</P>
<P>(10) Foreign income taxation and employment law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revocation of approval.</I> A State regulator that revokes approval of the branch office must notify NCUA of the action once it issues the notice of revocation. The regional director may revoke approval of the branch office for failure to follow the business plan in a material respect or for substantive and documented safety and soundness reasons. If the regional director revokes the approval, the credit union will have six months from the date of the revocation letter to terminate the operations of the branch. The credit union can request reconsideration of the revocation and/or appeal this revocation to the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insurance coverage.</I> Accounts at foreign branches are insured by the NCUSIF only if denominated in U.S. dollars and only if payable, by the terms of the account agreement, at a U.S. office of the credit union. If the host country requires insurance from its own system, accounts will not be insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 23030, Apr. 30, 2003, as amended at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.12   Liquidity and contingency funding plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union insured pursuant to Title II of the Act that has assets of less than $50 million must maintain a basic written policy that provides a credit union board-approved framework for managing liquidity and a list of contingent liquidity sources that can be employed under adverse circumstances.
</P>
<P>(b) Any credit union insured pursuant to Title II of the Act that has assets of $50 million or more must establish and document a contingency funding plan (CFP) that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the requirement specified in paragraph (b) of this section to establish and maintain a CFP, any credit union insured pursuant to Title II of the Act that has assets of $250 million or more must establish and document access to at least one contingent federal liquidity source for use in times of financial emergency and distressed economic circumstances. These credit unions must conduct advance planning and periodic testing to ensure that contingent funding sources are readily available when needed. A credit union subject to this paragraph may demonstrate access to a contingent federal liquidity source by:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintaining regular membership in the Central Liquidity Facility (Facility), as described in part 725 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining membership in the Facility through an Agent, as described in part 725 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(3) Establishing borrowing access at the Federal Reserve Discount Window by filing the necessary lending agreements and corporate resolutions to obtain credit from a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to 12 CFR part 201.
</P>
<P>(d) Contingency Funding Plan: A credit union must have a written CFP commensurate with its complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations that sets out strategies for addressing liquidity shortfalls in emergency situations. The CFP may be a separate policy or may be incorporated into an existing policy such as an asset/liability policy, a funds management policy, or a business continuity policy. The CFP must address, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The sufficiency of the institution's liquidity sources to meet normal operating requirements as well as contingent events;
</P>
<P>(2) The identification of contingent liquidity sources;
</P>
<P>(3) Policies to manage a range of stress environments, identification of some possible stress events, and identification of likely liquidity responses to such events;
</P>
<P>(4) Lines of responsibility within the institution to respond to liquidity events;
</P>
<P>(5) Management processes that include clear implementation and escalation procedures for liquidity events; and
</P>
<P>(6) The frequency that the institution will test and update the plan.
</P>
<P>(e) A credit union is subject to the requirements of paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section when two consecutive Call Reports show its assets to be at least $50 million or $250 million, respectively. A FICU then has 120 days from the effective date of that second Call Report to meet the greater requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 64883, Oct. 30, 2013]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Regulations Codified Elsewhere in NCUA's Regulations as Applying to Federal Credit Unions That Also Apply to Federally Insured State-Chartered Credit Unions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.201   Minimum fidelity bond requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union which makes application for insurance of its accounts pursuant to title II of the Act must possess the minimum fidelity bond coverage stated in §§ 713.3, 713.5, and 713.6 in order for its application for such insurance to be approved and for such insurance coverage to continue. A federally insured credit union whose fidelity bond coverage is terminated shall mail notice of such termination to the Regional Director not less than 35 days prior to the effective date of such termination. 
</P>
<P>(b) Corporate credit unions must comply with § 704.18 of this chapter in lieu of part 713 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 28721, May 27, 1999; 70 FR 61716, Oct. 26, 2005; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.202   Audit and verification requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The supervisory committee of each credit union insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall make or cause to be made an audit of the credit union at least once every calendar year covering the period elapsed since the last audit. The audit must fully meet the applicable requirements set forth in part 715 of this chapter or applicable state law, whichever requirement is more stringent. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall verify or cause to be verified, under controlled conditions, all passbooks and accounts with the records of the financial officer not less frequently than once every 2 years. The verification must fully meet the requirements set forth in § 715.8 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 64 FR 41040, July 29, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.203   Minimum loan policy requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Adhere to the requirements stated in part 723 of this chapter concerning commercial lending and member business loans, § 701.21(c)(8) of this chapter concerning prohibited fees, and § 701.21(d)(5) of this chapter concerning non-preferential loans. Federally insured state chartered credit unions in a given state are exempt from these requirements if the state supervisory authority for that state adopts substantially equivalent regulations as determined by the NCUA Board or, in the case of the commercial lending and member business loan requirements, if the state supervisory authority administers a state commercial and member business loan rule for use by federally insured credit unions chartered in that state that at least covers all the provisions in part 723 of this chapter and is no less restrictive, upon determination by NCUA. In nonexempt states, all required NCUA reviews and approvals will be handled in coordination with the state credit union supervisory authority; and 


</P>
<P>(b) Adhere to the requirements stated in part 722 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) Adhere to the requirements stated in § 701.21(h) of this chapter concerning third-party servicing of indirect vehicle loans. Before a state-chartered credit union applies to a regional director for a waiver under § 701.21(h)(2), it must first notify its state supervisory authority. The regional director will not grant a waiver unless the appropriate state official concurs in the waiver. The 45-day period for the regional director to act on a waiver request, as described § 701.21(h)(3), will not begin until the regional director has received the state official's concurrence and any other necessary information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 63 FR 51802, Sept. 29, 1998; 64 FR 28733, May 27, 1999; 71 FR 36667, June 28, 2006; 81 FR 13559, Mar. 14, 2016; 89 FR 64577, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.204" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.204   Maximum public unit and nonmember accounts, and low-income designation.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured, or that makes application for insurance, pursuant to title II of the Act must: 
</P>
<P>(a) Adhere to the requirements of § 701.32 of this chapter regarding public unit and nonmember accounts, provided it has the authority to accept such accounts.
</P>
<P>(b) Obtain a low-income designation in order to accept nonmember accounts, other than from public units or other credit unions, provided it has the authority to accept such accounts under state law. The state regulator shall make the low-income designation with the concurrence of NCUA. The designation will be made and reviewed by the state regulator on the same basis as that provided in § 701.34(a) of this chapter for federal credit unions. Removal of the designation by the state regulator for such credit unions shall be with the concurrence of NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(c) Follow the requirements of § 702.414 of this chapter for any Grandfathered Secondary Capital (as defined in part 702 of this chapter).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 61 FR 3792, Feb. 2, 1996; 71 FR 4240, Jan. 26, 2006; 78 FR 4032, Jan. 18, 2013; 84 FR 58309, Oct. 31, 2019; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020; 86 FR 11085, Feb. 23, 2021; 86 FR 72809, Dec. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.205" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.205   Reporting requirements for credit unions that are newly chartered or in troubled condition.</HEAD>
<P>Any federally insured credit union chartered for less than 2 years or any credit union defined to be in troubled condition as set forth in § 701.14(b)(3) of this chapter must adhere to the requirements stated in § 701.14(c) of this chapter concerning the prior notice and NCUA review. Federally insured state-chartered credit unions must submit required information to both the appropriate NCUA Regional Director and their state supervisor. NCUA will consult with the state supervisor before making its determination. NCUA will notify the state supervisor of its approval/disapproval no later than the time that it notifies the affected individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 78 FR 4029, Jan. 18, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.206" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.206   Corporate credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>Any corporate credit union insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements of part 704 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.207" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.207   Community development revolving loan program for credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act and is a “participating credit union,” as defined in § 705.2 of this chapter, shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 705 of this chapter. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 58504, Nov. 28, 1995, as amended at 76 FR 67591, Nov. 2, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.208" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.208   Mergers of federally insured credit unions: voluntary termination or conversion of insured status.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act and which merges with another credit union or non-credit union institution, and any state-chartered credit union which voluntarily terminates its status as a federally insured credit union, or converts from federal insurance to other insurance from a government or private source authorized to insure member accounts, shall adhere to the applicable requirements stated in section 206 of the Act and parts 708a and 708b of this chapter concerning mergers and voluntary termination or conversion of insured status. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.209" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.209   Management official interlocks.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 711 of this chapter concerning management official interlocks, issued under the provisions of the Depository Institution Management Interlocks Act (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.</I>). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.210" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.210   Central liquidity facility.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act and is a member of the Central Liquidity Facility, shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 725 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.211" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.211   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements prescribed by part 740 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.212" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.212   Share insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Member share accounts received by any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act in its usual course of business, including regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts, are insured subject to the limitations and rules in subpart A of part 745 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The payment of share insurance and the appeal process applicable to any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act are addressed in subpart B of part 745 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.213" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.213   Administrative actions, adjudicative hearings, rules of practice and procedure.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the applicable rules of practice and procedures for administrative actions and adjudicative hearings prescribed by part 747 of this chapter. Subpart E of part 747 of this chapter applies only to federal credit unions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.214" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.214   Report of crime or catastrophic act and Bank Secrecy Act compliance.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 748 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.215" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.215   Records preservation program.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall maintain a records preservation program as prescribed by part 749 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.216" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.216   Flood insurance.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 760 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.217" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.217   Truth in savings.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the requirements stated in part 707 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.218" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.218   Involuntary liquidation and creditor claims.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act shall adhere to the applicable provisions in part 709 of this chapter. Section 709.3 of this chapter applies only to federal credit unions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.219" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.219   Investment requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements stated in part 703 of this chapter concerning transacting business with corporate credit unions.
</P>
<P>(b) Any credit union that is insured pursuant to title II of the Act must notify the applicable NCUA Regional Director in writing within five business days after entering into its first Derivatives transaction. Such transactions do not include those included in § 703.14 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 5247, Jan. 31, 2014, as amended at 86 FR 28250, May 26, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.220" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.220   Privacy of consumer financial information.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements stated in part 1016 of this title (Regulation P).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 31750, May 18, 2000, as amended at 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.221" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.221   Suretyship and guaranty requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union, which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act, must adhere to the requirements in § 701.20 of this chapter. State-chartered, NCUSIF-insured credit unions may only enter into suretyship and guaranty agreements to the extent authorized under state law. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[69 FR 8548, Feb. 25, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.222" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.222   Credit union service organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any credit union that is insured pursuant to Title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements in §§ 712.2(d)(2)(ii), 712.3(d), 712.4 and 712.11(b) and (c) of this chapter concerning permissible investment limits for less than adequately capitalized credit unions, agreements between credit unions and their credit union service organizations (CUSOs), the requirement to maintain separate corporate identities, and investments and loans to CUSOs investing in other CUSOs. For purposes of this section, a CUSO is any entity in which a credit union has an ownership interest or to which a credit union has extended a loan, and that entity is engaged primarily in providing products or services to credit unions or credit union members, or, in the case of checking and currency services, including cashing checks and money orders for a fee, and selling negotiable checks, including travelers checks, money orders, and other similar money transfer instruments (including international and domestic electronic fund transfers and remittance transfers, as defined in section 919 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693o-1), to persons eligible for membership in any credit union having a loan, investment or contract with the entity. A CUSO also includes any entity in which a CUSO has an ownership interest of any amount, if that entity is engaged primarily in providing products or services to credit unions or credit union members.
</P>
<P>(b) This section shall have no preemptive effect with respect to the laws or rules of any state providing for access to CUSO books and records or CUSO examination by credit union regulatory authorities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 72550, Dec. 3, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.223" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.223   Registration of residential mortgage loan originators.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union which is insured pursuant to title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements stated in part 1007 of this title (Regulation G).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 44704, July 28, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.224" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.224   Golden parachute and indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union insured pursuant to title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements stated in part 750 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.225" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.225   Loan participations.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured pursuant to Title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements stated in § 701.22 of this chapter, except that federally insured state-chartered credit unions are exempt from the requirement in § 701.22(b)(4). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 37958, June 25, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.226" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.226   Subordinated Debt.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured, or that makes application for insurance, pursuant to title II of the Act must follow the requirements of subpart D of part 702 of this chapter before it may issue Subordinated Debt, as that term is defined in § 702.402 of this chapter, and to the extent not inconsistent with applicable state law and regulation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11085, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.227" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.227   Loans to credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured pursuant to Title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements in § 701.25 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 11085, Feb. 23, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 741.228" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 741.228   Succession planning.</HEAD>
<P>Any credit union that is insured pursuant to Title II of the Act must adhere to the requirements in § 701.4(b)(3) and (e) of this chapter, to the extent these regulatory provisions do not conflict with an applicable state requirement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 104877, Dec. 26, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.29.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 741—Guidance for an Interest Rate Risk Policy and an Effective Program
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2>I. Introduction
</FP-2>
<P>A. Complexity
</P>
<P>B. IRR Exposure
</P>
<FP-2>II. IRR Policy
</FP-2>
<FP-2>III. IRR Oversight and Management
</FP-2>
<P>A. Board of Directors Oversight
</P>
<P>B. Management Responsibilities
</P>
<FP-2>IV. IRR Measurement and Monitoring
</FP-2>
<P>A. Risk Measurement Systems
</P>
<P>B. Risk Measurement Methods
</P>
<P>C. Components of IRR Measurement Methods
</P>
<FP-2>V. Internal Controls
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VI. Decision-Making Informed by IRR Measurement Systems
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VII. Guidelines for Adequacy of IRR Policy and Effectiveness of Program
</FP-2>
<FP-2>VIII. Additional Guidance for Large Credit Unions With Complex or High Risk Balance Sheets
</FP-2>
<FP-2>IX. Definitions
</FP-2>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides guidance to FICUs in developing an interest rate risk (IRR) policy and program that addresses aspects of asset liability management in a single framework. An effective IRR management program identifies, measures, monitors, and controls IRR and is central to safe and sound credit union operations. Given the differences among credit unions, each credit union should use the guidance in this appendix to formulate a policy that embodies its own practices, metrics and benchmarks appropriate to its operations.
</P>
<P>These practices should be established in light of the nature of the credit union's operations and business, as well as its complexity, risk exposure, and size. As these elements increase, NCUA believes the IRR practices should be implemented with increasing degrees of rigor and diligence to maintain safe and sound operations in the area of IRR management. In particular, rigor and diligence are required to manage complexity and risk exposure. Complexity relates to the intricacy of financial instrument structure, and to the composition of assets and liabilities on the balance sheet. In the case of financial instruments, the structure can have numerous characteristics that act simultaneously to affect the behavior of the instrument. In the case of the balance sheet, which contains multiple instruments, assets and liabilities can act in ways that are compounding or can be offsetting because their impact on the IRR level may act in the same or opposite directions. High degrees of risk exposure require a credit union to be diligently aware of the potential earnings and net worth exposures under various interest rate and business environments because the margin for error is low.
</P>
<HD2>A. Complexity
</HD2>
<P>In influencing the behavior of instruments and balance sheet composition, complexity is a function of the predictability of the cash flows. As cash flows become less predictable, the uncertainty of both instrument and balance sheet behavior increases. For example, a residential mortgage is subject to prepayments that will change at the option of the borrower. Mortgage borrowers may pay off their mortgage loans due to geographical relocation, or may increase the amount of their monthly payment above the minimum contractual schedule due to other changes in the borrower's circumstances. This cash flow unpredictability is also found in investments, such as collateralized mortgage obligations, because these contain mortgage loans. Additionally, cash flow unpredictability affects liabilities. For example, nonmaturity share balances vary at the discretion of the depositor making deposits and withdrawals, and this may be influenced by a credit union's pricing of its share accounts.
</P>
<HD2>B. IRR Exposure
</HD2>
<P>Exposure to IRR is the vulnerability of a credit union's financial condition to adverse movements in market interest rates. Although some IRR exposure is a normal part of financial intermediation, a high degree of this exposure may negatively affect a credit union's earnings and net economic value. Changes in interest rates influence a credit union's earnings by altering interest-sensitive income and expenses (<I>e.g.</I> loan income and share dividends). Changes in interest rates also affect the economic value of a credit union's assets and liabilities, because the present value of future cash flows and, in some cases, the cash flows themselves may change when interest rates change. Consequently, the management of a credit union's pricing strategy is critical to the control of IRR exposure.
</P>
<P>All FICUs required to have an IRR policy and program should incorporate the following five elements into their IRR program:
</P>
<P>1. Board-approved IRR policy.
</P>
<P>2. Oversight by the board of directors and implementation by management.
</P>
<P>3. Risk measurement systems assessing the IRR sensitivity of earnings and/or asset and liability values.
</P>
<P>4. Internal controls to monitor adherence to IRR limits.
</P>
<P>5. Decision making that is informed and guided by IRR measures.
</P>
<HD1>II. IRR Policy
</HD1>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of an IRR policy and its limits. The policy should be consistent with the credit union's business strategies and should reflect the board's risk tolerance, taking into account the credit union's financial condition and risk measurement systems and methods commensurate with the balance sheet structure. The policy should state actions and authorities required for exceptions to policy, limits, and authorizations.
</P>
<P>Credit unions have the option of either creating a separate IRR policy or incorporating it into investment, ALM, funds management, liquidity or other policies. Regardless of form, credit unions must clearly document their IRR policy in writing.
</P>
<P>The scope of the policy will vary depending on the complexity of the credit union's balance sheet. For example, a credit union that offers short-term loans, invests in non-complex or short-term bullet investments (<I>i.e.</I> a debt security that returns 100 percent of principal on the maturity date), and offers basic share products may not need to create an elaborate policy. The policy for these credit unions may limit the loan portfolio maturity, require a minimum amount of short-term funds, and restrict the types of permissible investments (<I>e.g.</I> Treasuries, bullet investments). More complex balance sheets, especially those containing mortgage loans and complex investments, may warrant a comprehensive IRR policy due to the uncertainty of cash flows.
</P>
<P>The policy should establish responsibilities and procedures for identifying, measuring, monitoring, controlling, and reporting IRR, and establish risk limits. A written policy should:
</P>
<P>• Identify committees, persons or other parties responsible for review of the credit union's IRR exposure;
</P>
<P>• Direct appropriate actions to ensure management takes steps to manage IRR so that IRR exposures are identified, measured, monitored, and controlled;
</P>
<P>• State the frequency with which management will report on measurement results to the board to ensure routine review of information that is timely (<I>e.g.</I> current and at least quarterly) and in sufficient detail to assess the credit union's IRR profile;
</P>
<P>• Set risk limits for IRR exposures based on selected measures (<I>e.g.</I> limits for changes in repricing or duration gaps, income simulation, asset valuation, or net economic value);
</P>
<P>• Choose tests, such as interest rate shocks, that the credit union will perform using the selected measures;
</P>
<P>• Provide for periodic review of material changes in IRR exposures and compliance with board approved policy and risk limits;
</P>
<P>• Provide for assessment of the IRR impact of any new business activities prior to implementation (<I>e.g.</I> evaluate the IRR profile of introducing a new product or service); and
</P>
<P>• Provide for at least an annual evaluation of policy to determine whether it is still commensurate with the size, complexity, and risk profile of the credit union.
</P>
<P>IRR policy limits should maintain risk exposures within prudent levels. Examples of limits are as follows:
</P>
<P><I>GAP:</I> less than ±I 10 percent change in any given period, or cumulatively over 12 months.
</P>
<P><I>Income Simulation:</I> net interest income after shock change less than 20 percent over any 12-month period.
</P>
<P><I>Asset Valuation:</I> after shock change in book value of net worth less than 50 percent, or after shock net worth of 4 percent or greater.
</P>
<P><I>Net Economic Value:</I> after shock change in net economic value less than 25 percent, or after shock net economic value of 6 percent or greater.
</P>
<P>NCUA emphasizes these are only for illustrative purposes, and management should establish its own limits that are reasonably supported. Where appropriate, management may also set IRR limits for individual portfolios, activities, and lines of business.
</P>
<HD1>III. IRR Oversight and Management
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Board of Directors Oversight
</HD2>
<P>The board of directors is responsible for oversight of their credit union and for approving policy, major strategies, and prudent limits regarding IRR. To meet this responsibility, understanding the level and nature of IRR taken by the credit union is essential. Accordingly, the board should ensure management executes an effective IRR program.
</P>
<P>Additionally, the board should annually assess if the IRR program sufficiently identifies, measures, monitors, and controls the IRR exposure of the credit union. Where necessary, the board may consider obtaining professional advice and training to enhance its understanding of IRR oversight.
</P>
<HD2>B. Management Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>Management is responsible for the daily management of activities and operations. In order to implement the board's IRR policy, management should:
</P>
<P>• Develop and maintain adequate IRR measurement systems;
</P>
<P>• Evaluate and understand IRR risk exposures;
</P>
<P>• Establish an appropriate system of internal controls (<I>e.g.</I> separation between the risk taker and IRR measurement staff);
</P>
<P>• Allocate sufficient resources for an effective IRR program. For example, a complex credit union with an elevated IRR risk profile will likely necessitate a greater allocation of resources to identify and focus on IRR exposures;
</P>
<P>• Develop and support competent staff with technical expertise commensurate with the IRR program;
</P>
<P>• Identify the procedures and assumptions involved in implementing the IRR measurement systems; and
</P>
<P>• Establish clear lines of authority and responsibility for managing IRR; and
</P>
<P>• Provide a sufficient set of reports to ensure compliance with board approved policies.
</P>
<P>Where delegation of management authority by the board occurs, this may be to designated committees such as an asset liability committee or other equivalent. In credit unions with limited staff, these responsibilities may reside with the board or management. Significant changes in assumptions, measurement methods, tests performed, or other aspects involved in the IRR process should be documented and brought to the attention of those responsible.
</P>
<HD1>IV. IRR Measurement and Monitoring
</HD1>
<HD2>A. Risk Measurement Systems
</HD2>
<P>Generally, credit unions should have IRR measurement systems that capture and measure all material and identified sources of IRR. An IRR measurement system quantifies the risk contained in the credit union's balance sheet and integrates the important sources of IRR faced by a credit union in order to facilitate management of its risk exposures. The selection and assessment of appropriate IRR measurement systems is the responsibility of credit union boards and management.
</P>
<P>Management should:
</P>
<P>• Rely on assumptions that are reasonable and supportable;
</P>
<P>• Document any changes to assumptions based on observed information;
</P>
<P>• Monitor positions with uncertain maturities, rates and cash flows, such as nonmaturity shares, fixed rate mortgages where prepayments may vary, adjustable rate mortgages, and instruments with embedded options, such as calls; and
</P>
<P>• Require any interest rate risk calculation techniques, measures and tests to be sufficiently rigorous to capture risk.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Measurement Methods
</HD2>
<P>The following discussion is intended only as a general guide and should not be used by credit unions as an endorsement of a particular method. An IRR measurement system may rely on a variety of different methods. Common examples of methods available to credit unions are GAP analysis, income simulation, asset valuation, and net economic value. Any measurement method(s) used by a credit union to analyze IRR exposure should correspond with the complexity of the credit union's balance sheet so as to identify any material sources of IRR.
</P>
<HD3>GAP Analysis
</HD3>
<P>GAP analysis is a simple IRR measurement method that reports the mismatch between rate sensitive assets and rate sensitive liabilities over a given time period. GAP can only suffice for simple balance sheets that primarily consist of short-term bullet type investments and non mortgage-related assets. GAP analysis can be static, behavioral, or based on duration.
</P>
<HD3>Income Simulation
</HD3>
<P>Income simulation is an IRR measurement method used to estimate earnings exposure to changes in interest rates. An income simulation analysis projects interest cash flows of all assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet instruments in a credit union's portfolio to estimate future net interest income over a chosen timeframe. Generally, income simulations focus on short-term time horizons (<I>e.g.</I> one to three years). Forecasting income is assumption sensitive and more uncertain the longer the forecast period. Simulations typically include evaluations under a base-case scenario, and instantaneous parallel rate shocks, and may include alternate interest-rate scenarios. The alternate rate scenarios may involve ramped changes in rates, twisting of the yield curve, and/or stressed rate environments devised by the user or provided by the vendor.
</P>
<HD3>NCUA Asset Valuation Tables
</HD3>
<P>For credit unions lacking advanced IRR methods that seek simple valuation measures, the NCUA Asset Valuation Tables are available and prepared quarterly by the NCUA. These are available on the NCUA Web site through <I>www.ncua.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>These measures provide an indication of a credit union's potential interest rate risk, based on the risk associated with the asset categories of greatest concern—(<I>e.g.,</I> mortgage loans and investment securities).
</P>
<P>The tables provide a simple measure of the potential devaluation of a credit union's mortgage loans and investment securities that occur during ±300 basis point parallel rate shocks, and report the resulting impact on net worth.
</P>
<HD3>Net Economic Value (NEV)
</HD3>
<P>NEV measures the effect of interest rates on the market value of net worth by calculating the present value of assets minus the present value of liabilities. This calculation measures the long-term IRR in a credit union's balance sheet at a fixed point in time. By capturing the impact of interest rate changes on the value of all future cash flows, NEV provides a comprehensive measurement of IRR. Generally, NEV computations demonstrate the economic value of net worth under current interest rates and shocked interest rate scenarios.
</P>
<P>One NEV method is to discount cash flows by a single interest rate path. Credit unions with a significant exposure to assets or liabilities with embedded options should consider alternative measurement methods such as discounting along a yield curve (<I>e.g.</I> the U.S. Treasury curve, LIBOR curve) or using multiple interest rate paths. Credit unions should apply and document appropriate methods, based on available data (<I>e.g.</I> utilizing observed market values), when valuing individual or groups of assets and liabilities.
</P>
<HD2>C. Components of IRR Measurement Methods
</HD2>
<P>In the initial setup of IRR measurement, critical decisions are made regarding numerous variables in the method. These variables include but are not limited to the following.
</P>
<HD3>Chart of Accounts
</HD3>
<P>Credit unions using an IRR measurement method should define a sufficient number of accounts to capture key IRR characteristics inherent within their product lines. For example, credit unions with significant holdings of adjustable-rate mortgages should differentiate balances by periodic and lifetime caps and floors, the reset frequency, and the rate index used for rate resets. Similarly, credit unions with significant holdings of fixed-rate mortgages should differentiate at least by original term, <I>e.g.,</I> 30 or 15-year, and coupon level to reflect differences in prepayment behaviors.
</P>
<HD3>Aggregation of Data Input
</HD3>
<P>As the credit union's complexity, risk exposure, and size increases, the degree of detail should be based on data that is increasingly disaggregated. Because imprecision in the measurement process can materially misstate risk levels, management should evaluate the potential loss of precision from any aggregation and simplification used in its measurement of IRR.
</P>
<HD3>Account Attributes
</HD3>
<P>Account attributes define a product, including: Principal type, rate type, rate index, repricing interval, new volume maturity distribution, accounting accrual basis, prepayment driver, and discount rate.
</P>
<HD3>Assumptions
</HD3>
<P>IRR measurement methods rely on assumptions made by management in order to identify IRR. The simplest example is of future interest rate scenarios. The management of IRR will require other assumptions such as: Projected balance sheet volumes; prepayment rates for loans and investment securities; repricing sensitivity, and decay rates of nonmaturity shares. Examples of these assumptions follow.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Credit unions should consider evaluating the balance sheet under flat (<I>i.e.</I> static) and/or planned growth scenarios to capture IRR exposures. Under a flat scenario, runoff amounts are reinvested in their respective asset or liability account. Conducting planned growth scenarios allows management to assess the IRR impact of the projected change in volume and/or composition of the balance sheet.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>Loans and mortgage related securities contain prepayment options that enable the borrower to prepay the obligation prior to maturity. This prepayment option makes it difficult to project the value and earnings stream from these assets because the future outstanding principal balance at any given time is unknown. A number of factors affect prepayments, including the refinancing incentive, seasonality (the particular time of year), seasoning (the age of the loan), member mobility, curtailments (additional principal payments), and burnout (borrowers who don't respond to changes in the level of rates, and pay as scheduled). Prepayment speeds may be estimated or derived from numerous national or vendor data sources.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>In the process of IRR measurement, the credit union must estimate how each account will reprice in response to market rate fluctuations. For example, when rates rise 300 basis points, the credit union may raise its asset or liability rates in a like amount or not, and may choose to lag the timing of its pricing change.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>Nonmaturity shares include those accounts with no defined maturity such as share drafts, regular shares, and money market accounts. Measuring the IRR associated with these accounts is difficult because the risk measurement calculations require the user to define the principal cash flows and maturity. Credit unions may assume that there is no value when measuring the associated IRR and carry these values at book value or par. Many credit unions adopt this approach because it keeps the measurement method simple.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Alternatively, a credit union may attribute value to these shares (<I>i.e.</I> premium) on the basis that these shares tend to be lower cost funds that are core balances by virtue of being relatively insensitive to interest rates. This method generally results in nonmaturity shares priced/valued in a way that will produce an increased net economic value. Therefore, the underlying assumptions of the shares require scrutiny.
</P>
<P>Credit unions that forecast share behavior and incorporate those assumptions into their risk identification and measurement process should perform sensitivity analysis.
</P>
<HD1>V. Internal Controls
</HD1>
<P>Internal controls are an essential part of a safe and sound IRR program. If possible, separation of those responsible for the risk taking and risk measuring functions should occur at the credit union.
</P>
<P>Staff responsible for maintaining controls should periodically assess the overall IRR program as well as compliance with policy. Internal audit staff would normally assume this role; however, if there is no internal auditor, management, or a supervisory committee that is independent of the IRR process, may perform this role. Where appropriate, management may also supplement the internal audit with outside expertise to assess the IRR program. This review should include policy compliance, timeliness, and accuracy of reports given to management and the board.
</P>
<P>Audit findings should be reported to the board or supervisory committee with recommended corrective actions and timeframes. The individuals responsible for maintaining internal controls should periodically examine adherence to the policy related to the IRR program.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Decision-Making Informed by IRR Measurement Systems
</HD1>
<P>Management should utilize the results of the credit union's IRR measurement systems in making operational decisions such as changing balance sheet structure, funding, pricing strategies, and business planning. This is particularly the case when measures show a high level of IRR or when measurement results approach board-approved limits.
</P>
<P>NCUA recognizes each credit union has its own individual risk profile and tolerance levels. However, when measures of fair value indicate net worth is low, declining, or even negative, or income simulations indicate reduced earnings, management should be prepared to identify steps, if necessary, to bring risk within acceptable levels. In any case, management should understand and use their IRR measurement results, whether generated internally or externally, in the normal course of business. Management should also use the results proactively as a tool to adjust asset liability management for changes in interest rate environments.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Guidelines for Adequacy of IRR Policy and Effectiveness of Program
</HD1>
<P>The following guidelines will assist credit unions in determining the adequacy of their IRR policy and the effectiveness of their program to manage IRR.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er02fe12.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er02fe12.013.gif"/>
<P>NCUA acknowledges both the range of IRR exposures at credit unions, and the diverse means that they may use to accomplish an effective program to manage this risk. NCUA therefore does not stipulate specific quantitative standards or limits for the management of IRR applicable to all credit unions, and does not rely solely on the results of quantitative approaches to evaluate the effectiveness of IRR programs. Assumptions, measures and methods used by a credit union in light of its size, complexity and risk exposure determine the specific appropriate standard. However, NCUA strongly affirms the need for adequate practices for a program to effectively manage IRR. For example, policy limits on IRR exposure are not adequate if they allow a credit union to operate with an exposure that is unsafe or unsound, which means that the credit union may suffer material losses under plausible adverse circumstances as a result of this exposure. Credit unions that do not have a written IRR policy or that do not have an effective IRR program are out of compliance with § 741.3 of NCUA's regulations.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Additional Guidance for Large Credit Unions With Complex or High Risk Balance Sheets
</HD1>
<P>FICUs with assets of $500 million or greater must obtain an annual audit of their financial statements performed in accordance with generally accepted accounting standards. 12 CFR 715.5, 715.6, 741.202. For purposes of data collection, NCUA also uses $500 million and above as its largest credit union asset range. In order to gather information and to monitor IRR exposure at larger credit unions as it relates to the share insurance fund, NCUA will use this as the criterion for definition of large credit unions for purposes of this section of the guidance. Given the increased exposure to the share insurance fund, NCUA encourages the responsible officials at large credit unions that are complex or high risk to fully understand all aspects of interest rate risk, including but not limited to the credit union's IRR assessment and potential directional changes in IRR exposures. For example, the credit union should consider the following:
</P>
<P>• A policy which provides for the use of outside parties to validate the tests and limits commensurate with the risk exposure and complexity of the credit union;
</P>
<P>• IRR measurement systems that report compliance with policy limits as shown both by risks to earnings and net economic value of equity under a variety of defined and reasonable interest rate scenarios;
</P>
<P>• The effect of changes in assumptions on IRR exposure results (<I>e.g.</I> the impact of slower or faster prepayments on earnings and economic value); and,
</P>
<P>• Enhanced levels of separation between risk taking and risk assessment (<I>e.g.</I> assignment of resources to separate the investments function from IRR measurement, and IRR monitoring and oversight).
</P>
<HD1>IX. Definitions
</HD1>
<P><I>Basis risk:</I> The risk to earnings and/or value due to a financial institution's holdings of multiple instruments, based on different indices that are imperfectly correlated.
</P>
<P><I>Interest rate risk:</I> The risk that changes in market rates will adversely affect a credit union's net economic value and/or earnings. Interest rate risk generally arises from a mismatch between the timing of cash flows from fixed rate instruments, and interest rate resets of variable rate instruments, on either side of the balance sheet. Thus, as interest rates change, earnings or net economic value may decline.
</P>
<P><I>Option risk:</I> The risk to earnings and/or value due to the effect on financial instruments of options associated with these instruments. Options are embedded when they are contractual within, or directly associated with, the instrument. An example of a contractual embedded option is a call option on an agency bond. An example of a behavioral embedded option is the right of a residential mortgage holder to vary prepayments on the mortgage through time, either by making additional premium payments, or by paying off the mortgage prior to maturity.
</P>
<P><I>Repricing risk:</I> The repricing of assets or liabilities following market changes can occur in different amounts and/or at different times. This risk can cause returns to vary.
</P>
<P><I>Spread risk:</I> The risk to earnings and/or value resulting from variations through time of the spread between assets or liabilities to an underlying index such as the Treasury curve.
</P>
<P><I>Yield curve risk:</I> The risk to earnings and/or value due to changes in the level or slope of underlying yield curves. Financial instruments can be sensitive to different points on the curve. This can cause returns to vary as yield curves change.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 5162, Feb. 2, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 57990, Sept. 19, 2012. Redesignated at 83 FR 7964, Feb. 23, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.26.2.11.29.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 741—Loan Workouts, Nonaccrual Policy, and Regulatory Reporting of Troubled Debt Restructured Loans
</HEAD>
<P>This Appendix establishes requirements for the management of loan <I>workout</I> 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> arrangements, loan nonaccrual, and regulatory reporting of <I>troubled debt restructured loans</I> (herein after referred to as TDR or TDRs). This Appendix applies to all federally insured credit unions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Terms defined in the Glossary will be italicized on their first use in the body of this =Appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>Under this Appendix, TDRs are as defined in <I>generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP),</I> and the Board does not intend to change the Financial Accounting Standards Board's (FASB) definition of TDR in any way through this policy. In addition to existing agency policy, this Appendix sets the NCUA's supervisory expectations governing loan workout policies and practices and loan accruals.
</P>
<HD1>Written Loan Workout Policy and Monitoring Requirements 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> For additional guidance on commercial and member business lending extension, deferral, renewal, and rewrite policies, see <I>Interagency Policy Statement on Prudent Commercial Real Estate Loan Workouts</I> (October 30, 2009) transmitted by Letter to Credit Unions No. 10-CU-07, and available at <I>http://www.ncua.gov</I>.</P></FTNT>
<P>For purposes of this Appendix, types of workout loans to borrowers in financial difficulties include <I>re-agings, extensions, deferrals, renewals, or rewrites.</I> See the Glossary entry on workouts for further descriptions of each term. Borrower retention programs or <I>new loans</I> are not encompassed within this policy nor considered by the Board to be workout loans.
</P>
<P>A credit union can use loan workouts to help borrowers overcome temporary financial difficulties such as loss of job, medical emergency, or change in family circumstances such as the loss of a family member. Loan workout arrangements must consider and balance the best interests of both the borrower and the credit union.
</P>
<P>The lack of a sound written policy on workouts can mask the true performance and <I>past due</I> status of the loan portfolio. Accordingly, the credit union board and management must adopt and adhere to an explicit written policy and standards that control the use of loan workouts, and establish controls to ensure the policy is consistently applied. The loan workout policy and practices should be commensurate with a credit union's size and complexity, and must conform with a credit union's broader risk mitigation strategies. The policy must define eligibility requirements (that is, under what conditions the credit union will consider a loan workout), including establishing limits on the number of times an individual loan may be modified.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> The policy must also ensure credit unions make loan workout decisions based on a borrower's renewed willingness and ability to repay the loan. If a credit union restructures a loan more frequently than once a year or twice in five years, examiners will have higher expectations for the documentation of the borrower's renewed willingness and ability to repay the loan. The NCUA is concerned about restructuring activity that pushes existing losses into future reporting periods without improving a loan's collectability. One way a credit union can provide convincing evidence that multiple restructurings improve collectability is to validate completed multiple restructurings that substantiate the claim. Examiners will ask for such validation documentation if a credit union engages in multiple restructurings of a loan.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Broad based credit union programs commonly used as a member benefit and implemented in a safe and sound manner limited to only accounts in good standing, such as Skip-a-Pay programs, are not intended to count toward these limits.</P></FTNT>
<P>In addition, the policy must establish sound controls to ensure loan workout actions are appropriately structured.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> The policy must explicitly prohibit the authorization of additional advances to finance credit union fees and commissions. The credit union may, however, make advances to cover third-party fees, such as force-placed insurance or property taxes. For loan workouts granted, a credit union must document the determination that the borrower is willing and able to repay the loan.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> In developing a written policy, the credit union board and management may wish to consider similar parameters as those established in the FFIEC's “Uniform Retail Credit Classification and Account Management Policy” (FFIEC Policy). 65 FR 36903 (June 12, 2000) (<I>https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/FR-2000-06-12/pdf/00-14704.pdf</I>). The FFIEC Policy sets forth specific limitations on the number of times a loan can be re-aged (for open-end accounts) or extended, deferred, renewed or rewritten (for closed-end accounts). NCUA Letter to Credit Unions (LCU) 09-CU-19, “Evaluating Residential Real Estate Mortgage Loan Modification Programs,” also outlines policy best practices for real estate modifications (<I>https://www.ncua.gov/regulation-supervision/letters-credit-unions-other-guidance/evaluating-residential-real-estate-mortgage-loan-modification-programs</I>). Those best practices remain applicable to real estate loan modifications (with the exception to the capitalization of credit union fees) but could be adapted in part by the credit union in their written loan workout policy for other loans.</P></FTNT>
<P>Modifications of loans that result in capitalization of unpaid interest are appropriate only when a borrower has the ability to repay the debt. At a minimum, if a FICU's loan modification policy permits capitalization of unpaid interest, the policy must require:
</P>
<P>1. Compliance with all applicable federal and state consumer protection laws and regulations, including, but not limited to, the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, the Fair Housing Act, the Truth In Lending Act, the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, the Fair Credit Reporting Act, and the prohibitions against the use of unfair, deceptive or abusive acts or practices in the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010.
</P>
<P>2. Documentation that reflects a borrower's ability to repay, a borrower's source(s) of repayment, and when appropriate, compliance with the FICU's valuation policies at the time the modification is approved.
</P>
<P>3. Providing borrowers with written disclosures that are accurate, clear and conspicuous and that are consistent with Federal and state consumer protection laws.
</P>
<P>4. Appropriate reporting of loan status for modified loans in accordance with applicable law and accounting practices. The FICU shall not report a modified loan as past due if the loan was current prior to modification and the borrower is complying with the terms of the modification.
</P>
<P>5. Prudent policies and procedures to help borrowers resume affordable and sustainable repayments that are appropriately structured, while at the same time minimizing losses to the credit union. The prudent policies and procedures must consider
</P>
<P>i. Whether the loan modifications are well-designed, consistently applied, and provide a favorable outcome for borrowers.
</P>
<P>ii. The available options for borrowers to repay any missed payments at the end of their modifications to avoid delinquencies or other adverse consequences.
</P>
<P>6. Appropriate safety and soundness safeguards to prevent the following:
</P>
<P>i. Masking deteriorations in loan portfolio quality and understating charge-off levels; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> Refer to NCUA guidance on charge-offs set forth in LCU 03-CU-01, “Loan Charge-off Guidance,” dated January 2003 (<I>https://www.ncua.gov/regulation-supervision/letters-credit-unions-other-guidance/loan-charge-guidance</I>). Examiners will require that a reasonable written charge-off policy is in place and that it is consistently applied. Additionally, credit unions need to adjust historical loss factors when calculating ALLL needs for pooled loans to account for any loans with protracted charge-off timeframes (for example, 12 months or more). See discussions on the latter point in the 2006 Interagency ALLL Policy Statement transmitted by Accounting Bulletin 06-1 (December 2006) (<I>https://www.ncua.gov/regulation-supervision/letters-credit-unions-other-guidance/interagency-advisory-addressing-alll-key-concepts-and-requirements</I>). Upon implementation of ASC 326—Financial Instruments—Credit Losses, credit unions will use the guidance in Interagency Policy Statement on Allowances for Credit Losses (May 2020) (<I>https://www.ncua.gov/files/press-releases-news/policy-statement-allowances-credit-losses.pdf</I>).</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. Delaying loss recognition resulting in an understated allowance for loan and lease losses account or inaccurate loan valuations;
</P>
<P>iii. Overstating net income and net worth (regulatory capital) levels; and
</P>
<P>iv. Circumventing internal controls.
</P>
<P>The credit union's risk management framework must include thresholds, based on aggregate volume of loan workout activity, which trigger enhanced reporting to the board of directors. This reporting will enable the credit union's board of directors to evaluate the effectiveness of the credit union's loan workout program, understand any implications to the organization's financial condition, and make any compensating adjustments to the overall business strategy. This information will also be available to examiners upon request.
</P>
<P>To be effective, management information systems need to track the principal reductions and <I>charge-off</I> history of loans in workout programs by type of program. Any decision to re-age, extend, defer, renew, or rewrite a loan, like any other revision to contractual terms, must be supported by the credit union's management information systems. Sound management information systems identify and document any loan that is re-aged, extended, deferred, renewed, or rewritten, including the frequency and extent of such action. Documentation normally shows that credit union personnel communicated with the borrower, the borrower agreed to pay the loan in full under any new terms, and the borrower has the ability to repay the loan under any new terms.
</P>
<HD1>Regulatory Reporting of Workout Loans Including TDR Past Due Status
</HD1>
<P>Credit unions will calculate the past due status of all loans consistent with loan contract terms, including amendments made to loan terms through a formal restructure. Credit unions will report delinquency on the Call Report consistent with this policy.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> Subsequent Call Reports and accompanying instructions will reflect this policy, including focusing data collection on loans meeting the definition of TDR under GAAP. In reporting TDRs on regulatory reports, the data collections will include all TDRs that meet the GAAP criteria for TDR reporting, without the application of materiality threshold exclusions based on scoping or reporting policy elections of credit union preparers or their auditors. Credit unions should also refer to ASC Subtopic 310-40 when determining if a restructuring of a debt constitutes a TDR.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Loan Nonaccrual Policy
</HD1>
<P>Credit unions must recognize interest income appropriately. Credit unions must place loans in nonaccrual status when doubt exists as to full collection of principal and interest or the loan has been in default for a period of 90 days or more. Upon placing a loan in nonaccrual, a credit union must reverse or charge-off previously accrued but uncollected interest. A nonaccrual loan may be returned to accrual status when a credit union expects repayment of the remaining contractual principal and interest or it is well secured and in process of collection.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> This policy on loan accrual is consistent with longstanding credit union industry practice as implemented by the NCUA over the last several decades. The balance of the policy relates to <I>commercial</I> and <I>member business loan</I> workouts and is similar to the policies adopted by the federal banking agencies 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> as set forth in the FFIEC Call Report for banking institutions and its instructions.
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Placing a loan in nonaccrual status does not change the loan agreement or the obligations between the borrower and the credit union. Only the parties can effect a restructuring of the original loan terms or otherwise settle the debt.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The federal banking agencies are the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> FFIEC Report of Condition and Income Forms, Instructions and Supplemental Instructions, <I>https://www.ffiec.gov/forms041.htm.</I></P></FTNT>
<HD2>Nonaccrual Status
</HD2>
<P>Credit unions may not accrue interest 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> on any loan where principal or interest has been in default for a period of 90 days or more unless the loan is both “<I>well secured”</I> and “in the <I>process of collection.”</I> 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> For purposes of applying the “well secured” and “in process of collection” test for nonaccrual status listed above, the date on which a loan reaches nonaccrual status is determined by its contractual terms.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Nonaccrual of interest also includes the amortization of deferred net loan fees or costs, or the accretion of discount. Nonaccrual of interest on loans past due 90 days or more is a longstanding agency policy and credit union practice.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> A purchased credit impaired loan asset need not be placed in nonaccrual status as long as the criteria for accrual of income under the interest method in GAAP is met. Also, the accrual of interest on workout loans is covered in a later section of this Appendix.</P></FTNT>
<P>While a loan is in nonaccrual status, a credit union may treat some or all of the cash payments received as interest income on a cash basis provided no doubt exists about the collectability of the remaining <I>recorded investment in the loan.</I> A credit union must handle the reversal of previously accrued, but uncollected, interest applicable to any loan placed in nonaccrual status in accordance with GAAP.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> Acceptable accounting treatment includes a reversal of all previously accrued, but uncollected, interest applicable to loans placed in a nonaccrual status against appropriate income and balance sheet accounts. For example, one acceptable method of accounting for such uncollected interest on a loan placed in nonaccrual status is to reverse all of the unpaid interest by crediting the “accrued interest receivable” account on the balance sheet; to reverse the uncollected interest that has been accrued during the calendar year-to-date by debiting the appropriate “interest and fee income on loans” account on the income statement, and to reverse any uncollected interest that had been accrued during previous calendar years by debiting the “allowance for loan and lease losses” account on the balance sheet. The use of this method presumes that credit union management's additions to the allowance through charges to the “provision for loan and lease losses” on the income statement have been based on an evaluation of the collectability of the loan and lease portfolios and the “accrued interest receivable” account.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Restoration to Accrual Status for All Loans Except Commercial and Member Business Loan Workouts
</HD1>
<P>A nonaccrual loan may be restored to accrual status when:
</P>
<P>• Its past due status is less than 90 days and the credit union expects repayment of the remaining contractual principal and interest within a reasonable period;
</P>
<P>• It otherwise becomes both <I>well secured</I> and <I>in the process of collection;</I> or
</P>
<P>• The asset is a purchased impaired loan and it meets the criteria under GAAP for accrual of interest income under the accretable yield method. See ASC 310-30.
</P>
<P>In restoring all loans to accrual status, if the credit union applied any interest payments received while the loan was in nonaccrual status to reduce the recorded investment in the loan, the credit union must not reverse the application of these payments to the loan's recorded investment (and must not credit interest income). Likewise, a credit union cannot restore the accrued but uncollected interest reversed or charged-off at the point the loan was placed on nonaccrual status to accrual; it can only be recognized as income if collected in cash or cash equivalents from the member.
</P>
<HD1>Restoration to Accrual Status on Commercial and Member Business Loan Workouts 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/>
</HD1>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> This policy is derived from the “Interagency Policy Statement on Prudent Commercial Real Estate Loan Workouts” the NCUA and the other financial regulators issued on October 30, 2009.</P></FTNT>
<P>A formally restructured commercial or member business loan workout need not be maintained in nonaccrual status, provided the restructuring and any charge-off taken on the loan are supported by a current, well-documented credit evaluation of the borrower's financial condition and prospects for repayment under the revised terms. Otherwise, the restructured loan must remain in nonaccrual status.
</P>
<P>The credit union's evaluation must include consideration of the borrower's sustained historical repayment performance for a reasonable period prior to the date on which the loan is returned to accrual status. A sustained period of repayment performance is a minimum of six consecutive payments, and includes timely payments under the restructured loan's terms of principal and interest in cash or cash equivalents. In returning the commercial or member business workout loan to accrual status, a credit union may consider sustained historical repayment performance for a reasonable time prior to the restructuring. Such a restructuring must improve the collectability of the loan in accordance with a reasonable repayment schedule and does not relieve the credit union from the responsibility to promptly charge off all identified losses.
</P>
<P>The following graph provides an example of a schedule of repayment performance to demonstrate a determination of six consecutive payments. If the original loan terms required a monthly payment of $1,500, and the credit union lowered the borrower's payment to $1,000 through formal commercial or member business loan restructure, then based on the first row of the graph, the “<I>sustained historical repayment performance for a reasonable time prior to the restructuring”</I> would encompass five of the pre-workout consecutive payments that were at least $1,000 (months 1 through 5). In total, the six consecutive repayment burden would be met by the first month post workout (month 6).
</P>
<P>In the second row, only one of the pre-workout payments would count toward the six consecutive repayment requirement (month 5), because it is the first month in which the borrower made a payment of at least $1,000 after failing to pay at least that amount. Therefore, the loan would remain on nonaccrual for at least five post-workout consecutive payments (months 6 through 10) provided the borrower continues to make payments consistent with the restructured terms.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Pre-workout
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Post-workout
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 1
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 2
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 3
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 4
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 5
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 6
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 7
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 8
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 9
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Month 10
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">$1,500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">$1,000
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,500</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,200</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">900</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">875</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>After a formal restructure of a commercial or member business loan, if the restructured loan has been returned to accrual status, the loan otherwise remains subject to the nonaccrual standards of this policy. If any interest payments received while the commercial or member business loan was in nonaccrual status were applied to reduce the recorded investment in the loan the application of these payments to the loan's recorded investment must not be reversed (and interest income must not be credited). Likewise, accrued but uncollected interest reversed or charged-off at the point the commercial or member business workout loan was placed on nonaccrual status cannot be restored to accrual; it can only be recognized as income if collected in cash or cash equivalents from the member.
</P>
<P>The following tables summarize nonaccrual and restoration to accrual requirements previously discussed:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1—Nonaccrual Criteria
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condition identified
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional consideration
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonaccrual on All Loans</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">90 days or more past due unless loan is both well-secured and in the process of collection; or
<br/>The loan is maintained on the Cash basis because there is a deterioration in the financial condition of the borrower, or for which payment in full of principal or interest is not expected.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Glossary definitions for “well secured” and “in the process of collection.”
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nonaccrual on Commercial or Member Business Loan Workouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Continue on nonaccrual at workout point and until restore to accrual criteria are met.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Table 2—Restore to Accrual.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2—Restore to Accrual
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Action
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Condition identified
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional consideration
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restore to Accrual on All Loans except Commercial or Member Business Loan Workouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">When a loan is less than 90 days past due and the credit union expects repayment of the remaining contractual principal and interest within a reasonable period, or
<br/>When it otherwise becomes both “well secured” and “in the process of collection”; or
<br/>The asset is a purchased impaired loan and it meets the criteria under GAAP (see ASC 310-30) for accrual of interest income under the accretable yield method.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">See Glossary definitions for “well secured” and “in the process of collection.” Interest payments received while the loan was in nonaccrual status and applied to reduce the recorded investment in the loan must not be reversed and income credited. Likewise, accrued but uncollected interest reversed or charged-off at the point the loan was placed on nonaccrual status cannot be restored to accrual.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Restore to Accrual on Commercial or Member Business Loan Workouts</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Formal restructure with a current, well documented credit evaluation of the borrower's financial condition and prospects for repayment under the revised terms.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The evaluation must include consideration of the borrower's sustained historical repayment performance for a minimum of six timely consecutive payments comprised of principal and interest. In returning a loan to accrual status, a credit union may take into account sustained historical repayment performance for a reasonable time prior to the restructured terms. Interest payments received while the commercial or member business loan was in nonaccrual status and applied to reduce the recorded investment in the loan must not be reversed and income credited.
<br/>Accrued but uncollected interest reversed or charged-off at the point the commercial or member business loan was placed on nonaccrual status cannot be restored to accrual.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>Glossary 
<SU>14</SU>
</HD1>
<P><I>“Capitalization of Interest”</I> constitutes the addition of accrued but unpaid interest to the principal balance of a loan.
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> Terms defined in the Glossary will be italicized on their first use in the body of this guidance.</P></FTNT>
<P>“<I>Cash Basis”</I> method of income recognition is set forth in GAAP and means while a loan is in nonaccrual status, some or all of the cash interest payments received may be treated as interest income on a cash basis provided no doubt exists about the collectability of the remaining recorded investment in the loan.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> Acceptable accounting practices include allocating contractual interest payments among interest income, reduction of the recorded investment in the asset, and recovery of prior charge-offs. If this method is used, the amount of income that is recognized would be equal to that which would have been accrued on the loan's remaining recorded investment at the contractual rate; and, accounting for the contractual interest in its entirety either as income, reduction of the recorded investment in the asset, or recovery of prior charge-offs, depending on the condition of the asset, consistent with its accounting policies for other financial reporting purposes.</P></FTNT>
<P>“<I>Charge-off”</I> means a direct reduction (credit) to the carrying amount of a loan carried at amortized cost resulting from uncollectability with a corresponding reduction (debit) of the ALLL. Recoveries of loans previously charged off must be recorded when received.
</P>
<P>“<I>Commercial Loan”</I> is defined consistent with Section 723.2 of the NCUA's MEMBER BUSINESS LOANS; COMMERCIAL LENDING Rule, 12 CFR 723.2.
</P>
<P>“<I>Generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP)”</I> means official pronouncements of the FASB as memorialized in the FASB Accounting Standards Codification® as the source of authoritative principles and standards recognized to be applied in the preparation of financial statements by federally insured credit unions in the United States with assets of $10 million or more.
</P>
<P>“<I>In the process of collection”</I> means collection of the loan is proceeding in due course either:
</P>
<P>(1) Through legal action, including judgment enforcement procedures, or
</P>
<P>(2) In appropriate circumstances, through collection efforts not involving legal action which are reasonably expected to result in repayment of the debt or in its restoration to a current status in the near future, <I>i.e.,</I> generally within the next 90 days.
</P>
<P><I>“Member Business Loan”</I> is defined consistent with § 723.8 of the NCUA's MEMBER BUSINESS LOANS; COMMERCIAL LENDING Rule, 12 CFR 723.8.
</P>
<P><I>“New Loan”</I> means the terms of the revised loan are at least as favorable to the credit union (<I>i.e.,</I> terms are market-based, and profit driven) as the terms for comparable loans to other customers with similar collection risks who are not refinancing or restructuring a loan with the credit union, and the revisions to the original debt are more than minor.
</P>
<P><I>“Past Due”</I> means a loan is determined to be delinquent in relation to its contractual repayment terms including formal restructures, and must consider the time value of money. Credit unions may use the following method to recognize partial payments on “consumer credit,” <I>i.e.,</I> credit extended to individuals for household, family, and other personal expenditures, including credit cards, and loans to individuals secured by their personal residence, including home equity and home improvement loans. A payment equivalent to 90 percent or more of the contractual payment may be considered a full payment in computing past due status.
</P>
<P><I>“Recorded Investment in a Loan”</I> means the loan balance adjusted for any unamortized premium or discount and unamortized loan fees or costs, less any amount previously charged off, plus recorded accrued interest.
</P>
<P><I>“Troubled Debt Restructuring”</I> is as defined in GAAP and means a restructuring in which a credit union, for economic or legal reasons related to a member borrower's financial difficulties, grants a concession to the borrower that it would not otherwise consider.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> The restructuring of a loan may include, but is not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> FASB ASC 310-40, “Troubled Debt Restructuring by Creditors.”</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) The transfer from the borrower to the credit union of real estate, receivables from third parties, other assets, or an equity interest in the borrower in full or partial satisfaction of the loan,
</P>
<P>(2) A modification of the loan terms, such as a reduction of the stated interest rate, principal, or accrued interest or an extension of the maturity date at a stated interest rate lower than the current market rate for new debt with similar risk, or
</P>
<P>(3) A combination of the above.
</P>
<P>A loan extended or renewed at a stated interest rate equal to the current market interest rate for new debt with similar risk is not to be reported as a restructured troubled loan.
</P>
<P><I>“Well secured”</I> means the loan is collateralized by: (1) A perfected security interest in, or pledges of, real or personal property, including securities with an estimable value, less cost to sell, sufficient to recover the recorded investment in the loan, as well as a reasonable return on that amount, or (2) by the guarantee of a financially responsible party.
</P>
<P><I>“Workout Loan”</I> means a loan to a borrower in financial difficulty that has been formally restructured so as to be reasonably assured of repayment (of principal and interest) and of performance according to its restructured terms. A workout loan typically involves a <I>re-aging, extension, deferral, renewal, or rewrite</I> of a loan.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> For purposes of this policy statement, workouts do not include loans made to market rates and terms such as refinances, borrower retention actions, or new loans.
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> <I>“Re-Age”</I> means returning a past due account to current status without collecting the total amount of principal, interest, and fees that are contractually due.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> There may be instances where a workout loan is not a TDR even though the borrower is experiencing financial hardship. For example, a workout loan would not be a TDR if the fair value of cash or other assets accepted by a credit union from a borrower in full satisfaction of its receivable is at least equal to the credit union's recorded investment in the loan, <I>e.g.,</I> due to charge-offs.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>“Extension”</I> means extending monthly payments on a closed-end loan and rolling back the maturity by the number of months extended. The account is shown current upon granting the extension. If extension fees are assessed, they must be collected at the time of the extension and not added to the balance of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>“Deferral”</I> means deferring a contractually due payment on a closed-end loan without affecting the other terms, including maturity, of the loan. The account is shown current upon granting the deferral.
</P>
<P><I>“Renewal”</I> means underwriting a matured, closed-end loan generally at its outstanding principal amount and on similar terms.
</P>
<P><I>“Rewrite”</I> means significantly changing the terms of an existing loan, including payment amounts, interest rates, amortization schedules, or its final maturity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 34617, June 30, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="745" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 745—SHARE INSURANCE AND APPENDIX


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="8">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79414, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1752(5), 1757, 1765, 1766, 1781, 1782, 1787, 1789; title V, Pub. L. 109-351;120 Stat. 1966.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, unless otherwise noted. 
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 745 appear at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Clarification and Definition of Account Insurance Coverage</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="9">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79414, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>The regulation and appendix contained in this part describe the insurance coverage of various types of member accounts. In general, all types of member share accounts received by the credit union in its usual course of business, including regular shares, share certificates, and share draft accounts, represent equity and are insured. For the purposes of applying the rules in this part, it is presumed that the owner of funds in an account is an insured credit union member or otherwise eligible to maintain an insured account in a credit union. These rules do not extend insurance coverage to persons not entitled to maintain an insured account or to account relationships that have not been approved by the Board as an insured account. Where there are multiple owners of a single account, generally only that part which is allocable to the member(s) is insured.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="10">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79414, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) The terms <I>account</I> or <I>accounts</I> as used in this part mean share, share certificate or share draft accounts (or their equivalent under state law, as determined by the Board in the case of insured state-chartered credit unions) of a member (which includes other credit unions, public units and nonmembers where permitted under the Act) in a credit union of a type approved by the Board which evidences money or its equivalent received or held by a credit union in the usual course of business and for which it has given or is obligated to give credit to the account of the member. 
</P>
<P>(b) The terms <I>member</I> or <I>members</I> as used in this part mean those persons enumerated in the credit union's field of membership who have been elected to membership in accordance with the Act or state law in the case of state-chartered credit unions. It also includes those nonmembers permitted under the Act to maintain accounts in an insured credit union, including nonmember credit unions and nonmember public units and political subdivisions. 
</P>
<P>(c) The term <I>public unit</I> means the United States, any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Panama Canal Zone, any territory or possession of the United States, any county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof, or any Indian tribe as defined in section 3(c) of the Indian Financing Act of 1974. 
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>political subdivision</I> includes any subdivision of a public unit, as defined in paragraph (c) of this section, or any principal department of such public unit, (1) the creation of which subdivision or department has been expressly authorized by state statute, (2) to which some functions of government have been delegated by state statute, and (3) to which funds have been allocated by statute or ordinance for its exclusive use and control. It also includes drainage, irrigation, navigation improvement, levee, sanitary, school or power districts and bridge or port authorities, and other special districts created by state statute or compacts between the states. Excluded from the term are subordinate or nonautonomous divisions, agencies, or boards within principal departments. 
</P>
<P>(e) The term “standard maximum share insurance amount,” referred to as the “SMSIA” hereafter, means $250,000 adjusted pursuant to subparagraph (F) of section 11(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)(F)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006; 73 FR 62858, Oct. 22, 2008; 74 FR 55749, Oct. 29, 2009; 75 FR 53843, Sept. 2, 2010; 76 FR 30253, May 25, 2011; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.2   General principles applicable in determining insurance of accounts.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="12">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79414, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part provides for determination by the Board of the amount of members' insured accounts. The rules for determining the insurance coverage of accounts maintained by members in the same or different rights and capacities in the same insured credit union are set forth in the following provisions of this part. The appendix provides examples of the application of these rules to various factual situations. While the provisions of this part govern in determining share insurance coverage, to the extent local law enters into a share insurance determination, the local law of the jurisdiction in which the insured credit union's principal office is located will control over the local law of other jurisdictions where the insured credit union has offices or service facilities. 
</P>
<P>(b) The regulations in this part in no way are to be interpreted to authorize any type of account that is not authorized by Federal law or regulation or State law or regulation or by the bylaws of a particular credit union. The purpose is to be as inclusive as possible of all situations. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records.</I> (1) The account records of the insured credit union shall be conclusive as to the existence of any relationship pursuant to which the funds in the account are deposited and on which a claim for insurance coverage is founded. Examples would be trustee, agent, custodian, or executor. No claim for insurance based on such a relationship will be recognized in the absence of such disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the account records of an insured credit union disclose the existence of a relationship which may provide a basis for additional insurance, the details of the relationship and the interest of other parties in the account must be ascertainable either from the records of the credit union or the records of the member, maintained in good faith and in the regular course of business by the member or by some person who or entity that has undertaken to maintain such records for the member.
</P>
<P>(3) The account records of an insured credit union in connection with a trust account shall disclose the name of both the settlor (grantor) and the trustee of the trust and shall contain an account signature card executed by the trustee. 
</P>
<P>(4) The interests of the co-owners of a joint account shall be deemed equal, unless otherwise stated on the insured credit union's records in the case of a tenancy in common. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Valuation of trust interests.</I> (1) Trust interests in the same trust deposited in the same account will be separately insured if the value of the trust interest is capable of determination, without evaluation of contingencies, except for those covered by the present worth tables and rules of calculation for their use set forth in § 20.2031-7 of the Federal Estate Tax Regulations (26 CFR 20.2031-7).
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with any trust in which certain trust interests are not capable of evaluation in accordance with the foregoing rule, payment by the Board to the trustee with respect to all such trust interests shall not exceed the SMSIA. 
</P>
<P>(3) Each trust interest in any trust established by two or more settlors shall be deemed to be derived from each settlor pro rata to his contribution to the trust. 
</P>
<P>(4) The term “trust interest” means the interest of a beneficiary in an irrevocable express trust, whether created by trust instrument or statute, but does not include any interest retained by the settlor. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Continuation of insurance coverage following the death of a member.</I> The death of a member will not affect the member's share insurance coverage for a period of six months following death unless the member's share accounts are restructured in that time period. If the accounts are restructured during the six-month grace period, or upon the expiration of the six months if not restructured, the share insurance coverage will be provided on the basis of actual ownership of the accounts in accordance with the provisions of this part. The operation of this grace period, however, will not result in a reduction of coverage.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuation of separate share insurance coverage after merger of insured credit unions.</I> Whenever the liability to pay the member accounts of one or more insured credit unions is assumed by another insured credit union, whether by merger, consolidation, other statutory assumption or contract: The insured status of the credit unions whose member account liability has been assumed terminates, for purposes of this section, on the date of receipt by NCUA of satisfactory evidence of the assumption; and the separate insurance of member accounts assumed continues for six months from the date the assumption takes effect or, in the case of a share certificate, the earliest maturity date after the six-month period. In the case of a share certificate that matures within the six-month grace period that is renewed at the same dollar amount, either with or without accrued dividends having been added to the principal amount, and for the same term as the original share certificate, the separate insurance applies to the renewed share certificate until the first maturity date after the six-month period. A share certificate that matures within the six-month grace period that is renewed on any other basis, or that is not renewed, is separately insured only until the end of the six-month grace period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 34924, June 1, 2000; 68 FR 75114, Dec. 30, 2003; 71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006; 89 FR 79414, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.3   Single ownership accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Funds owned by an individual and deposited in the manner set forth below shall be added together and insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Individual accounts.</I> Funds owned by an individual (or by the husband-wife community of which the individual is a member) and deposited in one or more accounts in the individual's own name shall be insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounts held by agents or nominees.</I> Funds owned by a principal and deposited in one or more accounts in the name or names of agents or nominees shall be added to any individual account of the principal and insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. This applies to interests created in qualified tuition savings programs established in connection with section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 529). 



 </P>
<P>(3) <I>Mortgage servicing accounts.</I> Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments of principal and interest, shall be insured for the cumulative balance paid into the account by mortgagors, or in order to satisfy mortgagors' principal or interest obligations to the lender, up to the limit of the SMSIA per mortgagor. Accounts maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, which are comprised of payments by mortgagors of taxes and insurance premiums shall be added together and insured in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the ownership interest of each mortgagor in such accounts.


</P>
<P>(b) Funds held by a guardian, custodian, or conservator for the benefit of his ward or for the benefit of a minor under a Uniform Gifts to Minors Act and deposited in one or more accounts in the name of the guardian, custodian, or conservator are insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate, separately from any other accounts of the guardian, custodian, conservator, ward, or minor. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006; 73 FR 62858, Oct. 22, 2008; 74 FR 55749, Oct. 29, 2009; 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.4   Revocable trust accounts.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="14">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, the funds owned by an individual and deposited into one or more accounts with respect to which the owner evidences an intention that upon his or her death the funds shall belong to one or more beneficiaries shall be separately insured (from other types of accounts the owner has at the same insured credit union) in an amount equal to the total number of different beneficiaries named in the account(s) multiplied by the SMSIA. This section applies to all accounts held in connection with informal and formal testamentary revocable trusts. Such informal trusts are commonly referred to as payable-on-death accounts, in-trust-for accounts or Totten Trust accounts, and such formal trusts are commonly referred to as living trusts or family trusts. (<E T="05">Example 1:</E> Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with four different beneficiaries named in the trust. A has no other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum insurance coverage would be $1,000,000, determined by multiplying 4 times $250,000 (the number of beneficiaries times the SMSIA). (<E T="05">Example 2:</E> Account Owner “A” has a payable-on-death account naming his niece and cousin as beneficiaries, and A also has, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, another payable-on-death account naming the same niece and a friend as beneficiaries. The maximum coverage available to the account owner would be $750,000. This is because the account owner has named only three different beneficiaries in the revocable trust accounts—his niece and cousin in the first, and the same niece and a friend in the second. The naming of the same beneficiary in more than one revocable trust account, whether it be a payable-on-death account or living trust account, does not increase the total coverage amount.) (<E T="05">Example 3:</E> Account Owner “A” establishes a living trust account with a balance of $300,000, naming his two children “B” and “C” as beneficiaries. A also establishes, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, a payable-on-death account, with a balance of $300,000, also naming his children B and C as beneficiaries. The maximum coverage available to A is $500,000, determined by multiplying 2 times $250,000 (the number of different beneficiaries times the SMSIA). A is uninsured in the amount of $100,000. This is because all funds that an owner holds in both living trust accounts and payable-on-death accounts, at the same NCUA-insured credit union and naming the same beneficiaries, are aggregated for insurance purposes and insured to the applicable coverage limits.)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required intention and naming of beneficiaries.</I> The required intention in paragraph (a) of this section that upon the owner's death the funds shall belong to one or more beneficiaries must be manifested in the title of the account or elsewhere in the account records of the credit union using commonly accepted terms such as, but not limited to, <I>in trust for, as trustee for, payable-on-death to,</I> or any acronym therefore, or by listing one or more beneficiaries in the account records of the credit union. In addition, for informal revocable trust accounts, the beneficiaries must be specifically named in the account records of the insured credit union. The settlor of a revocable trust shall be presumed to own the funds deposited into the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of beneficiary.</I> For purposes of this section, a beneficiary includes a natural person as well as a charitable organization and other non-profit entity recognized as such under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interests of beneficiaries outside the definition of beneficiary in this section.</I> If a beneficiary named in a trust covered by this section does not meet the definition of beneficiary in paragraph (c) of this section, the funds corresponding to that beneficiary shall be treated as the individually owned (single ownership) funds of the owner(s). As such, they shall be aggregated with any other single ownership accounts of such owner(s) and insured up to the SMSIA per owner. (<E T="05">Example:</E> Account Owner “A” establishes a payable-on-death account naming a pet as beneficiary with a balance of $100,000. A also has an individual account at the same NCUA-insured credit union with a balance of $175,000. Because the pet is not a “beneficiary,” the two accounts are aggregated and treated as a single ownership account. As a result, A is insured in the amount of $250,000, but is uninsured for the remaining $25,000.)
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Revocable trust accounts with aggregate balances exceeding five times the SMSIA and naming more than five different beneficiaries.</I> Notwithstanding the general coverage provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, for funds owned by an individual in one or more revocable trust accounts naming more than five different beneficiaries and whose aggregate balance is more than five times the SMSIA, the maximum revocable trust account coverage for the account owner shall be the greater of either: five times the SMSIA or the aggregate amount of the interests of each different beneficiary named in the trusts, to a limit of the SMSIA per different beneficiary. (<E T="05">Example 1:</E> Account Owner “A” has a living trust with a balance of $1 million and names two friends, “B” and “C” as beneficiaries. At the same NCUA-insured credit union, A establishes a payable-on-death account, with a balance of $1 million naming his two cousins, “D” and “E” as beneficiaries. Coverage is determined under the general coverage provisions in paragraph (a) of this section, and not this paragraph (e). This is because all funds that A holds in both living trust accounts and payable-on-death accounts, at the same NCUA-insured credit union, are aggregated for insurance purposes. Although A's aggregated balance of $2 million is more than five times the SMDIA, A names only four different beneficiaries, and coverage under this paragraph (e) applies only if there are more than five different beneficiaries. A is insured in the amount of $1 million (4 beneficiaries times the SMSIA), and uninsured for the remaining $1 million.) (<E T="05">Example 2:</E> Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with a balance of $1,500,000. Under the terms of the trust, upon A's death, A's three children are each entitled to $125,000, A's friend is entitled to $15,000, and a designated charity is entitled to $175,000. The trust also provides that the remainder of the trust assets shall belong to A's spouse. In this case, because the balance of the account exceeds $1,250,000 (5 times the SMSIA) and there are more than five different beneficiaries named in the trust, the maximum coverage available to A would be the greater of: $1,250,000 or the aggregate of each different beneficiary's interest to a limit of $250,000 per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust for purposes of determining coverage are: $125,000 for each of the children (totaling $375,000), $15,000 for the friend, $175,000 for the charity, and $250,000 for the spouse (because the spouse's $935,000 is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). The aggregate beneficial interests total $815,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to the account owner would be $1,250,000, the greater of $1,250,000 or $815,000.)
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Co-owned revocable trust accounts.</I> (1) Where an account described in paragraph (a) of this section is established by more than one owner, the respective interest of each account owner (which shall be deemed equal) shall be insured separately, per different beneficiary, up to the SMSIA, subject to the limitation imposed in paragraph (e) of this section. (<E T="05">Example 1:</E> A and B, two individuals, establish a payable-on-death account naming their three nieces as beneficiaries. Neither A nor B has any other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum coverage afforded to A and B would be $1,500,000, determined by multiplying the number of owners (2) times the SMSIA ($250,000) times the number of different beneficiaries (3). In this example, A would be entitled to revocable trust coverage of $750,000 and B would be entitled to revocable trust coverage of $750,000.) (<E T="05">Example 2:</E> A and B, two individuals, establish a payable-on-death account naming their two children, two cousins, and a charity as beneficiaries. The balance in the account is $1,750,000. Neither A nor B has any other revocable trust accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. The maximum coverage would be determined under paragraph (a) of this section by multiplying the number of account owners (2) times the number of different beneficiaries (5) times $250,000, totaling $2,500,000. Because the account balance ($1,750,000) is less than the maximum coverage amount ($2,500,000), the account would be fully insured.) (<E T="05">Example 3:</E> A and B, two individuals, establish a living trust account with a balance of $3.75 million. Under the terms of the trust, upon the death of both A and B, each of their three children is entitled to $600,000, B's cousin is entitled to $380,000, A's friend is entitled to $70,000, and the remaining amount ($1,500,000) goes to a charity. Under paragraph (e) of this section, the maximum coverage, as to each co-owned account owner, would be the greater of $1,250,000 or the aggregate amount (as to each co-owner) of the interest of each different beneficiary named in the trust, to a limit of $250,000 per account owner per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust considered for purposes of determining coverage for account owner A are: $750,000 for the children (each child's interest attributable to A, $300,000, is subject to the $250,000-per-beneficiary limitation), $190,000 for the cousin, $35,000 for the friend, and $250,000 for the charity (the charity's interest attributable to A, $750,000, is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). As to A, the aggregate amount of the beneficial interests eligible for deposit insurance coverage totals $1,225,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to account co-owner A would be $1,250,000, which is the greater of $1,250,000 or the aggregate of all the beneficial interests attributable to A (limited to $250,000 per beneficiary), which totaled slightly less at $1,225,000. Because B has equal ownership interest in the trust, the same analysis and coverage determination also would apply to B. Thus, of the total account balance of $3.75 million, $2.5 million would be insured and $1.25 million would be uninsured.)
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1) of this section, where the owners of a co-owned revocable trust account are themselves the sole beneficiaries of the corresponding trust, the account shall be insured as a joint account under section 745.8 and shall not be insured under the provisions of this section. (<E T="05">Example:</E> If A and B establish a payable-on-death account naming themselves as the sole beneficiaries of the account, the account will be insured as a joint account because the account does not satisfy the intent requirement (under paragraph (a) of this section) that the funds in the account belong to the named beneficiaries upon the owners' death. The beneficiaries are in fact the actual owners of the funds during the account owners' lifetimes.)
</P>
<P>(g) For deposit accounts held in connection with a living trust that provides for a life estate interest for designated beneficiaries, NCUA shall value each such life estate interest as the SMSIA for purposes of determining the insurance coverage available to the account owner under paragraph (e) of this section. (<E T="05">Example:</E> Account Owner “A” has a living trust account with a balance of $1,500,000. Under the terms of the trust, A provides a life estate interest for his spouse. Moreover, A's three children are each entitled to $275,000, A's friend is entitled to $15,000, and a designated charity is entitled to $175,000. The trust also provides that the remainder of the trust assets shall belong to A's granddaughter. In this case, because the balance of the account exceeds $1,250,000 (5 five times the SMSIA) and there are more than five different beneficiaries named in the trust, the maximum coverage available to A would be the greater of: $1,250,000 or the aggregate of each different beneficiary's interest to a limit of $250,000 per beneficiary. The beneficial interests in the trust considered for purposes of determining coverage are: $250,000 for the spouse's life estate, $750,000 for the children (because each child's $275,000 is subject to the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation), $15,000 for the friend, $175,000 for the charity, and $250,000 for the granddaughter (because the granddaughter's $310,000 remainder is limited by the $250,000 per-beneficiary limitation). The aggregate beneficial interests total $1,440,000. Thus, the maximum coverage afforded to the account owner would be $1,440,000, the greater of $1,250,000 or $1,440,000.)
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Revocable trusts that become irrevocable trusts.</I> Notwithstanding the provisions in section 745.9-1 on the insurance coverage of irrevocable trust accounts, if a revocable trust account converts in part or entirely to an irrevocable trust upon the death of one or more of the trust's owners, the trust account shall continue to be insured under the provisions of this section. (<E T="05">Example:</E> Assume A and B have a trust account in connection with a living trust, of which they are joint grantors. If upon the death of either A or B the trust transforms into an irrevocable trust as to the deceased grantor's ownership in the trust, the account will continue to be insured under the provisions of this section.)
</P>
<P>(i) This section shall apply to all existing and future revocable trust accounts and all existing and future irrevocable trust accounts resulting from formal revocable trust accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 55749, Oct. 29, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.5   Accounts held by executors or administrators.</HEAD>
<P>Funds of a decedent held in the name of the decedent or in the name of the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate and deposited in one or more accounts shall be insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all such accounts, separately from the individual accounts of the beneficiaries of the estate or of the executor or administrator. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.6   Accounts held by a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association.</HEAD>
<P>Accounts of a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association engaged in any independent activity shall be insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. The account of a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association not engaged in an independent activity shall be deemed to be owned by the person or persons owning such corporation or comprising such partnership or unincorporated association and, for account insurance purposes, the interest of each person in such an account shall be added to any other account individually owned by such person and insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. For purposes of this section, “independent activity” means an activity other than one directed solely at increasing insurance coverage. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.7   Shares accepted in a foreign currency.</HEAD>
<P>An insured credit union may accept shares denominated in a foreign currency. Shares denominated in a foreign currency will be insured in accordance with this part to the same extent as shares denominated in U.S. dollars. Insurance for shares denominated in foreign currency will be determined and paid in the amount of United States dollars that is equivalent in value to the amount of the shares denominated in the foreign currency as of close of business on the date of default of the insured credit union. The exchange rates to be used for such conversions are the 12 p.m. rates (the “noon buying rates for cable transfers”) quoted for major currencies by the Federal Reserve Bank of New York on the date of default of the insured credit union, unless the share agreement provides that some other widely recognized exchange rates are to be used for all purposes under that agreement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14635, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.8   Joint ownership accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Separate insurance coverage.</I> Qualifying joint accounts, whether owned as joint tenants with right of survivorship, as tenants by the entireties, as tenants in common, or by husband and wife as community property, shall be insured separately from accounts individually owned by any of the co-owners. The interest of a co-owner in all qualifying joint accounts shall be added together and the total for that co-owner shall be insured up to the SMSIA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of insurance coverage.</I> The interests of each co-owner in all qualifying joint accounts shall be added together and the total shall be insured up to the SMSIA. (<E T="05">Example:</E> “A&amp;B” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $150,000; “A&amp;C” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $200,000; and “A&amp;B&amp;C” have a qualifying joint account with a balance of $375,000. A's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $300,000 ($75,000 plus $100,000 plus $125,000); therefore, A's interest would be insured in the amount of $250,000 and uninsured in the amount of $50,000. B's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $200,000 ($75,000 plus $125,000); therefore, B's interest would be fully insured. C's combined ownership interest in all qualifying joint accounts would be $225,000 ($100,000 plus $125,000); therefore, C's interest would be fully insured.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualifying joint accounts.</I> (1) A joint account is a qualifying joint account if each of the co-owners has personally signed a membership or account signature card and has a right of withdrawal on the same basis as the other co-owners. The signature requirement does not apply to share certificates, or to any accounts maintained by an agent, nominee, guardian, custodian or conservator on behalf of two or more persons if the records of the credit union properly reflect that the account is so maintained.
</P>
<P>(2) The signature card requirement of paragraph (c)(1) of this section also may be satisfied by information contained in the account records of the federally insured credit union establishing co-ownership of the share account, including, but not limited to, evidence that the institution has issued a mechanism for accessing the account to each co-owner or evidence of usage of the share account by each co-owner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to qualify.</I> A joint account that does not meet the requirements for a qualifying joint account shall be treated as owned by the named persons as individuals and the actual ownership interest of each such person in such account shall be added to any other accounts individually owned by such person and insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate. An account will not fail to qualify as a joint account if a joint owner is a minor and applicable state law limits or restricts a minor's withdrawal rights.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonmember joint owners.</I> A nonmember may become a joint owner with a member on a joint account with right of survivorship. The nonmember's interest in such accounts will be insured in the same manner as the member joint-owner's interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 19687, Apr. 22, 1999, as amended at 71 FR 14636, Mar. 23, 2006; 74 FR 55751, Oct. 29, 2009; 86 FR 11102, Feb. 24, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.9-1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.9-1   Trust accounts.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="15">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section, “trust” refers to an irrevocable trust. 
</P>
<P>(b) All trust interests (as defined in § 745.2(d)(4)), for the same beneficiary, deposited in an account and established pursuant to valid trust agreements created by the same settlor (grantor) shall be added together and insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate, separately from other accounts of the trustee of such trust funds or the settlor or beneficiary of such trust arrangements. 
</P>
<P>(c) This section applies to trust interests created in Coverdell Education Savings Accounts, formerly Education IRAs, established in connection with section 530 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 530).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 34924, June 1, 2000; 68 FR 75114, Dec. 30, 2003; 71 FR 14636, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.9-2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.9-2   Retirement and other employee benefit plan accounts.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="16">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="17">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Pass-through share insurance.</I> Any shares of an employee benefit plan in an insured credit union shall be insured on a “pass-through” basis, in the amount of up to the SMSIA for the non-contingent interest of each plan participant, in accordance with § 745.2 of this part. An insured credit union that is not “well capitalized” or “adequately capitalized,” as those terms are defined in 12 U.S.C. 1790d(c), may not accept employee benefit plan deposits. The terms “employee benefit plan” and “pass-through share insurance” are given the same meaning in this section as in 12 U.S.C. 1787(k)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Treatment of contingent interests.</I> In the event that participants' interests in an employee benefit plan are not capable of evaluation in accordance with the provisions of this section, or an account established for any such plan includes amounts for future participants in the plan, payment by the NCUA with respect to all such interests shall not exceed the SMSIA in the aggregate.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Certain retirement accounts.</I> Shares in an insured credit union made in connection with the following types of retirement plans shall be aggregated and insured in the amount of up to $250,000 (which amount shall be subject to inflation adjustments as provided under section 11(a)(1)(F) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, except that $250,000 shall be substituted for $100,000 wherever such term appears in such section) per account:
</P>
<P>(i) Any individual retirement account described in section 408(a) (IRA) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 408(a)) or similar provisions of law applicable to a U.S. territory or possession;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any individual retirement account described in section 408A (Roth IRA) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 408A) or similar provisions of law applicable to a U.S. territory or possession; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any plan described in section 401(d) (Keogh account) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(d)) or similar provisions of law applicable to a U.S. territory or possession.
</P>
<P>(2) Insurance coverage for the accounts enumerated in paragraph (c)(1) of this section is based on the present vested ascertainable interest of a participant or designated beneficiary. For insurance purposes, IRA and Roth IRA accounts will be combined together and insured in the aggregate up to $250,000 (which amount shall be subject to inflation adjustments as provided under section 11(a)(1)(F) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, except that $250,000 shall be substituted for $100,000 wherever such term appears in such section). A Keogh account will be separately insured from an IRA account, Roth IRA account or, where applicable, aggregated IRA and Roth IRA accounts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 14636, Mar. 23, 2006, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.10   Accounts held by government depositors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Public funds invested in Federal credit unions and federally insured state-chartered credit unions authorized to accept such investments shall be insured as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Each official custodian of funds of the United States lawfully investing the same in a federally insured credit union will be separately insured in the amount of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share draft accounts; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share certificate and regular share accounts; 
</P>
<P>(2) Each official custodian of funds of any state of the United States or any county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof lawfully investing the same in a federally insured credit union in the same state will be separately insured in the amount of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share draft accounts; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share certificate and regular share accounts; 
</P>
<P>(3) Each official custodian of funds of the District of Columbia lawfully investing the same in a federally insured credit union in the District of Columbia will be separately insured in the amount of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share draft accounts; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share certificate and regular share accounts; 
</P>
<P>(4) Each official custodian of funds of the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Panama Canal Zone, or any territory or possession of the United States, or any county, municipality, or political subdivision thereof lawfully investing the same in a federally insured credit union in Puerto Rico, the Panama Canal Zone, or any such territory or possession, respectively, will be separately insured in the amount of: 
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share draft accounts; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share certificate and regular share accounts; 
</P>
<P>(5) Each official custodian of tribal funds of any Indian tribe (as defined in section 3(c) of the Indian Financing Act of 1974) or agency thereof lawfully investing the same in a federally insured credit union will be separately insured in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share draft accounts; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all share certificate and regular share accounts; 
</P>
<P>(b) Each official custodian referred to in paragraphs (a)(2), (3), and (4) of this section lawfully investing such funds in share accounts in a federally insured credit union outside of their respective jurisdictions shall be separately insured up to the SMSIA in the aggregate for all such accounts regardless of whether they are share draft, share certificate or regular share accounts.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, if the same person is an official custodian of more than one public unit, he shall be separately insured with respect to the public funds held by him for each such unit, but he shall not be separately insured with respect to all public funds of the same public unit by virtue of holding different offices in such unit or by holding such funds for different purposes. Where an officer, agent or employee of a public unit has custody of certain funds which by law or under a bond indenture are required to be set aside to discharge a debt owed to the holders of notes or bonds issued by the public unit, any investment of such funds in an account in a federally insured credit union will be deemed to be a share account established by a trustee of trust funds of which the noteholders or bondholders are pro rata beneficiaries, and the beneficial interest of each noteholder or bondholder in the share account will be separately insured up to the SMSIA.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section, “lawfully investing” means pursuant to the statutory or regulatory authority of the custodian or public unit. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 65 FR 34925, June 1, 2000; 71 FR 14636, Mar. 23, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.11   Accounts evidenced by negotiable instruments.</HEAD>
<P>If any insured account obligation of a credit union is evidenced by a negotiable certificate account, negotiable draft, negotiable cashier's or officer's check, negotiable certified check, or negotiable traveler's check or letter of credit, the owner of such account obligation will be recognized for all purposes of a claim for insured accounts to the same extent as if his name and interest were disclosed on the records of the credit union provided the instrument was in fact negotiated to such owner prior to the date of the closing of the credit union. Affirmative proof of such negotiation must be offered in all cases to substantiate the claim. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.12   Account obligations for payment of items forwarded for collection by depository institution acting as agent.</HEAD>
<P>Where a closed credit union has become obligated for the payment of items forwarded for collection by a depository institution acting solely as agent, the owner of such items will be recognized for all purposes of a claim for insured accounts to the same extent as if his name and interest were disclosed on the records of the credit union when such claim for insured accounts, if otherwise payable, has been established by the execution and delivery of prescribed forms. Such depository institution forwarding such items for the owners thereof will be recognized as agent for such owners for the purpose of making an assignment of the rights of such owners against the closed insured credit union to the Board and for the purpose of receiving payment on behalf of such owners. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.13   Notification to members/shareholders.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="18">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<P>Each insured credit union shall provide notice to its members concerning NCUA insurance coverage of member accounts. This may be accomplished by placing either a copy of part 745 of these rules, the appendix, or one or more copies of the NCUA brochure “Your Insured Funds” in each branch office and main office of the credit union. Copies of these materials shall also be made available to members upon request. For purposes of this section, an automated teller machine or point of sale terminal is not a branch office.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.1.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.14   Interest on lawyers trust accounts and other similar escrow accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Pass-through share insurance.</I> The deposits or shares of any interest on lawyers trust account (IOLTA) or other similar escrow account in an insured credit union are insured on a “pass-through” basis, in the amount of up to the SMSIA for each client and principal on whose behalf funds are held in such accounts by either the attorney administering the IOLTA or the escrow agent administering a similar escrow account, in accordance with the other share insurance provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Pass-through coverage will only be available if the recordkeeping requirements of § 745.2(c)(1) and the relationship disclosure requirements of § 745.2(c)(2) are satisfied. In the event those requirements are satisfied, funds attributable to each client and principal will be insured on a pass-through basis in whatever right and capacity the client or principal owns the funds. For example, an IOLTA or other similar escrow account must be titled as such, and the underlying account records of the insured credit union must sufficiently indicate the existence of the relationship on which a claim for insurance is founded. The details of the relationship between the attorney or escrow agent and their clients and principals must be ascertainable from the records of the insured credit union or from records maintained, in good faith and in the regular course of business, by the attorney or the escrow agent administering the account, or by some person who or entity that has undertaken to maintain such records for the attorney or escrow agent. The NCUA will determine, in its sole discretion, the sufficiency of these records for an IOLTA or other similar escrow account.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Membership requirements and treatment of IOLTAs.</I> For share insurance purposes, IOLTAs are treated as escrow accounts. IOLTAs and other similar escrow accounts are considered member accounts and eligible for pass-through share insurance if the attorney administering the IOLTA or the escrow agent administering the escrow account is a member of the insured credit union in which the funds are held. In this circumstance, the membership status of the clients or the principals is irrelevant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Interest on lawyers trust account and IOLTA</I> mean a system in which lawyers place certain client funds in interest-bearing or dividend-bearing accounts, with the interest or dividends then used to fund programs such as legal service organizations who provide services to clients in need.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other similar escrow account</I> means an account where a licensed professional or other individual serving in a fiduciary capacity holds funds for the benefit of a client or principal as part of a transaction or business relationship. Examples of such accounts include, but are not limited to, real estate escrow accounts and prepaid funeral accounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Pass-through share insurance</I> means, with respect to IOLTAs and other similar escrow accounts, insurance coverage based on the interest of each person on whose behalf funds are held in such accounts by the attorney administering the IOLTA or the escrow agent administering a similar escrow account.
</P>
<P>(2) The terms “interest on lawyers trust account”, “IOLTA”, and “pass-through share insurance” are given the same meaning in this section as in 12 U.S.C. 1787(k)(5).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 80642, Dec. 28, 2015; 89 FR 79415, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Payment of Share Insurance and Appeals</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 5586, Feb. 16, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 745.200" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.200   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment.</I> In the event of the liquidation of an insured credit union, the Board will promptly determine the insured accountholders thereof and the amount of the insured account or accounts of each such accountholder. Payment may be in cash, or its equivalent, or may be made by making available to each accountholder a transferred account in a new federally insured credit union in the same community or in another federally insured credit union or institution in an amount equal to the accountholder's insured account. Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Board may withhold payment of such portion of the insured account of any member as may be required to provide for payment of any direct or indirect liability to the closed credit union or the liquidating agent, which is not offset against a claim due from such credit union, pending the determination and payment of such liability by the member of or any person liable therefor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount of insurance.</I> The amount of insurance on an insured account shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of Subpart A of this part and the Federal Credit Union Act. For the purpose of determining insurance coverage, dividends earned in the ordinary course of business and posted to share accounts for any prior accounting or dividend period shall be deemed to be principal under this part. Dividends earned or accrued in the ordinary course of business, but not posted to share accounts, may be paid at the discretion of the liquidating agent. In making such determination, the liquidating agent will take into consideration whether the failure to post dividends earned or accrued was due to the fraud, embezzlement or accounting errors of credit union personnel. The liquidating agent may require an accountholder to submit documentation supporting any claim for unposted dividends not otherwise evidenced in the credit union records. However, in no event will dividend amounts be considered as principal for insurance purposes pursuant to this section if not consistent with the amounts paid on similar classes of shares. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple accounts.</I> In the event an insured member holds more than one insured account in the same capacity, and the aggregate amount of such accounts (including share draft accounts held in such capacity) exceeds the amount of insurance afforded thereon, the insurance coverage will be prorated among the member's interest in all accounts held in the same capacity. In the case of individual accounts, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the holder of the account, whether or not the holder is the beneficial owner. In the case of accounts which are owned jointly, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the owners jointly. In the case of trust estates, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the indicated trustee unless otherwise provided for in the trust instrument or under state law. In the case of corporations, partnerships and unincorporated associations engaged in an independent activity, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the indicated holder of the account. Where insurance payment is in the form of a transferred account to another insured institution, the same rules shall be applied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Computing time.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the provisions of § 747.12(a) shall apply. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 5586, Feb. 16, 1990, as amended at 61 FR 60186, Nov. 27, 1996]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.201   Processing of insurance claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegations of authority.</I> The Agent for the Liquidating Agent (“Liquidating Agent”) or his or her designee is authorized to make initial determinations with respect to insurance claims pursuant to the principles set forth in this part, and to act on requests for reconsideration of the initial determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination.</I> In the event the Liquidating Agent determines that all or a portion of an accountholder's account is uninsured, the Liquidating Agent shall so notify the accountholder in writing, stating the reason(s) for such initial determination, and shall provide the accountholder with a certificate of claim in liquidation in the amount of the uninsured account from the Board in its capacity as Liquidating Agent for the insured credit union to enable the accountholder to share in the proceeds of the liquidation of the credit union, if any, up to the amount of the uninsured account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration and appeals.</I> An accountholder may request reconsideration from the Liquidating Agent of the initial determination and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[55 FR 5586, Feb. 16, 1990, as amended at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 745.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 745.202   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of seeking judicial review of actions taken pursuant to this subpart, only a determination on appeal issued by the Board pursuant to § 745.202 of this subpart shall constitute a final determination regarding an accountholder's claim for insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) Failure to file an appeal with regard to an initial determination, or a decision rendered on a request for reconsideration within the applicable time periods shall constitute a failure by the accountholder to exhaust available administrative remedies and, due to such failure, any objections to the initial determination or request for reconsideration shall be deemed to be waived and such determination shall be deemed to have been accepted by, and binding upon, the accountholder.
</P>
<P>(c) Final determination by the Board is reviewable in accordance with the provisions of chapter 7, title 5, United States Code, by the United States district court for the Federal judicial district where the credit union's principal place of business is located. Such action must be filed not later than 60 days after such final determination is ordered.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 37560, Oct. 23, 1986, as amended at 71 FR 67440, Nov. 22, 2006. Redesignated at 82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017; 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.27.2.11.4.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 745—Examples of Insurance Coverage Afforded Accounts in Credit Unions Insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20240930" REFID="20">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 79416, Sept. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<HD1>What Is the Purpose of This Appendix?
</HD1>
<P>The following examples illustrate insurance coverage on accounts maintained in the same federally insured credit union. They are intended to cover various types of ownership interests and combinations of accounts which may occur in connection with funds invested in insured credit unions. These examples interpret the rules for insurance of accounts contained in 12 CFR part 745 and focus on those accounts for which examples are not provided in the regulatory text.
</P>
<P>The examples, as well as the rules which they interpret, are predicated upon the assumption that: (1) Invested funds are actually owned in the manner indicated on the credit union's records and (2) the owner of funds in an account is a credit union member or otherwise eligible to maintain an insured account in a credit union. If available evidence shows that ownership is different from that on the institution's records, the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund may pay claims for insured accounts on the basis of actual rather than ostensible ownership. Further, the examples and the rules which they interpret do not extend insurance coverage to persons otherwise not entitled to maintain an insured account or to account relationships that have not been approved by the NCUA Board as an insured account.
</P>
<HD2>A. How Are Single Ownership Accounts Insured?
</HD2>
<P>All funds owned by an individual member (or, in a community property state, by the husband-wife community of which the individual is a member) and invested in one or more individual accounts are added together and insured to the $250,000 maximum. This is true whether the accounts are maintained in the name of the individual member owning the funds or in the name of the member's agent or nominee. (§ 745.3(a)(1) and (2).) All such accounts are added together and insured as one individual account. Funds held in one or more accounts in the name of a guardian, custodian, or conservator for the benefit of a ward or minor are added together and insured up to $250,000. However, such an account or accounts will not be added to any other individual accounts of the guardian, custodian, conservator, ward, or minor for purposes of determining insurance coverage. (§ 745.3(b).) A mortgage servicing account maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, comprised of payments by a mortgagor of principal and interest is insured for the cumulative balance paid into the account by the mortgagor, up to $250,000 for the mortgagor separately from other individual accounts of the mortgagor. A mortgage servicing account maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, comprised of payments by a mortgagor of taxes and insurance premiums shall be added together with the mortgagor's other individual accounts and insured up to $250,000. (§ 745.3(a)(3).)
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Members A and B, husband and wife, each maintain an individual account containing $250,000. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Each account is separately insured up to $250,000, for a total coverage of $500,000. The coverage would be the same whether the individual accounts contain funds owned as community property or as individual property of the spouses (§ 745.3(a)(1)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Members H and W, husband and wife, reside in a community property state. H maintains a $250,000 account consisting of his separately-owned funds and invests $250,000 of community property funds in another account, both of which are in his name alone. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The two accounts are added together and insured to a total of $250,000. $250,000 is uninsured (§ 745.3(a)(1)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A has $192,500 invested in an individual account, and his agent, Member B, invests $125,000 of A's funds in a properly designated agency account. B also holds a $250,000 individual account. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: A's individual account and the agency account are added together and insured to the $250,000 maximum, leaving $67,500 uninsured. The investment of funds through an agent does not result in additional insurance coverage for the principal (§ 745.3(a)(2)). B's individual account is insured separately from the agency account (§ 745.3(a)(1)). However, if the account records of the credit union do not show the agency relationship under which the funds in the $125,000 account are held, the $250,000 in B's name could, at the option of the NCUSIF, be added to his individual account and insured to $250,000 in the aggregate, leaving $125,000 uninsured (§ 745.2(c)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A holds a $250,000 individual account. Member B holds two accounts in his own name, the first containing $125,000 and the second containing $192,500. In processing the claims for payment of insurance on these accounts, the NCUSIF discovers that the funds in the $125,000 account actually belong to A and that B had invested these funds as agent for A, his undisclosed principal. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Since the available evidence shows that A is the actual owner of the funds in the $125,000 account, those funds would be added to the $250,000 individual account held by A (rather than to B's $192,500 account) and insured to the $250,000 maximum, leaving $125,000 uninsured. (§ 745.3(a)(2).) B's $192,500 individual account would be separately insured.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member C, a minor, maintains an individual account of $750. C's grandfather makes a gift to him of $250,000, which is invested in another account by C's father, designated on the credit union's records as custodian under a Uniform Gift to Minors Act. C's father, also a member, maintains an individual account of $250,000. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: C's individual account and the custodian account held for him by his father are each separately insured: The $250,000 maximum on the custodian account, and $750 on his individual account. The individual account held by C's father is also separately insured to the $250,000 maximum. (§ 745.3 (a)(1) and (b).)
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member G, a court-appointed guardian, invests in a properly designated account $250,000 of funds in his custody which belong to member W, his ward. W and G each maintain $25,000 individual accounts. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: W's individual account and the guardianship account in G's name are each insured to $250,000 providing W with $275,000 in insured funds. G's individual account is also separately insured. (§ 745.3 (a)(1) and (b).)
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A has three individual accounts at the same NCUA-insured credit union. Account #1 is a $250,000 individual account. Account #2 is a mortgage servicing account maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, comprised of payments by Member A of principal and interest in the amount of $3,000. Account #3 is a mortgage servicing account maintained by a mortgage servicer, in a custodial or other fiduciary capacity, comprised of payments by Member A of taxes and insurance premiums in the amount of $1,500. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Accounts # 1 and #3 are added together and insured up to $250,000, leaving $1,500 uninsured. Account #2 is separately insured up to $250,000.
</P>
<HD2>B. How Are Accounts Held by Executors or Administrators Insured?
</HD2>
<P>All funds belonging to a decedent and invested in one or more accounts, whether held in the name of the decedent or in the name of his executor or administrator, are added together and insured to the $250,000 maximum. Such funds are insured separately from the individual accounts of any of the beneficiaries of the estate or of the executor or administrator.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A, administrator of Member D's estate, sells D's automobile and invests the proceeds of $12,500 in an account entitled “A Administrator of the estate of D.” A has an individual account in that same credit union containing $250,000. Prior to his death, D had opened an individual account of $250,000. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The $12,500 is added to D's individual account and insured to $250,000, leaving $12,500 uninsured. A's individual account is separately insured for $250,000 (§ 745.5).
</P>
<HD2>C. How Are Accounts Held by a Corporation, Partnership or Unincorporated Association Insured?
</HD2>
<P>All funds invested in an account or accounts by a corporation, a partnership or an unincorporated association engaged in any independent activity are added together and insured to the $250,000 maximum. The term “independent activity” means any activity other than the one directed solely at increasing coverage. If the corporation, partnership or unincorporated association is not engaged in an independent activity, any account held by the entity is insured as if owned by the persons owning or comprising the entity, and the imputed interest of each such person is added for insurance purposes to any individual account which he maintains.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member X Corporation maintains a $250,000 account. The stock of the corporation is owned by members A, B, C, and D in equal shares. Each of these stockholders also maintains an individual account of $250,000 with the same credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Each of the five accounts would be separately insured to $250,000 if the corporation is engaged in an independent activity and has not been established merely for the purpose of increasing insurance coverage. The same would be true if the business were operated as a bona fide partnership instead of as a corporation (§ 745.6). However, if X corporation was not engaged in an independent activity, then $62,500 (
<FR>1/4</FR> interest) would be added to each account of A, B, C, and D. The accounts of A, B, C, and D would then each be insured to $250,000, leaving $62,500 in each account uninsured.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member C College maintains three separate accounts with the same credit union under the titles: “General Operating Fund,” “Teachers Salaries,” and “Building Fund.” What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Since all of the funds are the property of the college, the three accounts are added together and insured only to the $250,000 maximum (§ 745.6).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>Question: The men's club of X Church carries on various social activities in addition to holding several fund-raising campaigns for the church each year. The club is supported by membership dues. Both the club and X Church maintain member accounts in the same credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The men's club is an unincorporated association engaged in an independent activity. If the club funds are, in fact, legally owned by the club itself and not the church, each account is separately insured to the $250,000 maximum (§ 745.6).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>Question: The PQR Union, a member of the ABC Federal Credit Union, has three locals in a certain city. Each of the locals maintains an account containing funds belonging to the parent organization. All three accounts are in the same insured credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The three accounts are added together and insured up to the $250,000 maximum (§ 745.6).
</P>
<HD2>D. How Are Accounts Held by Government Depositors Insured?
</HD2>
<P>For insurance purposes, the official custodian of funds belonging to a public unit, rather than the public unit itself, is insured as the account holder. All funds belonging to a public unit and invested by the same custodian in a federally insured credit union are categorized as either share draft accounts or share certificate and regular share accounts. If these accounts are invested in a federally insured credit union located in the jurisdiction from which the official custodian derives his authority, then the share draft accounts will be insured separately from the share certificate and regular share accounts. Under this circumstance, all share draft accounts are added together and insured to the $250,000 maximum and all share certificate and regular share accounts are also added together and separately insured up to the $250,000 maximum. If, however, these accounts are invested in a federally insured credit union located outside of the jurisdiction from which the official custodian derives his authority, then insurance coverage is limited to $250,000 for all accounts regardless of whether they are share draft, share certificate or regular share accounts. If there is more than one official custodian for the same public unit, the funds invested by each custodian are separately insured. If the same person is custodian of funds for more than one public unit, he is separately insured with respect to the funds of each unit held by him in properly designated accounts.
</P>
<P>For insurance purposes, a “political subdivision” is entitled to the same insurance coverage as any other public unit. “Political subdivision” includes any subdivision of a public unit or any principal department of such unit: (1) The creation of which has been expressly authorized by state statute, (2) to which some functions of government have been allocated by state statute, and (3) to which funds have been allocated by statute or ordinance for its exclusive use and control.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Question: As Comptroller of Y Consolidated School District, A maintains a $275,000 account in the credit union containing school district funds. He also maintains his own $250,000 member account in the same credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The two accounts will be separately insured, assuming the credit union's records indicate that the account containing the school district funds is held by A in a fiduciary capacity. Thus, $250,000 of the school's funds and the entire $250,000 in A's personal account will be insured (§§ 745.10(a)(2) and 754.3).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A, as city treasurer, and B, as chief of the city police department, each have $250,000 in city funds invested in custodial accounts. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Assuming that both A and B have official custody of the city funds, each account is separately insured to the $250,000 maximum (§ 745.10(a)(2)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A is Treasurer of X County and collects certain tax assessments, a portion of which must be paid to the state under statutory requirement. A maintains an account for general funds of the county and establishes a separate account for the funds which belong to the State Treasurer. The credit union's records indicate that the separate account contains funds held for the State. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Since two public units own the funds held by A, the accounts would each be separately insured to the $250,000 maximum (§ 745.10(a)(2)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A city treasurer invests city funds in each of the following accounts: “General Operating Account,” “School Transportation Fund,” “Local Maintenance Fund,” and “Payroll Fund.” Each account is available to the custodian upon demand. By administrative direction, the city treasurer has allocated the funds for the use of and control by separate departments of the city. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: All of the accounts are added together and insured in the aggregate to $250,000. Because the allocation of the city's funds is not by statute or ordinance for the specific use of and control by separate departments of the city, separate insurance coverage to the maximum of $250,000 is not afforded to each account (§§ 745.1(d) and 745.10(a)(2)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A, the custodian of retirement funds of a military exchange, invests $2,500,000 in an account in an insured credit union. The military exchange, a non-appropriated fund instrumentality of the United States, is deemed to be a public unit. The employees of the exchange are the beneficiaries of the retirement funds but are not members of the credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Because A invested the funds on behalf of a public unit, in his capacity as custodian, those funds qualify for $250,000 share insurance even though A and the public unit are not within the credit union's field of membership. Since the beneficiaries are neither public units nor members of the credit union they are not entitled to separate share insurance. Therefore, $2,250,000 is uninsured (§ 745.10(a)(1)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 6.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A is the custodian of the County's employee retirement funds. He deposits $2,500,000 in retirement funds in an account in an insured credit union. The “beneficiaries” of the retirement fund are not themselves public units nor are they within the credit union's field of membership. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Because A invested the funds on behalf of a public unit, in his capacity as custodian, those funds qualify for $250,000 share insurance even though A and the public unit are not within the credit union's field of membership. Since the beneficiaries are neither public units nor members of the credit union they are not entitled to separate share insurance. Therefore, $2,250,000 is uninsured (§ 745.10(a)(2)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 7.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A county treasurer establishes the following share draft accounts in an insured credit union each with $250,000:</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<FP-1>“General Operating Fund”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“County Roads Department Fund”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“County Water District Fund”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“County Public Improvement District Fund”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>“County Emergency Fund”
</FP-1>
<FP-1>What is the insurance coverage?
</FP-1>
<P>Answer: The “County Roads Department,” “County Water District” and “County Public Improvement District” accounts would each be separately insured to $250,000 if the funds in each such account have been allocated by law for the exclusive use of a separate county department or subdivision expressly authorized by State statute. Funds in the “General Operating” and “Emergency Fund” accounts would be added together and insured in the aggregate to $250,000, if such funds are for countywide use and not for the exclusive use of any subdivision or principal department of the county, expressly authorized by State statute (§§ 745.1(d) and 745.10(a)(2)).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 8.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A, the custodian of Indian tribal funds, lawfully invests $2,500,000 in an account in an insured credit union on behalf of 15 different tribes; the records of the credit union show that no tribe's interest exceeds $250,000. A, as official custodian, also invests $2,500,000 in the same credit union on behalf of 100 individual Indians, who are not members; each Indian's interest is $10,000. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Because each tribe is considered a separate public unit, the custodian of each tribe, even though the same person, is entitled to separate insurance for each tribe (§ 745.10(a)(5)). Since the credit union's records indicate no tribe has more than $250,000 in the account, the $2,500,000 would be fully insured as 15 separate tribal accounts. If anyone tribe had more than a $250,000 interest in the funds, it would be insured only to $250,000 and any excess would be uninsured.
</P>
<P>However, the $2,500,000 invested on behalf of the individual Indians would not be insured since the individual Indians are neither public units nor, in the example, members of the credit union. If A is the custodian of the funds in his capacity as an official of a governmental body that qualified as a public unit, then the account would be insured for $250,000, leaving $2,250,000 uninsured.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 9.</HED><PSPACE>Question: A, an official custodian of funds of a state of the United States, lawfully invests $500,000 of state funds in a federally insured credit union located in the state from which he derives his authority as an official custodian. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: If A invested the entire $500,000 in a share draft account, then $250,000 would be insured and $250,000 would be uninsured. If A invested $250,000 in share draft accounts and another $250,000 in share certificate and regular share accounts, then A would be insured for $250,000 for the share draft accounts and $250,000 for the share certificate and regular share accounts leaving nothing uninsured (§ 745.10(a)(2)). If A had invested the $500,000 in a federally insured credit union located outside the state from which he derives his authority as an official custodian, then $250,000 would be insured for all accounts regardless of whether they were share draft, share certificate or regular share accounts, leaving $250,000 uninsured (§ 745.10(b)).
</P>
<HD2>E. How Are Trust Accounts and Retirement Accounts Insured?
</HD2>
<P>A trust estate is the interest of a beneficiary in an irrevocable express trust, whether created by trust instrument or statute, which is valid under state law. Thus, funds invested in an account by a trustee under an irrevocable express trust are insured on the basis of the beneficial interests under such trust. The interest of each beneficiary in an account (or accounts) established under such a trust arrangement is insured to $250,000 separately from other accounts held by the trustee, the settlor (grantor), or the beneficiary. However, in cases where a beneficiary has an interest in more than one trust arrangement created by the same settlor, the interests of the beneficiary in all accounts established under such trusts are added together for insurance purposes, and the beneficiary's aggregate interest derived from the same settlor is separately insured to the $250,000 maximum.
</P>
<P>A beneficiary's interest in an account established pursuant to an irrevocable express trust arrangement is insured separately from other beneficial interests (trust estates) invested in the same account if the value of the beneficiary's interest (trust estate) can be determined (as of the date of a credit union's insolvency) without evaluation of contingencies except for those covered by the present worth tables and rules of calculation for their use set forth in § 20.2031-10 of the Federal Estate Tax Regulations (26 CFR 20.2031-10). If any trust estates in such an account cannot be so determined, the insurance with respect to all such trust estates together shall not exceed $250,000.
</P>
<P>In order for insurance coverage of trust accounts to be effective in accordance with the foregoing rules, certain recordkeeping requirements must be met. In connection with each trust account, the credit union's records must indicate the name of both the settlor and the trustee of the trust and must contain an account signature card executed by the trustee indicating the fiduciary capacity of the trustee. In addition, the interests of the beneficiaries under the trust must be ascertainable from the records of either the credit union or the trustee, and the settlor or beneficiary must be a member of the credit union. If there are two or more settlors or beneficiaries, then either all the settlors or all the beneficiaries must be members of the credit union.
</P>
<P>Although each ascertainable trust estate is separately insured, it should be noted that in short-term trusts the insurable interest or interests may be very small, since the interests are computed only for the duration of the trust. Thus, if a trust is made irrevocable for a specified period of time, the beneficial interest will be calculated in terms of the length of time stated. A reversionary interest retained by the settlor is treated in the same manner as an individual account of the settlor.
</P>
<P>As stated, the trust must be valid under local law. A trust which does not meet local requirements, such as one imposing no duties on the trustee or conveying no interest to the beneficiary, is of no effect for insurance purposes. An account in which such funds are invested is considered to be an individual account.
</P>
<P>IRA and Keogh accounts are separately insured, each up to $250,000. Although credit unions may serve as trustees or custodians for self-directed IRA, Roth IRA and Keogh accounts, once the funds in those accounts are taken out of the credit union, they are no longer insured.
</P>
<P>In the case of an employee retirement fund where only a portion of the fund is placed in a credit union account, the amount of insurance available to an individual participant on his interest in the account will be in proportion to his interest in the entire employee retirement fund. If, for example, the member's interest represents 10% of the entire plan funds, then he is presumed to have only a 10% interest in the plan account. Said another way, if a member has a vested interest of $10,000 in a municipal employees retirement plan and the trustee invests 25% of the total plan funds in a credit union, the member would be insured for only $2,500 on that credit union account. There is an exception, however. The member would be insured for $10,000 if the trustee can document, through records maintained in the ordinary course of business, that individual beneficiary's interests are segregated and the total vested interest of the member was, in fact, invested in that account.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member S invests $250,000 in trust for B, the beneficiary. S also has an individual account containing $250,000 in the same credit union. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Both accounts are fully insured. The trust account is separately insured from the individual account of S (§§ 745.3(a)(1) and 745.9-1).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2.</HED><PSPACE>Question: S invests funds in trust for A, B, C, D, and E. A, B, and C are members of the credit union, D, E and S are not. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: This is an uninsurable account. Where there is more than one settlor or more than one beneficiary, all the settlors or all the beneficiaries must be members to establish this type of account. Since D, E and S are not members, this account cannot legally be established or insured.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3(a).</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member T invests $5,000,000 in trust for ABC Employees Retirement Fund. Some of the participants are members and some are not. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The account is insured as to the determinable interests of each participant to a maximum of $250,000 per participant regardless of credit union member status. T's member status is also irrelevant. Participant interests not capable of evaluation shall be added together and insured to a maximum of $250,000 in the aggregate (§ 745.9-2).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3(b).</HED><PSPACE>Question: T is trustee for the ABC Employees Retirement Fund containing $1,000,000. Fund participant A has a determinable interest of $90,000 in the Fund (9% of the total). T invests $500,000 of the Fund in an insured credit union and the remaining $500,000 elsewhere. Some of the participants of the Fund are members of the credit union and some are not. T does not segregate each participant's interest in the Fund. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: The account is insured as to the determinable interest of each participant, adjusted in proportion to the Fund's investment in the credit union, regardless of the membership status of the participants or trustee. A's insured interest in the account is $45,000, or 9% of $500,000. This reflects the fact that only 50% of the Fund is in the account and A's interest in the account is in the same proportion as his interest in the overall plan. All other participants would be similarly insured. Participants' interests not capable of evaluation are added together and insured to a maximum of $250,000 in the aggregate (§ 745.9-2).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 4.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A has an individual account of $250,000 and establishes an IRA account and accumulates $250,000 in that account. Subsequently, A becomes self-employed and establishes a Keogh account in the same credit union and accumulates $250,000 in that account. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Each of A's accounts would be separately insured as follows: the individual account for $250,000, the maximum for that type of account; the IRA account for $250,000, the maximum for that type of account; and the Keogh account for $250,000, the maximum for that type of account. (§§ 745.3(a)(1) and 745.9-2).
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 5.</HED><PSPACE>Question: Member A has a self-directed IRA account with $70,000 in it. The FCU is the trustee of the account. Member transfers $40,000 into a blue chip stock; $30,000 remains in the FCU. What is the insurance coverage?</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>Answer: Originally, the full $70,000 in A's IRA account is insured. The $40,000 is no longer insured once it is moved out of the FCU. The $30,000 remaining in the FCU is insured (§ 745.9-2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 55751, Oct. 29, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="746" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 746—APPEALS PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1787, and 1789.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 50281, Oct. 30, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Procedures for Appealing Material Supervisory Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.101   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to section 309 of the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4806), which requires the NCUA Board to establish an independent intra-agency appeals process to review appeals of material supervisory determinations made by NCUA staff, and sections 120 and 209 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1766, 1789).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to establish an expeditious review process for insured credit unions to appeal material supervisory determinations made by NCUA staff to an independent supervisory panel and, if applicable, to the NCUA Board. This subpart is also intended to establish appropriate safeguards for protecting insured credit unions from retaliation by NCUA staff.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to the appeal of material supervisory determinations made by NCUA staff. This subpart does not apply to the appeal of determinations for which an independent right to appeal exists such as a decision to appoint a conservator or liquidating agent for an insured credit union or to take prompt corrective action pursuant to section 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790d) and part 702 of this chapter. This subpart also does not apply to enforcement-related actions and decisions, including determinations and the underlying facts and circumstances that form the basis of a pending enforcement action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P><I>Committee</I> means the Supervisory Review Committee.
</P>
<P><I>Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance</I> has the same meaning as used in § 790.2 of this chapter but also includes individuals designated by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance from among senior staff in the Office of Examination and Insurance to handle requests for review pursuant to § 746.106 of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Material Supervisory Determination</I> is defined in § 746.103 of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Program office</I> means the office within NCUA responsible for rendering a material supervisory determination.
</P>
<P><I>Special Counsel to the General Counsel</I> or <I>Special Counsel</I> means an individual within the Office of General Counsel providing legal or procedural advice to the Committee in accordance with the procedures set forth in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.103   Material supervisory determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Material supervisory determination.</I> The term “material supervisory determination” means a written decision by a program office (unless ineligible for appeal) that may significantly affect the capital, earnings, operating flexibility, or that may otherwise affect the nature or level of supervisory oversight of an insured credit union. The term includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) A composite examination rating of 3, 4, or 5;
</P>
<P>(2) A determination relating to the adequacy of loan loss reserve provisions;
</P>
<P>(3) The classification of loans and other assets that are significant to an insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(4) A determination regarding an insured credit union's compliance with Federal consumer financial law;
</P>
<P>(5) A determination on a waiver request or an application for additional authority where independent appeal procedures have not been specified in other NCUA regulations; and
</P>
<P>(6) A determination by the relevant reviewing authority that an appeal filed under this subchapter does not raise a material supervisory determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions from coverage.</I> The term “material supervisory determination” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) A composite examination rating of 1 or 2;
</P>
<P>(2) A component examination rating unless the component rating has a significant adverse effect on the nature or level of supervisory oversight of an insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The scope and timing of supervisory contacts;
</P>
<P>(4) A decision to appoint a conservator or liquidating agent for an insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(5) A decision to take prompt corrective action pursuant to section 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1790d) and part 702 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) Enforcement-related actions and decisions, including determinations and the underlying facts and circumstances that form the basis of a pending enforcement action;
</P>
<P>(7) Preliminary examination conclusions communicated to an insured credit union before a final exam report or other written communication is issued;
</P>
<P>(8) Formal and informal rulemakings pursuant to the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 500 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(9) Requests for NCUA records or information under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552) and part 792 of this chapter and the submission of information to NCUA that is governed by this statute and this regulation; and
</P>
<P>(10) Determinations for which other appeals procedures exist.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.104" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.104   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard of review.</I> Each reviewing authority shall make an independent decision regarding whether a material supervisory determination by the program office subject to appeal was appropriate. The reviewing authority shall give no deference to the legal or factual conclusions of the program office or a subordinate reviewing authority; <I>provided, however,</I> that the burden of showing an error in a material supervisory determination shall rest solely with the insured credit union. An insured credit union shall not be prejudiced in any respect by electing to forgo optional review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Dismissal and withdrawal.</I> Any appeal under this subpart may be dismissed by written notice if it is not timely filed; if the basis for the appeal is not discernable; if an insured credit union asks to withdraw the request in writing; if an insured credit union fails to provide additional information requested pursuant to any authority granted in this subpart; if an insured credit union engages in bad faith; if the appeal fails to state a material supervisory determination as defined in § 746.103 of this subpart; or for reasons deemed appropriate by the reviewing authority.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Discovery.</I> No provision of this subpart is intended to create any right to discovery or similar process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supervisory or enforcement actions not affected.</I> No provision of this subpart is intended to affect, delay, or impede any formal or informal supervisory or enforcement action in progress or affect NCUA's authority to take any supervisory or enforcement action against an insured credit union. For purposes of this subpart, a supervisory or enforcement action is considered to be commenced when NCUA provides an insured credit union with written notice of a recommended or proposed enforcement action under the Federal Credit Union Act or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional authority and waiver requests during the pendency of an appeal.</I> A program office will not consider a waiver request or an application for additional authority that could be affected by the outcome of an appeal of a material supervisory determination unless specifically requested by an insured credit union appealing the material supervisory determination. Any deadline for a program office to decide a waiver request or an application for additional authority set forth in any part of this chapter shall be suspended until an insured credit union appealing a material supervisory determination has exhausted its administrative remedies under this subpart or may no longer appeal the material supervisory determination, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Administrative record.</I> A decision by the reviewing authority pursuant to this subpart shall be based exclusively on the administrative record. The administrative record shall consist of all written submissions by an insured credit union and a program office, decisions by subordinate reviewing authorities, and (where applicable) transcripts of an oral hearing before the SRC. For appeals where consultation with the appropriate State supervisory authority is required pursuant to § 746.113, the administrative record shall also consist of any written submissions by the State supervisory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.105" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.105   Procedures for reconsideration from the appropriate program office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reconsideration.</I> An insured credit union must make a written request for reconsideration from the appropriate program office prior to requesting review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106 or filing an appeal with the Committee pursuant to § 746.107. Such a request must be made within 30 calendar days after receiving an examination report containing a material supervisory determination or other official written communication of a material supervisory determination. A request for reconsideration must be in writing and filed with the appropriate program office.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of request.</I> Any request for reconsideration must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the facts on which the request for reconsideration is based;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the material supervisory determination to which the insured credit union objects and the alleged error in such determination; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other evidence relied upon by the insured credit union that was not previously provided to the appropriate program office making the material supervisory determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision.</I> Within 30 calendar days after receiving a request for reconsideration, the appropriate program office shall issue a written decision, stating the reasons for the decision, and provide written notice of the right to file a request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106 or file an appeal with the Committee pursuant to § 746.107. If a written decision is not issued within 30 calendar days, the request for reconsideration will be deemed to have been denied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subsequent requests for reconsideration.</I> Any subsequent request for reconsideration following an initial request made pursuant to this section will be treated as a request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106 or an appeal to the Committee pursuant to § 746.107 as determined by the Secretary of the Board after consultation with the insured credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.106" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.106   Procedures for requesting review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for review.</I> Prior to filing an appeal with the Committee pursuant to § 746.107, but after receiving a written decision by the appropriate program office in response to a request for reconsideration pursuant to § 746.105, an insured credit union may make a written request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance of the program office's material supervisory determination. Such a request must be made within 30 calendar days after receiving a final decision on reconsideration from the appropriate program office. A request for review must be in writing and filed with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of request.</I> Any request for review by an insured credit union must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the insured credit union is requesting review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the facts on which the request for review is based;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the basis for the material supervisory determination to which the insured credit union objects and the alleged error in such determination;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence relied upon by the insured credit union that was not previously provided to the appropriate program office making the material supervisory determination; and
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that the board of directors of the insured credit union has authorized the request for review to be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct of review.</I> Review of a material supervisory determination shall be based on the written submissions provided under paragraph (b) of this section. The Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance may request additional information from the appropriate program office or the insured credit union within 15 calendar days after the Secretary of the Board receives a request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance. The relevant party must submit the requested information to the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance within 15 calendar days after receiving such request for additional information. The Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance may consult with the parties jointly or separately before rendering a decision and may solicit input from any other pertinent program office as necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the Secretary of the Board receives a request for review, the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance shall issue a written decision, stating the reasons for the decision, and provide written notice of the right to file an appeal with the Committee pursuant to § 746.107. The 30 calendar day deadline is extended by the time period during which the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance is gathering additional information. If a written decision is not issued within 30 calendar days, as extended by additional time during which the information is being gathered, the request for review will be deemed to have been denied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Subsequent requests for review.</I> No party may request reconsideration of the decision rendered by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance. Any subsequent request for review following the rendering of a decision by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance will be treated as an appeal to the Committee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50281, Oct. 30, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 1608, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.107" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.107   Procedures for appealing to the Supervisory Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for appeal.</I> After receiving a written decision by the appropriate program office in response to a request for reconsideration pursuant to § 746.105, an insured credit union may file an appeal with the Committee. Such an appeal must be filed within 30 calendar days after receiving a written decision by the appropriate program office on reconsideration or, if the insured credit union requests review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106, within 30 calendar days after a final decision is made by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance. An appeal must be in writing and filed with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of appeal.</I> Any appeal must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the insured credit union is filing an appeal with the Committee;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the facts on which the appeal is based;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement of the basis for the determination to which the insured credit union objects and the alleged error in such determination;
</P>
<P>(4) Any other evidence relied upon by the insured credit union that was not previously provided to the appropriate program office or, if applicable, the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance; and
</P>
<P>(5) A certification that the board of directors of the insured credit union has authorized the appeal to be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct of appeal.</I> The following procedures shall govern the conduct of an appeal to the Committee:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Submission of written materials.</I> The Committee may request additional information from either of the parties within 15 calendar days after the filing of an appeal. The parties must submit the requested information to the Committee within 15 calendar days after receiving a request for additional information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral hearing; duration; location.</I> Except where an insured credit union has requested that an appeal be based entirely on the written record, an appeal shall also consist of oral presentations to the Committee at NCUA headquarters. The introduction of written evidence or witness testimony may also be permitted at the oral hearing. The insured credit union shall argue first. Each side shall be allotted a specified and equal amount of time for its presentation, of which a portion may be reserved for purposes of rebuttal. This time limit shall be set by the Committee and will be based on the complexity of the appeal. Committee members may ask questions of any individual appearing before it.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appearances; representation.</I> The parties shall submit a notice of appearance identifying the individual(s) who will be representing them in the oral presentation. The insured credit union shall designate not more than two officers, employees, or other representatives including counsel, unless authorized by the Committee. The program office shall designate not more than two individuals, one of whom may be an enforcement attorney from NCUA's Office of General Counsel, unless authorized by the Committee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision.</I> Within 30 calendar days after the oral presentation of the appeal to the Committee, the Committee shall issue a decision in writing, stating the reasons for the decision, and provide the insured credit union with written notice of the right to file an appeal with the NCUA Board (if applicable). If an insured credit union has requested that an appeal be entirely based on the written record, the Committee shall issue a decision within 30 calendar days from the date of receipt of an appeal by the Secretary of the Board. The 30 calendar day deadline to decide an appeal based entirely on the written record is extended by any time period during which the Committee is gathering additional information pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Publication.</I> The Committee shall publish its decisions on NCUA's Web site with appropriate redactions to protect confidential or exempt information. In cases where redaction is insufficient to prevent improper disclosure, published decisions may be presented in summary form. Published decisions may be cited as precedent in appeals to the Committee. Publication shall include a synopsis of each appeal and a summary of the final result.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consultation with Office of Examination and Insurance or Office of General Counsel Required.</I> If an appeal involves the interpretation of material supervisory policy or generally accepted accounting principles, the Committee shall notify the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance of the appeal and solicit input from the Office of Examination and Insurance. If an appeal involves the interpretation of legal requirements, including NCUA's regulations, the Committee shall notify the General Counsel of the appeal and solicit input from the Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Supplemental procedures authorized.</I> In addition to the procedures contained in this subpart, the Committee Chairman may adopt supplemental procedures governing the operations of the Committee, order that material be kept confidential, or consolidate appeals that present similar issues of law or fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.108" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.108   Composition of Supervisory Review Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a<I>) Formation and composition of committee pool.</I> The NCUA Chairman shall select not less than eight members from among senior staff in NCUA's regional and central offices as a Committee pool from which the Committee Chairman may select Committee members. None of the members appointed by the NCUA Chairman shall also serve as a Regional Director, Associate Regional Director, Executive Director, Deputy Executive Director, General Counsel, Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance, or a senior policy advisor or chief of staff to a Board Member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Term of office for members of Committee pool.</I> Each member of the Committee pool shall serve for a two-year term and may be reappointed by the NCUA Chairman for additional terms.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation and role of Committee Chairman.</I> The Secretary of the Board shall serve as permanent Committee Chairman. The Committee Chairman shall be responsible for designating three Committee members (one of whom may be the Committee Chairman) from among the Committee pool to hear a particular appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Selection criteria.</I> When selecting Committee members to hear an appeal pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the Committee Chairman shall consider any real or apparent conflicts of interest that may impact the objectivity of the Committee member as well as that individual's experience with the subject matter of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Interested staff ineligible.</I> Members of the Committee pool from the program office that made the material supervisory determination that is the subject of the appeal are ineligible to serve on the Committee for that appeal. Members of the Committee pool from the Office of Examination and Insurance are ineligible to serve on the Committee for appeals where the insured credit union previously requested review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance pursuant to § 746.106.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Role of the Special Counsel.</I> The Special Counsel to the General Counsel shall serve as a permanent nonvoting member of the Committee to advise on procedural and legal matters.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Quorum; meetings.</I> A quorum of two Committee members (excluding the Special Counsel to the General Counsel) shall be present at each Committee meeting and a majority vote of a quorum is required for an action on an appeal. Meetings of the Committee will not be open to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.109" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.109   Procedures for appealing to the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for appeal.</I> An insured credit union may file an appeal with the Board challenging a decision by the Committee within 30 calendar days after receiving that decision. An appeal must be in writing and filed with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Granting an appeal.</I> At least one Board Member must agree to consider an appeal from a decision by the Committee. If a request for an oral hearing pursuant to § 746.111 is granted, the Secretary of the Board will notify the parties of the time and location where the oral hearing shall be heard. Except in unusual circumstances, any appeal shall be held at NCUA headquarters. If at least one Board Member does not agree to consider an appeal from a decision by the Committee within 20 days of receiving a request, the request will be deemed to have been denied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to file a timely appeal.</I> An insured credit union that fails to file an appeal within the specified 30-day period shall be deemed to have waived all claims pertaining to the matters in issue.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certain actions not reviewable.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, Committee decisions on the denial of a technical assistance grant reimbursement are final decisions of NCUA and may not be appealed to the Board.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of appeal.</I> Any request for appeal must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the facts on which the appeal is based;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the determination to which the insured credit union objects and the alleged error in such determination; and
</P>
<P>(3) A certification that the board of directors of the insured credit union has authorized the appeal to be filed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amending or supplementing the appeal.</I> The insured credit union may amend or supplement the appeal in writing within 15 calendar days from the date the Secretary of the Board receives an appeal. If the insured credit union amends or supplements the appeal, the program office will be permitted to file responsive materials within 15 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Request for oral hearing.</I> In accordance with § 746.111, the insured credit union may request an opportunity to appear before the Board to make an oral presentation in support of the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.110" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.110   Administration of the appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conduct of appeal.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 746.111, the following procedures shall govern the conduct of an appeal to the Board:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Review based on written record.</I> The appeal of a material supervisory determination shall be entirely based on the written record.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submission of written materials.</I> The Board or the Special Counsel to the General Counsel may request additional information to be provided in writing from either of the parties within 15 calendar days after the filing of an appeal, any amendments or supplementary information to the appeal documents by the insured credit union, or any responsive materials by the program office, whichever is later. The parties must submit the requested information to the Board or the Special Counsel within 15 calendar days of receiving a request for additional information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision.</I> The Board shall issue a decision within 90 calendar days, unless there is an oral hearing, from the date of receipt of an appeal by the Secretary of the Board. The decision by the Board shall be in writing, stating the reasons for the decision, and shall constitute a final agency action for purposes of chapter 7 of title 5 of the United States Code. Failure by the Board to issue a decision on an appeal within the 90-day period, unless there is an oral hearing, shall be deemed to be a denial of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publication.</I> The Board shall publish its decisions on NCUA's Web site with appropriate redactions to protect confidential or exempt information. In cases where redaction is insufficient to prevent improper disclosure, published decisions may be presented in summary form. Published decisions may be cited as precedent. Publication shall include a synopsis of each appeal and a summary of the final result.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.111" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.111   Oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for oral hearing.</I> The insured credit union may request to appear before the Board to make an oral presentation in support of the appeal. The request must be submitted with the initial appeal documents and should be in the form of a separate written document titled “Request for Oral Hearing.” The request must show good cause for an oral presentation and state reasons why the appeal cannot be presented adequately in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on the request.</I> The Board shall determine whether to grant the request for oral hearing and shall direct the Secretary of the Board to serve notice of the Board's determination in writing to the parties. A request for oral hearing shall be granted with the approval of any Board Member within 20 days of receiving a request for an oral hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of denial.</I> In the event a request for an oral hearing is denied, the appeal shall be reviewed by the Board on the basis of the written record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for oral hearing.</I> The following procedures shall govern the conduct of any oral hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scheduling of oral hearing; location.</I> The Secretary of the Board shall notify the parties of the date and time for the oral hearing, making sure to provide reasonable lead time and schedule accommodations. The oral hearing will be held at NCUA headquarters; <I>provided, however,</I> that on its own initiative or at the request of the insured credit union, the NCUA Chairman may in his or her sole discretion allow for an oral hearing to be conducted via teleconference or video conference facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appearances; representation.</I> The parties shall submit a notice of appearance identifying the individual(s) who will be representing them in the oral presentation. The insured credit union shall designate not more than two officers, employees, or other representatives including counsel, unless authorized by the NCUA Chairman. The program office shall designate not more than two individuals one of whom may be an enforcement attorney from NCUA's Office of General Counsel, unless authorized by the NCUA Chairman.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conduct of oral hearing.</I> The oral hearing shall consist entirely of oral presentations. The introduction of written evidence or witness testimony shall not be permitted at the oral hearing. The insured credit union shall argue first. Each side shall be allotted a specified and equal amount of time for its presentation, of which a portion may be reserved for purposes of rebuttal. This time limit shall be set by the Board and will be based on the complexity of the appeal. Members of the Board may ask questions of any individual appearing before the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transcript.</I> The oral hearing shall be on the record and transcribed by a stenographer, who will prepare a transcript of the proceedings. The stenographer will make the transcript available to the insured credit union upon payment of the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality.</I> An oral hearing as provided for herein constitutes a meeting of the Board within the meaning of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b). The Chairman shall preside over the conduct of the oral hearing. The meeting will be closed to the public to the extent that one or more of the exemptions from public meetings apply as certified by NCUA's Office of General Counsel. The Board shall maintain the confidentiality of any information or materials submitted or otherwise obtained in the course of the procedures outlined herein, subject to applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conclusion of the oral hearing.</I> The Board shall take the oral presentations under advisement. The Board shall render its decision on the appeal in accordance with § 746.110.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.112" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.112   Retaliation prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retaliation prohibited.</I> NCUA staff may not retaliate against an insured credit union making any type of appeal. Alleged acts of retaliation should be reported to the NCUA Office of Inspector General, which is authorized to receive and investigate complaints and other information regarding abuse in agency programs and operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of complaints.</I> Insured credit unions may submit complaints of suspected retaliation to the NCUA Office of Inspector General, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. Complaints should include an explanation of the circumstances surrounding the complaint and evidence of any retaliation. Information submitted as part of a complaint shall be kept confidential.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disciplinary action.</I> Any retaliation by NCUA staff will subject the employee to appropriate disciplinary or remedial action by the appropriate supervisor. Such disciplinary or remedial action may include oral or written warning or admonishment, reprimand, suspension or separation from employment, change in assigned duties, or disqualification from a particular assignment, including prohibition from participating in any examination of the insured credit union that was the subject of the retaliation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.113" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.113   Coordination with State supervisory authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coordination when request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance filed.</I> In the event that a material supervisory determination subject to a request for review by the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance is the joint product of NCUA and a State supervisory authority, the Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance will promptly notify the appropriate State supervisory authority of the request for review, provide the State supervisory authority with a copy of the request for review and any other related materials, solicit the State supervisory authority's views regarding the merits of the request for review before making a determination, and notify the State supervisory authority of the Director's determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordination when appeal to Supervisory Review Committee filed.</I> In the event that a material supervisory determination appealed to the Committee is the joint product of NCUA and a State supervisory authority, the Committee will promptly notify the State supervisory authority of the appeal, provide the State supervisory authority with a copy of the appeal and any other related materials, solicit the State supervisory authority's views regarding the merits of the appeal before making a determination, and notify the State supervisory authority of the Committee's determination. Once the Committee has issued its determination, any other issues that may remain between the insured credit union and the State supervisory authority will be left to those parties to resolve.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coordination when appeal to board filed.</I> In the event that a material supervisory determination appealed to the Board is the joint product of NCUA and a State supervisory authority, the Board will promptly notify the State supervisory authority of the appeal, provide the State supervisory authority with a copy of the appeal and any other related materials, solicit the State supervisory authority's views regarding the merits of the appeal before making a determination, and notify the State supervisory authority of the Board's determination. Once the Board has issued its determination, any other issues that may remain between the insured credit union and the State supervisory authority will be left to those parties to resolve.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appeals Procedures That Do Not by Law Require a Board Hearing</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 746.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.201   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued pursuant to sections 120, 207, and 209 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1766, 1787, and 1789).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart provides generally uniform procedures by which petitioners may appeal initial agency determinations to the NCUA Board under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart covers the appeal of initial agency determinations by a program office which the petitioner has a right to appeal to the NCUA Board under the following regulations: §§ 701.14(e), 701.21(h)(3), 701.22(c), 701.23(h)(3), 701.32(b)(5), and 701.34(a)(4), appendix A to part 701 of this chapter, appendix B to part 701 of this chapter, Chapters 1-4, §§ 703.20(d), 703.108(b), 705.10(a), 708a.108(d), 708a.304(h), 708a.308(d), 709.7, 741.11(d), and 745.201(c), 752.11(b), subpart J to part 747 of this chapter, and § 750.6(b).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusions.</I> This subpart does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Actions by the agency to develop regulations, policy statements, or guidance documents;
</P>
<P>(2) Formal enforcement actions, the review of material supervisory determinations that come under the jurisdiction of NCUA's Supervisory Review Committee, or the appeal of any agency determination made pursuant to part 792 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(3) Challenges to determinations under the prompt corrective action regime in parts 702 and 704 of this chapter and subparts L and M to part 747 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(4) Creditor claims arising from the liquidation of an insured credit union to the extent that the creditor has requested, and the NCUA Board has agreed, for the claim to be handled through a hearing on the record pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1787(b)(7)(A) and subpart A of part 747 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 50294, Oct. 30, 2017, as amended at 86 FR 28250, May 26, 2021; 89 FR 79393, Sept. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Appeal</I> means a process by which a petitioner may obtain the review by the Board of an initial agency determination.
</P>
<P><I>Board</I> means the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P><I>Initial agency determination</I> means an agency action taken at a level below the Board with respect to an application, request, claim, or other matter in which a determination of rights or resolution of issues is rendered and the party affected by the determination has been provided with a right to appeal the determination to the NCUA Board. The initial agency determination shall notify the Petitioner of the right to request reconsideration or to file an appeal with the Board, and shall include a description of applicable filing deadlines and time frames for agency responses. Agency determinations involving the formulation of a regulation, guidance document, or policy statement are excluded from this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Oral hearing</I> means an opportunity, granted at the sole discretion of the Board, by which a petitioner may make an oral presentation to the Board concerning issues pertinent to an appeal.
</P>
<P><I>Petitioner</I> means the person or entity seeking Board review of an initial agency determination.
</P>
<P><I>Program office</I> means the office within NCUA responsible for making an initial agency determination.
</P>
<P><I>Special Counsel to the General Counsel</I> means an individual (referred to herein as the “Special Counsel”) within NCUA's Office of General Counsel charged with administering appeals in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.203   Request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reconsideration.</I> Prior to submitting an appeal in accordance with § 746.204, the petitioner may in its sole discretion make a written request to the appropriate program office to reconsider the initial agency determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deadline to file.</I> A request for reconsideration must be sent to the appropriate program office within 30 calendar days of the date of the initial agency determination. A petitioner who does not file a request for reconsideration in a timely manner is considered to have waived the right to request reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule regarding change in officials.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a request for reconsideration of an initial agency determination disapproving an individual serving as a director, committee member or senior executive officer pursuant to § 701.14 of this chapter must be sent to the appropriate program office within 15 calendar days of the date of the initial agency determination.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of request.</I> Any request for reconsideration must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the facts on which the request for reconsideration is based;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the initial agency determination to which the petitioner objects and the alleged error in such determination; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other support or evidence relied upon by the petitioner which was not previously provided to the appropriate program office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination of program office.</I> The appropriate program office will review its initial agency determination and reconsider the position initially taken in the light of the arguments and additional materials provided in the request for reconsideration. Within 30 calendar days of its receipt of a request for reconsideration, the appropriate program office shall issue its determination either affirming in whole or in part the initial agency determination or rejecting it.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notice of determination.</I> The appropriate program office shall provide its decision concerning the reconsideration request to the petitioner in writing, stating the reasons for the decision. The decision shall be treated as an initial agency determination for purposes of § 746.204(a).
</P>
<P>(1) In addition to a written statement of reasons for the decision, the appropriate program office shall provide the petitioner with written notice of the right to appeal the decision, in whole or in part, to the Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 746.204.
</P>
<P>(2) For creditor claims brought pursuant to sec. 207 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1787), the appropriate program office shall provide the petitioner with written notice of the right, in the alternative to filing an appeal with the Board, to file suit or continue an action commenced before the appointment of the liquidating agent in the district or territorial court of the United States for the district within which the credit union's principal place of business was located or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia. For such claims, the 60-day period for filing a lawsuit in United States district court provided in 12 U.S.C. 1787(b)(6) shall be tolled from the date of the petitioner's request for reconsideration to the date of a determination pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon a showing of extenuating circumstances, as determined by the program office in its reasonable judgment, a petitioner may be allowed to submit a second reconsideration request before filing an appeal with the Board. In such cases, the deadline for filing an appeal with the Board shall begin to run from the earlier of the date of the decision of the program office regarding the second reconsideration request or thirty calendar days from the date the second reconsideration request was accepted by the program office.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to make a determination.</I> Failure by the appropriate program office to issue a decision within the timeframe specified in paragraph (e) of this section shall be an affirmation of the original initial agency determination and shall be treated as an initial agency determination for purposes of § 746.204(a).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The burden of proof to lead the appropriate program office to modify or reverse an initial agency determination shall rest solely upon the petitioner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.204" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.204   Appeal to the Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Within 60 calendar days of the date of an initial agency determination, or, as applicable, a determination by the program office on any request for reconsideration, a petitioner may file an appeal seeking review of the determination by the Board. The request must be in writing and filed with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule regarding change in officials.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, an appeal of an initial agency determination disapproving an individual serving as a director, committee member or senior executive officer pursuant to § 701.14 of this chapter must be filed with the Secretary of the Board within 15 calendar days of the date of the initial agency determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to file a timely appeal.</I> Absent extenuating circumstances, as determined by the Board in its sole discretion, a petitioner who fails to file an appeal within the specified 60-day period shall be deemed to have waived all claims pertaining to the matters in issue.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of request.</I> Any appeal filed with the Board must include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement summarizing the underlying facts that form the basis of the appeal, together with copies of all pertinent documents, records, and materials on which the petitioner relies in support of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement outlining why the petitioner objects to the conclusions in the initial agency determination, including any errors alleged to have been made by the program office in reaching its determination.
</P>
<P>(3) Any other materials or evidence relied upon by the petitioner that were not previously provided to the appropriate program office.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Burden of proof.</I> The burden of proof to lead the Board to modify or reverse an initial agency determination shall rest solely upon the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amending or supplementing the appeal.</I> Within 45 calendar days from the date the Secretary of the Board receives an appeal, the petitioner may amend or supplement the appeal in writing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Request for oral hearing.</I> In accordance with § 746.207, the petitioner may request an opportunity to appear before the Board, in person, or via teleconference or videoconference, to make an oral presentation in support of the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.205" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.205   Preliminary considerations regarding the appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial review.</I> The Special Counsel shall review all appeals filed with the Secretary of the Board for conformance with the rules set forth in this subpart, including deadlines for submission of an appeal. The Special Counsel shall also make an evaluation concerning whether an appeal is moot or is otherwise not in good order, and shall make a recommendation for the disposition of all such appeals to the Board. The Special Counsel shall have the authority to dismiss an appeal upon the request of the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Supplemental materials.</I> Within 30 calendar days from the date the Secretary of the Board receives an appeal, the Special Counsel may request in writing that the petitioner submit additional evidence in support of the appeal. If additional evidence is requested, the petitioner shall have 30 calendar days from the date of issuance of such request to provide the requested information. Failure by the petitioner to provide such information may result in denial of the petitioner's appeal. The Special Counsel shall have the authority to request additional information from any other relevant source in order to provide the Board with a full and complete administrative record. All requests by the Special Counsel pursuant to this section must be reasonable and designed to facilitate the processing of the appeal, not to delay it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.206" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.206   Administration of the appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>De novo review by Special Counsel.</I> After receipt of a timely appeal, the Special Counsel shall contact the relevant NCUA program office and request a complete set of all pertinent materials, including internal memoranda, correspondence, and records having a bearing on the initial agency determination being appealed. The Special Counsel will conduct an independent review of these materials, along with all materials submitted by the petitioner in support of the appeal. The Special Counsel will make a recommendation to the Board as to the appropriate disposition of the appeal after having evaluated the applicable legal arguments and considered the facts and circumstances that pertain to the appeal. As directed by the Board, the Special Counsel may provide his or her recommendation in writing to the Board and may make an oral presentation before the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination on appeal.</I> Within 90 calendar days from the date of receipt of an appeal by the Secretary of the Board, or within any extension of time as established by the Chairman, the Board shall issue a decision allowing, in whole or in part, or disallowing the petitioner's appeal. The decision by the Board shall be in writing, stating the reasons for the decision, and shall constitute a final agency action for purposes of chapter 7 of title 5 of the United States Code. Failure by the Board to issue a decision on an appeal within the 90-day period or within any extension of time as established by the Chairman shall be deemed to be a denial of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extension of time.</I> In the discretion of the Chairman, the time frame for the Board's decision may be extended as the Chairman may consider necessary or appropriate for a full and fair consideration of the issues. For purposes of this paragraph (c), the Special Counsel is authorized to act on behalf of the Chairman and may, in that capacity, grant an extension of time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 746.207" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.28.2.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 746.207   Procedures for oral hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for oral hearing.</I> The petitioner may request to appear before the Board to make an oral presentation in support of the appeal. The request must be submitted with the initial appeal documents and should be in the form of a separate written document titled “Request for Oral Hearing.” The request must show good cause for an oral presentation and state reasons why the appeal cannot be presented adequately in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Action on the request.</I> The Board shall determine whether to grant the request for oral hearing and shall direct the Special Counsel to serve notice of the Board's determination in writing to the petitioner. A request for oral hearing shall be granted with the approval of any Board member. The determination by a Board member approving an oral hearing must be taken within 20 days of the Board Secretary's receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of denial.</I> In the event no Board member approves of holding an oral hearing, the request for an oral hearing is deemed to be denied, and the appeal shall be reviewed and determined by the Board on the basis of the written record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for oral hearing.</I> The following procedures shall govern the conduct of any oral hearing:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Scheduling of oral hearing; location.</I> The Special Counsel shall notify the petitioner and the program office of the date and time for the oral hearing, making sure to provide reasonable lead time and schedule accommodations. The oral hearing will be held at NCUA headquarters in Alexandria, Virginia; <I>provided, however,</I> that on his or her own initiative or at the request of the petitioner, the Chairman may in his or her sole discretion allow for a hearing to be conducted via teleconference or video conference facilities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Appearances; representation.</I> The petitioner and the NCUA program office shall submit a notice of appearance identifying the individual(s) who will be representing them at the oral presentation. The petitioner shall designate not more than two officers, employees, or other representatives (including counsel), unless otherwise authorized by the Chairman. The NCUA program office shall designate not more than two individuals (one of whom may be a litigation and enforcement attorney from NCUA's Office of General Counsel), unless otherwise authorized by the Chairman.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conduct of oral hearing.</I> The oral hearing shall consist entirely of oral presentations. The introduction of written evidence or witness testimony at the hearing shall not be permitted. The petitioner shall present first, followed by the NCUA program office. Each side shall be allotted a specified and equal amount of time for its presentation, of which a portion may be reserved for purposes of rebuttal. This time limit shall be set by the Board and will be based on the complexity of the appeal. Members of the Board may ask questions of any individual appearing before the Board.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transcript.</I> The oral hearing shall be on the record and transcribed by a stenographer, who will prepare a transcript of the proceedings. The stenographer will make the transcript available to the petitioner upon payment of the cost thereof.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality.</I> An oral hearing as provided for herein constitutes a meeting of the Board within the meaning of the Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b). The NCUA Chairman shall preside over the conduct of the oral hearing. The meeting will be closed to the public to the extent that one or more of the exemptions from public meetings apply as certified by NCUA's Office of General Counsel. The Board shall maintain the confidentiality of any information or materials submitted or otherwise obtained in the course of the procedures outlined herein, subject to applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conclusion of the oral hearing.</I> The Board shall take the oral presentations under advisement. The Board shall render its decision on the appeal in accordance with § 746.206.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="747" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 747—ADMINISTRATIVE ACTIONS, ADJUDICATIVE HEARINGS, RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE, AND INVESTIGATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1782, 1784, 1785, 1786, 1787, 1790a, 1790d; 15 U.S.C. 1639e; 42 U.S.C. 4012a; Pub. L. 101-410; Pub. L. 104-134; Pub. L. 109-351; Pub. L. 114-74.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 747 appear at 84 FR 1609, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 747.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.0   Scope of this part.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the various formal and informal adjudicative actions and non-adjudicative proceedings available to the National Credit Union Administration Board (NCUA Board), the grounds for those actions and proceedings, and the procedures used in formal and informal hearings related to each available action. As mandated by section 916 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 1818 note) (FIRREA), this part incorporates uniform rules of practice and procedure (Uniform Rules), which govern formal adjudications generally, as well as proceedings involving cease-and-desist actions, assessment of civil money penalties, and removal, prohibition and suspension actions. In addition, the Uniform Rules are incorporated in other subparts of this part that provide for formal adjudications. The administrative actions and proceedings described in this section, as well as the grounds and hearing procedures for each, are controlled by sections 120(b) (except where the Federal credit union is closed due to insolvency), 202(a)(3), and 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act (the Act), 12 U.S.C. 1766(b), 1782(a)(3), and 1786. Should any provision of this part be inconsistent with these or any other provisions of the Act, as amended, the Act shall control. Judicial enforcement of any action or order described in this part, as well as judicial review thereof, shall be as prescribed under the Act (12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 500 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) As used in this part, the term “insured credit union” means any Federal credit union or any State-chartered credit union insured under subchapter II of the Act, unless the context indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(c) The Uniform Rules in subpart A apply to adjudicatory proceedings initiated on or after April 1, 2024. Any adjudicatory proceedings initiated before April 1, 2024, continue to be governed by the previous version of the Uniform Rules in 12 CFR part 747, subpart A.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 89962, Dec. 28, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 89962, Dec. 28, 2023, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 747.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prescribes uniform rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings required to be conducted on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under section 206(e) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(e));
</P>
<P>(b) Removal and prohibition proceedings under section 206(g) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(g));
</P>
<P>(c) Assessment of civil money penalties by the NCUA Board against institutions and institution-affiliated parties for any violation of:
</P>
<P>(1) Section 202 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1782);
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1120 of FIRREA (12 U.S.C. 3349), or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any final or temporary order issued under section 206 of the Act or any written agreement executed by the National Credit Union Administration (“NCUA”), any condition imposed in writing by the NCUA in connection with any action on any application, notice, or other request by the credit union or institution-affiliated party, certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, or any law or regulation not otherwise provided in this section, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k);
</P>
<P>(4) Any provision of law referenced in section 102(f) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)) or any order or regulation issued thereunder;
</P>
<P>(d) Remedial action under section 102(g) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (42 U.S.C. 4012a(g)); and
</P>
<P>(e) This subpart also applies to all other adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record after opportunity for an agency hearing, unless otherwise specifically provided for in subparts B through J of this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>counsel</I> includes a non-attorney representative; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative Law Judge (ALJ)</I> means one who presides at an administrative hearing under authority set forth at 5 U.S.C. 556.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the NCUA Board's or ALJ's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the NCUA Board or the ALJ, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Electronic signature</I> means affixing the equivalent of a signature to an electronic document filed or transmitted electronically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement Counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the NCUA in an adjudicatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the NCUA with or without the consent of the affected institution or the institution-affiliated party, that has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Institution</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any Federal credit union as that term is defined in section 101(1) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1)); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any insured State-chartered credit union as that term is defined in section 101(7) of the FCUA (12 U.S.C. 1752(7)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-affiliated party</I> means any institution-affiliated party as that term is defined in section 206(r) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(r)).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Local Rules</I> means those rules promulgated by the NCUA in subparts B through I of this part.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>NCUA</I> means the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>NCUA Board</I> means the National Credit Union Administration Board or a person delegated to perform the functions of the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>OFIA</I> means the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication, the executive body charged with overseeing the administration of administrative enforcement proceedings for the NCUA, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board of Governors), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), and the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Party</I> means the NCUA and any person named as a party in any notice.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, agency, or other entity or organization, including an institution as defined in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Rules</I> means those rules in this subpart that are common to the NCUA, the Board of Governors, the FDIC, and the OCC.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Violation</I> means any violation as that term is defined in section 3(v) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(v)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.4   Authority of the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA Board may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of, any act which could be done or ordered by the ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.5   Authority of the administrative law judge (ALJ).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by this part must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of 5 U.S.C. chapter 5. The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The ALJ has all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, including the following powers:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> protective orders, and other orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas and orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(4) To take or cause depositions to be taken as authorized by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of the parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To hold scheduling and/or pre-hearing conferences as set forth in § 747.31;
</P>
<P>(7) To consider and rule upon all procedural and other motions appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, provided that only the NCUA Board has the power to grant any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to decide any other motion that results in a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) To prepare and present to the NCUA Board a recommended decision as provided in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(9) To recuse oneself by motion made by a party or on the ALJ's own motion;
</P>
<P>(10) To establish time, place and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(11) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of an ALJ.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.6   Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the NCUA or an ALJ</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any state, commonwealth, possession, territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the NCUA if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on the individual's own behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> (i) Any individual acting on the individual's own behalf or as counsel on behalf of a party, including the NCUA Board, must file a notice of appearance with OFIA at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. The notice of appearance must include:
</P>
<P>(A) A written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party; and
</P>
<P>(B) A written acknowledgement that the individual has reviewed and will comply with the Uniform Rules and Local Rules in this part 747.
</P>
<P>(ii) By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that the counsel is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, the counsel will, if required by the ALJ, continue to accept service until new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that the party will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudicatory proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.7   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice must be signed by at least one counsel of record in the counsel's individual name and must state that counsel's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number. A party who acts as the party's own counsel must sign that person's individual name and state that person's mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Electronic signatures may be used to satisfy the signature requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party will constitute a certification: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the ALJ will strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of the counsel's or party's knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the counsel's or party's statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.8   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person may appear as counsel for another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The ALJ may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 747.6(a):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.9   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte communications. Ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside the NCUA (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The ALJ handling that proceeding, the NCUA Board, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time the notice is issued by the NCUA Board until the date that the NCUA Board issues a final decision pursuant to § 747.40(c):
</P>
<P>(1) An interested person outside the NCUA must not make or knowingly cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication to the NCUA Board, the ALJ, or a decisional employee; and
</P>
<P>(2) The NCUA Board, ALJ, or decisional employee may not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the NCUA any <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an <I>ex parte</I> communication is received by the ALJ, the NCUA Board, or any other person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person will cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding may, within ten days of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication, file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances. The ALJ or the NCUA Board then determines whether any action should be taken concerning the <I>ex parte</I> communication in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or counsel to a party who makes a prohibited <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make any such communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the NCUA Board or the ALJ including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings and an adverse ruling on the issue which is the subject of the prohibited communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the ALJ may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Consult a person or party on a fact in issue unless on notice and opportunity for all parties to participate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Be responsible to or subject to the supervision or direction of an employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision process.</I> An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the NCUA in a case may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision under § 747.40, except as witness or counsel in administrative or judicial proceedings.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.10   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Any papers required to be filed, excluding documents produced in response to a discovery request pursuant to §§ 747.25 and 747.26, must be filed with OFIA, except as otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the NCUA Board or the ALJ, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the NCUA Board or the ALJ;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers to a same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, mailing address, electronic mail address, and telephone number of the counsel or party making the filing and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on an 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch page and must be clear and legible.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 747.7.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the NCUA and of the filing party, the title and docket number of the proceeding, and the subject of the particular paper.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.11   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers must serve a copy upon the counsel of record for all other parties to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party not so represented.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party must use one of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic mail or other electronic means;
</P>
<P>(2) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(3) Delivering the papers by same day courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(4) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the NCUA Board or the ALJ.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the NCUA Board or the ALJ upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 747.6 will be served by electronic mail or other electronic means designated by the NCUA Board or ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) If a respondent has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 747.6, the NCUA Board or the ALJ will serve the respondent by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the respondent;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the respondent's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail, delivery by a same day courier service, or by an overnight delivery service to the person's last known mailing address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or on any person as otherwise provided by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held, provided that if service is made on a foreign bank in connection with an action or proceeding involving one or more of its branches or agencies located in any state, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, service must be made on at least one branch or agency so involved.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.12   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this subpart, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of transmission by electronic mail or other electronic means, upon transmittal by the serving party;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of overnight delivery service or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of personal service or same day courier delivery, upon actual service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the NCUA Board or ALJ in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by electronic mail or other electronic means or by same day courier delivery, add one calendar day to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by overnight delivery service, add two calendar days to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.13   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by law, the ALJ may, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by the Uniform Rules or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the NCUA Board pursuant to § 747.38, the NCUA Board may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted at the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the NCUA Board's or the ALJ's own motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.14   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A witness, including an expert witness, who testifies at a deposition or hearing will be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section and unless otherwise waived.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception for testimony by a party.</I> In the case of testimony by a party, no witness fees or mileage need to be paid. The NCUA will not be required to pay any fees to, or expenses of, any witness not subpoenaed by the NCUA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of payment.</I> Fees and mileage in accordance with this paragraph (c) must be paid in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the NCUA is the party requesting the subpoena.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.15   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to Enforcement Counsel written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. Any such offer or proposal may only be made to Enforcement Counsel. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.16   The NCUA's right to conduct examination.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this subpart limits in any manner the right of the NCUA to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any institution or institution-affiliated party, or the right of the NCUA to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.17   Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding will continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in this subpart will be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.18   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> (1) A proceeding governed by this subpart is commenced by issuance of a notice by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must be served by Enforcement Counsel upon the respondent and given to any other appropriate financial institution supervisory authority where required by law. Enforcement Counsel may serve the notice upon counsel for the respondent, provided that Enforcement Counsel has confirmed that counsel represents the respondent in the matter and will accept service of the notice on behalf of the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) Enforcement Counsel must file the notice with OFIA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> Notice pleading applies. The notice must provide:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the NCUA's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) Matters of fact or law showing that the NCUA is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time, place, and nature of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) The time within which to request a hearing as required by law or regulation; and
</P>
<P>(7) That the answer and/or request for a hearing must be filed with OFIA.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.19   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice, respondent must file an answer as designated in the notice. In a civil money penalty proceeding, respondent must also file a request for a hearing within 20 days of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice and must admit, deny, or state that the respondent lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice which is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief, or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default</I>—(1) <I>Effect of failure to answer.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, Enforcement Counsel may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the ALJ will file with the NCUA Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the NCUA Board based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to request a hearing in civil money penalty proceedings.</I> If respondent fails to request a hearing as required by law within the time provided, the notice of assessment constitutes a final and unappealable order of the NCUA Board without further action by the ALJ.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.20   Amended pleadings</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within ten days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the NCUA Board or ALJ orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the ALJ may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the ALJ that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The ALJ may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.21   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized counsel constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the ALJ will file with the NCUA Board a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.22   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The ALJ may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the ALJ finds:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.23" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.23   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the ALJ. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record unless the ALJ directs that such motion be reduced to writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the ALJ, except that following the filing of the recommended decision, motions must be filed with the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within ten days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the ALJ or the NCUA Board, any party may file a written response to a motion. The ALJ will not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed a consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 747.29 and 747.30.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.24" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.24   Scope of document discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> (1) Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this subpart may obtain document discovery by serving a written request to produce documents. For purposes of a request to produce documents, the term <I>documents</I> includes writings, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, electronically stored information, and other data or data compilations stored in any medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party, into a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) Discovery by use of deposition is governed by § 747.100.
</P>
<P>(3) Discovery by use of either interrogatories or requests for admission is not permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) Any request to produce documents that calls for irrelevant material; or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or that seeks to obtain privileged documents will be denied or modified. A request is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome if, among other things, it fails to include justifiable limitations on the time period covered and the geographic locations to be searched, or the time provided to respond in the request is inadequate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance.</I> A party may obtain document discovery regarding any non-privileged matter that has material relevance to the merits of the pending action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privileged matter.</I> Privileged documents are not discoverable. Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law provide.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limits.</I> All document discovery, including all responses to discovery requests, must be completed by the date set by the ALJ and no later than 30 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the hearing, except as provided in the Local Rules. No exceptions to this time limit are permitted, unless the ALJ finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the requirements of this paragraph (d).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.25" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.25   Request for document discovery from parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Document requests.</I> (1) Any party may serve on any other party a request to produce and permit the requesting party or its representative to inspect or copy any discoverable documents that are in the possession, custody, or control of the party upon whom the request is served. In the case of a request for inspection, the responding party may produce copies of documents or of electronically stored information instead of permitting inspection.
</P>
<P>(2) The request:
</P>
<P>(i) Must describe with reasonable particularity each item or category of items to be inspected or produced; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the inspection or production.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production or copying</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the ALJ or agreed upon by the parties, the producing party must produce copies of documents as they are kept in the usual course of business or organized to correspond to the categories of the request, and electronically stored information must be produced in a form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> The producing party must pay its own costs to respond to a discovery request, unless otherwise agreed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request with a response that was complete when made is not required to supplement the response to include documents thereafter acquired, unless the responding party learns:
</P>
<P>(1) The response was materially incorrect when made; or
</P>
<P>(2) The response, though correct when made, is no longer true and a failure to amend the response is, in substance, a knowing concealment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to limit discovery.</I> (1) Any party that objects to a discovery request may, within 20 days of being served with such request, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 747.23 to strike or otherwise limit the request. If an objection is made to only a portion of an item or category in a request, the portion objected to must be specified. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 747.23 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, the producing party must reasonably identify all documents withheld on the grounds of privilege and must produce a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege. When similar documents that are protected by attorney-client privilege, attorney work-product doctrine, bank examination privilege, law enforcement privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, or any other privileges of the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law, or are voluminous, these documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The ALJ retains discretion to determine when the identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any documents as privileged or fails to comply fully with a discovery request, the requesting party may, within ten days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 747.23 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the document request may file a written response to a motion to compel within ten days of service of the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions.</I> After the time for filing responses pursuant to this section has expired, the ALJ will rule promptly on all motions filed pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that a discovery request, or any of its terms, calls for irrelevant material, is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or repetitive of previous requests, or seeks to obtain privileged documents, the ALJ may deny or modify the request, and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require. The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery or to compel production is not a basis for staying or continuing the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the ALJ may not release, or order a party to produce, documents withheld on grounds of privilege if the party has stated to the ALJ its intention to file a timely motion for interlocutory review of the ALJ's order to produce the documents, and until the motion for interlocutory review has been decided.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing discovery subpoenas.</I> If the ALJ issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party, the subpoenaing party may, in the event of noncompliance and to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to any appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a subpoena will not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ against a party who fails to produce subpoenaed documents.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.26" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.26   Document subpoenas to nonparties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) Any party may apply to the ALJ for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain a proposed document subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of documents sought. The subpoenaing party must specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for making production in response to the document subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 747.24(d). The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all parties. Document subpoenas may be served in any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any document subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such conditions as may be consistent with the Uniform Rules.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a document subpoena is directed may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena with the ALJ. The motion must be accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on all parties, and any party may respond to such motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of privilege, upon which a party could object to a discovery request under § 747.25(d), and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with so much of the document subpoena as the ALJ has not quashed or modified. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a document subpoena will in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.27" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.27   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness' testimony for the record may apply in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, to the ALJ for the issuance of a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The ALJ may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon showing:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness' unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time, manner, and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed at any place within the country in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment, by remote means, or such other convenient place or manner, as the ALJ fixes.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the ALJ requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the ALJ orders otherwise, no deposition under this section may be taken on fewer than ten days' notice to the witness and all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the ALJ to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than ten days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn. By stipulation of the parties or by order of the ALJ, a court reporter or other person authorized to administer an oath may administer the oath remotely without being in the physical presence of the deponent. Each party must have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the ALJ for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition must certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section, or fails to comply with any order of the ALJ, which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under paragraph (b) or (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by applicable law, apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena with which the subpoenaed party has not complied. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the ALJ on a party who fails to comply with, or procures a failure to comply with, a subpoena issued under this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.28" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.28   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The NCUA Board may review a ruling of the ALJ prior to the certification of the record to the NCUA Board only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section and § 747.23.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The NCUA Board may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the ALJ if the NCUA Board finds:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any request for interlocutory review must be filed by a party with the ALJ within ten days of the ruling and must otherwise comply with § 747.23. Any party may file a response to a request for interlocutory review in accordance with § 747.23(d). Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the ALJ will refer the matter to the NCUA Board for final disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the NCUA Board under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ or the NCUA Board.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.29" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.29   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The ALJ will recommend that the NCUA Board issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that the party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 20 days after service of such a motion, or within such time period as allowed by the ALJ, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends supports the moving party's position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the opposing party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the written request of any party or on the ALJ's own motion, the ALJ may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the ALJ will determine whether the moving party is entitled to summary disposition. If the ALJ determines that summary disposition is warranted, the ALJ will submit a recommended decision to that effect to the NCUA Board. If the ALJ finds that no party is entitled to summary disposition, the ALJ will make a ruling denying the motion.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.30" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.30   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If the ALJ determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, the ALJ will defer submitting a recommended decision as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the ALJ has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.31" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.31   Scheduling and prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 30 days of service of the notice or order commencing a proceeding, the ALJ will direct counsel for all parties to meet with the ALJ at a specified time and manner prior to the hearing for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting is called a “scheduling conference.” The schedule for the identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials may also be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The ALJ may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on the ALJ's own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to confer with the ALJ at a prehearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The ALJ may require that a scheduling or prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at the party's expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or prehearing orders.</I> At or within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any prehearing conference, the ALJ will serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.32" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.32   Prehearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Party prehearing submissions.</I> Within the time set by the ALJ, but in no case later than 20 days before the start of the hearing, each party must file with the ALJ and serve on every other party:
</P>
<P>(1) A prehearing statement that states:
</P>
<P>(i) The party's position with respect to the legal issues presented;
</P>
<P>(ii) The statutory and case law upon which the party relies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The facts that the party expects to prove at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name, mailing address, and electronic mail address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness, which need not identify the exhibits to be relied upon by each witness at the hearing;
</P>
<P>(3) A list of the exhibits expected to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.33" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.33   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All hearings must be open to the public, unless the NCUA Board, in the NCUA Board's discretion, determines that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. Within 20 days of service of the notice, any respondent may file with the NCUA Board a request for a private hearing, and any party may file a reply to such a request. A party must serve on the ALJ a copy of any request or reply the party files with the NCUA Board. The form of, and procedure for, these requests and replies are governed by § 747.23. A party's failure to file a request or a reply constitutes a waiver of any objections regarding whether the hearing will be public or private.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing document under seal.</I> Enforcement Counsel, in Enforcement Counsel's discretion, may file any document or part of a document under seal if disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The ALJ will take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents or parts thereof, including closing portions of the hearing to the public.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.34" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.34   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party showing general relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the ALJ may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at the hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, or as otherwise provided by law at any designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application must serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will promptly issue any hearing subpoena requested pursuant to this section. If the ALJ determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, the ALJ may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with this subpart. Upon issuance by the ALJ, the party making the application must serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify the subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within ten days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance but not more than ten days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the ALJ which directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 747.26(c).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.35" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.35   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) <I>Conduct of hearings.</I> Hearings must be conducted so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> Enforcement Counsel will present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the ALJ, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement Counsel will be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the ALJ will fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one counsel for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the ALJ may permit more than one counsel for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one counsel conduct the direct examination and another counsel conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one counsel conduct the cross examination of a witness and another counsel conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the ALJ directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing must be recorded and transcribed. The reporter will make the transcript available to any party upon payment by that party to the reporter of the cost of the transcript. The ALJ may order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the ALJ's own motion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic presentation.</I> Based on the circumstances of each hearing, the ALJ may direct the use of, or any party may use, an electronic presentation during the hearing. If the ALJ requires an electronic presentation during the hearing, each party will be responsible for their own presentation and related costs, unless the parties agree to another manner in which to allocate presentation responsibilities and costs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.36" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.36   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable, and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact which may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and any material information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the ALJ or the NCUA Board must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested or taken of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, must be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection, or visitation, prepared by an appropriate Federal financial institutions regulatory agency or by a State regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the ALJ's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning propounded to a witness is sustained, the examining counsel may make a specific proffer on the record of what the examining counsel expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness either by representation of counsel or by direct questioning of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The ALJ will retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record, and transmit such exhibits to the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing, and that witness has testified in a deposition to which all parties in a proceeding had notice and an opportunity to participate, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the depositions, the ALJ may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition received in evidence at the hearing constitute a part of the record.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.37" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.37   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the ALJ will serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed. Any party may file with the ALJ proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days following service of this notice by the ALJ or within such longer period as may be ordered by the ALJ.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document. Any party who ails to file timely with the ALJ any proposed finding or conclusion is deemed to have waived the right to raise in any subsequent filing or submission any issue not addressed in such party's proposed finding or conclusion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Reply briefs must be strictly limited to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The ALJ will not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.38" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.38   Recommended decision and filing of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 747.37(b), the ALJ will file with and certify to the NCUA Board, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the ALJ's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact, recommended conclusions of law, and proposed order; all prehearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits, and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The ALJ will serve upon each party the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the ALJ files with and certifies to the NCUA Board for final determination the record of the proceeding, the ALJ will furnish to the NCUA Board a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index must include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document, or motion filed with the ALJ in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index must also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.39" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.39   Exceptions to recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order under § 747.38, a party may file with the NCUA Board written exceptions to the ALJ's recommended decision, findings, conclusions, or proposed order, to the admission or exclusion of evidence, or to the failure of the ALJ to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the NCUA Board if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the ALJ and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in, or omissions from, the ALJ's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the ALJ's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.40" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.40" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.40   Review by the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the NCUA Board.</I> When the NCUA Board determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the NCUA Board will serve notice upon the parties that the proceeding has been submitted to the NCUA Board for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the NCUA Board.</I> Upon the initiative of the NCUA Board or on the written request of any party filed with the NCUA Board within the time for filing exceptions, the NCUA Board may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision, and order of the ALJ. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the NCUA Board's final decision. Oral argument before the NCUA Board must be on the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The NCUA Board's final decision.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the NCUA Board in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the NCUA Board will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the NCUA Board may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The NCUA Board will render a final decision within 90 days after notification of the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, or 90 days after oral argument, whichever is later, unless the NCUA Board orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the ALJ for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision and order of the NCUA Board will be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the NCUA Board or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.41" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.1.11.41" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.41   Stays pending judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the NCUA Board may not, unless specifically ordered by the NCUA Board or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the NCUA Board. The NCUA Board may, in the NCUA Board's discretion, and on such terms as the NCUA Board finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Local Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.100" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.100   Discovery limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Parties to a proceeding set forth either at § 747.1 of subpart A or in subpart C, E or G of this part may obtain discovery only through the production of documents. No other form of discovery shall be allowed.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that a person producing documents pursuant to a document subpoena is permitted to be deposed, all questioning shall be strictly limited to the identification of documents produced by that person and a reasonable examination to determine whether the subpoenaed person made an adequate search for, and has produced, all subpoenaed documents.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings for the Involuntary Termination of Insured Status</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.201" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.201   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Under the authority of section 206(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(b)), the NCUA Board may terminate the insured status of an insured credit union upon the grounds set forth therein and enumerated in § 747.202. The procedure for terminating the insured status of an insured credit union as therein prescribed will be followed and hearings required thereunder will be conducted in accordance with the rules and procedures set forth in this subpart and subpart A of this part. To the extent any rule or procedure of subpart A is inconsistent with a rule or procedure prescribed in this subpart C, subpart C shall control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.202" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.202   Grounds for termination of insurance.</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA Board may institute proceedings to terminate the insured status of an insured credit union whenever it determines that an insured credit union is:
</P>
<P>(a) Engaging or has engaged in unsafe or unsound practices in conducting its business;
</P>
<P>(b) In unsafe or unsound condition to continue as an insured credit union; or
</P>
<P>(c) Violating or has violated any applicable law, rule, regulation, order, written condition imposed by the NCUA Board in response to any action on any application, notice, or other request by the credit union or institution-affiliated party, or any written agreement entered into with the NCUA Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 71 FR 67440, Nov. 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.203" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.203   Notice of charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Whenever the NCUA Board determines that grounds for termination of insured status exists, it will, for the purpose of securing correction of errant or illegal conditions, serve a Notice of Charges upon the concerned credit union. This notice will contain a statement describing the unsafe or unsound practices, condition or the relevant violations.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an insured State-chartered credit union, the NCUA Board shall send a copy of the Notice of Charges to the appropriate State authority, if any, having supervision over the credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.204" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.204   Notice of intention to terminate insured status.</HEAD>
<P>Unless correction of the practices, condition, or violations set forth in the Notice of Charges is made within 120 days after service of such statement, or within a shorter period of not less than 20 days after such service as the NCUA Board may require in any case where it determines that the insurance risk with respect to such credit union could be unduly jeopardized by further delay or as the appropriate State supervisory authority shall require in the case of an insured State-chartered credit union, the Board, if it determines to proceed further, shall give to the credit union not less than 30 days written notice of its intent to terminate the status of the credit union as an insured credit union. The notice shall contain a statement of the facts constituting the alleged unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations on which a hearing will be held. Such hearing shall commence not earlier than 30 days nor later than 60 days after the date of service of such notice upon the credit union, unless an earlier or later date is set by the NCUA Board at the request of the credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.205" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.205   Order terminating insured status.</HEAD>
<P>If, upon the record of the hearing held pursuant to § 747.204, the NCUA Board finds that any unsafe or unsound practice or condition or violation specified in the notice has been established and has not been corrected within the time prescribed under § 747.204, the NCUA Board may issue and serve upon the credit union an order terminating its status as an insured credit union on a date subsequent to the date of such finding and subsequent to the expiration of the time specified in the Notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.206" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.206   Consent to termination of insured status.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the credit union appears at the hearing designated in the notice of hearing by a duly authorized representative, it will be deemed to have consented to the termination of its status as an insured credit union. In the event the credit union fails to so appear at such hearing, the administrative law judge shall forthwith report the matter to the NCUA Board and the NCUA Board may thereupon issue an order terminating the credit union's insured status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.207" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.207   Notice of termination of insured status.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the effective date of the termination of the insured status of an insured credit union under section 206(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(b)) and at such time as the Board shall specify, the credit union shall mail to each member at his or her last address of record on the books of the credit union, and publish in not less than two issues of a local newspaper of general circulation, notices of the termination of its insured status, and the credit union shall furnish the NCUA Board with proof of publication of such notice. The notice shall be as follows:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<HD3>NOTICE
</HD3>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<P>1. The status of the ______ as an insured credit union under the provisions of the Federal Credit Union Act, will terminate as of the close of business on the ____ day of ____;
</P>
<P>2. Any deposits made by you after that date, either new deposits or additions to existing accounts, will not be insured by the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P>3. Accounts in the credit union on the ____ day of ____, ____ up to a maximum of $250,000 for each member, will continue to be insured, as provided by the Federal Credit Union Act, for one (1) year after the close of business on the ____ day of ____, ____: <I>Provided, however,</I> That any withdrawals after the close of business on the day of ____, ____; will reduce the insurance coverage by the amount of such withdrawals.
</P>
<FP>(Name of Credit Union)
</FP>
<FP>(Address)</FP></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.208" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.208   Duties after termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the termination of the insured status of any credit union under section 206(b) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(b)), insurance of its member accounts to the extent they were insured on the effective date of such termination, less any amounts thereafter withdrawn which reduce the accounts below the amount covered by insurance on the effective date of such termination, shall continue for a period of one year, but no shares issued by the credit union or deposits made after the date of such termination shall be insured by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit union shall continue to pay premiums to the NCUA Board during such period and the Board shall have the right to examine the credit union from time to time during the period. The credit union shall, in all other respects, be subject to the duties and obligations of an insured credit union during the one year period. If the credit union is closed for liquidation within this period, the Board shall have the same powers and rights with respect to such credit union as in the case of an insured credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Suspensions and Prohibitions Where Felony Charged</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.301" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.301   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart are applicable to informal proceedings conducted by the NCUA Board, or a Presiding Officer designated by the Board, pursuant to section 206(i) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(i)), to suspend, remove and/or prohibit from office or from further participation any institution-affiliated party of an insured credit union who:
</P>
<P>(a) Is charged in a state, Federal or territorial information or indictment or complaint with committing or participating in a crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust, which crime is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or Federal law; or
</P>
<P>(b) Enters a pretrial diversion or other similar program as result of being charged in such information or indictment or complaint with participating or committing such crime; or
</P>
<P>(c) Is convicted of such crime.
</P>
<FP>Subpart A of this part does not apply to proceedings under this subpart.
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.302" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.302   Rules of practice; remainder of board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise specifically provided in this subpart, the following provisions shall apply to proceedings conducted under this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Power of attorney and notice of appearance.</I> Any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, possession, territory, Commonwealth, or the District of Columbia may represent others before the NCUA Board or Presiding Officer designated by the NCUA Board upon filing with the NCUA Board a written declaration that he or she is currently qualified as provided by this paragraph, and is authorized to represent the particular party on whose behalf he acts. Any other person desiring to appear before or transact business with the NCUA Board in a representative capacity may be required to file with the NCUA Board a power of attorney showing his or her authority to act in such capacity, and he or she may be required to show to the satisfaction of the NCUA Board that he or she has the requisite qualifications. Attorneys and representatives of parties to proceedings shall file a written notice of appearance with the NCUA Board or with the Presiding Officer designated by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Summary suspension.</I> Contemptuous conduct by any person at an argument before the NCUA Board or at the hearing before a Presiding Officer shall be grounds for exclusion therefrom and suspension for the duration of the argument or hearing.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> Whenever a hearing within the scope of this subpart is ordered by the NCUA Board, a notice of hearing shall be given by the NCUA Board to the party afforded the hearing and to any appropriate state supervisory authority. The notice shall state the time, place, and nature of the hearing and the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the hearing is to be held, and shall contain a statement of the matters of fact or law constituting the grounds for the hearing. It shall be delivered by personal service, by registered or certified mail to the last known address, or by other appropriate means, not later than 30 nor earlier than 60 days before the hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Party.</I> The term “party” means a person or agency named or admitted as a party, or any person or agency who has filed a written request and is entitled as of right to be admitted as a party; but a person or agency may be admitted for a limited purpose.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Computation of time.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act, event or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be included. The last day so computed shall be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday or legal holiday in the District of Columbia, in which event the period shall run until the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday, nor such legal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall be included in the computation unless the time within which the act is to be performed is ten days or less in which event Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays shall not be included.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service by mail.</I> Whenever any party has the right or is required to do some act or take some proceeding, within a period of time prescribed in this subpart, after the service upon him of any document or other paper of any kind, and such service is made by mail, three days shall be added to the prescribed period from the date when the matter served is deposited in the U.S. mail.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nonpublication of submissions.</I> Unless and until otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, the notice of hearing, the transcript, written materials submitted during the hearing, the Presiding Officer's recommendation to the NCUA Board and any other papers filed in connection with a hearing under this subpart, shall not be made public, and shall be for the confidential use only of the NCUA Board, the Presiding Officer, the parties and appropriate authorities.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Remainder of board of directors.</I> (1) If at any time, because of the suspension of one or more directors pursuant to this subpart, there shall be on the board of directors of an insured credit union less than a quorum of directors not so suspended, all powers and functions vested in or exercisable by such board shall vest in and be exercisable by the director or directors on the board not so suspended, until such time as there shall be a quorum on the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event all of the directors of an insured credit union are suspended pursuant to this subpart, the NCUA Board shall appoint persons to serve temporarily as directors in their place pending the termination of such suspensions, or until such time as those who have been suspended cease to be directors of the credit union and their respective successors have been elected by the members at an annual or special meeting and have taken office.
</P>
<P>(3) Directors appointed temporarily by the NCUA Board pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, shall, within 30 days following their appointment, call a special meeting for the election of new directors, unless during such 30-day period—
</P>
<P>(i) The regular annual meeting is convened; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The suspensions giving rise to the appointment of temporary directors are terminated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.303" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.303   Notice of suspension or prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever an institution-affiliated party of an insured credit union is charged in any state, Federal or territorial information or indictment or complaint with the commission of or participation in a crime involving dishonesty or breach of trust, which crime is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or Federal law, the NCUA Board may, if continued service or participation by the concerned party may pose a threat to the interests of any credit union's members or may threaten to impair public confidence in any credit union, by written notice served upon such party, suspend him or her from office, or prohibit him or her from further participation in any manner in the affairs of any credit union, or both. A copy of the notice of suspension or prohibition shall also be served upon the credit union of which the subject of the order is, or most recently was, an institution-affiliated party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 67440, Nov. 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.304" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.304   Removal or permanent prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that a judgment of conviction or an agreement to enter a pretrial diversion or other similar program is entered against the institution-affiliated party, and at such time as the judgment, if any, is not subject to further appellate review, the NCUA Board may, if continued service or participation by such party may pose a threat to the interests of any credit union's members or may threaten to impair public confidence in any credit union, issue and serve upon the individual an order removing him or her from office or prohibiting him or her from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of any credit union except with the consent of the NCUA Board. A copy of such order will also be served upon the credit union of which the subject of the order is, or most recently was, an institution-affiliated party.
</P>
<P>(b) The NCUA Board may issue such order with respect to an individual who is an institution-affiliated party at a credit union at the time of the offense without regard to whether such individual is an institution-affiliated party at any credit union at the time the order is considered or issued by the Board or whether the credit union at which the individual was an institution-affiliated party at the time of the offense remains in existence at the time the order is considered or issued by the board.
</P>
<P>(c) A finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge will not preclude the Board from thereafter instituting proceedings, pursuant to the provisions of section 206(g) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(g)) and subpart A of this part, to remove such director, committee member, officer, or other person from office or to prohibit his or her further participation in the affairs of the credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[71 FR 67441, Nov. 22, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.305" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.305   Effectiveness of suspension or removal until completion of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>Any notice of suspension or prohibition issued under § 747.303 and any order of removal or prohibition issued under § 747.304 will be effective upon service on the concerned party and will remain effective and outstanding until the completion of any hearing or appeal authorized under section 206(i) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(i)) and this subpart, unless such notice of suspension or order of removal is terminated by the NCUA Board.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.306" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.306   Notice of opportunity for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any notice of suspension or prohibition issued pursuant to § 747.303, and any order of removal or prohibition issued pursuant to § 747.304, shall be accompanied by a further notice to the concerned individual that he or she may, within 30 days of service of such notice, request in writing an informal hearing at which he or she may present evidence and argument that his or her continued service to or participation in the conduct of the affairs of the credit union does not, or is not likely to, pose a threat to the interests of the credit union's members or threaten to impair confidence in the credit union. Any notice of the opportunity for such a hearing shall be accompanied by a description of the hearing procedure and the criteria to be considered.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for a hearing filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall state with particularity the relief desired, the grounds thereof, and shall include, when available, supporting evidence. The request and supporting evidence shall be filed in writing with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010; 85 FR 62213, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.307" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.307   Hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request for a hearing which complies with § 747.306, the NCUA Board will order an informal hearing to commence within the following 30 days in the Washington, DC metropolitan area or at such other place as the NCUA Board designates before a Presiding Officer designated by the NCUA Board to conduct the hearing. At the request of the concerned party, the NCUA Board may order the hearing to commence at a time more than 30 days after the receipt of the request for such hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of hearing shall be served by the NCUA Board upon the party or parties afforded the hearing and shall set forth the time and place of the hearing and the name and address of the Presiding Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) The subject individual may appear at the hearing personally, through counsel, or personally with counsel. The individual shall have the right to introduce relevant and material written materials (or, at the discretion of the NCUA Board, oral testimony), and to present an oral argument before the Presiding Officer. A member of the enforcement staff of the Office of General Counsel of the NCUA may attend the hearing and may participate as a party. Neither the formal rules of evidence nor the adjudicative procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557), nor subpart A of this part shall apply to the hearing. The proceedings shall be recorded and a transcript furnished to the individual upon request and after the payment of the cost thereof. The NCUA Board shall have the discretion to permit the presentation of witnesses, within specified time limits, so long as a list of such witnesses is furnished to the Presiding Officer at least ten days prior to the hearing. Witnesses shall not be sworn, unless specifically requested by either party or directed by the Presiding Officer. The Presiding Officer may examine any witnesses and each party shall have the opportunity to cross-examine any witness presented by an opposing party. Upon the request of either the subject individual or the representative of the Office of General Counsel, the record shall remain open for a period of five business days following the hearing, during which time the parties may make any additional submissions to the record. Thereafter, the record shall be closed.
</P>
<P>(d) In the course of or in connection with any proceeding under this subpart, the NCUA Board and the Presiding Officer will have the power to administer oaths and affirmations, to take or cause depositions to be taken, and to issue, revoke, quash, or modify subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum. If the NCUA Board permits the presentation of witnesses, the NCUA Board or the Presiding Officer may require the attendance of witnesses from any place in any state or in any territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States at any designated place where such proceeding is being conducted. Witnesses subpoenaed shall be paid the same fees and mileage as are paid witnesses in the District Courts of the United States. The NCUA Board or the Presiding Officer may require the production of documents from any place in any such state, territory, or other place.
</P>
<P>(e) The Presiding Officer will make his or her recommendations to the Board, where possible, within ten business days following the close of the record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.308" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.308   Waiver of hearing; failure to request hearing or review based on written submissions; failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The subject individual may, in writing, waive an oral hearing and instead elect to have the matter determined by the NCUA Board on the basis of written submissions alone.
</P>
<P>(b) Should any concerned party fail to request in writing an oral hearing or consideration based on written submissions alone within 30 days of service of the notice described in § 747.306, he or she will be deemed to have consented to the NCUA Board's action.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the concerned party appears at the hearing personally or by duly appointed representative, he or she will be deemed to have consented to the NCUA Board's action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.309" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.309   Decision of the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>Within 60 days following the hearing, or receipt of the subject individual's written submissions where hearing has been waived pursuant to § 747.308, the NCUA Board shall notify the institution-affiliated party whether the suspension or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order of removal or prohibition will be rescinded or otherwise modified. Such notification shall contain a statement of the basis for the decision of the NCUA Board, if that decision is adverse to the respondent party. In the case of a decision favorable to the respondent on the subject of a prior order of removal or prohibition, the NCUA Board shall take prompt action to rescind or otherwise modify the order of removal or prohibition.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.310" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.310   Reconsideration by the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The subject individual shall have ten business days following receipt of the decision of the NCUA Board in which to petition the NCUA Board for initial reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(b) The subject individual also shall be entitled to petition the NCUA Board for reconsideration of its decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the NCUA Board's decision, but no petition for reconsideration may be made within 12 months of a previous petition.
</P>
<P>(c) Any petition shall state with particularity the basis for reconsideration, the relief sought, and any exceptions the individual has to the NCUA Board's findings. An individual's petition may be accompanied by a memorandum of points and authorities in support of his or her petition and any supporting documentation the individual may wish to have considered.
</P>
<P>(d) No hearing need be granted on such petition for reconsideration. Promptly following receipt of the petition, the Board shall render its decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.311" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.4.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.311   Relevant considerations.</HEAD>
<P>In deciding the question of suspension, prohibition, or removal under this subpart, the NCUA Board will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Whether the alleged offense is a crime which is punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under state or Federal law, and which involves dishonesty or breach of trust;
</P>
<P>(b) Whether the continued presence of the subject individual in his or her position may pose a threat to the interests of the credit union's members because of the nature and extent of the individual's participation in the affairs of the insured credit union and/or the nature of the offense with the commission of or participation in which the individual has been charged;
</P>
<P>(c) Whether there is cause to believe that there may be an erosion of public confidence in the integrity, safety, or soundness of a particular credit union (either generally or in the particular locality in which the credit union is situated) if the subject individual is permitted to remain in his or her position in an insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(d) Whether the individual is covered by the credit union's fidelity bond and, if so, whether the bond is likely to be revoked, or whether coverage under the bond will be affected adversely as a result of the information, indictment, complaint, judgment of conviction or entry into a pretrial diversion or other similar program; and
</P>
<P>(e) The NCUA Board may consider any other factors which, in the specific case, appear relevant to the decision to continue in effect, rescind, terminate, or modify a suspension, prohibition, or removal order, except that it shall not consider the ultimate question of the guilt or innocence of the subject individual with regard to the crime with which he or she has been charged. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to the Suspension or Revocation of Charters and to Involuntary Liquidations Under Title I</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.401" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.401   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart and subpart A of this part are applicable to proceedings by the NCUA Board pursuant to section 120(b)(1) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1766(b)(1)) to suspend or revoke the charter of a solvent Federal credit union, and to place a solvent Federal credit union into involuntary liquidation. To the extent a rule or procedure set forth in subpart A of this part is inconsistent with a rule or procedure set forth in this subpart E, subpart E shall control. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.402" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.402   Grounds for suspension or revocation of charter and for involuntary liquidation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds in general.</I> The NCUA Board may suspend or revoke the charter of any Federal credit union, and place such credit union into involuntary liquidation and appoint a liquidating agent therefor, upon its finding that the credit union has violated any provision of its charter or bylaws or of the FCUA or regulations issued thereunder. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Immediate suspension.</I> In any case where the Board determines that the grounds set forth in paragraph (a) of this section exist and that immediate action is necessary in order to prevent further dissipation of credit union assets or earnings, or further weakening of the credit union's condition, or to otherwise protect the interest of the credit union's insured members or the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund, it may order without prior notice the immediate suspension of the charter of such credit union, and if the circumstances so warrant, may take possession of all books, records, assets, and property of every description of such credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 85 FR 62214, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.403" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.403   Notice of intent to suspend or revoke charter; notice of suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon its determination that one or more of the grounds listed in § 747.402(a) exists, or that because of conditions described in § 747.402(b) immediate suspension of charter is necessary, the NCUA Board shall cause to be served upon that credit union a notice of intent to suspend or revoke charter and of intent to place into involuntary liquidation, or a notice of suspension. Such notice shall contain a statement of the facts which constitute the grounds for this action, a recitation of the options available to the credit union under paragraph (b) of this section, and an explanation of the results that will occur if the credit union fails to exercise said options. 
</P>
<P>(b) Not later than 40 days after the receipt of the notice provided for in paragraph (a) of this section, the Federal credit union may file with the NCUA Board a statement in writing setting forth the grounds and reasons why its charter should not be suspended or revoked and why it should not be placed into involuntary liquidation; or in lieu of a written statement, request an oral hearing which shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures set forth in this subpart. This statement or request shall be accompanied by a certified copy of a resolution of the board of directors of the Federal credit union concerned authorizing such statement or request, such certification to be made by the president and secretary of the board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Federal credit union concerned does not exercise either alternative available in paragraph (b) of this section within the time required, it shall be deemed to have admitted the facts alleged in the notice and may be deemed to have consented to the relief sought. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.404" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.404   Notice of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of a request for hearing which complies with § 747.403(b), the NCUA Board shall transmit the request to the Office of Financial Institution Adjudication (“OFIA”). Such hearing shall commence no earlier than 30 days nor later than 60 days after the date the OFIA receives the request for a hearing, unless an earlier or later date is requested by the Federal credit union concerned and is granted by the NCUA Board in its discretion. 
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in § 747.405(b), the procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) and subpart A of this part will apply to the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the Federal credit union shall appear at such hearing by a duly authorized representative it shall be deemed to have consented to the suspension or revocation of its charter and to the placing of said credit union into involuntary liquidation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.405" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.405   Issuance of order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event of such consent as referred to in § 747.403(c) or § 747.404(c), or if upon the record made at any such hearing as referred to in § 747.403(b), the NCUA Board finds that the charter of the Federal credit union concerned should be suspended or revoked and the credit union closed and placed into involuntary liquidation, it shall cause to be served on such credit union an order directing the suspension or revocation of its charter and directing that it be closed and placed into involuntary liquidation. Such order shall contain a statement of the findings upon which the order is based. Additionally, the NCUA Board shall appoint a liquidating agent or agents. 
</P>
<P>(b) The NCUA Board shall render its decision and cause such order to be served not later than 45 days after receipt of consent, or written submissions as the case may be, or in the case of a formal hearing after service or the notice of submission referred to in § 747.40(a). 
</P>
<P>(c) Upon the receipt of a copy of the order which provides that the Federal credit union concerned be placed into involuntary liquidation, the officers and directors of that Federal credit union shall immediately deliver to the agent for the liquidating agent possession and control of all books, records, assets, and property of every description of the Federal credit union, and the agent for the liquidating agent shall proceed to convert said assets to cash, collect all debts due to said Federal credit union and to wind up its affairs in accordance with the provisions of the Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.406" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.5.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.406   Cancellation of charter.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the completion of the liquidation and certification by the agent for the liquidating agent that the distribution of the assets of the Federal credit union has been completed, the NCUA Board shall cancel the charter of the Federal credit union concerned. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Proceedings Relating to the Termination of Membership in the Central Liquidity Facility [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Recovery of Attorneys Fees and Other Expenses Under the Equal Access to Justice Act in NCUA Board Adjudications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.601" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.601   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the regulations of the NCUA implementing the Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C. 504), as amended (“EAJA”). The EAJA provides for the award of attorneys fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to proceedings conducted under this part. An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over NCUA in a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, unless the position of the NCUA was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The rules in this subpart describe the parties eligible for fee awards, explain how to apply for awards and the procedures and standards that NCUA will use to make them. To the extent a rule or procedure set forth in subpart A of this part is inconsistent with a rule or procedure set forth in this subpart G, subpart G will control.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.602" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.602   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorneys fees and expenses, an applicant must be a prevailing party in the proceeding for which it seeks an award and must be:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests and not more than 500 employees at the time the proceeding was commenced (an applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered as an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests);
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees; 
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of determining eligibility, the net worth of an applicant and the number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.
</P>
<P>(c) The applicant's net worth includes the value of any assets disposed of for the purpose of meeting an eligibility standard and excludes any obligations incurred for this purpose. Transfers of assets or obligations incurred for less than reasonably equivalent value will be presumed to have been made for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(d) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control; part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(e) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or other entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this subpart, unless the NCUA Board determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the EAJA in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the NCUA Board may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(f) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.603" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.603   Prevailing party.</HEAD>
<P>An eligible applicant may be a “prevailing party” if the applicant wins an action after a full hearing or trial on the merits, if a settlement of the proceeding was effected on terms favorable to it, or if the proceeding against it has been dismissed. In appropriate situations an applicant may also have prevailed if the outcome of the proceeding has substantially vindicated the applicant's position on the significant substantive matters at issue, even though the applicant has not totally avoided adverse final action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.604" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.604   Standards for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing party may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding, or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, by or against NCUA unless the position of NCUA during the proceeding was substantially justified. The burden of proving that an award should not be made is on counsel for NCUA. To avoid an award, counsel for NCUA must show that its position was reasonable in law and in fact.
</P>
<P>(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.
</P>
<P>(c) Where an applicant has prevailed on one or more discrete substantive issues in a proceeding, even though all the issues were not resolved in its favor, any award shall be based on the fees and expenses incurred in connection with the discrete significant substantive issue or issues on which the applicant's position has been upheld. If such segregation of costs is not practicable, the award may be based on a fair proration of those fees and expenses incurred in the entire proceeding which would be recoverable under this section if proration were not performed.
</P>
<P>(d) Whether separate or prorated treatment under the preceding paragraph, including the applicable proration percentage, is appropriate shall be determined on the facts of the particular case. Attention shall be given to the significance and nature of the respective issues and their separability and interrelationship.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.605" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.605   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided by § 747.604(b), awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate.
</P>
<P>(b) No award under this subpart for the fee of an attorney or agent may exceed $75.00 per hour. No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which NCUA is permitted to pay expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the NCUA Board shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for like services, or, if he or she is an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant; and
</P>
<P>(4) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of the party may be awarded to the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.606" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.606   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A prevailing eligible party, as defined in §§ 747.602, 747.603, and 747.604, seeking an award under this section, must file an application for an award of fees and expenses with the Secretary of the NCUA Board. The application shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The identity of the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(2) A showing that the applicant has prevailed and an identification of the issues in the proceeding on which the applicant believes that the position of NCUA was not substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, with supporting documentation, that the applicant is an eligible party, as defined by § 747.602. If the applicant is an individual, he or she must state that his or her net worth does not exceed $2 million. If the applicant is not an individual, it shall state the number of its employees and that its net worth does not exceed $7 million as of the date the proceeding was initiated. However, an applicant may omit a statement of net worth if:
</P>
<P>(i) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
</P>
<P>(4) A Statement of the amount of fees and expenses for which an award is sought; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other matters that the applicant believes may assist or wishes the NCUA Board to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made.
</P>
<P>(b) The application shall be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant. It shall also contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<P>(c) The application and documentation requirements of this subpart are required by law as a prerequisite to obtaining a benefit under the EAJA and this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.607" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.607   Statement of net worth.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each applicant (other than a qualified tax-exempt organization or cooperative association) must provide a detailed statement showing the net worth of the applicant and any affiliates, as defined in § 747.602(a), when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant is an eligible party. The administrative law judge or the NCUA Board may require additional information from the applicant to determine eligibility. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board or required by law, the statement shall be kept confidential and used by the NCUA Board only in making its determination of an award.
</P>
<P>(b) If the applicant or any of its affiliates is a Federal credit union, the portion of the statement of net worth which relates to the Federal credit union shall consist of a copy of the Federal credit union's last Statement of Financial Condition filed before the initiation of the underlying proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) All statements of net worth shall describe any transfers of assets from or obligations incurred by the applicant or any affiliate, occurring in the six-month period prior to the date on which the proceeding was initiated, which reduced the net worth of the applicant and its affiliates below the applicable net-worth ceiling. If there were none, the applicant shall so state.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.608" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.608   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses, including the cost of any study, analysis, audit, test, project or similar matter, for which an award is sought. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The administrative law judge or the NCUA Board may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.609" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.609   Filing and service of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the proceeding or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the proceeding, but in no case later than 30 days after the Board's final disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision on which an applicant believes it has prevailed, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
</P>
<P>(c) As used in this subpart, final disposition means the issuance of a final order or any other final resolution of a proceeding, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal.
</P>
<P>(d) Any application for an award of fees and expenses shall be filed with the Secretary of the Board, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. Any application for an award and any other pleading or document related to an application, shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in the proceeding, except as provided in § 747.607(a) for statements of net worth.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.610" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.610   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel for NCUA may file an answer to the application. Unless counsel for NCUA requests and is granted an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period will be treated as a consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If counsel for NCUA and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions may be granted by the NCUA Board upon the joint request of counsel for NCUA and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, counsel shall include with the answer a request for further proceedings under § 747.613.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The applicant may file a reply if counsel for NCUA has addressed in his or her answer any of the following issues:
</P>
<P>(i) That the position of NCUA in the proceeding was substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(2) The reply shall be filed within 15 days after service of the answer. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply a request for further proceedings under § 747.613.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.611" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.611   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and counsel for NCUA may file comments on an application within 30 days after service of the application or on an answer within 15 days after service of the answer. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the administrative law judge or the NCUA Board determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.612" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.612   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and counsel for NCUA may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with NCUA's standard settlement procedure. If a prevailing party and counsel for NCUA agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.613" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.613   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) After the expiration of the time allowed for the filing of all documents necessary for the determination of a recommended fee award, the NCUA Board shall transmit the entire record to the administrative law judge who presided at the underlying proceeding. Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or counsel for NCUA, or on its own initiative, the administrative law judge or the NCUA Board may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the administrative law judge or the NCUA Board order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.614" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.614   Recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>The administrative law judge shall file a recommended decision on the application with the NCUA Board within 60 days after completion of the proceedings on the application. The recommended decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The recommended decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether NCUA's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the recommended decision shall allocate responsibility for payment of any award made among the agencies, and shall explain the reasons for the allocation made. The administrative law judge shall file with and certify to the NCUA Board the record of the proceeding on the fee application, the recommended decision and proposed order. Promptly upon such filing, the NCUA Board shall serve upon each party to the proceeding a copy of the administrative law judge's recommended decision, findings, conclusions and proposed order. The provisions of this section and § 747.613 shall not apply, however, in any case where the hearing was held before the NCUA Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.615" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.615   Decision of the NCUA Board.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of the recommended decision, findings, conclusions, and proposed order, the applicant or counsel for NCUA may file with the NCUA Board written exceptions thereto. A supporting brief may also be filed. The NCUA Board shall render its decision within 60 days after the matter is submitted to it. The NCUA Board shall furnish copies of its decision and order to the parties. Judicial review of the NCUA Board's final decision and order may be obtained as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.616" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.7.11.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.616   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award granted by the NCUA Board shall submit to the NCUA's Office of Chief Financial Officer a copy of the NCUA Board's Final Decision and Order granting the award, accompanied by a statement that it will not seek review of the decision and order in the United States court. All submissions shall be addressed to the Office of Chief Financial Officer, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. The NCUA will pay the amount awarded within 60 days after receiving the applicant's statement, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 75 FR 34622, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Local Rules and Procedures Applicable to Investigations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.701" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.8.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.701   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart apply only to informal and formal investigations conducted by the NCUA Board itself or its delegates. They do not apply to adjudicative or rulemaking proceedings or to routine, periodic or special examinations conducted by the NCUA Board's staff.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.702" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.8.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.702   Information obtained in investigations.</HEAD>
<P>Information and documents obtained by the Board in the course of any investigation, unless made a matter of public record by the NCUA Board, shall be deemed non-public, but the NCUA Board approves the practice whereby the General Counsel may engage in, and may authorize any person acting on his or her behalf or at his or her direction to engage in, discussions with representatives of domestic or foreign governmental authorities, self-regulatory organizations, and with receivers, trustees, masters and special counsels or special agents appointed by and subject to the supervision of the courts of the United States, concerning information obtained in individual investigations, including investigations conducted pursuant to any order entered by the NCUA Board or its General Counsel pursuant to delegated authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.703" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.8.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.703   Authority to conduct investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The General Counsel and persons acting on his or her behalf and at his or her direction may conduct such investigations into the affairs of any insured credit union or institution-affiliated parties as deemed appropriate to determine whether such credit union or party has violated, is violating or is about to violate any provision of the Act, the NCUA Board's regulations or other relevant statutes or regulations that may bear on a party's fitness to participate in the affairs of a credit union. The General Counsel and persons acting on his or her behalf may investigate whether any party is unfit to participate in the affairs of a credit union, whether formal enforcement proceedings are warranted, or such other matters as the General Counsel or his or her designee, in his or her discretion, shall deem appropriate. Such investigations may be conducted either informally or formally.
</P>
<P>(b) Formal investigations involve the exercise of the NCUA Board's subpoena power and are referred to here as formal investigative proceedings. In formal investigative proceedings, the General Counsel and those to whom he or she delegates authority to act on his or her behalf and at his or her direction have augmented investigatory powers and need not rely on the powers available to them in informal investigations, and they may gather evidence through the issuance of subpoenas compelling the production of documents or testimony as well. In informal investigations evidence may be gathered ordinarily through the use of investigatory procedures or credit union examinations and through voluntary statements and submissions.
</P>
<P>(c) The NCUA Board has delegated authority to the General Counsel, or designee thereof, to institute formal investigative proceedings by the entry of an order indicating the purpose of the investigation and the designation of persons to conduct that investigation on his or her behalf and at his or her direction. This delegation also extends to the NCUA Board's role as liquidator and conservator of insured credit unions. The power to issue a subpoena may not be delegated outside the agency. The General Counsel may amend such order as he deems appropriate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Local Rules Applicable to Formal Investigative Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.801" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.801   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The rules in this subpart are applicable to a witness who is sworn in a formal investigative proceeding. Formal investigative proceedings may be held before the NCUA Board, before one or more of its members, or before any officer designated by the NCUA Board or its General Counsel, as described in subpart H of this part, and with or without the assistance of such other counsel as the NCUA Board deems appropriate, for the purpose of taking testimony of witnesses, conducting an investigation and receiving other evidence. The term “officer conducting the investigation” shall mean any of the foregoing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.802" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.802   Non-public formal investigative proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, all formal investigative proceedings shall be non-public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.803" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.803   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> In the course of a formal investigative proceeding the officer conducting the investigation may issue a subpoena directing the party named therein to appear before the officer conducting the investigation at a specified time and place to testify or to produce documentary evidence, or both, relating to any matter under investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service.</I> Service of subpoenas shall be effected in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Service upon a natural party.</I> Delivery of a copy of a subpoena to a natural person may be effected by—
</P>
<P>(i) Handing it to the person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Leaving it at his or her office with the person in charge thereof or, if there is no one in charge, by leaving it at a conspicuous place there;
</P>
<P>(iii) Leaving it at his or her dwelling place or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion who is found there; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Mailing it by registered or certified mail to him or her at his or her last known address. In the event that personal service as described in this paragraph is impracticable, any other method whereby actual notice is given to the respondent may be employed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service upon other persons.</I> When the person to be served is not a natural person, delivery of a copy of the subpoena may be effected by—
</P>
<P>(i) Handing it to a registered agent for service, or to any officer, director, or agent in charge of any office of such person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mailing it by registered or certified mail to any such representative at his or her last known address; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other method whereby actual notice is given to any such representative.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Witness fees and mileage.</I> Witnesses appearing pursuant to subpoena shall be paid the same fees and mileage that are paid to witnesses in the United States district courts. Any such fees and mileage payments need be paid only upon submission of a properly completed application for reimbursement and in no event need they be paid sooner than 30 days after the appearance of the witness pursuant to subpoena.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcement.</I> Whenever it appears to the General Counsel that any person upon whom a subpoena was properly served pursuant to these Rules is refusing to fully comply with the terms of that subpoena, then the General Counsel, in his or her discretion, may apply to the courts of the United States for enforcement of such subpoena.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 37767, Aug. 8, 1991; 57 FR 523, Jan. 7, 1992; June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.804" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.804   Oath; false statements.</HEAD>
<P>At the discretion of the officer conducting the investigation, testimony of a witness may be taken under oath and administered by the officer. Any person making false statements under oath during the course of a formal investigative proceeding is subject to the criminal penalties for perjury in 18 U.S.C. 1621. Any person who knowingly and willfully makes false and fraudulent statements, whether under oath or otherwise, or who falsifies, conceals or covers up any material fact, or submits any false, fictitious or fraudulent information in connection with such a proceeding, is subject to the criminal penalties set forth in 18 U.S.C. 1001.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.805" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.805   Self-incrimination; immunity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Self-incrimination.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a witness testifying or otherwise giving information in a formal investigative proceeding may refuse to answer questions on the basis of his or her right against self-incrimination granted by the Fifth Amendment of the Constitution of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Immunity.</I> (1) No officer conducting any formal investigative proceeding (or any other informal investigation or examination) shall have the power to grant or promise any party any immunity from criminal prosecution under the laws of the United States or of any other jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) If the NCUA Board believes that the testimony or other information sought to be obtained from any party may be necessary to the public interest and that party has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other information on the basis of his or her privilege against self-incrimination, the NCUA Board, with the approval of the Attorney General, may issue an order requiring the party to give testimony or provide other information that he or she has previously refused to provide on the basis of self-incrimination.
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever a witness refuses, on the basis of his privilege against self-incrimination, to testify or provide other information in a formal investigative proceeding, and the officer conducting the investigation communicates to that person an order of the NCUA Board requiring him or her to testify or provide other information, the witness may not refuse to comply with the order on the basis of his or her privilege against self-incrimination; but no testimony or other information compelled under the order (or any information directly or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information) may be used against the witness in any criminal case, except a prosecution for perjury, giving a false statement, or otherwise failing to comply with the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.806" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.806   Transcripts.</HEAD>
<P>Transcripts, if any, of formal investigative proceedings shall be recorded solely by the official reporter, or by any other person or means designated by the officer conducting the investigation. A party who has submitted documentary evidence or testimony in a formal investigative proceeding shall be entitled, upon written request, to procure a copy of his or her documentary evidence or a transcript of his or her testimony on payment of the appropriate fees; provided, however, that in a non-public formal investigative proceeding the NCUA Board may for good cause deny such request or the NCUA Board may place reasonable limitations upon the use of the documentary evidence and transcript. In any event, any witness, upon proper identification, shall have the right to inspect the official transcript of the witness's own testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.807" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.9.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.807   Rights of witnesses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the event that a formal investigative proceeding is conducted pursuant to a specific order entered by the NCUA Board or by its General Counsel, then any party who is compelled or requested to provide documentary evidence or testimony as part of such proceeding shall, upon request, be shown a copy of the NCUA Board's or its delegate's order. Copies of such orders shall not be provided for their retention to such persons requesting same except in the sole discretion of the General Counsel or his designee.
</P>
<P>(b) Any party compelled to appear, or who appears by request or permission of the officer conducting the investigation, in person at a formal investigative proceeding may be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel who is a member of the bar of the highest court of any state; provided however, that all witnesses in such proceeding shall be sequestered, and unless permitted in the discretion of the officer conducting the investigation, no witness or the counsel accompanying any such witness shall be permitted to be present during the examination of any other witness called in such proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The right of a witness to be accompanied, represented and advised by counsel shall mean the right to have an attorney present during any formal investigative proceeding and to have the attorney—
</P>
<P>(i) Advise such person before, during and after such testimony;
</P>
<P>(ii) Question such person briefly at the conclusion of his testimony to clarify any answers such person has given; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Make summary notes during such testimony solely for the use of such person.
</P>
<P>(2) From time to time, in the discretion of the officer, it shall be necessary for persons other than the witness and his or her counsel to attend non-public investigative proceedings. For example, the officer may deem it appropriate that outside counsel to the NCUA Board attend and advise him or her concerning the proceeding including the examination of a particular witness. In these circumstances, outside counsel would not be an officer as that term is used. In other circumstances, it may be appropriate that a technical expert (such as an accountant) accompany the witness and his or her counsel in order to assist counsel in understanding technical issues. These latter circumstances should be rare, are left to the discretion of the officer conducting the investigation, and shall not in any event be allowed to serve as a ruse to coordinate testimony between witnesses, to oversee or supervise the testimony of any witnesses, or otherwise defeat the beneficial effects of the witness sequestration rule.
</P>
<P>(d) The officer conducting the investigation may report to the NCUA Board any instances where any witness or counsel has been guilty of dilatory, obstructionist or contumacious conduct during the course of a formal investigative proceeding or any other instance of violations of these rules. The NCUA Board will thereupon take such further action as the circumstance may warrant including barring the offending person from further participation in the particular formal investigative proceeding or even from further practice before the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart J [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="K" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart K—Inflation Adjustment of Civil Monetary Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.1001" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.11.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.1001   Adjustment of civil monetary penalties by the rate of inflation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA is required by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990 (Pub. L. 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 note)), to adjust the maximum amount of each civil monetary penalty (CMP) within its jurisdiction by the rate of inflation. The following chart displays those adjusted amounts, as calculated pursuant to the statute:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. Code citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">CMP description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">New maximum amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(1) 12 U.S.C. 1782(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Inadvertent failure to submit a report or the inadvertent submission of a false or misleading report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$5,026.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(2) 12 U.S.C. 1782(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-inadvertent failure to submit a report or the non-inadvertent submission of a false or misleading report</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$50,265.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(3) 12 U.S.C. 1782(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Failure to submit a report or the submission of a false or misleading report done knowingly or with reckless disregard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,513,215 or 1% of the total assets of the credit union, whichever is less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(4) 12 U.S.C. 1782(d)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 CMP for inadvertent failure to submit certified statement of insured shares and charges due to the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF), or inadvertent submission of false or misleading statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$4,596.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(5) 12 U.S.C. 1782(d)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 2 CMP for non-inadvertent failure to submit certified statement or submission of false or misleading statement</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$45,946.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(6) 12 U.S.C. 1782(d)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 CMP for failure to submit a certified statement or the submission of a false or misleading statement done knowingly or with reckless disregard</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,297,385 or 1% of the total assets of the credit union, whichever is less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(7) 12 U.S.C. 1785(a)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-compliance with insurance logo requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$157.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(8) 12 U.S.C. 1785(e)(3)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-compliance with NCUA security requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$365.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(9) 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 CMP for violations of law, regulation, and other orders or agreements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$12,567.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(10) 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 2 CMP for violations of law, regulation, and other orders or agreements and for recklessly engaging in unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$62,829.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(11) 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 CMP for knowingly committing the violations under Tier 1 or 2 (natural person)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,513,215.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(12) 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 CMP for knowingly committing the violations under Tier 1 or 2 (insured credit union)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,513,215 or 1% of the total assets of the credit union, whichever is less.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(13) 12 U.S.C. 1786(w)(5)(A)(ii)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-compliance with senior examiner post-employment restrictions</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$413,388.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(14) 15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-compliance with appraisal independence requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First violation: $14,435


<br/>Subsequent violations: $28,866.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">(15) 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(5)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-compliance with flood insurance requirements</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$2,730.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The adjusted amounts displayed in paragraph (a) of this section apply to civil monetary penalties that are assessed after the date the increase takes effect, including those whose associated violation or violations pre-dated the increase and occurred on or after November 2, 2015.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 3621, Jan. 15, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="L" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart L—Issuance, Review and Enforcement of Orders Imposing Prompt Corrective Action</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 8594, Feb. 18, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 747.2001" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2001   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Independent review process.</I> The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to federally insured credit unions, whether federally- or state-chartered (other than corporate credit unions), which are subject to discretionary supervisory actions under part 702 of this chapter, and to reclassification under §§ 702.102(b) and 702.202(d) of this chapter, to facilitate prompt corrective action under section 216 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1790d; and to senior executive officers and directors of such credit unions who are dismissed pursuant to a discretionary supervisory action imposed under part 702. NCUA staff decisions to impose discretionary supervisory actions under part 702 shall be considered material supervisory determinations for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 1790d(k). Section 747.2002 of this subpart provides an independent appellate process to challenge such decisions. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to State officials.</I> With respect to a federally insured State-chartered credit union under §§ 747.2002, 747.2003 and 747.2004 of this subpart, notices, directives and decisions on appeal served upon a credit union, or a dismissed director or officer thereof, by the NCUA Board shall also be served upon the appropriate State official. Responses, requests for a hearing and to present witnesses, requests to modify or rescind a discretionary supervisory action and requests for reinstatement served upon the NCUA Board by a credit union, or dismissed director or officer thereof, shall also be served upon the appropriate State official. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 8594, Feb. 18, 2000, as amended at 80 FR 66723, Oct. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.2002" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2002   Review of orders imposing discretionary supervisory action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue directive</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Whenever the NCUA Board intends to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action under§ 702.107 (b), § 702.108(b) or § 702.109(b) of this chapter on a credit union classified “undercapitalized” or lower, or under § 702.204(b) or § 702.205(b) of this chapter on a new credit union classified “moderately capitalized” or lower, it must give the credit union prior notice of the proposed action and an opportunity to respond. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of directive without notice.</I> The NCUA Board may issue a directive to take effect immediately under paragraph (a)(1) of this section without notice to the credit union if the NCUA Board finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of part 702 of this chapter. A credit union that is subject to a directive which takes effect immediately may appeal the directive in writing to the NCUA Board. Such an appeal must be received by the NCUA Board within 14 calendar days after the directive was issued, unless the NCUA Board permits a longer period. Unless ordered by the NCUA Board, the directive shall remain in effect pending a decision on the appeal. The NCUA Board shall consider any such appeal, if timely filed, within 60 calendar days of receiving it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The NCUA Board's notice to a credit union of its intention to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action must state: 
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union's net worth ratio and net worth category classification; 
</P>
<P>(2) The specific restrictions or requirements that the NCUA Board intends to impose, and the reasons therefor; 
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when the discretionary supervisory action would take effect and the proposed date for completing the required action or terminating the action; and 
</P>
<P>(4) That a credit union must file a written response to a notice within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice, or within such shorter period as the NCUA Board determines is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the credit union or other relevant circumstances. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of response to notice.</I> A credit union's response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why it contends that the proposed discretionary supervisory action is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under this part; 
</P>
<P>(2) Request the NCUA Board to modify or to not issue the proposed directive; 
</P>
<P>(3) Include other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the credit union's position regarding the proposed directive; and 
</P>
<P>(4) If desired, request the recommendation of NCUA's ombudsman pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NCUA Board consideration of response.</I> The NCUA Board, or an independent person designated by the NCUA Board to act on its behalf, after considering a response under paragraph (c) of this section, may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as originally proposed or as modified; 
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and to so notify the credit union; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification from the credit union or any other relevant source. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> A credit union which fails to file a written response to a notice of the NCUA Board's intention to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action, within the specified time period, shall be deemed to have waived the opportunity to respond, and to have consented to the issuance of the directive. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request to modify or rescind directive.</I> A credit union that is subject to an existing directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action may request in writing that the NCUA Board reconsider the terms of the directive, or rescind or modify it, due to changed circumstances. Unless otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, the directive shall remain in effect while such request is pending. A request under this paragraph which remains pending 60 days following receipt by the NCUA Board is deemed granted. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ombudsman.</I> A credit union may request in writing the recommendation of NCUA's ombudsman to modify or to not issue a proposed directive under paragraph (b) of this section, or to modify or rescind an existing directive due to changed circumstances under paragraph (f) of this section. A credit union which fails to request the ombudsman's recommendation in a response under paragraph (c) of this section, or in a request under paragraph (f) of this section, shall be deemed to have waived the opportunity to do so. The ombudsman shall promptly notify the credit union and the NCUA Board of his or her recommendation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 8594, Feb. 18, 2000, as amended at 80 FR 66723, Oct. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.2003" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2003   Review of order reclassifying a credit union on safety and soundness criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of proposed reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice.</I> When the NCUA Board proposes to reclassify a credit union or subject it to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower net worth category pursuant to §§ 702.102(b) and 702.202(d) of this chapter (each such action hereinafter referred to as “reclassification”), the NCUA Board shall issue and serve on the credit union reasonable prior notice of the proposed reclassification. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify a credit union based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice shall state: 
</P>
<P>(1) The credit union's net worth ratio, current net worth category classification, and the net worth category to which the credit union would be reclassified; 
</P>
<P>(2) The unsafe or unsound practice(s) and/or condition(s) justifying reasons for reclassification of the credit union; 
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which the credit union must file a written response to the notice (including a request for a hearing), which date shall be no less than 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the NCUA Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the credit union or other relevant circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(4) That a credit union which fails to—
</P>
<P>(i) File a written response to the notice of reclassification, within the specified time period, shall be deemed to have waived the opportunity to respond, and to have consented to reclassification; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Request a hearing shall be deemed to have waived any right to a hearing; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Request the opportunity to present witness testimony shall be deemed to have waived any right to present such testimony. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of response to notice.</I> A credit union's response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why it contends that the credit union should not be reclassified; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the credit union's position; 
</P>
<P>(3) If desired, request an informal hearing before the NCUA Board under this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If a hearing is requested, identify any witness whose testimony the credit union wishes to present and the general nature of each witness's expected testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order to hold informal hearing.</I> Upon timely receipt of a written response that includes a request for a hearing, the NCUA Board shall issue an order commencing an informal hearing no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the credit union requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Alexandria, Virginia, or at such other place as may be designated by the NCUA Board, before a presiding officer designated by the NCUA Board to conduct the hearing and to recommend a decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for informal hearing.</I> (1) The credit union may appear at the hearing through a representative or through counsel. The credit union shall have the right to introduce relevant documents and to present oral argument at the hearing. The credit union may introduce witness testimony only if expressly authorized by the NCUA Board or the presiding officer. Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 747) shall apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the NCUA Board orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the credit union upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period following completion of witness testimony or oral argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record. 
</P>
<P>(4) Within 20 calendar days following the closing of the hearing and the record, the presiding officer shall make a recommendation to the NCUA Board on the proposed reclassification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time for final decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed, or the date of receipt of the credit union's response in a case where no hearing was requested, the NCUA Board will decide whether to reclassify the credit union, and will notify the credit union of its decision. The decision of the NCUA Board shall be final. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Request to rescind reclassification.</I> Any credit union that has been reclassified under this section may file a written request to the NCUA Board to reconsider or rescind the reclassification, or to modify, rescind or remove any directives issued as a result of the reclassification. Unless otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, the credit union shall remain reclassified, and subject to any directives issued as a result, while such request is pending.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-delegation.</I> The NCUA Board may not delegate its authority to reclassify a credit union into a lower net worth category or to treat a credit union as if it were in a lower net worth category pursuant to § 702.102(b) or § 702.302(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 8594, Feb. 18, 2000, as amended at 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010; 80 FR 66723, Oct. 29, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.2004" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2004   Review of order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of directive to dismiss and notice.</I> When the NCUA Board issues and serves a directive on a credit union requiring it to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under § 702.202(b)(7), § 702.203(b)(8), § 702.204(b)(8), § 702.304(b) or § 702.305(b) of this chapter, the NCUA Board shall also serve upon the person the credit union is directed to dismiss (Respondent) a copy of the directive (or the relevant portions, where appropriate) and notice of the Respondent's right to seek reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice of right to seek reinstatement.</I> A notice of a Respondent's right to seek reinstatement shall state:
</P>
<P>(1) That a request for reinstatement (including a request for a hearing) shall be filed with the NCUA Board within 14 calendar days after the Respondent receives the directive and notice under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the NCUA Board grants the Respondent's request for further time;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for dismissal of the Respondent; and
</P>
<P>(3) That the Respondent's failure to—
</P>
<P>(i) Request reinstatement shall be deemed a waiver of any right to seek reinstatement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Request a hearing shall be deemed a waiver of any right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Request the opportunity to present witness testimony shall be deemed a waiver of the right to present such testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of request for reinstatement.</I> A request for reinstatement in response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why the Respondent should be reinstated; 
</P>
<P>(2) Include any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the Respondent's position;
</P>
<P>(3) If desired, request an informal hearing before the NCUA Board under this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If a hearing is requested, identify any witness whose testimony the Respondent wishes to present and the general nature of each witness's expected testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order to hold informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the NCUA Board shall issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing shall be held in Alexandria, Virginia, or at such other place as may be designated by the NCUA Board, before a presiding officer designated by the NCUA Board to conduct the hearing and recommend a decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for informal hearing.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent shall have the right to introduce relevant documents and to present oral argument at the hearing. A Respondent may introduce witness testimony only if expressly authorized by the NCUA Board or by the presiding officer. Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 747) apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the NCUA Board orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing shall be recorded, and a transcript shall be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period following completion of witness testimony or oral argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(4) A Respondent shall bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the credit union would materially strengthen the credit union's ability to—
</P>
<P>(i) Become “adequately capitalized,” to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the credit union's net worth category classification or its failure to submit or implement a net worth restoration plan or revised business plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of reclassification of the credit union pursuant to §§ 702.102(b) and 702.302(d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 20 calendar days following the date of closing of the hearing and the record, the presiding officer shall make a recommendation to the NCUA Board concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the credit union.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time for final decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed, or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the NCUA Board shall grant or deny the request for reinstatement and shall notify the Respondent of its decision. If the NCUA Board denies the request for reinstatement, it shall set forth in the notification the reasons for its decision. The decision of the NCUA Board shall be final.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the NCUA Board, the Respondent's dismissal shall take and remain in effect pending a final decision on the request for reinstatement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.2005" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.12.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.2005   Enforcement of orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a credit union fails to comply with a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action, or enforcing a mandatory supervisory action under part 702 of this chapter, the NCUA Board may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States District Court pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>Failure to comply with directive.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(A), the NCUA Board may assess a civil money penalty against any credit union that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under part 702 of this chapter, or against any institution-affiliated party of a credit union (per 12 U.S.C. 1786(r)) who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to implement plan.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(A), the NCUA Board may assess a civil money penalty against a credit union which fails to implement a net worth restoration plan under subpart B of part 702 of this chapter or a revised business plan under subpart C of part 702, regardless whether the plan was published. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the NCUA Board may seek enforcement of the directives issued under part 702 of this chapter through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 8594, Feb. 18, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 71094, Nov. 29, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Issuance, Review and Enforcement of Orders Imposing Prompt Corrective Action on Corporate Credit Unions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 64860, Oct. 20, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 747.3001" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3001   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Independent review process.</I> The rules and procedures set forth in this subpart apply to corporate credit unions which are subject to discretionary supervisory actions under § 704.4 of this chapter and to reclassification under § 704.4(d)(3) of this chapter to facilitate prompt corrective action, and to senior executive officers and directors of such corporate credit unions who are dismissed pursuant to a discretionary supervisory action imposed under § 704.4 of this chapter. Section 747.3002 of this subpart provides an independent appellate process to challenge such decisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice to State officials.</I> With respect to a State-chartered corporate credit union under §§ 747.3002, 747.3003 and 747.3004 of this subpart, any notices, directives and decisions on appeal served upon a corporate credit union, or a dismissed director or officer thereof, by the NCUA will also be served upon the appropriate State official. Responses, requests for a hearing and to present witnesses, requests to modify or rescind a discretionary supervisory action and requests for reinstatement served upon the NCUA by a corporate credit union, or any dismissed director or officer of a corporate credit union, will also be served upon the appropriate State official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3002" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3002   Review of orders imposing discretionary supervisory action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of intent to issue directive</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Whenever the NCUA intends to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action under §§ 704.4(k)(2)(v) and 704.4(k)(3) of this chapter on a corporate credit union classified “undercapitalized” or lower, the NCUA will give the corporate credit union prior notice of the proposed action and an opportunity to respond.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate issuance of directive without notice.</I> The NCUA may issue a directive to take effect immediately under paragraph (a)(1) of this section without notice to the corporate credit union if the NCUA finds it necessary in order to carry out the purposes of § 704.4 of this chapter. A corporate credit union that is subject to a directive which takes effect immediately may appeal the directive in writing to the NCUA Board (Board). Such an appeal must be received by the Board within 14 calendar days after the directive was issued, unless the Board permits a longer period. Unless ordered by the NCUA, the directive will remain in effect pending a decision on the appeal. The Board will consider any such appeal, if timely filed, within 60 calendar days of receiving it.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The NCUA's notice to a corporate credit union of its intention to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action will state:
</P>
<P>(1) The corporate credit union's capital measures and capital category classification;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific restrictions or requirements that the Board intends to impose, and the reasons therefore;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when the discretionary supervisory action would take effect and the proposed date for completing the required action or terminating the action; and
</P>
<P>(4) That a corporate credit union must file a written response to a notice within 14 calendar days from the date of the notice, or within such shorter period as the Board determines is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the corporate credit union or other relevant circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of response to notice.</I> A corporate credit union's response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why it contends that the proposed discretionary supervisory action is not an appropriate exercise of discretion under this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Request the Board to modify or to not issue the proposed directive; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the corporate credit union's position regarding the proposed directive.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NCUA Board consideration of response.</I> The Board, or an independent person designated by the Board to act on the Board's behalf, after considering a response under paragraph (c) of this section, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Issue the directive as originally proposed or as modified;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the directive and to so notify the corporate credit union; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification from the corporate credit union or any other relevant source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to file response.</I> A corporate credit union which fails to file a written response to a notice of the Board's intention to issue a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action, within the specified time period, will be deemed to have waived the opportunity to respond, and to have consented to the issuance of the directive.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Request to modify or rescind directive.</I> A corporate credit union that is subject to an existing directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action may request in writing that the Board reconsider the terms of the directive, or rescind or modify it, due to changed circumstances. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the directive will remain in effect while such request is pending. A request under this paragraph which remains pending 60 days following receipt by the Board is deemed granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3003" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3003   Review of order reclassifying a corporate credit union on safety and soundness criteria.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of proposed reclassification based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice.</I> When the Board proposes to reclassify a corporate credit union or subject it to the supervisory actions applicable to the next lower capitalization category pursuant to § 704.4(d)(3) of this chapter (such action hereinafter referred to as “reclassification”), the Board will issue and serve on the corporate credit union reasonable prior notice of the proposed reclassification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intention to reclassify a corporate credit union based on unsafe or unsound condition or practice will state:
</P>
<P>(1) The corporate credit union's current capital ratios and the capital category to which the corporate credit union would be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(2) The unsafe or unsound practice(s) and/or condition(s) justifying reasons for reclassification of the corporate credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) The date by which the corporate credit union must file a written response to the notice (including a request for a hearing), which date will be no less than 14 calendar days from the date of service of the notice unless the Board determines that a shorter period is appropriate in light of the financial condition of the corporate credit union or other relevant circumstances; and
</P>
<P>(4) That a corporate credit union which fails to —
</P>
<P>(i) File a written response to the notice of reclassification, within the specified time period, will be deemed to have waived the opportunity to respond, and to have consented to reclassification;
</P>
<P>(ii) Request a hearing will be deemed to have waived any right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Request the opportunity to present witness testimony will be deemed to have waived any right to present such testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of response to notice.</I> A corporate credit union's response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why it contends that the corporate credit union should not be reclassified;
</P>
<P>(2) Include any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the corporate credit union's position;
</P>
<P>(3) If desired, request an informal hearing before the Board under this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If a hearing is requested, identify any witness whose testimony the corporate credit union wishes to present and the general nature of each witness's expected testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order to hold informal hearing.</I> Upon timely receipt of a written response that includes a request for a hearing, the Board will issue an order commencing an informal hearing no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the corporate credit union requests a later date. The hearing will be held in Alexandria, Virginia, or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer designated by the Board to conduct the hearing and to recommend a decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for informal hearing.</I> (1) The corporate credit union may appear at the hearing through a representative or through counsel. The corporate credit union will have the right to introduce relevant documents and to present oral argument at the hearing. The corporate credit union may introduce witness testimony only if expressly authorized by the Board or the presiding officer. Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 747) will apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing will be recorded, and a transcript will be furnished to the corporate credit union upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or by the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period following completion of witness testimony or oral argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(4) Within 20 calendar days following the closing of the hearing and the record, the presiding officer will make a recommendation to the Board on the proposed reclassification.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time for final decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed, or the date of receipt of the corporate credit union's response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board will decide whether to reclassify the corporate credit union, and will notify the corporate credit union of its decision. The decision of the Board will be final.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Request to rescind reclassification.</I> Any corporate credit union that has been reclassified under this section may file a written request to the Board to reconsider or rescind the reclassification, or to modify, rescind or remove any directives issued as a result of the reclassification. Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the corporate credit union will remain reclassified, and subject to any directives issued as a result, while such request is pending.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3004" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3004   Review of order to dismiss a director or senior executive officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service of directive to dismiss and notice.</I> When the Board issues and serves a directive on a corporate credit union requiring it to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer under §§ 704.4(g) and 704.4(k)(3) of this chapter, the Board will also serve upon the person the corporate credit union is directed to dismiss (Respondent) a copy of the directive (or the relevant portions, where appropriate) and notice of the Respondent's right to seek reinstatement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice of right to seek reinstatement.</I> A notice of a Respondent's right to seek reinstatement will state:
</P>
<P>(1) That a request for reinstatement (including a request for a hearing) must be filed with the Board within 14 calendar days after the Respondent receives the directive and notice under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the Board grants the Respondent's request for further time;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasons for dismissal of the Respondent; and
</P>
<P>(3) That the Respondent's failure to—
</P>
<P>(i) Request reinstatement will be deemed a waiver of any right to seek reinstatement;
</P>
<P>(ii) Request a hearing will be deemed a waiver of any right to a hearing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Request the opportunity to present witness testimony will be deemed a waiver of the right to present such testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of request for reinstatement.</I> A request for reinstatement in response to a notice under paragraph (b) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(1) Explain why the Respondent should be reinstated;
</P>
<P>(2) Include any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other evidence in support of the Respondent's position;
</P>
<P>(3) If desired, request an informal hearing before the Board under this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If a hearing is requested, identify any witness whose testimony the Respondent wishes to present and the general nature of each witness's expected testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order to hold informal hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely written request from a Respondent for an informal hearing on the portion of a directive requiring a corporate credit union to dismiss from office any director or senior executive officer, the Board will issue an order directing an informal hearing to commence no later than 30 days after receipt of the request, unless the Respondent requests a later date. The hearing will be held in Alexandria, Virginia, or at such other place as may be designated by the Board, before a presiding officer designated by the Board to conduct the hearing and recommend a decision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures for informal hearing.</I> (1) A Respondent may appear at the hearing personally or through counsel. A Respondent will have the right to introduce relevant documents and to present oral argument at the hearing. A Respondent may introduce witness testimony only if expressly authorized by the Board or by the presiding officer. Neither the provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554-557) governing adjudications required by statute to be determined on the record nor the Uniform Rules of Practice and Procedure (12 CFR part 747) apply to an informal hearing under this section unless the Board orders otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) The informal hearing will be recorded, and a transcript will be furnished to the Respondent upon request and payment of the cost thereof. Witnesses need not be sworn, unless specifically requested by a party or the presiding officer. The presiding officer may ask questions of any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer may order that the hearing be continued for a reasonable period following completion of witness testimony or oral argument to allow additional written submissions to the hearing record.
</P>
<P>(4) A Respondent will bear the burden of demonstrating that his or her continued employment by or service with the corporate credit union would materially strengthen the corporate credit union's ability to —
</P>
<P>(i) Become “adequately capitalized,” to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of the corporate credit union's capital classification category or its failure to submit or implement a capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Correct the unsafe or unsound condition or unsafe or unsound practice, to the extent that the directive was issued as a result of reclassification of the corporate credit union pursuant to § 704.4(d)(3) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(5) Within 20 calendar days following the date of closing of the hearing and the record, the presiding officer will make a recommendation to the Board concerning the Respondent's request for reinstatement with the corporate credit union.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time for final decision.</I> Not later than 60 calendar days after the date the record is closed, or the date of the response in a case where no hearing was requested, the Board will grant or deny the request for reinstatement and will notify the Respondent of its decision. If the Board denies the request for reinstatement, it will set forth in the notification the reasons for its decision. The decision of the Board will be final.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Board, the Respondent's dismissal will take and remain in effect pending a final decision on the request for reinstatement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3005" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3005   Enforcement of directives.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial remedies.</I> Whenever a corporate credit union fails to comply with a directive imposing a discretionary supervisory action, or enforcing a mandatory supervisory action under § 704.4 of this chapter, the Board may seek enforcement of the directive in the appropriate United States District Court pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Administrative remedies</I>—(1) <I>Failure to comply with directive.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(A), the Board may assess a civil money penalty against any corporate credit union that violates or otherwise fails to comply with any final directive issued under § 704.4 of this chapter, or against any institution-affiliated party of a corporate credit union (per 12 U.S.C. 1786(r)) who participates in such violation or noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to implement plan.</I> Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786(k)(2)(A), the Board may assess a civil money penalty against a corporate credit union which fails to implement a capital restoration plan under § 704.4(e) of this chapter, regardless whether the plan was published.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other enforcement action.</I> In addition to the actions described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Board may seek enforcement of the directives issued under Section 704.4 of this chapter through any other judicial or administrative proceeding authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 747.3006" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.29.13.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 747.3006   Conservatorship or liquidation of critically undercapitalized corporate credit union.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of this title, the NCUA may, without any administrative due process, immediately place into conservatorship or liquidation any corporate credit union that has been categorized as critically undercapitalized.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="748" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 748—SECURITY PROGRAM, SUSPICIOUS TRANSACTIONS, CATASTROPHIC ACTS, CYBER INCIDENTS, AND BANK SECRECY ACT COMPLIANCE




</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766(a), 1786(b)(1), 1786(q), 1789(a)(11); 15 U.S.C. 6801-6809; 31 U.S.C. 5311 and 5318.








</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 748 appear at 84 FR 1609, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 748.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 748.0   Security program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each federally insured credit union will develop a written security program within 90 days of the effective date of insurance.
</P>
<P>(b) The security program will be designed to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Protect each credit union office from robberies, burglaries, larcenies, and embezzlement; 
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure the security and confidentiality of member records, protect against the anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such records, and protect against unauthorized access to or use of such records that could result in substantial harm or serious inconvenience to a member; 
</P>
<P>(3) Respond to incidents of unauthorized access to or use of member information that could result in substantial harm or serious inconvenience to a member; 
</P>
<P>(4) Assist in the identification of persons who commit or attempt such actions and crimes, and 
</P>
<P>(5) Prevent destruction of vital records, as defined in 12 CFR part 749. 
</P>
<P>(c) Each Federal credit union, as part of its information security program, must properly dispose of any consumer information the Federal credit union maintains or otherwise possesses, as required under § 717.83 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 53295, Dec. 31, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 4845, Feb. 18, 1988; 66 FR 8161, Jan. 30, 2001; 69 FR 69274, Nov. 29, 2004; 70 FR 22778, May 2, 2005]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 748.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 748.1   Filing of reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The president or managing official of each federally insured credit union must certify compliance with the requirements of this part in its Credit Union Profile annually through NCUA's online information management system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Catastrophic act report.</I> Each federally insured credit union will notify the regional director within 5 business days of any catastrophic act that occurs at its office(s). A catastrophic act is any disaster, natural or otherwise, resulting in physical destruction or damage to the credit union or causing an interruption in vital member services, as defined in § 749.1 of this chapter, projected to last more than two consecutive business days. Within a reasonable time after a catastrophic act occurs, the credit union shall ensure that a record of the incident is prepared and filed at its main office. In the preparation of such record, the credit union should include information sufficient to indicate the office where the catastrophic act occurred; when it took place; the amount of the loss, if any; whether any operational or mechanical deficiency(ies) might have contributed to the catastrophic act; and what has been done or is planned to be done to correct the deficiency(ies).


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cyber incident report.</I> Each federally insured credit union must notify the appropriate NCUA-designated point of contact of the occurrence of a <I>reportable cyber incident</I> via email, telephone, or other similar methods that the NCUA may prescribe. The NCUA must receive this notification as soon as possible but no later than 72 hours after a federally insured credit union reasonably believes that it has experienced a reportable cyber incident or, if reporting pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(i)(C) of this section, within 72 hours of being notified by a third-party, whichever is sooner.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reportable cyber incident.</I> (i) A reportable cyber incident is any substantial cyber incident that leads to one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A substantial loss of confidentiality, integrity, or availability of a network or member information system as defined in appendix A, section I.B.2. e., of this part that results from the unauthorized access to or exposure of sensitive data, disrupts vital member services as defined in §  749.1 of this chapter, or has a serious impact on the safety and resiliency of operational systems and processes.
</P>
<P>(B) A disruption of business operations, vital member services, or a member information system resulting from a cyberattack or exploitation of vulnerabilities.
</P>
<P>(C) A disruption of business operations or unauthorized access to sensitive data facilitated through, or caused by, a compromise of a credit union service organization, cloud service provider, or other third-party data hosting provider or by a supply chain compromise.
</P>
<P>(ii) A <I>reportable cyber incident</I> does not include any event where the cyber incident is performed in good faith by an entity in response to a specific request by the owner or operators of the system.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Compromise</I> means the unauthorized disclosure, modification, substitution, or use of sensitive data or the unauthorized modification of a security-related system, device, or process in order to gain unauthorized access.
</P>
<P><I>Confidentiality</I> means preserving authorized restrictions on information access and disclosure, including means for protecting personal privacy and proprietary information.
</P>
<P><I>Cyber incident</I> means an occurrence that actually or imminently jeopardizes, without lawful authority, the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of information on an information system, or actually or imminently jeopardizes, without lawful authority, an information system.
</P>
<P><I>Cyberattack</I> means an attack, via cyberspace, targeting an enterprise's use of cyberspace for the purpose of disrupting, disabling, destroying, or maliciously controlling a computing environment/infrastructure; or destroying the integrity of the data or stealing controlled information.
</P>
<P><I>Disruption</I> means an unplanned event that causes an information system to be inoperable for a length of time.
</P>
<P><I>Integrity</I> means guarding against improper information modification or destruction and includes ensuring information non-repudiation and authenticity.
</P>
<P><I>Sensitive data</I> means any information which by itself, or in combination with other information, could be used to cause harm to a credit union or credit union member and any information concerning a person or their account which is not public information, including any non-public personally identifiable information.




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspicious Activity Report.</I> A credit union must file a report if it knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect that any crime or any suspicious transaction related to money laundering activity or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act has occurred. For the purposes of this paragraph (c) <I>credit union</I> means a federally insured credit union and <I>official</I> means any member of the board of directors or a volunteer committee.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reportable activity. Transaction</I> for purposes of this paragraph means a deposit, withdrawal, transfer between accounts, exchange of currency, loan, extension of credit, purchase or sale of any stock, bond, share certificate, or other monetary instrument or investment security, or any other payment, transfer, or delivery by, through, or to a financial institution, by whatever means effected. A credit union must report any known or suspected crime or any suspicious transaction related to money laundering or other illegal activity, for example, terrorism financing, loan fraud, or embezzlement, or a violation of the Bank Secrecy Act by sending a completed suspicious activity report (SAR) to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insider abuse involving any amount.</I> Whenever the credit union detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violations, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the credit union or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the credit union, where the credit union believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the credit union was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the credit union has a substantial basis for identifying one of the credit union's officials, employees, or agents as having committed or aided in the commission of the criminal violation, regardless of the amount involved in the violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more where a suspect can be identified.</I> Whenever the credit union detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the credit union or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the credit union, and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the credit union believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the credit union was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, and the credit union has a substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects. If it is determined before filing this report that the identified suspect or group of suspects has used an alias, then information regarding the true identity of the suspect or group of suspects, as well as alias identifiers, such as drivers' licenses or social security numbers, addresses and telephone numbers, must be reported;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transactions aggregating $25,000 or more regardless of potential suspects.</I> Whenever the credit union detects any known or suspected Federal criminal violation, or pattern of criminal violations, committed or attempted against the credit union or involving a transaction or transactions conducted through the credit union, involving or aggregating $25,000 or more in funds or other assets, where the credit union believes it was either an actual or potential victim of a criminal violation, or series of criminal violations, or that the credit union was used to facilitate a criminal transaction, even though the credit union has no substantial basis for identifying a possible suspect or group of suspects; or
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transactions aggregating $5,000 or more that involve potential money laundering or violations of the Bank Secrecy Act.</I> Any transaction conducted or attempted by, at or through the credit union and involving or aggregating $5,000 or more in funds or other assets, if the credit union knows, suspects, or has reason to suspect:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction involves funds derived from illegal activities or is intended or conducted in order to hide or disguise funds or assets derived from illegal activities (including, without limitation, the ownership, nature, source, location, or control of such funds or assets) as part of a plan to violate or evade any Federal law or regulation or to avoid any transaction reporting requirement under Federal law;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is designed to evade any regulations promulgated under the Bank Secrecy Act; or
</P>
<P>(C) The transaction has no business or apparent lawful purpose or is not the sort of transaction in which the particular member would normally be expected to engage, and the credit union knows of no reasonable explanation for the transaction after examining the available facts, including the background and possible purpose of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exceptions.</I> A credit union is not required to file a SAR for a robbery or burglary committed or attempted that is reported to appropriate law enforcement authorities, or for lost, missing, counterfeit, or stolen securities and the credit union files a report pursuant to the reporting requirements of 17 CFR 240.17f-1.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing procedures</I>—(i) <I>Timing.</I> A credit union must file a SAR with FinCEN no later than 30 calendar days from the date the suspicious activity is initially detected, unless there is no identified suspect on the date of detection. If no suspect is identified on the date of detection, a credit union may use an additional 30 calendar days to identify a suspect before filing a SAR. In no case may a credit union take more than 60 days from the date it initially detects a reportable transaction to file a SAR. In situations involving violations requiring immediate attention, such as ongoing money laundering schemes, a credit union must immediately notify, by telephone, an appropriate law enforcement authority and its supervisory authority, in addition to filing a SAR.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content.</I> A credit union must complete, fully and accurately, SAR form TDF 90-22.47, Suspicious Activity Report (also known as NCUA Form 2362) in accordance with the form's instructions and 31 CFR 1020.320. A copy of the SAR form may be obtained from the credit union resources section of NCUA's Web site, <I>http://www.ncua.gov,</I> or the regulatory section of FinCEN's Web site, <I>http://www.fincen.gov.</I> These sites include other useful guidance on SARs, for example, forms and filing instructions, Frequently Asked Questions, and the FFIEC Bank Secrecy Act/Anti-Money Laundering Examination Manual.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Compliance.</I> Failure to file a SAR as required by the form's instructions and 31 CFR 1020.320 may subject the credit union, its officials, employees, and agents to the assessment of civil money penalties or other administrative actions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retention of Records.</I> A credit union must maintain a copy of any SAR that it files and the original or business record equivalent of all supporting documentation to the report for a period of five years from the date of the report. Supporting documentation must be identified and maintained by the credit union as such. Supporting documentation is considered a part of the filed report even though it should not be actually filed with the submitted report. A credit union must make all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement authorities and its regulatory supervisory authority upon request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notification to board of directors</I>—(i) <I>Generally.</I> The management of the credit union must promptly notify its board of directors, or a committee designated by the board of directors to receive such notice, of any SAR filed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Suspect is a director or committee member.</I> If a credit union files a SAR and the suspect is a director or member of a committee designated by the board of directors to receive notice of SAR filings, the credit union may not notify the suspect, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(2), but must notify the remaining directors, or designated committee members, who are not suspects.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidentiality of reports.</I> SARs are confidential. Any credit union, including its officials, employees, and agents, subpoenaed or otherwise requested to disclose a SAR or the information in a SAR must decline to produce the SAR or to provide any information that would disclose that a SAR was prepared or filed, citing this part, applicable law, for example, 31 U.S.C. 5318(g), or both, and notify NCUA of the request. A credit union must make the filed report and all supporting documentation available to appropriate law enforcement authorities and its regulatory supervisory authority upon request.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Safe Harbor.</I> Any credit union, including its officials, employees, and agents, that makes a report of suspected or known criminal violations and suspicious activities to law enforcement and financial institution supervisory authorities, including supporting documentation, are protected from liability for any disclosure in the report, or for failure to disclose the existence of the report, or both, to the full extent provided by 31 U.S.C. 5318(g)(3). This protection applies if the report is filed pursuant to this part or is filed on a voluntary basis.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[50 FR 53295, Dec. 31, 1985, as amended at 53 FR 26232, July 12, 1988; 58 FR 17492, Apr. 5, 1993; 61 FR 11527, Mar. 21, 1996; 71 FR 62878, Oct. 27, 2006; 72 FR 42273, Aug. 2, 2007; 74 FR 35769, July 21, 2009; 76 FR 18366, Apr. 4, 2011; 78 FR 64885, Oct. 30, 2013; 88 FR 12816, Mar. 1, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 748.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 748.2   Procedures for monitoring Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section is issued to ensure that all federally insured credit unions establish and maintain procedures reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the requirements of subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code, the Financial Recordkeeping and Reporting of Currency and Foreign Transactions Act, and the implementing regulations promulgated under it by the Department of Treasury, 31 CFR chapter X.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment of a BSA compliance program</I>—(1) <I>Program requirement.</I> Each federally insured credit union shall develop and provide for the continued administration of a program reasonably designed to assure and monitor compliance with the recordkeeping and recording requirements in subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, United States Code and implementing regulations issued by the Department of Treasury at 31 CFR chapter X. The compliance program must be written, approved by the credit union's board of directors, and reflected in the credit union's minutes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Customer identification program.</I> Each federally insured credit union is subject to the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) and the implementing regulation jointly promulgated by the NCUA and Department of the Treasury at 31 CFR 1020.220, which require a customer identification program to be implemented as part of the BSA compliance program required under this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of compliance program.</I> Such compliance program shall at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Provide for a system of internal controls to assure ongoing compliance;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide for independent testing for compliance to be conducted by credit union personnel or outside parties;
</P>
<P>(3) Designate an individual responsible for coordinating and monitoring day-to-day compliance; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide training for appropriate personnel.
</P>
<APPRO TYPE="N">(Approved by the Office of Management and Budget under control number 3133-0094)
</APPRO>
<CITA TYPE="N">[52 FR 2861, Jan. 27, 1987, as amended at 52 FR 8062, Mar. 16, 1987; 68 FR 25112, May 9, 2003; 76 FR 18366, Apr. 4, 2011] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30.0.11.4.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 748—Guidelines for Safeguarding Member Information 
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents 
</HD1>
<FP>I. Introduction 
</FP>
<FP1-2>A. Scope 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Definitions 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>II. Guidelines for Safeguarding Member Information 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Information Security Program 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Objectives 
</FP1-2>
<FP-1>III. Development and Implementation of Member Information Security Program 
</FP-1>
<FP1-2>A. Involve the Board of Directors 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>B. Assess Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>C. Manage and Control Risk 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>D. Oversee Service Provider Arrangements 
</FP1-2>
<FP1-2>E. Adjust the Program 
</FP1-2>
<P>F. Report to the Board 
</P>
<HD1>I. Introduction 
</HD1>
<P>The Guidelines for Safeguarding Member Information (Guidelines) set forth standards pursuant to sections 501 and 505(b), codified at 15 U.S.C. 6801 and 6805(b), of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act. These Guidelines provide guidance standards for developing and implementing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security, confidentiality, and integrity of member information. These Guidelines also address standards with respect to the proper disposal of consumer information pursuant to sections 621(b) and 628 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681s(b) and 1681w).
</P>
<P>A. <I>Scope.</I> The Guidelines apply to member information maintained by or on behalf of federally insured credit unions. Such entities are referred to in this appendix as “the credit union.” These Guidelines also apply to the proper disposal of consumer information by such entities.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Definitions.</I> 1. <I>In general.</I> Except as modified in the Guidelines or unless the context otherwise requires, the terms used in these Guidelines have the same meanings as set forth in 12 CFR part 1016. 
</P>
<P>2. For purposes of the Guidelines, the following definitions apply: 
</P>
<P><I>a. Consumer information</I> means any record about an individual, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is a consumer report or is derived from a consumer report and that is maintained or otherwise possessed by or on behalf of the credit union for a business purpose. Consumer information also means a compilation of such records. The term does not include any record that does not identify an individual.
</P>
<P><I>b. Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as set forth in the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d). The meaning of consumer report is broad and subject to various definitions, conditions and exceptions in the Fair Credit Reporting Act. It includes written or oral communications from a consumer reporting agency to a third party of information used or collected for use in establishing eligibility for credit or insurance used primarily for personal, family or household purposes, and eligibility for employment purposes. Examples include credit reports, bad check lists, and tenant screening reports.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Member</I> means any member of the credit union as defined in 12 CFR 1016.3(n). 
</P>
<P>d. <I>Member information</I> means any records containing nonpublic personal information, as defined in 12 CFR 1016.3(p), about a member, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, that is maintained by or on behalf of the credit union. 
</P>
<P>e. <I>Member information system</I> means any method used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of member information. 
</P>
<P>f. <I>Service provider</I> means any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to member information through its provision of services directly to the credit union. 
</P>
<HD1>II. Standards for Safeguarding Member Information 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Information Security Program.</I> A comprehensive written information security program includes administrative, technical, and physical safeguards appropriate to the size and complexity of the credit union and the nature and scope of its activities. While all parts of the credit union are not required to implement a uniform set of policies, all elements of the information security program must be coordinated. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Objectives.</I> A credit union's information security program should be designed to: ensure the security and confidentiality of member information; protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any member; and ensure the proper disposal of member information and consumer information. Protecting confidentiality includes honoring members' requests to opt out of disclosures to nonaffiliated third parties, as described in 12 CFR 1016.1(a)(3). 
</P>
<HD1>III. Development and Implementation of Member Information Security Program 
</HD1>
<P>A. <I>Involve the Board of Directors.</I> The board of directors or an appropriate committee of the board of each credit union should: 
</P>
<P>1. Approve the credit union's written information security policy and program; and 
</P>
<P>2. Oversee the development, implementation, and maintenance of the credit union's information security program, including assigning specific responsibility for its implementation and reviewing reports from management. 
</P>
<P>B. <I>Assess Risk.</I> Each credit union should: 
</P>
<P>1. Identify reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of member information or member information systems; 
</P>
<P>2. Assess the likelihood and potential damage of these threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of member information; and 
</P>
<P>3. Assess the sufficiency of policies, procedures, member information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
</P>
<P>C. <I>Manage and Control Risk.</I> Each credit union should: 
</P>
<P>1. Design its information security program to control the identified risks, commensurate with the sensitivity of the information as well as the complexity and scope of the credit union's activities. Each credit union must consider whether the following security measures are appropriate for the credit union and, if so, adopt those measures the credit union concludes are appropriate: 
</P>
<P>a. Access controls on member information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing member information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means; 
</P>
<P>b. Access restrictions at physical locations containing member information, such as buildings, computer facilities, and records storage facilities to permit access only to authorized individuals; 
</P>
<P>c. Encryption of electronic member information, including while in transit or in storage on networks or systems to which unauthorized individuals may have access; 
</P>
<P>d. Procedures designed to ensure that member information system modifications are consistent with the credit union's information security program; 
</P>
<P>e. Dual controls procedures, segregation of duties, and employee background checks for employees with responsibilities for or access to member information; 
</P>
<P>f. Monitoring systems and procedures to detect actual and attempted attacks on or intrusions into member information systems; 
</P>
<P>g. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the credit union suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to member information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies; and 
</P>
<P>h. Measures to protect against destruction, loss, or damage of member information due to potential environmental hazards, such as fire and water damage or technical failures. 
</P>
<P>2. Train staff to implement the credit union's information security program. 
</P>
<P>3. Regularly test the key controls, systems and procedures of the information security program. The frequency and nature of such tests should be determined by the credit union's risk assessment. Tests should be conducted or reviewed by independent third parties or staff independent of those that develop or maintain the security programs. 
</P>
<P>4. Develop, implement, and maintain, as part of its information security program, appropriate measures to properly dispose of member information and consumer information in accordance with the provisions in paragraph III.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oversee Service Provider Arrangements.</I> Each credit union should: 
</P>
<P>1. Exercise appropriate due diligence in selecting its service providers; 
</P>
<P>2. Require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to meet the objectives of these guidelines; and 
</P>
<P>3. Where indicated by the credit union's risk assessment, monitor its service providers to confirm that they have satisfied their obligations as required by paragraph D.2. As part of this monitoring, a credit union should review audits, summaries of test results, or other equivalent evaluations of its service providers. 
</P>
<P>E. <I>Adjust the Program.</I> Each credit union should monitor, evaluate, and adjust, as appropriate, the information security program in light of any relevant changes in technology, the sensitivity of its member information, internal or external threats to information, and the credit union's own changing business arrangements, such as mergers and acquisitions, alliances and joint ventures, outsourcing arrangements, and changes to member information systems. 
</P>
<P>F. <I>Report to the Board.</I> Each credit union should report to its board or an appropriate committee of the board at least annually. This report should describe the overall status of the information security program and the credit union's compliance with these guidelines. The report should discuss material matters related to its program, addressing issues such as: risk assessment; risk management and control decisions; service provider arrangements; results of testing; security breaches or violations and management's responses; and recommendations for changes in the information security program. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 8161, Jan. 30, 2001, as amended at 69 FR 69274, Nov. 29, 2004; 77 FR 71085, Nov. 29, 2012; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 84 FR 1609, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.30.0.11.4.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 748—Guidance on Response Programs for Unauthorized Access to Member Information and Member Notice 






</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Background
</HD1>
<P>This appendix provides guidance on NCUA's Security Program, Suspicious Transactions, Catastrophic Acts, Cyber Incidents, and Bank Secrecy Act Compliance regulation,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> interprets section 501(b) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (“GLBA”), and describes response programs, including member notification procedures, that a federally insured credit union should develop and implement to address unauthorized access to or use of member information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to a member. The scope of, and definitions of terms used in, this Guidance are identical to those of appendix A to this part (appendix A). For example, the term “member information” is the same term used in appendix A, and means any record containing nonpublic personal information about a member, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, maintained by or on behalf of the credit union.


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU>This part.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Security Guidelines
</HD2>
<P>Section 501(b) of the GLBA required the NCUA to establish appropriate standards for credit unions subject to its jurisdiction that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect the security and confidentiality of member information. Accordingly, the NCUA amended Part 748 of its rules to require credit unions to develop appropriate security programs, and issued appendix A, reflecting its expectation that every federally insured credit union would develop an information security program designed to:
</P>
<P>1. Ensure the security and confidentiality of member information;
</P>
<P>2. Protect against any anticipated threats or hazards to the security or integrity of such information; and
</P>
<P>3. Protect against unauthorized access to or use of such information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any member.
</P>
<HD2>B. Risk Assessment and Controls
</HD2>
<P>1. Appendix A directs every credit union to assess the following risks, among others, when developing its information security program:
</P>
<P>a. Reasonably foreseeable internal and external threats that could result in unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, or destruction of member information or member information systems;
</P>
<P>b. The likelihood and potential damage of threats, taking into consideration the sensitivity of member information; and
</P>
<P>c. The sufficiency of policies, procedures, member information systems, and other arrangements in place to control risks. 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> <I>See</I> 12 CFR Part 748, appendix A, Paragraph III.B.</P></FTNT>
<P>2. Following the assessment of these risks, appendix A directs a credit union to design a program to address the identified risks. The particular security measures a credit union should adopt will depend upon the risks presented by the complexity and scope of its business. At a minimum, the credit union should consider the specific security measures enumerated in appendix A, 
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> and adopt those that are appropriate for the credit union, including:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>See</I> appendix A, paragraph III.C.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. Access controls on member information systems, including controls to authenticate and permit access only to authorized individuals and controls to prevent employees from providing member information to unauthorized individuals who may seek to obtain this information through fraudulent means;
</P>
<P>b. Background checks for employees with responsibilities for access to member information; and
</P>
<P>c. Response programs that specify actions to be taken when the credit union suspects or detects that unauthorized individuals have gained access to member information systems, including appropriate reports to regulatory and law enforcement agencies. 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> <I>See</I> appendix A, Paragraph III.C.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>C. Service Providers
</HD2>
<P>Appendix A advises every credit union to require its service providers by contract to implement appropriate measures designed to protect against unauthorized access to or use of member information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any member. 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> <I>See</I> appendix A, Paragraph III.B. and III.D. Further, the NCUA notes that, in addition to contractual obligations to a credit union, a service provider may be required to implement its own comprehensive information security program in accordance with the Safeguards Rule promulgated by the Federal Trade Commission (“FTC”), 12 CFR Part 314.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Response Program
</HD1>
<P>i. Millions of Americans, throughout the country, have been victims of identity theft. 
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/> Identity thieves misuse personal information they obtain from a number of sources, including credit unions, to perpetrate identity theft. Therefore, credit unions should take preventative measures to safeguard member information against such attempts to gain unauthorized access to the information. For example, credit unions should place access controls on member information systems and conduct background checks for employees who are authorized to access member information. 
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> However, every credit union should also develop and implement a risk-based response program to address incidents of unauthorized access to member information in member information systems that occur nonetheless. 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> A response program should be a key part of a credit union's information security program. 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> The program should be appropriate to the size and complexity of the credit union and the nature and scope of its activities.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> The FTC estimates that nearly 10 million Americans discovered they were victims of some form of identity theft in 2002. <I>See</I> The Federal Trade Commission, <I>Identity Theft Survey Report,</I> (September 2003), available at <I>http://www.ftc.gov/os/2003/09synovatereport.pdf.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> Credit unions must also conduct background checks of employees to ensure that the credit union does not violate 12 U.S.C. 1785(d), which prohibits a credit union from hiring an individual convicted of certain criminal offenses or who is subject to a prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 1786(g).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> Under 12 CFR Part 748, appendix A, a credit union's <I>member information systems</I> consists of all of the methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect, or dispose of member information, including the systems maintained by its service providers. <I>See</I> 12 CFR Part 748, appendix A, Paragraph I.C.2.d.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, (December, 2002), available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/ffiecinfobase/html_pages/it_01.htm1#infosec,</I> for additional guidance on preventing, detecting, and responding to intrusions into financial institution computer systems.</P></FTNT>
<P>ii. In addition, each credit union should be able to address incidents of unauthorized access to member information in member information systems maintained by its domestic and foreign service providers. Therefore, consistent with the obligations in this Guidance that relate to these arrangements, and with existing guidance on this topic issued by the NCUA, 
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> a credit union's contract with its service provider should require the service provider to take appropriate actions to address incidents of unauthorized access to or use of the credit union's member information, including notification of the credit union as soon as possible of any such incident, to enable the institution to expeditiously implement its response program.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Outsourcing Technology Services Booklet, (June 2004), available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/ffiecinfobase/html_pages/it_01.htm1#outscouring</I> for additional guidance on managing outsourced relationships.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>A. Components of a Response Program
</HD2>
<P>1. At a minimum, a credit union's response program should contain procedures for the following:
</P>
<P>a. Assessing the nature and scope of an incident, and identifying what member information systems and types of member information have been accessed or misused;
</P>
<P>b. Notifying the appropriate NCUA Regional Director, and, in the case of state-chartered credit unions, its applicable state supervisory authority, as soon as possible when the credit union becomes aware of an incident involving unauthorized access to or use of sensitive member information as defined below.
</P>
<P>c. Consistent with the NCUA's Suspicious Activity Report (“SAR”) regulations, 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> notifying appropriate law enforcement authorities, in addition to filing a timely SAR in situations involving Federal criminal violations requiring immediate attention, such as when a reportable violation is ongoing; 


</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> A credit union's obligation to file a SAR is set forth in § 748.1(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>d. Taking appropriate steps to contain and control the incident to prevent further unauthorized access to or use of member information, for example, by monitoring, freezing, or closing affected accounts, while preserving records and other evidence; 
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> and 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> <I>See</I> FFIEC Information Technology Examination Handbook, Information Security Booklet, (December 2002), pp. 68-74.</P></FTNT>
<P>e. Notifying members when warranted.
</P>
<P>2. Where an incident of unauthorized access to member information involves member information systems maintained by a credit union's service providers, it is the responsibility of the credit union to notify the credit union's members and regulator. However, a credit union may authorize or contract with its service provider to notify the credit union's members or regulators on its behalf.
</P>
<HD1>III. Member Notice
</HD1>
<P>i. Credit unions have an affirmative duty to protect their members' information against unauthorized access or use. Notifying members of a security incident involving the unauthorized access or use of the member's information in accordance with the standard set forth below is a key part of that duty.
</P>
<P>ii. Timely notification of members is important to manage a credit union's reputation risk. Effective notice also may reduce a credit union's legal risk, assist in maintaining good member relations, and enable the credit union's members to take steps to protect themselves against the consequences of identity theft. When member notification is warranted, a credit union may not forgo notifying its customers of an incident because the credit union believes that it may be potentially embarrassed or inconvenienced by doing so.
</P>
<HD2>A. Standard for Providing Notice
</HD2>
<P>When a credit union becomes aware of an incident of unauthorized access to sensitive member information, the credit union should conduct a reasonable investigation to promptly determine the likelihood that the information has been or will be misused. If the credit union determines that misuse of its information about a member has occurred or is reasonably possible, it should notify the affected member as soon as possible. Member notice may be delayed if an appropriate law enforcement agency determines that notification will interfere with a criminal investigation and provides the credit union with a written request for the delay. However, the credit union should notify its members as soon as notification will no longer interfere with the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>1. Sensitive Member Information
</HD3>
<P>Under Part 748.0, a credit union must protect against unauthorized access to or use of member information that could result in substantial harm or inconvenience to any member. Substantial harm or inconvenience is most likely to result from improper access to <I>sensitive member information</I> because this type of information is most likely to be misused, as in the commission of identity theft.
</P>
<P>For purposes of this Guidance, sensitive member information means a member's name, address, or telephone number, in conjunction with the member's social security number, driver's license number, account number, credit or debit card number, or a personal identification number or password that would permit access to the member's account. <I>Sensitive member information</I> also includes any combination of components of member information that would allow someone to log onto or access the member's account, such as user name and password or password and account number.
</P>
<HD3>2. Affected Members
</HD3>
<P>If a credit union, based upon its investigation, can determine from its logs or other data precisely which members' information has been improperly accessed, it may limit notification to those members with regard to whom the credit union determines that misuse of their information has occurred or is reasonably possible. However, there may be situations where the credit union determines that a group of files has been accessed improperly, but is unable to identify which specific member's information has been accessed. If the circumstances of the unauthorized access lead the credit union to determine that misuse of the information is reasonably possible, it should notify all members in the group.
</P>
<HD2>B. Content of Member Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. Member notice should be given in a clear and conspicuous manner. The notice should describe the incident in general terms and the type of member information that was the subject of unauthorized access or use. It also should generally describe what the credit union has done to protect the members' information from further unauthorized access. In addition, it should include a telephone number that members can call for further information and assistance. 
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> The notice also should remind members of the need to remain vigilant over the next twelve to twenty-four months, and to promptly report incidents of suspected identity theft to the credit union. The notice should include the following additional items, when appropriate:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> The credit union should, therefore, ensure that it has reasonable policies and procedures in place, including trained personnel, to respond appropriately to member inquiries and requests for assistance.</P></FTNT>
<P>a. A recommendation that the member review account statements and immediately report any suspicious activity to the credit union;
</P>
<P>b. A description of fraud alerts and an explanation of how the member may place a fraud alert in the member's consumer reports to put the member's creditors on notice that the member may be a victim of fraud;
</P>
<P>c. A recommendation that the member periodically obtain credit reports from each nationwide credit reporting agency and have information relating to fraudulent transactions deleted;
</P>
<P>d. An explanation of how the member may obtain a credit report free of charge; and
</P>
<P>e. Information about the availability of the FTC's online guidance regarding steps a consumer can take to protect against identity theft. The notice should encourage the member to report any incidents of identity theft to the FTC, and should provide the FTC's Web site address and toll-free telephone number that members may use to obtain the identity theft guidance and report suspected incidents of identity theft. 
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> Currently, the FTC Web site for the ID Theft brochure and the FTC Hotline phone number are <I>http://www.ftc.gov/idtheft</I> and 1-877-IDTHEFT. The credit union may also refer members to any materials developed pursuant to section 15(1)(b) of the FACT Act (educational materials developed by the FTC to teach the public how to prevent identity theft).</P></FTNT>
<P>2. NCUA encourages credit unions to notify the nationwide consumer reporting agencies prior to sending notices to a large number of members that include contact information for the reporting agencies.
</P>
<HD2>C. Delivery of Member Notice
</HD2>
<P>Member notice should be delivered in any manner designed to ensure that a member can reasonably be expected to receive it. For example, the credit union may choose to contact all members affected by telephone or by mail, or by electronic mail for those members for whom it has a valid e-mail address and who have agreed to receive communications electronically.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 22778, May 2, 2005, as amended at 85 FR 62214, Oct. 2, 2020; 88 FR 12817, Mar. 1, 2023; 89 FR 79393, Sept. 30, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="749" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 749—VITAL RECORDS PRESERVATION PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1756, 1766(a), 1784, 1786, 1789; 15 U.S.C. 7001(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>91 FR 36076, June 16, 2026, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 749.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.0   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part describes the obligations of a federally insured credit union to maintain a vital records preservation program to identify, store, and reconstruct vital records in the event such records are destroyed.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not supersede records preservation requirements that may apply to a credit union pursuant to other law or regulation.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 749.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Vital member services</I> are the essential financial services that a credit union provides to its members, such as member access to their accounts, share withdrawal and deposit facilities, and loan payments and disbursements.
</P>
<P><I>Vital records</I> are the most recent and current versions of the records a credit union needs to restore vital member services. These records are:
</P>
<P>(1) A list of share, deposit, and loan balances for each member's account as of the close of the most recent business day that:
</P>
<P>(i) Shows each balance individually identified by a name or number,
</P>
<P>(ii) Lists multiple loans of one account separately, and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains information sufficient to enable the credit union to locate each member, such as address and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial report, which lists all of the credit union's asset and liability accounts, current as of the most recent month-end.
</P>
<P>(3) Bank reconcilements, current as of the most recent month-end.
</P>
<P>(4) A list of the credit union's accounts at financial institutions, insurance policies, and investments along with related contact information, current as of the most recent month-end.
</P>
<P>(5) Emergency contact information for employees, officials, regulatory offices, and vendors used to support vital records.
</P>
<P>(6) A credit union may classify additional records as vital and maintain older versions of any vital records as it determines necessary.
</P>
<P><I>Vital records center</I> is a storage facility, which may include another federally insured credit union, at any location far enough from the credit union's offices to avoid the simultaneous loss of both sets of records in the event of a catastrophic act.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 749.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.2   Vital records preservation program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The board of directors of a credit union is responsible for establishing a vital records preservation program within six months of its insurance certificate being issued. The program must be in writing and contain procedures for maintaining duplicate vital records at a vital records center. The procedures must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Designated staff responsible for vital records preservation,
</P>
<P>(2) A schedule for the storage and destruction of vital records, and
</P>
<P>(3) A records preservation log as determined by the credit union that will aid in locating and easily accessing the vital records. The log may be in electronic or any other format as determined by the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) A credit union that has some or all of its vital records maintained by an off-site data processor is considered to be in compliance for the storage of those records if the service agreement specifies the data processor safeguards against the simultaneous destruction of production and back-up information.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless required by other law or regulation, older versions of vital records may be destroyed once their current versions are stored.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 749.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.3   Vital records center and third-party service providers.</HEAD>
<P>A credit union must maintain, or contract with a third-party service provider to maintain, any equipment or software for its vital records center necessary for the credit union to access its records. If a credit union contracts with a third-party service provider to maintain its records, the credit union must maintain effective oversight of the third-party service provider to ensure the records meet the requirements of this section.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 749.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.4   Format for vital records preservation.</HEAD>
<P>Preserved vital records may be in any format that can be used to reconstruct the credit union's vital records. The format used must accurately reflect the information in the record, remain accessible to all persons entitled to access by statute, regulation, or rule of law, and be capable of reproduction by transmission, printing, or otherwise.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 749.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.31.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 749.5   Format for records required by other NCUA regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Where NCUA regulations require a credit union to retain certain writings, records, or information, the credit union may use any format that accurately reflects the information in the record, is accessible to all persons entitled to access by statute, regulation, or rule of law, and is capable of being reproduced by transmission, printing, or otherwise. The credit union must maintain the necessary equipment or software to permit an examiner to access the records during the examination process.
















</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="750" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 750—GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1786(t).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 750 appear at 84 FR 1609, Feb. 5, 2019.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 750.0" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.0   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part limits and prohibits, in certain circumstances, the ability of federally insured credit unions, including Federally and state chartered natural person credit unions and Federally and state chartered corporate credit unions, to enter into contracts to pay and to make golden parachute and indemnification payments to institution-affiliated parties (IAPs).
</P>
<P>(b) The limitations on golden parachute payments apply to troubled federally insured credit unions that seek to enter into contracts to pay or to make golden parachute payments to their IAPs. A “golden parachute payment” is generally considered to be any payment to an IAP which is contingent on the termination of that person's employment and is received when the federally insured credit union making the payment is troubled. The definition of golden parachute payment does not include payments pursuant to qualified retirement plans, nonqualified bona fide deferred compensation plans, nondiscriminatory severance pay plans, other types of common benefits plans, state statutes and death benefits. Certain limited exceptions to the golden parachute payment prohibition are provided for in cases involving unassisted mergers and the hiring of new management to help improve a troubled federally insured credit union's financial condition. A procedure is also set forth to permit a federally insured credit union to request permission to make what would otherwise be a prohibited golden parachute payment.
</P>
<P>(c) The limitations on indemnification payments apply to all federally insured credit unions, including state chartered credit unions, regardless of their financial health. Generally, this part prohibits federally insured credit unions from indemnifying an IAP for that portion of the costs sustained with regard to an administrative proceeding or civil action commenced by NCUA or a state regulatory authority that results in a final order or settlement pursuant to which the IAP is assessed a civil money penalty, removed from office, prohibited from participating in the affairs of a federally insured credit union or required to cease and desist from an action or take an affirmative action described in section 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1786. There are exceptions to this general prohibition. First, a federally insured credit union may purchase commercial insurance to cover these expenses, except judgments and penalties. Second, the credit union may advance legal and other professional expenses to an IAP directly (except for judgments and penalties) if its board of directors makes certain specific findings and the IAP provides a written affirmation and agrees in writing to reimburse the credit union if it is ultimately determined that the IAP violated a law or regulation or has engaged in certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty. For Federal credit unions, fiduciary duty is defined in 701.4 of this chapter. State chartered credit unions should look to applicable state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Benefit plan</I> means any employee benefit plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement subject to the requirements in § 701.19 of this chapter; provided, however, that to the extent the plan exhibits characteristics of a deferred compensation plan or arrangement, or severance plan, it meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b) or (h), respectively, of this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement</I> means any plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement where:
</P>
<P>(1) An IAP voluntarily elects to defer all or a portion of the reasonable compensation, wages or fees paid for services rendered that otherwise would have been paid to the IAP at the time the services were rendered, including a plan providing for crediting a reasonable investment return on the elective deferrals, and the federally insured credit union either:
</P>
<P>(i) Recognizes compensation expense and accrues a liability for the benefit payments according to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregates or otherwise sets aside assets in a trust that may only be used to pay plan and other benefits, except that the assets of the trust may be available to satisfy claims of the federally insured credit union's creditors in the case of insolvency; or
</P>
<P>(2) A federally insured credit union establishes a nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plan, other than an elective deferral plan described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for certain IAPs in excess of the limitations on contributions and benefits imposed by sections 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g) or any other applicable provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Primarily for the purpose of providing supplemental retirement benefits or other deferred compensation for a select group of directors, management or highly compensated employees, excluding severance payments described in paragraph (d)(2)(v) of this section and permissible golden parachute payments described in § 750.4; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of any nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plans as described in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan was in effect at least one year before any of the events described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to the plan is made in accordance with the terms of the plan as in effect no later than one year before any of the events described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section and in accordance with any amendments to the plan during that one year period that do not increase the benefits payable under the plan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The IAP has a vested right, as defined under the applicable plan document, at the time of termination of employment to payments under the plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Benefits under the plan are accrued each period only for current or prior service rendered to the employer, except that an allowance may be made for service with a predecessor employer;
</P>
<P>(v) Any payment made pursuant to the plan is not based on any discretionary acceleration of vesting or accrual of benefits that occurs at any time later than one year before any of the events described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The federally insured credit union has previously recognized compensation expense and accrued a liability for the benefit payments according to GAAP or segregated or otherwise set aside assets in a trust that may only be used to pay plan benefits, except that the assets of the trust may be available to satisfy claims of the credit union's creditors in the case of insolvency; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Payments pursuant to the plans must not exceed the accrued liability computed in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>federally insured credit union</I> means a Federal credit union, state chartered credit union, or corporate credit union the member accounts of which are insured under the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Golden parachute payment.</I> (1) The term <I>golden parachute payment</I> means any payment or any agreement to make any payment in the nature of compensation by any federally insured credit union for the benefit of any current or former IAP pursuant to an obligation of the credit union that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contingent on, or by its terms is payable on or after, the termination of the party's primary employment or affiliation with the credit union; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is received on or after, or is made in contemplation of, any of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The insolvency of the federally insured credit union that is making the payment; or
</P>
<P>(B) The appointment of any conservator or liquidating agent for the federally insured credit union; or
</P>
<P>(C) The federally insured credit union is in troubled condition as defined in § 700.2 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(D) In the case of a corporate credit union, the federally insured credit union is undercapitalized as defined in § 704.4 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(E) The federally insured credit union is subject to a proceeding to terminate or suspend its share insurance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is payable to an IAP whose employment by or affiliation with a federally insured credit union is terminated at a time when the federally insured credit union by which the IAP is employed or with which the IAP is affiliated satisfies any of the conditions enumerated in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii)(A) through (E) of this section, or in contemplation of any of these conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The term <I>golden parachute payment</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any payment made pursuant to a deferred compensation plan under section 457(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 457(b), or a pension or retirement plan that is qualified or is intended within a reasonable period of time to be qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 401; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to a benefit plan as that term is defined in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payment made pursuant to a <I>bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement</I> as defined in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any payment made by reason of death or by reason of termination caused by the disability of an IAP; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any payment made pursuant to a nondiscriminatory severance pay plan or arrangement that provides for payment of severance benefits to all eligible employees upon involuntary termination other than for cause, voluntary resignation, or early retirement; provided, however, that no employee will receive any payment that exceeds the base compensation paid to the employee during the twelve months, or a longer period or greater benefit as the NCUA will consent to, immediately preceding termination of employment, resignation or early retirement, and the severance pay plan or arrangement must not or cannot have been adopted or modified to increase the amount or scope of severance benefits at a time when the federally insured credit union was in a condition specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section or in contemplation of that condition without the prior written consent of NCUA; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any severance or similar payment required to be made pursuant to a state statute applicable to all employers within the appropriate jurisdiction, with the exception of employers that may be exempt due to their small number of employees or other similar criteria; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other payment NCUA determines to be permissible in accordance with § 750.4.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Institution-affiliated party (IAP)</I> means any individual meeting the criteria in section 206(r) of the Act, 12 U.S.C. 1786(r).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Liability or legal expense</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any legal or other professional fees and expenses incurred in connection with any claim, proceeding, or action;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any settlement of any claim, proceeding, or action; and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any judgment or penalty imposed with respect to any claim, proceeding, or action.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>NCUA</I> means the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Nondiscriminatory</I> means that the plan, contract or arrangement applies to all employees of a federally insured credit union who meet reasonable and customary eligibility requirements applicable to all employees, such as minimum length of service requirements. A nondiscriminatory plan, contract or arrangement may provide different benefits based only on objective criteria, such as salary, total compensation, length of service, job grade or classification, applied on a proportionate basis (with a variance in severance benefits relating to any criterion of plus or minus ten percent) to groups of employees consisting of not less than 33% of all employees.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Payment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct or indirect transfer of any funds or any asset;
</P>
<P>(2) Any forgiveness of any debt or other obligation;
</P>
<P>(3) The conferring of any benefit; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any segregation of any funds or assets, the establishment or funding of any trust or the purchase of or arrangement for any letter of credit or other instrument, for the purpose of making, or pursuant to any agreement to make, any payment on or after the date on which the funds or assets are segregated, or at the time of or after such trust is established or letter of credit or other instrument is made available, without regard to whether the obligation to make such payment is contingent on:
</P>
<P>(i) The determination, after such date, of the liability for the payment of such amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquidation, after such date, of the amount of such payment.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Prohibited indemnification payment.</I> (1) <I>Prohibited indemnification payment</I> means any payment or any agreement or arrangement to make any payment by any federally insured credit union for the benefit of any person who is or was an IAP of the federally insured credit union, to pay or reimburse such person for any civil money penalty, judgment, or other liability or legal expense resulting from any administrative or civil action instituted by NCUA or any appropriate state regulatory authority, in the case of a credit union or corporate credit union chartered by a state, that results in a final order or settlement pursuant to which such person:
</P>
<P>(i) Is assessed a civil money penalty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is removed from office or prohibited from participating in the conduct of the affairs of the federally insured credit union; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is required to cease and desist from an action or take any affirmative action described in section 206 of the Act (12 U.S.C.1786) with respect to the credit union.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions. Prohibited indemnification payment</I> does not include any reasonable payment that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is used to purchase a commercial insurance policy or fidelity bond, provided that the insurance policy or bond must not be used to pay or reimburse an IAP for the cost of any judgment or civil money penalty assessed against the IAP in an administrative proceeding or civil action commenced by NCUA or the appropriate state supervisory authority, in the case of a credit union or corporate credit union chartered by a state, but may pay any legal or professional expenses incurred in connection with a proceeding or action or the amount of any restitution, to the federally insured credit union or its conservator or liquidating agent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Represents partial indemnification for legal or professional expenses specifically attributable to particular charges for which there has been a formal and final adjudication or finding in connection with a settlement that the IAP has not violated certain laws or regulations or has not engaged in certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, unless the administrative action or civil proceeding has resulted in a final prohibition order against the IAP.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 36980, June 24, 2011; 78 FR 4029, Jan. 18, 2013; 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 79 FR 12658, Mar. 6, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.2   Golden parachute payments prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>A federally insured credit union must not make or agree to make any golden parachute payment, except as permitted by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.3   Prohibited indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>A federally insured credit union must not make or agree to make any prohibited indemnification payment, except as permitted by this chapter.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The provisions in this part 750 control to the extent of any inconsistency with § 701.33 of this chapter.</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.4   Permissible golden parachute payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally insured credit union may agree to make or may make a golden parachute payment if:
</P>
<P>(1) NCUA, with written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority in the case of a state chartered credit union or corporate credit union, determines the payment or agreement is permissible; or
</P>
<P>(2) An agreement is made in order to hire a person to become an IAP at a time when the federally insured credit union satisfies or in an effort to prevent it from imminently satisfying any of the criteria in § 750.1(d)(1)(ii), and NCUA, with written concurrence of the appropriate state supervisory authority in the case of a state chartered credit union or corporate credit union, consents in writing to the amount and terms of the golden parachute payment. NCUA's consent will not improve the IAP's position in the event of the insolvency of the credit union since NCUA's consent cannot bind a liquidating agent or affect the provability of claims in liquidation. In the event the credit union is placed into conservatorship or liquidation, the conservator or the liquidating agent will not be obligated to pay the promised golden parachute and the IAP will not be accorded preferential treatment on the basis of any prior approval; or
</P>
<P>(3) A payment is made pursuant to an agreement that provides for a reasonable severance payment, not to exceed twelve months' salary, to an IAP in the event of a merger of the federally insured credit union; provided, however, that a federally insured credit union must obtain the consent of NCUA before making a payment and this paragraph (a)(3) does not apply to any merger of a federally insured credit union resulting from an assisted transaction described in section 208 of the Act, 12 U.S.C. 1788, or the federally insured credit union being placed into conservatorship or liquidation; and
</P>
<P>(4) A federally insured credit union or IAP making a request pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section must demonstrate it does not possess and is not aware of any information, evidence, documents or other materials indicating there is a reasonable basis to believe, at the time the payment is proposed to be made, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The IAP has committed any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the federally insured credit union that has had or is likely to have a material adverse effect on the federally insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(ii) The IAP is substantially responsible for the insolvency of, the appointment of a conservator liquidating agent for, or the troubled condition, as defined by § 700.2 of this chapter, of the federally insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) The IAP has materially violated any applicable Federal or state law or regulation that has had or is likely to have a material effect on the federally insured credit union; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The IAP has violated or conspired to violate sections 215, 656, 657, 1005, 1006, 1007, 1014, 1032, or 1344 of title 18 of the United States Code, or sections 1341 or 1343 of that title affecting a federally insured financial institution, as defined in title 18 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(b) In making a determination under paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section, NCUA may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and to what degree, the IAP was in a position of managerial or fiduciary responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) The length of time the IAP was affiliated with the federally insured credit union and the degree to which the proposed payment represents a reasonable payment for services rendered over the period of employment; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factors or circumstances indicating the proposed payment would be contrary to the intent of section 206(t) of the Act or this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011; 79 FR 12658, Mar. 6, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.5   Permissible indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A federally insured credit union may make or agree to make reasonable indemnification payments to an IAP, including advanced funds to pay or reimburse reasonable legal fees or other professional expenses incurred by an IAP in an administrative proceeding or civil action initiated by NCUA or a state regulatory authority if:
</P>
<P>(1) The federally insured credit union's board of directors, in good faith, determines in writing after due investigation and consideration that:
</P>
<P>(i) The IAP acted in good faith and in a manner he or she believed to be consistent with his or her fiduciary duty;
</P>
<P>(ii) The advancement or payment of the expenses will not materially adversely affect the credit union's safety and soundness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The IAP has the financial capability or has otherwise made appropriate financial arrangements sufficient to repay the advance if required in accordance with this rule; and
</P>
<P>(2) The IAP provides:
</P>
<P>(i) A written affirmation of his or her reasonable good faith belief that he or she acted in a manner believed to be consistent with his or her fiduciary duty; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An agreement in writing to reimburse the federally insured credit union, to the extent not covered by payments from insurance or bonds purchased pursuant to § 750.1(j)(2)(i), for that portion of any advanced indemnification payments which ultimately become prohibited indemnification payments as defined in § 750.1(j); and
</P>
<P>(3) The indemnification payments do not ultimately constitute prohibited indemnification payments as defined in § 750.1(j).
</P>
<P>(b) An IAP seeking indemnification payments must not participate in any way in the board of director's discussion and approval of such payments; however, the IAP may present his or her request to the board and respond to any inquiries from the board concerning his or her involvement in the circumstances giving rise to the administrative proceeding or civil action.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event a majority of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the remaining members of the board may authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the remaining members of the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions in paragraph (a)(1) through (3) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel concludes that the conditions have been met, the remaining members of the board of directors may rely on the opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event all of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the board will authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions in paragraph (a)(1) through (3) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel concludes the conditions have been met, the board of directors may rely on the opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011; 79 FR 12658, Mar. 6, 2014, as amended at 85 FR 62214, Oct. 2, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.6   Filing instructions; appeal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Requests to make excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments pursuant to § 750.1(d)(2)(v) and golden parachute payments permitted by § 750.4 must be submitted in writing to NCUA. In the case of a Federal or state chartered natural person credit union, such written requests must be submitted to the NCUA regional director for the region in which the credit union is located. In the case of a Federal or state-chartered corporate credit union or a ONES credit union under part 700 of this chapter, such written requests must be submitted to the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision. The request must be in letter form and must contain all relevant factual information as well as the reasons why such approval should be granted. If written concurrence by the state supervisory authority is required, the requesting party must submit a copy of its written request to the state supervisory authority where the credit union is located.
</P>
<P>(b) A FICU whose request for approval by NCUA, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, has been denied may seek reconsideration of the request and/or file an appeal with the NCUA Board in accordance with the procedures set forth in subpart B to part 746 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 30517, May 26, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013; 79 FR 12658, Mar. 6, 2014; 82 FR 50297, Oct. 30, 2017; 85 FR 62214, Oct. 2, 2020; 87 FR 45010, July 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 750.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.32.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 750.7   Applicability in the event of liquidation or conservatorship.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part, or any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by NCUA, will not in any way bind any liquidating agent or conservator for a failed federally insured credit union and will not in any way obligate the liquidating agent or conservator to pay any claim or obligation pursuant to any golden parachute, severance, indemnification or other agreement. Claims for employee welfare benefits or other benefits that are contingent, even if otherwise vested, when a liquidating agent or conservator is appointed for any federally insured credit union, including any contingency for termination of employment, are not provable claims or actual, direct compensatory damage claims against such liquidating agent or conservator. Nothing in this part may be construed to permit the payment of salary or any liability or legal expense of any IAP contrary to 12 U.S.C. 1786(t)(3).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="752" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 752—CONSENT TO SERVICE OF PERSONS CONVICTED OF, OR WHO HAVE PROGRAM ENTRIES FOR, CERTAIN CRIMINAL OFFENSES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1785(d).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 79393, Sept. 30, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 752.1." NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.1.   What is section 205(d) of the Federal Credit Union Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part covers applications under section 205(d) of the Federal Credit Union Act (FCU Act), 12 U.S.C. 1785(d). The NCUA refers to such applications as “consent applications.” Under section 205(d), any person who has been convicted of any criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust, or has agreed to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program (program entry) in connection with a prosecution for such offense (collectively, Covered Offenses), may not become, or continue as, an institution-affiliated party (IAP) of an insured credit union; or otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of the affairs of any insured credit union without the prior written consent of the NCUA. Section 205(d) imposes a ten-year ban against the Board granting consent for a person convicted of certain crimes enumerated in title 18 of the United States Code (U.S.C.). In order for the Board to grant consent during the 10-year period, the Board must file a motion with, and obtain the approval of, the sentencing court.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, the law prohibits an insured credit union from permitting such a person to engage in any conduct or to continue any relationship prohibited by section 205(d). Insured credit unions must therefore make a reasonable, documented, inquiry to verify an applicant's history to ensure that a person who has a Covered Offense under section 205(d) is not hired or permitted to participate in its affairs without the written consent of the NCUA issued under this subpart. Insured credit unions may extend a conditional offer of employment contingent on the completion of a background check satisfactory to the credit union to determine if the applicant is prohibited under section 205(d), but the applicant may not work for, be employed by, or otherwise participate in the affairs of the insured credit union until the credit union has determined that the applicant is not prohibited under section 205(d) (including persons who have had a consent application approved).
</P>
<P>(c) If there is a conviction or program entry covered by the prohibitions of section 205(d), an application under this subpart must be filed seeking the NCUA's consent to become, or to continue as, an IAP; or to otherwise participate, directly or indirectly, in the affairs of the insured credit union. The application must be filed, and consented to, prior to serving in any of the foregoing capacities unless such application is not required under the subsequent provisions of this subpart. The purpose of an application is to provide the applicant an opportunity to demonstrate that, notwithstanding the prohibition, a person is fit to participate in the conduct of the affairs of an insured credit union without posing a risk to its safety and soundness or impairing public confidence in that credit union. The burden is upon the applicant to establish that the application warrants approval.
</P>
<P>(d) The term <I>field office,</I> for purposes of this subpart, means a Regional Office or the Office of National Examinations and Supervision, as described in 12 CFR 790.2.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.2   Who is covered by section 205(d)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) Persons covered by section 205(d) include IAPs, as defined by 12 U.S.C. 1786(r), and others who are participants in the conduct of the affairs of an insured credit union. Therefore, all directors, officers, and employees of an insured credit union who fall within the scope of section 205(d), including <I>de facto</I> employees, as determined by the NCUA based upon generally applicable standards of employment law, will also be subject to section 205(d). Whether other persons are covered by section 205(d) depends upon their degree of influence or control over the management or affairs of an insured credit union. For example, section 205(d) would apply to directors and officers of affiliates, subsidiaries, or joint ventures of an insured credit union if they participate in the affairs of the insured credit union or are able to influence or control the management or affairs of the insured credit union. Typically, an independent contractor does not have a relationship with the insured credit union other than the activity for which the credit union has contracted. However, an independent contractor who also influences or controls the management or affairs of the insured credit union would be covered by section 205(d).
</P>
<P>(b) The term <I>person,</I> for purposes of section 205(d), means an individual and does not include a corporation, firm, or other business entity.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.3   Which offenses qualify as “Covered Offenses” under section 205(d)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Categories of Covered Offenses.</I> The conviction or program entry must be for a criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust.
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>criminal offense involving dishonesty</I>—
</P>
<P>(i) Means an offense under which an individual, directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(A) Cheats or defrauds; or
</P>
<P>(B) Wrongfully takes property belonging to another in violation of a criminal statute;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes an offense that Federal, state, or local law defines as dishonest, or for which dishonesty is an element of the offense; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not include—
</P>
<P>(A) A misdemeanor criminal offense committed more than 1 year before the date on which an individual files a consent application, excluding any period of incarceration; or
</P>
<P>(B) An offense involving the possession of controlled substances. At a minimum, this exclusion applies to criminal offenses involving the simple possession of a controlled substance and possession with intent to distribute a controlled substance. This exclusion may also apply to other drug-related offenses depending on the statutory elements of the offenses or from court determinations that the statutory provisions of the offenses do not involve dishonesty or breach of trust as noted in paragraph (b) of this section. Potential applicants may contact their appropriate NCUA field office if they have questions about whether their offenses are covered under section 205(d).
</P>
<P>(iv) The term <I>offense committed</I> in paragraph (a)(1)(iii)(A) of this section means the last date of the underlying misconduct. In instances with multiple offenses, <I>offense committed</I> means the last date of any of the underlying offenses.
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>breach of trust</I> means a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission with respect to any property or fund that has been committed to a person in a fiduciary or official capacity, or the misuse of one's official or fiduciary position to engage in a wrongful act, use, misappropriation, or omission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elements of the offense.</I> Whether a crime involves dishonesty or breach of trust will be determined from the statutory elements of the offense itself or from court determinations that the statutory provisions of the offense involve dishonesty or breach of trust.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certain older offenses excluded</I>—(1) <I>Exclusions for certain older offenses.</I> Section 205(d) does not apply to an offense if—
</P>
<P>(i) It has been 7 years or more since the offense occurred; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual was incarcerated with respect to the offense, and it has been 5 years or more since the individual was released from incarceration.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term <I>offense occurred</I> means the last date of the underlying misconduct. In instances with multiple Covered Offenses, <I>offense occurred</I> means the last date of any of the underlying offenses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Offenses committed by individuals 21 years of age or younger.</I> For individuals who committed an offense when they were 21 years of age or younger, section 205(d) does not apply to the offense if it has been more than 30 months since the sentencing occurred. The term <I>sentencing occurred</I> means the date on which a court imposed the sentence (as indicated by the date on the court's sentencing order), not the date on which all conditions of sentencing were completed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitation.</I> This paragraph (c) does not apply to an offense described under 12 U.S.C. 1785(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Foreign convictions.</I> Individuals who are convicted of, or enter into a pretrial diversion program for, a criminal offense involving dishonesty or breach of trust in any foreign jurisdiction are subject to section 205(d), unless the offense is otherwise excluded by this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.4   What constitutes a conviction under section 205(d)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Convictions requiring an application.</I> There must be a conviction of record. Section 205(d) does not cover arrests or pending cases not brought to trial, unless the person has a program entry as set out in § 752.5. Section 205(d) does not cover acquittals or any conviction that has been reversed on appeal, unless the reversal was for the purpose of re-sentencing. A conviction with regard to which an appeal is pending requires an application. A conviction for which a pardon has been granted requires an application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Convictions not requiring an application.</I> When an individual is charged with a Covered Offense and, in the absence of a program entry as set out in § 752.5, is subsequently convicted of an offense that is not a Covered Offense, the conviction is not subject to section 205(d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Expungement, dismissal, and sealing.</I> A conviction is not considered a conviction of record and does not require an application if—
</P>
<P>(1) There is an order of expungement, sealing, or dismissal that has been issued regarding the conviction in connection with such offense, or if a conviction has been otherwise expunged, sealed, or dismissed by operation of law; and
</P>
<P>(2) It is intended by the language in the order itself, or in the legislative provisions under which the order was issued, or in other legislative provisions, that the conviction shall be destroyed or sealed from the individual's state, Tribal, or Federal record, even if exceptions allow the conviction to be considered for certain character and fitness evaluation purposes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Youthful offenders.</I> An adjudication by a court against a person as a “youthful offender” (or similar term) under any youth-offender law applicable to minors as defined by state law, or any judgment as a “juvenile delinquent” (or similar term) by any court having jurisdiction over minors as defined by state law, does not require an application. Such an adjudication does not constitute a matter covered under section 205(d) and is not a conviction or program entry for determining the applicability of § 752.8.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.5   What constitutes a pretrial diversion or similar program under section 205(d)?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The term “pretrial diversion or similar program” (program entry) means a program characterized by a suspension or eventual dismissal or reversal of charges or criminal prosecution upon agreement by the accused to restitution, drug or alcohol rehabilitation, anger management, or community service. Whether the outcome of a case constitutes a program entry is determined by relevant Federal, state, or local law, and, if not so designated under applicable law, then the determination of whether a disposition is a program entry will be made by the Board on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(b) When a Covered Offense either is reduced by a program entry to an offense that would otherwise not be covered by section 205(d) or is dismissed upon successful completion of a program entry, the offense remains a Covered Offense for purposes of section 205(d). The Covered Offense will require an application unless it is <I>de minimis</I> as provided by § 752.8.
</P>
<P>(c) Expungements, dismissals, or sealings of program entries will be treated the same as those for convictions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.6   What are the types of applications that can be filed?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA will accept applications from—
</P>
<P>(1) An individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) An insured credit union applying on behalf of an individual.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual or an insured credit union may file applications at separate times. Under either approach, the application(s) must be filed with the appropriate NCUA field office, as required by this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.7   When may an application be filed?</HEAD>
<P>Except for situations in which no application is required under section 205(d) and this subpart, an application must be filed when there is a conviction by a court of competent jurisdiction for a Covered Offense by any adult or minor treated as an adult or when such person has a program entry regarding that offense. Before an application may be filed, all of the sentencing requirements associated with a conviction, or conditions imposed by the program entry, including but not limited to, imprisonment, fines, conditions of rehabilitation, and probation requirements, must be completed, and the case must be considered final by the procedures of the applicable jurisdiction. The NCUA's application forms as well as additional information concerning section 205(d) can be accessed on the NCUA's website.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.8   What is the <E T="0714">de minimis</E> exemption?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The prohibitions of section 205(d) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, where all of the following <I>de minimis</I> criteria are met. (Paragraph (b)(4) of this section contains separate exemption criteria from paragraphs (a) through (b)(3) of this section, and an offense that qualifies for exemption under paragraph (b)(4) is excluded from consideration in the criteria of paragraphs (a) through (b)(3).)
</P>
<P>(1) The individual has been convicted of, or has program entries for, no more than two Covered Offenses, including those subject to paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section; and for each Covered Offense, all of the sentencing requirements associated with the conviction, or conditions imposed by the program entry, have been completed (the sentence- or program-completion requirement does not apply under paragraph (b)(2) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) For each Covered Offense, the individual could have been sentenced to a term of confinement in a correctional facility of 3 years or less and/or a fine of $2,500 or less, and the individual actually served 3 days or less of jail time for each Covered Offense.
</P>
<P>(3) Jail time under paragraph (a)(2) of this section is calculated based on the time an individual spent incarcerated as a punishment or a sanction—not as pretrial detention—and does not include probation or parole where an individual was restricted to a particular jurisdiction or was required to report occasionally to an individual or a specific location. Jail time includes confinement to a psychiatric treatment center in lieu of a jail, prison, or house of correction on mental-competency grounds. The definition is not intended to include either of the following: persons who are restricted to a substance-abuse treatment program facility for part or all of the day; or persons who are ordered to attend outpatient psychiatric treatment.
</P>
<P>(4) If there are two convictions or program entries for a Covered Offense, each conviction or program entry was entered at least 3 years prior to the date an application would otherwise be required, except as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) Each Covered Offense must not have been committed against an insured depository institution or insured credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other types of offenses for which the de minimis exemption applies and no application is required</I>—(1) <I>Age of person at time of Covered Offense.</I> If there are two convictions or program entries for a Covered Offense, and the actions that resulted in both convictions or program entries all occurred when the individual was 21 years of age or younger, then the <I>de minimis</I> criteria in paragraph (a)(4) of this section will be met if the convictions or program entries were entered at least 18 months prior to the date an application would otherwise be required. For this reduction in waiting time to apply, the convictions or program entries must meet the other <I>de minimis</I> criteria in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Convictions or program entries for insufficient funds checks.</I> The prohibitions of section 205(d) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to convictions or program entries of record based on the writing of “bad” or insufficient funds check(s) if the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate total face value of all “bad” or insufficient funds check(s) cited across all the conviction(s) or program entry(ies) for “bad” or insufficient funds checks is $2,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) No insured depository institution or insured credit union was a payee on any of the “bad” or insufficient funds checks that were the basis of the conviction(s) or program entry(ies); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual has no more than one other <I>de minimis</I> offense under this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Convictions or program entries for small-dollar, simple theft.</I> The prohibitions of section 205(d) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to convictions or program entries based on the simple theft of goods, services, or currency (or other monetary instrument) if the following conditions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The value of the currency, goods, or services taken was $1,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(ii) The theft was not committed against an insured depository institution or insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual has no more than one other offense that is considered exempt under this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If there are two offenses—each of which, by itself, is considered exempt under this section, each conviction or program entry was entered at least 3 years prior to the date an application would otherwise be required, or at least 18 months prior to the date an application would otherwise be required if the actions that resulted in the conviction or program entry all occurred when the individual was 21 years of age or younger.
</P>
<P>(v) Simple theft excludes burglary, forgery, robbery, identity theft, and fraud.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Convictions or program entries for using fake identification, shoplifting, trespassing, fare evasion, or driving with an expired license or tag.</I> The prohibitions of section 205(d) will not apply, and an application will therefore not be required, as to the following offenses, if 1 year or more has passed since the applicable conviction or program entry: using fake identification; shoplifting; trespassing; fare evasion; and driving with an expired license or tag.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-qualifying convictions or program entries.</I> No conviction or program entry for a violation of the Title 18 sections set out in 12 U.S.C. 1785(d)(2) can qualify under any of the <I>de minimis</I> exemptions set out in this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.9   How does an individual or a credit union file an application?</HEAD>
<P>Forms and instructions can be obtained from the NCUA's website (<I>www.ncua.gov</I>), and the application(s) must be filed with the appropriate field office Director. An application may be filed by an individual or by an insured credit union on behalf of an individual, or by both. The appropriate field office for a credit union-sponsored application is the office covering the state where the insured credit union's home office is located, or the Office of National Examinations and Supervision. The appropriate field office for an application filed by an individual is the office covering the state where the person resides. States covered by each NCUA field office are listed in 12 CFR 790.2.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.10   How will the NCUA evaluate an application?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Criminal history records.</I> In reviewing an application, the NCUA will—
</P>
<P>(1) Primarily rely on the criminal history record provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (rap sheet); and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide such record to the subject of the application to review for accuracy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certified copies.</I> The NCUA will not require an applicant to provide certified copies of criminal history records unless the NCUA determines that there is a clear and compelling justification to require additional information to verify the accuracy of the criminal history record provided by the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ultimate determinations.</I> The ultimate determinations in assessing an application are whether the person has demonstrated their fitness to participate in the conduct of the affairs of an insured credit union, and whether the affiliation or participation by the person in the conduct of the affairs of the credit union may constitute a threat to the safety and soundness of the credit union or the interests of its members or threaten to impair public confidence in the credit union.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Individualized assessment.</I> When evaluating applications, the NCUA will conduct an individualized assessment that will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the conviction or program entry is subject to section 205(d) and the specific nature and circumstances of the offense;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the participation directly or indirectly by the person in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the insured credit union constitutes a threat to the safety and soundness of the credit union or the interests of its members or threatens to impair public confidence in the credit union;
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence of rehabilitation including the person's age at the time of the conviction or program entry, the time that has elapsed since the conviction or program entry, and the relationship of the individual's offense to the responsibilities of the applicable position;
</P>
<P>(4) The individual's employment history, letters of recommendation, certificates documenting participation in substance-abuse programs, successful participation in job preparation and educational programs, and other relevant evidence;
</P>
<P>(5) The ability of management of the insured credit union to supervise and control the person's activities;
</P>
<P>(6) The applicability of the insured credit union's fidelity bond coverage to the person; and
</P>
<P>(7) For state-chartered, federally insured credit unions, the opinion or position of the state regulator; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any additional factors in the specific case that appear relevant to the application or the individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No re-consideration of guilt.</I> The question of whether a person, who was convicted of a crime or who agreed to a program entry, was guilty of that crime will not be at issue in a proceeding under this part or under 12 CFR part 746, subpart B.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Factors considered for enumerated offenses.</I> The foregoing factors will also be applied by the NCUA to determine whether the interests of justice are served in seeking an exception in the appropriate court when an application is made to terminate the 10-year ban prior to its expiration date under 12 U.S.C. 1785(d)(2)(A) for certain Federal offenses.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mandatory conditions of approval.</I> All approvals or orders will be subject to the condition that the person be covered by a fidelity bond to the same extent as others in similar positions. If the NCUA has approved an application filed by an individual and has issued a consent order, the individual must disclose the presence of the conviction(s) or program entry(ies) to all insured credit unions in the affairs of which they wish to participate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit union-sponsored consent applications: work at same employer.</I> When deemed appropriate by the NCUA, credit union-sponsored applications are to allow the individual to work for the same employer (without restrictions on the location) and across positions, except that the prior consent of the NCUA (which may require a new application) will be required for any proposed significant changes in the individual's security-related duties or responsibilities, such as promotion to an officer or other positions that the employer determines will require higher security screening credentials.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Work at a different employer after certain approvals.</I> In situations in which an approval has been granted for a person to participate in the affairs of a particular insured credit union and the person subsequently seeks to participate at another insured credit union, another application must be submitted and approved by the NCUA prior to the person participating in the affairs of the other insured credit union.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 752.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.33.0.11.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 752.11   What will the NCUA do if the application is denied?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA will inform the applicant in writing that the application has been denied and summarize or cite the relevant considerations specified in § 752.10.
</P>
<P>(b) The denial will also notify the applicant of the right to request reconsideration from the field office, or to file an appeal with the Board, and will include a description of applicable filing deadlines and time frames for agency responses. The field office and the Board will apply the review process contained in 12 CFR part 746, subpart B, to any request for reconsideration or appeal. For credit union-sponsored applications, either the institution or the subject individual (or both, as a consolidated request) may file a request for reconsideration or appeal. The request for review must include a statement of the underlying facts that form the basis of the request for reconsideration or appeal, a statement of the basis for the denial to which the applicant objects and the alleged error in such denial, and any other support, materials, or evidence relied upon by the applicant that were not previously provided.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="753" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>Part 753—XXX


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="17">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="18">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38268, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="760" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 760—LOANS IN AREAS HAVING SPECIAL FLOOD HAZARDS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1757, 1784(e), 1789; 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, and 4128.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 43259, July 21, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 760.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1757, 1789 and 42 U.S.C. 4012a, 4104a, 4104b, 4106, 4128.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the requirements of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 and the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part, except for §§ 760.6 and 760.8, applies to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes located or to be located in areas determined by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency to have special flood hazards. Sections 760.6 and 760.8 apply to loans secured by buildings or mobile homes, regardless of location.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129).
</P>
<P><I>Administrator of FEMA</I> means the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Building</I> means a walled and roofed structure, other than a gas or liquid storage tank, that is principally above ground and affixed to a permanent site, and a walled and roofed structure while in the course of construction, alteration, or repair.
</P>
<P><I>Community</I> means a State or a political subdivision of a State that has zoning and building code jurisdiction over a particular area having special flood hazards.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means a Federal or State-chartered credit union that is insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund.
</P>
<P><I>Designated loan</I> means a loan secured by a building or mobile home that is located or to be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Mobile home</I> means a structure, transportable in one or more sections, that is built on a permanent chassis and designed for use with or without a permanent foundation when attached to the required utilities. The term <I>mobile home</I> does not include a recreational vehicle. For purposes of this part, the term <I>mobile home</I> means a mobile home on a permanent foundation. The term <I>mobile home</I> includes a manufactured home as that term is used in the NFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Mutual aid society</I> means an organization—
</P>
<P>(1) Whose members share a common religious, charitable, educational, or fraternal bond;
</P>
<P>(2) That covers losses caused by damage to members' property pursuant to an agreement, including damage caused by flooding, in accordance with this common bond; and
</P>
<P>(3) That has a demonstrated history of fulfilling the terms of agreements to cover losses to members' property caused by flooding.
</P>
<P><I>NFIP</I> means the National Flood Insurance Program authorized under the Act.
</P>
<P><I>Private flood insurance</I> means an insurance policy that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is issued by an insurance company that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recognized, or not disapproved, as a surplus lines insurer by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property;
</P>
<P>(2) Provides flood insurance coverage that is at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP for the same type of property, including when considering deductibles, exclusions, and conditions offered by the insurer. To be at least as broad as the coverage provided under an SFIP, the policy must, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) Define the term “flood” to include the events defined as a “flood” in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain the coverage specified in an SFIP, including that relating to building property coverage; personal property coverage, if purchased by the insured mortgagor(s); other coverages; and increased cost of compliance coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contain deductibles no higher than the specified maximum, and include similar non-applicability provisions, as under an SFIP, for any total policy coverage amount up to the maximum available under the NFIP at the time the policy is provided to the lender;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide coverage for direct physical loss caused by a flood and may only exclude other causes of loss that are excluded in an SFIP. Any exclusions other than those in an SFIP may pertain only to coverage that is in addition to the amount and type of coverage that could be provided by an SFIP or have the effect of providing broader coverage to the policyholder; and
</P>
<P>(v) Not contain conditions that narrow the coverage provided in an SFIP;
</P>
<P>(3) Includes all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement for the insurer to give written notice 45 days before cancellation or non-renewal of flood insurance coverage to:
</P>
<P>(A) The insured; and
</P>
<P>(B) The credit union that made the designated loan secured by the property covered by the flood insurance, or the servicer acting on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the availability of flood insurance coverage under the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(iii) A mortgage interest clause similar to the clause contained in an SFIP; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A provision requiring an insured to file suit not later than one year after the date of a written denial of all or part of a claim under the policy; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contains cancellation provisions that are as restrictive as the provisions contained in an SFIP.
</P>
<P><I>Residential improved real estate</I> means real estate upon which a home or other residential building is located or to be located.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means the person responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving any scheduled, periodic payments from a borrower under the terms of a loan, including amounts for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges with respect to the property securing the loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Making payments of principal and interest and any other payments from the amounts received from the borrower as may be required under the terms of the loan.
</P>
<P><I>SFIP</I> means, for purposes of § 760.2, a standard flood insurance policy issued under the NFIP in effect as of the date private flood insurance is provided to a credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Special flood hazard area</I> means the land in the flood plain within a community having at least a one percent chance of flooding in any given year, as designated by the Administrator of FEMA.
</P>
<P><I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43259, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4974, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.3   Requirement to purchase flood insurance where available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A credit union shall not make, increase, extend, or renew any designated loan unless the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered by flood insurance for the term of the loan. The amount of insurance must be at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the designated loan or the maximum limit of coverage available for the particular type of property under the Act. Flood insurance coverage under the Act is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures a loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Table funded loan.</I> A credit union that acquires a loan from a mortgage broker or other entity through table funding shall be considered to be making a loan for the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Private flood insurance</I>—(1) <I>Mandatory acceptance.</I> A credit union must accept private flood insurance, as defined in § 760.2, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy meets the requirements for coverage in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compliance aid for mandatory acceptance.</I> A credit union may determine that a policy meets the definition of private flood insurance in § 760.2, without further review of the policy, if the following statement is included within the policy or as an endorsement to the policy: “This policy meets the definition of private flood insurance contained in 42 U.S.C. 4012a(b)(7) and the corresponding regulation.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Discretionary acceptance.</I> A credit union may accept a flood insurance policy issued by a private insurer that is not issued under the NFIP and that does not meet the definition of private flood insurance in § 760.2 in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if the policy:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is issued by an insurer that is licensed, admitted, or otherwise approved to engage in the business of insurance by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction in which the property to be insured is located; or in the case of a policy of difference in conditions, multiple peril, all risk, or other blanket coverage insuring nonresidential commercial property, is issued by a surplus lines insurer recognized, or not disapproved, by the insurance regulator of the State or jurisdiction where the property to be insured is located;
</P>
<P>(iii) Covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees, except in the case of a policy that is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group and for which the premium is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the credit union documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mutual aid societies.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a credit union may accept a plan issued by a mutual aid society, as defined in § 760.2, in satisfaction of the flood insurance purchase requirement in paragraph (a) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The NCUA has determined that such plans qualify as flood insurance for purposes of the Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) The plan provides coverage in the amount required by paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The plan covers both the mortgagor(s) and the mortgagee(s) as loss payees; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The plan provides sufficient protection of the designated loan, consistent with general safety and soundness principles, and the credit union documents its conclusion regarding sufficiency of the protection of the loan in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43259, July 21, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 4974, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.4   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>The flood insurance requirement prescribed by § 760.3 does not apply with respect to:
</P>
<P>(a) Any State-owned property covered under a policy of self-insurance satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA, who publishes and periodically revises the list of States falling within this exemption;
</P>
<P>(b) Property securing any loan with an original principal balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less; or
</P>
<P>(c) Any structure that is a part of any residential property but is detached from the primary residential structure of such property and does not serve as a residence. For purposes of this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) “A structure that is a part of a residential property” is a structure used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and not used primarily for agricultural, commercial, industrial, or other business purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) A structure is “detached” from the primary residential structure if it is not joined by any structural connection to that structure; and
</P>
<P>(3) “Serve as a residence” shall be based upon the good faith determination of the credit union that the structure is intended for use or actually used as a residence, which generally includes sleeping, bathroom, or kitchen facilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.5   Escrow requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3(a) for any designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, payable with the same frequency as payments on the designated loan are required to be made for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan is an extension of credit primarily for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan is in a subordinate position to a senior lien secured by the same residential improved real estate or mobile home for which the borrower has obtained flood insurance coverage that meets the requirements of § 760.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) Flood insurance coverage for the residential improved real estate or mobile home is provided by a policy that:
</P>
<P>(A) Meets the requirements of § 760.3(a);
</P>
<P>(B) Is provided by a condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group; and
</P>
<P>(C) The premium for which is paid by the condominium association, cooperative, homeowners association, or other applicable group as a common expense;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is a nonperforming loan, which is a loan that is 90 or more days past due and remains nonperforming until it is permanently modified or until the entire amount past due, including principal, accrued interest, and penalty interest incurred as the result of past due status, is collected or otherwise discharged in full; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The loan has a term of not longer than 12 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Duration of exception.</I> If a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after January 1, 2016, that an exception under paragraph (a)(2) of this section does not apply, then the credit union or its servicer shall require the escrow of all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3(a) as soon as reasonably practicable and, if applicable, shall provide any disclosure required under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2609) (RESPA).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Escrow account.</I> The credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall deposit the flood insurance premiums and fees on behalf of the borrower in an escrow account. This escrow account will be subject to escrow requirements adopted pursuant to section 10 of RESPA, which generally limits the amount that may be maintained in escrow accounts for certain types of loans and requires escrow account statements for those accounts, only if the loan is otherwise subject to RESPA. Following receipt of a notice from the Administrator of FEMA or other provider of flood insurance that premiums are due, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall pay the amount owed to the insurance provider from the escrow account by the date when such premiums are due.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan for which a credit union is required to escrow under paragraph (a) or paragraph (c)(2) of this section or may be required to escrow under paragraph (a)(3) of this section during the term of the loan, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall mail or deliver a written notice with the notice provided under § 760.9 informing the borrower that the credit union is required to escrow all premiums and fees for required flood insurance, using language that is substantially similar to model clauses on the escrow requirement in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Small lender exception</I>—(1) <I>Qualification.</I> Except as may be required under applicable State law, paragraphs (a), (b) and (d) of this section do not apply to a credit union:
</P>
<P>(i) That has total assets of less than $1 billion as of December 31 of either of the two prior calendar years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On or before July 6, 2012:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not required under Federal or State law to deposit taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for the entire term of any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home; and
</P>
<P>(B) Did not have a policy of consistently and uniformly requiring the deposit of taxes, insurance premiums, fees, or any other charges in an escrow account for any loans secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in status.</I> If a credit union previously qualified for the exception in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, but no longer qualifies for the exception because it had assets of $1 billion or more for two consecutive calendar year ends, the credit union must escrow premiums and fees for flood insurance pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section for any designated loan made, increased, extended, or renewed on or after July 1 of the first calendar year of changed status.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Option to escrow</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall offer and make available to the borrower the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any flood insurance required under § 760.3 for any loan secured by residential improved real estate or a mobile home that is outstanding on January 1, 2016, or July 1 of the first calendar year in which the credit union has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit union or the loan qualifies for an exception from the escrow requirement under paragraphs (a)(2) or (c) of this section, respectively;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is already escrowing all premiums and fees for flood insurance for the loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The credit union is required to escrow flood insurance premiums and fees pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice.</I> For any loan subject to paragraph (d) of this section, the credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, shall mail or deliver to the borrower no later than June 30, 2016, or September 30 of the first calendar year in which the credit union has had a change in status pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a notice in writing, or if the borrower agrees, electronically, informing the borrower of the option to escrow all premiums and fees for any required flood insurance and the method(s) by which the borrower may request the escrow, using language similar to the model clause in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The credit union or servicer must begin escrowing premiums and fees for flood insurance as soon as reasonably practicable after the credit union or servicer receives the borrower's request to escrow.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43261, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.6   Required use of standard flood hazard determination form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of form.</I> A credit union shall use the standard flood hazard determination form developed by the Administrator of FEMA when determining whether the building or mobile home offered as collateral security for a loan is or will be located in a special flood hazard area in which flood insurance is available under the Act. The standard flood hazard determination form may be used in a printed, computerized, or electronic manner. A credit union may obtain the standard flood hazard determination form from FEMA's Web site at <I>www.fema.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of form.</I> A credit union shall retain a copy of the completed standard flood hazard determination form, in either hard copy or electronic form, for the period of time the credit union owns the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.7   Force placement of flood insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice and purchase of coverage.</I> If a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, determines at any time during the term of a designated loan, that the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the designated loan is not covered by flood insurance or is covered by flood insurance in an amount less than the amount required under § 760.3, then the credit union or its servicer shall notify the borrower that the borrower should obtain flood insurance, at the borrower's expense, in an amount at least equal to the amount required under § 760.3, for the remaining term of the loan. If the borrower fails to obtain flood insurance within 45 days after notification, then the credit union or its servicer shall purchase insurance on the borrower's behalf. The credit union or its servicer may charge the borrower for the cost of premiums and fees incurred in purchasing the insurance, including premiums or fees incurred for coverage beginning on the date on which flood insurance coverage lapsed or did not provide a sufficient coverage amount.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>Termination and refund.</I> Within 30 days of receipt by a credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, of a confirmation of a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage, the credit union or its servicer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the insurance provider to terminate any insurance purchased by the credit union or its servicer under paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Refund to the borrower all premiums paid by the borrower for any insurance purchased by the credit union or its servicer under paragraph (a) of this section during any period during which the borrower's flood insurance coverage and the insurance coverage purchased by the credit union or its servicer were each in effect, and any related fees charged to the borrower with respect to the insurance purchased by the credit union or its servicer during such period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sufficiency of demonstration.</I> For purposes of confirming a borrower's existing flood insurance coverage under paragraph (b) of this section, a credit union or its servicer shall accept from the borrower an insurance policy declarations page that includes the existing flood insurance policy number and the identity of, and contact information for, the insurance company or agent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.8   Determination fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding any Federal or State law other than the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4001-4129), any credit union, or a servicer acting on behalf of the credit union, may charge a reasonable fee for determining whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located or will be located in a special flood hazard area. A determination fee may also include, but is not limited to, a fee for life-of-loan monitoring.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Borrower fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the borrower if the determination:
</P>
<P>(1) Is made in connection with a making, increasing, extending, or renewing of the loan that is initiated by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's revision or updating of floodplain areas or flood-risk zones;
</P>
<P>(3) Reflects the Administrator of FEMA's publication of a notice or compendium that:
</P>
<P>(i) Affects the area in which the building or mobile home securing the loan is located; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By determination of the Administrator of FEMA, may reasonably require a determination whether the building or mobile home securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area; or
</P>
<P>(4) Results in the purchase of flood insurance coverage by the credit union or its servicer on behalf of the borrower under § 760.7.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Purchaser or transferee fee.</I> The determination fee authorized by paragraph (a) of this section may be charged to the purchaser or transferee of a loan in the case of the sale or transfer of the loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.9   Notice of special flood hazards and availability of Federal disaster relief assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a credit union makes, increases, extends, or renews a loan secured by a building or a mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the credit union shall mail or deliver a written notice to the borrower and to the servicer in all cases whether or not flood insurance is available under the Act for the collateral securing the loan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The written notice must include the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A warning, in a form approved by the Administrator of FEMA, that the building or the mobile home is or will be located in a special flood hazard area;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the flood insurance purchase requirements set forth in section 102(b) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a(b));
</P>
<P>(3) A statement, where applicable, that flood insurance coverage is available from private insurance companies that issue standard flood insurance policies on behalf of the NFIP or directly from the NFIP;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may also be available from a private insurance company that issues policies on behalf of the company;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that the borrower is encouraged to compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and that the borrower should direct inquiries regarding the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage to an insurance agent; and
</P>
<P>(6) A statement whether Federal disaster relief assistance may be available in the event of damage to the building or mobile home caused by flooding in a Federally declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of notice.</I> The credit union shall provide the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section to the borrower within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction, and to the servicer as promptly as practicable after the credit union provides notice to the borrower and in any event no later than the time the credit union provides other similar notices to the servicer concerning hazard insurance and taxes. Notice to the servicer may be made electronically or may take the form of a copy of the notice to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record of receipt.</I> The credit union shall retain a record of the receipt of the notices by the borrower and the servicer for the period of time the credit union owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternate method of notice.</I> Instead of providing the notice to the borrower required by paragraph (a) of this section, a credit union may obtain satisfactory written assurance from a seller or lessor that, within a reasonable time before the completion of the sale or lease transaction, the seller or lessor has provided such notice to the purchaser or lessee. The credit union shall retain a record of the written assurance from the seller or lessor for the period of time the credit union owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Use of sample form of notice.</I> A credit union will be considered to be in compliance with the requirement for notice to the borrower of this section by providing written notice to the borrower containing the language presented in appendix A to this part within a reasonable time before the completion of the transaction. The notice presented in appendix A to this part satisfies the borrower notice requirements of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43259, July 21, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 43262, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 760.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 760.10   Notice of servicer's identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> When a credit union makes, increases, extends, renews, sells, or transfers a loan secured by a building or mobile home located or to be located in a special flood hazard area, the credit union shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator of FEMA's designee) in writing of the identity of the servicer of the loan. The Administrator of FEMA has designated the insurance provider to receive the credit union's notice of the servicer's identity. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator of FEMA's designee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transfer of servicing rights.</I> The credit union shall notify the Administrator of FEMA (or the Administrator of FEMA's designee) of any change in the servicer of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section within 60 days after the effective date of the change. This notice may be provided electronically if electronic transmission is satisfactory to the Administrator or his or her designee. Upon any change in the servicing of a loan described in paragraph (a) of this section, the duty to provide notice under this paragraph (b) shall transfer to the transferee servicer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.11.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 760—Sample Form of Notice of Special Flood Hazards and Availability of Federal Disaster Relief Assistance
</HEAD>
<P>We are giving you this notice to inform you that:
</P>
<P>The building or mobile home securing the loan for which you have applied is or will be located in an area with special flood hazards.
</P>
<P>The area has been identified by the Administrator of the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) as a special flood hazard area using FEMA's <I>Flood Insurance Rate Map</I> or the <I>Flood Hazard Boundary Map</I> for the following community: ______. This area has a one percent (1%) chance of a flood equal to or exceeding the base flood elevation (a 100-year flood) in any given year. During the life of a 30-year mortgage loan, the risk of a 100-year flood in a special flood hazard area is 26 percent (26%).
</P>
<P>Federal law allows a lender and borrower jointly to request the Administrator of FEMA to review the determination of whether the property securing the loan is located in a special flood hazard area. If you would like to make such a request, please contact us for further information.
</P>
<P>____The community in which the property securing the loan is located participates in the National Flood Insurance Program (NFIP). Federal law will not allow us to make you the loan that you have applied for if you do not purchase flood insurance. The flood insurance must be maintained for the life of the loan. If you fail to purchase or renew flood insurance on the property, Federal law authorizes and requires us to purchase the flood insurance for you at your expense.
</P>
<P>• At a minimum, flood insurance purchased must cover <I>the lesser of:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The outstanding principal balance of the loan; <I>or</I>
</P>
<P>(2) the maximum amount of coverage allowed for the type of property under the NFIP.
</P>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is limited to the building or mobile home and any personal property that secures your loan and not the land itself.
</P>
<P>• Federal disaster relief assistance (usually in the form of a low-interest loan) may be available for damages incurred in excess of your flood insurance if your community's participation in the NFIP is in accordance with NFIP requirements.
</P>
<P>• Although you may not be required to maintain flood insurance on all structures, you may still wish to do so, and your mortgage lender may still require you to do so to protect the collateral securing the mortgage. If you choose not to maintain flood insurance on a structure and it floods, you are responsible for all flood losses relating to that structure.
</P>
<HD3>Availability of Private Flood Insurance Coverage
</HD3>
<P>Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP may be purchased through an insurance agent who will obtain the policy either directly through the NFIP or through an insurance company that participates in the NFIP. Flood insurance that provides the same level of coverage as a standard flood insurance policy under the NFIP may be available from private insurers that do not participate in the NFIP. You should compare the flood insurance coverage, deductibles, exclusions, conditions, and premiums associated with flood insurance policies issued on behalf of the NFIP and policies issued on behalf of private insurance companies and contact an insurance agent as to the availability, cost, and comparisons of flood insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>[Escrow Requirement for Residential Loans
</HD3>
<P>Federal law may require a lender or its servicer to escrow all premiums and fees for flood insurance that covers any residential building or mobile home securing a loan that is located in an area with special flood hazards. If your lender notifies you that an escrow account is required for your loan, then you must pay your flood insurance premiums and fees to the lender or its servicer with the same frequency as you make loan payments for the duration of your loan. These premiums and fees will be deposited in the escrow account, which will be used to pay the flood insurance provider.]
</P>
<P>____Flood insurance coverage under the NFIP is not available for the property securing the loan because the community in which the property is located does not participate in the NFIP. In addition, if the non-participating community has been identified for at least one year as containing a special flood hazard area, properties located in the community will not be eligible for Federal disaster relief assistance in the event of a Federally declared flood disaster.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43262, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.35.0.11.11.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 760—Sample Clause for Option to Escrow for Outstanding Loans
</HEAD>
<HD3>Escrow Option Clause
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to escrow all premiums and fees for the payment on your flood insurance policy that covers any residential building or mobile home that is located in an area with special flood hazards and that secures your loan. If you choose this option:
</P>
<P>• Your payments will be deposited in an escrow account to be paid to the flood insurance provider.
</P>
<P>• The escrow amount for flood insurance will be added to the regular mortgage payment that you make to your lender or its servicer.
</P>
<P>• The payments you make into the escrow account will accumulate over time and the funds will be used to pay your flood insurance policy when your lender or servicer receives a notice from your flood insurance provider that the flood insurance premium is due.
</P>
<P>To choose this option, follow the instructions below. If you have any questions about the option, contact [Insert Name of Lender or Servicer] at [Insert Contact Information].
</P>
<P>[Insert Instructions for Selecting to Escrow]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 43263, July 21, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="761" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 761—REGISTRATION OF RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE LOAN ORIGINATORS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1751 <I>et seq.</I> and 5101 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 32545, May 31, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 761.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.3.36.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 761.1   Cross reference.</HEAD>
<P>The rules formerly at 12 CFR part 761 have been republished by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at 12 CFR part 1007, “S.A.F.E. Mortgage Licensing Act—Federal Registration of Residential Mortgage Loan Originators (Regulation G)”.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—REGULATIONS AFFECTING THE OPERATIONS OF THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="790" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 790—DESCRIPTION OF NCUA; REQUESTS FOR AGENCY ACTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1789, 1795f.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 45431, Aug. 30, 1993, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 790.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.37.0.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part contains a description of NCUA's organization and the procedures for public requests for action by the Board. Part 790 pertains to the practices of the National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) only and does not apply to credit union operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.37.0.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.2   Central and field office organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General organization.</I> NCUA is composed of the Board with a Central Office in Alexandria, Virginia, five Regional Offices, the Asset Management and Assistance Center, the Community Development Revolving Loan Program, and the NCUA Central Liquidity Facility (CLF).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Central Office.</I> The Central Office address is NCUA, 1775 Duke St., Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The NCUA Board.</I> NCUA is managed by its Board. The Board consists of three members appointed by the President, with the advice and consent of the Senate, for six-year terms. One Board member is designated by the President to be Chairman of the Board. The Chairman shall be the spokesman for the Board and shall represent the Board and the NCUA in its official relations with other branches of the government. A second member is designated by the Board to be Vice-Chairman. The Board is also responsible for management of the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund (NCUSIF) and serves as the Board of Directors of the CLF.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Secretary of the Board.</I> The Secretary of the Board is responsible for the secretarial functions of the Board. The Secretary's responsibilities include preparing agendas for meetings of the Board, preparing and maintaining the minutes for all official actions taken by the Board, and executing and maintaining all documents adopted by the Board or under its direction. The Secretary also serves as the Secretary of the CLF.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Asset Management and Assistance Center.</I> The President of the Asset Management and Assistance Center (AMAC) is responsible for monitoring, evaluating, disposing, and/or managing major assets acquired by NCUA; responsible for managing involuntary liquidations for all federally insured credit unions placed into involuntary liquidation including the orderly processing of payments of share insurance, sale and/or collection of loan portfolios, liquidation of other assets and achieving other recoveries, payments to creditors, and distributions to any uninsured shareholders. The President, AMAC, serves as a primary consultant with regional offices on asset sales or purchases to restructure problem case credit unions, as technical expert to evaluate specific areas of credit union operations, and as instructor in training classes; responsible to prepare and negotiate bond claims; responsible to manage or assist in the management of conservatorships. The address of AMAC is 4807 Spicewood Springs Road, Suite 5100, Austin, Texas 78759-8490.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>The Office of the Chief Financial Officer.</I> NCUA's Chief Financial Officer plans, organizes, implements, directs, and provides overall direction and leadership for:
</P>
<P>(i) Agency-wide strategic planning, budget formulation, and performance reporting;
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency's financial management system and financial reporting functions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Procurement and facilities management to include various administrative responsibilities such as property management, mail services, graphics support, supply management, printing, and publications management; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Managing the operations of the Operating and Insurance Funds, including payroll, travel policies, revenue assessment, and dividend distributions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Office of Examination and Insurance.</I> The Director of the Office of Examination and Insurance: formulates standards and procedures for examination and supervision of the community of federally insured credit unions, and reports to the Board on the performance of the examination program; manages the risk to the NCUSIF, to include overseeing the NCUSIF Investment Committee, monitoring the adequacy of NCUSIF reserves, analyzing the reasons for NCUSIF losses, formulating policies and procedures regarding the supervision of financially troubled credit unions, and evaluating certain requests for special assistance pursuant to Section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act and for certain proposed administrative actions regarding federally insured credit unions; serves as the Board expert on accounting principles and standards and on auditing standards; represents NCUA at meetings with the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA), Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) and General Accounting Office (GAO); and collects data and provides statistical reports. The Director is responsible for developing and conducting research in support of NCUA programs, and for preparing reports on research activities for the information and use of agency staff, credit union officials, state credit union supervisory authorities, and other governmental and private groups. The Director is also responsible for providing interest rate risk assessment, investment expertise and advice to the Board and agency staff and conducting research and development to assess risk areas of emerging products, delivery systems, infrastructure issues, and investments.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Office of the Executive Director.</I> The Executive Director reports to the entire NCUA Board. The Executive Director translates the NCUA Board policy decisions into workable programs, delegates responsibility for these programs to appropriate staff members, and coordinates the activities of the senior executive staff, which includes: The General Counsel; the Regional Directors; and the Office Directors for the Asset Management and Assistance Center, Chief Economist, Chief Financial Officer, Chief Information Officer, Consumer Financial Protection, Continuity and Security Management, Credit Union Resources and Expansion, Examination and Insurance, Human Resources, Minority and Women Inclusion, National Examinations and Supervision, and External Affairs and Communications. Because of the nature of the attorney/client relationship between the Board and General Counsel, the General Counsel may be directed by the Board not to disclose discussions and/or assignments with anyone, including the Executive Director. The Executive Director is otherwise to be privy to all matters within senior executive staff's responsibility. The Office of the Executive Director also supervises the agency's ombudsman. The ombudsman investigates complaints and recommends solutions on regulatory issues that cannot be resolved at the regional level.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Office of General Counsel.</I> The General Counsel reports to the entire NCUA Board. The General Counsel has overall responsibility for all legal matters affecting NCUA and for liaison with the Department of Justice. The General Counsel represents NCUA in all litigation and administrative hearings when such direct representation is permitted by law and, in other instances, assists the attorneys responsible for the conduct of such litigation. The General Counsel also provides NCUA with legal advice and opinions on all matters of law, and the public with interpretations of the Federal Credit Union Act, the NCUA Rules and Regulations, and other NCUA Board directives. The Office has responsibility for processing Freedom of Information Act requests and appeals. The General Counsel has responsibility for the drafting, reviewing, and publication of all items which appear in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> including rules, regulations, and notices required by law and carrying out the Board's responsibilities under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>The Office of Human Resources.</I> The Office of Human Resources provides a comprehensive program for the management of NCUA's human resources. This is done in support of NCUA's goal to recruit, develop, and retain a quality and representative workforce. The Director is responsible for managing NCUA's compensation program, for facilitating good organization design, for staffing positions through recruitment and merit promotion programs, and for maintaining an automated personnel records system. The Director is also responsible for the Board's performance management, incentive awards, employee assistance, and benefit programs. These programs are geared to foster healthy employee/management relations and to provide employees with good working conditions. The Director is also responsible for providing a comprehensive program for the training and development of NCUA's staff, including developing policy consistent with the Government Employees Training Act; providing training opportunities equitably so that all employees have the skills necessary to help meet the agency's mission; evaluating the agency's training and development efforts; and ensuring that the agencies training monies are spent in a cost efficient manner and in accordance with the law.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Office of the Chief Information Officer.</I> The Chief Information Officer has responsibility for the management and administration of NCUA's information resources. This includes the development, maintenance, operation, and support of information systems which directly support the Agency's mission, maintaining and operating the Agency's information processing infrastructure, responding to requests for releasable Agency information, and insuring all related material security and integrity risks are recognized and controlled as much as possible. The Chief Information Officer is also responsible for carrying out the Board's responsibilities under the Paperwork Reduction Act and in directing NCUA responses to reporting requirements. 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Office of the Inspector General.</I> The Inspector General reports directly to the Board and provides semi-annual reports regarding audit and investigation activities to the Board and the Congress. The Inspector General is responsible for: (a) Conducting independent audits and investigations of all NCUA programs and functions to promote efficiency; (b) reviewing policies and procedures to evaluate controls to prevent fraud, waste, and abuse; and (c) reviewing existing and proposed legislation and regulations to evaluate their impact on the economic and efficient administration of the Agency.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Office of External Affairs and Communications.</I> The Director of the Office of External Affairs and Communications is responsible for maintaining NCUA's relationship with the public and the media; for liaison with the U.S. Congress, and with other Executive Branch agencies concerning legislative matters; and for the analysis and development of legislative proposals and public affairs programs.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Credit Union Resources and Expansion.</I> This Office is responsible for coordinating NCUA policy and actions related to credit union chartering and field of membership, low income designation, and preserving credit unions run by minorities and/or serving minorities. The Office administers the Community Development Revolving Loan Program for Credit Unions (Program). This Program is funded from congressional appropriations and serves as a source of financial support, in the form of technical assistance grants and loans to low-income credit unions serving predominantly low-income members. The Program is governed by part 705 of subchapter A of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Office of Minority and Women Inclusion.</I> The Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) was established pursuant to the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010. The Director of OMWI reports to the NCUA Chairman. OMWI has the responsibility for all NCUA matters relating to diversity in management, employment, and business activities. Specific duties of the Office include developing and implementing standards for: Equal employment opportunity and the racial, ethnic, and gender diversity of the workforce and senior management of the NCUA; increased participation of minority-owned and women-owned businesses in the programs and contracts of the NCUA, including standards for coordinating technical assistance to such businesses; and assessing the diversity policies and practices of credit unions regulated by the NCUA. The Director of OMWI also serves as NCUA's Director of Equal Employment Opportunity.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>NCUA Central Liquidity Facility (CLF).</I> The CLF was created to improve general financial stability by providing funds to meet the liquidity needs of credit unions. It is a mixed-ownership government corporation under the Government Corporation Control Act (31 U.S.C. 9101 <I>et seq.</I>). The CLF is managed by the President, under the general supervision of the NCUA Board which serves as the CLF Board of Directors. The Chairman of the NCUA Board serves as the Chairman of the CLF Board of Directors. The Secretary of the NCUA Board serves as the Secretary of the CLF Board of Directors. The NCUA Board shall appoint the CLF President and Vice President. 
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Office of Consumer Financial Protection.</I> (i) The Office of Consumer Financial Protection contains two divisions:
</P>
<P>(A) The Division of Consumer Compliance Policy and Outreach; and
</P>
<P>(B) The Division of Consumer Affairs;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Office provides consumer financial services, including consumer education and complaint resolution; establishes, consolidates, and coordinates consumer financial protections within the agency; oversees the agency's fair lending examination program; and acts as the central liaison on consumer financial protection with other federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>The Office of Chief Economist.</I> The Office of Chief Economist is within the Office of the Executive Director and reports to the Deputy Executive Director. The office analyzes developments in key components of the economy and monitors trends and conditions in the domestic and international markets for money, credit, foreign exchange and commodities, and relates these trends to overall macroeconomic conditions and government monetary and fiscal policies for the purpose of evaluating effects on credit unions. The office provides advice and guidance to the NCUA Board, the Office of the Executive Director, and the Office of Capital Markets.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>The Office of Continuity and Security Management.</I> The Director of the Office of Continuity and Security Management is responsible for NCUA's emergency preparedness and for coordinating the response to natural disasters or national security events; for timely dissemination of information on cyber threats, terrorism, foreign criminal activity, and other national security threats to the agency or to the credit union sector; and for conducting risk assessments and managing executive branch programs to protect NCUA personnel and facilities, and to safeguard classified national security information.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>The Office of Business Innovation.</I> The Office of Business Innovation (OBI) serves as a central platform and facilitator for critical agency stakeholders to shape achievable solutions and capabilities to manage evolving business demands. This office manages the agency's Information Technology modernization and business process optimization efforts, from the internal and external business stakeholder perspective, of mission related systems that enable the NCUA's core mission of regulating and supervising credit unions. Additionally, OBI provides enterprise information security support in partnership with the Office of the Chief Information Officer (OCIO) and serves as a center point for enterprise data strategy and governance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Field Offices.</I> NCUA's programs are conducted through Regional Offices and the Office of National Examinations and Supervision.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Regional Offices.</I> (i) The NCUA has three Regional Offices:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Region name
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Area within region
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Office address
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eastern</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Connecticut, Delaware, District of Columbia, Maine, Maryland, Massachusetts, Michigan, New Hampshire, New Jersey, New York, Ohio, Pennsylvania, Rhode Island, Vermont, Virginia, and West Virginia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1900 Duke Street, Suite 300, Alexandria, VA 22314-3498.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Southern</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alabama, Arkansas, Florida, Georgia, Indiana, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, North Carolina, Oklahoma, Puerto Rico, South Carolina, Tennessee, Texas, and Virgin Islands</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">4807 Spicewood Springs Road, Suite 5200, Austin, TX 78759-8490.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Western</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Alaska, American Samoa, Arizona, California, Colorado, Guam, Idaho, Illinois, Iowa, Kansas, Minnesota, Missouri, Montana, Nebraska, Nevada, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oregon, South Dakota, Nevada, Utah, Washington, Wisconsin, and Wyoming</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1230 West Washington Street, Suite 301, Tempe, AZ 85281.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) A Regional Director is in charge of each Regional Office. The Regional Director manages NCUA's programs in the Region assigned in accordance with established policies. A Regional Director's duties include: Directing examination and supervision programs to promote and assure safety and soundness; assisting other offices in chartering and insurance issues; managing regional resources to meet program objectives in the most economical and practical manner; and maintaining good public relations with public, private, and governmental organizations, federal credit union officials, credit union organizations, and other groups which have an interest in credit union matters in the assigned region. The Regional Director maintains liaison and cooperation with other regional offices of federal departments and agencies, state agencies, city and county officials, and other governmental units that affect credit unions. The Regional Director is aided by Associate Regional Directors. Each region is divided into examiner districts, each assigned to a Supervisory Credit Union Examiner; groups of examiners are directed by a Supervisory Credit Union Examiner, each of whom in turn reports directly to one of the Associate Regional Directors.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Office of National Examinations and Supervision.</I> Similar to a Regional Director, the Director of the Office of National Examinations and Supervision manages NCUA's supervisory program over credit unions; however, it oversees the activities for corporate credit unions and of natural person credit unions defined as ONES credit unions under part 700 of this chapter, in accordance with established policies. The Director's duties include directing insurance, examination, and supervision programs to promote and assure safety and soundness; managing office resources to meet program objectives in the most economical and practical manner; and maintaining good public relations with public, private and governmental organizations, credit union officials, credit union organizations, and other groups which have an interest in credit union matters in the assigned office. The Director maintains liaison and cooperation with other regional offices of federal departments and agencies, state agencies, and other governmental units that affect credit unions. The Director is aided by a Deputy Director. Staff working in the office report to the Director of Supervision, who in turn reports to the Deputy Director. Field staff is divided into examiner districts, each assigned to a National Field Supervisor, each of whom in turn reports directly to the Deputy Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 45431, Aug. 30, 1993]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting § 790.2, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 790.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.37.0.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 790.3   Requests for action.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided by NCUA regulation, all applications, requests, and submittals for action by the NCUA shall be in writing and addressed to the appropriate office described in § 790.2. This will usually be one of the Regional Offices. In instances where the appropriate office cannot be determined, requests should be sent to the Office of External Affairs and Communications.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 45431, Aug. 30, 1993, as amended at 84 FR 38850, Aug. 8, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="791" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 791—RULES OF NCUA BOARD PROCEDURE; PROMULGATION OF NCUA RULES AND REGULATIONS; PUBLIC OBSERVATION OF NCUA BOARD MEETINGS 
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="30">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38274, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766, 1781, 1786, 1787, 1789, and 5 U.S.C. 552b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Rules of NCUA Board Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules contained in this subpart are the rules of procedure governing how the Board conducts its business. These rules concern the Board's exercise of its authority to act on behalf of NCUA; the conduct, scheduling and subject matter of Board meetings; and the recording of Board action. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.2   Number of votes required for board action.</HEAD>
<P>The agreement of at least two of the three Board members is required for any action by the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.3   Voting by proxy.</HEAD>
<P>Proxy voting shall not be allowed for any action by the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.4   Methods of acting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board meetings</I>—(1) <I>Applicability of the Sunshine Act.</I> The Government in the Sunshine Act (5 U.S.C. 552b, “Sunshine Act”) requires that joint deliberations of the Board be held in accordance with its open meetings provisions (5 U.S.C. 552b (b) through (f)). (Subpart C of this part contains NCUA's regulations implementing the Sunshine Act.) 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presiding officer.</I> The Chairman is the presiding officer, and in the Chairman's absence, the designated Vice Chairman shall preside. The presiding officer shall make procedural rulings. Any Board member may appeal a ruling made by the presiding officer. The appeal of a procedural ruling by the presiding officer shall be immediately considered by the Board, and a majority decision by the Board shall decide the procedural ruling. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notation voting.</I> Notation voting is the circulation of written memoranda and voting sheets to the office of each Board member simultaneously and the tabulation of responses.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Matters that may be decided by notation voting.</I> Notation voting may be used only for administrative or time sensitive matters, for example, enforcement or interagency actions requiring prompt Board action matters. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notation vote sheets.</I> Notation vote sheets will be used to record the vote tally on a notation vote. The Secretary of the Board has administrative responsibility over notation voting, including the authority to establish deadlines for voting, receive notation vote sheets, count votes, and determine whether further action is required. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Veto of notation voting.</I> In view of public policy for openness reflected in the Sunshine Act, each Board member is authorized to veto the use of notation voting for the consideration of any particular matter, and thus requires that the matter be placed on the agenda of the next regularly scheduled Board meeting that is held at least ten days after the date of the veto. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure of result.</I> A record is to be maintained of Board transactions by use of the notation voting procedure. Public disclosure of this record is determined by the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 62 FR 64267, Dec. 5, 1997; 70 FR 55517, Sept. 22, 2005; 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.5   Scheduling of board meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Meeting calls</I>—(1) <I>Regular meetings.</I> The Board will hold regular meetings each month unless there is no business or a quorum is not available. The Secretary of the Board will coordinate the dates for meetings. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special meetings.</I> The Chairman shall call special meetings either on the Chairman's own initiative or within fourteen days of a request from two Board members that is accompanied by an NCUA B-1 form and a Board Action Memorandum that states the specific issue(s) or action(s) to be considered by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of meetings</I>—(1) <I>Notifying the public.</I> The Sunshine Act and subpart C set forth the procedures for notifying the public of Board meetings. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notifying board members</I>—(i) <I>Special meetings.</I> Except in cases of emergency, as determined by a majority of the Board, each Board member is entitled to receive notice of any special meeting at least twenty-four hours in advance of such meeting. The notice shall set forth the place, day, hour, and nature of business to be transacted at the meeting. In cases of emergency a record of the vote, including a statement explaining the decision that an emergency exists, will be maintained. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Regular meetings.</I> Each Board member is entitled to receive notice of the agenda and/or notice of any changes in the subject matter of such meetings concurrent with the public release of such notices under the Sunshine Act. Each Board member shall be entitled to at least twenty-four hours advance notice of the consideration of a particular subject matter, except in cases of emergency as determined by a majority of the Board. In cases of emergency, a record of the vote, including a statement explaining the decision that an emergency exists, will be maintained. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 62 FR 64267, Dec. 5, 1997; 63 FR 5859, Feb. 5, 1998; 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.1.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.6   Subject matter of a meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agenda.</I> The Chairman is responsible for the final order of each meeting agenda. Items shall be placed on the agenda by determination of the Chairman or, at the request of any Board Member, an item will be placed on the agenda of the next regularly scheduled meeting provided that the request is submitted at least ten days in advance of the next regularly scheduled meeting and is accompanied by an NCUA B-1 form and a Board Action Memorandum that states the specific issue(s) or action(s) to be considered by the Board.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of recommended agenda items.</I> Recommended agenda items may be submitted to the Secretary of the Board by Board members, the Executive Staff (which includes all Office Directors and President of the Central Liquidity Facility), and Regional Directors. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 55208, Oct. 25, 1996, as amended at 62 FR 64267, Dec. 5, 1997; 63 FR 5859, Feb. 5, 1998]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Promulgation of NCUA Rules and Regulations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.2.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.7   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules contained in this subpart B pertain to the promulgation of NCUA rules and regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.2.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.8   Promulgation of NCUA rules and regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA's procedures for developing regulations are governed by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I>), the Regulatory Flexibility Act (5 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>), and NCUA's policies for the promulgation of rules and regulations as set forth in its Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statement 87-2, as amended by Interpretive Ruling and Policy Statements 03-2 and 15-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proposed rulemaking.</I> Notices of proposed rulemaking are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> except as specified in paragraph (d) of this section or as otherwise provided by law. A notice of proposed rulemaking may also be identified as a “request for comments” or as a “proposed rule.” The notice will include: 
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the nature of the rulemaking proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(2) Reference to the authority under which the rule is proposed; 
</P>
<P>(3) Either the terms or substance of the proposed rule or a description of the subjects and issues involved; and 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the effect of the proposed rule on federally insured state-chartered credit unions. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public participation.</I> After publication of notice of proposed rulemaking, interested persons will be afforded the opportunity to participate in the making of the rule through the submission of written data, views, or arguments, delivered within the time prescribed in the notice of proposed rulemaking, to the Secretary, NCUA Board, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. Interested persons may also petition the Board for the issuance, amendment, or repeal of any rule by mailing such petition to the Secretary of the Board at the address given in this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions to notice.</I> The following are not subject to the notice requirement contained in paragraph (b) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) Matters relating to agency management or personnel or to public property, loans, grants, benefits, or contracts; 
</P>
<P>(2) When persons subject to the proposed rule are named and either personally served or otherwise have actual notice thereof in accordance with law; 
</P>
<P>(3) Interpretive rules, general statements of policy, or rules of agency organization, procedure or practice, unless notice or hearing is required by statute; and 
</P>
<P>(4) If the Board, for good cause, finds (and incorporates the finding and a brief statement therefor in the rules issued) that notice and public procedure thereon are impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest, unless notice or hearing is required by statute. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective dates.</I> No substantive rule issued by NCUA shall be effective less than 30 days after its publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> except that this requirement may not apply to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Rules which grant or recognize an exemption or relieve a restriction; 
</P>
<P>(2) Interpretive rules and statements of policy; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any substantive rule which the Board makes effective at an earlier date upon good cause found and published with such rule.
</P>
<P>(f) NCUA has an Office of Management and Budget (OMB) control number for rulemakings containing an information collection within the meaning of the Paperwork Reduction Act (44 U.S.C. 3501). A list of OMB control numbers is available to the public for review online at <I>http://www.RegInfo.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 68 FR 31952, May 29, 2003; 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010; 78 FR 4038, Jan. 18, 2013; 80 FR 57517, Sept. 24, 2015; 84 FR 1610, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Public Observation of NCUA Board Meetings Under the Sunshine Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.9   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains regulations implementing subsections (b) through (f) of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b). The primary purpose of these regulations is to provide the public with the fullest access authorized by law to the deliberations and decisions of the Board, while protecting the rights of individuals and preserving the ability of the agency to carry out its responsibilities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the National Credit Union Administration; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subdivision of the Board</I> means a group composed of two Board members authorized by the Board to act on behalf of the agency; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Meeting</I> means any deliberations by two or more members of the Board or any subdivision of the Board that determine or result in the joint conduct or disposition of official agency business with the exception of: (1) Deliberations to determine whether a meeting or a portion thereof will be open or closed to public observation and whether information regarding closed meetings will be withheld from public disclosure; (2) deliberations to determine whether or when to schedule a meeting; and (3) infrequent dispositions of official agency business by sequential circulation of written recommendations to individual Board members (“notation voting procedure”), provided the votes of each Board member and the action taken are recorded for each matter and are publicly available, unless exempted from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552 (the Freedom of Information Act); 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public observation</I> means that a member or group of the public may listen to and observe any open meeting and may record in an unobtrusive manner any portion of that meeting by use of a camera or any other electronic device, but shall not participate in any meeting unless authorized by the Board; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public announcement</I> or <I>publicly announce</I> means making reasonable efforts under the particular circumstances to fully inform the public, especially those individuals who have expressed interest in the subject matters to be discussed or the decisions of the agency; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Sunshine Act</I> means the open meeting provisions of the “Government in the Sunshine Act” (5 U.S.C. 552b.) 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 78 FR 32546, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.11   Open meetings.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided in § 791.12(a), any portion of any meeting of the Board shall be open to public observation. The Board, and any subdivision of the Board, shall jointly conduct official agency business only in accordance with this subpart. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.12   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the procedures specified in § 791.14, the Board may close a meeting or any portion of a meeting from public observation or may withhold information pertaining to such meetings provided the Board has properly determined that the public interest does not require otherwise and that the meeting (or any portion thereof) or the disclosure of meeting information is likely to: 
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose matters that are: 
</P>
<P>(i) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interests of national defense or foreign policy; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) In fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Relate solely to internal personnel rules and practices; 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclose matters specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than section 552 of title 5 of the United States Code, the Freedom of Information Act), provided that such statute: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(4) Disclose trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential; 
</P>
<P>(5) Involve accusing any person of a crime, or formally censuring any person; 
</P>
<P>(6) Disclose information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Disclose investigatory records compiled for enforcement purposes, or information which if written would be contained in such records, but only to the extent that the production of such records or information would: 
</P>
<P>(i) Interfere with enforcement proceedings, 
</P>
<P>(ii) Deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, 
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclose the identity of a confidential source and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation, or by a Federal agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, confidential information furnished only by the confidential source, 
</P>
<P>(v) Disclose investigative techniques and procedures, or 
</P>
<P>(vi) Endanger the life or physical safety of law enforcement personnel; 
</P>
<P>(8) Disclose information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of Federal agencies responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; 
</P>
<P>(9) Disclose information the premature disclosure of which would be likely to (i)(A) lead to significant speculation in currencies, securities, or commodities, or (B) significantly endanger the stability of any financial institution, or (ii) be likely to significantly frustrate implementation of a proposed action,
</P>
<FP>except that this paragraph (a)(9) shall not apply in any instance where the Board has already disclosed to the public the content or nature of its proposed action, or where the Board is required by law to make such disclosure on its own initiative prior to taking final action on such proposal; or 
</FP>
<P>(10) Specifically concern the issuance of a subpoena, participation in a civil action or proceeding, an action in a foreign court or international tribunal, or an arbitration, or the initiation, conduct or disposition of a particular case of formal agency adjudication pursuant to the procedures in section 554 of title 5 of the United States Code or otherwise involving a determination on the record after opportunity for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to closing a meeting whose discussions are likely to fall within the exemptions stated in paragraph (a) of this section, the Board will balance the public interest in observing the deliberations of an exemptible matter and the agency need for confidentiality of the exemptible matter. In weighing these interests, the Board is assisted by the General Counsel as provided in § 791.16, by expressions of the public interest set forth in requests for open meetings as provided by § 791.15(b), and by the brief staff analysis of public interest which will accompany each staff recommendation that an agenda item be considered in a closed meeting. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.13   Public announcement of meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the Board shall, for each meeting, make a public announcement, at least one week in advance of the meeting, of the time, place and subject matter of the meeting, whether it will be open or closed to public observation, and the name and telephone number of the Secretary of the Board or the person designated by the Board to respond to requests for information about the meeting. 
</P>
<P>(b) Advance notice is required unless a majority of the members of the Board determine by a recorded vote that agency business requires that a meeting be called at an earlier date, in which case, the information to be announced in paragraph (a) of this section shall be publicly announced at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(c) A change, including a postponement or a cancellation, in the time or place of a meeting after a published announcement may be made only if announced at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(d) A change in or deletion of the subject matter of a meeting or any portion of a meeting or a redetermination to open or close a meeting or any portion of a meeting after a published announcement may be made only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) A majority of the Board determines by recorded vote that agency business so requires and that no earlier announcement of the change was possible and 
</P>
<P>(2) Public announcement of the change and of the vote of each member on such change shall be made at the earliest practicable time. 
</P>
<P>(e) Each meeting announcement or amendment thereof shall be posted on the Public Notice Bulletin Board in the reception area of the agency headquarters and may be made available by other means deemed desirable by the Board. Immediately following each public announcement required by this section, the stated information shall be submitted to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for publication. 
</P>
<P>(f) No announcement shall contain information which is determined to be exempt from disclosure under § 791.12(a). 
</P>
<P>(g) The agency shall maintain a mailing list of names and addresses of all persons who wish to receive copies of agency announcements of meetings open to public observation and amendments to such announcements. Requests to be placed on the mailing list should be made by telephoning or by writing to the Secretary of the Board. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.14   Regular procedure for closing meeting discussions or limiting the disclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A decision to close any portion of a meeting and to withhold information about any portion of a meeting closed pursuant to § 791.12(a) will be taken only when a majority of the entire Board votes to take such action. In deciding whether to close a meeting or any portion of a meeting or to withhold information, the Board shall independently consider whether the public interest requires an open meeting. A separate vote of the Board will be taken and recorded for each portion of a meeting to be closed to public observation pursuant to § 791.12(a) or to withhold information from the public pursuant to § 791.12(a). A single vote may be taken and recorded with respect to a series of meetings, or any portions of meetings which are proposed to be closed to the public, or with respect to any information concerning the series of meetings, so long as each meeting in the series involves the same particular matters and is scheduled to be held no more than thirty days after the initial meeting in such series. No proxies shall be allowed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any person whose interests may be directly affected by any portion of a meeting for any of the reasons stated in § 791.12(a) (5), (6) or (7) may request that the Board close such portion of the meeting. After receiving notice of a person's desire for any specified portion of a meeting to be closed, the Board, upon a request by one member, will decide by recorded vote whether to close the relevant portion or portions of the meeting. This procedure applies to requests received either prior or subsequent to the announcement of a decision to hold an open meeting. 
</P>
<P>(c) Within one day after any vote is taken pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the Board shall make publicly available a written copy of the vote taken indicating the vote of each Board member. Except to the extent that such information is withheld and exempt from disclosure, for each meeting or any portion of a meeting closed to the public, the Board shall make publicly available within one day after the required vote, a written explanation of its action, together with a list of all persons expected to attend the closed meeting and their affiliation. The list of persons to attend need not include the names of individual staff, but shall state the offices of the agency expected to participate in the meeting discussions. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.15   Requests for open meeting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Following any announcement that the Board intends to close a meeting or any portion of any meeting, any person may make a written request to the Secretary of the Board that the meeting or a portion of the meeting be open. The request shall be circulated to the members of the Board, and the Board, upon the request of one member, shall reconsider its action under § 791.14 before the meeting or before discussion of the matter at the meeting. If the Board decides to open a portion of a meeting proposed to be closed, the Board shall publicly announce its decision in accordance with § 791.13(e). If no request is received from a Board member to reconsider the decision to close a meeting or portion thereof prior to the meeting discussion, the Chairman of the Board shall certify that the Board did not receive a request to reconsider its decision to close the discussion of the matter. 
</P>
<P>(b) The request to open a portion of a meeting shall be submitted to the Secretary of the Board in advance of the meeting in question. The request shall set forth the requestor's interest in the matter to be discussed and the reasons why the requestor believes that the public interest requires that the meeting or portions thereof be open to public observation.
</P>
<P>(c) The submission of a request to open a portion of a meeting shall not act to stay the effectiveness of Board action or to postpone or delay the meeting unless the Board decides otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Secretary of the Board shall advise the requestor of the Board's consideration of the request to open a portion of the meeting as soon as practicable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.16   General counsel certification.</HEAD>
<P>For each meeting or any portion of a meeting closed to public observation under § 791.14, the General Counsel shall publicly certify, whether in his or her opinion, the meeting or portion thereof may be closed to public observation and shall state each relevant exemption provision of law. A copy of the certification, together with a statement from the presiding officer of the meeting setting forth the time and place of the meeting and the persons present, shall be retained as a part of the permanent meeting records. As part of the certification, the General Counsel shall recommend to the Board whether the public interest requires that the meeting or portions thereof proposed to be closed to public observation be held in the open. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.17   Maintenance of meeting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in those circumstances which are beyond the control of the agency, the Board shall maintain a complete transcript or electronic recording adequate to record fully the proceedings of each meeting, or any portion thereof, closed to public observation. However, for meetings closed under § 791.12(a) (8), (9)(i) or (10), the Board shall maintain either a transcript, a recording or a set of minutes. The Board shall maintain a complete electronic recording for each open meeting or any portion thereof. All records shall clearly identify each speaker. 
</P>
<P>(b) A set of minutes shall fully and clearly describe all matters discussed and shall provide a full and accurate summary of any actions taken, and the reasons for taking such action. Minutes shall also include a description of each of the views expressed by each person in attendance on any item and the record of any roll call vote, reflecting the vote of each member. All documents considered in connection with any action shall be identified in the minutes. 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall maintain a complete verbatim copy of the transcript, a complete copy of the minutes or a complete electronic recording of each meeting, or any portion of a meeting, closed to public observation, for at least two years after such meeting or for one year after the conclusion of any agency proceeding with respect to which the meeting or any portion was held, whichever occurs later. The agency shall maintain a complete electronic recording of each open meeting for at least three months after the meeting date. A complete set of minutes shall be maintained on a permanent basis for all meetings. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.3.11.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.18   Public availability of meeting records and other documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall make promptly available to the public, in the Public Reference Room, the transcript, electronic recording, or minutes of any meeting, deleting any agenda item or any item of the testimony of a witness received at a closed meeting which the Board determined, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, was exempt from disclosure under § 791.12(a). The exemption or exemptions relied upon for any deleted information shall be reflected on any record or recording. 
</P>
<P>(b) Copies of any transcript, minutes or transcription of a recording, disclosing the identity of each speaker, shall be furnished to any person requesting such information in the form specified in paragraph (a) of this section. Copies shall be furnished at the actual cost of duplication or transcription unless waived by the Secretary of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(c) Following each meeting or any portion of a meeting closed pursuant to § 791.12(a), the General Counsel or his designee, after consultation with the Secretary of the Board, shall determine which, if any, portions of the meeting transcript, electronic recording or minutes not otherwise available under 5 U.S.C. 552a (the Privacy Act) contain information which should be withheld pursuant to § 791.12(a). If, at a later time, the Board determines that there is no further justification for withholding any meeting record or other item of information from the public which has previously been withheld, then such information shall be made available to the public. 
</P>
<P>(d) Except for information determined by the Board to be exempt from disclosure pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, meeting records shall be promptly available to the public in the Public Reference Room. Meeting records include but are not limited to: The transcript, electronic recording or minutes of each meeting, as required by § 791.17(a); the notice requirements of §§ 791.13 and 791.14(c); and the General Counsel Certification along with the presiding officer's statement, as required by § 791.16. 
</P>
<P>(e) These provisions do not affect the procedures set forth in part 792, subpart A, governing the inspection and copying of agency records, except that the exemptions set forth in § 791.12(a) of this subpart and in 5 U.S.C. 552b(c) shall govern in the case of a request made pursuant to part 792, subpart A, to copy or inspect the meeting records described in this section. Any documents considered or mentioned at Board meetings may be obtained subject to the procedures set forth in part 792, subpart A. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[53 FR 29647, Aug. 8, 1988, as amended at 58 FR 17493, Apr. 5, 1993; 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Use of Supervisory Guidance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 7957, Feb. 3, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 791.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.4.11.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.19   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This subpart reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Interagency Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (Interagency Statement) and provides that the Statement is binding on the NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.4.11.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.20   Implementation of the Interagency Statement.</HEAD>
<P>The Statement describes the official policy of the NCUA with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 791.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.4.11.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 791.21   Rule of construction.</HEAD>
<P>Appendix A to this subpart does not alter the legal status of guidance that is authorized by statute, including but not limited to 12 U.S.C. 1781, 1786, and 1789, to create binding legal obligations.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—XXX</HEAD>

<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="31">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38274, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<P> 


</P>

<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.38.5.11.1.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Subpart D—Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD1>
<P>The National Credit Union Administration is responsible for promoting safety and soundness and effective consumer protection at Federal credit unions. The NCUA is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe its approach to supervisory guidance.
</P>
<HD2>Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
</HD2>
<P>(1) The NCUA issue various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, bulletins, policy statements, questions and answers, and frequently asked questions, to their respective supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the NCUA do not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the NCUA's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the agency's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the agency generally considers consistent with safety-and-soundness standards or other applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Government agencies issue regulations that generally have the force and effect of law. Such regulations generally take effect only after the agency proposes the regulation to the public and responds to comments on the proposal in a final rulemaking document.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>Ongoing Agency Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD2>
<P>(2) The NCUA is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
</P>
<P>(i) The NCUA intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the NCUA intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The agency will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
</P>
<P>(ii) Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention, matters requiring immediate attention, matters requiring board attention, documents of resolution, and supervisory recommendations) a supervised financial institution for, and the NCUA will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of safe and sound conduct, appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices, and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(iii) Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations, financial conditions, or other matters that could have a negative effect on the safety and soundness of the financial institution, could cause consumer harm, or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
</P>
<P>(iv) The NCUA also has at times sought, and may continue to seek, public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the agency to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
</P>
<P>(v) The NCUA will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
</P>
<P>(3) The NCUA will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in their communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourage supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="792" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 792—REQUESTS FOR INFORMATION UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT AND PRIVACY ACT, AND BY SUBPOENA; SECURITY PROCEDURES FOR CLASSIFIED INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 552, 552a, 552b; 12 U.S.C. 1752a(d), 1766, 1789, 1795f; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p.235; E.O. 13526, 75 FR 707, 2009 Comp. p.298.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—The Freedom of Information Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV7 N="20" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.20" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>General Purpose</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.01" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.20.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.01   What is the purpose of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the procedures you must follow to obtain records from NCUA under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), (5 U.S.C. 552).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="21" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.21" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records Publicly Available</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.02" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.21.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.02   What records does NCUA make available to the public for inspection and copying?</HEAD>
<P>Except for records that are exempt from public disclosure under FOIA as amended (5 U.S.C. 552) or are promptly published and copies are available for purchase, NCUA routinely makes the following five types of records available for you to inspect and copy and in an electronic format:
</P>
<P>(a) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the agency but not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(c) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(d) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, which have been released after March 31, 1997, in response to a FOIA request and which, because of the nature of their subject matter, NCUA determines have been or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests; or records that have been requested three (3) or more times; and
</P>
<P>(e) Indices of the documents referred to in this paragraph.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29712, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.03" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.21.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.03   How will I know which records to request?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA maintains current indices providing identifying information for the public for any matter referred to in § 792.02, issued, adopted, or promulgated after July 4, 1967. The listing of material in an index is for the convenience of possible users and does not constitute a determination that all of the items listed will be disclosed. NCUA has determined that publication of the indices is unnecessary and impractical. You may obtain copies of indices by making a request to the NCUA, Office of General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-2387, Attn: FOIA Officer or as indicated on the NCUA Web site at <I>www.ncua.gov.</I> The indices are available for public inspection and copying, provided at their duplication cost, and in an electronic format. The indices are:
</P>
<P>(a) NCUA Publications List: Manuals relating to general and technical information, booklets published by NCUA, and the Credit Union Directory. The NCUA Publications list is available on the NCUA web site.
</P>
<P>(b) Directives Control Index: A list of statements of policy, NCUA Instructions, Bulletins, Letters to Credit Unions, and certain internal manuals.
</P>
<P>(c) Popular FOIA Index: Records released in response to a FOIA request, that NCUA determines are likely to be the subject of subsequent requests because of the nature of their subject matter, or records that have been requested three (3) or more times. The Popular FOIA Index is available on the NCUA Web site.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008; 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29712, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.04" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.21.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.04   How can I obtain these records?</HEAD>
<P>You may obtain these types of records or information in the following ways:
</P>
<P>(a) You may obtain copies of the records referenced in § 792.02 by obtaining the index referred to in § 792.03 and following the ordering instructions it contains, or by making a written request to NCUA, Office of General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428, <I>Attn:</I> FOIA Officer or as indicated on the NCUA Web site.
</P>
<P>(b) If they were created by NCUA on or after November 1, 1996, records referenced in § 792.02 are available on the NCUA web site, found at <I>http://www.ncua.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.05" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.21.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.05   What is the significance of records made available and indexed?</HEAD>
<P>The records referred to in § 792.02 may be relied on, used, or cited as precedent by NCUA against a party, provided:
</P>
<P>(a) The materials have been indexed and either made available or published; or
</P>
<P>(b) The party has actual and timely notice of the materials' contents.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="22" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Records Available Upon Request</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.06" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.06   Can I obtain other records?</HEAD>
<P>Except with respect to records routinely made available under § 792.02 or published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> or to the extent that records are exempt under the FOIA, if you make a request for records in accordance with this subpart, NCUA will make such records available to you, including records maintained in electronic format, as long as you agree to pay the actual, direct costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.07" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.07   Where do I send my request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) You must send your written request to one of NCUA's Information Centers. The Central Office and Office of Inspector General are designated as Information Centers for the NCUA. The Freedom of Information Officer of the Office of General Counsel is responsible for the operation of the Information Center maintained at the Central Office. The Inspector General is responsible for the operation of the Inspector General Information Center. 
</P>
<P>(b) If you are seeking any NCUA record, other than those maintained by the Office of Inspector General, you should send your request to NCUA, Office of the General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428, <I>Attn:</I> FOIA Officer or as indicated on the NCUA Web site at <I>http://www.ncua.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) If you are seeking a record you think may be maintained by the NCUA Office of Inspector General, then you should send your request to the Inspector General, NCUA, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[68 FR 61737, Oct. 30, 2003; 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.08" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.08   What must I include in my request?</HEAD>
<P>Until an Information Center receives your FOIA request, it is not obligated to search for responsive records, meet time deadlines, or release any records. A request will not be considered received if it does not include all of the items in paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) Your request must be in writing and include the words “FOIA REQUEST” on both the envelope and request letter. The request letter must also include your name, address and a telephone number where you can be reached during normal business hours. If you would like us to respond to your FOIA request by electronic mail (e-mail), you should include your e-mail address.
</P>
<P>(b) A reasonable description of the records you seek. A reasonable description is one that enables an NCUA employee, who is familiar with the subject area of the request, to locate the record with a reasonable amount of effort.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement agreeing to pay all applicable fees or to pay fees up to a certain maximum amount, or requesting a fee reduction or waiver in accordance with § 792.27. If the actual fees are expected to exceed the maximum amount you indicate in your request, NCUA will contact you to see if you are willing to pay the estimated fees. If you do not want to pay the estimated fees, your request will be closed and no bill will be sent.
</P>
<P>(d) If other than paper copy, you must identify the form and format of responsive information you are requesting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 61737, Oct. 30, 2003; 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.09" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.09   What if my request does not meet the requirements of this subpart?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA need not accept or process your request if it does not comply with the requirements of this subpart. NCUA may return such a request to you with an explanation of the deficiency. You may then submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.10   What will NCUA do with my request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) On receipt of any request, the Information Center assigns it to the appropriate processing schedule, pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or is forwarded to NCUA by another agency, is the earlier of the date the appropriate Information Center actually receives the request or 10 working days after either of NCUA's Information Centers receives the request.
</P>
<P>(b) NCUA has a multi-track processing system. Requests for records that are readily identifiable by the Information Center and have already been cleared for public release may qualify for fast track processing. Requests that meet the requirements of § 792.18 will be processed on the expedited track. All other requests will be handled under normal processing procedures in the order they were received.
</P>
<P>(c) The Information Center will make the determination whether a request qualifies for fast track processing or expedited track processing. You may contact the Information Center to learn to which track your request has been assigned. If your request has not qualified for fast track processing, you will have an opportunity to limit the scope of material requested to qualify for fast track processing. Limitations of requests must be in writing. If your request for expedited processing is not granted, you will be advised of your right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) The Information Center will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks. However, in NCUA's discretion, a particular request may be processed out of turn.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon a determination by the appropriate Information Center to comply with your initial request for records, the records will be made promptly available to you. NCUA will also advise you of the right to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison. If we notify you of a denial of your request, we will include the reason for the denial. NCUA will also advise you of the right to utilize dispute resolution services offered by the FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(f) The Information Center will search for records responsive to your request and will generally include all records in existence at the time the search begins. If we use a different search cut-off date, we will inform you of that date.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 61737, Oct. 30, 2003; 73 FR 30478, May 28, 2008; 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008; 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29712, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.11   What kind of records are exempt from public disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>(a) All records of NCUA or any officer, employee, or agent thereof, are confidential, privileged and exempt from disclosure, except as otherwise provided in this subpart, if they are:
</P>
<P>(1) Records specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to an Executive Order.
</P>
<P>(2) Records related solely to NCUA internal personnel rules and practices. This exemption applies to internal rules or instructions which must be kept confidential in order to assure effective performance of the functions and activities for which NCUA is responsible and which do not materially affect members of the public. This exemption also applies to manuals and instructions to the extent that release of the information would permit circumvention of laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) Specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, where the statute either makes nondisclosure mandatory or establishes particular criteria for withholding information.
</P>
<P>(4) Records which contain trade secrets and commercial or financial information which relate to the business, personal or financial affairs of any person or organization, are furnished to NCUA, and are confidential or privileged. This exemption includes, but is not limited to, various types of confidential sales and cost statistics, trade secrets, and names of key customers and personnel. Assurances of confidentiality given by staff are not binding on NCUA.
</P>
<P>(5) Inter-agency or intra-agency memoranda or letters which would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with NCUA. This exemption preserves the existing freedom of NCUA officials and employees to engage in full and frank written or taped communications with each other and with officials and employees of other agencies. It includes, but is not limited to, inter-agency and intra-agency reports, memoranda, letters, correspondence, work papers, and minutes of meetings, as well as staff papers prepared for use within NCUA or in concert with other governmental agencies. In applying this exemption, the NCUA will not withhold records based on the deliberative process privilege if the records were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel, medical, and similar files (including financial files) pertaining to another person, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy without the subject person's written consent or proof of death. Written consent consists of a written statement by the subject person, authorizing the release of the information to you, and including either the subject person's notarized signature or a declaration made under penalty of perjury that the statement is true and correct. Proof of death consists of evidence that the subject of your request is deceased—such as a death certificate, a newspaper obituary, or some comparable proof of death. Files exempt from disclosure include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The personnel records of the NCUA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The personnel records voluntarily submitted by private parties in response to NCUA's requests for proposals; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Files containing reports, records or other material pertaining to individual cases in which disciplinary or other administrative action has been or may be taken.
</P>
<P>(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information:
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation on or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by the confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigation or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual. This includes, but is not limited to, information relating to enforcement proceedings upon which NCUA has acted or will act in the future.
</P>
<P>(8) Contained in or related to examination, operating or condition reports prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of NCUA or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions. This includes all information, whether in formal or informal report form, the disclosure of which would harm the financial security of credit unions or would interfere with the relationship between NCUA and credit unions.
</P>
<P>(b) We will provide any reasonably segregable portion of a requested record after deleting those portions that are exempt from disclosure under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56937, Oct. 1, 2008; 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29712, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.12   How will I know what records NCUA has determined to be exempt?</HEAD>
<P>As long as it is technically feasible and does not threaten an interest protected by the FOIA, we will:
</P>
<P>(a) Mark the place where we redacted information from documents released to you and note the exemption that protects the information from public disclosure; or
</P>
<P>(b) Make reasonable efforts to include with our response to you an estimate of the volume of information withheld.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.13   Can I get the records in different forms or formats?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA will provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested, such as computer disk, if the record is readily reproducible by us in that form or format, but we will not provide more than one copy of any record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.14   Who is responsible for responding to my request?</HEAD>
<P>The Freedom of Information Officer or designee is responsible for making the initial determination whether to grant or deny a request for information submitted to the Central Office Information Center. The Inspector General or designee is responsible for making the initial determination whether to grant or deny a request for information submitted to the Inspector General Information Center. This official may refer a request to an NCUA employee who is familiar with the subject area of the request. Other NCUA staff members may aid the official by providing information, advice, recommending a decision, or implementing a decision, but no NCUA employee other than an authorized official may make the initial determination. Referral of a request by the official to an employee will not affect the time limitation imposed in § 792.15 unless the request involves an unusual circumstance as provided in § 792.16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 61737, Oct. 30, 2003]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.15   How long will it take to process my request?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA will respond to requests within 20 working days, except:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) Where the running of such time is suspended while:
</P>
<P>(i) The Information Center awaits additional information from the requester. A suspension of time for this purpose may occur only once during the processing period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Information Center clarifies with the requester issues regarding the payment of fees pursuant to § 792.26.
</P>
<P>(2) The Information Center's receipt of the requester's response to the request for additional information or clarification ends the tolling period;
</P>
<P>(b) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and § 792.16, the time limit may be extended for:
</P>
<P>(1) An additional 10 working days as provided by written notice to you, stating the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination will be sent; or
</P>
<P>(2) Such alternative time period as mutually agreed by you and the Information Office, when NCUA notifies you that the request cannot be processed in the specified time limit. In such cases, NCUA will make available its FOIA Public Liaison and notify you of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008; 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29712, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.16   What unusual circumstances can delay NCUA's response?</HEAD>
<P>(a) In unusual circumstances, the time limits for responding to your request (or your appeal) may be extended by NCUA. If NCUA extends the time, it will provide you with written notice setting forth the reasons for such extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched. Our notice will not specify a date that would result in an extension for more than 10 working days, except as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. The unusual circumstances that can delay NCUA's response to your request are:
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for, and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which will be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of NCUA having a substantial interest in the subject matter.
</P>
<P>(b) If you, or you and a group of others acting in concert, submit multiple requests that NCUA believes actually constitute a single request, which would otherwise satisfy the unusual circumstances criteria specified in this section, and the requests involve related matters, then NCUA may aggregate those requests and the provisions of § 792.15(b) will apply.
</P>
<P>(c) If NCUA sends you an extension notice, it will also advise you that you can either limit the scope of your request so that it can be processed within the statutory time limit or agree to an alternative time frame for processing your request. In such cases, NCUA will make available its FOIA Public Liaison and notify you of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 30478, May 28, 2008; 81 FR 93794, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29713, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.22.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.17   What can I do if the time limit passes and I still have not received a response?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If NCUA does not comply with the time limits under § 792.15, or as extended under § 792.16, you do not have to pay search fees; requesters qualifying for free search fees will not have to pay duplication fees. However, if NCUA has extended the time limits under § 792.16 and must review more than 5,000 pages to respond to the request, NCUA may charge you search fees (or for requesters qualifying for free search fees, duplication fees), if NCUA has discussed with you via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than 3 good-faith attempts to do so) how you could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(b) You can seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison or dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services. You also can file suit against NCUA because you will be deemed to have exhausted your administrative remedies if NCUA fails to comply with the time limit provisions of this subpart. If NCUA can show that exceptional circumstances exist and that it is exercising due diligence in responding to your request, the court may retain jurisdiction and allow NCUA to complete its review of the records. You may have to pay search or duplication fees if a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist and has extended the time limits for NCUA's response by a court order. In determining whether exceptional circumstances exist, the court may consider your refusal to modify the scope of your request or arrange an alternative time frame for processing after being given the opportunity to do so by NCUA, when it notifies you of the existence of unusual circumstances as set forth in § 792.16.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 29713, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="23" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.23" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Expedited Processing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.23.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.18   What if my request is urgent and I cannot wait for the records?</HEAD>
<P>You may request expedited processing of your request if you can show a compelling need for the records. In cases where your request for expedited processing is granted or if NCUA has determined to expedite the response, it will be processed as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(a) To demonstrate a compelling need for expedited processing, you must provide a certified statement. The statement, certified by you to be true and correct to the best of your knowledge and belief, must demonstrate that:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(2) The requester is a representative of the news media, as defined in § 792.20, and there is urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged NCUA activity.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a request for expedited processing, the Information Center will notify you of the determination within ten working days of receipt of the request. If the Information Center denies your request for expedited processing, you may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 792.28, and NCUA will expeditiously respond to the appeal.
</P>
<P>(c) The Information Center will normally process requests in the order they are received in the separate processing tracks. However, in NCUA's discretion, a particular request may be processed out of turn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="24" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fees</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.19   How does NCUA calculate the fees for processing my request?</HEAD>
<P>We will charge you our allowable direct costs, unless they are less than the cost of billing you. Direct costs means those expenditures that NCUA actually incurs in searching for, duplicating and reviewing documents to respond to a FOIA request. Search means all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents. Searches may be done manually or by computer. Search does not include modification of an existing program or system that would significantly interfere with the operation of an automated information system. Review means examining documents to determine whether any portion should be withheld and preparing documents for disclosure. Fees are subject to change as costs increase. The current rate schedule is available on our web site at <I>http://www.ncua.gov.</I> We may contract with the private sector to locate, reproduce or disseminate records. NCUA will not contract out responsibilities that FOIA requires it to discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption, or determining whether to waive or reduce fees. The following labor and duplication rate calculations apply:
</P>
<P>(a) NCUA will charge fees at the following rates for manual searches for and review of records:
</P>
<P>(1) If search/review is done by clerical staff, the hourly rate for CU-5, plus 16% of that rate to cover benefits;
</P>
<P>(2) If search/review is done by professional staff, the hourly rate for CU-13, plus 16% of that rate to cover benefits.
</P>
<P>(b) NCUA will charge fees at the hourly rate for CU-13, plus 16% of that rate to cover benefits, plus the hourly cost of operating the computer for computer searches for records.
</P>
<P>(c) NCUA will charge the following duplication fees:
</P>
<P>(1) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of a document is $.10;
</P>
<P>(2) The fee for documents generated by computer is the hourly fee for the computer operator, plus the cost of materials (computer paper, tapes, labels, etc.);
</P>
<P>(3) If any other method of duplication is used, NCUA will charge the actual direct cost of duplication.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.20   What are the charges for each fee category?</HEAD>
<P>The fee category definitions are:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, an elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education operating a program or programs of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated for a “commercial” purpose as that term is used in paragraph (a) of this section and is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person actively gathering news for an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. Included within the meaning of public is the credit union community. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. You may consult the following chart to find the fees applicable to your request:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">If your fee category is
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">You'll receive
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">And you'll be charged
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commercial use</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 hours free search</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">search time
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 hours free review</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">review time
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 free pages</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">duplication
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, newsmedia</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited free search hours
<br/>Unlimited free review hours
<br/>100 free pages</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">duplication
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">All others</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2 hours free search</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">search time
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Unlimited free review hours
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">100 free pages</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">duplication</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.21   Will NCUA provide a fee estimate?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA will notify you of the estimated amount if fees are likely to exceed $25, unless you have indicated in advance a willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. You will then have the opportunity to confer with NCUA personnel to reformulate the request to meet your needs at a lower cost.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.22   What will NCUA charge for other services?</HEAD>
<P>Complying with requests for special services is entirely at the discretion of NCUA. NCUA will recover the full costs of providing such services to the extent it elects to provide them.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.23" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.23   Can I avoid charges by sending multiple, small requests?</HEAD>
<P>You may not file multiple requests, each seeking portions of a document or similar documents, solely to avoid payment of fees. If this is done, NCUA may aggregate any such requests and charge you accordingly.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.24" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.24   Can NCUA charge me interest if I fail to pay my bill?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA can assess interest charges on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of the bill. If you fail to pay your bill within 30 days, interest will be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717, and will accrue from the date of the billing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.25" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.25   Will NCUA charge me if the records are not found or are determined to be exempt?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA may assess fees for time spent searching and reviewing, even if it fails to locate the records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.26" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.24.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.26   Will I be asked to pay fees in advance?</HEAD>
<P>NCUA will require you to give an assurance of payment or an advance payment only when:
</P>
<P>(a) NCUA estimates or determines that allowable charges that you may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250. NCUA will notify you of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment where you have a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case where you have no history of payment; or
</P>
<P>(b) You have previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion. NCUA may require you to pay the full amount owed, plus any applicable interest, or demonstrate that you have, in fact, paid the fee, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before we begin to process a new request or a pending request from you.
</P>
<P>(c) If you are required to make an advance payment of fees, then the administrative time limits prescribed in § 792.16 will begin only after NCUA has received the fee payments described.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="25" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.25" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Fee Waiver or Reduction</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.27" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.25.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.27   Can fees be reduced or waived?</HEAD>
<P>You may request that NCUA waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the information you request is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government, and is not primarily in your commercial interest.
</P>
<P>(a) NCUA will make a determination of whether the public interest requirement above is met based on the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns identifiable operations or activities of the government, with a connection that is direct and clear;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the disclosable portions of the requested records are meaningfully informative about government operations and activities in order to be likely to contribute to an understanding of government operations or activities. Information already in the public domain, either in a duplicate or substantially identical form where nothing new would be added to the public's understanding, would not be meaningfully informative;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether disclosure of the requested information will contribute to public understanding, meaning a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public will be considered. Representatives of the news media are presumed to satisfy this consideration; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of government operations or activities. The level of public understanding before disclosure must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent.
</P>
<P>(b) If the public interest requirement is met, NCUA will make a determination on the commercial interest requirement based upon the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether you have a commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure; and if so
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the magnitude of your commercial interest is sufficiently large in comparison with the public interest in disclosure, that disclosure is primarily in your commercial interest.
</P>
<P>(c) If the required public interest exists and your commercial interest is not primary in comparison, NCUA will waive or reduce fees.
</P>
<P>(d) If you are not satisfied with our determination on your fee waiver or reduction request, you may submit an appeal to the General Counsel in accordance with § 792.28.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="26" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.26" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.28" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.26.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.28   What if I am not satisfied with the response I receive?</HEAD>
<P>If you are not satisfied with NCUA's response to your request, you can seek dispute resolution services from the FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services, and you can file an administrative appeal. Your appeal must be in writing and must be filed within 90 days from receipt of the initial determination (in cases of denials of the entire request or denials of a fee waiver or reduction), or from receipt of any records being made available pursuant to the initial determination (in cases of partial denials). In the response to your initial request, the Freedom of Information Act Officer or the Inspector General (or designee), will notify you that you may appeal any adverse determination to the Office of General Counsel. The General Counsel, or designee, as set forth in this paragraph, will:
</P>
<P>(a) Make a determination with respect to any appeal within 20 working days after the receipt of such appeal. If, on appeal, the denial of the request for records is, in whole or in part, upheld, the Office of General Counsel will notify you of the provisions for judicial review of that determination under FOIA. Where you do not address your appeal to the General Counsel, the time limitations stated above will be computed from the date of receipt of the appeal by the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) The General Counsel is the official responsible for determining all appeals from initial determinations. In case of this person's absence, the appropriate officer acting in the General Counsel's stead will make the appellate determination, unless such officer was responsible for the initial determination, in which case the Vice-Chairman of the NCUA Board will make the appellate determination.
</P>
<P>(c) All appeals should be addressed to the General Counsel in the Central Office and should be clearly identified as such on the envelope and in the letter of appeal by using the indicator “FOIA-APPEAL.” Failure to address an appeal properly may delay commencement of the time limitation stated in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, to take account of the time reasonably required to forward the appeal to the Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 68 FR 61737, Oct. 30, 2003; 73 FR 30478, May 28, 2008; 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008; 81 FR 93795, Dec. 22, 2016; 82 FR 29713, June 30, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="27" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.27" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Submitter Notice</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.29" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.27.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.29   If I send NCUA confidential commercial information, can it be disclosed under FOIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) If you submit confidential commercial information to NCUA, it may be disclosed in response to a FOIA request in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Confidential commercial information</I> means commercial or financial information provided to NCUA by a submitter that arguably is protected from disclosure under § 792.11(a)(4) because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity who provides business information, directly or indirectly, to NCUA.
</P>
<P>(c) Submitters of business information must use good faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, those portions of their submissions deemed to be protected from disclosure under § 792.11(a)(4). Such a designation shall expire ten years after the date of submission.
</P>
<P>(d) We will provide a submitter with written notice of a FOIA request or administrative appeal encompassing designated business information when:
</P>
<P>(1) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as confidential commercial information deemed protected from disclosure under § 792.11(a)(4); or
</P>
<P>(2) NCUA has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under § 792.11(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(e) A copy of the notice to the submitter will also be provided to the FOIA requester.
</P>
<P>(f) Through the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section, NCUA will afford the submitter a reasonable period of time within which to provide a detailed written statement of any objection to disclosure. The statement must describe why the information is confidential commercial information and why it should not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(g) Whenever we decide that we must disclose confidential commercial information over the objection of the submitter, we will send both the submitter and the FOIA requester, within a reasonable number of days prior to the specified disclosure date, a written notice which will include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objection was not sustained; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(h) If a requester brings suit to compel disclosure of confidential commercial information, we will promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) The notice requirements of paragraph (d) of this section do not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) We determine that the information should not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been lawfully published or has been officially made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law; or
</P>
<P>(4) The designation made by the submitter in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section appears obviously frivolous; except that in such case, NCUA will provide the submitter with written notice of any final administrative decision to disclose the information within a reasonable number of days prior to the specified disclosure date.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>


<DIV7 N="28" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.28" TYPE="SUBJGRP">
<HEAD>Release of Exempt Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.30" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.28.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.30   Is there a prohibition against disclosure of exempt records?</HEAD>
<P>Except those authorized officials listed in § 792.14, or as provided in §§ 792.31-792.32, and subpart C of this part, no officer, employee, or agent of NCUA or of any federally insured credit union shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt records of NCUA to any person other than those NCUA or credit union officers, employees, or agents properly entitled to such information for the performance of their official duties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 84 FR 1610, Feb. 5, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.31" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.28.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.31   Can exempt records be disclosed to credit unions, financial institutions and state or federal agencies?</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA Board, in its sole discretion, or any person designated by it in writing, may make available to certain governmental agencies and insured financial institutions copies of reports of examination and other documents, papers or information for their use, when necessary, in the performance of their official duties or functions. All reports, documents and papers made available pursuant to this paragraph shall remain the property of NCUA. No person, agency or employee shall disclose the reports or exempt records without NCUA's express written authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.32" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.1.28.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.32   Can exempt records be disclosed to investigatory agencies?</HEAD>
<P>The NCUA Board, or any person designated by it in writing, in its discretion and in appropriate circumstances, may disclose to proper federal or state authorities copies of exempt records pertaining to irregularities discovered in credit unions which may constitute either unsafe or unsound practices or violations of federal or state, civil or criminal law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV7>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Production of Nonpublic Records and Testimony of NCUA Employees in Legal Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 56054, Oct. 29, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 792.40" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.40   What does this subpart prohibit?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart prohibits the release of nonpublic records or the appearance of an NCUA employee to testify in legal proceedings except as provided in this subpart. Any person possessing nonpublic records may release them or permit their disclosure only as provided in this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Duty of NCUA employees.</I> (1) If an NCUA employee is served with a subpoena requiring him or her to appear as a witness or produce records, the employee must promptly notify the Office of General Counsel. The General Counsel has the authority to instruct NCUA employees to refuse appearing as a witness or to withhold nonpublic records. The General Counsel may let an NCUA employee provide testimony, including expert or opinion testimony, if the General Counsel determines that the need for the testimony clearly outweighs contrary considerations. 
</P>
<P>(2) If a court or other appropriate authority orders or demands expert or opinion testimony or testimony beyond authorized subjects contrary to the General Counsel's instructions, an NCUA employee must immediately notify the General Counsel of the order and respectfully decline to comply. An NCUA employee must decline to answer questions on the grounds that this subpart forbids such disclosure and should produce a copy of this subpart, request an opportunity to consult with the Office of General Counsel, and explain that providing such testimony without approval may expose him or her to disciplinary or other adverse action. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty of persons who are not NCUA employees.</I> (1) If you are not an NCUA employee but have custody of nonpublic records and are served with a subpoena requiring you to appear as a witness or produce records, you must promptly notify the NCUA about the subpoena. Also, you must notify the issuing court or authority and the person or entity for whom the subpoena was issued of the contents of this subpart. Notice to the NCUA is made by sending a copy of the subpoena to the General Counsel of the NCUA, Office of General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428. After receiving notice, the NCUA may advise the issuing court or authority and the person or entity for whom the subpoena was issued that this subpart applies and, in addition, may intervene, attempt to have the subpoena quashed or withdrawn, or register appropriate objections. 
</P>
<P>(2) After notifying the Office of General Counsel, you should respond to a subpoena by appearing at the time and place stated in the subpoena. Unless authorized by the General Counsel, you should decline to produce any records or give any testimony, basing your refusal on this subpart. If the issuing court or authority orders the disclosure of records or orders you to testify, you should continue to decline to produce records or testify and should advise the Office of General Counsel. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Penalties.</I> Anyone who discloses nonpublic records or gives testimony related to those records, except as expressly authorized by the NCUA or as ordered by a federal court after NCUA has had the opportunity to be heard, may face the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. Also, former NCUA employees, in addition to the prohibition contained in this subpart, are subject to the restrictions and penalties of 18 U.S.C. 207. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.41" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.41   When does this subpart apply?</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies if you want to obtain nonpublic records or testimony of an NCUA employee for legal proceedings. It doesn't apply to the release of records under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or the release of records to federal or state investigatory agencies under § 792.32.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 56054, Oct. 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 63789, Oct. 25, 2000] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.42" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.42   How do I request nonpublic records or testimony?</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request nonpublic records or the testimony of an NCUA employee, you must submit a written request to the General Counsel of the NCUA. If you serve a subpoena on the NCUA or an NCUA employee before submitting a written request and receiving a final determination, the NCUA will oppose the subpoena on the grounds that you failed to follow the requirements of this subpart. You may serve a subpoena as long as it is accompanied by a written request that complies with this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(b) To request nonpublic records that are part of the records of the Office of the Inspector General or the testimony of an NCUA employee on matters within the knowledge of the NCUA employee as a result of his or her employment with the Office of the Inspector General, you must submit a written request to the Office of the Inspector General. Your request will be handled in accordance with the provisions of this subpart except that the Inspector General will be responsible for those determinations that would otherwise be made by the General Counsel. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.43" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.43   What must my written request contain?</HEAD>
<P>Your written request for records or testimony must include: 
</P>
<P>(a) The caption of the legal proceeding, docket number, and name of the court or other authority involved. 
</P>
<P>(b) A copy of the complaint or equivalent document setting forth the assertions in the case and any other pleading or document necessary to show relevance. 
</P>
<P>(c) A list of categories of records sought, a detailed description of how the information sought is relevant to the issues in the legal proceeding, and a specific description of the substance of the testimony or records sought. 
</P>
<P>(d) A statement as to how the need for the information outweighs the need to maintain the confidentiality of the information and outweighs the burden on the NCUA to produce the records or provide testimony. 
</P>
<P>(e) A statement indicating that the information sought is not available from another source, such as a credit union's own books and records, other persons or entities, or the testimony of someone other than an NCUA employee, for example, retained experts. 
</P>
<P>(f) A description of all prior decisions, orders, or pending motions in the case that bear upon the relevance of the records or testimony you want. 
</P>
<P>(g) The name, address, and telephone number of counsel to each party in the case. 
</P>
<P>(h) An estimate of the amount of time you anticipate that you and other parties will need with each NCUA employee for interviews, depositions, or testifying. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.44" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.44   When should I make a request?</HEAD>
<P>You should submit your request at least 45 days before the date that you need the records or testimony. If you want to have your request processed in less time, you must explain why you couldn't submit the request earlier and why you need expedited processing. If you are requesting the testimony of an NCUA employee, the NCUA expects you to anticipate your need for the testimony in sufficient time to obtain it by a deposition. The General Counsel may deny a request for testimony at a legal proceeding unless you explain why you could not use deposition testimony. The General Counsel will determine the location of a deposition taking into consideration the NCUA's interest in minimizing the disruption for an NCUA employee's work schedule and the costs and convenience of other persons attending the deposition. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.45" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.45   Where do I send my request?</HEAD>
<P>You must send your request or subpoena for records or testimony to the attention of the General Counsel for the NCUA, Office of General Counsel, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428. You must send your request or subpoena for records or testimony from the Office of the Inspector General to the attention of the NCUA Inspector General, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.46" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.46   What will the NCUA do with my request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Factors the NCUA will consider.</I> The NCUA may consider various factors in reviewing a request for nonpublic records or testimony of NCUA employees, including: 
</P>
<P>(1) Whether disclosure would assist or hinder the NCUA in performing its statutory duties or use NCUA resources unreasonably, including whether responding to the request will interfere with NCUA employees' ability to do their work. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whether disclosure is necessary to prevent the perpetration of a fraud or other injustice in the matter or if you can get the records or testimony you want from sources other than the NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the request is unduly burdensome. 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether disclosure would violate a statute, executive order, or regulation, for example, the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a. 
</P>
<P>(5) Whether disclosure would reveal confidential, sensitive or privileged information, trade secrets or similar, confidential commercial or financial information, or would otherwise be inappropriate for release and, if so, whether a confidentiality agreement or protective order as provided in § 792.48(a) can adequately limit the disclosure. 
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the disclosure would interfere with law enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, or hamper NCUA research or investigatory activities. 
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the disclosure could result in NCUA appearing to favor one litigant over another. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other factors the NCUA determines to be relevant to the interests of the NCUA. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of your request.</I> The NCUA will process your request in the order it is received. The NCUA will try to respond to your request within 45 days, but this may vary depending on the scope of your request. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final determination.</I> The General Counsel makes the final determination on requests for nonpublic records or NCUA employee testimony. All final determinations are in the sole discretion of the General Counsel. The General Counsel will notify you and the court or other authority of the final determination of your request. In considering your request, the General Counsel may contact you to inform you of the requirements of this subpart, ask that the request or subpoena be modified or withdrawn, or may try to resolve the request or subpoena informally without issuing a final determination. You may seek judicial review of the final determination under the Administrative Procedure Act. 5 U.S.C. 702. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.47" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.47   If my request is granted, what fees apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> You must pay any fees associated with complying with your request, including copying fees for records and witness fees for testimony. The General Counsel may condition the production of records or appearance for testimony upon advance payment of a reasonable estimate of the fees. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees for records.</I> You must pay all fees for searching, reviewing and duplicating records produced in response to your request. The fees will be the same as those charged by the NCUA under its Freedom of Information Act regulations, § 792.19. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Witness fees.</I> You must pay the fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the court's rules for attendance by a witness. If no such fees are prescribed, the local federal district court rule concerning witness fees, for the federal district court closest to where the witness appears, will apply. For testimony by current NCUA employees, you must pay witness fees, allowances, and expenses to the General Counsel by check made payable to the “National Credit Union Administration” within 30 days from receipt of NCUA's billing statement. For the testimony of a former NCUA employee, you must pay witness fees, allowances, and expenses directly to the former employee, in accordance with 28 U.S.C. 1821 or other applicable statutes. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certification of records.</I> The NCUA may authenticate or certify records to facilitate their use as evidence. If you require authenticated records, you must request certified copies at least 45 days before the date they will be needed. The request should be sent to the General Counsel. You will be charged a certification fee of $5.00 per document. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver of fees.</I> A waiver or reduction of any fees in connection with the testimony, production, or certification or authentication of records may be granted in the discretion of the General Counsel. Waivers will not be granted routinely. If you request a waiver, your request for records or testimony must state the reasons why a waiver should be granted. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 56054, Oct. 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 63789, Oct. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.48" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.48   If my request is granted, what restrictions apply?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records.</I> The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of nonpublic records, including a requirement that you obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement with the other parties in the legal proceeding that limits access to and any further disclosure of the nonpublic records. The terms of a confidentiality agreement or protective order must be acceptable to the General Counsel. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, the NCUA may condition the release of nonpublic records on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testimony.</I> The General Counsel may impose conditions or restrictions on the testimony of NCUA employees, including, for example, limiting the areas of testimony or requiring you and the other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the transcript of the testimony will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which you requested the testimony. The General Counsel may also require you to provide a copy of the transcript of the testimony to the NCUA at your expense. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.49" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.3.29.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.49   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Legal proceedings</I> means any matter before any federal, state or foreign administrative or judicial authority, including courts, agencies, commissions, boards or other tribunals, involving such proceedings as lawsuits, licensing matters, hearings, trials, discovery, investigations, mediation or arbitration. When the NCUA is a party to a legal proceeding, it will be subject to the applicable rules of civil procedure governing production of documents and witnesses, however, this subpart will still apply to the testimony of former NCUA employees. 
</P>
<P><I>NCUA employee</I> means current and former officials, members of the Board, officers, directors, employees and agents of the National Credit Union Administration, including contract employees and consultants and their employees. This definition does not include persons who are no longer employed by the NCUA and are retained or hired as expert witnesses or agree to testify about general matters, matters available to the public, or matters with which they had no specific involvement or responsibility during their employment. 
</P>
<P><I>Nonpublic records</I> means any NCUA records that are exempt from disclosure under § 792.11, the NCUA regulations implementing the provisions of the Freedom of Information Act. For example, this means records created in connection with NCUA's examination and supervision of insured credit unions, including examination reports, internal memoranda, and correspondence, and, also, records created in connection with NCUA's enforcement and investigatory responsibilities. 
</P>
<P><I>Subpoena</I> means any order, subpoena for records or other tangible things or for testimony, summons, notice or legal process issued in a legal proceeding. 
</P>
<P><I>Testimony</I> means any written or oral statements made by an individual in connection with a legal proceeding including personal appearances in court or at depositions, interviews in person or by telephone, responses to written interrogatories or other written statements such as reports, declarations, affidavits, or certifications or any response involving more than the delivery of records. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 56054, Oct. 29, 1997, as amended at 65 FR 63789, Oct. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Security Procedures for Classified Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.50" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.4.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.50   Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The NCUA's Executive Director is designated as the person responsible for implementation and oversight of NCUA's program for maintaining the security of confidential information regarding national defense and foreign relations. The Executive Director receives questions, suggestions and complaints regarding all elements of this program. The Executive Director is solely responsible for changes to the program and assures that the program is consistent with legal requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) The Executive Director is the Agency's official contact for declassification requests regardless of the point of origin of such requests. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994; 67 FR 30774, May 8, 2002; 73 FR 30478, May 28, 2008; 78 FR 32546, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.51" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.4.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.51   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory review.</I> All declassification requests made by a member of the public, by a government employee or by an agency shall be handled by the Executive Director or the Executive Director's designee. Under no circumstances shall the Executive Director refuse to confirm the existence or nonexistence of a document under the Freedom of Information Act or the mandatory review provisions of other applicable law, unless the fact of its existence or nonexistence would itself be classifiable under applicable law. Although NCUA has no authority to classify or declassify information, it occasionally handles information classified by another agency. The Executive Director shall refer all declassification requests to the agency that originally classified the information. The Executive Director or the Executive Director's designee shall notify the requesting person or agency that the request has been referred to the originating agency and that all further inquiries and appeals must be made directly to the other agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Handling and safeguarding national security information.</I> All information classified “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential” shall be delivered to the Executive Director or the Executive Director's designee immediately upon receipt. The Executive Director shall advise those who may come into possession of such information of the name of the current designee. If the Executive Director is unavailable, the designee shall lock the documents, unopened, in the combination safe located in the secure facility of the Office of the Executive Director. If the Executive Director or the Executive Director's designee is unavailable to receive such documents, the documents shall be delivered in accordance with NCUA's mail handling procedures for classified information. Under no circumstances shall classified materials that cannot be delivered to the Executive Director or the Executive Director's designee be stored in a location other than in the safe designated by the Executive Director for information classified “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Storage.</I> All classified documents shall be stored in the safe designated by the Executive Director for information classified “Top Secret,” “Secret,” and “Confidential.” The combination shall be known only to the Executive Director and the Executive Director's designee holding the proper security clearance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Employee education.</I> (1) The Executive Director shall send a memo to every NCUA employee who:
</P>
<P>(i) Has a security clearance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) May handle classified materials.
</P>
<P>(2) This memo shall describe NCUA procedures for handling, reproducing and storing classified documents. The Executive Director shall require each such employee to review applicable Executive Orders on the classification of national security information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agency terminology.</I> The National Credit Union Administration's Central Office shall use the terms “Top Secret,” “Secret” or “Confidential” only in relation to materials classified for national security purposes.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 67 FR 30774, May 8, 2002; 73 FR 30478, May 28, 2008; 78 FR 32547, May 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—The Privacy Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998. Nomenclature change at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 792.52" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.52   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart governs requests made of NCUA under the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a). The regulation applies to all records maintained by NCUA which contain personal information about an individual and some means of identifying the individual, and which are contained in a system of records from which information may be retrieved by use of an identifying particular; sets forth procedures whereby individuals may seek and gain access to records concerning themselves and request amendments of those records; and sets forth requirements applicable to NCUA employees' maintaining, collecting, using, or disseminating such records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.53" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.53   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by NCUA, and that contains the name, or an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under NCUA's control from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose which is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by section 8 of title 13 of the United States Code.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of Systems of Records</I> means the annual notice published by NCUA in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> informing the public of the existence and character of the systems of records it maintains. The Notice of Systems of Records also is available on NCUA's Web site at <I>http://www.ncua.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(h) <I>System manager</I> means the NCUA official responsible for the maintenance, collection, use or distribution of information contained in a system of records. The system manager for each system of records is provided in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> publication of NCUA's annual systems of records notice.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Working day</I> means Monday through Friday excluding legal public holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.54" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.54   Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a system of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Individuals desiring to know if a system of records contains records pertaining to them, and individuals requesting access to records in a system of records pertaining to them should submit a written request to the appropriate system manager as identified in the Notice of Systems of Records. An individual who does not have access to the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and who is unable to determine the appropriate system manager to whom to submit a request may submit a request to the Privacy Officer, Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428, in which case the request will be referred to the appropriate system manager.
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals requesting notification of, or access to, records should include the words “PRIVACY ACT REQUEST” on both the letter and, as appropriate, the envelope, cover document or subject line; describe the record sought; the approximate dates covered by the record; and, the systems of record in which records are thought to be included. Individuals must also meet the identification requirements in § 792.55.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 56938, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.55" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.55   Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests and identification of records requested.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following standards are applicable to an individual submitting requests either in person or by mail under § 792.54:
</P>
<P>(1) Individuals appearing in person, if not personally known to the system manager responding to the request, must present a single document bearing a photograph (such as a passport or identification badge) or two items of identification which do not bear a photograph but do bear both a name and address (such as a driver's license or voter registration card);
</P>
<P>(2) Individuals submitting requests by mail or written electronic form, such as facsimile or e-mail, may establish identity by a signature, address, date of birth, employee identification number if any, and one other identifier such as a photocopy of driver's license or other document. If inadequate identifying information is provided, the system manager responding to the request may require further identifying information before any notification or responsive disclosure.
</P>
<P>(3) Individuals appearing in person or submitting requests by mail or written electronic form, who cannot provide the required documentation or identification, may provide an unsworn declaration subscribed to as true under penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(b) The parent or guardian of a minor or a person judicially determined to be incompetent shall, in addition to establishing identity of the minor or other person as required in paragraph (a) of this section, furnish a copy of a birth certificate showing parentage or a court order establishing guardianship.
</P>
<P>(c) A record may be disclosed to a representative of an individual to whom the record pertains provided the system manager receives written authorization from the individual who is the subject of the record.
</P>
<P>(d) An individual seeking to review records about that individual may be accompanied by another person of their own choosing. In such cases, the individual seeking access shall be required to furnish a written statement authorizing discussion of that individual's records in the accompanying person's presence. 
</P>
<P>(e) In addition to the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this section, the published “Notice of System of Records” for individual systems may include further requirements of identification where necessary to retrieve the individual records from the system. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989. Redesignated at 63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.56" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.56   Notice of existence of records, access decisions and disclosure of requested information; time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The system manager identified in the record access procedure section of the “Notice of Systems of Records” and identified in accordance with § 792.54(a), by an individual seeking notification of, or access to, a record, shall be responsible: 
</P>
<P>(1) For determining whether access is available under the Privacy Act; (2) for notifying the requesting individual of that determination; and (3) for providing access to information determined to be available. In the case of an individual access request made in person, information determined to be available shall be provided by allowing a personal review of the record or portion of a record containing the information requested and determined to be available, and the individual shall be allowed to have a copy of all or any portion of available information made in a form comprehensible to him. In the case of an individual access request made by mail, information determined to be available shall be provided by mail, unless the individual has requested otherwise. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following time limits shall be applicable to the required determinations, notification and provisions of access set forth in paragraph (a) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) A request concerning a single system of records which does not require consultation with or requisition of records from another agency will be responded to within 20 working days after receipt of the request. 
</P>
<P>(2) A request requiring requisition of records from or consultation with another agency will be responded to within 30 working days of receipt of the request. 
</P>
<P>(3) If a request under paragraphs (b)(1) or (2) of this section presents unusual difficulties in determining whether the records involved are exempt from disclosure, the Privacy Act Officer, in the Office of General Counsel, may extend the time period established by the regulations by 10 working days.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to allow an individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding, or any information exempted from the access provisions of the Privacy Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994; 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.57" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.57   Special procedures: Information furnished by other agencies; medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a request for records or information from NCUA includes information furnished by other Federal agencies, the system manager responsible for action on the request shall consult with the appropriate agency prior to making a decision to disclose or refuse access to the record, but the decision whether to disclose the record shall be made in the first instance by the system manager. 
</P>
<P>(b) Medical records may be disclosed on request to the individuals to whom they pertain unless disclosing the medical information directly to the requesting individual could have an adverse effect on the individual. Where medical information is potentially adverse to the requesting individual, the system manager responsible may advise the requesting individual that the medical records will be transmitted only to a physician designated in writing by the individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989. Redesignated at 63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.58" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.58   Requests for correction or amendment to a record; administrative review of requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An individual may request amendment of a record concerning that individual by submitting a written request, either in person or by mail, to the system manager identified in the Notice of Systems of Records. The words “PRIVACY ACT—REQUEST TO AMEND RECORD” should be written on the letter and the envelope. The request must describe the system of records containing the record sought to be amended, indicate the particular record involved, the nature of the correction sought, and the justification for the correction or amendment. An individual who does not have access to NCUA's Notice of Systems of Records, and to whom the appropriate address is otherwise unavailable, may submit a request to the Privacy Act Officer, Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, Virginia 22314-3428, in which case the request will then be referred to the appropriate system manager. The date of receipt of the request will be determined as of the date of receipt by the system manager.
</P>
<P>(b) Within 10 working days of receipt of the request, the appropriate system manager shall advise the individual that the request has been received. The appropriate system manager will promptly (under normal circumstances, not later than 30 working days after receipt of the request) advise the individual that the record will be amended or corrected, or inform the individual of rejection of the request to amend the record, the reason for the rejection, and the procedures established by § 792.59 for the individual to request a review of that rejection.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36041, 36042, July 15, 1994; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.59" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.59   Appeal of initial determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A rejection, in whole or in part, of a request to amend or correct a record may be appealed to the General Counsel within 30 working days of receipt of notice of the rejection. Appeals shall be in writing, and shall set forth the specific item of information sought to be corrected and the documentation justifying the correction. Appeals must be addressed to the Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428 with the words “PRIVACY ACT—APPEAL” written on the letter and the envelope. Appeals shall be decided within 30 working days of receipt unless the General Counsel, for good cause, extends such period for an additional 30 working days.
</P>
<P>(b) Within the time limits set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, the General Counsel shall either advise the individual of a decision to amend or correct the record, or advise the individual of a determination that an amendment or correction is not warranted on the facts, in which case the individual shall be advised of the right to provide for the record a “Statement of Disagreement” and of the right to further appeal pursuant to the Privacy Act. For records under the jurisdiction of the Office of Personnel Management, appeals will be made pursuant to that agency's regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appeal under this section is denied in whole or in part, an individual may file a statement of disagreement concisely stating the reason(s) for disagreeing with the denial for amendment or correction, and clearly identifying each part of any record that is disputed. The statement must be sent within 30 working days of the date of receipt of the notice of General Counsel's refusal to authorize amendment or correction, to the General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. Upon receipt of a statement of disagreement in accordance with this section, the General Counsel shall take steps to ensure that the statement is included in the system of records containing the disputed item and that the original item is so marked to indicate that there is a statement of dispute and where, within the system of records, that statement may be found.
</P>
<P>(d) When a record has been amended or corrected or a statement of disagreement has been furnished, the system manger for the system of records containing the record shall, within 30 days thereof, advise all prior recipients of information to which the amendment or statement of disagreement relates whose identity can be determined by an accounting made as required by the Privacy Act of 1974 or any other accounting previously made, of the amendment or statement of disagreement. When a statement of disagreement has been furnished, the system manager shall also provide any subsequent recipient of a disclosure containing information to which the statement relates with a copy of the statement and note the disputed portion of the information disclosed. A concise statement of the reasons for not making the requested amendment may also be provided if deemed appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) If access is denied because of an exemption, the individual will be notified of the right to appeal that determination to the General Counsel within 30 days after receipt. Appeals will be determined within 20 working days.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.60" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.60   Disclosure of record to person other than the individual to whom it pertains.</HEAD>
<P>No record or item of information concerning an individual which is contained in a system of records maintained by NCUA shall be disclosed by any means of communication to any person, or to another agency, without the prior written consent of the individual to whom the record or item of information pertains, unless the disclosure would be—
</P>
<P>(a) To an employee of the NCUA who has need for the record in the performance of duty;
</P>
<P>(b) Required by the Freedom of Information Act;
</P>
<P>(c) For a routine use as described in the “Notice of Systems of Records,” published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which describes the system of records in which the record or item of information is contained; 
</P>
<P>(d) To the Bureau of the Census for purposes of planning or carrying out a census or survey or related activity pursuant to the provisions of title 13 of the United States Code; 
</P>
<P>(e) To a recipient who has provided the NCUA with advance adequate written assurance that the record or item will be used soley as a statistical research or reporting record, and the record is to be transferred in a form that is not individually identifiable; 
</P>
<P>(f) To the National Archives and Records Administration as a record or item which has sufficient historical or other value to warrant its continued preservation by the United States Government, or for evaluation by the Archivist of the United States or the designee of the Archivist to determine whether the record has such value; 
</P>
<P>(g) To another agency or to an instrumentality of any governmental jurisdiction within or under the control of the United States for a civil or criminal law enforcement activity if the activity is authorized by law, and if the head of the agency or instrumentality has made a written request to NCUA specifying the particular portion desired and the law enforcement activity for which the record or item is sought; 
</P>
<P>(h) To a person pursuant to a showing of compelling circumstances affecting the health or safety of an individual if, upon such disclosure, notification is transmitted to the last known address of such individual; 
</P>
<P>(i) To either House of Congress, or, to the extent of matter within its jurisdiction, any committee or subcommittee thereof, any joint committee of Congress or subcommittee of any such joint committee; 
</P>
<P>(j) To the Comptroller General, or any of his authorized representatives, in the course of the performance of the duties of the Government Accountability Office;
</P>
<P>(k) Pursuant to the order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or 
</P>
<P>(l) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with section 3711(f) of title 31 of the United States Code (31 U.S.C. 3711(f)). 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.61" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.61   Accounting for disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each system manager identified in the “Notice of Systems of Records” must establish a system of accounting for all disclosures of information or records under the Privacy Act made outside NCUA. Accounting procedures may be established in the least expensive and most convenient form that will permit the system manager to advise individuals, promptly upon request, of the persons or agencies to which records concerning them have been disclosed. 
</P>
<P>(b) Accounting records, at a minimum, shall include the information disclosed, the name and address of the person or agency to whom disclosure was made, and the date of disclosure. When records are transferred to the National Archives and Records Administration for storage in records centers, the accounting pertaining to those records shall be transferred with the records themselves. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any accounting made under this section shall be retained for at least five years or the life of the record, whichever is longer, after the disclosure for which the accounting is made. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.62" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.62   Requests for accounting for disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>At the time of the request for access or correction or at any other time, an individual may request an accounting of disclosures made of the individual's record outside the NCUA. Request for accounting shall be directed to the system manager. Any available accounting, whether kept in accordance with the requirements of the Privacy Act or under procedures established prior to September 27, 1975, shall be made available to the individual, except that an accounting need not be made available if it relates to: 
</P>
<P>(a) A disclosure made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552); 
</P>
<P>(b) A disclosure made within the NCUA; 
</P>
<P>(c) A disclosure made to a law enforcement agency pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7); 
</P>
<P>(d) A disclosure which has been exempted from the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3) pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a (j) or (k). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.63" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.63   Collection of information from individuals; information forms.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The system manager for each system of records is responsible for reviewing all forms developed and used to collect information from or about individuals for incorporation into the system of records.
</P>
<P>(b) The purpose of the review shall be to eliminate any requirement for information that is not relevant and necessary to carry out an NCUA function and to accomplish the following objectives: 
</P>
<P>(1) To ensure that no information concerning religion, political beliefs or activities, association memberships (other than those required for a professional license), or the exercise of other First Amendment rights is required to be disclosed unless such requirement of disclosure is expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained, or unless pertinent to and within the scope of any authorized law enforcement activity;
</P>
<P>(2) To ensure that the form or accompanying statement makes clear to the individual which information by law must be disclosed and the authority for that requirement, and which information is voluntary; 
</P>
<P>(3) To ensure that the form or accompanying statement makes clear the principal purpose or purposes for which the information is being collected, and states concisely the routine uses that will be made of the information; 
</P>
<P>(4) To ensure that the form or accompanying statement clearly indicates to the individual the effects on him or her, if any, of refusing to provide some or all of the requested information; and
</P>
<P>(5) To ensure that any form requesting disclosure of a social security number, or an accompanying statement, clearly advises the individual of the statute or regulation requiring disclosure of the number, or clearly advises the individual that disclosure is voluntary and that no consequence will flow from a refusal to disclose it, and the uses that will be made of the number whether disclosed mandatorily or voluntarily. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any form which does not meet the objectives specified in the Privacy Act and this section shall be revised to conform thereto. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 73 FR 56939, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.64" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.64   Contracting for the operation of a system of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No NCUA component shall contract for the operation of a system of records by or on behalf of the Agency without the express approval of the NCUA Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) Any contract which is approved shall continue to ensure compliance with the requirements of the Privacy Act. The contracting component shall have the responsibility for ensuring that the contractor complies with the contract requirements relating to the Privacy Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.65" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.65   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Fees pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(f)(5) shall be assessed for actual copies of records provided to individuals on the following basis, unless the system manager determining access waives the fee because of the inability of the individual to pay or the cost of collecting the fee exceeds the fee: 
</P>
<P>(1) For copies of documents provided, copy fees as stated in NCUA's current FOIA fee schedule; and
</P>
<P>(2) For copying information, if any, maintained in nondocument form, the direct cost to NCUA may be assessed. 
</P>
<P>(b) If it is determined that access fees chargeable under this section will amount to more than $25, and the individual has not indicated in advance willingness to pay fees as high as are anticipated, the individual shall be notified of the amount of the anticipated fees before copies are made, and the individual's access request shall not be considered to have been received until receipt by NCUA of written agreement to pay. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989. Redesignated at 63 FR 14338, Mar. 25, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.66" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.66   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA maintains several systems of records that are exempted from some provisions of the Privacy Act. The system number and name, description of records contained in the system, exempted provisions and reasons for exemption are as follows:
</P>
<P>(b)(1) System NCUA-1, entitled “Employee Suitability Security Investigations Containing Adverse Information,” consists of adverse information about NCUA employees that had been obtained as a result of routine U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) security investigations. To the extent that NCUA maintains records in this system pursuant to OPM guidelines that may require retrieval of information by use of individual identifiers, those records are encompassed by and included in the OPM Central system of records number Central-9 entitled, “Personnel Investigations Records,” and thus are subject to the exemptions promulgated by OPM. Additionally, in order to ensure the protection of properly confidential sources, particularly as to those records which are not maintained pursuant to such Office of Personnel Management requirements, the records in these systems of records are exempted, pursuant to section k(5) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5)), from section (d) of the Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(d)). To the extent that disclosure of a record would reveal the identity of a confidential source, NCUA need not grant access to that record by its subject. Information which would reveal a confidential source shall, however, whenever possible, be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract shall be provided to the requesting individual. 
</P>
<P>(2) System NCUA-8, entitled, “Investigative Reports Involving Any Crime or Suspicious Activity Against a Credit Union, NCUA,” consists of investigatory or enforcement records about individuals suspected of involvement in violations of laws or regulations, whether criminal or administrative. These records are maintained in an overall context of general investigative information concerning crimes against credit unions. To the extent that individually identifiable information is maintained for purposes of protecting the security of any investigations by appropriate law enforcement authorities and promoting the successful prosecution of all actual criminal activity, the records in this system are exempted, pursuant to section k(2) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a (k)(2)), from sections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (f), and (g). The records in this system are also exempted pursuant to section (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), from sections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (f), and (g). Where possible, information that would identify a confidential source will be extracted or summarized in a manner that protects the source and the summary or extract will be provided to the requesting individual.
</P>
<P>(3) System NCUA-11, entitled, “Office of Inspector General (OIG) Investigative Records,” consists of OIG records of closed and pending investigations of individuals alleged to have been involved in criminal violations. The records in this system are exempted pursuant to sections (k)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), from sections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f). The records in this system are also exempted pursuant to section (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), from sections (c)(3), (c)(4), (d), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), and (g). NCUA need not make an accounting of previous disclosures of a record in this system of records available to its subject, and NCUA need not grant access to any records in this system of records by their subject. Further, whenever individuals request records about themselves and maintained in this system of records, the NCUA will advise the individuals only that no records available to them pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 have been identified. However, if review of the record reveals that the information contained therein has been used or is being used to deny the individuals any right, privilege or benefit for which they are eligible or to which they would otherwise be entitled under federal law, the individuals will be advised of the existence of the information and will be provided the information, except to the extent disclosure would identify a confidential source. Where possible, information which would identify a confidential source will be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract will be provided to the requesting individual.
</P>
<P>(4) System NCUA-13, entitled, “Litigation Case Files,” consists of investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes. Records in the Litigation Case Files system are used in connection with the execution of NCUA's legal and enforcement responsibilities. Because the system covers investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes, it is eligible for exemption under subsection (k)(2) of the Privacy Act. 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2). The Litigation Case Files system is exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I) and (f) of the Privacy Act. 5 U.S.C. 552a (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (H), (I) and (f). However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he would otherwise be entitled by federal law, or for which he otherwise would be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such records, the records or information will be made available to him, provided the identity of a confidential source is not disclosed. NCUA need not make an accounting of previous disclosures of a record in this system of records available to its subject, and NCUA need not grant access to any records in this system of records by their subject. Further, whenever individuals request records about themselves and maintained in this system of records, the NCUA will advise the individuals only that no records available to them pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 have been identified. However, if review of the record reveals that the information contained therein has been used or is being used to deny the individuals any right, privilege or benefit for which they are eligible or to which they would otherwise be entitled under federal law, the individuals will be advised of the existence of the information and will be provided the information, except to the extent disclosure would identify a confidential source. Where possible, information that would identify a confidential source will be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract will be provided to the requesting individual.
</P>
<P>(5) System NCUA-28, entitled “Anti-Harassment Case Tracking and Records” consists of investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes. Records in the Anti-Harassment Case Tracking and Records system are used in connection with the execution of NCUA's responsibilities relating to conducting internal investigations into allegations of harassment. Because the system covers investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes, it is eligible for exemption under subsection (k)(2) of the Privacy Act. The Anti-Harassment Case Tracking and Records system is exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f) of the Privacy Act. However, if an individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he would otherwise be entitled by Federal law, or for which he otherwise would be eligible, as a result of the maintenance of such records, the records or information will be made available to him, provided the identity of a confidential source is not disclosed. NCUA need not make an accounting of previous disclosures of a record in this system of records available to its subject, and NCUA need not grant access to any records in this system of records by their subject. Further, whenever individuals request records about themselves and maintained in this system of records, the NCUA will advise the individuals only that no records available to them pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 have been identified. However, if review of the record reveals that the information contained therein has been used or is being used to deny the individuals any right, privilege or benefit for which they are eligible or to which they would otherwise be entitled under Federal law, the individuals will be advised of the existence of the information and will be provided the information, except to the extent disclosure would identify a confidential source. Where possible, information that would identify a confidential source will be extracted or summarized in a manner which protects the source and the summary or extract will be provided to the requesting individual.


</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a “confidential source” means a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would remain confidential, or, prior to September 27, 1976, under an implied promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 60 FR 31912, June 19, 1995; 64 FR 57365, Oct. 25, 1999; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 73 FR 56940, Oct. 1, 2008; 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010; 91 FR 1075, Jan. 12, 2026]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.67" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.67   Security of systems of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each system manager, with the approval of the head of that Office, shall establish administrative and physical controls to insure the protection of a system of records from unauthorized access or disclosure and from physical damage or destruction. The controls instituted shall be proportional to the degree of sensitivity of the records, but at a minimum must insure: that records are enclosed in a manner to protect them from public view; that the area in which the records are stored is supervised during all business hours to prevent unauthorized personnel from entering the area or obtaining access to the records; and that the records are inaccessible during nonbusiness hours.
</P>
<P>(b) Each system manager, with the approval of the head of that Office, shall adopt access restriction to insure that only those individuals within the agency who have a need to have access to the records for the performance of duty have access. Procedures shall also be adopted to prevent accidental access to or dissemination of records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.68" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.68   Use and collection of Social Security numbers.</HEAD>
<P>The head of each NCUA Office shall take such measures as are necessary to ensure that employees authorized to collect information from individuals are advised that individuals may not be required without statutory or regulatory authorization to furnish Social Security numbers, and that individuals who are requested to provide Social Security numbers voluntarily must be advised that furnishing the number is not required and that no penalty or denial of benefits will flow from the refusal to provide it.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 792.69" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.39.5.29.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 792.69   Training and employee standards of conduct with regard to privacy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director of the Office of Human Resources, with advice from the Senior Privacy Act Officer, is responsible for training NCUA employees in the obligations imposed by the Privacy Act and this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The head of each NCUA Office shall be responsible for assuring that employees subject to that person's supervision are advised of the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the criminal penalties and civil liabilities provided therein, and that such employees are made aware of their responsibilities to protect the security of personal information, to assure its accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness, to avoid unauthorized disclosure either orally or in writing, and to insure that no information system concerning individuals, no matter how small or specialized, is maintained without public notice.
</P>
<P>(c) With respect to each system of records maintained by NCUA, Agency employees shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Collect no information of a personal nature from individuals unless authorized to collect it to achieve a function or carry out an NCUA responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) Collect from individuals only that information which is necessary to NCUA functions or responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(3) Collect information, wherever possible, directly from the individual to whom it relates;
</P>
<P>(4) Inform individuals from whom information is collected of the authority for collection, the purposes thereof, the routine uses that will be made of the information, and the effects, both legal and practical of not furnishing the information;
</P>
<P>(5) Not collect, maintain, use, or disseminate information concerning an individual's religious or political beliefs or activities or his membership in associations or organizations, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual has volunteered such information for his own benefit;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information is expressly authorized by statute to be collected, maintained, used, or disseminated; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Activities involved are pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized investigation or adjudication.
</P>
<P>(6) Advise their supervisors of the existence or contemplated development of any record system which retrieves information about individuals by individual identifier.
</P>
<P>(7) Maintain an accounting, in the prescribed form, of all dissemination of personal information outside NCUA, whether made orally or in writing;
</P>
<P>(8) Disseminate no information concerning individuals outside NCUA except when authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a or pursuant to a routine use as set forth in the “routine use” section of the “Notice of Systems of Records” published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain and process information concerning individuals with care in order to ensure that no inadvertent disclosure of the information is made either within or outside NCUA; and
</P>
<P>(10) Call to the attention of the proper NCUA authorities any information in a system maintained by NCUA which is not authorized to be maintained under the provisions of the Privacy Act, including information on First Amendment activities, information that is inaccurate, irrelevant or so incomplete as to risk unfairness to the individuals concerned.
</P>
<P>(c) Heads of offices within NCUA shall, at least annually, review the record systems subject to their supervision to ensure compliance with the provisions of the Privacy Act. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[54 FR 18476, May 1, 1989, as amended at 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994; 65 FR 63790, Oct. 25, 2000; 67 FR 30774, May 8, 2002; 73 FR 56940, Oct. 1, 2008]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="793" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 793—TORT CLAIMS AGAINST THE GOVERNMENT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1766.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>37 FR 5928, Mar. 23, 1972, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 49 FR 559, Jan. 5, 1984.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.1.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.1   Scope of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulation in this part shall apply only to claims asserted under the Federal Tort Claims Act, as amended, 28 U.S.C. 2671-2680, accruing on or after January 18, 1967, for money damages against the United States for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or death caused by the negligent or wrongful act or omission of any employee of the National Credit Union Administration while acting within the scope of his office of employment. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.2   Administrative claim; when presented; place of filing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of the regulations in this part, a claim shall be deemed to have been presented when the National Credit Union Administration receives, at a place designated in paragraph (b) of this section, an executed Standard Form 95 or other written notification of an incident accompanied by a claim for money damages in a sum certain for damage to or loss of property, for personal injury, or for death, alleged to have occurred by reason of the incident. A claim which should have been presented to the National Credit Union Administration but which was mistakenly addressed to or filed with another Federal agency, shall be deemed to be presented to the National Credit Union Administration as of the date that the claim is received by the National Credit Union Administration. A claim mistakenly addressed to or filed with the National Credit Union Administration shall forthwith be transferred to the appropriate Federal agency, if ascertainable, or returned to the claimant. 
</P>
<P>(b) A claim presented in compliance with paragraph (a) of this section may be amended by the claimant at any time prior to final action by the Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration or prior to the exercise of the claimant's option to bring suit under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a). Amendments shall be submitted in writing and signed by the claimant or his duly authorized agent or legal representative. Upon the timely filing of an amendment to a pending claim, the National Credit Union Administration shall have 6 months in which to make a final disposition of the claim as amended and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of an amendment. 
</P>
<P>(c) Forms may be obtained and claims may be filed with the regional office of the National Credit Union Administration having jurisdiction over the employee involved in the accident or incident, or with the Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration, 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314-3428. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5928, Mar. 23, 1972. Redesignated at 49 FR 559, Jan. 5, 1984, and amended at 59 FR 36041, July 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.3   Administrative claim; who may file.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A claim for injury to or loss of property may be presented by the owner of the property interest which is the subject matter of the claim, his duly authorized agent, or his legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(b) A claim for personal injury may be presented by the injured person, his duly authorized agent, or his legal representative. 
</P>
<P>(c) A claim based on death may be presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent's estate or by any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim under applicable State law. 
</P>
<P>(d) A claim for loss wholly compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer. A claim for loss partially compensated by an insurer with the rights of a subrogee may be presented by the insurer or the insured individually, as their respective interests appear, or jointly. Whenever an insurer presents a claim asserting the rights of a subrogee, he shall present with his claim appropriate evidence that he has the rights of a subrogee. 
</P>
<P>(e) A claim presented by an agent or legal representative shall be presented in the name of the claimant, be signed by the agent or legal representative, show the title or legal capacity of the person signing, and be accompanied by evidence of his authority to present a claim on behalf of the claimant as agent, executor, administrator, parent, guardian, or other representative. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.4   Administrative claims; evidence and information to be submitted.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Death.</I> In support of a claim based on death, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing the cause of death, date of death, and age of the decedent. 
</P>
<P>(2) Decedent's employment or occupation at the time of death, including his monthly or yearly salary or earnings (if any), and the duration of his last employment or occupation. 
</P>
<P>(3) Full names, addresses, birthdates, kinship, and marital status of the decedent's survivors, including those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent at the time of his death. 
</P>
<P>(4) Degree of support afforded by the decedent to each survivor dependent upon him for support at the time of his death. 
</P>
<P>(5) Decedent's general physical and mental condition before death. 
</P>
<P>(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the incident causing death, or itemized receipts or payments for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(7) If damages for pain and suffering before death are claimed, a physician's detailed statement specifying the injuries suffered, duration of pain and suffering, any drugs administered for pain and the decedent's physical condition in the interval between injury and death. 
</P>
<P>(8) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on the responsibility of the United States for the death or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Personal injury.</I> In support of a claim based on personal injury, the claimant may be required to submit the following evidence or information: 
</P>
<P>(1) A written report by his attending physician or dentist setting forth the nature and extent of the injury, nature and extent of the treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, and any diminished earning capacity. In addition, the claimant may be required to submit to a physical and/or mental examination by a physician employed or designated by the National Credit Union Administration. A copy or report of the examining physician shall be made available to the claimant upon the claimant's written request provided that claimant has, upon request, furnished the report referred to in the first sentence of this paragraph and has made or agrees to make available to the National Credit Union Administration any other physician's reports previously or thereafter made of the physical or mental condition which is the subject of his claim. 
</P>
<P>(2) Itemized bills for medical, dental, and hospital expenses incurred, or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses. 
</P>
<P>(3) If the prognosis reveals the necessity for future treatment, a statement of expected duration of and expenses for such treatment. 
</P>
<P>(4) If a claim is made for loss of time from employment, a written statement from his employer showing actual time lost from his employment, whether he is a full or part time employee, and wages or salary actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(5) If a claim is made for loss of income and the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing the amount of earnings actually lost. 
</P>
<P>(6) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on the responsibility of the United States for the personal injury or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Property damage.</I> In support of a claim for damages to or loss of property, real or personal, the claimant may be required to submit the following information or evidence: 
</P>
<P>(1) Proof of ownership. 
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed statement of the amount claimed with respect to each item of property. 
</P>
<P>(3) An itemized receipt of payment for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs. 
</P>
<P>(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, market value of the property as of date of damage, and salvage value, where repair is not economical. 
</P>
<P>(5) Any other evidence or information which may have a bearing on the responsibility of the United States for the injury to or loss of property or the damages claimed. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time limit.</I> All evidence required to be submitted by this section shall be furnished by the claimant within a reasonable time. Failure of a claimant to furnish evidence necessary for a determination of his claim within 3 months after a request therefore has been mailed to his last known address may be deemed an abandonment of the claim. The claim may be thereupon disallowed. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[37 FR 5928, Mar. 23, 1972, as amended at 75 FR 34623, June 18, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.5   Investigation, examination, and determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>When a claim is received, the constituent agency out of whose activities the claim arose shall make such investigation as may be necessary or appropriate for a determination of the validity of the claim and thereafter shall forward the claim, together with all pertinent material, and a recommendation based on the merits of the case, with regard to the allowance or disallowance of the claim, to the Office of General Counsel, National Credit Union Administration to whom authority has been delegated to adjust, determine, compromise and settle all claims hereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.6   Final denial of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Final denial of an administrative claim shall be in writing and sent to the claimant, his attorney, or legal representative by certified or registered mail. The notification of final denial may include a statement of the reasons for the denial and shall include a statement that, if the claimant is dissatisfied with the action of the National Credit Union Administration, he may file suit in an appropriate U.S. District Court not later than 6 months after the date of mailing the notification. 
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to the commencement of suit and prior to the expiration of the 6-month period after the date of mailing, by certified or registered mail of notice of final denial of the claim as provided in 28 U.S.C. 2401(b), a claimant, his duly authorized agent, or legal representative, may file a written request with the National Credit Union Administration for reconsideration of a final denial of a claim under paragraph (a) of this section. Upon the timely filing of a request for reconsideration the National Credit Union Administration shall have 6 months from the date of filing in which to make a final disposition of the claim and the claimant's option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) to bring suit shall not accrue until 6 months after the filing of a request for reconsideration. Final National Credit Union Administration action on a request for reconsideration shall be effected in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.7   Payment of approved claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon allowance of his claim, claimant or his duly authorized agent shall sign the voucher for payment, Standard Form 1145, before payment is made. 
</P>
<P>(b) When the claimant is represented by an attorney, the voucher for payment (S.F. 1145) shall designate both the claimant and his attorney as “payees.” The check shall be delivered to the attorney whose address shall appear on the voucher. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.8   Release.</HEAD>
<P>Acceptance by the claimant, his agent or legal representative, of any award, compromise or settlement made hereunder, shall be final and conclusive on the claimant, his agent or legal representative and any other person on whose behalf or for whose benefit the claim has been presented, and shall constitute a complete release of any claim against the United States and any employee of the Government whose act or omission gave rise to the claim, by reason of the same subject matter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.9   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>A person who files a false claim or makes a false or fraudulent statement in a claim against the United States may be liable to a fine of not more than $10,000 or to imprisonment of not more than 5 years, or both (18 U.S.C. 287-1001), and, in addition, to a forfeiture of $2,000 and a penalty of double the loss or damage sustained by the United States (31 U.S.C. 231). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 793.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.40.2.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 793.10   Limitation on National Credit Union Administration's authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An award, compromise or settlement of a claim hereunder in excess of $25,000 shall be effected only with the prior written approval of the Attorney General or his designee. For purposes of this paragraph, a principal claim and any derivative or subrogated claim shall be treated as a single claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised or settled hereunder only after consultation with the Department of Justice when, in the opinion of the National Credit Union Administration: 
</P>
<P>(1) A new precedent or a new point of law is involved; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A question of policy is or may be involved; or 
</P>
<P>(3) The United States is or may be entitled to indemnity or contribution from a third party and the National Credit Union Administration is unable to adjust the third party claim; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The compromise of a particular claim, as a practical matter, will or may control the disposition of a related claim in which the amount to be paid may exceed $25,000. 
</P>
<P>(c) An administrative claim may be adjusted, determined, compromised or settled only after consultation with the Department of Justice when it is learned that the United States or any employee, agent or cost-plus contractor of the United States is involved in litigation based on a claim arising out of the same incident or transaction. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="794" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 794—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF HANDICAP IN PROGRAMS OR ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE NATIONAL CREDIT UNION ADMINISTRATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>51 FR 22889, 22896, June 23, 1986, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 794.101" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part effectuates section 119 of the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, which amended section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to prohibit discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.102" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs or activities conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.103" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Assistant Attorney General</I> means the Assistant Attorney General, Civil Rights Division, United States Department of Justice.
</P>
<P><I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the agency. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, brailled materials, audio recordings, telecommunications devices and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunication devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, notetakers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement that contains the complainant's name and address and describes the agency's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the agency of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints filed on behalf of classes or third parties shall describe or identify (by name, if possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of buildings, structures, equipment, roads, walks, parking lots, rolling stock or other conveyances, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Handicapped person</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P>As used in this definition, the phrase: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive; digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any mental or psychological disorder, such as mental retardation, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities. The term <I>physical or mental impairment</I> includes, but is not limited to, such diseases and conditions as orthopedic, visual, speech, and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, mental retardation, emotional illness, and drug addiction and alocoholism.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Major life activities</I> includes functions such as caring for one's self, performing manual tasks, walking, seeing, hearing, speaking, breathing, learning, and working. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more major life activities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(i) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the agency as constituting such a limitation; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the agency as having such an impairment. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic preservation programs</I> means programs conducted by the agency that have preservation of historic properties as a primary purpose. 
</P>
<P><I>Historic properties</I> means those properties that are listed or eligible for listing in the National Register of Historic Places or properties designated as historic under a statute of the appropriate State or local government body. 
</P>
<P><I>Qualified handicapped person</I> means— 
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to preschool, elementary, or secondary education services provided by the agency, a handicapped person who is a member of a class of persons otherwise entitled by statute, regulation, or agency policy to receive education services from the agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to any other agency program or activity under which a person is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements and who can acheive the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that the agency can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; 
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other program or activity, a handicapped person who meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; and 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified handicapped person</I> is defined for purposes of employment in 29 CFR 1613.702(f), which is made applicable to this part by § 794.140. 
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (Pub. L. 93-112, 87 Stat. 394 (29 U.S.C. 794)), as amended by the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-516, 88 Stat. 1617), and the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2955). As used in this part, section 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs. 
</P>
<P><I>Substantial impairment</I> means a significant loss of the integrity of finished materials, design quality, or special character resulting from a permanent alteration.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.104-794.109" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.104-794.109   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.110" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.110   Self-evaluation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall, by August 24, 1987, evaluate its current policies and practices, and the effects thereof, that do not or may not meet the requirements of this part, and, to the extent modification of any such policies and practices is required, the agency shall proceed to make the necessary modifications. 
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the self-evaluation process by submitting comments (both oral and written). 
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall, until three years following the completion of the self-evaluation, maintain on file and make available for public inspection: 
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified, and 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.111" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.111   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The agency shall make available to employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons such information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the agency, and make such information available to them in such manner as the head of the agency finds necessary to apprise such persons of the protections against discrimination assured them by section 504 and this regulation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.112-794.129" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.112-794.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.130" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.130   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be excluded from participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The agency, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of handicap— 
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified handicapped person an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not equal to that afforded others; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a qualified handicapped person with an aid, benefit, or service that is not as effective in affording equal opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement as that provided to others; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide different or separate aid, benefits, or services to handicapped persons or to any class of handicapped persons than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified handicapped persons with aid, benefits, or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(v) Deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Otherwise limit a qualified handicapped person in the enjoyment of any right, privilege, advantage, or opportunity enjoyed by others receiving the aid, benefit, or service.
</P>
<P>(2) The agency may not deny a qualified handicapped person the opportunity to participate in programs or activities that are not separate or different, despite the existence of permissibly separate or different programs or activities.
</P>
<P>(3) The agency may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangments, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(4) The agency may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude handicapped persons from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to handicapped persons.
</P>
<P>(5) The agency, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap.
</P>
<P>(6) The agency may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap, nor may the agency establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified handicapped persons to discrimination on the basis of handicap. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the agency are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of nonhandicapped persons from the benefits of a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to handicapped persons or the exclusion of a specific class of handicapped persons from a program limited by Federal statute or Executive order to a different class of handicapped persons is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified handicapped persons.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.131-794.139" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.131-794.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.140" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.140   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified handicapped person shall, on the basis of handicap, be subjected to discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the agency. The definitions, requirements, and procedures of section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791), as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.141-794.148" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.141-794.148   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.149" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.149   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 794.150, no qualified handicapped person shall, because the agency's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by handicapped persons, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.150" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.150   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The agency shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. This paragraph does not—
</P>
<P>(1) Necessarily require the agency to make each of its existing facilities accessible to and usable by handicapped persons; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of historic preservation programs, require the agency to take any action that would result in a substantial impairment of significant historic features of an historic property; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 794.150(a) would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The agency may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The agency is not required to make structural changes in existing facilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section. The agency, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the agency shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified handicapped persons in the most integrated setting appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Historic preservation programs.</I> In meeting the requirements of § 794.150(a) in historic preservation programs, the agency shall give priority to methods that provide physical access to handicapped persons. In cases where a physical alteration to an historic property is not required because of § 794.150(a)(2) or (a)(3), alternative methods of achieving program accessibility include—
</P>
<P>(i) Using audio-visual materials and devices to depict those portions of an historic property that cannot otherwise be made accessible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assigning persons to guide handicapped persons into or through portions of historic properties that cannot otherwise be made accessible; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Adopting other innovative methods.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The agency shall comply with the obligations established under this section by October 21, 1986, except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made by August 22, 1989, but in any event as expeditiously as possible. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transition plan.</I> In the event that structural changes to facilities will be undertaken to achieve program accessibility, the agency shall develop, by February 23, 1987, a transition plan setting forth the steps necessary to complete such changes. The agency shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including handicapped persons or organizations representing handicapped persons, to participate in the development of the transition plan by submitting comments (both oral and written). A copy of the transition plan shall be made available for public inspection. The plan shall, at a minimum—
</P>
<P>(1) Identify physical obstacles in the agency's facilities that limit the accessibility of its programs or activities to handicapped persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe in detail the methods that will be used to make the facilities accessible;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the schedule for taking the steps necessary to achieve compliance with this section and, if the time period of the transition plan is longer than one year, identify steps that will be taken during each year of the transition period; and
</P>
<P>(4) Indicate the official responsible for implementation of the plan. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.151" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.151   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the agency shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as established in 41 CFR 101-19.600 to 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.152-794.159" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.152-794.159   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.160" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.160   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The agency shall take appropriate steps to ensure effective communication with applicants, participants, personnel of other Federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The agency shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford a handicapped person an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the agency shall give primary consideration to the requests of the handicapped person.
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the agency communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by telephone, telecommunication devices for deaf person (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems shall be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall ensure that interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, can obtain information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The agency shall provide signage at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the agency to take any action that it can demonstrate would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and adminstrative burdens. In those circumstances where agency personnel believe that the proposed action would fundamentally alter the program or activity or would result in undue financial and administrative burdens, the agency has the burden of proving that compliance with § 794.160 would result in such alteration or burdens. The decision that compliance would result in such alteration or burdens must be made by the agency head or his or her designee after considering all agency resources available for use in the funding and operation of the conducted program or activity, and must be accompanied by a written statement of the reasons for reaching that conclusion. If an action required to comply with this section would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the agency shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless ensure that, to the maximum extent possible, handicapped persons receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.161-794.169" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.161-794.169   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 794.170" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 794.170   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of handicap in programs or activities conducted by the agency.
</P>
<P>(b) The agency shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1613 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) The Director, Office of Administration, shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section. Complaints may be sent to NCUA, 1776 G Street NW., Room 7261, Washington, DC 20456. 
</P>
<P>(d) The agency shall accept and investigate all complete complaints for which it has jurisdiction. All complete complaints must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. The agency may extend this time period for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the agency receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity. 
</P>
<P>(f) The agency shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), or section 502 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended (29 U.S.C. 792), is not readily accessible to and usable by handicapped persons. 
</P>
<P>(g) Within 180 days of the receipt of a complete complaint for which it has jurisdiction, the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing— 
</P>
<P>(1) Findings of fact and conclusions of law; 
</P>
<P>(2) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and 
</P>
<P>(3) A notice of the right to appeal. 
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 90 days of receipt from the agency of the letter required by § 794.170(g). The agency may extend this time for good cause. 
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the head of the agency. 
</P>
<P>(j) The head of the agency shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the request. If the head of the agency determines that additional information is needed from the complainant, he or she shall have 60 days from the date of receipt of the additional information to make his or her determination on the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended with the permission of the Assistant Attorney General. 
</P>
<P>(l) The agency may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other Federal agencies, except that the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[51 FR 22889, 22896, June 23, 1986, as amended at 51 FR 22889, June 23, 1986; 59 FR 36042, July 15, 1994]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 794.171-794.999" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.41.0.29.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 794.171-794.999   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="796" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 796—POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTIONS FOR CERTAIN NCUA EXAMINERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1786(w).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>70 FR 72703, Dec. 7, 2005, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 796.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.1   What is the purpose and scope of this part?</HEAD>
<P>This part identifies those National Credit Union Administration (NCUA) employees who are subject to the special, post-employment restrictions in section 1786(w) of the Act and implements those restrictions as they apply to NCUA employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 796.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.2   Who is considered a senior examiner of the NCUA?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, an NCUA employee is considered to be the “senior examiner” for a federally insured credit union if the employee—
</P>
<P>(a) Has been authorized by NCUA to conduct examinations or inspections of federally insured credit unions on behalf of NCUA;
</P>
<P>(b) Has continuing, broad, and lead responsibility for examining or inspecting that federally insured credit union;
</P>
<P>(c) Routinely interacts with officers or employees of that federally insured credit union; and
</P>
<P>(d) Devotes a substantial portion of his or her time to supervising or examining that federally insured credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 796.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.3   What special post-employment restrictions apply to senior examiners?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Senior examiners of federally insured credit unions.</I> An officer or employee of the NCUA who performs work (onsite or offsite) as the senior examiner of a federally insured credit union for a total of two or more months during the last 12 months of individual's employment with NCUA may not, within one year after leaving NCUA employment, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director, or consultant from that credit union.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Example.</I> An NCUA resident corporate credit union examiner assigned to work at a federally insured, corporate credit union for two or more months during the last 12 months of that individual's employment with NCUA will be subject to the one-year prohibition of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 796.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.4   When do these special restrictions become effective and may they be waived?</HEAD>
<P>The post-employment restrictions in section 1786(w) of the Act and § 796.3 do not apply to any current or former NCUA employee, if:
</P>
<P>(a) The individual ceased to be an NCUA employee on or before December 17, 2005; or
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman of the NCUA Board certifies in writing and on a case-by-case basis that granting the senior examiner a waiver of the restrictions would not affect the integrity of the NCUA's supervisory program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 796.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.5   What are the penalties for violating these special post-employment restrictions?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Penalties under section 1786(w)(5) of the Act.</I> An NCUA senior examiner who violates the post-employment restrictions set forth in § 796.3 can be:
</P>
<P>(1) Removed from participating in the affairs of the relevant credit union and prohibited from participating in the affairs of any federally insured credit union for a period of up to five years; and, alternatively, or in addition,
</P>
<P>(2) Assessed a civil monetary penalty up to the amount specified in § 747.1001 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other penalties.</I> The penalties in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 796.3 also may be subject to other administrative, civil, and criminal remedies and penalties as provided in law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[70 FR 72703, Dec. 7, 2005, as amended at 80 FR 57289, Sept. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 796.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.42.0.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 796.6   What other definitions and rules of construction apply for purposes of this part?</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, a person shall be deemed to act as a “<I>consultant</I>” for a federally insured credit union or other company only if the person works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, such credit union.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="797" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 797—PROCEDURES FOR DEBT COLLECTION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1752a; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 31 U.S.C. 3711, 3716, 3720A, 3720D.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 11341, Mar. 3, 2008, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope, Purpose, Definitions and Delegation of Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.1" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.1.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes NCUA procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(a) This part applies to collections by NCUA from:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal employees who are indebted to NCUA;
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of NCUA who are indebted to other agencies or NCUA; and
</P>
<P>(3) Former federal employees who are indebted to NCUA.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) To debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (Title 26, U.S. Code), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>), or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) To a situation to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) applies;
</P>
<P>(3) In any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute;
</P>
<P>(4) To debts owed to or payments made by NCUA in connection with NCUA's conservatorship, liquidation, supervision, enforcement, or insurance responsibilities pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1786 and 1787, nor does it limit or affect NCUA's authority with respect to debts and/or claims pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1752(a) and 1766.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR parts 900 through 904); or any other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.2" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.1.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to implement federal statutes and regulatory standards authorizing NCUA to collect debts owed to the United States. This part is consistent with the following federal statutes and regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) DCIA at 31 U.S.C. 3711 (collection and compromise of claims); section 3716 (administrative offset), and section 3717 (interest and penalty on claims).
</P>
<P>(2) 5 U.S.C. 5514 (salary offset);
</P>
<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 5584 (waiver of claims for overpayment);
</P>
<P>(4) 31 CFR parts 900 through 904 (FCCS);
</P>
<P>(5) 5 CFR part 550, subpart K (salary offset);
</P>
<P>(6) 31 U.S.C. 3720D, 31 CFR 285.11 (administrative wage garnishment); and
</P>
<P>(7) 5 CFR 831.1801 through 1808 (U.S. Office of Personnel Management (OPM) offset).
</P>
<P>(b) Collectively, these statutes and regulations prescribe the manner in which federal agencies should proceed to establish the existence and validity of debts owed to the federal government and describe the remedies available to agencies to offset valid debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.3" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.1.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise or where the term is defined elsewhere in this subpart, the following definitions shall apply to this subpart.
</P>
<P>(a) Administrative offset, as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1), means withholding money payable by the United States government to, or held by the government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the government.
</P>
<P>(b) Agency means a department, agency, or instrumentality in the Executive, Judicial, or Legislative branch of the government.
</P>
<P>(c) Claim or debt means money or property owed by a person or entity to an agency of the federal government. A “claim” or “debt” includes amounts due the government, fees, services, overpayments, penalties, damages, interest, fines and forfeitures. For purposes of this part, a debt owed to NCUA constitutes a debt owed to the federal government.
</P>
<P>(d) Claim certification means a creditor agency's written request to a paying agency to effect an administrative or salary offset.
</P>
<P>(e) Creditor agency means an agency to which a claim or debt is owed.
</P>
<P>(f) Debtor means the person or entity owing money to the federal government.
</P>
<P>(g) Disposable pay means that part of current basic pay or other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. NCUA shall allow the deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105(b) through (f).
</P>
<P>(h) Employee means a current employee of NCUA or another agency.
</P>
<P>(i) FCCS means the Federal Claims Collection Standards published in 31 CFR part 900.
</P>
<P>(j) Hearing official means an individual who is authorized to conduct a hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed and issue a final decision on the basis of such hearing. A hearing official may not be under the supervision or control of NCUA when NCUA is the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(k) NCUA means the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(l) Paying agency means an agency of the federal government owing money to a debtor against which an administrative or salary offset can be effected.
</P>
<P>(m) Salary offset means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a debtor.
</P>
<P>(n) Waiver means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or nonrecovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to NCUA or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or any other law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.4" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.1.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.4   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Authority to conduct the following activities is delegated to the Executive Director to:
</P>
<P>(a) Initiate and carry out the debt collection process on behalf of NCUA, in accordance with the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(b) Accept or reject compromise offers, suspend, terminate or waive collection actions to the full extent of NCUA's legal authority under 12 U.S.C. 1752(a) and 1789; 31 U.S.C. 3711, and any other applicable statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) Report to consumer reporting agencies certain data pertaining to delinquent debts, where appropriate;
</P>
<P>(d) Use offset procedures, including administrative and salary offset, to collect debts; and
</P>
<P>(e) Take any other action necessary to promptly and effectively collect debts owed to the government in accordance with the policies contained herein and as otherwise provided by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.5" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.5   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>NCUA may collect a debt owed to the federal government from a person, organization, or other entity by administrative offset, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, where:
</P>
<P>(a) The debt is certain in amount;
</P>
<P>(b) Administrative offset is feasible, desirable, and not otherwise prohibited;
</P>
<P>(c) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired; and
</P>
<P>(d) Administrative offset is in the best interest of the federal government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.6" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.6   Administrative offset prior to completion of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to the completion of the procedures described in § 797.7, NCUA may effect administrative offset if failure to offset would substantially prejudice its ability to collect the debt, and if the time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit completion of the procedures described in § 797.7. Such prior administrative offset shall be followed promptly by the completion of the procedures described in § 797.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.7" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.7   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to collecting any debt by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, NCUA shall provide the debtor with a written Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset (the Notice) at least 30 calendar days before administrative offset is to commence.
</P>
<P>The Notice shall provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) The nature and amount of the debt, the intention of NCUA to collect the debt through administrative offset, and a statement of the rights of the debtor under this section, including the right to request a waiver under 5 U.S.C. 5584;
</P>
<P>(b) An opportunity to inspect and copy the records of NCUA related to the debt or receive copies if personal inspection is impractical;
</P>
<P>(c) The payment due date, which shall be 30 calendar days from the date after receipt of the initial demand for payment;
</P>
<P>(d) An opportunity for the debtor to obtain a review of the determination of indebtedness. Any request for review by the debtor shall be in writing and shall be submitted to NCUA within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice. NCUA may waive the time limits for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor. NCUA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when:
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires NCUA to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and NCUA determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, as for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this subpart is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although NCUA shall document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. In those cases where an oral hearing is not required by this subpart, NCUA shall make its determination on the request for waiver or reconsideration based upon a review of the written record.
</P>
<P>(e) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement for the repayment of the amount of the claim at the discretion of NCUA;
</P>
<P>(f) That charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed against the debtor, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717, if payment is not received by the payment due date, unless excused by the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(g) That if the debtor has not entered into an agreement with NCUA to pay the debt, has not requested NCUA to review the debt, or has not paid the debt by the payment due date, NCUA intends to collect the debt by all legally available means;
</P>
<P>(h) The name and address of the Executive Director whom the debtor shall send all correspondence relating to the debt; and
</P>
<P>(i) Other information, as may be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.8" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.8   Right to agency review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor disputes the claim, the debtor may request a review of NCUA's determination of the existence of the debt or of the amount of the debt. If only part of the claim is disputed, the undisputed portion should be paid by the payment due date.
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a review, the debtor shall submit a written request for review to the Executive Director within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice. The debtor's request for review shall state the basis on which the claim is disputed.
</P>
<P>(c) The NCUA shall promptly notify the debtor, in writing, that the NCUA has received the request for review. The NCUA shall conduct its review of the claim in accordance with § 797.9.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.9" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.9   Review procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless an oral hearing is required by § 797.7(d), NCUA's review shall be a review of the written record of the claim.
</P>
<P>(b) If an oral hearing is required, NCUA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for such a hearing. The oral hearing, however, shall not be an adversarial adjudication and need not take the form of a formal evidentiary hearing. All significant matters discussed at the hearing, however, will be carefully documented.
</P>
<P>(c) Any review required by this part, whether a review of the written record or an oral hearing, shall be conducted by a hearing official. When NCUA is the creditor agency and the debtor is an NCUA employee, NCUA shall contact any agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official. When NCUA is the creditor agency and the debtor is not an NCUA employee (i.e., the debtor is employed by another federal agency, also known as the paying agency), and NCUA cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing, NCUA may contact an agent of the paying agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official. The paying agency must cooperate with NCUA to provide a hearing official, as required by the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(d) The hearing official shall issue a final written decision based on documentary evidence and, if applicable, information developed at an oral hearing. The written decision shall be issued as soon as practicable after the review but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for review was received by NCUA, unless the debtor requests a delay in the proceedings. A delay in the proceedings shall be granted if the hearing official determines that there is good cause to grant the delay. If a delay is granted, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the review was postponed.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon issuance of the written opinion, NCUA shall promptly notify the debtor of the hearing official's decision. The notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.10" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.10   Special review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee subject to offset, or a voluntary repayment agreement, may, at any time, request a special review by the Executive Director of the amount of the offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.
</P>
<P>(b) To determine whether an offset would prevent the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses, the employee shall submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, the employee's spouse, and dependents indicating the employee's assets and liabilities.
</P>
<P>(c) If the employee requests a special review under this section, the employee shall file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement.
</P>
<P>(d) The Executive Director shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents, and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes an undue financial hardship on the employee. The Executive Director shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule. If the special review results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, NCUA shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.11" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.11   Interest, administrative costs, and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Where NCUA is the creditor agency, it shall assess interest, penalties and administrative costs pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904, unless excused in accordance with the FCCS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.12" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.12   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>NCUA shall refund promptly those amounts recovered by offset but later found not to be owed to the federal government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.13" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.13   Requests for administrative offset where NCUA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA may request that a debt owed to NCUA be collected by administrative offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another agency.
</P>
<P>(b) In requesting administrative offset, NCUA, as creditor, shall certify in writing to the agency holding funds of the debtor:
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) That NCUA has complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of the FCCS with respect to providing the debtor with due process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.14" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.14   Requests for administrative offset from other federal agencies where NCUA is the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any agency may request that funds due and payable to a debtor by NCUA be administratively offset in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor.
</P>
<P>(b) NCUA shall initiate the requested administrative offset only upon receipt of a written certification from the creditor agency that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor owes the debt, including the amount and basis of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The agency has prescribed regulations for the exercise of administrative offset; and
</P>
<P>(3) The agency has complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of the FCCS, with respect to providing the debtor with due process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.15" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.15   Administrative offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</HEAD>
<P>NCUA may request that monies payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset to collect debts owed to NCUA by the debtor. NCUA shall provide OPM with a written certification that states the debtor owes the debt, the amount of the debt, and that NCUA has complied with the agency's offset regulations, as well as, the requirements set forth in 31 CFR parts 900 through 904 and OPM's regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.16" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.2.29.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.16   Stay of offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's request for inspection of agency records, the offset is stayed for 15 calendar days beyond the date set for the record inspection.
</P>
<P>(b) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's offer to enter into a repayment agreement, the offset is stayed until the debtor is notified as to whether the proposed agreement is acceptable.
</P>
<P>(c) When a review is conducted, the offset is stayed until the creditor agency issues a final written decision. The written decision must be issued within 60 days after receipt of the debtor's request for review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.17" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.17   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA may collect debts owed by employees to the federal government by means of salary offset under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and this subpart. The procedures set forth in this subpart apply to situations where NCUA is attempting to collect a debt by salary offset that is owed to it by an individual employed by NCUA or by another agency; or where NCUA employs an individual who owes a debt to another agency. Since salary offset is a type of administrative offset, this subpart supplements subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures set forth in this subpart do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is attributable to clerical or administrative error or delay in processing pay documents that have occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, or any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less. However, at the time of any such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as possible, NCUA or its designated payroll agent shall provide the employee with a written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) Any negative adjustment to pay that arises from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a federal benefits program that requires periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. However, at the time that such adjustment is made, NCUA shall provide the employee a statement that informs the employee of the previous overpayment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.18" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.18   Notice requirements where NCUA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>Where NCUA seeks salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 as the creditor agency, NCUA shall first provide the employee with a written Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset (the Notice) at least 30 calendar days before salary offset is to commence. The Notice shall provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) That the Executive Director has determined that a debt is owed to NCUA and intends to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest is paid in full or otherwise resolved;
</P>
<P>(b) The amount of the debt and the factual basis for the debt;
</P>
<P>(c) A salary offset schedule stating the frequency and amount of each deduction, stated as a fixed dollar amount or percentage of disposable pay not to exceed 15 percent;
</P>
<P>(d) That in lieu of salary offset, the employee may propose a voluntary repayment plan to satisfy the debt on terms acceptable to NCUA, which must be documented in writing, signed by the employee and the Executive Director, and documented in NCUA's files;
</P>
<P>(e) NCUA's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, and a statement that such assessments must be made, unless excused in accordance with the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(f) That the employee has the right to inspect and copy NCUA records related to the debt, or to receive copies of such records if personal inspection is impractical;
</P>
<P>(g) That the employee has a right to request a hearing regarding the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the salary offset schedule proposed by NCUA, provided that the employee files a request for such a hearing with NCUA in accordance with § 797.20, and that such a hearing will be conducted by a hearing official not under the supervision or control of NCUA;
</P>
<P>(h) The procedure and deadline for requesting a hearing, including the name, address, and telephone number of the Executive Director or other designated individual to whom a request for a hearing must be sent;
</P>
<P>(i) That a request for hearing must be received by NCUA on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice, and that filing of a request for hearing will stay the collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(j) That NCUA will initiate salary offset procedures not less than 30 days from the date of the employee's receipt of the Notice, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(k) That if a hearing is held, the hearing official will issue a decision at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for the hearing, unless the employee requests a delay in the proceedings which is granted by the hearing official;
</P>
<P>(l) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752; penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731; criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, 1002; or any other applicable statutory authority; and
</P>
<P>(m) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584, and may exercise any other rights and remedies available under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.19" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.19   Review of NCUA records related to the debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee who desires to inspect or copy NCUA records related to the employee's debt must send a written request to the Executive Director or the individual designated in the Notice. The letter must be received in the office of that individual within 15 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the Notice.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a timely request submitted by the employee, the employee shall be notified of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy records related to the debt. If the employee is unable personally to inspect such records, NCUA shall arrange to send copies of such records to the employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.20" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.20   Procedures to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request a hearing, an employee must send a written request to the Executive Director within 15 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the Notice. If the employee files a request for a hearing after the expiration of the 15th calendar day, NCUA may accept the request if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond the employee's control or the employee failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(b) The request for a hearing must be signed by the employee and must fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that support the employee's position. The request must also state whether the employee is requesting an oral or documentary hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the request shall state why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of documentary evidence alone.
</P>
<P>(c) The failure of an employee to request a hearing will be considered an admission by the employee that the debt exists in the amount specified in the Notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.21" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.21   Hearing procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obtaining the services of a hearing official.</I> When the debtor is not an NCUA employee and NCUA cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before a hearing official, NCUA may request a hearing official from an agent of the paying agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, or as otherwise designated by the paying agency. When the debtor is an NCUA employee, NCUA may contact any agent of another agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must occur no more than 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be conducted by an examination of documents, the employee, within 30 calendar days, shall submit any evidence or written arguments that should be considered by the hearing official.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oral hearing.</I> (1) An employee who requests an oral hearing shall be provided an oral hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by an examination of the documents alone, as for example, when an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. The oral hearing need not be an adversarial adjudication and rules of evidence need not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing examiner interviews the employee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions followed by an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hearing by examination of documents.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, the hearing official shall make the determination based upon an examination of the documents.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Decision.</I> (1) The hearing official shall issue a written decision based upon evidence and information developed at the hearing or in the case of a documentary hearing the decision shall be based on the documents and written submissions. The decision shall be issued, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the hearing request was received by NCUA. If the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the hearing official shall be final and is considered to be an official certification regarding the existence and the amount of the debt for purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected by salary offset, but NCUA finds that the debt is still valid, NCUA may seek collection of the debt through other means in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts concerning the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to appear.</I> If the employee or the NCUA representative fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and issue the decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties. At the request of both parties, the hearing official may re-schedule the hearing date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.22" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.22   Voluntary repayment agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to the Notice, an employee may propose to repay the debt voluntarily in lieu of salary offset by submitting a written proposed repayment schedule to NCUA. Any proposal under this section must be received by NCUA within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice.
</P>
<P>(b) In response to a timely proposal by the employee, NCUA shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed repayment schedule is acceptable. NCUA has the discretion to accept, reject, or propose to the employee a modification of the proposed repayment schedule.
</P>
<P>(1) If NCUA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is unacceptable, the employee shall have 15 calendar days from the date of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If NCUA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is acceptable or the employee agrees to a modification proposed by NCUA, an agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and NCUA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.23" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.23   Certification where NCUA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) NCUA shall issue a certification in all cases where the hearing official determines that a debt exists or the employee admits the existence and amount of the debt, as for example, by failing to request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The certification must be in writing and state:
</P>
<P>(1) That the employee owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The date the federal government's right to collect the debt first accrued;
</P>
<P>(4) The date the employee was notified of the debt, the action(s) taken pursuant to NCUA's regulations, and the dates such actions were taken;
</P>
<P>(5) If the collection is to be made by lump-sum payment, the amount and date such payment will be collected;
</P>
<P>(6) If the collection is to be made in installments, the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment and, if NCUA wishes, the desired commencing date of the first installment, if a date other than the next officially established pay period; and
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that NCUA's regulation on salary offset has been approved by OPM pursuant to 5 CFR part 550, subpart K.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.24" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.24   Certification where NCUA is the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon issuance of a proper certification by NCUA or upon receipt of a proper certification from another creditor agency, NCUA shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset.
</P>
<P>(b) Such written notice of salary offset shall advise the employee of the:
</P>
<P>(1) Certification that has been issued by NCUA or received from another creditor agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and
</P>
<P>(3) Date and pay period when the salary offset will begin.
</P>
<P>(c) If NCUA is not the creditor agency, NCUA shall provide a copy of the notice to the creditor agency and advise the creditor agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 797.25" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.43.3.29.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 797.25   Recovery from final check or other payments due a separated employee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lump-sum deduction from final check.</I> In order liquidate a debt, a lump-sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay may be made pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 from any final salary payment due a former employee, whether the former employee was separated voluntarily or involuntarily.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Lump-sum deductions from other sources.</I> Whenever an employee subject to salary offset is separated from NCUA, and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary payment, NCUA may offset any later payments of any kind to the former employee to collect the balance of the debt pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="798-799" NODE="12:7.0.2.4.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 798-799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="VIII" NODE="12:7.0.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER VIII—FEDERAL FINANCING BANK</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="800-899" NODE="12:7.0.3.5.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 800-899 [RESERVED]










</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 30, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="8" NODE="12:8" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 8</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<RESERVED><E T="04">chapter ix [Reserved]</E>
</RESERVED></CHAPTI>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter x</E>—Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1001


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="IX [RESERVED] " NODE="12:8.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER IX [RESERVED]
</HEAD>
</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="X" NODE="12:8.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER X—CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION BUREAU</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1000" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1000 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1001" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1001—FINANCIAL PRODUCTS OR SERVICES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(xi); and 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1001.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1001.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Under 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(xi), the Bureau is authorized to define certain financial products or services for purposes of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010) (Title X) in addition to those defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(i)-(x). The purpose of this part is to implement that authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1001.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1001.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in Title X, in addition to the definitions set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(i)-(x), the term “financial product or service” means, for purposes of Title X:
</P>
<P>(a) Extending or brokering leases of an automobile, as automobile is defined by 12 CFR 1090.108(a), where the lease:
</P>
<P>(1) Qualifies as a full-payout lease and a net lease, as provided by 12 CFR 23.3(a), and has an initial term of not less than 90 days, as provided by 12 CFR 23.11; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not a financial product or service under 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) Providing financial data processing products or services by any technological means, including processing, storing, aggregating, or transmitting financial or banking data, alone or in connection with another product or service, where the financial data processing is not offered or provided by a person who, by operation of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(vii)(I) or (II), is not a covered person.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015, as amended at 89 FR 90989, Nov. 18, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1002" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1002—EQUAL CREDIT OPPORTUNITY ACT (REGULATION B)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1691b. Subpart B is also issued under 15 U.S.C. 1691c-2.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.1   Authority, scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope.</I> This part, known as Regulation B, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) pursuant to title VII (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). Except as otherwise provided herein, this subpart applies to all persons who are creditors, as defined in § 1002.2(l), other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376. Information collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 3170-0013.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to promote the availability of credit to all creditworthy applicants without regard to race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided the applicant has the capacity to contract); to the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from a public assistance program; or to the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The regulation prohibits creditor practices that discriminate on the basis of any of these factors. The regulation also requires creditors to notify applicants of action taken on their applications; to report credit history in the names of both spouses on an account; to retain records of credit applications; to collect information about the applicant's race and other personal characteristics in applications for certain dwelling-related loans; and to provide applicants with copies of appraisal reports used in connection with credit transactions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 35527, May 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, unless the context indicates otherwise or as otherwise defined in subpart B, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> means an extension of credit. When employed in relation to an account, the word use refers only to open-end credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Act</I> means the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (Title VII of the Consumer Credit Protection Act).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adverse action.</I> (1) The term means:
</P>
<P>(i) A refusal to grant credit in substantially the amount or on substantially the terms requested in an application unless the creditor makes a counteroffer (to grant credit in a different amount or on other terms) and the applicant uses or expressly accepts the credit offered;
</P>
<P>(ii) A termination of an account or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor's accounts; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A refusal to increase the amount of credit available to an applicant who has made an application for an increase.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the terms of an account expressly agreed to by an applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any action or forbearance relating to an account taken in connection with inactivity, default, or delinquency as to that account;
</P>
<P>(iii) A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at point of sale or loan, except when the refusal is a termination or an unfavorable change in the terms of an account that does not affect all or substantially all of a class of the creditor's accounts, or when the refusal is a denial of an application for an increase in the amount of credit available under the account;
</P>
<P>(iv) A refusal to extend credit because applicable law prohibits the creditor from extending the credit requested; or
</P>
<P>(v) A refusal to extend credit because the creditor does not offer the type of credit or credit plan requested.
</P>
<P>(3) An action that falls within the definition of both paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section is governed by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Age</I> refers only to the age of natural persons and means the number of fully elapsed years from the date of an applicant's birth.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who requests or who has received an extension of credit from a creditor, and includes any person who is or may become contractually liable regarding an extension of credit. For purposes of § 1002.7(d), the term includes guarantors, sureties, endorsers, and similar parties.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Application</I> means an oral or written request for an extension of credit that is made in accordance with procedures used by a creditor for the type of credit requested. The term application does not include the use of an account or line of credit to obtain an amount of credit that is within a previously established credit limit. A <I>completed application</I> means an application in connection with which a creditor has received all the information that the creditor regularly obtains and considers in evaluating applications for the amount and type of credit requested (including, but not limited to, credit reports, any additional information requested from the applicant, and any approvals or reports by governmental agencies or other persons that are necessary to guarantee, insure, or provide security for the credit or collateral). The creditor shall exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining such information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Business credit</I> refers to extensions of credit primarily for business or commercial (including agricultural) purposes, but excluding extensions of credit of the types described in § 1002.3(a)-(d).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit extended to a natural person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Contractually liable</I> means expressly obligated to repay all debts arising on an account by reason of an agreement to that effect.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Credit</I> means the right granted by a creditor to an applicant to defer payment of a debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Credit card</I> means any card, plate, coupon book, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain money, property, or services on credit.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Creditor</I> means a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly participates in a credit decision, including setting the terms of the credit. The term creditor includes a creditor's assignee, transferee, or subrogee who so participates. For purposes of §§ 1002.4(a) and (b), the term creditor also includes a person who, in the ordinary course of business, regularly refers applicants or prospective applicants to creditors, or selects or offers to select creditors to whom requests for credit may be made. A person is not a creditor regarding any violation of the Act or this part committed by another creditor unless the person knew or had reasonable notice of the act, policy, or practice that constituted the violation before becoming involved in the credit transaction. The term does not include a person whose only participation in a credit transaction involves honoring a credit card.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Credit transaction</I> means every aspect of an applicant's dealings with a creditor regarding an application for credit or an existing extension of credit (including, but not limited to, information requirements; investigation procedures; standards of creditworthiness; terms of credit; furnishing of credit information; revocation, alteration, or termination of credit; and collection procedures).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Discriminate against an applicant</I> means to treat an applicant less favorably than other applicants.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Elderly</I> means age 62 or older.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems</I>—(1) <I>A credit scoring system</I> is a system that evaluates an applicant's creditworthiness mechanically, based on key attributes of the applicant and aspects of the transaction, and that determines, alone or in conjunction with an evaluation of additional information about the applicant, whether an applicant is deemed creditworthy. To qualify as an <I>empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system,</I> the system must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on data that are derived from an empirical comparison of sample groups or the population of creditworthy and non-creditworthy applicants who applied for credit within a reasonable preceding period of time;
</P>
<P>(ii) Developed for the purpose of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants with respect to the legitimate business interests of the creditor utilizing the system (including, but not limited to, minimizing bad debt losses and operating expenses in accordance with the creditor's business judgment);
</P>
<P>(iii) Developed and validated using accepted statistical principles and methodology; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Periodically revalidated by the use of appropriate statistical principles and methodology and adjusted as necessary to maintain predictive ability.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor may use an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system obtained from another person or may obtain credit experience from which to develop such a system. Any such system must satisfy the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section; if the creditor is unable during the development process to validate the system based on its own credit experience in accordance with paragraph (p)(1) of this section, the system must be validated when sufficient credit experience becomes available. A system that fails this validity test is no longer an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system for that creditor.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Extend credit</I> and <I>extension of credit</I> mean the granting of credit in any form (including, but not limited to, credit granted in addition to any existing credit or credit limit; credit granted pursuant to an open-end credit plan; the refinancing or other renewal of credit, including the issuance of a new credit card in place of an expiring credit card or in substitution for an existing credit card; the consolidation of two or more obligations; or the continuance of existing credit without any special effort to collect at or after maturity).
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Good faith</I> means honesty in fact in the conduct or transaction.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Inadvertent error</I> means a mechanical, electronic, or clerical error that a creditor demonstrates was not intentional and occurred notwithstanding the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Judgmental system of evaluating applicants</I> means any system for evaluating the creditworthiness of an applicant other than an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Marital status</I> means the state of being unmarried, married, or separated, as defined by applicable state law. The term “unmarried” includes persons who are single, divorced, or widowed.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Negative factor or value,</I> in relation to the age of elderly applicants, means utilizing a factor, value, or weight that is less favorable regarding elderly applicants than the creditor's experience warrants or is less favorable than the factor, value, or weight assigned to the class of applicants that are not classified as elderly and are most favored by a creditor on the basis of age.
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Open-end credit</I> means credit extended under a plan in which a creditor may permit an applicant to make purchases or obtain loans from time to time directly from the creditor or indirectly by use of a credit card, check, or other device.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Person</I> means a natural person, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, trust, estate, partnership, cooperative, or association.
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Pertinent element of creditworthiness,</I> in relation to a judgmental system of evaluating applicants, means any information about applicants that a creditor obtains and considers and that has a demonstrable relationship to a determination of creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Prohibited basis</I> means race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); the fact that all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or the fact that the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act or any state law upon which an exemption has been granted by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 35527, May 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.3   Limited exceptions for certain classes of transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public utilities credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Public utilities credit refers to extensions of credit that involve public utility services provided through pipe, wire, or other connected facilities, or radio or similar transmission (including extensions of such facilities), if the charges for service, delayed payment, and any discount for prompt payment are filed with or regulated by a government unit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this part do not apply to public utilities credit:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1002.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1002.12(b) relating to record retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Securities credit</I> (1) <I>Definition.</I> Securities credit refers to extensions of credit subject to regulation under section 7 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 or extensions of credit by a broker or dealer subject to regulation as a broker or dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this part do not apply to securities credit:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1002.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1002.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 1002.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 1002.7(b) relating to designation of name to the extent necessary to comply with rules regarding an account in which a broker or dealer has an interest, or rules regarding the aggregation of accounts of spouses to determine controlling interests, beneficial interests, beneficial ownership, or purchase limitations and restrictions;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 1002.7(c) relating to action concerning open-end accounts, to the extent the action taken is on the basis of a change of name or marital status;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 1002.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 1002.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 1002.12(b) relating to record retention.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incidental credit</I> (1) <I>Definition.</I> Incidental credit refers to extensions of consumer credit other than the types described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) That are not made pursuant to the terms of a credit card account;
</P>
<P>(ii) That are not subject to a finance charge (as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4); and
</P>
<P>(iii) That are not payable by agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following provisions of this part do not apply to incidental credit:
</P>
<P>(i) Section 1002.5(b) concerning information about the sex of an applicant, but only to the extent necessary for medical records or similar purposes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Section 1002.5(c) concerning information about a spouse or former spouse;
</P>
<P>(iii) Section 1002.5(d)(1) concerning information about marital status;
</P>
<P>(iv) Section 1002.5(d)(2) concerning information about income derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments;
</P>
<P>(v) Section 1002.7(d) relating to the signature of a spouse or other person;
</P>
<P>(vi) Section 1002.9 relating to notifications;
</P>
<P>(vii) Section 1002.10 relating to furnishing of credit information; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Section 1002.12(b) relating to record retention.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government credit</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> Government credit refers to extensions of credit made to governments or governmental subdivisions, agencies, or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability of regulation.</I> Except for § 1002.4(a), the general rule against discrimination on a prohibited basis, the requirements of this part do not apply to government credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.4   General rules.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="13">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21668, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Discrimination.</I> A creditor shall not discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis regarding any aspect of a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discouragement.</I> A creditor shall not make any oral or written statement, in advertising or otherwise, to applicants or prospective applicants that would discourage on a prohibited basis a reasonable person from making or pursuing an application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written applications.</I> A creditor shall take written applications for the dwelling-related types of credit covered by § 1002.13(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor that provides in writing any disclosures or information required by this part must provide the disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner and, except for the disclosures required by §§ 1002.5 and 1002.13, in a form the applicant may retain.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures in electronic form.</I> The disclosures required by this part that are required to be given in writing may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). Where the disclosures under §§ 1002.5(b)(1), 1002.5(b)(2), 1002.5(d)(1), 1002.5(d)(2), 1002.13, and 1002.14(a)(2) accompany an application accessed by the applicant in electronic form, these disclosures may be provided to the applicant in electronic form on or with the application form, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Foreign-language disclosures.</I> Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 7248, Jan. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.5   Rules concerning requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Requests for information.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor may request any information in connection with a credit transaction. This paragraph does not limit or abrogate any Federal or state law regarding privacy, privileged information, credit reporting limitations, or similar restrictions on obtainable information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required collection of information.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, a creditor shall request information for monitoring purposes as required by § 1002.13 for credit secured by the applicant's dwelling. In addition, a creditor may obtain information required by a regulation, order, or agreement issued by, or entered into with, a court or an enforcement agency (including the Attorney General of the United States or a similar state official) to monitor or enforce compliance with the Act, this part, or other Federal or state statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special-purpose credit.</I> A creditor may obtain information that is otherwise restricted to determine eligibility for a special purpose credit program, as provided in § 1002.8(b), (c), and (d).


</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other permissible collection of information.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor may collect information under the following circumstances provided that the creditor collects the information in compliance with § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) and accompanying commentary, or appendix B to 12 CFR part 1003, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) A creditor that is a financial institution under 12 CFR 1003.2(g) may collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant for a closed-end mortgage loan that is an excluded transaction under 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(11) if it submits HMDA data concerning such closed-end mortgage loans and applications or if it submitted HMDA data concerning closed-end mortgage loans for any of the preceding five calendar years;
</P>
<P>(ii) A creditor that is a financial institution under 12 CFR 1003.2(g) may collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant for an open-end line of credit that is an excluded transaction under 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(12) if it submits HMDA data concerning such open-end lines of credit and applications or if it submitted HMDA data concerning open-end lines of credit for any of the preceding five calendar years;
</P>
<P>(iii) A creditor that submitted HMDA data for any of the preceding five calendar years but is not currently a financial institution under 12 CFR 1003.2(g) may collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant for a loan that would otherwise be a covered loan under 12 CFR 1003.2(e) if not excluded by 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(11) or (12);




</P>
<P>(iv) A creditor that exceeded an applicable loan volume threshold in the first year of the two-year threshold period provided in 12 CFR 1003.2(g), 1003.3(c)(11), or 1003.3(c)(12) may, in the second year, collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant for a loan that would otherwise be a covered loan under 12 CFR 1003.2(e) if the loan were not excluded by 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(11) or (12);
</P>
<P>(v) A creditor that is a financial institution under 12 CFR 1003.2(g), or that submitted HMDA data for any of the preceding five calendar years but is not currently a financial institution under 12 CFR 1003.2(g), may collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant for a loan that would otherwise be a covered loan under 12 CFR 1003.2(e) if the loan were not excluded by 12 CFR 1003.3(c)(10).
</P>
<P>(vi) A creditor that is collecting information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant or first co-applicant may collect information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of a second or additional co-applicant for a covered loan under 12 CFR 1003.2(e) or for a second or additional co-applicant for a loan described in paragraphs (a)(4)(i) through (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vii) A creditor that was required to report small business lending data pursuant to § 1002.109 for any of the preceding five calendar years but is not currently a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b) may collect information pursuant to subpart B of this part for covered applications from small businesses as defined in §§ 1002.103 and 1002.106(b) regarding whether an applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners if it complies with the requirements for covered financial institutions pursuant to §§ 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), 1002.108, 1002.111, and 1002.112 for that application. Such a creditor is permitted, but not required, to report data to the Bureau collected pursuant to subpart B of this part if it complies with the requirements of subpart B as otherwise required for covered financial institutions pursuant to §§ 1002.109 and 1002.110.
</P>
<P>(viii) A creditor that exceeded the loan-volume threshold in the first year of the two-year threshold period provided in § 1002.105(b) may, in the second year, collect information pursuant to subpart B of this part for covered applications from small businesses as defined in §§ 1002.103 and 1002.106(b) regarding whether an applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners if it complies with the requirements for covered financial institutions pursuant to §§ 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), 1002.108, 1002.111, and 1002.112 for that application. Such a creditor is permitted, but not required, to report data to the Bureau collected pursuant to subpart B of this part if it complies with the requirements of subpart B as otherwise required for covered financial institutions pursuant to §§ 1002.109 and 1002.110.
</P>
<P>(ix) A creditor that is not currently a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b), and is not otherwise a creditor to which paragraph (a)(4)(vii) or (viii) of this section applies, may collect information pursuant to subpart B of this part for covered applications from small businesses as defined in §§ 1002.103 and 1002.106(b) regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners for a transaction if it complies with the requirements for covered financial institutions pursuant to §§ 1002.107 through 1002.112 for that application.
</P>
<P>(x) A creditor that is collecting information pursuant to subpart B of this part or as described in paragraphs (a)(4)(vii) through (ix) of this section for covered applications from small businesses as defined in §§ 1002.103 and 1002.106(b) regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners may also collect that same information for any co-applicants provided that it also complies with the relevant requirements of subpart B of this part or as described in paragraphs (a)(4)(vii) through (ix) of this section with respect to those co-applicants.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on information about race, color, religion, national origin, or sex.</I> A creditor shall not inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction, except as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Self-test.</I> A creditor may inquire about the race, color, religion, national origin, or sex of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction for the purpose of conducting a self-test that meets the requirements of § 1002.15. A creditor that makes such an inquiry shall disclose orally or in writing, at the time the information is requested, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant will not be required to provide the information;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor is requesting the information to monitor its compliance with the Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Federal law prohibits the creditor from discriminating on the basis of this information, or on the basis of an applicant's decision not to furnish the information; and
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, certain information will be collected based on visual observation or surname if not provided by the applicant or other person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sex.</I> An applicant may be requested to designate a title on an application form (such as Ms., Miss, Mr., or Mrs.) if the form discloses that the designation of a title is optional. An application form shall otherwise use only terms that are neutral as to sex.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information about a spouse or former spouse</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor may not request any information concerning the spouse or former spouse of an applicant.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible inquiries.</I> A creditor may request any information concerning an applicant's spouse (or former spouse under paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section) that may be requested about the applicant if:
</P>
<P>(i) The spouse will be permitted to use the account;
</P>
<P>(ii) The spouse will be contractually liable on the account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicant is relying on the spouse's income as a basis for repayment of the credit requested;
</P>
<P>(iv) The applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested; or
</P>
<P>(v) The applicant is relying on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments from a spouse or former spouse as a basis for repayment of the credit requested.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other accounts of the applicant.</I> A creditor may request that an applicant list any account on which the applicant is contractually liable and to provide the name and address of the person in whose name the account is held. A creditor may also ask an applicant to list the names in which the applicant has previously received credit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other limitations on information requests</I>—(1) <I>Marital status.</I> If an applicant applies for individual unsecured credit, a creditor shall not inquire about the applicant's marital status unless the applicant resides in a community property state or is relying on property located in such a state as a basis for repayment of the credit requested. If an application is for other than individual unsecured credit, a creditor may inquire about the applicant's marital status, but shall use only the terms <I>married, unmarried,</I> and <I>separated.</I> A creditor may explain that the category unmarried includes single, divorced, and widowed persons.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure about income from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance.</I> A creditor shall not inquire whether income stated in an application is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments unless the creditor discloses to the applicant that such income need not be revealed if the applicant does not want the creditor to consider it in determining the applicant's creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Childbearing, childrearing.</I> A creditor shall not inquire about birth control practices, intentions concerning the bearing or rearing of children, or capability to bear children. A creditor may inquire about the number and ages of an applicant's dependents or about dependent-related financial obligations or expenditures, provided such information is requested without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Permanent residency and immigration status.</I> A creditor may inquire about the permanent residency and immigration status of an applicant or any other person in connection with a credit transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 45694, Oct. 2, 2017; 88 FR 35527, May 31, 2023; 91 FR 23604, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.6   Rules concerning evaluation of applications.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="14">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21668, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="14">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21668, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General rule concerning use of information.</I> Except as otherwise provided in the Act and this part, a creditor may consider any information obtained, so long as the information is not used to discriminate against an applicant on a prohibited basis. The legislative history of the Act indicates that the Congress intended an “effects test” concept, as outlined in the employment field by the Supreme Court in the cases of <I>Griggs</I> v. <I>Duke Power Co.,</I> 401 U.S. 424 (1971), and <I>Albemarle Paper Co.</I> v. <I>Moody,</I> 422 U.S. 405 (1975), to be applicable to a creditor's determination of creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific rules concerning use of information.</I> (1) Except as provided in the Act and this part, a creditor shall not take a prohibited basis into account in any system of evaluating the creditworthiness of applicants.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Age, receipt of public assistance.</I> (i) Except as permitted in this paragraph, a creditor shall not take into account an applicant's age (provided that the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract) or whether an applicant's income derives from any public assistance program.
</P>
<P>(ii) In an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system, a creditor may use an applicant's age as a predictive variable, provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value.
</P>
<P>(iii) In a judgmental system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider an applicant's age or whether an applicant's income derives from any public assistance program only for the purpose of determining a pertinent element of creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(iv) In any system of evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor may consider the age of an elderly applicant when such age is used to favor the elderly applicant in extending credit.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Childbearing, childrearing.</I> In evaluating creditworthiness, a creditor shall not make assumptions or use aggregate statistics relating to the likelihood that any category of persons will bear or rear children or will, for that reason, receive diminished or interrupted income in the future.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Telephone listing.</I> A creditor shall not take into account whether there is a telephone listing in the name of an applicant for consumer credit but may take into account whether there is a telephone in the applicant's residence.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Income.</I> A creditor shall not discount or exclude from consideration the income of an applicant or the spouse of an applicant because of a prohibited basis or because the income is derived from part-time employment or is an annuity, pension, or other retirement benefit; a creditor may consider the amount and probable continuance of any income in evaluating an applicant's creditworthiness. When an applicant relies on alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments in applying for credit, the creditor shall consider such payments as income to the extent that they are likely to be consistently made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit history.</I> To the extent that a creditor considers credit history in evaluating the creditworthiness of similarly qualified applicants for a similar type and amount of credit, in evaluating an applicant's creditworthiness a creditor shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit history, when available, of accounts designated as accounts that the applicant and the applicant's spouse are permitted to use or for which both are contractually liable;
</P>
<P>(ii) On the applicant's request, any information the applicant may present that tends to indicate the credit history being considered by the creditor does not accurately reflect the applicant's creditworthiness; and
</P>
<P>(iii) On the applicant's request, the credit history, when available, of any account reported in the name of the applicant's spouse or former spouse that the applicant can demonstrate accurately reflects the applicant's creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Immigration status.</I> A creditor may consider the applicant's immigration status or status as a permanent resident of the United States, and any additional information that may be necessary to ascertain the creditor's rights and remedies regarding repayment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Marital status.</I> Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall evaluate married and unmarried applicants by the same standards; and in evaluating joint applicants, a creditor shall not treat applicants differently based on the existence, absence, or likelihood of a marital relationship between the parties.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Race, color, religion, national origin, sex.</I> Except as otherwise permitted or required by law, a creditor shall not consider race, color, religion, national origin, or sex (or an applicant's or other person's decision not to provide the information) in any aspect of a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State property laws.</I> A creditor's consideration or application of state property laws directly or indirectly affecting creditworthiness does not constitute unlawful discrimination for the purposes of the Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.7   Rules concerning extensions of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual accounts.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to grant an individual account to a creditworthy applicant on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of name.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to allow an applicant to open or maintain an account in a birth-given first name and a surname that is the applicant's birth-given surname, the spouse's surname, or a combined surname.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action concerning existing open-end accounts</I>—(1) <I>Limitations.</I> In the absence of evidence of the applicant's inability or unwillingness to repay, a creditor shall not take any of the following actions regarding an applicant who is contractually liable on an existing open-end account on the basis of the applicant's reaching a certain age or retiring or on the basis of a change in the applicant's name or marital status:
</P>
<P>(i) Require a reapplication, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Change the terms of the account; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Terminate the account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requiring reapplication.</I> A creditor may require a reapplication for an open-end account on the basis of a change in the marital status of an applicant who is contractually liable if the credit granted was based in whole or in part on income of the applicant's spouse and if information available to the creditor indicates that the applicant's income may not support the amount of credit currently available.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Signature of spouse or other person</I>—(1) <I>Rule for qualified applicant.</I> Except as provided in this paragraph, a creditor shall not require the signature of an applicant's spouse or other person, other than a joint applicant, on any credit instrument if the applicant qualifies under the creditor's standards of creditworthiness for the amount and terms of the credit requested. A creditor shall not deem the submission of a joint financial statement or other evidence of jointly held assets as an application for joint credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsecured credit.</I> If an applicant requests unsecured credit and relies in part upon property that the applicant owns jointly with another person to satisfy the creditor's standards of creditworthiness, the creditor may require the signature of the other person only on the instrument(s) necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under the law of the state in which the property is located, to enable the creditor to reach the property being relied upon in the event of the death or default of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unsecured credit—community property states.</I> If a married applicant requests unsecured credit and resides in a community property state, or if the applicant is relying on property located in such a state, a creditor may require the signature of the spouse on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the community property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default if:
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable state law denies the applicant power to manage or control sufficient community property to qualify for the credit requested under the creditor's standards of creditworthiness; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant does not have sufficient separate property to qualify for the credit requested without regard to community property.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Secured credit.</I> If an applicant requests secured credit, a creditor may require the signature of the applicant's spouse or other person on any instrument necessary, or reasonably believed by the creditor to be necessary, under applicable state law to make the property being offered as security available to satisfy the debt in the event of default, for example, an instrument to create a valid lien, pass clear title, waive inchoate rights, or assign earnings.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional parties.</I> If, under a creditor's standards of creditworthiness, the personal liability of an additional party is necessary to support the credit requested, a creditor may request a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar party. The applicant's spouse may serve as an additional party, but the creditor shall not require that the spouse be the additional party.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rights of additional parties.</I> A creditor shall not impose requirements upon an additional party that the creditor is prohibited from imposing upon an applicant under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insurance.</I> A creditor shall not refuse to extend credit and shall not terminate an account because credit life, health, accident, disability, or other credit-related insurance is not available on the basis of the applicant's age.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.8   Special purpose credit programs.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="15">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21668, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>Standards for programs.</I> Subject to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section, the Act and this part permit a creditor to extend special purpose credit to applicants who meet eligibility requirements under the following types of credit programs:
</P>
<P>(1) Any credit assistance program expressly authorized by Federal or state law for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Any credit assistance program offered by a not-for-profit organization, as defined under section 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, for the benefit of its members or for the benefit of an economically disadvantaged class of persons; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any special purpose credit program offered by a for-profit organization, or in which such an organization participates to meet special social needs, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The program is established and administered pursuant to a written plan that identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit and sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit pursuant to the program; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The program is established and administered to extend credit to a class of persons who, under the organization's customary standards of creditworthiness, probably would not receive such credit or would receive it on less favorable terms than are ordinarily available to other applicants applying to the organization for a similar type and amount of credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules in other sections</I>—(1) <I>General applicability.</I> All the provisions of this part apply to each of the special purpose credit programs described in paragraph (a) of this section except as modified by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Common characteristics.</I> A program described in paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section qualifies as a special purpose credit program only if it was established and is administered so as not to discriminate against an applicant on any prohibited basis; however, all program participants may be required to share one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) so long as the program was not established and is not administered with the purpose of evading the requirements of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule concerning requests and use of information.</I> If participants in a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section are required to possess one or more common characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) and if the program otherwise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a creditor may request and consider information regarding the common characteristic(s) in determining the applicant's eligibility for the program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule in the case of financial need.</I> If financial need is one of the criteria under a special purpose credit program described in paragraph (a) of this section, the creditor may request and consider, in determining an applicant's eligibility for the program, information regarding the applicant's marital status; alimony, child support, and separate maintenance income; and the spouse's financial resources. In addition, a creditor may obtain the signature of an applicant's spouse or other person on an application or credit instrument relating to a special purpose credit program if the signature is required by Federal or state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.9   Notifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons</I>—(1) <I>When notification is required.</I> A creditor shall notify an applicant of action taken within:
</P>
<P>(i) 30 days after receiving a completed application concerning the creditor's approval of, counteroffer to, or adverse action on the application;
</P>
<P>(ii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an incomplete application, unless notice is provided in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) 30 days after taking adverse action on an existing account; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 90 days after notifying the applicant of a counteroffer if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of notification when adverse action is taken.</I> A notification given to an applicant when adverse action is taken shall be in writing and shall contain a statement of the action taken; the name and address of the creditor; a statement of the provisions of section 701(a) of the Act; the name and address of the Federal agency that administers compliance with respect to the creditor; and either:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of specific reasons for the action taken; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A disclosure of the applicant's right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, if the statement is requested within 60 days of the creditor's notification. The disclosure shall include the name, address, and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained. If the creditor chooses to provide the reasons orally, the creditor shall also disclose the applicant's right to have them confirmed in writing within 30 days of receiving the applicant's written request for confirmation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification to business credit applicants.</I> For business credit, a creditor shall comply with the notification requirements of this section in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(i) With regard to a business that had gross revenues of $1 million or less in its preceding fiscal year (other than an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit), a creditor shall comply with paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) The statement of the action taken may be given orally or in writing, when adverse action is taken;
</P>
<P>(B) Disclosure of an applicant's right to a statement of reasons may be given at the time of application, instead of when adverse action is taken, provided the disclosure contains the information required by paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) For an application made entirely by telephone, a creditor satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section by an oral statement of the action taken and of the applicant's right to a statement of reasons for adverse action.
</P>
<P>(ii) With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, a creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Notify the applicant, within a reasonable time, orally or in writing, of the action taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provide a written statement of the reasons for adverse action and the ECOA notice specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the applicant makes a written request for the reasons within 60 days of the creditor's notification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons</I>—(1) <I>ECOA notice.</I> To satisfy the disclosure requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section regarding section 701(a) of the Act, the creditor shall provide a notice that is substantially similar to the following: The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency or agencies listed in appendix A of this part]. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Statement of specific reasons.</I> The statement of reasons for adverse action required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be specific and indicate the principal reason(s) for the adverse action. Statements that the adverse action was based on the creditor's internal standards or policies or that the applicant, joint applicant, or similar party failed to achieve a qualifying score on the creditor's credit scoring system are insufficient.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incomplete applications</I>—(1) <I>Notice alternatives.</I> Within 30 days after receiving an application that is incomplete regarding matters that an applicant can complete, the creditor shall notify the applicant either:
</P>
<P>(i) Of action taken, in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Of the incompleteness, in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of incompleteness.</I> If additional information is needed from an applicant, the creditor shall send a written notice to the applicant specifying the information needed, designating a reasonable period of time for the applicant to provide the information, and informing the applicant that failure to provide the information requested will result in no further consideration being given to the application. The creditor shall have no further obligation under this section if the applicant fails to respond within the designated time period. If the applicant supplies the requested information within the designated time period, the creditor shall take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oral request for information.</I> At its option, a creditor may inform the applicant orally of the need for additional information. If the application remains incomplete the creditor shall send a notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral notifications by small-volume creditors.</I> In the case of a creditor that did not receive more than 150 applications during the preceding calendar year, the requirements of this section (including statements of specific reasons) are satisfied by oral notifications.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal of approved application.</I> When an applicant submits an application and the parties contemplate that the applicant will inquire about its status, if the creditor approves the application and the applicant has not inquired within 30 days after applying, the creditor may treat the application as withdrawn and need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When an application involves more than one applicant, notification need only be given to one of them but must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Applications submitted through a third party.</I> When an application is made on behalf of an applicant to more than one creditor and the applicant expressly accepts or uses credit offered by one of the creditors, notification of action taken by any of the other creditors is not required. If no credit is offered or if the applicant does not expressly accept or use the credit offered, each creditor taking adverse action must comply with this section, directly or through a third party. A notice given by a third party shall disclose the identity of each creditor on whose behalf the notice is given.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16537, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.10   Furnishing of credit information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of accounts.</I> A creditor that furnishes credit information shall designate:
</P>
<P>(1) Any new account to reflect the participation of both spouses if the applicant's spouse is permitted to use or is contractually liable on the account (other than as a guarantor, surety, endorser, or similar party); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any existing account to reflect such participation, within 90 days after receiving a written request to do so from one of the spouses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Routine reports to consumer reporting agency.</I> If a creditor furnishes credit information to a consumer reporting agency concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in a manner that will enable the agency to provide access to the information in the name of each spouse.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting in response to inquiry.</I> If a creditor furnishes credit information in response to an inquiry, concerning an account designated to reflect the participation of both spouses, the creditor shall furnish the information in the name of the spouse about whom the information is requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.11   Relation to state law.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent state laws.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, this part alters, affects, or preempts only those state laws that are inconsistent with the Act and this part and then only to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is not inconsistent if it is more protective of an applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preempted provisions of state law.</I> (1) A state law is deemed to be inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this part and less protective of an applicant within the meaning of section 705(f) of the Act to the extent that the law:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibits the individual extension of consumer credit to both parties to a marriage if each spouse individually and voluntarily applies for such credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) Prohibits inquiries or collection of data required to comply with the Act or this part;
</P>
<P>(iv) Prohibits asking about or considering age in an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system to determine a pertinent element of creditworthiness, or to favor an elderly applicant; or
</P>
<P>(v) Prohibits inquiries necessary to establish or administer a special purpose credit program as defined by § 1002.8.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor, state, or other interested party may request that the Bureau determine whether a state law is inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Laws on finance charges, loan ceilings.</I> If married applicants voluntarily apply for and obtain individual accounts with the same creditor, the accounts shall not be aggregated or otherwise combined for purposes of determining permissible finance charges or loan ceilings under any Federal or state law. Permissible loan ceiling laws shall be construed to permit each spouse to become individually liable up to the amount of the loan ceilings, less the amount for which the applicant is jointly liable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State and Federal laws not affected.</I> This section does not alter or annul any provision of state property laws, laws relating to the disposition of decedents' estates, or Federal or state banking regulations directed only toward insuring the solvency of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for state-regulated transactions</I>—(1) <I>Applications.</I> A state may apply to the Bureau for an exemption from the requirements of the Act and this part for any class of credit transactions within the state. The Bureau will grant such an exemption if the Bureau determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The class of credit transactions is subject to state law requirements substantially similar to those of the Act and this part or that applicants are afforded greater protection under state law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Liability and enforcement.</I> (i) No exemption will extend to the civil liability provisions of section 706 of the Act or the administrative enforcement provisions of section 704 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) After an exemption has been granted, the requirements of the applicable state law (except for additional requirements not imposed by Federal law) will constitute the requirements of the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.12" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.12   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Retention of prohibited information.</I> A creditor may retain in its files information that is prohibited by the Act or this part for use in evaluating applications, without violating the Act or this part, if the information was obtained:
</P>
<P>(1) From any source prior to March 23, 1977;
</P>
<P>(2) From consumer reporting agencies, an applicant, or others without the specific request of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(3) As required to monitor compliance with the Act and this part or other Federal or state statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preservation of records</I>— (1) <I>Applications.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section or otherwise provided for in subpart B of this part) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of action taken on an application or of incompleteness, the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) Any application that it receives, any information required to be obtained concerning characteristics of the applicant to monitor compliance with the Act and this part or other similar law, any information obtained pursuant to § 1002.5(a)(4), and any other written or recorded information used in evaluating the application and not returned to the applicant at the applicant's request.
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the following documents if furnished to the applicant in written form (or, if furnished orally, any notation or memorandum made by the creditor):
</P>
<P>(A) The notification of action taken; and
</P>
<P>(B) The statement of specific reasons for adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Existing accounts.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section or otherwise provided for in subpart B of this part) after the date that a creditor notifies an applicant of adverse action regarding an existing account, the creditor shall retain as to that account, in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) Any written or recorded information concerning the adverse action; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any written statement submitted by the applicant alleging a violation of the Act or this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other applications.</I> For 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section or otherwise provided for in subpart B of this part) after the date that a creditor receives an application for which the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements of § 1002.9, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information in its possession concerning the applicant, including any notation of action taken.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enforcement proceedings and investigations.</I> A creditor shall retain the information beyond 25 months (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section or otherwise provided for in subpart B) if the creditor has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation of the Act or this part, by the Attorney General of the United States or by an enforcement agency charged with monitoring that creditor's compliance with the Act and this part, or if it has been served with notice of an action filed pursuant to section 706 of the Act and § 1002.16 of this part. The creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by order of the agency or court.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for certain business credit applications.</I> With regard to a business that had gross revenues in excess of $1 million in its preceding fiscal year, or an extension of trade credit, credit incident to a factoring agreement, or other similar types of business credit, the creditor shall retain records for at least 60 days, except as otherwise provided for in subpart B, after notifying the applicant of the action taken. If within that time period the applicant requests in writing the reasons for adverse action or that records be retained, the creditor shall retain records for 12 months.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Self-tests.</I> For 25 months after a self-test (as defined in § 1002.15) has been completed, the creditor shall retain all written or recorded information about the self-test. A creditor shall retain information beyond 25 months if it has actual notice that it is under investigation or is subject to an enforcement proceeding for an alleged violation, or if it has been served with notice of a civil action. In such cases, the creditor shall retain the information until final disposition of the matter, unless an earlier time is allowed by the appropriate agency or court order.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Prescreened solicitations.</I> For 25 months after the date on which an offer of credit is made to potential customers (12 months for business credit, except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section or otherwise provided for in subpart B), the creditor shall retain in original form or a copy thereof:
</P>
<P>(i) The text of any prescreened solicitation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The list of criteria the creditor used to select potential recipients of the solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any correspondence related to complaints (formal or informal) about the solicitation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 45694, Oct. 2, 2017; 88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.13" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.13   Information for monitoring purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information to be requested.</I> (1) A creditor that receives an application for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling occupied or to be occupied by the applicant as a principal residence, where the extension of credit will be secured by the dwelling, shall request as part of the application the following information regarding the applicant(s):
</P>
<P>(i) Ethnicity and race using either:
</P>
<P>(A) For ethnicity, the aggregate categories Hispanic or Latino and not Hispanic or Latino; and, for race, the aggregate categories American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, and White; or
</P>
<P>(B) The categories and subcategories for the collection of ethnicity and race set forth in appendix B to 12 CFR part 1003.
</P>
<P>(ii) Sex;
</P>
<P>(iii) Marital status, using the categories married, unmarried, and separated; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Age.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit and a mobile or other manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obtaining information.</I> Questions regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age may be listed, at the creditor's option, on the application form or on a separate form that refers to the application. The applicant(s) shall be asked but not required to supply the requested information. If the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information or any part of it, that fact shall be noted on the form. The creditor shall then also note on the form, to the extent possible, the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant(s) on the basis of visual observation or surname. When a creditor collects ethnicity and race information pursuant to § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(B), the creditor must comply with any restrictions on the collection of an applicant's ethnicity or race on the basis of visual observation or surname set forth in appendix B to 12 CFR part 1003. If there is more than one co-applicant, a creditor is permitted, but is not required, to collect the information set forth in paragraph (a) of this section from a second or additional co-applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure to applicant(s).</I> The creditor shall inform the applicant(s) that the information regarding ethnicity, race, sex, marital status, and age is being requested by the Federal Government for the purpose of monitoring compliance with Federal statutes that prohibit creditors from discriminating against applicants on those bases. The creditor shall also inform the applicant(s) that if the applicant(s) chooses not to provide the information, the creditor is required to note the ethnicity, race and sex on the basis of visual observation or surname.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Substitute monitoring program.</I> A monitoring program required by an agency charged with administrative enforcement under section 704 of the Act may be substituted for the requirements contained in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 45694, Oct. 2, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.14   Rules on providing appraisals and other valuations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Providing appraisals and other valuations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor shall provide an applicant a copy of all appraisals and other written valuations developed in connection with an application for credit that is to be secured by a first lien on a dwelling. A creditor shall provide a copy of each such appraisal or other written valuation promptly upon completion, or three business days prior to consummation of the transaction (for closed-end credit) or account opening (for open-end credit), whichever is earlier. An applicant may waive the timing requirement in this paragraph (a)(1) and agree to receive any copy at or before consummation or account opening, except where otherwise prohibited by law. Any such waiver must be obtained at least three business days prior to consummation or account opening, unless the waiver pertains solely to the applicant's receipt of a copy of an appraisal or other written valuation that contains only clerical changes from a previous version of the appraisal or other written valuation provided to the applicant three or more business days prior to consummation or account opening. If the applicant provides a waiver and the transaction is not consummated or the account is not opened, the creditor must provide these copies no later than 30 days after the creditor determines consummation will not occur or the account will not be opened.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure.</I> For applications subject to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a creditor shall mail or deliver to an applicant, not later than the third business day after the creditor receives an application for credit that is to be secured by a first lien on a dwelling, a notice in writing of the applicant's right to receive a copy of all written appraisals developed in connection with the application. In the case of an application for credit that is not to be secured by a first lien on a dwelling at the time of application, if the creditor later determines the credit will be secured by a first lien on a dwelling, the creditor shall mail or deliver the same notice in writing not later than the third business day after the creditor determines that the loan is to be secured by a first lien on a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reimbursement.</I> A creditor shall not charge an applicant for providing a copy of appraisals and other written valuations as required under this section, but may require applicants to pay a reasonable fee to reimburse the creditor for the cost of the appraisal or other written valuation unless otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Withdrawn, denied, or incomplete applications.</I> The requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section apply whether credit is extended or denied or if the application is incomplete or withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Copies in electronic form.</I> The copies required by § 1002.14(a)(1) may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consummation.</I> The term “consummation” means the time that a consumer becomes contractually obligated on a closed-end credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dwelling.</I> The term “dwelling” means a residential structure that contains one to four units whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes, but is not limited to, an individual condominium or cooperative unit, and a mobile or other manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Valuation.</I> The term “valuation” means any estimate of the value of a dwelling developed in connection with an application for credit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 7248, Jan. 31, 2013]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.15   Incentives for self-testing and self-correction.</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="16">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21669, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Voluntary self-testing and correction.</I> The report or results of a self-test that a creditor voluntarily conducts (or authorizes) are privileged as provided in this section. Data collection required by law or by any governmental authority is not a voluntary self-test.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Corrective action required.</I> The privilege in this section applies only if the creditor has taken or is taking appropriate corrective action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other privileges.</I> The privilege created by this section does not preclude the assertion of any other privilege that may also apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Self-test defined</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> A self-test is any program, practice, or study that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is designed and used specifically to determine the extent or effectiveness of a creditor's compliance with the Act or this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Creates data or factual information that is not available and cannot be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of information privileged.</I> The privilege under this section applies to the report or results of the self-test, data or factual information created by the self-test, and any analysis, opinions, and conclusions pertaining to the self-test report or results. The privilege covers workpapers or draft documents as well as final documents.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of information not privileged.</I> The privilege under this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Information about whether a creditor conducted a self-test, the methodology used or the scope of the self-test, the time period covered by the self-test, or the dates it was conducted; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Loan and application files or other business records related to credit transactions, and information derived from such files and records, even if the information has been aggregated, summarized, or reorganized to facilitate analysis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appropriate corrective action</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> For the privilege in this section to apply, appropriate corrective action is required when the self-test shows that it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, even though no violation has been formally adjudicated.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action.</I> A creditor must take corrective action that is reasonably likely to remedy the cause and effect of a likely violation by:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying the policies or practices that are the likely cause of the violation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the extent and scope of any violation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Types of relief.</I> Appropriate corrective action may include both prospective and remedial relief, except that to establish a privilege under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a tester used in a self-test;
</P>
<P>(ii) A creditor is only required to provide remedial relief to an applicant identified by the self-test as one whose rights were more likely than not violated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to a particular applicant if the statute of limitations applicable to the violation expired before the creditor obtained the results of the self-test or the applicant is otherwise ineligible for such relief.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No admission of violation.</I> Taking corrective action is not an admission that a violation occurred.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope of privilege</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The report or results of a privileged self-test may not be obtained or used:
</P>
<P>(i) By a government agency in any examination or investigation relating to compliance with the Act or this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By a government agency or an applicant (including a prospective applicant who alleges a violation of § 1002.4(b)) in any proceeding or civil action in which a violation of the Act or this part is alleged.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loss of privilege.</I> The report or results of a self-test are not privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section if the creditor or a person with lawful access to the report or results:
</P>
<P>(i) Voluntarily discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, to an applicant or government agency or to the public;
</P>
<P>(ii) Discloses any part of the report or results, or any other information privileged under this section, as a defense to charges that the creditor has violated the Act or regulation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Fails or is unable to produce written or recorded information about the self-test that is required to be retained under § 1002.12(b)(6) when the information is needed to determine whether the privilege applies. This paragraph does not limit any other penalty or remedy that may be available for a violation of § 1002.12.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limited use of privileged information.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the self-test report or results and any other information privileged under this section may be obtained and used by an applicant or government agency solely to determine a penalty or remedy after a violation of the Act or this part has been adjudicated or admitted. Disclosures for this limited purpose may be used only for the particular proceeding in which the adjudication or admission was made. Information disclosed under this paragraph (d)(3) remains privileged under paragraph (d)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.16" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.16   Enforcement, penalties and liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> (1) As set forth more fully in section 704 of the Act, administrative enforcement of the Act and this part regarding certain creditors is assigned to the Comptroller of the Currency, Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, National Credit Union Administration, Surface Transportation Board, Civil Aeronautics Board, Secretary of Agriculture, Farm Credit Administration, Securities and Exchange Commission, Small Business Administration, Secretary of Transportation, and Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(2) Except to the extent that administrative enforcement is specifically assigned to some government agency other than the Bureau, and subject to subtitle B of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, the Federal Trade Commission is authorized to enforce the requirements imposed under the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Penalties and liabilities.</I> (1) Sections 702(g) and 706(a) and (b) of the Act provide that any creditor that fails to comply with a requirement imposed by the Act or this part is subject to civil liability for actual and punitive damages in individual or class actions. Pursuant to sections 702(g) and 704(b), (c), and (d) of the Act, violations of the Act or this part also constitute violations of other Federal laws. Liability for punitive damages can apply only to nongovernmental entities and is limited to $10,000 in individual actions and the lesser of $500,000 or 1 percent of the creditor's net worth in class actions. Section 706(c) provides for equitable and declaratory relief and section 706(d) authorizes the awarding of costs and reasonable attorney's fees to an aggrieved applicant in a successful action.
</P>
<P>(2) As provided in section 706(f) of the Act, a civil action under the Act or this part may be brought in the appropriate United States district court without regard to the amount in controversy or in any other court of competent jurisdiction within five years after the date of the occurrence of the violation, or within one year after the commencement of an administrative enforcement proceeding or of a civil action brought by the Attorney General of the United States within five years after the alleged violation.
</P>
<P>(3) If an agency responsible for administrative enforcement is unable to obtain compliance with the Act or this part, it may refer the matter to the Attorney General of the United States. If the Bureau, the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice of discouraging or denying applications in violation of the Act or this part, the agency shall refer the matter to the Attorney General. If the agency has reason to believe that one or more creditors violated section 701(a) of the Act, the agency may refer a matter to the Attorney General.
</P>
<P>(4) On referral, or whenever the Attorney General has reason to believe that one or more creditors have engaged in a pattern or practice in violation of the Act or this part, the Attorney General may bring a civil action for such relief as may be appropriate, including actual and punitive damages and injunctive relief.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the National Credit Union Administration has reason to believe (as a result of a consumer complaint, a consumer compliance examination, or some other basis) that a violation of the Act or this part has occurred which is also a violation of the Fair Housing Act, and the matter is not referred to the Attorney General, the agency shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Inform the applicant that the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development has been notified and that remedies may be available under the Fair Housing Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure of compliance.</I> A creditor's failure to comply with § 1002.6(b)(6), § 1002.9, § 1002.10, § 1002.12 or § 1002.13 is not a violation if it results from an inadvertent error. On discovering an error under §§ 1002.9 and 1002.10, the creditor shall correct it as soon as possible. If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 1002.13, the creditor may retain information and act on the application without violating the regulation.












</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Small Business Lending Data Collection</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1002.101" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.101   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and scope.</I> This subpart to Regulation B is issued by the Bureau pursuant to section 704B of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691c-2). Except as otherwise provided herein, this subpart applies to covered financial institutions, as defined in § 1002.105(b), other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 2004 (2010).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart implements section 704B of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, which Congress intended:
</P>
<P>(1) To facilitate enforcement of fair lending laws; and
</P>
<P>(2) To enable communities, governmental entities, and creditors to identify business and community development needs and opportunities of women-owned, minority-owned, and small businesses.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.102" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> means, with respect to a financial institution, any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>). With respect to a business or an applicant, <I>affiliate</I> shall have the same meaning as in 13 CFR 121.103.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicant</I> means any person who requests or who has received an extension of business credit from a financial institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business</I> is defined in § 1002.106(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Business credit</I> shall have the same meaning as in § 1002.2(g).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Closed-end credit transaction</I> means an extension of business credit that is not an open-end credit transaction under paragraph (n) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Covered application</I> is defined in § 1002.103.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Covered credit transaction</I> is defined in § 1002.104.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered financial institution</I> is defined in § 1002.105(b).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit</I> shall have the same meaning as in § 1002.2(j).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Financial institution</I> is defined in § 1002.105(a).
</P>
<P>(k)-(l) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Minority-owned business</I> means a business for which one or more American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino individuals hold more than 50 percent of its ownership or control, and for which more than 50 percent of the net profits or losses accrue to one or more such individuals.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Open-end credit transaction</I> means an open-end credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(17), or is extended to a consumer, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(11).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Principal owner</I> means an individual who directly owns 25 percent or more of the equity interests of a business.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Small business</I> is defined in § 1002.106(b).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Small business lending application register</I> or <I>register</I> means the data reported, or required to be reported, annually pursuant to § 1002.109.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>State</I> shall have the same meaning as in § 1002.2(aa).
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Women-owned business</I> means a business for which more than 50 percent of its ownership or control is held by one or more women, and more than 50 percent of its net profits or losses accrue to one or more women.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23605, May 1, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.103" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.103   Covered applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered application.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, covered application means an oral or written request for a covered credit transaction that is made in accordance with procedures used by a financial institution for the type of credit requested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Circumstances that are not covered applications.</I> A covered application does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Reevaluation, extension, or renewal requests on an existing business credit account, unless the request seeks additional credit amounts.
</P>
<P>(2) Inquiries and prequalification requests.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.104" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.104   Covered credit transactions and excluded transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Covered credit transaction</I> means an extension of business credit that is not an excluded transaction under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Excluded transactions.</I> The requirements of this subpart do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Trade credit.</I> A financing arrangement wherein a business acquires goods or services from another business without making immediate payment in full to the business providing the goods or services.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Home Mortgage</I> Disclosure <I>Act (HMDA)-reportable transactions.</I> A covered loan, or application therefor, as defined by Regulation C, 12 CFR 1003.2(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insurance premium financing.</I> A financing arrangement wherein a business agrees to pay to a financial institution, in installments, the principal amount advanced by the financial institution to an insurer or insurance producer in payment of premium on the business's insurance contract or contracts, plus charges, and, as security for repayment, the business assigns to the financial institution certain rights, obligations, and/or considerations (such as the unearned premiums, accrued dividends, or loss payments) in its insurance contract or contracts. Insurance premium financing does not include the financing of insurance policy premiums obtained in connection with the financing of goods and services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public utilities credit.</I> Public utilities credit as defined in § 1002.3(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Securities credit.</I> Securities credit as defined in § 1002.3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Incidental credit.</I> Incidental credit as defined in § 1002.3(c)(1), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in § 1002.2(h).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Merchant cash advance.</I> An agreement under which a small business receives a lump-sum payment in exchange for the right to receive a percentage of the small business's future sales or income up to a ceiling amount.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Agricultural lending.</I> A transaction to fund the production of crops, fruits, vegetables, and livestock, or to fund the purchase or refinance of capital assets such as farmland, machinery and equipment, breeder livestock, and farm real estate improvements.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Small dollar business credit.</I> (i) A transaction in an amount of $1,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) Every 5 years after January 1, 2030, the transaction amount set forth in this paragraph (b)(9) shall adjust based on changes to the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (U.S. city average series for all items, not seasonally adjusted), as published by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics. Any adjustment that takes effect under this paragraph (b)(9)(ii) shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $100. If an adjustment is to take effect, it will do so on January 1 of the following calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23605, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.105" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.105   Covered financial institutions and exempt institutions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Financial institution</I> means any partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity that engages in any financial activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered financial institution</I> means a financial institution, other than a Farm Credit System lender, that originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of the two preceding calendar years.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23605, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.106" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.106   Business and small business.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Business</I> has the same meaning as the term “business concern or concern” in 13 CFR 121.105.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Small business</I> has the same meaning as the term “small business concern” in 15 U.S.C. 632(a), as implemented in 13 CFR 121.101 through 121.107. Notwithstanding the size standards set forth in 13 CFR 121.201, for purposes of this subpart, a business is a small business if its gross annual revenue, as defined in § 1002.107(a)(14), for its preceding fiscal year is $1 million or less.
</P>
<P>(2) Every 5 years after January 1, 2030, the gross annual revenue threshold set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall adjust based on changes to the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (U.S. city average series for all items, not seasonally adjusted), as published by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics. Any adjustment that takes effect under this paragraph (b)(2) shall be rounded to the nearest multiple of $100,000. If an adjustment is to take effect, it will do so on January 1 of the following calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23605, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.107" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.107   Compilation of reportable data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data format and itemization.</I> A covered financial institution shall compile and maintain data regarding covered applications from small businesses. The data shall be compiled in the manner prescribed herein and the Filing Instructions Guide for this subpart for the appropriate year. The data compiled shall include the items described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (20) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Unique identifier.</I> An alphanumeric identifier, starting with the legal entity identifier of the financial institution, unique within the financial institution to the specific covered application, and which can be used to identify and retrieve the specific file or files corresponding to the application for or extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application date.</I> The date the covered application was received or the date shown on a paper or electronic application form.
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(5) <I>Credit type.</I> The following information regarding the type of credit applied for or originated:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Credit product.</I> The credit product.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Guarantees.</I> The type or types of guarantees that were obtained for an extension of credit, or that would have been obtained if the covered credit transaction were originated.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Loan term.</I> The length of the loan term, in months, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit purpose.</I> The purpose or purposes of the credit applied for or originated.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Amount applied for.</I> The initial amount of credit or the initial credit limit requested by the applicant.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Amount approved or originated.</I> (i) For an application for a closed-end credit transaction that is approved but not accepted, the amount approved by the financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a closed-end credit transaction that is originated, the amount of credit originated; or
</P>
<P>(iii) For an application for an open-end credit transaction that is originated or approved but not accepted, the amount of the credit limit approved.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Action taken.</I> The action taken by the financial institution on the covered application, reported as originated, approved but not accepted, denied, withdrawn by the applicant, or incomplete.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Action taken date.</I> The date of the action taken by the financial institution.
</P>
<P>(11)-(12) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(13) <I>Census tract.</I> The census tract in which is located:
</P>
<P>(i) The address or location where the proceeds of the credit applied for or originated will be or would have been principally applied; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the information in paragraph (a)(13)(i) of this section is unknown, the address or location of the main office or headquarters of the applicant; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If the information in both paragraphs (a)(13)(i) and (ii) of this section is unknown, another address or location associated with the applicant.
</P>
<P>(iv) The financial institution shall also indicate which one of the three types of addresses or locations listed in paragraphs (a)(13)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section the census tract is based on.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Gross annual revenue.</I> The applicant's gross annual revenue for its preceding fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>NAICS code.</I> A 3-digit North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code for the applicant.
</P>
<P>(16) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Time in business.</I> The time the applicant has been in business.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Minority-owned and women-owned business statuses.</I> Whether the applicant is a minority-owned and/or women-owned business. When requesting minority-owned and women-owned business statuses from an applicant, the financial institution shall inform the applicant that the financial institution cannot discriminate on the basis of minority-owned or women-owned business statuses, or on whether the applicant provides this information. The financial institution must also inform the applicant of its right to refuse to provide this information.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Ethnicity, race, and sex of principal owners.</I> The ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners. When requesting ethnicity, race, and sex information from an applicant, the financial institution shall inform the applicant that the financial institution cannot discriminate on the basis of a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex, or on whether the applicant provides this information. The financial institution must also inform the applicant of its right to refuse to provide this information.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Number of principal owners.</I> The number of the applicant's principal owners.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reliance on and verification of applicant-provided data.</I> Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, the financial institution may rely on information from the applicant, or appropriate third-party sources, when compiling data. If the financial institution verifies applicant-provided data, however, it shall report the verified data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time and manner of collection</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A covered financial institution shall maintain procedures to collect applicant-provided data under paragraph (a) of this section and shall otherwise maintain procedures to collect such data at a time and in a manner that are reasonably designed to obtain a response.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicant-provided data collected directly from the applicant.</I> For data collected directly from the applicant, procedures that are reasonably designed to obtain a response shall include provisions for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial request for applicant-provided data occurs prior to notifying an applicant of final action taken on a covered application, or at another time reasonably designed to obtain a response;
</P>
<P>(ii) The request for applicant-provided data is prominently displayed or presented; and
</P>
<P>(iii) [Reserved]


</P>
<P>(iv) Applicants can easily respond to a request for applicant-provided data.
</P>
<P>(3)-(4) [Reserved]




</P>
<P>(d) <I>Previously collected data.</I> A covered financial institution is permitted, but not required, to reuse previously collected data to satisfy paragraphs (a)(13) through (15) and (17) through (20) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) To satisfy paragraphs (a)(13), (15), and (17) through (20) of this section, the data were collected within the 36 months preceding the current covered application, or to satisfy paragraph (a)(14) of this section, the data were collected within the same calendar year as the current covered application; and
</P>
<P>(2) The financial institution has no reason to believe the data are inaccurate.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23605, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.108" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.108   Firewall.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following terms shall have the following meanings:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Involved in making any determination concerning a covered application from a small business</I> means participating in a decision regarding the evaluation of a covered application from a small business or the creditworthiness of a small business applicant for a covered credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Should have access</I> means that an employee or officer may need to collect, see, consider, refer to, or otherwise use the information to perform that employee's or officer's assigned job duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on access to certain information.</I> Unless the exception under paragraph (c) of this section applies, an employee or officer of a covered financial institution or a covered financial institution's affiliate shall not have access to an applicant's responses to inquiries that the financial institution makes pursuant to this subpart regarding whether the applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business under § 1002.107(a)(18), and regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners under § 1002.107(a)(19), if that employee or officer is involved in making any determination concerning that applicant's covered application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception to the prohibition on access to certain information.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section shall not apply to an employee or officer if the financial institution determines that it is not feasible to limit that employee's or officer's access to an applicant's responses to the financial institution's inquiries under § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19) and the financial institution provides the notice required under paragraph (d) of this section to the applicant. It is not feasible to limit access as required pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section if the financial institution determines that an employee or officer involved in making any determination concerning a covered application from a small business should have access to one or more applicants' responses to the financial institution's inquiries under § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice.</I> In order to satisfy the exception set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, a financial institution shall provide a notice to each applicant whose responses will be accessed, informing the applicant that one or more employees or officers involved in making determinations concerning the covered application may have access to the applicant's responses to the financial institution's inquiries regarding whether the applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, and regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners. The financial institution shall provide the notice required by this paragraph (d) when making the inquiries required under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) and together with the notices required pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23606, May 1, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.109" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.109   Reporting of data to the Bureau.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting to the Bureau</I>—(1) <I>Annual reporting.</I> (i) On or before June 1 following the calendar year for which data are compiled and maintained as required by § 1002.107, a covered financial institution shall submit its small business lending application register in the format prescribed by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(ii) An authorized representative of the covered financial institution with knowledge of the data shall certify to the accuracy and completeness of the data reported pursuant to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(iii) When the last day for submission of data prescribed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls on a Saturday or Sunday, a submission shall be considered timely if it is submitted on the next succeeding Monday.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reporting by subsidiaries.</I> A covered financial institution that is a subsidiary of another covered financial institution shall complete a separate small business lending application register. The subsidiary shall submit its small business lending application register, directly or through its parent, to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reporting obligations where multiple financial institutions are involved in a covered credit transaction.</I> Where it is necessary for more than one financial institution to make a credit decision in order to approve a single covered credit transaction, only the last covered financial institution with authority to set the material terms of the covered credit transaction is required to report the application. Financial institutions report the actions of their agents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Financial institution identifying information.</I> A financial institution shall provide each of the following with its submission:
</P>
<P>(1) Its name.
</P>
<P>(2) Its headquarters address.
</P>
<P>(3) The name and business contact information of a person that the Bureau or other regulators may contact about the financial institution's submission.
</P>
<P>(4) Its Federal prudential regulator, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(5) Its Federal Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN).
</P>
<P>(6) Its Legal Entity Identifier (LEI).
</P>
<P>(7) Its Research, Statistics, Supervision, and Discount identification (RSSD ID) number, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) Parent entity information, if applicable, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the immediate parent entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) The LEI of the immediate parent entity, if available;
</P>
<P>(iii) The RSSD ID number of the immediate parent entity, if available;
</P>
<P>(iv) The name of the top-holding parent entity;
</P>
<P>(v) The LEI of the top-holding parent entity, if available; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The RSSD ID number of the top-holding parent entity, if available.
</P>
<P>(9) The type of financial institution that it is, indicated by selecting the appropriate type or types of institution from the list provided.
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the financial institution is voluntarily reporting covered applications from small businesses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures for the submission of data to the Bureau.</I> The Bureau shall make available a Filing Instructions Guide, containing technical instructions for the submission of data to the Bureau pursuant to this section, as well as any related materials, at <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/small-business-lending/filing-instructions-guide/.</I>




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.110" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.110   Publication of data and other disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Publication of small business lending application registers and associated financial institution information.</I> The Bureau shall make available to the public generally the data reported to it by financial institutions pursuant to § 1002.109, subject to deletions or modifications made by the Bureau if the Bureau determines that the deletion or modification of the data would advance a privacy interest. The Bureau shall make such data available on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Publication of aggregate data.</I> The Bureau may compile and aggregate data submitted by financial institutions pursuant to § 1002.109, and make any compilations or aggregations of such data publicly available as the Bureau deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statement of financial institution's small business lending data available on the Bureau's website.</I> A covered financial institution shall make available to the public on its website, or otherwise upon request, a statement that the covered financial institution's small business lending application register, as modified by the Bureau pursuant to § 1002.110(a), is or will be available from the Bureau. A financial institution shall use language provided by the Bureau, or substantially similar language, to satisfy the requirement to provide a statement pursuant to this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of statements.</I> A covered financial institution shall make the notice required by paragraph (c) of this section available to the public on its website when it submits a small business lending application register to the Bureau pursuant to § 1002.109(a)(1), and shall maintain the notice for as long as it has an obligation to retain its small business lending application registers pursuant to § 1002.111(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Further disclosure prohibited</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure by a financial institution.</I> A financial institution shall not disclose or provide to a third party the information it collects pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) except to further compliance with the Act or this part or as required by law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure by a third party.</I> A third party that obtains information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) for the purpose of furthering compliance with the Act or this part is prohibited from any further disclosure of such information except to further compliance with the Act or this part or as required by law.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.111" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.111   Recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Record retention.</I> A covered financial institution shall retain evidence of compliance with this subpart, which includes a copy of its small business lending application register, for at least three years after the register is required to be submitted to the Bureau pursuant to § 1002.109.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain information kept separate from the rest of the application.</I> A financial institution shall maintain, separately from the rest of the application and accompanying information, an applicant's responses to the financial institution's inquiries pursuant to this subpart regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned business and/or a women-owned business under § 1002.107(a)(18), and regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners under § 1002.107(a)(19).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on personally identifiable information in certain records retained under this section.</I> In reporting a small business lending application register pursuant to § 1002.109, maintaining the register pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and maintaining a separate record of information pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, a financial institution shall not include any name, specific address, telephone number, email address, or any other personally identifiable information concerning any individual who is, or is connected with, an applicant, other than as required pursuant to § 1002.107 or paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23606, May 1, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.112" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.112   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement and civil liability.</I> A violation of section 704B of the Act or this subpart is subject to administrative sanctions and civil liability as provided in sections 704 (15 U.S.C. 1691c) and 706 (15 U.S.C. 1691e) of the Act, where applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bona fide errors.</I> A bona fide error in compiling, maintaining, or reporting data with respect to a covered application is one that was unintentional and occurred despite the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such an error. A bona fide error is not a violation of the Act or this subpart. A financial institution is presumed to maintain procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors with respect to a given data field if the number of errors found in a random sample of the financial institution's submission for the data field does not equal or exceed a threshold specified by the Bureau for this purpose in appendix F to this part. However, an error is not a bona fide error if either there is a reasonable basis to believe the error was intentional or there is evidence that the financial institution does not or has not maintained procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safe harbors</I>—(1) <I>Incorrect entry for application date.</I> A financial institution does not violate the Act or this subpart if it reports on its small business lending application register an application date that is within three business days of the actual application date pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incorrect entry for census tract.</I> An incorrect entry for census tract is not a violation of the Act or this subpart if the financial institution obtained the census tract by correctly using a geocoding tool provided by the FFIEC or the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Incorrect entry for NAICS code.</I> An incorrect entry for a 3-digit NAICS code is not a violation of the Act or this subpart, provided that the financial institution obtained the 3-digit NAICS code by:
</P>
<P>(i) Relying on an applicant's representations or on an appropriate third-party source, in accordance with § 1002.107(b), regarding the NAICS code; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifying the NAICS code itself, provided that the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to correctly identify a 3-digit NAICS code.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Incorrect determination of small business status, covered credit transaction, or covered application.</I> A financial institution that initially collects data regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) but later concludes that it should not have collected such data does not violate the Act or this part if the financial institution, at the time it collected this data, had a reasonable basis for believing that the application was a covered application for a covered credit transaction from a small business pursuant to §§ 1002.103, 1002.104, and 1002.106, respectively. A financial institution seeking to avail itself of this safe harbor shall comply with the requirements of this subpart as otherwise required pursuant to §§ 1002.107, 1002.108, and 1002.111 with respect to the collected data.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 91 FR 23606, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.113" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.113   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>If any provision of this subpart, or any application of a provision, is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions or applications are severable and shall continue in effect.








</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1002.114" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1002.114   Effective date, compliance date, and special transitional rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> The effective date for this subpart is August 29, 2023.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance date.</I> The dates by which covered financial institutions are initially required to comply with the requirements of this subpart are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A covered financial institution that originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of calendar years 2026 and 2027 shall comply with the requirements of this subpart beginning January 1, 2028.
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) A financial institution that did not originate at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of calendar years 2026 and 2027 but subsequently originates at least 1,000 such transactions in two consecutive calendar years shall comply with the requirements of this subpart in accordance with § 1002.105(b), but in any case no earlier than January 1, 2029.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special transitional rules</I>—(1) <I>Collection of certain information prior to the compliance date.</I> A financial institution that reasonably anticipates being a covered financial institution as described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section is permitted, but not required, to collect information regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned business and/or a women-owned business under § 1002.107(a)(18), and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners under § 1002.107(a)(19) beginning 12 months prior to the compliance date as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. A financial institution collecting such information pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1) must do so in accordance with the requirements set out in §§ 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), 1002.108, and 1002.111(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determining which compliance date applies to a financial institution that does not collect information sufficient to determine small business status.</I> A financial institution that is unable to determine the number of covered credit transactions it originated for small businesses in each of calendar years 2026 and 2027 for purposes of determining its compliance date pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, because for some or all of this period it does not have readily accessible the information needed to determine whether its covered credit transactions were originated for small businesses as defined in § 1002.106(b), is permitted to use any reasonable method to estimate its originations to small businesses for either or both of the calendar years 2026 and 2027.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative time period for determining compliance dates.</I> A financial institution is permitted to use its originations of covered credit transactions in each of calendar years 2025 and 2026 in lieu of calendar years 2026 and 2027 as specified in paragraphs (b) and (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 35528, May 31, 2023, as amended at 89 FR 55029, July 3, 2024; 89 FR 76713, Sept. 19, 2024; 90 FR 25880, June 18, 2025; 90 FR 47520, Oct. 2, 2025; 91 FR 23606, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1002—Federal Agencies To Be Listed in Adverse Action Notices




</HEAD>
<P>The following list indicates the Federal agency or agencies that should be listed in notices provided by creditors pursuant to § 1002.9(b)(1). Any questions concerning a particular creditor may be directed to such agencies. This list is not intended to describe agencies' enforcement authority for ECOA and Regulation B. Terms that are not defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(s)) shall have the meaning given to them in the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Banks, savings associations, and credit unions with total assets of over $10 billion and their affiliates:</I> Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. Such affiliates that are not banks, savings associations, or credit unions also should list, in addition to the Bureau: Federal Trade Commission, Consumer Response Center, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20580.
</P>
<P>2. To the extent not included in item 1 above:
</P>
<P>a. <I>National Banks, Federal savings associations, and Federal branches and Federal agencies of foreign banks:</I> Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, Customer Assistance Group, P.O. Box 53570, Houston, TX 77052.
</P>
<P>b. <I>State member banks, branches and agencies of foreign banks (other than Federal branches, Federal agencies, and insured State branches of foreign banks), commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks, and organizations operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act:</I> Federal Reserve Consumer Help Center, P.O. Box 1200, Minneapolis, MN 55480.
</P>
<P>c. <I>Nonmember Insured Banks, Insured State Branches of Foreign Banks, and Insured State Savings Associations:</I> Division of Depositor and Consumer Protection, National Center for Consumer and Depositor Assistance, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, 1100 Walnut Street, Box #11, Kansas City, MO 64106.
</P>
<P>d. <I>Federal Credit Unions:</I> National Credit Union Administration, Office of Consumer Financial Protection (OCFP), 1775 Duke Street, Alexandria, VA 22314.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Air Carriers:</I> Assistant General Counsel for Office of Aviation Consumer Protection, Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditors Subject to Surface Transportation Board:</I> Office of Public Assistance, Governmental Affairs, and Compliance, Surface Transportation Board, 395 E Street SW, Washington, DC 20423.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Creditors Subject to Packers and Stockyards Act:</I> Nearest Packers and Stockyards Division Regional Office.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Small Business Investment Companies:</I> Associate Administrator, Office of Capital Access, United States Small Business Association, 409 Third Street SW, Suite 8200, Washington, DC 20416.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Brokers and Dealers:</I> Securities and Exchange Commission, 100 F Street NE, Washington, DC 20549.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Federal Land Banks, Federal Land Bank Associations, Federal Intermediate Credit Banks, and Production Credit Associations:</I> Farm Credit Administration, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, VA 22102-5090.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Retailers, Finance Companies, and All Other Creditors Not Listed Above:</I> Federal Trade Commission, Consumer Response Center, 600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington, DC 20580.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 58065, Aug. 25, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1002—Model Application Forms
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix contains four model credit application forms, each designated for use in a particular type of consumer credit transaction as indicated by the bracketed caption on each form. The first sample form is intended for use in open-end, unsecured transactions; the second for closed-end, secured transactions; the third for closed-end transactions, whether unsecured or secured; and the fourth in transactions involving community property or occurring in community property States. This appendix also contains a data collection model form for collecting information concerning an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex that complies with the requirements of § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(A) and (ii). Appendix B to 12 CFR part 1003 provides a data collection model form for collecting information concerning an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex that complies with the requirements of § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(B) and (ii). All forms contained in this appendix are models; their use by creditors is optional.
</P>
<P>2. The use or modification of these forms is governed by the following instructions. A creditor may change the forms: by asking for additional information not prohibited by § 1002.5; by deleting any information request; or by rearranging the format without modifying the substance of the inquiries. In any of these three instances, however, the appropriate notices regarding the optional nature of courtesy titles, the option to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, and the limitation concerning marital status inquiries must be included in the appropriate places if the items to which they relate appear on the creditor's form.
</P>
<P>3. If a creditor uses an appropriate appendix B model form, or modifies a form in accordance with the above instructions, that creditor shall be deemed to be acting in compliance with the provisions of paragraphs (b), (c) and (d) of § 1002.5 of this part.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.047.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.048.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.049.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.050.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.051.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.052.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.053.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er02oc17.000.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 82 FR 45694, 45695, Oct. 2, 2017]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1002—Sample Notification Forms
</HEAD>
<P>1. This Appendix contains ten sample notification forms. Forms C-1 through C-4 are intended for use in notifying an applicant that adverse action has been taken on an application or account under §§ 1002.9(a)(1) and (2)(i) of this part. Form C-5 is a notice of disclosure of the right to request specific reasons for adverse action under §§ 1002.9(a)(1) and (2)(ii). Form C-6 is designed for use in notifying an applicant, under § 1002.9(c)(2), that an application is incomplete. Forms C-7 and C-8 are intended for use in connection with applications for business credit under § 1002.9(a)(3). Form C-9 is designed for use in notifying an applicant of the right to receive a copy of appraisals under § 1002.14. Form C-10 is designed for use in notifying an applicant for nonmortgage credit that the creditor is requesting applicant characteristic information.
</P>
<P>2. Form C-1 contains the Fair Credit Reporting Act disclosure as required by sections 615(a) and (b) of that act. Forms C-2 through C-5 contain only the section 615(a) disclosure (that a creditor obtained information from a consumer reporting agency that was considered in the credit decision). A creditor must provide the section 615(a) disclosure when adverse action is taken against a consumer based on information from a consumer reporting agency. A creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure when adverse action is taken based on information from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. In addition, a creditor must provide the section 615(b) disclosure if the creditor obtained information from an affiliate other than information in a consumer report or other than information concerning the affiliate's own transactions or experiences with the consumer. Creditors may comply with the disclosure requirements for adverse action based on information in a consumer report obtained from an affiliate by providing either the section 615(a) or section 615(b) disclosure. Optional language in Forms C-1 through C-5 may be used to direct the consumer to the entity that provided the credit score for any questions about the credit score, along with the entity's contact information. Creditors may use or not use this additional language without losing the safe harbor, since the language is optional.
</P>
<P>3. The sample forms are illustrative and may not be appropriate for all creditors. They were designed to include some of the factors that creditors most commonly consider. If a creditor chooses to use the checklist of reasons provided in one of the sample forms in this appendix and if reasons commonly used by the creditor are not provided on the form, the creditor should modify the checklist by substituting or adding other reasons. For example, if “inadequate down payment” or “no deposit relationship with us” are common reasons for taking adverse action on an application, the creditor ought to add or substitute such reasons for those presently contained on the sample forms.
</P>
<P>4. If the reasons listed on the forms are not the factors actually used, a creditor will not satisfy the notice requirement by simply checking the closest identifiable factor listed. For example, some creditors consider only references from banks or other depository institutions and disregard finance company references altogether; their statement of reasons should disclose “insufficient bank references,” not “insufficient credit references.” Similarly, a creditor that considers bank references and other credit references as distinct factors should treat the two factors separately and disclose them as appropriate. The creditor should either add such other factors to the form or check “other” and include the appropriate explanation. The creditor need not, however, describe how or why a factor adversely affected the application. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
</P>
<P>5. A creditor may design its own notification forms or use all or a portion of the forms contained in this Appendix. Proper use of Forms C-1 through C-4 will satisfy the requirement of § 1002.9(a)(2)(i). Proper use of Forms C-5 and C-6 constitutes full compliance with §§ 1002.9(a)(2)(ii) and 1002.9(c)(2), respectively. Proper use of Forms C-7 and C-8 will satisfy the requirements of §§ 1002.9(a)(2)(i) and (ii), respectively, for applications for business credit. Proper use of Form C-9 will satisfy the requirements of § 1002.14 of this part. Proper use of Form C-10 will satisfy the requirements of § 1002.5(b)(1).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-1—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons
</HD1>
<FP>Statement of Credit Denial, Termination or Change
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Applicant's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Applicant's Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Description of Account, Transaction, or Requested Credit:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Description of Action Taken:
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>Part I—Principal Reason(s) for Credit Denial, Termination, or Other Action Taken Concerning Credit
</HD1>
<P><I>This section must be completed in all instances.</I>
</P>
<FP>____Credit application incomplete
</FP>
<FP>____Insufficient number of credit references provided
</FP>
<FP>____Unacceptable type of credit references provided
</FP>
<FP>____Unable to verify credit references
</FP>
<FP>____Temporary or irregular employment
</FP>
<FP>____Unable to verify employment
</FP>
<FP>____Length of employment
</FP>
<FP>____Income insufficient for amount of credit requested
</FP>
<FP>____Excessive obligations in relation to income
</FP>
<FP>____Unable to verify income
</FP>
<FP>____Length of residence
</FP>
<FP>____Temporary residence
</FP>
<FP>____Unable to verify residence
</FP>
<FP>____No credit file
</FP>
<FP>____Limited credit experience
</FP>
<FP>____Poor credit performance with us
</FP>
<FP>____Delinquent past or present credit obligations with others
</FP>
<FP>____Collection action or judgment
</FP>
<FP>____Garnishment or attachment
</FP>
<FP>____Foreclosure or repossession
</FP>
<FP>____Bankruptcy
</FP>
<FP>____Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
</FP>
<FP>____Value or type of collateral not sufficient
</FP>
<FP>____Other, specify: ______
</FP>
<HD1>Part II—Disclosure of Use of Information Obtained From an Outside Source
</HD1>
<P><I>This section should be completed if the credit decision was based in whole or in part on information that has been obtained from an outside source.</I>
</P>
<FP>____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from the consumer reporting agency listed below. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Toll-free] Telephone number:
</FP-DASH>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from the consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ________ to a high of ________.
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[[Toll-free] Telephone number: ________]
</FP>
<FP>____Our credit decision was based in whole or in part on information obtained from an affiliate or from an outside source other than a consumer reporting agency. Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, you have the right to make a written request, no later than 60 days after you receive this notice, for disclosure of the nature of this information.
</FP>
<P><I>If you have any questions regarding this notice, you should contact:</I>
</P>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's telephone number:
</FP-DASH>
<P><I>Notice:</I> The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-2—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application. Your request for [a loan/a credit card/an increase in your credit limit] was carefully considered, and we regret that we are unable to approve your application at this time, for the following reason(s):
</P>
<P><I>Your Income:</I>
</P>
<FP>____is below our minimum requirement.
</FP>
<FP>____is insufficient to sustain payments on the amount of credit requested.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<P><I>Your Employment:</I>
</P>
<FP>____is not of sufficient length to qualify.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<P><I>Your Credit History:</I>
</P>
<FP>____of making payments on time was not satisfactory.
</FP>
<FP>____could not be verified.
</FP>
<P><I>Your Application:</I>
</P>
<FP>____lacks a sufficient number of credit references.
</FP>
<FP>____lacks acceptable types of credit references.
</FP>
<FP>____reveals that current obligations are excessive in relation to income.
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Other:
</FP-DASH>
<P>The consumer reporting agency contacted that provided information that influenced our decision in whole or in part was [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the reporting agency]. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. Any questions regarding such information should be directed to [consumer reporting agency]. If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at [creditor's name, address and telephone number].
</P>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from the consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ________ to a high of ________.
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[[Toll-free] Telephone number: ________]
</FP>
<P><I>Notice:</I> The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-3—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons (Credit Scoring)
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your recent application for __________. We regret that we are unable to approve your request.
</P>
<P>[Reasons for Denial of Credit]
</P>
<P>Your application was processed by a [credit scoring] system that assigns a numerical value to the various items of information we consider in evaluating an application. These numerical values are based upon the results of analyses of repayment histories of large numbers of customers.
</P>
<P>The information you provided in your application did not score a sufficient number of points for approval of the application. The reasons you did not score well compared with other applicants were:
</P>
<FP-1>• Insufficient bank references
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Type of occupation
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Insufficient credit experience
</FP-1>
<FP-1>• Number of recent inquiries on credit bureau report
</FP-1>
<P>[Your Right to Get Your Consumer Report]
</P>
<P>In evaluating your application the consumer reporting agency listed below provided us with information that in whole or in part influenced our decision. The consumer reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. It can be obtained by contacting: [Name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</P>
<P>[Information about Your Credit Score]
</P>
<P>[Information about Your Credit Score]
</P>
<P>We also obtained your credit score from the consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ________ to a high of ________.
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number: ________]
</FP>
<P>If you have any questions regarding this letter, you should contact us at
</P>
<FP-DASH>Creditor's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone:
</FP-DASH>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<P><I>Notice:</I> The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (with certain limited exceptions); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-4—Sample Notice of Action Taken, Statement of Reasons and Counteroffer
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for __________. We are unable to offer you credit on the terms that you requested for the following reason(s):__________
</P>
<P>We can, however, offer you credit on the following terms: __________
</P>
<P>If this offer is acceptable to you, please notify us within [amount of time] at the following address: __________.
</P>
<P>Our credit decision on your application was based in whole or in part on information obtained in a report from [name, address and [toll-free] telephone number of the consumer reporting agency]. You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. You also have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you receive is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency.
</P>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from the consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ________ to a high of ________.
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<P>[Toll-free] Telephone number:________]
</P>
<P>You should know that the Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors, such as ourselves, from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of their race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract), because they receive income from a public assistance program, or because they may have exercised their rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. If you believe there has been discrimination in handling your application you should contact the [name and address of the appropriate Federal enforcement agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<HD1>Form C-5—Sample Disclosure of Right To Request Specific Reasons for Credit Denial
</HD1>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for __________.
</P>
<P>After carefully reviewing your application, we are sorry to advise you that we cannot [open an account for you/grant a loan to you/increase your credit limit] at this time. If you would like a statement of specific reasons why your application was denied, please contact [our credit service manager] shown below within 60 days of the date of this letter. We will provide you with the statement of reasons within 30 days after receiving your request.
</P>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>Telephone number
</FP>
<P>If we obtained information from a consumer reporting agency as part of our consideration of your application, its name, address, and [toll-free] telephone number is shown below. The reporting agency played no part in our decision and is unable to supply specific reasons why we have denied credit to you. [You have a right under the Fair Credit Reporting Act to know the information contained in your credit file at the consumer reporting agency.] You have a right to a free copy of your report from the reporting agency, if you request it no later than 60 days after you receive this notice. In addition, if you find that any information contained in the report you received is inaccurate or incomplete, you have the right to dispute the matter with the reporting agency. You can find out about the information contained in your file (if one was used) by contacting:
</P>
<FP>Consumer reporting agency's name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number
</FP>
<P>[We also obtained your credit score from the consumer reporting agency and used it in making our credit decision. Your credit score is a number that reflects the information in your consumer report. Your credit score can change, depending on how the information in your consumer report changes.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Your credit score:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Scores range from a low of ________ to a high of ________.
</P>
<P>Key factors that adversely affected your credit score:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Number of recent inquiries on consumer report, as a key factor]
</FP>
<P>[If you have any questions regarding your credit score, you should contact [entity that provided the credit score] at:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[Toll-free] Telephone number: ________]
</FP>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<P><I>Notice:</I> The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is (name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A).
</P>
<HD1>Form C-6—Sample Notice of Incomplete Application and Request for Additional Information
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Address
</FP>
<FP>Telephone number
</FP>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for your application for credit. The following information is needed to make a decision on your application: __________
</P>
<P>We need to receive this information by __________ (date). If we do not receive it by that date, we will regrettably be unable to give further consideration to your credit request.
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<HD1>Form C-7—Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons (Business Credit)
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Creditor's address
</FP>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<P>Dear Applicant: Thank you for applying to us for credit. We have given your request careful consideration, and regret that we are unable to extend credit to you at this time for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(Insert appropriate reason, such as: Value or type of collateral not sufficient; Lack of established earnings record; Slow or past due in trade or loan payments)
</P>
<P>  Sincerely,
</P>
<P>Notice: The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<HD1>Form C-8—Sample Disclosure of Right To Request Specific Reasons for Credit Denial Given at Time of Application (Business Credit)
</HD1>
<FP>Creditor's name
</FP>
<FP>Creditor's address
</FP>
<P>If your application for business credit is denied, you have the right to a written statement of the specific reasons for the denial. To obtain the statement, please contact [name, address and telephone number of the person or office from which the statement of reasons can be obtained] within 60 days from the date you are notified of our decision. We will send you a written statement of reasons for the denial within 30 days of receiving your request for the statement.
</P>
<P>Notice: The Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits creditors from discriminating against credit applicants on the basis of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age (provided the applicant has the capacity to enter into a binding contract); because all or part of the applicant's income derives from any public assistance program; or because the applicant has in good faith exercised any right under the Consumer Credit Protection Act. The Federal agency that administers compliance with this law concerning this creditor is [name and address as specified by the appropriate agency listed in appendix A].
</P>
<HD1>Form C-9—Sample Disclosure of Right To Receive a Copy of Appraisals
</HD1>
<P>We may order an appraisal to determine the property's value and charge you for this appraisal. We will promptly give you a copy of any appraisal, even if your loan does not close.
</P>
<P>You can pay for an additional appraisal for your own use at your own cost.
</P>
<P>[In your letter, give us the following information:]
</P>
<HD1>Form C-10—Sample Disclosure About Voluntary Data Notation
</HD1>
<P>We are requesting the following information to monitor our compliance with the Federal Equal Credit Opportunity Act, which prohibits unlawful discrimination. You are not required to provide this information. We will not take this information (or your decision not to provide this information) into account in connection with your application or credit transaction. The law provides that a creditor may not discriminate based on this information, or based on whether or not you choose to provide it. [If you choose not to provide the information, we will note it by visual observation or surname].
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 7248, Jan. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1002—Issuance of Official Interpretations




</HEAD>
<P>1.<I>Official Interpretations.</I> Interpretations of this part issued by officials of the Bureau provide the protection afforded under section 706(e) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to the regulation, which will be amended periodically.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Requests for Issuance of Official Interpretations.</I> A request for an official interpretation should be in writing and addressed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20552. The request should contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Scope of Interpretations.</I> No interpretations will be issued approving creditors' forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16538, Mar. 20, 2023]














</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 1002—Sample Form for Collecting Certain Applicant-Provided Data Under Subpart B of This Part
</HEAD>
<img src="/graphics/er01my26.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er01my26.003.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23607, May 1, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 1002—Tolerances for Bona Fide Errors in Data Reported Under Subpart B of This Part
</HEAD>
<P>As set out in § 1002.112(b) and in comment 112(b)-1 of supplement I to this part, a financial institution is presumed to maintain procedures reasonably adapted to avoid errors with respect to a given data field if the number of errors found in a random sample of a financial institution's data submission for a given data field do not equal or exceed the threshold in column C of the following table:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Appendix F—Tolerance Thresholds for Bona Fide Errors
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Small business lending application register count
<br/>(A)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Random sample size
<br/>(B)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold
<br/>(#)
<br/>(C)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Threshold
<br/>(%)
<br/>(D)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1,000-100,000</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">100,001+</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">159</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The size of the random sample, under column B, shall depend on the size of the financial institution's small business lending application register, as shown in column A of table 1 to this appendix.
</P>
<P>The thresholds in column C of table 1 to this appendix reflect the number of unintentional errors a financial institution may make within a particular data field (<I>e.g.,</I> the credit product data field within the credit type data point or the sex data field for a particular principal owner within the ethnicity, race, and sex of principal owners data point) in a small business lending application register that would be deemed bona fide errors for purposes of § 1002.112(b).
</P>
<P>For instance, a financial institution that submitted a small business lending application register containing 11,000 applications would be subject to a threshold of four errors per data field. If the financial institution had made two errors in reporting loan amount and two errors reporting gross annual income, all of these errors would be covered by the bona fide error provision of § 1002.112(b) and would not constitute a violation of the Act or this part. If the same financial institution had made five errors in reporting loan amount and two errors reporting gross annual revenue, the bona fide error provision of § 1002.112(b) would not apply to the five loan amount errors but would still apply to the two gross annual revenue errors.
</P>
<P>Even when the number of errors in a particular data field do not equal or exceed the threshold in column C, if either there is a reasonable basis to believe that errors in that field were intentional or there is evidence that the financial institution did not maintain procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such errors, then the errors are not bona fide errors under § 1002.112(b).
</P>
<P>For purposes of determining bona fide errors under § 1002.112(b), the term “data field” generally refers to individual fields. Some data fields may allow for more than one response. For example, with respect to information on the ethnicity or race of an applicant's principal owners, a data field may identify more than one race or more than one ethnicity for a given person. If one or more of the ethnicities or races identified in a data field are erroneous, they count as one (and only one) error for that data field.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 23607, May 1, 2026]












</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.3.2.1.15.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1002—Official Interpretations


</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260422" REFID="17">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 21669, Apr. 22, 2026.</XREF>
<P>Following is an official interpretation of Regulation B (12 CFR part 1002) issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection. References are to sections of the regulation or the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1.<I>Official status.</I> Section 706(e) of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act protects a creditor from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with an interpretation issued by a duly authorized official of the Bureau. This commentary is the means by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation B. Good-faith compliance with this commentary affords a creditor protection under section 706(e) of the Act.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuance of interpretations.</I> Under appendix D to the regulation, any person may request an official interpretation. Interpretations will be issued at the discretion of designated officials and incorporated in this commentary following publication for comment in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Except in unusual circumstances, official interpretations will be issued only by means of this commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Comment designations.</I> The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. For example, comments to § 1002.2(c) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 2(c)(1)(ii)-1 and comment 2(c)(2)(ii-1.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.1—Authority, Scope, and Purpose
</HD2>
<P><I>1(a) Authority and scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The Equal Credit Opportunity Act and Regulation B apply to all credit—commercial as well as personal—without regard to the nature or type of the credit or the creditor, except for an entity excluded from coverage of this part (but not the Act) by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5519). If a transaction provides for the deferral of the payment of a debt, it is credit covered by Regulation B even though it may not be a credit transaction covered by Regulation Z (Truth in Lending) (12 CFR part 1026). Further, the definition of creditor is not restricted to the party or person to whom the obligation is initially payable, as is the case under Regulation Z. Moreover, the Act and regulation apply to all methods of credit evaluation, whether performed judgmentally or by use of a credit scoring system.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation B generally does not apply to lending activities that occur outside the United States. The regulation does apply to lending activities that take place within the United States (as well as the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico and any territory or possession of the United States), whether or not the applicant is a citizen.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Bureau.</I> The term <I>Bureau,</I> as used in this part, means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.2—Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>2(c) Adverse action.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(c)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application for credit.</I> If the applicant applied in accordance with the creditor's procedures, a refusal to refinance or extend the term of a business or other loan is adverse action.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Move from service area.</I> If a credit card issuer terminates the open-end account of a customer because the customer has moved out of the card issuer's service area, the termination is adverse action unless termination on this ground was explicitly provided for in the credit agreement between the parties. In cases where termination is adverse action, notification is required under § 1002.9.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Termination based on credit limit.</I> If a creditor terminates credit accounts that have low credit limits (for example, under $400) but keeps open accounts with higher credit limits, the termination is adverse action and notification is required under § 1002.9.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Default—exercise of due-on-sale clause.</I> If a mortgagor sells or transfers mortgaged property without the consent of the mortgagee, and the mortgagee exercises its contractual right to accelerate the mortgage loan, the mortgagee may treat the mortgagor as being in default. An adverse action notice need not be given to the mortgagor or the transferee. (See comment 2(e)-1 for treatment of a purchaser who requests to assume the loan.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Current delinquency or default.</I> The term adverse action does not include a creditor's termination of an account when the accountholder is currently in default or delinquent on that account. Notification in accordance with § 1002.9 of the regulation generally is required, however, if the creditor's action is based on a past delinquency or default on the account.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> Denial of credit at point of sale is not adverse action except under those circumstances specified in the regulation. For example, denial at point of sale is not adverse action in the following situations:
</P>
<P>i. A credit cardholder presents an expired card or a card that has been reported to the card issuer as lost or stolen.
</P>
<P>ii. The amount of a transaction exceeds a cash advance or credit limit.
</P>
<P>iii. The circumstances (such as excessive use of a credit card in a short period of time) suggest that fraud is involved.
</P>
<P>iv. The authorization facilities are not functioning.
</P>
<P>v. Billing statements have been returned to the creditor for lack of a forwarding address.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application for increase in available credit.</I> A refusal or failure to authorize an account transaction at the point of sale or loan is not adverse action except when the refusal is a denial of an application, submitted in accordance with the creditor's procedures, for an increase in the amount of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 2(c)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Terms of credit versus type of credit offered.</I> When an applicant applies for credit and the creditor does not offer the credit terms requested by the applicant (for example, the interest rate, length of maturity, collateral, or amount of downpayment), a denial of the application for that reason is adverse action (unless the creditor makes a counteroffer that is accepted by the applicant) and the applicant is entitled to notification under § 1002.9.
</P>
<P><I>2(e) Applicant.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request to assume loan.</I> If a mortgagor sells or transfers the mortgaged property and the buyer makes an application to the creditor to assume the mortgage loan, the mortgagee must treat the buyer as an applicant unless its policy is not to permit assumptions.
</P>
<P><I>2(f) Application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A creditor has the latitude under the regulation to establish its own application process and to decide the type and amount of information it will require from credit applicants.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures used.</I> The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a creditor for making credit decisions as well as its stated application procedures. For example, if a creditor's stated policy is to require all applications to be in writing on the creditor's application form, but the creditor also makes credit decisions based on oral requests, the creditor's procedures are to accept both oral and written applications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>When an inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application.</I> A creditor is encouraged to provide consumers with information about loan terms. However, if in giving information to the consumer the creditor also evaluates information about the consumer, decides to decline the request, and communicates this to the consumer, the creditor has treated the inquiry or prequalification request as an application and must then comply with the notification requirements under § 1002.9. Whether the inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application depends on how the creditor responds to the consumer, not on what the consumer says or asks. (See comment 9-5 for further discussion of prequalification requests; see comment 2(f)-5 for a discussion of preapproval requests.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of inquiries that are not applications.</I> The following examples illustrate situations in which only an inquiry has taken place:
</P>
<P>i. A consumer calls to ask about loan terms and an employee explains the creditor's basic loan terms, such as interest rates, loan-to-value ratio, and debt-to-income ratio.
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer calls to ask about interest rates for car loans, and, in order to quote the appropriate rate, the loan officer asks for the make and sales price of the car and the amount of the downpayment, then gives the consumer the rate.
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer asks about terms for a loan to purchase a home and tells the loan officer her income and intended downpayment, but the loan officer only explains the creditor's loan-to-value ratio policy and other basic lending policies, without telling the consumer whether she qualifies for the loan.
</P>
<P>iv. A consumer calls to ask about terms for a loan to purchase vacant land and states his income and the sales price of the property to be financed, and asks whether he qualifies for a loan; the employee responds by describing the general lending policies, explaining that he would need to look at all of the consumer's qualifications before making a decision, and offering to send an application form to the consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples of an application.</I> An application for credit includes the following situations:
</P>
<P>i. A person asks a financial institution to “preapprove” her for a loan (for example, to finance a house or a vehicle she plans to buy) and the institution reviews the request under a program in which the institution, after a comprehensive analysis of her creditworthiness, issues a written commitment valid for a designated period of time to extend a loan up to a specified amount. The written commitment may not be subject to conditions other than conditions that require the identification of adequate collateral, conditions that require no material change in the applicant's financial condition or creditworthiness prior to funding the loan, and limited conditions that are not related to the financial condition or creditworthiness of the applicant that the lender ordinarily attaches to a traditional application (such as certification of a clear termite inspection for a home purchase loan, or a maximum mileage requirement for a used car loan). But if the creditor's program does not provide for giving written commitments, requests for preapprovals are treated as prequalification requests for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<P>ii. Under the same facts as above, the financial institution evaluates the person's creditworthiness and determines that she does not qualify for a preapproval.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Completed application—diligence requirement.</I> The regulation defines a completed application in terms that give a creditor the latitude to establish its own information requirements. Nevertheless, the creditor must act with reasonable diligence to collect information needed to complete the application. For example, the creditor should request information from third parties, such as a credit report, promptly after receiving the application. If additional information is needed from the applicant, such as an address or a telephone number to verify employment, the creditor should contact the applicant promptly. (But see comment 9(a)(1)-3, which discusses the creditor's option to deny an application on the basis of incompleteness.)<I>2(g) Business credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The test for deciding whether a transaction qualifies as business credit is one of primary purpose. For example, an open-end credit account used for both personal and business purposes is not business credit unless the primary purpose of the account is business-related. A creditor may rely on an applicant's statement of the purpose for the credit requested.
</P>
<P><I>2(j) Credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Regulation B covers a wider range of credit transactions than Regulation Z (Truth in Lending). Under Regulation B, a transaction is credit if there is a right to defer payment of a debt—regardless of whether the credit is for personal or commercial purposes, the number of installments required for repayment, or whether the transaction is subject to a finance charge.
</P>
<P><I>2(l) Creditor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assignees.</I> The term creditor includes all persons participating in the credit decision. This may include an assignee or a potential purchaser of the obligation who influences the credit decision by indicating whether or not it will purchase the obligation if the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Referrals to creditors.</I> For certain purposes, the term creditor includes persons such as real estate brokers, automobile dealers, home builders, and home-improvement contractors who do not participate in credit decisions but who only accept applications and refer applicants to creditors, or select or offer to select creditors to whom credit requests can be made. These persons must comply with § 1002.4(a), the general rule prohibiting discrimination, and with § 1002.4(b), the general rule against discouraging applications.
</P>
<P><I>2(p) Empirically derived and other credit scoring systems.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Purpose of definition.</I> The definition under §§ 1002.2(p)(1)(i) through (iv) sets the criteria that a credit system must meet in order to use age as a predictive factor. Credit systems that do not meet these criteria are judgmental systems and may consider age only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (Both types of systems may favor an elderly applicant. See § 1002.6(b)(2).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Periodic revalidation.</I> The regulation does not specify how often credit scoring systems must be revalidated. The credit scoring system must be revalidated frequently enough to ensure that it continues to meet recognized professional statistical standards for statistical soundness. To ensure that predictive ability is being maintained, the creditor must periodically review the performance of the system. This could be done, for example, by analyzing the loan portfolio to determine the delinquency rate for each score interval, or by analyzing population stability over time to detect deviations of recent applications from the applicant population used to validate the system. If this analysis indicates that the system no longer predicts risk with statistical soundness, the system must be adjusted as necessary to reestablish its predictive ability. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor's own data.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Pooled data scoring systems.</I> A scoring system or the data from which to develop such a system may be obtained from either a single credit grantor or multiple credit grantors. The resulting system will qualify as an empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system provided the criteria set forth in paragraph (p)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section are met. A creditor is responsible for ensuring its system is validated and revalidated based on the creditor's own data when it becomes available.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Effects test and disparate treatment.</I> An empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound, credit scoring system may include age as a predictive factor (provided that the age of an elderly applicant is not assigned a negative factor or value). Besides age, no other prohibited basis may be used as a variable. Generally, credit scoring systems treat all applicants objectively and thus avoid problems of disparate treatment. In cases where a credit scoring system is used in conjunction with individual discretion, disparate treatment could conceivably occur in the evaluation process. In addition, neutral factors used in credit scoring systems could nonetheless be subject to challenge under the effects test. (See comment 6(a)-2 for a discussion of the effects test).
</P>
<P><I>2(w) Open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Open-end real estate mortgages.</I> The term “open-end credit” does not include negotiated advances under an open-end real estate mortgage or a letter of credit.
</P>
<P><I>2(z) Prohibited basis.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Persons associated with applicant.</I> As used in this part, prohibited basis refers not only to characteristics—the race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, or age—of an applicant (or officers of an applicant in the case of a corporation) but also to the characteristics of individuals with whom an applicant is affiliated or with whom the applicant associates. This means, for example, that under the general rule stated in § 1002.4(a), a creditor may not discriminate against an applicant because of that person's personal or business dealings with members of a certain religion, because of the national origin of any persons associated with the extension of credit (such as the tenants in the apartment complex being financed), or because of the race of other residents in the neighborhood where the property offered as collateral is located.
</P>
<P>2. <I>National origin.</I> A creditor may not refuse to grant credit because an applicant comes from a particular country but may take the applicant's immigration status into account. A creditor may also take into account any applicable law, regulation, or executive order restricting dealings with citizens (or the government) of a particular country or imposing limitations regarding credit extended for their use.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Public assistance program.</I> Any Federal, state, or local governmental assistance program that provides a continuing, periodic income supplement, whether premised on entitlement or need, is “public assistance” for purposes of the regulation. The term includes (but is not limited to) Temporary Aid to Needy Families, food stamps, rent and mortgage supplement or assistance programs, social security and supplemental security income, and unemployment compensation. Only physicians, hospitals, and others to whom the benefits are payable need consider Medicare and Medicaid as public assistance.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.3—Limited Exceptions for Certain Classes of Transactions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Under this section, procedural requirements of the regulation do not apply to certain types of credit. All classes of transactions remain subject to § 1002.4(a), the general rule barring discrimination on a prohibited basis, and to any other provision not specifically excepted.
</P>
<P><I>3(a) Public-utilities credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> This definition applies only to credit for the purchase of a utility service, such as electricity, gas, or telephone service. Credit provided or offered by a public utility for some other purpose—such as for financing the purchase of a gas dryer, telephone equipment, or other durable goods, or for insulation or other home improvements—is not excepted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Security deposits.</I> A utility company is a creditor when it supplies utility service and bills the user after the service has been provided. Thus, any credit term (such as a requirement for a security deposit) is subject to the regulation's bar against discrimination on a prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Telephone companies.</I> A telephone company's credit transactions qualify for the exceptions provided in § 1002.3(a)(2) only if the company is regulated by a government unit or files the charges for service, delayed payment, or any discount for prompt payment with a government unit.
</P>
<P><I>3(c) Incidental credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> If a service provider (such as a hospital, doctor, lawyer, or merchant) allows the client or customer to defer the payment of a bill, this deferral of debt is credit for purposes of the regulation, even though there is no finance charge and no agreement for payment in installments. Because of the exceptions provided by this section, however, these particular credit extensions are excepted from compliance with certain procedural requirements as specified in § 1002.3(c).
</P>
<P><I>3(d) Government credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit to governments.</I> The exception relates to credit extended to (not by) governmental entities. For example, credit extended to a local government is covered by this exception, but credit extended to consumers by a Federal or state housing agency does not qualify for special treatment under this category.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.4—General Rules
</HD2>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(a).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope of rule.</I> The general rule stated in § 1002.4(a) covers all dealings, without exception, between an applicant and a creditor, whether or not addressed by other provisions of the regulation. Other provisions of the regulation identify specific practices that the Bureau has decided are impermissible because they could result in credit discrimination on a basis prohibited by the Act. The general rule covers, for example, application procedures, criteria used to evaluate creditworthiness, administration of accounts, and treatment of delinquent or slow accounts. Thus, whether or not specifically prohibited elsewhere in the regulation, a credit practice that treats applicants differently on a prohibited basis violates the law because it violates the general rule. Disparate treatment on a prohibited basis is illegal whether or not it results from a conscious intent to discriminate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Disparate treatment would exist, for example, in the following situations:
</P>
<P>A. A creditor provides information only on “subprime” and similar products to minority applicants who request information about the creditor's mortgage products, but provides information on a wider variety of mortgage products to similarly situated nonminority applicants.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor provides more comprehensive information to men than to similarly situated women.
</P>
<P>C. A creditor requires a minority applicant to provide greater documentation to obtain a loan than a similarly situated nonminority applicant.
</P>
<P>D. A creditor waives or relaxes credit standards for a nonminority applicant but not for a similarly situated minority applicant.
</P>
<P>ii. Treating applicants differently on a prohibited basis is unlawful if the creditor lacks a legitimate nondiscriminatory reason for its action, or if the asserted reason is found to be a pretext for discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(b).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prospective applicants.</I> Generally, the regulation's protections apply only to persons who have requested or received an extension of credit. In keeping with the purpose of the Act—to promote the availability of credit on a nondiscriminatory basis—§ 1002.4(b) covers acts or practices directed at prospective applicants that could discourage a reasonable person, on a prohibited basis, from applying for credit. Practices prohibited by this section include:
</P>
<P>i. A statement that the applicant should not bother to apply, after the applicant states that he is retired.
</P>
<P>ii. The use of words, symbols, models or other forms of communication in advertising that express, imply, or suggest a discriminatory preference or a policy of exclusion in violation of the Act.
</P>
<P>iii. The use of interview scripts that discourage applications on a prohibited basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affirmative advertising.</I> A creditor may affirmatively solicit or encourage members of traditionally disadvantaged groups to apply for credit, especially groups that might not normally seek credit from that creditor.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(c).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirement for written applications.</I> Model application forms are provided in appendix B to the regulation, although use of a printed form is not required. A creditor will satisfy the requirement by writing down the information that it normally considers in making a credit decision. The creditor may complete an application on behalf of an applicant and need not require the applicant to sign the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Telephone applications.</I> A creditor that accepts applications by telephone for dwelling-related credit covered by § 1002.13 can meet the requirement for written applications by writing down pertinent information that is provided by the applicant.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Computerized entry.</I> Information entered directly into and retained by a computerized system qualifies as a written application under this paragraph. (See the commentary to § 1002.13(b), <I>Applications through electronic media and Applications through video.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 4(d).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> This standard requires that disclosures be presented in a reasonably understandable format in a way that does not obscure the required information. No minimum type size is mandated, but the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether the disclosures required to be on or with an application must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If an applicant accesses a credit application electronically (other than as described under ii below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the applicant, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if an applicant is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses a credit application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the applicant uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.5—Rules Concerning Requests for Information
</HD2>
<P><I>5(a) General rules.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requests for information.</I> This section governs the types of information that a creditor may gather. Section1002.6 governs how information may be used.
</P>
<HD3>5(a)(2) Required Collection of Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Local laws.</I> Information that a creditor is allowed to collect pursuant to a “state” statute or regulation includes information required by a local statute, regulation, or ordinance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information required by Regulation C.</I> Regulation C, 12 CFR part 1003, generally requires creditors covered by the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) to collect and report information about the race, ethnicity, and sex of applicants for certain dwelling-secured loans, including some types of loans not covered by § 1002.13.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Collecting information on behalf of creditors.</I> Persons such as loan brokers and correspondents do not violate the ECOA or Regulation B if they collect information that they are otherwise prohibited from collecting, where the purpose of collecting the information is to provide it to a creditor that is subject to subpart B of this part, the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, or another Federal or State statute or regulation requiring data collection.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Information required by subpart B.</I> Subpart B of this part generally requires creditors that are covered financial institutions as defined in § 1002.105(b) to collect and report information about the ethnicity, race, and sex of the principal owners of applicants for certain small business credit, as well as whether the applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, as defined in § 1002.102(m) and (s), respectively.


</P>
<P><I>5(a)(4) Other Permissible Collection of Information</I>


</P>
<P>1. <I>Other permissible collection of information.</I> Information regarding ethnicity, race, and sex that is not required to be collected pursuant to Regulation C, 12 CFR part 1003, or subpart B of this part, may nevertheless be collected under the circumstances set forth in § 1002.5(a)(4) without violating § 1002.5(b). The information collected pursuant to 12 CFR part 1003 must be retained pursuant to the requirements of § 1002.12. The information collected pursuant to subpart B of this part must be retained pursuant to the requirements set forth in § 1002.111.
</P>
<P><I>5(d) Other limitations on information requests.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Indirect disclosure of prohibited information.</I> The fact that certain credit-related information may indirectly disclose marital status does not bar a creditor from seeking such information. For example, the creditor may ask about:
</P>
<P>i. The applicant's obligation to pay alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income.
</P>
<P>ii. The source of income to be used as the basis for repaying the credit requested, which could disclose that it is the income of a spouse.
</P>
<P>iii. Whether any obligation disclosed by the applicant has a co-obligor, which could disclose that the co-obligor is a spouse or former spouse.
</P>
<P>iv. The ownership of assets, which could disclose the interest of a spouse.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 5(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure about income.</I> The sample application forms in appendix B to the regulation illustrate how a creditor may inform an applicant of the right not to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General inquiry about source of income.</I> Since a general inquiry about the source of income may lead an applicant to disclose alimony, child support, or separate maintenance income, a creditor making such an inquiry on an application form should preface the request with the disclosure required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Specific inquiry about sources of income.</I> A creditor need not give the disclosure if the inquiry about income is specific and worded in a way that is unlikely to lead the applicant to disclose the fact that income is derived from alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. For example, an application form that asks about specific types of income such as salary, wages, or investment income need not include the disclosure.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.6—Rules Concerning Evaluation of Applications
</HD2>
<P><I>6(a) General rule concerning use of information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> When evaluating an application for credit, a creditor generally may consider any information obtained. However, a creditor may not consider in its evaluation of creditworthiness any information that it is barred by § 1002.5 from obtaining or from using for any purpose other than to conduct a self-test under § 1002.15.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effects test.</I> The effects test is a judicial doctrine that was developed in a series of employment cases decided by the U.S. Supreme Court under title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (42 U.S.C. 2000e <I>et seq.,</I>) and the burdens of proof for such employment cases were codified by Congress in the Civil Rights Act of 1991 (42 U.S.C. 2000e-2). Congressional intent that this doctrine apply to the credit area is documented in the Senate Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-589, pp. 4-5; and in the House Report that accompanied H.R. 6516, No. 94-210, p.5. The Act and regulation may prohibit a creditor practice that is discriminatory in effect because it has a disproportionately negative impact on a prohibited basis, even though the creditor has no intent to discriminate and the practice appears neutral on its face, unless the creditor practice meets a legitimate business need that cannot reasonably be achieved as well by means that are less disparate in their impact. For example, requiring that applicants have income in excess of a certain amount to qualify for an overdraft line of credit could mean that women and minority applicants will be rejected at a higher rate than men and nonminority applicants. If there is a demonstrable relationship between the income requirement and creditworthiness for the level of credit involved, however, use of the income standard would likely be permissible.
</P>
<P><I>6(b) Specific rules concerning use of information.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited basis</I>—special purpose credit. In a special purpose credit program, a creditor may consider a prohibited basis to determine whether the applicant possesses a characteristic needed for eligibility. (See § 1002.8.)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Favoring the elderly.</I> Any system of evaluating creditworthiness may favor a credit applicant who is age 62 or older. A credit program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants age 62 or older is also permissible; a program that offers more favorable credit terms to applicants at an age lower than 62 is permissible only if it meets the special-purpose credit requirements of § 1002.8.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consideration of age in a credit scoring system.</I> Age may be taken directly into account in a credit scoring system that is “demonstrably and statistically sound,” as defined in § 1002.2(p), with one limitation: Applicants age 62 years or older must be treated at least as favorably as applicants who are under age 62. If age is scored by assigning points to an applicant's age category, elderly applicants must receive the same or a greater number of points as the most favored class of nonelderly applicants.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Age-split scorecards.</I> Some credit systems segment the population and use different scorecards based on the age of an applicant. In such a system, one card may cover a narrow age range (for example, applicants in their twenties or younger) who are evaluated under attributes predictive for that age group. A second card may cover all other applicants, who are evaluated under the attributes predictive for that broader class. When a system uses a card covering a wide age range that encompasses elderly applicants, the credit scoring system is not deemed to score age. Thus, the system does not raise the issue of assigning a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants. But if a system segments the population by age into multiple scorecards, and includes elderly applicants in a narrower age range, the credit scoring system does score age. To comply with the Act and regulation in such a case, the creditor must ensure that the system does not assign a negative factor or value to the age of elderly applicants as a class.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consideration of age in a judgmental system.</I> In a judgmental system, defined in § 1002.2(t), a creditor may not decide whether to extend credit or set the terms and conditions of credit based on age or information related exclusively to age. Age or age-related information may be considered only in evaluating other “pertinent elements of creditworthiness” that are drawn from the particular facts and circumstances concerning the applicant. For example, a creditor may not reject an application or terminate an account because the applicant is 60 years old. But a creditor that uses a judgmental system may relate the applicant's age to other information about the applicant that the creditor considers in evaluating creditworthiness. As the following examples illustrate, the evaluation must be made in an individualized, case-by-case manner:
</P>
<P>i. A creditor may consider the applicant's occupation and length of time to retirement to ascertain whether the applicant's income (including retirement income) will support the extension of credit to its maturity.
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor may consider the adequacy of any security offered when the term of the credit extension exceeds the life expectancy of the applicant and the cost of realizing on the collateral could exceed the applicant's equity. An elderly applicant might not qualify for a 5 percent down, 30-year mortgage loan but might qualify with a larger downpayment or a shorter loan maturity.
</P>
<P>iii. A creditor may consider the applicant's age to assess the significance of length of employment (a young applicant may have just entered the job market) or length of time at an address (an elderly applicant may recently have retired and moved from a long-term residence).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consideration of age in a reverse mortgage.</I> A reverse mortgage is a home-secured loan in which the borrower receives payments from the creditor, and does not become obligated to repay these amounts (other than in the case of default) until the borrower dies, moves permanently from the home, or transfers title to the home, or upon a specified maturity date. Disbursements to the borrower under a reverse mortgage typically are determined by considering the value of the borrower's home, the current interest rate, and the borrower's life expectancy. A reverse mortgage program that requires borrowers to be age 62 or older is permissible under § 1002.6(b)(2)(iv). In addition, under § 1002.6(b)(2)(iii), a creditor may consider a borrower's age to evaluate a pertinent element of creditworthiness, such as the amount of the credit or monthly payments that the borrower will receive, or the estimated repayment date.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consideration of age in a combined system.</I> A creditor using a credit scoring system that qualifies as “empirically derived” under § 1002.2(p) may consider other factors (such as a credit report or the applicant's cash flow) on a judgmental basis. Doing so will not negate the classification of the credit scoring component of the combined system as “demonstrably and statistically sound.” While age could be used in the credit scoring portion, however, in the judgmental portion age may not be considered directly. It may be used only for the purpose of determining a “pertinent element of creditworthiness.” (See comment 6(b)(2)-3.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Consideration of public assistance.</I> When considering income derived from a public assistance program, a creditor may take into account, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The length of time an applicant will likely remain eligible to receive such income.
</P>
<P>ii. Whether the applicant will continue to qualify for benefits based on the status of the applicant's dependents (as in the case of Temporary Aid to Needy Families, or social security payments to a minor).
</P>
<P>iii. Whether the creditor can attach or garnish the income to assure payment of the debt in the event of default.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consideration of an individual applicant.</I> A creditor must evaluate income derived from part-time employment, alimony, child support, separate maintenance payments, retirement benefits, or public assistance on an individual basis, not on the basis of aggregate statistics; and must assess its reliability or unreliability by analyzing the applicant's actual circumstances, not by analyzing statistical measures derived from a group.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payments consistently made.</I> In determining the likelihood of consistent payments of alimony, child support, or separate maintenance, a creditor may consider factors such as whether payments are received pursuant to a written agreement or court decree; the length of time that the payments have been received; whether the payments are regularly received by the applicant; the availability of court or other procedures to compel payment; and the creditworthiness of the payor, including the credit history of the payor when it is available to the creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consideration of income.</I>
</P>
<P>i. A creditor need not consider income at all in evaluating creditworthiness. If a creditor does consider income, there are several acceptable methods, whether in a credit scoring or a judgmental system:
</P>
<P>A. A creditor may score or take into account the total sum of all income stated by the applicant without taking steps to evaluate the income for reliability.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor may evaluate each component of the applicant's income, and then score or take into account income determined to be reliable separately from other income; or the creditor may disregard that portion of income that is not reliable when it aggregates reliable income.
</P>
<P>C. A creditor that does not evaluate all income components for reliability must treat as reliable any component of protected income that is not evaluated.
</P>
<P>ii. In considering the separate components of an applicant's income, the creditor may not automatically discount or exclude from consideration any protected income. Any discounting or exclusion must be based on the applicant's actual circumstances.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Part-time employment, sources of income.</I> A creditor may score or take into account the fact that an applicant has more than one source of earned income—a full-time and a part-time job or two part-time jobs. A creditor may also score or treat earned income from a secondary source differently than earned income from a primary source. The creditor may not, however, score or otherwise take into account the number of sources for income such as retirement income, social security, supplemental security income, and alimony. Nor may the creditor treat negatively the fact that an applicant's only earned income is derived from, for example, a part-time job.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Types of credit references.</I> A creditor may restrict the types of credit history and credit references that it will consider, provided that the restrictions are applied to all credit applicants without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. On the applicant's request, however, a creditor must consider credit information not reported through a credit bureau when the information relates to the same types of credit references and history that the creditor would consider if reported through a credit bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(7).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>National origin—immigration status.</I> The applicant's immigration status and ties to the community (such as employment and continued residence in the area) could have a bearing on a creditor's ability to obtain repayment. Accordingly, the creditor may consider immigration status and differentiate, for example, between a noncitizen who is a long-time resident with permanent resident status and a noncitizen who is temporarily in this country on a student visa.
</P>
<P>2. <I>National origin—citizenship.</I> A denial of credit on the ground that an applicant is not a United States citizen is not per se discrimination based on national origin.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 6(b)(8).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited basis—marital status.</I> A creditor may consider the marital status of an applicant or joint applicant for the purpose of ascertaining the creditor's rights and remedies applicable to the particular extension of credit. For example, in a secured transaction involving real property, a creditor could take into account whether state law gives the applicant's spouse an interest in the property being offered as collateral.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.7—Rules Concerning Extensions of Credit
</HD2>
<P>7(a) Individual accounts.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Open-end credit—authorized user.</I> A creditor may not require a creditworthy applicant seeking an individual credit account to provide additional signatures. But the creditor may condition the designation of an authorized user by the account holder on the authorized user's becoming contractually liable for the account, as long as the creditor does not differentiate on any prohibited basis in imposing this requirement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Open-end credit—choice of authorized user.</I> A creditor that permits an account holder to designate an authorized user may not restrict this designation on a prohibited basis. For example, if the creditor allows the designation of spouses as authorized users, the creditor may not refuse to accept a non-spouse as an authorized user.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Overdraft authority on transaction accounts.</I> If a transaction account (such as a checking account or NOW account) includes an overdraft line of credit, the creditor may require that all persons authorized to draw on the transaction account assume liability for any overdraft.
</P>
<P><I>7(b) Designation of name.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Single name on account.</I> A creditor may require that joint applicants on an account designate a single name for purposes of administering the account and that a single name be embossed on any credit cards issued on the account. But the creditor may not require that the name be the husband's name. (See § 1002.10 for rules governing the furnishing of credit history on accounts held by spouses.)
</P>
<P><I>7(c) Action concerning existing open-end accounts.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(c)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Termination coincidental with marital status change.</I> When an account holder's marital status changes, a creditor generally may not terminate the account unless it has evidence that the account holder is now unable or unwilling to repay. But the creditor may terminate an account on which both spouses are jointly liable, even if the action coincides with a change in marital status, when one or both spouses:
</P>
<P>i. Repudiate responsibility for future charges on the joint account.
</P>
<P>ii. Request separate accounts in their own names.
</P>
<P>iii. Request that the joint account be closed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Updating information.</I> A creditor may periodically request updated information from applicants but may not use events related to a prohibited basis—such as an applicant's retirement or reaching a particular age, or a change in name or marital status—to trigger such a request.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Procedure pending reapplication.</I> A creditor may require a reapplication from an account holder, even when there is no evidence of unwillingness or inability to repay, if (1) the credit was based on the qualifications of a person who is no longer available to support the credit and (2) the creditor has information indicating that the account holder's income may be insufficient to support the credit. While a reapplication is pending, the creditor must allow the account holder full access to the account under the existing contract terms. The creditor may specify a reasonable time period within which the account holder must submit the required information.
</P>
<P><I>7(d) Signature of spouse or other person.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Qualified applicant.</I> The signature rules ensure that qualified applicants are able to obtain credit in their own names. Thus, when an applicant requests individual credit, a creditor generally may not require the signature of another person unless the creditor has first determined that the applicant alone does not qualify for the credit requested.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unqualified applicant.</I> When an applicant requests individual credit but does not meet a creditor's standards, the creditor may require a cosigner, guarantor, endorser, or similar party—but cannot require that it be the spouse. (See commentary to §§ 1002.7(d)(5) and (6).)
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Signature of another person.</I> It is impermissible for a creditor to require an applicant who is individually creditworthy to provide a cosigner—even if the creditor applies the requirement without regard to sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. (But see comment 7(d)(6)-1 concerning guarantors of closely held corporations.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Joint applicant.</I> The term “joint applicant” refers to someone who applies contemporaneously with the applicant for shared or joint credit. It does not refer to someone whose signature is required by the creditor as a condition for granting the credit requested.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Evidence of joint application.</I> A person's intent to be a joint applicant must be evidenced at the time of application. Signatures on a promissory note may not be used to show intent to apply for joint credit. On the other hand, signatures or initials on a credit application affirming applicants' intent to apply for joint credit may be used to establish intent to apply for joint credit. (See appendix B.) The method used to establish intent must be distinct from the means used by individuals to affirm the accuracy of information. For example, signatures on a joint financial statement affirming the veracity of information are not sufficient to establish intent to apply for joint credit.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Jointly owned property.</I> If an applicant requests unsecured credit, does not own sufficient separate property, and relies on joint property to establish creditworthiness, the creditor must value the applicant's interest in the jointly owned property. A creditor may not request that a nonapplicant joint owner sign any instrument as a condition of the credit extension unless the applicant's interest does not support the amount and terms of the credit sought.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Valuation of applicant's interest.</I> In determining the value of an applicant's interest in jointly owned property, a creditor may consider factors such as the form of ownership and the property's susceptibility to attachment, execution, severance, or partition; the value of the applicant's interest after such action; and the cost associated with the action. This determination must be based on the existing form of ownership, and not on the possibility of a subsequent change. For example, in determining whether a married applicant's interest in jointly owned property is sufficient to satisfy the creditor's standards of creditworthiness for individual credit, a creditor may not consider that the applicant's separate property could be transferred into tenancy by the entirety after consummation. Similarly, a creditor may not consider the possibility that the couple may divorce. Accordingly, a creditor may not require the signature of the non-applicant spouse in these or similar circumstances.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Other options to support credit.</I> If the applicant's interest in jointly owned property does not support the amount and terms of credit sought, the creditor may offer the applicant other options to qualify for the extension of credit. For example:
</P>
<P>A. Providing a co-signer or other party (§ 1002.7(d)(5));
</P>
<P>B. Requesting that the credit be granted on a secured basis (§ 1002.7(d)(4)); or
</P>
<P>C. Providing the signature of the joint owner on an instrument that ensures access to the property in the event of the applicant's death or default, but does not impose personal liability unless necessary under state law (such as a limited guarantee). A creditor may not routinely require, however, that a joint owner sign an instrument (such as a quitclaim deed) that would result in the forfeiture of the joint owner's interest in the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Need for signature—reasonable belief.</I> A creditor's reasonable belief as to what instruments need to be signed by a person other than the applicant should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Residency.</I> In assessing the creditworthiness of a person who applies for credit in a community property state, a creditor may assume that the applicant is a resident of the state unless the applicant indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Creation of enforceable lien.</I> Some state laws require that both spouses join in executing any instrument by which real property is encumbered. If an applicant offers such property as security for credit, a creditor may require the applicant's spouse to sign the instruments necessary to create a valid security interest in the property. The creditor may not require the spouse to sign the note evidencing the credit obligation if signing only the mortgage or other security agreement is sufficient to make the property available to satisfy the debt in the event of default. However, if under state law both spouses must sign the note to create an enforceable lien, the creditor may require the signatures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Need for signature—reasonable belief.</I> Generally, a signature to make the secured property available will only be needed on a security agreement. A creditor's reasonable belief that, to ensure access to the property, the spouse's signature is needed on an instrument that imposes personal liability should be supported by a thorough review of pertinent statutory and decisional law or an opinion of the state attorney general.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Integrated instruments.</I> When a creditor uses an integrated instrument that combines the note and the security agreement, the spouse cannot be asked to sign the integrated instrument if the signature is only needed to grant a security interest. But the spouse could be asked to sign an integrated instrument that makes clear—for example, by a legend placed next to the spouse's signature—that the spouse's signature is only to grant a security interest and that signing the instrument does not impose personal liability.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Qualifications of additional parties.</I> In establishing guidelines for eligibility of guarantors, cosigners, or similar additional parties, a creditor may restrict the applicant's choice of additional parties but may not discriminate on the basis of sex, marital status, or any other prohibited basis. For example, the creditor could require that the additional party live in the creditor's market area.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reliance on income of another person</I>—<I>individual credit.</I> An applicant who requests individual credit relying on the income of another person (including a spouse in a non-community property state) may be required to provide the signature of the other person to make the income available to pay the debt. In community property states, the signature of a spouse may be required if the applicant relies on the spouse's separate income. If the applicant relies on the spouse's future earnings that as a matter of state law cannot be characterized as community property until earned, the creditor may require the spouse's signature, but need not do so—even if it is the creditor's practice to require the signature when an applicant relies on the future earnings of a person other than a spouse. (See § 1002.6(c) on consideration of state property laws.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Renewals.</I> If the borrower's creditworthiness is reevaluated when a credit obligation is renewed, the creditor must determine whether an additional party is still warranted and, if not warranted, release the additional party.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 7(d)(6).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guarantees.</I> A guarantee on an extension of credit is part of a credit transaction and therefore subject to the regulation. A creditor may require the personal guarantee of the partners, directors, or officers of a business, and the shareholders of a closely held corporation, even if the business or corporation is creditworthy. The requirement must be based on the guarantor's relationship with the business or corporation, however, and not on a prohibited basis. For example, a creditor may not require guarantees only for women-owned or minority-owned businesses. Similarly, a creditor may not require guarantees only of the married officers of a business or the married shareholders of a closely held corporation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Spousal guarantees.</I> The rules in § 1002.7(d) bar a creditor from requiring the signature of a guarantor's spouse just as they bar the creditor from requiring the signature of an applicant's spouse. For example, although a creditor may require all officers of a closely held corporation to personally guarantee a corporate loan, the creditor may not automatically require that spouses of married officers also sign the guarantee. If an evaluation of the financial circumstances of an officer indicates that an additional signature is necessary, however, the creditor may require the signature of another person in appropriate circumstances in accordance with § 1002.7(d)(2).
</P>
<P><I>7(e) Insurance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Differences in terms.</I> Differences in the availability, rates, and other terms on which credit-related casualty insurance or credit life, health, accident, or disability insurance is offered or provided to an applicant does not violate Regulation B.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance information.</I> A creditor may obtain information about an applicant's age, sex, or marital status for insurance purposes. The information may only be used for determining eligibility and premium rates for insurance, however, and not in making the credit decision.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.8—Special Purpose Credit Programs
</HD2>
<P><I>8(a) Standards for programs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining qualified programs.</I> The Bureau does not determine whether individual programs qualify for special purpose credit status, or whether a particular program benefits an “economically disadvantaged class of persons.” The agency or creditor administering or offering the loan program must make these decisions regarding the status of its program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compliance with a program authorized by Federal or state law.</I> A creditor does not violate Regulation B when it complies in good faith with a regulation promulgated by a government agency implementing a special purpose credit program under § 1002.8(a)(1). It is the agency's responsibility to promulgate a regulation that is consistent with Federal and state law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Expressly authorized.</I> Credit programs authorized by Federal or state law include programs offered pursuant to Federal, state, or local statute, regulation or ordinance, or pursuant to judicial or administrative order.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor liability.</I> A refusal to grant credit to an applicant is not a violation of the Act or regulation if the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements under a special purpose credit program.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Determining need.</I> In designing a special purpose credit program under § 1002.8(a), a for-profit organization must determine that the program will benefit a class of people who would otherwise be denied credit or would receive it on less favorable terms. This determination can be based on a broad analysis using the organization's own research or data from outside sources, including governmental reports and studies. For example, a creditor might design new products to reach consumers who would not meet, or have not met, its traditional standards of creditworthiness due to such factors as credit inexperience or the use of credit sources that may not report to consumer reporting agencies. Or, a bank could review Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data along with demographic data for its assessment area and conclude that there is a need for a special purpose credit program for low-income minority borrowers.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Elements of the program.</I> The written plan must contain information that supports the need for the particular program. The plan also must either state a specific period of time for which the program will last, or contain a statement regarding when the program will be reevaluated to determine if there is a continuing need for it.
</P>
<P><I>8(b) Rules in other sections.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of rules.</I> A creditor that rejects an application because the applicant does not meet the eligibility requirements (common characteristic or financial need, for example) must nevertheless notify the applicant of action taken as required by § 1002.9.
</P>
<P><I>8(c) Special rule concerning requests and use of information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request of prohibited basis information.</I> This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 1002.5 and 1002.6 to determine an applicant's eligibility for a particular program.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of programs under which the creditor can ask for and consider information about a prohibited basis are:
</P>
<P>i. Energy conservation programs to assist the elderly, for which the creditor must consider the applicant's age.
</P>
<P>ii. Programs under a Minority Enterprise Small Business Investment Corporation, for which a creditor must consider the applicant's minority status.
</P>
<P><I>8(d) Special rule in the case of financial need.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Request of prohibited basis information.</I> This section permits a creditor to request and consider certain information that would otherwise be prohibited by §§ 1002.5 and 1002.6, and to require signatures that would otherwise be prohibited by § 1002.7(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of programs in which financial need is a criterion are:
</P>
<P>i. Subsidized housing programs for low-to moderate-income households, for which a creditor may have to consider the applicant's receipt of alimony or child support, the spouse's or parents' income, etc.
</P>
<P>ii. Student loan programs based on the family's financial need, for which a creditor may have to consider the spouse's or parents' financial resources.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Student loans.</I> In a guaranteed student loan program, a creditor may obtain the signature of a parent as a guarantor when required by Federal or state law or agency regulation, or when the student does not meet the creditor's standards of creditworthiness. (See §§ 1002.7(d)(1) and (5).) The creditor may not require an additional signature when a student has a work or credit history that satisfies the creditor's standards.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.9—Notifications
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Use of the term adverse action.</I> The regulation does not require that a creditor use the term adverse action in communicating to an applicant that a request for an extension of credit has not been approved. In notifying an applicant of adverse action as defined by § 1002.2(c)(1), a creditor may use any words or phrases that describe the action taken on the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expressly withdrawn applications.</I> When an applicant expressly withdraws a credit application, the creditor is not required to comply with the notification requirements under § 1002.9. (The creditor must comply, however, with the record retention requirements of the regulation. See § 1002.12(b)(3).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>When notification occurs.</I> Notification occurs when a creditor delivers or mails a notice to the applicant's last known address or, in the case of an oral notification, when the creditor communicates the credit decision to the applicant.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Location of notice.</I> The notifications required under § 1002.9 may appear on either or both sides of a form or letter.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prequalification requests.</I> Whether a creditor must provide a notice of action taken for a prequalification request depends on the creditor's response to the request, as discussed in comment 2(f)-3. For instance, a creditor may treat the request as an inquiry if the creditor evaluates specific information about the consumer and tells the consumer the loan amount, rate, and other terms of credit the consumer could qualify for under various loan programs, explaining the process the consumer must follow to submit a mortgage application and the information the creditor will analyze in reaching a credit decision. On the other hand, a creditor has treated a request as an application, and is subject to the adverse action notice requirements of § 1002.9 if, after evaluating information, the creditor decides that it will not approve the request and communicates that decision to the consumer. For example, if the creditor tells the consumer that it would not approve an application for a mortgage because of a bankruptcy in the consumer's record, the creditor has denied an application for credit.
</P>
<P><I>9(a) Notification of action taken, ECOA notice, and statement of specific reasons.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing of notice—when an application is complete.</I> Once a creditor has obtained all the information it normally considers in making a credit decision, the application is complete and the creditor has 30 days in which to notify the applicant of the credit decision. (See also comment 2(f)-6.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notification of approval.</I> Notification of approval may be express or by implication. For example, the creditor will satisfy the notification requirement when it gives the applicant the credit card, money, property, or services requested.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Incomplete application—denial for incompleteness.</I> When an application is incomplete regarding information that the applicant can provide and the creditor lacks sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may deny the application giving as the reason for denial that the application is incomplete. The creditor has the option, alternatively, of providing a notice of incompleteness under § 1002.9(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incomplete application—denial for reasons other than incompleteness.</I> When an application is missing information but provides sufficient data for a credit decision, the creditor may evaluate the application, make its credit decision, and notify the applicant accordingly. If credit is denied, the applicant must be given the specific reasons for the credit denial (or notice of the right to receive the reasons); in this instance missing information or “incomplete application” cannot be given as the reason for the denial.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Length of counteroffer.</I> Section 1002.9(a)(1)(iv) does not require a creditor to hold a counteroffer open for 90 days or any other particular length of time.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Counteroffer combined with adverse action notice.</I> A creditor that gives the applicant a combined counteroffer and adverse action notice that complies with § 1002.9(a)(2) need not send a second adverse action notice if the applicant does not accept the counteroffer. A sample of a combined notice is contained in form C-4 of appendix C to the regulation.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Denial of a telephone application.</I> When an application is made by telephone and adverse action is taken, the creditor must request the applicant's name and address in order to provide written notification under this section. If the applicant declines to provide that information, then the creditor has no further notification responsibility.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> In determining which rules in this paragraph apply to a given business credit application, a creditor may rely on the applicant's assertion about the revenue size of the business. (Applications to start a business are governed by the rules in § 1002.9(a)(3)(i).) If an applicant applies for credit as a sole proprietor, the revenues of the sole proprietorship will determine which rules govern the application. However, if an applicant applies for business credit as an individual, the rules in § 1002.9(a)(3)(i) apply unless the application is for trade or similar credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Trade credit.</I> The term trade credit generally is limited to a financing arrangement that involves a buyer and a seller—such as a supplier who finances the sale of equipment, supplies, or inventory; it does not apply to an extension of credit by a bank or other financial institution for the financing of such items.
</P>
<P>3<I>. Factoring.</I> Factoring refers to a purchase of accounts receivable, and thus is not subject to the Act or regulation. If there is a credit extension incident to the factoring arrangement, the notification rules in § 1002.9(a)(3)(ii) apply, as do other relevant sections of the Act and regulation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manner of compliance.</I> In complying with the notice provisions of the Act and regulation, creditors offering business credit may follow the rules governing consumer credit. Similarly, creditors may elect to treat all business credit the same (irrespective of revenue size) by providing notice in accordance with § 1002.9(a)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Timing of notification.</I> A creditor subject to § 1002.9(a)(3)(ii)(A) is required to notify a business credit applicant, orally or in writing, of action taken on an application within a reasonable time of receiving a completed application. Notice provided in accordance with the timing requirements of § 1002.9(a)(1) is deemed reasonable in all instances.
</P>
<P><I>9(b) Form of ECOA notice and statement of specific reasons.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substantially similar notice.</I> The ECOA notice sent with a notification of a credit denial or other adverse action will comply with the regulation if it is “substantially similar” to the notice contained in § 1002.9(b)(1). For example, a creditor may add a reference to the fact that the ECOA permits age to be considered in certain credit scoring systems, or add a reference to a similar state statute or regulation and to a state enforcement agency.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Number of specific reasons.</I> A creditor must disclose the principal reasons for denying an application or taking other adverse action. The regulation does not mandate that a specific number of reasons be disclosed, but disclosure of more than four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Source of specific reasons.</I> The specific reasons disclosed under §§ 1002.9(a)(2) and (b)(2) must relate to and accurately describe the factors actually considered or scored by a creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Description of reasons.</I> A creditor need not describe how or why a factor adversely affected an applicant. For example, the notice may say “length of residence” rather than “too short a period of residence.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit scoring system.</I> If a creditor bases the denial or other adverse action on a credit scoring system, the reasons disclosed must relate only to those factors actually scored in the system. Moreover, no factor that was a principal reason for adverse action may be excluded from disclosure. The creditor must disclose the actual reasons for denial (for example, “age of automobile”) even if the relationship of that factor to predicting creditworthiness may not be clear to the applicant.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Credit scoring</I>—<I>method for selecting reasons.</I> The regulation does not require that any one method be used for selecting reasons for a credit denial or other adverse action that is based on a credit scoring system. Various methods will meet the requirements of the regulation. One method is to identify the factors for which the applicant's score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by applicants whose total score was at or slightly above the minimum passing score. Another method is to identify the factors for which the applicant's score fell furthest below the average score for each of those factors achieved by all applicants. These average scores could be calculated during the development or use of the system. Any other method that produces results substantially similar to either of these methods is also acceptable under the regulation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Judgmental system.</I> If a creditor uses a judgmental system, the reasons for the denial or other adverse action must relate to those factors in the applicant's record actually reviewed by the person making the decision.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Combined credit scoring and judgmental system.</I> If a creditor denies an application based on a credit evaluation system that employs both credit scoring and judgmental components, the reasons for the denial must come from the component of the system that the applicant failed. For example, if a creditor initially credit scores an application and denies the credit request as a result of that scoring, the reasons disclosed to the applicant must relate to the factors scored in the system. If the application passes the credit scoring stage but the creditor then denies the credit request based on a judgmental assessment of the applicant's record, the reasons disclosed must relate to the factors reviewed judgmentally, even if the factors were also considered in the credit scoring component. If the application is not approved or denied as a result of the credit scoring, but falls into a gray band, and the creditor performs a judgmental assessment and denies the credit after that assessment, the reasons disclosed must come from both components of the system. The same result applies where a judgmental assessment is the first component of the combined system. As provided in comment 9(b)(2)-1, disclosure of more than a combined total of four reasons is not likely to be helpful to the applicant.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Automatic denial.</I> Some credit decision methods contain features that call for automatic denial because of one or more negative factors in the applicant's record (such as the applicant's previous bad credit history with that creditor, the applicant's declaration of bankruptcy, or the fact that the applicant is a minor). When a creditor denies the credit request because of an automatic-denial factor, the creditor must disclose that specific factor.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Combined ECOA-FCRA disclosures.</I> The ECOA requires disclosure of the principal reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application for an extension of credit. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) requires a creditor to disclose when it has based its decision in whole or in part on information from a source other than the applicant or its own files. Disclosing that a credit report was obtained and used in the denial of the application, as the FCRA requires, does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons. For example, if the applicant's credit history reveals delinquent credit obligations and the application is denied for that reason, to satisfy § 1002.9(b)(2) the creditor must disclose that the application was denied because of the applicant's delinquent credit obligations. The FCRA also requires a creditor to disclose, as applicable, a credit score it used in taking adverse action along with related information, including up to four key factors that adversely affected the consumer's credit score (or up to five factors if the number of inquiries made with respect to that consumer report is a key factor). Disclosing the key factors that adversely affected the consumer's credit score does not satisfy the ECOA requirement to disclose specific reasons for denying or taking other adverse action on an application or extension of credit. Sample forms C-1 through C-5 of appendix C of the regulation provide for both the ECOA and FCRA disclosures. See also comment 9(b)(2)-1.
</P>
<P><I>9(c) Incomplete applications.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(c)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exception for preapprovals.</I> The requirement to provide a notice of incompleteness does not apply to preapprovals that constitute applications under § 1002.2(f).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reapplication.</I> If information requested by a creditor is submitted by an applicant after the expiration of the time period designated by the creditor, the creditor may require the applicant to make a new application.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 9(c)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Oral inquiries for additional information.</I> If an applicant fails to provide the information in response to an oral request, a creditor must send a written notice to the applicant within the 30-day period specified in §§ 1002.9(c)(1) and (2). If the applicant provides the information, the creditor must take action on the application and notify the applicant in accordance with § 1002.9(a).
</P>
<P><I>9(g) Applications submitted through a third party.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Third parties.</I> The notification of adverse action may be given by one of the creditors to whom an application was submitted, or by a noncreditor third party. If one notification is provided on behalf of multiple creditors, the notice must contain the name and address of each creditor. The notice must either disclose the applicant's right to a statement of specific reasons within 30 days, or give the primary reasons each creditor relied upon in taking the adverse action—clearly indicating which reasons relate to which creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Third party notice—enforcement agency.</I> If a single adverse action notice is being provided to an applicant on behalf of several creditors and they are under the jurisdiction of different Federal enforcement agencies, the notice need not name each agency; disclosure of any one of them will suffice.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party notice—liability.</I> When a notice is to be provided through a third party, a creditor is not liable for an act or omission of the third party that constitutes a violation of the regulation if the creditor accurately and in a timely manner provided the third party with the information necessary for the notification and maintains reasonable procedures adapted to prevent such violations.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.10—Furnishing of Credit Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of § 1002.10 for designating and reporting credit information apply only to consumer credit transactions. Moreover, they apply only to creditors that opt to furnish credit information to credit bureaus or to other creditors; there is no requirement that a creditor furnish credit information on its accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reporting on all accounts.</I> The requirements of § 1002.10 apply only to accounts held or used by spouses. However, a creditor has the option to designate all joint accounts (or all accounts with an authorized user) to reflect the participation of both parties, whether or not the accounts are held by persons married to each other.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Designating accounts.</I> In designating accounts and reporting credit information, a creditor need not distinguish between accounts on which the spouse is an authorized user and accounts on which the spouse is a contractually liable party.
</P>
<P>4. <I>File and index systems.</I> The regulation does not require the creation or maintenance of separate files in the name of each participant on a joint or user account, or require any other particular system of recordkeeping or indexing. It requires only that a creditor be able to report information in the name of each spouse on accounts covered by § 1002.10. Thus, if a creditor receives a credit inquiry about the wife, it should be able to locate her credit file without asking the husband's name.
</P>
<P><I>10(a) Designation of accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>New parties.</I> When new parties who are spouses undertake a legal obligation on an account, as in the case of a mortgage loan assumption, the creditor must change the designation on the account to reflect the new parties and must furnish subsequent credit information on the account in the new names.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Request to change designation of account.</I> A request to change the manner in which information concerning an account is furnished does not alter the legal liability of either spouse on the account and does not require a creditor to change the name in which the account is maintained.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.11—Relation to State Law
</HD2>
<P><I>11(a) Inconsistent state laws.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Preemption determination—New York.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. The Board of Governors determined that the following provisions in the state law of New York are preempted by the Federal law, effective November 11, 1988:
</P>
<P>i. Article 15, section 296a(1)(b). Unlawful discriminatory practices in relation to credit on the basis of race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars taking a prohibited basis into account when establishing eligibility for certain special-purpose credit programs.
</P>
<P>ii. Article 15, section 296a(1)(c). Unlawful discriminatory practice to make any record or inquiry based on race, creed, color, national origin, age, sex, marital status, or disability. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars a creditor from requesting and considering information regarding the particular characteristics (for example, race, national origin, or sex) required for eligibility for special-purpose credit programs.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preemption determination—Ohio.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. The Board of Governors determined that the following provision in the state law of Ohio is preempted by the Federal law, effective July 23, 1990:
</P>
<P>i. Section 4112.021(B)(1)—Unlawful discriminatory practices in credit transactions. This provision is preempted to the extent that it bars asking or favorably considering the age of an elderly applicant; prohibits the consideration of age in a credit scoring system; permits without limitation the consideration of age in real estate transactions; and limits the consideration of age in special-purpose credit programs to certain government-sponsored programs identified in the state law.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.12—Record Retention
</HD2>
<P><I>12(a) Retention of prohibited information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of prohibited information.</I> Unless the creditor specifically requested such information, a creditor does not violate this section when it receives prohibited information from a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of retained information.</I> Although a creditor may keep in its files prohibited information as provided in § 1002.12(a), the creditor may use the information in evaluating credit applications only if permitted to do so by § 1002.6.
</P>
<P><I>12(b) Preservation of records.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Copies.</I> Copies of the original record include carbon copies, photocopies, microfilm or microfiche copies, or copies produced by any other accurate retrieval system, such as documents stored and reproduced by computer. A creditor that uses a computerized or mechanized system need not keep a paper copy of a document (for example, of an adverse action notice) if it can regenerate all pertinent information in a timely manner for examination or other purposes.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Computerized decisions.</I> A creditor that enters information items from a written application into a computerized or mechanized system and makes the credit decision mechanically, based only on the items of information entered into the system, may comply with § 1002.12(b) by retaining the information actually entered. It is not required to store the complete written application, nor is it required to enter the remaining items of information into the system. If the transaction is subject to § 1002.13 or the creditor is collecting information pursuant to § 1002.5(a)(4), however, the creditor is required to enter and retain the data on personal characteristics in order to comply with the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 12(b)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawn and brokered applications.</I> In most cases, the 25-month retention period for applications runs from the date a notification is sent to the applicant granting or denying the credit requested. In certain transactions, a creditor is not obligated to provide a notice of the action taken. (See, for example, comment 9-2.) In such cases, the 25-month requirement runs from the date of application, as when:
</P>
<P>i. An application is withdrawn by the applicant.
</P>
<P>ii. An application is submitted to more than one creditor on behalf of the applicant, and the application is approved by one of the other creditors.
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(6) Self-tests.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The rule requires all written or recorded information about a self-test to be retained for 25 months after a self-test has been completed. For this purpose, a self-test is completed after the creditor has obtained the results and made a determination about what corrective action, if any, is appropriate. Creditors are required to retain information about the scope of the self-test, the methodology used and time period covered by the self-test, the report or results of the self-test including any analysis or conclusions, and any corrective action taken in response to the self-test.
</P>
<P><I>12(b)(7) Preapplication Marketing Information</I>


</P>
<P>1. <I>Prescreened credit solicitations.</I> The rule requires creditors to retain copies of prescreened credit solicitations. For purposes of this part, a prescreened solicitation is an “offer of credit” as described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act. A creditor complies with § 1002.12(b)(7) if it retains a copy of each solicitation mailing that contains different terms, such as the amount of credit offered, annual percentage rate, or annual fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>List of criteria.</I> A creditor must retain the list of criteria used to select potential recipients. This includes the criteria used by the creditor both to determine the potential recipients of the particular solicitation and to determine who will actually be offered credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Correspondence.</I> A creditor may retain correspondence relating to consumers' complaints about prescreened solicitations in any manner that is reasonably accessible and is understandable to examiners. There is no requirement to establish a separate database or set of files for such correspondence, or to match consumer complaints with specific solicitation programs.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.13—Information for Monitoring Purposes
</HD2>
<P><I>13(a) Information to be requested.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Natural person.</I> Section 1002.13 applies only to applications from natural persons.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Principal residence.</I> The requirements of § 1002.13 apply only if an application relates to a dwelling that is or will be occupied by the applicant as the principal residence. A credit application related to a vacation home or a rental unit is not covered. In the case of a two-to four-unit dwelling, the application is covered if the applicant intends to occupy one of the units as a principal residence.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Temporary financing.</I> An application for temporary financing to construct a dwelling is not subject to § 1002.13. But an application for both a temporary loan to finance construction of a dwelling and a permanent mortgage loan to take effect upon the completion of construction is subject to § 1002.13.
</P>
<P>4. <I>New principal residence.</I> A person can have only one principal residence at a time. However, if a person buys or builds a new dwelling that will become that person's principal residence within a year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal residence for purposes of § 1002.13.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> The information-collection requirements of this section apply to applications for credit primarily for the purchase or refinancing of a dwelling that is or will become the applicant's principal residence. Therefore, applications for credit secured by the applicant's principal residence but made primarily for a purpose other than the purchase or refinancing of the principal residence (such as loans for home improvement and debt consolidation) are not subject to the information-collection requirements. An application for an open-end home equity line of credit is not subject to this section unless it is readily apparent to the creditor when the application is taken that the primary purpose of the line is for the purchase or refinancing of a principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Refinancings.</I> A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same borrower. A creditor that receives an application to refinance an existing extension of credit made by that creditor for the purchase of the applicant's dwelling may request the monitoring information again but is not required to do so if it was obtained in the earlier transaction.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Data collection under Regulation C.</I> For applications subject to § 1002.13(a)(1), a creditor that collects information about the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant in compliance with the requirements of appendix B to 12 CFR part 1003 is acting in compliance with § 1002.13 concerning the collection of an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex information. <I>See also</I> comment 5(a)(2)-2.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Application-by-application basis.</I> For applications subject to § 1002.13(a)(1), a creditor may choose on an application-by-application basis whether to collect aggregate information pursuant to § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(A) or disaggregated information pursuant to § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(B) about the ethnicity and race of the applicant.
</P>
<P><I>13(b) Obtaining of Information</I>


</P>
<P>1. <I>Forms for collecting data.</I> A creditor may collect the information specified in § 1002.13(a) either on an application form or on a separate form referring to the application. Appendix B to this part provides for two alternative data collection model forms for use in complying with the requirements of § 1002.13(a)(1)(i) and (ii) to collect information concerning an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex. When a creditor collects ethnicity and race information pursuant to § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(A), the applicant must be offered the option to select more than one racial designation. When a creditor collects ethnicity and race information pursuant to § 1002.13(a)(1)(i)(B), the applicant must be offered the option to select more than one ethnicity designation and more than one racial designation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written applications.</I> The regulation requires written applications for the types of credit covered by § 1002.13. A creditor can satisfy this requirement by recording on paper or by means of computer the information that the applicant provides orally and that the creditor normally considers in a credit decision.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Telephone, mail applications.</I> i. A creditor that accepts an application by telephone or mail must request the monitoring information.
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor that accepts an application by mail need not make a special request for the monitoring information if the applicant has failed to provide it on the application form returned to the creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. If it is not evident on the face of an application that it was received by mail, telephone, or via an electronic medium, the creditor should indicate on the form or other application record how the application was received.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Video and other electronic-application processes.</I> i. If a creditor takes an application through an electronic medium that allows the creditor to see the applicant, the creditor must treat the application as taken in person. The creditor must note the monitoring information on the basis of visual observation or surname, if the applicant chooses not to provide the information.
</P>
<P>ii. If an applicant applies through an electronic medium without video capability, the creditor treats the application as if it were received by mail.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Applications through loan-shopping services.</I> When a creditor receives an application through an unaffiliated loan-shopping service, it does not have to request the monitoring information for purposes of the ECOA or subpart A of this Regulation B. Creditors subject to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act should be aware, however, that data collection may be called for under Regulation C (12 CFR part 1003), which generally requires creditors to report, among other things, the sex and race of an applicant on brokered applications or applications received through a correspondent. Similarly, creditors that are covered financial institutions under subpart B of this Regulation may also be required to collect, report, and maintain certain data, as set forth in subpart B of this Regulation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Inadvertent notation.</I> If a creditor inadvertently obtains the monitoring information in a dwelling-related transaction not covered by § 1002.13, the creditor may process and retain the application without violating the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>13(c) Disclosure to applicants.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Procedures for providing disclosures.</I> The disclosure to an applicant regarding the monitoring information may be provided in writing. Appendix B provides data collection model forms for use in complying with § 1002.13 and that comply with § 1002.13(c). A creditor may devise its own disclosure so long as it is substantially similar. The creditor need not orally request the monitoring information if it is requested in writing.
</P>
<P><I>13(d) Substitute monitoring program.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Substitute program.</I> An enforcement agency may adopt, under its established rulemaking or enforcement procedures, a program requiring creditors under its jurisdiction to collect information in addition to information required by this section.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.14—Rules on Providing Appraisals and Valuations
</HD2>
<P><I>14(a) Providing appraisals and other valuations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> If there is more than one applicant, the written disclosure about written appraisals, and the copies of appraisals and other written valuations, need only be given to one applicant. However, these materials must be given to the primary applicant where one is readily apparent. Similarly, if there is more than one applicant for credit in the transaction, one applicant may provide a waiver under § 1002.14(a)(1), but it must be the primary applicant where one is readily apparent.
</P>
<P><I>14(a)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1002.14 covers applications for credit to be secured by a first lien on a dwelling, as that term is defined in § 1002.14(b)(2), whether the credit is for a business purpose (for example, a loan to start a business) or a consumer purpose (for example, a loan to purchase a home).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewals.</I> Section 1002.14(a)(1) applies when an applicant requests the renewal of an existing extension of credit and the creditor develops a new appraisal or other written valuation. Section 1002.14(a)(1) does not apply to the extent a creditor uses the appraisals and other written valuations that were previously developed in connection with the prior extension of credit to evaluate the renewal request.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written.</I> For purposes of § 1002.14, an “appraisal or other written valuation” includes, without limitation, an appraisal or other valuation received or developed by the creditor in paper form (hard copy); electronically, such as CD or email; or by any other similar media. See § 1002.14(a)(5) regarding the provision of copies of appraisals and other written valuations to applicants via electronic means.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Timing.</I> Section 1002.14(a)(1) requires that the creditor “provide” copies of appraisals and other written valuations to the applicant “promptly upon completion,” or no later than three business days before consummation (for closed-end credit) or account opening (for open-end credit), whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>i. For purposes of this timing requirement, “provide” means “deliver.” Delivery occurs three business days after mailing or delivering the copies to the last-known address of the applicant, or when evidence indicates actual receipt by the applicant, whichever is earlier. Delivery to or actual receipt by the applicant by electronic means must comply with the E-Sign Act, as provided for in § 1002.14(a)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. The application and meaning of the “promptly upon completion” standard depends upon the facts and circumstances, including but not limited to when the creditor receives the appraisal or other written valuation, and the extent of any review or revision after the creditor receives it.
</P>
<P>iii. “Completion” occurs when the last version is received by the creditor, or when the creditor has reviewed and accepted the appraisal or other written valuation to include any changes or corrections required, whichever is later. <I>See also</I> comment 14(a)(1)-7.
</P>
<P>iv. In a transaction that is being consummated (for closed-end credit) or in which the account is being opened (for open-end credit), if an appraisal or other written valuation has been developed but is not yet complete, the deadline for providing a copy of three business days before consummation or account opening still applies, unless the applicant waived that deadline as provided under § 1002.14(a)(1), in which case the copy must be provided at or before consummation or account opening.
</P>
<P>v. Even if the transaction will not be consummated (for closed-end credit) or the account will not be opened (for open-end credit), the copy must be provided “promptly upon completion” as provided for in § 1002.14(a)(1), unless the applicant has waived that deadline as provided under § 1002.14(a)(1), in which case as provided for in § 1002.14(a)(1) the copy must be provided to the applicant no later than 30 days after the creditor determines the transaction will not be consummated or the account will not be opened.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Promptly upon completion-examples.</I> Examples in which the “promptly upon completion” standard would be satisfied include, but are not limited to, those in subparagraphs i, ii, and iii below. Examples in which the “promptly upon completion” standard would not be satisfied include, but are not limited to, those in subparagraphs iv and v below.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Sending a copy of an appraisal within a week of completion with sufficient time before consummation (or account opening for open-end credit).</I> On day 15 after receipt of the application, the creditor's underwriting department reviews an appraisal and determines it is acceptable. One week later, the creditor sends a copy of the appraisal to the applicant. The applicant actually receives the copy more than three business days before the date of consummation (or account opening). The creditor has provided the copy of the appraisal promptly upon completion.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Sending a copy of a revised appraisal within a week after completion and with sufficient time before consummation (or account opening for open-end credit).</I> An appraisal is being revised, and the creditor does not receive the revised appraisal until day 45 after the application, when the creditor immediately determines the revised appraisal is acceptable. A week later, the creditor sends a copy of the revised appraisal to the applicant, and does not send a copy of the initial appraisal to the applicant. The applicant actually receives the copy of the revised appraisal three business days before the date of consummation (or account opening). The creditor has provided the appraisal copy promptly upon completion.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Sending a copy of an AVM report within a week after its receipt and with sufficient time before consummation (or account opening for open-end credit).</I> The creditor receives an automated valuation model (AVM) report on day 5 after receipt of the application and treats the AVM report as complete when it is received. On day 12 after receipt of the application, the creditor sends the applicant a copy of the valuation. The applicant actually receives the valuation more than three business days before the date of consummation (or account opening). The creditor has provided the copy of the AVM report promptly upon completion.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Delay in sending an appraisal.</I> On day 12 after receipt of the application, the creditor's underwriting department reviews an appraisal and determines it is acceptable. Although the creditor has determined the appraisal is complete, the creditor waits to provide a copy to the applicant until day 42, when the creditor schedules the consummation (or account opening) to occur on day 50. The creditor has not provided the copy of the appraisal promptly upon completion.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Delay in sending an AVM report while waiting for completion of a second valuation.</I> The creditor receives an AVM report on day 5 after application and completes its review of the AVM report the day it is received. The creditor also has ordered an appraisal, but the initial version of the appraisal received by the creditor is found to be deficient and is sent for review. The creditor waits 30 days to provide a copy of the completed AVM report, until the appraisal is completed on day 35. The creditor then provides the applicant with copies of the AVM report and the revised appraisal. While the appraisal report was provided promptly upon completion, the AVM report was not.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Waiver.</I> Section 1002.14(a)(1) permits the applicant to waive the timing requirement if the creditor provides the copies at or before consummation or account opening, except where otherwise prohibited by law. Except where otherwise prohibited by law, an applicant's waiver is effective under § 1002.14(a)(1) in either of the following two situations:
</P>
<P>i. If, no later than three business days prior to consummation or account opening, the applicant provides the creditor an affirmative oral or written statement waiving the timing requirement under this rule; or
</P>
<P>ii. If, within three business days of consummation or account opening, the applicant provides the creditor an affirmative oral or written statement waiving the timing requirement under this rule and the waiver pertains solely to the applicant's receipt of a copy of an appraisal or other written valuation that contains only clerical changes from a previous version of the appraisal or other written valuation provided to the applicant three or more business days prior to consummation or account opening. For purpose of this second type of waiver, revisions will only be considered to be clerical in nature if they have no impact on the estimated value, and have no impact on the calculation or methodology used to derive the estimate. In addition, under § 1002.14(a)(1) the applicant still must receive the copy of the revision at or prior to consummation or account opening.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Multiple versions of appraisals or valuations.</I> For purposes of § 1002.14(a)(1), the reference to “all” appraisals and other written valuations does not refer to all versions of the same appraisal or other valuation. If a creditor has received multiple versions of an appraisal or other written valuation, the creditor is required to provide only a copy of the latest version received. If, however, a creditor already has provided a copy of one version of an appraisal or other written valuation to an applicant, and the creditor later receives a revision of that appraisal or other written valuation, then the creditor also must provide the applicant with a copy of the revision to comply with § 1002.14(a)(1). If a creditor receives only one version of an appraisal or other valuation that is developed in connection with the applicant's application, then that version must be provided to the applicant to comply with § 1002.14(a)(1). <I>See also</I> comment 14(a)(1)-4 above.
</P>
<P><I>14(a)(2) Disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Appraisal independence requirements not affected.</I> Nothing in the text of the disclosure required by § 1002.14(a)(2) should be construed to affect, modify, limit, or supersede the operation of any legal, regulatory, or other requirements or standards relating to independence in the conduct of appraisers or the use of applicant-ordered appraisals by creditors.
</P>
<P><I>14(a)(3) Reimbursement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Photocopy, postage, or other costs.</I> Creditors may not charge for photocopy, postage, or other costs incurred in providing a copy of an appraisal or other written valuation in accordance with section 14(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable fee for reimbursement.</I> Section 1002.14(a)(3) does not prohibit a creditor from imposing a reasonable fee to reimburse the creditor's costs of the appraisal or other written valuation, so long as the fee is not increased to cover the costs of providing copies of such appraisals or other written valuations under § 1002.14(a)(1). A creditor's cost may include an administration fee charged to the creditor by an appraisal management company as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(11). Section 1002.14(a)(3) does not, however, legally obligate the applicant to pay such fees. Further, creditors may not impose fees for reimbursement of the costs of an appraisal or other valuation where otherwise prohibited by law. For instance, a creditor may not charge a consumer a fee for the performance of a second appraisal if the second appraisal is required under 15 U.S.C. 1639h(b)(2) and 12 CFR 1026.35(c).
</P>
<P><I>14(b) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>14(b)(1) Consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law governs.</I> When a contractual obligation on the consumer's part is created is a matter to be determined under applicable law; § 1002.14 does not make this determination. A contractual commitment agreement, for example, that under applicable law binds the consumer to the credit terms would be consummation. Consummation, however, does not occur merely because the consumer has made some financial investment in the transaction (for example, by paying a nonrefundable fee) unless, of course, applicable law holds otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit vs. sale.</I> Consummation does not occur when the consumer becomes contractually committed to a sale transaction, unless the consumer also becomes legally obligated to accept a particular credit arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>14(b)(2) Dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>“Motor vehicles” not covered.</I> The requirements of § 1002.14 do not apply to “motor vehicles” as defined by 12 U.S.C. 5519(f)(1).
</P>
<P><I>14(b)(3) Valuation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Valuations—examples.</I> Examples of valuations include but are not limited to: 
</P>
<P>i. A report prepared by an appraiser (whether or not licensed or certified) including the appraiser's estimate of the property's value or opinion of value.
</P>
<P>ii. A document prepared by the creditor's staff that assigns value to the property.
</P>
<P>iii. A report approved by a government-sponsored enterprise for describing to the applicant the estimate of the property's value developed pursuant to the proprietary methodology or mechanism of the government-sponsored enterprise.
</P>
<P>iv. A report generated by use of an automated valuation model to estimate the property's value.
</P>
<P>v. A broker price opinion prepared by a real estate broker, agent, or sales person to estimate the property's value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Attachments and exhibits.</I> The term “valuation” includes any attachments and exhibits that are an integrated part of the valuation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other documentation.</I> Not all documents that discuss or restate a valuation of an applicant's property constitute a “valuation” for purposes of § 1002.14(b)(3). Examples of documents that discuss the valuation of the applicant's property or may reflect its value but nonetheless are not “valuations” include but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Internal documents that merely restate the estimated value of the dwelling contained in an appraisal or written valuation being provided to the applicant.
</P>
<P>ii. Governmental agency statements of appraised value that are publically available.
</P>
<P>iii. Publicly-available lists of valuations (such as published sales prices or mortgage amounts, tax assessments, and retail price ranges).
</P>
<P>iv. Manufacturers' invoices for manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>v. Reports reflecting property inspections that do not provide an estimate of the value of the property and are not used to develop an estimate of the value of the property.
</P>
<P>vi. Appraisal reviews that do not include the appraiser's estimate of the property's value or opinion of value.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.15—Incentives for Self-Testing and Self-Correction
</HD2>
<P><I>15(a) General rules.</I>
</P>
<P><I>15(a)(1) Voluntary self-testing and correction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Activities required by any governmental authority are not voluntary self-tests. A governmental authority includes both administrative and judicial authorities for Federal, State, and local governments.
</P>
<P><I>15(a)(2) Corrective action required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. To qualify for the privilege, appropriate corrective action is required when the results of a self-test show that it is more likely than not that there has been a violation of the ECOA or this part. A self-test is also privileged when it identifies no violations.
</P>
<P>2. In some cases, the issue of whether certain information is privileged may arise before the self-test is complete or corrective actions are fully under way. This would not necessarily prevent a creditor from asserting the privilege. In situations where the self-test is not complete, for the privilege to apply the lender must satisfy the regulation's requirements within a reasonable period of time. To assert the privilege where the self-test shows a likely violation, the rule requires, at a minimum, that the creditor establish a plan for corrective action and a method to demonstrate progress in implementing the plan. Creditors must take appropriate corrective action on a timely basis after the results of the self-test are known.
</P>
<P>3. A creditor's determination about the type of corrective action needed, or a finding that no corrective action is required, is not conclusive in determining whether the requirements of this paragraph have been satisfied. If a creditor's claim of privilege is challenged, an assessment of the need for corrective action or the type of corrective action that is appropriate must be based on a review of the self-testing results, which may require an <I>in camera</I> inspection of the privileged documents.
</P>
<P><I>15(a)(3) Other privileges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. A creditor may assert the privilege established under this section in addition to asserting any other privilege that may apply, such as the attorney-client privilege or the work-product privilege. Self-testing data may be privileged under this section whether or not the creditor's assertion of another privilege is upheld.
</P>
<P><I>15(b) Self-test defined.</I>
</P>
<P><I>15(b)(1) Definition.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(b)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. To qualify for the privilege, a self-test must be sufficient to constitute a determination of the extent or effectiveness of the creditor's compliance with the Act and Regulation B. Accordingly, a self-test is only privileged if it was designed and used for that purpose. A self-test that is designed or used to determine compliance with other laws or regulations or for other purposes is not privileged under this rule. For example, a self-test designed to evaluate employee efficiency or customers' satisfaction with the level of service provided by the creditor is not privileged even if evidence of discrimination is uncovered incidentally. If a self-test is designed for multiple purposes, only the portion designed to determine compliance with the ECOA is eligible for the privilege.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(b)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. The principal attribute of self-testing is that it constitutes a voluntary undertaking by the creditor to produce new data or factual information that otherwise would not be available and could not be derived from loan or application files or other records related to credit transactions. Self-testing includes, but is not limited to, the practice of using fictitious applicants for credit (testers), either with or without the use of matched pairs. A creditor may elect to test a defined segment of its business, for example, loan applications processed by a specific branch or loan officer, or applications made for a particular type of credit or loan program. A creditor also may use other methods of generating information that is not available in loan and application files, such as surveying mortgage loan applicants. To the extent permitted by law, creditors might also develop new methods that go beyond traditional pre-application testing, such as hiring testers to submit fictitious loan applications for processing.
</P>
<P>2. The privilege does not protect a creditor's analysis performed as part of processing or underwriting a credit application. A creditor's evaluation or analysis of its loan files, Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data, or similar types of records (such as broker or loan officer compensation records) does not produce new information about a creditor's compliance and is not a self-test for purposes of this section. Similarly, a statistical analysis of data derived from existing loan files is not privileged.
</P>
<P><I>15(b)(3) Types of information not privileged.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(b)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. The information listed in this paragraph is not privileged and may be used to determine whether the prerequisites for the privilege have been satisfied. Accordingly, a creditor might be asked to identify the self-testing method, for example, whether preapplication testers were used or data were compiled by surveying loan applicants. Information about the scope of the self-test (such as the types of credit transactions examined, or the geographic area covered by the test) also is not privileged.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(b)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. Property appraisal reports, minutes of loan committee meetings or other documents reflecting the basis for a decision to approve or deny an application, loan policies or procedures, underwriting standards, and broker compensation records are examples of the types of records that are not privileged. If a creditor arranges for testers to submit loan applications for processing, the records are not related to actual credit transactions for purposes of this paragraph and may be privileged self-testing records.
</P>
<P><I>15(c) Appropriate corrective action.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The rule only addresses the corrective actions required for a creditor to take advantage of the privilege in this section. A creditor may be required to take other actions or provide additional relief if a formal finding of discrimination is made.
</P>
<P><I>15(c)(1) General requirement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Appropriate corrective action is required even though no violation has been formally adjudicated or admitted by the creditor. In determining whether it is more likely than not that a violation occurred, a creditor must treat testers as if they are actual applicants for credit. A creditor may not refuse to take appropriate corrective action under this section because the self-test used fictitious loan applicants. The fact that a tester's agreement with the creditor waives the tester's legal right to assert a violation does not eliminate the requirement for the creditor to take corrective action, although no remedial relief for the tester is required under paragraph 15(c)(3).
</P>
<P><I>15(c)(2) Determining the scope of appropriate corrective action.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Whether a creditor has taken or is taking corrective action that is appropriate will be determined on a case-by-case basis. Generally, the scope of the corrective action that is needed to preserve the privilege is governed by the scope of the self-test. For example, a creditor that self-tests mortgage loans and discovers evidence of discrimination may focus its corrective actions on mortgage loans, and is not required to expand its testing to other types of loans.
</P>
<P>2. In identifying the policies or practices that are a likely cause of the violation, a creditor might identify inadequate or improper lending policies, failure to implement established policies, employee conduct, or other causes. The extent and scope of a likely violation may be assessed by determining which areas of operations are likely to be affected by those policies and practices, for example, by determining the types of loans and stages of the application process involved and the branches or offices where the violations may have occurred.
</P>
<P>3. Depending on the method and scope of the self-test and the results of the test, appropriate corrective action may include one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>i. If the self-test identifies individuals whose applications were inappropriately processed, offering to extend credit if the application was improperly denied and compensating such persons for out-of-pocket costs and other compensatory damages;
</P>
<P>ii. Correcting institutional policies or procedures that may have contributed to the likely violation, and adopting new policies as appropriate;
</P>
<P>iii. Identifying and then training and/or disciplining the employees involved;
</P>
<P>iv. Developing outreach programs, marketing strategies, or loan products to serve more effectively segments of the lender's markets that may have been affected by the likely discrimination; and
</P>
<P>v. Improving audit and oversight systems to avoid a recurrence of the likely violations.
</P>
<P><I>15(c)(3) Types of relief.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(c)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. The use of pre-application testers to identify policies and practices that illegally discriminate does not require creditors to review existing loan files for the purpose of identifying and compensating applicants who might have been adversely affected.
</P>
<P>2. If a self-test identifies a specific applicant who was discriminated against on a prohibited basis, to qualify for the privilege in this section the creditor must provide appropriate remedial relief to that applicant; the creditor is not required to identify other applicants who might also have been adversely affected.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(c)(3)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. A creditor is not required to provide remedial relief to an applicant that would not be available by law. An applicant might also be ineligible for certain types of relief due to changed circumstances. For example, a creditor is not required to offer credit to a denied applicant if the applicant no longer qualifies for the credit due to a change in financial circumstances, although some other type of relief might be appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>15(d)(1) Scope of privilege.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The privilege applies with respect to any examination, investigation or proceeding by Federal, State, or local government agencies relating to compliance with the Act or this part. Accordingly, in a case brought under the ECOA, the privilege established under this section preempts any inconsistent laws or court rules to the extent they might require disclosure of privileged self-testing data. The privilege does not apply in other cases (such as in litigation filed solely under a State's fair lending statute). In such cases, if a court orders a creditor to disclose self-test results, the disclosure is not a voluntary disclosure or waiver of the privilege for purposes of paragraph 15(d)(2); a creditor may protect the information by seeking a protective order to limit availability and use of the self-testing data and prevent dissemination beyond what is necessary in that case. Paragraph 15(d)(1) precludes a party who has obtained privileged information from using it in a case brought under the ECOA, provided the creditor has not lost the privilege through voluntary disclosure under paragraph 15(d)(2).
</P>
<P><I>15(d)(2) Loss of privilege.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. A creditor's corrective action, by itself, is not considered a voluntary disclosure of the self-test report or results. For example, a creditor does not disclose the results of a self-test merely by offering to extend credit to a denied applicant or by inviting the applicant to reapply for credit. Voluntary disclosure could occur under this paragraph, however, if the creditor disclosed the self-test results in connection with a new offer of credit.
</P>
<P>2. The disclosure of self-testing results to an independent contractor acting as an auditor or consultant for the creditor on compliance matters does not result in loss of the privilege.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. The privilege is lost if the creditor discloses privileged information, such as the results of the self-test. The privilege is not lost if the creditor merely reveals or refers to the existence of the self-test.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. A creditor's claim of privilege may be challenged in a court or administrative law proceeding with appropriate jurisdiction. In resolving the issue, the presiding officer may require the creditor to produce privileged information about the self-test.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 15(d)(3) Limited use of privileged information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. A creditor may be required to produce privileged documents for the purpose of determining a penalty or remedy after a violation of the ECOA or Regulation B has been formally adjudicated or admitted. A creditor's compliance with such a requirement does not evidence the creditor's intent to forfeit the privilege.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.16—Enforcement, Penalties, and Liabilities
</HD2>
<P><I>16(c) Failure of compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Inadvertent errors.</I> Inadvertent errors include, but are not limited to, clerical mistake, calculation error, computer malfunction, and printing error. An error of legal judgment is not an inadvertent error under the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Correction of error.</I> For inadvertent errors that occur under §§ 1002.12 and 1002.13, this section requires that they be corrected prospectively.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.102—Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>102(b) Applicant
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In no way are the limitations to the term applicant in § 1002.102(b) of subpart B intended to repeal, abrogate, annul, impair, change, or interfere with the scope of the term applicant in § 1002.2(e) as applicable to subpart A.




</P>
<HD3>102(m) Minority-Owned Business
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In order to be a minority-owned business for purposes of subpart B of this part, a business must satisfy both prongs of the definition of minority-owned business. First, one or more American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino individuals must own or control more than 50 percent of the business. However, it is not necessary that one or more American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino individuals both own and control more than 50 percent of the business. For example, a business that is owned entirely, but is not controlled by, individuals belonging to one of these groups satisfies the first prong of the definition. Similarly, a business that is controlled by an American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino individual satisfies this first prong of the definition, even if none of the individuals with ownership in the business are American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino. If a business does not satisfy this first prong of the definition, it is not a minority-owned business. Second, 50 percent or more of the net profits or losses must accrue to one or more individuals belonging to these groups. If a business does not satisfy this second prong of the definition, it is not a minority-owned business, regardless of whether it satisfies the first prong of the definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purpose of definition.</I> The definition of minority-owned business is used only when an applicant determines if it is a minority-owned business for purposes of § 1002.107(a)(18). A financial institution shall provide an applicant with the definition of minority-owned business when asking the applicant to provide its minority-owned business status pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18), but the financial institution is neither permitted nor required to make its own determination regarding the applicant's minority-owned business status.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Further clarifications of terms used in the definition of minority-owned business.</I> In order to assist an applicant when determining whether it is a minority-owned business, a financial institution may provide the applicant with the definitions of ownership, control, and accrual of net profits or losses and related concepts set forth in comments 102(m)-4 through -6. A financial institution may assist an applicant when the applicant is determining its minority-owned business status but is not required to do so. For purposes of reporting an applicant's status, a financial institution relies on the applicant's determinations of its ownership, control, and accrual of net profits and losses.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Ownership.</I> For purposes of determining if a business is a minority-owned business, an individual owns a business if that individual directly or indirectly, through any contract, arrangement, understanding, relationship or otherwise, has an equity interest in the business. Examples of ownership include being the sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship, directly or indirectly owning or holding the stock of a corporation or company, directly or indirectly having a partnership interest in a business, or directly or indirectly having a membership interest in a limited liability company. Indirect as well as direct ownership are used when determining ownership for purposes of §§ 1002.102(m) and 1002.107(a)(18). Thus, where applicable, ownership must be traced through corporate or other indirect ownership structures. For example, assume that the applicant is company A. If company B owns 60 percent of applicant company A and an individual owns 100 percent of company B, the individual owns 60 percent of applicant company A. Similarly, if an individual directly owns 20 percent of applicant company A and is an equal partner in partnership B that owns the remaining 80 percent of applicant company A, the individual owns 60 percent of applicant company A (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 percent due through direct ownership and 40 percent indirectly through partnership B). A trustee is considered the owner of the trust. Thus, if a trust owns a business and the trust has two co-trustees, each co-trustee owns 50 percent of the business.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Control.</I> An individual controls a business if that individual has significant responsibility to manage or direct the business. An individual controls a business if the individual is an executive officer or senior manager (<I>e.g.,</I> a chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, managing member, general partner, president, vice president, or treasurer) or regularly performs similar functions. Additionally, a business may be controlled by two or more American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, or Hispanic or Latino individuals if those individuals collectively control the business, such as constituting a majority of the board of directors or a majority of the partners of a partnership.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Accrual of net profits or losses.</I> A business's net profits and losses accrue to an individual if that individual receives the net profits or losses, is legally entitled or required to receive the net profits or losses, or is legally entitled or required to recognize the net profits or losses for tax purposes.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Multi-racial and multi-ethnic individuals.</I> For purposes of subpart B of this part, an individual who is multi-racial or multi-ethnic constitutes an individual for whom the definition of minority-owned business may apply, depending on whether the individual meets the other requirements of the definition. For example, an individual who is both Asian and White is an individual for whom the definition of minority-owned business shall apply if the individual meets the other requirements of the definition related to ownership or control and accrual of profits or losses.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Relationship to categories used to determine ethnicity</I> and race <I>of principal owners.</I> The ethnicity and race categories used in this section are aggregate ethnicity (Hispanic or Latino) and race (American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, Black or African American, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander) categories. Those ethnicity and race categories are the same aggregate categories used (along with Not Hispanic or Latino for ethnicity, and White for race) to collect an applicant's principal owners' ethnicity and race pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19).




</P>
<HD3>102(o) Principal Owner
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Individual.</I> Only an individual can be a principal owner of a business for purposes of subpart B of this part. Entities, such as trusts, partnerships, limited liability companies, and corporations, are not principal owners for this purpose. Additionally, an individual must directly own an equity share of 25 percent or more in the business in order to be a principal owner. Unlike the determination of ownership for purposes of collecting and reporting minority-owned business status and women-owned business status, indirect ownership is not considered when determining if someone is a principal owner for purposes of collecting and reporting principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex or the number of principal owners. Thus, when determining who is a principal owner, ownership is not traced through multiple corporate structures to determine if an individual owns 25 percent or more of the equity interests. For example, if individual A directly owns 20 percent of a business, individual B directly owns 20 percent, and partnership C owns 60 percent, the business does not have any owners who satisfy the definition of principal owner set forth in § 1002.102(o), even if individual A and individual B are the only partners in the partnership C. Similarly, if individual A directly owns 30 percent of a business, individual B directly owns 20 percent, and trust D owns 50 percent, individual A is the only principal owner as defined in § 1002.102(o), even if individual B is the sole trustee of trust D.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Trustee.</I> Although a trust is not considered a principal owner of a business for the purposes of subpart B, if the applicant for a covered credit transaction is a trust, a trustee is considered the owner of the trust. Thus, if a trust is an applicant for a covered credit transaction and the trust has two co-trustees, each co-trustee is considered to own 50 percent of the business and would each be a principal owner as defined in § 1002.102(o). In contrast, if the trust has five co-trustees, each co-trustee is considered to own 20 percent of the business and would not meet the definition of principal owner under § 1002.102(o).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Purpose of definition.</I> A financial institution shall provide an applicant with the definition of principal owner when asking the applicant to provide the number of its principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(20) and the ethnicity, race, and sex of its principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19). See comments 107(a)(19)-2 and 107(a)(20)-1.






</P>
<HD3>102(s) Women-Owned Business
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In order to be a women-owned business for purposes of subpart B of this part, a business must satisfy both prongs of the definition of women-owned business. First, one or more women must own or control more than 50 percent of the business. However, it is not necessary that one or more women both own and control more than 50 percent of the business. For example, a business that is owned entirely by women but is not controlled by any women satisfies the first prong of the definition. Similarly, a business that is controlled by a woman satisfies this first prong of the definition, even if none of the individuals with ownership in the business are women. If a business does not satisfy this first prong of the definition, it is not a women-owned business. Second, 50 percent or more of the net profits or losses must accrue to one or more women. If a business does not satisfy this second prong of the definition, it is not a women-owned business, regardless of whether it satisfies the first prong of the definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purpose of definition.</I> The definition of women-owned business is used only when an applicant determines if it is a women-owned business pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18). A financial institution shall provide an applicant with the definition of women-owned business when asking the applicant to provide its women-owned business status pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18), but the financial institution is neither permitted nor required to make its own determination regarding the applicant's women-owned business status.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Further clarifications of terms used in the definition of women-owned business.</I> In order to assist an applicant when determining whether it is a women-owned business, a financial institution may provide the applicant with the definitions of ownership, control, and accrual of net profits or losses and related concepts set forth in comments 102(s)-4 through -6. A financial institution may assist an applicant when the applicant is determining its women-owned business status but is not required to do so. For purposes of reporting an applicant's status, a financial institution relies on the applicant's determinations of its ownership, control, and accrual of net profits and losses.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Ownership.</I> For purposes of determining if a business is a women-owned business, an individual owns a business if that individual directly or indirectly, through any contract, arrangement, understanding, relationship or otherwise, has an equity interest in the business. Examples of ownership include being the sole proprietor of a sole proprietorship, directly or indirectly owning or holding the stock of a corporation or company, directly or indirectly having a partnership interest in a business, or directly or indirectly having a membership interest in a limited liability company. Indirect as well as direct ownership are used when determining ownership for purposes of §§ 1002.102(s) and 1002.107(a)(18). Thus, where applicable, ownership must be traced through corporate or other indirect ownership structures. For example, assume that the applicant is company A. If company B owns 60 percent of the applicant company A and an individual owns 100 percent of company B, the individual owns 60 percent of the applicant company A. Similarly, if an individual directly owns 20 percent of the applicant company A and is an equal partner in a partnership B that owns the remaining 80 percent of the applicant company A, the individual owns 60 percent of applicant company A (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 percent due through direct ownership and 40 percent indirectly through partnership B). A trustee is considered the owner of the trust. Thus, if a trust owns a business and the trust has two co-trustees, each co-trustee owns 50 percent of the business.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Control.</I> An individual controls a business if that individual has significant responsibility to manage or direct the business. An individual controls a business if the individual is an executive officer or senior manager (<I>e.g.,</I> a chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, managing member, general partner, president, vice president, or treasurer) or regularly performs similar functions. Additionally, a business may be controlled by two or more women if those women collectively control the business, such as constituting a majority of the board of directors or a majority of the partners of a partnership.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Accrual of net profits or losses.</I> A business's net profits and losses accrue to an individual if that individual receives the net profits or losses, is legally entitled or required to receive the net profits or losses, or is legally entitled or required to recognize the net profits or losses for tax purposes.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.103—Covered Applications
</HD2>
<HD3>103(a) Covered Application
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Subject to the requirements of subpart B of this part, a financial institution has latitude to establish its own application procedures, including designating the type and amount of information it will require from applicants.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures used.</I> The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a financial institution as well as its stated application procedures. For example, if a financial institution's stated policy is to require all applications to be in writing on the financial institution's application form, but the financial institution also makes credit decisions based on oral requests, the financial institution's procedures are to accept both oral and written applications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consistency with subpart A.</I> Bureau interpretations that appear in this supplement I in connection with §§ 1002.2(f) and 1002.9 are generally applicable to the definition of a covered application in § 1002.103. However, the definition of a covered application in § 1002.103 does not include inquiries and prequalification requests. The definition of a covered application also does not include reevaluation, extension, or renewal requests on an existing business credit account, unless the request seeks additional credit amounts. See § 1002.103(b).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Solicitations and firm offers of credit.</I> For purposes of subpart B of this part, the term covered application does not include solicitations, firm offers of credit, or other evaluations initiated by the financial institution because in these situations the business has not made a request for credit. For example, if a financial institution sends a firm offer of credit to a business for a $10,000 line of credit, and the business does not respond, it is not a covered application because the business never made a request for credit. However, using the same example, if the business seeks to obtain the credit offered, assuming the requirements of a covered application are otherwise met, the business's request constitutes a covered application for purposes of subpart B of this part. See also comment 103(b)-4.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Requests for multiple covered credit transactions at one time.</I> Assuming the requirements of a covered application are met, if an applicant makes a request for two or more covered credit transactions at the same time, the financial institution reports each request as a separate covered application. For example, if an applicant is seeking both a term loan and a line of credit and requests them both on the same application form, the financial institution reports the requests as two separate covered applications, one for a term loan and another for a line of credit. See § 1002.107(d) for the requirements for reusing data so that a financial institution need only ask once for certain data required under § 1002.107(a). If, on the other hand, the applicant is only requesting a single covered credit transaction, but has not decided on which particular product, the financial institution reports the request as a single covered application. For example, if the applicant indicates interest in either a term loan or a line of credit, but not both, the financial institution reports the request as a single covered application. See comment 107(a)(5)-1 for instructions on reporting credit product in this situation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Initial request for a single covered credit transaction that would result in the origination of multiple covered credit transactions.</I> Assuming the requirements of a covered application are met, if an applicant initially makes a request for one covered credit transaction, but over the course of the application process requests multiple covered credit transactions, each covered credit transaction must be reported as a separate covered application. See § 1002.107(d) for the requirements for reusing data so that a financial institution need only ask once for certain data required under § 1002.107(a).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Requests for multiple lines of credit at one time.</I> Assuming the requirements of a covered application are met, if an applicant requests multiple lines of credit on a single credit account, it is reported as one or more covered applications based on the procedures used by the financial institution for the type of credit account. For example, if a financial institution treats a request for multiple lines of credit at one time as sub-components of a single account, the financial institution reports the request as a single covered application. If, on the other hand, the financial institution treats each line of credit as a separate account, then the financial institution reports each request for a line of credit as a separate covered application, as set forth in comment 103(a)-5.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Duplicate applications.</I> If a financial institution receives two or more duplicate covered applications (<I>i.e.,</I> from the same applicant, for the same credit product, for the same amount, at or around the same time), the financial institution may treat the request as a single covered application for purposes of subpart B, so long as for purposes of determining whether to extend credit, it would also treat one or more of the applications as a duplicate under its procedures.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Changes in whether there is a covered credit transaction.</I> In certain circumstances, an applicant may change the type of product requested during the course of the application process. Assuming other requirements of a covered application are met, if an applicant initially requests a product that is not a covered credit transaction, but prior to final action taken decides to seek instead a product that is a covered credit transaction, the application is a covered application and must be reported pursuant to § 1002.109. In this circumstance, the financial institution shall endeavor to compile, maintain, and report the data required under § 1002.107(a) in a manner that is reasonable under the circumstances. If, on the other hand, an applicant initially requests a product that is a covered credit transaction, but prior to final action taken decides instead to seek a product that is not a covered credit transaction, the application is not a covered application and thus is not reported. See also § 1002.112(c)(4), which provides a safe harbor for incorrect collection of certain data if, at the time of collection, the financial institution had a reasonable basis for believing that the application was a covered application. Assuming other requirements of a covered application are met, if an applicant initially requests a product that is a covered credit transaction, the financial institution counteroffers with a product that is not a covered credit transaction, and the applicant declines to proceed or fails to respond, the application is reported as a covered application. For example, if an applicant initially applies for a term loan, but then, after consultation with the financial institution, decides that a lease would better meet its needs and decides to proceed with that product, the application is not a covered application and thus is not reported. However, if an applicant initially applies for a term loan, the financial institution offers to consider the applicant only for a lease, and the applicant refuses, the transaction is a covered application that must be reported.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Multiple unaffiliated co-applicants.</I> If a covered financial institution receives a covered application from multiple businesses that are not affiliates, as defined by § 1002.102(a), it shall compile, maintain, and report data pursuant to §§ 1002.107 through 1002.109 for only a single applicant that is a small business, as defined in § 1002.106(b). A covered financial institution shall establish consistent procedures for designating a single small business for purposes of collecting and reporting data under subpart B in situations where there is more than one small business co-applicant, such as reporting on the first small business listed on an application form. For example, if three businesses jointly apply as co-applicants for a term loan to purchase a piece of equipment, but only one of the businesses is a small business, as defined in § 1002.106(b), the financial institution reports on the single small business. If, however, two of the businesses are small businesses, as defined in § 1002.106(b), the financial institution must have a procedure for designating which small business among multiple small business co-applicants it will report information on, such as consistently reporting on the first small business listed on an application form. See also § 1002.5(a)(4)(x), which permits a creditor to collect certain protected information about co-applicants under certain circumstances.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Refinancings and evaluation, extension, or renewal requests that request additional credit amounts.</I> As discussed in comments 103(b)-2 and -3, assuming other requirements of a covered application are met, an applicant's request to refinance and an applicant's request for additional credit amounts on an existing account both constitute covered applications.
</P>
<HD3>103(b) Circumstances That Are Not Covered Applications
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The circumstances set forth in § 1002.103(b) are not covered applications for purposes of subpart B of this part, even if considered applications under subpart A of this part. However, in no way are the exclusions in § 1002.103(b) intended to repeal, abrogate, annul, impair, change, or interfere with the scope of the term application in § 1002.2(f) as applicable to subpart A.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reevaluation, extension, or renewal requests that do not request additional credit amounts.</I> An applicant's request to change one or more terms of an existing account does not constitute a covered application, unless the applicant is requesting additional credit amounts on the account. For example, an applicant's request to extend the duration on a line of credit or to remove a guarantor would not be a covered application. However, assuming other requirements of a covered application are met, an applicant's request to refinance would be reportable. A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same borrower.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reevaluation, extension, or renewal requests that request additional credit amounts.</I> A Assuming other requirements of a covered application are met, an applicant's request for additional credit amounts on an existing account constitutes a covered application. For example, an applicant's request for a line increase on an existing line of credit, made in accordance with a financial institution's procedures for the type of credit requested, would be a covered application. As discussed in comment 107(a)(7)-4, when reporting a covered application that seeks additional credit amounts on an existing account, the financial institution need only report the additional credit amount sought, and not the entire credit amount. For example, if an applicant currently has a line of credit account for $100,000, and seeks to increase the line to $150,000, the financial institution reports the amount applied for as $50,000.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reviews or evaluations initiated by the financial institution.</I> For purposes of subpart B of this part, the term covered application does not include evaluations or reviews of existing accounts initiated by the financial institution because the business has not made a request for credit. For example, if a financial institution conducts periodic reviews of its existing lines of credit and decides to increase the business's line by $10,000, it is not a covered application because the business never made a request for the additional credit amounts. However, if such an evaluation or review of an existing account by a financial institution results in the financial institution inviting the business to apply for additional credit amounts on an existing account and the business does so, the business's request constitutes a covered application for purposes of subpart B of this part, assuming other requirements of a covered application are met. Similarly, as noted in comment 103(a)-4, the term covered application also does not include solicitations and firm offers of credit.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Inquiries and prequalification requests.</I> An inquiry is a request by a prospective applicant for information about credit terms offered by the financial institution. A prequalification request is a request by a prospective applicant for a preliminary determination on whether the prospective applicant would likely qualify for credit under a financial institution's standards or for a determination on the amount of credit for which the prospective applicant would likely qualify. Inquiries and prequalification requests are not covered applications under subpart B of this part, even though in certain circumstances inquiries and prequalification requests may constitute applications under subpart A. For example, while an inquiry or prequalification request may become an “application” under subpart A if the creditor evaluates information about the business, decides to decline the request, and communicates this to the business, such inquiries or prequalifications would not be “covered applications” under subpart B of this part. Whether a particular request is a covered application, or whether instead it is an inquiry or prequalification request that is not reportable under subpart B, may turn, for instance, on how a financial institution structures and processes such requests: does the financial institution require or encourage a preliminary review in order for a business to be considered for a covered credit transaction, or does the business voluntarily seek preliminary feedback as a tool to explore its options before it decides whether to apply for credit with the financial institution? The name used by the financial institution for such a request is not determinative. For example, under subpart B, a review is a reportable covered application if the financial institution requires the business, before it may apply for credit, to pass through a mandatory screening process that considers particular information about the business and denies or turns away the business if it is ineligible or unlikely to qualify for credit. In contrast, a business that requests a financial institution to identify credit products for which the business might qualify based on limited or self-described characteristics, and without any commitment from the financial institution to extend credit, may not have submitted a covered application for purposes of subpart B.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.104—Covered Credit Transactions and Excluded Transactions
</HD2>
<HD3>104(a) Covered Credit Transaction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The term “covered credit transaction” includes all business credit (including loans, lines of credit, and credit cards) unless otherwise excluded under § 1002.104(b).


</P>
<HD3>104(b) Excluded Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Factoring.</I> The term “covered credit transaction” does not cover factoring as described herein. For the purpose of this subpart, factoring is an accounts receivable purchase transaction between businesses that includes an agreement to purchase, transfer, or sell a legally enforceable claim for payment for goods that the recipient has supplied or services that the recipient has rendered but for which payment in full has not yet been made. The name used by the financial institution for a product is not determinative of whether or not it is a “covered credit transaction.” This description of factoring is not intended to repeal, abrogate, annul, impair, or interfere with any existing interpretations, orders, agreements, ordinances, rules, or regulations adopted or issued pursuant to comment 9(a)(3)-3. A financial institution shall report an extension of business credit incident to a factoring arrangement that is otherwise a covered credit transaction as “Other” under § 1002.107(a)(5).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Leases.</I> The term “covered credit transaction” does not cover leases as described herein. A lease, for the purpose of this subpart, is a transfer from one business to another of the right to possession and use of goods for a term, and for primarily business or commercial purposes, in return for consideration. A lease does not include a sale, including a sale on approval or a sale or return, or a transaction resulting in the retention or creation of a security interest. The name used by the financial institution for a product is not determinative of whether or not it is a “covered credit transaction.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consumer-designated credit.</I> The term “covered credit transaction” does not include consumer-designated credit that is used for business purposes. A transaction qualifies as consumer-designated credit if the financial institution offers or extends the credit primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. For example, an open-end credit account used for both personal and business purposes is not business credit for the purpose of subpart B of this part unless the financial institution designated or intended for the primary purpose of the account to be business-related.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit transaction purchases, purchases of an interest in a pool of credit transactions, and purchases of a partial interest in a credit transaction.</I> The term “covered credit transaction” does not cover the purchase of an originated credit transaction, the purchase of an interest in a pool of credit transactions, or the purchase of a partial interest in a credit transaction such as through a loan participation agreement. Such purchases do not, in themselves, constitute an application for credit. See also comment 109(a)(3)-2.i.










</P>
<HD3>104(b)(1) Trade Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Trade credit, as defined in § 1002.104(b)(1), is excluded from the definition of a covered credit transaction. An example of trade credit involves a supplier that finances the sale of equipment, supplies, or inventory. However, an extension of business credit by a financial institution other than the supplier for the financing of such items is not trade credit. Also, credit extended by a business providing goods or services to another business is not trade credit for the purposes of this subpart where the supplying business intends to sell or transfer its rights as a creditor to a third party.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Trade credit under subpart A.</I> The definition of trade credit under comment 9(a)(3)-2 applies to relevant provisions under subpart A, and § 1002.104(b)(1) is not intended to repeal, abrogate, annul, impair, or interfere with any existing interpretations, orders, agreements, ordinances, rules, or regulations adopted or issued pursuant to comment 9(a)(3)-2.


</P>
<HD3>104(b)(9) Small Dollar Business Credit Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Small dollar business credit transactions, as defined in § 1002.104(b)(9), are excluded from the definition of a covered credit transaction. Applications that are originated or approved but not accepted satisfy this exclusion if the amount originated or approved is $1,000 or less. Applications that are denied, withdrawn, or incomplete satisfy this exclusion if the amount applied for is $1,000 or less. If the particular type of credit product applied for does not involve a specific amount requested, and the financial institution as matter of general practice does not originate that particular type of credit product in amounts of $1,000 or less, the application cannot be treated as a small dollar business credit transaction. See comment 107(a)(7)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Inflation adjustment methodology.</I> The small dollar business credit transaction amount set forth in § 1002.104(b)(9)(ii) will be adjusted upward or downward to reflect changes, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (U.S. city average series for all items, not seasonally adjusted), as published by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics (“CPI-U”). The base for computing each adjustment is the January 2030 CPI-U; this base value shall be compared to the CPI-U value in January 2035 and every five years thereafter. For example, after the January 2035 CPI-U is made available, the adjustment is calculated by determining the percentage change in the CPI-U between January 2030 and January 2035, applying this change to the $1,000 small dollar business transaction amount, and rounding to the nearest $100. If, as a result of this rounding, there is no change in the transaction amount, there will be no adjustment. For example, if in January 2035 the adjusted value were $950 (reflecting a $50 decrease from January 2030 CPI-U), then the transaction amount would not adjust because $950 would be rounded up to $1,000. If on the other hand, the adjusted value were $1,120, then the transaction amount would adjust to $1,100. Where the adjusted value is a multiple of $50 (<I>e.g.,</I> $1,050), then the transaction amount adjusts upward.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substitute for CPI-U.</I> If publication of the CPI-U ceases, or if the CPI-U otherwise becomes unavailable or is altered in such a way as to be unusable, then the Bureau shall substitute another reliable cost of living indicator from the United States Government for the purpose of calculating adjustments pursuant to § 1002.104(b)(9)(ii).


</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.105—Covered Financial Institutions and Exempt Institutions
</HD2>
<HD3>105(a) Financial Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1002.105(a) defines a financial institution as any partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity that engages in any financial activity. This definition includes, but is not limited to, banks, savings associations, credit unions, online lenders, platform lenders, community development financial institutions, lenders involved in equipment and vehicle financing (captive financing companies and independent financing companies), commercial finance companies, organizations exempt from taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(c), and governments or governmental subdivisions or agencies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Motor vehicle dealers.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.101(a), subpart B of this part excludes from coverage persons defined by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 2004 (2010).
</P>
<HD3>105(b) Covered Financial Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preceding calendar year.</I> The definition of covered financial institution refers to preceding calendar years. For example, in 2029, the two preceding calendar years are 2027 and 2028. Accordingly, in 2029, Financial Institution A does not meet the loan-volume threshold in § 1002.105(b) if did not originate at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses both during 2027 and during 2028.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Origination threshold.</I> A financial institution qualifies as a covered financial institution based on total covered credit transactions originated for small businesses, rather than covered applications received from small businesses. For example, if in both 2028 and 2029, Financial Institution B received 1,100 covered applications from small businesses and originated 900 covered credit transactions for small businesses, then for 2029, Financial Institution B is not a covered financial institution.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Counting originations when multiple financial institutions are involved in originating a covered credit transaction.</I> For the purpose of counting originations to determine whether a financial institution is a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b), in a situation where multiple financial institutions are involved in originating a single covered credit transaction, only the last financial institution with authority to set the material terms of the covered credit transaction is required to count the origination.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Counting originations after adjustments to the gross annual revenue threshold due to inflation.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.106(b)(2), every five years, the gross annual revenue threshold used to define a small business in § 1002.106(b)(1) shall be adjusted, if necessary, to account for inflation. The first time such an adjustment could occur is in 2035, with an effective date of January 1, 2036. A financial institution seeking to determine whether it is a covered financial institution applies the gross annual revenue threshold that is in effect for each year it is evaluating. For example, a financial institution seeking to determine whether it is a covered financial institution in 2037 counts its originations of covered credit transactions for small businesses in calendar years 2035 and 2036. The financial institution applies the initial $1 million threshold to evaluate whether its originations were to small businesses in 2035. In this example, if the small business threshold were increased to $1.1 million effective January 1, 2036, the financial institution applies the $1.1 million threshold to count its originations for small businesses in 2036.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reevaluation, extension, or renewal requests, as well as credit line increases and other requests for additional credit amounts.</I> While requests for additional credit amounts on an existing account can constitute a “covered application” pursuant to § 1002.103(b)(1), such requests are not counted as originations for the purpose of determining whether a financial institution is a covered financial institution pursuant to § 1002.105(b). In addition, transactions that extend, renew, or otherwise amend a transaction are not counted as originations. For example, if a financial institution originates 600 term loans and 250 lines of credit for small businesses in each of the preceding two calendar years, along with 100 line increases for small businesses in each of those years, the financial institution is not a covered financial institution because it has not originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions in each of the two preceding calendar years.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Annual consideration.</I> Whether a financial institution is a covered financial institution for a particular year depends on its small business lending activity in the preceding two calendar years. Therefore, whether a financial institution is a covered financial institution is an annual consideration for each year that data may be compiled and maintained for purposes of subpart B of this part. A financial institution may be a covered financial institution for a given year of data collection (and the obligations arising from qualifying as a covered financial institution shall continue into subsequent years, pursuant to §§ 1002.110 and 1002.111), but the same financial institution may not be a covered financial institution for the following year of data collection. For example, Financial Institution C originated 1,100 covered transactions for small businesses in both 2027 and 2028. In 2029, Financial Institution C is a covered financial institution and therefore is obligated to compile and maintain applicable 2029 small business lending data under § 1002.107(a). During 2029, Financial Institution C originates 900 covered transactions for small businesses. In 2030, Financial Institution C is not a covered financial institution with respect to 2030 small business lending data, and is not obligated to compile and maintain 2030 data under § 1002.107(a) (although Financial Institution C may volunteer to collect and maintain 2030 data pursuant to § 1002.5(a)(4)(vii) and as explained in comment 105(b)-10). Pursuant to § 1002.109(a), Financial Institution C shall submit its small business lending application register for 2029 data in the format prescribed by the Bureau by June 1, 2030 because Financial Institution C is a covered financial institution with respect to 2029 data, and the data submission deadline of June 1, 2030 applies to 2029 data.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Merger or acquisition—coverage of surviving or newly formed institution.</I> After a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed financial institution is a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b) if it, considering the combined lending activity of the surviving or newly formed institution and the merged or acquired financial institutions (or acquired branches or locations), satisfies the criteria included in § 1002.105(b). For example, Financial Institutions A and B merge. The surviving or newly formed financial institution meets the threshold in § 1002.105(b) if the combined previous components of the surviving or newly formed financial institution (A plus B) would have originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses for each of the two preceding calendar years. Similarly, if the combined previous components and the surviving or newly formed financial institution would have reported at least 1,000 covered transactions for small businesses for the year previous to the merger as well as 1,000 covered transactions for small businesses for the year of the merger, the threshold described in § 1002.105(b) would be met and the surviving or newly formed financial institution would be a covered institution under § 1002.105(b) for the year following the merger. Comment 105(b)-8 discusses a financial institution's responsibilities with respect to compiling and maintaining (and subsequently reporting) data during the calendar year of a merger.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Merger or acquisition—coverage specific to the calendar year of the merger or acquisition.</I> The scenarios described below illustrate a financial institution's responsibilities specifically for data from the calendar year of a merger or acquisition. For purposes of these illustrations, an “institution that is not covered” means either an institution that is not a financial institution, as defined in § 1002.105(a), or a financial institution that is not a covered financial institution, as defined in § 1002.105(b).
</P>
<P>i. Two institutions that are not covered financial institutions merge. The surviving or newly formed institution meets all of the requirements necessary to be a covered financial institution. No data are required to be compiled, maintained, or reported for the calendar year of the merger (even though the merger creates an institution that meets all of the requirements necessary to be a covered financial institution).
</P>
<P>ii. A covered financial institution and an institution that is not covered merge. The covered financial institution is the surviving institution, or a new covered financial institution is formed. For the calendar year of the merger, data are required to be compiled, maintained, and reported for covered applications from the covered financial institution and is optional for covered applications from the financial institution that was previously not covered.
</P>
<P>iii. A covered financial institution and an institution that is not covered merge. The institution that is not covered is the surviving institution and remains not covered after the merger, or a new institution that is not covered is formed. For the calendar year of the merger, data are required to be compiled and maintained (and subsequently reported) for covered applications from the previously covered financial institution that took place prior to the merger. After the merger date, compiling, maintaining, and reporting data is optional for applications from the institution that was previously covered for the remainder of the calendar year of the merger.
</P>
<P>iv. Two covered financial institutions merge. The surviving or newly formed financial institution is a covered financial institution. Data are required to be compiled and maintained (and subsequently reported) for the entire calendar year of the merger. The surviving or newly formed financial institution files either a consolidated submission or separate submissions for that calendar year.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> As discussed in comment 1(a)-2, Regulation B (including subpart B) generally does not apply to lending activities that occur outside the United States.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Voluntary collection and reporting.</I> Section 1002.5(a)(4)(vii) through (x) permits a creditor that is not a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b) to voluntarily collect and report information regarding covered applications from small businesses in certain circumstances. If a creditor is voluntarily collecting information for covered applications regarding whether the applicant is a minority-owned business and/or a women-owned business under § 1002.107(a)(18), and regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners under § 1002.107(a)(19), it shall do so in compliance with §§ 1002.107, 1002.108, 1002.111, 1002.112 as though it were a covered financial institution. If a creditor is reporting those covered applications from small businesses to the Bureau, it shall do so in compliance with §§ 1002.109 and 1002.110 as though it were a covered financial institution.










</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.106—Business and Small Business
</HD2>
<HD3>106(b) Small Business Definition
</HD3>
<HD3>106(b)(1) Small Business
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Change in determination of small business status—business is ultimately not a small business.</I> If a financial institution initially determines an applicant is a small business as defined in § 1002.106 based on available information and collects data required by § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) but later concludes that the applicant is not a small business, the financial institution does not violate the Act or this part if it meets the requirements of § 1002.112(c)(4). The financial institution shall not report the application on its small business lending application register pursuant to § 1002.109.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Change in determination of small business status—business is ultimately a small business.</I> Consistent with comment 107(a)(14)-1, a financial institution need not independently verify gross annual revenue. If a financial institution initially determines that the applicant is not a small business as defined in § 1002.106(b), but later concludes the applicant is a small business prior to taking final action on the application, the financial institution must report the covered application pursuant to § 1002.109. In this situation, the financial institution shall endeavor to compile, maintain, and report the data required under § 1002.107(a) in a manner that is reasonable under the circumstances. For example, if the applicant initially provides a gross annual revenue of $1.1 million (that is, above the threshold for a small business as initially defined in § 1002.106(b)(1)), but during the course of underwriting the financial institution discovers the applicant's gross annual revenue was in fact $950,000 (meaning that the applicant is within the definition of a small business under § 1002.106(b)), the financial institution is required to report the covered application pursuant to § 1002.109. In this situation, the financial institution shall take reasonable steps upon discovery to compile, maintain, and report the data necessary under § 1002.107(a) to comply with subpart B of this part for that covered application. Thus, in this example, even if the financial institution's procedure is typically to request applicant-provided data together with the application form, in this circumstance, the financial institution shall seek to collect the data during the application process necessary to comply with subpart B in a manner that is reasonable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Applicant's representations regarding gross annual revenue; inclusion of affiliate revenue; updated or verified information.</I> A financial institution is permitted to rely on an applicant's representations regarding gross annual revenue (which may or may not include any affiliate's revenue) for purposes of determining small business status under § 1002.106(b). However, if the applicant provides updated gross annual revenue information or the financial institution verifies the gross annual revenue information (see comment 107(b)-1), the financial institution must use the updated or verified information in determining small business status.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple unaffiliated co-applicants—size determination.</I> The financial institution shall not aggregate unaffiliated co-applicants' gross annual revenues for purposes of determining small business status under § 1002.106(b). If a covered financial institution receives a covered application from multiple businesses who are not affiliates, as defined by § 1002.102(a), where at least one business is a small business under § 1002.106(b), the financial institution shall compile, maintain, and report data pursuant to §§ 1002.107 through 1002.109 regarding the covered application for only a single applicant that is a small business. See comment 103(a)-10 for additional details.
</P>
<HD3>106(b)(2) Inflation Adjustment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Inflation adjustment methodology.</I> The small business gross annual revenue threshold set forth in § 1002.106(b)(1) will be adjusted upward or downward to reflect changes, if any, in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (U.S. city average series for all items, not seasonally adjusted), as published by the United States Bureau of Labor Statistics (“CPI-U”). The base for computing each adjustment is the January 2030 CPI-U; this base value shall be compared to the CPI-U value in January 2035 and every five years thereafter. For example, after the January 2035 CPI-U is made available, the adjustment is calculated by determining the percentage change in the CPI-U between January 2030 and January 2035, applying this change to the $1 million gross annual revenue threshold, and rounding to the nearest $100,000. If, as a result of this rounding, there is no change in the gross annual revenue threshold, there will be no adjustment. For example, if in January 2035 the adjusted value were $950,000 (reflecting a $50,000 decrease from January 2030 CPI-U), then the threshold would not adjust because $950,000 million would be rounded up to $1 million. If on the other hand, the adjusted value were $1.12 million, then the threshold would adjust to $1.1 million. Where the adjusted value is a multiple of $50,000 (<I>e.g.,</I> $1,050,000), then the threshold adjusts upward.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substitute for CPI-U.</I> If publication of the CPI-U ceases, or if the CPI-U otherwise becomes unavailable or is altered in such a way as to be unusable, then the Bureau shall substitute another reliable cost of living indicator from the United States Government for the purpose of calculating adjustments pursuant to § 1002.106(b)(2).








</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.107—Compilation of Reportable Data
</HD2>
<HD3>107(a) Data Format and Itemization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1002.107(a) describes a covered financial institution's obligation to compile and maintain data regarding the covered applications it receives from small businesses.
</P>
<P>i. A covered financial institution reports these data even if the credit originated pursuant to the reported application was subsequently sold by the institution.
</P>
<P>ii. A covered financial institution annually reports data for covered applications for which final action was taken in the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>iii. A covered financial institution reports data for a covered application on its small business lending application register for the calendar year during which final action was taken on the application, even if the institution received the application in a previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Free-form text fields.</I> A covered financial institution may use technology such as autocorrect and predictive text when requesting applicant-provided data under subpart B of this part that the financial institution reports via free-form text fields, provided that such technology does not restrict the applicant's ability to write in its own response instead of using text suggested by the technology.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Filing Instructions Guide.</I> Additional details and procedures for compiling data pursuant to § 1002.107 are included in the Filing Instructions Guide, which is available at <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/small-business-lending/filing-instructions-guide/.</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional data point response options.</I> The Bureau may add additional response options to the lists of responses contained in the commentary that follows for certain of the data points set forth in § 1002.107(a), via the Filing Instructions Guide. Refer to the Filing Instructions Guide for any updates for each reporting year.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(1) Unique Identifier
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Unique within the financial institution.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(1) by compiling and reporting an alphanumeric application or loan identifier unique within the financial institution to the specific application. The identifier must not exceed 45 characters, and must begin with the financial institution's Legal Entity Identifier (LEI), as defined in comment 109(b)(6)-1. Separate applications for the same applicant must have separate identifiers. The identifier may only include standard numerical and/or upper-case alphabetical characters and cannot include dashes, other special characters, or characters with diacritics. The financial institution may assign the unique identifier at any time prior to reporting the application. Refinancings or applications for refinancing must be assigned a different identifier than the transaction that is being refinanced. A financial institution with multiple branches must ensure that its branches do not use the same identifiers to refer to multiple applications.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Does not include directly identifying information.</I> The unique identifier must not include any directly identifying information, such as a whole or partial Social Security number or employer identification number, about the applicant or persons (natural or legal) associated with the applicant. See also § 1002.111(c) and related commentary.


</P>
<HD3>107(a)(2) Application Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consistency.</I> Section 1002.107(a)(2) requires that, in reporting the date of covered application, a financial institution shall report the date the covered application was received or the date shown on a paper or electronic application form. Although a financial institution need not choose the same approach for its entire small business lending application register, it should generally be consistent in its approach by, for example, establishing procedures for how to report this date within particular scenarios, products, or divisions. If the financial institution chooses to report the date shown on an application form and the institution retains multiple versions of the application form, the institution reports the date shown on the first application form satisfying the definition of covered application pursuant to § 1002.103.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application received.</I> For an application submitted directly to the financial institution or its affiliate, the financial institution shall report the date it received the covered application, as defined under § 1002.103, or the date shown on a paper or electronic application form. For an application initially submitted to a third party, see comment 107(a)(2)-3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Indirect applications.</I> For an application that was not submitted directly to the financial institution or its affiliate, the financial institution shall report the date the application was received by the party that initially received the application, the date the application was received by the financial institution, or the date shown on the application form. Although a financial institution need not choose the same approach for its entire small business lending application register, it should generally be consistent in its approach by, for example, establishing procedures for how to report this date within particular scenarios, products, or divisions.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Safe harbor.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.112(c)(1), a financial institution that reports on its small business lending application register an application date that is within three business days of the actual application date pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(2) does not violate the Act or subpart B of this part. For purposes of this paragraph, a business day means any day the financial institution is open for business.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(5) Credit Type
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reporting credit product—in general.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by selecting the credit product applied for or originated, from the list below. If the credit product applied for or originated is not included on this list, the financial institution selects “other,” and reports the credit product via free-form text field. If an applicant requested more than one credit product at the same time, the financial institution reports each credit product requested as a separate application. However, if the applicant only requested a single covered credit transaction, but had not decided on which particular product, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product originated (if originated), or the credit product denied (if denied), or the credit product of greater interest to the applicant, if readily determinable. If the credit product of greater interest to the applicant is not readily determinable, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting one of the credit products requested as part of the request for a single covered credit transaction, in its discretion. See comment 103(a)-5 for instructions on reporting requests for multiple covered credit transactions at one time.
</P>
<P>i. Term loan—unsecured.
</P>
<P>ii. Term loan—secured.
</P>
<P>iii. Line of credit—unsecured.
</P>
<P>iv. Line of credit—secured.
</P>
<P>v. Credit card account, not private-label.
</P>
<P>vi. Private-label credit card account.
</P>
<P>vii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>viii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>ix. Other.
</P>
<P>x. Not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit card account, not private-label.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product as a “credit card account, not private-label” when the product is a business-purpose open-end credit account that is not private label and that may be accessed from time to time by a card, plate, or other single credit device to obtain credit, except that accounts or lines of credit secured by real property and overdraft lines of credit accessed by debit cards are not credit card accounts. The term credit card account does not include debit card accounts or closed-end credit that may be accessed by a card, plate, or single credit device. The term credit card account does include charge card accounts that are generally paid in full each billing period, as well as hybrid prepaid-credit cards. A financial institution reports multiple credit card account, not private-label applications requested at one time using the guidance in comment 103(a)-7.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Private-label credit card account.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product as a “private-label credit card account” when the product is a business-purpose open-end private-label credit account that otherwise meets the description of a credit card account in comment 107(a)(5)-2. A private-label credit card account is a credit card account that can only be used to acquire goods or services provided by one business (for example, a specific merchant, retailer, independent dealer, or manufacturer) or a small group of related businesses. A co-branded or other card that can also be used for purchases at unrelated businesses is not a private-label credit card. A financial institution reports multiple private-label credit card account applications requested at one time in the same manner as credit card account, not private-label applications, using the guidance in comment 103(a)-7.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit product not provided by the applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution is required to maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes credit product. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine credit product information because the applicant does not indicate what credit product it seeks and the application is denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness before a credit product is identified, the financial institution reports that the credit product is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reporting credit product involving counteroffers.</I> If a financial institution presents a counteroffer for a different credit product than the product the applicant had initially requested, and the applicant does not agree to proceed with the counteroffer, the financial institution reports the application for the original credit product as denied pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(9). If the applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of the financial institution's counteroffer, the financial institution reports the disposition of the application based on the credit product that was offered and does not report the original credit product applied for. See comment 107(a)(9)-2.
</P>
<P>6. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>7. <I>Guarantees.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(ii) by selecting the type or types of guarantees that were obtained for an originated covered credit transaction, or that would have been obtained if the covered credit transaction was originated, from the list below. The financial institution selects, if applicable, up to a maximum of five guarantees for a single application. If the type of guarantee does not appear on the list, the financial institution selects “other” and reports the type of guarantee via free-form text field. If no guarantee is obtained or would have been obtained if the covered credit transaction was originated, the financial institution selects “no guarantee.” If an application is denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness before any guarantee has been identified, the financial institution selects “no guarantee.” The financial institution chooses State government guarantee or local government guarantee, as applicable, based on the entity directly administering the program, not the source of funding.
</P>
<P>i. Personal guarantee—owner(s).
</P>
<P>ii. Personal guarantee—non-owner(s).
</P>
<P>iii. SBA guarantee—7(a) program.
</P>
<P>iv. SBA guarantee—504 program.
</P>
<P>v. SBA guarantee—other.
</P>
<P>vi. USDA guarantee.
</P>
<P>vii. FHA insurance.
</P>
<P>viii. Bureau of Indian Affairs guarantee.
</P>
<P>ix. Other Federal guarantee.
</P>
<P>x. State government guarantee.
</P>
<P>xi. Local government guarantee.
</P>
<P>xii. Other.
</P>
<P>xiii. No guarantee.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Loan term.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(iii) by reporting the number of months in the loan term for the covered credit transaction. The loan term is the number of months after which the legal obligation will mature or terminate, measured from the date of origination. For transactions involving real property, the financial institution may instead measure the loan term from the date of the first payment period and disregard the time that elapses, if any, between the settlement of the transaction and the first payment period. For example, if a loan closes on April 12, but the first payment is not due until June 1 and includes the interest accrued in May (but not April), the financial institution may choose not to include the month of April in the loan term. In addition, the financial institution may round the loan term to the nearest full month or may count only full months and ignore partial months, as it so chooses. If a credit product, such as a credit card, does not have a loan term, the financial institution reports that the loan term is “not applicable.” The financial institution also reports that the loan term is “not applicable” if the credit product is reported as “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.” For a credit product that generally has a loan term, the financial institution reports “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined” if the application is denied, withdrawn, or determined to be incomplete before a loan term has been identified.














</P>
<HD3>107(a)(5) Credit Type
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reporting credit product—in general.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by selecting the credit product applied for or originated, from the list below. If the credit product applied for or originated is not included on this list, the financial institution selects “other,” and reports the credit product via free-form text field. If an applicant requested more than one credit product at the same time, the financial institution reports each credit product requested as a separate application. However, if the applicant only requested a single covered credit transaction, but had not decided on which particular product, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product originated (if originated), or the credit product denied (if denied), or the credit product of greater interest to the applicant, if readily determinable. If the credit product of greater interest to the applicant is not readily determinable, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting one of the credit products requested as part of the request for a single covered credit transaction, in its discretion. See comment 103(a)-5 for instructions on reporting requests for multiple covered credit transactions at one time.
</P>
<P>i. Term loan—unsecured.
</P>
<P>ii. Term loan—secured.
</P>
<P>iii. Line of credit—unsecured.
</P>
<P>iv. Line of credit—secured.
</P>
<P>v. Credit card account, not private-label.
</P>
<P>vi. Private-label credit card account.
</P>
<P>vii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>viii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>ix. Other.
</P>
<P>x. Not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit card account, not private-label.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product as a “credit card account, not private-label” when the product is a business-purpose open-end credit account that is not private label and that may be accessed from time to time by a card, plate, or other single credit device to obtain credit, except that accounts or lines of credit secured by real property and overdraft lines of credit accessed by debit cards are not credit card accounts. The term credit card account does not include debit card accounts or closed-end credit that may be accessed by a card, plate, or single credit device. The term credit card account does include charge card accounts that are generally paid in full each billing period, as well as hybrid prepaid-credit cards. A financial institution reports multiple credit card account, not private-label applications requested at one time using the guidance in comment 103(a)-7.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Private-label credit card account.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) by reporting the credit product as a “private-label credit card account” when the product is a business-purpose open-end private-label credit account that otherwise meets the description of a credit card account in comment 107(a)(5)-2. A private-label credit card account is a credit card account that can only be used to acquire goods or services provided by one business (for example, a specific merchant, retailer, independent dealer, or manufacturer) or a small group of related businesses. A co-branded or other card that can also be used for purchases at unrelated businesses is not a private-label credit card. A financial institution reports multiple private-label credit card account applications requested at one time in the same manner as credit card account, not private-label applications, using the guidance in comment 103(a)-7.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit product not provided by the applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution is required to maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes credit product. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine credit product information because the applicant does not indicate what credit product it seeks and the application is denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness before a credit product is identified, the financial institution reports that the credit product is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reporting credit product involving counteroffers.</I> If a financial institution presents a counteroffer for a different credit product than the product the applicant had initially requested, and the applicant does not agree to proceed with the counteroffer, the financial institution reports the application for the original credit product as denied pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(9). If the applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of the financial institution's counteroffer, the financial institution reports the disposition of the application based on the credit product that was offered and does not report the original credit product applied for. See comment 107(a)(9)-2.
</P>
<P>6. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>7. <I>Guarantees.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(ii) by selecting the type or types of guarantees that were obtained for an originated covered credit transaction, or that would have been obtained if the covered credit transaction was originated, from the list below. The financial institution selects, if applicable, up to a maximum of five guarantees for a single application. If the type of guarantee does not appear on the list, the financial institution selects “other” and reports the type of guarantee via free-form text field. If no guarantee is obtained or would have been obtained if the covered credit transaction was originated, the financial institution selects “no guarantee.” If an application is denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness before any guarantee has been identified, the financial institution selects “no guarantee.” The financial institution chooses State government guarantee or local government guarantee, as applicable, based on the entity directly administering the program, not the source of funding.
</P>
<P>i. Personal guarantee—owner(s).
</P>
<P>ii. Personal guarantee—non-owner(s).
</P>
<P>iii. SBA guarantee—7(a) program.
</P>
<P>iv. SBA guarantee—504 program.
</P>
<P>v. SBA guarantee—other.
</P>
<P>vi. USDA guarantee.
</P>
<P>vii. FHA insurance.
</P>
<P>viii. Bureau of Indian Affairs guarantee.
</P>
<P>ix. Other Federal guarantee.
</P>
<P>x. State government guarantee.
</P>
<P>xi. Local government guarantee.
</P>
<P>xii. Other.
</P>
<P>xiii. No guarantee.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Loan term.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(5)(iii) by reporting the number of months in the loan term for the covered credit transaction. The loan term is the number of months after which the legal obligation will mature or terminate, measured from the date of origination. For transactions involving real property, the financial institution may instead measure the loan term from the date of the first payment period and disregard the time that elapses, if any, between the settlement of the transaction and the first payment period. For example, if a loan closes on April 12, but the first payment is not due until June 1 and includes the interest accrued in May (but not April), the financial institution may choose not to include the month of April in the loan term. In addition, the financial institution may round the loan term to the nearest full month or may count only full months and ignore partial months, as it so chooses. If a credit product, such as a credit card, does not have a loan term, the financial institution reports that the loan term is “not applicable.” The financial institution also reports that the loan term is “not applicable” if the credit product is reported as “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.” For a credit product that generally has a loan term, the financial institution reports “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined” if the application is denied, withdrawn, or determined to be incomplete before a loan term has been identified.






</P>
<HD3>107(a)(6) Credit Purpose
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(6) by selecting the purpose or purposes of the covered credit transaction applied for or originated from the list below.
</P>
<P>i. Purchase, construction/improvement, or refinance of non-owner-occupied real property.
</P>
<P>ii. Purchase, construction/improvement, or refinance of owner-occupied real property.
</P>
<P>iii. Purchase, refinance, or rehabilitation/repair of motor vehicle(s) (including light and heavy trucks).
</P>
<P>iv. Purchase, refinance, or rehabilitation/repair of equipment.
</P>
<P>v. Working capital (includes inventory or floor planning).
</P>
<P>vi. Business start-up.
</P>
<P>vii. Business expansion.
</P>
<P>viii. Business acquisition.
</P>
<P>ix. Refinance existing debt (other than refinancings listed above).
</P>
<P>x. Line increase.
</P>
<P>xi. Overdraft.
</P>
<P>xii. Other.
</P>
<P>xiii. Not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.
</P>
<P>xiv. Not applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>More than one purpose.</I> If the applicant indicates or the financial institution is otherwise aware of more than one purpose for the credit applied for or originated, the financial institution reports those purposes, up to a maximum of three, using the list provided, in any order it chooses. For example, if an applicant refinances a commercial building it owns and uses the funds to purchase a motor vehicle and expand the business it runs in a part of that building, the financial institution reports that the three purposes of the credit are purchase, construction/improvement, or refinance of owner-occupied real property; purchase, refinance, or rehabilitation/repair of motor vehicle(s) (including light and heavy trucks); and business expansion. If an application has more than three purposes, the financial institution reports any three of those purposes. In the example above, if the funds were also used to purchase equipment, the financial institution would select only three of the relevant purposes to report.
</P>
<P>3. <I>“Other” credit purpose.</I> If a purpose of an application does not appear on the list of purposes provided, the financial institution reports “other” as the credit purpose and reports the credit purpose via free-form text field. If the application has more than one “other” purpose, the financial institution chooses the most significant “other” purpose, in its discretion, and reports that “other” purpose. The financial institution reports a maximum of three credit purposes, including any “other” purpose.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit purpose not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes credit purpose. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or determine credit purpose information, the financial institution reports that the credit purpose is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Not applicable.</I> If the application is for a credit product that generally has indeterminate or numerous potential purposes, such as a credit card, the financial institution may report credit purpose as “not applicable.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Collecting credit purpose.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, including credit purpose. The financial institution is permitted, but not required, to present the list of credit purposes provided in comment 107(a)(6)-1 to the applicant. The financial institution is also permitted to ask about purposes not included on the list provided in comment 107(a)(6)-1. If the applicant chooses a purpose or purposes not included on the provided list, the financial institution follows the instructions in comment 107(a)(6)-3 regarding reporting of “other” as the credit purpose. If an applicant chooses a purpose or purposes that are similar to purposes on the list provided, but uses different language, the financial institution reports the purpose or purposes from the list provided.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Owner-occupied real property.</I> Real property is owner-occupied if any physical portion of the property is used by the owner for any activity, including storage.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Overdraft.</I> When overdraft is provided as an aspect of the covered credit transaction applied for or originated, the financial institution reports “Overdraft” as a purpose of the credit. The financial institution reports credit type pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(5)(i) as appropriate for the underlying covered credit transaction, such as “Line of credit—unsecured.” Providing occasional overdraft services as part of a deposit account offering would not be reported for the purpose of subpart B.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(7) Amount Applied For
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Initial amount requested.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(7) by reporting the initial amount of credit or the initial credit limit requested by the applicant. The financial institution is not required to report credit amounts or limits discussed before an application is made, but must capture the initial amount requested at the application stage. If the applicant requests an amount as a range of numbers, the financial institution reports the midpoint of that range.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No amount requested.</I> If the applicant does not request a specific amount at the application stage, but the financial institution underwrites the application for a specific amount, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(7) by reporting the amount considered for underwriting as the amount applied for. If the particular type of credit product applied for does not involve a specific amount requested, the financial institution reports that the requirement is “not applicable.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Firm offers.</I> When an applicant responds to a “firm offer” that specifies an amount or limit, which may occur in conjunction with a pre-approved credit solicitation, the financial institution reports the amount of the firm offer as the amount applied for, unless the applicant requests a different amount. If the firm offer does not specify an amount or limit and the applicant does not request a specific amount, the amount applied for is the amount underwritten by the financial institution. If the firm offer specifies an amount or limit as a range and the applicant does not request a specific amount, the amount applied for is the amount underwritten by the financial institution.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional amounts on an existing account.</I> When reporting a covered application that seeks additional credit amounts on an existing account, the financial institution reports only the additional credit amount sought, and not any previous amounts extended. See comment 103(b)-3.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Initial amount otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the credit amount initially requested by the applicant (other than for products that do not involve a specific amount requested). However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine the amount initially requested, the financial institution reports that the amount applied for is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.” But see comment 107(a)(7)-2 for how to report the credit amount initially requested by the applicant for particular types of credit products that do not involve a specific amount requested.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(8) Amount Approved or Originated
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(8) by reporting the amount approved or originated for credit that is originated or approved but not accepted. For applications that the financial institution, pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(9), reports as denied, withdrawn by the applicant, or incomplete, the financial institution reports that the amount approved or originated is “not applicable.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple approval amounts.</I> A financial institution may sometimes approve an applicant for more than one credit amount, allowing the applicant to choose which amount the applicant prefers for the extension or line of credit. When multiple approval amounts are offered for a closed-end credit transaction for which the action taken is approved but not accepted, and the applicant does not accept the approved offer of credit in any amount, the financial institution reports the highest amount approved. If the applicant accepts the offer of closed-end credit, the financial institution reports the amount originated. When multiple approval amounts are offered for an open-end credit transaction for which the action taken is approved but not accepted, and the applicant does not accept the approved offer of credit in any amount, the financial institution reports the highest amount approved. If the applicant accepts the offer of open-end credit, the financial institution reports the actual credit limit established.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amount approved or originated—closed-end credit transaction.</I> For an originated closed-end credit transaction, the financial institution reports the principal amount to be repaid. This amount will generally be disclosed on the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amount approved or originated—refinancing.</I> For a refinancing, the financial institution reports the amount of credit approved or originated under the terms of the new debt obligation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Amount approved or originated—counteroffer.</I> If an applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of a counteroffer for an amount or limit different from the amount for which the applicant applied, and the covered credit transaction is approved and originated, the financial institution reports the amount granted. If an applicant does not agree to proceed with consideration of a counteroffer or fails to respond, the institution reports the application as denied and reports “not applicable” for the amount approved or originated. See comment 107(a)(9)-2.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Amount approved or originated—existing accounts.</I> For additional credit amounts that were approved for or originated on an existing account, the financial institution reports only the additional credit amount approved or originated, and not any previous amounts extended.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(9) Action Taken
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(9) by selecting the action taken by the financial institution on the application from the following list: originated, approved but not accepted, denied, withdrawn by the applicant, or incomplete. A financial institution identifies the applicable action taken code based on final action taken on the covered application.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Originated.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was originated if the financial institution made a credit decision approving the application and that credit decision resulted in an extension of credit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Approved but not accepted.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was approved but not accepted if the financial institution made a credit decision approving the application, but the applicant or the party that initially received the application failed to respond to the financial institution's approval within the specified time, or the covered credit transaction was not otherwise consummated or the account was not otherwise opened.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Denied.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was denied if it made a credit decision denying the application before an applicant withdrew the application, before the application was closed for incompleteness, or before the application was denied on the basis of incompleteness.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Withdrawn by the applicant.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was withdrawn if the application was expressly withdrawn by the applicant before the financial institution made a credit decision approving or denying the application, before the application was closed for incompleteness, or before the application was denied on the basis of incompleteness.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Incomplete.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was incomplete if the financial institution took adverse action on the basis of incompleteness under § 1002.9(a)(1)(ii) and (c)(1)(i) or provided a written notice of incompleteness under § 1002.9(c)(1)(ii) and (2), and the applicant did not respond to the request for additional information within the period of time specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Treatment of counteroffers.</I> If a financial institution makes a counteroffer to grant credit on terms other than those originally requested by the applicant (for example, for a shorter loan maturity, with a different interest rate, or in a different amount) and the applicant declines the counteroffer or fails to respond, the institution reports the action taken as a denial on the original terms requested by the applicant. If the applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of the financial institution's counteroffer, the financial institution reports the action taken as the disposition of the application based on the terms of the counteroffer. For example, assume an applicant applies for a term loan and the financial institution makes a counteroffer to proceed with consideration of a line of credit. If the applicant declines to be considered for a line of credit, the financial institution reports the application as a denied request for a term loan. If, on the other hand, the applicant agrees to be considered for a line of credit, then the financial institution reports the action taken as the disposition of the application for the line of credit. For instance, using the same example, if the financial institution makes a credit decision approving the line of credit, but the applicant fails to respond to the financial institution's approval within the specified time by accepting the credit offer, the financial institution reports the application on the line of credit as approved but not accepted.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Treatment of rescinded transactions.</I> If a borrower successfully rescinds a transaction after closing but before a financial institution is required to submit its small business lending application register containing the information for the application under § 1002.109, the institution reports the application as approved but not accepted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Treatment of pending applications.</I> A financial institution does not report any application still pending at the end of the calendar year; it reports such applications on its small business lending application register for the year in which final action is taken.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Treatment of conditional approvals.</I> If a financial institution issues an approval that is subject to the applicant meeting certain conditions prior to closing, the financial institution reports the action taken as provided below dependent on whether the conditions are solely customary commitment or closing conditions or if the conditions include any underwriting or creditworthiness conditions. Customary commitment or closing conditions may include, for example, a clear-title requirement, proof of insurance policies, or a subordination agreement from another lienholder. Underwriting or creditworthiness conditions may include, for example, conditions that constitute a counteroffer (such as a demand for a higher down-payment), satisfactory loan-to-value ratios, or verification or confirmation, in whatever form the institution requires, that the applicant meets underwriting conditions concerning applicant creditworthiness, including documentation or verification of revenue, income or assets.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Conditional approval—denial.</I> If the approval is conditioned on satisfying underwriting or creditworthiness conditions, those conditions are not met, and the financial institution takes adverse action on some basis other than incompleteness, the financial institution reports the action taken as denied.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Conditional approval—incompleteness.</I> If the approval is conditioned on satisfying underwriting or creditworthiness conditions that the financial institution needs to make the credit decision, and the financial institution takes adverse action on the basis of incompleteness under § 1002.9(a)(1)(ii) and (c)(1)(i), or has sent a written notice of incompleteness under § 1002.9(c)(1)(ii) and (2), and the applicant did not respond within the period of time specified in the notice, the financial institution reports the action taken as incomplete.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Conditional approval—approved but not accepted.</I> If the approval is conditioned on satisfying conditions that are solely customary commitment or closing conditions and the conditions are not met, the financial institution reports the action taken as approved but not accepted. If all the conditions (underwriting, creditworthiness, or customary commitment or closing conditions) are satisfied and the financial institution agrees to extend credit but the covered credit transaction is not originated (for example, because the applicant withdraws), the financial institution reports the action taken as approved but not accepted.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Conditional approval—withdrawn by the applicant.</I> If the applicant expressly withdraws before satisfying all underwriting or creditworthiness conditions and before the institution denies the application or before the institution closes the file for incompleteness, the financial institution reports the action taken as withdrawn.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(10) Action Taken Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reporting action taken date for denied applications.</I> For applications that are denied, a financial institution reports either the date the application was denied or the date the denial notice was sent to the applicant.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reporting action taken date for applications withdrawn by applicant.</I> For applications that are withdrawn by the applicant, the financial institution reports the date the express withdrawal was received, or the date shown on the notification form in the case of a written withdrawal.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reporting action taken date for applications that are approved but not accepted.</I> For applications approved by a financial institution but not accepted by the applicant, the financial institution reports any reasonable date, such as the approval date, the deadline for accepting the offer, or the date the file was closed. A financial institution should generally be consistent in its approach to reporting by, for example, establishing procedures for how to report this date for particular scenarios, products, or divisions.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reporting action taken date for originated applications.</I> For applications that result in an extension of credit, a financial institution generally reports the closing or account opening date. If the disbursement of funds takes place on a date later than the closing or account opening date, the institution may, alternatively, use the date of initial disbursement. A financial institution should generally be consistent in its approach to reporting by, for example, establishing procedures for how to report this date for particular scenarios, products, or divisions.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reporting action taken date for incomplete applications.</I> For applications closed for incompleteness or denied for incompleteness, the financial institution reports either the date the action was taken or the date the denial or incompleteness notice was sent to the applicant.










</P>
<HD3>107(a)(13) Census Tract
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) by reporting a census tract number as defined by the U.S. Census Bureau, which includes State and county numerical codes. A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) if it uses the boundaries and codes in effect on January 1 of the calendar year covered by the small business lending application register that it is reporting. The financial institution reports census tract based on the following:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Proceeds address.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) by reporting a census tract based on the address or location where the proceeds of the credit applied for or originated will be or would have been principally applied, if known. For example, a financial institution would report a census tract based on the address or location of the site where the proceeds of a construction loan will be applied.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Main office or headquarters address.</I> If the address or location where the proceeds of the credit applied for or originated will be or would have been principally applied is unknown, a financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) by reporting a census tract number based on the address or location of the main office or headquarters of the applicant, if known. For example, the address or location of the main office or headquarters of the applicant may be the home address of a sole proprietor or the office address of a sole proprietor or other applicant.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Another address or location.</I> If neither the address or location where the proceeds of the credit applied for or originated will be or would have been principally applied nor the address or location of the main office or headquarters of the applicant are known, a financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) by reporting a census tract number based on another address or location associated with the applicant.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Type of address used.</I> In addition to reporting the census tract, pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(13)(iv) a financial institution must report which one of the three types of addresses or locations listed in § 1002.107(a)(13)(i) through (iii) and described in comments 107(a)(13)-1.i through iii that the census tract is determined from.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Financial institution discretion.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(13) by identifying the appropriate address or location and the type of that address or location in good faith, using appropriate information from the applicant's credit file or otherwise known by the financial institution. A financial institution is not required to make inquiries beyond its standard procedures as to the nature of the addresses or locations it collects.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Address or location not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes at least one address or location for an applicant for census tract reporting. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine any address or location for an application, the financial institution reports that the census tract information is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Safe harbor.</I> As described in § 1002.112(c)(2) and comment 112(c)-1, a financial institution that obtains an incorrect census tract by correctly using a geocoding tool provided by the FFIEC or the Bureau does not violate the Act or subpart B of this part.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(14) Gross Annual Revenue
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Collecting gross annual revenue.</I> A financial institution reports the applicant's gross annual revenue, expressed in dollars, for its fiscal year preceding when the information was collected. A financial institution may rely on the applicant's statements or on information provided by the applicant in collecting and reporting gross annual revenue, even if the applicant's statement or information is based on estimation or extrapolation. However, pursuant to § 1002.107(b), if the financial institution verifies the gross annual revenue provided by the applicant, it must report the verified information. Also, pursuant to comment 107(c)(1)-5, a financial institution reports updated gross annual revenue data if it obtains more current data from the applicant during the application process. If a financial institution has already verified gross annual revenue data and then the applicant updates it, the financial institution reports the information it believes to be more accurate, in its discretion. The financial institution may use the following language to ask about gross annual revenue and may rely on the applicant's answer (unless subsequently verified or updated):
</P>
<P><I>What was the gross annual revenue of the business applying for credit in its last full fiscal year? Gross annual revenue is the amount of money the business earned before subtracting taxes and other expenses. You may provide gross annual revenue calculated using any reasonable method.</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Gross annual revenue not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the gross annual revenue of the applicant. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or determine the gross annual revenue of the applicant, the financial institution reports that the gross annual revenue is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Affiliate revenue.</I> A financial institution is permitted, but not required, to report the gross annual revenue for the applicant that includes the revenue of affiliates as well. Likewise, as explained in comment 106(b)(1)-3, in determining whether the applicant is a small business under § 1002.106(b), a financial institution may rely on an applicant's representations regarding gross annual revenue, which may or may not include affiliates' revenue.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Gross annual revenue for a startup business.</I> In a typical startup business situation where the applicant has no gross annual revenue for its fiscal year preceding when the information is collected, the financial institution reports that the applicant's gross annual revenue in the preceding fiscal year is “zero.” The financial institution shall not report pro forma projected revenue figures because these figures do not reflect actual gross revenue.
</P>
<HD3>107(a)(15) NAICS Code
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> NAICS stands for North American Industry Classification System. The Office of Management and Budget has charged the Economic Classification Policy Committee with the maintenance and review of NAICS. A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(15) if it uses the 3-digit NAICS subsector codes in effect on January 1 of the calendar year covered by the small business lending application register that it is reporting.
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<P>2. <I>NAICS not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes NAICS code. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine a NAICS code for the applicant, the financial institution reports that the NAICS code is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”
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<P>3. <I>Safe harbor.</I> As described in § 1002.112(c)(3) and comment 112(c)-2, a financial institution that obtains an incorrect NAICS code does not violate the Act or subpart B of this part if it either relies on an applicant's representations or on an appropriate third-party source, in accordance with § 1002.107(b), regarding the NAICS code, or identifies the NAICS code itself, provided that the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to correctly identify a 3-digit NAICS code.


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<HD3>107(a)(17) Time in Business
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Collecting time in business.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(17) by reporting the time the applicant has been in business.
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<P>i. If a financial institution collects or otherwise obtains the number of years an applicant has been in business as part of its procedures for evaluating an application for credit, it reports the time in business in whole years, rounded down to the nearest whole year.
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<P>ii. If a financial institution does not collect time in business as described in comment 107(a)(17)-1.i, but as part of its procedures determines whether or not the applicant's time in business is less than two years, it reports the applicant's time in business as either less than two years or two or more years in business.
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<P>iii. If a financial institution does not collect time in business as part of its procedures for evaluating an application for credit as described in comments 107(a)(17)-1.i or .ii, the financial institution complies with § 1002.107(a)(17) by asking the applicant whether it has been in existence for less than two years or two or more years and reporting the information provided by the applicant accordingly.
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<P>2. <I>Time in business collected as part of the financial institution's procedures for evaluating an application for credit.</I> A financial institution that collects or obtains an applicant's time in business as part of its procedures for evaluating an application for credit is not required to collect or obtain time in business pursuant to any particular definition of time in business for this purpose. For example, if the financial institution collects the number of years the applicant has existed (such as by asking the applicant when its business was started, or by obtaining the applicant's date of incorporation from a Secretary of State or other State or Federal agency that registers or licenses businesses) as the time in business, the financial institution reports that information accordingly pursuant to comment 107(a)(17)-1.i. Similarly, if the financial institution collects the number of years of experience the applicant's owners have in the current line of business, the financial institution reports that information accordingly pursuant to comment 107(a)(17)-1.i. If, however, the financial institution collects both the number of years the applicant has existed as well as some other measure of time in business (such as the number of years of experience the applicant's owners have in the current line of business), the financial institution reports the number of years the applicant has existed as the time in business pursuant to comment 107(a)(17)-1.i.
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<P>3. <I>Time in business not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the applicant's time in business. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or determine the applicant's time in business, the financial institution reports that the time in business is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”


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<HD3>107(a)(18) Minority-Owned and Women-Owned Business Statuses
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution must ask an applicant whether it is a minority-owned and/or women-owned business. The financial institution must permit an applicant to refuse (<I>i.e.,</I> decline) to answer the financial institution's inquiry regarding business status and must inform the applicant that the applicant is not required to provide the information. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part for sample language for providing this notice to applicants. The financial institution must report the applicant's substantive response regarding each business status, that the applicant declined to answer the inquiry (that is, selected an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar), or its failure to respond to the inquiry (that is, “not provided by applicant”), as applicable.
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<P>2. <I>Definitions.</I> When inquiring about minority-owned and women-owned business statuses (regardless of whether the request is made on a paper form, electronically, or orally), the financial institution also must provide the applicant with definitions of the terms “minority-owned business” and “women-owned business” as set forth in § 1002.102(m) and (s), respectively. The financial institution satisfies this requirement if it provides the definitions as set forth in the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part.
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<P>3. <I>Combining questions.</I> A financial institution may combine on the same paper or electronic data collection form the questions regarding minority-owned and women-owned business status pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) with principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19) and the applicant's number of principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(20). See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part.
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<P>4. <I>Notices.</I> When requesting minority-owned and women-owned business statuses from an applicant, a financial institution must inform the applicant that the financial institution cannot discriminate on the basis of the applicant's minority-owned or women-owned business statuses, or on whether the applicant provides its minority-owned or women-owned business statuses. A financial institution must also inform the applicant that Federal law requires it to ask for an applicant's minority-owned and women-owned business statuses to help ensure that all small business applicants for credit are treated fairly and that communities' small business credit needs are being fulfilled. A financial institution may combine these notices regarding minority-owned and women-owned business statuses with the notices that a financial institution is required to provide when requesting principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex if a financial institution requests information pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) in the same data collection form or at the same time. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part for sample language that a financial institution may use for these notices.
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<P>5. <I>Maintaining the record of an applicant's response regarding minority-owned and women-owned business statuses separate from the application.</I> A financial institution must maintain the record of an applicant's responses to the financial institution's inquiry pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) separate from the application and accompanying information. See § 1002.111(b) and comment 111(b)-1. If the financial institution provides a paper or electronic data collection form, the data collection form must not be part of the application form or any other document that the financial institution uses to provide or collect any information other than minority-owned business status, women-owned business status, principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex, and the number of the applicant's principal owners. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part. For example, if the financial institution sends the data collection form via email, the data collection form should be a separate attachment to the email or accessed through a separate link in the email. If the financial institution uses a web-based data collection form, the form should be on its own page.
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<P>6. <I>Minority-owned and/or women-owned business statuses not provided by applicant.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the applicant's minority-owned and women-owned business statuses. However, if a financial institution does not receive a response to the financial institution's inquiry pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18), the financial institution reports that the applicant's business statuses were “not provided by applicant.”
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<P>7. <I>Applicant declines to provide information about minority-owned and/or women-owned business statuses.</I> If the applicant declines to provide information about an applicant's minority-owned and women-owned business statuses by selecting an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar on a paper or electronic form, a financial institution reports that the applicant responded that it did not wish to provide the information. The financial institution also reports an applicant's refusal to provide such information in this way, if the applicant orally declines to provide such information for a covered application taken by telephone or another medium that does not involve providing any paper or electronic forms.
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<P>8. <I>Conflicting responses provided by applicants.</I> If the applicant both provides a substantive response to the financial institution's inquiry regarding business status (that is, indicates that it is a minority-owned and/or women-owned business, or checks “none apply” or similar) and also checks the box indicating “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar, the financial institution reports that the applicant declined to provide the information.
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<P>9. <I>No verification of business statuses.</I> Notwithstanding § 1002.107(b), a financial institution must report the applicant's substantive response(s), that the applicant declined to answer the inquiry (that is, selected an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar), or the applicant's failure to respond to the inquiry (that is, that the information was “not provided by applicant”) pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18), even if the financial institution verifies or otherwise obtains an applicant's minority-owned and/or women-owned business statuses for other purposes. For example, if a financial institution uses a paper data collection form to ask an applicant if it is a minority-owned business and/or a women-owned business, and the applicant does not indicate that it is a minority-owned business, the financial institution must not report that the applicant is a minority-owned business, even if the applicant indicates that it is a minority-owned business for other purposes, such as for a special purpose credit program or a Small Business Administration program.








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<HD3>107(a)(19) Ethnicity, Race, and Sex of Principal Owners
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution must ask an applicant to provide its principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex. The financial institution must permit an applicant to refuse (<I>i.e.,</I> decline) to answer the financial institution's inquiry and must inform the applicant that it is not required to provide the information. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part for sample language for providing this notice to applicants. The financial institution must report the applicant's substantive responses regarding principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex, that the applicant declined to answer an inquiry (that is, selected an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar), or its failure to respond to an inquiry (that is, “not provided by applicant”), as applicable. The financial institution must report an applicant's responses about its principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex, regardless of whether an applicant declines or fails to answer an inquiry about the number of its principal owners under § 1002.107(a)(20). If an applicant provides some, but not all, of the requested information about the ethnicity, race, and sex of a principal owner, the financial institution reports the information that was provided by the applicant and reports that the applicant declined to provide or did not provide (as applicable) the remainder of the information. See comments 107(a)(19)-6 and -7.
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<P>2. <I>Definition of principal owner.</I> When requesting a principal owner's ethnicity, race, and sex, the financial institution must also provide the applicant with the definition of the term “principal owner” as set forth in § 1002.102(o). The financial institution satisfies this requirement if it provides the definition of principal owner as set forth in the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part.
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<P>3. <I>Combining questions.</I> A financial institution may combine on the same paper or electronic data collection form the questions regarding the principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19) with the applicant's number of principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(20) and the applicant's minority-owned and women-owned business statuses pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18). See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part.
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<P>4. <I>Notices.</I> When requesting a principal owner's ethnicity, race, and sex from an applicant, a financial institution must inform the applicant that the financial institution cannot discriminate on the basis of a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex, or on whether the applicant provides the information. A financial institution must also inform the applicant that Federal law requires it to ask for the principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex to help ensure that all small business applicants for credit are treated fairly and that communities' small business credit needs are being fulfilled. A financial institution may combine these notices with the similar notices that a financial institution is required to provide when requesting minority-owned business status and women-owned business status, if a financial institution requests information pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) in the same data collection form or at the same time. See the sample data collection form in appendix E for sample language that a financial institution may use for these notices.
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<P>5. <I>Maintaining the record of an applicant's responses regarding principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex separate from the application.</I> A financial institution must maintain the record of an applicant's response to the financial institution's inquiries pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19) separate from the application and accompanying information. <I>See</I> § 1002.111(b) and comment 111(b)-1. If the financial institution provides a paper or electronic data collection form, the data collection form must not be part of the application form or any other document that the financial institution uses to provide or collect any information other than minority-owned business status, women-owned business status, principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex, and the number of the applicant's principal owners. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part for sample language. For example, if the financial institution sends the data collection form via email, the data collection form should be a separate attachment to the email or accessed through a separate link in the email. If the financial institution uses a web-based data collection form, the form should be on its own page.
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<P>6. <I>Ethnicity, race, or sex of principal owners not provided by applicant.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant's principal owners. However, if an applicant does not provide the information, such as in response to a request for a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex on a paper or electronic data collection form, the financial institution reports the ethnicity, race, or sex (as applicable) as “not provided by applicant” for that principal owner. For example, if the financial institution provides a paper data collection form to an applicant with two principal owners, and asks the applicant to complete and return the form but the applicant does not do so, the financial institution reports that the two principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex were “not provided by applicant.” Similarly, if the financial institution provides an electronic data collection form, the applicant indicates that it has two principal owners, the applicant provides ethnicity, race, and sex for the first principal owner, and the applicant does not make any selections for the second principal owner's ethnicity, race, and sex, the financial institution reports the ethnicity, race, and sex that the applicant provided for the first principal owner and reports that each of the ethnicity, race, and sex for the second principal owner was “not provided by applicant.” Additionally, if the financial institution provides an electronic or paper data collection form, the applicant indicates that it has one principal owner, provides the principal owner's ethnicity and sex information, but does not provide information about the principal owner's race and also does not select a response of “I do not wish to provide this information” with regard to race, the financial institution reports the ethnicity and sex provided by the applicant and reports that the race of the principal owner was “not provided by applicant.”
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<P>7. <I>Applicant declines to provide information about a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex.</I> If the applicant declines to provide information about a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex (as applicable), by selecting an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar on a paper or electronic form, a financial institution reports that the applicant responded that it did not wish to provide the information. The financial institution also reports an applicant's refusal to provide such information in this way, if the applicant orally declines to provide such information for a covered application taken by telephone or another medium that does not involve providing any paper or electronic forms.
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<P>8. <I>Conflicting responses provided by applicant.</I> If the applicant both provides a substantive response to a request for a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex (that is, identifies a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex) and also checks the box indicating “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar, the financial institution reports that the applicant declined provide the information. For example, if an applicant is completing a paper data collection form and indicates that a principal owner's sex is female and also indicates on the form that the applicant does not wish to provide information regarding that principal owner's sex, the financial institution reports that the applicant declined to provide the information.
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<P>9. <I>No verification of ethnicity, race, and sex of principal owners.</I> Notwithstanding § 1002.107(b), a financial institution must report the applicant's substantive responses as to its principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex (that is, the applicant's identification of its principal owners' race, ethnicity, and sex), that the applicant declined to answer the inquiry (that is, selected an answer option of “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar), or the applicant's failure to respond to the inquiry (that is, the information was “not provided by applicant”) pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19), even if the financial institution verifies or otherwise obtains the ethnicity, race, or sex of the applicant's principal owners for other purposes.
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<P>10. <I>Reporting for fewer than four principal owners.</I> If an applicant has fewer than four principal owners, the financial institution reports ethnicity, race, and sex information for the number of principal owners that the applicant has and reports the ethnicity, race, and sex fields for additional principal owners as “not applicable.” For example, if an applicant has only one principal owner, the financial institution reports ethnicity, race, and sex information for the first principal owner and reports as “not applicable” the ethnicity, race, and sex data fields for principal owners two through four.
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<P>11. <I>Previously collected ethnicity, race, and sex information.</I> If a financial institution reports one or more principal owners' ethnicity, race, or sex information based on previously collected data under § 1002.107(d), the financial institution does not need to collect any additional ethnicity, race, or sex information for other principal owners (if any). See also comment 107(d)-9.
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<P>12. <I>Guarantors.</I> A financial institution does not collect or report a guarantor's ethnicity, race, or sex unless the guarantor is also a principal owner of the applicant, as defined in § 1002.102(o).
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<P>13. <I>Ethnicity.</I> i. <I>Aggregate categories.</I> A financial institution must permit an applicant to provide each principal owner's ethnicity for purposes of § 1002.107(a)(19) using the following aggregate categories or allow the applicant to decline to provide such information for a principal owner if it so chooses:
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<P>A. Hispanic or Latino.
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<P>B. Not Hispanic or Latino.
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<P>14. <I>Race.</I> i. <I>Aggregate categories.</I> A financial institution must permit an applicant to provide each principal owner's race for purposes of § 1002.107(a)(19) using one or more of the following aggregate categories, or allow the applicant to decline to provide such information for a principal owner if it so chooses:
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<P>A. American Indian or Alaska Native.
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<P>B. Asian.
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<P>C. Black or African American.
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<P>D. Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander.
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<P>E. White.
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<P>ii. [Reserved]
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<P>iii. <I>Selecting multiple categories.</I> The financial institution must permit the applicant to select as many aggregate categories as the applicant chooses. If an applicant provides race information for a principal owner, the financial institution reports all of the aggregate categories provided by the applicant. For example, if an applicant selects two aggregate categories for a principal owner, the financial institution reports the two aggregate categories that the applicant selected.
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<P>15. <I>Sex.</I> A financial institution must permit an applicant to provide each principal owner's sex for purposes of § 1002.107(a)(19) using the categories male or female, or allow the applicant to decline to provide such information about a principal owner if it so chooses.
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<P>16. <I>Ethnicity, race, and sex information requested orally.</I> As described in comments 107(a)(19)-13 and -14, when collecting principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(19), a financial institution must present the applicant with the specified ethnicity, race, and sex categories. When collecting ethnicity, race, and sex information orally, such as by telephone, a financial institution must present to the applicant the option to decline to provide ethnicity, race, and sex information before listing the aggregate ethnicity, race, and sex categories.
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<P>i. [Reserved]
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<P>ii. <I>More than one principal owner.</I> If an applicant has more than one principal owner, the financial institution is permitted to ask about ethnicity and race in a manner that reduces repetition when collecting ethnicity and race information orally, such as by telephone. For example, if an applicant has two principal owners, the financial institution may ask for both principal owners' ethnicity at the same time, rather than asking about ethnicity, race, and sex for the first principal owner followed by ethnicity, race, and sex for the second principal owner.






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<HD3>107(a)(20) Number of Principal Owners
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> If the financial institution asks the applicant to provide the number of its principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(20), a financial institution must provide the definition of principal owner set forth in § 1002.102(o). The financial institution satisfies this requirement if it provides the definition of principal owner as set forth in the sample data collection form in appendix E.
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<P>2. <I>Number of principal owners provided by applicant; verification of number of principal owners.</I> The financial institution may rely on statements or information provided by the applicant in collecting and reporting the number of the applicant's principal owners. However, pursuant to § 1002.107(b), if the financial institution verifies the number of principal owners provided by the applicant, it must report the verified information.
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<P>3. <I>Number of principal owners not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c), a financial institution shall maintain procedures reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data, which includes the number of principal owners of the applicant. However, if a financial institution is nonetheless unable to collect or otherwise determine the applicant's number of principal owners, the financial institution reports that the number of principal owners is “not provided by applicant and otherwise undetermined.”




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<HD3>107(b) Reliance on and Verification of Applicant-Provided Data
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<P>1. <I>Reliance on information provided by an applicant or appropriate third-party sources.</I> A financial institution may rely on statements made by an applicant (whether made in writing or orally) or information provided by an applicant when compiling and reporting data pursuant to subpart B of this part for applicant-provided data; the financial institution is not required to verify those statements or that information. However, if the financial institution does verify applicant statements or information for its own business purposes, such as statements relating to gross annual revenue or time in business, the financial institution reports the verified information. Depending on the circumstances and the financial institution's procedures, certain applicant-provided data can be collected from appropriate third-party sources without a specific request from the applicant, and such information may also be relied on. For example, gross annual revenue or NAICS code may be collected from tax return documents; a financial institution may also collect an applicant's NAICS code using third-party sources such as business information products. Applicant-provided data are the data that are or could be provided by the applicant, including § 1002.107(a)(5) through (7), (13) through (15), and (17) through (20). See comment 107(c)(1)-3. In regard to restrictions on verification of minority-owned and women-owned business statuses, and principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex, see comments 107(a)(18)-9 and 107(a)(19)-9.




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<HD3>107(c) Time and Manner of Collection
</HD3>
<HD3>107(c)(1) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Procedures.</I> The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a financial institution as well as its stated procedures. For example, if a financial institution's stated procedure is to collect applicant-provided data on or with a paper application form, but employees encourage applicants to skip the page that asks whether the applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business under § 1002.107(a)(18), the financial institution's procedures are not reasonably designed to obtain a response.
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<P>2. <I>Latitude to design procedures.</I> A financial institution has flexibility to establish procedures concerning the timing and manner in which it collects applicant-provided data that work best for its particular lending model and product offerings, provided those procedures are reasonably designed to collect the applicant-provided data in § 1002.107(a), as required pursuant to § 1002.107(c)(1), and where applicable comply with the minimum requirements set forth in § 1002.107(c)(2).
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<P>3. <I>Applicant-provided data.</I> Applicant-provided data are the data that are or could be provided by the applicant, including § 1002.107(a)(5) (credit type), (a)(6) (credit purpose), (a)(7) (amount applied for), (a)(13) (address or location for purposes of determining census tract), (a)(14) (gross annual revenue), (a)(15) (NAICS code, or information about the business such that the financial institution can determine the applicant's NAICS code), (a)(17) (time in business), (a)(18) (minority-owned and women-owned business statuses), (a)(19) (ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners), and (a)(20) (number of principal owners). Applicant-provided data do not include data that are generated or supplied only by the financial institution, including § 1002.107(a)(1) (unique identifier), (a)(2) (application date), (a)(8) (amount approved or originated), (a)(9) (action taken), (a)(10) (action taken date), and (a)(13) (census tract, based on address or location provided by the applicant).
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<P>4. <I>Collecting applicant-provided data without a direct request to the applicant.</I> Depending on the circumstances and the financial institution's procedures, certain applicant-provided data can be collected without a direct request to the applicant. For example, credit type may be collected based on the type of product chosen by the applicant. Similarly, a financial institution may rely on appropriate third-party sources to collect certain applicant-provided data. See § 1002.107(b) concerning the use of third-party sources.
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<P>5. <I>Data updated by the applicant.</I> A financial institution reports updated data if it obtains more current data from the applicant during the application process. For example, if an applicant states its gross annual revenue for the preceding fiscal year was $900,000, but then the applicant notifies the financial institution that its revenue in the preceding fiscal year was actually $950,000, the financial institution reports gross annual revenue of $950,000. For reporting verified applicant-provided data, see § 1002.107(b) and comment 107(b)-1. If a financial institution has already verified data and then the applicant updates it, the financial institution reports the information it believes to be more accurate, in its discretion. If a financial institution receives updates from the applicant after the application process has closed (for example, after closing or account opening), the financial institution may, at its discretion, update the data at any time prior to reporting the covered application to the Bureau.


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<HD3>107(c)(2) Applicant-Provided Data Collected Directly From the Applicant
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Whether a financial institution's procedures are reasonably designed to collect applicant-provided data is a fact-based determination and may depend on the financial institution's particular lending model, product offerings, and other circumstances; procedures that are reasonably designed to obtain a response may therefore require additional provisions beyond the minimum criteria set forth in § 1002.107(c)(2). In general, reasonably designed procedures should make applicant-provided data available for collection. While the requirements of § 1002.107(c)(2) do not apply to applicant-provided data that a financial institution obtains without a direct request to the applicant, as explained in comment 107(c)(1)-4, in such instances, a covered financial institution must still comply with § 1002.107(c)(1).
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<P>2. <I>Specific components.</I> i. <I>Timing of initial collection attempt.</I> While a financial institution has some flexibility concerning when applicant-provided data are collected, it should attempt to make the initial request for applicant-provided data before notifying an applicant of final action taken on a covered application. Generally, the earlier in the application process the financial institution initially seeks to collect applicant-provided data, the more likely the timing of collection is reasonably designed to obtain a response. However, under certain circumstances making an initial collection attempt before a decision is made on the application may not be feasible because the party that must report the transaction might not be in direct contact with the applicant before making a decision on the application. For example, comments 109(a)(3)-2.v and 109(a)(3)-2.vi (with respect to Financial Institutions B and C) describe scenarios in which a financial institution makes a credit decision on an application forwarded by an intermediary and therefore might not have direct contact with the applicant. Therefore, a financial institution's procedure still may be considered reasonably designed to obtain a response if it makes the initial request after notifying the applicant of final action, provided that the financial institution may not feasibly collect data from the applicant prior to that notification because, for instance, it has had no direct contact with the applicant. This flexibility is intended for transactions where the lack of direct contact is inherent to the business model; a financial institution may not purposefully structure its application process to avoid direct contact with the applicant in order to delay the collection of data.
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<P>ii. <I>The request for applicant-provided data is prominently displayed or presented.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c)(2)(ii), a financial institution must make a reasonable attempt to ensure an applicant actually sees, hears, or is otherwise presented with the request for applicant-provided data. A financial institution does not have reasonably designed procedures if it obscures, prevents, or inhibits an applicant from accessing or reviewing a request for applicant-provided data.
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<P>iii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>iv. <I>The applicant can easily provide a response.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(c)(2)(iv), a financial institution must structure the request for information in a manner that makes it easy for the applicant to provide a response. For example, a financial institution requests applicant-provided data in the same format as other information required for the covered application, provides applicants multiple methods to provide or return applicant-provided data (for example, on a written form, through a web portal, or through other means), or provides the applicant some other type of straightforward and seamless method to provide a response. Conversely, a financial institution must avoid imposing unnecessary burden on an applicant to provide the information requested or requiring the applicant to take steps that are inconsistent with the rest of its application process. For example, a financial institution does not have reasonably designed procedures if it collects application information related to its own creditworthiness determination in electronic form, but mails a paper form to the applicant initially seeking the data required under § 1002.107(a) that the financial institution does not otherwise need for its creditworthiness determination and requiring the applicant to mail it back. On the other hand, a financial institution complies with § 1002.107(c)(2)(iv) if, at its discretion, it requests the applicant to respond to inquiries made pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) through a reasonable method intended to keep the applicant's responses discrete and protected from view.
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<P>v. <I>Multiple requests for applicant-provided data.</I> A financial institution is permitted, but not required, to make more than one attempt to obtain applicant-provided data if the applicant does not respond to an initial request. For example, if an applicant initially does not respond when asked early in the application process (before notifying the applicant of final action taken on the application, pursuant to § 1002.107(c)(2)(i)) to inquiries made pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), a financial institution may request this information again, for example, during a subsequent in-person meeting with the applicant or after notifying the applicant of final action taken on the covered application.












</P>
<HD3>107(d) Previously Collected Data
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A financial institution may, for the purpose of reporting such data pursuant to § 1002.109, reuse certain previously collected data if the requirements of § 1002.107(d) are met. In that circumstance, a financial institution need not seek to collect the data anew in connection with a subsequent covered application to satisfy the requirements of this subpart. For example, if an applicant applies for and is granted a term loan, and then subsequently applies for a credit card in the same calendar year, the financial institution need not request again the data specified in § 1002.107(d). Similarly, if an applicant applies for more than one covered credit transaction at one time, a financial institution need only ask once for the data specified in § 1002.107(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Data that can be reused.</I> Subject to the requirements of § 1002.107(d), a financial institution may reuse the following data: § 1002.107(a)(13) (address or location for purposes of determining census tract), (a)(14) (gross annual revenue) (subject to comment 107(d)-7), (a)(15) (NAICS code), (a)(17) (time in business) (subject to comment 107(d)-8), (a)(18) (minority-owned and women-owned business statuses) (subject to comment 107(d)-9), (a)(19) (ethnicity, race, and sex of applicant's principal owners) (subject to comment 107(d)-9), and (a)(20) (number of principal owners). A financial institution is not, however, permitted to reuse other data, such as § 1002.107(a)(6) (credit purpose).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Previously reported data without a substantive response.</I> Data have not been “previously collected” within the meaning of § 1002.107(d) if the applicant did not provide a substantive response to the financial institution's request for that data and the financial institution was not otherwise able to obtain the requested data (for example, from the applicant's credit report, or tax returns).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Updated data.</I> If, after the application process has closed on a prior covered application, a financial institution obtains updated information relevant to the data required to be collected and reported pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(13) through (15) and (17) through (20), and the applicant subsequently submits a new covered application, the financial institution must use the updated information in connection with the new covered application (if the requirements of § 1002.107(d) are otherwise met) or seek to collect the data again. For example, if a business notifies a financial institution of a change of address of its sole business location, and subsequently submits a covered application within the time period specified in § 1002.107(d)(1) for reusing previously collected data, the financial institution must report census tract based on the updated information. In that circumstance, the financial institution may still reuse other previously collected data to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(14), (15), and (17) through (20) if the requirements of § 1002.107(d) are met.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collection within the preceding 36 months.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(d)(1), data can be reused to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(13), (15), and (17) through (20) if they are collected within the preceding 36 months. A financial institution may measure the 36-month period from the date of final action taken (§ 1002.107(a)(9)) on a prior application to the application date (§ 1002.107(a)(2)) on a subsequent application. For example, if a financial institution takes final action on an application on February 1, 2027, it may reuse certain previously collected data pursuant to § 1002.107(d)(1) for subsequent covered applications dated or received by the financial institution through January 31, 2030.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reason to believe data are inaccurate.</I> Whether a financial institution has reason to believe data are inaccurate pursuant to § 1002.107(d)(2) depends on the particular facts and circumstances. For example, a financial institution may have reason to believe data on the applicant's minority-owned business status or women-owned business status may be inaccurate if it knows that the applicant has had a change in ownership or a change in an owner's percentage of ownership.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Collection of gross annual revenue in the same calendar year.</I> Pursuant to § 1002.107(d)(1), gross annual revenue information can be reused to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(14) provided it is collected in the same calendar year as the current covered application, as measured from the application date. For example, if an application is received and gross annual revenue is collected in connection with a covered application in one calendar year, but then final action was taken on the application in the following calendar year, the data may only be reused for the calendar year in which it was collected and not the calendar year in which final action was taken on the application. However, if an application is received and gross annual revenue is collected in connection with a covered application in one calendar year, a financial institution may reuse that data pursuant to § 1002.107(d) in a subsequent application initiated in the same calendar year, even if final action was taken on the subsequent application in the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Time in business.</I> A financial institution that decides to reuse previously collected data to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(17) (time in business) must update the data to reflect the passage of time since the data were collected. If a financial institution only knows that the applicant had been in business less than two years at the time the data was initially collected, as described in comment 107(a)(17)-1.ii or iii, it updates the data based on the assumption that the applicant had been in business for 12 months at the time of the prior collection. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If a financial institution previously collected data on a prior covered application that the applicant has been in business for four years, and then seeks to reuse that data for a subsequent covered application submitted one year later, it must update the data to reflect that the applicant has been in business for five years.
</P>
<P>ii. If a financial institution previously collected data on a prior covered application that the applicant had been in business less than two years (and was not aware of the business's actual length of time in business at the time), and then seeks to reuse that data for a subsequent covered application submitted 18 months later, the financial institution reports time in business on the subsequent covered application as over two years in business.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Minority-owned business status, women-owned business status, and principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex.</I> A financial institution may not reuse data to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) unless the data were collected in connection with a prior covered application pursuant to subpart B of this part. If the financial institution previously asked the applicant to provide its minority-owned business status and women-owned business status, and principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex for purposes of § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), and the applicant declined to provide the information (such as by selecting “I do not wish to provide this information” or similar on a data collection form or by telling the financial institution that it did not wish to provide the information), the financial institution may use that response when reporting data for a subsequent application pursuant to § 1002.107(d). However, if the applicant failed to respond (such as by leaving the response to the question blank or by failing to return a data collection form), the financial institution must inquire about the applicant's minority-owned business status, women-owned business status, and principal owners' ethnicity, race, or sex, as applicable, in connection with a subsequent application because the data were not previously obtained. See also comment 107(a)(19)-11 concerning previously collected ethnicity, race, and sex information.










</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.108—Firewall
</HD2>
<HD3>108(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Involved in making any determination concerning a covered application from a small business.</I> i. <I>General.</I> An employee or officer is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application from a small business for purposes of § 1002.108 if the employee or officer makes, or otherwise participates in, a decision regarding the evaluation of a covered application from a small business or the creditworthiness of a small business applicant for a covered credit transaction. This includes, but is not limited to, employees and officers serving as underwriters. The decision that an employee or officer makes or participates in must be about a specific covered application or about the creditworthiness of a specific applicant. An employee or officer is not involved in making a determination concerning a covered application if the employee or officer is only involved in making a decision that affects covered applications generally, or if the employee or officer only interacts with small businesses prior to them becoming applicants or submitting an application. An employee or officer may be participating in a determination concerning a covered application even if the employee or officer is not the ultimate decision maker or the sole decision maker. For example, an employee participates in a determination concerning a covered application if the employee recommends that another employee or officer approve or deny the application. Similarly, an employee or officer participates in a determination concerning a covered application if the employee or officer is part of a larger group, such as a committee, that makes a determination concerning a covered application. For example, an employee participates in a decision if the employee is a member of a committee that approves the terms offered to an applicant for a covered application. This is true even if the employee does not support the committee's ultimate decision regarding the terms offered. Conversely, an employee or officer does not participate in a determination concerning a covered application if the employee or officer only performs ministerial functions for the committee, such as recording the minutes, or if the committee does not make a determination concerning a specific covered application.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples of activities that do not constitute being involved in making a determination concerning a covered application from a small business.</I> The following are examples of activities that do not constitute being involved in making a determination concerning a covered application:
</P>
<P>A. Developing policies and procedures, designing or programming computer or other systems, or conducting marketing.
</P>
<P>B. Discussing credit products, loan terms, or loan requirements with a small business before it submits a covered application.
</P>
<P>C. Making or participating in a decision after the financial institution has taken final action on the covered application, such as a decision about servicing or collecting a covered credit transaction.
</P>
<P>D. Using a check box form to confirm whether an applicant has submitted all necessary documents or handling a minor or clerical matter during the application process, such as suggesting or selecting a time for an appointment with an applicant.
</P>
<P>E. Gathering information (including information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19)) and forwarding the information or a covered application to other individuals or entities.
</P>
<P>F. Reviewing previously collected data to determine if it can be reused for a later covered application pursuant to § 1002.107(d).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples of activities that constitute being involved in making a determination concerning a covered application from a small business.</I> The following are examples of activities (done individually or as part of a group) that constitute being involved in making a determination concerning a covered application:
</P>
<P>A. Making or participating in a decision to approve or deny a specific covered application. This includes, but is not limited to, making or participating in a decision that an applicant does not satisfy one or more of the requirements for the covered credit transaction for which it has applied.
</P>
<P>B. Making or participating in a decision regarding the reason(s) for denial of a covered application.
</P>
<P>C. Making or participating in a decision that a guarantor or collateral is required in order to approve a specific covered application.
</P>
<P>D. Making or participating in a decision regarding the credit amount or credit limit that will be approved for a specific covered application.
</P>
<P>E. Making or participating in a decision to set one or more of the other terms that will be offered for a specific covered credit transaction. This includes, but is not limited to, making or participating in a decision regarding the interest rate, the loan term, or the payment schedule that will be offered for a specific covered credit transaction.
</P>
<P>F. Making or participating in a decision regarding a counteroffer made to a specific applicant, including a decision regarding the terms of such a counteroffer.
</P>
<P>G. Recommending that another decision maker approve or deny a specific covered application, provide a specific reason for denying a covered application, require a guarantor or collateral in order to approve a covered application, approve a credit amount or credit limit for a covered credit transaction, set one or more other terms for a covered credit transaction, make a counteroffer regarding a covered application, or set a specific term for such a counteroffer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Should have access.</I> i. <I>General.</I> A financial institution may determine that an employee or officer who is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application from a small business should have access to information otherwise subject to the prohibition in § 1002.108(b) if that employee or officer is assigned one or more job duties that may require the employee or officer to collect, see, consider, refer to, or otherwise use information subject to the prohibition in § 1002.108(b). If the employee or officer might need to collect, see, consider, refer to, or use such information to perform the employee's or officer's assigned job duties, the financial institution may determine that the employee or officer should have access. For example, if a loan officer is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application and that loan officer's job description or the financial institution's policies and procedures state that the loan officer may need to collect information pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19), the financial institution may determine that the loan officer should have access.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>When a group of employees or officers should have access.</I> A financial institution may determine that all employees or officers with the same job description or assigned duties should have access for purposes of § 1002.108. For example, if a job description, a policy, a procedure, or another document states that a loan officer may have to collect or explain any part of a data collection form that includes the inquiries described in § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), the financial institution may determine that all employees and officers who have been assigned the position of loan officer should have access for purposes of § 1002.108.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Making a determination regarding who should have access.</I> A financial institution is permitted to choose what lawful factors it will consider when determining whether an employee or officer should have access. A financial institution's determination that an employee or officer should have access may take into account relevant operational factors and lawful business practices. For example, a financial institution may consider its size, the number of employees and officers within the relevant line of business or at a particular branch or office location, and/or the number of covered applications the financial institution has received or expects to receive. Additionally, a financial institution may consider its current or its reasonably anticipated staffing levels, operations, systems, processes, policies, and procedures. A financial institution is not required to hire additional staff, upgrade its systems, change its lending or operational processes, or revise its policies or procedures for the sole purpose of limiting who should have access.


</P>
<HD3>108(b) Prohibition on Access to Certain Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of persons subject to the prohibition.</I> The prohibition in § 1002.108(b) applies to an employee or officer of a covered financial institution or its affiliate if the employee or officer is involved in making any determination concerning a covered application from a small business. For example, if a financial institution is affiliated with company B and an employee of company B is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application on behalf of the financial institution, then the financial institution must comply with § 1002.108 with regard to company B's employee. Section 1002.108 does not require a financial institution to limit the access of employees and officers of third parties who are not affiliates of the financial institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Scope of information that cannot be accessed when the prohibition applies to an employee or officer.</I> i. Information that cannot be accessed when the prohibition applies. If a particular employee or officer is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application from a small business, the prohibition in § 1002.108(b) only limits that employee's or officer's access to that small business applicant's responses to the inquiries that the covered financial institution makes to satisfy § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19). For example, if a financial institution uses a paper data collection form to request information pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), an employee or officer that is subject to the prohibition is not permitted access to the paper data collection form that contains the applicant's responses to the inquiries made pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), or to any other record that identifies how the particular applicant responded to those inquires. Similarly, if a financial institution makes the inquiries required pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) during a telephone call, the prohibition applies to the applicant's responses to those inquiries provided during that telephone call and to any record that identifies how the particular applicant responded to those inquiries.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Information that can be accessed when the prohibition applies.</I> If a particular employee or officer is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application, the prohibition in § 1002.108(b) does not limit that employee's or officer's access to an applicant's responses to inquiries regarding whether the applicant is a minority-owned or women-owned business, or principal owners' ethnicity, race, or sex, made for purposes other than compliance with § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19). Thus, for example, an employee or officer who is subject to the prohibition in § 1002.108(b) may have access to information regarding whether an applicant is eligible for a Small Business Administration program for women-owned businesses without regard to whether the exception in § 1002.108(c) is satisfied. Additionally, an employee or officer who knows that an applicant is a minority-owned business or a women-owned business, or who knows the ethnicity, race, or sex of any of the applicant's principal owners due to activities unrelated to the inquiries made to satisfy the financial institution's obligations under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) is not prohibited from making a determination concerning the applicant's covered application. Thus, an employee or officer who knows, for example, that an applicant is a minority-owned business due to a social relationship or another professional relationship with the applicant or any of its principal owners may make determinations concerning the applicant's covered application. Furthermore, an employee or officer that is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application may see, consider, refer to, or use data collected to satisfy aspects of § 1002.107 other than § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19), such as gross annual revenue and time in business.




</P>
<HD3>108(c) Exception to the Prohibition on Access to Certain Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution is not required to limit the access of an employee or officer who is involved in making determinations concerning a covered application from a small business if the financial institution determines that the particular employee or officer should have access to the information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19), and the financial institution provides the notice required by § 1002.108(d). A financial institution is not required to perform a separate analysis of the feasibility of maintaining a firewall. A determination that an employee or officer should have access means that it is not feasible to maintain a firewall as to that particular employee or officer, and the exception applies to that employee or officer if the financial institution provides the notice required by § 1002.108(d). However, the fact that a financial institution has made a determination that an employee or officer should have access does not mean that the financial institution can permit other employees and officers who are involved in making determinations concerning a covered application to have access to the information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19). A financial institution may only permit an employee or officer who is involved in making a determination concerning a covered application to have access to information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) if it has determined that employee or officer or a group of which the employee or officer is a member should have access to the information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applying the exception to a specific employee or officer or group of similarly situated employees or officers.</I> The exception applies to an employee or officer if the financial institution determines that the employee or officer should have access to the information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19), and the financial institution provides the notice required by § 1002.108(d). A financial institution can also determine that several employees and officers should have access, that all of a group of similarly situated employees or officers should have access, and that multiple groups of similarly situated employees or officers should have access to information collected pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19). See also comment 108(a)-2. For example, a financial institution could determine that all its small business loan officers, small business loan processors, compliance officers, and legal officers should have access. If the financial institution provides the notice required in § 1002.108(d), the financial institution may permit all of its small business loan officers, small business loan processors, compliance officers, and legal officers to have access. However, the financial institution cannot permit other employees and officers to have access simply because it has determined that the small business loan officers, loan processors, compliance officers, and legal officers should have access. For example, in this case, the financial institution may not permit its underwriters or chief executive officer to have access to the information collected from the applicant pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19) if they are involved in making any determination concerning a covered application, unless the financial institution also determines that they should have access. This would be true even if the chief executive officer or underwriter had some of the same assigned duties as a loan officer, such as being a member of a credit committee, but has not been assigned the task(s) that may require access to one or more applicants' responses to the financial institution's inquiries under § 1002.107(a)(18) or (19). If the financial institution separately determines that underwriters and the chief executive officer should have access, then the underwriters and chief executive officer may also have access.


</P>
<HD3>108(d) Notice
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> If a financial institution determines that one or more employees or officers should have access pursuant to § 1002.108(c), the financial institution must provide the required notice to, at a minimum, the applicant or applicants whose responses will be accessed by an employee or officer involved in making determinations concerning the applicant's or applicants' covered applications. Alternatively, a financial institution may also provide the required notice to applicants whose responses will not or might not be accessed. For example, a financial institution could provide the notice to all applicants for covered credit transactions or all applicants for a specific type of product.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of the required notice.</I> The notice must inform the applicant that one or more employees and officers involved in making determinations concerning the applicant's covered application may have access to the applicant's responses regarding the applicant's minority-owned business status and women-owned business status, and its principal owners' ethnicity, race, and sex. See the sample data collection form in appendix E to this part for sample language for providing this notice to applicants. If a financial institution establishes and maintains a firewall and chooses to use the sample data collection form, the financial institution can delete this sample language from the form.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing for providing the notice.</I> If the financial institution is providing the notice orally, it must provide the notice required by § 1002.108(d) prior to asking the applicant if it is a minority-owned business or women-owned business and prior to asking for a principal owner's ethnicity, race, or sex. If the notice is provided on the same paper or electronic data collection form as the inquiries about minority-owned business status, women-owned business status, and the principal owners' ethnicity, race, or sex, the notice must appear before the inquiries. If the notice is provided in an electronic or paper document that is separate from the data collection form, the notice must be provided at the same time as the data collection form or prior to providing the data collection form. Additionally, the notice must be provided with the non-discrimination notices required pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19). See appendix E to this part for sample language.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.109—Reporting of Data to the Bureau
</HD2>
<HD3>109(a) Reporting to the Bureau
</HD3>
<HD3>109(a)(2) Reporting by Subsidiaries
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Subsidiaries.</I> A covered financial institution is considered a subsidiary of another covered financial institution for purposes of reporting data pursuant to § 1002.109 if more than 50 percent of the ownership or control of the first covered financial institution is held by the second covered financial institution.
</P>
<P>109(a)(3) Reporting Obligations Where Multiple Financial Institutions Are Involved in a Covered Credit Transaction
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The following clarifies how to report applications involving more than one financial institution. The discussion below assumes that all parties involved with the covered credit transaction are covered financial institutions. However, the same principles apply if any party is not a covered financial institution.
</P>
<P>i. A financial institution shall report the action that it takes on a covered application, whether or not the covered credit transaction closed in the financial institution's name and even if the financial institution used underwriting criteria supplied by another financial institution. However, where it is necessary for more than one financial institution to make a credit decision in order to approve a single covered credit transaction, only the last financial institution with authority to set the material terms of the covered credit transaction is required to report. Setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction include, for example, selecting among competing offers, or modifying pricing information, amount approved or originated, or repayment duration. In this situation, the determinative factor is not which financial institution actually made the last credit decision prior to closing, but rather which financial institution last had the authority for setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction prior to closing. Whether a financial institution has taken action for purposes of § 1002.109(a)(3) and comment 109(a)(3)-1 is not relevant to, and is not intended to repeal, abrogate, annul, impair, or interfere with, section 701(d) (15 U.S.C. 1691(d)) of the Act, § 1002.9, or any other provision within subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>ii. A financial institution takes action on a covered application for purposes of § 1002.109(a)(3) if it denies the application, originates the application, approves the application but the applicant did not accept the transaction, or closes the file or denies for incompleteness. The financial institution must also report the application if it was withdrawn. For reporting purposes, it is not relevant whether the financial institution receives the application directly from the applicant or indirectly through another party, such as a broker, or (except as otherwise provided in comment 109(a)(3)-1.i) whether another financial institution also reviews and reports an action taken on a covered application involving the same credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. Where it is necessary for more than one financial institution to make a credit decision in order to approve a single covered credit transaction and where more than one financial institution denies the application or otherwise does not approve the application, the reporting financial institution (the last financial institution with authority to set the material terms of the covered credit transaction) shall have a consistent procedure for determining how it reports inconsistent or differing data points for purposes of subpart B of this part. For example, Financial Institution A is the reporting entity because it has the last authority to set the material credit terms. Financial Institution A sends the application to Financial Institution B and Financial Institution C for review, but both Financial Institution B and Financial Institution C deny the application. Based on these denials, Financial Institution A follows suit and denies the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following scenarios illustrate how a financial institution reports a particular covered application. The illustrations assume that all parties involved with the covered credit transaction are covered financial institutions. However, the same principles apply if any party is not a covered financial institution. Examples i through iv involve a single financial institution with responsibility for making a credit decision without the involvement of an intermediary. Example v describes a financial institution intermediary with only passive involvement in the covered credit transaction. Example vi describes a transaction where multiple financial institutions independently decision and take action on a covered application. Examples vii and viii describe situations where more than one financial institution must make a credit decision in order to approve the covered credit transaction. Examples ix and x describe situations involving pooled and participation interests.
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<P>i. Financial Institution A received a covered application from an applicant and approved the application before closing the covered credit transaction in its name. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Financial Institution B later purchased the covered credit transaction from Financial Institution A. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Financial Institution A reports the application. Financial Institution B has no reporting obligation for this transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Financial Institution A received a covered application from an applicant. If approved, the covered credit transaction would have closed in Financial Institution B's name. Financial Institution A denied the application without sending it to Financial Institution B for approval. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Since Financial Institution A took action on the application, Financial Institution A reports the application as denied. Financial Institution B does not report the application.
</P>
<P>iii. Financial Institution A reviewed a covered application and made a credit decision to approve it using the underwriting criteria provided by a Financial Institution B. Financial Institution B did not review the application and did not make a credit decision prior to closing. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Financial Institution A reports the application. Financial Institution B has no reporting obligation for this application.
</P>
<P>iv. Financial Institution A reviewed and made the credit decision on a covered application based on the criteria of a third-party insurer or guarantor (for example, a government or private insurer or guarantor). Financial Institution A reports the action taken on the application.
</P>
<P>v. Financial Institution A received a covered application from an applicant and forwarded that application to Financial Institution B. Financial Institution B reviewed the application and made a credit decision approving the application prior to closing. The covered credit transaction closed in Financial Institution A's name. Financial Institution B purchased the covered credit transaction from Financial Institution A after closing. Financial Institution B was not acting as Financial Institution A's agent. Since Financial Institution B made the credit decision prior to closing, and Financial Institution A's approval was not necessary for the credit transaction, Financial Institution B reports the origination. Financial Institution A does not report the application. Assume the same facts, except that Financial Institution B reviewed the application before the covered credit transaction would have closed, but Financial Institution B denied the application. Financial Institution B reports the application as denied. Financial Institution A does not report the application because it did not take an action on the application. If, under the same facts, the application was withdrawn before Financial Institution B made a credit decision, Financial Institution B would report the application as withdrawn and Financial Institution A would not report the application for the same reason.
</P>
<P>vi. Financial Institution A received a covered application and forwarded it to Financial Institutions B and C. Financial Institution A made a credit decision, acting as Financial Institution D's agent, and approved the application. Financial Institutions B and C are not working together with Financial Institutions A or D, or with each other, and are solely responsible for setting the terms of their own credit transactions. Financial Institution B made a credit decision approving the application, and Financial Institution C made a credit decision denying the application. The applicant did not accept the covered credit transaction from Financial Institution D. Financial Institution D reports the application as approved but not accepted. Financial Institution A does not report the application, because it was acting as Financial Institution D's agent. The applicant accepted the offer of credit from Financial Institution B, and credit was extended. Financial Institution B reports the application as originated. Financial Institution C reports the application as denied.
</P>
<P>vii. Financial Institution A received a covered application and made a credit decision to approve it using the underwriting criteria provided by Financial Institution B. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Financial Institution A forwarded the application to Financial Institution B. Financial Institution B reviewed the application and made a credit decision approving the application prior to closing. Financial Institution A makes a credit decision on the application and modifies the credit terms (the interest rate and repayment term) offered by Financial Institution B. The covered credit transaction reflecting the modified terms closes in Financial Institution A's name. Financial Institution B purchases the covered credit transaction from Financial Institution A after closing. As the last financial institution with the authority for setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction, Financial Institution A reports the application as originated. Financial Institution B does not report the origination because it was not the last financial institution with the authority to set the material terms on the application. If, under the same facts, Financial Institution A did not modify the credit terms offered by Financial Institution B, Financial Institution A still reports the application as originated because it was still the last financial institution with the authority for setting the material terms, even if it chose not to so do in a particular instance. Financial Institution B does not report the origination.
</P>
<P>viii. Financial Institution A received a covered application and forwarded it to Financial Institutions B, C, and D. Financial Institution A was not acting as anyone's agent. Financial Institution B and C reviewed the application and made a credit decision approving the application and Financial Institution D reviewed the application and made a credit decision denying the application. Prior to closing, Financial Institution A makes a credit decision on the application by deciding to offer to the applicant the credit terms offered by Financial Institution B and does not convey to the applicant the credit terms offered by Financial Institution C. The applicant does not accept the covered credit transaction. As the last financial institution with the authority for setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction, Financial Institution A reports the application as approved but not accepted. Financial Institutions B, C, and D do not report the application because they were not the last financial institution with the authority for setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction. Assume the same facts, except the applicant accepts the terms of the covered credit transaction from Financial Institution B as offered by Financial Institution A. The covered credit transaction closes in Financial Institution A's name. Financial Institution B purchases the transaction after closing. Here, Financial Institution A reports the application as originated. Financial Institutions B, C, and D do not report the application because they were not the last financial institution responsible for setting the material terms of the covered credit transaction.
</P>
<P>ix. Financial Institution A receives a covered application and approves it, and then Financial Institution A elects to organize a loan participation agreement where Financial Institutions B and C agree to purchase a partial interest in the covered credit transaction. Financial Institution A reports the application. Financial Institutions B and C have no reporting obligation for this application.
</P>
<P>x. Financial Institution A purchases an interest in a pool of covered credit transactions, such as credit-backed securities or real estate investment conduits. Financial Institution A does not report this purchase.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Agents.</I> If a covered financial institution takes action on a covered application through its agent, the financial institution reports the application. For example, acting as Financial Institution A's agent, Financial Institution B approved an application prior to closing and a covered credit transaction was originated. Financial Institution A reports the covered credit transaction as an origination. State law determines whether one party is the agent of another.






</P>
<HD3>109(b) Financial Institution Identifying Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes to financial institution identifying information.</I> If a financial institution's information required pursuant to § 1002.109(b) changes, the financial institution shall provide the new information with the data submission for the collection year of the change. For example, assume two financial institutions that previously reported data under subpart B of this part merge and the surviving institution retained its Legal Entity Identifier but obtained a new TIN in February 2029. The surviving institution must report the new TIN with its data submission for its 2029 data (which is due by June 1, 2030) pursuant to § 1002.109(b)(5). Likewise, if that financial institution's Federal prudential regulator changes in February 2029 as a result of the merger, it must identify its new Federal prudential regulator in its annual submission for its 2029 data.












</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Federal prudential regulator.</I> For purposes of § 1002.109(b)(4), <I>Federal prudential regulator</I> means, if applicable, the Federal prudential regulator for a financial institution that is a depository institution as determined pursuant to section 3q of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), including the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; or the National Credit Union Administration Board for financial institutions that are Federal credit unions.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Legal Entity Identifier (LEI).</I> A Legal Entity Identifier is a utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory oversight committee, or a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (GLEIF) (or any successor of the GLEIF) after the GLEIF assumes operational governance of the global LEI system. A financial institution complies with § 1002.109(b)(6) by reporting its current LEI number. A financial institution that does not currently possess an LEI number must obtain an LEI number, and has an ongoing obligation to maintain the LEI number. The GLEIF website provides a list of LEI issuing organizations. A financial institution may obtain an LEI, for purposes of complying with § 1002.109(b)(6), from any one of the issuing organizations listed on the GLEIF website.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(7)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>RSSD ID number.</I> The RSSD ID is a unique identifying number assigned to institutions, including main offices and branches, by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. A financial institution's RSSD ID may be found on the website of the National Information Center, which provides comprehensive financial and structure information on banks and other institutions for which the Federal Reserve Board has a supervisory, regulatory, or research interest including both domestic and foreign banking organizations that operate in the United States. If a financial institution does not have an RSSD ID, it reports that this information is not applicable.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(8)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Immediate parent entity.</I> An entity is the immediate parent of a financial institution for purposes of § 1002.109(b)(8)(i) through (iii) if it is a separate entity that directly owns more than 50 percent of the financial institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Top-holding parent entity.</I> An entity is the top-holding parent of a financial institution for purposes of § 1002.109(b)(8)(iv) through (vi) if it ultimately owns more than 50 percent of the financial institution, and the entity itself is not controlled by any other entity. If the immediate parent entity and the top-holding parent entity are the same, the financial institution reports that § 1002.109(b)(8)(iv) through (vi) are not applicable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>LEI.</I> For purposes of § 1002.109(b)(8)(ii) and (v), a financial institution shall report the LEI of a parent entity if the parent entity has an LEI number. If a financial institution's parent entity does not have an LEI, the financial institution reports that this information is not applicable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>RSSD ID numbers.</I> For purposes of § 1002.109(b)(8)(iii) and § 1002.109(b)(8)(vi), a financial institution shall report the RSSD ID number of a parent entity if the entity has an RSSD ID number. If a financial institution's parent entity does not have an RSSD ID, the financial institution reports that this information is not applicable.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(9)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Type of financial institution.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1002.109(b)(9) by selecting the applicable type or types of financial institution from the list below. A financial institution shall select all applicable types.
</P>
<P>i. Bank or savings association.
</P>
<P>ii. Minority depository institution.
</P>
<P>iii. Credit union.
</P>
<P>iv. Nondepository institution.
</P>
<P>v. Community development financial institution (CDFI).
</P>
<P>vi. Other nonprofit financial institution.
</P>
<P>vii. [Reserved].
</P>
<P>viii. Government lender.
</P>
<P>ix. Commercial finance company.
</P>
<P>x. Equipment finance company.
</P>
<P>xi. Industrial loan company.
</P>
<P>xii. Online lender.
</P>
<P>xiii. Other.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of “other” for type of financial institution.</I> A financial institution reports type of financial institution as “other” where none of the enumerated types of financial institution appropriately describe the applicable type of financial institution, and the institution reports the type of financial institution via free-form text field. A financial institution that selects at least one type from the list is permitted, but not required, to also report “other” (with appropriate free-form text) if there is an additional aspect of its business that is not one of the enumerated types set out in comment 109(b)(9)-1.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional types of financial institution.</I> The Bureau may add additional types of financial institutions via the Filing Instructions Guide and related materials. Refer to the Filing Instructions Guide for any updates for each reporting year.




</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 109(b)(10)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Financial institutions that voluntarily report covered applications under subpart B of this part.</I> A financial institution that is not a covered financial institution pursuant to § 1002.105(b) but that elects to voluntarily compile, maintain, and report data under §§ 1002.107 through 1002.109 (see comment 105(b)-10) complies with § 1002.109(b)(10) by selecting “voluntary reporter.”
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.110—Publication of Data and Other Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD3>110(c) Statement of Financial Institution's Small Business Lending Data Available on the Bureau's Website
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Statement.</I> A financial institution shall provide the statement required by § 1002.110(c) using the following, or substantially similar, language:
</P>
<HD3>Small Business Lending Data Notice
</HD3>
<P><I>Data about our small business lending are available online for review at the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's (CFPB's) website at https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/small-business-lending/. The data show the geographic distribution of our small business lending applications; information about our loan approvals and denials; and demographic information about the principal owners of our small business applicants. The CFPB may delete or modify portions of our data prior to posting it if doing so would advance a privacy interest. Small business lending data for many other financial institutions are also available at this website.</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Website.</I> A financial institution without a website complies with § 1002.110(c) by making a written statement using the language in comment 110(c)-1, or substantially similar language, available upon request.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Revised location for publicly available data.</I> The Bureau may modify the location specified in comment 110(c)-1 at which small business lending data are available via the Filing Instructions Guide and related materials. Refer to the Filing Instructions Guide for any updates for each reporting year.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.111—Recordkeeping
</HD2>
<HD3>111(a) Record Retention
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of compliance.</I> Section 1002.111(a) requires a financial institution to retain evidence of compliance with subpart B of this part for at least three years after its small business lending application register is required to be submitted to the Bureau pursuant to § 1002.109. In addition to the financial institution's small business lending application register, such evidence of compliance is likely to include, but is not limited to, the applications for credit from which information in the register is drawn, as well as the files or documents that, under § 1002.111(b), are kept separate from the applications for credit. This three-year record retention requirement applies to any records covered by § 1002.111(a), notwithstanding the more general 12-month retention period for records related to business credit specified in § 1002.12(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Record retention for creditors under § 1002.5(a)(4)(vii) and (viii).</I> A creditor that is voluntarily, under § 1002.5(a)(4)(vii) and (viii), collecting information pursuant to subpart B of this part complies with § 1002.111(a) by retaining evidence of compliance with subpart B for at least three years after June 1 of the year following the year that data was collected.
</P>
<HD3>111(b) Certain Information Kept Separate From the Rest of the Application
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Separate from the application.</I> A financial institution may satisfy the requirement in § 1002.111(b) by keeping an applicant's responses to the financial institution's request pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) in a file or document that is discrete or distinct from the application and its accompanying information. For example, such information could be collected on a piece of paper that is separate from the rest of the application form. In order to satisfy the requirement in § 1002.111(b), an applicant's responses to the financial institution's request pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) need not be maintained in a separate electronic system, nor need they be removed from the physical files containing the application so long as there is some separation between the demographic information and the rest of the application and its accompanying information. However, the financial institution may nonetheless need to keep this information in a different electronic or physical file in order to satisfy the prohibition in § 1002.108(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Number of principal owners.</I> A financial institution is permitted to maintain information regarding the applicant's number of principal owners pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(20) with an applicant's responses to the financial institution's request pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19).
</P>
<HD3>111(c) Limitation on Personally Identifiable Information in Certain Records Retained Under This Section
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Small business lending application register.</I> The prohibition in § 1002.111(c) applies to data in the small business lending application register submitted by the financial institution to the Bureau under § 1002.109, the version of the register that the financial institution maintains under § 1002.111(a), and the separate record of certain information created pursuant to § 1002.111(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1002.111(c) prohibits a financial institution from including any name, specific address (other than the census tract required under § 1002.107(a)(13)), telephone number, or email address of any individual who is, or is connected with, an applicant in the small business lending application register it reports pursuant to § 1002.109, in the copy of the register the financial institution retains under § 1002.111(a), and in the records of certain information it must retain separately from the application pursuant to § 1002.111(b). It likewise prohibits a financial institution from including any other personally identifiable information concerning any individual who is, or is connected with, an applicant, except as required pursuant to § 1002.107 or § 1002.111(b). Examples of such personally identifiable information that a financial institution may not include in its small business lending application register include, but are not limited to, the following: date of birth, Social Security number, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other records.</I> The prohibition in § 1002.111(c) does not extend to an application for credit, or any other records that the financial institution maintains that are not specifically enumerated in § 1002.111(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Name and business contact information for submission.</I> The prohibition in § 1002.111(c) does not bar financial institutions from providing to the Bureau, pursuant to § 1002.109(b)(3), the name and business contact information of the person who may be contacted by the Bureau or other regulators with questions about the financial institution's submission under § 1002.109.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.112—Enforcement
</HD2>
<HD3>112(b) Bona Fide Errors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Tolerances for bona fide errors.</I> Section 1002.112(b) provides that a financial institution is presumed to maintain procedures reasonably adapted to avoid errors with respect to a given data field if the number of errors found in a random sample of the financial institution's data submission for the data field does not equal or exceed a threshold specified by the Bureau for this purpose. The Bureau's thresholds appear in column C of table 1 to appendix F to this part. The size of the random sample, set out in column B, shall depend on the size of the financial institution's small business lending application register, as shown in column A of table 1 to appendix F. A financial institution has not maintained procedures reasonably adapted to avoid errors if either there is a reasonable basis to believe the error was intentional or there is evidence that the financial institution has not maintained procedures reasonably adapted to avoid errors.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Tolerances and data fields.</I> For purposes of determining whether an error is bona fide under § 1002.112(b), the term “data field” generally refers to individual fields. All required data fields, and valid response options for those fields, are set forth in the Bureau's Filing Instructions Guide, available at <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/data-research/small-business-lending/filing-instructions-guide/.</I> Some data fields may allow for more than one response. For example, with respect to information on the ethnicity and race of an applicant's principal owner, a data field may identify more than one race or ethnicity. If there are one or more errors within an ethnicity data field, or within a race data field, for a particular principal owner, they would count as one (and only one) error for that data field. For instance, in the race data field, if an applicant indicates that one of its principal owners is Asian, but the financial institution reports that the principal owner is American Indian or Alaska Native, the financial institution has made one error in the race data field for that principal owner. For purposes of the error threshold table in appendix F, the financial institution is deemed to have made one error, not two.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Tolerances and safe harbors.</I> An error that meets the criteria for one of the four safe harbor provisions in § 1002.112(c) is not counted as an error for purposes of determining whether a financial institution has exceeded the relevant error threshold in appendix F to this part for a given data field.
</P>
<HD3>112(c) Safe Harbors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information from a Federal agency—census tract.</I> Section 1002.112(c)(2) provides that an incorrect entry for census tract is not a violation of the Act or subpart B of this part, if the financial institution obtained the census tract using a geocoding tool provided by the FFIEC or the Bureau. However, this safe harbor provision does not extend to a financial institution's failure to provide the correct census tract number for a covered application on its small business lending application register, as required by § 1002.107(a)(13), because the FFIEC or Bureau geocoding tool did not return a census tract for the address provided by the financial institution. In addition, this safe harbor provision does not extend to a census tract error that results from a financial institution entering an inaccurate address into the FFIEC or Bureau geocoding tool.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability of NAICS code safe harbor.</I> The safe harbor in § 1002.112(c)(3) applies to an incorrect entry for the 3-digit NAICS code that financial institutions must collect and report pursuant to § 1002.107(a)(15), provided certain conditions are met. For purposes of § 1002.112(c)(3)(i), a financial institution is permitted to rely on statements made by the applicant, information provided by the applicant, or on other information obtained through its use of appropriate third-party sources, including business information products. See also comments 107(a)(15)-4 and 107(b)-1.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Incorrect determination of small business status, covered credit transaction, or covered application—examples.</I> Section 1002.112(c)(4) provides a safe harbor from violations of the Act or this part for a financial institution that initially collects data under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) regarding whether an applicant for a covered credit transaction is a minority-owned or women-owned business, and the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant's principal owners, but later concludes that it should not have collected this data, if certain conditions are met. Specifically, to qualify for this safe harbor, § 1002.112(c)(4) requires that the financial institution have had a reasonable basis at the time it collected data under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) for believing that the application was a covered application for a covered credit transaction from a small business pursuant to §§ 1002.103, 1002.104, and 1002.106, respectively. For example, Financial Institution A collected data under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19) from an applicant for a covered credit transaction that had self-reported its gross annual revenue as $900,000. Sometime after Financial Institution A had collected this data from the applicant, the financial institution reviewed the applicant's tax returns, which indicated the applicant's gross annual revenue was in fact $1.1 million. Financial Institution A is permitted to rely on representations made by the applicant regarding gross annual revenue in determining whether an applicant is a small business (see § 1002.107(b) and comments 106(b)(1)-3 and 107(a)(14)-1). Thus, Financial Institution A may have had a reasonable basis to believe, at the time it collected data under § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), that the applicant was a small business pursuant to § 1002.106, in which case Financial Institution A's collection of such data would not violate the Act or this part.






</P>
<HD2>Section 1002.114—Effective Date, Compliance Date, and Special Transition Rules
</HD2>
<HD3>114(b) Compliance Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application of initial compliance date.</I> The compliance date in § 1002.114(b) is the date by which the covered financial institution must begin to compile data as specified in § 1002.107, comply with the firewall requirements of § 1002.108, and begin to maintain records as specified in § 1002.111. In addition, the covered financial institution must comply with § 1002.110(c) and (d) no later than June 1 of the year after the compliance date.
</P>
<P>2. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>3. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> The following scenarios illustrate how to determine whether a financial institution is a covered financial institution subject to the initial compliance date specified in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>i. Financial Institution A originated 3,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in calendar year 2026, and 3,000 in calendar year 2027. Financial Institution A has a compliance date of January 1, 2028.
</P>
<P>ii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>iii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>iv. Financial Institution D originated 990 covered credit transactions to small businesses in calendar year 2026, 1,020 in calendar year 2027, and 990 in calendar years 2028 and 2029. Because Financial Institution D did not originate at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of 2026 and 2027, it is not subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1). Because Financial Institution D did not originate at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in subsequent consecutive calendar years, it is not a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b) and is not required to comply with the rule in 2029 or 2030.
</P>
<P>v. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>vi. Financial Institution F originated 990 covered credit transactions for small businesses in calendar year 2026, and 1,020 in 2027, 2028, and 2029. Because Financial Institution F did not originate at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of 2026 and 2027, it is not subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1). Because Financial Institution F originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in subsequent calendar years, § 1002.114(b)(4), which cross-references § 1002.105(b), applies to Financial Institution F. Because Financial Institution F originated at least 1,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses in each of 2027 and 2028, it is a covered financial institution under § 1002.105(b) and is required to comply with the rule beginning January 1, 2029.
</P>
<HD3>114(c) Special Transition Rules
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Collection of certain information prior to a financial institution's compliance date.</I> Notwithstanding § 1002.5(a)(4)(ix), a financial institution that chooses to collect information on covered applications as permitted by § 1002.114(c)(1) in the 12 months prior to the initial compliance date as specified in § 1002.114(b)(1) need comply only with the requirements set out in §§ 1002.107(a)(18) and (19), 1002.108, and 1002.111(b) and (c) with respect to the information collected. During this 12-month period, a covered financial institution need not comply with the provisions of § 1002.107 (other than § 1002.107(a)(18) and (19)), § 1002.109, § 1002.110, § 1002.111(a), or § 1002.114.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transition rule for applications received prior to a compliance date but final action is taken after a compliance date.</I> If a covered financial institution receives a covered application from a small business prior to the initial compliance date specified in § 1002.114(b)(1), but takes final action on or after that date, the financial institution is not required to collect data regarding that application pursuant to § 1002.107 nor to report the application pursuant to § 1002.109. For example, if a financial institution receives an application on December 27, 2027, but does not take final action on the application until January 25, 2028, the financial institution is not required to collect data pursuant to § 1002.107 nor to report data to the Bureau pursuant to § 1002.109 regarding that application.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Has readily accessible the information needed to determine small business status.</I> A financial institution has readily accessible the information needed to determine whether its originations of covered credit transactions were for small businesses as defined in § 1002.106 if, for instance, it in the ordinary course of business collects data on the precise gross annual revenue of the businesses for which it originates loans, it obtains information sufficient to determine whether an applicant for business credit had gross annual revenues of $1 million or less, or if it collects and reports similar data to Federal or State government agencies pursuant to other laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Does not have readily accessible the information needed to determine small business status.</I> A financial institution does not have readily accessible the information needed to determine whether its originations of covered credit transactions were for small businesses as defined in § 1002.106 if it did not in the ordinary course of business collect either precise or approximate information on whether the businesses to which it originated covered credit transactions had gross annual revenue of $1 million or less. In addition, even if precise or approximate information on gross annual revenue was initially collected, a financial institution does not have readily accessible this information if, to retrieve this information, for example, it must review paper loan files, recall such information from either archived paper records or scanned records in digital archives, or obtain such information from third parties that initially obtained this information but did not transmit such information to the financial institution.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reasonable method to estimate the number of originations.</I> The reasonable methods that financial institutions may use to estimate originations for 2026 and 2027 include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. A financial institution may comply with § 1002.114(c)(2) by determining the small business status of covered credit transactions by asking every applicant, prior to the closing of approved transactions, to self-report whether it had gross annual revenue for its preceding fiscal year of $1 million or less, during the period October 1 through December 31, 2026. The financial institution may annualize the number of covered credit transactions it originates to small businesses from October 1 through December 31, 2026, by quadrupling the originations for this period, and apply the annualized number of originations to both calendar years 2026 and 2027.
</P>
<P>ii. A financial institution may comply with § 1002.114(c)(2) by asking a representative sample of applicants for covered credit transactions whether they are small businesses.
</P>
<P>iii. A financial institution may comply with § 1002.114(c)(2) by using another methodology provided that such methodology is reasonable and documented in writing.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples.</I> The following scenarios illustrate the potential application of § 1002.114(c)(2) to a financial institution's initial compliance date under § 1002.114(b). Unless otherwise indicated, in each example the financial institution has chosen to estimate its originations for 2026 and 2027 (rather than 2025 and 2026 as permitted by § 1002.114(c)(3)) to determine whether it is subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>i. Prior to July 1, 2026, Financial Institution A did not collect gross annual revenue or other information that would allow it to determine the small business status of the businesses for whom it originated covered credit transactions in calendar year 2026. Financial Institution A chose to use the methodology set out in comment 114(c)-5.i and as of July 1, 2026, began to collect information on gross annual revenue as defined in § 1002.107(a)(14) for its covered credit transactions originated for businesses. Using this information, Financial Institution A determined that it had originated 750 covered credit transactions for businesses that were small as defined in § 1002.106. On an annualized basis, Financial Institution A originated 3,000 covered credit transactions for small businesses (750 originations * 4 = 3,000 originations per year). Applying this annualized figure of 3,000 originations to both calendar years 2026 and 2027, Financial Institution A is subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>ii. Prior to July 1, 2026, Financial Institution B collected gross annual revenue information for some applicants for business credit, but such information was only noted in its paper loan files. Financial Institution B thus does not have reasonable access to information that would allow it to determine the small business status of the businesses for whom it originated covered credit transactions for the first half of calendar year 2026. Financial Institution B chose to use the methodology set out in comment 114(c)-5.i, and as of October 1, 2026, Financial Institution B began to ask all businesses for whom it was closing covered credit transactions if they had gross annual revenues in the preceding fiscal year of $1 million or less. Using this information, Financial Institution B determined that it had originated 850 covered credit transactions for businesses that were small as defined in § 1002.106. On an annualized basis, Financial Institution B originated 3,400 covered credit transactions for small businesses (850 originations * 4 = 3,400 originations per year). Applying this estimated figure of 3,400 originations to both calendar years 2026 and 2027, Financial Institution B is subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>iii. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>iv. Financial Institution D did not collect gross annual revenue or other information that would allow it to determine the small business status of the businesses for whom it originated covered credit transactions in calendar years 2026 and 2027. Financial Institution D determined that it had originated 3,000 total covered credit transactions for businesses in each of 2026 and 2027. Applying the methodology specified in comment 114(c)-5.ii, Financial Institution D assumed that all 3,000 covered credit transactions originated in each of 2026 and 2027 were to small businesses. On that basis, Financial Institution D is subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>v. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>vi. Financial Institution F does not have readily accessible gross annual revenue or other information that would allow it to determine the small business status of the businesses for whom it originated covered credit transactions in calendar years 2026 and 2027. Financial Institution F determined that it had originated 480 total covered credit transactions for businesses in 2026 and 550 total covered credit transactions for businesses in 2027. Applying the methodology set out in comment 114(c)-5.ii, Financial Institution F assumed that all such transactions originated in 2026 and 2027 were originated for small businesses. On that basis, Financial Institution F is not subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<P>vii. Financial Institution G chose to estimate its originations for 2025 and 2026 (rather than 2026 and 2027), as permitted by § 1002.114(c)(3), and does not have readily accessible gross annual revenue or other information that would allow it to determine the small business status of the businesses for whom it originated covered credit transactions in either of those calendar years. Financial Institution G chose to use the methodology set out in comment 114(c)-5.i, and as of October 1, 2025, Financial Institution G began to ask all businesses for whom it was closing covered credit transactions if they had gross annual revenue in the preceding fiscal year of $1 million or less. Using this information, Financial Institution G determined that it had originated 700 covered credit transactions during that period for businesses that were small as defined in § 1002.106. On an annualized basis, Financial Institution G originated 2,800 covered credit transactions for small businesses (700 originations * 4 = 2,800 originations per year). Applying this estimated figure of 2,800 originations to both calendar years 2025 and 2026, Financial Institution G is subject to the initial compliance date set forth in § 1002.114(b)(1).
</P>
<HD1>Appendix C—Sample Notification Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Form C-9.</I> If not otherwise provided under other applicable disclosure requirements, creditors may design their own form, add to, or modify the model form to reflect their individual policies and procedures. For example, a creditor may want to add:
</P>
<P>i. A telephone number that applicants may call to leave their name and the address to which a copy of the appraisal or other written valuation should be sent.
</P>
<P>ii. A notice of the cost the applicant will be required to pay the creditor for the appraisal or other valuation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79445, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 7248, Jan. 31, 2013; 82 FR 45695, Oct. 2, 2017; 88 FR 35536, May 31, 2023; 89 FR 55029, July 3, 2024; 90 FR 25880, June 18, 2025; 90 FR 47520, Oct. 2, 2025; 91 FR 23609, May 1, 2026]




</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1003" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1003—HOME MORTGAGE DISCLOSURE (REGULATION C)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2803, 2804, 2805, 5512, 5581.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78468, Dec. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1003.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation C, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) pursuant to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) (12 U.S.C. 2801 <I>et seq.,</I>) as amended. The information-collection requirements have been approved by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB numbers for institutions reporting data to the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (1557-0159), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (3064-0046), the Federal Reserve System (7100-0247), the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) (2502-0529), the National Credit Union Administration (3133-0166), and the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (3170-0008).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This part implements the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act, which is intended to provide the public with loan data that can be used:
</P>
<P>(i) To help determine whether financial institutions are serving the housing needs of their communities;
</P>
<P>(ii) To assist public officials in distributing public-sector investment so as to attract private investment to areas where it is needed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To assist in identifying possible discriminatory lending patterns and enforcing antidiscrimination statutes.
</P>
<P>(2) Neither the act nor this part is intended to encourage unsound lending practices or the allocation of credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to financial institutions as defined in § 1003.2(g). This part requires a financial institution to submit data to the appropriate Federal agency for the financial institution as defined in § 1003.5(a)(4), and to disclose certain data to the public, about covered loans for which the financial institution receives applications, or that it originates or purchases, and that are secured by a dwelling located in a State of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78468, Dec. 19, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 66308, Oct. 28, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) (12 U.S.C. 2801 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Application means an oral or written request for a covered loan that is made in accordance with procedures used by a financial institution for the type of credit requested.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preapproval programs.</I> A request for preapproval for a home purchase loan, other than a home purchase loan that will be an open-end line of credit, a reverse mortgage, or secured by a multifamily dwelling, is an application under this section if the request is reviewed under a program in which the financial institution, after a comprehensive analysis of the creditworthiness of the applicant, issues a written commitment to the applicant valid for a designated period of time to extend a home purchase loan up to a specified amount. The written commitment may not be subject to conditions other than:
</P>
<P>(i) Conditions that require the identification of a suitable property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditions that require that no material change has occurred in the applicant's financial condition or creditworthiness prior to closing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Limited conditions that are not related to the financial condition or creditworthiness of the applicant that the financial institution ordinarily attaches to a traditional home mortgage application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Branch office</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any office of a bank, savings association, or credit union that is considered a branch by the Federal or State supervisory agency applicable to that institution, excluding automated teller machines and other free-standing electronic terminals; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any office of a for-profit mortgage-lending institution (other than a bank, savings association, or credit union) that takes applications from the public for covered loans. A for-profit mortgage-lending institution (other than a bank, savings association, or credit union) is also deemed to have a branch office in an MSA or in an MD, if, in the preceding calendar year, it received applications for, originated, or purchased five or more covered loans related to property located in that MSA or MD, respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closed-end mortgage loan</I> means an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a dwelling and that is not an open-end line of credit under paragraph (o) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Covered loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is not an excluded transaction under § 1003.3(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure, whether or not attached to real property. The term includes but is not limited to a detached home, an individual condominium or cooperative unit, a manufactured home or other factory-built home, or a multifamily residential structure or community.






</P>
<P>(g) <I>Financial institution</I> means a depository financial institution or a nondepository financial institution, where:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Depository financial institution</I> means a bank, savings association, or credit union that:
</P>
<P>(i) On the preceding December 31 had assets in excess of the asset threshold established and published annually by the Bureau for coverage by the Act, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each twelve month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million;
</P>
<P>(ii) On the preceding December 31, had a home or branch office in an MSA;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the preceding calendar year, originated at least one home purchase loan or refinancing of a home purchase loan, secured by a first lien on a one- to four-unit dwelling;
</P>
<P>(iv) Meets one or more of the following two criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution is federally insured or regulated; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any loan referred to in paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section was insured, guaranteed, or supplemented by a Federal agency, or was intended by the institution for sale to the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; and
</P>
<P>(v) Meets at least one of the following criteria:


</P>
<P>(A) In each of the two preceding calendar years, originated at least 25 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13); or








</P>
<P>(B) In each of the two preceding calendar years, originated at least 200 open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10); and




</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nondepository financial institution</I> means a for-profit mortgage-lending institution (other than a bank, savings association, or credit union) that:
</P>
<P>(i) On the preceding December 31, had a home or branch office in an MSA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Meets at least one of the following criteria:


</P>
<P>(A) In each of the two preceding calendar years, originated at least 25 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13); or






</P>
<P>(B) In each of the two preceding calendar years, originated at least 200 open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10).






</P>
<P>(h) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Home improvement loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is for the purpose, in whole or in part, of repairing, rehabilitating, remodeling, or improving a dwelling or the real property on which the dwelling is located.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Home purchase loan</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is for the purpose, in whole or in part, of purchasing a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Loan/Application Register</I> means both the record of information required to be collected pursuant to § 1003.4 and the record submitted annually or quarterly, as applicable, pursuant to § 1003.5(a).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Manufactured home</I> means any residential structure as defined under regulations of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development establishing manufactured home construction and safety standards (24 CFR 3280.2). For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(5), the term also includes a multifamily dwelling that is a manufactured home community.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Metropolitan Statistical Area</I> (<I>MSA)</I> and <I>Metropolitan Division</I> (<I>MD).</I> (1) <I>Metropolitan Statistical Area</I> or <I>MSA</I> means a Metropolitan Statistical Area as defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Metropolitan Division</I> (<I>MD)</I> means a Metropolitan Division of an MSA, as defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Multifamily dwelling</I> means a dwelling, regardless of construction method, that contains five or more individual dwelling units.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Open-end line of credit</I> means an extension of credit that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is secured by a lien on a dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is an open-end credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(17), or is extended to a consumer, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(11).
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Refinancing</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit in which a new, dwelling-secured debt obligation satisfies and replaces an existing, dwelling-secured debt obligation by the same borrower.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Reverse mortgage</I> means a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is a reverse mortgage transaction as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.33(a), but without regard to whether the security interest is created in a principal dwelling.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66308, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43132, Sept. 13, 2017; 84 FR 57980, Oct. 29, 2019; 85 FR 28404, 28406, May 12, 2020; 87 FR 77981, Dec. 21, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.3   Exempt institutions and excluded and partially exempt transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption based on state law.</I> (1) A state-chartered or state-licensed financial institution is exempt from the requirements of this part if the Bureau determines that the institution is subject to a state disclosure law that contains requirements substantially similar to those imposed by this part and that contains adequate provisions for enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) Any state, state-chartered or state-licensed financial institution, or association of such institutions, may apply to the Bureau for an exemption under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) An institution that is exempt under paragraph (a) of this section shall use the disclosure form required by its state law and shall submit the data required by that law to its state supervisory agency for purposes of aggregation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loss of exemption.</I> An institution losing a state-law exemption under paragraph (a) of this section shall comply with this part beginning with the calendar year following the year for which it last reported loan data under the state disclosure law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Excluded transactions.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) A closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit originated or purchased by a financial institution acting in a fiduciary capacity;
</P>
<P>(2) A closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit secured by a lien on unimproved land;
</P>
<P>(3) Temporary financing;
</P>
<P>(4) The purchase of an interest in a pool of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(5) The purchase solely of the right to service closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit;
</P>
<P>(6) The purchase of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit as part of a merger or acquisition, or as part of the acquisition of all of the assets and liabilities of a branch office as defined in § 1003.2(c);
</P>
<P>(7) A closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit, or an application for a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit, for which the total dollar amount is less than $500;
</P>
<P>(8) The purchase of a partial interest in a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit;
</P>
<P>(9) A closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit used primarily for agricultural purposes;
</P>
<P>(10) A closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit that is or will be made primarily for a business or commercial purpose, unless the closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit is a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i), a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j), or a refinancing under § 1003.2(p);




</P>
<P>(11) A closed-end mortgage loan, if the financial institution originated fewer than 25 closed-end mortgage loans in either of the two preceding calendar years; a financial institution may collect, record, report, and disclose information, as described in §§ 1003.4 and 1003.5, for such an excluded closed-end mortgage loan as though it were a covered loan, provided that the financial institution complies with such requirements for all applications for closed-end mortgage loans that it receives, closed-end mortgage loans that it originates, and closed-end mortgage loans that it purchases that otherwise would have been covered loans during the calendar year during which final action is taken on the excluded closed-end mortgage loan;






</P>
<P>(12) An open-end line of credit, if the financial institution originated fewer than 200 open-end lines of credit in either of the two preceding calendar years; a financial institution may collect, record, report, and disclose information, as described in §§ 1003.4 and 1003.5, for such an excluded open-end line of credit as though it were a covered loan, provided that the financial institution complies with such requirements for all applications for open-end lines of credit that it receives, open-end lines of credit that it originates, and open-end lines of credit that it purchases that otherwise would have been covered loans during the calendar year during which final action is taken on the excluded open-end line of credit; or






</P>
<P>(13) A transaction that provided or, in the case of an application, proposed to provide new funds to the applicant or borrower in advance of being consolidated in a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255; the transaction is excluded only if final action on the consolidation was taken in the same calendar year as final action on the new funds transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Partially exempt transactions.</I> (1) For purposes of this paragraph (d), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Insured credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Optional data</I> means the data identified in § 1003.4(a)(1)(i), (a)(9)(i), and (a)(12), (15) through (30), and (32) through (38).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Partially exempt transaction</I> means a covered loan or application that is partially exempt under paragraph (d)(2) or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, an insured depository institution or insured credit union that, in each of the two preceding calendar years, originated fewer than 500 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) through (10) or paragraph (c)(13) of this section is not required to collect, record, or report optional data as defined in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section for applications for closed-end mortgage loans that it receives, closed-end mortgage loans that it originates, and closed-end mortgage loans that it purchases.
</P>
<P>(3) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(6) of this section, an insured depository institution or insured credit union that, in each of the two preceding calendar years, originated fewer than 500 open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from this part pursuant to paragraphs (c)(1) through (10) of this section is not required to collect, record, or report optional data as defined in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section for applications for open-end lines of credit that it receives, open-end lines of credit that it originates, and open-end lines of credit that it purchases.
</P>
<P>(4) A financial institution eligible for a partial exemption under paragraph (d)(2) or (3) of this section may collect, record, and report optional data as defined in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section for a partially exempt transaction as though the institution were required to do so, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) If the institution reports the street address, city name, or Zip Code for the property securing a covered loan, or in the case of an application, proposed to secure a covered loan pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(9)(i), it reports all data that would be required by § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) if the transaction were not partially exempt;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the institution reports any data for the transaction pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(15), (16), (17), (27), (33), or (35), it reports all data that would be required by § 1003.4(a)(15), (16), (17), (27), (33), or (35), respectively, if the transaction were not partially exempt.
</P>
<P>(5) If, pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) or (3) of this section, a financial institution does not report a universal loan identifier (ULI) pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(1)(i) for an application for a covered loan that it receives, a covered loan that it originates, or a covered loan that it purchases, the financial institution shall assign and report a non-universal loan identifier (NULI). The NULI must be composed of up to 22 characters to identify the covered loan or application, which:
</P>
<P>(i) May be letters, numerals, or a combination of letters and numerals;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must be unique within the annual loan/application register in which the covered loan or application is included; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Must not include any information that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to an insured depository institution that, as of the preceding December 31, had received a rating of “needs to improve record of meeting community credit needs” during each of its two most recent examinations or a rating of “substantial noncompliance in meeting community credit needs” on its most recent examination under section 807(b)(2) of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78468, Dec. 19, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 66309, Oct. 28, 2015; 82 FR 43132, Sept. 13, 2017; 84 FR 57980, Oct. 29, 2019; 85 FR 28404, 28406, May 12, 2020; 87 FR 77981, Dec. 21, 2022]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.4   Compilation of reportable data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data format and itemization.</I> A financial institution shall collect data regarding applications for covered loans that it receives, covered loans that it originates, and covered loans that it purchases for each calendar year. A financial institution shall collect data regarding requests under a preapproval program, as defined in § 1003.2(b)(2), only if the preapproval request is denied, is approved by the financial institution but not accepted by the applicant, or results in the origination of a home purchase loan. Except as provided in § 1003.3(d), the data collected shall include the following items:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) A universal loan identifier (ULI) or, for a partially exempt transaction under § 1003.3(d), either a ULI or a non-universal loan identifier (NULI) as described in § 1003.3(d)(5) for the covered loan or application that can be used to identify and retrieve the covered loan or application file. Except for a purchased covered loan or application described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i)(D) and (E) of this section or a partially exempt transaction for which a NULI is assigned and reported under § 1003.3(d), the financial institution shall assign and report a ULI that:
</P>
<P>(A) Begins with the financial institution's Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) that is issued by:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (GLEIF) (or any successor of the GLEIF) after the GLEIF assumes operational governance of the global LEI system.
</P>
<P>(B) Follows the LEI with up to 23 additional characters to identify the covered loan or application, which:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) May be letters, numerals, or a combination of letters and numerals;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Must be unique within the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Must not include any information that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower; and
</P>
<P>(C) Ends with a two-character check digit, as prescribed in appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P>(D) For a purchased covered loan that any financial institution has previously assigned or reported with a ULI under this part, the financial institution that purchases the covered loan must use the ULI that was assigned or previously reported for the covered loan.
</P>
<P>(E) For an application that was previously reported with a ULI under this part and that results in an origination during the same calendar year that is reported in a subsequent reporting period pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), the financial institution may report the same ULI for the origination that was previously reported for the application.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except for purchased covered loans, the date the application was received or the date shown on the application form.
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the covered loan is, or in the case of an application would have been, insured by the Federal Housing Administration, guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs, or guaranteed by the Rural Housing Service or the Farm Service Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the covered loan is, or the application is for, a home purchase loan, a home improvement loan, a refinancing, a cash-out refinancing, or for a purpose other than home purchase, home improvement, refinancing, or cash-out refinancing.
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the application or covered loan involved a request for a preapproval of a home purchase loan under a preapproval program.
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the construction method for the dwelling related to the property identified in paragraph (a)(9) of this section is site-built or a manufactured home.
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the property identified in paragraph (a)(9) of this section is or will be used by the applicant or borrower as a principal residence, as a second residence, or as an investment property.
</P>
<P>(7) The amount of the covered loan or the amount applied for, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) For a closed-end mortgage loan, other than a purchased loan, an assumption, or a reverse mortgage, the amount to be repaid as disclosed on the legal obligation. For a purchased closed-end mortgage loan or an assumption of a closed-end mortgage loan, the unpaid principal balance at the time of purchase or assumption.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an open-end line of credit, other than a reverse mortgage open-end line of credit, the amount of credit available to the borrower under the terms of the plan.
</P>
<P>(iii) For a reverse mortgage, the initial principal limit, as determined pursuant to section 255 of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1715z-20) and implementing regulations and mortgagee letters issued by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development.
</P>
<P>(8) The following information about the financial institution's action:
</P>
<P>(i) The action taken by the financial institution, recorded as one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether a covered loan was originated or purchased;
</P>
<P>(B) Whether an application for a covered loan that did not result in the origination of a covered loan was approved but not accepted, denied, withdrawn by the applicant, or closed for incompleteness; and
</P>
<P>(C) Whether a preapproval request that did not result in the origination of a home purchase loan was denied or approved but not accepted.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date of the action taken by the financial institution.
</P>
<P>(9) The following information about the location of the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan:
</P>
<P>(i) The property address; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the property is located in an MSA or MD in which the financial institution has a home or branch office, or if the institution is subject to paragraph (e) of this section, the location of the property by:
</P>
<P>(A) State;
</P>
<P>(B) County; and
</P>
<P>(C) Census tract if the property is located in a county with a population of more than 30,000 according to the most recent decennial census conducted by the U.S. Census Bureau.
</P>
<P>(10) The following information about the applicant or borrower:
</P>
<P>(i) Ethnicity, race, and sex, and whether this information was collected on the basis of visual observation or surname;
</P>
<P>(ii) Age; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Except for covered loans or applications for which the credit decision did not consider or would not have considered income, the gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision or, if a credit decision was not made, the gross annual income relied on in processing the application.
</P>
<P>(11) The type of entity purchasing a covered loan that the financial institution originates or purchases and then sells within the same calendar year.
</P>
<P>(12)(i) For covered loans and applications that are approved but not accepted, and that are subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, other than assumptions, purchased covered loans, and reverse mortgages, the difference between the covered loan's annual percentage rate and the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Average prime offer rate” means an annual percentage rate that is derived from average interest rates and other loan pricing terms currently offered to consumers by a set of creditors for mortgage loans that have low-risk pricing characteristics. The Bureau publishes tables of average prime offer rates by transaction type at least weekly and also publishes the methodology it uses to derive these rates.
</P>
<P>(13) For covered loans subject to the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act of 1994, as implemented in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32, whether the covered loan is a high-cost mortgage under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32(a).
</P>
<P>(14) The lien status (first or subordinate lien) of the property identified under paragraph (a)(9) of this section.
</P>
<P>(15)(i) Except for purchased covered loans, the credit score or scores relied on in making the credit decision and the name and version of the scoring model used to generate each credit score.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(15), “credit score” has the meaning set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1681g(f)(2)(A).
</P>
<P>(16) The principal reason or reasons the financial institution denied the application, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(17) For covered loans subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.43(c), the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) If a disclosure is provided for the covered loan pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), the amount of total loan costs, as disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(f)(4); or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the covered loan is not subject to the disclosure requirements in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), and is not a purchased covered loan, the total points and fees charged in connection with the covered loan, expressed in dollars and calculated pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(18) For covered loans subject to the disclosure requirements in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), the total of all itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing, as disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(19) For covered loans subject to the disclosure requirements in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), the points paid to the creditor to reduce the interest rate, expressed in dollars, as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.37(f)(1)(i), and disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(20) For covered loans subject to the disclosure requirements in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), the amount of lender credits, as disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(h)(3).
</P>
<P>(21) The interest rate applicable to the approved application, or to the covered loan at closing or account opening.
</P>
<P>(22) For covered loans or applications subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, other than reverse mortgages or purchased covered loans, the term in months of any prepayment penalty, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32(b)(6)(i) or (ii), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(23) Except for purchased covered loans, the ratio of the applicant's or borrower's total monthly debt to the total monthly income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(24) Except for purchased covered loans, the ratio of the total amount of debt secured by the property to the value of the property relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(25) The scheduled number of months after which the legal obligation will mature or terminate or would have matured or terminated.
</P>
<P>(26) The number of months, or proposed number of months in the case of an application, until the first date the interest rate may change after closing or account opening.
</P>
<P>(27) Whether the contractual terms include or would have included any of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A balloon payment as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(5)(i);
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest-only payments as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(7)(iv);
</P>
<P>(iii) A contractual term that would cause the covered loan to be a negative amortization loan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(7)(v); or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other contractual term that would allow for payments other than fully amortizing payments, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.43(b)(2), during the loan term, other than the contractual terms described in this paragraph (a)(27)(i), (ii), and (iii).
</P>
<P>(28) The value of the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>(29) If the dwelling related to the property identified in paragraph (a)(9) of this section is a manufactured home and not a multifamily dwelling, whether the covered loan is, or in the case of an application would have been, secured by a manufactured home and land, or by a manufactured home and not land.
</P>
<P>(30) If the dwelling related to the property identified in paragraph (a)(9) of this section is a manufactured home and not a multifamily dwelling, whether the applicant or borrower:
</P>
<P>(i) Owns the land on which it is or will be located or, in the case of an application, did or would have owned the land on which it would have been located, through a direct or indirect ownership interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Leases or, in the case of an application, leases or would have leased the land through a paid or unpaid leasehold.
</P>
<P>(31) The number of individual dwelling units related to the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan.
</P>
<P>(32) If the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan includes a multifamily dwelling, the number of individual dwelling units related to the property that are income-restricted pursuant to Federal, State, or local affordable housing programs.
</P>
<P>(33) Except for purchased covered loans, the following information about the application channel of the covered loan or application:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the applicant or borrower submitted the application for the covered loan directly to the financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the obligation arising from the covered loan was, or in the case of an application, would have been initially payable to the financial institution.
</P>
<P>(34) For a covered loan or application, the unique identifier assigned by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry for the mortgage loan originator, as defined in Regulation G, 12 CFR 1007.102, or Regulation H, 12 CFR 1008.23, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(35)(i) Except for purchased covered loans, the name of the automated underwriting system used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the result generated by that automated underwriting system.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(35), an “automated underwriting system” means an electronic tool developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit that provides a result regarding the credit risk of the applicant and whether the covered loan is eligible to be originated, purchased, insured, or guaranteed by that securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor. A person is a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, respectively, if it has ever securitized, provided Federal government insurance, or provided a Federal government guarantee for a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit.
</P>
<P>(36) Whether the covered loan is, or the application is for, a reverse mortgage.
</P>
<P>(37) Whether the covered loan is, or the application is for, an open-end line of credit.
</P>
<P>(38) Whether the covered loan is, or the application is for a covered loan that will be, made primarily for a business or commercial purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collection of data on ethnicity, race, sex, age, and income.</I> (1) A financial institution shall collect data about the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant or borrower as prescribed in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Ethnicity, race, sex, age, and income data may but need not be collected for covered loans purchased by a financial institution.
</P>
<P>(c)-(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data reporting for banks and savings associations that are required to report data on small business, small farm, and community development lending under CRA.</I> Banks and savings associations that are required to report data on small business, small farm, and community development lending under regulations that implement the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>) shall also collect the information required by paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section for property located outside MSAs and MDs in which the institution has a home or branch office, or outside any MSA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Quarterly recording of data.</I> A financial institution shall record the data collected pursuant to this section on a loan/application register within 30 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter in which final action is taken (such as origination or purchase of a covered loan, sale of a covered loan in the same calendar year it is originated or purchased, or denial or withdrawal of an application).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66310, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43132, Sept. 13, 2017; 84 FR 57981, Oct. 29, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.5   Disclosure and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting to agency</I>—(1)(i) <I>Annual reporting.</I> By March 1 following the calendar year for which data are collected and recorded as required by § 1003.4, a financial institution shall submit its annual loan/application register in electronic format to the appropriate Federal agency at the address identified by such agency. An authorized representative of the financial institution with knowledge of the data submitted shall certify to the accuracy and completeness of data submitted pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i). The financial institution shall retain a copy of its annual loan/application register submitted pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(i) for its records for at least three years.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Quarterly reporting.</I> Within 60 calendar days after the end of each calendar quarter except the fourth quarter, a financial institution that reported for the preceding calendar year at least 60,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, shall submit to the appropriate Federal agency its loan/application register containing all data required to be recorded for that quarter pursuant to § 1003.4(f). The financial institution shall submit its quarterly loan/application register pursuant to this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) in electronic format at the address identified by the appropriate Federal agency for the institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) When the last day for submission of data prescribed under this paragraph (a)(1) falls on a Saturday or Sunday, a submission shall be considered timely if it is submitted on the next succeeding Monday.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial institution that is a subsidiary of a bank or savings association shall complete a separate loan/application register. The subsidiary shall submit the loan/application register, directly or through its parent, to the appropriate Federal agency for the subsidiary's parent at the address identified by the agency.
</P>
<P>(3) A financial institution shall provide with its submission:
</P>
<P>(i) Its name;
</P>
<P>(ii) The calendar year the data submission covers pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section or calendar quarter and year the data submission covers pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and contact information of a person who may be contacted with questions about the institution's submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) Its appropriate Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(v) The total number of entries contained in the submission;
</P>
<P>(vi) Its Federal Taxpayer Identification number; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Its Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) as described in § 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “appropriate Federal agency” means the appropriate agency for the financial institution as determined pursuant to section 304(h)(2) of the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2803(h)(2)) or, with respect to a financial institution subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under section 1025(a) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5515(a)), the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(5) Procedures for the submission of data pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section are available at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure statement.</I> (1) The Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) will make available a disclosure statement based on the data each financial institution submits for the preceding calendar year pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No later than three business days after receiving notice from the FFIEC that a financial institution's disclosure statement is available, the financial institution shall make available to the public upon request at its home office, and each branch office physically located in each MSA and each MD, a written notice that clearly conveys that the institution's disclosure statement may be obtained on the Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Modified loan/application register.</I> (1) A financial institution shall make available to the public upon request at its home office, and each branch office physically located in each MSA and each MD, a written notice that clearly conveys that the institution's loan/application register, as modified by the Bureau to protect applicant and borrower privacy, may be obtained on the Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial institution shall make available the notice required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section following the calendar year for which the data are collected.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Availability of written notices.</I> (1) A financial institution shall make the notice required by paragraph (c) of this section available to the public for a period of three years and the notice required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section available to the public for a period of five years. An institution shall make these notices available during the hours the office is normally open to the public for business.
</P>
<P>(2) A financial institution may make available to the public, at its discretion and in addition to the written notices required by paragraphs (b)(2) or (c)(1) of this section, as applicable, its disclosure statement or its loan/application register, as modified by the Bureau to protect applicant and borrower privacy. A financial institution may impose a reasonable fee for any cost incurred in providing or reproducing these data.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Posted notice of availability of data.</I> A financial institution shall post a general notice about the availability of its HMDA data in the lobby of its home office and of each branch office physically located in each MSA and each MD. This notice must clearly convey that the institution's HMDA data is available on the Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Aggregated data.</I> Using data submitted by financial institutions pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, the FFIEC will make available aggregate data for each MSA and MD, showing lending patterns by property location, age of housing stock, and income level, sex, ethnicity, and race.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66312, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 80 FR 66313, Oct. 28, 2015; 82 FR 43145, Sept. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1003.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1003.6   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> A violation of the Act or this part is subject to administrative sanctions as provided in section 305 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 2804), including the imposition of civil money penalties, where applicable. Compliance is enforced by the agencies listed in section 305 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bona fide errors.</I> (1) An error in compiling or recording data for a covered loan or application is not a violation of the Act or this part if the error was unintentional and occurred despite the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such an error.
</P>
<P>(2) An incorrect entry for a census tract number is deemed a bona fide error, and is not a violation of the Act or this part, provided that the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such an error.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quarterly recording and reporting.</I> (1) If a financial institution makes a good-faith effort to record all data required to be recorded pursuant to § 1003.4(f) fully and accurately within 30 calendar days after the end of each calendar quarter, and some data are nevertheless inaccurate or incomplete, the inaccuracy or omission is not a violation of the Act or this part provided that the institution corrects or completes the data prior to submitting its annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) If a financial institution required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) makes a good-faith effort to report all data required to be reported pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) fully and accurately within 60 calendar days after the end of each calendar quarter, and some data are nevertheless inaccurate or incomplete, the inaccuracy or omission is not a violation of the Act or this part provided that the institution corrects or completes the data prior to submitting its annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66313, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43145, 43146, Sept. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.7.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1003 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.7.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1003—Form and Instructions for Data Collection on Ethnicity, Race, and Sex
</HEAD>
<P>You may list questions regarding the ethnicity, race, and sex of the applicant on your loan application form, or on a separate form that refers to the application. (See the sample data collection form below for model language.)
</P>
<P>1. You must ask the applicant for this information (but you cannot require the applicant to provide it) whether the application is taken in person, by mail or telephone, or on the internet. For applications taken by telephone, you must state the information in the collection form orally, except for that information which pertains uniquely to applications taken in writing, for example, the italicized language in the sample data collection form.
</P>
<P>2. Inform the applicant that Federal law requires this information to be collected in order to protect consumers and to monitor compliance with Federal statutes that prohibit discrimination against applicants on these bases. Inform the applicant that if the information is not provided where the application is taken in person, you are required to note the information on the basis of visual observation or surname.
</P>
<P>3. If you accept an application through electronic media with a video component, you must treat the application as taken in person. If you accept an application through electronic media without a video component (for example, facsimile), you must treat the application as accepted by mail.
</P>
<P>4. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(10)(i), if a covered loan or application includes a guarantor, you do not report the guarantor's ethnicity, race, and sex.
</P>
<P>5. If there are no co-applicants, you must report that there is no co-applicant. If there is more than one co-applicant, you must provide the ethnicity, race, and sex only for the first co-applicant listed on the collection form. A co-applicant may provide an absent co-applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex on behalf of the absent co-applicant. If the information is not provided for an absent co-applicant, you must report “information not provided by applicant in mail, internet, or telephone application” for the absent co-applicant.
</P>
<P>6. When you purchase a covered loan and you choose not to report the applicant's or co-applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex, you must report that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<P>7. You must report that the requirement to report the applicant's or co-applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex is not applicable when the applicant or co-applicant is not a natural person (for example, a corporation, partnership, or trust). For example, for a transaction involving a trust, you must report that the requirement to report the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex is not applicable if the trust is the applicant. On the other hand, if the applicant is a natural person, and is the beneficiary of a trust, you must report the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex.
</P>
<P>8. You must report the ethnicity, race, and sex of an applicant as provided by the applicant. For example, if an applicant selects the “Asian” box the institution reports “Asian” for the race of the applicant. Only an applicant may self-identify as being of a particular Hispanic or Latino subcategory (Mexican, Puerto Rican, Cuban, Other Hispanic or Latino) or of a particular Asian subcategory (Asian Indian, Chinese, Filipino, Japanese, Korean, Vietnamese, Other Asian) or of a particular Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander subcategory (Native Hawaiian, Guamanian or Chamorro, Samoan, Other Pacific Islander) or of a particular American Indian or Alaska Native enrolled or principal tribe. An applicant may select an ethnicity or race subcategory even if the applicant does not select an aggregate ethnicity or aggregate race category. For example, if an applicant selects only the “Mexican” box, the institution reports “Mexican” for the ethnicity of the applicant but does not also report “Hispanic or Latino.”
</P>
<P>9. You must offer the applicant the option of selecting more than one ethnicity or race. If an applicant selects more than one ethnicity or race, you must report each selected designation, subject to the limits described below.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Ethnicity—Aggregate categories and subcategories.</I> There are two aggregate ethnicity categories: Hispanic or Latino; and Not Hispanic or Latino. The Hispanic or Latino category has four subcategories: Mexican; Puerto Rican; Cuban; and Other Hispanic or Latino. You must report every aggregate ethnicity category selected by the applicant. If the applicant also selects one or more ethnicity subcategories, you must report each ethnicity subcategory selected by the applicant, except that you must not report more than a total of five aggregate ethnicity categories and ethnicity subcategories combined. For example, if the applicant selects both aggregate ethnicity categories and also selects all four ethnicity subcategories, you must report Hispanic or Latino, Not Hispanic or Latino, and any three, at your option, of the four ethnicity subcategories selected by the applicant. To determine how to report the Other Hispanic or Latino ethnicity subcategory for purposes of the five-ethnicity maximum, see paragraph 9.ii below.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Ethnicity—Other subcategories.</I> An applicant may select the Other Hispanic or Latino ethnicity subcategory, an applicant may provide a particular Hispanic or Latino ethnicity not listed in the standard subcategories, or an applicant may do both. If the applicant provides only a particular Hispanic or Latino ethnicity in the space provided, you are permitted, but are not required, to report Other Hispanic or Latino in addition to reporting the particular Hispanic or Latino ethnicity provided by the applicant. For example, if an applicant provides only “Dominican,” you should report “Dominican.” You are permitted, but not required, to report Other Hispanic or Latino as well. If an applicant selects the Other Hispanic or Latino ethnicity subcategory and also provides a particular Hispanic or Latino ethnicity not listed in the standard subcategories, you must report both the selection of Other Hispanic or Latino and the additional information provided by the applicant, subject to the five-ethnicity maximum. For purposes of the maximum of five reportable ethnicity categories and ethnicity subcategories combined, as set forth in paragraph 9.i, the Other Hispanic or Latino subcategory and additional information provided by the applicant together constitute only one selection. For example, if the applicant selects Other Hispanic or Latino and enters “Dominican” in the space provided, Other Hispanic or Latino and “Dominican” are considered one selection. Similarly, if the applicant only enters “Dominican” in the space provided and you report both “Dominican” and Other Hispanic or Latino as permitted by this paragraph 9.ii, the reported items together are considered one selection.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Race—Aggregate categories and subcategories.</I> There are five aggregate race categories: American Indian or Alaska Native; Asian; Black or African American; Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander; and White. The Asian and the Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander aggregate categories have seven and four subcategories, respectively. The Asian race subcategories are: Asian Indian; Chinese; Filipino; Japanese; Korean; Vietnamese; and Other Asian. The Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander race subcategories are: Native Hawaiian; Guamanian or Chamorro; Samoan; and Other Pacific Islander. You must report every aggregate race category selected by the applicant. If the applicant also selects one or more race subcategories, you must report each race subcategory selected by the applicant, except that you must not report more than a total of five aggregate race categories and race subcategories combined. For example, if the applicant selects all five aggregate race categories and also selects some race subcategories, you report only the five aggregate race categories. On the other hand, if the applicant selects the White, Asian, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander aggregate race categories, and the applicant also selects the Korean, Vietnamese, and Samoan race subcategories, you must report White, Asian, Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, and any two, at your option, of the three race subcategories selected by the applicant. In this example, you must report White, Asian, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, and in addition you must report (at your option) either Korean and Vietnamese, Korean and Samoan, or Vietnamese and Samoan. To determine how to report an Other race subcategory and the American Indian or Alaska Native category for purposes of the five-race maximum, see paragraphs 9.iv and 9.v below.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Race—Other subcategories.</I> An applicant may select the Other Asian race subcategory or the Other Pacific Islander race subcategory, an applicant may provide a particular Asian race or Pacific Islander race not listed in the standard subcategories, or an applicant may do both. If the applicant provides only a particular Asian race or Pacific Islander race in the space provided, you are permitted, but are not required, to report Other Asian or Other Pacific Islander, as applicable, in addition to reporting the particular Asian race or Pacific Islander race provided by the applicant. For example, if an applicant provides only “Hmong,” you should report “Hmong.” You are permitted, but not required, to report Other Asian as well. If an applicant selects the Other Asian race or the Other Pacific Islander race subcategory and provides a particular Asian race or Pacific Islander race not listed in the standard subcategories, you must report both the selection of Other Asian or Other Pacific Islander, as applicable, and the additional information provided by the applicant, subject to the five-race maximum. For purposes of the maximum of five reportable race categories and race subcategories combined, as set forth in paragraph 9.iii, the Other race subcategory and additional information provided by the applicant together constitute only one selection. Thus, using the same facts in the example offered in paragraph 9.iii above, if the applicant also selects Other Asian and enters “Thai” in the space provided, Other Asian and Thai are considered one selection. Similarly, if the applicant enters only “Thai” in the space provided and you report both “Thai” and Other Asian as permitted by this paragraph 9.iv, the reported items together are considered one selection. In the same example, you must report any two (at your option) of the four race subcategories selected by the applicant, Korean, Vietnamese, Other Asian-Thai, and Samoan, in addition to the three aggregate race categories selected by the applicant.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Race—American Indian or Alaska Native category.</I> An applicant may select the American Indian or Alaska Native race category, an applicant may provide a particular American Indian or Alaska Native enrolled or principal tribe, or an applicant may do both. If the applicant provides only a particular American Indian or Alaska Native enrolled or principal tribe in the space provided, you are permitted, but are not required, to report American Indian or Alaska Native in addition to reporting the particular American Indian or Alaska Native enrolled or principal tribe provided by the applicant. For example, if an applicant provides only “Navajo,” you should report “Navajo.” You are permitted, but not required, to report American Indian or Alaska Native as well. If an applicant selects the American Indian or Alaska Native race category and also provides a particular American Indian or Alaska Native enrolled or principal tribe, you must report both the selection of American Indian or Alaska Native and the additional information provided by the applicant. For purposes of the maximum of five reportable race categories and race subcategories combined, as set forth in paragraph 9.iii, the American Indian or Alaska Native category and additional information provided by the applicant together constitute only one selection.
</P>
<P>10. If the applicant chooses not to provide the information for an application taken in person, note this fact on the collection form and then collect the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex on the basis of visual observation or surname. You must report whether the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex was collected on the basis of visual observation or surname. When you collect an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex on the basis of visual observation or surname, you must select from the following aggregate categories: Ethnicity (Hispanic or Latino; not Hispanic or Latino); race (American Indian or Alaska Native; Asian; Black or African American; Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander; White); sex (male; female).
</P>
<P>11. If the applicant declines to answer these questions by checking the “I do not wish to provide this information” box on an application that is taken by mail or on the internet, or declines to provide this information by stating orally that he or she does not wish to provide this information on an application that is taken by telephone, you must report “information not provided by applicant in mail, internet, or telephone application.”
</P>
<P>12. If the applicant begins an application by mail, internet, or telephone, and does not provide the requested information on the application but does not check or select the “I do not wish to provide this information” box on the application, and the applicant meets in person with you to complete the application, you must request the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex. If the applicant does not provide the requested information during the in-person meeting, you must collect the information on the basis of visual observation or surname. If the meeting occurs after the application process is complete, for example, at closing or account opening, you are not required to obtain the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex.
</P>
<P>13. When an applicant provides the requested information for some but not all fields, you report the information that was provided by the applicant, whether partial or complete. If an applicant provides partial or complete information on ethnicity, race, and sex and also checks the “I do not wish to provide this information” box on an application that is taken by mail or on the internet, or makes that selection when applying by telephone, you must report the information on ethnicity, race, and sex that was provided by the applicant.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er13se17.000.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66314, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43133, Sept. 13, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.7.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1003—Procedures for Generating a Check Digit and Validating a ULI
</HEAD>
<P>The check digit for the Universal Loan Identifier (ULI) pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(C) is calculated using the ISO/IEC 7064, MOD 97-10 as it appears on the International Standard ISO/IEC 7064:2003, which is published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
</P>
<P>©ISO. This material is reproduced from ISO/IEC 7064:2003 with permission of the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) on behalf of ISO. All rights reserved.
</P>
<HD1>Generating a Check Digit
</HD1>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> Starting with the leftmost character in the string that consists of the combination of the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(A) and the additional characters identifying the covered loan or application pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(B), replace each alphabetic character with numbers in accordance with Table I below to obtain all numeric values in the string.
</P>
<HD1>Table I—Alphabetic to Numeric Conversion Table
</HD1>
<P>The alphabetic characters are not case-sensitive and each letter, whether it is capitalized or in lower-case, is equal to the same value as each letter illustrates in the conversion table. For example, A and a are each equal to 10.
</P>
<FP-1>A = 10
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B = 11
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C = 12
</FP-1>
<FP-1>D = 13
</FP-1>
<FP-1>E = 14
</FP-1>
<FP-1>F = 15
</FP-1>
<FP-1>G = 16
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H = 17
</FP-1>
<FP-1>I = 18
</FP-1>
<FP-1>J = 19
</FP-1>
<FP-1>K = 20
</FP-1>
<FP-1>L = 21
</FP-1>
<FP-1>M = 22
</FP-1>
<FP-1>N = 23
</FP-1>
<FP-1>O = 24
</FP-1>
<FP-1>P = 25
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Q = 26
</FP-1>
<FP-1>R = 27
</FP-1>
<FP-1>S = 28
</FP-1>
<FP-1>T = 29
</FP-1>
<FP-1>U = 30
</FP-1>
<FP-1>V = 31
</FP-1>
<FP-1>W = 32
</FP-1>
<FP-1>X = 33
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Y = 34
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Z = 35
</FP-1>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> After converting the combined string of characters to all numeric values, append two zeros to the rightmost positions.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3:</I> Apply the mathematical function mod = (<I>n,</I>97) where <I>n =</I> the number obtained in step 2 above and 97 is the divisor.
</P>
<P>Alternatively, to calculate without using the modulus operator, divide the numbers in step 2 above by 97. Truncate the remainder to three digits and multiply it by 97. Round the result to the nearest whole number.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4:</I> Subtract the result in step 3 from 98. If the result is one digit, add a leading 0 to make it two digits.
</P>
<P><I>Step 5:</I> The two digits in the result from step 4 is the check digit. Append the resulting check digit to the rightmost position in the combined string of characters described in step 1 above to generate the ULI.
</P>
<HD1>Example
</HD1>
<P>For example, assume the LEI for a financial institution is 10Bx939c5543TqA1144M and the financial institution assigned the following string of characters to identify the covered loan: 999143X. The combined string of characters is 10Bx939c5543TqA1144M999143X.
</P>
<P><I>Step 1:</I> Starting with the leftmost character in the combined string of characters, replace each alphabetic character with numbers in accordance with Table I above to obtain all numeric values in the string. The result is 10113393912554329261011442299914333.
</P>
<P><I>Step 2:</I> Append two zeros to the rightmost positions in the combined string. The result is 1011339391255432926101144229991433300.
</P>
<P><I>Step 3:</I> Apply the mathematical function mod = (<I>n,</I>97) where <I>n =</I> the number obtained in step 2 above and 97 is the divisor. The result is 60.
</P>
<P>Alternatively, to calculate without using the modulus operator, divide the numbers in step 2 above by 97. The result is 1042617929129312294946332267952920.618556701030928. Truncate the remainder to three digits, which is .618, and multiply it by 97. The result is 59.946. Round this result to the nearest whole number, which is 60.
</P>
<P><I>Step 4:</I> Subtract the result in step 3 from 98. The result is 38.
</P>
<P><I>Step 5:</I> The two digits in the result from step 4 is the check digit. Append the check digit to the rightmost positions in the combined string of characters that consists of the LEI and the string of characters assigned by the financial institution to identify the covered loan to obtain the ULI. In this example, the ULI would be 10Bx939c5543TqA1144M999143X38.
</P>
<HD1>Validating A ULI
</HD1>
<P>To determine whether the ULI contains a transcription error using the check digit calculation, the procedures are described below.
</P>
<P>Step 1: Starting with the leftmost character in the ULI, replace each alphabetic character with numbers in accordance with Table I above to obtain all numeric values in the string.
</P>
<P>Step 2: Apply the mathematical function mod=(<I>n,</I>97) where <I>n=</I>the number obtained in step 1 above and 97 is the divisor.
</P>
<P>Step 3: If the result is 1, the ULI does not contain transcription errors.
</P>
<HD1>Example</HD1>
<P>For example, the ULI assigned to a covered loan is 10Bx939c5543TqA1144M999143X38.
</P>
<P>Step 1: Starting with the leftmost character in the ULI, replace each alphabetic character with numbers in accordance with Table I above to obtain all numeric values in the string. The result is 1011339391255432926101144229991433338.
</P>
<P>Step 2: Apply the mathematical function mod=(<I>n,</I>97) where <I>n</I> is the number obtained in step 1 above and 97 is the divisor.
</P>
<P>Step 3: The result is 1. The ULI does not contain transcription errors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66316, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43135, Sept. 13, 2017]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.4.0.1.7.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1003—Official Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Status.</I> The commentary in this supplement is the vehicle by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues formal interpretations of Regulation C (12 CFR part 1003).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1003.2—Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>2(b) Application
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consistency with Regulation B.</I> Bureau interpretations that appear in the official commentary to Regulation B (Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 12 CFR part 1002, Supplement I) are generally applicable to the definition of application under Regulation C. However, under Regulation C the definition of an application does not include prequalification requests.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prequalification.</I> A prequalification request is a request by a prospective loan applicant (other than a request for preapproval) for a preliminary determination on whether the prospective loan applicant would likely qualify for credit under an institution's standards, or for a determination on the amount of credit for which the prospective applicant would likely qualify. Some institutions evaluate prequalification requests through a procedure that is separate from the institution's normal loan application process; others use the same process. In either case, Regulation C does not require an institution to report prequalification requests on the loan/application register, even though these requests may constitute applications under Regulation B for purposes of adverse action notices.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Requests for preapproval.</I> To be a preapproval program as defined in § 1003.2(b)(2), the written commitment issued under the program must result from a comprehensive review of the creditworthiness of the applicant, including such verification of income, resources, and other matters as is typically done by the institution as part of its normal credit evaluation program. In addition to conditions involving the identification of a suitable property and verification that no material change has occurred in the applicant's financial condition or creditworthiness, the written commitment may be subject only to other conditions (unrelated to the financial condition or creditworthiness of the applicant) that the lender ordinarily attaches to a traditional home mortgage application approval. These conditions are limited to conditions such as requiring an acceptable title insurance binder or a certificate indicating clear termite inspection, and, in the case where the applicant plans to use the proceeds from the sale of the applicant's present home to purchase a new home, a settlement statement showing adequate proceeds from the sale of the present home. Regardless of its name, a program that satisfies the definition of a preapproval program in § 1003.2(b)(2) is a preapproval program for purposes of Regulation C. Conversely, a program that a financial institution describes as a “preapproval program” that does not satisfy the requirements of § 1003.2(b)(2) is not a preapproval program for purposes of Regulation C. If a financial institution does not regularly use the procedures specified in § 1003.2(b)(2), but instead considers requests for preapprovals on an ad hoc basis, the financial institution need not treat ad hoc requests as part of a preapproval program for purposes of Regulation C. A financial institution should, however, be generally consistent in following uniform procedures for considering such ad hoc requests.
</P>
<HD3>2(c) Branch Office
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit unions.</I> For purposes of Regulation C, a “branch” of a credit union is any office where member accounts are established or loans are made, whether or not the office has been approved as a branch by a Federal or State agency. (See 12 U.S.C. 1752.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Bank, savings association, or credit unions.</I> A branch office of a bank, savings association, or credit union does not include a loan-production office if the loan-production office is not considered a branch by the Federal or State supervisory authority applicable to that institution. A branch office also does not include the office of an affiliate or of a third party, such as a third-party broker.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P><I>1. General.</I> A branch office of a for-profit mortgage lending institution, other than a bank savings association or credit union, does not include the office of an affiliate or of a third party, such as a third-party broker.
</P>
<HD3>2(d) Closed-end Mortgage Loan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Dwelling-secured.</I> Section 1003.2(d) defines a closed-end mortgage loan as an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a dwelling and that is not an open-end line of credit under § 1003.2(o). Thus, for example, a loan to purchase a dwelling and secured only by a personal guarantee is not a closed-end mortgage loan because it is not dwelling-secured.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extension of credit.</I> Under § 1003.2(d), a dwelling-secured loan is not a closed-end mortgage loan unless it involves an extension of credit. For example, some transactions completed pursuant to installment sales contracts, such as some land contracts, depending on the facts and circumstances, may or may not involve extensions of credit rendering the transactions closed-end mortgage loans. In general, extension of credit under § 1003.2(d) refers to the granting of credit only pursuant to a new debt obligation. Thus, except as described in comments 2(d)-2.i and .ii, if a transaction modifies, renews, extends, or amends the terms of an existing debt obligation, but the existing debt obligation is not satisfied and replaced, the transaction is not a closed-end mortgage loan under § 1003.2(d) because there has been no new extension of credit. The phrase extension of credit thus is defined differently under Regulation C than under Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Assumptions.</I> For purposes of Regulation C, an assumption is a transaction in which an institution enters into a written agreement accepting a new borrower in place of an existing borrower as the obligor on an existing debt obligation. For purposes of Regulation C, assumptions include successor-in-interest transactions, in which an individual succeeds the prior owner as the property owner and then assumes the existing debt secured by the property. Under § 1003.2(d), assumptions are extensions of credit even if the new borrower merely assumes the existing debt obligation and no new debt obligation is created. <I>See also</I> comment 2(j)-5.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreements.</I> A transaction completed pursuant to a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement and classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255, such that the borrower owes reduced or no mortgage recording taxes, is an extension of credit under § 1003.2(d). Comments 2(i)-1, 2(j)-5, and 2(p)-2 clarify whether such transactions are home improvement loans, home purchase loans, or refinancings, respectively. Section 1003.3(c)(13) provides an exclusion from the reporting requirement for a preliminary transaction providing or, in the case of an application, proposing to provide new funds to the borrower in advance of being consolidated within the same calendar year into a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255. See comment 3(c)(13)-1 concerning how to report a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255 in this situation.
</P>
<HD3>2(f) Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The definition of a dwelling is not limited to the principal or other residence of the applicant or borrower, and thus includes vacation or second homes and investment properties.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifamily residential structures and communities.</I> A dwelling also includes a multifamily residential structure or community such as an apartment, condominium, cooperative building or housing complex, or a manufactured home community. A loan related to a manufactured home community is secured by a dwelling for purposes of § 1003.2(f) even if it is not secured by any individual manufactured homes, but only by the land that constitutes the manufactured home community including sites for manufactured homes. However, a loan related to a multifamily residential structure or community that is not a manufactured home community is not secured by a dwelling for purposes of § 1003.2(f) if it is not secured by any individual dwelling units and is, for example, instead secured only by property that only includes common areas, or is secured only by an assignment of rents or dues.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exclusions.</I> Recreational vehicles, including boats, campers, travel trailers, and park model recreational vehicles, are not considered dwellings for purposes of § 1003.2(f), regardless of whether they are used as residences. Houseboats, floating homes, and mobile homes constructed before June 15, 1976, are also excluded, regardless of whether they are used as residences. Also excluded are transitory residences such as hotels, hospitals, college dormitories, and recreational vehicle parks, and structures originally designed as dwellings but used exclusively for commercial purposes, such as homes converted to daycare facilities or professional offices.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mixed-use properties.</I> A property used for both residential and commercial purposes, such as a building containing apartment units and retail space, is a dwelling if the property's primary use is residential. An institution may use any reasonable standard to determine the primary use of the property, such as by square footage or by the income generated. An institution may select the standard to apply on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Properties with service and medical components.</I> For purposes of § 1003.2(f), a property used for both long-term housing and to provide related services, such as assisted living for senior citizens or supportive housing for persons with disabilities, is a dwelling and does not have a non-residential purpose merely because the property is used for both housing and to provide services. However, transitory residences that are used to provide such services are not dwellings. <I>See</I> comment 2(f)-3. Properties that are used to provide medical care, such as skilled nursing, rehabilitation, or long-term medical care, also are not dwellings. <I>See</I> comment 2(f)-3. If a property that is used for both long-term housing and to provide related services also is used to provide medical care, the property is a dwelling if its primary use is residential. An institution may use any reasonable standard to determine the property's primary use, such as by square footage, income generated, or number of beds or units allocated for each use. An institution may select the standard to apply on a case-by-case basis.


</P>
<HD3>2(g) Financial Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preceding calendar year and preceding December 31.</I> The definition of financial institution refers both to the preceding calendar year and the preceding December 31. These terms refer to the calendar year and the December 31 preceding the current calendar year. For example, in 2019, the preceding calendar year is 2018 and the preceding December 31 is December 31, 2018. Accordingly, in 2019, Financial Institution A satisfies the asset-size threshold described in § 1003.2(g)(1)(i) if its assets exceeded the threshold specified in comment 2(g)-2 on December 31, 2018. Likewise, in 2020, Financial Institution A does not meet the loan-volume test described in § 1003.2(g)(1)(v)(A) if it originated fewer than 25 closed-end mortgage loans during either 2018 or 2019.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustment of exemption threshold for banks, savings associations, and credit unions.</I> For data collection in 2026, the asset-size exemption threshold is $59 million. Banks, savings associations, and credit unions with assets at or below $59 million as of December 31, 2025, are exempt from collecting data for 2026.
</P>
<P><I>3. Merger or acquisition—coverage of surviving or newly formed institution.</I> After a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed institution is a financial institution under § 1003.2(g) if it, considering the combined assets, location, and lending activity of the surviving or newly formed institution and the merged or acquired institutions or acquired branches, satisfies the criteria included in § 1003.2(g). For example, A and B merge. The surviving or newly formed institution meets the loan threshold described in § 1003.2(g)(1)(v)(B) if the surviving or newly formed institution, A, and B originated a combined total of at least 200 open-end lines of credit in each of the two preceding calendar years. Likewise, the surviving or newly formed institution meets the asset-size threshold in § 1003.2(g)(1)(i) if its assets and the combined assets of A and B on December 31 of the preceding calendar year exceeded the threshold described in § 1003.2(g)(1)(i). Comment 2(g)-4 discusses a financial institution's responsibilities during the calendar year of a merger.
</P>
<P><I>4. Merger or acquisition—coverage for calendar year of merger or acquisition.</I> The scenarios described below illustrate a financial institution's responsibilities for the calendar year of a merger or acquisition. For purposes of these illustrations, a “covered institution” means a financial institution, as defined in § 1003.2(g), that is not exempt from reporting under § 1003.3(a), and “an institution that is not covered” means either an institution that is not a financial institution, as defined in § 1003.2(g), or an institution that is exempt from reporting under § 1003.3(a).
</P>
<P>i. Two institutions that are not covered merge. The surviving or newly formed institution meets all of the requirements necessary to be a covered institution. No data collection is required for the calendar year of the merger (even though the merger creates an institution that meets all of the requirements necessary to be a covered institution). When a branch office of an institution that is not covered is acquired by another institution that is not covered, and the acquisition results in a covered institution, no data collection is required for the calendar year of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>ii. A covered institution and an institution that is not covered merge. The covered institution is the surviving institution, or a new covered institution is formed. For the calendar year of the merger, data collection is required for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the merged institution that was previously covered and is optional for covered loans and applications handled in offices of the merged institution that was previously not covered. When a covered institution acquires a branch office of an institution that is not covered, data collection is optional for covered loans and applications handled by the acquired branch office for the calendar year of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>iii. A covered institution and an institution that is not covered merge. The institution that is not covered is the surviving institution, or a new institution that is not covered is formed. For the calendar year of the merger, data collection is required for covered loans and applications handled in offices of the previously covered institution that took place prior to the merger. After the merger date, data collection is optional for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the institution that was previously covered. When an institution remains not covered after acquiring a branch office of a covered institution, data collection is required for transactions of the acquired branch office that take place prior to the acquisition. Data collection by the acquired branch office is optional for transactions taking place in the remainder of the calendar year after the acquisition.
</P>
<P>iv. Two covered institutions merge. The surviving or newly formed institution is a covered institution. Data collection is required for the entire calendar year of the merger. The surviving or newly formed institution files either a consolidated submission or separate submissions for that calendar year. When a covered institution acquires a branch office of a covered institution, data collection is required for the entire calendar year of the merger. Data for the acquired branch office may be submitted by either institution.
</P>
<P><I>5. Originations.</I> Whether an institution is a financial institution depends in part on whether the institution originated at least 25 closed-end mortgage loans in each of the two preceding calendar years or at least 200 open-end lines of credit in each of the two preceding calendar years. Comments 4(a)-2 through -4 discuss whether activities with respect to a particular closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit constitute an origination for purposes of § 1003.2(g).
</P>
<P><I>6. Branches of foreign banks—treated as banks.</I> A Federal branch or a State-licensed or insured branch of a foreign bank that meets the definition of a “bank” under section 3(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(a)) is a bank for the purposes of § 1003.2(g).
</P>
<P><I>7. Branches and offices of foreign banks and other entities—treated as nondepository financial institutions.</I> A Federal agency, State-licensed agency, State-licensed uninsured branch of a foreign bank, commercial lending company owned or controlled by a foreign bank, or entity operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act, 12 U.S.C. 601 and 611 (Edge Act and agreement corporations) may not meet the definition of “bank” under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act and may thereby fail to satisfy the definition of a depository financial institution under § 1003.2(g)(1). An entity is nonetheless a financial institution if it meets the definition of nondepository financial institution under § 1003.2(g)(2).


</P>
<HD3>2(i) Home Improvement Loan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.2(i) defines a home improvement loan as a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is for the purpose, in whole or in part, of repairing, rehabilitating, remodeling, or improving a dwelling or the real property on which the dwelling is located. For example, a closed-end mortgage loan obtained to repair a dwelling by replacing a roof is a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i). A loan or line of credit is a home improvement loan even if only a part of the purpose is for repairing, rehabilitating, remodeling, or improving a dwelling. For example, an open-end line of credit obtained in part to remodel a kitchen and in part to pay college tuition is a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i). Similarly, for example, a loan that is completed pursuant to a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement and that is classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255, such that the borrower owes reduced or no mortgage recording taxes, is a home improvement loan if any of the loan's funds are for home improvement purposes. <I>See also</I> comment 2(d)-2.ii.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Improvements to real property.</I> Home improvements include improvements both to a dwelling and to the real property on which the dwelling is located (for example, installation of a swimming pool, construction of a garage, or landscaping).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Commercial and other loans.</I> A home improvement loan may include a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit originated outside an institution's residential mortgage lending division, such as a loan or line of credit to improve an apartment building originated in the commercial loan department.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mixed-use property.</I> A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit to improve a multifamily dwelling used for residential and commercial purposes (for example, a building containing apartment units and retail space), or the real property on which such a dwelling is located, is a home improvement loan if the loan's proceeds are used either to improve the entire property (for example, to replace the heating system), or if the proceeds are used primarily to improve the residential portion of the property. An institution may use any reasonable standard to determine the primary use of the loan proceeds. An institution may select the standard to apply on a case-by-case basis. See comment 3(c)(10)-3.ii for guidance on loans to improve primarily the commercial portion of a dwelling other than a multifamily dwelling.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Multiple-purpose loans.</I> A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit may be used for multiple purposes. For example, a closed-end mortgage loan that is a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i) may also be a refinancing under § 1003.2(p) if the transaction is a cash-out refinancing and the funds will be used to improve a home. Such a transaction is a multiple-purpose loan. Comment 4(a)(3)-3 provides details about how to report multiple-purpose covered loans.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Statement of borrower.</I> In determining whether a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit, or an application for a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit, is for home improvement purposes, an institution may rely on the applicant's or borrower's stated purpose(s) for the loan or line of credit at the time the application is received or the credit decision is made. An institution need not confirm that the borrower actually uses any of the funds for the stated purpose(s).
</P>
<HD3>2(j) Home Purchase Loan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple properties.</I> A home purchase loan includes a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit secured by one dwelling and used to purchase another dwelling. For example, if a person obtains a home-equity loan or a reverse mortgage secured by dwelling A to purchase dwelling B, the home-equity loan or the reverse mortgage is a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Commercial and other loans.</I> A home purchase loan may include a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit originated outside an institution's residential mortgage lending division, such as a loan or line of credit to purchase an apartment building originated in the commercial loan department.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Construction and permanent financing.</I> A home purchase loan includes both a combined construction/permanent loan or line of credit, and the separate permanent financing that replaces a construction-only loan or line of credit for the same borrower at a later time. A home purchase loan does not include a construction-only loan or line of credit that is designed to be replaced by separate permanent financing extended by any financial institution to the same borrower at a later time or that is extended to a person exclusively to construct a dwelling for sale, which are excluded from Regulation C as temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3). Comments 3(c)(3)-1 and -2 provide additional details about transactions that are excluded as temporary financing.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Second mortgages that finance the downpayments on first mortgages.</I> If an institution making a first mortgage loan to a home purchaser also makes a second mortgage loan or line of credit to the same purchaser to finance part or all of the home purchaser's downpayment, both the first mortgage loan and the second mortgage loan or line of credit are home purchase loans.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Assumptions.</I> Under § 1003.2(j), an assumption is a home purchase loan when an institution enters into a written agreement accepting a new borrower as the obligor on an existing obligation to finance the new borrower's purchase of the dwelling securing the existing obligation, if the resulting obligation is a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit. A transaction in which borrower B finances the purchase of borrower A's dwelling by assuming borrower A's existing debt obligation and that is completed pursuant to a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement and is classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255, such that the borrower owes reduced or no mortgage recording taxes, is an assumption and a home purchase loan. <I>See</I> comment 2(d)-2.ii. On the other hand, a transaction in which borrower B, a successor-in-interest, assumes borrower A's existing debt obligation only after acquiring title to borrower A's dwelling is not a home purchase loan because borrower B did not assume the debt obligation for the purpose of purchasing a dwelling. <I>See</I> § 1003.4(a)(3) and comment 4(a)(3)-4 for guidance about how to report covered loans that are not home improvement loans, home purchase loans, or refinancings.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple-purpose loans.</I> A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit may be used for multiple purposes. For example, a closed-end mortgage loan that is a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j) may also be a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i) and a refinancing under § 1003.2(p) if the transaction is a cash-out refinancing and the funds will be used to purchase and improve a dwelling. Such a transaction is a multiple-purpose loan. Comment 4(a)(3)-3 provides details about how to report multiple-purpose covered loans.
</P>
<HD3>2(l) Manufactured Home
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition of a manufactured home.</I> The definition in § 1003.2(l) refers to the Federal building code for manufactured housing established by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) (24 CFR part 3280.2). Modular or other factory-built homes that do not meet the HUD code standards are not manufactured homes for purposes of § 1003.2(l). Recreational vehicles are excluded from the HUD code standards pursuant to 24 CFR 3282.8(g) and are also excluded from the definition of dwelling for purposes of § 1003.2(f). <I>See</I> comment 2(f)-3.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification.</I> A manufactured home will generally bear a data plate affixed in a permanent manner near the main electrical panel or other readily accessible and visible location noting its compliance with the Federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards in force at the time of manufacture and providing other information about its manufacture pursuant to 24 CFR 3280.5. A manufactured home will generally also bear a HUD Certification Label pursuant to 24 CFR 3280.11.
</P>
<HD3>2(m) Metropolitan Statistical Area (MD) or Metropolitan Division (MD).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Use of terms “Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA)” and “Metropolitan Division (MD).”</I> The U.S. Office of Management and Budget (OMB) defines Metropolitan Statistical Areas (MSAs) and Metropolitan Divisions (MDs) to provide nationally consistent definitions for collecting, tabulating, and publishing Federal statistics for a set of geographic areas. For all purposes under Regulation C, if an MSA is divided by OMB into MDs, the appropriate geographic unit to be used is the MD; if an MSA is not so divided by OMB into MDs, the appropriate geographic unit to be used is the MSA.
</P>
<HD3>2(n) Multifamily Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multifamily residential structures.</I> The definition of dwelling in § 1003.2(f) includes multifamily residential structures and the corresponding commentary provides guidance on when such residential structures are included in that definition. <I>See</I> comments 2(f)-2 through -5.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Special reporting requirements for multifamily dwellings.</I> The definition of multifamily dwelling in § 1003.2(n) includes a dwelling, regardless of construction method, that contains five or more individual dwelling units. Covered loans secured by a multifamily dwelling are subject to additional reporting requirements under § 1003.4(a)(32), but are not subject to reporting requirements under § 1003.4(a)(4), (10)(iii), (23), (29), or (30).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Separate dwellings.</I> A covered loan secured by five or more separate dwellings, which are not multifamily dwellings, in more than one location is not a loan secured by a multifamily dwelling. For example, assume a landlord uses a covered loan to improve five or more dwellings, each with one individual dwelling unit, located in different parts of a town, and the loan is secured by those properties. The covered loan is not secured by a multifamily dwelling as defined by § 1003.2(n). Likewise, a covered loan secured by five or more separate dwellings that are located within a multifamily dwelling, but which is not secured by the entire multifamily dwelling (<I>e.g.,</I> an entire apartment building or housing complex), is not secured by a multifamily dwelling as defined by § 1003.2(n). For example, assume that an investor purchases 10 individual unit condominiums in a 100-unit condominium complex using a covered loan. The covered loan would not be secured by a multifamily dwelling as defined by § 1003.2(n). In both of these situations, a financial institution reporting a covered loan or application secured by these separate dwellings would not be subject to the additional reporting requirements for covered loans secured by or applications proposed to be secured by multifamily dwellings under § 1003.4(a)(32). However, a financial institution would report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(4), (a)(10)(iii), and (a)(23), (29), and (30), which is not applicable to covered loans secured by and applications proposed to be secured by multifamily dwellings. See comment 2(n)-2. In addition, in both of these situations, the financial institution reports the number of individual dwelling units securing the covered loan or proposed to secure a covered loan as required by § 1003.4(a)(31). See comment 4(a)(31)-3.
</P>
<HD3>2(o) Open-End Line of Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.2(o) defines an open-end line of credit as an extension of credit that is secured by a lien on a dwelling and that is an open-end credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(17), or is extended to a consumer, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(11). Aside from these distinctions, institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20) and its related commentary in determining whether a transaction is an open-end line of credit under § 1003.2(o). For example, assume a business-purpose transaction that is exempt from Regulation Z pursuant to § 1026.3(a)(1) but that otherwise is open-end credit under Regulation Z § 1026.2(a)(20). The business-purpose transaction is an open-end line of credit under Regulation C, provided the other requirements of § 1003.2(o) are met. Similarly, assume a transaction in which the person extending open-end credit is a financial institution under § 1003.2(g) but is not a creditor under Regulation Z, § 1026.2(a)(17). In this example, the transaction is an open-end line of credit under Regulation C, provided the other requirements of § 1003.2(o) are met.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extension of credit.</I> Extension of credit has the same meaning under § 1003.2(o) as under § 1003.2(d) and comment 2(d)-2. Thus, for example, a renewal of an open-end line of credit is not an extension of credit under § 1003.2(o) and is not covered by Regulation C unless the existing debt obligation is satisfied and replaced. Likewise, under § 1003.2(o), each draw on an open-end line of credit is not an extension of credit.
</P>
<HD3>2(p) Refinancing
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.2(p) defines a refinancing as a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit in which a new, dwelling-secured debt obligation satisfies and replaces an existing, dwelling-secured debt obligation by the same borrower. Except as described in comment 2(p)-2, whether a refinancing has occurred is determined by reference to whether, based on the parties' contract and applicable law, the original debt obligation has been satisfied or replaced by a new debt obligation. Whether the original lien is satisfied is irrelevant. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A new closed-end mortgage loan that satisfies and replaces one or more existing closed-end mortgage loans is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p).
</P>
<P>ii. A new open-end line of credit that satisfies and replaces an existing closed-end mortgage loan is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p).
</P>
<P>iii. Except as described in comment 2(p)-2, a new debt obligation that renews or modifies the terms of, but that does not satisfy and replace, an existing debt obligation, is not a refinancing under § 1003.2(p).
</P>
<P>2. <I>New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreements.</I> Where a transaction is completed pursuant to a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement and is classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section§ 255, such that the borrower owes reduced or no mortgage recording taxes, and where, but for the agreement, the transaction would have met the definition of a refinancing under § 1003.2(p), the transaction is considered a refinancing under § 1003.2(p). <I>See also</I> comment 2(d)-2.ii.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Existing debt obligation.</I> A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that satisfies and replaces one or more existing debt obligations is not a refinancing under § 1003.2(p) unless the existing debt obligation (or obligations) also was secured by a dwelling. For example, assume that a borrower has an existing $30,000 closed-end mortgage loan and obtains a new $50,000 closed-end mortgage loan that satisfies and replaces the existing $30,000 loan. The new $50,000 loan is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p). However, if the borrower obtains a new $50,000 closed-end mortgage loan that satisfies and replaces an existing $30,000 loan secured only by a personal guarantee, the new $50,000 loan is not a refinancing under § 1003.2(p). <I>See</I> § 1003.4(a)(3) and related commentary for guidance about how to report the loan purpose of such transactions, if they are not otherwise excluded under § 1003.3(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Same borrower.</I> Section 1003.2(p) provides that, even if all of the other requirements of § 1003.2(p) are met, a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit is not a refinancing unless the same borrower undertakes both the existing and the new obligation(s). Under § 1003.2(p), the “same borrower” undertakes both the existing and the new obligation(s) even if only one borrower is the same on both obligations. For example, assume that an existing closed-end mortgage loan (obligation X) is satisfied and replaced by a new closed-end mortgage loan (obligation Y). If borrowers A and B both are obligated on obligation X, and only borrower B is obligated on obligation Y, then obligation Y is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p), assuming the other requirements of § 1003.2(p) are met, because borrower B is obligated on both transactions. On the other hand, if only borrower A is obligated on obligation X, and only borrower B is obligated on obligation Y, then obligation Y is not a refinancing under § 1003.2(p). For example, assume that two spouses are divorcing. If both spouses are obligated on obligation X, but only one spouse is obligated on obligation Y, then obligation Y is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p), assuming the other requirements of § 1003.2(p) are met. On the other hand, if only spouse A is obligated on obligation X, and only spouse B is obligated on obligation Y, then obligation Y is not a refinancing under § 1003.2(p). <I>See</I> § 1003.4(a)(3) and related commentary for guidance about how to report the loan purpose of such transactions, if they are not otherwise excluded under § 1003.3(c).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Two or more debt obligations.</I> Section 1003.2(p) provides that, to be a refinancing, a new debt obligation must satisfy and replace an existing debt obligation. Where two or more new obligations replace an existing obligation, each new obligation is a refinancing if, taken together, the new obligations satisfy the existing obligation. Similarly, where one new obligation replaces two or more existing obligations, the new obligation is a refinancing if it satisfies each of the existing obligations.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple-purpose loans.</I> A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit may be used for multiple purposes. For example, a closed-end mortgage loan that is a refinancing under § 1003.2(p) may also be a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i) and be used for other purposes if the refinancing is a cash-out refinancing and the funds will be used both for home improvement and to pay college tuition. Such a transaction is a multiple-purpose loan. Comment 4(a)(3)-3 provides details about how to report multiple-purpose covered loans.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1003.3—Exempt Institutions and Excluded and Partially Exempt Transactions
</HD2>
<HD3>3(c) Excluded Transactions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Financial institution acting in a fiduciary capacity.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(1) provides that a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit originated or purchased by a financial institution acting in a fiduciary capacity is an excluded transaction. A financial institution acts in a fiduciary capacity if, for example, the financial institution acts as a trustee.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Loan or line of credit secured by a lien on unimproved land.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(2) provides that a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit secured by a lien on unimproved land is an excluded transaction. A loan or line of credit is secured by a lien on unimproved land if the loan or line of credit is secured by vacant or unimproved property, unless the institution knows, based on information that it receives from the applicant or borrower at the time the application is received or the credit decision is made, that the proceeds of that loan or credit line will be used within two years after closing or account opening to construct a dwelling on, or to purchase a dwelling to be placed on, the land. A loan or line of credit that is not excludable under § 1003.3(c)(2) nevertheless may be excluded, for example, as temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(3)
</HD3>
<P><I>1. Temporary financing.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(3) provides that closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit obtained for temporary financing are excluded transactions. A loan or line of credit is considered temporary financing and excluded under § 1003.3(c)(3) if the loan or line of credit is designed to be replaced by separate permanent financing extended by any financial institution to the same borrower at a later time. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Lender A extends credit in the form of a bridge or swing loan to finance a borrower's down payment on a home purchase. The borrower pays off the bridge or swing loan with funds from the sale of his or her existing home and obtains permanent financing for his or her new home from Lender A or from another lender. The bridge or swing loan is excluded as temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. Lender A extends credit to a borrower to finance construction of a dwelling. The borrower will obtain a new extension of credit for permanent financing for the dwelling, either from Lender A or from another lender, and either through a refinancing of the initial construction loan or a separate loan. The initial construction loan is excluded as temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3).
</P>
<P>iii. Assume the same scenario as in comment 3(c)(3)-1.ii, except that the initial construction loan is, or may be, renewed one or more times before the separate permanent financing is obtained. The initial construction loan, including any renewal thereof, is excluded as temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3).
</P>
<P>iv. Lender A extends credit to finance construction of a dwelling. The loan automatically will convert to permanent financing extended to the same borrower with Lender A once the construction phase is complete. Under § 1003.3(c)(3), the loan is not designed to be replaced by separate permanent financing extended to the same borrower, and therefore the temporary financing exclusion does not apply. <I>See also</I> comment 2(j)-3.
</P>
<P>v. Lender A originates a loan with a nine-month term to enable an investor to purchase a home, renovate it, and re-sell it before the term expires. Under § 1003.3(c)(3), the loan is not designed to be replaced by separate permanent financing extended to the same borrower, and therefore the temporary financing exclusion does not apply. Such a transaction is not temporary financing under § 1003.3(c)(3) merely because its term is short.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan or line of credit to construct a dwelling for sale.</I> A construction-only loan or line of credit is considered temporary financing and excluded under § 1003.3(c)(3) if the loan or line of credit is extended to a person exclusively to construct a dwelling for sale. See comment 3(c)(3)-1.ii through .iv for examples of the reporting requirement for construction loans that are not extended to a person exclusively to construct a dwelling for sale.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Purchase of an interest in a pool of loans.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(4) provides that the purchase of an interest in a pool of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit is an excluded transaction. The purchase of an interest in a pool of loans or lines of credit includes, for example, mortgage-participation certificates, mortgage-backed securities, or real estate mortgage investment conduits.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(6) provides that the purchase of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit as part of a merger or acquisition, or as part of the acquisition of all of the assets and liabilities of a branch office, are excluded transactions. If a financial institution acquires loans or lines of credit in bulk from another institution (for example, from the receiver for a failed institution), but no merger or acquisition of an institution, or acquisition of a branch office, is involved and no other exclusion applies, the acquired loans or lines of credit are covered loans and are reported as described in comment 4(a)-1.iii.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(8)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Partial interest.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(8) provides that the purchase of a partial interest in a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit is an excluded transaction. If an institution acquires only a partial interest in a loan or line of credit, the institution does not report the transaction even if the institution participated in the underwriting and origination of the loan or line of credit. If an institution acquires a 100 percent interest in a loan or line of credit, the transaction is not excluded under § 1003.3(c)(8).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(9)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Loan or line of credit used primarily for agricultural purposes.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(9) provides that an institution does not report a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit used primarily for agricultural purposes. A loan or line of credit is used primarily for agricultural purposes if its funds will be used primarily for agricultural purposes, or if the loan or line of credit is secured by a dwelling that is located on real property that is used primarily for agricultural purposes (<I>e.g.,</I> a farm). An institution may refer to comment 3(a)-8 in the official interpretations of Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, supplement I, for guidance on what is an agricultural purpose. An institution may use any reasonable standard to determine the primary use of the property. An institution may select the standard to apply on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(10)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(10) provides a special rule for reporting a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit that is or will be made primarily for a business or commercial purpose. If an institution determines that a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit primarily is for a business or commercial purpose, then the loan or line of credit is a covered loan only if it is a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i), a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j), or a refinancing under § 1003.2(p) and no other exclusion applies. Section 1003.3(c)(10) does not categorically exclude all business- or commercial-purpose loans and lines of credit from coverage.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Primary purpose.</I> An institution must determine in each case if a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit primarily is for a business or commercial purpose. If a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit is deemed to be primarily for a business, commercial, or organizational purpose under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.3(a) and its related commentary, then the loan or line of credit also is deemed to be primarily for a business or commercial purpose under § 1003.3(c)(10).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples—covered business- or commercial-purpose transactions.</I> The following are examples of closed-end mortgage loans and open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from reporting under § 1003.3(c)(10) because, although they primarily are for a business or commercial purpose, they also meet the definition of a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i), a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j), or a refinancing under § 1003.2(p):
</P>
<P>i. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit to purchase or to improve a multifamily dwelling or a single-family investment property, or a refinancing of a closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit secured by a multifamily dwelling or a single-family investment property;
</P>
<P>ii. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit to improve a doctor's office or a daycare center that is located in a dwelling other than a multifamily dwelling; and
</P>
<P>iii. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit to a corporation, if the funds from the loan or line of credit will be used to purchase or to improve a dwelling, or if the transaction is a refinancing.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples—excluded business- or commercial-purpose transactions.</I> The following are examples of closed-end mortgage loans and open-end lines of credit that are not covered loans because they primarily are for a business or commercial purpose, but they do not meet the definition of a home improvement loan under § 1003.2(i), a home purchase loan under § 1003.2(j), or a refinancing under § 1003.2(p):
</P>
<P>i. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit whose funds will be used primarily to improve or expand a business, for example to renovate a family restaurant that is not located in a dwelling, or to purchase a warehouse, business equipment, or inventory;
</P>
<P>ii. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit to a corporation whose funds will be used primarily for business purposes, such as to purchase inventory; and
</P>
<P>iii. A closed-end mortgage loan or an open-end line of credit whose funds will be used primarily for business or commercial purposes other than home purchase, home improvement, or refinancing, even if the loan or line of credit is cross-collateralized by a covered loan.






</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(11)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(11) provides that a closed-end mortgage loan is an excluded transaction if a financial institution originated fewer than 25 closed-end mortgage loans in either of the two preceding calendar years. For example, assume that a bank is a financial institution in 2018 under § 1003.2(g) because it originated 600 open-end lines of credit in 2016, 650 open-end lines of credit in 2017, and met all of the other requirements under § 1003.2(g)(1). Also assume that the bank originated 10 and 20 closed-end mortgage loans in 2016 and 2017, respectively. The open-end lines of credit that the bank originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, during 2018 are covered loans and must be reported, unless they otherwise are excluded transactions under § 1003.3(c). However, the closed-end mortgage loans that the bank originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, during 2018 are excluded transactions under § 1003.3(c)(11) and need not be reported. See comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance about the activities that constitute an origination.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Optional reporting.</I> A financial institution may report applications for, originations of, or purchases of closed-end mortgage loans that are excluded transactions because the financial institution originated fewer than 25 closed-end mortgage loans in either of the two preceding calendar years. However, a financial institution that chooses to report such excluded applications for, originations of, or purchases of closed-end mortgage loans must report all such applications for closed-end mortgage loans that it receives, closed-end mortgage loans that it originates, and closed-end mortgage loans that it purchases that otherwise would be covered loans for a given calendar year. Note that applications which remain pending at the end of a calendar year are not reported, as described in comment 4(a)(8)(i)-14.






</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(12)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(12) provides that an open-end line of credit is an excluded transaction if a financial institution originated fewer than 200 open-end lines of credit in either of the two preceding calendar years. For example, assume that a bank is a financial institution in 2022 under § 1003.2(g) because it originated 100 closed-end mortgage loans in 2020, 175 closed-end mortgage loans in 2021, and met all of the other requirements under § 1003.2(g)(1). Also assume that the bank originated 175 and 185 open-end lines of credit in 2020 and 2021, respectively. The closed-end mortgage loans that the bank originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, during 2022 are covered loans and must be reported, unless they otherwise are excluded transactions under § 1003.3(c). However, the open-end lines of credit that the bank originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, during 2022 are excluded transactions under § 1003.3(c)(12) and need not be reported. See comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance about the activities that constitute an origination.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Optional reporting.</I> A financial institution may report applications for, originations of, or purchases of open-end lines of credit that are excluded transactions because the financial institution originated fewer than 200 open-end lines of credit in either of the two preceding calendar years. However, a financial institution that chooses to report such excluded applications for, originations of, or purchases of open-end lines of credit must report all such applications for open-end lines of credit which it receives, open-end lines of credit that it originates, and open-end lines of credit that it purchases that otherwise would be covered loans for a given calendar year. Note that applications which remain pending at the end of a calendar year are not reported, as described in comment 4(a)(8)(i)-14.








</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)(13)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>New funds extended before consolidation.</I> Section 1003.3(c)(13) provides an exclusion for a transaction that provided or, in the case of an application, proposed to provide new funds to the borrower in advance of being consolidated in a New York State consolidation, extension, and modification agreement classified as a supplemental mortgage under New York Tax Law section 255 (New York CEMA) and for which final action is taken on both transactions within the same calendar year. The excluded transaction provides or proposes to provide funds that are not part of any existing debt obligation of the borrower and that are then consolidated or proposed to be consolidated with an existing debt obligation or obligations as part of the supplemental mortgage. The new funds are reported only insofar as they form part of the total amount of the reported New York CEMA, and not as a separate amount. This exclusion applies only if, at the time the transaction that provided new funds was originated, the financial institution intended to consolidate the loan into a New York CEMA. If a New York CEMA that consolidates an excluded preliminary transaction is carried out in a transaction involving an assumption, the financial institution reports the New York CEMA and does not report the preliminary transaction separately. The § 1003.3(c)(13) exclusion does not apply to similar preliminary transactions that provide or propose to provide new funds to be consolidated not pursuant to New York Tax Law section 255 but under some other law in a transaction that is not an extension of credit. For example, assume a financial institution extends new funds to a consumer in a preliminary transaction that is then consolidated as part of a consolidation, extension and modification agreement pursuant to the law of a State other than New York. If the preliminary extension of new funds is a covered loan, it must be reported. If the consolidation, extension and modification agreement pursuant to the law of a State other than New York is not an extension of credit pursuant to Regulation C, it may not be reported. For discussion of how to report a cash-out refinancing, see comment 4(a)(3)-2.


</P>
<HD3>3(d) Partially Exempt Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Merger or acquisition—application of partial exemption thresholds to surviving or newly formed institution.</I> After a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed institution falls below the loan threshold described in § 1003.3(d)(2) or (3) if it, considering the combined lending activity of the surviving or newly formed institution and the merged or acquired institutions or acquired branches, falls below the loan threshold described in § 1003.3(d)(2) or (3). For example, A and B merge. The surviving or newly formed institution falls below the loan threshold described in § 1003.3(d)(2) if the surviving or newly formed institution, A, and B originated a combined total of fewer than 500 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13) in each of the two preceding calendar years. Comment 3(d)-3 discusses eligibility for partial exemptions during the calendar year of a merger.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Merger or acquisition—Community Reinvestment Act examination history.</I> After a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed institution is deemed to be ineligible for the partial exemptions pursuant to § 1003.3(d)(6) if either it or any of the merged or acquired institutions received a rating of “needs to improve record of meeting community credit needs” during each of its two most recent examinations or a rating of “substantial noncompliance in meeting community credit needs” on its most recent examination under section 807(b)(2) of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2)). Comment 3(d)-3.iii discusses eligibility for partial exemptions during the calendar year of a merger when an institution that is eligible for a partial exemption merges with an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemption (including, for example, an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemptions pursuant to § 1003.3(d)(6)) and the surviving or newly formed institution is ineligible for the partial exemption.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Merger or acquisition—applicability of partial exemptions during calendar year of merger or acquisition.</I> The scenarios described below illustrate the applicability of partial exemptions under § 1003.3(d) during the calendar year of a merger or acquisition. For purposes of these illustrations, “institution” means a financial institution, as defined in § 1003.2(g), that is not exempt from reporting under § 1003.3(a). Although the scenarios below refer to the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans under § 1003.3(d)(2), the same principles apply with respect to the partial exemption for open-end lines of credit under § 1003.3(d)(3).
</P>
<P>i. Assume two institutions that are eligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans merge and the surviving or newly formed institution meets all of the requirements for the partial exemption. The partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans applies for the calendar year of the merger.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume two institutions that are eligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans merge and the surviving or newly formed institution does not meet the requirements for the partial exemption. Collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is permitted but not required for the calendar year of the merger (even though the merger creates an institution that does not meet the requirements for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans). When a branch office of an institution that is eligible for the partial exemption is acquired by another institution that is eligible for the partial exemption, and the acquisition results in an institution that is not eligible for the partial exemption, data collection for closed-end mortgage loans is permitted but not required for the calendar year of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume an institution that is eligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans merges with an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemption and the surviving or newly formed institution is ineligible for the partial exemption. For the calendar year of the merger, collection of optional data as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) for closed-end mortgage loans is required for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the merged institution that was previously ineligible for the partial exemption. For the calendar year of the merger, collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is permitted but not required for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the merged institution that was previously eligible for the partial exemption. When an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans acquires a branch office of an institution that is eligible for the partial exemption, collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is permitted but not required for covered loans and applications handled by the acquired branch office for the calendar year of the acquisition.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume an institution that is eligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans merges with an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemption and the surviving or newly formed institution is eligible for the partial exemption. For the calendar year of the merger, collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is required for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the previously ineligible institution that took place prior to the merger. After the merger date, collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is permitted but not required for covered loans and applications handled in the offices of the institution that was previously ineligible for the partial exemption. When an institution remains eligible for the partial exemption for closed-end mortgage loans after acquiring a branch office of an institution that is ineligible for the partial exemption, collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans is required for transactions of the acquired branch office that take place prior to the acquisition. Collection of optional data for closed-end mortgage loans by the acquired branch office is permitted but not required for transactions taking place in the remainder of the calendar year after the acquisition.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Originations.</I> Whether applications for covered loans that an insured depository institution or insured credit union receives, covered loans that it originates, or covered loans that it purchases are partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d) depends, in part, on whether the institution originated fewer than 500 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13) in each of the two preceding calendar years or fewer than 500 open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) in each of the two preceding calendar years. See comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance about the activities that constitute an origination for purposes of § 1003.3(d).
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<P>5. <I>Affiliates.</I> A financial institution that is not itself an insured credit union or an insured depository institution as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(i) and (ii) is not eligible for the partial exemptions under § 1003.3(d)(1) through (3), even if it is owned by or affiliated with an insured credit union or an insured depository institution. For example, an institution that is a subsidiary of an insured credit union or insured depository institution may not claim a partial exemption under § 1003.3(d) for its closed-end mortgage loans unless the subsidiary institution itself:
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<P>i. Is an insured credit union or insured depository institution,
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<P>ii. In each of the two preceding calendar years originated fewer than 500 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13), and
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<P>iii. If the subsidiary is an insured depository institution, had not received as of the preceding December 31 a rating of “needs to improve record of meeting community credit needs” during each of its two most recent examinations or a rating of “substantial noncompliance in meeting community credit needs” on its most recent examination under section 807(b)(2) of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2)).
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Optional data.</I> The definition of optional data in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) identifies the data that are covered by the partial exemptions for certain transactions of insured depository institutions and insured credit unions under § 1003.3(d). If a transaction is not partially exempt under § 1003.3(d)(2) or (3), a financial institution must collect, record, and report optional data as otherwise required under this part.
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(2) provides that, except as provided in § 1003.3(d)(6), an insured depository institution or insured credit union that, in each of the two preceding calendar years, originated fewer than 500 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13) is not required to collect, record, or report optional data as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) for applications for closed-end mortgage loans that it receives, closed-end mortgage loans that it originates, and closed-end mortgage loans that it purchases. For example, assume that an insured credit union is a financial institution in 2020 under § 1003.2(g) and originated, in 2018 and 2019 respectively, 100 and 200 closed-end mortgage loans that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) or (c)(13). The closed-end mortgage loans that the insured credit union originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, during 2020 are not excluded transactions under § 1003.3(c)(11). However, due to the partial exemption in § 1003.3(d)(2), the insured credit union is not required to collect, record, or report optional data as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) for the closed-end mortgage loans that it originated or purchased, or for which it received applications, for which final action is taken during 2020. See comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance about the activities that constitute an origination.
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(3) provides that, except as provided in § 1003.3(d)(6), an insured depository institution or insured credit union that, in each of the two preceding calendar years, originated fewer than 500 open-end lines of credit that are not excluded from this part pursuant to § 1003.3(c)(1) through (10) is not required to collect, record, or report optional data as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) for applications for open-end lines of credit that it receives, open-end lines of credit that it originates, and open-end lines of credit that it purchases. See § 1003.3(c)(12) and comments 3(c)(12)-1 and -2, which provide an exclusion for certain open-end lines of credit from this part and permit voluntary reporting of such transactions under certain circumstances. See also comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance about the activities that constitute an origination.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(4) provides that an insured depository institution or insured credit union may collect, record, and report optional data as defined in § 1003.3(d)(1)(iii) for a partially exempt transaction as though the institution were required to do so, provided that, if an institution voluntarily reports any data pursuant to any of the seven paragraphs identified in § 1003.3(d)(4)(i) and (ii) (§ 1003.4(a)(9)(i) and (a)(15), (16), (17), (27), (33), and (35)), it also must report all other data for the covered loan or application that would be required by that applicable paragraph if the transaction were not partially exempt. For example, an insured depository institution or insured credit union may voluntarily report the existence of a balloon payment for a partially exempt transaction pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(27), but, if it does so, it must also report all other data for the transaction that would be required by § 1003.4(a)(27) if the transaction were not partially exempt (<I>i.e.,</I> whether the transaction has interest-only payments, negative amortization, or other non-amortizing features).
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<P>2. <I>Partially exempt transactions within the same loan/application register.</I> A financial institution may collect, record, and report optional data for some partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d) in the manner specified in § 1003.3(d)(4), even if it does not collect, record, and report optional data for other partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d).
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<P>3. <I>Exempt or not applicable.</I> i. If a financial institution would otherwise report that a transaction is partially exempt pursuant to § 1003.3(d) and a particular requirement to report optional data is not applicable to the transaction, the insured depository institution or insured credit union complies with the particular requirement by reporting either that the transaction is exempt from the requirement or that the requirement is not applicable. For example, assume that an insured depository institution or insured credit union originates a partially exempt reverse mortgage. The requirement to report lender credits is not applicable to reverse mortgages, as comment 4(a)(20)-1 explains. Accordingly, the institution could report either exempt or not applicable for lender credits for the reverse mortgage transaction.
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<P>ii. An institution is considered as reporting data in a data field for purposes of § 1003.3(d)(4)(i) and (ii) when it reports not applicable for that data field for a partially exempt transaction. For example, assume an insured depository institution or insured credit union originates a covered loan that is eligible for a partial exemption and is made primarily for business or commercial purposes. The requirement to report total loan costs or total points and fees is not applicable to loans made primarily for business or commercial purposes, as comments 4(a)(17)(i)-1 and (ii)-1 explain. The institution can report not applicable for both total loan costs and total points and fees, or it can report exempt for both total loan costs and total points and fees for the loan. Pursuant to § 1003.3(d)(4)(ii), the institution is not permitted to report not applicable for total loan costs and report exempt for total points and fees for the business or commercial purpose loan.
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(4)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>State.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(4)(i) provides that if an institution eligible for a partial exemption under § 1003.3(d)(2) or (3) reports the street address, city name, or Zip Code for a partially exempt transaction pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(9)(i), it reports all data that would be required by § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) if the transaction were not partially exempt, including the State. An insured depository institution or insured credit union that reports the State pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii) or comment 4(a)(9)(ii)-1 for a partially exempt transaction without reporting any other data required by § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) is not required to report the street address, city name, or Zip Code pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(9)(i).
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>NULI—uniqueness.</I> For a partially exempt transaction under § 1003.3(d), a financial institution may report a ULI or a NULI. Section 1003.3(d)(5)(ii) requires an insured depository institution or insured credit union that assigns a NULI to a covered loan or application to ensure that the character sequence it assigns is unique within the institution's annual loan/application register in which it appears. A financial institution should assign only one NULI to any particular covered loan or application within each annual loan/application register, and each NULI should correspond to a single application and ensuing loan within the annual loan/application register in which the NULI appears in the case that the application is approved and a loan is originated. A financial institution may use a NULI more than once within an annual loan/application register only if the NULI refers to the same loan or application or a loan that ensues from an application referred to elsewhere in the annual loan/application register. Refinancings or applications for refinancing that are included in same annual loan/application register as the loan that is being refinanced should be assigned a different NULI than the loan that is being refinanced. An insured depository institution or insured credit union with multiple branches must ensure that its branches do not use the same NULI to refer to multiple covered loans or applications within the institution's same annual loan/application register.
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<P>2. <I>NULI—privacy.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(5)(iii) prohibits an insured depository institution or insured credit union from including information in the NULI that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower. Information that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower includes, but is not limited to, the applicant's or borrower's name, date of birth, Social Security number, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number.
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<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preceding calendar year.</I> Section 1003.3(d)(6) refers to the preceding December 31, which means the December 31 preceding the current calendar year. For example, in 2020, the preceding December 31 is December 31, 2019. Assume that, as of December 31, 2019, an insured depository institution received ratings of “needs to improve record of meeting community credit needs” during its two most recent examinations under section 807(b)(2) of the Community Reinvestment Act (12 U.S.C. 2906(b)(2)) in 2018 and 2014. Accordingly, in 2020, the insured depository institution's transactions are not partially exempt pursuant to § 1003.3(d).


</P>
<HD3>Section 1003.4—Compilation of Reportable Data
</HD3>
<HD3>4(a) Data Format and Itemization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 1003.3, § 1003.4(a) describes a financial institution's obligation to collect data on applications it received, on covered loans that it originated, and on covered loans that it purchased during the calendar year covered by the loan/application register.
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<P>i. A financial institution reports these data even if the covered loans were subsequently sold by the institution.
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<P>ii. A financial institution reports data for applications that did not result in an origination but on which actions were taken—for example, an application that the institution denied, that it approved but that was not accepted, that it closed for incompleteness, or that the applicant withdrew during the calendar year covered by the loan/application register. A financial institution is required to report data regarding requests under a preapproval program (as defined in § 1003.2(b)(2)) only if the preapproval request is denied, results in the origination of a home purchase loan, or was approved but not accepted.
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<P>iii. If a financial institution acquires covered loans in bulk from another institution (for example, from the receiver for a failed institution), but no merger or acquisition of an institution, or acquisition of a branch office, is involved, the acquiring financial institution reports the covered loans as purchased loans.
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<P>iv. A financial institution reports the data for an application on the loan/application register for the calendar year during which the application was acted upon even if the institution received the application in a previous calendar year.
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<P>2. <I>Originations and applications involving more than one institution.</I> Section 1003.4(a) requires a financial institution to collect certain information regarding applications for covered loans that it receives and regarding covered loans that it originates. The following provides guidance on how to report originations and applications involving more than one institution. The discussion below assumes that all of the parties are financial institutions as defined by § 1003.2(g). The same principles apply if any of the parties is not a financial institution. Comment 4(a)-3 provides examples of transactions involving more than one institution, and comment 4(a)-4 discusses how to report actions taken by agents.
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<P>i. Only one financial institution reports each originated covered loan as an origination. If more than one institution was involved in the origination of a covered loan, the financial institution that made the credit decision approving the application before closing or account opening reports the loan as an origination. It is not relevant whether the loan closed or, in the case of an application, would have closed in the institution's name. If more than one institution approved an application prior to closing or account opening and one of those institutions purchased the loan after closing, the institution that purchased the loan after closing reports the loan as an origination. If a financial institution reports a transaction as an origination, it reports all of the information required for originations, even if the covered loan was not initially payable to the financial institution that is reporting the covered loan as an origination.
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<P>ii. In the case of an application for a covered loan that did not result in an origination, a financial institution reports the action it took on that application if it made a credit decision on the application or was reviewing the application when the application was withdrawn or closed for incompleteness. It is not relevant whether the financial institution received the application from the applicant or from another institution, such as a broker, or whether another financial institution also reviewed and reported an action taken on the same application.
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<P>3. <I>Examples—originations and applications involving more than one institution.</I> The following scenarios illustrate how an institution reports a particular application or covered loan. The illustrations assume that all of the parties are financial institutions as defined by § 1003.2(g). However, the same principles apply if any of the parties is not a financial institution.
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<P>i. Financial Institution A received an application for a covered loan from an applicant and forwarded that application to Financial Institution B. Financial Institution B reviewed the application and approved the loan prior to closing. The loan closed in Financial Institution A's name. Financial Institution B purchased the loan from Financial Institution A after closing. Financial Institution B was not acting as Financial Institution A's agent. Since Financial Institution B made the credit decision prior to closing, Financial Institution B reports the transaction as an origination, not as a purchase. Financial Institution A does not report the transaction.
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<P>ii. Financial Institution A received an application for a covered loan from an applicant and forwarded that application to Financial Institution B. Financial Institution B reviewed the application before the loan would have closed, but the application did not result in an origination because Financial Institution B denied the application. Financial Institution B was not acting as Financial Institution A's agent. Since Financial Institution B made the credit decision, Financial Institution B reports the application as a denial. Financial Institution A does not report the application. If, under the same facts, the application was withdrawn before Financial Institution B made a credit decision, Financial Institution B would report the application as withdrawn and Financial Institution A would not report the application.
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<P>iii. Financial Institution A received an application for a covered loan from an applicant and approved the application before closing the loan in its name. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Financial Institution B purchased the covered loan from Financial Institution A. Financial Institution B did not review the application before closing. Financial Institution A reports the loan as an origination. Financial Institution B reports the loan as a purchase.
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<P>iv. Financial Institution A received an application for a covered loan from an applicant. If approved, the loan would have closed in Financial Institution B's name. Financial Institution A denied the application without sending it to Financial Institution B for approval. Financial Institution A was not acting as Financial Institution B's agent. Since Financial Institution A made the credit decision before the loan would have closed, Financial Institution A reports the application. Financial Institution B does not report the application.
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<P>v. Financial Institution A reviewed an application and made the credit decision to approve a covered loan using the underwriting criteria provided by a third party (<I>e.g.,</I> another financial institution, Fannie Mae, or Freddie Mac). The third party did not review the application and did not make a credit decision prior to closing. Financial Institution A was not acting as the third party's agent. Financial Institution A reports the application or origination. If the third party purchased the loan and is subject to Regulation C, the third party reports the loan as a purchase whether or not the third party reviewed the loan after closing. Assume the same facts, except that Financial Institution A approved the application, and the applicant chose not to accept the loan from Financial Institution A. Financial Institution A reports the application as approved but not accepted and the third party, assuming the third party is subject to Regulation C, does not report the application.
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<P>vi. Financial Institution A reviewed and made the credit decision on an application based on the criteria of a third-party insurer or guarantor (for example, a government or private insurer or guarantor). Financial Institution A reports the action taken on the application.
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<P>vii. Financial Institution A received an application for a covered loan and forwarded it to Financial Institutions B and C. Financial Institution A made a credit decision, acting as Financial Institution D's agent, and approved the application. The applicant did not accept the loan from Financial Institution D. Financial Institution D reports the application as approved but not accepted. Financial Institution A does not report the application. Financial Institution B made a credit decision, approving the application, the applicant accepted the offer of credit from Financial Institution B, and credit was extended. Financial Institution B reports the origination. Financial Institution C made a credit decision and denied the application. Financial Institution C reports the application as denied.
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<P>4. <I>Agents.</I> If a financial institution made the credit decision on a covered loan or application through the actions of an agent, the institution reports the application or origination. State law determines whether one party is the agent of another. For example, acting as Financial Institution A's agent, Financial Institution B approved an application prior to closing and a covered loan was originated. Financial Institution A reports the loan as an origination.
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<P>5. <I>Purchased loans.</I> i. A financial institution is required to collect data regarding covered loans it purchases. For purposes of § 1003.4(a), a purchase includes a repurchase of a covered loan, regardless of whether the institution chose to repurchase the covered loan or was required to repurchase the covered loan because of a contractual obligation and regardless of whether the repurchase occurs within the same calendar year that the covered loan was originated or in a different calendar year. For example, assume that Financial Institution A originates or purchases a covered loan and then sells it to Financial Institution B, who later requires Financial Institution A to repurchase the covered loan pursuant to the relevant contractual obligations. Financial Institution B reports the purchase from Financial Institution A, assuming it is a financial institution as defined under § 1003.2(g). Financial Institution A reports the repurchase from Financial Institution B as a purchase.
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<P>ii. In contrast, for purposes of § 1003.4(a), a purchase does not include a temporary transfer of a covered loan to an interim funder or warehouse creditor as part of an interim funding agreement under which the originating financial institution is obligated to repurchase the covered loan for sale to a subsequent investor. Such agreements, often referred to as “repurchase agreements,” are sometimes employed as functional equivalents of warehouse lines of credit. Under these agreements, the interim funder or warehouse creditor acquires legal title to the covered loan, subject to an obligation of the originating institution to repurchase at a future date, rather than taking a security interest in the covered loan as under the terms of a more conventional warehouse line of credit. To illustrate, assume Financial Institution A has an interim funding agreement with Financial Institution B to enable Financial Institution B to originate loans. Assume further that Financial Institution B originates a covered loan and that, pursuant to this agreement, Financial Institution A takes a temporary transfer of the covered loan until Financial Institution B arranges for the sale of the covered loan to a subsequent investor and that Financial Institution B repurchases the covered loan to enable it to complete the sale to the subsequent investor (alternatively, Financial Institution A may transfer the covered loan directly to the subsequent investor at Financial Institution B's direction, pursuant to the interim funding agreement). The subsequent investor could be, for example, a financial institution or other entity that intends to hold the loan in portfolio, a GSE or other securitizer, or a financial institution or other entity that intends to package and sell multiple loans to a GSE or other securitizer. In this example, the temporary transfer of the covered loan from Financial Institution B to Financial Institution A is not a purchase, and any subsequent transfer back to Financial Institution B for delivery to the subsequent investor is not a purchase, for purposes of § 1003.4(a). Financial Institution B reports the origination of the covered loan as well as its sale to the subsequent investor. If the subsequent investor is a financial institution under § 1003.2(g), it reports a purchase of the covered loan pursuant to § 1003.4(a), regardless of whether it acquired the covered loan from Financial Institution B or directly from Financial Institution A.


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<HD2>Section 1003.4—Compilation of Reportable Data


</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>ULI—uniqueness.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) requires a financial institution that assigns a universal loan identifier (ULI) to each covered loan or application (except as provided in § 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(D) and (E)) to ensure that the character sequence it assigns is unique within the institution and used only for the covered loan or application. A financial institution should assign only one ULI to any particular covered loan or application, and each ULI should correspond to a single application and ensuing loan in the case that the application is approved and a loan is originated. A financial institution may use a ULI that was reported previously to refer only to the same loan or application for which the ULI was used previously or a loan that ensues from an application for which the ULI was used previously. A financial institution may not report an application for a covered loan in 2030 using the same ULI that was reported for a covered loan that was originated in 2020. Similarly, refinancings or applications for refinancing should be assigned a different ULI than the loan that is being refinanced. A financial institution with multiple branches must ensure that its branches do not use the same ULI to refer to multiple covered loans or applications.
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<P>2. <I>ULI—privacy.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) prohibits a financial institution from including information that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower in the identifier that it assigns for the application or covered loan of the applicant or borrower. Information that could be used to directly identify the applicant or borrower includes, but is not limited to, the applicant's or borrower's name, date of birth, Social Security number, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number.
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<P>3. <I>ULI—purchased covered loan.</I> If a financial institution has previously assigned a covered loan with a ULI or reported a covered loan with a ULI under this part, a financial institution that purchases that covered loan must report the same ULI that was previously assigned or reported unless the purchase of the covered loan is a partially exempt transaction under § 1003.3(d). For example, if a financial institution that submits an annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i) originates a covered loan that is purchased by a financial institution that also submits an annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), the financial institution that purchases the covered loan must report the purchase of the covered loan using the same ULI that was reported by the originating financial institution if the purchase is not a partially exempt transaction. If a financial institution that originates a covered loan has previously assigned the covered loan with a ULI under this part but has not yet reported the covered loan, a financial institution that purchases that covered loan must report the same ULI that was previously assigned if the purchase is not a partially exempt transaction. For example, if a financial institution that submits an annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i) (Institution A) originates a covered loan that is purchased by a financial institution that submits a quarterly loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) (Institution B) and Institution A assigned a ULI to the loan, then unless the purchase is a partially exempt transaction Institution B must report the ULI that was assigned by Institution A on Institution B's quarterly loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), even though Institution A has not yet submitted its annual loan/application register pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i). A financial institution that purchases a covered loan and is ineligible for a partial exemption with respect to the purchased covered loan must assign it a ULI pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(1)(i) and report it pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i) or (ii), whichever is applicable, if the covered loan was not assigned a ULI by the financial institution that originated the loan because, for example, the loan was originated prior to January 1, 2018, the loan was originated by an institution not required to report under this part, or the loan was assigned a non-universal loan identifier (NULI) under § 1003.3(d)(5) rather than a ULI by the loan originator.
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<P>4. <I>ULI—reinstated or reconsidered application.</I> A financial institution may, at its option, report a ULI previously reported under this part if, during the same calendar year, an applicant asks the institution to reinstate a counteroffer that the applicant previously did not accept or asks the financial institution to reconsider an application that was previously denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness. For example, if a financial institution reports a denied application in its second-quarter 2020 data submission, pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), but then reconsiders the application, resulting in an origination in the third quarter of 2020, the financial institution may report the origination in its third-quarter 2020 data submission using the same ULI that was reported for the denied application in its second-quarter 2020 data submission, so long as the financial institution treats the origination as the same transaction for reporting. However, a financial institution may not use a ULI previously reported if it reinstates or reconsiders an application that was reported in a prior calendar year. For example, if a financial institution reports a denied application that is not partially exempt in its fourth-quarter 2020 data submission, pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), but then reconsiders the application, resulting in an origination that is not partially exempt in the first quarter of 2021, the financial institution reports a denied application under the original ULI in its fourth-quarter 2020 data submission and an origination with a different ULI in its first-quarter 2021 data submission, pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii).
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<P>5. <I>ULI—check digit.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(1)(i)(C) requires that the two right-most characters in the ULI represent the check digit. Appendix C prescribes the requirements for generating a check digit and validating a ULI.
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<P>6. <I>NULI.</I> For a partially exempt transaction under § 1003.3(d), a financial institution may report a ULI or a NULI. See § 1003.3(d)(5) and comments 3(d)(5)-1 and -2 for guidance on the NULI.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application date—consistency.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(1)(ii) requires that, in reporting the date of application, a financial institution report the date it received the application, as defined under § 1003.2(b), or the date shown on the application form. Although a financial institution need not choose the same approach for its entire HMDA submission, it should be generally consistent (such as by routinely using one approach within a particular division of the institution or for a category of loans). If the financial institution chooses to report the date shown on the application form and the institution retains multiple versions of the application form, the institution reports the date shown on the first application form satisfying the application definition provided under § 1003.2(b).
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<P>2. <I>Application date—indirect application.</I> For an application that was not submitted directly to the financial institution, the institution may report the date the application was received by the party that initially received the application, the date the application was received by the institution, or the date shown on the application form. Although an institution need not choose the same approach for its entire HMDA submission, it should be generally consistent (such as by routinely using one approach within a particular division of the institution or for a category of loans).
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<P>3. <I>Application date—reinstated application.</I> If, within the same calendar year, an applicant asks a financial institution to reinstate a counteroffer that the applicant previously did not accept (or asks the institution to reconsider an application that was denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness), the institution may treat that request as the continuation of the earlier transaction using the same ULI or NULI or as a new transaction with a new ULI or NULI. If the institution treats the request for reinstatement or reconsideration as a new transaction, it reports the date of the request as the application date. If the institution does not treat the request for reinstatement or reconsideration as a new transaction, it reports the original application date.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Loan type—general.</I> If a covered loan is not, or in the case of an application would not have been, insured by the Federal Housing Administration, guaranteed by the Department of Veterans Affairs, or guaranteed by the Rural Housing Service or the Farm Service Agency, an institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(2) by reporting the covered loan as not insured or guaranteed by the Federal Housing Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, Rural Housing Service, or Farm Service Agency.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Purpose—statement of applicant.</I> A financial institution may rely on the oral or written statement of an applicant regarding the proposed use of covered loan proceeds. For example, a lender could use a check-box or a purpose line on a loan application to determine whether the applicant intends to use covered loan proceeds for home improvement purposes. If an applicant provides no statement as to the proposed use of covered loan proceeds and the covered loan is not a home purchase loan, cash-out refinancing, or refinancing, a financial institution reports the covered loan as for a purpose other than home purchase, home improvement, refinancing, or cash-out refinancing for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(3).
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<P>2. <I>Purpose—refinancing and cash-out refinancing.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(3) requires a financial institution to report whether a covered loan is, or an application is for, a refinancing or a cash-out refinancing. A financial institution reports a covered loan or an application as a cash-out refinancing if it is a refinancing as defined by § 1003.2(p) and the institution considered it to be a cash-out refinancing in processing the application or setting the terms (such as the interest rate or origination charges) under its guidelines or an investor's guidelines. For example:
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<P>i. Assume a financial institution considers an application for a loan product to be a cash-out refinancing under an investor's guidelines because of the amount of cash received by the borrower at closing or account opening. Assume also that under the investor's guidelines, the applicant qualifies for the loan product and the financial institution approves the application, originates the covered loan, and sets the terms of the covered loan consistent with the loan product. In this example, the financial institution would report the covered loan as a cash-out refinancing for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(3).
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<P>ii. Assume a financial institution does not consider an application for a covered loan to be a cash-out refinancing under its own guidelines because the amount of cash received by the borrower does not exceed a certain threshold. Assume also that the institution approves the application, originates the covered loan, and sets the terms of the covered loan consistent with its own guidelines applicable to refinancings other than cash-out refinancings. In this example, the financial institution would report the covered loan as a refinancing for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(3).
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<P>iii. Assume a financial institution does not distinguish between a cash-out refinancing and a refinancing under its own guidelines, and sets the terms of all refinancings without regard to the amount of cash received by the borrower at closing or account opening, and does not offer loan products under investor guidelines. In this example, the financial institution reports all covered loans and applications for covered loans that are defined by § 1003.2(p) as refinancings for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(3).
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<P>3. <I>Purpose—multiple-purpose loan.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(3) requires a financial institution to report the purpose of a covered loan or application. If a covered loan is a home purchase loan as well as a home improvement loan, a refinancing, or a cash-out refinancing, an institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the loan as a home purchase loan. If a covered loan is a home improvement loan as well as a refinancing or cash-out refinancing, but the covered loan is not a home purchase loan, an institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the covered loan as a refinancing or a cash-out refinancing, as appropriate. If a covered loan is a refinancing or cash-out refinancing as well as for another purpose, such as for the purpose of paying educational expenses, but the covered loan is not a home purchase loan, an institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the covered loan as a refinancing or a cash-out refinancing, as appropriate. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)(3)-2. If a covered loan is a home improvement loan as well as for another purpose, but the covered loan is not a home purchase loan, a refinancing, or cash-out refinancing, an institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the covered loan as a home improvement loan. <I>See</I> comment 2(i)-1.
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<P>4. <I>Purpose—other.</I> If a covered loan is not, or an application is not for, a home purchase loan, a home improvement loan, a refinancing, or a cash-out refinancing, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the covered loan or application as for a purpose other than home purchase, home improvement, refinancing, or cash-out refinancing. For example, if a covered loan is for the purpose of paying educational expenses, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting the covered loan as for a purpose other than home purchase, home improvement, refinancing, or cash-out refinancing. Section 1003.4(a)(3) also requires an institution to report a covered loan or application as for a purpose other than home purchase, home improvement, refinancing, or cash-out refinancing if it is a refinancing but, under the terms of the agreement, the financial institution was unconditionally obligated to refinance the obligation subject to conditions within the borrower's control.
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<P>5. <I>Purpose—business or commercial purpose loans.</I> If a covered loan primarily is for a business or commercial purpose as described in § 1003.3(c)(10) and comment 3(c)(10)-2 and is a home purchase loan, home improvement loan, or a refinancing, § 1003.4(a)(3) requires the financial institution to report the applicable loan purpose. If a loan primarily is for a business or commercial purpose but is not a home purchase loan, home improvement loan, or a refinancing, the loan is an excluded transaction under § 1003.3(c)(10).
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<P>6. <I>Purpose—purchased loans.</I> For purchased covered loans where origination took place prior to January 1, 2018, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(3) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Request under a preapproval program.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(4) requires a financial institution to report whether an application or covered loan involved a request for a preapproval of a home purchase loan under a preapproval program as defined by § 1003.2(b)(2). If an application or covered loan did not involve a request for a preapproval of a home purchase loan under a preapproval program as defined by § 1003.2(b)(2), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(4) by reporting that the application or covered loan did not involve such a request, regardless of whether the institution has such a program and the applicant did not apply through that program or the institution does not have a preapproval program as defined by § 1003.2(b)(2).
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<P>2. <I>Scope of requirement.</I> A financial institution reports that the application or covered loan did not involve a preapproval request for a purchased covered loan; an application or covered loan for any purpose other than a home purchase loan; an application for a home purchase loan or a covered loan that is a home purchase loan secured by a multifamily dwelling; an application or covered loan that is an open-end line of credit or a reverse mortgage; or an application that is denied, withdrawn by the applicant, or closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Modular homes and prefabricated components.</I> Covered loans or applications related to modular homes should be reported with a construction method of site-built, regardless of whether they are on-frame or off-frame modular homes. Modular homes comply with local or other recognized buildings codes rather than standards established by the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act, 42 U.S.C. 5401 <I>et seq.</I> Modular homes are not required to have HUD Certification Labels under 24 CFR 3280.11 or data plates under 24 CFR 3280.5. Modular homes may have a certification from a State licensing agency that documents compliance with State or other applicable building codes. On-frame modular homes are constructed on permanent metal chassis similar to those used in manufactured homes. The chassis are not removed on site and are secured to the foundation. Off-frame modular homes typically have floor construction similar to the construction of other site-built homes, and the construction typically includes wooden floor joists and does not include permanent metal chassis. Dwellings built using prefabricated components assembled at the dwelling's permanent site should also be reported with a construction method of site-built.
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<P>2. <I>Multifamily dwelling.</I> For a covered loan or an application for a covered loan related to a multifamily dwelling, the financial institution should report the construction method as site-built unless the multifamily dwelling is a manufactured home community, in which case the financial institution should report the construction method as manufactured home.
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<P>3. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
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<P>2. <I>Principal residence.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(6) requires a financial institution to identify whether the property to which the covered loan or application relates is or will be used as a residence that the applicant or borrower physically occupies and uses, or will occupy and use, as his or her principal residence. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), an applicant or borrower can have only one principal residence at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal residence. However, if an applicant or borrower buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the applicant's or borrower's principal residence within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal residence for purposes of applying this definition to a particular transaction.
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<P>3. <I>Second residences.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(6) requires a financial institution to identify whether the property to which the loan or application relates is or will be used as a second residence. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), a property is a second residence of an applicant or borrower if the property is or will be occupied by the applicant or borrower for a portion of the year and is not the applicant's or borrower's principal residence. For example, if a person purchases a property, occupies the property for a portion of the year, and rents the property for the remainder of the year, the property is a second residence for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6). Similarly, if a couple occupies a property near their place of employment on weekdays, but the couple returns to their principal residence on weekends, the property near the couple's place of employment is a second residence for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6).
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<P>4. <I>Investment properties.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(6) requires a financial institution to identify whether the property to which the covered loan or application relates is or will be used as an investment property. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), a property is an investment property if the borrower does not, or the applicant will not, occupy the property. For example, if a person purchases a property, does not occupy the property, and generates income by renting the property, the property is an investment property for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6). Similarly, if a person purchases a property, does not occupy the property, and does not generate income by renting the property, but intends to generate income by selling the property, the property is an investment property for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6). Section 1003.4(a)(6) requires a financial institution to identify a property as an investment property if the borrower or applicant does not or will not occupy the property, even if the borrower or applicant does not consider the property as owned for investment purposes. For example, if a corporation purchases a property that is a dwelling under § 1003.2(f), that it does not occupy, but that is for the long-term residential use of its employees, the property is an investment property for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(6), even if the corporation considers the property as owned for business purposes rather than investment purposes, does not generate income by renting the property, and does not intend to generate income by selling the property at some point in time. If the property is for transitory use by employees, the property would not be considered a dwelling under § 1003.2(f). <I>See</I> comment 2(f)-3.
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<P>5. <I>Purchased covered loans.</I> For purchased covered loans, a financial institution may report principal residence unless the loan documents or application indicate that the property will not be occupied as a principal residence.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(7)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Covered loan amount—counteroffer.</I> If an applicant accepts a counteroffer for an amount different from the amount for which the applicant applied, the financial institution reports the covered loan amount granted. If an applicant does not accept a counteroffer or fails to respond, the institution reports the amount initially requested.
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<P>2. <I>Covered loan amount—application approved but not accepted or preapproval request approved but not accepted.</I> A financial institution reports the covered loan amount that was approved.
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<P>3. <I>Covered loan amount—preapproval request denied, application denied, closed for incompleteness or withdrawn.</I> For a preapproval request that was denied, and for an application that was denied, closed for incompleteness, or withdrawn, a financial institution reports the amount for which the applicant applied.
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<P>4. <I>Covered loan amount—multiple-purpose loan.</I> A financial institution reports the entire amount of the covered loan, even if only a part of the proceeds is intended for home purchase, home improvement, or refinancing.
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<P>5. <I>Covered loan amount—closed-end mortgage loan.</I> For a closed-end mortgage loan, other than a purchased loan, an assumption, or a reverse mortgage, a financial institution reports the amount to be repaid as disclosed on the legal obligation. For a purchased closed-end mortgage loan or an assumption of a closed-end mortgage loan, a financial institution reports the unpaid principal balance at the time of purchase or assumption.
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<P>6. <I>Covered loan amount—open-end line of credit.</I> For an open-end line of credit, a financial institution reports the entire amount of credit available to the borrower under the terms of the open-end plan, including a purchased open-end line of credit and an assumption of an open-end line of credit, but not for a reverse mortgage open-end line of credit.
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<P>7. <I>Covered loan amount—refinancing.</I> For a refinancing, a financial institution reports the amount of credit extended under the terms of the new debt obligation.
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<P>8. <I>Covered loan amount—home improvement loan.</I> A financial institution reports the entire amount of a home improvement loan, even if only a part of the proceeds is intended for home improvement.
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<P>9. <I>Covered loan amount—non-federally insured reverse mortgage.</I> A financial institution reports the initial principal limit of a non-federally insured reverse mortgage as set forth in § 1003.4(a)(7)(iii).
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(8)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Action taken—covered loan originated.</I> A financial institution reports that the covered loan was originated if the financial institution made a credit decision approving the application before closing or account opening and that credit decision results in an extension of credit. The same is true for an application that began as a request for a preapproval that subsequently results in a covered loan being originated. <I>See</I> comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance on transactions in which more than one institution is involved.
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<P>2. <I>Action taken—covered loan purchased.</I> A financial institution reports that the covered loan was purchased if the covered loan was purchased by the financial institution after closing or account opening and the financial institution did not make a credit decision on the application prior to closing or account opening, or if the financial institution did make a credit decision on the application prior to closing or account opening, but is repurchasing the loan from another entity that the loan was sold to. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)-5. <I>See</I> comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance on transactions in which more than one financial institution is involved.
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<P>3. <I>Action taken—application approved but not accepted.</I> A financial institution reports application approved but not accepted if the financial institution made a credit decision approving the application before closing or account opening, subject solely to outstanding conditions that are customary commitment or closing conditions, but the applicant or the party that initially received the application fails to respond to the financial institution's approval within the specified time, or the closed-end mortgage loan was not otherwise consummated or the account was not otherwise opened. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)(8)(i)-13.
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<P>4. <I>Action taken—application denied.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was denied if it made a credit decision denying the application before an applicant withdraws the application or the file is closed for incompleteness. <I>See</I> comments 4(a)-2 through -4 for guidance on transactions in which more than one institution is involved.
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<P>5. <I>Action taken—application withdrawn.</I> A financial institution reports that the application was withdrawn when the application is expressly withdrawn by the applicant before the financial institution makes a credit decision denying the application, before the financial institution makes a credit decision approving the application, or before the file is closed for incompleteness. A financial institution also reports application withdrawn if the financial institution provides a conditional approval specifying underwriting or creditworthiness conditions, pursuant to comment 4(a)(8)(i)-13, and the application is expressly withdrawn by the applicant before the applicant satisfies all specified underwriting or creditworthiness conditions. A preapproval request that is withdrawn is not reportable under HMDA. <I>See</I> § 1003.4(a).
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<P>6. <I>Action taken—file closed for incompleteness.</I> A financial institution reports that the file was closed for incompleteness if the financial institution sent a written notice of incompleteness under Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.9(c)(2), and the applicant did not respond to the request for additional information within the period of time specified in the notice before the applicant satisfies all underwriting or creditworthiness conditions. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)(8)(i)-13. If a financial institution then provides a notification of adverse action on the basis of incompleteness under Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.9(c)(1)(i), the financial institution may report the action taken as either file closed for incompleteness or application denied. A preapproval request that is closed for incompleteness is not reportable under HMDA. <I>See</I> § 1003.4(a) and comment 4(a)-1.ii.
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<P>7. <I>Action taken—preapproval request denied.</I> A financial institution reports that the preapproval request was denied if the application was a request for a preapproval under a preapproval program as defined in § 1003.2(b)(2) and the institution made a credit decision denying the preapproval request.
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<P>8. <I>Action taken—preapproval request approved but not accepted.</I> A financial institution reports that the preapproval request was approved but not accepted if the application was a request for a preapproval under a preapproval program as defined in § 1003.2(b)(2) and the institution made a credit decision approving the preapproval request but the application did not result in a covered loan originated by the financial institution.
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<P>9. <I>Action taken—counteroffers.</I> If a financial institution makes a counteroffer to lend on terms different from the applicant's initial request (for example, for a shorter loan maturity, with a different interest rate, or in a different amount) and the applicant declines to proceed with the counteroffer or fails to respond, the institution reports the action taken as a denial on the original terms requested by the applicant. If the applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of the financial institution's counteroffer, the financial institution reports the action taken as the disposition of the application based on the terms of the counteroffer. For example, assume a financial institution makes a counteroffer, the applicant agrees to proceed with the terms of the counteroffer, and the financial institution then makes a credit decision approving the application conditional on satisfying underwriting or creditworthiness conditions, and the applicant expressly withdraws before satisfying all underwriting or creditworthiness conditions and before the institution denies the application or closes the file for incompleteness. The financial institution reports the action taken as application withdrawn in accordance with comment 4(a)(8)(i)-13.i. Similarly, assume a financial institution makes a counteroffer, the applicant agrees to proceed with consideration of the counteroffer, and the financial institution provides a conditional approval stating the conditions to be met to originate the counteroffer. The financial institution reports the action taken on the application in accordance with comment 4(a)(8)(i)-13 regarding conditional approvals.
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<P>10. <I>Action taken—rescinded transactions.</I> If a borrower rescinds a transaction after closing and before a financial institution is required to submit its loan/application register containing the information for the transaction under § 1003.5(a), the institution reports the transaction as an application that was approved but not accepted.
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<P>11. <I>Action taken—purchased covered loans.</I> An institution reports the covered loans that it purchased during the calendar year. An institution does not report the covered loans that it declined to purchase, unless, as discussed in comments 4(a)-2 through -4, the institution reviewed the application prior to closing, in which case it reports the application or covered loan according to comments 4(a)-2 through -4.
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<P>12. <I>Action taken—repurchased covered loans.</I> See comment 4(a)-5 regarding reporting requirements when a covered loan is repurchased by the originating financial institution.
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<P>13. <I>Action taken—conditional approvals.</I> If an institution issues an approval other than a commitment pursuant to a preapproval program as defined under § 1003.2(b)(2), and that approval is subject to the applicant meeting certain conditions, the institution reports the action taken as provided below dependent on whether the conditions are solely customary commitment or closing conditions or if the conditions include any underwriting or creditworthiness conditions.
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<P>i. <I>Action taken examples.</I> If the approval is conditioned on satisfying underwriting or creditworthiness conditions and they are not met, the institution reports the action taken as a denial. If, however, the conditions involve submitting additional information about underwriting or creditworthiness that the institution needs to make the credit decision, and the institution has sent a written notice of incompleteness under Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.9(c)(2), and the applicant did not respond within the period of time specified in the notice, the institution reports the action taken as file closed for incompleteness. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)(8)(i)-6. If the conditions are solely customary commitment or closing conditions and the conditions are not met, the institution reports the action taken as approved but not accepted. If all the conditions (underwriting, creditworthiness, or customary commitment or closing conditions) are satisfied and the institution agrees to extend credit but the covered loan is not originated, the institution reports the action taken as application approved but not accepted. If the applicant expressly withdraws before satisfying all underwriting or creditworthiness conditions and before the institution denies the application or closes the file for incompleteness, the institution reports the action taken as application withdrawn. If all underwriting and creditworthiness conditions have been met, and the outstanding conditions are solely customary commitment or closing conditions and the applicant expressly withdraws before the covered loan is originated, the institution reports the action taken as application approved but not accepted.
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<P>ii. <I>Customary commitment or closing conditions.</I> Customary commitment or closing conditions include, for example: A clear-title requirement, an acceptable property survey, acceptable title insurance binder, clear termite inspection, a subordination agreement from another lienholder, and, where the applicant plans to use the proceeds from the sale of one home to purchase another, a settlement statement showing adequate proceeds from the sale.
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<P>iii. <I>Underwriting or creditworthiness conditions.</I> Underwriting or creditworthiness conditions include, for example: Conditions that constitute a counter-offer, such as a demand for a higher down-payment; satisfactory debt-to-income or loan-to-value ratios, a determination of need for private mortgage insurance, or a satisfactory appraisal requirement; or verification or confirmation, in whatever form the institution requires, that the applicant meets underwriting conditions concerning applicant creditworthiness, including documentation or verification of income or assets.
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<P>14. <I>Action taken—pending applications.</I> An institution does not report any covered loan application still pending at the end of the calendar year; it reports that application on its loan/application register for the year in which final action is taken.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(8)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Action taken date—general.</I> A financial institution reports the date of the action taken.
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<P>2. <I>Action taken date—applications denied and files closed for incompleteness.</I> For applications, including requests for a preapproval, that are denied or for files closed for incompleteness, the financial institution reports either the date the action was taken or the date the notice was sent to the applicant.
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<P>3. <I>Action taken date—application withdrawn.</I> For applications withdrawn, the financial institution may report the date the express withdrawal was received or the date shown on the notification form in the case of a written withdrawal.
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<P>4. <I>Action taken date—approved but not accepted.</I> For a covered loan approved by an institution but not accepted by the applicant, the institution reports any reasonable date, such as the approval date, the deadline for accepting the offer, or the date the file was closed. Although an institution need not choose the same approach for its entire HMDA submission, it should be generally consistent (such as by routinely using one approach within a particular division of the institution or for a category of covered loans).
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<P>5. <I>Action taken date—originations.</I> For covered loan originations, including a preapproval request that leads to an origination by the financial institution, an institution generally reports the closing or account opening date. For covered loan originations that an institution acquires from a party that initially received the application, the institution reports either the closing or account opening date, or the date the institution acquired the covered loan from the party that initially received the application. If the disbursement of funds takes place on a date later than the closing or account opening date, the institution may use the date of initial disbursement. For a construction/permanent covered loan, the institution reports either the closing or account opening date, or the date the covered loan converts to the permanent financing. Although an institution need not choose the same approach for its entire HMDA submission, it should be generally consistent (such as by routinely using one approach within a particular division of the institution or for a category of covered loans). Notwithstanding this flexibility regarding the use of the closing or account opening date in connection with reporting the date action was taken, the institution must report the origination as occurring in the year in which the origination goes to closing or the account is opened.
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<P>6. <I>Action taken date—loan purchased.</I> For covered loans purchased, a financial institution reports the date of purchase.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple properties with one property taken as security.</I> If a covered loan is related to more than one property, but only one property is taken as security (or, in the case of an application, proposed to be taken as security), a financial institution reports the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for the property taken as or proposed to be taken as security. A financial institution does not report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for the property or properties related to the loan that are not taken as or proposed to be taken as security. For example, if a covered loan is secured by property A, and the proceeds are used to purchase or rehabilitate (or to refinance home purchase or home improvement loans related to) property B, the institution reports the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for property A and does not report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for property B.
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<P>2. <I>Multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.</I> If more than one property is taken or, in the case of an application, proposed to be taken as security for a single covered loan, a financial institution reports the covered loan or application in a single entry on its loan/application register and provides the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for one of the properties taken as security that contains a dwelling. A financial institution does not report information about the other properties taken as security. If an institution is required to report specific information about the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9), the institution reports the information that relates to the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) (or, if the transaction is partially exempt under § 1003.3(d) and no data are reported pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(9), the property that the institution would have identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) if the transaction were not partially exempt). For example, Financial Institution A originated a covered loan that is secured by both property A and property B, each of which contains a dwelling. Financial Institution A reports the loan as one entry on its loan/application register, reporting the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) for either property A or property B. If Financial Institution A elects to report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) about property A, Financial Institution A also reports the information required by § 1003.4(a)(5), (6), (14), (29), and (30) related to property A. For aspects of the entries that do not refer to the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) (<I>i.e.,</I> § 1003.4(a)(1) through (4), (7), (8), (10) through (13), (15) through (28), and (31) through (38)), Financial Institution A reports the information applicable to the covered loan or application and not information that relates only to the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9).
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<P>3. <I>Multifamily dwellings.</I> A single multifamily dwelling may have more than one postal address. For example, three apartment buildings, each with a different street address, comprise a single multifamily dwelling that secures a covered loan. For the purposes of § 1003.4(a)(9), a financial institution reports the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) in the same manner described in comment 4(a)(9)-2.
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<P>4. <I>Loans purchased from another institution.</I> The requirement to report the property location information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) applies not only to applications and originations but also to purchased covered loans.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Manufactured home.</I> If the site of a manufactured home has not been identified, a financial institution complies by reporting that the information required by § 1003.4(a)(9) is not applicable.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) requires a financial institution to report the property address of the location of the property securing a covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure a covered loan. The address should correspond to the property identified on the legal obligation related to the covered loan. For applications that did not result in an origination, the address should correspond to the location of the property proposed to secure the loan as identified by the applicant. For example, assume a loan is secured by a property located at 123 Main Street, and the applicant's or borrower's mailing address is a post office box. The financial institution should not report the post office box, and should report 123 Main Street.
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<P>2. <I>Property address—format.</I> A financial institution complies with the requirements in § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) by reporting the following information about the physical location of the property securing the loan.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Street address.</I> When reporting the street address of the property, a financial institution complies by including, as applicable, the primary address number, the predirectional, the street name, street prefixes and/or suffixes, the postdirectional, the secondary address identifier, and the secondary address, as applicable. For example, 100 N Main ST Apt 1.
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<P>ii. <I>City name.</I> A financial institution complies by reporting the name of the city in which the property is located.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>State name.</I> A financial institution complies by reporting the two letter State code for the State in which the property is located, using the U.S. Postal Service official State abbreviations.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Zip Code.</I> A financial institution complies by reporting the five or nine digit Zip Code in which the property is located.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Property address—not applicable.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the property address of the property securing the covered loan is not known. For example, if the property did not have a property address at closing or if the applicant did not provide the property address of the property to the financial institution before the application was denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(i) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Optional reporting.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(9)(ii) requires a financial institution to report the State, county, and census tract of the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan if the property is located in an MSA or MD in which the financial institution has a home or branch office or if the institution is subject to § 1003.4(e). Section 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(C) further limits the requirement to report census tract to covered loans secured by or applications proposed to be secured by properties located in counties with a population of more than 30,000 according to the most recent decennial census conducted by the U.S. Census Bureau. For transactions for which State, county, or census tract reporting is not required under § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii) or (e), financial institutions may report that the requirement is not applicable, or they may voluntarily report the State, county, or census tract information.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applications—State not provided.</I> When reporting an application, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(A) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the State in which the property is located was not known before the application was denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A financial institution complies by reporting the five-digit Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) numerical county code.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applications—county not provided.</I> When reporting an application, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(B) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the county in which the property is located was not known before the application was denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(9)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Census tract numbers are defined by the U.S. Census Bureau. A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(C) if it uses the boundaries and codes in effect on January 1 of the calendar year covered by the loan/application register that it is reporting.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applications—census tract not provided.</I> When reporting an application, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(C) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the census tract in which the property is located was not known before the application was denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(10)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicant data—general.</I> Refer to appendix B to this part for instructions on collection of an applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transition rule for applicant data collected prior to January 1, 2018.</I> If a financial institution receives an application prior to January 1, 2018, but final action is taken on or after January 1, 2018, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(i) and (b) if it collects the information in accordance with the requirements in effect at the time the information was collected. For example, if a financial institution receives an application on November 15, 2017, collects the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex in accordance with the instructions in effect on that date, and takes final action on the application on January 5, 2018, the financial institution has complied with the requirements of § 1003.4(a)(10)(i) and (b), even though those instructions changed after the information was collected but before the date of final action. However, if, in this example, the financial institution collected the applicant's ethnicity, race, and sex on or after January 1, 2018, § 1003.4(a)(10)(i) and (b) requires the financial institution to collect the information in accordance with the amended instructions.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(10)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicant data—completion by financial institution.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(ii) by reporting the applicant's age, as of the application date under § 1003.4(a)(1)(ii), as the number of whole years derived from the date of birth as shown on the application form. For example, if an applicant provides a date of birth of 01/15/1970 on the application form that the financial institution receives on 01/14/2015, the institution reports 44 as the applicant's age.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicant data—co-applicant.</I> If there are no co-applicants, the financial institution reports that there is no co-applicant. If there is more than one co-applicant, the financial institution reports the age only for the first co-applicant listed on the application form. A co-applicant may provide an absent co-applicant's age on behalf of the absent co-applicant.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Applicant data—purchased loan.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(ii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when reporting a purchased loan for which the institution chooses not to report the age.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Applicant data—non-natural person.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(ii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the applicant or co-applicant is not a natural person (for example, a corporation, partnership, or trust). For example, for a transaction involving a trust, a financial institution reports that the requirement to report the applicant's age is not applicable if the trust is the applicant. On the other hand, if the applicant is a natural person, and is the beneficiary of a trust, a financial institution reports the applicant's age.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Applicant data—guarantor.</I> For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(10)(ii), if a covered loan or application includes a guarantor, a financial institution does not report the guarantor's age.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(10)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Income data—income relied on.</I> When a financial institution evaluates income as part of a credit decision, it reports the gross annual income relied on in making the credit decision. For example, if an institution relies on an applicant's salary to compute a debt-to-income ratio but also relies on the applicant's annual bonus to evaluate creditworthiness, the institution reports the salary and the bonus to the extent relied upon. If an institution relies on only a portion of an applicant's income in its determination, it does not report that portion of income not relied on. For example, if an institution, pursuant to lender and investor guidelines, does not rely on an applicant's commission income because it has been earned for less than 12 months, the institution does not include the applicant's commission income in the income reported. Likewise, if an institution relies on the verified gross income of the applicant in making the credit decision, then the institution reports the verified gross income. Similarly, if an institution relies on the income of a cosigner to evaluate creditworthiness, the institution includes the cosigner's income to the extent relied upon. An institution, however, does not include the income of a guarantor who is only secondarily liable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Income data—co-applicant.</I> If two persons jointly apply for a covered loan and both list income on the application, but the financial institution relies on the income of only one applicant in evaluating creditworthiness, the institution reports only the income relied on.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Income data—loan to employee.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(iii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable for a covered loan to, or an application from, its employee to protect the employee's privacy, even though the institution relied on the employee's income in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Income data—assets.</I> A financial institution does not include as income amounts considered in making a credit decision based on factors that an institution relies on in addition to income, such as amounts derived from underwriting calculations of the potential annuitization or depletion of an applicant's remaining assets. Actual distributions from retirement accounts or other assets that are relied on by the financial institution as income should be reported as income. The interpretation of income in this paragraph does not affect § 1003.4(a)(23), which requires, except for purchased covered loans, the collection of the ratio of the applicant's or borrower's total monthly debt to the total monthly income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Income data—credit decision not made.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(10)(iii) requires a financial institution to report the gross annual income relied on in processing the application if a credit decision was not made. For example, assume an institution received an application that included an applicant's self-reported income, but the application was withdrawn before a credit decision that would have considered income was made. The financial institution reports the income information relied on in processing the application at the time that the application was withdrawn or the file was closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Income data—credit decision not requiring consideration of income.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(iii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the application did not or would not have required a credit decision that considered income under the financial institution's policies and procedures. For example, if the financial institution's policies and procedures do not consider income for a streamlined refinance program, the institution reports that the requirement is not applicable, even if the institution received income information from the applicant.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Income data—non-natural person.</I> A financial institution reports that the requirement is not applicable when the applicant or co-applicant is not a natural person (<I>e.g.,</I> a corporation, partnership, or trust). For example, for a transaction involving a trust, a financial institution reports that the requirement to report income data is not applicable if the trust is the applicant. On the other hand, if the applicant is a natural person, and is the beneficiary of a trust, a financial institution is required to report the information described in § 1003.4(a)(10)(iii).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Income data—multifamily properties.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(iii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when the covered loan is secured by, or application is proposed to be secured by, a multifamily dwelling.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Income data—purchased loans.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(10)(iii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when reporting a purchased covered loan for which the institution chooses not to report the income.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Income data—rounding.</I> A financial institution complies by reporting the dollar amount of the income in thousands, rounded to the nearest thousand ($500 rounds up to the next $1,000). For example, $35,500 is reported as 36.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(11)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Type of purchaser—loan-participation interests sold to more than one entity.</I> A financial institution that originates a covered loan, and then sells it to more than one entity, reports the “type of purchaser” based on the entity purchasing the greatest interest, if any. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(11), if a financial institution sells some interest or interests in a covered loan but retains a majority interest in that loan, it does not report the sale.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Type of purchaser—swapped covered loans.</I> Covered loans “swapped” for mortgage-backed securities are to be treated as sales; the purchaser is the entity receiving the covered loans that are swapped.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Type of purchaser—affiliate institution.</I> For purposes of complying with § 1003.4(a)(11), the term “affiliate” means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Type of purchaser—private securitizations.</I> A financial institution that knows or reasonably believes that the covered loan it is selling will be securitized by the entity purchasing the covered loan, other than by one of the government-sponsored enterprises, reports the purchasing entity type as a private securitizer regardless of the type or affiliation of the purchasing entity. Knowledge or reasonable belief could, for example, be based on the purchase agreement or other related documents, the financial institution's previous transactions with the purchaser, or the purchaser's role as a securitizer (such as an investment bank). If a financial institution selling a covered loan does not know or reasonably believe that the purchaser will securitize the loan, and the seller knows that the purchaser frequently holds or disposes of loans by means other than securitization, then the financial institution should report the covered loan as purchased by, as appropriate, a commercial bank, savings bank, savings association, life insurance company, credit union, mortgage company, finance company, affiliate institution, or other type of purchaser.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Type of purchaser—mortgage company.</I> For purposes of complying with § 1003.4(a)(11), a mortgage company means a nondepository institution that purchases covered loans and typically originates such loans. A mortgage company might be an affiliate or a subsidiary of a bank holding company or thrift holding company, or it might be an independent mortgage company. Regardless, a financial institution reports the purchasing entity type as a mortgage company, unless the mortgage company is an affiliate of the seller institution, in which case the seller institution should report the loan as purchased by an affiliate institution.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Purchases by subsidiaries.</I> A financial institution that sells a covered loan to its subsidiary that is a commercial bank, savings bank, or savings association, should report the covered loan as purchased by a commercial bank, savings bank, or savings association. A financial institution that sells a covered loan to its subsidiary that is a life insurance company, should report the covered loan as purchased by a life insurance company. A financial institution that sells a covered loan to its subsidiary that is a credit union, mortgage company, or finance company, should report the covered loan as purchased by a credit union, mortgage company, or finance company. If the subsidiary that purchases the covered loan is not a commercial bank, savings bank, savings association, life insurance company, credit union, mortgage company, or finance company, the seller institution should report the loan as purchased by other type of purchaser. The financial institution should report the covered loan as purchased by an affiliate institution when the subsidiary is an affiliate of the seller institution.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Type of purchaser—bank holding company or thrift holding company.</I> When a financial institution sells a covered loan to a bank holding company or thrift holding company (rather than to one of its subsidiaries), it should report the loan as purchased by other type of purchaser, unless the bank holding company or thrift holding company is an affiliate of the seller institution, in which case the seller institution should report the loan as purchased by an affiliate institution.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Repurchased covered loans.</I> See comment 4(a)-5 regarding reporting requirements when a covered loan is repurchased by the originating financial institution.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Type of purchaser—quarterly recording.</I> For purposes of recording the type of purchaser within 30 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter pursuant to § 1003.4(f), a financial institution records that the requirement is not applicable if the institution originated or purchased a covered loan and did not sell it during the calendar quarter for which the institution is recording the data. If the financial institution sells the covered loan in a subsequent quarter of the same calendar year, the financial institution records the type of purchaser on its loan/application register for the quarter in which the covered loan was sold. If a financial institution sells the covered loan in a succeeding year, the financial institution should not record the sale.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Type of purchaser—not applicable.</I> A financial institution reports that the requirement is not applicable for applications that were denied, withdrawn, closed for incompleteness or approved but not accepted by the applicant; and for preapproval requests that were denied or approved but not accepted by the applicant. A financial institution also reports that the requirement is not applicable if the institution originated or purchased a covered loan and did not sell it during that same calendar year.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(12)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> Average prime offer rates are annual percentage rates derived from average interest rates and other loan pricing terms offered to borrowers by a set of creditors for mortgage loans that have low-risk pricing characteristics. Other loan pricing terms may include commonly used indices, margins, and initial fixed-rate periods for variable-rate transactions. Relevant pricing characteristics may include a consumer's credit history and transaction characteristics such as the loan-to-value ratio, owner-occupant status, and purpose of the transaction. To obtain average prime offer rates, the Bureau uses creditor data by transaction type.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Bureau tables.</I> The Bureau publishes tables of current and historic average prime offer rates by transaction type on the FFIEC's website (<I>http://www.ffiec.gov/hmda</I>) and the Bureau's website (<I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov</I>). The Bureau calculates an annual percentage rate, consistent with Regulation Z (<I>see</I> 12 CFR 1026.22 and 12 CFR part 1026, appendix J), for each transaction type for which pricing terms are available from the creditor data described in comment 4(a)(12)-1. The Bureau uses loan pricing terms available in the creditor data and other information to estimate annual percentage rates for other types of transactions for which the creditor data are limited or not available. The Bureau publishes on the FFIEC's website and the Bureau's website the methodology it uses to arrive at these estimates. A financial institution may either use the average prime offer rates published by the Bureau or determine average prime offer rates itself by employing the methodology published on the FFIEC's website and the Bureau's website. A financial institution that determines average prime offer rates itself, however, is responsible for correctly determining the rates in accordance with the published methodology.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate spread calculation—annual percentage rate.</I> The requirements of § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) refer to the covered loan's annual percentage rate. For closed-end mortgage loans, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by relying on the annual percentage rate for the covered loan, as calculated and disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18 or 1026.38. For open-end lines of credit, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by relying on the annual percentage rate for the covered loan, as calculated and disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.6. If multiple annual percentage rates are calculated and disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.6, a financial institution relies on the annual percentage rate in effect at the time of account opening. If an open-end line of credit has a variable-rate feature and a fixed-rate and -term payment option during the draw period, a financial institution relies on the annual percentage rate in effect at the time of account opening under the variable-rate feature, which would be a discounted initial rate if one is offered under the variable-rate feature. See comment 4(a)(12)-8 for guidance regarding the annual percentage rate a financial institution relies on in the case of an application or preapproval request that was approved but not accepted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rate spread calculation—comparable transaction.</I> The rate spread calculation in § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) is defined by reference to a comparable transaction, which is determined according to the covered loan's amortization type (<I>i.e.,</I> fixed- or variable-rate) and loan term. For covered loans that are open-end lines of credit, § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) requires a financial institution to identify the most closely comparable closed-end transaction. The tables of average prime offer rates published by the Bureau (see comment 4(a)(12)-2) provide additional detail about how to identify the comparable transaction.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate transactions.</I> For fixed-rate covered loans, the term for identifying the comparable transaction is the transaction's maturity (<I>i.e.,</I> the period until the last payment will be due under the closed-end mortgage loan contract or open-end line of credit agreement). If an open-end credit plan has a fixed rate but no definite plan length, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by using a 30-year fixed-rate loan as the most closely comparable closed-end transaction. Financial institutions may refer to the table on the FFIEC website entitled “Average Prime Offer Rates-Fixed” when identifying a comparable fixed-rate transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Variable-rate transactions.</I> For variable-rate covered loans, the term for identifying the comparable transaction is the initial, fixed-rate period (<I>i.e.,</I> the period until the first scheduled rate adjustment). For example, five years is the relevant term for a variable-rate transaction with a five-year, fixed-rate introductory period that is amortized over thirty years. Financial institutions may refer to the table on the FFIEC website entitled “Average Prime Offer Rates-Variable” when identifying a comparable variable-rate transaction. If an open-end line of credit has a variable rate and an optional, fixed-rate feature, a financial institution uses the rate table for variable-rate transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Term not in whole years.</I> When a covered loan's term to maturity (or, for a variable-rate transaction, the initial fixed-rate period) is not in whole years, the financial institution uses the number of whole years closest to the actual loan term or, if the actual loan term is exactly halfway between two whole years, by using the shorter loan term. For example, for a loan term of ten years and three months, the relevant term is ten years; for a loan term of ten years and nine months, the relevant term is 11 years; for a loan term of ten years and six months, the relevant term is ten years. If a loan term includes an odd number of days, in addition to an odd number of months, the financial institution rounds to the nearest whole month, or rounds down if the number of odd days is exactly halfway between two months. The financial institution rounds to one year any covered loan with a term shorter than six months, including variable-rate covered loans with no initial, fixed-rate periods. For example, if an open-end covered loan has a rate that varies according to an index plus a margin, with no introductory, fixed-rate period, the transaction term is one year.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Amortization period longer than loan term.</I> If the amortization period of a covered loan is longer than the term of the transaction to maturity, § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) requires a financial institution to use the loan term to determine the applicable average prime offer rate. For example, assume a financial institution originates a closed-end, fixed-rate loan that has a term to maturity of five years and a thirty-year amortization period that results in a balloon payment. The financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by using the five-year loan term.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rate-set date.</I> The relevant date to use to determine the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction is the date on which the interest rate was set by the financial institution for the final time before final action is taken (<I>i.e.,</I> the application was approved but not accepted or the covered loan was originated).
</P>
<P>i. <I>Rate-lock agreement.</I> If an interest rate is set pursuant to a “lock-in” agreement between the financial institution and the borrower, then the date on which the agreement fixes the interest rate is the date the rate was set. Except as provided in comment 4(a)(12)-5.ii, if a rate is reset after a lock-in agreement is executed (for example, because the borrower exercises a float-down option or the agreement expires), then the relevant date is the date the financial institution exercises discretion in setting the rate for the final time before final action is taken. The same rule applies when a rate-lock agreement is extended and the rate is reset at the same rate, regardless of whether market rates have increased, decreased, or remained the same since the initial rate was set. If no lock-in agreement is executed, then the relevant date is the date on which the institution sets the rate for the final time before final action is taken.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Change in loan program.</I> If a financial institution issues a rate-lock commitment under one loan program, the borrower subsequently changes to another program that is subject to different pricing terms, and the financial institution changes the rate promised to the borrower under the rate-lock commitment accordingly, the rate-set date is the date of the program change. However, if the financial institution changes the promised rate to the rate that would have been available to the borrower under the new program on the date of the original rate-lock commitment, then that is the date the rate is set, provided the financial institution consistently follows that practice in all such cases or the original rate-lock agreement so provided. For example, assume that a borrower locks a rate of 2.5 percent on June 1 for a 30-year, variable-rate loan with a five-year, fixed-rate introductory period. On June 15, the borrower decides to switch to a 30-year, fixed-rate loan, and the rate available to the borrower for that product on June 15 is 4.0 percent. On June 1, the 30-year, fixed-rate loan would have been available to the borrower at a rate of 3.5 percent. If the financial institution offers the borrower the 3.5 percent rate (<I>i.e.,</I> the rate that would have been available to the borrower for the fixed-rate product on June 1, the date of the original rate-lock) because the original agreement so provided or because the financial institution consistently follows that practice for borrowers who change loan programs, then the financial institution should use June 1 as the rate-set date. In all other cases, the financial institution should use June 15 as the rate-set date.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Brokered loans.</I> When a financial institution has reporting responsibility for an application for a covered loan that it received from a broker, as discussed in comment 4(a)-2 (<I>e.g.,</I> because the financial institution makes a credit decision prior to closing or account opening), the rate-set date is the last date the financial institution set the rate with the broker, not the date the broker set the borrower's rate.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Compare the annual percentage rate to the average prime offer rate.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(12)(i) requires a financial institution to compare the covered loan's annual percentage rate to the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for the comparable transaction as of the rate-set date. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(12)(i), the most recently available rate means the average prime offer rate set forth in the applicable table with the most recent effective date as of the date the interest rate was set. However, § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) does not permit a financial institution to use an average prime offer rate before its effective date.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Rate spread—scope of requirement.</I> If the covered loan is an assumption, reverse mortgage, a purchased loan, or is not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. If the application did not result in an origination for a reason other than the application was approved but not accepted by the applicant, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the rate spread. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Application or preapproval request approved but not accepted.</I> In the case of an application or preapproval request that was approved but not accepted, § 1003.4(a)(12) requires a financial institution to report the applicable rate spread. In such cases, the financial institution would provide early disclosures under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18 or 1026.37 (for closed-end mortgage loans), or 1026.40 (for open-end lines of credit), but might never provide any subsequent disclosures. In such cases where no subsequent disclosures are provided, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by relying on the annual percentage rate for the application or preapproval request, as calculated and disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18 or 1026.37 (for closed-end mortgage loans), or 1026.40 (for open-end lines of credit), as applicable. For transactions subject to Regulation C for which no disclosures under Regulation Z are required, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Corrected disclosures.</I> In the case of a covered loan or an application that was approved but not accepted, if the annual percentage rate changes because a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(a), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(a)(2), under 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), or under 12 CFR 1026.6(a), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(12)(i) by comparing the corrected and disclosed annual percentage rate to the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for a comparable transaction as of the rate-set date, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which final action is taken. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(12), the date the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date the disclosure was mailed or delivered to the borrower in person; the financial institution's method of delivery does not affect the date provided. For example, where a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), the date provided is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(a)(3)(i). The provision of a corrected disclosure does not affect how a financial institution determines the rate-set date. <I>See</I> comment 4(a)(12)-5. For example:
</P>
<P>i. In the case of a financial institution's annual loan/application register submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), that reflects a corrected annual percentage rate, the financial institution reports the difference between the corrected annual percentage rate and the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for a comparable transaction as of the rate-set date only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which final action is taken.
</P>
<P>ii. In the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), that reflects a corrected annual percentage rate, the financial institution reports the difference between the corrected annual percentage rate and the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for a comparable transaction as of the rate-set date only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the quarter in which final action is taken. The financial institution does not report the difference between the corrected annual percentage rate and the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for a comparable transaction as of the rate-set date if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower after the end of the quarter in which final action is taken, even if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the difference between the corrected annual percentage rate and the most recently available average prime offer rate that was in effect for a comparable transaction as of the rate-set date on its annual loan/application register, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which final action is taken.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(13)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>HOEPA status—not applicable.</I> If the covered loan is not subject to the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act of 1994, as implemented in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(13) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. If an application did not result in an origination, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(13) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(14)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determining lien status for applications and covered loans originated and purchased.</I>
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<P>i. Financial institutions are required to report lien status for covered loans they originate and purchase and applications that do not result in originations (preapproval requests that are approved but not accepted, preapproval requests that are denied, applications that are approved but not accepted, denied, withdrawn, or closed for incompleteness). For covered loans purchased by a financial institution, lien status is determined by reference to the best information readily available to the financial institution at the time of purchase. For covered loans that a financial institution originates and applications that do not result in originations, lien status is determined by reference to the best information readily available to the financial institution at the time final action is taken and to the financial institution's own procedures. Thus, financial institutions may rely on the title search they routinely perform as part of their underwriting procedures—for example, for home purchase loans. Regulation C does not require financial institutions to perform title searches solely to comply with HMDA reporting requirements. Financial institutions may rely on other information that is readily available to them at the time final action is taken and that they reasonably believe is accurate, such as the applicant's statement on the application or the applicant's credit report. For example, where the applicant indicates on the application that there is a mortgage on the property or where the applicant's credit report shows that the applicant has a mortgage—and that mortgage will not be paid off as part of the transaction—the financial institution may assume that the loan it originates is secured by a subordinate lien. If the same application did not result in an origination—for example, because the application was denied or withdrawn—the financial institution would report the application as an application for a subordinate-lien loan.
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<P>ii. Financial institutions may also consider their established procedures when determining lien status for applications that do not result in originations. For example, assume an applicant applies to a financial institution to refinance a $100,000 first mortgage; the applicant also has an open-end line of credit for $20,000. If the financial institution's practice in such a case is to ensure that it will have first-lien position—through a subordination agreement with the holder of the lien securing the open-end line of credit—then the financial institution should report the application as an application for a first-lien covered loan.
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<P>2. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(15)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit score—relied on.</I> Except for purchased covered loans and partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(15) requires a financial institution to report the credit score or scores relied on in making the credit decision and information about the scoring model used to generate each score. A financial institution relies on a credit score in making the credit decision if the credit score was a factor in the credit decision even if it was not a dispositive factor. For example, if a credit score is one of multiple factors in a financial institution's credit decision, the financial institution has relied on the credit score even if the financial institution denies the application because one or more underwriting requirements other than the credit score are not satisfied.
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<P>2. <I>Credit score—multiple credit scores.</I> When a financial institution obtains or creates two or more credit scores for a single applicant or borrower but relies on only one score in making the credit decision (for example, by relying on the lowest, highest, most recent, or average of all of the scores), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that credit score and information about the scoring model used. When a financial institution uses more than one credit scoring model and combines the scores into a composite credit score that it relies on, the financial institution reports that score and reports that more than one credit scoring model was used. When a financial institution obtains or creates two or more credit scores for an applicant or borrower and relies on multiple scores for the applicant or borrower in making the credit decision (for example, by relying on a scoring grid that considers each of the scores obtained or created for the applicant or borrower without combining the scores into a composite score), § 1003.4(a)(15) requires the financial institution to report one of the credit scores for the applicant or borrower that was relied on in making the credit decision. In choosing which credit score to report in this circumstance, a financial institution need not use the same approach for its entire HMDA submission, but it should be generally consistent (such as by routinely using one approach within a particular division of the institution or for a category of covered loans). In instances such as these, the financial institution should report the name and version of the credit scoring model for the score reported.
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<P>3. <I>Credit score—multiple applicants or borrowers.</I> In a transaction involving two or more applicants or borrowers for whom the financial institution obtains or creates a single credit score and relies on that credit score in making the credit decision for the transaction, the institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that credit score for the applicant and reporting that the requirement is not applicable for the first co-applicant or, at the financial institution's discretion, by reporting that credit score for the first co-applicant and reporting that the requirement is not applicable for the applicant. Otherwise, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting a credit score for the applicant that it relied on in making the credit decision, if any, and a credit score for the first co-applicant that it relied on in making the credit decision, if any. To illustrate, assume a transaction involves one applicant and one co-applicant and that the financial institution obtains or creates two credit scores for the applicant and two credit scores for the co-applicant. Assume further that the financial institution relies on a single credit score that is the lowest, highest, most recent, or average of all of the credit scores obtained or created to make the credit decision for the transaction. The financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that credit score and information about the scoring model used for the applicant and reporting that the requirement is not applicable for the first co-applicant or, at the financial institution's discretion, by reporting the data for the first co-applicant and reporting that the requirement is not applicable for the applicant. Alternatively, assume a transaction involves one applicant and one co-applicant and that the financial institution obtains or creates three credit scores for the applicant and three credit scores for the co-applicant. Assume further that the financial institution relies on the middle credit score for the applicant and the middle credit score for the co-applicant to make the credit decision for the transaction. The financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting both the middle score for the applicant and the middle score for the co-applicant.
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<P>4. <I>Transactions for which no credit decision was made.</I> If a file was closed for incompleteness or the application was withdrawn before a credit decision was made, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained or created a credit score for the applicant or co-applicant. For example, if a file is closed for incompleteness and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained or created a credit score for the applicant or co-applicant. Similarly, if an application was withdrawn by the applicant before a credit decision was made and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained or created a credit score for the applicant or co-applicant.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transactions for which no credit score was relied on.</I> If a financial institution makes a credit decision without relying on a credit score for the applicant or borrower, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
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<P>6. <I>Purchased covered loan.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when the covered loan is a purchased covered loan.
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<P>7. <I>Non-natural person.</I> When the applicant and co-applicant, if applicable, are not natural persons, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(15) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
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<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(16)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reason for denial—general.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(16) by reporting the principal reason or reasons it denied the application, indicating up to four reasons. The financial institution should report only the principal reason or reasons it denied the application, even if there are fewer than four reasons. For example, if a financial institution denies the application because of the applicant's credit history and debt-to-income ratio, the financial institution need only report these two principal reasons. The reasons reported must be specific and accurately describe the principal reason or reasons the financial institution denied the application.
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<P>2. <I>Reason for denial—preapproval request denied.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(16) requires a financial institution to report the principal reason or reasons it denied the application. A request for a preapproval under a preapproval program as defined by § 1003.2(b)(2) is an application. If a financial institution denies a preapproval request, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(16) by reporting the reason or reasons it denied the preapproval request.
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<P>3. <I>Reason for denial—adverse action model form or similar form.</I> If a financial institution chooses to provide the applicant the reason or reasons it denied the application using the model form contained in appendix C to Regulation B (Form C-1, Sample Notice of Action Taken and Statement of Reasons) or a similar form, § 1003.4(a)(16) requires the financial institution to report the reason or reasons that were specified on the form by the financial institution, which includes reporting the “Other” reason or reasons that were specified on the form by the financial institution, if applicable. If a financial institution chooses to provide a disclosure of the applicant's right to a statement of specific reasons using the model form contained in appendix C to Regulation B (Form C-5, Sample Disclosure of Right to Request Specific Reasons for Credit Denial) or a similar form, or chooses to provide the denial reason or reasons orally under Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.9(a)(2)(ii), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(16) by entering the principal reason or reasons it denied the application.
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<P>4. <I>Reason for denial—scope of requirement.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(16) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the action taken on the application, pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(8), is not a denial. For example, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(16) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the loan is originated or purchased by the financial institution, or the application or preapproval request was approved but not accepted, or the application was withdrawn before a credit decision was made, or the file was closed for incompleteness. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the principal reason or reasons it denied an application. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(17)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total loan costs—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(17)(i) does not require financial institutions to report the total loan costs for applications, or for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.43(c), and 12 CFR 1026.19(f), such as open-end lines of credit, reverse mortgages, or loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(17)(i) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the total loan costs. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purchased loans—applications received prior to the integrated disclosure effective date.</I> For purchased covered loans subject to this reporting requirement for which applications were received by the selling entity prior to the effective date of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(17)(i) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction.
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<P>3. <I>Corrected disclosures.</I> If the amount of total loan costs changes because a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(17)(i) by reporting the corrected amount, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which closing occurs. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(17)(i), the date the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(a)(3)(i). For example:
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<P>i. In the case of a financial institution's annual loan/application register submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of total loan costs only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurs.
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<P>ii. In the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of total loan costs only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the quarter in which closing occurs. The financial institution does not report the corrected amount of total loan costs in its quarterly submission if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower after the end of the quarter in which closing occurs, even if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the corrected amount of total loan costs on its annual loan/application register, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurs.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(17)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total points and fees—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(17)(ii) does not require financial institutions to report the total points and fees for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.43(c), such as open-end lines of credit, reverse mortgages, or loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes, or for applications or purchased covered loans. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(17)(ii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the total points and fees. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Total points and fees cure mechanism.</I> For covered loans subject to this reporting requirement, if a financial institution determines that the transaction's total points and fees exceeded the applicable limit and cures the overage pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.43(e)(3)(iii) and (iv), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(17)(ii) by reporting the correct amount of total points and fees, provided that the cure was effected during the same reporting period in which closing occurred. For example, in the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission, the financial institution reports the revised amount of total points and fees only if it cured the overage prior to the end of the quarter in which closing occurred. The financial institution does not report the revised amount of total points and fees in its quarterly submission if it cured the overage after the end of the quarter, even if the cure was effected prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the revised amount of total points and fees on its annual loan/application register.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(18)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Origination charges—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(18) does not require financial institutions to report the total borrower-paid origination charges for applications, or for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), such as open-end lines of credit, reverse mortgages, or loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(18) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the total borrower-paid origination charges. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purchased loans—applications received prior to the integrated disclosure effective date.</I> For purchased covered loans subject to this reporting requirement for which applications were received by the selling entity prior to the effective date of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(18) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction.
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<P>3. <I>Corrected disclosures.</I> If the total amount of borrower-paid origination charges changes because a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(18) by reporting the corrected amount, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which closing occurs. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(18), the date the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(a)(3)(i). For example:
</P>
<P>i. In the case of a financial institution's annual loan/application register submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of borrower-paid origination charges only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurs.
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<P>ii. In the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of borrower-paid origination charges only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the quarter in which closing occurs. The financial institution does not report the corrected amount of borrower-paid origination charges in its quarterly submission if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower after the end of the quarter in which closing occurs, even if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the corrected amount of borrower-paid origination charges on its annual loan/application register, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurs.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(19)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Discount points—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(19) does not require financial institutions to report the discount points for applications, or for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), such as open-end lines of credit, reverse mortgages, or loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(19) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the discount points. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purchased loans—applications received prior to the integrated disclosure effective date.</I> For purchased covered loans subject to this reporting requirement for which applications were received by the selling entity prior to the effective date of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(19) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Corrected disclosures.</I> If the amount of discount points changes because a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(19) by reporting the corrected amount, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which closing occurs. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(19), the date the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(a)(3)(i). For example:
</P>
<P>i. In the case of a financial institution's annual loan/application register submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of discount points only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurred.
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<P>ii. In the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of discount points only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the quarter in which closing occurred. The financial institution does not report the corrected amount of discount points in its quarterly submission if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower after the end of the quarter in which closing occurred, even if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the corrected amount of discount points on its annual loan/application register, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurred.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(20)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Lender credits—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(20) does not require financial institutions to report lender credits for applications, or for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), such as open-end lines of credit, reverse mortgages, or loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(20) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report lender credits. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Purchased loans—applications received prior to the integrated disclosure effective date.</I> For purchased covered loans subject to this reporting requirement for which applications were received by the selling entity prior to the effective date of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(20) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Corrected disclosures.</I> If the amount of lender credits changes because a financial institution provides a corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(20) by reporting the corrected amount, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which closing occurred. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(20), the date the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.38(a)(3)(i). For example:
</P>
<P>i. In the case of a financial institution's annual loan/application register submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of lender credits only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurred.
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<P>ii. In the case of a financial institution's quarterly submission made pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), if the financial institution provides a corrected disclosure to the borrower to reflect a refund made pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the financial institution reports the corrected amount of lender credits only if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the quarter in which closing occurred. The financial institution does not report the corrected amount of lender credits in its quarterly submission if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower after the end of the quarter in which closing occurred, even if the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the deadline for timely submission of the financial institution's quarterly data. However, the financial institution reports the corrected amount of lender credits on its annual loan/application register, provided that the corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the calendar year in which closing occurred.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(21)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Interest rate—disclosures.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(21) requires a financial institution to identify the interest rate applicable to the approved application, or to the covered loan at closing or account opening. For covered loans or applications subject to the integrated mortgage disclosure requirements of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(e) and (f), a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(21) by reporting the interest rate disclosed on the applicable disclosure. For covered loans or approved applications for which disclosures were provided pursuant to both the early and the final disclosure requirements in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(e) and (f), a financial institution reports the interest rate disclosed pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(f). A financial institution may rely on the definitions and commentary to the sections of Regulation Z relevant to the disclosure of the interest rate pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(e) or (f). If a financial institution provides a revised or corrected version of the disclosures required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(e) or (f), pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) or (f)(2), as applicable, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(21) by reporting the interest rate on the revised or corrected disclosure, provided that the revised or corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower prior to the end of the reporting period in which final action is taken. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(21), the date the revised or corrected disclosure was provided to the borrower is the date disclosed pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.37(a)(4) or 1026.38(a)(3)(i), as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applications.</I> In the case of an application, § 1003.4(a)(21) requires a financial institution to report the applicable interest rate only if the application has been approved by the financial institution but not accepted by the borrower. In such cases, a financial institution reports the interest rate applicable at the time that the application was approved by the financial institution. A financial institution may report the interest rate appearing on the disclosure provided pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.19(e) or (f) if such disclosure accurately reflects the interest rate at the time the application was approved. For applications that have been denied or withdrawn, or files closed for incompleteness, a financial institution reports that no interest rate was applicable to the application.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Adjustable rate—interest rate unknown.</I> Except as provided in comment 4(a)(21)-1, for adjustable-rate covered loans or applications, if the interest rate is unknown at the time that the application was approved, or at closing or account opening, a financial institution reports the fully-indexed rate based on the index applicable to the covered loan or application. For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(21), the fully-indexed rate is the index value and margin at the time that the application was approved, or, for covered loans, at closing or account opening.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(22)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepayment penalty term—scope of requirement.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(22) does not require financial institutions to report the term of any prepayment penalty for transactions not subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, such as loans or lines of credit made primarily for business or commercial purposes, or for reverse mortgages or purchased covered loans. In these cases, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(22) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the term of any prepayment penalty. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transactions for which no prepayment penalty exists.</I> For covered loans or applications that have no prepayment penalty, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(22) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable to the transaction. A financial institution may rely on the definitions and commentary to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.32(b)(6)(i) or (ii) in determining whether the terms of a transaction contain a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(23)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> For covered loans that are not purchased covered loans and that are not partially exempt under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(23) requires a financial institution to report the ratio of the applicant's or borrower's total monthly debt to total monthly income (debt-to-income ratio) relied on in making the credit decision. For example, if a financial institution calculated the applicant's or borrower's debt-to-income ratio twice—once according to the financial institution's own requirements and once according to the requirements of a secondary market investor—and the financial institution relied on the debt-to-income ratio calculated according to the secondary market investor's requirements in making the credit decision, § 1003.4(a)(23) requires the financial institution to report the debt-to-income ratio calculated according to the requirements of the secondary market investor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transactions for which a debt-to-income ratio was one of multiple factors.</I> A financial institution relies on the ratio of the applicant's or borrower's total monthly debt to total monthly income (debt-to-income ratio) in making the credit decision if the debt-to-income ratio was a factor in the credit decision even if it was not a dispositive factor. For example, if the debt-to-income ratio was one of multiple factors in a financial institution's credit decision, the financial institution has relied on the debt-to-income ratio and complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting the debt-to-income ratio, even if the financial institution denied the application because one or more underwriting requirements other than the debt-to-income ratio were not satisfied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions for which no credit decision was made.</I> If a file was closed for incompleteness, or if an application was withdrawn before a credit decision was made, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated the ratio of the applicant's total monthly debt to total monthly income (debt-to-income ratio). For example, if a file was closed for incompleteness and was so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated the applicant's debt-to-income ratio. Similarly, if an application was withdrawn by the applicant before a credit decision was made, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated the applicant's debt-to-income ratio.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which no debt-to-income ratio was relied on.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(23) does not require a financial institution to calculate the ratio of an applicant's or borrower's total monthly debt to total monthly income (debt-to-income ratio), nor does it require a financial institution to rely on an applicant's or borrower's debt-to-income ratio in making a credit decision. If a financial institution made a credit decision without relying on the applicant's or borrower's debt-to-income ratio, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable since no debt-to-income ratio was relied on in connection with the credit decision.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Non-natural person.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when the applicant and co-applicant, if applicable, are not natural persons.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multifamily dwellings.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable for a covered loan secured by, or an application proposed to be secured by, a multifamily dwelling.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Purchased covered loans.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(23) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when reporting a purchased covered loan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(24)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for purchased covered loans and partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(24) requires a financial institution to report the ratio of the total amount of debt secured by the property to the value of the property (combined loan-to-value ratio) relied on in making the credit decision. For example, if a financial institution calculated a combined loan-to-value ratio twice—once according to the financial institution's own requirements and once according to the requirements of a secondary market investor—and the financial institution relied on the combined loan-to-value ratio calculated according to the secondary market investor's requirements in making the credit decision, § 1003.4(a)(24) requires the financial institution to report the combined loan-to-value ratio calculated according to the requirements of the secondary market investor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transactions for which a combined loan-to-value ratio was one of multiple factors.</I> A financial institution relies on the ratio of the total amount of debt secured by the property to the value of the property (combined loan-to-value ratio) in making the credit decision if the combined loan-to-value ratio was a factor in the credit decision, even if it was not a dispositive factor. For example, if the combined loan-to-value ratio is one of multiple factors in a financial institution's credit decision, the financial institution has relied on the combined loan-to-value ratio and complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting the combined loan-to-value ratio, even if the financial institution denies the application because one or more underwriting requirements other than the combined loan-to-value ratio are not satisfied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions for which no credit decision was made.</I> If a file was closed for incompleteness, or if an application was withdrawn before a credit decision was made, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated the ratio of the total amount of debt secured by the property to the value of the property (combined loan-to-value ratio). For example, if a file is closed for incompleteness and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated a combined loan-to-value ratio. Similarly, if an application was withdrawn by the applicant before a credit decision was made and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had calculated a combined loan-to-value ratio.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which no combined loan-to-value ratio was relied on.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(24) does not require a financial institution to calculate the ratio of the total amount of debt secured by the property to the value of the property (combined loan-to-value ratio), nor does it require a financial institution to rely on a combined loan-to-value ratio in making a credit decision. If a financial institution makes a credit decision without relying on a combined loan-to-value ratio, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable since no combined loan-to-value ratio was relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Purchased covered loan.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(24) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when the covered loan is a purchased covered loan.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Property.</I> A financial institution reports the combined loan-to-value ratio relied on in making the credit decision, regardless of which property or properties it used in the combined loan-to-value ratio calculation. The property used in the combined loan-to-value ratio calculation does not need to be the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) and may include more than one property and non-real property. For example, if a financial institution originated a covered loan for the purchase of a multifamily dwelling, the loan was secured by the multifamily dwelling and by non-real property, such as securities, and the financial institution used the multifamily dwelling and the non-real property to calculate the combined loan-to-value ratio that it relied on in making the credit decision, § 1003.4(a)(24) requires the financial institution to report the relied upon ratio. Section 1003.4(a)(24) does not require a financial institution to use a particular combined loan-to-value ratio calculation method but instead requires financial institutions to report the combined loan-to-value ratio relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(25)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amortization and maturity.</I> For a fully amortizing covered loan, the number of months after which the legal obligation matures is the number of months in the amortization schedule, ending with the final payment. Some covered loans do not fully amortize during the maturity term, such as covered loans with a balloon payment; such loans should still be reported using the maturity term rather than the amortization term, even in the case of covered loans that mature before fully amortizing but have reset options. For example, a 30-year fully amortizing covered loan would be reported with a term of “360,” while a five year balloon covered loan would be reported with a loan term of “60.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Non-monthly repayment periods.</I> If a covered loan or application includes a schedule with repayment periods measured in a unit of time other than months, the financial institution should report the covered loan or application term using an equivalent number of whole months without regard for any remainder.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Purchased loans.</I> For a covered loan that was purchased, a financial institution reports the number of months after which the legal obligation matures as measured from the covered loan's origination.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Open-end line of credit.</I> For an open-end line of credit with a definite term, a financial institution reports the number of months from origination until the account termination date, including both the draw and repayment period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Loan term—scope of requirement.</I> For a covered loan or application without a definite term, such as a reverse mortgage, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(25) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the loan term. <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(26)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Types of introductory rates.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(26) requires a financial institution to report the number of months, or proposed number of months in the case of an application, from closing or account opening until the first date the interest rate may change. For example, assume an open-end line of credit contains an introductory or “teaser” interest rate for two months after the date of account opening, after which the interest rate may adjust. In this example, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting the number of months as “2.” Section 1003.4(a)(26) requires a financial institution to report the number of months based on when the first interest rate adjustment may occur, even if an interest rate adjustment is not required to occur at that time and even if the rates that will apply, or the periods for which they will apply, are not known at closing or account opening. For example, if a closed-end mortgage loan with a 30-year term has an adjustable-rate product with an introductory interest rate for the first 60 months, after which the interest rate is permitted, but not required to vary, according to the terms of an index rate, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting the number of months as “60.” Similarly, if a closed-end mortgage loan with a 30-year term is a step-rate product with an introductory interest rate for the first 24 months, after which the interest rate will increase to a different known interest rate for the next 36 months, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting the number of months as “24.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preferred rates.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(26) does not require reporting of introductory interest rate periods based on preferred rates unless the terms of the legal obligation provide that the preferred rate will expire at a certain defined date. Preferred rates include terms of the legal obligation that provide that the initial underlying rate is fixed but that it may increase or decrease upon the occurrence of some future event, such as an employee leaving the employ of the financial institution, the borrower closing an existing deposit account with the financial institution, or the borrower revoking an election to make automated payments. In these cases, because it is not known at the time of closing or account opening whether the future event will occur, and if so, when it will occur, § 1003.4(a)(26) does not require reporting of an introductory interest rate period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Loan or application with a fixed rate.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable for a covered loan with a fixed rate or an application for a covered loan with a fixed rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Purchased loan.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting that requirement is not applicable when the covered loan is a purchased covered loan with a fixed rate.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Non-monthly introductory periods.</I> If a covered loan or application includes an introductory interest rate period measured in a unit of time other than months, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting the introductory interest rate period for the covered loan or application using an equivalent number of whole months without regard for any remainder. For example, assume an open-end line of credit contains an introductory interest rate for 50 days after the date of account opening, after which the interest rate may adjust. In this example, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(26) by reporting the number of months as “1.” The financial institution must report one month for any introductory interest rate period that totals less than one whole month.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(27)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(27) requires reporting of contractual features that would allow payments other than fully amortizing payments. Section 1003.4(a)(27) defines the contractual features by reference to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, but without regard to whether the covered loan is consumer credit, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(17), or is extended to a consumer, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(11), and without regard to whether the property is a dwelling as defined in § 1026.2(a)(19). For example, assume that a financial institution originates a business-purpose transaction that is exempt from Regulation Z pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.3(a)(1), to finance the purchase of a multifamily dwelling, and that there is a balloon payment, as defined by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.18(s)(5)(i), at the end of the loan term. The multifamily dwelling is a dwelling under § 1003.2(f), but not under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19). In this example, the financial institution should report the business-purpose transaction as having a balloon payment under § 1003.4(a)(27)(i), assuming the other requirements of this part are met. Aside from these distinctions, financial institutions may rely on the definitions and related commentary provided in the appropriate sections of Regulation Z referenced in § 1003.4(a)(27) of this part in determining whether the contractual feature should be reported.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(28)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(28) requires a financial institution to report the property value relied on in making the credit decision. For example, if the institution relies on an appraisal or other valuation for the property in calculating the loan-to-value ratio, it reports that value; if the institution relies on the purchase price of the property in calculating the loan-to-value ratio, it reports that value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple property values.</I> When a financial institution obtains two or more valuations of the property securing or proposed to secure the covered loan, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(28) by reporting the value relied on in making the credit decision. For example, when a financial institution obtains an appraisal, an automated valuation model report, and a broker price opinion with different values for the property, it reports the value relied on in making the credit decision. Section § 1003.4(a)(28) does not require a financial institution to use a particular property valuation method, but instead requires a financial institution to report the valuation relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions for which no credit decision was made.</I> If a file was closed for incompleteness or the application was withdrawn before a credit decision was made, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(28) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained a property value. For example, if a file is closed for incompleteness and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(28) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained a property value. Similarly, if an application was withdrawn by the applicant before a credit decision was made and is so reported in accordance with § 1003.4(a)(8), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(28) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, even if the financial institution had obtained a property value.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which no property value was relied on.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(28) does not require a financial institution to obtain a property valuation, nor does it require a financial institution to rely on a property value in making a credit decision. If a financial institution makes a credit decision without relying on a property value, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(28) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable since no property value was relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(29)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Classification under State law.</I> A financial institution should report a covered loan that is or would have been secured only by a manufactured home but not the land on which it is sited as secured by a manufactured home and not land, even if the manufactured home is considered real property under applicable State law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manufactured home community.</I> A manufactured home community that is a multifamily dwelling is not considered a manufactured home for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(29).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Scope of requirement.</I> A financial institution reports that the requirement is not applicable for a covered loan where the dwelling related to the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) is not a manufactured home. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the information specified in § 1003.4(a)(29). <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(30)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Indirect land ownership.</I> Indirect land ownership can occur when the applicant or borrower is or will be a member of a resident-owned community structured as a housing cooperative in which the occupants own an entity that holds the underlying land of the manufactured home community. In such communities, the applicant or borrower may still have a lease and pay rent for the lot on which his or her manufactured home is or will be located, but the property interest type for such an arrangement should be reported as indirect ownership if the applicant is or will be a member of the cooperative that owns the underlying land of the manufactured home community. If an applicant resides or will reside in such a community but is not a member, the property interest type should be reported as a paid leasehold.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Leasehold interest.</I> A leasehold interest could be formalized in a lease with a defined term and specified rent payments, or could arise as a tenancy at will through permission of a land owner without any written, formal arrangement. For example, assume a borrower will locate the manufactured home in a manufactured home community, has a written lease for a lot in that park, and the lease specifies rent payments. In this example, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(30) by reporting a paid leasehold. However, if instead the borrower will locate the manufactured home on land owned by a family member without a written lease and with no agreement as to rent payments, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(30) by reporting an unpaid leasehold.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manufactured home community.</I> A manufactured home community that is a multifamily dwelling is not considered a manufactured home for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(30).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Direct ownership.</I> An applicant or borrower has a direct ownership interest in the land on which the dwelling is or is to be located when it has a more than possessory real property ownership interest in the land such as fee simple ownership.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Scope of requirement.</I> A financial institution reports that the requirement is not applicable for a covered loan where the dwelling related to the property identified in § 1003.4(a)(9) is not a manufactured home. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the information specified in § 1003.4(a)(30). <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(31)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manufactured home community.</I> For an application or covered loan secured by a manufactured home community, the financial institution should include in the number of individual dwelling units the total number of manufactured home sites that secure the loan and are available for occupancy, regardless of whether the sites are currently occupied or have manufactured homes currently attached. A financial institution may include in the number of individual dwelling units other units such as recreational vehicle pads, manager apartments, rental apartments, site-built homes or other rentable space that are ancillary to the operation of the secured property if it considers such units under its underwriting guidelines or the guidelines of an investor, or if it tracks the number of such units for its own internal purposes. For a loan secured by a single manufactured home that is or will be located in a manufactured home community, the financial institution should report one individual dwelling unit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Condominium and cooperative projects.</I> For a covered loan secured by a condominium or cooperative property, the financial institution reports the total number of individual dwelling units securing the covered loan or proposed to secure the covered loan in the case of an application. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a loan is secured by the entirety of a cooperative property. The financial institution would report the number of individual dwelling units in the cooperative property.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a covered loan is secured by 30 individual dwelling units in a condominium property that contains 100 individual dwelling units and that the loan is not exempt from Regulation C under § 1003.3(c)(3). The financial institution reports 30 individual dwelling units.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Best information available.</I> A financial institution may rely on the best information readily available to the financial institution at the time final action is taken and on the financial institution's own procedures in reporting the information required by § 1003.4(a)(31). Information readily available could include, for example, information provided by an applicant that the financial institution reasonably believes, information contained in a property valuation or inspection, or information obtained from public records.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(32)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Affordable housing income restrictions.</I> For purposes of § 1003.4(a)(32), affordable housing income-restricted units are individual dwelling units that have restrictions based on the income level of occupants pursuant to restrictive covenants encumbering the property. Such income levels are frequently expressed as a percentage of area median income by household size as established by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development or another agency responsible for implementing the applicable affordable housing program. Such restrictions are frequently part of compliance with programs that provide public funds, special tax treatment, or density bonuses to encourage development or preservation of affordable housing. Such restrictions are frequently evidenced by a use agreement, regulatory agreement, land use restriction agreement, housing assistance payments contract, or similar agreement. Rent control or rent stabilization laws, and the acceptance by the owner or manager of a multifamily dwelling of Housing Choice Vouchers (24 CFR part 982) or other similar forms of portable housing assistance that are tied to an occupant and not an individual dwelling unit, are not affordable housing income-restricted dwelling units for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(32).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Federal affordable housing sources.</I> Examples of Federal programs and funding sources that may result in individual dwelling units that are reportable under § 1003.4(a)(32) include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Affordable housing programs pursuant to Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937 (42 U.S.C. 1437f);
</P>
<P>ii. Public housing (42 U.S.C. 1437a(b)(6));
</P>
<P>iii. The HOME Investment Partnerships program (24 CFR part 92);
</P>
<P>iv. The Community Development Block Grant program (24 CFR part 570);
</P>
<P>v. Multifamily tax subsidy project funding through tax-exempt bonds or tax credits (26 U.S.C. 42; 26 U.S.C. 142(d));
</P>
<P>vi. Project-based vouchers (24 CFR part 983);
</P>
<P>vii. Federal Home Loan Bank affordable housing program funding (12 CFR part 1291); and
</P>
<P>viii. Rural Housing Service multifamily housing loans and grants (7 CFR part 3560).
</P>
<P>3. <I>State and local government affordable housing sources.</I> Examples of State and local sources that may result in individual dwelling units that are reportable under § 1003.4(a)(32) include, but are not limited to: State or local administration of Federal funds or programs; State or local funding programs for affordable housing or rental assistance, including programs operated by independent public authorities; inclusionary zoning laws; and tax abatement or tax increment financing contingent on affordable housing requirements.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple properties.</I> See comment 4(a)(9)-2 regarding transactions involving multiple properties with more than one property taken as security.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Best information available.</I> A financial institution may rely on the best information readily available to the financial institution at the time final action is taken and on the financial institution's own procedures in reporting the information required by § 1003.4(a)(32). Information readily available could include, for example, information provided by an applicant that the financial institution reasonably believes, information contained in a property valuation or inspection, or information obtained from public records.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Scope of requirement.</I> A financial institution reports that the requirement is not applicable if the property securing the covered loan or, in the case of an application, proposed to secure the covered loan is not a multifamily dwelling. For partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), an insured depository institution or insured credit union is not required to report the information specified in § 1003.4(a)(32). <I>See</I> § 1003.3(d) and related commentary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(33)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Agents.</I> If a financial institution is reporting actions taken by its agent consistent with comment 4(a)-4, the agent is not considered the financial institution for the purposes of § 1003.4(a)(33). For example, assume that an applicant submitted an application to Financial Institution A, and Financial Institution A made the credit decision acting as Financial Institution B's agent under State law. A covered loan was originated and the obligation arising from a covered loan was initially payable to Financial Institution A. Financial Institution B purchased the loan. Financial Institution B reports the origination and not the purchase, and indicates that the application was not submitted directly to the financial institution and that the transaction was not initially payable to the financial institution.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(33)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(33)(i) requires a financial institution to indicate whether the applicant or borrower submitted the application directly to the financial institution that is reporting the covered loan or application. The following scenarios demonstrate whether an application was submitted directly to the financial institution that is reporting the covered loan or application.
</P>
<P>i. The application was submitted directly to the financial institution if the mortgage loan originator identified pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(34) was an employee of the reporting financial institution when the originator performed the origination activities for the covered loan or application that is being reported.
</P>
<P>ii. The application was also submitted directly to the financial institution reporting the covered loan or application if the reporting financial institution directed the applicant to a third-party agent (<I>e.g.,</I> a credit union service organization) that performed loan origination activities on behalf of the financial institution and did not assist the applicant with applying for covered loans with other institutions.
</P>
<P>iii. If an applicant contacted and completed an application with a broker or correspondent that forwarded the application to a financial institution for approval, an application was not submitted to the financial institution.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(33)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(33)(ii) requires financial institutions to report whether the obligation arising from a covered loan was or, in the case of an application, would have been initially payable to the institution. An obligation is initially payable to the institution if the obligation is initially payable either on the face of the note or contract to the financial institution that is reporting the covered loan or application. For example, if a financial institution reported an origination of a covered loan that it approved prior to closing, that closed in the name of a third-party, such as a correspondent lender, and that the financial institution purchased after closing, the covered loan was not initially payable to the financial institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applications.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(33)(ii) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable if the institution had not determined whether the covered loan would have been initially payable to the institution reporting the application when the application was withdrawn, denied, or closed for incompleteness.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(34)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>NMLSR ID.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(34) requires a financial institution to report the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry unique identifier (NMLSR ID) for the mortgage loan originator, as defined in Regulation G, 12 CFR 1007.102, or Regulation H, 12 CFR 1008.23, as applicable. The NMLSR ID is a unique number or other identifier generally assigned to individuals registered or licensed through NMLSR to provide loan originating services. For more information, see the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008, title V of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (S.A.F.E. Act), 12 U.S.C. 5101 <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations (12 CFR part 1007 and 12 CFR part 1008).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage loan originator without NMLSR ID.</I> An NMLSR ID for the mortgage loan originator is not required by § 1003.4(a)(34) to be reported by a financial institution if the mortgage loan originator is not required to obtain and has not been assigned an NMLSR ID. For example, certain individual mortgage loan originators may not be required to obtain an NMLSR ID for the particular transaction being reported by the financial institution, such as a commercial loan. However, some mortgage loan originators may have obtained an NMLSR ID even if they are not required to obtain one for that particular transaction. If a mortgage loan originator has been assigned an NMLSR ID, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(34) by reporting the mortgage loan originator's NMLSR ID regardless of whether the mortgage loan originator is required to obtain an NMLSR ID for the particular transaction being reported by the financial institution. In the event that the mortgage loan originator is not required to obtain and has not been assigned an NMLSR ID, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(34) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple mortgage loan originators.</I> If more than one individual associated with a covered loan or application meets the definition of a mortgage loan originator, as defined in Regulation G, 12 CFR 1007.102, or Regulation H, 12 CFR 1008.23, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(34) by reporting the NMLSR ID of the individual mortgage loan originator with primary responsibility for the transaction as of the date of action taken pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(8)(ii). A financial institution that establishes and follows a reasonable, written policy for determining which individual mortgage loan originator has primary responsibility for the reported transaction as of the date of action taken complies with § 1003.4(a)(34).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Purchased loans.</I> If a financial institution purchases a covered loan that satisfies the coverage criteria of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.36(g), and that was originated prior to January 10, 2014, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(34) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. In addition, if a financial institution purchases a covered loan that does not satisfy the coverage criteria of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.36(g), and that was originated prior to January 1, 2018, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(34) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable. Purchasers of both such types of covered loans may report the NMLSR ID.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(35)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Automated underwriting system data—general.</I> Except for purchased covered loans and partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(35) requires a financial institution to report the name of the automated underwriting system (AUS) used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the result generated by that AUS. The following scenarios illustrate when a financial institution reports the name of the AUS used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the result generated by that AUS.
</P>
<P>i. A financial institution that uses an AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), to evaluate an application, must report the name of the AUS used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system, regardless of whether the AUS was used in its underwriting process. For example, if a financial institution uses an AUS to evaluate an application prior to submitting the application through its underwriting process, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of the AUS it used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system.
</P>
<P>ii. A financial institution that uses an AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), to evaluate an application, must report the name of the AUS it used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system, regardless of whether the financial institution intends to hold the covered loan in its portfolio or sell the covered loan. For example, if a financial institution uses an AUS developed by a securitizer to evaluate an application and intends to sell the covered loan to that securitizer but ultimately does not sell the covered loan and instead holds the covered loan in its portfolio, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of the securitizer's AUS that the institution used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system. Similarly, if a financial institution uses an AUS developed by a securitizer to evaluate an application to determine whether to originate the covered loan but does not intend to sell the covered loan to that securitizer and instead holds the covered loan in its portfolio, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of the securitizer's AUS that the institution used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system.
</P>
<P>iii. A financial institution that uses an AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), that is developed by a securitizer to evaluate an application, must report the name of the AUS it used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system, regardless of whether the securitizer intends to hold the covered loan it purchased from the financial institution in its portfolio or securitize the covered loan. For example, if a financial institution uses an AUS developed by a securitizer to evaluate an application and the financial institution sells the covered loan to that securitizer but the securitizer holds the covered loan it purchased in its portfolio, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of the securitizer's AUS that the institution used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system.
</P>
<P>iv. A financial institution, which is also a securitizer, that uses its own AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), to evaluate an application, must report the name of the AUS it used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system, regardless of whether the financial institution intends to hold the covered loan it originates in its portfolio, purchase the covered loan, or securitize the covered loan. For example, if a financial institution, which is also a securitizer, has developed its own AUS and uses that AUS to evaluate an application that it intends to originate and hold in its portfolio and not purchase or securitize the covered loan, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of its AUS that it used to evaluate the application and the result generated by that system.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definition of automated underwriting system.</I> A financial institution must report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(35)(i) if the financial institution uses an automated underwriting system (AUS), as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), to evaluate an application. To be covered by the definition in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), a system must be an electronic tool that has been developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or a Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit. A person is a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, respectively, if it has securitized, provided Federal government insurance, or provided a Federal government guarantee for a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit at any point in time. A person may be a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, respectively, for purposes of § 1003.4(a)(35) even if it is not actively securitizing, insuring, or guaranteeing closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit at the time a financial institution uses the AUS to evaluate an application. Where the person that developed the electronic tool has never been a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, respectively, at the time a financial institution uses the tool to evaluate an application, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable because an AUS was not used to evaluate the application. If a financial institution has developed its own proprietary system that it uses to evaluate an application and the financial institution is also a securitizer, then the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of that system and the result generated by that system. On the other hand, if a financial institution has developed its own proprietary system that it uses to evaluate an application and the financial institution is not a securitizer, then the financial institution is not required by § 1003.4(a)(35) to report the use of that system and the result generated by that system. In addition, for an AUS to be covered by the definition in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), the system must provide a result regarding both the credit risk of the applicant and the eligibility of the covered loan to be originated, purchased, insured, or guaranteed by the securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor that developed the system being used to evaluate the application. For example, if a system is an electronic tool that provides a determination of the eligibility of the covered loan to be originated, purchased, insured, or guaranteed by the securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor that developed the system being used by a financial institution to evaluate the application, but the system does not also provide an assessment of the creditworthiness of the applicant—such as an evaluation of the applicant's income, debt, and credit history—then that system does not qualify as an AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii). A financial institution that uses a system that is not an AUS, as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii), to evaluate an application does not report the information required by § 1003.4(a)(35)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reporting automated underwriting system data—multiple results.</I> When a financial institution uses one or more automated underwriting systems (AUS) to evaluate the application and the system or systems generate two or more results, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting, except for purchased covered loans, the name of the AUS used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the result generated by that AUS as determined by the following principles. To determine what AUS (or AUSs) and result (or results) to report under § 1003.4(a)(35), a financial institution follows each of the principles that is applicable to the application in question, in the order in which they are set forth below.
</P>
<P>i. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results and the AUS generating one of those results corresponds to the loan type reported pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(2), the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that AUS name and result. For example, if a financial institution evaluates an application using the Federal Housing Administration's (FHA) Technology Open to Approved Lenders (TOTAL) Scorecard and subsequently evaluates the application with an AUS used to determine eligibility for a non-FHA loan, but ultimately originates an FHA loan, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting TOTAL Scorecard and the result generated by that system. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results and more than one of those AUS results is generated by a system that corresponds to the loan type reported pursuant to § 1003.4(a)(2), the financial institution identifies which AUS result should be reported by following the principle set forth below in comment 4(a)(35)-3.ii.
</P>
<P>ii. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results and the AUS generating one of those results corresponds to the purchaser, insurer, or guarantor, if any, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that AUS name and result. For example, if a financial institution evaluates an application with the AUS of Securitizer A and subsequently evaluates the application with the AUS of Securitizer B, but the financial institution ultimately originates a covered loan that it sells within the same calendar year to Securitizer A, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of Securitizer A's AUS and the result generated by that system. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results and more than one of those AUS results is generated by a system that corresponds to the purchaser, insurer, or guarantor, if any, the financial institution identifies which AUS result should be reported by following the principle set forth below in comment 4(a)(35)-3.iii.
</P>
<P>iii. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results and none of the systems generating those results correspond to the purchaser, insurer, or guarantor, if any, or the financial institution is following this principle because more than one AUS result is generated by a system that corresponds to either the loan type or the purchaser, insurer, or guarantor, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the AUS result generated closest in time to the credit decision and the name of the AUS that generated that result. For example, if a financial institution evaluates an application with the AUS of Securitizer A, subsequently again evaluates the application with Securitizer A's AUS, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of Securitizer A's AUS and the second AUS result. Similarly, if a financial institution obtains a result from an AUS that requires the financial institution to underwrite the loan manually, but the financial institution subsequently processes the application through a different AUS that also generates a result, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of the second AUS that it used to evaluate the application and the AUS result generated by that system.
</P>
<P>iv. If a financial institution obtains two or more AUS results at the same time and the principles in comment 4(a)(35)-3.i through .iii do not apply, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of all of the AUSs used by the financial institution to evaluate the application and the results generated by each of those systems. For example, if a financial institution simultaneously evaluates an application with the AUS of Securitizer A and the AUS of Securitizer B, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of both Securitizer A's AUS and Securitizer B's AUS and the results generated by each of those systems. In any event, however, the financial institution does not report more than five AUSs and five results. If more than five AUSs and five results meet the criteria in this principle, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by choosing any five among them to report.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which an automated underwriting system was not used to evaluate the application.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(35) does not require a financial institution to evaluate an application using an automated underwriting system (AUS), as defined in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii). For example, if a financial institution only manually underwrites an application and does not use an AUS to evaluate the application, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable since an AUS was not used to evaluate the application.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Purchased covered loan.</I> A financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable when the covered loan is a purchased covered loan.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Non-natural person.</I> When the applicant and co-applicant, if applicable, are not natural persons, a financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Determination of securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor.</I> Section 1003.4(a)(35)(ii) provides that an “automated underwriting system” means an electronic tool developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit that provides a result regarding the credit risk of the applicant and whether the covered loan is eligible to be originated, purchased, insured, or guaranteed by that securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor. A person is a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, respectively, if it has ever securitized, insured, or guaranteed a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit. If a financial institution knows or reasonably believes that the system it is using to evaluate an application is an electronic tool that has been developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, then the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of that system and the result generated by that system. Knowledge or reasonable belief could, for example, be based on a sales agreement or other related documents, the financial institution's previous transactions or relationship with the developer of the electronic tool, or representations made by the developer of the electronic tool demonstrating that the developer of the electronic tool is a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit. If a financial institution does not know or reasonably believe that the system it is using to evaluate an application is an electronic tool that has been developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit, the financial institution complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable, provided that the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to determine whether the electronic tool it is using to evaluate an application meets the definition in § 1003.4(a)(35)(ii). Reasonably adapted procedures include attempting to determine with reasonable frequency, such as annually, whether the developer of the electronic tool is a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit. For example:
</P>
<P>i. In the course of renewing an annual sales agreement the developer of the electronic tool represents to the financial institution that it has never been a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit. On this basis, the financial institution does not know or reasonably believe that the system it is using to evaluate an application is an electronic tool that has been developed by a securitizer, Federal government insurer, or Federal government guarantor of closed-end mortgage loans or open-end lines of credit and complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting that the requirement is not applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. Based on their previous transactions a financial institution is aware that the developer of the electronic tool it is using to evaluate an application has securitized a closed-end mortgage loan or open-end line of credit in the past. On this basis, the financial institution knows or reasonably believes that the developer of the electronic tool is a securitizer and complies with § 1003.4(a)(35) by reporting the name of that system and the result generated by that system.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(37)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Open-end line of credit.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(37) requires a financial institution to identify whether the covered loan or the application is for an open-end line of credit. See comments 2(o)-1 and -2 for a discussion of open-end line of credit and extension of credit.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(a)(38)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Primary purpose.</I> Except for partially exempt transactions under § 1003.3(d), § 1003.4(a)(38) requires a financial institution to identify whether the covered loan is, or the application is for a covered loan that will be, made primarily for a business or commercial purpose. See comment 3(c)(10)-2 for a discussion of how to determine the primary purpose of the transaction and the standard applicable to a financial institution's determination of the primary purpose of the transaction. See comments 3(c)(10)-3 and 4 for examples of excluded and reportable business- or commercial-purpose transactions.


</P>
<HD3>4(f) Quarterly Recording of Data
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1003.4(f) requires a financial institution to record the data collected pursuant to § 1003.4 on a loan/application register within 30 calendar days after the end of the calendar quarter in which final action is taken. Section 1003.4(f) does not require a financial institution to record data on a single loan/application register on a quarterly basis. Rather, for purposes of § 1003.4(f), a financial institution may record data on a single loan/application register or separately for different branches or different loan types (such as home purchase or home improvement loans, or loans on multifamily dwellings).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Agency requirements.</I> Certain State or Federal regulations may require a financial institution to record its data more frequently than is required under Regulation C.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of quarterly records.</I> A financial institution may maintain the records required by § 1003.4(f) in electronic or any other format, provided the institution can make the information available to its regulatory agency in a timely manner upon request.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1003.5—Disclosure and Reporting
</HD2>
<HD3>5(a) Reporting to Agency
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Quarterly reporting—coverage.</I> i. Section 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) requires that, within 60 calendar days after the end of each calendar quarter except the fourth quarter, a financial institution that reported for the preceding calendar year at least 60,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, must submit its loan/application register containing all data required to be recorded for that quarter pursuant to § 1003.4(f). For example, if for calendar year 2019 Financial Institution A reports 60,000 covered loans, excluding purchased covered loans, it must comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in calendar year 2020. Similarly, if for calendar year 2019 Financial Institution A reports 20,000 applications and 40,000 covered loans, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, it must comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in calendar year 2020. If for calendar year 2020 Financial Institution A reports fewer than 60,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, it is not required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in calendar year 2021.
</P>
<P>ii. In the calendar year of a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed financial institution is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), effective the date of the merger or acquisition, if a combined total of at least 60,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, is reported for the preceding calendar year by or for the surviving or newly formed financial institution and each financial institution or branch office merged or acquired. For example, Financial Institution A and Financial Institution B merge to form Financial Institution C in 2020. Financial Institution A reports 40,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019. Financial Institution B reports 21,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019. Financial Institution C is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) effective the date of the merger. Similarly, for example, Financial Institution A acquires a branch office of Financial Institution B in 2020. Financial Institution A reports 58,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019. Financial Institution B reports 3,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019 for the branch office acquired by Financial Institution A. Financial Institution A is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in 2020 effective the date of the branch acquisition.
</P>
<P>iii. In the calendar year following a merger or acquisition, the surviving or newly formed financial institution is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) if a combined total of at least 60,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, is reported for the preceding calendar year by or for the surviving or newly formed financial institution and each financial institution or branch office merged or acquired. For example, Financial Institution A and Financial Institution B merge to form Financial Institution C in 2019. Financial Institution C reports 21,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, each for Financial Institution A, B, and C for 2019, for a combined total of 63,000 covered loans and applications reported, excluding purchased covered loans. Financial Institution C is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in 2020. Similarly, for example, Financial Institution A acquires a branch office of Financial Institution B in 2019. Financial Institution A reports 58,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019. Financial Institution A or B reports 3,000 covered loans and applications, combined, excluding purchased covered loans, for 2019 for the branch office acquired by Financial Institution A. Financial Institution A is required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) in 2020.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Change in appropriate Federal agency.</I> If the appropriate Federal agency for a financial institution changes (as a consequence of a merger or a change in the institution's charter, for example), the institution must identify its new appropriate Federal agency in its annual submission of data pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i) for the year of the change. For example, if an institution's appropriate Federal agency changes in February 2018, it must identify its new appropriate Federal agency beginning with the annual submission of its 2018 data by March 1, 2019 pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i). For an institution required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii), the institution also must identify its new appropriate Federal agency in its quarterly submission of data pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) beginning with its submission for the quarter of the change, unless the change occurs during the fourth quarter. For example, if the appropriate Federal agency for an institution required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) changes during February 2020, the institution must identify its new appropriate Federal agency beginning with its quarterly submission pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) for the first quarter of 2020. If the appropriate Federal agency for an institution required to comply with § 1003.5(a)(1)(ii) changes during December 2020, the institution must identify its new appropriate Federal agency beginning with the annual submission of its 2020 data by March 1, 2021 pursuant to § 1003.5(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Subsidiaries.</I> A financial institution is a subsidiary of a bank or savings association (for purposes of reporting HMDA data to the same agency as the parent) if the bank or savings association holds or controls an ownership interest in the institution that is greater than 50 percent.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Retention.</I> A financial institution may satisfy the requirement under § 1003.5(a)(1)(i) that it retain a copy of its submitted annual loan/application register for three years by retaining a copy of the annual loan/application register in either electronic or paper form.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Federal Taxpayer Identification Number.</I> Section 1003.5(a)(3) requires a financial institution to provide its Federal Taxpayer Identification Number with its data submission. If a financial institution obtains a new Federal Taxpayer Identification Number, it should provide the new number in its subsequent data submission. For example, if two financial institutions that previously reported HMDA data under this part merge and the surviving institution retained its Legal Entity Identifier but obtained a new Federal Taxpayer Identification Number, then the surviving institution should report the new Federal Taxpayer Identification Number with its HMDA data submission.
</P>
<HD3>5(b) Disclosure Statement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Business day.</I> For purposes of § 1003.5(b), a business day is any calendar day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal public holiday.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format of notice.</I> A financial institution may make the written notice required under § 1003.5(b)(2) available in paper or electronic form.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notice—suggested text.</I> A financial institution may use any text that meets the requirements of § 1003.5(b)(2). The following language is suggested but is not required:
</P>
<HD3>Home Mortgage Disclosure Act Notice
</HD3>
<P><I>The HMDA data about our residential mortgage lending are available online for review. The data show geographic distribution of loans and applications; ethnicity, race, sex, age, and income of applicants and borrowers; and information about loan approvals and denials. These data are available online at the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Web site</I> (<I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>). <I>HMDA data for many other financial institutions are also available at this Web site.</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Combined notice.</I> A financial institution may use the same notice to satisfy the requirements of both § 1003.5(b)(2) and § 1003.5(c).
</P>
<HD3>5(c) Modified loan/application Register
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Format of notice.</I> A financial institution may make the written notice required under § 1003.5(c)(1) available in paper or electronic form.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice—suggested text.</I> A financial institution may use any text that meets the requirements of § 1003.5(c)(1). The following language is suggested but is not required:
</P>
<HD3>Home Mortgage Disclosure Act Notice
</HD3>
<P><I>The HMDA data about our residential mortgage lending are available online for review. The data show geographic distribution of loans and applications; ethnicity, race, sex, age, and income of applicants and borrowers; and information about loan approvals and denials. These data are available online at the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Web site</I> (<I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>). <I>HMDA data for many other financial institutions are also available at this Web site.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combined notice.</I> A financial institution may use the same notice to satisfy the requirements of both § 1003.5(c) and § 1003.5(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>5(e) Posted Notice of Availability of Data
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Posted notice—suggested text.</I> A financial institution may post any text that meets the requirements of § 1003.5(e). The Bureau or other appropriate Federal agency for a financial institution may provide a notice that the institution can post to inform the public of the availability of its HMDA data, or an institution may create its own notice. The following language is suggested but is not required:
</P>
<HD3>Home Mortgage Disclosure Act Notice
</HD3>
<P><I>The HMDA data about our residential mortgage lending are available online for review. The data show geographic distribution of loans and applications; ethnicity, race, sex, age, and income of applicants and borrowers; and information about loan approvals and denials. HMDA data for many other financial institutions are also available online. For more information, visit the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Web site</I> (<I>www.consumerfinance.gov/hmda</I>).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1003.6—Enforcement
</HD2>
<HD3>6(b) Bona Fide Errors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information from third parties.</I> Section 1003.6(b) provides that an error in compiling or recording data for a covered loan or application is not a violation of the Act or this part if the error was unintentional and occurred despite the maintenance of procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such an error. A financial institution that obtains the required data, such as property-location information, from third parties is responsible for ensuring that the information reported pursuant to § 1003.5 is correct. See comment 6(b)-2 concerning obtaining census tract information from a geocoding tool that the Bureau makes available on its Web site.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information from the Bureau.</I> Section 1003.6(b)(2) provides that an incorrect entry for census tract number is deemed a bona fide error, and is not a violation of the Act or this part, provided that the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid an error. Obtaining the census tract numbers for covered loans and applications from a geocoding tool available on the Bureau's Web site that identifies the census tract of a property using property addresses entered by users is an example of a procedure reasonably adapted to avoid errors under § 1003.6(b)(2). Accordingly, a census tract error is not a violation of the Act or this part if the financial institution obtained the census tract number from the geocoding tool on the Bureau's Web site. However, a financial institution's failure to provide the correct census tract number for a covered loan or application on its loan/application register, as required by § 1003.4(a)(9)(ii)(C) or (e), because the geocoding tool on the Bureau's Web site did not provide a census tract number for the property address entered by the financial institution is not excused as a bona fide error. In addition, a census tract error caused by a financial institution entering an inaccurate property address into the geocoding tool on the Bureau's Web site is not excused as a bona fide error.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 66317, 66339, Oct. 28, 2015, as amended at 82 FR 43136, 43145, Sept. 13, 2017; 82 FR 61146, Dec. 27, 2017; 84 FR 514, Jan. 31, 2019; 84 FR 57981, Oct. 29, 2019; 84 FR 69994, Dec. 20, 2019; 85 FR 28404, 28406, May 12, 2020; 85 FR 83410, Dec. 22, 2020; 86 FR 72819, Dec. 23, 2021; 87 FR 77981, Dec. 21, 2022; 87 FR 80434, Dec. 30, 2022; 88 FR 88222, Dec. 21, 2023; 89 FR 105430, Dec. 27, 2024; 91 FR 446, Jan. 7, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1004" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1004—ALTERNATIVE MORTGAGE TRANSACTION PARITY (REGULATION D)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3802, 3803; 15 U.S.C. 1604, 1639b; Pub. L. No. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 44242, July 22, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1004.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This regulation, known as Regulation D, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Alternative Mortgage Transaction Parity Act, 12 U.S.C. 3801 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended by title X, Section 1083 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376). Section 1004.4 is issued pursuant to the Alternative Mortgage Transaction Parity Act (as amended) and the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Consistent with the Alternative Mortgage Transaction Parity Act, the Truth in Lending Act, and the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, the purpose of this regulation is to balance access to responsible credit and enhanced parity between State and federal housing creditors regarding the making, purchase, and enforcement of alternative mortgage transactions with consumer protection and the interests of the States in regulating mortgage transactions generally.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This regulation applies to an alternative mortgage transaction if the creditor received an application for that transaction on or after July 22, 2011. This regulation does not apply to a transaction if the creditor received the application for that transaction before July 22, 2011.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Alternative mortgage transaction</I> means a loan, credit sale, or account:
</P>
<P>(1) That is secured by an interest in a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, or trailer, if it is used as a residence;
</P>
<P>(2) That is made primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
</P>
<P>(3) In which the interest rate or finance charge may be adjusted or renegotiated.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> shall have the same meaning as in 12 CFR 226.2.
</P>
<P><I>Housing creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution, as defined in section 501(a)(2) of the Depository Institutions Deregulation and Monetary Control Act of 1980;
</P>
<P>(2) A lender approved by the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development for participation in any mortgage insurance program under the National Housing Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Any person who regularly makes loans, credit sales, or advances on an account secured by an interest in a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not the structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, or trailer, if it is used as a residence; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any transferee of a party listed in paragraph (c)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States of America, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, and any other territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>State law</I> means a State constitution, statute, or regulation or any provision thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.3   Preemption of State law.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3803, a State-chartered or -licensed housing creditor may make, purchase, and enforce alternative mortgage transactions in accordance with § 1004.4(a) through (c) of this part (as applicable), notwithstanding any provision of State law that restricts the ability of the housing creditor to adjust or renegotiate an interest rate or finance charge with respect to the transaction or to change the amount of interest or finance charges included in a regular periodic payment as a result of such an adjustment or renegotiation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1004.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1004.4   Requirements for alternative mortgage transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mortgages with adjustable rates or finance charges and home equity lines of credit.</I> A creditor that makes an alternative mortgage transaction with an adjustable rate or finance charge may only increase the interest rate or finance charge as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the transaction is subject to 12 CFR 226.5b, the creditor must comply with 12 CFR 226.5b(f)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) For all other transactions, the creditor must use either:
</P>
<P>(i) An index to which changes in the interest rate are tied that is readily available to and verifiable by the borrower and beyond the control of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A formula or schedule identifying the amount that the interest rate or finance charge may increase and the times at which, or circumstances under which, a change may be made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Renegotiable rates for renewable balloon-payment mortgages.</I> A creditor that makes an alternative mortgage transaction with payments based on an amortization period and a large final payment due after a shorter term may negotiate an increase or decrease in the interest rate when the transaction is renewed only if the creditor makes a written commitment to renew the transaction at specified intervals throughout the amortization period. However, the creditor is not required to renew the transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) Any action or inaction by the consumer materially and adversely affects the creditor's security for the transaction or any right of the creditor in such security;
</P>
<P>(2) There is a material failure by the consumer to meet the repayment terms of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) There is fraud or a willful or knowing material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(4) Federal law dealing with credit extended by a depository institution to its executive officers specifically requires that as a condition of the extension the credit shall become due and payable on demand, provided that the creditor includes such a provision in the initial agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for high-cost and higher-priced mortgage loans.</I> (1) If an alternative mortgage transaction is subject to 12 CFR 226.32, the creditor must comply with 12 CFR 226.32 and 12 CFR 226.34.
</P>
<P>(2) If an alternative mortgage transaction is subject to 12 CFR 226.35, the creditor must comply with 12 CFR 226.35.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other applicable law.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, a housing creditor that is not making an alternative mortgage transaction pursuant to § 1004.3 of this part may make that transaction consistent with applicable State or Federal law other than this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reductions in interest rate or finance charge.</I> Nothing in this section prohibits a creditor from decreasing the interest rate or finance charge on an alternative mortgage transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.5.0.1.5.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1004—Official Commentary on Regulation D
</HEAD>
<HD2>§ 1004.1 Authority, Purpose, and Scope
</HD2>
<HD2>1(c) Scope.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application received before July 22, 2011.</I> This part does not apply to a transaction if the creditor received the application for that transaction before July 22, 2011, even if the transaction was consummated or completed on or after July 22, 2011. Whether 12 U.S.C. 3803(c) preempts State law with respect to such a transaction depends on whether: (1) The transaction was an alternative mortgage transaction as defined by the version of 12 U.S.C. 3802(1) in effect at the time of application; and (2) the State housing creditor complied with applicable federal regulations issued by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the National Credit Union Administration, the Office of Thrift Supervision, or the Federal Home Loan Bank Board in effect at the time of application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Subsequent modifications and other actions.</I> If applicable regulations under 12 U.S.C. 3803(c) (including this Part) preempted State law with respect to an alternative mortgage transaction at the time the application was received, the following actions with respect to that transaction are entitled to the same degree of preemption under such regulations:
</P>
<P>i. The subsequent consummation, completion, purchase, or enforcement of the transaction by a housing creditor.
</P>
<P>ii. The subsequent modification, renewal, or extension of the transaction. However, if such a transaction is satisfied and replaced by another transaction, the second transaction must independently meet the requirements for preemption in effect at the time the application for the second transaction was received.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1004.2 Definitions
</HD2>
<HD2>2(a) Alternative Mortgage Transaction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Alternative mortgage transaction.</I> For purposes of this Part, an alternative mortgage transaction that meets the definition in § 1004.2(a) includes any consumer credit transaction that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest in a dwelling or in residential real property that includes a dwelling. The dwelling need not be the primary dwelling of the consumer. Home equity lines of credit and subordinate lien mortgages are alternative mortgage transactions for purposes of this part to the extent they meet the definition in § 1004.2(a).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of alternative mortgage transactions.</I> Examples of alternative mortgage transactions include:
</P>
<P>i. Transactions in which the interest rate changes in accordance with fluctuations in an index.
</P>
<P>ii. Transactions in which the interest rate or finance charge may be increased or decreased after a specified period of time or under specified circumstances.
</P>
<P>iii. Balloon transactions in which payments are based on an amortization schedule and a large final payment is due after a shorter term, where the creditor makes a commitment to renew the transaction at specified intervals throughout the amortization period, but the interest rate may be renegotiated at renewal. For example, a fixed-rate mortgage loan with a 30-year amortization period but a balloon payment due five years after consummation is an alternative mortgage transaction under § 1004.2(a) if the creditor commits to renew the mortgage at five-year intervals for the entire 30-year amortization period.
</P>
<P>iv. Transactions in which the creditor and the consumer agree to share some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property (shared equity/shared appreciation).
</P>
<P>However, this part preempts State law only to the extent provided in § 1004.3 and only to the extent that the requirements of § 1004.4(a) through (c) (as applicable) are met.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of transactions that are not alternative mortgage transactions.</I> The following are examples of transactions that are not alternative mortgage transactions:
</P>
<P>i. Transactions with a fixed interest rate where one or more of the regular periodic payments may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal (an interest-only feature).
</P>
<P>ii. Balloon transactions with a fixed interest rate where payments are based on an amortization schedule and a large final payment is due after a shorter term, where the creditor does not make a commitment to renew the transaction at specified intervals throughout the amortization period.
</P>
<P>iii. Transactions with a fixed interest rate where one or more of the regular periodic payments may result in an increase in the principal balance (a negative amortization feature).
</P>
<HD2>2(b) Creditor
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Creditor.</I> As defined in 12 CFR 226.2, “creditor” includes federally and State-chartered banks, thrifts, and credit unions, as well as non-depository institutions, such as State-licensed lenders. The Official Staff Commentary to 12 CFR 226.2 contains additional guidance on the definition of the term “creditor.” <I>See</I> 12 CFR 226.2, Supp. I.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1004.3 Preemption of State Law
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of State laws.</I> Regardless of whether a State law applies solely to alternative mortgage transactions or applies to both alternative mortgage transactions and other mortgage or consumer credit transactions, that law is preempted by § 1004.3 only to the extent that it restricts the ability of a State-chartered or -licensed housing creditor to adjust or renegotiate an interest rate or finance charge with respect to an alternative mortgage transaction or to change the amount of interest or finance charges included in a regular periodic payment as a result of such an adjustment or renegotiation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of State laws that are preempted.</I> The following are examples of State laws that are preempted by § 1004.3:
</P>
<P>i. Restrictions on the adjustment or renegotiation of an interest rate or finance charge, including restrictions on the circumstances under which a rate or charge may be adjusted, the method by which a rate or charge may be adjusted, and the amount of the adjustment to the rate or charge. For example, if a provision of State law prohibits creditors from increasing an adjustable rate more than two percentage points or from increasing an adjustable rate more than once during a year, that provision is preempted by § 1004.3 with respect to alternative mortgage transactions that comply with § 1004.4(a) through (c), as applicable. Similarly, if a provision of State law prohibits housing creditors from renewing balloon transactions that meet the definition of an alternative mortgage transaction in § 1004.2(a) on different terms, that provision is preempted by § 1004.3 only to the extent that it restricts a state housing creditor's ability to adjust or renegotiate the interest rate or finance charge at renewal. See also comment 1004.3-3.i.
</P>
<P>ii. Restrictions on the ability of a housing creditor to change the amount of interest or finance charges included in regular periodic payments as a result of the adjustment or renegotiation of an interest rate or finance charge. For example, if a provision of State law prohibits housing creditors from increasing payments or limits the amount of such increases with respect to both alternative mortgage transactions and other mortgage or consumer credit transactions, that provision is preempted by § 1004.3 to the extent that it restricts a housing creditor's ability to adjust payments as a result of the adjustment or renegotiation of an interest rate on an alternative mortgage transaction. Other restrictions on changes to payments are not preempted, including restrictions on transactions in which one or more of the regular periodic payments may result in an increase in the principal balance (a negative amortization feature) or may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal (an interest-only feature).
</P>
<P>iii. Restrictions on the creditor and the consumer sharing some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property (shared equity/shared appreciation).
</P>
<P>iv. Underwriting requirements that address the adjustment or renegotiation of interest rates or finance charges. For example, if a provision of State law requires housing creditors to underwrite based on the maximum contractual rate, that provision is preempted by § 1004.3 with respect to alternative mortgage transactions, regardless of whether the provision applies solely to alternative mortgage transactions or to both alternative mortgage transactions and other mortgage or consumer credit transactions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of State laws that are not preempted.</I> The following are examples of State laws that are not preempted by § 1004.3 regardless of whether the provision applies solely to alternative mortgage transactions or to both alternative mortgage transactions and other mortgage or consumer credit transactions:
</P>
<P>i. Restrictions on prepayment penalties or late charges (including an increase in an interest rate or finance charge as a result of a late payment).
</P>
<P>ii. Restrictions on transactions in which one or more of the regular periodic payments may result in an increase in the principal balance (a negative amortization feature) or may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal (an interest-only feature).
</P>
<P>iii. Requirements that disclosures be provided.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1004.4 Requirements for Alternative Mortgage Transactions
</HD2>
<HD2>4(a) Mortgages With Adjustable or Renegotiable Rates or Finance Charges and Home Equity Lines of Credit
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Index values.</I> A creditor may use any measure of index values that meets the requirements in § 1004.4(a)(2)(i). For example, the index may be either single values as of a specific date or an average of values calculated over a specified period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Index beyond creditor's control.</I> A creditor may increase an adjustable interest rate pursuant to § 1004.4(a)(2)(i) only if the increase is based on an index that is beyond the creditor's control. For purposes of § 1004.4(a)(2)(i), an index is not beyond the creditor's control if the index is the creditor's own prime rate or cost of funds. A creditor is permitted, however, to use a published prime rate, such as the prime rate published in the <I>Wall Street Journal,</I> even if the creditor's own prime rate is one of several rates used to establish the published rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Publicly available.</I> For purposes of § 1004.4(a)(2)(i), the index must be available to the public. A publicly available index need not be published in a newspaper, but it must be one the consumer can independently obtain (by telephone, for example) and use to verify the annual percentage rate applied to the alternative mortgage transaction.
</P>
<HD2>4(c) Requirements for High-Cost and Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> If applicable, creditors must comply with 12 CFR 226.32, including 12 CFR 226.32(d)(6) and (d)(7) which provide limitations on prepayment penalties. Similarly, if applicable, creditors must comply with 12 CFR 226.35, including 12 CFR 226.35(b)(2), which also provides limitations on prepayment penalties. However, under § 1004.3, State laws regarding prepayment penalties are not preempted. <I>See</I> comment 1004.3-3.i. Accordingly, creditors must also comply with any State laws regarding prepayment penalties unless an independent basis for preemption exists, such as because the State law is inconsistent with the requirements of Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 226. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 226.28.
</P>
<HD2>4(d) Other Applicable Law
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Other applicable law.</I> Section 1004.4(d) permits state housing creditors that do not seek preemption under § 1004.3 and federal housing creditors to make alternative mortgage transactions consistent with applicable State or federal law other than § 1004.4(a) through (c). However, § 1004.4(d) does not exempt those housing creditors from complying with the provisions of federal law that are incorporated by reference in § 1004.4 and are otherwise applicable to the creditor. Specifically, nothing in § 1004.4(d) exempts a housing creditor from complying with 12 CFR 226.5b, 226.32, 226.34, or 226.35.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1005" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1005—ELECTRONIC FUND TRANSFERS (REGULATION E)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1693b. Subpart B is also issued under 12 U.S.C. 5601 and 15 U.S.C. 1693o-1.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part, known as Regulation E, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) pursuant to the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>). The information-collection requirements have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 3170-0014.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part carries out the purposes of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, which establishes the basic rights, liabilities, and responsibilities of consumers who use electronic fund transfer and remittance transfer services and of financial institutions or other persons that offer these services. The primary objective of the act and this part is the protection of individual consumers engaging in electronic fund transfers and remittance transfers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in subpart B, for purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) “Access device” means a card, code, or other means of access to a consumer's account, or any combination thereof, that may be used by the consumer to initiate electronic fund transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) An access device becomes an “accepted access device” when the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests and receives, or signs, or uses (or authorizes another to use) the access device to transfer money between accounts or to obtain money, property, or services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requests validation of an access device issued on an unsolicited basis; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Receives an access device in renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device from either the financial institution that initially issued the device or a successor.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) “Account” means a demand deposit (checking), savings, or other consumer asset account (other than an occasional or incidental credit balance in a credit plan) held directly or indirectly by a financial institution and established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include an account held by a financial institution under a bona fide trust agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) The term includes a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(i) “Prepaid account” means:
</P>
<P>(A) A “payroll card account,” which is an account that is directly or indirectly established through an employer and to which electronic fund transfers of the consumer's wages, salary, or other employee compensation (such as commissions) are made on a recurring basis, whether the account is operated or managed by the employer, a third-party payroll processor, a depository institution, or any other person; or
</P>
<P>(B) A “government benefit account,” as defined in § 1005.15(a)(2); or
</P>
<P>(C) An account that is marketed or labeled as “prepaid” and that is redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services or usable at automated teller machines; or
</P>
<P>(D) An account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That is issued on a prepaid basis in a specified amount or not issued on a prepaid basis but capable of being loaded with funds thereafter,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Whose primary function is to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or at automated teller machines, or to conduct person-to-person transfers, and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That is not a checking account, share draft account, or negotiable order of withdrawal account.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraphs (b)(3)(i)(C) and (D) of this section, the term “prepaid account” does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) An account that is loaded only with funds from a health savings account, flexible spending arrangement, medical savings account, health reimbursement arrangement, dependent care assistance program, or transit or parking reimbursement arrangement;
</P>
<P>(B) An account that is directly or indirectly established through a third party and loaded only with qualified disaster relief payments;
</P>
<P>(C) The person-to-person functionality of an account established by or through the United States government whose primary function is to conduct closed-loop transactions on U.S. military installations or vessels, or similar government facilities;
</P>
<P>(D)(<I>1</I>) A gift certificate as defined in § 1005.20(a)(1) and (b);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A store gift card as defined in § 1005.20(a)(2) and (b);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A loyalty, award, or promotional gift card as defined in § 1005.20(a)(4), or that satisfies the criteria in § 1005.20(a)(4)(i) and (ii) and is excluded from § 1005.20 pursuant to § 1005.20(b)(4); or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A general-use prepaid card as defined in § 1005.20(a)(3) and (b) that is both marketed and labeled as a gift card or gift certificate; or
</P>
<P>(E) An account established for distributing needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency, as set forth in § 1005.15(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(c) “Act” means the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (Title IX of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(d) “Business day” means any day on which the offices of the consumer's financial institution are open to the public for carrying on substantially all business functions.
</P>
<P>(e) “Consumer” means a natural person.
</P>
<P>(f) “Credit” means the right granted by a financial institution to a consumer to defer payment of debt, incur debt and defer its payment, or purchase property or services and defer payment therefor.
</P>
<P>(g) “Electronic fund transfer” is defined in § 1005.3.
</P>
<P>(h) “Electronic terminal” means an electronic device, other than a telephone operated by a consumer, through which a consumer may initiate an electronic fund transfer. The term includes, but is not limited to, point-of-sale terminals, automated teller machines (ATMs), and cash dispensing machines.
</P>
<P>(i) “Financial institution” means a bank, savings association, credit union, or any other person that directly or indirectly holds an account belonging to a consumer, or that issues an access device and agrees with a consumer to provide electronic fund transfer services, other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</P>
<P>(j) “Person” means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, government agency, estate, trust, partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, or association.
</P>
<P>(k) “Preauthorized electronic fund transfer” means an electronic fund transfer authorized in advance to recur at substantially regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(l) “State” means any state, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision of the thereof in this paragraph (l).
</P>
<P>(m) “Unauthorized electronic fund transfer” means an electronic fund transfer from a consumer's account initiated by a person other than the consumer without actual authority to initiate the transfer and from which the consumer receives no benefit. The term does not include an electronic fund transfer initiated:
</P>
<P>(1) By a person who was furnished the access device to the consumer's account by the consumer, unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized;
</P>
<P>(2) With fraudulent intent by the consumer or any person acting in concert with the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(3) By the financial institution or its employee.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012; 81 FR 84325, Nov. 22, 2016; 83 FR 6417, Feb. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.3   Coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part applies to any electronic fund transfer that authorizes a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer's account. Generally, this part applies to financial institutions. For purposes of §§ 1005.3(b)(2) and (3), 1005.10(b), (d), and (e), 1005.13, and 1005.20, this part applies to any person, other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376. The requirements of subpart B apply to remittance transfer providers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I>—(1) <I>Definition.</I> The term “electronic fund transfer” means any transfer of funds that is initiated through an electronic terminal, telephone, computer, or magnetic tape for the purpose of ordering, instructing, or authorizing a financial institution to debit or credit a consumer's account. The term includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Point-of-sale transfers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Automated teller machine transfers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Direct deposits or withdrawals of funds;
</P>
<P>(iv) Transfers initiated by telephone; and
</P>
<P>(v) Transfers resulting from debit card transactions, whether or not initiated through an electronic terminal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic fund transfer using information from a check.</I> (i) This part applies where a check, draft, or similar paper instrument is used as a source of information to initiate a one-time electronic fund transfer from a consumer's account. The consumer must authorize the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person initiating an electronic fund transfer using the consumer's check as a source of information for the transfer must provide a notice that the transaction will or may be processed as an electronic fund transfer, and obtain a consumer's authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer (in providing a check to a merchant or other payee for the MICR encoding, that is, the routing number of the financial institution, the consumer's account number and the serial number) when the consumer receives notice and goes forward with the underlying transaction. For point-of-sale transfers, the notice must be posted in a prominent and conspicuous location, and a copy thereof, or a substantially similar notice, must be provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A person may provide notices that are substantially similar to those set forth in appendix A-6 to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collection of returned item fees via electronic fund transfer</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect a fee for the return of an electronic fund transfer or a check that is unpaid, including due to insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer's account, must obtain the consumer's authorization for each transfer. A consumer authorizes a one-time electronic fund transfer from his or her account to pay the fee for the returned item or transfer if the person collecting the fee provides notice to the consumer stating that the person may electronically collect the fee, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction. The notice must state that the fee will be collected by means of an electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account if the payment is returned unpaid and must disclose the dollar amount of the fee. If the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, then, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, the person collecting the fee may disclose, in place of the dollar amount of the fee, an explanation of how the fee will be determined.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> If a fee for an electronic fund transfer or check returned unpaid may be collected electronically in connection with a point-of-sale transaction, the person initiating an electronic fund transfer to collect the fee must post the notice described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section in a prominent and conspicuous location. The person also must either provide the consumer with a copy of the posted notice (or a substantially similar notice) at the time of the transaction, or mail the copy (or a substantially similar notice) to the consumer's address as soon as reasonably practicable after the person initiates the electronic fund transfer to collect the fee. If the amount of the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, the posted notice may explain how the fee will be determined, but the notice provided to the consumer must state the dollar amount of the fee if the amount can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusions from coverage.</I> The term “electronic fund transfer” does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Checks.</I> Any transfer of funds originated by check, draft, or similar paper instrument; or any payment made by check, draft, or similar paper instrument at an electronic terminal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Check guarantee or authorization.</I> Any transfer of funds that guarantees payment or authorizes acceptance of a check, draft, or similar paper instrument but that does not directly result in a debit or credit to a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Wire or other similar transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds through Fedwire or through a similar wire transfer system that is used primarily for transfers between financial institutions or between businesses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Securities and commodities transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds the primary purpose of which is the purchase or sale of a security or commodity, if the security or commodity is:
</P>
<P>(i) Regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission;
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchased or sold through a broker-dealer regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or through a futures commission merchant regulated by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Held in book-entry form by a Federal Reserve Bank or Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Automatic transfers by account-holding institution.</I> Any transfer of funds under an agreement between a consumer and a financial institution which provides that the institution will initiate individual transfers without a specific request from the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) Between a consumer's accounts within the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) From a consumer's account to an account of a member of the consumer's family held in the same financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Between a consumer's account and an account of the financial institution, except that these transfers remain subject to § 1005.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 916 and 917 of the Act regarding civil and criminal liability.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone-initiated transfers.</I> Any transfer of funds that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is initiated by a telephone communication between a consumer and a financial institution making the transfer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not take place under a telephone bill-payment or other written plan in which periodic or recurring transfers are contemplated.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Small institutions.</I> Any preauthorized transfer to or from an account if the assets of the account-holding financial institution were $100 million or less on the preceding December 31. If assets of the account-holding institution subsequently exceed $100 million, the institution's exemption for preauthorized transfers terminates one year from the end of the calendar year in which the assets exceed $100 million. Preauthorized transfers exempt under this paragraph (c)(7) remain subject to § 1005.10(e) regarding compulsory use and sections 916 and 917 of the Act regarding civil and criminal liability.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.4   General disclosure requirements; jointly offered services.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this part shall be clear and readily understandable, in writing, and in a form the consumer may keep, except as otherwise provided in this part. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer-consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). A financial institution may use commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations in complying with the disclosure requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this part may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information; disclosures required by other laws.</I> A financial institution may include additional information and may combine disclosures required by other laws (such as the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.</I>) with the disclosures required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple accounts and account holders</I>—(1) <I>Multiple accounts.</I> A financial institution may combine the required disclosures into a single statement for a consumer who holds more than one account at the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multiple account holders.</I> For joint accounts held by two or more consumers, a financial institution need provide only one set of the required disclosures and may provide them to any of the account holders.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Services offered jointly.</I> Financial institutions that provide electronic fund transfer services jointly may contract among themselves to comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. An institution need make only the disclosures required by §§ 1005.7 and 1005.8 that are within its knowledge and within the purview of its relationship with the consumer for whom it holds an account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.5   Issuance of access devices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Solicited issuance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer only:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to an oral or written request for the device; or
</P>
<P>(2) As a renewal of, or in substitution for, an accepted access device whether issued by the institution or a successor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Unsolicited issuance.</I> A financial institution may distribute an access device to a consumer on an unsolicited basis if the access device is:
</P>
<P>(1) Not validated, meaning that the institution has not yet performed all the procedures that would enable a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer using the access device;
</P>
<P>(2) Accompanied by a clear explanation that the access device is not validated and how the consumer may dispose of it if validation is not desired;
</P>
<P>(3) Accompanied by the disclosures required by § 1005.7, of the consumer's rights and liabilities that will apply if the access device is validated; and
</P>
<P>(4) Validated only in response to the consumer's oral or written request for validation, after the institution has verified the consumer's identity by a reasonable means.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.6   Liability of consumer for unauthorized transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conditions for liability.</I> A consumer may be held liable, within the limitations described in paragraph (b) of this section, for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer involving the consumer's account only if the financial institution has provided the disclosures required by § 1005.7(b)(1), (2), and (3). If the unauthorized transfer involved an access device, it must be an accepted access device and the financial institution must have provided a means to identify the consumer to whom it was issued.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on amount of liability.</I> A consumer's liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer or a series of related unauthorized transfers shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Timely notice given.</I> If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the lesser of $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur before notice to the financial institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timely notice not given.</I> If the consumer fails to notify the financial institution within two business days after learning of the loss or theft of the access device, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the lesser of $500 or the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) $50 or the amount of unauthorized transfers that occur within the two business days, whichever is less; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of two business days and before notice to the institution, provided the institution establishes that these transfers would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within that two-day period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic statement; timely notice not given.</I> A consumer must report an unauthorized electronic fund transfer that appears on a periodic statement within 60 days of the financial institution's transmittal of the statement to avoid liability for subsequent transfers. If the consumer fails to do so, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occur after the close of the 60 days and before notice to the institution, and that the institution establishes would not have occurred had the consumer notified the institution within the 60-day period. When an access device is involved in the unauthorized transfer, the consumer may be liable for other amounts set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Extension of time limits.</I> If the consumer's delay in notifying the financial institution was due to extenuating circumstances, the institution shall extend the times specified above to a reasonable period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notice to financial institution.</I> (i) Notice to a financial institution is given when a consumer takes steps reasonably necessary to provide the institution with the pertinent information, whether or not a particular employee or agent of the institution actually receives the information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer may notify the institution in person, by telephone, or in writing.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice is considered given at the time the consumer mails the notice or delivers it for transmission to the institution by any other usual means. Notice may be considered constructively given when the institution becomes aware of circumstances leading to the reasonable belief that an unauthorized transfer to or from the consumer's account has been or may be made.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Liability under state law or agreement.</I> If state law or an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution imposes less liability than is provided by this section, the consumer's liability shall not exceed the amount imposed under the state law or agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.7   Initial disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> A financial institution shall make the disclosures required by this section at the time a consumer contracts for an electronic fund transfer service or before the first electronic fund transfer is made involving the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> A financial institution shall provide the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Liability of consumer.</I> A summary of the consumer's liability, under § 1005.6 or under state or other applicable law or agreement, for unauthorized electronic fund transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telephone number and address.</I> The telephone number and address of the person or office to be notified when the consumer believes that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has been or may be made.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business days.</I> The financial institution's business days.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Types of transfers; limitations.</I> The type of electronic fund transfers that the consumer may make and any limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers. Details of the limitations need not be disclosed if confidentiality is essential to maintain the security of the electronic fund transfer system.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fees.</I> Any fees imposed by the financial institution for electronic fund transfers or for the right to make transfers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Documentation.</I> A summary of the consumer's right to receipts and periodic statements, as provided in § 1005.9 of this part, and notices regarding preauthorized transfers as provided in § 1005.10(a) and (d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stop payment.</I> A summary of the consumer's right to stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer and the procedure for placing a stop-payment order, as provided in § 1005.10(c).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Liability of institution.</I> A summary of the financial institution's liability to the consumer under section 910 of the Act for failure to make or to stop certain transfers.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Confidentiality.</I> The circumstances under which, in the ordinary course of business, the financial institution may provide information concerning the consumer's account to third parties.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice that is substantially similar to Model Form A-3 as set out in appendix A of this part concerning error resolution.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>ATM fees.</I> A notice that a fee may be imposed by an automated teller machine operator as defined in § 1005.16(a), when the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or makes a balance inquiry, and by any network used to complete the transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Addition of electronic fund transfer services.</I> If an electronic fund transfer service is added to a consumer's account and is subject to terms and conditions different from those described in the initial disclosures, disclosures for the new service are required.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 70320, Oct. 12, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.8   Change in terms notice; error resolution notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Change in terms notice</I>—(1) <I>Prior notice required.</I> A financial institution shall mail or deliver a written notice to the consumer, at least 21 days before the effective date, of any change in a term or condition required to be disclosed under § 1005.7(b) of this part if the change would result in:
</P>
<P>(i) Increased fees for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Increased liability for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fewer types of available electronic fund transfers; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Stricter limitations on the frequency or dollar amount of transfers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior notice exception.</I> A financial institution need not give prior notice if an immediate change in terms or conditions is necessary to maintain or restore the security of an account or an electronic fund transfer system. If the institution makes such a change permanent and disclosure would not jeopardize the security of the account or system, the institution shall notify the consumer in writing on or with the next regularly scheduled periodic statement or within 30 days of making the change permanent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Error resolution notice.</I> For accounts to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall mail or deliver to the consumer, at least once each calendar year, an error resolution notice substantially similar to the model form set forth in appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3). Alternatively, an institution may include an abbreviated notice substantially similar to the model form error resolution notice set forth in appendix A of this part (Model Form A-3), on or with each periodic statement required by § 1005.9(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.9   Receipts at electronic terminals; periodic statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Receipts at electronic terminals—General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a financial institution shall make a receipt available to a consumer at the time the consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer at an electronic terminal. The receipt shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount.</I> The amount of the transfer. A transaction fee may be included in this amount, provided the amount of the fee is disclosed on the receipt and displayed on or at the terminal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Date.</I> The date the consumer initiates the transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Type.</I> The type of transfer and the type of the consumer's account(s) to or from which funds are transferred. The type of account may be omitted if the access device used is able to access only one account at that terminal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Identification.</I> A number or code that identifies the consumer's account or accounts, or the access device used to initiate the transfer. The number or code need not exceed four digits or letters to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (a)(4).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Terminal location.</I> The location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated, or an identification such as a code or terminal number. Except in limited circumstances where all terminals are located in the same city or state, if the location is disclosed, it shall include the city and state or foreign country and one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The street address; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A generally accepted name for the specific location; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The name of the owner or operator of the terminal if other than the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Third party transfer.</I> The name of any third party to or from whom funds are transferred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Periodic statements.</I> For an account to or from which electronic fund transfers can be made, a financial institution shall send a periodic statement for each monthly cycle in which an electronic fund transfer has occurred; and shall send a periodic statement at least quarterly if no transfer has occurred. The statement shall set forth the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transaction information.</I> For each electronic fund transfer occurring during the cycle:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The type of transfer and type of account to or from which funds were transferred;
</P>
<P>(iv) For a transfer initiated by the consumer at an electronic terminal (except for a deposit of cash or a check, draft, or similar paper instrument), the terminal location described in paragraph (a)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) The name of any third party to or from whom funds were transferred.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account number.</I> The number of the account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees.</I> The amount of any fees assessed against the account during the statement period for electronic fund transfers, the right to make transfers, or account maintenance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Account balances.</I> The balance in the account at the beginning and at the close of the statement period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Address and telephone number for inquiries.</I> The address and telephone number to be used for inquiries or notice of errors, preceded by “Direct inquiries to” or similar language. The address and telephone number provided on an error resolution notice under § 1005.8(b) given on or with the statement satisfies this requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone number for preauthorized transfers.</I> A telephone number the consumer may call to ascertain whether preauthorized transfers to the consumer's account have occurred, if the financial institution uses the telephone-notice option under § 1005.10(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions to the periodic statement requirement for certain accounts</I>—(1) <I>Preauthorized transfers to accounts.</I> For accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Passbook accounts.</I> For passbook accounts, the financial institution need not provide a periodic statement if the institution updates the passbook upon presentation or enters on a separate document the amount and date of each electronic fund transfer since the passbook was last presented.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other accounts.</I> For accounts other than passbook accounts, the financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Intra-institutional transfers.</I> For an electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer between two accounts of the consumer in the same institution, documenting the transfer on a periodic statement for one of the two accounts satisfies the periodic statement requirement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relationship between paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.</I> An account that is accessed by preauthorized transfers to the account described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section and by intra-institutional transfers described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, but by no other type of electronic fund transfers, qualifies for the exceptions provided by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation for foreign-initiated transfers.</I> The failure by a financial institution to provide a terminal receipt for an electronic fund transfer or to document the transfer on a periodic statement does not violate this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) The transfer is not initiated within a state; and
</P>
<P>(2) The financial institution treats an inquiry for clarification or documentation as a notice of error in accordance with § 1005.11.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception for receipts in small-value transfers.</I> A financial institution is not subject to the requirement to make available a receipt under paragraph (a) of this section if the amount of the transfer is $15 or less.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.10   Preauthorized transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preauthorized transfers to consumer's account</I>—(1) <I>Notice by financial institution.</I> When a person initiates preauthorized electronic fund transfers to a consumer's account at least once every 60 days, the account-holding financial institution shall provide notice to the consumer by:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Positive notice.</I> Providing oral or written notice of the transfer within two business days after the transfer occurs; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative notice.</I> Providing oral or written notice, within two business days after the date on which the transfer was scheduled to occur, that the transfer did not occur; or
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Readily-available telephone line.</I> Providing a readily available telephone line that the consumer may call to determine whether the transfer occurred and disclosing the telephone number on the initial disclosure of account terms and on each periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice by payor.</I> A financial institution need not provide notice of a transfer if the payor gives the consumer positive notice that the transfer has been initiated.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Crediting.</I> A financial institution that receives a preauthorized transfer of the type described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall credit the amount of the transfer as of the date the funds for the transfer are received.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written authorization for preauthorized transfers from consumer's account.</I> Preauthorized electronic fund transfers from a consumer's account may be authorized only by a writing signed or similarly authenticated by the consumer. The person that obtains the authorization shall provide a copy to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer's right to stop payment</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> A consumer may stop payment of a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account by notifying the financial institution orally or in writing at least three business days before the scheduled date of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written confirmation.</I> The financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of a stop-payment order within 14 days of an oral notification. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification. An oral stop-payment order ceases to be binding after 14 days if the consumer fails to provide the required written confirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of transfers varying in amount</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> When a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account will vary in amount from the previous transfer under the same authorization or from the preauthorized amount, the designated payee or the financial institution shall send the consumer written notice of the amount and date of the transfer at least 10 days before the scheduled date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Range.</I> The designated payee or the institution shall inform the consumer of the right to receive notice of all varying transfers, but may give the consumer the option of receiving notice only when a transfer falls outside a specified range of amounts or only when a transfer differs from the most recent transfer by more than an agreed-upon amount.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compulsory use</I>—(1) <I>Credit.</I> No financial institution or other person may condition an extension of credit to a consumer on the consumer's repayment by preauthorized electronic fund transfers, except for credit extended under an overdraft credit plan or extended to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account. This exception does not apply to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61. This exception also does not apply to covered overdraft credit extended by very large financial institutions as those terms are defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.62.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employment or government benefit.</I> No financial institution or other person may require a consumer to establish an account for receipt of electronic fund transfers with a particular institution as a condition of employment or receipt of a government benefit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84326, Nov. 22, 2016; 89 FR 106836, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.11   Procedures for resolving errors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of error</I>—(1) <I>Types of transfers or inquiries covered.</I> The term “error” means:
</P>
<P>(i) An unauthorized electronic fund transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) An incorrect electronic fund transfer to or from the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(iii) The omission of an electronic fund transfer from a periodic statement;
</P>
<P>(iv) A computational or bookkeeping error made by the financial institution relating to an electronic fund transfer;
</P>
<P>(v) The consumer's receipt of an incorrect amount of money from an electronic terminal;
</P>
<P>(vi) An electronic fund transfer not identified in accordance with § 1005.9 or § 1005.10(a); or
</P>
<P>(vii) The consumer's request for documentation required by § 1005.9 or § 1005.10(a) or for additional information or clarification concerning an electronic fund transfer, including a request the consumer makes to determine whether an error exists under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of inquiries not covered.</I> The term “error” does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A routine inquiry about the consumer's account balance;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for information for tax or other recordkeeping purposes; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A request for duplicate copies of documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of error from consumer</I>—(1) <I>Timing; contents.</I> A financial institution shall comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any oral or written notice of error from the consumer that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is received by the institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the periodic statement or provides the passbook documentation, required by § 1005.9, on which the alleged error is first reflected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enables the institution to identify the consumer's name and account number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Indicates why the consumer believes an error exists and includes to the extent possible the type, date, and amount of the error, except for requests described in paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written confirmation.</I> A financial institution may require the consumer to give written confirmation of an error within 10 business days of an oral notice. An institution that requires written confirmation shall inform the consumer of the requirement and provide the address where confirmation must be sent when the consumer gives the oral notification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request for documentation or clarifications.</I> When a notice of error is based on documentation or clarification that the consumer requested under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section, the consumer's notice of error is timely if received by the financial institution no later than 60 days after the institution sends the information requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits and extent of investigation</I>—(1) <I>Ten-day period.</I> A financial institution shall investigate promptly and, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c), shall determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days of receiving a notice of error. The institution shall report the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation. The institution shall correct the error within one business day after determining that an error occurred.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Forty-five day period.</I> If the financial institution is unable to complete its investigation within 10 business days, the institution may take up to 45 days from receipt of a notice of error to investigate and determine whether an error occurred, provided the institution does the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Provisionally credits the consumer's account in the amount of the alleged error (including interest where applicable) within 10 business days of receiving the error notice. If the financial institution has a reasonable basis for believing that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has occurred and the institution has satisfied the requirements of § 1005.6(a), the institution may withhold a maximum of $50 from the amount credited. An institution need not provisionally credit the consumer's account if:
</P>
<P>(A) The institution requires but does not receive written confirmation within 10 business days of an oral notice of error; or
</P>
<P>(B) The alleged error involves an account that is subject to Regulation T of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Securities Credit by Brokers and Dealers, 12 CFR part 220).
</P>
<P>(ii) Informs the consumer, within two business days after the provisional crediting, of the amount and date of the provisional crediting and gives the consumer full use of the funds during the investigation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Corrects the error, if any, within one business day after determining that an error occurred; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Reports the results to the consumer within three business days after completing its investigation (including, if applicable, notice that a provisional credit has been made final).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extension of time periods.</I> The time periods in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section are extended as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable time is 20 business days in place of 10 business days under paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section if the notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer to or from the account within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicable time is 90 days in place of 45 days under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, for completing an investigation, if a notice of error involves an electronic fund transfer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Was not initiated within a state;
</P>
<P>(B) Resulted from a point-of-sale debit card transaction; or
</P>
<P>(C) Occurred within 30 days after the first deposit to the account was made.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investigation.</I> With the exception of transfers covered by § 1005.14 of this part, a financial institution's review of its own records regarding an alleged error satisfies the requirements of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The alleged error concerns a transfer to or from a third party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of electronic fund transfer involved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures if financial institution determines no error or different error occurred.</I> In addition to following the procedures specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the financial institution shall follow the procedures set forth in this paragraph (d) if it determines that no error occurred or that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Written explanation.</I> The institution's report of the results of its investigation shall include a written explanation of the institution's findings and shall note the consumer's right to request the documents that the institution relied on in making its determination. Upon request, the institution shall promptly provide copies of the documents.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Debiting provisional credit.</I> Upon debiting a provisionally credited amount, the financial institution shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the consumer of the date and amount of the debiting;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notify the consumer that the institution will honor checks, drafts, or similar instruments payable to third parties and preauthorized transfers from the consumer's account (without charge to the consumer as a result of an overdraft) for five business days after the notification. The institution shall honor items as specified in the notice, but need honor only items that it would have paid if the provisionally credited funds had not been debited.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reassertion of error.</I> A financial institution that has fully complied with the error resolution requirements has no further responsibilities under this section should the consumer later reassert the same error, except in the case of an error asserted by the consumer following receipt of information provided under paragraph (a)(1)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84326, Nov. 22, 2016; 83 FR 6417, Feb. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.12" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.12   Relation to other laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relation to Truth in Lending.</I> (1) The Electronic Fund Transfer Act and this part govern:
</P>
<P>(i) The addition to an accepted credit card, as defined in Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.12, comment 12-2), of the capability to initiate electronic fund transfers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The issuance of an access device (other than an access device for a prepaid account) that permits credit extensions (under a preexisting agreement between a consumer and a financial institution) only when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 1005.17(a) of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The addition of an overdraft service, as defined in § 1005.17(a), to an accepted access device; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A consumer's liability for an unauthorized electronic fund transfer and the investigation of errors involving:
</P>
<P>(A) Except with respect to a prepaid account, an extension of credit that is incident to an electronic fund transfer that occurs under an agreement between the consumer and a financial institution to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account, or under an overdraft service, as defined in § 1005.17(a);
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to transactions that involve a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as those terms are defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, an extension of credit that is incident to an electronic fund transfer that occurs when the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses both funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account and a credit extension from the credit feature with respect to a particular transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) Transactions that involves credit extended through a negative balance to the asset feature of a prepaid account that meets the conditions set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(4); and
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to transactions involving a prepaid account and a non-covered separate credit feature as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, transactions that access the prepaid account, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) The Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), which prohibit the unsolicited issuance of credit cards, govern:
</P>
<P>(i) The addition of a credit feature or plan to an accepted access device, including an access device for a prepaid account, that would make the access device into a credit card under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026);
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the issuance of a credit card that is also an access device; and
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to transactions involving a prepaid account and a non-covered separate credit feature as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, a consumer's liability for unauthorized use and the investigation of errors involving transactions that access the non-covered separate credit feature, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preemption of inconsistent state laws</I>—(1) <I>Inconsistent requirements.</I> The Bureau shall determine, upon its own motion or upon the request of a state, financial institution, or other interested party, whether the Act and this part preempt state law relating to electronic fund transfers, or dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates in the case of gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards for determination.</I> State law is inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this part if state law:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires or permits a practice or act prohibited by the Federal law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides for consumer liability for unauthorized electronic fund transfers that exceeds the limits imposed by the Federal law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Allows longer time periods than the Federal law for investigating and correcting alleged errors, or does not require the financial institution to credit the consumer's account during an error investigation in accordance with § 1005.11(c)(2)(i) of this part; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Requires initial disclosures, periodic statements, or receipts that are different in content from those required by the Federal law except to the extent that the disclosures relate to consumer rights granted by the state law and not by the Federal law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State exemptions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Any state may apply for an exemption from the requirements of the Act or this part for any class of electronic fund transfers within the state. The Bureau shall grant an exemption if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) Under state law the class of electronic fund transfers is subject to requirements substantially similar to those imposed by the Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> To assure that the Federal and state courts continue to have concurrent jurisdiction, and to aid in implementing the Act:
</P>
<P>(i) No exemption shall extend to the civil liability provisions of section 916 of the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) When the Bureau grants an exemption, the state law requirements shall constitute the requirements of the Federal law for purposes of section 916 of the Act, except for state law requirements not imposed by the Federal law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84326, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.13" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.13   Administrative enforcement; record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement by Federal agencies.</I> Compliance with this part is enforced in accordance with section 918 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record retention.</I> (1) Any person subject to the Act and this part shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by the Act and this part for a period of not less than two years from the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken.
</P>
<P>(2) Any person subject to the Act and this part having actual notice that it is the subject of an investigation or an enforcement proceeding by its enforcement agency, or having been served with notice of an action filed under sections 910, 916, or 917(a) of the Act, shall retain the records that pertain to the investigation, action, or proceeding until final disposition of the matter unless an earlier time is allowed by court or agency order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.14   Electronic fund transfer service provider not holding consumer's account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provider of electronic fund transfer service.</I> A person that provides an electronic fund transfer service to a consumer but that does not hold the consumer's account is subject to all requirements of this part if the person:
</P>
<P>(1) Issues a debit card (or other access device) that the consumer can use to access the consumer's account held by a financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has no agreement with the account-holding institution regarding such access.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compliance by service provider.</I> In addition to the requirements generally applicable under this part, the service provider shall comply with the following special rules:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosures and documentation.</I> The service provider shall give the disclosures and documentation required by §§ 1005.7, 1005.8, and 1005.9 of this part that are within the purview of its relationship with the consumer. The service provider need not furnish the periodic statement required by § 1005.9(b) if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The debit card (or other access device) issued to the consumer bears the service provider's name and an address or telephone number for making inquiries or giving notice of error;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer receives a notice concerning use of the debit card that is substantially similar to the notice contained in appendix A of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer receives, on or with the receipts required by § 1005.9(a), the address and telephone number to be used for an inquiry, to give notice of an error, or to report the loss or theft of the debit card;
</P>
<P>(iv) The service provider transmits to the account-holding institution the information specified in § 1005.9(b)(1), in the format prescribed by the automated clearinghouse (ACH) system used to clear the fund transfers;
</P>
<P>(v) The service provider extends the time period for notice of loss or theft of a debit card, set forth in § 1005.6(b)(1) and (2), from two business days to four business days after the consumer learns of the loss or theft; and extends the time periods for reporting unauthorized transfers or errors, set forth in §§ 1005.6(b)(3) and 1005.11(b)(1)(i), from 60 days to 90 days following the transmittal of a periodic statement by the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Error resolution.</I> (i) The service provider shall extend by a reasonable time the period in which notice of an error must be received, specified in § 1005.11(b)(1)(i), if a delay resulted from an initial attempt by the consumer to notify the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) The service provider shall disclose to the consumer the date on which it initiates a transfer to effect a provisional credit in accordance with § 1005.11(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>(iii) If the service provider determines an error occurred, it shall transfer funds to or from the consumer's account, in the appropriate amount and within the applicable time period, in accordance with § 1005.11(c)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(iv) If funds were provisionally credited and the service provider determines no error occurred, it may reverse the credit. The service provider shall notify the account-holding institution of the period during which the account-holding institution must honor debits to the account in accordance with § 1005.11(d)(2)(ii). If an overdraft results, the service provider shall promptly reimburse the account-holding institution in the amount of the overdraft.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance by account-holding institution.</I> The account-holding institution need not comply with the requirements of the Act and this part with respect to electronic fund transfers initiated through the service provider except as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documentation.</I> The account-holding institution shall provide a periodic statement that describes each electronic fund transfer initiated by the consumer with the access device issued by the service provider. The account-holding institution has no liability for the failure to comply with this requirement if the service provider did not provide the necessary information; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Error resolution.</I> Upon request, the account-holding institution shall provide information or copies of documents needed by the service provider to investigate errors or to furnish copies of documents to the consumer. The account-holding institution shall also honor debits to the account in accordance with § 1005.11(d)(2)(ii).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.15   Electronic fund transfer of government benefits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Government agency subject to regulation.</I> (1) A government agency is deemed to be a financial institution for purposes of the Act and this part if directly or indirectly it issues an access device to a consumer for use in initiating an electronic fund transfer of government benefits from an account, other than needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency. The agency shall comply with all applicable requirements of the Act and this part except as modified by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this section, the term “account” or “government benefit account” means an account established by a government agency for distributing government benefits to a consumer electronically, such as through automated teller machines or point-of-sale terminals, but does not include an account for distributing needs-tested benefits in a program established under state or local law or administered by a state or local agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of access devices.</I> For purposes of this section, a consumer is deemed to request an access device when the consumer applies for government benefits that the agency disburses or will disburse by means of an electronic fund transfer. The agency shall verify the identity of the consumer receiving the device by reasonable means before the device is activated.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-acquisition disclosure requirements.</I> (1) Before a consumer acquires a government benefit account, a government agency shall comply with the pre-acquisition disclosure requirements applicable to prepaid accounts as set forth in § 1005.18(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional content for government benefit accounts</I>—(i) <I>Statement regarding consumer's payment options.</I> As part of its short form pre-acquisition disclosures, the agency must provide a statement that the consumer does not have to accept the government benefit account and directing the consumer to ask about other ways to receive their benefit payments from the agency instead of receiving them via the account, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “You do not have to accept this benefits card. Ask about other ways to receive your benefits.” Alternatively, an agency may provide a statement that the consumer has several options to receive benefit payments, followed by a list of the options available to the consumer, and directing the consumer to indicate which option the consumer chooses using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “You have several options to receive your payments: [list of options available to the consumer]; or this benefits card. Tell the benefits office which option you choose.” This statement must be located above the information required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (iv). This statement must appear in a minimum type size of eight points (or 11 pixels) and appear in no larger a type size than what is used for the fee headings required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (iv).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Statement regarding state-required information or other fee discounts and waivers.</I> An agency may, but is not required to, include a statement in one additional line of text in the short form disclosure directing the consumer to a particular location outside the short form disclosure for information on ways the consumer may access government benefit account funds and balance information for free or for a reduced fee. This statement must be located directly below any statements disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) and (ii), or, if no such statements are disclosed, above the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(x). This statement must appear in the same type size used to disclose variable fee information pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) and (ii), or, if none, the same type size used for the information required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(x) through (xiii).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> When a short form disclosure required by paragraph (c) of this section is provided in writing or electronically, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (ix) shall be provided in the form of a table. Except as provided in § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B), the short form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2) shall be provided in a form substantially similar to Model Form A-10(a) of appendix A of this part. Sample Form A-10(f) in appendix A of this part provides an example of the long form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(4) when the agency does not offer multiple service plans.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to account information</I>—(1) <I>Periodic statement alternative.</I> A government agency need not furnish periodic statements required by § 1005.9(b) if the agency makes available to the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer's account balance, through a readily available telephone line and at a terminal (such as by providing balance information at a balance-inquiry terminal or providing it, routinely or upon request, on a terminal receipt at the time of an electronic fund transfer);
</P>
<P>(ii) An electronic history of the consumer's account transactions, such as through a Web site, that covers at least 12 months preceding the date the consumer electronically accesses the account; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A written history of the consumer's account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 24 months preceding the date the agency receives the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional access to account information requirements.</I> For government benefit accounts, a government agency shall comply with the account information requirements applicable to prepaid accounts as set forth in § 1005.18(c)(3) through (5).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Modified disclosure, limitations on liability, and error resolution requirements.</I> A government agency that provides information under paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall comply with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> The agency shall modify the disclosures under § 1005.7(b) by disclosing:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Access to account information.</I> A telephone number that the consumer may call to obtain the account balance, the means by which the consumer can obtain an electronic account history, such as the address of a Web site, and a summary of the consumer's right to receive a written account history upon request (in place of the summary of the right to receive a periodic statement required by § 1005.7(b)(6)), including a telephone number to call to request a history. The disclosure required by this paragraph (e)(1)(i) may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (a) of appendix A-5 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (b) of appendix A-5 of this part, in place of the notice required by § 1005.7(b)(10).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual error resolution notice.</I> The agency shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (b) of appendix A-5 of this part, in place of the notice required by § 1005.8(b). Alternatively, the agency may include on or with each electronic or written history provided in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a notice substantially similar to the abbreviated notice for periodic statements contained in paragraph (b) in appendix A-3 of this part, modified as necessary to reflect the error resolution provisions set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Modified limitations on liability requirements.</I> (i) For purposes of § 1005.6(b)(3), the 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer shall begin on the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the unauthorized transfer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date the agency sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section in which the unauthorized transfer is first reflected.
</P>
<P>(ii) An agency may comply with paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section by limiting the consumer's liability for an unauthorized transfer as provided under § 1005.6(b)(3) for any transfer reported by the consumer within 120 days after the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Modified error resolution requirements.</I> (i) The agency shall comply with the requirements of § 1005.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) Sixty days after the date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic history made available to the consumer reflects the alleged error; or
</P>
<P>(B) Sixty days after the date the agency sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section in which the alleged error is first reflected.
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of following the procedures in paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section, an agency complies with the requirements for resolving errors in § 1005.11 if it investigates any oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the agency within 120 days after the transfer allegedly in error was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of fees and other information.</I> For government benefit accounts, a government agency shall comply with the disclosure and change-in-terms requirements applicable to prepaid accounts as set forth in § 1005.18(f).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Government benefit accounts accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> For government benefit accounts accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, a government agency shall comply with prohibitions and requirements applicable to prepaid accounts as set forth in § 1005.18(g).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 84326, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.16" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.16   Disclosures at automated teller machines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> “Automated teller machine operator” means any person that operates an automated teller machine at which a consumer initiates an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry and that does not hold the account to or from which the transfer is made, or about which an inquiry is made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> An automated teller machine operator that imposes a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry must provide a notice that a fee will be imposed for providing electronic fund transfer services or a balance inquiry that discloses the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice requirement.</I> An automated teller machine operator must provide the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section either by showing it on the screen of the automated teller machine or by providing it on paper, before the consumer is committed to paying a fee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Imposition of fee.</I> An automated teller machine operator may impose a fee on a consumer for initiating an electronic fund transfer or a balance inquiry only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer is provided the notice required under paragraph (c) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer elects to continue the transaction or inquiry after receiving such notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 18224, Mar. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.17" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.17   Requirements for overdraft services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “overdraft service” means a service under which a financial institution assesses a fee or charge on a consumer's account held by the institution for paying a transaction (including a check or other item) when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the account. The term “overdraft service” does not include any payment of overdrafts pursuant to:
</P>
<P>(1) A line of credit subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), including transfers from a credit card account, home equity line of credit, or overdraft line of credit;
</P>
<P>(2) A service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by a consumer, such as a savings account;
</P>
<P>(3) A line of credit or other transaction exempt from Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.3(d); or
</P>
<P>(4) A covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61; or credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account that meets the conditions of 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (c) of this section, a financial institution holding a consumer's account shall not assess a fee or charge on a consumer's account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, unless the institution:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer with a notice in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, segregated from all other information, describing the institution's overdraft service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtains the consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to the institution's payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the consumer with confirmation of the consumer's consent in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically, which includes a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke such consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditioning payment of other overdrafts on consumer's affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution shall not:
</P>
<P>(i) Condition the payment of any overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the institution's payment of ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Decline to pay checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions that overdraw the consumer's account because the consumer has not affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Same account terms, conditions, and features.</I> A financial institution shall provide to consumers who do not affirmatively consent to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions the same account terms, conditions, and features that it provides to consumers who affirmatively consent, except for the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>Existing account holders.</I> For accounts opened prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution must not assess any fees or charges on a consumer's account on or after August 15, 2010, for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the overdraft service, unless the institution has complied with § 1005.17(b)(1) and obtained the consumer's affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>New account holders.</I> For accounts opened on or after July 1, 2010, the financial institution must comply with § 1005.17(b)(1) and obtain the consumer's affirmative consent before the institution assesses any fee or charge on the consumer's account for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and format.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be substantially similar to Model Form A-9 set forth in appendix A of this part, include all applicable items in this paragraph, and may not contain any information not specified in or otherwise permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Overdraft service.</I> A brief description of the financial institution's overdraft service and the types of transactions for which a fee or charge for paying an overdraft may be imposed, including ATM and one-time debit card transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees imposed.</I> The dollar amount of any fees or charges assessed by the financial institution for paying an ATM or one-time debit card transaction pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, including any daily or other overdraft fees. If the amount of the fee is determined on the basis of the number of times the consumer has overdrawn the account, the amount of the overdraft, or other factors, the institution must disclose the maximum fee that may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limits on fees charged.</I> The maximum number of overdraft fees or charges that may be assessed per day, or, if applicable, that there is no limit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure of opt-in right.</I> An explanation of the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to the financial institution's payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service, including the methods by which the consumer may consent to the service; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Alternative plans for covering overdrafts.</I> If the institution offers a line of credit subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) or a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state that fact. An institution may, but is not required to, list additional alternatives for the payment of overdrafts.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Permitted modifications and additional content.</I> If applicable, the institution may modify the content required by § 1005.17(d) to indicate that the consumer has the right to opt into, or opt out of, the payment of overdrafts under the institution's overdraft service for other types of transactions, such as checks, ACH transactions, or automatic bill payments; to provide a means for the consumer to exercise this choice; and to disclose the associated returned item fee and that additional merchant fees may apply. The institution may also disclose the consumer's right to revoke consent. For notices provided to consumers who have opened accounts prior to July 1, 2010, the financial institution may describe the institution's overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card transactions with a statement such as “After August 15, 2010, we will not authorize and pay overdrafts for the following types of transactions unless you ask us to (see below).”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint relationships.</I> If two or more consumers jointly hold an account, the financial institution shall treat the affirmative consent of any of the joint consumers as affirmative consent for that account. Similarly, the financial institution shall treat a revocation of affirmative consent by any of the joint consumers as revocation of consent for that account.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Continuing right to opt in or to revoke the opt-in.</I> A consumer may affirmatively consent to the financial institution's overdraft service at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. A consumer may also revoke consent at any time in the manner made available to the consumer for providing consent. A financial institution must implement a consumer's revocation of consent as soon as reasonably practicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Duration and revocation of opt-in.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent to the institution's overdraft service is effective until revoked by the consumer, or unless the financial institution terminates the service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84328, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.18" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.18   Requirements for financial institutions offering prepaid accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> A financial institution shall comply with all applicable requirements of the Act and this part with respect to prepaid accounts except as modified by this section. For rules governing government benefit accounts, see § 1005.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-acquisition disclosure requirements</I>—(1) <I>Timing of disclosures</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, a financial institution shall provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section before a consumer acquires a prepaid account. When a prepaid account is used for disbursing funds to a consumer, and the financial institution or third party making the disbursement does not offer any alternative means for the consumer to receive those funds in lieu of accepting the prepaid account, for purposes of this paragraph, the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section may be provided at the time the consumer receives the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired in retail locations.</I> A financial institution is not required to provide the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section before a consumer acquires a prepaid account in person at a retail location if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The prepaid account access device is contained inside the packaging material.
</P>
<P>(B) The disclosure required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section is provided on or are visible through an outward-facing, external surface of a prepaid account access device's packaging material.
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosure required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section includes the information set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(xiii) of this section that allows a consumer to access the information required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(4) of this section by telephone and via a website.
</P>
<P>(D) The long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section is provided after the consumer acquires the prepaid account. If a financial institution does not provide the long form disclosure inside the prepaid account packaging material, and it is not otherwise already mailing or delivering to the consumer written account-related communications within 30 days of obtaining the consumer's contact information, it may provide the long form disclosure pursuant to this paragraph in electronic form without regard to the consumer notice and consent requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired orally by telephone.</I> A financial institution is not required to provide the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section before a consumer acquires a prepaid account orally by telephone if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The financial institution communicates to the consumer orally, before the consumer acquires the prepaid account, that the information required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(4) of this section is available both by telephone and on a Web site.
</P>
<P>(B) The financial institution makes the information required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(4) of this section available both by telephone and on a Web site.
</P>
<P>(C) The long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section is provided after the consumer acquires the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Short form disclosure content.</I> In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a financial institution shall provide a disclosure setting forth the following fees and information for a prepaid account, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Periodic fee.</I> The periodic fee charged for holding the prepaid account, assessed on a monthly or other periodic basis, using the term “Monthly fee,” “Annual fee,” or a substantially similar term.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Per purchase fee.</I> The fee for making a purchase using the prepaid account, using the term “Per purchase” or a substantially similar term.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>ATM withdrawal fees.</I> Two fees for using an automated teller machine to initiate a withdrawal of cash in the United States from the prepaid account, both within and outside of the financial institution's network or a network affiliated with the financial institution, using the term “ATM withdrawal” or a substantially similar term, and “in-network” or “out-of-network,” respectively, or substantially similar terms.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cash reload fee.</I> The fee for reloading cash into the prepaid account using the term “Cash reload” or a substantially similar term. The fee disclosed must be the total of all charges from the financial institution and any third parties for a cash reload.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>ATM balance inquiry fees.</I> Two fees for using an automated teller machine to check the balance of the prepaid account in the United States, both within and outside of the financial institution's network or a network affiliated with the financial institution, using the term “ATM balance inquiry” or a substantially similar term, and “in-network” or “out-of-network,” respectively, or substantially similar terms.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Customer service fees.</I> Two fees for calling the financial institution about the prepaid account, both for calling an interactive voice response system and a live customer service agent, using the term “Customer service” or a substantially similar term, and “automated” or “live agent,” or substantially similar terms, respectively, and “per call” or a substantially similar term. When providing a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, disclose only the fee for calling the live agent customer service about the prepaid account, using the term “Live customer service” or a substantially similar term and “per call” or a substantially similar term.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Inactivity fee.</I> The fee for non-use, dormancy, or inactivity of the prepaid account, using the term “Inactivity” or a substantially similar term, as well as the conditions that trigger the financial institution to impose that fee.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Statements regarding additional fee types</I>—(A) <I>Statement regarding number of additional fee types charged.</I> A statement disclosing the number of additional fee types the financial institution may charge consumers with respect to the prepaid account, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “We charge [x] other types of fees.” The number of additional fee types disclosed must reflect the total number of fee types under which the financial institution may charge fees, excluding:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fees required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (b)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Statement directing consumers to disclosure of additional fee types.</I> If a financial institution makes a disclosure pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ix) of this section, a statement directing consumers to that disclosure, located after but on the same line of text as the statement regarding the number of additional fee types required by paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(A) of this section, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Here are some of them:”.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Disclosure of additional fee types</I>—(A) <I>Determination of which additional fee types to disclose.</I> The two fee types that generate the highest revenue from consumers for the prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule during the time period provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(D) and (E) of this section, excluding:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fees required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (b)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any fee types that generated less than 5 percent of the total revenue from consumers for the prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule during the time period provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ix)(D) and (E) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Disclosure of fewer than two additional fee types.</I> A financial institution that has only one additional fee type that satisfies the criteria in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(A) of this section must disclose that one additional fee type; it may, but is not required to, also disclose another additional fee type of its choice. A financial institution that has no additional fee types that satisfy the criteria in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(A) of this section is not required to make a disclosure under this paragraph (b)(2)(ix); it may, but is not required to, disclose one or two fee types of its choice.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Fee variations in additional fee types.</I> If an additional fee type required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(A) of this section has more than two fee variations, or when providing a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the financial institution must disclose the name of the additional fee type and the highest fee amount in accordance with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section; for disclosures other than for multiple service plans, it may, but is not required to, consolidate the fee variations into two categories and disclose the names of those two fee variation categories and the fee amounts in a format substantially similar to that used to disclose the two-tier fees required by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) and (vi) of this section and in accordance with paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (b)(7)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section. Except when providing a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, if an additional fee type has two fee variations, the financial institution must disclose the name of the additional fee type together with the names of the two fee variations and the fee amounts in a format substantially similar to that used to disclose the two-tier fees required by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) and (vi) of this section and in accordance with paragraph (b)(7)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section. If a financial institution only charges one fee under a particular fee type, the financial institution must disclose the name of the additional fee type and the fee amount; it may, but is not required to, disclose also the name of the one fee variation for which the fee amount is charged, in a format substantially similar to that used to disclose the two-tier fees required by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) and (vi) of this section, except that the financial institution would disclose only the one fee variation name and fee amount instead of two.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Timing of initial assessment of additional fee types disclosure</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Existing prepaid account programs as of April 1, 2019.</I> For a prepaid account program in effect as of April 1, 2019, the financial institution must disclose the additional fee types based on revenue for a 24-month period that begins no earlier than October 1, 2014.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Existing prepaid account programs as of April 1, 2019 with unavailable data.</I> If a financial institution does not have 24 months of fee revenue data for a particular prepaid account program from which to calculate the additional fee types disclosure in advance of April 1, 2019, the financial institution must disclose the additional fee types based on revenue it reasonably anticipates the prepaid account program will generate over the 24-month period that begins on April 1, 2019.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>New prepaid account programs created on or after April 1, 2019.</I> For a prepaid account program created on or after April 1, 2019, the financial institution must disclose the additional fee types based on revenue it reasonably anticipates the prepaid account program will generate over the first 24 months of the program.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Timing of periodic reassessment and update of additional fee types disclosure</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>General.</I> A financial institution must reassess its additional fee types disclosure periodically as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>) of this section and upon a fee schedule change as described in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section. The financial institution must update its additional fee types disclosure if the previous disclosure no longer complies with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ix).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Periodic reassessment.</I> A financial institution must reassess whether its previously disclosed additional fee types continue to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ix) every 24 months based on revenue for the previous 24-month period. The financial institution must complete this reassessment and update its disclosure, if applicable, within three months of the end of the 24-month period, except as provided in the update printing exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>) of this section. A financial institution may, but is not required to, carry out this reassessment and update, if applicable, more frequently than every 24 months, at which time a new 24-month period commences.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Fee schedule change.</I> If a financial institution revises the fee schedule for a prepaid account program, it must determine whether it reasonably anticipates that the previously disclosed additional fee types will continue to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ix) for the 24 months following implementation of the fee schedule change. If the financial institution reasonably anticipates that the previously disclosed additional fee types will not comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(2)(ix), it must update the disclosure based on its reasonable anticipation of what those additional fee types will be at the time the fee schedule change goes into effect, except as provided in the update printing exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>) of this section. If an immediate change in terms and conditions is necessary to maintain or restore the security of an account or an electronic fund transfer system as described in § 1005.8(a)(2) and that change affects the prepaid account program's fee schedule, the financial institution must complete its reassessment and update its disclosure, if applicable, within three months of the date it makes the change permanent, except as provided in the update printing exception in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Update printing exception.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements to update an additional fee types disclosure in paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E) of this section, a financial institution is not required to update the listing of additional fee types that are provided on, in, or with prepaid account packaging materials that were manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced prior to a periodic reassessment and update pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>) of this section or prior to a fee schedule change pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Statement regarding overdraft credit features.</I> If a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, may be offered at any point to a consumer in connection with the prepaid account, a statement that overdraft/credit may be offered, the time period after which it may be offered, and that fees would apply, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “You may be offered overdraft/credit after [x] days. Fees would apply.” If no such credit feature will be offered at any point to a consumer in connection with the prepaid account, a statement that no overdraft credit feature is offered, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “No overdraft/credit feature.”
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Statement regarding registration and FDIC or NCUA insurance.</I> A statement regarding the prepaid account program's eligibility for FDIC deposit insurance or NCUA share insurance, as appropriate, and directing the consumer to register the prepaid account for insurance and other account protections, where applicable, as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Account is insurance eligible and does not have pre-acquisition consumer identification/verification.</I> If a prepaid account program is set up to be eligible for FDIC deposit or NCUA share insurance, and consumer identification and verification does not occur before the account is opened, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Register your card for [FDIC insurance eligibility] [NCUA insurance, if eligible,] and other protections.”
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Account is not insurance eligible and does not have pre-acquisition consumer identification/verification.</I> If a prepaid account program is not set up to be eligible for FDIC deposit or NCUA share insurance, and consumer identification and verification does not occur before the account is opened, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Not [FDIC] [NCUA] insured. Register your card for other protections.”
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Account is insurance eligible and has pre-acquisition consumer identification/verification.</I> If a prepaid account program is set up to be eligible for FDIC deposit or NCUA share insurance, and consumer identification and verification occurs for all prepaid accounts within the prepaid program before the account is opened, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Your funds are [eligible for FDIC insurance] [NCUA insured, if eligible].”
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Account is not insurance eligible and has pre-acquisition consumer identification/verification.</I> If a prepaid account program is not set up to be eligible for FDIC deposit or NCUA share insurance, and consumer identification and verification occurs for all prepaid accounts within the prepaid account program before the account is opened, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Your funds are not [FDIC] [NCUA] insured.”
</P>
<P>(E) <I>No consumer identification/verification.</I> If a prepaid account program is set up such that there is no consumer identification and verification process for any prepaid accounts within the prepaid account program, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Treat this card like cash. Not [FDIC] [NCUA] insured.”
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Statement regarding CFPB Web site.</I> A statement directing the consumer to a Web site URL of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (<I>cfpb.gov/prepaid</I>) for general information about prepaid accounts, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “For general information about prepaid accounts, visit <I>cfpb.gov/prepaid</I>.”
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Statement regarding information on all fees and services.</I> A statement directing the consumer to the location of the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section to find details and conditions for all fees and services. For a financial institution offering prepaid accounts at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, this statement must also include a telephone number and a Web site URL that a consumer may use to directly access, respectively, an oral and an electronic version of the long form disclosure required under paragraph (b)(4) of this section. The disclosure required by this paragraph must be made using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Find details and conditions for all fees and services in [location]” or, for prepaid accounts offered at retail locations pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, made using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Find details and conditions for all fees and services inside the package, or call [telephone number] or visit [Web site].” The Web site URL may not exceed 22 characters and must be meaningfully named. A financial institution may, but is not required to, disclose an SMS code at the end of the statement disclosing the telephone number and Web site URL, if the SMS code can be accommodated on the same line of text as the statement required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Additional content for payroll card accounts</I>—(A) <I>Statement regarding wage or salary payment options.</I> For payroll card accounts, a statement that the consumer does not have to accept the payroll card account and directing the consumer to ask about other ways to receive wages or salary from the employer instead of receiving them via the payroll card account using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “You do not have to accept this payroll card. Ask your employer about other ways to receive your wages.” Alternatively, a financial institution may provide a statement that the consumer has several options to receive wages or salary, followed by a list of the options available to the consumer, and directing the consumer to tell the employer which option the consumer chooses using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “You have several options to receive your wages: [list of options available to the consumer]; or this payroll card. Tell your employer which option you choose.” This statement must be located above the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Statement regarding state-required information or other fee discounts and waivers.</I> For payroll card accounts, a financial institution may, but is not required to, include a statement in one additional line of text directing the consumer to a particular location outside the short form disclosure for information on ways the consumer may access payroll card account funds and balance information for free or for a reduced fee. This statement must be located directly below any statements disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, or, if no such statements are disclosed, above the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Short form disclosure of variable fees and third-party fees and prohibition on disclosure of finance charges</I>—(i) <I>General disclosure of variable fees.</I> If the amount of any fee that is required to be disclosed in the short form disclosure pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (ix) of this section could vary, a financial institution shall disclose the highest amount it may impose for that fee, followed by a symbol, such as an asterisk, linked to a statement explaining that the fee could be lower depending on how and where the prepaid account is used, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “This fee can be lower depending on how and where this card is used.” Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a financial institution must use the same symbol and statement for all fees that could vary. The linked statement must be located above the statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disclosure of variable periodic fee.</I> If the amount of the periodic fee disclosed in the short form disclosure pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section could vary, as an alternative to the disclosure required by paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the financial institution may disclose the highest amount it may impose for the periodic fee, followed by a symbol, such as a dagger, that is different from the symbol the financial institution uses pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, to indicate that a waiver of the fee or a lower fee might apply, linked to a statement in one additional line of text disclosing the waiver or reduced fee amount and explaining the circumstances under which the fee waiver or reduction may occur. The linked statement must be located directly above or in place of the linked statement required by paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Single disclosure for like fees.</I> As an alternative to the two-tier fee disclosure required by paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (v), and (vi) of this section and any two-tier fee required by paragraph (b)(2)(ix) of this section, a financial institution may disclose a single fee amount when the amount is the same for both fees.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Third-party fees in general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(v) of this section, a financial institution may not include any third-party fees in a disclosure made pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Third-party cash reload fees.</I> Any third-party fee included in the cash reload fee disclosed in the short form pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section must be the highest fee known by the financial institution at the time it prints, or otherwise prepares, the short form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section. A financial institution is not required to revise its short form disclosure to reflect a cash reload fee change by a third party until such time that the financial institution manufactures, prints, or otherwise produces new prepaid account packaging materials or otherwise updates the short form disclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prohibition on disclosure of finance charges.</I> A financial institution may not include in a disclosure made pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (ix) of this section any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Long form disclosure content.</I> In accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a financial institution shall provide a disclosure setting forth the following fees and information for a prepaid account, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Title for long form disclosure.</I> A heading stating the name of the prepaid account program and that the long form disclosure contains a list of all fees for that particular prepaid account program.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fees.</I> All fees that may be imposed in connection with a prepaid account. For each fee, the financial institution must disclose the amount of the fee and the conditions, if any, under which the fee may be imposed, waived, or reduced. A financial institution may not use any symbols, such as an asterisk, to explain conditions under which any fee may be imposed. A financial institution may, but is not required to, include in the long form disclosure any service or feature it provides or offers at no charge to the consumer. The financial institution must also disclose any third-party fee amounts known to the financial institution that may apply. For any such third-party fee disclosed, the financial institution may, but is not required to, include either or both a statement that the fee is accurate as of or through a specific date or that the third-party fee is subject to change. If a third-party fee may apply but the amount of that fee is not known by the financial institution, it must include a statement indicating that the third-party fee may apply without specifying the fee amount. A financial institution is not required to revise the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section to reflect a fee change by a third party until such time that the financial institution manufactures, prints, or otherwise produces new prepaid account packaging materials or otherwise updates the long form disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Statement regarding registration and FDIC or NCUA insurance.</I> The statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(xi) of this section, together with an explanation of FDIC or NCUA insurance coverage and the benefit of such coverage or the consequence of the lack of such coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Statement regarding overdraft credit features.</I> The statement required by paragraph (b)(2)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Statement regarding financial institution contact information.</I> A statement directing the consumer to a telephone number, mailing address, and Web site URL of the person or office that a consumer may contact to learn about the terms and conditions of the prepaid account, to obtain prepaid account balance information, to request a copy of transaction history pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section if the financial institution does not provide periodic statements pursuant to § 1005.9(b), or to notify the financial institution when the consumer believes that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer occurred as required by § 1005.7(b)(2) and paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Statement regarding CFPB Web site and telephone number.</I> A statement directing the consumer to a Web site URL of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (<I>cfpb.gov/prepaid</I>) for general information about prepaid accounts, and a statement directing the consumer to a Consumer Financial Protection Bureau telephone number (1-855-411-2372) and Web site URL (<I>cfpb.gov/complaint</I>) to submit a complaint about a prepaid account, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “For general information about prepaid accounts, visit <I>cfpb.gov/prepaid</I>. If you have a complaint about a prepaid account, call the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at 1-855-411-2372 or visit <I>cfpb.gov/complaint</I>.”
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Regulation Z disclosures for overdraft credit features.</I> The disclosures described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.60(e)(1), in accordance with the requirements for such disclosures in 12 CFR 1026.60, if, at any point, a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61, may be offered in connection with the prepaid account. A financial institution may, but is not required to, include above the Regulation Z disclosures required by this paragraph a heading and other explanatory information introducing the overdraft credit feature. A financial institution is not required to revise the disclosure required by this paragraph to reflect a change in the fees or other terms disclosed therein until such time as the financial institution manufactures, prints, or otherwise produces new prepaid account packaging materials or otherwise updates the long form disclosure.
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<P>(5) <I>Disclosure requirements outside the short form disclosure.</I> At the time a financial institution provides the short form disclosure, it must also disclose the following information: the name of the financial institution; the name of the prepaid account program; the purchase price for the prepaid account, if any; and the fee for activating the prepaid account, if any. In a setting other than in a retail location, this information must be disclosed in close proximity to the short form. In a retail location, this information, other than the purchase price, must be disclosed on the exterior of the access device's packaging material. In a retail location, the purchase price must be disclosed either on the exterior of or in close proximity to the prepaid account access device's packaging material.
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<P>(6) <I>Form of pre-acquisition disclosures</I>—(i) <I>General</I>—(A) <I>Written disclosures.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(6)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section must be in writing.
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<P>(B) <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Unless provided in written form prior to acquisition pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section must be provided in electronic form when a consumer acquires a prepaid account through electronic means, including via a website or mobile application, and must be viewable across all screen sizes. The long form disclosure must be provided electronically through a website when a financial institution is offering prepaid accounts at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section. Electronic disclosures must be provided in a manner which is reasonably expected to be accessible in light of how a consumer is acquiring the prepaid account, in a responsive form, and using machine-readable text that is accessible via Web browsers or mobile applications, as applicable, and via screen readers. Electronic disclosures provided pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section need not meet the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
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<P>(C) <I>Oral disclosures.</I> Unless provided in written form prior to acquisition pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2) and (5) of this section must be provided orally when a consumer acquires a prepaid account orally by telephone pursuant to the exception in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section. For prepaid accounts acquired in retail locations or orally by telephone, the disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section provided by telephone pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C) or (b)(1)(iii)(B) of this section also must be made orally.
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<P>(ii) <I>Retainable form.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.4(a)(1), disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section must be made in a form that a consumer may keep, except for disclosures provided orally pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) or (iii) of this section, a long form disclosure provided via SMS as permitted by paragraph (b)(2)(xiii) of this section for a prepaid account sold at retail locations pursuant to the retail location exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, and the disclosure of a purchase price pursuant to paragraph (b)(5) of this section that is not disclosed on the exterior of the packaging material for a prepaid account sold at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
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<P>(iii) <I>Tabular format</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> When a short form disclosure is provided in writing or electronically, the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (ix) of this section shall be provided in the form of a table. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B) of this section, the short form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall be provided in a form substantially similar to Model Forms A-10(a) through (d) in appendix A of this part, as applicable. When a long form disclosure is provided in writing or electronically, the information required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section shall be provided in the form of a table. Sample Form A-10(f) in appendix A of this part provides an example of the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section when the financial institution does not offer multiple service plans.
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<P>(B) <I>Multiple service plans</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Short form disclosure for default service plan.</I> When a financial institution offers multiple service plans within a particular prepaid account program and each plan has a different fee schedule, the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (ix) of this section may be provided in the tabular format described in paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A) of this section for the service plan in which a consumer is initially enrolled by default upon acquiring the prepaid account.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Short form disclosure for multiple service plans.</I> As an alternative to disclosing the default service plan pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, when a financial institution offers multiple service plans within a particular prepaid account program and each plan has a different fee schedule, fee disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (ix) of this section may be provided in the form of a table with separate columns for each service plan, in a form substantially similar to Model Form A-10(e) in appendix A of this part. Column headings must describe each service plan included in the table, using the terms “Pay-as-you-go plan,” “Monthly plan,” “Annual plan,” or substantially similar terms; or, for multiple service plans offering preferred rates or fees for the prepaid accounts of consumers who also use another non-prepaid service, column headings must describe each service plan included in the table for the preferred and non-preferred service plans, as applicable.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Long form disclosure.</I> The information in the long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section must be presented in the form of a table for all service plans.
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<P>(7) <I>Specific formatting requirements for pre-acquisition disclosures</I>—(i) <I>Grouping</I>—(A) <I>Short form disclosure.</I> The information required in the short form disclosure by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section must be grouped together and provided in that order. The information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) through (ix) of this section must be generally grouped together and provided in that order. The information required by paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, must be generally grouped together and in the location described by paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section. The information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(x) through (xiii) of this section must be generally grouped together and provided in that order. The statement regarding wage or salary payment options for payroll card accounts required by paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(A) of this section must be located above the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section, as described in paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(A) of this section. The statement regarding state-required information or other fee discounts or waivers permitted by paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(B) of this section, when applicable, must appear in the location described by paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(B) of this section.
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<P>(B) <I>Long form disclosure.</I> The information required by paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section must be located in the first line of the long form disclosure. The information required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section must be generally grouped together and organized under subheadings by the categories of function for which a financial institution may impose the fee. Text describing the conditions under which a fee may be imposed must appear in the table required by paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(A) of this section in close proximity to the fee amount. The statements in the long form disclosure required by paragraphs (b)(4)(iii) through (vi) of this section must be generally grouped together, provided in that order, and appear below the information required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section. If, pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(vii) of this section, the financial institution includes the disclosures described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.60(e)(1), such disclosures must appear below the statements required by paragraph (b)(4)(vi) of this section.
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<P>(C) <I>Multiple service plan disclosure.</I> When providing a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, in lieu of the requirements in paragraph (b)(7)(i)(A) of this section for grouping of the disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) and (v) through (ix) of this section, the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (ix) of this section must be grouped together and provided in that order.
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<P>(ii) <I>Prominence and size</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> All text used to disclose information in the short form or in the long form disclosure pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3)(i) and (ii), and (b)(4) of this section must be in a single, easy-to-read type that is all black or one color and printed on a background that provides a clear contrast.
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<P>(B) <I>Short form disclosure</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Fees and other information.</I> The information required in the short form disclosure by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section must appear as follows: Fee amounts in bold-faced type; single fee amounts in a minimum type size of 15 points (or 21 pixels); two-tier fee amounts for ATM withdrawal in a minimum type size of 11 points (or 16 pixels) and in no larger a type size than what is used for the single fee amounts; and fee headings in a minimum type size of eight points (or 11 pixels) and in no larger a type size than what is used for the single fee amounts. The information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) through (ix) of this section must appear in a minimum type size of eight points (or 11 pixels) and appear in the same or a smaller type size than what is used for the fee headings required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section. The information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(x) through (xiii) of this section must appear in a minimum type size of seven points (or nine pixels) and appear in no larger a type size than what is used for the information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (b)(2)(v) through (ix) of this section. Additionally, the statements disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(viii)(A) and (b)(2)(x) of this section and the telephone number and URL disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(xiii) of this section, where applicable, must appear in bold-faced type. The following information must appear in a minimum type size of six points (or eight pixels) and appear in no larger a type size that what is used for the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(x) through (xiii) of this section: text used to distinguish each of the two-tier fees pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(iii), (v), (vi), and (ix) of this section; text used to explain that the fee required by paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section applies “per call,” where applicable; and text used to explain the conditions that trigger an inactivity fee and that the fee applies monthly or for the applicable time period, pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section.
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<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Variable fees.</I> The symbols and corresponding statements regarding variable fees disclosed in the short form pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, when applicable, must appear in a minimum type size of seven points (or nine pixels) and appear in no larger a type size than what is used for the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(x) through (xiii) of this section. A symbol required next to the fee amount pursuant to paragraphs (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section must appear in the same type size or pixel size as what is used for the corresponding fee amount.
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<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Payroll card account additional content.</I> The statement regarding wage or salary payment options for payroll card accounts required by paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(A) of this section, when applicable, must appear in a minimum type size of eight points (or 11 pixels) and appear in no larger a type size than what is used for the fee headings required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section. The statement regarding state-required information and other fee discounts or waivers permitted by paragraph (b)(2)(xiv)(B) of this section must appear in the same type size used to disclose variable fee information pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, or, if none, the same type size used for the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(x) through (xiii) of this section.
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<P>(C) <I>Long form disclosure.</I> The long form disclosure required by paragraph (b)(4) of this section must appear in a minimum type size of eight points (or 11 pixels).
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<P>(D) <I>Multiple service plan short form disclosure.</I> When providing a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to paragraph (b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the fee headings required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section must appear in bold-faced type. The information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (xiii) of this section must appear in a minimum type size of seven points (or nine pixels), except the following must appear in a minimum type size of six points (or eight pixels) and appear in no larger a type size than what is used for the information required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (xiii) of this section: Text used to distinguish each of the two-tier fees required by paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) and (v) of this section; text used to explain that the fee required by paragraph (b)(2)(vi) of this section applies “per call,” where applicable; text used to explain the conditions that trigger an inactivity fee pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section; and text used to distinguish that fees required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (vii) of this section apply monthly or for the applicable time period.
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<P>(iii) <I>Segregation.</I> Short form and long form disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2) and (4) of this section must be segregated from other information and must contain only information that is required or permitted for those disclosures by paragraph (b) of this section.
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<P>(8) <I>Terminology of pre-acquisition disclosures.</I> Fee names and other terms must be used consistently within and across the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section.
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<P>(9) <I>Prepaid accounts acquired in foreign languages</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A financial institution must provide the pre-acquisition disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in a foreign language, if the financial institution uses that same foreign language in connection with the acquisition of a prepaid account in the following circumstances:
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<P>(A) The financial institution principally uses a foreign language on the prepaid account packaging material;
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<P>(B) The financial institution principally uses a foreign language to advertise, solicit, or market a prepaid account and provides a means in the advertisement, solicitation, or marketing material that the consumer uses to acquire the prepaid account by telephone or electronically; or
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<P>(C) The financial institution provides a means for the consumer to acquire a prepaid account by telephone or electronically principally in a foreign language. However, foreign language pre-acquisition disclosures are not required for payroll card accounts and government benefit accounts where the foreign language is offered by telephone via a real-time language interpretation service provided by a third party or by the employer or government agency on an informal or ad hoc basis as an accommodation to prospective payroll card account or government benefit account holders.
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<P>(ii) <I>Long form disclosures in English upon request.</I> A financial institution required to provide pre-acquisition disclosures in a foreign language pursuant to paragraph (b)(9)(i) of this section must also provide the information required to be disclosed in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section in English upon a consumer's request and on any part of the Web site where it discloses this information in a foreign language.
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<P>(c) <I>Access to prepaid account information</I>—(1) <I>Periodic statement alternative.</I> A financial institution need not furnish periodic statements required by § 1005.9(b) if the financial institution makes available to the consumer:
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<P>(i) The consumer's account balance, through a readily available telephone line;
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<P>(ii) An electronic history of the consumer's account transactions, such as through a Web site, that covers at least 12 months preceding the date the consumer electronically accesses the account; and
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<P>(iii) A written history of the consumer's account transactions that is provided promptly in response to an oral or written request and that covers at least 24 months preceding the date the financial institution receives the consumer's request.
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<P>(2) <I>Periodic statement alternative for unverified prepaid accounts.</I> For prepaid accounts that are not payroll card accounts or government benefit accounts, a financial institution is not required to provide a written history of the consumer's account transactions pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section for any prepaid account for which the financial institution has not completed its consumer identification and verification process as described in paragraph (e)(3)(i)(A) through (C) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Information included on electronic or written histories.</I> The history of account transactions provided under paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section must include the information set forth in § 1005.9(b).
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<P>(4) <I>Inclusion of all fees charged.</I> A financial institution must disclose the amount of any fees assessed against the account, whether for electronic fund transfers or otherwise, on any periodic statement provided pursuant to § 1005.9(b) and on any history of account transactions provided or made available by the financial institution.
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<P>(5) <I>Summary totals of fees.</I> A financial institution must display a summary total of the amount of all fees assessed by the financial institution against the consumer's prepaid account for the prior calendar month and for the calendar year to date on any periodic statement provided pursuant to § 1005.9(b) and on any history of account transactions provided or made available by the financial institution.
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<P>(d) <I>Modified disclosure requirements.</I> A financial institution that provides information under paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall comply with the following:
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<P>(1) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> The financial institution shall modify the disclosures under § 1005.7(b) by disclosing:
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<P>(i) <I>Access to account information.</I> A telephone number that the consumer may call to obtain the account balance, the means by which the consumer can obtain an electronic account transaction history, such as the address of a Web site, and a summary of the consumer's right to receive a written account transaction history upon request (in place of the summary of the right to receive a periodic statement required by § 1005.7(b)(6)), including a telephone number to call to request a history. The disclosure required by this paragraph may be made by providing a notice substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (a) of appendix A-7 of this part.
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<P>(ii) <I>Error resolution.</I> A notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (b) of appendix A-7 of this part, in place of the notice required by § 1005.7(b)(10). Alternatively, for prepaid account programs for which the financial institution does not have a consumer identification and verification process, the financial institution must describe its error resolution process and limitations on consumers' liability for unauthorized transfers or, if none, state that there are no such protections.
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<P>(2) <I>Annual error resolution notice.</I> The financial institution shall provide an annual notice concerning error resolution that is substantially similar to the notice contained in paragraph (b) of appendix A-7 of this part, in place of the notice required by § 1005.8(b). Alternatively, a financial institution may include on or with each electronic and written account transaction history provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a notice substantially similar to the abbreviated notice for periodic statements contained in paragraph (b) of appendix A-3 of this part, modified as necessary to reflect the error resolution provisions set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
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<P>(e) <I>Modified limitations on liability and error resolution requirements</I>—(1) <I>Modified limitations on liability requirements.</I> A financial institution that provides information under paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall comply with the following:
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<P>(i) For purposes of § 1005.6(b)(3), the 60-day period for reporting any unauthorized transfer shall begin on the earlier of:
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<P>(A) The date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic account transaction history made available to the consumer reflects the unauthorized transfer; or
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<P>(B) The date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section in which the unauthorized transfer is first reflected.
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<P>(ii) A financial institution may comply with paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section by limiting the consumer's liability for an unauthorized transfer as provided under § 1005.6(b)(3) for any transfer reported by the consumer within 120 days after the transfer was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
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<P>(2) <I>Modified error resolution requirements.</I> A financial institution that provides information under paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall comply with the following:
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<P>(i) The financial institution shall comply with the requirements of § 1005.11 in response to an oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the earlier of:
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<P>(A) Sixty days after the date the consumer electronically accesses the consumer's account under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, provided that the electronic account transaction history made available to the consumer reflects the alleged error; or
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<P>(B) Sixty days after the date the financial institution sends a written history of the consumer's account transactions requested by the consumer under paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section in which the alleged error is first reflected.
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<P>(ii) In lieu of following the procedures in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section, a financial institution complies with the requirements for resolving errors in § 1005.11 if it investigates any oral or written notice of an error from the consumer that is received by the institution within 120 days after the transfer allegedly in error was credited or debited to the consumer's account.
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<P>(3) <I>Limitations on liability and error resolution for unverified accounts.</I> (i) For prepaid accounts that are not payroll card accounts or government benefit accounts, a financial institution is not required to comply with the liability limits and error resolution requirements in §§ 1005.6 and 1005.11 for any prepaid account for which it has not successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process.
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<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, a financial institution has not successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process where:
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<P>(A) The financial institution has not concluded its consumer identification and verification process with respect to a particular prepaid account, provided that it has disclosed to the consumer the risks of not registering and verifying the account using a notice that is substantially similar to the model notice contained in paragraph (c) of appendix A-7 of this part.
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<P>(B) The financial institution has concluded its consumer identification and verification process with respect to a particular prepaid account, but could not verify the identity of the consumer, provided that it has disclosed to the consumer the risks of not registering and verifying the account using a notice that is substantially similar to the model notice contained in paragraph (c) of appendix A-7 of this part; or
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<P>(C) The financial institution does not have a consumer identification and verification process for the prepaid account program, provided that it has made the alternative disclosure described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section and complies with the process it has disclosed.
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<P>(iii) <I>Resolution of errors following successful verification.</I> Once a financial institution successfully completes its consumer identification and verification process with respect to a prepaid account, the financial institution must limit the consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers and resolve errors that occur following verification in accordance with § 1005.6 or § 1005.11, or the modified timing requirements in this paragraph (e), as applicable.
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<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of fees and other information</I>—(1) <I>Initial disclosure of fees and other information.</I> A financial institution must include, as part of the initial disclosures given pursuant to § 1005.7, all of the information required to be disclosed in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure pursuant to paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
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<P>(2) <I>Change-in-terms notice.</I> The change-in-terms notice provisions in § 1005.8(a) apply to any change in a term or condition that is required to be disclosed under § 1005.7 or paragraph (f)(1) of this section. If a financial institution discloses the amount of a third-party fee in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section and initial disclosures pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the financial institution is not required to provide a change-in-terms notice solely to reflect a change in that fee amount imposed by the third party. If a financial institution provides pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section the Regulation Z disclosures required by paragraph (b)(4)(vii) of this section for an overdraft credit feature, the financial institution is not required to provide a change-in-terms notice solely to reflect a change in the fees or other terms disclosed therein.
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<P>(3) <I>Disclosures on prepaid account access devices.</I> The name of the financial institution and the Web site URL and a telephone number a consumer can use to contact the financial institution about the prepaid account must be disclosed on the prepaid account access device. If a financial institution does not provide a physical access device in connection with a prepaid account, the disclosure must appear on the Web site, mobile application, or other entry point a consumer must visit to access the prepaid account electronically.
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<P>(g) <I>Prepaid accounts accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, with respect to a prepaid account program where consumers may be offered a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, a financial institution must provide to any prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature the same account terms, conditions, and features that it provides on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that have such a credit feature.
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<P>(2) <I>Exception for higher fees or charges.</I> A financial institution is not prohibited under paragraph (g)(1) of this section from imposing a higher fee or charge on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card than the amount of a comparable fee or charge that it imposes on any prepaid account in the same prepaid account program that does not have such a credit feature.
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<P>(h) <I>Effective date and special transition rules for disclosure provisions</I>—(1) <I>Effective date generally.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (h)(2) and (3) of this section, the requirements of this subpart, as modified by this section, apply to prepaid accounts as defined in § 1005.2(b)(3), including government benefit accounts subject to § 1005.15, beginning April 1, 2019.
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<P>(2) <I>Early disclosures</I>—(i) <I>Exception for disclosures on existing prepaid account access devices and prepaid account packaging materials.</I> The disclosure requirements of this subpart, as modified by this section, shall not apply to any disclosures that are provided, or that would otherwise be required to be provided, on prepaid account access devices, or on, in, or with prepaid account packaging materials that were manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced in the normal course of business prior to April 1, 2019.
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<P>(ii) <I>Disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired on or after April 1, 2019.</I> This paragraph applies to prepaid accounts acquired by consumers on or after April 1, 2019 via packaging materials that were manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced prior to April 1, 2019.
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<P>(A) <I>Notices of certain changes.</I> If a financial institution has changed a prepaid account's terms and conditions as a result of paragraph (h)(1) of this section taking effect such that a change-in-terms notice would have been required under § 1005.8(a) or paragraph (f)(2) of this section for existing customers, the financial institution must provide to the consumer a notice of the change within 30 days of obtaining the consumer's contact information.
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<P>(B) <I>Initial disclosures.</I> The financial institution must mail or deliver to the consumer initial disclosures pursuant to § 1005.7 and paragraph (f)(1) of this section that have been updated as a result of paragraph (h)(1) of this section taking effect, within 30 days of obtaining the consumer's contact information.
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<P>(iii) <I>Disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired before April 1, 2019.</I> This paragraph applies to prepaid accounts acquired by consumers before April 1, 2019. If a financial institution has changed a prepaid account's terms and conditions as a result of paragraph (h)(1) of this section taking effect such that a change-in-terms notice would have been required under § 1005.8(a) or paragraph (f)(2) of this section for existing customers, the financial institution must provide to the consumer a notice of the change at least 21 days in advance of the change becoming effective, provided the financial institution has the consumer's contact information. If the financial institution obtains the consumer's contact information less than 30 days in advance of the change becoming effective or after it has become effective, the financial institution is permitted instead to notify the consumer of the change in accordance with the timing requirements set forth in paragraph (h)(2)(ii)(A) of this section.
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<P>(iv) <I>Method of providing notice to consumers.</I> With respect to prepaid accounts governed by paragraph (h)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, if a financial institution has not obtained a consumer's consent to provide disclosures in electronic form pursuant to the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>), or is not otherwise already mailing or delivering to the consumer written account-related communications within the respective time periods specified in paragraphs (h)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section, the financial institution may provide to the consumer a notice of a change in terms and conditions pursuant to paragraph (h)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section or required or voluntary updated initial disclosures as a result of paragraph (h)(1) of this section taking effect in electronic form without regard to the consumer notice and consent requirements of section 101(c) of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Account information not available on April 1, 2019</I>—(i) <I>Electronic and written account transaction history.</I> If, on April 1, 2019, a financial institution does not have readily accessible the data necessary to make available 12 months of electronic account transaction history pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section or to provide 24 months of written account transaction history upon request pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, the financial institution may make available or provide such histories using the data for the time period it has until the financial institution has accumulated the data necessary to comply in full with the requirements set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Summary totals of fees.</I> If, on April 1, 2019, the financial institution does not have readily accessible the data necessary to calculate the summary totals of the amount of all fees assessed by the financial institution on the consumer's prepaid account for the prior calendar month and for the calendar year to date pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section, the financial institution may display the summary totals using the data it has until the financial institution has accumulated the data necessary to display the summary totals as required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 84328, Nov. 22, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 18980, Apr. 25, 2017; 83 FR 6417, Feb. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.19" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.19   Internet posting of prepaid account agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, “agreement” or “prepaid account agreement” means the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a prepaid account issuer and a consumer for a prepaid account. “Agreement” or “prepaid account agreement” also includes fee information, as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amends.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “amends” an agreement if it makes a substantive change (an “amendment”) to the agreement. A change is substantive if it alters the rights or obligations of the issuer or the consumer under the agreement. Any change in the fee information, as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, is deemed to be substantive.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fee information.</I> For purposes of this section, “fee information” means the short form disclosure for the prepaid account pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2) and the fee information and statements required to be disclosed in the pre-acquisition long form disclosure for the prepaid account pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuer.</I> For purposes of this section, “issuer” or “prepaid account issuer” means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a prepaid account agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Offers.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “offers” an agreement if the issuer markets, solicits applications for, or otherwise makes available a prepaid account that would be subject to that agreement, regardless of whether the issuer offers the prepaid account to the general public.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Offers to the general public.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “offers to the general public” an agreement if the issuer markets, solicits applications for, or otherwise makes available to the general public a prepaid account that would be subject to that agreement.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Open account.</I> For purposes of this section, a prepaid account is an “open account” or “open prepaid account” if: There is an outstanding balance in the account; the consumer can load funds to the account even if the account does not currently hold a balance; or the consumer can access credit from a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, in connection with the account. A prepaid account that has been suspended temporarily (for example, due to a report by the consumer of unauthorized use of the card) is considered an “open account” or “open prepaid account.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Prepaid account.</I> For purposes of this section, “prepaid account” means a prepaid account as defined in § 1005.2(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of agreements to the Bureau</I>—(1) <I>Submissions on a rolling basis.</I> An issuer must make submissions of prepaid account agreements to the Bureau on a rolling basis, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau. Rolling submissions must be sent to the Bureau no later than 30 days after an issuer offers, amends, or ceases to offer any prepaid account agreement as described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) through (iv) of this section. Each submission must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information about the issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number), the effective date of the prepaid account agreement, the name of the program manager, if any, and the list of names of other relevant parties, if applicable (such as the employer for a payroll card program or the agency for a government benefit program);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any prepaid account agreement offered by the issuer that has not been previously submitted to the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any prepaid account agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that has been amended, as described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notification regarding any prepaid account agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing, as described in paragraphs (b)(3), (b)(4)(ii), and (b)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amended agreements</I>—(i) <I>Submission of amended agreements generally.</I> If a prepaid account agreement previously submitted to the Bureau is amended, the issuer must submit the entire amended agreement to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau, no later than 30 days after the change becomes effective. If other identifying information about the issuer and its submitted agreements pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section previously submitted to the Bureau is amended, the issuer must submit updated information to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau, no later than 30 days after the change becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Submission of updated list of names of other relevant parties.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, an issuer may delay submitting a change to the list of names of other relevant parties to a particular agreement until the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) Such time as the issuer is otherwise submitting an amended agreement or changes to other identifying information about the issuer and its submitted agreements pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) May 1 of each year, for any updates to the list of names of other relevant parties for that agreement that occurred between the issuer's last submission of relevant party information and April 1 of that year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Withdrawal of agreements no longer offered.</I> If an issuer no longer offers a prepaid account agreement that was previously submitted to the Bureau, the issuer must notify the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau, no later than 30 days after the issuer ceases to offer the agreement, that it is withdrawing the agreement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>De minimis exception.</I> (i) An issuer is not required to submit any prepaid account agreements to the Bureau if the issuer has fewer than 3,000 open prepaid accounts. If the issuer has 3,000 or more open prepaid accounts as of the last day of the calendar quarter, the issuer must submit to the Bureau its prepaid account agreements no later than 30 days after the last day of that calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception newly qualifies for the de minimis exception, the issuer must continue to make submissions to the Bureau on a rolling basis until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Product testing exception.</I> (i) An issuer is not required to submit a prepaid account agreement to the Bureau if the agreement meets the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A) through (C) of this section. If the agreement fails to meet the criteria set forth in paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A) through (C) of this section as of the last day of the calendar quarter, the issuer must submit to the Bureau that prepaid account agreement no later than 30 days after the last day of that calendar quarter. An agreement qualifies for the product testing exception if the agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) Is offered as part of a product test offered to only a limited group of consumers for a limited period of time;
</P>
<P>(B) Is used for fewer than 3,000 open prepaid accounts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is not offered other than in connection with such a product test.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an agreement that did not previously qualify for the product testing exception newly qualifies for the exception, the issuer must continue to make submissions to the Bureau on a rolling basis with respect to that agreement until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing the agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Form and content of agreements submitted to the Bureau</I>—(i) <I>Form and content generally.</I> (A) Each agreement must contain the provisions of the agreement and the fee information currently in effect.
</P>
<P>(B) Agreements must not include any personally identifiable information relating to any consumer, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number.
</P>
<P>(C) The following are not deemed to be part of the agreement for purposes of this section, and therefore are not required to be included in submissions to the Bureau:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Ancillary disclosures required by state or Federal law, such as affiliate marketing notices, privacy policies, or disclosures under the E-Sign Act;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Solicitation or marketing materials;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Periodic statements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Documents that may be sent to the consumer along with the prepaid account or prepaid account agreement such as a cover letter, a validation sticker on the card, or other information about card security.
</P>
<P>(D) Agreements must be presented in a clear and legible font.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fee information.</I> Fee information must be set forth either in the prepaid account agreement or in addenda to that agreement that attach either or both the short form disclosure for the prepaid account pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2) and the fee information and statements required to be disclosed in the long form disclosure for the prepaid account pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4). The agreement or addenda thereto must contain all of the fee information, as defined by paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Integrated agreement.</I> An issuer may not provide provisions of the agreement or fee information to the Bureau in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders (other than the optional fee information addenda described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section). Changes in provisions or fee information must be integrated into the text of the agreement, or the optional fee information addenda, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Posting of agreements offered to the general public.</I> (1) An issuer must post and maintain on its publicly available Web site any prepaid account agreements offered to the general public that the issuer is required to submit to the Bureau under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Agreements posted pursuant to this paragraph (c) must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Bureau set forth in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The issuer must post and update the agreements posted on its Web site pursuant to this paragraph (c) as frequently as the issuer is required to submit new or amended agreements to the Bureau pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Agreements posted pursuant to this paragraph (c) may be posted in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public. Agreements must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible to the public and must be accessible without submission of personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agreements for all open accounts</I>—(1) <I>Availability of an individual consumer's prepaid account agreement.</I> With respect to any open prepaid account, an issuer must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Post and maintain the consumer's agreement on its Web site; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly provide a copy of the consumer's agreement to the consumer upon the consumer's request. If the issuer makes an agreement available upon request, the issuer must provide the consumer with the ability to request a copy of the agreement by telephone. The issuer must send to the consumer a copy of the consumer's prepaid account agreement no later than five business days after the issuer receives the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and content of agreements.</I> (i) Except as provided in this paragraph (d), agreements posted on the issuer's Web site pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section or sent to the consumer upon the consumer's request pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Bureau as set forth in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the issuer posts an agreement on its Web site under paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the agreement may be posted in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public and must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to this paragraph (d) may contain personally identifiable information relating to the consumer, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number, provided that the issuer takes appropriate measures to make the agreement accessible only to the consumer or other authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to this paragraph (d) must set forth the specific provisions and fee information applicable to the particular consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements posted pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section must be updated as frequently as the issuer is required to submit amended agreements to the Bureau pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. Agreements provided upon consumer request pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be accurate as of the date the agreement is sent to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(vi) Agreements provided upon consumer request pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be provided by the issuer in paper form, unless the consumer agrees to receive the agreement electronically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>E-Sign Act requirements.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, issuers may provide prepaid account agreements in electronic form under paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section without regard to the consumer notice and consent requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act(E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Initial submission date.</I> The requirements of this section apply to prepaid accounts beginning on April 1, 2019. An issuer must submit to the Bureau no later than May 1, 2019 all prepaid account agreements it offers as of April 1, 2019.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 84336, Nov. 22, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 6419, Feb. 13, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.20   Requirements for gift cards and gift certificates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, except as excluded under paragraph (b), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) “Gift certificate” means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount that may not be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
</P>
<P>(2) “Store gift card” means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants for goods or services.
</P>
<P>(3) “General-use prepaid card” means a card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in a specified amount, whether or not that amount may be increased or reloaded, in exchange for payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines.
</P>
<P>(4) “Loyalty, award, or promotional gift card” means a card, code, or other device that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is issued on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is redeemable upon presentation at one or more merchants for goods or services, or usable at automated teller machines; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Sets forth the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement indicating that the card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(B) The expiration date for the underlying funds, which must be included on the front of the card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of any fees that may be imposed in connection with the card, code, or other device, and the conditions under which they may be imposed, which must be provided on or with the card, code, or other device; and
</P>
<P>(D) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain fee information, which must be included on the card, code, or other device.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Dormancy or inactivity fee.</I> The terms “dormancy fee” and “inactivity fee” mean a fee for non-use of or inactivity on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Service fee.</I> The term “service fee” means a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Activity.</I> The term “activity” means any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a certificate or card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exclusions.</I> The terms “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” and “general-use prepaid card”, as defined in paragraph (a) of this section, do not include any card, code, or other device that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Useable solely for telephone services;
</P>
<P>(2) Reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), the term “reloadable” includes a temporary non-reloadable card issued solely in connection with a reloadable card, code, or other device;
</P>
<P>(3) A loyalty, award, or promotional gift card;
</P>
<P>(4) Not marketed to the general public;
</P>
<P>(5) Issued in paper form only; or
</P>
<P>(6) Redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations, or to obtain goods or services in conjunction with admission to such events or venues, either at the event or venue or at specific locations affiliated with and in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> Disclosures made under this section must be clear and conspicuous. The disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Format.</I> Disclosures made under this section generally must be provided to the consumer in written or electronic form. Except for the disclosures in paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2) of this section, written and electronic disclosures made under this section must be in a retainable form. Only disclosures provided under paragraphs (c)(3) and (h)(2) may be given orally.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosures prior to purchase.</I> Before a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card is purchased, a person that issues or sells such certificate or card must disclose to the consumer the information required by paragraphs (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(1) of this section. The fees and terms and conditions of expiration that are required to be disclosed prior to purchase may not be changed after purchase.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures on the certificate or card.</I> Disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(4)(iii), (d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2) of this section must be made on the certificate or card, or in the case of a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card, on the card, code, or other device. A disclosure made in an accompanying terms and conditions document, on packaging surrounding a certificate or card, or on a sticker or other label affixed to the certificate or card does not constitute a disclosure on the certificate or card. For an electronic certificate or card, disclosures must be provided electronically on the certificate or card provided to the consumer. An issuer that provides a code or confirmation to a consumer orally must provide to the consumer a written or electronic copy of the code or confirmation promptly, and the applicable disclosures must be provided on the written copy of the code or confirmation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on imposition of fees or charges.</I> No person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee with respect to a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) There has been no activity with respect to the certificate or card, in the one-year period ending on the date on which the fee is imposed;
</P>
<P>(2) The following are stated, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously on the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee that may be charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) How often such fee may be assessed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That such fee may be assessed for inactivity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Not more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is imposed in any given calendar month.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on sale of gift certificates or cards with expiration dates.</I> No person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The person has established policies and procedures to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date;
</P>
<P>(2) The expiration date for the underlying funds is at least the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) Five years after the date the gift certificate was initially issued, or the date on which funds were last loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The certificate or card expiration date, if any;
</P>
<P>(3) The following disclosures are provided on the certificate or card, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration date for the underlying funds or, if the underlying funds do not expire, that fact;
</P>
<P>(ii) A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site that a consumer may use to obtain a replacement certificate or card after the certificate or card expires if the underlying funds may be available; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Except where a non-reloadable certificate or card bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture, a statement, disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date, that:
</P>
<P>(A) The certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and;
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card; and
</P>
<P>(4) No fee or charge is imposed on the cardholder for replacing the gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card or for providing the certificate or card holder with the remaining balance in some other manner prior to the funds expiration date, unless such certificate or card has been lost or stolen.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional disclosure requirements for gift certificates or cards.</I> The following disclosures must be provided in connection with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fee disclosures.</I> For each type of fee that may be imposed in connection with the certificate or card (other than a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee subject to the disclosure requirements under paragraph (d)(2) of this section), the following information must be provided on or with the certificate or card:
</P>
<P>(i) The type of fee;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the fee (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The conditions under which the fee may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telephone number for fee information.</I> A toll-free telephone number and, if one is maintained, a Web site, that a consumer may use to obtain information about fees described in paragraphs (d)(2) and (f)(1) of this section must be disclosed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Compliance dates</I>—(1) <I>Effective date for gift certificates, store gift cards, and general-use prepaid cards.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section, the requirements of this section apply to any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010, or provided to a consumer as a replacement for such certificate or card.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective date for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.</I> The requirements in paragraph (a)(4)(iii) of this section apply to any card, code, or other device provided to a consumer in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program if the period of eligibility for such program began on or after August 22, 2010.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary exemption</I>—(1) <I>Delayed mandatory compliance date.</I> For any gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card produced prior to April 1, 2010, the mandatory compliance date of the requirements of paragraphs (c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) of this section is January 31, 2011, provided that an issuer of such certificate or card:
</P>
<P>(i) Complies with all other provisions of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not impose an expiration date with respect to the funds underlying such certificate or card;
</P>
<P>(iii) At the consumer's request, replaces such certificate or card if it has funds remaining at no cost to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Satisfies the requirements of paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional disclosures.</I> Issuers relying on the delayed effective date in § 1005.20(h)(1) must disclose through in-store signage, messages during customer service calls, Web sites, and general advertising, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The underlying funds of such certificate or card do not expire;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consumers holding such certificate or card have a right to a free replacement certificate or card, which must be accompanied by the packaging and materials typically associated with such certificate or card; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any dormancy, inactivity, or service fee for such certificate or card that might otherwise be charged will not be charged if such fees do not comply with section 916 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Expiration of additional disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosures in paragraph (h)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2011, with respect to in-store signage and general advertising.
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not required to be provided on or after January 31, 2013, with respect to messages during customer service calls and Web sites.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Requirements for Remittance Transfers</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1005.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.30   Remittance transfer definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided, for purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) “Agent” means an agent, authorized delegate, or person affiliated with a remittance transfer provider, as defined under State or other applicable law, when such agent, authorized delegate, or affiliate acts for that remittance transfer provider.
</P>
<P>(b) “Business day” means any day on which the offices of a remittance transfer provider are open to the public for carrying on substantially all business functions.
</P>
<P>(c) “Designated recipient” means any person specified by the sender as the authorized recipient of a remittance transfer to be received at a location in a foreign country.
</P>
<P>(d) “Preauthorized remittance transfer” means a remittance transfer authorized in advance to recur at substantially regular intervals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Remittance transfer</I>—(1) <I>General definition.</I> A “remittance transfer” means the electronic transfer of funds requested by a sender to a designated recipient that is sent by a remittance transfer provider. The term applies regardless of whether the sender holds an account with the remittance transfer provider, and regardless of whether the transaction is also an electronic fund transfer, as defined in § 1005.3(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exclusions from coverage.</I> The term “remittance transfer” does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Small value transactions.</I> Transfer amounts, as described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(i), of $15 or less.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Securities and commodities transfers.</I> Any transfer that is excluded from the definition of electronic fund transfer under § 1005.3(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Remittance transfer provider</I>—(1) <I>General definition.</I> “Remittance transfer provider” or “provider” means any person that provides remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of its business, regardless of whether the consumer holds an account with such person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Normal course of business</I>—(i) <I>Safe harbor.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(1) of this section, a person is deemed not to be providing remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of its business if the person:
</P>
<P>(A) Provided 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the previous calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the current calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transition period—coming into compliance.</I> Beginning on July 21, 2020, if a person that provided 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the previous calendar year provides more than 500 remittance transfers in the current calendar year, and if that person is then providing remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of its business pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the person has a reasonable period of time, not to exceed six months, to begin complying with this subpart. Compliance with this subpart will not be required for any remittance transfers for which payment is made during that reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Transition period—qualifying for the safe harbor.</I> If a person who previously provided remittance transfers in the normal course of its business in excess of the safe harbor threshold set forth in this paragraph (f)(2) determines that, as of a particular date, it will qualify for the safe harbor, it may cease complying with the requirements of this subpart with respect to any remittance transfers for which payment is made after that date. The requirements of the Act and this part, including those set forth in §§ 1005.33 and 1005.34, as well as the requirements set forth in § 1005.13, continue to apply to transfers for which payment is made prior to that date.
</P>
<P>(g) “Sender” means a consumer in a State who primarily for personal, family, or household purposes requests a remittance transfer provider to send a remittance transfer to a designated recipient.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Third-party fees.</I> (1) “Covered third-party fees.” The term “covered third-party fees” means any fees imposed on the remittance transfer by a person other than the remittance transfer provider except for fees described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) “Non-covered third-party fees.” The term “non-covered third-party fees” means any fees imposed by the designated recipient's institution for receiving a remittance transfer into an account except if the institution acts as an agent of the remittance transfer provider.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 50282, Aug. 20, 2012; 78 FR 30703, May 22, 2013; 85 FR 34904, June 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.31" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.31   Disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> Disclosures required by this subpart or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section or § 1005.33(h)(3) must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures required by this subpart or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section or § 1005.33(h)(3) may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written and electronic disclosures.</I> Disclosures required by this subpart generally must be provided to the sender in writing. Disclosures required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be provided electronically, if the sender electronically requests the remittance transfer provider to send the remittance transfer. Written and electronic disclosures required by this subpart generally must be made in a retainable form. Disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by paragraph (a)(5) of this section, need not be retainable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosures for oral telephone transactions.</I> The information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be disclosed orally if:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is conducted orally and entirely by telephone;
</P>
<P>(ii) The remittance transfer provider complies with the requirements of paragraph (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The provider discloses orally a statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation required by paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The provider discloses orally, as each is applicable, the information required by paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section and the information required by § 1005.36(d)(1)(i)(A), with respect to transfers subject to § 1005.36(d)(2)(ii), pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oral disclosures for certain error resolution notices.</I> The information required by § 1005.33(c)(1) may be disclosed orally if:
</P>
<P>(i) The remittance transfer provider determines that an error occurred as described by the sender; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The remittance transfer provider complies with the requirements of paragraph (g)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Disclosures for mobile application or text message transactions.</I> The information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be disclosed orally or via mobile application or text message if:
</P>
<P>(i) The transaction is conducted entirely by telephone via mobile application or text message;
</P>
<P>(ii) The remittance transfer provider complies with the requirements of paragraph (g)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The provider discloses orally or via mobile application or text message a statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation required by paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The provider discloses orally or via mobile application or text message, as each is applicable, the information required by paragraph (b)(2)(vii) of this section and the information required by § 1005.36(d)(1)(i)(A), with respect to transfers subject to § 1005.36(d)(2)(ii), pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure requirements</I>—(1) <I>Pre-payment disclosure.</I> A remittance transfer provider must disclose to a sender, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount that will be transferred to the designated recipient, in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded, using the term “Transfer Amount” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fees imposed and any taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the provider, in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded, using the terms “Transfer Fees” for fees and “Transfer Taxes” for taxes, or substantially similar terms;
</P>
<P>(iii) The total amount of the transaction, which is the sum of paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded, using the term “Total” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(iv) The exchange rate used by the provider for the remittance transfer, rounded consistently for each currency to no fewer than two decimal places and no more than four decimal places, using the term “Exchange Rate” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(v) The amount in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, in the currency in which the funds will be received by the designated recipient, but only if covered third-party fees are imposed under paragraph (b)(1)(vi) of this section, using the term “Transfer Amount” or a substantially similar term. The exchange rate used to calculate this amount is the exchange rate in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any covered third-party fees, in the currency in which the funds will be received by the designated recipient, using the term “Other Fees,” or a substantially similar term. The exchange rate used to calculate any covered third-party fees is the exchange rate in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate;
</P>
<P>(vii) The amount that will be received by the designated recipient, in the currency in which the funds will be received, using the term “Total to Recipient” or a substantially similar term except that this amount shall not include non-covered third party fees or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider regardless of whether such fees or taxes are disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section. The exchange rate used to calculate this amount is the exchange rate in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate.
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement indicating that non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider may apply to the remittance transfer and result in the designated recipient receiving less than the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section. A provider may only include this statement to the extent that such fees or taxes do or may apply to the transfer, using the language set forth in Model Forms A-30(a) through (c) of Appendix A to this part, as appropriate, or substantially similar language. In this statement, a provider also may, but is not required, to disclose any applicable non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected by a person other than the provider. Any such figure must be disclosed in the currency in which the funds will be received, using the language set forth in Model Forms A-30(b) through (d) of Appendix A to this part, as appropriate, or substantially similar language. The exchange rate used to calculate any disclosed non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider is the exchange rate in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receipt.</I> A remittance transfer provider must disclose to a sender, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The disclosures described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (viii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date in the foreign country on which funds will be available to the designated recipient, using the term “Date Available” or a substantially similar term. A provider may provide a statement that funds may be available to the designated recipient earlier than the date disclosed, using the term “may be available sooner” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name and, if provided by the sender, the telephone number and/or address of the designated recipient, using the term “Recipient” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement about the rights of the sender regarding the resolution of errors and cancellation, using language set forth in Model Form A-37 of Appendix A to this part or substantially similar language. For any remittance transfer scheduled by the sender at least three business days before the date of the transfer, the statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation must instead reflect the requirements of § 1005.36(c);
</P>
<P>(v) The name, telephone number(s), and Web site of the remittance transfer provider;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the sender can contact the State agency that licenses or charters the remittance transfer provider with respect to the remittance transfer and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau for questions or complaints about the remittance transfer provider, using language set forth in Model Form A-37 of Appendix A to this part or substantially similar language. The disclosure must provide the name, telephone number(s), and Web site of the State agency that licenses or charters the remittance transfer provider with respect to the remittance transfer and the name, toll-free telephone number(s), and Web site of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau; and
</P>
<P>(vii) For any remittance transfer scheduled by the sender at least three business days before the date of the transfer, or the first transfer in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, the date the remittance transfer provider will make or made the remittance transfer, using the term “Transfer Date,” or a substantially similar term.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Combined disclosure</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> As an alternative to providing the disclosures described in paragraph (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a remittance transfer provider may provide the disclosures described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, as applicable, in a single disclosure pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1) of this section. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, if the remittance transfer provider provides the combined disclosure and the sender completes the transfer, the remittance transfer provider must provide the sender with proof of payment when payment is made for the remittance transfer. The proof of payment must be clear and conspicuous, provided in writing or electronically, and provided in a retainable form.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transfers scheduled before the date of transfer.</I> If the disclosure described in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section is provided in accordance with § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) and payment is not processed by the remittance transfer provider at the time the remittance transfer is scheduled, a remittance transfer provider may provide confirmation that the transaction has been scheduled in lieu of the proof of payment otherwise required by paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section. The confirmation of scheduling must be clear and conspicuous, provided in writing or electronically, and provided in a retainable form.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Long form error resolution and cancellation notice.</I> Upon the sender's request, a remittance transfer provider must promptly provide to the sender a notice describing the sender's error resolution and cancellation rights, using language set forth in Model Form A-36 of Appendix A to this part or substantially similar language. For any remittance transfer scheduled by the sender at least three business days before the date of the transfer, the description of the rights of the sender regarding cancellation must instead reflect the requirements of § 1005.36(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific format requirements</I>—(1) <I>Grouping.</I> The information required by paragraphs (b)(1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section generally must be grouped together. The information required by paragraphs (b)(1)(v), (vi), (vii), and (viii) of this section generally must be grouped together. Disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by paragraph (a)(5) of this section, generally need not comply with the grouping requirements of this paragraph, however information required or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section must be grouped with information required by paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proximity.</I> The information required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section generally must be disclosed in close proximity to the other information required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section. The information required by paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section generally must be disclosed in close proximity to the other information required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section. The information required or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) must be in close proximity to the information required by paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section. Disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by paragraph (a)(5) of this section, generally need not comply with the proximity requirements of this paragraph, however information required or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section must follow the information required by paragraph (b)(1)(vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prominence and size.</I> Written disclosures required by this subpart or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section must be provided on the front of the page on which the disclosure is printed. Disclosures required by this subpart or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section that are provided in writing or electronically must be in a minimum eight-point font, except for disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by paragraph (a)(5) of this section. Disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section that are provided in writing or electronically must be in equal prominence to each other.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Segregation.</I> Except for disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by paragraph (a)(5) of this section, disclosures required by this subpart that are provided in writing or electronically must be segregated from everything else and must contain only information that is directly related to the disclosures required under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Estimates.</I> Estimated disclosures may be provided to the extent permitted by § 1005.32. Estimated disclosures must be described using the term “Estimated” or a substantially similar term in close proximity to the estimated term or terms.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Timing.</I> (1) Except as provided in § 1005.36(a), a pre-payment disclosure required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section or a combined disclosure required by paragraph (b)(3) of this section must be provided to the sender when the sender requests the remittance transfer, but prior to payment for the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 1005.36(a), a receipt required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section generally must be provided to the sender when payment is made for the remittance transfer. If a transaction is conducted entirely by telephone, a receipt required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be mailed or delivered to the sender no later than one business day after the date on which payment is made for the remittance transfer. If a transaction is conducted entirely by telephone and involves the transfer of funds from the sender's account held by the provider, the receipt required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be provided on or with the next regularly scheduled periodic statement for that account or within 30 days after payment is made for the remittance transfer if a periodic statement is not provided. The statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation required by paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section may, but need not, be disclosed pursuant to the timing requirements of this paragraph if a provider discloses this information pursuant to paragraphs (a)(3)(iii) or (a)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accurate when payment is made.</I> Except as provided in § 1005.36(b), disclosures required by this section or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section must be accurate when a sender makes payment for the remittance transfer, except to the extent estimates are permitted by § 1005.32.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Foreign language disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, disclosures required by this subpart or permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(viii) of this section or § 1005.33(h)(3) must be made in English and, if applicable, either in:
</P>
<P>(i) Each of the foreign languages principally used by the remittance transfer provider to advertise, solicit, or market remittance transfer services, either orally, in writing, or electronically, at the office in which a sender conducts a transaction or asserts an error; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreign language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction (or for written or electronic disclosures made pursuant to § 1005.33, in the foreign language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to assert the error), provided that such foreign language is principally used by the remittance transfer provider to advertise, solicit, or market remittance transfer services, either orally, in writing, or electronically, at the office in which a sender conducts a transaction or asserts an error, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral, mobile application, or text message disclosures.</I> Disclosures provided orally for transactions conducted orally and entirely by telephone under paragraph (a)(3) of this section or orally or via mobile application or text message for transactions conducted via mobile application or text message under paragraph (a)(5) of this section shall be made in the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction. Disclosures provided orally under paragraph (a)(4) of this section for error resolution purposes shall be made in the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to assert the error.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 50282, Aug. 20, 2012; 77 FR 30703, May 22, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.32" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.32   Estimates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Temporary exception for insured institutions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (2), estimates may be provided in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section for the amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii), if:
</P>
<P>(i) A remittance transfer provider cannot determine the exact amounts for reasons beyond its control;
</P>
<P>(ii) A remittance transfer provider is an insured institution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The remittance transfer is sent from the sender's account with the institution; provided however, for the purposes of this paragraph, a sender's account does not include a prepaid account, unless the prepaid account is a payroll card account or a government benefit account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Sunset date.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section expires on July 21, 2020.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Insured institution.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “insured institution” means insured depository institutions (which includes uninsured U.S. branches and agencies of foreign depository institutions) as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813), and insured credit unions as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permanent exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Permanent exception for transfers to certain countries</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> For disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (b)(3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (a)(2), estimates may be provided for transfers to certain countries in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section for the amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (b)(1)(vii), if a remittance transfer provider cannot determine the exact amounts when the disclosure is required because:
</P>
<P>(A) The laws of the recipient country do not permit such a determination, or
</P>
<P>(B) The method by which transactions are made in the recipient country does not permit such determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A remittance transfer provider may rely on the list of countries published by the Bureau to determine whether estimates may be provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, unless the provider has information that a country's laws or the method by which transactions are conducted in that country permits a determination of the exact disclosure amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permanent exception for transfers scheduled before the date of transfer.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, for disclosures described in §§ 1005.36(a)(1)(i) and (a)(2)(i), estimates may be provided in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section for the amounts to be disclosed under §§ 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii) if the remittance transfer is scheduled by a sender five or more business days before the date of the transfer. In addition, if, at the time the sender schedules such a transfer, the provider agrees to a sender's request to fix the amount to be transferred in the currency in which the remittance transfer will be received and not the currency in which it is funded, estimates may also be provided for the amounts to be disclosed under §§ 1005.31(b)(1)(i) through (iii), except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Covered third-party fees described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) may be estimated under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section only if the exchange rate is also estimated under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section and the estimated exchange rate affects the amount of such fees.
</P>
<P>(iii) Fees and taxes described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii) may be estimated under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section only if the amount that will be transferred in the currency in which it is funded is also estimated under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and the estimated amount affects the amount of such fees and taxes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permanent exception for optional disclosure of non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected by a person other than the provider.</I> For disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (2), estimates may be provided for applicable non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider, which are permitted to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii), provided such estimates are based on reasonable sources of information.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permanent exception for estimation of the exchange rate by an insured institution.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, for disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (2), estimates may be provided for a remittance transfer to a particular country in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section for the amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii), if the designated recipient of the remittance transfer will receive funds in the country's local currency and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The remittance transfer provider is an insured institution as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the time the insured institution must provide, as applicable, the disclosure required by § 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) or § 1005.36(a)(1) or (2), the insured institution cannot determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) for that remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(C) The insured institution made 1,000 or fewer remittance transfers in the prior calendar year to the particular country for which the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency; and
</P>
<P>(D) The remittance transfer is sent from the sender's account with the insured institution; provided however, for the purposes of this paragraph, a sender's account does not include a prepaid account, unless the prepaid account is a payroll card account or a government benefit account.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures in § 1005.31(b)(1)(v) through (vii) may be estimated under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section only if the exchange rate is permitted to be estimated under paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section and the estimated exchange rate affects the amount of such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permanent exception for estimation of covered third-party fees by an insured institution.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, for disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (2), estimates may be provided for a remittance transfer to a particular designated recipient's institution in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section for the amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) through (vii), if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(A) The remittance transfer provider is an insured institution as defined in paragraph (a)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) At the time the insured institution must provide, as applicable, the disclosure required by § 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) or § 1005.36(a)(1) or (2), the insured institution cannot determine the exact covered third-party fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) for that remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(C) The insured institution made 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the prior calendar year to that designated recipient's institution, or a United States Federal statute or regulation prohibits the insured institution from being able to determine the exact covered third-party fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) for that remittance transfer; and
</P>
<P>(D) The remittance transfer is sent from the sender's account with the insured institution; provided however, for the purposes of this paragraph, a sender's account does not include a prepaid account, unless the prepaid account is a payroll card account or a government benefit account.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure in § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii) may be estimated under paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section only if covered third-party fees are permitted to be estimated under paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section and the estimated covered third-party fees affect the amount of such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bases for estimates generally.</I> Estimates provided pursuant to the exceptions in paragraph (a) or (b)(1), (4), or (5) of this section must be based on the below-listed approach or approaches, except as otherwise permitted by this paragraph. If a remittance transfer provider bases an estimate on an approach that is not listed in this paragraph, the provider is deemed to be in compliance with this paragraph so long as the designated recipient receives the same, or greater, amount of funds than the remittance transfer provider disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Exchange rate.</I> In disclosing the exchange rate as required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv), an estimate must be based on one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For remittance transfers sent via international ACH that qualify for the exception in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, the most recent exchange rate set by the recipient country's central bank or other governmental authority and reported by a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(ii) The most recent publicly available wholesale exchange rate and, if applicable, any spread that the remittance transfer provider or its correspondent typically applies to such a wholesale rate for remittance transfers for that currency; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The most recent exchange rate offered or used by the person making funds available directly to the designated recipient or by the person setting the exchange rate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transfer amount in the currency in which the funds will be received by the designated recipient.</I> In disclosing the transfer amount in the currency in which the funds will be received by the designated recipient, as required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(v), an estimate must be based on the estimated exchange rate provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, prior to any rounding of the estimated exchange rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered third-party fees</I>—(i) <I>Imposed as percentage of amount transferred.</I> In disclosing covered third-party fees, as described under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi), that are a percentage of the amount transferred to the designated recipient, an estimated exchange rate must be based on the estimated exchange rate provided in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, prior to any rounding of the estimated exchange rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Imposed by the intermediary or final institution.</I> In disclosing covered third-party fees pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi), an estimate must be based on one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The remittance transfer provider's most recent remittance transfer to the designated recipient's institution, or
</P>
<P>(B) A representative transmittal route identified by the remittance transfer provider.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Amount of currency that will be received by the designated recipient.</I> In disclosing the amount of currency that will be received by the designated recipient as required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii), an estimate must be based on the information provided in accordance with paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bases for estimates for transfers scheduled before the date of transfer.</I> Estimates provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section must be based on the exchange rate or, where applicable, the estimated exchange rate based on an estimation methodology permitted under paragraph (c) of this section that the provider would have used or did use that day in providing disclosures to a sender requesting such a remittance transfer to be made on the same day. If, in accordance with this paragraph, a remittance transfer provider uses a basis described in paragraph (c) of this section but not listed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the provider is deemed to be in compliance with this paragraph regardless of the amount received by the designated recipient, so long as the estimation methodology is the same that the provider would have used or did use in providing disclosures to a sender requesting such a remittance transfer to be made on the same day.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 50283, Aug. 20, 2012; 78 FR 30704, May 22, 2013; 79 FR 55991, Sept. 18, 2014; 81 FR 84338, Nov. 22, 2016; 85 FR 34904, June 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.33" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.33   Procedures for resolving errors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of error</I>—(1) <I>Types of transfers or inquiries covered.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>error</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An incorrect amount paid by a sender in connection with a remittance transfer unless the disclosure stated an estimate of the amount paid by a sender in accordance with § 1005.32(b)(2) and the difference results from application of the actual exchange rate, fees, and taxes, rather than any estimated amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) A computational or bookkeeping error made by the remittance transfer provider relating to a remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The failure to make available to a designated recipient the amount of currency disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii) and stated in the disclosure provided to the sender under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3) for the remittance transfer, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The disclosure stated an estimate of the amount to be received in accordance with § 1005.32(a) or (b)(1), (2), (4), or (5) and the difference results from application of the actual exchange rate, fees, and taxes, rather than any estimated amounts; or
</P>
<P>(B) The failure resulted from extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated; or
</P>
<P>(C) The difference results from the application of non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider and the provider provided the disclosure required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii).
</P>
<P>(iv) The failure to make funds available to a designated recipient by the date of availability stated in the disclosure provided to the sender under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3) for the remittance transfer, unless the failure to make the funds available resulted from:
</P>
<P>(A) Extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated;
</P>
<P>(B) Delays related to a necessary investigation or other special action by the remittance transfer provider or a third party as required by the provider's fraud screening procedures or in accordance with the Bank Secrecy Act, 31 U.S.C. 5311 <I>et seq.,</I> Office of Foreign Assets Control requirements, or similar laws or requirements;
</P>
<P>(C) The remittance transfer being made with fraudulent intent by the sender or any person acting in concert with the sender; or
</P>
<P>(D) The sender having provided the remittance transfer provider an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier for the designated recipient's account or institution, provided that the remittance transfer provider meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (h) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The sender's request for documentation required by § 1005.31 or for additional information or clarification concerning a remittance transfer, including a request a sender makes to determine whether an error exists under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of transfers or inquiries not covered.</I> The term <I>error</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) An inquiry about the status of a remittance transfer, except where the funds from the transfer were not made available to a designated recipient by the disclosed date of availability as described in paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for information for tax or other recordkeeping purposes;
</P>
<P>(iii) A change requested by the designated recipient; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A change in the amount or type of currency received by the designated recipient from the amount or type of currency stated in the disclosure provided to the sender under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3) if the remittance transfer provider relied on information provided by the sender as permitted under § 1005.31 in making such disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of error from sender</I>—(1) <I>Timing; contents.</I> A remittance transfer provider shall comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any oral or written notice of error from a sender that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is received by the remittance transfer provider no later than 180 days after the disclosed date of availability of the remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Enables the provider to identify:
</P>
<P>(A) The sender's name and telephone number or address;
</P>
<P>(B) The recipient's name, and if known, the telephone number or address of the recipient; and
</P>
<P>(C) The remittance transfer to which the notice of error applies; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Indicates why the sender believes an error exists and includes to the extent possible the type, date, and amount of the error, except for requests for documentation, additional information, or clarification described in paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request for documentation or clarification.</I> When a notice of error is based on documentation, additional information, or clarification that the sender previously requested under paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, the sender's notice of error is timely if received by the remittance transfer provider the later of 180 days after the disclosed date of availability of the remittance transfer or 60 days after the provider sent the documentation, information, or clarification that had been requested.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limits and extent of investigation</I>—(1) <I>Time limits for investigation and report to consumer of error.</I> A remittance transfer provider shall investigate promptly and determine whether an error occurred within 90 days of receiving a notice of error. The remittance transfer provider shall report the results to the sender, including notice of any remedies available for correcting any error that the provider determines has occurred, within three business days after completing its investigation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Remedies.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, if, following an assertion of an error by a sender, the remittance transfer provider determines an error occurred, the provider shall, within one business day of, or as soon as reasonably practicable after, receiving the sender's instructions regarding the appropriate remedy, correct the error as designated by the sender by:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of any error under paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Refunding to the sender the amount of funds provided by the sender in connection with a remittance transfer which was not properly transmitted, or the amount appropriate to resolve the error; or
</P>
<P>(B) Making available to the designated recipient, without additional cost to the sender or to the designated recipient, the amount appropriate to resolve the error;
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, in the case of an error under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section
</P>
<P>(A) As applicable, either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Refunding to the sender the amount of funds provided by the sender in connection with a remittance transfer which was not properly transmitted, or the amount appropriate to resolve the error; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Making available to the designated recipient the amount appropriate to resolve the error. Such amount must be made available to the designated recipient without additional cost to the sender or to the designated recipient; and
</P>
<P>(B) Refunding to the sender any fees imposed and, to the extent not prohibited by law, taxes collected on the remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of an error under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section that occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information in connection with the remittance transfer, the remittance transfer provider shall provide the remedies required by paragraphs (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (c)(2)(ii)(B) of this section within three business days of providing the report required by paragraph (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section except that the provider may agree to the sender's request, upon receiving the results of the error investigation, that the funds be applied towards a new remittance transfer, rather than be refunded, if the provider has not yet processed a refund. The provider may deduct from the amount refunded or applied towards a new transfer any fees actually imposed on or, to the extent not prohibited by law, taxes actually collected on the remittance transfer as part of the first unsuccessful remittance transfer attempt except that the provider shall not deduct its own fee.
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of a request under paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section, providing the requested documentation, information, or clarification.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures if remittance transfer provider determines no error or different error occurred.</I> In addition to following the procedures specified in paragraph (c) of this section, the remittance transfer provider shall follow the procedures set forth in this paragraph (d) if it determines that no error occurred or that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the sender.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Explanation of results of investigation.</I> The remittance transfer provider's report of the results of the investigation shall include a written explanation of the provider's findings and shall note the sender's right to request the documents on which the provider relied in making its determination. The explanation shall also address the specific complaint of the sender.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Copies of documentation.</I> Upon the sender's request, the remittance transfer provider shall promptly provide copies of the documents on which the provider relied in making its error determination.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reassertion of error.</I> A remittance transfer provider that has fully complied with the error resolution requirements of this section has no further responsibilities under this section should the sender later reassert the same error, except in the case of an error asserted by the sender following receipt of information provided under paragraph (a)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Relation to other laws</I>—(1) <I>Relation to Regulation E § 1005.11 for incorrect EFTs from a sender's account.</I> If an alleged error involves an incorrect electronic fund transfer from a sender's account in connection with a remittance transfer, and the sender provides a notice of error to the account-holding institution, the account-holding institution shall comply with the requirements of § 1005.11 governing error resolution rather than the requirements of this section, provided that the account-holding institution is not also the remittance transfer provider. If the remittance transfer provider is also the financial institution that holds the consumer's account, then the error-resolution provisions of this section apply when the sender provides such notice of error.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relation to Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.</I> If an alleged error involves an incorrect extension of credit in connection with a remittance transfer, an incorrect amount received by the designated recipient under paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section that is an extension of credit for property or services not delivered as agreed, or the failure to make funds available by the disclosed date of availability under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section that is an extension of credit for property or services not delivered as agreed, and the sender provides a notice of error to the creditor extending the credit, the provisions of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13, governing error resolution apply to the creditor, rather than the requirements of this section, even if the creditor is the remittance transfer provider. However, if the creditor is the remittance transfer provider, paragraph (b) of this section will apply instead of 12 CFR 1026.13(b). If the sender instead provides a notice of error to the remittance transfer provider that is not also the creditor, then the error-resolution provisions of this section apply to the remittance transfer provider.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unauthorized remittance transfers.</I> If an alleged error involves an unauthorized electronic fund transfer for payment in connection with a remittance transfer, §§ 1005.6 and 1005.11 apply with respect to the account-holding institution. If an alleged error involves an unauthorized use of a credit account for payment in connection with a remittance transfer, the provisions of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(b), if applicable, and § 1026.13, apply with respect to the creditor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Error resolution standards and recordkeeping requirements</I>—(1) <I>Compliance program.</I> A remittance transfer provider shall develop and maintain written policies and procedures that are designed to ensure compliance with the error resolution requirements applicable to remittance transfers under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retention of error-related documentation.</I> The remittance transfer provider's policies and procedures required under paragraph (g)(1) of this section shall include policies and procedures regarding the retention of documentation related to error investigations. Such policies and procedures must ensure, at a minimum, the retention of any notices of error submitted by a sender, documentation provided by the sender to the provider with respect to the alleged error, and the findings of the remittance transfer provider regarding the investigation of the alleged error. Remittance transfer providers are subject to the record retention requirements under § 1005.13. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier provided by the sender.</I> The exception in paragraph (a)(1)(iv)(D) of this section applies if:
</P>
<P>(1) The remittance transfer provider can demonstrate that the sender provided an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier to the provider in connection with the remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>(2) For any instance in which the sender provided the incorrect recipient institution identifier, prior to or when sending the transfer, the provider used reasonably available means to verify that the recipient institution identifier provided by the sender corresponded to the recipient institution name provided by the sender;
</P>
<P>(3) The provider provided notice to the sender before the sender made payment for the remittance transfer that, in the event the sender provided an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier, the sender could lose the transfer amount. For purposes of providing this disclosure, § 1005.31(a)(2) applies to this notice unless the notice is given at the same time as other disclosures required by this subpart for which information is permitted to be disclosed orally or via mobile application or text message, in which case this disclosure may be given in the same medium as those other disclosures;
</P>
<P>(4) The incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier resulted in the deposit of the remittance transfer into a customer's account that is not the designated recipient's account; and
</P>
<P>(5) The provider promptly used reasonable efforts to recover the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 6285, Feb. 7, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 50284, Aug. 20, 2012; 78 FR 30704, May 22, 2013; 78 FR 49366, Aug. 14, 2013; 79 FR 55991, Sept. 18, 2014; 85 FR 34904, June 5, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.34" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.34   Procedures for cancellation and refund of remittance transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sender right of cancellation and refund.</I> Except as provided in § 1005.36(c), a remittance transfer provider shall comply with the requirements of this section with respect to any oral or written request to cancel a remittance transfer from the sender that is received by the provider no later than 30 minutes after the sender makes payment in connection with the remittance transfer if:
</P>
<P>(1) The request to cancel enables the provider to identify the sender's name and address or telephone number and the particular transfer to be cancelled; and
</P>
<P>(2) The transferred funds have not been picked up by the designated recipient or deposited into an account of the designated recipient.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limits and refund requirements.</I> A remittance transfer provider shall refund, at no additional cost to the sender, the total amount of funds provided by the sender in connection with a remittance transfer, including any fees and, to the extent not prohibited by law, taxes imposed in connection with the remittance transfer, within three business days of receiving a sender's request to cancel the remittance transfer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.35" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.35   Acts of agents.</HEAD>
<P>A remittance transfer provider is liable for any violation of this subpart by an agent when such agent acts for the provider.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1005.36" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1005.36   Transfers scheduled before the date of transfer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> (1) For a one-time transfer scheduled five or more business days before the date of transfer or for the first in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, the remittance transfer provider must:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide either the pre-payment disclosure described in § 1005.31(b)(1) and the receipt described in § 1005.31(b)(2) or the combined disclosure described in § 1005.31(b)(3), in accordance with the timing requirements set forth in § 1005.31(e); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If any of the disclosures provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section contain estimates as permitted by § 1005.32(b)(2), mail or deliver to the sender an additional receipt meeting the requirements described in § 1005.31(b)(2) no later than one business day after the date of the transfer. If the transfer involves the transfer of funds from the sender's account held by the provider, the receipt required by this paragraph may be provided on or with the next periodic statement for that account, or within 30 days after the date of the transfer if a periodic statement is not provided.
</P>
<P>(2) For each subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer:
</P>
<P>(i) If any of the information on the most recent receipt provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, or by this paragraph (a)(2)(i), other than the temporal disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(vii), is no longer accurate with respect to a subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer for reasons other than as permitted by § 1005.32, then the remittance transfer provider must provide an updated receipt meeting the requirements described in § 1005.31(b)(2) to the sender. The provider must mail or deliver this receipt to the sender within a reasonable time prior to the scheduled date of the next subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer. Such receipt must clearly and conspicuously indicate that it contains updated disclosures.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless a receipt was provided in accordance with paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section that contained no estimates pursuant to § 1005.32, the remittance transfer provider must mail or deliver to the sender a receipt meeting the requirements described in § 1005.31(b)(2) no later than one business day after the date of the transfer. If the remittance transfer involves the transfer of funds from the sender's account held by the provider, the receipt required by this paragraph may be provided on or with the next periodic statement for that account, or within 30 days after the date of the transfer if a periodic statement is not provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) A remittance transfer provider must provide the disclosures required by paragraph (d) of this section in accordance with the timing requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accuracy.</I> (1) For a one-time transfer scheduled five or more business days in advance or for the first in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, disclosures provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section must comply with § 1005.31(f) by being accurate when a sender makes payment except to the extent estimates are permitted by § 1005.32.
</P>
<P>(2) For each subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer, the most recent receipt provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i) of this section must be accurate as of when such transfer is made, except:
</P>
<P>(i) The temporal elements required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(vii) must be accurate only if the transfer is the first transfer to occur after the disclosure was provided; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent estimates are permitted by § 1005.32.
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosures provided pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(ii) or (a)(2)(ii) of this section must be accurate as of when the remittance transfer to which it pertains is made, except to the extent estimates are permitted by § 1005.32(a) or (b)(1), (4), or (5).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Cancellation.</I> For any remittance transfer scheduled by the sender at least three business days before the date of the transfer, a remittance transfer provider shall comply with any oral or written request to cancel the remittance transfer from the sender if the request to cancel:
</P>
<P>(1) Enables the provider to identify the sender's name and address or telephone number and the particular transfer to be cancelled; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is received by the provider at least three business days before the scheduled date of the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional requirements for subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure requirement.</I> (i) For any subsequent transfer in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, the remittance transfer provider must disclose to the sender:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the provider will make the subsequent transfer, using the term “Future Transfer Date,” or a substantially similar term;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation as described in § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(C) The name, telephone number(s), and Web site of the remittance transfer provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the future date or dates of transfer are described as occurring in regular periodic intervals, <I>e.g.,</I> the 15th of every month, rather than as a specific calendar date or dates, the remittance transfer provider must disclose any future date or dates of transfer that do not conform to the described interval.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice requirements.</I> (i) Except as described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be received by the sender no more than 12 months, and no less than five business days prior to the date of any subsequent transfer to which it pertains. The disclosures required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be provided in a separate disclosure or may be provided on one or more disclosures required by this subpart related to the same series of preauthorized transfers, so long as the consumer receives the required information for each subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer in accordance with the timing requirements of this paragraph (d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(ii) For any subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer for which the date of transfer is four or fewer business days after the date payment is made for that transfer, the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be provided on or with the receipt described in § 1005.31(b)(2), or disclosed as permitted by § 1005.31(a)(3) or (a)(5), for the initial transfer in that series in accordance with paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Specific format requirement.</I> The information required by paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A) of this section generally must be disclosed in close proximity to the other information required by paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accuracy.</I> Any disclosure required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be accurate as of the date the preauthorized remittance transfer to which it pertains is made.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 50284, Aug. 20, 2012; 85 FR 34904, June 5, 2020]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.8.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1005—Model Disclosure Clauses and Forms
</HEAD>
<FP-2>A-1—Model Clauses for Unsolicited Issuance (§ 1005.5(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-2—Model Clauses for Initial Disclosures (§ 1005.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-3—Model Forms for Error Resolution Notice (§§ 1005.7(b)(10) and 1005.8(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-4—Model Form for Service-Providing Institutions (§ 1005.14(b)(1)(ii))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-5—Model Clauses for Government Agencies (§ 1005.15(e)(1) and (2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-6—Model Clauses for Authorizing One-Time Electronic Fund Transfers Using Information From a Check (§ 1005.3(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-7—Model Clauses for Financial Institutions Offering Prepaid Accounts (§ 1005.18(d) and (e)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-8—Model Clause for Electronic Collection of Returned Item Fees (§ 1005.3(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-9—Model Consent Form for Overdraft Services (§ 1005.17)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(a)—Model Form for Short Form Disclosures for Government Benefit Accounts (§§ 1005.15(c) and 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(b)—Model Form for Short Form Disclosures for Payroll Card Accounts (§ 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(c)—Model Form for Short Form Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts, Example 1 (§ 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(d)—Model Form for Short Form Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts, Example 2 (§ 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(e)—Model Form for Short Form Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts with Multiple Service Plans (§ 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-10(f)—Sample Form for Long Form Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts (§ 1005.18(b)(4), (6), and (7))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-11 through A-30 [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-30(a)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency including a disclaimer where non-covered third-party fees and foreign taxes may apply (§ 1005.31(b)(1))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-30(b) —Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency including a disclaimer with estimate for non-covered third-party fees (§ 1005.31(b)(1) and § 1005.32(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-30(c)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency including a disclaimer with estimate for foreign taxes (§ 1005.31(b)(1) and § 1005.32(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-30(d)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency, including a disclaimer with estimates for non-covered third-party fees and foreign taxes (§ 1005.31(b)(1) and § 1005.32(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-31—Model Form for Receipts for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-32—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-34—Model Form for Receipts for Dollar-to-Dollar Remittance Transfers (§ 1005.31(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-35—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Dollar-to-Dollar Remittance Transfers (§ 1005.31(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-36—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Long) (§ 1005.31(b)(4))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-37—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Short) (§ 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) and (b)(2)(vi))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-39—Model Form for Receipts for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-40—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-41—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Long)—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(4))
</FP-2>
<HD1>A-1—Model Clauses for Unsolicited Issuance (§ 1005.5(<E T="01">b</E>)(2))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Accounts using cards.</I> You cannot use the enclosed card to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the card, please (destroy it at once by cutting it in half).
</P>
<P>[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Accounts using codes.</I> You cannot use the enclosed code to transfer money into or out of your account until we have validated it. If you do not want to use the code, please (destroy this notice at once).
</P>
<P>[Financial institution may add validation instructions here.]
</P>
<HD1>A-2—Model Clauses for Initial Disclosures (§ 1005.7(<E T="01">b</E>))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer Liability (§ 1005.7(b)(1)).</I>
</P>
<P>(Tell us AT ONCE if you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, or if you believe that an electronic fund transfer has been made without your permission using information from your check. Telephoning is the best way of keeping your possible losses down. You could lose all the money in your account (plus your maximum overdraft line of credit). If you tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], you can lose no more than $50 if someone used your [card][code] without your permission.)
</P>
<P>If you do NOT tell us within 2 business days after you learn of the loss or theft of your [card] [code], and we can prove we could have stopped someone from using your [card] [code] without your permission if you had told us, you could lose as much as $500.
</P>
<P>Also, if your statement shows transfers that you did not make, including those made by card, code or other means, tell us at once. If you do not tell us within 60 days after the statement was mailed to you, you may not get back any money you lost after the 60 days if we can prove that we could have stopped someone from taking the money if you had told us in time. If a good reason (such as a long trip or a hospital stay) kept you from telling us, we will extend the time periods.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contact in event of unauthorized transfer (§ 1005.7(b)(2)).</I> If you believe your [card] [code] has been lost or stolen, call: [Telephone number] or write: [Name of person or office to be notified] [Address].
</P>
<P>You should also call the number or write to the address listed above if you believe a transfer has been made using the information from your check without your permission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Business days (§ 1005.7(b)(3)).</I> For purposes of these disclosures, our business days are (Monday through Friday) (Monday through Saturday) (any day including Saturdays and Sundays). Holidays are (not) included.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transfer types and limitations (§ 1005.7(b)(4))</I> (1) <I>Account access.</I> You may use your [card][code] to:
</P>
<P>(i) Withdraw cash from your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Make deposits to your [checking] [or] [savings] account.
</P>
<P>(iii) Transfer funds between your checking and savings accounts whenever you request.
</P>
<P>(iv) Pay for purchases at places that have agreed to accept the [card] [code].
</P>
<P>(v) Pay bills directly [by telephone] from your [checking] [or] [savings] account in the amounts and on the days you request.
</P>
<P>Some of these services may not be available at all terminals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Electronic check conversion.</I> You may authorize a merchant or other payee to make a one-time electronic payment from your checking account using information from your check to:
</P>
<P>(i) Pay for purchases.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pay bills.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations on frequency of transfers.</I> (i) You may make only [insert number, <I>e.g.,</I> 3] cash withdrawals from our terminals each [insert time period, <I>e.g.,</I> week].
</P>
<P>(ii) You can use your telephone bill-payment service to pay [insert number] bills each [insert time period] [telephone call].
</P>
<P>(iii) You can use our point-of-sale transfer service for [insert number] transactions each [insert time period].
</P>
<P>(iv) For security reasons, there are limits on the number of transfers you can make using our [terminals] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on dollar amounts of transfers</I> (i) You may withdraw up to [insert dollar amount] from our terminals each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code].
</P>
<P>(ii) You may buy up to [insert dollar amount] worth of goods or services each [insert time period] time you use the [card] [code] in our point-of-sale transfer service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees (§ 1005.7(b)(5))</I> (1) <I>Per transfer charge.</I> We will charge you [insert dollar amount] for each transfer you make using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fixed charge.</I> We will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [insert time period] for our [automated teller machine service] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service].
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Average or minimum balance charge.</I> We will only charge you for using our [automated teller machines] [telephone bill-payment service] [point-of-sale transfer service] if the [average] [minimum] balance in your [checking account] [savings account] [accounts] falls below [insert dollar amount]. If it does, we will charge you [insert dollar amount] each [transfer] [insert time period].
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Confidentiality (§ 1005.7(b)(9)).</I> We will disclose information to third parties about your account or the transfers you make:
</P>
<P>(i) Where it is necessary for completing transfers, or
</P>
<P>(ii) In order to verify the existence and condition of your account for a third party, such as a credit bureau or merchant, or
</P>
<P>(iii) In order to comply with government agency or court orders, or
</P>
<P>(iv) If you give us your written permission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation (§ 1005.7(b)(6))</I> (1) <I>Terminal transfers.</I> You can get a receipt at the time you make any transfer to or from your account using one of our [automated teller machines] [or] [point-of-sale terminals].
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preauthorized credits.</I> If you have arranged to have direct deposits made to your account at least once every 60 days from the same person or company, (we will let you know if the deposit is [not] made.) [the person or company making the deposit will tell you every time they send us the money] [you can call us at (insert telephone number) to find out whether or not the deposit has been made].
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic statements.</I> You will get a [monthly] [quarterly] account statement (unless there are no transfers in a particular month. In any case you will get the statement at least quarterly).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Passbook account where the only possible electronic fund transfers are preauthorized credits.</I> If you bring your passbook to us, we will record any electronic deposits that were made to your account since the last time you brought in your passbook.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Preauthorized payments (§ 1005.7(b) (6), (7) and (8); § 1005.10(d))</I> (1) <I>Right to stop payment and procedure for doing so.</I> If you have told us in advance to make regular payments out of your account, you can stop any of these payments. Here's how:
</P>
<P>Call us at [insert telephone number], or write us at [insert address], in time for us to receive your request 3 business days or more before the payment is scheduled to be made. If you call, we may also require you to put your request in writing and get it to us within 14 days after you call. (We will charge you [insert amount] for each stop-payment order you give.)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of varying amounts.</I> If these regular payments may vary in amount, [we] [the person you are going to pay] will tell you, 10 days before each payment, when it will be made and how much it will be. (You may choose instead to get this notice only when the payment would differ by more than a certain amount from the previous payment, or when the amount would fall outside certain limits that you set.)
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liability for failure to stop payment of preauthorized transfer.</I> If you order us to stop one of these payments 3 business days or more before the transfer is scheduled, and we do not do so, we will be liable for your losses or damages.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial institution's liability (§ 1005.7(b)(8)).</I> If we do not complete a transfer to or from your account on time or in the correct amount according to our agreement with you, we will be liable for your losses or damages. However, there are some exceptions. We will not be liable, for instance:
</P>
<P>(1) If, through no fault of ours, you do not have enough money in your account to make the transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) If the transfer would go over the credit limit on your overdraft line.
</P>
<P>(3) If the automated teller machine where you are making the transfer does not have enough cash.
</P>
<P>(4) If the [terminal] [system] was not working properly and you knew about the breakdown when you started the transfer.
</P>
<P>(5) If circumstances beyond our control (such as fire or flood) prevent the transfer, despite reasonable precautions that we have taken.
</P>
<P>(6) There may be other exceptions stated in our agreement with you.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>ATM fees (§ 1005.7(b)(11)).</I> When you use an ATM not owned by us, you may be charged a fee by the ATM operator [or any network used] (and you may be charged a fee for a balance inquiry even if you do not complete a fund transfer).
</P>
<HD1>A-3—Model Forms for Error Resolution Notice (§§ 1005.7(<E T="01">b</E>)(10) and 1005.8(<E T="01">b</E>))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Initial and annual error resolution notice (§§ 1005.7(b)(10) and 1005.8(b)).</I>
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] Write us at [insert address] [or email us at [insert email address]] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer listed on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent the FIRST statement on which the problem or error appeared.
</P>
<P>(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information.
</P>
<P>(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
</P>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation. You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Error resolution notice on periodic statements (§ 1005.8(b)).</I>
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [insert telephone number] or Write us at [insert address] as soon as you can, if you think your statement or receipt is wrong or if you need more information about a transfer on the statement or receipt. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the FIRST statement on which the error or problem appeared.
</P>
<P>(1) Tell us your name and account number (if any).
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the error or the transfer you are unsure about, and explain as clearly as you can why you believe it is an error or why you need more information.
</P>
<P>(3) Tell us the dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>We will investigate your complaint and will correct any error promptly. If we take more than 10 business days to do this, we will credit your account for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation.
</P>
<HD1>A-4—Model Form for Service-Providing Institutions (§ 1005.14(<E T="01">b</E>)(1)(<E T="01">ii</E>))
</HD1>
<P>ALL QUESTIONS ABOUT TRANSACTIONS MADE WITH YOUR (NAME OF CARD) CARD MUST BE DIRECTED TO US (NAME OF SERVICE PROVIDER), AND NOT TO THE BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION WHERE YOU HAVE YOUR ACCOUNT. We are responsible for the [name of service] service and for resolving any errors in transactions made with your [name of card] card.
</P>
<P>We will not send you a periodic statement listing transactions that you make using your [name of card] card. The transactions will appear only on the statement issued by your bank or other financial institution. SAVE THE RECEIPTS YOU ARE GIVEN WHEN YOU USE YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD, AND CHECK THEM AGAINST THE ACCOUNT STATEMENT YOU RECEIVE FROM YOUR BANK OR OTHER FINANCIAL INSTITUTION. If you have any questions about one of these transactions, call or write us at [telephone number and address] [the telephone number and address indicated below].
</P>
<P>IF YOUR [NAME OF CARD] CARD IS LOST OR STOLEN, NOTIFY US AT ONCE by calling or writing to us at [telephone number and address].


</P>
<HD1>A-5—Model Clauses for Government Agencies (§ 1005.15(e)(1) and (2))
</HD1>
<P>(a) Disclosure by government agencies of information about obtaining account information for government benefit accounts (§ 1005.15(e)(1)(i)).
</P>
<P>You may obtain information about the amount of benefits you have remaining by calling [telephone number]. That information is also available [on the receipt you get when you make a transfer with your card at (an ATM) (a POS terminal)] [when you make a balance inquiry at an ATM] [when you make a balance inquiry at specified locations]. This information, along with a 12-month history of account transactions, is also available online at [Internet address].
</P>
<P>You also have the right to obtain at least 24 months of written history of account transactions by calling [telephone number], or by writing to us at [address]. You will not be charged a fee for this information unless you request it more than once per month. [Optional: Or you may request a written history of account transactions by contacting your caseworker.]
</P>
<P>(b) Disclosure of error resolution procedures for government agencies that do not provide periodic statements (§ 1005.15(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(2)).
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Electronic Transfers Telephone us at [telephone number] Write us at [address] [or email us at [email address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your [agency's name for program] account. We must allow you to report an error until 60 days after the earlier of the date you electronically access your account, if the error could be viewed in your electronic history, or the date we sent the FIRST written history on which the error appeared. You may request a written history of your transactions at any time by calling us at [telephone number] or writing us at [address] [optional: or by contacting your caseworker]. You will need to tell us:
</P>
<P>• Your name and [case] [file] number.
</P>
<P>• Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
</P>
<P>• Approximately when the error took place.
</P>
<P>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
</P>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the use of the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account.
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation.
</P>
<P>You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
</P>
<P>If you need more information about our error resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number][the telephone number shown above].


</P>
<HD1>A-6—Model Clauses for Authorizing One-Time Electronic Fund Transfers Using Information From a Check (§ 1005.3(<E T="01">b</E>)(2))
</HD1>
<P><I>(a) Notice About Electronic Check Conversion.</I>
</P>
<P>When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us either to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account or to process the payment as a check transaction.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Alternative Notice About Electronic Check Conversion (Optional).</I>
</P>
<P>When you provide a check as payment, you authorize us to use information from your check to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account. In certain circumstances, such as for technical or processing reasons, we may process your payment as a check transaction.
</P>
<P>[<I>Specify other circumstances (at payee's option).</I>]
</P>
<P><I>(c) Notice For Providing Additional Information About Electronic Check Conversion.</I>
</P>
<P>When we use information from your check to make an electronic fund transfer, funds may be withdrawn from your account as soon as the same day [you make] [we receive] your payment[, and you will not receive your check back from your financial institution].


</P>
<HD1>A-7—Model Clauses for Financial Institutions Offering Prepaid Accounts (§ 1005.18(d) and (e)(3))
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure by financial institutions of information about obtaining account information for prepaid accounts (§ 1005.18(d)(1)(i)).</I>
</P>
<P>You may obtain information about the amount of money you have remaining in your prepaid account by calling [telephone number]. This information, along with a 12-month history of account transactions, is also available online at [internet address].
</P>
<P>[For accounts that are or can be registered:] [If your account is registered with us,] You also have the right to obtain at least 24 months of written history of account transactions by calling [telephone number], or by writing us at [address]. You will not be charged a fee for this information unless you request it more than once per month.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of error-resolution procedures for financial institutions that do not provide periodic statements (§ 1005.18(d)(1)(ii) and (d)(2)).</I>
</P>
<P>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Prepaid Account Telephone us at [telephone number] or Write us at [address] [or email us at [email address]] as soon as you can, if you think an error has occurred in your prepaid account. We must allow you to report an error until 60 days after the earlier of the date you electronically access your account, if the error could be viewed in your electronic history, or the date we sent the FIRST written history on which the error appeared. You may request a written history of your transactions at any time by calling us at [telephone number] or writing us at [address]. You will need to tell us:
</P>
<P>Your name and [prepaid account] number.
</P>
<P>Why you believe there is an error, and the dollar amount involved.
</P>
<P>Approximately when the error took place.
</P>
<P>If you tell us orally, we may require that you send us your complaint or question in writing within 10 business days.
</P>
<P>We will determine whether an error occurred within 10 business days after we hear from you and will correct any error promptly. If we need more time, however, we may take up to 45 days to investigate your complaint or question. If we decide to do this, [and your account is registered with us,] we will credit your account within 10 business days for the amount you think is in error, so that you will have the money during the time it takes us to complete our investigation. If we ask you to put your complaint or question in writing and we do not receive it within 10 business days, we may not credit your account. [Keep reading to learn more about how to register your card.]
</P>
<P>For errors involving new accounts, point-of-sale, or foreign-initiated transactions, we may take up to 90 days to investigate your complaint or question. For new accounts, we may take up to 20 business days to credit your account for the amount you think is in error.
</P>
<P>We will tell you the results within three business days after completing our investigation. If we decide that there was no error, we will send you a written explanation.
</P>
<P>You may ask for copies of the documents that we used in our investigation.
</P>
<P>If you need more information about our error-resolution procedures, call us at [telephone number] [the telephone number shown above] [or visit [internet address]].
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Warning regarding unverified prepaid accounts (§ 1005.18(e)(3)).</I>
</P>
<P>It is important to register your prepaid account as soon as possible. Until you register your account and we verify your identity, we are not required to research or resolve any errors regarding your account. To register your account, go to [internet address] or call us at [telephone number]. We will ask you for identifying information about yourself (including your full name, address, date of birth, and [Social Security Number] [government-issued identification number]), so that we can verify your identity.


</P>
<HD1>A-8—Model Clause for Electronic Collection of Returned Item Fees (§ 1005.3(<E T="01">b</E>)(3))
</HD1>
<P>If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee of [$________]. [If your payment is returned unpaid, you authorize [us/name of person collecting the fee electronically] to make a one-time electronic fund transfer from your account to collect a fee. The fee will be determined [by]/[as follows]: 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er27de11.000.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22no16.010.gif"/>
<HD1>A-11 through A-29 [Reserved]
</HD1>
<FP-1>A-30(a)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.242.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-30(b)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.243.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-30(c)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.244.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-30(d)—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.245.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-31—Model Form for Receipts for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(2))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er18se14.015.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-32—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency (§ 1005.31(b)(3))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.247.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.248.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-33—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Dollar-to-Dollar Remittance Transfers (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.249.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-34—Model Form for Receipts for Dollar-to-Dollar Remittance Transfers (§ 1005.31(b)(2))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.250.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-35—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Dollar-to-Dollar Remittance Transfers (§ 1005.31(b)(3))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.251.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-36—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Long) (§ 1005.31(b)(4))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.252.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-37—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Short)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>(§ 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) and (b)(2)(vi))
</FP-1>
<P>You have a right to dispute errors in your transaction. If you think there is an error, contact us within 180 days at [insert telephone number] or [insert website]. You can also contact us for a written explanation of your rights.
</P>
<P>You can cancel for a full refund within 30 minutes of payment, unless the funds have been picked up or deposited.
</P>
<P>For questions or complaints about [insert name of remittance transfer provider], contact:
</P>
<FP-1>State Regulatory Agency, 800-111-2222, <I>www.stateregulatoryagency.gov</I>
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 855-411-2372, 855-729-2372 (TTY/TDD), <I>www.consumerfinance.gov</I>

</FP-1>
<FP-1>A-38—Model Form for Pre-Payment Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(1))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.254.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-39—Model Form for Receipts for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(2))

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.255.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.256.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-40—Model Form for Combined Disclosures for Remittance Transfers Exchanged into Local Currency—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(3)) 

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er18se14.016.gif"/>
<FP-1>A-41—Model Form for Error Resolution and Cancellation Disclosures (Long)—Spanish (§ 1005.31(b)(4)) 

</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22my13.258.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 6290, Feb. 7, 2012; 77 FR 40459, July 10, 2012; 78 FR 30705, May 22, 2013; 79 FR 55991, Sept. 18, 2014; 81 FR 70320, Oct. 12, 2016; 81 FR 84338, Nov. 22, 2016; 83 FR 6419, Feb. 13, 2018]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.8.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1005 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.8.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1005—Issuance of Official Interpretations








</HEAD>
<HD2>Official Interpretations
</HD2>
<P>Interpretations of this part issued by duly authorized officials of the Bureau provide the protection afforded under section 916(d) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically.
</P>
<HD2>Requests for Issuance of Official Interpretations
</HD2>
<P>A request for an official interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
</P>
<HD2>Scope of Interpretations
</HD2>
<P>No interpretations will be issued approving financial institutions' forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 16538, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.6.2.1.8.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1005—Official Interpretations
</HEAD>
<HD1>Section 1005.2 Definitions
</HD1>
<HD2>2(a) Access Device
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> The term “access device” includes debit cards, personal identification numbers (PINs), telephone transfer and telephone bill payment codes, and other means that may be used by a consumer to initiate an electronic fund transfer (EFT) to or from a consumer account. The term does not include magnetic tape or other devices used internally by a financial institution to initiate electronic transfers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Checks used to capture information.</I> The term “access device” does not include a check or draft used to capture the Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) encoding to initiate a one-time automated clearinghouse (ACH) debit. For example, if a consumer authorizes a one-time ACH debit from the consumer's account using a blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed check for the merchant to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the debit, the check is not an access device. (Although the check is not an access device under Regulation E, the transaction is nonetheless covered by the regulation. <I>See</I> comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.)
</P>
<HD2>2(b) Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consumer asset account.</I> The term “consumer asset account” includes:
</P>
<P>i. Club accounts, such as vacation clubs. In many cases, however, these accounts are exempt from the regulation under § 1005.3(c)(5) because all electronic transfers to or from the account have been preauthorized by the consumer and involve another account of the consumer at the same institution.
</P>
<P>ii. A retail repurchase agreement (repo), which is a loan made to a financial institution by a consumer that is collateralized by government or government-insured securities.
</P>
<P>2. Examples of accounts not covered by Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) include:
</P>
<P>i. Profit-sharing and pension accounts established under a trust agreement, which are exempt under § 1005.2(b)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. Escrow accounts, such as those established to ensure payment of items such as real estate taxes, insurance premiums, or completion of repairs or improvements.
</P>
<P>iii. Accounts for accumulating funds to purchase U.S. savings bonds.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 2(b)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Bona fide trust agreements.</I> The term “bona fide trust agreement” is not defined by the Act or regulation; therefore, financial institutions must look to state or other applicable law for interpretation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Custodial agreements.</I> An account held under a custodial agreement that qualifies as a trust under the Internal Revenue Code, such as an individual retirement account, is considered to be held under a trust agreement for purposes of Regulation E.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(b)(3)
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(b)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Debit card includes prepaid card.</I> For purposes of subpart A of Regulation E, unless otherwise specified, the term debit card also includes a prepaid card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Certain employment-related cards not covered as payroll card accounts.</I> The term “payroll card account” does not include an account used solely to disburse incentive-based payments (other than commissions which can represent the primary means through which a consumer is paid), such as bonuses, which are unlikely to be a consumer's primary source of salary or other compensation. The term also does not include an account used solely to make disbursements unrelated to compensation, such as petty cash reimbursements or travel per diem payments. Similarly, a payroll card account does not include an account that is used in isolated instances to which an employer typically does not make recurring payments, such as when providing final payments or in emergency situations when other payment methods are unavailable. While such accounts would not be payroll card accounts, such accounts could constitute prepaid accounts generally, provided the other conditions of the definition of that term in § 1005.2(b)(3) are satisfied. In addition, all transactions involving the transfer of funds to or from a payroll card account or prepaid account are covered by the regulation, even if a particular transaction involves payment of a bonus, other incentive-based payment, or reimbursement, or the transaction does not represent a transfer of wages, salary, or other employee compensation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Marketed or labeled as</I> “<I>prepaid.”</I> The term “marketed or labeled as `prepaid' ” means promoting or advertising an account using the term “prepaid.” For example, an account is marketed or labeled as prepaid if the term “prepaid” appears on the access device associated with the account or the access device's packaging materials, or on a display, advertisement, or other publication to promote purchase or use of the account. An account may be marketed or labeled as prepaid if the financial institution, its service provider, including a program manager, or the payment network on which an access device for the account is used, promotes or advertises, or contracts with another party to promote or advertise, the account using the label “prepaid.” A product or service that is marketed or labeled as prepaid is not a “prepaid account” pursuant to § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(C) if it does not otherwise meet the definition of account under § 1005.2(b)(1).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Issued on a prepaid basis.</I> To be issued on a prepaid basis, a prepaid account must be loaded with funds when it is first provided to the consumer for use. For example, if a consumer purchases a prepaid account and provides funds that are loaded onto a card at the time of purchase, the prepaid account is issued on a prepaid basis.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Capable of being loaded with funds.</I> A prepaid account that is not issued on a prepaid basis but is capable of being loaded with funds thereafter includes a prepaid card issued to a consumer with a zero balance to which funds may be loaded by the consumer or a third party subsequent to issuance.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Product acting as a pass-through vehicle for funds.</I> To satisfy § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D), a prepaid account must be issued on a prepaid basis or be capable of being loaded with funds. This means that the prepaid account must be capable of holding funds, rather than merely acting as a pass-through vehicle. For example, if a product, such as a digital wallet, is only capable of storing a consumer's payment credentials for other accounts but is incapable of having funds stored on it, such a product is not a prepaid account. However, if a product allows a consumer to transfer funds, which can be stored before the consumer designates a destination for the funds, the product satisfies § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Not required to be reloadable.</I> Prepaid accounts need not be reloadable by the consumer or a third party.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Primary function.</I> To satisfy § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D), an account's primary function must be to provide consumers with general transaction capability, which includes the general ability to use loaded funds to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or at automated teller machines, or to conduct person-to-person transfers. This definition excludes accounts that provide such capability only incidentally. For example, the primary function of a brokerage account is to hold funds so that the consumer can conduct transactions through a licensed broker or firm, not to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for good or services, or at automated teller machines, or to conduct person-to-person transfers. Similarly, the primary function of a savings account is to accrue interest on funds held in the account; such accounts restrict the extent to which the consumer can conduct general transactions and withdrawals. Accordingly, brokerage accounts and savings accounts do not satisfy § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D), and thus are not prepaid accounts as defined by § 1005.2(b)(3). The following examples provide additional guidance:
</P>
<P>i. An account's primary function is to enable a consumer to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, at automated teller machines, or to conduct person-to-person transfers, even if the account also enables a third party to disburse funds to a consumer. For example, a prepaid account that conveys tax refunds or insurance proceeds to a consumer meets the primary function test if the account can be used, <I>e.g.,</I> to purchase goods or services at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.
</P>
<P>ii. Whether an account satisfies § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D) is determined by reference to the account, not the access device associated with the account. An account satisfies § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D) even if the account's access device can be used for other purposes, for example, as a form of identification. Such accounts may include, for example, a prepaid account used to disburse student loan proceeds via a card device that can be used at unaffiliated merchants or to withdraw cash from an automated teller machine, even if that access device also acts as a student identification card.
</P>
<P>iii. Where multiple accounts are associated with the same access device, the primary function of each account is determined separately. One or more accounts can satisfy § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D) even if other accounts associated with the same access device do not. For example, a student identification card may act as an access device associated with two separate accounts: An account used to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, and an account used to conduct closed-loop transactions on campus. The account used to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services satisfies § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D), even though the account used to conduct closed-loop transactions does not (and as such the latter is not a prepaid account as defined by § 1005.2(b)(3)).
</P>
<P>iv. An account satisfies § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D) if its primary function is to provide general transaction capability, even if an individual consumer does not in fact use it to conduct multiple transactions. For example, the fact that a consumer may choose to withdraw the entire account balance at an automated teller machine or transfer it to another account held by the consumer does not change the fact that the account's primary function is to provide general transaction capability.
</P>
<P>v. An account whose primary function is other than to conduct transactions with multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, or at automated teller machines, or to conduct person-to-person transfers, does not satisfy § 1005.2(b)(3)(i)(D). Such accounts may include, for example, a product whose only function is to make a one-time transfer of funds into a separate prepaid account.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.</I> For guidance, see comments 20(a)(3)-1 and -2.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Person-to-person transfers.</I> A prepaid account whose primary function is to conduct person-to-person transfers is an account that allows a consumer to send funds by electronic fund transfer to another consumer or business. An account may qualify as a prepaid account if its primary function is person-to-person transfers even if it is neither redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants for goods or services, nor usable at automated teller machines. A transaction involving a store gift card would not be a person-to-person transfer if it could only be used to make payments to the merchant or affiliated group of merchants on whose behalf the card was issued.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(b)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Excluded health care and employee benefit related prepaid products.</I> For purposes of § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(A), “health savings account” means a health savings account as defined in 26 U.S.C. 223(d); “flexible spending arrangement” means a health benefits or a health flexible spending arrangement pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 125; “medical savings account” means an Archer MSA as defined in 26 U.S.C. 220(d); “health reimbursement arrangement” means a health reimbursement arrangement which is treated as employer-provided coverage under an accident or health plan for purposes of 26 U.S.C. 106; “dependent care assistance program” means a dependent care assistance program pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 129; and “transit or parking reimbursement arrangement” means a qualified transportation fringe benefit provided by an employer pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 132.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Excluded disaster relief funds.</I> For purposes of § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(B), “qualified disaster relief funds” means funds made available through a qualified disaster relief program as defined in 26 U.S.C. 139(b).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Marketed and labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I> Section 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(D) excludes, among other things, reloadable general-use prepaid cards that are both marketed and labeled as gift cards or gift certificates, whereas § 1005.20(b)(2) excludes such products that are marketed or labeled as gift cards or gift certificates. Comment 20(b)(2)-2 describes, in part, a network-branded GPR card that is principally advertised as a less-costly alternative to a bank account but is promoted in a television, radio, newspaper, or internet advertisement, or on signage as “the perfect gift” during the holiday season. For purposes of § 1005.20, such a product would be considered marketed as a gift card or gift certificate because of this occasional holiday marketing activity. For purposes of § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(D), however, such a product would not be considered to be both marketed and labeled as a gift card or gift certificate and thus would be covered by the definition of prepaid account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.</I> Section 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(D)(<I>3</I>) excludes loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards as defined in § 1005.20(a)(4); those cards are excluded from coverage under § 1005.20 pursuant to § 1005.20(b)(3). Section 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(D)(<I>3</I>) also excludes cards that satisfy the criteria in § 1005.20(a)(4)(i) and (ii) and are excluded from coverage under § 1005.20 pursuant to § 1005.20(b)(4) because they are not marketed to the general public; such products are not required to set forth the disclosures enumerated in § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii) in order to be excluded pursuant to § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(D)(<I>3</I>).


</P>
<HD2>2(d) Business Day
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Duration.</I> A business day includes the entire 24-hour period ending at midnight, and a notice required by the regulation is effective even if given outside normal business hours. The regulation does not require, however, that a financial institution make telephone lines available on a 24-hour basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially all business functions.</I> Substantially all business functions include both the public and the back-office operations of the institution. For example, if the offices of an institution are open on Saturdays for handling some consumer transactions (such as deposits, withdrawals, and other teller transactions), but not for performing internal functions (such as investigating account errors), then Saturday is not a business day for that institution. In this case, Saturday does not count toward the business-day standard set by the regulation for reporting lost or stolen access devices, resolving errors, <I>etc.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short hours.</I> A financial institution may determine, at its election, whether an abbreviated day is a business day. For example, if an institution engages in substantially all business functions until noon on Saturdays instead of its usual 3 p.m. closing, it may consider Saturday a business day.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Telephone line.</I> If a financial institution makes a telephone line available on Sundays for reporting the loss or theft of an access device, but performs no other business functions, Sunday is not a business day under the substantially all business functions standard.
</P>
<HD2>2(h) Electronic Terminal
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Point-of-sale (POS) payments initiated by telephone.</I> Because the term “electronic terminal” excludes a telephone operated by a consumer, a financial institution need not provide a terminal receipt when:
</P>
<P>i. A consumer uses a debit card at a public telephone to pay for the call.
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer initiates a transfer by a means analogous in function to a telephone, such as by home banking equipment or a facsimile machine.
</P>
<P>2. <I>POS terminals.</I> A POS terminal that captures data electronically, for debiting or crediting to a consumer's asset account, is an electronic terminal for purposes of Regulation E even if no access device is used to initiate the transaction. <I>See</I> § 1005.9 for receipt requirements.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Teller-operated terminals.</I> A terminal or other computer equipment operated by an employee of a financial institution is not an electronic terminal for purposes of the regulation. However, transfers initiated at such terminals by means of a consumer's access device (using the consumer's PIN, for example) are EFTs and are subject to other requirements of the regulation. If an access device is used only for identification purposes or for determining the account balance, the transfers are not EFTs for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>2(k) Preauthorized Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Advance authorization.</I> A preauthorized electronic fund transfer under Regulation E is one authorized by the consumer in advance of a transfer that will take place on a recurring basis, at substantially regular intervals, and will require no further action by the consumer to initiate the transfer. In a bill-payment system, for example, if the consumer authorizes a financial institution to make monthly payments to a payee by means of EFTs, and the payments take place without further action by the consumer, the payments are preauthorized EFTs. In contrast, if the consumer must take action each month to initiate a payment (such as by entering instructions on a touch-tone telephone or home computer), the payments are not preauthorized EFTs.
</P>
<HD2>2(m) Unauthorized Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transfer by institution's employee.</I> A consumer has no liability for erroneous or fraudulent transfers initiated by an employee of a financial institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authority.</I> If a consumer furnishes an access device and grants authority to make transfers to a person (such as a family member or co-worker) who exceeds the authority given, the consumer is fully liable for the transfers unless the consumer has notified the financial institution that transfers by that person are no longer authorized.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Access device obtained through robbery or fraud.</I> An unauthorized EFT includes a transfer initiated by a person who obtained the access device from the consumer through fraud or robbery.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Forced initiation.</I> An EFT at an ATM is an unauthorized transfer if the consumer has been induced by force to initiate the transfer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reversal of direct deposits.</I> The reversal of a direct deposit made in error is not an unauthorized EFT when it involves:
</P>
<P>i. A credit made to the wrong consumer's account;
</P>
<P>ii. A duplicate credit made to a consumer's account; or
</P>
<P>iii. A credit in the wrong amount (for example, when the amount credited to the consumer's account differs from the amount in the transmittal instructions).


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.3 Coverage
</HD1>
<HD2>3(a) General
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accounts covered.</I> The requirements of the regulation apply only to an account for which an agreement for EFT services to or from the account has been entered into between:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer and the financial institution (including an account for which an access device has been issued to the consumer, for example);
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer and a third party (for preauthorized debits or credits, for example), when the account-holding institution has received notice of the agreement and the fund transfers have begun.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated clearing house (ACH) membership.</I> The fact that membership in an ACH requires a financial institution to accept EFTs to accounts at the institution does not make every account of that institution subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation E applies to all persons (including branches and other offices of foreign banks located in the United States) that offer EFT services to residents of any state, including resident aliens. It covers any account located in the United States through which EFTs are offered to a resident of a state. This is the case whether or not a particular transfer takes place in the United States and whether or not the financial institution is chartered in the United States or a foreign country. The regulation does not apply to a foreign branch of a U.S. bank unless the EFT services are offered in connection with an account in a state as defined in § 1005.2(l).
</P>
<HD2>3(b) Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<HD2>3(b)(1) Definition
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fund transfers covered.</I> The term “electronic fund transfer” includes:
</P>
<P>i. A deposit made at an ATM or other electronic terminal (including a deposit in cash or by check) provided a specific agreement exists between the financial institution and the consumer for EFTs to or from the account to which the deposit is made.
</P>
<P>ii. A transfer sent via ACH. For example, social security benefits under the U.S. Treasury's direct-deposit program are covered, even if the listing of payees and payment amounts reaches the account-holding institution by means of a computer printout from a correspondent bank.
</P>
<P>iii. A preauthorized transfer credited or debited to an account in accordance with instructions contained on magnetic tape, even if the financial institution holding the account sends or receives a composite check.
</P>
<P>iv. A transfer from the consumer's account resulting from a debit-card transaction at a merchant location, even if no electronic terminal is involved at the time of the transaction, if the consumer's asset account is subsequently debited for the amount of the transfer.
</P>
<P>v. A transfer via ACH where a consumer has provided a check to enable the merchant or other payee to capture the routing, account, and serial numbers to initiate the transfer, whether the check is blank, partially completed, or fully completed and signed; whether the check is presented at POS or is mailed to a merchant or other payee or lockbox and later converted to an EFT; or whether the check is retained by the consumer, the merchant or other payee, or the payee's financial institution.
</P>
<P>vi. A payment made by a bill payer under a bill-payment service available to a consumer via computer or other electronic means, unless the terms of the bill-payment service explicitly state that all payments, or all payments to a particular payee or payees, will be solely by check, draft, or similar paper instrument drawn on the consumer's account, and the payee or payees that will be paid in this manner are identified to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fund transfers not covered.</I> The term “electronic fund transfer” does not include:
</P>
<P>i. A payment that does not debit or credit a consumer asset account, such as a payroll allotment to a creditor to repay a credit extension (which is deducted from salary).
</P>
<P>ii. A payment made in currency by a consumer to another person at an electronic terminal.
</P>
<P>iii. A preauthorized check drawn by the financial institution on the consumer's account (such as an interest or other recurring payment to the consumer or another party), even if the check is computer-generated.
</P>
<P>iv. Transactions arising from the electronic collection, presentment, or return of checks through the check collection system, such as through transmission of electronic check images.
</P>
<HD2>3(b)(2) Electronic Fund Transfer Using Information From a Check
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice at POS not furnished due to inadvertent error.</I> If the copy of the notice under section 1005.3(b)(2)(ii) for electronic check conversion (ECK) transactions is not provided to the consumer at POS because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal printing mechanism jams, no violation results if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authorization to process a transaction as an EFT or as a check.</I> In order to process a transaction as an EFT, or alternatively as a check, the payee must obtain the consumer's authorization to do so. A payee may, at its option, specify the circumstances under which a check may not be converted to an EFT. <I>See</I> model clauses in appendix A-6.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notice for each transfer.</I> Generally, a notice to authorize an electronic check conversion transaction must be provided for each transaction. For example, a consumer must receive a notice that the transaction will be processed as an EFT for each transaction at POS or each time a consumer mails a check in an accounts receivable (ARC) transaction to pay a bill, such as a utility bill, if the payee intends to convert a check received as payment. Similarly, the consumer must receive notice if the payee intends to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT for each transaction whether at POS or if the consumer mails a check to pay a bill. The notice about when funds may be debited from a consumer's account and the non-return of consumer checks by the consumer's financial institution must also be provided for each transaction. However, if in an ARC transaction, a payee provides a coupon book to a consumer, for example, for mortgage loan payments, and the payment dates and amounts are set out in the coupon book, the payee may provide a single notice on the coupon book stating all of the required disclosures under paragraph (b)(2) of this section in order to obtain authorization for each conversion of a check and any debits via EFT to the consumer's account to collect any service fees imposed by the payee for insufficient or uncollected funds in the consumer's account. The notice must be placed on a conspicuous location of the coupon book that a consumer can retain—for example, on the first page, or inside the front cover.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple payments/multiple consumers.</I> If a merchant or other payee will use information from a consumer's check to initiate an EFT from the consumer's account, notice to a consumer listed on the billing account that a check provided as payment during a single billing cycle or after receiving an invoice or statement will be processed as a one-time EFT or as a check transaction constitutes notice for all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or the invoice for which notice has been provided, whether the check(s) is submitted by the consumer or someone else. The notice applies to all checks provided in payment for the billing cycle or invoice until the provision of notice on or with the next invoice or statement. Thus, if a merchant or other payee receives a check as payment for the consumer listed on the billing account after providing notice that the check will be processed as a one-time EFT, the authorization from that consumer constitutes authorization to convert any other checks provided for that invoice or statement. Other notices required under this paragraph (b)(2) (for example, to collect a service fee for insufficient or uncollected funds via an EFT) provided to the consumer listed on the billing account also constitutes notice to any other consumer who may provide a check for the billing cycle or invoice.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional disclosures about ECK transactions at POS.</I> When a payee initiates an EFT at POS using information from the consumer's check, and returns the check to the consumer at POS, the payee need not provide a notice to the consumer that the check will not be returned by the consumer's financial institution.
</P>
<HD2>3(b)(3) Collection of Returned Item Fees via Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed by account-holding institution.</I> The requirement to obtain a consumer's authorization to collect a fee via EFT for the return of an EFT or check unpaid applies only to the person that intends to initiate an EFT to collect the returned item fee from the consumer's account. The authorization requirement does not apply to any fees assessed by the consumer's account-holding financial institution when it returns the unpaid underlying EFT or check or pays the amount of an overdraft.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Accounts receivable transactions.</I> In an ARC transaction where a consumer sends in a payment for amounts owed (or makes an in-person payment at a biller's physical location, such as when a consumer makes a loan payment at a bank branch or places a payment in a drop box), a person seeking to electronically collect a fee for items returned unpaid must obtain the consumer's authorization to collect the fee in this manner. A consumer authorizes a person to electronically collect a returned item fee when the consumer receives notice, typically on an invoice or statement, that the person may collect the fee through an EFT to the consumer's account, and the consumer goes forward with the underlying transaction by providing payment. The notice must also state the dollar amount of the fee. However, an explanation of how that fee will be determined may be provided in place of the dollar amount of the fee if the fee may vary due to the amount of the transaction or due to other factors, such as the number of days the underlying transaction is left outstanding. For example, if a state law permits a maximum fee of $30 or 10% of the underlying transaction, whichever is greater, the person collecting the fee may explain how the fee is determined, rather than state a specific dollar amount for the fee.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of dollar amount of fee for POS transactions.</I> The notice provided to the consumer in connection with a POS transaction under § 1005.3(b)(3)(ii) must state the amount of the fee for a returned item if the dollar amount of the fee can be calculated at the time the notice is provided or mailed. For example, if notice is provided to the consumer at the time of the transaction, if the applicable state law sets a maximum fee that may be collected for a returned item based on the amount of the underlying transaction (such as where the amount of the fee is expressed as a percentage of the underlying transaction), the person collecting the fee must state the actual dollar amount of the fee on the notice provided to the consumer. Alternatively, if the amount of the fee to be collected cannot be calculated at the time of the transaction (for example, where the amount of the fee will depend on the number of days a debt continues to be owed), the person collecting the fee may provide a description of how the fee will be determined on both the posted notice as well as on the notice provided at the time of the transaction. However, if the person collecting the fee elects to send the consumer notice after the person has initiated an EFT to collect the fee, that notice must state the amount of the fee to be collected.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Third party providing notice.</I> The person initiating an EFT to a consumer's account to electronically collect a fee for an item returned unpaid may obtain the authorization and provide the notices required under § 1005.3(b)(3) through third parties, such as merchants.
</P>
<HD2>3(c) Exclusions From Coverage
</HD2>
<HD2>3(c)(1) Checks
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Re-presented checks.</I> The electronic re-presentment of a returned check is not covered by Regulation E because the transaction originated by check. Regulation E does apply, however, to any fee debited via an EFT from a consumer's account by the payee because the check was returned for insufficient or uncollected funds. The person debiting the fee electronically must obtain the consumer's authorization.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Check used to capture information for a one-time EFT. See</I> comment 3(b)(1)-1.v.
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(2) Check Guarantee or Authorization
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Memo posting.</I> Under a check guarantee or check authorization service, debiting of the consumer's account occurs when the check or draft is presented for payment. These services are exempt from coverage, even when a temporary hold on the account is memo-posted electronically at the time of authorization.
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(3) Wire or Other Similar Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fedwire and ACH.</I> If a financial institution makes a fund transfer to a consumer's account after receiving funds through Fedwire or a similar network, the transfer by ACH is covered by the regulation even though the Fedwire or network transfer is exempt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Article 4A.</I> Financial institutions that offer telephone-initiated Fedwire payments are subject to the requirements of UCC section 4A-202, which encourages verification of Fedwire payment orders pursuant to a security procedure established by agreement between the consumer and the receiving bank. These transfers are not subject to Regulation E and the agreement is not considered a telephone plan if the service is offered separately from a telephone bill-payment or other prearranged plan subject to Regulation E. Regulation J of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 210) specifies the rules applicable to funds handled by Federal Reserve Banks. To ensure that the rules for all fund transfers through Fedwire are consistent, the Board of Governors used its preemptive authority under UCC section 4A-107 to determine that subpart B of the Board's Regulation J, including the provisions of Article 4A, applies to all fund transfers through Fedwire, even if a portion of the fund transfer is governed by the EFTA. The portion of the fund transfer that is governed by the EFTA is not governed by subpart B of the Board's Regulation J.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Similar fund transfer systems.</I> Fund transfer systems that are similar to Fedwire include the Clearing House Interbank Payments System (CHIPS), Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT), Telex, and transfers made on the books of correspondent banks.
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(4) Securities and Commodities Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The securities exemption applies to securities and commodities that may be sold by a registered broker-dealer or futures commission merchant, even when the security or commodity itself is not regulated by the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example of exempt transfer.</I> The exemption applies to a transfer involving a transfer initiated by a telephone order to a stockbroker to buy or sell securities or to exercise a margin call.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of nonexempt transfers.</I> The exemption does not apply to a transfer involving:
</P>
<P>i. A debit card or other access device that accesses a securities or commodities account such as a money market mutual fund and that the consumer uses for purchasing goods or services or for obtaining cash.
</P>
<P>ii. A payment of interest or dividends into the consumer's account (for example, from a brokerage firm or from a Federal Reserve Bank for government securities).
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(5) Automatic Transfers by Account-Holding Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Automatic transfers exempted.</I> The exemption applies to:
</P>
<P>i. Electronic debits or credits to consumer accounts for check charges, stop-payment charges, non-sufficient funds (NSF) charges, overdraft charges, provisional credits, error adjustments, and similar items that are initiated automatically on the occurrence of certain events.
</P>
<P>ii. Debits to consumer accounts for group insurance available only through the financial institution and payable only by means of an aggregate payment from the institution to the insurer.
</P>
<P>iii. EFTs between a thrift institution and its paired commercial bank in the state of Rhode Island, which are deemed under state law to be intra-institutional.
</P>
<P>iv. Automatic transfers between a consumer's accounts within the same financial institution, even if the account holders on the two accounts are not identical.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automatic transfers not exempted.</I> Transfers between accounts of the consumer at affiliated institutions (such as between a bank and its subsidiary or within a holding company) are not intra-institutional transfers, and thus do not qualify for the exemption.
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(6) Telephone-Initiated Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Written plan or agreement.</I> A transfer that the consumer initiates by telephone is covered by Regulation E if the transfer is made under a written plan or agreement between the consumer and the financial institution making the transfer. A written statement available to the public or to account holders that describes a service allowing a consumer to initiate transfers by telephone constitutes a plan; for example, a brochure, or material included with periodic statements. The following, however, do not by themselves constitute a written plan or agreement:
</P>
<P>i. A hold-harmless agreement on a signature card that protects the institution if the consumer requests a transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. A legend on a signature card, periodic statement, or passbook that limits the number of telephone-initiated transfers the consumer can make from a savings account because of reserve requirements under Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204).
</P>
<P>iii. An agreement permitting the consumer to approve by telephone the rollover of funds at the maturity of an instrument.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of covered transfers.</I> When a written plan or agreement has been entered into, a transfer initiated by a telephone call from a consumer is covered even though:
</P>
<P>i. An employee of the financial institution completes the transfer manually (for example, by means of a debit memo or deposit slip).
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer is required to make a separate request for each transfer.
</P>
<P>iii. The consumer uses the plan infrequently.
</P>
<P>iv. The consumer initiates the transfer via a facsimile machine.
</P>
<P>v. The consumer initiates the transfer using a financial institution's audio-response or voice-response telephone system.
</P>
<HD2>3(c)(7) Small Institutions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption is limited to preauthorized transfers; institutions that offer other EFTs must comply with the applicable sections of the regulation as to such services. The preauthorized transfers remain subject to sections 913, 916, and 917 of the Act and § 1005.10(e), and are therefore exempt from UCC Article 4A.
</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.4 General Disclosure Requirements; Jointly Offered Services
</HD1>
<HD2>4(a) Form of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The disclosures required by this part must be in a clear and readily understandable written form that the consumer may retain. Additionally, except as otherwise set forth in §§ 1005.18(b)(7) and 1005.31(c), no particular rules govern type size, number of pages, or the relative conspicuousness of various terms. Numbers or codes are considered readily understandable if explained elsewhere on the disclosure form.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided they are available in English upon request.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.5 Issuance of Access Devices
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The provisions of this section limit the circumstances under which a financial institution may issue an access device to a consumer. Making an additional account accessible through an existing access device is equivalent to issuing an access device and is subject to the limitations of this section.
</P>
<HD2>5(a) Solicited Issuance
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 5(a)(1)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Joint account.</I> For a joint account, a financial institution may issue an access device to each account holder if the requesting holder specifically authorizes the issuance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible forms of request.</I> The request for an access device may be written or oral (for example, in response to a telephone solicitation by a card issuer).
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 5(a)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>One-for-one rule.</I> In issuing a renewal or substitute access device, only one renewal or substitute device may replace a previously issued device. For example, only one new card and PIN may replace a card and PIN previously issued. A financial institution may provide additional devices at the time it issues the renewal or substitute access device, however, provided the institution complies with § 1005.5(b). <I>See</I> comment 5(b)-5. If the replacement device or the additional device permits either fewer or additional types of electronic fund transfer services, a change-in-terms notice or new disclosures are required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewal or substitution by a successor institution.</I> A successor institution is an entity that replaces the original financial institution (for example, following a corporate merger or acquisition) or that acquires accounts or assumes the operation of an EFT system.
</P>
<HD2>5(b) Unsolicited Issuance
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Compliance.</I> A financial institution may issue an unsolicited access device (such as the combination of a debit card and PIN) if the institution's ATM system has been programmed not to accept the access device until after the consumer requests and the institution validates the device. Merely instructing a consumer not to use an unsolicited debit card and PIN until after the institution verifies the consumer's identity does not comply with the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>PINs.</I> A financial institution may impose no liability on a consumer for unauthorized transfers involving an unsolicited access device until the device becomes an “accepted access device” under the regulation. A card and PIN combination may be treated as an accepted access device once the consumer has used it to make a transfer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Functions of PIN.</I> If an institution issues a PIN at the consumer's request, the issuance may constitute both a way of validating the debit card and the means to identify the consumer (required as a condition of imposing liability for unauthorized transfers).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Verification of identity.</I> To verify the consumer's identity, a financial institution may use any reasonable means, such as a photograph, fingerprint, personal visit, signature comparison, or personal information about the consumer. However, even if reasonable means were used, if an institution fails to verify correctly the consumer's identity and an imposter succeeds in having the device validated, the consumer is not liable for any unauthorized transfers from the account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional access devices in a renewal or substitution.</I> A financial institution may issue more than one access device in connection with the renewal or substitution of a previously issued accepted access device, provided that any additional access device (beyond the device replacing the accepted access device) is not validated at the time it is issued, and the institution complies with the other requirements of § 1005.5(b). The institution may, if it chooses, set up the validation procedure such that both the device replacing the previously issued device and the additional device are not validated at the time they are issued, and validation will apply to both devices. If the institution sets up the validation procedure in this way, the institution should provide a clear and readily understandable disclosure to the consumer that both devices are unvalidated and that validation will apply to both devices.
</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.6 Liability of Consumer for Unauthorized Transfers
</HD1>
<HD2>6(a) Conditions for Liability
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Means of identification.</I> A financial institution may use various means for identifying the consumer to whom the access device is issued, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Electronic or mechanical confirmation (such as a PIN).
</P>
<P>ii. Comparison of the consumer's signature, fingerprint, or photograph.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple users.</I> When more than one access device is issued for an account, the financial institution may, but need not, provide a separate means to identify each user of the account.
</P>
<HD2>6(b) Limitations on Amount of Liability
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of liability provisions.</I> There are three possible tiers of consumer liability for unauthorized EFTs depending on the situation. A consumer may be liable for: (1) up to $50; (2) up to $500; or (3) an unlimited amount depending on when the unauthorized EFT occurs. More than one tier may apply to a given situation because each corresponds to a different (sometimes overlapping) time period or set of conditions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer negligence.</I> Negligence by the consumer cannot be used as the basis for imposing greater liability than is permissible under Regulation E. Thus, consumer behavior that may constitute negligence under state law, such as writing the PIN on a debit card or on a piece of paper kept with the card, does not affect the consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers. (However, refer to comment 2(m)-2 regarding termination of the authority of given by the consumer to another person.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limits on liability.</I> The extent of the consumer's liability is determined solely by the consumer's promptness in reporting the loss or theft of an access device. Similarly, no agreement between the consumer and an institution may impose greater liability on the consumer for an unauthorized transfer than the limits provided in Regulation E.
</P>
<HD2>6(b)(1) Timely Notice Given
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>$50 limit applies.</I> The basic liability limit is $50. For example, the consumer's card is lost or stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the loss or theft on Wednesday. If the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft (by midnight Friday), the consumer's liability is limited to $50 or the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurred before notification, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Knowledge of loss or theft of access device.</I> The fact that a consumer has received a periodic statement that reflects unauthorized transfers may be a factor in determining whether the consumer had knowledge of the loss or theft, but cannot be deemed to represent conclusive evidence that the consumer had such knowledge.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Two business day rule.</I> The two business day period does not include the day the consumer learns of the loss or theft or any day that is not a business day. The rule is calculated based on two 24-hour periods, without regard to the financial institution's business hours or the time of day that the consumer learns of the loss or theft. For example, a consumer learns of the loss or theft at 6 p.m. on Friday. Assuming that Saturday is a business day and Sunday is not, the two business day period begins on Saturday and expires at 11:59 p.m. on Monday, not at the end of the financial institution's business day on Monday.
</P>
<HD2>6(b)(2) Timely Notice Not Given
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>$500 limit applies.</I> The second tier of liability is $500. For example, the consumer's card is stolen on Monday and the consumer learns of the theft that same day. The consumer reports the theft on Friday. The $500 limit applies because the consumer failed to notify the financial institution within two business days of learning of the theft (which would have been by midnight Wednesday). How much the consumer is actually liable for, however, depends on when the unauthorized transfers take place. In this example, assume a $100 unauthorized transfer was made on Tuesday and a $600 unauthorized transfer on Thursday. Because the consumer is liable for the amount of the loss that occurs within the first two business days (but no more than $50), plus the amount of the unauthorized transfers that occurs after the first two business days and before the consumer gives notice, the consumer's total liability is $500 ($50 of the $100 transfer plus $450 of the $600 transfer, in this example). But if $600 was taken on Tuesday and $100 on Thursday, the consumer's maximum liability would be $150 ($50 of the $600 plus $100).
</P>
<HD2>6(b)(3) Periodic Statement; Timely Notice Not Given
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Unlimited liability applies.</I> The standard of unlimited liability applies if unauthorized transfers appear on a periodic statement, and may apply in conjunction with the first two tiers of liability. If a periodic statement shows an unauthorized transfer made with a lost or stolen debit card, the consumer must notify the financial institution within 60 calendar days after the periodic statement was sent; otherwise, the consumer faces unlimited liability for all unauthorized transfers made after the 60-day period. The consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers before the statement is sent, and up to 60 days following, is determined based on the first two tiers of liability: up to $50 if the consumer notifies the financial institution within two business days of learning of the loss or theft of the card and up to $500 if the consumer notifies the institution after two business days of learning of the loss or theft.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfers not involving access device.</I> The first two tiers of liability do not apply to unauthorized transfers from a consumer's account made without an access device. If, however, the consumer fails to report such unauthorized transfers within 60 calendar days of the financial institution's transmittal of the periodic statement, the consumer may be liable for any transfers occurring after the close of the 60 days and before notice is given to the institution. For example, a consumer's account is electronically debited for $200 without the consumer's authorization and by means other than the consumer's access device. If the consumer notifies the institution within 60 days of the transmittal of the periodic statement that shows the unauthorized transfer, the consumer has no liability. However, if in addition to the $200, the consumer's account is debited for a $400 unauthorized transfer on the 61st day and the consumer fails to notify the institution of the first unauthorized transfer until the 62nd day, the consumer may be liable for the full $400.
</P>
<HD2>6(b)(4) Extension of Time Limits
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Extenuating circumstances.</I> Examples of circumstances that require extension of the notification periods under this section include the consumer's extended travel or hospitalization.
</P>
<HD2>6(b)(5) Notice to Financial Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of notice.</I> A financial institution is considered to have received notice for purposes of limiting the consumer's liability if notice is given in a reasonable manner, even if the consumer notifies the institution but uses an address or telephone number other than the one specified by the institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice by third party.</I> Notice to a financial institution by a person acting on the consumer's behalf is considered valid under this section. For example, if a consumer is hospitalized and unable to report the loss or theft of an access device, notice is considered given when someone acting on the consumer's behalf notifies the bank of the loss or theft. A financial institution may require appropriate documentation from the person representing the consumer to establish that the person is acting on the consumer's behalf.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content of notice.</I> Notice to a financial institution is considered given when a consumer takes reasonable steps to provide the institution with the pertinent account information. Even when the consumer is unable to provide the account number or the card number in reporting a lost or stolen access device or an unauthorized transfer, the notice effectively limits the consumer's liability if the consumer otherwise identifies sufficiently the account in question. For example, the consumer may identify the account by the name on the account and the type of account in question.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.7 Initial Disclosures
</HD1>
<HD2>7(a) Timing of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Early disclosures.</I> Disclosures given by a financial institution earlier than the regulation requires (for example, when the consumer opens a checking account) need not be repeated when the consumer later enters into an agreement with a third party to initiate preauthorized transfers to or from the consumer's account, unless the terms and conditions differ from those that the institution previously disclosed. This interpretation also applies to any notice provided about one-time EFTs from a consumer's account initiated using information from the consumer's check. On the other hand, if an agreement for EFT services to be provided by an account-holding institution is directly between the consumer and the account-holding institution, disclosures must be given in close proximity to the event requiring disclosure, for example, when the consumer contracts for a new service.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lack of advance notice of a transfer.</I> Where a consumer authorizes a third party to debit or credit the consumer's account, an account-holding institution that has not received advance notice of the transfer or transfers must provide the required disclosures as soon as reasonably possible after the first debit or credit is made, unless the institution has previously given the disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Addition of new accounts.</I> If a consumer opens a new account permitting EFTs at a financial institution, and the consumer already has received Regulation E disclosures for another account at that institution, the institution need only disclose terms and conditions that differ from those previously given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Addition of service in interchange systems.</I> If a financial institution joins an interchange or shared network system (which provides access to terminals operated by other institutions), disclosures are required for additional EFT services not previously available to consumers if the terms and conditions differ from those previously disclosed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Disclosures covering all EFT services offered.</I> An institution may provide disclosures covering all EFT services that it offers, even if some consumers have not arranged to use all services.
</P>
<HD2>7(b) Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>7(b)(1) Liability of Consumer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>No liability imposed by financial institution.</I> If a financial institution chooses to impose zero liability for unauthorized EFTs, it need not provide the liability disclosures. If the institution later decides to impose liability, however, it must first provide the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preauthorized transfers.</I> If the only EFTs from an account are preauthorized transfers, liability could arise if the consumer fails to report unauthorized transfers reflected on a periodic statement. To impose such liability on the consumer, the institution must have disclosed the potential liability and the telephone number and address for reporting unauthorized transfers.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional information.</I> At the institution's option, the summary of the consumer's liability may include advice on promptly reporting unauthorized transfers or the loss or theft of the access device.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(2) Telephone Number and Address
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of telephone numbers.</I> An institution may use the same or different telephone numbers in the disclosures for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>i. Reporting the loss or theft of an access device or possible unauthorized transfers;
</P>
<P>ii. Inquiring about the receipt of a preauthorized credit;
</P>
<P>iii. Stopping payment of a preauthorized debit;
</P>
<P>iv. Giving notice of an error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Location of telephone number.</I> The telephone number need not be incorporated into the text of the disclosure; for example, the institution may instead insert a reference to a telephone number that is readily available to the consumer, such as “Call your branch office. The number is shown on your periodic statement.” However, an institution must provide a specific telephone number and address, on or with the disclosure statement, for reporting a lost or stolen access device or a possible unauthorized transfer.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(4) Types of Transfers; Limitations
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Security limitations.</I> Information about limitations on the frequency and dollar amount of transfers generally must be disclosed in detail, even if related to security aspects of the system. If the confidentiality of certain details is essential to the security of an account or system, these details may be withheld (but the fact that limitations exist must still be disclosed). For example, an institution limits cash ATM withdrawals to $100 per day. The institution may disclose that daily withdrawal limitations apply and need not disclose that the limitations may not always be in force (such as during periods when its ATMs are off-line).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Restrictions on certain deposit accounts.</I> A limitation on account activity that restricts the consumer's ability to make EFTs must be disclosed even if the restriction also applies to transfers made by non-electronic means. For example, Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204) restricts the number of payments to third parties that may be made from a money market deposit account; an institution that does not execute fund transfers in excess of those limits must disclose the restriction as a limitation on the frequency of EFTs.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Preauthorized transfers.</I> Financial institutions are not required to list preauthorized transfers among the types of transfers that a consumer can make.
</P>
<P>4. <I>One-time EFTs initiated using information from a check.</I> Financial institutions must disclose the fact that one-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer's check are among the types of transfers that a consumer can make. <I>See</I> appendix A-2.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(5) Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of EFT fees.</I> An institution is required to disclose all fees for EFTs or the right to make them. Others fees (for example, minimum-balance fees, stop-payment fees, or account overdrafts) may, but need not, be disclosed. <I>But see</I> Regulation DD, 12 CFR part 1030. An institution is not required to disclose fees for inquiries made at an ATM since no transfer of funds is involved.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees also applicable to non-EFT.</I> A per-item fee for EFTs must be disclosed even if the same fee is imposed on non-electronic transfers. If a per-item fee is imposed only under certain conditions, such as when the transactions in the cycle exceed a certain number, those conditions must be disclosed. Itemization of the various fees may be provided on the disclosure statement or on an accompanying document that is referenced in the statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interchange system fees.</I> Fees paid by the account-holding institution to the operator of a shared or interchange ATM system need not be disclosed, unless they are imposed on the consumer by the account-holding institution. Fees for use of an ATM that are debited directly from the consumer's account by an institution other than the account-holding institution (for example, fees included in the transfer amount) need not be disclosed. <I>See</I> § 1005.7(b)(11) for the general notice requirement regarding fees that may be imposed by ATM operators and by a network used to complete the transfer.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(9) Confidentiality
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Information provided to third parties.</I> An institution must describe the circumstances under which any information relating to an account to or from which EFTs are permitted will be made available to third parties, not just information concerning those EFTs. The term “third parties” includes affiliates such as other subsidiaries of the same holding company.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(10) Error Resolution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Substantially similar.</I> The error resolution notice must be substantially similar to the model form in appendix A of part 1005. An institution may use different wording so long as the substance of the notice remains the same, may delete inapplicable provisions (for example, the requirement for written confirmation of an oral notification), and may substitute substantive state law requirements affording greater consumer protection than Regulation E.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extended time-period for certain transactions.</I> To take advantage of the longer time periods for resolving errors under § 1005.11(c)(3) (for new accounts as defined in Regulation CC of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 229), transfers initiated outside the United States, or transfers resulting from POS debit-card transactions), a financial institution must have disclosed these longer time periods. Similarly, an institution that relies on the exception from provisional crediting in § 1005.11(c)(2) for accounts subject to Regulation T of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 220) must have disclosed accordingly.
</P>
<HD2>7(c) Addition of Electronic Fund Transfer Services
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Addition of electronic check conversion services.</I> One-time EFTs initiated using information from a consumer's check are a new type of transfer requiring new disclosures, as applicable. <I>See</I> appendix A-2.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.8 Change-in-Terms Notice; Error Resolution Notice
</HD1>
<HD2>8(a) Change-in-Terms Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of notice.</I> No specific form or wording is required for a change-in-terms notice. The notice may appear on a periodic statement, or may be given by sending a copy of a revised disclosure statement, provided attention is directed to the change (for example, in a cover letter referencing the changed term).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following changes do not require disclosure:
</P>
<P>i. Closing some of an institution's ATMs;
</P>
<P>ii. Cancellation of an access device.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limitations on transfers.</I> When the initial disclosures omit details about limitations because secrecy is essential to the security of the account or system, a subsequent increase in those limitations need not be disclosed if secrecy is still essential. If, however, an institution had no limits in place when the initial disclosures were given and now wishes to impose limits for the first time, it must disclose at least the fact that limits have been adopted. <I>See also</I> § 1005.7(b)(4) and the related commentary.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Change in telephone number or address.</I> When a financial institution changes the telephone number or address used for reporting possible unauthorized transfers, a change-in-terms notice is required only if the institution will impose liability on the consumer for unauthorized transfers under § 1005.6. <I>See also</I> § 1005.6(a) and the related commentary.
</P>
<HD2>8(b) Error Resolution Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Change between annual and periodic notice.</I> If an institution switches from an annual to a periodic notice, or vice versa, the first notice under the new method must be sent no later than 12 months after the last notice sent under the old method.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception for new accounts.</I> For new accounts, disclosure of the longer error resolution time periods under § 1005.11(c)(3) is not required in the annual error resolution notice or in the notice that may be provided with each periodic statement as an alternative to the annual notice.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.9 Receipts at Electronic Terminals; Periodic Statements
</HD1>
<HD2>9(a) Receipts at Electronic Terminals
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Receipts furnished only on request.</I> The regulation requires that a receipt be “made available.” A financial institution may program its electronic terminals to provide a receipt only to consumers who elect to receive one.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Third party providing receipt.</I> An account-holding institution may make terminal receipts available through third parties such as merchants or other financial institutions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Inclusion of promotional material.</I> A financial institution may include promotional material on receipts if the required information is set forth clearly (for example, by separating it from the promotional material). In addition, a consumer may not be required to surrender the receipt or that portion containing the required disclosures in order to take advantage of a promotion.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transfer not completed.</I> The receipt requirement does not apply to a transfer that is initiated but not completed (for example, if the ATM is out of currency or the consumer decides not to complete the transfer).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Receipts not furnished due to inadvertent error.</I> If a receipt is not provided to the consumer because of a bona fide unintentional error, such as when a terminal runs out of paper or the mechanism jams, no violation results if the financial institution maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid such occurrences.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple transfers.</I> If the consumer makes multiple transfers at the same time, the financial institution may document them on a single or on separate receipts.
</P>
<HD2>9(a)(1) Amount
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of transaction fee.</I> The required display of a fee amount on or at the terminal may be accomplished by displaying the fee on a sign at the terminal or on the terminal screen for a reasonable duration. Displaying the fee on a screen provides adequate notice, as long as a consumer is given the option to cancel the transaction after receiving notice of a fee. <I>See</I> § 1005.16 for the notice requirements applicable to ATM operators that impose a fee for providing EFT services.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship between § 1005.9(a)(1) and § 1005.16.</I> The requirements of §§ 1005.9(a)(1) and 1005.16 are similar but not identical.
</P>
<P>i. Section 1005.9(a)(1) requires that if the amount of the transfer as shown on the receipt will include the fee, then the fee must be disclosed either on a sign on or at the terminal, or on the terminal screen. Section 1005.16 requires disclosure both on a sign on or at the terminal (in a prominent and conspicuous location) and on the terminal screen. Section 1005.16 permits disclosure on a paper notice as an alternative to the on-screen disclosure.
</P>
<P>ii. The disclosure of the fee on the receipt under § 1005.9(a)(1) cannot be used to comply with the alternative paper disclosure procedure under § 1005.16, if the receipt is provided at the completion of the transaction because, pursuant to the statute, the paper notice must be provided before the consumer is committed to paying the fee.
</P>
<P>iii. Section 1005.9(a)(1) applies to any type of electronic terminal as defined in Regulation E (for example, to POS terminals as well as to ATMs), while § 1005.16 applies only to ATMs.
</P>
<HD2>9(a)(2) Date
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Calendar date.</I> The receipt must disclose the calendar date on which the consumer uses the electronic terminal. An accounting or business date may be disclosed in addition if the dates are clearly distinguished.
</P>
<HD2>9(a)(3) Type
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Identifying transfer and account.</I> Examples identifying the type of transfer and the type of the consumer's account include “withdrawal from checking,” “transfer from savings to checking,” or “payment from savings.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception.</I> Identification of an account is not required when the consumer can access only one asset account at a particular time or terminal, even if the access device can normally be used to access more than one account. For example, the consumer may be able to access only one particular account at terminals not operated by the account-holding institution, or may be able to access only one particular account when the terminal is off-line. The exception is available even if, in addition to accessing one asset account, the consumer also can access a credit line.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Access to multiple accounts.</I> If the consumer can use an access device to make transfers to or from different accounts of the same type, the terminal receipt must specify which account was accessed, such as “withdrawal from checking I” or “withdrawal from checking II.” If only one account besides the primary checking account can be debited, the receipt can identify the account as “withdrawal from other account.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Generic descriptions.</I> Generic descriptions may be used for accounts that are similar in function, such as share draft or NOW accounts and checking accounts. In a shared system, for example, when a credit union member initiates transfers to or from a share draft account at a terminal owned or operated by a bank, the receipt may identify a withdrawal from the account as a “withdrawal from checking.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Point-of-sale transactions.</I> There is no prescribed terminology for identifying a transfer at a merchant's POS terminal. A transfer may be identified, for example, as a purchase, a sale of goods or services, or a payment to a third party. When a consumer obtains cash from a POS terminal in addition to purchasing goods, or obtains cash only, the documentation need not differentiate the transaction from one involving the purchase of goods.
</P>
<HD2>9(a)(5) Terminal Location
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Options for identifying terminal.</I> The institution may provide either:
</P>
<P>i. The city, state or foreign country, and the information in § 1005.9(a)(5) (i), (ii), or (iii), or
</P>
<P>ii. A number or a code identifying the terminal. If the institution chooses the second option, the code or terminal number identifying the terminal where the transfer is initiated may be given as part of a transaction code.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Omission of city name.</I> The city may be omitted if the generally accepted name (such as a branch name) contains the city name.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Omission of a state.</I> A state may be omitted from the location information on the receipt if:
</P>
<P>i. All the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in that state, or
</P>
<P>ii. All transfers occur at terminals located within 50 miles of the financial institution's main office.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Omission of a city and state.</I> A city and state may be omitted if all the terminals owned or operated by the financial institution providing the statement (or by the system in which it participates) are located in the same city.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Street address.</I> The address should include number and street (or intersection); the number (or intersecting street) may be omitted if the street alone uniquely identifies the terminal location.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(ii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Generally accepted name.</I> Examples of a generally accepted name for a specific location include a branch of the financial institution, a shopping center, or an airport.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(a)(5)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Name of owner or operator of terminal.</I> Examples of an owner or operator of a terminal are a financial institution or a retail merchant.
</P>
<HD2>9(a)(6) Third Party Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Omission of third-party name.</I> The receipt need not disclose the third-party name if the name is provided by the consumer in a form that is not machine readable (for example, if the consumer indicates the payee by depositing a payment stub into the ATM). If, on the other hand, the consumer keys in the identity of the payee, the receipt must identify the payee by name or by using a code that is explained elsewhere on the receipt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Receipt as proof of payment.</I> Documentation required under the regulation constitutes prima facie proof of a payment to another person, except in the case of a terminal receipt documenting a deposit.
</P>
<HD2>9(b) Periodic Statements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic cycles.</I> Periodic statements may be sent on a cycle that is shorter than monthly. The statements must correspond to periodic cycles that are reasonably equal, that is, do not vary by more than four days from the regular cycle. The requirement of reasonably equal cycles does not apply when an institution changes cycles for operational or other reasons, such as to establish a new statement day or date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interim statements.</I> Generally, a financial institution must provide periodic statements for each monthly cycle in which an EFT occurs, and at least quarterly if a transfer has not occurred. Where EFTs occur between regularly-scheduled cycles, interim statements must be provided. For example, if an institution issues quarterly statements at the end of March, June, September and December, and the consumer initiates an EFT in February, an interim statement for February must be provided. If an interim statement contains interest or rate information, the institution must comply with Regulation DD, 12 CFR 1030.6.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Inactive accounts.</I> A financial institution need not send statements to consumers whose accounts are inactive as defined by the institution.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statement pickup.</I> A financial institution may permit, but may not require, consumers to pick up their periodic statements at the financial institution.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic statements limited to EFT activity.</I> A financial institution that uses a passbook as the primary means for displaying account activity, but also allows the account to be debited electronically, may provide a periodic statement requirement that reflects only the EFTs and other required disclosures (such as charges, account balances, and address and telephone number for inquiries). <I>See</I> § 1005.9(c)(1)(i) for the exception applicable to preauthorized transfers for passbook accounts.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Codes and accompanying documents.</I> To meet the documentation requirements for periodic statements, a financial institution may:
</P>
<P>i. Include copies of terminal receipts to reflect transfers initiated by the consumer at electronic terminals;
</P>
<P>ii. Enclose posting memos, deposit slips, and other documents that, together with the statement, disclose all the required information;
</P>
<P>iii. Use codes for names of third parties or terminal locations and explain the information to which the codes relate on an accompanying document.
</P>
<HD2>9(b)(1) Transaction Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Information obtained from others.</I> While financial institutions must maintain reasonable procedures to ensure the integrity of data obtained from another institution, a merchant, or other third parties, verification of each transfer that appears on the periodic statement is not required.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Incorrect deposit amount.</I> If a financial institution determines that the amount actually deposited at an ATM is different from the amount entered by the consumer, the institution need not immediately notify the consumer of the discrepancy. The periodic statement reflecting the deposit may show either the correct amount of the deposit or the amount entered by the consumer along with the institution's adjustment.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Type of transfer.</I> There is no prescribed terminology for describing a type of transfer. Placement of the amount of the transfer in the debit or the credit column is sufficient if other information on the statement, such as a terminal location or third-party name, enables the consumer to identify the type of transfer.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(iv)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Nonproprietary terminal in network.</I> An institution need not reflect on the periodic statement the street addresses, identification codes, or terminal numbers for transfers initiated in a shared or interchange system at a terminal operated by an institution other than the account-holding institution. The statement must, however, specify the entity that owns or operates the terminal, plus the city and state.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 9(b)(1)(v)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Recurring payments by government agency.</I> The third-party name for recurring payments from Federal, state, or local governments need not list the particular agency. For example, “U.S. gov't” or “N.Y. sal” will suffice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer as third-party payee.</I> If a consumer makes an electronic fund transfer to another consumer, the financial institution must identify the recipient by name (not just by an account number, for example).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminal location/third party.</I> A single entry may be used to identify both the terminal location and the name of the third party to or from whom funds are transferred. For example, if a consumer purchases goods from a merchant, the name of the party to whom funds are transferred (the merchant) and the location of the terminal where the transfer is initiated will be satisfied by a disclosure such as “XYZ Store, Anytown, Ohio.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Account-holding institution as third party.</I> Transfers to the account-holding institution (by ATM, for example) must show the institution as the recipient, unless other information on the statement (such as, “loan payment from checking”) clearly indicates that the payment was to the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consistency in third-party identity.</I> The periodic statement must disclose a third-party name as it appeared on the receipt, whether it was, for example, the “dba” (doing business as) name of the third party or the parent corporation's name.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Third-party identity on deposits at electronic terminal.</I> A financial institution need not identify third parties whose names appear on checks, drafts, or similar paper instruments deposited to the consumer's account at an electronic terminal.
</P>
<HD2>9(b)(3) Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of fees.</I> The fees disclosed may include fees for EFTs and for other non-electronic services, and both fixed fees and per-item fees; they may be given as a total or may be itemized in part or in full.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees in interchange system.</I> An account-holding institution must disclose any fees it imposes on the consumer for EFTs, including fees for ATM transactions in an interchange or shared ATM system. Fees for use of an ATM imposed on the consumer by an institution other than the account-holding institution and included in the amount of the transfer by the terminal-operating institution need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Finance charges.</I> The requirement to disclose any fees assessed against the account does not include a finance charge imposed on the account during the statement period.
</P>
<HD2>9(b)(4) Account Balances
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Opening and closing balances.</I> The opening and closing balances must reflect both EFTs and other account activity.
</P>
<HD2>9(b)(5) Address and Telephone Number for Inquiries
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Telephone number.</I> A single telephone number, preceded by the “direct inquiries to” language, will satisfy the requirements of §§ 1005.9(b)(5) and (6).
</P>
<HD2>9(b)(6) Telephone Number for Preauthorized Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Telephone number. See</I> comment 9(b)(5)-1.
</P>
<HD2>9(c) Exceptions to the Periodic Statement Requirements for Certain Accounts
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transfers between accounts.</I> The regulation provides an exception from the periodic statement requirement for certain intra-institutional transfers between a consumer's accounts. The financial institution must still comply with the applicable periodic statement requirements for any other EFTs to or from the account. For example, a Regulation E statement must be provided quarterly for an account that also receives payroll deposits electronically, or for any month in which an account is also accessed by a withdrawal at an ATM.
</P>
<HD2>9(c)(1) Preauthorized Transfers to Accounts
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account.</I> The exception for “accounts that may be accessed only by preauthorized transfers to the account” includes accounts that can be accessed by means other than EFTs, such as checks. If, however, an account may be accessed by any EFT other than preauthorized credits to the account, such as preauthorized debits or ATM transactions, the account does not qualify for the exception.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reversal of direct deposits.</I> For direct-deposit-only accounts, a financial institution must send a periodic statement at least quarterly. A reversal of a direct deposit to correct an error does not trigger the monthly statement requirement when the error represented a credit to the wrong consumer's account, a duplicate credit, or a credit in the wrong amount. <I>See also</I> comment 2(m)-5.
</P>
<HD2>9(d) Documentation for Foreign-Initiated Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Foreign-initiated transfers.</I> An institution must make a good faith effort to provide all required information for foreign-initiated transfers. For example, even if the institution is not able to provide a specific terminal location, it should identify the country and city in which the transfer was initiated.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.10 Preauthorized Transfers
</HD1>
<HD2>10(a) Preauthorized Transfers to Consumer's Account
</HD2>
<HD2>10(a)(1) Notice by Financial Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> No specific language is required for notice regarding receipt of a preauthorized transfer. Identifying the deposit is sufficient; however, simply providing the current account balance is not.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice of credit.</I> A financial institution may use different methods of notice for various types or series of preauthorized transfers, and the institution need not offer consumers a choice of notice methods.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Positive notice.</I> A periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer, showing the transfer, can serve as notice of receipt.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Negative notice.</I> The absence of a deposit entry (on a periodic statement sent within two business days of the scheduled transfer date) will serve as negative notice.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Telephone notice.</I> If a financial institution uses the telephone notice option, the institution should be able in most instances to verify during a consumer's initial call whether a transfer was received. The institution must respond within two business days to any inquiry not answered immediately.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Phone number for passbook accounts.</I> The financial institution may use any reasonable means necessary to provide the telephone number to consumers with passbook accounts that can only be accessed by preauthorized credits and that do not receive periodic statements. For example, it may print the telephone number in the passbook, or include the number with the annual error resolution notice.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Telephone line availability.</I> To satisfy the readily-available standard, the financial institution must provide enough telephone lines so that consumers get a reasonably prompt response. The institution need only provide telephone service during normal business hours. Within its primary service area, an institution must provide a local or toll-free telephone number. It need not provide a toll-free number or accept collect long-distance calls from outside the area where it normally conducts business.
</P>
<HD2>10(b) Written Authorization for Preauthorized Transfers From Consumer's Account
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preexisting authorizations.</I> The financial institution need not require a new authorization before changing from paper-based to electronic debiting when the existing authorization does not specify that debiting is to occur electronically or specifies that the debiting will occur by paper means. A new authorization also is not required when a successor institution begins collecting payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Authorization obtained by third party.</I> The account-holding financial institution does not violate the regulation when a third-party payee fails to obtain the authorization in writing or fails to give a copy to the consumer; rather, it is the third-party payee that is in violation of the regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written authorization for preauthorized transfers.</I> The requirement that preauthorized EFTs be authorized by the consumer “only by a writing” cannot be met by a payee's signing a written authorization on the consumer's behalf with only an oral authorization from the consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Use of a confirmation form.</I> A financial institution or designated payee may comply with the requirements of this section in various ways. For example, a payee may provide the consumer with two copies of a preauthorization form, and ask the consumer to sign and return one and to retain the second copy.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Similarly authenticated.</I> The similarly authenticated standard permits signed, written authorizations to be provided electronically. The writing and signature requirements of this section are satisfied by complying with the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.,</I> which defines electronic records and electronic signatures. Examples of electronic signatures include, but are not limited to, digital signatures and security codes. A security code need not originate with the account-holding institution. The authorization process should evidence the consumer's identity and assent to the authorization. The person that obtains the authorization must provide a copy of the terms of the authorization to the consumer either electronically or in paper form. Only the consumer may authorize the transfer and not, for example, a third-party merchant on behalf of the consumer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Requirements of an authorization.</I> An authorization is valid if it is readily identifiable as such and the terms of the preauthorized transfer are clear and readily understandable.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Bona fide error.</I> Consumers sometimes authorize third-party payees, by telephone or online, to submit recurring charges against a credit card account. If the consumer indicates use of a credit card account when in fact a debit card is being used, the payee does not violate the requirement to obtain a written authorization if the failure to obtain written authorization was not intentional and resulted from a bona fide error, and if the payee maintains procedures reasonably adapted to avoid any such error. Procedures reasonably adapted to avoid error will depend upon the circumstances. Generally, requesting the consumer to specify whether the card to be used for the authorization is a debit (or check) card or a credit card is a reasonable procedure. Where the consumer has indicated that the card is a credit card (or that the card is not a debit or check card), the payee may rely on the consumer's statement without seeking further information about the type of card. If the payee believes, at the time of the authorization, that a credit card is involved, and later finds that the card used is a debit card (for example, because the consumer later brings the matter to the payee's attention), the payee must obtain a written and signed or (where appropriate) a similarly authenticated authorization as soon as reasonably possible, or cease debiting the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD2>10(c) Consumer's Right to Stop Payment
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Stop-payment order.</I> The financial institution must honor an oral stop-payment order made at least three business days before a scheduled debit. If the debit item is resubmitted, the institution must continue to honor the stop-payment order (for example, by suspending all subsequent payments to the payee-originator until the consumer notifies the institution that payments should resume).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Revocation of authorization.</I> Once a financial institution has been notified that the consumer's authorization is no longer valid, it must block all future payments for the particular debit transmitted by the designated payee-originator. <I>But see</I> comment 10(c)-3. The institution may not wait for the payee-originator to terminate the automatic debits. The institution may confirm that the consumer has informed the payee-originator of the revocation (for example, by requiring a copy of the consumer's revocation as written confirmation to be provided within 14 days of an oral notification). If the institution does not receive the required written confirmation within the 14-day period, it may honor subsequent debits to the account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Alternative procedure for processing a stop-payment request.</I> If an institution does not have the capability to block a preauthorized debit from being posted to the consumer's account—as in the case of a preauthorized debit made through a debit card network or other system, for example—the institution may instead comply with the stop-payment requirements by using a third party to block the transfer(s), as long as the consumer's account is not debited for the payment.
</P>
<HD2>10(d) Notice of Transfers Varying in Amount
</HD2>
<HD2>10(d)(1) Notice
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Preexisting authorizations.</I> A financial institution holding the consumer's account does not violate the regulation if the designated payee fails to provide notice of varying amounts.
</P>
<HD2>10(d)(2) Range
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Range.</I> A financial institution or designated payee that elects to offer the consumer a specified range of amounts for debiting (in lieu of providing the notice of transfers varying in amount) must provide an acceptable range that could be anticipated by the consumer. For example, if the transfer is for payment of a gas bill, an appropriate range might be based on the highest bill in winter and the lowest bill in summer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfers to an account of the consumer held at another institution.</I> A financial institution need not provide a consumer the option of receiving notice with each varying transfer, and may instead provide notice only when a debit to an account of the consumer falls outside a specified range or differs by more than a specified amount from the most recent transfer, if the funds are transferred and credited to an account of the consumer held at another financial institution. The specified range or amount, however, must be one that reasonably could be anticipated by the consumer, and the institution must notify the consumer of the range or amount at the time the consumer provides authorization for the preauthorized transfers. For example, if the transfer is for payment of interest for a fixed-rate certificate of deposit account, an appropriate range might be based on a month containing 28 days and a month containing 31 days.
</P>
<HD2>10(e) Compulsory Use


</HD2>
<HD2>10(e)(1) Credit
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General rule for loan payments.</I> Creditors may not require repayment of loans by electronic means on a preauthorized, recurring basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Overdraft credit plans not accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and covered overdraft credit extended by very large financial institutions.</I> i. Section 1005.10(e)(1) provides an exception from the general rule for an overdraft credit plan other than for a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61 and for covered overdraft credit extended by very large financial institutions as those terms are defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.62. A financial institution may therefore require the automatic repayment of an overdraft credit plan, other than a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card or covered overdraft credit extended by very large financial institutions, even if the overdraft extension is charged to an open-end account that may be accessed by the consumer in ways other than by overdrafts.
</P>
<P>ii. Credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of a prepaid account that meets the conditions of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(4), is considered credit extended pursuant to an overdraft credit plan for purposes of § 1005.10(e)(1). Thus, the exception for overdraft credit plans in § 1005.10(e)(1) applies to this credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Applicability to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> i. Under § 1005.10(e)(1), creditors may not require by electronic means on a preauthorized, recurring basis repayment of credit extended under a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61. The prohibition in § 1005.10(e)(1) applies to any credit extended under such a credit feature, including preauthorized checks. See Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, and comment 61(a)(1)-3.
</P>
<P>ii. Under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(d)(1), a card issuer may not take any action, either before or after termination of credit card privileges, to offset a cardholder's indebtedness arising from a consumer credit transaction under the relevant credit card plan against funds of the cardholder held on deposit with the card issuer. Under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(d)(3), with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61, a card issuer generally is not prohibited from periodically deducting all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from a deposit account (such as a prepaid account) held with the card issuer under a plan that is authorized in writing by the cardholder, so long as the card issuer does not make such deductions to the plan more frequently than once per calendar month. A card issuer is prohibited under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(d), from automatically deducting all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt under a covered separate credit feature from a deposit account (such as a prepaid account) held with the card issuer on a daily or weekly basis, or whenever deposits are made to the deposit account. Section 1005.10(e)(1) further restricts the card issuer from requiring payment from a deposit account (such as a prepaid account) of credit card balances of a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card by electronic means on a preauthorized, recurring basis.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incentives.</I> A creditor may offer a program with a reduced annual percentage rate or other cost-related incentive for an automatic repayment feature, provided the program with the automatic payment feature is not the only loan program offered by the creditor for the type of credit involved. Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. Mortgages with graduated payments in which a pledged savings account is automatically debited during an initial period to supplement the monthly payments made by the borrower.
</P>
<P>ii. Mortgage plans calling for preauthorized biweekly payments that are debited electronically to the consumer's account and produce a lower total finance charge.
</P>
<HD2>10(e)(2) Employment or Government Benefit
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Payroll.</I> An employer (including a financial institution) may not require its employees to receive their salary by direct deposit to any particular institution. An employer may require direct deposit of salary by electronic means if employees are allowed to choose the institution that will receive the direct deposit. Alternatively, an employer may give employees the choice of having their salary deposited at a particular institution (designated by the employer) or receiving their salary by another means, such as by check or cash.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Government benefit.</I> A government agency may not require consumers to receive government benefits by direct deposit to any particular institution. A government agency may require direct deposit of benefits by electronic means if recipients are allowed to choose the institution that will receive the direct deposit. Alternatively, a government agency may give recipients the choice of having their benefits deposited at a particular institution (designated by the government agency) or receiving their benefits by another means.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.11 Procedures for Resolving Errors
</HD1>
<HD2>11(a) Definition of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Terminal location.</I> With regard to deposits at an ATM, a consumer's request for the terminal location or other information triggers the error resolution procedures, but the financial institution need only provide the ATM location if it has captured that information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Verifying an account debit or credit.</I> If the consumer contacts the financial institution to ascertain whether a payment (for example, in a home-banking or bill-payment program) or any other type of EFT was debited to the account, or whether a deposit made via ATM, preauthorized transfer, or any other type of EFT was credited to the account, without asserting an error, the error resolution procedures do not apply.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Loss or theft of access device.</I> A financial institution is required to comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer reports the loss or theft of an access device if the consumer also alleges possible unauthorized use as a consequence of the loss or theft.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Error asserted after account closed.</I> The financial institution must comply with the error resolution procedures when a consumer properly asserts an error, even if the account has been closed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Request for documentation or information.</I> A request for documentation or other information must be treated as an error unless it is clear that the consumer is requesting a duplicate copy for tax or other record-keeping purposes.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terminal receipts for transfers of $15 or less.</I> The fact that an institution does not make a terminal receipt available for a transfer of $15 or less in accordance with § 1005.9(e) is not an error for purposes of § 1005.11(a)(1)(vi) or (vii).
</P>
<HD2>11(b) Notice of Error From Consumer
</HD2>
<HD2>11(b)(1) Timing; Contents
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Content of error notice.</I> The notice of error is effective even if it does not contain the consumer's account number, so long as the financial institution is able to identify the account in question. For example, the consumer could provide a Social Security number or other unique means of identification.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Investigation pending receipt of information.</I> While a financial institution may request a written, signed statement from the consumer relating to a notice of error, it may not delay initiating or completing an investigation pending receipt of the statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statement held for consumer.</I> When a consumer has arranged for periodic statements to be held until picked up, the statement for a particular cycle is deemed to have been transmitted on the date the financial institution first makes the statement available to the consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Failure to provide statement.</I> When a financial institution fails to provide the consumer with a periodic statement, a request for a copy is governed by this section if the consumer gives notice within 60 days from the date on which the statement should have been transmitted.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Discovery of error by institution.</I> The error resolution procedures of this section apply when a notice of error is received from the consumer, and not when the financial institution itself discovers and corrects an error.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Notice at particular phone number or address.</I> A financial institution may require the consumer to give notice only at the telephone number or address disclosed by the institution, provided the institution maintains reasonable procedures to refer the consumer to the specified telephone number or address if the consumer attempts to give notice to the institution in a different manner.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Effect of late notice.</I> An institution is not required to comply with the requirements of this section for any notice of error from the consumer that is received by the institution later than 60 days from the date on which the periodic statement first reflecting the error is sent. Where the consumer's assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 1005.6 before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
</P>
<HD2>11(b)(2) Written Confirmation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Written confirmation-of-error notice.</I> If the consumer sends a written confirmation of error to the wrong address, the financial institution must process the confirmation through normal procedures. But the institution need not provisionally credit the consumer's account if the written confirmation is delayed beyond 10 business days in getting to the right place because it was sent to the wrong address.
</P>
<HD2>11(c) Time Limits and Extent of Investigation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice to consumer.</I> Unless otherwise indicated in this section, the financial institution may provide the required notices to the consumer either orally or in writing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written confirmation of oral notice.</I> A financial institution must begin its investigation promptly upon receipt of an oral notice. It may not delay until it has received a written confirmation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges for error resolution.</I> If a billing error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the financial institution may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error-resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation). Since the Act grants the consumer error-resolution rights, the institution should avoid any chilling effect on the good-faith assertion of errors that might result if charges are assessed when no billing error has occurred.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Correction without investigation.</I> A financial institution may make, without investigation, a final correction to a consumer's account in the amount or manner alleged by the consumer to be in error, but must comply with all other applicable requirements of § 1005.11.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Correction notice.</I> A financial institution may include the notice of correction on a periodic statement that is mailed or delivered within the 10-business-day or 45-calendar-day time limits and that clearly identifies the correction to the consumer's account. The institution must determine whether such a mailing will be prompt enough to satisfy the requirements of this section, taking into account the specific facts involved.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Correction of an error.</I> If the financial institution determines an error occurred, within either the 10-day or 45-day period, it must correct the error (subject to the liability provisions of §§ 1005.6(a) and (b)) including, where applicable, the crediting of interest and the refunding of any fees imposed by the institution. In a combined credit/EFT transaction, for example, the institution must refund any finance charges incurred as a result of the error. The institution need not refund fees that would have been imposed whether or not the error occurred.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Extent of required investigation.</I> A financial institution complies with its duty to investigate, correct, and report its determination regarding an error described in § 1005.11(a)(1)(vii) by transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation within the time limits set forth in § 1005.11(c). If the institution has provisionally credited the consumer's account in accordance with § 1005.11(c)(2), it may debit the amount upon transmitting the requested information, clarification, or documentation.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 11(c)(2)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Compliance with all requirements.</I> Financial institutions exempted from provisionally crediting a consumer's account under §§ 1005.11(c)(2)(i)(A) and (B) must still comply with all other requirements of § 1005.11.
</P>
<HD2>11(c)(3) Extension of Time Periods
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>POS debit card transactions.</I> The extended deadlines for investigating errors resulting from POS debit card transactions apply to all debit card transactions, including those for cash only, at merchants' POS terminals, and also including mail and telephone orders. The deadlines do not apply to transactions at an ATM, however, even though the ATM may be in a merchant location.
</P>
<HD2>11(c)(4) Investigation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Third parties.</I> When information or documentation requested by the consumer is in the possession of a third party with whom the financial institution does not have an agreement, the institution satisfies the error resolution requirement by so advising the consumer within the specified time period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Scope of investigation.</I> When an alleged error involves a payment to a third party under the financial institution's telephone bill-payment plan, a review of the institution's own records is sufficient, assuming no agreement exists between the institution and the third party concerning the bill-payment service.
</P>
<P>3. <I>POS transfers.</I> When a consumer alleges an error involving a transfer to a merchant via a POS terminal, the institution must verify the information previously transmitted when executing the transfer. For example, the financial institution may request a copy of the sales receipt to verify that the amount of the transfer correctly corresponds to the amount of the consumer's purchase.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Agreement.</I> An agreement that a third party will honor an access device is an agreement for purposes of this paragraph. A financial institution does not have an agreement for purposes of § 1005.11(c)(4)(ii) solely because it participates in transactions that occur under the Federal recurring payments programs, or that are cleared through an ACH or similar arrangement for the clearing and settlement of fund transfers generally, or because the institution agrees to be bound by the rules of such an arrangement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>No EFT agreement.</I> When there is no agreement between the institution and the third party for the type of EFT involved, the financial institution must review any relevant information within the institution's own records for the particular account to resolve the consumer's claim. The extent of the investigation required may vary depending on the facts and circumstances. However, a financial institution may not limit its investigation solely to the payment instructions where additional information within its own records pertaining to the particular account in question could help to resolve a consumer's claim. Information that may be reviewed as part of an investigation might include:
</P>
<P>i. The ACH transaction records for the transfer;
</P>
<P>ii. The transaction history of the particular account for a reasonable period of time immediately preceding the allegation of error;
</P>
<P>iii. Whether the check number of the transaction in question is notably out-of-sequence;
</P>
<P>iv. The location of either the transaction or the payee in question relative to the consumer's place of residence and habitual transaction area;
</P>
<P>v. Information relative to the account in question within the control of the institution's third-party service providers if the financial institution reasonably believes that it may have records or other information that could be dispositive; or
</P>
<P>vi. Any other information appropriate to resolve the claim.
</P>
<HD2>11(d) Procedures if Financial Institution Determines No Error or Different Error Occurred
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Error different from that alleged.</I> When a financial institution determines that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the consumer, it must comply with the requirements of both §§ 1005.11(c) and (d), as relevant. The institution may give the notice of correction and the explanation separately or in a combined form.
</P>
<HD2>11(d)(1) Written Explanation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Request for documentation.</I> When a consumer requests copies of documents, the financial institution must provide the copies in an understandable form. If an institution relied on magnetic tape, it must convert the applicable data into readable form, for example, by printing it and explaining any codes.
</P>
<HD2>11(d)(2) Debiting Provisional Credit
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Alternative procedure for debiting of credited funds.</I> The financial institution may comply with the requirements of this section by notifying the consumer that the consumer's account will be debited five business days from the transmittal of the notification, specifying the calendar date on which the debiting will occur.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees for overdrafts.</I> The financial institution may not impose fees for items it is required to honor under § 1005.11. It may, however, impose any normal transaction or item fee that is unrelated to an overdraft resulting from the debiting. If the account is still overdrawn after five business days, the institution may impose the fees or finance charges to which it is entitled, if any, under an overdraft credit plan.
</P>
<HD2>11(e) Reassertion of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawal of error; right to reassert.</I> The financial institution has no further error resolution responsibilities if the consumer voluntarily withdraws the notice alleging an error. A consumer who has withdrawn an allegation of error has the right to reassert the allegation unless the financial institution had already complied with all of the error resolution requirements before the allegation was withdrawn. The consumer must do so, however, within the original 60-day period.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.12 Relation to Other Laws
</HD1>
<HD2>12(a) Relation to Truth in Lending
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Issuance rules for access devices other than access devices for prepaid accounts.</I> For access devices that also constitute credit cards (other than access devices for prepaid accounts), the issuance rules of Regulation E apply if the only credit feature is a preexisting credit line attached to the asset account to cover overdrafts (or to maintain a specified minimum balance) or an overdraft service, as defined in § 1005.17(a). Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) rules apply if there is another type of credit feature; for example, one permitting direct extensions of credit that do not involve the asset account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Overdraft services.</I> The addition of an overdraft service, as that term is defined in § 1005.17(a), to an accepted access device does not constitute the addition of a credit feature subject to Regulation Z. Instead, the provisions of Regulation E apply, including the liability limitations (§ 1005.6) and the requirement to obtain consumer consent to the service before any fees or charges for paying an overdraft may be assessed on the account (§ 1005.17).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Issuance of prepaid access devices that can access a covered separate credit feature subject to Regulation Z.</I> An access device for a prepaid account cannot access a covered separate credit feature as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, when the access device is issued if the access device is issued prior to the expiration of the 30-day period set forth in 12 CFR 1026.61(c). Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(c), provides that with respect to a covered separate credit feature that could be accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card at any point, a card issuer must not do any of the following until 30 days after the prepaid account has been registered: (1) Open a covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card; (2) make a solicitation or provide an application to open a covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card; or (3) allow an existing credit feature that was opened prior to the consumer to become a covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card. An access device for a prepaid account that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card as that term is defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, is subject to the issuance rules in Regulation E.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Addition of a covered separate credit feature to an existing access device for a prepaid account.</I> Regulation Z governs the addition of a covered separate credit feature as that term is defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, to an existing access device for a prepaid account. In this case, the access device would become a hybrid prepaid-credit card under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026). A covered separate credit feature may be added to a previously issued access device for a prepaid account only upon the consumer's application or specific request as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(a)(1), and only in compliance with 12 CFR 1026.61(c).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Determining applicable regulation related to liability and error resolution.</I> i. Under § 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(B), with respect to a transaction that involves a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as those terms are defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, where credit is extended under a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card that is incident to an electronic fund transfer when the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses both funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account and credit extensions from the credit feature with respect to a particular transaction, Regulation E's liability limitations and error resolution provisions apply to the transaction, in addition to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(d) and (g) (which apply because of the extension of credit associated with the covered separate credit feature). Section 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(C) provides that with respect to transactions that involves credit extended through a negative balance to the asset feature of a prepaid account that meets the conditions set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(4), these transactions are governed solely by the liability limitations and error resolution procedures in Regulation E, and Regulation Z does not apply. Section 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(D) and (a)(2)(iii), taken together, provide that with respect to transactions involving a prepaid account and a non-covered separate credit feature as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, a financial institution must comply with Regulation E's liability limitations and error resolution procedures with respect to transactions that access the prepaid account as applicable, and the creditor must comply with Regulation Z's liability limitations and error resolution procedures with respect to transactions that access the non-covered separate credit feature, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. Under § 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(A), with respect to an account (other than a prepaid account) where credit is extended incident to an electronic fund transfer under an agreement to extend overdraft credit between the consumer and the financial institution, Regulation E's liability limitations and error resolution provisions apply to the transaction, in addition to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(d) and (g) (which apply because of the extension of credit associated with the overdraft feature on the asset account).
</P>
<P>iii. For transactions involving access devices that also function as credit cards under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), whether Regulation E or Regulation Z applies depends on the nature of the transaction. For example, if the transaction solely involves an extension of credit, and does not access funds in a consumer asset account, such as a checking account or prepaid account, the liability limitations and error resolution requirements of Regulation Z apply. If the transaction accesses funds in an asset account only (with no credit extended), the provisions of Regulation E apply. If the transaction access funds in an asset account but also involves an extension of credit under the overdraft credit feature subject to Regulation Z attached to the account, Regulation E's liability limitations and error resolution provisions apply, in addition to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(d) and (g) (which apply because of the extension of credit associated with the overdraft feature on the asset account). If a consumer's access device is also a credit card and the device is used to make unauthorized withdrawals from an asset account, but also is used to obtain unauthorized cash advances directly from a credit feature that is subject to Regulation Z that is separate from the asset account, both Regulation E and Regulation Z apply.
</P>
<P>iv. The following examples illustrate these principles:
</P>
<P>A. A consumer has a card that can be used either as a credit card or an access device that draws on the consumer's checking account. When used as a credit card, the card does not first access any funds in the checking account but draws only on a separate credit feature subject to Regulation Z. If the card is stolen and used as a credit card to make purchases or to get cash advances at an ATM from the line of credit, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation Z apply; Regulation E does not apply.
</P>
<P>B. In the same situation, if the card is stolen and is used as an access device to make purchases or to get cash withdrawals at an ATM from the checking account, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply; Regulation Z does not apply.
</P>
<P>C. In the same situation, assume the card is stolen and used both as an access device for the checking account and as a credit card; for example, the thief makes some purchases using the card to access funds in the checking account and other purchases using the card as a credit card. Here, the liability limits and error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as an access device for the checking account, and the corresponding provisions of Regulation Z apply to the unauthorized transactions in which the card was used as a credit card.
</P>
<P>D. Assume a somewhat different type of card, one that draws on the consumer's checking account and can also draw on an overdraft credit feature subject to Regulation Z attached to the checking account. The overdraft credit feature associated with the card is accessed only when the consumer uses the card to make a purchase (or other transaction) for which there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the checking account. In this situation, if the card is stolen and used to make purchases funded entirely by available funds in the checking account, the liability limits and the error resolution provisions of Regulation E apply. If the use of the card results in an extension of credit that is incident to an electronic fund transfer where the transaction is funded partially by funds in the consumer's asset account and partially by credit extended under the overdraft credit feature, the error resolution provisions of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(d) and (g), apply in addition to the Regulation E provisions, but the other liability limit and error resolution provisions of Regulation Z do not. Relatedly, if the use of the card is funded entirely by credit extended under the overdraft credit feature, the transaction is governed solely by the liability limitations and error resolution requirements of Regulation Z. <I>See</I> Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(i).
</P>
<P>E. The same principles in comment 12(a)-5.iv.A, B, C, and D apply to an access device for a prepaid account that also is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a covered separate credit feature under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61. <I>See also</I> Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.13(i)(2) and comment 13(i)-4.


</P>
<HD2>12(b) Preemption of Inconsistent State Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Specific determinations.</I> The regulation prescribes standards for determining whether state laws that govern EFTs, and state laws regarding gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards that govern dormancy, inactivity, or service fees, or expiration dates, are preempted by the Act and the regulation. A state law that is inconsistent may be preempted even if the Bureau has not issued a determination. However, nothing in § 1005.12(b) provides a financial institution with immunity for violations of state law if the institution chooses not to make state disclosures and the Bureau later determines that the state law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preemption determinations generally.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Preemption determination—Michigan.</I> The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System determined that certain provisions in the state law of Michigan are preempted by the Federal law, effective March 30, 1981:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Definition of unauthorized use.</I> Section 488.5(4) of the state law of Michigan, governing electronic fund transfers, is preempted to the extent that it relates to the section of state law governing consumer liability for unauthorized use of an access device.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Consumer liability for unauthorized use of an account.</I> Section 488.14 of the state law of Michigan, governing electronic fund transfers, is preempted because it is inconsistent with § 1005.6 and is less protective of the consumer than the Federal law. The state law places liability on the consumer for the unauthorized use of an account in cases involving the consumer's negligence. Under the Federal law, a consumer's liability for unauthorized use is not related to the consumer's negligence and depends instead on the consumer's promptness in reporting the loss or theft of the access device.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Error resolution.</I> Section 488.15 of the state law of Michigan, governing electronic fund transfers, is preempted because it is inconsistent with § 1005.11 and is less protective of the consumer than the Federal law. The state law allows financial institutions up to 70 days to resolve errors, whereas the Federal law generally requires errors to be resolved within 45 days.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Receipts and periodic statements.</I> Sections 488.17 and 488.18 of the state law of Michigan, governing electronic fund transfers, are preempted because they are inconsistent with § 1005.9, other than for transfers of $15 or less pursuant to § 1005.9(e). The state provisions require a different disclosure of information than does the Federal law. The receipt provision is also preempted because it allows the consumer to be charged for receiving a receipt if a machine cannot furnish one at the time of a transfer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Preemption determination—Tennessee.</I> The Bureau determined that the following provision in the state law of Tennessee is preempted by the Federal law, effective April 25, 2013:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Gift certificates, store gift cards, and general-use prepaid cards.</I> Section 66-29-116 of Tennessee's Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed (Personal) Property Act is preempted to the extent that it permits gift certificates, store gift cards, and general-use prepaid cards, as defined in § 1005.20(a), to be declined at the point-of-sale sooner than the gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards and their underlying funds are permitted to expire under § 1005.20(e).


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.13 Administrative Enforcement; Record Retention
</HD1>
<HD2>13(b) Record Retention
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A financial institution need not retain records that it has given disclosures and documentation to each consumer; it need only retain evidence demonstrating that its procedures reasonably ensure the consumers' receipt of required disclosures and documentation.
</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.14 Electronic Fund Transfer Service Provider Not Holding Consumer's Account
</HD1>
<HD2>14(a) Electronic Fund Transfer Service Providers Subject to Regulation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies only when a service provider issues an access device to a consumer for initiating transfers to or from the consumer's account at a financial institution and the two entities have no agreement regarding this EFT service. If the service provider does not issue an access device to the consumer for accessing an account held by another institution, it does not qualify for the treatment accorded by § 1005.14. For example, this section does not apply to an institution that initiates preauthorized payroll deposits to consumer accounts on behalf of an employer. By contrast, § 1005.14 can apply to an institution that issues a code for initiating telephone transfers to be carried out through the ACH from a consumer's account at another institution. This is the case even if the consumer has accounts at both institutions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>ACH agreements.</I> The ACH rules generally do not constitute an agreement for purposes of this section. However, an ACH agreement under which members specifically agree to honor each other's debit cards is an “agreement,” and thus this section does not apply.
</P>
<HD2>14(b) Compliance by Electronic Fund Transfer Service Provider
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Liability.</I> The service provider is liable for unauthorized EFTs that exceed limits on the consumer's liability under § 1005.6.
</P>
<HD2>14(b)(1) Disclosures and Documentation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements from electronic fund transfer service provider.</I> A service provider that meets the conditions set forth in this paragraph does not have to issue periodic statements. A service provider that does not meet the conditions need only include on periodic statements information about transfers initiated with the access device it has issued.
</P>
<HD2>14(b)(2) Error Resolution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Error resolution.</I> When a consumer notifies the service provider of an error, the EFT service provider must investigate and resolve the error in compliance with § 1005.11 as modified by § 1005.14(b)(2). If an error occurred, any fees or charges imposed as a result of the error, either by the service provider or by the account-holding institution (for example, overdraft or dishonor fees) must be reimbursed to the consumer by the service provider.
</P>
<HD2>14(c) Compliance by Account-Holding Institution
</HD2>
<HD2>14(c)(1) Documentation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements from account-holding institution.</I> The periodic statement provided by the account-holding institution need only contain the information required by § 1005.9(b)(1).


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.15—Electronic Fund Transfer of Government Benefits
</HD1>
<HD2>15(c) Pre-Acquisition Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosing the short and long form before acquisition.</I> Section 1005.15(c)(1) requires that, before a consumer acquires an account governed by § 1005.15, a government agency must comply with the pre-acquisition disclosure requirements applicable to prepaid accounts as set forth in § 1005.18(b). Section 1005.18(b)(1)(i) generally requires delivery of both the short form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2), accompanied by the information in § 1005.18(b)(5), and the long form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(4) before a consumer acquires a prepaid account. For purposes of § 1005.15(c), a consumer is deemed to have received the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) prior to acquisition when the consumer receives the disclosures before choosing to receive benefits via the government benefit account. The following example illustrates when a consumer receives disclosures before acquisition of an account for purposes of § 1005.15(c):
</P>
<P>i. A government agency informs a consumer that she can receive distribution of benefits via a government benefit account in the form of a prepaid card. The consumer receives the prepaid card and the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) to review at the time the consumer receives benefits eligibility information from the agency. After receiving the disclosures, the consumer chooses to receive benefits via the government benefit account. These disclosures were provided to the consumer pre-acquisition, and the agency has complied with § 1005.15(c). By contrast, if the consumer does not receive the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) to review until the time at which the consumer received the first benefit payment deposited into the government benefit account, these disclosures were provided to the consumer post-acquisition, and were not provided in compliance with § 1005.15(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquisition and disclosures given during the same appointment.</I> The disclosures and notice required by § 1005.15(c) may be given in the same process or appointment during which the consumer receives a government benefit card. When a consumer receives benefits eligibility information and enrolls to receive benefits during the same process or appointment, a government agency that gives the disclosures and notice required by § 1005.15(c) before the consumer chooses to receive the first benefit payment on the card complies with the timing requirements of § 1005.15(c).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form and formatting requirements for government benefit account disclosures.</I> The form and formatting requirements for government benefit accounts in § 1005.15(c) correspond to those for payroll card accounts set forth in § 1005.18(b). See comments 18(b)(2)(xiv)(A)-1 and 18(b)(2)(xiv)(B)-1 for additional guidance regarding the requirements set forth in § 1005.15(c)(2)(i) and (ii), respectively.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosure requirements outside the short form disclosure.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(5) requires that the name of the financial institution be disclosed outside the short form disclosure. For government benefit accounts, the financial institution that must be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(5) is the financial institution that directly holds the account or issues the account's access device. The disclosure provided outside the short form disclosure may, but is not required to, also include the name of the government agency that established the government benefit account.
</P>
<HD2>15(d) Access to Account Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Access to account information.</I> For guidance, see comments 18(c)-1 through -3 and 18(c)-5 through -9.
</P>
<HD2>15(e) Modified Disclosure, Limitations on Liability, and Error Resolution Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Modified limitations on liability and error resolution requirements.</I> For guidance, see comments 18(e)-1 through -3.
</P>
<HD2>15(f) Disclosure of Fees and Other Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures on prepaid account access devices.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(f)(3), the name of the financial institution and the Web site URL and a telephone number a consumer can use to contact the financial institution about the prepaid account must be disclosed on the prepaid account access device. For government benefit accounts, the financial institution whose name and contact information must be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(f)(3) is the financial institution that directly holds the account or issues the account's access device.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.17 Requirements for Overdraft Services
</HD1>
<HD2>17(a) Definition
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exempt securities- and commodities-related lines of credit.</I> The definition of “overdraft service” does not include the payment of transactions in a securities or commodities account pursuant to which credit is extended by a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Covered overdraft credit.</I> Under § 1005.17(a)(1), a line of credit subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026) is not an overdraft service. Covered overdraft credit as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.62, is a line of credit subject to Regulation Z and is therefore not an overdraft service. Covered overdraft credit includes above breakeven overdraft credit extended by a very large financial institution as those terms are defined in 12 CFR 1026.62. Above breakeven overdraft credit extended by a very large financial institution is therefore not an overdraft service under § 1005.17(a).


</P>
<HD2>17(b) Opt-In Requirement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> i. <I>Account-holding institutions.</I> Section 1005.17(b) applies to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or on behalf of the account-holding institution. Section 1005.17(b) does not apply to ATM and one-time debit card transactions made with a debit card issued by or through a third party unless the debit card is issued on behalf of the account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Coding of transactions.</I> A financial institution complies with the rule if it adapts its systems to identify debit card transactions as either one-time or recurring. If it does so, the financial institution may rely on the transaction's coding by merchants, other institutions, and other third parties as a one-time or a preauthorized or recurring debit card transaction.
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<P>iii. <I>One-time debit card transactions.</I> The opt-in applies to any one-time debit card transaction, whether the card is used, for example, at a point-of-sale, in an online transaction, or in a telephone transaction.
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<P>iv. <I>Application of fee prohibition.</I> The prohibition on assessing overdraft fees under § 1005.17(b)(1) applies to all institutions. For example, the prohibition applies to an institution that has a policy and practice of declining to authorize and pay any ATM or one-time debit card transactions when the institution has a reasonable belief at the time of the authorization request that the consumer does not have sufficient funds available to cover the transaction. However, the institution is not required to comply with §§ 1005.17(b)(1)(i)-(iv), including the notice and opt-in requirements, if it does not assess overdraft fees for paying ATM or one-time debit card transactions that overdraw the consumer's account. Assume an institution does not provide an opt-in notice, but authorizes an ATM or one-time debit card transaction on the reasonable belief that the consumer has sufficient funds in the account to cover the transaction. If, at settlement, the consumer has insufficient funds in the account (for example, due to intervening transactions that post to the consumer's account), the institution is not permitted to assess an overdraft fee or charge for paying that transaction.
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<P>2. <I>No affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution may pay overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions even if a consumer has not affirmatively consented or opted in to the institution's overdraft service. If the institution pays such an overdraft without the consumer's affirmative consent, however, it may not impose a fee or charge for doing so. These provisions do not limit the institution's ability to debit the consumer's account for the amount overdrawn if the institution is permitted to do so under applicable law.
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<P>3. <I>Overdraft transactions not required to be authorized or paid.</I> Section 1005.17 does not require a financial institution to authorize or pay an overdraft on an ATM or one-time debit card transaction even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to an institution's overdraft service for such transactions.
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<P>4. <I>Reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent.</I> A financial institution provides a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent when, among other things, it provides reasonable methods by which the consumer may affirmatively consent. A financial institution provides such reasonable methods, if:
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<P>i. <I>By mail.</I> The institution provides a form for the consumer to fill out and mail to affirmatively consent to the service.
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<P>ii. <I>By telephone.</I> The institution provides a readily-available telephone line that consumers may call to provide affirmative consent.
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<P>iii. <I>By electronic means.</I> The institution provides an electronic means for the consumer to affirmatively consent. For example, the institution could provide a form that can be accessed and processed at its Web site, where the consumer may click on a check box to provide consent and confirm that choice by clicking on a button that affirms the consumer's consent.
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<P>iv. <I>In person.</I> The institution provides a form for the consumer to complete and present at a branch or office to affirmatively consent to the service.
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<P>5. <I>Implementing opt-in at account-opening.</I> A financial institution may provide notice regarding the institution's overdraft service prior to or at account-opening. A financial institution may require a consumer, as a necessary step to opening an account, to choose whether or not to opt into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service. For example, the institution could require the consumer, at account opening, to sign a signature line or check a box on a form (consistent with comment 17(b)-6) indicating whether or not the consumer affirmatively consents at account opening. If the consumer does not check any box or provide a signature, the institution must assume that the consumer does not opt in. Or, the institution could require the consumer to choose between an account that does not permit the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service and an account that permits the payment of such overdrafts, provided that the accounts comply with § 1005.17(b)(2) and § 1005.17(b)(3).
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<P>6. <I>Affirmative consent required.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to a financial institution's overdraft service must be obtained separately from other consents or acknowledgements obtained by the institution, including a consent to receive disclosures electronically. An institution may obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a blank signature line or check box that the consumer could sign or select to affirmatively consent, provided that the signature line or check box is used solely for purposes of evidencing the consumer's choice whether or not to opt into the overdraft service and not for other purposes. An institution does not obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by including preprinted language about the overdraft service in an account disclosure provided with a signature card or contract that the consumer must sign to open the account and that acknowledges the consumer's acceptance of the account terms. Nor does an institution obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a signature card that contains a pre-selected check box indicating that the consumer is requesting the service.
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<P>7. <I>Confirmation.</I> A financial institution may comply with the requirement in § 1005.17(b)(1)(iv) to provide confirmation of the consumer's affirmative consent by mailing or delivering to the consumer a copy of the consumer's completed opt-in notice, or by mailing or delivering a letter or notice to the consumer acknowledging that the consumer has elected to opt into the institution's service. The confirmation, which must be provided in writing, or electronically if the consumer agrees, must include a statement informing the consumer of the right to revoke the opt-in at any time. <I>See</I> § 1005.17(d)(6), which permits institutions to include the revocation statement on the initial opt-in notice. An institution complies with the confirmation requirement if it has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that overdraft fees are assessed only in connection with transactions paid after the confirmation has been mailed or delivered to the consumer.
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<P>8. <I>Outstanding Negative Balance.</I> If a fee or charge is based on the amount of the outstanding negative balance, an institution is prohibited from assessing any such fee if the negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, unless the consumer has opted into the institution's overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing such a fee if the negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the prohibition on assessing overdraft fees in § 1005.17(b)(1).
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<P>9. <I>Daily or Sustained Overdraft, Negative Balance, or Similar Fee or Charge</I> i. <I>Daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges.</I> If a consumer has not opted into the institution's overdraft service for ATM or one-time debit card transactions, the fee prohibition in § 1005.17(b)(1) applies to all overdraft fees or charges for paying those transactions, including but not limited to daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges. Thus, where a consumer's negative balance is solely attributable to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, the rule prohibits the assessment of such fees unless the consumer has opted in. However, the rule does not prohibit an institution from assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges if a negative balance is attributable in whole or in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition. When the negative balance is attributable in part to an ATM or one-time debit card transaction, and in part to a check, ACH, or other type of transaction not subject to the fee prohibition, the date on which such a fee may be assessed is based on the date on which the check, ACH, or other type of transaction is paid into overdraft.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate how an institution complies with the fee prohibition. For each example, assume the following: (a) The consumer has not opted into the payment of ATM or one-time debit card overdrafts; (b) these transactions are paid into overdraft because the amount of the transaction at settlement exceeded the amount authorized or the amount was not submitted for authorization; (c) under the account agreement, the institution may charge a per-item fee of $20 for each overdraft, and a one-time sustained overdraft fee of $20 on the fifth consecutive day the consumer's account remains overdrawn; (d) the institution posts ATM and debit card transactions before other transactions; and (e) the institution allocates deposits to account debits in the same order in which it posts debits.
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<P>A. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60 and a check transaction of $40. The institution charges an overdraft fee of $20 for the check overdraft but cannot assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. At the end of the day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $70. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 2 and March 6. Because the consumer's negative balance is attributable in part to the $40 check (and associated overdraft fee), the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
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<P>B. Same facts as in A., except that on March 3, the consumer deposits $40 in the account. The institution allocates the $40 to the debit card transaction first, consistent with its posting order policy. At the end of the day on March 3, the consumer has an account balance of negative $30, which is attributable to the check transaction (and associated overdraft fee). The consumer does not make any further deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 6. Because the remaining negative balance is attributable to the March 1 check transaction, the institution may charge a sustained overdraft fee on March 6 in connection with the check.
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<P>C. Assume that a consumer has a $50 account balance on March 1. That day, the institution posts a one-time debit card transaction of $60. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $10. The institution may not assess an overdraft fee for the debit card transaction. On March 3, the institution pays a check transaction of $100 and charges an overdraft fee of $20. At the end of that day, the consumer has an account balance of negative $130. The consumer does not make any deposits to the account, and no other transactions occur between March 4 and March 8. Because the consumer's negative balance is attributable in part to the check, the institution may assess a $20 sustained overdraft fee. However, because the check was paid on March 3, the institution must use March 3 as the start date for determining the date on which the sustained overdraft fee may be assessed. Thus, the institution may charge a $20 sustained overdraft fee on March 8.
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<P>iii. <I>Alternative approach.</I> For a consumer who does not opt into the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, an institution may also comply with the fee prohibition in § 1005.17(b)(1) by not assessing daily or sustained overdraft, negative balance, or similar fees or charges unless a consumer's negative balance is attributable solely to check, ACH or other types of transactions not subject to the fee prohibition while that negative balance remains outstanding. In such case, the institution would not have to determine how to allocate subsequent deposits that reduce but do not eliminate the negative balance. For example, if a consumer has a negative balance of $30, of which $10 is attributable to a one-time debit card transaction, an institution complies with the fee prohibition if it does not assess a sustained overdraft fee while that negative balance remains outstanding.
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<HD2>17(b)(2) Conditioning Payment of Other Overdrafts on Consumer's Affirmative Consent
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of the same criteria.</I> The prohibitions on conditioning in § 1005.17(b)(2) generally require an institution to apply the same criteria for deciding when to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, and other types of transactions, whether or not the consumer has affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service with respect to ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts. For example, if an institution's internal criteria would lead the institution to pay a check overdraft if the consumer had affirmatively consented to the institution's overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions, it must also apply the same criteria in a consistent manner in determining whether to pay the check overdraft if the consumer has not opted in.
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<P>2. <I>No requirement to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions.</I> The prohibition on conditioning in § 1005.17(b)(2) does not require an institution to pay overdrafts on checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions in all circumstances. Rather, the rule simply prohibits institutions from considering the consumer's decision not to opt in when deciding whether to pay overdrafts for checks, ACH transactions, or other types of transactions.2&gt;17(b)(3) Same Account Terms, Conditions, and Features
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<P>1. <I>Variations in terms, conditions, or features.</I> A financial institution may not vary the terms, conditions, or features of an account provided to a consumer who does not affirmatively consent to the payment of ATM or one-time debit card transactions pursuant to the institution's overdraft service. This includes, but is not limited to:
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<P>i. Interest rates paid and fees assessed;
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<P>ii. The type of ATM or debit card provided to the consumer. For instance, an institution may not provide consumers who do not opt in a PIN-only card while providing a debit card with both PIN and signature-debit functionality to consumers who opt in;
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<P>iii. Minimum balance requirements; or
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<P>iv. Account features such as online bill payment services.
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<P>2. <I>Limited-feature bank accounts.</I> Section 1005.17(b)(3) does not prohibit institutions from offering deposit account products with limited features, provided that a consumer is not required to open such an account because the consumer did not opt in. For example, § 1005.17(b)(3) does not prohibit an institution from offering a checking account designed to comply with state basic banking laws, or designed for consumers who are not eligible for a checking account because of their credit or checking account history, which may include features limiting the payment of overdrafts. However, a consumer who applies, and is otherwise eligible, for a full-service or other particular deposit account product may not be provided instead with the account with more limited features because the consumer has declined to opt in.
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<HD2>17(c) Timing
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Permitted fees or charges.</I> Fees or charges for ATM and one-time debit card overdrafts may be assessed only for overdrafts paid on or after the date the financial institution receives the consumer's affirmative consent to the institution's overdraft service. <I>See also</I> comment 17(b)-7.
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<HD2>17(d) Content and Format
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Overdraft service.</I> The description of the institution's overdraft service should indicate that the consumer has the right to affirmatively consent, or opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. The description should also disclose the institution's policies regarding the payment of overdrafts for other transactions, including checks, ACH transactions, and automatic bill payments, provided that this content is not more prominent than the description of the consumer's right to opt into payment of overdrafts for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. As applicable, the institution also should indicate that it pays overdrafts at its discretion, and should briefly explain that if the institution does not authorize and pay an overdraft, it may decline the transaction.
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<P>2. <I>Maximum fee.</I> If the amount of a fee may vary from transaction to transaction, the financial institution may indicate that the consumer may be assessed a fee “up to” the maximum fee. The financial institution must disclose all applicable overdraft fees, including but not limited to:
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<P>i. Per item or per transaction fees;
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<P>ii. Daily overdraft fees;
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<P>iii. Sustained overdraft fees, where fees are assessed when the consumer has not repaid the amount of the overdraft after some period of time (for example, if an account remains overdrawn for five or more business days); or
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<P>iv. Negative balance fees.
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<P>3. <I>Opt-in methods.</I> The opt-in notice must include the methods by which the consumer may consent to the overdraft service for ATM and one-time debit card transactions. Institutions may tailor Model Form A-9 to the methods offered to consumers for affirmatively consenting to the service. For example, an institution need not provide the tear-off portion of Model Form A-9 if it is only permitting consumers to opt-in telephonically or electronically. Institutions may, but are not required, to provide a signature line or check box where the consumer can indicate that he or she declines to opt in.
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<P>4. <I>Identification of consumer's account.</I> An institution may use any reasonable method to identify the account for which the consumer submits the opt-in notice. For example, the institution may include a line for a printed name and an account number, as shown in Model Form A-9. Or, the institution may print a bar code or use other tracking information. <I>See also</I> comment 17(b)-6, which describes how an institution obtains a consumer's affirmative consent.
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<P>5. <I>Alternative plans for covering overdrafts.</I> If the institution offers both a line of credit subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) and a service that transfers funds from another account of the consumer held at the institution to cover overdrafts, the institution must state in its opt-in notice that both alternative plans are offered. For example, the notice might state “We also offer <I>overdraft protection plans,</I> such as a link to a savings account or to an overdraft line of credit, which may be less expensive than our standard overdraft practices.” If the institution offers one, but not the other, it must state in its opt-in notice the alternative plan that it offers. If the institution does not offer either plan, it should omit the reference to the alternative plans.
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<HD2>17(f) Continuing Right To Opt-In or To Revoke the Opt-In
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges for overdrafts incurred prior to revocation.</I> Section 1005.17(f)(1) provides that a consumer may revoke his or her prior consent at any time. If a consumer does so, this provision does not require the financial institution to waive or reverse any overdraft fees assessed on the consumer's account prior to the institution's implementation of the consumer's revocation request.
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<HD2>17(g) Duration of Opt-In
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Termination of overdraft service.</I> A financial institution may, for example, terminate the overdraft service when the consumer makes excessive use of the service.


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<HD3>Section 1005.18—Requirements for Financial Institutions Offering Prepaid Accounts


</HD3>
<HD3>18(a) Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Issuance of access device.</I> Consistent with § 1005.5(a) and except as provided, as applicable, in § 1005.5(b), a financial institution may issue an access device only in response to an oral or written request for the device, or as a renewal or substitute for an accepted access device. A consumer is deemed to request an access device for a payroll card account when the consumer chooses to receive salary or other compensation through a payroll card account. A consumer is deemed to request an access device for a prepaid account when, for example, the consumer acquires a prepaid account offered for sale at a retail location or applies for a prepaid account by telephone or online. If an access device for a prepaid account is provided on an unsolicited basis where the prepaid account is used for disbursing funds to a consumer, and the financial institution or third party making the disbursement does not offer any alternative means for the consumer to receive those funds in lieu of accepting the prepaid account, in order to satisfy § 1005.5(b)(2), the financial institution must inform the consumer that the consumer has no other means by which to initially receive the funds in the prepaid account other than by accepting the access device, as well as the consequences of disposing of the access device.
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<P>2. <I>Application to employers and service providers.</I> Typically, employers and third-party service providers do not meet the definition of a “financial institution” subject to the regulation because they neither hold prepaid accounts (including payroll card accounts) nor issue prepaid cards and agree with consumers to provide EFT services in connection with prepaid accounts. However, to the extent an employer or a service provider undertakes either of these functions, it would be deemed a financial institution under the regulation.


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<HD3>18(b) Pre-Acquisition Disclosure Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written and electronic pre-acquisition disclosures.</I> Section 1005.4(a)(1) generally requires that disclosures be made in writing; written disclosures may be provided in electronic form in accordance with the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). Because § 1005.18(b)(6)(i)(B) provides that electronic disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) need not meet the consumer consent or other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act, § 1005.18(b) addresses certain requirements for written and electronic pre-acquisition disclosures separately. Section 1005.18(b) also addresses specific requirements for pre-acquisition disclosures provided orally.
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<P>2. <I>Currency.</I> Fee amounts required to be disclosed by § 1005.18(b) may be disclosed in a foreign currency for a prepaid account denominated in that foreign currency, other than the fee for the purchase price required by § 1005.18(b)(5). For example, a prepaid account sold in a U.S. airport intended for use in England may disclose in pound sterling (£) the fees required to be disclosed in the short form and long form disclosures and outside the short form disclosure, except for the purchase price.


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<HD3>18(b)(1)(i) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosing the short form and long form before acquisition.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(1)(i) generally requires delivery of a short form disclosure as described in § 1005.18(b)(2), accompanied by the information required to be disclosed by § 1005.18(b)(5), and a long form disclosure as described in § 1005.18(b)(4) before a consumer acquires a prepaid account.
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<P>i. For purposes of § 1005.18(b)(1)(i), a consumer acquires a prepaid account by purchasing, opening or choosing to be paid via a prepaid account, as illustrated by the following examples:
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<P>A. A consumer inquires about obtaining a prepaid account at a branch location of a bank. A consumer then receives the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b). After receiving the disclosures, a consumer then opens a prepaid account with the bank. This consumer received the short form and long form pre-acquisition in accordance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i).
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<P>B. A consumer learns that he or she can receive wages via a payroll card account, at which time the consumer is provided with a payroll card and the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) to review. The consumer then chooses to receive wages via a payroll card account. These disclosures were provided pre-acquisition in compliance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i). By contrast, if a consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) to review at the end of the first pay period, after the consumer received the first payroll payment on the payroll card, these disclosures were provided to a consumer post-acquisition, and thus not provided in compliance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i).
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<P>ii. Section 1005.18(b)(1)(i) permits delivery of the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) at the time the consumer receives the prepaid account, rather than prior to acquisition, for prepaid accounts that are used for disbursing funds to consumers when the financial institution or third party making the disbursement does not offer any alternative means for the consumer to receive those funds in lieu of accepting the prepaid account. For example, a utility company refunds consumers' initial deposits for its utility services via prepaid accounts delivered to consumers by mail. Neither the utility company nor the financial institution that issues the prepaid accounts offer another means for a consumer to receive that refund other than by accepting the prepaid account. In this case, the financial institution may provide the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) together with the prepaid account (<I>e.g.,</I> in the same envelope as the prepaid account); it is not required to deliver the disclosures separately prior to delivery of the prepaid account.
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<P>2. <I>Disclosures provided electronically.</I> Disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) may be provided before or after a consumer has initiated the process of acquiring a prepaid account electronically. When the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) are presented after a consumer has initiated the process for acquiring a prepaid account online or via a mobile device, but before a consumer chooses to accept the prepaid account, such disclosures are also made pre-acquisition in accordance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i). The disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) that are provided electronically when a consumer acquires a prepaid account electronically are not considered to be given pre-acquisition unless a consumer must view the web page containing the disclosures before choosing to accept the prepaid account. The following examples illustrate several methods by which a financial institution may present § 1005.18(b) disclosures before a consumer acquires a prepaid account electronically in compliance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i):
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<P>i. A financial institution presents the short form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2), together with the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5), and the long form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(4) on the same web page. A consumer must view the web page before choosing to accept the prepaid account.
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<P>ii. A financial institution presents the short form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2), together with the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5), on a web page. The financial institution includes, after the short form disclosure or as part of the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii), a link that directs the consumer to a separate web page containing the long form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(4). The consumer must view the web page containing the long form disclosure before choosing to accept the prepaid account.
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<P>iii. A financial institution presents on a web page the short form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2), together with the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5), followed by the initial disclosures required by § 1005.7(b), which contains the long form disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(4), in accordance with § 1005.18(f)(1). The financial institution includes, after the short form disclosure or as part of the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii), a link that directs the consumer to the section of the initial disclosures containing the long form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4). A consumer must view this web page before choosing to accept the prepaid account.
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<HD3>18(b)(1)(ii) Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts Acquired in Retail Locations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Retail locations.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(1)(ii) sets forth an alternative timing regime for pre-acquisition disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired in person at retail locations. For purposes of § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), a retail location is a store or other physical site where a consumer can purchase a prepaid account in person and that is operated by an entity other than the financial institution that issues the prepaid account. A branch of a financial institution that offers its own prepaid accounts is not a retail location with respect to those accounts and, thus, both the short form and the long form disclosure must be provided pre-acquisition pursuant to the timing requirement set forth in § 1005.18(b)(1)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Disclosures provided inside prepaid account access device packaging material.</I> Except when providing the long form disclosure post-acquisition in accordance with the retail location exception set forth in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(2), (4), and (5) must be provided to a consumer pre-acquisition in compliance with § 1005.18(b)(1)(i). A short form disclosure is not considered to have been provided pre-acquisition if, for example, it is inside the packaging material accompanying a prepaid account access device such that the consumer cannot see or access the disclosure before acquiring the prepaid account.
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<P>3. <I>Consumers working in retail locations.</I> A payroll card account offered to consumers working in retail locations is not eligible for the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii); thus, a consumer employee must receive both the short form and long form disclosures for the payroll card account pre-acquisition pursuant to the timing requirement set forth in § 1005.18(b)(1)(i).
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<P>4. <I>Providing the long form disclosure by telephone and website pursuant to the retail location exception.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), a financial institution may provide the long form disclosure described in § 1005.18(b)(4) after a consumer acquires a prepaid account in a retail location, if the conditions set forth in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii)(A) through (D) are met. Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii)(C), a financial institution must make the long form disclosure accessible to consumers by telephone and via a website when not providing a written version of the long form disclosure pre-acquisition. A financial institution may, for example, provide the long form disclosure by telephone using an interactive voice response or similar system or by using a customer service agent. A financial institution that has not obtained the consumer's contact information is not required to comply with the requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii)(D). A financial institution is able to contact the consumer when, for example, it has the consumer's mailing address or email address.
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<HD3>18(b)(1)(iii) Disclosures for Prepaid Accounts Acquired Orally by Telephone
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid accounts acquired by telephone.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(1)(iii) sets forth requirements for prepaid accounts acquired orally by telephone. For purposes of § 1005.18(b)(1)(iii), a prepaid account is considered to have been acquired orally by telephone when a consumer speaks to a customer service agent or communicates with an automated system, such as an interactive voice response system, to provide personally identifiable information to acquire a prepaid account. Prepaid accounts acquired using a mobile device without speaking to a customer service agent or communicating with an automated system are not considered to have been acquired orally by telephone.
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<HD3>18(b)(2) Short Form Disclosure Content
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures that are not applicable or are free.</I> The short form disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(2) must always be provided prior to prepaid account acquisition, even when a particular feature is free or is not applicable to a specific prepaid account product. For example, if a financial institution does not charge a fee to a consumer for withdrawing money at an automated teller machine in the financial institution's network or an affiliated network, which is required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii), the financial institution would list “ATM withdrawal in-network” on the short form disclosure and list “$0” as the fee. If, however, the financial institution does not have its own network or an affiliated network from which a consumer can withdraw money via automated teller machine, the financial institution would list “ATM withdrawal in-network” on the short form disclosure but instead of disclosing a fee amount, state “N/A.” (The financial institution must still disclose any fee it charges for out-of-network ATM withdrawals.)
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<P>2. <I>Prohibition on disclosure of finance charges.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(vi), a financial institution may not include in the short form disclosure finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61. <I>See also</I> comment 18(b)(3)(vi)-1.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(i) Periodic Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic fee variation.</I> If the amount of a fee disclosed on the short form could vary, the financial institution must disclose in the short form the information required by § 1005.18(b)(3)(i). If the amount of the periodic fee could vary, the financial institution may opt instead to use an alternative disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(ii). <I>See</I> comments 18(b)(3)(i)-1 and 18(b)(3)(ii)-1.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(iii) ATM Withdrawal Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>International ATM withdrawal fees.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii), a financial institution must disclose the fees imposed when a consumer uses an automated teller machine to initiate a withdrawal of cash in the United States from the prepaid account, both within and outside of the financial institution's network or a network affiliated with the financial institution. A financial institution may not disclose its fee (if any) for using an automated teller machine to initiate a withdrawal of cash in a foreign country in the disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii), although it may be required to disclose that fee as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(iv) Cash Reload Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total of all charges.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iv), a financial institution must disclose the total of all charges imposed when a consumer reloads cash into a prepaid account, including charges imposed by the financial institution as well as any charges that may be imposed by third parties for the cash reload. The cash reload fee includes the cost of adding cash to the prepaid account at a point-of-sale terminal, the cost of purchasing an additional card or other device on which cash is loaded and then transferred into the prepaid account, or any other method a consumer may use to reload cash into the prepaid account. For example, a financial institution does not have its own proprietary cash reload network and instead contracts with a third-party reload network for this service. The financial institution itself does not charge any fee related to cash reloads but the third-party reload network charges a fee of $3.95 per cash reload. The financial institution must disclose the cash reload fee as $3.95. If the financial institution offers more than one method to reload cash into the prepaid account, § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) requires disclosure of the highest cash reload fee. For example, a financial institution contracts with two third-party cash reload networks; one third party charges $3.95 for a point-of-sale reload and the other third party charges $2.95 for purchase of a reload pack. In addition to the third-party cash reload charge, the financial institution charges a $1 fee for every cash reload. The financial institution must disclose the cash reload fee on the short form as $4.95, that is, the highest third-party fee plus the financial institution's $1 fee. See comment 18(b)(3)(v)-1 for additional guidance regarding third-party fees for cash reloads.
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<P>2. <I>Cash deposit fee.</I> If a financial institution does not permit cash reloads via a third-party reload network but instead permits cash deposits, for example, in a bank branch, the term “cash deposit” may be substituted for “cash reload.”
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(v) ATM Balance Inquiry Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>International ATM balance inquiry fees.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(v), a financial institution must disclose the fees imposed when a consumer uses an automated teller machine to check the balance of the prepaid account in the United States, both within and outside of the financial institution's network or a network affiliated with the financial institution. A financial institution may not disclose its fee (if any) for using an automated teller machine to check the balance of the prepaid account in a foreign country in the disclosure required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(v), although it may be required to disclose that fee as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(vii) Inactivity Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Inactivity fee conditions.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(vii) requires disclosure of any fee for non-use, dormancy, or inactivity of the prepaid account as well as the conditions that trigger the financial institution to impose that fee. For example, a financial institution that imposes an inactivity fee of $1 per month after 12 months without any transactions on the prepaid account would disclose on the short form “Inactivity (after 12 months with no transactions)” and “$1.00 per month.”
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(viii) Statements Regarding Additional Fee Types
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(2)(viii)(A) Statement Regarding Number of Additional Fee Types Charged
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fee types counted in total number of additional fee types.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) requires a statement disclosing the number of additional fee types the financial institution may charge consumers with respect to the prepaid account, using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “We charge [x] other types of fees.” The number of additional fee types disclosed must reflect the total number of fee types under which the financial institution may charge fees, excluding fees required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (b)(5) and any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61. The following clarify which fee types to include in the total number of additional fee types:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Fee types excluded from the number of additional fee types.</I> The number of additional fee types required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) does not include the fees otherwise required to be disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (vii), nor any purchase fee or activation fee required to be disclosed outside the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(5). It also does not include any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a credit feature defined in 12 CFR 1026.61. The number of additional fee types includes only fee types under which the financial institution may charge fees; accordingly, third-party fees are not included unless they are imposed for services performed on behalf of the financial institution. In addition, the number of additional fee types includes only fee types the financial institution may charge consumers with respect to the prepaid account; accordingly, additional fee types does not include other revenue sources such as interchange fees or fees paid by employers for payroll card programs, government agencies for government benefit programs, or other entities sponsoring prepaid account programs for financial disbursements.
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<P>ii. <I>Fee types counted in the number of additional fee types.</I> Fee types that bear a relationship to, but are separate from, the static fee types disclosed in the short form must be counted as additional fees for purposes of § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii). For example, the ATM withdrawal and ATM balance inquiry fee types required to be disclosed respectively by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii) and (v) that are excluded from the number of additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii) do not include such services outside of the United States. Thus, any international ATM fees charged by the financial institution for ATM withdrawal or balance inquiries must each be counted in the total number of additional fee types. Similarly, any fees for reloading funds into a prepaid account in a form other than cash (such as electronic reload and check reload, as described in comment 18(b)(2)(viii)(A)-2) must be counted in the total number of additional fee types because § 1005.18(b)(2)(iv) is limited to cash reloads. Also, additional fee types disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) must be counted in the total number of additional fee types.
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<P>2. <I>Examples of fee types and fee variations.</I> The term fee type, as used in § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii) and (ix), is a general category under which a financial institution charges fees to consumers. A financial institution may charge only one fee within a particular fee type, or may charge two or more variations of fees within the same fee type. The following is a list of examples of fee types a financial institution may use when determining both the number of additional fee types charged pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) and any additional fee types to disclose pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). A financial institution may create an appropriate name for other additional fee types.
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<P>i. <I>Fee types related to reloads of funds.</I> Fee types for reloading funds into a prepaid account. Fees for cash reloads are required to be disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iv) and that such fees are not counted in the total number of additional fee types or disclosed as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Fee types for other methods to reload funds, such as Electronic reload or Check reload, would be counted in the total number of additional fee types and may be required to be disclosed as additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<P>A. <I>Electronic reload.</I> Fees for reloading a prepaid account through electronic methods. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for transferring funds from a consumer's bank account via ACH, reloads conducted using a debit card or credit card, and for incoming wire transfers.
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<P>B. <I>Check reload.</I> Fees for reloading a prepaid account using checks. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for depositing checks at an ATM, depositing checks with a teller at the financial institution's branch location, mailing checks to the financial institution for deposit, and depositing checks using remote deposit capture.
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<P>ii. <I>Fee types related to withdrawals of funds.</I> Fee types for withdrawing funds from a prepaid account. Per purchase fees and ATM withdrawal fees within the United States are fee types required to be disclosed in the short form respectively pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ii) and (iii) and thus such fees are not counted in the total number of additional fee types or disclosed as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Fee types for other methods to withdraw funds, such as Electronic withdrawal, Teller withdrawal, Cash back at point of sale (POS), and Account closure would be counted in the total of additional fee types and may be required to be disclosed as additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<P>A. <I>Electronic withdrawal.</I> Fees for withdrawing funds from a prepaid account through electronic methods other than an ATM. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for transferring funds from the prepaid account to a consumer's bank account or other destination.
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<P>B. <I>Teller withdrawal.</I> Fees for withdrawing funds from a prepaid account in person with a teller at a bank or credit union. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for withdrawing funds, whether at the financial institution's own branch locations or at another bank or credit union.
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<P>C. <I>Cash back at POS.</I> Fees for withdrawing cash from a prepaid account via cash back at a merchant's point-of-sale terminal.
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<P>D. <I>Account closure.</I> Fees for closing out a prepaid account, such as for a check refund. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for regular and expedited delivery of close-out funds.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Fee types related to international transactions.</I> Fee types for international transactions and ATM activity.
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<P>A. <I>International ATM withdrawal.</I> Fees for withdrawing funds at an ATM outside the United States. This fee type does not include fees for ATM withdrawals in the United States, as such fees are required to be disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii).
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<P>B. <I>International ATM balance inquiry.</I> Fees for balance inquiries at an ATM outside the United States. This fee type does not include fees for ATM balance inquiries in the United States, as such fees are required to be disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(v).
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<P>C. <I>International transaction (excluding ATM withdrawal and balance inquiry).</I> Fees for transactions outside the United States. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for currency conversion, foreign exchange processing, and other charges for transactions outside of the United States.
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<P>iv. <I>Bill payment.</I> Fees for bill payment services. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for ACH bill payment, paper check bill payment, check cancellation, and expedited delivery of paper check.
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<P>v. <I>Person-to-person or card-to-card transfer of funds.</I> Fees for transferring funds from one prepaid account to another prepaid account. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for transferring funds to another prepaid account within or outside of a specified prepaid account program, transferring funds to another cardholder within the United States or outside the United States, and expedited transfer of funds.
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<P>vi. <I>Paper checks.</I> Fees for providing paper checks that draw on the prepaid account. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for providing checks and associated shipping costs. This does not include checks issued as part of a bill pay service, which are addressed in comment 18(b)(2)(viii)(A)-2.iv above.
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<P>vii. <I>Stop payment.</I> Fees for stopping payment of a preauthorized transfer of funds.
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<P>viii. <I>Fee types related to card services.</I> Fee types for card services.
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<P>A. <I>Card replacement.</I> Fees for replacing or reissuing a prepaid card that has been lost, stolen, damaged, or that has expired. Fee variations within this fee types may include fees for replacing the card, regular or expedited delivery of the replacement card, and international card replacement.
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<P>B. <I>Secondary card.</I> Fees for issuing an additional access device assigned to a particular prepaid account.
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<P>C. <I>Personalized card.</I> Fees for customizing or personalizing a prepaid card.
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<P>ix. <I>Legal.</I> Fees for legal process. Fee variations within this fee type may include fees for garnishments, attachments, levies, and other court or administrative orders against a prepaid account.
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<P>3. <I>Multiple service plans.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(vi), a financial institution using the multiple service plan short form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) must disclose only the fee for calling customer service via a live agent. Thus, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii), any charge for calling customer service via an interactive voice response system must be counted in the total number of additional fee types.
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<P>4. <I>Consistency in additional fee type categorization.</I> A financial institution must use the same categorization of fee types in the number of additional fee types disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii) and in its determination of which additional fee types to disclose pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(viii)(B) Statement Directing Consumers to Disclosure of Additional Fee Types
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Statement clauses.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(B) requires, if a financial institution makes a disclosure of additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix), it must include in the short form a statement directing consumers to that disclosure, located after but on the same line of text as the statement regarding the number of additional fee types required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A), using the following clause or a substantially similar clause: “Here are some of them:”. A financial institution that makes no disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) may not include a disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(B). The following examples provide guidance regarding substantially similar clauses a financial institution may use in certain circumstances to make its disclosures under § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) and (B):
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<P>i. A financial institution that has one additional fee type and discloses that additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) might provide the statements required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) and (B) together as: “We charge 1 other type of fee. It is:”.
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<P>ii. A financial institution that has five additional fee types and discloses one of those additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) might provide the statements required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) and (B) together as: “We charge 5 other types of fees. Here is 1 of them:”.
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<P>iii. A financial institution that has two additional fee types and discloses both of those fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) might provide the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A) and (B) together as: “We charge 2 other types of fees. They are:”.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix) Disclosure of Additional Fee Types
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(A) Determination of Which Additional Fee Types To Disclose
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Number of fee types to disclose.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A) requires disclosure of the two fee types that generate the highest revenue from consumers for the prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule during the time period provided in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D) and (E), excluding the categories set forth in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>). See comment 18(b)(2)(viii)(A)-2 for guidance on and examples of fee types. If a prepaid account program has two fee types that satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), it must disclose both fees. If a prepaid account program has three or more fee types that potentially satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), the financial institution must disclose only the two fee types that generate the highest revenue from consumers. See comment 18(b)(2)(ix)(B)-1 for guidance regarding the disclosure of additional fee types for a prepaid account with fewer than two fee types that satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A).
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<P>2. <I>Abbreviations.</I> Commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations may be used as needed for additional fee types and fee variations disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). For example, to accommodate on one line in the short form disclosure the additional fee types “international ATM balance inquiry” or “person-to-person transfer of funds,” with or without fee variations, a financial institution may choose to abbreviate the fee type name as “Int'l ATM inquiry” or “P2P transfer.”
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<P>3. <I>Revenue from consumers.</I> The revenue calculation for the disclosure of additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A) is based on fee types that the financial institution may charge consumers with respect to the prepaid account. The calculation excludes other revenue sources such as revenue generated from interchange fees and fees paid by employers for payroll card programs, government agencies for government benefit programs, and other entities sponsoring prepaid account programs for financial disbursements. It also excludes third-party fees, unless they are imposed for services performed on behalf of the financial institution.
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<P>4. <I>Assessing revenue within and across prepaid account programs to determine disclosure of additional fee types.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), the disclosure of the two fee types that generate the highest revenue from consumers must be determined for each prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule. Thus, if a financial institution offers more than one prepaid account program, unless the programs share the same fee schedule, the financial institution must consider the fee revenue data separately for each prepaid account program and not consolidate the fee revenue data across prepaid account programs. Prepaid account programs are deemed to have the same fee schedules if they charge the same fee amounts, including offering the same fee waivers and fee reductions for the same features. The following examples illustrate how to assess revenue within and across prepaid account programs to determine the disclosure of additional fee types:
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<P>i. <I>Prepaid account programs with different fee schedules.</I> A financial institution offers multiple prepaid account programs and each program has a different fee schedule. The financial institution must consider the revenue from consumers for each program separately; it may not consider the revenue from all of its prepaid account programs together in determining the disclosure of additional fee types for its programs.
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<P>ii. <I>Prepaid account programs with identical fee schedules.</I> A financial institution offers multiple prepaid account programs and they all share the same fee schedule. The financial institution may consider the revenue across all of its prepaid account programs together in determining the disclosure of additional fee types for its programs.
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<P>iii. <I>Prepaid account programs with both different fee schedules and identical fee schedules.</I> A financial institution offers multiple prepaid account programs, some of which share the same fee schedule. The financial institution may consider the revenue across all prepaid account programs with identical fee schedules in determining the disclosure of additional fee types for those programs. The financial institution must separately consider the revenue from each of the prepaid account programs with unique fee schedules.
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<P>iv. <I>Multiple service plan prepaid account programs.</I> A financial institution that discloses multiple service plans on a short form disclosure as permitted by § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) must consider revenue across all of those plans in determining the disclosure of additional fee types for that program. If, however, the financial institution instead is disclosing the default service plan pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>), the financial institution must consider the revenue generated from consumers for the default service plan only. See § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) and comment 18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>)-1 for guidance on what constitutes multiple service plans.
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<P>5. <I>Exclusions.</I> Once the financial institution has calculated the fee revenue data for the prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule during the appropriate time period, it must remove from consideration the categories excluded pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>) before determining the fee types, if any, that generated the highest revenue.
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<P>i. <I>Exclusion for fee types required to be disclosed elsewhere.</I> Fee types otherwise required to be disclosed in or outside the short form are excluded from the additional fee types required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>). Thus, the following fee types are excluded: Periodic fee, per purchase fee, ATM withdrawal fees (for ATM withdrawals in the United States), cash reload fee, ATM balance inquiry fees (for ATM balance inquiries in the United States), customer service fees, and inactivity fee. However, while the cash reload fee type is excluded, other reload fee types, such as electronic reload and check reload, are not excluded under § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>) and thus may be disclosed as additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Similarly, while the fee types ATM withdrawal and ATM balance inquiry in the United States are excluded, international ATM withdrawal and international ATM balance inquiry fees are not excluded under § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>) and thus may be disclosed as additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Also pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>1</I>), the purchase price and activation fee, if any, required to be disclosed outside the short form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(5), are excluded from the additional fee types required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix).
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<P>ii. <I>De minimis exclusion.</I> Any fee types that generated less than 5 percent of the total revenue from consumers for the prepaid account program or across prepaid account programs that share the same fee schedule during the time period provided in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D) and (E) are excluded from the additional fee types required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>2</I>). For example, for a particular prepaid account program over the appropriate time period, bill payment, check reload, and card replacement are the only fee types that generated 5 percent or more of the total revenue from consumers at, respectively, 15 percent, 10 percent, and 7 percent. Two other fee types, legal fee and personalized card, generated revenue below 1 percent of the total revenue from consumers. The financial institution must disclose bill payment and check reload as the additional fee types for that particular prepaid account program because those two fee types generated the highest revenue from consumers from among the categories not excluded from disclosure as additional fee types. For a different prepaid account program over the appropriate time period, bill payment is the only fee type that generated 5 percent or more of the total revenue from consumers. Two other fee types, check reload and card replacement, each generated revenue below 5 percent of the total revenue from consumers. The financial institution must disclose bill payment as an additional fee type for that particular prepaid account program because it is the only fee type that satisfies the criteria of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A). The financial institution may, but is not required to, disclose either check reload or card replacement on the short form as well, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B). <I>See</I> comment 18(b)(2)(ix)(B)-1.
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<P>iii. <I>Exclusion for credit-related fees.</I> Any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61, are excluded from the additional fee types required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A)(<I>3</I>). Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(viii)(A)(<I>2</I>), such finance charges are also excluded from the number of additional fee types disclosed.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(B) Disclosure of Fewer Than Two Additional Fee Types
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of one or no additional fee types.</I> The following examples provide guidance on the additional fee types disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B) for a prepaid account with fewer than two fee types that satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A):
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<P>i. A financial institution has a prepaid account program with only one fee type that satisfies the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A) and thus, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), the financial institution must disclose that one fee type. The prepaid account program has three other fee types that generate revenue from consumers, but they do not exceed the de minimis threshold or otherwise satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B). Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B), the financial institution is not required to make any additional disclosure, but it may choose to disclose one of the three fee types that do not meet the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A).
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<P>ii. A financial institution has a prepaid account program with four fee types that generate revenue from consumers, but none exceeds the de minimis threshold or otherwise satisfy the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A). Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B), the financial institution is not required to make any disclosure, but it may choose to disclose one or two of the fee types that do not meet the criteria in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A).
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<P>2. <I>No disclosure of finance charges as an additional fee type.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(vi), a financial institution may not disclose any finance charges as a voluntary additional fee disclosure under § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(B).
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(C) Fee Variations in Additional Fee Types
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Two or more fee variations.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(C) specifies how to disclose additional fee types with two fee variations, more than two fee variations, and for multiple service plans pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>). See comment 18(b)(2)(viii)(A)-2 for guidance on and examples of fee types and fee variations within those fee types. The following examples illustrate how to disclose two-tier fees and other fee variations in additional fee types:
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<P>i. <I>Two fee variations with different fee amounts.</I> A financial institution charges a fee of $1 for providing a card replacement using standard mail service and charges a fee of $5 for providing a card replacement using expedited delivery. The financial institution must calculate the total revenue generated from consumers for all card replacements, both via standard mail service and expedited delivery, during the required time period to determine whether it is required to disclose card replacement as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Because there are only two fee variations for the fee type “card replacement,” if card replacement is required to be disclosed as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), the financial institution must disclose both fee variations pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(C). Thus, the financial institution would disclose on the short form the fee type and two variations as “Card replacement (regular or expedited delivery)” and the fee amount as “$1.00 or $5.00”.
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<P>ii. <I>More than two fee variations.</I> A financial institution offers two methods of bill payment—via ACH and paper check—and offers two modes of delivery for bill payments made by paper check—regular standard mail service and expedited delivery. The financial institution charges $0.25 for bill pay via ACH, $0.50 for bill pay via paper check sent by regular standard mail service, and $3 for bill pay via paper check sent via expedited delivery. The financial institution must calculate the total revenue generated from consumers for all methods of bill pay and all modes of delivery during the required time period to determine whether it must disclose bill payment as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Because there are more than two fee variations for the fee type “bill payment,” if bill payment is required to be disclosed as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(A), the financial institution has two options for the disclosure. The financial institution may disclose the highest fee, $3, followed by a symbol, such as an asterisk, linked to a statement explaining that the fee could be lower depending on how and where the prepaid account is used, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(i). Thus, the financial institution would disclose on the short form the fee type as “Bill payment” and the fee amount as “$3.00*”. Alternatively, the financial institution may consolidate the fee variations into two categories, such as regular delivery and expedited delivery. In this case, the financial institution would make this disclosure on the short form as: “Bill payment (regular or expedited delivery)” and the fee amount as “$0.50* or $3.00”.
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<P>iii. <I>Two fee variations with like fee amounts.</I> A financial institution offers two methods of check reload for which it charges a fee—depositing checks at an ATM and depositing checks with a teller at the financial institution's branch locations. There is a fee of $0.50 for both methods of check deposit. The financial institution must calculate the total revenue generated from both of these check reload methods during the required time period to determine whether it must disclose this fee type as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Because the fee amounts are the same for the two methods of check deposit, if the fee type is required to be disclosed as an additional fee type, the financial institution's options for disclosing this fee type in accordance with § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(C) and (b)(3)(iii) include: “Check reload (ATM or teller check dep)” and the fee amount as “$0.50” or “Check reload” and the fee amount as “$0.50”.
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<P>iv. <I>Multiple service plans.</I> A financial institution provides a short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>). Notwithstanding that an additional fee type has only two fee variations, a financial institution must disclose the highest fee in accordance with § 1005.18(b)(3)(i).
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<P>2. <I>One fee variation under a particular fee type.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(C) provides in part that, if a financial institution only charges one fee under a particular fee type, the financial institution must disclose the name of the additional fee type and the fee amount; it may, but is not required to, disclose also the name of the one fee variation, if any, for which the fee amount is charged, in a format substantially similar to that used to disclose the two-tier fees required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(v) and (vi), except that the financial institution must disclose only the one fee variation name and fee amount instead of two. For example, a financial institution offers one method of electronic reload for which it charges a fee—electronic reload conducted using a debit card. The financial institution must calculate the total revenue generated from consumers for the fee type electronic reload (<I>i.e.,</I> in this case, electronic reloads conducted using a debit card) during the required time period to determine whether it must disclose electronic reload as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). Because the financial institution only charges one fee variation under the fee type electronic reload, if this fee type is required to be disclosed as an additional fee type, the financial institution has two options for disclosing this fee type in accordance with § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(C): “Electronic reload (debit card)” and the fee amount as “$1.00” or “Electronic reload” and the fee amount as “$1.00”.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(D) Timing of Initial Assessment of Additional Fee Types Disclosure
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(1) Existing Prepaid Account Programs as of April 1, 2019
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>24 month period with available data.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(<I>1</I>) requires for a prepaid account program in effect as of April 1, 2019 the financial institution must disclose additional fee types based on revenue for a 24-month period that begins no earlier than October 1, 2014. Thus, a prepaid account program that was in existence as of April 1, 2019 must assess its additional fee types disclosure from data collected during a consecutive 24-month period that took place between October 1, 2014 and April 1, 2019. For example, an existing prepaid account program was first offered to consumers on January 1, 2012 and provides its first short form disclosure on April 1, 2019. The earliest 24-month period from which that financial institution could calculate its first additional fee types disclosure would be from October 1, 2014 to September 30, 2016.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(2) Existing Prepaid Account Programs as of April 1, 2019 With Unavailable Data
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<P>1. <I>24 month period without available data.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(<I>2</I>) requires that if a financial institution does not have 24 months of fee revenue data for a particular prepaid account program from which to calculate the additional fee types disclosure in advance of April 1, 2019, the financial institution must disclose the additional fee types based on revenue it reasonably anticipates the prepaid account program will generate over the 24-month period that begins on April 1, 2019. For example, a financial institution begins offering to consumers a prepaid account program six months before April 1, 2019. Because the prepaid account program will not have 24 months of fee revenue data prior to April 1, 2019, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(<I>2</I>) the financial institution must disclose the additional fee types it reasonably anticipates the prepaid account program will generate over the 24-month period that begins on April 1, 2019. The financial institution would take into account the data it had accumulated at the time of its calculation to arrive at the reasonably anticipated additional fee types for the prepaid account program.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(E) Timing of Periodic Reassessment and Update of Additional Fee Types Disclosure
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(2) Periodic Reassessment
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<P>1. <I>Periodic reassessment and, if applicable, update of additional fee types disclosure.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>), a financial institution must reassess whether its previously disclosed additional fee types continue to comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) every 24 months based on revenue for the previous 24-month period. The financial institution must complete this reassessment and update its disclosure, if applicable, within three months of the end of the 24-month period, except as provided in the update printing exception in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>). The following examples provide guidance on the periodic assessment and, if applicable, update of the disclosure of additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>):
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<P>i. <I>Reassessment with no change in the additional fee types disclosed.</I> A financial institution disclosed two additional fee types (bill payment and card replacement) for a particular prepaid account program on April 1, 2019. Starting on April 1, 2021, the financial institution assessed the fee revenue data it collected over the previous 24 months, and the two additional fee types previously disclosed continue to qualify as additional fee types pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). The financial institution is not required to take any action with regard to the disclosure of additional fee types for that prepaid account program.
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<P>ii. <I>Reassessment with a change in the additional fee types disclosed.</I> A financial institution disclosed two additional fee types (bill payment and card replacement) for a particular prepaid account program on April 1, 2019. Starting on April 1, 2021, the financial institution assessed the fee revenue data it collected over the previous 24 months, and bill payment continued to qualify as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) but check reload qualified as the second additional fee type instead of card replacement. The financial institution must update the additional fee types disclosure in its short form disclosures provided electronically, orally, and in writing (other than for printed materials that qualify for the update printing exception in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>)) no later than July 1, 2021, which is three months after the end of the 24-month period.
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<P>iii. <I>Reassessment with the addition of an additional fee type already voluntarily disclosed.</I> A financial institution disclosed one additional fee type (bill payment) and voluntarily disclosed one other additional fee type (card replacement, both for regular and expedited delivery) for a particular prepaid account program on April 1, 2019. Starting on April 1, 2021, the financial institution assessed the fee revenue data it collected over the previous 24 months, and bill payment continued to qualify as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) and card replacement now qualified as the second additional fee type. Because the financial institution already had disclosed its card replacement fees in the format required for an additional fee type disclosure, the financial institution is not required to take any action with regard to the additional fee types disclosure in the short form for that prepaid account program.
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<P>2. <I>Reassessment more frequently than every 24 months.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>), a financial institution may, but is not required to, carry out the reassessment and update, if applicable, more frequently than every 24 months, at which time a new 24-month period commences. A financial institution may choose to do this, for example, to sync its reassessment process for additional fee types with its financial reporting schedule or other financial analysis it performs regarding the particular prepaid account program. If a financial institution chooses to reassess its additional fee types disclosure more frequently than every 24 months, it is still required to use 24 months of fee revenue data to conduct the reassessment. For example, a financial institution first offered a particular prepaid account program on April 1, 2018 and thus was required to estimate its initial additional fee types disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(D)(<I>2</I>). If the financial institution chooses to begin its reassessment of its fee revenue data on April 1, 2020, it would use the data it collected over the previous 24 months (April 1, 2018 to March 31, 2020) and complete its reassessment and its update, if applicable, by July 1, 2020.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(3) Fee Schedule Change
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<P>1. <I>Revised prepaid account programs.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>3</I>) requires that if a financial institution revises the fee schedule for a prepaid account program, it must determine whether it reasonably anticipates that the previously disclosed additional fee types will continue to comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) for the 24 months following implementation of the fee schedule change. A fee schedule change resets the 24-month period for assessment; a financial institution must comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>) at the end of the 24-month period following implementation of the fee schedule change. If the financial institution reasonably anticipates that the previously disclosed additional fee types will not comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix), it must update the disclosure based on its reasonable anticipation of what those additional fee types will be at the time the fee schedule change goes into effect, except as provided in the update printing exception in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>). For example, if a financial institution lowers its card replacement fee from $4 to $3 on June 1, 2019 after having first assessed its additional fee types disclosure as of April 1, 2019, the financial institution would assess whether it reasonably anticipates that the existing additional fee types disclosure will continue to reflect the additional fee types that generate the highest revenue from consumers for that prepaid account program for the next 24 months (until June 1, 2021). If the financial institution reasonably anticipates that its additional fee types will remain unchanged over the next 24 months, the financial institution is not required to take any action with regard to the additional fee types disclosure for that prepaid account program. In the same example, if the financial institution reasonably anticipates that the previously disclosed additional fee types will not comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix) for the 24 months following implementation of the fee schedule change, the financial institution must update the listing of additional fee types at the time the fee schedule change goes into effect, except as provided in the update printing exception pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>).
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(4) Update Printing Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application of the update printing exception to prepaid accounts sold in retail locations.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>), notwithstanding the requirements to update the additional fee types disclosure in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E), a financial institution is not required to update the listing of additional fee types that are provided on, in, or with prepaid account packaging materials that were manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced prior to a periodic reassessment and update pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>2</I>) or prior to a fee schedule change pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>3</I>). For prepaid accounts sold in retail locations, for example, § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>) permits a financial institution to implement any necessary updates to the listing of the additional fee types on the short form disclosure that appear on its physical prepaid account packaging materials at the time the financial institution prints new materials. Section 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>) does not require financial institutions to destroy existing inventory in retail locations or elsewhere in the distribution channel, to the extent the disclosures on such packaging materials are otherwise accurate, to comply with this requirement. For example, a financial institution determines that an additional fee type listed on a short form disclosure in a retail location no longer qualifies as an additional fee type pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix). The financial institution must update any electronic and oral short form disclosures pursuant to the timing requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E). Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix)(E)(<I>4</I>), the financial institution may continue selling any previously printed prepaid account packages that contain the prior listing of additional fee types; prepaid account packages printed after that time must contain the updated listing of additional fee types.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(x) Statement Regarding Overdraft Credit Features
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Short form disclosure when overdraft credit feature may be offered.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(x) requires disclosure of a statement if a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, may be offered at any point to a consumer in connection with the prepaid account. This statement must be provided on the short form disclosures for all prepaid accounts that may offer such a feature, regardless of whether some consumers may never be solicited or qualify to enroll in such a feature.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(xi) Statement Regarding Registration and FDIC or NCUA Insurance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of FDIC or NCUA insurance.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(xi) requires a statement regarding the prepaid account program's eligibility for FDIC deposit insurance or NCUA share insurance, as appropriate, and directing the consumer to register the prepaid account for insurance and other account protections, where applicable. If the consumer's prepaid account funds are held at a credit union, the disclosure must indicate NCUA insurance eligibility. If the consumer's prepaid account funds are held at a financial institution other than a credit union, the disclosure must indicate FDIC insurance eligibility.
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<P>2. <I>Consumer identification and verification processes.</I> For additional guidance on the timing of consumer identification and verification processes, and on prepaid account programs for which there is no consumer identification and verification process for any prepaid accounts within the prepaid account program, see § 1005.18(e)(3) and comments 18(e)-4 through 6.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(xiii) Statement Regarding Information on All Fees and Services
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Financial institution's telephone number.</I> For a financial institution offering prepaid accounts at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii) must also include a telephone number (and the website URL) that a consumer may use to directly access an oral version of the long form disclosure. To provide the long form disclosure by telephone, a financial institution could use a live customer service agent or an interactive voice response system. The financial institution could use a telephone number specifically dedicated to providing the long form disclosure or a more general customer service telephone number for the prepaid account program. For example, a financial institution would be deemed to provide direct access pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii) if a consumer navigates one or two prompts to reach the oral long form disclosure via a live customer service agent or an interactive voice response system using either a specifically dedicated telephone number of a more general customer service telephone number.
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<P>2. <I>Financial institution's website.</I> For a financial institution offering prepaid accounts at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), the statement required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii) must also include a website URL (and a telephone number) that a consumer may use to directly access an electronic version of the long form disclosure. For example, a financial institution that requires a consumer to navigate various other web pages before viewing the long form disclosure would not be deemed to provide direct access pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii). Trademark and product names and their commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations comply with the requirement in § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii) that the URL be meaningfully named. For example, ABC or ABCard would be readily understandable abbreviations for a prepaid account program named the Alpha Beta Card.
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(xiv) Additional Content for Payroll Card Accounts
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(xiv)(A) Statement Regarding Wage or Salary Payment Options
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Statement options for payroll card accounts.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(A) requires a financial institution to include at the top of the short form disclosure for payroll card accounts, above the information required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (iv), one of two statements regarding wage payment options. Financial institutions offering payroll card accounts may choose which of the two statements required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(A) to use in the short form disclosure. The list of other options required in the second statement might include the following, as applicable: Direct deposit to the consumer's bank account, direct deposit to the consumer's own prepaid account, paper check, or cash. A financial institution may, but is not required to, provide more specificity as to whom consumers must ask or inform of their choice of wage payment method, such as specifying the employer's Human Resources Department.
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<P>2. <I>Statement options for government benefit accounts.</I> See § 1005.15(c)(2)(i) for statement options for government benefit accounts.
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<P>3. <I>Statement permitted for other prepaid accounts.</I> A financial institution offering a prepaid account other than a payroll card account or government benefit account may, but is not required to, include a statement in the short form disclosure regarding payment options that is similar to either of the statements required for payroll card accounts pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(A) or government benefit accounts pursuant to § 1005.15(c)(2)(i). For example, a financial institution issuing a prepaid account to disburse student financial aid proceeds may disclose a statement such as the following: “You have several options to receive your financial aid payments: Direct deposit to your bank account, direct deposit to your own prepaid card, paper check, or this prepaid card. Tell your school which option you choose.”
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<HD3>18(b)(2)(xiv)(B) Statement Regarding State-Required Information or Other Fee Discounts and Waivers
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<P>1. <I>Statement options for state-required information or other fee discounts or waivers.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(B) permits, but does not require, a financial institution to include in the short form disclosure for payroll card accounts one additional line of text directing the consumer to a particular location outside the short form disclosure for information on ways the consumer may access payroll card account funds and balance information for free or for a reduced fee. For example, a financial institution might include the following line of text in the short form disclosure: “See below for free ways to access your funds and balance information” and then list below, but on the same page as, the short form disclosure several ways consumers can access their prepaid account funds and balance information for free. Alternatively, the financial institution might direct the consumer to another location for that information, such as by stating “See the cardholder agreement for free ways to access your funds and balance information.” A similar statement is permitted for government benefit accounts pursuant to § 1005.15(c)(2)(ii).


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<HD3>18(b)(3) Short Form Disclosure of Variable Fees and Third-Party Fees and Prohibition on Disclosure of Finance Charges
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(3)(i) General Disclosure of Variable Fees
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<P>1. <I>Short form disclosure of variable fees.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(3)(i) requires disclosure in the short form of the highest fee when a fee can vary, followed by a symbol, such as an asterisk, linked to a statement explaining that the fee could be lower depending on how and where the prepaid account is used. For example, a financial institution provides interactive voice response (IVR) customer service for free and provides the first three live agent customer service calls per month for free, after which it charges $0.50 for each additional live agent customer service call during that month. Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(vi), the financial institution must disclose both its IVR and live agent customer service fees on the short form disclosure. The financial institution would disclose the IVR fee as $0 and the live agent customer service fee as $0.50, followed by an asterisk (or other symbol) linked to a statement explaining that the fee can be lower depending on how and where the prepaid account is used. Except as described in § 1005.18(b)(3)(ii), § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) does not permit a financial institution to describe in the short form disclosure the specific conditions under which a fee may be reduced or waived, but the financial institution could use, for example, any other part of the prepaid account's packaging or other printed materials to disclose that information. The conditions under which a fee may be lower are required to be disclosed in the long form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii).
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<HD3>18(b)(3)(ii) Disclosure of Variable Periodic Fee
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<P>1. <I>Periodic fee variation alternative.</I> If the amount of the periodic fee disclosed in the short form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) could vary, a financial institution has two alternatives for disclosing the variation, as set forth in § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) and (ii). For example, a financial institution charges a monthly fee of $4.95, but waives this fee if a consumer receives direct deposit into the prepaid account or conducts 30 or more transactions during that month. Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(ii), the financial institution could list its monthly fee of $4.95 on the short form disclosure followed by a dagger symbol that links to a statement that states, for example, “No monthly fee with direct deposit or 30 transactions per month.” This statement may take up no more than one line of text in the short form disclosure and must be located directly above or in place of the linked statement required by § 1005.18(b)(3)(i). Alternatively, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(i), the financial institution could list its monthly fee of $4.95 on the short form disclosure followed by an asterisk that links to a statement that states, “This fee can be lower depending on how and where this card is used.”
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<HD3>18(b)(3)(iii) Single Disclosure for Like Fees
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<P>1. <I>Alternative for two-tier fees in the short form disclosure.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(iii), a financial institution may opt to disclose one fee instead of the two fees required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii), (v), and (vi) and any two-tier fee required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(ix), when the amount is the same for both fees. The following examples illustrate how to provide a single disclosure for like fees on both the short form disclosure and the multiple service plan short form disclosure:
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<P>i. A financial institution charges $1 for both in-network and out-of-network automated teller machine withdrawals in the United States. The financial institution may list the $1 fee once under the general heading “ATM withdrawal” required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii); in that case, it need not disclose the terms “in-network” or “out-of-network.”
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<P>ii. A financial institution using the multiple service plan short form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) charges $1 under each of its service plans for both in-network and out-of-network automated teller machine withdrawals in the United States. The financial institution may disclose the ATM withdrawal fee on one line, instead of two, using the general heading “ATM withdrawal” required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iii); in that case, it need not disclose the terms “in-network” or “out-of-network.”
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<HD3>18(b)(3)(iv) Third-Party Fees in General
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<P>1. <I>General prohibition on disclosure of third-party fees in the short form.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(3)(iv) states that a financial institution may not include any third-party fees in a disclosure made pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2), except for, as provided by § 1005.18(b)(3)(v), the cash reload fee required to be disclosed by § 1005.18(b)(2)(iv). Fees imposed by another party, such as a program manager, for services performed on behalf of the financial institution are not third-party fees and therefore must be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(3)(iv). For example, if a program manager performs customer service functions for a financial institution's prepaid account program, and charges a fee for live agent customer service, that fee must be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(iv).
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<HD3>18(b)(3)(v) Third-Party Cash Reload Fees
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<P>1. <I>Updating third-party fees.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(3)(v) provides that a financial institution is not required to revise its short form disclosure to reflect a cash reload fee change by a third party until such time that the financial institution manufactures, prints, or otherwise produces new prepaid account packaging materials or otherwise updates the short form disclosure. For example, at the time a financial institution first prints packaging material for its prepaid account program, it discloses on the short form the $3.99 fee charged by the third-party reload network with which it contracts to provide cash reloads. Ten months later, the third-party reload network raises its cash reload fee to $4.25. The financial institution is not required to update its on-package disclosures to reflect the change in the cash reload fee until the financial institution next prints packaging materials for that prepaid account program. With respect to that financial institution's electronic and oral disclosures for that prepaid account program, the financial institution may, but is not required to, update its short form disclosure immediately upon learning of the third-party reload network's change to its cash reload fee. Alternatively, the financial institution may wait to update its electronic and oral short form disclosures to reflect the change in the cash reload fee until it otherwise updates those disclosures.
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<HD3>18(b)(3)(vi) Prohibition on Disclosure of Finance Charges
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<P>1. <I>No disclosure of finance charges in the short form.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(3)(vi) provides that a financial institution may not include in a disclosure made pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (ix) any finance charges as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11), imposed in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61. If a financial institution imposes a higher fee or charge on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card than the amount of a comparable fee or charge it imposes on any prepaid account in the same prepaid account program that does not have such a credit feature, it must disclose on the short form for purposes of § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (ix) the amount of the comparable fee rather than the higher fee. <I>See, e.g.,</I> § 1005.18(g)(2) and related commentary.


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<HD3>18(b)(4) Long Form Disclosure Content
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<HD3>18(b)(4)(ii) Fees
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<P>1. <I>Disclosure of all fees.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) requires a financial institution to disclose in the long form all fees that may be imposed in connection with a prepaid account, not just fees for electronic fund transfers or the right to make transfers. The requirement to disclose all fees in the long form includes any finance charges imposed on the prepaid account as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61 but does not include finance charges imposed on the covered separate credit feature as described in 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(i). See comment 18(b)(7)(i)(B)-2 for guidance on disclosure of finance charges as part of the § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) fee disclosure in the long form. A financial institution may also be required to include finance charges in the Regulation Z disclosures required pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(vii).
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<P>2. <I>Disclosure of conditions.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) requires a financial institution to disclose the amount of each fee and the conditions, if any, under which the fee may be imposed, waived, or reduced. For example, if a financial institution charges a cash reload fee, the financial institution must list the amount of the cash reload fee and also specify any circumstances under which a consumer can qualify for a lower fee. Similarly, if a financial institution discloses both a periodic fee and an inactivity fee, it must indicate whether the inactivity fee will be charged in addition to, or instead of, the periodic fee. A financial institution may, but is not required to, also include on the long form disclosure additional information or limitations related to the service or feature for which a fee is charged, such as, for cash reloads, any limit on the amount of cash a consumer may load into the prepaid account in a single transaction or during a particular time period. The general requirement in § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) does not apply to individual fee waivers or reductions granted to a particular consumer or group of consumers on a discretionary or case-by-case basis.
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<P>3. <I>Disclosure of a service or feature without a charge.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii), a financial institution may, but is not required to, list in the long form disclosure any service or feature it provides or offers at no charge to the consumer. For example, a financial institution may list “online bill pay” in its long form disclosure and indicate a fee amount of “$0” when the financial institution does not charge consumers a fee for that feature. By contrast, where a fee is waived or reduced under certain circumstances or where a service or feature is available for an introductory period without a fee, the financial institution may not list the fee amount as “$0”. Rather, the financial institution must list the highest fee, accompanied by an explanation of the waived or reduced fee amount and any conditions for the waiver or discount. For example, if a financial institution waives its monthly fee for any consumer who receives direct deposit payments into the prepaid account or conducts 30 or more transactions in a given month, the long form disclosure must list the regular monthly fee amount along with an explanation that the monthly fee is waived if the consumer receives direct deposit or conducts 30 or more transactions each month. Similarly, for an introductory fee, the financial institution would list the highest fee, and explain the introductory fee amount, the duration of the introductory period, and any conditions that apply during the introductory period.
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<P>4. <I>Third-party fees.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) requires disclosure in the long form of any third-party fee amounts known to the financial institution that may apply. Fees imposed by another party, such as a program manager, for services performed on behalf of the financial institution are not third-party fees and therefore must be disclosed on the long form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii). Also pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii), for any third-party fee disclosed, a financial institution may, but is not required to, include either or both a statement that the fee is accurate as of or through a specific date or that the third-party fee is subject to change. For example, a financial institution that contracts with a third-party remote deposit capture service must include in the long form disclosure the amount of the fee known to the financial institution that is charged by the third party for remote deposit capture services. The financial institution may, but is not required to, also state that the third-party remote deposit capture fee is accurate as of or through a specific date, such as the date the financial institution prints the long form disclosure. The financial institution may also state that the fee is subject to change. Section 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) also provides that, if a third-party fee may apply but the amount of the fee is not known by the financial institution, it must include a statement indicating that a third-party fee may apply without specifying the fee amount. For example, a financial institution that permits out-of-network ATM withdrawals would disclose that, for ATM withdrawals that occur outside the financial institution's network, the ATM operator may charge the consumer a fee for the withdrawal, but the financial institution is not required to disclose the out-of-network ATM operator's fee amount if it does not know the amount of the fee.
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(4)(iii) Statement Regarding Registration and FDIC or NCUA Insurance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Statement regarding registration and FDIC or NCUA insurance, including implications thereof.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(4)(iii) requires that the long form disclosure include the same statement regarding prepaid account registration and FDIC or NCUA insurance eligibility required by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xi) in the short form disclosure, together with an explanation of FDIC or NCUA insurance coverage and the benefit of such coverage or the consequence of the lack of such coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Bank disclosure of FDIC insurance.</I> For example, XYZ Bank offers a prepaid account program for sale at retail locations that is set up to be eligible for FDIC deposit insurance, but does not conduct consumer identification and verification before consumers purchase the prepaid account. XYZ Bank may disclose the required statements as “Register your card for FDIC insurance eligibility and other protections. Your funds will be held at or transferred to XYZ Bank, an FDIC-insured institution. Once there, your funds are insured up to $250,000 by the FDIC in the event XYZ Bank fails, if specific deposit insurance requirements are met and your card is registered. See <I>fdic.gov/deposit/deposits/prepaid.html</I> for details.” Conversely, if XYZ Bank offers another prepaid account program for sale at retail locations for which it conducts consumer identification and verification after purchase of the prepaid account, but the program is not set up to be eligible for FDIC insurance, XYZ Bank may disclose the required statements as “Not FDIC insured. Your funds will be held at or transferred to XYZ Bank. If XYZ Bank fails, you are not protected by FDIC deposit insurance and could lose some or all of your money. Register your card for other protections.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Credit union disclosure of NCUA insurance.</I> For example, ABC Credit Union offers a prepaid account program for sale at its own branches that is set up to be eligible for NCUA share insurance, but does not conduct consumer identification and verification before consumers purchase the prepaid account. ABC Credit Union may disclose the requirement statements as “Register your card for NCUA insurance, if eligible, and other protections. Your funds will be held at or transferred to ABC Credit Union, an NCUA-insured institution. Once there, if specific share insurance requirements are met and your card is registered, your funds are insured up to $250,000 by the NCUA in the event ABC Credit Union fails.” See comment 18(b)(2)(xi)-1 for guidance as to when NCUA insurance coverage should be disclosed instead of FDIC insurance coverage.
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(4)(vii) Regulation Z Disclosures for Overdraft Credit Features
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Long form Regulation Z disclosure of overdraft credit features.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(4)(vii) requires that the long form include the disclosures described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.60(e)(1), in accordance with the requirements for such disclosures in 12 CFR 1026.60, if, at any point, a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, may be offered to a consumer in connection with the prepaid account. If the financial institution includes the disclosures described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.60(e)(1), pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(7)(i)(B), such disclosures must appear below the statements required by § 1005.18(b)(4)(vi). If the disclosures provided pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.60(e)(1), are provided in writing, these disclosures must be provided in the form required by 12 CFR 1026.60(a)(2), and to the extent possible, on the same page as the other disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(4).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Updates to the long form for changes to the Regulation Z disclosures.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(vii), a financial institution is not required to revise the disclosure required by that paragraph to reflect a change in the fees or other terms disclosed therein until such time as the financial institution manufactures, prints, or otherwise produces new prepaid account packaging materials or otherwise updates the long form disclosure. This exception does not extend to any finance charges imposed on the prepaid account as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61 that are required to be disclosed on the long form pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 18(b)(4)(ii)-1.
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<HD3>18(b)(5) Disclosure Requirements Outside the Short Form Disclosure
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content of disclosure.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(5) requires that the name of the financial institution, the name of the prepaid account program, and any purchase price or activation fee for the prepaid account be disclosed outside the short form disclosure. A financial institution may, but is not required to, also disclose the name of the program manager or other service provider involved in the prepaid account program.
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<P>2. <I>Location of disclosure.</I> In addition to setting forth the required content for disclosures outside the short form disclosure, § 1005.18(b)(5) requires that, in a setting other than a retail location, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5) must be disclosed in close proximity to the short form. For example, if the financial institution provides the short form disclosure online, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5) is deemed disclosed in close proximity to the short form if it appears on the same web page as the short form disclosure. If the financial institution offers the prepaid account in its own branch locations and provides the short form disclosure on the exterior of its preprinted packaging materials, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5) is deemed disclosed in close proximity to the short form disclosure if it appears on the exterior of the packaging. If the financial institution provides a written short form disclosure in a manner other than on preprinted packaging materials, such as on paper, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5) is deemed disclosed in close proximity if it appears on the same piece of paper as the short form disclosure. If the financial institution provides the short form disclosure orally, the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5) is deemed disclosed in close proximity to the short form disclosure if it is provided immediately before or after disclosing the fees and information required pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2). For prepaid accounts sold in a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), § 1005.18(b)(5) requires the information other than purchase price be disclosed on the exterior of the access device's packaging material. If the purchase price, if any, is not also disclosed on the exterior of the packaging, disclosure of the purchase price on or near the sales rack or display for the packaging material is deemed in close proximity to the access device's packaging material.


</P>
<HD3>18(b)(6) Form of Pre-Acquisition Disclosures


</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(i) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written pre-acquisition disclosures.</I> If a financial institution provides the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) in written form prior to acquisition pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(i), they need not also be provided electronically or orally. For example, an employer distributes to new employees printed copies of the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) for a payroll card account, together with instructions to complete the payroll card account acquisition process online if the employee wishes to be paid via a payroll card account. The financial institution is not required to provide the § 1005.18(b) disclosures electronically via the website because the consumer has already received the disclosures pre-acquisition in written form.
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(i)(B) Electronic Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Providing pre-acquisition disclosures electronically.</I> Unless provided in written form prior to acquisition pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(i), § 1005.18(b)(6)(i)(B) requires electronic delivery of the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) when a consumer acquires a prepaid account through electronic means, including via a website or mobile application, and, among other things, in a manner which is reasonably expected to be accessible in light of how a consumer is acquiring the prepaid account. For example, if a consumer is acquiring a prepaid account via a website or mobile application, it would be reasonable to expect that a consumer would be able to access the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) on the first page or via a direct link from the first page of the website or mobile application or on the first page that discloses the details about the specific prepaid account program. See comment 18(b)(1)(i)-2 for additional guidance on placement of the short form and long form disclosures on a web page.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosures responsive to smaller screens.</I> In accordance with the requirement in § 1005.18(b)(6)(i)(B) that electronic disclosures be provided in a responsive form, electronic disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.18(b) must be provided in a way that responds to different screen sizes, for example, by stacking elements of the disclosures in a manner that accommodates consumer viewing on smaller screens, while still meeting the other formatting requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b)(7). For example, the disclosures permitted by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(B) or (b)(3)(ii) must take up no more than one additional line of text in the short form disclosure. If a consumer is acquiring a prepaid account using a mobile device with a screen too small to accommodate these disclosures on one line of text in accordance with the size requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b)(7)(ii)(B), a financial institution is permitted to display the disclosures permitted by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiv)(B) and (b)(3)(ii), for example, by stacking those disclosures in a way that responds to smaller screen sizes, while still meeting the other formatting requirements in § 1005.18(b)(7).
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<P>3. <I>Machine-readable text.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(6)(i)(B) requires that electronic disclosures must be provided using machine-readable text that is accessible via both Web browsers (or mobile applications, as applicable) and screen readers. A disclosure would not be deemed to comply with this requirement if it was not provided in a form that can be read automatically by internet search engines or other computer systems.
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<HD3>18(b)(6)(i)(C) Oral Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures for prepaid accounts acquired by telephone.</I> Unless it provides disclosures in written form prior to acquisition pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(i), a financial institution must disclose the information required by § 1005.18(b)(2) and (5) orally before a consumer acquires a prepaid account orally by telephone pursuant to the exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(iii). A financial institution may, for example, provide these disclosures by using an interactive voice response or similar system or by using a customer service agent, after the consumer has initiated the purchase of a prepaid account by telephone, but before the consumer acquires the prepaid account. In addition, a financial institution must provide the initial disclosures required by § 1005.7, as modified by § 1005.18(f)(1), before the first electronic fund transfer is made involving the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(ii) Retainable Form
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Retainable disclosures.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(6)(ii) requires that, except for disclosures provided orally pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii) or (iii), long form disclosures provided via SMS as permitted by § 1005.18(b)(2)(xiii) for a prepaid account sold at retail locations pursuant to the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), and the disclosure of a purchase price pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(5) that is not disclosed on the exterior of the packaging material for a prepaid account sold at a retail location pursuant to the retail location exception in § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii), disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.18(b) must be made in a form that a consumer may keep. For example, a short form disclosure with a tear strip running though it would not be deemed retainable because use of the tear strip to gain access to the prepaid account access device inside the packaging would destroy part of the short form disclosure. Electronic disclosures are deemed retainable if the consumer is able to print, save, and email the disclosures from the Web site or mobile application on which they are displayed.
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<HD3>18(b)(6)(iii) Tabular Format
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(iii)(B) Multiple Service Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(1) Short Form Disclosure for Default Service Plan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of default service plan excludes short-term or promotional service plans.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) provides that when a financial institution offers multiple service plans within a particular prepaid account program and each plan has a different fee schedule, the information required by final § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (ix) may be provided in the tabular format described in final § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(A) for the service plan in which a consumer is initially enrolled by default upon acquiring a prepaid account. Pursuant to the requirement in § 1005.18(b)(3)(i) to disclose the highest amount a financial institution may impose for a fee disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2)(i) through (vii) and (ix), a financial institution would not be permitted to disclose any short-term or promotional service plans as a default service plan.
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(2) Short Form Disclosure for Multiple Service Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of multiple service plans.</I> The multiple service plan disclosure requirements in § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>) apply when a financial institution offers more than one service plan within a particular prepaid account program, each plan has a different fee schedule, and the financial institution opts not to disclose the default service plan pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>). <I>See</I> Model Form A-10(e). For example, a financial institution that offers a prepaid account program with one service plan for which a consumer pays no periodic fee but instead pays a fee for each transaction, and another plan that includes a monthly fee but no per transaction fee may use the short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>). Similarly, a financial institution that offers a prepaid account program with preferred rates or fees for the prepaid accounts of consumers who also use another non-prepaid service (<I>e.g.,</I> a mobile phone service), often referred to as “loyalty plans,” may also use the short form disclosure for multiple service plans pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(6)(iii)(B)(<I>2</I>). Pricing variations based on whether a consumer elects to use a specific feature of a prepaid account, such as waiver of the monthly fee for consumers electing to receive direct deposit, does not constitute multiple service plans or a loyalty plan. See comment 18(b)(3)(iii)-1.ii for guidance on providing a single disclosure for like fees for multiple service plan short form disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(7) Specific Formatting Requirements for Pre-Acquisition Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(7)(i) Grouping
</HD3>
<HD3>18(b)(7)(i)(B) Long Form Disclosure
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Conditions must be in close proximity to fee amount.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii), the long form disclosure generally must disclose all fees that may be imposed in connection with a prepaid account, including the amount of the fee and any conditions under which the fee may be imposed, waived, or reduced. Pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(7)(i)(B), text describing the conditions under which a fee may be imposed must appear in the table in the long form disclosure in close proximity to the fee amount disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii). For example, a financial institution is deemed to comply with this requirement if the text describing the conditions is located directly to the right of the fee amount in the long form disclosure, as illustrated in Sample Form A-10(f). See comment 18(b)(6)(i)(B)-2 regarding stacking of electronic disclosures for display on smaller screen sizes.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Category of function for finance charges.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(7)(i)(B) requires that the information required by § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) must be generally grouped together and organized under subheadings by the categories of function for which a financial institution may impose the fee. If any finance charges may be imposed on the prepaid account as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61, the financial institution may, but is not required to, group all finance charges together under a single subheading. This includes situations where the financial institution imposes a higher fee or charge on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card than the amount of a comparable fee or charge it imposes on any prepaid account in the same prepaid account program that does not have such a credit feature. For example, if a financial institution charges on the prepaid account a $0.50 per transaction fee for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account and a $1.25 per transaction fee for each transaction where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction, the financial institution is permitted to disclose the $0.50 per transaction fee under a general transactional subheading and disclose the additional $0.75 per transaction fee under a separate subheading together with any other finance charges that may be imposed on the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>18(b)(7)(ii) Prominence and Size
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Minimum type size.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(7)(ii) sets forth minimum point/pixel size requirements for each element of the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(2), (b)(3)(i) and (ii), and (b)(4). A financial institution may provide disclosures in a type size larger than the required minimum to enhance consumer comprehension in any acquisition scenario, as long as the financial institution complies with the point/pixel size hierarchy set forth in § 1005.18(b)(7)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. “<I>Point” refers to printed disclosures and</I> “<I>pixel” refers to electronic disclosures.</I> References in § 1005.18(b)(7)(ii) to “point” size correspond to printed disclosures and references to “pixel” size correspond to disclosures provided via electronic means.
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<HD3>18(b)(7)(ii)(A) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Contrast required between type color and background of disclosures.</I> Section § 1005.18(b)(7)(ii)(A) requires that all text used to disclose information in the short form or in the long form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(2), (b)(3)(i) and (ii), and (b)(4) must be in a single, easy-to-read type that is all black or one color and printed on a background that provides a clear contrast. A financial institution complies with the color requirements if, for example, it provides the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(2), (b)(3)(i) and (ii), and (b)(4) printed in black type on a white background or white type on a black background. Also, pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(7)(ii)(A), the type and color may differ between the short form disclosure and the long form disclosure provided for a particular prepaid account program. For example, a financial institution may use one font/type style for the short form disclosure for a particular prepaid account program and use a different font/type style for the long form disclosure for that same prepaid account program. Similarly, a financial institution may use black type for the short form disclosure for a particular prepaid account program and use blue type for the long form disclosure for that same prepaid account program.


</P>
<HD3>18(b)(7)(iii) Segregation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Permitted information outside the short form and long form disclosures.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(7)(iii) requires that the short form and long form disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(2) and (4) be segregated from other information and contain only information that is required or permitted for those disclosures by § 1005.18(b). This segregation requirement does not prohibit the financial institution from providing information elsewhere on the same page as the short form disclosure, such as the information required by § 1005.18(b)(5), additional disclosures required by state law for payroll card accounts, or any other information the financial institution wishes to provide about the prepaid account. Similarly, the segregation requirement does not prohibit a financial institution from providing the long form disclosure on the same page as other disclosures or information, or as part of a larger document, such as the prepaid account agreement. <I>See also</I> § 1005.18(b)(1) and (f)(1).
</P>
<HD3>18(b)(8) Terminology of Pre-Acquisition Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consistent terminology.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(8) requires that fee names and other terms be used consistently within and across the disclosures required by § 1005.18(b). For example, a financial institution may not name the fee required to be disclosed by § 1005.18(b)(2)(vii) an “inactivity fee” in the short form disclosure and a “dormancy fee” in the long form disclosure. However, a financial institution may substitute the term prepaid “account” for the term prepaid “card,” as appropriate, wherever it is used in § 1005.18(b).


</P>
<HD3>18(b)(9) Prepaid Accounts Acquired in Foreign Languages
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid accounts acquired in foreign languages.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(9)(i) requires a financial institution to provide the pre-acquisition disclosures required by § 1005.18(b) in a foreign language in certain circumstances.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples of situations in which foreign language disclosures are required.</I> The following examples illustrate situations in which a financial institution must provide the pre-acquisition disclosures in a foreign language in connection with the acquisition of that prepaid account:
</P>
<P>A. The financial institution principally uses a foreign language on the packaging material of a prepaid account sold in a retail location or distributed at a bank or credit union branch, even though a few words appear in English on the packaging.
</P>
<P>B. The financial institution principally uses a foreign language in a television advertisement for a prepaid account. That advertisement includes a telephone number a consumer can call to acquire the prepaid account, whether by speaking to a customer service representative or interacting with an interactive voice response (IVR) system.
</P>
<P>C. The financial institution principally uses a foreign language in an online advertisement for a prepaid account. That advertisement includes a website URL through which a consumer can acquire the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>D. The financial institution principally uses a foreign language on a printed advertisement for a prepaid account. That advertisement includes a telephone number or a website URL a consumer can call or visit to acquire the prepaid account. The pre-acquisition disclosures must be provided to the consumer in that same foreign language prior to the consumer acquiring the prepaid account.
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<P>E. The financial institution does not principally use a foreign language on prepaid account packaging material nor does it principally use a foreign language to advertise, solicit, or market a prepaid account. A consumer calls the financial institution and has the option to proceed with the prepaid account acquisition process in a foreign language, whether by speaking to a customer service representative or interacting with an IVR system. (But see § 1005.18(b)(9)(i)(C), which limits the obligation to provide foreign language disclosures for payroll card accounts and government benefit accounts acquired orally by telephone in certain circumstances.)
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<P>F. The financial institution does not principally use a foreign language on prepaid account packaging material nor does it principally use a foreign language to advertise, solicit, or market a prepaid account. A consumer visits the financial institution's website. On that website, the consumer has the option to proceed with the prepaid account acquisition process in a foreign language.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples of situations in which foreign language disclosures are not required.</I> The following examples illustrate situations in which a financial institution is not required to provide the pre-acquisition disclosures in a foreign language:
</P>
<P>A. A consumer visits the financial institution's branch location in person and speaks to an employee in a foreign language about acquiring a prepaid account. The consumer proceeds with the acquisition process in that foreign language.
</P>
<P>B. The financial institution does not principally use a foreign language on prepaid account packaging material nor does it principally use a foreign language to advertise, solicit, or market a prepaid account. A consumer calls the financial institution's customer service line and speaks to a customer service representative in a foreign language. However, if the customer service representative proceeds with the prepaid account acquisition process over the telephone, the financial institution would be required to provide the pre-acquisition disclosures in that foreign language. (But see § 1005.18(b)(9)(i)(C), which limits the obligation to provide foreign language disclosures for payroll card accounts and government benefit accounts acquired orally by telephone in certain circumstances.)
</P>
<P>C. The financial institution principally uses a foreign language in an advertisement for a prepaid account. That advertisement includes a telephone number a consumer can call to acquire the prepaid account. The consumer calls the telephone number provided on the advertisement and has the option to proceed with the prepaid account acquisition process in English or in a foreign language. The consumer chooses to proceed with the acquisition process in English.
</P>
<P>D. A consumer calls a government agency to enroll in a government benefits program. The government agency does not offer through its telephone system an option for consumers to proceed in a foreign language. An employee of the government agency assists the consumer with the enrollment process, including helping the consumer acquire a government benefits account. The employee also happens to speak the foreign language in which the consumer is most comfortable communicating, and chooses to communicate with the consumer in that language to facilitate the enrollment process. In this case, the employee offered language interpretation assistance on an informal or ad hoc basis to accommodate the prospective government benefits account holder.
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<P>2. <I>Principally used.</I> All relevant facts and circumstances determine whether a foreign language is principally used by the financial institution to advertise, solicit, or market under § 1005.18(b)(9). Whether a foreign language is principally used is determined at the packaging material, advertisement, solicitation, or marketing communication level, not at the prepaid account program level or across the financial institution's activities as a whole. A financial institution that advertises a prepaid account program in multiple languages would evaluate its use of foreign language in each advertisement to determine whether it has principally used a foreign language therein.
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<P>3. <I>Advertise, solicit, or market a prepaid account.</I> Any commercial message, appearing in any medium, that promotes directly or indirectly the availability of prepaid accounts constitutes advertising, soliciting, or marketing for purposes of § 1005.18(b)(9). Examples illustrating advertising, soliciting, or marketing include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Messages in a leaflet, promotional flyer, newspaper, or magazine.
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<P>ii. Electronic messages, such as on a website or mobile application.
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<P>iii. Telephone solicitations.
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<P>iv. Solicitations sent to the consumer by mail or email.
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<P>v. Television or radio commercials.
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<P>4. <I>Information in the long form disclosure in English.</I> Section 1005.18(b)(9)(ii) states that a financial institution required to provide pre-acquisition disclosures in a foreign language pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(9)(i) must also provide the information required to be disclosed in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4) in English upon a consumer's request and on any part of the website where it discloses this information in a foreign language. A financial institution may, but is not required to, provide the English version of the information required by § 1005.18(b)(4) in accordance with the formatting, grouping, size and other requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b) for the long form disclosure.
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<HD3>18(c) Access to Prepaid Account Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Posted transactions.</I> The electronic and written history of the consumer's account transactions provided under § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) and (iii), respectively, shall reflect transfers once they have been posted to the account. Thus, a financial institution does not need to include transactions that have been authorized but that have not yet posted to the account.
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<P>2. <I>Electronic history.</I> The electronic history required under § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) must be made available in a form that the consumer may keep, as required under § 1005.4(a)(1). Financial institutions may satisfy this requirement if they make the electronic history available in a format that is capable of being retained. For example, a financial institution satisfies the requirement if it provides electronic history on a website in a format that is capable of being printed or stored electronically using a web browser.
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<P>3. <I>Written history.</I> Requests that exceed the requirements of § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) for providing written account transaction history, and which therefore a financial institution may charge a fee, include the following:
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<P>i. A financial institution may assess a fee or charge to a consumer for responding to subsequent requests for written account transaction history made in a single calendar month. For example, if a consumer requests written account transaction history on June 1 and makes another request on August 5, the financial institution may not assess a fee or charge to the consumer for responding to either request. However, if the consumer requests written account transaction history on June 1 and then makes another request on June 15, the financial institution may assess a fee or charge to the consumer for responding to the request made on June 15, as this is the second response in the same month.
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<P>ii. If a financial institution maintains more than 24 months of written account transaction history, it may assess a fee or charge to the consumer for providing a written history for transactions occurring more than 24 months preceding the date the financial institution receives the consumer's request, provided the consumer specifically requests the written account transaction history for that time period.
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<P>iii. If a financial institution offers a consumer the ability to request automatic mailings of written account transaction history on a monthly or other periodic basis, it may assess a fee or charge for such automatic mailings but not for the written account transaction history requested pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii). <I>See</I> comment 18(c)-6.
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<P>4. <I>12 months of electronic account transaction history.</I> Section 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) requires a financial institution to make available at least 12 months of account transaction history electronically. If a prepaid account has been opened for fewer than 12 months, the financial institution need only provide electronic account transaction history pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) since the time of account opening. If a prepaid account is closed or becomes inactive, as defined by the financial institution, the financial institution need not make available electronic account transaction history. <I>See</I> comment 9(b)-3. If an inactive account becomes active, the financial institution must again make available 12 months of electronic account transaction history.
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<P>5. <I>24 months of written account transaction history.</I> Section 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) requires a financial institution to provide at least 24 months of account transaction history in writing upon the consumer's request. A financial institution may provide fewer than 24 months of written account transaction history if the consumer requests a shorter period of time. If a prepaid account has been opened for fewer than 24 months, the financial institution need only provide written account transaction history pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) since the time of account opening. Even if a prepaid account is closed or becomes inactive, the financial institution must continue to provide upon request at least 24 months of written account transaction history preceding the date the request is received. When a prepaid account has been closed or inactive for 24 months or longer, the financial institution is no longer required to provide any written account transaction history pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii).
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<P>6. <I>Periodic statement alternative for unverified prepaid accounts.</I> For prepaid accounts that are not payroll card accounts or government benefit accounts, a financial institution is not required to provide a written history of the consumer's account transactions for any prepaid account for which the financial institution has not completed its consumer identification and verification process as described in § 1005.18(e)(3)(ii)(A) through (C). If a prepaid account is verified, a financial institution must provide written account transaction history upon the consumer's request that includes the period during which the account was not verified, provided that the period is within the 24-month time frame specified in § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii).
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<P>7. <I>Inclusion of all fees charged.</I> A financial institution that furnishes a periodic statement pursuant to § 1005.9(b) for a prepaid account must disclose the amount of any fees assessed against the account, whether for electronic fund transfers or otherwise, on the periodic statement as well as on any electronic or written account transaction history the financial institution makes available or provides to the consumer. For example, if a financial institution sends periodic statements and also makes available the consumer's electronic account transaction history on its website, the financial institution must disclose the amount of any fees assessed against the account, whether for electronic fund transfers or otherwise, on the periodic statement and on the consumer's electronic account transaction history made available on its website. Likewise, a financial institution that follows the periodic statement alternative in § 1005.18(c)(1) must disclose the amount of any fees assessed against the account, whether for electronic fund transfers or otherwise, on the electronic history of the consumer's account transactions made available pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) and any written history of the consumer's account transactions provided pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii).
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<P>8. <I>Summary totals of fees.</I> Section 1005.18(c)(5) requires a financial institution to disclose a summary total of the amount of all fees assessed by the financial institution against a prepaid account for the prior calendar month and for the calendar year to date.
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<P>i. <I>Generally.</I> A financial institution that furnishes a periodic statement pursuant to § 1005.9(b) for a prepaid account must display the monthly and annual fee totals on the periodic statement as well as on any electronic or written account transaction history the financial institution makes available or provides to the consumer. For example, if a financial institution sends periodic statements and also makes available the consumer's electronic account transaction history on its website, the financial institution must display the monthly and annual fee totals on the periodic statement and on the consumer's electronic account transaction history made available on its website. Likewise, a financial institution that follows the periodic statement alternative in § 1005.18(c)(1) must display the monthly and annual fee totals on the electronic history of the consumer's account transactions made available pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) and any written history of the consumer's account transactions provided pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii). If a financial institution provides periodic statements pursuant to § 1005.9(b), fee totals may be disclosed for each statement period rather than each calendar month, if different. The summary totals of fees should be net of any fee reversals.
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<P>ii. <I>Third-party fees.</I> A financial institution may, but is not required to, include third-party fees in its summary totals of fees provided pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(5). For example, a financial institution must include in the summary totals of fees the fee it charges a consumer for using an out-of-network ATM, but it need not include any fee charged by an ATM operator, with whom the financial institution has no relationship, for the consumer's use of that operator's ATM. Similarly, a financial institution need not include in the summary totals of fees the fee charged by a third-party reload network for the service of adding cash to a prepaid account at a point-of-sale terminal. A financial institution may, but is not required to, inform consumers of third-party fees such as by providing a disclaimer to indicate that the summary totals do not include certain third-party fees or to explain when third-party fees may occur or through some other method.
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<P>9. <I>Display of summary totals of fees.</I> A financial institution may, but is not required to, also include sub-totals of the types of fees that make up the summary totals of fees as required by § 1005.18(c)(5). For example, if a financial institution distinguishes optional fees (<I>e.g.,</I> custom card design fees) from fees to use the account, in displaying the summary totals of fees, the financial institution may include sub-totals of those fees, provided the financial institution also presents the combined totals of all fees.
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<HD3>18(e) Modified Limitations on Liability and Error Resolution Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Error resolution safe harbor provision.</I> Institutions that choose to investigate notices of error provided up to 120 days from the date a transaction has posted to a consumer's account may still disclose the error resolution time period required by the regulation (as set forth in the model clause in paragraph (b) of appendix A-7 of this part). Specifically, an institution may disclose to prepaid account holders that the institution will investigate any notice of error provided within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history upon request that reflects the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution investigates any notice of error provided up to 120 days from the date that the transaction alleged to be in error has posted to the consumer's account. Similarly, an institution's summary of the consumer's liability (as required under § 1005.7(b)(1)) may disclose that liability is based on the consumer providing notice of error within 60 days of the consumer electronically accessing an account or receiving a written history reflecting the error, even if, for some or all transactions, the institution allows a consumer to assert a notice of error up to 120 days from the date of posting of the alleged error.
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<P>2. <I>Electronic access.</I> A consumer is deemed to have accessed a prepaid account electronically when the consumer enters a user identification code or password or otherwise complies with a security procedure used by an institution to verify the consumer's identity and to provide access to a website or mobile application through which account information can be viewed. An institution is not required to determine whether a consumer has in fact accessed information about specific transactions to trigger the beginning of the 60-day periods for liability limits and error resolution under §§ 1005.6 and 1005.11. A consumer is not deemed to have accessed a prepaid account electronically when the consumer receives an automated text message or other automated account alert, or checks the account balance by telephone.
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<P>3. <I>Untimely notice of error.</I> An institution that provides a transaction history under § 1005.18(c)(1) is not required to comply with the requirements of § 1005.11 for any notice of error from the consumer received more than 60 days after the earlier of the date the consumer electronically accesses the account transaction history or the date the financial institution sends a written account transaction history upon the consumer's request. (Alternatively, as provided in § 1005.18(e)(2)(ii), an institution need not comply with the requirements of § 1005.11 with respect to any notice of error received from the consumer more than 120 days after the date of posting of the transfer allegedly in error.) Where the consumer's assertion of error involves an unauthorized EFT, however, the institution must comply with § 1005.6 (including the extension of time limits in § 1005.6(b)(4)) before it may impose any liability on the consumer.
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<P>4. <I>Verification of accounts.</I> Section 1005.18(e)(3)(i) provides that for prepaid accounts that are not payroll card accounts or government benefit accounts, a financial institution is not required to comply with the liability limits and error resolution requirements in §§ 1005.6 and 1005.11 for any prepaid account for which it has not successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process. Consumer identifying information may include the consumer's full name, address, date of birth, and Social Security number or other government-issued identification number. Section 1005.18(e)(3)(iii) provides that once a financial institution successfully completes its consumer identification and verification process with respect to a prepaid account, the financial institution must limit the consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers and resolve errors that occur following verification in accordance with § 1005.6 or § 1005.11, or the modified timing requirements in § 1005.18(e), as applicable. A financial institution is not required to limit a consumer's liability for unauthorized transfers or resolve errors that occur prior to the financial institution's successful completion of its consumer identification and verification process with respect to a prepaid account.
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<P>5. <I>Financial institution has not successfully completed verification.</I> Section 1005.18(e)(3)(ii)(A) states that, provided it discloses to the consumer the risks of not registering and verifying a prepaid account, a financial institution has not successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process where it has not concluded the process with respect to a particular prepaid account. For example, a financial institution initiates its consumer identification and verification process by collecting identifying information about a consumer, and attempts to verify the consumer's identity. The financial institution is unable to conclude the process because of conflicting information about the consumer's current address. The financial institution informs the consumer about the nature of the information at issue and requests additional documentation, but the consumer does not provide the requested documentation. As long as the information needed to complete the verification process remains outstanding, the financial institution has not concluded its consumer identification and verification process with respect to that consumer. A financial institution may not delay completing its consumer identification and verification process or refuse to verify a consumer's identity based on the consumer's assertion of an error.
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<P>6. <I>Account verification prior to acquisition.</I> A financial institution that collects and verifies consumer identifying information, or that obtains such information after it has been collected and verified by a third party, prior to or as part of the account acquisition process, is deemed to have successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process with respect to that account. For example, a university contracts with a financial institution to disburse financial aid to students via the financial institution's prepaid accounts. To facilitate the accurate disbursal of aid awards, the university provides the financial institution with identifying information about the university's students, whose identities the university had previously verified. The financial institution is deemed to have successfully completed its consumer identification and verification process with respect to those accounts.


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<HD3>18(f) Disclosure of Fees and Other Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Initial disclosure of fees and other information.</I> Section 1005.18(f)(1) requires a financial institution to include, as part of the initial disclosures given pursuant to § 1005.7, all of the information required to be disclosed in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4). Section 1005.18(b)(4)(ii) requires a financial institution to disclose in its pre-acquisition long form disclosure all fees imposed in connection with a prepaid account. Section 1005.18(b)(4) also contains several specific statements that must be provided as part of the long form disclosure. A financial institution may, but is not required to, disclose the information required by § 1005.18(b)(4) in accordance with the formatting, grouping, size and other requirements set forth in § 1005.18(b) for the long form disclosure as part of its initial disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.7; a financial institution may choose to do so, however, in order to satisfy other requirements in § 1005.18. See, <I>e.g.,</I> § 1005.18(b)(1)(ii) regarding the retail location exception.
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<P>2. <I>Changes to the Regulation Z disclosures for overdraft credit features.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.18(f)(2), if a financial institution provides pursuant § 1005.18(f)(1) the Regulation Z disclosures required by § 1005.18(b)(4)(vii) for an overdraft credit feature, the financial institution is not required to provide a change-in-terms notice solely to reflect a change in the fees or other terms disclosed therein. This exception does not extend to any finance charges imposed on the prepaid account as described in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61 that are required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1005.18(b)(4)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 18(b)(4)(ii)-1.
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<P>3. <I>Web site and telephone number on a prepaid account access device.</I> Section 1005.18(f)(3) requires that the name of a financial institution and the Web site URL and a telephone number that a consumer can use to contact the financial institution about the prepaid account must be disclosed on the prepaid account access device. A disclosure made on an accompanying document, such as a terms and conditions document, on packaging material surrounding an access device, or on a sticker or other label affixed to an access device does not constitute a disclosure on the access device. The financial institution must provide this information to allow consumers to, for example, contact the financial institution to learn about the terms and conditions of the prepaid account, obtain prepaid account balance information, request a copy of transaction history pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) if the financial institution does not provide periodic statements pursuant to § 1005.9(b), or to notify the financial institution when the consumer believes that an unauthorized electronic fund transfer has occurred as required by §§ 1005.7(b)(2) and 1005.18(d)(1)(ii).
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<HD3>18(g) Prepaid Accounts Accessible by Hybrid Prepaid-Credit Cards
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<P>1. <I>Covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, defines the term covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.
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<P>2. <I>Asset feature.</I> i. Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(5)(ii), defines the term asset feature.
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<P>ii. Section 1005.18(g) applies to account terms, conditions, and features that apply to the asset feature of the prepaid account. Section 1005.18(g) does not apply to the account terms, conditions, or features that apply to the covered separate credit feature, regardless of whether it is structured as a separate credit account or as a credit subaccount of the prepaid account that is separate from the asset feature of the prepaid account.
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<P>3. <I>Scope of § 1005.18(g).</I> Under § 1005.18(g), a financial institution may offer different terms on different prepaid account programs. For example, the terms may differ between a prepaid account program where a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card is not offered in connection with any prepaid accounts within the prepaid account program, and a prepaid account program where a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card may be offered to some consumers in connection with their prepaid accounts.
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<P>4. <I>Variation in account terms, conditions, or features.</I> i. Account terms, conditions, and features subject to § 1005.18(g) include, but are not limited to:
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<P>A. Interest paid on funds deposited into the asset feature of the prepaid account, if any;
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<P>B. Fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account. See comment 18(g)-5 for additional guidance on how § 1005.18(g) applies to fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account.
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<P>C. The type of access device provided to the consumer. For instance, an institution may not provide a PIN-only card on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature that is accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, while providing a prepaid card with both PIN and signature-debit functionality for prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program with such a credit feature;
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<P>D. Minimum balance requirements on the asset feature of the prepaid account; or
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<P>E. Account features offered in connection with the asset feature of the prepaid account, such as online bill payment services.
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<P>5. <I>Fees.</I> i. With respect to a prepaid account program where consumers may be offered a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, § 1005.18(g) only permits a financial institution to charge the same or higher fees on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature than the amount of a comparable fee it charges on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a such a credit feature. Section 1005.18(g) prohibits a financial institution from imposing a lower fee or charge on prepaid accounts with a covered separate credit feature than the amount of a comparable fee or charge it charges on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program without such a credit feature. With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, a fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account generally is a finance charge under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) to the extent that the amount of the fee or charge exceeds the amount of a comparable fee or charge imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have such a credit feature. <I>See</I> Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii). With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, this comment below provides illustrations of how § 1005.18(g) applies to fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account. The term “non-covered separate credit feature” refers to a separate credit feature that is not accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61.
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<P>ii. The following examples illustrate how § 1005.18(g) applies to per transaction fees for each transaction to access funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid account.
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<P>A. Assume that a consumer has selected a prepaid account program where a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card may be offered. For prepaid accounts without such a credit feature, the financial institution charges $0.50 for each transaction conducted that accesses funds available in the prepaid account. For prepaid accounts with a credit feature, the financial institution also charges $0.50 on the asset feature for each transaction conducted that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, for purposes of § 1005.18(g), the financial institution is imposing the same fee for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account, regardless of whether the prepaid account has a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card. Also, with regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as those terms are defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, the $0.50 per transaction fee imposed on the asset feature for each transaction that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid account is not a finance charge under 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii). See Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii) and comment 4(b)(11)(ii)-1, for a discussion of the definition of finance charge with respect to fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account with regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in 12 CFR 1026.61.
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<P>B. Same facts as in paragraph A, except that for prepaid accounts with a covered separate credit feature, the financial institution imposes a $1.25 fee for each transaction conducted that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, the financial institution is permitted to charge a higher fee under § 1005.18(g)(2) on prepaid accounts with a covered separate credit feature than it charges on prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. The $0.75 excess is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
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<P>C. Same facts as in paragraph A, except that for prepaid accounts with a covered separate credit feature, the financial institution imposes a $0.25 fee for each transaction conducted that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, the financial institution is in violation of § 1005.18(g) because it is imposing a lower fee on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature than it imposes on prepaid accounts in the same program without such a credit feature.
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<P>iii. Where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, any per transaction fees imposed on the asset feature of prepaid accounts, including load and transfer fees, with such a credit feature are comparable only to per transaction fees for each transaction to access funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account that are imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that does not have such a credit feature. Per transaction fees for a transaction that is conducted to load or draw funds into a prepaid account from a source other than the funds in the asset feature are not comparable for purposes of § 1005.18(g). To illustrate:
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<P>A. Assume a financial institution charges $0.50 on prepaid accounts for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature. Also, assume that the financial institution charges $0.50 per transaction on the asset feature of prepaid accounts in the same prepaid program where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of a transaction. In this case, for purposes of § 1005.18(g), the financial institution is imposing the same fee for each transaction it pays, regardless of whether the transaction accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature, or is paid from credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. Also, for purposes of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), the $0.50 per transaction fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature is not a finance charge.
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<P>B. Assume same facts as in paragraph A above, except that assume the financial institution charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account for each transaction where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction. The financial institution is permitted to charge the higher fee under § 1005.18(g) for transactions that access the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction than the amount of the comparable fee it charges for each transaction that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. The $0.75 excess is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
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<P>C. Same facts as in paragraph A, except that the financial institution imposes $0.25 on the asset feature of the prepaid account for each transaction conducted where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction. In this case, the financial institution is in violation of § 1005.18(g) because it is imposing a lower fee on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature than the amount of the comparable fee it imposes on prepaid accounts in the same program without such a credit feature.
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<P>D. Assume a financial institution charges $0.50 on prepaid accounts for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature. Assume also that the financial institution charges both a $0.50 per transaction fee and a $1.25 transfer fee on the asset feature of prepaid accounts in the same prepaid program where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of a transaction. In this case, both fees charged on a per-transaction basis for the credit transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> a combined fee of $1.75 per transaction) must be compared to the $0.50 per transaction fee to access funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature. The financial institution is permitted to charge a higher fee under § 1005.18(g) for transactions that access the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction than the amount of the comparable fee it charges for each transaction that accesses funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. The $1.25 excess is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
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<P>E. Assume same facts as in paragraph D above, except that assume the financial institution also charges a load fee of $1.25 whenever funds are transferred or loaded from a separate asset account, such as from a deposit account via a debit card, in the course of a transaction on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature, in addition to charging a $0.50 per transaction fee. In this case, both fees charged on a per-transaction basis for the credit transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> a combined fee of $1.75 per transaction) must be compared to the per transaction fee (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $0.50) to access funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts on a prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature. Per transaction fees for a transaction that is conducted by drawing funds into a prepaid account from some other source (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $1.25) are not comparable for purposes of § 1005.18(g). The financial institution is permitted to charge a higher fee under § 1005.18(g) for transactions that access the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction than the amount of the comparable fee it charges for each transaction to access funds available in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. The $1.25 excess is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
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<P>iv. A consumer may choose in a particular circumstance to draw or transfer credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or service, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. For example, a consumer may use the prepaid card at the financial institution's Web site to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. <I>See</I> Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61(a)(2)(i)(B) and comment 61(a)(2)-4.ii. In these situations, load or transfer fees imposed for draws or transfers of credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction are compared only with fees, if any, to load funds as a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits that are charged on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature. Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a separate asset account or from a non-covered separate credit feature are not comparable for purposes of § 1005.18(g). To illustrate:
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<P>A. Assume a financial institution charges a $1.25 load fee to transfer funds from a non-covered separate credit feature, such as a non-covered separate credit card account, into prepaid accounts that do not have a covered separate credit feature and does not charge a fee for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on those prepaid accounts. Assume the financial institution charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction. In this case, the load or transfer fees imposed for draws or transfers of credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $1.25) is compared with the fees to load funds as a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits that are charged on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $0). Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a separate asset account (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $1.25) is not comparable for purposes of § 1005.18(g). In this case, the financial institution is permitted to charge a higher fee under § 1005.18(g) for transactions that access the covered separate credit feature on prepaid accounts with a credit feature than the amount of the comparable fee it charges on prepaid accounts in the same program without such a credit feature. The $1.25 fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a separate credit feature is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
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<P>B. Assume that a financial institution charges a $1.25 load fee for a one-time transfer of funds from a separate asset account, such as from a deposit account via a debit card, to a prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature and does not charge a fee for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on those prepaid accounts. Assume the financial institution charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction. In this case, the load or transfer fees imposed for draws or transfers of credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $1.25) is compared with the fees to load funds as a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits that are charged on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $0). Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a separate asset account (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee of $1.25) is not comparable for purposes of § 1005.18(g). In this case, the financial institution is permitted to charge a higher fee under § 1005.18(g) for transactions that access the covered separate credit feature on prepaid accounts with a credit feature than the amount of the comparable fee it charges on prepaid accounts in the same program without such a credit feature. The $1.25 fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature is a finance charge under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).


</P>
<HD3>18(h) Effective Date and Special Transition Rules for Disclosure Provisions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures not on prepaid account access devices and prepaid account packaging materials.</I> Section 1005.18(h)(1) provides that, except as provided in § 1005.18(h)(2) and (3), the disclosure requirements of subpart A, as modified by § 1005.18, apply to prepaid accounts as defined in § 1005.2(b)(3), including government benefit accounts subject to § 1005.15, beginning April 1, 2019. This effective date applies to disclosures made available or provided to consumers electronically, orally by telephone, or in a form other than on pre-printed materials, such as disclosures printed on paper by a financial institution upon a consumer's request.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosures on prepaid account access devices and prepaid account packaging materials.</I> Section 1005.18(h)(2)(i) provides that the disclosure requirements of subpart A, as modified by § 1005.18, do not apply to any disclosures that are provided, or that would otherwise be required to be provided, on prepaid account access devices, or on, in, or with prepaid account packaging materials that were manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced in the normal course of business prior to April 1, 2019. This includes, for example, disclosures contained on or in packages for prepaid accounts sold at retail, or disclosures for payroll card accounts or government benefit accounts that are distributed to employees or benefits recipients in packages or envelopes. Disclosures on, in, or with access devices or packaging materials that are manufactured, printed, or otherwise produced on or after April 1, 2019 must comply with all the requirements of subpart A.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of notice to consumers.</I> A financial institution that is required to notify consumers of a change in terms and conditions pursuant to § 1005.18(h)(2)(ii) or (iii), or that otherwise provides updated initial disclosures as a result of § 1005.18(h)(1) taking effect, may provide the notice or disclosures either as a separate document or included in another notice or mailing that the consumer receives regarding the prepaid account to the extent permitted by other laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Ability to contact the consumer.</I> A financial institution that has not obtained the consumer's contact information is not required to comply with the requirements set forth in § 1005.18(h)(2)(ii) or (iii). A financial institution is able to contact the consumer when, for example, it has the consumer's mailing address or email address.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Closed and inactive prepaid accounts.</I> The requirements of § 1005.18(h)(2)(iii) do not apply to prepaid accounts that are closed or inactive, as defined by the financial institution. However, if an inactive account becomes active, the financial institution must comply with the requirements of § 1005.18(h)(2)(ii) within 30 days of the account becoming active again in order to avail itself of the timing requirements and accommodations set forth in § 1005.18(h)(2)(iii) and (iv).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Account information not available on April 1, 2019.</I> i. <I>Electronic and written account transaction history.</I> A financial institution following the periodic statement alternative in § 1005.18(c) must make available 12 months of electronic account transaction history pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) and must provide 24 months of written account transaction history upon request pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) beginning April 1, 2019. If, on April 1, 2019, the financial institution does not have readily accessible the data necessary to make available or provide the account histories for the required time periods, the financial institution may make available or provide such histories using the data for the time period it has until the financial institution has accumulated the data necessary to comply in full with the requirements set forth in § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) and (iii). For example, a financial institution that had been retaining only 60 days of account history before April 1, 2019 would provide 60 days of written account transaction history upon a consumer's request on April 1, 2019. If, on May 1, 2019, the consumer made another request for written account transaction history, the financial institution would be required to provide three months of account history. The financial institution must continue to provide as much account history as it has accumulated at the time of a consumer's request until it has accumulated 24 months of account history. Thus, all financial institutions must fully comply with the electronic account transaction history requirement set forth in § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii) no later than April 1, 2020 and must fully comply with the written account transaction history requirement set forth in § 1005.18(c)(1)(iii) no later than April 1, 2021.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Summary totals of fees.</I> A financial institution must display a summary total of the amount of all fees assessed by the financial institution on the consumer's prepaid account for the prior calendar month and for the calendar year to date pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(5) beginning April 1, 2019. If, on April 1, 2019, the financial institution does not have readily accessible the data necessary to calculate the summary totals of fees for the prior calendar month or the calendar year to date, the financial institution may provide the summary totals using the data it has until the financial institution has accumulated the data necessary to display the summary totals as required by § 1005.18(c)(5). That is, the financial institution would first display the monthly fee total beginning on May 1, 2019 for the month of April, and the year-to-date fee total beginning on April 1, 2019, provided the financial institution discloses that it is displaying the year-to-date total beginning on April 1, 2019 rather than for the entire calendar year 2019. On January 1, 2020, financial institutions must begin displaying year-to-date fee totals for calendar year 2020.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1005.19 Internet Posting of Prepaid Account Agreements


</HD2>
<HD3>19(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>19(a)(1) Agreement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Provisions contained in separate documents included.</I> Section 1005.19(a)(1) defines a prepaid account agreement, for purposes of § 1005.19, as the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a prepaid account issuer and a consumer for a prepaid account. An agreement may consist of several documents that, taken together, define the legal obligation between the issuer and consumer.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(2) Amends
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantive changes.</I> A change to an agreement is substantive, and therefore is deemed an amendment of the agreement, if it alters the rights or obligations of the parties. Section 1005.19(a)(2) provides that any change in the fee information, as defined in § 1005.19(a)(3), is deemed to be substantive. Examples of other changes that generally would be considered substantive include:
</P>
<P>i. Addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer a right under the agreement, such as a clause that allows an issuer to unilaterally change the terms of an agreement.
</P>
<P>ii. Addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer an obligation under the agreement, such as a clause requiring the consumer to pay an additional fee.
</P>
<P>iii. Changes that may affect the cost of the prepaid account to the consumer, such as changes in a provision describing how the prepaid account's monthly fee will be calculated.
</P>
<P>iv. Changes that may affect how the terms of the agreement are construed or applied, such as changes to a choice of law provision.
</P>
<P>v. Changes that may affect the parties to whom the agreement may apply, such as changes to provisions regarding authorized users or assignment of the agreement.
</P>
<P>vi. Changes to the corporate name of the issuer or program manager, or to the issuer's address or identifying number, such as its RSSD ID number or tax identification number.
</P>
<P>vii. Changes to the list of names of other relevant parties, such as the employer for a payroll card program or the agency for a government benefit program. But see § 1005.19(b)(2)(ii) regarding the timing of submitting such changes to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>viii. Changes to the name of the prepaid account program to which the agreement applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Non-substantive changes.</I> Changes that generally would not be considered substantive include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Correction of typographical errors that do not affect the meaning of any terms of the agreement.
</P>
<P>ii. Changes to the issuer's corporate logo or tagline.
</P>
<P>iii. Changes to the format of the agreement, such as conversion to a booklet from a full-sheet format, changes in font, or changes in margins.
</P>
<P>iv. Reordering sections of the agreement without affecting the meaning of any terms of the agreement.
</P>
<P>v. Adding, removing, or modifying a table of contents or index.
</P>
<P>vi. Changes to titles, headings, section numbers, or captions.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(4) Issuer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Issuer.</I> Section 1005.19(a)(4) provides that, for purposes of § 1005.19, issuer or prepaid account issuer means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a prepaid account agreement. For example, Bank X and Bank Y work together to issue prepaid accounts. A consumer that obtains a prepaid account issued pursuant to this arrangement between Bank X and Bank Y is subject to an agreement that states “This is an agreement between you, the consumer, and Bank X that governs the terms of your Bank Y Prepaid Account.” The prepaid account issuer in this example is Bank X, because the agreement creates a legally enforceable obligation between the consumer and Bank X. Bank X is the issuer even if the consumer applied for the prepaid account through a link on Bank Y's website and the cards prominently feature the Bank Y logo on the front of the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of third-party service providers.</I> An issuer has a legal obligation to comply with the requirements of § 1005.19. However, an issuer generally may use a third-party service provider to satisfy its obligations under § 1005.19, provided that the issuer acts in accordance with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance. In some cases, an issuer may wish to arrange for the entity with which it partners to issue prepaid accounts to fulfill the requirements of § 1005.19 on the issuer's behalf. For example, Program Manager and Bank work together to issue prepaid accounts. Under the § 1005.19(a)(4) definition of issuer, Bank is the issuer of these prepaid accounts for purposes of § 1005.19. However, Program Manager services the prepaid accounts, including mailing to consumers account opening materials and making available to consumers their electronic account transaction history, pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii). While Bank is responsible for ensuring compliance with § 1005.19, Bank may arrange for Program Manager (or another appropriate third-party service provider) to make submissions of prepaid account agreements to the Bureau under § 1005.19 on Bank's behalf. Bank must comply with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party websites.</I> As explained in comment 19(c)-2, if an issuer provides consumers with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as making available to consumers their electronic account transaction history, pursuant to § 1005.18(c)(1)(ii), through a third-party website, the issuer is deemed to maintain that website for purposes of § 1005.19. Such a website is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1005.19 even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the website and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the website, consumers with prepaid accounts from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same website, and the website is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. A partner institution's website is an example of a third-party website that may be deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1005.19. For example, Program Manager and Bank work together to issue prepaid accounts. Under the § 1005.19(a)(4) definition of issuer, Bank is the issuer of these prepaid accounts for purposes of § 1005.19. Bank does not maintain a website specifically related to prepaid accounts. However, consumers can access information about their individual accounts, such as an electronic account transaction history, through a website maintained by Program Manager. Program Manager designs the website and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the website. The website is branded and held out to the public as belonging to Program Manager. Because consumers can access information about their individual accounts through this website, the website is deemed to be maintained by Bank for purposes of § 1005.19. Bank therefore may comply with § 1005.19(c) or (d)(1) by ensuring that agreements offered by Bank are posted on Program Manager's website in accordance with § 1005.19(c) or (d)(1), respectively. Bank need not create and maintain a website branded and held out to the public as belonging to Bank in order to comply with § 1005.19(c) and (d) as long as Bank ensures that Program Manager's website complies with these sections.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(6) Offers to the General Public
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid accounts offered to limited groups.</I> An issuer is deemed to offer a prepaid account agreement to the general public even if the issuer markets, solicits applications for, or otherwise makes available prepaid accounts only to a limited group of persons. For example, an issuer may solicit only residents of a specific geographic location for a particular prepaid account; in this case, the agreement would be considered to be offered to the general public. Similarly, agreements for prepaid accounts issued by a credit union are considered to be offered to the general public even though such prepaid accounts are available only to credit union members.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid account agreements not offered to the general public.</I> A prepaid account agreement is not offered to the general public when a consumer is offered the agreement only by virtue of the consumer's relationship with a third party. Examples of agreements not offered to the general public include agreements for payroll card accounts, government benefit accounts, or for prepaid accounts used to distribute student financial aid disbursements, or property and casualty insurance payouts, and other similar programs.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(7) Open Account
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Open account.</I> A prepaid account is an open account if (i) there is an outstanding balance in the account; (ii) the consumer can load more funds to the account even if the account does not currently hold a balance; or (iii) the consumer can access credit from a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.61, in connection with a prepaid account. Under this definition, an account that meets any of these criteria is considered to be open even if the account is deemed inactive by the issuer.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(8) Prepaid Account
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid account.</I> Section 1005.19(a)(7) provides that, for purposes of § 1005.19, the term prepaid account means a prepaid account as defined in § 1005.2(b)(3). Therefore, for purposes of § 1005.19, a prepaid account includes, among other things, a payroll card account as defined in § 1005.2(b)(3)(iii) and a government benefit account as defined in §§ 1005.2(b)(3)(iii) and 1005.15(a)(2).


</P>
<HD3>19(b) Submission of Agreements to the Bureau


</HD3>
<HD3>19(b)(1) Submissions on a Rolling Basis
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rolling submission requirement.</I> Section 1005.19(b)(1) requires issuers to send submissions to the Bureau no later than 30 days after offering, amending, or ceasing to offer any prepaid account agreement, as described in § 1005.19(b)(1)(ii) through (iv). For example, if on July 1 an issuer offers a prepaid account agreement that has not been previously submitted to the Bureau, it must submit that agreement to the Bureau by July 31 of the same year. Similarly, if on August 1 an issuer amends a prepaid account agreement previously submitted to the Bureau, and the change becomes effective on September 15, the issuer must submit the entire amended agreement as required by § 1005.19(b)(2)(i) by October 15 of the same year. Furthermore, if on December 31 an issuer ceases to offer a prepaid account agreement that was previously submitted to the Bureau, it must submit notification to the Bureau that it is withdrawing that agreement as required by § 1005.19(b)(3) by January 30 of the following year.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid accounts offered in conjunction with multiple issuers.</I> If a program manager offers prepaid account agreements in conjunction with multiple issuers, each issuer must submit its own agreement to the Bureau. Alternatively, each issuer may use the program manager to submit the agreement on its behalf, in accordance with comment 19(a)(4)-2.
</P>
<HD3>19(b)(2) Amended Agreements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Change-in-terms notices not permissible.</I> Section 1005.19(b)(2)(i) requires that if an agreement previously submitted to the Bureau is amended, the issuer must submit the entire revised agreement to the Bureau. An issuer may not fulfill this requirement by submitting a change-in-terms or similar notice covering only the terms that have changed. Amendments must be integrated into the text of the agreement (or the optional addenda described in § 1005.19(b)(6)), not provided as separate riders.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Updates to the list of names of other relevant parties to an agreement.</I> Section 1005.19(b)(2)(ii) permits an issuer to delay making a submission to the Bureau regarding a change in the list of other relevant parties to a particular agreement until the earlier of such time as the issuer is otherwise submitting an amended agreement or changes to other identifying information about the issuer and its submitted agreements pursuant to § 1005.19(b)(1)(i); or May 1 of each year, for any updates to the list of names of other relevant parties that occurred between the issuer's last submission of relevant party information for that agreement and April 1 of that year. Section 1005.19(b)(2)(ii) thus ensures that the Bureau has a list of names of other relevant parties for all submitted agreements that is up-to-date as of April 1 of each year. The following examples illustrate these requirements:
</P>
<P>i. An issuer first submits to the Bureau a payroll card agreement, along with a list of names of the other relevant parties (<I>i.e.,</I> employers) to that agreement, on May 1, 2019. On July 1, 2020, the issuer adds four new employers under the agreement. The issuer is not required to make a submission to the Bureau regarding the addition of other relevant parties to that agreement at that time.
</P>
<P>ii. On January 1, 2020, a change to the payroll card agreement becomes effective reflecting a new feature and accompanying fee that the issuer has added to the program. The issuer is required, by January 31, 2020, to submit to the Bureau its entire revised agreement and an updated list of the names of other relevant parties to that agreement.
</P>
<P>iii. If the issuer has not added any other employers to the agreement by April 1, 2020, the issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau an updated list of names of other relevant parties to that agreement, because the list it previously submitted to the Bureau remains current.
</P>
<P>iv. If, however, on March 1, 2020, the issuer adds two new employers under the agreement but makes no other changes to the agreement, then as of April 1 there are new relevant parties to the agreement that the issuer has not submitted to the Bureau. The issuer is required, by May 1, 2020, to submit to the Bureau an updated list of names of other relevant parties to that agreement reflecting the two employers it added in March. Because the issuer has not made any other changes to the agreement since it was submitted in January, the issuer is not required to re-submit the agreement itself by May 1, 2020.


</P>
<HD3>19(b)(3) Withdrawal of Agreements No Longer Offered
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>No longer offers agreement.</I> Section 1005.19(b)(3) provides that, if an issuer no longer offers an agreement that was previously submitted to the Bureau, the issuer must notify the Bureau no later than 30 days after the issuer ceases to offer the agreement that it is withdrawing the agreement. An issuer no longer offers an agreement when it no longer allows a consumer to activate or register a new account in connection with that agreement.
</P>
<HD3>19(b)(4) De Minimis Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to other exceptions.</I> The de minimis exception in § 1005.19(b)(4) is distinct from the product testing exception under § 1005.19(b)(5). The de minimis exception provides that an issuer with fewer than 3,000 open prepaid accounts is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau, regardless of whether those agreements qualify for the product testing exception. In contrast, the product testing exception provides that an issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau agreements offered solely in connection with certain types of prepaid account programs with fewer than 3,000 open accounts, regardless of the issuer's total number of open accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>De minimis exception.</I> Under § 1005.19(b)(4), an issuer is not required to submit any prepaid account agreements to the Bureau under § 1005.19(b)(1) if the issuer has fewer than 3,000 open prepaid accounts. For example, an issuer has 2,000 open prepaid accounts. The issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau because the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date for determining whether issuer qualifies.</I> Whether an issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception is determined as of the last day of each calendar quarter. For example, an issuer has 2,500 open prepaid accounts as of December 31, the last day of the calendar quarter. As of January 30, the issuer has 3,100 open prepaid accounts. As of March 31, the last day of the following calendar quarter, the issuer has 2,700 open prepaid accounts. Even though the issuer had 3,100 open prepaid accounts at one time during the calendar quarter, the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception because the number of open prepaid accounts was less than 3,000 as of March 31. The issuer therefore is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau under § 1005.19(b)(1).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date for determining whether issuer ceases to qualify.</I> Whether an issuer ceases to qualify for the de minimis exception under § 1005.19(b)(4) is determined as of the last day of the calendar quarter. For example, an issuer has 2,500 open prepaid accounts as of June 30, the last day of the calendar quarter. The issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau under § 1005.19(b) by July 30 (the 30th day after June 30) because the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception. As of July 15, the issuer has 3,100 open prepaid accounts. The issuer is not required to take any action at this time, because whether an issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1005.19(b)(4) is determined as of the last day of the calendar quarter. The issuer still has 3,100 open prepaid accounts as of September 30. Because the issuer had 3,100 open prepaid accounts as of September 30, the issuer ceases to qualify for the de minimis exception and must submit its agreements to the Bureau by October 30, the 30th day after the last day of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Option to withdraw agreements.</I> Section 1005.19(b)(4) provides that if an issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception newly qualifies for the de minimis exception, the issuer must continue to make rolling submissions to the Bureau as required by § 1005.19(b)(1) until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Bureau. For example, an issuer offers three agreements and has 3,001 open accounts as of December 31. The issuer submitted each of the three agreements to the Bureau by January 30 as required under § 1005.19(b). As of March 31, the issuer has only 2,999 open accounts. The issuer has two options. First, the issuer may notify the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing each of the three agreements it previously submitted. Once the issuer has notified the Bureau, the issuer is no longer required to make rolling submissions to the Bureau under § 1005.19(b) unless it later ceases to qualify for the de minimis exception. Alternatively, the issuer may choose not to notify the Bureau that it is withdrawing its agreements. In this case, the issuer must continue making rolling submissions to the Bureau as required by § 1005.19(b). The issuer might choose not to withdraw its agreements if, for example, the issuer believes it will likely cease to qualify for the de minimis exception again in the near future.


</P>
<HD3>19(b)(6) Form and Content of Agreements Submitted to the Bureau
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Agreements currently in effect.</I> Agreements submitted to the Bureau must contain the provisions of the agreement and fee information currently in effect. For example, on June 1, an issuer decides to decrease the out-of-network ATM withdrawal fee associated with one of the agreements it offers. The change in that fee will become effective on August 1. The issuer must submit and post the amended agreement with the decreased out-of-network ATM withdrawal fee to the Bureau by August 31 as required by § 1005.19(b)(2)(i) and (c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fee information variations do not constitute separate agreements.</I> Fee information that may vary from one consumer to another depending on the consumer's state of residence or other factors must be disclosed by setting forth all the possible variations. For example, an issuer offers a prepaid account with a monthly fee of $4.95 or $0 if the consumer regularly receives direct deposit to the prepaid account. The issuer must submit to the Bureau one agreement with fee information listing the possible monthly fees of $4.95 or $0 and including the explanation that the latter fee is dependent upon the consumer regularly receiving direct deposit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Integrated agreement requirement.</I> Issuers may not submit provisions of the agreement or fee information in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders. The only addenda that may be submitted as part of an agreement are the optional fee information addenda described in § 1005.19(b)(6)(ii). Changes in provisions or fee information must be integrated into the body of the agreement or the optional fee information addenda. For example, it would be impermissible for an issuer to submit to the Bureau an agreement in the form of a terms and conditions document on January 1 and subsequently submit a change-in-terms notice to indicate amendments to the previously submitted agreement. Instead, the issuer must submit a document that integrates the changes made by each of the change-in-terms notices into the body of the original terms and conditions document and the optional addenda displaying variations in fee information.


</P>
<HD3>19(c) Posting of Agreements Offered to the General Public
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement applies only to agreements offered to the general public.</I> An issuer is only required to post and maintain on its publicly available Web site the prepaid account agreements that the issuer offers to the general public as defined by § 1005.19(a)(6) and must submit to the Bureau under § 1005.19(b). For agreements not offered to the general public, the issuer is not required to post and maintain the agreements on its publicly available Web site, but is still required to provide each individual consumer with access to his or her specific prepaid account agreement under § 1005.19(d). This posting requirement is distinct from that of § 1005.7, as modified by § 1005.18(f)(1), which requires an issuer to provide certain disclosures at the time a consumer contracts for an electronic fund transfer service or before the first electronic fund transfer is made involving the consumer's account, and the change-in-terms notice required under § 1005.8(a), as modified by § 1005.18(f)(2). This requirement is also distinct from that of § 1005.18(b)(4), which requires issuers to make the long form disclosure available to consumers prior to prepaid account acquisition and which, depending on the methods an issuer offers prepaid accounts to consumers, may require posting of the long form disclosure on the issuer's Web site. Additionally, if an issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau because the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1005.19(b)(4) or the agreement qualifies for the product testing exception under § 1005.19(b)(5), the issuer is not required to post and maintain any agreements on its Web site under § 1005.19(c). The issuer is still required to provide each individual consumer with access to his or her specific prepaid account agreement under § 1005.19(d) by posting and maintaining the agreement on the issuer's Web site or by providing a copy of the agreement upon the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issuers that do not otherwise maintain Web sites.</I> If an issuer offers an agreement to the general public as defined by § 1005.19(a)(6), that issuer must post that agreement on a publicly available Web site it maintains. If an issuer provides consumers with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party Web site, the issuer is considered to maintain that Web site for purposes of § 1005.19. Such a third-party Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1005.19(c) even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, consumers with prepaid accounts from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. Therefore, issuers that provide consumers with access to account-specific information through a third-party Web site can comply with § 1005.19(c) by ensuring that the agreements the issuer submits to the Bureau are posted on the third-party Web site in accordance with § 1005.19(c).
</P>
<HD3>19(d) Agreements for All Open Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement applies to all open accounts.</I> The requirement to provide access to prepaid account agreements under § 1005.19(d) applies to all open prepaid accounts. For example, an issuer that is not required to post agreements on its Web site because it qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1005.19(b)(4) would still be required to provide consumers with access to their specific agreements under § 1005.19(d). Similarly, an agreement that is no longer offered would not be required to be posted on the issuer's Web site, but would still need to be provided to the consumer to whom it applies under § 1005.19(d). Additionally, an issuer is not required to post on its Web site agreements not offered to the general public, such as agreements for payroll card accounts and government benefit accounts, as explained in comment 19(c)-1, but the issuer must still provide consumers with access to their specific agreements under § 1005.19(d).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Agreements sent to consumers.</I> Section 1005.19(d)(1)(ii) provides, in part, that if an issuer makes an agreement available upon request, the issuer must send the consumer a copy of the consumer's prepaid account agreement no later than five business days after the issuer receives the consumer's request. If the issuer mails the agreement, the agreement must be posted in the mail five business days after the issuer receives the consumer's request. If the issuer hand delivers or provides the agreement electronically, the agreement must be hand delivered or provided electronically five business days after the issuer receives the consumer's request. For example, if the issuer emails the agreement, the email with the attached agreement must be sent no later than five business days after the issuer receives the consumer's request.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.20 Requirements for Gift Cards and Gift Certificates
</HD1>
<HD2>20(a) Definitions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of card, code, or device.</I> Section 1005.20 applies to any card, code, or other device that meets one of the definitions in §§ 1005.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) (and is not otherwise excluded by § 1005.20(b)), even if it is not issued in card form. Section 1005.20 applies, for example, to an account number or bar code that can be used to access underlying funds. Similarly, § 1005.20 applies to a device with a chip or other embedded mechanism that links the device to stored funds, such as a mobile phone or sticker containing a contactless chip that enables the consumer to access the stored funds. A card, code, or other device that meets the definition in §§ 1005.20(a)(1) through (a)(3) includes an electronic promise (<I>see</I> comment 20(a)-2) as well as a promise that is not electronic. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(b)(5). In addition, § 1005.20 applies if a merchant issues a code that entitles a consumer to redeem the code for goods or services, regardless of the medium in which the code is issued (<I>see, however,</I> § 1005.20(b)(5)), and whether or not it may be redeemed electronically or in the merchant's store. Thus, for example, if a merchant emails a code that a consumer may redeem in a specified amount either online or in the merchant's store, that code is covered under § 1005.20, unless one of the exclusions in § 1005.20(b) apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic promise.</I> The term “electronic promise” as used in EFTA sections 915(a)(2)(B), (a)(2)(C), and (a)(2)(D) means a person's commitment or obligation communicated or stored in electronic form made to a consumer to provide payment for goods or services for transactions initiated by the consumer. The electronic promise is itself represented by a card, code or other device that is issued or honored by the person, reflecting the person's commitment or obligation to pay. For example, if a merchant issues a code that can be given as a gift and that entitles the recipient to redeem the code in an online transaction for goods or services, that code represents an electronic promise by the merchant and is a card, code, or other device covered by § 1005.20.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Cards, codes, or other devices redeemable for specific goods or services.</I> Certain cards, codes, or other devices may be redeemable upon presentation for a specific good or service, or “experience,” such as a spa treatment, hotel stay, or airline flight. In other cases, a card, code, or other device may entitle the consumer to a certain percentage off the purchase of a good or service, such as 20% off of any purchase in a store. Such cards, codes, or other devices generally are not subject to the requirements of this section because they are not issued to a consumer “in a specified amount” as required under the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card.” However, if the card, code, or other device is issued in a specified or denominated amount that can be applied toward the purchase of a specific good or service, such as a certificate or card redeemable for a spa treatment up to $50, the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless one of the exceptions in § 1005.20(b) apply. <I>See, e.g.,</I> § 1005.20(b)(3). Similarly, if the card, code, or other device states a specific monetary value, such as “a $50 value,” the card, code, or other device is subject to this section, unless an exclusion in § 1005.20(b) applies.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Issued primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.</I> Section 1005.20 only applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are sold or issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. A card, code, or other device initially purchased by a business is subject to this section if the card, code, or other device is purchased for redistribution or resale to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Moreover, the fact that a card, code, or other device may be primarily funded by a business, for example, in the case of certain rewards or incentive cards, does not mean the card, code, or other device is outside the scope of § 1005.20, if the card, code, or other device will be provided to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. <I>But see</I> § 1005.20(b)(3). Whether a card, code, or other device is issued to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes will depend on the facts and circumstances. For example, if a program manager purchases store gift cards directly from an issuing merchant and sells those cards through the program manager's retail outlets, such gift cards are subject to the requirements of § 1005.20 because the store gift cards are sold to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. In contrast, a card, code, or other device generally would not be issued to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and therefore would fall outside the scope of § 1005.20, if the purchaser of the card, code, or device is contractually prohibited from reselling or redistributing the card, code, or device to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and reasonable policies and procedures are maintained to avoid such sale or distribution for such purposes. However, if an entity that has purchased cards, codes, or other devices for business purposes sells or distributes such cards, codes, or other devices to consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, that entity does not comply with § 1005.20 if it has not otherwise met the substantive and disclosure requirements of the rule or unless an exclusion in § 1005.20(b) applies.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples of cards, codes, or other devices issued for business purposes.</I> Examples of cards, codes, or other devices that are issued and used for business purposes and therefore excluded from the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” include:
</P>
<P>i. Cards, codes, or other devices to reimburse employees for travel or moving expenses.
</P>
<P>ii. Cards, codes, or other devices for employees to use to purchase office supplies and other business-related items.
</P>
<HD2>20(a)(2) Store Gift Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between “gift certificate” and “store gift card.”</I> The term “store gift card” in § 1005.20(a)(2) includes “gift certificate” as defined in § 1005.20(a)(1). For example, a numeric or alphanumeric code representing a specified dollar amount or value that is electronically sent to a consumer as a gift which can be redeemed or exchanged by the recipient to obtain goods or services may be both a “gift certificate” and a “store gift card” if the specified amount or value cannot be increased.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affiliated group of merchants.</I> The term “affiliated group of merchants” means two or more affiliated merchants or other persons that are related by common ownership or common corporate control (<I>see, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 227.3(b) and 12 CFR 223.2) and that share the same name, mark, or logo. For example, the term includes franchisees that are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses. The term also applies to two or more merchants or other persons that agree among themselves, by contract or otherwise, to redeem cards, codes, or other devices bearing the same name, mark, or logo (other than the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network), for the purchase of goods or services solely at such merchants or persons. For example, assume a movie theatre chain and a restaurant chain jointly agree to issue cards that share the same “Flix and Food” logo that can be redeemed solely towards the purchase of movie tickets or concessions at any of the participating movie theatres, or towards the purchase of food or beverages at any of the participating restaurants. For purposes of § 1005.20, the movie theatre chain and the restaurant chain would be considered to be an affiliated group of merchants, and the cards are considered to be “store gift cards.” However, merchants or other persons are not considered to be affiliated merely because they agree to accept a card that bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mall gift cards. See</I> comment 20(a)(3)-2.
</P>
<HD2>20(a)(3) General-Use Prepaid Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants.</I> A card, code, or other device is redeemable upon presentation at multiple, unaffiliated merchants if, for example, such merchants agree to honor the card, code, or device if it bears the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network, pursuant to the rules of the payment network.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mall gift cards.</I> Mall gift cards that are intended to be used or redeemed for goods or services at participating retailers within a shopping mall may be considered store gift cards or general-use prepaid cards depending on the merchants with which the cards may be redeemed. For example, if a mall card may only be redeemed at merchants within the mall itself, the card is more likely to be redeemable at an affiliated group of merchants and considered a store gift card. However, certain mall cards also carry the brand of a payment network and can be used at any retailer that accepts that card brand, including retailers located outside of the mall. Such cards are considered general-use prepaid cards.
</P>
<HD2>20(a)(4) Loyalty, Award, or Promotional Gift Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples of loyalty, award, or promotional programs.</I> Examples of loyalty, award, or promotional programs under § 1005.20(a)(4) include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>i. Consumer retention programs operated or administered by a merchant or other person that provide to consumers cards or coupons redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value as a reward for purchases made or for visits to the participating merchant.
</P>
<P>ii. Sales promotions operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide coupons or discounts redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value.
</P>
<P>iii. Rebate programs operated or administered by a merchant or product manufacturer that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in connection with the consumer's purchase of a product or service and the consumer's completion of the rebate submission process.
</P>
<P>iv. Sweepstakes or contests that distribute cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers as an invitation to enter into the promotion for a chance to win a prize.
</P>
<P>v. Referral programs that provide cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to consumers in exchange for referring other potential consumers to a merchant.
</P>
<P>vi. Incentive programs through which an employer provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to employees, for example, to recognize job performance, such as increased sales, or to encourage employee wellness and safety.
</P>
<P>vii. Charitable or community relations programs through which a company provides cards redeemable for or towards goods or services or other monetary value to a charity or community group for their fundraising purposes, for example, as a reward for a donation or as a prize in a charitable event.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes.</I> To indicate that a card, code, or other device is issued for loyalty, award, or promotional purposes as required by § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii), it is sufficient for the card, code, or other device to state on the front, for example, “Reward” or “Promotional.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reference to toll-free number and Web site.</I> If a card, code, or other device issued in connection with a loyalty, award, or promotional program does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii)(D) is not required on the card, code, or other device.
</P>
<HD2>20(a)(6) Service Fee
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Service fees.</I> Under § 1005.20(a)(6), a service fee includes a periodic fee for holding or use of a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card. A periodic fee includes any fee that may be imposed on a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card from time to time for holding or using the certificate or card, such as a monthly maintenance fee, a transaction fee, an ATM fee, a reload fee, a foreign currency transaction fee, or a balance inquiry fee, whether or not the fee is waived for a certain period of time or is only imposed after a certain period of time. A service fee does not include a one-time fee or a fee that is unlikely to be imposed more than once while the underlying funds are still valid, such as an initial issuance fee, a cash-out fee, a supplemental card fee, or a lost or stolen certificate or card replacement fee.
</P>
<HD2>20(a)(7) Activity
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Activity.</I> Under § 1005.20(a)(7), any action that results in an increase or decrease of the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, other than the imposition of a fee, or an adjustment due to an error or a reversal of a prior transaction, constitutes activity for purposes of § 1005.20. For example, the purchase and activation of a certificate or card, the use of the certificate or card to purchase a good or service, or the reloading of funds onto a store gift card or general-use prepaid card constitutes activity. However, the imposition of a fee, the replacement of an expired, lost, or stolen certificate or card, and a balance inquiry do not constitute activity. In addition, if a consumer attempts to engage in a transaction with a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card, but the transaction cannot be completed due to technical or other reasons, such attempt does not constitute activity. Furthermore, if the funds underlying a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card are adjusted because there was an error or the consumer has returned a previously purchased good, the adjustment also does not constitute activity with respect to the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(b) Exclusions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of exclusion.</I> A card, code, or other device is excluded from the definition of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” if it meets any of the exclusions in § 1005.20(b). An excluded card, code, or other device generally is not subject to any of the requirements of this section. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Eligibility for multiple exclusions.</I> A card, code, or other device may qualify for one or more exclusions. For example, a corporation may give its employees a gift card that is marketed solely to businesses for incentive-related purposes, such as to reward job performance or promote employee safety. In this case, the card may qualify for the exclusion for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards under § 1005.20(b)(3), or for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 1005.20(b)(4). In addition, as long as any one of the exclusions applies, a card, code, or other device is not covered by § 1005.20, even if other exclusions do not apply. In the above example, the corporation may give its employees a type of gift card that can also be purchased by a consumer directly from a merchant. Under these circumstances, while the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 1005.20(b)(4) because the card can also be obtained through retail channels, it is nevertheless exempt from the substantive requirements of § 1005.20 because it is a loyalty, award, or promotional gift card. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii), requiring certain disclosures for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards. Similarly, a person may market a reloadable card to teenagers for occasional expenses that enables parents to monitor spending. Although the card does not qualify for the exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices not marketed to the general public under § 1005.20(b)(4), it may nevertheless be exempt from the requirements of § 1005.20 under § 1005.20(b)(2) if it is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 20(b)(1)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples of excluded products.</I> The exclusion for products usable solely for telephone services applies to prepaid cards for long-distance telephone service, prepaid cards for wireless telephone service and prepaid cards for other services that function similar to telephone services, such as prepaid cards for voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) access time.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 20(b)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reloadable.</I> A card, code, or other device is “reloadable” if the terms and conditions of the agreement permit funds to be added to the card, code, or other device after the initial purchase or issuance. A card, code, or other device is not “reloadable” merely because the issuer or processor is technically able to add functionality that would otherwise enable the card, code, or other device to be reloaded.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I> The term “marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate” means directly or indirectly offering, advertising, or otherwise suggesting the potential use of a card, code or other device, as a gift for another person. Whether the exclusion applies generally does not depend on the type of entity that makes the promotional message. For example, a card may be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if anyone (other than the purchaser of the card), including the issuer, the retailer, the program manager that may distribute the card, or the payment network on which a card is used, promotes the use of the card as a gift card or gift certificate. A card, code, or other device, including a general-purpose reloadable card, is marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate even if it is only occasionally marketed as a gift card or gift certificate. For example, a network-branded general purpose reloadable card would be marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate if the issuer principally advertises the card as a less costly alternative to a bank account but promotes the card in a television, radio, newspaper, or Internet advertisement, or on signage as “the perfect gift” during the holiday season. However, the mere mention of the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in an advertisement or on a sign that also indicates the availability of other excluded prepaid cards does not by itself cause the excluded prepaid cards to be marketed as a gift card or a gift certificate. For example, the posting of a sign in a store that refers to the availability of gift cards does not by itself constitute the marketing of otherwise excluded prepaid cards that may also be sold in the store as gift cards or gift certificates, provided that a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances would not be led to believe that the sign applies to all prepaid cards sold in the store. <I>See, however,</I> comment 20(b)(2)-4.ii.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate.</I> i. Examples of marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate include:
</P>
<P>A. Using the word “gift” or “present” on a card, certificate, or accompanying material, including documentation, packaging and promotional displays.
</P>
<P>B. Representing or suggesting that a certificate or card can be given to another person, for example, as a “token of appreciation” or a “stocking stuffer,” or displaying a congratulatory message on the card, certificate or accompanying material.
</P>
<P>C. Incorporating gift-giving or celebratory imagery or motifs, such as a bow, ribbon, wrapped present, candle, or congratulatory message, on a card, certificate, accompanying documentation, or promotional material.
</P>
<P>ii. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>A. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for a checking, savings, or deposit account.
</P>
<P>B. Representing that a card or certificate can be used to pay for a consumer's health-related expenses—for example, a card tied to a health savings account.
</P>
<P>C. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a substitute for traveler's checks or cash.
</P>
<P>D. Representing that a card or certificate can be used as a budgetary tool, for example, by teenagers, or to cover emergency expenses.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reasonable policies and procedures to avoid marketing as a gift card.</I> The exclusion for a card, code, or other device that is reloadable and not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate in § 1005.20(b)(2) applies if a reloadable card, code, or other device is not marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate and if persons subject to the rule, including issuers, program managers, and retailers, maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid such marketing. Such policies and procedures may include contractual provisions prohibiting a reloadable card, code, or other device from being marketed or labeled as a gift card or gift certificate, merchandising guidelines or plans regarding how the product must be displayed in a retail outlet, and controls to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the card, code or other device is not being marketed as a gift card. Whether a reloadable card, code, or other device has been marketed as a gift card or gift certificate will depend on the facts and circumstances, including whether a reasonable consumer would be led to believe that the card, code, or other device is a gift card or gift certificate. The following examples illustrate the application of § 1005.20(b)(2):
</P>
<P>i. An issuer or program manager of prepaid cards agrees to sell general-purpose reloadable cards through a retailer. The contract between the issuer or program manager and the retailer establishes the terms and conditions under which the cards may be sold and marketed at the retailer. The terms and conditions prohibit the general-purpose reloadable cards from being marketed as a gift card or gift certificate, and require policies and procedures to regularly monitor or otherwise verify that the cards are not being marketed as such. The issuer or program manager sets up one promotional display at the retailer for gift cards and another physically separated display for excluded products under § 1005.20(b), including general-purpose reloadable cards and wireless telephone cards, such that a reasonable consumer would not believe that the excluded cards are gift cards. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid cards are sold, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards. A sign stating “Gift Cards” appears prominently at the top of the display. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) does not apply with respect to the general-purpose reloadable cards because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of excluded cards as gift cards or gift certificates are not maintained.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in i., except that the issuer or program manager sets up a single promotional multi-sided display at the retailer on which a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards are sold. Gift cards are segregated from excluded cards, with gift cards on one side of the display and excluded cards on a different side of a display. Signs of equal prominence at the top of each side of the display clearly differentiate between gift cards and the other types of prepaid cards that are available for sale. The retailer does not use any more conspicuous signage suggesting the general availability of gift cards, such as a large sign stating “Gift Cards” at the top of the display or located near the display. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid the marketing of the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained, even if a retail clerk inadvertently stocks or a consumer inadvertently places a general-purpose reloadable card on the gift card display.
</P>
<P>iv. Same facts as in i., except that the retailer sells a variety of prepaid card products, including store gift cards and general-purpose reloadable cards, arranged side-by-side in the same checkout lane. The retailer does not affirmatively indicate or represent that gift cards are available, such as by displaying any signage or other indicia at the checkout lane suggesting the general availability of gift cards. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) applies because policies and procedures reasonably designed to avoid marketing the general-purpose reloadable cards as gift cards or gift certificates are maintained.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Online sales of prepaid cards.</I> Some Web sites may prominently advertise or promote the availability of gift cards or gift certificates in a manner that suggests to a consumer that the Web site exclusively sells gift cards or gift certificates. For example, a Web site may display a banner advertisement or a graphic on the home page that prominently states “Gift Cards,” “Gift Giving,” or similar language without mention of other available products, or use a web address that includes only a reference to gift cards or gift certificates in the address. In such a case, a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances could be led to believe that all prepaid products sold on the Web site are gift cards or gift certificates. Under these facts, the Web site has marketed all such products, including general-purpose reloadable cards, as gift cards or gift certificates, and the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) does not apply.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Temporary non-reloadable cards issued in connection with a general-purpose reloadable card.</I> Certain general-purpose reloadable cards that are typically marketed as an account substitute initially may be sold or issued in the form of a temporary non-reloadable card. After the card is purchased, the cardholder is typically required to call the issuer to register the card and to provide identifying information in order to obtain a reloadable replacement card. In most cases, the temporary non-reloadable card can be used for purchases until the replacement reloadable card arrives and is activated by the cardholder. Because the temporary non-reloadable card may only be obtained in connection with the general-purpose reloadable card, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(2) applies so long as the card is not marketed as a gift card or gift certificate.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 20(b)(4)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Marketed to the general public.</I> A card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public if the potential use of the card, code, or other device is directly or indirectly offered, advertised, or otherwise promoted to the general public. A card, code, or other device may be marketed to the general public through any advertising medium, including television, radio, newspaper, the Internet, or signage. However, the posting of a company policy that funds may be disbursed by prepaid card (such as a sign posted at a cash register or customer service center stating that store credit will be issued by prepaid card) does not constitute the marketing of a card, code, or other device to the general public. In addition, the method of distribution by itself is not dispositive in determining whether a card, code, or other device is marketed to the general public. Factors that may be considered in determining whether the exclusion applies to a particular card, code, or other device include the means or channel through which the card, code, or device may be obtained by a consumer, the subset of consumers that are eligible to obtain the card, code, or device, and whether the availability of the card, code, or device is advertised or otherwise promoted in the marketplace.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4):
</P>
<P>i. A merchant sells its gift cards at a discount to a business which may give them to employees or loyal consumers as incentives or rewards. In determining whether the gift card falls within the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4), the merchant must consider whether the card is of a type that is advertised or made available to consumers generally or can be obtained elsewhere. If the card can also be purchased through retail channels, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) does not apply, even if the consumer obtained the card from the business as an incentive or reward. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(b)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. A national retail chain decides to market its gift cards only to members of its frequent buyer program. Similarly, a bank may decide to sell gift cards only to its customers. If a member of the general public may become a member of the program or a customer of the bank, the card does not fall within the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) because the general public has the ability to obtain the cards. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(b)(3).
</P>
<P>iii. A card issuer advertises a reloadable card to teenagers and their parents promoting the card for use by teenagers for occasional expenses, schoolbooks and emergencies and by parents to monitor spending. Because the card is marketed to and may be sold to any member of the general public, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) does not apply. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(b)(2).
</P>
<P>iv. An insurance company settles a policyholder's claim and distributes the insurance proceeds to the consumer by means of a prepaid card. Because the prepaid card is simply the means for providing the insurance proceeds to the consumer and the availability of the card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) applies.
</P>
<P>v. A merchant provides store credit to a consumer following a merchandise return by issuing a prepaid card that clearly indicates that the card contains funds for store credit. Because the prepaid card is issued for the stated purpose of providing store credit to the consumer and the ability to receive refunds by a prepaid card is not advertised to the general public, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) applies.
</P>
<P>vi. A tax preparation company elects to distribute tax refunds to its clients by issuing prepaid cards, but does not advertise or otherwise promote the ability to receive proceeds in this manner. Because the prepaid card is simply the mechanism for providing the tax refund to the consumer, and the tax preparer does not advertise the ability to obtain tax refunds by a prepaid card, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) applies. However, if the tax preparer promotes the ability to receive tax refund proceeds through a prepaid card as a way to obtain “faster” access to the proceeds, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(4) does not apply.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 20(b)(5)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exclusion explained.</I> To qualify for the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5), the sole means of issuing the card, code, or other device must be in a paper form. Thus, the exclusion generally applies to certificates issued in paper form where solely the paper itself may be used to purchase goods or services. A card, code or other device is not issued solely in paper form simply because it may be reproduced or printed on paper. For example, a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon electronically provided to a consumer and redeemable for goods and services is not issued in paper form, even if it may be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer. In this circumstance, although the consumer might hold a paper facsimile of the card, code, or other device, the exclusion does not apply because the information necessary to redeem the value was initially issued in electronic form. A paper certificate is within the exclusion regardless of whether it may be redeemed electronically. For example, a paper certificate or receipt that bears a bar code, code, or account number falls within the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) if the bar code, code, or account number is not issued in any form other than on the paper. In addition, the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) continues to apply in circumstances where an issuer replaces a gift certificate that was initially issued in paper form with a card or electronic code (for example, to replace a lost paper certificate).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5):
</P>
<P>i. A merchant issues a paper gift certificate that entitles the bearer to a specified dollar amount that can be applied towards a future meal. The merchant fills in the certificate with the name of the certificate holder and the amount of the certificate. The certificate falls within the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) because it is issued in paper form only.
</P>
<P>ii. A merchant allows a consumer to prepay for a good or service, such as a car wash or time at a parking meter, and issues a paper receipt bearing a numerical or bar code that the consumer may redeem to obtain the good or service. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) applies because the code is issued in paper form only.
</P>
<P>iii. A merchant issues a paper certificate or receipt bearing a bar code or certificate number that can later be scanned or entered into the merchant's system and redeemed by the certificate or receipt holder towards the purchase of goods or services. The bar code or certificate number is not issued by the merchant in any form other than paper. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) applies because the bar code or certificate number is issued in paper form only.
</P>
<P>iv. An online merchant electronically provides a bar code, card or certificate number, or certificate or coupon to a consumer that the consumer may print on a home printer and later redeem towards the purchase of goods or services. The exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(5) does not apply because the bar code or card or certificate number was issued to the consumer in electronic form, even though it can be reproduced or otherwise printed on paper by the consumer.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 20(b)(6)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exclusion explained.</I> The exclusion for cards, codes, or other devices that are redeemable solely for admission to events or venues at a particular location or group of affiliated locations generally applies to cards, codes, or other devices that are not redeemed for a specified monetary value, but rather solely for admission or entry to an event or venue. The exclusion also covers a card, code, or other device that is usable to purchase goods or services in addition to entry into the event or the venue, either at the event or venue or at an affiliated location or location in geographic proximity to the event or venue.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(6):
</P>
<P>i. A consumer purchases a prepaid card that entitles the holder to a ticket for entry to an amusement park. The prepaid card may only be used for entry to the park. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission. In addition, if the prepaid card does not have a monetary value, and therefore is not “issued in a specified amount,” the card does not meet the definitions of “gift certificate,” “store gift card,” or “general-use prepaid card” in § 1005.20(a). <I>See</I> comment 20(a)-3.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in i., except that the gift card also entitles the holder of the gift card to a dollar amount that can be applied towards the purchase of food and beverages or goods or services at the park or at nearby affiliated locations. The card qualifies for the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(6) because it is redeemable for admission or entry and for goods or services in conjunction with that admission.
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer purchases a $25 gift card that the holder of the gift card can use to make purchases at a merchant, or, alternatively, can apply towards the cost of admission to the merchant's affiliated amusement park. The card is not eligible for the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(6) because it is not redeemable solely for the admission or ticket itself (or for goods and services purchased in conjunction with such admission). The card meets the definition of “store gift card” and is therefore subject to § 1005.20, unless a different exclusion applies.
</P>
<HD2>20(c) Form of Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>20(c)(1) Clear and Conspicuous
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> All disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of this section if they are readily understandable and, in the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size are readily noticeable to consumers. Disclosures need not be located on the front of the certificate or card, except where otherwise required, to be considered clear and conspicuous. Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for the purposes of this section if they are in a print that contrasts with and is otherwise not obstructed by the background on which they are printed. For example, disclosures on a card or computer screen are not likely to be conspicuous if obscured by a logo printed in the background. Similarly, disclosures on the back of a card that are printed on top of indentations from embossed type on the front of the card are not likely to be conspicuous if the indentations obstruct the readability of the disclosures. To the extent permitted, oral disclosures meet the standard when they are given at a volume and speed sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Abbreviations and symbols.</I> Disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols, such as “mo.” for month or a “/” to indicate “per.” Under the clear and conspicuous standard, it is sufficient to state, for example, that a particular fee is charged “$2.50/mo. after 12 mos.”
</P>
<HD2>20(c)(2) Format
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Disclosures provided electronically pursuant to this section are not subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.).</I> Electronic disclosures must be in a retainable form. For example, a person may satisfy the requirement if it provides an online disclosure in a format that is capable of being printed. Electronic disclosures may not be provided through a hyperlink or in another manner by which the purchaser can bypass the disclosure. A person is not required to confirm that the consumer has read the electronic disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>20(c)(3) Disclosure Prior to Purchase
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Method of purchase.</I> The disclosures required by this paragraph must be provided before a certificate or card is purchased regardless of whether the certificate or card is purchased in person, online, by telephone, or by other means.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Section 1005.20(c)(3) provides that the disclosures required by this section must be provided to the consumer prior to purchase. For certificates or cards purchased electronically, disclosures made to the consumer after a consumer has initiated an online purchase of a certificate or card, but prior to completing the purchase of the certificate or card, would satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement. However, electronic disclosures made available on a person's Web site that may or may not be accessed by the consumer are not provided to the consumer and therefore would not satisfy the prior-to-purchase requirement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Non-physical certificates and cards.</I> If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures must be provided to the consumer before the certificate or card is purchased. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code that is provided by telephone, the required disclosures may be provided orally prior to purchase. <I>See also</I> § 1005.20(c)(2).
</P>
<HD2>20(c)(4) Disclosures on the Certificate or Card
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Non-physical certificates and cards.</I> If no physical certificate or card is issued, the disclosures required by this paragraph must be disclosed on the code, confirmation, or other written or electronic document provided to the consumer. For example, where a gift certificate or card is a code or confirmation that is provided to a consumer online or sent to a consumer's email address, the required disclosures may be provided electronically on the same document as the code or confirmation.2. <I>No disclosures on a certificate or card.</I> Disclosures required by § 1005.20(c)(4) need not be made on a certificate or card if it is accompanied by a certificate or card that complies with this section. For example, a person may issue or sell a supplemental gift card that is smaller than a standard size and that does not bear the applicable disclosures if it is accompanied by a fully compliant certificate or card. <I>See also</I> comment 20(c)(2)-2.
</P>
<HD2>20(d) Prohibition on Imposition of Fees or Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>One-year period.</I> Section 1005.20(d) provides that a person may impose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee only if there has been no activity with respect to a certificate or card for one year. The following examples illustrate this rule:
</P>
<P>i. A certificate or card is purchased on January 15 of year one. If there has been no activity on the certificate or card since the certificate or card was purchased, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed on the certificate or card on January 15 of year two.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. Because no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month, the earliest date that another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed, assuming there continues to be no activity on the certificate or card, is February 1 of year two. A dormancy, inactivity, or service fee is permitted to be imposed on February 1 of year two because there has been no activity on the certificate or card for the preceding year (February 1 of year one through January 31 of year two), and February is a new calendar month. The imposition of a fee on January 15 of year two is not activity for purposes of § 1005.20(d). <I>See</I> comment 20(a)(7)-1.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as i., and a fee was imposed on January 15 of year two. On January 31 of year two, the consumer uses the card to make a purchase. Another dormancy, inactivity, or service fee could not be imposed until January 31 of year three, assuming there has been no activity on the certificate or card since January 31 of year two.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship between §§ 1005.20(d)(2) and (c)(3).</I> Sections 1005.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) contain similar, but not identical, disclosure requirements. Section 1005.20(d)(2) requires the disclosure of dormancy, inactivity, and service fees on a certificate or card. Section 1005.20(c)(3) requires that vendor person that issues or sells such certificate or card disclose to a consumer any dormancy, inactivity, and service fees associated with the certificate or card before such certificate or card may be purchased. Depending on the context, a single disclosure that meets the clear and conspicuous requirements of both §§ 1005.20(d)(2) and (c)(3) may be used to disclose a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 1005.20(d)(2), are visible to the consumer without having to remove packaging or other materials sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, the disclosures also meet the requirements of § 1005.20(c)(3). Otherwise, a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may need to be disclosed multiple times to satisfy the requirements of §§ 1005.20(d)(2) and (c)(3). For example, if the disclosures on a certificate or card, required by § 1005.20(d)(2), are obstructed by packaging sold with the certificate or card, for a purchase made in person, they also must be disclosed on the packaging sold with the certificate or card to meet the requirements of § 1005.20(c)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship between §§ 1005.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required under § 1005.20(d)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 1005.20(e)(3) and (f)(2) of this section must also be provided on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>4. <I>One fee per month.</I> Under § 1005.20(d)(3), no more than one dormancy, inactivity, or service fee may be imposed in any given calendar month. For example, if a dormancy fee is imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and a consumer makes a balance inquiry on January 15, a balance inquiry fee may not be imposed at that time because a dormancy fee was already imposed earlier that month and a balance inquiry fee is a type of service fee. If, however, the dormancy fee could be imposed on January 1, following a year of inactivity, and the consumer makes a balance inquiry on the same date, the person assessing the fees may choose whether to impose the dormancy fee or the balance inquiry fee on January 1. The restriction in § 1005.20(d)(3) does not apply to any fee that is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee. For example, assume a service fee is imposed on a general-use prepaid card on January 1, following a year of inactivity. If a consumer cashes out the remaining funds by check on January 15, a cash-out fee, to the extent such cash-out fee is permitted under § 1005.20(e)(4), may be imposed at that time because a cash-out fee is not a dormancy, inactivity, or service fee.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Accumulation of fees.</I> Section 1005.20(d) prohibits the accumulation of dormancy, inactivity, or service fees for previous periods into a single fee because such a practice would circumvent the limitation in § 1005.20(d)(3) that only one fee may be charged per month. For example, if a consumer purchases and activates a store gift card on January 1 but never uses the card, a monthly maintenance fee of $2.00 a month may not be accumulated such that a fee of $24 is imposed on January 1 the following year.
</P>
<HD2>20(e) Prohibition on Sale of Gift Certificates or Cards With Expiration Dates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable opportunity.</I> Under § 1005.20(e)(1), no person may sell or issue a gift certificate, store gift card, or general-use prepaid card with an expiration date, unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide consumers with a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. Consumers are deemed to have a reasonable opportunity to purchase a certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date if:
</P>
<P>i. There are policies and procedures established to prevent the sale of a certificate or card unless the certificate or card expiration date is at least five years after the date the certificate or card was sold or initially issued to a consumer; or
</P>
<P>ii. A certificate or card is available to consumers to purchase five years and six months before the certificate or card expiration date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability to replacement certificates or cards.</I> Section 1005.20(e)(1) applies solely to the <I>purchase</I> of a certificate or card. Therefore, § 1005.20(e)(1) does not apply to the replacement of such certificates or cards. Certificates or cards issued as a replacement may bear a certificate or card expiration date of less than five years from the date of issuance of the replacement certificate or card. If the certificate or card expiration date for a replacement certificate or card is later than the date set forth in § 1005.20(e)(2)(i), then pursuant to § 1005.20(e)(2), the expiration date for the underlying funds at the time the replacement certificate or card is issued must be no earlier than the expiration date for the replacement certificate or card. For purposes of § 1005.20(e)(2), funds are not considered to be loaded to a store gift card or general-use prepaid card solely because a replacement card has been issued or activated for use.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of funds expiration—date not required.</I> Section 1005.20(e)(3)(i) does not require disclosure of the precise date the funds will expire. It is sufficient to disclose, for example, “Funds expire 5 years from the date funds last loaded to the card.”; “Funds can be used 5 years from the date money was last added to the card.”; or “Funds do not expire.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosure not required if no expiration date.</I> If the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire, the disclosure required by § 1005.20(e)(3)(i) need not be stated on the certificate or card. If the certificate or card and underlying funds expire at the same time, only one expiration date need be disclosed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site.</I> If a certificate or card does not expire, or if the underlying funds are not available after the certificate or card expires, the disclosure required by § 1005.20(e)(3)(ii) need not be stated on the certificate or card. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(f)(2).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relationship to § 226.20(f)(2).</I> The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and the certificate or card and the underlying funds do not expire.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Distinguishing between certificate or card expiration and funds expiration.</I> If applicable, a disclosure must be made on the certificate or card that notifies a consumer that the certificate or card expires, but the funds either do not expire or expire later than the certificate or card, and that the consumer may contact the issuer for a replacement card. The disclosure must be made with equal prominence and in close proximity to the certificate or card expiration date. The close proximity requirement does not apply to oral disclosures. In the case of a certificate or card, close proximity means that the disclosure must be on the same side as the certificate or card expiration date. For example, if the disclosure is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the certificate or card expiration date, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent and in close proximity. The disclosure need not be embossed on the certificate or card to be deemed equally prominent, even if the expiration date is embossed on the certificate or card. The disclosure may state on the front of the card, for example, “Funds expire after card. Call for replacement card.” or “Funds do not expire. Call for new card after 09/2016.” Disclosures made pursuant to § 1005.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) may also fulfill the requirements of § 1005.20(e)(3)(i). For example, making a disclosure that “Funds do not expire” to comply with § 1005.20(e)(3)(iii)(A) also fulfills the requirements of § 1005.20(e)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Expiration date safe harbor.</I> A non-reloadable certificate or card that bears an expiration date that is at least seven years from the date of manufacture need not state the disclosure required by § 1005.20(e)(3)(iii). However, § 1005.20(e)(1) still prohibits the sale or issuance of such certificate or card unless there are policies and procedures in place to provide a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to purchase the certificate or card with at least five years remaining until the certificate or card expiration date. In addition, under § 1005.20(e)(2), the funds may not expire before the certificate or card expiration date, even if the expiration date of the certificate or card bears an expiration date that is more than five years from the date of purchase. For purposes of this safe harbor, the date of manufacture is the date on which the certificate or card expiration date is printed on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Relationship between §§ 1005.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required to be made under § 1005.20(e)(3), any applicable disclosures under §§ 1005.20(d)(2) and (f)(2) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Replacement or remaining balance of an expired certificate or card.</I> When a certificate or card expires, but the underlying funds have not expired, an issuer, at its option in accordance with applicable state law, may provide either a replacement certificate or card or otherwise provide the certificate or card holder, for example, by check, with the remaining balance on the certificate or card. In either case, the issuer may not charge a fee for the service.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Replacement of a lost or stolen certificate or card not required.</I> Section 1005.20(e)(4) does not require the replacement of a certificate or card that has been lost or stolen.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Date of issuance or loading.</I> For purposes of § 1005.20(e)(2)(i), a certificate or card is not issued or loaded with funds until the certificate or card is activated for use.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Application of expiration date provisions after redemption of certificate or card.</I> The requirement that funds underlying a certificate or card must not expire for at least five years from the date of issuance or date of last load ceases to apply once the certificate or card has been fully redeemed, even if the underlying funds are not used to contemporaneously purchase a specific good or service. For example, some certificates or cards can be used to purchase music, media, or virtual goods. Once redeemed by a consumer, the entire balance on the certificate or card is debited from the certificate or card and credited or transferred to another “account” established by the merchant of such goods or services. The consumer can then make purchases of songs, media, or virtual goods from the merchant using that “account” either at the time the value is transferred from the certificate or card or at a later time. Under these circumstances, once the card has been fully redeemed and the “account” credited with the amount of the underlying funds, the five-year minimum expiration term no longer applies to the underlying funds. However, if the consumer only partially redeems the value of the certificate or card, the five-year minimum expiration term requirement continues to apply to the funds remaining on the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(f) Additional Disclosure Requirements for Gift Certificates or Cards
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reference to toll-free telephone number and Web site.</I> If a certificate or card does not have any fees, the disclosure under § 1005.20(f)(2) is not required on the certificate or card. <I>See, however,</I> § 1005.20(e)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 226.20(e)(3)(ii).</I> The same toll-free telephone number and Web site may be used to comply with §§ 226.20(e)(3)(ii) and (f)(2). Neither a toll-free number nor a Web site must be maintained or disclosed if no fees are imposed in connection with a certificate or card, and both the certificate or card and underlying funds do not expire.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship between §§ 1005.20(d)(2), (e)(3), and (f)(2).</I> In addition to any disclosures required pursuant to § 1005.20(f)(2), any applicable disclosures under §§ 1005.20(d)(2) and (e)(3) must also be provided on the certificate or card.
</P>
<HD2>20(g) Compliance Dates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Period of eligibility for loyalty, award, or promotional programs.</I> For purposes of § 1005.20(g)(2), the period of eligibility is the time period during which a consumer must engage in a certain action or actions to meet the terms of eligibility for a loyalty, award, or promotional program and obtain the card, code, or other device. Under § 1005.20(g)(2), a gift card issued pursuant to a loyalty, award, or promotional program that began prior to August 22, 2010 need not state the disclosures in § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii) regardless of whether the consumer became eligible to receive the gift card prior to August 22, 2010, or after that date. For example, a product manufacturer may provide a $20 rebate card to a consumer if the consumer purchases a particular product and submits a fully completed entry between January 1, 2010 and December 31, 2010. Similarly, a merchant may provide a $20 gift card to a consumer if the consumer makes $200 worth of qualifying purchases between June 1, 2010 and October 30, 2010. Under both examples, gift cards provided pursuant to these loyalty, award, or promotional programs need not state the disclosures in § 1005.20(a)(4)(iii) to qualify for the exclusion in § 1005.20(b)(3) for loyalty, award, or promotional gift cards because the period of eligibility for each program began prior to August 22, 2010.
</P>
<HD2>20(h) Temporary Exemption
</HD2>
<HD2>20(h)(1) Delayed Effective Date
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application to certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010.</I> Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 may be sold to a consumer on or after August 22, 2010 without satisfying the requirements of §§ 1005.20(c)(3), (d)(2), (e)(1), (e)(3), and (f) through January 30, 2011, provided that issuers of such certificates or cards comply with the additional substantive and disclosure requirements of §§ 1005.20(h)(1)(i) through (iv). Issuers of certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 need not satisfy these additional requirements if the certificates or cards fully comply with the rule (§§ 1005.20(a) through (f)). For example, the in-store signage and other disclosures required by § 1005.20(h)(2) do not apply to gift cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not have fees and do not expire, and which otherwise comply with the rule.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expiration of temporary exemption.</I> Certificates or cards produced prior to April 1, 2010 that do not fully comply with §§ 1005.20(a) through (f) may not be issued or sold to consumers on or after January 31, 2011.
</P>
<HD2>20(h)(2) Additional Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures through third parties.</I> Issuers may make the disclosures required by § 1005.20(h)(2) through a third party, such as a retailer or merchant. For example, an issuer may have a merchant install in-store signage with the disclosures required by § 1005.20(h)(2) on the issuer's behalf.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General advertising disclosures.</I> Section 1005.20(h)(2) does not impose an obligation on the issuer to advertise gift certificates, store gift cards, or general-use prepaid cards. 
</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.30—Remittance Transfer Definitions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of definitions in subpart A.</I> Except as modified or limited by subpart B (which modifications or limitations apply only to subpart B), the definitions in § 1005.2 apply to all of Regulation E, including subpart B.
</P>
<HD2>30(b) Business Day
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A business day, as defined in § 1005.30(b), includes the entire 24-hour period ending at midnight, and a notice given pursuant to any section of subpart B is effective even if given outside of normal business hours. A remittance transfer provider is not required under subpart B to make telephone lines available on a 24-hour basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially all business functions.</I> “Substantially all business functions” include both the public and the back-office operations of the provider. For example, if the offices of a provider are open on Saturdays for customers to request remittance transfers, but not for performing internal functions (such as investigating errors), then Saturday is not a business day for that provider. In this case, Saturday does not count toward the business-day standard set by subpart B for resolving errors, processing refunds, etc.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short hours.</I> A provider may determine, at its election, whether an abbreviated day is a business day. For example, if a provider engages in substantially all business functions until noon on Saturdays instead of its usual 3 p.m. closing, it may consider Saturday a business day.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Telephone line.</I> If a provider makes a telephone line available on Sundays for cancelling the transfer, but performs no other business functions, Sunday is not a business day under the “substantially all business functions” standard.
</P>
<HD2>30(c) Designated Recipient
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Person.</I> A designated recipient can be either a natural person or an organization, such as a corporation. <I>See</I> § 1005.2(j) (definition of person). The designated recipient is identified by the name of the person provided by the sender to the remittance transfer provider and disclosed by the provider to the sender pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(iii).
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<P>2. <I>Location in a foreign country.</I> i. A remittance transfer is received at a location in a foreign country if funds are to be received at a location physically outside of any State, as defined in § 1005.2(l). A specific pick-up location need not be designated for funds to be received at a location in a foreign country. If it is specified that the funds will be transferred to a foreign country to be picked up by the designated recipient, the transfer will be received at a location in a foreign country, even though a specific pick-up location within that country has not been designated. If it is specified that the funds will be received at a location on a U.S. military installation that is physically located in a foreign country, the transfer will be received in a State.
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<P>ii. For transfers to a prepaid account (other than a prepaid account that is a payroll card account or a government benefit account), where the funds are to be received in a location physically outside of any State depends on whether the provider at the time the transfer is requested has information indicating that funds are to be received in a foreign country. See comments 30(c)-2.iii and 30(e)-3.i.C for illustrations of when a remittance transfer provider would have such information and when the provider would not. For transfers to all other accounts, whether funds are to be received at a location physically outside of any State depends on where the account is located. If the account is located in a State, the funds will not be received at a location in a foreign country. Further, for these accounts, if they are located on a U.S. military installation that is physically located in a foreign country, then these accounts are located in a State.
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<P>iii. Where the sender does not specify information about a designated recipient's account, but instead provides information about the recipient, a remittance transfer provider may make the determination of whether the funds will be received at a location in a foreign country on information that is provided by the sender, and other information the provider may have, at the time the transfer is requested. For example, if a consumer in a State gives a provider the recipient's email address, and the provider has no other information about whether the funds will be received by the recipient at a location in a foreign country, then the provider may determine that funds are not to be received at a location in a foreign country. However, if the provider at the time the transfer is requested has additional information indicating that funds are to be received in a foreign country, such as if the recipient's email address is already registered with the provider and associated with a foreign account, then the provider has sufficient information to conclude that the remittance transfer will be received at a location in a foreign country. Similarly, if a consumer in a State purchases a prepaid card, and the provider mails or delivers the card directly to the consumer, the provider may conclude that funds are not to be received in a foreign country, because the provider does not know whether the consumer will subsequently send the prepaid card to a recipient in a foreign country. In contrast, the provider has sufficient information to conclude that the funds are to be received in a foreign country if the remittance transfer provider sends a prepaid card to a specified recipient in a foreign country, even if a person located in a State, including the sender, retains the ability to access funds on the prepaid card.
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<P>3. <I>Sender as designated recipient.</I> A “sender,” as defined in § 1005.30(g), may also be a designated recipient if the sender meets the definition of “designated recipient” in § 1005.30(c). For example, a sender may request that a provider send an electronic transfer of funds from the sender's checking account in a State to the sender's checking account located in a foreign country. In this case, the sender would also be a designated recipient.
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<HD2>30(d) Preauthorized Remittance Transfer
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<P>1. <I>Advance authorization.</I> A preauthorized remittance transfer is a remittance transfer authorized in advance of a transfer that will take place on a recurring basis, at substantially regular intervals, and will require no further action by the consumer to initiate the transfer. In a bill-payment system, for example, if the consumer authorizes a remittance transfer provider to make monthly payments to a payee by means of a remittance transfer, and the payments take place without further action by the consumer, the payments are preauthorized remittance transfers. In contrast, if the consumer must take action each month to initiate a transfer (such as by entering instructions on a telephone or home computer), the payments are not preauthorized remittance transfers.
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<HD2>30(e) Remittance Transfer
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<P>1. <I>Electronic transfer of funds.</I> The definition of “remittance transfer” requires an electronic transfer of funds. The term electronic has the meaning given in section 106(2) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act. There may be an electronic transfer of funds if a provider makes an electronic book entry between different settlement accounts to effectuate the transfer. However, where a sender mails funds directly to a recipient, or provides funds to a courier for delivery to a foreign country, there is not an electronic transfer of funds. Similarly, generally, where a provider issues a check, draft, or other paper instrument to be mailed to a person abroad, there is not an electronic transfer of funds. Nonetheless, an electronic transfer of funds occurs for a payment made by a provider under a bill-payment service available to a consumer via computer or other electronic means, unless the terms of the bill-payment service explicitly state that all payments, or all payments to a particular payee or payees, will be solely by check, draft, or similar paper instrument drawn on the consumer's account to be mailed abroad, and the payee or payees that will be paid in this manner are identified to the consumer. With respect to such a bill-payment service, if a provider provides a check, draft or similar paper instrument drawn on a consumer's account to be mailed abroad for a payee that is not identified to the consumer as described above, this payment by check, draft or similar payment instrument will be an electronic transfer of funds.
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<P>2. <I>Sent by a remittance transfer provider.</I> i. The definition of “remittance transfer” requires that a transfer be “sent by a remittance transfer provider.” This means that there must be an intermediary that is directly engaged with the sender to send an electronic transfer of funds on behalf of the sender to a designated recipient.
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<P>ii. A payment card network or other third party payment service that is functionally similar to a payment card network does not send a remittance transfer when a consumer provides a debit, credit or prepaid card directly to a foreign merchant as payment for goods or services. In such a case, the payment card network or third party payment service is not directly engaged with the sender to send a transfer of funds to a person in a foreign country; rather, the network or third party payment service is merely providing contemporaneous third-party payment processing and settlement services on behalf of the merchant or the card issuer, rather than on behalf of the sender. In such a case, the card issuer also is not directly engaged with the sender to send an electronic transfer of funds to the foreign merchant when the card issuer provides payment to the merchant. Similarly, where a consumer provides a checking or other account number, or a debit, credit or prepaid card, directly to a foreign merchant as payment for goods or services, the merchant is not acting as an intermediary that sends a transfer of funds on behalf of the sender when it submits the payment information for processing.
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<P>iii. However, a card issuer or a payment network may offer a service to a sender where the card issuer or a payment network is an intermediary that is directly engaged with the sender to obtain funds using the sender's debit, prepaid or credit card and to send those funds to a recipient's checking account located in a foreign country. In this case, the card issuer or the payment network is an intermediary that is directly engaged with the sender to send an electronic transfer of funds on behalf of the sender, and this transfer of funds is a remittance transfer because it is made to a designated recipient. <I>See</I> comment 30(c)-2.ii.
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<P>3. <I>Examples of remittance transfers.</I>
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<P>i. Examples of remittance transfers include:
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<P>A. Transfers where the sender provides cash or another method of payment to a money transmitter or financial institution and requests that funds be sent to a specified location or account in a foreign country.
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<P>B. Consumer wire transfers, where a financial institution executes a payment order upon a sender's request to wire money from the sender's account to a designated recipient.
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<P>C. An addition of funds to a prepaid card by a participant in a prepaid card program, such as a prepaid card issuer or its agent, that is directly engaged with the sender to add these funds, where the prepaid card is sent or was previously sent by a participant in the prepaid card program to a person in a foreign country, even if a person located in a State (including a sender) retains the ability to withdraw such funds.
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<P>D. International ACH transactions sent by the sender's financial institution at the sender's request.
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<P>E. Online bill payments and other electronic transfers that a sender schedules in advance, including preauthorized remittance transfers, made by the sender's financial institution at the sender's request to a designated recipient.
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<P>ii. The term remittance transfer does not include, for example:
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<P>A. A consumer's provision of a debit, credit or prepaid card, directly to a foreign merchant as payment for goods or services because the issuer is not directly engaged with the sender to send an electronic transfer of funds to the foreign merchant when the issuer provides payment to the merchant. <I>See</I> comment 30(e)-2.
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<P>B. A consumer's deposit of funds to a checking or savings account located in a State, because there has not been a transfer of funds to a designated recipient. <I>See</I> comment 30(c)-2.ii.
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<P>C. Online bill payments and other electronic transfers that senders can schedule in advance, including preauthorized transfers, made through the Web site of a merchant located in a foreign country and via direct provision of a checking account, credit card, debit card or prepaid card number to the merchant, because the financial institution is not directly engaged with the sender to send an electronic transfer of funds to the foreign merchant when the institution provides payment to the merchant. <I>See</I> comment 30(e)-2.
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<HD2>30(f) Remittance Transfer Provider
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<P>1. <I>Agents.</I> A person is not deemed to be acting as a remittance transfer provider when it performs activities as an agent on behalf of a remittance transfer provider.
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<P>2. <I>Normal course of business.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Whether a person provides remittance transfers in the normal course of business depends on the facts and circumstances, including the total number and frequency of remittance transfers sent by the provider. For example, if a financial institution generally does not make remittance transfers available to customers, but sends a couple of such transfers in a given year as an accommodation for a customer, the institution does not provide remittance transfers in the normal course of business. In contrast, if a financial institution makes remittance transfers generally available to customers (whether described in the institution's deposit account agreement, or in practice) and makes transfers more frequently than on an occasional basis, the institution provides remittance transfers in the normal course of business.
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<P>ii. <I>Safe harbor.</I> On July 21, 2020, the safe harbor threshold in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) changed from 100 remittance transfers to 500 remittance transfers. Under § 1005.30(f)(2)(i), beginning on July 21, 2020, a person that provided 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the previous calendar year and provides 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the current calendar year is deemed not to be providing remittance transfers in the normal course of its business. Accordingly, a person that qualifies for the safe harbor in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) is not a “remittance transfer provider” and is not subject to the requirements of subpart B. For purposes of determining whether a person qualifies for the safe harbor under § 1005.30(f)(2)(i), the number of remittance transfers provided includes any transfers excluded from the definition of “remittance transfer” due simply to the safe harbor. In contrast, the number of remittance transfers provided does not include any transfers that are excluded from the definition of “remittance transfer” for reasons other than the safe harbor, such as small value transactions or securities and commodities transfers that are excluded from the definition of “remittance transfer” by § 1005.30(e)(2).
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<P>iii. <I>Transition period.</I> A person may cease to satisfy the requirements of the safe harbor described in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) if, beginning on July 21, 2020, the person provides in excess of 500 remittance transfers in a calendar year. For example, if a person that provided 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the previous calendar year provides more than 500 remittance transfers in the current calendar year, the safe harbor applies to the first 500 remittance transfers that the person provides in the current calendar year. For any additional remittance transfers provided in the current calendar year and for any remittance transfers provided in the subsequent calendar year, whether the person provides remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of its business, as defined in § 1005.30(f)(1), and is thus a remittance transfer provider for those additional transfers, depends on the facts and circumstances. Section 1005.30(f)(2)(ii) provides a reasonable period of time, not to exceed six months, for such a person to begin complying with subpart B, if that person is then providing remittance transfers in the normal course of its business. At the end of that reasonable period of time, such person would be required to comply with subpart B unless, based on the facts and circumstances, the person is not a remittance transfer provider.
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<P>iv. <I>Examples.</I> A. <I>Example of safe harbor and transition period for 100-transfer safe harbor threshold effective prior to July 21, 2020.</I> Assume that a person provided 90 remittance transfers in 2012 and 90 such transfers in 2013. The safe harbor applied to the person's transfers in 2013, as well as the person's first 100 remittance transfers in 2014. However, if the person provided a 101st transfer on September 5, 2014, the facts and circumstances determine whether the person provided remittance transfers in the normal course of business and was thus a remittance transfer provider for the 101st and any subsequent remittance transfers that it provided in 2014. Furthermore, the person would not have qualified for the safe harbor described in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) in 2015 because the person did not provide 100 or fewer remittance transfers in 2014. However, for the 101st remittance transfer provided in 2014, as well as additional remittance transfers provided thereafter in 2014 and 2015, if that person was then providing remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of business, the person had a reasonable period of time, not to exceed six months, to come into compliance with subpart B. Assume that in this case, a reasonable period of time is six months. Thus, compliance with subpart B was not required for remittance transfers made on or before March 5, 2015 (<I>i.e.,</I> six months after September 5, 2014). After March 5, 2015, the person was required to comply with subpart B if, based on the facts and circumstances, the person provided remittance transfers in the normal course of business and was thus a remittance transfer provider.
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<P>B. <I>Example of safe harbor for a person that provided 500 or fewer transfers in 2019 and provides 500 or fewer transfers in 2020.</I> On July 21, 2020, the safe harbor threshold in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) changed from 100 remittance transfers to 500 remittance transfers. Thus, beginning on July 21, 2020, pursuant to § 1005.30(f)(2)(i), a person is deemed not to be providing remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of its business if the person provided 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the previous calendar year and provides 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the current calendar year. If a person provided 500 or fewer transfers in 2019 and provides 500 or fewer remittance transfers in 2020, that person qualifies for the safe harbor threshold in 2020. For example, assume that a person provided 200 remittance transfers in 2019 and 400 remittance transfers in 2020. The safe harbor will apply to the person's transfers in 2020 beginning on July 21, 2020, as well as the person's first 500 transfers in 2021. <I>See</I> comment 30(f)-2.iv.C for an example regarding the transition period if the 500-transfer safe harbor is exceeded.
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<P>C. <I>Example of safe harbor and transition period for the 500-transfer safe harbor threshold beginning on July 21, 2020.</I> Assume that a person provided 490 remittance transfers in 2020 and 490 such transfers in 2021. The safe harbor will apply to the person's transfers in 2021, as well as the person's first 500 remittance transfers in 2022. However, if the person provides a 501st transfer on September 5, 2022, the facts and circumstances determine whether the person provides remittance transfers in the normal course of business and is thus a remittance transfer provider for the 501st and any subsequent remittance transfers that it provides in 2022. Furthermore, the person would not qualify for the safe harbor described in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) in 2023 because the person did not provide 500 or fewer remittance transfers in 2022. However, for the 501st remittance transfer provided in 2022, as well as additional remittance transfers provided thereafter in 2022 and 2023, if that person is then providing remittance transfers for a consumer in the normal course of business, the person will have a reasonable period of time, not to exceed six months, to come into compliance with subpart B of Regulation E. Assume that in this case, a reasonable period of time is six months. Thus, compliance with subpart B is not required for remittance transfers made on or before March 5, 2023 (<I>i.e.,</I> six months after September 5, 2022). After March 5, 2023, the person is required to comply with subpart B if, based on the facts and circumstances, the person provides remittance transfers in the normal course of business and is thus a remittance transfer provider.
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<P>v. <I>Continued compliance for transfers for which payment was made before a person qualifies for the safe harbor.</I> Section 1005.30(f)(2)(iii) addresses situations where a person who previously was required to comply with subpart B of Regulation E newly qualifies for the safe harbor in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i). That section states that the requirements of EFTA and Regulation E, including those set forth in §§ 1005.33 and 1005.34 (which address procedures for resolving errors and procedures for cancellation and refund of remittance transfers, respectively), as well as the requirements set forth in § 1005.13 (which, in part, governs record retention), continue to apply to transfers for which payment is made prior to the date the person qualifies for the safe harbor in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i). Qualifying for the safe harbor in § 1005.30(f)(2)(i) likewise does not excuse compliance with any other applicable law or regulation. For example, if a remittance transfer is also an electronic fund transfer, any requirements in subpart A of Regulation E that apply to the transfer continue to apply, regardless of whether the person must comply with subpart B. Relevant requirements in subpart A may include, but are not limited to, those relating to initial disclosures, change-in-terms notices, liability of consumers for unauthorized transfers, and procedures for resolving errors.
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<P>3. <I>Multiple remittance transfer providers.</I> If the remittance transfer involves more than one remittance transfer provider, only one set of disclosures must be given, and the remittance transfer providers must agree among themselves which provider must take the actions necessary to comply with the requirements that subpart B imposes on any or all of them. Even though the providers must designate one provider to take the actions necessary to comply with the requirements that subpart B imposes on any or all of them, all remittance transfer providers involved in the remittance transfer remain responsible for compliance with the applicable provisions of the EFTA and Regulation E.


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<HD2>30(g) Sender
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<P>1. <I>Determining whether a consumer is located in a State.</I> Under § 1005.30(g), the definition of “sender” means a consumer in a State who, primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, requests a remittance transfer provider to send a remittance transfer to a designated recipient. A sender located on a U.S. military installation that is physically located in a foreign country is located in a State. For transfers sent from a prepaid account (other than a prepaid account that is a payroll card account or a government benefit account), whether the consumer is located in a State depends on the location of the consumer. If the provider does not know where the consumer is at the time the consumer requests the transfer from the consumer's prepaid account (other than a prepaid account that is a payroll card account or a government benefit account) the provider may make the determination of whether a consumer is located in a State based on information that is provided by the consumer and on any records associated with the consumer that the provider may have, such as an address provided by the consumer. For transfers from all other accounts belonging to a consumer, whether a consumer is located in a State depends on where the consumer's account is located. If the account is located in a State, the consumer will be located in a State for purposes of the definition of “sender” in § 1005.30(g), notwithstanding comment 3(a)-3. For these accounts, if they are located on a U.S. military installation that is physically located in a foreign country, then these accounts are located in a State. Where a transfer is requested electronically or by telephone and the transfer is not from an account, the provider may make the determination of whether a consumer is located in a State based on information that is provided by the consumer and on any records associated with the consumer that the provider may have, such as an address provided by the consumer.
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<P>2. <I>Personal, family, or household purposes.</I> Under § 1005.30(g), a consumer is a “sender” only where he or she requests a transfer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. A consumer who requests a transfer primarily for other purposes, such as business or commercial purposes, is not a sender under § 1005.30(g). For transfers from an account that was established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, a remittance transfer provider may generally deem that the transfer is requested primarily for personal, family, or household purposes and the consumer is therefore a “sender” under § 1005.30(g). But if the consumer indicates that he or she is requesting the transfer primarily for other purposes, such as business or commercial purposes, then the consumer is not a sender under § 1005.30(g), even if the consumer is requesting the transfer from an account that is used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
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<P>3. <I>Non-consumer accounts.</I> A transfer that is requested to be sent from an account that was not established primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, such as an account that was established as a business or commercial account or an account held by a business entity such as a corporation, not-for-profit corporation, professional corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or sole proprietorship, is not requested primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. A consumer requesting a transfer from such an account therefore is not a sender under § 1005.30(g). Additionally, a transfer that is requested to be sent from an account held by a financial institution under a <I>bona fide</I> trust agreement pursuant to § 1005.2(b)(2) is not requested primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, and a consumer requesting a transfer from such an account is therefore not a sender under § 1005.30(g).


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<HD2>30(h) Third-Party Fees
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<P>1. <I>Fees imposed on the remittance transfer.</I> Fees imposed on the remittance transfer by a person other than the remittance transfer provider include only those fees that are charged to the designated recipient and are specifically related to the remittance transfer. For example, overdraft fees that are imposed by a recipient's bank or funds that are garnished from the proceeds of a remittance transfer to satisfy an unrelated debt are not fees imposed on the remittance transfer because these charges are not specifically related to the remittance transfer. Account fees are also not specifically related to a remittance transfer if such fees are merely assessed based on general account activity and not for receiving transfers. Where an incoming remittance transfer results in a balance increase that triggers a monthly maintenance fee, that fee is not specifically related to a remittance transfer. Similarly, fees that banks charge one another for handling a remittance transfer or other fees that do not affect the total amount of the transaction or the amount that will be received by the designated recipient are not fees imposed on the remittance transfer. For example, an interchange fee that is charged to a provider when a sender uses a credit or debit card to pay for a remittance transfer is not a fee imposed upon the remittance transfer. Fees that specifically relate to a remittance transfer may be structured on a flat per-transaction basis, or may be conditioned on other factors (such as account status or the quantity of remittance transfers received) in addition to the remittance transfer itself. For example, where an institution charges an incoming transfer fee on most customers' accounts, but not on preferred accounts, such a fee is nonetheless specifically related to a remittance transfer. Similarly, if the institution assesses a fee for every transfer beyond the fifth received each month, such a fee would be specifically related to the remittance transfer regardless of how many remittance transfers preceded it that month.
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<P>2. <I>Covered third-party fees.</I> i. Under § 1005.30(h)(1), a covered third-party fee means any fee that is imposed on the remittance transfer by a person other than the remittance transfer provider that is not a non-covered third-party fee.
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<P>ii. Examples of covered third-party fees include:
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<P>A. Fees imposed on a remittance transfer by intermediary institutions in connection with a wire transfer (sometimes referred to as “lifting fees”).
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<P>B. Fees imposed on a remittance transfer by an agent of the provider at pick-up for receiving the transfer.
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<P>3. <I>Non-covered third-party fees.</I> Under § 1005.30(h)(2), a non-covered third-party fee means any fee imposed by the designated recipient's institution for receiving a remittance transfer into an account except if such institution acts as the agent of the remittance transfer provider. For example, a fee imposed by the designated recipient's institution for receiving an incoming transfer into an account is a non-covered third-party fee, provided such institution is not acting as the agent of the remittance transfer provider. <I>See also</I> comment 31(b)(1)(viii)-1. Furthermore, designated recipient's account in § 1005.30(h)(2) refers to an asset account, regardless of whether it is a consumer asset account, established for any purpose and held by a bank, savings association, credit union, or equivalent institution. A designated recipient's account does not, however, include a credit card, prepaid card, or a virtual account held by an Internet-based or mobile telephone company that is not a bank, savings association, credit union or equivalent institution.
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<HD1>Section 1005.31—Disclosures
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<HD2>31(a) General Form of Disclosures
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<HD2>31(a)(1) Clear and Conspicuous
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<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of subpart B if they are readily understandable and, in the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size are readily noticeable to senders. Oral disclosures as permitted by § 1005.31(a)(3), (4), and (5) are clear and conspicuous when they are given at a volume and speed sufficient for a sender to hear and comprehend them.
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<P>2. <I>Abbreviations and symbols.</I> Disclosures may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations or symbols, such as “USD” to indicate currency in U.S. dollars or “MXN” to indicate currency in Mexican pesos.
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<HD2>31(a)(2) Written and Electronic Disclosures
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<P>1. <I>E-Sign Act requirements.</I> If a sender electronically requests the remittance transfer provider to send a remittance transfer, the disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(1) may be provided to the sender in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). If a sender electronically requests the provider to send a remittance transfer, the disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(2) may be provided to the sender in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act. <I>See</I> § 1005.4(a)(1).
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<P>2. <I>Paper size.</I> Written disclosures may be provided on any size paper, as long as the disclosures are clear and conspicuous. For example, disclosures may be provided on a register receipt or on an 8.5 inch by 11 inch sheet of paper.
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<P>3. <I>Retainable electronic disclosures.</I> A remittance transfer provider may satisfy the requirement to provide electronic disclosures in a retainable form if it provides an online disclosure in a format that is capable of being printed. Electronic disclosures may not be provided through a hyperlink or in another manner by which the sender can bypass the disclosure. A provider is not required to confirm that the sender has read the electronic disclosures.
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<P>4. <I>Pre-payment disclosures to a mobile telephone.</I> Disclosures provided via mobile application or text message, to the extent permitted by § 1005.31(a)(5), need not be retainable. However, disclosures provided electronically to a mobile telephone that are not provided via mobile application or text message must be retainable. For example, disclosures provided via email must be retainable, even if a sender accesses them by mobile telephone.
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<P>5. <I>Disclosures provided by fax.</I> For purposes of disclosures required to be provided pursuant to § 1005.31 or § 1005.36, disclosures provided by facsimile transmission (<I>i.e.,</I> fax) are considered to be provided in writing for purposes of providing disclosures in writing pursuant to subpart B and are not subject to the requirements for electronic disclosures set forth in § 1005.31(a)(2).
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<HD2>31(a)(3) Disclosures for Oral Telephone Transactions
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<P>1. <I>Transactions conducted partially by telephone.</I> Except as provided in comment 31(a)(3)-2, for transactions conducted partially by telephone, providing the information required by § 1005.31(b)(1) to a sender orally does not fulfill the requirement to provide the disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(1). For example, a sender may begin a remittance transfer at a remittance transfer provider's dedicated telephone in a retail store, and then provide payment in person to a store clerk to complete the transaction. In such cases, all disclosures must be provided in writing. A provider complies with this requirement, for example, by providing the written pre-payment disclosure in person prior to the sender's payment for the transaction, and the written receipt when the sender pays for the transaction.
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<P>2. <I>Oral telephone transactions.</I> Section 1005.31(a)(3) applies to transactions conducted orally and entirely by telephone, such as transactions conducted orally on a landline or mobile telephone. A remittance transfer provider may treat a written or electronic communication as an inquiry when it believes that treating the communication as a request would be impractical. For example, if a sender physically located abroad contacts a U.S. branch of the sender's financial institution and attempts to initiate a remittance transfer by first sending a mailed letter, further communication with the sender by letter may be impractical due to the physical distance and likely mail delays. In such circumstances, a provider may conduct the transaction orally and entirely by telephone pursuant to § 1005.31(a)(3) when the provider treats that initial communication as an inquiry and subsequently responds to the consumer's inquiry by calling the consumer on a telephone and orally gathering or confirming the information needed to identify and understand a request for a remittance transfer and otherwise conducts the transaction orally and entirely by telephone.
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<HD2>31(a)(5) Disclosures for Mobile Application or Text Message Transactions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Mobile application and text message transactions.</I> A remittance transfer provider may provide the required pre-payment disclosures orally or via mobile application or text message if the transaction is conducted entirely by telephone via mobile application or text message, the remittance transfer provider complies with the requirements of § 1005.31(g)(2), and the provider discloses orally or via mobile application or text message a statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) pursuant to the timing requirements in § 1005.31(e)(1). For example, if a sender conducts a transaction via text message on a mobile telephone, the remittance transfer provider may call the sender and orally provide the required pre-payment disclosures. Alternatively, the provider may provide the required pre-payment disclosures via text message. Section 1005.31(a)(5) applies only to transactions conducted entirely by mobile telephone via mobile application or text message.
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<HD2>31(b) Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures provided as applicable.</I> Disclosures required by § 1005.31(b) need only be provided to the extent applicable. A remittance transfer provider may choose to omit an item of information required by § 1005.31(b) if it is inapplicable to a particular transaction. Alternatively, for disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(i) through (vii), a provider may disclose a term and state that an amount or item is “not applicable,” “N/A,” or “None.” For example, if fees or taxes are not imposed in connection with a particular transaction, the provider need not provide the disclosures about fees and taxes generally required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii), the disclosures about covered third-party fees generally required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi), or the disclaimers about non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected by a person other than the provider generally required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii). Similarly, a Web site need not be disclosed if the provider does not maintain a Web site. A provider need not provide the exchange rate disclosure required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) if a recipient receives funds in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded, or if funds are delivered into an account denominated in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded. For example, if a sender in the United States sends funds from an account denominated in Euros to an account in France denominated in Euros, no exchange rate would need to be provided. Similarly, if a sender funds a remittance transfer in U.S. dollars and requests that a remittance transfer be delivered to the recipient in U.S. dollars, a provider need not disclose an exchange rate.
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<P>2. <I>Substantially similar terms, language, and notices.</I> Certain disclosures required by § 1005.31(b) must be described using the terms set forth in § 1005.31(b) or substantially similar terms. Terms may be more specific than those provided. For example, a remittance transfer provider sending funds may describe fees imposed by an agent at pick-up as “Pick-up Fees” in lieu of describing them as “Other Fees.” Foreign language disclosures required under § 1005.31(g) must contain accurate translations of the terms, language, and notices required by § 1005.31(b) or permitted by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) and § 1005.33(h)(3).
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<HD2>31(b)(1) Pre-Payment Disclosures
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<P>1. <I>Fees and taxes.</I> i. Taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the remittance transfer provider include taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a State or other governmental body. A provider need only disclose fees imposed or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the provider in § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii), as applicable. For example, if no transfer taxes are imposed on a remittance transfer, a provider would only disclose applicable transfer fees. <I>See</I> comment 31(b)-1. If both fees and taxes are imposed, the fees and taxes must be disclosed as separate, itemized disclosures. For example, a provider would disclose all transfer fees using the term “Transfer Fees” or a substantially similar term and would separately disclose all transfer taxes using the term “Transfer Taxes” or a substantially similar term.
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<P>ii. The fees and taxes required to be disclosed by § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii) include all fees imposed and all taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the provider. For example, a provider must disclose any service fee, any fees imposed by an agent of the provider at the time of the transfer, and any State taxes collected on the remittance transfer at the time of the transfer. Fees imposed on the remittance transfer by the provider required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii) include only those fees that are charged to the sender and are specifically related to the remittance transfer. <I>See also</I> comment 30(h)-1. In contrast, the fees required to be disclosed by § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) are any covered third-party fees as defined in § 1005.30(h)(1).
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<P>iii. The term used to describe the fees imposed on the remittance transfer by the provider in § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii) and the term used to describe covered third-party fees under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) must differentiate between such fees. For example the terms used to describe fees disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii) and (vi) may not both be described solely as “Fees.”
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<P>2. <I>Transfer amount.</I> Sections 1005.31(b)(1)(i) and (v) require two transfer amount disclosures. First, under § 1005.31(b)(1)(i), a provider must disclose the transfer amount in the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded to show the calculation of the total amount of the transaction. Typically, the remittance transfer is funded in U.S. dollars, so the transfer amount would be expressed in U.S. dollars. However, if the remittance transfer is funded, for example, from a Euro-denominated account, the transfer amount would be expressed in Euros. Second, under § 1005.31(b)(1)(v), a provider must disclose the transfer amount in the currency in which the funds will be made available to the designated recipient. For example, if the funds will be picked up by the designated recipient in Japanese yen, the transfer amount would be expressed in Japanese yen. However, this second transfer amount need not be disclosed if covered third-party fees as described under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) are not imposed on the remittance transfer. The terms used to describe each transfer amount should be the same.
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<P>3. <I>Exchange rate for calculation.</I> The exchange rate used to calculate the transfer amount in § 1005.31(b)(1)(v), the covered third-party fees in § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi), the amount received in § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii), and the optional disclosures of non-covered third-party fees and other taxes permitted by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) is the exchange rate in § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv), including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate. For example, if one U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.9483779 Mexican pesos, a provider must calculate these disclosures using this rate, even though the provider may disclose pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) that the U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.9484 Mexican pesos. Similarly, if a provider estimates pursuant to § 1005.32 that one U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.9483 Mexican pesos, a provider must calculate these disclosures using this rate, even though the provider may disclose pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) that the U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.95 Mexican pesos (Estimated). If an exchange rate need not be rounded, a provider must use that exchange rate to calculate these disclosures. For example, if one U.S. dollar exchanges for exactly 11.9 Mexican pesos, a provider must calculate these disclosures using this exchange rate.
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<HD2>31(b)(1)(iv) Exchange Rate
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<P>1. <I>Applicable exchange rate.</I> If the designated recipient will receive funds in a currency other than the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded, a remittance transfer provider must disclose the exchange rate to be used by the provider for the remittance transfer. An exchange rate that is estimated must be disclosed pursuant to the requirements of § 1005.32. A remittance transfer provider may not disclose, for example, that an exchange rate is “unknown,” “floating,” or “to be determined.” If a provider does not have specific knowledge regarding the currency in which the funds will be received, the provider may rely on a sender's representation as to the currency in which funds will be received for purposes of determining whether an exchange rate is applied to the transfer. For example, if a sender requests that a remittance transfer be deposited into an account in U.S. dollars, the provider need not disclose an exchange rate, even if the account is actually denominated in Mexican pesos and the funds are converted prior to deposit into the account. If a sender does not know the currency in which funds will be received, the provider may assume that the currency in which funds will be received is the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded.
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<P>2. <I>Rounding.</I> The exchange rate disclosed by the provider for the remittance transfer is required to be rounded. The provider may round to two, three, or four decimal places, at its option. For example, if one U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.9483779 Mexican pesos, a provider may disclose that the U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.9484 Mexican pesos. The provider may alternatively disclose, for example, that the U.S. dollar exchanges for 11.948 pesos or 11.95 pesos. On the other hand, if one U.S. dollar exchanges for exactly 11.9 Mexican pesos, the provider may disclose that “US$1 = 11.9 MXN” in lieu of, for example, “US$1 = 11.90 MXN.” The exchange rate disclosed for the remittance transfer must be rounded consistently for each currency. For example, a provider may not round to two decimal places for some transactions exchanged into Euros and round to four decimal places for other transactions exchanged into Euros.
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<P>3. <I>Exchange rate used.</I> The exchange rate used by the provider for the remittance transfer need not be set by that provider. For example, an exchange rate set by an intermediary institution and applied to the remittance transfer would be the exchange rate used for the remittance transfer and must be disclosed by the provider.
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<HD2>31(b)(1)(vi) Disclosure of Covered Third-Party Fees
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<P>1. <I>Fees disclosed in the currency in which the funds will be received.</I> Section 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) requires the disclosure of covered third-party fees in the currency in which the funds will be received by the designated recipient. A covered third-party fee described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) may be imposed in one currency, but the funds may be received by the designated recipient in another currency. In such cases, the remittance transfer provider must calculate the fee to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) in the currency of receipt using the exchange rate in § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv), including an estimated exchange rate to the extent permitted by § 1005.32, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate. For example, an intermediary institution involved in sending an international wire transfer funded in U.S. dollars may impose a fee in U.S. dollars, but funds are ultimately deposited in the recipient's account in Euros. In this case, the provider would disclose the covered third-party fee to the sender expressed in Euros, calculated using the exchange rate disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv), prior to any rounding of the exchange rate. For purposes of § 1005.31(b)(1)(v), (vi), and (vii), if a provider does not have specific knowledge regarding the currency in which the funds will be received, the provider may rely on a sender's representation as to the currency in which funds will be received. For example, if a sender requests that a remittance transfer be deposited into an account in U.S. dollars, the provider may provide the disclosures required in § 1005.31(b)(1)(v), (vi), and (vii) in U.S. dollars, even if the account is actually denominated in Mexican pesos and the funds are subsequently converted prior to deposit into the account. If a sender does not know the currency in which funds will be received, the provider may assume that the currency in which funds will be received is the currency in which the remittance transfer is funded.
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<HD2>31(b)(1)(vii) Amount Received
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<P><I>1. Amount received.</I> The remittance transfer provider is required to disclose the amount that will be received by the designated recipient in the currency in which the funds will be received. The amount received must reflect the exchange rate, all fees imposed and all taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the remittance transfer provider, as well as any covered third-party fees required to be disclosed by § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi). The disclosed amount received must be reduced by the amount of any fee or tax—except for a non-covered third-party fee or tax collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider—that is imposed on the remittance transfer that affects the amount received even if that amount is imposed or itemized separately from the transaction amount.
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<HD2>31(b)(1)(viii) Statement When Additional Fees and Taxes May Apply
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<P>1. <I>Required disclaimer when non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected by a person other than the provider may apply.</I> If non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected by a person other than the provider apply to a particular remittance transfer or if a provider does not know if such fees or taxes may apply to a particular remittance transfer, § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) requires the provider to include the disclaimer with respect to such fees and taxes. Required disclosures under § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) may only be provided to the extent applicable. For example, if the designated recipient's institution is an agent of the provider and thus, non-covered third-party fees cannot apply to the transfer, the provider must disclose all fees imposed on the remittance transfer and may not provide the disclaimer regarding non-covered third-party fees. In this scenario, the provider may only provide the disclaimer regarding taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider, as applicable. <I>See</I> Model Form A-30(c).
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<P>2. <I>Optional disclosure of non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected by a person other than the provider.</I> When a remittance transfer provider knows the non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider that will apply to a particular transaction, § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) permits the provider to disclose the amount of such fees and taxes. Section 1005.32(b)(3) additionally permits a provider to disclose an estimate of such fees and taxes, provided any estimates are based on reasonable source of information. <I>See</I> comment 32(b)(3)-1. For example, a provider may know that the designated recipient's institution imposes an incoming wire fee for receiving a transfer. Alternatively, a provider may know that foreign taxes will be collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the remittance transfer provider. In these examples, the provider may choose, at its option, to disclose the amounts of the relevant recipient institution fee and tax as part of the information disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii). The provider must not include that fee or tax in the amount disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) or (b)(1)(vii). Fees and taxes disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) must be disclosed in the currency in which the funds will be received. <I>See</I> comment 31(b)(1)(vi)-1. Estimates of any non-covered third-party fees and any taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider must be disclosed in accordance with § 1005.32(b)(3).


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<HD2>31(b)(2) Receipt
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<P>1. <I>Date funds will be available.</I> A remittance transfer provider does not comply with the requirements of § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) if it provides a range of dates that the remittance transfer may be available or an estimate of the date on which funds will be available. If a provider does not know the exact date on which funds will be available, the provider may disclose the latest date on which the funds will be available. For example, if funds may be available on January 3, but are not certain to be available until January 10, then a provider complies with § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) if it discloses January 10 as the date funds will be available. However, a remittance transfer provider may also disclose that funds “may be available sooner” or use a substantially similar term to inform senders that funds may be available to the designated recipient on a date earlier than the date disclosed. For example, a provider may disclose “January 10 (may be available sooner).”
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<P>2. <I>Agencies required to be disclosed.</I> A remittance transfer provider must only disclose information about a State agency that licenses or charters the remittance transfer provider with respect to the remittance transfer as applicable. For example, if a financial institution is solely regulated by a Federal agency, and not licensed or chartered by a State agency, then the institution need not disclose information about a State agency. A remittance transfer provider must disclose information about the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, whether or not the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau is the provider's primary Federal regulator.
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<P>3. <I>State agency that licenses or charters a provider.</I> A remittance transfer provider must only disclose information about one State agency that licenses or charters the remittance transfer provider with respect to the remittance transfer, even if other State agencies also regulate the remittance transfer provider. For example, a provider may disclose information about the State agency which granted its license. If a provider is licensed in multiple States, and the State agency that licenses the provider with respect to the remittance transfer is determined by a sender's location, a provider may make the determination as to the State in which the sender is located based on information that is provided by the sender and on any records associated with the sender. For example, if the State agency that licenses the provider with respect to an online remittance transfer is determined by a sender's location, a provider could rely on the sender's statement regarding the State in which the sender is located and disclose the State agency that licenses the provider in that State. A State-chartered bank must disclose information about the State agency that granted its charter, regardless of the location of the sender.
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<P>4. <I>Web site of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.</I> Section 1005.31(b)(2)(vi) requires a remittance transfer provider to disclose the name, toll-free telephone number(s), and Web site of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau. Providers may satisfy this requirement by disclosing the Web site of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's homepage, <I>www.consumerfinance.gov,</I> as shown on Model Forms A-32, A-34, A-35, and A-39. Alternatively, providers may, but are not required to, disclose the Bureau's Web site as the address of a page on the Bureau's Web site that provides information for consumers about remittance transfers, currently, <I>consumerfinance.gov/sending-money</I>, as shown on Model Form A-31. In addition, providers making disclosures in a language other than English pursuant to § 1005.31(g) may, but are not required to, disclose the Bureau's Web site as a page on the Bureau's Web site that provides information for consumers about remittance transfers in the relevant language, if such Web site exists. For example, a provider that is making disclosures in Spanish under § 1005.31(g) may, but is not required to, disclose the Bureau's Web site on Spanish-language disclosures as the page on the Bureau's Web site that provides information regarding remittance transfers in Spanish, currently <I>consumerfinance.gov/envios.</I> This optional disclosure is shown on Model A-40. The Bureau will publish a list of any other foreign language Web sites that provide information regarding remittance transfers.
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<P>5. <I>Date of transfer on receipt.</I> Where applicable, § 1005.31(b)(2)(vii) requires disclosure of the date of transfer for the remittance transfer that is the subject of a receipt required by § 1005.31(b)(2), including a receipt that is provided in accordance with the timing requirements in § 1005.36(a). For any subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer subject to § 1005.36(d)(2)(ii), the future date of transfer must be provided on any receipt provided for the initial transfer in that series of preauthorized remittance transfers, or where permitted, or disclosed as permitted by § 1005.31(a)(3) and (a)(5), in accordance with § 1005.36(a)(1)(i).
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<P>6. <I>Transfer date disclosures.</I> The following example demonstrates how the information required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(vii) and § 1005.36(d)(1) should be disclosed on receipts: On July 1, a sender instructs the provider to send a preauthorized remittance transfer of US$100 each week to a designated recipient. The sender requests that first transfer in the series be sent on July 15. On the receipt, the remittance transfer provider discloses an estimated exchange rate to the sender pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(2). In accordance with § 1005.31(b)(2)(vii), the provider should disclose the date of transfer for that particular transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> July 15) on the receipt provided when payment is made for the transfer pursuant to the timing requirements in § 1005.36(a)(1)(i). The second receipt, which § 1005.36(a)(1)(ii) requires to be provided within one business day after the date of the transfer or, for transfers from the sender's account held by the provider, on the next regularly scheduled periodic statement or within 30 days after payment is made if a periodic statement is not provided, is also required to include the date of transfer. If the provider discloses on either receipt the cancellation period applicable to and dates of subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers in accordance with § 1005.36(d)(2), the disclosure must be phrased and formatted in such a way that it is clear to the sender which cancellation period is applicable to any date of transfer on the receipt.
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<P>7. <I>Cancellation disclosure.</I> Remittance transfer providers that offer remittance transfers scheduled three or more business days before the date of the transfer, as well as remittance transfers scheduled fewer than three business days before the date of the transfer, may meet the cancellation disclosure requirements in § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) by describing the three-business-day and 30-minute cancellation periods on the same disclosure and using a checkbox or other method to clearly designate the applicable cancellation period. The provider may use a number of methods to indicate which cancellation period applies to the transaction including, but not limited to, a statement to that effect, use of a checkbox, highlighting, circling, and the like. For transfers scheduled three business days before the date of the transfer, the cancellation disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) should be phrased and formatted in such a way that it is clear to the sender which cancellation period is applicable to the date of transfer disclosed on the receipt.
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<HD2>31(b)(3) Combined Disclosure
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<P>1. <I>Proof of payment.</I> If a sender initiating a remittance transfer receives a combined disclosure provided under § 1005.31(b)(3) and then completes the transaction, the remittance transfer provider must provide the sender with proof of payment. The proof of payment must be clear and conspicuous, provided in writing or electronically, and provided in a retainable form. The combined disclosure must be provided to the sender when the sender requests the remittance transfer, but prior to payment for the transfer, pursuant to § 1005.31(e)(1), and the proof of payment must be provided when payment is made for the remittance transfer. The proof of payment for the transaction may be provided on the same piece of paper as the combined disclosure or on a separate piece of paper. For example, a provider may feed a combined disclosure through a computer printer when payment is made to add the date and time of the transaction, a confirmation code, and an indication that the transfer was paid in full. A provider may also provide this additional information to a sender on a separate piece of paper when payment is made. A remittance transfer provider does not comply with the requirements of § 1005.31(b)(3) by providing a combined disclosure with no further indication that payment has been received.
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<P>2. <I>Confirmation of scheduling.</I> As discussed in comment 31(e)-2, payment is considered to be made when payment is authorized for purposes of various timing requirements in subpart B, including with regard to the timing requirement for provision of the proof of payment described in § 1005.31(b)(3)(i). However, where a transfer (whether a one-time remittance transfer or the first in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers) is scheduled before the date of transfer and the provider does not intend to process payment until at or near the date of transfer, the provider may provide a confirmation of scheduling in lieu of the proof of payment required by § 1005.31(b)(3)(i). No further proof of payment is required when payment is later processed.
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<HD2>31(c) Specific Format Requirements
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<HD2>31(c)(1) Grouping
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<P>1. <I>Grouping.</I> Information is grouped together for purposes of subpart B if multiple disclosures are in close proximity to one another and a sender can reasonably calculate the total amount of the transaction and the amount that will be received by the designated recipient. Model Forms A-30(a)-(d) through A-35 in Appendix A illustrate how information may be grouped to comply with the rule, but a remittance transfer provider may group the information in another manner. For example, a provider could provide the grouped information as a horizontal, rather than a vertical, calculation. A provider could also send multiple text messages sequentially to provide the full disclosure.
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<HD2>31(c)(4) Segregation
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<P>1. <I>Segregation.</I> Disclosures may be segregated from other information in a variety of ways. For example, the disclosures may appear on a separate sheet of paper or may appear on the front of a page where other information appears on the back of that page. The disclosures may be set off from other information on a notice by outlining them in a box or series of boxes, with bold print dividing lines or a different color background, or by using other means.
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<P>2. <I>Directly related.</I> For purposes of § 1005.31(c)(4), the following is directly related information:
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<P>i. The date and time of the transaction;
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<P>ii. The sender's name and contact information;
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<P>iii. The location at which the designated recipient may pick up the funds;
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<P>iv. The confirmation or other identification code;
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<P>v. A company name and logo;
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<P>vi. An indication that a disclosure is or is not a receipt or other indicia of proof of payment;
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<P>vii. A designated area for signatures or initials;
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<P>viii. A statement that funds may be available sooner, as permitted by § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii);
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<P>ix. Instructions regarding the retrieval of funds, such as the number of days the funds will be available to the recipient before they are returned to the sender; and
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<P>x. A statement that the provider makes money from foreign currency exchange.
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<P>xi. Disclosure of any non-covered third-party fees and any taxes collected by a person other than the provider pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii).
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<HD2>31(d) Estimates
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<P>1. <I>Terms.</I> A remittance transfer provider may provide estimates of the amounts required by § 1005.31(b), to the extent permitted by § 1005.32. An estimate must be described using the term “Estimated” or a substantially similar term in close proximity to the term or terms described. For example, a remittance transfer provider could describe an estimated disclosure as “Estimated Transfer Amount,” “Other Estimated Fees and Taxes,” or “Total to Recipient (Est.).”
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<HD2>31(e) Timing
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<P>1. <I>Request to send a remittance transfer.</I> Except as provided in § 1005.36(a), pre-payment and combined disclosures are required to be provided to the sender when the sender requests the remittance transfer, but prior to payment for the transfer. Whether a consumer has requested a remittance transfer depends on the facts and circumstances. A sender that asks a provider to send a remittance transfer, and provides transaction-specific information to the provider in order to send funds to a designated recipient, has requested a remittance transfer. A sender that has sent an email, fax, mailed letter, or similar written or electronic communication has not requested a remittance transfer if the provider believes that it is impractical for the provider to treat that communication as a request and if the provider treats the communication as an inquiry and subsequently responds to that inquiry by calling the consumer on a telephone and orally gathering or confirming the information needed to process a request for a remittance transfer. <I>See</I> comment 31(a)(3)-2. Likewise, a consumer who solely inquires about that day's rates and fees to send to Mexico has not requested the provider to send a remittance transfer. Conversely, a sender who asks the provider at an agent location to send money to a recipient in Mexico and provides the sender and recipient information to the provider has requested a remittance transfer.
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<P>2. <I>When payment is made.</I> Except as provided in § 1005.36(a), a receipt required by § 1005.31(b)(2) must be provided to the sender when payment is made for the remittance transfer. For example, a remittance transfer provider could give the sender the disclosures after the sender pays for the remittance transfer, but before the sender leaves the counter. A provider could also give the sender the disclosures immediately before the sender pays for the transaction. For purposes of subpart B, payment is made, for example, when a sender provides cash to the remittance transfer provider or when payment is authorized.
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<P>3. <I>Telephone transfer from an account.</I> A sender may transfer funds from his or her account, as defined by § 1005.2(b), that is held by the remittance transfer provider. For example, a financial institution may send an international wire transfer for a sender using funds from the sender's account with the institution. Except as provided in § 1005.36(a), if the sender conducts such a transfer entirely by telephone, the institution may provide a receipt required by § 1005.31(b)(2) on or with the sender's next regularly scheduled periodic statement for that account or within 30 days after payment is made for the remittance transfer if a periodic statement is not provided.
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<P>4. <I>Mobile application and text message transactions.</I> If a transaction is conducted entirely by telephone via mobile application or text message, a receipt required by § 1005.31(b)(2) may be mailed or delivered to the sender pursuant to the timing requirements in § 1005.31(e)(2). For example, if a sender conducts a transfer entirely by telephone via mobile application, a remittance transfer provider may mail or deliver the disclosures to a sender pursuant to the timing requirements in § 1005.31(e)(2).
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<P>5. <I>Statement about cancellation rights.</I> The statement about the rights of the sender regarding cancellation required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) may, but need not, be disclosed pursuant to the timing requirements of § 1005.31(e)(2) if a provider discloses this information pursuant to § 1005.31(a)(3)(iii) or (a)(5)(iii). The statement about the rights of the sender regarding error resolution required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv), however, must be disclosed pursuant to the timing requirements of § 1005.31(e)(2).
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<HD2>31(f) Accurate When Payment Is Made
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<P>1. <I>No guarantee of disclosures provided before payment.</I> Except as provided in § 1005.36(b), disclosures required by § 1005.31(b) or permitted by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) must be accurate when a sender makes payment for the remittance transfer. A remittance transfer provider is not required to guarantee the terms of the remittance transfer in the disclosures required or permitted by § 1005.31(b) for any specific period of time. However, if any of the disclosures required by § 1005.31(b) or permitted by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) are not accurate when a sender makes payment for the remittance transfer, a provider must give new disclosures before accepting payment.
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<HD2>31(g) Foreign Language Disclosures
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<P>1. <I>Number of foreign languages used in written disclosure.</I> Section 1005.31(g)(1) does not limit the number of languages that may be used on a single document, but such disclosures must be clear and conspicuous pursuant to § 1005.31(a)(1). Under § 1005.31(g)(1), a remittance transfer provider may, but need not, provide the sender with a written or electronic disclosure that is in English and, if applicable, in each foreign language that the remittance transfer provider principally uses to advertise, solicit, or market either orally, in writing, or electronically, at the office in which a sender conducts a transaction or asserts an error, respectively. Alternatively, the remittance transfer provider may provide the disclosure solely in English and, if applicable, the foreign language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction or assert an error, provided such language is principally used by the remittance transfer provider to advertise, solicit, or market either orally, in writing, or electronically, at the office in which the sender conducts the transaction or asserts the error, respectively. If the remittance transfer provider chooses the alternative method, it may provide disclosures in a single document with both languages or in two separate documents with one document in English and the other document in the applicable foreign language. The following examples illustrate this concept.
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<P>i. A remittance transfer provider principally uses only Spanish and Vietnamese to advertise, solicit, or market remittance transfer services at a particular office. The remittance transfer provider may provide all senders with disclosures in English, Spanish, and Vietnamese, regardless of the language the sender uses with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction or assert an error.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as i. If a sender primarily uses Spanish with the remittance transfer provider to conduct a transaction or assert an error, the remittance transfer provider may provide a written or electronic disclosure in English and Spanish, whether in a single document or two separate documents. If the sender primarily uses English with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction or assert an error, the remittance transfer provider may provide a written or electronic disclosure solely in English. If the sender primarily uses a foreign language with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction or assert an error that the remittance transfer provider does not use to advertise, solicit, or market either orally, in writing, or electronically, at the office in which the sender conducts the transaction or asserts the error, respectively, the remittance transfer provider may provide a written or electronic disclosure solely in English.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Primarily used.</I> The language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction is the primary language used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to convey the information necessary to complete the transaction. Similarly, the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to assert the error is the primary language used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to provide the information required by § 1005.33(b) to assert an error. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A sender initiates a conversation with a remittance transfer provider with a greeting in English and expresses interest in sending a remittance transfer to Mexico in English. If the remittance transfer provider thereafter communicates with the sender in Spanish and the sender conveys the other information needed to complete the transaction, including the designated recipient's information and the amount and funding source of the transfer, in Spanish, then Spanish is the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. A sender initiates a conversation with the remittance transfer provider with a greeting in English and states in English that there was a problem with a prior remittance transfer to Vietnam. If the remittance transfer provider thereafter communicates with the sender in Vietnamese and the sender uses Vietnamese to convey the information required by § 1005.33(b) to assert an error, then Vietnamese is the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to assert the error.
</P>
<P>iii. A sender accesses the Web site of a remittance transfer provider that may be used by senders to conduct remittance transfers or assert errors. The Web site is offered in English and French. If the sender uses the French version of the Web site to conduct the remittance transfer, then French is the language primarily used by the sender with the remittance transfer provider to conduct the transaction.
</P>
<HD2>31(g)(1) General
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Principally used.</I> i. All relevant facts and circumstances determine whether a foreign language is principally used by the remittance transfer provider to advertise, solicit, or market under § 1005.31(g)(1). Generally, whether a foreign language is considered to be principally used by the remittance transfer provider to advertise, solicit, or market is based on:
</P>
<P>A. The frequency with which the foreign language is used in advertising, soliciting, or marketing of remittance transfer services at that office;
</P>
<P>B. The prominence of the advertising, soliciting, or marketing of remittance transfer services in that foreign language at that office; and
</P>
<P>C. The specific foreign language terms used in the advertising soliciting, or marketing of remittance transfer service at that office.
</P>
<P>ii. For example, if a remittance transfer provider posts several prominent advertisements in a foreign language for remittance transfer services, including rate and fee information, on a consistent basis in an office, the provider is creating an expectation that a consumer could receive information on remittance transfer services in the foreign language used in the advertisements. The foreign language used in such advertisements would be considered to be principally used at that office based on the frequency and prominence of the advertising. In contrast, an advertisement for remittance transfer services, including rate and fee information, that is featured prominently at an office and is entirely in English, except for a greeting in a foreign language, does not create an expectation that a consumer could receive information on remittance transfer services in the foreign language used for such greeting. The foreign language used in such an advertisement is not considered to be principally used at that office based on the incidental specific foreign language term used.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Advertise, solicit, or market.</I> i. Any commercial message in a foreign language, appearing in any medium, that promotes directly or indirectly the availability of remittance transfer services constitutes advertising, soliciting, or marketing in such foreign language for purposes of § 1005.31(g)(1). Examples illustrating when a foreign language is used to advertise, solicit, or market include:
</P>
<P>A. Messages in a foreign language in a leaflet or promotional flyer at an office.
</P>
<P>B. Announcements in a foreign language on a public address system at an office.
</P>
<P>C. On-line messages in a foreign language, such as on the internet.
</P>
<P>D. Printed material in a foreign language on any exterior or interior sign at an office.
</P>
<P>E. Point-of-sale displays in a foreign language at an office.
</P>
<P>F. Telephone solicitations in a foreign language.
</P>
<P>ii. Examples illustrating use of a foreign language for purposes other than to advertise, solicit, or market include:
</P>
<P>A. Communicating in a foreign language (whether by telephone, electronically, or otherwise) about remittance transfer services in response to a consumer-initiated inquiry.
</P>
<P>B. Making disclosures in a foreign language that are required by Federal or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Office.</I> An office includes any physical location, telephone number, or Web site of a remittance transfer provider where a sender may conduct a remittance transfer or assert an error for a remittance transfer. The location need not exclusively offer remittance transfer services. For example, if an agent of a remittance transfer provider is located in a grocery store, the grocery store is considered an office for purposes of § 1005.31(g)(1). Because a consumer must be located in a State in order to be considered a “sender” under § 1005.30(g), a Web site is not an office for purposes of § 1005.31(g)(1), even if the Web site can be accessed by consumers that are located in the United States, unless a sender may conduct a remittance transfer on the Web site or may assert an error for a remittance transfer on the Web site.
</P>
<P>4. <I>At the office.</I> Any advertisement, solicitation, or marketing is considered to be made at the office in which a sender conducts a transaction or asserts an error if such advertisement, solicitation, or marketing is posted, provided, or made: at a physical office of a remittance transfer provider; on a Web site of a remittance transfer provider that may be used by senders to conduct remittance transfers or assert errors; during a telephone call with a remittance transfer provider that may be used by senders to conduct remittance transfers or assert errors; or via mobile application or text message by a remittance transfer provider if the mobile application or text message may be used by senders to conduct remittance transfers or assert errors. An advertisement, solicitation, or marketing that is considered to be made at an office does not include general advertisements, solicitations, or marketing that are not intended to be made at a particular office. For example, if an advertisement for remittance transfers in Chinese appears in a Chinese newspaper that is being distributed at a grocery store in which the agent of a remittance transfer provider is located, such advertisement would not be considered to be made at that office. For disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.31, the relevant office is the office in which the sender conducts the transaction. For disclosures provided pursuant to § 1005.33 for error resolution purposes, the relevant office is the office in which the sender first asserts the error, not the office where the transaction was conducted.
</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.32—Estimates
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures where estimates can be used.</I> Sections 1005.32(a) and (b)(1), (b)(4), and (b)(5) permit estimates to be used in certain circumstances for disclosures described in §§ 1005.31(b)(1) through (3) and 1005.36(a)(1) and (2). To the extent permitted in § 1005.32(a) and (b)(1), (b)(4), and (b)(5), estimates may be used in the pre-payment disclosure described in § 1005.31(b)(1), the receipt disclosure described in § 1005.31(b)(2), the combined disclosure described in § 1005.31(b)(3), and the pre-payment disclosures and receipt disclosures for both first and subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers described in § 1005.36(a)(1) and (2). Section 1005.32(b)(2) permits estimates to be used for certain information if the remittance transfer is scheduled by a sender five or more business days before the date of the transfer, for disclosures described in § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) and (a)(2)(i).


</P>
<HD2>32(a) Temporary Exception for Insured Institutions
</HD2>
<HD2>32(a)(1) General
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Control.</I> For purposes of this section, an insured institution cannot determine exact amounts “for reasons beyond its control” when a person other than the insured institution or with which the insured institution has no correspondent relationship sets the exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) or imposes a covered third-party fee required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi). For example, if an insured institution has a correspondent relationship with an intermediary financial institution in another country and that intermediary institution sets the exchange rate or imposes a fee for remittance transfers sent from the insured institution to the intermediary institution, then the insured institution must determine exact amounts for the disclosures required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) or (vi), because the determination of those amounts are not beyond the insured institution's control.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of scenarios that qualify for the temporary exception.</I> The following examples illustrate when an insured institution cannot determine an exact amount “for reasons beyond its control” and thus would qualify for the temporary exception.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Exchange rate.</I> An insured institution cannot determine the exact exchange rate to disclose under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) for an international wire transfer if the insured institution does not set the exchange rate, and the rate is set when the funds are deposited into the recipient's account by the designated recipient's institution with which the insured institution does not have a correspondent relationship. The insured institution will not know the exchange rate that the recipient institution will apply when the funds are deposited into the recipient's account.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Covered third-party fees.</I> An insured institution cannot determine the exact covered third-party fees to disclose under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) if an intermediary institution with which the insured institution does not have a correspondent relationship, imposes a transfer or conversion fee.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of scenarios that do not qualify for the temporary exception.</I> The following examples illustrate when an insured institution can determine exact amounts and thus would not qualify for the temporary exception.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Exchange rate.</I> An insured institution can determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) if it converts the funds into the local currency to be received by the designated recipient using an exchange rate that it sets. The determination of the exchange rate is in the insured institution's control even if there is no correspondent relationship with an intermediary institution in the transmittal route or the designated recipient's institution.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Covered third-party fees.</I> An insured institution can determine the exact covered third-party fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) if it has agreed upon the specific fees with an intermediary correspondent institution, and this correspondent institution is the only institution in the transmittal route to the designated recipient's institution.
</P>
<HD2>32(b) Permanent Exceptions
</HD2>
<HD2>32(b)(1) Permanent Exceptions for Transfers to Certain Countries
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Laws of the recipient country.</I> The laws of the recipient country do not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine exact amounts required to be disclosed when a law or regulation of the recipient country requires the person making funds directly available to the designated recipient to apply an exchange rate that is:
</P>
<P>i. Set by the government of the recipient country after the remittance transfer provider sends the remittance transfer or
</P>
<P>ii. Set when the designated recipient receives the funds.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example illustrating when exact amounts can and cannot be determined because of the laws of the recipient country.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The laws of the recipient country do not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when, for example, the government of the recipient country, on a daily basis, sets the exchange rate that must, by law, apply to funds received and the funds are made available to the designated recipient in the local currency the day after the remittance transfer provider sends the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, the laws of the recipient country permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when, for example, the government of the recipient country ties the value of its currency to the U.S. dollar.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Method by which transactions are made in the recipient country.</I> The method by which transactions are made in the recipient country does not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine exact amounts required to be disclosed when transactions are sent via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is a rate set by the recipient country's central bank or other governmental authority after the provider sends the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Example illustrating when exact amounts can and cannot be determined because of the method by which transactions are made in the recipient country.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The method by which transactions are made in the recipient country does not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when the provider sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is a rate set by the recipient country's central bank on the business day after the provider has sent the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, a remittance transfer provider would not qualify for the § 1005.32(b)(1)(i)(B) methods exception if it sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and a private-sector entity or entities in the recipient country, under which the exchange rate is set by the institution acting as the entry point to the recipient country's payments system on the next business day. However, a remittance transfer provider sending a remittance transfer using such a method may qualify for the § 1005.32(a) temporary exception or the exception set forth in § 1005.32(b)(4).
</P>
<P>iii. A remittance transfer provider would not qualify for the § 1005.32(b)(1)(i)(B) methods exception if, for example, it sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is set by the recipient country's central bank or other governmental authority before the sender requests a transfer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Safe harbor list.</I> If a country is included on a safe harbor list published by the Bureau under § 1005.32(b)(1)(ii), a remittance transfer provider may provide estimates of the amounts to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii). If a country does not appear on the Bureau's list, a remittance transfer provider may provide estimates under § 1005.32(b)(1)(i) if the provider determines that the recipient country does not legally permit or the method by which transactions are conducted in that country does not permit the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reliance on Bureau list of countries.</I> A remittance transfer provider may rely on the list of countries published by the Bureau to determine whether the laws of a recipient country do not permit the remittance transfer provider to determine exact amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii). Thus, if a country is on the Bureau's list, the provider may give estimates under this section, unless a remittance transfer provider has information that a country on the Bureau's list legally permits the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Change in laws of recipient country.</I>
</P>
<P>i. If the laws of a recipient country change such that a remittance transfer provider can determine exact amounts, the remittance transfer provider must begin providing exact amounts for the required disclosures as soon as reasonably practicable if the provider has information that the country legally permits the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>ii. If the laws of a recipient country change such that a remittance transfer provider cannot determine exact disclosure amounts, the remittance transfer provider may provide estimates under § 1005.32(b)(1)(i), even if that country does not appear on the list published by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example illustrating when exact amounts can and cannot be determined because of the laws of the recipient country.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The laws of the recipient country do not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when, for example, the government of the recipient country, on a daily basis, sets the exchange rate that must, by law, apply to funds received and the funds are made available to the designated recipient in the local currency the day after the remittance transfer provider sends the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, the laws of the recipient country permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when, for example, the government of the recipient country ties the value of its currency to the U.S. dollar.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Method by which transactions are made in the recipient country.</I> The method by which transactions are made in the recipient country does not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine exact amounts required to be disclosed when transactions are sent via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is a rate set by the recipient country's central bank or other governmental authority after the provider sends the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Example illustrating when exact amounts can and cannot be determined because of the method by which transactions are made in the recipient country.</I>
</P>
<P>i. The method by which transactions are made in the recipient country does not permit a remittance transfer provider to determine the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) when the provider sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is a rate set by the recipient country's central bank on the business day after the provider has sent the remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, a remittance transfer provider would not qualify for the § 1005.32(b)(1)(i)(B) methods exception if it sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and a private-sector entity or entities in the recipient country, under which the exchange rate is set by the institution acting as the entry point to the recipient country's payments system on the next business day. However, a remittance transfer provider sending a remittance transfer using such a method may qualify for the § 1005.32(a) temporary exception.
</P>
<P>iii. A remittance transfer provider would not qualify for the § 1005.32(b)(1)(i)(B) methods exception if, for example, it sends a remittance transfer via international ACH on terms negotiated between the United States government and the recipient country's government, under which the exchange rate is set by the recipient country's central bank or other governmental authority before the sender requests a transfer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Safe harbor list.</I> If a country is included on a safe harbor list published by the Bureau under § 1005.32(b)(1)(ii), a remittance transfer provider may provide estimates of the amounts to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (b)(1)(vii). If a country does not appear on the Bureau's list, a remittance transfer provider may provide estimates under § 1005.32(b)(1)(i) if the provider determines that the recipient country does not legally permit or method by which transactions are conducted in that country does not permit the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reliance on Bureau list of countries.</I> A remittance transfer provider may rely on the list of countries published by the Bureau to determine whether the laws of a recipient country do not permit the remittance transfer provider to determine exact amounts required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii). Thus, if a country is on the Bureau's list, the provider may give estimates under this section, unless a remittance transfer provider has information that a country on the Bureau's list legally permits the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Change in laws of recipient country.</I> i. If the laws of a recipient country change such that a remittance transfer provider can determine exact amounts, the remittance transfer provider must begin providing exact amounts for the required disclosures as soon as reasonably practicable if the provider has information that the country legally permits the provider to determine exact disclosure amounts.
</P>
<P>ii. If the laws of a recipient country change such that a remittance transfer provider cannot determine exact disclosure amounts, the remittance transfer provider may provide estimates under § 1005.32(b)(1)(i), even if that country does not appear on the list published by the Bureau.
</P>
<HD2>32(b)(2) Permanent Exceptions for Transfers Scheduled Before the Date of Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Fixed amount of foreign currency.</I> The following is an example of when and how a remittance transfer provider may disclose estimates for remittance transfers scheduled five or more business days before the date of transfer where the provider agrees to the sender's request to fix the amount to be transferred in a currency in which the transfer will be received and not the currency in which it was funded. If on February 1, a sender schedules a 1000 Euro wire transfer to be sent from the sender's bank account denominated in U.S. dollars to a designated recipient on February 15, § 1005.32(b)(2) allows the provider to estimate the amount that will be transferred to the designated recipient (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(i)), any fees imposed or taxes collected on the remittance transfer by the provider (if based on the amount transferred) (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(ii)), and the total amount of the transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount described in § 1005.31(b)(1)(iii)). The provider may also estimate any covered third-party fees if the exchange rate is also estimated and the estimated exchange rate affects the amount of fees (as allowed by § 1005.32(b)(2)(ii)).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 1005.10(d).</I> To the extent § 1005.10(d) requires, for an electronic fund transfer that is also a remittance transfer, notice when a preauthorized electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account will vary in amount from the previous transfer under the same authorization or from the preauthorized amount, that provision applies even if subpart B would not otherwise require notice before the date of transfer. However, insofar as § 1005.10(d) does not specify the form of such notice, a notice sent pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(2)(i) will satisfy § 1005.10(d) as long as the timing requirements of § 1005.10(d) are satisfied.
</P>
<HD2>32(b)(3) Permanent Exception for Optional Disclosure of Non-Covered Third-Party Fees and Taxes Collected on the Remittance Transfer by a Person Other Than the Provider
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable sources of information.</I> Pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(3) a remittance transfer provider may estimate applicable non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected on the remittance transfer by a person other than the provider using reasonable sources of information. Reasonable sources of information may include, for example: information obtained from recent transfers to the same institution or the same country or region; fee schedules from the recipient institution; fee schedules from the recipient institution's competitors; surveys of recipient institution fees in the same country or region as the recipient institution; information provided or surveys of recipient institutions' regulators or taxing authorities; commercially or publicly available databases, services or sources; and information or resources developed by international nongovernmental organizations or intergovernmental organizations.


</P>
<HD2>32(b)(4) Permanent Exception for Estimation of the Exchange Rate by an Insured Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Determining the exact exchange rate.</I> For purposes of § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(B), an insured institution cannot determine, at the time it must provide the applicable disclosures, the exact exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) for a remittance transfer to a particular country where the designated recipient of the transfer will receive funds in the country's local currency if a person other than the insured institution sets the exchange rate for that transfer, except where that person has a correspondent relationship with the insured institution, that person is a service provider for the insured institution, or that person acts as an agent of the insured institution.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Example where an insured institution cannot determine the exact exchange rate.</I> The following example illustrates when an insured institution cannot determine an exact exchange rate under § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(B) for a remittance transfer:
</P>
<P>A. An insured institution or its service provider does not set the exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv), and the rate is set when the funds are deposited into the recipient's account by the designated recipient's institution that does not have a correspondent relationship with, and does not act as an agent of, the insured institution.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples where an insured institution can determine the exact exchange rate.</I> The following examples illustrate when an insured institution can determine an exact exchange rate under § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(B) for a remittance transfer, and thus the insured institution may not use the exception in § 1005.32(b)(4) to estimate the disclosures required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) through (vii) for the remittance transfer:
</P>
<P>A. An insured institution has a correspondent relationship with an intermediary financial institution (or the intermediary financial institution acts as an agent of the insured institution) and that intermediary financial institution sets the exchange rate required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) for a remittance transfer.
</P>
<P>B. An insured institution or its service provider converts the funds into the local currency to be received by the designated recipient for a remittance transfer using an exchange rate that the insured institution or its service provider sets. The insured institution can determine the exact exchange rate for purposes of § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(B) for the remittance transfer even if the insured institution does not have a correspondent relationship with an intermediary financial institution in the transmittal route or the designated recipient's institution, and an intermediary financial institution in the transmittal route or the designed recipient's institution does not act as an agent of the insured institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of determining whether an insured institution made 1,000 or fewer remittance transfers in the prior calendar year to a particular country pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(C):
</P>
<P>i. The number of remittance transfers provided includes transfers in the prior calendar year to that country when the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency regardless of whether the exchange rate was estimated for those transfers. For example, an insured institution exceeds the 1,000-transfer threshold in the prior calendar year if the insured institution provided 700 remittance transfers to a country in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency when the exchange rate was estimated for those transfers and also sends 400 remittance transfers to the same country in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency and the exchange rate for those transfers was not estimated.
</P>
<P>ii. The number of remittance transfers does not include remittance transfers to a country in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers did not receive the funds in the country's local currency. For example, an insured institution does not exceed the 1,000-transfer threshold in the prior calendar year if the insured institution provides 700 remittance transfers to a country in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency and also sends 400 remittance transfers to the same country in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers did not receive funds in the country's local currency.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transition period.</I> If an insured institution in the prior calendar year did not exceed the 1,000-transfer threshold to a particular country pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(C), but does exceed the 1,000-transfer threshold in the current calendar year, the insured institution has a reasonable amount of time after exceeding the 1,000-transfer threshold to begin providing exact exchange rates in disclosures (assuming it cannot rely on another exception in § 1005.32 to estimate the exchange rate). The reasonable amount of time must not exceed the later of six months after exceeding the 1,000-transfer threshold in the current calendar year or January 1 of the next year. For example, assume an insured institution did not exceed the 1,000-transfer threshold to a particular country pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(4)(i)(C) in 2020, but does exceed the 1,000-transfer threshold on December 1, 2021. The insured institution would have a reasonable amount of time after December 1, 2021 to begin providing exact exchange rates in disclosures (assuming it cannot rely on another exception in § 1005.32 to estimate the exchange rate). In this case, the reasonable amount of time must not exceed June 1, 2022 (which is six months after the insured institution exceeds the 1,000-transfer threshold in the previous year).


</P>
<HD2>32(b)(5) Permanent Exception for Estimation of Covered Third-Party Fees by an Insured Institution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Insured institution cannot determine the exact covered third-party fees.</I> For purposes of § 1005.32(b)(5)(i)(B), an insured institution cannot determine, at the time it must provide the applicable disclosures, the exact covered third-party fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) for a remittance transfer to a designated recipient's institution when all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>i. The insured institution does not have a correspondent relationship with the designated recipient's institution;
</P>
<P>ii. The designated recipient's institution does not act as an agent of the insured institution;
</P>
<P>iii. The insured institution does not have an agreement with the designated recipient's institution with respect to the imposition of covered third-party fees on the remittance transfer (<I>e.g.,</I> an agreement whereby the designated recipient's institution agrees to charge back any covered third-party fees to the insured institution rather than impose the fees on the remittance transfer); and
</P>
<P>iv. The insured institution does not know at the time the disclosures are given that the only intermediary financial institutions that will impose covered third-party fees on the transfer are those institutions that have a correspondent relationship with or act as an agent for the insured institution, or have otherwise agreed upon the covered third-party fees with the insured institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insured institution can determine the exact covered third-party fees.</I> For purposes of § 1005.32(b)(5)(i)(B), an insured institution can determine, at the time it must provide the applicable disclosures, exact covered third-party fees, and thus the insured institution may not use the exception in § 1005.32(b)(5) to estimate the disclosures required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) or (vii) for the transfer, if any of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>i. An insured institution has a correspondent relationship with the designated recipient's institution;
</P>
<P>ii. The designated recipient's institution acts as an agent of the insured institution;
</P>
<P>iii. An insured institution has an agreement with the designated recipient's institution with respect to the imposition of covered third-party fees on the remittance transfer; or
</P>
<P>iv. An insured institution knows at the time the disclosures are given that the only intermediary financial institutions that will impose covered third-party fees on the transfer are those institutions that have a correspondent relationship with or act as an agent for the insured institution, or have otherwise agreed upon the covered third-party fees with the insured institution.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of determining whether an insured institution made 500 or fewer remittance transfers in the prior calendar year to a particular designated recipient's institution pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(5)(i)(C):
</P>
<P>i. The number of remittance transfers provided includes remittance transfers in the prior calendar year to that designated recipient's institution regardless of whether the covered third-party fees were estimated for those transfers. For example, an insured institution exceeds the 500-transfer threshold in the prior calendar year if an insured institution provides 300 remittance transfers to the designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year when the covered third-party fees were estimated for those transfers and also sends 400 remittance transfers to the designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year and the covered third-party fees for those transfers were not estimated.
</P>
<P>ii. The number of remittance transfers includes remittance transfers provided to the designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year regardless of whether the designated recipients received the funds in the country's local currency or in another currency. For example, an insured institution exceeds the 500-transfer threshold in the prior calendar year if the insured institution provides 300 remittance transfers to the designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers received funds in the country's local currency and also sends 400 remittance transfers to the same designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year when the designated recipients of those transfers did not receive funds in the country's local currency.
</P>
<P>iii. The number of remittance transfers includes remittance transfers provided to the designated recipient's institution and any of its branches in the country to which the particular transfer described in § 1005.32(b)(5) is being sent. For example, if the particular remittance transfer described in § 1005.32(b)(5) is being sent to the designated recipient's institution Bank XYZ in Nigeria, the number of remittance transfers for purposes of the 500-transfer threshold would include remittances transfers in the previous calendar year that were sent to Bank XYZ, or to its branches, in Nigeria. The 500-transfer threshold would not include remittance transfers that were sent to branches of Bank XYZ that were located in any country other than Nigeria.
</P>
<P>4. <I>United States Federal statute or regulation.</I> An insured institution can still use § 1005.32(b)(5) to provide estimates of covered third-party fees for a remittance transfer sent to a particular designated recipient's institution even if the insured institution sent more than 500 transfers to the designated recipient's institution in the prior calendar year if a United States Federal statute or regulation prohibits the insured institution from being able to determine the exact covered third-party fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) for the remittance transfer and the insured institution meets the other conditions set forth in § 1005.32(b)(5). A United States Federal statute or regulation specifically prohibits the insured institution from being able to determine the exact covered third-party fees for the remittance transfer if the United States Federal statute or regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Prohibits the insured institution from disclosing exact covered third-party fees in disclosures for transfers to a designated recipient's institution; or
</P>
<P>ii. Makes it infeasible for the insured institution to form a relationship with the designated recipient's institution and that relationship is necessary for the insured institution to be able to determine, at the time it must provide the applicable disclosures, exact covered third-party fees.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transition period.</I> If an insured institution in the prior calendar year did not exceed the 500-transfer threshold to a particular designated recipient's institution pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(5)(i)(C), but does exceed the 500-transfer threshold in the current calendar year, the insured institution has a reasonable amount of time after exceeding the 500-transfer threshold to begin providing exact covered third-party fees in disclosures (assuming that a United States Federal statute or regulation does not prohibit the insured institution from being able to determine the exact covered third-party fees, or the insured institution cannot rely on another exception in § 1005.32 to estimate covered third-party fees). The reasonable amount of time must not exceed the later of six months after exceeding the 500-transfer threshold in the current calendar year or January 1 of the next year. For example, assume an insured institution did not exceed the 500-transfer threshold to a particular designated recipient's institution pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(5)(i)(C) in 2020, but does exceed the 500-transfer threshold on December 1, 2021. The insured institution would have a reasonable amount of time after December 1, 2021 to begin providing exact covered third-party fees in disclosures (assuming that a United States Federal statute or regulation does not prohibit the insured institution from being able to determine the exact covered third-party fees, or the insured institution cannot rely on another exception in § 1005.32 to estimate covered third-party fees). In this case, the reasonable amount of time must not exceed June 1, 2022 (which is six months after the insured institution exceeds the 500-transfer threshold in the previous year).


</P>
<HD2>32(c) Bases for Estimates
</HD2>
<HD2>32(c)(1) Exchange Rate
</HD2>
<P><I>1. Most recent exchange rate for qualifying international ACH transfers.</I> If the exchange rate for a remittance transfer sent via international ACH that qualifies for the § 1005.32(b)(1)(i)(B) exception is set the following business day, the most recent exchange rate available for a transfer is the exchange rate set for the day that the disclosure is provided, <I>i.e.,</I> the current business day's exchange rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Publicly available.</I> Examples of publicly available sources of information containing the most recent wholesale exchange rate for a currency include U.S. news services, such as Bloomberg, the Wall Street Journal, and the New York Times; a recipient country's national news services, and a recipient country's central bank or other government agency.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spread.</I> An estimate for disclosing the exchange rate based on the most recent publicly available wholesale exchange rate must also reflect any spread the remittance transfer provider typically applies to the wholesale exchange rate for remittance transfers for a particular currency.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Most recent.</I> For the purposes of § 1005.32(c)(1)(ii) and (iii), if the exchange rate with respect to a particular currency is published or provided multiple times throughout the day because the exchange rate fluctuates throughout the day, a remittance transfer provider may use any exchange rate available on that day to determine the most recent exchange rate.
</P>
<HD2>32(c)(3) Covered Third-Party Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Potential transmittal routes.</I> A remittance transfer from the sender's account at an insured institution to the designated recipient's institution may take several routes, depending on the correspondent relationships each institution in the transmittal route has with other institutions. In providing an estimate of the fees required to be disclosed under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi) pursuant to the § 1005.32(a) temporary exception or the exception under § 1005.32(b)(5), an insured institution may rely upon the representations of the designated recipient's institution and the institutions that act as intermediaries in any one of the potential transmittal routes that it reasonably believes a requested remittance transfer may travel.


</P>
<HD2>32(d) Bases for Estimates for Transfers Scheduled Before the Date of Transfer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> When providing an estimate pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(2), § 1005.32(d) requires that a remittance transfer provider's estimated exchange rate must be the exchange rate (or estimated exchange rate) that the remittance transfer provider would have used or did use that day in providing disclosures to a sender requesting such a remittance transfer to be made on the same day. If, for the same-day remittance transfer, the provider could utilize an exception permitting the provision of estimates in § 1005.32(a) or (b)(1), or (4), the provider may provide estimates based on a methodology permitted under § 1005.32(c). For example, if, on February 1, the sender schedules a remittance transfer to occur on February 10, the provider should disclose the exchange rate as if the sender was requesting the transfer be sent on February 1. However, if at the time payment is made for the requested transfer, the remittance transfer provider could not send any remittance transfer until the next day (for reasons such as the provider's deadline for the batching of transfers), the remittance transfer provider can use the rate (or estimated exchange rate) that the remittance transfer provider would have used or did use in providing disclosures that day with respect to a remittance transfer requested that day that could not be sent until the following day.


</P>
<HD1>Section 1005.33—Procedures for Resolving Errors
</HD1>
<HD2>33(a) Definition of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Incorrect amount of currency paid by sender.</I> Section 1005.33(a)(1)(i) covers circumstances in which a sender pays an amount that differs from the total amount of the transaction, including fees imposed in connection with the transfer, stated in the receipt or combined disclosure provided under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3). Such error may be asserted by a sender regardless of the form or method of payment provided, including when a debit, credit, or prepaid card is used to fund the transfer and an excess amount is paid. For example, if a remittance transfer provider incorrectly charged a sender's credit card account for US$150, and US$120 was sent, plus a transfer fee of US$10, the sender could assert an error with the remittance transfer provider for the incorrect charge under § 1005.33(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Incorrect amount of currency received—coverage.</I> Section 1005.33(a)(1)(iii) covers circumstances in which the designated recipient receives an amount of currency that differs from the amount of currency identified on the disclosures provided to the sender, except where the disclosure stated an estimate of the amount of currency to be received in accordance with § 1005.32 and the difference results from application of the actual exchange rate, fees, and taxes, rather than any estimated amounts, or the failure was caused by circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control. A designated recipient may receive an amount of currency that differs from the amount of currency disclosed, for example, if an exchange rate other than the disclosed rate is applied to the remittance transfer, or if the provider fails to account for fees or taxes that may be imposed by the provider or a third party before the transfer is picked up by the designated recipient or deposited into the recipient's account in the foreign country. However, if the provider rounds the exchange rate used to calculate the amount received consistent with § 1005.31(b)(1)(iv) and comment 31(b)(1)(iv)-2 for the disclosed rate, there is no error if the designated recipient receives an amount of currency that results from applying the exchange rate used, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate, to calculate fees, taxes, or the amount received rather than the disclosed rate. Section 1005.33(a)(1)(iii) also covers circumstances in which the remittance transfer provider transmits an amount that differs from the amount requested by the sender.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Incorrect amount of currency received—examples.</I> For purposes of the following examples illustrating the error for an incorrect amount of currency received under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iii), assume that none of the circumstances permitting an estimate under § 1005.32 apply (unless otherwise stated).
</P>
<P>i. A consumer requests to send funds to a relative in Mexico to be received in local currency. Upon receiving the sender's payment, the remittance transfer provider provides a receipt indicating that the amount of currency that will be received by the designated recipient will be 1180 Mexican pesos, after fees and taxes are applied. However, when the relative picks up the transfer in Mexico a day later, he only receives 1150 Mexican pesos because the exchange rate applied by the recipient agent in Mexico was lower than the exchange rate used by the provider, prior to any rounding of the exchange rate, to disclose the amount of currency to be received by the designated recipient on the receipt. Because the designated recipient has received less than the amount of currency disclosed on the receipt, an error has occurred.
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer requests to send funds to a relative in Colombia to be received in local currency. The remittance transfer provider provides the sender a receipt stating an amount of currency that will be received by the designated recipient, which does not reflect the additional foreign taxes that will be collected in Colombia on the transfer but does include the statement required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii). If the designated recipient will receive less than the amount of currency disclosed on the receipt due solely to the additional foreign taxes that the provider was not required to disclose, no error has occurred.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in ii., except that the receipt provided by the remittance transfer provider does not reflect additional fees that are imposed by the receiving agent in Colombia on the transfer. Because the designated recipient will receive less than the amount of currency disclosed in the receipt due to the additional covered third-party fees, an error has occurred.
</P>
<P>iv. A consumer requests to send US$250 to a relative in India to a U.S. dollar-denominated account held by the relative at an Indian bank. Instead of the US$250 disclosed on the receipt as the amount to be sent, the remittance transfer provider sends US$200, resulting in a smaller deposit to the designated recipient's account than was disclosed as the amount to be received after fees and taxes. Because the designated recipient received less than the amount of currency that was disclosed, an error has occurred.
</P>
<P>v. A consumer requests to send US$100 to a relative in a foreign country to be received in local currency. The remittance transfer provider provides the sender a receipt that discloses an estimated exchange rate, other taxes, and amount of currency that will be received due to the law in the foreign country requiring that the exchange rate be set by the foreign country's central bank. When the relative picks up the remittance transfer, the relative receives less currency than the estimated amount disclosed to the sender on the receipt due to application of the actual exchange rate, fees, and taxes, rather than any estimated amounts. Because § 1005.32(b) permits the remittance transfer provider to disclose an estimate of the amount of currency to be received, no error has occurred unless the estimate was not based on an approach set forth under § 1005.32(c).
</P>
<P>vi. A sender requests that his bank send US$120 to a designated recipient's account at an institution in a foreign country. The foreign institution is not an agent of the provider. Only US$100 is deposited into the designated recipient's account because the recipient institution imposed a US$20 incoming wire fee and deducted the fee from the amount transferred. Because this fee is a non-covered third-party fee that the provider is not required to disclose under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi), no error has occurred if the provider provided the disclosure required by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incorrect amount of currency received—extraordinary circumstances.</I> Under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iii)(B), a remittance transfer provider's failure to make available to a designated recipient the amount of currency disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii) and stated in the disclosure provided pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3) for the remittance transfer is not an error if such failure was caused by extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated. Examples of extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iii)(B) include circumstances such as war or civil unrest, natural disaster, garnishment or attachment of some of the funds after the transfer is sent, and government actions or restrictions that could not have been reasonably anticipated by the remittance transfer provider, such as the imposition of foreign currency controls or foreign taxes unknown at the time the receipt or combined disclosure is provided under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Failure to make funds available by disclosed date of availability—coverage.</I> Section 1005.33(a)(1)(iv) generally covers disputes about the failure to make funds available in connection with a remittance transfer to a designated recipient by the disclosed date of availability. If only a portion of the funds were made available by the disclosed date of availability, then § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv) does not apply, but § 1005.33(a)(1)(iii) may apply instead. The following are examples of errors for failure to make funds available by the disclosed date of availability (assuming that none of the exceptions in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(A), (B), or (C) apply).
</P>
<P>i. Late or non-delivery of a remittance transfer;
</P>
<P>ii. Delivery of funds to the wrong account;
</P>
<P>iii. The fraudulent pick-up of a remittance transfer in a foreign country by a person other than the designated recipient;
</P>
<P>iv. The recipient agent or institution's retention of the remittance transfer, instead of making the funds available to the designated recipient.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Failure to make funds available by disclosed date of availability—extraordinary circumstances.</I> Under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(A), a remittance transfer provider's failure to deliver or transmit a remittance transfer by the disclosed date of availability is not an error if such failure was caused by extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated. Examples of extraordinary circumstances outside the remittance transfer provider's control that could not have been reasonably anticipated under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(A) include circumstances such as war or civil unrest, natural disaster, garnishment or attachment of funds after the transfer is sent, and government actions or restrictions that could not have been reasonably anticipated by the remittance transfer provider, such as the imposition of foreign currency controls.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Failure to make funds available by disclosed date of availability—fraud and other screening procedures.</I> Under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(B), a remittance transfer provider's failure to deliver funds by the disclosed date of availability is not an error if such delay is related to the provider's or any third party's investigation necessary to address potentially suspicious, blocked or prohibited activity, and the provider did not and could not have reasonably foreseen the delay so as to enable it to timely disclose an accurate date of availability when providing the sender with a receipt or combined disclosure. For example, no error occurs if delivery of funds is delayed because, after the receipt is provided, the provider's fraud screening system flags a remittance transfer because the designated recipient has a name similar to the name of a blocked person under a sanctions program and further investigation is needed to determine that the designated recipient is not actually a blocked person. Similarly, no error occurs where, after disclosing a date of availability to the sender, a remittance transfer provider receives specific law enforcement information indicating that the characteristics of a remittance transfer match a pattern of fraudulent activity, and as a result, the provider deems it necessary to delay delivery of the funds to allow for further investigation. However, if a delay could have been reasonably foreseen, the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(B) would not apply. For example, if a provider knows in time to make a disclosure that all remittance transfers to a certain geographic area must undergo screening procedures that routinely delay such transfers by two days, the provider's failure to include the additional two days in its disclosure of the date of availability constitutes an error if delivery of the funds is indeed delayed beyond the disclosed date of availability.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Sender account number or recipient institution identifier error.</I> The exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) applies where a sender gives the remittance transfer provider an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier and all five conditions in § 1005.33(h) are satisfied. The exception does not apply, however, where the failure to make funds available is the result of a mistake by a provider or a third party or due to incorrect or insufficient information provided by the sender other than an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier, such as an incorrect name of the recipient institution.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Account number or recipient institution identifier.</I> For purposes of the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D), the terms account number and recipient institution identifier refer to alphanumerical account or institution identifiers other than names or addresses, such as account numbers, routing numbers, Canadian transit numbers, International Bank Account Numbers (IBANs), Business Identifier Codes (BICs) and other similar account or institution identifiers used to route a transaction. In addition and for purposes of this exception, the term designated recipient's account in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) refers to an asset account, regardless of whether it is a consumer asset account, established for any purpose and held by a bank, savings association, credit union, or equivalent institution. A designated recipient's account does not, however, include a credit card, prepaid card, or a virtual account held by an Internet-based or mobile telephone company that is not a bank, savings association, credit union or equivalent institution.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Recipient-requested changes.</I> Under § 1005.33(a)(2)(iii), a change requested by the designated recipient that the remittance transfer provider or others involved in the remittance transfer decide to accommodate is not considered an error. The exception under § 1005.33(a)(2)(iii) is available only if the change is made solely because the designated recipient requested the change. For example, if a sender requests to send US$100 to a designated recipient at a designated location, but the designated recipient requests the amount in a different currency (either at the sender-designated location or another location requested by the recipient) and the remittance transfer provider accommodates the recipient's request, the change does not constitute an error.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Change from disclosure made in reliance on sender information.</I> Under the commentary accompanying § 1005.31, the remittance transfer provider may rely on the sender's representations in making certain disclosures. <I>See, e.g.,</I> comments 31(b)(1)(iv)-1 and 31(b)(1)(vi)-1. For example, suppose a sender requests U.S. dollars to be deposited into an account of the designated recipient and represents that the account is U.S. dollar-denominated. If the designated recipient's account is actually denominated in local currency and the recipient account-holding institution must convert the remittance transfer into local currency in order to deposit the funds and complete the transfer, the change in currency does not constitute an error pursuant to § 1005.33(a)(2)(iv).
</P>
<HD2>33(b) Notice of Error From Sender
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Person asserting or discovering error.</I> The error resolution procedures of this section apply only when a notice of error is received from the sender, and not when a notice of error is received from the designated recipient or when the remittance transfer provider itself discovers and corrects an error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of error notice.</I> The notice of error is effective so long as the remittance transfer provider is able to identify the elements in § 1005.33(b)(1)(ii). For example, the sender could provide the confirmation number or code that would be used by the designated recipient to pick up the transfer, or other identification number or code supplied by the remittance transfer provider in connection with the transfer, if such number or code is sufficient for the remittance transfer provider to identify the sender (and contact information), designated recipient, and the transfer in question. For an account-based remittance transfer, the notice of error is effective even if it does not contain the sender's account number, so long as the remittance transfer provider is able to identify the account and the transfer in question.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Address on notice of error.</I> A remittance transfer provider may request, or a sender may provide, the sender's or designated recipient's email address, as applicable, instead of a physical address, on a notice of error.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Effect of late notice.</I> A remittance transfer provider is not required to comply with the requirements of this section for any notice of error from a sender that is received by the provider more than 180 days from the disclosed date of availability of the remittance transfer to which the notice of error applies or, if applicable, more than 60 days after a provider sent documentation, additional information, or clarification requested by the sender, provided such date is later than 180 days after the disclosed date of availability.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Notice of error provided to agent.</I> A notice of error provided by a sender to an agent of the remittance transfer provider is deemed to be received by the provider under § 1005.33(b)(1)(i) when received by the agent.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Consumer notice of error resolution rights.</I> Section 1005.31 requires a remittance transfer provider to include an abbreviated notice of the consumer's error resolution rights on the receipt or combined notice provided under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3). In addition, the remittance transfer provider must make available to a sender upon request, a notice providing a full description of the sender's error resolution rights, using language set forth in Appendix A of this part (Model Form A-36) or substantially similar language.
</P>
<HD2>33(c) Time Limits and Extent of Investigation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Notice to sender of finding of error.</I> If the remittance transfer provider determines during its investigation that an error occurred as described by the sender, the remittance provider may inform the sender of its findings either orally or in writing. However, if the provider determines that no error or a different error occurred, the provider must provide a written explanation of its findings under § 1005.33(d)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Incorrect or insufficient information provided for transfer.</I> The remedy in § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) applies if a remittance transfer provider's failure to make funds in connection with a remittance transfer available to a designated recipient by the disclosed date of availability occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information in connection with the transfer, such as by erroneously identifying the designated recipient's address or by providing insufficient information such that the entity distributing the funds cannot identify the correct designated recipient. A sender is not considered to have provided incorrect or insufficient information for purposes of § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) if the provider discloses the incorrect location where the transfer may be picked up, gives the wrong confirmation number/code for the transfer, or otherwise miscommunicates information necessary for the designated recipient to pick-up the transfer. The remedies in § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) do not apply if the sender provided an incorrect account number or recipient institution identifier and the provider has met the requirements of § 1005.33(h) because under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) no error would have occurred. <I>See</I> § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) and comment 33(a)-7.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Designation of requested remedy.</I> Under § 1005.33(c)(2)(ii), the sender may generally choose to obtain a refund of funds that were not properly transmitted or delivered to the designated recipient or, request redelivery of the amount appropriate to correct the error at no additional cost unless the error is determined to have occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information. Upon receiving the sender's request, the remittance transfer provider shall correct the error within one business day, or as soon as reasonably practicable, applying the same exchange rate, fees, and taxes stated in the disclosure provided under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3), if the sender requests delivery of the amount appropriate to correct the error and the error did not occur because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information. The provider may also request that the sender indicate the preferred remedy at the time the sender provides notice of the error although if provider does so, it should indicate that the if the sender chooses a resend at the time, the remedy may be unavailable if the error occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information. However, if the sender does not indicate the desired remedy at the time of providing notice of error, the remittance transfer provider must notify the sender of any available remedies in the report provided under § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1) if the provider determines an error occurred.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Default remedy.</I> Unless the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information and § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) applies, the remittance transfer provider may set a default remedy that the provider will provide if the sender does not designate a remedy within a reasonable time after the sender receives the report provided under § 1005.33(c)(1). A provider that permits a sender to designate a remedy within 10 days after the provider has sent the report provided under § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1) before imposing the default remedy is deemed to have provided the sender with a reasonable time to designate a remedy. In the case a default remedy is provided, the provider must correct the error within one business day, or as soon as reasonably practicable, after the reasonable time for the sender to designate the remedy has passed, consistent with § 1005.33(c)(2).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Amount appropriate to resolve the error.</I> For purposes of the remedies set forth in § 1005.33(c)(2)(i)(A), (c)(2)(i)(B), (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), and (c)(2)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) the amount appropriate to resolve the error is the specific amount of transferred funds that should have been received if the remittance transfer had been effected without error. The amount appropriate to resolve the error does not include consequential damages. For example, when the amount that was disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(1)(vii) was received by the designated recipient before the provider must determine the appropriate remedy for an error under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv), no additional amounts are required to resolve the error after the remittance transfer provider refunds the appropriate fees and taxes paid by the sender pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(2)(ii)(B) or (c)(2)(iii), as applicable.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Form of refund.</I> For a refund provided under § 1005.33(c)(2)(i)(A), (c)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), (c)(2)(ii)(B), or (c)(2)(iii), a remittance transfer provider may generally, at its discretion, issue a refund either in cash or in the same form of payment that was initially provided by the sender for the remittance transfer. For example, if the sender originally provided a credit card as payment for the transfer, the remittance transfer provider may issue a credit to the sender's credit card account in the appropriate amount. However, if a sender initially provided cash for the remittance transfer, a provider may issue a refund by check. For example, if the sender originally provided cash as payment for the transfer, the provider may mail a check to the sender in the amount of the payment.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Remedies for incorrect amount paid.</I> If an error under § 1005.33(a)(1)(i) occurred, the sender may request the remittance transfer provider refund the amount necessary to resolve the error under § 1005.33(c)(2)(i)(A) or that the remittance transfer provider make the amount necessary to resolve the error available to the designated recipient at no additional cost under § 1005.33(c)(2)(i)(B).
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<P>8. <I>Correction of an error if funds not available by disclosed date.</I> If the remittance transfer provider determines an error of failure to make funds available by the disclosed date occurred under § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv), it must correct the error in accordance with § 1005.33(c)(2)(ii)(A), as applicable, and refund any fees imposed for the transfer (unless the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information to the remittance transfer provider in connection with the remittance transfer), whether the fee was imposed by the provider or a third party involved in sending the transfer, such as an intermediary bank involved in sending a wire transfer or the institution from which the funds are picked up in accordance with § 1005.33(c)(2)(ii)(B).
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<P>9. <I>Charges for error resolution.</I> If an error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the remittance transfer provider may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation).
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<P>10. <I>Correction without investigation.</I> A remittance transfer provider may correct an error, without investigation, in the amount or manner alleged by the sender, or otherwise determined, to be in error, but must comply with all other applicable requirements of § 1005.33.
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<P>11. <I>Procedure for sending a new remittance transfer after a sender provides incorrect or insufficient information.</I> Section 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) generally requires a remittance transfer provider to refund the transfer amount to the sender even if the sender's previously designated remedy was a resend or if the provider's default remedy in other circumstances is a resend. However, if before the refund is processed, the sender receives notice pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1) that an error occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information and then requests that the provider send the remittance transfer again, and the provider agrees to that request, § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) requires that the request be treated as a new remittance transfer and the provider must provide new disclosures in accordance with § 1005.31 and all other applicable provisions of subpart B. However, § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) does not obligate the provider to agree to a sender's request to send a new remittance transfer.
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<P>12. <I>Determining amount of refund.</I> Section 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) permits the provider to deduct from the amount refunded, or applied towards a new transfer, any fees or taxes actually deducted from the transfer amount by a person other than the provider as part of the first unsuccessful remittance transfer attempt or that were deducted in the course of returning the transfer amount to the provider following a failed delivery. However, a provider may not deduct those fees and taxes that will ultimately be refunded to the provider. When the provider deducts fees or taxes from the amount refunded pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii), the provider must inform the sender of the deduction as part of the notice required by either § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1) and the reason for the deduction. The following examples illustrate these concepts.
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<P>i. A sender instructs a remittance transfer provider to send US$100 to a designated recipient in local currency, for which the provider charges a transfer fee of US$10 (and thus the sender pays the provider $110). The provider's correspondent imposes a fee of US$15 that it deducts from the amount of the transfer. The sender provides incorrect or insufficient information that results in non-delivery of the remittance transfer as requested. Once the provider determines that an error occurred because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information, the provider must provide the report required by § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1) and inform the sender, pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(1) or (d)(1), that it will refund US$95 to the sender within three business days, unless the sender chooses to apply the US$95 towards a new remittance transfer and the provider agrees. Of the $95 that is refunded to the sender, $10 reflects the refund of the provider's transfer fee, and $85 reflects the refund of the amount of funds provided by the sender in connection with the transfer which was not properly transmitted. The provider is not required to refund the US$15 fee imposed by the correspondent (unless the $15 will be refunded to the provider by the correspondent).
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<P>ii. A sender instructs a remittance transfer provider to send US$100 to a designated recipient in a foreign country, for which the provider charges a transfer fee of US$10 (and thus the sender pays the provider US$110) and an intermediary institution charges a lifting fee of US$5, such that the designated recipient is expected to receive only US$95, as indicated in the receipt. If an error occurs because the sender provides incorrect or insufficient information that results in non-delivery of the remittance transfer by the date of availability stated in the disclosure provided to the sender for the remittance transfer under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3), the provider is required to refund, or reapply if requested and the provider agrees, $105 unless the intermediary institution refunds to the provider the US$5 fee. If the sender requests to have the transfer amount applied to a new remittance transfer pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) and provides the corrected or additional information, and the remittance transfer provider agrees to a resend remedy, the remittance transfer provider may charge the sender another transfer fee of US$10 to send the remittance transfer again with the corrected or additional information necessary to complete the transfer. Insofar as the resend is an entirely new remittance transfer, the provider must provide a prepayment disclosure and receipt or combined disclosure in accordance with, among other provisions, the timing requirements of § 1005.31(f) and the cancellation provision of § 1005.34(a).
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<P>iii. In connection with a remittance transfer, a provider imposes a $15 tax that it then remits to a State taxing authority. An error occurs because the sender provided incorrect or insufficient information that resulted in non-delivery of the transfer to the designated recipient. The provider may deduct $15 from the amount it refunds to the sender pursuant to § 1005.33(c)(2)(iii) unless the relevant tax law will result in the $15 tax being refunded to the provider by the State taxing authority because the transfer was not completed.
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<HD2>33(d) Procedures if Remittance Transfer Provider Determines No Error or Different Error Occurred
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Error different from that alleged.</I> When a remittance transfer provider determines that an error occurred in a manner or amount different from that described by the sender, it must comply with the requirements of both § 1005.33(c) and (d), as applicable. The provider may give the notice of correction and the explanation separately or in a combined form.
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<HD2>33(e) Reassertion of Error
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawal of error; right to reassert.</I> The remittance transfer provider has no further error resolution responsibilities if the sender voluntarily withdraws the notice alleging an error. A sender who has withdrawn an allegation of error has the right to reassert the allegation unless the remittance transfer provider had already complied with all of the error resolution requirements before the allegation was withdrawn. The sender must do so, however, within the original 180-day period from the disclosed date of availability or, if applicable, the 60-day period for a notice of error asserted pursuant to § 1005.33(b)(2).
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<HD2>33(f) Relation to Other Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Concurrent error obligations.</I> A financial institution that is also the remittance transfer provider may have error obligations under both §§ 1005.11 and 1005.33. For example, if a sender asserts an error under § 1005.11 with a remittance transfer provider that holds the sender's account, and the error is not also an error under § 1005.33 (such as the omission of an EFT on a periodic statement), then the error-resolution provisions of § 1005.11 exclusively apply to the error. However, if a sender asserts an error under § 1005.33 with a remittance transfer provider that holds the sender's account, and the error is also an error under § 1005.11 (such as when the amount the sender requested to be deducted from the sender's account and sent for the remittance transfer differs from the amount that was actually deducted from the account and sent), then the error-resolution provisions of § 1005.33 exclusively apply to the error.
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<P>2. <I>Holder in due course.</I> Nothing in this section limits a sender's rights to assert claims and defenses against a card issuer concerning property or services purchased with a credit card under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.12(c)(1), as applicable.
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<P>3. <I>Assertion of same error with multiple parties.</I> If a sender receives credit to correct an error of an incorrect amount paid in connection with a remittance transfer from either the remittance transfer provider or account-holding institution (or creditor), and subsequently asserts the same error with another party, that party has no further responsibilities to investigate the error if the error has been corrected. For example, assume that a sender initially asserts an error with a remittance transfer provider with respect to a remittance transfer alleging that US$130 was debited from his checking account, but the sender only requested a remittance transfer for US$100, plus a US$10 transfer fee. If the remittance transfer provider refunds US$20 to the sender to correct the error, and the sender subsequently asserts the same error with his account-holding institution, the account-holding institution has no error resolution responsibilities under Regulation E because the error has been fully corrected. In addition, nothing in this section prevents an account-holding institution or creditor from reversing amounts it has previously credited to correct an error if a sender receives more than one credit to correct the same error. For example, assume that a sender concurrently asserts an error with his or her account-holding institution and remittance transfer provider for the same error, and the sender receives credit from the account-holding institution for the error within 45 days of the notice of error. If the remittance transfer provider subsequently provides a credit of the same amount to the sender for the same error, the account-holding institution may reverse the amounts it had previously credited to the consumer's account, even after the 45-day error resolution period under § 1005.11.
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<HD2>33(g) Error Resolution Standards and Recordkeeping Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Record retention requirements.</I> As noted in § 1005.33(g)(2), remittance transfer providers are subject to the record retention requirements under § 1005.13. Therefore, remittance transfer providers must retain documentation, including documentation related to error investigations, for a period of not less than two years from the date a notice of error was submitted to the provider or action was required to be taken by the provider. A remittance transfer provider need not maintain records of individual disclosures that it has provided to each sender; it need only retain evidence demonstrating that its procedures reasonably ensure the sender's receipt of required disclosures and documentation.
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<HD2>33(h) Incorrect Account Number Supplied
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable methods of verification.</I> When a sender provides an incorrect recipient institution identifier, § 1005.33(h)(2) limits the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) to situations where the provider used reasonably available means to verify that the recipient institution identifier provided by the sender did correspond to the recipient institution name provided by the sender. Reasonably available means may include accessing a directory of Business Identifier Codes and verifying that the code provided by the sender matches the provided institution name, and, if possible, the specific branch or location provided by the sender. Providers may also rely on other commercially available databases or directories to check other recipient institution identifiers. If reasonable verification means fail to identify that the recipient institution identifier is incorrect, the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) will apply, assuming that the provider can satisfy the other conditions in § 1005.33(h). Similarly, if no reasonably available means exist to verify the accuracy of the recipient institution identifier, § 1005.33(h)(2) would be satisfied and thus the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) also will apply, again assuming the provider can satisfy the other conditions in § 1005.33(h). However, where a provider does not employ reasonably available means to verify a recipient institution identifier, § 1005.33(h)(2) is not satisfied and the exception in § 1005.33(a)(1)(iv)(D) will not apply.
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<P>2. <I>Reasonable efforts.</I> Section 1005.33(h)(5) requires a remittance transfer provider to use reasonable efforts to recover the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient. Whether a provider has used reasonable efforts does not depend on whether the provider is ultimately successful in recovering the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient. Under § 1005.33(h)(5), if the remittance transfer provider is requested to provide documentation or other supporting information in order for the pertinent institution or authority to obtain the proper authorization for the return of the incorrectly credited amount, reasonable efforts to recover the amount include timely providing any such documentation to the extent that it is available and permissible under law. The following are examples of reasonable efforts:
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<P>i. The remittance transfer provider promptly calls or otherwise contacts the institution that received the transfer, either directly or indirectly through any correspondent(s) or other intermediaries or service providers used for the particular transfer, to request that the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient be returned, and if required by law or contract, by requesting that the recipient institution obtain a debit authorization from the holder of the incorrectly credited account.
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<P>ii. The remittance transfer provider promptly uses a messaging service through a funds transfer system to contact institution that received the transfer, either directly or indirectly through any correspondent(s) or other intermediaries or service providers used for the particular transfer, to request that the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient be returned, in accordance with the messaging service's rules and protocol, and if required by law or contract, by requesting that the recipient institution obtain a debit authorization from the holder of the incorrectly credited account.
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<P>3. <I>Promptness of Reasonable Efforts.</I> Section 1005.33(h)(5) requires that a remittance transfer provider act promptly in using reasonable efforts to recover the amount that was to be received by the designated recipient. Whether a provider acts promptly to use reasonable efforts depends on the facts and circumstances. For example, if, before the date of availability disclosed pursuant to § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii), the sender informs the provider that the sender provided a mistaken account number, the provider will have acted promptly if it attempts to contact the recipient's institution before the date of availability.
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<HD1>Section 1005.34—Procedures for Cancellation and Refund of Remittance Transfers
</HD1>
<HD2>34(a) Sender Right of Cancellation and Refund
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Content of cancellation request.</I> A request to cancel a remittance transfer is valid so long as the remittance transfer provider is able to identify the remittance transfer in question. For example, the sender could provide the confirmation number or code that would be used by the designated recipient to pick up the transfer or other identification number or code supplied by the remittance transfer provider in connection with the transfer, if such number or code is sufficient for the remittance transfer provider to identify the transfer. A remittance transfer provider may also request, or the sender may provide, the sender's email address instead of a physical address, so long as the remittance transfer provider is able to identify the transfer to which the request to cancel applies.
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<P>2. <I>Notice of cancellation right.</I> Section 1005.31 requires a remittance transfer provider to include an abbreviated notice of the sender's right to cancel a remittance transfer on the receipt or combined disclosure given under § 1005.31(b)(2) or (3). In addition, the remittance transfer provider must make available to a sender upon request, a notice providing a full description of the right to cancel a remittance transfer using language that is set forth in Model Form A-36 of Appendix A to this part or substantially similar language.
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<P>3. <I>Thirty-minute cancellation right.</I> A remittance transfer provider must comply with the cancellation and refund requirements of § 1005.34 if the cancellation request is received by the provider no later than 30 minutes after the sender makes payment. The provider may, at its option, provide a longer time period for cancellation. A provider must provide the 30-minute cancellation right regardless of the provider's normal business hours. For example, if an agent closes less than 30 minutes after the sender makes payment, the provider could opt to take cancellation requests through the telephone number disclosed on the receipt. The provider could also set a cutoff time after which the provider will not accept requests to send a remittance transfer. For example, a financial institution that closes at 5:00 p.m. could stop accepting payment for remittance transfers after 4:30 p.m.
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<P>4. <I>Cancellation request provided to agent.</I> A cancellation request provided by a sender to an agent of the remittance transfer provider is deemed to be received by the provider under § 1005.34(a) when received by the agent.
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<P>5. <I>Payment made.</I> For purposes of subpart B, payment is made, for example, when a sender provides cash to the remittance transfer provider or when payment is authorized.
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<HD2>34(b) Time Limits and Refund Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Form of refund.</I> At its discretion, a remittance transfer provider generally may issue a refund either in cash or in the same form of payment that was initially provided by the sender for the remittance transfer. For example, if the sender originally provided a credit card as payment for the transfer, the remittance transfer provider may issue a credit to the sender's credit card account in the amount of the payment. However, if a sender initially provided cash for the remittance transfer, a provider may issue a refund by check. For example, if the sender originally provided cash as payment for the transfer, the provider may mail a check to the sender in the amount of the payment.
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<P>2. <I>Fees and taxes refunded.</I> If a sender provides a timely request to cancel a remittance transfer, a remittance transfer provider must refund all funds provided by the sender in connection with the remittance transfer, including any fees and, to the extent not prohibited by law, taxes that have been imposed for the transfer, whether the fee or tax was assessed by the provider or a third party, such as an intermediary institution, the agent or bank in the recipient country, or a State or other governmental body.
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<HD1>Section 1005.35—Acts of Agents
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Remittance transfer providers must comply with the requirements of subpart B, including, but not limited to, providing the disclosures set forth in § 1005.31 and providing any remedies as set forth in § 1005.33, even if an agent or other person performs functions for the remittance transfer provider, and regardless of whether the provider has an agreement with a third party that transfers or otherwise makes funds available to a designated recipient.
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<HD1>Section 1005.36—Transfers Scheduled Before the Date of Transfer
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of subpart B.</I> The requirements set forth in subpart B apply to remittance transfers subject to § 1005.36, to the extent that § 1005.36 does not modify those requirements. For example, the foreign language disclosure requirements in § 1005.31(g) and related commentary continue to apply to disclosures provided in accordance with § 1005.36(a)(2).
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<HD2>36(a) Timing
</HD2>
<HD2>36(a)(2) Subsequent Preauthorized Remittance Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Changes in Disclosures.</I> When a sender schedules a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, the provider is generally not required to provide a pre-payment disclosure prior to the date of each subsequent transfer. However, § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) requires the provider to provide a pre-payment disclosure and receipt for the first in the series of preauthorized remittance transfers in accordance with the timing requirements set forth in § 1005.31(e). While certain information in those disclosures is expressly permitted to be estimated (see § 1005.32(b)(2)), other information is not permitted to be estimated, or is limited in how it may be estimated. When any of the information on the most recent receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), other than the temporal disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) and (b)(2)(vii), is no longer accurate with respect to a subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer for reasons other than as permitted by § 1005.32, the provider must provide, within a reasonable time prior to the scheduled date of the next preauthorized remittance transfer, a receipt that complies with § 1005.31(b)(2) and which discloses, among the other disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(2), the changed terms. For example, if the provider discloses in the pre-payment disclosure for the first in the series of preauthorized remittance transfers that its fee for each remittance transfer is $20 and, after six preauthorized remittance transfers, the provider increases its fee to $30 (to the extent permitted by contract law), the provider must provide the sender a receipt that complies with §§ 1005.31(b)(2) and 1005.36(b)(2) within a reasonable time prior to the seventh transfer. Barring a further change, this receipt will apply to transfers after the seventh transfer. Or, if, after the sixth transfer, a tax collected by the provider increases from 1.5% of the amount that will be transferred to the designated recipient to 2.0% of the amount that will be transferred to the designated recipient, the provider must provide the sender a receipt that complies with §§ 1005.31(b)(2) and 1005.36(b)(2) within a reasonable time prior to the seventh transfer. In contrast, § 1005.36(a)(2)(i) does not require an updated receipt where an exchange rate, estimated as permitted by § 1005.32(b)(2), changes.
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<P>2. <I>Clearly and conspicuously.</I> In order to indicate clearly and conspicuously that the provider's fee has changed as required by § 1005.36(a)(2)(i), the provider could, for example, state on the receipt: “Transfer Fees (UPDATED) * * * $30.” To the extent that other figures on the receipt must be revised because of the new fee, the receipt should also indicate that those figures are updated.
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<P>3. <I>Reasonable time.</I> If a disclosure required by § 1005.36(a)(2)(i) or (d)(1) is mailed, the disclosure would be considered to be received by the sender five business days after it is posted in the mail. If hand delivered or provided electronically, the receipt would be considered to be received by the sender at the time of delivery. Thus, if the provider mails a disclosure required by § 1005.36(a)(2)(i) or (d)(1) not later than ten business days before the scheduled date of the transfer, or hand or electronically delivers a disclosure not later than five business days before the scheduled date of the transfer, the provider would be deemed to have provided the disclosure within a reasonable time prior to the scheduled date of the subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer.
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<HD2>36(b) Accuracy
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Use of estimates.</I> In providing the disclosures described in § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), remittance transfer providers may use estimates to the extent permitted by any of the exceptions in § 1005.32. When estimates are permitted, however, they must be disclosed in accordance with § 1005.31(d).
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<P>2. <I>Subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers.</I> For a subsequent transfer in a series of preauthorized remittance transfers, the receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i), except for the temporal disclosures in that receipt required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(ii) (Date Available) and (b)(2)(vii) (Transfer Date), applies to each subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer unless and until it is superseded by a receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(2)(i). For each subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer, only the most recent receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i) must be accurate as of the date each subsequent transfer is made.
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<P>3. <I>Receipts.</I> A receipt required by § 1005.36(a)(1)(ii) or (a)(2)(ii) must accurately reflect the details of the transfer to which it pertains and may not contain estimates pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(2). However, the remittance transfer provider may continue to disclose estimates to the extent permitted by § 1005.32(a) or (b)(1), (4), or (5). In providing receipts pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(ii) or (a)(2)(ii), § 1005.36(b)(2) and (3) do not allow a remittance transfer provider to change figures previously disclosed on a receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), unless a figure was an estimate or based on an estimate disclosed pursuant to § 1005.32. Thus, for example, if a provider disclosed its fee as $10 in a receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i) and that receipt contained an estimate of the exchange rate pursuant to § 1005.32(b)(2), the second receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(ii) must also disclose the fee as $10.


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<HD2>36(c) Cancellation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scheduled remittance transfer.</I> Section 1005.36(c) applies when a remittance transfer is scheduled by the sender at least three business days before the date of the transfer, whether the sender schedules a preauthorized remittance transfer or a one-time transfer. A remittance transfer is scheduled if it will require no further action by the sender to send the transfer after the sender requests the transfer. For example, a remittance transfer is scheduled at least three business days before the date of the transfer, and § 1005.36(c) applies, where a sender on March 1 requests a remittance transfer provider to send a wire transfer to pay a bill in a foreign country on March 15, if it will require no further action by the sender to send the transfer after the sender requests the transfer. A remittance transfer is not scheduled, and § 1005.36(c) does not apply, where a transfer occurs more than three days after the date the sender requests the transfer solely due to the provider's processing time. The following are examples of when a sender has not scheduled a remittance transfer at least three business days before the date of the remittance transfer, such that the cancellation rule in § 1005.34 applies.
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<P>i. A sender on March 1 requests a remittance transfer provider to send a wire transfer to pay a bill in a foreign country on March 3.
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<P>ii. A sender on March 1 requests that a remittance transfer provider send a remittance transfer on March 15, but the provider requires the sender to confirm the request on March 14 in order to send the transfer.
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<P>iii. A sender on March 1 requests that a remittance transfer provider send an ACH transfer, and that transfer is sent on March 2, but due to the time required for processing, funds will not be deducted from the sender's account until March 5.
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<P>2. <I>Cancelled preauthorized remittance transfers.</I> For preauthorized remittance transfers, the provider must assume the request to cancel applies to all future preauthorized remittance transfers, unless the sender specifically indicates that it should apply only to the next scheduled remittance transfer.
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<P>3. <I>Concurrent cancellation obligations.</I> A financial institution that is also a remittance transfer provider may have both stop payment obligations under § 1005.10 and cancellation obligations under § 1005.36. If a sender cancels a remittance transfer under § 1005.36 with a remittance transfer provider that holds the sender's account, and the transfer is a preauthorized transfer under § 1005.10, then the cancellation provisions of § 1005.36 exclusively apply.
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<HD2>36(d) Date of Transfer for Subsequent Preauthorized Remittance Transfers
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1005.36(d)(2)(i) permits remittance transfer providers some flexibility in determining how and when the disclosures required by § 1005.36(d)(1) may be provided to senders. The disclosure described in § 1005.36(d)(1) may be provided as a separate disclosure, or on or with any other disclosure required by this subpart B related to the same series of preauthorized remittance transfers, provided that the disclosure and timing requirements in § 1005.36(d)(2) and other applicable provisions in subpart B are satisfied. For example, the required disclosures may be made on or with a receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(1)(i); a receipt provided pursuant to § 1005.36(a)(2); or in a separate disclosure created by the provider. Thus, for example, a remittance transfer provider complies with § 1005.36(d)(1) for a period of one year if it provides in the receipt provided to the sender when payment is made for the initial preauthorized remittance transfer, a schedule or summary of the dates of transfer of all the subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers in the series scheduled to occur over the next 12 months (and the applicable cancellation requirements and contact information).
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<P>2. <I>Delivery of disclosure.</I> Section 1005.36(d)(2)(i) requires that the sender receive disclosure of the date of transfer, applicable cancellation requirements, and the provider's contact information no more than 12 months, and no less than 5 business days prior to the date of transfer of the subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer. For purposes of determining when a disclosure required by § 1005.36(d)(1) is received by the sender, refer to comment 36(a)(2)-3.
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<P>3. <I>Disclosure of the date of transfer.</I> The date of transfer of a subsequent preauthorized remittance transfer may be disclosed as a specific date (<I>e.g.,</I> July 19, 2013) or by using a method that clearly permits identification of the date of the transfer, such as periodic intervals (<I>e.g.,</I> the third Monday of every month, or the 15th of every month). If the future dates of transfer are disclosed as occurring periodically and there is a break in the sequence, or the date of transfer does not otherwise conform to the described period, <I>e.g.,</I> if a holiday or weekend causes the provider to deviate from the normal schedule, the remittance transfer provider should disclose the specific date of transfer for the affected transfer.
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<P>4. <I>Accuracy requirements.</I> Section 1005.36(d)(4) sets forth accuracy requirements for disclosures required for subsequent preauthorized remittance transfers under § 1005.36(d)(1). If any of the information provided in these disclosures change, the provider must provide an updated disclosure with the revised information that is accurate as of when the transfer is made, pursuant to § 1005.36(d)(2).
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<HD1>Appendix A—Model Disclosure Clauses and Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Review of forms.</I> The Bureau will not review or approve disclosure forms or statements for financial institutions. However, the Bureau has issued model clauses for institutions to use in designing their disclosures. If an institution uses these clauses accurately to reflect its service, the institution is protected from liability for failure to make disclosures in proper form.
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<P>2. <I>Use of forms.</I> The appendix contains model disclosure clauses for optional use by financial institutions and remittance transfer providers to facilitate compliance with the disclosure requirements of §§ 1005.5(b)(2) and (3), 1005.6(a), 1005.7, 1005.8(b), 1005.14(b)(1)(ii), 1005.15(c), 1005.15(e)(1) and (2), 1005.18(b)(2), (3), (6) and (7), 1005.18(d)(1) and (2), 1005.31, 1005.32 and 1005.36. The use of appropriate clauses in making disclosures will protect a financial institution and a remittance transfer provider from liability under sections 916 and 917 of the act provided the clauses accurately reflect the institution's EFT services and the provider's remittance transfer services, respectively.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Altering the clauses.</I> Unless otherwise expressly addressed in the rule, the following applies. Financial institutions may use clauses of their own design in conjunction with the Bureau's model clauses. The inapplicable words or portions of phrases in parentheses should be deleted. The catchlines are not part of the clauses and need not be used. Financial institutions may make alterations, substitutions, or additions in the clauses to reflect the services offered, such as technical changes (including the substitution of a trade name for the word “card,” deletion of inapplicable services, or substitution of lesser liability limits). Several of the model clauses include references to a telephone number and address. Where two or more of these clauses are used in a disclosure, the telephone number and address may be referenced and need not be repeated.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model forms for remittance transfers.</I> The Bureau will not review or approve disclosure forms for remittance transfer providers. However, this appendix contains 15 model forms for use in connection with remittance transfers. These model forms are intended to demonstrate several formats a remittance transfer provider may use to comply with the requirements of § 1005.31(b). Model Forms A-30 through A-32 demonstrate how a provider could provide the required disclosures for a remittance transfer exchanged into local currency. Model Forms A-30(a), (b), (c), and (d) demonstrate four options regarding model language related to the required disclaimer, where applicable, of non-covered third-party fees and taxes on the remittance transfer collected by a person other than the provider under § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii). Model forms 30(b) through (d) also include language that may be used if a provider elects to estimate either these non-covered third-party fees or taxes collected by a person other than the provider as part of the disclaimer. Model Forms A-33 through A-35 demonstrate how a provider could provide the required disclosures for dollar-to-dollar remittance transfers. These forms also demonstrate disclosure of the required content, in accordance with the grouping and proximity requirements of § 1005.31(c)(1) and (2), in both a register receipt format and an 8.5 inch by 11 inch format. Model Form A-36 provides long form model error resolution and cancellation disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(4), and Model Form A-37 provides short form model error resolution and cancellation disclosures required by § 1005.31(b)(2)(iv) and (vi). Model Forms A-38 through A-41 provide language for Spanish language disclosures.
</P>
<P>i. The model forms contain information that is not required by subpart B, including a confirmation code, the sender's name and contact information, and the optional disclosure of the estimated amount of these non-covered third-party fees and taxes collected by a person other than the provider as part of the disclaimer. Additional information not required by subpart B may be presented on the model forms as permitted by § 1005.31(b)(1)(viii) and (c)(4). Any additional information must be presented consistent with a remittance transfer provider's obligation to provide required disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner.
</P>
<P>ii. Use of the model forms is optional. A remittance transfer provider may change the forms by rearranging the format or by making modifications to the language of the forms, in each case without modifying the substance of the disclosures. Any rearrangement or modification of the format of the model forms must be consistent with the form, grouping, proximity, and other requirements of § 1005.31(a) and (c). Providers making revisions that do not comply with this section will lose the benefit of the safe harbor for appropriate use of Model Forms A-30 to A-41.
</P>
<P>iii. Permissible changes to the language and format of the model forms include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. Substituting the information contained in the model forms that is intended to demonstrate how to complete the information in the model forms—such as names, addresses, and Web sites; dates; numbers; and State-specific contact information—with information applicable to the remittance transfer. In addition, if the applicable non-covered third-party fees are imposed by an institution other than a bank, a provider could modify the disclaimer accordingly.
</P>
<P>B. Eliminating disclosures that are not applicable to the transfer, as described under § 1005.31(b). For example, if only covered third-party fees are imposed, a provider would not use a disclaimer related to additional fees that may apply because all applicable fees are covered and included in the disclosure as required under § 1005.31(b)(1)(vi).
</P>
<P>C. Correcting or updating telephone numbers, mailing addresses, or Web site addresses that may change over time.
</P>
<P>D. Providing the disclosures on a paper size that is different from a register receipt and 8.5 inch by 11 inch formats.
</P>
<P>E. Adding a term substantially similar to “estimated” in close proximity to the specified terms in § 1005.31(b)(1) and (2), as required under § 1005.31(d).
</P>
<P>F. Providing the disclosures in a foreign language, or multiple foreign languages, subject to the requirements of § 1005.31(g).
</P>
<P>G. Substituting cancellation language to reflect the right to a cancellation made pursuant to the requirements of § 1005.36(c).
</P>
<P>iv. Changes to the model forms that are not permissible include, for example, adding information that is not segregated from the required disclosures, other than as permitted by § 1005.31(c)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 81023, Dec. 27, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 18224, Mar. 26, 2013; 77 FR 6297, Feb. 7, 2012; 77 FR 50285; 77 FR 50285, Aug. 20, 2012; 78 FR 30714, May 22, 2013; 78 FR 49366, Aug. 14, 2013; 79 FR 55993, Sept. 18, 2014; 81 FR 70320, Oct. 12, 2016; 81 FR 84345, Nov. 22, 2016; 83 FR 6420, Feb. 13, 2018; 85 FR 34905, June 5, 2020; 89 FR 106836, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1006" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1006—DEBT COLLECTION PRACTICES (REGULATION F)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5514(b), 5532; 15 U.S.C. 1692<I>l</I>(d), 1692o, 7004.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.1   Authority, purpose, and coverage.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation F, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection pursuant to sections 814(d) and 817 of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA or Act), 15 U.S.C. 1692<I>l</I>(d), 1692o; title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), 12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.;</I> and paragraph (b)(1) of section 104 of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN Act), 15 U.S.C. 7004.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part carries out the purposes of the FDCPA, which include eliminating abusive debt collection practices by debt collectors, ensuring that debt collectors who refrain from using abusive debt collection practices are not competitively disadvantaged, and promoting consistent State action to protect consumers against debt collection abuses. This part also prescribes requirements to ensure that certain features of debt collection are disclosed fully, accurately, and effectively to consumers in a manner that permits consumers to understand the costs, benefits, and risks associated with debt collection, in light of the facts and circumstances. Finally, this part imposes record retention requirements to enable the Bureau to administer and carry out the purposes of the FDCPA, the Dodd-Frank Act, and this part, as well as to prevent evasions thereof. The record retention requirements also will facilitate supervision of debt collectors and the assessment and detection of risks to consumers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) Except as provided in § 1006.108 and appendix A of this part regarding applications for State exemptions from the FDCPA, this part applies to debt collectors, as defined in § 1006.2(i), other than a person excluded from coverage by section 1029(a) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5519(a)).
</P>
<P>(2) Section 1006.34(c)(2)(iii) and (c)(3)(iv) applies to debt collectors only when they are collecting debt related to a consumer financial product or service as defined in § 1006.2(f).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5853, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>FDCPA</I> means the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Attempt to communicate</I> means any act to initiate a communication or other contact about a debt with any person through any medium, including by soliciting a response from such person. An attempt to communicate includes leaving a limited-content message, as defined in paragraph (j) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communicate</I> or <I>communication</I> means the conveying of information regarding a debt directly or indirectly to any person through any medium.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer</I> means any natural person, whether living or deceased, obligated or allegedly obligated to pay any debt. For purposes of § 1006.6, the term <I>consumer</I> includes the persons described in § 1006.6(a).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer financial product or service</I> has the same meaning given to it in section 1002(5) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5481(5)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Creditor</I> means any person who offers or extends credit creating a debt or to whom a debt is owed. The term creditor does not, however, include any person to the extent that such person receives an assignment or transfer of a debt in default solely to facilitate collection of the debt for another.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Debt</I> means any obligation or alleged obligation of a consumer to pay money arising out of a transaction in which the money, property, insurance, or services that are the subject of the transaction are primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, whether or not the obligation has been reduced to judgment.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Debt collector</I> means any person who uses any instrumentality of interstate commerce or mail in any business the principal purpose of which is the collection of debts, or who regularly collects or attempts to collect, directly or indirectly, debts owed or due, or asserted to be owed or due, to another. Notwithstanding paragraph (i)(2)(vi) of this section, the term debt collector includes any creditor that, in the process of collecting its own debts, uses any name other than its own that would indicate that a third person is collecting or attempting to collect such debts. For purposes of § 1006.22(e), the term also includes any person who uses any instrumentality of interstate commerce or mail in any business the principal purpose of which is the enforcement of security interests.
</P>
<P>(2) The term debt collector excludes:
</P>
<P>(i) Any officer or employee of a creditor while the officer or employee is collecting debts for the creditor in the creditor's name;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person while acting as a debt collector for another person if:
</P>
<P>(A) The person acting as a debt collector does so only for persons with whom the person acting as a debt collector is related by common ownership or affiliated by corporate control; and
</P>
<P>(B) The principal business of the person acting as a debt collector is not the collection of debts;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any officer or employee of the United States or any State to the extent that collecting or attempting to collect any debt is in the performance of the officer's or employee's official duties;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person while serving or attempting to serve legal process on any other person in connection with the judicial enforcement of any debt;
</P>
<P>(v) Any nonprofit organization that, at the request of consumers, performs bona fide consumer credit counseling and assists consumers in liquidating their debts by receiving payment from such consumers and distributing such amounts to creditors;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any person collecting or attempting to collect any debt owed or due, or asserted to be owed or due to another, to the extent such debt collection activity:
</P>
<P>(A) Is incidental to a bona fide fiduciary obligation or a bona fide escrow arrangement;
</P>
<P>(B) Concerns a debt that such person originated;
</P>
<P>(C) Concerns a debt that was not in default at the time such person obtained it; or
</P>
<P>(D) Concerns a debt that such person obtained as a secured party in a commercial credit transaction involving the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A private entity, to the extent such private entity is operating a bad check enforcement program that complies with section 818 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Limited-content message</I> means a voicemail message for a consumer that includes all of the content described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, that may include any of the content described in paragraph (j)(2) of this section, and that includes no other content.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Required content.</I> A limited-content message is a voicemail message for a consumer that includes:
</P>
<P>(i) A business name for the debt collector that does not indicate that the debt collector is in the debt collection business;
</P>
<P>(ii) A request that the consumer reply to the message;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name or names of one or more natural persons whom the consumer can contact to reply to the debt collector; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A telephone number or numbers that the consumer can use to reply to the debt collector.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional content.</I> In addition to the content described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, a limited-content message may include one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A salutation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date and time of the message;
</P>
<P>(iii) Suggested dates and times for the consumer to reply to the message; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that if the consumer replies, the consumer may speak to any of the company's representatives or associates.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> includes natural persons, corporations, companies, associations, firms, partnerships, societies, and joint stock companies.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>State</I> means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any political subdivision of any of the foregoing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5853, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules for FDCPA Debt Collectors</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.6   Communications in connection with debt collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>consumer</I> includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's spouse;
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's parent, if the consumer is a minor;
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer's legal guardian;
</P>
<P>(4) The executor or administrator of the consumer's estate, if the consumer is deceased; and
</P>
<P>(5) A confirmed successor in interest, as defined in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.31, or Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(27)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Communications with a consumer</I>—(1) <I>Prohibitions regarding unusual or inconvenient times or places.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt:
</P>
<P>(i) At any unusual time, or at a time that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer. In the absence of the debt collector's knowledge of circumstances to the contrary, a time before 8:00 a.m. and after 9:00 p.m. local time at the consumer's location is inconvenient; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At any unusual place, or at a place that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibitions regarding consumer represented by an attorney.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt if the debt collector knows the consumer is represented by an attorney with respect to such debt and knows, or can readily ascertain, the attorney's name and address, unless the attorney:
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to respond within a reasonable period of time to a communication from the debt collector; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Consents to the debt collector's direct communication with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prohibitions regarding consumer's place of employment.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, a debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt at the consumer's place of employment, if the debt collector knows or has reason to know that the consumer's employer prohibits the consumer from receiving such communication.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions.</I> The prohibitions in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section do not apply when a debt collector communicates or attempts to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt with:
</P>
<P>(i) The prior consent of the consumer, given directly to the debt collector during a communication that does not violate paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The express permission of a court of competent jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communications with a consumer—after refusal to pay or cease communication notice</I>—(1) <I>Prohibition.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if a consumer notifies a debt collector in writing that the consumer refuses to pay a debt or that the consumer wants the debt collector to cease further communication with the consumer, the debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate further with the consumer with respect to such debt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (c)(1) of this section does not apply when a debt collector communicates or attempts to communicate further with a consumer with respect to such debt:
</P>
<P>(i) To advise the consumer that the debt collector's further efforts are being terminated;
</P>
<P>(ii) To notify the consumer that the debt collector or creditor may invoke specified remedies that the debt collector or creditor ordinarily invokes; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Where applicable, to notify the consumer that the debt collector or creditor intends to invoke a specified remedy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Communications with third parties</I>—(1) <I>Prohibitions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a debt collector must not communicate, in connection with the collection of any debt, with any person other than:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer's attorney;
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer reporting agency, if otherwise permitted by law;
</P>
<P>(iv) The creditor;
</P>
<P>(v) The creditor's attorney; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The debt collector's attorney.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not apply when a debt collector communicates, in connection with the collection of any debt, with a person:
</P>
<P>(i) For the purpose of acquiring location information, as provided in § 1006.10;
</P>
<P>(ii) With the prior consent of the consumer given directly to the debt collector;
</P>
<P>(iii) With the express permission of a court of competent jurisdiction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) As reasonably necessary to effectuate a postjudgment judicial remedy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reasonable procedures for email and text message communications.</I> A debt collector maintains procedures that are reasonably adapted, for purposes of FDCPA section 813(c), to avoid a bona fide error in sending an email or text message communication that would result in a violation of paragraph (d)(1) of this section if those procedures include steps to reasonably confirm and document that:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt collector communicated with the consumer by sending an email to an email address described in paragraph (d)(4) of this section or a text message to a telephone number described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt collector did not communicate with the consumer by sending an email to an email address or a text message to a telephone number that the debt collector knows has led to a disclosure prohibited by paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedures for email addresses.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, a debt collector may send an email to an email address if:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Procedures based on communication between the consumer and the debt collector.</I> (A) The consumer used the email address to communicate with the debt collector about the debt and the consumer has not since opted out of communications to that email address; or
</P>
<P>(B) The debt collector has received directly from the consumer prior consent to use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt and the consumer has not withdrawn that consent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Procedures based on communication by the creditor.</I> (A) A creditor obtained the email address from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the account and the consumer did not ask the creditor to stop using it;
</P>
<P>(C) Before the debt collector used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt, the creditor sent the consumer a written or electronic notice, to an address the creditor obtained from the consumer and used to communicate with the consumer about the account, that clearly and conspicuously disclosed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the debt has been or will be transferred to the debt collector;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The email address and the fact that the debt collector might use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That, if others have access to the email address, then it is possible they may see the emails;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Instructions for a reasonable and simple method by which the consumer could opt out of such communications; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The date by which the debt collector or the creditor must receive the consumer's request to opt out, which must be at least 35 days after the date the notice is sent;
</P>
<P>(D) The opt-out period provided under paragraph (d)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>) of this section has expired and the consumer has not opted out; and
</P>
<P>(E) The email address has a domain name that is available for use by the general public, unless the debt collector knows the address is provided by the consumer's employer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Procedures based on communication by the prior debt collector.</I> (A) Any prior debt collector obtained the email address in accordance with paragraph (d)(4)(i) or (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The immediately prior debt collector used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt; and
</P>
<P>(C) The consumer did not opt out of such communications.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Procedures for telephone numbers for text messages.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section, a debt collector may send a text message to a telephone number if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer used the telephone number to communicate with the debt collector about the debt by text message, the consumer has not since opted out of text message communications to that telephone number, and within the past 60 days either:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer sent the text message described in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section or a new text message to the debt collector from that telephone number; or
</P>
<P>(B) The debt collector confirmed, using a complete and accurate database, that the telephone number has not been reassigned from the consumer to another user since the date of the consumer's most recent text message to the debt collector from that telephone number; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt collector received directly from the consumer prior consent to use the telephone number to communicate with the consumer about the debt by text message, the consumer has not since withdrawn that consent, and within the past 60 days the debt collector either:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtained the prior consent described in paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section or renewed consent from the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Confirmed, using a complete and accurate database, that the telephone number has not been reassigned from the consumer to another user since the date of the consumer's most recent consent to use that telephone number to communicate about the debt by text message.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Opt-out notice for electronic communications or attempts to communicate.</I> A debt collector who communicates or attempts to communicate with a consumer electronically in connection with the collection of a debt using a specific email address, telephone number for text messages, or other electronic-medium address must include in such communication or attempt to communicate a clear and conspicuous statement describing a reasonable and simple method by which the consumer can opt out of further electronic communications or attempts to communicate by the debt collector to that address or telephone number. The debt collector may not require, directly or indirectly, that the consumer, in order to opt out, pay any fee to the debt collector or provide any information other than the consumer's opt-out preferences and the email address, telephone number for text messages, or other electronic-medium address subject to the opt-out request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.10   Acquisition of location information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The term <I>location information</I> means a consumer's:
</P>
<P>(1) Place of abode and telephone number at such place; or
</P>
<P>(2) Place of employment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and content of location communications.</I> A debt collector communicating with a person other than the consumer for the purpose of acquiring location information must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify himself or herself individually by name, state that he or she is confirming or correcting the consumer's location information, and, only if expressly requested, identify his or her employer;
</P>
<P>(2) Not state that the consumer owes any debt;
</P>
<P>(3) Not communicate by postcard;
</P>
<P>(4) Not use any language or symbol on any envelope or in the contents of any communication by mail indicating that the debt collector is in the debt collection business or that the communication relates to the collection of a debt; and
</P>
<P>(5) After the debt collector knows the consumer is represented by an attorney with regard to the subject debt and has knowledge of, or can readily ascertain, such attorney's name and address, not communicate with any person other than that attorney, unless the attorney fails to respond to the debt collector's communication within a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of location communications.</I> In addition to complying with § 1006.14(b)(1), a debt collector communicating with any person other than the consumer for the purpose of acquiring location information about the consumer must not communicate more than once with such person unless requested to do so by such person, or unless the debt collector reasonably believes that the earlier response of such person is erroneous or incomplete and that such person now has correct or complete location information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.14   Harassing, oppressive, or abusive conduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector must not engage in any conduct the natural consequence of which is to harass, oppress, or abuse any person in connection with the collection of a debt, including, but not limited to, the conduct described in paragraphs (b) through (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repeated or continuous telephone calls or telephone conversations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not place telephone calls or engage any person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Telephone call frequencies; presumptions of compliance and violation.</I> (i) Subject to the exclusions in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a debt collector is presumed to comply with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) if the debt collector places a telephone call to a particular person in connection with the collection of a particular debt neither:
</P>
<P>(A) More than seven times within seven consecutive days; nor
</P>
<P>(B) Within a period of seven consecutive days after having had a telephone conversation with the person in connection with the collection of such debt. The date of the telephone conversation is the first day of the seven-consecutive-day period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to the exclusions in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, a debt collector is presumed to violate paragraph (b)(1) of this section and FDCPA section 806(5) if the debt collector places a telephone call to a particular person in connection with the collection of a particular debt in excess of either of the telephone call frequencies described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Certain telephone calls excluded from the telephone call frequencies.</I> Telephone calls placed to a person do not count toward the telephone call frequencies described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if they are:
</P>
<P>(i) Placed with such person's prior consent given directly to the debt collector and within a period no longer than seven consecutive days after receiving the prior consent, with the date the debt collector receives prior consent counting as the first day of the seven-consecutive-day period;
</P>
<P>(ii) Not connected to the dialed number; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Placed to the persons described in § 1006.6(d)(1)(ii) through (vi).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), particular debt means each of a consumer's debts in collection. However, in the case of student loan debts, the term particular debt means all student loan debts that a consumer owes or allegedly owes that were serviced under a single account number at the time the debts were obtained by a debt collector.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violence or other criminal means.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not use or threaten to use violence or other criminal means to harm the physical person, reputation, or property of any person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Obscene or profane language.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not use obscene or profane language, or language the natural consequence of which is to abuse the hearer or reader.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Debtor's list.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not publish a list of consumers who allegedly refuse to pay debts, except to a consumer reporting agency or to persons meeting the requirements of sections 603(f) or 604(a)(3) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f) or 1681b(a)(3)).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Coercive advertisements.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not advertise for sale any debt to coerce payment of the debt.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Meaningful disclosure of identity.</I> In connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector must not place telephone calls without meaningfully disclosing the caller's identity, except as provided in § 1006.10.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prohibited communication media</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> In connection with the collection of any debt, a debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate with a person through a medium of communication if the person has requested that the debt collector not use that medium to communicate with the person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding the prohibition in paragraph (h)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) If a person opts out of receiving electronic communications from a debt collector, a debt collector may send an electronic confirmation of the person's request to opt out, provided that the electronic confirmation contains no information other than a statement confirming the person's request and that the debt collector will honor it;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a person initiates contact with a debt collector using a medium of communication that the person previously requested the debt collector not use, the debt collector may respond once through the same medium of communication used by the person; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If otherwise required by applicable law, a debt collector may communicate or attempt to communicate with a person in connection with the collection of any debt through a medium of communication that the person has requested the debt collector not use to communicate with the person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.18" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.18   False, deceptive, or misleading representations or means.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector must not use any false, deceptive, or misleading representation or means in connection with the collection of any debt, including, but not limited to, the conduct described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>False, deceptive, or misleading representations.</I> (1) A debt collector must not falsely represent or imply that:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt collector is vouched for, bonded by, or affiliated with the United States or any State, including through the use of any badge, uniform, or facsimile thereof.
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt collector operates or is employed by a consumer reporting agency, as defined by section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)).
</P>
<P>(iii) Any individual is an attorney or that any communication is from an attorney.
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer committed any crime or other conduct in order to disgrace the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) A sale, referral, or other transfer of any interest in a debt causes or will cause the consumer to:
</P>
<P>(A) Lose any claim or defense to payment of the debt; or
</P>
<P>(B) Become subject to any practice prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(vi) Accounts have been turned over to innocent purchasers for value.
</P>
<P>(vii) Documents are legal process.
</P>
<P>(viii) Documents are not legal process forms or do not require action by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) A debt collector must not falsely represent:
</P>
<P>(i) The character, amount, or legal status of any debt.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any services rendered, or compensation that may be lawfully received, by any debt collector for the collection of a debt.
</P>
<P>(3) A debt collector must not represent or imply that nonpayment of any debt will result in the arrest or imprisonment of any person or the seizure, garnishment, attachment, or sale of any property or wages of any person unless such action is lawful and the debt collector or creditor intends to take such action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>False, deceptive, or misleading collection means.</I> A debt collector must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Threaten to take any action that cannot legally be taken or that is not intended to be taken.
</P>
<P>(2) Communicate or threaten to communicate to any person credit information that the debt collector knows or should know is false, including the failure to communicate that a disputed debt is disputed.
</P>
<P>(3) Use or distribute any written communication that simulates or that the debt collector falsely represents to be a document authorized, issued, or approved by any court, official, or agency of the United States or any State, or that creates a false impression about its source, authorization, or approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Use any business, company, or organization name other than the true name of the debt collector's business, company, or organization.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>False representations or deceptive means.</I> A debt collector must not use any false representation or deceptive means to collect or attempt to collect any debt or to obtain information concerning a consumer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures required</I>—(1) <I>Initial communications.</I> A debt collector must disclose in its initial communication with a consumer that the debt collector is attempting to collect a debt and that any information obtained will be used for that purpose. If the debt collector's initial communication with the consumer is oral, the debt collector must make the disclosure required by this paragraph again in its initial written communication with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsequent communications.</I> In each communication with the consumer subsequent to the communications described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, the debt collector must disclose that the communication is from a debt collector.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> Disclosures under paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section are not required in a formal pleading made in connection with a legal action.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Translated disclosures.</I> A debt collector must make the disclosures required by paragraphs (e)(1) and (2) of this section in the same language or languages used for the rest of the communication in which the debt collector conveyed the disclosures. Any translation of the disclosures a debt collector uses must be complete and accurate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Assumed names.</I> This section does not prohibit a debt collector's employee from using an assumed name when communicating or attempting to communicate with a person, provided that the employee uses the assumed name consistently and that the debt collector can readily identify any employee using an assumed name.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.22" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.22   Unfair or unconscionable means.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector must not use unfair or unconscionable means to collect or attempt to collect any debt, including, but not limited to, the conduct described in paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collection of unauthorized amounts.</I> A debt collector must not collect any amount unless such amount is expressly authorized by the agreement creating the debt or permitted by law. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “any amount” includes any interest, fee, charge, or expense incidental to the principal obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Postdated payment instruments.</I> A debt collector must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept from any person a check or other payment instrument postdated by more than five days unless such person is notified in writing of the debt collector's intent to deposit such check or instrument not more than ten, nor less than three, days (excluding legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a), Saturdays, and Sundays) prior to such deposit.
</P>
<P>(2) Solicit any postdated check or other postdated payment instrument for the purpose of threatening or instituting criminal prosecution.
</P>
<P>(3) Deposit or threaten to deposit any postdated check or other postdated payment instrument prior to the date on such check or instrument.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges resulting from concealment of purpose.</I> A debt collector must not cause charges to be made to any person for communications by concealment of the true purpose of the communication. Such charges include, but are not limited to, collect telephone calls and telegram fees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nonjudicial action regarding property.</I> A debt collector must not take or threaten to take any nonjudicial action to effect dispossession or disablement of property if:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no present right to possession of the property claimed as collateral through an enforceable security interest;
</P>
<P>(2) There is no present intention to take possession of the property; or
</P>
<P>(3) The property is exempt by law from such dispossession or disablement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Restrictions on use of certain media.</I> A debt collector must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Communicate with a consumer regarding a debt by postcard.
</P>
<P>(2) Use any language or symbol, other than the debt collector's address, on any envelope when communicating with a consumer by mail, except that a debt collector may use the debt collector's business name on an envelope if such name does not indicate that the debt collector is in the debt collection business.
</P>
<P>(3) Communicate or attempt to communicate with a consumer by sending an email to an email address that the debt collector knows is provided to the consumer by the consumer's employer, unless the email address is one described in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (iii).
</P>
<P>(4) Communicate or attempt to communicate with a person in connection with the collection of a debt through a social media platform if the communication or attempt to communicate is viewable by the general public or the person's social media contacts.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Safe harbor for certain emails and text messages relating to the collection of a debt.</I> A debt collector who communicates with a consumer by sending an email or text message in accordance with the procedures described in § 1006.6(d)(3) does not violate paragraph (a) of this section by revealing in the email or text message the debt collector's name or other information indicating that the communication relates to the collection of a debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.26" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.26   Collection of time-barred debts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statute of limitations</I> means the period prescribed by applicable law for bringing a legal action against the consumer to collect a debt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time-barred debt</I> means a debt for which the applicable statute of limitations has expired.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Legal actions and threats of legal actions prohibited.</I> A debt collector must not bring or threaten to bring a legal action against a consumer to collect a time-barred debt. This paragraph (b) does not apply to proofs of claim filed in connection with a bankruptcy proceeding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 5854, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.30   Other prohibited practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required actions prior to furnishing information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a debt collector must not furnish to a consumer reporting agency, as defined in section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)), information about a debt before the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(i) Speaks to the consumer about the debt in person or by telephone; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Places a letter in the mail or sends an electronic message to the consumer about the debt and waits a reasonable period of time to receive a notice of undeliverability. During the reasonable period, the debt collector must permit receipt of, and monitor for, notifications of undeliverability from communications providers. If the debt collector receives such a notification during the reasonable period, the debt collector must not furnish information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency until the debt collector otherwise satisfies this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule—information furnished to certain specialty consumer reporting agencies.</I> Paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply to a debt collector's furnishing of information about a debt to a nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains information on a consumer's check writing history, as described in section 603(x)(3) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(x)(3)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on the sale, transfer for consideration, or placement for collection of certain debts</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a debt collector must not sell, transfer for consideration, or place for collection a debt if the debt collector knows or should know that the debt has been paid or settled or discharged in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector may transfer for consideration a debt described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section if the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(A) Transfers the debt to the debt's owner;
</P>
<P>(B) Transfers the debt to a previous owner of the debt, if the transfer is authorized under the terms of the original contract between the debt collector and the previous owner; or
</P>
<P>(C) Transfers the debt as a result of a merger, acquisition, purchase and assumption transaction, or a transfer of substantially all of the debt collector's assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Secured claims in bankruptcy.</I> A debt collector may sell, transfer for consideration, or place for collection a debt that has been discharged in bankruptcy if the debt is secured by an enforceable lien and the debt collector notifies the transferee that the consumer's personal liability for the debt was discharged in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Securitizations and pledges of debt.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not prohibit the securitization of a debt or the pledging of a portfolio of debt as collateral in connection with a borrowing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple debts.</I> If a consumer makes any single payment to a debt collector with respect to multiple debts owed by the consumer to the debt collector, the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(1) Must not apply the payment to any debt that is disputed by the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(2) If applicable, must apply the payment in accordance with the consumer's directions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Legal actions by debt collectors</I>—(1) <I>Action to enforce interest in real property.</I> A debt collector who brings a legal action against a consumer to enforce an interest in real property securing the consumer's debt must bring the action only in a judicial district or similar legal entity in which such real property is located.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other legal actions.</I> A debt collector who brings a legal action against a consumer other than to enforce an interest in real property securing the consumer's debt must bring such action only in the judicial district or similar legal entity in which the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) Signed the contract sued upon; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Resides at the commencement of the action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Authorization of actions.</I> Nothing in this part authorizes debt collectors to bring legal actions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Furnishing certain deceptive forms.</I> A debt collector must not design, compile, and furnish any form that the debt collector knows would be used to cause a consumer falsely to believe that a person other than the consumer's creditor is participating in collecting or attempting to collect a debt that the consumer allegedly owes to the creditor.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5854, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.34" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.34   Notice for validation of debts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Validation information required</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a debt collector must provide a consumer with the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section either:
</P>
<P>(i) By sending the consumer a validation notice in the manner required by § 1006.42:
</P>
<P>(A) In the initial communication, as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Within five days of that initial communication; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By providing the validation information orally in the initial communication.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A debt collector who otherwise would be required to send a validation notice pursuant to paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section is not required to do so if the consumer has paid the debt prior to the time that paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section would require the validation notice to be sent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means readily understandable. In the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size also must be readily noticeable and legible to consumers, although no minimum type size is mandated. In the case of oral disclosures, the disclosures also must be given at a volume and speed sufficient for the consumer to hear and comprehend them.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Initial communication</I> means the first time that, in connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector conveys information, directly or indirectly, regarding the debt to the consumer, other than a communication in the form of a formal pleading in a civil action, or any form or notice that does not relate to the collection of the debt and is expressly required by:
</P>
<P>(i) The Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Title V of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801 through 6827); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any provision of Federal or State law or regulation mandating notice of a data security breach or privacy risk.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Itemization date</I> means any one of the following five reference dates for which a debt collector can ascertain the amount of the debt:
</P>
<P>(i) The last statement date, which is the date of the last periodic statement or written account statement or invoice provided to the consumer by a creditor;
</P>
<P>(ii) The charge-off date, which is the date the debt was charged off;
</P>
<P>(iii) The last payment date, which is the date the last payment was applied to the debt;
</P>
<P>(iv) The transaction date, which is the date of the transaction that gave rise to the debt; or
</P>
<P>(v) The judgment date, which is the date of a final court judgment that determines the amount of the debt owed by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Validation notice</I> means a written or electronic notice that provides the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Validation period</I> means the period starting on the date that a debt collector provides the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section and ending 30 days after the consumer receives or is assumed to receive the validation information. For purposes of determining the end of the validation period, the debt collector may assume that a consumer receives the validation information on any date that is at least five days (excluding legal public holidays identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a), Saturdays, and Sundays) after the debt collector provides it.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Validation information.</I> Pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a debt collector must provide the following validation information.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Debt collector communication disclosure.</I> The statement required by § 1006.18(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information about the debt.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt collector's name and the mailing address at which the debt collector accepts disputes and requests for original-creditor information.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer's name and mailing address.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the debt collector is collecting a debt related to a consumer financial product or service as defined in § 1006.2(f), the name of the creditor to whom the debt was owed on the itemization date.
</P>
<P>(iv) The account number, if any, associated with the debt on the itemization date, or a truncated version of that number.
</P>
<P>(v) The name of the creditor to whom the debt currently is owed.
</P>
<P>(vi) The itemization date.
</P>
<P>(vii) The amount of the debt on the itemization date.
</P>
<P>(viii) An itemization of the current amount of the debt reflecting interest, fees, payments, and credits since the itemization date. A debt collector may disclose the itemization on a separate page provided in the same communication with a validation notice, if the debt collector includes on the validation notice, where the itemization would have appeared, a statement referring to that separate page.
</P>
<P>(ix) The current amount of the debt.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Information about consumer protections.</I> (i) The date that the debt collector will consider the end date of the validation period and a statement that, if the consumer notifies the debt collector in writing on or before that date that the debt, or any portion of the debt, is disputed, the debt collector must cease collection of the debt, or the disputed portion of the debt, until the debt collector sends the consumer either verification of the debt or a copy of a judgment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The date that the debt collector will consider the end date of the validation period and a statement that, if the consumer requests in writing on or before that date the name and address of the original creditor, the debt collector must cease collection of the debt until the debt collector sends the consumer the name and address of the original creditor, if different from the current creditor.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date that the debt collector will consider the end date of the validation period and a statement that, unless the consumer contacts the debt collector to dispute the validity of the debt, or any portion of the debt, on or before that date, the debt collector will assume that the debt is valid.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the debt collector is collecting debt related to a consumer financial product or service as defined in § 1006.2(f), a statement that informs the consumer that additional information regarding consumer protections in debt collection is available on the Bureau's website at <I>www.cfpb.gov/debt-collection.</I>
</P>
<P>(v) If the debt collector sends the validation notice electronically, a statement explaining how a consumer can, as described in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, dispute the debt or request original-creditor information electronically.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consumer-response information.</I> The following information, segregated from the validation information required by paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section and from any optional information included pursuant to paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii), (d)(3)(iii)(A), (d)(3)(iv) and (v), (d)(3)(vi)(A), and (d)(3)(vii) and (viii) of this section, and, if provided on a validation notice, located at the bottom of the notice under the headings, “How do you want to respond?” and “Check all that apply:”:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dispute prompts.</I> The following statements, listed in the following order, and using the following phrasing or substantially similar phrasing, each next to a prompt:
</P>
<P>(A) “I want to dispute the debt because I think:”;
</P>
<P>(B) “This is not my debt.”;
</P>
<P>(C) “The amount is wrong.”; and
</P>
<P>(D) “Other (please describe on reverse or attach additional information).”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Original-creditor information prompt.</I> The statement, “I want you to send me the name and address of the original creditor.”, using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase, next to a prompt.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Mailing addresses.</I> Mailing addresses for the consumer and the debt collector, which are the debt collector's and the consumer's names and mailing addresses as disclosed pursuant to § 1006.34(c)(2)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for certain residential mortgage debt.</I> For residential mortgage debt, if a periodic statement is required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.41, at the time a debt collector provides the validation notice, a debt collector need not provide the validation information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(vi) through (viii) of this section if the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer, in the same communication with the validation notice, a copy of the most recent periodic statement provided to the consumer under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.41(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes on the validation notice, where the validation information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(vi) through (viii) of this section would have appeared, a statement referring to that periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of validation information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section must be clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part contains the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section and certain optional disclosures permitted by paragraph (d)(3) of this section. A debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 complies with the information and form requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section, including if the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(A) Omits any or all of the optional disclosures shown on Model Form B-1; or
</P>
<P>(B) Adds any or all of the optional disclosures described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section that are not shown on Model Form B-1, provided that any such optional disclosures are no more prominent than any of the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Certain disclosures on a separate page.</I> A debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section and who, pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(viii) or (c)(5) of this section, includes certain disclosures on a separate page in the same communication with the validation notice and, on the notice, the required statement referring to those disclosures, receives a safe harbor for compliance with the information and form requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section except with respect to the disclosures on the separate page.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Substantially similar form.</I> A debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 as described in paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section may make changes to the form and retain a safe harbor for compliance with the information and form requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d)(1) of this section provided that the form remains substantially similar to Model Form B-1.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional disclosures.</I> A debt collector may include any of the following information when providing the validation information required by paragraph (c) of this section. A debt collector who includes any of the following information receives the safe harbor described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, provided that the debt collector otherwise uses Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part, or a variation of Model Form B-1, as described in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Telephone contact information.</I> The debt collector's telephone contact information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reference code.</I> A number or code that the debt collector uses to identify the debt or the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payment disclosures.</I> Either or both of the following phrases:
</P>
<P>(A) The statement, “Contact us about your payment options.”, using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase; and
</P>
<P>(B) Below the consumer-response information required by paragraphs (c)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, the statement, “I enclosed this amount:”, using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase, payment instructions after that statement, and a prompt.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Disclosures under applicable law</I>—(A) <I>Disclosures on the reverse of the validation notice.</I> On the reverse of the validation notice, any disclosures that are specifically required by, or that provide safe harbors under, applicable law and, if any such disclosures are included, a statement on the front of the validation notice referring to those disclosures. Any such disclosures must not appear directly on the reverse of the consumer-response information required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Disclosures on the front of the validation notice.</I> If a debt collector is collecting time-barred debt, on the front of the validation notice below the disclosure required by paragraph (c)(2)(ix) of this section, any time-barred debt disclosure that is specifically required by, or that provides a safe harbor under, applicable law, provided that applicable law specifies the content of the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Information about electronic communications.</I> The following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The debt collector's website and email address.
</P>
<P>(B) If the validation information is not provided electronically, a statement explaining how a consumer can, as described in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, dispute the debt or request original-creditor information electronically.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Spanish-language translation disclosures.</I> Either or both of the following disclosures regarding a consumer's ability to request a Spanish-language translation of a validation notice:
</P>
<P>(A) The statement, “Póngase en contacto con nosotros para solicitar una copia de este formulario en español” (which means “Contact us to request a copy of this form in Spanish”), using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase in Spanish. If providing this optional disclosure, a debt collector may include supplemental information in Spanish that specifies how a consumer may request a Spanish-language validation notice.
</P>
<P>(B) With the consumer-response information required by paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the statement “Quiero este formulario en español” (which means “I want this form in Spanish”), using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase in Spanish, next to a prompt.
</P>
<P>(vii) The merchant brand, affinity brand, or facility name, if any, associated with the debt.
</P>
<P>(viii) If a debt collector is collecting debt other than debt related to a consumer financial product or service as defined in § 1006.2(f), the information specified in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) or (c)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Validation notices delivered electronically.</I> If a debt collector delivers a validation notice electronically, a debt collector may, at its option, format the validation notice as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prompts.</I> Any prompt required by paragraph (c)(4)(i) or (ii) or paragraph (d)(3)(iii)(B) or (d)(3)(vi)(B) of this section may be displayed electronically as a fillable field.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hyperlinks.</I> Hyperlinks may be embedded that, when clicked:
</P>
<P>(A) Connect a consumer to the debt collector's website;
</P>
<P>(B) Connect a consumer to the Bureau's debt collection website as disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(iv) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) Permit a consumer to respond to the dispute and original-creditor information prompts required by paragraphs (c)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Translation into other languages</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector may send a consumer a validation notice completely and accurately translated into any language if the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(i) Sends the consumer an English-language validation notice in the same communication as the translated validation notice; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Previously provided the consumer an English-language validation notice, in which case the debt collector need not send the consumer an English-language validation notice in the same communication as the translated validation notice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Spanish-language validation notice—requirement to provide after optional disclosure.</I> A debt collector who includes in the validation information either or both of the optional disclosures described in paragraph (d)(3)(vi) of this section, and who thereafter receives a request from the consumer for a Spanish-language validation notice, must provide the consumer a validation notice completely and accurately translated into Spanish.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 5854, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.38" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.38   Disputes and requests for original-creditor information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Duplicative dispute</I> means a dispute submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period for which the debt collector already has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not include new and material information to support the dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Validation period</I> has the same meaning given to it in § 1006.34(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Overshadowing of rights to dispute or request original-creditor information</I>—(1) <I>Prohibition.</I> During the validation period, a debt collector must not engage in any collection activities or communications that overshadow or are inconsistent with the disclosure of the consumer's rights to dispute the debt and to request the name and address of the original creditor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part in a manner described in § 1006.34(d)(2) has not thereby violated paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for original-creditor information.</I> Upon receipt of a request for the name and address of the original creditor submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period, a debt collector must cease collection of the debt until the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> Sends the name and address of the original creditor to the consumer in writing or electronically in the manner required by § 1006.42; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule if the current creditor and the original creditor are the same.</I> In lieu of taking the actions described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, reasonably determines that the original creditor is the same as the current creditor, notifies the consumer of that fact in writing or electronically in the manner required by § 1006.42, and refers the consumer to the validation information previously provided pursuant to § 1006.34(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disputes</I>—(1) <I>Failure to dispute.</I> The failure of a consumer to dispute the validity of a debt does not constitute a legal admission of liability by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to disputes.</I> Upon receipt of a dispute submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period, a debt collector must cease collection of the debt, or any disputed portion of the debt, until the debt collector:
</P>
<P>(i) Sends a copy either of verification of the debt or of a judgment to the consumer in writing or electronically in the manner required by § 1006.42; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a dispute that the debt collector reasonably determines is a duplicative dispute, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Notifies the consumer in writing or electronically in the manner required by § 1006.42(a)(1) that the dispute is duplicative, provides a brief statement of the reasons for the determination, and refers the consumer to the debt collector's response to the earlier dispute; or
</P>
<P>(B) Satisfies paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5856, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.42" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.42   Sending required disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sending required disclosures</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A debt collector who sends disclosures required by the Act and this part in writing or electronically must do so in a manner that is reasonably expected to provide actual notice, and in a form that the consumer may keep and access later.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> A debt collector need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section when sending the disclosure required by § 1006.6(e) or § 1006.18(e) in writing or electronically, unless the disclosure is included on a notice required by § 1006.34(a)(1)(i) or § 1006.38(c) or (d)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for certain disclosures sent electronically.</I> To comply with paragraph (a) of this section, a debt collector who sends the notice required by § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(B), or the disclosures described in § 1006.38(c) or (d)(2)(i), electronically must do so in accordance with section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5856, Jan. 19, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.100" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.100   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a debt collector must retain records that are evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the FDCPA and this part starting on the date that the debt collector begins collection activity on a debt until three years after the debt collector's last collection activity on the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for telephone call recordings.</I> If a debt collector records telephone calls made in connection with the collection of a debt, the debt collector must retain the recording of each such telephone call for three years after the date of the call.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.104" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.104   Relation to State laws.</HEAD>
<P>Neither the Act nor the corresponding provisions of this part annul, alter, affect, or exempt any person subject to the provisions of the Act or the corresponding provisions of this part from complying with the laws of any State with respect to debt collection practices, except to the extent that those laws are inconsistent with any provision of the Act or the corresponding provisions of this part, and then only to the extent of the inconsistency. For purposes of this section, a State law is not inconsistent with the Act or the corresponding provisions of this part if the protection such law affords any consumer is greater than the protection provided by the Act or the corresponding provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1006.108" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1006.108   Exemption for State regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exemption for State regulation.</I> Any State may apply to the Bureau for a determination that, under the laws of that State, any class of debt collection practices within that State is subject to requirements that are substantially similar to those imposed under sections 803 through 812 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1692a through 1692j) and the corresponding provisions of this part, and that there is adequate provision for State enforcement of such requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures and criteria.</I> The procedures and criteria whereby States may apply to the Bureau for exemption of a class of debt collection practices within the applying State from the provisions of the Act and the corresponding provisions of this part as provided in section 817 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1692o) are set forth in appendix A of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.4.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1006—Procedures for State Application for Exemption From the Provisions of the Act




</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Purpose and Definitions
</HD1>
<P>(a) This appendix establishes procedures and criteria whereby States may apply to the Bureau for exemption of a class of debt collection practices within the applying State from the provisions of the Act and the corresponding provisions of this part as provided in section 817 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1692o).
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this appendix:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicant State law</I> means the State law that, for a class of debt collection practices within that State, is claimed to contain requirements that are substantially similar to the requirements that relevant Federal law imposes on that class of debt collection practices, and that contains adequate provision for State enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Class of debt collection practices</I> includes one or more such classes of debt collection practices referred to in paragraph I(b)(1) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relevant Federal law</I> means sections 803 through 812 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1692a through 1692j) and the corresponding provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>State law</I> includes State statutes, any regulations that implement State statutes, and formal interpretations of State statutes or regulations by a court of competent jurisdiction or duly authorized State agency.
</P>
<HD1>II. Application
</HD1>
<P>Any State may apply to the Bureau pursuant to the terms of this appendix for a determination that the applicant State law contains requirements that, for a class of debt collection practices within that State, are substantially similar to the requirements that relevant Federal law imposes on that class of debt collection practices, and that the applicant State law contains adequate provision for State enforcement. The application must be in writing, addressed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552, signed by the Governor, Attorney General, or State official having primary enforcement responsibility under the State law that applies to the class of debt collection practices, and must be supported by the documents specified in this appendix.
</P>
<HD1>III. Supporting Documents
</HD1>
<P>The application must be accompanied by the following, which may be submitted in paper or electronic form:
</P>
<P>(a) A copy of the applicant State law.
</P>
<P>(b) A comparison of each provision of relevant Federal law with the corresponding provisions of the applicant State law, together with reasons supporting the claim that the corresponding provisions of the applicant State law are substantially similar to the provisions of relevant Federal law, and an explanation as to why any differences between the State statute or regulation and Federal law are not inconsistent with the provisions of relevant Federal law and do not result in a diminution in the protection otherwise afforded consumers; and a statement that no other State laws (including administrative or judicial interpretations) are related to, or would have an effect upon, the State law that is being considered by the Bureau in making its determination.
</P>
<P>(c) A comparison of the provisions of the State law that provide for enforcement with the provisions of section 814 of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1692<I>l</I>), together with reasons supporting the claim that the applicant State law provides for adequate administrative enforcement.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement identifying the office designated or to be designated to enforce the applicant State law. The statement must show how the office provides for adequate enforcement of the applicant State law, including by showing that the office has necessary facilities, personnel, and funding. The statement must include, for example, complete information regarding the fiscal arrangements for administrative enforcement (including the amount of funds available or to be provided), the number and qualifications of personnel engaged or to be engaged in enforcement, and a description of the procedures under which the applicant State law is to be enforced by the State.
</P>
<HD1>IV. Criteria for Determination
</HD1>
<P>The Bureau will consider the criteria set forth below, and any other relevant information, in determining whether the applicant State law is substantially similar to relevant Federal law and whether there is adequate provision for enforcement of the applicant State law. In making that determination, the Bureau primarily will consider each provision of the applicant State law in comparison with each corresponding provision in relevant Federal law, and not the State law as a whole in comparison with the Act as a whole.
</P>
<P>(a)(1) In order for the applicant State law to be substantially similar to relevant Federal law, the applicant State law at least must provide that:
</P>
<P>(i) Definitions and rules of construction, as applicable, import a meaning and have an application that are substantially similar to those prescribed by relevant Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ii) Debt collectors provide all of the applicable notices required by relevant Federal law, with the content and in the terminology, form, and time periods prescribed pursuant to relevant Federal law. The Bureau may determine whether additional notice requirements under the applicant State law affect a determination that the applicant State law is substantially similar to relevant Federal law.
</P>
<P>(iii) Debt collectors take all affirmative actions and abide by obligations substantially similar to those prescribed by relevant Federal law under substantially similar conditions and within substantially similar time periods as are prescribed under relevant Federal law;
</P>
<P>(iv) Debt collectors abide by prohibitions that are substantially similar to those prescribed by relevant Federal law;
</P>
<P>(v) Consumers' obligations or responsibilities are no more costly, lengthy, or burdensome than consumers' corresponding obligations or responsibilities under relevant Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Consumers' rights and protections are substantially similar to those provided by relevant Federal law under conditions or within time periods that are substantially similar to those prescribed by relevant Federal law.
</P>
<P>(2) In applying the criteria set forth in paragraph IV(a)(1) of this appendix, the Bureau will not consider adversely any additional requirements of State law that are not inconsistent with the purpose of the Act or the requirements imposed under relevant Federal law.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining whether provisions for enforcement of the applicant State law are adequate, consideration will be given to the extent to which, under the applicant State law, provision is made for administrative enforcement, including necessary facilities, personnel, and funding.
</P>
<HD1>V. Public Comment
</HD1>
<P>In connection with any application that has been filed in accordance with the requirements of parts II and III of this appendix and following initial review of the application, a proposed rule concerning the application for exemption will be published by the Bureau in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a copy of such application will be made available for examination by interested persons during business hours at the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. A comment period will be allowed from the date of such publication for interested parties to submit written comments to the Bureau regarding that application.
</P>
<HD1>VI. Exemption From Requirements
</HD1>
<P>If the Bureau determines on the basis of the information before it that, under the applicant State law, a class of debt collection practices is subject to requirements substantially similar to those imposed under relevant Federal law and that there is adequate provision for State enforcement, the Bureau will exempt the class of debt collection practices in that State from the requirements of relevant Federal law and section 814 of the Act in the following manner and subject to the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(a) A final rule granting the exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the Bureau will furnish a copy of such rule to the State official who made application for such exemption, to each Federal authority responsible for administrative enforcement of the requirements of relevant Federal law, and to the Attorney General of the United States. Any exemption granted will be effective 90 days after the date of publication of such rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(b) Any State that receives an exemption must, through its appropriate official, take the following steps:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552 in writing within 30 days of any change in the applicant State law. The report of any such change must contain copies of the full text of that change, together with statements setting forth the information and opinions regarding that change that are specified in paragraph III.
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide, not later than two years after the date the exemption is granted, and every two years thereafter, a report to the Bureau in writing concerning the manner in which the State has enforced the applicant State law in the preceding two years and an update of the information required under paragraph III(d) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(c) The Bureau will inform any State that receives such an exemption, through its appropriate official, of any subsequent amendments of the Act or this part that might necessitate the amendment of State law for the exemption to continue.
</P>
<P>(d) After an exemption is granted, the requirements of the applicable State law constitute the requirements of relevant Federal law, except to the extent such State law imposes requirements not imposed by the Act or this part.
</P>
<HD1>VII. Adverse Determination
</HD1>
<P>(a) If, after publication of a proposed rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided under part V of this appendix, the Bureau finds on the basis of the information before it that it cannot make a favorable determination in connection with the application, the Bureau will notify the appropriate State official of the facts upon which such findings are based and will afford that State authority a reasonable opportunity to submit additional materials that demonstrate the basis for granting an exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) If, after having afforded the State authority such opportunity to demonstrate the basis for granting an exemption, the Bureau finds on the basis of the information before it that it still cannot make a favorable determination in connection with the application, the Bureau will publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a final rule containing its determination regarding the application and will furnish a copy of such rule to the State official who made application for such exemption.
</P>
<HD1>VIII. Revocation of Exemption
</HD1>
<P>(a) The Bureau reserves the right to revoke any exemption granted under the provisions of the Act or this part, if at any time it determines that the State law does not, in fact, impose requirements that are substantially similar to relevant Federal law or that there is not, in fact, adequate provision for State enforcement.
</P>
<P>(b) Before revoking any such exemption, the Bureau will notify the State of the facts or conduct that, in the Bureau's opinion, warrant such revocation, and will afford that State such opportunity as the Bureau deems appropriate in the circumstances to demonstrate continued eligibility for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) If, after having been afforded the opportunity to demonstrate or achieve compliance, the Bureau determines that the State has not done so, a proposed rule to revoke such exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A comment period will be allowed from the date of such publication for interested persons to submit written comments to the Bureau regarding the intention to revoke.
</P>
<P>(d) If such exemption is revoked, a final rule revoking the exemption will be published by the Bureau in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a copy of such rule will be furnished to the State, to the Federal authorities responsible for enforcement of the requirements of the Act, and to the Attorney General of the United States. The revocation becomes effective, and the class of debt collection practices affected within that State become subject to the requirements of sections 803 through 812 of the Act and the corresponding provisions of this part, 90 days after the date of publication of the final rule in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 16538, Mar. 20, 2023]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.4.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1006—Model Forms


</HEAD>
<HD1>B-1 Model Form for Validation Notice





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er19ja21.028.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 5856, Jan. 19, 2021]





</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.4.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1006—Issuance of Advisory Opinions
</HEAD>
<P>1. <I>Advisory opinions.</I> Any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any advisory opinion issued by the Bureau, including advisory opinions referenced in this appendix, provides the protection afforded under section 813(e) of the Act. The Bureau will amend this appendix periodically to incorporate references to advisory opinions that the Bureau issues.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Requests for issuance of advisory opinions.</I> A request for an advisory opinion may be submitted in accordance with the instructions regarding submission and content of requests applicable to any relevant advisory opinion program that the Bureau offers. Requests for advisory opinions will be reviewed consistent with the process outlined in any such program, and any resulting advisory opinions will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and on <I>consumerfinance.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Bureau-issued advisory opinions.</I> The Bureau has issued the following advisory opinions:
</P>
<P>a. <I>Safe Harbors from Liability under the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act for Certain Actions Taken in Compliance with Mortgage Servicing Rules under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (Regulation X) and the Truth in Lending Act (Regulation Z),</I> 81 FR 71977 (Oct. 19, 2016).


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.7.4.1.4.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1006—Official Interpretations






</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P><I>1. Official status.</I> This commentary is the vehicle by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection supplements Regulation F, 12 CFR part 1006. The provisions of the commentary are issued under the same authorities as the corresponding provisions of Regulation F and have been adopted in accordance with the notice-and-comment procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553). Unless specified otherwise, references in this commentary are to sections of Regulation F or the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I> No commentary is expected to be issued other than by means of this Supplement I.
</P>
<P><I>2. Procedure for requesting interpretations.</I> Anyone may request that an official interpretation of the regulation be added to this commentary. A request for such an official interpretation must be in writing and addressed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request must contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents. Revisions to this commentary that are adopted in accordance with the rulemaking procedures of section 553 of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 553) will be incorporated in the commentary following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P><I>3. Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, comments to § 1006.6(d)(4) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 6(d)(4)(i)-1 and comment 6(d)(4)(ii)-1. Comments that have more general application are designated, for example, as comments 38-1 and 38-2. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1, I-2, and I-3.
</P>
<HD2>Subpart A—General
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1006.2—Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>2(b) Attempt To Communicate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1006.2(b) defines an attempt to communicate as any act to initiate a communication or other contact about a debt with any person through any medium, including by soliciting a response from such person. An act to initiate a communication or other contact about a debt is an attempt to communicate regardless of whether the attempt, if successful, would be a communication that conveys information regarding a debt directly or indirectly to any person. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a debt collector places a telephone call to a person about a debt. Regardless of whether the debt collector reaches the person, the debt collector has attempted to communicate with the person.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a debt collector places a telephone call to a person about a debt and leaves a voicemail message. Regardless of whether the voicemail message consists solely of a limited-content message or includes content that conveys, directly or indirectly, information about a debt, the debt collector has attempted to communicate with the person.
</P>
<HD3>2(d) Communicate or Communication
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Any medium.</I> Section 1006.2(d) provides, in relevant part, that a communication can occur through any medium. “Any medium” includes any oral, written, electronic, or other medium. For example, a communication may occur in person or by telephone, audio recording, paper document, mail, email, text message, social media, or other electronic media.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information regarding a debt.</I> Section 1006.2(d) provides, in relevant part, that a communication means conveying information regarding a debt. A debt collector does not convey information regarding a debt directly or indirectly to any person if the debt collector leaves only a limited-content message, as defined in § 1006.2(j). A debt collector who provides marketing or advertising that does not contain information about a specific debt or debts has not communicated under § 1006.2(d), even if the debt collector transmits the marketing or advertising message to a consumer, because the debt collector has not conveyed information regarding a debt.
</P>
<HD3>2(h) Debt
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consumer.</I> Section 1006.2(h) defines debt to mean, in part, any obligation or alleged obligation of a consumer to pay money arising out of a transaction. Section 1006.2(e), in turn, defines consumer to mean any natural person obligated or allegedly obligated to pay any debt. Only natural persons, therefore, can incur debts as defined in § 1006.2(h).
</P>
<HD3>2(i) Debt Collector
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.2(i) provides, in part, that a debt collector is any person who uses any instrumentality of interstate commerce or mail in any business the principal purpose of which is the collection of debts, or who regularly collects or attempts to collect, directly or indirectly, debts owed or due, or asserted to be owed or due, to another. A person who collects or attempts to collect defaulted debts that the person has purchased, but who does not collect or attempt to collect, directly or indirectly, debts owed or due, or asserted to be owed or due, to another, and who does not have a business the principal purpose of which is the collection of debts, is not a debt collector as defined in § 1006.2(i).
</P>
<HD3>2(j) Limited-Content Message
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.2(j) provides that a limited-content message is a voicemail message for a consumer that includes all of the content described in § 1006.2(j)(1), that may include any of the content described in § 1006.2(j)(2), and that includes no other content. Any other message is not a limited-content message. If a voicemail message includes content other than the specific items described in § 1006.2(j)(1) and (2), and such other content directly or indirectly conveys any information about a debt, the message is a communication, as defined in § 1006.2(d). For example, a voicemail message that includes a statement that the message is from a debt collector and a request to speak to a particular consumer is not a limited-content message because it includes more than the required or permitted content.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Message for a consumer.</I> Section 1006.2(j) provides, in part, that a limited-content message is a voicemail message for a consumer. A message knowingly left for a third party is not a limited-content message because it is not for a consumer. For example, assume that a debt collector has a telephone number that the debt collector knows belongs to the consumer's friend. A voicemail message left after calling that number is not a limited-content message, even if the message includes no more than the content described in § 1006.2(j)(1) and (2) because the debt collector knowingly left the message for someone other than the consumer. Other provisions of this part may, in certain circumstances, restrict a debt collector from leaving a limited-content message or otherwise attempting to communicate with a consumer. See §§ 1006.6(b) and (c) and 1006.22(f) and their related commentary for further guidance regarding when a debt collector is prohibited from attempting to communicate with a consumer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Meaningful disclosure of identity.</I> A debt collector who leaves only a limited-content message for a consumer does not violate § 1006.14(g)'s requirement to meaningfully disclose the caller's identity with respect to that voicemail message.
</P>
<HD3>2(j)(1) Required Content
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> The following example illustrates a limited-content message that includes only the content described in § 1006.2(j)(1): “This is Robin Smith calling from ABC Inc. Please contact me or Jim Johnson at 1-800-555-1212.”
</P>
<HD3>2(j)(2) Optional Content
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.2(j)(2)(iv) provides that a limited-content message may include a statement that, if the consumer replies, the consumer may speak to any of the company's representatives or associates. A message that includes a more detailed description of the representative or associate group is not a limited-content message. For example, a reference to an agent with the “credit card receivables group” is not a limited-content message because it includes more than a statement that the consumer's reply may be answered by a representative or associate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> The following example illustrates a limited-content message that includes the content described in both § 1006.2(j)(1) and (2): “Hi, this is Robin Smith calling from ABC Inc. It is 4:15 p.m. on Wednesday, September 1. Please contact me or any of our representatives at 1-800-555-1212 today until 6:00 p.m. Eastern time, or any weekday from 8:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. Eastern time.”
</P>
<HD2>Subpart B—Rules for FDCPA Debt Collectors
</HD2>
<HD3>Section 1006.6—Communications in Connection With Debt Collection
</HD3>
<HD3>6(a) Consumer
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Spouse.</I> Section 1006.6(a)(1) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6, the term consumer includes a consumer's spouse. The surviving spouse of a deceased consumer is a spouse as that term is used in § 1006.6(a)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Parent.</I> Section 1006.6(a)(2) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6, the term consumer includes a consumer's parent, if the consumer is a minor. A parent of a deceased minor consumer is a parent as that term is used in § 1006.6(a)(2).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Personal representative.</I> Section 1006.6(a)(4) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6, the term consumer includes the executor or administrator of the consumer's estate, if the consumer is deceased. The terms executor or administrator include the personal representative of the consumer's estate. A personal representative is any person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate. Persons with such authority may include personal representatives under the informal probate and summary administration procedures of many States, persons appointed as universal successors, persons who sign declarations or affidavits to effectuate the transfer of estate assets, and persons who dispose of the deceased consumer's financial assets or other assets of monetary value extrajudicially.
</P>
<HD3>6(b) Communications With a Consumer
</HD3>
<HD3>6(b)(1) Prohibitions Regarding Unusual or Inconvenient Times or Places
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Designation of inconvenience.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(1) prohibits a debt collector from, among other things, communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt at a time or place that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer, unless an exception in § 1006.6(b)(4) applies. For example, a debt collector knows or should know that a time or place is inconvenient to a consumer if the consumer uses the word “inconvenient” to notify the debt collector. In addition, depending on the facts and circumstances, the debt collector knows or should know that a time or place is inconvenient even if the consumer does not specifically state to the debt collector that a time or place is “inconvenient.” The debt collector may ask follow-up questions regarding whether a time or place is convenient to clarify statements by the consumer. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a creditor places a debt for collection with a debt collector. To facilitate collection of the debt, the creditor provides the debt collector a file that includes recent notes stating that the consumer cannot be disturbed on Tuesdays and Thursdays through the end of the calendar year. Based on these facts, the debt collector knows or should know that Tuesdays and Thursdays through the end of the calendar year are inconvenient to the consumer. Unless the consumer informs the debt collector that those times are no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer on those days through the end of the calendar year.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a debt collector calls a consumer. The consumer answers the call but states “I am busy” or “I cannot talk now.” The debt collector asks the consumer when would be a convenient time. The consumer responds, “on weekdays, except from 3:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.” The debt collector asks the consumer whether there would be a convenient time on weekends. The consumer responds “no.” Based on these facts, the debt collector knows or should know that the time period between 3:00 p.m. and 5:00 p.m. on weekdays, and all times on weekends, are inconvenient to the consumer. Thereafter, unless the consumer informs the debt collector that those times are no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer at those times.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a consumer tells a debt collector not to communicate with the consumer at a particular place, such as the consumer's home. The debt collector asks whether the consumer intends to prohibit the debt collector from communicating with the consumer through all media associated with the consumer's home, including, for example, mail. Absent such additional information, the debt collector knows or should know that communications to the consumer at home, including mail to the consumer's home address and calls to the consumer's home landline telephone number, are inconvenient. Thereafter, unless the consumer informs the debt collector that the place is no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer at the consumer's home. See comment 6(b)(1)(ii)-1 for additional guidance regarding communications or attempts to communicate at an inconvenient place.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer-initiated communication.</I> If a consumer initiates a communication with a debt collector at a time or from a place that the consumer previously designated as inconvenient, the debt collector may respond once at that time or place through the same medium of communication used by the consumer. (For more on medium of communication, see § 1006.14(h) and its associated commentary.) After that response, § 1006.6(b)(1) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate further with the consumer at that time or place until the consumer conveys that the time or place is no longer inconvenient, unless an exception in § 1006.6(b)(4) applies. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume the same facts as in comment 6(b)(1)-1.ii, except that, after the consumer tells the debt collector that weekdays from 3:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. and weekends are inconvenient, the consumer sends an email message to the debt collector at 3:30 p.m. on Wednesday. Based on these facts, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) does not prohibit the debt collector from responding once by email message before 5:00 p.m. on that day. Unless the consumer informs the debt collector that those times are no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from future communications or attempts to communicate with the consumer on weekdays between 3:00 p.m. and 5:00 p.m. and on weekends. Additionally, if the consumer responds to the debt collector's email message, the debt collector may continue to respond once to each consumer-initiated email message before 5:00 p.m. on that day.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same facts as in comment 6(b)(1)-1.iii, except that, after the consumer tells the debt collector not to communicate with the consumer at home, the consumer calls the debt collector from the consumer's home landline telephone number. Based on these facts, § 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) does not prohibit the debt collector from responding once by communicating with the consumer on that telephone call. Unless the consumer informs the debt collector that the place is no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) prohibits the debt collector from future communications or attempts to communicate with the consumer at home.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a consumer tells a debt collector that all communications to the consumer on Friday every week are inconvenient to the consumer. On a Friday, the consumer visits the debt collector's website and uses the debt collector's mobile application. Based on these facts, while the consumer navigates the website or uses the mobile application, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) does not prohibit the debt collector from conveying information to the consumer about the debt through the website or mobile application. Once the consumer stops navigating the website or using the mobile application, however, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from further communications or attempts to communicate on that day. And unless the consumer informs the debt collector that those times are no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from future communications or attempts to communicate with the consumer on Fridays.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume the same facts as in comment 6(b)(1)-2.iii, except that after the consumer visits the debt collector's website and uses the debt collector's mobile application, the consumer sends an email message to the debt collector at 8:30 p.m. on Friday. Based on these facts, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) does not prohibit the debt collector from responding once, such as by sending an automated email message reply generated in response to the consumer's email message. Unless the consumer informs the debt collector that those times are no longer inconvenient, § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits the debt collector from future communications or attempts to communicate with the consumer on Fridays.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Time of electronic communication.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(1)(i) prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate, including through electronic communication media, at any unusual time, or at a time that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer. For purposes of determining the time of an electronic communication, such as an email or text message, under § 1006.6(b)(1)(i), an electronic communication occurs when the debt collector sends it, not, for example, when the consumer receives or views it.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer's location.</I> Under § 1006.6(b)(1)(i), in the absence of a debt collector's knowledge of circumstances to the contrary, an inconvenient time for communicating with a consumer is before 8:00 a.m. and after 9:00 p.m. local time at the consumer's location. If a debt collector has conflicting or ambiguous information regarding a consumer's location, then, in the absence of knowledge of circumstances to the contrary, the debt collector complies with § 1006.6(b)(1)(i) if the debt collector communicates or attempts to communicate with the consumer at a time that would be convenient in all of the locations at which the debt collector's information indicates the consumer might be located. The following examples, which assume that the debt collector has no information about times the consumer considers inconvenient or other information about the consumer's location, illustrate the rule.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a debt collector's information indicates that a consumer has a mobile telephone number with an area code associated with the Eastern time zone and a residential address in the Pacific time zone. The convenient times to communicate with the consumer are after 11:00 a.m. Eastern time (8:00 a.m. Pacific time) and before 9:00 p.m. Eastern time (6:00 p.m. Pacific time).
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a debt collector's information indicates that a consumer has a mobile telephone number with an area code associated with the Eastern time zone and a landline telephone number with an area code associated with the Mountain time zone. The convenient times to communicate with the consumer are after 10:00 a.m. Eastern time (8:00 a.m. Mountain time) and before 9:00 p.m. Eastern time (7:00 p.m. Mountain time).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Communications or attempts to communicate at unusual or inconvenient places.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt at any unusual place, or at a place that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer. Some communication media, such as mailing addresses and landline telephone numbers, are associated with a place. Pursuant to § 1006.6(b)(1)(ii), a debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate with a consumer through media associated with an unusual place, or with a place that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer. Other communication media, such as email addresses and mobile telephone numbers, are not associated with a place. Section 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) does not prohibit a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer through such media unless the debt collector knows that the consumer is at an unusual place, or at a place that the debt collector knows or should know is inconvenient to the consumer. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume the same facts as in comment 6(b)(1)-1.iii. Unless the debt collector knows that the consumer is at home, a telephone call to the consumer's mobile telephone number or an electronic communication, including, for example, an email message or a text message to the consumer's mobile telephone, does not violate § 1006.6(b)(1)(ii) even if the consumer receives or views the communication while at home.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2) Prohibitions Regarding Consumer Represented by an Attorney
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consumer-initiated communications.</I> A consumer-initiated communication from a consumer represented by an attorney constitutes the consumer's prior consent to that communication under § 1006.6(b)(4)(i); therefore, a debt collector may respond to that consumer-initiated communication. However, the consumer's act of initiating the communication does not negate the debt collector's knowledge that the consumer is represented by an attorney and does not revoke the protections afforded the consumer under § 1006.6(b)(2). After the debt collector's response, the debt collector must not communicate or attempt to communicate further with the consumer unless the debt collector knows the consumer is not represented by an attorney with respect to the debt, either based on information from the consumer or the consumer's attorney, or unless an exception under § 1006.6(b)(2)(i) or (ii) or § 1006.6(b)(4) applies.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(3) Prohibitions Regarding Consumer's Place of Employment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Communications at consumer's place of employment.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(3) prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt at the consumer's place of employment, if the debt collector knows or has reason to know that the consumer's employer prohibits the consumer from receiving such communication. A debt collector knows or has reason to know that a consumer's employer prohibits the consumer from receiving such communication if, for example, the consumer tells the debt collector that the consumer cannot take personal calls at work. The debt collector may ask follow-up questions regarding the employer's prohibitions or limitations on contacting the consumer at the place of employment to clarify statements by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Employer-provided email.</I> For special rules regarding employer-provided email addresses, see § 1006.22(f)(3) and its associated commentary.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(4) Exceptions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(4)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prior consent—in general.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(4)(i) provides, in part, that the prohibitions in § 1006.6(b)(1) through (3) on a debt collector communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of any debt do not apply if the debt collector communicates or attempts to communicate with the prior consent of the consumer. If the debt collector learns during a communication that the debt collector is communicating with the consumer at an inconvenient time or place, for example, the debt collector may ask the consumer during that communication what time or place would be convenient. However, § 1006.6(b)(4)(i) prohibits the debt collector from asking the consumer to consent to the continuation of that inconvenient communication.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Directly to the debt collector.</I> Section 1006.6(b)(4)(i) requires the prior consent of the consumer to be given directly to the debt collector. For example, a debt collector cannot rely on the prior consent of the consumer given to a creditor or to a previous debt collector.
</P>
<HD3>6(c) Communications With a Consumer—After Refusal To Pay or Cease Communication Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>6(c)(1) Prohibitions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notification complete upon receipt.</I> If, pursuant to § 1006.6(c)(1), a consumer notifies a debt collector in writing or electronically using a medium of electronic communication through which a debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers that the consumer either refuses to pay a debt or wants the debt collector to cease further communication with the consumer, notification is complete upon the debt collector's receipt of that information. The following example illustrates the rule.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that on August 3, a consumer places in the mail a written notification to a debt collector that the consumer either refuses to pay a debt or wants the debt collector to cease further communication with the consumer pursuant to § 1006.6(c)(1). On August 4, the debt collector sends the consumer an email message. The debt collector receives the consumer's written notification on August 6. Because the consumer's notification is complete upon the debt collector's receipt of that information on August 6, the debt collector's email message communication on August 4 does not violate § 1006.6(c)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interpretation of the E-SIGN Act.</I> Comment 6(c)(1)-1 constitutes the Bureau's interpretation of section 101 of the E-SIGN Act as applied to FDCPA section 805(c). Under this interpretation, section 101(a) of the E-SIGN Act enables a consumer to satisfy the requirement in FDCPA section 805(c) that the consumer's notification of the debt collector be “in writing” through an electronic request. Further, because the consumer may only satisfy the writing requirement using a medium of electronic communication through which a debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers, section 101(b) of the E-SIGN Act is not contravened.
</P>
<HD3>6(c)(2) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written early intervention notice for mortgage servicers.</I> The Bureau has interpreted the written early intervention notice required by 12 CFR 1024.39(d)(3) to fall within the exceptions to the cease communication provision in FDCPA section 805(c)(2) and (3). See 12 CFR 1024.39(d)(3), its commentary, and the Bureau's 2016 FDCPA Interpretive Rule (81 FR 71977 (Oct. 19, 2016)).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other mortgage servicing rule provisions.</I> Notwithstanding a consumer's cease communication request pursuant to § 1006.6(c)(1), a mortgage servicer who is subject to the FDCPA with respect to a mortgage loan is not liable under the FDCPA for complying with certain servicing rule provisions, including requirements to provide a consumer with disclosures regarding the forced placement of hazard insurance as required by 12 CFR 1024.37, a disclosure regarding an adjustable-rate mortgage's initial interest rate adjustment as required by 12 CFR 1026.20(d), and a periodic statement for each billing cycle as required by 12 CFR 1026.41. See CFPB Bulletin 2013-12 (Oct. 15, 2013) providing implementation guidance for certain mortgage servicing rules.
</P>
<HD3>6(d) Communications With Third Parties
</HD3>
<HD3>6(d)(2) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prior consent.</I> See the commentary to § 1006.6(b)(4)(i) for guidance concerning a consumer giving prior consent directly to a debt collector.
</P>
<HD3>6(d)(3) Reasonable Procedures for Email and Text Message Communications
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Knowledge of prohibited disclosure.</I> For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(ii), a debt collector knows that sending an email to an email address or a text message to a telephone number has led to a disclosure prohibited by § 1006.6(d)(1) if any person has informed the debt collector of that fact.
</P>
<HD3>6(d)(4) Procedures for Email Addresses
</HD3>
<HD3>6(d)(4)(i) Procedures Based on Communication Between the Consumer and the Debt Collector
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(i)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prior consent—in general.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(4)(i)(B) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send an email to an email address if, among other things, the debt collector has received directly from the consumer prior consent to use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt. For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(i)(B), a consumer may provide consent directly to a debt collector through any medium of communication, such as in writing, electronically, or orally.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prior consent—consumer-provided email address.</I> If a consumer provides an email address to a debt collector (including on the debt collector's website or online portal), the debt collector may treat the consumer as having consented directly to the debt collector's use of the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(i)(B) if the debt collector discloses clearly and conspicuously that the debt collector may use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt.
</P>
<HD3>6(d)(4)(ii) Procedures Based on Communication by the Creditor
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Communications about the account.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(B) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send an email to an email address if, among other things, the creditor used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the account giving rise to the debt. For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(B), communications about the account include, for example, required disclosures, bills, invoices, periodic statements, payment reminders, and payment confirmations. Communications about the account do not include, for example, marketing or advertising materials unrelated to the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> Clear and conspicuous means readily understandable. In the case of written and electronic disclosures, the location and type size also must be readily noticeable and legible to consumers, although no minimum type size is mandated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Sample language.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send an email to an email address if, among other things, the creditor sent the consumer a written or electronic notice that clearly and conspicuously disclosed that the debt would be transferred to the debt collector; that the debt collector might use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt; that, if others have access to this email address, then it is possible they may see the emails; instructions for a reasonable and simple method by which the consumer could opt out of such communications; and the date by which the debt collector or creditor must receive the consumer's request to opt out.
</P>
<P>i. When a creditor sends the notice in writing, the creditor may use, but is not required to use, the following language to satisfy § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C): “We are transferring your account to ABC debt collector, and we are providing ABC debt collector with the following email address for you: [email address]. ABC debt collector may use this email address to communicate with you about the debt. If others have access to this email address, then it is possible they may see the emails. If you would like to opt out of communications by ABC debt collector to [email address], please fill out the enclosed form and return it in the enclosed envelope so that we receive it by [date].”
</P>
<P>ii. When a creditor sends the notice electronically, the creditor may use, but is not required to use, the following language to satisfy § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C): “We are transferring your account to ABC debt collector, and we are providing ABC debt collector with the following email address for you: [email address]. ABC debt collector may use this email address to communicate with you about the debt. If others have access to this email address, then it is possible they may see the emails. If you would like to opt out of communications by ABC debt collector to [email address], please click here by [date].”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combined notice.</I> A notice provided by the creditor under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C) may be contained in a larger communication that conveys other information, as long as the notice is clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification of the debt collector.</I> Under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>), the notice must clearly and conspicuously disclose, among other things, that the debt has been or will be transferred to the debt collector. To satisfy this requirement, the notice must identify the name of the specific debt collector to which the debt has been or will be transferred.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable and simple method to opt out.</I> Under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>4</I>), the notice must clearly and conspicuously disclose instructions for a reasonable and simple method by which the consumer can opt out of the debt collector's use of the email address to communicate about the debt. The following examples illustrate the rule.
</P>
<P>i. When the creditor sends the notice in writing, reasonable and simple methods for opting out include providing a reply form and a pre-addressed envelope together with the opt-out notice. Requiring a consumer to call or write to obtain a form for opting out, rather than including the form with the opt-out notice, does not meet the requirement to provide a reasonable and simple method for opting out.
</P>
<P>ii. When the creditor sends the notice electronically, reasonable and simple methods for opting out include providing an electronic means to opt out, such as a hyperlink, or allowing the consumer to opt out by replying to the communication with the word “stop.” Requiring a consumer who receives the opt-out notice electronically to opt out by postal mail, telephone, or visiting a website without providing a link does not meet the requirement to provide a reasonable and simple method for opting out.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Recipient of opt-out request.</I> Under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>5</I>), the notice must clearly and conspicuously disclose the date by which a debt collector or creditor must receive a consumer's request to opt out, which must be at least 35 days after the date the notice is sent. The notice may instruct the consumer to respond to the debt collector or to the creditor but not to both.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(D)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Effect of opt-out request after expiration of opt-out period.</I> If a consumer requests after the expiration of the opt-out period that the debt collector not communicate using the email address identified in the opt-out notice, such as by returning the notice or opting out under § 1006.6(e), § 1006.14(h)(1) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer using that email address. If the consumer requests after the expiration of the opt-out period that the debt collector not communicate with the consumer by email, § 1006.14(h)(1) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer by email, including by using the specific email address identified in the notice. For more on prohibited communication media and certain exceptions, see § 1006.14(h) and its associated commentary. If after the expiration of the opt-out period the consumer notifies the debt collector in writing or electronically using a medium of electronic communication through which a debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers that the consumer refuses to pay the debt or wants the debt collector to cease further communication with the consumer, § 1006.6(c)(1) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer with respect to the debt, subject to the exceptions in § 1006.6(c)(2). For more on communications with a consumer after refusal to pay or a cease communication notice, see § 1006.6(c) and its associated commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Scope of opt-out request.</I> In the absence of evidence that the consumer refuses to pay the debt or wants the debt collector to cease all communication with the consumer, a consumer's request under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(D) to opt out of a debt collector's use of a particular email address to communicate with the consumer by email does not constitute a notification to cease further communication with respect to the debt under § 1006.6(c)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(4)(ii)(E)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Domain name available for use by the general public.</I> Under § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(E), the domain name of an email address is available for use by the general public when multiple members of the general public are permitted to use the same domain name, whether for free or through a paid subscription. Such a name does not include one that is reserved for use by specific registrants, such as a domain name branded for use by a particular commercial entity (<I>e.g., john.doe@springsidemortgage.com</I>) or reserved for particular types of institutions (<I>e.g., john.doe@agency.gov,</I> <I>john.doe@university.edu,</I> or <I>john.doe@nonprofit.org</I>).
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<P>2. <I>Knowledge of employer-provided email address.</I> For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(E), a debt collector knows that an email address is provided by the consumer's employer if any person has informed the debt collector that the address is employer provided. However, § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(E) does not require a debt collector to conduct a manual review of consumer accounts to determine whether an email address might be employer provided.
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<HD3>6(d)(4)(iii) Procedures Based on Communication by the Prior Debt Collector
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Immediately prior debt collector.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(4)(iii) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send an email to an email address if, among other things, the immediately prior debt collector used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt. For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(iii), the immediately prior debt collector is the debt collector immediately preceding the current debt collector. For example, if ABC debt collector returns a debt to the creditor and the creditor places the debt with XYZ debt collector, ABC debt collector is the immediately prior debt collector for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(4)(iii).
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the rule.
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<P>i. After obtaining a consumer's email address in accordance with the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii), ABC debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using that email address and the consumer does not opt out. ABC debt collector returns the debt to the creditor, who places it with XYZ debt collector. XYZ debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using the email address obtained by ABC debt collector. Assuming that the requirements of § 1006.6(d)(3)(ii) are satisfied, XYZ debt collector may have a bona fide error defense to civil liability for any unintentional third-party disclosure that occurs during that communication because a prior debt collector (<I>i.e.,</I> ABC debt collector) obtained the email address in accordance with the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii), the immediately prior debt collector (<I>i.e.,</I> ABC debt collector) used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt, and the consumer did not opt out of such communications by ABC debt collector.
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<P>ii. After obtaining a consumer's email address in accordance with the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii), ABC debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using that email address and the consumer does not opt out. ABC debt collector returns the debt to the creditor, who places it with EFG debt collector. EFG debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using the email address obtained by ABC debt collector, and the consumer does not opt out. EFG debt collector returns the debt to the creditor, who places it with XYZ debt collector. XYZ debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using the email address obtained by ABC debt collector and used by EFG debt collector. Assuming that the requirements of § 1006.6(d)(3)(ii) are satisfied, XYZ debt collector may have a bona fide error defense to civil liability for any unintentional third-party disclosure that occurs during that communication because a prior debt collector (<I>i.e.,</I> ABC debt collector) obtained the email address in accordance with the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii), the immediately prior debt collector (<I>i.e.,</I> EFG debt collector) used the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt, and the consumer did not opt out of such communications by EFG debt collector.
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<P>iii. After obtaining a consumer's email address in accordance with the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii), ABC debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using that email address and the consumer does not opt out. ABC debt collector returns the debt to the creditor, who places it with EFG debt collector, who chooses not to communicate with the consumer by email. EFG debt collector returns the debt to the creditor, who places it with XYZ debt collector. XYZ debt collector communicates with the consumer about the debt using the email address obtained by ABC debt collector. Section 1006.6(d)(4)(iii) does not provide XYZ debt collector with a bona fide error defense to civil liability for any unintentional third-party disclosure that occurs during that communication because the immediately prior debt collector (<I>i.e.,</I> EFG debt collector) did not use the email address to communicate with the consumer about the debt.
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<HD3>6(d)(5) Procedures for Telephone Numbers for Text Messages
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Complete and accurate database.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(5)(i) and (ii) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send a text message to a telephone number if, among other things, the debt collector confirms, using a complete and accurate database, that the telephone number has not been reassigned from the consumer to another user. For purposes of § 1006.6(d)(5)(i) and (ii), the database established by the FCC in <I>In re Advanced Methods to Target &amp; Eliminate Unlawful Robocalls</I> (33 FCC Rcd. 12024 (Dec. 12, 2018)) qualifies as a complete and accurate database, as does any commercially available database that is substantially similar in terms of completeness and accuracy to the FCC's database.
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<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(5)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Response to telephone call by consumer.</I> Section 1006.6(d)(5)(i) provides that, for purposes of § 1006.6(d)(3)(i), a debt collector may send a text message to a telephone number if, among other things, the consumer used the telephone number to communicate by text message with the debt collector about the debt. Section 1006.6(d)(5)(i) does not apply if the consumer used the telephone number to communicate only by telephone call with the debt collector about the debt.
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<HD3>Paragraph 6(d)(5)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prior consent.</I> See comment 6(d)(4)(i)(B)-1 for guidance concerning how a consumer may provide prior consent directly to a debt collector. See comment 6(d)(4)(i)(B)-2 for guidance concerning when a debt collector may treat a consumer who provides a telephone number for text messages as having consented directly to the debt collector.
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<HD3>6(e) Opt-Out Notice for Electronic Communications or Attempts To Communicate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.6(e) requires a debt collector who communicates or attempts to communicate with a consumer electronically in connection with the collection of a debt using a specific email address, telephone number for text messages, or other electronic-medium address to include in such communication or attempt to communicate a clear and conspicuous statement describing a reasonable and simple method by which the consumer can opt out of further electronic communications or attempts to communicate by the debt collector to that address or telephone number. See comment 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)-1 for guidance on the meaning of clear and conspicuous. See comment 6(d)(4)(ii)(C)(<I>4</I>)-1 for guidance on the meaning of reasonable and simple. The following examples illustrate the rule.
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<P>i. Assume that a debt collector sends a text message to a consumer's mobile telephone number. The text message includes the following instruction: “Reply STOP to stop texts to this telephone number.” Assuming that it is readily noticeable and legible to consumers, this instruction constitutes a clear and conspicuous statement describing a reasonable and simple method to opt out of receiving further text messages from the debt collector to that telephone number consistent with § 1006.6(e). No minimum type size is mandated.
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<P>ii. Assume that a debt collector sends the consumer an email that includes a hyperlink labeled: “Click here to opt out of further emails to this email address.” Assuming that it is readily noticeable and legible to consumers, this instruction constitutes a clear and conspicuous statement describing a reasonable and simple method to opt out of receiving further emails from the debt collector to that email address consistent with § 1006.6(e). No minimum type size is mandated.
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<P>iii. Assume that a debt collector sends the consumer an email that includes instructions in a textual format explaining that the consumer may opt out of receiving further email communications from the debt collector to that email address by replying with the word “stop” in the subject line. Assuming that it is readily noticeable and legible to consumers, this instruction constitutes a clear and conspicuous statement describing a reasonable and simple method to opt out of receiving further emails from the debt collector to that email address consistent with § 1006.6(e). No minimum type size is mandated.
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<HD3>Section 1006.10—Acquisition of Location Information
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<HD3>10(a) Definition
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<P>1. <I>Location information about deceased consumers.</I> If a consumer obligated or allegedly obligated to pay any debt is deceased, location information includes the information described in § 1006.10(a) for a person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate, as described in § 1006.6(a)(4) and its associated commentary.
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<HD3>10(b) Form and Content of Location Communications
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 10(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Executors, administrators, or personal representatives of a deceased consumer's estate.</I> Section 1006.10(b)(2) prohibits a debt collector who is communicating with any person other than the consumer for the purpose of acquiring location information about the consumer from stating that the consumer owes any debt. If the consumer obligated or allegedly obligated to pay the debt is deceased, and the debt collector is attempting to locate the person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate, the debt collector does not violate § 1006.10(b)(2) by stating that the debt collector is seeking to identify and locate the person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate. The debt collector may also state that the debt collector is seeking to identify and locate the person handling the financial affairs of the deceased consumer. For more on executors, administrators, and personal representatives, see § 1006.6(a)(4) and its associated commentary.
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<HD3>Section 1006.14—Harassing, Oppressive, or Abusive Conduct
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<HD3>14(a) In General
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<P>1. <I>General prohibition.</I> Section 1006.14(a), which implements FDCPA section 806 (15 U.S.C. 1692d), sets forth a general standard that prohibits a debt collector from engaging in any conduct the natural consequence of which is to harass, oppress, or abuse any person in connection with the collection of a debt. The general prohibition covers the specific conduct described in § 1006.14(b) through (h), as well as any conduct by the debt collector that is not specifically prohibited by § 1006.14(b) through (h) but the natural consequence of which is to harass, oppress, or abuse any person in connection with the collection of a debt. Such conduct can occur regardless of the communication media the debt collector uses, including in-person interactions, telephone calls, audio recordings, paper documents, mail, email, text messages, social media, or other electronic media, even if not specifically addressed by § 1006.14(b) through (h). The following example illustrates the rule.
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<P>i. Assume that, in connection with the collection of a debt, a debt collector sends a consumer numerous, unsolicited text messages per day for several consecutive days. The consumer does not respond. Assume further that the debt collector does not communicate or attempt to communicate with the consumer using any other communication medium and that, by sending the text messages, the debt collector has not violated § 1006.14(b) through (h). Even though the debt collector's conduct does not violate any specific prohibition under § 1006.14(b) through (h), it is likely that the natural consequence of the debt collector's text messages is to harass, oppress, or abuse the person receiving the text messages; when such natural consequence occurs, the debt collector has violated § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806.
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<P>2. <I>Cumulative effect of conduct.</I> Whether a debt collector's conduct violates the general standard in § 1006.14(a) may depend on the cumulative effect of the debt collector's conduct through any communication medium the debt collector uses, including in-person interactions, telephone calls, audio recordings, paper documents, mail, email, text messages, social media, or other electronic media. Depending on the facts and circumstances, conduct that on its own would violate neither the general prohibition in § 1006.14(a), nor any specific prohibition in § 1006.14(b) through (h), nonetheless may violate § 1006.14(a) when such conduct is evaluated cumulatively with other conduct. The following example illustrates the rule as applied to a debt collector who uses multiple communication media to communicate or attempt to communicate with a person.
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<P>i. Assume that a debt collector places seven unanswered telephone calls within seven consecutive days to a consumer in connection with the collection of a debt. During this same period, the debt collector also sends multiple additional unsolicited emails about the debt to the consumer. The consumer does not respond. The frequency of the debt collector's telephone calls during the seven-day period does not exceed the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), so the debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1). Assume further that no evidence is offered to rebut the presumption of compliance, such that the debt collector complies with § 1006.14(b)(1). Also assume that, for purposes of this illustrative example only, the frequency of the debt collector's emails alone does not violate § 1006.14(a). It nevertheless is likely that the cumulative effect of the debt collector's telephone calls and emails is harassment; when such natural consequence occurs, the debt collector has violated § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806.
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<HD3>14(b) Repeated or Continuous Telephone Calls or Telephone Conversations
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<P>1. <I>Placing telephone calls repeatedly or continuously.</I> Section 1006.14(b) prohibits a debt collector from, in connection with the collection of a debt, placing telephone calls or engaging any person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number, and it describes when a debt collector is presumed to have complied with or violated that prohibition. For purposes of § 1006.14(b)(1) through (4), “placing a telephone call” includes conveying a ringless voicemail but does not include sending an electronic message (<I>e.g.,</I> a text message or an email) that may be received on a mobile telephone.
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<HD3>14(b)(1) In General
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<P>1. <I>Effect of compliance.</I> A debt collector who complies with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) complies with § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806 (15 U.S.C. 1692d) solely with respect to the frequency of its telephone calls. The debt collector nevertheless could violate § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806 if the natural consequence of another aspect of the debt collector's telephone calls, unrelated to frequency, is to harass, oppress, or abuse any person in connection with the collection of a debt. See also comment 14(a)-2 regarding the cumulative effect of the debt collector's conduct.
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<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume that a debt collector communicates or attempts to communicate with a consumer about a particular debt only by telephone. The debt collector does not exceed either of the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), the debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1). Assume, further, that no evidence is offered to rebut that presumption of compliance. Pursuant to § 1006.14(b)(1), the debt collector complies with § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806, but only with respect to the frequency of its telephone calls. Assume, however, that one of the debt collector's telephone calls results in the debt collector leaving a voicemail that contains obscene language. Even though the debt collector does not violate § 1006.14(a) and FDCPA section 806 based solely on the frequency of the telephone calls, the debt collector's obscene voicemail would violate § 1006.14(a) and (d) and FDCPA section 806 and 806(2) (15 U.S.C. 1692, 1692d(2)).
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<HD3>14(b)(2) Telephone Call Frequencies; Presumptions of Compliance and Violation
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<HD3>Paragraph 14(b)(2)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Presumption of compliance; examples.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(2)(i) provides that a debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) if the debt collector places a telephone call to a particular person in connection with the collection of a particular debt neither: More than seven times within seven consecutive days (§ 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A)); nor within a period of seven consecutive days after having had a telephone conversation with the person in connection with the collection of such debt (§ 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(B)). For the presumption of compliance to apply, the debt collector's telephone call frequencies must not exceed either prong of § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). The telephone call frequencies are subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). In addition, for purposes of § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(B), the date of the telephone conversation is the first day of the seven-consecutive-day period. The following examples illustrate the rule.
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<P>i. On Wednesday, April 1, a debt collector first attempts to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of a credit card debt by placing a telephone call and leaving a limited-content message. Between Thursday, April 2, and Tuesday, April 7, the debt collector places six more telephone calls to the consumer about the debt, all of which go unanswered. As of Tuesday, April 7, the debt collector has placed seven telephone calls to the consumer in connection with the collection of the credit card debt within the period of seven consecutive days that started on Wednesday, April 1. Assume the debt collector does not place any additional telephone calls about the debt until Wednesday, April 8. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), the debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5).
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<P>ii. On Thursday, August 13, a consumer places a telephone call to, and initiates a telephone conversation with, a debt collector regarding a particular debt. Assume that the debt collector does not place a telephone call to the consumer in connection with the collection of that debt again prior to Thursday, August 20. The debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5).
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<P>iii. On Tuesday, October 6, a debt collector first attempts to communicate with a particular third party for the purpose of acquiring location information about a consumer by placing a telephone call to that third party. The call is unanswered. The debt collector places up to six more unanswered telephone calls to that third party for the purpose of acquiring location information about the consumer through Monday, October 12. The debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5). See § 1006.10(c) for further guidance concerning when a debt collector is prohibited from communicating with a person other than the consumer for the purpose of acquiring location information.
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<P>2. <I>Factors to rebut the presumption of compliance.</I> To rebut the presumption of compliance, it must be proven that a debt collector who did not place a telephone call in excess of either of the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i) nevertheless placed a telephone call or engaged a person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number. For purposes of determining whether the presumption of compliance has been rebutted, it is assumed that debt collectors intend the natural consequence of their actions. Comments 14(b)(2)(i)-2.i through .iv provide a non-exhaustive list of factors that may rebut the presumption of compliance. The factors may be considered either individually or in combination with one another (or other non-specified factors). The factors may be viewed in light of any other relevant facts and circumstances and therefore may apply to varying degrees. Factors that may rebut the presumption of compliance include:
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<P>i. The frequency and pattern of telephone calls the debt collector places to a person, including the intervals between them. The considerations relevant to this factor include whether the debt collector placed telephone calls to a person in rapid succession (<I>e.g.,</I> two unanswered telephone calls to the same telephone number within five minutes) or in a highly concentrated manner (<I>e.g.,</I> seven telephone calls to the same telephone number within one day). For example, assume the same facts as in comment 14(b)(2)(i)-1.i, except assume that, after the debt collector placed the first telephone call to the consumer about the credit card debt on Wednesday, April 1, the debt collector placed six additional telephone calls to the consumer about that debt on Friday, April 3. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), the debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5), but the high concentration of telephone calls on Friday, April 3, is a factor that may rebut the presumption of compliance.
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<P>ii. The frequency and pattern of any voicemails that the debt collector leaves for a person, including the intervals between them. The considerations relevant to this factor include whether the debt collector left voicemails for a person in rapid succession (<I>e.g.,</I> two voicemails within five minutes left at the same telephone number) or in a highly concentrated manner (<I>e.g.,</I> seven voicemails left at the same telephone number within one day).
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<P>iii. The content of a person's prior communications with the debt collector. Among the considerations relevant to this factor are whether the person previously informed the debt collector, for example, that the person did not wish to be contacted again about the particular debt, that the person was refusing to pay the particular debt, or that the person did not owe the particular debt. This factor also includes a consumer's cease communication notification described in § 1006.6(c) and a consumer's request under § 1006.14(h) that the debt collector not use telephone calls to communicate or attempt to communicate with the consumer. The amount of time elapsed since any such prior communications also may be relevant to this factor.
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<P>iv. The debt collector's conduct in prior communications or attempts to communicate with the person. Among the considerations relevant to this factor are whether, during a prior communication or attempt to communicate with a person, the debt collector, for example, used obscene, profane, or otherwise abusive language (<I>see</I> § 1006.14(d)), used or threatened to use violence or other criminal means to harm the person (<I>see</I> § 1006.14(c)), or called at an inconvenient time or place (<I>see</I> § 1006.6(b)(1)). The amount of time elapsed since any such prior communications or attempts to communicate also may be relevant to this factor.
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<P>3. <I>Misdirected telephone calls.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(2)(i) provides that a debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) if the debt collector's telephone call frequencies do not exceed the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). If, within a period of seven consecutive days, a debt collector attempts to communicate with a particular person by placing telephone calls to a particular telephone number, and the debt collector then learns that the telephone number is not that person's number, the telephone calls that the debt collector made to that number are not considered to have been telephone calls placed to that person during that seven-consecutive-day period for purposes of § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a debt collector first attempts to communicate with a consumer on Monday, and again on Wednesday, by placing one unanswered telephone call to a particular telephone number on each of those days. On Thursday, the debt collector learns that the telephone number belongs to someone else and that the consumer does not answer telephone calls to that number. For purposes of § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), the debt collector has not yet placed any telephone calls to that consumer during that seven-consecutive-day period.
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<HD3>Paragraph 14(b)(2)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Presumption of a violation; examples.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(2)(ii) provides that a debt collector is presumed to violate § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) if the debt collector places a telephone call to a particular person in connection with the collection of a particular debt in excess of either of the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). The telephone call frequencies are subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). The following examples illustrate the rule.
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<P>i. On Wednesday, April 1, a debt collector first attempts to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of a mortgage debt by placing a telephone call and leaving a limited-content message. On each of the next three business days (<I>i.e.,</I> on Thursday, April 2, Friday, April 3, and Monday, April 6), the debt collector places two additional telephone calls to the consumer about the debt, all of which go unanswered. On Tuesday, April 7, the debt collector places an additional telephone call to the consumer about the debt. The debt collector has placed a total of eight telephone calls to the consumer about the debt during the seven-day period starting Wednesday, April 1. None of the calls was subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). The debt collector is presumed to violate § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5).
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<P>ii. On Tuesday, August 11, a debt collector first attempts to communicate with a consumer in connection with the collection of a credit card debt by placing a telephone call to the consumer that the consumer does not answer. On Friday, August 14, the debt collector again places a telephone call to the consumer and has a telephone conversation with the consumer in connection with the collection of the debt. Subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3), the debt collector is presumed to violate § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) if the debt collector places a telephone call to the consumer in connection with the collection of that debt again prior to Friday, August 21.
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<P>2. <I>Factors to rebut the presumption of a violation.</I> To rebut the presumption of a violation, it must be proven that a debt collector who placed telephone calls in excess of either of the frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i) nevertheless did not place a telephone call or engage any person in telephone conversation repeatedly or continuously with intent to annoy, abuse, or harass any person at the called number. For purposes of determining whether the presumption of a violation has been rebutted, it is assumed that debt collectors intend the natural consequence of their actions. Comments 14(b)(2)(ii)-2.i through .iv provide a non-exhaustive list of factors that may rebut the presumption of a violation. The factors may be considered either individually or in combination with one another (or other non-specified factors). The factors may be viewed in light of any other relevant facts and circumstances and therefore may apply to varying degrees. Factors that may rebut the presumption of a violation include:
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<P>i. Whether a debt collector placed a telephone call to comply with, or as required by, applicable law. For example, assume the same facts as in comment 14(b)(2)(ii)-1.i, except assume that the debt collector placed the final telephone call of the seven-consecutive-day period to inform the consumer of available loss mitigation options in compliance with the Bureau's mortgage servicing rules under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.39(a). The debt collector's compliance with applicable law is a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<P>ii. Whether a debt collector placed a telephone call that was directly related to active litigation involving the collection of a particular debt. For example, assume the same facts as in comment 14(b)(2)(ii)-1.ii, except assume that, after the debt collector and the consumer had a telephone conversation about the credit card debt on Friday, August 14, the debt collector placed another telephone call to the consumer before Friday, August 21, to complete a court-ordered communication with the consumer about the debt, or as part of negotiations to settle active debt collection litigation regarding the debt. The direct relationship between the additional telephone call and the active debt collection litigation is a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<P>iii. Whether a debt collector placed a telephone call in response to a consumer's request for additional information when the exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) for telephone calls made with the consumer's prior consent given directly to the debt collector did not apply. For example, assume the same facts as in comment 14(b)(2)(ii)-1.ii, except assume that, during the telephone conversation about the credit card debt on Friday, August 14, the consumer told the debt collector that the consumer would like more information about the amount of the debt but that the consumer could not talk at that moment. The consumer ended the telephone call before the debt collector could seek prior consent under § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) to call back with the requested information. The debt collector placed another telephone call to the consumer prior to Friday, August 21, to provide the requested information. The fact that the debt collector placed the additional telephone call in response to the consumer's request is a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<P>iv. Whether a debt collector placed a telephone call to convey information to the consumer that, as shown through evidence, would provide the consumer with an opportunity to avoid a demonstrably negative effect relating to the collection of the particular debt, where the negative effect was not in the debt collector's control, and where time was of the essence. For example, in each of the following three scenarios, assume the same facts as in comment 14(b)(2)(ii)-1.ii, and also assume that:
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<P>A. During the telephone conversation about the credit card debt on Friday, August 14, the debt collector and the consumer engaged in a lengthy conversation regarding settlement terms, and, toward the end of the conversation, the telephone call dropped. The debt collector immediately placed an additional telephone call to the consumer to complete the conversation. The fact that the debt collector placed the telephone call to permit the debt collector and the consumer to complete the conversation about settlement terms, which provided the consumer an opportunity to avoid a demonstrably negative effect that was not in the debt collector's control (<I>i.e.,</I> having to repeat a substantive conversation with a potentially different representative of the debt collector) and where time was of the essence (<I>i.e.,</I> to prevent the delay of settlement negotiations by seven days) is a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<P>B. The consumer previously entered into a payment plan with the debt collector regarding the credit card debt. The conditions for the payment plan were set by the creditor, and among those conditions is that only the creditor, in its sole discretion, may approve waivers of late fees. On Monday, August 17, the debt collector learned that the consumer's payment failed to process, and the applicable grace period was set to expire on Tuesday, August 18. The debt collector placed a telephone call to the consumer on Monday to remind the consumer that a late fee would be applied by the creditor for non-payment unless the consumer made the payment by the next day. The fact that the debt collector placed the telephone call to alert the consumer to the pending penalty, giving the consumer an opportunity to avoid a demonstrably negative effect that was not in the debt collector's control and where time was of the essence, is a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<P>C. On Monday, August 17, the debt collector placed a telephone call to the consumer to offer the consumer a “one-time only” discount on the payment of the credit card debt. The debt collector stated that the offer would expire the next day when, in fact, the debt collector could have offered the same or a similar discount through the end of August. Because the negative effect on the consumer was in the debt collector's control, the discount offer is not a factor that may rebut the presumption of a violation.
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<HD3>14(b)(3) Certain Telephone Calls Excluded From Telephone Call Frequencies
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<HD3>Paragraph 14(b)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prior consent.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(3)(i) excludes from the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2) certain telephone calls placed to a person who gives prior consent. See § 1006.6(b)(4)(i) and its associated commentary for guidance about giving prior consent directly to a debt collector. Nothing in § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) regarding prior consent for telephone call frequencies permits a debt collector to communicate, or attempt to communicate, with a consumer as prohibited by §§ 1006.6(b) and 1006.14(h).
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<P>2. <I>Duration of prior consent.</I> For purposes of § 1006.14(b)(3)(i), if a person gives prior consent for additional telephone calls about a particular debt directly to a debt collector, any telephone calls that the debt collector thereafter places to the person about that particular debt do not count toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2) for a period of up to seven consecutive days. A person's prior consent may expire before the conclusion of the seven-consecutive-day period. A person's prior consent expires when any of the following occurs: (1) The person consented to the additional telephone calls for a shorter time period and such time period has ended; (2) the person revokes such prior consent; or (3) the debt collector has a telephone conversation with the person regarding the particular debt.
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<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate how § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) applies:
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<P>i. On Friday, April 3, a debt collector places a telephone call to a consumer. During the ensuing telephone conversation in connection with the collection of a debt, the consumer tells the debt collector to “call back on Monday.” Absent an exception, under § 1006.14(b)(2)(ii), the debt collector would be presumed to violate § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) if the debt collector called the consumer on Monday, April 6, because the additional telephone call would exceed the frequency described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(B). Under § 1006.14(b)(3)(i), however, in the scenario described (and absent any other facts), the debt collector could, pursuant to the consumer's prior consent, place telephone calls to the consumer on Monday, April 6, and not lose a presumption of compliance with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5).
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<P>ii. Assume the same facts as in the preceding example, except that the consumer does not specify a particular day the debt collector may call back. Assume further that, on Monday, April 6, the debt collector calls the consumer back and has a telephone conversation with the consumer. The exception in § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) does not apply to subsequent telephone calls placed by the debt collector to the consumer, absent additional prior consent from the consumer. For example, if the debt collector, without additional prior consent, placed a telephone call to the consumer on Wednesday, April 8, that telephone call would count toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2), and, pursuant to § 1006.14(b)(2)(ii), the debt collector would be presumed to violate § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5).
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<P>iii. Between Monday, June 1, and Wednesday, June 3, a debt collector places three unanswered telephone calls to a consumer in connection with the collection of a debt. Also on Wednesday, June 3, the debt collector sends the consumer an email message in connection with the collection of the debt. The consumer responds by email on Thursday, June 4, requesting additional information about available repayment options related to the debt and writes, “You can call me at 123-456-7891 to discuss the repayment options.” The debt collector receives the consumer's prior consent by email on Thursday, June 4, and thereafter places eight unanswered telephone calls to the consumer between Monday, June 8, and Wednesday, June 10. Because the consumer provided prior consent directly to the debt collector, the exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3)(i) applies to the eight telephone calls placed by the debt collector during the seven-consecutive-day period that began with receipt of the consumer's consent on Thursday, June 4. Those telephone calls therefore do not count toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i). However, any telephone calls placed by the debt collector after the end of the seven-day period (<I>i.e.,</I> on or after Thursday, June 11) would count toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i), unless the consumer again gives prior consent directly to the debt collector.
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<HD3>Paragraph 14(b)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Unconnected telephone calls.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(3)(ii) provides that telephone calls placed to a person do not count toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i) if they do not connect to the dialed number. A debt collector's telephone call does not connect to the dialed number if, for example, the debt collector receives a busy signal or an indication that the dialed number is not in service. Conversely, a telephone call placed to a person counts toward the telephone call frequencies described in § 1006.14(b)(2)(i) if it connects to the dialed number, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies. A debt collector's telephone call connects to the dialed number if, for example, the telephone call is answered, even if it subsequently drops; if the telephone call causes a telephone to ring at the dialed number but no one answers it; or if the telephone call is connected to a voicemail or other recorded message, even if it does not cause a telephone to ring and even if the debt collector is unable to leave a voicemail.
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<HD3>14(b)(4) Definition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Particular debt.</I> Section 1006.14(b)(2) establishes presumptions of compliance and violation with respect to § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) (15 U.S.C. 1692d(5)) based on the frequency with which a debt collector places telephone calls to, or engages in telephone conversation with, a person in connection with the collection of a particular debt. Section 1006.14(b)(4) provides that, except in the case of student loan debt, the term particular debt means each of a consumer's debts in collection. For student loan debt, § 1006.14(b)(4) provides that the term particular debt means all student loan debts that a consumer owes or allegedly owes that were serviced under a single account number at the time the debts were obtained by a debt collector.
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<P>i. <I>Placing a telephone call in connection with the collection of a particular debt.</I> Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A), if a debt collector places a telephone call to a person and initiates a conversation or leaves a voicemail about one particular debt, the debt collector counts the telephone call as a telephone call in connection with the collection of the particular debt, subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). If a debt collector places a telephone call to a person and initiates a conversation or leaves a voicemail about more than one particular debt, the debt collector counts the telephone call as a telephone call in connection with the collection of each such particular debt, subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). If a debt collector places a telephone call to a person but neither initiates a conversation about a particular debt nor leaves a voicemail that refers to a particular debt, or if the debt collector's telephone call is unanswered, the debt collector counts the telephone call as a telephone call in connection with the collection of at least one particular debt, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies.
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<P>ii. <I>Engaging in a telephone conversation in connection with the collection of a particular debt.</I> Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(B), if a debt collector and a person discuss one particular debt during a telephone conversation, the debt collector has engaged in a telephone conversation in connection with the collection of the particular debt, regardless of which party initiated the discussion about the particular debt, subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). If a debt collector and a person discuss more than one particular debt during a telephone conversation, the debt collector has engaged in a telephone conversation in connection with the collection of each such particular debt, regardless of which party initiated the discussion about the particular debts, subject to the exclusions in § 1006.14(b)(3). If no particular debt is discussed during a telephone conversation between a debt collector and a person, the debt collector counts the conversation as a telephone conversation in connection with the collection of at least one particular debt, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies.
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the rule.
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<P>i. A debt collector is attempting to collect a medical debt and two credit card debts (denominated A and B for this example) from the same consumer. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A), a debt collector may count an unanswered telephone call as one telephone call placed toward any one particular debt, even if the debt collector intended to discuss more than one particular debt had the telephone call resulted in a telephone conversation. Therefore, if the debt collector, within a period of seven consecutive days, places a total of 21 unanswered telephone calls, seven of which the debt collector counted as unanswered telephone calls to the consumer in connection with the collection of the medical debt, seven of which the debt collector counted as unanswered telephone calls to the consumer in connection with the collection of credit card debt A, and seven of which the debt collector counted as unanswered telephone calls to the consumer in connection with the collection of credit card debt B, the debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5), even if, for example, the debt collector intended to discuss both credit card debt A and credit card debt B had any of the telephone calls with respect to the credit card debts resulted in a telephone conversation.
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<P>ii. A debt collector is attempting to collect a medical debt and a credit card debt from the same consumer. The debt collector places a telephone call to the consumer, intending to discuss both particular debts, but the consumer does not answer, and the telephone call goes to voicemail. The debt collector leaves a limited-content message, as defined in § 1006.2(j). Because the limited-content message does not specifically refer to any particular debt, under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A), a debt collector may count the voicemail as one telephone call placed toward either of the particular debts, even though the debt collector intended to discuss both particular debts if the telephone call had resulted in a telephone conversation.
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<P>iii. A debt collector is attempting to collect a medical debt and a credit card debt from the same consumer. On Monday, November 9, the debt collector places a telephone call to, and engages in a telephone conversation with, the consumer solely in connection with the collection of the medical debt. The debt collector does not place any telephone calls to the consumer in connection with the collection of the credit card debt. Regarding the medical debt, under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector has placed a telephone call to, and has and engaged in a telephone conversation with, the consumer in connection with the collection of the particular debt, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies. Regarding the credit card debt, under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector has neither placed a telephone call to, nor engaged in a telephone conversation with, the consumer in connection with the collection of the particular debt.
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<P>iv. Assume the same facts as in the preceding example, except that on Monday, November 9, the debt collector engages in a telephone conversation with the consumer in connection with the collection of both the medical debt and the credit card debt. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector has placed a telephone call to, and has engaged in a telephone conversation with, the consumer in connection with the collection of both the medical debt and the credit card debt, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies.
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<P>v. A debt collector is attempting to collect a medical debt and a credit card debt from the same consumer. Beginning on Monday, November 9, and through Wednesday, November 11, the debt collector places two unanswered telephone calls to the consumer which the debt collector counts as telephone calls in connection with the collection of the medical debt, and four unanswered telephone calls to the consumer which the debt collector counts as telephone calls in connection with the collection of the credit card debt. On Thursday, November 12, the debt collector places a telephone call to, and engages in a general telephone conversation with, the consumer, but the debt collector and the consumer do not discuss either particular debt. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector may count the November 12 telephone call and ensuing conversation toward either the medical debt or the credit card debt. For example, if the debt collector counts the November 12 telephone call and ensuing conversation toward the collection of only the medical debt, then, during this time period, the debt collector has placed three telephone calls and has had one conversation in connection with the collection of the medical debt, and has placed four telephone calls and has had no conversations in connection with the collection of the credit card debt.
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<P>vi. A debt collector is attempting to collect a medical debt and a credit card debt from the same consumer. On Monday, November 9, the debt collector places a telephone call to, and initiates a telephone conversation with, the consumer about the collection of the medical debt. The consumer states that the consumer does not want to discuss the medical debt, and instead initiates a discussion about the credit card debt. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector has both placed a telephone call to, and engaged in a telephone conversation with, the consumer in connection with the collection of the medical debt, even though the consumer was unwilling to engage in the discussion initiated by the debt collector regarding the medical debt. Under § 1006.14(b)(2)(i)(A) and (B) respectively, the debt collector has not placed a telephone call to the consumer in connection with the credit card debt, but the debt collector has engaged in a telephone conversation in connection with the collection of the credit card debt, even though the consumer, not the debt collector, initiated the discussion about the credit card debt.
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<P>vii. A debt collector is attempting to collect three student loan debts that were serviced under a single account number at the time that they were obtained by a debt collector and that are owed or allegedly owed by the same consumer. All three debts are treated as a single debt for purposes of § 1006.14(b)(2). The debt collector is presumed to comply with § 1006.14(b)(1) and FDCPA section 806(5) if the debt collector places seven or fewer telephone calls within seven consecutive days to the consumer in connection with the collection of the three student loan debts, and the debt collector does not place a telephone call within a period of seven consecutive days after having had a telephone conversation with the consumer in connection with the collection of any one of the three student loan debts, unless an exclusion in § 1006.14(b)(3) applies.
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<HD3>14(h) Prohibited Communication Media
</HD3>
<HD3>14(h)(1) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Communication media designations.</I> Section 1006.14(h)(1) prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a person in connection with the collection of any debt through a medium of communication if the person has requested that the debt collector not use that medium to communicate with the person. The debt collector may ask follow-up questions regarding preferred communication media to clarify statements by the person. For examples of communication media, see comment 2(d)-1.
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<P>2. <I>Specific address or telephone number.</I> Within a medium of communication, a person may request that a debt collector not use a specific address or telephone number. For example, if a person has two mobile telephone numbers, the person may request that the debt collector not use one or both mobile telephone numbers.
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<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the prohibition in § 1006.14(h)(1).
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<P>i. Assume that a person tells a debt collector to “stop calling” the person. Based on these facts, the person has requested that the debt collector not use telephone calls to communicate with the person and, thereafter, § 1006.14(h)(1) prohibits the debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with the person through telephone calls.
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<P>ii. Assume that, in response to receipt of either the opt-out procedures described in § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii) or the opt-out notice in § 1006.6(e), a consumer requests to opt out of receiving electronic communications from a debt collector at a particular email address or telephone number. Based on these facts, the consumer has requested that the debt collector not use that email address or telephone number to electronically communicate with the consumer for any debt and, thereafter, § 1006.14(h)(1) prohibits the debt collector from electronically communicating or attempting to communicate with the consumer through that email address or telephone number.
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<HD3>14(h)(2) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Legally required communication media.</I> Under § 1006.14(h)(2)(iii), if otherwise required by applicable law, a debt collector may communicate or attempt to communicate with a person in connection with the collection of any debt through a medium of communication that the person has requested the debt collector not use to communicate with the person. For example, assume that a debt collector who is also a mortgage servicer subject to the periodic statement requirement for residential mortgage loans under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.41, is engaging in debt collection communications with a person about the person's residential mortgage loan. The person tells the debt collector to stop mailing letters to the person, and the person has not consented to receive statements electronically in accordance with 12 CFR 1026.41(c). Although the person has requested that the debt collector not use mail to communicate with the person, § 1006.14(h)(2)(iii) permits the debt collector to mail the person periodic statements, because the periodic statements are required by applicable law.
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<HD3>Section 1006.18—False, Deceptive, or Misleading Representations or Means
</HD3>
<HD3>18(d) False Representations or Deceptive Means
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Social media.</I> Under § 1006.18(d), a debt collector may not use any false representation or deceptive means to collect any debt or to obtain information concerning a consumer. In the social media context, the following examples illustrate the rule:
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<P>i. Assume that a debt collector sends a private message, in connection with the collection of a debt, requesting to be added as one of the consumer's contacts on a social media platform marketed for social or professional networking purposes. A debt collector makes a false representation or implication if the debt collector does not disclose his or her identity as a debt collector in the request.
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<P>ii. Assume that a debt collector communicates privately with a friend or coworker of a consumer on a social media platform, for the purpose of acquiring location information about the consumer. Pursuant to § 1006.10(b)(1), the debt collector must identify himself or herself individually by name when communicating for the purpose of acquiring location information. To avoid violating § 1006.18(d), the debt collector must communicate using a profile that accurately identifies the debt collector's individual name. (But see § 1006.18(f) and its associated commentary regarding use of assumed names.) The debt collector also must comply with the other applicable requirements for obtaining location information in § 1006.10 (<I>e.g.,</I> with respect to stating that the debt collector is confirming or correcting location information concerning the consumer and, only if expressly requested, identifying the name of the debt collector's employer), for communicating with third parties in § 1006.6(d)(1), and for communicating through social media in § 1006.22(f)(4).
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<HD3>18(e) Disclosures Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Communication.</I> A limited-content message, as defined in § 1006.2(j), is not a communication, as that term is defined in § 1006.2(d). Thus, a debt collector who leaves only a limited-content message for a consumer need not make the disclosures required by § 1006.18(e)(1) and (2). However, if a debt collector leaves a voicemail message for a consumer that includes content in addition to the content described in § 1006.2(j)(1) and (2) and that directly or indirectly conveys any information regarding a debt, the voicemail message is a communication, and the debt collector is required to make the § 1006.18(e) disclosures. See the commentary to § 1006.2(d) and (j) for additional clarification regarding the definitions of communication and limited-content message.
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<HD3>18(e)(1) Initial Communications
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> A debt collector must make the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1) in the debt collector's initial communication with a consumer, regardless of the medium of communication and regardless of whether the debt collector or the consumer initiated the communication. For example, assume that a debt collector who has not previously communicated with a consumer attempts to communicate with the consumer by leaving a limited-content message, as defined in § 1006.2(j). After listening to the debt collector's limited-content message, the consumer initiates a telephone call to, and communicates with, the debt collector. Pursuant to § 1006.18(e)(1), because the consumer-initiated call is the initial communication between the debt collector and the consumer, the debt collector must disclose to the consumer during that telephone call that the debt collector is attempting to collect a debt and that any information obtained will be used for that purpose.
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<HD3>18(e)(4) Translated Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> Section 1006.18(e)(4) provides that a debt collector must make the disclosures required by § 1006.18(e)(1) and (2) in the same language or languages used for the rest of the communication in which the disclosures are conveyed. The following example illustrates the rule:
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<P>i. ABC debt collector is collecting a debt. ABC debt collector's initial communication with the consumer takes place in Spanish. Section 1006.18(e)(4) requires ABC debt collector to provide in Spanish the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1). Thereafter, ABC debt collector has a communication with the consumer that takes place partly in English and partly in Spanish. During this communication, the debt collector must provide the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(2) in both English and Spanish.
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<HD3>18(f) Assumed Names
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Readily identifiable by the employer.</I> Section 1006.18(f) provides, in part, that § 1006.18 does not prohibit a debt collector's employee from using an assumed name when communicating or attempting to communicate with a person, provided that the debt collector can readily identify any employee using an assumed name. A debt collector may use any method of managing assumed names that enables the debt collector to determine the true identity of any employee using an assumed name. For example, a debt collector may require an employee to use the same assumed name when communicating or attempting to communicate with any person and may prohibit any other employee from using the same assumed name.
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<HD3>Section 1006.22—Unfair or Unconscionable Means
</HD3>
<HD3>22(f) Restrictions on Use of Certain Media
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(f)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Language or symbol.</I> Section 1006.22(f)(2) provides, in relevant part, that a debt collector must not use any language or symbol, other than the debt collector's address, on any envelope when communicating with a consumer by mail. For purposes of § 1006.22(f)(2), the phrase “language or symbol” does not include language and symbols that facilitate communications by mail, such as: The debtor's name and address; postage; language such as “forwarding and address correction requested”; and the United States Postal Service's Intelligent Mail barcode.
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<HD3>Paragraph 22(f)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Email addresses described in § 1006.6(d)(4).</I> Section 1006.22(f)(3) generally prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a consumer by sending an email to an email address that the debt collector knows is provided to the consumer by the consumer's employer. The prohibition does not apply if the debt collector sends the email to an email address described in § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (iii), which specifically contemplate debt collectors sending emails to any email address—including an email address that a debt collector knows is employer provided—if the consumer has used the email address to communicate with the debt collector about a debt (§ 1006.6(d)(4)(i)(A)), has provided prior consent directly to the debt collector to use the email address (§ 1006.6(d)(4)(i)(B)), or has obtained the email address from a prior debt collector who satisfied either § 1006.6(d)(4)(i) or (ii). A debt collector who sends an email to an email address described in § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii) complies with the prohibition in § 1006.22(f)(3) because the procedures in § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii) do not permit debt collectors to send emails to email addresses that the debt collector knows are employer provided.
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<HD3>Paragraph 22(f)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Social media.</I> Section 1006.22(f)(4) prohibits a debt collector from communicating or attempting to communicate with a person in connection with the collection of a debt through a social media platform if the communication or attempt to communicate is viewable by the general public or the person's social media contacts. For example, § 1006.22(f)(4) prohibits a debt collector from posting, in connection with the collection of a debt, any message for a person on a social media web page if that web page is viewable by the general public or the person's social media contacts. Section 1006.22(f)(4) does not prohibit a debt collector from sending a message to a person if the message is not viewable by the general public or the person's social media contacts. Section 1006.6(b) or § 1006.14(h) nonetheless may prohibit the debt collector from sending such a message, and a debt collector who communicates by sending such a message about the debt to the wrong person violates § 1006.6(d)(1). See also comment 18(d)-1 with respect to communications and attempts to communicate with consumers and third parties on social media platforms.
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<HD3>Section 1006.30—Other Prohibited Practices


</HD3>
<HD3>30(a) Required actions prior to furnishing information.


</HD3>
<HD3>30(a)(1) In general
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>About the debt.</I> Section 1006.30(a)(1) provides, in relevant part, that a debt collector must not furnish to a consumer reporting agency, as defined in section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)), information about a debt before taking one of the actions described in § 1006.30(a)(1)(i) or (ii). Each of the actions includes conveying information “about the debt” to the consumer. The validation information required by § 1006.34(c), including such information if provided in a validation notice, is information “about the debt.”
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<P>2. <I>Reasonable period of time.</I> Section 1006.30(a)(1)(ii) provides, in relevant part, that a debt collector who places a letter about a debt in the mail, or who sends an electronic message about a debt to the consumer, must wait a reasonable period of time to receive a notice of undeliverability before furnishing information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency. The reasonable period of time begins on the date that the debt collector places the letter in the mail or sends the electronic message. A period of 14 consecutive days after the date that the debt collector places a letter in the mail or sends an electronic message is a reasonable period of time.
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<P>3. <I>Notices of undeliverability.</I> Section 1006.30(a)(1)(ii) provides, in relevant part, that, if a debt collector who places a letter about a debt in the mail, or who sends an electronic message about a debt to the consumer, receives a notice of undeliverability during the reasonable period of time, the debt collector must not furnish information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency until the debt collector otherwise satisfies § 1006.30(a)(1). A debt collector who does not receive a notice of undeliverability during the reasonable period and who thereafter furnishes information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency does not violate § 1006.30(a)(1) even if the debt collector subsequently receives a notice of undeliverability. The following examples illustrate the rule:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, on May 1, a debt collector mails the consumer a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(A). On May 10, the debt collector receives a notice of undeliverability and, without taking any additional action described in § 1006.30(a)(1), subsequently furnishes information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency. The debt collector has violated § 1006.30(a)(1).
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<P>ii. Assume that, on May 1, a debt collector mails the consumer a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(A). On May 10, the debt collector receives a notice of undeliverability. On May 11, the debt collector mails the consumer another validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(A). From May 11 to May 24, the debt collector permits receipt of, monitors for, and does not receive, a notice of undeliverability and thereafter furnishes information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency. The debt collector has not violated § 1006.30(a)(1).
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that, on May 1, a debt collector mails the consumer a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(A). From May 1 to May 14, the debt collector permits receipt of, monitors for, and does not receive, a notice of undeliverability and thereafter furnishes information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency. After furnishing the information, the debt collector receives a notice of undeliverability. The debt collector has not violated § 1006.30(a)(1) and, without taking any further action, may furnish additional information about the debt to a consumer reporting agency.








</P>
<HD3>30(b) Prohibition on the Sale, Transfer for Consideration, or Placement for Collection of Certain Debts
</HD3>
<HD3>30(b)(1) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transfer for consideration.</I> Section 1006.30(b)(1) prohibits, among other things, a debt collector from transferring for consideration a debt that has been paid or settled or discharged in bankruptcy. A debt collector transfers a debt for consideration when the debt collector receives or expects to receive compensation for the transfer of the debt. A debt collector does not transfer a debt for consideration when the debt collector sends information about the debt, as opposed to the debt itself, to another party. For example, a debt collector does not transfer a debt for consideration when the debt collector sends a file with data about the debt to another person for analytics, “scrubbing,” or archiving. A debt collector also does not transfer a debt for consideration when the debt collector reports to a credit reporting agency information that a debt has been paid or settled or discharged in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt that resulted from identity theft.</I> Section 615(f)(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681m(f)(1)) states that no person shall sell, transfer for consideration, or place for collection a debt if such person has been notified under section 605B of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681c-2) that the debt has resulted from identity theft. Nothing in § 1006.30(b)(1) alters a debt collector's obligation to comply with the prohibition set forth in section 615(f)(1) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act.
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<HD3>30(b)(2) Exceptions
</HD3>
<HD3>30(b)(2)(i) In General
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 30(b)(2)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Under § 1006.30(b)(2)(i)(A), a debt collector who is collecting a debt described in § 1006.30(b)(1) may transfer the debt to the debt's owner. However, unless another exception under § 1006.30(b)(2) applies, the debt collector may not transfer the debt or the right to collect the debt to another entity on behalf of the debt owner.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1006.34—Notice for Validation of Debts
</HD3>
<HD3>34(a) Validation information required.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(a)(1) In general.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Deceased consumers.</I> Section 1006.34(a)(1) generally requires a debt collector to provide the validation information required by § 1006.34(c) either by sending the consumer a validation notice in the manner required by § 1006.42, or by providing the information orally in the debt collector's initial communication. If the debt collector knows or should know that the consumer is deceased, and if the debt collector has not previously provided the validation information to the deceased consumer, a person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate operates as the consumer for purposes of § 1006.34(a)(1). In such circumstances, to comply with § 1006.34(a)(1), a debt collector must provide the validation information to an individual that the debt collector identifies by name who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate.
</P>
<HD3>34(b) Definitions.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(b)(2) Initial communication.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Bankruptcy proofs of claim.</I> Section 1006.34(b)(2) defines initial communication and states that the term does not include a communication in the form of a formal pleading in a civil action. A proof of claim that a debt collector files in a bankruptcy proceeding in accordance with the requirements of the United States Bankruptcy Code (Title 11 of the U.S. Code) is a communication in the form of a formal pleading in a civil action and therefore is not an initial communication for purposes of § 1006.34.
</P>
<HD3>34(b)(3) Itemization date.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.34(b)(3) defines itemization date for purposes of § 1006.34. Section 1006.34(b)(3) states that the itemization date is any one of five reference dates for which a debt collector can ascertain the amount of the debt. The reference dates are the last statement date, the charge-off date, the last payment date, the transaction date, and the judgment date. A debt collector may select any of these dates as the itemization date to comply with § 1006.34. Once a debt collector uses a reference date for a debt in a communication with a consumer, the debt collector must use that reference date for that debt consistently when providing the information required by § 1006.34(c) to that consumer. For example, if a debt collector uses the last statement date to determine and disclose the account number associated with the debt pursuant to § 1006.34(c)(2)(iv), the debt collector may not use the charge-off date to determine and disclose the amount of the debt pursuant to § 1006.34(c)(2)(vii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Subsequent debt collectors.</I> When selecting an itemization date pursuant to § 1006.34(b)(3), a debt collector may use a different reference date than a prior debt collector who attempted to collect the debt.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(b)(3)(i).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Last statement date.</I> Under § 1006.34(b)(3)(i), the last statement date is the date of the last periodic statement or written account statement or invoice provided to the consumer by a creditor. For purposes of § 1006.34(b)(3)(i), the last statement may be provided by a creditor or a third party acting on the creditor's behalf, including a creditor's service provider. However, a statement or invoice provided by a debt collector is not a last statement for purposes of § 1006.34(b)(3)(i), unless the debt collector is also a creditor.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(b)(3)(iii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Last payment date.</I> Under § 1006.34(b)(3)(iii), the last payment date is the date the last payment was applied to the debt. A third-party payment applied to the debt, such as a payment from an auto repossession agent or an insurance company, can be a last payment for purposes of § 1006.34(b)(3)(iii).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(b)(3)(iv).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transaction date.</I> Section 1006.34(b)(3)(iv) provides that the itemization date may be the date of the transaction that gave rise to the debt. The transaction date is the date that the good or service that gave rise to the debt was provided or made available to the consumer. For example, the transaction date for a debt arising from a medical procedure may be the date the medical procedure was performed, and the transaction date for a consumer's gym membership may be the date the membership contract was executed. In some cases, a debt may have more than one transaction date. This could occur, for example, if a contract for a service is executed on one date and the service is performed on another date. If a debt has more than one transaction date, a debt collector may use any such date as the transaction date for purposes of § 1006.34(b)(3)(iv), but the debt collector must use whichever transaction date is selected consistently, as described in comment 34(b)(3)-1.
</P>
<HD3>34(b)(5) Validation period.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Assumed receipt of validation information.</I> Section 1006.34(b)(5) defines the validation period as the period starting on the date that a debt collector provides the validation information required by § 1006.34(c) and ending 30 days after the consumer receives or is assumed to receive it. Section 1006.34(c)(3)(i) through (iii) requires statements that specify the end date of the validation period. If a debt collector provides the validation information in writing or electronically, then, at the time that the debt collector calculates the validation period end date, the debt collector will know only the date on which the consumer is assumed to receive the validation information. In such cases, the debt collector may use that date to calculate the validation period end date even if the debt collector later learns that the consumer received the validation information on a different date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Updated validation period.</I> If a debt collector sends a subsequent validation notice to a consumer because the consumer did not receive the original validation notice and the consumer has not otherwise received the validation information required by § 1006.34(c), the debt collector must calculate the end date of the validation period specified in the § 1006.34(c)(3) disclosures based on the date the consumer receives or is assumed to receive the subsequent validation notice. For example, assume a debt collector sends a consumer a validation notice on January 1, and that notice is returned as undeliverable. After obtaining accurate location information, the debt collector sends the consumer a subsequent validation notice on January 15. Pursuant to § 1006.34(b)(5), the end date of the validation period specified in the § 1006.34(c)(3) disclosures is based on the date the consumer receives or is assumed to receive the validation notice sent on January 15.
</P>
<HD3>34(c) Validation information.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(c)(1) Debt collector communication disclosure.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Statement required by § 1006.18(e).</I> Section 1006.34(c)(1) provides that validation information includes the statement required by § 1006.18(e). Section 1006.18(e)(1) requires a debt collector to disclose in its initial communication that the debt collector is attempting to collect a debt and that any information obtained will be used for that purpose. Section 1006.18(e)(2) requires a debt collector to disclose in each subsequent communication that the communication is from a debt collector. A debt collector who provides a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(A) complies with § 1006.34(c)(1) by providing on the validation notice the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1). A debt collector who provides a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(B) complies with § 1006.34(c)(1) by providing either the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1) or the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(2). The following example illustrates the rule:
</P>
<P>i. ABC debt collector has an initial communication with the consumer by telephone. Within five days of that initial communication, ABC debt collector sends the consumer a validation notice using Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part. ABC debt collector has complied with § 1006.34(c)(1) even though Model Form B-1 includes the disclosure described in § 1006.18(e)(1) rather than the disclosure described in § 1006.18(e)(2).
</P>
<HD3>34(c)(2) Information about the debt.
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(i).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Debt collector's name.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(i) provides, in part, that validation information includes the debt collector's name. A debt collector may disclose its trade or doing-business-as name, instead of its legal name.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt collector's mailing address.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(i) provides, in part, that validation information includes the mailing address at which the debt collector accepts disputes and requests for original-creditor information. A debt collector may disclose a vendor's mailing address, if that is an address at which the debt collector accepts disputes and requests for original-creditor information.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(ii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's name.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(ii) provides, in part, that validation information includes the consumer's name. To satisfy the requirement to provide this validation information, a debt collector must disclose the version of the consumer's name that the debt collector reasonably determines is the most complete and accurate version of the name about which the debt collector has knowledge. A debt collector does not disclose the most complete and accurate version of the consumer's name if the debt collector omits known name information in a manner that creates a false, misleading, or confusing impression about the consumer's identity. For example, assume the creditor provides the consumer's first name, middle name, last name, and name suffix to the debt collector. In this scenario, the debt collector would reasonably determine that the most complete and accurate version of the consumer's name about which the debt collector has knowledge includes the first name, middle name, last name, and name suffix. If the debt collector omits any of this information, the debt collector has not satisfied the requirement to provide the consumer's name pursuant to § 1006.34(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(iii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Creditor's name.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(iii) provides that, if a debt collector is collecting debt related to a consumer financial product or service as defined in § 1006.2(f), validation information includes the name of the creditor to whom the debt was owed on the itemization date. Pursuant to § 1006.34(c)(2)(iii), a debt collector may disclose this creditor's trade or doing-business-as name, instead of its legal name.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(iv).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Account number truncation.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(iv) provides that validation information includes the account number, if any, associated with the debt on the itemization date, or a truncated version of that number. If a debt collector uses a truncated account number, the account number must remain recognizable. For example, a debt collector may truncate a credit card account number so that only the last four digits are provided.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(v).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Creditor's name.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(v) provides that validation information includes the name of the creditor to whom the debt currently is owed. A debt collector may disclose this creditor's trade or doing-business-as name, instead of its legal name.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(vii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amount of the debt on the itemization date.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(vii) provides that validation information includes the amount of the debt on the itemization date. The amount of the debt on the itemization date includes any fees, interest, or other charges owed as of that date.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(viii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Itemization of the debt.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(viii) provides that validation information includes an itemization of the current amount of the debt reflecting interest, fees, payments, and credits since the itemization date. If providing a validation notice, a debt collector must include fields in the notice for all of these items even if none of the items have been assessed or applied to the debt since the itemization date. A debt collector may indicate that the value of a required field is “0,” “none,” or may state that no interest, fees, payments, or credits have been assessed or applied to the debt; a debt collector may not leave a required field blank.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization required by other applicable law.</I> If a debt collector is required by other applicable law to provide an itemization of the current amount of the debt with the validation information, the debt collector may comply with § 1006.34(c)(2)(viii) by disclosing the itemization required by other applicable law in lieu of the itemization described in § 1006.34(c)(2)(viii), if the itemization required by other applicable law is substantially similar to the itemization that appears on Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Itemization on a separate page.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(viii) provides that a debt collector may disclose the itemization of the current amount of the debt on a separate page provided in the same communication with a validation notice if the debt collector includes on the validation notice, where the itemization would have appeared, a statement referring to that separate page. A debt collector may comply with the requirement to refer to the separate page by, for example, including on the validation notice the statement, “See the enclosed separate page for an itemization of the debt,” situated next to the information about the current amount of the debt required by § 1006.34(c)(2)(ix).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Debt collectors collecting multiple debts.</I> A debt collector who combines multiple debts on a single validation notice complies with § 1006.34(c)(2)(viii) by disclosing either a single, cumulative itemization on the validation notice or a separate itemization of each debt on a separate page or pages provided in the same communication as the validation notice.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(2)(ix).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Current amount of the debt.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(2)(ix) provides that validation information includes the current amount of the debt (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount as of when the validation information is provided). For residential mortgage debt subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.41, a debt collector may comply with the requirement to provide the current amount of the debt by providing the consumer the total balance of the outstanding mortgage, including principal, interest, fees, and other charges.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt collectors collecting multiple debts.</I> A debt collector who combines multiple debts on a single validation notice complies with § 1006.34(c)(2)(ix) by disclosing on the validation notice a single cumulative figure that is the sum of the current amount of all the debts.
</P>
<HD3>34(c)(3) Information about consumer protections.
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(c)(3)(v).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic communication media.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(3)(v) provides that, if the debt collector provides the validation notice electronically, validation information includes a statement explaining how a consumer can, as described in paragraphs (c)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, dispute the debt or request original-creditor information electronically. A debt collector may provide the information required by § 1006.34(c)(3)(v) by including the statements, “We accept disputes electronically at,” using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase, followed by an email address or website portal that a consumer can use to take the action described in § 1006.34(c)(4)(i), and “We accept original creditor information requests electronically,” using that phrase or a substantially similar phrase, followed by an email address or website portal that a consumer can use to take the action described in § 1006.34(c)(4)(ii). If a debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers through more than one medium, such as by email and through a website portal, the debt collector is required to provide information regarding only one of these media but may provide information on any additional media.
</P>
<HD3>34(c)(4) Consumer-response information.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prompts.</I> If the validation information is provided in writing or electronically, a prompt required by § 1006.34(c)(4) may be formatted as a checkbox as in Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<HD3>34(c)(5) Special rule for certain residential mortgage debt.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.34(c)(5) provides that, for residential mortgage debt, if a periodic statement is required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.41, at the time a debt collector provides the validation notice, a debt collector need not provide the validation information required by § 1006.34(c)(2)(vi) through (viii) if the debt collector provides the consumer, in the same communication with the validation notice, a copy of the most recent periodic statement provided to the consumer under 12 CFR 1026.41(b), and the debt collector includes on the validation notice, where the validation information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(vi) through (viii) of this section would have appeared, a statement referring to that periodic statement. A debt collector may comply with the requirement to refer to the periodic statement in the validation notice by, for example, including on the validation notice the statement, “See the enclosed periodic statement for an itemization of the debt.”
</P>
<HD3>34(d) Form of validation information.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(d)(2) Safe harbor.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A debt collector who provides a validation notice that is neither a notice described in § 1006.34(d)(2)(i) or (ii), nor a substantially similar notice as described in § 1006.34(d)(2)(iii), does not receive a safe harbor for compliance with the information and form requirements of § 1006.34(c) and (d)(1).
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(2)(i) In general.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required by § 1006.18(e).</I> Section 1006.18(e)(1) requires a debt collector to disclose in its initial communication that the debt collector is attempting to collect a debt and that any information obtained will be used for that purpose. Section 1006.18(e)(2) requires a debt collector to disclose in each subsequent communication that the communication is from a debt collector. Model Form B-1 in appendix B to this part includes the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1). A debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 to provide a validation notice as described in § 1006.34(a)(1)(i)(B) may replace the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(1) with the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e)(2) without losing the safe harbor described in § 1006.34(d)(2). See comment 34(c)(1)-1 for further guidance related to providing the disclosure required by § 1006.18(e) on a validation notice.
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(2)(iii) Substantially similar form.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantially similar form.</I> Pursuant to § 1006.34(d)(2)(iii), a debt collector who uses Model Form B-1 as described in § 1006.34(d)(2)(i) may make changes to the form and retain the safe harbor for compliance with the information and form requirements of § 1006.34(c) and (d)(1) provided that the form remains substantially similar in substance, clarity, and meaningful sequence to Model Form B-1. Permissible changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Modifications to remove language that could suggest liability for the debt if such language is not applicable. For example, if a debt collector sends a validation notice to a person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate (see comment 34(a)(1)-1), and that person is not liable for the debt, the debt collector may use the name of the deceased consumer instead of “you”;
</P>
<P>ii. Relocating the consumer-response information required by § 1006.34(c)(4) to facilitate mailing;
</P>
<P>iii. Adding barcodes or QR codes, as long as the inclusion of such items does not violate § 1006.38(b);
</P>
<P>iv. Adding the date the form is generated; and
</P>
<P>v. Embedding hyperlinks, if delivering the form electronically.
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(3) Optional disclosures.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(d)(3)(i) Telephone contact information.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(i) permits a debt collector to include telephone contact information. Telephone contact information may include, for example, a telephone number as well as the times that the debt collector accepts consumer telephone calls.
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(3)(iv) Disclosures under applicable law.
</HD3>
<HD3>34(d)(3)(iv)(A) Disclosures on the reverse of the validation notice.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(A) permits, in relevant part, a debt collector to include on the reverse of the validation notice any disclosures that are specifically required by, or that provide safe harbors under, applicable law. If a debt collector provides a validation notice in the body of an email, the debt collector may, in lieu of including the disclosures permitted by § 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(A) on the reverse of the validation notice, include them in the same communication below the content of the validation notice. Disclosures permitted by § 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(A) include, for example, specific disclosures required by Federal, State, or municipal statutes or regulations, and specific disclosures required by judicial or administrative decisions or orders, including administrative consent orders. Such disclosures could include, for example, time-barred debt disclosures and disclosures that the current amount of the debt may increase or vary due to interest, fees, or other charges, provided that such disclosures are specifically required by applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement referring to disclosures.</I> If a debt collector includes disclosures pursuant to § 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(A), the debt collector must include a statement on the front of the validation notice referring to those disclosures. A debt collector may comply with the requirement to refer to the disclosures by including on the front of the validation notice the statement, “Notice: See reverse side for important information,” or a substantially similar statement. If, as permitted by comment 34(d)(3)(iv)(A)-1, a debt collector places the disclosures below the content of the validation notice, the debt collector may comply with the requirement to refer to the disclosures by stating, “Notice: See below for important information,” or a substantially similar statement.
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(3)(iv)(B) Disclosures on the front of the validation notice.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(B) provides, in relevant part that, if a debt collector is collecting time-barred debt, the debt collector may include on the front of the validation notice any time-barred debt disclosure that is specifically required by, or that provides a safe harbor under, applicable law, provided that applicable law specifies the content of the disclosure. For example, if applicable State law requires a debt collector who is collecting time-barred debt to disclose to the consumer that the law limits how long a consumer can be sued on a debt and that the debt collector cannot or will not sue the consumer to collect it, the debt collector may include that disclosure on the front of the validation notice. See § 1006.26(a)(2) for the definition of time-barred debt. For purposes of § 1006.34(d)(3)(iv)(B), time-barred debt disclosures may include disclosures about revival of debt collectors' right to bring a legal action to enforce the debt.
</P>
<HD3>34(d)(3)(vi) Spanish-language translation disclosures.
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(d)(3)(vi)(A).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Supplemental information in Spanish.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(vi)(A) permits a debt collector to include supplemental information in Spanish that specifies how a consumer may request a Spanish-language validation notice. For example, a debt collector may include a statement in Spanish that a consumer can request a Spanish-language validation notice by telephone or email, if the debt collector accepts consumer requests through those communication media.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(d)(3)(vii).
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Merchant brand.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(vii) permits a debt collector to include the merchant brand, if any, associated with debt. For example, assume that a debt collector is attempting to collect a consumer's credit card debt. The credit card was issued by ABC Bank and was co-branded XYZ Store. “XYZ Store” is the merchant brand.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affinity brand.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(vii) permits a debt collector to include the affinity brand, if any, associated with the debt. For example, assume that a debt collector is attempting to collect a consumer's credit card debt. The credit card was issued by ABC Bank, and the logo for the College of Columbia appears on the credit card. “College of Columbia” is the affinity brand.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Facility name.</I> Section 1006.34(d)(3)(vii) permits a debt collector to include the facility name, if any, associated with the debt. For example, assume that a debt collector is attempting to collect a consumer's medical debt. The medical debt relates to a treatment that the consumer received at ABC Hospital. “ABC Hospital” is the facility name.
</P>
<HD3>34(e) Translation into other languages.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor for complete and accurate translation.</I> Section 1006.34(e) provides, among other things, that, if a debt collector sends a consumer a validation notice translated into a language other than English, the translation must be complete and accurate. The language of a validation notice that a debt collector obtains from the Bureau's website is considered a complete and accurate translation. Debt collectors are permitted to use other validation notice translations if they are complete and accurate.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1006.38—Disputes and Requests for Original-Creditor Information


</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In writing.</I> Section 1006.38 contains requirements related to a dispute or request for the name and address of the original creditor timely submitted in writing by the consumer. A consumer has disputed the debt or requested the name and address of the original creditor in writing for purposes of § 1006.38(c) or (d)(2) if the consumer, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Mails the written dispute or request to the debt collector;
</P>
<P>ii. Returns to the debt collector the consumer-response form that § 1006.34(c)(4) requires to appear on the validation notice and indicates on the form the dispute or request;
</P>
<P>iii. Provides the dispute or request to the debt collector using a medium of electronic communication through which the debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers, such as an email address or a website portal; or
</P>
<P>iv. Delivers the written dispute or request in person or by courier to the debt collector.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interpretation of the E-SIGN Act.</I> Comment 38-1.iii constitutes the Bureau's interpretation of section 101 of the E-SIGN Act as applied to section 809(b) of the FDCPA. Under this interpretation, section 101(a) of the E-SIGN Act enables a consumer to satisfy through an electronic request the requirement in section 809(b) of the FDCPA that the consumer's notification of the debt collector be “in writing.” Further, because the consumer may only use a medium of electronic communication through which a debt collector accepts electronic communications from consumers, section 101(b) of the E-SIGN Act is not contravened.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Deceased consumers.</I> If the debt collector knows or should know that the consumer is deceased, and if the consumer has not previously disputed the debt or requested the name and address of the original creditor, a person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate operates as the consumer for purposes of § 1006.38. In such circumstances, to comply with § 1006.38(c) or (d)(2), respectively, a debt collector must respond to a request for the name and address of the original creditor or to a dispute timely submitted in writing by a person who is authorized to act on behalf of the deceased consumer's estate.








</P>
<HD3>38(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>38(a)(1) Duplicative Dispute
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantially the same.</I> Section 1006.38(a)(1) provides that a dispute is a duplicative dispute if, among other things, the dispute is substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period for which the debt collector has already satisfied the requirements of § 1006.38(d)(2)(i). A later dispute can be substantially the same as an earlier dispute even if the later dispute does not repeat verbatim the language of the earlier dispute.
</P>
<P>2. <I>New and material information.</I> Section 1006.38(a)(1) provides that a dispute that is substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted by the consumer in writing within the validation period for which the debt collector has already satisfied the requirements of § 1006.38(d)(2)(i) is not a duplicative dispute if the consumer provides new and material information to support the dispute. Information is new if the consumer did not provide the information when submitting an earlier dispute. Information is material if it is reasonably likely to change the verification the debt collector provided or would have provided in response to the earlier dispute. The following example illustrates the rule:
</P>
<P>i. ABC debt collector is collecting a debt from a consumer and sends the consumer a validation notice. In response, the consumer submits a written dispute to ABC debt collector within the validation period asserting that the consumer does not owe the debt. The consumer does not include any information in support of the dispute. Pursuant to § 1006.38(d)(2)(i), ABC debt collector provides the consumer a copy of verification of the debt. The consumer then sends a cancelled check showing the consumer paid the debt. The cancelled check is new and material information.
</P>
<HD3>38(d) Disputes
</HD3>
<HD3>38(d)(2) Response to Disputes
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 38(d)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Duplicative dispute notice.</I> Section 1006.38(d)(2)(ii) provides that, in the case of a dispute that a debt collector reasonably determines is a duplicative dispute, the debt collector must cease collection of the debt, or any disputed portion of the debt, until the debt collector either notifies the consumer that the dispute is duplicative (§ 1006.38(d)(2)(ii)(A)) or provides a copy either of verification of the debt or of a judgment to the consumer (§ 1006.38(d)(2)(ii)(B)). If the debt collector notifies the consumer that the dispute is duplicative, § 1006.38(d)(2)(ii)(A) requires that the notice provide a brief statement of the reasons for the debt collector's determination that the dispute is duplicative and refer the consumer to the debt collector's response to the earlier dispute. A debt collector complies with the requirement to provide a brief statement of the reasons for its determination if the notice states that the dispute is substantially the same as an earlier dispute submitted by the consumer and the consumer has not included any new and material information in support of the earlier dispute. A debt collector complies with the requirement to refer the consumer to the debt collector's response to the earlier dispute if the notice states that the debt collector responded to the earlier dispute and provides the date of that response.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1006.42—Sending Required Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>42(a) Sending Required Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>42(a)(1) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relevant factors.</I> Section 1006.42(a)(1) provides, in part, that a debt collector who sends disclosures required by the Act or this part in writing or electronically must, among other things, do so in a manner that is reasonably expected to provide actual notice. In determining whether a debt collector has complied with this requirement, relevant factors include whether the debt collector:
</P>
<P>i. Identified the purpose of the communication by including, in the subject line of an electronic communication transmitting the disclosure, the name of the creditor to whom the debt currently is owed or allegedly is owed and one additional piece of information identifying the debt, other than the amount, such as a truncated account number; the name of the original creditor; the name of any store brand associated with the debt; the date of sale of a product or service giving rise to the debt; the physical address of service; and the billing or mailing address on the account;
</P>
<P>ii. Permitted receipt of notifications of undeliverability from communications providers, monitored for any such notifications, and treated any such notifications as precluding a reasonable expectation of actual notice for that delivery attempt; and
</P>
<P>iii. Identified itself as the sender of the communication by including a business name that the consumer would be likely to recognize, such as the name included in the notice described in § 1006.6(d)(4)(ii)(C), or the name that the debt collector has used in a prior limited-content message left for the consumer or in an email message sent to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice of undeliverability.</I> A debt collector who sends a required disclosure in writing or electronically and who receives a notice that the disclosure was not delivered has not sent the disclosure in a manner that is reasonably expected to provide actual notice under § 1006.42(a)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Safe harbor for notices sent by mail.</I> Subject to comment 42(a)(1)-2, a debt collector satisfies § 1006.42(a)(1) if the debt collector mails a printed copy of a disclosure to the consumer's last known address, unless the debt collector, at the time of mailing, knows or should know that the consumer does not currently reside at, or receive mail at, that location.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Effect of consumer opt out.</I> If a consumer has opted out of debt collection communications to a particular email address or telephone number by, for example, following the instructions provided pursuant to § 1006.6(e), then a debt collector cannot use that email address or telephone number to send required disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>Subpart C—[Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD3>Subpart D—Miscellaneous
</HD3>
<HD3>Section 1006.100—Record Retention
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Three-year retention period.</I> Section 1006.100 requires a debt collector to maintain records that are evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the FDCPA and this part starting on the date that the debt collector begins collection activity on a debt until three years after the debt collector's last collection activity on the debt or, in the case of telephone call recordings, until three years after the dates of the telephone calls. Nothing in § 1006.100 prohibits a debt collector from retaining records that are evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the FDCPA and this part for more than three years after the applicable date.


</P>
<HD3>100(a) In general.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Records that evidence compliance.</I> Section 1006.100(a) provides, in part, that a debt collector must retain records that are evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the FDCPA and this part. Thus, under § 1006.100(a), a debt collector must retain records that evidence that the debt collector performed the actions and made the disclosures required by the FDCPA and this part, as well as records that evidence that the debt collector refrained from conduct prohibited by the FDCPA and this part. If a record is of a type that could evidence compliance or noncompliance depending on the conduct of the debt collector that is revealed within the record, then the record is one that is evidence of compliance or noncompliance, and the debt collector must retain it. Such records include, but are not limited to, records that evidence that the debt collector's communications and attempts to communicate in connection with the collection of a debt complied (or did not comply) with the FDCPA and this part. For example, a debt collector must retain:
</P>
<P>i. Telephone call logs as evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the prohibition against harassing telephone calls in § 1006.14(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>ii. Copies of documents provided to consumers as evidence that the debt collector provided the information required by §§ 1006.34 and 1006.38 and met the delivery requirements of § 1006.42.


</P>
<HD3>100(b) Special Rule for Telephone Call Recordings
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Recorded telephone calls.</I> Nothing in § 1006.100 requires a debt collector to record telephone calls. However, if a debt collector records telephone calls, the recordings are evidence of compliance or noncompliance with the FDCPA and this part, and, under § 1006.100(b), the debt collector must retain the recording of each such telephone call for three years after the date of the call.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1006.104—Relation to State Laws
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>State law disclosure requirements.</I> The Act and the corresponding provisions of Regulation F do not annul, alter, or affect, or exempt any person subject to these requirements from complying with a disclosure requirement under applicable State law that describes additional protections under State law that are not inconsistent with the Act and Regulation F. A disclosure required by State law is not inconsistent with the FDCPA or Regulation F if the disclosure describes a protection that such law affords any consumer that is greater than the protection provided by the FDCPA or Regulation F.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 76887, Nov. 30, 2020, as amended at 86 FR 5857, Jan. 19, 2021; 87 FR 65669, Nov. 1, 2022; 88 FR 16538, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1007" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1007—S.A.F.E. MORTGAGE LICENSING ACT—FEDERAL REGISTRATION OF RESIDENTIAL MORTGAGE LOAN ORIGINATORS (REGULATION G)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5101-5116; 15 U.S.C. 1604(a), 1639b; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78487, Dec. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1007.101" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1007.101   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation G, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection pursuant to the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008, title V of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (S.A.F.E. Act) (Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654, 12 U.S.C. 5101 <I>et seq.,</I>) 12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581, 15 U.S.C. 1604(a), 1639b.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements the S.A.F.E. Act's Federal registration requirement for mortgage loan originators. The S.A.F.E. Act provides that the objectives of this registration include aggregating and improving the flow of information to and between regulators; providing increased accountability and tracking of mortgage loan originators; enhancing consumer protections; supporting anti-fraud measures; and providing consumers with easily accessible information at no charge regarding the employment history of, and publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage loan originators.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This part applies to:
</P>
<P>(i) National banks, Federal branches and agencies of foreign banks, their operating subsidiaries (collectively referred to in this part as national banks), and their employees who act as mortgage loan originators;
</P>
<P>(ii) Member banks of the Federal Reserve System; their respective subsidiaries that are not functionally regulated within the meaning of section 5(c)(5) of the Bank Holding Company Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1844(c)(5)); branches and agencies of foreign banks; commercial lending companies owned or controlled by foreign banks (collectively referred to in this part as member banks); and their employees who act as mortgage loan originators;
</P>
<P>(iii) Insured state nonmember banks (including state-licensed insured branches of foreign banks), their subsidiaries (except brokers, dealers, persons providing insurance, investment companies, and investment advisers) (collectively referred to in this part as insured state nonmember banks), and employees of such banks or subsidiaries who act as mortgage loan originators;
</P>
<P>(iv) Savings associations, their operating subsidiaries (collectively referred to in this part as savings associations), and their employees who act as mortgage loan originators;
</P>
<P>(v) Farm Credit System lending institutions that actually originate residential mortgage loans pursuant to sections 1.9(3), 1.11 or 2.4(a) and (b) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (collectively referred to in this part as Farm Credit System institutions), and their employees who act as mortgage loan originators; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any federally insured credit union and its employees, including volunteers, who act as mortgage loan originators. This part also applies to non-federally insured credit unions and their employees, including volunteers, who act as mortgage loan originators, subject to the conditions in paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>De minimis exception.</I> (i) This part and the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 5103(a)(1)(A) and (2) of the S.A.F.E. Act do not apply to any employee of a national bank, member bank, insured state nonmember bank, savings association, Farm Credit System institution, or credit union who has never been registered or licensed through the Registry as a mortgage loan originator if during the past 12 months the employee acted as a mortgage loan originator for 5 or fewer residential mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to engaging in mortgage loan origination activity that exceeds the exception limit in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, an employee must register with the Registry pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Evasion.</I> National banks, member banks, insured state nonmember banks, savings associations, Farm Credit System institutions, and credit unions are prohibited from engaging in any act or practice to evade the limits of the <I>de minimis</I> exception set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For non-federally insured credit unions.</I> A non-federally insured credit union in a state identified on the National Credit Union Administration's Web site (NCUA.gov) as one where the appropriate state supervisory authority has executed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the National Credit Union Administration may register under this rule provided that any Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry listing of the non-federally insured credit union and its employees contains a clear and conspicuous statement that the non-federally insured credit union is not insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund, and the state supervisory authority where the non-federally insured credit union is located maintains an agreement with the National Credit Union Administration for this registration process and oversight. If the state supervisory authority where the non-federally insured credit union is located fails to maintain such an agreement, the non-federally insured credit union and its employees in that state may not register or maintain registration under the Federal system. They instead must use the appropriate state licensing and registration system, or if the state does not have such a system, the licensing and registration system established by the Bureau for mortgage loan originators and their employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1007.102" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1007.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative or clerical tasks</I> means the receipt, collection, and distribution of information common for the processing or underwriting of a loan in the residential mortgage industry and communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Annual renewal period</I> means November 1 through December 31 of each year.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Covered financial institution</I> means any national bank, member bank, insured state nonmember bank, savings association, Farm Credit System institution, or federally insured credit union as any such term is defined in § 1007.101(c)(1). Covered financial institution also includes a non-federally insured credit union that registers subject to the conditions of § 1007.101(c)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage loan originator</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who:
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a residential mortgage loan application; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan for compensation or gain.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) The term <I>mortgage loan originator</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) An individual who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of an individual who is described as a mortgage loan originator in this section;
</P>
<P>(B) An individual who only performs real estate brokerage activities (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5102(4)(D)) and is licensed or registered as a real estate broker in accordance with applicable state law, unless the individual is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage loan originator, and meets the definition of mortgage loan originator in this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) An individual or entity solely involved in extensions of credit related to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D).
</P>
<P>(ii) Examples of activities that would, and would not, result in an employee meeting the definition of mortgage loan originator are provided in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry</I> or <I>Registry</I> means the system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the state licensing and registration of state-licensed mortgage loan originators and the registration of mortgage loan originators pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5107.
</P>
<P><I>Registered mortgage loan originator</I> or <I>registrant</I> means any individual who:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the definition of mortgage loan originator and is an employee of a covered financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is registered pursuant to this part with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Registry.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage loan</I> means any loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling (as defined in section 103(v) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1602(v)) or residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling, and includes refinancings, reverse mortgages, home equity lines of credit and other first and additional lien loans that meet the qualifications listed in this definition. This definition does not amend or supersede 12 CFR 613.3030(c) with respect to Farm Credit System institutions.
</P>
<P><I>Unique identifier</I> means a number or other identifier that:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanently identifies a registered mortgage loan originator;
</P>
<P>(2) Is assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry and the Bureau to facilitate:
</P>
<P>(i) Electronic tracking of mortgage loan originators; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uniform identification of, and public access to, the employment history of and the publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against mortgage loan originators; and
</P>
<P>(3) Must not be used for purposes other than those set forth under the S.A.F.E. Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1007.103" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1007.103   Registration of mortgage loan originators.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Registration requirement</I>—(1) <I>Employee registration.</I> Each employee of a covered financial institution who acts as a mortgage loan originator must register with the Registry, obtain a unique identifier, and maintain this registration in accordance with the requirements of this part. Any such employee who is not in compliance with the registration and unique identifier requirements set forth in this part is in violation of the S.A.F.E. Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered financial institution requirement</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A covered financial institution that employs one or more individuals who act as a residential mortgage loan originator must require each such employee to register with the Registry, maintain this registration, and obtain a unique identifier in accordance with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prohibition.</I> A covered financial institution must not permit an employee who is subject to the registration requirements of this part to act as a mortgage loan originator for the covered financial institution unless such employee is registered with the Registry pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(3) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employees previously registered or licensed through the Registry</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If an employee of a covered financial institution was registered or licensed through, and obtained a unique identifier from, the Registry and has maintained this registration or license before the employee becomes subject to this part at the current covered financial institution, then the registration requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act and this part are deemed to be met, provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The employment information in paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(C) and (d)(1)(ii) of this section is updated and the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section are met;
</P>
<P>(B) New fingerprints of the employee are submitted to the Registry for a background check, as required by paragraph (d)(1)(ix) of this section, unless the employee has fingerprints on file with the Registry that are less than 3 years old;
</P>
<P>(C) The covered financial institution information required in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) (to the extent the covered financial institution has not previously met these requirements) and (e)(2)(i) of this section is submitted to the Registry; and
</P>
<P>(D) The registration is maintained pursuant to paragraphs (b) and (e)(1)(ii) of this section, as of the date that the employee becomes subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Rule for certain acquisitions, mergers, or reorganizations.</I> When registered or licensed mortgage loan originators become covered financial institution employees as a result of an acquisition, consolidation, merger, or reorganization, only the requirements of paragraphs (a)(4)(i)(A), (C), and (D) of this section must be met, and these requirements must be met within 60 days from the effective date of the acquisition, merger, or reorganization.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maintaining registration.</I> (1) A mortgage loan originator who is registered with the Registry pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, renew the registration during the annual renewal period, confirming the responses set forth in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (viii) of this section remain accurate and complete, and updating this information, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Update the registration within 30 days of any of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) A change in the name of the registrant;
</P>
<P>(B) The registrant ceases to be an employee of the covered financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(C) The information required under paragraphs (d)(1)(iii) through (viii) of this section becomes inaccurate, incomplete, or out-of-date.
</P>
<P>(2) A registered mortgage loan originator must maintain his or her registration, unless the individual is no longer engaged in the activity of a mortgage loan originator.
</P>
<P>(3) The annual registration renewal requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to a registered mortgage loan originator who has completed his or her registration with the Registry pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section less than 6 months prior to the end of the annual renewal period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective dates</I>—(1) <I>Registration.</I> A registration pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section is effective on the date the Registry transmits notification to the registrant that the registrant is registered.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renewals or updates.</I> A renewal or update pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section is effective on the date the Registry transmits notification to the registrant that the registration has been renewed or updated.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Required employee information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of the registration required by this section, a covered financial institution must require each employee who is a mortgage loan originator to submit to the Registry, or must submit on behalf of the employee, the following categories of information, to the extent this information is collected by the Registry:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information, including the employee's:
</P>
<P>(A) Name and any other names used;
</P>
<P>(B) Home address and contact information;
</P>
<P>(C) Principal business location address and business contact information;
</P>
<P>(D) Social security number;
</P>
<P>(E) Gender; and
</P>
<P>(F) Date and place of birth;
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial services-related employment history for the 10 years prior to the date of registration or renewal, including the date the employee became an employee of the covered financial institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Convictions of any criminal offense involving dishonesty, breach of trust, or money laundering against the employee or organizations controlled by the employee, or agreements to enter into a pretrial diversion or similar program in connection with the prosecution for such offense(s);
</P>
<P>(iv) Civil judicial actions against the employee in connection with financial services-related activities, dismissals with settlements, or judicial findings that the employee violated financial services-related statutes or regulations, except for actions dismissed without a settlement agreement;
</P>
<P>(v) Actions or orders by a state or Federal regulatory agency or foreign financial regulatory authority that:
</P>
<P>(A) Found the employee to have made a false statement or omission or been dishonest, unfair or unethical; to have been involved in a violation of a financial services-related regulation or statute; or to have been a cause of a financial services-related business having its authorization to do business denied, suspended, revoked, or restricted;
</P>
<P>(B) Are entered against the employee in connection with a financial services-related activity;
</P>
<P>(C) Denied, suspended, or revoked the employee's registration or license to engage in a financial services-related activity; disciplined the employee or otherwise by order prevented the employee from associating with a financial services-related business or restricted the employee's activities; or
</P>
<P>(D) Barred the employee from association with an entity or its officers regulated by the agency or authority or from engaging in a financial services-related business;
</P>
<P>(vi) Final orders issued by a state or Federal regulatory agency or foreign financial regulatory authority based on violations of any law or regulation that prohibits fraudulent, manipulative, or deceptive conduct;
</P>
<P>(vii) Revocation or suspension of the employee's authorization to act as an attorney, accountant, or state or Federal contractor;
</P>
<P>(viii) Customer-initiated financial services-related arbitration or civil action against the employee that required action, including settlements, or which resulted in a judgment; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Fingerprints of the employee, in digital form if practicable, and any appropriate identifying information for submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation and any governmental agency or entity authorized to receive such information in connection with a state and national criminal history background check; however, fingerprints provided to the Registry that are less than 3 years old may be used to satisfy this requirement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee authorizations and attestation.</I> An employee registering as a mortgage loan originator or renewing or updating his or her registration under this part, and not the employing covered financial institution or other employees of the covered financial institution, must:
</P>
<P>(i) Authorize the Registry and the employing institution to obtain information related to sanctions or findings in any administrative, civil, or criminal action, to which the employee is a party, made by any governmental jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Attest to the correctness of all information required by paragraph (d) of this section, whether submitted by the employee or on behalf of the employee by the employing covered financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Authorize the Registry to make available to the public information required by paragraphs (d)(1)(i)(A) and (C), and (d)(1)(ii) through (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Submission of information.</I> A covered financial institution may identify one or more employees of the covered financial institution who may submit the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section to the Registry on behalf of the covered financial institution's employees provided that this individual, and any employee delegated such authority, does not act as a mortgage loan originator, consistent with paragraph (e)(1)(i)(F) of this section. In addition, a covered financial institution may submit to the Registry some or all of the information required by paragraphs (d)(1) and (e)(2) of this section for multiple employees in bulk through batch processing in a format to be specified by the Registry, to the extent such batch processing is made available by the Registry.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required covered financial institution information.</I> A covered financial institution must submit the following categories of information to the Registry:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered financial institution record.</I> (i) In connection with the registration of one or more mortgage loan originators:
</P>
<P>(A) Name, main office address, and business contact information;
</P>
<P>(B) Internal Revenue Service Employer Tax Identification Number (EIN);
</P>
<P>(C) Research Statistics Supervision and Discount (RSSD) number, as issued by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System;
</P>
<P>(D) Identification of its primary Federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(E) Name(s) and contact information of the individual(s) with authority to act as the covered financial institution's primary point of contact for the Registry;
</P>
<P>(F) Name(s) and contact information of the individual(s) with authority to enter the information required by paragraphs (d)(1) and (e) of this section to the Registry and who may delegate this authority to other individuals. For the purpose of providing information required by paragraph (e) of this section, this individual and their delegates must not act as mortgage loan originators unless the covered financial institution has 10 or fewer full time or equivalent employees and is not a subsidiary; and
</P>
<P>(G) If a subsidiary of a national bank, member bank, savings association, or insured state nonmember bank, indication that it is a subsidiary and the RSSD number of the parent institution; if an operating subsidiary of an agricultural credit association, indication that it is a subsidiary, and the RSSD number of the parent agricultural credit association.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Attestation.</I> The individual(s) identified in paragraphs (e)(1)(i)(E) and (F) of this section must comply with Registry protocols to verify their identity and must attest that they have the authority to enter data on behalf of the covered financial institution, that the information provided to the Registry pursuant to this paragraph (e) is correct, and that the covered financial institution will keep the information required by this paragraph (e) current and will file accurate supplementary information on a timely basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) A covered financial institution must update the information required by this paragraph (e) of this section within 30 days of the date that this information becomes inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(iv) A covered financial institution must renew the information required by paragraph (e) of this section on an annual basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employee information.</I> In connection with the registration of each employee who acts as a mortgage loan originator:
</P>
<P>(i) After the information required by paragraph (d) of this section has been submitted to the Registry, confirmation that it employs the registrant; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days of the date the registrant ceases to be an employee of the covered financial institution, notification that it no longer employs the registrant and the date the registrant ceased being an employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1007.104" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1007.104   Policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>A covered financial institution that employs one or more mortgage loan originators must adopt and follow written policies and procedures designed to assure compliance with this part. These policies and procedures must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the mortgage lending activities of the covered financial institution, and apply only to those employees acting within the scope of their employment at the covered financial institution. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish a process for identifying which employees of the covered financial institution are required to be registered mortgage loan originators;
</P>
<P>(b) Require that all employees of the covered financial institution who are mortgage loan originators be informed of the registration requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act and this part and be instructed on how to comply with such requirements and procedures;
</P>
<P>(c) Establish procedures to comply with the unique identifier requirements in § 1007.105;
</P>
<P>(d) Establish reasonable procedures for confirming the adequacy and accuracy of employee registrations, including updates and renewals, by comparisons with its own records;
</P>
<P>(e) Establish reasonable procedures and tracking systems for monitoring compliance with registration and renewal requirements and procedures;
</P>
<P>(f) Provide for independent testing for compliance with this part to be conducted at least annually by covered financial institution personnel or by an outside party;
</P>
<P>(g) Provide for appropriate action in the case of any employee who fails to comply with the registration requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act, this part, or the covered financial institution's related policies and procedures, including prohibiting such employees from acting as mortgage loan originators or other appropriate disciplinary actions;
</P>
<P>(h) Establish a process for reviewing employee criminal history background reports received pursuant to this part, taking appropriate action consistent with applicable Federal law, including section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1829), section 206 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1786(i)), and section 5.65(d) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2277a-14(d)), and implementing regulations with respect to these reports, and maintaining records of these reports and actions taken with respect to applicable employees; and
</P>
<P>(i) Establish procedures designed to ensure that any third party with which the covered financial institution has arrangements related to mortgage loan origination has policies and procedures to comply with the S.A.F.E. Act, including appropriate licensing and/or registration of individuals acting as mortgage loan originators.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1007.105" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1007.105   Use of unique identifier.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The covered financial institution shall make the unique identifier(s) of its registered mortgage loan originator(s) available to consumers in a manner and method practicable to the institution.
</P>
<P>(b) A registered mortgage loan originator shall provide his or her unique identifier to a consumer:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon request;
</P>
<P>(2) Before acting as a mortgage loan originator; and
</P>
<P>(3) Through the originator's initial written communication with a consumer, if any, whether on paper or electronically.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.8.0.1.6.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1007—Examples of Mortgage Loan Originator Activities
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix provides examples to aid in the understanding of activities that would cause an employee of a covered financial institution to fall within or outside the definition of mortgage loan originator. The examples in this appendix are not all-inclusive. They illustrate only the issue described and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise under this part. For purposes of the examples below, the term “loan” refers to a residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Taking a loan application.</I> The following examples illustrate when an employee takes, or does not take, a loan application.
</P>
<P>(1) Taking an application includes: receiving information provided in connection with a request for a loan to be used to determine whether the consumer qualifies for a loan, even if the employee:
</P>
<P>(i) Has received the consumer's information indirectly in order to make an offer or negotiate a loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not responsible for verifying information;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is inputting information into an online application or other automated system on behalf of the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Is not engaged in approval of the loan, including determining whether the consumer qualifies for the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Taking an application does not include any of the following activities performed solely or in combination:
</P>
<P>(i) Contacting a consumer to verify the information in the loan application by obtaining documentation, such as tax returns or payroll receipts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receiving a loan application through the mail and forwarding it, without review, to loan approval personnel;
</P>
<P>(iii) Assisting a consumer who is filling out an application by clarifying what type of information is necessary for the application or otherwise explaining the qualifications or criteria necessary to obtain a loan product;
</P>
<P>(iv) Describing the steps that a consumer would need to take to provide information to be used to determine whether the consumer qualifies for a loan or otherwise explaining the loan application process;
</P>
<P>(v) In response to an inquiry regarding a prequalified offer that a consumer has received from a covered financial institution, collecting only basic identifying information about the consumer and forwarding the consumer to a mortgage loan originator; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Receiving information in connection with a modification to the terms of an existing loan to a borrower as part of the covered financial institution's loss mitigation efforts when the borrower is reasonably likely to default.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offering or negotiating terms of a loan.</I> The following examples are designed to illustrate when an employee offers or negotiates terms of a loan, and conversely, what does not constitute offering or negotiating terms of a loan.
</P>
<P>(1) Offering or negotiating the terms of a loan includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Presenting a loan offer to a consumer for acceptance, either verbally or in writing, including, but not limited to, providing a disclosure of the loan terms after application under the Truth in Lending Act, even if:
</P>
<P>(A) Further verification of information is necessary;
</P>
<P>(B) The offer is conditional;
</P>
<P>(C) Other individuals must complete the loan process; or
</P>
<P>(D) Only the rate approved by the covered financial institution's loan approval mechanism function for a specific loan product is communicated without authority to negotiate the rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Responding to a consumer's request for a lower rate or lower points on a pending loan application by presenting to the consumer a revised loan offer, either verbally or in writing, that includes a lower interest rate or lower points than the original offer.
</P>
<P>(2) Offering or negotiating terms of a loan does not include solely or in combination:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing general explanations or descriptions in response to consumer queries regarding qualification for a specific loan product, such as explaining loan terminology (<I>e.g.,</I> debt-to-income ratio); lending policies (<I>e.g.,</I> the loan-to-value ratio policy of the covered financial institution); or product-related services;
</P>
<P>(ii) In response to a consumer's request, informing a consumer of the loan rates that are publicly available, such as on the covered financial institution's Web site, for specific types of loan products without communicating to the consumer whether qualifications are met for that loan product;
</P>
<P>(iii) Collecting information about a consumer in order to provide the consumer with information on loan products for which the consumer generally may qualify, without presenting a specific loan offer to the consumer for acceptance, either verbally or in writing;
</P>
<P>(iv) Arranging the loan closing or other aspects of the loan process, including communicating with a consumer about those arrangements, provided that communication with the consumer only verifies loan terms already offered or negotiated;
</P>
<P>(v) Providing a consumer with information unrelated to loan terms, such as the best days of the month for scheduling loan closings at the covered financial institution;
</P>
<P>(vi) Making an underwriting decision about whether the consumer qualifies for a loan;
</P>
<P>(vii) Explaining or describing the steps or process that a consumer would need to take in order to obtain a loan offer, including qualifications or criteria that would need to be met without providing guidance specific to that consumer's circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Communicating on behalf of a mortgage loan originator that a written offer, including disclosures provided pursuant to the Truth in Lending Act, has been sent to a consumer without providing any details of that offer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Offering or negotiating a loan for compensation or gain.</I> The following examples illustrate when an employee does or does not offer or negotiate terms of a loan “for compensation or gain.”
</P>
<P>(1) Offering or negotiating terms of a loan for compensation or gain includes engaging in any of the activities in paragraph (b)(1) of this appendix in the course of carrying out employment duties, even if the employee does not receive a referral fee or commission or other special compensation for the loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Offering or negotiating terms of a loan for compensation or gain does not include engaging in a seller-financed transaction for the employee's personal property that does not involve the covered financial institution.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1008" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1008—S.A.F.E. MORTGAGE LICENSING ACT—STATE COMPLIANCE AND BUREAU REGISTRATION SYSTEM (REGULATION H)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5101-5116; Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78487, Dec. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1008.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation H, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008, title V of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (S.A.F.E. Act) (Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654, 12 U.S.C. 5101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to enhance consumer protection and reduce fraud by directing states to adopt minimum uniform standards for the licensing and registration of residential mortgage loan originators and to participate in a nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry database of residential mortgage loan originators. Under the S.A.F.E. Act, if the Bureau determines that a state's loan origination licensing system does not meet the minimum requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act, the Bureau is charged with establishing and implementing a system for all loan originators in that state. Additionally, if at any time the Bureau determines that the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry is failing to meet the S.A.F.E. Act's requirements, the Bureau is charged with establishing and maintaining a licensing and registry database for loan originators.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Organization.</I> The regulation is divided into subparts and appendices as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A establishes the definitions applicable to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B provides the minimum standards that a state must meet in licensing loan originators, including standards for whom a state must require to be licensed, and sets forth the Bureau's procedure for determining a state's compliance with the minimum standards.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C provides the requirements that the Bureau will apply in any state that the Bureau determines has not established a licensing and registration system in compliance with the minimum standards of the S.A.F.E. Act.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D provides minimum requirements for the administration of the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry.
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart E clarifies the Bureau's enforcement authority in states in which it operates a state licensing system.
</P>
<P>(6) Appendices A through D set forth examples to aid in the understanding and application of the regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.3   Confidentiality of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided in this part, any requirement under Federal or state law regarding the privacy or confidentiality of any information or material provided to the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry or a system established by the Director under this part, and any privilege arising under Federal or state law (including the rules of any Federal or state court) with respect to such information or material, shall continue to apply to such information or material after the information or material has been disclosed to the system. Such information and material may be shared with all state and Federal regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority without the loss of privilege or the loss of confidentiality protections provided by Federal and state laws.
</P>
<P>(b) Information or material that is subject to a privilege or confidentiality under paragraph (a) of this section shall not be subject to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclosure under any Federal or state law governing the disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an agency of the Federal Government or the respective state; or
</P>
<P>(2) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any private civil action or administrative process, unless with respect to any privilege held by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry or by the Director with respect to such information or material, the person to whom such information or material pertains, waives, in whole or in part, in the discretion of such person, that privilege.
</P>
<P>(c) Any state law, including any state open record law, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information or any information or material described in paragraph (a) of this section that is inconsistent with paragraph (a), shall be superseded by the requirements of such provision to the extent that state law provides less confidentiality or a weaker privilege.
</P>
<P>(d) This section shall not apply with respect to the information or material relating to the employment history of, and any publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement action against, any loan originator that is included in the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry for access by the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.20   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart provides the definitions applicable to this part, and other general requirements applicable to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.23" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.23   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Terms that are defined in the S.A.F.E. Act and used in this part have the same meaning as in the S.A.F.E. Act, unless otherwise provided in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative or clerical tasks</I> means the receipt, collection, and distribution of information common for the processing or underwriting of a loan in the mortgage industry and communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators (AARMR)</I> is the national association of executives and employees of the various states who are charged with the responsibility for administration and regulation of residential mortgage lending, servicing, and brokering, and dedicated to the goals described at <I>www.aarmr.org.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means a request, in any form, for an offer (or a response to a solicitation of an offer) of residential mortgage loan terms, and the information about the borrower or prospective borrower that is customary or necessary in a decision on whether to make such an offer.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Clerical or support duties:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) Include:
</P>
<P>(i) The receipt, collection, distribution, and analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicating with a consumer to obtain the information necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the extent that such communication does not include offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling consumers about residential mortgage loan rates or terms; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Taking a residential mortgage loan application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Offering or negotiating terms of a residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Conference of State Bank Supervisors (CSBS)</I> is the national organization composed of state bank supervisors dedicated to maintaining the state banking system and state regulation of financial services in accordance with the CSBS statement of principles described at <I>www.csbs.org.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual:
</P>
<P>(1) Whose manner and means of performance of work are subject to the right of control of, or are controlled by, a person, and
</P>
<P>(2) Whose compensation for Federal income tax purposes is reported, or required to be reported, on a W-2 form issued by the controlling person.
</P>
<P><I>Farm Credit Administration</I> means the independent Federal agency, authorized by the Farm Credit Act of 1971, that examines and regulates the Farm Credit System.
</P>
<P><I>For compensation or gain.</I> See § 1008.103(c)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Independent contractor</I> means an individual who performs his or her duties other than at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of an individual who is licensed and registered in accordance with § 1008.103(a), or is not required to be licensed, in accordance with § 1008.103(e)(5), (6), or (7).
</P>
<P><I>Loan originator.</I> See § 1008.103.
</P>
<P><I>Loan processor or underwriter,</I> for purposes of this part, means an individual who, with respect to the origination of a residential mortgage loan, performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of:
</P>
<P>(1) A state-licensed loan originator; or
</P>
<P>(2) A registered loan originator.
</P>
<P><I>Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry or NMLSR</I> means the mortgage licensing system developed and maintained by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors and the American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators for the licensing and registration of loan originators and the registration of registered loan originators or any system established by the Director, as provided in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Nontraditional mortgage product</I> means any mortgage product other than a 30-year fixed-rate mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Origination of a residential mortgage loan, for purposes of the definition of loan processor or underwriter,</I> means all residential mortgage loan-related activities from the taking of a residential mortgage loan application through the completion of all required loan closing documents and funding of the residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Real estate brokerage activities</I> mean any activity that involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to the public including—
</P>
<P>(1) Acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;
</P>
<P>(2) Bringing together parties interested in the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property;
</P>
<P>(3) Negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property (other than in connection with providing financing with respect to any such transaction);
</P>
<P>(4) Engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in the activity is required to be registered as a real estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(5) Offering to engage in any activity, or act in any capacity, described in paragraphs (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage loan</I> means any loan primarily for personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling (as defined in section 103(w) of the Truth in Lending Act) or residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended to be constructed a dwelling (as so defined).
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Unique identifier</I> means a number or other identifier that:
</P>
<P>(1) Permanently identifies a loan originator;
</P>
<P>(2) Is assigned by protocols established by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry and the Bureau to facilitate electronic tracking of loan originators and uniform identification of, and public access to, the employment history of and the publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against loan originators; and
</P>
<P>(3) Shall not be used for purposes other than those set forth under the S.A.F.E. Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Determination of State Compliance With the S.A.F.E. Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.101" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.101   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart describes the minimum standards of the S.A.F.E. Act that apply to a state's licensing and registering of loan originators. This subpart also provides the procedures that the Bureau follows to determine that a state does not have in place a system for licensing and registering mortgage loan originators that complies with the minimum standards. Upon making such a determination, the Bureau will impose the requirements and exercise the enforcement authorities described in subparts C and E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.103" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.103   Individuals required to be licensed by states.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, in order to operate a S.A.F.E.-compliant program, a state must prohibit an individual from engaging in the business of a loan originator with respect to any dwelling or residential real estate in the state, unless the individual first:
</P>
<P>(1) Registers as a loan originator through and obtains a unique identifier from the NMLSR, and
</P>
<P>(2) Obtains and maintains a valid loan originator license from the state.
</P>
<P>(b) An individual engages in the business of a loan originator if the individual, in a commercial context and habitually or repeatedly:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Takes a residential mortgage loan application; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan for compensation or gain; or
</P>
<P>(2) Represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such individual can or will perform the activities described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An individual “takes a residential mortgage loan application” if the individual receives a residential mortgage loan application for the purpose of facilitating a decision whether to extend an offer of residential mortgage loan terms to a borrower or prospective borrower (or to accept the terms offered by a borrower or prospective borrower in response to a solicitation), whether the application is received directly or indirectly from the borrower or prospective borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual “offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage loan for compensation or gain” if the individual:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Presents for consideration by a borrower or prospective borrower particular residential mortgage loan terms;
</P>
<P>(B) Communicates directly or indirectly with a borrower, or prospective borrower for the purpose of reaching a mutual understanding about prospective residential mortgage loan terms; or
</P>
<P>(C) Recommends, refers, or steers a borrower or prospective borrower to a particular lender or set of residential mortgage loan terms, in accordance with a duty to or incentive from any person other than the borrower or prospective borrower; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receives or expects to receive payment of money or anything of value in connection with the activities described in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or as a result of any residential mortgage loan terms entered into as a result of such activities.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, a state must prohibit an individual who is an independent contractor from engaging in residential mortgage loan origination activities as a loan processor or underwriter with respect to any dwelling or residential real estate in the state, unless the individual first:
</P>
<P>(i) Registers as a loan originator through and obtains a unique identifier from the NMLSR, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtains and maintains a valid loan originator license from the state.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual “engage[s] in residential mortgage loan origination activities as a loan processor or underwriter” if, with respect to a residential mortgage loan application, the individual performs clerical or support duties.
</P>
<P>(e) A state is not required to impose the prohibitions required under paragraphs (a) and (d) of this section on the following individuals:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who performs only real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable state law, unless the individual is compensated directly or indirectly by a lender, mortgage broker, or other loan originator or by an agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other loan originator;
</P>
<P>(2) An individual who is involved only in extensions of credit relating to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D);
</P>
<P>(3) An individual who performs only clerical or support duties and:
</P>
<P>(i) Who does so at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of an individual who:
</P>
<P>(A) Is licensed and registered in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, or
</P>
<P>(B) Is not required to be licensed in accordance with paragraph (e)(5); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who performs such duties solely with respect to transactions for which the individual who acts as a loan originator is not required to be licensed, in accordance with paragraph (e)(2), (6), or (7) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) An individual who performs only purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a loan originator;
</P>
<P>(5) An individual who is lawfully registered with, and maintains a unique identifier through, the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry, and who is an employee of a covered financial institution, as that term is defined in 12 CFR part 1007.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) An individual who is an employee of a Federal, state, or local government agency or housing finance agency and who acts as a loan originator only pursuant to his or her official duties as an employee of the Federal, state, or local government agency or housing finance agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (e)(6), the term <I>employee</I> has the meaning provided in paragraph (1) of the definition of employee in § 1008.23 and excludes the meaning provided in paragraph (2) of the definition.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (e)(6), the term <I>housing finance agency</I> means any authority:
</P>
<P>(A) That is chartered by a state to help meet the affordable housing needs of the residents of the state;
</P>
<P>(B) That is supervised directly or indirectly by the state government;
</P>
<P>(C) That is subject to audit and review by the state in which it operates; and
</P>
<P>(D) Whose activities make it eligible to be a member of the National Council of State Housing Agencies.
</P>
<P>(7)(i) An employee of a bona fide nonprofit organization who acts as a loan originator only with respect to his or her work duties to the bona fide nonprofit organization, and who acts as a loan originator only with respect to residential mortgage loans with terms that are favorable to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an organization to be considered a bona fide nonprofit organization under this paragraph, a state supervisory authority that opts not to require licensing of the employee must determine, under criteria and pursuant to processes established by the state, that the organization:
</P>
<P>(A) Has the status of a tax-exempt organization under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;
</P>
<P>(B) Promotes affordable housing or provides homeownership education, or similar services;
</P>
<P>(C) Conducts its activities in a manner that serves public or charitable purposes, rather than commercial purposes;
</P>
<P>(D) Receives funding and revenue and charges fees in a manner that does not incentivize it or its employees to act other than in the best interests of its clients;
</P>
<P>(E) Compensates its employees in a manner that does not incentivize employees to act other than in the best interests of its clients;
</P>
<P>(F) Provides or identifies for the borrower residential mortgage loans with terms favorable to the borrower and comparable to mortgage loans and housing assistance provided under government housing assistance programs; and
</P>
<P>(G) Meets other standards that the state determines are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) A state must periodically examine the books and activities of an organization it determines is a bona fide nonprofit organization and revoke its status as a bona fide nonprofit organization if it does not continue to meet the criteria under paragraph (e)(7)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) For residential mortgage loans to have terms that are favorable to the borrower, a state must determine that the terms are consistent with loan origination in a public or charitable context, rather than a commercial context.
</P>
<P>(f) A state must require an individual licensed in accordance with paragraphs (a) or (d) of this section to renew the loan originator license no less often than annually.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.105" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.105   Minimum loan originator license requirements.</HEAD>
<P>For an individual to be eligible for a loan originator license required under § 1008.103(a) and (d), a state must require and find, at a minimum, that an individual:
</P>
<P>(a) Has never had a loan originator license revoked in any governmental jurisdiction, except that a formally vacated revocation shall not be deemed a revocation;
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Has never been convicted of, or pled guilty or <I>nolo contendere</I> to, a felony in a domestic, foreign, or military court:
</P>
<P>(i) During the 7-year period preceding the date of the application for licensing; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At any time preceding such date of application, if such felony involved an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, or money laundering.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (b):
</P>
<P>(i) Expunged convictions and pardoned convictions do not, in themselves, affect the eligibility of the individual; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether a particular crime is classified as a felony is determined by the law of the jurisdiction in which an individual is convicted.
</P>
<P>(c) Has demonstrated financial responsibility, character, and general fitness, such as to command the confidence of the community and to warrant a determination that the loan originator will operate honestly, fairly, and efficiently, under reasonable standards established by the individual state.
</P>
<P>(d) Completed at least 20 hours of pre-licensing education that has been reviewed and approved by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry. The pre-licensing education completed by the individual must include at least:
</P>
<P>(1) 3 hours of Federal law and regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) 3 hours of ethics, which must include instruction on fraud, consumer protection, and fair lending issues; and
</P>
<P>(3) 2 hours of training on lending standards for the nontraditional mortgage product marketplace.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) Achieved a test score of not less than 75 percent correct answers on a written test developed by the NMLSR in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 5105(d).
</P>
<P>(2) To satisfy the requirement under paragraph (e)(1) of this section, an individual may take a test three consecutive times, with each retest occurring at least 30 days after the preceding test. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the individual must wait at least 6 months before taking the test again.
</P>
<P>(3) If a formerly state-licensed loan originator fails to maintain a valid license for 5 years or longer, not taking into account any time during which such individual is a registered loan originator, the individual must retake the test and achieve a test score of not less than 75 percent correct answers.
</P>
<P>(f) Be covered by either a net worth or surety bond requirement, or pays into a state fund, as required by the state loan originator supervisory authority.
</P>
<P>(g) Has submitted to the NMLSR fingerprints for submission to the Federal Bureau of Investigation and to any government agency for a state and national criminal history background check; and
</P>
<P>(h) Has submitted to the NMLSR personal history and experience, which must include authorization for the NMLSR to obtain:
</P>
<P>(1) Information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(2) An independent credit report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.107" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.107   Minimum annual license renewal requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For an individual to be eligible to renew a loan originator license as required under § 1008.103(f), a state must require the individual:
</P>
<P>(1) To continue to meet the minimum standards for license issuance provided in § 1008.105; and
</P>
<P>(2) To satisfy annual continuing education requirements, which must include at least 8 hours of education approved by the NMLSR. The 8 hours of annual continuing education must include at least:
</P>
<P>(i) 3 hours of Federal law and regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) 2 hours of ethics (including instruction on fraud, consumer protection, and fair lending issues); and
</P>
<P>(iii) 2 hours of training related to lending standards for the nontraditional mortgage product marketplace.
</P>
<P>(b) A state must provide that a state-licensed loan originator may only receive credit for a continuing education course in the year in which the course is taken, and that a state-licensed loan originator may not apply credits for education courses taken in one year to meet the continuing education requirements of subsequent years. A state must provide that an individual may not meet the annual requirements for continuing education by taking an approved course more than one time in the same year or in successive years.
</P>
<P>(c) An individual who is an instructor of an approved continuing education course may receive credit for the individual's own annual continuing education requirement at the rate of 2 hours credit for every one hour taught.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.109" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.109   Effective date of state requirements imposed on individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, a state must provide that the effective date for requirements it imposes in accordance with §§ 1008.103, 1008.105, and 1008.107 is no later than August 29, 2011.
</P>
<P>(b) For an individual who was permitted to perform residential mortgage loan originations under state legislation or regulations enacted or promulgated prior to the state's enactment or promulgation of a licensing system that complies with this subpart, a state may delay the effective date for requirements it imposes in accordance with §§ 1008.103, 1008.105, and 1008.107 to no later than August 29, 2011. For purposes of this paragraph (b), an individual was permitted to perform residential mortgage loan originations only if prior state law required the individual to be licensed, authorized, registered, or otherwise granted a form of affirmative and revocable government permission for individuals as a condition of performing residential mortgage loan originations.
</P>
<P>(c) The Bureau may approve a later effective date only upon a state's demonstration that substantial numbers of loan originators (or of a class of loan originators) who require a state license face unusual hardship, through no fault of their own or of the state government, in complying with the standards required by the S.A.F.E. Act and in obtaining state licenses within one year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.111" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.111   Other minimum requirements for state licensing systems.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A state must maintain a loan originator licensing, supervisory, and oversight authority (supervisory authority) that provides effective supervision and enforcement, in accordance with the minimum standards provided in this section and in § 1008.113.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorities.</I> A supervisory authority must have the legal authority and mechanisms:
</P>
<P>(1) To examine any books, papers, records, or other data of any loan originator operating in the state;
</P>
<P>(2) To summon any loan originator operating in the state, or any person having possession, custody, or care of the reports and records relating to such a loan originator, to appear before the supervisory authority at a time and place named in the summons and to produce such books, papers, records, or other data, and to give testimony, under oath, as may be relevant or material to an investigation of such loan originator for compliance with the requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act;
</P>
<P>(3) To administer oaths and affirmations and examine and take and preserve testimony under oath as to any matter in respect to the affairs of any such loan originator;
</P>
<P>(4) To enter an order requiring any individual or person that is, was, or would be a cause of a violation of the S.A.F.E. Act as implemented by the state, due to an act or omission the person knew or should have known would contribute to such violation, to cease and desist from committing or causing such violation and any future violation of the same requirement;
</P>
<P>(5) To suspend, terminate, and refuse renewal of a loan originator license for violation of state or Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(6) To impose civil money penalties for individuals acting as loan originators, or representing themselves to the public as loan originators, in the state without a valid license or registration.
</P>
<P>(c) A supervisory authority must have established processes in place to verify that individuals subject to the requirement described in § 1008.103(a)(1) and (d)(1) are registered with the NMLSR.
</P>
<P>(d) The supervisory authority must be required under state law to regularly report violations of such law, as well as enforcement actions and other relevant information, to the NMLSR.
</P>
<P>(e) The supervisory authority must have a process in place for challenging information contained in the NMLSR.
</P>
<P>(f) The supervisory authority must require a loan originator to ensure that all residential mortgage loans that close as a result of the loan originator engaging in activities described in § 1008.103(b)(1) are included in reports of condition submitted to the NMLSR. Such reports of condition shall be in such form, shall contain such information, and shall be submitted with such frequency and by such dates as the NMLSR may reasonably require.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.113" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.113   Performance standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the Bureau to determine that a state is providing effective supervision and enforcement, a supervisory authority must meet the following performance standards:
</P>
<P>(1) The supervisory authority must participate in the NMLSR;
</P>
<P>(2) The supervisory authority must approve or deny loan originator license applications and must renew or refuse to renew existing loan originator licenses for violations of state or Federal law;
</P>
<P>(3) The supervisory authority must discipline loan originator licensees with appropriate enforcement actions, such as license suspensions or revocations, cease-and-desist orders, civil money penalties, and consumer refunds for violations of state or Federal law;
</P>
<P>(4) The supervisory authority must examine or investigate loan originator licensees in a systematic manner based on identified risk factors or on a periodic schedule.
</P>
<P>(b) A supervisory authority that is accredited under the Conference of State Bank Supervisors-American Association of Residential Mortgage Regulators Mortgage Accreditation Program will be presumed by the Bureau to be compliant with the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.115" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.115   Determination of noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evidence of compliance.</I> Any time a state enacts legislation that affects its compliance with the S.A.F.E. Act, it must notify the Bureau. Upon request from the Bureau, a state must provide evidence that it is in compliance with the requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act and this part, including citations to applicable state law and regulations; descriptions of processes followed by the state's supervisory authority; and data concerning examination, investigation, and enforcement actions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination of noncompliance.</I> If the Bureau makes an initial determination that a state is not in compliance with the S.A.F.E. Act, the Bureau will notify the state and will publish, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> a notice providing the Bureau's initial determination and presenting the opportunity for public comment for a period of no less than 30 days. This public comment period will allow the residents of the state and other interested members of the public to comment on the Bureau's initial determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final determination of noncompliance.</I> In making a final determination of noncompliance, the Bureau will review additional information that may be offered by a state and the comments submitted during the public comment period described in paragraph (b) of this section. If the Bureau makes a final determination that a state does not have in place by law or regulation a system that complies with the minimum requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act, as described in this part, the Bureau will publish that final determination in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Good-faith effort to comply.</I> If the Bureau makes the final determination described in paragraph (c) of this section, but the Bureau finds that the state is making a good-faith effort to meet the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 5104, 5105, 5107(d), and this subpart, the Bureau may grant the state a period of not more than 24 months to comply with these requirements. If an extension is granted to the state in accordance with this paragraph (d), then the Bureau will provide an additional initial and final determination process before it determines that the state is not in compliance and is subject to subparts C and E of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effective date of subparts C and E.</I> The provisions of subparts C and E of this part will become effective with respect to a state for which a final determination of noncompliance has been made upon:
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of the Bureau's final determination with respect to the state, pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, unless an extension had been granted to the state in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) If an extension had been granted to the state in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, the effective date of the Bureau's subsequent final determination with respect to the state following the expiration of the period of time granted pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—The Bureau's Loan Originator Licensing System and Nationwide Mortgage Licensing and Registry System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.201" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.201   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>The S.A.F.E. Act provides the Bureau with “backup authority” to establish a loan originator licensing system for any state that is determined by the Bureau not to be in compliance with the minimum standards of the S.A.F.E. Act. The provisions of this subpart become applicable to individuals in a state as provided in § 1008.115(e). The S.A.F.E. Act also authorizes the Bureau to establish and maintain a nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry if the Bureau determines that the NMLSR is failing to meet the purposes and requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act for a comprehensive licensing, supervisory, and tracking system for loan originators.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.203" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.203   The Bureau's establishment of loan originator licensing system.</HEAD>
<P>If the Bureau determines, in accordance with § 1008.115(e), that a state has not established a licensing and registration system in compliance with the minimum standards of the S.A.F.E. Act, the Bureau shall apply to individuals in that state the minimum standards of the S.A.F.E. Act, as specified in subpart B, which provides the minimum requirements that a state must meet to be in compliance with the S.A.F.E. Act, and as may be further specified in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.205" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.205   The Bureau's establishment of nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.</HEAD>
<P>If the Bureau determines that the NMLSR established by CSBS and AARMR does not meet the minimum requirements of subpart D of this part, the Bureau will establish and maintain a nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Minimum Requirements for Administration of the NMLSR</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.301" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.301   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes minimum requirements that apply to administration of the NMLSR by the Conference of State Bank Supervisors or by the Bureau. The NMLSR must accomplish the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide uniform license applications and reporting requirements for state-licensed loan originators.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide a comprehensive licensing and supervisory database.
</P>
<P>(c) Aggregate and improve the flow of information to and between regulators.
</P>
<P>(d) Provide increased accountability and tracking of loan originators.
</P>
<P>(e) Streamline the licensing process and reduce the regulatory burden.
</P>
<P>(f) Enhance consumer protections and support anti-fraud measures.
</P>
<P>(g) Provide consumers with easily accessible information, offered at no charge, utilizing electronic media, including the Internet, regarding the employment history of, and publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, loan originators.
</P>
<P>(h) Establish a means by which residential mortgage loan originators would, to the greatest extent possible, be required to act in the best interests of the consumer.
</P>
<P>(i) Facilitate responsible behavior in the mortgage marketplace and provide comprehensive training and examination requirements related to mortgage lending.
</P>
<P>(j) Facilitate the collection and disbursement of consumer complaints on behalf of state and Federal mortgage regulators.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.303" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.303   Financial reporting.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that CSBS maintains the NMLSR, CSBS must annually provide to the Bureau, and the Bureau will annually collect and make available to the public, NMLSR financial statements, audited in accordance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) promulgated by the Federal Accounting Standards Advisory Board, and other data. These financial statements and other data shall include, but not be limited to, the level and categories of funds received in relation to the NMLSR and how such funds are spent, including the aggregate total of funds paid for system development and improvements, the aggregate total of salaries and bonuses paid, the aggregate total of other administrative costs, and detail on other money spent, including money and interest paid to reimburse system investors or lenders, and a report of each state's activity with respect to the NMLSR, including the number of licensees, the state's financial commitment to the system, and the fees collected by the state through the NMLSR.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.305" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.305   Data security.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent that CSBS, AARMR, or their successors maintain the NMLSR, CSBS, AARMR, and their successors, as applicable, must complete a background check on their employees, contractors, or other persons who have access to loan originators' Social Security Numbers, fingerprints, or any credit reports collected by the system.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent that CSBS, AARMR, or their successors maintain the NMLSR, CSBS, AARMR, and their successors as applicable, must keep and adhere to an appropriate information security and privacy policy. If the NMLSR forms a reasonable belief that a security breach has occurred, it shall notify affected parties, as soon as practicable, including the Bureau, any loan originator or registrant whose data may have been compromised, and the employer of the loan originator or registrant, if such employer is also licensed through the system.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.307" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.307   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>CSBS, AARMR, or the Bureau, as applicable, may charge reasonable fees to cover the costs of maintaining and providing access to information from the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry. Fees shall not be charged to consumers for access to such system and registry. If the Bureau determines to charge fees, the fees to be charged shall be issued by notice with the opportunity for comment prior to any fees being charged.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.309" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.309   Absence of liability for good-faith administration.</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau or any organization serving as the administrator of the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry or a system established by the Bureau under 12 U.S.C. 5108 and in accordance with subpart C, or any officer or employee of the Bureau or the Bureau's designee, shall not be subject to any civil action or proceeding for monetary damages by reason of the good-faith action or omission of any officer or employee of any such entity, while acting within the scope of office or employment, relating to the collection, furnishing, or dissemination of information concerning persons who are loan originators or are applying for licensing or registration as loan originators.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Enforcement of the Bureau's Licensing System</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1008.401" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1008.401   The Bureau's authority to examine loan originator records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Summons authority.</I> The Bureau may:
</P>
<P>(1) Examine any books, papers, records, or other data of any loan originator operating in any state which is subject to a licensing system established by the Bureau under subpart C of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Summon any loan originator referred to in paragraph (a)(1) of this section or any person having possession, custody, or care of the reports and records relating to such loan originator, to appear before the Bureau at a time and place named in the summons and to produce such books, papers, records, or other data, and to give testimony, under oath, as may be relevant or material to an investigation of such loan originator for compliance with the requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination authority</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> If the Bureau establishes a licensing system under 12 U.S.C. 5107 and in accordance with subpart C of this part for any state, the Bureau shall appoint examiners for the purposes of ensuring the appropriate administration of the Bureau's licensing system.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Power to examine.</I> Any examiner appointed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall have power, on behalf of the Bureau, to make any examination of any loan originator operating in any state which is subject to a licensing system established by the Bureau under 12 U.S.C. 5107 and in accordance with subpart C of this part, whenever the Bureau determines that an examination of any loan originator is necessary to determine the compliance by the originator with minimum requirements of the S.A.F.E. Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Report of examination.</I> Each Bureau examiner appointed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall make a full and detailed report to the Bureau of examination of any loan originator examined under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Administration of oaths and affirmations; evidence.</I> In connection with examinations of loan originators operating in any state which is subject to a licensing system established by the Bureau under 12 U.S.C. 5107, and in accordance with subpart C of this part, or with other types of investigations to determine compliance with applicable law and regulations, the Bureau and the examiners appointed by the Bureau may administer oaths and affirmations and examine and take and preserve testimony under oath as to any matter in respect to the affairs of any such loan originator.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assessments.</I> The cost of conducting any examination of any loan originator operating in any state which is subject to a licensing system established by the Bureau under 12 U.S.C 5107 and in accordance with subpart C of this part shall be assessed by the Bureau against the loan originator to meet the Director's expenses in carrying out such examination.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1008.403-1008.405" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1008.403-1008.405   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.7.1.1.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1008—Examples of Mortgage Loan Originator Activities
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix provides examples to aid in the understanding of activities that would cause an individual to fall within or outside the definition of a mortgage loan originator under part 1008. The examples in this appendix are not all-inclusive. They illustrate only the issue described and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise. For purposes of the examples below, the term “loan” refers to a residential mortgage loan as defined in § 1008.23 of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Taking a Loan Application.</I> Taking a residential mortgage loan application within the meaning of § 1008.103(c)(1) means receipt by an individual, for the purpose of facilitating a decision whether to extend an offer of loan terms to a borrower or prospective borrower, of an application as defined in § 1008.23 (a request in any form for an offer, or a response to a solicitation of an offer, of residential mortgage loan terms, and the information about the borrower or prospective borrower that is customary or necessary in a decision whether to make such an offer).
</P>
<P>(1) The following are examples to illustrate when an individual takes, or does not take, a loan application:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual “takes a residential mortgage loan application” even if the individual:
</P>
<P>(A) Has received the borrower or prospective borrower's request or information indirectly. Section 1008.103(c)(1) provides that an individual takes an application, whether he or she receives it “directly or indirectly” from the borrower or prospective borrower. This means that an individual who offers or negotiates residential mortgage loan terms for compensation or gain cannot avoid licensing requirements simply by having another person physically receive the application from the prospective borrower and then pass the application to the individual;
</P>
<P>(B) Is not responsible for verifying information. The fact that an individual who takes application information from a borrower or prospective borrower is not responsible for verifying that information—for example, the individual is a mortgage broker who collects and sends that information to a lender—does not mean that the individual is not taking an application;
</P>
<P>(C) Only inputs the information into an online application or other automated system; or
</P>
<P>(D) Is not involved in approval of the loan, including determining whether the consumer qualifies for the loan. Similar to an individual who is not responsible for verification, an individual can still “take a residential mortgage loan application” even if he or she is not ultimately responsible for approving the loan. A mortgage broker, for example, can take a residential mortgage loan application even though it is passed on to a lender for a decision on whether the borrower qualifies for the loan and for the ultimate loan approval.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual does not take a loan application merely because the individual performs any of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(A) Receives a loan application through the mail and forwards it, without review, to loan approval personnel. The Bureau interprets the term “takes a residential mortgage loan application” to exclude an individual whose only role with respect to the application is physically handling a completed application form or transmitting a completed form to a lender on behalf of a borrower or prospective borrower. This interpretation is consistent with the definition of “loan originator” in section 1503(3) of the S.A.F.E. Act.
</P>
<P>(B) Assists a borrower or prospective borrower who is filling out an application by explaining the contents of the application and where particular borrower information is to be provided on the application;
</P>
<P>(C) Generally describes for a borrower or prospective borrower the loan application process without a discussion of particular loan products; or
</P>
<P>(D) In response to an inquiry regarding a prequalified offer that a borrower or prospective borrower has received from a lender, collects only basic identifying information about the borrower or prospective borrower on behalf of that lender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Offering or Negotiating Terms of a Loan.</I> The following examples are designed to illustrate when an individual offers or negotiates terms of a loan within the meaning of § 1008.103(c)(2) and, conversely, what does not constitute offering or negotiating terms of a loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Offering or negotiating the terms of a loan includes:
</P>
<P>(i) Presenting for consideration by a borrower or prospective borrower particular loan terms, whether verbally, in writing, or otherwise, even if:
</P>
<P>(A) Further verification of information is necessary;
</P>
<P>(B) The offer is conditional;
</P>
<P>(C) Other individuals must complete the loan process;
</P>
<P>(D) The individual lacks authority to negotiate the interest rate or other loan terms; or
</P>
<P>(E) The individual lacks authority to bind the person that is the source of the prospective financing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicating directly or indirectly with a borrower or prospective borrower for the purpose of reaching a mutual understanding about prospective residential mortgage loan terms, including responding to a borrower or prospective borrower's request for a different rate or different fees on a pending loan application by presenting to the borrower or prospective borrower a revised loan offer, even if a mutual understanding is not subsequently achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) Offering or negotiating terms of a loan does not include any of the following activities:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing general explanations or descriptions in response to consumer queries, such as explaining loan terminology (<I>e.g.,</I> debt-to-income ratio) or lending policies (<I>e.g.,</I> the loan-to-value ratio policy of the lender), or describing product-related services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Arranging the loan closing or other aspects of the loan process, including by communicating with a borrower or prospective borrower about those arrangements, provided that any communication that includes a discussion about loan terms only verifies terms already agreed to by the borrower or prospective borrower;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing a borrower or prospective borrower with information unrelated to loan terms, such as the best days of the month for scheduling loan closings at the bank;
</P>
<P>(iv) Making an underwriting decision about whether the borrower or prospective borrower qualifies for a loan;
</P>
<P>(v) Explaining or describing the steps that a borrower or prospective borrower would need to take in order to obtain a loan offer, including providing general guidance about qualifications or criteria that would need to be met that is not specific to that borrower or prospective borrower's circumstances;
</P>
<P>(vi) Communicating on behalf of a mortgage loan originator that a written offer has been sent to a borrower or prospective borrower without providing any details of that offer; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Offering or negotiating loan terms solely through a third-party licensed loan originator, so long as the nonlicensed individual does not represent to the public that he or she can or will perform covered activities and does not communicate with the borrower or potential borrower. For example:
</P>
<P>(A) A seller who provides financing to a purchaser of a dwelling owned by that seller in which the offer and negotiation of loan terms with the borrower or prospective borrower is conducted exclusively by a third-party licensed loan originator;
</P>
<P>(B) An individual who works solely for a lender, when the individual offers loan terms exclusively to third-party licensed loan originators and not to borrowers or potential borrowers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>For Compensation or Gain.</I> (1) An individual acts “for compensation or gain” within the meaning of § 1008.103(c)(2)(ii) if the individual receives or expects to receive in connection with the individual's activities anything of value, including, but not limited to, payment of a salary, bonus, or commission. The concept “anything of value” is interpreted broadly and is not limited only to payments that are contingent upon the closing of a loan.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual does not act “for compensation or gain” if the individual acts as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive anything of value in connection with the individual's activities.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.7.1.1.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1008—Engaging in the Business of a Loan Originator: Commercial Context and Habitualness
</HEAD>
<P>An individual who acts (or holds himself or herself out as acting) as a loan originator in a commercial context and with some degree of habitualness or repetition is considered to be “engage[d] in the business of a loan originator[.]” An individual who acts as a loan originator does so in a commercial context if the individual acts for the purpose of obtaining anything of value for himself or herself, or for an entity or individual for which the individual acts, rather than exclusively for public, charitable, or family purposes. The habitualness or repetition of the origination activities that is needed to “engage in the business of a loan originator” may be met either if the individual who acts as a loan originator does so with a degree of habitualness or repetition, or if the source of the prospective financing provides mortgage financing or performs other origination activities with a degree of habitualness or repetition. This appendix provides examples to aid in the understanding of activities that would not constitute engaging in the business of a loan originator, such that an individual is not required to obtain and maintain a state mortgage loan originator license. The examples in this appendix are not all-inclusive. They illustrate only the issue described and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise under part 1008. For purposes of the examples below, the term “loan” refers to a “residential mortgage loan” as defined in § 1008.23 of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Not Engaged in the Business of a Mortgage Loan Originator.</I> The following examples illustrate when an individual generally does not “engage in the business of a loan originator”:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who acts as a loan originator in providing financing for the sale of that individual's own residence, provided that the individual does not act as a loan originator or provide financing for such sales so frequently and under such circumstances that it constitutes a habitual and commercial activity.
</P>
<P>(2) An individual who acts as a loan originator in providing financing for the sale of a property owned by that individual, provided that such individual does not engage in such activity with habitualness.
</P>
<P>(3) A parent who acts as a loan originator in providing loan financing to his or her child.
</P>
<P>(4) An employee of a government entity who acts as a loan originator only pursuant to his or her official duties as an employee of that government entity, if all applicable conditions in § 1008.103(e)(6) of this part are met.
</P>
<P>(5) If all applicable conditions in § 1008.103(e)(7) of this part are met, an employee of a nonprofit organization that has been determined to be a bona fide nonprofit organization by the state supervisory authority, when the employee acts as a loan originator pursuant to his or her duties as an employee of that organization.
</P>
<P>(6) An individual who does not act as a loan originator habitually or repeatedly, provided that the source of prospective financing does not provide mortgage financing or perform other loan origination activities habitually or repeatedly.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.7.1.1.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1008—Independent Contractors and Loan Processor and Underwriter Activities That Require a State Mortgage Loan Originator License
</HEAD>
<P>The examples below are designed to aid in the understanding of loan processing or underwriting activities for which an individual is required to obtain a S.A.F.E. Act-compliant mortgage loan originator license. The examples in this appendix are not all-inclusive. They illustrate only the issue described and do not illustrate any other issues that may arise under part 1008. For purposes of the examples below, the term “loan” refers to a residential mortgage loan as defined in § 1008.23 of this part.
</P>
<P>(a) An individual who is a loan processor or underwriter who must obtain and maintain a state loan originator license includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Any individual who engages in the business of a loan originator, as defined in § 1008.103 of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual who performs clerical or support duties and who is an independent contractor, as those terms are defined in § 1008.23;
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual who collects, receives, distributes, or analyzes information in connection with the making of a credit decision and who is an independent contractor, as that term is defined in § 1008.23; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any individual who communicates with a consumer to obtain information necessary for making a credit decision and who is an independent contractor, as that term is defined in § 1008.23.
</P>
<P>(b) A state is not required to impose S.A.F.E. Act licensing requirements on any individual loan processor or underwriter who, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) Performs only clerical or support duties (i.e., the loan processor's or underwriter's activities do not include, e.g., offering or negotiating loan rates or terms, or counseling borrowers or prospective borrowers about loan rates or terms), and who performs those clerical or support duties at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of an individual who either: Is licensed and registered in accordance with § 1008.103(a) (state licensing of loan originators); or is not required to be licensed because he or she is excluded from the licensing requirement pursuant to § 1008.103(e)(2) (time-share exclusion), (e)(5)(federally registered loan originator), (e)(6) (government employees exclusion), or (e)(7) (nonprofit exclusion).
</P>
<P>(2) Performs only clerical or support duties as an employee of a mortgage lender or mortgage brokerage firm, and who performs those duties at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of an individual who is employed by the same employer and who is licensed in accordance with § 1008.103(a) (state licensing of loan originators).
</P>
<P>(3) Is an employee of a loan processing or underwriting company that provides loan processing or underwriting services to one or more mortgage lenders or mortgage brokerage firms under a contract between the loan processing or underwriting company and the mortgage lenders or mortgage brokerage firms, provided the employee performs only clerical or support duties and performs those duties only at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed loan originator employee of the same loan processing and underwriting company.
</P>
<P>(4) Is an individual who does not otherwise perform the activities of a loan originator and is <I>not</I> involved in the receipt, collection, distribution, or analysis of information common for the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan, nor is in communication with the consumer to obtain such information.
</P>
<P>(c) In order to conclude that an individual who performs clerical or support duties is doing so at the direction of and subject to the supervision and instruction of a loan originator who is licensed or registered in accordance with § 1008.103 (or, as applicable, an individual who is excluded from the licensing and registration requirements under § 1008.103(e)(2), (e)(6), or (e)(7)), there must be an actual nexus between the licensed or registered loan originator's (or excluded individual's) direction, supervision, and instruction and the loan processor or underwriter's activities. This actual nexus must be more than a nominal relationship on an organizational chart. For example, there is an actual nexus when:
</P>
<P>(1) The supervisory licensed or registered loan originator assigns, authorizes, and monitors the loan processor or underwriter employee's performance of clerical and support duties.
</P>
<P>(2) The supervisory licensed or registered loan originator exercises traditional supervisory responsibilities, including, but not limited to, the training, mentoring, and evaluation of the loan processor or underwriter employee.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.9.7.1.1.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1008—Attorneys: Circumstances That Require a State Mortgage Loan Originator License
</HEAD>
<P>This appendix D clarifies the circumstances in which the S.A.F.E. Act requires a licensed attorney who engages in loan origination activities to obtain a state loan originator license and registration. This special category recognizes limited, heavily regulated activities that meet strict criteria that are different from the criteria for specific exemptions from the S.A.F.E. Act requirements and the exclusions set forth in the regulations and illustrated in other appendices of part 1008.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>S.A.F.E. Act-compliant licensing required.</I> An individual who is a licensed attorney is required to be licensed if the individual is engaged in the business of a loan originator as defined in § 1008.103 and such loan origination activities are not all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Considered by the state's court of last resort (or other state governing body responsible for regulating the practice of law) to be part of the authorized practice of law within the state;
</P>
<P>(2) Carried out within an attorney-client relationship; and
</P>
<P>(3) Accomplished by the attorney in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, ethics, and standards.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>S.A.F.E. Act-compliant licensing not required.</I> A licensed attorney performing activities that come within the definition of a loan originator is not required to be licensed, provided that such activities are:
</P>
<P>(1) Considered by the state's court of last resort (or other state governing body responsible for regulating the practice of law) to be part of the authorized practice of law within the state;
</P>
<P>(2) Carried out within an attorney-client relationship; and
</P>
<P>(3) Accomplished by the attorney in compliance with all applicable laws, rules, ethics, and standards.
</P>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1009" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1009—DISCLOSURE REQUIREMENTS FOR DEPOSITORY INSTITUTIONS LACKING FEDERAL DEPOSIT INSURANCE (REGULATION I)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1831t, 5512, 5581.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78129, Dec. 16, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1009.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part, known as Regulation I, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection. This part applies to all depository institutions lacking Federal deposit insurance. It requires the disclosure of certain insurance-related information in periodic statements, account records, locations where deposits are normally received, and advertising. This part also requires such depository institutions to obtain a written acknowledgment from depositors regarding the institution's lack of Federal deposit insurance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any bank or savings association as defined under 12 U.S.C. 1813, or any credit union organized and operated according to the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, the several territories and possessions of the United States, the Panama Canal Zone, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, which laws provide for the organization of credit unions similar in principle and objectives to Federal credit unions.
</P>
<P><I>Lacking Federal deposit insurance</I> means the depository institution is neither an insured depository institution as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2), nor an insured credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act, 12 U.S.C. 1752.
</P>
<P><I>Standard maximum deposit insurance amount</I> means the maximum amount of deposit insurance as determined under section 11(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821(a)(1)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.3   Disclosures in periodic statements and account records.</HEAD>
<P>Depository institutions lacking Federal deposit insurance must include a notice disclosing clearly and conspicuously that the institution is not federally insured, and that if the institution fails, the Federal Government does not guarantee that depositors will get back their money, in all periodic statements of account, on each signature card, and on each passbook, certificate of deposit, or share certificate. For example, a notice would comply with the requirement if it conspicuously stated: “[Institution's name] is not federally insured. If it fails, the Federal Government does not guarantee that you will get your money back.” The disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous and presented in a simple and easy to understand format, type size, and manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.4   Disclosures in advertising and on the premises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required disclosures.</I> Each depository institution lacking Federal deposit insurance must include a clear and conspicuous notice disclosing that the institution is not federally insured:
</P>
<P>(1) At each station or window where deposits are normally received, its principal place of business and all its branches where it accepts deposits or opens accounts (excluding automated teller machines or point of sale terminals), and on its main internet page; and
</P>
<P>(2) In all advertisements except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format and type size.</I> The disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous and presented in a simple and easy to understand format, type size, and manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> The following need not include a notice that the institution is not federally insured:
</P>
<P>(1) Any sign, document, or other item that contains the name of the depository institution, its logo, or its contact information, but only if the sign, document, or item does not include any information about the institution's products or services or information otherwise promoting the institution; and
</P>
<P>(2) Small utilitarian items that do not mention deposit products or insurance, if inclusion of the notice would be impractical.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.5   Disclosure acknowledgment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>New depositors obtained other than through a conversion or merger.</I> With respect to any depositor who was not a depositor at the depository institution on or before October 13, 2006, and who is not a depositor as described in paragraph (b) of this section, a depository institution lacking Federal deposit insurance may receive a deposit for the account of such depositor only if the institution has obtained the depositor's signed written acknowledgement that:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution is not federally insured; and
</P>
<P>(2) If the institution fails, the Federal Government does not guarantee that the depositor will get back the depositor's money.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New depositors obtained through a conversion or merger.</I> With respect to a depositor at a federally insured depository institution that converts to, or merges into, a depository institution lacking Federal insurance after October 13, 2006, a depository institution lacking Federal deposit insurance may receive a deposit for the account of such depositor only if:
</P>
<P>(1) The institution has obtained the depositor's signed written acknowledgement described in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The institution makes an attempt, sent by mail no later than 45 days after the effective date of the conversion or merger, to obtain the acknowledgment. In making such an attempt, the institution must transmit to each depositor who has not signed and returned a written acknowledgement described in paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A conspicuous card containing the information described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, and a line for the signature of the depositor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Accompanying materials requesting the depositor to sign the card, and return the signed card to the institution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Depositors obtained on or before October 13, 2006.</I> (1) Any depository institution lacking Federal deposit insurance may receive any deposit after October 13, 2006, for the account of a depositor who was a depositor on or before that date only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The depositor has signed a written acknowledgement described in paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The institution has transmitted to the depositor:
</P>
<P>(A) A conspicuous card containing the information described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section, and a line for the signature of the depositor; and
</P>
<P>(B) Accompanying materials requesting that the depositor sign the card, and return the signed card to the institution.
</P>
<P>(2) An institution described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section must have made the transmission described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section via mail not later than three months after October 13, 2006. The institution must have made a second identical transmission via mail not less than 30 days, and not more than three months, after the first transmission to the depositor in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, if the institution has not, by the date of such mailing, received from the depositor a card referred to in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section which has been signed by the depositor.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format and type size.</I> The disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous and presented in a simple and easy to understand format, type size, and manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.6   Exception for certain depository institutions.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this part do not apply to any depository institution lacking Federal deposit insurance and located within the United States that does not receive initial deposits of less than an amount equal to the standard maximum deposit insurance amount from individuals who are citizens or residents of the United States, other than money received in connection with any draft or similar instrument issued to transmit money.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1009.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1009.7   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>Compliance with the requirements of this part shall be enforced under the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203, title X, 124 Stat. 1955, by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, subject to subtitle B of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, and under the Federal Trade Commission Act, 15 U.S.C. 41 <I>et seq,</I> by the Federal Trade Commission.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1010" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1010—LAND REGISTRATION (REGULATION J)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1718.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory terms.</I> All terms are used in accordance with their statutory meaning in 15 U.S.C. 1701, unless otherwise defined in paragraph (b) of this section or elsewhere in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other terms.</I> As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act, 15 U.S.C. 1701.
</P>
<P><I>Advisory opinion</I> means the formal written opinion of the Director as to jurisdiction in a particular case or the applicability of an exemption under §§ 1010.5 through 1010.15, based on facts submitted to the Director.
</P>
<P><I>Available for use</I> means that in addition to being constructed, the subject facility is fully operative and supplied with any materials and staff necessary for its intended purpose.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficial property restrictions</I> means restrictions that are enforceable by the lot owners and are designed to control the use of the lot and to preserve or enhance the environment and the aesthetic and economic value of the subdivision.
</P>
<P><I>Date of filing</I> means the date a Statement of Record, amendment, or consolidation, accompanied by the applicable fee, is received by the Director.
</P>
<P><I>Good faith estimate</I> means an estimate based on documentary evidence. In the case of cost estimates, the documentation may be obtained from the suppliers of the services. In the case of estimates of completion dates, the documentation may be actual contracts let, engineering schedules, or other evidence of commitments to complete the amenities.
</P>
<P><I>ILSRP</I> means the Interstate Land Sales Registration Program.
</P>
<P><I>Lot</I> means any portion, piece, division, unit, or undivided interest in land located in any state or foreign country, if the interest includes the right to the exclusive use of a specific portion of the land.
</P>
<P><I>Owner</I> means the person or entity who holds the fee title to the land and has the power to convey that title to others.
</P>
<P><I>Parent corporation</I> means that entity which ultimately controls the subsidiary, even though the control may arise through any series or chain of other subsidiaries or entities.
</P>
<P><I>Principal</I> means any person or entity holding at least a 10 percent financial or ownership interest in the developer or owner, directly or through any series or chain of subsidiaries or other entities.
</P>
<P><I>Rules</I> means all rules adopted pursuant to the Act, including the general requirements published in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Sale</I> means any obligation or arrangement for consideration to purchase or lease a lot directly or indirectly. The terms “sale” or “seller” include in their meanings the terms “lease” and “lessor”.
</P>
<P><I>Senior Executive Officer</I> means the individual of highest rank responsible for the day-to-day operations of the developer and who has the authority to bind or commit the developing entity to contractual obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Site</I> means a group of contiguous lots, whether such lots are actually divided or proposed to be divided. Lots are considered to be contiguous even though contiguity may be interrupted by a road, park, small body of water, recreational facility, or any similar object.
</P>
<P><I>Start of construction</I> means breaking ground for building a facility, followed by diligent action to complete the facility.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29115, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.2   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.3   General applicability.</HEAD>
<P>Except in the case of an exempt transaction, a developer may not sell or lease lots in a subdivision, making use of any means or instruments of transportation or communication in interstate commerce, or of the mails, unless a Statement of Record is in effect in accordance with the provisions of this part. In non-exempt transactions, the developer must give each purchaser a printed Property Report, meeting the requirements of this part, in advance of the purchaser's signing of any contract or agreement for sale or lease. Information collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB Control No. 3170-0012.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.4   Exemptions—general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The exemptions available under §§ 1010.5 through 1010.16 are not applicable when the method of sale, lease or other disposition of land or an interest in land is adopted for the purpose of evasion of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) With the exception of the sales or leases which are exempt under § 1010.5, the anti-fraud provisions of the Act (15 U.S.C. 1703(a)(2)) apply to exempt transactions. The anti-fraud provisions make it unlawful for a developer or agent to employ any device, scheme, or artifice to:
</P>
<P>(1) Defraud;
</P>
<P>(2) To obtain money or property by means of any untrue statement of a material fact, or
</P>
<P>(3) To omit to state a material fact necessary in order to make the statements made not misleading, with respect to any information pertinent to the lot or subdivision; or
</P>
<P>(4) To engage in any transaction, practice, or course of business which operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon a purchaser.
</P>
<P>(c) The anti-fraud provisions of the Act require that certain representations be included in the contract in transactions which are not exempt under § 1010.5. Specifically, the Act requires that if a developer or agent represents that roads, sewers, water, gas or electric service or recreational amenities will be provided or completed by the developer, the contract must stipulate that the services or amenities will be provided or completed.
</P>
<P>(d) Eligibility for exemptions available under §§ 1010.5 through 1010.14 is self-determining. With the exception of the exemptions available under §§ 1010.15 and 1010.16, a developer is not required to file notice with or obtain the approval of the Director in order to take advantage of an exemption. If a developer elects to take advantage of an exemption, the developer is responsible for maintaining records to demonstrate that the requirements of the exemption have been met.
</P>
<P>(e) A developer may present evidence, or otherwise discuss, in an informal hearing before the Office of Supervision Examinations, the Bureau's position on the jurisdiction or non-exempt status of a particular subdivision.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29115, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.5   Statutory exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>A listing of the statutory exemptions is contained in 15 U.S.C. 1702. In accordance with 15 U.S.C. 1702(a)(2), if the sale involves a condominium or multi-unit construction, a presale clause conditioning the sale of a unit on a certain percentage of sales of other units is permissible if it is legally binding on the parties and is for a period not to exceed 180 days. However, the 180-day provision cannot extend the 2-year period for performance. The permissible 180 days is calculated from the date the first purchaser signs a sales contract in the project or, if a phased project, from the date the first purchaser signs the first sales contract in each phase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.6   One hundred lot exemption.</HEAD>
<P>The sale of lots in a subdivision is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act if, since April 28, 1969, the subdivision has contained fewer than 100 lots, exclusive of lots which are exempt from jurisdiction under § 1010.5. In the sale of lots in the subdivision that are not exempt under § 1010.5, the developer must comply with the Act's anti-fraud provisions, set forth in § 1010.4(b) and (c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.7   Twelve lot exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sale of lots is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act if, beginning with the first sale after June 20, 1980, no more than twelve lots in the subdivision are sold in the subsequent twelve-month period. Thereafter, the sale of the first twelve lots is exempt from the registration requirements if no more than twelve lots were sold in each previous twelve month period which began with the anniversary date of the first sale after June 20, 1980.
</P>
<P>(b) A developer may apply to the Director to establish a different twelve month period for use in determining eligibility for the exemption and the Director may allow the change if it is for good cause and consistent with the purpose of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining eligibility for this exemption, all lots sold or leased in the subdivision after June 20, 1980, are counted, whether or not the transactions are otherwise exempt. Sales or leases made prior to June 21, 1980, are not considered in determining eligibility for the exemption.
</P>
<P>(d) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.8   Scattered site subdivisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sale of lots in a subdivision consisting of noncontiguous parts is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act if:
</P>
<P>(1) Each noncontiguous part of the subdivision contains twenty or fewer lots; and
</P>
<P>(2) Each purchaser or purchaser's spouse makes a personal, on-the-lot inspection of the lot purchased prior to signing a contract.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this exemption, interruptions such as roads, parks, small bodies of water or recreational facilities do not serve to break the contiguity of parts of a subdivision.
</P>
<P>(c) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.9   Twenty acre lots.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sale of lots in a subdivision is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act if, since April 28, 1969, each lot in the subdivision has contained at least twenty acres. In determining eligibility for the exemption, easements for ingress and egress or public utilities are considered part of the total acreage of the lot if the purchaser retains ownership of the property affected by the easement.
</P>
<P>(b) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.10   Single-family residence exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The sale of a lot which meets the requirements specified under paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subdivision requirements.</I> (1) The subdivision must meet all local codes and standards.
</P>
<P>(2) In the promotion of the subdivision there must be no offers, by direct mail or telephone solicitation, of gifts, trips, dinners or use of similar promotional techniques to induce prospective purchasers to visit the subdivision or to purchase a lot.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lot requirements.</I> (1) The lot must be located within a municipality or county where a unit of local government or the state specifies minimum standards in the following areas for the development of subdivision lots taking place within its boundaries:
</P>
<P>(i) Lot dimensions.
</P>
<P>(ii) Plat approval and recordation.
</P>
<P>(iii) Roads and access.
</P>
<P>(iv) Drainage.
</P>
<P>(v) Flooding.
</P>
<P>(vi) Water supply.
</P>
<P>(vii) Sewage disposal.
</P>
<P>(2) Each lot sold under the exemption must be either zoned for single-family residences or, in the absence of a zoning ordinance, limited exclusively by enforceable covenants or restrictions to single-family residences. Manufactured homes, townhouses, and residences for one-to-four family use are considered single-family residences for purposes of this exemption provision.
</P>
<P>(3) The lot must be situated on a paved street or highway which has been built to standards established by the state or the unit of local government in which the subdivision is located. If the roads are to be public roads they must be acceptable to the unit of local government that will be responsible for maintenance. If the street or highway is not complete, the developer must post a bond or other surety acceptable to the municipality or county in the full amount of the cost of completing the street or highway to assure completion to local standards. For purposes of this exemption, <I>paved</I> means concrete or pavement with a bituminous surface that is impervious to water, protects the base and is durable under the traffic load and maintenance contemplated.
</P>
<P>(4) The unit of local government or a homeowners association must have accepted or be obligated to accept the responsibility for maintaining the street or highway upon which the lot is situated. In any case in which a homeowners association has accepted or is obligated to accept maintenance responsibility, the developer must, prior to signing of a contract or agreement to purchase, provide the purchaser with a good faith written estimate of the cost of carrying out the responsibility over the first ten years of ownership.
</P>
<P>(5) At the time of closing, potable water, sanitary sewage disposal, and electricity must be extended to the lot or the unit of local government must be obligated to install the facilities within 180 days following closing. For subdivisions which will not have a central water or sewage disposal system, there must be assurances that an adequate potable water supply is available year-round and that the lot is approved for the installation of a septic tank.
</P>
<P>(6) The contract of sale must require delivery within 180 days after the signing of the sales contract of a warranty deed, which at the time of delivery is free from monetary liens and encumbrances. If a warranty deed is not commonly used in the jurisdiction where the lot is located, a deed or grant which warrants that the seller has not conveyed the lot to another person may be delivered in lieu of a warranty deed. The deed or grant used must warrant that the lot is free from encumbrances made by the seller or any other person claiming by, through, or under the seller.
</P>
<P>(7) At the time of closing, a title insurance binder or title opinion reflecting the condition of title must be in existence and issued or presented to the purchaser showing that, subject only to exceptions which are approved in writing by the purchaser at the time of closing, marketable title to the lot is vested in the seller.
</P>
<P>(8) The purchaser or purchaser's spouse must make a personal, on-the-lot inspection of the lot purchased prior to signing a contract or agreement to purchase.
</P>
<P>(d) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.11   Manufactured home exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The sale of a lot is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act when the following eligibility requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The lot is sold as a homesite by one party and a manufactured home is sold by another party and the contracts of sale:
</P>
<P>(i) Obligate the sellers to perform, contingent upon the other seller carrying out its obligations so that a completed manufactured home will be erected on a completed homesite within two years after the date the purchaser signed the contract to purchase the lot;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide that all funds received by the sellers are to be deposited in escrow accounts independent of the sellers until the transactions are completed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide that funds received by the sellers will be released to the buyer upon demand if the lot on which the manufactured home has been erected is not conveyed within two years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Contain no provisions which restrict the purchaser's remedy of bringing suit for specific performance.
</P>
<P>(2) The homesite is developed in conformance with all local codes and standards, if any, for manufactured home subdivisions.
</P>
<P>(3) At the time of closing:
</P>
<P>(i) Potable water and sanitary sewage disposal are available to the homesite and electricity has been extended to the lot line;
</P>
<P>(ii) The homesite is accessible by roads;
</P>
<P>(iii) The purchaser receives marketable title to the lot; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other common facilities represented in any manner by the developer or agent to be provided are completed or there are letters of credit, cash escrows or surety bonds in the form acceptable to the local government in an amount equal to 100 percent of the estimated cost of completion. Corporate bonds are not acceptable for purposes of the exemption.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of this section, a manufactured home is a unit receiving a label in conformance with U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) regulations implementing the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5401).
</P>
<P>(b) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.12" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.12   Intrastate exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> The sale of a lot is exempt from the registration requirements of the Act if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The sale of lots in the subdivision after December 20, 1979, is restricted solely to residents of the state in which the subdivision is located unless the sale is exempt under § 1010.5, § 1010.11, or § 1010.13.
</P>
<P>(2) The purchaser or purchaser's spouse makes a personal on-the-lot inspection of the lot to be purchased before signing a contract.
</P>
<P>(3) Each contract:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifies the developer's and purchaser's responsibilities for providing and maintaining roads, water and sewer facilities and any existing or promised amenities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a good faith estimate of the year in which the roads, water and sewer facilities and promised amenities will be completed; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains a non-waivable provision giving the purchaser the opportunity to revoke the contract until at least midnight of the seventh calendar day following the date the purchaser signed the contract. If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract must reflect the requirements of the longer period.
</P>
<P>(4) The lot being sold is free and clear of all liens, encumbrances and adverse claims except the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgages or deeds of trust which contain release provisions for the individual lot purchased if:
</P>
<P>(A) The contract of sale obligates the developer to deliver, within 180 days, a warranty deed (or its equivalent under local law), which at the time of delivery is free from any monetary liens or encumbrances; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purchaser's payments are deposited in an escrow account independent of the developer until a deed is delivered.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liens which are subordinate to the leasehold interest and do not affect the lessee's right to use or enjoy the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) Property reservations which are for the purpose of bringing public services to the land being developed, such as easements for water and sewer lines.
</P>
<P>(iv) Taxes or assessments which constitute liens before they are due and payable if imposed by a state or other public body having authority to assess and tax property or by a property owners' association.
</P>
<P>(v) Beneficial property restrictions that are mutually enforceable by the lot owners in the subdivision. Restrictions, whether separately recorded or incorporated into individual deeds, must be applied uniformly to every lot or group of lots. To be considered beneficial and enforceable, any restriction or covenant that imposes an assessment on lot owners must apply to the developer on the same basis as other lot owners. Developers who maintain control of a subdivision through a Property Owners' Association, Architectural Control Committee, restrictive covenant or otherwise, shall transfer such control to the lot owners no later than when the developer ceases to own a majority of total lots in, or planned for, the subdivision. Relinquishment of developer control shall require affirmative action, usually in the form of an election based upon one vote per lot.
</P>
<P>(vi) Reservations contained in United States land patents and similar Federal grants or reservations.
</P>
<P>(5) Prior to the sale the developer discloses in a written statement to the purchaser all qualifying liens, reservations, taxes, assessments and restrictions applicable to the lot purchased. The developer must obtain a written receipt from the purchaser acknowledging that the statement required by this subparagraph was delivered to the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(6) Prior to the sale the developer provides in a written statement good faith estimates of the cost to the purchaser of providing electric, water, sewer, gas and telephone service to the lot. The estimates for unsold lots must be updated every two years or more frequently if the developer has reason to believe that significant cost increases have occurred. The dates on which the estimates were made must be included in the statement. The developer must obtain a written receipt from the purchaser acknowledging that the statement required by this subparagraph was delivered to the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Intrastate Exemption Statement.</I> To satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (a)(5) and (6) of this section, an Intrastate Exemption Statement containing the information prescribed in each such paragraph shall be given to each purchaser. A State-approved disclosure document may be used to satisfy this requirement if all the information required by paragraphs (a)(5) and (6) of this section is included in this disclosure. In such a case, the developer must obtain a written receipt from the purchaser and comply with all other requirements of the exemption. To be acceptable for purposes of the exemption, the statement(s) given to purchasers must contain neither advertising nor promotion on behalf of the developer or subdivision nor references to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection or the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau. A sample Intrastate Exemption Statement is included in the exemption guidelines.
</P>
<P>(c) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.13" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.13   Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) exemption.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> The sale of a lot which meets the following requirements is exempt from registration requirements of the Act:
</P>
<P>(1) The lot is in a subdivision which contains fewer than 300 lots and has contained fewer than 300 lots since April 28, 1969.
</P>
<P>(2) The lot is located within a Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) as defined by the Office of Management and Budget and characterized in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The principal residence of the purchaser is within the same MSA as the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(4) The purchaser or purchaser's spouse makes a personal on-the-lot inspection of the lot to be purchased prior to signing a contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) Each contract:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifies the developer's and purchaser's responsibilities for providing and maintaining roads, water and sewer facilities and any existing or promised amenities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a good faith estimate of the year in which the roads, water and sewer facilities and promised amenities will be completed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains a nonwaivable provision giving the purchaser the opportunity to revoke the contract until at least midnight of the seventh calendar day following the date the purchaser signed the contract, or, if the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract must reflect the requirements of the longer period.
</P>
<P>(6) The lot being sold must be free and clear of liens such as mortgages, deeds of trust, tax liens, mechanics' liens, or judgments. For purposes of this exemption, the term <I>liens</I> does not include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgages or deeds of trust which contain release provisions for the individual lot purchased if:
</P>
<P>(A) The contract of sale obligates the developer to deliver, within 180 days, a warranty deed (or its equivalent under local law), which at the time of delivery is free from any monetary liens or encumbrances; and
</P>
<P>(B) The purchaser's payments are deposited in an escrow account independent of the developer until a deed is delivered.
</P>
<P>(ii) Liens which are subordinate to the leasehold interest and do not affect the lessee's right to use or enjoy the lot.
</P>
<P>(iii) Property reservations which are for the purpose of bringing public services to the land being developed, such as easements for water and sewer lines.
</P>
<P>(iv) Taxes or assessments which constitute liens before they are due and payable if imposed by a state or other public body having authority to assess and tax property or by a property owners' association.
</P>
<P>(v) Beneficial property restrictions that are mutually enforceable by the lot owners in the subdivision. Restrictions, whether separately recorded or incorporated into individual deeds, must be applied uniformly to every lot or group of lots. To be considered beneficial and enforceable, any restriction or covenant that imposes an assessment on lot owners must apply to the developer on the same basis as other lot owners. Developers who maintain control of a subdivision through a Property Owners' Association, Architectural Control Committee, restrictive covenants, or otherwise, shall transfer such control to the lot owners no later than when the developer ceases to own a majority of total lots in, or planned for, the subdivision. Relinquishment of developer control shall require affirmative action, usually in the form of an election based upon one vote per lot.
</P>
<P>(vi) Reservations contained in United States land patents and similar Federal grants or reservations.
</P>
<P>(7) Before the sale the developer gives a written MSA Exemption Statement to the purchaser and obtains a written receipt acknowledging that the statement was received. A sample MSA Exemption Statement is included in the exemption guidelines. A State-approved disclosure document may be used to satisfy this requirement if all of the information required by this section is included. The statement(s) given to purchasers must contain neither advertising nor promotion on behalf of the developer or the subdivision nor references to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection or the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau. In descriptive and concise terms, the statement that the developer must give the purchaser shall disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(i) All liens, reservations, taxes, assessments, beneficial property restrictions which are enforceable by other lot owners in the subdivision, and adverse claims which are applicable to the lot to be purchased.
</P>
<P>(ii) Good faith estimates of the cost to the purchaser of providing electric, water, sewer, gas and telephone service to the lot. The estimates for unsold lots must be updated every two years, or more frequently if the developer has reason to believe that significant cost increases have occurred. The dates on which the estimates were made must be included in the statement.
</P>
<P>(8) The developer executes and gives to the purchaser a written instrument designating a person within the state of residence of the purchaser as the developer's agent for service of process. The developer must also acknowledge in writing that it submits to the legal jurisdiction of the state in which the purchaser or lessee resides.
</P>
<P>(9) The developer executes a written affirmation for each sale made under this exemption. By January 31 of each year, the developer submits to the Director a copy of the executed affirmation for each sale made during the preceding calendar year or a master affirmation in which are listed all purchasers' names and addresses and the identity of the lots purchased. Individual affirmations must be available for the Director's review at all times during the year. The affirmation must be in the form provided in section I of the appendix to this part: Form for Developer's Affirmation for Land Sale.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Metropolitan Statistical Area.</I> Metropolitan Statistical Areas are defined by the Office of Management and Budget generally on the basis of population statistics reported in a census. To determine whether a subdivision is located within an MSA and the boundaries of an MSA, contact the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget, 726 Jackson Place NW., Washington, DC 20503.
</P>
<P>(c) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.14   Regulatory exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> The following transactions are exempt from the registration requirements of the Act unless the Director has terminated the exemption in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) The sale of lots, each of which will be sold for less than $100, including closing costs, if the purchaser will not be required to purchase more than one lot.
</P>
<P>(2) The lease of lots for a term not to exceed five years if the terms of the lease do not obligate the lessee to renew.
</P>
<P>(3) The sale of lots to a person who is engaged in a bona fide land sales business.
</P>
<P>(4) The sale of a lot to a person who owns the contiguous lot which has a residential, commercial or industrial building on it.
</P>
<P>(5) The sale of real estate to a government or government agency.
</P>
<P>(6) The sale of a lot to a person who has leased and resided primarily on the lot for at least the year preceding the sale.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination.</I> If the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that exemption from the registration requirements in a particular case is not in the public interest, the Director may, after issuing a notice and giving the respondent an opportunity to request a hearing within fifteen days of receipt of the notice, terminate eligibility for exemption. The basis for issuing a notice may be the conduct of the developer or agent, such as unlawful conduct or insolvency, or adverse information about the lots or real estate that should be disclosed to the purchasers. Proceedings will be governed by § 1012.238.
</P>
<P>(c) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.15   Regulatory exemption—multiple site subdivision—determination required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) The sale of lots contained in multiple sites of fewer than 100 lots each, offered pursuant to a single common promotional plan, is exempt from the registration requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this exemption, the sale of lots in an individual site that exceeds 99 lots is not exempt from registration. Likewise, the sale of lots in a site containing fewer than 100 lots, where the developer either owns contiguous land or holds an option or other evidence of intent to acquire contiguous land which, when taken cumulatively, would or could result in one site of 100 or more lots, is not exempt from registration. Furthermore, the sale of lots that are within a subdivision established by a separate developer is not exempt from registration by this provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> The sale of each lot must meet the following requirements to be eligible for this exemption.
</P>
<P>(1) The lot is sold “as is” with all advertised improvements and amenities completed and in the condition advertised.
</P>
<P>(2) The lot is in conformance with all local codes and standards.
</P>
<P>(3) The lot is accessible, both legally and physically. For lots which are advertised or otherwise represented as “residential,” either primary or secondary, with any inference that a permanent or temporary dwelling unit of any description (excluding collapsible tents) can be built or installed, physical access must be available by automobile, pick-up truck or equivalent “on-road” vehicle.
</P>
<P>(4) At the time of closing, a title insurance binder or title opinion reflecting the condition of title must be issued to the purchaser showing that, subject only to exceptions approved in writing by the purchaser at the time of closing, marketable title is vested in the seller.
</P>
<P>(5) Each contract or agreement and any promissory notes:
</P>
<P>(i) Contain the non-waivable provision found in section II of the appendix to this part: Language Notifying Buyer of Option to Cancel Contract in bold face type (which must be distinguished from the type used for the rest of the document) on the face or signature page above all signatures. If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state or local law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract must reflect the requirement of the longer period rather than the seven days. The revocation provisions may not be limited or qualified in the contract or other document by requiring a specific type of notice or by requiring that notice be given at a specified place.
</P>
<P>(ii) Obligate the developer to deliver, within 180 days, a warranty deed (or its equivalent under local law) for the lot which at the time of delivery is free from any monetary liens or encumbrances.
</P>
<P>(6) The purchaser or purchaser's spouse makes a personal on-the-lot inspection of the lot to be purchased before signing a contract.
</P>
<P>(7) The purchaser's payments are deposited in an escrow account independent of the developer until a deed is delivered.
</P>
<P>(8) Prior to the purchaser signing a contract or agreement of sale, the developer discloses in a written Lot Information Statement all liens, reservations, taxes, assessments, easements and restrictions applicable to the lot purchased (see paragraph (b)(11) of this section).
</P>
<P>(9) Prior to the purchaser signing a contract or agreement of sale, the developer discloses in a written Lot Information Statement the name, address and telephone number of the local governmental agency or agencies from which information on permits or other requirements for water, sewer and electrical installations can be obtained. This Statement will also contain the name, address and telephone number of the suppliers which would or could provide the foregoing services.
</P>
<P>(10) The lot sale must comply with the anti-fraud provisions of 12 CFR 1010.4(b) and (c) and the sales practices and standards in §§ 1011.10 through 1011.28.
</P>
<P>(11) A written Lot Information Statement must be delivered to, and acknowledged by, each purchaser prior to his or her signing a contract or agreement of sale, and must contain the information shown in the format below. The Statement must be typed or printed in at least 10 point font. A copy of the acknowledgement will be maintained by the developer for three years and will be made available to ILSRP upon request. If the Statement is not delivered as required, the contract or agreement of sale may be revoked and a full refund paid, at the option of the purchaser, within two years of the signing date and the contract or agreement of sale will clearly provide this right. A sample format for the Statement is provided in section III of the appendix to this part: Sample Lot Information Statement and Sample Receipt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption.</I> (1) The developer must file a request for the Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption. The request must be accompanied by a filing fee of $500 (prepared in accordance with § 1010.35(a)) and a sample Lot Information Statement, substantially in the form set forth in section IV of the appendix to this part: Request for Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption.
</P>
<P>(2) This exemption will become effective upon issuance of an Exemption Order by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual Report.</I> (1) By January 31 of each year the developer will send a report to the Director listing each site and its location available for a sale pursuant to the exemption during the preceding year and indicate the number of lot sales made in each site. The report will describe any changes in the information provided in the Request for the Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption or contain a statement that there are no changes.
</P>
<P>(2) The Annual Report must be accompanied by a filing fee of $100.
</P>
<P>(3) The Annual Report must be signed and dated by the developer, attesting to its completeness and accuracy.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to submit the Annual Report within ten days after the receipt of notice from the Director will automatically terminate eligibility for the exemption as of the Report due date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination.</I> If, subsequent to the issuance of an Exemption Order, the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that exemption from the registration requirements in the particular case is not in the public interest, the Director may, after issuing a notice and giving the respondent an opportunity to request a hearing within fifteen days of receipt of the notice, terminate the exemption order. The basis for issuing a notice may be apparent omissions or misrepresentations in the documents submitted to the Director, the conduct of the developer or agent, such as unlawful conduct or insolvency, or adverse information about the real estate that should be disclosed to purchasers. Proceedings will be governed by § 1012.238.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.16" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.16   Regulatory exemption—determination required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Director may exempt from the registration requirements of the Act any subdivision or lots in a subdivision by issuing an order in writing if it is determined that registration is not necessary in the public interest and for the protection of purchasers on the basis of the small amount or limited character of the offering and the requirements contained in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> An exemption order may be issued at the discretion of the Director on the basis of the small amount or limited character of the offering if the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The subdivision or sales substantially meet the requirements of one of the exemptions available under this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Each contract:
</P>
<P>(i) Specifies the developer's and purchaser's responsibilities for providing and maintaining roads, water and sewer facilities and any existing or promised amenities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains a good faith estimate of the year in which the roads, water and sewer facilities and promised amenities will be completed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains a non-waivable provision giving the purchaser the opportunity to revoke the contract until at least midnight of the seventh calendar day following the date the purchaser signed the contract. If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract must reflect the requirements of the longer period.
</P>
<P>(iv) Contains a provision that obligates the developer to deliver to the purchaser within 180 days of the date the purchaser signed the sales contract, a warranty deed, or its equivalent under local law, which at the time of delivery is free from any monetary liens or encumbrances.
</P>
<P>(3) The purchaser or purchaser's spouse makes a personal on-the-lot inspection of the lot to be purchased before signing a contract.
</P>
<P>(4) The developer files a request for an exemption order and supporting documentation in accordance with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section and submits a filing fee of $500.00 in accordance with § 1010.35(a) of this part. This fee is not refundable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request.</I> The request for an Exemption Order must be substantially in the format set forth in section V of the appendix to this part: Request for Regulatory Exemption Order.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Supporting documentation.</I> A request for an exemption order must be accompanied by the following documentation:
</P>
<P>(1) A plat of the entire subdivision with the lots subject to the exemption request delineated thereon.
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the contract to be used.
</P>
<P>(3) A clear and specific statement detailing how the proposed sales of lots subject to the exemption request substantially complies with one of the available exemption provisions.
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the method by which the lots have been and will be promoted and to which population centers the promotion has been and will be directed.
</P>
<P>(e) The sale must also comply with the anti-fraud provisions of § 1010.4(b) and (c) of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination.</I> If, subsequent to the issuance of an exemption order, the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that exemption from the registration requirements in the particular case is not in the public interest, the Director may, after issuing a notice and giving the respondent an opportunity to request a hearing within fifteen days of receipt of the notice, terminate the exemption order. The basis for issuing a notice may be apparent omissions or misrepresentations in the documents submitted to the Director, the conduct of the developer or agent, such as unlawful conduct or insolvency, or adverse information about the real estate that should be disclosed to purchasers. Proceedings will be governed by § 1012.238.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.17" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.17   Advisory opinion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A developer may request an opinion from the Director as to whether an offering qualifies for an exemption or is subject to the jurisdiction of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> All requests for Advisory Opinions must be accompanied by the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A $500.00 filing fee submitted in accordance with § 1010.35(a). This fee is not refundable.
</P>
<P>(2) A comprehensive description of the conditions and operations of the offering. There is no prescribed format for submitting this information, but the developer should at least cite the applicable statutory or regulatory basis for the exemption or lack of jurisdiction and thoroughly explain how the offering either satisfies the requirements for exemption or falls outside the purview of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) An affirmation as set forth in section VI of the appendix to this part: Developer's Affirmation for Advisory Opinion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.18" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.18   No Action Letter.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the sale of lots is subject to the registration requirements of the Act but the circumstances of the sale are such that no affirmative action to enforce the registration requirements is needed to protect the public interest or prospective purchasers, the Director may issue a No Action Letter.
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a No Action Letter a developer must submit a request which includes a thorough description of the proposed transaction, the property involved, and the circumstances surrounding the sale.
</P>
<P>(c) The issuance of a No Action Letter will not affect any right which a purchaser has under the Act, and it will not limit future action by the Director if there is evidence to show that affirmative action is necessary to protect the public interest or prospective purchasers. In no event will a No Action Letter be issued after the sale has occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.19" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.20   Requirements for registering a subdivision—Statement of Record—filing and form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> (1) In order to register a subdivision and receive an effective date, the developer or owner of the subdivision must file a Statement of Record with the Director by either:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. Mail, to the following official address: Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Electronic means designated on the ILSA program page on the Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/.</I>
</P>
<P>(2) When the Statement of Record is filed, a fee in the amount set out in § 1010.35(b) must be paid in accordance with § 1010.35(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form.</I> (1) The Statement of Record shall be in the format specified in § 1010.100 and shall be completed in accordance with the instructions in §§ 1010.102, 1010.105 through 1010.118, 1010.200, 1010.208 through 1010.216, and 1010.219. It shall be supported by the documents required by §§ 1010.208 through 1010.216 and 1010.219. It shall include any other information or documents which the Director may require as being necessary or appropriate for the protection of purchasers.
</P>
<P>(2) The requirements relating to paper type, tabs, folding, and ordering for filings with the Bureau in § 1010.102(a), (g), and (h) do not apply if a Statement of Record is filed with the Bureau via electronic means designated on the Bureau's Web site pursuant to § 1010.20(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>State filings.</I> A Statement of Record submitted under the provisions of 12 CFR part 1010, subpart C—Certification of Substantially Equivalent State Law, shall consist of the materials designated by the Certification Agreement between the Director and the certified state in which the subdivision is located.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.21" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.21   Effective dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The effective date of an initial, consolidated or amended Statement of Record is the 30th day after the filing of the latest amendatory material unless the Director notifies the developer in writing prior to such 30th day that:
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date has been suspended in accordance with § 1010.45(a), or
</P>
<P>(2) An earlier effective date has been determined.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension of effective date by developer.</I> (1) A developer, or owner, may request that the effective date of its Statement of Record be suspended, provided there are no administrative proceedings pending against either of them at the time the request is submitted. The request must include any consolidations or amendments which have been made to the initial Statement of Record and may be submitted via the electronic means of submission described in § 1010.20(a). Forms for this purpose will be furnished by the Director upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon acceptance by the Director, the effectiveness of the Statement of Record shall be suspended as of the date the request was executed by the developer or owner.
</P>
<P>(3) The suspension shall continue until the developer, or owner, submits all amendments necessary to bring the registration into full compliance with the Regulations which are in effect on the date of the amendments and the Director allows those amendments to become effective.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.22" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.22   Statement of record—initial or consolidated.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial Statement of Record.</I> (1) Except in the case of exempt transactions, an initial Statement of Record shall be filed, and an effective date issued, prior to selling or leasing any lot in a subdivision.
</P>
<P>(2) If a developer buys from another developer 100 or more lots from an existing registration, the new developer, or owner, may have to submit a new initial Statement of Record and receive an effective date covering the acquired lots prior to selling or leasing any of those lots.
</P>
<P>(3) Changes in principals due to a sale of stock in a corporation or changes in partners or joint venturers which are accomplished in accordance with the partnership or joint venture agreement but which do not cause a change in the title to the land in the subdivision may be submitted as an amendment.
</P>
<P>(4) Any initial Statement of Record must be accompanied by a fee, as specified in § 1010.35(b), based upon the number of lots sought to be registered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidated Statement of Record.</I> (1) If the developer intends to sell or lease additional lots as part of the same common promotional plan with lots already registered, a consolidated Statement of Record may be submitted for the additional lots. A fee, as specified in § 1010.35(b) and based on the number of additional lots, must accompany the submission. The additional lots may not be sold or leased until a new effective date is issued.
</P>
<P>(2) If the additional lots are simply the result of a replatting of lots previously registered and enumerated in the Property Report and do not include any additional land, the change may be made by an amendment. However, the amendment must be accompanied by a fee, as specified in § 1010.35(b), based on the number of additional lots.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consolidated Statement of Record—Form.</I> A consolidated Statement of Record shall contain the elements listed in paragraphs (c)(1) through (4) of this section. Pages having no changes and documents in previous submissions which apply equally to the additional lots may be included by reference. However, the developer may, at its option, submit the entire format for an initial filing, including copies of previously submitted documents, to expedite the examination process.
</P>
<P>(1) Those pages of the Property Report portion and Additional Information and Documentation portion which contain changes which have occurred since the last effective submission, and
</P>
<P>(2) A recapitulation or listing of each of the section headings, and subheadings if necessary, of the Additional Information and Documentation portion. Each item of the listing shall contain a statement as to whether or not any change is made in the section; whether any new or additional information is being submitted and, if documentation is added by cross reference, the previous submission in which that documentation may be found, and
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation to support the additional lots (<I>e.g.,</I> plat maps, topographic maps and general plan to reflect new lots, title information, permits for additional facilities, financial assurances of completion of additional facilities, financial statements) or updated or expanded documents in support of previous submissions, and
</P>
<P>(4) The affirmation required by § 1010.219.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consolidated Statement of Record amends prior Statement of Record.</I> A Consolidated Statement of Record shall contain all applicable information for all registered lots in the subdivision except those deleted pursuant to other provisions in these regulations. The resulting Property Report shall be used for all sales in the subdivision, except for those transactions which are exempt from the provisions of the Act or which have been granted an exempt status by the Director, unless the Director has specifically authorized the use of multiple Property Reports.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initial Statement of Record—when prior approval to submit is required.</I> In those subdivisions where there is a disparity between the lots already registered and those sought to be registered because of location, terrain, proposed use of the lots or the amenities to be furnished or available, the developer may present a resume of the differences and request the Director's permission to file a separate initial Statement of Record for the additional lots. Upon consideration of the facts submitted, the Director may allow such a procedure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Lots which have been deleted from registration.</I> Should the developer, for any reason, delete by amendment any registered lots from an effective Statement of Record, those lots must be reregistered by a consolidation and a new effective date issued, before they can be sold or leased. An appropriate fee must accompany the submission.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lots sold to individual purchasers.</I> It is not necessary to delete from the registration those lots which have been sold to individual purchasers for their own use.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.23" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.23   Amendment—filing and form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> If any change occurs in any representation of material fact required to be stated in an effective Statement of Record, an amendment shall be filed. The amendment shall be filed within 15 days of the date on which the developer knows, or should have known, that there has been a change in material fact. The amendment may be filed via the electronic means of submission described in § 1010.20(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form.</I> An amendment shall include by reference the prior Statement of Record except for any changes in material fact. A change in material fact shall be specifically described and supported by the same documentation which would be required for an initial submission. Any amendment shall be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A letter from the developer giving a clear and concise description of the purpose and significance of the amendment and referring to the section and page of the Statement of Record which is being amended, and
</P>
<P>(2) All pages of the Statement of Record, which have been amended, retyped in the required format to reflect the changes. The ILSRP number of the Statement of Record shall appear at the top of each page of the material submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amendments to suspended filings.</I> Developers wishing to reactivate a suspended filing shall file the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any amendments necessary to bring the filing into compliance, submitted in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) An activity report in the form prescribed by § 1010.310; and
</P>
<P>(3) An amendment fee, if required under § 1010.35(d)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1010.24-1010.28" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1010.24-1010.28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.29" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.29   Use of property report—misstatements, omissions, or representation of Bureau approval prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in these regulations shall be construed to authorize or approve the use of a property report containing any untrue statement of a material fact or omitting to state a material fact required to be stated therein. Nor shall anything in these regulations be construed to authorize or permit any representation that the Property Report is prepared or approved by the Director, ILSRP or the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.35" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.35   Payment of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method of payment.</I> (1) Each fee must be paid by:
</P>
<P>(i) Certified check, cashier's check, or postal money order made payable to the Treasurer of the United States, with the registration number, when known, and the name, of the subdivision on the face of the check, and mailed to an address specified by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Electronic payment in a manner specified by the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) Information regarding the current mailing address or electronic payment procedures is available from: Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552, or on the Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees for registration.</I> The fee for each initial and consolidated registration is set forth in section VII of the appendix to this part: Initial and Consolidated Registration Fee Schedule.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee for Exemption Order or Advisory Opinion.</I> The filing fee for an Exemption Order or an Advisory Opinion (§ 1010.16 or § 1010.17) is $500. This fee is not refundable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment fee.</I> (1) A fee of $800 is charged when an Annual Activity Report reflects an annual ending inventory of 101 or more unsold registered lots.
</P>
<P>(2) A fee of $800 is charged for an amendment to reactivate a Statement of Record subsequent to its suspension, unless the developer has 100 or fewer unsold lots included in the Statement of Record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.45" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.1.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.45   Suspensions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Suspension notice—prior to effective date.</I> (1) If it appears to the Director that a Statement of Record or an amendment is on its face incomplete or inaccurate in any material respect, the Director shall so advise the developer, by issuing a suspension notice, within a reasonable time after the filing of such materials but prior to the time the materials would otherwise be effective.
</P>
<P>(2) A suspension notice issued pursuant to this subsection shall suspend the effective date of the Statement of Record or the amendment. It shall continue in effect until 30 days, or such earlier date as the Director may determine, after the necessary amendments are submitted which correct all deficiencies cited in the notice.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of a suspension notice, the developer has 15 days in which to request a hearing. If a hearing is requested, it shall be held within 20 days of the receipt of the request by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension orders—subsequent to effective date.</I> (1) A notice of proceedings to suspend an effective Statement of Record may be issued to a developer if the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that an effective Statement of Record includes an untrue statement of a material fact, or omits a material fact required by the Act or rules and regulations, or omits a material fact which is necessary to make the statements therein not misleading. The Director may, after notice, and after opportunity for a hearing requested pursuant to § 1012.220 within 15 days of receipt of such notice, issue an order suspending the Statement of Record. In the event that a suspension order is issued, such order shall remain in effect until the developer has amended the Statement of Record or otherwise complied with the requirements of the order. When the developer has complied with the requirements of the order, the Director shall so declare and thereupon the suspension order shall cease to be effective.
</P>
<P>(2) If the Director undertakes an examination of a developer or its records to determine whether a suspension order should be issued, and the developer fails to cooperate with the Director or obstructs, or refuses to permit the Director to make such examination, the Director may issue an order suspending the Statement of Record. Such order shall remain in effect until the developer has complied with the requirements of the order. When the developer has complied with the requirements of the order, the Director shall so declare and thereupon the suspension order shall cease to be effective. In accordance with the procedure described in § 1012.235, a hearing may be requested.
</P>
<P>(3) Upon receipt of an amendment to an effective Statement of Record, the Director may issue an order suspending the Statement of Record until the amendment becomes effective if the Director has reasonable grounds to believe that such action is necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of purchasers. In accordance with the procedure described in § 1012.235, a hearing may be requested.
</P>
<P>(4) Suspension orders issued pursuant to this subsection shall operate to suspend the Statement of Record as of the date the order is either served on the developer or its registered agent or is delivered by certified or registered mail to the address of the developer or its authorized agent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.100" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.100   Statement of Record—format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Statement of Record consists of two portions; the Property Report portion and the Additional Information and Documentation portion.
</P>
<P>(b) General format. The Statement of Record shall be prepared in accordance with the format set forth in section VIII of the appendix to this part: Property Report:


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.101" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.101   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.102" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.102   General instructions for completing the Statement of Record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Paper and type.</I> The Statement of Record shall be on good quality, unglazed white or pastel paper. Letter size paper, approximately 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inches in size, will be used for the Property Report portion, and either letter size paper, approximately 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inches in size, or legal size paper, approximately 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inches in size, will be used for the Additional Information and Documentation portion. Side margins shall be no less than 1 inch and no greater than 1
<FR>1/2</FR> inches. Top and bottom margins shall be no less than 1 inch. In the preparation of the charts to be included in the Property Report, the developer may vary from the above margin requirements or print the charts lengthwise on the required size paper if such measures are necessary to make the charts readable. The Statement of Record shall be prepared in an easily readable, uniform font.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Numbering and dating.</I> Each page of the Statement of Record as submitted to ILSRP shall be numbered and shall include the date of typing or preparation in the lower right hand corner, except in the final printed version of the Property Report portion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signing.</I> The Statement of Record shall be signed by the senior executive officer of the developer or a designated agent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Printing.</I> The Statement of Record and, insofar as practical, all papers and documents filed as a part thereof, shall be printed, lithographed, photocopied, typewritten or prepared by any similar process which, in the opinion of the Director, produces copies suitable for a permanent record. Irrespective of the process used, all copies of any such materials shall be clear and easily readable.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Headings, subheadings, captions, introductory paragraphs, warnings.</I> Property Report subject “headings” are those descriptive introductory words which appear immediately after section numbers 1010.106 through 1010.116 (<I>e.g.</I> § 1010.108 has “General Information” and § 1010.111 has “Utilities”). Each such heading shall be printed in the Property Report in underlined capital letters and centered at the top of a new page. Section numbers shall not be printed in the Property Report. Property Report subheadings are those descriptive introductory words which appear in italics in the regulations at the beginning of paragraphs designated by paragraph letters (a), (b), (c) etc. An example of a subheading is “water” found immediately after the paragraph letter (a) in § 1010.111. These subheadings will be printed in the Property Report only if they are relevant to the subject subdivision. If printed these subheadings shall be capitalized and shall begin at the left hand margin of the page. Property Report “captions” are those descriptive introductory words which appear in italics in the Regulations at the beginning of paragraphs designated by numbers (1), (2), (3), etc. An example of such captions is “Sales Contract and Delivery of Deed” found immediately after the paragraph number “(1)” in § 1010.109(b). These captions are to be printed in the Property Report only if they are applicable to the subject subdivision. If printed, these captions shall be centered on the page from the side margins, and shall have only the first letter of each word capitalized. Headings and subheadings will be used in the Property Report in accordance with the sample page appearing in section IX of the appendix to this part. Introductory paragraphs will follow headings if they are applicable and necessary for a readable entry into the subject matters, but note, the introductory paragraphs for “Title to the Property and Land Use” are to be used in every case as provided in § 1010.109(a)(1). Subheadings and captions which do not apply to the subdivision should be omitted from the Property Report portion and answered “not applicable” in the Additional Information and Documentation portion, unless specifically required to be included elsewhere in these instructions. Warnings shall be printed substantially as they appear in the instructions in §§ 1010.105 through 1010.118. They shall be printed in capital letters and may be enclosed in a box. The paragraphs in the Property Report portion need not be numbered. A sample page is set forth in section IX of the appendix to this part: Sample Page for Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Language style.</I> All information given in the Property Report portion shall be stated in narrative form using plain, concise, everyday language which can be readily understood by purchasers who are unfamiliar with real estate transactions. Excessively long paragraphs should be avoided. Keep them as brief as possible. Use separate paragraphs for different points discussed. Disclose all pertinent facts. Potential consequences to a purchaser must be made clear even though not specifically asked for in the format and the instructions. In the Property Report the pronouns “you” and “your” shall generally be used in referring to the prospective purchaser and the pronouns “we,” “us,” and “our” shall generally be used in referring to the developer. The Director specifically reserves the right to require modification of the text when the narrative does not meet the standards of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Format of the Additional Information and Documentation portion of the Statement of Record.</I> The supporting information and documentation required by these regulations shall be identified by affixing a tab on the right side of the cover sheet of the required information or documentation and by identifying on the tab the section number of the Statement of Record instructions to which the information or documentation corresponds. This information or documentation shall then be placed immediately after the page(s) on which the section number and answers for that section appear. If the data in a document is applicable to more than one section of instructions, the developer may substitute as a document in the second case a statement incorporating the earlier document. Deeds, title policies, subdivision plats or maps and other documentary information required to be contained in the Additional Information and Documentation portion of the Statement of Record need not be on the same size paper as the Statement of Record but, if larger, shall be folded to a size no larger than 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inches. Supporting documents shall be inserted into the binding in such a manner as to permit them to be examined without the necessity of removing them from the binding. This may be accomplished by proper folding or through the use of envelopes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Ordering.</I> The Statement of Record shall be filed with the Property Report portion on top, including any documents which may be required to be attached when delivered to the purchaser, followed by the Additional Information and Documentation portion.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Advertising and promotional material.</I> No advertising, or promotional material or statements which are self-serving on behalf of the developer or owner may be included in the Statement of Record or resulting Property Report.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Additional information.</I> (1) In addition to the information expressly required to be stated in the Statement of Record, there shall be added, and the Director may require, such further material information, documentation and certification as may be necessary in the public interest and for the protection of purchasers or necessary in order to make the statements not misleading in the light of circumstances under which they are made.
</P>
<P>(2) The instructions are not all inclusive. The developer shall include any other facts which would have a bearing upon the use by the purchaser of any of the facilities, services or amenities; which would cause or result in additional expenses to the purchaser; which would have an effect upon the use and enjoyment of the lot by the purchaser for the purpose for which it is sold or which would adversely affect the value of the lot.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Modification of format or content.</I> The Director may require or permit modification to the content and format of the Property Report to include additional information, to modify or omit required information, or to change the sequence or position of information when such changes are deemed to be in the public interest or for the protection of purchasers.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Required documentation.</I> Where the documentation required by the Statement of Record cannot be obtained, the Director may permit the best available alternative documentation to be substituted.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Final version of Property Report.</I> On the date that a Statement of Record becomes effective, the Property Report portion shall become the Property Report for the subject subdivision. The version of the Property Report delivered to prospective lot purchasers shall be verbatim to that found effective by the Director and shall have no covers, pictures, emblems, logograms or identifying insignia other than as required by these regulations. It shall meet the same standards as to grade of paper, type size, margins, style and color of print as those set herein for the Statement of Record, except where required otherwise by these regulations. However, the date of typing or preparation of the pages and the ILSRP number shall not appear in the final version. If the final version of the Property Report is commercially printed, or photocopied by a process which results in a commercial printing quality, and is bound on the left side, both sides of the pages may be used for printed material. If it is typed or photocopied by a process which does not result in a clear and legible product on both sides of the page or is bound at the top, printing shall be done on only one side of the page. If a Statement of Record is filed with the Bureau via electronic means pursuant to § 1010.20(a), the version of the Property Report delivered to prospective lot purchasers shall meet the same standards that apply under these regulations to a Statement of Record not filed with the Bureau via electronic means. One copy of the final version of the Property Report, in the exact form in which it is delivered to prospective lot purchasers, shall be sent to ILSRP Office within 20 days of the date on which the Statement of Record, amendment, or consolidation is allowed to become effective by the Director. If a Property Report in a foreign language is used as required by § 1011.25(g), a copy of that Property Report together with a copy of the translated documents shall be furnished the Director within 20 days of the date on which the advertising is first used. A Property Report prepared pursuant to these regulations shall not be distributed to potential lot purchasers until after the Statement of Record of which it is a part or any amendment to that Statement of Record has been made effective by the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29116, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.103" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.103   Developer obligated improvements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the developer represents either orally or in writing that it will provide or complete roads or facilities for water, sewer, gas, electricity or recreational amenities, it must be contractually obligated to do so, and the obligation shall be clearly stated in the Property Report. While the developer may disclose relevant facts about completion, the obligation to complete cannot be conditioned, other than as permitted by 15 U.S.C. 1703(a)(2), and an estimated completion date (month and year) must be stated in the Property Report. However, a developer that has only tentative plans to complete may so state in the Property Report, provided that the statement clearly identifies conditions to which the completion of the facilities are subject and states that there are no guarantees the facilities will be completed.
</P>
<P>(b) If a party other than the developer is responsible for providing or completing roads or facilities for water, sewer, gas, electricity or recreational amenities, that entity shall be clearly identified in the Property Report under the categories described in § 1010.110, § 1010.111 or § 1010.114, as applicable. A statement shall be included in the proper section of the Property Report that the developer is not responsible for providing or completing the facility or amenity and can give no assurance that it will be completed or available for use.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29117, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.104" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.104   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.105" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.105   Cover page.</HEAD>
<P>The cover page of the Property Report shall be prepared in accordance with the following directions:
</P>
<P>(a) The margins shall be at least 1 inch.
</P>
<P>(b) The next 3 inches shall contain a warning, centered, in 
<FR>1/2</FR> inch capital letters in red type with 
<FR>1/4</FR> inch space between the lines which reads as follows: “READ THIS PROPERTY REPORT BEFORE SIGNING ANYTHING”.
</P>
<P>(c) The remainder of the page shall contain the language set forth in section X of the appendix to this part: Language for Warning on Cover Page of Property Report beginning 
<FR>1/4</FR>-inch below the last line of the warning.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the Cover Page must reflect the requirements of the longer period, rather than the seven days.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If a deed is not delivered within 180 days of the signing of the contract or agreement of sale or unless certain provisions are included in the contract or agreement, the purchaser is entitled to cancel the contract within two years from the date of signing the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The deed must be a warranty deed, or where such a deed is not commonly used, a similar deed legally acceptable in the jurisdiction where the lot is located. The deed must be free and clear of liens and encumbrances.
</P>
<P>(iii) The contract provisions are:
</P>
<P>(A) A legally sufficient and recordable lot description; and
</P>
<P>(B) A provision that the seller will give the purchaser written notification of purchaser's default or breach of contract and the opportunity to have at least 20 days from the receipt of notice to correct the default or breach; and
</P>
<P>(C) A provision that, if the purchaser loses rights and interest in the lot because of the purchaser's default or breach of contract after 15% of the purchase price, exclusive of interest, has been paid, the seller shall refund to the purchaser any amount which remains from the payments made after subtracting 15% of the purchase price, exclusive of interest, or the amount of the seller's actual damages, whichever is the greater.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a deed is not delivered within 180 days of the signing of the contract or if the necessary provisions are not included in the contract, the following statement shall be used in place of any other rescission language: “Under Federal law you may cancel your contract or agreement of sale any time within two years from the date of signing.”
</P>
<P>(e) At the time of submission, the developer may indicate its intention to comply with the red printing by an illustration or by a statement to that effect.
</P>
<P>(f) The “Date of This Report” shall be the date on which the Director allows the Statement of Record to become effective and shall not be entered until the submission has become effective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.106" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.106   Table of contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The second page(s) shall consist of a Table of Contents which lists the headings in the Property Report, the major subheadings, if any, and the page on which they appear. An example is set forth in section XI of the appendix to this part: Sample Entry in Table of Contents for Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of “You” and “We.”</I> At the end of the Table of Contents insert the following remark: “In this Property Report, the words “you” and “your” refer to the buyer. The words “we,” “us” and “our” refer to the developer.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.107" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.107   Risks of buying land.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The next page shall be headed “Risks of Buying Land” and shall contain the paragraphs listed in section XII of the appendix to this part: Required Paragraphs for Risks of Buying Land.
</P>
<P>(b) Warnings. If the instructions of the Director require any warnings to be included in the Property Report portion, the following statement shall be added beneath the “Risks of Buying Land” under a heading “Warnings”: “Throughout this Property Report there are specific warnings concerning the developer, the subdivision or individual lots. Be sure to read all warnings carefully before signing any contract or agreement.” Both the heading, “Warnings,” and the statement shall be printed in capital letters and enclosed in a box.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.108" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.108   General information.</HEAD>
<P>Insert and complete the format set forth in section XIII of the appendix to this part: Format for General Information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.109" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.109   Title to the property and land use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General instructions.</I> (1) Below the heading “Title to the Property and Land Use” insert the introductory paragraphs set forth in section XIV of the appendix to this part: Paragraphs to be included in the General Report—Title to the Property and Land Use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information to be provided.</I> After the above introductory paragraphs provide the information required by the following instructions and questions. Follow a general form identical to the sample page set forth in section IX of the appendix to this part: Sample Page for Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method of sale:</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Sales contract and delivery of deed.</I> (i) Will the buyer sign a purchase money or installment contract or similar instrument in connection with the purchase of the lot? When will a deed be delivered?
</P>
<P>(ii) If an installment contract is used, include the following, or substantially the same, language in the disclosure narrative under “Method of Sale”: “If you fail to make your payments required by the contract, you may lose your lot and all monies paid.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If, at the time of a credit sale, the developer gives the buyer a deed to the lot, what type of security must the buyer give the seller?
</P>
<P>(iv) If the lots are to be sold on the basis of an installment contract, can the developer or the owner of the subdivision or their creditors encumber the lots under contract? If so, include the following warning in the disclosure narrative under the caption “Sales contract and delivery of deed”: “The (indicate subdivision developer, owner, or their creditors) can place a mortgage on or encumber the lots in this subdivision after they are under contract. This may cause you to lose your lot and any monies paid on it.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Type of deed.</I> What type of deed will be used to convey title to lots in the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quitclaim deeds.</I> If a quitclaim deed is to be given to lot purchasers insert the below warning, or a warning which is substantially the same, in the disclosure narrative below the caption “Quitclaim Deeds.” This particular warning may be deleted at the direction of the Director if an acceptable attorney's opinion is submitted with the Statement of Record which indicates that a quitclaim deed has a meaning in the jurisdiction where the subdivision is located which is substantially contrary to the effect of this warning. This warning shall be phrased substantially as follows: “The Quitclaim deed used to transfer title to lots in this subdivision gives you no assurance of ownership of your lot.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oil, gas, and mineral rights.</I> If oil, gas or mineral rights have been reserved, insert the following statement or one substantially the same in the narrative answer under the caption “oil, gas, and mineral rights”: “The (indicate oil, gas, or mineral rights) to (state which lots) in this subdivision will not belong to the purchaser of those lots. The exercise of these rights could affect the use, enjoyment and value of your lot.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Encumbrances, mortgages and liens</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> State whether any of the lots or common facilities which serve the subdivision, other than recreation facilities, are subject to a blanket encumbrance, mortgage or lien. If yes, identify the type of encumbrance (<I>e.g.,</I> deed of trust, mortgage, mechanics liens), the holder of the lien, and the lots covered by the lien. If any blanket encumbrance, mortgage, or lien is not current in accordance with its terms, so indicate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Release provisions.</I> (i) Explain the effect of any release provisions of any blanket encumbrance, mortgage or lien and include the one of the following statements that pertains.
</P>
<P>(A) If the release clauses are not included in a recorded instrument, insert the statement set forth in section XV of the appendix to this part: Statement on Release Provisions, or one substantially the same in the disclosure narrative below under the caption “Release Provisions.”
</P>
<P>(B) If the developer or subdivision owner states that the release provisions are recorded and that the lot purchaser may pay the release price of the mortgage, the statement shall be supported by documentation supplied in § 1010.209. If the purchaser may pay the release fee, state the amount of the release fee and inform the purchaser that the amount may be in addition to the contract payments unless there is a bona fide trust or escrow arrangement in which the purchaser's payments are set aside to pay the release price before any payments are made to the developer.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) If there are no provisions in the blanket encumbrance for release of an individual purchaser's lot from a blanket encumbrance, include the warning set forth in section XVI of the appendix to this part: Warning for Release Provisions or a warning substantially the same, in the disclosure narrative under the “Release Provisions” caption.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the provisions for release of individual lots from the blanket encumbrance may be exercised only by the developer insert the following statement, or one substantially the same, in the disclosure narrative under the “Release Provisions” caption: “The release provisions in the (state the type of encumbrance) on (indicate all or particular lots) in this subdivision may be exercised only by us. Therefore, if we default on the (state type of encumbrance) before obtaining a release of your lot, you may lose your lot and any money you have paid for it.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recording the contract and deed</I>—(1) <I>Method or purpose of recording.</I> (i) State what protection, if any, recording of deeds and contracts gives a lot purchaser in your jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the sales contract or deed may be recorded, so state. Also state whose responsibility it is to record the contract or deed.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the developer or subdivision owner will not have the sales contract officially acknowledged or if the applicable jurisdiction will not record sales contracts, state that sales contracts will not be recorded and why they will not be recorded.
</P>
<P>(iv) If at, or immediately after, the signing of a contract, the contract or a deed transfer to the buyer is not recorded by the developer or owner or if title to the lot is not otherwise transferred of record to a trust, or if other sufficient notice of transfer or sale is not placed of record, then the developer shall include the warning set forth in section XVII of the appendix to this part: Method and Purpose of Recording Warning, or substantially the same warning in the disclosure narrative under the caption “Method and Purpose of Recording.” The reference to contracts shall be deleted from the above warning if the answer to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section indicates that recording of a contract in the subject jurisdiction does not protect the purchaser from claims of later purchasers or creditors of anyone having an interest in the land.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Title insurance.</I> If the developer does not deliver a title insurance policy to the buyer, state that the purchaser should obtain an attorney's opinion of title or a title insurance policy which will describe the rights of ownership which are being acquired in the lot. Recommend that an appropriate professional should interpret the opinion or policy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Payments</I>—(1) <I>Escrow.</I> If purchasers' deposits, down payments, or installment payments are to be placed in a third party controlled escrow or similar account, describe the arrangement including the name and address of the escrow holder or similar person. If there is no such arrangement, insert the statement set forth in section XVIII of the appendix to this part: Escrow Statement. The questions regarding an escrow agreement or similar protection may be answered affirmatively only if the money is under the control of an independent third party, allowing a purchaser to receive a return of all money paid in the event of the developer's failure to convey title or the developer's default on any obligation which would otherwise result in the purchaser's loss of that money.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepayments.</I> Explain any prepayment penalties or privileges in everyday language.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Default.</I> What are the developer's or subdivision owners' remedies against a defaulted purchaser?
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Restrictions on the use of your lot</I>—(1) <I>Restrictive covenants.</I> (i) Have any restrictive covenants been recorded against the land in the subdivision? If so, do they contain items which require the purchaser to secure permissions, approvals or take any other action prior to using or disposing of his lot (<I>e.g.,</I> architectural control, developer's right of first refusal, building deadlines, etc.)? If any of these or similar items are included, explain their meaning and effect upon the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(ii) If any restrictive covenants are to be used and if they have not been recorded, how will they be imposed? Include a statement to the effect that the restrictive covenants have not been recorded; that there is no assurance they will be applied uniformly; that they may be changed and that they may be difficult to enforce. If no restrictive covenants will be imposed, include a statement to the effect that, since there are no restrictive covenants on the use of the lots, they may be used for purposes which could adversely affect the use and enjoyment of surrounding lots.
</P>
<P>(iii) If there are restrictive covenants, whether recorded or unrecorded, the following statement shall be made: “A complete copy of these restrictions is available upon request.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Easements.</I> (i) Are there easements which may have an effect on the purchaser's building or lot use plans (<I>e.g.,</I> large drainage easements along lot lines, high voltage electric transmission lines, pipe lines or drainage easements which encroach upon the building area of the lot or inhibit its use)?
</P>
<P>(ii) Is the subdivision subject to any type of flood control or flowage easements?
</P>
<P>(iii) If the answer to either (2)(i) or (2)(ii) is in the affirmative, identify the affected lots and state the effect upon the use of the lots.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plats, zoning, surveying, permits and environment</I>—(1) <I>Plats.</I> (i) Have the subdivision plans and plats of specific units been approved by the regulatory authorities? If the approvals have not been obtained, include a warning to the effect that regulatory authorities have not approved the proposed plats; that they may require significant alterations before they will approve them and they may not allow the land to be used for the purpose for which it is being sold.
</P>
<P>(ii) Have plats covering the lots in this Report been recorded? If so, where are they recorded? If they have not been recorded, is the description of the lots given in this Report legally adequate for the conveyance of land in the jurisdiction where the subdivision is located? If it is not, include a statement to the effect that the description of the lots is not legally adequate for the conveyance of the lots and that it will not be until the plat is recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Zoning.</I> For what purpose may the lots be used (<I>e.g.,</I> single family homes, camping, commercial)? Does this use conform to local zoning requirements and the restrictive covenants?
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Surveying.</I> Has each lot been surveyed and is each lot marked for identification? If not, and the purchaser is responsible for the expense, state the estimated cost.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permits.</I> Must the purchaser obtain a building permit before beginning construction on his lot? Where is the permit obtained? Are any other permits necessary to use the lot for the purpose for which it is sold or for construction in connection with its use?
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Environment.</I> Has there been any environmental impact study prepared which considers the effect of the subdivision on the environment? If a study has been prepared, summarize any adverse conclusions and refer the lot buyer to the proper State Clearinghouse for complete information. If a study has not been prepared, include a statement that “No determination has been made as to the possible adverse effects the subdivision may have upon the environment and surrounding area.” If the developer does not know whether an environmental impact study has been prepared, or the name and location of the Office where any study made can be found, inquiry should be made to the State or Area Clearinghouse established under the authority of title IV of the Intergovernmental Cooperation Act of 1968.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.110" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.110   Roads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Access to the subdivision.</I> (1) Is access to the subdivision provided by public or private roads? What type of surface do they have? How many lanes? What is the width of the wearing surface?
</P>
<P>(2) Who is responsible for their maintenance? What is the cost to the purchaser, if any? Are any improvements contemplated? If so, when will they begin and when will they be completed? At whose expense?
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Access within the subdivision.</I> (1) How have legal and physical access by conventional automobile been or will they be, provided to the lots (<I>e.g.,</I> road on recorded easement; right of way dedicated to the public; right of way dedicated to use of lot owners)?
</P>
<P>(2) Who is responsible for the road construction? Is there any construction cost to the purchaser? Is there any financial assurance of completion? If there is no financial assurance of completion, enter a warning to the effect that no funds have been set aside in an escrow or trust account and there are no other financial arrangements to assure completion of the roads.
</P>
<P>(3) How many lanes do the interior roads have? What is the estimated starting date of construction (month and year); the present percentage of construction now complete; the present surface; the estimated completion date (month and year) and what is the final surface to be? If there are separate units or sections in the subdivision which will have different completion dates or different surfaces, the chart in section XIX of the appendix to this part: Road Chart shall be used rather than a narrative paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) Who is responsible for road maintenance? If the roads are to be maintained by a public authority, a property owners' association or some other entity at some time in the future, who is responsible for their maintenance during the interim period? What is the cost to the purchaser during the interim period and after acceptance for permanent maintenance? Will they be maintained so as to provide access to the lots on a year round basis? If not, include a warning which informs the purchaser that access may not be available year round. Identify the months when access may not be available to lots. If there are no arrangements for maintenance, include a warning to the effect that purchasers are responsible for maintaining the roads and that, if maintenance is not performed, the roads may soon deteriorate and access may become difficult or impossible.
</P>
<P>(5) If estimated completion dates given in prior Statements of Record have not been met, state that previous dates have not been met and give the previous dates. Underline the answer. If the roads are 100 percent completed, no dates are needed.
</P>
<P>(6) Complete the chart in section XX of the appendix to this part: Nearby Communities Chart by listing the county seat (identify) and at least two nearby communities. Include at least one community of significant size which offers general services.
</P>
<P>(7) If the purchasers will be individually responsible for providing access to their lots and for maintaining that access, what is the estimated cost of construction and maintenance?


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.111" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.111   Utilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Water.</I> (1) How is water to be supplied to the individual lots (<I>e.g.,</I> central system or individual wells)? Of the following items only those which apply to the subdivision need be included.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Individual system.</I> (A) If water is to be supplied by an individual private well, cistern or other individual system, what are the total estimated costs of the system, including but not limited to, the costs of installation, storage, any treatment facilities and other necessary equipment?
</P>
<P>(B) If individual cisterns or similar storage tanks are to be used, state where water to fill them can be secured; the cost of the water, and its delivery costs for a supply sufficient to serve the monthly needs of a family of four living in a house on a year-round basis. Include a statement to the effect that water stored for extended periods tends to become stale and may acquire an unpleasant taste or odor.
</P>
<P>(C) If individual wells are to be used and if the sales contract contains no provisions for refund or exchange in the event a productive well cannot be installed, include a statement to the effect that there is no assurance a productive well can be installed and, if it cannot, no refund of the purchase price of the lot will be made.
</P>
<P>(D) If individual wells or individual cisterns are to be used, include a brief statement to the effect that the purity and chemical content of the water cannot be determined until each individual well or source of water is completed and tested.
</P>
<P>(E) If there have been no hydrological surveys in connection with the use of individual wells or sources of hauled water for cisterns, include a warning to the effect that there is no assurance of a sufficient supply of water for the anticipated population.
</P>
<P>(F) Is a permit required to install the individual system to be used? If so, from whom and where is the permit secured? State the cost of a permit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Central system.</I> (A) If water is to be provided by a central system, who is the supplier? What is the supplier's address?
</P>
<P>(B) Will the water mains be extended in front of, or adjacent to, each lot? When will construction begin? What is the present percentage of completion of the water mains and central supply plant? When will service be available to the individual lots? If the central system is not complete and there are separate units or sections of the subdivision included in the Statement of Record which have different completion dates, then the starting date for construction (month and year), the percentage of construction now complete and the estimated service availability date (month and year) shall be set forth in the chart in section XXI of the appendix to this part: Water Chart Form rather than in a narrative paragraph.
</P>
<P>(C) What is the present capacity of the central plant (<I>i.e.,</I> how many connections can be supplied)? If the capacity is not sufficient to serve all lots in the Statement of Record and is to be expanded in phases, what is the time-table for each phase to be in service and what will trigger the beginning of the expansion for each phase? If an entity other than the developer or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer will supply the water for the central system; if the operation of that entity is supervised by a governmental agency and if that entity states it can supply the anticipated population of the development, then information as to the capacity of the plant and a hydrological survey is not necessary. If the entity does not indicate it can supply enough water for the anticipated population or if the capacity of any central system is not sufficient to serve all lots in the Statement of Record, include a warning which describes the limitations and sets forth the number of lots which can now be served.
</P>
<P>(D) Have there been any hydrological surveys to determine that a sufficient source of water is available to serve the anticipated population of the subdivision? Has the water in the central system been tested for purity and chemical content? If so, did the results show that the water meets all standards for a public water supply? If there have been no hydrological surveys showing a sufficient supply of water or no tests for purity and chemical content for the central system, include a warning to the effect that there is no assurance of a sufficient supply or that the water is drinkable.
</P>
<P>(E) Is there any financial assurance of completion of the central system and any future expansion? If not, include a warning to the effect that no funds have been set aside in an escrow or trust account nor have any other financial arrangements been made to assure completion of the water system.
</P>
<P>(F) If the developer or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer operates the central system, have all permits been obtained from the proper agencies for the construction, use and operation of the central system? If not, include a warning to the effect that the required permits, approvals or licenses for construction, operation or use of the water system have not been obtained, therefore there is no assurance the system can be constructed or used.
</P>
<P>(G) If previous completion dates given in prior Statements of Record have not been met, state that previous completion dates have not been met and give the previous dates. Underline the answer. If the central water system is 100 percent completed, no dates are needed.
</P>
<P>(H) Is the purchaser to pay any construction costs, one-time connection fees, availability fees, special assessments or deposits for the central system? If so, what are the amounts? If not, state that there are no charges other than use fees. If the purchaser will be responsible for construction costs of the water mains, state the cost to install the mains to the most remote lot covered by this report.
</P>
<P>(I) If a purchaser wishes to use a lot prior to the date central water is available to it, may the purchaser install an individual system? If so, include the information required for individual systems in § 1010.111(a)(1)(i). Will the purchaser be required to discontinue use of any individual system and connect to the central system when service is available to the lot? If the purchaser is not required to connect to the central system, must any construction costs, connection fees, availability fees, special assessments or deposits in connection with the central system still be paid? If an individual system may not be installed, so state and indicate water will not be available until the central system is extended to the lot.
</P>
<P>(J) If connection to the system is voluntary and not all purchasers elect to use the system, will the cost to those who do use the system be increased? If so, include a statement to the effect that connection to the central system is voluntary and those who use the system may have to pay a disproportionate share of the cost of the system and its operation.
</P>
<P>(K) If the developer is to construct the system and will later turn it over to a property owners' association for operation and maintenance, state the estimated date and conditions of the conveyance and if it will be conveyed free and clear of any encumbrance. If there is a charge or if the association must assume an encumbrance, state the estimated amount of either and the terms for retirement of either obligation.
</P>
<P>(L) If the supplier of water is other than a governmental agency or an entity which is regulated and supervised by a governmental agency, state that neither the operation of the water system nor the rates are regulated by a public authority.
</P>
<P>(M) The warning “We do not own or operate the central water system so we cannot assure its continued availability for your use” shall be included unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The central water system is owned and operated by the developer, or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The central water system is owned and operated by a governmental agency or by an entity which is regulated and supervised by a governmental agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sewer.</I> (1) What methods of sewage disposal are to be used (<I>e.g.,</I> central system, comfort stations or individual on-site systems such as septic tanks, holding tanks, etc.) in the subdivision? Of the following items, only those which apply to the subdivision need be included.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Individual systems.</I> (A) If individual systems are to be used, have the local authorities given general approval to the use of these systems in the subdivision or have they given specific approval for each lot? Are permits necessary? From whom and where are they obtained? Must testing of the lot be done prior to the issuance of a permit? State the cost of a permit and the estimated costs of the system and any necessary tests.
</P>
<P>(B) If holding tanks are to be used, state whether pumping and hauling service is available and the estimated monthly costs of that service for a family of four living in a house on a year-round basis.
</P>
<P>(C) If each and every lot has not been approved for the use of an individual on-site system, include a warning to the effect that there is no assurance permits can be obtained for the installation and use of individual on-site systems. If the sales contract contains no provisions for refund or exchange in the event a permit cannot be obtained, include a statement to the effect that there is no assurance an individual on-site system can be installed and, if it cannot, no refund of the purchase price of the lot will be made.
</P>
<P>(D) If no permit is required for the installation and use of individual on-site systems, explain whether this may have an effect upon the purchaser or the availability of construction or permanent financing.
</P>
<P>(E) If the developer has knowledge that permits for the installation of individual on-site systems have been denied; that there have been unsatisfactory percolation tests or that systems have not operated satisfactory in the subdivision, state the number of these rejections, unsatisfactory tests or operations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Comfort stations.</I> (A) If comfort stations are to be used, how many lots will be served by each station? When will construction be started? When will the station or stations be completed and ready for use? Have the necessary permits been obtained for the construction and use of comfort stations? If the necessary permits have not been obtained, include a warning that the necessary permits, approvals or licenses have not been obtained for the construction and use of the comfort stations; therefore there is no assurance they can be constructed or used. If there are comfort stations located in different units and having different completion dates, the chart found in section XXII of the appendix to this part: Comfort Station Chart shall be used to show the estimated construction starting date (month and year), the present percentage of completion and the date on which they will be used rather than a narrative paragraph.
</P>
<P>(B) Who is to construct the comfort stations? Is there any financial assurance of their completion? If not, include a warning to the effect that no funds have been set aside in an escrow or trust account nor have any other financial arrangements been made to assure completion of the comfort stations and there is no assurance the facilities will be completed.
</P>
<P>(C) Who will be responsible for maintenance of the comfort stations? Is there any cost to the purchaser for construction, use or maintenance?
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Central system.</I> (A) If a central sewage treatment and collection system is being installed, who is responsible for construction of the system? Will the sewer mains be installed in front of, or adjacent to, each lot? When will construction be started (month and year)? When will service be available (month and year)? Who will own and operate the system? Give the name and address of the entity.
</P>
<P>(B) What is the present percentage of completion and the present capacity of the system (<I>i.e.,</I> number of connections which can be served)? If the present capacity is not sufficient to serve all lots in the Statement of Record and it is to be expanded in phases, what is the time-table for expansion and what will trigger that expansion? If the central system is not complete and there are separate units or sections of the subdivision which have different service availability dates, the chart found in section XXIII of the appendix to this part: Sewer Chart shall be used to show the construction starting date (month and year); the percentage of completion and service availability date (month and year) in each unit or section rather than a narrative paragraph. If sewage treatment facilities are to be supplied by an entity which is regulated by a governmental agency and which is not the developer or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer and the entity has stated it can serve the anticipated population of the development, then information on capacity need not appear.
</P>
<P>(C) If the developer or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer operates the central system, have all necessary permits been obtained for the construction, operation and use of the central system? Do these permits limit the number of connections or homes which the system may serve? If the permits have not been obtained, enter a warning to the effect that the necessary permits, approvals or licenses have not been obtained for the central sewage system; therefore there is no assurance that the system can be completed, operated or used.
</P>
<P>(D) If the system cannot now serve all lots included in the Statement of Record, either because the supplier of the service has not stated it can and will serve all lots or if construction has not reached a stage where all lots can be served or permits to serve all lots have not been obtained, include a warning which states that all lots cannot now be served; the number which can be served and the reason for the lack of capacity.
</P>
<P>(E) Will the purchaser pay any construction costs, special assessments, one time connection fees or availability fees? What are the amounts of these charges? If the purchaser is to pay construction costs of the sewer mains, state the cost of installation of the mains to the most remote lot in this Report.
</P>
<P>(F) If the purchaser wishes to use the lot prior to the date central sewer service is available, may the purchaser install an individual system? If so, include the information on individual systems required by § 1010.111(b)(1)(i). Will the purchaser be required to discontinue use of the individual system and connect to the central system when service is available? If the purchaser is not required to connect to the central system, must the purchaser still pay any construction costs, connection fees, availability fees, or special assessments? If the purchaser may not install an individual system, so state and indicate service will not be available until the central system reaches the lot.
</P>
<P>(G) If connection to the system is voluntary and not all purchasers elect to use the system, will the cost to those who do use the system be increased? If so, include a statement to the effect that connection to the central system is voluntary and those who use the system may have to pay a disproportionate share of the cost of the system and its operation.
</P>
<P>(H) Is there any financial assurance of completion of the central system and any future expansion? If not, include a warning that no funds have been set aside in an escrow or trust account nor have any other financial arrangements been made to assure the completion of the central system; therefore there is no assurance that it will be completed.
</P>
<P>(I) If previous completion dates given in prior Statements of Record have not been met, state that previous dates have not been met and give the previous dates. Underline the answer. If the central sewage treatment and collection system are 100 percent completed, no dates are needed.
</P>
<P>(J) If the developer is to construct the system and will later turn it over to a property owners' association for operation and maintenance, state the date of the transfer and whether there will be any charge for the conveyance and if it will be conveyed free and clear of any encumbrance. If there is a charge or if the association must assume an encumbrance, state the estimated amount of either and the terms for retirement of either obligation.
</P>
<P>(K) If the owner or operator of the central sewer system is other than a governmental agency or an entity which is regulated and supervised by a governmental agency, state that neither the operation of the sewer system nor the rates are regulated by a public authority.
</P>
<P>(L) The warning “We do not own or operate the central sewer system so we cannot assure its continued availability for your use.” shall be included unless:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The central sewer system is owned and operated by the developer, or an affiliate or subsidiary of the developer, or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The central sewer system is owned and operated by a governmental agency or by an entity which is regulated and supervised by a governmental agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electricity.</I> (1) Who will provide electrical services to the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(2) Have primary electrical service lines been extended in front of, or adjacent to, all of the lots? If not, when (month and year) or under what conditions will construction begin and when will service be available? If they have not been installed, who is responsible for their construction? If electrical service lines have not been extended in front of, or adjacent to, all lots and there are separate units or sections having different service availability dates, the chart found in section XXIV of the appendix to this part: Electric Service Chart shall be used rather than a narrative paragraph.
</P>
<P>(3) If construction of the lines or service to the ultimate consumer is provided by an entity other than a publicly regulated utility, who provides, or will provide, the service? Who will be responsible for maintenance? What is the assurance of completion? If service is not provided by a publicly regulated utility, what charges or assessments will the purchaser pay?
</P>
<P>(4) If the primary service lines have not been extended in front of, or adjacent to each lot, will the purchaser be responsible for any construction costs? If so, what is the utility company's policy and charges for extension of primary lines? Based on that policy, what would be the cost to the purchaser for extending primary service to the most remote lot in this Report?
</P>
<P>(5) If electrical service will not be provided, what is an alternate source (<I>e.g.,</I> generators, etc.) and what are the estimated costs?
</P>
<P>(6) If the lines are to be installed by some entity other than a publicly regulated utility and if there is no financial assurance of completion, include a warning to the effect that no funds have been set aside in an escrow or trust account nor have any other financial arrangements been made to assure construction of the electric lines.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Telephone.</I> (1) Is telephone service now, or will it be, available? Who will furnish the service?
</P>
<P>(2) Have the service lines been extended in front of, or adjacent to, each of the lots? If not, when, and under what conditions, will construction be started and when will service be available (month and year)?
</P>
<P>(3) If the service lines have not been extended in front of, or adjacent to, each lot, will the purchaser be responsible for any construction costs? If so, what is the utility company's policy and charges for extension of service lines? Based on that policy, what would be the cost to the purchaser of extending service lines to the most remote lot in this Report?
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fuel or other energy source.</I> (1) What fuel, or other energy source, will be available for heating, cooking, etc. in the subdivision? If other than electricity is to be used, describe the availability of the fuel or other energy source. Give the name and address of the supplier. If the fuel is natural gas, when will the mains be installed to the lots? What is the cost to the purchaser for installation fees and connection fees? If oil or propane gas will be used, include the cost of a storage tank.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.112" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.112   Financial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The information required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section need appear only if the answer to the question is an affirmative one.
</P>
<P>(b) Has the developer had a deficit in retained earnings or experienced an operating loss during the last fiscal year or, if less than a year old, since its formation? If so, include a statement to the effect that this may affect the developer's ability to complete promised facilities and to discharge financial obligations. This statement may be omitted if:
</P>
<P>(1) All facilities, utilities and amenities proposed to be completed by the developer in the Property Report and sales contract have been completed so that the lots included in the Statement of Record are immediately usable for the purpose for which they are sold, or if:
</P>
<P>(2) The developer is contractually obligated to the purchaser to complete all facilities, utilities and amenities promised by it in the Statement of Record, and:
</P>
<P>(i) The developer has made financial arrangements, such as the posting of surety bonds (corporate or individual notes or bonds are not acceptable), irrevocable letters of credit, escrow or trust accounts, to assure that the facilities, utilities and amenities will be completed by the dates set out in the Property Report or contract;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sales contract provides for delivery of a deed within 180 days of the signing of the contract which conveys title free of any mortgage or lien, or the developer has filed an assurance of title agreement with ILSRP as outlined in § 1010.212(e); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any down payments or deposits are held in an escrow or trust account.
</P>
<P>(c) If the developer's financial statements have been audited, did the accountant qualify the opinion or decline to give an opinion? If so, why was the opinion qualified or declined?
</P>
<P>(d) The following statement shall appear: “A copy of our financial statements for the period ending __________________ is available from us upon request.”
</P>
<P>(e) The information furnished in § 1010.212(b) may necessitate a warning as to costs and/or feasibility of the completion of the subdivision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.113" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.113   Local services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fire protection.</I> Describe the availability of fire protection and indicate whether it is available year round.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Police protection.</I> Describe the availability of police protection.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Schools.</I> State whether elementary, junior high and senior high schools are available to residents of the subdivision. Is school bus transportation available from within the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Hospital.</I> Give the name and location of the nearest hospital and state whether ambulance service is available.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Physicians and dentists.</I> State the location of the nearest physicians' and dentists' offices.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Shopping facilities.</I> State the location of the nearest shopping facilities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mail service.</I> If there is no mail service to the subdivision, describe the arrangements the purchasers must make to receive mail service.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public transportation.</I> Is there public transportation available in the subdivision or to nearby towns? If not, give the location of the nearest public transportation and the distance from the subdivision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.114" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.114   Recreational facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recreational facilities to be covered.</I> Unless otherwise indicated, all information required by paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section shall be provided for only those recreational facilities which
</P>
<P>(1) The developer is contractually responsible to provide or complete and which are:
</P>
<P>(i) Within, adjacent or contiguous to the subdivision, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintained substantially for the use of lot owners; or
</P>
<P>(2) For which a third party is responsible and which are:
</P>
<P>(i) Within, adjacent or contiguous to the subdivision, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintained substantially for the use of lot owners.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recreational facility chart.</I> Complete the chart found in section XXV of the appendix to this part: Recreational Facility Chart in accordance with the instructions which follow it. This chart shall immediately follow the § 1010.114 heading. Limit the chart to facilities provided essentially for use of lot buyers.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Facility.</I> Identify each recreational facility. Identify closely related facilities (<I>e.g.,</I> swimming pool and bathhouse) separately only if their availability dates differ. If any recreational facility is not owned by the developer, insert a warning below the chart phrased substantially as follows: “We do not own the (name of facility or facilities) so we can not assure its (their) continued availability.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Percent complete.</I> State the present percentage of completion of construction for each recreational facility.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Estimated date of start of construction.</I> Insert the estimated date of the start of construction for the facility (month and year).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Estimated date available for use.</I> If the construction of the facility is not complete or if it is not available to lot owners for its intended use, indicate the estimated date (month and year) that the facility will be available for use. If the “estimated date available for use” for any facility has been amended to delay it to a later date, indicate such delay in a statement immediately below the chart. Underline the response. This statement shall include the name of the facility and the prior estimated availability date, and it shall be referenced to the appropriate facility listed on the chart by use of an asterisk or other appropriate symbol. If a facility is 100 percent completed and in use, no date is needed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financial assurance of completion.</I> If the construction of the facility is not complete, state whether there is any financial assurance of completion. If none, state “none.” If such exists, state the type of assurance (<I>i.e.,</I> bond, escrow, or trust). If no documentation for such assurance has been provided in § 1010.214 of the Statement of Record, then do not indicate such assurance on the chart, but in place of such assurance on the chart state “none.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Buyer's annual cost or assessments.</I> State the lot buyer's annual cost or assessments for using the facility. These costs should include any applicable property owners' association assessment, and the developer's maintenance assessment. If the cost information is lengthy, you may use an asterisk or other appropriate symbol and include the cost information in a paragraph below the chart.
</P>
<P>(c) Information to be provided below the recreational facility chart and related warnings.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Constructing the facilities.</I> If the facilities are not complete, indicate who is responsible for the construction of the facilities. Indicate whether the purchaser will be required to pay any of the cost of construction of these facilities (estimate and disclose such cost, if any).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maintaining the facilities.</I> Indicate who is responsible for the operation and maintenance of these facilities.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facilities which will be leased to lot purchasers.</I> If no facilities covered here will be leased to a Property Owners' Association or other lot owners in the subject subdivision, omit this caption and any information requested under it from the Property Report. If such leases exist or are anticipated, state which facilities are or will be leased and indicate the term of the lease. Also, state whether the lot owners will have an opportunity to terminate or ratify the lease after control of the Property Owners' Association is turned over to them. Indicate whether the owner of a recreational facility leased to the Property Owners' Association or other lot owners may encumber it and whether the holders of such encumbrances may acquire the leased facilities and not honor the lease. Indicate whether the lease payments may be increased on an escalating or other basis and what costs or expenses, if any, will be borne by the owner. State whether the lease can be assigned or sublet. State how the lease can be terminated.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transfer of the facilities.</I> If there are presently any liens or mortgages on any of these recreational facilities, describe such liens or mortgages. If the developer, or owner of the subdivision, their principals, or subsidiaries, intend to transfer the title of a listed recreational facility in the future, explain at what time, by what type of conveyance, and to whom such transfer will be made. Disclose any adverse effects on, or cost to, lot purchasers which may be caused by such transfer. If any facility is to be transferred to lot owners as a Property Owners' Association or otherwise, state whether the facility will be transferred free and clear of all liens and encumbrances. If not, state the amount of the encumbrance to be assumed and disclose any contractual conditions on such transfer which relate to lot purchasers.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Permits.</I> If the necessary permits have not been obtained for the construction and/or use of the facilities, identify the facilities for which such permits have not been obtained and include the following statement, or one substantially the same, in the narrative under the caption “Permits”: “The (identify the permit or license) has not been obtained and therefore there is no assurance that the lot owners will be able to use the (identify the facility).”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Who may use the facilities.</I> Indicate who will be permitted to use the recreational facilities (<I>e.g.,</I> lot owners, their guests, employees of developer, general public). If the general public will be permitted to use the facilities include the following statement in the narrative under the caption “Who may use the facilities”: “The (identify the facility) is open to use by the general public and their use of the facility may limit use of it by lot owners.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.115" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.115   Subdivision characteristics and climate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General topography.</I> What is the general topography and the major physical characteristics of the land in the subdivision? State the percentage of the subdivision which is to remain as natural open space and as developed parkland. Are there any steep slopes, rock outcroppings, unstable or expansive soil conditions, etc., which will necessitate the use of special construction techniques to build on, or use, any lot in the subdivision? If so, identify the lots affected, and describe the techniques recommended. If any lots in the subdivision have a slope of 20%, or more, include a warning that “Some lots in this subdivision have a slope of 20%, or more. This may affect the type and cost of construction.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Water coverage.</I> Are any lots, or portions of any lots, covered by water at any time? What lots are affected? When are they covered by water? How does this affect their use for the purpose for which they are sold? Can the condition be corrected? At what cost to the purchaser?
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Drainage and fill.</I> Identify the lots which require draining or fill prior to being used for the purpose for which they are being sold. Who will be responsible for any corrective action? If the purchaser is responsible, what are the estimated costs?
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Flood plain.</I> Is the subdivision located within a flood plain or an area designated by any Federal, state or local agency as being flood prone? What lots are affected? Is flood insurance available? Is it required in connection with the financing of any improvements to the lot? What is the estimated cost of the flood insurance?
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Flooding and soil erosion.</I> (1) Does the developer have a program which provides, or will provide, at least minimum controls for soil erosion, sedimentation or periodic flooding throughout the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a program, describe it. Include in the description information as to whether the program has been approved by the appropriate government officials; when it is to start; when it is to be completed (month and year); whether the developer is obligated to comply with the program and whether there is any financial assurance of completion.
</P>
<P>(3) If there is no program or if the program has not been approved by the appropriate officials or if the program does not provide minimum protection, include a statement to the effect that the measures being taken may not be sufficient to prevent property damage or health and safety hazards. A minimum program will usually provide for:
</P>
<P>(i) Temporary measures such as mulching and seeding of exposed areas and silt basins to trap sediments in runoff water, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Permanent measures such as sodding and seeding in areas of heavy grading or cut and fill along with the construction of diversion channels, ditches, outlet channels, waterway stabilizers and sediment control basins.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Nuisances.</I> Are there any land uses which may adversely affect the subdivision (<I>e.g.,</I> unusual or unpleasant noises or odors, pollutants or nuisances such as existing or proposed industrial activity, military installations, airports, railroads, truck terminals, race tracks, animal pens, noxious smoke, chemical fumes, stagnant ponds, marshes, slaughterhouses and sewage treatment facilities)? If any nuisances exist, describe them. If there are none, state there are no nuisances which affect the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Hazards.</I> (1) Are there any unusual safety factors which affect the subdivision (<I>e.g.,</I> dilapidated buildings, abandoned mines or wells, air or vehicular traffic hazards, danger from fire or explosion or radiation hazards)? Is the developer aware of any proposed plans for construction which may create a nuisance or safety hazard or adversely affect the subdivision? If there are any existing hazards or if there is any proposed construction which will create a nuisance or hazard, describe the hazard or nuisance. If there are no existing or possible future hazards, state that there are none.
</P>
<P>(2) Is the area subject to natural hazards or has it been formally identified by any Federal, state or local agency as an area subject to the frequent occurrence of natural hazards (<I>e.g.,</I> tornadoes, hurricanes, earthquakes, mudslides, forest fires, brush fires, avalanches, flash flooding)? If the jurisdiction in which the subdivision is located has a rating system for fire hazard, state the rating assigned to the land in the subdivision and explain its meaning.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Climate.</I> What are the average temperature ranges, summer and winter, for the area in which the subdivision is located (<I>i.e.,</I> high, low and mean)? What is the average annual rainfall and snowfall?
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Occupancy.</I> How many homes are occupied on a full- or part-time basis as of (date of submission)?


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.116" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.116   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Property Owners' Association.</I> (1) Will there be a property owners' association for the subdivision? Has it been formed? What is its name? Is it operating? If not yet formed, when will it be formed? Who is responsible for its formation?
</P>
<P>(2) Does the developer exercise, or have the right to exercise, any control over the Association because of voting rights or placement of officers or directors? For how long will this control last?
</P>
<P>(3) Is membership in the association voluntary? Will non-member lot owners be subject to the payment of dues or assessments? What are the association dues? Can they be increased? Are members subject to special assessments? For what purpose? If membership in the association is voluntary and if the association is responsible for operating or maintaining facilities which serve all lot owners, include the following statement: “Since membership in the association is voluntary, you may be required to pay a disproportionate share of the association costs or it may not be able to carry out its responsibilities.”
</P>
<P>(4) What are the functions and responsibilities of the association? Will the association hold architectural control over the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(5) Are there any functions or services that the developer now provides at no charge for which the association may be required to assume responsibility in the future? If so, will an increase in assessments or fees be necessary to continue these functions or services?
</P>
<P>(6) Does the current level of assessments, fees, charges or other income provide the capability for the association to meet its present, or planned, financial obligations including operating costs, maintenance and repair costs and reserves for replacement? If not, how will any deficit be made up?
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Taxes.</I> (1) When will the purchaser's obligation to pay taxes begin? To whom are the taxes paid? What are the annual taxes on an unimproved lot after the sale to a purchaser? If the taxes are to paid to the developer, include a statement that “Should we not forward the tax funds to the proper authorities, a tax lien may be placed against your lot.”
</P>
<P>(2) If the subdivision is encompassed within a special improvement district or if a special district is proposed, describe the purpose of the district and state the amount of assessments. Describe the purchaser's obligation to retire the debt.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations and litigations.</I> This information need appear only if any of the questions are answered in the affirmative. Unless the Director gives prior approval for it to be omitted, a brief description of the action and its present status or disposition shall be given.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to activities relating to or in violation of a Federal, state or local law concerned with the environment, land sales, securities sales, construction or sale of homes or home improvements, consumer fraud or similar activity, has the developer, the owner of the land or any of their principals, officers, directors, parent corporation, subsidiaries or an entity in which any of them hold a 10% or more financial interest, been:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplined, debarred or suspended by any governmental agency, or is there now pending against them an action which could result in their being disciplined, debarred or suspended or,
</P>
<P>(ii) Convicted by any court, or is there now pending against them any criminal proceedings in any court? ILSRP suspension notices on pre-effective Statements of Record and amendments need not be listed.
</P>
<P>(2) Has the developer, the owner of the land, any principal, any person holding a 10% or more financial or ownership interest in either, or any officer or director of either, filed a petition in bankruptcy? Has an involuntary petition in bankruptcy been filed against it or them or have they been an officer or director of a company which became insolvent or was involved, as a debtor, in any proceedings under the Bankruptcy Act during the last 13 years?
</P>
<P>(3) Is the developer or any of its principals, any parent corporation or subsidiary, any officer or director a party to any litigation which may have a material adverse impact upon its financial condition or its ability to transfer title to a purchaser or to complete promised facilities? If so, include a warning which describes the possible effects which the action may have upon the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resale or exchange program.</I> (1) Are there restrictions which might hinder lot owners in the resale of their lots (<I>e.g.,</I> a prohibition against posting signs, limitations on access to the subdivision by outside brokers or prospective buyers; the developer's right of first refusal; membership requirements)? If so, briefly explain the restrictions.
</P>
<P>(2) Does the developer have an active resale program? If the answer is “no,” include the following statement: “We have no program to assist you in the sale of your lot.”
</P>
<P>(3) Does the developer have a lot exchange program? If the answer is “yes,” describe the program; state any conditions and indicate if the program reserves a sufficient number of lots to accommodate all those wishing to participate. If there is no program or if sufficient lots are not reserved, include one of the following statements as applicable: “We do not have any provision to allow you to exchange one lot for another” or “We do not have a program which assures that you will be able to exchange your lot for another.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unusual situations.</I> This topic need appear only if one or more of the following cases apply to the subdivision, then only the applicable subject, or subjects, will appear.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Leases.</I> What is the term of the lease? Is it renewable? Is it recordable? Can creditors of the developer, or owner, acquire title to the property without any obligation to honor the terms of the lease? Are the lease payments a flat sum or are they graduated? Can the lessee mortgage or otherwise encumber the leasehold? Will the lessee be permitted to remove any improvements which have been installed when the lease expires or is terminated?
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign subdivision.</I> (i) Is the owner or developer of the subdivision a foreign country corporation? If legal action is necessary to enforce the contract, must it be taken in the courts of the country where the subdivision is located?(ii) Does the country in which the subdivision is located have any laws which restrict, in any way, the ownership of land by aliens? If so, what are the restrictions?
</P>
<P>(iii) Must an alien obtain a permit or license to own land, build a home, live, work or do business in the country where the subdivision is located? If so, where is such permit or license secured; for how long is it valid and what is its cost?
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time sharing.</I> (i) How is title to be conveyed? How many shares will be sold in each lot? How is use time allocated? How are taxes, maintenance and utility expenses divided and billed? How are voting rights in any Association apportioned? Are there management fees? If so, what are their amounts and how are they apportioned?
</P>
<P>(ii) Is conveyance of any portion of the lot contingent upon the sale of the remaining portions? Is the initial buyer responsible for any greater portion of the expense than his normal share until the remaining interests are sold? If the purchase of any of the portions is financed, will the default of one owner have any effect upon the remaining owners?
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Memberships.</I> (i) Does the purchaser receive any interest in title to the land? What is the term of the membership? Is it renewable? What disposition is made of the membership in the event of the death of the member? Are the lots individually surveyed and the corners marked? If not, how does the member identify the area which the member is entitled to use? What is the approximate square footage the member is entitled to use? Are there different classes of membership? How are the different classes identified and what are the differences between them?
</P>
<P>(ii) If the member does not receive any interest in the title to the land, include a warning to the effect that “you receive no interest in the title to the land but only the right to use it for a certain period of time.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Equal opportunity in lot sales.</I> State whether or not the developer is in compliance with title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 by not directly or indirectly discriminating on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, and handicap in any of the following general areas: Lot marketing and advertising, rendering of lot services, and in requiring terms and conditions on lot sales and leases. An affirmative answer cannot be given if the developer, directly or indirectly, because of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, or handicap is:
</P>
<P>(1) Refusing to sell or lease lots after the making of a bona fide offer or to negotiate for the sale or lease of lots or is otherwise making unavailable or denying a lot to any person, or
</P>
<P>(2) Discriminating against any person in the terms, conditions or privileges in the sale or leasing of lots or in providing services or facilities in connection therewith, or
</P>
<P>(3) Making, printing, publishing or causing to be made, printed or published any notice, statement or advertisement with respect to the sale or leasing of lots that indicates any preference, limitation or discrimination against any person, or
</P>
<P>(4) Representing to any person that any lot is not available for inspection, sale or lease when such lot is in fact available, or
</P>
<P>(5) For profit, inducing or attempting to induce any person to sell or lease any lot by representations regarding the entry or non-entry into the neighborhood of a person or persons of a particular race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, or handicap.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Listing of lots.</I> Provide a listing of lots which shall consist of a description of the lots included in the Statement of Record by the names or number of the section or unit, if any; the block number, if any; and the lot numbers. The lots shall be listed in the most efficient and concise manner. If the filing is a consolidation, the listing shall include all lots registered to date in the subdivision, except any which have been deleted by amendment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.117" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.117   Cost sheet, signature of Senior Executive Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cost sheet—Format.</I> (1) The cost sheet shall be prepared in accordance with the format found in section XXVI of the appendix to this part: Cost Sheet Format and paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost sheet instructions.</I> (i) All amounts for cost sheet items will be entered before the purchaser signs the receipt. However, any costs that are identical for all lots may be pre-printed.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a central water or sewer system will be used in all or part of the subdivision and a private system in all or other parts, then the portion that does not apply to the purchaser's lot shall be crossed out.
</P>
<P>(iii) If individual private systems may be used prior to the availability of service from any central system and the purchaser is not required to connect to any central system, both figures may be entered or only the highest cost figures may be used with a parenthetical explanation or footnote. If the purchaser is required to connect to any central system and discontinue the use of his private system when central service is available, both cost figures shall be given, together with an explanation or footnote.
</P>
<P>(iv) If there is a one time, lump sum “availability fee” which is assessed to the purchaser in connection with a central utility, include under “other” and identify.
</P>
<P>(v) Dues and assessments need be included only if they are involuntary regardless of use.
</P>
<P>(vi) At the discretion of the Director, where there is extreme diversity in the figures for different areas of the subdivision, variations may be permitted as to whether the figures will be printed, entered manually, or a range of costs used or any combination of these features.
</P>
<P>(vii) The estimated annual taxes shall be based upon the projected valuation of the lot after sale to a purchaser.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signature of the Senior Executive Officer.</I> The Senior Executive Officer or a duly authorized agent shall sign the property report. Facsimile signatures may be used for purposes of reproduction of the property report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.118" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.118   Receipt, agent certification, and cancellation page.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Format.</I> The receipt, agent certification and cancellation page shall be prepared in accordance with the sample found in section XXVII of the appendix to this part: Sample Receipt, Agent Certification and Cancellation Page.
</P>
<P>(b) The original and one copy of this executed page shall be attached to the Property Report delivered to prospective purchasers. After the purchaser has signed the receipt and the salesman has signed the certification, the copies can be retained by the developer for a period of three years from the date of execution or the term of the contract, whichever is the longer. Upon demand by the Director, the developer shall, without delay, make the copies of these receipts and certifications available for inspection by the Director or the developer shall forward to the Director any of the receipts and certifications, or copies thereof, as the Director may specify.
</P>
<P>(c) If the transaction takes place through the mails, the cost figures shall be entered and the person most active in dealing with the prospective purchaser shall sign the certification prior to mailing the Property Report to the purchaser. Otherwise, the certification shall be executed in the presence of the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(d) The date of Report appearing on the receipt shall be the same as that appearing on the cover sheet of the Property Report.
</P>
<P>(e) Notification of cancellation by mail shall be considered given at the time post-marked.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.200" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.200   Instructions for Statement of Record, Additional Information and Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>The Additional Information and Documentation portion of the Statement of Record shall contain the statements and documents required in §§ 1010.208 through 1010.219. Each section number and its associated heading and each paragraph letter or number and their associated subheadings or captions must appear in this portion. Following each heading, subheading, or caption printed in this portion, the registrant shall insert an appropriate response. If a heading, subheading, or caption does not apply to the subdivision, it shall be followed by the words “not applicable”. Immediately after the page(s) on which the section number and answers for that section appear, insert the information or documents which support that section. In addition to the statements and documentation expressly required there shall be added any further material, information, documentation and certifications as may be necessary in the public interest and for the protection of purchasers or to cause the statements made to be not misleading in the light of the circumstances under which they are made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1010.201-1010.207" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1010.201-1010.207   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.208" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.208   General information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative information.</I> (1) State whether the material represents an initial Statement of Record or a consolidated Statement of Record. If it is a consolidated Statement of Record, identify the original ILSRP number assigned to the initial Statement of Record. State whether subsequent Statements of Record will be submitted for additional lots in the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(2) Has the developer submitted a request for an exemption for the subdivision?
</P>
<P>(3) List the states in which registration has been made by the developer for the sale of lots in the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(4) If any state listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section has not permitted a registration to become effective or has suspended the registration or prohibited sales, name the state involved and give the reasons cited by the state for their action.
</P>
<P>(5) State whether the developer has made, or intends to make, a filing with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) which is related in any way to the subdivision. If a filing has been made with the SEC, give the SEC identification number; identify the prospectus by name; date of filing and state the page number of the prospectus upon which specific reference to the subdivision is made. Any disciplinary action taken against the developer by the SEC should be disclosed in §§ 1010.116 and 1010.216.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subdivision information.</I> (1) If this is a consolidated Statement of Record, state the number of lots being added, the number of lots in prior Statements of Record and the new total number of lots. The Director must be able to reconcile the numbers stated here with the title evidence; the plat maps and the disclosure in § 1010.108.
</P>
<P>(2) State the number of acres represented by the lots in this Statement of Record. If this is a consolidated Statement of Record, state the number of acres being added, the number of acres in prior Statements of Record and the new total number of acres. State the total acreage owned in the subdivision, the number of acres under option or similar arrangement for acquisition of title to the land and the total acreage to be offered pursuant to the same common promotional plan.
</P>
<P>(3) State whether any lots have been sold in this subdivision since April 28, 1969, and prior to registration with ILSRP. If they were sold pursuant to an exemption, identify the exemption provision and state whether an advisory opinion, exemption order or exemption determination was obtained with respect to those lots sales. Give the ILSRP number assigned to the exemption, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Developer information.</I> (1) State the name, address, Internal Revenue Service number and telephone number of the owner of the land. If the owner is other than an individual, name the type of legal entity and list the interest, and extent thereof, of each principal. Identify the officers and directors.
</P>
<P>(2) If the developer is not the owner of the land, state the developer's name, address, Internal Revenue Service number and telephone number. If the developer is other than an individual, name the type of legal entity and list the interest, and the extent thereof, of each principal. Identify the officers and directors.
</P>
<P>(3) If you wish to appoint an authorized agent, state the agent's name, address and telephone number and scope of responsibility. This shall be the party designated by the developer to receive correspondence, service of process and notice of any action taken by ILSRP. In all Statements of Record, including those for foreign subdivisions, the authorized agent shall be a resident of the United States. A change of the authorized agent will require an appropriate amendment.
</P>
<P>(4) State whether the owner of the land, the developer, its parent, subsidiaries or any of the principals, officers or directors of any of them are directly or indirectly involved in any other subdivision containing 100 or more lots. If so, identify the subdivision by name, location, and ILSRP number, if any.
</P>
<P>(5) State whether the owner or developer is a subsidiary corporation. If either the owner or developer is a subsidiary corporation or if any of the principals of the owner or developer are corporate entities, name the parent and/or corporate entity and state the principals of each to the ultimate parent entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documentation.</I> (1) Submit a copy of the property report, subdivision report, offering statement or similar document filed with the state or states with which the subdivision has been registered.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit a copy of a general plan of the subdivision. This general plan must consist of a map, prepared to scale, and it must identify the various proposed sections or blocks within the subdivision, the existing or proposed roads or streets, and the location of the existing or proposed recreational and/or common facilities. In an initial filing, this map must at least show the area included in the Statement of Record. In a consolidated Statement of Record, show areas being added, as well as the areas previously registered. If a map of the entire subdivision is submitted with the initial Statement of Record, and if no substantial changes are made when material for a consolidated Statement of Record is submitted, the original map may be included by reference.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) If the developer is a corporation, submit a copy of the articles of incorporation, with all amendments; a copy of the certificate of incorporation or a certificate of a corporation in good standing and, if the subdivision is located in a state other than the one in which the original certificate of corporation was issued, a certificate of registration as a foreign corporation with the state where the subdivision is located.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the developer is a partnership, unincorporated association, joint stock company, joint venture or other form of organization, submit a copy of the articles of partnership or association and all other documents relating to its organization.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the developer is not the owner of the land, submit copies of the above documents for the owner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.209" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.209   Title and land use.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General information.</I> (1) State whether the developer has reserved the right to exchange or withdraw lots after a purchaser has signed a sales contract (<I>e.g.,</I> for prior sales, failure to pass credit check). If yes, indicate this authority and make reference to the applicable paragraph in the sales contract or other document.
</P>
<P>(2) State whether there is a provision giving purchasers an option to exchange lots. If yes, indicate this and make reference to the applicable paragraph in the sales contract or other document.
</P>
<P>(3) State whether the developer knows of any instruments not of record which, if recorded, would affect title to the subdivision. If yes, copies of these instruments shall be submitted, except that copies of unrecorded contracts for sales of lots in the subdivision need not be submitted.
</P>
<P>(4)(i) Identify the Federal, State, and local agencies or similar organizations which have the authority to regulate or issue permits, approvals or licenses which may have a material effect on the developer's plans with respect to the proposed division of the land, and any existing or proposed facilities, common areas or improvements to the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe or identify the land or facilities affected; the permit, approval or license required; and indicate whether the permit, approval or license has been obtained by the developer.
</P>
<P>(iii) If no agency regulates the division of the land or issues any permits, approvals or licenses with respect to improvements, so state.
</P>
<P>(iv) Answers must specifically cover the areas of environmental protection; environmental impact statements; and construction, dredging, bulkheading, etc. that affect bodies of water within or around the subdivision. Also include licenses or permits required by water resources boards, pollution control boards, river basin commissions, conservation agencies or similar organizations.
</P>
<P>(5) State whether it is unlawful to sell lots prior to the final approval and recording of a plat map in the jurisdiction where the subdivision is located.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Title evidence.</I> (1) Submit title evidence that specifically states the status of the legal and equitable title to the land comprising the lots covered by the Statement of Record and any common areas or facilities disclosed in the Property Report. Title evidence need not be submitted for those common areas and facilities which are not owned by the developer.
</P>
<P>(2) Acceptable title evidence shall be dated no earlier than 20 business days preceding the date of the filing of the Statement of Record with the Director. Previously issued title evidence may be updated to the date referred to in the preceding sentence by endorsements or attorneys' opinions of title.
</P>
<P>(3) The developer shall amend the title evidence to reflect the change in status of title of any previously registered, reacquired lots unless their status is at least as marketable as they were when first offered for sale by the developer as registered lots.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Forms of acceptable title evidence.</I> (1) An original or a copy of a signed owner's or mortgagee's policy of title insurance, title commitment, certificate of title or similar instrument issued by a title company authorized by law to issue such instruments in the state in which the subdivision is located. Title evidence that limits insurance or negligence liability to amounts less than the market value of the subject land at the time of its acquisition by the subdivision owner is not acceptable;
</P>
<P>(2) A legal opinion stating the condition of title, prepared and signed by an attorney at law experienced in the examination of titles and a member of the Bar in the state in which the property is located. The title opinion may be based on a Torrens land registration system certificate of title, or similar instrument, provided it meets all general title evidence requirements of this section and a copy of the registration certificate of title is submitted. Title opinions that limit negligence liability to amounts less than the market value of the subject land at the time of its acquisition by the subdivision owner are not acceptable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Title searches.</I> The required evidence of the status of title shall be based on a search of all public records which may contain documents affecting title to the land or the developer's ability to deliver marketable title. The search must cover a period which is required or generally considered adequate for insuring marketability of title in the jurisdiction in which the subdivision is located. Such search shall include an examination of at least the documents listed in paragraphs (d)(1) through (5) of this section. This search may be accomplished through the use of a title insurance company title plant, the information in which is based on current searches of the appropriate and necessary documents, including as a minimum those listed immediately above. For any attorney's title opinion based on Torrens certificates of title, the title search need only go beyond the original time of registration of the certificate of title for those types of encumbrances which were not conclusively settled by the proceedings at the time of such registration. In such cases, the required statement shall clearly reflect the documents and periods searched.
</P>
<P>(1) The records of the recorder of deeds or similar authority;
</P>
<P>(2) U.S. Internal Revenue Liens;
</P>
<P>(3) The records of the circuit, probate, or other courts including Federal courts and bankruptcy or reorganization proceedings which have jurisdiction to affect the title to the land;
</P>
<P>(4) The tax records;
</P>
<P>(5) Financing statements filed pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Code or similar law. If it is held that the financing statements do not affect the title of the land, include a statement of the legal authority for that opinion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Items to be included in the title evidence.</I> The acceptable title evidence must include the following information, instruments and statements and need not be repeated or duplicated elsewhere in the Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(1) A legal description of the land on which the lots, common areas, and facilities covered by the title evidence are located. This legal description shall be adequate for conveying land in the jurisdiction in which the subdivision is located. If this legal description is based on a recorded plat, the lot numbers, recording place, book name, book number, and page number shall be stated in the description. If this legal description is given by metes and bounds, the title evidence shall include or be accompanied by a certified statement of the preparer of the title evidence, a licensed attorney, or an engineer or surveyor, indicating that all subject lots, common areas, and common facilities are encompassed within the metes and bounds description in the evidence. If at any time after the submission of the legal description required above, the description of the subject land is changed or found to be in error, a correcting amendment shall be made to the Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the person(s) or other legal entity(ies) holding fee title to the property described.
</P>
<P>(3) The name of any person(s) or other legal entity(ies) holding a leasehold estate or other interest of record in the property described.
</P>
<P>(4) A listing of any and all exceptions or objections to the title, estate or interest of the person(s) or legal entity(ies) referred to in paragraph (e)(2) or (3) of this section, including any encumbrances, easements, covenants, conditions, reservations, limitations or restrictions of record. Any reference to exceptions or objections to title shall include specific references to the instruments in the public records upon which they are based. When an objection or exception to title affects less than all of the property covered by this Statement of Record, the title evidence shall specifically note what portion of the property is so affected.
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of all instruments in the public records specifically referred to in paragraph (e)(4) of this section. Abstracts of such instruments are acceptable if prepared by an attorney or professional or official abstractor qualified and authorized by law to prepare and certify such abstracts and if the abstracts contain a material portion of the recorded instruments sufficient to determine the nature and effect of such instruments. Also include copies of any release provisions, relating to encumbrances on the property described, which are not included in the documents otherwise required by this section.
</P>
<P>(6) If an attorney's title opinion has been submitted pursuant to this section which has been based on a Torrens land registration certificate of title, submit a copy of such certificate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Supplemental title information.</I> (1) If there is a holder of an ownership interest in the land other than the developer, submit a copy of any documentation which evidences the developers' authorization to develop and/or sell the land.
</P>
<P>(2) Submit copies of any trust deeds, deeds in trust, escrow agreements or other instruments which purport to protect the purchaser in the event of default or bankruptcy by the developer on any instrument or instruments which create a blanket encumbrance upon the property unless they have been previously provided as part of “title evidence” submitted pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Submit copies of all forms of contracts or agreements and notes to be used in selling or leasing lots. The contracts or agreements, including promissory notes, must contain the following language in boldface type (which must be distinguished from the type used for the rest of the contract) on the face or signature page above all signatures: “You have the option to cancel your contract or agreement of sale by notice to the seller until midnight of the seventh day following the signing of the contract or agreement. If you did not receive a Property Report prepared pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, in advance of your signing the contract or agreement, the contract or agreement of sale may be cancelled at your option for two years from the date of signing.”
</P>
<P>(ii) If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of state law or the Act, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract or agreement must reflect the requirements of the longer period, rather than the seven days. This language shall be consistent with that shown on the cover page (see § 1010.105).
</P>
<P>(iii) The revocation provisions may not be limited or qualified in the contract or other document by requiring a specific type of notice or by requiring that notice be given at a specified place.
</P>
<P>(iv) If it is represented that the developer will provide or complete roads or facilities for waters, sewer, gas, electric service or recreational amenities, the contract must contain a provision that the developer is obligated to provide or complete such roads, facilities and amenities.
</P>
<P>(4) Submit copies of deeds and leases by which the developer will lease or convey title to the lots to purchasers or lessees.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plat maps, environmental studies and restrictions</I>—(1) <I>Plat maps.</I> (i) In those jurisdictions where it is unlawful to sell lots prior to final approval and recording of the plat, and in those cases where a plat has been recorded, submit a copy of the recorded plat. This plat should be an exact copy of the recorded document. It should reflect the signatures of the approving authorities and bear a stamp or notation by the recorder of deeds, or similarly constituted officer, as to the recording data.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the plat has not been approved by the local authorities nor recorded, and if it is not unlawful to sell lots prior to final approval and recording, submit a map which has been prepared to scale and which shows the proposed division of the land, the lot dimensions and their relation to proposed or existing streets and roads. The map shall contain sufficient engineering data to enable a surveyor to locate the lots.
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether recorded or unrecorded, the plat or map should show:
</P>
<P>(A) The dimensions of each lot, stated in the standard unit of measure acceptable for such purposes in the political subdivision where the land is located.
</P>
<P>(B) A clear delineation of each of the lots and any common areas or facilities.
</P>
<P>(C) Any encroachments or rights-of-way on, over, or under the land, or a notation of these items together with the identity of the lots affected.
</P>
<P>(D) The courses, distances and monuments, natural or otherwise, of the land's boundaries; contiguous boundaries and identification or ownership of adjoining land and names of abutting streets, ways, etc.
</P>
<P>(E) The location of the section or unit encompassing the lots in relationship to the larger tract, or tracts, in the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(F) The delineation of any flood plains or flood control easements affecting any of the lots.
</P>
<P>(iv) The plat, or map shall be prepared by a licensed surveyor or engineer.
</P>
<P>(v) If all lots on each page of the plat are not included in the Statement of Record with which the plat or map is submitted, then the lots which are to be included in the Statement of Record shall be identified on the plat or map; a legend describing the method of identification shall be entered on the face of the plat or map and the number of lots so identified entered in the lower right hand corner of the plat map. The Director must be able to reconcile the totals of these numbers with the information given in §§ 1010.108 and 1010.208 of the Statement of Record and the title evidence.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Environmental impact study.</I> If the developer is aware of any environmental impact study which considers the effect of the subdivision on the environment, submit a summary of that study.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Restrictions or covenants.</I> Submit a copy of any recorded or proposed restrictions or covenants for the subdivision if not submitted elsewhere in this Statement of Record. A copy of these restrictions or covenants shall be delivered to a prospective purchaser upon request. A supply shall be maintained at whatever place or places as will be necessary to allow immediate delivery upon request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29117, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.210" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.210   Roads.</HEAD>
<P>(a) State the estimated cost to the developer of the proposed road system.
</P>
<P>(b) If the developer is to complete any roads providing access to the subdivision, submit copies of any bonds or escrow agreements which have been posted to guarantee completion thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) Submit copies of any bonds or escrow agreements which have been posted to assure completion of the roads within the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(d) If the interior roads are to be maintained by a public authority, submit a copy of a letter from that authority which states that the roads have been, or the conditions upon which they will be, accepted for maintenance and when.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.211" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.211   Utilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Water.</I> (1) State the estimated cost to the developer of the central water system.
</P>
<P>(2) If water is to be supplied by a central system, furnish a letter from the supplier that it will supply the water. If the system is operated by a governmental division or by an entity whose operations are regulated by a governmental agency but which is not affiliated with or under the control of the developer, the letter shall include a statement that the supply of water will be sufficient to serve the anticipated population of the subdivision or how many homes or connections it can and will serve and that the water is tested at regular intervals and has been found to meet all standards for a public water supply.
</P>
<P>(3) If the water is to be supplied by individual wells, by an entity which is not regulated by a governmental agency, by the developer or by an entity which is affiliated with or controlled by the developer, submit a copy of any engineers' reports or hydrological surveys which indicate there is a sufficient supply of water to serve the anticipated population of the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(4) If the supplier of water is not in one of the categories in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, submit a copy of a letter or report from a cognizant health officer, or from a private laboratory licensed by the state to perform tests and issue reports on water, to the effect that the water was found to meet all drinking water standards required by the state for a public water system.
</P>
<P>(5) If any bond, escrow agreement or other financial assurance of the completion of the central system, including any phases which are to be constructed in the future, has been posted by the developer or an entity not regulated by a government agency, furnish a copy of the document.
</P>
<P>(6) Furnish a copy of any permits which have been obtained by the developer or any entity affiliated with or under the control of the developer in connection with the construction and operation of the central system. If a permit is required to install individual wells, submit a letter from the proper authority which states the requirements for obtaining the permit and that there is no objection to the use of individual wells in the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(7) Furnish a copy of any membership agreement or contract which allows or requires lot owners to use the central water system. If this document is furnished elsewhere in the Statement of Record, reference to it may be made here.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sewer.</I> (1) State the estimated cost to the developer of the central sewer system.
</P>
<P>(2) If sewage disposal is to be by individual on-site systems, furnish a letter from the local health authorities giving general approval to the use of these systems in the subdivision or giving specific approval for each and every lot.
</P>
<P>(3) If sewage disposal is to be through a central system which is owned and operated by a governmental division, or by an entity whose operations are regulated by a governmental agency but which is not affiliated with, or under the control of, the developer, furnish a letter from the entity that it will provide this service and that its treatment facilities have the capacity to serve the anticipated population of the subdivision or how many homes or connections it can and will serve.
</P>
<P>(4) Furnish a copy of any permits obtained by the developer or any entity affiliated with or under the control of the developer, for the construction and operation of the central sewer system or construction and use of any other method of sewage disposal contemplated for the subdivision except those to be obtained by individual lot owners at a later date.
</P>
<P>(5) If any bond, escrow agreement or other financial assurance of the completion of the central system or other system for which the developer is responsible, and any future expansion, has been posted, furnish a copy of the document.
</P>
<P>(6) Furnish a copy of any membership agreement of contract which allows, or requires, the lot owners to use the central system. If this document is furnished elsewhere in the Statement of Record, it may be included here by reference.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electricity.</I> Give an estimate of the total construction cost to be expended by the developer and submit any instrument providing financial assurance of completion of the facilities which has been posted by the developer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Telephone.</I> Give an estimate of the total construction cost to be expended by the developer and submit a copy of any instrument providing financial assurance of the completion of the facilities which has been posted by the developer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.212" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.212   Financial information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Financing of improvements.</I> Describe the financing plan that is to be used in financing on-site or off-site improvements proposed in the Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(b) Complete the following format (If the subdivision or common promotional plan contains, or will contain, 1000 or more lots, furnish this information in its entirety. If the subdivision or common promotional plan contains, or will contain, less than 1,000 lots, only paragraphs (b)(3)(iii) and (iv) of this section need be completed.)
</P>
<P>(1) Estimated date for full completion of amenities
</P>
<P>(2) Projected date for complete sell out of subdivision
</P>
<P>(3) Cost and expense recap for lots included in this Statement of Record:
</P>
<P>(i) Land acquisition cost or current fair market value of land.
</P>
<P>(ii) Development and improvement costs (include the estimated cost of such items as roads, utilities, and amenities which the developer will incur).
</P>
<P>(iii) Estimated marketing and advertising costs.
</P>
<P>(iv) Estimated sales commission.
</P>
<P>(v) Interest (include cost in financing the land purchase, improvements, or other borrowings).
</P>
<P>(vi) Estimated other expenses (include general costs, administrative costs, profit, etc.).
</P>
<P>(vii) Total.
</P>
<P>(4) Total land sales revenue:
</P>
<P>(i) Estimated total land sales income.
</P>
<P>(ii) Estimated other income.
</P>
<P>(iii) Total income.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Financial statements.</I> (1) Submit a copy of the developer's financial statements for the last full fiscal year. These statements shall be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles as prescribed by the Financial Accounting Standards Board and generally accepted auditing standards as prescribed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, and shall be audited by an independent licensed public accountant. They shall include a balance sheet, a statement of profit and loss, a statement of changes in financial condition and a certified opinion by the accountant. The statements shall be no more than six months old on the date the Statement of Record is submitted.
</P>
<P>(2) If the audited statements are more than six months old at the date of submission of the Statement of Record, or if the last full fiscal year has ended within the last 90 days and audited Statements are not yet available, the developer may submit a copy of the audited statements for the previous full fiscal year and supplement them with unaudited, interim statements so that the financial information is no more than six months old on the date that the Statement of Record is submitted. The interim statements may be prepared by company personnel but must contain a balance sheet, a statement of profit and loss and a statement of changes in financial condition and be prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual report.</I> (1) Each year after the initial effective date, the developer shall submit a copy of its latest financial statements. These statements must meet the standards set out in § 1010.212(c)(1), unless the developer has qualified for an exception under § 1010.212(e), and must be submitted within 120 days after the close of the developer's fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) If a developer has submitted its latest statements with a consolidated filing since the close of its fiscal year and prior to the end of the 120 day period, a second submission of the statements to comply with this section is not necessary.
</P>
<P>(3) If the developer no longer has an active sales program on the date this report is due, the information set forth in § 1010.310(c)(7)(iii) may be furnished in lieu of this report.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions.</I> (1) If the developer does not have audited financial statements and the criteria in one of the following exceptions are met, statements need not be audited and certified but must meet all of the other requirements set forth in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “conveys title free of any mortgage or lien” in these exceptions is not intended to prohibit the taking of an instrument as security for the lot purchase price after title is conveyed. For the purposes of these exceptions, these definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Deed</I> shall mean a warranty deed, or its equivalent, which conveys title free and clear of liens and encumbrances.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Assurance of Title Agreement</I> shall mean a legal arrangement whereby the purchaser is guaranteed a deed upon payment of no more than the full purchase price of the lot (<I>e.g.</I> subdivision trust). In addition to a copy of any Assurance of Title Agreement, the Director may require additional documentation such as an attorney's opinion letter to assure that the purchaser's title is fully protected.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Date of contract</I> shall mean the date on which the contract or agreement is signed by the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Escrow or trust account as to down payments and deposits</I> shall mean an account, established in accordance with local real estate laws or regulations, which assures the return to the purchaser of any monies paid in the event title is not delivered to the purchaser in accordance with the terms of the contract.
</P>
<P>(3) The exceptions are:
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate sales price of all lots offered pursuant to a common promotional plan equals $500,000.00 or less; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Each of the following conditions of paragraphs (e)(3)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section are met, plus the conditions of one of paragraphs (e)(3)(ii)(C), (D), or (E) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Down payments and deposits are held in an escrow or trust account.
</P>
<P>(B) The contract provides for delivery of a deed which conveys title free of any mortgage or lien within 180 days of the signing of the contract. (In lieu of delivery of a deed, the developer may submit to ILSRP an Assurance of Title Agreement.)
</P>
<P>(C) The aggregate sales prices of all lots offered pursuant to a common promotional plan is at least $500,000 but less than $1,500,000.
</P>
<P>(D) All facilities, utilities and amenities proposed by the developer in the Property Report or sales contract have been completed so that the lots in the Statement of Record are immediately usable for the purpose for which they are sold.
</P>
<P>(E) (<I>1</I>) The developer is contractually obligated to the purchaser to complete all facilities, utilities and amenities proposed by the developer in the Property Report and sales contract so that all lots included in the Statement of Record will be usable for the purpose for which they are sold by the dates set out in the Property Report, and;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The developer has made financial arrangements, such as the posting of surety bonds (corporate bonds or individual notes or bonds are not acceptable), irrevocable letters of credit or the establishment of escrow or trust accounts, which assure completion of all facilities, utilities and amenities proposed by the developer in the Property Report or contract.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Newly-formed entity.</I> If the developer is newly formed or has not had any significant operating experience, an audited or unaudited balance sheet and statements of receipts and disbursements of funds may be submitted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Use of parent company statements.</I> (1) If the developer is a subsidiary company and does not have audited financial statements, the Director may permit the use of the audited and certified statements of the parent company: <I>Provided,</I> That those statements are accompanied by an unconditional guaranty that the parent shall perform and fulfill the obligations of the subsidiary. If this procedure is adopted, the developer shall submit the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The audited and certified financial statements of the parent company, together with interim statements if necessary, which comply with § 1010.212(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) A properly executed guaranty in a form acceptable to the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) In cases described in paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the disclosure information required in § 1010.112 shall be appropriately amended to reference the parent company and not the developer and must include a statement to the effect that the developer's parent company (insert name) has entered into an unconditional guaranty to perform and fulfill the obligations of the developer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Opinions.</I> If the accountant qualifies or disclaims his opinion, the Director may accept the statements and require such additional disclosure as the Director deems necessary in the public interest or for the protection of purchasers.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Copies for prospective purchasers.</I> Copies of the financial statements filed with the Statement of Record shall be made available to prospective purchasers upon request. A supply of the latest submitted statements shall be maintained at whatever place, or places, as is necessary to allow immediate delivery upon request by a prospective purchaser. These statements shall contain financial information only and shall not include any promotional material such as that usually set forth in annual reports.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Change from audited to unaudited statements.</I> (1) Developers who file audited statements must continue with audited statements throughout the duration of the registration unless, at a later date, the developer submits amendments which demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Director that it then qualifies for an exception from audited statements under paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section. For purposes of paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, the Director will consider the aggregate sales prices of only the lots yet to be sold, and may consider whether any additions to the subdivisions or reacquisitions of lots already sold would be likely to cause the dollar limits to be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(i) The aggregate sales prices of the lots yet to be sold in the subdivision has been reduced to less than $1,500,000.00, and that it will not exceed this amount through further additions to the subdivision, or through the reacquisition of lots already sold, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sales contract provides for delivery of a deed within 120 days of the date of the contract which conveys title free and clear of any mortgage or lien or the developer files an Assurance of Title Agreement with ILSRP, and;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any down payments or deposits are held in an escrow or trust account, or;
</P>
<P>(iv) The developer then qualifies for exception (e)(3)(iii) or (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director may allow a developer, who has made sales prior to registration, to submit unaudited statements under the provisions of paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section. The developer must demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Director that the acceptance of unaudited statements would not be a detriment to the public interest or to the protection of purchasers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.214" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.214   Recreational facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submit a synopsis of the proposed plans and estimated cost of any proposed or partially constructed recreational facility disclosed in § 1010.114. This item should include the general dimensions and a brief description of the facility but it should not include blueprints or similar technical materials.
</P>
<P>(b) Submit a copy of any bond or escrow arrangements to assure completion of the recreational facilities disclosed in § 1010.114 which are not structurally complete.
</P>
<P>(c) Submit a copy of the lease for any leased recreational facility.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.215" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.215   Subdivision characteristics and climate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Submit a copy of a current geological survey topographic map, or maps, of the largest scale available from the U.S. Geological Survey with an outline of the entire subdivision and the area included in this Statement of Record clearly indicated. Do not shade the areas on the maps which have been outlined.
</P>
<P>(b) If drainage facilities are proposed but not yet completed, submit a synopsis of the developer's proposed plans that includes a description of the system of collecting surface waters; a description of the steps to be taken to control erosion and sedimentation and the estimated cost of the drainage facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) Submit copies of any bonds, escrow or trust accounts or other financial assurance of completion of the drainage facilities.
</P>
<P>(d) State whether the jurisdiction in which the subdivision is located has a system for rating the land for fire hazards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29117, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.216" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.216   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Property Owners' Association.</I> (1) If the association has been formed as a legal entity, submit a copy of the articles of association, bylaws or similar documents, and a copy of the charter or certificate of incorporation.
</P>
<P>(2) If the developer exercises any control over the association, state whether any contracts have been executed between the association and the developer or any affiliate or principal of the developer. If there have been, briefly summarize the terms of the contracts, their purpose, their duration and the method and rate of payment required by the contract. State whether the association may modify or terminate the contracts after the owners assume control of the association.
</P>
<P>(3) State whether there is any agreement which would require the association to reimburse the developer, its affiliates or successors for any attorney's fees or costs arising from an action brought against them by the association or individual property owners regardless of the outcome of the action.
</P>
<P>(4) If the answer to paragraph (a)(2) or (a)(3) of this section is in the affirmative, disclosure may be required in § 1010.116(a) at the discretion of the Director.
</P>
<P>(5) Submit a copy of any membership agreement or similar document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Price range, type of sales and marketing.</I> (1) State the price range of lots in the subdivision.
</P>
<P>(2) State the type of sales to be made, <I>i.e.,</I> contract for deed, cash, deed with security instrument, etc.
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the methods of advertising and marketing to be used for the subdivision. The description should include, but need not be limited to, information on such matters as to:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether the developer will employ his own sales force or will contract with an outside group;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether wide area telephone solicitation will be employed;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether presentations will be made away from the immediate vicinity of the subdivision and/or if prospective purchasers will be furnished transportation from distant cities to the subdivision;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether mass mailing techniques will be used and gifts offered to those who respond.
</P>
<P>(4) For any subdivision that meets any of the criteria in paragraphs (b)(4)(i) through (iii) of this section, submit a copy of any advertising or promotional material that is, or has been, used for the subdivision. Amendments to reflect changes in advertising or promotional material need be filed only when there is a material change related to one of the above factors. Depending upon the content of the material submitted, the Director may require additional warnings in the Property Report portion. This requirement applies to any subdivision that:
</P>
<P>(i) Mentions or refers to recreational facilities which are not disclosed in § 1010.114, or;
</P>
<P>(ii) Promotes the sale of lots based on the investment potential or expected profits, or;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contains information which is in conflict with that disclosed in this Statement of Record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations and litigation.</I> (1) Submit a copy of the complaint(s), the answer(s) and the decision(s) for any litigation listed in § 1010.116(c).
</P>
<P>(2) If it is indicated in § 1010.116(c) that the developer or any of the parties involved in the subdivision are, or have been, the subject of any bankruptcy proceedings, furnish a copy of the schedules of liabilities and assets (or a recap of those schedules); the petition number; the date of the filing of the petition; names and addresses of the petitioners, trustee and counsel; the name and location of the court where the proceedings took place and the status or disposition of the petition. Explain, briefly, the cause of the action.
</P>
<P>(3) Furnish a copy of any orders issued in connection with any violations listed in § 1010.116(c).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resale or exchange program.</I> (1) If it is stated in § 1010.116(d)(3) that there is an exchange program which provides sufficient lots to satisfy all requests for exchange, describe the method used to determine the number of lots required; state whether these lots have been reserved or set aside; whether additional lots will be provided if the lots available for exchange are exhausted and the source of any additional lots.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unusual situations</I>—(1) <I>Foreign subdivisions.</I> If the subdivision is located outside the several States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico or the territories or possession of the United States, the Statement of Record shall be submitted in the English language and all supporting documents, including copies of any laws which restrict the ownership of land by aliens, shall be submitted in their original language and shall be accompanied by a translation into English.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.219" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.219   Affirmation.</HEAD>
<P>The affirmation set forth in section XXVIII of the appendix to this part: Affirmation of Senior Executive Officer shall be executed by the senior executive officer or a duly authorized agent:


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.310" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.2.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.310   Annual report of activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) As an integral part of the Statement of Record, the developer shall file with the Director an Annual Report of Activity on any initial or consolidated registration not under suspension. For this purpose, only one Annual Report of Activity will be expected for subdivisions on which developers have filed consolidations. For registrations certified by a state as provided for in § 1010.500, a developer need file only one Annual Report of Activity for any registration for which the ILSRP number is the same (alphabetic designators indicate that the registration has been treated as a consolidation).
</P>
<P>(b) The report shall be submitted within 30 days of the annual anniversary of the effective date of the initial Statement of Record. The report may be submitted via the electronic means described in § 1010.20(a).
</P>
<P>(c) The report shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Subdivision name and address.
</P>
<P>(2) Developer's name, address and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(3) Agent's name, address and telephone number.
</P>
<P>(4) Interstate Land Sales Registration number.
</P>
<P>(5) The date on which the initial filing first became effective.
</P>
<P>(6) The number of registered lots, parcels or units which are unsold as of the date on which the report is due.
</P>
<P>(7) One of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the developer is still engaged in land sales activity at the subject subdivision and that there have been no changes in material fact since the last effective date was issued which would require an amendment to the Statement of Record; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the developer is still engaged in land sales activity at the subject subdivision, that material changes have occurred since the last effective date, and that corrected pages to the Property Report portion or Additional Information and Documentation portion of the Statement accompany the report; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the developer is no longer engaged in land sales activity at the subject subdivision, together with the reason the developer is no longer selling (<I>e.g.,</I> all lots sold to the public or the remaining lots sold to another developer, along with the date of sale and the new developer's name, address and telephone number). A request may be made that the Statement of Record be voluntarily suspended. The request should be submitted in duplicate and will become effective upon the counter-signature of the Director (or an authorized Designee) with the duplicate being returned to the developer.
</P>
<P>(8) The report shall be dated and shall be signed by the senior executive officer of the developer on a signature line above his typed name and title. The senior executive officer's acknowledgement shall be attested to or certified by a notary public or similar public official authorized to attest or certify acknowledgements in the jurisdiction in which the report is executed.
</P>
<P>(d) If the report indicates that there are 101 or more registered lots, parcels or units remaining for sale, the report shall be accompanied by an amendment fee in the amount and form prescribed in § 1010.35.
</P>
<P>(e) Failure to submit the report when due shall be grounds for an action to suspend the effective Statement of Record.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29117, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Certification of Substantially Equivalent State Law</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.500" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.500   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart establishes procedures and criteria for certifying state land sale or lease disclosure programs and state land development standards programs. The purpose of State Certification is to lessen the administrative burden on the individual developer, arising where there are duplicative state and Federal registration and disclosure requirements, without affecting the level of protection given to the individual purchaser or lessee. If the Director determines that a state has adopted and is effectively administering a program that gives purchasers and lessees the same level of protection given to them by the Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, then the Director shall certify that state. Developers who accomplish an effective registration with a state in which the land is located after the Director has certified the state may satisfy the registration requirements of the Director by filing with the Director materials designated by agreement with certified states in lieu of the Federal Statement of Record and Property Report.
</P>
<P>(b) A state that is certified by the Director shall be known as the situs certified state for all land located within its borders.
</P>
<P>(c) After a developer is effectively registered with the Director through a certified state, the Director has the same authority over that developer as the Director has over developers who file directly with the Director. This includes the authority to subpoena information and to examine, evaluate and suspend a developer's registration under sections 1407(d) and (e) of the Act and § 1010.45(b)(1) and (b)(2) of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(d) The prohibitions against the use of the Property Report contained in § 1010.29 apply to state disclosure materials and substantive development standards. In addition, for purposes of this paragraph, references made to the Director, ILSRP and the Bureau in § 1010.29 will include a reference to the equivalent state officer or agency.
</P>
<P>(e) The Purchaser's Revocation Rights, Sales Practices and Standards rules contained in part 1011 of these regulations apply to developers who register with the Director through certified States. All of the rules in part 1011 apply, excepting the disclaimer statement in § 1011.50(a) which is modified to read as follows: “Obtain the Property Report or its equivalent, required by Federal and State law and read it before signing anything. No Federal or State agency has judged the merits or value, if any, of this property.”
</P>
<P>(f) Developers are obliged to pay filing fees as set forth in § 1010.35 of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29117, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.503" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.503   Notice of certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Director determines that a state qualifies for certification under this subpart, the Director shall so notify the state in writing. The state will be effectively certified under the section and as of the date specified in the notice.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Director determines that a state does not meet the standards for certification, the Director shall so notify the state in writing. The notice will specify particular changes in state law, regulations or administration that are needed to obtain certification. The Director shall not be bound in advance to certify a state that makes the suggested changes if other deficiencies become apparent at a later time.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director's final determination to accept or reject a State's Application for Certification of Land Sales Program shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) A state's certification will remain in effect until it is voluntarily suspended by the state or withdrawn by the Director. A state can voluntarily suspend its certification by notifying the Director in writing. The suspension will take effect as of the date and time specified in the notice to the Director, or upon receipt by the Director if no date is specified. The Director may withdraw certification as provided in § 1010.505.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.504" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.504   Cooperation among certified states and between certified states and the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) By filing an Application for Certification of State Land Sales Program pursuant to this subpart, a state agrees that, if it is certified by the Director, it will:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept for filing and allow to be distributed as the sole disclosure document, a disclosure document currently in effect in the situs certified state. Only those documents filed with the situs state after certification by the Director must automatically be accepted by other certified states;
</P>
<P>(2) Certify copies of all disclosure documents, amendments and consolidations filed with it by developers of land located within its borders for and as needed by developers required to submit certified copies to the Director and all other certified states. The certification shall indicate whether the documents are currently in effect. The certification should be in the format set forth in section XXIX of the appendix to this part: Form for Certification for Disclosure Documents.
</P>
<P>(3) Assist and cooperate with the Director and other certified states by requiring that developers of land within its borders amend disclosure documents if any change occurs in any representation of material fact required to be stated in the disclosure documents, including a change resulting from the developer's compliance with the requirements of the law in another certified state. The state shall require developers to send certified copies of the amended documents to the Director and requesting certified states. All amendments to such materials, which reflect changes in material facts regarding the subdivision, shall be submitted to the situs certified state authorities within 15 days of the date on which the developer knows, or should have known, of such change. Certified copies of the disclosure documents shall be submitted by the developer to the Director and the other certified states within 15 days after it becomes effective under the situs certified state laws.
</P>
<P>(4) Continue to effectively operate its Land Sales Program as that Program is described in the Application for Certification and as it was certified by the Director.
</P>
<P>(5) Assist and cooperate with the Director by monitoring the sales practices of developers registered with it directly or through another certified state, and by reporting to the Director any violations of the Act, including but not limited to the required contract provisions, revocation rights and anti-fraud provisions of 15 U.S.C. 1703, or the regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) A state required to accept the disclosure documents of another situs certified state pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, may, in its discretion, require the developer to furnish it with copies certified pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) No state shall be prevented from establishing substantive or disclosure requirements which exceed the Federal standard provided that such requirements are not in conflict with the Act or these regulations. For example, a certified state may impose additional disclosure requirements on developers of land located within its borders but may not impose additional disclosure requirements on developers whose disclosure documents it is required to accept pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section. However, a certified state may impose additional nondisclosure requirements on out of state developers even though the developer is registered in the certified state in which the land is located.
</P>
<P>(d) After a developer is effectively registered with a certified state through a situs certified state, either or both certified states may exercise full enforcement authorities and powers over that developer according to applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director shall cooperate with the certified states by offering a forum for nonbinding arbitration of disputes between two or more certified States arising out of the State Certification Program.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.505" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.505   Withdrawal of state certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director shall periodically review the laws, regulations and administration thereof, of a certified state. If the Director finds that, taken as a whole, the laws, regulations or administration thereof, no longer meet the requirements of subpart C, then the Director may issue a notice to withdraw the certification of that state.
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of proceedings to withdraw a state's certification will be issued to the state by the Director pursuant to § 1012.236. The Director may, after notice and after an opportunity for a hearing, pursuant to § 1012.237, issue an order withdrawing certification. In the event that a withdrawal order is issued, the order shall remain in effect until the state has amended its laws, regulations or the administration thereof or has otherwise complied with the requirements of the order. When the state has complied with the requirements of the order, the Director shall so declare and the withdrawal order shall cease to be effective.
</P>
<P>(c) Withdrawal orders issued pursuant to this subsection will be effective as of the date the order is received by the state. The withdrawal order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(d) The rules of 12 CFR part 1080, unless otherwise specified in 12 CFR part 1012, subpart D, will generally apply to hearings on withdrawal of a state's certification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.506" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.506   State/Federal filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) If the Director has certified a state under this subpart, the Director shall accept for filing disclosure materials or other acceptable documents which have been approved by the certified state within which the subdivision is located. Only those filings made by the developer with the state after the state was certified by the Director shall be automatically accepted by the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) Retroactive application of the effectiveness of state's certification to a specified date may be granted on a state-by-state basis, where the Director determines that retroactive application will not result in automatic Federal registration of any state filing that has not met the requirements of the certified state laws.
</P>
<P>(b) For a developer to be registered with the Director, the developer shall file with the Director a state certified copy of the Property Report or its equivalent, and any other documentation as stipulated in the Director's Notice of Certification to the state.
</P>
<P>(c) The documents and materials filed under paragraph (b) of this section will be automatically effective as the Federal Statement of Record and Property Report after these materials and the proper filing fee have been received by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director has authority pursuant to § 1010.45(b)(1) and (b)(2) to suspend individual filings which fail to meet the requirements of the certified state's law or regulations or the standards in the certification agreement whether or not the state agency has initiated a similar action.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) State accepted materials filed with the Director pursuant to this section must be amended to reflect any amendment to such materials made effective by the state. All amendments to such materials must be submitted to the Director within 15 days after becoming effective under the applicable state laws. Amendments are automatically effective upon their receipt by the Director and the provisions of § 1010.45(b)(1) and (2) apply to amendments filed under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Amendments shall include or be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(i) A letter from the developer giving a narrative statement fully explaining the purpose and significance of the amendment and referring to that section and page of the material which is being amended, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) A signed state acceptance certification substantially the same as that required by § 1010.504(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) If a certified state suspends the registration of a particular subdivision for any reason, the subdivision's Federal registration with the Director shall be automatically suspended as a result of the state action. No action need be taken by the Director to effect the suspension.
</P>
<P>(g) A state is certified only with regard to land located within the state borders. The Director is not required to accept filings which have been accepted by a certified state if the land which is the subject of the filing is not located within that certified state. For example, if State A is certified by the Director and State B is not, the Director is not required to accept filings from State B simply because State A accepts filings from State B.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.507" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.507   Effect of suspension or withdrawal of certification granted under 15 U.S.C. 1708(a)(1): Full disclosure requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a state certified under 15 U.S.C. 1708(a)(1) suspends its own certification or has its certification withdrawn under § 1010.505, the Federal disclosure materials accepted and made effective by the Director, pursuant to § 1010.506, prior to the suspension or withdrawal shall remain in effect unless otherwise suspended by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that there is a change in a material fact with regard to a subdivision that remains registered under the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the developer shall file a new registration with the Director meeting the requirements of the then applicable Federal registration regulations. Modifications of the Federal format may be used as specified by the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.508" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.508   Effect of suspension of certification granted under 15 U.S.C. 1708(a)(2): Sufficient protection requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a state certified under 15 U.S.C 1708(a)(2) suspends its own certification or has its certification withdrawn under § 1010.505, the effectiveness of the Federal disclosure materials accepted and made effective by the Director, pursuant to § 1010.506, prior to the suspension or withdrawal shall terminate ninety (90) days after the notice of withdrawal order is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> as provided in § 1010.505(c).
</P>
<P>(b) At the end of the ninety day period, or during the ninety day period in the event that there is a change in material fact with regard to a subdivision that remains registered under the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section, the developer shall file a new registration with the Director meeting the requirements of the then applicable Federal registration regulations. Modifications of the Federal format may be used as specified by the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.552" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.552   Previously accepted state filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Materials filed with a state and accepted by the HUD Secretary as a Statement of Record prior to January 1, 1981, pursuant to 24 CFR 1010.52 through 1010.59 (as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> on April 10, 1979) may continue in effect. However, developers must comply with the applicable amendments to the Federal act and the regulations thereunder. In particular, see §§ 1010.558 and 1010.559, which require that the Property Report and contracts or agreements contain notice of purchaser's revocation rights. In addition, see 15 U.S.C. 1703(a)(2)(D), which provides that it is unlawful to make any representations with regard to the developer's obligation to provide or complete roads, water, sewers, gas, electrical facilities or recreational amenities, unless the developer is obligated to do so in the contract.
</P>
<P>(b) If any such filing becomes inactive or suspended under the laws of the state, the registration with the Director shall be ineffective from that time.
</P>
<P>(c) Such Statement of Record may be suspended pursuant to § 1010.45.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may refuse to accept any particular filing under this section when it is determined that acceptance is not in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director may require such changes, additional information, documents or certification as the Director determines to be reasonably necessary or appropriate in the public interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.556" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.556   Previously accepted state filings—amendments and consolidations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> State accepted materials, filed with the Director pursuant to § 1010.552, shall be amended to reflect any amendment to such materials made effective by the state or any change of a material fact regarding the subdivision. All amendments to such materials, which reflect changes in material facts regarding the subdivision, shall be submitted to the state authorities within 15 days of the date on which the developer knows, or should have known, of such change and to the Director within 15 days after it becomes effective under the applicable State laws. However, such amendment shall not be effective as a Federal registration until the Director has determined that the amendment meets all applicable requirements of these regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) Amendments shall include or be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(i) A letter from the developer giving a narrative statement fully explaining the purpose and significance of the amendment and referring to that section and page of the Statement of Record which is being amended, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) All amended pages of the state accepted materials filed with the Director. These pages shall be copied together with their amendments. Each such page shall have its date of preparation in the lower right hand corner, and;
</P>
<P>(iii) A signed state acceptance certification, and;
</P>
<P>(iv) The appropriate fees as indicated in § 1010.35.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidations</I>—(1) <I>When consolidations allowed.</I> If lots are to be registered pursuant to § 1010.552 which are in the same common promotional plan with other lots already registered with the Director, then new consolidated state accepted materials including such lots may be filed with the Director as a Statement of Record following the format of the previously accepted filing.
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidated Statements of Record shall include or be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(i) State accepted consolidation materials which are also acceptable to the Director as a Statement of Record (state property report inclusive). These state accepted consolidation materials shall cover all lots previously registered in the common promotional plan except those deleted pursuant to other provisions in these regulations. These materials shall also include information and items required for state accepted materials filed as an initial registration Statement of Record, except that, supporting documentation in materials previously made effective by the Director for other lots in the subject common promotional plan may be included incorporated by reference into the new consolidation materials submitted as a Statement of Record. However, such documentation may be incorporated by reference included only if it is applicable to the new consolidated lots as well as to the previously registered lots.
</P>
<P>(ii) A signed state acceptance certification.
</P>
<P>(iii) The appropriate fees as indicated in § 1010.35.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date; state filing.</I> The effective dates of state materials filed as amendments and consolidated Statements of Record shall be determined in accordance with the provisions of § 1010.21.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.558" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.558   Previously accepted state filings—notice of revocation rights on property report cover page.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) The cover page on Property Reports for filings made with the Director pursuant to § 1010.552 shall be prepared in accordance with § 1010.105 and shall include the paragraphs set forth in section XXX of the appendix to this part: Language to be Included on Property Report Cover Page.
</P>
<P>(2) If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of State law, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the cover page must reflect the longer period, rather than the seven days.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) If a deed is not delivered within 180 days of the signing of the contract or agreement of sale or unless certain provisions are included in the contract or agreement, the purchaser is entitled to cancel the contract within two years from the date of signing the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) The deed must be a warranty deed, or where such a deed is not commonly used, a similar deed legally acceptable in the jurisdiction where the lot is located. The deed must be free and clear of liens and encumbrances.
</P>
<P>(3) The contract provisions are:
</P>
<P>(i) A legally sufficient and recordable lot description, and;
</P>
<P>(ii) A provision that the seller will give the purchaser written notification of purchaser's default or breach of contract and the opportunity to remedy the default or breach within 20 days of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A provision that, if the purchaser loses rights and interest in the lot because of the purchaser's default or breach of contract after 15 percent of the purchase price, exclusive of interest, has been paid, the seller shall refund to the purchaser any amount which remains from the payments made after subtracting 15 percent of the purchase price, exclusive of interest, or the amount of the seller's actual damages, whichever is the greater.
</P>
<P>(4) If a deed is not delivered within 180 days of the signing of the contract or if the necessary provisions are not included in the contract, the following statement shall be used in place of any other rescission language: “Under Federal law you may cancel your contract or agreement of sale any time within two years from the date of signing.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1010.559" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1010.559   Previously accepted state filings—notice of revocation rights in contracts and agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) All contracts or agreements, including promissory notes used in sale of lots for filings made with the Director pursuant to § 1010.552, must contain the language set forth in section XXXI of the appendix to this part: Notice of Revocation Rights in boldface type (which must be distinguished from the type used for the rest of the contract) on the face or signature page above all signatures:
</P>
<P>(2) If the purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period by operation of State law or the Act, that period becomes the Federal revocation period and the contract or agreement must reflect the longer period, rather than the seven days. The language shall be consistent with that shown on the Cover Page (see § 1010.558).
</P>
<P>(b) The above revocation provisions may not be limited or qualified in the contract or other document by requiring a specific type of notice or by requiring that notice be given at a specified place.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.11.5.1.1.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1010—Standard and Model Forms and Clauses




</HEAD>
<HD3>I. <I>Forms for Developer's Affirmation for Land Sale</I>—§ 1010.13(a)(9)
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Developer's Name
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Developer's Address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser's Name(s)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser's Address(es) (including county)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Legal Description of Lot(s) Purchased
</FP-DASH>
<P>I hereby affirm that all of the requirements of the MSA exemption as set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1702(b)(8) and 12 CFR 1010.13 have been met in the sale or lease of the lot(s) described above.
</P>
<P>I also affirm that I submit to the jurisdiction of the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act with regard to the sale or lease cited above.
</P>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Signature of Developer or Authorized Agent)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Title)
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>II. <I>Language Notifying Buyer of Option to Cancel Contract</I>—§ 1010.15(b)(5)(i)
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to cancel your contract or agreement of sale by notice to the seller until midnight of the seventh day following the date of signing of the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>If you did not receive a Lot Information Statement prepared pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection in advance of your signing the contract or agreement, the contract or agreement of sale may be cancelled at your option for two years from the date of signing.
</P>
<HD3>III. <I>Sample Lot Information Statement and Sample Receipt</I>—§ 1010.15(b)(11)
</HD3>
<HD3>Sample Format
</HD3>
<P>(Use of the following headings and first paragraph are mandatory.)
</P>
<HD2>Lot Information Statement
</HD2>
<HD2>Important: Read Carefully Before Signing Anything
</HD2>
<P>The developer has obtained a regulatory exemption from registration under the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act. One requirement of that exemption is that you must receive this Statement prior to the time you sign an agreement (contract) to purchase a lot.
</P>
<HD3>Right To Cancel
</HD3>
<P>(Under this heading the developer is to state the specific rescission rights provided for in the contract pursuant to 1010.15(b)(5)(i)).
</P>
<HD3>Risk of Buying Land
</HD3>
<P>(Under this heading the developer is to list the following information:)
</P>
<P>There are certain risks in purchasing real estate that you should be aware of. The following are some of those risks:
</P>
<P>The future value of land is uncertain and dependent upon many factors. Do not expect all land to automatically increase in value.
</P>
<P>Any value which your lot may have will be affected if roads, utilities and/or amenities cannot be completed or maintained.
</P>
<P>Any development will likely have some impact on the surrounding environment. Development which adversely affects the environment may cause governmental agencies to impose restriction on the use of the land.
</P>
<P>In the purchase of real estate, many technical requirements must be met to assure that you receive proper title and that you will be able to use the land for its intended purpose. Since this purchase involves a major expenditure of money, it is recommended that you seek professional advice before you obligate yourself.
</P>
<P>If adequate provisions have not been made for maintenance of the roads or if the land is not served by publicly maintained roads, you may have to maintain the roads at your expense.
</P>
<P>If the land is not served by a central sewage system and/or water system, you should contact the local authorities to determine whether a permit will be given for an on-site sewage disposal system and/or well and whether there is an adequate supply of water. You should also become familiar with the requirements for, and the cost of, obtaining electrical service to the lot.
</P>
<HD3>Developer Information
</HD3>
<P>(Under this heading the developer is to list the following information:)
</P>
<FP-DASH>Developer's Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone Number:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>Lot Information
</HD3>
<P>(Under this heading the developer is to list the following information:)
</P>
<FP-DASH>Lot Location:
</FP-DASH>
<P>(Enter a statement disclosing all liens, reservations, taxes, assessments, easements and restrictions applicable to the lot. A copy of the restrictions may be attached in lieu of recitation.)
</P>
<HD3>Suppliers of Utilities and Issuers of Permits
</HD3>
<P>(Under this heading the developer is to list the name, address and phone number of the appropriate governmental agency or agencies, if any, that will provide information on permits or other requirements for water, sewer and electrical installations. The information will also contain the name, address and telephone number of the suppliers of such utilities which can provide information to the purchaser on costs and availability of such services. A chart similar to the one below may be used to supply this information).
</P>
<P>Listed below are contact points for determining permit requirements, if any, and to obtain information on approximate costs and availability for the listed services:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="2" scope="col">Name, address and telephone number of
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Governmental agency
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supplier
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Water
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sewer
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Electricity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>If misrepresentations are made in the sale of this lot to you, you may have rights under the Interstate Land Sales Full Disclosure Act. If you have evidence of any scheme, artifice or device used to defraud you, you may wish to contact: Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, 1700 G Street NW., Washington DC 20552.
</P>
<P>(The Receipt is to be in the following form:)
</P>
<HD3>Sample Receipt for Lot Information Statement
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser (print or type):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature of purchaser:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Street Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>State:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of salesperson (print or type):
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature of salesperson:
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>IV. <I>Request for Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption</I>—§ 1010.15(c)(1)
</HD3>
<HD3>Request for Multiple Site Subdivision Exemption
</HD3>
<P>Developer:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone No.:
</FP-DASH>
<P>Agent:
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Telephone No.:
</FP-DASH>
<P>(Insert a general description of the developer's method of operation.)
</P>
<P>I affirm that I am, or will be, the developer of the property and/or method of operation described above.
</P>
<P>I affirm that the lots in said property will be sold in compliance with all of the requirements of 12 CFR 1010.15.
</P>
<P>I further affirm that the statements contained in all documents submitted with this request for an Exemption Order are true and complete.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Title:
</FP-DASH>
<P>WARNING: 18 U.S.C. 1001 provides, among other things, that whoever knowingly and willingly makes or uses a document or writing containing any false, fictitious, or fraudulent statement or entry, in any matter within the jurisdiction of any department or agency of the United States, shall be fined not more than $10,000 or imprisoned for not more than 5 years or both.
</P>
<HD3>V. <I>Request for Regulatory Exemption Order</I>—§ 1010.16(c)
</HD3>
<HD3>REQUEST FOR EXEMPTION ORDER
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Location (including county)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Developer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Authorized Agent or President of Developer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Number of Lots Subject to Exemption Request
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Description of Lots (list lot and block number or other identifying designation)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>I affirm that I am the developer or owner of the property described above or will be the developer or owner at the time the lots are offered for sale to the public, or that I am the agent authorized by the developer or owner to complete this statement. I further affirm that the statements contained in all documents submitted with the request for an exemption order are true and complete.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature of Developer, Owner or Authorized Agent)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Title)
</FP>
<P>WARNING: Section 15 U.S.C. 1717 provides: “Any person who willfully violates any of the provisions of this title or of the rules and regulations or any person who willfully, in a Statement of Record filed under, or in a Property Report issued pursuant to this title, makes any untrue statement of a material fact shall upon conviction be fined not more than $10,000.00 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.”
</P>
<HD3>VI. <I>Developer's Affirmation for Advisory Opinion</I>—§ 1010.17(b)(3)
</HD3>
<HD2>Developer's Affirmation
</HD2>
<FP-DASH>Name of Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Location (Including County and State)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Developer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address of Developer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Agent
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Address of Agent
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Number of Lots in Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Number of Acres in Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<P>I affirm that I am the developer or owner of the property described above or will be the developer or owner at the time the lots are offered for sale to the public, or that I am the agent authorized by the developer or owner to complete this statement.I further affirm that the statements contained in all documents submitted with the request for an Advisory Opinion are true and complete.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Title);
</FP>
<P>WARNING: 15 U.S.C. 1717 provides: “Any person who willfully violates any of the provisions of this title or of the rules and regulations or any person who willfully, in a Statement of Record filed under, or in a Property Report issued pursuant to this title, makes any untrue statement of a material fact shall upon conviction be fined not more than $10,000.00 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.”
</P>
<HD3>VII. <I>Initial and Consolidated Registration Fee Schedule</I>—§ 1010.35(b)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of lots
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Fees
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">200 or fewer lots</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">201 or more lots</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,000</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>VIII. Property Report for Statement of Record—§ 1010.100(b)
</HD1>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Property Report
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row"><E T="03">Heading and Section Number</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cover Sheet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.105
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Table of Contents</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.106
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Risks of Buying Land</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.107
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.108
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Title and Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.109</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) General Instructions
</P>
<P>(b) Method of Sale
</P>
<P>(c) Encumbrances, Mortgages and Liens
</P>
<P>(d) Recording the Contract and Deed
</P>
<P>(e) Payments
</P>
<P>(f) Restrictions
</P>
<P>(g) Plats, Zoning, Surveying, Permits, Environment
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Roads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.110
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Utilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.111</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) Water
</P>
<P>(b) Sewer
</P>
<P>(c) Electricity
</P>
<P>(d) Telephone
</P>
<P>(e) Fuel or other Energy Source
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Financial Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.112
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Local Services</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.113
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recreational Facilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.114
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subdivision Characteristics and Climate</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.115</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) General Topography
</P>
<P>(b) Water Coverage
</P>
<P>(c) Drainage and Fill
</P>
<P>(d) Flood Plain
</P>
<P>(e) Flooding and Soil Erosion
</P>
<P>(f) Nuisances
</P>
<P>(g) Hazards
</P>
<P>(h) Climate
</P>
<P>(i) Occupancy
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.116</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(a) Property Owners' Association
</P>
<P>(b) Taxes
</P>
<P>(c) Violations and Litigation
</P>
<P>(d) Resale or Exchange Program
</P>
<P>(e) Unusual Situations
</P>
<P>1. Leases
</P>
<P>2. Foreign Subdivision
</P>
<P>3. Time Sharing
</P>
<P>4. Membership
</P>
<P>(f) Equal Opportunity in Lot Sales
</P>
<P>(g) Listing of lots
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cost Sheet</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.117
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Receipt, Agent Certification and Cancellation Page</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.118
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">ADDITIONAL INFORMATION AND DOCUMENTATION
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">General Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.208
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Title and Land Use</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.209
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Roads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Utilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.211
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Financial Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.212
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Recreational Facilities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.214
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subdivision Characteristics</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Additional Information</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.216
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Affirmation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1010.219</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The Bureau's OMB control number for this information collection is: 3170-0012.
</P>
<HD3>IX. <I>Sample Page for Statement of Record</I>—1010.102(e)
</HD3>
<HD3>SAMPLE PAGE
</HD3>
<HD3>ROADS
</HD3>
<P>Here we discuss the roads that lead to the subdivision, those within the subdivision and the location of nearby communities.
</P>
<P>ACCESS TO THE SUBDIVISION.
</P>
<P>County road #43 leads to the subdivision. It has two lanes and the width of the wearing surface is 22 feet. It's paved with a macadam surface.
</P>
<P>This road is maintained by Bottineau County with County funds. No improvements are planned at this time.
</P>
<P>ACCESS WITHIN THE SUBDIVISION.
</P>
<P>The roads within the subdivision will be located on rights of way dedicated to the public.
</P>
<P>We are responsible for constructing the interior roads. There will be no additional cost to you for this construction.
</P>
<P>WE HAVE NOT SET ASIDE ANY FUNDS IN AN ESCROW OR TRUST ACCOUNT OR MADE ANY OTHER FINANCIAL ARRANGEMENTS TO ASSURE COMPLETION OF THE ROADS, SO THERE IS NO ASSURANCE WE WILL BE ABLE TO COMPLETE THE ROADS.
</P>
<P>At present, the roads are under construction and do not provide access to the lots in Units 2 and 3 during wet weather. The succeeding chart describes their present condition and estimated completion dates.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UUnit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated starting date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of construction now complete
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated completion date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Present
<br/>surface
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Final surface
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">February 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">December 2010</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Gravel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asphalt.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">August 2010</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">June 2011</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Dirt</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">April 2011</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">October 2011</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Do.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>X. <I>Language for Warning on Cover Page of Property Report</I>—§ 1010.105(c)
</HD3>
<P>This Report is prepared and issued by the developer of this subdivision. It is <I>not</I> prepared or issued by the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>Federal law requires that you receive this Report prior to your signing a contract or agreement to buy or lease a lot in this subdivision. However, NO FEDERAL AGENCY HAS JUDGED THE MERITS OR VALUE, IF ANY, OF THIS PROPERTY.
</P>
<P>If you received this Report prior to signing a contract or agreement, you may cancel your contract or agreement by giving notice to the seller any time before midnight of the seventh day following the signing of the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>If you did not receive this Report before you signed a contract or agreement, you may cancel the contract or agreement any time within two years from the date of signing.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of Subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of Developer
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of This Report
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>XI. <I>Sample Entry in Table of Contents for Statement of Record</I>—§ 1010.106(a)
</HD3>
<P>Title and Land Use # Page #
</P>
<P>Method of Sale
</P>
<P>Encumbrances, Mortgages and Liens
</P>
<P>Recording the Contract and Deed
</P>
<P>Payments
</P>
<P>Restrictions on the Use of Your Lot
</P>
<P>Plat Maps, Zoning, Surveying, Permits and Environment
</P>
<HD3>XII. <I>Required Language for Risks of Buying Land</I>—§ 1010.107(a)
</HD3>
<P>(1) The future value of any land is uncertain and dependent upon many factors. DO NOT expect all land to increase in value.
</P>
<P>(2) Any value which your lot may have will be affected if the roads, utilities and all proposed improvements are not completed. This paragraph may be omitted if all improvements have been completed or if no improvements are proposed.
</P>
<P>(3) Resale of your lot may be difficult or impossible, since you may face the competition of our own sales program and local real estate brokers may not be interested in listing your lot.
</P>
<P>(4) Any subdivision will have an impact on the surrounding environment. Whether or not the impact is adverse and the degree of impact, will depend on the location, size, planning and extent of development. Subdivisions which adversely affect the environment may cause governmental agencies to impose restrictions on the use of the land. Changes in plant and animal life, air and water quality and noise levels may affect your use and enjoyment of your lot and your ability to sell it.
</P>
<P>(5) In the purchase of real estate, many technical requirements must be met to assure that you receive proper title. Since this purchase involves a major expenditure of money, it is recommended that you seek professional advice before you obligate yourself.
</P>
<HD3>XIII. <I>Format for General Information</I>—§ 1010.108
</HD3>
<P>“This Report covers ____ lots located in ____________ County, (<I>State</I>). See Page ____ for a listing of these lots. It is estimated that this subdivision will eventually contain ____ lots.”
</P>
<P>“The developer of this subdivision is:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Developer's Name)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Developer's Address)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Developer's telephone number)
</FP>
<P>“Answers to questions and information about this subdivision may be obtained by telephoning the developer at the number listed above.”
</P>
<HD3>XIV. <I>Paragraphs to be included in the General Report—Title to the Property and Land Use</I>—§ 1010.109(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>“A person with legal title to property generally has the right to own, use and enjoy the property. A contract to buy a lot may give you possession but doesn't give you legal title. You won't have legal title until you receive a valid deed. A restriction or an encumbrance on your lot, or on the subdivision, could adversely affect your title.”
</P>
<P>“Here we will discuss the sales contract you will sign and the deed you will receive. We will also provide you with information about any land use restrictions and encumbrances, mortgages, or liens affecting your lot and some important facts about payments, recording, and title insurance.”
</P>
<HD3>XV. <I>Statement on Release Provisions</I>—§ 1010.109(c)(2)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>“The release provisions for the (indicate all or particular lots) have not been recorded. Therefore, they may not be honored by subsequent holders of the mortgage. If they are not honored, you may not be able to obtain clear title to a lot covered by this mortgage until we have paid the mortgage in full, even if you have paid the full purchase price of the lot. If we should default on the mortgage prior to obtaining a release of your lot, you may lose your lot and all monies paid.”
</P>
<HD3>XVI. <I>Warning for Release Provisions</I>—§ 1010.109(c)(2)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>)
</HD3>
<P>“The (state type of encumbrance) on (indicate all or particular lots) in this subdivision does not contain any provisions for the release of an individual lot when the full purchase price of the lot has been paid. Therefore, if your lot is subject to this (state type of encumbrance), you may not be able to obtain clear title to your lot until we have paid the (state type of encumbrance) in full, even though you may have received a deed and paid the full purchase price of the lot. If we should default on the (state type of encumbrance) prior to obtaining a release, you may lose your lot and all monies paid.”
</P>
<HD3>XVII. <I>Method and Purpose of Recording Warning</I>—§ 1010.109(d)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>“Unless your contract or deed is recorded you may lose your lot through the claims of subsequent purchasers or subsequent creditors of anyone having an interest in the land”.
</P>
<HD3>XVIII. <I>Escrow Statement—Disclosure</I> § 1010.109(e)(1)
</HD3>
<P>“You may lose your (indicate deposit, down payment and/or installment payments) on your lot if we fail to deliver legal title to you as called for in the contract, because (they are/it is) not held in an escrow account which fully protects you.”
</P>
<HD3>XIX. <I>Road Chart</I>—§ 1010.110(b)(3)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UUnit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated starting date
<br/>(month/year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of construction now complete
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated completion date
<br/>(month/year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Present
<br/>surface
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Final surface
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>XX. <I>Nearby Communities Chart</I>—§ 1010.110(b)(6)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nearby Communities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Population</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distance Over Paved Roads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Distance Over Unpaved Roads</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Total</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>XXI. <I>Water Chart Form</I>—§ 1010.111(a)(1)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Water
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UUnit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated starting date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of
<br/>construction now
<br/>complete
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated service availability date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>XXII. <I>Comfort Station Chart</I>—§ 1010.111(b)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<HD3>Comfort Stations
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Unit
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Estimated Starting Date (month-year)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Percentage of Construction now complete
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Estimated Service Availability Date (month and year)
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>XXIII. <I>Sewer Chart</I>—§ 1010.111(b)(1)(iii)(B)
</HD3>
<HD3>Sewer
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Unit Estimated Starting Date (month/year)
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Percentage of Construction now complete
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Estimated Service Availability Date (month/year)
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>XXIV. Electric Service Chart—§ 1010.111(c)(2)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Electric Service
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">UUnit
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated starting date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of
<br/>construction complete
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated service availability date
<br/>(month and year)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>XXV. <I>Recreational Facility Chart</I>—§ 1010.114(b)
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Facility
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of
<br/>construction now
<br/>complete
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated date of start of construction
<br/>(month/year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Estimated date
<br/>available for use
<br/>(month/year)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Financial assurance of completion
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Buyer's annual cost or assessments
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD3>XXVI. <I>Cost Sheet Format</I>—§ 1010.117(a)
</HD3>
<HD3>Cost Sheet
</HD3>
<P>In addition to the purchase price of your lot, there are other expenditures which must be made.
</P>
<P>Listed below are the major costs. There may be other fees for use of the recreational facilities.
</P>
<P>All costs are subject to change.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Sales Price
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Price of lot</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Finance Charge</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Total</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Estimated one-time charges
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Water connection fee/installation or private well</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Sewer connection fee/installation of private on-site sewer system</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3. Construction costs to extend electric and/or telephone services</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4. Other (Identify)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Total of estimated sales price and one-time charges</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Estimated monthly/annual charges, exclusive of utility use fees
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1. Taxes—Average unimproved lot after sale to purchaser</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2. Dues and assessments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The information contained in this Property Report is an accurate description of our subdivision and development plans.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature of Senior Executive Officer
</FP>
<HD3>XXVII. <I>Sample Receipt, Agent Certification and Cancellation Page</I>—§ 1010.118(a)
</HD3>
<HD3>Receipt, Agent Certification and Cancellation Page purchaser receipt Important: Read Carefully
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Name of subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>ILSRP number
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of report
</FP-DASH>
<P>We must give you a copy of this Property Report and give you an opportunity to read it before you sign any contract or agreement. By signing this receipt, you acknowledge that you have received a copy of our Property Report.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Received by
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Street address
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>City
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>State
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Zip
</FP-DASH>
<P>If any representations are made to you which are contrary to those in this Report, please notify the:
</P>
<FP>Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection
</FP>
<FP>1700 G Street NW
</FP>
<FP>Washington, DC 20552
</FP>
<HD3>Agent Certification
</HD3>
<P>I certify that I have made no representations to the person(s) receiving this Property Report which are contrary to the information contained in this Property Report.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Lot
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Block
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Section
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Name of salesperson
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>Purchase Cancellation
</HD3>
<P>If you are entitled to cancel your purchase contract, and wish to do so, you may cancel by personal notice, or in writing. If you cancel in person or by telephone, it is recommended that you immediately confirm the cancellation by certified mail. You may use the form below.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Name of subdivision
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date of contract
</FP-DASH>
<P>This will confirm that I/we wish to cancel our purchase contract.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Purchaser(s) signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>XXVIII. <I>Affirmation of Senior Executive Officer</I>—§ 1010.219
</HD3>
<P>I hereby affirm that I am the Senior Executive Officer of the developer of the lots herein described or will be the Senior Executive Officer of the developer at the time lots are offered for sale or lease to the public, or that I am the agent authorized by the Senior Executive Officer of such developer to complete this statement (if agent, submit written authorization to act as agent); and,
</P>
<P>That the statements contained in this Statement of Record and any supplement hereto, together with any documents submitted herein, are full, true, complete, and correct; and,
</P>
<P>That the developer is bound to carry out the promises and obligations set forth in this Statement of Record and Property Report or I have clearly stated who is or will be responsible; and
</P>
<P>That the fees accompanying this submission are in the amount required by the rules and regulations of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Date)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Signature)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Corporate seal if applicable)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Title)
</FP>
<P>WARNING: 15 U.S.C. 1717 provides: “Any person who willfully violates any of the provisions of this title or of the rules and regulations or any person who willfully, in a Statement of Record filed under, or in a Property Report issued pursuant to this title, makes any untrue statement of a material fact shall upon conviction be fined not more than $10,000.00 or imprisoned not more than 5 years, or both.”
</P>
<HD3>XXIX. <I>Form for Certification for Disclosure Documents</I>—§ 1010.504(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>The (indicate the State Department of Real Estate or other appropriate entity) has reviewed the attached materials and finds they are true copies of (1) the (indicate Property Report or other similar state accepted document or amendment to such document) for (indicate the name of the subdivision), made effective by the state of ____________ on ____________ (give date) and still in effect; and (2) the supporting documentation upon which such (indicate the document or amendment) is based.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<HD3>XXX. <I>Language to be Included on Property Report Cover Page</I>—§ 1010.558(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>“If you received this Report prior to signing a contract or agreement, you may cancel your contract or agreement by giving notice to the seller anytime before midnight of the seventh day following the signing of the contract or agreement.
</P>
<P>“If you did not receive this Report before you signed a contract or agreement, you may cancel the contract or agreement anytime within two years from the date of signing.”
</P>
<HD3>XXXI. <I>Notice of Revocation Rights</I>—§ 1010.559(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>You have the option to cancel your contract or agreement of sale by notice to the seller until midnight of the seventh day following the signing of the contract or agreement. If you did not receive a Property Report prepared pursuant to the rules and regulations of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, in advance of your signing the contract or agreement, this contract or agreement may be revoked at your option for two years from the date of signing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79489, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29118, May 11, 2016; 88 FR 16538, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1011" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1011—PURCHASERS' REVOCATION RIGHTS, SALES PRACTICES AND STANDARDS (REGULATION K)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1718.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79522, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Purchasers' Revocation Rights</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart A is to elaborate on the revocation rights in 15 U.S.C. 1703, by enumerating certain conditions under which purchasers may exercise revocation rights. Generally, whenever revocation rights are available, they apply to promissory notes, as well as traditional agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.2   Revocation regardless of registration.</HEAD>
<P>All purchasers have the option to revoke a contract or lease with regard to a lot not exempt under §§ 1010.5 through 1010.11 and 1010.14 until midnight of the seventh day after the day that the purchaser signs a contract or lease. If a purchaser is entitled to a longer revocation period under state law, that period is deemed the Federal revocation period rather than the 7 days, and all contracts and agreements (including promissory notes) shall so state.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.4   Contract requirements and revocation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In accordance with 15 U.S.C. 1703(d)(3), the refund to the purchaser is calculated by subtracting from the amount described in 15 U.S.C. 1703(d)(3)(B), the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Fifteen percent of the purchase or lease price of the lot (excluding interest owed) at the time of the default or breach of contract or agreement; or
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of damages incurred by the seller or lessor due to the default or breach of contract.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Damages incurred by the seller or lessor</I> means actual damages resulting from the default or breach, as determined by the law of the jurisdiction governing the contract. However, no damages may be specified in the contract or agreement, except a liquidated damages clause not exceeding 15 percent of the purchase price of the lot, excluding any interest owed.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase price</I> means the cash sales price of the lot shown on the contract.
</P>
<P>(c) The contractual requirements of 15 U.S.C. 1703(d) do not apply to the sale of a lot for which, within 180 days after the signing of the sales contract, the purchaser receives a warranty deed or, where warranty deeds are not commonly used, its equivalent under state law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.5   Reimbursement.</HEAD>
<P>If a purchaser exercises rights under 15 U.S.C. 1703(b), (c), or (d), but cannot reconvey the lot in substantially similar condition, the developer may subtract from the amount paid by the purchaser, and otherwise due to the purchaser under 15 U.S.C. 1703, any diminished value in the lot caused by the acts of the purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Sales Practices and Standards</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.10   General.</HEAD>
<P><I>Sales practices</I> means any conduct or advertising by a developer or its agents to induce a person to buy or lease a lot. This subpart describes certain unlawful sales practices and provides standards to illustrate what other sales practices are considered misleading in light of certain circumstances in which they are made and within the context of the overall offer and sale or lease.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.15   Unlawful sales practices—statutory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The statutory prohibitions against fraudulent or misleading sales practices are set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1703(a). With respect to the prohibitions against representing that certain facilities will be provided or completed unless there is a contractual obligation to do so by the developer:
</P>
<P>(a) The contractual covenant to provide or complete the services or amenities may be conditioned only upon grounds that are legally sufficient to establish impossibility of performance in the jurisdiction where the services or amenities are being provided or completed;
</P>
<P>(b) Contingencies such as acts of God, strikes, or material shortages are recognized as permissible to defer completion of services or amenities; and
</P>
<P>(c) In creating these contractual obligations developers have the option of incorporating by reference the Property Report in effect at the time of the sale or lease. If a developer chooses to incorporate the Property Report by reference, the effective date of the Property Report being included by reference must be specified in the contract of sale or lease.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.20   Unlawful sales practices—regulatory provisions.</HEAD>
<P>In selling, leasing or offering to sell or lease any lot in a subdivision it is an unlawful sales practice for any developer or agent, directly or indirectly, to:
</P>
<P>(a) Give the Property Report to a purchaser along with other materials when done in such a manner so as to conceal the Property Report from the purchaser.
</P>
<P>(b) Give a contract to a purchaser or encourage him to sign anything before delivery of the Property Report.
</P>
<P>(c) Refer to the Property Report or Offering Statement as anything other than a Property Report or Offering Statement.
</P>
<P>(d) Use any misleading practice, device or representation which would deny a purchaser any cancellation or refund rights or privileges granted the purchaser by the terms of a contract or any other document used by the developer as a sales inducement.
</P>
<P>(e) Refuse to deliver a Property Report to any person who exhibits an interest in buying or leasing a lot in the subdivision and requests a copy of the Property Report.
</P>
<P>(f) Use a Property Report, note, contract, deed or other document prepared in a language other than that in which the sales campaign is conducted, unless an accurate translation is attached to the document.
</P>
<P>(g) Deliberately fail to maintain a sufficient supply of restrictive covenants and financial statements or to deliver a copy to a purchaser upon request as required by §§ 1010.109(f), 1010.112(d), 1010.209(g), and 1010.212(i).
</P>
<P>(h) Use, as a sales inducement, any representation that any lot has good investment potential or will increase in value unless it can be established, in writing, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Comparable lots or parcels in the subdivision have, in fact, been resold by their owners on the open market at a profit, or;
</P>
<P>(2) There is a factual basis for the represented future increase in value and the factual basis is certain, and;
</P>
<P>(3) The sales price of the offered lot does not already reflect the anticipated increase in value due to any promised facilities or amenities. The burden of establishing the relevancy of any comparable sales and the certainty of the factual basis of the increase in value shall rest upon the developer.
</P>
<P>(i) Represent a lot as a homesite or building lot unless:
</P>
<P>(1) Potable water is available at a reasonable cost;
</P>
<P>(2) The lot is suitable for a septic tank operation or there is reasonable assurance that the lot can be served by a central sewage system;
</P>
<P>(3) The lot is legally accessible; and
</P>
<P>(4) The lot is free from periodic flooding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.25" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.25   Misleading sales practices.</HEAD>
<P>Generally, promotional statements or material will be judged on the basis of the affirmative representations contained therein and the reasonable inferences to be drawn therefrom, unless the contrary is affirmatively stated or appears in promotional material, or unless adequate safeguards have been provided by the seller to reasonably guarantee the occurrence of the thing inferred. For example, when a lot is represented as being sold by a warranty deed, the inference is that the seller can and will convey fee simple title free and clear of all liens, encumbrances, and defects except those which are disclosed in writing to the prospective purchaser prior to conveyance. The following advertising and promotional practices, while not all inclusive, are considered misleading, and are used to evaluate a developer's or agent's representations in determining possible violations of the Act or regulations. In this section “represent” carries its common meaning.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed improvements.</I> References to proposed improvements of any land unless it is clearly indicated that the improvements are only proposed or what the completion date is for the proposed improvement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Off-premises representations.</I> Representing scenes or proposed improvements other than those in the subdivision unless
</P>
<P>(1) It is clearly stated that the scenes or improvements are not related to the subdivision offered; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of drawings that the scenes or improvements are artists' renderings;
</P>
<P>(3) If the areas or improvements shown are available to purchasers, what the distance in road miles is to the scenes or improvements represented.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Land use representations.</I> Representing uses to which the offered land can be put unless the land can be put to such use without unreasonable cost to the purchaser and unless no fact or circumstance exists which would prohibit the immediate use of the land for its represented use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of “road” and “street.”</I> Using the words “road” or “street” unless the type of road surface is disclosed. All roads and streets shown on subdivision maps are presumed to be of an all-weather graded gravel quality or higher and are presumed to be traversable by conventional automobile under all normal weather conditions unless otherwise shown on the map.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Road access and use.</I> Representing the existence of a road easement or right-of-way unless the easement or right-of-way is dedicated to the public, to property owners or to the appropriate property owners association.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waterfront property.</I> References to waterfront property, unless the property being offered actually fronts on a body of water. Representations which refer to “canal” or “canals” must state the specific use to which such canal or canals can be put.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Maps and distances.</I> (1) The use of maps to show proximity to other communities, unless the maps are drawn to scale and scale included, or the specific road mileage appears in easily readable print.
</P>
<P>(2) The use of the terms such as “minutes away,” “short distance,” “only miles,” or “near” or similar terms to indicate distance unless the actual distance in road miles is used in conjunction with such terms. Road miles will be measured from the approximate geographical center of the subdivided lands to the approximate downtown or geographical center of the community.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lot size.</I> Representation of the size of a lot offered unless the lot size represented is exclusive of all easements to which the lot may be subject, except for those for providing utilities to the lot.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>“Free” lots.</I> Representing lots as “free” if the prospective purchaser is required to give any consideration whatsoever, offering lots for “closing costs only” when the closing costs are substantially more than customary, or when an additional lot must be purchased at a higher price.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Pre-development prices.</I> References to pre-development sales at a lower price because the land has not yet been developed unless there are plans for development, and reasonable assurance is available that the plans will be completed.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>False reports of lot sales.</I> Repeatedly announcing that lots are being sold or to make repetitive announcements of the same lot being sold when in fact this is not the case.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Guaranteed refund.</I> Use of the word “guarantee” or phrase “guaranteed refund” or similar language implying a money-back guarantee unless the refund is unconditional.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Discount certificates.</I> The use of discount certificates when in fact there is no actual price reduction or when a discount certificate is regularly used.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Lot exchanges.</I> Representations regarding property exchange privileges unless any applicable conditions are clearly stated.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Resale program.</I> Making any representation that implies that the developer or agent will resell or repurchase the property being offered at some future time unless the developer or agent has an ongoing program for doing so.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Symbols for conditions.</I> The use of asterisks or any other reference symbol or oral parenthetical expression as a means of contradicting or substantially changing any previously made statement or as a means of obscuring material facts.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Proposed public facilities.</I> References to a proposed public facility unless money has been budgeted for construction of the facility and is available to the public authority having the responsibility of construction, or unless disclosure of the existing facts concerning the public facility is made.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Non-profit or institutional name use.</I> The use of names or trade styles which imply that the developer is a nonprofit research organization, public bureau, group, etc., when such is not the case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.27" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.27   Fair housing.</HEAD>
<P>Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968, 42 U.S.C. 3601, <I>et seq.,</I> and its implementing regulations and guidelines apply to land sales transactions to the extent warranted by the facts of the transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.30   Persons to whom subpart B is inapplicable.</HEAD>
<P>Newspaper or periodical publishers, job printers, broadcasters, or telecasters, or any of the employees thereof, are not subject to this subpart unless the publishers, printers, broadcasters, or telecasters:
</P>
<P>(a) Have actual knowledge of the falsity of the advertisement or
</P>
<P>(b) Have any interest in the subdivision advertised or
</P>
<P>(c) Also serve directly or indirectly as the advertising agent or agency for the developer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Advertising Disclaimers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1011.50" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.12.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1011.50   Advertising disclaimers; subdivisions registered and effective with the Bureau.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The following disclaimer statement shall be displayed below the text of all printed material and literature used in connection with the sale or lease of lots in a subdivision for which an effective Statement or Record is on file with the Director: “Obtain the Property Report required by Federal law and read it before signing anything. No Federal agency has judged the merits or value, if any, of this property.” If the material or literature consists of more than one page, it shall appear at the bottom of the front page. The disclaimer statement shall be set in type of at least ten point font.
</P>
<P>(b) If the advertising is of a classified type; is not more than five inches long and not more than one column in print wide, the disclaimer statement may be set in type of at least six point font.
</P>
<P>(c) This disclaimer statement need not appear on billboards, on normal size matchbook folders or business cards which are used in advertising nor in advertising of a classified type which is less than one column in print wide and is less than five inches long.
</P>
<P>(d) A developer who is required by any state, or states, to display an advertising disclaimer in the same location, or one of equal prominence, as that of the Federal disclaimer, may combine the wording of the disclaimers. All of the wording of the Federal disclaimer must be included in the resulting combined disclaimer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1012" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1012—SPECIAL RULES OF PRACTICE (REGULATION L)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1718.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79524, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Filing Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.30   Scope of this subpart.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart applies to and governs procedures under which developers may obtain prefiling assistance and be notified of and permitted to correct deficiencies in the Statement of Record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.35" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.35   Prefiling assistance.</HEAD>
<P>Persons intending to file with the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, Office of Supervision Examinations may receive advice of a general nature as to the preparation of the filing including information as to proper format to be used and the scope of the items to be included in the format. Inquiries and requests for informal discussions with staff members should be directed to the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 29119, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.40" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.40   Processing of filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Statements of Record and accompanying filing fees will be received on behalf of the Director by the Office of Supervision Examinations, for determination of whether the criteria set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section have been satisfied. Where it appears that all three criteria are satisfied and it is otherwise practicable, acceleration of the effectiveness of the Statement of Record will normally be granted.
</P>
<P>(1) Completeness of the statement
</P>
<P>(2) Adequacy of the filing fee, and
</P>
<P>(3) Adequacy of disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) Filings intended as Statements of Record but which do not comply in form with §§ 1010.105 and 1010.120 of this chapter, whichever is applicable, and Statements of Record accompanied by inadequate filing fees will not be effective to accomplish any purpose under the Act. At the discretion of the Interstate Land Sales Registration Program, such filings and any moneys accompanying them may be immediately returned to the sender or after notification may be held pending the sender's appropriate response.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons filing incomplete or inaccurate Statements of Record will be notified of the deficiencies therein by the Suspension Notice procedure described in § 1010.45(a) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79524, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29119, May 11, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Adjudicatory Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1012.105-1012.200" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1012.105-1012.200   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.205" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.205   Suspension notice prior to effective date.</HEAD>
<P>A suspension pursuant to § 1010.45(a) of this chapter shall be effected by service of a suspension notice which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) An identification of the filing to which the notice applies.
</P>
<P>(b) A specification of the deficiencies of form, disclosure, accuracy, documentation or fee tender which constitute the grounds under § 1010.45(a) of this chapter, of the suspension, and of the additional or corrective procedure, information, documentation, or tender which will satisfy the Director's requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of the hearing rights of the developer under § 1012.210 and of the procedures for invoking those rights.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice that, unless otherwise ordered, the suspension shall remain in effect until 30 days after the developer cures the specified deficiencies as required by the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.210" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.210   Hearings—suspension notice prior to effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A developer, upon receipt of a suspension notice issued pursuant to § 1010.45(a) of this chapter, may obtain a hearing by filing a written request in accordance with the instructions regarding such request contained in the suspension notice. Such a request must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the suspension notice and must be accompanied by an answer and 3 copies thereof signed by the respondent or the respondent's attorney conforming to the requirements of 1081.201(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such hearing shall be held within 20 days of receipt of the request. The time and place for hearing shall be fixed with due regard for the public interest and the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for hearing filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall not interrupt or annul the effectiveness of the suspension notice, and suspension of the effective date of the Statement or amendment shall continue until vacated by order of the Director or administrative law judge. Except in cases in which the developer shall waive or withdraw the request for such hearing, or shall fail to pursue the same by appropriate appearance at a hearing duly scheduled, noticed and convened, the suspended filing shall be reinstated in the event of failure of the Director to schedule, give notice of or hold a duly-requested hearing within the time specified in paragraph (b) of this section, or in the event of a finding that the Director has failed to support at such hearing the propriety of the suspension with respect to the material issues of law and fact raised by the answer. Such reinstatement shall be effective on the date on which the filing would have become effective had no notice of suspension been issued with respect to it.
</P>
<P>(d) If there is an outstanding suspension notice under § 1010.45(a) with respect to the same matter for which a suspension order under § 1010.45(b)(3) is issued, the notice and order shall be consolidated for the purposes of hearing. In the event that allegations upon which the suspension notice and suspension order are based are identical, only one answer need be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.215" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.215   Notice of proceedings subsequent to effective date.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding pursuant to § 1010.45(b)(1) of this chapter is commenced by issuance and service of a notice which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) A clear and accurate identification of the filing or filings to which the notice relates.
</P>
<P>(b) A clear and concise statement of material facts, sufficient to inform the respondent with reasonable definiteness of the statements, omissions, conduct, circumstances or practices alleged to constitute the grounds for the proposed suspension order under § 1010.45(b)(1) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of hearing rights of the developer under § 1012.220 and of the procedures for invoking those rights.
</P>
<P>(d) Designation of the administrative law judge appointed to preside over pre-hearing procedures and over the hearings.
</P>
<P>(e) A notice that failure to file an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c) will result in an order suspending the Statement of Record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.220" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.220   Hearings—notice of proceedings subsequent to effective date.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A developer, upon receipt of a notice of proceedings issued pursuant to § 1010.45(b)(1) of this chapter, may obtain a hearing by filing a written request in accordance with the instructions regarding such request contained in the notice of proceedings. Such a request must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice of proceedings and must be accompanied by an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such hearing shall be held within 45 days of receipt of the request by the Director unless it is determined that it is not in the public interest. The time and place for hearing shall be fixed with due regard for the public interest and the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to answer within the time allowed by paragraph (a) of this section or failure of a developer to appear at a hearing duly scheduled shall result in an appropriate order under § 1010.45(b)(1) of this chapter suspending the statement of record. Such order shall be effective as of the date of service or receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.225" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.225   Suspension order for failure to cooperate.</HEAD>
<P>A suspension pursuant to § 1010.45(b)(2) of this chapter shall be effected by service of a suspension order which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) An identification of the filing to which the order applies.
</P>
<P>(b) Bases for issuance of order.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of the hearing rights of the developer under § 1012.235 the procedures for invoking those rights.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that the order shall remain in effect until the developer has complied with the Director's requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.230" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.230   Suspension order pending amendments.</HEAD>
<P>A suspension pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of § 1010.45 of this chapter shall be effected by service of a suspension order which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) An identification of the filing to which the order applies.
</P>
<P>(b) An identification of the amendment to the filing which generated the order.
</P>
<P>(c) A statement that the issuance of the order is necessary or appropriate in the public interest or for the protection of purchasers.
</P>
<P>(d) A statement that the order shall remain in effect until the amendment becomes effective.
</P>
<P>(e) A notice of the hearing rights of the developer under § 1012.235 and of the procedure for invoking those rights.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.235" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.235   Hearings—suspension orders for failure to cooperate and pending amendments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A developer, upon receipt of a suspension order issued pursuant to § 1010.45(b)(2) or § 1010.45(b)(3) of this chapter, may obtain a hearing by filing a written request in accordance with the instructions regarding such request contained in the suspension order. Such request must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the suspension order and must be accompanied by an answer and 3 copies thereof signed by the respondent or respondent's attorney conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such hearing shall be held within 20 days of receipt of the request. The time and place for hearing shall be fixed with due regard for the public interest and the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) A request for hearing filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall not interrupt or annul the effectiveness of the suspension order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.236" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.236   Notice of proceedings to withdraw a State's certification.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding pursuant to § 1010.505 of this chapter is commenced by issuance and service of a notice which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) An identification of the state certification to which the notice applies.
</P>
<P>(b) A clear and concise statement of material facts, sufficient to inform the respondent with reasonable definiteness of the basis for the Director's determination, pursuant to § 1010.505, that the State's laws, regulations and the administration thereof, taken as a whole, no longer meet the requirements of subpart C of part 1010.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of hearing rights of the state under § 1012.237 and of the procedures for invoking those rights.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice that failure to file an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c) will result in an order suspending the State's certification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79524, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 29119, May 11, 2016] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.237" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.237   Hearings—notice of proceedings pursuant to withdrawal of state certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A State, upon receipt of a notice of proceedings issued pursuant to § 1010.505 of this chapter, may obtain a hearing by filing a written request in accordance with the instructions regarding such request contained in the notice of proceedings. Such request must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice of proceedings and must be accompanied by an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such hearing shall be held within 45 days of receipt of this request. The time and place for the hearing shall be fixed with due regard for the public interest and the convenience and necessity of the parties or their representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to answer within the time allowed by paragraph (a) of this section or failure to appear at a hearing duly scheduled shall result in an appropriate order under § 1010.505 of this chapter withdrawing the State's certification. Such order shall be effective as of the date of service or receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.238" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.238   Notices of proceedings to terminate exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>A proceeding to terminate a self-determining exemption under § 1010.14 or an exemption order under § 1010.15 or § 1010.16 is commenced by issuance and service of a notice which shall contain:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of an exemption under § 1010.14, an identification of the developer and subdivision to which this notice applies. In the case of an exemption under either § 1010.15 or § 1010.16, an identification of the exemption order to which the notice applies.
</P>
<P>(b) A clear and concise statement of material facts, sufficient to inform the respondent with reasonable definiteness of the basis for the Director's determination that further exemption from the registration and disclosure requirements is not in the public interest or that the sales or leases do not meet the requirements for exemption, or both.
</P>
<P>(c) A notice of hearing rights of the respondent under § 1012.239 and of the procedures for invoking those rights.
</P>
<P>(d) A notice that failure to file an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c) will result, in the case of a notice issued under § 1010.14, in an order terminating eligibility for the exemption, or, in the case of a notice issued under either § 1010.15 or § 1010.16, in an order terminating the exemption order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1012.239" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.13.4.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1012.239   Hearings—notice of proceedings pursuant to exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A developer, upon receipt of a notice of proceedings issued under §§ 1010.14, 1010.15, and 1010.16 of this chapter, may obtain a hearing by filing a written request contained in the notice of proceedings. The request must be filed within 15 days of receipt of the notice of proceedings and must be accompanied by an answer conforming to the requirements of § 1081.201(b) and (c).
</P>
<P>(b) When a hearing is requested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, such hearing shall be held within 45 days of receipt of this request. The time and place for the hearing shall be fixed with due regard for the public interest and the convenience and necessity of the parties of their representatives.
</P>
<P>(c) Failure to answer within the time allowed by paragraph (a) of this section, or failure to appear at a duly scheduled hearing shall result in an appropriate order under § 1010.14, § 1010.15, or § 1010.16 of this chapter terminating the developer's exemption. The order shall be effective as of the date of service or receipt.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1013" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1013—CONSUMER LEASING (REGULATION M)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>15 U.S.C. 1604 and 1667f; Pub. L. 111-203 section 1100E, 124 Stat. 1376.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78502, Dec. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1013.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.1   Authority, scope, purpose, and enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part, known as Regulation M, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the consumer leasing provisions of the Truth in Lending Act, which is title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). Information collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB control number 3170-0006.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> This part applies to all persons that are lessors of personal property under consumer leases as those terms are defined in § 1013.2(e)(1) and (h), except persons excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376. The purpose of this part is:
</P>
<P>(1) To ensure that lessees of personal property receive meaningful disclosures that enable them to compare lease terms with other leases and, where appropriate, with credit transactions;
</P>
<P>(2) To limit the amount of balloon payments in consumer lease transactions; and
</P>
<P>(3) To provide for the accurate disclosure of lease terms in advertising.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> Section 108 of the Act contains the administrative enforcement provisions. Sections 112, 130, 131, and 185 of the Act contain the liability provisions for failing to comply with the requirements of the Act and this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) and the Consumer Leasing Act is Chapter 5 of the Truth in Lending Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message in any medium that directly or indirectly promotes a consumer lease transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bureau</I> refers to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Closed-end lease</I> means a consumer lease other than an open-end lease as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Consumer lease</I> means a contract in the form of a bailment or lease for the use of personal property by a natural person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, for a period exceeding four months and for a total contractual obligation not exceeding the applicable threshold amount, whether or not the lessee has the option to purchase or otherwise become the owner of the property at the expiration of the lease. The threshold amount is adjusted annually to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable. See the official commentary to this paragraph (e) for the threshold amount applicable to a specific consumer lease. Unless the context indicates otherwise, in this part “lease” means “consumer lease.”
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include a lease that meets the definition of a credit sale in Regulation Z (12 CFR 226.2(a)). It also does not include a lease for agricultural, business, or commercial purposes or a lease made to an organization.
</P>
<P>(3) This part does not apply to a lease transaction of personal property which is incident to the lease of real property and which provides that:
</P>
<P>(i) The lessee has no liability for the value of the personal property at the end of the lease term except for abnormal wear and tear; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The lessee has no option to purchase the leased property.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Gross capitalized cost</I> means the amount agreed upon by the lessor and the lessee as the value of the leased property and any items that are capitalized or amortized during the lease term, including but not limited to taxes, insurance, service agreements, and any outstanding prior credit or lease balance. <I>Capitalized cost reduction</I> means the total amount of any rebate, cash payment, net trade-in allowance, and noncash credit that reduces the gross capitalized cost. The <I>adjusted capitalized cost</I> equals the gross capitalized cost less the capitalized cost reduction, and is the amount used by the lessor in calculating the base periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Lessee</I> means a natural person who enters into or is offered a consumer lease.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Lessor</I> means a person who regularly leases, offers to lease, or arranges for the lease of personal property under a consumer lease. A person who has leased, offered, or arranged to lease personal property more than five times in the preceding calendar year or more than five times in the current calendar year is subject to the Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Open-end lease</I> means a consumer lease in which the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Organization</I> means a corporation, trust, estate, partnership, cooperative, association, or government entity or instrumentality.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Personal property</I> means any property that is not real property under the law of the state where the property is located at the time it is offered or made available for lease.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Realized value</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The price received by the lessor for the leased property at disposition;
</P>
<P>(2) The highest offer for disposition of the leased property; or
</P>
<P>(3) The fair market value of the leased property at the end of the lease term.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Residual value</I> means the value of the leased property at the end of the lease term, as estimated or assigned at consummation by the lessor, used in calculating the base periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Security interest</I> and <I>security</I> mean any interest in property that secures the payment or performance of an obligation.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.3   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> A lessor shall make the disclosures required by § 1013.4, as applicable. The disclosures shall be made clearly and conspicuously in writing in a form the consumer may keep, in accordance with this section. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the lessee in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). For an advertisement accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required by § 1013.7 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form in the advertisement, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 1013.4 shall be given to the lessee together in a dated statement that identifies the lessor and the lessee; the disclosures may be made either in a separate statement that identifies the consumer lease transaction or in the contract or other document evidencing the lease. Alternatively, the disclosures required to be segregated from other information under paragraph (a)(2) of this section may be provided in a separate dated statement that identifies the lease, and the other required disclosures may be provided in the lease contract or other document evidencing the lease. In a lease of multiple items, the property description required by § 1013.4(a) may be given in a separate statement that is included in the disclosure statement required by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Segregation of certain disclosures.</I> The following disclosures shall be segregated from other information and shall contain only directly related information: §§ 1013.4(b) through (f), (g)(2), (h)(3), (i)(1), (j), and (m)(1). The headings, content, and format for the disclosures referred to in this paragraph (a)(2) shall be provided in a manner substantially similar to the applicable model form in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> A lessor shall provide the disclosures to the lessee prior to the consummation of a consumer lease.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Language of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 1013.4 may be made in a language other than English provided that they are made available in English upon the lessee's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information; nonsegregated disclosures.</I> Additional information may be provided with any disclosure not listed in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, but it shall not be stated, used, or placed so as to mislead or confuse the lessee or contradict, obscure, or detract attention from any disclosure required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple lessors or lessees.</I> When a transaction involves more than one lessor, the disclosures required by this part may be made by one lessor on behalf of all the lessors. When a lease involves more than one lessee, the lessor may provide the disclosures to any lessee who is primarily liable on the lease.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Use of estimates.</I> If an amount or other item needed to comply with a required disclosure is unknown or unavailable after reasonable efforts have been made to ascertain the information, the lessor may use a reasonable estimate that is based on the best information available to the lessor, is clearly identified as an estimate, and is not used to circumvent or evade any disclosures required by this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent occurrence.</I> If a required disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event occurring after consummation, the inaccuracy is not a violation of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Minor variations.</I> A lessor may disregard the effects of the following in making disclosures:
</P>
<P>(1) That payments must be collected in whole cents;
</P>
<P>(2) That dates of scheduled payments may be different because a scheduled date is not a business day;
</P>
<P>(3) That months have different numbers of days; and
</P>
<P>(4) That February 29 occurs in a leap year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.4   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>For any consumer lease subject to this part, the lessor shall disclose the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description of property.</I> A brief description of the leased property sufficient to identify the property to the lessee and lessor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount due at lease signing or delivery.</I> The total amount to be paid prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation, using the term “amount due at lease signing or delivery.” The lessor shall itemize each component by type and amount, including any refundable security deposit, advance monthly or other periodic payment, and capitalized cost reduction; and in motor vehicle leases, shall itemize how the amount due will be paid, by type and amount, including any net trade-in allowance, rebates, noncash credits, and cash payments in a format substantially similar to the model forms in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Payment schedule and total amount of periodic payments.</I> The number, amount, and due dates or periods of payments scheduled under the lease, and the total amount of the periodic payments.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other charges.</I> The total amount of other charges payable to the lessor, itemized by type and amount, that are not included in the periodic payments. Such charges include the amount of any liability the lease imposes upon the lessee at the end of the lease term; the potential difference between the residual and realized values referred to in paragraph (k) of this section is excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Total of payments.</I> The total of payments, with a description such as “the amount you will have paid by the end of the lease.” This amount is the sum of the amount due at lease signing (less any refundable amounts), the total amount of periodic payments (less any portion of the periodic payment paid at lease signing), and other charges under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. In an open-end lease, a description such as “you will owe an additional amount if the actual value of the vehicle is less than the residual value” shall accompany the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Payment calculation.</I> In a motor vehicle lease, a mathematical progression of how the scheduled periodic payment is derived, in a format substantially similar to the applicable model form in appendix A of this part, which shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Gross capitalized cost.</I> The gross capitalized cost, including a disclosure of the agreed upon value of the vehicle, a description such as “the agreed upon value of the vehicle [state the amount] and any items you pay for over the lease term (such as service contracts, insurance, and any outstanding prior credit or lease balance),” and a statement of the lessee's option to receive a separate written itemization of the gross capitalized cost. If requested by the lessee, the itemization shall be provided before consummation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capitalized cost reduction.</I> The capitalized cost reduction, with a description such as “the amount of any net trade-in allowance, rebate, noncash credit, or cash you pay that reduces the gross capitalized cost.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Adjusted capitalized cost.</I> The adjusted capitalized cost, with a description such as “the amount used in calculating your base [periodic] payment.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Residual value.</I> The residual value, with a description such as “the value of the vehicle at the end of the lease used in calculating your base [periodic] payment.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Depreciation and any amortized amounts.</I> The depreciation and any amortized amounts, which is the difference between the adjusted capitalized cost and the residual value, with a description such as “the amount charged for the vehicle's decline in value through normal use and for any other items paid over the lease term.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Rent charge.</I> The rent charge, with a description such as “the amount charged in addition to the depreciation and any amortized amounts.” This amount is the difference between the total of the base periodic payments over the lease term minus the depreciation and any amortized amounts.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Total of base periodic payments.</I> The total of base periodic payments with a description such as “depreciation and any amortized amounts plus the rent charge.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Lease payments.</I> The lease payments with a description such as “the number of payments in your lease.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Base periodic payment.</I> The total of the base periodic payments divided by the number of payment periods in the lease.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Itemization of other charges.</I> An itemization of any other charges that are part of the periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Total periodic payment.</I> The sum of the base periodic payment and any other charges that are part of the periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Early termination</I>—(1) <I>Conditions and disclosure of charges.</I> A statement of the conditions under which the lessee or lessor may terminate the lease prior to the end of the lease term; and the amount or a description of the method for determining the amount of any penalty or other charge for early termination, which must be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Early termination notice.</I> In a motor vehicle lease, a notice substantially similar to the following: “Early Termination. You may have to pay a substantial charge if you end this lease early. The charge may be up to several thousand dollars. The actual charge will depend on when the lease is terminated. The earlier you end the lease, the greater this charge is likely to be.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Maintenance responsibilities.</I> The following provisions are required:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statement of responsibilities.</I> A statement specifying whether the lessor or the lessee is responsible for maintaining or servicing the leased property, together with a brief description of the responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Wear and use standard.</I> A statement of the lessor's standards for wear and use (if any), which must be reasonable; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of wear and use standard.</I> In a motor vehicle lease, a notice regarding wear and use substantially similar to the following: “Excessive Wear and Use. You may be charged for excessive wear based on our standards for normal use.” The notice shall also specify the amount or method for determining any charge for excess mileage.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase option.</I> A statement of whether or not the lessee has the option to purchase the leased property, and:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>End of lease term.</I> If at the end of the lease term, the purchase price; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>During lease term.</I> If prior to the end of the lease term, the purchase price or the method for determining the price and when the lessee may exercise this option.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Statement referencing nonsegregated disclosures.</I> A statement that the lessee should refer to the lease documents for additional information on early termination, purchase options and maintenance responsibilities, warranties, late and default charges, insurance, and any security interests, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Liability between residual and realized values.</I> A statement of the lessee's liability, if any, at early termination or at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Right of appraisal.</I> If the lessee's liability at early termination or at the end of the lease term is based on the realized value of the leased property, a statement that the lessee may obtain, at the lessee's expense, a professional appraisal by an independent third party (agreed to by the lessee and the lessor) of the value that could be realized at sale of the leased property. The appraisal shall be final and binding on the parties.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Liability at end of lease term based on residual value.</I> If the lessee is liable at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rent and other charges.</I> The rent and other charges, paid by the lessee and required by the lessor as an incident to the lease transaction, with a description such as “the total amount of rent and other charges imposed in connection with your lease [state the amount].”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Excess liability.</I> A statement about a rebuttable presumption that, at the end of the lease term, the residual value of the leased property is unreasonable and not in good faith to the extent that the residual value exceeds the realized value by more than three times the base monthly payment (or more than three times the average payment allocable to a monthly period, if the lease calls for periodic payments other than monthly); and that the lessor cannot collect the excess amount unless the lessor brings a successful court action and pays the lessee's reasonable attorney's fees, or unless the excess of the residual value over the realized value is due to unreasonable or excessive wear or use of the leased property (in which case the rebuttable presumption does not apply).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Mutually agreeable final adjustment.</I> A statement that the lessee and lessor are permitted, after termination of the lease, to make any mutually agreeable final adjustment regarding excess liability.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Fees and taxes.</I> The total dollar amount for all official and license fees, registration, title, or taxes required to be paid in connection with the lease.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Insurance.</I> A brief identification of insurance in connection with the lease including:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Through the lessor.</I> If the insurance is provided by or paid through the lessor, the types and amounts of coverage and the cost to the lessee; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Through a third party.</I> If the lessee must obtain the insurance, the types and amounts of coverage required of the lessee.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Warranties or guarantees.</I> A statement identifying all express warranties and guarantees from the manufacturer or lessor with respect to the leased property that apply to the lessee.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Penalties and other charges for delinquency.</I> The amount or the method of determining the amount of any penalty or other charge for delinquency, default, or late payments, which must be reasonable.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Security interest.</I> A description of any security interest, other than a security deposit disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section, held or to be retained by the lessor; and a clear identification of the property to which the security interest relates.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Limitations on rate information.</I> If a lessor provides a percentage rate in an advertisement or in documents evidencing the lease transaction, a notice stating that “this percentage may not measure the overall cost of financing this lease” shall accompany the rate disclosure. The lessor shall not use the term “annual percentage rate,” “annual lease rate,” or any equivalent term.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Non-motor vehicle open-end leases.</I> Non-motor vehicle open-end leases remain subject to section 182(10) of the Act regarding end of term liability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.5   Renegotiations, extensions, and assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Renegotiation.</I> A renegotiation occurs when a consumer lease subject to this part is satisfied and replaced by a new lease undertaken by the same consumer. A renegotiation requires new disclosures, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension.</I> An extension is a continuation, agreed to by the lessor and the lessee, of an existing consumer lease beyond the originally scheduled end of the lease term, except when the continuation is the result of a renegotiation. An extension that exceeds six months requires new disclosures, except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assumption.</I> New disclosures are not required when a consumer lease is assumed by another person, whether or not the lessor charges an assumption fee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> New disclosures are not required for the following, even if they meet the definition of a renegotiation or an extension:
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction in the rent charge;
</P>
<P>(2) The deferment of one or more payments, whether or not a fee is charged;
</P>
<P>(3) The extension of a lease for not more than six months on a month-to-month basis or otherwise;
</P>
<P>(4) A substitution of leased property with property that has a substantially equivalent or greater economic value, provided no other lease terms are changed;
</P>
<P>(5) The addition, deletion, or substitution of leased property in a multiple-item lease, provided the average periodic payment does not change by more than 25 percent; or
</P>
<P>(6) An agreement resulting from a court proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.6   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.7   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> An advertisement for a consumer lease may state that a specific lease of property at specific amounts or terms is available only if the lessor usually and customarily leases or will lease the property at those amounts or terms.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures required by this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount due at lease signing or delivery.</I> Except for the statement of a periodic payment, any affirmative or negative reference to a charge that is a part of the disclosure required under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section shall not be more prominent than that disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement of a lease rate.</I> If a lessor provides a percentage rate in an advertisement, the rate shall not be more prominent than any of the disclosures in § 1013.4, with the exception of the notice in § 1013.4(s) required to accompany the rate; and the lessor shall not use the term “annual percentage rate,” “annual lease rate,” or equivalent term.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Catalogs or other multipage advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I> A catalog or other multipage advertisement, or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), that provides a table or schedule of the required disclosures shall be considered a single advertisement if, for lease terms that appear without all the required disclosures, the advertisement refers to the page or pages on which the table or schedule appears.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Triggering terms.</I> An advertisement that states any of the following items shall contain the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any payment; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of any capitalized cost reduction or other payment (or that no payment is required) prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional terms.</I> An advertisement stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall also state the following items:
</P>
<P>(i) That the transaction advertised is a lease;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total amount due prior to or at consummation or by delivery, if delivery occurs after consummation;
</P>
<P>(iii) The number, amounts, and due dates or periods of scheduled payments under the lease;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of whether or not a security deposit is required; and
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that an extra charge may be imposed at the end of the lease term where the lessee's liability (if any) is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value at the end of the lease term.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative disclosures—merchandise tags.</I> A merchandise tag stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section by referring to a sign or display prominently posted in the lessor's place of business that contains a table or schedule of the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements</I>—(1) <I>Toll-free number or print advertisement.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any item listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the advertisement states the items listed in paragraphs (d)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(i) Lists a toll-free telephone number along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Directs the consumer to a written advertisement in a publication of general circulation in the community served by the media station, including the name and the date of the publication, with a statement that information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section is included in the advertisement. The written advertisement shall be published beginning at least three days before and ending at least ten days after the broadcast.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Establishment of toll-free number.</I> (i) The toll-free telephone number shall be available for no fewer than ten days, beginning on the date of the broadcast.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lessor shall provide the information required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section orally, or in writing upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.8   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>A lessor shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements imposed by this part, other than the advertising requirements under § 1013.7, for a period of not less than two years after the date the disclosures are required to be made or an action is required to be taken.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1013.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1013.9   Relation to state laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent state law.</I> A state law that is inconsistent with the requirements of the Act and this part is preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. If a lessor cannot comply with a state law without violating a provision of this part, the state law is inconsistent within the meaning of section 186(a) of the Act and is preempted, unless the state law gives greater protection and benefit to the consumer. A state, through an official having primary enforcement or interpretative responsibilities for the state consumer leasing law, may apply to the Bureau for a preemption determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Application.</I> A state may apply to the Bureau for an exemption from the requirements of the Act and this part for any class of lease transactions within the state. The Bureau will grant such an exemption if the Bureau determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) The class of leasing transactions is subject to state law requirements substantially similar to the Act and this part or that lessees are afforded greater protection under state law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) There is adequate provision for state enforcement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> After an exemption has been granted, the requirements of the applicable state law (except for additional requirements not imposed by Federal law) will constitute the requirements of the Act and this part. No exemption will extend to the civil liability provisions of sections 130, 131, and 185 of the Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.10.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1013—Model Forms








</HEAD>
<FP-2>A-1—Model Open-End or Finance Vehicle Lease Disclosures
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-2—Model Closed-End or Net Vehicle Lease Disclosures
</FP-2>
<FP-2>A-3—Model Furniture Lease Disclosures
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er19de11.015.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.10.28" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1013 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.10.29" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1013—Issuance of Official Interpretations
</HEAD>
<P>Interpretations of this part issued by officials of the Bureau provide the formal protection afforded under section 130(f) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to Regulation M (Supplement I of this part), which will be amended periodically. No official interpretations will be issued approving a lessor's forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.14.0.1.10.30" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1013—Official Interpretations










</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> The commentary in Supplement I is the vehicle by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation M (12 CFR part 1013). Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under section 130(f) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1640(f)). Section 130(f) protects lessors from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any interpretation issued by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures for requesting interpretations.</I> Under appendix C of Regulation M, anyone may request an official interpretation. Interpretations that are adopted will be incorporated in this commentary following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No official interpretations are expected to be issued other than by means of this commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that it interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, some of the comments to § 1013.4(f) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 4(f)(1)-1 and comment 4(f)(2)-1. In other cases, comments have more general application and are designated, for example, as comment 4(a)-1. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1 through I-4. An appendix may be cited as comment app. A-1.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Illustrations.</I> Lists that appear in the commentary may be exhaustive or illustrative; the appropriate construction should be clear from the context. Illustrative lists are introduced by phrases such as “including,” “such as,” “to illustrate,” and “for example.”
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.1—Authority, Scope, Purpose, and Enforcement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation M applies to all persons (including branches of foreign banks or leasing companies located in the United States) that offer consumer leases to residents of any state (including foreign nationals) as defined in § 1013.2(p), except persons excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376. The regulation does not apply to a foreign branch of a U.S. bank or to a leasing company leasing to a U.S. citizen residing or visiting abroad or to a foreign national abroad.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.2—Definitions
</HD2>
<HD2>2(b) Advertisement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The term advertisement includes messages inviting, offering, or otherwise generally announcing to prospective customers the availability of consumer leases, whether in visual, oral, print or electronic media. Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. Messages in newspapers, magazines, leaflets, catalogs, and fliers.
</P>
<P>ii. Messages on radio, television, and public address systems.
</P>
<P>iii. Direct mail literature.
</P>
<P>iv. Printed material on any interior or exterior sign or display, in any window display, in any point-of-transaction literature or price tag that is delivered or made available to a lessee or prospective lessee in any manner whatsoever.
</P>
<P>v. Telephone solicitations.
</P>
<P>vi. Online messages, such as those on the Internet.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The term does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>i. Direct personal contacts, including follow-up letters, cost estimates for individual lessees, or oral or written communications relating to the negotiation of a specific transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Informational material distributed only to businesses.
</P>
<P>iii. Notices required by Federal or state law, if the law mandates that specific information be displayed and only the mandated information is included in the notice.
</P>
<P>iv. News articles controlled by the news medium.
</P>
<P>v. Market research or educational materials that do not solicit business.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Persons covered.</I> See the commentary to § 1013.7(a).
</P>
<HD2>2(d) Closed-End Lease
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In closed-end leases, sometimes referred to as “walk-away” leases, the lessee is not responsible for the residual value of the leased property at the end of the lease term.
</P>
<P><I>2(e) Consumer Lease</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Primary purposes.</I> A lessor must determine in each case if the leased property will be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. If a question exists as to the primary purpose for a lease, the fact that a lessor gives disclosures is not controlling on the question of whether the transaction is covered. The primary purpose of a lease is determined before or at consummation and a lessor need not provide Regulation M disclosures where there is a subsequent change in the primary use.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Period of time.</I> To be a consumer lease, the initial term of the lease must be more than four months. Thus, a lease of personal property for four months, three months or on a month-to-month or week-to-week basis (even though the lease actually extends beyond four months) is not a consumer lease and is not subject to the disclosure requirements of the regulation. However, a lease that imposes a penalty for not continuing the lease beyond four months is considered to have a term of more than four months. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. A three-month lease extended on a month-to-month basis and terminated after one year is not subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>ii. A month-to-month lease with a penalty, such as the forfeiture of a security deposit for terminating before one year, is subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total contractual obligation.</I> The total contractual obligation is not necessarily the same as the total of payments disclosed under § 1013.4(e). The total contractual obligation includes nonrefundable amounts a lessee is contractually obligated to pay to the lessor, but excludes items such as:
</P>
<P>i. Residual value amounts or purchase-option prices;
</P>
<P>ii. Amounts collected by the lessor but paid to a third party, such as taxes, licenses, and registration fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit sale.</I> The regulation does not cover a lease that meets the definition of a credit sale in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 226.2(a)(16), which is defined, in part, as a bailment or lease (unless terminable without penalty at any time by the consumer) under which the consumer:
</P>
<P>i. Agrees to pay as compensation for use a sum substantially equivalent to, or in excess of, the total value of the property and services involved; and
</P>
<P>ii. Will become (or has the option to become), for no additional consideration or for nominal consideration, the owner of the property upon compliance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Agricultural purpose.</I> Agricultural purpose means a purpose related to the production, harvest, exhibition, marketing, transportation, processing, or manufacture of agricultural products by a natural person who cultivates, plants, propagates, or nurtures those agricultural products, including but not limited to the acquisition of personal property and services used primarily in farming. Agricultural products include horticultural, viticultural, and dairy products, livestock, wildlife, poultry, bees, forest products, fish and shellfish, and any products thereof, including processed and manufactured products, and any and all products raised or produced on farms and any processed or manufactured products thereof.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Organization or other entity.</I> A consumer lease does not include a lease made to an organization such as a corporation or a government agency or instrumentality. Such a lease is not covered by the regulation even if the leased property is used (by an employee, for example) primarily for personal, family or household purposes, or is guaranteed by or subsequently assigned to a natural person.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Leases of personal property incidental to a service.</I> The following leases of personal property are deemed incidental to a service and thus are not subject to the regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Home entertainment systems requiring the consumer to lease equipment that enables a television to receive the transmitted programming.
</P>
<P>ii. Security alarm systems requiring the installation of leased equipment intended to monitor unlawful entries into a home and in some cases to provide fire protection.
</P>
<P>iii. Propane gas service where the consumer must lease a propane tank to receive the service.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Safe deposit boxes.</I> The lease of a safe deposit box is not a consumer lease under § 1013.2(e).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Threshold amount.</I> A consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this part if the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. The threshold amount in effect during a particular time period is the amount stated in comment 2(e)-11 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 2(e)-11 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900. If a consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this part because the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation, the lease remains exempt regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount.
</P>
<P>10. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 1013.2(e)(1), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From July 21, 2011, through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $55,800.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $57,200.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $61,000.
</P>
<P>xiv. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $66,400.
</P>
<P>xv. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $69,500.
</P>
<P>xvi. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $71,900.
</P>
<P>xvii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $73,400.






</P>
<HD2>2(g) Lessee
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Guarantors.</I> Guarantors are not lessees for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>2(h) Lessor
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Arranger of a lease.</I> To “arrange” for the lease of personal property means to provide or offer to provide a lease that is or will be extended by another person under a business or other relationship pursuant to which the person arranging the lease (a) receives or will receive a fee, compensation, or other consideration for the service or (b) has knowledge of the lease terms and participates in the preparation of the contract documents required in connection with the lease. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. An entity that, pursuant to a business relationship, completes the necessary lease agreement before forwarding it for execution to the leasing company (to whom the obligation is payable on its face) is “arranging” for the lease.
</P>
<P>ii. An entity that, without receiving a fee for the service, refers a customer to a leasing company that will prepare all relevant contract documents is not “arranging” for the lease.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consideration.</I> The term “other consideration” as used in comment 2(h)-1 refers to an actual payment corresponding to a fee or similar compensation and not to intangible benefits, such as the advantage of increased business, which may flow from the relationship between the parties.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assignees.</I> An assignee may be a lessor for purposes of the regulation in circumstances where the assignee has substantial involvement in the lease transaction. See cf. <I>Ford Motor Credit Co.</I> v. <I>Cenance,</I> 452 U.S. 155 (1981) (held that an assignee was a creditor for purposes of the pre-1980 Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z because of its substantial involvement in the credit transaction).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple lessors.</I> See the commentary to § 1013.3(c).
</P>
<HD2>2(j) Organization
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The term “organization” includes joint ventures and persons operating under a business name.
</P>
<HD2>2(l) Personal Property
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Whether property is personal property depends on state or other applicable law. For example, a mobile home or houseboat may be considered personal property in one state but real property in another.
</P>
<HD2>2(m) Realized Value
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Realized value refers to either the retail or wholesale value of the leased property at early termination or at the end of the lease term. It is not a required disclosure. Realized value is relevant only to leases in which the lessee's liability at early termination or at the end of the lease term typically is based on the difference between the residual value (or the adjusted lease balance) of the leased property and its realized value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Options.</I> Subject to the contract and to state or other applicable law, the lessor may calculate the realized value in determining the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term or at early termination in one of the three ways stated in § 1013.2(m). If the lessor sells the property prior to making the determination about liability, the price received for the property (or the fair market value) is the realized value. If the lessor does not sell the property prior to making that determination, the highest offer or the fair market value is the realized value.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination of realized value.</I> Disposition charges are not subtracted in determining the realized value but amounts attributable to taxes may be subtracted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Offers.</I> In determining the highest offer for disposition, the lessor may disregard offers that an offeror has withdrawn or is unable or unwilling to perform.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessor's appraisal.</I> See commentary to § 1013.4(l).
</P>
<HD2>2(o) Security Interest and Security
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosable interests.</I> For purposes of disclosure, a security interest is an interest taken by the lessor to secure performance of the lessee's obligation. For example, if a bank that is not a lessor makes a loan to a leasing company and takes assignments of consumer leases generated by that company to secure the loan, the bank's security interest in the lessor's receivables is not a security interest for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General coverage.</I> An interest the lessor may have in leased property must be disclosed only if it is considered a security interest under state or other applicable law. The term includes, but is not limited to, security interests under the Uniform Commercial Code; real property mortgages, deeds of trust, and other consensual or confessed liens whether or not recorded; mechanic's, materialman's, artisan's, and other similar liens; vendor's liens in both real and personal property; liens on property arising by operation of law; and any interest in a lease when used to secure payment or performance of an obligation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Insurance exception.</I> The lessor's right to insurance proceeds or unearned insurance premiums is not a security interest for purposes of this part.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.3—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<HD2>3(a) General Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Disclosures must reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties. For example:
</P>
<P>i. In a three-year lease with no penalty for termination after a one-year minimum term, disclosures are based on the full three-year term of the lease. The one-year minimum term is only relevant to the early termination provisions of §§ 1013.4 (g)(1), (k) and (l).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The clear and conspicuous standard requires that disclosures be reasonably understandable. For example, the disclosures must be presented in a way that does not obscure the relationship of the terms to each other; appendix A of this part contains model forms that meet this standard. In addition, although no minimum typesize is required, the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multipurpose disclosure forms.</I> A lessor may use a multipurpose disclosure form provided the lessor is able to designate the specific disclosures applicable to a given transaction, consistent with the requirement that disclosures be clearly and conspicuously provided.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Number of transactions.</I> Lessors have flexibility in handling lease transactions that may be viewed as multiple transactions. For example:
</P>
<P>i. When a lessor leases two items to the same lessee on the same day, the lessor may disclose the leases as either one or two lease transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. When a lessor sells insurance or other incidental services in connection with a lease, the lessor may disclose in one of two ways: As a single lease transaction (in which case Regulation M, not Regulation Z, disclosures are required) or as a lease transaction and a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. When a lessor includes an outstanding lease or credit balance in a lease transaction, the lessor may disclose the outstanding balance as part of a single lease transaction (in which case Regulation M, not Regulation Z, disclosures are required) or as a lease transaction and a credit transaction.
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(1) Form of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Cross-references.</I> Lessors may include in the nonsegregated disclosures a cross-reference to items in the segregated disclosures rather than repeat those items. A lessor may include in the segregated disclosures numeric or alphabetic designations as cross-references to related information so long as such references do not obscure or detract from the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of parties.</I> While disclosures must be made clearly and conspicuously, lessors are not required to use the word “lessor” and “lessee” to identify the parties to the lease transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lessor's address.</I> The lessor must be identified by name; an address (and telephone number) may be provided.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple lessors and lessees.</I> In transactions involving multiple lessors and multiple lessees, a single lessor may make all the disclosures to a single lessee as long as the disclosure statement identifies all the lessors and lessees.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's signature.</I> The regulation does not require that the lessee sign the disclosure statement, whether disclosures are separately provided or are part of the lease contract. Nevertheless, to provide evidence that disclosures are given before a lessee becomes obligated on the lease transaction, the lessor may, for example, ask the lessee to sign the disclosure statement or an acknowledgement of receipt, may place disclosures that are included in the lease documents above the lessee's signature, or include instructions alerting a lessee to read the disclosures prior to signing the lease.
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(2) Segregation of Certain Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Location.</I> The segregated disclosures referred to in § 1013.3(a)(2) may be provided on a separate document and the other required disclosures may be provided in the lease contract, so long as all disclosures are given at the same time. Alternatively, all disclosures may be provided in a separate document or in the lease contract.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Additional information among segregated disclosures.</I> The disclosures required to be segregated may contain only the information required or permitted to be included among the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See commentary to appendix A of this part.
</P>
<HD2>3(a)(3) Timing of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> When a contractual relationship is created between the lessor and the lessee is a matter to be determined under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<HD2>3(b) Additional Information; Nonsegregated Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>State law disclosures.</I> A lessor may include in the nonsegregated disclosures any state law disclosures that are not inconsistent with the Act and regulation under § 1013.9 as long as, in accordance with the standard set forth in § 1013.3(b) for additional information, the state law disclosures are not used or placed to mislead or confuse or detract from any disclosure required by the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>3(c) Multiple Lessors or Lessees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multiple lessors.</I> If a single lessor provides disclosures to a lessee on behalf of several lessors, all disclosures for the transaction must be given, even if the lessor making the disclosures would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure.
</P>
<HD2>3(d) Use of Estimates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Time of estimated disclosure.</I> The lessor may, after making a reasonable effort to obtain information, use estimates to make disclosures if necessary information is unknown or unavailable at the time the disclosures are made.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Basis of estimates.</I> Estimates must be made on the basis of the best information reasonably available at the time disclosures are made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the lessor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. The lessor may rely on the representations of other parties. For example, the lessor might look to the consumer to determine the purpose for which leased property will be used, to insurance companies for the cost of insurance, or to an automobile manufacturer or dealer for the date of delivery. See commentary to § 1013.4(n) for estimating official fees and taxes.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Residual value of leased property at termination.</I> In an open-end lease where the lessee's liability at the end of the lease term is based on the residual value of the leased property as determined at consummation, the estimate of the residual value must be reasonable and based on the best information reasonably available to the lessor (see § 1013.4(m)). A lessor should generally use an accepted trade publication listing estimated current or future market prices for the leased property unless other information or a reasonable belief based on its experience provides the better information. For example:
</P>
<P>i. An automobile lessor offering a three-year open-end lease assigns a wholesale value to the vehicle at the end of the lease term. The lessor may disclose as an estimate a wholesale value derived from a generally accepted trade publication listing current wholesale values.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above, except that the lessor discloses an estimated value derived by adjusting the residual value quoted in the trade publication because, in its experience, the trade publication values either understate or overstate the prices actually received in local used vehicle markets. The lessor may adjust estimated values quoted in trade publications if the lessor reasonably believes based on its experience that the values are understated or overstated.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Retail or wholesale value.</I> The lessor may choose either a retail or a wholesale value in estimating the value of leased property at termination of an open-end lease provided the choice is consistent with the lessor's general practice when determining the value of the property at the end of the lease term. The lessor should indicate whether the value disclosed is a retail or wholesale value.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Labeling estimates.</I> Generally, only the disclosure for which the exact information is unknown is labeled as an estimate. Nevertheless, when several disclosures are affected because of the unknown information, the lessor has the option of labeling as an estimate every affected disclosure or only the disclosure primarily affected.
</P>
<HD2>3(e) Effect of Subsequent Occurrence
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent occurrences.</I> Examples of subsequent occurrences include:
</P>
<P>i. An agreement between the lessee and lessor to change from a monthly to a weekly payment schedule.
</P>
<P>ii. An increase in official fees or taxes.
</P>
<P>iii. An increase in insurance premiums or coverage caused by a change in the law.
</P>
<P>iv. Late delivery of an automobile caused by a strike.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Redisclosure.</I> When a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of a subsequent occurrence, the lessor need not make new disclosures unless new disclosures are required under § 1013.5.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lessee's failure to perform.</I> The lessor does not violate the regulation if a previously given disclosure becomes inaccurate when a lessee fails to perform obligations under the contract and a lessor takes actions that are necessary and proper in such circumstances to protect its interest. For example, the addition of insurance or a security interest by the lessor because the lessee has not performed obligations contracted for in the lease is not a violation of the regulation.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.4—Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD2>4(a) Description of Property
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Placement of description.</I> Although the description of leased property may not be included among the segregated disclosures, a lessor may choose to place the description directly above the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>4(b) Amount Due at Lease Signing or Delivery
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> See commentary to § 1013.3(a)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Capitalized cost reduction.</I> A capitalized cost reduction is a payment in the nature of a downpayment on the leased property that reduces the amount to be capitalized over the term of the lease. This amount does not include any amounts included in a periodic payment paid at lease signing or delivery.
</P>
<P>3. <I>“Negative” equity trade-in allowance.</I> If an amount owed on a prior lease or credit balance exceeds the agreed upon value of a trade-in, the difference is not reflected as a negative trade-in allowance under § 1013.4(b). The lessor may disclose the trade-in allowance as zero or not applicable, or may leave a blank line.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates.</I> Only rebates applied toward an amount due at lease signing or delivery are required to be disclosed under § 1013.4(b).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Balance sheet approach.</I> In motor vehicle leases, the total for the column labeled “total amount due at lease signing or delivery” must equal the total for the column labeled “how the amount due at lease signing or delivery will be paid.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Amounts to be paid in cash.</I> The term cash is intended to include payments by check or other payment methods in addition to currency; however, a lessor may add a line item under the column “how the amount due at lease signing or delivery will be paid” for non-currency payments such as credit cards.
</P>
<HD2>4(c) Payment Schedule and Total Amount of Periodic Payments
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Periodic payments.</I> The phrase “number, amount, and due dates or periods of payments” requires the disclosure of all payments that are made at regular or irregular intervals and generally derived from rent, capitalized or amortized amounts such as depreciation, and other amounts that are collected by the lessor at the same interval(s), including, for example, taxes, maintenance, and insurance charges. Other periodic payments may, but need not, be disclosed under § 1013.4(c).
</P>
<HD2>4(d) Other Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1013.4(d) requires the disclosure of charges that are anticipated by the parties incident to the normal operation of the lease agreement. If a lessor is unsure whether a particular fee is an “other charge,” the lessor may disclose the fee as such without violating § 1013.4(d) or the segregation rule under § 1013.3(a)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Excluded charges.</I> This section does not require disclosure of charges that are imposed when the lessee terminates early, fails to abide by, or modifies the terms of the existing lease agreement, such as charges for:
</P>
<P>i. Late payment.
</P>
<P>ii. Default.
</P>
<P>iii. Early termination.
</P>
<P>iv. Deferral of payments.
</P>
<P>v. Extension of the lease.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party fees and charges.</I> Third-party fees or charges collected by the lessor on behalf of third parties, such as taxes, are not disclosed under § 1013.4(d).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relationship to other provisions.</I> The other charges mentioned in this paragraph are charges that are not required to be disclosed under some other provision of § 1013.4. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. The price of a mechanical breakdown protection (MBP) contract is sometimes disclosed as an “other charge.” Nevertheless, the price of MBP is sometimes reflected in the periodic payment disclosure under § 1013.4(c) or in states where MBP is regarded as insurance, the cost is be disclosed in accordance with § 1013.4(o).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's liabilities at the end of the lease term.</I> Liabilities that the lessor imposes upon the lessee at the end of the scheduled lease term and that must be disclosed under § 1013.4(d) include disposition and “pick-up” charges.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Optional “disposition” charges.</I> Disposition and similar charges that are anticipated by the parties as an incident to the normal operation of the lease agreement must be disclosed under § 1013.4(d). If, under a lease agreement, a lessee may return leased property to various locations, and the lessor charges a disposition fee depending upon the location chosen, under § 1013.4(d), the lessor must disclose the highest amount charged. In such circumstances, the lessor may also include a brief explanation of the fee structure in the segregated disclosure. For example, if no fee or a lower fee is imposed for returning a leased vehicle to the originating dealer as opposed to another location, that fact may be disclosed. By contrast, if the terms of the lease treat the return of the leased property to a location outside the lessor's service area as a default, the fee imposed is not disclosed as an “other charge,” although it may be required to be disclosed under § 1013.4(q).
</P>
<HD2>4(e) Total of Payments
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Open-end lease.</I> The additional statement is required under § 1013.4(e) for open-end leases because, with some limitations, a lessee is liable at the end of the lease term for the difference between the residual and realized values of the leased property.
</P>
<HD2>4(f) Payment Calculation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Motor vehicle lease.</I> Whether leased property is a motor vehicle is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple items.</I> If a lease transaction involves multiple items of leased property, one of which is not a motor vehicle under state law, at their option, lessors may include all items in the disclosures required under § 1013.4(f). See comment 3(a)-4 regarding disclosure of multiple transactions.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(1) Gross Capitalized Cost
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Agreed upon value of the vehicle.</I> The agreed upon value of a motor vehicle includes the amount of capitalized items such as charges for vehicle accessories and options, and delivery or destination charges. The lessor may also include taxes and fees for title, licenses, and registration that are capitalized. Charges for service or maintenance contracts, insurance products, guaranteed automobile protection, or an outstanding balance on a prior lease or credit transaction are not included in the agreed upon value.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization of the gross capitalized cost.</I> The lessor may choose to provide the itemization of the gross capitalized cost only on request or may provide the itemization as a matter of course. In the latter case, the lessor need not provide a statement of the lessee's option to receive an itemization. The gross capitalized cost must be itemized by type and amount. The lessor may include in the itemization an identification of the items and amounts of some or all of the items contained in the agreed upon value of the vehicle. The itemization must be provided at the same time as the other disclosures required by § 1013.4, but it may not be included among the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(7) Total of Base Periodic Payments
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Accuracy of disclosure.</I> If the periodic payment calculation under § 1013.4(f) has been calculated correctly, the amount disclosed under § 1013.4(f)(7)—the total of base periodic payments—is correct for disclosure purposes even if that amount differs from the base periodic payment disclosed under § 1013.4(f)(9) multiplied by the number of lease payments disclosed under § 1013.4(f)(8), when the difference is due to rounding.
</P>
<HD2>4(f)(8) Lease Payments
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Lease Term.</I> The lease term may be disclosed among the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<HD2>4(g) Early Termination
</HD2>
<HD2>4(g)(1) Conditions and Disclosure of Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Reasonableness of charges.</I> See the commentary to § 1013.4(q).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Description of the method.</I> Section 1013.4(g)(1) requires a full description of the method of determining an early termination charge. The lessor should attempt to provide consumers with clear and understandable descriptions of its early termination charges. Descriptions that are full, accurate, and not intended to be misleading will comply with § 1013.4(g)(1), even if the descriptions are complex. In providing a full description of an early termination method, a lessor may use the name of a generally accepted method of computing the unamortized cost portion (also known as the “adjusted lease balance”) of its early termination charges. For example, a lessor may state that the “constant yield” method will be utilized in obtaining the adjusted lease balance, but must specify how that figure, and any other term or figure, is used in computing the total early termination charge imposed upon the consumer. Additionally, if a lessor refers to a named method in this manner, the lessor must provide a written explanation of that method if requested by the consumer. The lessor has the option of providing the explanation as a matter of course in the lease documents or on a separate document.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing of written explanation of a named method.</I> While a lessor may provide an address or telephone number for the consumer to request a written explanation of the named method used to calculate the adjusted leased balance, if at consummation a consumer requests such an explanation, the lessor must provide a written explanation at that time. If a consumer requests an explanation after consummation, the lessor must provide a written explanation within a reasonable time after the request is made.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Default.</I> When default is a condition for early termination of a lease, default charges must be disclosed under § 1013.4(g)(1). See the commentary to § 1013.4(q).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Lessee's liability at early termination.</I> When the lessee is liable for the difference between the unamortized cost and the realized value at early termination, the method of determining the amount of the difference must be disclosed under § 1013.4(g)(1).
</P>
<HD2>4(h) Maintenance Responsibilities
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Standards for wear and use.</I> No disclosure is required if a lessor does not set standards or impose charges for wear and use (such as excess mileage).
</P>
<HD2>4(i) Purchase Option
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Mandatory disclosure of no purchase option.</I> Generally the lessor need only make the specific required disclosures that apply to a transaction. In the case of a purchase option disclosure, however, a lessor must disclose affirmatively that the lessee has no option to purchase the leased property if the purchase option is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existence of purchase option.</I> Whether a purchase option exists under the lease is determined by state or other applicable law. The lessee's right to submit a bid to purchase property at termination of the lease is not an option to purchase under § 1013.4(i) if the lessor is not required to accept the lessee's bid and the lessee does not receive preferential treatment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Purchase-option fee.</I> A purchase-option fee is disclosed under § 1013.4(i), not § 1013.4(d). The fee may be separately itemized or disclosed as part of the purchase-option price.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Official fees and taxes.</I> Official fees such as those for taxes, licenses, and registration charged in connection with the exercise of a purchase option may be disclosed under § 1013.4(i) as part of the purchase-option price (with or without a reference to their inclusion in that price) or may be separately disclosed and itemized by category. Alternatively, a lessor may provide a statement indicating that the purchase-option price does not include fees for tags, taxes, and registration.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Purchase-option price.</I> Lessors must disclose the purchase-option price as a sum certain or as a sum certain to be determined at a future date by reference to a readily available independent source. The reference should provide sufficient information so that the lessee will be able to determine the actual price when the option becomes available. Statements of a purchase price as the “negotiated price” or the “fair market value” do not comply with the requirements of § 1013.4(i).
</P>
<HD2>4(j) Statement Referencing Nonsegregated Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> A lessor may delete inapplicable items from the disclosure. For example, if a lease contract does not include a security interest, the reference to a security interest may be omitted.
</P>
<HD2>4(l) Right of Appraisal
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure inapplicable.</I> The lessee does not have the right to an independent appraisal merely because the lessee is liable at the end of the lease term or at early termination for unreasonable wear or use. Thus, the disclosure under § 1013.4(l) does not apply. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The automobile lessor might expect a lessee to return an undented car with four good tires at the end of the lease term. Even though it may hold the lessee liable for the difference between a dented car with bald tires and the value of a car in reasonably good repair, the disclosure under § 1013.4(l) is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's appraisal.</I> If the lessor obtains an appraisal of the leased property to determine its realized value, that appraisal does not suffice for purposes of section 183(c) of the Act; the lessor must disclose the lessee's right to an independent appraisal under § 1013.4(l).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Retail or wholesale.</I> In providing the disclosures in § 1013.4(l), a lessor must indicate whether the wholesale or retail appraisal value will be used.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Time restriction on appraisal.</I> The regulation does not specify a time period in which the lessee must exercise the appraisal right. The lessor may require a lessee to obtain the appraisal within a reasonable time after termination of the lease.
</P>
<HD2>4(m) Liability at End of Lease Term Based on Residual Value
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Open-end leases.</I> Section 1013.4(m) applies only to open-end leases.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's payment of attorney's fees.</I> Section 183(a) of the Act requires that the lessor pay the lessee's attorney's fees in all actions under § 1013.4(m), whether successful or not.
</P>
<HD2>4(m)(1) Rent and Other Charges
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This disclosure is intended to represent the cost of financing an open-end lease based on charges and fees that the lessor requires the lessee to pay. Examples of disclosable charges, in addition to the rent charge, include acquisition, disposition, or assignment fees. Charges imposed by a third party whose services are not required by the lessor (such as official fees and voluntary insurance) are not included in the § 1013.4(m)(1) disclosure.
</P>
<HD2>4(m)(2) Excess Liability
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The disclosure limiting the lessee's liability for the value of the leased property does not apply in the case of early termination.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Leases with a minimum term.</I> If a lease has an alternative minimum term, the disclosures governing the liability limitation are not applicable for the minimum term.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges not subject to rebuttable presumption.</I> The limitation on liability applies only to liability at the end of the lease term that is based on the difference between the residual value of the leased property and its realized value. The regulation does not preclude a lessor from recovering other charges from the lessee at the end of the lease term. Examples of such charges include:
</P>
<P>i. Disposition charges.
</P>
<P>ii. Excess mileage charges.
</P>
<P>iii. Late payment and default charges.
</P>
<P>iv. In simple-interest accounting leases, amount by which the unamortized cost exceeds the residual value because the lessee has not made timely payments.
</P>
<HD2>4(n) Fees and Taxes
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Treatment of certain taxes.</I> Taxes paid in connection with the lease are generally disclosed under § 1013.4(n), but there are exceptions. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. Taxes paid by lease signing or delivery are disclosed under § 1013.4(b) and § 1013.4(n).
</P>
<P>ii. Taxes that are part of the scheduled payments are reflected in the disclosure under § 1013.4(c), (f), and (n).
</P>
<P>iii. A tax payable by the lessor that is passed on to the consumer and is reflected in the lease documentation must be disclosed under § 1013.4(n). A tax payable by the lessor and absorbed as a cost of doing business need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>iv. Taxes charged in connection with the exercise of a purchase option are disclosed under § 1013.4(i), not § 1013.4(n).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimates.</I> In disclosing the total amount of fees and taxes under § 1013.4(n), lessors may need to base the disclosure on estimated tax rates or amounts and are afforded great flexibility in doing so. Where a rate is applied to the future value of leased property, lessors have flexibility in estimating that value, including, but not limited to, using the mathematical average of the agreed upon value and the residual value or published valuation guides; or a lessor could prepare estimates using the agreed upon value and disclose a reasonable estimate of the total fees and taxes. Lessors may include a statement that the actual total of fees and taxes may be higher or lower depending on the tax rates in effect or the value of the leased property at the time a fee or tax is assessed.
</P>
<HD2>4(o) Insurance
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> If insurance is obtained through the lessor, information on the type and amount of insurance coverage (whether voluntary or required) as well as the cost, must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lessor's insurance.</I> Insurance purchased by the lessor primarily for its own benefit, and absorbed as a business expense and not separately charged to the lessee, need not be disclosed under § 1013.4(o) even if it provides an incidental benefit to the lessee.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mechanical breakdown protection and other products.</I> Whether products purchased in conjunction with a lease, such as mechanical breakdown protection (MBP) or guaranteed automobile protection (GAP), should be treated as insurance is determined by state or other applicable law. In states that do not treat MBP or GAP as insurance, § 1013.4(o) disclosures are not required. In such cases the lessor may, however, disclose this information in accordance with the additional information provision in § 1013.3(b). For MBP insurance contracts not capped by a dollar amount, lessors may describe coverage by referring to a limitation by mileage or time period, for example, by indicating that the mechanical breakdown contract insures parts of the automobile for up to 100,000 miles.
</P>
<HD2>4(p) Warranties or Guarantees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Brief identification.</I> The statement identifying warranties may be brief and need not describe or list all warranties applicable to specific parts such as for air conditioning, radio, or tires in an automobile. For example, manufacturer's warranties may be identified simply by a reference to the standard manufacturer's warranty. If a lessor provides a comprehensive list of warranties that may not all apply, to comply with § 1013.4(p) the lessor must indicate which warranties apply or, alternatively, which warranties do not apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Warranty disclaimers.</I> Although a disclaimer of warranties is not required by the regulation, the lessor may give a disclaimer as additional information in accordance with § 1013.3(b).
</P>
<P>3. <I>State law.</I> Whether an express warranty or guaranty exists is determined by state or other law.
</P>
<HD2>4(q) Penalties and Other Charges for Delinquency
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Collection costs.</I> The automatic imposition of collection costs or attorney fees upon default must be disclosed under § 1013.4(q). Collection costs or attorney fees that are not imposed automatically, but are contingent upon expenditures in conjunction with a collection proceeding or upon the employment of an attorney to effect collection, need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges for early termination.</I> When default is a condition for early termination of a lease, default charges must also be disclosed under § 1013.4(g)(1). The § 1013.4(q) and (g)(1) disclosures may, but need not, be combined. Examples of combined disclosures are provided in the model lease disclosure forms in appendix A.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Simple-interest leases.</I> In a simple-interest accounting lease, the additional rent charge that accrues on the lease balance when a periodic payment is made after the due date does not constitute a penalty or other charge for late payment. Similarly, continued accrual of the rent charge after termination of the lease because the lessee fails to return the leased property does not constitute a default charge. But in either case, if the additional charge accrues at a rate higher than the normal rent charge, the lessor must disclose the amount of or the method of determining the additional charge under § 1013.4(q).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Extension charges.</I> Extension charges that exceed the rent charge in a simple-interest accounting lease or that are added separately are disclosed under § 1013.4(q).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reasonableness of charges.</I> Pursuant to section 183(b) of the Act, penalties or other charges for delinquency, default, or early termination may be specified in the lease but only in an amount that is reasonable in light of the anticipated or actual harm caused by the delinquency, default, or early termination, the difficulties of proof of loss, and the inconvenience or nonfeasibility of otherwise obtaining an adequate remedy.
</P>
<HD2>4(r) Security Interest
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosable security interests.</I> See § 1013.2(o) and accompanying commentary to determine what security interests must be disclosed.
</P>
<HD2>4(s) Limitations on Rate Information
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Segregated disclosures.</I> A lease rate may not be included among the segregated disclosures referenced in § 1013.3(a)(2).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.5—Renegotiations, Extensions, and Assumptions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1013.5 applies only to existing leases that are covered by the regulation. It does not apply to the renegotiation or extension of leases with an initial term of four months or less, because such leases are not covered by the definition of consumer lease in § 1013.2(e). Whether and when a lease is satisfied and replaced by a new lease is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<HD2>5(a) Renegotiation
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Lessors have flexibility in making disclosures so long as they reflect the legal obligation under the renegotiated lease. For example, assume that a 24-month lease is replaced by a 36-month lease. The initial lease began on January 1, 1998, and was renegotiated and replaced on July 1, 1998, so that the new lease term ends on January 1, 2001.
</P>
<P>i. If the renegotiated lease covers the 36-month period beginning January 1, 1998, the new disclosures would reflect all payments made by the lessee on the initial lease and all payments on the renegotiated lease. In this example, since the renegotiated lease covers a 36-month period beginning January 1, 1998, the disclosures must reflect payments made since that date. On the model form, the “total of base periodic payments” disclosed under § 1013.4(f)(7) should reflect periodic payments to be made over the entire 36-month term. Payments received since January 1, 1998, are added as a new line item disclosed as “total of payments received” and are subtracted from the “total of base periodic payments” in calculating a new item disclosed as the “total of base periodic payments remaining.” For example, if 6 monthly payments of $300 were received since January 1, 1998, the disclosure form should include a “total of base periodic payments” line from which $1,800 is subtracted to arrive at the “total of base periodic payments remaining.” The remainder of the disclosures would not change.
</P>
<P>ii. If the renegotiated lease covers only the remaining 30 months, from July 1, 1998, to January 1, 2001, the disclosures would reflect only the charges incurred in connection with the renegotiation and the payments for the remaining period.
</P>
<HD2>5(b) Extension
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Time of extension disclosures.</I> If a consumer lease is extended for a specified term greater than six months, new disclosures are required at the time the extension is agreed upon. If the lease is extended on a month-to-month basis and the cumulative extensions exceed six months, new disclosures are required at the commencement of the seventh month and at the commencement of each seventh month thereafter for as long as the extensions continue. If a consumer lease is extended for terms of varying durations, one of which will exceed six months beyond the originally scheduled termination date of the lease, new disclosures are required at the commencement of the term that will exceed six months beyond the originally scheduled termination date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of disclosures for month-to-month extensions.</I> The disclosures for a lease extended on a month-to-month basis for more than six months should reflect the month-to-month nature of the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> The disclosures should be based on the extension period, including any upfront costs paid in connection with the extension. For example, assume that initially a lease ends on March 1, 1999. In January 1999, agreement is reached to extend the lease until October 1, 1999. The disclosure would include any extension fee paid in January and the periodic payments for the seven-month extension period beginning in March.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.6 [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>Section 1013.7—Advertising
</HD2>
<HD2>7(a) General Rule
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Persons covered.</I> All “persons” must comply with the advertising provisions in this section, not just those that meet the definition of a lessor in § 1013.2(h). Thus, automobile dealers (to the extent they are not excluded from the Bureau's rulemaking authority by section 1029 of the Dodd-Frank Act), merchants, and others who are not themselves lessors must comply with the advertising provisions of the regulation if they advertise consumer lease transactions. Pursuant to section 184(b) of the Act, however, owners and personnel of the media in which an advertisement appears or through which it is disseminated are not subject to civil liability for violations under section 185(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>2. <I>“Usually and customarily.”</I> Section 1013.7(a) does not prohibit the advertising of a single item or the promotion of a new leasing program, but prohibits the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. Thus, an advertisement may state terms that will be offered for only a limited period or terms that will become available at a future date.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total contractual obligation of advertised lease.</I> Section 1013.7 applies to advertisements for consumer leases, as defined in § 1013.2(e). Under § 1013.2(e), a consumer lease is exempt from the requirements of this part if the total contractual obligation exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. See comment 2(e)-9. Accordingly, § 1013.7 does not apply to an advertisement for a specific consumer lease if the total contractual obligation for that lease exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made. If a lessor promotes multiple consumer leases in a single advertisement, the entire advertisement must comply with § 1013.7 unless all of the advertised leases are exempt under § 1013.2(e). For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, in an advertisement, a lessor states that certain terms apply to a consumer lease for a specific automobile. The total contractual obligation of the advertised lease exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made. Although the advertisement does not refer to any other lease, some or all of the advertised terms for the exempt lease also apply to other leases offered by the lessor with total contractual obligations that do not exceed the applicable threshold amount. The advertisement is not required to comply with § 1013.7 because it refers only to an exempt lease.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that, in an advertisement, a lessor states certain terms (such as the amount due at lease signing) that will apply to consumer leases for automobiles of a particular brand. However, the advertisement does not refer to a specific lease. The total contractual obligations of the leases for some of the automobiles will exceed the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made, but the total contractual obligations of the leases for other automobiles will not exceed the threshold. The entire advertisement must comply with § 1013.7 because it refers to terms for consumer leases that are not exempt.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that, in a single advertisement, a lessor states that certain terms apply to consumer leases for two different automobiles. The total contractual obligation of the lease for the first automobile exceeds the threshold amount in effect when the advertisement is made, but the total contractual obligation of the lease for the second automobile does not exceed the threshold. The entire advertisement must comply with § 1013.7 because it refers to a consumer lease that is not exempt.
</P>
<HD2>7(b) Clear and Conspicuous Standard
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Standard.</I> The disclosures in an advertisement in any media must be reasonably understandable. For example, very fine print in a television advertisement or detailed and very rapidly stated information in a radio advertisement does not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read or hear, and cannot comprehend, the information required to be disclosed.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(1) Amount Due at Lease Signing or Delivery
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Itemization not required.</I> Only a total of amounts due at lease signing or delivery is required to be disclosed, not an itemization of its component parts. Such an itemization is provided in any transaction-specific disclosures provided under § 1013.4.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prominence rule.</I> Except for a periodic payment, oral or written references to components of the total due at lease signing or delivery (for example, a reference to a capitalized cost reduction, where permitted) may not be more prominent than the disclosure of the total amount due at lease signing or delivery.
</P>
<HD2>7(b)(2) Advertisement of a Lease Rate
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Location of statement.</I> The notice required to accompany a percentage rate stated in an advertisement must be placed in close proximity to the rate without any other intervening language or symbols. For example, a lessor may not place an asterisk next to the rate and place the notice elsewhere in the advertisement. In addition, with the exception of the notice required by § 1013.4(s), the rate cannot be more prominent than any other § 1013.4 disclosure stated in the advertisement.
</P>
<HD2>7(c) Catalogs or Other Multi-Page Advertisements; Electronic Advertisements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> The multiple-page advertisements referred to in § 1013.7(c) are advertisements consisting of a series of numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing comprising several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope is not a single multiple-page advertisement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Cross references.</I> A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an internet Web site) is a single advertisement (requiring only one set of lease disclosures) if it contains a table, chart, or schedule with the disclosures required under § 1013.7(d)(2)(i) through (v). If one of the triggering terms listed in § 1013.7(d)(1) appears in a catalog, or in a multiple-page or electronic advertisement, it must clearly direct the consumer to the page or location where the table, chart, or schedule begins. For example, in an electronic advertisement, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly connects the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<HD2>7(d)(1) Triggering Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Typical example.</I> When any triggering term appears in a lease advertisement, the additional terms enumerated in § 1013.7(d)(2)(i) through (v) must also appear. In a multi-lease advertisement, an example of one or more typical leases with a statement of all the terms applicable to each may be used. The examples must be labeled as such and must reflect representative lease terms that are made available by the lessor to consumers.
</P>
<HD2>7(d)(2) Additional Terms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Third-party fees that vary by state or locality.</I> The disclosure of a periodic payment or total amount due at lease signing or delivery may:
</P>
<P>i. Exclude third-party fees, such as taxes, licenses, and registration fees and disclose that fact; or
</P>
<P>ii. Provide a periodic payment or total that includes third-party fees based on a particular state or locality as long as that fact and the fact that fees may vary by state or locality are disclosed.
</P>
<HD2>7(e) Alternative Disclosures—Merchandise Tags
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multiple-item leases.</I> Multiple-item leases that utilize merchandise tags requiring additional disclosures may use the alternate disclosure rule.
</P>
<HD2>7(f) Alternative Disclosures—Television or Radio Advertisements
</HD2>
<HD2>7(f)(1) Toll-Free Number or Print Advertisement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Publication in general circulation.</I> A reference to a written advertisement appearing in a newspaper circulated nationally, for example, USA Today or the Wall Street Journal, may satisfy the general circulation requirement in § 1013.7(f)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Toll-free number, local or collect calls.</I> In complying with the disclosure requirements of § 1013.7(f)(1)(i), a lessor must provide a toll-free number for nonlocal calls made from an area code other than the one used in the lessor's dialing area. Alternatively, a lessor may provide any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multi-purpose number.</I> When an advertised toll-free number responds with a recording, lease disclosures must be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several dialing options—such as providing directions to the lessor's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request lease disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statement accompanying toll free number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone and television number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the toll-free number, such as “call 1-(800) 000-0000 for details about costs and terms.”
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.8—Record Retention
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Manner of retaining evidence.</I> A lessor must retain evidence of having performed required actions and of having made required disclosures. Such records may be retained in paper form, on microfilm, microfiche, or computer, or by any other method designed to reproduce records accurately. The lessor need retain only enough information to reconstruct the required disclosures or other records.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1013.9—Relation to State Laws
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Exemptions granted.</I> The Bureau recognizes exemptions granted by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1982, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System granted the following exemptions from portions of the Consumer Leasing Act:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Maine.</I> Lease transactions subject to the Maine Consumer Credit Code and its implementing regulations are exempt from Chapters 2, 4, and 5 of the Federal act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a lessor.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Oklahoma.</I> Lease transactions subject to the Oklahoma Consumer Credit Code are exempt from Chapters 2 and 5 of the Federal act. (The exemption does not apply to sections 132 through 135 of the Federal act, nor does it apply to transactions in which a federally chartered institution is a lessor.)
</P>
<HD2>Appendix A—Model Forms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Although use of the model forms is not required, lessors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation. Generally, lessors may make certain changes in the format or content of the forms and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable to a transaction without losing the Act's protection from liability. For example, the model form based on monthly periodic payments may be modified for single-payment lease transactions or for quarterly or other regular or irregular periodic payments. The model form may also be modified to reflect that a transaction is an extension. The content, format, and headings for the segregated disclosures must be substantially similar to those contained in the model forms; therefore, any changes should be minimal. The changes to the model forms should not be so extensive as to affect the substance and the clarity of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of acceptable changes.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the lessee.
</P>
<P>ii. Using “lessee,” “lessor,” or names instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>iii. Rearranging the sequence of the nonsegregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>v. Deleting or blocking out inapplicable disclosures, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items (this should facilitate use of multipurpose standard forms).
</P>
<P>vi. Adding language or symbols to indicate estimates.
</P>
<P>vii. Adding numeric or alphabetic designations.
</P>
<P>viii. Rearranging the disclosures into vertical columns, except for § 1013.4(b) through (e) disclosures.
</P>
<P>ix. Using icons and other graphics.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model closed-end or net vehicle lease disclosure.</I> Model A-2 is designed for a closed-end or net vehicle lease. Under the “Early Termination and Default” provision a reference to the lessee's right to an independent appraisal of the leased vehicle under § 1013.4(l) is included for those closed-end leases in which the lessee's liability at early termination is based on the vehicle's realized value.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Model furniture lease disclosures.</I> Model A-3 is a closed-end lease disclosure statement designed for a typical furniture lease. It does not include a disclosure of the appraisal right at early termination required under § 1013.4(l) because few closed-end furniture leases base the lessee's liability at early termination on the realized value of the leased property. The disclosure should be added if it is applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78502, Dec. 19, 2011, as amended at 76 FR 81790, Dec. 29, 2011; 77 FR 69736, Nov. 21, 2012; 79 FR 70194, Nov. 25, 2013; 79 FR 56483, Sept. 22, 2014; 80 FR 73947, Nov. 27, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 86259, Nov. 30, 2016; 82 FR 51977, Nov. 9, 2017; 83 FR 59276, Nov. 23, 2018; 84 FR 58019, Oct. 30, 2019; 85 FR 79393, Dec. 10, 2020; 86 FR 67850, Nov. 30, 2021; 87 FR 63669, Oct. 20, 2022; 88 FR 83321, Nov. 29, 2023; 89 FR 82937, Oct. 15, 2024; 90 FR 57881, Dec. 15, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1014" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1014—MORTGAGE ACTS AND PRACTICES—ADVERTISING (REGULATION N)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1638 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78133, Dec. 16, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1014.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.1   Scope of regulations in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part, known as Regulation N, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the 2009 Omnibus Appropriations Act, Public L. 111-8, section 626, 123 Stat. 524 (Mar. 11, 2009), as amended by the Credit Card Accountability Responsibility and Disclosure Act of 2009, Public Law 111-24, section 511, 123 Stat. 1734 (May 22, 2009), and as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203, section 1097, 124 Stat. 1376 (July 21, 2010). This part applies to persons over which the Federal Trade Commission has jurisdiction under the Federal Trade Commission Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Commercial communication</I> means any written or oral statement, illustration, or depiction, whether in English or any other language, that is designed to effect a sale or create interest in purchasing goods or services, whether it appears on or in a label, package, package insert, radio, television, cable television, brochure, newspaper, magazine, pamphlet, leaflet, circular, mailer, book insert, free standing insert, letter, catalogue, poster, chart, billboard, public transit card, point of purchase display, film, slide, audio program transmitted over a telephone system, telemarketing script, on-hold script, upsell script, training materials provided to telemarketing firms, program-length commercial (“infomercial”), the internet, cellular network, or any other medium. Promotional materials and items and Web pages are included in the term <I>commercial communication.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means a natural person to whom a mortgage credit product is offered or extended.
</P>
<P><I>Credit</I> means the right to defer payment of debt or to incur debt and defer its payment.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes any of the following if used as a residence: an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, manufactured home, or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage credit product</I> means any form of credit that is secured by real property or a dwelling and that is offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, group, unincorporated association, limited or general partnership, corporation, or other business entity.
</P>
<P><I>Term</I> means any of the fees, costs, obligations, or characteristics of or associated with the product. It also includes any of the conditions on or related to the availability of the product.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.3   Prohibited representations.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this part for any person to make any material misrepresentation, expressly or by implication, in any commercial communication, regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations about:
</P>
<P>(a) The interest charged for the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of interest that the consumer owes each month that is included in the consumer's payments, loan amount, or total amount due, or
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the difference between the interest owed and the interest paid is added to the total amount due from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(b) The annual percentage rate, simple annual rate, periodic rate, or any other rate;
</P>
<P>(c) The existence, nature, or amount of fees or costs to the consumer associated with the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations that no fees are charged;
</P>
<P>(d) The existence, cost, payment terms, or other terms associated with any additional product or feature that is or may be sold in conjunction with the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to credit insurance or credit disability insurance;
</P>
<P>(e) The terms, amounts, payments, or other requirements relating to taxes or insurance associated with the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations about:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether separate payment of taxes or insurance is required; or
</P>
<P>(2) The extent to which payment for taxes or insurance is included in the loan payments, loan amount, or total amount due from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(f) Any prepayment penalty associated with the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning the existence, nature, amount, or terms of such penalty;
</P>
<P>(g) The variability of interest, payments, or other terms of the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations using the word “fixed”;
</P>
<P>(h) Any comparison between:
</P>
<P>(1) Any rate or payment that will be available for a period less than the full length of the mortgage credit product; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any actual or hypothetical rate or payment;
</P>
<P>(i) The type of mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations that the product is or involves a fully amortizing mortgage;
</P>
<P>(j) The amount of the obligation, or the existence, nature, or amount of cash or credit available to the consumer in connection with the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations that the consumer will receive a certain amount of cash or credit as part of a mortgage credit transaction;
</P>
<P>(k) The existence, number, amount, or timing of any minimum or required payments, including but not limited to misrepresentations about any payments or that no payments are required in a reverse mortgage or other mortgage credit product;
</P>
<P>(l) The potential for default under the mortgage credit product, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning the circumstances under which the consumer could default for nonpayment of taxes, insurance, or maintenance, or for failure to meet other obligations;
</P>
<P>(m) The effectiveness of the mortgage credit product in helping the consumer resolve difficulties in paying debts, including but not limited to misrepresentations that any mortgage credit product can reduce, eliminate, or restructure debt or result in a waiver or forgiveness, in whole or in part, of the consumer's existing obligation with any person;
</P>
<P>(n) The association of the mortgage credit product or any provider of such product with any other person or program, including but not limited to misrepresentations that:
</P>
<P>(1) The provider is, or is affiliated with, any governmental entity or other organization; or
</P>
<P>(2) The product is or relates to a government benefit, or is endorsed, sponsored by, or affiliated with any government or other program, including but not limited to through the use of formats, symbols, or logos that resemble those of such entity, organization, or program;
</P>
<P>(o) The source of any commercial communication, including but not limited to misrepresentations that a commercial communication is made by or on behalf of the consumer's current mortgage lender or servicer;
</P>
<P>(p) The right of the consumer to reside in the dwelling that is the subject of the mortgage credit product, or the duration of such right, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning how long or under what conditions a consumer with a reverse mortgage can stay in the dwelling;
</P>
<P>(q) The consumer's ability or likelihood to obtain any mortgage credit product or term, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning whether the consumer has been preapproved or guaranteed for any such product or term;
</P>
<P>(r) The consumer's ability or likelihood to obtain a refinancing or modification of any mortgage credit product or term, including but not limited to misrepresentations concerning whether the consumer has been preapproved or guaranteed for any such refinancing or modification; and
</P>
<P>(s) The availability, nature, or substance of counseling services or any other expert advice offered to the consumer regarding any mortgage credit product or term, including but not limited to the qualifications of those offering the services or advice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.4   Waiver not permitted.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this part for any person to obtain, or attempt to obtain, a waiver from any consumer of any protection provided by or any right of the consumer under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.5   Recordkeeping requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person subject to this part shall keep, for a period of twenty-four months from the last date the person made or disseminated the applicable commercial communication regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, the following evidence of compliance with this part:
</P>
<P>(1) Copies of all materially different commercial communications as well as sales scripts, training materials, and marketing materials, regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, that the person made or disseminated during the relevant time period;
</P>
<P>(2) Documents describing or evidencing all mortgage credit products available to consumers during the time period in which the person made or disseminated each commercial communication regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, including but not limited to the names and terms of each such mortgage credit product available to consumers; and
</P>
<P>(3) Documents describing or evidencing all additional products or services (such as credit insurance or credit disability insurance) that are or may be offered or provided with the mortgage credit products available to consumers during the time period in which the person made or disseminated each commercial communication regarding any term of any mortgage credit product, including but not limited to the names and terms of each such additional product or service available to consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person subject to this part may keep the records required by paragraph (a) of this section in any legible form, and in the same manner, format, or place as they keep such records in the ordinary course of business. Failure to keep all records required under paragraph (a) of this section shall be a violation of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.6   Actions by states.</HEAD>
<P>Any attorney general or other officer of a state authorized by the state to bring an action under this part may do so pursuant to section 626(b) of the 2009 Omnibus Appropriations Act, Public Law 111-8, section 626, 123 Stat. 524 (Mar. 11, 2009), as amended by the Credit Card Accountability Responsibility and Disclosure Act of 2009, Public Law 111-24, section 511, 123 Stat. 1734 (May 22, 2009), and as amended by Public Law 111-203, section 1097, 124 Stat. 2102 (July 21, 2010).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1014.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.15.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1014.7   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable from one another. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, it is the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection's intention that the remaining provisions shall continue in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1015" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1015—MORTGAGE ASSISTANCE RELIEF SERVICES (REGULATION O)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1638 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78133, Dec. 16, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1015.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.1   Scope of regulations in this part.</HEAD>
<P>This part, known as Regulation O, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the 2009 Omnibus Appropriations Act, Public Law 111-8, section 626, 123 Stat. 524 (Mar. 11, 2009), as clarified by the Credit Card Accountability Responsibility and Disclosure Act of 2009, Public Law 111-24, section 511, 123 Stat. 1734 (May 22, 2009), and as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203, section 1097, 124 Stat. 1376 (July 21, 2010). <I>This part applies to persons over which the Federal Trade Commission has jurisdiction under the Federal Trade Commission Act.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Clear and prominent</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In textual communications, the required disclosures shall be easily readable; in a high degree of contrast from the immediate background on which it appears; in the same languages that are substantially used in the commercial communication; in a format so that the disclosure is distinct from other text, such as inside a border; in a distinct type style, such as bold; parallel to the base of the commercial communication, and, except as otherwise provided in this rule, each letter of the disclosure shall be, at a minimum, the larger of 12-point type or one-half the size of the largest letter or numeral used in the name of the advertised Web site or telephone number to which consumers are referred to receive information relating to any mortgage assistance relief service. Textual communications include any communications in a written or printed form such as print publications or words displayed on the screen of a computer;
</P>
<P>(2) In communications disseminated orally or through audible means, such as radio or streaming audio, the required disclosures shall be delivered in a slow and deliberate manner and in a reasonably understandable volume and pitch;
</P>
<P>(3) In communications disseminated through video means, such as television or streaming video, the required disclosures shall appear simultaneously in the audio and visual parts of the commercial communication and be delivered in a manner consistent with paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition. The visual disclosure shall be at least four percent of the vertical picture or screen height and appear for the duration of the oral disclosure;
</P>
<P>(4) In communications made through interactive media, such as the internet, online services, and software, the required disclosures shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be consistent with paragraphs (1) through (3) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(ii) Be made on, or immediately prior to, the page on which the consumer takes any action to incur any financial obligation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be unavoidable, <I>i.e.,</I> visible to consumers without requiring them to scroll down a Web page; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Appear in type at least the same size as the largest character of the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(5) In all instances, the required disclosures shall be presented in an understandable language and syntax, and with nothing contrary to, inconsistent with, or in mitigation of the disclosures used in any communication of them; and
</P>
<P>(6) For program-length television, radio, or internet-based multimedia commercial communications, the required disclosures shall be made at the beginning, near the middle, and at the end of the commercial communication.
</P>
<P><I>Client trust account</I> means a separate account created by a licensed attorney for the purpose of holding client funds, which is:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintained in compliance with all applicable state laws and regulations, including licensing regulations; and
</P>
<P>(2) Located in the state where the attorney's office is located, or elsewhere in the United States with the consent of the consumer on whose behalf the funds are held.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial communication</I> means any written or oral statement, illustration, or depiction, whether in English or any other language, that is designed to effect a sale or create interest in purchasing any service, plan, or program, whether it appears on or in a label, package, package insert, radio, television, cable television, brochure, newspaper, magazine, pamphlet, leaflet, circular, mailer, book insert, free standing insert, letter, catalogue, poster, chart, billboard, public transit card, point of purchase display, film, slide, audio program transmitted over a telephone system, telemarketing script, onhold script, upsell script, training materials provided to telemarketing firms, program-length commercial (“infomercial”), the internet, cellular network, or any other medium. Promotional materials and items and Web pages are included in the term “commercial communication.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General Commercial Communication</I> means a commercial communication that occurs prior to the consumer agreeing to permit the provider to seek offers of mortgage assistance relief on behalf of the consumer, or otherwise agreeing to use the mortgage assistance relief service, and that is not directed at a specific consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer-Specific Commercial Communication</I> means a commercial communication that occurs prior to the consumer agreeing to permit the provider to seek offers of mortgage assistance relief on behalf of the consumer, or otherwise agreeing to use the mortgage assistance relief service, and that is directed at a specific consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means any natural person who is obligated under any loan secured by a dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure containing four or fewer units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, that is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. The term includes any of the following if used as a residence: An individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, manufactured home, or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling loan</I> means any loan secured by a dwelling, and any associated deed of trust or mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling Loan Holder</I> means any individual or entity who holds the dwelling loan that is the subject of the offer to provide mortgage assistance relief services.
</P>
<P><I>Material</I> means likely to affect a consumer's choice of, or conduct regarding, any mortgage assistance relief service.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service</I> means any service, plan, or program, offered or provided to the consumer in exchange for consideration, that is represented, expressly or by implication, to assist or attempt to assist the consumer with any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Stopping, preventing, or postponing any mortgage or deed of trust foreclosure sale for the consumer's dwelling, any repossession of the consumer's dwelling, or otherwise saving the consumer's dwelling from foreclosure or repossession;
</P>
<P>(2) Negotiating, obtaining, or arranging a modification of any term of a dwelling loan, including a reduction in the amount of interest, principal balance, monthly payments, or fees;
</P>
<P>(3) Obtaining any forbearance or modification in the timing of payments from any dwelling loan holder or servicer on any dwelling loan;
</P>
<P>(4) Negotiating, obtaining, or arranging any extension of the period of time within which the consumer may:
</P>
<P>(i) Cure his or her default on a dwelling loan,
</P>
<P>(ii) Reinstate his or her dwelling loan,
</P>
<P>(iii) Redeem a dwelling, or
</P>
<P>(iv) Exercise any right to reinstate a dwelling loan or redeem a dwelling;
</P>
<P>(5) Obtaining any waiver of an acceleration clause or balloon payment contained in any promissory note or contract secured by any dwelling; or
</P>
<P>(6) Negotiating, obtaining or arranging:
</P>
<P>(i) A short sale of a dwelling,
</P>
<P>(ii) A deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other disposition of a dwelling other than a sale to a third party who is not the dwelling loan holder.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service Provider</I> or <I>Provider</I> means any person that provides, offers to provide, or arranges for others to provide, any mortgage assistance relief service. This term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) The dwelling loan holder, or any agent or contractor of such individual or entity.
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer of a dwelling loan, or any agent or contractor of such individual or entity.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, group, unincorporated association, limited or general partnership, corporation, or other business entity, except to the extent that any person is specifically excluded from the Federal Trade Commission's jurisdiction pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 44 and 45(a)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means the individual or entity responsible for:
</P>
<P>(1) Receiving any scheduled periodic payments from a consumer pursuant to the terms of the dwelling loan that is the subject of the offer to provide mortgage assistance relief services, including amounts for escrow accounts under section 10 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2609); and
</P>
<P>(2) Making the payments of principal and interest and such other payments with respect to the amounts received from the consumer as may be required pursuant to the terms of the mortgage servicing loan documents or servicing contract.
</P>
<P><I>Telemarketing</I> means a plan, program, or campaign which is conducted to induce the purchase of any service, by use of one or more telephones and which involves more than one interstate telephone call.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.3   Prohibited representations.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this rule for any mortgage assistance relief service provider to engage in the following conduct:
</P>
<P>(a) Representing, expressly or by implication, in connection with the advertising, marketing, promotion, offering for sale, sale, or performance of any mortgage assistance relief service, that a consumer cannot or should not contact or communicate with his or her lender or servicer.
</P>
<P>(b) Misrepresenting, expressly or by implication, any material aspect of any mortgage assistance relief service, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The likelihood of negotiating, obtaining, or arranging any represented service or result, such as those set forth in the definition of <I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service</I> in § 1015.2;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of time it will take the mortgage assistance relief service provider to accomplish any represented service or result, such as those set forth in the definition of <I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service</I> in § 1015.2;
</P>
<P>(3) That a mortgage assistance relief service is affiliated with, endorsed or approved by, or otherwise associated with:
</P>
<P>(i) The United States government,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any governmental homeowner assistance plan,
</P>
<P>(iii) Any Federal, State, or local government agency, unit, or department,
</P>
<P>(iv) Any nonprofit housing counselor agency or program,
</P>
<P>(v) The maker, holder, or servicer of the consumer's dwelling loan, or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other individual, entity, or program;
</P>
<P>(4) The consumer's obligation to make scheduled periodic payments or any other payments pursuant to the terms of the consumer's dwelling loan;
</P>
<P>(5) The terms or conditions of the consumer's dwelling loan, including but not limited to the amount of debt owed;
</P>
<P>(6) The terms or conditions of any refund, cancellation, exchange, or repurchase policy for a mortgage assistance relief service, including but not limited to the likelihood of obtaining a full or partial refund, or the circumstances in which a full or partial refund will be granted, for a mortgage assistance relief service;
</P>
<P>(7) That the mortgage assistance relief service provider has completed the represented services or has a right to claim, demand, charge, collect, or receive payment or other consideration;
</P>
<P>(8) That the consumer will receive legal representation;
</P>
<P>(9) The availability, performance, cost, or characteristics of any alternative to for-profit mortgage assistance relief services through which the consumer can obtain mortgage assistance relief, including negotiating directly with the dwelling loan holder or servicer, or using any nonprofit housing counselor agency or program;
</P>
<P>(10) The amount of money or the percentage of the debt amount that a consumer may save by using the mortgage assistance relief service;
</P>
<P>(11) The total cost to purchase the mortgage assistance relief service; or
</P>
<P>(12) The terms, conditions, or limitations of any offer of mortgage assistance relief the provider obtains from the consumer's dwelling loan holder or servicer, including the time period in which the consumer must decide to accept the offer;
</P>
<P>(c) Making a representation, expressly or by implication, about the benefits, performance, or efficacy of any mortgage assistance relief service unless, at the time such representation is made, the provider possesses and relies upon competent and reliable evidence that substantiates that the representation is true. For the purposes of this paragraph, <I>competent and reliable evidence</I> means tests, analyses, research, studies, or other evidence based on the expertise of professionals in the relevant area, that have been conducted and evaluated in an objective manner by individuals qualified to do so, using procedures generally accepted in the profession to yield accurate and reliable results.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.4   Disclosures required in commercial communications.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this rule for any mortgage assistance relief service provider to engage in the following conduct:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosures in All General Commercial Communications</I>—Failing to place the following statements in every general commercial communication for any mortgage assistance relief service:
</P>
<P>(1) “(Name of company) is not associated with the government, and our service is not approved by the government or your lender.”
</P>
<P>(2) In cases where the mortgage assistance relief service provider has represented, expressly or by implication, that consumers will receive any service or result set forth in paragraphs (2) through (6) of the definition of <I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service</I> in § 1015.2, “Even if you accept this offer and use our service, your lender may not agree to change your loan.”
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosures required by this paragraph must be made in a clear and prominent manner, and—
</P>
<P>(i) In textual communications the disclosures must appear together and be preceded by the heading “IMPORTANT NOTICE,” which must be in bold face font that is two point-type larger than the font size of the required disclosures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In communications disseminated orally or through audible means, wholly or in part, the audio component of the required disclosures must be preceded by the statement “Before using this service, consider the following information.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures in All Consumer-Specific Commercial Communications</I>—Failing to disclose the following information in every consumer-specific commercial communication for any mortgage assistance relief service:
</P>
<P>(1) “You may stop doing business with us at any time. You may accept or reject the offer of mortgage assistance we obtain from your lender [or servicer]. If you reject the offer, you do not have to pay us. If you accept the offer, you will have to pay us (insert amount or method for calculating the amount) for our services.” For the purposes of this paragraph (b)(1), the amount “you will have to pay” shall consist of the total amount the consumer must pay to purchase, receive, and use all of the mortgage assistance relief services that are the subject of the sales offer, including, but not limited to, all fees and charges.
</P>
<P>(2) “(Name of company) is not associated with the government, and our service is not approved by the government or your lender.”
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where the mortgage assistance relief service provider has represented, expressly or by implication, that consumers will receive any service or result set forth in paragraphs (2) through (6) of the definition of <I>Mortgage Assistance Relief Service</I> in § 1015.2, “Even if you accept this offer and use our service, your lender may not agree to change your loan.”
</P>
<P>(4) The disclosures required by this paragraph must be made in a clear and prominent manner, and—
</P>
<P>(i) In textual communications the disclosures must appear together and be preceded by the heading “IMPORTANT NOTICE,” which must be in bold face font that is two point-type larger than the font size of the required disclosures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In communications disseminated orally or through audible means, wholly or in part, the audio component of the required disclosures must be preceded by the statement “Before using this service, consider the following information” and, in telephone communications, must be made at the beginning of the call.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures in All General Commercial Communications, Consumer-Specific Commercial Communications, and Other Communications</I>—In cases where the mortgage assistance relief service provider has represented, expressly or by implication, in connection with the advertising, marketing, promotion, offering for sale, sale, or performance of any mortgage assistance relief service, that the consumer should temporarily or permanently discontinue payments, in whole or in part, on a dwelling loan, failing to disclose, clearly and prominently, and in close proximity to any such representation that “If you stop paying your mortgage, you could lose your home and damage your credit rating.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.5   Prohibition on collection of advance payments and related disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this rule for any mortgage assistance relief service provider to:
</P>
<P>(a) Request or receive payment of any fee or other consideration until the consumer has executed a written agreement between the consumer and the consumer's dwelling loan holder or servicer incorporating the offer of mortgage assistance relief the provider obtained from the consumer's dwelling loan holder or servicer;
</P>
<P>(b) Fail to disclose, at the time the mortgage assistance relief service provider furnishes the consumer with the written agreement specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the following information: “This is an offer of mortgage assistance we obtained from your lender [or servicer]. You may accept or reject the offer. If you reject the offer, you do not have to pay us. If you accept the offer, you will have to pay us [same amount as disclosed pursuant to § 1015.4(b)(1)] for our services.” The disclosure required by this paragraph must be made in a clear and prominent manner, on a separate written page, and preceded by the heading: “IMPORTANT NOTICE: Before buying this service, consider the following information.” The heading must be in bold face font that is two point-type larger than the font size of the required disclosure; or
</P>
<P>(c)(1) Fail to provide, at the time the mortgage assistance relief service provider furnishes the consumer with the written agreement specified in paragraph (a) of this section, a notice from the consumer's dwelling loan holder or servicer that describes all material differences between the terms, conditions, and limitations associated with the consumer's current mortgage loan and the terms, conditions, and limitations associated with the consumer's mortgage loan if he or she accepts the dwelling loan holder's or servicer's offer, including but not limited to differences in the loan's:
</P>
<P>(i) Principal balance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contract interest rate, including the maximum rate and any adjustable rates, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amount and number of the consumer's scheduled periodic payments on the loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Monthly amounts owed for principal, interest, taxes, and any mortgage insurance on the loan;
</P>
<P>(v) Amount of any delinquent payments owing or outstanding;
</P>
<P>(vi) Assessed fees or penalties; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Term.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice must be made in a clear and prominent manner, on a separate written page, and preceded by heading: “IMPORTANT INFORMATION FROM YOUR [name of lender or servicer] ABOUT THIS OFFER.” The heading must be in bold face font that is two-point-type larger than the font size of the required disclosure.
</P>
<P>(d) Fail to disclose in the notice specified in paragraph (c) of this section, in cases where the offer of mortgage assistance relief the provider obtained from the consumer's dwelling loan holder or servicer is a trial mortgage loan modification, the terms, conditions, and limitations of this offer, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The fact that the consumer may not qualify for a permanent mortgage loan modification; and
</P>
<P>(2) The likely amount of the scheduled periodic payments and any arrears, payments, or fees that the consumer would owe in failing to qualify.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.6   Assisting and facilitating.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this rule for a person to provide substantial assistance or support to any mortgage assistance relief service provider when that person knows or consciously avoids knowing that the provider is engaged in any act or practice that violates this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.7   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An attorney is exempt from this part, with the exception of § 1015.5, if the attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides mortgage assistance relief services as part of the practice of law;
</P>
<P>(2) Is licensed to practice law in the state in which the consumer for whom the attorney is providing mortgage assistance relief services resides or in which the consumer's dwelling is located; and
</P>
<P>(3) Complies with state laws and regulations that cover the same type of conduct the rule requires.
</P>
<P>(b) An attorney who is exempt pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is also exempt from § 1015.5 if the attorney:
</P>
<P>(1) Deposits any funds received from the consumer prior to performing legal services in a client trust account; and
</P>
<P>(2) Complies with all state laws and regulations, including licensing regulations, applicable to client trust accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.8   Waiver not permitted.</HEAD>
<P>It is a violation of this rule for any person to obtain, or attempt to obtain, a waiver from any consumer of any protection provided by or any right of the consumer under this rule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.9   Recordkeeping and compliance requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any mortgage assistance relief provider must keep, for a period of twenty-four (24) months from the date the record is created, the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) All contracts or other agreements between the provider and any consumer for any mortgage assistance relief service;
</P>
<P>(2) Copies of all written communications between the provider and any consumer occurring prior to the date on which the consumer entered into an agreement with the provider for any mortgage assistance relief service;
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of all documents or telephone recordings created in connection with compliance with paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) All consumer files containing the names, phone numbers, dollar amounts paid, and descriptions of mortgage assistance relief services purchased, to the extent the mortgage assistance relief service provider keeps such information in the ordinary course of business;
</P>
<P>(5) Copies of all materially different sales scripts, training materials, commercial communications, or other marketing materials, including Web sites and weblogs, for any mortgage assistance relief service; and
</P>
<P>(6) Copies of the documentation provided to the consumer as specified in § 1015.5 of this rule;
</P>
<P>(b) A mortgage assistance relief service provider also must:
</P>
<P>(1) Take reasonable steps sufficient to monitor and ensure that all employees and independent contractors comply with this rule. Such steps shall include the monitoring of communications directed at specific consumers, and shall also include, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) If the mortgage assistance relief service provider is engaged in the telemarketing of mortgage assistance relief services, performing random, blind recording and testing of the oral representations made by individuals engaged in sales or other customer service functions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing a procedure for receiving and responding to all consumer complaints; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Ascertaining the number and nature of consumer complaints regarding transactions in which all employees and independent contractors are involved;
</P>
<P>(2) Investigate promptly and fully each consumer complaint received;
</P>
<P>(3) Take corrective action with respect to any employee or contractor whom the mortgage assistance relief service provider determines is not complying with this rule, which may include training, disciplining, or terminating such individual; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain any information and material necessary to demonstrate its compliance with paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) A mortgage assistance relief provider may keep the records required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section in any form, and in the same manner, format, or place as it keeps such records in the ordinary course of business.
</P>
<P>(d) It is a violation of this rule for a mortgage assistance relief service provider not to comply with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.10   Actions by states.</HEAD>
<P>Any attorney general or other officer of a state authorized by the state to bring an action under this part may do so pursuant to section 626(b) of the 2009 Omnibus Appropriations Act, Public Law 111-8, section 626, 123 Stat. 524 (Mar. 11, 2009), as amended by Public Law 111-24, section 511, 123 Stat. 1734 (May 22, 2009), and as amended by Public Law 111-203, section 1097, 124 Stat. 2102 (July 21, 2010).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1015.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.16.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1015.11   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this rule are separate and severable from one another. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, it is the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection's intention that the remaining provisions shall continue in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1016" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1016—PRIVACY OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL INFORMATION (REGULATION P)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 6804.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79028, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1016.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part governs the treatment of nonpublic personal information about consumers by the financial institutions listed in paragraph (b) of this section. This part:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires a financial institution to provide notice to customers about its privacy policies and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) Describes the conditions under which a financial institution may disclose nonpublic personal information about consumers to nonaffiliated third parties; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a method for consumers to prevent a financial institution from disclosing that information to most nonaffiliated third parties by “opting out” of that disclosure, subject to the exceptions in §§ 1016.13, 1016.14, and 1016.15.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies only to nonpublic personal information about individuals who obtain financial products or services primarily for personal, family, or household purposes from the institutions listed below. This part does not apply to information about companies or about individuals who obtain financial products or services for business, commercial, or agricultural purposes. This part applies to those financial institutions and other persons for which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) has rulemaking authority pursuant to section 504(a)(1)(A) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLB Act) (15 U.S.C. 6804(a)(1)(A)). Specifically, this part applies to any financial institution and other covered person or service provider that is subject to Subtitle A of Title V of the GLB Act, including third parties that are not financial institutions but that receive nonpublic personal information from financial institutions with whom they are not affiliated. This part does not apply to certain motor vehicle dealers described in 12 U.S.C. 5519 or to entities for which the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has rulemaking authority pursuant to sections 504(a)(1)(A)-(B) of the GLB Act (15 U.S.C. 6804(a)(1)(A)-(B)). Except as otherwise specifically provided herein, entities to which this part applies are referred to in this part as “you.”
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Nothing in this part modifies, limits, or supersedes the standards governing individually identifiable health information promulgated by the Secretary of Health and Human Services under the authority of sections 262 and 264 of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (42 U.S.C. 1320d-1320d-8).
</P>
<P>(ii) Any institution of higher education that complies with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA), 20 U.S.C. 1232g, and its implementing regulations, 34 CFR part 99, and that is also a financial institution described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part, shall be deemed to be in compliance with this part if it is in compliance with FERPA.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this part shall apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) A financial institution that is a person described in section 1029(a) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (12 U.S.C. 5519(a));
</P>
<P>(ii) A financial institution or other person subject to the jurisdiction on the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under 7 U.S.C. 7b-2;
</P>
<P>(iii) A broker or dealer that is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.;</I>)
</P>
<P>(iv) A registered investment adviser, properly registered by or on behalf of either the Securities Exchange Commission or any state, with respect to its investment advisory activities and its activities incidental to those investment advisory activities;
</P>
<P>(v) An investment company that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.;</I>) or
</P>
<P>(vi) An insurance company, with respect to its insurance activities and its activities incidental to those insurance activities, that is subject to supervision by a state insurance regulator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79028, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 64081, Oct. 28, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.2   Model privacy form and examples.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Use of the model privacy form in the appendix to this part, consistent with the instructions in the appendix constitutes compliance with the notice content requirements of §§ 1016.6 and 1016.7 of this part, although use of the model privacy form is not required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context requires otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples in the case of a credit union.</I> (i) An affiliate of a Federal credit union is a credit union service organization (CUSO), as provided in 12 CFR part 712, that is controlled by the Federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(ii) An affiliate of a federally-insured, state-chartered credit union is a company that is controlled by the credit union.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous</I> means that a notice is reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Reasonably understandable.</I> You make your notice reasonably understandable if you:
</P>
<P>(A) Present the information in the notice in clear, concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections;
</P>
<P>(B) Use short explanatory sentences or bullet lists whenever possible;
</P>
<P>(C) Use definite, concrete, everyday words and active voice whenever possible;
</P>
<P>(D) Avoid multiple negatives;
</P>
<P>(E) Avoid legal and highly technical business terminology whenever possible; and
</P>
<P>(F) Avoid explanations that are imprecise and readily subject to different interpretations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Designed to call attention.</I> You design your notice to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in it if you:
</P>
<P>(A) Use a plain-language heading to call attention to the notice;
</P>
<P>(B) Use a typeface and type size that are easy to read;
</P>
<P>(C) Provide wide margins and ample line spacing;
</P>
<P>(D) Use boldface or italics for key words; and
</P>
<P>(E) In a form that combines your notice with other information, use distinctive type size, style, and graphic devices, such as shading or sidebars, when you combine your notice with other information.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notices on Web sites.</I> If you provide a notice on a Web site, you design your notice to call attention to the nature and significance of the information in it if you use text or visual cues to encourage scrolling down the page if necessary to view the entire notice and ensure that other elements on the Web site (such as text, graphics, hyperlinks, or sound) do not distract attention from the notice, and you either:
</P>
<P>(A) Place the notice on a screen that consumers frequently access, such as a page on which transactions are conducted; or
</P>
<P>(B) Place a link on a screen that consumers frequently access, such as a page on which transactions are conducted, that connects directly to the notice and is labeled appropriately to convey the importance, nature, and relevance of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Collect</I> means to obtain information that you organize or can retrieve by the name of an individual or by identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, irrespective of the source of the underlying information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(e)(1) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual who obtains or has obtained a financial product or service from you that is to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, or that individual's legal representative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples in the case of a financial institution other than a credit union.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual who applies to you for credit for personal, family, or household purposes is a consumer of a financial service, regardless of whether the credit is extended.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in order to obtain a determination about whether he or she may qualify for a loan to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes is a consumer of a financial service, regardless of whether the loan is extended.
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in connection with obtaining or seeking to obtain financial, investment, or economic advisory services is a consumer regardless of whether you establish a continuing advisory relationship.
</P>
<P>(iv) If you hold ownership or servicing rights to an individual's loan that is used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, the individual is your consumer, even if you hold those rights in conjunction with one or more other institutions. (The individual is also a consumer with respect to the other financial institutions involved.) An individual who has a loan in which you have ownership or servicing rights is your consumer, even if you, or another institution with those rights, hire an agent to collect on the loan.
</P>
<P>(v) An individual who is a consumer of another financial institution is not your consumer solely because you act as agent for, or provide processing or other services to, that financial institution.
</P>
<P>(vi) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she has designated you as trustee for a trust.
</P>
<P>(vii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a beneficiary of a trust for which you are a trustee.
</P>
<P>(viii) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a participant or a beneficiary of an employee benefit plan that you sponsor or for which you act as a trustee or fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples in the case of a credit union.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3), “you” is limited to credit unions.
</P>
<P>(i) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in connection with obtaining or seeking to obtain credit union membership is your consumer regardless of whether you establish a customer relationship.
</P>
<P>(ii) An individual who provides nonpublic personal information to you in connection with using your ATM is your consumer.
</P>
<P>(iii) If you hold ownership or servicing rights to an individual's loan, the individual is your consumer, even if you hold those rights in conjunction with one or more financial institutions. The individual is also a consumer with respect to the other financial institutions involved. This applies even if you, or another financial institution with those rights, hire an agent to collect on the loan or to provide processing or other services.
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual who is a consumer of another financial institution is not your consumer solely because you act as agent for, or provide processing or other services to, that financial institution.
</P>
<P>(v) An individual is not your consumer solely because he or she is a participant or a beneficiary of an employee benefit plan that you sponsor or for which you act as a trustee or fiduciary.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 603(f) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(f)).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Control</I> of a company means:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of the company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the company; or
</P>
<P>(3) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the company as determined by the applicable prudential regulator (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(24)), if any.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example in the case of credit unions.</I> A credit union is presumed to have a controlling influence over the management or policies of a CUSO, if the CUSO is 67% owned by credit unions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit union</I> means a Federal or state-chartered credit union that the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund insures.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Customer</I> means a consumer who has a customer relationship with you.
</P>
<P>(j)(1) <I>Customer relationship</I> means a continuing relationship between a consumer and you under which you provide one or more financial products or services to the consumer that are to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. As noted in the examples, and for purposes of this part only, in the case of a credit union, a customer relationship will exist between a credit union and certain consumers that are not the credit union's members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples in the case of financial institutions other than credit unions and covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (j)(2), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions and financial institutions described in paragraph (l)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuing relationship.</I> A consumer has a continuing relationship with you if the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a deposit or investment account with you;
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a loan from you;
</P>
<P>(C) Has a loan for which you own the servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(D) Purchases an insurance product from you;
</P>
<P>(E) Holds an investment product through you, such as when you act as a custodian for securities or for assets in an Individual Retirement Arrangement;
</P>
<P>(F) Enters into an agreement or understanding with you whereby you undertake to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(G) Enters into a lease of personal property with you; or
</P>
<P>(H) Obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from you for a fee.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No continuing relationship.</I> A consumer does not, however, have a continuing relationship with you if:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer obtains a financial product or service only in isolated transactions, such as using your ATM to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution or purchasing a cashier's check or money order;
</P>
<P>(B) You sell the consumer's loan and do not retain the rights to service that loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) You sell the consumer airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples in the case of covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (j)(3), “you” is limited to financial institutions described in paragraph (l)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Continuing relationship.</I> A consumer has a continuing relationship with you if the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Has a credit or investment account with you;
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a loan from you;
</P>
<P>(C) Purchases an insurance product from you;
</P>
<P>(D) Holds an investment product through you, such as when you act as a custodian for securities or for assets in an Individual Retirement Arrangement;
</P>
<P>(E) Enters into an agreement or understanding with you whereby you undertake to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan, or credit to purchase a vehicle, for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(F) Enters into a lease of personal property on a non-operating basis with you;
</P>
<P>(G) Obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from you for a fee;
</P>
<P>(H) Becomes your client for the purpose of obtaining tax preparation or credit counseling services from you;
</P>
<P>(I) Obtains career counseling while seeking employment with a financial institution or the finance, accounting, or audit department of any company (or while employed by such a financial institution or department of any company);
</P>
<P>(J) Is obligated on an account that you purchase from another financial institution, regardless of whether the account is in default when purchased, unless you do not locate the consumer or attempt to collect any amount from the consumer on the account;
</P>
<P>(K) Obtains real estate settlement services from you; or
</P>
<P>(L) Has a loan for which you own the servicing rights.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No continuing relationship.</I> A consumer does not, however, have a continuing relationship with you if:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer obtains a financial product or service from you only in isolated transactions, such as using your ATM to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution; purchasing a money order from you; cashing a check with you; or making a wire transfer through you;
</P>
<P>(B) You sell the consumer's loan and do not retain the rights to service that loan;
</P>
<P>(C) You sell the consumer airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions;
</P>
<P>(D) The consumer obtains one-time personal or real property appraisal services from you; or
</P>
<P>(E) The consumer purchases checks for a personal checking account from you.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples in the case of a credit union.</I> (i) <I>Continuing relationship.</I> A consumer has a continuing relationship with a credit union if the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a member as defined in the credit union's bylaws;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a nonmember who has a share, share draft, or credit card account with the credit union jointly with a member;
</P>
<P>(C) Is a nonmember who has a loan that the credit union services;
</P>
<P>(D) Is a nonmember who has an account with a credit union that has been designated as a low-income credit union; or
</P>
<P>(E) Is a nonmember who has an account in a federally-insured, state-chartered credit union pursuant to state law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No continuing relationship.</I> A consumer does not, however, have a continuing relationship with a credit union if the consumer is a nonmember and:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer only obtains a financial product or service in isolated transactions, such as using the credit union's ATM to withdraw cash from an account maintained at another financial institution or purchasing travelers checks; or
</P>
<P>(B) The credit union sells the consumer's loan and does not retain the rights to service that loan.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federal functional regulator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System;
</P>
<P>(2) The Office of the Comptroller of the Currency;
</P>
<P>(3) The Board of Directors of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P>(4) The National Credit Union Administration Board; and
</P>
<P>(5) The Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(l)(1) Except for entities described in paragraph (l)(3) of this section, <I>financial institution</I> means any institution the business of which is engaging in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to such financial activities as described in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (l)(1) of this section, <I>financial institution</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person or entity with respect to any financial activity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.;</I>)
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or any entity chartered and operating under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.;</I>) or
</P>
<P>(iii) Institutions chartered by Congress specifically to engage in securitizations, secondary market sales (including sales of servicing rights), or similar transactions related to a transaction of a consumer, as long as such institutions do not sell or transfer nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Special definition for entities subject to the Federal Trade Commission's enforcement jurisdiction.</I> In the case of an entity described in section 505(a)(7) of the GLB Act (other than such an entity described in section 504(a)(1)(C) of that Act), <I>financial institution</I> means any institution the business of which is engaging in financial activities as described in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)). For purposes of this paragraph (l)(3), an institution that is significantly engaged in financial activities is a financial institution.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of financial institution.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (l)(3):
</P>
<P>(A) A retailer that extends credit by issuing its own credit card directly to consumers is a financial institution because extending credit is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(1) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act and issuing that extension of credit through a proprietary credit card demonstrates that a retailer is significantly engaged in extending credit.
</P>
<P>(B) A personal property or real estate appraiser is a financial institution because real and personal property appraisal is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(2)(i) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(C) An automobile dealership that is not described in section 1029(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5519(a)) and that, as a usual part of its business, leases automobiles on a nonoperating basis for longer than 90 days is a financial institution with respect to its leasing business because leasing personal property on a nonoperating basis where the initial term of the lease is at least 90 days is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(3) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(D) A career counselor that specializes in providing career counseling services to individuals currently employed by or recently displaced from a financial organization, individuals who are seeking employment with a financial organization, or individuals who are currently employed by or seeking placement with the finance, accounting or audit departments of any company is a financial institution because such career counseling activities are financial activities listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(9)(iii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(E) A business that prints and sells checks for consumers, either as its sole business or as one of its product lines, is a financial institution because printing and selling checks is a financial activity that is listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(10)(ii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(F) A business that regularly wires money to and from consumers is a financial institution because transferring money is a financial activity referenced in section 4(k)(4)(A) of the Bank Holding Company Act and regularly providing that service demonstrates that the business is significantly engaged in that activity.
</P>
<P>(G) A check cashing business is a financial institution because cashing a check is exchanging money, which is a financial activity listed in section 4(k)(4)(A) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(H) An accountant or other tax preparation service that is in the business of completing income tax returns is a financial institution because tax preparation services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(6)(vi) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(G) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(I) A business that operates a travel agency in connection with financial services is a financial institution because operating a travel agency in connection with financial services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 211.5(d)(15) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(G) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(J) An entity that provides real estate settlement services is a financial institution because providing real estate settlement services is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(2)(viii) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(K) A mortgage broker is a financial institution because brokering loans is a financial activity listed in 12 CFR 225.28(b)(1) and referenced in section 4(k)(4)(F) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(L) An investment advisory company and a credit counseling service are each financial institutions because providing financial and investment advisory services are financial activities referenced in section 4(k)(4)(C) of the Bank Holding Company Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (l)(3), <I>financial institution</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any person or entity with respect to any financial activity that is subject to the jurisdiction of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.;</I>)
</P>
<P>(B) The Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation or any entity chartered and operating under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.;</I>) or
</P>
<P>(C) Institutions chartered by Congress specifically to engage in securitizations, secondary market sales (including sales of servicing rights) or similar transactions related to a transaction of a consumer, as long as such institutions do not sell or transfer nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party other than as permitted by §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15 of this part.
</P>
<P>(D) Entities that engage in financial activities but that are not significantly engaged in those financial activities.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples of entities that are not significantly engaged in financial activities.</I> (A) A retailer is not a financial institution if its only means of extending credit are occasional “lay away” and deferred payment plans or accepting payment by means of credit cards issued by others.
</P>
<P>(B) A retailer is not a financial institution merely because it accepts payment in the form of cash, checks, or credit cards that it did not issue.
</P>
<P>(C) A merchant is not a financial institution merely because it allows an individual to “run a tab.”
</P>
<P>(D) A grocery store is not a financial institution merely because it allows individuals to whom it sells groceries to cash a check, or write a check for a higher amount than the grocery purchase and obtain cash in return.
</P>
<P>(m)(1) <I>Financial product or service</I> means any product or service that a financial holding company could offer by engaging in an activity that is financial in nature or incidental to such a financial activity under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special definition for entities subject to the Federal Trade Commission's enforcement jurisdiction.</I> In the case of an entity described in section 505(a)(7) of the GLB Act (other than such an entity described in section 504(a)(1)(C) of that Act), <I>financial product or service</I> means any product or service that a financial holding company could offer by engaging in a financial activity under section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financial service</I> includes your evaluation or brokerage of information that you collect in connection with a request or an application from a consumer for a financial product or service.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Member</I> means a consumer who is a member of a credit union, as defined in the credit union's bylaws.
</P>
<P>(o)(1) <I>Nonaffiliated third party</I> means any person except:
</P>
<P>(i) Your affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A person employed jointly by you and any company that is not your affiliate (but <I>nonaffiliated third party</I> includes the other company that jointly employs the person).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonaffiliated third party</I> includes, for financial institutions other than credit unions, any company that is an affiliate solely by virtue of your or your affiliate's direct or indirect ownership or control of the company in conducting merchant banking or investment banking activities of the type described in section 4(k)(4)(H) or insurance company investment activities of the type described in section 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H) and (I)).
</P>
<P>(p)(1) <I>Nonpublic personal information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Personally identifiable financial information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any list, description, or other grouping of consumers (and publicly available information pertaining to them) that is derived using any personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonpublic personal information</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly available information, except as included on a list described in paragraph (p)(1)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any list, description, or other grouping of consumers (and publicly available information pertaining to them) that is derived without using any personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of lists.</I> (i) Nonpublic personal information includes any list of individuals' names and street addresses that is derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, such as account numbers.
</P>
<P>(ii) Nonpublic personal information does not include any list of individuals' names and addresses that contains only publicly available information, is not derived in whole or in part using personally identifiable financial information that is not publicly available, and is not disclosed in a manner that indicates that any of the individuals on the list is a consumer of a financial institution.
</P>
<P>(q)(1) <I>Personally identifiable financial information</I> means any information:
</P>
<P>(i) A consumer provides to you to obtain a financial product or service from you;
</P>
<P>(ii) About a consumer resulting from any transaction involving a financial product or service between you and a consumer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) You otherwise obtain about a consumer in connection with providing a financial product or service to that consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Information included.</I> Personally identifiable financial information includes:
</P>
<P>(A) Information a consumer provides to you on an application to obtain a loan, a credit card, a credit union membership, or other financial product or service;
</P>
<P>(B) Account balance information, payment history, overdraft history, and credit or debit card purchase information;
</P>
<P>(C) The fact that an individual is or has been one of your customers or has obtained a financial product or service from you;
</P>
<P>(D) Any information about your consumer if it is disclosed in a manner that indicates that the individual is or has been your consumer;
</P>
<P>(E) Any information that a consumer provides to you or that you or your agent otherwise obtain in connection with collecting on, or servicing, a loan or a credit account;
</P>
<P>(F) Any information you collect through an internet “cookie” (an information collecting device from a Web server); and
</P>
<P>(G) Information from a consumer report.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Information not included.</I> Personally identifiable financial information does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A list of names and addresses of customers of an entity that is not a financial institution; and
</P>
<P>(B) Information that does not identify a consumer, such as aggregate information or blind data that does not contain personal identifiers such as account numbers, names, or addresses.
</P>
<P>(r)(1) <I>Publicly available information</I> means any information that you have a reasonable basis to believe is lawfully made available to the general public from:
</P>
<P>(i) Federal, state, or local government records;
</P>
<P>(ii) Widely distributed media; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosures to the general public that are required to be made by Federal, state, or local law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reasonable basis.</I> You have a reasonable basis to believe that information is lawfully made available to the general public if you have taken steps to determine:
</P>
<P>(i) That the information is of the type that is available to the general public; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether an individual can direct that the information not be made available to the general public and, if so, that your consumer has not done so.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Government records.</I> Publicly available information in government records includes information in government real estate records and security interest filings.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Widely distributed media.</I> Publicly available information from widely distributed media includes information from a telephone book, a television or radio program, a newspaper, or a Web site that is available to the general public on an unrestricted basis. A Web site is not restricted merely because an Internet service provider or a site operator requires a fee or a password, so long as access is available to the general public.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Reasonable basis.</I> (A) You have a reasonable basis to believe that mortgage information is lawfully made available to the general public if you have determined that the information is of the type included on the public record in the jurisdiction where the mortgage would be recorded.
</P>
<P>(B) You have a reasonable basis to believe that an individual's telephone number is lawfully made available to the general public if you have located the telephone number in the telephone book or the consumer has informed you that the telephone number is not unlisted.
</P>
<P>(s)(1) <I>You</I> means a financial institution for which the Bureau has rulemaking authority under section 504(a)(1)(A) of the GLB Act (15 U.S.C. 6804(a)(1)(A)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>You</I> does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A financial institution that is a person described in section 1029(a) of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (12 U.S.C. 5519(a));
</P>
<P>(ii) A financial institution or other person subject to the jurisdiction on the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under 7 U.S.C. 7b-2;
</P>
<P>(iii) A broker or dealer that is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.;</I>)
</P>
<P>(iv) A registered investment adviser, properly registered by or on behalf of either the Securities Exchange Commission or any State, with respect to its investment advisory activities and its activities incidental to those investment advisory activities;
</P>
<P>(v) An investment company that is registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.;</I>) or
</P>
<P>(vi) An insurance company, with respect to its insurance activities and its activities incidental to those insurance activities, that is subject to supervision by a State insurance regulator.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79028, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended by CFPB-2016-0032, 83 FR 40958, Aug. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Privacy and Opt Out Notices</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.4   Initial privacy notice to consumers required.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial notice requirement.</I> You must provide a clear and conspicuous notice that accurately reflects your privacy policies and practices to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Customer.</I> An individual who becomes your customer, not later than when you establish a customer relationship, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer.</I> A consumer, before you disclose any nonpublic personal information about the consumer to any nonaffiliated third party, if you make such a disclosure other than as authorized by §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When initial notice to a consumer is not required.</I> You are not required to provide an initial notice to a consumer under paragraph (a) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) You do not disclose any nonpublic personal information about the consumer to any nonaffiliated third party, other than as authorized by §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15; and
</P>
<P>(2) You do not have a customer relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When you establish a customer relationship</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> You establish a customer relationship when you and the consumer enter into a continuing relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for loans.</I> You establish a customer relationship with a consumer when you originate or acquire the servicing rights to a loan to the consumer for personal, family, or household purposes. If you subsequently transfer the servicing rights to that loan to another financial institution, the customer relationship transfers with the servicing rights.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Examples of establishing customer relationship by financial institutions other than credit unions and covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(i), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions and financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3). You establish a customer relationship when the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Opens a credit card account with you;
</P>
<P>(B) Executes the contract to open a deposit account with you, obtains credit from you, or purchases insurance from you;
</P>
<P>(C) Agrees to obtain financial, economic, or investment advisory services from you for a fee; or
</P>
<P>(D) Becomes your client for the purpose of your providing credit counseling or tax preparation services.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of establishing customer relationship by covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(ii), “you” is limited to financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part. You establish a customer relationship when the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Opens a credit card account with you;
</P>
<P>(B) Executes the contract to obtain credit from you or purchases insurance from you;
</P>
<P>(C) Agrees to obtain financial, economic, or investment advisory services from you for a fee;
</P>
<P>(D) Becomes your client for the purpose of your providing credit counseling or tax preparation services or to obtain career counseling while seeking employment with a financial institution or the finance, accounting, or audit department of any company (or while employed by such a company or financial institution);
</P>
<P>(E) Provides any personally identifiable financial information to you in an effort to obtain a mortgage loan through you;
</P>
<P>(F) Executes the lease for personal property with you;
</P>
<P>(G) Is an obligor on an account that you purchased from another financial institution and whom you have located and begun attempting to collect amounts owed on the account; or
</P>
<P>(H) Provides you with the information necessary for you to compile and provide access to all of the consumer's online financial accounts at your Web site.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples of establishing customer relationship by credit unions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii), “you” is limited to a credit union. You establish a customer relationship when the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Becomes your member under your bylaws;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a nonmember and opens a credit card account with you jointly with a member under your procedures;
</P>
<P>(C) Is a nonmember and executes the contract to open a share or share draft account with you or obtains credit from you jointly with a member, including an individual acting as a guarantor;
</P>
<P>(D) Is a nonmember and opens an account with you and you are a credit union designated as a low-income credit union;
</P>
<P>(E) Is a nonmember and opens an account with you pursuant to State law and you are a State-chartered credit union.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Examples of loan rule.</I> You establish a customer relationship with a consumer who obtains a loan for personal, family, or household purposes when you:
</P>
<P>(A) Originate the loan to the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Purchase the servicing rights to the consumer's loan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Existing customers.</I> When an existing customer obtains a new financial product or service from you that is to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, you satisfy the initial notice requirements of paragraph (a) of this section as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) You may provide a revised privacy notice, under § 1016.8 of this part, that covers the customer's new financial product or service; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the initial, revised, or annual notice that you most recently provided to that customer was accurate with respect to the new financial product or service, you do not need to provide a new privacy notice under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions to allow subsequent delivery of notice.</I> (1) You may provide the initial notice required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section within a reasonable time after you establish a customer relationship if:
</P>
<P>(i) Establishing the customer relationship is not at the customer's election; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would substantially delay the customer's transaction and the customer agrees to receive the notice at a later time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Not at customer's election.</I> (A) In the case of financial institutions other than credit unions and financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3), establishing a customer relationship is not at the customer's election if you acquire a customer's deposit liability or the servicing rights to a customer's loan from another financial institution and the customer does not have a choice about your acquisition.
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3), establishing a customer relationship is not at the customer's election if you acquire a customer's loan or the servicing rights from another financial institution and the customer does not have a choice about your acquisition.
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of credit unions, establishing a customer relationship is not at the customer's election if you acquire a customer's deposit liability from another financial institution and the customer does not have a choice about your acquisition.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Substantial delay of customer's transaction.</I> Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would substantially delay the customer's transaction when:
</P>
<P>(A) You and the individual agree over the telephone to enter into a customer relationship involving prompt delivery of the financial product or service; or
</P>
<P>(B) You establish a customer relationship with an individual under a program authorized by title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>) or similar student loan programs where loan proceeds are disbursed promptly without prior communication between you and the customer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>No substantial delay of customer's transaction.</I> Providing notice not later than when you establish a customer relationship would not substantially delay the customer's transaction when the relationship is initiated in person at your office or through other means by which the customer may view the notice, such as on a Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an initial privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 1016.9 of this part. If you use a short-form initial notice for non-customers according to § 1016.6(d) of this part, you may deliver your privacy notice according to § 1016.6(d)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.5   Annual privacy notice to customers required.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided by paragraph (e) of this section, you must provide a clear and conspicuous notice to customers that accurately reflects your privacy policies and practices not less than annually during the continuation of the customer relationship. <I>Annually</I> means at least once in any period of 12 consecutive months during which that relationship exists. You may define the 12-consecutive-month period, but you must apply it to the customer on a consistent basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> You provide a notice annually if you define the 12-consecutive-month period as a calendar year and provide the annual notice to the customer once in each calendar year following the calendar year in which you provided the initial notice. For example, if a customer opens an account on any day of year 1, you must provide an annual notice to that customer by December 31 of year 2.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Termination of customer relationship.</I> You are not required to provide an annual notice to a former customer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples in the case of financial institutions other than credit unions and covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions and financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3). Your customer becomes a former customer when:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a deposit account, the account is inactive under your policies;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a closed-end loan, the customer pays the loan in full, you charge off the loan, or you sell the loan without retaining servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a credit card relationship or other open-end credit relationship, you no longer provide any statements or notices to the customer concerning that relationship or you sell the credit card receivables without retaining servicing rights; or
</P>
<P>(iv) You have not communicated with the customer about the relationship for a period of 12 consecutive months, other than to provide annual privacy notices or promotional material.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples in the case of covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), “you” is limited to financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part. Your customer becomes a former customer when:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a closed-end loan, the customer pays the loan in full, you charge off the loan, or you sell the loan without retaining servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a credit card relationship or other open-end credit relationship, you sell the receivables without retaining servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of credit counseling services, the customer has failed to make required payments under a debt management plan, has been notified that the plan is terminated, and you no longer provide any statements or notices to the customer concerning that relationship;
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of mortgage or vehicle loan brokering services, your customer has obtained a loan through you (and you no longer provide any statements or notices to the customer concerning that relationship), or has ceased using your services for such purposes;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of tax preparation services, you have provided and received payment for the service and no longer provide any statements or notices to the customer concerning that relationship;
</P>
<P>(vi) In the case of providing real estate settlement services, at the time the customer completes execution of all documents related to the real estate closing, you have received payment, or you have completed all of your responsibilities with respect to the settlement, including filing documents on the public record, whichever is later; or
</P>
<P>(vii) In cases where there is no definitive time at which the customer relationship has terminated, you have not communicated with the customer about the relationship for a period of 12 consecutive months, other than to provide annual privacy notices or promotional material.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples in the case of a credit union.</I> An individual becomes a former customer of a credit union when:
</P>
<P>(i) The individual is no longer the credit union's member as defined in the credit union's bylaws;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a nonmember's share or share draft account, the account is inactive under the credit union's policies;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a nonmember's closed-end loan, the loan is paid in full, the credit union charges off the loan, or the credit union sells the loan without retaining servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a credit card relationship or other open-end credit relationship with a nonmember, the credit union no longer provides any statements or notices to the nonmember concerning that relationship, or the credit union sells the credit card receivables without retaining servicing rights; or
</P>
<P>(v) The credit union has not communicated with the nonmember about the relationship for a period of 12 consecutive months, other than to provide annual privacy notices or promotional material.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special rule for loans in the case of a financial institution other than a credit union.</I> If a financial institution other than a credit union does not have a customer relationship with a consumer under the special rule for loans in § 1016.4(c)(2) of this part, then it need not provide an annual notice to that consumer under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an annual privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 1016.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exception to annual privacy notice requirement</I>—(1) <I>When exception available.</I> You are not required to deliver an annual privacy notice if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide nonpublic personal information to nonaffiliated third parties only in accordance with the provisions of § 1016.13, § 1016.14, or § 1016.15; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Have not changed your policies and practices with regard to disclosing nonpublic personal information from the policies and practices that were disclosed to the customer under § 1016.6(a)(2) through (5) and (9) in the most recent privacy notice provided pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Delivery of annual privacy notice after financial institution no longer meets requirements for exception.</I> If you have been excepted from delivering an annual privacy notice pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section and change your policies or practices in such a way that you no longer meet the requirements for that exception, you must comply with paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (e)(2)(ii) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Changes preceded by a revised privacy notice.</I> If you no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section because you change your policies or practices in such a way that § 1016.8 requires you to provide a revised privacy notice, you must provide an annual privacy notice in accordance with the timing requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, treating the revised privacy notice as an initial privacy notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes not preceded by a revised privacy notice.</I> If you no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section because you change your policies or practices in such a way that § 1016.8 does not require you to provide a revised privacy notice, you must provide an annual privacy notice within 100 days of the change in your policies or practices that causes you to no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples.</I> (A) You change your policies and practices in such a way that you no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section effective April 1 of year 1. Assuming you define the 12-consecutive-month period pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section as a calendar year, if you were required to provide a revised privacy notice under § 1016.8 and you provided that notice on March 1 of year 1, you must provide an annual privacy notice by December 31 of year 2. If you were not required to provide a revised privacy notice under § 1016.8, you must provide an annual privacy notice by July 9 of year 1.
</P>
<P>(B) You change your policies and practices in such a way that you no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section, and so provide an annual notice to your customers. After providing the annual notice to your customers, you once again meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section for an exception to the annual notice requirement. You do not need to provide additional annual notices to your customers until such time as you no longer meet the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79028, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended by CFPB-2016-0032, 83 FR 40958, Aug. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.6   Information to be included in privacy notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The initial, annual, and revised privacy notices that you provide under §§ 1016.4, 1016.5, and 1016.8 of this part must include each of the following items of information, in addition to any other information you wish to provide, that applies to you and to the consumers to whom you send your privacy notice:
</P>
<P>(1) The categories of nonpublic personal information that you collect;
</P>
<P>(2) The categories of nonpublic personal information that you disclose;
</P>
<P>(3) The categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information, other than those parties to whom you disclose information under §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15 of this part;
</P>
<P>(4) The categories of nonpublic personal information about your former customers that you disclose and the categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information about your former customers, other than those parties to whom you disclose information under §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15;
</P>
<P>(5) If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party under § 1016.13 (and no other exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 applies to that disclosure), a separate statement of the categories of information you disclose and the categories of third parties with whom you have contracted;
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of the consumer's right under § 1016.10(a) of this part to opt out of the disclosure of nonpublic personal information to nonaffiliated third parties, including the method(s) by which the consumer may exercise that right at that time;
</P>
<P>(7) Any disclosures that you make under section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(d)(2)(A)(iii)) (that is, notices regarding the ability to opt out of disclosures of information among affiliates);
</P>
<P>(8) Your policies and practices with respect to protecting the confidentiality and security of nonpublic personal information; and
</P>
<P>(9) Any disclosure that you make under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Description of nonaffiliated third parties subject to exceptions.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to third parties as authorized under §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15, you are not required to list those exceptions in the initial or annual privacy notices required by §§ 1016.4 and 1016.5. When describing the categories with respect to those parties, it is sufficient to state that you make disclosures to other nonaffiliated companies:
</P>
<P>(1) For your everyday business purposes, such as [<I>include all that apply</I>] to process transactions, maintain account(s), respond to court orders and legal investigations, or report to credit bureaus; or
</P>
<P>(2) As permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Categories of nonpublic personal information that you collect.</I> You satisfy the requirement to categorize the nonpublic personal information that you collect if you list the following categories, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Information from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information about the consumer's transactions with you or your affiliates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Information about the consumer's transactions with nonaffiliated third parties; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Information from a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Categories of nonpublic personal information you disclose.</I> (i) You satisfy the requirement to categorize the nonpublic personal information that you disclose if you list the categories described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, as applicable, and a few examples to illustrate the types of information in each category.
</P>
<P>(ii) If you reserve the right to disclose all of the nonpublic personal information about consumers that you collect, you may simply state that fact without describing the categories or examples of the nonpublic personal information you disclose.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Categories of affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose.</I> You satisfy the requirement to categorize the affiliates and nonaffiliated third parties to whom you disclose nonpublic personal information if you list the following categories, as applicable, and a few examples to illustrate the types of third parties in each category.
</P>
<P>(i) Financial service providers, followed by illustrative examples such as mortgage bankers, securities broker-dealers, and insurance agents;
</P>
<P>(ii) Non-financial companies, followed by illustrative examples such as retailers, magazine publishers, airlines, and direct marketers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Others, followed by examples such as nonprofit organizations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosures under exception for service providers and joint marketers.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information under the exception in § 1016.13 of this part to a nonaffiliated third party to market products or services that you offer alone or jointly with another financial institution, you satisfy the disclosure requirement of paragraph (a)(5) of this section if you:
</P>
<P>(i) List the categories of nonpublic personal information you disclose, using the same categories and examples you used to meet the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(ii) State whether the third party is:
</P>
<P>(A) A service provider that performs marketing services on your behalf or on behalf of you and another financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(B) A financial institution with whom you have a joint marketing agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simplified notices.</I> If you do not disclose, and do not wish to reserve the right to disclose, nonpublic personal information about customers or former customers to affiliates or nonaffiliated third parties except as authorized under §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15, you may simply state that fact, in addition to the information you must provide under paragraphs (a)(1), (a)(8), (a)(9), and (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Confidentiality and security.</I> You describe your policies and practices with respect to protecting the confidentiality and security of nonpublic personal information if you do both of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Describe in general terms who is authorized to have access to the information; and
</P>
<P>(ii) State whether you have security practices and procedures in place to ensure the confidentiality of the information in accordance with your policy. You are not required to describe technical information about the safeguards you use.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Short-form initial notice with opt out notice for non-customers.</I> (1) You may satisfy the initial notice requirements in §§ 1016.4(a)(2), 1016.7(b), and 1016.7(c) of this part for a consumer who is not a customer by providing a short-form initial notice at the same time as you deliver an opt out notice as required in § 1016.7.
</P>
<P>(2) A short-form initial notice must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) State that your privacy notice is available upon request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain a reasonable means by which the consumer may obtain that notice.
</P>
<P>(3) You must deliver your short-form initial notice according to § 1016.9. You are not required to deliver your privacy notice with your short-form initial notice. You instead may simply provide the consumer a reasonable means to obtain your privacy notice. If a consumer who receives your short-form notice requests your privacy notice, you must deliver your privacy notice according to § 1016.9.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of obtaining privacy notice.</I> You provide a reasonable means by which a consumer may obtain a copy of your privacy notice if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide a toll-free telephone number that the consumer may call to request the notice; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a consumer who conducts business in person at your office, maintain copies of the notice on hand that you provide to the consumer immediately upon request.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Future disclosures.</I> Your notice may include:
</P>
<P>(1) Categories of nonpublic personal information that you reserve the right to disclose in the future, but do not currently disclose; and
</P>
<P>(2) Categories of affiliates or nonaffiliated third parties to whom you reserve the right in the future to disclose, but to whom you do not currently disclose, nonpublic personal information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Pursuant to § 1016.2(a) of this part, a model privacy form that meets the notice content requirements of this section is included in the appendix to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.7   Form of opt out notice to consumers; opt out methods.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Form of opt out notice.</I> If you are required to provide an opt out notice under § 1016.10(a), you must provide a clear and conspicuous notice to each of your consumers that accurately explains the right to opt out under that section. The notice must state:
</P>
<P>(i) That you disclose or reserve the right to disclose nonpublic personal information about your consumer to a nonaffiliated third party;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the consumer has the right to opt out of that disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A reasonable means by which the consumer may exercise the opt out right.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples</I>—(i) <I>Adequate opt out notice.</I> You provide adequate notice that the consumer can opt out of the disclosure of nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party if you:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify all of the categories of nonpublic personal information that you disclose or reserve the right to disclose, and all of the categories of nonaffiliated third parties to which you disclose the information, as described in § 1016.6(a)(2) and (3) of this part, and state that the consumer can opt out of the disclosure of that information; and
</P>
<P>(B) Identify the financial products or services that the consumer obtains from you, either singly or jointly, to which the opt out direction would apply.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable opt out means.</I> You provide a reasonable means to exercise an opt out right if you:
</P>
<P>(A) Designate check-off boxes in a prominent position on the relevant forms with the opt out notice;
</P>
<P>(B) Include a reply form together with the opt out notice that, in the case of financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part, includes the address to which the form should be mailed;
</P>
<P>(C) Provide an electronic means to opt out, such as a form that can be sent via electronic mail or a process at your Web site, if the consumer agrees to the electronic delivery of information; or
</P>
<P>(D) Provide a toll-free telephone number that consumers may call to opt out.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Unreasonable opt out means.</I> You <I>do not</I> provide a reasonable means of opting out if:
</P>
<P>(A) The only means of opting out is for the consumer to write his or her own letter to exercise that opt out right; or
</P>
<P>(B) The only means of opting out as described in any notice subsequent to the initial notice is to use a check-off box that you provided with the initial notice but did not include with the subsequent notice.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Specific opt out means.</I> You may require each consumer to opt out through a specific means, as long as that means is reasonable for that consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Same form as initial notice permitted.</I> You may provide the opt out notice together with or on the same written or electronic form as the initial notice you provide in accordance with § 1016.4.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial notice required when opt out notice delivered subsequent to initial notice.</I> If you provide the opt out notice later than required for the initial notice in accordance with § 1016.4 of this part, you must also include a copy of the initial notice with the opt out notice in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Joint relationships in the case of financial institutions other than credit unions and covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions and financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may provide a single opt out notice. Your opt out notice must explain how you will treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer (as explained in paragraph (d)(5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out. You may either:
</P>
<P>(i) Treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer as applying to all of the associated joint consumers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit each joint consumer to opt out separately.
</P>
<P>(3) If you permit each joint consumer to opt out separately, you must permit one of the joint consumers to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers.
</P>
<P>(4) You may not require <I>all</I> joint consumers to opt out before you implement <I>any</I> opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example.</I> If John and Mary have a joint checking account with you and arrange for you to send statements to John's address, you may do any of the following, but you must explain in your opt out notice which opt out policy you will follow:
</P>
<P>(i) Send a single opt out notice to John's address, but you must accept an opt out direction from either John or Mary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat an opt out direction by either John or Mary as applying to the entire account. If you do so, and John opts out, you may not require Mary to opt out as well before implementing John's opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Permit John and Mary to make different opt out directions. If you do so:
</P>
<P>(A) You must permit John and Mary to opt out for each other;
</P>
<P>(B) If both opt out, you must permit both to notify you in a single response (such as on a form or through a telephone call); and
</P>
<P>(C) If John opts out and Mary does not, you may only disclose nonpublic personal information about Mary, but not about John and not about John and Mary jointly.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Joint relationships in the case of credit unions.</I> (1) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service, other than a loan, from a credit union, the credit union may provide only a single opt out notice. The opt out notice must explain how the credit union will treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer (as explained in the examples in paragraph (e)(5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out. A credit union may either:
</P>
<P>(i) Treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer to apply to all of the associated joint consumers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit each joint consumer to opt out separately.
</P>
<P>(3) If a credit union permits each joint consumer to opt out separately, the credit union must permit one of the joint consumers to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit union may not require all joint consumers to opt out before the credit union implements any opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example.</I> If John and Mary have a joint share account with a credit union and arrange for the credit union to send statements to John's address, the credit union may do any of the following, but it must explain in its opt out notice which opt out policy it will follow:
</P>
<P>(i) Send a single opt out notice to John's address, but it must accept an opt out direction from either John or Mary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat an opt out direction by either John or Mary as applying to the entire account. If it does so, and John opts out, it may not require Mary to opt out as well before implementing John's opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Permit John and Mary to make different opt out directions. If it does so, and if John and Mary both opt out, it must permit one or both of them to notify it in a single response (such as on a form or through a telephone call).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Special rule for loans.</I> (i) A credit union is required to provide an initial opt out notice to a borrower or guarantor on a loan if it shares his or her nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties other than for purposes under §§ 1016.13, 1016.14, and 1016.15.
</P>
<P>(ii) A credit union may satisfy its annual opt out notice requirement by providing one notice to those borrowers and guarantors jointly.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint relationships in the case of covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (f), “you” is limited to the financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3).
</P>
<P>(1) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may provide a single opt out notice, unless one or more of those consumers requests a separate opt out notice. Your opt out notice must explain how you will treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer (as explained in paragraph (f)(5) of this section).
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out. You may either:
</P>
<P>(i) Treat an opt out direction by a joint consumer as applying to all of the associated joint consumers; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Permit each joint consumer to opt out separately.
</P>
<P>(3) If you permit each joint consumer to opt out separately, you must permit one of the joint consumers to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers.
</P>
<P>(4) You may not require <I>all</I> joint consumers to opt out before you implement <I>any</I> opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example.</I> If John and Mary have a joint credit card account with you and arrange for you to send statements to John's address, you may do any of the following, but you must explain in your opt out notice which opt out policy you will follow:
</P>
<P>(i) Send a single opt out notice to John's address, but you must accept an opt out direction from either John or Mary.
</P>
<P>(ii) Treat an opt out direction by either John or Mary as applying to the entire account. If you do so, and John opts out, you may not require Mary to opt out as well before implementing John's opt out direction.
</P>
<P>(iii) Permit John and Mary to make different opt out directions. If you do so:
</P>
<P>(A) You must permit John and Mary to opt out for each other;
</P>
<P>(B) If both opt out, you must permit both to notify you in a single response (such as on a form or through a telephone call); and
</P>
<P>(C) If John opts out and Mary does not, you may only disclose nonpublic personal information about Mary, but not about John and not about John and Mary jointly.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Time to comply with opt out.</I> You must comply with a consumer's opt out direction as soon as reasonably practicable after you receive it.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Continuing right to opt out.</I> A consumer may exercise the right to opt out at any time.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duration of consumer's opt out direction.</I> (1) A consumer's direction to opt out under this section is effective until the consumer revokes it in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically.
</P>
<P>(2) When a customer relationship terminates, the customer's opt out direction continues to apply to the nonpublic personal information that you collected during or related to that relationship. If the individual subsequently establishes a new customer relationship with you, the opt out direction that applied to the former relationship does not apply to the new relationship.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver an opt out notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 1016.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Model privacy form.</I> Pursuant to § 1016.2(a) of this part, a model privacy form that meets the notice content requirements of this section is included in the appendix to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.8   Revised privacy notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise authorized in this part, you must not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer to a nonaffiliated third party other than as described in the initial notice that you provided to that consumer under § 1016.4 of this part, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) You have provided to the consumer a clear and conspicuous revised notice that accurately describes your policies and practices;
</P>
<P>(2) You have provided to the consumer a new opt out notice;
</P>
<P>(3) You have given the consumer a reasonable opportunity, before you disclose the information to the nonaffiliated third party, to opt out of the disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The consumer does not opt out.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples.</I> (1) Except as otherwise permitted by §§ 1016.13, 1016.14, and 1016.15 of this part, you must provide a revised notice before you:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclose a new category of nonpublic personal information to any nonaffiliated third party;
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclose nonpublic personal information to a new category of nonaffiliated third party; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclose nonpublic personal information about a former customer to a nonaffiliated third party, if that former customer has not had the opportunity to exercise an opt out right regarding that disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) A revised notice is not required if you disclose nonpublic personal information to a new nonaffiliated third party that you adequately described in your prior notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delivery.</I> When you are required to deliver a revised privacy notice by this section, you must deliver it according to § 1016.9 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.9   Delivering privacy and opt out notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How to provide notices.</I> You must provide any privacy notices and opt out notices, including short-form initial notices, that this part requires so that each consumer can reasonably be expected to receive actual notice in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Examples of reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> You may reasonably expect that a consumer will receive actual notice if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Hand-deliver a printed copy of the notice to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mail a printed copy of the notice to the last known address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) For the consumer who conducts transactions electronically:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of financial institutions other than those described in § 1016.3(l)(3) of this part, post the notice on the electronic site and require the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining a particular financial product or service; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3), clearly and conspicuously post the notice on the electronic site and require the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining a particular financial product or service;
</P>
<P>(iv) For an isolated transaction with the consumer, such as an ATM transaction, post the notice on the ATM screen and require the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice as a necessary step to obtaining the particular financial product or service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of unreasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> You may <I>not,</I> however, reasonably expect that a consumer will receive actual notice of your privacy policies and practices if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Only post a sign in your branch or office or generally publish advertisements of your privacy policies and practices; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Send the notice via electronic mail to a consumer who does not obtain a financial product or service from you electronically.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual notices only.</I> You may reasonably expect that a customer will receive actual notice of your annual privacy notice if:
</P>
<P>(1) The customer uses your website to access financial products and services electronically and agrees to receive notices at the website, and you post your current privacy notice continuously in a clear and conspicuous manner on the website; or
</P>
<P>(2) The customer has requested that you refrain from sending any information regarding the customer relationship, and your current privacy notice remains available to the customer upon request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Oral description of notice insufficient.</I> You may not provide any notice required by this part solely by orally explaining the notice, either in person or over the telephone.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retention or accessibility of notices for customers.</I> (1) For customers only, you must provide the initial notice required by § 1016.4(a)(1), the annual notice required by § 1016.5(a), and the revised notice required by § 1016.8 so that the customer can retain them or obtain them later in writing or, if the customer agrees, electronically.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of retention or accessibility.</I> You provide a privacy notice to the customer so that the customer can retain it or obtain it later if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Hand-deliver a printed copy of the notice to the customer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mail a printed copy of the notice to the last known address of the customer, or, in the case of credit unions, mail a printed copy of the notice to the last known address of the customer upon request of the customer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Make your current privacy notice available on a Web site (or a link to another Web site) for the customer who obtains a financial product or service electronically and agrees to receive the notice at the Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint notice with other financial institutions.</I> You may provide a joint notice from you and one or more of your affiliates or other financial institutions, as identified in the notice, as long as the notice is accurate with respect to you and the other institutions.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Joint relationships in the case of financial institutions other than credit unions and covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), “you” is limited to financial institutions other than credit unions and the financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3). If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may satisfy the initial, annual, and revised notice requirements of §§ 1016.4(a), 1016.5(a), and 1016.8(a), respectively, by providing one notice to those consumers jointly.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Joint relationships in the case of covered entities subject to FTC enforcement jurisdiction.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (h), “you” is limited to the financial institutions described in § 1016.3(l)(3). If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service from you, you may satisfy the initial, annual, and revised notice requirements of §§ 1016.4(a), 1016.5(a), and 1016.8(a) by providing one notice to those consumers jointly, unless one or more of those consumers requests separate notices.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Joint relationships in the case of credit unions.</I> (1) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a financial product or service, other than a loan, from a credit union, the credit union may satisfy the requirements of § 1016.4(a) by providing one initial notice to those consumers jointly.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for loans in the case of credit unions.</I> (i) A credit union is required to provide an initial notice to a borrower or guarantor on a loan if the credit union shares his or her nonpublic personal information with nonaffiliated third parties other than for purposes under §§ 1016.13, 1016.14, and 1016.15.
</P>
<P>(ii) A credit union may satisfy the annual notice requirements of § 1016.5 by providing one notice to those borrowers and guarantors jointly.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79028, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 64081, Oct. 28, 2014; CFPB-2016-0032, 83 FR 40959, Aug. 17, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Limits on Disclosures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.10   Limits on disclosure of nonpublic personal information to nonaffiliated third parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Conditions for disclosure.</I> Except as otherwise authorized in this part, you may not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer to a nonaffiliated third party unless:
</P>
<P>(i) You have provided to the consumer an initial notice as required under § 1016.4 of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) You have provided to the consumer an opt out notice as required in § 1016.7 of this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) You have given the consumer a reasonable opportunity, before you disclose the information to the nonaffiliated third party, to opt out of the disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer does not opt out.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt out definition.</I> Opt out means a direction by the consumer that you not disclose nonpublic personal information about that consumer to a nonaffiliated third party, other than as permitted by §§ 1016.13, 1016.14, and 1016.15.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of reasonable opportunity to opt out.</I> You provide a consumer with a reasonable opportunity to opt out if:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>By mail.</I> You mail the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the consumer and allow the consumer to opt out by mailing a form, calling a toll-free telephone number, or any other reasonable means within 30 days from the date you mailed the notices.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>By electronic means.</I> A customer opens an online account with you and agrees to receive the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section electronically, and you allow the customer to opt out by any reasonable means within 30 days after the date that the customer acknowledges receipt of the notices in conjunction with opening the account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Isolated transaction with consumer.</I> For an isolated transaction, such as the purchase of a cashier's check by a consumer, you provide the consumer with a reasonable opportunity to opt out if you provide the notices required in paragraph (a)(1) of this section at the time of the transaction and request that the consumer decide, as a necessary part of the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of opt out to all consumers and all nonpublic personal information.</I> (1) You must comply with this section, regardless of whether you and the consumer have established a customer relationship.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless you comply with this section, you may not, directly or through any affiliate, disclose any nonpublic personal information about a consumer that you have collected, regardless of whether you collected it before or after receiving the direction to opt out from the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Partial opt out.</I> You may allow a consumer to select certain nonpublic personal information or certain nonaffiliated third parties with respect to which the consumer wishes to opt out.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.11   Limits on redisclosure and reuse of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Information you receive under an exception.</I> If you receive nonpublic personal information from a nonaffiliated financial institution under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 of this part, your disclosure and use of that information is limited as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) You may disclose the information to the affiliates of the financial institution from which you received the information;
</P>
<P>(ii) You may disclose the information to your affiliates, but your affiliates may, in turn, disclose and use the information only to the extent that you may disclose and use the information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) You may disclose and use the information pursuant to an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out the activity covered by the exception under which you received the information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you receive a customer list from a nonaffiliated financial institution in order to provide account processing services under the exception in § 1016.14(a), you may disclose that information under any exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 in the ordinary course of business in order to provide those services. For example, you could disclose the information in response to a properly authorized subpoena or, in the case of financial institutions other than those described in § 1016.3(l)(3), to your attorneys, accountants, and auditors. You could not disclose that information to a third party for marketing purposes or use that information for your own marketing purposes.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Information you receive outside of an exception.</I> If you receive nonpublic personal information from a nonaffiliated financial institution other than under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 of this part, you may disclose the information only:
</P>
<P>(i) To the affiliates of the financial institution from which you received the information;
</P>
<P>(ii) To your affiliates, but your affiliates may, in turn, disclose the information only to the extent that you can disclose the information; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To any other person, if the disclosure would be lawful if made directly to that person by the financial institution from which you received the information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you obtain a customer list from a nonaffiliated financial institution outside of the exceptions in §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15:
</P>
<P>(i) You may use that list for your own purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) You may disclose that list to another nonaffiliated third party only if the financial institution from which you purchased the list could have lawfully disclosed the list to that third party. That is, you may disclose the list in accordance with the privacy policy of the financial institution from which you received the list, as limited by the opt out direction of each consumer whose nonpublic personal information you intend to disclose, and you may disclose the list in accordance with an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15, such as to your attorneys or accountants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information you disclose under an exception.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 of this part, the third party may disclose and use that information only as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The third party may disclose the information to your affiliates;
</P>
<P>(2) The third party may disclose the information to its affiliates, but its affiliates may, in turn, disclose and use the information only to the extent that the third party may disclose and use the information; and
</P>
<P>(3) The third party may disclose and use the information pursuant to an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out the activity covered by the exception under which it received the information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information you disclose outside of an exception.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party other than under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 of this part, the third party may disclose the information only:
</P>
<P>(1) To your affiliates;
</P>
<P>(2) To its affiliates, but its affiliates, in turn, may disclose the information only to the extent the third party can disclose the information; and
</P>
<P>(3) To any other person, if the disclosure would be lawful if you made it directly to that person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.12" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.12   Limits on sharing account number information for marketing purposes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General prohibition on disclosure of account numbers.</I> You must not, directly or through an affiliate, disclose, other than to a consumer reporting agency, an account number or similar form of access number or access code for a consumer's credit card account, deposit account, share account, or transaction account to any nonaffiliated third party for use in telemarketing, direct mail marketing, or other marketing through electronic mail to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply if you disclose an account number or similar form of access number or access code:
</P>
<P>(1) To your agent or service provider solely in order to perform marketing for your own products or services, as long as the agent or service provider is not authorized to directly initiate charges to the account; or
</P>
<P>(2) To a participant in a private label credit card program or an affinity or similar program where the participants in the program are identified to the customer when the customer enters into the program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Account number.</I> An account number, or similar form of access number or access code, does not include a number or code in an encrypted form, as long as you do not provide the recipient with a means to decode the number or code.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transaction account.</I> A transaction account is an account other than a deposit account, a share account, or a credit card account. A transaction account does not include an account to which third parties cannot initiate charges.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Exceptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.13" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.13   Exception to opt out requirements for service providers and joint marketing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) The opt out requirements in §§ 1016.7 and 1016.10 of this part do not apply when you provide nonpublic personal information to a nonaffiliated third party to perform services for you or functions on your behalf, if you:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide the initial notice in accordance with § 1016.4; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Enter into a contractual agreement with the third party that prohibits the third party from disclosing or using the information other than to carry out the purposes for which you disclosed the information, including use under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out those purposes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> If you disclose nonpublic personal information under this section to a financial institution with which you perform joint marketing, your contractual agreement with that institution meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section if it prohibits the institution from disclosing or using the nonpublic personal information except as necessary to carry out the joint marketing or under an exception in § 1016.14 or § 1016.15 in the ordinary course of business to carry out that joint marketing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Service may include joint marketing.</I> The services a nonaffiliated third party performs for you under paragraph (a) of this section may include marketing of your own products or services or marketing of financial products or services offered pursuant to joint agreements between you and one or more financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of joint agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, joint agreement means a written contract pursuant to which you and one or more financial institutions jointly offer, endorse, or sponsor a financial product or service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.14   Exceptions to notice and opt out requirements for processing and servicing transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions for processing transactions at consumer's request.</I> The requirements for initial notice in § 1016.4(a)(2), for the opt out in §§ 1016.7 and 1016.10, and for service providers and joint marketing in § 1016.13 do not apply if you disclose nonpublic personal information as necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction that a consumer requests or authorizes, or in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) Servicing or processing a financial product or service that a consumer requests or authorizes;
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining or servicing the consumer's account with you, or with another entity as part of a private label credit card program or other extension of credit on behalf of such entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed or actual securitization, secondary market sale (including sales of servicing rights), or similar transaction related to a transaction of the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Necessary to effect, administer, or enforce a transaction</I> means that the disclosure is:
</P>
<P>(1) Required, or is one of the lawful or appropriate methods, to enforce your rights or the rights of other persons engaged in carrying out the financial transaction or providing the product or service; or
</P>
<P>(2) Required, or is a usual, appropriate or acceptable method:
</P>
<P>(i) To carry out the transaction or the product or service business of which the transaction is a part, and record, service, or maintain the consumer's account in the ordinary course of providing the financial service or financial product;
</P>
<P>(ii) To administer or service benefits or claims relating to the transaction or the product or service business of which it is a part;
</P>
<P>(iii) To provide a confirmation, statement, or other record of the transaction, or information on the status or value of the financial service or financial product to the consumer or the consumer's agent or broker;
</P>
<P>(iv) To accrue or recognize incentives or bonuses associated with the transaction that are provided by you or any other party;
</P>
<P>(v) To underwrite insurance at the consumer's request or for reinsurance purposes, or for any of the following purposes as they relate to a consumer's insurance: account administration, reporting, investigating, or preventing fraud or material misrepresentation, processing premium payments, processing insurance claims, administering insurance benefits (including utilization review activities), participating in research projects, or as otherwise required or specifically permitted by Federal or state law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) In connection with:
</P>
<P>(A) The authorization, settlement, billing, processing, clearing, transferring, reconciling or collection of amounts charged, debited, or otherwise paid using a debit, credit, or other payment card, check, or account number, or by other payment means;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of receivables, accounts, or interests therein; or
</P>
<P>(C) The audit of debit, credit, or other payment information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.15   Other exceptions to notice and opt out requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exceptions to opt out requirements.</I> The requirements for initial notice in § 1016.4(a)(2), for the opt out in §§ 1016.7 and 1016.10, and for service providers and joint marketing in § 1016.13 do not apply when you disclose nonpublic personal information:
</P>
<P>(1) With the consent or at the direction of the consumer, provided that the consumer has not revoked the consent or direction;
</P>
<P>(2)(i) To protect the confidentiality or security of your records pertaining to the consumer, service, product, or transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) To protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability;
</P>
<P>(iii) For required institutional risk control or for resolving consumer disputes or inquiries;
</P>
<P>(iv) To persons holding a legal or beneficial interest relating to the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(v) To persons acting in a fiduciary or representative capacity on behalf of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) To provide information to insurance rate advisory organizations, guaranty funds or agencies, agencies that are rating you, persons that are assessing your compliance with industry standards, and your attorneys, accountants, and auditors;
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent specifically permitted or required under other provisions of law and in accordance with the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>) to law enforcement agencies (including the Bureau, a Federal functional regulator, the Secretary of the Treasury, with respect to 31 U.S.C. Chapter 53, Subchapter II (Records and Reports on Monetary Instruments and Transactions) and 12 U.S.C. Chapter 21 (Financial Recordkeeping), a state insurance authority, with respect to any person domiciled in that insurance authority's state that is engaged in providing insurance, and the Federal Trade Commission), self-regulatory organizations, or for an investigation on a matter related to public safety;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) To a consumer reporting agency in accordance with the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(ii) From a consumer report reported by a consumer reporting agency;
</P>
<P>(6) In connection with a proposed or actual sale, merger, transfer, or exchange of all or a portion of a business or operating unit if the disclosure of nonpublic personal information concerns solely consumers of such business or unit; or
</P>
<P>(7)(i) To comply with Federal, state, or local laws, rules and other applicable legal requirements;
</P>
<P>(ii) To comply with a properly authorized civil, criminal, or regulatory investigation, or subpoena or summons by Federal, state, or local authorities; or
</P>
<P>(iii) To respond to judicial process or government regulatory authorities having jurisdiction over you for examination, compliance, or other purposes as authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of consent and revocation of consent.</I> (1) A consumer may specifically consent to your disclosure to a nonaffiliated insurance company of the fact that the consumer has applied to you for a mortgage so that the insurance company can offer homeowner's insurance to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer may revoke consent by subsequently exercising the right to opt out of future disclosures of nonpublic personal information as permitted under § 1016.7(h) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Relation to Other Laws</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.16" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.16   Protection of Fair Credit Reporting Act.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to modify, limit, or supersede the operation of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>), and no inference shall be drawn on the basis of the provisions of this part regarding whether information is transaction or experience information under section 603 of that Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1016.17" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1016.17   Relation to state laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not be construed as superseding, altering, or affecting any statute, regulation, order, or interpretation in effect in any state, except to the extent that such state statute, regulation, order, or interpretation is inconsistent with the provisions of this part, and then only to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Greater protection under state law.</I> For purposes of this section, a state statute, regulation, order, or interpretation is not inconsistent with the provisions of this part if the protection such statute, regulation, order, or interpretation affords any consumer is greater than the protection provided under this part, as determined by the Bureau, on its own motion or upon the petition of any interested party, after consultation with the agency or authority with jurisdiction under section 505(a) of the GLB Act (15 U.S.C. 6805(a)) over either the person that initiated the complaint or that is the subject of the complaint.



</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.17.4.1.3.31" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1016—Model Privacy Form
</HEAD>
<HD1>A. The Model Privacy Form

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.058.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.059.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.060.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.061.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.062.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.063.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.064.gif"/>
<HD1>B. General Instructions
</HD1>
<HD2>1. How the Model Privacy Form Is Used
</HD2>
<P>(a) The model form may be used, at the option of a financial institution, including a group of financial institutions that use a common privacy notice, to meet the content requirements of the privacy notice and opt-out notice set forth in §§ 1016.6 and 1016.7 of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The model form is a standardized form, including page layout, content, format, style, pagination, and shading. Institutions seeking to obtain the safe harbor through use of the model form may modify it only as described in these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) Note that disclosure of certain information, such as assets, income, and information from a consumer reporting agency, may give rise to obligations under the Fair Credit Reporting Act [15 U.S.C. 1681-1681x] (FCRA), such as a requirement to permit a consumer to opt out of disclosures to affiliates or designation as a consumer reporting agency if disclosures are made to nonaffiliated third parties.
</P>
<P>(d) The word “customer” may be replaced by the word “member” whenever it appears in the model form, as appropriate.
</P>
<HD2>2. The Contents of the Model Privacy Form
</HD2>
<P>The model form consists of two pages, which may be printed on both sides of a single sheet of paper, or may appear on two separate pages. Where an institution provides a long list of institutions at the end of the model form in accordance with Instruction C.3(a)(1), or provides additional information in accordance with Instruction C.3(c), and such list or additional information exceeds the space available on page two of the model form, such list or additional information may extend to a third page.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Page One.</I> The first page consists of the following components:
</P>
<P>(1) Date last revised (upper right-hand corner).
</P>
<P>(2) Title.
</P>
<P>(3) Key frame (Why?, What?, How?).
</P>
<P>(4) Disclosure table (“Reasons we can share your personal information”).
</P>
<P>(5) “To limit our sharing” box, as needed, for the financial institution's opt-out information.
</P>
<P>(6) “Questions” box, for customer service contact information.
</P>
<P>(7) Mail-in opt-out form, as needed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Page Two.</I> The second page consists of the following components:
</P>
<P>(1) Heading (Page 2).
</P>
<P>(2) Frequently Asked Questions (“Who we are” and “What we do”).
</P>
<P>(3) Definitions.
</P>
<P>(4) “Other important information” box, as needed.
</P>
<HD2>3. The Format of the Model Privacy Form
</HD2>
<P>The format of the model form may be modified only as described below.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Easily readable type font.</I> Financial institutions that use the model form must use an easily readable type font. While a number of factors together produce easily readable type font, institutions are required to use a minimum of 10-point font (unless otherwise expressly permitted in these Instructions) and sufficient spacing between the lines of type.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Logo.</I> A financial institution may include a corporate logo on any page of the notice, so long as it does not interfere with the readability of the model form or the space constraints of each page.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Page size and orientation.</I> Each page of the model form must be printed on paper in portrait orientation, the size of which must be sufficient to meet the layout and minimum font size requirements, with sufficient white space on the top, bottom, and sides of the content.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Color.</I> The model form must be printed on white or light color paper (such as cream) with black or other contrasting ink color. Spot color may be used to achieve visual interest, so long as the color contrast is distinctive and the color does not detract from the readability of the model form. Logos may also be printed in color.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Languages.</I> The model form may be translated into languages other than English.
</P>
<HD1>C. Information Required in the Model Privacy Form
</HD1>
<P>The information in the model form may be modified only as described below:
</P>
<HD2>1. Name of the Institution or Group of Affiliated Institutions Providing the Notice
</HD2>
<P>Insert the name of the financial institution providing the notice or a common identity of affiliated institutions jointly providing the notice on the form wherever [name of financial institution] appears.
</P>
<HD2>2. Page One
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>Last revised date.</I> The financial institution must insert in the upper right-hand corner the date on which the notice was last revised. The information shall appear in minimum 8-point font as “rev. [month/year]” using either the name or number of the month, such as “rev. July 2009” or “rev. 7/09”.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General instructions for the “What?” box.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The bulleted list identifies the types of personal information that the institution collects and shares. All institutions must use the term “Social Security number” in the first bullet.
</P>
<P>(2) Institutions must use five (5) of the following terms to complete the bulleted list: Income; account balances; payment history; transaction history; transaction or loss history; credit history; credit scores; assets; investment experience; credit-based insurance scores; insurance claim history; medical information; overdraft history; purchase history; account transactions; risk tolerance; medical-related debts; credit card or other debt; mortgage rates and payments; retirement assets; checking account information; employment information; wire transfer instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General instructions for the disclosure table.</I> The left column lists reasons for sharing or using personal information. Each reason correlates to a specific legal provision described in paragraph C.2(d) of this Instruction. In the middle column, each institution must provide a “Yes” or “No” response that accurately reflects its information sharing policies and practices with respect to the reason listed on the left. In the right column, each institution must provide in each box one of the following three (3) responses, as applicable, that reflects whether a consumer can limit such sharing: “Yes” if it is required to or voluntarily provides an opt-out; “No” if it does not provide an opt-out; or “We don't share” if it answers “No” in the middle column. Only the sixth row (“For our affiliates to market to you”) may be omitted at the option of the institution. <I>See</I> paragraph C.2(d)(6) of this Instruction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Specific disclosures and corresponding legal provisions.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>For our everyday business purposes.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information under §§ 1016.14 and 1016.15 and with service providers pursuant to § 1016.13 of this part other than the purposes specified in paragraphs C.2(d)(2) or C.2(d)(3) of these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For our marketing purposes.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information with service providers by an institution for its own marketing pursuant to § 1016.13 of this part. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>For joint marketing with other financial companies.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information under joint marketing agreements between two or more financial institutions and with any service provider used in connection with such agreements pursuant to § 1016.13 of this part. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>For our affiliates' everyday business purposes—information about transactions and experiences.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information specified in sections 603(d)(2)(A)(i) and (ii) of the FCRA. An institution that shares for this reason may choose to provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>For our affiliates' everyday business purposes—information about creditworthiness.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information pursuant to section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA. An institution that shares for this reason must provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>For our affiliates to market to you.</I> This reason incorporates sharing information specified in section 624 of the FCRA. This reason may be omitted from the disclosure table when: the institution does not have affiliates (or does not disclose personal information to its affiliates); the institution's affiliates do not use personal information in a manner that requires an opt-out; or the institution provides the affiliate marketing notice separately. Institutions that include this reason must provide an opt-out of indefinite duration. An institution that is required to provide an affiliate marketing opt-out, but does not include that opt-out in the model form under this part, must comply with section 624 of the FCRA and 12 CFR part 1022, subpart C, with respect to the initial notice and opt-out and any subsequent renewal notice and opt-out. An institution not required to provide an opt-out under this subparagraph may elect to include this reason in the model form.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>For nonaffiliates to market to you.</I> This reason incorporates sharing described in §§ 1016.7 and 1016.10(a) of this part. An institution that shares personal information for this reason must provide an opt-out.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>To limit our sharing:</I> A financial institution must include this section of the model form <I>only</I> if it provides an opt-out. The word “choice” may be written in either the singular or plural, as appropriate. Institutions must select one or more of the applicable opt-out methods described: Telephone, such as by a toll-free number; a Web site; or use of a mail-in opt-out form. Institutions may include the words “toll-free” before telephone, as appropriate. An institution that allows consumers to opt out online must provide either a specific Web address that takes consumers directly to the opt-out page or a general Web address that provides a clear and conspicuous direct link to the opt-out page. The opt-out choices made available to the consumer who contacts the institution through these methods must correspond accurately to the “Yes” responses in the third column of the disclosure table. In the part titled “Please note,” institutions may insert a number that is 30 or greater in the space marked “[30].” Instructions on voluntary or state privacy law opt-out information are in paragraph C.2(g)(5) of these Instructions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Questions box.</I> Customer service contact information must be inserted as appropriate, where [phone number] or [Web site] appear. Institutions may elect to provide either a phone number, such as a toll-free number, or a web address, or both. Institutions may include the words “toll-free” before the telephone number, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mail-in opt-out form.</I> Financial institutions must include this mail-in form <I>only</I> if they state in the “To limit our sharing” box that consumers can opt out by mail. The mail-in form must provide opt-out options that correspond accurately to the “Yes” responses in the third column in the disclosure table. Institutions that require customers to provide only name and address may omit the section identified as “[account #].” Institutions that require additional or different information, such as a random opt-out number or a truncated account number, to implement an opt-out election should modify the “[account #]” reference accordingly. This includes institutions that require customers with multiple accounts to identify each account to which the opt-out should apply. An institution must enter its opt-out mailing address: in the far right of this form (<I>see</I> version 3); or below the form (<I>see</I> version 4). The reverse side of the mail-in opt-out form must not include any content of the model form.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Joint accountholder.</I> Only institutions that provide their joint accountholders the choice to opt out for only one accountholder, in accordance with paragraph C.3(a)(5) of these Instructions, must include in the far left column of the mail-in form the following statement: “If you have a joint account, your choice(s) will apply to everyone on your account unless you mark below. Apply my choice(s) only to me.” The word “choice” may be written in either the singular or plural, as appropriate. Financial institutions that provide insurance products or services, provide this option, and elect to use the model form may substitute the word “policy” for “account” in this statement. Institutions that do not provide this option may eliminate this left column from the mail-in form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>FCRA section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) opt-out.</I> If the institution shares personal information pursuant to section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the FCRA, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “ Do not share information about my creditworthiness with your affiliates for their everyday business purposes.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FCRA section 624 opt-out.</I> If the institution incorporates section 624 of the FCRA in accord with paragraph C.2(d)(6) of these Instructions, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “ Do not allow your affiliates to use my personal information to market to me.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonaffiliate opt-out.</I> If the financial institution shares personal information pursuant to § 1016.10(a) of this part, it must include in the mail-in opt-out form the following statement: “ Do not share my personal information with nonaffiliates to market their products and services to me.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional opt-outs.</I> Financial institutions that use the disclosure table to provide opt-out options beyond those required by Federal law must provide those opt-outs in this section of the model form. A financial institution that chooses to offer an opt-out for its own marketing in the mail-in opt-out form must include one of the two following statements: “ Do not share my personal information to market to me.” <I>or</I> “ Do not use my personal information to market to me.” A financial institution that chooses to offer an opt-out for joint marketing must include the following statement: “ Do not share my personal information with other financial institutions to jointly market to me.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Barcodes.</I> A financial institution may elect to include a barcode and/or “tagline” (an internal identifier) in 6-point font at the bottom of page one, as needed for information internal to the institution, so long as these do not interfere with the clarity or text of the form.
</P>
<HD2>3. Page Two
</HD2>
<P>(a) <I>General Instructions for the Questions.</I> Certain of the Questions may be customized as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>“Who is providing this notice?”</I> This question may be omitted where only one financial institution provides the model form and that institution is clearly identified in the title on page one. Two or more financial institutions that jointly provide the model form must use this question to identify themselves as required by § 1016.9(f) of this part. Where the list of institutions exceeds four (4) lines, the institution must describe in the response to this question the general types of institutions jointly providing the notice and must separately identify those institutions, in minimum 8-point font, directly following the “Other important information” box, or, if that box is not included in the institution's form, directly following the “Definitions.” The list may appear in a multi-column format.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>“How does [name of financial institution] protect my personal information?”</I> The financial institution may only provide additional information pertaining to its safeguards practices following the designated response to this question. Such information may include information about the institution's use of cookies or other measures it uses to safeguard personal information. Institutions are limited to a maximum of 30 additional words.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>“How does [name of financial institution] collect my personal information?”</I> Institutions must use five (5) of the following terms to complete the bulleted list for this question: Open an account; deposit money; pay your bills; apply for a loan; use your credit or debit card; seek financial or tax advice; apply for insurance; pay insurance premiums; file an insurance claim; seek advice about your investments; buy securities from us; sell securities to us; direct us to buy securities; direct us to sell your securities; make deposits or withdrawals from your account; enter into an investment advisory contract; give us your income information; provide employment information; give us your employment history; tell us about your investment or retirement portfolio; tell us about your investment or retirement earnings; apply for financing; apply for a lease; provide account information; give us your contact information; pay us by check; give us your wage statements; provide your mortgage information; make a wire transfer; tell us who receives the money; tell us where to send the money; show your government-issued ID; show your driver's license; order a commodity futures or option trade. Institutions that collect personal information from their affiliates and/or credit bureaus must include after the bulleted list the following statement: “We also collect your personal information from others, such as credit bureaus, affiliates, or other companies.” Institutions that do not collect personal information from their affiliates or credit bureaus but do collect information from other companies must include the following statement instead: “We also collect your personal information from other companies.” Only institutions that do not collect any personal information from affiliates, credit bureaus, or other companies can omit both statements.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>“Why can't I limit all sharing?”</I> Institutions that describe state privacy law provisions in the <I>“Other important information”</I> box must use the bracketed sentence: “See below for more on your rights under state law.” Other institutions must omit this sentence.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>“What happens when I limit sharing for an account I hold jointly with someone else?”</I> Only financial institutions that provide opt-out options must use this question. Other institutions must omit this question. Institutions must choose one of the following two statements to respond to this question: “Your choices will apply to everyone on your account.” or “Your choices will apply to everyone on your account—unless you tell us otherwise.” Financial institutions that provide insurance products or services and elect to use the model form may substitute the word “policy” for “account” in these statements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General Instructions for the Definitions.</I> The financial institution must customize the space below the responses to the three definitions in this section. This specific information must be in italicized lettering to set off the information from the standardized definitions.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Affiliates.</I> As required by § 1016.6(a)(3) of this part, where [<I>affiliate information</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it has no affiliates, state: “<I>[name of financial institution] has no affiliates”;</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) If it has affiliates but does not share personal information, state: “<I>[name of financial institution] does not share with our affiliates</I>”; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If it shares with its affiliates, state, as applicable: “<I>Our affiliates include companies with a [common corporate identity of financial institution] name; financial companies such as [insert illustrative list of companies]; nonfinancial companies, such as [insert illustrative list of companies]; and others, such as [insert illustrative list].</I>”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Nonaffiliates.</I> As required by § 1016.6(c)(3) of this part, where [<I>nonaffiliate information</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it does not share with nonaffiliated third parties, state: “<I>[name of financial institution] does not share with nonaffiliates so they can market to you</I>”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If it shares with nonaffiliated third parties, state, as applicable: “<I>Nonaffiliates we share with can include [list categories of companies such as mortgage companies, insurance companies, direct marketing companies, and nonprofit organizations].</I>”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Joint Marketing.</I> As required by § 1016.13 of this part, where [<I>joint marketing</I>] appears, the financial institution must:
</P>
<P>(i) If it does not engage in joint marketing, state: “<I>[name of financial institution] doesn't jointly market</I>”; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If it shares personal information for joint marketing, state, as applicable: “<I>Our joint marketing partners include [list categories of companies such as credit card companies].</I>”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>General instructions for the “Other important information box.”</I> This box is optional. The space provided for information in this box is not limited. Only the following types of information can appear in this box.
</P>
<P>(1) State and/or international privacy law information; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) Acknowledgment of receipt form.


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1022" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1022—FAIR CREDIT REPORTING (REGULATION V)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1681a, 1681b, 1681c, 1681c-1, 1681c-3, 1681e, 1681g, 1681i, 1681j, 1681m, 1681s, 1681s-2, 1681s-3, and 1681t; Sec. 214, Pub. L. 108-159, 117 Stat. 1952.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79312, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.1   Purpose, scope, and model forms and disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to implement the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA). This part generally applies to persons that obtain and use information about consumers to determine the consumer's eligibility for products, services, or employment, share such information among affiliates, and furnish information to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institutions covered.</I> (i) Except as otherwise provided in this part, this part applies to any person subject to the FCRA except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of appendix B to this part, financial institutions as defined in section 509 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (12 U.S.C. 6809), may use the model notices in appendix B to this part to comply with the notice requirement in section 623(a)(7) of the FCRA (15 U.S.C. 1681s-2(a)(7)).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Model forms and disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Use.</I> Appendices D, H, I, K, L, M, and N contain model forms and disclosures. These appendices carry out the directive in FCRA that the Bureau prescribe such model forms and disclosures. Use or distribution of these model forms and disclosures, or substantially similar forms and disclosures, will constitute compliance with any section or subsection of the FCRA requiring that such forms and disclosures be used by or supplied to any person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition. Substantially similar</I> means that all information in the Bureau's prescribed model is included in the document that is distributed, and that the document distributed is formatted in a way consistent with the format prescribed by the Bureau. The document that is distributed shall not include anything that interferes with, detracts from, or otherwise undermines the information contained in the Bureau's prescribed model. Until January 1, 2013, the model forms in appendices B, E, F, G, and H to 16 CFR part 698, as those appendices existed as of October 1, 2011, are deemed substantially similar to the corresponding model forms in appendices H, I, K, M, and N to this part, and the model forms in appendix H to 12 CFR part 222, as that appendix existed as of October 1, 2011, are deemed substantially similar to the corresponding model forms in appendix H to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.2   Examples.</HEAD>
<P>The examples in this part are not exclusive. Compliance with an example, to the extent applicable, constitutes compliance with this part. Examples in a paragraph illustrate only the issue described in the paragraph and do not illustrate any other issue that may arise in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated otherwise:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the FCRA (15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that is related by common ownership or common corporate control with another company. For example, an affiliate of a Federal credit union is a credit union service corporation, as provided in 12 CFR part 712, that is controlled by the Federal credit union.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Common ownership or common corporate control</I> means a relationship between two companies under which:
</P>
<P>(1) One company has, with respect to the other company:
</P>
<P>(i) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of a company, directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(ii) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of a company; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of a company, as determined by the applicable prudential regulator (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(24)) (a credit union is presumed to have a controlling influence over the management or policies of a credit union service corporation if the credit union service corporation is 67% owned by credit unions) or, where there is no prudential regulator, by the Bureau; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other person has, with respect to both companies, a relationship described in paragraphs (d)(1)(i) through (d)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Company</I> means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer</I> means an individual.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Identifying information</I> means any name or number that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific person, including any:
</P>
<P>(1) Name, social security number, date of birth, official state or government issued driver's license or identification number, alien registration number, government passport number, employer or taxpayer identification number;
</P>
<P>(2) Unique biometric data, such as fingerprint, voice print, retina or iris image, or other unique physical representation;
</P>
<P>(3) Unique electronic identification number, address, or routing code; or
</P>
<P>(4) Telecommunication identifying information or access device (as defined in 18 U.S.C. 1029(e)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Identity theft</I> means a fraud committed or attempted using the identifying information of another person without authority.
</P>
<P>(i)(1) <I>Identity theft report</I> means a report:
</P>
<P>(i) That alleges identity theft with as much specificity as the consumer can provide;
</P>
<P>(ii) That is a copy of an official, valid report filed by the consumer with a Federal, state, or local law enforcement agency, including the United States Postal Inspection Service, the filing of which subjects the person filing the report to criminal penalties relating to the filing of false information, if, in fact, the information in the report is false; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That may include additional information or documentation that an information furnisher or consumer reporting agency reasonably requests for the purpose of determining the validity of the alleged identity theft, provided that the information furnisher or consumer reporting agency:
</P>
<P>(A) Makes such request not later than fifteen days after the date of receipt of the copy of the report form identified in Paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section or the request by the consumer for the particular service, whichever shall be the later;
</P>
<P>(B) Makes any supplemental requests for information or documentation and final determination on the acceptance of the identity theft report within another fifteen days after its initial request for information or documentation; and
</P>
<P>(C) Shall have five days to make a final determination on the acceptance of the identity theft report, in the event that the consumer reporting agency or information furnisher receives any such additional information or documentation on the eleventh day or later within the fifteen day period set forth in Paragraph (i)(1)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Examples of the specificity referenced in Paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section are provided for illustrative purposes only, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Specific dates relating to the identity theft such as when the loss or theft of personal information occurred or when the fraud(s) using the personal information occurred, and how the consumer discovered or otherwise learned of the theft.
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification information or any other information about the perpetrator, if known.
</P>
<P>(iii) Name(s) of information furnisher(s), account numbers, or other relevant account information related to the identity theft.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other information known to the consumer about the identity theft.
</P>
<P>(3) Examples of when it would or would not be reasonable to request additional information or documentation referenced in Paragraph (i)(1)(iii) of this section are provided for illustrative purposes only, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A law enforcement report containing detailed information about the identity theft and the signature, badge number or other identification information of the individual law enforcement official taking the report should be sufficient on its face to support a victim's request. In this case, without an identifiable concern, such as an indication that the report was fraudulent, it would not be reasonable for an information furnisher or consumer reporting agency to request additional information or documentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer might provide a law enforcement report similar to the report in Paragraph (i)(1) of this section but certain important information such as the consumer's date of birth or Social Security number may be missing because the consumer chose not to provide it. The information furnisher or consumer reporting agency could accept this report, but it would be reasonable to require that the consumer provide the missing information. The Bureau's Identity Theft Affidavit is available on the Bureau's Web site (<I>consumerfinance.gov/learnmore</I>). The version of this form developed by the Federal Trade Commission, available on the FTC's Web site (<I>ftc.gov/idtheft</I>), remains valid and sufficient for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer might provide a law enforcement report generated by an automated system with a simple allegation that an identity theft occurred to support a request for a tradeline block or cessation of information furnishing. In such a case, it would be reasonable for an information furnisher or consumer reporting agency to ask that the consumer fill out and have notarized the Bureau's Identity Theft Affidavit or a similar form and provide some form of identification documentation.
</P>
<P>(iv) A consumer might provide a law enforcement report generated by an automated system with a simple allegation that an identity theft occurred to support a request for an extended fraud alert. In this case, it would not be reasonable for a consumer reporting agency to require additional documentation or information, such as a notarized affidavit.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Medical debt information</I> means medical information that pertains to a debt owed by a consumer to a person whose primary business is providing medical services, products, or devices, or to such person's agent or assignee, for the provision of such medical services, products, or devices. Medical debt information includes but is not limited to medical bills that are not past due or that have been paid.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Medical information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Information or data, whether oral or recorded, in any form or medium, created by or derived from a health care provider or the consumer, that relates to:
</P>
<P>(i) The past, present, or future physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of an individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) The provision of health care to an individual; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The payment for the provision of health care to an individual.
</P>
<P>(2) The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The age or gender of a consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demographic information about the consumer, including a consumer's residence address or email address;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information about a consumer that does not relate to the physical, mental, or behavioral health or condition of a consumer, including the existence or value of any insurance policy; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Information that does not identify a specific consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, trust, estate cooperative, association, government or governmental subdivision or agency, or other entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79312, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 90 FR 3372, Jan.14, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Affiliate Marketing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.20   Coverage and definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> Subpart C of this part applies to any person that uses information from its affiliates for the purpose of marketing solicitations, or provides information to its affiliates for that purpose, other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> The term “clear and conspicuous” means reasonably understandable and designed to call attention to the nature and significance of the information presented.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Concise</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “concise” means a reasonably brief expression or statement.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Combination with other required disclosures.</I> A notice required by this subpart may be concise even if it is combined with other disclosures required or authorized by Federal or state law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Eligibility information.</I> The term “eligibility information” means any information the communication of which would be a consumer report if the exclusions from the definition of “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2)(A) of the Act did not apply. Eligibility information does not include aggregate or blind data that does not contain personal identifiers such as account numbers, names, or addresses.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Pre-existing business relationship</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “pre-existing business relationship” means a relationship between a person, or a person's licensed agent, and a consumer based on:
</P>
<P>(A) A financial contract between the person and the consumer which is in force on the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart;
</P>
<P>(B) The purchase, rental, or lease by the consumer of the person's goods or services, or a financial transaction (including holding an active account or a policy in force or having another continuing relationship) between the consumer and the person, during the 18-month period immediately preceding the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart; or
</P>
<P>(C) An inquiry or application by the consumer regarding a product or service offered by that person during the three-month period immediately preceding the date on which the consumer is sent a solicitation covered by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of pre-existing business relationships.</I> (A) If a consumer has a time deposit account, such as a certificate of deposit, at a financial institution that is currently in force, the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services.
</P>
<P>(B) If a consumer obtained a certificate of deposit from a financial institution, but did not renew the certificate at maturity, the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for 18 months after the date of maturity of the certificate of deposit.
</P>
<P>(C) If a consumer obtains a mortgage, the mortgage lender has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. If the mortgage lender sells the consumer's entire loan to an investor, the mortgage lender has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for 18 months after the date it sells the loan, and the investor has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer upon purchasing the loan. If, however, the mortgage lender sells a fractional interest in the consumer's loan to an investor but also retains an ownership interest in the loan, the mortgage lender continues to have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer, but the investor does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. If the mortgage lender retains ownership of the loan, but sells ownership of the servicing rights to the consumer's loan, the mortgage lender continues to have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer. The purchaser of the servicing rights also has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer as of the date it purchases ownership of the servicing rights, but only if it collects payments from or otherwise deals directly with the consumer on a continuing basis.
</P>
<P>(D) If a consumer applies to a financial institution for a product or service that it offers, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the application.
</P>
<P>(E) If a consumer makes a telephone inquiry to a financial institution about its products or services and provides contact information to the institution, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(F) If a consumer makes an inquiry to a financial institution by email about its products or services, but does not obtain a product or service from or enter into a financial contract or transaction with the institution, the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(G) If a consumer has an existing relationship with a financial institution that is part of a group of affiliated companies, makes a telephone call to the centralized call center for the group of affiliated companies to inquire about products or services offered by the insurance affiliate, and provides contact information to the call center, the call constitutes an inquiry to the insurance affiliate that offers those products or services. The insurance affiliate has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and can therefore use eligibility information it receives from its affiliated financial institution to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services for three months after the date of the inquiry.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples where no pre-existing business relationship is created.</I> (A) If a consumer makes a telephone call to a centralized call center for a group of affiliated companies to inquire about the consumer's existing account at a financial institution, the call does not constitute an inquiry to any affiliate other than the financial institution that holds the consumer's account and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and any affiliate of the account-holding financial institution.
</P>
<P>(B) If a consumer who has a deposit account with a financial institution makes a telephone call to an affiliate of the institution to ask about the affiliate's retail locations and hours, but does not make an inquiry about the affiliate's products or services, the call does not constitute an inquiry and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the affiliate. Also, the affiliate's capture of the consumer's telephone number does not constitute an inquiry and does not establish a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the affiliate.
</P>
<P>(C) If a consumer makes a telephone call to a financial institution in response to an advertisement that offers a free promotional item to consumers who call a toll-free number, but the advertisement does not indicate that the financial institution's products or services will be marketed to consumers who call in response, the call does not create a pre-existing business relationship between the consumer and the financial institution because the consumer has not made an inquiry about a product or service offered by the institution, but has merely responded to an offer for a free promotional item.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Solicitation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The term “solicitation” means the marketing of a product or service initiated by a person to a particular consumer that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Based on eligibility information communicated to that person by its affiliate as described in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(B) Intended to encourage the consumer to purchase or obtain such product or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusion of marketing directed at the general public.</I> A solicitation does not include marketing communications that are directed at the general public. For example, television, general circulation magazine, and billboard advertisements do not constitute solicitations, even if those communications are intended to encourage consumers to purchase products and services from the person initiating the communications.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Examples of solicitations.</I> A solicitation would include, for example, a telemarketing call, direct mail, email, or other form of marketing communication directed to a particular consumer that is based on eligibility information received from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>You</I> means a person described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.21" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.21   Affiliate marketing opt-out and exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial notice and opt-out requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> You may not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation for marketing purposes to the consumer, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) It is clearly and conspicuously disclosed to the consumer in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically, in a concise notice that you may use eligibility information about that consumer received from an affiliate to make solicitations for marketing purposes to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer is provided a reasonable opportunity and a reasonable and simple method to “opt out,” or prohibit you from using eligibility information to make solicitations for marketing purposes to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer has not opted out.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A consumer has a homeowner's insurance policy with an insurance company. The insurance company furnishes eligibility information about the consumer to its affiliated creditor. Based on that eligibility information, the creditor wants to make a solicitation to the consumer about its home equity loan products. The creditor does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and none of the other exceptions apply. The creditor is prohibited from using eligibility information received from its insurance affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its home equity loan products unless the consumer is given a notice and opportunity to opt out and the consumer does not opt out.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates who may provide the notice.</I> The notice required by this paragraph must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) By an affiliate that has or has previously had a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of a joint notice from two or more members of an affiliated group of companies, provided that at least one of the affiliates on the joint notice has or has previously had a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Making solicitations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this subpart, you make a solicitation for marketing purposes if:
</P>
<P>(i) You receive eligibility information from an affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) You use that eligibility information to do one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Identify the consumer or type of consumer to receive a solicitation;
</P>
<P>(B) Establish criteria used to select the consumer to receive a solicitation; or
</P>
<P>(C) Decide which of your products or services to market to the consumer or tailor your solicitation to that consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) As a result of your use of the eligibility information, the consumer is provided a solicitation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Receiving eligibility information from an affiliate, including through a common database.</I> You may receive eligibility information from an affiliate in various ways, including when the affiliate places that information into a common database that you may access.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Receipt or use of eligibility information by your service provider.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, you receive or use an affiliate's eligibility information if a service provider acting on your behalf (whether an affiliate or a nonaffiliated third party) receives or uses that information in the manner described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section. All relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether a person is acting as your service provider when it receives or uses an affiliate's eligibility information in connection with marketing your products and services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use by an affiliate of its own eligibility information.</I> Unless you have used eligibility information that you receive from an affiliate in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, you do not make a solicitation subject to this subpart if your affiliate:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses its own eligibility information that it obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer to market your products or services to the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Directs its service provider to use the affiliate's own eligibility information that it obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer to market your products or services to the consumer, and you do not communicate directly with the service provider regarding that use.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Use of eligibility information by a service provider</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> You do not make a solicitation subject to subpart C of this part if a service provider (including an affiliated or third-party service provider that maintains or accesses a common database that you may access) receives eligibility information from your affiliate that your affiliate obtained in connection with a pre-existing business relationship it has or had with the consumer and uses that eligibility information to market your products or services to the consumer, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) Your affiliate controls access to and use of its eligibility information by the service provider (including the right to establish the specific terms and conditions under which the service provider may use such information to market your products or services);
</P>
<P>(B) Your affiliate establishes specific terms and conditions under which the service provider may access and use the affiliate's eligibility information to market your products and services (or those of affiliates generally) to the consumer, such as the identity of the affiliated companies whose products or services may be marketed to the consumer by the service provider, the types of products or services of affiliated companies that may be marketed, and the number of times the consumer may receive marketing materials, and periodically evaluates the service provider's compliance with those terms and conditions;
</P>
<P>(C) Your affiliate requires the service provider to implement reasonable policies and procedures designed to ensure that the service provider uses the affiliate's eligibility information in accordance with the terms and conditions established by the affiliate relating to the marketing of your products or services;
</P>
<P>(D) Your affiliate is identified on or with the marketing materials provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(E) You do not directly use your affiliate's eligibility information in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Writing requirements.</I> (A) The requirements of paragraphs (b)(5)(i)(A) and (C) of this section must be set forth in a written agreement between your affiliate and the service provider; and
</P>
<P>(B) The specific terms and conditions established by your affiliate as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(B) of this section must be set forth in writing.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Examples of making solicitations.</I> (i) A consumer has a deposit account with a financial institution, which is affiliated with an insurance company. The insurance company receives eligibility information about the consumer from the financial institution. The insurance company uses that eligibility information to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about insurance products, and, as a result, the insurance company provides a solicitation to the consumer about its insurance products. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insurance company has made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, except that after using the eligibility information to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about insurance products, the insurance company asks the financial institution to send the solicitation to the consumer and the financial institution does so. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the insurance company has made a solicitation to the consumer because it used eligibility information about the consumer that it received from an affiliate to identify the consumer to receive a solicitation about its products or services, and, as a result, a solicitation was provided to the consumer about the insurance company's products.
</P>
<P>(iii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, except that eligibility information about consumers that have deposit accounts with the financial institution is placed into a common database that all members of the affiliated group of companies may independently access and use. Without using the financial institution's eligibility information, the insurance company develops selection criteria and provides those criteria, marketing materials, and related instructions to the financial institution. The financial institution reviews eligibility information about its own consumers using the selection criteria provided by the insurance company to determine which consumers should receive the insurance company's marketing materials and sends marketing materials about the insurance company's products to those consumers. Even though the insurance company has received eligibility information through the common database as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, it did not use that information to identify consumers or establish selection criteria; instead, the financial institution used its own eligibility information. Therefore, pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section, the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iv) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section, except that the financial institution provides the insurance company's criteria to the financial institution's service provider and directs the service provider to use the financial institution's eligibility information to identify financial institution consumers who meet the criteria and to send the insurance company's marketing materials to those consumers. The insurance company does not communicate directly with the service provider regarding the use of the financial institution's information to market its products to the financial institution's consumers. Pursuant to paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliated group of companies includes a financial institution, an insurance company, and a service provider. Each affiliate in the group places information about its consumers into a common database. The service provider has access to all information in the common database. The financial institution controls access to and use of its eligibility information by the service provider. This control is set forth in a written agreement between the financial institution and the service provider. The written agreement also requires the service provider to establish reasonable policies and procedures designed to ensure that the service provider uses the financial institution's eligibility information in accordance with specific terms and conditions established by the financial institution relating to the marketing of the products and services of all affiliates, including the insurance company. In a separate written communication, the financial institution specifies the terms and conditions under which the service provider may use the financial institution's eligibility information to market the insurance company's products and services to the financial institution's consumers. The specific terms and conditions are: a list of affiliated companies (including the insurance company) whose products or services may be marketed to the financial institution's consumers by the service provider; the specific products or types of products that may be marketed to the financial institution's consumers by the service provider; the categories of eligibility information that may be used by the service provider in marketing products or services to the financial institution's consumers; the types or categories of the financial institution's consumers to whom the service provider may market products or services of financial institution affiliates; the number and/or types of marketing communications that the service provider may send to the financial institution's consumers; and the length of time during which the service provider may market the products or services of the financial institution's affiliates to its consumers. The financial institution periodically evaluates the service provider's compliance with these terms and conditions. The insurance company asks the service provider to market insurance products to certain consumers who have deposit accounts with the financial institution. Without using the financial institution's eligibility information, the insurance company develops selection criteria and provides those criteria, marketing materials, and related instructions to the service provider. The service provider uses the financial institution's eligibility information from the common database to identify the financial institution's consumers to whom insurance products will be marketed. When the insurance company's marketing materials are provided to the identified consumers, the name of the financial institution is displayed on the insurance marketing materials, an introductory letter that accompanies the marketing materials, an account statement that accompanies the marketing materials, or the envelope containing the marketing materials. The requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section have been satisfied, and the insurance company has not made a solicitation to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(vi) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (b)(6)(v) of this section, except that the terms and conditions permit the service provider to use the financial institution's eligibility information to market the products and services of other affiliates to the financial institution's consumers whenever the service provider deems it appropriate to do so. The service provider uses the financial institution's eligibility information in accordance with the discretion afforded to it by the terms and conditions. Because the terms and conditions are not specific, the requirements of paragraph (b)(5) of this section have not been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> The provisions of this subpart do not apply to you if you use eligibility information that you receive from an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) To make a solicitation for marketing purposes to a consumer with whom you have a pre-existing business relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) To facilitate communications to an individual for whose benefit you provide employee benefit or other services pursuant to a contract with an employer related to and arising out of the current employment relationship or status of the individual as a participant or beneficiary of an employee benefit plan;
</P>
<P>(3) To perform services on behalf of an affiliate, except that this subparagraph shall not be construed as permitting you to send solicitations on behalf of an affiliate if the affiliate would not be permitted to send the solicitation as a result of the election of the consumer to opt out under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) In response to a communication about your products or services initiated by the consumer;
</P>
<P>(5) In response to an authorization or request by the consumer to receive solicitations; or
</P>
<P>(6) If your compliance with this subpart would prevent you from complying with any provision of state insurance laws pertaining to unfair discrimination in any state in which you are lawfully doing business.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Examples of exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Example of the pre-existing business relationship exception.</I> A consumer has a deposit account with a financial institution. The consumer also has a relationship with the financial institution's securities affiliate for management of the consumer's securities portfolio. The financial institution receives eligibility information about the consumer from its securities affiliate and uses that information to make a solicitation to the consumer about the financial institution's wealth management services. The financial institution may make this solicitation even if the consumer has not been given a notice and opportunity to opt out because the financial institution has a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of service provider exception.</I> (i) A consumer has an insurance policy issued by an insurance company. The insurance company furnishes eligibility information about the consumer to its affiliated financial institution. Based on that eligibility information, the financial institution wants to make a solicitation to the consumer about its deposit products. The financial institution does not have a pre-existing business relationship with the consumer and none of the other exceptions in paragraph (c) of this section apply. The consumer has been given an opt-out notice and has elected to opt out of receiving such solicitations. The financial institution asks a service provider to send the solicitation to the consumer on its behalf. The service provider may not send the solicitation on behalf of the financial institution because, as a result of the consumer's opt-out election, the financial institution is not permitted to make the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, except the consumer has been given an opt-out notice, but has not elected to opt out. The financial institution asks a service provider to send the solicitation to the consumer on its behalf. The service provider may send the solicitation on behalf of the financial institution because, as a result of the consumer's not opting out, the financial institution is permitted to make the solicitation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of consumer-initiated communications.</I> (i) A consumer who has a deposit account with a financial institution initiates a communication with the financial institution's credit card affiliate to request information about a credit card. The credit card affiliate may use eligibility information about the consumer it obtains from the financial institution or any other affiliate to make solicitations regarding credit card products in response to the consumer-initiated communication.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer who has a deposit account with a financial institution contacts the institution to request information about how to save and invest for a child's college education without specifying the type of product in which the consumer may be interested. Information about a range of different products or services offered by the financial institution and one or more affiliates of the institution may be responsive to that communication. Such products or services may include the following: mutual funds offered by the institution's mutual fund affiliate; section 529 plans offered by the institution, its mutual fund affiliate, or another securities affiliate; or trust services offered by a different financial institution in the affiliated group. Any affiliate offering investment products or services that would be responsive to the consumer's request for information about saving and investing for a child's college education may use eligibility information to make solicitations to the consumer in response to this communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit card issuer makes a marketing call to the consumer without using eligibility information received from an affiliate. The issuer leaves a voice-mail message that invites the consumer to call a toll-free number to apply for the issuer's credit card. If the consumer calls the toll-free number to inquire about the credit card, the call is a consumer-initiated communication about a product or service and the credit card issuer may now use eligibility information it receives from its affiliates to make solicitations to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A consumer calls a financial institution to ask about retail locations and hours, but does not request information about products or services. The institution may not use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about its products or services because the consumer-initiated communication does not relate to the financial institution's products or services. Thus, the use of eligibility information received from an affiliate would not be responsive to the communication and the exception does not apply.
</P>
<P>(v) A consumer calls a financial institution to ask about retail locations and hours. The customer service representative asks the consumer if there is a particular product or service about which the consumer is seeking information. The consumer responds that the consumer wants to stop in and find out about certificates of deposit. The customer service representative offers to provide that information by telephone and mail additional information and application materials to the consumer. The consumer agrees and provides or confirms contact information for receipt of the materials to be mailed. The financial institution may use eligibility information it receives from an affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about certificates of deposit because such solicitations would respond to the consumer-initiated communication about products or services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of consumer authorization or request for solicitations.</I> (i) A consumer who obtains a mortgage from a mortgage lender authorizes or requests information about homeowner's insurance offered by the mortgage lender's insurance affiliate. Such authorization or request, whether given to the mortgage lender or to the insurance affiliate, would permit the insurance affiliate to use eligibility information about the consumer it obtains from the mortgage lender or any other affiliate to make solicitations to the consumer about homeowner's insurance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A consumer completes an online application to apply for a credit card from a credit card issuer. The issuer's online application contains a blank check box that the consumer may check to authorize or request information from the credit card issuer's affiliates. The consumer checks the box. The consumer has authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer completes an online application to apply for a credit card from a credit card issuer. The issuer's online application contains a pre-selected check box indicating that the consumer authorizes or requests information from the issuer's affiliates. The consumer does not deselect the check box. The consumer has not authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms and conditions of a credit card account agreement contain preprinted boilerplate language stating that by applying to open an account the consumer authorizes or requests to receive solicitations from the credit card issuer's affiliates. The consumer has not authorized or requested solicitations from the card issuer's affiliates.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relation to affiliate-sharing notice and opt-out.</I> Nothing in this subpart limits the responsibility of a person to comply with the notice and opt-out provisions of section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Act where applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.22" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.22   Scope and duration of opt-out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope of opt-out</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, the consumer's election to opt out prohibits any affiliate covered by the opt-out notice from using eligibility information received from another affiliate as described in the notice to make solicitations to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Continuing relationship.</I> (i) <I>In general.</I> If the consumer establishes a continuing relationship with you or your affiliate, an opt-out notice may apply to eligibility information obtained in connection with:
</P>
<P>(A) A single continuing relationship or multiple continuing relationships that the consumer establishes with you or your affiliates, including continuing relationships established subsequent to delivery of the opt-out notice, so long as the notice adequately describes the continuing relationships covered by the opt-out; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any other transaction between the consumer and you or your affiliates as described in the notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of continuing relationships.</I> A consumer has a continuing relationship with you or your affiliate if the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Opens a deposit or investment account with you or your affiliate;
</P>
<P>(B) Obtains a loan for which you or your affiliate owns the servicing rights;
</P>
<P>(C) Purchases an insurance product from you or your affiliate;
</P>
<P>(D) Holds an investment product through you or your affiliate, such as when you act or your affiliate acts as a custodian for securities or for assets in an individual retirement arrangement;
</P>
<P>(E) Enters into an agreement or understanding with you or your affiliate whereby you or your affiliate undertakes to arrange or broker a home mortgage loan for the consumer;
</P>
<P>(F) Enters into a lease of personal property with you or your affiliate; or
</P>
<P>(G) Obtains financial, investment, or economic advisory services from you or your affiliate for a fee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No continuing relationship.</I> (i) <I>In general.</I> If there is no continuing relationship between a consumer and you or your affiliate, and you or your affiliate obtain eligibility information about a consumer in connection with a transaction with the consumer, such as an isolated transaction or a credit application that is denied, an opt-out notice provided to the consumer only applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with that transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples of isolated transactions.</I> An isolated transaction occurs if:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer uses your or your affiliate's ATM to withdraw cash from an account at another financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(B) You or your affiliate sells the consumer a cashier's check or money order, airline tickets, travel insurance, or traveler's checks in isolated transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Menu of alternatives.</I> A consumer may be given the opportunity to choose from a menu of alternatives when electing to prohibit solicitations, such as by electing to prohibit solicitations from certain types of affiliates covered by the opt-out notice but not other types of affiliates covered by the notice, electing to prohibit solicitations based on certain types of eligibility information but not other types of eligibility information, or electing to prohibit solicitations by certain methods of delivery but not other methods of delivery. However, one of the alternatives must allow the consumer to prohibit all solicitations from all of the affiliates that are covered by the notice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Special rule for a notice following termination of all continuing relationships</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A consumer must be given a new opt-out notice if, after all continuing relationships with you or your affiliate(s) are terminated, the consumer subsequently establishes another continuing relationship with you or your affiliate(s) and the consumer's eligibility information is to be used to make a solicitation. The new opt-out notice must apply, at a minimum, to eligibility information obtained in connection with the new continuing relationship. Consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, the consumer's decision not to opt out after receiving the new opt-out notice would not override a prior opt-out election by the consumer that applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with a terminated relationship, regardless of whether the new opt-out notice applies to eligibility information obtained in connection with the terminated relationship.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Example.</I> A consumer has a checking account with a financial institution that is part of an affiliated group. The consumer closes the checking account. One year after closing the checking account, the consumer opens a savings account with the same financial institution. The consumer must be given a new notice and opportunity to opt out before the financial institution's affiliates may make solicitations to the consumer using eligibility information obtained by the financial institution in connection with the new savings account relationship, regardless of whether the consumer opted out in connection with the checking account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of opt-out.</I> The election of a consumer to opt out must be effective for a period of at least five years (the “opt-out period”) beginning when the consumer's opt-out election is received and implemented, unless the consumer subsequently revokes the opt-out in writing or, if the consumer agrees, electronically. An opt-out period of more than five years may be established, including an opt-out period that does not expire unless revoked by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time of opt-out.</I> A consumer may opt out at any time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.23" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.23   Contents of opt-out notice; consolidated and equivalent notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of opt-out notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A notice must be clear, conspicuous, and concise, and must accurately disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) The name of the affiliate(s) providing the notice. If the notice is provided jointly by multiple affiliates and each affiliate shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it is being provided by multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates providing the joint notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or by “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies;”
</P>
<P>(ii) A list of the affiliates or types of affiliates whose use of eligibility information is covered by the notice, which may include companies that become affiliates after the notice is provided to the consumer. If each affiliate covered by the notice shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it applies to multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates covered by the notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each covered affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice applies to “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or to “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies;”
</P>
<P>(iii) A general description of the types of eligibility information that may be used to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iv) That the consumer may elect to limit the use of eligibility information to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(v) That the consumer's election will apply for the specified period of time stated in the notice and, if applicable, that the consumer will be allowed to renew the election once that period expires;
</P>
<P>(vi) If the notice is provided to consumers who may have previously opted out, such as if a notice is provided to consumers annually, that the consumer who has chosen to limit solicitations does not need to act again until the consumer receives a renewal notice; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A reasonable and simple method for the consumer to opt out.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Joint relationships.</I> (i) If two or more consumers jointly obtain a product or service, a single opt-out notice may be provided to the joint consumers. Any of the joint consumers may exercise the right to opt out.
</P>
<P>(ii) The opt-out notice must explain how an opt-out direction by a joint consumer will be treated. An opt-out direction by a joint consumer may be treated as applying to all of the associated joint consumers, or each joint consumer may be permitted to opt out separately. If each joint consumer is permitted to opt out separately, one of the joint consumers must be permitted to opt out on behalf of all of the joint consumers and the joint consumers must be permitted to exercise their separate rights to opt out in a single response.
</P>
<P>(iii) It is impermissible to require <I>all</I> joint consumers to opt out before implementing <I>any</I> opt-out direction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative contents.</I> If the consumer is afforded a broader right to opt out of receiving marketing than is required by this subpart, the requirements of this section may be satisfied by providing the consumer with a clear, conspicuous, and concise notice that accurately discloses the consumer's opt-out rights.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Model notices.</I> Model notices are provided in appendix C of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Coordinated and consolidated notices.</I> A notice required by this subpart may be coordinated and consolidated with any other notice or disclosure required to be issued under any other provision of law by the entity providing the notice, including but not limited to the notice described in section 603(d)(2)(A)(iii) of the Act and the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act privacy notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Equivalent notices.</I> A notice or other disclosure that is equivalent to the notice required by this subpart, and that is provided to a consumer together with disclosures required by any other provision of law, satisfies the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.24" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.24   Reasonable opportunity to opt out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation to the consumer about your products or services, unless the consumer is provided a reasonable opportunity to opt out, as required by § 1022.21(a)(1)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of a reasonable opportunity to opt out.</I> The consumer is given a reasonable opportunity to opt out if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>By mail.</I> The opt-out notice is mailed to the consumer. The consumer is given 30 days from the date the notice is mailed to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By electronic means.</I> (i) The opt-out notice is provided electronically to the consumer, such as by posting the notice at a Web site at which the consumer has obtained a product or service. The consumer acknowledges receipt of the electronic notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the date the consumer acknowledges receipt to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(ii) The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer by email where the consumer has agreed to receive disclosures by email from the person sending the notice. The consumer is given 30 days after the email is sent to elect to opt out by any reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>At the time of an electronic transaction.</I> The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer at the time of an electronic transaction, such as a transaction conducted on a Web site. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction. There is a simple process that the consumer may use to opt out at that time using the same mechanism through which the transaction is conducted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>At the time of an in-person transaction.</I> The opt-out notice is provided to the consumer in writing at the time of an in-person transaction. The consumer is required to decide, as a necessary part of proceeding with the transaction, whether to opt out before completing the transaction, and is not permitted to complete the transaction without making a choice. There is a simple process that the consumer may use during the course of the in-person transaction to opt out, such as completing a form that requires consumers to write a “yes” or “no” to indicate their opt-out preference or that requires the consumer to check one of two blank check boxes; one that allows consumers to indicate that they want to opt out and one that allows consumers to indicate that they do not want to opt out.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>By including in a privacy notice.</I> The opt-out notice is included in a Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act privacy notice. The consumer is allowed to exercise the opt-out within a reasonable period of time and in the same manner as the opt-out under that privacy notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.25" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.25   Reasonable and simple methods of opting out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> You must not use eligibility information about a consumer that you receive from an affiliate to make a solicitation to the consumer about your products or services, unless the consumer is provided a reasonable and simple method to opt out, as required by § 1022.21(a)(1)(ii) of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples</I>—(1) <I>Reasonable and simple opt-out methods.</I> Reasonable and simple methods for exercising the opt-out right include:
</P>
<P>(i) Designating a check-off box in a prominent position on the opt-out form;
</P>
<P>(ii) Including a reply form and a self-addressed envelope together with the opt-out notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing an electronic means to opt out, such as a form that can be electronically mailed or processed at a Web site, if the consumer agrees to the electronic delivery of information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Providing a toll-free telephone number that consumers may call to opt out; or
</P>
<P>(v) Allowing consumers to exercise all of their opt-out rights described in a consolidated opt-out notice that includes the privacy opt-out under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> the affiliate sharing opt-out under the Act, and the affiliate marketing opt-out under the Act, by a single method, such as by calling a single toll-free telephone number.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Opt-out methods that are not reasonable and simple.</I> Reasonable and simple methods for exercising an opt-out right <I>do not</I> include—
</P>
<P>(i) Requiring the consumer to write his or her own letter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requiring the consumer to call or write to obtain a form for opting out, rather than including the form with the opt-out notice;
</P>
<P>(iii) Requiring the consumer who receives the opt-out notice in electronic form only, such as through posting at a Web site, to opt out solely by paper mail or by visiting a different Web site without providing a link to that site.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Specific opt-out means.</I> Each consumer may be required to opt out through a specific means, as long as that means is reasonable and simple for that consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.26" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.26   Delivery of opt-out notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The opt-out notice must be provided so that each consumer can reasonably be expected to receive actual notice. For opt-out notices provided electronically, the notice may be provided in compliance with either the electronic disclosure provisions in this subpart or the provisions in section 101 of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> A consumer may reasonably be expected to receive actual notice if the affiliate providing the notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Hand-delivers a printed copy of the notice to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) Mails a printed copy of the notice to the last known mailing address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) Provides a notice by email to a consumer who has agreed to receive electronic disclosures by email from the affiliate providing the notice; or
</P>
<P>(4) Posts the notice on the Web site at which the consumer obtained a product or service electronically and requires the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of no reasonable expectation of actual notice.</I> A consumer may <I>not</I> reasonably be expected to receive actual notice if the affiliate providing the notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Only posts the notice on a sign in a branch or office or generally publishes the notice in a newspaper;
</P>
<P>(2) Sends the notice via email to a consumer who has not agreed to receive electronic disclosures by email from the affiliate providing the notice; or
</P>
<P>(3) Posts the notice on a Web site without requiring the consumer to acknowledge receipt of the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.27" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.27   Renewal of opt-out.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Renewal notice and opt-out requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> After the opt-out period expires, you may not make solicitations based on eligibility information you receive from an affiliate to a consumer who previously opted out, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer has been given a renewal notice that complies with the requirements of this section and §§ 1022.24 through 1022.26 of this part, and a reasonable opportunity and a reasonable and simple method to renew the opt-out, and the consumer does not renew the opt-out; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An exception in § 1022.21(c) of this part applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renewal period.</I> Each opt-out renewal must be effective for a period of at least five years as provided in § 1022.22(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates who may provide the notice.</I> The notice required by this paragraph must be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) By the affiliate that provided the previous opt-out notice, or its successor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As part of a joint renewal notice from two or more members of an affiliated group of companies, or their successors, that jointly provided the previous opt-out notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of renewal notice.</I> The renewal notice must be clear, conspicuous, and concise, and must accurately disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the affiliate(s) providing the notice. If the notice is provided jointly by multiple affiliates and each affiliate shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it is being provided by multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates providing the joint notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or by “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies”;
</P>
<P>(2) A list of the affiliates or types of affiliates whose use of eligibility information is covered by the notice, which may include companies that become affiliates after the notice is provided to the consumer. If each affiliate covered by the notice shares a common name, such as “ABC,” then the notice may indicate that it applies to multiple companies with the ABC name or multiple companies in the ABC group or family of companies, for example, by stating that the notice is provided by “all of the ABC companies,” “the ABC banking, credit card, insurance, and securities companies,” or by listing the name of each affiliate providing the notice. But if the affiliates covered by the notice do not all share a common name, then the notice must either separately identify each covered affiliate by name or identify each of the common names used by those affiliates, for example, by stating that the notice applies to “all of the ABC and XYZ companies” or to “the ABC banking and credit card companies and the XYZ insurance companies;”
</P>
<P>(3) A general description of the types of eligibility information that may be used to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(4) That the consumer previously elected to limit the use of certain information to make solicitations to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(5) That the consumer's election has expired or is about to expire;
</P>
<P>(6) That the consumer may elect to renew the consumer's previous election;
</P>
<P>(7) If applicable, that the consumer's election to renew will apply for the specified period of time stated in the notice and that the consumer will be allowed to renew the election once that period expires; and
</P>
<P>(8) A reasonable and simple method for the consumer to opt out.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of the renewal notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A renewal notice may be provided to the consumer either:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time before the expiration of the opt-out period; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any time after the expiration of the opt-out period but before solicitations that would have been prohibited by the expired opt-out are made to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Combination with annual privacy notice.</I> If you provide an annual privacy notice under the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801 <I>et seq.,</I> providing a renewal notice with the last annual privacy notice provided to the consumer before expiration of the opt-out period is a reasonable period of time before expiration of the opt-out in all cases.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No effect on opt-out period.</I> An opt-out period may not be shortened by sending a renewal notice to the consumer before expiration of the opt-out period, even if the consumer does not renew the opt out.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Medical Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.30   Obtaining or using medical information in connection with a determination of eligibility for credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any person that participates as a creditor in a transaction, except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General prohibition on obtaining or using medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may not obtain or use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in section 702 of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, 15 U.S.C. 1691a.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit</I> means the consumer's qualification or fitness to receive, or continue to receive, credit, including the terms on which credit is offered. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any determination of the consumer's qualification or fitness for employment, insurance (other than a credit insurance product), or other non-credit products or services;
</P>
<P>(B) Authorizing, processing, or documenting a payment or transaction on behalf of the consumer in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit; or
</P>
<P>(C) Maintaining or servicing the consumer's account in a manner that does not involve a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rule of construction for obtaining and using unsolicited medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if it receives medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit without specifically requesting medical information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of unsolicited medical information.</I> A creditor that receives unsolicited medical information in the manner described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section may use that information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit to the extent the creditor can rely on at least one of the exceptions in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> A creditor does not obtain medical information in violation of the prohibition if, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) In response to a general question regarding a consumer's debts or expenses, the creditor receives information that the consumer owes a debt to a hospital.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a conversation with the creditor's loan officer, the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer has a particular medical condition.
</P>
<P>(d) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Specific exceptions for obtaining and using medical information</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A creditor may obtain and use medical information pertaining to a consumer in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit:
</P>
<P>(i) To determine whether the use of a power of attorney or legal representative that is triggered by a medical condition or event is necessary and appropriate or whether the consumer has the legal capacity to contract when a person seeks to exercise a power of attorney or act as legal representative for a consumer based on an asserted medical condition or event;
</P>
<P>(ii) To comply with applicable requirements of local, state, or Federal laws;
</P>
<P>(iii) To determine, at the consumer's request, whether the consumer qualifies for a legally permissible special credit program or credit-related assistance program that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Designed to meet the special needs of consumers with medical conditions; and
</P>
<P>(B) Established and administered pursuant to a written plan that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Identifies the class of persons that the program is designed to benefit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Sets forth the procedures and standards for extending credit or providing other credit-related assistance under the program;
</P>
<P>(iv) To the extent necessary for purposes of fraud prevention or detection;
</P>
<P>(v) In the case of credit for the purpose of financing medical products or services, to determine and verify the medical purpose of a loan and the use of proceeds;
</P>
<P>(vi) Consistent with safe and sound practices, if the consumer or the consumer's legal representative specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, and such request is documented by the creditor;
</P>
<P>(vii) Consistent with safe and sound practices, to determine whether the provisions of a forbearance practice or program that is triggered by a medical condition or event apply to a consumer;
</P>
<P>(viii) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a debt cancellation contract or debt suspension agreement if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the contract or agreement;
</P>
<P>(ix) To determine the consumer's eligibility for, the triggering of, or the reactivation of a credit insurance product if a medical condition or event is a triggering event for the provision of benefits under the product; or
</P>
<P>(x) So long as the conditions in paragraphs (e)(1)(x)(A) through (C) of this section are met:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) The medical information is included in the transaction information of an account for a consumer financial product or service described in 12 CFR 1033.111(b)(1) through (3), and accessed with the consumer's authorization; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The medical information relates to income, benefits, or the purpose of the loan, including the use of proceeds. Medical information relating to income and benefits includes, for example, the dollar amount and continued eligibility for disability income, workers' compensation income, or other benefits related to health or a medical condition that is relied on as a source of repayment.
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor uses the medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable information that is not medical information in a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor does not take the consumer's physical, mental, or behavioral health, condition or history, type of treatment, or prognosis into account as part of the determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example of determining eligibility for a special credit program or credit assistance program.</I> A not-for-profit organization establishes a credit assistance program pursuant to a written plan that is designed to assist disabled veterans in purchasing homes by subsidizing the down payment for the home purchase mortgage loans of qualifying veterans. The organization works through mortgage lenders and requires mortgage lenders to obtain medical information about the disability of any consumer that seeks to qualify for the program, use that information to verify the consumer's eligibility for the program, and forward that information to the organization. A consumer who is a veteran applies to a creditor for a home purchase mortgage loan. The creditor informs the consumer about the credit assistance program for disabled veterans and the consumer seeks to qualify for the program. Assuming that the program complies with all applicable law, including applicable fair lending laws, the creditor may obtain and use medical information about the medical condition and disability, if any, of the consumer to determine whether the consumer qualifies for the credit assistance program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples of verifying the medical purpose of the loan or the use of proceeds.</I> (i) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing vision correction surgery, the creditor may verify with the surgeon that the procedure will be performed. If the surgeon reports that surgery will not be performed on the consumer, the creditor may use that medical information to deny the consumer's application for credit, because the loan would not be used for the stated purpose.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a consumer applies for $10,000 of credit for the purpose of financing cosmetic surgery, the creditor may confirm the cost of the procedure with the surgeon. If the surgeon reports that the cost of the procedure is $5,000, the creditor may use that medical information to offer the consumer only $5,000 of credit.
</P>
<P>(iii) A creditor has an established medical loan program for financing particular elective surgical procedures. The creditor receives a loan application from a consumer requesting $10,000 of credit under the established loan program for an elective surgical procedure. The consumer indicates on the application that the purpose of the loan is to finance an elective surgical procedure not eligible for funding under the guidelines of the established loan program. The creditor may deny the consumer's application because the purpose of the loan is not for a particular procedure funded by the established loan program.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Examples of obtaining and using medical information at the request of the consumer.</I> (i) If a consumer applies for a loan and specifically requests that the creditor consider the consumer's medical disability at the relevant time as an explanation for adverse payment history information in his credit report, the creditor may consider such medical information in evaluating the consumer's willingness and ability to repay the requested loan to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances, consistent with safe and sound practices. The creditor may also decline to consider such medical information to accommodate the consumer, but may evaluate the consumer's application in accordance with its otherwise applicable underwriting criteria. The creditor may not deny the consumer's application or otherwise treat the consumer less favorably because the consumer specifically requested a medical accommodation, if the creditor would have extended the credit or treated the consumer more favorably under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a consumer applies for a loan by telephone and explains that his income has been and will continue to be interrupted on account of a medical condition and that he expects to repay the loan by liquidating assets, the creditor may, but is not required to, evaluate the application using the sale of assets as the primary source of repayment, consistent with safe and sound practices, provided that the creditor documents the consumer's request by recording the oral conversation or making a notation of the request in the consumer's file.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a consumer applies for a loan and the application form provides a space where the consumer may provide any other information or special circumstances, whether medical or non-medical, that the consumer would like the creditor to consider in evaluating the consumer's application, the creditor may use medical information provided by the consumer in that space on that application to accommodate the consumer's application for credit, consistent with safe and sound practices, or may disregard that information.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a consumer specifically requests that the creditor use medical information in determining the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit and provides the creditor with medical information for that purpose, and the creditor determines that it needs additional information regarding the consumer's circumstances, the creditor may request, obtain, and use additional medical information about the consumer as necessary to verify the information provided by the consumer or to determine whether to make an accommodation for the consumer. The consumer may decline to provide additional information, withdraw the request for an accommodation, and have the application considered under the creditor's otherwise applicable underwriting criteria.
</P>
<P>(v) If a consumer completes and signs a credit application that is not for medical purpose credit and the application contains boilerplate language that routinely requests medical information from the consumer or that indicates that by applying for credit the consumer authorizes or consents to the creditor obtaining and using medical information in connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit, the consumer has not specifically requested that the creditor obtain and use medical information to accommodate the consumer's particular circumstances.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example of a forbearance practice or program.</I> After an appropriate safety and soundness review, a creditor institutes a program that allows consumers who are or will be hospitalized to defer payments as needed for up to three months, without penalty, if the credit account has been open for more than one year and has not previously been in default, and the consumer provides confirming documentation at an appropriate time. A consumer is hospitalized and does not pay her bill for a particular month. This consumer has had a credit account with the creditor for more than one year and has not previously been in default. The creditor attempts to contact the consumer and speaks with the consumer's adult child, who is not the consumer's legal representative. The adult child informs the creditor that the consumer is hospitalized and is unable to pay the bill at that time. The creditor defers payments for up to three months, without penalty, for the hospitalized consumer and sends the consumer a letter confirming this practice and the date on which the next payment will be due. The creditor has obtained and used medical information to determine whether the provisions of a medically-triggered forbearance practice or program apply to a consumer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Example to comply with applicable requirements of local, State, or Federal laws.</I> A consumer applies for a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.43(c) or § 1026.34(a)(4) of this chapter, or an open-end (not home-secured) credit card account subject to § 1026.51(a) of this chapter. The application does not specifically request medical information, but the consumer provides unsolicited medical information on the application. The creditor or the card issuer is permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to use such medical information in connection with any determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit only to the extent required by the applicable Federal law and implementing regulation. For example, assume a consumer applies for a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.43(c) of this chapter. Assume further that the creditor has not specifically requested medical information on the application, but the consumer provides information on a current debt obligation, such as a monthly medical payment plan, that is medical information. The creditor is permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to consider the existence and the amount of the medical payment plan as required in considering factors under § 1026.43(c)(2) of this chapter, such as the current debt obligations, consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, and residual income, in making the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(1) of this chapter. In this circumstance, the creditor would not be required to independently verify the existence and amount of the monthly medical payment plan, as provided for under § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii) of this chapter. See also Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(c)(3), comment 43(c)(3)-6), describing a situation in which a consumer provides a creditor with information on a debt obligation that is not listed on a consumer report. Further, a creditor or card issuer is not permitted under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section to obtain or use any medical information from a consumer reporting agency to comply with the ability-to-repay rule under § 1026.43(c) of this chapter for closed-end mortgages, the repayment ability rule under § 1026.34(a)(4) of this chapter for open-end, high-cost mortgages, or the ability-to-pay rule under § 1026.51(a) of this chapter for open-end (not home-secured) credit card accounts, because the creditor or card issuer can comply with those rules using information provided by the consumer. This example only relates to the exception under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section. A creditor or card issuer may obtain and use medical information for purposes of Regulation Z's ability-to-repay or pay determinations pursuant to other exceptions in paragraph (e) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Example of medical information relating to income and benefits.</I> A consumer indicates on an application for a $200,000 mortgage loan that she receives $15,000 in long-term disability income each year from her former employer and has no other income. Annual income of $15,000, regardless of source, would not be sufficient to support the requested amount of credit. The creditor denies the application on the basis that the projected debt-to-income ratio of the consumer does not meet the creditor's underwriting criteria. The creditor has used medical information in a manner and to an extent that is no less favorable than it would use comparable non-medical information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79312, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 90 FR 3372, Jan. 14, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.31" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.31   Limits on redisclosure of information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any person, except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limits on redisclosure.</I> If a person described in paragraph (a) of this section receives medical information about a consumer from a consumer reporting agency or its affiliate, the person must not disclose that information to any other person, except as necessary to carry out the purpose for which the information was initially disclosed, or as otherwise permitted by statute, regulation, or order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.32" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.32   Sharing medical information with affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any person, except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> The exclusions from the term “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2) of the Act that allow the sharing of information with affiliates do not apply to a person described in paragraph (a) of this section if that person communicates to an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) Medical information;
</P>
<P>(2) An individualized list or description based on the payment transactions of the consumer for medical products or services; or
</P>
<P>(3) An aggregate list of identified consumers based on payment transactions for medical products or services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> A person described in paragraph (a) of this section may rely on the exclusions from the term “consumer report” in section 603(d)(2) of the Act to communicate the information in paragraph (b) of this section to an affiliate:
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with the business of insurance or annuities (including the activities described in section 18B of the model Privacy of Consumer Financial and Health Information Regulation issued by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners, as in effect on January 1, 2003);
</P>
<P>(2) For any purpose permitted without authorization under the regulations promulgated by the Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA);
</P>
<P>(3) For any purpose referred to in section 1179 of HIPAA;
</P>
<P>(4) For any purpose described in section 502(e) of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act;
</P>
<P>(5) In connection with a determination of the consumer's eligibility, or continued eligibility, for credit consistent with § 1022.30 of this part; or
</P>
<P>(6) As otherwise permitted by order of the Bureau.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.33-1022.37" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.33-1022.37   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.38" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.38   Duty of consumer reporting agencies regarding medical debt information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any consumer reporting agency as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation regarding prohibited medical debt information.</I> A consumer reporting agency may include medical debt information, as defined in § 1022.3(j), in a consumer report furnished to a creditor only if the consumer reporting agency:
</P>
<P>(1) Has reason to believe the creditor intends to use the medical debt information in a manner not prohibited by § 1022.30; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has reason to believe the creditor is not otherwise legally prohibited from obtaining or using the medical debt information, including by a State law that prohibits a creditor from obtaining or using medical debt information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 3373, Jan. 14, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Duties of Furnishers of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.40" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.40   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart E of this part applies to any person that furnishes information to a consumer reporting agency, except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.41" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.41   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart and appendix E of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Accuracy</I> means that information that a furnisher provides to a consumer reporting agency about an account or other relationship with the consumer correctly:
</P>
<P>(1) Reflects the terms of and liability for the account or other relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) Reflects the consumer's performance and other conduct with respect to the account or other relationship; and
</P>
<P>(3) Identifies the appropriate consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct dispute</I> means a dispute submitted directly to a furnisher (including a furnisher that is a debt collector) by a consumer concerning the accuracy of any information contained in a consumer report and pertaining to an account or other relationship that the furnisher has or had with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Furnisher</I> means an entity that furnishes information relating to consumers to one or more consumer reporting agencies for inclusion in a consumer report. An entity is not a furnisher when it:
</P>
<P>(1) Provides information to a consumer reporting agency solely to obtain a consumer report in accordance with sections 604(a) and (f) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(2) Is acting as a “consumer reporting agency” as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a consumer to whom the furnished information pertains; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is a neighbor, friend, or associate of the consumer, or another individual with whom the consumer is acquainted or who may have knowledge about the consumer, and who provides information about the consumer's character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living in response to a specific request from a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Integrity</I> means that information that a furnisher provides to a consumer reporting agency about an account or other relationship with the consumer:
</P>
<P>(1) Is substantiated by the furnisher's records at the time it is furnished;
</P>
<P>(2) Is furnished in a form and manner that is designed to minimize the likelihood that the information may be incorrectly reflected in a consumer report; and
</P>
<P>(3) Includes the information in the furnisher's possession about the account or other relationship that the Bureau has:
</P>
<P>(i) Determined that the absence of which would likely be materially misleading in evaluating a consumer's creditworthiness, credit standing, credit capacity, character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Listed in section I(b)(2)(iii) of appendix E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.42" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.42   Reasonable policies and procedures concerning the accuracy and integrity of furnished information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> Each furnisher must establish and implement reasonable written policies and procedures regarding the accuracy and integrity of the information relating to consumers that it furnishes to a consumer reporting agency. The policies and procedures must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of each furnisher's activities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guidelines.</I> Each furnisher must consider the guidelines in appendix E of this part in developing its policies and procedures required by this section, and incorporate those guidelines that are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reviewing and updating policies and procedures.</I> Each furnisher must review its policies and procedures required by this section periodically and update them as necessary to ensure their continued effectiveness.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.43" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.43   Direct disputes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a furnisher must conduct a reasonable investigation of a direct dispute if it relates to:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer's liability for a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to whether there is or has been identity theft or fraud against the consumer, whether there is individual or joint liability on an account, or whether the consumer is an authorized user of a credit account;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to the type of account, principal balance, scheduled payment amount on an account, or the amount of the credit limit on an open-end account;
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer's performance or other conduct concerning an account or other relationship with the furnisher, such as direct disputes relating to the current payment status, high balance, date a payment was made, the amount of a payment made, or the date an account was opened or closed; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information contained in a consumer report regarding an account or other relationship with the furnisher that bears on the consumer's creditworthiness, credit standing, credit capacity, character, general reputation, personal characteristics, or mode of living.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to a furnisher if:
</P>
<P>(1) The direct dispute relates to:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer's identifying information (other than a direct dispute relating to a consumer's liability for a credit account or other debt with the furnisher, as provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section) such as name(s), date of birth, Social Security number, telephone number(s), or address(es);
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of past or present employers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Inquiries or requests for a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iv) Information derived from public records, such as judgments, bankruptcies, liens, and other legal matters (unless provided by a furnisher with an account or other relationship with the consumer);
</P>
<P>(v) Information related to fraud alerts or active duty alerts; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Information provided to a consumer reporting agency by another furnisher; or
</P>
<P>(2) The furnisher has a reasonable belief that the direct dispute is submitted by, is prepared on behalf of the consumer by, or is submitted on a form supplied to the consumer by, a credit repair organization, as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3), or an entity that would be a credit repair organization, but for 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3)(B)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct dispute address.</I> A furnisher is required to investigate a direct dispute only if a consumer submits a dispute notice to the furnisher at:
</P>
<P>(1) The address of a furnisher provided by a furnisher and set forth on a consumer report relating to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) An address clearly and conspicuously specified by the furnisher for submitting direct disputes that is provided to the consumer in writing or electronically (if the consumer has agreed to the electronic delivery of information from the furnisher); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any business address of the furnisher if the furnisher has not so specified and provided an address for submitting direct disputes under paragraphs (c)(1) or (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Direct dispute notice contents.</I> A dispute notice must include:
</P>
<P>(1) Sufficient information to identify the account or other relationship that is in dispute, such as an account number and the name, address, and telephone number of the consumer, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The specific information that the consumer is disputing and an explanation of the basis for the dispute; and
</P>
<P>(3) All supporting documentation or other information reasonably required by the furnisher to substantiate the basis of the dispute. This documentation may include, for example: a copy of the relevant portion of the consumer report that contains the allegedly inaccurate information; a police report; a fraud or identity theft affidavit; a court order; or account statements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duty of furnisher after receiving a direct dispute notice.</I> After receiving a dispute notice from a consumer pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the furnisher must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct a reasonable investigation with respect to the disputed information;
</P>
<P>(2) Review all relevant information provided by the consumer with the dispute notice;
</P>
<P>(3) Complete its investigation of the dispute and report the results of the investigation to the consumer before the expiration of the period under section 611(a)(1) of the FCRA (15 U.S.C. 1681i(a)(1)) within which a consumer reporting agency would be required to complete its action if the consumer had elected to dispute the information under that section; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the investigation finds that the information reported was inaccurate, promptly notify each consumer reporting agency to which the furnisher provided inaccurate information of that determination and provide to the consumer reporting agency any correction to that information that is necessary to make the information provided by the furnisher accurate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Frivolous or irrelevant disputes.</I> (1) A furnisher is not required to investigate a direct dispute if the furnisher has reasonably determined that the dispute is frivolous or irrelevant. A dispute qualifies as frivolous or irrelevant if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer did not provide sufficient information to investigate the disputed information as required by paragraph (d) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The direct dispute is substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted by or on behalf of the consumer, either directly to the furnisher or through a consumer reporting agency, with respect to which the furnisher has already satisfied the applicable requirements of the Act or this section; provided, however, that a direct dispute is not substantially the same as a dispute previously submitted if the dispute includes information listed in paragraph (d) of this section that had not previously been provided to the furnisher; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The furnisher is not required to investigate the direct dispute because one or more of the exceptions listed in paragraph (b) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of determination.</I> Upon making a determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant, the furnisher must notify the consumer of the determination not later than five business days after making the determination, by mail or, if authorized by the consumer for that purpose, by any other means available to the furnisher.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of notice of determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant.</I> A notice of determination that a dispute is frivolous or irrelevant must include the reasons for such determination and identify any information required to investigate the disputed information, which notice may consist of a standardized form describing the general nature of such information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Duties of Users Regarding Obtaining and Using Consumer Reports</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.50-1022.53" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.50-1022.53   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.54" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.54   Duties of users making written firm offers of credit or insurance based on information contained in consumer files.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to any person who uses a consumer report on any consumer in connection with any credit or insurance transaction that is not initiated by the consumer, and that is provided to that person under section 604(c)(1)(B) of the FCRA (15 U.S.C. 1681b(c)(1)(B)), except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and appendix D of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Simple and easy to understand</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A layered format as described in paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Plain language designed to be understood by ordinary consumers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Use of clear and concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections.
</P>
<P>(iv) Examples. For purposes of this part, examples of factors to be considered in determining whether a statement is in plain language and uses clear and concise sentences, paragraphs, and sections include:
</P>
<P>(A) Use of short explanatory sentences;
</P>
<P>(B) Use of definite, concrete, everyday words;
</P>
<P>(C) Use of active voice;
</P>
<P>(D) Avoidance of multiple negatives;
</P>
<P>(E) Avoidance of legal and technical business terminology;
</P>
<P>(F) Avoidance of explanations that are imprecise and reasonably subject to different interpretations; and
</P>
<P>(G) Use of language that is not misleading.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Principal promotional document</I> means the document designed to be seen first by the consumer, such as the cover letter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prescreen opt-out notice.</I> Any person who uses a consumer report on any consumer in connection with any credit or insurance transaction that is not initiated by the consumer, and that is provided to that person under section 604(c)(1)(B) of the FCRA (15 U.S.C. 1681b(c)(1)(B)), shall, with each written solicitation made to the consumer about the transaction, provide the consumer with the following statement, consisting of a short portion and a long portion, which shall be in the same language as the offer of credit or insurance:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Short notice.</I> The short notice shall be a clear and conspicuous, and simple and easy to understand statement as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Content.</I> The short notice shall state that the consumer has the right to opt out of receiving prescreened solicitations, and shall provide the toll-free number the consumer can call to exercise that right. The short notice also shall direct the consumer to the existence and location of the long notice, and shall state the heading for the long notice. The short notice shall not contain any other information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Form.</I> The short notice shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) In a type size that is larger than the type size of the principal text on the same page, but in no event smaller than 12 point type, or if provided by electronic means, then reasonable steps shall be taken to ensure that the type size is larger than the type size of the principal text on the same page;
</P>
<P>(B) On the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document in the solicitation, or, if provided electronically, on the same page and in close proximity to the principal marketing message;
</P>
<P>(C) Located on the page and in a format so that the statement is distinct from other text, such as inside a border; and
</P>
<P>(D) In a type style that is distinct from the principal type style used on the same page, such as bolded, italicized, underlined, and/or in a color that contrasts with the color of the principal text on the page, if the solicitation is in more than one color.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Long notice.</I> The long notice shall be a clear and conspicuous, and simple and easy to understand statement as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Content.</I> The long notice shall state the information required by section 615(d) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681m(d)). The long notice shall not include any other information that interferes with, detracts from, contradicts, or otherwise undermines the purpose of the notice.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Form.</I> The long notice shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Appear in the solicitation;
</P>
<P>(B) Be in a type size that is no smaller than the type size of the principal text on the same page, and, for solicitations provided other than by electronic means, the type size shall in no event be smaller than 8 point type;
</P>
<P>(C) Begin with a heading in capital letters and underlined, and identifying the long notice as the “PRESCREEN&amp;OPT-OUT NOTICE;”
</P>
<P>(D) Be in a type style that is distinct from the principal type style used on the same page, such as bolded, italicized, underlined, and/or in a color that contrasts with the color of the principal text on the page, if the solicitation is in more than one color; and
</P>
<P>(E) Be set apart from other text on the page, such as by including a blank line above and below the statement, and by indenting both the left and right margins from other text on the page.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.55-1022.59" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.55-1022.59   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Duties of Users Regarding Risk-Based Pricing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.70" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.70   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> This subpart applies to any person, except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137, that both:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses a consumer report in connection with an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to a consumer that is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit to the consumer on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable material terms available to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business credit excluded.</I> This subpart does not apply to an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to a consumer or to any other applicant primarily for a business purpose.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement.</I> The provisions of this subpart will be enforced in accordance with the enforcement authority set forth in sections 621(a) and (b) of the FCRA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.71" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Adverse action</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(k)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual percentage rate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.14(b) with respect to an open-end credit plan and as in 12 CFR 1026.22 with respect to closed-end credit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Closed-end credit</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(10).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(c).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consummation</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(13).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Consumer report</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(5).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Credit card</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(2).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Credit card issuer</I> has the same meaning as <I>card issuer,</I> as defined in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(r)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Credit score</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681g(f)(2)(A).
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Firm offer of credit</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(l).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Material terms</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (n)(1)(ii) and (n)(3) of this section, in the case of credit extended under an open-end credit plan, the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) or 12 CFR 1026.6(b)(2)(i), excluding any temporary initial rate that is lower than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, any penalty rate that will apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, and any fixed annual percentage rate option for a home equity line of credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a credit card (other than a credit card that is used to access a home equity line of credit or a charge card), the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 1026.6(b)(2)(i) that applies to purchases (“purchase annual percentage rate”) and no other annual percentage rate, or in the case of a credit card that has no purchase annual percentage rate, the annual percentage rate that varies based on information in a consumer report and that has the most significant financial impact on consumers;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of closed-end credit, the annual percentage rate required to be disclosed under 12 CFR 1026.17(c) and 1026.18(e); and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of credit for which there is no annual percentage rate, the financial term that varies based on information in a consumer report and that has the most significant financial impact on consumers, such as a deposit required in connection with credit extended by a telephone company or utility or an annual membership fee for a charge card.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Materially less favorable</I> means, when applied to material terms, that the terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer differ from the terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to another consumer from or through the same person such that the cost of credit to the first consumer would be significantly greater than the cost of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to the other consumer. For purposes of this definition, factors relevant to determining the significance of a difference in cost include the type of credit product, the term of the credit extension, if any, and the extent of the difference between the material terms granted, extended, or otherwise provided to the two consumers.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Open-end credit plan</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(i), as interpreted by the Bureau in Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) and the Official Interpretations to Regulation Z (Supplement I to 12 CFR part 1026).
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Person</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.72" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.72   General requirements for risk-based pricing notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a person must provide to a consumer a notice (“risk-based pricing notice”) in the form and manner required by this subpart if the person both:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses a consumer report in connection with an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit to that consumer that is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit to that consumer on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable material terms available to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determining which consumers must receive a notice.</I> A person may determine whether paragraph (a) of this section applies by directly comparing the material terms offered to each consumer and the material terms offered to other consumers for a specific type of credit product. For purposes of this section, a “specific type of credit product” means one or more credit products with similar features that are designed for similar purposes. Examples of a specific type of credit product include student loans, unsecured credit cards, secured credit cards, new automobile loans, used automobile loans, fixed-rate mortgage loans, and variable-rate mortgage loans. As an alternative to making this direct comparison, a person may make the determination by using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit score proxy method</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A person that sets the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, based in whole or in part on a credit score, may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by:
</P>
<P>(A) Determining the credit score (hereafter referred to as the “cutoff score”) that represents the point at which approximately 40 percent of the consumers to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit have higher credit scores and approximately 60 percent of the consumers to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit have lower credit scores; and
</P>
<P>(B) Providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit whose credit score is lower than the cutoff score.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Alternative to the 40/60 cutoff score determination.</I> In the case of credit that has been granted, extended, or provided on the most favorable material terms to more than 40 percent of consumers, a person may, at its option, set its cutoff score at a point at which the approximate percentage of consumers who historically have been granted, extended, or provided credit on material terms other than the most favorable terms would receive risk-based pricing notices under this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Determining the cutoff score</I>—(A) <I>Sampling approach.</I> A person that currently uses risk-based pricing with respect to the credit products it offers must calculate the cutoff score by considering the credit scores of all or a representative sample of the consumers to whom it has granted, extended, or provided credit for a specific type of credit product.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Secondary source approach in limited circumstances.</I> A person that is a new entrant into the credit business, introduces new credit products, or starts to use risk-based pricing with respect to the credit products it currently offers may initially determine the cutoff score based on information derived from appropriate market research or relevant third-party sources for a specific type of credit product, such as research or data from companies that develop credit scores. A person that acquires a credit portfolio as a result of a merger or acquisition may determine the cutoff score based on information from the party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Recalculation of cutoff scores.</I> A person using the credit score proxy method must recalculate its cutoff score(s) no less than every two years in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section. A person using the credit score proxy method using market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio as permitted by paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B) of this section generally must calculate a cutoff score(s) based on the scores of its own consumers in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section within one year after it begins using a cutoff score derived from market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio. If such a person does not grant, extend, or provide credit to new consumers during that one-year period such that it lacks sufficient data with which to recalculate a cutoff score based on the credit scores of its own consumers, the person may continue to use a cutoff score derived from market research, third-party data, or information from a party which it acquired, with which it merged, or from which it acquired the portfolio as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(B) until it obtains sufficient data on which to base the recalculation. However, the person must recalculate its cutoff score(s) in the manner described in paragraph (b)(1)(iii)(A) of this section within two years, if it has granted, extended, or provided credit to some new consumers during that two-year period.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Use of two or more credit scores.</I> A person that generally uses two or more credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or provided to a consumer must determine the cutoff score using the same method the person uses to evaluate multiple scores when making credit decisions. These evaluation methods may include, but are not limited to, selecting the low, median, high, most recent, or average credit score of each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit. If a person that uses two or more credit scores does not consistently use the same method for evaluating multiple credit scores (<I>e.g.,</I> if the person sometimes chooses the median score and other times calculates the average score), the person must determine the cutoff score using a reasonable means. In such cases, use of any one of the methods that the person regularly uses or the average credit score of each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit is deemed to be a reasonable means of calculating the cutoff score.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Credit score not available.</I> For purposes of this section, a person using the credit score proxy method who grants, extends, or provides credit to a consumer for whom a credit score is not available must assume that the consumer receives credit on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable credit terms offered to a substantial proportion of consumers from or through that person and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Examples.</I> (A) A credit card issuer engages in risk-based pricing and the annual percentage rates it offers to consumers are based in whole or in part on a credit score. The credit card issuer takes a representative sample of the credit scores of consumers to whom it issued credit cards within the preceding three months. The credit card issuer determines that approximately 40 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score at or above 720 (on a scale of 350 to 850) and approximately 60 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score below 720. Thus, the card issuer selects 720 as its cutoff score. A consumer applies to the credit card issuer for a credit card. The card issuer obtains a credit score for the consumer. The consumer's credit score is 700. Since the consumer's 700 credit score falls below the 720 cutoff score, the credit card issuer must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(B) A credit card issuer engages in risk-based pricing, and the annual percentage rates it offers to consumers are based in whole or in part on a credit score. The credit card issuer takes a representative sample of the consumers to whom it issued credit cards over the preceding six months. The credit card issuer determines that approximately 80 percent of the sampled consumers received credit at its lowest annual percentage rate, and 20 percent received credit at a higher annual percentage rate. Approximately 80 percent of the sampled consumers have a credit score at or above 750 (on a scale of 350 to 850), and 20 percent have a credit score below 750. Thus, the card issuer selects 750 as its cutoff score. A consumer applies to the credit card issuer for a credit card. The card issuer obtains a credit score for the consumer. The consumer's credit score is 740. Since the consumer's 740 credit score falls below the 750 cutoff score, the credit card issuer must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(C) An auto lender engages in risk-based pricing, obtains credit scores from one of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies, and uses the credit score proxy method to determine which consumers must receive a risk-based pricing notice. A consumer applies to the auto lender for credit to finance the purchase of an automobile. A credit score about that consumer is not available from the consumer reporting agency from which the lender obtains credit scores. The lender nevertheless grants, extends, or provides credit to the consumer. The lender must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tiered pricing method</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A person that sets the material terms of credit granted, extended, or provided to a consumer by placing the consumer within one of a discrete number of pricing tiers for a specific type of credit product, based in whole or in part on a consumer report, may comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer who is not placed within the top pricing tier or tiers, as described below.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Four or fewer pricing tiers.</I> If a person using the tiered pricing method has four or fewer pricing tiers, the person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who does not qualify for the top tier (that is, the lowest-priced tier). For example, a person that uses a tiered pricing structure with annual percentage rates of 8, 10, 12, and 14 percent would provide the risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit at annual percentage rates of 10, 12, and 14 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Five or more pricing tiers.</I> If a person using the tiered pricing method has five or more pricing tiers, the person complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who does not qualify for the top two tiers (that is, the two lowest-priced tiers) and any other tier that, together with the top tiers, comprise no less than the top 30 percent but no more than the top 40 percent of the total number of tiers. Each consumer placed within the remaining tiers must receive a risk-based pricing notice. For example, if a person has nine pricing tiers, the top three tiers (that is, the three lowest-priced tiers) comprise no less than the top 30 percent but no more than the top 40 percent of the tiers. Therefore, a person using this method would provide a risk-based pricing notice to each consumer to whom it grants, extends, or provides credit who is placed within the bottom six tiers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application to credit card issuers</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A credit card issuer subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section may use one of the methods set forth in paragraph (b) of this section to identify consumers to whom it must provide a risk-based pricing notice. Alternatively, a credit card issuer may satisfy its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer when:
</P>
<P>(i) A consumer applies for a credit card either in connection with an application program, such as a direct-mail offer or a take-one application, or in response to a solicitation under 12 CFR 1026.60, and more than a single possible purchase annual percentage rate may apply under the program or solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on a consumer report, the credit card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer with an annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) that is greater than the lowest annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) available in connection with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No requirement to compare different offers.</I> A credit card issuer is not subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer applies for a credit card for which the card issuer provides a single annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii), excluding a temporary initial rate that is lower than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires and a penalty rate that will apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit card issuer offers the consumer the lowest annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) available under the credit card offer for which the consumer applied, even if a lower annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) is available under a different credit card offer issued by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A credit card issuer sends a solicitation to the consumer that discloses several possible purchase annual percentage rates that may apply, such as 10, 12, or 14 percent, or a range of purchase annual percentage rates from 10 to 14 percent. The consumer applies for a credit card in response to the solicitation. The card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer with a purchase annual percentage rate of 12 percent based in whole or in part on a consumer report. Unless an exception applies under § 1022.74, the card issuer may satisfy its obligations under paragraph (a) of this section by providing a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer because the consumer received credit at a purchase annual percentage rate greater than the lowest purchase annual percentage rate available under that solicitation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The same facts as in the example in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section, except that the card issuer provides a credit card to the consumer at a purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The card issuer is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer even if, under a different credit card solicitation, that consumer or other consumers might qualify for a purchase annual percentage rate of 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Account review</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, a person is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer in the form and manner required by this subpart if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Uses a consumer report in connection with a review of credit that has been extended to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based in whole or in part on the consumer report, increases the annual percentage rate (the annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) in the case of a credit card).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A credit card issuer periodically obtains consumer reports for the purpose of reviewing the terms of credit it has extended to consumers in connection with credit cards. As a result of this review, the credit card issuer increases the purchase annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's credit card based in whole or in part on information in a consumer report. The credit card issuer is subject to the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and must provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.73" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.73   Content, form, and timing of risk-based pricing notices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of the notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 1022.72(a) or (c) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the terms offered, such as the annual percentage rate, have been set based on information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the terms offered may be less favorable than the terms offered to consumers with better credit histories;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(v) The identity of each consumer reporting agency that furnished a consumer report used in the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that Federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain a copy of a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice without charge for 60 days after receipt of the notice;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement informing the consumer how to obtain a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice and providing contact information (including a toll-free telephone number, where applicable) specified by the consumer reporting agency or agencies;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement directing consumers to the Web site of the Bureau to obtain more information about consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(ix) If a credit score of the consumer to whom a person grants, extends, or otherwise provides credit is used in setting the material terms of credit:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report, that the consumer's credit score was used to set the terms of credit offered, and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit score used by the person in making the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(C) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(D) All of the key factors that adversely affected the credit score, which shall not exceed four key factors, except that if one of the key factors is the number of enquiries made with respect to the consumer report, the number of key factors shall not exceed five;
</P>
<P>(E) The date on which the credit score was created; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Account review.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 1022.72(d) must include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that credit history;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the person has conducted a review of the account using information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that as a result of the review, the annual percentage rate on the account has been increased based on information from a consumer report;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(v) The identity of each consumer reporting agency that furnished a consumer report used in the account review;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that Federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain a copy of a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice without charge for 60 days after receipt of the notice;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement informing the consumer how to obtain a consumer report from the consumer reporting agency or agencies identified in the notice and providing contact information (including a toll-free telephone number, where applicable) specified by the consumer reporting agency or agencies;
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement directing consumers to the Web site of the Bureau to obtain more information about consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(ix) If a credit score of the consumer whose extension of credit is under review is used in increasing the annual percentage rate:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report, that the consumer's credit score was used to set the terms of credit offered, and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(B) The credit score used by the person in making the credit decision;
</P>
<P>(C) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(D) All of the key factors that adversely affected the credit score, which shall not exceed four key factors, except that if one of the key factors is the number of enquires made with respect to the consumer report, the number of key factors shall not exceed five;
</P>
<P>(E) The date on which the credit score was created; and
</P>
<P>(F) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of the notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The risk-based pricing notice required by § 1022.72(a), (c), or (d) must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided to the consumer in oral, written, or electronic form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Model forms.</I> Model forms of the risk-based pricing notice required by § 1022.72(a) and (c) are contained in appendices H-1 and H-6 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-1 or H-6 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 1022.72(a) and (c). Model forms of the risk-based pricing notice required by § 1022.72(d) are contained in appendices H-2 and H-7 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-2 or H-7 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 1022.72(d). Use of the model forms is optional.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, a risk-based pricing notice must be provided to the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of a grant, extension, or other provision of closed-end credit, before consummation of the transaction, but not earlier than the time the decision to approve an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit, is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of credit granted, extended, or provided under an open-end credit plan, before the first transaction is made under the plan, but not earlier than the time the decision to approve an application for, or a grant, extension, or other provision of, credit is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of a review of credit that has been extended to the consumer, at the time the decision to increase the annual percentage rate (annual percentage rate referenced in § 1022.71(n)(1)(ii) in the case of a credit card) based on a consumer report is communicated to the consumer by the person required to provide the notice, or if no notice of the increase in the annual percentage rate is provided to the consumer prior to the effective date of the change in the annual percentage rate (to the extent permitted by law), no later than five days after the effective date of the change in the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application to certain automobile lending transactions.</I> When a person to whom a credit obligation is initially payable grants, extends, or provides credit to a consumer for the purpose of financing the purchase of an automobile from an auto dealer or other party that is not affiliated with the person, any requirement to provide a risk-based pricing notice pursuant to this subpart is satisfied if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides a notice described in §§ 1022.72(a), 1022.74(e), or 1022.74(f) to the consumer within the time periods set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, § 1022.74(e)(3), or § 1022.74(f)(4), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Arranges to have the auto dealer or other party provide a notice described in §§ 1022.72(a), 1022.74(e), or 1022.74(f) to the consumer on its behalf within the time periods set forth in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, § 1022.74(e)(3), or § 1022.74(f)(4), as applicable, and maintains reasonable policies and procedures to verify that the auto dealer or other party provides such notice to the consumer within the applicable time periods. If the person arranges to have the auto dealer or other party provide a notice described in § 1022.74(e), the person's obligation is satisfied if the consumer receives a notice containing a credit score obtained by the dealer or other party, even if a different credit score is obtained and used by the person on whose behalf the notice is provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing requirements for contemporaneous purchase credit.</I> When credit under an open-end credit plan is granted, extended, or provided to a consumer in person or by telephone for the purpose of financing the contemporaneous purchase of goods or services, any risk-based pricing notice required to be provided pursuant to this subpart (or the disclosures permitted under § 1022.74(e) or (f)) may be provided at the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The time of the first mailing by the person to the consumer after the decision is made to approve the grant, extension, or other provision of open-end credit, such as in a mailing containing the account agreement or a credit card; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after the decision to approve the grant, extension, or other provision of credit.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple credit scores</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains or creates two or more credit scores and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must include that credit score and information relating to that credit score required by paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix). When a person obtains or creates two or more credit scores and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit by, for example, computing the average of all the credit scores obtained or created, the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section must include one of those credit scores and information relating to credit scores required by paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix). The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraphs (a)(1)(ix) and (a)(2)(ix) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples.</I> (i) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of credit cards granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies and uses the low score when determining the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person must disclose the low score in the notices described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of automobile loans granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies, each of which it uses in an underwriting program in order to determine the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person may choose one of these scores to include in the notices described in paragraph (a)(1) and (2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.74" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.74   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for specific terms</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 1022.72(a) or (c) if the consumer applies for specific material terms and is granted those terms, unless those terms were specified by the person using a consumer report after the consumer applied for or requested credit and after the person obtained the consumer report. For purposes of this section, “specific material terms” means a single material term, or set of material terms, such as an annual percentage rate of 10 percent, and not a range of alternatives, such as an annual percentage rate that may be 8, 10, or 12 percent, or between 8 and 12 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A consumer receives a firm offer of credit from a credit card issuer. The terms of the firm offer are based in whole or in part on information from a consumer report that the credit card issuer obtained under the FCRA's firm offer of credit provisions. The solicitation offers the consumer a credit card with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 12 percent. The consumer applies for and receives a credit card with an annual percentage rate of 12 percent. Other customers with the same credit card have a purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The exception applies because the consumer applied for specific material terms and was granted those terms. Although the credit card issuer specified the annual percentage rate in the firm offer of credit based in whole or in part on a consumer report, the credit card issuer specified that material term <I>before,</I> not <I>after,</I> the consumer applied for or requested credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adverse action notice.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 1022.72(a), (c), or (d) if the person provides an adverse action notice to the consumer under section 615(a) of the FCRA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prescreened solicitations</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer under § 1022.72(a) or (c) if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtains a consumer report that is a prescreened list as described in section 604(c)(2) of the FCRA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Uses the consumer report for the purpose of making a firm offer of credit to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>More favorable material terms.</I> This exception applies to any firm offer of credit offered by a person to a consumer, even if the person makes other firm offers of credit to other consumers on more favorable material terms.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> A credit card issuer obtains two prescreened lists from a consumer reporting agency. One list includes consumers with high credit scores. The other list includes consumers with low credit scores. The issuer mails a firm offer of credit to the high credit score consumers with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 10 percent. The issuer also mails a firm offer of credit to the low credit score consumers with a single purchase annual percentage rate of 14 percent. The credit card issuer is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the low credit score consumers who receive the 14 percent offer because use of a consumer report to make a firm offer of credit does not trigger the risk-based pricing notice requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans secured by residential real property—credit score disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 1022.72(a) or (c) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer requests from the person an extension of credit that is or will be secured by one to four units of residential real property; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The person provides to each consumer described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section a notice that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) is a record of the consumer's credit history and includes information about whether the consumer pays his or her obligations on time and how much the consumer owes to creditors;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the consumer's credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(D) The information required to be disclosed to the consumer pursuant to section 609(g) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(E) The distribution of credit scores among consumers who are scored under the same scoring model that is used to generate the consumer's credit score using the same scale as that of the credit score that is provided to the consumer, presented in the form of a bar graph containing a minimum of six bars that illustrates the percentage of consumers with credit scores within the range of scores reflected in each bar or by other clear and readily understandable graphical means, or a clear and readily understandable statement informing the consumer how his or her credit score compares to the scores of other consumers. Use of a graph or statement obtained from the person providing the credit score that meets the requirements of this paragraph (d)(1)(ii)(E) is deemed to comply with this requirement;
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that Federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(H) Contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(I) A statement directing consumers to the Web site of the Bureau to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provided on or with the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA;
</P>
<P>(iii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer, except for the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must be provided to the consumer at the time the disclosure required by section 609(g) of the FCRA is provided to the consumer, but in any event at or before consummation in the case of closed-end credit or before the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple credit scores</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must include that credit score and the other information required by that paragraph. When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by computing the average of all the credit scores obtained, the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section must include one of those credit scores and the other information required by that paragraph. The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> (A) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies and uses the low score when determining the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person must disclose the low score in the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from several consumer reporting agencies, each of which it uses in an underwriting program in order to determine the material terms it will offer to the consumer. That person may choose one of these scores to include in the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section consolidated with the notice required by section 609(g) of the FCRA is contained in appendix H-3 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-3 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 1022.74(d). Use of the model form is optional.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other extensions of credit—credit score disclosure</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 1022.72(a) or (c) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer requests from the person an extension of credit other than credit that is or will be secured by one to four units of residential real property; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The person provides to each consumer described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section a notice that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) is a record of the consumer's credit history and includes information about whether the consumer pays his or her obligations on time and how much the consumer owes to creditors;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time to reflect changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the consumer's credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(D) The current credit score of the consumer or the most recent credit score of the consumer that was previously calculated by the consumer reporting agency for a purpose related to the extension of credit;
</P>
<P>(E) The range of possible credit scores under the model used to generate the credit score;
</P>
<P>(F) The distribution of credit scores among consumers who are scored under the same scoring model that is used to generate the consumer's credit score using the same scale as that of the credit score that is provided to the consumer, presented in the form of a bar graph containing a minimum of six bars that illustrates the percentage of consumers with credit scores within the range of scores reflected in each bar, or by other clear and readily understandable graphical means, or a clear and readily understandable statement informing the consumer how his or her credit score compares to the scores of other consumers. Use of a graph or statement obtained from the person providing the credit score that meets the requirements of this paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(F) is deemed to comply with this requirement;
</P>
<P>(G) The date on which the credit score was created;
</P>
<P>(H) The name of the consumer reporting agency or other person that provided the credit score;
</P>
<P>(I) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the report;
</P>
<P>(J) A statement that Federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(K) Contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(L) A statement directing consumers to the Web site of the Bureau to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must be provided to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the credit score has been obtained, but in any event at or before consummation in the case of closed-end credit or before the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple credit scores.</I> (i) <I>In general.</I> When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses one of those credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by using the low, middle, high, or most recent score, the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must include that credit score and the other information required by that paragraph. When a person obtains two or more credit scores from consumer reporting agencies and uses multiple credit scores in setting the material terms of credit granted, extended, or otherwise provided to a consumer, for example, by computing the average of all the credit scores obtained, the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section must include one of those credit scores and the other information required by that paragraph. The notice may, at the person's option, include more than one credit score, along with the additional information specified in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section for each credit score disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Examples.</I> The manner in which multiple credit scores are to be disclosed under this section are substantially identical to the manner set forth in the examples contained in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section is contained in appendix H-4 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-4 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 1022.74(e). Use of the model form is optional.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit score not available</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A person is not required to provide a risk-based pricing notice to a consumer under § 1022.72(a) or (c) if the person:
</P>
<P>(i) Regularly obtains credit scores from a consumer reporting agency and provides credit score disclosures to consumers in accordance with paragraphs (d) or (e) of this section, but a credit score is not available from the consumer reporting agency from which the person regularly obtains credit scores for a consumer to whom the person grants, extends, or provides credit;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not obtain a credit score from another consumer reporting agency in connection with granting, extending, or providing credit to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides to the consumer a notice that contains the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that a consumer report (or credit report) includes information about the consumer's credit history and the type of information included in that history;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that a credit score is a number that takes into account information in a consumer report and that a credit score can change over time in response to changes in the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that credit scores are important because consumers with higher credit scores generally obtain more favorable credit terms;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that not having a credit score can affect whether the consumer can obtain credit and what the cost of that credit will be;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that a credit score about the consumer was not available from a consumer reporting agency, which must be identified by name, generally due to insufficient information regarding the consumer's credit history;
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the consumer is encouraged to verify the accuracy of the information contained in the consumer report and has the right to dispute any inaccurate information in the consumer report;
</P>
<P>(G) A statement that Federal law gives the consumer the right to obtain copies of his or her consumer reports directly from the consumer reporting agencies, including a free consumer report from each of the nationwide consumer reporting agencies once during any 12-month period;
</P>
<P>(H) The contact information for the centralized source from which consumers may obtain their free annual consumer reports; and
</P>
<P>(I) A statement directing consumers to the Web site of the Bureau to obtain more information about consumer reports.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example.</I> A person that uses consumer reports to set the material terms of non-mortgage credit granted, extended, or provided to consumers regularly requests credit scores from a particular consumer reporting agency and provides those credit scores and additional information to consumers to satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section. That consumer reporting agency provides to the person a consumer report on a particular consumer that contains one trade line, but does not provide the person with a credit score on that consumer. If the person does not obtain a credit score from another consumer reporting agency and, based in whole or in part on information in a consumer report, grants, extends, or provides credit to the consumer, the person may provide the notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section. If, however, the person obtains a credit score from another consumer reporting agency, the person may not rely upon the exception in paragraph (f) of this section, but may satisfy the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form of the notice.</I> The notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section must be:
</P>
<P>(i) Clear and conspicuous;
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregated from other information provided to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provided to the consumer in writing and in a form that the consumer may keep.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing.</I> The notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section must be provided to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the person has requested the credit score, but in any event not later than consummation of a transaction in the case of closed-end credit or when the first transaction is made under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Model form.</I> A model form of the notice described in paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section is contained in appendix H-5 of this part. Appropriate use of Model Form H-5 is deemed to comply with the requirements of § 1022.74(f). Use of the model form is optional.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.75" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.8.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.75   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>One notice per credit extension.</I> A consumer is entitled to no more than one risk-based pricing notice under § 1022.72(a) or (c), or one notice under § 1022.74(d), (e), or (f), for each grant, extension, or other provision of credit. Notwithstanding the foregoing, even if a consumer has previously received a risk-based pricing notice in connection with a grant, extension, or other provision of credit, another risk-based pricing notice is required if the conditions set forth in § 1022.72(d) have been met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multi-party transactions</I>—(1) <I>Initial creditor.</I> The person to whom a credit obligation is initially payable must provide the risk-based pricing notice described in § 1022.72(a) or (c), or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions in § 1022.74(d), (e), or (f), even if that person immediately assigns the credit agreement to a third party and is not the source of funding for the credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Purchasers or assignees.</I> A purchaser or assignee of a credit contract with a consumer is not subject to the requirements of this subpart and is not required to provide the risk-based pricing notice described in § 1022.72(a) or (c), or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions in § 1022.74(d), (e), or (f).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example.</I> A consumer obtains credit to finance the purchase of an automobile. If a bank or finance company is the person to whom the loan obligation is initially payable, the bank or finance company must provide the risk-based pricing notice to the consumer (or satisfy the requirements for and provide the notice required under one of the exceptions noted above) based on the terms offered by that bank or finance company only. The auto dealer has no duty to provide a risk-based pricing notice to the consumer. However, the bank or finance company may comply with this rule if the auto dealer has agreed to provide notices to consumers before consummation pursuant to an arrangement with the bank or finance company, as permitted under § 1022.73(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multiple consumers</I>—(1) <I>Risk-based pricing notices.</I> In a transaction involving two or more consumers who are granted, extended, or otherwise provided credit, a person must provide a notice to each consumer to satisfy the requirements of § 1022.72(a) or (c). Whether the consumers have the same address or not, the person must provide a separate notice to each consumer if a notice includes a credit score(s). Each separate notice that includes a credit score(s) must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided, and not the credit score(s) of the other consumer. If the consumers have the same address, and the notice does not include a credit score(s), a person may satisfy the requirements by providing a single notice addressed to both consumers.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit score disclosure notices.</I> In a transaction involving two or more consumers who are granted, extended, or otherwise provided credit, a person must provide a separate notice to each consumer to satisfy the exceptions in § 1022.74(d), (e), or (f). Whether the consumers have the same address or not, the person must provide a separate notice to each consumer. Each separate notice must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided, and not the credit score(s) of the other consumer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examples.</I> (i) Two consumers jointly apply for credit with a creditor. The creditor obtains credit scores on both consumers. Based in part on the credit scores, the creditor grants credit to the consumers on material terms that are materially less favorable than the most favorable terms available to other consumers from the creditor. The creditor provides risk-based pricing notices to satisfy its obligations under this subpart. The creditor must provide a separate risk-based pricing notice to each consumer whether the consumers have the same address or not. Each risk-based pricing notice must contain only the credit score(s) of the consumer to whom the notice is provided.
</P>
<P>(ii) Two consumers jointly apply for credit with a creditor. The two consumers reside at the same address. The creditor obtains credit scores on each of the two consumer applicants. The creditor grants credit to the consumers. The creditor provides credit score disclosure notices to satisfy its obligations under this subpart. Even though the two consumers reside at the same address, the creditor must provide a separate credit score disclosure notice to each of the consumers. Each notice must contain only the credit score of the consumer to whom the notice is provided.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Duties of Users of Consumer Reports Regarding Identity Theft</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.80-1022.81" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.9.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.80-1022.81   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.82" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.9.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.82   Duties of users regarding address discrepancies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a user of consumer reports (user) that receives a notice of address discrepancy from a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p), except for a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 137.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, a <I>notice of address discrepancy</I> means a notice sent to a user by a consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681c(h)(1), that informs the user of a substantial difference between the address for the consumer that the user provided to request the consumer report and the address(es) in the agency's file for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable belief</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to form a reasonable belief.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures designed to enable the user to form a reasonable belief that a consumer report relates to the consumer about whom it has requested the report, when the user receives a notice of address discrepancy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of reasonable policies and procedures.</I> (i) Comparing the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with information the user:
</P>
<P>(A) Obtains and uses to verify the consumer's identity in accordance with the requirements of the Customer Identification Program (CIP) rules implementing 31 U.S.C. 5318(l) (31 CFR 1020.220);
</P>
<P>(B) Maintains in its own records, such as applications, change of address notifications, other customer account records, or retained CIP documentation; or
</P>
<P>(C) Obtains from third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Verifying the information in the consumer report provided by the consumer reporting agency with the consumer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer's address</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to furnish consumer's address to a consumer reporting agency.</I> A user must develop and implement reasonable policies and procedures for furnishing an address for the consumer that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) from whom it received the notice of address discrepancy when the user:
</P>
<P>(i) Can form a reasonable belief that the consumer report relates to the consumer about whom the user requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes a continuing relationship with the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Regularly and in the ordinary course of business furnishes information to the consumer reporting agency from which the notice of address discrepancy relating to the consumer was obtained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of confirmation methods.</I> The user may reasonably confirm an address is accurate by:
</P>
<P>(i) Verifying the address with the consumer about whom it has requested the report;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing its own records to verify the address of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Verifying the address through third-party sources; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Using other reasonable means.
</P>
<P>(3) Timing. The policies and procedures developed in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section must provide that the user will furnish the consumer's address that the user has reasonably confirmed is accurate to the consumer reporting agency described in 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p) as part of the information it regularly furnishes for the reporting period in which it establishes a relationship with the consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="J" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.10" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts J-L [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="M" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart M—Duties of Consumer Reporting Agencies Regarding Identity Theft</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.120" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.120   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.121" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.121   Active duty alerts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Duration.</I> The duration of an active duty alert shall be twelve months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.122" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.122   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.123" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.123   Appropriate proof of identity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Consumer reporting agencies shall develop and implement reasonable requirements for what information consumers shall provide to constitute proof of identity for purposes of sections 605A, 605B, and 609(a)(1) of the FCRA. In developing these requirements, the consumer reporting agencies must:
</P>
<P>(1) Ensure that the information is sufficient to enable the consumer reporting agency to match consumers with their files; and
</P>
<P>(2) Adjust the information to be commensurate with an identifiable risk of harm arising from misidentifying the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) Examples of information that might constitute reasonable information requirements for proof of identity are provided for illustrative purposes only, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer file match.</I> The identification information of the consumer including his or her full name (first, middle initial, last, suffix), any other or previously used names, current and/or recent full address (street number and name, apt. no., city, state, and zip code), full nine digits of Social Security number, and/or date of birth.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional proof of identity.</I> Copies of government issued identification documents, utility bills, and/or other methods of authentication of a person's identity which may include, but would not be limited to, answering questions to which only the consumer might be expected to know the answer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.124-1022.129" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.11.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.124-1022.129   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="N" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart N—Duties of Consumer Reporting Agencies Regarding Disclosures to Consumers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.130" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.130   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Annual file disclosure</I> means a file disclosure that is provided to a consumer, upon consumer request and without charge, once in any twelve month period, in compliance with section 612(a) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681j(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Associated consumer reporting agency</I> means a consumer reporting agency that owns or maintains consumer files housed within systems operated by one or more nationwide consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer report</I> has the meaning provided in section 603(d) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the meaning provided in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Extraordinary request volume</I> occurs when the number of consumers requesting or attempting to request file disclosures during any twenty-four hour period is more than 175 percent of the rolling ninety-day daily average of consumers requesting or attempting to request file disclosures. For example, if over the previous ninety days an average of one hundred consumers per day requested or attempted to request file disclosures, then extraordinary request volume would be any volume greater than 175 percent of one hundred, <I>i.e.,</I> 176 or more requests in a single twenty-four hour period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>File disclosure</I> means a disclosure by a consumer reporting agency pursuant to section 609 of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681g.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>High request volume</I> occurs when the number of consumers requesting or attempting to request file disclosures during any twenty-four hour period is more than 125 percent of the rolling ninety-day daily average of consumers requesting or attempting to request file disclosures. For example, if over the previous ninety days an average of one hundred consumers per day requested or attempted to request file disclosures, then high request volume would be any volume greater than 125 percent of one hundred, <I>i.e.,</I> 126 or more requests in a single twenty-four hour period.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Nationwide consumer reporting agency</I> means a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis as defined in section 603(p) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency</I> has the meaning provided in section 603(w) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(w).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Request method</I> means the method by which a consumer chooses to communicate a request for an annual file disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1022.131-1022.135" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1022.131-1022.135   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.136" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.136   Centralized source for requesting annual file disclosures from nationwide consumer reporting agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of the centralized source is to enable consumers to make a single request to obtain annual file disclosures from all nationwide consumer reporting agencies, as required under section 612(a) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681j(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Establishment and operation.</I> All nationwide consumer reporting agencies shall jointly design, fund, implement, maintain, and operate a centralized source for the purpose described in Paragraph (a) of this section. The centralized source required by this part shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Enable consumers to request annual file disclosures by any of the following request methods, at the consumers' option:
</P>
<P>(i) A single, dedicated Web site,
</P>
<P>(ii) A single, dedicated toll-free telephone number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Mail directed to a single address;
</P>
<P>(2) Be designed, funded, implemented, maintained, and operated in a manner that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has adequate capacity to accept requests from the reasonably anticipated volume of consumers contacting the centralized source through each request method, as determined in accordance with Paragraph (c) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Collects only as much personally identifiable information as is reasonably necessary to properly identify the consumer as required under the FCRA, section 610(a)(1), 15 U.S.C. 1681h(a)(1), and other applicable laws and regulations, and to process the transaction(s) requested by the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides information through the centralized source Web site and telephone number regarding how to make a request by all request methods required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides clear and easily understandable information and instructions to consumers, including, but not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Providing information on the progress of the consumer's request while the consumer is engaged in the process of requesting a file disclosure;
</P>
<P>(B) For a Web site request method, providing access to a “help” or “frequently asked questions” screen, which includes specific information that consumers might reasonably need to request file disclosures, the answers to questions that consumers might reasonably ask, and instructions whereby a consumer may file a complaint with the centralized source and with the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(C) In the event that a consumer requesting a file disclosure through the centralized source cannot be properly identified in accordance with the FCRA, section 610(a)(1), 15 U.S.C. 1681h(a)(1), and other applicable laws and regulations, providing a statement that the consumers' identity cannot be verified; and directions on how to complete the request, including what additional information or documentation will be required to complete the request, and how to submit such information; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement indicating that the consumer has reached the Web site or telephone number for ordering free annual credit reports as required by Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(3) Make available to consumers a standardized form established jointly by the nationwide consumer reporting agencies, which consumers may use to make a request for an annual file disclosure, either by mail or on the Web site required under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, from the centralized source required by this part. The form provided at appendix L to part 1022, may be used to comply with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirement to anticipate.</I> The nationwide consumer reporting agencies shall implement reasonable procedures to anticipate, and to respond to, the volume of consumers who will contact the centralized source through each request method, to request, or attempt to request, a file disclosure, including developing and implementing contingency plans to address circumstances that are reasonably likely to occur and that may materially and adversely impact the operation of the nationwide consumer reporting agency, a centralized source request method, or the centralized source.
</P>
<P>(1) The contingency plans required by this section shall include reasonable measures to minimize the impact of such circumstances on the operation of the centralized source and on consumers contacting, or attempting to contact, the centralized source.
</P>
<P>(i) Such reasonable measures to minimize impact shall include, but are not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, providing information to consumers on how to use another available request method;
</P>
<P>(B) The extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, communicating, to a consumer who attempts but is unable to make a request, the fact that a condition exists that has precluded the centralized source from accepting all requests, and the period of time after which the centralized source is reasonably anticipated to be able to accept the consumers' request for an annual file disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Taking all reasonable steps to restore the centralized source to normal operating status as quickly as reasonably practicable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasonable measures to minimize impact may also include, as appropriate, collecting request information but declining to accept the request for processing until a reasonable later time, provided that the consumer is clearly and prominently informed, to the extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, of when the request will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(2) A nationwide consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section if a centralized source request method is unavailable to accept requests for a reasonable period of time for purposes of conducting maintenance on the request method, provided that the other required request methods remain available during such time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures required.</I> If a nationwide consumer reporting agency has the ability to provide a consumer report to a third party relating to a consumer, regardless of whether the consumer report is owned by that nationwide consumer reporting agency or by an associated consumer reporting agency, that nationwide consumer reporting agency shall, upon proper identification in compliance with section 610(a)(1) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681h(a)(1), provide an annual file disclosure to such consumer if the consumer makes a request through the centralized source.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>High request volume and extraordinary request volume</I>—(1) <I>High request volume.</I> Provided that a nationwide consumer reporting agency has implemented reasonable procedures developed in accordance with Paragraph (c) of this section, entitled “requirement to anticipate,” the nationwide consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of Paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section for any period of time in which a centralized source request method, the centralized source, or the nationwide consumer reporting agency experiences high request volume, if the nationwide consumer reporting agency:
</P>
<P>(i) Collects all consumer request information and delays accepting the request for processing until a reasonable later time; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Clearly and prominently informs the consumer of when the request will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extraordinary request volume.</I> Provided that the nationwide consumer reporting agency has implemented reasonable procedures developed in compliance with Paragraph (c) of this section, entitled “requirement to anticipate,” the nationwide consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of Paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section for any period of time during which a particular centralized source request method, the centralized source, or the nationwide consumer reporting agency experiences extraordinary request volume.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Information use and disclosure.</I> Any personally identifiable information collected from consumers as a result of a request for annual file disclosure, or other disclosure required by the FCRA, made through the centralized source, may be used or disclosed by the centralized source or a nationwide consumer reporting agency only:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide the annual file disclosure or other disclosure required under the FCRA requested by the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) To process a transaction requested by the consumer at the same time as a request for annual file disclosure or other disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) To comply with applicable legal requirements, including those imposed by the FCRA and this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) To update personally identifiable information already maintained by the nationwide consumer reporting agency for the purpose of providing consumer reports, provided that the nationwide consumer reporting agency uses and discloses the updated personally identifiable information subject to the same restrictions that would apply, under any applicable provision of law or regulation, to the information updated or replaced.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Communications provided through centralized source.</I> (1) Any advertising or marketing for products or services, any communications or instructions that advertise or market any products or services, or any request to establish an account through the centralized source must be delayed until after the consumer has obtained his or her annual file disclosure.
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of requests made by mail or telephone, the consumer “has obtained his or her annual file disclosure” when the file disclosure is mailed, and the nationwide consumer reporting agency may include advertising for other products or services with the file disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of requests made through the centralized source Web site, the consumer “has obtained his or her annual file disclosure” when the file disclosure is delivered to the consumer through the Internet, and the nationwide consumer reporting agency may include advertising for other products or services with the file disclosure.
</P>
<P>(2) Any communications, instructions, or permitted advertising or marketing shall not interfere with, detract from, contradict, or otherwise undermine the purpose of the centralized source stated in Paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Examples of interfering, detracting, inconsistent, and/or undermining communications include:
</P>
<P>(i) Centralized source materials that represent, expressly or by implication, that a consumer must purchase a paid product or service in order to receive or to understand the annual file disclosure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Centralized source materials that represent, expressly or by implication, that annual file disclosures are not free, or that obtaining an annual file disclosure will have a negative impact on the consumers' credit standing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Centralized source materials that falsely represent, expressly or by implication, that a product or service offered ancillary to receipt of a file disclosure, such as a credit score or credit monitoring service, is free, or fail to clearly and prominently disclose that consumers must cancel a service, advertised as free for an initial period of time, to avoid being charged, if such is the case.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other practices prohibited through the centralized source.</I> The centralized source shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Contain hyperlinks to commercial or proprietary Web sites until after the consumer has obtained his or her annual file disclosure, except for technical transfers to a Web page on which consumers can request their free annual file disclosure; provided, however, that no hyperlinks to commercial Web sites shall appear on the initial page of the centralized source.
</P>
<P>(2) Require consumers to set up an account in connection with obtaining an annual file disclosure; or
</P>
<P>(3) Ask or require consumers to agree to terms or conditions in connection with obtaining an annual file disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.137" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.137   Streamlined process for requesting annual file disclosures from nationwide specialty consumer reporting agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Streamlined process requirements.</I> Any nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall have a streamlined process for accepting and processing consumer requests for annual file disclosures. The streamlined process required by this part shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Enable consumers to request annual file disclosures by a toll-free telephone number that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides clear and prominent instructions for requesting disclosures by any additional available request methods, that do not interfere with, detract from, contradict, or otherwise undermine the ability of consumers to obtain annual file disclosures through the streamlined process required by this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is published, in conjunction with all other published numbers for the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency, in any telephone directory in which any telephone number for the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency is published; and(iii) Is clearly and prominently posted on any Web site owned or maintained by the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency that is related to consumer reporting, along with instructions for requesting disclosures by any additional available request methods; and
</P>
<P>(2) Be designed, funded, implemented, maintained, and operated in a manner that:
</P>
<P>(i) Has adequate capacity to accept requests from the reasonably anticipated volume of consumers contacting the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency through the streamlined process, as determined in compliance with Paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Collects only as much personal information as is reasonably necessary to properly identify the consumer as required under the FCRA, section 610(a)(1), 15 U.S.C. 1681h(a)(1), and other applicable laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides clear and easily understandable information and instructions to consumers, including but not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Providing information on the status of the consumers request while the consumer is in the process of making a request;
</P>
<P>(B) For a Web site request method, providing access to a “help” or “frequently asked questions” screen, which includes more specific information that consumers might reasonably need to order their file disclosure, the answers to questions that consumers might reasonably ask, and instructions whereby a consumer may file a complaint with the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency and with the Bureau; and
</P>
<P>(C) In the event that a consumer requesting a file disclosure cannot be properly identified in accordance with the FCRA, section 610(a)(1), 15 U.S.C. 1681h(a)(1), and other applicable laws and regulations, providing a statement that the consumers identity cannot be verified; and directions on how to complete the request, including what additional information or documentation will be required to complete the request, and how to submit such information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirement to anticipate.</I> A nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall implement reasonable procedures to anticipate, and respond to, the volume of consumers who will contact the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency through the streamlined process to request, or attempt to request, file disclosures, including developing and implementing contingency plans to address circumstances that are reasonably likely to occur and that may materially and adversely impact the operation of the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency, a request method, or the streamlined process.
</P>
<P>(1) The contingency plans required by this section shall include reasonable measures to minimize the impact of such circumstances on the operation of the streamlined process and on consumers contacting, or attempting to contact, the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency through the streamlined process.
</P>
<P>(i) Such reasonable measures to minimize impact shall include, but are not necessarily limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) To the extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, providing information to consumers on how to use another available request method;
</P>
<P>(B) To the extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, communicating, to a consumer who attempts but is unable to make a request, the fact that a condition exists that has precluded the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency from accepting all requests, and the period of time after which the agency is reasonably anticipated to be able to accept the consumers request for an annual file disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(C) Taking all reasonable steps to restore the streamlined process to normal operating status as quickly as reasonably practicable under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(ii) Measures to minimize impact may also include, as appropriate, collecting request information but declining to accept the request for processing until a reasonable later time, provided that the consumer is clearly and prominently informed, to the extent reasonably practicable under the circumstances, of when the request will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(2) A nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section if the toll-free telephone number required by this part is unavailable to accept requests for a reasonable period of time for purposes of conducting maintenance on the request method, provided that the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency makes other request methods available to consumers during such time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>High request volume and extraordinary request volume</I>—(1) <I>High request volume.</I> Provided that the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency has implemented reasonable procedures developed in accordance with Paragraph (b) of this section, entitled “requirement to anticipate,” a nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of Paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for any period of time during which a streamlined process request method or the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency experiences high request volume, if the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency:
</P>
<P>(i) Collects all consumer request information and delays accepting the request for processing until a reasonable later time; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Clearly and prominently informs the consumer of when the request will be accepted for processing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extraordinary request volume.</I> Provided that the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency has implemented reasonable procedures developed in accordance with Paragraph (b) of this section, entitled “requirement to anticipate,” a nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall not be deemed in violation of Paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section for any period of time during which a streamlined process request method or the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency experiences extraordinary request volume.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information use and disclosure.</I> Any personally identifiable information collected from consumers as a result of a request for annual file disclosure, or other disclosure required by the FCRA, made through the streamlined process, may be used or disclosed by the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency only:
</P>
<P>(1) To provide the annual file disclosure or other disclosure required under the FCRA requested by the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) To process a transaction requested by the consumer at the same time as a request for annual file disclosure or other disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) To comply with applicable legal requirements, including those imposed by the FCRA and this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) To update personally identifiable information already maintained by the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency for the purpose of providing consumer reports, provided that the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency uses and discloses the updated personally identifiable information subject to the same restrictions that would apply, under any applicable provision of law or regulation, to the information updated or replaced.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requirement to accept or redirect requests.</I> If a consumer requests an annual file disclosure through a method other than the streamlined process established by the nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency in compliance with this part, a nationwide specialty consumer reporting agency shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Accept the consumers request; or
</P>
<P>(2) Instruct the consumer how to make the request using the streamlined process required by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.138" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.138   Prevention of deceptive marketing of free credit reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>AnnualCreditReport.com and (877) 322-8228</I> means the Uniform Resource Locator address “AnnualCreditReport.com” and toll-free telephone number, (877) 322-8228. These are the locator address and toll-free telephone number currently used by the centralized source. If the locator address or toll-free telephone number changes in the future, the new address or telephone number shall be substituted within a reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Free credit report</I> means a file disclosure prepared by or obtained from, directly or indirectly, a nationwide consumer reporting agency (as defined in section 603(p) of the FCRA), that is represented, either expressly or impliedly, to be available to the consumer at no cost if the consumer purchases a product or service, or agrees to purchase a product or service subject to cancellation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>General requirements for disclosures.</I> The disclosures covered by Paragraph (b) of this section shall contain only the prescribed content and comply with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) All disclosures shall be prominent;
</P>
<P>(ii) All disclosures shall be made in the same language as that principally used in the advertisement;
</P>
<P>(iii) Visual disclosures shall be easily readable; in a high degree of contrast from the immediate background on which it appears; in a format so that the disclosure is distinct from other text, such as inside a border; in a distinct type style, such as bold; and parallel to the base of the advertisement or screen;
</P>
<P>(iv) Audio disclosures shall be delivered in a slow and deliberate manner and in a reasonably understandable volume and pitch;
</P>
<P>(v) Program-length television, radio, or Internet-hosted multimedia advertisement disclosures shall be made at the beginning, near the middle, and at the end of the advertisement; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Nothing contrary to, inconsistent with, or that undermines the required disclosures shall be used in any advertisement in any medium, nor shall any audio, visual, or print technique be used that is likely to detract significantly from the communication of any disclosure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Medium-specific disclosures.</I> All offers of free credit reports shall prominently include the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Television advertisements.</I> (i) All advertisements for free credit reports broadcast on television shall include the following disclosure in close proximity to the first mention of a free credit report: “This is not the free credit report provided for by Federal law.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure shall appear at the same time in the audio and visual part of the advertisement. The visual disclosure shall be at least four percent of the vertical picture height and appear for a minimum of four seconds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Radio advertisements.</I> All advertisements for free credit reports broadcast on radio shall include the following disclosure in close proximity to the first mention of a free credit report: “This is not the free credit report provided for by Federal law.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Print advertisements.</I> All advertisements for free credit reports in print shall include the following disclosure in the form specified below and in close proximity to the first mention of a free credit report. The first line of the disclosure shall be centered and contain only the following language: “THIS NOTICE IS REQUIRED BY LAW.” Immediately below the first line of the disclosure the following language shall appear: “You have the right to a free credit report from <I>AnnualCreditReport.com</I> or (877) 322-8228, the ONLY authorized source under Federal law.” Each letter of the disclosure text shall be, at minimum, one-half the size of the largest character used in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Web sites.</I> Any Web site offering free credit reports must display the disclosure set forth in paragraphs (b)(4)(i), (ii), and (v) of this section on each page that mentions a free credit report and on each page of the ordering process. This disclosure shall be visible across the top of each page where the disclosure is required to appear; shall appear inside a box; and shall appear in the form specified below:
</P>
<P>(i) The first element of the disclosure shall be a header that is centered and shall consist of the following text: “THIS NOTICE IS REQUIRED BY LAW. Read more at <I>consumerfinance.gov/learnmore.</I>” Each letter of the header shall be one-half the size of the largest character of the disclosure text required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section. The reference to <I>consumerfinance.gov/learnmore</I> shall be an operational hyperlink, underlined, and in a color that is a high degree of contrast from the color of the other disclosure text and background color of the box. Until January 1, 2013, <I>www.ftc.gov</I> and the corresponding hyperlink may be substituted for “consumerfinance.gov/learmore” and the corresponding hyperlink;
</P>
<P>(ii) The second element of the disclosure shall appear below the header required by paragraph (b)(4)(i) and shall consist of the following text: “You have the right to a free credit report from <I>AnnualCreditReport.com</I> or (877) 322-8228, the ONLY authorized source under Federal law.” The reference to <I>AnnualCreditReport.com</I> shall be an operational hyperlink to the centralized source, underlined, and in the same color as the hyperlink to <I>consumerfinance.gov/learnmore</I> required in § 1022.138(b)(4)(i);
</P>
<P>(iii) The color of the text required by § 1022.138(b)(4)(i) and (ii) shall be in a high degree of contrast with the background color of the box;
</P>
<P>(iv) The background of the box shall be a solid color in a high degree of contrast from the background of the page and the color shall not appear elsewhere on the page;
</P>
<P>(v) The third element of the disclosure shall appear below the text required by paragraph (b)(4)(ii) and shall be an operational hyperlink to <I>AnnualCreditReport.com</I> that appears as a centered button containing the following language: “Take me to the authorized source.” The background of this button shall be the same color as the hyperlinks required by § 1022.138(b)(4)(i) and (ii) and the text shall be in a high degree of contrast to the background of the button;
</P>
<P>(vi) Each character of the text required in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) and (v) of this section shall be, at minimum, the same size as the largest character on the page, including characters in an image or graphic banner;
</P>
<P>(vii) Each character of the disclosure shall be displayed as plain text and in a sans serif font, such as Arial; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The space between each element of the disclosure required in paragraph (b)(i), (ii), and (v) of this section shall be, at minimum, the same size as the largest character on the page, including characters in an image or graphic banner. The space between the boundaries of the box and the text or button required in § 1022.138(b)(i), (ii), and (v) shall be, at minimum, twice the size of the vertical height of the largest character on the page, including characters in an image or graphic banner.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Internet-hosted multimedia advertising.</I> All advertisements for free credit reports disseminated through Internet-hosted multimedia in both audio and visual formats shall include the following disclosure in the form specified below and in close proximity to the first mention of a free credit report. The first line of the disclosure shall be centered and contain only the following language: “THIS NOTICE IS REQUIRED BY LAW.” Immediately below the first line of the disclosure the following language shall appear: “You have the right to a free credit report from <I>AnnualCreditReport.com</I> or (877) 322-8228, the ONLY authorized source under Federal law.” The disclosure shall appear at the same time in the audio and visual part of the advertisement. If the advertisement contains characters, the visual disclosure shall be, at minimum, the same size as the largest character on the advertisement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Telephone requests.</I> When consumers call any telephone number, other than the number of the centralized source, appearing in an advertisement that represents free credit reports are available at the number, consumers must receive the following audio disclosure at the first mention of a free credit report: “The following notice is required by law. You have the right to a free credit report from AnnualCreditReport.com or (877) 322-8228, the only authorized source under Federal law.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Telemarketing solicitations.</I> When telemarketing sales calls are made that include offers of free credit reports, the call must include at the first mention of a free credit report the following disclosure: “The following notice is required by law. You have the right to a free credit report from AnnualCreditReport.com or (877) 322-8228, the only authorized source under Federal law.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.139" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.12.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.139   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="O" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.13" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart O—Miscellaneous Duties of Consumer Reporting Agencies</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.140" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.13.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.140   Prohibition against circumventing or evading treatment as a consumer reporting agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A consumer reporting agency shall not circumvent or evade treatment as a “consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis,” as defined under section 603(p) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p), by any means, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Corporate organization, reorganization, structure, or restructuring, including merger, acquisition, dissolution, divestiture, or asset sale of a consumer reporting agency; or
</P>
<P>(2) Maintaining or merging public record and credit account information in a manner that is substantially equivalent to that described in Paragraphs (1) and (2) of section 603(p) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Circumvention through reorganization by data type.</I> XYZ Inc. is a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis. It restructures its operations so that public record information is assembled and maintained only by its corporate affiliate, ABC Inc. XYZ continues operating as a consumer reporting agency but ceases to comply with the FCRA obligations of a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, asserting that it no longer meets the definition found in FCRA section 603(p), because it no longer maintains public record information. XYZ's conduct is a circumvention or evasion of treatment as a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, and thus violates this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Circumvention through reorganization by regional operations.</I> PDQ Inc. is a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis. It restructures its operations so that corporate affiliates separately assemble and maintain all information on consumers residing in each state. PDQ continues to operate as a consumer reporting agency but ceases to comply with the FCRA obligations of a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, asserting that it no longer meets the definition found in FCRA section 603(p), because it no longer operates on a nationwide basis. PDQ's conduct is a circumvention or evasion of treatment as a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, and thus violates this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Circumvention by a newly formed entity.</I> Smith Co. is a new entrant in the marketplace for consumer reports that bear on a consumer's credit worthiness, standing and capacity. Smith Co. organizes itself into two affiliated companies: Smith Credit Co. and Smith Public Records Co. Smith Credit Co. assembles and maintains credit account information from persons who furnish that information regularly and in the ordinary course of business on consumers residing nationwide. Smith Public Records Co. assembles and maintains public record information on consumers nationwide. Neither Smith Co. nor its affiliated organizations comply with FCRA obligations of consumer reporting agencies that compile and maintain files on consumers on a nationwide basis. Smith Co.'s conduct is a circumvention or evasion of treatment as a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, and thus violates this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bona fide, arm's length transaction with unaffiliated party.</I> Foster Ltd. is a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis. Foster Ltd. sells its public record information business to an unaffiliated company in a bona fide, arm's length transaction. Foster Ltd. ceases to assemble, evaluate and maintain public record information on consumers residing nationwide, and ceases to offer reports containing public record information. Foster Ltd.'s conduct is not a circumvention or evasion of treatment as a consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis. Foster Ltd.'s conduct does not violate this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation on applicability.</I> Any person who is otherwise in violation of paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be in compliance with this part if such person is in compliance with all obligations imposed upon consumer reporting agencies that compile and maintain files on consumers on a nationwide basis under the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.141" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.13.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.141   Reasonable charges for certain disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to section 612(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681j(f), the charge imposed by a consumer reporting agency for a disclosure to the consumer pursuant to section 609 of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681g, shall not exceed the maximum allowable charge set by the Bureau.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 517, Jan. 31, 2019]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1022.142" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.13.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1022.142   Prohibition on inclusion of adverse information in consumer reporting in cases of human trafficking.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any consumer reporting agency as defined in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appropriate proof of identity</I> means proof of identity that meets the requirements in § 1022.123, for purposes of section 605C of the FCRA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consumer report</I> has the meaning provided in section 603(d) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(d).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the meaning provided in section 603(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Severe forms of trafficking in persons</I> has the meaning provided in section 103 of the Trafficking Victims Protection Act of 2000, 22 U.S.C. 7102(11).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Sex trafficking</I> has the meaning provided in section 103 of the Trafficking Victims Protection Act of 2000, as amended by section 108 of the Justice for Victims of Trafficking Act of 2015, 22 U.S.C. 7102(12).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Trafficking documentation</I> means one or more documents that satisfy paragraphs (b)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Victim determination.</I> Documentation that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is of a determination that a consumer is a victim of trafficking made by a:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Federal, State, or Tribal governmental entity; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Non-governmental organization or members of a human trafficking task force, including victim service providers affiliated with the organization or task force, authorized by a Federal, State, or Tribal governmental entity to make such a determination;
</P>
<P>(B) Is of a determination that a consumer is a victim of trafficking made by a court of competent jurisdiction or determination consisting of documents filed in a court of competent jurisdiction where a central issue in the case is whether the consumer is a victim of trafficking and the court has, at a minimum, affirmed the consumer's claim either by accepting certain pieces of evidence which are assumed to be true or finding that the there is no genuine dispute as to any material fact supporting a judgment in favor of the victim as a matter of law; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is of a signed statement by the consumer attesting that the consumer is a victim of trafficking if such statement or an accompanying document is signed or certified by a representative of an entity described in paragraph (b)(6)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Identified adverse items of information.</I> Documentation, which may consist of a statement prepared by the consumer or by any designated representative on behalf of a consumer (except for a credit repair organization as defined in section 403(3) of the Credit Repair Organizations Act, 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3), or an entity that would be a credit repair organization, but for section 403(3)(B)(i) of the Credit Repair Organizations Act, 15 U.S.C. 1679a(3)(B)(i)), that:
</P>
<P>(A) Identifies any items of adverse information that should not be furnished by a consumer reporting agency because the items resulted from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking of which the consumer is a victim; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must contain a preferred method for a consumer reporting agency to contact the consumer electronically or in writing such as an email address or physical address where mail can be received. A consumer reporting agency shall use only the consumer's preferred method of contact for communications under paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section about the consumer's submission and shall not use the consumer's preferred contact information for any other purpose.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Victim of trafficking</I> means a person who is a victim of a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on inclusion of adverse information of trafficking victims.</I> A consumer reporting agency may not furnish a consumer report containing any adverse item of information about a consumer that resulted from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking if the consumer has provided trafficking documentation as defined under paragraph (b)(6) of this section to the consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Method of submission to consumer reporting agencies</I>—(1) <I>Mailing and website address.</I> A consumer reporting agency must provide two mailing addresses for a consumer or consumer representative, as described in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, to send a submission consisting of an appropriate proof of identification under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and trafficking documentation under paragraph (b)(6) of this section. A consumer reporting agency may also establish a secure online website portal for a consumer to upload a submission. A consumer reporting agency must accept a submission sent to the mailing and, if applicable, website address used for disputes under section 611 of the FCRA, and must accept a submission sent to a mailing and, if applicable, website address dedicated to blocking adverse items of information resulting from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosing methods for submission.</I> A consumer reporting agency must add information on its publicly available website stating how submissions for the blocking of adverse items of information resulting from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking should be provided to a consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> A consumer reporting agency that compiles and maintains files on consumers on a nationwide basis, as defined in section 603(p) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681a(p), must:
</P>
<P>(i) Allocate a reasonable amount of personnel to respond to consumer inquiries about the process for and status of a consumer's submission at the toll-free telephone number used for disputes under section 611 of the FCRA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish a toll-free telephone number dedicated to addressing submissions from consumers seeking to block adverse items of information resulting from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Block of adverse information resulting from trafficking</I>—(1) <I>Block upon receipt of the submission.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, within four business days of receipt of the consumer's submission under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a consumer reporting agency must block the reporting of any adverse item of information identified by the consumer (or their representative) as resulting from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requirement to notify the consumer and attempt to resolve deficiencies</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Within five business days of receipt of the consumer's submission under paragraph (d) of this section, a consumer reporting agency must notify a consumer if additional information is necessary for the purpose of completing the submission and attempt to resolve any deficiency in the consumer's submission. A consumer reporting agency may only request additional information where the consumer reporting agency cannot reasonably confirm the appropriate proof of identity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the consumer or, if applicable, the consumer's representative, the consumer did not provide victim determination documentation under paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, or the consumer reporting agency cannot properly identify the adverse items of information under paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section. A consumer reporting agency may not, however, ask for information on the validity of the facts or circumstances detailed in the contents of the submitted trafficking documentation establishing the consumer is a victim of trafficking or whether the identified adverse information resulted from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking under paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of final determination.</I> A consumer reporting agency must make a final determination on the consumer's submission no later than 25 business days after receiving the submission provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final determination of the block.</I> Upon confirming completion of the submission from the consumer under paragraph (d)(1) of this section and in accordance with the requirements under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the consumer reporting agency must initiate or maintain the action described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section by blocking the reporting of the items of adverse information on the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Authority to decline or rescind a block.</I> A consumer reporting agency may decline to block, or may rescind any block of, adverse items of information resulting from a severe form of trafficking in persons or sex trafficking, in accordance with the timing requirements under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, only where the consumer reporting agency cannot reasonably confirm the appropriate proof of identity under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for the consumer, and, if applicable, the consumer's representative, the consumer cannot provide documentation consisting of a victim determination under paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, or the consumer reporting agency cannot properly identify the adverse items of information under paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section. A consumer reporting agency may not, however, decline to block or rescind any block of adverse information identified by the consumer or if applicable, the consumer's representative, based on the validity of the facts or circumstances detailed in the contents of the submitted trafficking documentation as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section. A consumer reporting agency may decline or rescind a block only after notifying the consumer using the method of contact specified by the consumer in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(B) of this section and attempting to resolve any deficiency in the consumer's submission as required in paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Notification to consumer of actions taken in response to the consumer's submission</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A consumer reporting agency must provide written or electronic notice to a consumer of actions performed in response to a consumer's submission no later than five business days after a final determination on a consumer's submission under paragraph (e)(3) of this section (or, if rescinding a previously applied block, five business days after rescinding under paragraph (e)(4) of this section). The consumer reporting agency must use the method of contact specified by the consumer in paragraph (b)(6)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> The notice must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the review of the submission is completed;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the outcome of the submission, including the reason(s) if the consumer reporting agency declined to block the adverse information identified by the consumer, or rescinded such a block, under paragraph (e)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) A consumer report, provided at no cost to the consumer, that is based upon the consumer's revised file (if applicable) as a result of the consumer's submission;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the procedure used to determine the outcome;
</P>
<P>(v) A method for contacting the consumer reporting agency to appeal the determination or revise the submission to cure any of the noted reasons for declining to block the adverse information identified by the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The web page consumers can use to submit complaints to the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Record retention.</I> For a period of seven years after the consumer's submission is received at the mailing or website address made available under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a consumer reporting agency must retain evidence of all such submissions and compliance with this section, including the actions taken by the consumer reporting agency under paragraphs (e)(1) through (e)(3), and (f) of this section and the reasons provided under paragraph (e)(4) of this section for declining to block or rescinding any block of items of adverse information identified by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Policies and procedures to ensure and maintain compliance.</I> A consumer reporting agency must establish and maintain written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure and monitor the compliance of the consumer reporting agency and its employees with the requirements of the paragraphs in this section. These written policies and procedures must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the activities of the consumer reporting agency and its employees.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 37723, June 24, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.14" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.32" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1022 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.33" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1022—Model Notices of Furnishing Negative Information
</HEAD>
<P>a. Although use of the model notices is not required, a financial institution that is subject to section 623(a)(7) of the FCRA shall be deemed to be in compliance with the notice requirement in section 623(a)(7) of the FCRA if the institution properly uses the model notices in this appendix (as applicable).
</P>
<P>b. A financial institution may use Model Notice B-1 if the institution provides the notice prior to furnishing negative information to a nationwide consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>c. A financial institution may use Model Notice B-2 if the institution provides the notice after furnishing negative information to a nationwide consumer reporting agency.
</P>
<P>d. Financial institutions may make certain changes to the language or format of the model notices without losing the safe harbor from liability provided by the model notices. The changes to the model notices may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the language in the model notices. Financial institutions making such extensive revisions will lose the safe harbor from liability that this appendix provides. Acceptable changes include, for example,
</P>
<P>1. Rearranging the order of the references to “late payment(s),” or “missed payment(s).”
</P>
<P>2. Pluralizing the terms “credit bureau,” “credit report,” and “account.”
</P>
<P>3. Specifying the particular type of account on which information may be furnished, such as “credit card account.”
</P>
<P>4. Rearranging in Model Notice B-1 the phrases “information about your account” and “to credit bureaus” such that it would read “We may report to credit bureaus information about your account.”
</P>
<HD1>Model Notice B-1
</HD1>
<P>We may report information about your account to credit bureaus. Late payments, missed payments, or other defaults on your account may be reflected in your credit report.
</P>
<HD1>Model Notice B-2
</HD1>
<P>We have told a credit bureau about a late payment, missed payment or other default on your account. This information may be reflected in your credit report.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.34" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1022—Model Forms for Opt-Out Notices
</HEAD>
<P>a. Although use of the model forms is not required, use of the model forms in this appendix (as applicable) complies with the requirement in section 624 of the Act for clear, conspicuous, and concise notices.
</P>
<P>b. Certain changes may be made to the language or format of the model forms without losing the protection from liability afforded by use of the model forms. These changes may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the language in the model forms. Persons making such extensive revisions will lose the safe harbor that this appendix provides. Acceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>1. Rearranging the order of the references to “your income,” “your account history,” and “your credit score.”
</P>
<P>2. Substituting other types of information for “income,” “account history,” or “credit score” for accuracy, such as “payment history,” “credit history,” “payoff status,” or “claims history.”
</P>
<P>3. Substituting a clearer and more accurate description of the affiliates providing or covered by the notice for phrases such as “the [ABC] group of companies,” including without limitation a statement that the entity providing the notice recently purchased the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>4. Substituting other types of affiliates covered by the notice for “credit card,” “insurance,” or “securities” affiliates.
</P>
<P>5. Omitting items that are not accurate or applicable. For example, if a person does not limit the duration of the opt-out period, the notice may omit information about the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>6. Adding a statement informing consumers how much time they have to opt out before shared eligibility information may be used to make solicitations to them.
</P>
<P>7. Adding a statement that the consumer may exercise the right to opt out at any time.
</P>
<P>8. Adding the following statement, if accurate: “If you previously opted out, you do not need to do so again.”
</P>
<P>9. Providing a place on the form for the consumer to fill in identifying information, such as his or her name and address.
</P>
<P>10. Adding disclosures regarding the treatment of opt-outs by joint consumers to comply with § 1022.23(a)(2) of this part.
</P>
<FP-1>C-1 Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-2 Model Form for Initial Opt-out Notice (Joint Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-3 Model Form for Renewal Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-4 Model Form for Renewal Notice (Joint Notice)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>C-5 Model Form for Voluntary “No Marketing” Notice
</FP-1>
<HD1>C-1—Model Form for Initial Opt-Out Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)—[Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD1>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from our affiliates. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from our affiliates.]
</P>
<P>• You may limit our affiliates in the [ABC] group of companies, such as our [credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that we collect and share with them. This information includes your [income], your [account history with us], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice to limit marketing offers from our affiliates will apply [until you tell us to change your choice]/[for x years from when you tell us your choice]/[for at least 5 years from when you tell us your choice]. [Include if the opt-out period expires.] Once that period expires, you will receive a renewal notice that will allow you to continue to limit marketing offers from our affiliates for [another x years]/[at least another 5 years].
</P>
<P>• [Include, if applicable, in a subsequent notice, including an annual notice, for consumers who may have previously opted out.] If you have already made a choice to limit marketing offers from our affiliates, you do not need to act again until you receive the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>To limit marketing offers, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<FP-2>• By telephone: 1-(877) ###-####
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</FP-2>
<P>[Company name]
</P>
<P>[Company address]
</P>
<P>—Do not allow your affiliates to use my personal information to market to me.
</P>
<HD1>C-2—Model Form for Initial Opt-Out Notice (Joint Notice)—[Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD1>
<P>• The [ABC group of companies] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from the [ABC] companies. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from the [ABC] companies.]
</P>
<P>• You may limit the [ABC] companies, such as the [ABC credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that they receive from other [ABC] companies. This information includes your [income], your [account history], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies will apply [until you tell us to change your choice]/[for x years from when you tell us your choice]/[for at least 5 years from when you tell us your choice]. [Include if the opt-out period expires.] Once that period expires, you will receive a renewal notice that will allow you to continue to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies for [another x years]/[at least another 5 years].
</P>
<P>• [Include, if applicable, in a subsequent notice, including an annual notice, for consumers who may have previously opted out.] If you have already made a choice to limit marketing offers from the [ABC] companies, you do not need to act again until you receive the renewal notice.
</P>
<P>To limit marketing offers, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<FP-2>• By telephone: 1-(877) ###-####
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</FP-2>
<P>[Company name]
</P>
<P>[Company address]
</P>
<P>—Do not allow any company [in the ABC group of companies] to use my personal information to market to me.
</P>
<HD1>C-3—Model Form for Renewal Notice (Single-Affiliate Notice)—[Renewing Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Renewing Your Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD1>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from our affiliates. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from our affiliates.]
</P>
<P>• You previously chose to limit our affiliates in the [ABC] group of companies, such as our [credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that we share with them. This information includes your [income], your [account history with us], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice has expired or is about to expire.
</P>
<P>To renew your choice to limit marketing for [x] more years, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<FP-2>• By telephone: 1-(877) ###-####
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</FP-2>
<P>[Company name]
</P>
<P>[Company address]
</P>
<P>—Renew my choice to limit marketing for [x] more years.
</P>
<HD1>C-4—Model Form for Renewal Notice (Joint Notice)—[Renewing Your Choice To Limit Marketing]/[Renewing Your Marketing Opt-Out]
</HD1>
<P>• The [ABC group of companies] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• [Optional: Federal law gives you the right to limit some but not all marketing from the [ABC] companies. Federal law also requires us to give you this notice to tell you about your choice to limit marketing from the [ABC] companies.]
</P>
<P>• You previously chose to limit the [ABC] companies, such as the [ABC credit card, insurance, and securities] affiliates, from marketing their products or services to you based on your personal information that they receive from other ABC companies. This information includes your [income], your [account history], and your [credit score].
</P>
<P>• Your choice has expired or is about to expire.
</P>
<P>To renew your choice to limit marketing for [x] more years, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<FP-2>• By telephone: 1-(877) ###-####
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</FP-2>
<P>[Company name]
</P>
<P>[Company address]
</P>
<FP-1>—Renew my choice to limit marketing for [x] more years.
</FP-1>
<HD1>C-5—Model Form for Voluntary “No Marketing” Notice—[Your Choice To Stop Marketing]
</HD1>
<P>• [Name of Affiliate] is providing this notice.
</P>
<P>• You may choose to stop all marketing from us and our affiliates.
</P>
<P>• [Your choice to stop marketing from us and our affiliates will apply until you tell us to change your choice.]
</P>
<P>To stop all marketing, contact us [include all that apply]:
</P>
<FP-2>• By telephone: 1 (877) ###-####
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• On the Web: <I>www.—.com</I>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>• By mail: Check the box and complete the form below, and send the form to:
</FP-2>
<P>[Company name]
</P>
<P>[Company address]
</P>
<FP-1>—Do not market to me.


</FP-1>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.35" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1022—Model Forms for Firm Offers of Credit or Insurance
</HEAD>
<P>In order to comply with § 1022.54, the following model notices may be used:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>English language model notice</I>—(1) <I>Short notice.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.000.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Long notice.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.001.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Spanish language model notice</I>—(1) <I>Short notice.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.002.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Long notice.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.003.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.36" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 1022—Interagency Guidelines Concerning the Accuracy and Integrity of Information Furnished to Consumer Reporting Agencies
</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau encourages voluntary furnishing of information to consumer reporting agencies. Section 1022.42 of this part requires each furnisher to establish and implement reasonable written policies and procedures concerning the accuracy and integrity of the information it furnishes to consumer reporting agencies. Under § 1022.42(b) of this part, a furnisher must consider the guidelines set forth below in developing its policies and procedures. In establishing these policies and procedures, a furnisher may include any of its existing policies and procedures that are relevant and appropriate. Section 1022.42(c) requires each furnisher to review its policies and procedures periodically and update them as necessary to ensure their continued effectiveness.
</P>
<HD1>I. Nature, Scope, and Objectives of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>(a) <I>Nature and Scope.</I> Section 1022.42(a) of this part requires that a furnisher's policies and procedures be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's activities. In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) The types of business activities in which the furnisher engages;
</P>
<P>(2) The nature and frequency of the information the furnisher provides to consumer reporting agencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) The technology used by the furnisher to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives.</I> A furnisher's policies and procedures should be reasonably designed to promote the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that is accurate, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies the appropriate consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reflects the terms of and liability for those accounts or other relationships; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reflects the consumer's performance and other conduct with respect to the account or other relationship;
</P>
<P>(2) To furnish information about accounts or other relationships with a consumer that has integrity, such that the furnished information:
</P>
<P>(i) Is substantiated by the furnisher's records at the time it is furnished;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is furnished in a form and manner that is designed to minimize the likelihood that the information may be incorrectly reflected in a consumer report; thus, the furnished information should:
</P>
<P>(A) Include appropriate identifying information about the consumer to whom it pertains; and
</P>
<P>(B) Be furnished in a standardized and clearly understandable form and manner and with a date specifying the time period to which the information pertains; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes the credit limit, if applicable and in the furnisher's possession;
</P>
<P>(3) To conduct reasonable investigations of consumer disputes and take appropriate actions based on the outcome of such investigations; and
</P>
<P>(4) To update the information it furnishes as necessary to reflect the current status of the consumer's account or other relationship, including, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Any transfer of an account (<I>e.g.,</I> by sale or assignment for collection) to a third party; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any cure of the consumer's failure to abide by the terms of the account or other relationship.
</P>
<HD1>II. Establishing and Implementing Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In establishing and implementing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should:
</P>
<P>(a) Identify practices or activities of the furnisher that can compromise the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by:
</P>
<P>(1) Reviewing its existing practices and activities, including the technological means and other methods it uses to furnish information to consumer reporting agencies and the frequency and timing of its furnishing of information;
</P>
<P>(2) Reviewing its historical records relating to accuracy or integrity or to disputes; reviewing other information relating to the accuracy or integrity of information provided by the furnisher to consumer reporting agencies; and considering the types of errors, omissions, or other problems that may have affected the accuracy or integrity of information it has furnished about consumers to consumer reporting agencies;
</P>
<P>(3) Considering any feedback received from consumer reporting agencies, consumers, or other appropriate parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Obtaining feedback from the furnisher's staff; and
</P>
<P>(5) Considering the potential impact of the furnisher's policies and procedures on consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of existing policies and procedures of the furnisher regarding the accuracy and integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies; consider whether new, additional, or different policies and procedures are necessary; and consider whether implementation of existing policies and procedures should be modified to enhance the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Evaluate the effectiveness of specific methods (including technological means) the furnisher uses to provide information to consumer reporting agencies; how those methods may affect the accuracy and integrity of the information it provides to consumer reporting agencies; and whether new, additional, or different methods (including technological means) should be used to provide information to consumer reporting agencies to enhance the accuracy and integrity of that information.
</P>
<HD1>III. Specific Components of Policies and Procedures
</HD1>
<P>In developing its policies and procedures, a furnisher should address the following, as appropriate:
</P>
<P>(a) Establishing and implementing a system for furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies that is appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the furnisher's business operations.
</P>
<P>(b) Using standard data reporting formats and standard procedures for compiling and furnishing data, where feasible, such as the electronic transmission of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintaining records for a reasonable period of time, not less than any applicable recordkeeping requirement, in order to substantiate the accuracy of any information about consumers it furnishes that is subject to a direct dispute.
</P>
<P>(d) Establishing and implementing appropriate internal controls regarding the accuracy and integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies, such as by implementing standard procedures and verifying random samples of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(e) Training staff that participates in activities related to the furnishing of information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies to implement the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(f) Providing for appropriate and effective oversight of relevant service providers whose activities may affect the accuracy or integrity of information about consumers furnished to consumer reporting agencies to ensure compliance with the policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(g) Furnishing information about consumers to consumer reporting agencies following mergers, portfolio acquisitions or sales, or other acquisitions or transfers of accounts or other obligations in a manner that prevents re-aging of information, duplicative reporting, or other problems that may similarly affect the accuracy or integrity of the information furnished.
</P>
<P>(h) Deleting, updating, and correcting information in the furnisher's records, as appropriate, to avoid furnishing inaccurate information.
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting reasonable investigations of disputes.
</P>
<P>(j) Designing technological and other means of communication with consumer reporting agencies to prevent duplicative reporting of accounts, erroneous association of information with the wrong consumer(s), and other occurrences that may compromise the accuracy or integrity of information provided to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(k) Providing consumer reporting agencies with sufficient identifying information in the furnisher's possession about each consumer about whom information is furnished to enable the consumer reporting agency properly to identify the consumer.
</P>
<P>(l) Conducting a periodic evaluation of its own practices, consumer reporting agency practices of which the furnisher is aware, investigations of disputed information, corrections of inaccurate information, means of communication, and other factors that may affect the accuracy or integrity of information furnished to consumer reporting agencies.
</P>
<P>(m) Complying with applicable requirements under the FCRA and its implementing regulations.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.37" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendixes F-G to Part 1022 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.38" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 1022—Model Forms for Risk-Based Pricing and Credit Score Disclosure Exception Notices
</HEAD>
<P>1. This appendix contains four model forms for risk-based pricing notices and three model forms for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exceptions. Each of the model forms is designated for use in a particular set of circumstances as indicated by the title of that model form.
</P>
<P>2. Model form H-1 is for use in complying with the general risk-based pricing notice requirements in Sec. 1022.72 if a credit score is not used in setting the material terms of credit. Model form H-2 is for risk-based pricing notices given in connection with account review if a credit score is not used in increasing the annual percentage rate. Model form H-3 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception for loans secured by residential real property. Model form H-4 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception for loans that are not secured by residential real property. Model form H-5 is for use in connection with the credit score disclosure exception when no credit score is available for a consumer. Model form H-6 is for use in complying with the general risk-based pricing notice requirements in Sec. 1022.72 if a credit score is used in setting the material terms of credit. Model form H-7 is for risk-based pricing notices given in connection with account review if a credit score is used in increasing the annual percentage rate. All forms contained in this appendix are models; their use is optional.
</P>
<P>3. A person may change the forms by rearranging the format or by making technical modifications to the language of the forms, in each case without modifying the substance of the disclosures. Any such rearrangement or modification of the language of the model forms may not be so extensive as to materially affect the substance, clarity, comprehensibility, or meaningful sequence of the forms. Persons making revisions with that effect will lose the benefit of the safe harbor for appropriate use of appendix H model forms. A person is not required to conduct consumer testing when rearranging the format of the model forms.
</P>
<P>a. Acceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Corrections or updates to telephone numbers, mailing addresses, or Web site addresses that may change over time.
</P>
<P>ii. The addition of graphics or icons, such as the person's corporate logo.
</P>
<P>iii. Alteration of the shading or color contained in the model forms.
</P>
<P>iv. Use of a different form of graphical presentation to depict the distribution of credit scores.
</P>
<P>v. Substitution of the words “credit” and “creditor” or “finance” and “finance company” for the terms “loan” and “lender.”
</P>
<P>vi. Including pre-printed lists of the sources of consumer reports or consumer reporting agencies in a “check-the-box” format.
</P>
<P>vii. Including the name of the consumer, transaction identification numbers, a date, and other information that will assist in identifying the transaction to which the form pertains.
</P>
<P>viii. Including the name of an agent, such as an auto dealer or other party, when providing the “Name of the Entity Providing the Notice.”
</P>
<P>ix. Until January 1, 2013, substituting “For more information about credit reports and your rights under Federal law, visit the Federal Reserve Board's Web site at <I>www.federalreserve.gov,</I> or the Federal Trade Commission's Web site at <I>www.ftc.gov.</I>” for “For more information about credit reports and your rights under Federal law, visit the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau's Web site at <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/learnmore.</I>”
</P>
<P>b. Unacceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Providing model forms on register receipts or interspersed with other disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. Eliminating empty lines and extra spaces between sentences within the same section.
</P>
<P>4. If a person uses an appropriate appendix H model form, or modifies a form in accordance with the above instructions, that person shall be deemed to be acting in compliance with the provisions of § 1022.73 or § 1022.74, as applicable, of this part. It is intended that appropriate use of Model Form H-3 also will comply with the disclosure that may be required under section 609(g) of the FCRA. Optional language in model forms H-6 and H-7 may be used to direct the consumer to the entity (which may be a consumer reporting agency or the creditor itself, for a proprietary score that meets the definition of a credit score) that provided the credit score for any questions about the credit score, along with the entity's contact information. Creditors may use or not use the additional language without losing the safe harbor, since the language is optional.
</P>
<P>H-1 Model form for risk-based pricing notice.
</P>
<P>H-2 Model form for account review risk-based pricing notice.
</P>
<P>H-3 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for credit secured by one to four units of residential real property.
</P>
<P>H-4 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for loans not secured by residential real property.
</P>
<P>H-5 Model form for credit score disclosure exception for loans where credit score is not available.
</P>
<P>H-6 Model form for risk-based pricing notice with credit score information.
</P>
<P>H-7 Model form for account review risk-based pricing notice with credit score information.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.004.gif"/>
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</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.39" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 1022—Summary of Consumer Identity Theft Rights
</HEAD>
<P>The prescribed form for this summary is a disclosure that is substantially similar to the Bureau's model summary with all information clearly and prominently displayed. A summary should accurately reflect changes to those items that may change over time (such as telephone numbers) to remain in compliance. Translations of this summary will be in compliance with the Bureau's prescribed model, provided that the translation is accurate and that it is provided in a language used by the recipient consumer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er18se18.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18se18.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er18se18.008.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 47033, Sept. 18, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.40" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 1022 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix K" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.41" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix K to Part 1022—Summary of Consumer Rights




</HEAD>
<P>The prescribed form for this summary is a disclosure that is substantially similar to the Bureau's model summary with all information clearly and prominently displayed. The list of Federal regulators that is included in the Bureau's prescribed summary may be provided separately so long as this is done in a clear and conspicuous way. A summary should accurately reflect changes to those items that may change over time (<I>e.g.,</I> dollar amounts, or telephone numbers and addresses of Federal agencies) to remain in compliance. Translations of this summary will be in compliance with the Bureau's prescribed model, provided that the translation is accurate and that it is provided in a language used by the recipient consumer.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er25au23.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25au23.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25au23.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er25au23.007.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 58066, Aug. 25, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix L" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.42" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix L to Part 1022—Standardized Form for Requesting Annual File Disclosures

</HEAD>
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</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.43" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M to Part 1022—Notice of Furnisher Responsibilities
</HEAD>
<P>The prescribed form for this disclosure is a separate document that is substantially similar to the Bureau's model notice with all information clearly and prominently displayed. Consumer reporting agencies may limit the disclosure to only those items that they know are relevant to the furnisher that will receive the notice.
</P>
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<img src="/graphics/er14no12.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14no12.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14no12.047.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 67750, Nov. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.44" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 1022—Notice of User Responsibilities
</HEAD>
<P>The prescribed form for this disclosure is a separate document that is substantially similar to the Bureau's notice with all information clearly and prominently displayed. Consumer reporting agencies may limit the disclosure to only those items that they know are relevant to the user that will receive the notice.
</P>
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<img src="/graphics/er14no12.056.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 67754, Nov. 14, 2012]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix O" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.18.15.1.1.45" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix O to Part 1022—Reasonable Charges for Certain Disclosures


</HEAD>
<P>Section 612(f) of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681j(f), directs the Bureau to increase the maximum allowable charge a consumer reporting agency may impose for making a disclosure to the consumer pursuant to section 609 of the FCRA, 15 U.S.C. 1681g, on January 1 of each year, based proportionally on changes in the Consumer Price Index, with fractional changes rounded to the nearest fifty cents. The Bureau will publish notice of the maximum allowable charge each year by amending this appendix. For calendar year 2026, the maximum allowable charge is $16.00. For historical purposes:
</P>
<P>1. For calendar year 2012, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $11.50.
</P>
<P>2. For calendar year 2013, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $11.50.
</P>
<P>3. For calendar year 2014, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $11.50.
</P>
<P>4. For calendar year 2015, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.00.
</P>
<P>5. For calendar year 2016, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.00.
</P>
<P>6. For calendar year 2017, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.00.
</P>
<P>7. For calendar year 2018, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.00.
</P>
<P>8. For calendar year 2019, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.50.
</P>
<P>9. For calendar year 2020, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $12.50.
</P>
<P>10. For calendar year 2021, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $13.00.
</P>
<P>11. For calendar year 2022, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $13.50.
</P>
<P>12. For calendar year 2023, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $14.50.
</P>
<P>13. For calendar year 2024, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $15.50.
</P>
<P>14. For calendar year 2025, the maximum allowable disclosure charge was $15.50.
</P>
<P>15. For calendar year 2026, the maximum allowable disclosure charge is $16.00.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 57889, Dec. 15, 2025]
















</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1024" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1024—REAL ESTATE SETTLEMENT PROCEDURES ACT (REGULATION X)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2603-2605, 2607, 2609, 2617, 5512, 5532, 5581.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.1" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.1   Designation.</HEAD>
<P>This part, known as Regulation X, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et. seq.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.2" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory terms.</I> All terms defined in RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602) are used in accordance with their statutory meaning unless otherwise defined in paragraph (b) of this section or elsewhere in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other terms.</I> As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means the submission of a borrower's financial information in anticipation of a credit decision relating to a federally related mortgage loan, which shall include the borrower's name, the borrower's monthly income, the borrower's social security number to obtain a credit report, the property address, an estimate of the value of the property, the mortgage loan amount sought, and any other information deemed necessary by the loan originator. An application may either be in writing or electronically submitted, including a written record of an oral application.
</P>
<P><I>Balloon payment</I> has the same meaning as “balloon payment” under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means a day on which the offices of the business entity are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of the entity's business functions.
</P>
<P><I>Changed circumstances</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Acts of God, war, disaster, or other emergency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information particular to the borrower or transaction that was relied on in providing the GFE and that changes or is found to be inaccurate after the GFE has been provided. This may include information about the credit quality of the borrower, the amount of the loan, the estimated value of the property, or any other information that was used in providing the GFE;
</P>
<P>(iii) New information particular to the borrower or transaction that was not relied on in providing the GFE; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Other circumstances that are particular to the borrower or transaction, including boundary disputes, the need for flood insurance, or environmental problems.
</P>
<P>(2) Changed circumstances do not include:
</P>
<P>(i) The borrower's name, the borrower's monthly income, the property address, an estimate of the value of the property, the mortgage loan amount sought, and any information contained in any credit report obtained by the loan originator prior to providing the GFE, unless the information changes or is found to be inaccurate after the GFE has been provided; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Market price fluctuations by themselves.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> means, in the case of property improvement loans, a seller, contractor, or supplier of goods or services. In the case of manufactured home loans, “dealer” means one who engages in the business of manufactured home retail sales.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer loan or dealer consumer credit contract</I> means, generally, any arrangement in which a dealer assists the borrower in obtaining a federally related mortgage loan from the funding lender and then assigns the dealer's legal interests to the funding lender and receives the net proceeds of the loan. The funding lender is the lender for the purposes of the disclosure requirements of this part. If a dealer is a “creditor” as defined under the definition of “federally related mortgage loan” in this part, the dealer is the lender for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Effective date of transfer</I> is defined in section 6(i)(1) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2605(i)(1)). In the case of a home equity conversion mortgage or reverse mortgage as referenced in this section, the effective date of transfer is the transfer date agreed upon by the transferee servicer and the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Federally related mortgage loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any loan (other than temporary financing, such as a construction loan):
</P>
<P>(i) That is secured by a first or subordinate lien on residential real property, including a refinancing of any secured loan on residential real property, upon which there is either:
</P>
<P>(A) Located or, following settlement, will be constructed using proceeds of the loan, a structure or structures designed principally for occupancy of from one to four families (including individual units of condominiums and cooperatives and including any related interests, such as a share in the cooperative or right to occupancy of the unit); or
</P>
<P>(B) Located or, following settlement, will be placed using proceeds of the loan, a manufactured home; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For which one of the following paragraphs applies. The loan:
</P>
<P>(A) Is made in whole or in part by any lender that is either regulated by or whose deposits or accounts are insured by any agency of the Federal Government;
</P>
<P>(B) Is made in whole or in part, or is insured, guaranteed, supplemented, or assisted in any way:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) By the Secretary of the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) or any other officer or agency of the Federal Government; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Under or in connection with a housing or urban development program administered by the Secretary of HUD or a housing or related program administered by any other officer or agency of the Federal Government;
</P>
<P>(C) Is intended to be sold by the originating lender to the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (or its successors), or a financial institution from which the loan is to be purchased by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (or its successors);
</P>
<P>(D) Is made in whole or in part by a “creditor,” as defined in section 103(g) of the Consumer Credit Protection Act (15 U.S.C. 1602(g)), that makes or invests in residential real estate loans aggregating more than $1,000,000 per year. For purposes of this definition, the term “creditor” does not include any agency or instrumentality of any State, and the term “residential real estate loan” means any loan secured by residential real property, including single-family and multifamily residential property;
</P>
<P>(E) Is originated either by a dealer or, if the obligation is to be assigned to any maker of mortgage loans specified in paragraphs (1)(ii)(A) through (D) of this definition, by a mortgage broker; or
</P>
<P>(F) Is the subject of a home equity conversion mortgage, also frequently called a “reverse mortgage,” issued by any maker of mortgage loans specified in paragraphs (1)(ii)(A) through (D) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) Any installment sales contract, land contract, or contract for deed on otherwise qualifying residential property is a federally related mortgage loan if the contract is funded in whole or in part by proceeds of a loan made by any maker of mortgage loans specified in paragraphs (1)(ii) (A) through (D) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(3) If the residential real property securing a mortgage loan is not located in a State, the loan is not a federally related mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Good faith estimate</I> or <I>GFE</I> means an estimate of settlement charges a borrower is likely to incur, as a dollar amount, and related loan information, based upon common practice and experience in the locality of the mortgaged property, as provided on the form prescribed in § 1024.7 and prepared in accordance with the Instructions in appendix C to this part.
</P>
<P><I>HUD</I> means the Department of Housing and Urban Development.
</P>
<P><I>HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement</I> (also <I>HUD-1 or HUD-1A</I>) means the statement that is prescribed in this part for setting forth settlement charges in connection with either the purchase or the refinancing (or other subordinate lien transaction) of 1- to 4-family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Lender</I> means, generally, the secured creditor or creditors named in the debt obligation and document creating the lien. For loans originated by a mortgage broker that closes a federally related mortgage loan in its own name in a table funding transaction, the lender is the person to whom the obligation is initially assigned at or after settlement. A lender, in connection with dealer loans, is the lender to whom the loan is assigned, unless the dealer meets the definition of creditor as defined under “federally related mortgage loan” in this section. See also § 1024.5(b)(7), secondary market transactions.
</P>
<P><I>Loan originator</I> means a lender or mortgage broker.
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured home</I> is defined in HUD regulation 24 CFR 3280.2.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage broker</I> means a person (other than an employee of a lender) that renders origination services and serves as an intermediary between a borrower and a lender in a transaction involving a federally related mortgage loan, including such a person that closes the loan in its own name in a table-funded transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgaged property</I> means the real property that is security for the federally related mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Origination service</I> means any service involved in the creation of a federally related mortgage loan, including but not limited to the taking of the loan application, loan processing, the underwriting and funding of the loan, and the processing and administrative services required to perform these functions.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> is defined in section 3(5) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Prepayment penalty</I> has the same meaning as “prepayment penalty” under Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).
</P>
<P><I>Public Guidance Documents</I> means <E T="04">Federal Register</E> documents adopted or published, that the Bureau may amend from time-to-time by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> These documents are also available from the Bureau. Requests for copies of Public Guidance Documents should be directed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552.
</P>
<P><I>Refinancing</I> means a transaction in which an existing obligation that was subject to a secured lien on residential real property is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same borrower and with the same or a new lender. The following shall not be treated as a refinancing, even when the existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation with the same lender (this definition of “refinancing” as to transactions with the same lender is similar to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.20(a)):
</P>
<P>(1) A renewal of a single payment obligation with no change in the original terms;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction in the annual percentage rate as computed under the Truth in Lending Act with a corresponding change in the payment schedule;
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement involving a court proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) A workout agreement, in which a change in the payment schedule or change in collateral requirements is agreed to as a result of the consumer's default or delinquency, unless the rate is increased or the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid balance plus earned finance charges and premiums for continuation of allowable insurance; and
</P>
<P>(5) The renewal of optional insurance purchased by the consumer that is added to an existing transaction, if disclosures relating to the initial purchase were provided.
</P>
<P><I>Regulation Z</I> means the regulations issued by the Bureau (12 CFR part 1026) to implement the Federal Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>), and includes the Commentary on Regulation Z.
</P>
<P><I>Required use</I> means a situation in which a person must use a particular provider of a settlement service in order to have access to some distinct service or property, and the person will pay for the settlement service of the particular provider or will pay a charge attributable, in whole or in part, to the settlement service. However, the offering of a package (or combination of settlement services) or the offering of discounts or rebates to consumers for the purchase of multiple settlement services does not constitute a required use. Any package or discount must be optional to the purchaser. The discount must be a true discount below the prices that are otherwise generally available, and must not be made up by higher costs elsewhere in the settlement process.
</P>
<P><I>RESPA</I> means the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means a person responsible for the servicing of a federally related mortgage loan (including the person who makes or holds such loan if such person also services the loan). The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), in connection with assets acquired, assigned, sold, or transferred pursuant to section 13(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or as receiver or conservator of an insured depository institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The National Credit Union Administration (NCUA), in connection with assets acquired, assigned, sold, or transferred pursuant to section 208 of the Federal Credit Union Act or as conservator or liquidating agent of an insured credit union; and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal National Mortgage Corporation (FNMA); the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac); the FDIC; HUD, including the Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA) and the Federal Housing Administration (FHA) (including cases in which a mortgage insured under the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1701 <I>et seq.</I>) is assigned to HUD); the NCUA; the Farm Service Agency; and the Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), in any case in which the assignment, sale, or transfer of the servicing of the federally related mortgage loan is preceded by termination of the contract for servicing the loan for cause, commencement of proceedings for bankruptcy of the servicer, commencement of proceedings by the FDIC for conservatorship or receivership of the servicer (or an entity by which the servicer is owned or controlled), or commencement of proceedings by the NCUA for appointment of a conservator or liquidating agent of the servicer (or an entity by which the servicer is owned or controlled).
</P>
<P><I>Servicing</I> means receiving any scheduled periodic payments from a borrower pursuant to the terms of any federally related mortgage loan, including amounts for escrow accounts under section 10 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2609), and making the payments to the owner of the loan or other third parties of principal and interest and such other payments with respect to the amounts received from the borrower as may be required pursuant to the terms of the mortgage servicing loan documents or servicing contract. In the case of a home equity conversion mortgage or reverse mortgage as referenced in this section, servicing includes making payments to the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Settlement</I> means the process of executing legally binding documents regarding a lien on property that is subject to a federally related mortgage loan. This process may also be called “closing” or “escrow” in different jurisdictions.
</P>
<P><I>Settlement service</I> means any service provided in connection with a prospective or actual settlement, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Origination of a federally related mortgage loan (including, but not limited to, the taking of loan applications, loan processing, and the underwriting and funding of such loans);
</P>
<P>(2) Rendering of services by a mortgage broker (including counseling, taking of applications, obtaining verifications and appraisals, and other loan processing and origination services, and communicating with the borrower and lender);
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of any services related to the origination, processing or funding of a federally related mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(4) Provision of title services, including title searches, title examinations, abstract preparation, insurability determinations, and the issuance of title commitments and title insurance policies;
</P>
<P>(5) Rendering of services by an attorney;
</P>
<P>(6) Preparation of documents, including notarization, delivery, and recordation;
</P>
<P>(7) Rendering of credit reports and appraisals;
</P>
<P>(8) Rendering of inspections, including inspections required by applicable law or any inspections required by the sales contract or mortgage documents prior to transfer of title;
</P>
<P>(9) Conducting of settlement by a settlement agent and any related services;
</P>
<P>(10) Provision of services involving mortgage insurance;
</P>
<P>(11) Provision of services involving hazard, flood, or other casualty insurance or homeowner's warranties;
</P>
<P>(12) Provision of services involving mortgage life, disability, or similar insurance designed to pay a mortgage loan upon disability or death of a borrower, but only if such insurance is required by the lender as a condition of the loan;
</P>
<P>(13) Provision of services involving real property taxes or any other assessments or charges on the real property;
</P>
<P>(14) Rendering of services by a real estate agent or real estate broker; and
</P>
<P>(15) Provision of any other services for which a settlement service provider requires a borrower or seller to pay.
</P>
<P><I>Special information booklet</I> means the booklet adopted pursuant to section 5 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2604) to help persons understand the nature and costs of settlement services. The Bureau publishes the form of the special information booklet in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or by other public notice. The Bureau may issue or approve additional booklets or alternative booklets by publication of a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Table funding</I> means a settlement at which a loan is funded by a contemporaneous advance of loan funds and an assignment of the loan to the person advancing the funds. A table-funded transaction is not a secondary market transaction (see § 1024.5(b)(7)).
</P>
<P><I>Third party</I> means a settlement service provider other than a loan originator.
</P>
<P><I>Title company</I> means any institution, or its duly authorized agent, that is qualified to issue title insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Title service</I> means any service involved in the provision of title insurance (lender's or owner's policy), including but not limited to: Title examination and evaluation; preparation and issuance of title commitment; clearance of underwriting objections; preparation and issuance of a title insurance policy or policies; and the processing and administrative services required to perform these functions. The term also includes the service of conducting a settlement.
</P>
<P><I>Tolerance</I> means the maximum amount by which the charge for a category or categories of settlement costs may exceed the amount of the estimate for such category or categories on a GFE.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 10873, Feb. 14, 2013; 88 FR 16542, Mar. 20, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.3" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.3   E-Sign applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The disclosures required by this part may be provided in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10873, Feb. 14, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.4" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.4   Reliance upon rule, regulation, or interpretation by the Bureau.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rule, regulation or interpretation.</I> (1) For purposes of sections 19(a) and (b) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2617(a) and (b)), only the following constitute a rule, regulation or interpretation of the Bureau:
</P>
<P>(i) All provisions, including appendices and supplements, of this part. Any other document referred to in this part is not incorporated in this part unless it is specifically set out in this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other document that is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> by the Bureau and states that it is an “interpretation,” “interpretive rule,” “commentary,” or a “statement of policy” for purposes of section 19(a) of RESPA. Except in unusual circumstances, interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official interpretation to this part, which will be amended periodically.
</P>
<P>(2) A “rule, regulation, or interpretation thereof by the Bureau” for purposes of section 19(b) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2617(b)) shall not include the special information booklet prescribed by the Bureau or any other statement or issuance, whether oral or written, by an officer or representative of the Bureau, letter or memorandum by the Director, General Counsel, or other officer or employee of the Bureau, preamble to a regulation or other issuance of the Bureau, Public Guidance Document, report to Congress, pleading, affidavit or other document in litigation, pamphlet, handbook, guide, telegraphic communication, explanation, instructions to forms, speech or other material of any nature which is not specifically included in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) All informal counsel's opinions and staff interpretations issued by HUD before November 2, 1992, were withdrawn as of that date. Courts and administrative agencies, however, may use previous opinions to determine the validity of conduct under the previous Regulation X.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 10874, Feb. 14, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.5" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.5   Coverage of RESPA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> RESPA and this part apply to federally related mortgage loans, except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business purpose loans.</I> An extension of credit primarily for a business, commercial, or agricultural purpose, as defined by 12 CFR 1026.3(a)(1) of Regulation Z. Persons may rely on Regulation Z in determining whether the exemption applies.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Temporary financing.</I> Temporary financing, such as a construction loan. The exemption for temporary financing does not apply to a loan made to finance construction of 1- to 4-family residential property if the loan is used as, or may be converted to, permanent financing by the same lender or is used to finance transfer of title to the first user. If a lender issues a commitment for permanent financing, with or without conditions, the loan is covered by this part. Any construction loan for new or rehabilitated 1- to 4-family residential property, other than a loan to a <I>bona fide</I> builder (a person who regularly constructs 1- to 4-family residential structures for sale or lease), is subject to this part if its term is for two years or more. A “bridge loan” or “swing loan” in which a lender takes a security interest in otherwise covered 1- to 4-family residential property is not covered by RESPA and this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Vacant land.</I> Any loan secured by vacant or unimproved property, unless within two years from the date of the settlement of the loan, a structure or a manufactured home will be constructed or placed on the real property using the loan proceeds. If a loan for a structure or manufactured home to be placed on vacant or unimproved property will be secured by a lien on that property, the transaction is covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assumption without lender approval.</I> Any assumption in which the lender does not have the right expressly to approve a subsequent person as the borrower on an existing federally related mortgage loan. Any assumption in which the lender's permission is both required and obtained is covered by RESPA and this part, whether or not the lender charges a fee for the assumption.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Loan conversions.</I> Any conversion of a federally related mortgage loan to different terms that are consistent with provisions of the original mortgage instrument, as long as a new note is not required, even if the lender charges an additional fee for the conversion.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Secondary market transactions.</I> A bona fide transfer of a loan obligation in the secondary market is not covered by RESPA and this part, except with respect to RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2605) and subpart C of this part (§§ 1024.30-1024.41). In determining what constitutes a <I>bona fide</I> transfer, the Bureau will consider the real source of funding and the real interest of the funding lender. Mortgage broker transactions that are table-funded are not secondary market transactions. Neither the creation of a dealer loan or dealer consumer credit contract, nor the first assignment of such loan or contract to a lender, is a secondary market transaction (see § 1024.2).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to State laws.</I> (1) State laws that are inconsistent with RESPA or this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. However, RESPA and these regulations do not annul, alter, affect, or exempt any person subject to their provisions from complying with the laws of any State with respect to settlement practices, except to the extent of the inconsistency.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon request by any person, the Bureau is authorized to determine if inconsistencies with State law exist; in doing so, the Bureau shall consult with appropriate Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(i) The Bureau may not determine that a State law or regulation is inconsistent with any provision of RESPA or this part, if the Bureau determines that such law or regulation gives greater protection to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) In determining whether provisions of State law or regulations concerning affiliated business arrangements are inconsistent with RESPA or this part, the Bureau may not construe those provisions that impose more stringent limitations on affiliated business arrangements as inconsistent with RESPA so long as they give more protection to consumers and/or competition.
</P>
<P>(3) Any person may request the Bureau to determine whether an inconsistency exists by submitting to the address established by the Bureau to request an official interpretation, a copy of the State law in question, any other law or judicial or administrative opinion that implements, interprets or applies the relevant provision, and an explanation of the possible inconsistency. A determination by the Bureau that an inconsistency with State law exists will be made by publication of a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> “Law” as used in this section includes regulations and any enactment which has the force and effect of law and is issued by a State or any political subdivision of a State.
</P>
<P>(4) A specific preemption of conflicting State laws regarding notices and disclosures of mortgage servicing transfers is set forth in § 1024.33(d).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Partial exemptions for certain mortgage loans.</I> Sections 1024.6, 1024.7, 1024.8, 1024.10, and 1024.33(a) do not apply to a federally related mortgage loan:
</P>
<P>(1) That is subject to the special disclosure requirements for certain consumer credit transactions secured by real property set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.19(e), (f), and (g); or
</P>
<P>(2) That satisfies the criteria in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.3(h).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 10874, Feb. 14, 2013; 78 FR 44717, July 24, 2013; 78 FR 80104, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 8775, Feb. 19, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Mortgage Settlement and Escrow Accounts</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.6" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.6   Special information booklet at time of loan application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lender to provide special information booklet.</I> Subject to the exceptions set forth in this paragraph, the lender shall provide a copy of the special information booklet to a person from whom the lender receives, or for whom the lender prepares, a written application for a federally related mortgage loan. When two or more persons apply together for a loan, the lender is in compliance if the lender provides a copy of the booklet to one of the persons applying.
</P>
<P>(1) The lender shall provide the special information booklet by delivering it or placing it in the mail to the applicant not later than three business days (as that term is defined in § 1024.2) after the application is received or prepared. However, if the lender denies the borrower's application for credit before the end of the three-business-day period, then the lender need not provide the booklet to the borrower. If a borrower uses a mortgage broker, the mortgage broker shall distribute the special information booklet and the lender need not do so. The intent of this provision is that the applicant receive the special information booklet at the earliest possible date.
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a federally related mortgage loan involving an open-ended credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), a lender or mortgage broker that provides the borrower with a copy of the brochure entitled “When Your Home is On the Line: What You Should Know About Home Equity Lines of Credit”, or any successor brochure issued by the Bureau, is deemed to be in compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In the categories of transactions set forth at the end of this paragraph, the lender or mortgage broker does not have to provide the booklet to the borrower. Under the authority of section 19(a) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2617(a)), the Bureau may issue a revised or separate special information booklet that deals with these transactions, or the Bureau may choose to endorse the forms or booklets of other Federal agencies. In such an event, the requirements for delivery by lenders and the availability of the booklet or alternate materials for these transactions will be set forth in a Notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> This paragraph shall apply to the following transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Refinancing transactions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Closed-end loans, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(10) of Regulation Z, when the lender takes a subordinate lien;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reverse mortgages; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other federally related mortgage loan whose purpose is not the purchase of a 1- to 4-family residential property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Revision.</I> The Bureau may from time to time revise the special information booklet, publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reproduction.</I> The special information booklet may be reproduced in any form, provided that no change is made other than as provided under paragraph (d) of this section. The special information booklet may not be made a part of a larger document for purposes of distribution under RESPA and this section. Any color, size and quality of paper, type of print, and method of reproduction may be used so long as the booklet is clearly legible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permissible changes.</I> (1) No changes to, deletions from, or additions to the special information booklet currently prescribed by the Bureau shall be made other than the permissible changes specified in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section or changes as otherwise approved in writing by the Bureau in accordance with the procedures described in this paragraph (d). A request to the Bureau for approval of any changes other than the permissible changes specified in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section shall be submitted in writing to the address indicated in the definition of <I>Public Guidance Documents</I> in § 1024.2, stating the reasons why the applicant believes such changes, deletions, or additions are necessary.
</P>
<P>(2) The cover of the booklet may be in any form and may contain any drawings, pictures, or artwork, provided that the words “settlement costs” are used in the title. Names, addresses and telephone numbers of the lender or others and similar information may appear on the cover, but no discussion of the matters covered in the booklet shall appear on the cover. 
</P>
<P>(3) The special information booklet may be translated into languages other than English.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 72370, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.7" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.7   Good faith estimate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Lender to provide.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a), (b), or (h) of this section, not later than 3 business days after a lender receives an application, or information sufficient to complete an application, the lender must provide the applicant with a GFE. In the case of dealer loans, the lender must either provide the GFE or ensure that the dealer provides the GFE.
</P>
<P>(2) The lender must provide the GFE to the loan applicant by hand delivery, by placing it in the mail, or, if the applicant agrees, by fax, email, or other electronic means.
</P>
<P>(3) The lender is not required to provide the applicant with a GFE if, before the end of the 3-business-day period:
</P>
<P>(i) The lender denies the application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant withdraws the application.
</P>
<P>(4) The lender is not permitted to charge, as a condition for providing a GFE, any fee for an appraisal, inspection, or other similar settlement service. The lender may, at its option, charge a fee limited to the cost of a credit report. The lender may not charge additional fees until after the applicant has received the GFE and indicated an intention to proceed with the loan covered by that GFE. If the GFE is mailed to the applicant, the applicant is considered to have received the GFE 3 calendar days after it is mailed, not including Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P>(5) The lender may at any time collect from the loan applicant any information that it requires in addition to the required application information. However, the lender is not permitted to require, as a condition for providing a GFE, that an applicant submit supplemental documentation to verify the information provided on the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mortgage broker to provide.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (a), (b), or (h) of this section, either the lender or the mortgage broker must provide a GFE not later than 3 business days after a mortgage broker receives either an application or information sufficient to complete an application. The lender is responsible for ascertaining whether the GFE has been provided. If the mortgage broker has provided a GFE, the lender is not required to provide an additional GFE.
</P>
<P>(2) The mortgage broker must provide the GFE by hand delivery, by placing it in the mail, or, if the applicant agrees, by fax, email, or other electronic means.
</P>
<P>(3) The mortgage broker is not required to provide the applicant with a GFE if, before the end of the 3-business-day period:
</P>
<P>(i) The mortgage broker or lender denies the application; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant withdraws the application.
</P>
<P>(4) The mortgage broker is not permitted to charge, as a condition for providing a GFE, any fee for an appraisal, inspection, or other similar settlement service. The mortgage broker may, at its option, charge a fee limited to the cost of a credit report. The mortgage broker may not charge additional fees until after the applicant has received the GFE and indicated an intention to proceed with the loan covered by that GFE. If the GFE is mailed to the applicant, the applicant is considered to have received the GFE 3 calendar days after it is mailed, not including Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P>(5) The mortgage broker may at any time collect from the loan applicant any information that it requires in addition to the required application information. However, the mortgage broker is not permitted to require, as a condition for providing a GFE, that an applicant submit supplemental documentation to verify the information provided on the application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Availability of GFE terms.</I> Except as provided in this paragraph, the estimate of the charges and terms for all settlement services must be available for at least 10 business days from when the GFE is provided, but it may remain available longer, if the loan originator extends the period of availability. The estimate for the following charges are excepted from this requirement: the interest rate, charges and terms dependent upon the interest rate, which includes the charge or credit for the interest rate chosen, the adjusted origination charges, and per diem interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and form of GFE.</I> The GFE form is set out in appendix C to this part. The loan originator must prepare the GFE in accordance with the requirements of this section and the Instructions in appendix C to this part. The instructions in appendix C to this part allow for flexibility in the preparation and distribution of the GFE in hard copy and electronic format.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tolerances for amounts included on GFE.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, the actual charges at settlement may not exceed the amounts included on the GFE for:
</P>
<P>(i) The origination charge;
</P>
<P>(ii) While the borrower's interest rate is locked, the credit or charge for the interest rate chosen;
</P>
<P>(iii) While the borrower's interest rate is locked, the adjusted origination charge; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Transfer taxes.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, the sum of the charges at settlement for the following services may not be greater than 10 percent above the sum of the amounts included on the GFE:
</P>
<P>(i) Lender-required settlement services, where the lender selects the third party settlement service provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) Lender-required services, title services and required title insurance, and owner's title insurance, when the borrower uses a settlement service provider identified by the loan originator; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Government recording charges.
</P>
<P>(3) The amounts charged for all other settlement services included on the GFE may change at settlement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Binding GFE.</I> The loan originator is bound, within the tolerances provided in paragraph (e) of this section, to the settlement charges and terms listed on the GFE provided to the borrower, unless a revised GFE is provided prior to settlement consistent with this paragraph (f) or the GFE expires in accordance with paragraph (f)(4) of this section. If a loan originator provides a revised GFE consistent with this paragraph, the loan originator must document the reason that a revised GFE was provided. Loan originators must retain documentation of any reason for providing a revised GFE for no less than 3 years after settlement.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Changed circumstances affecting settlement costs.</I> If changed circumstances result in increased costs for any settlement services such that the charges at settlement would exceed the tolerances for those charges, the loan originator may provide a revised GFE to the borrower. If a revised GFE is to be provided, the loan originator must do so within 3 business days of receiving information sufficient to establish changed circumstances. The revised GFE may increase charges for services listed on the GFE only to the extent that the changed circumstances actually resulted in higher charges.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Changed circumstances affecting loan.</I> If changed circumstances result in a change in the borrower's eligibility for the specific loan terms identified in the GFE, the loan originator may provide a revised GFE to the borrower. If a revised GFE is to be provided, the loan originator must do so within 3 business days of receiving information sufficient to establish changed circumstances. The revised GFE may increase charges for services listed on the GFE only to the extent that the changed circumstances affecting the loan actually resulted in higher charges.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Borrower-requested changes.</I> If a borrower requests changes to the federally related mortgage loan identified in the GFE that change the settlement charges or the terms of the loan, the loan originator may provide a revised GFE to the borrower. If a revised GFE is to be provided, the loan originator must do so within three business days of the borrower's request. The revised GFE may increase charges for services listed on the GFE only to the extent that the borrower-requested changes to the mortgage loan identified on the GFE actually resulted in higher charges.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expiration of GFE.</I> If a borrower does not express an intent to continue with an application within 10 business days after the GFE is provided, or such longer time specified by the loan originator pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, the loan originator is no longer bound by the GFE.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Interest rate-dependent charges and terms.</I> If the interest rate has not been locked, or a locked interest rate has expired, the charge or credit for the interest rate chosen, the adjusted origination charges, per diem interest, and loan terms related to the interest rate may change. When the interest rate is later locked, a revised GFE must be provided showing the revised interest rate-dependent charges and terms. The loan originator must provide the revised GFE within 3 business days of the interest rate being locked or, for an expired interest rate, re-locked. All other charges and terms must remain the same as on the original GFE, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>New construction home purchases.</I> In transactions involving new construction home purchases, where settlement is anticipated to occur more than 60 calendar days from the time a GFE is provided, the loan originator may provide the GFE to the borrower with a clear and conspicuous disclosure stating that at any time up until 60 calendar days prior to closing, the loan originator may issue a revised GFE. If no such separate disclosure is provided, the loan originator cannot issue a revised GFE, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>GFE is not a loan commitment.</I> Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to require a loan originator to make a loan to a particular borrower. The loan originator is not required to provide a GFE if the loan originator does not have available a loan for which the borrower is eligible.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Open-end lines of credit (home-equity plans) under Truth in Lending Act.</I> In the case of a federally related mortgage loan involving an open-end line of credit (home-equity plan) covered under the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z, a lender or mortgage broker that provides the borrower with the disclosures required by 12 CFR 1026.40 of Regulation Z at the time the borrower applies for such loan shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Violations of section 5 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2604).</I> A loan originator that violates the requirements of this section shall be deemed to have violated section 5 of RESPA. If any charges at settlement exceed the charges listed on the GFE by more than the permitted tolerances, the loan originator may cure the tolerance violation by reimbursing to the borrower the amount by which the tolerance was exceeded, at settlement or within 30 calendar days after settlement. A borrower will be deemed to have received timely reimbursement if the loan originator delivers or places the payment in the mail within 30 calendar days after settlement.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 10875, Feb. 14, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.8" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.8   Use of HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use by settlement agent.</I> The settlement agent shall use the HUD-1 settlement statement in every settlement involving a federally related mortgage loan in which there is a borrower and a seller. For transactions in which there is a borrower and no seller, such as refinancing loans or subordinate lien loans, the HUD-1 may be utilized by using the borrower's side of the HUD-1 statement. Alternatively, the form HUD-1A may be used for these transactions. The HUD-1 or HUD-1A may be modified as permitted under this part. Either the HUD-1 or the HUD-1A, as appropriate, shall be used for every RESPA-covered transaction, unless its use is specifically exempted. The use of the HUD-1 or HUD-1A is exempted for open-end lines of credit (home-equity plans) covered by the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charges to be stated.</I> The settlement agent shall complete the HUD-1 or HUD-1A, in accordance with the instructions set forth in appendix A to this part. The loan originator must transmit to the settlement agent all information necessary to complete the HUD-1 or HUD-1A.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In general.</I> The settlement agent shall state the actual charges paid by the borrower and seller on the HUD-1, or by the borrower on the HUD-1A. The settlement agent must separately itemize each third party charge paid by the borrower and seller. All origination services performed by or on behalf of the loan originator must be included in the loan originator's own charge. Administrative and processing services related to title services must be included in the title underwriter's or title agent's own charge. The amount stated on the HUD-1 or HUD-1A for any itemized service cannot exceed the amount actually received by the settlement service provider for that itemized service, unless the charge is an average charge in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Use of average charge.</I> (i) The average charge for a settlement service shall be no more than the average amount paid for a settlement service by one settlement service provider to another settlement service provider on behalf of borrowers and sellers for a particular class of transactions involving federally related mortgage loans. The total amounts paid by borrowers and sellers for a settlement service based on the use of an average charge may not exceed the total amounts paid to the providers of that service for the particular class of transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) The settlement service provider shall define the particular class of transactions for purposes of calculating the average charge as all transactions involving federally related mortgage loans for:
</P>
<P>(A) A period of time as determined by the settlement service provider, but not less than 30 calendar days and not more than 6 months;
</P>
<P>(B) A geographic area as determined by the settlement service provider; and
</P>
<P>(C) A type of loan as determined by the settlement service provider.
</P>
<P>(iii) A settlement service provider may use an average charge in the same class of transactions for which the charge was calculated. If the settlement service provider uses the average charge for any transaction in the class, the settlement service provider must use the same average charge in every transaction within that class for which a GFE was provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) The use of an average charge is not permitted for any settlement service if the charge for the service is based on the loan amount or property value. For example, an average charge may not be used for transfer taxes, interest charges, reserves or escrow, or any type of insurance, including mortgage insurance, title insurance, or hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>(v) The settlement service provider must retain all documentation used to calculate the average charge for a particular class of transactions for at least 3 years after any settlement for which that average charge was used.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Violations of section 4 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2603).</I> A violation of any of the requirements of this section will be deemed to be a violation of section 4 of RESPA. An inadvertent or technical error in completing the HUD-1 or HUD-1A shall not be deemed a violation of section 4 of RESPA if a revised HUD-1 or HUD-1A is provided in accordance with the requirements of this section within 30 calendar days after settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.9" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.9   Reproduction of settlement statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible changes—HUD-1.</I> The following changes and insertions are permitted when the HUD-1 settlement statement is reproduced:
</P>
<P>(1) The person reproducing the HUD-1 may insert its business name and logo in section A and may rearrange, but not delete, the other information that appears in section A.
</P>
<P>(2) The name, address, and other information regarding the lender and settlement agent may be printed in sections F and H, respectively.
</P>
<P>(3) Reproduction of the HUD-1 must conform to the terminology, sequence, and numbering of line items as presented in lines 100-1400. However, blank lines or items listed in lines 100-1400 that are not used locally or in connection with mortgages by the lender may be deleted, except for the following: Lines 100, 120, 200, 220, 300, 301, 302, 303, 400, 420, 500, 520, 600, 601, 602, 603, 700, 800, 900, 1000, 1100, 1200, 1300, and 1400. The form may be shortened correspondingly. The number of a deleted item shall not be used for a substitute or new item, but the number of a blank space on the HUD-1 may be used for a substitute or new item.
</P>
<P>(4) Charges not listed on the HUD-1, but that are customary locally or pursuant to the lender's practice, may be inserted in blank spaces. Where existing blank spaces on the HUD-1 are insufficient, additional lines and spaces may be added and numbered in sequence with spaces on the HUD-1.
</P>
<P>(5) The following variations in layout and format are within the discretion of persons reproducing the HUD-1 and do not require prior Bureau approval: Size of pages; tint or color of pages; size and style of type or print; vertical spacing between lines or provision for additional horizontal space on lines (for example, to provide sufficient space for recording time periods used in prorations); printing of the HUD-1 contents on separate pages, on the front and back of a single page, or on one continuous page; use of multicopy tear-out sets; printing on rolls for computer purposes; reorganization of sections B through I, when necessary to accommodate computer printing; and manner of placement of the HUD number, but not the OMB approval number, neither of which may be deleted. The expiration date associated with the OMB number listed on the form may be deleted. Any changes in the HUD number or OMB approval number may be announced by notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> rather than by amendment of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) The borrower's information and the seller's information may be provided on separate pages.
</P>
<P>(7) Signature lines may be added.
</P>
<P>(8) The HUD-1 may be translated into languages other than English.
</P>
<P>(9) An additional page may be attached to the HUD-1 for the purpose of including customary recitals and information used locally in real estate settlements; for example, breakdown of payoff figures, a breakdown of the borrower's total monthly mortgage payments, check disbursements, a statement indicating receipt of funds, applicable special stipulations between buyer and seller, and the date funds are transferred. If space permits, such information may be added at the end of the HUD-1.
</P>
<P>(10) As required by HUD/FHA in FHA-insured loans.
</P>
<P>(11) As allowed by § 1024.17, relating to an initial escrow account statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible changes—HUD-1A.</I> The changes and insertions on the HUD-1 permitted under paragraph (a) of this section are also permitted when the HUD-1A settlement statement is reproduced, except the changes described in paragraphs (a)(3) and (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written approval.</I> Any other deviation in the HUD-1 or HUD-1A forms is permissible only upon receipt of written approval of the Bureau; provided, however, that notwithstanding contrary instructions in this section or appendix A of this part, reproducing the HUD-1 or HUD-1A forms with the Bureau's OMB approval number displayed in place of HUD's OMB approval number does not require the written approval of the Bureau. A request to the Bureau for approval shall be submitted in writing to the address indicated in the definition of <I>Public Guidance Documents</I> in § 1024.2 and shall state the reasons why the applicant believes such deviation is needed. The prescribed form(s) must be used until approval is received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 72370, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.10" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.10   One-day advance inspection of HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement; delivery; recordkeeping.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inspection one day prior to settlement upon request by the borrower.</I> The settlement agent shall permit the borrower to inspect the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement, completed to set forth those items that are known to the settlement agent at the time of inspection, during the business day immediately preceding settlement. Items related only to the seller's transaction may be omitted from the HUD-1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Delivery.</I> The settlement agent shall provide a completed HUD-1 or HUD-1A to the borrower, the seller (if there is one), the lender (if the lender is not the settlement agent), and/or their agents. When the borrower's and seller's copies of the HUD-1 or HUD-1A differ as permitted by the instructions in appendix A to this part, both copies shall be provided to the lender (if the lender is not the settlement agent). The settlement agent shall deliver the completed HUD-1 or HUD-1A at or before the settlement, except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver.</I> The borrower may waive the right to delivery of the completed HUD-1 or HUD-1A no later than at settlement by executing a written waiver at or before settlement. In such case, the completed HUD-1 or HUD-1A shall be mailed or delivered to the borrower, seller, and lender (if the lender is not the settlement agent) as soon as practicable after settlement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> When the borrower or the borrower's agent does not attend the settlement, or when the settlement agent does not conduct a meeting of the parties for that purpose, the transaction shall be exempt from the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, except that the HUD-1 or HUD-1A shall be mailed or delivered as soon as practicable after settlement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> The lender shall retain each completed HUD-1 or HUD-1A and related documents for five years after settlement, unless the lender disposes of its interest in the mortgage and does not service the mortgage. In that case, the lender shall provide its copy of the HUD-1 or HUD-1A to the owner or servicer of the mortgage as a part of the transfer of the loan file. Such owner or servicer shall retain the HUD-1 or HUD-1A for the remainder of the five-year period. The Bureau shall have the right to inspect or require copies of records covered by this paragraph (e).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.11" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.11   Mailing.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part requiring or permitting mailing of documents shall be deemed to be satisfied by placing the document in the mail (whether or not received by the addressee) addressed to the addresses stated in the loan application or in other information submitted to or obtained by the lender at the time of loan application or submitted or obtained by the lender or settlement agent, except that a revised address shall be used where the lender or settlement agent has been expressly informed in writing of a change in address.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.12" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.12   No fee.</HEAD>
<P>No fee shall be imposed or charge made upon any other person, as a part of settlement costs or otherwise, by a lender in connection with a federally related mortgage loan made by it (or a loan for the purchase of a manufactured home), or by a servicer (as that term is defined under 12 U.S.C. 2605(i)(2)) for or on account of the preparation and distribution of the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement, escrow account statements required pursuant to section 10 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2609), or statements required by the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.13" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.13   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.14" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.14   Prohibition against kickbacks and unearned fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Section 8 violation.</I> Any violation of this section is a violation of section 8 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2607).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No referral fees.</I> No person shall give and no person shall accept any fee, kickback or other thing of value pursuant to any agreement or understanding, oral or otherwise, that business incident to or part of a settlement service involving a federally related mortgage loan shall be referred to any person. Any referral of a settlement service is not a compensable service, except as set forth in § 1024.14(g)(1). A company may not pay any other company or the employees of any other company for the referral of settlement service business.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No split of charges except for actual services performed.</I> No person shall give and no person shall accept any portion, split, or percentage of any charge made or received for the rendering of a settlement service in connection with a transaction involving a federally related mortgage loan other than for services actually performed. A charge by a person for which no or nominal services are performed or for which duplicative fees are charged is an unearned fee and violates this section. The source of the payment does not determine whether or not a service is compensable. Nor may the prohibitions of this part be avoided by creating an arrangement wherein the purchaser of services splits the fee.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Thing of value.</I> This term is broadly defined in section 3(2) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602(2)). It includes, without limitation, monies, things, discounts, salaries, commissions, fees, duplicate payments of a charge, stock, dividends, distributions of partnership profits, franchise royalties, credits representing monies that may be paid at a future date, the opportunity to participate in a money-making program, retained or increased earnings, increased equity in a parent or subsidiary entity, special bank deposits or accounts, special or unusual banking terms, services of all types at special or free rates, sales or rentals at special prices or rates, lease or rental payments based in whole or in part on the amount of business referred, trips and payment of another person's expenses, or reduction in credit against an existing obligation. The term “payment” is used throughout §§ 1024.14 and 1024.15 as synonymous with the giving or receiving of any “thing of value” and does not require transfer of money.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreement or understanding.</I> An agreement or understanding for the referral of business incident to or part of a settlement service need not be written or verbalized but may be established by a practice, pattern or course of conduct. When a thing of value is received repeatedly and is connected in any way with the volume or value of the business referred, the receipt of the thing of value is evidence that it is made pursuant to an agreement or understanding for the referral of business.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Referral.</I> (1) A referral includes any oral or written action directed to a person which has the effect of affirmatively influencing the selection by any person of a provider of a settlement service or business incident to or part of a settlement service when such person will pay for such settlement service or business incident thereto or pay a charge attributable in whole or in part to such settlement service or business.
</P>
<P>(2) A referral also occurs whenever a person paying for a settlement service or business incident thereto is required to use (see § 1024.2, “required use”) a particular provider of a settlement service or business incident thereto.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Fees, salaries, compensation, or other payments.</I> (1) Section 8 of RESPA permits:
</P>
<P>(i) A payment to an attorney at law for services actually rendered;
</P>
<P>(ii) A payment by a title company to its duly appointed agent for services actually performed in the issuance of a policy of title insurance;
</P>
<P>(iii) A payment by a lender to its duly appointed agent or contractor for services actually performed in the origination, processing, or funding of a loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) A payment to any person of a <I>bona fide</I> salary or compensation or other payment for goods or facilities actually furnished or for services actually performed;
</P>
<P>(v) A payment pursuant to cooperative brokerage and referral arrangements or agreements between real estate agents and real estate brokers. (The statutory exemption restated in this paragraph refers only to fee divisions within real estate brokerage arrangements when all parties are acting in a real estate brokerage capacity, and has no applicability to any fee arrangements between real estate brokers and mortgage brokers or between mortgage brokers.);
</P>
<P>(vi) Normal promotional and educational activities that are not conditioned on the referral of business and that do not involve the defraying of expenses that otherwise would be incurred by persons in a position to refer settlement services or business incident thereto; or
</P>
<P>(vii) An employer's payment to its own employees for any referral activities.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bureau may investigate high prices to see if they are the result of a referral fee or a split of a fee. If the payment of a thing of value bears no reasonable relationship to the market value of the goods or services provided, then the excess is not for services or goods actually performed or provided. These facts may be used as evidence of a violation of section 8 and may serve as a basis for a RESPA investigation. High prices standing alone are not proof of a RESPA violation. The value of a referral (<I>i.e.,</I> the value of any additional business obtained thereby) is not to be taken into account in determining whether the payment exceeds the reasonable value of such goods, facilities or services. The fact that the transfer of the thing of value does not result in an increase in any charge made by the person giving the thing of value is irrelevant in determining whether the act is prohibited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multiple services.</I> When a person in a position to refer settlement service business, such as an attorney, mortgage lender, real estate broker or agent, or developer or builder, receives a payment for providing additional settlement services as part of a real estate transaction, such payment must be for services that are actual, necessary and distinct from the primary services provided by such person. For example, for an attorney of the buyer or seller to receive compensation as a title agent, the attorney must perform core title agent services (for which liability arises) separate from attorney services, including the evaluation of the title search to determine the insurability of the title, the clearance of underwriting objections, the actual issuance of the policy or policies on behalf of the title insurance company, and, where customary, issuance of the title commitment, and the conducting of the title search and closing.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Any documents provided pursuant to this section shall be retained for five (5) years from the date of execution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Appendix B of this part.</I> Illustrations in appendix B of this part demonstrate some of the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.15" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.15   Affiliated business arrangements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An affiliated business arrangement is defined in section 3(7) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602(7)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Violation and exemption.</I> An affiliated business arrangement is not a violation of section 8 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2607) and of § 1024.14 if the conditions set forth in this section are satisfied. Paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply to the extent it is inconsistent with section 8(c)(4)(A) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2607(c)(4)(A)).
</P>
<P>(1) The person making each referral has provided to each person whose business is referred a written disclosure, in the format of the Affiliated Business Arrangement Disclosure Statement set forth in appendix D of this part, of the nature of the relationship (explaining the ownership and financial interest) between the provider of settlement services (or business incident thereto) and the person making the referral and of an estimated charge or range of charges generally made by such provider (which describes the charge using the same terminology, as far as practical, as section L of the HUD-1 settlement statement). The disclosures must be provided on a separate piece of paper no later than the time of each referral or, if the lender requires use of a particular provider, the time of loan application, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) Where a lender makes the referral to a borrower, the condition contained in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be satisfied at the time that the good faith estimate or a statement under § 1024.7(d) is provided; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever an attorney or law firm requires a client to use a particular title insurance agent, the attorney or law firm shall provide the disclosures no later than the time the attorney or law firm is engaged by the client.
</P>
<P>(iii) Failure to comply with the disclosure requirements of this section may be overcome if the person making a referral can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that procedures reasonably adopted to result in compliance with these conditions have been maintained and that any failure to comply with these conditions was unintentional and the result of a <I>bona fide</I> error. An error of legal judgment with respect to a person's obligations under RESPA is not a <I>bona fide</I> error. Administrative and judicial interpretations of section 130(c) of the Truth in Lending Act shall not be binding interpretations of the preceding sentence or section 8(d)(3) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2607(d)(3)).
</P>
<P>(2) No person making a referral has required (as defined in § 1024.2, “required use”) any person to use any particular provider of settlement services or business incident thereto, except if such person is a lender, for requiring a buyer, borrower or seller to pay for the services of an attorney, credit reporting agency, or real estate appraiser chosen by the lender to represent the lender's interest in a real estate transaction, or except if such person is an attorney or law firm for arranging for issuance of a title insurance policy for a client, directly as agent or through a separate corporate title insurance agency that may be operated as an adjunct to the law practice of the attorney or law firm, as part of representation of that client in a real estate transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) The only thing of value that is received from the arrangement other than payments listed in § 1024.14(g) is a return on an ownership interest or franchise relationship.
</P>
<P>(i) In an affiliated business arrangement:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Bona fide</I> dividends, and capital or equity distributions, related to ownership interest or franchise relationship, between entities in an affiliate relationship, are permissible; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Bona fide</I> business loans, advances, and capital or equity contributions between entities in an affiliate relationship (in any direction), are not prohibited—so long as they are for ordinary business purposes and are not fees for the referral of settlement service business or unearned fees.
</P>
<P>(ii) A return on an ownership interest does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any payment which has as a basis of calculation no apparent business motive other than distinguishing among recipients of payments on the basis of the amount of their actual, estimated or anticipated referrals;
</P>
<P>(B) Any payment which varies according to the relative amount of referrals by the different recipients of similar payments; or
</P>
<P>(C) A payment based on an ownership, partnership or joint venture share which has been adjusted on the basis of previous relative referrals by recipients of similar payments.
</P>
<P>(iii) Neither the mere labeling of a thing of value, nor the fact that it may be calculated pursuant to a corporate or partnership organizational document or a franchise agreement, will determine whether it is a <I>bona fide</I> return on an ownership interest or franchise relationship. Whether a thing of value is such a return will be determined by analyzing facts and circumstances on a case by case basis.
</P>
<P>(iv) A return on franchise relationship may be a payment to or from a franchisee but it does not include any payment which is not based on the franchise agreement, nor any payment which varies according to the number or amount of referrals by the franchisor or franchisee or which is based on a franchise agreement which has been adjusted on the basis of a previous number or amount of referrals by the franchiser or franchisees. A franchise agreement may not be constructed to insulate against kickbacks or referral fees.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Associate</I> is defined in section 3(8) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602(8)).
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate relationship</I> means the relationship among business entities where one entity has effective control over the other by virtue of a partnership or other agreement or is under common control with the other by a third entity or where an entity is a corporation related to another corporation as parent to subsidiary by an identity of stock ownership.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficial ownership</I> means the effective ownership of an interest in a provider of settlement services or the right to use and control the ownership interest involved even though legal ownership or title may be held in another person's name.
</P>
<P><I>Control,</I> as used in the definitions of “associate” and “affiliate relationship,” means that a person:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a general partner, officer, director, or employer of another person;
</P>
<P>(ii) Directly or indirectly or acting in concert with others, or through one or more subsidiaries, owns, holds with power to vote, or holds proxies representing, more than 20 percent of the voting interests of another person;
</P>
<P>(iii) Affirmatively influences in any manner the election of a majority of the directors of another person; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Has contributed more than 20 percent of the capital of the other person.
</P>
<P><I>Direct ownership</I> means the holding of legal title to an interest in a provider of settlement service except where title is being held for the beneficial owner.
</P>
<P><I>Franchise</I> is defined in FTC regulation 16 CFR 436.1(h).
</P>
<P><I>Franchisor</I> is defined in FTC regulation 16 CFR 436.1(k).
</P>
<P><I>Franchisee</I> is defined in FTC regulation 16 CFR 436.1(i).
</P>
<P><I>FTC</I> means the Federal Trade Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Person who is in a position to refer settlement service business</I> means any real estate broker or agent, lender, mortgage broker, builder or developer, attorney, title company, title agent, or other person deriving a significant portion of his or her gross income from providing settlement services.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Recordkeeping.</I> Any documents provided pursuant to this section shall be retained for 5 years after the date of execution.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appendix B of this part.</I> Illustrations in appendix B of this part demonstrate some of the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.16" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.16   Title companies.</HEAD>
<P>No seller of property that will be purchased with the assistance of a federally related mortgage loan shall violate section 9 of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2608). Section 1024.2 defines “required use” of a provider of a settlement service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.17" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.17   Escrow accounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section sets out the requirements for an escrow account that a lender establishes in connection with a federally related mortgage loan. It sets limits for escrow accounts using calculations based on monthly payments and disbursements within a calendar year. If an escrow account involves biweekly or any other payment period, the requirements in this section shall be modified accordingly. A Public Guidance Document entitled “Biweekly Payments—Example” provides examples of biweekly accounting and a Public Guidance Document entitled “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Example” provides examples of a 3-year accounting cycle that may be used in accordance with paragraph (c)(9) of this section. A Public Guidance Document entitled “Consumer Disclosure for Voluntary Escrow Account Payments” provides a model disclosure format that originators and servicers are encouraged, but not required, to provide to consumers when the originator or servicer anticipates a substantial increase in disbursements from the escrow account after the first year of the loan. The disclosures in that model format may be combined with or included in the Initial Escrow Account Statement required in § 1024.17(g).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate (or) composite analysis,</I> hereafter called <I>aggregate analysis,</I> means an accounting method a servicer uses in conducting an escrow account analysis by computing the sufficiency of escrow account funds by analyzing the account as a whole. Appendix E to this part sets forth examples of aggregate escrow account analyses.
</P>
<P><I>Annual escrow account statement</I> means a statement containing all of the information set forth in § 1024.17(i). As noted in § 1024.17(i), a servicer shall submit an annual escrow account statement to the borrower within 30 calendar days of the end of the escrow account computation year, after conducting an escrow account analysis.
</P>
<P><I>Cushion or reserve</I> (hereafter cushion) means funds that a servicer may require a borrower to pay into an escrow account to cover unanticipated disbursements or disbursements made before the borrower's payments are available in the account, as limited by § 1024.17(c).
</P>
<P><I>Deficiency</I> is the amount of a negative balance in an escrow account. As noted in § 1024.17(f), if a servicer advances funds for a borrower, then the servicer must perform an escrow account analysis before seeking repayment of the deficiency.
</P>
<P><I>Delivery</I> means the placing of a document in the United States mail, first-class postage paid, addressed to the last known address of the recipient. Hand delivery also constitutes delivery.
</P>
<P><I>Disbursement date</I> means the date on which the servicer actually pays an escrow item from the escrow account.
</P>
<P><I>Escrow account</I> means any account that a servicer establishes or controls on behalf of a borrower to pay taxes, insurance premiums (including flood insurance), or other charges with respect to a federally related mortgage loan, including charges that the borrower and servicer have voluntarily agreed that the servicer should collect and pay. The definition encompasses any account established for this purpose, including a “trust account”, “reserve account”, “impound account”, or other term in different localities. An “escrow account” includes any arrangement where the servicer adds a portion of the borrower's payments to principal and subsequently deducts from principal the disbursements for escrow account items. For purposes of this section, the term “escrow account” excludes any account that is under the borrower's total control.
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<P><I>Escrow account analysis</I> means the accounting that a servicer conducts in the form of a trial running balance for an escrow account to:
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<P>(1) Determine the appropriate target balances;
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<P>(2) Compute the borrower's monthly payments for the next escrow account computation year and any deposits needed to establish or maintain the account; and
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<P>(3) Determine whether shortages, surpluses or deficiencies exist.
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<P><I>Escrow account computation year</I> is a 12-month period that a servicer establishes for the escrow account beginning with the borrower's initial payment date. The term includes each 12-month period thereafter, unless a servicer chooses to issue a short year statement under the conditions stated in § 1024.17(i)(4).
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<P><I>Escrow account item</I> or <I>separate item</I> means any separate expenditure category, such as “taxes” or “insurance”, for which funds are collected in the escrow account for disbursement. An escrow account item with installment payments, such as local property taxes, remains one escrow account item regardless of multiple disbursement dates to the tax authority.
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<P><I>Initial escrow account statement</I> means the first disclosure statement that the servicer delivers to the borrower concerning the borrower's escrow account. The initial escrow account statement shall meet the requirements of § 1024.17(g) and be in substantially the format set forth in § 1024.17(h).
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<P><I>Installment payment</I> means one of two or more payments payable on an escrow account item during an escrow account computation year. An example of an installment payment is where a jurisdiction bills quarterly for taxes.
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<P><I>Payment due date</I> means the date each month when the borrower's monthly payment to an escrow account is due to the servicer. The initial payment date is the borrower's first payment due date to an escrow account.
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<P><I>Penalty</I> means a late charge imposed by the payee for paying after the disbursement is due. It does not include any additional charge or fee imposed by the payee associated with choosing installment payments as opposed to annual payments or for choosing one installment plan over another.
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<P><I>Pre-accrual</I> is a practice some servicers use to require borrowers to deposit funds, needed for disbursement and maintenance of a cushion, in the escrow account some period before the disbursement date. Pre-accrual is subject to the limitations of § 1024.17(c).
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<P><I>Shortage</I> means an amount by which a current escrow account balance falls short of the target balance at the time of escrow analysis.
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<P><I>Single-item analysis</I> means an accounting method servicers use in conducting an escrow account analysis by computing the sufficiency of escrow account funds by considering each escrow item separately. Appendix E to this part sets forth examples of single-item analysis.
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<P><I>Submission</I> (of an escrow account statement) means the delivery of the statement.
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<P><I>Surplus</I> means an amount by which the current escrow account balance exceeds the target balance for the account.
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<P><I>System of recordkeeping</I> means the servicer's method of keeping information that reflects the facts relating to that servicer's handling of the borrower's escrow account, including, but not limited to, the payment of amounts from the escrow account and the submission of initial and annual escrow account statements to borrowers.
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<P><I>Target balance</I> means the estimated month end balance in an escrow account that is just sufficient to cover the remaining disbursements from the escrow account in the escrow account computation year, taking into account the remaining scheduled periodic payments, and a cushion, if any.
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<P><I>Trial running balance</I> means the accounting process that derives the target balances over the course of an escrow account computation year. Section 1024.17(d) provides a description of the steps involved in performing a trial running balance.
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<P>(c) <I>Limits on payments to escrow accounts.</I> (1) A lender or servicer (hereafter servicer) shall not require a borrower to deposit into any escrow account, created in connection with a federally related mortgage loan, more than the following amounts:
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<P>(i) <I>Charges at settlement or upon creation of an escrow account.</I> At the time a servicer creates an escrow account for a borrower, the servicer may charge the borrower an amount sufficient to pay the charges respecting the mortgaged property, such as taxes and insurance, which are attributable to the period from the date such payment(s) were last paid until the initial payment date. The “amount sufficient to pay” is computed so that the lowest month end target balance projected for the escrow account computation year is zero (-0-) (see Step 2 in appendix E to this part). In addition, the servicer may charge the borrower a cushion that shall be no greater than one-sixth (
<FR>1/6</FR>) of the estimated total annual payments from the escrow account.
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<P>(ii) <I>Charges during the life of the escrow account.</I> Throughout the life of an escrow account, the servicer may charge the borrower a monthly sum equal to one-twelfth (
<FR>1/12</FR>) of the total annual escrow payments which the servicer reasonably anticipates paying from the account. In addition, the servicer may add an amount to maintain a cushion no greater than one-sixth (
<FR>1/6</FR>) of the estimated total annual payments from the account. However, if a servicer determines through an escrow account analysis that there is a shortage or deficiency, the servicer may require the borrower to pay additional deposits to make up the shortage or eliminate the deficiency, subject to the limitations set forth in § 1024.17(f).
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<P>(2) <I>Escrow analysis at creation of escrow account.</I> Before establishing an escrow account, the servicer must conduct an escrow account analysis to determine the amount the borrower must deposit into the escrow account (subject to the limitations of paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section), and the amount of the borrower's periodic payments into the escrow account (subject to the limitations of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section). In conducting the escrow account analysis, the servicer must estimate the disbursement amounts according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section. Pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section, the servicer must use a date on or before the deadline to avoid a penalty as the disbursement date for the escrow item and comply with any other requirements of paragraph (k) of this section. Upon completing the initial escrow account analysis, the servicer must prepare and deliver an initial escrow account statement to the borrower, as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section. The servicer must use the escrow account analysis to determine whether a surplus, shortage, or deficiency exists and must make any adjustments to the account pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
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<P>(3) <I>Subsequent escrow account analyses.</I> For each escrow account, the servicer must conduct an escrow account analysis at the completion of the escrow account computation year to determine the borrower's monthly escrow account payments for the next computation year, subject to the limitations of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. In conducting the escrow account analysis, the servicer must estimate the disbursement amounts according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section. Pursuant to paragraph (k) of this section, the servicer must use a date on or before the deadline to avoid a penalty as the disbursement date for the escrow item and comply with any other requirements of paragraph (k) of this section. The servicer must use the escrow account analysis to determine whether a surplus, shortage, or deficiency exists, and must make any adjustments to the account pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. Upon completing an escrow account analysis, the servicer must prepare and submit an annual escrow account statement to the borrower, as set forth in paragraph (i) of this section.
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<P>(4) <I>Aggregate accounting required.</I> All servicers must use the aggregate accounting method in conducting escrow account analyses.
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<P>(5) <I>Cushion.</I> The cushion must be no greater than one-sixth (
<FR>1/6</FR>) of the estimated total annual disbursements from the escrow account.
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<P>(6) <I>Restrictions on pre-accrual.</I> A servicer must not practice pre-accrual.
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<P>(7) <I>Servicer estimates of disbursement amounts.</I> To conduct an escrow account analysis, the servicer shall estimate the amount of escrow account items to be disbursed. If the servicer knows the charge for an escrow item in the next computation year, then the servicer shall use that amount in estimating disbursement amounts. If the charge is unknown to the servicer, the servicer may base the estimate on the preceding year's charge, or the preceding year's charge as modified by an amount not exceeding the most recent year's change in the national Consumer Price Index for all urban consumers (CPI, all items). In cases of unassessed new construction, the servicer may base an estimate on the assessment of comparable residential property in the market area.
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<P>(8) <I>Provisions in federally related mortgage documents.</I> The servicer must examine the federally related mortgage loan documents to determine the applicable cushion for each escrow account. If any such documents provide for lower cushion limits, then the terms of the loan documents apply. Where the terms of any such documents allow greater payments to an escrow account than allowed by this section, then this section controls the applicable limits. Where such documents do not specifically establish an escrow account, whether a servicer may establish an escrow account for the loan is a matter for determination by other Federal or State law. If such documents are silent on the escrow account limits and a servicer establishes an escrow account under other Federal or State law, then the limitations of this section apply unless applicable Federal or State law provides for a lower amount. If such documents provide for escrow accounts up to the RESPA limits, then the servicer may require the maximum amounts consistent with this section, unless an applicable Federal or State law sets a lesser amount.
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<P>(9) <I>Assessments for periods longer than one year.</I> Some escrow account items may be billed for periods longer than one year. For example, servicers may need to collect flood insurance or water purification escrow funds for payment every three years. In such cases, the servicer shall estimate the borrower's payments for a full cycle of disbursements. For a flood insurance premium payable every 3 years, the servicer shall collect the payments reflecting 36 equal monthly amounts. For two out of the three years, however, the account balance may not reach its low monthly balance because the low point will be on a three-year cycle, as compared to an annual one. The annual escrow account statement shall explain this situation (see example in the Public Guidance Document entitled “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Example”, available in accordance with § 1024.3).
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<P>(d) <I>Methods of escrow account analysis.</I> (1) The following sets forth the steps servicers must use to determine whether their use of aggregate analysis conforms with the limitations in § 1024.17(c)(1). The steps set forth in this section result in maximum limits. Servicers may use accounting procedures that result in lower target balances. In particular, servicers may use a cushion less than the permissible cushion or no cushion at all. This section does not require the use of a cushion.
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<P>(2) <I>Aggregate analysis.</I> (i) In conducting the escrow account analysis using aggregate analysis, the target balances may not exceed the balances computed according to the following arithmetic operations:
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<P>(A) The servicer first projects a trial balance for the account as a whole over the next computation year (a trial running balance). In doing so the servicer assumes that it will make estimated disbursements on or before the earlier of the deadline to take advantage of discounts, if available, or the deadline to avoid a penalty. The servicer does not use pre-accrual on these disbursement dates. The servicer also assumes that the borrower will make monthly payments equal to one-twelfth of the estimated total annual escrow account disbursements.
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<P>(B) The servicer then examines the monthly trial balances and adds to the first monthly balance an amount just sufficient to bring the lowest monthly trial balance to zero, and adjusts all other monthly balances accordingly.
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<P>(C) The servicer then adds to the monthly balances the permissible cushion. The cushion is two months of the borrower's escrow payments to the servicer or a lesser amount specified by state law or the mortgage document (net of any increases or decreases because of prior year shortages or surpluses, respectively).
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<P>(ii) <I>Lowest monthly balance.</I> Under aggregate analysis, the lowest monthly target balance for the account shall be less than or equal to one-sixth of the estimated total annual escrow account disbursements or a lesser amount specified by state law or the mortgage document. The target balances that the servicer derives using these steps yield the maximum limit for the escrow account. Appendix E to this part illustrates these steps.
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<P>(e) <I>Transfer of servicing.</I> (1) If the new servicer changes either the monthly payment amount or the accounting method used by the transferor (old) servicer, then the new servicer shall provide the borrower with an initial escrow account statement within 60 days of the date of servicing transfer.
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<P>(i) Where a new servicer provides an initial escrow account statement upon the transfer of servicing, the new servicer shall use the effective date of the transfer of servicing to establish the new escrow account computation year.
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<P>(ii) Where the new servicer retains the monthly payments and accounting method used by the transferor servicer, then the new servicer may continue to use the escrow account computation year established by the transferor servicer or may choose to establish a different computation year using a short-year statement. At the completion of the escrow account computation year or any short year, the new servicer shall perform an escrow analysis and provide the borrower with an annual escrow account statement.
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<P>(2) The new servicer shall treat shortages, surpluses and deficiencies in the transferred escrow account according to the procedures set forth in § 1024.17(f).
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<P>(f) <I>Shortages, surpluses, and deficiencies requirements</I>—(1) <I>Escrow account analysis.</I> For each escrow account, the servicer shall conduct an escrow account analysis to determine whether a surplus, shortage or deficiency exists.
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<P>(i) As noted in § 1024.17(c)(2) and (3), the servicer shall conduct an escrow account analysis upon establishing an escrow account and at completion of the escrow account computation year.
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<P>(ii) The servicer may conduct an escrow account analysis at other times during the escrow computation year. If a servicer advances funds in paying a disbursement, which is not the result of a borrower's payment default under the underlying mortgage document, then the servicer shall conduct an escrow account analysis to determine the extent of the deficiency before seeking repayment of the funds from the borrower under this paragraph (f).
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<P>(2) <I>Surpluses.</I> (i) If an escrow account analysis discloses a surplus, the servicer shall, within 30 days from the date of the analysis, refund the surplus to the borrower if the surplus is greater than or equal to 50 dollars ($50). If the surplus is less than 50 dollars ($50), the servicer may refund such amount to the borrower, or credit such amount against the next year's escrow payments.
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<P>(ii) These provisions regarding surpluses apply if the borrower is current at the time of the escrow account analysis. A borrower is current if the servicer receives the borrower's payments within 30 days of the payment due date. If the servicer does not receive the borrower's payment within 30 days of the payment due date, then the servicer may retain the surplus in the escrow account pursuant to the terms of the federally related mortgage loan documents.
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<P>(iii) After an initial or annual escrow analysis has been performed, the servicer and the borrower may enter into a voluntary agreement for the forthcoming escrow accounting year for the borrower to deposit funds into the escrow account for that year greater than the limits established under paragraph (c) of this section. Such an agreement shall cover only one escrow accounting year, but a new voluntary agreement may be entered into after the next escrow analysis is performed. The voluntary agreement may not alter how surpluses are to be treated when the next escrow analysis is performed at the end of the escrow accounting year covered by the voluntary agreement.
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<P>(3) <I>Shortages.</I> (i) If an escrow account analysis discloses a shortage of less than one month's escrow account payment, then the servicer has three possible courses of action:
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<P>(A) The servicer may allow a shortage to exist and do nothing to change it;
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<P>(B) The servicer may require the borrower to repay the shortage amount within 30 days; or
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<P>(C) The servicer may require the borrower to repay the shortage amount in equal monthly payments over at least a 12-month period.
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<P>(ii) If an escrow account analysis discloses a shortage that is greater than or equal to one month's escrow account payment, then the servicer has two possible courses of action:
</P>
<P>(A) The servicer may allow a shortage to exist and do nothing to change it; or
</P>
<P>(B) The servicer may require the borrower to repay the shortage in equal monthly payments over at least a 12-month period.
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<P>(4) <I>Deficiency.</I> If the escrow account analysis confirms a deficiency, then the servicer may require the borrower to pay additional monthly deposits to the account to eliminate the deficiency.
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<P>(i) If the deficiency is less than one month's escrow account payment, then the servicer:
</P>
<P>(A) May allow the deficiency to exist and do nothing to change it;
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<P>(B) May require the borrower to repay the deficiency within 30 days; or
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<P>(C) May require the borrower to repay the deficiency in 2 or more equal monthly payments.
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<P>(ii) If the deficiency is greater than or equal to 1 month's escrow payment, the servicer may allow the deficiency to exist and do nothing to change it or may require the borrower to repay the deficiency in two or more equal monthly payments.
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<P>(iii) These provisions regarding deficiencies apply if the borrower is current at the time of the escrow account analysis. A borrower is current if the servicer receives the borrower's payments within 30 days of the payment due date. If the servicer does not receive the borrower's payment within 30 days of the payment due date, then the servicer may recover the deficiency pursuant to the terms of the federally related mortgage loan documents.
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<P>(5) <I>Notice of shortage or deficiency in escrow account.</I> The servicer shall notify the borrower at least once during the escrow account computation year if there is a shortage or deficiency in the escrow account. The notice may be part of the annual escrow account statement or it may be a separate document.
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<P>(g) <I>Initial escrow account statement</I>—(1) <I>Submission at settlement, or within 45 calendar days of settlement.</I> As noted in § 1024.17(c)(2), the servicer shall conduct an escrow account analysis before establishing an escrow account to determine the amount the borrower shall deposit into the escrow account, subject to the limitations of § 1024.17(c)(1)(i). After conducting the escrow account analysis for each escrow account, the servicer shall submit an initial escrow account statement to the borrower at settlement or within 45 calendar days of settlement for escrow accounts that are established as a condition of the loan.
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<P>(i) The initial escrow account statement shall include the amount of the borrower's monthly mortgage payment and the portion of the monthly payment going into the escrow account and shall itemize the estimated taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges that the servicer reasonably anticipates to be paid from the escrow account during the escrow account computation year and the anticipated disbursement dates of those charges. The initial escrow account statement shall indicate the amount that the servicer selects as a cushion. The statement shall include a trial running balance for the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Pursuant to § 1024.17(h)(2), the servicer may incorporate the initial escrow account statement into the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement. If the servicer does not incorporate the initial escrow account statement into the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement, then the servicer shall submit the initial escrow account statement to the borrower as a separate document.
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<P>(2) <I>Time of submission of initial escrow account statement for an escrow account established after settlement.</I> For escrow accounts established after settlement (and which are not a condition of the loan), a servicer shall submit an initial escrow account statement to a borrower within 45 calendar days of the date of establishment of the escrow account.
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<P>(h) <I>Format for initial escrow account statement.</I> (1) The format and a completed example for an initial escrow account statement are set out in Public Guidance Documents entitled “Initial Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Format” and “Initial Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Example,” available in accordance with the direction in the definition of <I>Public Guidance Documents</I> in § 1024.2.

 </P>
<P>(2) <I>Incorporation of initial escrow account statement into HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement.</I> Pursuant to § 1024.9(a)(11), a servicer may add the initial escrow account statement to the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement. The servicer may include the initial escrow account statement in the basic text or may attach the initial escrow account statement as an additional page to the HUD-1 or HUD-1A settlement statement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Identification of payees.</I> The initial escrow account statement need not identify a specific payee by name if it provides sufficient information to identify the use of the funds. For example, appropriate entries include: county taxes, hazard insurance, condominium dues, <I>etc.</I> If a particular payee, such as a taxing body, receives more than one payment during the escrow account computation year, the statement shall indicate each payment and disbursement date. If there are several taxing authorities or insurers, the statement shall identify each taxing body or insurer (<I>e.g.,</I> “City Taxes”, “School Taxes”, “Hazard Insurance”, or “Flood Insurance,” <I>etc.</I>).
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<P>(i) <I>Annual escrow account statements.</I> For each escrow account, a servicer shall submit an annual escrow account statement to the borrower within 30 days of the completion of the escrow account computation year. The servicer shall also submit to the borrower the previous year's projection or initial escrow account statement. The servicer shall conduct an escrow account analysis before submitting an annual escrow account statement to the borrower.
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<P>(1) <I>Contents of annual escrow account statement.</I> The annual escrow account statement shall provide an account history, reflecting the activity in the escrow account during the escrow account computation year, and a projection of the activity in the account for the next year. In preparing the statement, the servicer may assume scheduled payments and disbursements will be made for the final 2 months of the escrow account computation year. The annual escrow account statement must include, at a minimum, the following (the items in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) through (i)(1)(iv) must be clearly itemized):
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the borrower's current monthly mortgage payment and the portion of the monthly payment going into the escrow account;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the past year's monthly mortgage payment and the portion of the monthly payment that went into the escrow account;
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<P>(iii) The total amount paid into the escrow account during the past computation year;
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<P>(iv) The total amount paid out of the escrow account during the same period for taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges (as separately identified);
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<P>(v) The balance in the escrow account at the end of the period;
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<P>(vi) An explanation of how any surplus is being handled by the servicer;
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<P>(vii) An explanation of how any shortage or deficiency is to be paid by the borrower; and
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<P>(viii) If applicable, the reason(s) why the estimated low monthly balance was not reached, as indicated by noting differences between the most recent account history and last year's projection. Public Guidance Documents entitled “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Format” and “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Example” set forth an acceptable format and methodology for conveying this information.
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<P>(2) <I>No annual statements in the case of default, foreclosure, or bankruptcy.</I> This paragraph (i)(2) contains an exemption from the provisions of § 1024.17(i)(1). If at the time the servicer conducts the escrow account analysis the borrower is more than 30 days overdue, then the servicer is exempt from the requirements of submitting an annual escrow account statement to the borrower under § 1024.17(i). This exemption also applies in situations where the servicer has brought an action for foreclosure under the underlying federally related mortgage loan, or where the borrower is in bankruptcy proceedings. If the servicer does not issue an annual statement pursuant to this exemption and the loan subsequently is reinstated or otherwise becomes current, the servicer shall provide a history of the account since the last annual statement (which may be longer than 1 year) within 90 days of the date the account became current.
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<P>(3) <I>Delivery with other material.</I> The servicer may deliver the annual escrow account statement to the borrower with other statements or materials, including the Substitute 1098, which is provided for Federal income tax purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Short year statements.</I> A servicer may issue a short year annual escrow account statement (“short year statement”) to change one escrow account computation year to another. By using a short year statement a servicer may adjust its production schedule or alter the escrow account computation year for the escrow account.
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<P>(i) <I>Effect of short year statement.</I> The short year statement shall end the “escrow account computation year” for the escrow account and establish the beginning date of the new escrow account computation year. The servicer shall deliver the short year statement to the borrower within 60 days from the end of the short year.
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<P>(ii) <I>Short year statement upon servicing transfer.</I> Upon the transfer of servicing, the transferor (old) servicer shall submit a short year statement to the borrower within 60 days of the effective date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Short year statement upon loan payoff.</I> If a borrower pays off a federally related mortgage loan during the escrow account computation year, the servicer shall submit a short year statement to the borrower within 60 days after receiving the payoff funds.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Formats for annual escrow account statement.</I> The formats and completed examples for annual escrow account statements using single-item analysis (pre-rule accounts) and aggregate analysis are set out in Public Guidance Documents entitled “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Format” and “Annual Escrow Account Disclosure Statement—Example”.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Timely payments.</I> (1) If the terms of any federally related mortgage loan require the borrower to make payments to an escrow account, the servicer must pay the disbursements in a timely manner, that is, on or before the deadline to avoid a penalty, as long as the borrower's payment is not more than 30 days overdue.
</P>
<P>(2) The servicer must advance funds to make disbursements in a timely manner as long as the borrower's payment is not more than 30 days overdue. Upon advancing funds to pay a disbursement, the servicer may seek repayment from the borrower for the deficiency pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For the payment of property taxes from the escrow account, if a taxing jurisdiction offers a servicer a choice between annual and installment disbursements, the servicer must also comply with this paragraph (k)(3). If the taxing jurisdiction neither offers a discount for disbursements on a lump sum annual basis nor imposes any additional charge or fee for installment disbursements, the servicer must make disbursements on an installment basis. If, however, the taxing jurisdiction offers a discount for disbursements on a lump sum annual basis or imposes any additional charge or fee for installment disbursements, the servicer may, at the servicer's discretion (but is not required by RESPA to), make lump sum annual disbursements in order to take advantage of the discount for the borrower or avoid the additional charge or fee for installments, as long as such method of disbursement complies with paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section. The Bureau encourages, but does not require, the servicer to follow the preference of the borrower, if such preference is known to the servicer.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraph (k)(3) of this section, a servicer and borrower may mutually agree, on an individual case basis, to a different disbursement basis (installment or annual) or disbursement date for property taxes from that required under paragraph (k)(3) of this section, so long as the agreement meets the requirements of paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section. The borrower must voluntarily agree; neither loan approval nor any term of the loan may be conditioned on the borrower's agreeing to a different disbursement basis or disbursement date.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Timely payment of hazard insurance</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (k)(5)(iii) of this section, with respect to a borrower whose mortgage payment is more than 30 days overdue, but who has established an escrow account for the payment for hazard insurance, as defined in § 1024.31, a servicer may not purchase force-placed insurance, as that term is defined in § 1024.37(a), unless a servicer is unable to disburse funds from the borrower's escrow account to ensure that the borrower's hazard insurance premium charges are paid in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Inability to disburse funds</I>—(A) <I>When inability exists.</I> A servicer is considered unable to disburse funds from a borrower's escrow account to ensure that the borrower's hazard insurance premiums are paid in a timely manner only if the servicer has a reasonable basis to believe either that the borrower's hazard insurance has been canceled (or was not renewed) for reasons other than nonpayment of premium charges or that the borrower's property is vacant.
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<P>(B) <I>When inability does not exist.</I> A servicer shall not be considered unable to disburse funds from the borrower's escrow account because the escrow account contains insufficient funds for paying hazard insurance premium charges.
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<P>(C) <I>Recoupment of advances.</I> If a servicer advances funds to an escrow account to ensure that the borrower's hazard insurance premium charges are paid in a timely manner, a servicer may seek repayment from the borrower for the funds the servicer advanced, unless otherwise prohibited by applicable law.
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<P>(iii) <I>Small servicers.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (k)(5)(i) and (k)(5)(ii)(B) of this section and subject to the requirements in § 1024.37, a servicer that qualifies as a small servicer pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.41(e)(4) may purchase force-placed insurance and charge the cost of that insurance to the borrower if the cost to the borrower of the force-placed insurance is less than the amount the small servicer would need to disburse from the borrower's escrow account to ensure that the borrower's hazard insurance premium charges were paid in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Discretionary payments.</I> Any borrower's discretionary payment (such as credit life or disability insurance) made as part of a monthly mortgage payment is to be noted on the initial and annual statements. If a discretionary payment is established or terminated during the escrow account computation year, this change should be noted on the next annual statement. A discretionary payment is not part of the escrow account unless the payment is required by the lender, in accordance with the definition of “settlement service” in § 1024.2, or the servicer chooses to place the discretionary payment in the escrow account. If a servicer has not established an escrow account for a federally related mortgage loan and only receives payments for discretionary items, this section is not applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 10875, Feb. 14, 2013; 81 FR 72370, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1024.18-1024.19" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1024.18-1024.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.20" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.20   List of homeownership counseling organizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provision of list.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, not later than three business days after a lender, mortgage broker, or dealer receives an application, or information sufficient to complete an application, the lender must provide the loan applicant with a clear and conspicuous written list of homeownership counseling organizations that provide relevant counseling services in the loan applicant's location. The list of homeownership counseling organizations distributed to each loan applicant under this section shall be obtained no earlier than 30 days prior to the time when the list is provided to the loan applicant from either:
</P>
<P>(i) The Web site maintained by the Bureau for lenders to use in complying with the requirements of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Data made available by the Bureau or HUD for lenders to use in complying with the requirements of this section, provided that the data is used in accordance with instructions provided with the data.
</P>
<P>(2) The list of homeownership counseling organizations provided under this section may be combined and provided with other mortgage loan disclosures required pursuant to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026, or this part unless prohibited by Regulation Z or this part.
</P>
<P>(3) A mortgage broker or dealer may provide the list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section to any loan applicant from whom it receives or for whom it prepares an application. If the mortgage broker or dealer has provided the required list of homeownership counseling organizations, the lender is not required to provide an additional list. The lender is responsible for ensuring that the list of homeownership counseling organizations is provided to a loan applicant in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(4) If the lender, mortgage broker, or dealer does not provide the list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section to the loan applicant in person, the lender must mail or deliver the list to the loan applicant by other means. The list may be provided in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act), 15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(5) The lender is not required to provide the list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section if, before the end of the three-business-day period provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the lender denies the application or the loan applicant withdraws the application.
</P>
<P>(6) If a mortgage loan transaction involves more than one lender, only one list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section shall be given to the loan applicant and the lenders shall agree among themselves which lender will comply with the requirements that this section imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one loan applicant, the required list of homeownership counseling organizations may be provided to any loan applicant with primary liability on the mortgage loan obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Open-end lines of credit (home-equity plans) under Regulation Z.</I> For a federally related mortgage loan that is a home-equity line of credit subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.40, a lender or mortgage broker that provides the loan applicant with the list of homeownership organizations required under this section may comply with the timing and delivery requirements set out in either paragraph (a) of this section or 12 CFR 1026.40(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Reverse mortgage transactions.</I> A lender is not required to provide an applicant for a reverse mortgage transaction subject to 12 CFR 1026.33(a) the list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timeshare plans.</I> A lender is not required to provide an applicant for a mortgage loan secured by a timeshare, as described under 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), the list of homeownership counseling organizations required under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 6961, Jan. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Mortgage Servicing</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1024.30" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.30   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, this subpart applies to any mortgage loan, as that term is defined in § 1024.31.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemptions.</I> Except as otherwise provided in § 1024.41(j), §§ 1024.38 through 1024.41 of this subpart shall not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A servicer that qualifies as a small servicer pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.41(e)(4);
</P>
<P>(2) A servicer with respect to any reverse mortgage transaction as that term is defined in § 1024.31; and
</P>
<P>(3) A servicer with respect to any mortgage loan for which the servicer is a qualified lender as that term is defined in 12 CFR 617.7000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope of certain sections.</I> (1) Section 1024.33(a) only applies to reverse mortgage transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures set forth in §§ 1024.39 through 1024.41 of this subpart only apply to a mortgage loan that is secured by a property that is a borrower's principal residence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Successors in interest.</I> A confirmed successor in interest shall be considered a borrower for purposes of § 1024.17 and this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 60437, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 80104, Dec. 31, 2013; 81 FR 72370, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.31" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.31   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Confirmed successor in interest</I> means a successor in interest once a servicer has confirmed the successor in interest's identity and ownership interest in a property that secures a mortgage loan subject to this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer reporting agency</I> has the meaning set forth in section 603 of the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681a.


</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquency</I> means a period of time during which a borrower and a borrower's mortgage loan obligation are delinquent. A borrower and a borrower's mortgage loan obligation are delinquent beginning on the date a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and, if applicable, escrow becomes due and unpaid, until such time as no periodic payment is due and unpaid.
</P>
<P><I>Hazard insurance</I> means insurance on the property securing a mortgage loan that protects the property against loss caused by fire, wind, flood, earthquake, theft, falling objects, freezing, and other similar hazards for which the owner or assignee of such loan requires insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Loss mitigation application</I> means an oral or written request for a loss mitigation option that is accompanied by any information required by a servicer for evaluation for a loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P><I>Loss mitigation option</I> means an alternative to foreclosure offered by the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan that is made available through the servicer to the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Master servicer</I> means the owner of the right to perform servicing. A master servicer may perform the servicing itself or do so through a subservicer.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage loan</I> means any federally related mortgage loan, as that term is defined in § 1024.2 subject to the exemptions in § 1024.5(b), but does not include open-end lines of credit (home equity plans).
</P>
<P><I>Qualified written request</I> means a written correspondence from the borrower to the servicer that includes, or otherwise enables the servicer to identify, the name and account of the borrower, and either:
</P>
<P>(1) States the reasons the borrower believes the account is in error; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provides sufficient detail to the servicer regarding information relating to the servicing of the mortgage loan sought by the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse mortgage transaction</I> has the meaning set forth in 12 CFR 1026.33(a).
</P>
<P><I>Service provider</I> means any party retained by a servicer that interacts with a borrower or provides a service to the servicer for which a borrower may incur a fee.
</P>
<P><I>Subservicer</I> means a servicer that does not own the right to perform servicing, but that performs servicing on behalf of the master servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Successor in interest</I> means a person to whom an ownership interest in a property securing a mortgage loan subject to this subpart is transferred from a borrower, provided that the transfer is:
</P>
<P>(1) A transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety;
</P>
<P>(2) A transfer to a relative resulting from the death of a borrower;
</P>
<P>(3) A transfer where the spouse or children of the borrower become an owner of the property;
</P>
<P>(4) A transfer resulting from a decree of a dissolution of marriage, legal separation agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement, by which the spouse of the borrower becomes an owner of the property; or
</P>
<P>(5) A transfer into an <I>inter vivos</I> trust in which the borrower is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property.
</P>
<P><I>Transferee servicer</I> means a servicer that obtains or will obtain the right to perform servicing pursuant to an agreement or understanding.
</P>
<P><I>Transferor servicer</I> means a servicer, including a table-funding mortgage broker or dealer on a first- lien dealer loan, that transfers or will transfer the right to perform servicing pursuant to an agreement or understanding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 72370, Oct. 19, 2016; 86 FR 34899, June 30, 2021; 90 FR 20792, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.32" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.32   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure requirements</I>—(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this subpart, disclosures required under this subpart must be clear and conspicuous, in writing, and in a form that a recipient may keep. The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act, as set forth in § 1024.3. A servicer may use commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations in complying with the disclosure requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this subpart may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon a recipient's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information; disclosures required by other laws.</I> Unless expressly prohibited in this subpart, by other applicable law, such as the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) or the Truth in Savings Act (12 U.S.C. 4301 <I>et seq.</I>), or by the terms of an agreement with a Federal or State regulatory agency, a servicer may include additional information in a disclosure required under this subpart or combine any disclosure required under this subpart with any disclosure required by such other law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Successors in interest</I>—(1) <I>Optional notice with acknowledgment form.</I> Upon confirmation, a servicer may provide a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation with a written notice together with a separate acknowledgment form that meets the requirements of paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section and that does not require acknowledgment of any items other than those identified in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section. The written notice must clearly and conspicuously explain that:
</P>
<P>(i) The servicer has confirmed the successor in interest's identity and ownership interest in the property;
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless the successor in interest assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law, the successor in interest is not liable for the mortgage debt and cannot be required to use the successor in interest's assets to pay the mortgage debt, except that the lender has a security interest in the property and a right to foreclose on the property, when permitted by law and authorized under the mortgage loan contract;
</P>
<P>(iii) The successor in interest may be entitled to receive certain notices and communications about the mortgage loan if the servicer is not providing them to another confirmed successor in interest or borrower on the account;
</P>
<P>(iv) In order to receive such notices and communications, the successor in interest must execute and provide to the servicer an acknowledgment form that:
</P>
<P>(A) Requests receipt of such notices and communications if the servicer is not providing them to another confirmed successor in interest or borrower on the account; and
</P>
<P>(B) Indicates that the successor in interest understands that such notices do not make the successor in interest liable for the mortgage debt and that the successor in interest is only liable for the mortgage debt if the successor in interest assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law; and
</P>
<P>(C) Informs the successor in interest that there is no time limit to return the acknowledgment but that the servicer will not begin sending such notices and communications to the confirmed successor in interest until the acknowledgment is returned; and
</P>
<P>(v) Whether or not the successor in interest executes the acknowledgment described in paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section, the successor in interest is entitled to submit notices of error under § 1024.35, requests for information under § 1024.36, and requests for a payoff statement under § 1026.36 with respect to the mortgage loan account, with a brief explanation of those rights and how to exercise them, including appropriate address information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of failure to execute acknowledgment.</I> If, upon confirmation, a servicer provides a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation with a written notice and acknowledgment form in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the servicer is not required to provide to the confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by § 1024.17, § 1024.33, § 1024.34, § 1024.37, or § 1024.39 or to comply with the live contact requirements in § 1024.39(a) with respect to the confirmed successor in interest until the confirmed successor in interest either assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law or executes an acknowledgment that complies with paragraph (c)(1)(iv) of this section and provides it to the servicer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional copies of acknowledgment form.</I> If a servicer provides a confirmed successor in interest with a written notice and acknowledgment form in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the servicer must make additional copies of the written notice and acknowledgment form available to the confirmed successor in interest upon written or oral request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple notices unnecessary.</I> Except as required by § 1024.36, a servicer is not required to provide to a confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by § 1024.17, § 1024.33, § 1024.34, § 1024.37, or § 1024.39(b) if the servicer is providing the same specific disclosure to another borrower on the account. A servicer is also not required to comply with the live contact requirements set forth in § 1024.39(a) with respect to a confirmed successor in interest if the servicer is complying with those requirements with respect to another borrower on the account.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 72371, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.33" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.33   Mortgage servicing transfers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Servicing disclosure statement.</I> Within three days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after a person applies for a reverse mortgage transaction, the lender, mortgage broker who anticipates using table funding, or dealer in a first-lien dealer loan shall provide to the person a servicing disclosure statement that states whether the servicing of the mortgage loan may be assigned, sold, or transferred to any other person at any time. Appendix MS-1 of this part contains a model form for the disclosures required under this paragraph (a). If a person who applies for a reverse mortgage transaction is denied credit within the three-day period, a servicing disclosure statement is not required to be delivered.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notices of transfer of loan servicing</I>—(1) <I>Requirement for notice.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each transferor servicer and transferee servicer of any mortgage loan shall provide to the borrower a notice of transfer for any assignment, sale, or transfer of the servicing of the mortgage loan. The notice must contain the information described in paragraph (b)(4) of this section. Appendix MS-2 of this part contains a model form for the disclosures required under this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain transfers excluded.</I> (i) The following transfers are not assignments, sales, or transfers of mortgage loan servicing for purposes of this section if there is no change in the payee, address to which payment must be delivered, account number, or amount of payment due:
</P>
<P>(A) A transfer between affiliates;
</P>
<P>(B) A transfer that results from mergers or acquisitions of servicers or subservicers;
</P>
<P>(C) A transfer that occurs between master servicers without changing the subservicer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Federal Housing Administration (FHA) is not required to provide to the borrower a notice of transfer where a mortgage insured under the National Housing Act is assigned to the FHA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time of notice</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the transferor servicer shall provide the notice of transfer to the borrower not less than 15 days before the effective date of the transfer of the servicing of the mortgage loan. The transferee servicer shall provide the notice of transfer to the borrower not more than 15 days after the effective date of the transfer. The transferor and transferee servicers may provide a single notice, in which case the notice shall be provided not less than 15 days before the effective date of the transfer of the servicing of the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extended time.</I> The notice of transfer shall be provided to the borrower by the transferor servicer or the transferee servicer not more than 30 days after the effective date of the transfer of the servicing of the mortgage loan in any case in which the transfer of servicing is preceded by:
</P>
<P>(A) Termination of the contract for servicing the loan for cause;
</P>
<P>(B) Commencement of proceedings for bankruptcy of the servicer;
</P>
<P>(C) Commencement of proceedings by the FDIC for conservatorship or receivership of the servicer or an entity that owns or controls the servicer; or
</P>
<P>(D) Commencement of proceedings by the NCUA for appointment of a conservator or liquidating agent of the servicer or an entity that owns or controls the servicer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice provided at settlement.</I> Notices of transfer provided at settlement by the transferor servicer and transferee servicer, whether as separate notices or as a combined notice, satisfy the timing requirements of paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Contents of notice.</I> The notices of transfer shall include the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The effective date of the transfer of servicing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name, address, and a collect call or toll-free telephone number for an employee or department of the transferee servicer that can be contacted by the borrower to obtain answers to servicing transfer inquiries;
</P>
<P>(iii) The name, address, and a collect call or toll-free telephone number for an employee or department of the transferor servicer that can be contacted by the borrower to obtain answers to servicing transfer inquiries;
</P>
<P>(iv) The date on which the transferor servicer will cease to accept payments relating to the loan and the date on which the transferee servicer will begin to accept such payments. These dates shall either be the same or consecutive days;
</P>
<P>(v) Whether the transfer will affect the terms or the continued availability of mortgage life or disability insurance, or any other type of optional insurance, and any action the borrower must take to maintain such coverage; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the transfer of servicing does not affect any term or condition of the mortgage loan other than terms directly related to the servicing of the loan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Borrower payments during transfer of servicing</I>—(1) <I>Payments not considered late.</I> During the 60-day period beginning on the effective date of transfer of the servicing of any mortgage loan, if the transferor servicer (rather than the transferee servicer that should properly receive payment on the loan) receives payment on or before the applicable due date (including any grace period allowed under the mortgage loan instruments), a payment may not be treated as late for any purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Treatment of payments.</I> Beginning on the effective date of transfer of the servicing of any mortgage loan, with respect to payments received incorrectly by the transferor servicer (rather than the transferee servicer that should properly receive the payment on the loan), the transferor servicer shall promptly either:
</P>
<P>(i) Transfer the payment to the transferee servicer for application to a borrower's mortgage loan account, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Return the payment to the person that made the payment and notify such person of the proper recipient of the payment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Preemption of State laws.</I> A lender who makes a mortgage loan or a servicer shall be considered to have complied with the provisions of any State law or regulation requiring notice to a borrower at the time of application for a loan or transfer of servicing of a loan if the lender or servicer complies with the requirements of this section. Any State law requiring notice to the borrower at the time of application or at the time of transfer of servicing of the loan is preempted, and there shall be no additional borrower disclosure requirements. Provisions of State law, such as those requiring additional notices to insurance companies or taxing authorities, are not preempted by section 6 of RESPA or this section, and this additional information may be added to a notice provided under this section, if permitted under State law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 80104, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.34" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.34   Timely escrow payments and treatment of escrow account balances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timely escrow disbursements required.</I> If the terms of a mortgage loan require the borrower to make payments to the servicer of the mortgage loan for deposit into an escrow account to pay taxes, insurance premiums, and other charges for the mortgaged property, the servicer shall make payments from the escrow account in a timely manner, that is, on or before the deadline to avoid a penalty, as governed by the requirements in § 1024.17(k).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Refund of escrow balance</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, within 20 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of a borrower's payment of a mortgage loan in full, a servicer shall return to the borrower any amounts remaining in an escrow account that is within the servicer's control.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Servicer may credit funds to a new escrow account.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, if the borrower agrees, a servicer may credit any amounts remaining in an escrow account that is within the servicer's control to an escrow account for a new mortgage loan as of the date of the settlement of the new mortgage loan if the new mortgage loan is provided to the borrower by a lender that:
</P>
<P>(i) Was also the lender to whom the prior mortgage loan was initially payable;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is the owner or assignee of the prior mortgage loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Uses the same servicer that serviced the prior mortgage loan to service the new mortgage loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.35" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.35   Error resolution procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of error.</I> A servicer shall comply with the requirements of this section for any written notice from the borrower that asserts an error and that includes the name of the borrower, information that enables the servicer to identify the borrower's mortgage loan account, and the error the borrower believes has occurred. A notice on a payment coupon or other payment form supplied by the servicer need not be treated by the servicer as a notice of error. A qualified written request that asserts an error relating to the servicing of a mortgage loan is a notice of error for purposes of this section, and a servicer must comply with all requirements applicable to a notice of error with respect to such qualified written request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of error resolution.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “error” refers to the following categories of covered errors:
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to accept a payment that conforms to the servicer's written requirements for the borrower to follow in making payments.
</P>
<P>(2) Failure to apply an accepted payment to principal, interest, escrow, or other charges under the terms of the mortgage loan and applicable law.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to credit a payment to a borrower's mortgage loan account as of the date of receipt in violation of 12 CFR 1026.36(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to pay taxes, insurance premiums, or other charges, including charges that the borrower and servicer have voluntarily agreed that the servicer should collect and pay, in a timely manner as required by § 1024.34(a), or to refund an escrow account balance as required by § 1024.34(b).
</P>
<P>(5) Imposition of a fee or charge that the servicer lacks a reasonable basis to impose upon the borrower.
</P>
<P>(6) Failure to provide an accurate payoff balance amount upon a borrower's request in violation of section 12 CFR 1026.36(c)(3).
</P>
<P>(7) Failure to provide accurate information to a borrower regarding loss mitigation options and foreclosure, as required by § 1024.39.
</P>
<P>(8) Failure to transfer accurately and timely information relating to the servicing of a borrower's mortgage loan account to a transferee servicer.
</P>
<P>(9) Making the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process in violation of § 1024.41(f) or (j).
</P>
<P>(10) Moving for foreclosure judgment or order of sale, or conducting a foreclosure sale in violation of § 1024.41(g) or (j).
</P>
<P>(11) Any other error relating to the servicing of a borrower's mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contact information for borrowers to assert errors.</I> A servicer may, by written notice provided to a borrower, establish an address that a borrower must use to submit a notice of error in accordance with the procedures in this section. The notice shall include a statement that the borrower must use the established address to assert an error. If a servicer designates a specific address for receiving notices of error, the servicer shall designate the same address for receiving information requests pursuant to § 1024.36(b). A servicer shall provide a written notice to a borrower before any change in the address used for receiving a notice of error. A servicer that designates an address for receipt of notices of error must post the designated address on any Web site maintained by the servicer if the Web site lists any contact address for the servicer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acknowledgment of receipt.</I> Within five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of a servicer receiving a notice of error from a borrower, the servicer shall provide to the borrower a written response acknowledging receipt of the notice of error.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Response to notice of error</I>—(1) <I>Investigation and response requirements</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, a servicer must respond to a notice of error by either:
</P>
<P>(A) Correcting the error or errors identified by the borrower and providing the borrower with a written notification of the correction, the effective date of the correction, and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance; or
</P>
<P>(B) Conducting a reasonable investigation and providing the borrower with a written notification that includes a statement that the servicer has determined that no error occurred, a statement of the reason or reasons for this determination, a statement of the borrower's right to request documents relied upon by the servicer in reaching its determination, information regarding how the borrower can request such documents, and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Different or additional error.</I> If during a reasonable investigation of a notice of error, a servicer concludes that errors occurred other than, or in addition to, the error or errors alleged by the borrower, the servicer shall correct all such additional errors and provide the borrower with a written notification that describes the errors the servicer identified, the action taken to correct the errors, the effective date of the correction, and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requesting information from borrower.</I> A servicer may request supporting documentation from a borrower in connection with the investigation of an asserted error, but may not:
</P>
<P>(i) Require a borrower to provide such information as a condition of investigating an asserted error; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine that no error occurred because the borrower failed to provide any requested information without conducting a reasonable investigation pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Time limits</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A servicer must comply with the requirements of paragraph (e)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Not later than seven days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after the servicer receives the notice of error for errors asserted under paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Prior to the date of a foreclosure sale or within 30 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after the servicer receives the notice of error, whichever is earlier, for errors asserted under paragraphs (b)(9) and (10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) For all other asserted errors, not later than 30 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after the servicer receives the applicable notice of error.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extension of time limit.</I> For asserted errors governed by the time limit set forth in paragraph (e)(3)(i)(C) of this section, a servicer may extend the time period for responding by an additional 15 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) if, before the end of the 30-day period, the servicer notifies the borrower of the extension and the reasons for the extension in writing. A servicer may not extend the time period for responding to errors asserted under paragraph (b)(6), (9), or (10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Copies of documentation.</I> A servicer shall provide to the borrower, at no charge, copies of documents and information relied upon by the servicer in making its determination that no error occurred within 15 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of receiving the borrower's request for such documents. A servicer is not required to provide documents relied upon that constitute confidential, proprietary or privileged information. If a servicer withholds documents relied upon because it has determined that such documents constitute confidential, proprietary or privileged information, the servicer must notify the borrower of its determination in writing within 15 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of receipt of the borrower's request for such documents.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Omissions in responses to requests for documentation.</I> In its response to a request for documentation under paragraph (e)(4) of this section, a servicer may omit location and contact information and personal financial information (other than information about the terms, status, and payment history of the mortgage loan) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The information pertains to a potential or confirmed successor in interest who is not the requester; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester is a confirmed successor in interest and the information pertains to any borrower who is not the requester.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Alternative compliance</I>—(1) <I>Early correction.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section if the servicer corrects the error or errors asserted by the borrower and notifies the borrower of that correction in writing within five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of receiving the notice of error.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Error asserted before foreclosure sale.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section for errors asserted under paragraph (b)(9) or (10) of this section if the servicer receives the applicable notice of an error seven or fewer days before a foreclosure sale. For any such notice of error, a servicer shall make a good faith attempt to respond to the borrower, orally or in writing, and either correct the error or state the reason the servicer has determined that no error has occurred.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Requirements not applicable</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), and (i) of this section if the servicer reasonably determines that any of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duplicative notice of error.</I> The asserted error is substantially the same as an error previously asserted by the borrower for which the servicer has previously complied with its obligation to respond pursuant to paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, unless the borrower provides new and material information to support the asserted error. New and material information means information that was not reviewed by the servicer in connection with investigating a prior notice of the same error and is reasonably likely to change the servicer's prior determination about the error.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Overbroad notice of error.</I> The notice of error is overbroad. A notice of error is overbroad if the servicer cannot reasonably determine from the notice of error the specific error that the borrower asserts has occurred on a borrower's account. To the extent a servicer can reasonably identify a valid assertion of an error in a notice of error that is otherwise overbroad, the servicer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e) and (i) of this section with respect to that asserted error.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Untimely notice of error.</I> A notice of error is delivered to the servicer more than one year after:
</P>
<P>(A) Servicing for the mortgage loan that is the subject of the asserted error was transferred from the servicer receiving the notice of error to a transferee servicer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The mortgage loan is discharged.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to borrower.</I> If a servicer determines that, pursuant to this paragraph (g), the servicer is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), and (i) of this section, the servicer shall notify the borrower of its determination in writing not later than five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after making such determination. The notice to the borrower shall set forth the basis under paragraph (g)(1) of this section upon which the servicer has made such determination.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Payment requirements prohibited.</I> A servicer shall not charge a fee, or require a borrower to make any payment that may be owed on a borrower's account, as a condition of responding to a notice of error.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effect on servicer remedies</I>—(1) <I>Adverse information.</I> After receipt of a notice of error, a servicer may not, for 60 days, furnish adverse information to any consumer reporting agency regarding any payment that is the subject of the notice of error.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Remedies permitted.</I> Except as set forth in this section with respect to an assertion of error under paragraph (b)(9) or (10) of this section, nothing in this section shall limit or restrict a lender or servicer from pursuing any remedy it has under applicable law, including initiating foreclosure or proceeding with a foreclosure sale.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 60437, Oct. 1, 2013; 81 FR 72371, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.36" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.36   Requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information request.</I> A servicer shall comply with the requirements of this section for any written request for information from a borrower that includes the name of the borrower, information that enables the servicer to identify the borrower's mortgage loan account, and states the information the borrower is requesting with respect to the borrower's mortgage loan. A request on a payment coupon or other payment form supplied by the servicer need not be treated by the servicer as a request for information. A request for a payoff balance need not be treated by the servicer as a request for information. A qualified written request that requests information relating to the servicing of the mortgage loan is a request for information for purposes of this section, and a servicer must comply with all requirements applicable to a request for information with respect to such qualified written request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contact information for borrowers to request information.</I> A servicer may, by written notice provided to a borrower, establish an address that a borrower must use to request information in accordance with the procedures in this section. The notice shall include a statement that the borrower must use the established address to request information. If a servicer designates a specific address for receiving information requests, a servicer shall designate the same address for receiving notices of error pursuant to § 1024.35(c). A servicer shall provide a written notice to a borrower before any change in the address used for receiving an information request. A servicer that designates an address for receipt of information requests must post the designated address on any Web site maintained by the servicer if the Web site lists any contact address for the servicer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acknowledgment of receipt.</I> Within five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of a servicer receiving an information request from a borrower, the servicer shall provide to the borrower a written response acknowledging receipt of the information request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Response to information request</I>—(1) <I>Investigation and response requirements.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, a servicer must respond to an information request by either:
</P>
<P>(i) Providing the borrower with the requested information and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance in writing; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Conducting a reasonable search for the requested information and providing the borrower with a written notification that states that the servicer has determined that the requested information is not available to the servicer, provides the basis for the servicer's determination, and provides contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time limits</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A servicer must comply with the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Not later than 10 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after the servicer receives an information request for the identity of, and address or other relevant contact information for, the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) For all other requests for information, not later than 30 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after the servicer receives the information request.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extension of time limit.</I> For requests for information governed by the time limit set forth in paragraph (d)(2)(i)(B) of this section, a servicer may extend the time period for responding by an additional 15 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) if, before the end of the 30-day period, the servicer notifies the borrower of the extension and the reasons for the extension in writing. A servicer may not extend the time period for requests for information governed by paragraph (d)(2)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Omissions in responses to requests.</I> In its response to a request for information, a servicer may omit location and contact information and personal financial information (other than information about the terms, status, and payment history of the mortgage loan) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The information pertains to a potential or confirmed successor in interest who is not the requester; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester is a confirmed successor and the information pertains to any borrower who is not the requester.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative compliance.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section if the servicer provides the borrower with the information requested and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance in writing within five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of receiving an information request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requirements not applicable</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section if the servicer reasonably determines that any of the following apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duplicative information.</I> The information requested is substantially the same as information previously requested by the borrower for which the servicer has previously complied with its obligation to respond pursuant to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Confidential, proprietary or privileged information.</I> The information requested is confidential, proprietary or privileged.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Irrelevant information.</I> The information requested is not directly related to the borrower's mortgage loan account.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Overbroad or unduly burdensome information request.</I> The information request is overbroad or unduly burdensome. An information request is overbroad if a borrower requests that the servicer provide an unreasonable volume of documents or information to a borrower. An information request is unduly burdensome if a diligent servicer could not respond to the information request without either exceeding the maximum time limit permitted by paragraph (d)(2) of this section or incurring costs (or dedicating resources) that would be unreasonable in light of the circumstances. To the extent a servicer can reasonably identify a valid information request in a submission that is otherwise overbroad or unduly burdensome, the servicer shall comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section with respect to that requested information.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Untimely information request.</I> The information request is delivered to a servicer more than one year after:
</P>
<P>(A) Servicing for the mortgage loan that is the subject of the information request was transferred from the servicer receiving the request for information to a transferee servicer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The mortgage loan is discharged.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to borrower.</I> If a servicer determines that, pursuant to this paragraph (f), the servicer is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the servicer shall notify the borrower of its determination in writing not later than five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after making such determination. The notice to the borrower shall set forth the basis under paragraph (f)(1) of this section upon which the servicer has made such determination.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payment requirement limitations</I>—(1) <I>Fees prohibited.</I> Except as set forth in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, a servicer shall not charge a fee, or require a borrower to make any payment that may be owed on a borrower's account, as a condition of responding to an information request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fee permitted.</I> Nothing in this section shall prohibit a servicer from charging a fee for providing a beneficiary notice under applicable State law, if such a fee is not otherwise prohibited by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Servicer remedies.</I> Nothing in this section shall prohibit a servicer from furnishing adverse information to any consumer reporting agency or pursuing any of its remedies, including initiating foreclosure or proceeding with a foreclosure sale, allowed by the underlying mortgage loan instruments, during the time period that response to an information request notice is outstanding.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Potential successors in interest.</I> (1) With respect to any written request from a person that indicates that the person may be a successor in interest and that includes the name of the transferor borrower from whom the person received an ownership interest and information that enables the servicer to identify the mortgage loan account, a servicer shall respond by providing the potential successor in interest with a written description of the documents the servicer reasonably requires to confirm the person's identity and ownership interest in the property and contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance. With respect to the written request, a servicer shall treat the potential successor in interest as a borrower for purposes of the requirements of paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a written request under paragraph (i)(1) of this section does not provide sufficient information to enable the servicer to identify the documents the servicer reasonably requires to confirm the person's identity and ownership interest in the property, the servicer may provide a response that includes examples of documents typically accepted to establish identity and ownership interest in a property; indicates that the person may obtain a more individualized description of required documents by providing additional information; specifies what additional information is required to enable the servicer to identify the required documents; and provides contact information, including a telephone number, for further assistance. A servicer's response under this paragraph (i)(2) must otherwise comply with the requirements of paragraph (i)(1). Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, if a potential successor in interest subsequently provides orally or in writing the required information specified by the servicer pursuant to this paragraph (i)(2), the servicer must treat the new information, together with the original request, as a new, non-duplicative request under paragraph (i)(1), received as of the date the required information was received, and must respond accordingly.
</P>
<P>(3) In responding to a request under paragraph (i)(1) of this section prior to confirmation, the servicer is not required to provide any information other than the information specified in paragraphs (i)(1) and (2) of this section. In responding to a written request under paragraph (i)(1) that requests other information, the servicer must indicate that the potential successor in interest may resubmit any request for information once confirmed as a successor in interest.
</P>
<P>(4) If a servicer has established an address that a borrower must use to request information pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, a servicer must comply with the requirements of paragraph (i)(1) of this section only for requests received at the established address.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 60437, Oct. 1, 2013; 81 FR 72371, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.37" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.37   Force-placed insurance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For the purposes of this section, the term “force-placed insurance” means hazard insurance obtained by a servicer on behalf of the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan that insures the property securing such loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Types of insurance not considered force-placed insurance.</I> The following insurance does not constitute “force-placed insurance” under this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Hazard insurance required by the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973.
</P>
<P>(ii) Hazard insurance obtained by a borrower but renewed by the borrower's servicer as described in § 1024.17(k)(1), (2), or (5).
</P>
<P>(iii) Hazard insurance obtained by a borrower but renewed by the borrower's servicer at its discretion, if the borrower agrees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Basis for charging borrower for force-placed insurance.</I> A servicer may not assess on a borrower a premium charge or fee related to force-placed insurance unless the servicer has a reasonable basis to believe that the borrower has failed to comply with the mortgage loan contract's requirement to maintain hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements before charging borrower for force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Before a servicer assesses on a borrower any premium charge or fee related to force-placed insurance, the servicer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Deliver to a borrower or place in the mail a written notice containing the information required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section at least 45 days before a servicer assesses on a borrower such charge or fee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deliver to the borrower or place in the mail a written notice in accordance with paragraph (d)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) By the end of the 15-day period beginning on the date the written notice described in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section was delivered to the borrower or placed in the mail, not have received, from the borrower or otherwise, evidence demonstrating that the borrower has had in place, continuously, hazard insurance coverage that complies with the loan contract's requirements to maintain hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section shall set forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The servicer's name and mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iii) The borrower's name and mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that requests the borrower to provide hazard insurance information for the borrower's property and identifies the property by its physical address;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that:
</P>
<P>(A) The borrower's hazard insurance is expiring, has expired, or provides insufficient coverage, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The servicer does not have evidence that the borrower has hazard insurance coverage past the expiration date or evidence that the borrower has hazard insurance that provides sufficient coverage, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) If applicable, identifies the type of hazard insurance for which the servicer lacks evidence of coverage;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that hazard insurance is required on the borrower's property, and that the servicer has purchased or will purchase, as applicable, such insurance at the borrower's expense;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement requesting the borrower to promptly provide the servicer with insurance information;
</P>
<P>(viii) A description of the requested insurance information and how the borrower may provide such information, and if applicable, a statement that the requested information must be in writing;
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement that insurance the servicer has purchased or purchases:
</P>
<P>(A) May cost significantly more than hazard insurance purchased by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(B) Not provide as much coverage as hazard insurance purchased by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(x) The servicer's telephone number for borrower inquiries; and
</P>
<P>(xi) If applicable, a statement advising the borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format.</I> A servicer must set the information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(iv), (vi), and (ix)(A) and (B) in bold text, except that the information about the physical address of the borrower's property required by paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section may be set in regular text. A servicer may use form MS-3A in appendix MS-3 of this part to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> Except for the mortgage loan account number, a servicer may not include any information other than information required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section in the written notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section. However, a servicer may provide such additional information to a borrower on separate pieces of paper in the same transmittal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reminder notice</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section shall be delivered to the borrower or placed in the mail at least 15 days before a servicer assesses on a borrower a premium charge or fee related to force-placed insurance. A servicer may not deliver to a borrower or place in the mail the notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section until at least 30 days after delivering to the borrower or placing in the mail the written notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of the reminder notice</I>—(i) <I>Servicer receiving no insurance information.</I> A servicer that receives no hazard insurance information after delivering to the borrower or placing in the mail the notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section must set forth in the notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the notice;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the notice is the second and final notice;
</P>
<P>(C) The information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (xi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The cost of the force-placed insurance, stated as an annual premium, except if a servicer does not know the cost of force-placed insurance, a reasonable estimate shall be disclosed and identified as such.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Servicer lacking evidence of continuous coverage.</I> A servicer that has received hazard insurance information after delivering to a borrower or placing in the mail the notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section, but has not received, from the borrower or otherwise, evidence demonstrating that the borrower has had sufficient hazard insurance coverage in place continuously, must set forth in the notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The date of the notice;
</P>
<P>(B) The information required by paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (iv) and (ix) through (xi) and (d)(2)(i)(B) and (D) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the servicer has received the hazard insurance information that the borrower provided;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that requests the borrower to provide the information that is missing;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement that the borrower will be charged for insurance the servicer has purchased or purchases for the period of time during which the servicer is unable to verify coverage;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format.</I> A servicer must set the information required by paragraphs (d)(2)(i)(B) and (D) of this section in bold text. The requirements of paragraph (c)(3) of this section apply to the information required by paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) of this section. A servicer may use form MS-3B in appendix MS-3 of this part to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2)(i) of this section. A servicer may use form MS-3C in appendix MS-3 of this part to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (d)(1) and (d)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> Except for the borrower's mortgage loan account number, a servicer may not include any information other than information required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section, as applicable, in the written notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. However, a servicer may provide such additional information to a borrower on separate pieces of paper in the same transmittal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Updating notice with borrower information.</I> If a servicer receives new information about a borrower's hazard insurance after a written notice required by paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section has been put into production, the servicer is not required to update such notice based on the new information so long as the notice was put into production a reasonable time prior to the servicer delivering the notice to the borrower or placing the notice in the mail.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Renewing or replacing force-placed insurance</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Before a servicer assesses on a borrower a premium charge or fee related to renewing or replacing existing force-placed insurance, a servicer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Deliver to the borrower or place in the mail a written notice containing the information set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section at least 45 days before assessing on a borrower such charge or fee; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By the end of the 45-day period beginning on the date the written notice required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section was delivered to the borrower or placed in the mail, not have received, from the borrower or otherwise, evidence demonstrating that the borrower has purchased hazard insurance coverage that complies with the loan contract's requirements to maintain hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charging a borrower before end of notice period.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, if not prohibited by State or other applicable law, if a servicer has renewed or replaced existing force-placed insurance and receives evidence demonstrating that the borrower lacked insurance coverage for some period of time following the expiration of the existing force-placed insurance (including during the notice period prescribed by paragraph (e)(1) of this section), the servicer may, promptly upon receiving such evidence, assess on the borrower a premium charge or fee related to renewing or replacing existing force-placed insurance for that period of time.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of renewal notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section shall set forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) The servicer's name and mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iii) The borrower's name and mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that requests the borrower to update the hazard insurance information for the borrower's property and identifies the borrower's property by its physical address;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the servicer previously purchased insurance on the borrower's property and assessed the cost of the insurance to the borrower because the servicer did not have evidence that the borrower had hazard insurance coverage for the property;
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that:
</P>
<P>(A) The insurance the servicer purchased previously has expired or is expiring, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Because hazard insurance is required on the borrower's property, the servicer intends to maintain insurance on the property by renewing or replacing the insurance it previously purchased;
</P>
<P>(vii) A statement informing the borrower:
</P>
<P>(A) That insurance the servicer purchases may cost significantly more than hazard insurance purchased by the borrower;
</P>
<P>(B) That such insurance may not provide as much coverage as hazard insurance purchased by the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(C) The cost of the force-placed insurance, stated as an annual premium, except if a servicer does not know the cost of force-placed insurance, a reasonable estimate shall be disclosed and identified as such.
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement that if the borrower purchases hazard insurance, the borrower should promptly provide the servicer with insurance information.
</P>
<P>(ix) A description of the requested insurance information and how the borrower may provide such information, and if applicable, a statement that the requested information must be in writing;
</P>
<P>(x) The servicer's telephone number for borrower inquiries; and
</P>
<P>(xi) If applicable, a statement advising a borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format.</I> A servicer must set the information required by paragraphs (e)(2)(iv), (vi)(B), and (vii)(A) through (C) of this section in bold text, except that the information about the physical address of the borrower's property required by paragraph (e)(2)(iv) may be set in regular text. A servicer may use form MS-3D in appendix MS-3 of this part to comply with the requirements of paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional information.</I> Except for the borrower's mortgage loan account number, a servicer may not include any information other than information required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section in the written notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section. However, a servicer may provide such additional information to a borrower on separate pieces of paper in the same transmittal.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Frequency of renewal notices.</I> Before each anniversary of a servicer purchasing force-placed insurance on a borrower's property, the servicer shall deliver to the borrower or place in the mail the written notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section. A servicer is not required to provide the written notice required by paragraph (e)(1) of this section more than once a year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mailing the notices.</I> If a servicer mails a written notice required by paragraphs (c)(1)(i), (c)(1)(ii), or (e)(1) of this section, the servicer must use a class of mail not less than first-class mail.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Cancellation of force-placed insurance.</I> Within 15 days of receiving, from the borrower or otherwise, evidence demonstrating that the borrower has had in place hazard insurance coverage that complies with the loan contract's requirements to maintain hazard insurance, a servicer must:
</P>
<P>(1) Cancel the force-placed insurance the servicer purchased to insure the borrower's property; and
</P>
<P>(2) Refund to such borrower all force-placed insurance premium charges and related fees paid by such borrower for any period of overlapping insurance coverage and remove from the borrower's account all force-placed insurance charges and related fees for such period that the servicer has assessed to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Limitations on force-placed insurance charges</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except for charges subject to State regulation as the business of insurance and charges authorized by the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, all charges related to force-placed insurance assessed to a borrower by or through the servicer must be bona fide and reasonable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bona fide and reasonable charge.</I> A bona fide and reasonable charge is a charge for a service actually performed that bears a reasonable relationship to the servicer's cost of providing the service, and is not otherwise prohibited by applicable law.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Relationship to Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973.</I> If permitted by regulation under section 102(e) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, a servicer subject to the requirements of this section may deliver to the borrower or place in the mail any notice required by this section and the notice required by section 102(e) of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 on separate pieces of paper in the same transmittal.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 72372, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.38" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.38   General servicing policies, procedures, and requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reasonable policies and procedures.</I> A servicer shall maintain policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to achieve the objectives set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objectives</I>—(1) <I>Accessing and providing timely and accurate information.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide accurate and timely disclosures to a borrower as required by this subpart or other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(ii) Investigate, respond to, and, as appropriate, make corrections in response to complaints asserted by a borrower;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide a borrower with accurate and timely information and documents in response to the borrower's requests for information with respect to the borrower's mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide owners or assignees of mortgage loans with accurate and current information and documents about all mortgage loans they own;
</P>
<P>(v) Submit documents or filings required for a foreclosure process, including documents or filings required by a court of competent jurisdiction, that reflect accurate and current information and that comply with applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Upon receiving notice of the death of a borrower or of any transfer of the property securing a mortgage loan, promptly facilitate communication with any potential or confirmed successors in interest regarding the property;
</P>
<P>(B) Upon receiving notice of the existence of a potential successor in interest, promptly determine the documents the servicer reasonably requires to confirm that person's identity and ownership interest in the property and promptly provide to the potential successor in interest a description of those documents and how the person may submit a written request under § 1024.36(i) (including the appropriate address); and
</P>
<P>(C) Upon the receipt of such documents, promptly make a confirmation determination and promptly notify the person, as applicable, that the servicer has confirmed the person's status, has determined that additional documents are required (and what those documents are), or has determined that the person is not a successor in interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Properly evaluating loss mitigation applications.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide accurate information regarding loss mitigation options available to a borrower from the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify with specificity all loss mitigation options for which borrowers may be eligible pursuant to any requirements established by an owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide prompt access to all documents and information submitted by a borrower in connection with a loss mitigation option to servicer personnel that are assigned to assist the borrower pursuant to § 1024.40;
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify documents and information that a borrower is required to submit to complete a loss mitigation application and facilitate compliance with the notice required pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B); and
</P>
<P>(v) Properly evaluate a borrower who submits an application for a loss mitigation option for all loss mitigation options for which the borrower may be eligible pursuant to any requirements established by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan and, where applicable, in accordance with the requirements of § 1024.41.
</P>
<P>(vi) Promptly identify and obtain documents or information not in the borrower's control that the servicer requires to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, to offer the borrower in accordance with the requirements of § 1024.41(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Facilitating oversight of, and compliance by, service providers.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide appropriate servicer personnel with access to accurate and current documents and information reflecting actions performed by service providers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Facilitate periodic reviews of service providers, including by providing appropriate servicer personnel with documents and information necessary to audit compliance by service providers with the servicer's contractual obligations and applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Facilitate the sharing of accurate and current information regarding the status of any evaluation of a borrower's loss mitigation application and the status of any foreclosure proceeding among appropriate servicer personnel, including any personnel assigned to a borrower's mortgage loan account as described in § 1024.40, and appropriate service provider personnel, including service provider personnel responsible for handling foreclosure proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Facilitating transfer of information during servicing transfers.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can:
</P>
<P>(i) As a transferor servicer, timely transfer all information and documents in the possession or control of the servicer relating to a transferred mortgage loan to a transferee servicer in a form and manner that ensures the accuracy of the information and documents transferred and that enables a transferee servicer to comply with the terms of the transferee servicer's obligations to the owner or assignee of the mortgage loan and applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As a transferee servicer, identify necessary documents or information that may not have been transferred by a transferor servicer and obtain such documents from the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P>(iii) For the purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), transferee servicer means a servicer, including a master servicer or a subservicer, that performs or will perform servicing of a mortgage loan and transferor servicer means a servicer, including a master servicer or a subservicer, that transfers or will transfer the servicing of a mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Informing borrowers of the written error resolution and information request procedures.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section shall be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer informs borrowers of the procedures for submitting written notices of error set forth in § 1024.35 and written information requests set forth in § 1024.36.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standard requirements</I>—(1) <I>Record retention.</I> A servicer shall retain records that document actions taken with respect to a borrower's mortgage loan account until one year after the date a mortgage loan is discharged or servicing of a mortgage loan is transferred by the servicer to a transferee servicer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Servicing file.</I> A servicer shall maintain the following documents and data on each mortgage loan account serviced by the servicer in a manner that facilitates compiling such documents and data into a servicing file within five days:
</P>
<P>(i) A schedule of all transactions credited or debited to the mortgage loan account, including any escrow account as defined in § 1024.17(b) and any suspense account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the security instrument that establishes the lien securing the mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any notes created by servicer personnel reflecting communications with the borrower about the mortgage loan account;
</P>
<P>(iv) To the extent applicable, a report of the data fields relating to the borrower's mortgage loan account created by the servicer's electronic systems in connection with servicing practices; and
</P>
<P>(v) Copies of any information or documents provided by the borrower to the servicer in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1024.35 or § 1024.41.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 72372, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.39" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.39   Early intervention requirements for certain borrowers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Live contact.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a servicer shall establish or make good faith efforts to establish live contact with a delinquent borrower no later than the 36th day of a borrower's delinquency and again no later than 36 days after each payment due date so long as the borrower remains delinquent. Promptly after establishing live contact with a borrower, the servicer shall inform the borrower about the availability of loss mitigation options, if appropriate.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written notice</I>—(1) <I>Notice required.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this section, a servicer shall provide to a delinquent borrower a written notice with the information set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section no later than the 45th day of the borrower's delinquency and again no later than 45 days after each payment due date so long as the borrower remains delinquent. A servicer is not required to provide the written notice, however, more than once during any 180-day period. If a borrower is 45 days or more delinquent at the end of any 180-day period after the servicer has provided the written notice, a servicer must provide the written notice again no later than 180 days after the provision of the prior written notice. If a borrower is less than 45 days delinquent at the end of any 180-day period after the servicer has provided the written notice, a servicer must provide the written notice again no later than 45 days after the payment due date for which the borrower remains delinquent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of the written notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement encouraging the borrower to contact the servicer;
</P>
<P>(ii) The telephone number to access servicer personnel assigned pursuant to § 1024.40(a) and the servicer's mailing address;
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicable, a statement providing a brief description of examples of loss mitigation options that may be available from the servicer;
</P>
<P>(iv) If applicable, either application instructions or a statement informing the borrower how to obtain more information about loss mitigation options from the servicer; and
</P>
<P>(v) The Web site to access either the Bureau list or the HUD list of homeownership counselors or counseling organizations, and the HUD toll-free telephone number to access homeownership counselors or counseling organizations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Model clauses.</I> Model clauses MS-4(A), MS-4(B), and MS-4(C), in appendix MS-4 to this part may be used to comply with the requirements of this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Borrowers in bankruptcy</I>—(1) <I>Partial exemption.</I> While any borrower on a mortgage loan is a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code, a servicer, with regard to that mortgage loan:
</P>
<P>(i) Is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if no loss mitigation option is available, or if any borrower on the mortgage loan has provided a notification pursuant to the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) section 805(c) (15 U.S.C. 1692c(c)) with respect to that mortgage loan as referenced in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If the conditions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section are not met, must comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, as modified by this paragraph (c)(1)(iii):
</P>
<P>(A) If a borrower is delinquent when the borrower becomes a debtor in bankruptcy, a servicer must provide the written notice required by paragraph (b) of this section not later than the 45th day after the borrower files a bankruptcy petition under title 11 of the United States Code. If the borrower is not delinquent when the borrower files a bankruptcy petition, but subsequently becomes delinquent while a debtor in bankruptcy, the servicer must provide the written notice not later than the 45th day of the borrower's delinquency. A servicer must comply with these timing requirements regardless of whether the servicer provided the written notice in the preceding 180-day period.
</P>
<P>(B) The written notice required by paragraph (b) of this section may not contain a request for payment.
</P>
<P>(C) A servicer is not required to provide the written notice required by paragraph (b) of this section more than once during a single bankruptcy case.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resuming compliance.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a servicer that was exempt from paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section must resume compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section after the next payment due date that follows the earliest of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The bankruptcy case is dismissed;
</P>
<P>(B) The bankruptcy case is closed; and
</P>
<P>(C) The borrower reaffirms personal liability for the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a mortgage loan for which the borrower has discharged personal liability pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 727, 1141, 1228, or 1328, a servicer:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not required to resume compliance with paragraph (a) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Must resume compliance with paragraph (b) of this section if the borrower has made any partial or periodic payment on the mortgage loan after the commencement of the borrower's bankruptcy case.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fair Debt Collection Practices Act</I>—<I>partial exemption.</I> With regard to a mortgage loan for which any borrower has provided a notification pursuant to the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) section 805(c) (15 U.S.C. 1692c(c)), a servicer subject to the FDCPA with respect to that borrower's loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Is exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section if no loss mitigation option is available, or while any borrower on that mortgage loan is a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code as referenced in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the conditions of paragraph (d)(2) of this section are not met, must comply with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, as modified by this paragraph (d)(3):
</P>
<P>(i) In addition to the information required pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the written notice must include a statement that the servicer may or intends to invoke its specified remedy of foreclosure. Model clause MS-4(D) in appendix MS-4 to this part may be used to comply with this requirement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The written notice may not contain a request for payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) A servicer is prohibited from providing the written notice more than once during any 180-day period. If a borrower is 45 days or more delinquent at the end of any 180-day period after the servicer has provided the written notice, a servicer must provide the written notice again no later than 190 days after the provision of the prior written notice. If a borrower is less than 45 days delinquent at the end of any 180-day period after the servicer has provided the written notice, a servicer must provide the written notice again no later than 45 days after the payment due date for which the borrower remains delinquent or 190 days after the provision of the prior written notice, whichever is later.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 60437, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 63004, Oct. 23, 2013; 81 FR 72373, Oct. 19, 2016; 82 FR 47957, Oct. 16, 2017; 86 FR 34899, June 30, 2021; 90 FR 20792, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.40" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.40   Continuity of contact.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A servicer shall maintain policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to achieve the following objectives:
</P>
<P>(1) Assign personnel to a delinquent borrower by the time the servicer provides the borrower with the written notice required by § 1024.39(b), but in any event, not later than the 45th day of the borrower's delinquency.
</P>
<P>(2) Make available to a delinquent borrower, via telephone, personnel assigned to the borrower as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to respond to the borrower's inquiries, and as applicable, assist the borrower with available loss mitigation options until the borrower has made, without incurring a late charge, two consecutive mortgage payments in accordance with the terms of a permanent loss mitigation agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) If a borrower contacts the personnel assigned to the borrower as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and does not immediately receive a live response from such personnel, ensure that the servicer can provide a live response in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Functions of servicer personnel.</I> A servicer shall maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that servicer personnel assigned to a delinquent borrower as described in paragraph (a) of this section perform the following functions:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the borrower with accurate information about:
</P>
<P>(i) Loss mitigation options available to the borrower from the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Actions the borrower must take to be evaluated for such loss mitigation options, including actions the borrower must take to submit a complete loss mitigation application, as defined in § 1024.41, and, if applicable, actions the borrower must take to appeal the servicer's determination to deny a borrower's loss mitigation application for any trial or permanent loan modification program offered by the servicer;
</P>
<P>(iii) The status of any loss mitigation application that the borrower has submitted to the servicer;
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances under which the servicer may make a referral to foreclosure; and
</P>
<P>(v) Applicable loss mitigation deadlines established by an owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan or § 1024.41.
</P>
<P>(2) Retrieve, in a timely manner:
</P>
<P>(i) A complete record of the borrower's payment history; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All written information the borrower has provided to the servicer, and if applicable, to prior servicers, in connection with a loss mitigation application;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the documents and information identified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section to other persons required to evaluate a borrower for loss mitigation options made available by the servicer, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a delinquent borrower with information about the procedures for submitting a notice of error pursuant to § 1024.35 or an information request pursuant to § 1024.36.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1024.41" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1024.41   Loss mitigation procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enforcement and limitations.</I> A borrower may enforce the provisions of this section pursuant to section 6(f) of RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2605(f)). Nothing in § 1024.41 imposes a duty on a servicer to provide any borrower with any specific loss mitigation option. Nothing in § 1024.41 should be construed to create a right for a borrower to enforce the terms of any agreement between a servicer and the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan, including with respect to the evaluation for, or offer of, any loss mitigation option or to eliminate any such right that may exist pursuant to applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Receipt of a loss mitigation application</I>—(1) <I>Complete loss mitigation application.</I> A complete loss mitigation application means an application in connection with which a servicer has received all the information that the servicer requires from a borrower in evaluating applications for the loss mitigation options available to the borrower. A servicer shall exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining documents and information to complete a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of loss mitigation application submission</I>—(i) <I>Requirements.</I> If a servicer receives a loss mitigation application 45 days or more before a foreclosure sale, a servicer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly upon receipt of a loss mitigation application, review the loss mitigation application to determine if the loss mitigation application is complete; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify the borrower in writing within 5 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after receiving the loss mitigation application that the servicer acknowledges receipt of the loss mitigation application and that the servicer has determined that the loss mitigation application is either complete or incomplete. If a loss mitigation application is incomplete, the notice shall state the additional documents and information the borrower must submit to make the loss mitigation application complete and the applicable date pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section. The notice to the borrower shall include a statement that the borrower should consider contacting servicers of any other mortgage loans secured by the same property to discuss available loss mitigation options.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Time period disclosure.</I> The notice required pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section must include a reasonable date by which the borrower should submit the documents and information necessary to make the loss mitigation application complete.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determining protections.</I> To the extent a determination of whether protections under this section apply to a borrower is made on the basis of the number of days between when a complete loss mitigation application is received and when a foreclosure sale occurs, such determination shall be made as of the date a complete loss mitigation application is received.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evaluation of loss mitigation applications</I>—(1) <I>Complete loss mitigation application.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, if a servicer receives a complete loss mitigation application more than 37 days before a foreclosure sale, then, within 30 days of receiving the complete loss mitigation application, a servicer shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the borrower for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the borrower with a notice in writing stating the servicer's determination of which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower on behalf of the owner or assignee of the mortgage. The servicer shall include in this notice the amount of time the borrower has to accept or reject an offer of a loss mitigation program as provided for in paragraph (e) of this section, if applicable, and a notification, if applicable, that the borrower has the right to appeal the denial of any loan modification option as well as the amount of time the borrower has to file such an appeal and any requirements for making an appeal, as provided for in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incomplete loss mitigation application evaluation</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as set forth in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii), (iii), and (v) of this section, a servicer shall not evade the requirement to evaluate a complete loss mitigation application for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower by offering a loss mitigation option based upon an evaluation of any information provided by a borrower in connection with an incomplete loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable time.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, if a servicer has exercised reasonable diligence in obtaining documents and information to complete a loss mitigation application, but a loss mitigation application remains incomplete for a significant period of time under the circumstances without further progress by a borrower to make the loss mitigation application complete, a servicer may, in its discretion, evaluate an incomplete loss mitigation application and offer a borrower a loss mitigation option. Any such evaluation and offer is not subject to the requirements of this section and shall not constitute an evaluation of a single complete loss mitigation application for purposes of paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Short-term loss mitigation options.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a servicer may offer a short-term payment forbearance program or a short-term repayment plan to a borrower based upon an evaluation of an incomplete loss mitigation application. Promptly after offering a payment forbearance program or a repayment plan under this paragraph (c)(2)(iii), unless the borrower has rejected the offer, the servicer must provide the borrower a written notice stating the specific payment terms and duration of the program or plan, that the servicer offered the program or plan based on an evaluation of an incomplete application, that other loss mitigation options may be available, and that the borrower has the option to submit a complete loss mitigation application to receive an evaluation for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower regardless of whether the borrower accepts the program or plan. A servicer shall not make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process, and shall not move for foreclosure judgment or order of sale or conduct a foreclosure sale, if a borrower is performing pursuant to the terms of a payment forbearance program or repayment plan offered pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2)(iii). A servicer may offer a short-term payment forbearance program in conjunction with a short-term repayment plan pursuant to this paragraph (c)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Facially complete application.</I> A loss mitigation application shall be considered facially complete when a borrower submits all the missing documents and information as stated in the notice required under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, when no additional information is requested in such notice, or once the servicer is required to provide the borrower a written notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section. If the servicer later discovers that additional information or corrections to a previously submitted document are required to complete the application, the servicer must promptly request the missing information or corrected documents and treat the application as complete for the purposes of paragraphs (f)(2) and (g) of this section until the borrower is given a reasonable opportunity to complete the application. If the borrower completes the application within this period, the application shall be considered complete as of the date it first became facially complete, for the purposes of paragraphs (d), (e), (f)(2), (g), and (h) of this section, and as of the date the application was actually complete for the purposes of this paragraph (c). A servicer that complies with this paragraph (c)(2)(iv) will be deemed to have fulfilled its obligation to provide an accurate notice under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Certain COVID-19-related loss mitigation options.</I> (A) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a servicer may offer a borrower a loss mitigation option based upon evaluation of an incomplete application, provided that all of the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The loss mitigation option permits the borrower to delay paying covered amounts until the mortgage loan is refinanced, the mortgaged property is sold, the term of the mortgage loan ends, or, for a mortgage loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration, the mortgage insurance terminates. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>), “covered amounts” includes, without limitation, all principal and interest payments forborne under a payment forbearance program made available to borrowers experiencing a COVID-19-related hardship, including a payment forbearance program made pursuant to the Coronavirus Economic Stabilization Act, section 4022 (15 U.S.C. 9056); it also includes, without limitation, all other principal and interest payments that are due and unpaid by a borrower experiencing COVID-19-related hardship. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>), “the term of the mortgage loan” means the term of the mortgage loan according to the obligation between the parties in effect when the borrower is offered the loss mitigation option.


</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any amounts that the borrower may delay paying as described in paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section do not accrue interest; the servicer does not charge any fee in connection with the loss mitigation option; and the servicer waives all existing late charges, penalties, stop payment fees, or similar charges promptly upon the borrower's acceptance of the loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The borrower's acceptance of an offer made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section ends any pre-existing delinquency on the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(B) Once the borrower accepts an offer made pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section, the servicer is not required to comply with paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section with regard to any loss mitigation application the borrower submitted prior to the servicer's offer of the loss mitigation option described in paragraph (c)(2)(v)(A) of this section.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of complete application.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section, within 5 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after receiving a borrower's complete loss mitigation application, a servicer shall provide the borrower a written notice that sets forth the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) That the loss mitigation application is complete;
</P>
<P>(B) The date the servicer received the complete application;
</P>
<P>(C) That the servicer expects to complete its evaluation within 30 days of the date it received the complete application;
</P>
<P>(D) That the borrower is entitled to certain foreclosure protections because the servicer has received the complete application, and, as applicable, either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the servicer has not made the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process, that the servicer cannot make the first notice or filing required to commence or initiate the foreclosure process under applicable law before evaluating the borrower's complete application; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the servicer has made the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process, that the servicer has begun the foreclosure process, and that the servicer cannot conduct a foreclosure sale before evaluating the borrower's complete application;
</P>
<P>(E) That the servicer may need additional information at a later date to evaluate the application, in which case the servicer will request that information from the borrower and give the borrower a reasonable opportunity to submit it, the evaluation process may take longer, and the foreclosure protections could end if the servicer does not receive the information as requested; and
</P>
<P>(F) That the borrower may be entitled to additional protections under State or Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ii) A servicer is not required to provide a notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) The servicer has already provided the borrower a notice under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section informing the borrower that the application is complete and the servicer has not subsequently requested additional information or a corrected version of a previously submitted document from the borrower pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The application was not complete or facially complete more than 37 days before a foreclosure sale; or
</P>
<P>(C) The servicer has already provided the borrower a notice regarding the application under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information not in the borrower's control</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> If a servicer requires documents or information not in the borrower's control to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower, the servicer must exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining such documents or information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effect in case of delay.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section, a servicer must not deny a complete loss mitigation application solely because the servicer lacks required documents or information not in the borrower's control.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If a servicer has exercised reasonable diligence to obtain required documents or information from a party other than the borrower or the servicer, but the servicer has been unable to obtain such documents or information for a significant period of time following the 30-day period identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, and the servicer, in accordance with applicable requirements established by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan, is unable to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer the borrower without such documents or information, the servicer may deny the application and provide the borrower with a written notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section. When providing the written notice in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, the servicer must also provide the borrower with a copy of the written notice required by paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If a servicer is unable to make a determination within the 30-day period identified in paragraph (c)(1) of this section as to which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower because the servicer lacks required documents or information from a party other than the borrower or the servicer, the servicer must, within such 30-day period or promptly thereafter, provide the borrower a written notice, informing the borrower:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That the servicer has not received documents or information not in the borrower's control that the servicer requires to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower on behalf of the owner or assignee of the mortgage;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Of the specific documents or information that the servicer lacks;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) That the servicer has requested such documents or information; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) That the servicer will complete its evaluation of the borrower for all available loss mitigation options promptly upon receiving the documents or information.
</P>
<P>(C) If a servicer must provide a notice required by paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, the servicer must not provide the borrower a written notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section until the servicer receives the required documents or information referenced in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section. Upon receiving such required documents or information, the servicer must promptly provide the borrower with the written notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Denial of loan modification options.</I> If a borrower's complete loss mitigation application is denied for any trial or permanent loan modification option available to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section, a servicer shall state in the notice sent to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section the specific reason or reasons for the servicer's determination for each such trial or permanent loan modification option and, if applicable, that the borrower was not evaluated on other criteria.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Borrower response</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, if a complete loss mitigation application is received 90 days or more before a foreclosure sale, a servicer may require that a borrower accept or reject an offer of a loss mitigation option no earlier than 14 days after the servicer provides the offer of a loss mitigation option to the borrower. If a complete loss mitigation application is received less than 90 days before a foreclosure sale, but more than 37 days before a foreclosure sale, a servicer may require that a borrower accept or reject an offer of a loss mitigation option no earlier than 7 days after the servicer provides the offer of a loss mitigation option to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rejection</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as set forth in paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, a servicer may deem a borrower that has not accepted an offer of a loss mitigation option within the deadline established pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section to have rejected the offer of a loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Trial Loan Modification Plan.</I> A borrower who does not satisfy the servicer's requirements for accepting a trial loan modification plan, but submits the payments that would be owed pursuant to any such plan within the deadline established pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section, shall be provided a reasonable period of time to fulfill any remaining requirements of the servicer for acceptance of the trial loan modification plan beyond the deadline established pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Interaction with appeal process.</I> If a borrower makes an appeal pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, the borrower's deadline for accepting a loss mitigation option offered pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section shall be extended until 14 days after the servicer provides the notice required pursuant to paragraph (h)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibition on foreclosure referral</I>—(1) <I>Pre-foreclosure review period.</I> A servicer shall not make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A borrower's mortgage loan obligation is more than 120 days delinquent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The foreclosure is based on a borrower's violation of a due-on-sale clause; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The servicer is joining the foreclosure action of a superior or subordinate lienholder.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application received before foreclosure referral.</I> If a borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application during the pre-foreclosure review period set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section or before a servicer has made the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process, a servicer shall not make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The servicer has sent the borrower a notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section that the borrower is not eligible for any loss mitigation option and the appeal process in paragraph (h) of this section is not applicable, the borrower has not requested an appeal within the applicable time period for requesting an appeal, or the borrower's appeal has been denied;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower rejects all loss mitigation options offered by the servicer; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The borrower fails to perform under an agreement on a loss mitigation option.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prohibition on foreclosure sale.</I> If a borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application after a servicer has made the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process but more than 37 days before a foreclosure sale, a servicer shall not move for foreclosure judgment or order of sale, or conduct a foreclosure sale, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The servicer has sent the borrower a notice pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section that the borrower is not eligible for any loss mitigation option and the appeal process in paragraph (h) of this section is not applicable, the borrower has not requested an appeal within the applicable time period for requesting an appeal, or the borrower's appeal has been denied;
</P>
<P>(2) The borrower rejects all loss mitigation options offered by the servicer; or
</P>
<P>(3) The borrower fails to perform under an agreement on a loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Appeal process</I>—(1) <I>Appeal process required for loan modification denials.</I> If a servicer receives a complete loss mitigation application 90 days or more before a foreclosure sale or during the period set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, a servicer shall permit a borrower to appeal the servicer's determination to deny a borrower's loss mitigation application for any trial or permanent loan modification program available to the borrower.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Deadlines.</I> A servicer shall permit a borrower to make an appeal within 14 days after the servicer provides the offer of a loss mitigation option to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Independent evaluation.</I> An appeal shall be reviewed by different personnel than those responsible for evaluating the borrower's complete loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Appeal determination.</I> Within 30 days of a borrower making an appeal, the servicer shall provide a notice to the borrower stating the servicer's determination of whether the servicer will offer the borrower a loss mitigation option based upon the appeal and, if applicable, how long the borrower has to accept or reject such an offer or a prior offer of a loss mitigation option. A servicer may require that a borrower accept or reject an offer of a loss mitigation option after an appeal no earlier than 14 days after the servicer provides the notice to a borrower. A servicer's determination under this paragraph is not subject to any further appeal.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Duplicative requests.</I> A servicer must comply with the requirements of this section for a borrower's loss mitigation application, unless the servicer has previously complied with the requirements of this section for a complete loss mitigation application submitted by the borrower and the borrower has been delinquent at all times since submitting the prior complete application.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Small servicer requirements.</I> A small servicer shall be subject to the prohibition on foreclosure referral in paragraph (f)(1) of this section. A small servicer shall not make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process and shall not move for foreclosure judgment or order of sale, or conduct a foreclosure sale, if a borrower is performing pursuant to the terms of an agreement on a loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Servicing transfers</I>—(1) <I>In general</I>—(i) <I>Timing of compliance.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (k)(2) through (4) of this section, if a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which a loss mitigation application is pending as of the transfer date, the transferee servicer must comply with the requirements of this section for that loss mitigation application within the timeframes that were applicable to the transferor servicer based on the date the transferor servicer received the loss mitigation application. All rights and protections under paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section to which a borrower was entitled before a transfer continue to apply notwithstanding the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Transfer date defined.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (k), the transfer date is the date on which the transferee servicer will begin accepting payments relating to the mortgage loan, as disclosed on the notice of transfer of loan servicing pursuant to § 1024.33(b)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Acknowledgment notices</I>—(i) <I>Transferee servicer timeframes.</I> If a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which the period to provide the notice required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section has not expired as of the transfer date and the transferor servicer has not provided such notice, the transferee servicer must provide the notice within 10 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) of the transfer date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prohibitions.</I> A transferee servicer that must provide the notice required by paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section under this paragraph (k)(2):
</P>
<P>(A) Shall not make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process until a date that is after the reasonable date disclosed to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, notwithstanding paragraph (f)(1) of this section. For purposes of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, a borrower who submits a complete loss mitigation application on or before the reasonable date disclosed to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section shall be treated as having done so during the pre-foreclosure review period set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) Shall comply with paragraphs (c), (d), and (g) of this section if the borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application to the transferee or transferor servicer 37 or fewer days before the foreclosure sale but on or before the reasonable date disclosed to the borrower pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Complete loss mitigation applications pending at transfer.</I> If a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which a complete loss mitigation application is pending as of the transfer date, the transferee servicer must comply with the applicable requirements of paragraphs (c)(1) and (4) of this section within 30 days of the transfer date.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Applications subject to appeal process.</I> If a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which an appeal of a transferor servicer's determination pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section has not been resolved by the transferor servicer as of the transfer date or is timely filed after the transfer date, the transferee servicer must make a determination on the appeal if it is able to do so or, if it is unable to do so, must treat the appeal as a pending complete loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Determining appeal.</I> If a transferee servicer is required under this paragraph (k)(4) to make a determination on an appeal, the transferee servicer must complete the determination and provide the notice required by paragraph (h)(4) of this section within 30 days of the transfer date or 30 days of the date the borrower made the appeal, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Servicer unable to determine appeal.</I> A transferee servicer that is required to treat a borrower's appeal as a pending complete loss mitigation application under this paragraph (k)(4) must comply with the requirements of this section for such application, including evaluating the borrower for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower from the transferee servicer. For purposes of paragraph (c) or (k)(3) of this section, as applicable, such a pending complete loss mitigation application shall be considered complete as of the date the appeal was received by the transferor servicer or the transferee servicer, whichever occurs first. For purposes of paragraphs (e) through (h) of this section, the transferee servicer must treat such a pending complete loss mitigation application as facially complete under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) as of the date it was first facially complete or complete, as applicable, with respect to the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pending loss mitigation offers.</I> A transfer does not affect a borrower's ability to accept or reject a loss mitigation option offered under paragraph (c) or (h) of this section. If a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which the borrower's time period under paragraph (e) or (h) of this section for accepting or rejecting a loss mitigation option offered by the transferor servicer has not expired as of the transfer date, the transferee servicer must allow the borrower to accept or reject the offer during the unexpired balance of the applicable time period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10876, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 60437, Oct. 1, 2013; 81 FR 72373, Oct. 19, 2016; 85 FR 39065, June 30, 2020; 86 FR 34899, June 30, 2021; 90 FR 20792, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.46" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1024—Instructions for Completing HUD-1 and HUD-1a Settlement Statements; Sample HUD-1 and HUD-1a Statements
</HEAD>
<P>The following are instructions for completing the HUD-1 settlement statement, required under section 4 of RESPA and 12 CFR part 1024 (Regulation X) of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) regulations. This form is to be used as a statement of actual charges and adjustments paid by the borrower and the seller, to be given to the parties in connection with the settlement. The instructions for completion of the HUD-1 are primarily for the benefit of the settlement agents who prepare the statements and need not be transmitted to the parties as an integral part of the HUD-1. There is no objection to the use of the HUD-1 in transactions in which its use is not legally required. Refer to the definitions section of the regulations (12 CFR 1024.2) for specific definitions of many of the terms that are used in these instructions.
</P>
<HD1>General Instructions
</HD1>
<P>Information and amounts may be filled in by typewriter, hand printing, computer printing, or any other method producing clear and legible results. Refer to the Bureau's regulations (Regulation X) regarding rules applicable to reproduction of the HUD-1 for the purpose of including customary recitals and information used locally in settlements; for example, a breakdown of payoff figures, a breakdown of the Borrower's total monthly mortgage payments, check disbursements, a statement indicating receipt of funds, applicable special stipulations between Borrower and Seller, and the date funds are transferred.
</P>
<P>The settlement agent shall complete the HUD-1 to itemize all charges imposed upon the Borrower and the Seller by the loan originator and all sales commissions, whether to be paid at settlement or outside of settlement, and any other charges which either the Borrower or the Seller will pay at settlement. Charges for loan origination and title services should not be itemized except as provided in these instructions. For each separately identified settlement service in connection with the transaction, the name of the person ultimately receiving the payment must be shown together with the total amount paid to such person. Items paid to and retained by a loan originator are disclosed as required in the instructions for lines in the 800-series of the HUD-1 (and for per diem interest, in the 900-series of the HUD-1).
</P>
<P>As a general rule, charges that are paid for by the seller must be shown in the seller's column on page 2 of the HUD-1 (unless paid outside closing), and charges that are paid for by the borrower must be shown in the borrower's column (unless paid outside closing). However, in order to promote comparability between the charges on the GFE and the charges on the HUD-1, if a seller pays for a charge that was included on the GFE, the charge should be listed in the borrower's column on page 2 of the HUD-1. That charge should also be offset by listing a credit in that amount to the borrower on lines 204-209 on page 1 of the HUD-1, and by a charge to the seller in lines 506-509 on page 1 of the HUD-1. If a loan originator (other than for no-cost loans), real estate agent, other settlement service provider, or other person pays for a charge that was included on the GFE, the charge should be listed in the borrower's column on page 2 of the HUD-1, with an offsetting credit reported on page 1 of the HUD-1, identifying the party paying the charge.
</P>
<P>Charges paid outside of settlement by the borrower, seller, loan originator, real estate agent, or any other person, must be included on the HUD-1 but marked “P.O.C.” for “Paid Outside of Closing” (settlement) and must not be included in computing totals. However, indirect payments from a lender to a mortgage broker may not be disclosed as P.O.C., and must be included as a credit on Line 802. P.O.C. items must not be placed in the Borrower or Seller columns, but rather on the appropriate line outside the columns. The settlement agent must indicate whether P.O.C. items are paid for by the Borrower, Seller, or some other party by marking the items paid for by whoever made the payment as “P.O.C.” with the party making the payment identified in parentheses, such as “P.O.C. (borrower)” or “P.O.C. (seller)”.
</P>
<P>In the case of “no cost” loans where “no cost” encompasses third party fees as well as the upfront payment to the loan originator, the third party services covered by the “no cost” provisions must be itemized and listed in the borrower's column on the HUD-1/1A with the charge for the third party service. These itemized charges must be offset with a negative adjusted origination charge on Line 803 and recorded in the columns.
</P>
<P>Blank lines are provided in section L for any additional settlement charges. Blank lines are also provided for additional insertions in sections J and K. The names of the recipients of the settlement charges in section L and the names of the recipients of adjustments described in section J or K should be included on the blank lines.
</P>
<P>Lines and columns in section J which relate to the Borrower's transaction may be left blank on the copy of the HUD-1 which will be furnished to the Seller. Lines and columns in section K which relate to the Seller's transaction may be left blank on the copy of the HUD-1 which will be furnished to the Borrower.
</P>
<HD1>Line Item Instructions
</HD1>
<P>Instructions for completing the individual items on the HUD-1 follow.
</P>
<P><I>Section A.</I> This section requires no entry of information.
</P>
<P><I>Section B.</I> Check appropriate loan type and complete the remaining items as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Section C.</I> This section provides a notice regarding settlement costs and requires no additional entry of information.
</P>
<P><I>Sections D and E.</I> Fill in the names and current mailing addresses and zip codes of the Borrower and the Seller. Where there is more than one Borrower or Seller, the name and address of each one is required. Use a supplementary page if needed to list multiple Borrowers or Sellers.
</P>
<P><I>Section F.</I> Fill in the name, current mailing address and zip code of the Lender.
</P>
<P><I>Section G.</I> The street address of the property being sold should be listed. If there is no street address, a brief legal description or other location of the property should be inserted. In all cases give the zip code of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Section H.</I> Fill in name, address, zip code and telephone number of settlement agent, and address and zip code of “place of settlement.”
</P>
<P><I>Section I.</I> Fill in date of settlement.
</P>
<P><I>Section J. Summary of Borrower's Transaction.</I> Line 101 is for the contract sales price of the property being sold, excluding the price of any items of tangible personal property if Borrower and Seller have agreed to a separate price for such items.
</P>
<P>Line 102 is for the sales price of any items of tangible personal property excluded from Line 101. Personal property could include such items as carpets, drapes, stoves, refrigerators, <I>etc.</I> What constitutes personal property varies from State to State. Manufactured homes are not considered personal property for this purpose.
</P>
<P>Line 103 is used to record the total charges to Borrower detailed in section L and totaled on Line 1400.
</P>
<P>Lines 104 and 105 are for additional amounts owed by the Borrower, such as charges that were not listed on the GFE or items paid by the Seller prior to settlement but reimbursed by the Borrower at settlement. For example, the balance in the Seller's reserve account held in connection with an existing loan, if assigned to the Borrower in a loan assumption case, will be entered here. These lines will also be used when a tenant in the property being sold has not yet paid the rent, which the Borrower will collect, for a period of time prior to the settlement. The lines will also be used to indicate the treatment for any tenant security deposit. The Seller will be credited on Lines 404-405.
</P>
<P>Lines 106 through 112 are for items which the Seller had paid in advance, and for which the Borrower must therefore reimburse the Seller. Examples of items for which adjustments will be made may include taxes and assessments paid in advance for an entire year or other period, when settlement occurs prior to the expiration of the year or other period for which they were paid. Additional examples include flood and hazard insurance premiums, if the Borrower is being substituted as an insured under the same policy; mortgage insurance in loan assumption cases; planned unit development or condominium association assessments paid in advance; fuel or other supplies on hand, purchased by the Seller, which the Borrower will use when Borrower takes possession of the property; and ground rent paid in advance.
</P>
<P>Line 120 is for the total of Lines 101 through 112.
</P>
<P>Line 201 is for any amount paid against the sales price prior to settlement.
</P>
<P>Line 202 is for the amount of the new loan made by the Lender when a loan to finance construction of a new structure constructed for sale is used as or converted to a loan to finance purchase. Line 202 should also be used for the amount of the first user loan, when a loan to purchase a manufactured home for resale is converted to a loan to finance purchase by the first user. For other loans covered by 12 CFR part 1024 (Regulation X) which finance construction of a new structure or purchase of a manufactured home, list the sales price of the land on Line 104, the construction cost or purchase price of manufactured home on Line 105 (Line 101 would be left blank in this instance) and amount of the loan on Line 202. The remainder of the form should be completed taking into account adjustments and charges related to the temporary financing and permanent financing and which are known at the date of settlement. For reverse mortgage transactions, the amount disclosed on Line 202 is the initial principal limit. 
</P>
<P>Line 203 is used for cases in which the Borrower is assuming or taking title subject to an existing loan or lien on the property.
</P>
<P>Lines 204-209 are used for other items paid by or on behalf of the Borrower. Lines 204-209 should be used to indicate any financing arrangements or other new loan not listed in Line 202. For example, if the Borrower is using a second mortgage or note to finance part of the purchase price, whether from the same lender, another lender or the Seller, insert the principal amount of the loan with a brief explanation on Lines 204-209. Lines 204-209 should also be used where the Borrower receives a credit from the Seller for closing costs, including seller-paid GFE charges. They may also be used in cases in which a Seller (typically a builder) is making an “allowance” to the Borrower for items that the Borrower is to purchase separately. For reverse mortgages, the amount of any initial draw at settlement is disclosed on Line 204.
</P>
<P>Lines 210 through 219 are for items which have not yet been paid, and which the Borrower is expected to pay, but which are attributable in part to a period of time prior to the settlement. In jurisdictions in which taxes are paid late in the tax year, most cases will show the proration of taxes in these lines. Other examples include utilities used but not paid for by the Seller, rent collected in advance by the Seller from a tenant for a period extending beyond the settlement date, and interest on loan assumptions.
</P>
<P>Line 220 is for the total of Lines 201 through 219.
</P>
<P>Lines 301 and 302 are summary lines for the Borrower. Enter total in Line 120 on Line 301. Enter total in Line 220 on Line 302.
</P>
<P>Line 303 must indicate either the cash required from the Borrower at settlement (the usual case in a purchase transaction), or cash payable to the Borrower at settlement (if, for example, the Borrower's earnest money exceeds the Borrower's cash obligations in the transaction or there is a cash-out refinance). Subtract Line 302 from Line 301 and enter the amount of cash due to or from the Borrower at settlement on Line 303. The appropriate box should be checked. If the Borrower's earnest money is applied toward the charge for a settlement service, the amount so applied should not be included on Line 303 but instead should be shown on the appropriate line for the settlement service, marked “P.O.C. (Borrower)”, and must not be included in computing totals.
</P>
<P><I>Section K. Summary of Seller's Transaction.</I> Instructions for the use of Lines 101 and 102 and 104-112 above, apply also to Lines 401-412. Line 420 is for the total of Lines 401 through 412.
</P>
<P>Line 501 is used if the Seller's real estate broker or other party who is not the settlement agent has received and holds a deposit against the sales price (earnest money) which exceeds the fee or commission owed to that party. If that party will render the excess deposit directly to the Seller, rather than through the settlement agent, the amount of excess deposit should be entered on Line 501 and the amount of the total deposit (including commissions) should be entered on Line 201.
</P>
<P>Line 502 is used to record the total charges to the Seller detailed in section L and totaled on Line 1400.
</P>
<P>Line 503 is used if the Borrower is assuming or taking title subject to existing liens which are to be deducted from sales price.
</P>
<P>Lines 504 and 505 are used for the amounts (including any accrued interest) of any first and/or second loans which will be paid as part of the settlement.
</P>
<P>Line 506 is used for deposits paid by the Borrower to the Seller or other party who is not the settlement agent. Enter the amount of the deposit in Line 201 on Line 506 unless Line 501 is used or the party who is not the settlement agent transfers all or part of the deposit to the settlement agent, in which case the settlement agent will note in parentheses on Line 507 the amount of the deposit that is being disbursed as proceeds and enter in the column for Line 506 the amount retained by the above-described party for settlement services. If the settlement agent holds the deposit, insert a note in Line 507 which indicates that the deposit is being disbursed as proceeds.
</P>
<P>Lines 506 through 509 may be used to list additional liens which must be paid off through the settlement to clear title to the property. Other Seller obligations should be shown on Lines 506-509, including charges that were disclosed on the GFE but that are actually being paid for by the Seller. These Lines may also be used to indicate funds to be held by the settlement agent for the payment of either repairs, or water, fuel, or other utility bills that cannot be prorated between the parties at settlement because the amounts used by the Seller prior to settlement are not yet known. Subsequent disclosure of the actual amount of these post-settlement items to be paid from settlement funds is optional. Any amounts entered on Lines 204-209 including Seller financing arrangements should also be entered on Lines 506-509.
</P>
<P>Instructions for the use of Lines 510 through 519 are the same as those for Lines 210 to 219 above.
</P>
<P>Line 520 is for the total of Lines 501 through 519.
</P>
<P>Lines 601 and 602 are summary lines for the Seller. Enter the total in Line 420 on Line 601. Enter the total in Line 520 on Line 602.
</P>
<P>Line 603 must indicate either the cash required to be paid to the Seller at settlement (the usual case in a purchase transaction), or the cash payable by the Seller at settlement. Subtract Line 602 from Line 601 and enter the amount of cash due to or from the Seller at settlement on Line 603. The appropriate box should be checked.
</P>
<HD2>Section L. Settlement Charges.
</HD2>
<P>Line 700 is used to enter the sales commission charged by the sales agent or real estate broker.
</P>
<P>Lines 701-702 are to be used to state the split of the commission where the settlement agent disburses portions of the commission to two or more sales agents or real estate brokers.
</P>
<P>Line 703 is used to enter the amount of sales commission disbursed at settlement. If the sales agent or real estate broker is retaining a part of the deposit against the sales price (earnest money) to apply towards the sales agent's or real estate broker's commission, include in Line 703 only that part of the commission being disbursed at settlement and insert a note on Line 704 indicating the amount the sales agent or real estate broker is retaining as a “P.O.C.” item.
</P>
<P>Line 704 may be used for additional charges made by the sales agent or real estate broker, or for a sales commission charged to the Borrower, which will be disbursed by the settlement agent.
</P>
<P>Line 801 is used to record “Our origination charge,” which includes all charges received by the loan originator, except any charge for the specific interest rate chosen (points). This number must not be listed in either the buyer's or seller's column. The amount shown in Line 801 must include any amounts received for origination services, including administrative and processing services, performed by or on behalf of the loan originator.
</P>
<P>Line 802 is used to record “Your credit or charge (points) for the specific interest rate chosen,” which states the charge or credit adjustment as applied to “Our origination charge,” if applicable. This number must not be listed in either column or shown on page one of the HUD-1.
</P>
<P>For a mortgage broker originating a loan in its own name, the amount shown on Line 802 will be the difference between the initial loan amount and the total payment to the mortgage broker from the lender. The total payment to the mortgage broker will be the sum of the price paid for the loan by the lender and any other payments to the mortgage broker from the lender, including any payments based on the loan amount or loan terms, and any flat rate payments. For a mortgage broker originating a loan in another entity's name, the amount shown on Line 802 will be the sum of all payments to the mortgage broker from the lender, including any payments based on the loan amount or loan terms, and any flat rate payments.
</P>
<P>In either case, when the amount paid to the mortgage broker exceeds the initial loan amount, there is a credit to the borrower and it is entered as a negative amount. When the initial loan amount exceeds the amount paid to the mortgage broker, there is a charge to the borrower and it is entered as a positive amount. For a lender, the amount shown on Line 802 may include any credit or charge (points) to the Borrower.
</P>
<P>Line 803 is used to record “Your adjusted origination charges,” which states the net amount of the loan origination charges, the sum of the amounts shown in Lines 801 and 802. This amount must be listed in the columns as either a positive number (for example, where the origination charge shown in Line 801 exceeds any credit for the interest rate shown in Line 802 or where there is an origination charge in Line 801 and a charge for the interest rate (points) is shown on Line 802) or as a negative number (for example, where the credit for the interest rate shown in Line 802 exceeds the origination charges shown in Line 801).
</P>
<P>In the case of “no cost” loans, where “no cost” refers only to the loan originator's fees, the amounts shown in Lines 801 and 802 should offset, so that the charge shown on Line 803 is zero. Where “no cost” includes third party settlement services, the credit shown in Line 802 will more than offset the amount shown in Line 801. The amount shown in Line 803 will be a negative number to offset the settlement charges paid indirectly through the loan originator.
</P>
<P>Lines 804-808 may be used to record each of the “Required services that we select.” Each settlement service provider must be identified by name and the amount paid recorded either inside the columns or as paid to the provider outside closing (“P.O.C.”), as described in the General Instructions.
</P>
<P>Line 804 is used to record the appraisal fee.
</P>
<P>Line 805 is used to record the fee for all credit reports.
</P>
<P>Line 806 is used to record the fee for any tax service.
</P>
<P>Line 807 is used to record any flood certification fee.
</P>
<P>Lines 808 and additional sequentially numbered lines, as needed, are used to record other third party services required by the loan originator. These Lines may also be used to record other required disclosures from the loan originator. Any such disclosures must be listed outside the columns.
</P>
<P>Lines 901-904. This series is used to record the items which the Lender requires to be paid at the time of settlement, but which are not necessarily paid to the lender (<I>e.g.,</I> FHA mortgage insurance premium), other than reserves collected by the Lender and recorded in the 1000-series.
</P>
<P>Line 901 is used if interest is collected at settlement for a part of a month or other period between settlement and the date from which interest will be collected with the first regular monthly payment. Enter that amount here and include the per diem charges. If such interest is not collected until the first regular monthly payment, no entry should be made on Line 901.
</P>
<P>Line 902 is used for mortgage insurance premiums due and payable at settlement, including any monthly amounts due at settlement and any upfront mortgage insurance premium, but not including any reserves collected by the Lender and recorded in the 1000-series. If a lump sum mortgage insurance premium paid at settlement is included on Line 902, a note should indicate that the premium is for the life of the loan.
</P>
<P>Line 903 is used for homeowner's insurance premiums that the Lender requires to be paid at the time of settlement, except reserves collected by the Lender and recorded in the 1000-series.
</P>
<P>Lines 904 and additional sequentially numbered lines are used to list additional items required by the Lender (except for reserves collected by the Lender and recorded in the 1000-series), including premiums for flood or other insurance. These lines are also used to list amounts paid at settlement for insurance not required by the Lender.
</P>
<P>Lines 1000-1007. This series is used for amounts collected by the Lender from the Borrower and held in an account for the future payment of the obligations listed as they fall due. Include the time period (number of months) and the monthly assessment. In many jurisdictions this is referred to as an “escrow”, “impound”, or “trust” account. In addition to the property taxes and insurance listed, some Lenders may require reserves for flood insurance, condominium owners' association assessments, <I>etc.</I> The amount in line 1001 must be listed in the columns, and the itemizations in lines 1002 through 1007 must be listed outside the columns.
</P>
<P>After itemizing individual deposits in the 1000 series, the servicer shall make an adjustment based on aggregate accounting. This adjustment equals the difference between the deposit required under aggregate accounting and the sum of the itemized deposits. The computation steps for aggregate accounting are set out in 12 CFR 1024.17(d). The adjustment will always be a negative number or zero (-0-), except for amounts due to rounding. The settlement agent shall enter the aggregate adjustment amount outside the columns on a final line of the 1000 series of the HUD-1 or HUD-1A statement. Appendix E to this part sets out an example of aggregate analysis.
</P>
<P>Lines 1100-1108. This series covers title charges and charges by attorneys and closing or settlement agents. The title charges include a variety of services performed by title companies or others, and include fees directly related to the transfer of title (title examination, title search, document preparation), fees for title insurance, and fees for conducting the closing. The legal charges include fees for attorneys representing the lender, seller, or borrower, and any attorney preparing title work. The series also includes any settlement, notary, and delivery fees related to the services covered in this series. Disbursements to third parties must be broken out in the appropriate lines or in blank lines in the series, and amounts paid to these third parties must be shown outside of the columns if included in Line 1101. Charges not included in Line 1101 must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1101 is used to record the total for the category of “Title services and lender's title insurance.” This amount must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1102 is used to record the settlement or closing fee.
</P>
<P>Line 1103 is used to record the charges for the owner's title insurance and related endorsements. This amount must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1104 is used to record the lender's title insurance premium and related endorsements.
</P>
<P>Line 1105 is used to record the amount of the lender's title policy limit. This amount is recorded outside of the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1106 is used to record the amount of the owner's title policy limit. This amount is recorded outside of the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1107 is used to record the amount of the total title insurance premium, including endorsements, that is retained by the title agent. This amount is recorded outside of the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1108 used to record the amount of the total title insurance premium, including endorsements, that is retained by the title underwriter. This amount is recorded outside of the columns.
</P>
<P>Additional sequentially numbered lines in the 1100-series may be used to itemize title charges paid to other third parties, as identified by name and type of service provided.
</P>
<P>Lines 1200-1206. This series covers government recording and transfer charges. Charges paid by the borrower must be listed in the columns as described for lines 1201 and 1203, with itemizations shown outside the columns. Any amounts that are charged to the seller and that were not included on the Good Faith Estimate must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1201 is used to record the total “Government recording charges,” and the amount must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1202 is used to record, outside of the columns, the itemized recording charges.
</P>
<P>Line 1203 is used to record the transfer taxes, and the amount must be listed in the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1204 is used to record, outside of the columns, the amounts for local transfer taxes and stamps.
</P>
<P>Line 1205 is used to record, outside of the columns, the amounts for state transfer taxes and stamps.
</P>
<P>Line 1206 and additional sequentially numbered lines may be used to record specific itemized third party charges for government recording and transfer services, but the amounts must be listed outside the columns.
</P>
<P>Line 1301 and additional sequentially numbered lines must be used to record required services that the borrower can shop for, such as fees for survey, pest inspection, or other similar inspections. These lines may also be used to record additional itemized settlement charges that are not included in a specific category, such as fees for structural and environmental inspections; pre-sale inspections of heating, plumbing or electrical equipment; or insurance or warranty coverage. The amounts must be listed in either the borrower's or seller's column.
</P>
<P>Line 1400 must state the total settlement charges as calculated by adding the amounts within each column.
</P>
<HD1>Page 3
</HD1>
<HD2>Comparison of Good Faith Estimate (GFE) and HUD-1/1A Charges
</HD2>
<P>The HUD-1/1-A is a statement of actual charges and adjustments. The comparison chart on page 3 of the HUD-1 must be prepared using the exact information and amounts for the services that were purchased or provided as part of the transaction, as that information and those amounts are shown on the GFE and in the HUD-1. If a service that was listed on the GFE was not obtained in connection with the transaction, pages 1 and 2 of the HUD-1 should not include any amount for that service, and the estimate on the GFE of the charge for the service should not be included in any amounts shown on the comparison chart on Page 3 of the HUD-1. The comparison chart is comprised of three sections: “Charges That Cannot Increase,” “Charges That Cannot Increase More Than 10%,” and “Charges That Can Change”.
</P>
<P>“Charges That Cannot Increase.” The amounts shown in Blocks 1 and 2, in Line A, and in Block 8 on the borrower's GFE must be entered in the appropriate line in the Good Faith Estimate column. The amounts shown on Lines 801, 802, 803 and 1203 of the HUD-1/1A must be entered in the corresponding line in the HUD-1/1A column. The HUD-1/1A column must include any amounts shown on page 2 of the HUD-1 in the column as paid for by the borrower, plus any amounts that are shown as P.O.C. by or on behalf of the borrower. If there is a credit in Block 2 of the GFE or Line 802 of the HUD-1/1A, the credit should be entered as a negative number.
</P>
<P>“Charges That Cannot Increase More Than 10%.” A description of each charge included in Blocks 3 and 7 on the borrower's GFE must be entered on separate lines in this section, with the amount shown on the borrower's GFE for each charge entered in the corresponding line in the Good Faith Estimate column. For each charge included in Blocks 4, 5 and 6 on the borrower's GFE for which the loan originator selected the provider or for which the borrower selected a provider identified by the loan originator, a description must be entered on a separate line in this section, with the amount shown on the borrower's GFE for each charge entered in the corresponding line in the Good Faith Estimate column. The loan originator must identify any third party settlement services for which the borrower selected a provider other than one identified by the loan originator so that the settlement agent can include those charges in the appropriate category. Additional lines may be added if necessary. The amounts shown on the HUD-1/1A for each line must be entered in the HUD-1/1A column next to the corresponding charge from the GFE, along with the appropriate HUD-1/1A line number. The HUD-1/1A column must include any amounts shown on page 2 of the HUD-1 in the column as paid for by the borrower, plus any amounts that are shown as P.O.C. by or on behalf of the borrower.
</P>
<P>The amounts shown in the Good Faith Estimate and HUD-1/1A columns for this section must be separately totaled and entered in the designated line. If the total for the HUD-1/1A column is greater than the total for the Good Faith Estimate column, then the amount of the increase must be entered both as a dollar amount and as a percentage increase in the appropriate line.
</P>
<P>“Charges That Can Change.” The amounts shown in Blocks 9, 10 and 11 on the borrower's GFE must be entered in the appropriate lines in the Good Faith Estimate column. Any third party settlement services for which the borrower selected a provider other than one identified by the loan originator must also be included in this section. The amounts shown on the HUD-1/1A for each charge in this section must be entered in the corresponding line in the HUD-1/1A column, along with the appropriate HUD-1/1A line number. The HUD-1/1A column must include any amounts shown on page 2 of the HUD-1 in the column as paid for by the borrower, plus any amounts that are shown as P.O.C. by or on behalf of the borrower. Additional lines may be added if necessary.
</P>
<HD1>Loan Terms
</HD1>
<P>This section must be completed in accordance with the information and instructions provided by the lender. The lender must provide this information in a format that permits the settlement agent to simply enter the necessary information in the appropriate spaces, without the settlement agent having to refer to the loan documents themselves. For reverse mortgages, the initial monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance must read “N/A” and the loan term is disclosed as “N/A” when the loan term is conditioned upon the occurrence of a specified event, such as the death of the borrower or the borrower no longer occupying the property for a certain period of time. Additionally, for reverse mortgages the question “Even if you make payments on time, can your loan balance rise?” must be answered as “Yes” and the maximum amount disclosed as “Unknown.”
</P>
<P>For reverse mortgages that establish an arrangement for the payment of property taxes, homeowner's insurance, or other recurring charges through draws from the principal limit, the second box in the “Total monthly amount owed including escrow payments” section must be checked. The blank following the first $ must be completed with “0” and an asterisk, and all items that will be paid using draws from the principal limit, such as for property taxes, must also be indicated. An asterisk must also be placed in this section with the following statement: “Paid by or through draws from the principal limit.” Reverse mortgage transactions are not considered to be balloon transactions for the purposes of the loan terms disclosed on page 3 of the HUD-1.
</P>
<HD1>Instructions for Completing HUD-1A
</HD1>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note:</HED>
<P>The HUD-1A is an optional form that may be used for refinancing and subordinate-lien federally related mortgage loans, as well as for any other one-party transaction that does not involve the transfer of title to residential real property. The HUD-1 form may also be used for such transactions, by utilizing the borrower's side of the HUD-1 and following the relevant parts of the instructions as set forth above. The use of either the HUD-1 or HUD-1A is not mandatory for open-end lines of credit (home-equity plans), as long as the provisions of Regulation Z are followed.</P></NOTE>
<HD1>Background
</HD1>
<P>The HUD-1A settlement statement is to be used as a statement of actual charges and adjustments to be given to the borrower at settlement, as defined in this part. The instructions for completion of the HUD-1A are for the benefit of the settlement agent who prepares the statement; the instructions are not a part of the statement and need not be transmitted to the borrower. There is no objection to using the HUD-1A in transactions in which it is not required, and its use in open-end lines of credit transactions (home-equity plans) is encouraged. It may not be used as a substitute for a HUD-1 in any transaction that has a seller.
</P>
<P>Refer to the “definitions” section (§ 1024.2) of 12 CFR part 1024 (Regulation X) for specific definitions of terms used in these instructions.
</P>
<HD1>General Instructions
</HD1>
<P>Information and amounts may be filled in by typewriter, hand printing, computer printing, or any other method producing clear and legible results. Refer to 12 CFR 1024.9 regarding rules for reproduction of the HUD-1A. Additional pages may be attached to the HUD-1A for the inclusion of customary recitals and information used locally for settlements or if there are insufficient lines on the HUD-1A. The settlement agent shall complete the HUD-1A in accordance with the instructions for the HUD-1 to the extent possible, including the instructions for disclosing items paid outside closing and for no cost loans.
</P>
<P>Blank lines are provided in section L for any additional settlement charges. Blank lines are also provided in section M for recipients of all or portions of the loan proceeds. The names of the recipients of the settlement charges in section L and the names of the recipients of the loan proceeds in section M should be set forth on the blank lines.
</P>
<HD1>Line-Item Instructions
</HD1>
<HD2>Page 1
</HD2>
<P>The identification information at the top of the HUD-1A should be completed as follows: The borrower's name and address is entered in the space provided. If the property securing the loan is different from the borrower's address, the address or other location information on the property should be entered in the space provided. The loan number is the lender's identification number for the loan. The settlement date is the date of settlement in accordance with 12 CFR 1024.2, not the end of any applicable rescission period. The name and address of the lender should be entered in the space provided.
</P>
<P><I>Section L. Settlement Charges.</I> This section of the HUD-1A is similar to section L of the HUD-1, with minor changes or omissions, including deletion of lines 700 through 704, relating to real estate broker commissions. The instructions for section L in the HUD-1 should be followed insofar as possible. Inapplicable charges should be ignored, as should any instructions regarding seller items.
</P>
<P>Line 1400 in the HUD-1A is for the total settlement charges charged to the borrower. Enter this total on line 1601. This total should include section L amounts from additional pages, if any are attached to this HUD-1A.
</P>
<P><I>Section M. Disbursement to Others.</I> This section is used to list payees, other than the borrower, of all or portions of the loan proceeds (including the lender, if the loan is paying off a prior loan made by the same lender), when the payee will be paid directly out of the settlement proceeds. It is not used to list payees of settlement charges, nor to list funds disbursed directly to the borrower, even if the lender knows the borrower's intended use of the funds.
</P>
<P>For example, in a refinancing transaction, the loan proceeds are used to pay off an existing loan. The name of the lender for the loan being paid off and the pay-off balance would be entered in section M. In a home improvement transaction when the proceeds are to be paid to the home improvement contractor, the name of the contractor and the amount paid to the contractor would be entered in section M. In a consolidation loan, or when part of the loan proceeds is used to pay off other creditors, the name of each creditor and the amount paid to that creditor would be entered in section M. If the proceeds are to be given directly to the borrower and the borrower will use the proceeds to pay off existing obligations, this would not be reflected in section M.
</P>
<P><I>Section N. Net Settlement.</I> Line 1600 normally sets forth the principal amount of the loan as it appears on the related note for this loan. In the event this form is used for an open-ended home equity line whose approved amount is greater than the initial amount advanced at settlement, the amount shown on Line 1600 will be the loan amount advanced at settlement. Line 1601 is used for all settlement charges that both are included in the totals for lines 1400 and 1602, and are not financed as part of the principal amount of the loan. This is the amount normally received by the lender from the borrower at settlement, which would occur when some or all of the settlement charges were paid in cash by the borrower at settlement, instead of being financed as part of the principal amount of the loan. Failure to include any such amount in line 1601 will result in an error in the amount calculated on line 1604. Items paid outside of closing (P.O.C.) should not be included in Line 1601.
</P>
<P>Line 1602 is the total amount from line 1400.
</P>
<P>Line 1603 is the total amount from line 1520.
</P>
<P>Line 1604 is the amount disbursed to the borrower. This is determined by adding together the amounts for lines 1600 and 1601, and then subtracting any amounts listed on lines 1602 and 1603.
</P>
<HD2>Page 2
</HD2>
<P>This section of the HUD-1A is similar to page 3 of the HUD-1. The instructions for page 3 of the HUD-1 should be followed insofar as possible. The HUD-1/1A Column should include any amounts shown on page 1 of the HUD-1A in the column as paid for by the borrower, plus any amounts that are shown as P.O.C. by the borrower. Inapplicable charges should be ignored.
</P>
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<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80104, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.47" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1024—Illustrations of Requirements of RESPA
</HEAD>
<P>The following illustrations provide additional guidance on the meaning and coverage of the provisions of RESPA. Other provisions of Federal or state law may also be applicable to the practices and payments discussed in the following illustrations.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facts:</I> A, a provider of settlement services, provides settlement services at abnormally low rates or at no charge at all to B, a builder, in connection with a subdivision being developed by B. B agrees to refer purchasers of the completed homes in the subdivision to A for the purchase of settlement services in connection with the sale of individual lots by B.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> The rendering of services by A to B at little or no charge constitutes a thing of value given by A to B in return for the referral of settlement services business, and both A and B are in violation of section 8 of RESPA.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Facts:</I> B, a lender, encourages persons who receive federally related mortgage loans from it to employ A, an attorney, to perform title searches and related settlement services in connection with their transaction. B and A have an understanding that in return for the referral of this business A provides legal services to B or B's officers or employees at abnormally low rates or for no charge.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> Both A and B are in violation of section 8 of RESPA. Similarly, if an attorney gives a portion of his or her fees to another attorney, a lender, a real estate broker or any other provider of settlement services, who had referred prospective clients to the attorney, section 8 would be violated by both persons.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Facts:</I> A, a real estate broker, obtains all necessary licenses under state law to act as a title insurance agent. A refers individuals who are purchasing homes in transactions in which A participates as a broker to B, an unaffiliated title company, for the purchase of title insurance services. A performs minimal, if any, title services in connection with the issuance of the title insurance policy (such as placing an application with the title company). B pays A a commission (or A retains a portion of the title insurance premium) for the transactions or alternatively B receives a portion of the premium paid directly from the purchaser.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> The payment of a commission or portion of the title insurance premium by B to A, or receipt of a portion of the payment for title insurance under circumstances where no substantial services are being performed by A, is a violation of section 8 of RESPA. It makes no difference whether the payment comes from B or the purchaser. The amount of the payment must bear a reasonable relationship to the services rendered. Here A really is being compensated for a referral of business to B.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Facts:</I> A is an attorney who, as a part of his legal representation of clients in residential real estate transactions, orders and reviews title insurance policies for his clients. A enters into a contract with B, a title company, to be an agent of B under a program set up by B. Under the agreement, A agrees to prepare and forward title insurance applications to B, to re-examine the preliminary title commitment for accuracy and if he chooses to attempt to clear exceptions to the title policy before closing. A agrees to assume liability for waiving certain exceptions to title, but never exercises this authority. B performs the necessary title search and examination work, determines insurability of title, prepares documents containing substantive information in title commitments, handles closings for A's clients and issues title policies. A receives a fee from his client for legal services and an additional fee for his title agent “services” from the client's title insurance premium to B.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> A and B are violating section 8 of RESPA. Here, A's clients are being double billed because the work A performs as a “title agent” is that which he already performs for his client in his capacity as an attorney. For A to receive a separate payment as a title agent, A must perform necessary core title work and may not contract out the work. To receive additional compensation as a title agent for this transaction, A must provide his client with core title agent services for which he assumes liability, and which includes at a minimum, the evaluation of the title search to determine insurability of the title, and the issuance of a title commitment where customary, the clearance of underwriting objections, and the actual issuance of the policy or policies on behalf of the title company. A may not be compensated for the mere re-examination of work performed by B. Here, A is not performing these services and may not be compensated as a title agent under section 8(c)(1)(B). Referral fees or splits of fees may not be disguised as title agent commissions when the core title agent work is not performed. Further, because B created the program and gave A the opportunity to collect fees (a thing of value) in exchange for the referral of settlement service business, it has violated section 8 of RESPA.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Facts:</I> A, a “mortgage originator,” receives loan applications, funds the loans with its own money or with a wholesale line of credit for which A is liable, and closes the loans in A's own name. Subsequently, B, a mortgage lender, purchases the loans and compensates A for the value of the loans, as well as for any mortgage servicing rights.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> Compensation for the sale of a mortgage loan and servicing rights constitutes a secondary market transaction, rather than a referral fee, and is beyond the scope of section 8 of RESPA. For purposes of section 8, in determining whether a <I>bona fide</I> transfer of the loan obligation has taken place, the Bureau examines the real source of funding, and the real interest of the named settlement lender.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Facts.</I> A, a credit reporting company, places a facsimile transmission machine (FAX) in the office of B, a mortgage lender, so that B can easily transmit requests for credit reports and A can respond. A supplies the FAX machine at no cost or at a reduced rental rate based on the number of credit reports ordered.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> Either situation violates section 8 of RESPA. The FAX machine is a thing of value that A provides in exchange for the referral of business from B. Copying machines, computer terminals, printers, or other like items which have general use to the recipient and which are given in exchange for referrals of business also violate RESPA.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Facts:</I> A, a real estate broker, refers title business to B, a company that is a licensed title agent for C, a title insurance company. A owns more than 1% of B. B performs the title search and examination, makes determinations of insurability, issues the commitment, clears underwriting objections, and issues a policy of title insurance on behalf of C, for which C pays B a commission. B pays annual dividends to its owners, including A, based on the relative amount of business each of its owners refers to B.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> The facts involve an affiliated business arrangement. The payment of a commission by C to B is not a violation of section 8 of RESPA if the amount of the commission constitutes reasonable compensation for the services performed by B for C. The payment of a dividend or the giving of any other thing of value by B to A that is based on the amount of business referred to B by A does not meet the affiliated business agreement exemption provisions and such actions violate section 8. Similarly, if the amount of stock held by A in B (or, if B were a partnership, the distribution of partnership profits by B to A) varies based on the amount of business referred or expected to be referred, or if B retained any funds for subsequent distribution to A where such funds were generally in proportion to the amount of business A referred to B relative to the amount referred by other owners, such arrangements would violate section 8. The exemption for controlled business arrangements would not be available because the payments here would not be considered returns on ownership interests. Further, the required disclosure of the affiliated business arrangement and estimated charges have not been provided.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Facts:</I> Same as illustration 7, but B pays annual dividends in proportion to the amount of stock held by its owners, including A, and the distribution of annual dividends is not based on the amount of business referred or expected to be referred.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> If A and B meet the requirements of the affiliated business arrangement exemption there is not a violation of RESPA. Since the payment is a return on ownership interests, A and B will be exempt from section 8 if (1) A also did not require anyone to use the services of B, and (2) A disclosed its ownership interest in B on a separate disclosure form and provided an estimate of B's charges to each person referred by A to B (see appendix D of this part), and (3) B makes no payment (nor is there any other thing of value exchanged) to A other than dividends.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Facts:</I> A, a franchisor for franchised real estate brokers, owns B, a provider of settlement services. C, a franchisee of A, refers business to B.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> This is an affiliated business arrangement. A, B and C will all be exempt from section 8 if C discloses its franchise relationship with the owner of B on a separate disclosure form and provides an estimate of B's charges to each person referred to B (see appendix D of this part) and C does not require anyone to use B's services and A gives no thing a value to C under the franchise agreement (such as an adjusted level of franchise payment based on the referrals), and B makes no payments to A other than dividends representing a return on ownership interest (rather than, <I>e.g.,</I> an adjusted level of payment being based on the referrals). Nor may B pay C anything of value for the referral.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Facts:</I> A is a real estate broker who refers business to its affiliate title company B. A makes all required written disclosures to the homebuyer of the arrangement and estimated charges and the homebuyer is not required to use B. B refers or contracts out business to C who does all the title work and splits the fee with B. B passes its fee to A in the form of dividends, a return on ownership interest.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> The relationship between A and B is an affiliated business arrangement. However, the affiliated business arrangement exemption does not provide exemption between an affiliated entity, B, and a third party, C. Here, B is a mere “shell” and provides no substantive services for its portion of the fee. The arrangement between B and C would be in violation of section 8(a) and (b). Even if B had an affiliate relationship with C, the required exemption criteria have not been met and the relationship would be subject to section 8.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Facts:</I> A, a mortgage lender is affiliated with B, a title company, and C, an escrow company and offers consumers a package of mortgage title and escrow services at a discount from the prices at which such services would be sold if purchased separately. Neither A, B, nor C requires consumers to purchase the services of their sister companies and each company sells such services separately and as part of the package. A also pays its employees (<I>e.g.,</I> loan officers, secretaries, <I>etc.</I>) a bonus for each loan, title insurance or closing that A's employees generate for A, B, or C respectively. A pays such employee bonuses out of its own funds and receives no payments or reimbursements for such bonuses from B or C. At or before the time that customers are told by A or its employees about the services offered by B and C and/or the package of services that is available, the customers are provided with an affiliated business disclosure form.
</P>
<P><I>Comments:</I> A's selling of a package of settlement services at a discount to a settlement service purchaser does not violate section 8 of RESPA. A's employees are making appropriate affiliated business disclosures and since the services are available separately and as part of a package, there is not “required use” of the additional services. A's payments of bonuses to its employees for the referral of business to A or A's affiliates, B and C, are exempt from section 8 under § 1024.14(g)(1). However, if B or C reimbursed A for any bonuses that A paid to its employees for referring business to B or C, such reimbursements would violate section 8. Similarly, if B or C paid bonuses to A's employees directly for generating business for them, such payments would violate section 8.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Facts.</I> A is a mortgage broker who provides origination services to submit a loan to a lender for approval. The mortgage broker charges the borrower a uniform fee for the total origination services, as well as a direct up-front charge for reimbursement of credit reporting, appraisal services, or similar charges.
</P>
<P><I>Comment.</I> The mortgage broker's fee must be reflected in the Good Faith Estimate and on the HUD-1 Settlement Statement. Other charges which are paid for by the borrower and paid in advance are listed as P.O.C. on the HUD-1 Settlement Statement, and reflect the actual provider charge for such services.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Facts.</I> A is a dealer in home improvements who has established funding arrangements with several lenders. Customers for home improvements receive a proposed contract from A. The proposal requires that customers both execute forms authorizing a credit check and employment verification, and frequently, execute a dealer consumer credit contract secured by a lien on the customer's (borrower's) 1- to 4-family residential property. Simultaneously with the completion and certification of the home improvement work, the note is assigned by the dealer to a funding lender.
</P>
<P><I>Comments.</I> The loan that is assigned to the funding lender is a loan covered by RESPA, when a lien is placed on the borrower's 1- to 4-family residential structure. The dealer loan or consumer credit contract originated by a dealer is also a RESPA-covered transaction, except when the dealer is not a “creditor” under the definition of “federally related mortgage loan” in § 1024.2. The lender to whom the loan will be assigned is responsible for assuring that the lender or the dealer delivers to the borrower a Good Faith Estimate of closing costs consistent with Regulation X, and that the HUD-1 or HUD-1A Settlement Statement is used in conjunction with the settlement of the loan to be assigned. A dealer who, under § 1024.2, is covered by RESPA as a creditor is responsible for the Good Faith Estimate of Closing Costs and the use of the appropriate settlement statement in connection with the loan.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80105, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.48" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1024—Instructions for Completing Good Faith Estimate (GFE) Form
</HEAD>
<P>The following are instructions for completing the GFE required under section 5 of RESPA and 12 CFR 1024.7 of the Bureau regulations. The standardized form set forth in this Appendix is the required GFE form and must be provided exactly as specified; provided, however, preparers may replace HUD's OMB approval number listed on the form with the Bureau's OMB approval number when they reproduce the GFE form. The instructions for completion of the GFE are primarily for the benefit of the loan originator who prepares the form and need not be transmitted to the borrower(s) as an integral part of the GFE. The required standardized GFE form must be prepared completely and accurately. A separate GFE must be provided for each loan where a transaction will involve more than one mortgage loan.
</P>
<HD1>General Instructions
</HD1>
<P>The loan originator preparing the GFE may fill in information and amounts on the form by typewriter, hand printing, computer printing, or any other method producing clear and legible results. Under these instructions, the “form” refers to the required standardized GFE form. Although the standardized GFE is a prescribed form, Blocks 3, 6, and 11 on page 2 may be adapted for use in particular loan situations, so that additional lines may be inserted there, and unused lines may be deleted.
</P>
<P>All fees for categories of charges shall be disclosed in U.S. dollar and cent amounts.
</P>
<HD1>Specific Instructions
</HD1>
<HD2>Page 1
</HD2>
<P><I>Top of the Form</I>—The loan originator must enter its name, business address, telephone number, and email address, if any, on the top of the form, along with the applicant's name, the address or location of the property for which financing is sought, and the date of the GFE.
</P>
<P>“<I>Purpose.”</I>—This section describes the general purpose of the GFE as well as additional information available to the applicant.
</P>
<P>“<I>Shopping for your loan.”</I>—This section requires no loan originator action.
</P>
<P>“<I>Important dates.”</I>—This section briefly states important deadlines after which the loan terms that are the subject of the GFE may not be available to the applicant. In Line 1, the loan originator must state the date and, if necessary, time until which the interest rate for the GFE will be available. In Line 2, the loan originator must state the date until which the estimate of all other settlement charges for the GFE will be available. This date must be at least 10 business days from the date of the GFE. In Line 3, the loan originator must state how many calendar days within which the applicant must go to settlement once the interest rate is locked. In Line 4, the loan originator must state how many calendar days prior to settlement the interest rate would have to be locked, if applicable.
</P>
<P>“<I>Summary of your loan</I>.”—In this section, for all loans the loan originator must fill in, where indicated:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial loan amount;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan term; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The initial interest rate.
</P>
<P>For reverse mortgage transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial loan amount disclosed on the GFE is the amount of the initial principal limit of the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan term is disclosed as “N/A” when the loan term is conditioned upon the occurrence of a specified event, such as the death of the borrower or the borrower no longer occupying the property for a certain period of time; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The initial interest rate is the interest rate indicated on the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>The loan originator must fill in the initial monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance. The amount shown must be the greater of: (1) The required monthly payment for principal and interest for the first regularly scheduled payment, plus any monthly mortgage insurance payment; or (2) the accrued interest for the first regularly scheduled payment, plus any monthly mortgage insurance payment. For reverse mortgage transactions where there are no regular payment periods, the loan originator must disclose “Not Applicable” or “N/A” for the initial monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance.
</P>
<P>The loan originator must indicate whether the interest rate can rise, and, if it can, must insert the maximum rate to which it can rise over the life of the loan. The loan originator must also indicate the period of time after which the interest rate can first change.
</P>
<P>The loan originator must indicate whether the loan balance can rise even if the borrower makes payments on time, for example in the case of a loan with negative amortization. If it can, the loan originator must insert the maximum amount to which the loan balance can rise over the life of the loan. For Federal, State, local, or tribal housing programs that provide payment assistance, any repayment of such program assistance should be excluded from consideration in completing this item. If the loan balance will increase only because escrow items are being paid through the loan balance, the loan originator is not required to check the box indicating that the loan balance can rise. For reverse mortgage transactions, the loan originator must indicate that the loan balance can rise even if the borrower makes payments on time and the maximum amount to which the loan balance can rise must be disclosed as “Unknown.”
</P>
<P>The loan originator must indicate whether the monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance can rise even if the borrower makes payments on time. If the monthly amount owed can rise even if the borrower makes payments on time, the loan originator must indicate the period of time after which the monthly amount owed can first change, the maximum amount to which the monthly amount owed can rise at the time of the first change, and the maximum amount to which the monthly amount owed can rise over the life of the loan. The amount used for the monthly amount owed must be the greater of: (1) The required monthly payment for principal and interest for that month, plus any monthly mortgage insurance payment; or (2) the accrued interest for that month, plus any monthly mortgage insurance payment. For reverse mortgage transactions, the loan originator must disclose that the monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance cannot rise.
</P>
<P>The loan originator must indicate whether the loan includes a prepayment penalty, and, if so, the maximum amount that it could be.
</P>
<P>The loan originator must indicate whether the loan requires a balloon payment and, if so, the amount of the payment and in how many years it will be due. Reverse mortgage transactions are not considered to be balloon transactions for the purposes of this disclosure on the GFE.
</P>
<P>“<I>Escrow account information.</I>”—The loan originator must indicate whether the loan includes an escrow account for property taxes and other financial obligations. The amount shown in the “Summary of your loan” section for “Your initial monthly amount owed for principal, interest, and any mortgage insurance” must be entered in the space for the monthly amount owed in this section. For reverse mortgage transactions where the lender will establish an arrangement to pay for such items as property taxes and homeowner's insurance through draws from the principal limit, the loan originator must indicate that an escrow account is included and the amount shown in this section must be disclosed as 'N/A.'
</P>
<P>“<I>Summary of your settlement charges.</I>”—On this line, the loan originator must state the Adjusted Origination Charges from subtotal A of page 2, the Charges for All Other Settlement Services from subtotal B of page 2, and the Total Estimated Settlement Charges from the bottom of page 2.
</P>
<HD2>Page 2
</HD2>
<P>“<I>Understanding your estimated settlement charges.</I>”—This section details 11 settlement cost categories and amounts associated with the mortgage loan. For purposes of determining whether a tolerance has been met, the amount on the GFE should be compared with the total of any amounts shown on the HUD-1 in the borrower's column and any amounts paid outside closing by or on behalf of the borrower.
</P>
<HD2>“Your Adjusted Origination Charges”
</HD2>
<P>Block 1, “<I>Our origination charge.</I>”—The loan originator must state here all charges that all loan originators involved in this transaction will receive, except for any charge for the specific interest rate chosen (points). A loan originator may not separately charge any additional fees for getting this loan, including for application, processing, or underwriting. The amount stated in Block 1 is subject to zero tolerance, <I>i.e.,</I> the amount may not increase at settlement.
</P>
<P>Block 2, “<I>Your credit or charge (points) for the specific interest rate chosen.</I>”—For transactions involving mortgage brokers, the mortgage broker must indicate through check boxes whether there is a credit to the borrower for the interest rate chosen on the loan, the interest rate, and the amount of the credit, or whether there is an additional charge (points) to the borrower for the interest rate chosen on the loan, the interest rate, and the amount of that charge. Only one of the boxes may be checked; a credit and charge cannot occur together in the same transaction.
</P>
<P>For transactions without a mortgage broker, the lender may choose not to separately disclose in this block any credit or charge for the interest rate chosen on the loan; however, if this block does not include any positive or negative figure, the lender must check the first box to indicate that “The credit or charge for the interest rate you have chosen” is included in “Our origination charge” above (see Block 1 instructions above), must insert the interest rate, and must also insert “0” in Block 2. Only one of the boxes may be checked; a credit and charge cannot occur together in the same transaction.
</P>
<P>For a mortgage broker, the credit or charge for the specific interest rate chosen is the net payment to the mortgage broker from the lender (<I>i.e.,</I> the sum of all payments to the mortgage broker from the lender, including payments based on the loan amount, a flat rate, or any other computation, and in a table funded transaction, the loan amount less the price paid for the loan by the lender). When the net payment to the mortgage broker from the lender is positive, there is a credit to the borrower and it is entered as a negative amount in Block 2 of the GFE. When the net payment to the mortgage broker from the lender is negative, there is a charge to the borrower and it is entered as a positive amount in Block 2 of the GFE. If there is no net payment (<I>i.e.,</I> the credit or charge for the specific interest rate chosen is zero), the mortgage broker must insert '0' in Block 2 and may check either the box indicating there is a credit of '0' or the box indicating there is a charge of '0.'</P>
<P>The amount stated in Block 2 is subject to zero tolerance while the interest rate is locked, <I>i.e.,</I> any credit for the interest rate chosen cannot decrease in absolute value terms and any charge for the interest rate chosen cannot increase. (<E T="04">Note:</E> An increase in the credit is allowed since this increase is a reduction in cost to the borrower. A decrease in the credit is not allowed since it is an increase in cost to the borrower.)
</P>
<P>Line A, “<I>Your Adjusted Origination Charges.</I>”—The loan originator must add the numbers in Blocks 1 and 2 and enter this subtotal at highlighted Line A. The subtotal at Line A will be a negative number if there is a credit in Block 2 that exceeds the charge in Block 1. The amount stated in Line A is subject to zero tolerance while the interest rate is locked.
</P>
<P>In the case of “no cost” loans, where “no cost” refers only to the loan originator's fees, Line A must show a zero charge as the adjusted origination charge. In the case of “no cost” loans where “no cost” encompasses third party fees as well as the upfront payment to the loan originator, all of the third party fees listed in Block 3 through Block 11 to be paid for by the loan originator (or borrower, if any) must be itemized and listed on the GFE. The credit for the interest rate chosen must be large enough that the total for Line A will result in a negative number to cover the third party fees.
</P>
<HD2>“Your Charges for All Other Settlement Services”
</HD2>
<P>There is a 10 percent tolerance applied to the sum of the prices of each service listed in Block 3, Block 4, Block 5, Block 6, and Block 7, where the loan originator requires the use of a particular provider or the borrower uses a provider selected or identified by the loan originator. Any services in Block 4, Block 5, or Block 6 for which the borrower selects a provider other than one identified by the loan originator are not subject to any tolerance and, at settlement, would not be included in the sum of the charges on which the 10 percent tolerance is based. Where a loan originator permits a borrower to shop for third party settlement services, the loan originator must provide the borrower with a written list of settlement services providers at the time of the GFE, on a separate sheet of paper.
</P>
<P>Block 3, “<I>Required services that we select.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must identify each third party settlement service required and selected by the loan originator (excluding title services), along with the estimated price to be paid to the provider of each service. Examples of such third party settlement services might include provision of credit reports, appraisals, flood checks, tax services, and any upfront mortgage insurance premium. The loan originator must identify the specific required services and provide an estimate of the price of each service. Loan originators are also required to add the individual charges disclosed in this block and place that total in the column of this block. The charge shown in this block is subject to an overall 10 percent tolerance as described above.
</P>
<P>Block 4, “<I>Title services and lender's title insurance.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must state the estimated total charge for third party settlement service providers for all closing services, regardless of whether the providers are selected or paid for by the borrower, seller, or loan originator. The loan originator must also include any lender's title insurance premiums, when required, regardless of whether the provider is selected or paid for by the borrower, seller, or loan originator. All fees for title searches, examinations, and endorsements, for example, would be included in this total. The charge shown in this block is subject to an overall 10 percent tolerance as described above.
</P>
<P>Block 5, “<I>Owner's title insurance.</I>”—In this block, for all purchase transactions the loan originator must provide an estimate of the charge for the owner's title insurance and related endorsements, regardless of whether the providers are selected or paid for by the borrower, seller, or loan originator. For non-purchase transactions, the loan originator may enter “NA” or “Not Applicable” in this Block. The charge shown in this block is subject to an overall 10 percent tolerance as described above.
</P>
<P>Block 6, “<I>Required services that you can shop for.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must identify each third party settlement service required by the loan originator where the borrower is permitted to shop for and select the settlement service provider (excluding title services), along with the estimated charge to be paid to the provider of each service. The loan originator must identify the specific required services (<I>e.g.,</I> survey, pest inspection) and provide an estimate of the charge of each service. The loan originator must also add the individual charges disclosed in this block and place the total in the column of this block. The charge shown in this block is subject to an overall 10 percent tolerance as described above.
</P>
<P>Block 7, “<I>Government recording charge.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must estimate the State and local government fees for recording the loan and title documents that can be expected to be charged at settlement. The charge shown in this block is subject to an overall 10 percent tolerance as described above.
</P>
<P>Block 8, “<I>Transfer taxes.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must estimate the sum of all State and local government fees on mortgages and home sales that can be expected to be charged at settlement, based upon the proposed loan amount or sales price and on the property address. A zero tolerance applies to the sum of these estimated fees.
</P>
<P>Block 9, “<I>Initial deposit for your escrow account.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must estimate the amount that it will require the borrower to place into a reserve or escrow account at settlement to be applied to recurring charges for property taxes, homeowner's and other similar insurance, mortgage insurance, and other periodic charges. The loan originator must indicate through check boxes if the reserve or escrow account will cover future payments for all tax, all hazard insurance, and other obligations that the loan originator requires to be paid as they fall due. If the reserve or escrow account includes some, but not all, property taxes or hazard insurance, or if it includes mortgage insurance, the loan originator should check “other” and then list the items included.
</P>
<P>Block 10, “<I>Daily interest charges.</I>”—In this block, the loan originator must estimate the total amount that will be due at settlement for the daily interest on the loan from the date of settlement until the first day of the first period covered by scheduled mortgage payments. The loan originator must also indicate how this total amount is calculated by providing the amount of the interest charges per day and the number of days used in the calculation, based on a stated projected closing date.
</P>
<P>Block 11, “<I>Homeowner's insurance.</I>”—The loan originator must estimate in this block the total amount of the premiums for any hazard insurance policy and other similar insurance, such as fire or flood insurance that must be purchased at or before settlement to meet the loan originator's requirements. The loan originator must also separately indicate the nature of each type of insurance required along with the charges. To the extent a loan originator requires that such insurance be part of an escrow account, the amount of the initial escrow deposit must be included in Block 9.
</P>
<P>Line B, “<I>Your Charges for All Other Settlement Services.</I>”—The loan originator must add the numbers in Blocks 3 through 11 and enter this subtotal in the column at highlighted Line B.
</P>
<P>Line A + B, “<I>Total Estimated Settlement Charges.</I>”—The loan originator must add the subtotals in the right-hand column at highlighted Lines A and B and enter this total in the column at highlighted Line A + B.
</P>
<HD2>Page 3
</HD2>
<HD2>“Instructions”
</HD2>
<P>“<I>Understanding which charges can change at settlement.</I>”—This section informs the applicant about which categories of settlement charges can increase at closing, and by how much, and which categories of settlement charges cannot increase at closing. This section requires no loan originator action.
</P>
<P>“<I>Using the tradeoff table.</I>”—This section is designed to make borrowers aware of the relationship between their total estimated settlement charges on one hand, and the interest rate and resulting monthly payment on the other hand. The loan originator must complete the left hand column using the loan amount, interest rate, monthly payment figure, and the total estimated settlement charges from page 1 of the GFE. The loan originator, at its option, may provide the borrower with the same information for two alternative loans, one with a higher interest rate, if available, and one with a lower interest rate, if available, from the loan originator. The loan originator should list in the tradeoff table only alternative loans for which it would presently issue a GFE based on the same information the loan originator considered in issuing this GFE. The alternative loans must use the same loan amount and be otherwise identical to the loan in the GFE. The alternative loans must have, for example, the identical number of payment periods; the same margin, index, and adjustment schedule if the loans are adjustable rate mortgages; and the same requirements for prepayment penalty and balloon payments. If the loan originator fills in the tradeoff table, the loan originator must show the borrower the loan amount, alternative interest rate, alternative monthly payment, the change in the monthly payment from the loan in this GFE to the alternative loan, the change in the total settlement charges from the loan in this GFE to the alternative loan, and the total settlement charges for the alternative loan. If these options are available, an applicant may request a new GFE, and a new GFE must be provided by the loan originator.
</P>
<P>“<I>Using the shopping chart.</I>”—This chart is a shopping tool to be provided by the loan originator for the borrower to complete, in order to compare GFEs.
</P>
<P>“<I>If your loan is sold in the future.</I>”—This section requires no loan originator action.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er20de11.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20de11.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er20de11.008.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 78981, Dec. 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80105, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.49" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1024—Affiliated Business Arrangement Disclosure Statement Format Notice
</HEAD>
<FP-DASH>To:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>From:
</FP-DASH>
<FP>    (Entity Making Statement)
</FP>
<FP-DASH>Property:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<P>This is to give you notice that [<I>referring party</I>] has a business relationship with [<I>settlement services provider(s)</I>]. [Describe the nature of the relationship between the referring party and the provider(s), including percentage of ownership interest, if applicable.] Because of this relationship, this referral may provide [<I>referring party</I>] a financial or other benefit.
</P>
<P>[A.] Set forth below is the estimated charge or range of charges for the settlement services listed. You are NOT required to use the listed provider(s) as a condition for [settlement of your loan on] [or] [purchase, sale, or refinance of] the subject property. THERE ARE FREQUENTLY OTHER SETTLEMENT SERVICE PROVIDERS AVAILABLE WITH SIMILAR SERVICES. YOU ARE FREE TO SHOP AROUND TO DETERMINE THAT YOU ARE RECEIVING THE BEST SERVICES AND THE BEST RATE FOR THESE SERVICES.
</P>
<FP-DASH>[<I>provider and settlement service</I>]
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[<I>charge or range of charges</I>]
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>[B.] Set forth below is the estimated charge or range of charges for the settlement services of an attorney, credit reporting agency, or real estate appraiser that we, as your lender, will require you to use, as a condition of your loan on this property, to represent our interests in the transaction.
</P>
<FP-DASH>[<I>provider and settlement service</I>]
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[<I>charge or range of charges</I>]
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<HD3>ACKNOWLEDGMENT
</HD3>
<P>I/we have read this disclosure form, and understand that <I>referring party</I> is referring me/us to purchase the above-described settlement service(s) and may receive a financial or other benefit as the result of this referral.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Signature
</FP>
<FP>[INSTRUCTIONS TO PREPARER:] [Use paragraph A for referrals other than those by a lender to an attorney, a credit reporting agency, or a real estate appraiser that a lender is requiring a borrower to use to represent the lender's interests in the transaction. Use paragraph B for those referrals to an attorney, credit reporting agency, or real estate appraiser that a lender is requiring a borrower to use to represent the lender's interests in the transaction. When applicable, use both paragraphs. Specific timing rules for delivery of the affiliated business disclosure statement are set forth in 12 CFR 1024.15(b)(1) of Regulation X). These INSTRUCTIONS TO PREPARER should not appear on the statement.]


</FP>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.50" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 1024—Arithmetic Steps
</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Example Illustrating Aggregate Analysis
</HD1>
<HD2>Assumptions
</HD2>
<HD3>Disbursements:
</HD3>
<FP-2>$360 for school taxes disbursed on September 20
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$1,200 for county property taxes:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$500 disbursed on July 25
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$700 disbursed on December 10
</FP-2>
<HD3>Cushion: One-sixth of estimated annual disbursements
</HD3>
<HD3>Settlement: May 15
</HD3>
<HD3>First Payment: July 1
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 1—Initial Trial Balance
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Aggregate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jul</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−370
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sep</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−470
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−340
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nov</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dec</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−520
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 2—Adjusted Trial Balance
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Increase monthly balances to eliminate negative balances]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Aggregate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jul</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">410
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">540
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sep</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">310
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">440
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nov</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dec</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">520
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 3—Trial Balance With Cushion
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Aggregate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1040
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jul</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">670
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sep</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">570
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nov</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">830
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dec</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">260
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">520
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">650
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">780
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">910
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">130</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1040</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<HD1>II. Example Illustrating Single-Item Analysis
</HD1>
<HD2>Assumptions
</HD2>
<HD3>Disbursements:
</HD3>
<FP-2>$360 for school taxes disbursed on September 20
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$1,200 for county property taxes:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$500 disbursed on July 25
</FP-2>
<FP-2>$700 disbursed on December 10
</FP-2>
<HD3>Cushion: One-sixth of estimated annual disbursements
</HD3>
<HD3>Settlement: May 15
</HD3>
<HD3>First Payment: July 1
</HD3>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 1—Initial Trial Balance
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Single-item
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Taxes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">School taxes
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">July</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">August</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">September</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">October</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">November</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">December</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">January</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">February</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">March</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">April</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">−30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">June</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 2—Adjusted Trial Balance 
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Increase monthly balances to eliminate negative balances]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Single-item
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Taxes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">School taxes
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jul</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sep</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nov</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dec</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Step 3—Trial Balance With Cushion
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Single-item
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Taxes
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">School taxes
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">pmt
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">disb
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">bal
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jul</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Aug</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">390
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Sep</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">360</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oct</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Nov</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Dec</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">200</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jan</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">180
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Feb</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">400</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">210
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mar</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">500</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">240
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Apr</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">600</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">270
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">May</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">300
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Jun</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">800</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">330</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix MS" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.51" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix MS to Part 1024—Mortgage Servicing
</HEAD>
<P> 


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix MS" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.52" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix MS-1 to Part 1024
</HEAD>
<P>[Sample language; use business stationery or similar heading]
</P>
<P>[Date]
</P>
<HD3>SERVICING DISCLOSURE STATEMENT NOTICE TO FIRST LIEN MORTGAGE LOAN APPLICANTS: THE RIGHT TO COLLECT YOUR MORTGAGE LOAN PAYMENTS MAY BE TRANSFERRED
</HD3>
<P>You are applying for a mortgage loan covered by the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>). RESPA gives you certain rights under Federal law. This statement describes whether the servicing for this loan may be transferred to a different loan servicer. “Servicing” refers to collecting your principal, interest, and escrow payments, if any, as well as sending any monthly or annual statements, tracking account balances, and handling other aspects of your loan. You will be given advance notice before a transfer occurs.
</P>
<HD2>Servicing Transfer Information
</HD2>
<P>[We may assign, sell, or transfer the servicing of your loan while the loan is outstanding.]
</P>
<P>[or]
</P>
<P>[We do not service mortgage loans of the type for which you applied. We intend to assign, sell, or transfer the servicing of your mortgage loan before the first payment is due.]
</P>
<P>[or]
</P>
<P>[The loan for which you have applied will be serviced at this financial institution and we do not intend to sell, transfer, or assign the servicing of the loan.]
</P>
<P>[INSTRUCTIONS TO PREPARER: Insert the date and select the appropriate language under “Servicing Transfer Information.” The model format may be annotated with further information that clarifies or enhances the model language.]


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix MS" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.53" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix MS-2 to Part 1024
</HEAD>
<HD1>Notice of Servicing Transfer
</HD1>
<P>The servicing of your mortgage loan is being transferred, effective [Date]. This means that after this date, a new servicer will be collecting your mortgage loan payments from you. Nothing else about your mortgage loan will change.
</P>
<P>[Name of present servicer] is now collecting your payments. [Name of present servicer] will stop accepting payments received from you after [Date].
</P>
<P>[Name of new servicer] will collect your payments going forward. Your new servicer will start accepting payments received from you on [Date].
</P>
<P><E T="04">Send all payments due on or after [Date] to [Name of new servicer] at this address: [New servicer address].</E>
</P>
<P>If you have any questions for either your present servicer, [Name of present servicer] or your new servicer [Name of new servicer], about your mortgage loan or this transfer, please contact them using the information below:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Current Servicer:</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">New Servicer:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Name of present servicer]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Name of new servicer]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Individual or Department]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Individual or Department]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Telephone Number]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Telephone Number]
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Address]</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">[Address]</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>[Use this paragraph if appropriate; otherwise omit.] Important note about insurance: If you have mortgage life or disability insurance or any other type of optional insurance, the transfer of servicing rights may affect your insurance in the following way:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>You should do the following to maintain coverage:
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<P>Under Federal law, during the 60-day period following the effective date of the transfer of the loan servicing, a loan payment received by your old servicer on or before its due date may not be treated by the new servicer as late, and a late fee may not be imposed on you.
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[NAME OF PRESENT SERVICER]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<FP>[and] [or]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>[NAME OF NEW SERVICER]
</FP>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>Date
</FP>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10886, Feb. 14, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix MS" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.54" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix MS-3 to Part 1024
</HEAD>
<HD1>Model Force-Placed Insurance Notice Forms
</HD1>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-2><E T="04">MS-3(A)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(c)(2)</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="04">MS-3(B)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(d)(2)(i)</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="04">MS-3(C)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(d)(2)(ii)</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2><E T="04">MS-3(D)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(e)(2)</E>
</FP-2>
<HD1>MS-3(A)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(c)(2)
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Name and Mailing Address of Servicer]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Date of Notice]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Mailing Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subject: <E T="04">Please provide insurance information for</E> [Property Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [Borrower's Name]:
</FP-1>
<P>Our records show that your [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance [is expiring] [expired] [provides insufficient coverage], and we do not have evidence that you have obtained new coverage. <E T="04">Because [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance is required on your property, [we bought insurance for your property] [we plan to buy insurance for your property].</E> You must pay us for any period during which the insurance we buy is in effect but you do not have insurance.
</P>
<P>You should immediately provide us with your insurance information. [Describe the insurance information the borrower must provide]. [The information must be provided in writing.]
</P>
<P>The insurance we [bought] [buy]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">• May be significantly more expensive than the insurance you can buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P><E T="04">• May not provide as much coverage as an insurance policy you buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please contact us at [telephone number].
</P>
<P>[If applicable, provide a statement advising a borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.]
</P>
<HD1>MS-3(B)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(d)(2)(i)
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Name and Mailing Address of Servicer]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Date of Notice]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Mailing Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subject: <E T="04">Second and final notice—please provide insurance information for</E> [Property Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [Borrower's Name]:
</FP-1>
<P>This is your second and final notice that our records show that your [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance [is expiring] [expired] [provides insufficient coverage], and we do not have evidence that you have obtained new coverage. <E T="04">Because [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance is required on your property, [we bought insurance for your property] [we plan to buy insurance for your property].</E> You must pay us for any period during which the insurance we buy is in effect but you do not have insurance.
</P>
<P>You should immediately provide us with your insurance information. [Describe the insurance information the borrower must provide]. [The information must be provided in writing.]
</P>
<P>The insurance we [bought] [buy]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">• [Costs $[premium charge]] [Will cost an estimated $[premium charge]] annually, which may be significantly more expensive than insurance you can buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P><E T="04">• May not provide as much coverage as an insurance policy you buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please contact us at [telephone number].
</P>
<P>[If applicable, provide a statement advising a borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.]
</P>
<HD1>MS-3(C)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(d)(2)(ii)
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Name and Mailing Address of Servicer]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Date of Notice]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Mailing Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subject: <E T="04">Second and final notice—please provide insurance information for</E> [Property Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [Borrower's Name]:
</FP-1>
<P>We received the insurance information you provided, but we are unable to verify coverage from [Date Range].
</P>
<P><E T="04">Please provide us with insurance information for [Date Range] immediately.</E>
</P>
<P>We will charge you for insurance we [bought] [plan to buy] for [Date Range] unless we can verify that you have insurance coverage for [Date Range].
</P>
<P>The insurance we [bought] [buy]:
</P>
<P><E T="04">• [Costs $[premium charge]] [Will cost an estimated $[premium charge]] annually, which may be significantly more expensive than insurance you can buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P><E T="04">• May not provide as much coverage as an insurance policy you buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please contact us at [telephone number].
</P>
<P>[If applicable, provide a statement advising a borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.]
</P>
<HD1>MS-3(D)—Model Form for Force-Placed Insurance Notice Containing Information Required by § 1024.37(e)(2)
</HD1>
<FP-1>[Name and Mailing Address of Servicer]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Date of Notice]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Borrower's Mailing Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Subject: <E T="04">Please update insurance information for</E> [Property Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Dear [Borrower's Name]:
</FP-1>
<P>Because we did not have evidence that you had [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance on the property listed above, we bought insurance on your property and added the cost to your mortgage loan account.
</P>
<P>The policy that we bought [expired] [is scheduled to expire]. <E T="04">Because [hazard][Insurance Type] insurance] is required on your property, we intend to maintain insurance on your property by renewing or replacing the insurance we bought.</E>
</P>
<P>The insurance we buy:
</P>
<P><E T="04">• [Costs $[premium charge]] [Will cost an estimated $[premium charge]] annually, which may be significantly more expensive than insurance you can buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P><E T="04">• May not provide as much coverage as an insurance policy you buy yourself.</E>
</P>
<P>If you buy [hazard] [Insurance Type] insurance, you should immediately provide us with your insurance information.
</P>
<P>[Describe the insurance information the borrower must provide]. [The information must be provided in writing.]
</P>
<P>If you have any questions, please contact us at [telephone number].
</P>
<P>[If applicable, provide a statement advising a borrower to review additional information provided in the same transmittal.]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 72376, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix MS" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.55" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix MS-4 to Part 1024—Model Clauses for the Written Early Intervention Notice
</HEAD>
<HD1>MS-4(A)—Statement Encouraging the Borrower To Contact the Servicer and Additional Information About Loss Mitigation Options (§ 1024.39(<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">i</E>), (<E T="01">ii</E>) and (<E T="01">iv</E>))
</HD1>
<P>Call us today to learn more about your options and instructions for how to apply. [The longer you wait, or the further you fall behind on your payments, the harder it will be to find a solution.]
</P>
<FP-1>[Servicer Name]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Servicer Address]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[Servicer Telephone Number]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>[For more information, visit [Servicer Web site] [and][or] [Email Address]].
</FP-1>
<HD1>MS-4(B)—Available Loss Mitigation Options (§ 1024.39(<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>))
</HD1>
<P>[If you need help, the following options may be possible (most are subject to lender approval):]
</P>
<P>• [Refinance your loan with us or another lender;]
</P>
<P>• [Modify your loan terms with us;]
</P>
<P>• [Payment forbearance temporarily gives you more time to pay your monthly payment;] [or]
</P>
<P>• [If you are not able to continue paying your mortgage, your best option may be to find more affordable housing. As an alternative to foreclosure, you may be able to sell your home and use the proceeds to pay off your current loan.]
</P>
<HD1>MS-4(C)—Housing Counselors (§ 1024.39(<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">v</E>))
</HD1>
<P>For help exploring your options, the Federal government provides contact information for housing counselors, which you can access by contacting [the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau at [Bureau Housing Counselor List Web site]] [the Department of Housing and Urban Development at [HUD Housing Counselor List Web site]] or by calling [HUD Housing Counselor List Telephone Number].
</P>
<HD1>MS-4(D)—Written Early Intervention Notice for Servicers Subject to FDCPA (§ 1024.39(<E T="01">d</E>)(2)(<E T="01">iii</E>))
</HD1>
<P>This is a legally required notice. We are sending this notice to you because you are behind on your mortgage payment. We want to notify you of possible ways to avoid losing your home. We have a right to invoke foreclosure based on the terms of your mortgage contract. Please read this letter carefully.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10887, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 81 FR 72376, Oct. 19, 2016; 82 FR 30948, July 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.19.5.1.1.56" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1024—Official Bureau Interpretations








</HEAD>
<HD2>Introduction
</HD2>
<P><I>1. Official status.</I> This commentary is the primary vehicle by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation X. Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under section 19(b) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA), 12 U.S.C. 2617(b).
</P>
<P><I>2. Requests for official interpretations.</I> A request for an official interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. A request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents. Except in unusual circumstances, such official interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in the official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically. No official interpretations will be issued approving financial institutions' forms or statements. This restriction does not apply to forms or statements whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.
</P>
<P><I>3. Unofficial oral interpretations.</I> Unofficial oral interpretations may be provided at the discretion of Bureau staff. Written requests for such interpretations should be sent to the address set forth for official interpretations. Unofficial oral interpretations provide no protection under section 19(b) of RESPA. Ordinarily, staff will not issue unofficial oral interpretations on matters adequately covered by this part or the official Bureau interpretations.
</P>
<P><I>4. Rules of construction.</I> (a) Lists that appear in the commentary may be exhaustive or illustrative; the appropriate construction should be clear from the context. In most cases, illustrative lists are introduced by phrases such as “including, but not limited to,” “among other things,” “for example,” or “such as.”
</P>
<P>(b) Throughout the commentary, reference to “this section” or “this paragraph” means the section or paragraph in the regulation that is the subject of the comment.
</P>
<P><I>5. Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph that the comment interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, some of the comments to § 1024.37(c)(1) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 37(c)(1)(i)-1. In other cases, comments have more general application and are designated, for example, as comment 40(a)-1. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1 through I-5.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart A—General Provisions
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1024.5 Coverage of RESPA
</HD2>
<HD3>5(c) Relation to State laws.
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(c)(1).
</HD3>
<P>1. State laws that are inconsistent with the requirements of RESPA or Regulation X may be preempted by RESPA or Regulation X. State laws that give greater protection to consumers are not inconsistent with and are not preempted by RESPA or Regulation X. In addition, nothing in RESPA or Regulation X should be construed to preempt the entire field of regulation of the practices covered by RESPA or Regulation X, including the regulations in Subpart C with respect to mortgage servicers or mortgage servicing.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart B—Mortgage Settlement and Escrow Accounts [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1024.17 Escrow Accounts
</HD2>
<HD2>17(k) Timely payments.
</HD2>
<HD2>17(k)(5) Timely payment of hazard insurance.
</HD2>
<HD2>17(k)(5)(ii) Inability to disburse funds.
</HD2>
<HD2>17(k)(5)(ii)(A)When inability exists.
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Examples of reasonable basis to believe that a policy has been cancelled or not renewed.</I> The following are examples of where a servicer has a reasonable basis to believe that a borrower's hazard insurance policy has been canceled or not renewed for reasons other than the nonpayment of premium charges:
</P>
<P>i. A borrower notifies a servicer that the borrower has cancelled the hazard insurance coverage, and the servicer has not received notification of other hazard insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>ii. A servicer receives a notification of cancellation or non-renewal from the borrower's insurance company before payment is due on the borrower's hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>iii. A servicer does not receive a payment notice by the expiration date of the borrower's hazard insurance policy.
</P>
<P><I>17(k)(5)(ii)(C) Recoupment for advances.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Month-to-month advances.</I> A servicer that advances the premium payment to be disbursed from an escrow account may advance the payment on a month-to-month basis, if permitted by State or other applicable law and accepted by the borrower's hazard insurance company.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart C—Mortgage Servicing
</HD1>
<HD2>§ 1024.30—Scope
</HD2>
<P><I>30(b) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exemption for Farm Credit System institutions.</I> Pursuant to 12 CFR 617.7000, certain servicers may be considered “qualified lenders” only with respect to loans discounted or pledged pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2015(b)(1). To the extent a servicer, as defined in RESPA, services a mortgage loan that has not been discounted or pledged pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 2015(b)(1), and is not subject to the requirements set forth in 12 CFR 617, the servicer may be required to comply with the requirements of §§ 1024.38 through 41 with respect to that mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 30(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Principal residence.</I> If a property ceases to be a borrower's principal residence, the procedures set forth in §§ 1024.39 through 1024.41 do not apply to a mortgage loan secured by that property. Determination of principal residence status will depend on the specific facts and circumstances regarding the property and applicable State law. For example, a vacant property may still be a borrower's principal residence.
</P>
<P><I>30(d) Successors in interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Treatment of confirmed successors in interest.</I> Under § 1024.30(d), a confirmed successor in interest must be considered a borrower for purposes of this subpart and § 1024.17, regardless of whether the successor in interest assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law. For example, if a servicer receives a loss mitigation application from a confirmed successor in interest, the servicer must review and evaluate the application and notify the confirmed successor in interest in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1024.41 if the property is the confirmed successor in interest's principal residence and the procedures set forth in § 1024.41 are otherwise applicable. Treatment of a confirmed successor in interest as a borrower for purposes of this subpart and § 1024.17 does not affect whether the confirmed successor in interest is subject to the contractual obligations of the mortgage loan agreement, which is determined by applicable State law. 2Communications in compliance with this part to a confirmed successor in interest as defined in § 1024.31 do not violate section 805(b) of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) because consumer for purposes of FDCPA section 805 includes any person who meets the definition in this part of confirmed successor in interest.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assumption of the mortgage loan obligation.</I> A servicer may not require a confirmed successor in interest to assume the mortgage loan obligation under State law to be considered a borrower for purposes of § 1024.17 and this subpart. If a successor in interest assumes a mortgage loan obligation under State law or is otherwise liable on the mortgage loan obligation, the protections that the successor in interest enjoys under this part are not limited to the protections that apply under § 1024.30(d) to a confirmed successor in interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Treatment of transferor borrowers.</I> Even after a servicer's confirmation of a successor in interest, the servicer is still required to comply with all applicable requirements of this subpart with respect to the transferor borrower.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.31—Definitions
</HD2>
<P><I>Delinquency.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Length of delinquency.</I> A borrower's delinquency begins on the date an amount sufficient to cover a periodic payment of principal, interest, and, if applicable, escrow becomes due and unpaid, and lasts until such time as no periodic payment is due and unpaid, even if the borrower is afforded a period after the due date to pay before the servicer assesses a late fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application of funds.</I> If a servicer applies payments to the oldest outstanding periodic payment, a payment by a delinquent borrower advances the date the borrower's delinquency began. For example, assume a borrower's mortgage loan obligation provides that a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow is due on the first of each month. The borrower fails to make a payment on January 1 or on any day in January, and on January 31 the borrower is 30 days delinquent. On February 3, the borrower makes a periodic payment. The servicer applies the payment it received on February 3 to the outstanding January payment. On February 4, the borrower is three days delinquent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment tolerance.</I> For any given billing cycle for which a borrower's payment is less than the periodic payment due, if a servicer chooses not to treat a borrower as delinquent for purposes of any section of this subpart, that borrower is not delinquent as defined in § 1024.31.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor's contract rights.</I> This subpart does not prevent a creditor from exercising a right provided by a mortgage loan contract to accelerate payment for a breach of that contract. Failure to pay the amount due after the creditor accelerates the mortgage loan obligation in accordance with the mortgage loan contract would begin or continue delinquency.
</P>
<P><I>Loss mitigation application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> A loss mitigation application is deemed to be submitted by a borrower if the loss mitigation application is submitted by an agent of the borrower. Servicers may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a borrower has authority from the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf.
</P>
<P><I>Loss mitigation option.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Types of loss mitigation options.</I> Loss mitigation options include temporary and long-term relief, including options that allow borrowers who are behind on their mortgage payments to remain in their homes or to leave their homes without a foreclosure, such as, without limitation, refinancing, trial or permanent modification, repayment of the amount owed over an extended period of time, forbearance of future payments, short-sale, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, and loss mitigation programs sponsored by a locality, a State, or the Federal government.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Available through the servicer.</I> A loss mitigation option available through the servicer refers to an option for which a borrower may apply, even if the borrower ultimately does not qualify for such option.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified written request.</I>
</P>
<P>1. A qualified written request is a written notice a borrower provides to request a servicer either correct an error relating to the servicing of a mortgage loan or to request information relating to the servicing of the mortgage loan. A qualified written request is not required to include both types of requests. For example, a qualified written request may request information relating to the servicing of a mortgage loan but not assert that an error relating to the servicing of a loan has occurred.
</P>
<P>2. A qualified written request is just one form that a written notice of error or information request may take. Thus, the error resolution and information request requirements in §§ 1024.35 and 1024.36 apply as set forth in those sections irrespective of whether the servicer receives a qualified written request.
</P>
<P><I>Service provider.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Service providers may include attorneys retained to represent a servicer or an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan in a foreclosure proceeding, as well as other professionals retained to provide appraisals or inspections of properties.
</P>
<P><I>Successor in interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint tenants and tenants by the entirety.</I> If a borrower who has an ownership interest as a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety in a property securing a mortgage loan subject to this subpart dies, a surviving joint tenant or tenant by the entirety with a right of survivorship in the property is a successor in interest as defined in § 1024.31.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Beneficiaries of</I> inter vivos <I>trusts.</I> In the event of a transfer into an <I>inter vivos</I> trust in which the borrower is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property, the beneficiaries of the <I>inter vivos</I> trust rather than the <I>inter vivos</I> trust itself are considered to be the successors in interest for purposes of § 1024.31. For example, assume Borrower A transfers her home into such an <I>inter vivos</I> trust for the benefit of her spouse and herself. As of the transfer date, Borrower A and her spouse would be considered successors in interest and, upon confirmation, would be borrowers for purposes of certain provisions of Regulation X. If the lender has not released Borrower A from the loan obligation, Borrower A would also remain a borrower more generally for purposes of Regulation X.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.32—General Disclosure Requirements.
</HD2>
<P><I>32(c) Confirmed successors in interest.</I>
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(1) Optional notice with acknowledgment form.</I>
</P>
<P>1. A servicer may identify in the acknowledgment form examples of the types of notices and communications identified in § 1024.32(c)(1)(iii), such as periodic statements and mortgage servicing transfer notices. Any examples provided should be the types of notices or communications that would be available to a confirmed successor in interest if the confirmed successor in interest executed the acknowledgment and returned it to the servicer.
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(2) Effect of failure to execute acknowledgment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>No time limit to return acknowledgment.</I> A confirmed successor in interest may provide an executed acknowledgment that complies with § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv) to the servicer at any time after confirmation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effect of revocation of acknowledgment.</I> If a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation executes and then later revokes an acknowledgment pursuant to § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv), the servicer is not required to provide to the confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by § 1024.17, § 1024.33, § 1024.34, § 1024.37, or § 1024.39 or to comply with the live contact requirements in § 1024.39(a) with respect to the confirmed successor in interest from the date the revocation is received until the confirmed successor in interest either assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law or executes a new acknowledgment that complies with § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv) and provides it to the servicer.
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(4) Multiple notices unnecessary.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Specific written disclosure.</I> A servicer may rely on § 1024.32(c)(4) if the servicer provides a specific written disclosure required by § 1024.17, § 1024.33, § 1024.34, § 1024.37, or § 1024.39(b) to another borrower. For example, a servicer is not required to provide a force-placed insurance notice required under § 1024.37 to a confirmed successor in interest if the servicer is providing the same force-placed insurance notice to a transferor borrower or to another confirmed successor in interest.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.33—Mortgage Servicing Transfers
</HD2>
<P><I>33(a) Servicing disclosure statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> Although the servicing disclosure statement must be clear and conspicuous pursuant to § 1024.32(a), § 1024.33(a) does not set forth any specific rules for the format of the statement, and the specific language of the servicing disclosure statement in appendix MS-1 is not required to be used. The model format may be supplemented with additional information that clarifies or enhances the model language.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Delivery to co-applicants.</I> If co-applicants indicate the same address on their application, one copy delivered to that address is sufficient. If different addresses are shown by co-applicants on the application, a copy must be delivered to each of the co-applicants.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lender servicing.</I> If the lender, mortgage broker who anticipates using table funding, or dealer in a first lien dealer loan knows at the time of making the disclosure whether it will service the mortgage loan for which the applicant has applied, the disclosure must, as applicable, state that such entity will service such loan and does not intend to sell, transfer, or assign the servicing of the loan, or that such entity intends to assign, sell, or transfer servicing of such mortgage loan before the first payment is due. In all other instances, a disclosure that states that the servicing of the loan may be assigned, sold, or transferred while the loan is outstanding complies with § 1024.33(a).
</P>
<P><I>33(b) Notices of transfer of loan servicing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 33(b)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Delivery.</I> A servicer mailing the notice of transfer must deliver the notice to the mailing address (or addresses) listed by the borrower in the mortgage loan documents, unless the borrower has notified the servicer of a new address (or addresses) pursuant to the servicer's requirements for receiving a notice of a change of address.
</P>
<P><I>33(c) Borrower payments during transfer of servicing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>33(c)(1) Payments not considered late.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Late fees prohibited.</I> The prohibition in § 1024.33(c)(1) on treating a payment as late for any purpose would prohibit a late fee from being imposed on the borrower with respect to any payment on the mortgage loan. <I>See</I> RESPA section 6(d) (12 U.S.C. 2605(d)).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Compliance with § 1024.39.</I> A transferee servicer's compliance with § 1024.39 during the 60-day period beginning on the effective date of a servicing transfer does not constitute treating a payment as late for purposes of § 1024.33(c)(1).
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.34—Timely Escrow Payments and Treatment of Escrow Balances
</HD2>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Netting of funds.</I> Section 1024.34(b)(1) does not prohibit a servicer from netting any remaining funds in an escrow account against the outstanding balance of the borrower's mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 34(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Refund always permissible.</I> A servicer is not required to credit funds in an escrow account to an escrow account for a new mortgage loan and may, in all circumstances, comply with the requirements of § 1024.34(b) by refunding the funds in the escrow account to the borrower pursuant to § 1024.34(b)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Borrower agreement.</I> A borrower may agree either orally or in writing to a servicer's crediting of any remaining balance in an escrow account to a new escrow account for a new mortgage loan pursuant to § 1024.34(b)(2).
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.35—Error Resolution Procedures
</HD2>
<P><I>35(a) Notice of error.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> A notice of error is submitted by a borrower if the notice of error is submitted by an agent of the borrower. A servicer may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a borrower has authority from the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf, for example, by requiring that a person that claims to be an agent of the borrower provide documentation from the borrower stating that the purported agent is acting on the borrower's behalf. Upon receipt of such documentation, the servicer shall treat the notice of error as having been submitted by the borrower.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information request.</I> A servicer should not rely solely on the borrower's description of a submission to determine whether the submission constitutes a notice of error under § 1024.35(a), an information request under § 1024.36(a), or both. For example, a borrower may submit a letter that claims to be a “Notice of Error” that indicates that the borrower wants to receive the information set forth in an annual escrow account statement and asserts an error for the servicer's failure to provide the borrower an annual escrow statement. Such a letter may constitute an information request under § 1024.36(a) that triggers an obligation by the servicer to provide an annual escrow statement. A servicer should not rely on the borrower's characterization of the letter as a “Notice of Error,” but must evaluate whether the letter fulfills the substantive requirements of a notice of error, information request, or both.
</P>
<P><I>35(b) Scope of error resolution.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Noncovered errors.</I> A servicer is not required to comply with § 1024.35(d), (e) and (i) with respect to a borrower's assertion of an error that is not defined as an error in § 1024.35(b). For example, the following are not errors for purposes of § 1024.35:
</P>
<P>i. An error relating to the origination of a mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>ii. An error relating to the underwriting of a mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>iii. An error relating to a subsequent sale or securitization of a mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>iv. An error relating to a determination to sell, assign, or transfer the servicing of a mortgage loan. However, an error relating to the failure to transfer accurately and timely information relating to the servicing of a borrower's mortgage loan account to a transferee servicer is an error for purposes of § 1024.35.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unreasonable basis.</I> For purposes of § 1024.35(b)(5), a servicer lacks a reasonable basis to impose fees that are not bona fide, such as:
</P>
<P>i. A late fee for a payment that was not late;
</P>
<P>ii. A charge imposed by a service provider for a service that was not actually rendered;
</P>
<P>iii. A default property management fee for borrowers that are not in a delinquency status that would justify the charge; or
</P>
<P>iv. A charge for force-placed insurance in a circumstance not permitted by § 1024.37.
</P>
<P><I>35(c) Contact information for borrowers to assert errors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exclusive address not required.</I> A servicer is not required to designate a specific address that a borrower must use to assert an error. If a servicer does not designate a specific address that a borrower must use to assert an error, a servicer must respond to a notice of error received by any office of the servicer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice of an exclusive address.</I> A notice establishing an address that a borrower must use to assert an error may be included with a different disclosure, such as a notice of transfer. The notice is subject to the clear and conspicuous requirement in § 1024.32(a)(1). If a servicer establishes an address that a borrower must use to assert an error, a servicer must provide that address to the borrower in the following contexts:
</P>
<P>i. The written notice designating the specific address, required pursuant to § 1024.35(c) and § 1024.36(b).
</P>
<P>ii. Any periodic statement or coupon book required pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.41.
</P>
<P>iii. Any Web site the servicer maintains in connection with the servicing of the loan.
</P>
<P>iv. Any notice required pursuant to §§ 1024.39 or .41 that includes contact information for assistance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple offices.</I> A servicer may designate multiple office addresses for receiving notices of errors. However, a servicer is required to comply with the requirements of § 1024.35 with respect to a notice of error received at any such designated address regardless of whether that specific address was provided to a specific borrower asserting an error. For example, a servicer may designate an address to receive notices of error for borrowers located in California and a separate address to receive notices of errors for borrowers located in Texas. If a borrower located in California asserts an error through the address used by the servicer for borrowers located in Texas, the servicer is still considered to have received a notice of error and must comply with the requirements of § 1024.35.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Internet intake of notices of error.</I> A servicer may, but need not, establish a process for receiving notices of error through email, Web site form, or other online intake methods. Any such online intake process shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any process for receiving notices of error by mail. The process or processes established by the servicer for receiving notices of error through an online intake method shall be the exclusive online intake process or processes for receiving notices of error. A servicer is not required to provide a separate notice to a borrower to establish a specific online intake process as an exclusive online process for receiving such notices of error.
</P>
<P><I>35(e) Response to notice of error.</I>
</P>
<P><I>35(e)(1) Investigation and response requirements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(e)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Notices alleging multiple errors; separate responses permitted.</I> A servicer may respond to a notice of error that alleges multiple errors through either a single response or separate responses that address each asserted error.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(e)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Different or additional errors; separate responses permitted.</I> A servicer may provide the response required by § 1024.35(e)(1)(ii) for different or additional errors identified by the servicer in the same notice that responds to errors asserted by the borrower pursuant to § 1024.35(e)(1)(i) or in a separate response that addresses the different or additional errors identified by the servicer.
</P>
<P><I>35(e)(3) Time limits.</I>
</P>
<P><I>35(e)(3)(i) In general.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(e)(3)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Foreclosure sale timing.</I> If a servicer cannot comply with its obligations pursuant to § 1024.35(e) by the earlier of a foreclosure sale or 30 days after receipt of the notice of error, a servicer may cancel or postpone a foreclosure sale, in which case the servicer would meet the time limit in § 1024.35(e)(3)(i)(B) by complying with the requirements of § 1024.35(e) before the earlier of 30 days after receipt of the notice of error (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) or the date of the rescheduled foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P><I>35(e)(3)(ii) Extension of time limit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Notices alleging multiple errors; extension of time.</I> A servicer may treat a notice of error that alleges multiple errors as separate notices of error and may extend the time period for responding to each asserted error for which an extension is permissible under § 1024.35(e)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>35(e)(4) Copies of documentation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Types of documents to be provided.</I> A servicer is required to provide only those documents actually relied upon by the servicer to determine that no error occurred. Such documents may include documents reflecting information entered in a servicer's collection system. For example, in response to an asserted error regarding payment allocation, a servicer may provide a printed screen-capture showing amounts credited to principal, interest, escrow, or other charges in the servicer's system for the borrower's mortgage loan account.
</P>
<P><I>35(g) Requirements not applicable.</I>
</P>
<P><I>35(g)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(g)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>New and material information.</I> A dispute between a borrower and a servicer with respect to whether information was previously reviewed by a servicer or with respect to whether a servicer properly determined that information reviewed was not material to its determination of the existence of an error, does not itself constitute new and material information.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(g)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of overbroad notices of error.</I> The following are examples of notices of error that are overbroad:
</P>
<P>i. Assertions of errors regarding substantially all aspects of a mortgage loan, including errors relating to all aspects of mortgage origination, mortgage servicing, and foreclosure, as well as errors relating to the crediting of substantially every borrower payment and escrow account transaction;
</P>
<P>ii. Assertions of errors in the form of a judicial action complaint, subpoena, or discovery request that purports to require servicers to respond to each numbered paragraph; and
</P>
<P>iii. Assertions of errors in a form that is not reasonably understandable or is included with voluminous tangential discussion or requests for information, such that a servicer cannot reasonably identify from the notice of error any error for which § 1024.35 requires a response.
</P>
<P><I>35(h) Payment requirements prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrower obligation to make payments.</I> Section 1024.35(h) prohibits a servicer from requiring a borrower to make a payment that may be owed on a borrower's account as a prerequisite to investigating or responding to a notice of error submitted by a borrower, but does not alter or otherwise affect a borrower's obligation to make payments owed pursuant to the terms of a mortgage loan. For example, if a borrower makes a monthly payment in February for a mortgage loan, but asserts an error relating to the servicer's acceptance of the February payment, § 1024.35(h) does not alter a borrower's obligation to make a monthly payment that the borrower owes for March. A servicer, however, may not require that a borrower make the March payment as a condition for complying with its obligations under § 1024.35 with respect to the notice of error on the February payment.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.36—Requests for Information
</HD2>
<P><I>36(a) Information request.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> An information request is submitted by a borrower if the information request is submitted by an agent of the borrower. A servicer may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a borrower has authority from the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf, for example, by requiring that a person that claims to be an agent of the borrower provide documentation from the borrower stating that the purported agent is acting on the borrower's behalf. Upon receipt of such documentation, the servicer shall treat the request for information as having been submitted by the borrower.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Owner or assignee of a mortgage loan.</I> i. When a loan is not held in a trust for which an appointed trustee receives payments on behalf of the trust, a servicer complies with § 1024.36(d) by responding to a request for information regarding the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan by identifying the person on whose behalf the servicer receives payments from the borrower. A servicer is not the owner or assignee for purposes of § 1024.36(d) if the servicer holds title to the loan, or title is assigned to the servicer, solely for the administrative convenience of the servicer in servicing the mortgage loan obligation. The Government National Mortgage Association is not the owner or assignee for purposes of such requests for information solely as a result of its role as the guarantor of the security in which the loan serves as the collateral.
</P>
<P>ii. When the loan is held in a trust for which an appointed trustee receives payments on behalf of the trust, a servicer complies with § 1024.36(d) by responding to a borrower's request for information regarding the owner, assignee, or trust of the mortgage loan with the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>A. For any request for information where the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation is not the owner of the loan or the trustee of the securitization trust in which the loan is held: The name of the trust, and the name, address, and appropriate contact information for the trustee. Assume, for example, a mortgage loan is owned by Mortgage Loan Trust, Series ABC-1, for which XYZ Trust Company is the trustee. The servicer complies with § 1024.36(d) by identifying the owner as Mortgage Loan Trust, Series ABC-1, and providing the name, address, and appropriate contact information for XYZ Trust Company as the trustee.
</P>
<P>B. If the request for information did not expressly request the name or number of the trust or pool and the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation is the owner of the loan or the trustee of the securitization trust in which the loan is held: The name and contact information for the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, as applicable, without also providing the name of the trust.
</P>
<P>C. If the request for information did expressly request the name or number of the trust or pool and the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation is the owner of the loan or the trustee of the securitization trust in which the loan is held: The name of the trust, and the name, address, and appropriate contact information for the trustee, as in comment 36(a)-2.ii.A above.
</P>
<P><I>36(b) Contact information for borrowers to request information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exclusive address not required.</I> A servicer is not required to designate a specific address that a borrower must use to request information. If a servicer does not designate a specific address that a borrower must use to request information, a servicer must respond to an information request received by any office of the servicer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice of an exclusive address.</I> A notice establishing an address that a borrower must use to request information may be included with a different disclosure, such as a notice of transfer. The notice is subject to the clear and conspicuous requirement in § 1024.32(a)(1). If a servicer establishes an address that a borrower must use to request information, a servicer must provide that address to the borrower in the following contexts:
</P>
<P>i. The written notice designating the specific address, required pursuant to § 1024.35(c) and § 1024.36(b).
</P>
<P>ii. Any periodic statement or coupon book required pursuant to 12 CFR 1026.41.
</P>
<P>iii. Any Web site the servicer maintains in connection with the servicing of the loan.
</P>
<P>iv. Any notice required pursuant to §§ 1024.39 or .41 that includes contact information for assistance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple offices.</I> A servicer may designate multiple office addresses for receiving information requests. However, a servicer is required to comply with the requirements of § 1024.36 with respect to an information request received at any such address regardless of whether that specific address was provided to a specific borrower requesting information. For example, a servicer may designate an address to receive information requests for borrowers located in California and a separate address to receive information requests for borrowers located in Texas. If a borrower located in California requests information through the address used by the servicer for borrowers located in Texas, the servicer is still considered to have received an information request and must comply with the requirements of § 1024.36.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Internet intake of information requests.</I> A servicer may, but need not, establish a process for receiving information requests through email, Web site form, or other online intake methods. Any such online intake process shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any process for receiving information requests by mail. The process or processes established by the servicer for receiving information requests through an online intake method shall be the exclusive online intake process or processes for receiving information requests. A servicer is not required to provide a separate notice to a borrower to establish a specific online intake process as an exclusive online process for receiving information requests.
</P>
<P><I>36(d) Response to information request.</I>
</P>
<P><I>36(d)(1) Investigation and response requirements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(d)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Information not available.</I> Information is not available if:
</P>
<P>i. The information is not in the servicer's control or possession, or
</P>
<P>ii. The information cannot be retrieved in the ordinary course of business through reasonable efforts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate when information is available (or not available) to a servicer under § 1024.36(d)(1)(ii):
</P>
<P>i. A borrower requests a copy of a telephonic communication with a servicer. The servicer's personnel have access in the ordinary course of business to audio recording files with organized recordings or transcripts of borrower telephone calls and can identify the communication referred to by the borrower through reasonable business efforts. The information requested by the borrower is available to the servicer.
</P>
<P>ii. A borrower requests information stored on electronic back-up media. Information on electronic back-up media is not accessible by the servicer's personnel in the ordinary course of business without undertaking extraordinary efforts to identify and restore the information from the electronic back-up media. The information requested by the borrower is not available to the servicer.
</P>
<P>iii. A borrower requests information stored at an offsite document storage facility. A servicer has a right to access documents at the offsite document storage facility and servicer personnel can access those documents through reasonable efforts in the ordinary course of business. The information requested by the borrower is available to the servicer assuming that the information can be found within the offsite documents with reasonable efforts.
</P>
<P><I>36(f) Requirements not applicable.</I>
</P>
<P><I>36(f)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(f)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. A borrower's request for a type of information that can change over time is not substantially the same as a previous information request for the same type of information if the subsequent request covers a different time period than the prior request.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(f)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Confidential, proprietary or privileged information.</I> A request for confidential, proprietary or privileged information of a servicer is not an information request for which the servicer is required to comply with the requirements of § 1024.36(c) and (d). Confidential, proprietary or privileged information may include information requests relating to, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Information regarding management or profitability of a servicer, including information provided to investors in the servicer.
</P>
<P>ii. Compensation, bonuses, or personnel actions relating to servicer personnel, including personnel responsible for servicing a borrower's mortgage loan account;
</P>
<P>iii. Records of examination reports, compliance audits, borrower complaints, and internal investigations or external investigations; or
</P>
<P>iv. Information protected by the attorney-client privilege.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(f)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of irrelevant information.</I> The following are examples of irrelevant information:
</P>
<P>i. Information that relates to the servicing of mortgage loans other than a borrower's mortgage loan, including information reported to the owner of a mortgage loan regarding individual or aggregate collections for mortgage loans owned by that entity;
</P>
<P>ii. The servicer's training program for servicing personnel;
</P>
<P>iii. The servicer's servicing program guide; or
</P>
<P>iv. Investor instructions or requirements for servicers regarding criteria for negotiating or approving any program with a borrower, including any loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(f)(1)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of overbroad or unduly burdensome requests for information.</I> The following are examples of requests for information that are overbroad or unduly burdensome:
</P>
<P>i. Requests for information that seek documents relating to substantially all aspects of mortgage origination, mortgage servicing, mortgage sale or securitization, and foreclosure, including, for example, requests for all mortgage loan file documents, recorded mortgage instruments, servicing information and documents, and sale or securitization information and documents;
</P>
<P>ii. Requests for information that are not reasonably understandable or are included with voluminous tangential discussion or assertions of errors;
</P>
<P>iii. Requests for information that purport to require servicers to provide information in specific formats, such as in a transcript, letter form in a columnar format, or spreadsheet, when such information is not ordinarily stored in such format; and
</P>
<P>iv. Requests for information that are not reasonably likely to assist a borrower with the borrower's account, including, for example, a request for copies of the front and back of all physical payment instruments (such as checks, drafts, or wire transfer confirmations) that show payments made by the borrower to the servicer and payments made by a servicer to an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>36(i) Potential successors in interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requests that indicate that the person may be a successor in interest.</I> Section 1024.36(i) requires a servicer to respond to certain written requests received from a person that indicate the person may be a successor in interest. Examples of written requests that indicate that the person may be a successor in interest include, without limitation, a written statement from a person other than a borrower indicating that there has been a transfer of ownership or of an ownership interest in the property to the person or that a borrower has been divorced, legally separated, or died, or a written loss mitigation application received from a person other than a borrower.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Time limits.</I> A servicer must respond to a request under § 1024.36(i) not later than the time limits set forth in § 1024.36(d)(2). Servicers subject to § 1024.38(b)(1)(vi)(B) must also maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that, upon receiving notice of the existence of a potential successor in interest, the servicer can promptly determine the documents the servicer reasonably requires to confirm that person's identity and ownership interest in the property and promptly provide to the potential successor in interest a description of those documents and how the person may submit a written request under § 1024.36(i) (including the appropriate address). Depending on the facts and circumstances of the request, responding promptly may require a servicer to respond more quickly than the time limits established in § 1024.36(d)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Potential successor in interest's representative.</I> An information request pursuant to § 1024.36(i) is submitted by a potential successor in interest if the information request is submitted by an agent of the potential successor in interest. A servicer may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a potential successor in interest has authority from the potential successor in interest to act on the potential successor in interest's behalf, for example, by requiring that a person that claims to be an agent of the potential successor in interest provide documentation from the potential successor in interest stating that the purported agent is acting on the potential successor in interest's behalf. Upon receipt of such documentation, the servicer shall treat the request for information as having been submitted by the potential successor in interest.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.37—Force-Placed Insurance
</HD2>
<P><I>37(a) Definition of force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(a)(2) Types of insurance not considered force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(a)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Servicer's discretion.</I> Hazard insurance paid by a servicer at its discretion refers to circumstances in which a servicer pays a borrower's hazard insurance even though the servicer is not required by § 1024.17(k)(1), (2), or (5) to do so.
</P>
<P><I>37(b) Basis for charging force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable basis to believe.</I> Section § 1024.37(b) prohibits a servicer from assessing on a borrower a premium charge or fee related to force-placed insurance unless the servicer has a reasonable basis to believe that the borrower has failed to comply with the loan contract's requirement to maintain hazard insurance. Information about a borrower's hazard insurance received by a servicer from the borrower, the borrower's insurance provider, or the borrower's insurance agent, may provide a servicer with a reasonable basis to believe that the borrower has either complied with or failed to comply with the loan contract's requirement to maintain hazard insurance. If a servicer receives no such information, the servicer may satisfy the reasonable basis to believe standard if the servicer acts with reasonable diligence to ascertain a borrower's hazard insurance status and does not receive from the borrower, or otherwise have evidence of insurance coverage as provided in § 1024.37(c)(1)(iii). A servicer that complies with the notification requirements set forth in § 1024.37(c)(1)(i) and (ii) has acted with reasonable diligence.
</P>
<P><I>37(c) Requirements before charging borrower for force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(c)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assessing premium charge or fee.</I> Subject to the requirements of § 1024.37(c)(1)(i) through (iii), if not prohibited by State or other applicable law, a servicer may charge a borrower for force-placed insurance the servicer purchased, retroactive to the first day of any period of time in which the borrower did not have hazard insurance in place.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Extension of time.</I> Applicable law, such as State law or the terms and conditions of a borrower's insurance policy, may provide for an extension of time to pay the premium on a borrower's hazard insurance after the due date. If a premium payment is made within such time, and the insurance company accepts the payment with no lapse in insurance coverage, then the borrower's hazard insurance is deemed to have had hazard insurance coverage continuously for purposes of § 1024.37(c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Evidence demonstrating insurance.</I> As evidence of continuous hazard insurance coverage that complies with the loan contract's requirements, a servicer may require a copy of the borrower's hazard insurance policy declaration page, the borrower's insurance certificate, the borrower's insurance policy, or other similar forms of written confirmation. A servicer may reject evidence of hazard insurance coverage submitted by the borrower if neither the borrower's insurance provider nor insurance agent provides confirmation of the insurance information submitted by the borrower, or if the terms and conditions of the borrower's hazard insurance policy do not comply with the borrower's loan contract requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identifying type of hazard insurance.</I> If the terms of a mortgage loan contract requires a borrower to purchase both a homeowners' insurance policy and a separate hazard insurance policy to insure against loss resulting from hazards not covered under the borrower's homeowners' insurance policy, a servicer must disclose whether it is the borrower's homeowners' insurance policy or the separate hazard insurance policy for which it lacks evidence of coverage to comply with § 1024.37(c)(2)(v).
</P>
<P><I>37(d) Reminder notice.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(d)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. When a servicer is required to deliver or place in the mail the written notice pursuant to § 1024.37(d)(1), the content of the reminder notice will be different depending on the insurance information the servicer has received from the borrower. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, on June 1, the servicer places in the mail the written notice required by § 1024.37(c)(1)(i) to Borrower A. The servicer does not receive any insurance information from Borrower A. The servicer must deliver to Borrower A or place in the mail a reminder notice, with the information required by § 1024.37(d)(2)(i), at least 30 days after June 1 and at least 15 days before the servicer charges Borrower A for force-placed insurance.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same example, except that Borrower A provides the servicer with insurance information on June 18, but the servicer cannot verify that Borrower A has hazard insurance in place continuously based on the information Borrower A provided (<I>e.g.,</I> the servicer cannot verify that Borrower A had coverage between June 10 and June 15). The servicer must either deliver to Borrower A or place in the mail a reminder notice, with the information required by in § 1024.37(d)(2)(ii), at least 30 days after June 1 and at least 15 days before charging Borrower A for force-placed insurance it obtains for the period between June 10 and June 15.
</P>
<P><I>37(d)(2) Content of reminder notice.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(d)(2)(i) Servicer receiving no insurance information.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(d)(2)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable estimate of the cost of force-placed insurance.</I> Differences between the amount of the estimated cost disclosed under § 1024.37(d)(2)(i)(D) and the actual cost later assessed to the borrower are permissible, so long as the estimated cost is based on the information reasonably available to the servicer at the time the disclosure is provided. For example, a mortgage investor's requirements may provide that the amount of coverage for force-placed insurance depends on the borrower's delinquency status (the number of days the borrower's mortgage payment is past due). The amount of coverage affects the cost of force-placed insurance. A servicer that provides an estimate of the cost of force-placed insurance based on the borrower's delinquency status at the time the disclosure is made complies with § 1024.37(d)(2)(i)(D).
</P>
<P><I>37(d)(5) Updating notice with borrower information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable time.</I> If the written notice required by § 1024.37(c)(1)(ii) was put into production a reasonable time prior to the servicer delivering or placing the notice in the mail, the servicer is not required to update the notice with new insurance information received. For purposes of § 1024.37(d)(5), a reasonable time is no more than five days (excluding legal holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays).
</P>
<P><I>37(e) Renewal or replacing force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(e)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1024.37(e)(1), as evidence that the borrower has purchased hazard insurance coverage that complies with the loan contract's requirements, a servicer may require a borrower to provide a form of written confirmation as described in comment 37(c)(1)(iii)-2, and may reject evidence of coverage submitted by the borrower for the reasons described in comment 37(c)(1)(iii)-2.
</P>
<P><I>37(e)(1)(iii) Charging before end of notice period.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> Section 1024.37(e)(1)(iii) permits a servicer to assess on a borrower a premium charge or fee related to renewing or replacing existing force-placed insurance promptly after the servicer receives evidence demonstrating that the borrower lacked hazard insurance coverage in compliance with the loan contract's requirements to maintain hazard insurance for any period of time following the expiration of the existing force-placed insurance. To illustrate, assume that on January 2, the servicer sends the notice required by § 1024.37(e)(1)(i). At 12:01 a.m. on January 12, the existing force-placed insurance the servicer had purchased on the borrower's property expires and the servicer replaces the expired force-placed insurance policy with a new policy. On February 5, the servicer receives evidence demonstrating the borrower has hazard insurance effective since 12:01 a.m. on January 31. The servicer may charge the borrower for force-placed insurance covering the period from 12:01 a.m. January 12 to 12:01 a.m. January 31, as early as February 5.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(e)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable estimate of the cost of force-placed insurance.</I> The reasonable estimate requirement set forth in § 1024.37(e)(2)(vii) is the same reasonable estimate requirement set forth in § 1024.37(d)(2)(i)(D). See comment 37(d)(2)(i)(D)-1 regarding the reasonable estimate.
</P>
<P><I>37(g) Cancellation of force-placed insurance.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(g)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Period of overlapping insurance coverage.</I> Section 1024.37(g)(2) requires a servicer to refund to a borrower all force-placed insurance premium charges and related fees paid by the borrower for any period of overlapping insurance coverage and remove from the borrower's account all force-placed insurance charges and related fees for such period. A period of overlapping insurance coverage means the period of time during which the force-placed insurance purchased by a servicer and the hazard insurance purchased by a borrower were in effect at the same time.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1024.38—General servicing policies, procedures, and requirements.
</HD2>
<P><I>38(a) Reasonable policies and procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A servicer may determine the specific policies and procedures it will adopt and the methods by which it will implement those policies and procedures so long as they are reasonably designed to achieve the objectives set forth in § 1024.38(b). A servicer has flexibility to determine such policies and procedures and methods in light of the size, nature, and scope of the servicer's operations, including, for example, the volume and aggregate unpaid principal balance of mortgage loans serviced, the credit quality, including the default risk, of the mortgage loans serviced, and the servicer's history of consumer complaints.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedures used.</I> The term “procedures” refers to the actual practices followed by a servicer for achieving the objectives set forth in § 1024.38(b).
</P>
<P><I>38(b) Objectives.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(b)(1) Accessing and providing timely and accurate information.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Errors committed by service providers.</I> A servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to provide for promptly obtaining information from service providers to facilitate achieving the objective of correcting errors resulting from actions of service providers, including obligations arising pursuant to § 1024.35.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(1)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Accurate and current information for owners or assignees of mortgage loans relating to loan modifications.</I> The relevant current information to owners or assignees of mortgage loans includes, among other things, information about a servicer's evaluation of borrowers for loss mitigation options and a servicer's agreements with borrowers on loss mitigation options, including loan modifications. Such information includes, for example, information regarding the date, terms, and features of loan modifications, the components of any capitalized arrears, the amount of any servicer advances, and any assumptions regarding the value of a property used in evaluating any loss mitigation options.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(1)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Identification of potential successors in interest.</I> A servicer may be notified of the existence of a potential successor in interest in a variety of ways. For example, a person could indicate that there has been a transfer of ownership or of an ownership interest in the property or that a borrower has been divorced, legally separated, or died, or a person other than a borrower could submit a loss mitigation application. A servicer must maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can retain this information and promptly facilitate communication with potential successors in interest when a servicer is notified of their existence. A servicer is not required to conduct a search for potential successors in interest if the servicer has not received actual notice of their existence.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Documents reasonably required.</I> The documents a servicer requires to confirm a potential successor in interest's identity and ownership interest in the property must be reasonable in light of the laws of the relevant jurisdiction, the specific situation of the potential successor in interest, and the documents already in the servicer's possession. The required documents may, where appropriate, include, for example, a death certificate, an executed will, or a court order. The required documents may also include documents that the servicer reasonably believes are necessary to prevent fraud or other criminal activity (for example, if a servicer has reason to believe that documents presented are forged).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of reasonable requirements.</I> Because the relevant law governing each situation may vary from State to State, the following examples are illustrative only. The examples illustrate what documents it would generally be reasonable for a servicer to require to confirm a potential successor in interest's identity and ownership interest in the property under the specific circumstances described.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Tenancy by the entirety or joint tenancy.</I> Assume that a servicer knows that the potential successor in interest and the transferor borrower owned the property as tenants by the entirety or joint tenants and that the transferor borrower has died. Assume further that, upon the death of the transferor borrower, the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction does not require a probate proceeding to establish that the potential successor in interest has sole interest in the property but requires only that there be a prior recorded deed listing both the potential successor in interest and the transferor borrower as tenants by the entirety (<I>e.g.,</I> married grantees) or joint tenants. Under these circumstances, it would be reasonable for the servicer to require the potential successor in interest to provide documentation of the recorded instrument, if the servicer does not already have it, and the death certificate of the transferor borrower. Because in this situation a probate proceeding is not required under the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction, it generally would not be reasonable for the servicer to require documentation of a probate proceeding.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Affidavits of heirship.</I> Assume that a potential successor in interest indicates that an ownership interest in the property transferred to the potential successor in interest upon the death of the transferor borrower through intestate succession and offers an affidavit of heirship as confirmation. Assume further that, upon the death of the transferor borrower, the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction does not require a probate proceeding to establish that the potential successor in interest has an interest in the property but requires only an appropriate affidavit of heirship. Under these circumstances, it would be reasonable for the servicer to require the potential successor in interest to provide the affidavit of heirship and the death certificate of the transferor borrower. Because a probate proceeding is not required under the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction to recognize the transfer of title, it generally would not be reasonable for the servicer to require documentation of a probate proceeding.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Divorce or legal separation.</I> Assume that a potential successor in interest indicates that an ownership interest in the property transferred to the potential successor in interest from a spouse who is a borrower as a result of a property agreement incident to a divorce proceeding. Assume further that the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction does not require a deed conveying the interest in the property but accepts a final divorce decree and accompanying separation agreement executed by both spouses to evidence transfer of title. Under these circumstances, it would be reasonable for the servicer to require the potential successor in interest to provide documentation of the final divorce decree and an executed separation agreement. Because the applicable law of the relevant jurisdiction does not require a deed, it generally would not be reasonable for the servicer to require a deed.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Living spouses or parents.</I> Assume that a potential successor in interest indicates that an ownership interest in the property transferred to the potential successor in interest from a living spouse or parent who is a borrower by quitclaim deed or act of donation. Under these circumstances, it would be reasonable for the servicer to require the potential successor in interest to provide the quitclaim deed or act of donation. It generally would not be reasonable, however, for the servicer to require additional documents.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional documentation required for confirmation determination.</I> Section 1024.38(b)(1)(vi)(C) requires a servicer to maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that, upon receipt of the documents identified by the servicer, the servicer promptly notifies a potential successor in interest that, as applicable, the servicer has confirmed the potential successor in interest's status, has determined that additional documents are required, or has determined that the potential successor in interest is not a successor in interest. If a servicer reasonably determines that it cannot make a determination of the potential successor in interest's status based on the documentation provided, it must specify what additional documentation is required. For example, if there is pending litigation involving the potential successor in interest and other claimants regarding who has title to the property at issue, a servicer may specify that documentation of a court determination or other resolution of the litigation is required.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prompt confirmation and loss mitigation.</I> A servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to ensure that the servicer can promptly notify the potential successor in interest that the servicer has confirmed the potential successor in interest's status. Notification is not prompt for purposes of this requirement if it unreasonably interferes with a successor in interest's ability to apply for loss mitigation options according to the procedures provided in § 1024.41.
</P>
<P><I>38(b)(2) Properly evaluating loss mitigation applications.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Means of identifying all available loss mitigation options.</I> Servicers must develop policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to enable servicer personnel to identify all loss mitigation options available for mortgage loans currently serviced by the mortgage servicer. For example, a servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to address how a servicer specifically identifies, with respect to each owner or assignee, all of the loss mitigation options that the servicer may consider when evaluating any borrower for a loss mitigation option and the criteria that should be applied by a servicer when evaluating a borrower for such options. In addition, a servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to address how the servicer will apply any specific thresholds for eligibility for a particular loss mitigation option established by an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan (<I>e.g.,</I> if the owner or assignee requires that a servicer only make a particular loss mitigation option available to a certain percentage of the loans that the servicer services for that owner or assignee, then the servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to determine in advance how the servicer will apply that threshold to those mortgage loans). A servicer's policies and procedures must also be reasonably designed to ensure that such information is readily accessible to the servicer personnel involved with loss mitigation, including personnel made available to the borrower as described in § 1024.40.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Owner or assignee requirements.</I> A servicer must have policies and procedures reasonably designed to evaluate a borrower for a loss mitigation option consistent with any owner or assignee requirements, even where the requirements of § 1024.41 may be inapplicable. For example, an owner or assignee may require that a servicer implement certain procedures to review a loss mitigation application submitted by a borrower less than 37 days before a foreclosure sale. Further, an owner or assignee may require that a servicer implement certain procedures to re-evaluate a borrower who has demonstrated a material change in the borrower's financial circumstances for a loss mitigation option after the servicer's initial evaluation. A servicer must have policies and procedures reasonably designed to implement these requirements even if such loss mitigation evaluations may not be required pursuant to § 1024.41.
</P>
<P><I>38(b)(3) Facilitating oversight of, and compliance by, service providers.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(3)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Sharing information with service provider personnel handling foreclosure proceedings.</I> A servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to ensure that servicer personnel promptly inform service provider personnel handling foreclosure proceedings that the servicer has received a complete loss mitigation application and promptly instruct foreclosure counsel to take any step required by § 1024.41(g) sufficiently timely to avoid violating the prohibition against moving for judgment or order of sale, or conducting a foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P><I>38(b)(4) Facilitating transfer of information during servicing transfers.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(b)(4)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Electronic document transfers.</I> A transferor servicer's policies and procedures may provide for transferring documents and information electronically, provided that the transfer is conducted in a manner that is reasonably designed to ensure the accuracy of the information and documents transferred and that enables a transferee servicer to comply with its obligations to the owner or assignee of the loan and with applicable law. For example, a transferor servicer must have policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure that data can be properly and promptly boarded by a transferee servicer's electronic systems and that all necessary documents and information are available to, and can be appropriately identified by, a transferee servicer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loss mitigation documents.</I> A transferor servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to ensure that the transfer includes any information reflecting the current status of discussions with a borrower regarding loss mitigation options, any agreements entered into with a borrower on a loss mitigation option, and any analysis by a servicer with respect to potential recovery from a non-performing mortgage loan, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>Paragraph 38(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Missing loss mitigation documents and information.</I> A transferee servicer must have policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure, in connection with a servicing transfer, that the transferee servicer receives information regarding any loss mitigation discussions with a borrower, including any copies of loss mitigation agreements. Further, the transferee servicer's policies and procedures must address obtaining any such missing information or documents from a transferor servicer before attempting to obtain such information from a borrower. For example, assume a servicer receives documents or information from a transferor servicer indicating that a borrower has made payments consistent with a trial or permanent loan modification but has not received information about the existence of a trial or permanent loan modification agreement. The servicer must have policies and procedures reasonably designed to identify whether any such loan modification agreement exists with the transferor servicer and to obtain any such agreement from the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P><I>38(b)(5) Informing borrowers of written error resolution and information request procedures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Manner of informing borrowers.</I> A servicer may comply with the requirement to maintain policies and procedures reasonably designed to inform borrowers of the procedures for submitting written notices of error set forth in § 1024.35 and written information requests set forth in § 1024.36 by informing borrowers, through a notice (mailed or delivered electronically) or a Web site. For example, a servicer may comply with § 1024.38(b)(5) by including in the periodic statement required pursuant to § 1026.41 a brief statement informing borrowers that borrowers have certain rights under Federal law related to resolving errors and requesting information about their account, and that they may learn more about their rights by contacting the servicer, and a statement directing borrowers to a Web site that provides a description of the procedures set forth in §§ 1024.35 and 1024.36. Alternatively, a servicer may also comply with § 1024.38(b)(5) by including a description of the procedures set forth in §§ 1024.35 and 1024.36 in the written notice required by § 1024.35(c) and § 1024.36(b).
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<P>2. <I>Oral complaints and requests.</I> A servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to provide information to borrowers who are not satisfied with the resolution of a complaint or request for information submitted orally about the procedures for submitting written notices of error set forth in § 1024.35 and for submitting written requests for information set forth in § 1024.36.
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<P>3. <I>Notices of error incorrectly sent to addresses associated with submission of loss mitigation applications or the continuity of contact.</I> A servicer's policies and procedures must be reasonably designed to ensure that if a borrower incorrectly submits an assertion of an error to any address given to the borrower in connection with submission of a loss mitigation application or the continuity of contact pursuant to § 1024.40, the servicer will inform the borrower of the procedures for submitting written notices of error set forth in § 1024.35, including the correct address. Alternatively, the servicer could redirect such notices to the correct address.
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<P><I>38(c) Standard requirements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(c)(1)Record retention.</I>
</P>
<P><I>1. Methods of retaining records.</I> Retaining records that document actions taken with respect to a borrower's mortgage loan account does not necessarily mean actual paper copies of documents. The records may be retained by any method that reproduces the records accurately (including computer programs) and that ensures that the servicer can easily access the records (including a contractual right to access records possessed by another entity).
</P>
<P><I>38(c)(2) Servicing file.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> A servicer complies with § 1024.38(c)(2) if it maintains information in a manner that facilitates compliance with § 1024.38(c)(2) beginning on or after January 10, 2014. A servicer is not required to comply with § 1024.38(c)(2) with respect to information created prior to January 10, 2014. For example, if a mortgage loan was originated on January 1, 2013, a servicer is not required by § 1024.38(c)(2) to maintain information regarding transactions credited or debited to that mortgage loan account in any particular manner for payments made prior to January 10, 2014. However, for payments made on or after January 10, 2014, a servicer must maintain such information in a manner that facilitates compiling such information into a servicing file within five days.
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<P>2. <I>Borrower requests for servicing file.</I> Section 1024.38(c)(2) does not confer upon any borrower an independent right to access information contained in the servicing file. Upon receipt of a borrower's request for a servicing file, a servicer shall provide the borrower with a copy of the information contained in the servicing file for the borrower's mortgage loan, subject to the procedures and limitations set forth in § 1024.36.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(c)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Report of data fields.</I> A report of the data fields relating to a borrower's mortgage loan account created by the servicer's electronic systems in connection with servicing practices means a report listing the relevant data fields by name, populated with any specific data relating to the borrower's mortgage loan account. Examples of data fields relating to a borrower's mortgage loan account created by the servicer's electronic systems in connection with servicing practices include fields used to identify the terms of the borrower's mortgage loan, fields used to identify the occurrence of automated or manual collection calls, fields reflecting the evaluation of a borrower for a loss mitigation option, fields used to identify the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan, and any credit reporting history.






</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.39—Early Intervention Requirements for Certain Borrowers
</HD2>
<P><I>39(a) Live Contact.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Delinquency.</I> Section 1024.39 requires a servicer to establish or attempt to establish live contact no later than the 36th day of a borrower's delinquency. This provision is illustrated as follows:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a mortgage loan obligation with a monthly billing cycle and monthly payments of $2,000 representing principal, interest, and escrow due on the first of each month.
</P>
<P>A. The borrower fails to make a payment of $2,000 on, and makes no payment during the 36-day period after, January 1. The servicer must establish or make good faith efforts to establish live contact not later than 36 days after January 1—<I>i.e.,</I> on or before February 6.
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<P>B. The borrower makes no payments during the period January 1 through April 1, although payments of $2,000 each on January 1, February 1, and March 1 are due. Assuming it is not a leap year, the borrower is 90 days delinquent as of April 1. The servicer may time its attempts to establish live contact such that a single attempt will meet the requirements of § 1024.39(a) for two missed payments. To illustrate, the servicer complies with § 1024.39(a) if the servicer makes a good faith effort to establish live contact with the borrower, for example, on February 5 and again on March 25. The February 5 attempt meets the requirements of § 1024.39(a) for both the January 1 and February 1 missed payments. The March 25 attempt meets the requirements of § 1024.39(a) for the March 1 missed payment.
</P>
<P>ii. A borrower who is performing as agreed under a loss mitigation option designed to bring the borrower current on a previously missed payment is not delinquent for purposes of § 1024.39.
</P>
<P>iii. During the 60-day period beginning on the effective date of transfer of the servicing of any mortgage loan, a borrower is not delinquent for purposes of § 1024.39 if the transferee servicer learns that the borrower has made a timely payment that has been misdirected to the transferor servicer and the transferee servicer documents its files accordingly. See § 1024.33(c)(1) and comment 33(c)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>iv. A servicer need not establish live contact with a borrower unless the borrower is delinquent during the 36 days after a payment due date. If the borrower satisfies a payment in full before the end of the 36-day period, the servicer need not establish live contact with the borrower. For example, if a borrower misses a January 1 due date but makes that payment on February 1, a servicer need not establish or make good faith efforts to establish live contact by February 6.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Establishing live contact.</I> Live contact provides servicers an opportunity to discuss the circumstances of a borrower's delinquency. Live contact with a borrower includes speaking on the telephone or conducting an in-person meeting with the borrower but not leaving a recorded phone message. A servicer may rely on live contact established at the borrower's initiative to satisfy the live contact requirement in § 1024.39(a). Servicers may also combine contacts made pursuant to § 1024.39(a) with contacts made with borrowers for other reasons, for instance, by telling borrowers on collection calls that loss mitigation options may be available.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Good faith efforts.</I> Good faith efforts to establish live contact consist of reasonable steps, under the circumstances, to reach a borrower and may include telephoning the borrower on more than one occasion or sending written or electronic communication encouraging the borrower to establish live contact with the servicer. The length of a borrower's delinquency, as well as a borrower's failure to respond to a servicer's repeated attempts at communication pursuant to § 1024.39(a), are relevant circumstances to consider. For example, whereas “good faith efforts” to establish live contact with regard to a borrower with two consecutive missed payments might require a telephone call, “good faith efforts” to establish live contact with regard to an unresponsive borrower with six or more consecutive missed payments might require no more than including a sentence requesting that the borrower contact the servicer with regard to the delinquencies in the periodic statement or in an electronic communication. Comment 39(a)-6 discusses the relationship between live contact and the loss mitigation procedures set forth in § 1024.41.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Promptly inform if appropriate.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Servicer's determination.</I> It is within a servicer's reasonable discretion to determine whether informing a borrower about the availability of loss mitigation options is appropriate under the circumstances. The following examples demonstrate when a servicer has made a reasonable determination regarding the appropriateness of providing information about loss mitigation options.
</P>
<P>A. A servicer provides information about the availability of loss mitigation options to a borrower who notifies a servicer during live contact of a material adverse change in the borrower's financial circumstances that is likely to cause the borrower to experience a long-term delinquency for which loss mitigation options may be available.
</P>
<P>B. A servicer does not provide information about the availability of loss mitigation options to a borrower who has missed a January 1 payment and notified the servicer that full late payment will be transmitted to the servicer by February 15.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Promptly inform.</I> If appropriate, a servicer may inform borrowers about the availability of loss mitigation options orally, in writing, or through electronic communication, but the servicer must provide such information promptly after the servicer establishes live contact. A servicer need not notify a borrower about any particular loss mitigation options at this time; if appropriate, a servicer need only inform borrowers generally that loss mitigation options may be available. If appropriate, a servicer may satisfy the requirement in § 1024.39(a) to inform a borrower about loss mitigation options by providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(b)(1), but the servicer must provide such notice promptly after the servicer establishes live contact.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> Section 1024.39 does not prohibit a servicer from satisfying its requirements by establishing live contact with and, if applicable, providing information about loss mitigation options to a person authorized by the borrower to communicate with the servicer on the borrower's behalf. A servicer may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a borrower has authority from the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf, for example, by requiring a person that claims to be an agent of the borrower to provide documentation from the borrower stating that the purported agent is acting on the borrower's behalf.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relationship between live contact and loss mitigation procedures.</I> If the servicer has established and is maintaining ongoing contact with the borrower under the loss mitigation procedures under § 1024.41, including during the borrower's completion of a loss mitigation application or the servicer's evaluation of the borrower's complete loss mitigation application, or if the servicer has sent the borrower a notice pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(1)(ii) that the borrower is not eligible for any loss mitigation options, the servicer complies with § 1024.39(a) and need not otherwise establish or make good faith efforts to establish live contact. A servicer must resume compliance with the requirements of § 1024.39(a) for a borrower who becomes delinquent again after curing a prior delinquency.










</P>
<P><I>39(b) Written notice.</I>
</P>
<P><I>39(b)(1) Notice required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Delinquency.</I> For guidance on the circumstances under which a borrower is delinquent for purposes of § 1024.39, see comment 39(a)-1. For example, if a payment due date is January 1 and the payment remains unpaid during the 45-day period after January 1, the servicer must provide the written notice within 45 days after January 1—<I>i.e.,</I> by February 15. However, if a borrower satisfies a late payment in full before the end of the 45-day period, the servicer need not provide the written notice. For example, if a borrower misses a January 1 due date but makes that payment on February 1, a servicer need not provide the written notice by February 15.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Frequency of the written notice.</I> A servicer need not provide the written notice under § 1024.39(b) more than once during a 180-day period beginning on the date on which the written notice is provided. A servicer must provide the written notice under § 1024.39(b) at least once every 180 days to a borrower who is 45 days or more delinquent. This provision is illustrated as follows: Assume a borrower becomes delinquent on March 1, the amount due is not fully paid during the 45 days after March 1, and the servicer provides the written notice on the 45th day after March 1, which is April 15. Assume the borrower also fails to make the payment due on April 1 and the amount due is not fully paid during the 45 days after April 1. The servicer need not provide the written notice again until after the 180-day period beginning on April 15—<I>i.e.,</I> no sooner than on October 12—and then only if the borrower is at that time 45 days or more delinquent.
</P>
<P>i. If the borrower is 45 days or more delinquent on October 12, the date that is 180 days after the prior provision of the written notice, the servicer is required to provide the written notice again on October 12.
</P>
<P>ii. If the borrower is less than 45 days delinquent on October 12, the servicer must again provide the written notice 45 days after the payment due date for which the borrower remains delinquent. For example, if the borrower becomes delinquent on October 1, and the amount due is not fully paid during the 45 days after October 1, the servicer will need to provide the written notice again no later than 45 days after October 1—<I>i.e.,</I> by November 15.
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<P>3. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> Comment 39(a)-5 explains how a servicer may satisfy the requirements under § 1024.39 with a person authorized by the borrower to communicate with the servicer on the borrower's behalf.
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<P>4. <I>Relationship to § 1024.39(a).</I> The written notice required under § 1024.39(b)(1) must be provided even if the servicer provided information about loss mitigation and foreclosure previously during an oral communication with the borrower under § 1024.39(a).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Servicing transfers.</I> A transferee servicer is required to comply with the requirements of § 1024.39(b) regardless of whether the transferor servicer provided a written notice to the borrower in the preceding 180-day period. However, a transferee servicer is not required to provide a written notice under § 1024.39(b) if the transferor servicer provided the written notice under § 1024.39(b) within 45 days of the transfer date. For example, assume a borrower has monthly payments, with a payment due on March 1. The transferor servicer provides the notice required by § 1024.39(b) on April 10. The loan is transferred on April 12. Assuming the borrower remains delinquent, the transferee servicer is not required to provide another written notice until 45 days after May 1, the first post-transfer payment due date—<I>i.e.,</I> by June 15.
</P>
<P><I>39(b)(2) Content of the written notice.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Minimum requirements.</I> Section 1024.39(b)(2) contains minimum content requirements for the written notice. A servicer may provide additional information that the servicer determines would be helpful or which may be required by applicable law or the owner or assignee of the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> Any color, number of pages, size and quality of paper, size and type of print, and method of reproduction may be used, provided each of the statements required by § 1024.39(b)(2) satisfies the clear and conspicuous standard in § 1024.32(a)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Delivery.</I> A servicer may satisfy the requirement to provide the written notice by combining other notices that satisfy the content requirements of § 1024.39(b)(2) into a single mailing, provided each of the statements required by § 1024.39(b)(2) satisfies the clear and conspicuous standard in § 1024.32(a)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(b)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Number of examples.</I> Section 1024.39(b)(2)(iii) does not require that a specific number of examples be disclosed, but borrowers are likely to benefit from examples of options that would permit them to retain ownership of their home and examples of options that may require borrowers to end their ownership to avoid foreclosure. The servicer may include a generic list of loss mitigation options that it offers to borrowers. The servicer may include a statement that not all borrowers will qualify for the listed options.
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<P>2. <I>Brief description.</I> An example of a loss mitigation option may be described in one or more sentences. If a servicer offers a loss mitigation option comprising several loss mitigation programs, the servicer may provide a generic description of the option without providing detailed descriptions of each program. For example, if the servicer offers several loan modification programs, the servicer may provide a generic description of “loan modification.”
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(b)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of how the borrower may obtain more information about loss mitigation options.</I> A servicer may comply with § 1024.39(b)(2)(iv) by directing the borrower to contact the servicer for more detailed information on how to apply for loss mitigation options. For example, a general statement such as, “contact us for instructions on how to apply” would satisfy the requirement to inform the borrower how to obtain more information about loss mitigation options. However, to expedite the borrower's timely application for any loss mitigation options, servicers may provide more detailed instructions, such as by listing representative documents the borrower should make available to the servicer (such as tax filings or income statements), and an estimate of how quickly the servicer expects to evaluate a completed application and make a decision on loss mitigation options. Servicers may also supplement the written notice required by § 1024.39(b)(1) with a loss mitigation application form.
</P>
<P><I>39(c) Borrowers in bankruptcy.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrower's representative.</I> If the borrower is represented by a person authorized by the borrower to communicate with the servicer on the borrower's behalf, the servicer may provide the written notice required by § 1024.39(b), as modified by § 1024.39(c)(1)(iii), to the borrower's representative. <I>See</I> comment 39(a)-5. In general, bankruptcy counsel is the borrower's representative. A servicer's procedures for determining whether counsel is the borrower's representative are generally considered reasonable if they are limited to, for example, confirming that the attorney's name is listed on the borrower's bankruptcy petition or other court filing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adapting requirements in bankruptcy.</I> Section 1024.39(c) does not require a servicer to communicate with a borrower in a manner that would be inconsistent with applicable bankruptcy law or a court order in a bankruptcy case. If necessary to comply with such law or court order, a servicer may adapt the requirements of § 1024.39 as appropriate.
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<P><I>39(c)(1) Borrowers in bankruptcy—Partial exemption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Commencing a case.</I> Section 1024.39(c)(1) applies once a petition is filed under title 11 of the United States Code, commencing a case in which the borrower is a debtor in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Availability of loss mitigation options.</I> In part, § 1024.39(c)(1)(ii) exempts a servicer from the requirements of § 1024.39(b) if no loss mitigation option is available. A loss mitigation option is available if the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan offers an alternative to foreclosure that is made available through the servicer and for which a borrower may apply, even if the borrower ultimately does not qualify for such option.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fair Debt Collections Practices Act.</I> i. <I>Exemption.</I> To the extent the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) (15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I>) applies to a servicer's communications with a borrower in bankruptcy and any borrower on the mortgage loan has provided a notification pursuant to FDCPA section 805(c) notifying the servicer that the borrower refuses to pay a debt or that the borrower wishes the servicer to cease further communications, with regard to that mortgage loan, § 1024.39(c)(1)(ii) exempts a servicer from providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(b).
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<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> For example, assume that two spouses jointly own a home and are both primarily liable on the mortgage loan. Further assume that the servicer is subject to the FDCPA with respect to that mortgage loan. One spouse is a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code subject to § 1024.39(c). The other spouse provided the servicer a notification pursuant to FDCPA section 805(c). Section 1024.39(c)(1)(ii) exempts the servicer from providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(b) with respect to that mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(c)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint obligors.</I> When two or more borrowers are joint obligors with primary liability on a mortgage loan subject to § 1024.39, if any of the borrowers is a debtor in bankruptcy, a servicer may provide the written notice required by § 1024.39(b), as modified by § 1024.39(c)(1)(iii), to any borrower.
</P>
<P><I>39(c)(2) Resuming compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bankruptcy case revived.</I> If the borrower's bankruptcy case is revived, for example if the court reinstates a previously dismissed case or reopens the case, § 1024.39(c)(1) once again applies. However, § 1024.39(c)(1)(iii)(C) provides that a servicer is not required to provide the written notice more than once during a single bankruptcy case. For example, assume a borrower's bankruptcy case commences on June 1, the servicer provides the written notice on July 10 in compliance with § 1024.39(b) as modified by § 1024.39(c)(1)(iii), and the bankruptcy case is dismissed on August 1. If the court subsequently reopens or reinstates the borrower's bankruptcy case and the servicer does not provide a second written notice for that bankruptcy case, the servicer has complied with § 1024.39(b) and (c)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>39(d) Fair Debt Collection Practices Act—partial exemption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Availability of loss mitigation options.</I> In part, § 1024.39(d)(2) exempts a servicer from providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(b) if no loss mitigation option is available. A loss mitigation option is available if the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan offers an alternative to foreclosure that is made available through the servicer and for which a borrower may apply, even if the borrower ultimately does not qualify for such option.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Early intervention communications under the FDCPA.</I> To the extent the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) (15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I>) applies to a servicer's communications with a borrower, a servicer does not violate FDCPA section 805(c) by providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(b) as modified by § 1024.39(d)(3) after a borrower has provided a notification pursuant to FDCPA section 805(c) with respect to that borrower's loan. Nor does a servicer violate FDCPA section 805(c) by providing loss mitigation information or assistance in response to a borrower-initiated communication after the borrower has invoked the cease communication right under FDCPA section 805(c). A servicer subject to the FDCPA must continue to comply with all other applicable provisions of the FDCPA, including restrictions on communications and prohibitions on harassment or abuse, false or misleading representations, and unfair practices as contained in FDCPA sections 805 through 808 (15 U.S.C. 1692c through 1692f).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 39(d)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Borrowers in bankruptcy.</I> To the extent the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) (15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I>) applies to a servicer's communications with a borrower and the borrower has provided a notification pursuant to FDCPA section 805(c) notifying the servicer that the borrower refuses to pay a debt or that the borrower wishes the servicer to cease communications, with regard to that mortgage loan, § 1024.39(d)(2) exempts a servicer from providing the written notice required by § 1024.39(d) while any borrower on the mortgage loan is also a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code. For an example, see comment 39(c)(1)(ii)-2.ii.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.40—Continuity of Contact
</HD2>
<P><I>40(a) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Delinquent borrower.</I> A borrower is not considered delinquent if the borrower has refinanced the mortgage loan, paid off the mortgage loan, brought the mortgage loan current by paying all amounts owed in arrears, or if title to the borrower's property has been transferred to a new owner through, for example, a deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, a sale of the borrower's property, including, as applicable, a short sale, or a foreclosure sale. For purposes of responding to a borrower's inquiries and assisting a borrower with loss mitigation options, the term “borrower” includes a person authorized by the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf. A servicer may undertake reasonable procedures to determine if a person that claims to be an agent of a borrower has authority from the borrower to act on the borrower's behalf, for example by requiring that a person who claims to be an agent of the borrower provide documentation from the borrower stating that the purported agent is acting on the borrower's behalf.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assignment of personnel.</I> A servicer has discretion to determine whether to assign a single person or a team of personnel to respond to a delinquent borrower. The personnel a servicer assigns to the borrower as described in § 1024.40(a)(1) may be single-purpose or multi-purpose personnel. Single-purpose personnel are personnel whose primary responsibility is to respond to a delinquent borrower's inquiries, and as applicable, assist the borrower with available loss mitigation options. Multi-purpose personnel can be personnel that do not have a primary responsibility at all, or personnel for whom responding to a delinquent borrower's inquiries, and as applicable, assisting the borrower with available loss mitigation options is not the personnel's primary responsibility. If the delinquent borrower files for bankruptcy, a servicer may assign personnel with specialized knowledge in bankruptcy law to assist the borrower.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Delinquency.</I> See § 1024.31 for the definition of delinquency applicable to subpart C of Regulation X.
</P>
<HD2>§ 1024.41—Loss Mitigation Procedures


</HD2>
<P><I>41(b) Receipt of a loss mitigation application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Successors in interest.</I> i. If a servicer receives a loss mitigation application from a potential successor in interest before confirming that person's identity and ownership interest in the property, the servicer may, but need not, review and evaluate the loss mitigation application in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1024.41. If a servicer complies with the requirements of § 1024.41 for a complete loss mitigation application submitted by a potential successor in interest before confirming that person's identity and ownership interest in the property, § 1024.41(i)'s limitation on duplicative requests applies to that person, provided the servicer's evaluation of loss mitigation options available to the person would not have resulted in a different determination due to the person's confirmation as a successor in interest if it had been conducted after the servicer confirmed the person's status as a successor in interest.
</P>
<P>ii. If a servicer receives a loss mitigation application from a potential successor in interest and elects not to review and evaluate the loss mitigation application before confirming that person's identity and ownership interest in the property, the servicer must preserve the loss mitigation application and all documents submitted in connection with the application, and, upon such confirmation, the servicer must review and evaluate the loss mitigation application in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1024.41 if the property is the confirmed successor in interest's principal residence and the procedures set forth in § 1024.41 are otherwise applicable. For purposes of § 1024.41, the servicer must treat the loss mitigation application as if it had been received on the date that the servicer confirmed the successor in interest's status. If the loss mitigation application is incomplete at the time of confirmation because documents submitted by the successor in interest became stale or invalid after they were submitted and confirmation is 45 days or more before a foreclosure sale, the servicer must identify the stale or invalid documents that need to be updated in a notice pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2).


</P>
<P><I>41(b)(1) Complete loss mitigation application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A servicer has flexibility to establish its own application requirements and to decide the type and amount of information it will require from borrowers applying for loss mitigation options. In the course of gathering documents and information from a borrower to complete a loss mitigation application, a servicer may stop collecting documents and information for a particular loss mitigation option after receiving information confirming that, pursuant to any requirements established by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan, the borrower is ineligible for that option. A servicer may not stop collecting documents and information for any loss mitigation option based solely upon the borrower's stated preference but may stop collecting documents and information for any loss mitigation option based on the borrower's stated preference in conjunction with other information, as prescribed by any requirements established by the owner or assignee. A servicer must continue to exercise reasonable diligence to obtain documents and information from the borrower that the servicer requires to evaluate the borrower as to all other loss mitigation options available to the borrower. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a particular loss mitigation option is only available for borrowers whose mortgage loans were originated before a specific date. Once a servicer receives documents or information confirming that a mortgage loan was originated after that date, the servicer may stop collecting documents or information from the borrower that the servicer would use to evaluate the borrower for that loss mitigation option, but the servicer must continue its efforts to obtain documents and information from the borrower that the servicer requires to evaluate the borrower for all other available loss mitigation options.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume applicable requirements established by the owner or assignee of the mortgage loan provide that a borrower is ineligible for home retention loss mitigation options if the borrower states a preference for a short sale and provides evidence of another applicable hardship, such as military Permanent Change of Station orders or an employment transfer more than 50 miles away. If the borrower indicates a preference for a short sale or, more generally, not to retain the property, the servicer may not stop collecting documents and information from the borrower pertaining to available home retention options solely because the borrower has indicated such a preference, but the servicer may stop collecting such documents and information once the servicer receives information confirming that the borrower has an applicable hardship under requirements established by the owner or assignee, such as military Permanent Change of Station orders or employment transfer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>When an inquiry or prequalification request becomes an application.</I> A servicer is encouraged to provide borrowers with information about loss mitigation programs. If in giving information to the borrower, the borrower expresses an interest in applying for a loss mitigation option and provides information the servicer would evaluate in connection with a loss mitigation application, the borrower's inquiry or prequalification request has become a loss mitigation application. A loss mitigation application is considered expansively and includes any “prequalification” for a loss mitigation option. For example, if a borrower requests that a servicer determine if the borrower is “prequalified” for a loss mitigation program by evaluating the borrower against preliminary criteria to determine eligibility for a loss mitigation option, the request constitutes a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of inquiries that are not applications.</I> The following examples illustrate situations in which only an inquiry has taken place and no loss mitigation application has been submitted:
</P>
<P>i. A borrower calls to ask about loss mitigation options and servicer personnel explain the loss mitigation options available to the borrower and the criteria for determining the borrower's eligibility for any such loss mitigation option. The borrower does not, however, provide any information that a servicer would consider for evaluating a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>ii. A borrower calls to ask about the process for applying for a loss mitigation option but the borrower does not provide any information that a servicer would consider for evaluating a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>4. Although a servicer has flexibility to establish its own requirements regarding the documents and information necessary for a loss mitigation application, the servicer must act with reasonable diligence to collect information needed to complete the application. A servicer must request information necessary to make a loss mitigation application complete promptly after receiving the loss mitigation application. Reasonable diligence for purposes of § 1024.41(b)(1) includes, without limitation, the following actions:
</P>
<P>i. A servicer requires additional information from the applicant, such as an address or a telephone number to verify employment; the servicer contacts the applicant promptly to obtain such information after receiving a loss mitigation application;
</P>
<P>ii. Servicing for a mortgage loan is transferred to a servicer and the borrower makes an incomplete loss mitigation application to the transferee servicer after the transfer; the transferee servicer reviews documents provided by the transferor servicer to determine if information required to make the loss mitigation application complete is contained within documents transferred by the transferor servicer to the servicer; and
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<P>iii. A servicer offers a borrower a short-term payment forbearance program or a short-term repayment plan based on an evaluation of an incomplete loss mitigation application and provides the borrower the written notice pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii). If the borrower remains in compliance with the short-term payment forbearance program or short-term repayment plan, and the borrower does not request further assistance, the servicer may suspend reasonable diligence efforts until near the end of the payment forbearance program or repayment plan. However, if the borrower fails to comply with the program or plan or requests further assistance, the servicer must immediately resume reasonable diligence efforts. Near the end of a short-term payment forbearance program offered based on an evaluation of an incomplete loss mitigation application pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii), and prior to the end of the forbearance period, if the borrower remains delinquent, a servicer must contact the borrower to determine if the borrower wishes to complete the loss mitigation application and proceed with a full loss mitigation evaluation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Information not in the borrower's control.</I> A loss mitigation application is complete when a borrower provides all information required from the borrower notwithstanding that additional information may be required by a servicer that is not in the control of a borrower. For example, if a servicer requires a consumer report for a loss mitigation evaluation, a loss mitigation application is considered complete if a borrower has submitted all information required from the borrower without regard to whether a servicer has obtained a consumer report that a servicer has requested from a consumer reporting agency.






</P>
<P><I>41(b)(2)Review of loss mitigation application submission.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(b)(2)(i) Requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Foreclosure sale not scheduled.</I> For purposes of § 1024.41(b)(2)(i), if no foreclosure sale has been scheduled as of the date a servicer receives a loss mitigation application, the servicer must treat the application as having been received 45 days or more before any foreclosure sale.
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<P><I>Paragraph 41(b)(2)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Later discovery of additional information required to evaluate application.</I> Even if a servicer has informed a borrower that an application is complete (or notified the borrower of specific information necessary to complete an incomplete application), if the servicer determines, in the course of evaluating the loss mitigation application submitted by the borrower, that additional information or a corrected version of a previously submitted document is required, the servicer must promptly request the additional information or corrected document from the borrower pursuant to the reasonable diligence obligation in § 1024.41(b)(1). See § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) addressing facially complete applications.
</P>
<P><I>41(b)(2)(ii) Time period disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Thirty days is generally reasonable.</I> In general and subject to the restrictions described in comments 41(b)(2)(ii)-2 and -3, a servicer complies with the requirement to include a reasonable date in the written notice required under § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B) by including a date that is 30 days after the date the servicer provides the written notice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No later than the next milestone.</I> For purposes of § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii), subject to the restriction described in comment 41(b)(2)(ii)-3, the reasonable date must be no later than the earliest of:
</P>
<P>i. The date by which any document or information submitted by a borrower will be considered stale or invalid pursuant to any requirements applicable to any loss mitigation option available to the borrower;
</P>
<P>ii. The date that is the 120th day of the borrower's delinquency;
</P>
<P>iii. The date that is 90 days before a foreclosure sale;
</P>
<P>iv. The date that is 38 days before a foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Seven-day minimum.</I> A reasonable date for purposes of § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii) must never be less than seven days from the date on which the servicer provides the written notice pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P><I>41(b)(3) Determining Protections.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Foreclosure sale not scheduled.</I> If no foreclosure sale has been scheduled as of the date that a complete loss mitigation application is received, the application is considered to have been received more than 90 days before any foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreclosure sale re-scheduled.</I> The protections under § 1024.41 that have been determined to apply to a borrower pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(3) remain in effect thereafter, even if a foreclosure sale is later scheduled or rescheduled.
</P>
<P><I>41(c) Evaluation of loss mitigation applications.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(1) Complete loss mitigation application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition of “evaluation.”</I> The conduct of a servicer's evaluation with respect to any loss mitigation option is in the sole discretion of a servicer. A servicer meets the requirements of § 1024.41(c)(1)(i) if the servicer makes a determination regarding the borrower's eligibility for a loss mitigation program. Consistent with § 1024.41(a), because nothing in section 1024.41 should be construed to permit a borrower to enforce the terms of any agreement between a servicer and the owner or assignee of a mortgage loan, including with respect to the evaluation for, or provision of, any loss mitigation option, § 1024.41(c)(1) does not require that an evaluation meet any standard other than the discretion of the servicer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loss mitigation options available to a borrower.</I> The loss mitigation options available to a borrower are those options offered by an owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan. Loss mitigation options administered by a servicer for an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan other than the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan are not available to the borrower solely because such options are administered by the servicer. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A servicer services mortgage loans for two different owners or assignees of mortgage loans. Those entities each have different loss mitigation programs. loss mitigation options not offered by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan are not available to the borrower; or
</P>
<P>ii. The owner or assignee of a borrower's mortgage loan has established pilot programs, temporary programs, or programs that are limited by the number of participating borrowers. Such loss mitigation options are available to a borrower. However, a servicer evaluates whether a borrower is eligible for any such program consistent with criteria established by an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan. For example, if an owner or assignee has limited a pilot program to a certain geographic area or to a limited number of participants, and the servicer determines that a borrower is not eligible based on any such requirement, the servicer shall inform the borrower that the investor requirement for the program is the basis for the denial.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Offer of a non-home retention option.</I> A servicer's offer of a non-home retention option may be conditional upon receipt of further information not in the borrower's possession and necessary to establish the parameters of a servicer's offer. For example, a servicer complies with the requirement for evaluating the borrower for a short sale option if the servicer offers the borrower the opportunity to enter into a listing or marketing period agreement but indicates that specifics of an acceptable short sale transaction may be subject to further information obtained from an appraisal or title search.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other notices.</I> A servicer may combine other notices required by applicable law, including, without limitation, a notice with respect to an adverse action required by Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, or a notice required pursuant to the Fair Credit Reporting Act, with the notice required pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(1), unless otherwise prohibited by applicable law.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(2) Incomplete loss mitigation application evaluation.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(2)(i) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Offer of a loss mitigation option without an evaluation of a loss mitigation application.</I> Nothing in § 1024.41(c)(2)(i) prohibits a servicer from offering loss mitigation options to a borrower who has not submitted a loss mitigation application. Further, nothing in § 1024.41(c)(2)(i) prohibits a servicer from offering a loss mitigation option to a borrower who has submitted an incomplete loss mitigation application where the offer of the loss mitigation option is not based on any evaluation of information submitted by the borrower in connection with such loss mitigation application. For example, if a servicer offers trial loan modification programs to all borrowers who become 150 days delinquent without an application or consideration of any information provided by a borrower in connection with a loss mitigation application, the servicer's offer of any such program does not violate § 1024.41(c)(2)(i), and a servicer is not required to comply with § 1024.41 with respect to any such program, because the offer of the loss mitigation option is not based on an evaluation of a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P><I>2. Servicer discretion.</I> Although a review of a borrower's incomplete loss mitigation application is within a servicer's discretion, and is not required by § 1024.41, a servicer may be required separately, in accordance with policies and procedures maintained pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(2)(v), to properly evaluate a borrower who submits an application for a loss mitigation option for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower pursuant to any requirements established by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan. Such evaluation may be subject to requirements applicable to loss mitigation applications otherwise considered incomplete pursuant to § 1024.41.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(2)(ii) Reasonable time.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Significant period of time.</I> A significant period of time under the circumstances may include consideration of the timing of the foreclosure process. For example, if a borrower is less than 50 days before a foreclosure sale, an application remaining incomplete for 15 days may be a more significant period of time under the circumstances than if the borrower is still less than 120 days delinquent on a mortgage loan obligation.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(2)(iii) Short-term loss mitigation options.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Short-term payment forbearance program.</I> The exemption in § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) applies to, among other things, short-term payment forbearance programs. For purposes of § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii), a payment forbearance program is a loss mitigation option pursuant to which a servicer allows a borrower to forgo making certain payments or portions of payments for a period of time. A short-term payment forbearance program for purposes of § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) allows the forbearance of payments due over periods of no more than six months. Such a program would be short-term regardless of the amount of time a servicer allows the borrower to make up the missing payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Short-term loss mitigation options and incomplete applications.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) allows a servicer to offer a borrower a short-term payment forbearance program or a short-term repayment plan based on an evaluation of an incomplete loss mitigation application. The servicer must still comply with the other requirements of § 1024.41 with respect to the incomplete loss mitigation application, including the requirement in § 1024.41(b)(2) to review the application to determine if it is complete, the requirement in § 1024.41(b)(1) to exercise reasonable diligence in obtaining documents and information to complete a loss mitigation application (<I>see</I> comment 41(b)(1)-4.iii), and the requirement in § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B) to provide the borrower with written notice that the servicer acknowledges the receipt of the application and has determined that the application is incomplete.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short-term loss mitigation options and complete applications.</I> Even if a servicer offers a borrower a short-term payment forbearance program or a short-term repayment plan based on an evaluation of an incomplete loss mitigation application, the servicer must still comply with all applicable requirements in § 1024.41 if the borrower completes a loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Short-term repayment plan.</I> The exemption in § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) applies to, among other things, short-term repayment plans. For purposes of § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii), a repayment plan is a loss mitigation option with terms under which a borrower would repay all past due payments over a specified period of time to bring the mortgage loan account current. A short-term repayment plan for purposes of § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) allows for the repayment of no more than three months of past due payments and allows a borrower to repay the arrearage over a period lasting no more than six months.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Specific payment terms and duration.</I> i. <I>General requirement.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) requires a servicer to provide the borrower a written notice stating, among other things, the specific payment terms and duration of a short-term payment forbearance program or a short-term repayment plan offered based on an evaluation of an incomplete application. Generally, a servicer complies with these requirements if the written notice states the amount of each payment due during the program or plan, the date by which the borrower must make each payment, and whether the mortgage loan will be current at the end of the program or plan if the borrower complies with the program or plan.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Disclosure of payment amounts that may change.</I> At the time a servicer provides the written notice pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii), if the servicer lacks information necessary to determine the amount of a specific payment due during the program or plan (for example, because the borrower's interest rate will change to an unknown rate based on an index or because an escrow account computation year as defined in § 1024.17(b) will end and the borrower's escrow payment might change), the servicer complies with the requirement to disclose the specific payment terms and duration of a short-term payment forbearance program or short-term repayment plan if the disclosures are based on the best information reasonably available to the servicer at the time the notice is provided and the written notice identifies which payment amounts may change, states that such payment amounts are estimates, and states the general reason that such payment amounts might change. For example, if an escrow account computation year as defined in § 1024.17(b) will end during a borrower's short-term repayment plan, the written notice complies with § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) if it identifies the payment amounts that may change, states that those payment amounts are estimates, and states that the affected payments might change because the borrower's escrow payment might change.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Timing of notice.</I> Generally, a servicer acts promptly to provide the written notice required by § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii) if the servicer provides such written notice no later than five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, and Sundays) after offering the borrower a short-term payment forbearance program or short-term repayment plan. A servicer may provide the written notice at the same time the servicer offers the borrower the program or plan. A written offer that contains all the required elements of the written notice also satisfies § 1024.41(c)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(2)(iv) Facially complete application.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable opportunity.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) requires a servicer to treat a facially complete application as complete for the purposes of paragraphs (f)(2) and (g) until the borrower has been given a reasonable opportunity to complete the application. A reasonable opportunity requires the servicer to notify the borrower of what additional information or corrected documents are required, and to afford the borrower sufficient time to gather the information and documentation necessary to complete the application and submit it to the servicer. The amount of time that is sufficient for this purpose will depend on the facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Borrower fails to complete the application.</I> If the borrower fails to complete the application within the timeframe provided under § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv), the application shall be considered incomplete.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(3) Notice of complete application.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(c)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Completion date.</I> A servicer complies with § 1024.41(c)(3)(i)(B) by disclosing on the notice the most recent date the servicer received the complete loss mitigation application. For example, assume that a borrower first submits a complete loss mitigation application on March 1. The servicer must disclose March 1 as the date the servicer received the application under § 1024.41(c)(3)(i)(B). Assume the servicer discovers on March 10 that it requires additional information or corrected documents to complete the application and promptly requests such additional information or documents from the borrower pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv). If the borrower subsequently completes the application on March 21, the servicer must provide another notice in accordance with § 1024.41(c)(3)(i) and disclose March 21 as the date the servicer received the complete application. <I>See</I> comment 41(c)(3)(i)-3.
</P>
<P>2. <I>First notice or filing.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(3)(i)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) sets forth different requirements depending on whether the servicer has made the first notice or filing under applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process at the time the borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application. See comment 41(f)-1 for a description of whether a document is considered the first notice or filing under applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional notices.</I> Except as provided in § 1024.41(c)(3)(ii), § 1024.41(c)(3)(i) requires a servicer to provide a written notice every time a loss mitigation application becomes complete. For example, assume that a borrower first submits a complete loss mitigation application on March 1, and the servicer provides the notice under § 1024.41(c)(3)(i). Assume the servicer discovers on March 10 that it requires additional information or corrected documents regarding a source of income that the borrower previously identified. The servicer must promptly request such additional information or documents from the borrower pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv). If the borrower subsequently completes the application on March 21, the servicer must provide another notice in accordance with § 1024.41(c)(3)(i), unless an exception applies under § 1024.41(c)(3)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 41(c)(3)(i)-1.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(4) Information not in the borrower's control.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(4)(i) Diligence requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>During the first 30 days following receipt of a complete loss mitigation application.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(4)(i) requires a servicer to act with reasonable diligence to obtain documents or information not in the borrower's control, which includes information in the servicer's control, that the servicer requires to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower. At a minimum and without limitation, a servicer must request such documents or information from the appropriate party:
</P>
<P>i. Promptly upon determining that the servicer requires the documents or information to determine which loss mitigation options, if any, the servicer will offer the borrower; and
</P>
<P>ii. By a date that will enable the servicer to complete the evaluation within 30 days of receiving the complete loss mitigation application, as set forth in § 1024.41(c)(1), to the extent practicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>More than 30 days following receipt of a complete loss mitigation application.</I> If a servicer has not, within 30 days of receiving a complete loss mitigation application, received the required documents or information from a party other than the borrower or the servicer, the servicer acts with reasonable diligence pursuant to § 1024.41(c)(4)(i) by heightening efforts to obtain the documents or information promptly, to minimize delay in making a determination of which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower. Such heightened efforts include, for example, promptly verifying that it has contacted the appropriate party and determining whether it should obtain the required documents or information from a different party.
</P>
<P><I>41(c)(4)(ii) Effect in case of delay.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Third-party delay.</I> Notwithstanding delay in receiving required documents or information from any party other than the borrower or the servicer, § 1024.41(c)(1)(i) requires a servicer to complete all possible steps in the process of evaluating a complete loss mitigation application within 30 days of receiving the complete loss mitigation application. Such steps may include requirements imposed on the servicer by third parties, such as mortgage insurance companies, guarantors, owners, or assignees. For example, if a servicer can determine a borrower's eligibility for all available loss mitigation options based on an evaluation of the borrower's complete loss mitigation application subject only to approval from the mortgage insurance company, § 1024.41(c)(1)(i) requires the servicer to do so within 30 days of receiving the complete loss mitigation application notwithstanding the need to obtain such approval before offering the borrower any loss mitigation options.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Offers not prohibited.</I> Section 1024.41(c)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) permits a servicer to deny a complete loss mitigation application (in accordance with applicable investor requirements) if, after exercising reasonable diligence to obtain the required documents or information from a party other than the borrower or the servicer, the servicer has been unable to obtain such documents or information for a significant period of time and the servicer cannot complete its determination without the required documents or information. Section 1024.41(c)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not require a servicer to deny a complete loss mitigation application and permits a servicer to offer a borrower a loss mitigation option, even if the servicer does not obtain the requested documents or information.
</P>
<P><I>41(d) Denial of loan modification options.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Investor requirements.</I> If a trial or permanent loan modification option is denied because of a requirement of an owner or assignee of a mortgage loan, the specific reasons in the notice provided to the borrower must identify the owner or assignee of the mortgage loan and the requirement that is the basis of the denial. A statement that the denial of a loan modification option is based on an investor requirement, without additional information specifically identifying the relevant investor or guarantor and the specific applicable requirement, is insufficient. However, where an owner or assignee has established an evaluation criteria that sets an order ranking for evaluation of loan modification options (commonly known as a waterfall) and a borrower has qualified for a particular loan modification option in the ranking established by the owner or assignee, it is sufficient for the servicer to inform the borrower, with respect to other loan modification options ranked below any such option offered to a borrower, that the investor's requirements include the use of such a ranking and that an offer of a loan modification option necessarily results in a denial for any other loan modification options below the option for which the borrower is eligible in the ranking.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Net present value calculation.</I> If a trial or permanent loan modification is denied because of a net present value calculation, the specific reasons in the notice provided to the borrower must include the inputs used in the net present value calculation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination not to offer a loan modification option constitutes a denial.</I> A servicer's determination not to offer a borrower a loan modification available to the borrower constitutes a denial of the borrower for that loan modification option, notwithstanding whether a servicer offers a borrower a different loan modification option or other loss mitigation option.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reasons listed.</I> A servicer is required to disclose the actual reason or reasons for the denial. If a servicer's systems establish a hierarchy of eligibility criteria and reach the first criterion that causes a denial but do not evaluate the borrower based on additional criteria, a servicer complies with the rule by providing only the reason or reasons with respect to which the borrower was actually evaluated and rejected as well as notification that the borrower was not evaluated on other criteria. A servicer is not required to determine or disclose whether a borrower would have been denied on the basis of additional criteria if such criteria were not actually considered.
</P>
<P><I>41(f) Prohibition on foreclosure referral.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited activities.</I> Section 1024.41(f) prohibits a servicer from making the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process under certain circumstances. Whether a document is considered the first notice or filing is determined on the basis of foreclosure procedure under the applicable State law.
</P>
<P>i. Where foreclosure procedure requires a court action or proceeding, a document is considered the first notice or filing if it is the earliest document required to be filed with a court or other judicial body to commence the action or proceeding (e.g., a complaint, petition, order to docket, or notice of hearing).
</P>
<P>ii. Where foreclosure procedure does not require an action or court proceeding, such as under a power of sale, a document is considered the first notice or filing if it is the earliest document required to be recorded or published to initiate the foreclosure process.
</P>
<P>iii. Where foreclosure procedure does not require any court filing or proceeding, and also does not require any document to be recorded or published, a document is considered the first notice or filing if it is the earliest document that establishes, sets, or schedules a date for the foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P>iv. A document provided to the borrower but not initially required to be filed, recorded, or published is not considered the first notice or filing on the sole basis that the document must later be included as an attachment accompanying another document that is required to be filed, recorded, or published to carry out a foreclosure.




</P>
<P><I>41(g) Prohibition on foreclosure sale.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Dispositive motion.</I> The prohibition on a servicer moving for judgment or order of sale includes making a dispositive motion for foreclosure judgment, such as a motion for default judgment, judgment on the pleadings, or summary judgment, which may directly result in a judgment of foreclosure or order of sale. A servicer that has made any such motion before receiving a complete loss mitigation application has not moved for a foreclosure judgment or order of sale if the servicer takes reasonable steps to avoid a ruling on such motion or issuance of such order prior to completing the procedures required by § 1024.41, notwithstanding whether any such action successfully avoids a ruling on a dispositive motion or issuance of an order of sale.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Proceeding with the foreclosure process.</I> Nothing in § 1024.41(g) prevents a servicer from proceeding with the foreclosure process, including any publication, arbitration, or mediation requirements established by applicable law, when the first notice or filing for a foreclosure proceeding occurred before a servicer receives a complete loss mitigation application so long as any such steps in the foreclosure process do not cause or directly result in the issuance of a foreclosure judgment or order of sale, or the conduct of a foreclosure sale, in violation of § 1024.41.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interaction with foreclosure counsel.</I> The prohibitions in § 1024.41(g) against moving for judgment or order of sale or conducting a sale may require a servicer to act through foreclosure counsel retained by the servicer in a foreclosure proceeding. If a servicer has received a complete loss mitigation application, the servicer must instruct counsel promptly not to make a dispositive motion for foreclosure judgment or order of sale; where such a dispositive motion is pending, to avoid a ruling on the motion or issuance of an order of sale; and, where a sale is scheduled, to prevent conduct of a foreclosure sale, unless one of the conditions in § 1024.41(g)(1) through (3) is met. A servicer is not relieved of its obligations because foreclosure counsel's actions or inaction caused a violation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Loss mitigation applications submitted 37 days or less before foreclosure sale.</I> Although a servicer is not required to comply with the requirements in § 1024.41 with respect to a loss mitigation application submitted 37 days or less before a foreclosure sale, a servicer is required separately, in accordance with policies and procedures maintained pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(2)(v) to properly evaluate a borrower who submits an application for a loss mitigation option for all loss mitigation options available to the borrower pursuant to any requirements established by the owner or assignee of the borrower's mortgage loan. Such evaluation may be subject to requirements applicable to a review of a loss mitigation application submitted by a borrower 37 days or less before a foreclosure sale.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Conducting a sale prohibited.</I> Section 1024.41(g) prohibits a servicer from conducting a foreclosure sale, even if a person other than the servicer administers or conducts the foreclosure sale proceedings. Where a foreclosure sale is scheduled, and none of the conditions under § 1024.41(g)(1) through (3) are applicable, conduct of the sale violates § 1024.41(g).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(g)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Short sale listing period.</I> An agreement for a short sale transaction, or other similar loss mitigation option, typically includes marketing or listing periods during which a servicer will allow a borrower to market a short sale transaction. A borrower is deemed to be performing under an agreement on a short sale, or other similar loss mitigation option, during the term of a marketing or listing period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Short sale agreement.</I> If a borrower has not obtained an approved short sale transaction at the end of any marketing or listing period, a servicer may determine that a borrower has failed to perform under an agreement on a loss mitigation option. An approved short sale transaction is a short sale transaction that has been approved by all relevant parties, including the servicer, other affected lienholders, or insurers, if applicable, and the servicer has received proof of funds or financing, unless circumstances otherwise indicate that an approved short sale transaction is not likely to occur.
</P>
<P><I>41(h) Appeal process.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(h)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Supervisory personnel.</I> The appeal may be evaluated by supervisory personnel that are responsible for oversight of the personnel that conducted the initial evaluation, as long as the supervisory personnel were not directly involved in the initial evaluation of the borrower's complete loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P><I>41(i) Duplicative requests.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of loss mitigation protections.</I> Under § 1024.41(i), a servicer must comply with § 1024.41 with respect to a loss mitigation application unless the servicer has previously done so for a complete loss mitigation application submitted by the borrower and the borrower has been delinquent at all times since submitting the prior complete application. Thus, for example, if the borrower has previously submitted a complete loss mitigation application and the servicer complied fully with § 1024.41 for that application, but the borrower then ceased to be delinquent and later became delinquent again, the servicer again must comply with § 1024.41 for any subsequent loss mitigation application submitted by the borrower. When a servicer is required to comply with the requirements of § 1024.41 for such a subsequent loss mitigation application, the servicer must comply with all applicable requirements of § 1024.41. For example, in such a case, the servicer's provision of the notice of determination of which loss mitigation options, if any, it will offer to the borrower under § 1024.41(c)(1)(ii) regarding the borrower's prior complete loss mitigation application does not affect the servicer's obligations to provide a new notice of complete application under § 1024.41(c)(3)(i) regarding the borrower's subsequent complete loss mitigation application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Servicing transfers.</I> Section 1024.41(i) provides that a servicer need not comply with § 1024.41 for a subsequent loss mitigation application from a borrower where certain conditions are met. A transferee servicer and a transferor servicer, however, are not the same servicer. Accordingly, a transferee servicer is required to comply with the applicable requirements of § 1024.41 upon receipt of a loss mitigation application from a borrower whose servicing the transferee servicer has obtained through a servicing transfer, even if the borrower previously received an evaluation of a complete loss mitigation application from the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P><I>41(k) Servicing transfers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pending loss mitigation application.</I> For purposes of § 1024.41(k), a loss mitigation application is pending if it was subject to § 1024.41 and had not been fully resolved before the transfer date. For example, a loss mitigation application would not be considered pending if a transferor servicer had denied a borrower for all options and the borrower's time for making an appeal, if any, had expired prior to the transfer date, such that the transferor servicer had no continuing obligations under § 1024.41 with respect to the application. A pending application is considered a pending complete application if it was complete as of the transfer date under the transferor servicer's criteria for evaluating loss mitigation applications.
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(1) In general.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(1)(i) Timing of compliance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Obtaining loss mitigation documents and information.</I> i. In connection with a transfer, a transferor servicer must timely transfer, and a transferee servicer must obtain from the transferor servicer, documents and information submitted by a borrower in connection with a loss mitigation application, consistent with policies and procedures adopted pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(4). A transferee servicer must comply with the applicable requirements of § 1024.41 with respect to a loss mitigation application received as a result of a transfer, even if the transferor servicer was not required to comply with § 1024.41 with respect to that application (for example, because § 1024.41(i) precluded applicability of § 1024.41 with respect to the transferor servicer). If an application was not subject to § 1024.41 prior to a transfer, then for purposes of § 1024.41(b) and (c), a transferee servicer is considered to have received the loss mitigation application on the transfer date. Any such application is subject to the timeframes for compliance set forth in § 1024.41(k).
</P>
<P>ii. A transferee servicer must, in accordance with § 1024.41(b)(1), exercise reasonable diligence to complete a loss mitigation application, including a facially complete application, received as a result of a transfer. In the transfer context, reasonable diligence includes ensuring that a borrower is informed of any changes to the application process, such as a change in the address to which the borrower should submit documents and information to complete the application, as well as ensuring that the borrower is informed about which documents and information are necessary to complete the application.
</P>
<P>iii. A borrower may provide documents and information necessary to complete an application to a transferor servicer after the transfer date. Consistent with policies and procedures maintained pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(4), the transferor servicer must timely transfer, and the transferee servicer must obtain, such documents and information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Determination of rights and protections.</I> For purposes of § 1024.41(c) through (h), a transferee servicer must consider documents and information that constitute a complete loss mitigation application for the transferee servicer to have been received as of the date such documents and information were received by the transferor servicer, even if such documents and information were received by the transferor servicer after the transfer date. <I>See</I> comment 41(k)(1)(i)-1.iii. An application that was facially complete under § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) with respect to the transferor servicer remains facially complete under § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) with respect to the transferee servicer as of the date it was facially complete with respect to the transferor servicer. If an application was complete with respect to the transferor servicer, but is not complete with respect to the transferee servicer, the transferee servicer must treat the application as facially complete under § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) as of the date the application was complete with respect to the transferor servicer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Duplicative notices not required.</I> A transferee servicer is not required to provide notices under § 1024.41 with respect to a particular loss mitigation application that the transferor servicer provided prior to the transfer. For example, if the transferor servicer provided the notice required by § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B) prior to the transfer, the transferee servicer is not required to provide the notice again for that application.
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(1)(ii) Transfer date defined.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transfer date.</I> Section 1024.41(k)(1)(ii) provides that the transfer date is the date on which the transferee servicer will begin accepting payments relating to the mortgage loan, as disclosed on the notice of transfer of loan servicing pursuant to § 1024.33(b)(4)(iv). The transfer date is the same date as that on which the transfer of the servicing responsibilities from the transferor servicer to the transferee servicer occurs. The transfer date is not necessarily the same date as either the effective date of the transfer of servicing as disclosed on the notice of transfer of loan servicing pursuant to § 1024.33(b)(4)(i) or the sale date identified in a servicing transfer agreement.
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(2) Acknowledgment notices.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(2)(ii) Prohibitions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of prohibitions.</I> Section 1024.41(k)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) adjusts the timeframes for certain borrower rights and foreclosure protections where § 1024.41(k)(2)(i) applies. These provisions are illustrated as follows: Assume a transferor servicer receives a borrower's initial loss mitigation application on October 1, and the loan is transferred five days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, or Sundays) later, on October 8. Assume that Columbus Day, a legal public holiday, occurs on October 14, and the transferee servicer provides the notice required by § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B) 10 days (excluding legal public holidays, Saturdays, or Sundays) after the transfer date, on October 23. Assume the transferee servicer discloses a 30-day reasonable date, November 22, under § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>i. If the transferor servicer receives the borrower's initial loss mitigation application when the borrower's mortgage loan is 101 days delinquent, the borrower's mortgage loan would be 123 days delinquent on October 23, the date the transferee servicer provides the notice required by § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B). Pursuant to § 1024.41(k)(2)(ii)(A), the transferee servicer cannot make the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process until after November 22, the reasonable date disclosed under § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii), and then only if the borrower has not submitted a complete application by that date.
</P>
<P>ii. If the transferor servicer receives the borrower's initial loss mitigation application 55 days before the foreclosure sale, the date that the transferee servicer provides the notice required by § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B), October 23, is 33 days before the foreclosure sale. Pursuant to § 1024.41(k)(2)(ii)(B), the transferee servicer must comply with § 1024.41(c), (d), and (g) if the borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application on or before November 22, the reasonable date disclosed under § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability of loss mitigation provisions.</I> Section 1024.41(k)(2)(ii)(A) prohibits a servicer from making the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process until a date that is after the reasonable date disclosed to the borrower pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii), notwithstanding § 1024.41(f)(1). Section 1024.41(k)(2)(ii)(B) requires a servicer to comply with § 1024.41(c), (d), and (g) if a borrower submits a complete loss mitigation application on or before the reasonable date disclosed in the notice required by § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B), even if the servicer would otherwise not be required to comply with § 1024.41(c), (d), and (g) because the application is submitted 37 days or fewer before a foreclosure sale. Section 1024.41(k)(2)(ii) provides additional protections for borrowers but does not remove any protections. Servicers remain subject to the requirements of § 1024.41 as applicable and so, for example, must comply with § 1024.41(h) if the servicer receives a complete loss mitigation application 90 days or more before a foreclosure sale. Similarly, a servicer is prohibited from making the first notice or filing before the borrower's mortgage loan obligation is more than 120 days delinquent, even if that is after the reasonable date disclosed to the borrower pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reasonable date when no milestones remain.</I> Generally, a servicer does not provide the notice required under § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B) after the date that is 38 days before a foreclosure sale, so at least one milestone specified in comment 41(b)(ii)-1 always remains applicable. When § 1024.41(k)(2)(i) applies, however, the transferee servicer may sometimes provide the notice after the date that is 38 days before a foreclosure sale. When this occurs, the transferee servicer must determine the reasonable date when none of the four specified milestones remain. The other requirements of § 1024.41(b)(2)(ii) continue to apply. In this circumstance, a reasonable date may occur less than 30 days, but not less than seven days, after the date the transferee servicer provides the written notice pursuant to § 1024.41(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(3) Complete loss mitigation applications pending at transfer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional information or corrections to a previously submitted document.</I> If a transferee servicer acquires the servicing of a mortgage loan for which a complete loss mitigation application is pending as of the transfer date and the transferee servicer determines that additional information or a correction to a previously submitted document is required based upon its criteria for evaluating loss mitigation applications, the application is considered facially complete under § 1024.41(c)(2)(iv) as of the date it was first facially complete or complete, as applicable, with respect to the transferor servicer. Once the transferee servicer receives the information or corrections necessary to complete the application, § 1024.41(c)(3) requires the transferee servicer to provide a notice of complete application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applications first complete upon transfer.</I> If the borrower's loss mitigation application was incomplete based on the transferor servicer's criteria prior to transfer but is complete based upon the transferee servicer's criteria, the application is considered a pending loss mitigation application complete as of the transfer date for purposes of § 1024.41(k)(3). Consequently, the transferee servicer must comply with the applicable requirements of § 1024.41(c)(1) and (4) within 30 days of the transfer date. For purposes of § 1024.41(c) through (h), the application is complete as of the date the transferor servicer received the documents and information constituting the complete application. <I>See</I> comment 41(k)(1)(i)-2. In such circumstances, § 1024.41(c)(3) requires the transferee servicer to provide a notice of complete application that discloses the date the transferor servicer received the documents and information constituting the complete application.
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(4) Applications subject to appeal process.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Obtaining appeal.</I> A borrower may submit an appeal of a transferor servicer's determination pursuant to § 1024.41(h) to the transferor servicer after the transfer date. Consistent with policies and procedures maintained pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(4), the transferor servicer must timely transfer, and the transferee servicer must obtain, documents and information regarding such appeals.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Servicer unable to determine appeal.</I> A transferee servicer may be unable to make a determination on an appeal when, for example, the transferor servicer denied a borrower for a loan modification option that the transferee servicer does not offer or when the transferee servicer receives the mortgage loan through an involuntary transfer and the transferor servicer failed to maintain proper records such that the transferee servicer lacks sufficient information to review the appeal. In that circumstance, the transferee servicer is required to treat the appeal as a pending complete application, and it must permit the borrower to accept or reject any loss mitigation options offered by the transferor servicer, even if it does not offer the loss mitigation options offered by the transferor servicer, in addition to the loss mitigation options, if any, that the transferee servicer determines to offer the borrower based on its own evaluation of the borrower's complete loss mitigation application. For example, assume a transferor servicer denied a borrower for all loan modification options but offered the borrower a short sale option, and assume that the borrower's appeal of the loan modification denial was pending as of the transfer date. If the transferee servicer is unable to determine the borrower's appeal, the transferee servicer must evaluate the borrower for all available loss mitigation options in accordance with § 1024.41(c) and (k)(3). At the conclusion of such evaluation, the transferee servicer must permit the borrower to accept the short sale option offered by the transferor servicer, even if the transferee servicer does not offer the short sale option, in addition to any loss mitigation options the transferee servicer determines to offer the borrower based upon its own evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>41(k)(5) Pending loss mitigation offers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Obtaining evidence of borrower acceptance.</I> A borrower may provide an acceptance or rejection of a pending loss mitigation offer to a transferor servicer after the transfer date. Consistent with policies and procedures maintained pursuant to § 1024.38(b)(4), the transferor servicer must timely transfer, and the transferee servicer must obtain, documents and information regarding such acceptances and rejections, and the transferee servicer must provide the borrower with any timely accepted loss mitigation option, even if the borrower submitted the acceptance to the transferor servicer.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix MS to Part 1024—Mortgage Servicing Model Forms and Clauses
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> This appendix contains model forms and clauses for mortgage servicing disclosures required by §§ 1024.33, 37, and 39. Each of the model forms is designated for uses in a particular set of circumstances as indicated by the title of that model form or clause. Although use of the model forms and clauses is not required, servicers using them appropriately will be in compliance with disclosure requirements of §§ 1024.33, 37, and 39. To use the forms appropriately, information required by regulation must be set forth in the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Servicers may make certain changes to the format or content of the forms and clauses and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable without losing the protection from liability so long as those changes do not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the forms and clauses. Servicers making revisions to that effect will lose their protection from civil liability. Except as otherwise specifically required, acceptable changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Use of “borrower” and “servicer” instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>ii. Substitution of the words “lender” and “servicer” for each other.
</P>
<P>iii. Addition of graphics or icons, such as the servicer's corporate logo.
</P>
<P>iv. Modifications to remove language that could suggest liability under the mortgage loan agreement if such language is not applicable. For example, in the case of a confirmed successor in interest who has not assumed the mortgage loan obligation under State law and is not otherwise liable on the mortgage loan obligation, this could include:
</P>
<P>A. Use of “the mortgage loan” or “this mortgage loan” instead of “your mortgage loan” and “the monthly payments” instead of “your monthly payments.”
</P>
<P>B. Use of “Payments due on or after [Date] may be sent to” instead of “Send all payments due on or after [Date] to” in notices of transfer.
</P>
<P>C. Use of “We will charge the loan account” instead of “You must pay us” in notices relating to force-placed insurance.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix MS-3—Model Force-Placed Insurance Notice Forms
</HD1>
<P>1. Where the model forms MS-3(A), MS-3(B), MS-3(C), and MS-3(D) use the term “hazard insurance,” the servicer may substitute “hazard insurance” with “homeowners' insurance” or “property insurance.”
</P>
<HD1>Appendix MS-4—Model Clauses for the Written Early Intervention Notice
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Model MS-4(A).</I> These model clauses illustrate how a servicer may provide its contact information, how a servicer may request that the borrower contact the servicer, and how the servicer may inform the borrower how to obtain additional information about loss mitigation options, as required by § 1024.39(b)(2)(i), (ii), and (iv).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Model MS-4(B).</I> These model clauses illustrate how the servicer may inform the borrower of loss mitigation options that may be available, as required by § 1024.39(b)(2)(iii), if applicable. A servicer may include clauses describing particular loss mitigation options to the extent such options are available. Model MS-4(B) does not contain sample clauses for all loss mitigation options that may be available. The language in the model clauses contained in square brackets is optional; a servicer may comply with the disclosure requirements of § 1024.39(b)(2)(iii) by using language substantially similar to the language in the model clauses, providing additional detail about the options, or by adding or substituting applicable loss mitigation options for options not represented in these model clauses, provided the information disclosed is accurate and clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Model MS-4(C).</I> These model clauses illustrate how a servicer may provide contact information for housing counselors, as required by § 1024.39(b)(2)(v). A servicer may, at its option, provide the Web site and telephone number for either the Bureau's or the Department of Housing and Urban Development's housing counselors list, as provided by paragraphs § 1024.39(b)(2)(v).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10887, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 44717, July 24, 2013; 78 FR 60438, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 63004, 63005, Oct. 23, 2013; 81 FR 72376, Oct. 19, 2016; 82 FR 30948, July 5, 2017; 86 FR 34900, June 30, 2021; 88 FR 16542, Mar. 20, 2023; 90 FR 20793, May 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1025" NODE="12:8.0.2.1.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1025 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 25, 2026 
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="9" NODE="12:9" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 9</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter x</E>—Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (Continued)
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1026


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="X" NODE="12:9.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER X—CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION BUREAU (CONTINUED)</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1026" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1026—TRUTH IN LENDING (REGULATION Z)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2601, 2603-2605, 2607, 2609, 2617, 3353, 3354, 5511, 5512, 5532, 5581; 15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.1   Authority, purpose, coverage, organization, enforcement, and liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation Z, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Federal Truth in Lending Act, which is contained in title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). This part also implements title XII, section 1204 of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987 (Pub. L. 100-86, 101 Stat. 552). Furthermore, this part implements certain provisions of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition, this part implements certain provisions of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>). The Bureau's information-collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 3170-0015 (Truth in Lending).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to promote the informed use of consumer credit by requiring disclosures about its terms and cost, to ensure that consumers are provided with greater and more timely information on the nature and costs of the residential real estate settlement process, and to effect certain changes in the settlement process for residential real estate that will result in more effective advance disclosure to home buyers and sellers of settlement costs. The regulation also includes substantive protections. It gives consumers the right to cancel certain credit transactions that involve a lien on a consumer's principal dwelling, regulates certain credit card practices, and provides a means for fair and timely resolution of credit billing disputes. The regulation does not generally govern charges for consumer credit, except that several provisions in subpart G set forth special rules addressing certain charges applicable to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The regulation requires a maximum interest rate to be stated in variable-rate contracts secured by the consumer's dwelling. It also imposes limitations on home-equity plans that are subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 and mortgages that are subject to the requirements of § 1026.32. The regulation prohibits certain acts or practices in connection with credit secured by a dwelling in § 1026.36, and credit secured by a consumer's principal dwelling in § 1026.35. The regulation also regulates certain practices of creditors who extend private education loans as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5). In addition, it imposes certain limitations on increases in costs for mortgage transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) In general, this part applies to each individual or business that offers or extends credit, other than a person excluded from coverage of this part by section 1029 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, when four conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit is offered or extended to consumers;
</P>
<P>(ii) The offering or extension of credit is done regularly;
</P>
<P>(iii) The credit is subject to a finance charge or is payable by a written agreement in more than four installments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The credit is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.


</P>
<P>(2) If a credit card is involved, however, certain provisions apply even if the credit is not subject to a finance charge, or is not payable by a written agreement in more than four installments, or if the credit card is to be used for business purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, certain requirements of § 1026.40 apply to persons who are not creditors but who provide applications for home-equity plans to consumers.
</P>
<P>(4) Furthermore, certain requirements of § 1026.57 apply to institutions of higher education.
</P>
<P>(5) Except in transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), no person is required to provide the disclosures required by sections 128(a)(16) through (19), 128(b)(4), 129C(f)(1), 129C(g)(2) and (3), 129D(h), or 129D(j)(1)(A) of the Truth in Lending Act, section 4(c) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, or the disclosure required prior to settlement by section 129C(h) of the Truth in Lending Act. Except in transactions subject to § 1026.20(e), no person is required to provide the disclosure required by section 129D(j)(1)(B) of the Truth in Lending Act. Except in transactions subject to § 1026.39(d)(5), no person becoming a creditor with respect to an existing residential mortgage loan is required to provide the disclosure required by section 129C(h) of the Truth in Lending Act.


</P>
<P>(6) The requirements of § 1026.42(i) apply to certain persons regardless of whether they are creditors and even if the mortgage, as defined in § 1026.42(i)(2)(v), is primarily for business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational purposes.






</P>
<P>(d) <I>Organization.</I> The regulation is divided into subparts and appendices as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A contains general information. It sets forth:
</P>
<P>(i) The authority, purpose, coverage, and organization of the regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The definitions of basic terms;
</P>
<P>(iii) The transactions that are exempt from coverage; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The method of determining the finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B contains the rules for open-end credit. It requires that account-opening disclosures and periodic statements be provided, as well as additional disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations and for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.60 and § 1026.40, respectively. It also describes special rules that apply to credit card transactions, treatment of payments and credit balances, procedures for resolving credit billing errors, annual percentage rate calculations, rescission requirements, and advertising.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C relates to closed-end credit. It contains rules on disclosures, treatment of credit balances, annual percentage rate calculations, rescission requirements, and advertising.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D contains rules on oral disclosures, disclosures in languages other than English, record retention, effect on state laws, state exemptions, and rate limitations.
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart E contains special rules for mortgage transactions. Section 1026.32 requires certain disclosures and provides limitations for closed-end credit transactions and open-end credit plans that have rates or fees above specified amounts or certain prepayment penalties. Section 1026.33 requires special disclosures, including the total annual loan cost rate, for reverse mortgage transactions. Section 1026.34 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with high-cost mortgages, as defined in § 1026.32(a). Section 1026.35 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with closed-end higher-priced mortgage loans, as defined in § 1026.35(a). Section 1026.36 prohibits specific acts and practices in connection with an extension of credit secured by a dwelling. Sections 1026.37 and 1026.38 set forth special disclosure requirements for certain closed-end transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, as required by § 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>(6) Subpart F relates to private education loans. It contains rules on disclosures, limitations on changes in terms after approval, the right to cancel the loan, and limitations on co-branding in the marketing of private education loans.
</P>
<P>(7) Subpart G relates to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan (except for § 1026.57(c), which applies to all open-end credit plans). Section 1026.51 contains rules on evaluation of a consumer's ability to make the required payments under the terms of an account. Section 1026.52 limits the fees that a consumer can be required to pay with respect to an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan during the first year after account opening. Section 1026.53 contains rules on allocation of payments in excess of the minimum payment. Section 1026.54 sets forth certain limitations on the imposition of finance charges as the result of a loss of a grace period. Section 1026.55 contains limitations on increases in annual percentage rates, fees, and charges for credit card accounts. Section 1026.56 prohibits the assessment of fees or charges for over-the-limit transactions unless the consumer affirmatively consents to the creditor's payment of over-the-limit transactions. Section 1026.57 sets forth rules for reporting and marketing of college student open-end credit. Section 1026.58 sets forth requirements for the Internet posting of credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(8) Several appendices contain information such as the procedures for determinations about state laws, state exemptions and issuance of official interpretations, special rules for certain kinds of credit plans, and the rules for computing annual percentage rates in closed-end credit transactions and total-annual-loan-cost rates for reverse mortgage transactions.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement and liability.</I> Section 108 of the Truth in Lending Act contains the administrative enforcement provisions for that Act. Sections 112, 113, 130, 131, and 134 contain provisions relating to liability for failure to comply with the requirements of the Truth in Lending Act and the regulation. Section 1204(c) of title XII of the Competitive Equality Banking Act of 1987, Public Law 100-86, 101 Stat. 552, incorporates by reference administrative enforcement and civil liability provisions of sections 108 and 130 of the Truth in Lending Act. Section 19 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act contains the administrative enforcement provisions for that Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 70114, Nov. 23, 2012; 78 FR 6962, Jan. 31, 2013; 78 FR 80106, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 32687, June 9, 2015; 82 FR 37768, Aug. 11, 2017; 89 FR 64577, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.2   Definitions and rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message in any medium that promotes, directly or indirectly, a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Application</I> means the submission of a consumer's financial information for the purposes of obtaining an extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(ii) For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), or (g) of this part, an application consists of the submission of the consumer's name, the consumer's income, the consumer's social security number to obtain a credit report, the property address, an estimate of the value of the property, and the mortgage loan amount sought.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Billing cycle</I> or <I>cycle</I> means the interval between the days or dates of regular periodic statements. These intervals shall be equal and no longer than a quarter of a year. An interval will be considered equal if the number of days in the cycle does not vary more than four days from the regular day or date of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Business day</I> means a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions. However, for purposes of rescission under §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23, and for purposes of §§ 1026.19(a)(1)(ii), 1026.19(a)(2), 1026.19(e)(1)(iii)(B), 1026.19(e)(1)(iv), 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(A), 1026.19(e)(4)(ii), 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), 1026.19(f)(1)(iii), 1026.20(e)(5), 1026.31, and 1026.46(d)(4), the term means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a), such as New Year's Day, the Birthday of Martin Luther King, Jr., Washington's Birthday, Memorial Day, Independence Day, Labor Day, Columbus Day, Veterans Day, Thanksgiving Day, and Christmas Day.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Card issuer</I> means a person that issues a credit card or that person's agent with respect to the card.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cardholder</I> means a natural person to whom a credit card is issued for consumer credit purposes, or a natural person who has agreed with the card issuer to pay consumer credit obligations arising from the issuance of a credit card to another natural person. For purposes of § 1026.12(a) and (b), the term includes any person to whom a credit card is issued for any purpose, including business, commercial or agricultural use, or a person who has agreed with the card issuer to pay obligations arising from the issuance of such a credit card to another person.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cash price</I> means the price at which a creditor, in the ordinary course of business, offers to sell for cash property or service that is the subject of the transaction. At the creditor's option, the term may include the price of accessories, services related to the sale, service contracts and taxes and fees for license, title, and registration. The term does not include any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closed-end credit</I> means consumer credit other than “open-end credit” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Consumer</I> means a cardholder or natural person to whom consumer credit is offered or extended. However, for purposes of rescission under §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23, the term also includes a natural person in whose principal dwelling a security interest is or will be retained or acquired, if that person's ownership interest in the dwelling is or will be subject to the security interest. For purposes of § 1026.42(i), the term means a natural person to whom credit is offered or extended, even if the credit is primarily for business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational purposes. For purposes of §§ 1026.20(c) through (e), 1026.36(c), 1026.39, and 1026.41, the term includes a confirmed successor in interest.










</P>
<P>(12) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Consummation</I> means the time that a consumer becomes contractually obligated on a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Credit</I> means the right to defer payment of debt or to incur debt and defer its payment.


</P>
<P>(15)(i) <I>Credit card</I> means any card, plate, or other single credit device that may be used from time to time to obtain credit. The term <I>credit card</I> includes both a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 and a hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan</I> means any open-end credit account that is accessed by a credit card, except:
</P>
<P>(A) A home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 that is accessed by a credit card; or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered overdraft credit account as defined in § 1026.62 offered by a creditor other than a very large financial institution as defined in § 1026.62 that is accessed by a debit card or account number.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charge card</I> means a credit card on an account for which no periodic rate is used to compute a finance charge. The term does not include a hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Debit card</I> means any card, plate, or other single device that may be used from time to time to access an asset account other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61. The term <I>debit card</I> does not include a prepaid card as defined in § 1026.61.










</P>
<P>(16) <I>Credit sale</I> means a sale in which the seller is a creditor. The term includes a bailment or lease (unless terminable without penalty at any time by the consumer) under which the consumer:
</P>
<P>(i) Agrees to pay as compensation for use a sum substantially equivalent to, or in excess of, the total value of the property and service involved; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Will become (or has the option to become), for no additional consideration or for nominal consideration, the owner of the property upon compliance with the agreement.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of §§ 1026.4(c)(8) (Discounts), 1026.9(d) (Finance charge imposed at time of transaction), and 1026.12(e) (Prompt notification of returns and crediting of refunds), a person that honors a credit card.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of subpart B, any card issuer that extends either open-end credit or credit that is not subject to a finance charge and is not payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of subpart B (except for the credit and charge card disclosures contained in §§ 1026.60 and 1026.9(e) and (f), the finance charge disclosures contained in § 1026.6(a)(1) and (b)(3)(i) and § 1026.7(a)(4) through (7) and (b)(4) through (6) and the right of rescission set forth in § 1026.15) and subpart C, any card issuer that extends closed-end credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(v) A person regularly extends consumer credit only if it extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of § 1026.32) more than 25 times (or more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling) in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of § 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Downpayment</I> means an amount, including the value of property used as a trade-in, paid to a seller to reduce the cash price of goods or services purchased in a credit sale transaction. A deferred portion of a downpayment may be treated as part of the downpayment if it is payable not later than the due date of the second otherwise regularly scheduled payment and is not subject to a finance charge.
</P>
<P>(19) <I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(20) <I>Open-end credit</I> means consumer credit extended by a creditor under a plan in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor reasonably contemplates repeated transactions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor may impose a finance charge from time to time on an outstanding unpaid balance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of credit that may be extended to the consumer during the term of the plan (up to any limit set by the creditor) is generally made available to the extent that any outstanding balance is repaid.
</P>
<P>(21) <I>Periodic rate</I> means a rate of finance charge that is or may be imposed by a creditor on a balance for a day, week, month, or other subdivision of a year.
</P>
<P>(22) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(23) <I>Prepaid finance charge</I> means any finance charge paid separately in cash or by check before or at consummation of a transaction, or withheld from the proceeds of the credit at any time.
</P>
<P>(24) <I>Residential mortgage transaction</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in the consumer's principal dwelling to finance the acquisition or initial construction of that dwelling.
</P>
<P>(25) <I>Security interest</I> means an interest in property that secures performance of a consumer credit obligation and that is recognized by State or Federal law. It does not include incidental interests such as interests in proceeds, accessions, additions, fixtures, insurance proceeds (whether or not the creditor is a loss payee or beneficiary), premium rebates, or interests in after-acquired property. For purposes of disclosures under §§ 1026.6, 1026.18, 1026.19(e) and (f), and 1026.38(l)(6), the term does not include an interest that arises solely by operation of law. However, for purposes of the right of rescission under §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23, the term does include interests that arise solely by operation of law.
</P>
<P>(26) <I>State</I> means any state, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(27)(i) <I>Successor in interest</I> means a person to whom an ownership interest in a dwelling securing a closed-end consumer credit transaction is transferred from a consumer, provided that the transfer is:
</P>
<P>(A) A transfer by devise, descent, or operation of law on the death of a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety;
</P>
<P>(B) A transfer to a relative resulting from the death of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(C) A transfer where the spouse or children of the consumer become an owner of the property;
</P>
<P>(D) A transfer resulting from a decree of a dissolution of marriage, legal separation agreement, or from an incidental property settlement agreement, by which the spouse of the consumer becomes an owner of the property; or
</P>
<P>(E) A transfer into an <I>inter vivos</I> trust in which the consumer is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Confirmed successor in interest</I> means a successor in interest once a servicer has confirmed the successor in interest's identity and ownership interest in the dwelling.












</P>
<P>(28) <I>The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans</I> means the SOFR-based index selected by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System to replace, as applicable, the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month tenor of U.S. Dollar LIBOR, as set forth in the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System's regulation at 12 CFR part 253, which implements the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of construction.</I> For purposes of this part, the following rules of construction apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Where appropriate, the singular form of a word includes the plural form and plural includes singular.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the words <I>obligation</I> and <I>transaction</I> are used in the regulation, they refer to a consumer credit obligation or transaction, depending upon the context. Where the word <I>credit</I> is used in the regulation, it means <I>consumer credit</I> unless the context clearly indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>(3) Unless defined in this part, the words used have the meanings given to them by state law or contract.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the word <I>amount</I> is used in this part to describe disclosure requirements, it refers to a numerical amount.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80106, Dec. 31, 2013; 81 FR 72388, Oct. 19, 2016; 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016; 88 FR 30622, May 11, 2023; 89 FR 64577, Aug. 7, 2024; 89 FR 106837, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.3   Exempt transactions.</HEAD>
<P>The following transactions are not subject to this part or, if the exemption is limited to specified provisions of this part, are not subject to those provisions:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational credit.</I> (1) An extension of credit primarily for a business, commercial or agricultural purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) An extension of credit to other than a natural person, including credit to government agencies or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit over applicable threshold amount</I>—(1) <I>Exemption</I>—(i) <I>Requirements.</I> An extension of credit in which the amount of credit extended exceeds the applicable threshold amount or in which there is an express written commitment to extend credit in excess of the applicable threshold amount, unless the extension of credit is:
</P>
<P>(A) Secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(B) A private education loan as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Annual adjustments.</I> The threshold amount in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section is adjusted annually to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable. See the official commentary to this paragraph (b) for the threshold amount applicable to a specific extension of credit or express written commitment to extend credit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transition rule for open-end accounts exempt prior to July 21, 2011.</I> An open-end account that is exempt on July 20, 2011 based on an express written commitment to extend credit in excess of $25,000 remains exempt until December 31, 2011 unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor takes a security interest in any real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor reduces the express written commitment to extend credit to $25,000 or less.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public utility credit.</I> An extension of credit that involves public utility services provided through pipe, wire, other connected facilities, or radio or similar transmission (including extensions of such facilities), if the charges for service, delayed payment, or any discounts for prompt payment are filed with or regulated by any government unit. The financing of durable goods or home improvements by a public utility is not exempt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Securities or commodities accounts.</I> Transactions in securities or commodities accounts in which credit is extended by a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Home fuel budget plans.</I> An installment agreement for the purchase of home fuels in which no finance charge is imposed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Student loan programs.</I> Loans made, insured, or guaranteed pursuant to a program authorized by title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et </I>).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Employer-sponsored retirement plans.</I> An extension of credit to a participant in an employer-sponsored retirement plan qualified under section 401(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, a tax-sheltered annuity under section 403(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, or an eligible governmental deferred compensation plan under section 457(b) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 401(a); 26 U.S.C. 403(b); 26 U.S.C. 457(b)), provided that the extension of credit is comprised of fully vested funds from such participant's account and is made in compliance with the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Partial exemption for certain mortgage loans.</I> The special disclosure requirements in § 1026.19(g) and, unless the creditor chooses to provide the disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f), in § 1026.19(e) and (f) do not apply to a transaction that satisfies all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is secured by a subordinate lien;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(i) Downpayment, closing costs, or other similar home buyer assistance, such as principal or interest subsidies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Property rehabilitation assistance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Energy efficiency assistance; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Foreclosure avoidance or prevention;
</P>
<P>(3) The credit contract does not require the payment of interest;
</P>
<P>(4) The credit contract provides that repayment of the amount of credit extended is:
</P>
<P>(i) Forgiven either incrementally or in whole, at a date certain, and subject only to specified ownership and occupancy conditions, such as a requirement that the consumer maintain the property as the consumer's principal dwelling for five years;
</P>
<P>(ii) Deferred for a minimum of 20 years after consummation of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) Deferred until sale of the property securing the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Deferred until the property securing the transaction is no longer the principal dwelling of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(5)(i) The costs payable by the consumer in connection with the transaction at consummation are limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Recording fees;
</P>
<P>(B) Transfer taxes;
</P>
<P>(C) A bona fide and reasonable application fee; and
</P>
<P>(D) A bona fide and reasonable fee for housing counseling services; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total of costs payable by the consumer under paragraph (h)(5)(i)(C) and (D) of this section is less than 1 percent of the amount of credit extended; and
</P>
<P>(6) The following disclosures are provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosures described in § 1026.18 that comply with this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Alternatively, disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f) that comply with this part.
</P>
<P>(i) The exemptions in this section are not applicable to § 1026.42(i) (Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80107, Dec. 31, 2013; 82 FR 37768, Aug. 11, 2017; 89 FR 64577, Aug. 7, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.4" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.4   Finance charge.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> The finance charge is the cost of consumer credit as a dollar amount. It includes any charge payable directly or indirectly by the consumer and imposed directly or indirectly by the creditor as an incident to or a condition of the extension of credit. It does not include any charge of a type payable in a comparable cash transaction.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Charges by third parties.</I> The finance charge includes fees and amounts charged by someone other than the creditor, unless otherwise excluded under this section, if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires the use of a third party as a condition of or an incident to the extension of credit, even if the consumer can choose the third party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Retains a portion of the third-party charge, to the extent of the portion retained.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule; closing agent charges.</I> Fees charged by a third party that conducts the loan closing (such as a settlement agent, attorney, or escrow or title company) are finance charges only if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(i) Requires the particular services for which the consumer is charged;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires the imposition of the charge; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Retains a portion of the third-party charge, to the extent of the portion retained.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Special rule; mortgage broker fees.</I> Fees charged by a mortgage broker (including fees paid by the consumer directly to the broker or to the creditor for delivery to the broker) are finance charges even if the creditor does not require the consumer to use a mortgage broker and even if the creditor does not retain any portion of the charge.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examples of finance charges.</I> The finance charge includes the following types of charges, except for charges specifically excluded by paragraphs (c) through (e) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest, time price differential, and any amount payable under an add-on or discount system of additional charges.
</P>
<P>(2) Service, transaction, activity, and carrying charges, including any charge imposed on a checking or other transaction account (except a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 or a covered asset account as that term is defined in § 1026.62) to the extent that the charge exceeds the charge for a similar account without a credit feature.






</P>
<P>(3) Points, loan fees, assumption fees, finder's fees, and similar charges.
</P>
<P>(4) Appraisal, investigation, and credit report fees.
</P>
<P>(5) Premiums or other charges for any guarantee or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss.
</P>
<P>(6) Charges imposed on a creditor by another person for purchasing or accepting a consumer's obligation, if the consumer is required to pay the charges in cash, as an addition to the obligation, or as a deduction from the proceeds of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(7) Premiums or other charges for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, written in connection with a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(8) Premiums or other charges for insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of property, written in connection with a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>(9) Discounts for the purpose of inducing payment by a means other than the use of credit.
</P>
<P>(10) Charges or premiums paid for debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage written in connection with a credit transaction, whether or not the coverage is insurance under applicable law.
</P>
<P>(11) With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61:
</P>
<P>(i) Any fee or charge described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (10) of this section imposed on the covered separate credit feature, whether it is structured as a credit subaccount of the prepaid account or a separate credit account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account to the extent that the amount of the fee or charge exceeds comparable fees or charges imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.
</P>
<P>(12) With regard to a covered asset account as that term is defined in § 1026.62(b)(2):
</P>
<P>(i) Any service, transaction, activity, or carrying charge imposed on the separate credit account required by § 1026.62(c); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any service, transaction, activity, or carrying charge imposed on the covered asset account to the extent that the charge exceeds a comparable charge imposed on a checking or other transaction account that does not have overdraft credit.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (b)(12)(ii) of this section, a charge or combination of charges, including a per transaction fee, imposed on a covered asset account when overdraft credit is extended is not comparable to the following fees or charges imposed on a checking or other transaction account that does not have overdraft credit:
</P>
<P>(A) A charge for authorizing or paying a transaction that overdraws the checking or other transaction account.
</P>
<P>(B) A charge for declining to authorize or pay a transaction.
</P>
<P>(C) A charge for returning a transaction unpaid.
</P>
<P>(D) A charge for transferring funds into the checking or other transaction account from any credit account.
</P>
<P>(E) A charge for transferring funds into the checking or other transaction account from any other asset account.








</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charges excluded from the finance charge.</I> The following charges are not finance charges:
</P>
<P>(1) Application fees charged to all applicants for credit, whether or not credit is actually extended.
</P>
<P>(2) Charges for actual unanticipated late payment, for exceeding a credit limit, or for delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence.
</P>
<P>(3) Charges imposed by a financial institution for paying items that overdraw an account, unless the payment of such items and the imposition of the charge were previously agreed upon in writing. This paragraph (c)(3) does not apply to credit offered in connection with a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61. This paragraph (c)(3) also does not apply to above breakeven overdraft credit as defined in § 1026.62.






</P>
<P>(4) Fees charged for participation in a credit plan, whether assessed on an annual or other periodic basis. This paragraph does not apply to a fee to participate in a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, regardless of whether this fee is imposed on the credit feature or on the asset feature of the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(5) Seller's points.
</P>
<P>(6) Interest forfeited as a result of an interest reduction required by law on a time deposit used as security for an extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Real-estate related fees.</I> The following fees in a transaction secured by real property or in a residential mortgage transaction, if the fees are bona fide and reasonable in amount:
</P>
<P>(i) Fees for title examination, abstract of title, title insurance, property survey, and similar purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) Fees for preparing loan-related documents, such as deeds, mortgages, and reconveyance or settlement documents.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notary and credit-report fees.
</P>
<P>(iv) Property appraisal fees or fees for inspections to assess the value or condition of the property if the service is performed prior to closing, including fees related to pest-infestation or flood-hazard determinations.
</P>
<P>(v) Amounts required to be paid into escrow or trustee accounts if the amounts would not otherwise be included in the finance charge.
</P>
<P>(8) Discounts offered to induce payment for a purchase by cash, check, or other means, as provided in section 167(b) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Insurance and debt cancellation and debt suspension coverage</I>—(1) <I>Voluntary credit insurance premiums.</I> Premiums for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance may be excluded from the finance charge if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurance coverage is not required by the creditor, and this fact is disclosed in writing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The premium for the initial term of insurance coverage is disclosed in writing. If the term of insurance is less than the term of the transaction, the term of insurance also shall be disclosed. The premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 1026.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving an insurance plan that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage.
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer signs or initials an affirmative written request for the insurance after receiving the disclosures specified in this paragraph, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. Any consumer in the transaction may sign or initial the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Property insurance premiums.</I> Premiums for insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of property, including single interest insurance if the insurer waives all right of subrogation against the consumer, may be excluded from the finance charge if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The insurance coverage may be obtained from a person of the consumer's choice, and this fact is disclosed. (A creditor may reserve the right to refuse to accept, for reasonable cause, an insurer offered by the consumer.)
</P>
<P>(ii) If the coverage is obtained from or through the creditor, the premium for the initial term of insurance coverage shall be disclosed. If the term of insurance is less than the term of the transaction, the term of insurance shall also be disclosed. The premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 1026.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving an insurance plan that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Voluntary debt cancellation or debt suspension fees.</I> Charges or premiums paid for debt cancellation coverage for amounts exceeding the value of the collateral securing the obligation or for debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage in the event of the loss of life, health, or income or in case of accident may be excluded from the finance charge, whether or not the coverage is insurance, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The debt cancellation or debt suspension agreement or coverage is not required by the creditor, and this fact is disclosed in writing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fee or premium for the initial term of coverage is disclosed in writing. If the term of coverage is less than the term of the credit transaction, the term of coverage also shall be disclosed. The fee or premium may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis only in open-end credit transactions, closed-end credit transactions by mail or telephone under § 1026.17(g), and certain closed-end credit transactions involving a debt cancellation agreement that limits the total amount of indebtedness subject to coverage;
</P>
<P>(iii) The following are disclosed, as applicable, for debt suspension coverage: That the obligation to pay loan principal and interest is only suspended, and that interest will continue to accrue during the period of suspension.
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer signs or initials an affirmative written request for coverage after receiving the disclosures specified in this paragraph, except as provided in paragraph (d)(4) of this section. Any consumer in the transaction may sign or initial the request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Telephone purchases.</I> If a consumer purchases credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage for an open-end (not home-secured) plan by telephone, the creditor must make the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) or (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, orally. In such a case, the creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Maintain evidence that the consumer, after being provided the disclosures orally, affirmatively elected to purchase the insurance or coverage; and(ii) Mail the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1)(i) and (ii) or (d)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, as applicable, within three business days after the telephone purchase.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain security interest charges.</I> If itemized and disclosed, the following charges may be excluded from the finance charge:
</P>
<P>(1) Taxes and fees prescribed by law that actually are or will be paid to public officials for determining the existence of or for perfecting, releasing, or satisfying a security interest.
</P>
<P>(2) The premium for insurance in lieu of perfecting a security interest to the extent that the premium does not exceed the fees described in paragraph (e)(1) of this section that otherwise would be payable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Taxes on security instruments.</I> Any tax levied on security instruments or on documents evidencing indebtedness if the payment of such taxes is a requirement for recording the instrument securing the evidence of indebtedness.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibited offsets.</I> Interest, dividends, or other income received or to be received by the consumer on deposits or investments shall not be deducted in computing the finance charge.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016; 89 FR 106837, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Open-End Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.5" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.5   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) The following disclosures need not be written: Disclosures under § 1026.6(b)(3) of charges that are imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan that are not required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2) and related disclosures of charges under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iii)(B); disclosures under § 1026.9(c)(2)(vi); disclosures under § 1026.9(d) when a finance charge is imposed at the time of the transaction; and disclosures under § 1026.56(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(B) The following disclosures need not be in a retainable form: Disclosures that need not be written under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section; disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations under § 1026.60; home-equity disclosures under § 1026.40(d); the alternative summary billing-rights statement under § 1026.9(a)(2); the credit and charge card renewal disclosures required under § 1026.9(e); and the payment requirements under § 1026.10(b), except as provided in § 1026.7(b)(13).
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by §§ 1026.60, 1026.40, and 1026.16 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Terminology.</I> (i) Terminology used in providing the disclosures required by this subpart shall be consistent.
</P>
<P>(ii) For home-equity plans subject to § 1026.40, the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate,</I> when required to be disclosed with a corresponding amount or percentage rate, shall be more conspicuous than any other required disclosure. The terms need not be more conspicuous when used for periodic statement disclosures under § 1026.7(a)(4) and for advertisements under § 1026.16.
</P>
<P>(iii) If disclosures are required to be presented in a tabular format pursuant to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the term <I>penalty APR</I> shall be used, as applicable. The term <I>penalty APR</I> need not be used in reference to the annual percentage rate that applies with the loss of a promotional rate, assuming the annual percentage rate that applies is not greater than the annual percentage rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period; or if the annual percentage rate that applies with the loss of a promotional rate is a variable rate, the annual percentage rate is calculated using the same index and margin as would have been used to calculate the annual percentage rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period. If credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage is required as part of the plan, the term <I>required</I> shall be used and the program shall be identified by its name. If an annual percentage rate is required to be presented in a tabular format pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (a)(3)(iii) of this section, the term <I>fixed,</I> or a similar term, may not be used to describe such rate unless the creditor also specifies a time period that the rate will be fixed and the rate will not increase during that period, or if no such time period is provided, the rate will not increase while the plan is open.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Specific formats.</I> (i) Certain disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.60(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) Certain disclosures for home-equity plans must precede other disclosures and must be given in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.40(a).
</P>
<P>(iii) Certain account-opening disclosures must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.6(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(iv) Certain disclosures provided on periodic statements must be grouped together in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(6) and (b)(13).
</P>
<P>(v) Certain disclosures provided on periodic statements must be given in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(12).
</P>
<P>(vi) Certain disclosures accompanying checks that access a credit card account must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.9(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(vii) Certain disclosures provided in a change-in-terms notice must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(D).
</P>
<P>(viii) Certain disclosures provided when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or as a penalty must be provided in a tabular format in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.9(g)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Account-opening disclosures</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> The creditor shall furnish account-opening disclosures required by § 1026.6 before the first transaction is made under the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan.</I> Charges that are imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan and are not required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2) may be disclosed after account opening but before the consumer agrees to pay or becomes obligated to pay for the charge, provided they are disclosed at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice them. This provision does not apply to charges imposed as part of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Telephone purchases.</I> Disclosures required by § 1026.6 may be provided as soon as reasonably practicable after the first transaction if:
</P>
<P>(A) The first transaction occurs when a consumer contacts a merchant by telephone to purchase goods and at the same time the consumer accepts an offer to finance the purchase by establishing an open-end plan with the merchant or third-party creditor;
</P>
<P>(B) The merchant or third-party creditor permits consumers to return any goods financed under the plan and provides consumers with a sufficient time to reject the plan and return the goods free of cost after the merchant or third-party creditor has provided the written disclosures required by § 1026.6; and
</P>
<P>(C) The consumer's right to reject the plan and return the goods is disclosed to the consumer as a part of the offer to finance the purchase.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Membership fees</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> In general, a creditor may not collect any fee before account-opening disclosures are provided. A creditor may collect, or obtain the consumer's agreement to pay, membership fees, including application fees excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1), before providing account-opening disclosures if, after receiving the disclosures, the consumer may reject the plan and have no obligation to pay these fees (including application fees) or any other fee or charge. A membership fee for purposes of this paragraph has the same meaning as a fee for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 1026.60(b)(2). If the consumer rejects the plan, the creditor must promptly refund the membership fee if it has been paid, or take other action necessary to ensure the consumer is not obligated to pay that fee or any other fee or charge.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 are not subject to the requirements of paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Application fees.</I> A creditor may collect an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1) before providing account-opening disclosures. However, if a consumer rejects the plan after receiving account-opening disclosures, the consumer must have no obligation to pay such an application fee, or if the fee was paid, it must be refunded. <I>See</I> § 1026.5(b)(1)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic statements</I>—(i) <I>Statement required.</I> The creditor shall mail or deliver a periodic statement as required by § 1026.7 for each billing cycle at the end of which an account has a debit or credit balance of more than $1 or on which a finance charge has been imposed. A periodic statement need not be sent for an account if the creditor deems it uncollectible, if delinquency collection proceedings have been instituted, if the creditor has charged off the account in accordance with loan-loss provisions and will not charge any additional fees or interest on the account, or if furnishing the statement would violate Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing requirements</I>—(A) <I>Credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must adopt reasonable procedures designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 21 days prior to the payment due date disclosed on the statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The card issuer does not treat as late for any purpose a required minimum periodic payment received by the card issuer within 21 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement disclosing the due date for that payment.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Open-end consumer credit plans.</I> For accounts under an open-end consumer credit plan, a creditor must adopt reasonable procedures designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If a grace period applies to the account:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 21 days prior to the date on which the grace period expires; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The creditor does not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period if a payment that satisfies the terms of the grace period is received by the creditor within 21 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Regardless of whether a grace period applies to the account:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 14 days prior to the date on which the required minimum periodic payment must be received in order to avoid being treated as late for any purpose; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The creditor does not treat as late for any purpose a required minimum periodic payment received by the creditor within 14 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, “grace period” means a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit and charge card application and solicitation disclosures.</I> The card issuer shall furnish the disclosures for credit and charge card applications and solicitations in accordance with the timing requirements of § 1026.60.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Disclosures for home-equity plans shall be made in accordance with the timing requirements of § 1026.40(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties. If any information necessary for accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, it shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If the credit plan involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given, and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the account. If the right of rescission under § 1026.15 is applicable, however, the disclosures required by §§ 1026.6 and 1026.15(b) shall be made to each consumer having the right to rescind.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor mails or delivers the disclosures, the resulting inaccuracy is not a violation of this part, although new disclosures may be required under § 1026.9(c).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.6" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.6   Account-opening disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (a) apply only to home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40. A creditor shall disclose the items in this section, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Finance charge.</I> The circumstances under which a finance charge will be imposed and an explanation of how it will be determined, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of when finance charges begin to accrue, including an explanation of whether or not any time period exists within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge when payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A disclosure of each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge, the range of balances to which it is applicable, and the corresponding annual percentage rate. If a creditor offers a variable-rate plan, the creditor shall also disclose: The circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase; any limitations on the increase; and the effect(s) of an increase. When different periodic rates apply to different types of transactions, the types of transactions to which the periodic rates shall apply shall also be disclosed. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of the method used to determine the balance on which the finance charge may be computed.
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how the amount of any finance charge will be determined, including a description of how any finance charge other than the periodic rate will be determined.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other charges.</I> The amount of any charge other than a finance charge that may be imposed as part of the plan, or an explanation of how the charge will be determined.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Home-equity plan information.</I> The following disclosures described in § 1026.40(d), as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the conditions under which the creditor may take certain action, as described in § 1026.40(d)(4)(i), such as terminating the plan or changing the terms.
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment information described in § 1026.40(d)(5)(i) and (ii) for both the draw period and any repayment period.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that negative amortization may occur as described in § 1026.40(d)(9).
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of any transaction requirements as described in § 1026.40(d)(10).
</P>
<P>(v) A statement regarding the tax implications as described in § 1026.40(d)(11).
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the annual percentage rate imposed under the plan does not include costs other than interest as described in § 1026.40(d)(6) and (d)(12)(ii).
</P>
<P>(vii) The variable-rate disclosures described in § 1026.40(d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi), and (d)(12)(xii), as well as the disclosure described in § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii), unless the disclosures provided with the application were in a form the consumer could keep and included a representative payment example for the category of payment option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Security interests.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased under the plan, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Statement of billing rights.</I> A statement that outlines the consumer's rights and the creditor's responsibilities under §§ 1026.12(c) and 1026.13 and that is substantially similar to the statement found in Model Form G-3 or, at the creditor's option, G-3(A), in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply to plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures; tabular format for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> Creditors must provide the account-opening disclosures specified in paragraph (b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(v) (except for (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>)) and (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xiv) of this section in the form of a table with the headings, content, and format substantially similar to any of the applicable tables in G-17 in appendix G.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Highlighting.</I> In the table, any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section; any introductory rate permitted to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) or required to be disclosed under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, any rate that will apply after a premium initial rate expires permitted to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) or required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F), and any fee or percentage amounts or maximum limits on fee amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iv), (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xii) of this section must be disclosed in bold text. However, bold text shall not be used for: The amount of any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section that is not an annualized amount; and other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Location.</I> Only the information required or permitted by paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (v) (except for (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>)) and (b)(2)(vii) through (xiv) of this section shall be in the table. Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>), (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>3</I>), (b)(2)(vi), and (b)(2)(xv) of this section shall be placed directly below the table. Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(3) through (5) of this section that are not otherwise required to be in the table and other information may be presented with the account agreement or account-opening disclosure statement, provided such information appears outside the required table.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fees that vary by state.</I> Creditors that impose fees referred to in paragraphs (b)(2)(vii) through (b)(2)(xi) of this section that vary by state and that provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose in the account-opening table the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, or the range of the fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the amount of the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A creditor may not list fees for multiple states in the account-opening summary table.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fees based on a percentage.</I> If the amount of any fee required to be disclosed under this section is determined on the basis of a percentage of another amount, the percentage used and the identification of the amount against which the percentage is applied may be disclosed instead of the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required disclosures for account-opening table for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose the items in this section, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance for purchases, a cash advance, or a balance transfer, expressed as an annual percentage rate (as determined by § 1026.14(b)). When more than one rate applies for a category of transactions, the range of balances to which each rate is applicable shall also be disclosed. The annual percentage rate for purchases disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be in at least 16-point type, except for the following: A penalty rate that may apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Variable-rate information.</I> If a rate disclosed under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section is a variable rate, the creditor shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the creditor must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases or decreases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Discounted initial rates.</I> If the initial rate is an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), the creditor must disclose the rate that would otherwise apply to the account pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. Where the rate is not tied to an index or formula, the creditor must disclose the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires. In a variable-rate account, the creditor must disclose a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements of paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(G) of this section. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, the creditor is not required to, but may disclose in the table the introductory rate along with the rate that would otherwise apply to the account if the creditor also discloses the time period during which the introductory rate will remain in effect, and uses the term “introductory” or “intro” in immediate proximity to the introductory rate.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Premium initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is temporary and is higher than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, the creditor must disclose the premium initial rate pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. Consistent with paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the premium initial rate for purchases must be in at least 16-point type. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(F) of this section, the creditor is not required to, but may disclose in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate expires if the creditor also discloses the time period during which the premium initial rate will remain in effect. If the creditor also discloses in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate for purchases expires, that rate also must be in at least 16-point type.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Penalty rates</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(i)(D)(<I>3</I>) of this section, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the creditor must disclose pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section the increased rate that may apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect. If more than one penalty rate may apply, the creditor at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Introductory rates.</I> If the creditor discloses in the table an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), creditors must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which the introductory rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> If a creditor discloses in the table a preferential annual percentage rate for which only employees of the creditor, employees of a third party, or other individuals with similar affiliations with the creditor or third party, such as executive officers, directors, or principal shareholders are eligible, the creditor must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which such preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after such preferential rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Point of sale where APRs vary by state or based on creditworthiness.</I> Creditors imposing annual percentage rates that vary by state or based on the consumer's creditworthiness and providing the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section in the account-opening table:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The specific annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The range of the annual percentage rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the annual percentage rate varies by state or will be determined based on the consumer's creditworthiness and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A creditor may not list annual percentage rates for multiple states in the account-opening table.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(B) and (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section, for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) plan, issuers must disclose in the table:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any introductory rate as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii) that would apply to the account, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(B) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any rate that would apply upon the expiration of a premium initial rate, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (b)(2)(i)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fees for issuance or availability.</I> (A) Any annual or other periodic fee that may be imposed for the issuance or availability of an open-end plan, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity; how frequently it will be imposed; and the annualized amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(B) Any non-periodic fee that relates to opening the plan. A creditor must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I> Any fixed finance charge and a brief description of the charge. Any minimum interest charge if it exceeds $1.00 that could be imposed during a billing cycle, and a brief description of the charge. The $1.00 threshold amount shall be adjusted periodically by the Bureau to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index. The Bureau shall calculate each year a price level adjusted minimum interest charge using the Consumer Price Index in effect on the June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current minimum interest charge threshold has risen by a whole dollar, the minimum interest charge will be increased by $1.00. The creditor may, at its option, disclose in the table minimum interest charges below this threshold.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transaction charges.</I> Any transaction charge imposed by the creditor for use of the open-end plan for purchases.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and any conditions on the availability of the grace period. If no grace period is provided, that fact must be disclosed. If the length of the grace period varies, the creditor may disclose the range of days, the minimum number of days, or the average number of the days in the grace period, if the disclosure is identified as a range, minimum, or average. In disclosing in the tabular format a grace period that applies to all features on the account, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing the grace period. If a grace period is not offered on all features of the account, in disclosing this fact in the tabular format, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing this fact.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Balance computation method.</I> The name of the balance computation method listed in § 1026.60(g) that is used to determine the balance on which the finance charge is computed for each feature, or an explanation of the method used if it is not listed, along with a statement that an explanation of the method(s) required by paragraph (b)(4)(i)(D) of this section is provided with the account-opening disclosures. In determining which balance computation method to disclose, the creditor shall assume that credit extended will not be repaid within any grace period, if any.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Cash advance fee.</I> Any fee imposed for an extension of credit in the form of cash or its equivalent.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Late payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed for a late payment.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Over-the-limit fee.</I> Any fee imposed for exceeding a credit limit.
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Balance transfer fee.</I> Any fee imposed to transfer an outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(xi) <I>Returned-payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed by the creditor for a returned payment.
</P>
<P>(xii) <I>Required insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage.</I> (A) A fee for insurance described in § 1026.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or suspension coverage described in § 1026.4(b)(10), if the insurance, or debt cancellation or suspension coverage is required as part of the plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) A cross reference to any additional information provided about the insurance or coverage, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(xiii) <I>Available credit.</I> If a creditor requires fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, or requires a security deposit for such credit, and the total amount of those required fees and/or security deposit that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened is 15 percent or more of the minimum credit limit for the plan, a creditor must disclose the available credit remaining after these fees or security deposit are debited to the account. The determination whether the 15 percent threshold is met must be based on the minimum credit limit for the plan. However, the disclosure provided under this paragraph must be based on the actual initial credit limit provided on the account. In determining whether the 15 percent threshold test is met, the creditor must only consider fees for issuance or availability of credit, or a security deposit, that are required. If fees for issuance or availability are optional, these fees should not be considered in determining whether the disclosure must be given. Nonetheless, if the 15 percent threshold test is met, the creditor in providing the disclosure must disclose the amount of available credit calculated by excluding those optional fees, and the available credit including those optional fees. The creditor shall also disclose that the consumer has the right to reject the plan and not be obligated to pay those fees or any other fee or charges until the consumer has used the account or made a payment on the account after receiving a periodic statement. This paragraph does not apply with respect to fees or security deposits that are not debited to the account.
</P>
<P>(xiv) <I>Web site reference.</I> For issuers of credit cards that are not charge cards, a reference to the Web site established by the Bureau and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit cards. Until January 1, 2013, issuers may substitute for this reference a reference to the Web site established by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(xv) <I>Billing error rights reference.</I> A statement that information about consumers' right to dispute transactions is included in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure of charges imposed as part of open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) For charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan, the circumstances under which the charge may be imposed, including the amount of the charge or an explanation of how the charge is determined. For finance charges, a statement of when the charge begins to accrue and an explanation of whether or not any time period exists within which any credit that has been extended may be repaid without incurring the charge. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, elect not to impose a finance charge when payment is received after the time period expires.
</P>
<P>(ii) Charges imposed as part of the plan are:
</P>
<P>(A) Finance charges identified under § 1026.4(a) and § 1026.4(b).
</P>
<P>(B) Charges resulting from the consumer's failure to use the plan as agreed, except amounts payable for collection activity after default, attorney's fees whether or not automatically imposed, and post-judgment interest rates permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(C) Taxes imposed on the credit transaction by a state or other governmental body, such as documentary stamp taxes on cash advances.
</P>
<P>(D) Charges for which the payment, or nonpayment, affect the consumer's access to the plan, the duration of the plan, the amount of credit extended, the period for which credit is extended, or the timing or method of billing or payment.
</P>
<P>(E) Charges imposed for terminating a plan.
</P>
<P>(F) Charges for voluntary credit insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension.
</P>
<P>(iii) Charges that are not imposed as part of the plan include:
</P>
<P>(A) Charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system.
</P>
<P>(B) A charge for a package of services that includes an open-end credit feature, if the fee is required whether or not the open-end credit feature is included and the non-credit services are not merely incidental to the credit feature.
</P>
<P>(C) Charges under § 1026.4(e) disclosed as specified.
</P>
<P>(D) With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account to the extent that the amount of the fee or charge does not exceed comparable fees or charges imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.
</P>
<P>(E) With regard to a non-covered separate credit feature accessible by a prepaid card as defined in § 1026.61, any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disclosure of rates for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) For each periodic rate that may be used to calculate interest:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Rates.</I> The rate, expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Range of balances.</I> The range of balances to which the rate is applicable; however, a creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Type of transaction.</I> The type of transaction to which the rate applies, if different rates apply to different types of transactions.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Balance computation method.</I> An explanation of the method used to determine the balance to which the rate is applied.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable-rate accounts.</I> For interest rate changes that are tied to increases in an index or formula (variable-rate accounts) specifically set forth in the account agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) The fact that the annual percentage rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(B) How the rate is determined, including the margin.
</P>
<P>(C) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(D) The frequency with which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(E) Any limitation on the amount the rate may change.
</P>
<P>(F) The effect(s) of an increase.
</P>
<P>(G) Except as specified in paragraph (b)(4)(ii)(H) of this section, a rate is accurate if it is a rate as of a specified date and this rate was in effect within the last 30 days before the disclosures are provided.
</P>
<P>(H) Creditors imposing annual percentage rates that vary according to an index that is not under the creditor's control that provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section in person at the time the open-end (not home-secured) plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may disclose in the table a rate, or range of rates to the extent permitted by § 1026.6(b)(2)(i)(E), that was in effect within the last 90 days before the disclosures are provided, along with a reference directing the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where an annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account in effect within the last 30 days before the disclosures are provided is disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Rate changes not due to index or formula.</I> For interest rate changes that are specifically set forth in the account agreement and not tied to increases in an index or formula:
</P>
<P>(A) The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate) required under paragraph (b)(4)(i)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) How long the initial rate will remain in effect and the specific events that cause the initial rate to change.
</P>
<P>(C) The rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate) that will apply when the initial rate is no longer in effect and any limitation on the time period the new rate will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(D) The balances to which the new rate will apply.
</P>
<P>(E) The balances to which the current rate at the time of the change will apply.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional disclosures for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> A creditor shall disclose, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Voluntary credit insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension.</I> The disclosures in § 1026.4(d)(1)(i) and (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(3)(i) through (d)(3)(iii) if the creditor offers optional credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage that is identified in § 1026.4(b)(7) or (b)(10).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Security interests.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased under the plan, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Statement of billing rights.</I> A statement that outlines the consumer's rights and the creditor's responsibilities under §§ 1026.12(c) and 1026.13 and that is substantially similar to the statement found in Model Form G-3(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.7" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.7   Periodic statement.</HEAD>
<P>The creditor shall furnish the consumer with a periodic statement that discloses the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section apply only to home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40. Alternatively, a creditor subject to this paragraph may, at its option, comply with any of the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section; however, any creditor that chooses not to provide a disclosure under paragraph (a)(7) of this section must comply with paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Previous balance.</I> The account balance outstanding at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification of transactions.</I> An identification of each credit transaction in accordance with § 1026.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credits.</I> Any credit to the account during the billing cycle, including the amount and the date of crediting. The date need not be provided if a delay in accounting does not result in any finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic rates.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge, the range of balances to which it is applicable, and the corresponding annual percentage rate. If no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount, the creditor is not required to disclose that fact, or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed. If different periodic rates apply to different types of transactions, the types of transactions to which the periodic rates apply shall also be disclosed. For variable-rate plans, the fact that the periodic rate(s) may vary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> An annual percentage rate that differs from the rate that would otherwise apply and is offered only for a promotional period need not be disclosed except in periods in which the offered rate is actually applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balance on which finance charge computed.</I> The amount of the balance to which a periodic rate was applied and an explanation of how that balance was determined. When a balance is determined without first deducting all credits and payments made during the billing cycle, the fact and the amount of the credits and payments shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Amount of finance charge and other charges.</I> Creditors may comply with paragraphs (a)(6) of this section, or with paragraph (b)(6) of this section, at their option.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Finance charges.</I> The amount of any finance charge debited or added to the account during the billing cycle, using the term <I>finance charge.</I> The components of the finance charge shall be individually itemized and identified to show the amount(s) due to the application of any periodic rates and the amounts(s) of any other type of finance charge. If there is more than one periodic rate, the amount of the finance charge attributable to each rate need not be separately itemized and identified.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other charges.</I> The amounts, itemized and identified by type, of any charges other than finance charges debited to the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> At a creditor's option, when a finance charge is imposed during the billing cycle, the annual percentage rate(s) determined under § 1026.14(c) using the term <I>annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the time period within which the new balance or any portion of the new balance must be paid to avoid additional finance charges. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge if payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Address for notice of billing errors.</I> The address to be used for notice of billing errors. Alternatively, the address may be provided on the billing rights statement permitted by § 1026.9(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I> The closing date of the billing cycle and the account balance outstanding on that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b) of this section apply only to plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Previous balance.</I> The account balance outstanding at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Identification of transactions.</I> An identification of each credit transaction in accordance with § 1026.8.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credits.</I> Any credit to the account during the billing cycle, including the amount and the date of crediting. The date need not be provided if a delay in crediting does not result in any finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Periodic rates.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, each periodic rate that may be used to compute the interest charge expressed as an annual percentage rate and using the term <I>Annual Percentage Rate,</I> along with the range of balances to which it is applicable. If no interest charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount, the creditor is not required to disclose that fact, or the balance below which no interest charge will be imposed. The types of transactions to which the periodic rates apply shall also be disclosed. For variable-rate plans, the fact that the annual percentage rate may vary.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> A promotional rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(i), is required to be disclosed only in periods in which the offered rate is actually applied.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balance on which finance charge computed.</I> The amount of the balance to which a periodic rate was applied and an explanation of how that balance was determined, using the term <I>Balance Subject to Interest Rate.</I> When a balance is determined without first deducting all credits and payments made during the billing cycle, the fact and the amount of the credits and payments shall be disclosed. As an alternative to providing an explanation of how the balance was determined, a creditor that uses a balance computation method identified in § 1026.60(g) may, at the creditor's option, identify the name of the balance computation method and provide a toll-free telephone number where consumers may obtain from the creditor more information about the balance computation method and how resulting interest charges were determined. If the method used is not identified in § 1026.60(g), the creditor shall provide a brief explanation of the method used.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Charges imposed.</I> (i) The amounts of any charges imposed as part of a plan as stated in § 1026.6(b)(3), grouped together, in proximity to transactions identified under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interest.</I> Finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates, using the term <I>Interest Charge,</I> must be grouped together under the heading <I>Interest Charged,</I> itemized and totaled by type of transaction, and a total of finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates, using the term <I>Total Interest,</I> must be disclosed for the statement period and calendar year to date, using a format substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Fees.</I> Charges imposed as part of the plan other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates must be grouped together under the heading <I>Fees,</I> identified consistent with the feature or type, and itemized, and a total of charges, using the term <I>Fees,</I> must be disclosed for the statement period and calendar year to date, using a format substantially similar to Sample G-18(A) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Change-in-terms and increased penalty rate summary for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> Creditors that provide a change-in-terms notice required by § 1026.9(c), or a rate increase notice required by § 1026.9(g), on or with the periodic statement, must disclose the information in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A) and (c)(2)(iv)(B) (if applicable) or § 1026.9(g)(3)(i) on the periodic statement in accordance with the format requirements in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and § 1026.9(g)(3)(ii). See Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the time period within which the new balance or any portion of the new balance must be paid to avoid additional finance charges. If such a time period is provided, a creditor may, at its option and without disclosure, impose no finance charge if payment is received after the time period's expiration.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Address for notice of billing errors.</I> The address to be used for notice of billing errors. Alternatively, the address may be provided on the billing rights statement permitted by § 1026.9(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Closing date of billing cycle; new balance.</I> The closing date of the billing cycle and the account balance outstanding on that date. The new balance must be disclosed in accordance with the format requirements of paragraph (b)(13) of this section.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Due date; late payment costs.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(11)(ii) of this section and in accordance with the format requirements in paragraph (b)(13) of this section, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must provide on each periodic statement:
</P>
<P>(A) The due date for a payment. The due date disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be the same day of the month for each billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of any late payment fee and any increased periodic rate(s) (expressed as an annual percentage rate(s)) that may be imposed on the account as a result of a late payment. If a range of late payment fees may be assessed, the card issuer may state the range of fees, or the highest fee and an indication that the fee imposed could be lower. If the rate may be increased for more than one feature or balance, the card issuer may state the range of rates or the highest rate that could apply and at the issuer's option an indication that the rate imposed could be lower.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The requirements of paragraph (b)(11)(i) of this section do not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Periodic statements provided solely for charge card accounts, other than covered separate credit features that are charge card accounts accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61; and
</P>
<P>(B) Periodic statements provided for a charged-off account where payment of the entire account balance is due immediately.


</P>
<P>(12) <I>Repayment disclosures</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(12)(ii) and (b)(12)(v) of this section, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer must provide the following disclosures on each periodic statement:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement with a bold heading: “Minimum Payment Warning: If you make only the minimum payment each period, you will pay more in interest and it will take you longer to pay off your balance;”
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum payment repayment estimate, as described in appendix M1 to this part. If the minimum payment repayment estimate is less than 2 years, the card issuer must disclose the estimate in months. Otherwise, the estimate must be disclosed in years and rounded to the nearest whole year;
</P>
<P>(C) The minimum payment total cost estimate, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The minimum payment total cost estimate must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the minimum payment repayment estimate and the minimum payment total cost estimate are based on the current outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement. A statement that the minimum payment repayment estimate and the minimum payment total cost estimate are based on the assumption that only minimum payments are made and no other amounts are added to the balance;
</P>
<P>(E) A toll-free telephone number where the consumer may obtain from the card issuer information about credit counseling services consistent with paragraph (b)(12)(iv) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(F)(<I>1</I>) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>2</I>) of this section, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) A statement that the card issuer estimates that the consumer will repay the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement in 3 years if the consumer pays the estimated monthly payment each month for 3 years;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the card issuer's option.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The requirements of paragraph (b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>) of this section do not apply to a periodic statement in any of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The minimum payment repayment estimate that is disclosed on the periodic statement pursuant to paragraph (b)(12)(i)(B) of this section after rounding is three years or less;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part, after rounding as set forth in paragraph (b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this section that is calculated for a particular billing cycle is less than the minimum payment required for the plan for that billing cycle; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A billing cycle where an account has both a balance in a revolving feature where the required minimum payments for this feature will not amortize that balance in a fixed amount of time specified in the account agreement and a balance in a fixed repayment feature where the required minimum payment for this fixed repayment feature will amortize that balance in a fixed amount of time specified in the account agreement which is less than 36 months.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative or no amortization.</I> If negative or no amortization occurs when calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate as described in appendix M1 of this part, a card issuer must provide the following disclosures on the periodic statement instead of the disclosures set forth in paragraph (b)(12)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The following statement: “Minimum Payment Warning: Even if you make no more charges using this card, if you make only the minimum payment each month we estimate you will never pay off the balance shown on this statement because your payment will be less than the interest charged each month”;
</P>
<P>(B) The following statement: “If you make more than the minimum payment each period, you will pay less in interest and pay off your balance sooner”;
</P>
<P>(C) The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, as described in appendix M1 to this part. The estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months must be rounded either to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent, at the issuer's option;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the card issuer estimates that the consumer will repay the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement in 3 years if the consumer pays the estimated monthly payment each month for 3 years; and
</P>
<P>(E) A toll-free telephone number where the consumer may obtain from the card issuer information about credit counseling services consistent with paragraph (b)(12)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Format requirements.</I> A card issuer must provide the disclosures required by paragraph (b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) of this section in accordance with the format requirements of paragraph (b)(13) of this section, and in a format substantially similar to Samples G-18(C)(1), G-18(C)(2) and G-18(C)(3) in appendix G to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Provision of information about credit counseling services</I>—(A) <I>Required information.</I> To the extent available from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator, a card issuer must provide through the toll-free telephone number disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) of this section the name, street address, telephone number, and Web site address for at least three organizations that have been approved by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 111(a)(1) to provide credit counseling services in, at the card issuer's option, either the state in which the billing address for the account is located or the state specified by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Updating required information.</I> At least annually, a card issuer must update the information provided pursuant to paragraph (b)(12)(iv)(A) of this section for consistency with the information available from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exemptions.</I> Paragraph (b)(12) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) Charge card accounts that require payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle;
</P>
<P>(B) A billing cycle immediately following two consecutive billing cycles in which the consumer paid the entire balance in full, had a zero outstanding balance or had a credit balance; and
</P>
<P>(C) A billing cycle where paying the minimum payment due for that billing cycle will pay the entire outstanding balance on the account for that billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Format requirements.</I> The due date required by paragraph (b)(11) of this section shall be disclosed on the front of the first page of the periodic statement. The amount of the late payment fee and the annual percentage rate(s) required by paragraph (b)(11) of this section shall be stated in close proximity to the due date. The ending balance required by paragraph (b)(10) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraph (b)(12) of this section shall be disclosed closely proximate to the minimum payment due. The due date, late payment fee and annual percentage rate, ending balance, minimum payment due, and disclosures required by paragraph (b)(12) of this section shall be grouped together. Sample G-18(D) in appendix G to this part sets forth an example of how these terms may be grouped.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> For accounts with an outstanding balance subject to a deferred interest or similar program, the date by which that outstanding balance must be paid in full in order to avoid the obligation to pay finance charges on such balance must be disclosed on the front of any page of each periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period beginning with the first periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period that reflects the deferred interest or similar transaction. The disclosure provided pursuant to this paragraph must be substantially similar to Sample G-18(H) in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.8" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.8   Identifying transactions on periodic statements.</HEAD>
<P>The creditor shall identify credit transactions on or with the first periodic statement that reflects the transaction by furnishing the following information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Sale credit.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, for each credit transaction involving the sale of property or services, the creditor must disclose the amount and date of the transaction, and either:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief identification of the property or services purchased, for creditors and sellers that are the same or related; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller's name; and the city and state or foreign country where the transaction took place. The creditor may omit the address or provide any suitable designation that helps the consumer to identify the transaction when the transaction took place at a location that is not fixed; took place in the consumer's home; or was a mail, Internet, or telephone order.
</P>
<P>(2) Creditors need not comply with paragraph (a)(1) of this section if an actual copy of the receipt or other credit document is provided with the first periodic statement reflecting the transaction, and the amount of the transaction and either the date of the transaction to the consumer's account or the date of debiting the transaction are disclosed on the copy or on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonsale credit.</I> For each credit transaction not involving the sale of property or services, the creditor must disclose a brief identification of the transaction; the amount of the transaction; and at least one of the following dates: The date of the transaction, the date the transaction was debited to the consumer's account, or, if the consumer signed the credit document, the date appearing on the document. If an actual copy of the receipt or other credit document is provided and that copy shows the amount and at least one of the specified dates, the brief identification may be omitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative creditor procedures; consumer inquiries for clarification or documentation.</I> The following procedures apply to creditors that treat an inquiry for clarification or documentation as a notice of a billing error, including correcting the account in accordance with § 1026.13(e):
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to disclose the information required by paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section is not a failure to comply with the regulation, provided that the creditor also maintains procedures reasonably designed to obtain and provide the information. This applies to transactions that take place outside a state, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(26), whether or not the creditor maintains procedures reasonably adapted to obtain the required information.
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to the brief identification for sale or nonsale credit, the creditor may disclose a number or symbol that also appears on the receipt or other credit document given to the consumer, if the number or symbol reasonably identifies that transaction with that creditor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.9" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.9   Subsequent disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Furnishing statement of billing rights</I>—(1) <I>Annual statement.</I> The creditor shall mail or deliver the billing rights statement required by § 1026.6(a)(5) and (b)(5)(iii) at least once per calendar year, at intervals of not less than 6 months nor more than 18 months, either to all consumers or to each consumer entitled to receive a periodic statement under § 1026.5(b)(2) for any one billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative summary statement.</I> As an alternative to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the creditor may mail or deliver, on or with each periodic statement, a statement substantially similar to Model Form G-4 or Model Form G-4(A) in appendix G to this part, as applicable. Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 may use either Model Form, at their option.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures for supplemental credit access devices and additional features.</I> (1) If a creditor, within 30 days after mailing or delivering the account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (b)(3)(ii)(A), as applicable, adds a credit feature to the consumer's account or mails or delivers to the consumer a credit access device, including but not limited to checks that access a credit card account, for which the finance charge terms are the same as those previously disclosed, no additional disclosures are necessary. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, after 30 days, if the creditor adds a credit feature or furnishes a credit access device (other than as a renewal, resupply, or the original issuance of a credit card) on the same finance charge terms, the creditor shall disclose, before the consumer uses the feature or device for the first time, that it is for use in obtaining credit under the terms previously disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, whenever a credit feature is added or a credit access device is mailed or delivered to the consumer, and the finance charge terms for the feature or device differ from disclosures previously given, the disclosures required by § 1026.6(a)(1) or (b)(3)(ii)(A), as applicable, that are applicable to the added feature or device shall be given before the consumer uses the feature or device for the first time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Checks that access a credit card account.</I> (i) <I>Disclosures.</I> For open-end plans not subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, if checks that can be used to access a credit card account are provided more than 30 days after account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6(b) are mailed or delivered, or are provided within 30 days of the account-opening disclosures and the finance charge terms for the checks differ from the finance charge terms previously disclosed, the creditor shall disclose on the front of the page containing the checks the following terms in the form of a table with the headings, content, and form substantially similar to Sample G-19 in appendix G to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) If a promotional rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(i) applies to the checks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The promotional rate and the time period during which the promotional rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The type of rate that will apply (such as whether the purchase or cash advance rate applies) after the promotional rate expires, and the annual percentage rate that will apply after the promotional rate expires. For a variable-rate account, a creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The date, if any, by which the consumer must use the checks in order to qualify for the promotional rate. If the creditor will honor checks used after such date but will apply an annual percentage rate other than the promotional rate, the creditor must disclose this fact and the type of annual percentage rate that will apply if the consumer uses the checks after such date.
</P>
<P>(B) If no promotional rate applies to the checks:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of rate that will apply to the checks and the applicable annual percentage rate. For a variable-rate account, a creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(C) Any transaction fees applicable to the checks disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(D) Whether or not a grace period is given within which any credit extended by use of the checks may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. When disclosing whether there is a grace period, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest on Check Transactions” shall be used as the row heading when a grace period applies to credit extended by the use of the checks. When disclosing the fact that no grace period exists for credit extended by use of the checks, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the row heading.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accuracy.</I> The disclosures in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section must be accurate as of the time the disclosures are mailed or delivered. A variable annual percentage rate is accurate if it was in effect within 60 days of when the disclosures are mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Variable rates.</I> If any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section is a variable rate, the card issuer shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Change in terms</I>—(1) <I>Rules affecting home-equity plans</I>—(i) <I>Written notice required.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, whenever any term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(a) is changed or the required minimum periodic payment is increased, the creditor shall mail or deliver written notice of the change to each consumer who may be affected. The notice shall be mailed or delivered at least 15 days prior to the effective date of the change. The 15-day timing requirement does not apply if the change has been agreed to by the consumer; the notice shall be given, however, before the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice not required.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, a creditor is not required to provide notice under this section when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge (except that on or after October 1, 2022, this provision on when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge does not apply to any change in the margin when a LIBOR index is replaced, as permitted by § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B)) or when the change results from an agreement involving a court proceeding.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Notice to restrict credit.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, if the creditor prohibits additional extensions of credit or reduces the credit limit pursuant to § 1026.40(f)(3)(i) or (f)(3)(vi), the creditor shall mail or deliver written notice of the action to each consumer who will be affected. The notice must be provided not later than three business days after the action is taken and shall contain specific reasons for the action. If the creditor requires the consumer to request reinstatement of credit privileges, the notice also shall state that fact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rules affecting open-end (not home-secured) plans</I>—(i) <I>Changes where written advance notice is required</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> For plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(B), (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(2)(v) of this section, when a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section is made, a creditor must provide a written notice of the change at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the change to each consumer who may be affected. The 45-day timing requirement does not apply if the consumer has agreed to a particular change as described in paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section; for such changes, notice must be given in accordance with the timing requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) of this section. Increases in the rate applicable to a consumer's account due to delinquency, default or as a penalty described in paragraph (g) of this section that are not due to a change in the contractual terms of the consumer's account must be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section instead of paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Changes agreed to by the consumer.</I> A notice of change in terms is required, but it may be mailed or delivered as late as the effective date of the change if the consumer agrees to the particular change. This paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B) applies only when a consumer substitutes collateral or when the creditor can advance additional credit only if a change relatively unique to that consumer is made, such as the consumer's providing additional security or paying an increased minimum payment amount. The following are not considered agreements between the consumer and the creditor for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(i)(B): The consumer's general acceptance of the creditor's contract reservation of the right to change terms; the consumer's use of the account (which might imply acceptance of its terms under state law); the consumer's acceptance of a unilateral term change that is not particular to that consumer, but rather is of general applicability to consumers with that type of account; and the consumer's request to reopen a closed account or to upgrade an existing account to another account offered by the creditor with different credit or other features.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Significant changes in account terms.</I> For purposes of this section, a “significant change in account terms” means a change to a term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), an increase in the required minimum periodic payment, a change to a term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(4), or the acquisition of a security interest.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charges not covered by § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section, if a creditor increases any component of a charge, or introduces a new charge, required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(3) that is not a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a creditor must either, at its option:
</P>
<P>(A) Comply with the requirements of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provide notice of the amount of the charge before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure of the charge. The notice may be provided orally or in writing.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Disclosure requirements</I>—(A) <I>Significant changes in account terms.</I> If a creditor makes a significant change in account terms as described in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must provide the following information:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A summary of the changes made to terms required by § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(4), a description of any increase in the required minimum periodic payment, and a description of any security interest being acquired by the creditor;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A statement that changes are being made to the account;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For accounts other than credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan subject to § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B), a statement indicating the consumer has the right to opt out of these changes, if applicable, and a reference to additional information describing the opt-out right provided in the notice, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The date the changes will become effective;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If applicable, a statement that the consumer may find additional information about the summarized changes, and other changes to the account, in the notice;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) If the creditor is changing a rate on the account, other than a penalty rate, a statement that if a penalty rate currently applies to the consumer's account, the new rate described in the notice will not apply to the consumer's account until the consumer's account balances are no longer subject to the penalty rate;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) If the change in terms being disclosed is an increase in an annual percentage rate, the balances to which the increased rate will be applied. If applicable, a statement identifying the balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the change in terms; and
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) If the change in terms being disclosed is an increase in an annual percentage rate for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a statement of no more than four principal reasons for the rate increase, listed in their order of importance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Right to reject for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> In addition to the disclosures in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, if a card issuer makes a significant change in account terms on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the creditor must generally provide the following information on the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. This information is not required to be provided in the case of an increase in the required minimum periodic payment, an increase in a fee as a result of a reevaluation of a determination made under § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) or an adjustment to the safe harbors in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index, a change in an annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's account, an increase in a fee previously reduced consistent with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation if the amount of the increased fee does not exceed the amount of that fee prior to the reduction, or when the change results from the creditor not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the consumer has the right to reject the change or changes prior to the effective date of the changes, unless the consumer fails to make a required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Instructions for rejecting the change or changes, and a toll-free telephone number that the consumer may use to notify the creditor of the rejection; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If applicable, a statement that if the consumer rejects the change or changes, the consumer's ability to use the account for further advances will be terminated or suspended.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Changes resulting from failure to make minimum periodic payment within 60 days from due date for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I> For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the significant change required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is an increase in an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must state that the increase will cease to apply to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days of provision of the notice, if the creditor receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date, beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the significant change required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is an increase in a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section must also state the reason for the increase.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Format requirements</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Tabular format.</I> The summary of changes described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must be in a tabular format (except for a summary of any increase in the required minimum periodic payment, a summary of a term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(4) that is not required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), or a description of any security interest being acquired by the creditor), with headings and format substantially similar to any of the account-opening tables found in G-17 in appendix G to this part. The table must disclose the changed term and information relevant to the change, if that relevant information is required by § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2). The new terms shall be described in the same level of detail as required when disclosing the terms under § 1026.6(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Notice included with periodic statement.</I> If a notice required by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must be disclosed on the front of any page of the statement. The summary of changes described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must immediately follow the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) through (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>7</I>) and, if applicable, paragraphs (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>), (c)(2)(iv)(B), and (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section, and be substantially similar to the format shown in Sample G-20 or G-21 in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Notice provided separately from periodic statement.</I> If a notice required by paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section is not included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must, at the creditor's option, be disclosed on the front of the first page of the notice or segregated on a separate page from other information given with the notice. The summary of changes required to be in a table pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section may be on more than one page, and may use both the front and reverse sides, so long as the table begins on the front of the first page of the notice and there is a reference on the first page indicating that the table continues on the following page. The summary of changes described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section must immediately follow the information described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>) through (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>7</I>) and, if applicable, paragraphs (c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>), (c)(2)(iv)(B), and (c)(2)(iv)(C), of this section, substantially similar to the format shown in Sample G-20 or G-21 in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Notice not required.</I> For open-end plans (other than home equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40) a creditor is not required to provide notice under this section:
</P>
<P>(A) When the change involves charges for documentary evidence; a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge (except that on or after October 1, 2022, this provision on when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge does not apply to any change in the margin when a LIBOR index is replaced, as permitted by § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii)); suspension of future credit privileges (except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section) or termination of an account or plan; when the change results from an agreement involving a court proceeding; when the change is an extension of the grace period; or if the change is applicable only to checks that access a credit card account and the changed terms are disclosed on or with the checks in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) When the change is an increase in an annual percentage rate or fee upon the expiration of a specified period of time, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Prior to commencement of that period, the creditor disclosed in writing to the consumer, in a clear and conspicuous manner, the length of the period and the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The disclosure of the length of the period and the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period are set forth in close proximity and in equal prominence to the first listing of the disclosure of the rate or fee that applies during the specified period of time; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The annual percentage rate or fee that applies after that period does not exceed the rate or fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this paragraph or, if the rate disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section was a variable rate, the rate following any such increase is a variable rate determined by the same formula (index and margin) that was used to calculate the variable rate disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>);
</P>
<P>(C) When the change is an increase in a variable annual percentage rate in accordance with a credit card or other account agreement that provides for changes in the rate according to operation of an index that is not under the control of the creditor and is available to the general public; or
</P>
<P>(D) When the change is an increase in an annual percentage rate, a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), (b)(2)(viii), (b)(2)(ix), (b)(2)(ix) or (b)(2)(xii), or the required minimum periodic payment due to the completion of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement by the consumer or the consumer's failure to comply with the terms of such an arrangement, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The annual percentage rate or fee or charge applicable to a category of transactions or the required minimum periodic payment following any such increase does not exceed the rate or fee or charge or required minimum periodic payment that applied to that category of transactions prior to commencement of the arrangement or, if the rate that applied to a category of transactions prior to the commencement of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement was a variable rate, the rate following any such increase is a variable rate determined by the same formula (index and margin) that applied to the category of transactions prior to commencement of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The creditor has provided the consumer, prior to the commencement of such arrangement, with a clear and conspicuous disclosure of the terms of the arrangement (including any increases due to such completion or failure). This disclosure must generally be provided in writing. However, a creditor may provide the disclosure of the terms of the arrangement orally by telephone, provided that the creditor mails or delivers a written disclosure of the terms of the arrangement to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the oral disclosure is provided.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Reduction of the credit limit.</I> For open-end plans that are not subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, if a creditor decreases the credit limit on an account, advance notice of the decrease must be provided before an over-the-limit fee or a penalty rate can be imposed solely as a result of the consumer exceeding the newly decreased credit limit. Notice shall be provided in writing or orally at least 45 days prior to imposing the over-the-limit fee or penalty rate and shall state that the credit limit on the account has been or will be decreased.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finance charge imposed at time of transaction.</I> (1) Any person, other than the card issuer, who imposes a finance charge at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card, shall disclose the amount of that finance charge prior to its imposition.
</P>
<P>(2) The card issuer, other than the person honoring the consumer's credit card, shall have no responsibility for the disclosure required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and shall not consider any such charge for the purposes of §§ 1026.60, 1026.6 and 1026.7.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures upon renewal of credit or charge card</I>—(1) <I>Notice prior to renewal.</I> A card issuer that imposes any annual or other periodic fee to renew a credit or charge card account of the type subject to § 1026.60, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity or any card issuer that has changed or amended any term of a cardholder's account required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) that has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, shall mail or deliver written notice of the renewal to the cardholder. If the card issuer imposes any annual or other periodic fee for renewal, the notice shall be provided at least 30 days or one billing cycle, whichever is less, before the mailing or the delivery of the periodic statement on which any renewal fee is initially charged to the account. If the card issuer has changed or amended any term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) and such changed or amended term has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, the notice shall be provided at least 30 days prior to the scheduled renewal date of the consumer's credit or charge card. The notice shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The disclosures contained in § 1026.60(b)(1) through (b)(7) that would apply if the account were renewed; and
</P>
<P>(ii) How and when the cardholder may terminate credit availability under the account to avoid paying the renewal fee, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification on periodic statements.</I> The disclosures required by this paragraph may be made on or with a periodic statement. If any of the disclosures are provided on the back of a periodic statement, the card issuer shall include a reference to those disclosures on the front of the statement.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Change in credit card account insurance provider</I>—(1) <I>Notice prior to change.</I> If a credit card issuer plans to change the provider of insurance for repayment of all or part of the outstanding balance of an open-end credit card account of the type subject to § 1026.60, the card issuer shall mail or deliver to the cardholder written notice of the change not less than 30 days before the change in provider occurs. The notice shall also include the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Any increase in the rate that will result from the change;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any substantial decrease in coverage that will result from the change; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the cardholder may discontinue the insurance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice when change in provider occurs.</I> If a change described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section occurs, the card issuer shall provide the cardholder with a written notice no later than 30 days after the change, including the following items, to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the new insurance provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the new policy or group certificate containing the basic terms of the insurance, including the rate to be charged; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the cardholder may discontinue the insurance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Substantial decrease in coverage.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, a substantial decrease in coverage is a decrease in a significant term of coverage that might reasonably be expected to affect the cardholder's decision to continue the insurance. Significant terms of coverage include, for example, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Type of coverage provided;
</P>
<P>(ii) Age at which coverage terminates or becomes more restrictive;
</P>
<P>(iii) Maximum insurable loan balance, maximum periodic benefit payment, maximum number of payments, or other term affecting the dollar amount of coverage or benefits provided;
</P>
<P>(iv) Eligibility requirements and number and identity of persons covered;
</P>
<P>(v) Definition of a key term of coverage such as disability;
</P>
<P>(vi) Exclusions from or limitations on coverage; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Waiting periods and whether coverage is retroactive.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Combined notification.</I> The notices required by paragraph (f)(1) and (2) of this section may be combined provided the timing requirement of paragraph (f)(1) of this section is met. The notices may be provided on or with a periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Increase in rates due to delinquency or default or as a penalty</I>—(1) <I>Increases subject to this section.</I> For plans other than home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, except as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section, a creditor must provide a written notice to each consumer who may be affected when:
</P>
<P>(i) A rate is increased due to the consumer's delinquency or default; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A rate is increased as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as making a late payment or obtaining an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of written notice.</I> Whenever any notice is required to be given pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the creditor shall provide written notice of the increase in rates at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the increase. The notice must be provided after the occurrence of the events described in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (g)(1)(ii) of this section that trigger the imposition of the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) <I>Disclosure requirements for rate increases</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> If a creditor is increasing the rate due to delinquency or default or as a penalty, the creditor must provide the following information on the notice sent pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement that the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate, as applicable, has been triggered;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The date on which the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will apply;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The circumstances under which the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate, as applicable, will cease to apply to the consumer's account, or that the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will remain in effect for a potentially indefinite time period;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A statement indicating to which balances the delinquency or default rate or penalty rate will be applied;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) If applicable, a description of any balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the rate increase, unless a consumer fails to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a statement of no more than four principal reasons for the rate increase, listed in their order of importance.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Rate increases resulting from failure to make minimum periodic payment within 60 days from due date.</I> For a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, if the rate increase required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section is an increase pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4) based on the consumer's failure to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment, the notice provided pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section must also state that the increase will cease to apply to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days of provision of the notice, if the creditor receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date, beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Format requirements.</I> (A) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section is included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section must be in the form of a table and provided on the front of any page of the periodic statement, above the notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section if that notice is provided on the same statement.
</P>
<P>(B) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(1) of this section is not included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) of this section must be disclosed on the front of the first page of the notice. Only information related to the increase in the rate to a penalty rate may be included with the notice, except that this notice may be combined with a notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) or (g)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for decrease in credit limit.</I> A creditor is not required to provide a notice pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section prior to increasing the rate for obtaining an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor provides at least 45 days in advance of imposing the penalty rate a notice, in writing, that includes:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the credit limit on the account has been or will be decreased.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement indicating the date on which the penalty rate will apply, if the outstanding balance exceeds the credit limit as of that date;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the penalty rate will not be imposed on the date specified in paragraph (g)(4)(i)(B) of this section, if the outstanding balance does not exceed the credit limit as of that date;
</P>
<P>(D) The circumstances under which the penalty rate, if applied, will cease to apply to the account, or that the penalty rate, if applied, will remain in effect for a potentially indefinite time period;
</P>
<P>(E) A statement indicating to which balances the penalty rate may be applied; and
</P>
<P>(F) If applicable, a description of any balances to which the current rate will continue to apply as of the effective date of the rate increase, unless the consumer fails to make a minimum periodic payment within 60 days from the due date for that payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor does not increase the rate applicable to the consumer's account to the penalty rate if the outstanding balance does not exceed the credit limit on the date set forth in the notice and described in paragraph (g)(4)(i)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii)(A) If a notice provided pursuant to paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section is included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section must be in the form of a table and provided on the front of any page of the periodic statement; or
</P>
<P>(B) If a notice required by paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section is not included on or with a periodic statement, the information described in paragraph (g)(4)(i) of this section must be disclosed on the front of the first page of the notice. Only information related to the reduction in credit limit may be included with the notice, except that this notice may be combined with a notice described in paragraph (c)(2)(iv) or (g)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer rejection of certain significant changes in terms</I>—(1) <I>Right to reject.</I> If paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(B) of this section requires disclosure of the consumer's right to reject a significant change to an account term, the consumer may reject that change by notifying the creditor of the rejection before the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect of rejection.</I> If a creditor is notified of a rejection of a significant change to an account term as provided in paragraph (h)(1) of this section, the creditor must not:
</P>
<P>(i) Apply the change to the account;
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose a fee or charge or treat the account as in default solely as a result of the rejection; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Require repayment of the balance on the account using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the methods listed in § 1026.55(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception.</I> Section 1026.9(h) does not apply when the creditor has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 69781, Dec. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.10" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.10   Payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor shall credit a payment to the consumer's account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in a finance or other charge or except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Specific requirements for payments</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor may specify reasonable requirements for payments that enable most consumers to make conforming payments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Examples of reasonable requirements for payments.</I> Reasonable requirements for making payment may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Requiring that payments be accompanied by the account number or payment stub;
</P>
<P>(ii) Setting reasonable cut-off times for payments to be received by mail, by electronic means, by telephone, and in person (except as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section), provided that such cut-off times shall be no earlier than 5 p.m. on the payment due date at the location specified by the creditor for the receipt of such payments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Specifying that only checks or money orders should be sent by mail;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specifying that payment is to be made in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(v) Specifying one particular address for receiving payments, such as a post office box.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>In-person payments on credit card accounts</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding § 1026.10(b), payments on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan made in person at a branch or office of a card issuer that is a financial institution prior to the close of business of that branch or office shall be considered received on the date on which the consumer makes the payment. A card issuer that is a financial institution shall not impose a cut-off time earlier than the close of business for any such payments made in person at any branch or office of the card issuer at which such payments are accepted. Notwithstanding § 1026.10(b)(2)(ii), a card issuer may impose a cut-off time earlier than 5 p.m. for such payments, if the close of business of the branch or office is earlier than 5 p.m.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Financial institution.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(3) of this section, “financial institution” shall mean a bank, savings association, or credit union.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Nonconforming payments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section, if a creditor specifies, on or with the periodic statement, requirements for the consumer to follow in making payments as permitted under this § 1026.10, but accepts a payment that does not conform to the requirements, the creditor shall credit the payment within five days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Payment methods promoted by creditor.</I> If a creditor promotes a method for making payments, such payments shall be considered conforming payments in accordance with this paragraph (b) and shall be credited to the consumer's account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in a finance or other charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustment of account.</I> If a creditor fails to credit a payment, as required by paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, in time to avoid the imposition of finance or other charges, the creditor shall adjust the consumer's account so that the charges imposed are credited to the consumer's account during the next billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Crediting of payments when creditor does not receive or accept payments on due date</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, if a creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail on the due date for payments, the creditor may generally not treat a payment received the next business day as late for any purpose. For purposes of this paragraph (d), the “next business day” means the next day on which the creditor accepts or receives payments by mail.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments accepted or received other than by mail.</I> If a creditor accepts or receives payments made on the due date by a method other than mail, such as electronic or telephone payments, the creditor is not required to treat a payment made by that method on the next business day as timely, even if it does not accept mailed payments on the due date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations on fees related to method of payment.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a creditor may not impose a separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment by any method, such as mail, electronic, or telephone payments, unless such payment method involves an expedited service by a customer service representative of the creditor. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term “creditor” includes a third party that collects, receives, or processes payments on behalf of a creditor.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Changes by card issuer.</I> If a card issuer makes a material change in the address for receiving payments or procedures for handling payments, and such change causes a material delay in the crediting of a payment to the consumer's account during the 60-day period following the date on which such change took effect, the card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the credit card account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.11" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.11   Treatment of credit balances; account termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credit balances.</I> When a credit balance in excess of $1 is created on a credit account (through transmittal of funds to a creditor in excess of the total balance due on an account, through rebates of unearned finance charges or insurance premiums, or through amounts otherwise owed to or held for the benefit of the consumer), the creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Credit the amount of the credit balance to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(2) Refund any part of the remaining credit balance within seven business days from receipt of a written request from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(3) Make a good faith effort to refund to the consumer by cash, check, or money order, or credit to a deposit account of the consumer, any part of the credit balance remaining in the account for more than six months. No further action is required if the consumer's current location is not known to the creditor and cannot be traced through the consumer's last known address or telephone number.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Account termination.</I> (1) A creditor shall not terminate an account prior to its expiration date solely because the consumer does not incur a finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section prohibits a creditor from terminating an account that is inactive for three or more consecutive months. An account is inactive for purposes of this paragraph if no credit has been extended (such as by purchase, cash advance or balance transfer) and if the account has no outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timely settlement of estate debts</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> (i) <I>Reasonable policies and procedures required.</I> For credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, card issuers must adopt reasonable written policies and procedures designed to ensure that an administrator of an estate of a deceased accountholder can determine the amount of and pay any balance on the account in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to joint accounts.</I> Paragraph (c) of this section does not apply to the account of a deceased consumer if a joint accountholder remains on the account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timely statement of balance</I>—(i) <I>Requirement.</I> Upon request by the administrator of an estate, a card issuer must provide the administrator with the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, providing the amount of the balance on the account within 30 days of receiving the request is deemed to be timely.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations after receipt of request from administrator</I>—(i) <I>Limitation on fees and increases in annual percentage rates.</I> After receiving a request from the administrator of an estate for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account, a card issuer must not impose any fees on the account (such as a late fee, annual fee, or over-the-limit fee) or increase any annual percentage rate, except as provided by § 1026.55(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation on trailing or residual interest.</I> A card issuer must waive or rebate any additional finance charge due to a periodic interest rate if payment in full of the balance disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section is received within 30 days after disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.12" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.12   Special credit card provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance of credit cards.</I> Regardless of the purpose for which a credit card is to be used, including business, commercial, or agricultural use, no credit card shall be issued to any person except:
</P>
<P>(1) In response to an oral or written request or application for the card; or
</P>
<P>(2) As a renewal of, or substitute for, an accepted credit card.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Liability of cardholder for unauthorized use</I>—(1)(i) <I>Definition of unauthorized use.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “unauthorized use” means the use of a credit card by a person, other than the cardholder, who does not have actual, implied, or apparent authority for such use, and from which the cardholder receives no benefit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limitation on amount.</I> The liability of a cardholder for unauthorized use of a credit card shall not exceed the lesser of $50 or the amount of money, property, labor, or services obtained by the unauthorized use before notification to the card issuer under paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions of liability.</I> A cardholder shall be liable for unauthorized use of a credit card only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit card is an accepted credit card;
</P>
<P>(ii) The card issuer has provided adequate notice of the cardholder's maximum potential liability and of means by which the card issuer may be notified of loss or theft of the card. The notice shall state that the cardholder's liability shall not exceed $50 (or any lesser amount) and that the cardholder may give oral or written notification, and shall describe a means of notification (for example, a telephone number, an address, or both); and
</P>
<P>(iii) The card issuer has provided a means to identify the cardholder on the account or the authorized user of the card.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification to card issuer.</I> Notification to a card issuer is given when steps have been taken as may be reasonably required in the ordinary course of business to provide the card issuer with the pertinent information about the loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use of a credit card, regardless of whether any particular officer, employee, or agent of the card issuer does, in fact, receive the information. Notification may be given, at the option of the person giving it, in person, by telephone, or in writing. Notification in writing is considered given at the time of receipt or, whether or not received, at the expiration of the time ordinarily required for transmission, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of other applicable law or agreement.</I> If state law or an agreement between a cardholder and the card issuer imposes lesser liability than that provided in this paragraph, the lesser liability shall govern.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Business use of credit cards.</I> If 10 or more credit cards are issued by one card issuer for use by the employees of an organization, this section does not prohibit the card issuer and the organization from agreeing to liability for unauthorized use without regard to this section. However, liability for unauthorized use may be imposed on an employee of the organization, by either the card issuer or the organization, only in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Right of cardholder to assert claims or defenses against card issuer</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> When a person who honors a credit card fails to resolve satisfactorily a dispute as to property or services purchased with the credit card in a consumer credit transaction, the cardholder may assert against the card issuer all claims (other than tort claims) and defenses arising out of the transaction and relating to the failure to resolve the dispute. The cardholder may withhold payment up to the amount of credit outstanding for the property or services that gave rise to the dispute and any finance or other charges imposed on that amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I> If, in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the cardholder withholds payment of the amount of credit outstanding for the disputed transaction, the card issuer shall not report that amount as delinquent until the dispute is settled or judgment is rendered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The rights stated in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section apply only if:
</P>
<P>(A) The cardholder has made a good faith attempt to resolve the dispute with the person honoring the credit card; and
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of credit extended to obtain the property or services that result in the assertion of the claim or defense by the cardholder exceeds $50, and the disputed transaction occurred in the same state as the cardholder's current designated address or, if not within the same state, within 100 miles from that address.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusion.</I> The limitations stated in paragraph (c)(3)(i)(B) of this section shall not apply when the person honoring the credit card:
</P>
<P>(A) Is the same person as the card issuer;
</P>
<P>(B) Is controlled by the card issuer directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(C) Is under the direct or indirect control of a third person that also directly or indirectly controls the card issuer;
</P>
<P>(D) Controls the card issuer directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(E) Is a franchised dealer in the card issuer's products or services; or
</P>
<P>(F) Has obtained the order for the disputed transaction through a mail solicitation made or participated in by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Offsets by card issuer prohibited</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> A card issuer may not take any action, either before or after termination of credit card privileges, to offset a cardholder's indebtedness arising from a consumer credit transaction under the relevant credit card plan against funds of the cardholder held on deposit with the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rights of the card issuer.</I> This paragraph (d) does not alter or affect the right of a card issuer acting under state or Federal law to do any of the following with regard to funds of a cardholder held on deposit with the card issuer if the same procedure is constitutionally available to creditors generally: Obtain or enforce a consensual security interest in the funds; attach or otherwise levy upon the funds; or obtain or enforce a court order relating to the funds.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Periodic deductions.</I> (i) This paragraph (d) does not prohibit a plan, if authorized in writing by the cardholder, under which the card issuer may periodically deduct all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from a deposit account held with the card issuer (subject to the limitations in § 1026.13(d)(1)).
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, for purposes of this paragraph (d)(3), “periodically” means no more frequently than once per calendar month, such as on a monthly due date disclosed on the applicable periodic statement in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A) or on an earlier date in each calendar month in accordance with a written authorization signed by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prompt notification of returns and crediting of refunds.</I> (1) When a creditor other than the card issuer accepts the return of property or forgives a debt for services that is to be reflected as a credit to the consumer's credit card account, that creditor shall, within 7 business days from accepting the return or forgiving the debt, transmit a credit statement to the card issuer through the card issuer's normal channels for credit statements.
</P>
<P>(2) The card issuer shall, within 3 business days from receipt of a credit statement, credit the consumer's account with the amount of the refund.
</P>
<P>(3) If a creditor other than a card issuer routinely gives cash refunds to consumers paying in cash, the creditor shall also give credit or cash refunds to consumers using credit cards, unless it discloses at the time the transaction is consummated that credit or cash refunds for returns are not given. This section does not require refunds for returns nor does it prohibit refunds in kind.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Discounts; tie-in arrangements.</I> No card issuer may, by contract or otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibit any person who honors a credit card from offering a discount to a consumer to induce the consumer to pay by cash, check, or similar means rather than by use of a credit card or its underlying account for the purchase of property or services; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require any person who honors the card issuer's credit card to open or maintain any account or obtain any other service not essential to the operation of the credit card plan from the card issuer or any other person, as a condition of participation in a credit card plan. If maintenance of an account for clearing purposes is determined to be essential to the operation of the credit card plan, it may be required only if no service charges or minimum balance requirements are imposed.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E.</I> For guidance on whether Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) or Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) applies in instances involving both credit and electronic fund transfer aspects, refer to Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.12(a) regarding issuance and liability for unauthorized use. On matters other than issuance and liability, this section applies to the credit aspects of combined credit/electronic fund transfer transactions, as applicable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.13" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.13   Billing error resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition of billing error.</I> For purposes of this section, the term billing error means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit that is not made to the consumer or to a person who has actual, implied, or apparent authority to use the consumer's credit card or open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit that is not identified in accordance with the requirements of §§ 1026.7(a)(2) or (b)(2), as applicable, and 1026.8.
</P>
<P>(3) A reflection on or with a periodic statement of an extension of credit for property or services not accepted by the consumer or the consumer's designee, or not delivered to the consumer or the consumer's designee as agreed.
</P>
<P>(4) A reflection on a periodic statement of the creditor's failure to credit properly a payment or other credit issued to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(5) A reflection on a periodic statement of a computational or similar error of an accounting nature that is made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(6) A reflection on a periodic statement of an extension of credit for which the consumer requests additional clarification, including documentary evidence.
</P>
<P>(7) The creditor's failure to mail or deliver a periodic statement to the consumer's last known address if that address was received by the creditor, in writing, at least 20 days before the end of the billing cycle for which the statement was required.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Billing error notice.</I> A billing error notice is a written notice from a consumer that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is received by a creditor at the address disclosed under § 1026.7(a)(9) or (b)(9), as applicable, no later than 60 days after the creditor transmitted the first periodic statement that reflects the alleged billing error;
</P>
<P>(2) Enables the creditor to identify the consumer's name and account number; and
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent possible, indicates the consumer's belief and the reasons for the belief that a billing error exists, and the type, date, and amount of the error.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time for resolution; general procedures.</I> (1) The creditor shall mail or deliver written acknowledgment to the consumer within 30 days of receiving a billing error notice, unless the creditor has complied with the appropriate resolution procedures of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, as applicable, within the 30-day period; and
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor shall comply with the appropriate resolution procedures of paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section, as applicable, within 2 complete billing cycles (but in no event later than 90 days) after receiving a billing error notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rules pending resolution.</I> Until a billing error is resolved under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer's right to withhold disputed amount; collection action prohibited.</I> The consumer need not pay (and the creditor may not try to collect) any portion of any required payment that the consumer believes is related to the disputed amount (including related finance or other charges). If the cardholder has enrolled in an automatic payment plan offered by the card issuer and has agreed to pay the credit card indebtedness by periodic deductions from the cardholder's deposit account, the card issuer shall not deduct any part of the disputed amount or related finance or other charges if a billing error notice is received any time up to 3 business days before the scheduled payment date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adverse credit reports prohibited.</I> The creditor or its agent shall not (directly or indirectly) make or threaten to make an adverse report to any person about the consumer's credit standing, or report that an amount or account is delinquent, because the consumer failed to pay the disputed amount or related finance or other charges.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Acceleration of debt and restriction of account prohibited.</I> A creditor shall not accelerate any part of the consumer's indebtedness or restrict or close a consumer's account solely because the consumer has exercised in good faith rights provided by this section. A creditor may be subject to the forfeiture penalty under 15 U.S.C. 1666(e) for failure to comply with any of the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Permitted creditor actions.</I> A creditor is not prohibited from taking action to collect any undisputed portion of the item or bill; from deducting any disputed amount and related finance or other charges from the consumer's credit limit on the account; or from reflecting a disputed amount and related finance or other charges on a periodic statement, provided that the creditor indicates on or with the periodic statement that payment of any disputed amount and related finance or other charges is not required pending the creditor's compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Procedures if billing error occurred as asserted.</I> If a creditor determines that a billing error occurred as asserted, it shall within the time limits in paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Correct the billing error and credit the consumer's account with any disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(2) Mail or deliver a correction notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Procedures if different billing error or no billing error occurred.</I> If, after conducting a reasonable investigation, a creditor determines that no billing error occurred or that a different billing error occurred from that asserted, the creditor shall within the time limits in paragraph (c)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Mail or deliver to the consumer an explanation that sets forth the reasons for the creditor's belief that the billing error alleged by the consumer is incorrect in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish copies of documentary evidence of the consumer's indebtedness, if the consumer so requests; and
</P>
<P>(3) If a different billing error occurred, correct the billing error and credit the consumer's account with any disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Creditor's rights and duties after resolution.</I> If a creditor, after complying with all of the requirements of this section, determines that a consumer owes all or part of the disputed amount and related finance or other charges, the creditor:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall promptly notify the consumer in writing of the time when payment is due and the portion of the disputed amount and related finance or other charges that the consumer still owes;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall allow any time period disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (b)(2)(v), as applicable, and § 1026.7(a)(8) or (b)(8), as applicable, during which the consumer can pay the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of this section without incurring additional finance or other charges;
</P>
<P>(3) May report an account or amount as delinquent because the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of this section remains unpaid after the creditor has allowed any time period disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (b)(2)(v), as applicable, and § 1026.7(a)(8) or (b)(8), as applicable or 10 days (whichever is longer) during which the consumer can pay the amount; but
</P>
<P>(4) May not report that an amount or account is delinquent because the amount due under paragraph (g)(1) of the section remains unpaid, if the creditor receives (within the time allowed for payment in paragraph (g)(3) of this section) further written notice from the consumer that any portion of the billing error is still in dispute, unless the creditor also:
</P>
<P>(i) Promptly reports that the amount or account is in dispute;
</P>
<P>(ii) Mails or delivers to the consumer (at the same time the report is made) a written notice of the name and address of each person to whom the creditor makes a report; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reports any subsequent resolution of the reported delinquency to all persons to whom the creditor has made a report.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Reassertion of billing error.</I> A creditor that has fully complied with the requirements of this section has no further responsibilities under this section (other than as provided in paragraph (g)(4) of this section) if a consumer reasserts substantially the same billing error.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E.</I> A creditor shall comply with the requirements of Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.11, and 1005.18(e) as applicable, governing error resolution rather than those of paragraphs (a), (b), (c), (e), (f), and (h) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) Except with respect to a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61, an extension of credit that is incident to an electronic fund transfer occurs under an agreement between the consumer and a financial institution to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn or to maintain a specified minimum balance in the consumer's account; or
</P>
<P>(2) With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account where both are accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, an extension of credit that is incident to an electronic fund transfer occurs when the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses both funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account and a credit extension from the credit feature with respect to a particular transaction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84369, Nov. 22, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.14" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.14   Determination of annual percentage rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The annual percentage rate is a measure of the cost of credit, expressed as a yearly rate. An annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with this section. An error in disclosure of the annual percentage rate or finance charge shall not, in itself, be considered a violation of this part if:
</P>
<P>(1) The error resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(2) Upon discovery of the error, the creditor promptly discontinues use of that calculation tool for disclosure purposes, and notifies the Bureau in writing of the error in the calculation tool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual percentage rate—in general.</I> Where one or more periodic rates may be used to compute the finance charge, the annual percentage rate(s) to be disclosed for purposes of §§ 1026.60, 1026.40, 1026.6, 1026.7(a)(4) or (b)(4), 1026.9, 1026.15, 1026.16, 1026.26, 1026.55, and 1026.56 shall be computed by multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in a year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional effective annual percentage rate for periodic statements for creditors offering open-end credit plans secured by a consumer's dwelling.</I> A creditor offering an open-end plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 need not disclose an effective annual percentage rate. Such a creditor may, at its option, disclose an effective annual percentage rate(s) pursuant to § 1026.7(a)(7) and compute the effective annual percentage rate as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Solely periodic rates imposed.</I> If the finance charge is determined solely by applying one or more periodic rates, at the creditor's option, either:
</P>
<P>(i) By multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in a year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By dividing the total finance charge for the billing cycle by the sum of the balances to which the periodic rates were applied and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum or fixed charge, but not transaction charge, imposed.</I> If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate, other than a charge with respect to any specific transaction during the billing cycle, by dividing the total finance charge for the billing cycle by the amount of the balance(s) to which it is applicable and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year. If there is no balance to which the finance charge is applicable, an annual percentage rate cannot be determined under this section. Where the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to opening, renewing, or continuing an account, the amount of such charge shall not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transaction charge imposed.</I> If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a charge relating to a specific transaction during the billing cycle (even if the total finance charge also includes any other minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate), by dividing the total finance charge imposed during the billing cycle by the total of all balances and other amounts on which a finance charge was imposed during the billing cycle without duplication, and multiplying the quotient (expressed as a percentage) by the number of billing cycles in a year, except that the annual percentage rate shall not be less than the largest rate determined by multiplying each periodic rate imposed during the billing cycle by the number of periods in a year. Where the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to the opening, renewing, or continuing an account, the amount of such charge shall not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate. See appendix F to this part regarding determination of the denominator of the fraction under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) If the finance charge imposed during the billing cycle is or includes a minimum, fixed, or other charge not due to the application of a periodic rate and the total finance charge imposed during the billing cycle does not exceed 50 cents for a monthly or longer billing cycle, or the pro rata part of 50 cents for a billing cycle shorter than monthly, at the creditor's option, by multiplying each applicable periodic rate by the number of periods in a year, notwithstanding the provisions of paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculations where daily periodic rate applied.</I> If the provisions of paragraph (c)(1)(ii) or (c)(2) of this section apply and all or a portion of the finance charge is determined by the application of one or more daily periodic rates, the annual percentage rate may be determined either:
</P>
<P>(1) By dividing the total finance charge by the average of the daily balances and multiplying the quotient by the number of billing cycles in a year; or
</P>
<P>(2) By dividing the total finance charge by the sum of the daily balances and multiplying the quotient by 365.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.15" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.15   Right of rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer's right to rescind.</I> (1)(i) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, in a credit plan in which a security interest is or will be retained or acquired in a consumer's principal dwelling, each consumer whose ownership interest is or will be subject to the security interest shall have the right to rescind: each credit extension made under the plan; the plan when the plan is opened; a security interest when added or increased to secure an existing plan; and the increase when a credit limit on the plan is increased.
</P>
<P>(ii) As provided in section 125(e) of the Act, the consumer does not have the right to rescind each credit extension made under the plan if such extension is made in accordance with a previously established credit limit for the plan.
</P>
<P>(2) To exercise the right to rescind, the consumer shall notify the creditor of the rescission by mail, telegram, or other means of written communication. Notice is considered given when mailed, or when filed for telegraphic transmission, or, if sent by other means, when delivered to the creditor's designated place of business.
</P>
<P>(3) The consumer may exercise the right to rescind until midnight of the third business day following the occurrence described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section that gave rise to the right of rescission, delivery of the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section, or delivery of all material disclosures, whichever occurs last. If the required notice and material disclosures are not delivered, the right to rescind shall expire 3 years after the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission, or upon transfer of all of the consumer's interest in the property, or upon sale of the property, whichever occurs first. In the case of certain administrative proceedings, the rescission period shall be extended in accordance with section 125(f) of the Act. The term <I>material disclosures</I> means the information that must be provided to satisfy the requirements in § 1026.6 with regard to the method of determining the finance charge and the balance upon which a finance charge will be imposed, the annual percentage rate, the amount or method of determining the amount of any membership or participation fee that may be imposed as part of the plan, and the payment information described in § 1026.40(d)(5)(i) and (ii) that is required under § 1026.6(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the exercise of the right by one consumer shall be effective as to all consumers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of right to rescind.</I> In any transaction or occurrence subject to rescission, a creditor shall deliver two copies of the notice of the right to rescind to each consumer entitled to rescind (one copy to each if the notice is delivered in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act). The notice shall identify the transaction or occurrence and clearly and conspicuously disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The retention or acquisition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer's right to rescind, as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) How to exercise the right to rescind, with a form for that purpose, designating the address of the creditor's place of business.
</P>
<P>(4) The effects of rescission, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The date the rescission period expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delay of creditor's performance.</I> Unless a consumer waives the right to rescind under paragraph (e) of this section, no money shall be disbursed other than in escrow, no services shall be performed, and no materials delivered until after the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. A creditor does not violate this section if a third party with no knowledge of the event activating the rescission right does not delay in providing materials or services, as long as the debt incurred for those materials or services is not secured by the property subject to rescission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of rescission.</I> (1) When a consumer rescinds a transaction, the security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void, and the consumer shall not be liable for any amount, including any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 20 calendar days after receipt of a notice of rescission, the creditor shall return any money or property that has been given to anyone in connection with the transaction and shall take any action necessary to reflect the termination of the security interest.
</P>
<P>(3) If the creditor has delivered any money or property, the consumer may retain possession until the creditor has met its obligation under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. When the creditor has complied with that paragraph, the consumer shall tender the money or property to the creditor or, where the latter would be impracticable or inequitable, tender its reasonable value. At the consumer's option, tender of property may be made at the location of the property or at the consumer's residence. Tender of money must be made at the creditor's designated place of business. If the creditor does not take possession of the money or property within 20 calendar days after the consumer's tender, the consumer may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures outlined in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section may be modified by court order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I> The consumer may modify or waive the right to rescind if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the right to rescind, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to rescind. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The right to rescind does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A credit plan in which a state agency is a creditor.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.16" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.16   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actually available terms.</I> If an advertisement for credit states specific credit terms, it shall state only those terms that actually are or will be arranged or offered by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I> (1) Any term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(3) set forth affirmatively or negatively in an advertisement for an open-end (not home-secured) credit plan triggers additional disclosures under this section. Any term required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (a)(2) set forth affirmatively or negatively in an advertisement for a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 triggers additional disclosures under this section. If any of the terms that trigger additional disclosures under this paragraph is set forth in an advertisement, the advertisement shall also clearly and conspicuously set forth the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any minimum, fixed, transaction, activity or similar charge that is a finance charge under § 1026.4 that could be imposed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any periodic rate that may be applied expressed as an annual percentage rate as determined under § 1026.14(b). If the plan provides for a variable periodic rate, that fact shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any membership or participation fee that could be imposed.
</P>
<P>(2) If an advertisement for credit to finance the purchase of goods or services specified in the advertisement states a periodic payment amount, the advertisement shall also state the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation, assuming that the consumer pays only the periodic payment amount advertised. The disclosure of the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation must be equally prominent to the statement of the periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Catalogs or other multiple-page advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I> (1) If a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement, or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), gives information in a table or schedule in sufficient detail to permit determination of the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section, it shall be considered a single advertisement if:
</P>
<P>(i) The table or schedule is clearly and conspicuously set forth; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any statement of terms set forth in § 1026.6 appearing anywhere else in the catalog or advertisement clearly refers to the page or location where the table or schedule begins.
</P>
<P>(2) A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) complies with this paragraph if the table or schedule of terms includes all appropriate disclosures for a representative scale of amounts up to the level of the more commonly sold higher-priced property or services offered.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional requirements for home-equity plans</I>—(1) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures.</I> If any of the terms required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (a)(2) or the payment terms of the plan are set forth, affirmatively or negatively, in an advertisement for a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, the advertisement also shall clearly and conspicuously set forth the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Any loan fee that is a percentage of the credit limit under the plan and an estimate of any other fees imposed for opening the plan, stated as a single dollar amount or a reasonable range.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any periodic rate used to compute the finance charge, expressed as an annual percentage rate as determined under § 1026.14(b).
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed in a variable-rate plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discounted and premium rates.</I> If an advertisement states an initial annual percentage rate that is not based on the index and margin used to make later rate adjustments in a variable-rate plan, the advertisement also shall state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the initial rate:
</P>
<P>(i) The period of time such initial rate will be in effect; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonably current annual percentage rate that would have been in effect using the index and margin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Balloon payment.</I> If an advertisement contains a statement of any minimum periodic payment and a balloon payment may result if only the minimum periodic payments are made, even if such a payment is uncertain or unlikely, the advertisement also shall state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum periodic payment statement that a balloon payment may result, if applicable. A balloon payment results if paying the minimum periodic payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the consumer is required to repay the entire outstanding balance at such time. If a balloon payment will occur when the consumer makes only the minimum payments required under the plan, an advertisement for such a program which contains any statement of any minimum periodic payment shall also state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum periodic payment statement:
</P>
<P>(i) That a balloon payment will result; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount and timing of the balloon payment that will result if the consumer makes only the minimum payments for the maximum period of time that the consumer is permitted to make such payments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tax implications.</I> An advertisement that states that any interest expense incurred under the home-equity plan is or may be tax deductible may not be misleading in this regard. If an advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) is for a home-equity plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, and the advertisement states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the dwelling, the advertisement shall clearly and conspicuously state that:
</P>
<P>(i) The interest on the portion of the credit extension that is greater than the fair market value of the dwelling is not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer should consult a tax adviser for further information regarding the deductibility of interest and charges.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Misleading terms.</I> An advertisement may not refer to a home-equity plan as “free money” or contain a similarly misleading term.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Promotional rates and payments.</I> (i) <I>Definitions.</I> The following definitions apply for purposes of paragraph (d)(6) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Promotional rate.</I> The term “promotional rate” means, in a variable-rate plan, any annual percentage rate that is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make rate adjustments under the plan, if that rate is less than a reasonably current annual percentage rate that would be in effect under the index and margin that will be used to make rate adjustments under the plan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Promotional payment.</I> The term “promotional payment” means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For a variable-rate plan, any minimum payment applicable for a promotional period that:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Is not derived by applying the index and margin to the outstanding balance when such index and margin will be used to determine other minimum payments under the plan; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Is less than other minimum payments under the plan derived by applying a reasonably current index and margin that will be used to determine the amount of such payments, given an assumed balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For a plan other than a variable-rate plan, any minimum payment applicable for a promotional period if that payment is less than other payments required under the plan given an assumed balance.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Promotional period.</I> A “promotional period” means a period of time, less than the full term of the loan, that the promotional rate or promotional payment may be applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Stating the promotional period and post-promotional rate or payments.</I> If any annual percentage rate that may be applied to a plan is a promotional rate, or if any payment applicable to a plan is a promotional payment, the following must be disclosed in any advertisement, other than television or radio advertisements, in a clear and conspicuous manner with equal prominence and in close proximity to each listing of the promotional rate or payment:
</P>
<P>(A) The period of time during which the promotional rate or promotional payment will apply;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a promotional rate, any annual percentage rate that will apply under the plan. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate must be disclosed in accordance with the accuracy standards in § 1026.40 or § 1026.16(b)(1)(ii) as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(C) In the case of a promotional payment, the amounts and time periods of any payments that will apply under the plan. In variable-rate transactions, payments that will be determined based on application of an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section do not apply to an envelope in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any of the terms requiring additional disclosures under paragraphs (b)(1) or (d)(1) of this section may alternatively comply with paragraphs (b)(1) or (d)(1) of this section by stating the information required by paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) or (d)(1)(ii) of this section, as applicable, and listing a toll-free telephone number, or any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information, along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain the additional cost information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Misleading terms.</I> An advertisement may not refer to an annual percentage rate as “fixed,” or use a similar term, unless the advertisement also specifies a time period that the rate will be fixed and the rate will not increase during that period, or if no such time period is provided, the rate will not increase while the plan is open.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Promotional rates and fees</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement of an open-end (not home-secured) plan, including promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 1026.60(c) or accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 1026.60(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> (i) <I>Promotional rate</I> means any annual percentage rate applicable to one or more balances or transactions on an open-end (not home-secured) plan for a specified period of time that is lower than the annual percentage rate that will be in effect at the end of that period on such balances or transactions.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Introductory rate</I> means a promotional rate offered in connection with the opening of an account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Promotional period</I> means the maximum time period for which a promotional rate or promotional fee may be applicable.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Promotional fee</I> means a fee required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (2) applicable to an open-end (not home-secured) plan, or to one or more balances or transactions on an open-end (not home-secured) plan, for a specified period of time that is lower than the fee that will be in effect at the end of that period for such plan or types of balances or transactions.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Introductory fee</I> means a promotional fee offered in connection with the opening of an account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stating the term “introductory”.</I> If any annual percentage rate or fee that may be applied to the account is an introductory rate or introductory fee, the term <I>introductory</I> or <I>intro</I> must be in immediate proximity to each listing of the introductory rate or introductory fee in a written or electronic advertisement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stating the promotional period and post-promotional rate or fee.</I> If any annual percentage rate that may be applied to the account is a promotional rate under paragraph (g)(2)(i) of this section or any fee that may be applied to the account is a promotional fee under paragraph (g)(2)(iv) of this section, the information in paragraphs (g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section must be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner in the advertisement. If the rate or fee is stated in a written or electronic advertisement, the information in paragraphs (g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) or (iii) of this section must also be stated in a prominent location closely proximate to the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee.
</P>
<P>(i) When the promotional rate or promotional fee will end;
</P>
<P>(ii) The annual percentage rate that will apply after the end of the promotional period. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate must comply with the accuracy standards in § 1026.60(c)(2), § 1026.60(d)(3), § 1026.60(e)(4), or § 1026.16(b)(1)(ii), as applicable. If such rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given because the rate depends at least in part on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness, the advertisement must disclose the specific rates or the range of rates that might apply; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The fee that will apply after the end of the promotional period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (g)(4) of this section do not apply to an envelope or other enclosure in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement, linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Deferred interest or similar offers</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement of an open-end credit plan not subject to § 1026.40, including promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 1026.60(c) or accompanying applications or solicitations subject to § 1026.60(e).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> “Deferred interest” means finance charges, accrued on balances or transactions, that a consumer is not obligated to pay or that will be waived or refunded to a consumer if those balances or transactions are paid in full by a specified date. The maximum period from the date the consumer becomes obligated for the balance or transaction until the specified date by which the consumer must pay the balance or transaction in full in order to avoid finance charges, or receive a waiver or refund of finance charges, is the “deferred interest period.” “Deferred interest” does not include any finance charges the consumer avoids paying in connection with any recurring grace period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Stating the deferred interest period.</I> If a deferred interest offer is advertised, the deferred interest period must be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner in the advertisement. If the phrase “no interest” or similar term regarding the possible avoidance of interest obligations under the deferred interest program is stated, the term “if paid in full” must also be stated in a clear and conspicuous manner preceding the disclosure of the deferred interest period in the advertisement. If the deferred interest offer is included in a written or electronic advertisement, the deferred interest period and, if applicable, the term “if paid in full” must also be stated in immediate proximity to each statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stating the terms of the deferred interest or similar offer.</I> If any deferred interest offer is advertised, the information in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this section must be stated in the advertisement, in language similar to Sample G-24 in appendix G to this part. If the deferred interest offer is included in a written or electronic advertisement, the information in paragraphs (h)(4)(i) and (h)(4)(ii) of this section must also be stated in a prominent location closely proximate to the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that interest will be charged from the date the consumer becomes obligated for the balance or transaction subject to the deferred interest offer if the balance or transaction is not paid in full within the deferred interest period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement, if applicable, that interest will be charged from the date the consumer incurs the balance or transaction subject to the deferred interest offer if the account is in default before the end of the deferred interest period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraph (h)(4) of this section do not apply to an envelope or other enclosure in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Closed-End Credit</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.17" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.17   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Except for the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e), (f), and (g): 
</P>
<P>(1) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by §§ 1026.17(g), 1026.19(b), and 1026.24 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. The disclosures shall be grouped together, shall be segregated from everything else, and shall not contain any information not directly related to the disclosures required under § 1026.18, § 1026.20(c) and (d), or § 1026.47. The disclosures required by § 1026.20(d) shall be provided as a separate document from all other written materials. The disclosures may include an acknowledgment of receipt, the date of the transaction, and the consumer's name, address, and account number. The following disclosures may be made together with or separately from other required disclosures: The creditor's identity under § 1026.18(a), the variable rate example under § 1026.18(f)(1)(iv), insurance or debt cancellation under § 1026.18(n), and certain security interest charges under § 1026.18(o). The itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c)(1) must be separate from the other disclosures under § 1026.18, except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47.
</P>
<P>(2) Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47, the terms “finance charge” and “annual percentage rate,” when required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(d) and (e) together with a corresponding amount or percentage rate, shall be more conspicuous than any other disclosure, except the creditor's identity under § 1026.18(a). For private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47, the term “annual percentage rate,” and the corresponding percentage rate must be less conspicuous than the term “finance charge” and corresponding amount under § 1026.18(d), the interest rate under §§ 1026.47(b)(1)(i) and (c)(1), and the notice of the right to cancel under § 1026.47(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall make disclosures before consummation of the transaction. In certain residential mortgage transactions, special timing requirements are set forth in § 1026.19(a). In certain variable-rate transactions, special timing requirements for variable-rate disclosures are set forth in §§ 1026.19(b) and 1026.20(c) and (d). For private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47, special timing requirements are set forth in § 1026.46(d). In certain transactions involving mail or telephone orders or a series of sales, the timing of disclosures may be delayed in accordance with paragraphs (g) and (h) of this section. This paragraph (b) does not apply to the disclosures required by §§ 1026.19(e), (f), and (g) and 1026.20(e).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates.</I> (1) The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a transaction in which a portion of the interest is determined on a per-diem basis and collected at consummation, any disclosure affected by the per-diem interest shall be considered accurate if the disclosure is based on the information known to the creditor at the time that the disclosure documents are prepared for consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) The creditor may disregard the effects of the following in making calculations and disclosures.
</P>
<P>(i) That payments must be collected in whole cents.
</P>
<P>(ii) That dates of scheduled payments and advances may be changed because the scheduled date is not a business day.
</P>
<P>(iii) That months have different numbers of days.
</P>
<P>(iv) The occurrence of leap year.
</P>
<P>(4) In making calculations and disclosures, the creditor may disregard any irregularity in the first period that falls within the limits described below and any payment schedule irregularity that results from the irregular first period:
</P>
<P>(i) For transactions in which the term is less than 1 year, a first period not more than 6 days shorter or 13 days longer than a regular period;
</P>
<P>(ii) For transactions in which the term is at least 1 year and less than 10 years, a first period not more than 11 days shorter or 21 days longer than a regular period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For transactions in which the term is at least 10 years, a first period shorter than or not more than 32 days longer than a regular period.
</P>
<P>(5) If an obligation is payable on demand, the creditor shall make the disclosures based on an assumed maturity of 1 year. If an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation between the parties, the disclosures shall be based on that date.
</P>
<P>(6)(i) A series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount may be considered as one transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) When a multiple-advance loan to finance the construction of a dwelling may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as either one transaction or more than one transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation. If the transaction is rescindable under § 1026.23, however, the disclosures shall be made to each consumer who has the right to rescind.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of this part, although new disclosures may be required under paragraph (f) of this section, § 1026.19, § 1026.20, or § 1026.48(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Early disclosures.</I> Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47, if disclosures required by this subpart are given before the date of consummation of a transaction and a subsequent event makes them inaccurate, the creditor shall disclose before consummation (subject to the provisions of § 1026.19(a)(2), (e), and (f)):
</P>
<P>(1) Any changed term unless the term was based on an estimate in accordance with § 1026.17(c)(2) and was labeled an estimate;
</P>
<P>(2) All changed terms, if the annual percentage rate at the time of consummation varies from the annual percentage rate disclosed earlier by more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point in a regular transaction, or more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point in an irregular transaction, as defined in § 1026.22(a).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mail or telephone orders—delay in disclosures.</I> Except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47 and mortgage disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.19(a) or (e), (f), and (g), if a creditor receives a purchase order or a request for an extension of credit by mail, telephone, or facsimile machine without face-to-face or direct telephone solicitation, the creditor may delay the disclosures until the due date of the first payment, if the following information for representative amounts or ranges of credit is made available in written form or in electronic form to the consumer or to the public before the actual purchase order or request:
</P>
<P>(1) The cash price or the principal loan amount.
</P>
<P>(2) The total sale price.
</P>
<P>(3) The finance charge.
</P>
<P>(4) The annual percentage rate, and if the rate may increase after consummation, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any limitations on the increase.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of an increase.
</P>
<P>(5) The terms of repayment.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Series of sales—delay in disclosures.</I> Except for mortgage disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.19(a) or (e), (f), and (g), if a credit sale is one of a series made under an agreement providing that subsequent sales may be added to an outstanding balance, the creditor may delay the required disclosures until the due date of the first payment for the current sale, if the following two conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The consumer has approved in writing the annual percentage rate or rates, the range of balances to which they apply, and the method of treating any unearned finance charge on an existing balance.
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor retains no security interest in any property after the creditor has received payments equal to the cash price and any finance charge attributable to the sale of that property. For purposes of this provision, in the case of items purchased on different dates, the first purchased is deemed the first item paid for; in the case of items purchased on the same date, the lowest priced is deemed the first item paid for.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Interim student credit extensions.</I> For transactions involving an interim credit extension under a student credit program for which an application is received prior to the mandatory compliance date of §§ 1026.46, 47, and 48, the creditor need not make the following disclosures: the finance charge under § 1026.18(d), the payment schedule under § 1026.18(g), the total of payments under § 1026.18(h), or the total sale price under § 1026.18(j) at the time the credit is actually extended. The creditor must make complete disclosures at the time the creditor and consumer agree upon the repayment schedule for the total obligation. At that time, a new set of disclosures must be made of all applicable items under § 1026.18.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 11004, Feb. 14, 2013; 78 FR 80107, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.18" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.18   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>For each transaction other than a mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), the creditor shall disclose the following information as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Creditor.</I> The identity of the creditor making the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount financed.</I> The <I>amount financed,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as <I>the amount of credit provided to you or on your behalf.</I> The amount financed is calculated by:
</P>
<P>(1) Determining the principal loan amount or the cash price (subtracting any downpayment);
</P>
<P>(2) Adding any other amounts that are financed by the creditor and are not part of the finance charge; and
</P>
<P>(3) Subtracting any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Itemization of amount financed.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(3) of this section, a separate written itemization of the amount financed, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of any proceeds distributed directly to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount credited to the consumer's account with the creditor.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any amounts paid to other persons by the creditor on the consumer's behalf. The creditor shall identify those persons. The following payees may be described using generic or other general terms and need not be further identified: public officials or government agencies, credit reporting agencies, appraisers, and insurance companies.
</P>
<P>(iv) The prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) The creditor need not comply with paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the creditor provides a statement that the consumer has the right to receive a written itemization of the amount financed, together with a space for the consumer to indicate whether it is desired, and the consumer does not request it.
</P>
<P>(3) Good faith estimates of settlement costs provided for transactions subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Finance charge.</I> The <I>finance charge,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as “the dollar amount the credit will cost you.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mortgage loans.</I> In a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, the disclosed finance charge and other disclosures affected by the disclosed finance charge (including the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be treated as accurate if the amount disclosed as the finance charge:
</P>
<P>(i) Is understated by no more than $100; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other credit.</I> In any other transaction, the amount disclosed as the finance charge shall be treated as accurate if, in a transaction involving an amount financed of $1,000 or less, it is not more than $5 above or below the amount required to be disclosed; or, in a transaction involving an amount financed of more than $1,000, it is not more than $10 above or below the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The <I>annual percentage rate,</I> using that term, and a brief description such as “the cost of your credit as a yearly rate.” For any transaction involving a finance charge of $5 or less on an amount financed of $75 or less, or a finance charge of $7.50 or less on an amount financed of more than $75, the creditor need not disclose the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Variable rate.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(3) of this section, if the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction not secured by the consumer's principal dwelling or in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term of one year or less, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(i) The circumstances under which the rate may increase.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any limitations on the increase.
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of an increase.
</P>
<P>(iv) An example of the payment terms that would result from an increase.
</P>
<P>(2) If the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the transaction contains a variable-rate feature.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that variable-rate disclosures have been provided earlier.
</P>
<P>(3) Information provided in accordance with §§ 1026.18(f)(2) and 1026.19(b) may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Payment schedule.</I> Other than for a transaction that is subject to paragraph (s) of this section, the number, amounts, and timing of payments scheduled to repay the obligation.
</P>
<P>(1) In a demand obligation with no alternate maturity date, the creditor may comply with this paragraph by disclosing the due dates or payment periods of any scheduled interest payments for the first year.
</P>
<P>(2) In a transaction in which a series of payments varies because a finance charge is applied to the unpaid principal balance, the creditor may comply with this paragraph by disclosing the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The dollar amounts of the largest and smallest payments in the series.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reference to the variations in the other payments in the series.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Total of payments.</I> The <I>total of payments,</I> using that term, and a descriptive explanation such as “the amount you will have paid when you have made all scheduled payments.” In any transaction involving a single payment, the creditor need not disclose the total of payments.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Demand feature.</I> If the obligation has a demand feature, that fact shall be disclosed. When the disclosures are based on an assumed maturity of 1 year as provided in § 1026.17(c)(5), that fact shall also be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Total sale price.</I> In a credit sale, the <I>total sale price,</I> using that term, and a descriptive explanation (including the amount of any downpayment) such as “the total price of your purchase on credit, including your downpayment of $____.” The total sale price is the sum of the cash price, the items described in paragraph (b)(2), and the finance charge disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Prepayment.</I> (1) When an obligation includes a finance charge computed from time to time by application of a rate to the unpaid principal balance, a statement indicating whether or not a charge may be imposed for paying all or part of a loan's principal balance before the date on which the principal is due.
</P>
<P>(2) When an obligation includes a finance charge other than the finance charge described in paragraph (k)(1) of this section, a statement indicating whether or not the consumer is entitled to a rebate of any finance charge if the obligation is prepaid in full or in part.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Late payment.</I> Any dollar or percentage charge that may be imposed before maturity due to a late payment, other than a deferral or extension charge.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Security interest.</I> The fact that the creditor has or will acquire a security interest in the property purchased as part of the transaction, or in other property identified by item or type.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Insurance and debt cancellation.</I> The items required by § 1026.4(d) in order to exclude certain insurance premiums and debt cancellation fees from the finance charge.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Certain security interest charges.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.4(e) in order to exclude from the finance charge certain fees prescribed by law or certain premiums for insurance in lieu of perfecting a security interest.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Contract reference.</I> A statement that the consumer should refer to the appropriate contract document for information about nonpayment, default, the right to accelerate the maturity of the obligation, and prepayment rebates and penalties. At the creditor's option, the statement may also include a reference to the contract for further information about security interests and, in a residential mortgage transaction, about the creditor's policy regarding assumption of the obligation.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Assumption policy.</I> In a residential mortgage transaction, a statement whether or not a subsequent purchaser of the dwelling from the consumer may be permitted to assume the remaining obligation on its original terms.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Required deposit.</I> If the creditor requires the consumer to maintain a deposit as a condition of the specific transaction, a statement that the annual percentage rate does not reflect the effect of the required deposit. A required deposit need not include, for example:
</P>
<P>(1) An escrow account for items such as taxes, insurance or repairs;
</P>
<P>(2) A deposit that earns not less than 5 percent per year; or
</P>
<P>(3) Payments under a Morris Plan.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Interest rate and payment summary for mortgage transactions.</I> For a closed-end transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, other than a transaction that is subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), the creditor shall disclose the following information about the interest rate and payments:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The information in paragraphs (s)(2)-(4) of this section shall be in the form of a table, with no more than five columns, with headings and format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), or H-4(H) in appendix H to this part. The table shall contain only the information required in paragraphs (s)(2)-(4) of this section, shall be placed in a prominent location, and shall be in a minimum 10-point font.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interest rates</I>—(i) <I>Amortizing loans.</I> (A) For a fixed-rate mortgage, the interest rate at consummation.
</P>
<P>(B) For an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The interest rate at consummation and the period of time until the first interest rate adjustment may occur, labeled as the “introductory rate and monthly payment”;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due and the earliest date on which that rate may apply, labeled as “maximum during first five years”; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maximum interest rate that may apply during the life of the loan and the earliest date on which that rate may apply, labeled as “maximum ever.”
</P>
<P>(C) If the loan provides for payment increases as described in paragraph (s)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the interest rate in effect at the time the first such payment increase is scheduled to occur and the date on which the increase will occur, labeled as “first adjustment” if the loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage or, otherwise, labeled as “first increase.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> For a negative amortization loan:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate at consummation and, if it will adjust after consummation, the length of time until it will adjust, and the label “introductory” or “intro”;
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum interest rate that could apply when the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments under the terms of the legal obligation;
</P>
<P>(C) If the minimum required payment will increase before the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, the maximum interest rate that could apply at the time of the first payment increase and the date the increase is scheduled to occur; and(D) If a second increase in the minimum required payment may occur before the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, the maximum interest rate that could apply at the time of the second payment increase and the date the increase is scheduled to occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Introductory rate disclosure for amortizing adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> For an amortizing adjustable-rate mortgage, if the interest rate at consummation is less than the fully-indexed rate, placed in a box directly beneath the table required by paragraph (s)(1) of this section, in a format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(I) in appendix H to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate that applies at consummation and the period of time for which it applies;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that, even if market rates do not change, the interest rate will increase at the first adjustment and a designation of the place in sequence of the month or year, as applicable, of such rate adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(C) The fully-indexed rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payments for amortizing loans</I>—(i) <I>Principal and interest payments.</I> If all periodic payments will be applied to accrued interest and principal, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The corresponding periodic principal and interest payment, labeled as “principal and interest;”
</P>
<P>(B) If the periodic payment may increase without regard to an interest rate adjustment, the payment that corresponds to the first such increase and the earliest date on which the increase could occur;
</P>
<P>(C) If an escrow account will be established, an estimate of the amount of taxes and insurance, including any mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent, payable with each periodic payment; and 
</P>
<P>(D) The sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (s)(3)(i)(A) and (C) of this section or (s)(3)(i)(B) and (C) of this section, as applicable, labeled as “total estimated monthly payment.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interest-only payments.</I> If the loan is an interest-only loan, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(i) of this section, the corresponding periodic payment and:
</P>
<P>(A) If the payment will be applied to only accrued interest, the amount applied to interest, labeled as “interest payment,” and a statement that none of the payment is being applied to principal;
</P>
<P>(B) If the payment will be applied to accrued interest and principal, an itemization of the amount of the first such payment applied to accrued interest and to principal, labeled as “interest payment” and “principal payment,” respectively;
</P>
<P>(C) The escrow information described in paragraph (s)(3)(i)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) The sum of all amounts required to be disclosed under paragraphs (s)(3)(ii)(A) and (C) of this section or (s)(3)(ii)(B) and (C) of this section, as applicable, labeled as “total estimated monthly payment.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payments for negative amortization loans.</I> For negative amortization loans:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) The minimum periodic payment required until the first payment increase or interest rate increase, corresponding to the interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The minimum periodic payment that would be due at the first payment increase and the second, if any, corresponding to the interest rates described in paragraphs (s)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the minimum payment pays only some interest, does not repay any principal, and will cause the loan amount to increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) The fully amortizing periodic payment amount at the earliest time when such a payment must be made, corresponding to the interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If applicable, in addition to the payments in paragraphs (s)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, for each interest rate disclosed under paragraph (s)(2)(ii) of this section, the amount of the fully amortizing periodic payment, labeled as the “full payment option,” and a statement that these payments pay all principal and all accrued interest.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balloon payments.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (s)(5)(ii) of this section, if the transaction will require a balloon payment, defined as a payment that is more than two times a regular periodic payment, the balloon payment shall be disclosed separately from other periodic payments disclosed in the table under this paragraph (s), outside the table and in a manner substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(J) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the balloon payment is scheduled to occur at the same time as another payment required to be disclosed in the table pursuant to paragraph (s)(3) or (s)(4) of this section, then the balloon payment must be disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Special disclosures for loans with negative amortization.</I> For a negative amortization loan, the following information, in close proximity to the table required in paragraph (s)(1) of this section, with headings, content, and format substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(G) in appendix H to this part:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum interest rate, the shortest period of time in which such interest rate could be reached, the amount of estimated taxes and insurance included in each payment disclosed, and a statement that the loan offers payment options, two of which are shown.
</P>
<P>(ii) The dollar amount of the increase in the loan's principal balance if the consumer makes only the minimum required payments for the maximum possible time and the earliest date on which the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, assuming that the maximum interest rate is reached at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this § 1026.18(s):
</P>
<P>(i) The term “adjustable-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling for which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “step-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling for which the interest rate will change after consummation, and the rates that will apply and the periods for which they will apply are known at consummation.
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “fixed-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling that is not an adjustable-rate mortgage or a step-rate mortgage.
</P>
<P>(iv) The term “interest-only” means that, under the terms of the legal obligation, one or more of the periodic payments may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal; an “interest-only loan” is a loan that permits interest-only payments.
</P>
<P>(v) The term “amortizing loan” means a loan in which payment of the periodic payments does not result in an increase in the principal balance under the terms of the legal obligation; the term “negative amortization” means payment of periodic payments that will result in an increase in the principal balance under the terms of the legal obligation; the term “negative amortization loan” means a loan, other than a reverse mortgage subject to § 1026.33, that provides for a minimum periodic payment that covers only a portion of the accrued interest, resulting in negative amortization.
</P>
<P>(vi) The term “fully-indexed rate” means the interest rate calculated using the index value and margin at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>(t) “<I>No-guarantee-to-refinance” statement</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> For a closed-end transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, other than a transaction that is subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), the creditor shall disclose a statement that there is no guarantee the consumer can refinance the transaction to lower the interest rate or periodic payments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Format.</I> The statement required by paragraph (t)(1) of this section must be in a form substantially similar to Model Clause H-4(K) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80108, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.19" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.19   Certain mortgage and variable-rate transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mortgage transactions subject to RESPA</I>—(1)(i) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> In a reverse mortgage transaction subject to both § 1026.33 and the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) that is secured by the consumer's dwelling, the creditor shall provide the consumer with good faith estimates of the disclosures required by § 1026.18 and shall deliver or place them in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's written application.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Imposition of fees.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, neither a creditor nor any other person may impose a fee on a consumer in connection with the consumer's application for a reverse mortgage transaction subject to paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section before the consumer has received the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section. If the disclosures are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception to fee restriction.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a fee for obtaining the consumer's credit history before the consumer has received the disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, provided the fee is <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable in amount.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiting periods for early disclosures and corrected disclosures.</I> (i) The creditor shall deliver or place in the mail the good faith estimates required by paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the annual percentage rate disclosed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section becomes inaccurate, as defined in § 1026.22, the creditor shall provide corrected disclosures with all changed terms. The consumer must receive the corrected disclosures no later than three business days before consummation. If the corrected disclosures are mailed to the consumer or delivered to the consumer by means other than delivery in person, the consumer is deemed to have received the corrected disclosures three business days after they are mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> If the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency, the consumer may modify or waive the seven-business-day waiting period or the three-business-day waiting period required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, after receiving the disclosures required by § 1026.18. To modify or waive a waiting period, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all the consumers who are primarily liable on the legal obligation. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice.</I> Disclosures made pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) or paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall contain the following statement: “You are not required to complete this agreement merely because you have received these disclosures or signed a loan application.” The disclosure required by this paragraph shall be grouped together with the disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain variable-rate transactions.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, if the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation in a transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, the following disclosures must be provided at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a non-refundable fee, whichever is earlier (except that the disclosures may be delivered or placed in the mail not later than three business days following receipt of a consumer's application when the application reaches the creditor by telephone, or through an intermediary agent or broker):
</P>
<P>(1) The booklet titled <I>Consumer Handbook on Adjustable Rate Mortgages,</I> or a suitable substitute.
</P>
<P>(2) A loan program disclosure for each variable-rate program in which the consumer expresses an interest. The following disclosures, as applicable, shall be provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the interest rate, payment, or term of the loan can change.
</P>
<P>(ii) The index or formula used in making adjustments, and a source of information about the index or formula.
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of how the interest rate and payment will be determined, including an explanation of how the index is adjusted, such as by the addition of a margin.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that the consumer should ask about the current margin value and current interest rate.
</P>
<P>(v) The fact that the interest rate will be discounted, and a statement that the consumer should ask about the amount of the interest rate discount.
</P>
<P>(vi) The frequency of interest rate and payment changes.
</P>
<P>(vii) Any rules relating to changes in the index, interest rate, payment amount, and outstanding loan balance including, for example, an explanation of interest rate or payment limitations, negative amortization, and interest rate carryover.
</P>
<P>(viii) At the option of the creditor, either of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) A historical example, based on a $10,000 loan amount, illustrating how payments and the loan balance would have been affected by interest rate changes implemented according to the terms of the loan program disclosure. The example shall reflect the most recent 15 years of index values. The example shall reflect all significant loan program terms, such as negative amortization, interest rate carryover, interest rate discounts, and interest rate and payment limitations, that would have been affected by the index movement during the period.
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum interest rate and payment for a $10,000 loan originated at the initial interest rate (index value plus margin, adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure assuming the maximum periodic increases in rates and payments under the program; and the initial interest rate and payment for that loan and a statement that the periodic payment may increase or decrease substantially depending on changes in the rate.
</P>
<P>(ix) An explanation of how the consumer may calculate the payments for the loan amount to be borrowed based on either:
</P>
<P>(A) The most recent payment shown in the historical example in paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(A) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The initial interest rate used to calculate the maximum interest rate and payment in paragraph (b)(2)(viii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) The fact that the loan program contains a demand feature.
</P>
<P>(xi) The type of information that will be provided in notices of adjustments and the timing of such notices.
</P>
<P>(xii) A statement that disclosure forms are available for the creditor's other variable-rate loan programs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> For an application that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application.
</P>
<P>(d) Information provided in accordance with variable-rate regulations of other Federal agencies may be substituted for the disclosures required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mortgage loans—early disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Provision of disclosures</I>—(i) <I>Creditor.</I> In a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than a reverse mortgage subject to § 1026.33, the creditor shall provide the consumer with good faith estimates of the disclosures in § 1026.37.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Mortgage broker.</I> (A) If a mortgage broker receives a consumer's application, either the creditor or the mortgage broker shall provide a consumer with the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section in accordance with paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section. If the mortgage broker provides the required disclosures, the mortgage broker shall comply with all relevant requirements of this paragraph (e). The creditor shall ensure that such disclosures are provided in accordance with all requirements of this paragraph (e). Disclosures provided by a mortgage broker in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (e) satisfy the creditor's obligation under this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(B) If a mortgage broker provides any disclosure under § 1026.19(e), the mortgage broker shall also comply with the requirements of § 1026.25(c).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Timing.</I> (A) The creditor shall deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(3).
</P>
<P>(B) Except as set forth in paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(C) of this section, the creditor shall deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(C) For a transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(B) of this section does not apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Receipt of early disclosures.</I> If any disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> If the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency, the consumer may modify or waive the seven-business-day waiting period for early disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, after receiving the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. To modify or waive the waiting period, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all the consumers who are primarily liable on the legal obligation. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Shopping for settlement service providers</I>—(A) <I>Shopping permitted.</I> A creditor permits a consumer to shop for a settlement service if the creditor permits the consumer to select the provider of that service, subject to reasonable requirements.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Disclosure of services.</I> The creditor shall identify the settlement services for which the consumer is permitted to shop in the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Written list of providers.</I> If the consumer is permitted to shop for a settlement service, the creditor shall provide the consumer with a written list identifying available providers of that settlement service and stating that the consumer may choose a different provider for that service. The creditor must identify at least one available provider for each settlement service for which the consumer is permitted to shop. The creditor shall provide this written list of settlement service providers separately from the disclosures required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section but in accordance with the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Predisclosure activity</I>—(i) <I>Imposition of fees on consumer</I>—(A) <I>Fee restriction.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2)(i)(B) of this section, neither a creditor nor any other person may impose a fee on a consumer in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage transaction subject to paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section before the consumer has received the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and indicated to the creditor an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures. A consumer may indicate an intent to proceed with a transaction in any manner the consumer chooses, unless a particular manner of communication is required by the creditor. The creditor must document this communication to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.25.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Exception to fee restriction.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a bona fide and reasonable fee for obtaining the consumer's credit report before the consumer has received the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written information provided to consumer.</I> If a creditor or other person provides a consumer with a written estimate of terms or costs specific to that consumer before the consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, the creditor or such person shall clearly and conspicuously state at the top of the front of the first page of the estimate in a font size that is no smaller than 12-point font: “Your actual rate, payment, and costs could be higher. Get an official Loan Estimate before choosing a loan.” The written estimate of terms or costs may not be made with headings, content, and format substantially similar to form H-24 or H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Verification of information.</I> The creditor or other person shall not require a consumer to submit documents verifying information related to the consumer's application before providing the disclosures required by paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Good faith determination for estimates of closing costs</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> An estimated closing cost disclosed pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section is in good faith if the charge paid by or imposed on the consumer does not exceed the amount originally disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (e)(3)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Limited increases permitted for certain charges.</I> An estimate of a charge for a third-party service or a recording fee is in good faith if:
</P>
<P>(A) The aggregate amount of charges for third-party services and recording fees paid by or imposed on the consumer does not exceed the aggregate amount of such charges disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section by more than 10 percent;
</P>
<P>(B) The charge for the third-party service is not paid to the creditor or an affiliate of the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor permits the consumer to shop for the third-party service, consistent with paragraph (e)(1)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Variations permitted for certain charges.</I> An estimate of any of the charges specified in this paragraph (e)(3)(iii) is in good faith if it is consistent with the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time it is disclosed, regardless of whether the amount paid by the consumer exceeds the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section. For purposes of paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, good faith is determined under this paragraph (e)(3)(iii) even if such charges are paid to the creditor or affiliates of the creditor, so long as the charges are bona fide:
</P>
<P>(A) Prepaid interest;
</P>
<P>(B) Property insurance premiums;
</P>
<P>(C) Amounts placed into an escrow, impound, reserve, or similar account;
</P>
<P>(D) Charges paid to third-party service providers selected by the consumer consistent with paragraph (e)(1)(vi)(A) of this section that are not on the list provided under paragraph (e)(1)(vi)(C) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Property taxes and other charges paid for third-party services not required by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Revised estimates.</I> For the purpose of determining good faith under paragraph (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a creditor may use a revised estimate of a charge instead of the estimate of the charge originally disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section if the revision is due to any of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Changed circumstance affecting settlement charges.</I> Changed circumstances cause the estimated charges to increase or, in the case of estimated charges identified in paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section, cause the aggregate amount of such charges to increase by more than 10 percent. For purposes of this paragraph, “changed circumstance” means:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An extraordinary event beyond the control of any interested party or other unexpected event specific to the consumer or transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Information specific to the consumer or transaction that the creditor relied upon when providing the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section and that was inaccurate or changed after the disclosures were provided; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) New information specific to the consumer or transaction that the creditor did not rely on when providing the original disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Changed circumstance affecting eligibility.</I> The consumer is ineligible for an estimated charge previously disclosed because a changed circumstance, as defined under paragraph (e)(3)(iv)(A) of this section, affected the consumer's creditworthiness or the value of the security for the loan.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Revisions requested by the consumer.</I> The consumer requests revisions to the credit terms or the settlement that cause an estimated charge to increase.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Interest rate dependent charges.</I> The points or lender credits change because the interest rate was not locked when the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section were provided. No later than three business days after the date the interest rate is locked, the creditor shall provide a revised version of the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section to the consumer with the revised interest rate, the points disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(1), lender credits, and any other interest rate dependent charges and terms.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Expiration.</I> The consumer indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction more than 10 business days, or more than any additional number of days specified by the creditor before the offer expires, after the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section are provided pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Delayed settlement date on a construction loan.</I> In transactions involving new construction, where the creditor reasonably expects that settlement will occur more than 60 days after the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section are provided pursuant to paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, the creditor may provide revised disclosures to the consumer if the original disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section state clearly and conspicuously that at any time prior to 60 days before consummation, the creditor may issue revised disclosures. If no such statement is provided, the creditor may not issue revised disclosures, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (e)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Provision and receipt of revised disclosures</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to the requirements of paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section, if a creditor uses a revised estimate pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(iv) of this section for the purpose of determining good faith under paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, the creditor shall provide a revised version of the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section or the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section (including any corrected disclosures provided under paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section) reflecting the revised estimate within three business days of receiving information sufficient to establish that one of the reasons for revision provided under paragraphs (e)(3)(iv)(A) through (F) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Relationship between revised Loan Estimates and Closing Disclosures.</I> The creditor shall not provide a revised version of the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section on or after the date on which the creditor provides the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section. The consumer must receive any revised version of the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section not later than four business days prior to consummation. If the revised version of the disclosures required under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received such version three business days after the creditor delivers or places such version in the mail.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mortgage loans—final disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Provision of disclosures</I>—(i) <I>Scope.</I> In a transaction subject to paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section, the creditor shall provide the consumer with the disclosures required under § 1026.38 reflecting the actual terms of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii)(B), (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(iii), (f)(2)(iv), and (f)(2)(v) of this section, the creditor shall ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section no later than three business days before consummation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Timeshares.</I> For transactions secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), the creditor shall ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section no later than consummation.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Receipt of disclosures.</I> If any disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I> If the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency, the consumer may modify or waive the three-business-day waiting period under paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(A) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section, after receiving the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section. To modify or waive the waiting period, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all consumers who are primarily liable on the legal obligation. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Settlement agent.</I> A settlement agent may provide a consumer with the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, provided the settlement agent complies with all relevant requirements of this paragraph (f). The creditor shall ensure that such disclosures are provided in accordance with all requirements of this paragraph (f). Disclosures provided by a settlement agent in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (f) satisfy the creditor's obligation under this paragraph (f).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsequent changes</I>—(i) <I>Changes before consummation not requiring a new waiting period.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2)(ii), if the disclosures provided under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section become inaccurate before consummation, the creditor shall provide corrected disclosures reflecting any changed terms to the consumer so that the consumer receives the corrected disclosures at or before consummation. Notwithstanding the requirement to provide corrected disclosures at or before consummation, the creditor shall permit the consumer to inspect the disclosures provided under this paragraph, completed to set forth those items that are known to the creditor at the time of inspection, during the business day immediately preceding consummation, but the creditor may omit from inspection items related only to the seller's transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Changes before consummation requiring a new waiting period.</I> If one of the following disclosures provided under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section becomes inaccurate in the following manner before consummation, the creditor shall ensure that the consumer receives corrected disclosures containing all changed terms in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The annual percentage rate disclosed under § 1026.38(o)(4) becomes inaccurate, as defined in § 1026.22.
</P>
<P>(B) The loan product is changed, causing the information disclosed under § 1026.38(a)(5)(iii) to become inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(C) A prepayment penalty is added, causing the statement regarding a prepayment penalty required under § 1026.38(b) to become inaccurate.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Changes due to events occurring after consummation.</I> If during the 30-day period following consummation, an event in connection with the settlement of the transaction occurs that causes the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section to become inaccurate, and such inaccuracy results in a change to an amount actually paid by the consumer from that amount disclosed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, the creditor shall deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures not later than 30 days after receiving information sufficient to establish that such event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Changes due to clerical errors.</I> A creditor does not violate paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section if the disclosures provided under paragraph (f)(1)(i) contain non-numeric clerical errors, provided the creditor delivers or places in the mail corrected disclosures no later than 60 days after consummation.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Refunds related to the good faith analysis.</I> If amounts paid by the consumer exceed the amounts specified under paragraph (e)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section, the creditor complies with paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section if the creditor refunds the excess to the consumer no later than 60 days after consummation, and the creditor complies with paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section if the creditor delivers or places in the mail corrected disclosures that reflect such refund no later than 60 days after consummation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Charges disclosed</I>—(i) <I>Actual charge.</I> The amount imposed upon the consumer for any settlement service shall not exceed the amount actually received by the settlement service provider for that service, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Average charge.</I> A creditor or settlement service provider may charge a consumer or seller the average charge for a settlement service if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(A) The average charge is no more than the average amount paid for that service by or on behalf of all consumers and sellers for a class of transactions;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor or settlement service provider defines the class of transactions based on an appropriate period of time, geographic area, and type of loan;
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor or settlement service provider uses the same average charge for every transaction within the defined class; and
</P>
<P>(D) The creditor or settlement service provider does not use an average charge:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For any type of insurance;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For any charge based on the loan amount or property value; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If doing so is otherwise prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transactions involving a seller</I>—(i) <I>Provision to seller.</I> In a transaction subject to paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section that involves a seller, the settlement agent shall provide the seller with the disclosures in § 1026.38 that relate to the seller's transaction reflecting the actual terms of the seller's transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> The settlement agent shall provide the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section no later than the day of consummation. If during the 30-day period following consummation, an event in connection with the settlement of the transaction occurs that causes disclosures required under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section to become inaccurate, and such inaccuracy results in a change to the amount actually paid by the seller from that amount disclosed under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section, the settlement agent shall deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures not later than 30 days after receiving information sufficient to establish that such event has occurred.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Charges disclosed.</I> The amount imposed on the seller for any settlement service shall not exceed the amount actually received by the service provider for that service, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (f)(3)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Creditor's copy.</I> When the consumer's and seller's disclosures under this paragraph (f) are provided on separate documents, as permitted under § 1026.38(t)(5), the settlement agent shall provide to the creditor (if the creditor is not the settlement agent) a copy of the disclosures provided to the seller under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>No fee.</I> No fee may be imposed on any person, as a part of settlement costs or otherwise, by a creditor or by a servicer (as that term is defined under 12 U.S.C. 2605(i)(2)) for the preparation or delivery of the disclosures required under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Special information booklet at time of application</I>—(1) <I>Creditor to provide special information booklet.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the creditor shall provide a copy of the special information booklet (required pursuant to section 5 of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2604) to help consumers applying for federally related mortgage loans understand the nature and cost of real estate settlement services) to a consumer who applies for a consumer credit transaction secured by real property or a cooperative unit.
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor shall deliver or place in the mail the special information booklet not later than three business days after the consumer's application is received. However, if the creditor denies the consumer's application before the end of the three-business-day period, the creditor need not provide the booklet. If a consumer uses a mortgage broker, the mortgage broker shall provide the special information booklet and the creditor need not do so.
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40, a creditor or mortgage broker that provides the consumer with a copy of the brochure entitled “When Your Home is On the Line: What You Should Know About Home Equity Lines of Credit,” or any successor brochure issued by the Bureau, is deemed to be in compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The creditor or mortgage broker need not provide the booklet to the consumer for a transaction, the purpose of which is not the purchase of a one-to-four family residential property, including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Refinancing transactions;
</P>
<P>(B) Closed-end loans secured by a subordinate lien; and
</P>
<P>(C) Reverse mortgages.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible changes.</I> Creditors may not make changes to, deletions from, or additions to the special information booklet other than the changes specified in paragraphs (g)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) In the “Complaints” section of the booklet, “the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection” may be substituted for “HUD's Office of RESPA” and “the RESPA office.”
</P>
<P>(ii) In the “Avoiding Foreclosure” section of the booklet, it is permissible to inform homeowners that they may find information on and assistance in avoiding foreclosures at <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov</I>. The reference to the HUD Web site, <I>http://www.hud.gov/foreclosure/</I>, in the “Avoiding Foreclosure” section of the booklet shall not be deleted.
</P>
<P>(iii) In the “No Discrimination” section of the appendix to the booklet, “the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection” may be substituted for the reference to the “Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.” In the Contact Information section of the appendix to the booklet, the following contact information for the Bureau may be added: “Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552; <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/learnmore</I>.” The contact information for HUD's Office of RESPA and Interstate Land Sales may be removed from the “Contact Information” section of the appendix to the booklet.
</P>
<P>(iv) The cover of the booklet may be in any form and may contain any drawings, pictures or artwork, provided that the title appearing on the cover shall not be changed. Names, addresses, and telephone numbers of the creditor or others and similar information may appear on the cover, but no discussion of the matters covered in the booklet shall appear on the cover. References to HUD on the cover of the booklet may be changed to references to the Bureau.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80108, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 8776, Feb. 19, 2015; 82 FR 37768, Aug. 11, 2017; 83 FR 19174, May 2, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.20" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.20   Disclosure requirements regarding post-consummation events.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Refinancings.</I> A refinancing occurs when an existing obligation that was subject to this subpart is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation undertaken by the same consumer. A refinancing is a new transaction requiring new disclosures to the consumer. The new finance charge shall include any unearned portion of the old finance charge that is not credited to the existing obligation. The following shall not be treated as a refinancing:
</P>
<P>(1) A renewal of a single payment obligation with no change in the original terms.
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction in the annual percentage rate with a corresponding change in the payment schedule.
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement involving a court proceeding.
</P>
<P>(4) A change in the payment schedule or a change in collateral requirements as a result of the consumer's default or delinquency, unless the rate is increased, or the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid balance plus earned finance charge and premiums for continuation of insurance of the types described in § 1026.4(d).
</P>
<P>(5) The renewal of optional insurance purchased by the consumer and added to an existing transaction, if disclosures relating to the initial purchase were provided as required by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assumptions.</I> An assumption occurs when a creditor expressly agrees in writing with a subsequent consumer to accept that consumer as a primary obligor on an existing residential mortgage transaction. Before the assumption occurs, the creditor shall make new disclosures to the subsequent consumer, based on the remaining obligation. If the finance charge originally imposed on the existing obligation was an add-on or discount finance charge, the creditor need only disclose:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid balance of the obligation assumed.
</P>
<P>(2) The total charges imposed by the creditor in connection with the assumption.
</P>
<P>(3) The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(k), (l), (m), and (n).
</P>
<P>(4) The annual percentage rate originally imposed on the obligation.
</P>
<P>(5) The payment schedule under § 1026.18(g) and the total of payments under § 1026.18(h) based on the remaining obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rate adjustments with a corresponding change in payment.</I> The creditor, assignee, or servicer of an adjustable-rate mortgage shall provide consumers with disclosures, as described in this paragraph (c), in connection with the adjustment of interest rates pursuant to the loan contract that results in a corresponding adjustment to the payment. To the extent that other provisions of this subpart C govern the disclosures required by this paragraph (c), those provisions apply to assignees and servicers as well as to creditors. The disclosures required by this paragraph (c) also shall be provided for an interest rate adjustment resulting from the conversion of an adjustable-rate mortgage to a fixed-rate transaction, if that interest rate adjustment results in a corresponding payment change.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coverage</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), an adjustable-rate mortgage or “ARM” is a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling in which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exemptions.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (c) do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) ARMs with terms of one year or less;
</P>
<P>(B) The first interest rate adjustment to an ARM if the first payment at the adjusted level is due within 210 days after consummation and the new interest rate disclosed at consummation pursuant to § 1026.20(d) was not an estimate; or
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor, assignee or servicer of an adjustable-rate mortgage when the servicer on the loan is subject to the Fair Debt Collections Practices Act (FDCPA) (15 U.S.C. 1692 <I>et seq.</I>) with regard to the loan and the consumer has sent a notification pursuant to FDCPA section 805(c) (15 U.S.C. 1692c(c)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing and content.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the disclosures required by this paragraph (c) shall be provided to consumers at least 60, but no more than 120, days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due. The disclosures shall be provided to consumers at least 25, but no more than 120, days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due for ARMs with uniformly scheduled interest rate adjustments occurring every 60 days or more frequently and for ARMs originated prior to January 10, 2015 in which the loan contract requires the adjusted interest rate and payment to be calculated based on the index figure available as of a date that is less than 45 days prior to the adjustment date. The disclosures shall be provided to consumers as soon as practicable, but not less than 25 days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due, for the first adjustment to an ARM if it occurs within 60 days of consummation and the new interest rate disclosed at consummation pursuant to § 1026.20(d) was an estimate. The disclosures required by this paragraph (c) shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement providing:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation that under the terms of the consumer's adjustable-rate mortgage, the specific time period in which the current interest rate has been in effect is ending and the interest rate and mortgage payment will change;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective date of the interest rate adjustment and when additional future interest rate adjustments are scheduled to occur; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other changes to loan terms, features, or options taking effect on the same date as the interest rate adjustment, such as the expiration of interest-only or payment-option features.
</P>
<P>(ii) A table containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The current and new interest rates;
</P>
<P>(B) The current and new payments and the date the first new payment is due; and
</P>
<P>(C) For interest-only or negatively-amortizing payments, the amount of the current and new payment allocated to principal, interest, and taxes and insurance in escrow, as applicable. The current payment allocation disclosed shall be the payment allocation for the last payment prior to the date of the disclosure. The new payment allocation disclosed shall be the expected payment allocation for the first payment for which the new interest rate will apply.
</P>
<P>(iii) An explanation of how the interest rate is determined, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The specific index or formula used in making interest rate adjustments and a source of information about the index or formula; and
</P>
<P>(B) The type and amount of any adjustment to the index, including any margin and an explanation that the margin is the addition of a certain number of percentage points to the index, and any application of previously foregone interest rate increases from past interest rate adjustments.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any limits on the interest rate or payment increases at each interest rate adjustment and over the life of the loan, as applicable, including the extent to which such limits result in the creditor, assignee, or servicer foregoing any increase in the interest rate and the earliest date that such foregone interest rate increases may apply to future interest rate adjustments, subject to those limits.
</P>
<P>(v) An explanation of how the new payment is determined, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The index or formula used;
</P>
<P>(B) Any adjustment to the index or formula, such as the addition of a margin or the application of any previously foregone interest rate increases from past interest rate adjustments;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan balance expected on the date of the interest rate adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(D) The length of the remaining loan term expected on the date of the interest rate adjustment and any change in the term of the loan caused by the adjustment.
</P>
<P>(vi) If applicable, a statement that the new payment will not be allocated to pay loan principal and will not reduce the loan balance. If the new payment will result in negative amortization, a statement that the new payment will not be allocated to pay loan principal and will pay only part of the loan interest, thereby adding to the balance of the loan. If the new payment will result in negative amortization as a result of the interest rate adjustment, the statement shall set forth the payment required to amortize fully the remaining balance at the new interest rate over the remainder of the loan term.
</P>
<P>(vii) The circumstances under which any prepayment penalty, as defined in § 1026.32(b)(6)(i), may be imposed, such as when paying the loan in full or selling or refinancing the principal dwelling; the time period during which such a penalty may be imposed; and a statement that the consumer may contact the servicer for additional information, including the maximum amount of the penalty.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format.</I> (i) The disclosures required by this paragraph (c) shall be provided in the form of a table and in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, forms H-4(D)(1) and (2) in appendix H to this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section shall be in the form of a table located within the table described in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section. These disclosures shall appear in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, the table inside the larger table in forms H-4(D)(1) and (2) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Initial rate adjustment.</I> The creditor, assignee, or servicer of an adjustable-rate mortgage shall provide consumers with disclosures, as described in this paragraph (d), in connection with the initial interest rate adjustment pursuant to the loan contract. To the extent that other provisions of this subpart C govern the disclosures required by this paragraph (d), those provisions apply to assignees and servicers as well as to creditors. The disclosures required by this paragraph (d) shall be provided as a separate document from other documents provided by the creditor, assignee, or servicer. The disclosures shall be provided to consumers at least 210, but no more than 240, days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due. If the first payment at the adjusted level is due within the first 210 days after consummation, the disclosures shall be provided at consummation.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Coverage</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), an adjustable-rate mortgage or “ARM” is a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling in which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exemptions.</I> The requirements of this paragraph (d) do not apply to ARMs with terms of one year or less.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content.</I> If the new interest rate (or the new payment calculated from the new interest rate) is not known as of the date of the disclosure, an estimate shall be disclosed and labeled as such. This estimate shall be based on the calculation of the index reported in the source of information described in paragraph (d)(2)(iv)(A) of this section within fifteen business days prior to the date of the disclosure. The disclosures required by this paragraph (d) shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement providing:
</P>
<P>(A) An explanation that under the terms of the consumer's adjustable-rate mortgage, the specific time period in which the current interest rate has been in effect is ending and that any change in the interest rate may result in a change in the mortgage payment;
</P>
<P>(B) The effective date of the interest rate adjustment and when additional future interest rate adjustments are scheduled to occur; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any other changes to loan terms, features, or options taking effect on the same date as the interest rate adjustment, such as the expiration of interest-only or payment-option features.
</P>
<P>(iii) A table containing the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The current and new interest rates;
</P>
<P>(B) The current and new payments and the date the first new payment is due; and
</P>
<P>(C) For interest-only or negatively-amortizing payments, the amount of the current and new payment allocated to principal, interest, and taxes and insurance in escrow, as applicable. The current payment allocation disclosed shall be the payment allocation for the last payment prior to the date of the disclosure. The new payment allocation disclosed shall be the expected payment allocation for the first payment for which the new interest rate will apply.
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how the interest rate is determined, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The specific index or formula used in making interest rate adjustments and a source of information about the index or formula; and
</P>
<P>(B) The type and amount of any adjustment to the index, including any margin and an explanation that the margin is the addition of a certain number of percentage points to the index.
</P>
<P>(v) Any limits on the interest rate or payment increases at each interest rate adjustment and over the life of the loan, as applicable, including the extent to which such limits result in the creditor, assignee, or servicer foregoing any increase in the interest rate and the earliest date that such foregone interest rate increases may apply to future interest rate adjustments, subject to those limits.
</P>
<P>(vi) An explanation of how the new payment is determined, including:
</P>
<P>(A) The index or formula used;
</P>
<P>(B) Any adjustment to the index or formula, such as the addition of a margin;
</P>
<P>(C) The loan balance expected on the date of the interest rate adjustment;
</P>
<P>(D) The length of the remaining loan term expected on the date of the interest rate adjustment and any change in the term of the loan caused by the adjustment; and
</P>
<P>(E) If the new interest rate or new payment provided is an estimate, a statement that another disclosure containing the actual new interest rate and new payment will be provided to the consumer between two and four months before the first payment at the adjusted level is due for interest rate adjustments that result in a corresponding payment change.
</P>
<P>(vii) If applicable, a statement that the new payment will not be allocated to pay loan principal and will not reduce the loan balance. If the new payment will result in negative amortization, a statement that the new payment will not be allocated to pay loan principal and will pay only part of the loan interest, thereby adding to the balance of the loan. If the new payment will result in negative amortization as a result of the interest rate adjustment, the statement shall set forth the payment required to amortize fully the remaining balance at the new interest rate over the remainder of the loan term.
</P>
<P>(viii) The circumstances under which any prepayment penalty, as defined in § 1026.32(b)(6)(i), may be imposed, such as when paying the loan in full or selling or refinancing the principal dwelling; the time period during which such a penalty may be imposed; and a statement that the consumer may contact the servicer for additional information, including the maximum amount of the penalty.
</P>
<P>(ix) The telephone number of the creditor, assignee, or servicer for consumers to call if they anticipate not being able to make their new payments.
</P>
<P>(x) The following alternatives to paying at the new rate that consumers may be able to pursue and a brief explanation of each alternative, expressed in simple and clear terms:
</P>
<P>(A) Refinancing the loan with the current or another creditor or assignee;
</P>
<P>(B) Selling the property and using the proceeds to pay the loan in full;
</P>
<P>(C) Modifying the terms of the loan with the creditor, assignee, or servicer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Arranging payment forbearance with the creditor, assignee, or servicer.
</P>
<P>(xi) The Web site to access either the Bureau list or the HUD list of homeownership counselors and counseling organizations, the HUD toll-free telephone number to access the HUD list of homeownership counselors and counseling organizations, and the Bureau Web site to access contact information for State housing finance authorities (as defined in § 1301 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format.</I> (i) Except for the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, the disclosures required by this paragraph (d) shall be provided in the form of a table and in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, forms H-4(D)(3) and (4) in appendix H to this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section shall appear outside of and above the table required in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section shall be in the form of a table located within the table described in paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section. These disclosures shall appear in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, the table inside the larger table in forms H-4(D)(3) and (4) in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Escrow account cancellation notice for certain mortgage transactions</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> In a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a first lien on real property or a dwelling, other than a reverse mortgage subject to § 1026.33, for which an escrow account was established in connection with the transaction and will be cancelled, the creditor or servicer shall disclose the information specified in paragraph (e)(2) of this section in accordance with the form requirements in paragraph (e)(4) of this section, and the timing requirements in paragraph (e)(5) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (e), the term “escrow account” has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 1024.17(b), and the term “servicer” has the same meaning as under 12 CFR 1024.2(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content requirements.</I> If an escrow account was established in connection with a transaction subject to this paragraph (e) and the escrow account will be cancelled, the creditor or servicer shall clearly and conspicuously disclose, under the heading “Escrow Closing Notice,” the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement informing the consumer of the date on which the consumer will no longer have an escrow account; a statement that an escrow account may also be called an impound or trust account; a statement of the reason why the escrow account will be closed; a statement that without an escrow account, the consumer must pay all property costs, such as taxes and homeowner's insurance, directly, possibly in one or two large payments a year; and a table, titled “Cost to you,” that contains an itemization of the amount of any fee the creditor or servicer imposes on the consumer in connection with the closure of the consumer's escrow account, labeled “Escrow Closing Fee,” and a statement that the fee is for closing the escrow account.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the reference “In the future”:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the consequences if the consumer fails to pay property costs, including the actions that a State or local government may take if property taxes are not paid and the actions the creditor or servicer may take if the consumer does not pay some or all property costs, such as adding amounts to the loan balance, adding an escrow account to the loan, or purchasing a property insurance policy on the consumer's behalf that may be more expensive and provide fewer benefits than a policy that the consumer could obtain directly;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement with a telephone number that the consumer can use to request additional information about the cancellation of the escrow account;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement of whether the creditor or servicer offers the option of keeping the escrow account open and, as applicable, a telephone number the consumer can use to request that the account be kept open; and
</P>
<P>(D) A statement of whether there is a cut-off date by which the consumer can request that the account be kept open.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Optional information.</I> The creditor or servicer may, at its option, include its name or logo, the consumer's name, phone number, mailing address and property address, the issue date of the notice, the loan number, or the consumer's account number on the notice required by this paragraph (e). Except for the name and logo of the creditor or servicer, the information described in this paragraph may be placed between the heading required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section and the disclosures required by paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section. The name and logo may be placed above the heading required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section shall be provided in a minimum 10-point font, grouped together on the front side of a one-page document, separate from all other materials, with the headings, content, order, and format substantially similar to model form H-29 in appendix H to this part. The disclosure of the heading required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section shall be more conspicuous than, and shall precede, the other disclosures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Timing</I>—(i) <I>Cancellation upon consumer's request.</I> If the creditor or servicer cancels the escrow account at the consumer's request, the creditor or servicer shall ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section no later than three business days before the closure of the consumer's escrow account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cancellations other than upon the consumer's request.</I> If the creditor or servicer cancels the escrow account and the cancellation is not at the consumer's request, the creditor or servicer shall ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section no later than 30 business days before the closure of the consumer's escrow account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Receipt of disclosure.</I> If the disclosures required by paragraph (e)(2) of this section are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Successor in interest.</I> If, upon confirmation, a servicer provides a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation with a written notice and acknowledgment form in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1) of this chapter, the servicer is not required to provide to the confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by paragraphs (c), (d), and (e) of this section unless and until the confirmed successor in interest either assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law or has provided the servicer an executed acknowledgment in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv) of this chapter, that the confirmed successor in interest has not revoked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 11004, Feb. 14, 2013; 78 FR 63005, Oct. 23, 2013; 78 FR 80111, Dec. 31, 2013; 81 FR 72388, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.21" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.21   Treatment of credit balances.</HEAD>
<P>When a credit balance in excess of $1 is created in connection with a transaction (through transmittal of funds to a creditor in excess of the total balance due on an account, through rebates of unearned finance charges or insurance premiums, or through amounts otherwise owed to or held for the benefit of a consumer), the creditor shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Credit the amount of the credit balance to the consumer's account;
</P>
<P>(b) Refund any part of the remaining credit balance, upon the written request of the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(c) Make a good faith effort to refund to the consumer by cash, check, or money order, or credit to a deposit account of the consumer, any part of the credit balance remaining in the account for more than 6 months, except that no further action is required if the consumer's current location is not known to the creditor and cannot be traced through the consumer's last known address or telephone number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.22" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.22   Determination of annual percentage rate.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Accuracy of annual percentage rate.</I> (1) The annual percentage rate is a measure of the cost of credit, expressed as a yearly rate, that relates the amount and timing of value received by the consumer to the amount and timing of payments made. The annual percentage rate shall be determined in accordance with either the actuarial method or the United States Rule method. Explanations, equations and instructions for determining the annual percentage rate in accordance with the actuarial method are set forth in appendix J to this part. An error in disclosure of the annual percentage rate or finance charge shall not, in itself, be considered a violation of this part if:
</P>
<P>(i) The error resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon discovery of the error, the creditor promptly discontinues use of that calculation tool for disclosure purposes and notifies the Bureau in writing of the error in the calculation tool.
</P>
<P>(2) As a general rule, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In an irregular transaction, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), an irregular transaction is one that includes one or more of the following features: multiple advances, irregular payment periods, or irregular payment amounts (other than an irregular first period or an irregular first or final payment).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Mortgage loans.</I> If the annual percentage rate disclosed in a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling varies from the actual rate determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in addition to the tolerances applicable under paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, the disclosed annual percentage rate shall also be considered accurate if:
</P>
<P>(i) The rate results from the disclosed finance charge; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) The disclosed finance charge would be considered accurate under § 1026.18(d)(1) or § 1026.38(o)(2), as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of rescission, if the disclosed finance charge would be considered accurate under § 1026.23(g) or (h), whichever applies.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional tolerance for mortgage loans.</I> In a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling, in addition to the tolerances applicable under paragraphs (a)(2) and (3) of this section, if the disclosed finance charge is calculated incorrectly but is considered accurate under § 1026.18(d)(1) or § 1026.38(o)(2), as applicable, or § 1026.23(g) or (h), the disclosed annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate:
</P>
<P>(i) If the disclosed finance charge is understated, and the disclosed annual percentage rate is also understated but it is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the disclosed finance charge is overstated, and the disclosed annual percentage rate is also overstated but it is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Computation tools.</I> (1) The Regulation Z Annual Percentage Rate Tables produced by the Bureau may be used to determine the annual percentage rate, and any rate determined from those tables in accordance with the accompanying instructions complies with the requirements of this section. Volume I of the tables applies to single advance transactions involving up to 480 monthly payments or 104 weekly payments. It may be used for regular transactions and for transactions with any of the following irregularities: an irregular first period, an irregular first payment, and an irregular final payment. Volume II of the tables applies to transactions involving multiple advances and any type of payment or period irregularity.
</P>
<P>(2) Creditors may use any other computation tool in determining the annual percentage rate if the rate so determined equals the rate determined in accordance with appendix J to this part, within the degree of accuracy set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Single add-on rate transactions.</I> If a single add-on rate is applied to all transactions with maturities up to 60 months and if all payments are equal in amount and period, a single annual percentage rate may be disclosed for all those transactions, so long as it is the highest annual percentage rate for any such transaction.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certain transactions involving ranges of balances.</I> For purposes of disclosing the annual percentage rate referred to in § 1026.17(g)(4) (Mail or telephone orders—delay in disclosures) and (h) (Series of sales—delay in disclosures), if the same finance charge is imposed on all balances within a specified range of balances, the annual percentage rate computed for the median balance may be disclosed for all the balances. However, if the annual percentage rate computed for the median balance understates the annual percentage rate computed for the lowest balance by more than 8 percent of the latter rate, the annual percentage rate shall be computed on whatever lower balance will produce an annual percentage rate that does not result in an understatement of more than 8 percent of the rate determined on the lowest balance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80112, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 80229, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.23" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.23   Right of rescission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consumer's right to rescind.</I> (1) In a credit transaction in which a security interest is or will be retained or acquired in a consumer's principal dwelling, each consumer whose ownership interest is or will be subject to the security interest shall have the right to rescind the transaction, except for transactions described in paragraph (f) of this section. For purposes of this section, the addition to an existing obligation of a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling is a transaction. The right of rescission applies only to the addition of the security interest and not the existing obligation. The creditor shall deliver the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section but need not deliver new material disclosures. Delivery of the required notice shall begin the rescission period.
</P>
<P>(2) To exercise the right to rescind, the consumer shall notify the creditor of the rescission by mail, telegram or other means of written communication. Notice is considered given when mailed, when filed for telegraphic transmission or, if sent by other means, when delivered to the creditor's designated place of business.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The consumer may exercise the right to rescind until midnight of the third business day following consummation, delivery of the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section, or delivery of all material disclosures, whichever occurs last. If the required notice or material disclosures are not delivered, the right to rescind shall expire 3 years after consummation, upon transfer of all of the consumer's interest in the property, or upon sale of the property, whichever occurs first. In the case of certain administrative proceedings, the rescission period shall be extended in accordance with section 125(f) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (a)(3), the term “material disclosures” means the required disclosures of the annual percentage rate, the finance charge, the amount financed, the total of payments, the payment schedule, and the disclosures and limitations referred to in §§ 1026.32(c) and (d) and 1026.43(g).
</P>
<P>(4) When more than one consumer in a transaction has the right to rescind, the exercise of the right by one consumer shall be effective as to all consumers.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) <I>Notice of right to rescind.</I> In a transaction subject to rescission, a creditor shall deliver two copies of the notice of the right to rescind to each consumer entitled to rescind (one copy to each if the notice is delivered in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act). The notice shall be on a separate document that identifies the transaction and shall clearly and conspicuously disclose the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The retention or acquisition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer's right to rescind the transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) How to exercise the right to rescind, with a form for that purpose, designating the address of the creditor's place of business.
</P>
<P>(iv) The effects of rescission, as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) The date the rescission period expires.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Proper form of notice.</I> To satisfy the disclosure requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the creditor shall provide the appropriate model form in appendix H of this part or a substantially similar notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delay of creditor's performance.</I> Unless a consumer waives the right of rescission under paragraph (e) of this section, no money shall be disbursed other than in escrow, no services shall be performed and no materials delivered until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effects of rescission.</I> (1) When a consumer rescinds a transaction, the security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void and the consumer shall not be liable for any amount, including any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 20 calendar days after receipt of a notice of rescission, the creditor shall return any money or property that has been given to anyone in connection with the transaction and shall take any action necessary to reflect the termination of the security interest.
</P>
<P>(3) If the creditor has delivered any money or property, the consumer may retain possession until the creditor has met its obligation under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. When the creditor has complied with that paragraph, the consumer shall tender the money or property to the creditor or, where the latter would be impracticable or inequitable, tender its reasonable value. At the consumer's option, tender of property may be made at the location of the property or at the consumer's residence. Tender of money must be made at the creditor's designated place of business. If the creditor does not take possession of the money or property within 20 calendar days after the consumer's tender, the consumer may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) The procedures outlined in paragraphs (d)(2) and (3) of this section may be modified by court order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consumer's waiver of right to rescind.</I> The consumer may modify or waive the right to rescind if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the right to rescind, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to rescind. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exempt transactions.</I> The right to rescind does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A refinancing or consolidation by the same creditor of an extension of credit already secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. The right of rescission shall apply, however, to the extent the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid principal balance, any earned unpaid finance charge on the existing debt, and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing or consolidation.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction in which a state agency is a creditor.
</P>
<P>(4) An advance, other than an initial advance, in a series of advances or in a series of single-payment obligations that is treated as a single transaction under § 1026.17(c)(6), if the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section and all material disclosures have been given to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(5) A renewal of optional insurance premiums that is not considered a refinancing under § 1026.20(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Tolerances for accuracy</I>—(1) <I>One-half of 1 percent tolerance.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (g)(2) and (h)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total of payments for each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed total of payments:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> of 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>One percent tolerance.</I> In a refinancing of a residential mortgage transaction with a new creditor (other than a transaction covered by § 1026.32), if there is no new advance and no consolidation of existing loans:
</P>
<P>(i) The finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total of payments for each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed total of payments:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than 1 percent of the face amount of the note or $100, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Special rules for foreclosures</I>—(1) <I>Right to rescind.</I> After the initiation of foreclosure on the consumer's principal dwelling that secures the credit obligation, the consumer shall have the right to rescind the transaction if:
</P>
<P>(i) A mortgage broker fee that should have been included in the finance charge was not included; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor did not provide the properly completed appropriate model form in appendix H of this part, or a substantially similar notice of rescission.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tolerance for disclosures.</I> After the initiation of foreclosure on the consumer's principal dwelling that secures the credit obligation:
</P>
<P>(i) The finance charge and other disclosures affected by the finance charge (such as the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed finance charge:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than $35; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) The total of payments for each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f) shall be considered accurate for purposes of this section if the disclosed total of payments:
</P>
<P>(A) Is understated by no more than $35; or
</P>
<P>(B) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 30745, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 60440, Oct. 1, 2013; 82 FR 37769, Aug. 11, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.24" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.24   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actually available terms.</I> If an advertisement for credit states specific credit terms, it shall state only those terms that actually are or will be arranged or offered by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures required by this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advertisement of rate of finance charge.</I> If an advertisement states a rate of finance charge, it shall state the rate as an “annual percentage rate,” using that term. If the annual percentage rate may be increased after consummation, the advertisement shall state that fact. If an advertisement is for credit not secured by a dwelling, the advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate that is applied to an unpaid balance may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage rate. If an advertisement is for credit secured by a dwelling, the advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate that is applied to an unpaid balance may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advertisement of terms that require additional disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Triggering terms.</I> If any of the following terms is set forth in an advertisement, the advertisement shall meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount or percentage of any downpayment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of payments or period of repayment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of any payment.
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of any finance charge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional terms.</I> An advertisement stating any of the terms in paragraph (d)(1) of this section shall state the following terms, as applicable (an example of one or more typical extensions of credit with a statement of all the terms applicable to each may be used):
</P>
<P>(i) The amount or percentage of the downpayment.
</P>
<P>(ii) The terms of repayment, which reflect the repayment obligations over the full term of the loan, including any balloon payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The “annual percentage rate,” using that term, and, if the rate may be increased after consummation, that fact.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Catalogs or other multiple-page advertisements; electronic advertisements.</I> (1) If a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement, or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site), gives information in a table or schedule in sufficient detail to permit determination of the disclosures required by paragraph (d)(2) of this section, it shall be considered a single advertisement if:
</P>
<P>(i) The table or schedule is clearly and conspicuously set forth; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any statement of the credit terms in paragraph (d)(1) of this section appearing anywhere else in the catalog or advertisement clearly refers to the page or location where the table or schedule begins.
</P>
<P>(2) A catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) complies with paragraph (d)(2) of this section if the table or schedule of terms includes all appropriate disclosures for a representative scale of amounts up to the level of the more commonly sold higher-priced property or services offered.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Disclosure of rates and payments in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The requirements of this paragraph apply to any advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, other than television or radio advertisements, including promotional materials accompanying applications.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosure of rates</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> If an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling states a simple annual rate of interest and more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply over the term of the advertised loan, the advertisement shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(A) Each simple annual rate of interest that will apply. In variable-rate transactions, a rate determined by adding an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin;
</P>
<P>(B) The period of time during which each simple annual rate of interest will apply; and
</P>
<P>(C) The annual percentage rate for the loan. If such rate is variable, the annual percentage rate shall comply with the accuracy standards in §§ 1026.17(c) and 1026.22.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear and conspicuous requirement.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, clearly and conspicuously disclosed means that the required information in paragraphs (f)(2)(i)(A) through (C) shall be disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to any advertised rate that triggered the required disclosures. The required information in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(C) may be disclosed with greater prominence than the other information.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Disclosure of payments</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> In addition to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section, if an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling states the amount of any payment, the advertisement shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount of each payment that will apply over the term of the loan, including any balloon payment. In variable-rate transactions, payments that will be determined based on the application of the sum of an index and margin shall be disclosed based on a reasonably current index and margin;
</P>
<P>(B) The period of time during which each payment will apply; and
</P>
<P>(C) In an advertisement for credit secured by a first lien on a dwelling, the fact that the payments do not include amounts for taxes and insurance premiums, if applicable, and that the actual payment obligation will be greater.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Clear and conspicuous requirement.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in paragraphs (f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) shall be disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to any advertised payment that triggered the required disclosures, and that the required information in paragraph (f)(3)(i)(C) shall be disclosed with prominence and in close proximity to the advertised payments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Envelope excluded.</I> The requirements in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3) of this section do not apply to an envelope in which an application or solicitation is mailed, or to a banner advertisement or pop-up advertisement linked to an application or solicitation provided electronically.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Alternative disclosures—television or radio advertisements.</I> An advertisement made through television or radio stating any of the terms requiring additional disclosures under paragraph (d)(2) of this section may comply with paragraph (d)(2) of this section either by:
</P>
<P>(1) Stating clearly and conspicuously each of the additional disclosures required under paragraph (d)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Stating clearly and conspicuously the information required by paragraph (d)(2)(iii) of this section and listing a toll-free telephone number, or any telephone number that allows a consumer to reverse the phone charges when calling for information, along with a reference that such number may be used by consumers to obtain additional cost information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tax implications.</I> If an advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) is for a loan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, and the advertisement states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the dwelling, the advertisement shall clearly and conspicuously state that:
</P>
<P>(1) The interest on the portion of the credit extension that is greater than the fair market value of the dwelling is not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes; and
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer should consult a tax adviser for further information regarding the deductibility of interest and charges.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibited acts or practices in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> The following acts or practices are prohibited in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Misleading advertising of “fixed” rates and payments.</I> Using the word “fixed” to refer to rates, payments, or the credit transaction in an advertisement for variable-rate transactions or other transactions where the payment will increase, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of an advertisement solely for one or more variable-rate transactions,
</P>
<P>(A) The phrase “Adjustable-Rate Mortgage,” “Variable-Rate Mortgage,” or “ARM” appears in the advertisement before the first use of the word “fixed” and is at least as conspicuous as any use of the word “fixed” in the advertisement; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each use of the word “fixed” to refer to a rate or payment is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the rate or payment is fixed, and the fact that the rate may vary or the payment may increase after that period;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an advertisement solely for non-variable-rate transactions where the payment will increase (e.g., a stepped-rate mortgage transaction with an initial lower payment), each use of the word “fixed” to refer to the payment is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the payment is fixed, and the fact that the payment will increase after that period; or
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of an advertisement for both variable-rate transactions and non-variable-rate transactions,
</P>
<P>(A) The phrase “Adjustable-Rate Mortgage,” “Variable-Rate Mortgage,” or “ARM” appears in the advertisement with equal prominence as any use of the term “fixed,” “Fixed-Rate Mortgage,” or similar terms; and
</P>
<P>(B) Each use of the word “fixed” to refer to a rate, payment, or the credit transaction either refers solely to the transactions for which rates are fixed and complies with paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section, if applicable, or, if it refers to the variable-rate transactions, is accompanied by an equally prominent and closely proximate statement of the time period for which the rate or payment is fixed, and the fact that the rate may vary or the payment may increase after that period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Misleading comparisons in advertisements.</I> Making any comparison in an advertisement between actual or hypothetical credit payments or rates and any payment or simple annual rate that will be available under the advertised product for a period less than the full term of the loan, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> The advertisement includes a clear and conspicuous comparison to the information required to be disclosed under § 1026.24(f)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application to variable-rate transactions.</I> If the advertisement is for a variable-rate transaction, and the advertised payment or simple annual rate is based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent rate or payment adjustments over the term of the loan, the advertisement includes an equally prominent statement in close proximity to the payment or rate that the payment or rate is subject to adjustment and the time period when the first adjustment will occur.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Misrepresentations about government endorsement.</I> Making any statement in an advertisement that the product offered is a “government loan program”, “government-supported loan”, or is otherwise endorsed or sponsored by any Federal, state, or local government entity, unless the advertisement is for an FHA loan, VA loan, or similar loan program that is, in fact, endorsed or sponsored by a Federal, state, or local government entity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Misleading use of the current lender's name.</I> Using the name of the consumer's current lender in an advertisement that is not sent by or on behalf of the consumer's current lender, unless the advertisement:
</P>
<P>(i) Discloses with equal prominence the name of the person or creditor making the advertisement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes a clear and conspicuous statement that the person making the advertisement is not associated with, or acting on behalf of, the consumer's current lender.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Misleading claims of debt elimination.</I> Making any misleading claim in an advertisement that the mortgage product offered will eliminate debt or result in a waiver or forgiveness of a consumer's existing loan terms with, or obligations to, another creditor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Misleading use of the term “counselor”.</I> Using the term “counselor” in an advertisement to refer to a for-profit mortgage broker or mortgage creditor, its employees, or persons working for the broker or creditor that are involved in offering, originating or selling mortgages.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Misleading foreign-language advertisements.</I> Providing information about some trigger terms or required disclosures, such as an initial rate or payment, only in a foreign language in an advertisement, but providing information about other trigger terms or required disclosures, such as information about the fully-indexed rate or fully amortizing payment, only in English in the same advertisement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Miscellaneous</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.25" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.25   Record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> A creditor shall retain evidence of compliance with this part (other than advertising requirements under §§ 1026.16 and 1026.24, and other than the requirements under § 1026.19(e) and (f)) for two years after the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. The administrative agencies responsible for enforcing the regulation may require creditors under their jurisdictions to retain records for a longer period if necessary to carry out their enforcement responsibilities under section 108 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inspection of records.</I> A creditor shall permit the agency responsible for enforcing this part with respect to that creditor to inspect its relevant records for compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records related to certain requirements for mortgage loans</I>—(1) <I>Records related to requirements for loans secured by real property or a cooperative unit</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided under paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section, a creditor shall retain evidence of compliance with the requirements of § 1026.19(e) and (f) for three years after the later of the date of consummation, the date disclosures are required to be made, or the date the action is required to be taken.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Closing disclosures.</I> (A) A creditor shall retain each completed disclosure required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) or (f)(4)(i), and all documents related to such disclosures, for five years after consummation, notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If a creditor sells, transfers, or otherwise disposes of its interest in a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.19(f) and does not service the mortgage loan, the creditor shall provide a copy of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) or (f)(4)(i) to the owner or servicer of the mortgage as a part of the transfer of the loan file. Such owner or servicer shall retain such disclosures for the remainder of the five-year period described under paragraph (c)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) The Bureau shall have the right to require provision of copies of records related to the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) and (f)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Records related to requirements for loan originator compensation.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, for transactions subject to § 1026.36:
</P>
<P>(i) A creditor shall maintain records sufficient to evidence all compensation it pays to a loan originator, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), and the compensation agreement that governs those payments for three years after the date of payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) A loan originator organization, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1)(iii), shall maintain records sufficient to evidence all compensation it receives from a creditor, a consumer, or another person; all compensation it pays to any individual loan originator, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1)(ii); and the compensation agreement that governs each such receipt or payment, for three years after the date of each such receipt or payment.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Records related to minimum standards for transactions secured by a dwelling.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, a creditor shall retain evidence of compliance with § 1026.43 of this regulation for three years after consummation of a transaction covered by that section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 6583, Jan. 30, 2013; 78 FR 11410, Feb. 15, 2013; 78 FR 60382, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 80112, Dec. 31, 2013; 82 FR 37769, Aug. 11, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.26" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.26   Use of annual percentage rate in oral disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Open-end credit.</I> In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about the cost of open-end credit, only the annual percentage rate or rates shall be stated, except that the periodic rate or rates also may be stated. If the annual percentage rate cannot be determined in advance because there are finance charges other than a periodic rate, the corresponding annual percentage rate shall be stated, and other cost information may be given.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about the cost of closed-end credit, only the annual percentage rate shall be stated, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate also may be stated if it is applied to an unpaid balance. If the annual percentage rate cannot be determined in advance, the annual percentage rate for a sample transaction shall be stated, and other cost information for the consumer's specific transaction may be given.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.27" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.27   Language of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>Disclosures required by this part may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request. This requirement for providing English disclosures on request does not apply to advertisements subject to §§ 1026.16 and 1026.24.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.28" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.28   Effect on state laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Inconsistent disclosure requirements.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements contained in chapter 1 (General Provisions), chapter 2 (Credit Transactions), or chapter 3 (Credit Advertising) of the Act and the implementing provisions of this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. A State law is inconsistent if it requires a creditor to make disclosures or take actions that contradict the requirements of the Federal law. A State law is contradictory if it requires the use of the same term to represent a different amount or a different meaning than the Federal law, or if it requires the use of a term different from that required in the Federal law to describe the same item. A creditor, State, or other interested party may request the Bureau to determine whether a State law requirement is inconsistent. After the Bureau determines that a State law is inconsistent, a creditor may not make disclosures using the inconsistent term or form. A determination as to whether a State law is inconsistent with the requirements of sections 4 and 5 of RESPA (other than the RESPA section 5(c) requirements regarding provision of a list of certified homeownership counselors) and §§ 1026.19(e) and (f), 1026.37, and 1026.38 shall be made in accordance with this section and not 12 CFR 1024.13.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) State law requirements are inconsistent with the requirements contained in sections 161 (Correction of billing errors) or 162 (Regulation of credit reports) of the Act and the implementing provisions of this part and are preempted if they provide rights, responsibilities, or procedures for consumers or creditors that are different from those required by the Federal law. However, a state law that allows a consumer to inquire about an open-end credit account and imposes on the creditor an obligation to respond to such inquiry after the time allowed in the Federal law for the consumer to submit written notice of a billing error shall not be preempted in any situation where the time period for making written notice under this part has expired. If a creditor gives written notice of a consumer's rights under such state law, the notice shall state that reliance on the longer time period available under state law may result in the loss of important rights that could be preserved by acting more promptly under Federal law; it shall also explain that the state law provisions apply only after expiration of the time period for submitting a proper written notice of a billing error under the Federal law. If the state disclosures are made on the same side of a page as the required Federal disclosures, the state disclosures shall appear under a demarcation line below the Federal disclosures, and the Federal disclosures shall be identified by a heading indicating that they are made in compliance with Federal law.
</P>
<P>(ii) State law requirements are inconsistent with the requirements contained in chapter 4 (Credit billing) of the Act (other than section 161 or 162) and the implementing provisions of this part and are preempted if the creditor cannot comply with state law without violating Federal law.
</P>
<P>(iii) A state may request the Bureau to determine whether its law is inconsistent with chapter 4 of the Act and its implementing provisions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Equivalent disclosure requirements.</I> If the Bureau determines that a disclosure required by state law (other than a requirement relating to the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or the disclosures required under § 1026.32) is substantially the same in meaning as a disclosure required under the Act or this part, creditors in that state may make the state disclosure in lieu of the Federal disclosure. A creditor, state, or other interested party may request the Bureau to determine whether a state disclosure is substantially the same in meaning as a Federal disclosure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for determination.</I> The procedures under which a request for a determination may be made under this section are set forth in appendix A.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special rule for credit and charge cards.</I> State law requirements relating to the disclosure of credit information in any credit or charge card application or solicitation that is subject to the requirements of section 127(c) of chapter 2 of the Act (§ 1026.60 of the regulation) or in any renewal notice for a credit or charge card that is subject to the requirements of section 127(d) of chapter 2 of the Act (§ 1026.9(e) of the regulation) are preempted. State laws relating to the enforcement of section 127(c) and (d) of the Act are not preempted.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80112, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.29" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.29   State exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Any state may apply to the Bureau to exempt a class of transactions within the state from the requirements of chapter 2 (Credit transactions) or chapter 4 (Credit billing) of the Act and the corresponding provisions of this part. The Bureau shall grant an exemption if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The state law is substantially similar to the Federal law or, in the case of chapter 4, affords the consumer greater protection than the Federal law; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is adequate provision for enforcement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Civil liability.</I> (1) No exemptions granted under this section shall extend to the civil liability provisions of sections 130 and 131 of the Act.
</P>
<P>(2) If an exemption has been granted, the disclosures required by the applicable state law (except any additional requirements not imposed by Federal law) shall constitute the disclosures required by the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applications.</I> The procedures under which a state may apply for an exemption under this section are set forth in appendix B to this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.30" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.30   Limitation on rates.</HEAD>
<P>A creditor shall include in any consumer credit contract secured by a dwelling and subject to the Act and this part the maximum interest rate that may be imposed during the term of the obligation when:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of closed-end credit, the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation, or
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of open-end credit, the annual percentage rate may increase during the plan.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Special Rules for Certain Home Mortgage Transactions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.31" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.31   General rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Relation to other subparts in this part.</I> The requirements and limitations of this subpart are in addition to and not in lieu of those contained in other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this subpart clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this subpart may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of disclosure</I>—(1) <I>Disclosures for high-cost mortgages.</I> The creditor shall furnish the disclosures required by § 1026.32 at least three business days prior to consummation or account opening of a high-cost mortgage as defined in § 1026.32(a).
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Change in terms.</I> After complying with this paragraph (c)(1) and prior to consummation or account opening, if the creditor changes any term that makes the disclosures inaccurate, new disclosures shall be provided in accordance with the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Telephone disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide new disclosures required by paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section by telephone if the consumer initiates the change and if, prior to or at consummation or account opening:
</P>
<P>(A) The creditor provides new written disclosures; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer and creditor sign a statement that the new disclosures were provided by telephone at least three days prior to consummation or account opening, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation or account opening.</I> The consumer may, after receiving the disclosures required by this paragraph (c)(1), modify or waive the three-day waiting period between delivery of those disclosures and consummation or account opening if the consumer determines that the extension of credit is needed to meet a bona fide personal financial emergency. To modify or waive the right, the consumer shall give the creditor a dated written statement that describes the emergency, specifically modifies or waives the waiting period, and bears the signature of all the consumers entitled to the waiting period. Printed forms for this purpose are prohibited, except when creditors are permitted to use printed forms pursuant to § 1026.23(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures for reverse mortgages.</I> The creditor shall furnish the disclosures required by § 1026.33 at least three business days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Consummation of a closed-end credit transaction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The first transaction under an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates</I>—(1) <I>Legal obligation.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimates.</I> If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Per-diem interest.</I> For a transaction in which a portion of the interest is determined on a per-diem basis and collected at consummation, any disclosure affected by the per-diem interest shall be considered accurate if the disclosure is based on the information known to the creditor at the time that the disclosure documents are prepared.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor must comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation. If the transaction is rescindable under § 1026.15 or § 1026.23, however, the disclosures shall be made to each consumer who has the right to rescind.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effect of subsequent events.</I> If a disclosure becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), although new disclosures may be required for mortgages covered by § 1026.32 under paragraph (c) of this section, § 1026.9(c), § 1026.19, or § 1026.20.
</P>
<P>(g) Accuracy of annual percentage rate. For purposes of section 1026.32, the annual percentage rate shall be considered accurate, and may be used in determining whether a transaction is covered by section 1026.32, if it is accurate according to the requirements and within the tolerances under section 1026.22 for closed-end credit transactions or 1026.6(a) for open-end credit plans. The finance charge tolerances for rescission under section 1026.23(g) or (h) shall not apply for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Corrections and unintentional violations.</I> A creditor or assignee in a high-cost mortgage, as defined in § 1026.32(a), who, when acting in good faith, failed to comply with any requirement under section 129 of the Act will not be deemed to have violated such requirement if the creditor or assignee satisfies either of the following sets of conditions:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Within 30 days of consummation or account opening and prior to the institution of any action, the consumer is notified of or discovers the violation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate restitution is made within a reasonable time; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a reasonable time, whatever adjustments are necessary are made to the loan or credit plan to either, at the choice of the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Make the loan or credit plan satisfy the requirements of 15 U.S.C. 1631-1651; or
</P>
<P>(B) Change the terms of the loan or credit plan in a manner beneficial to the consumer so that the loan or credit plan will no longer be a high-cost mortgage.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Within 60 days of the creditor's discovery or receipt of notification of an unintentional violation or bona fide error and prior to the institution of any action, the consumer is notified of the compliance failure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate restitution is made within a reasonable time; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a reasonable time, whatever adjustments are necessary are made to the loan or credit plan to either, at the choice of the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) Make the loan or credit plan satisfy the requirements of 15 U.S.C. 1631-1651; or
</P>
<P>(B) Change the terms of the loan or credit plan in a manner beneficial to the consumer so that the loan or credit plan will no longer be a high-cost mortgage. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 6962, Jan. 31, 2013; 78 FR 60440, Oct. 1, 2013] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.32" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.32   Requirements for high-cost mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> (1) The requirements of this section apply to a <I>high-cost mortgage,</I> which is any consumer credit transaction that is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, other than as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, and in which:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual percentage rate applicable to the transaction, as determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(3) of this section, will exceed the average prime offer rate, as defined in § 1026.35(a)(2), for a comparable transaction by more than:
</P>
<P>(A) 6.5 percentage points for a first-lien transaction, other than as described in paragraph (a)(1)(i)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) 8.5 percentage points for a first-lien transaction if the dwelling is personal property and the loan amount is less than $50,000; or
</P>
<P>(C) 8.5 percentage points for a subordinate-lien transaction; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction's total points and fees, as defined in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, will exceed:
</P>
<P>(A) 5 percent of the total loan amount for a transaction with a loan amount of $20,000 or more; the $20,000 figure shall be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index that was reported on the preceding June 1; or
</P>
<P>(B) The lesser of 8 percent of the total loan amount or $1,000 for a transaction with a loan amount of less than $20,000; the $1,000 and $20,000 figures shall be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index that was reported on the preceding June 1; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the terms of the loan contract or open-end credit agreement, the creditor can charge a prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section, more than 36 months after consummation or account opening, or prepayment penalties that can exceed, in total, more than 2 percent of the amount prepaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemptions.</I> This section does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33;
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling;
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction originated by a Housing Finance Agency, where the Housing Finance Agency is the creditor for the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction originated pursuant to the United States Department of Agriculture's Rural Development Section 502 Direct Loan Program.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination of annual percentage rate.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, a creditor shall determine the annual percentage rate for a closed- or open-end credit transaction based on the following:
</P>
<P>(i) For a transaction in which the annual percentage rate will not vary during the term of the loan or credit plan, the interest rate in effect as of the date the interest rate for the transaction is set;
</P>
<P>(ii) For a transaction in which the interest rate may vary during the term of the loan or credit plan in accordance with an index, the interest rate that results from adding the maximum margin permitted at any time during the term of the loan or credit plan to the value of the index rate in effect as of the date the interest rate for the transaction is set, or the introductory interest rate, whichever is greater; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For a transaction in which the interest rate may or will vary during the term of the loan or credit plan, other than a transaction described in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, the maximum interest rate that may be imposed during the term of the loan or credit plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) In connection with a closed-end credit transaction, <I>points and fees</I> means the following fees or charges that are known at or before consummation:
</P>
<P>(i) All items included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a) and (b), except that the following items are excluded:
</P>
<P>(A) Interest or the time-price differential;
</P>
<P>(B) Any premium or other charge imposed in connection with any Federal or State agency program for any guaranty or insurance that protects the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss;
</P>
<P>(C) For any guaranty or insurance that protects the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss and that is not in connection with any Federal or State agency program:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the premium or other charge is payable after consummation, the entire amount of such premium or other charge; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the premium or other charge is payable at or before consummation, the portion of any such premium or other charge that is not in excess of the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)), provided that the premium or charge is required to be refundable on a pro rata basis and the refund is automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(D) Any bona fide third-party charge not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either, unless the charge is required to be included in points and fees under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(C), (iii), or (iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Up to two bona fide discount points paid by the consumer in connection with the transaction, if the interest rate without any discount does not exceed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average prime offer rate, as defined in § 1026.35(a)(2), by more than one percentage point; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, for transactions that are secured by personal property, the average rate for a loan insured under Title I of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1702 <I>et seq.</I>) by more than one percentage point; and
</P>
<P>(F) If no discount points have been excluded under paragraph (b)(1)(i)(E) of this section, then up to one bona fide discount point paid by the consumer in connection with the transaction, if the interest rate without any discount does not exceed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average prime offer rate, as defined in § 1026.35(a)(2), by more than two percentage points; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, for transactions that are secured by personal property, the average rate for a loan insured under Title I of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1702 <I>et seq.</I>) by more than two percentage points;
</P>
<P>(ii) All compensation paid directly or indirectly by a consumer or creditor to a loan originator, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), that can be attributed to that transaction at the time the interest rate is set unless:
</P>
<P>(A) That compensation is paid by a consumer to a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), and already has been included in points and fees under paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) That compensation is paid by a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), to a loan originator that is an employee of the mortgage broker;
</P>
<P>(C) That compensation is paid by a creditor to a loan originator that is an employee of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(D) That compensation is paid by a retailer of manufactured homes to its employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) All items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) (other than amounts held for future payment of taxes), unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The charge is reasonable;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation in connection with the charge; and
</P>
<P>(C) The charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor;
</P>
<P>(iv) Premiums or other charges payable at or before consummation for any credit life, credit disability, credit unemployment, or credit property insurance, or any other life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance for which the creditor is a beneficiary, or any payments directly or indirectly for any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract;
</P>
<P>(v) The maximum prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6)(i) of this section, that may be charged or collected under the terms of the mortgage loan; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The total prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section, as applicable, incurred by the consumer if the consumer refinances the existing mortgage loan, or terminates an existing open-end credit plan in connection with obtaining a new mortgage loan, with the current holder of the existing loan or plan, a servicer acting on behalf of the current holder, or an affiliate of either.
</P>
<P>(2) In connection with an open-end credit plan, <I>points and fees</I> means the following fees or charges that are known at or before account opening:
</P>
<P>(i) All items included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a) and (b), except that the following items are excluded:
</P>
<P>(A) Interest or the time-price differential;
</P>
<P>(B) Any premium or other charge imposed in connection with any Federal or State agency program for any guaranty or insurance that protects the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss;
</P>
<P>(C) For any guaranty or insurance that protects the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss and that is not in connection with any Federal or State agency program:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the premium or other charge is payable after account opening, the entire amount of such premium or other charge; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the premium or other charge is payable at or before account opening, the portion of any such premium or other charge that is not in excess of the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of account opening under section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)), provided that the premium or charge is required to be refundable on a pro rata basis and the refund is automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage transaction;
</P>
<P>(D) Any bona fide third-party charge not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either, unless the charge is required to be included in points and fees under paragraphs (b)(2)(i)(C), (b)(2)(iii) or (b)(2)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(E) Up to two bona fide discount points payable by the consumer in connection with the transaction, provided that the conditions specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(E) of this section are met; and
</P>
<P>(F) Up to one bona fide discount point payable by the consumer in connection with the transaction, provided that no discount points have been excluded under paragraph (b)(2)(i)(E) of this section and the conditions specified in paragraph (b)(1)(i)(F) of this section are met;
</P>
<P>(ii) All compensation paid directly or indirectly by a consumer or creditor to a loan originator, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), that can be attributed to that transaction at the time the interest rate is set unless:
</P>
<P>(A) That compensation is paid by a consumer to a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), and already has been included in points and fees under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) That compensation is paid by a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), to a loan originator that is an employee of the mortgage broker;
</P>
<P>(C) That compensation is paid by a creditor to a loan originator that is an employee of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(D) That compensation is paid by a retailer of manufactured homes to its employee.
</P>
<P>(iii) All items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) (other than amounts held for future payment of taxes) unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The charge is reasonable;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation in connection with the charge; and
</P>
<P>(C) The charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor;
</P>
<P>(iv) Premiums or other charges payable at or before account opening for any credit life, credit disability, credit unemployment, or credit property insurance, or any other life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance for which the creditor is a beneficiary, or any payments directly or indirectly for any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract;
</P>
<P>(v) The maximum prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section, that may be charged or collected under the terms of the open-end credit plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) The total prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6)(i) or (ii) of this section, as applicable, incurred by the consumer if the consumer refinances an existing closed-end credit transaction with an open-end credit plan, or terminates an existing open-end credit plan in connection with obtaining a new open-end credit plan, with the current holder of the existing transaction or plan, a servicer acting on behalf of the current holder, or an affiliate of either;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any fees charged for participation in an open-end credit plan, payable at or before account opening, as described in § 1026.4(c)(4); and
</P>
<P>(viii) Any transaction fee, including any minimum fee or per-transaction fee, that will be charged for a draw on the credit line, where the creditor must assume that the consumer will make at least one draw during the term of the plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bona fide discount point</I>—(i) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> The term <I>bona fide discount point</I> means an amount equal to 1 percent of the loan amount paid by the consumer that reduces the interest rate or time-price differential applicable to the transaction based on a calculation that is consistent with established industry practices for determining the amount of reduction in the interest rate or time-price differential appropriate for the amount of discount points paid by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Open-end credit.</I> The term <I>bona fide discount point</I> means an amount equal to 1 percent of the credit limit for the plan when the account is opened, paid by the consumer, and that reduces the interest rate or time-price differential applicable to the transaction based on a calculation that is consistent with established industry practices for determining the amount of reduction in the interest rate or time-price differential appropriate for the amount of discount points paid by the consumer. See comment 32(b)(3)(i)-1 for additional guidance in determining whether a discount point is bona fide.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total loan amount</I>—(i) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> The total loan amount for a closed-end credit transaction is calculated by taking the amount financed, as determined according to § 1026.18(b), and deducting any cost listed in § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii), (iv), or (vi) that is both included as points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) and financed by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Open-end credit.</I> The total loan amount for an open-end credit plan is the credit limit for the plan when the account is opened.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prepayment penalty</I>—(i) <I>Closed-end credit transactions.</I> For a closed-end credit transaction, <I>prepayment penalty</I> means a charge imposed for paying all or part of the transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer prepays all of the transaction's principal sooner than 36 months after consummation, provided, however, that interest charged consistent with the monthly interest accrual amortization method is not a prepayment penalty for extensions of credit insured by the Federal Housing Administration that are consummated before January 21, 2015.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Open-end credit.</I> For an open-end credit plan, <I>prepayment penalty</I> means a charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan prior to the end of its term, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan sooner than 36 months after account opening.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to other disclosures required by this part, in a mortgage subject to this section, the creditor shall disclose the following in conspicuous type size:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notices.</I> The following statement: “You are not required to complete this agreement merely because you have received these disclosures or have signed a loan application. If you obtain this loan, the lender will have a mortgage on your home. You could lose your home, and any money you have put into it, if you do not meet your obligations under the loan.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regular payment; minimum periodic payment example; balloon payment.</I> (i) For a closed-end credit transaction, the amount of the regular monthly (or other periodic) payment and the amount of any balloon payment provided in the credit contract, if permitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. The regular payment disclosed under this paragraph shall be treated as accurate if it is based on an amount borrowed that is deemed accurate and is disclosed under paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an open-end credit plan:
</P>
<P>(A) An example showing the first minimum periodic payment for the draw period, the first minimum periodic payment for any repayment period, and the balance outstanding at the beginning of any repayment period. The example must be based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The consumer borrows the full credit line, as disclosed in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, at account opening and does not obtain any additional extensions of credit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The consumer makes only minimum periodic payments during the draw period and any repayment period; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The annual percentage rate used to calculate the example payments remains the same during the draw period and any repayment period. The creditor must provide the minimum periodic payment example based on the annual percentage rate for the plan, as described in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, except that if an introductory annual percentage rate applies, the creditor must use the rate that will apply to the plan after the introductory rate expires.
</P>
<P>(B) If the credit contract provides for a balloon payment under the plan as permitted under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a disclosure of that fact and an example showing the amount of the balloon payment based on the assumptions described in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the example payments show the first minimum periodic payments at the current annual percentage rate if the consumer borrows the maximum credit available when the account is opened and does not obtain any additional extensions of credit, or a substantially similar statement.
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the example payments are not the consumer's actual payments and that the actual minimum periodic payments will depend on the amount the consumer borrows, the interest rate applicable to that period, and whether the consumer pays more than the required minimum periodic payment, or a substantially similar statement.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Variable-rate.</I> For variable-rate transactions, a statement that the interest rate and monthly payment may increase, and the amount of the single maximum monthly payment, based on the maximum interest rate required to be included in the contract by § 1026.30.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Amount borrowed; credit limit.</I> (i) For a closed-end credit transaction, the total amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected by the face amount of the note. Where the amount borrowed includes financed charges that are not prohibited under § 1026.34(a)(10), that fact shall be stated, grouped together with the disclosure of the amount borrowed. The disclosure of the amount borrowed shall be treated as accurate if it is not more than $100 above or below the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) For an open-end credit plan, the credit limit for the plan when the account is opened.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Limitations.</I> A high-cost mortgage shall not include the following terms:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Balloon payment.</I> Except as provided by paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, a payment schedule with a payment that is more than two times a regular periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions.</I> The limitations in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) A mortgage transaction with a payment schedule that is adjusted to the seasonal or irregular income of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(B) A loan with maturity of 12 months or less, if the purpose of the loan is a “bridge” loan connected with the acquisition or construction of a dwelling intended to become the consumer's principal dwelling; or
</P>
<P>(C) A loan that meets the criteria set forth in §§ 1026.43(f)(1)(i) through (vi) and 1026.43(f)(2), or the conditions set forth in § 1026.43(e)(6).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Open-end credit plans.</I> If the terms of an open-end credit plan provide for a repayment period during which no further draws may be taken, the limitations in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section do not apply to any adjustment in the regular periodic payment that results solely from the credit plan's transition from the draw period to the repayment period. If the terms of an open-end credit plan do not provide for any repayment period, the limitations in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section apply to all periods of the credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Negative amortization.</I> A payment schedule with regular periodic payments that cause the principal balance to increase.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advance payments.</I> A payment schedule that consolidates more than two periodic payments and pays them in advance from the proceeds.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Increased interest rate.</I> An increase in the interest rate after default.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rebates.</I> A refund calculated by a method less favorable than the actuarial method (as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d)), for rebates of interest arising from a loan acceleration due to default.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> A prepayment penalty, as defined in paragraph (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Acceleration of debt.</I> A demand feature that permits the creditor to accelerate the indebtedness by terminating the high-cost mortgage in advance of the original maturity date and to demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance, except in the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(i) There is fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the loan or open-end credit agreement;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement for any outstanding balance that results in a default in payment under the loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) There is any action or inaction by the consumer that adversely affects the creditor's security for the loan, or any right of the creditor in such security.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 6583, Jan. 30, 2013; 78 FR 6962, Jan. 31, 2013; 78 FR 35502, June 12, 2013; 78 FR 60440, Oct. 1, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.33" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.33   Requirements for reverse mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this subpart, <I>reverse mortgage transaction</I> means a nonrecourse consumer credit obligation in which:
</P>
<P>(1) A mortgage, deed of trust, or equivalent consensual security interest securing one or more advances is created in the consumer's principal dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any principal, interest, or shared appreciation or equity is due and payable (other than in the case of default) only after:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer dies;
</P>
<P>(ii) The dwelling is transferred; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer ceases to occupy the dwelling as a principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> In addition to other disclosures required by this part, in a reverse mortgage transaction the creditor shall provide the following disclosures in a form substantially similar to the model form found in paragraph (d) of appendix K of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice.</I> A statement that the consumer is not obligated to complete the reverse mortgage transaction merely because the consumer has received the disclosures required by this section or has signed an application for a reverse mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total annual loan cost rates.</I> A good-faith projection of the total cost of the credit, determined in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section and expressed as a table of “total annual loan cost rates,” using that term, in accordance with appendix K of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Itemization of pertinent information.</I> An itemization of loan terms, charges, the age of the youngest borrower and the appraised property value.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Explanation of table.</I> An explanation of the table of total annual loan cost rates as provided in the model form found in paragraph (d) of appendix K of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Projected total cost of credit.</I> The projected total cost of credit shall reflect the following factors, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Costs to consumer.</I> All costs and charges to the consumer, including the costs of any annuity the consumer purchases as part of the reverse mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments to consumer.</I> All advances to and for the benefit of the consumer, including annuity payments that the consumer will receive from an annuity that the consumer purchases as part of the reverse mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional creditor compensation.</I> Any shared appreciation or equity in the dwelling that the creditor is entitled by contract to receive.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Limitations on consumer liability.</I> Any limitation on the consumer's liability (such as nonrecourse limits and equity conservation agreements).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Assumed annual appreciation rates.</I> Each of the following assumed annual appreciation rates for the dwelling:
</P>
<P>(i) 0 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) 4 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) 8 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Assumed loan period.</I> (i) Each of the following assumed loan periods, as provided in appendix L of this part:
</P>
<P>(A) Two years.
</P>
<P>(B) The actuarial life expectancy of the consumer to become obligated on the reverse mortgage transaction (as of that consumer's most recent birthday). In the case of multiple consumers, the period shall be the actuarial life expectancy of the youngest consumer (as of that consumer's most recent birthday).
</P>
<P>(C) The actuarial life expectancy specified by paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) of this section, multiplied by a factor of 1.4 and rounded to the nearest full year.
</P>
<P>(ii) At the creditor's option, the actuarial life expectancy specified by paragraph (c)(6)(i)(B) of this section, multiplied by a factor of .5 and rounded to the nearest full year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.34" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.34   Prohibited acts or practices in connection with high-cost mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited acts or practices for high-cost mortgages</I>—(1) <I>Home improvement contracts.</I> A creditor shall not pay a contractor under a home improvement contract from the proceeds of a high-cost mortgage, other than:
</P>
<P>(i) By an instrument payable to the consumer or jointly to the consumer and the contractor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At the election of the consumer, through a third-party escrow agent in accordance with terms established in a written agreement signed by the consumer, the creditor, and the contractor prior to the disbursement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice to assignee.</I> A creditor may not sell or otherwise assign a high-cost mortgage without furnishing the following statement to the purchaser or assignee: “Notice: This is a mortgage subject to special rules under the Federal Truth in Lending Act. Purchasers or assignees of this mortgage could be liable for all claims and defenses with respect to the mortgage that the consumer could assert against the creditor.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Refinancings within one-year period.</I> Within one year of having extended a high-cost mortgage, a creditor shall not refinance any high-cost mortgage to the same consumer into another high-cost mortgage, unless the refinancing is in the consumer's interest. An assignee holding or servicing a high-cost mortgage shall not, for the remainder of the one-year period following the date of origination of the credit, refinance any high-cost mortgage to the same consumer into another high-cost mortgage, unless the refinancing is in the consumer's interest. A creditor (or assignee) is prohibited from engaging in acts or practices to evade this provision, including a pattern or practice of arranging for the refinancing of its own loans by affiliated or unaffiliated creditors.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repayment ability for high-cost mortgages.</I> In connection with an open-end, high-cost mortgage, a creditor shall not open a plan for a consumer where credit is or will be extended without regard to the consumer's repayment ability as of account opening, including the consumer's current and reasonably expected income, employment, assets other than the collateral, and current obligations including any mortgage-related obligations that are required by another credit obligation undertaken prior to or at account opening, and are secured by the same dwelling that secures the high-cost mortgage transaction. The requirements set forth in § 1026.34(a)(4)(i) through (iv) apply to open-end high-cost mortgages, but do not apply to closed-end high-cost mortgages. In connection with a closed-end, high-cost mortgage, a creditor must comply with the repayment ability requirements set forth in § 1026.43. Temporary or “bridge” loans with terms of twelve months or less, such as a loan to purchase a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within twelve months, are exempt from this repayment ability requirement.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mortgage-related obligations.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (a)(4), mortgage-related obligations are property taxes; premiums and similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), and (10) that are required by the creditor; fees and special assessments imposed by a condominium, cooperative, or homeowners association; ground rent; and leasehold payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basis for determination of repayment ability.</I> Under this paragraph (a)(4) a creditor must determine the consumer's repayment ability in connection with an open-end, high cost mortgage as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) A creditor must verify amounts of income or assets that it relies on to determine repayment ability, including expected income or assets, by the consumer's Internal Revenue Service Form W-2, tax returns, payroll receipts, financial institution records, or other third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets.
</P>
<P>(B) A creditor must verify the consumer's current obligations, including any mortgage-related obligations that are required by another credit obligation undertaken prior to or at account opening, and are secured by the same dwelling that secures the high-cost mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Presumption of compliance.</I> For an open-end, high cost mortgage, a creditor is presumed to have complied with this paragraph (a)(4) with respect to a transaction if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(A) Determines the consumer's repayment ability as provided in paragraph (a)(4)(ii);
</P>
<P>(B) Determines the consumer's repayment ability taking into account current obligations and mortgage-related obligations as defined in paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, and using the largest required minimum periodic payment based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The consumer borrows the full credit line at account opening with no additional extensions of credit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The consumer makes only required minimum periodic payments during the draw period and any repayment period;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the annual percentage rate may increase during the plan, the maximum annual percentage rate that is included in the contract, as required by § 1026.30, applies to the plan at account opening and will apply during the draw period and any repayment period.
</P>
<P>(C) Assesses the consumer's repayment ability taking into account at least one of the following: The ratio of total current obligations, including any mortgage-related obligations that are required by another credit obligation undertaken prior to or at account opening, and are secured by the same dwelling that secures the high-cost mortgage transaction, to income, or the income the consumer will have after paying current obligations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exclusions from presumption of compliance.</I> Notwithstanding the previous paragraph, no presumption of compliance is available for an open-end, high-cost mortgage transaction for which the regular periodic payments when aggregated do not fully amortize the outstanding principal balance except as otherwise provided by § 1026.32(d)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pre-loan counseling</I>—(i) <I>Certification of counseling required.</I> A creditor shall not extend a high-cost mortgage to a consumer unless the creditor receives written certification that the consumer has obtained counseling on the advisability of the mortgage from a counselor that is approved to provide such counseling by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development or, if permitted by the Secretary, by a State housing finance authority.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of counseling.</I> The counseling required under this paragraph (a)(5) must occur after:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer receives either the disclosure required by section 5(c) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2604(c)) or the disclosures required by § 1026.40; or
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c), for transactions in which neither of the disclosures listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(A) of this section are provided.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Affiliation prohibited.</I> The counseling required under this paragraph (a)(5) shall not be provided by a counselor who is employed by or affiliated with the creditor.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Content of certification.</I> The certification of counseling required under paragraph (a)(5)(i) must include:
</P>
<P>(A) The name(s) of the consumer(s) who obtained counseling;
</P>
<P>(B) The date(s) of counseling;
</P>
<P>(C) The name and address of the counselor;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that the consumer(s) received counseling on the advisability of the high-cost mortgage based on the terms provided in either the disclosure required by section 5(c) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2604(c)) or the disclosures required by § 1026.40.
</P>
<P>(E) For transactions for which neither of the disclosures listed in paragraph (a)(5)(ii)(A) of this section are provided, a statement that the consumer(s) received counseling on the advisability of the high-cost mortgage based on the terms provided in the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c); and
</P>
<P>(F) A statement that the counselor has verified that the consumer(s) received the disclosures required by either § 1026.32(c) or the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act of 1974 (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) with respect to the transaction.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Counseling fees.</I> A creditor may pay the fees of a counselor or counseling organization for providing counseling required under this paragraph (a)(5) but may not condition the payment of such fees on the consummation or account-opening of a mortgage transaction. If the consumer withdraws the application that would result in the extension of a high-cost mortgage, a creditor may not condition the payment of such fees on the receipt of certification from the counselor required by paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section. A creditor may, however, confirm that a counselor has provided counseling to the consumer pursuant to this paragraph (a)(5) prior to paying the fee of a counselor or counseling organization.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Steering prohibited.</I> A creditor that extends a high-cost mortgage shall not steer or otherwise direct a consumer to choose a particular counselor or counseling organization for the counseling required under this paragraph (a)(5).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Recommended default.</I> A creditor or mortgage broker, as defined in section 1026.36(a)(2), may not recommend or encourage default on an existing loan or other debt prior to and in connection with the consummation or account opening of a high-cost mortgage that refinances all or any portion of such existing loan or debt.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Modification and deferral fees.</I> A creditor, successor-in-interest, assignee, or any agent of such parties may not charge a consumer any fee to modify, renew, extend or amend a high-cost mortgage, or to defer any payment due under the terms of such mortgage.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Late fees</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Any late payment charge imposed in connection with a high-cost mortgage must be specifically permitted by the terms of the loan contract or open-end credit agreement and may not exceed 4 percent of the amount of the payment past due. No such charge may be imposed more than once for a single late payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> A late payment charge may be imposed in connection with a high-cost mortgage only if the payment is not received by the end of the 15-day period beginning on the date the payment is due or, in the case of a high-cost mortgage on which interest on each installment is paid in advance, the end of the 30-day period beginning on the date the payment is due.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple late charges assessed on payment subsequently paid.</I> A late payment charge may not be imposed in connection with a high-cost mortgage payment if any delinquency is attributable only to a late payment charge imposed on an earlier payment, and the payment otherwise is a full payment for the applicable period and is paid by the due date or within any applicable grace period.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Failure to make required payment.</I> The terms of a high-cost mortgage agreement may provide that any payment shall first be applied to any past due balance. If the consumer fails to make a timely payment by the due date and subsequently resumes making payments but has not paid all past due payments, the creditor may impose a separate late payment charge for any payment(s) outstanding (without deduction due to late fees or related fees) until the default is cured.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Payoff statements</I>—(i) <I>Fee prohibition.</I> In general, a creditor or servicer (as defined in 12 CFR 1024.2(b)) may not charge a fee for providing to a consumer, or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain such information, a statement of the amount due to pay off the outstanding balance of a high-cost mortgage.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Processing fee.</I> A creditor or servicer may charge a processing fee to cover the cost of providing a payoff statement, as described in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, by fax or courier, provided that such fee may not exceed an amount that is comparable to fees imposed for similar services provided in connection with consumer credit transactions that are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and are not high-cost mortgages. A creditor or servicer shall make a payoff statement available to a consumer, or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain such information, by a method other than by fax or courier and without charge pursuant to paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Processing fee disclosure.</I> Prior to charging a processing fee for provision of a payoff statement by fax or courier, as permitted pursuant to paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, a creditor or servicer shall disclose to a consumer or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain the consumer's payoff statement that payoff statements, as described in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, are available by a method other than by fax or courier without charge.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Fees permitted after multiple requests.</I> A creditor or servicer that has provided a payoff statement, as described in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, to a consumer, or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain such information, without charge, other than the processing fee permitted under paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, four times during a calendar year, may thereafter charge a reasonable fee for providing such statements during the remainder of the calendar year. Fees for payoff statements provided to a consumer, or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain such information, in a subsequent calendar year are subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Timing of delivery of payoff statements.</I> A payoff statement, as described in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, for a high-cost mortgage shall be provided by a creditor or servicer within five business days after receiving a request for such statement by a consumer or a person authorized by the consumer to obtain such statement.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Financing of points and fees.</I> A creditor that extends credit under a high-cost mortgage may not finance charges that are required to be included in the calculation of points and fees, as that term is defined in § 1026.32(b)(1) and (2). Credit insurance premiums or debt cancellation or suspension fees that are required to be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iv) or (2)(iv) shall not be considered financed by the creditor when they are calculated and paid in full on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited acts or practices for dwelling-secured loans; structuring loans to evade high-cost mortgage requirements.</I> A creditor shall not structure any transaction that is otherwise a high-cost mortgage in a form, for the purpose, and with the intent to evade the requirements of a high-cost mortgage subject to this subpart, including by dividing any loan transaction into separate parts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 6964, Jan. 31, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 30745, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 63005, Oct. 23, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.35" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.35   Requirements for higher-priced mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) “Higher-priced mortgage loan” means a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set:
</P>
<P>(i) By 1.5 or more percentage points for loans secured by a first lien with a principal obligation at consummation that does not exceed the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac;
</P>
<P>(ii) By 2.5 or more percentage points for loans secured by a first lien with a principal obligation at consummation that exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By 3.5 or more percentage points for loans secured by a subordinate lien.
</P>
<P>(2) “Average prime offer rate” means an annual percentage rate that is derived from average interest rates, points, and other loan pricing terms currently offered to consumers by a representative sample of creditors for mortgage transactions that have low-risk pricing characteristics. The Bureau publishes average prime offer rates for a broad range of types of transactions in a table updated at least weekly as well as the methodology the Bureau uses to derive these rates.
</P>
<P>(3) “Insured credit union” has the meaning given in Section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752).
</P>
<P>(4) “Insured depository institution” has the meaning given in Section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Escrow accounts</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to escrow for property taxes and insurance.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a creditor may not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a first lien on a consumer's principal dwelling unless an escrow account is established before consummation for payment of property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor, such as insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of the property, or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss. For purposes of this paragraph (b), the term “escrow account” has the same meaning as under Regulation X (12 CFR 1024.17(b)), as amended.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An escrow account need not be established for:
</P>
<P>(A) A transaction secured by shares in a cooperative;
</P>
<P>(B) A transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling;
</P>
<P>(C) A temporary or “bridge” loan with a loan term of twelve months or less, such as a loan to purchase a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within twelve months; or
</P>
<P>(D) A reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33.
</P>
<P>(E) A PACE transaction, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(15).








</P>
<P>(ii) Insurance premiums described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section need not be included in escrow accounts for loans secured by dwellings in condominiums, planned unit developments, or other common interest communities in which dwelling ownership requires participation in a governing association, where the governing association has an obligation to the dwelling owners to maintain a master policy insuring all dwellings.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, an escrow account need not be established for a transaction if, at the time of consummation:
</P>
<P>(A) During the preceding calendar year, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, during either of the two preceding calendar years, the creditor extended a covered transaction, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by a first lien on a property that is located in an area that is either “rural” or “underserved,” as set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) During the preceding calendar year, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, during either of the two preceding calendar years, the creditor and its affiliates together extended no more than 2,000 covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person;
</P>
<P>(C) As of the preceding December 31st, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, as of either of the two preceding December 31sts, the creditor and its affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, together, had total assets of less than $2,000,000,000; this asset threshold shall adjust automatically each year, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million dollars (see comment 35(b)(2)(iii)-1.iii for the applicable threshold); and
</P>
<P>(D) Neither the creditor nor its affiliate maintains an escrow account of the type described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for any extension of consumer credit secured by real property or a dwelling that the creditor or its affiliate currently services, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Escrow accounts established for first-lien higher-priced mortgage loans for which applications were received on or after April 1, 2010, and before June 17, 2021; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Escrow accounts established after consummation as an accommodation to distressed consumers to assist such consumers in avoiding default or foreclosure.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) An area is “rural” during a calendar year if it is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A county that is neither in a metropolitan statistical area nor in a micropolitan statistical area that is adjacent to a metropolitan statistical area, as those terms are defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget and as they are applied under currently applicable Urban Influence Codes (UICs), established by the United States Department of Agriculture's Economic Research Service (USDA-ERS); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A census block that is not in an urban area, as defined by the U.S. Census Bureau using the latest decennial census of the United States.
</P>
<P>(B) An area is “underserved” during a calendar year if, according to Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data for the preceding calendar year, it is a county in which no more than two creditors extended covered transactions, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens on properties in the county five or more times.
</P>
<P>(C) A property shall be deemed to be in an area that is rural or underserved in a particular calendar year if the property is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Located in a county that appears on the lists published by the Bureau of counties that are rural or underserved, as defined by § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(B), for that calendar year,
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Designated as rural or underserved for that calendar year by any automated tool that the Bureau provides on its public Web site, or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Not designated as located in an urban area, as defined by the most recent delineation of urban areas announced by the Census Bureau, by any automated address search tool that the U.S. Census Bureau provides on its public Web site for that purpose and that specifically indicates the urban or rural designations of properties.
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(2)(iii) and (vi) of this section, an escrow account must be established pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section for any first-lien higher-priced mortgage loan that, at consummation, is subject to a commitment to be acquired by a person that does not satisfy the conditions in paragraph (b)(2)(iii) or (vi) of this section, unless otherwise exempted by this paragraph (b)(2).
</P>
<P>(vi) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(v) of this section, an escrow account need not be established for a transaction made by a creditor that is an insured depository institution or insured credit union if, at the time of consummation:
</P>
<P>(A) As of the preceding December 31st, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, as of either of the two preceding December 31sts, the insured depository institution or insured credit union had assets of $10,000,000,000 or less, adjusted annually for inflation using the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November (see comment 35(b)(2)(vi)(A)-1 for the applicable threshold);
</P>
<P>(B) During the preceding calendar year, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, during either of the two preceding calendar years, the creditor and its affiliates, as defined in § 1026.32(b)(5), together extended no more than 1,000 covered transactions secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(C) The transaction satisfies the criteria in paragraphs (b)(2)(iii)(A) and (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cancellation</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a creditor or servicer may cancel an escrow account required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section only upon the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(A) Termination of the underlying debt obligation; or
</P>
<P>(B) Receipt no earlier than five years after consummation of a consumer's request to cancel the escrow account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Delayed cancellation.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, a creditor or servicer shall not cancel an escrow account pursuant to a consumer's request described in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section unless the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance is less than 80 percent of the original value of the property securing the underlying debt obligation; and
</P>
<P>(B) The consumer currently is not delinquent or in default on the underlying debt obligation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Certified or licensed appraiser</I> means a person who is certified or licensed by the State agency in the State in which the property that secures the transaction is located, and who performs the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements applicable to appraisers in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Credit risk</I> means the financial risk that a consumer will default on a loan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Manufactured home</I> has the same meaning as in 24 CFR 3280.2.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Manufacturer's invoice</I> means a document issued by a manufacturer and provided with a manufactured home to a retail dealer that separately details the wholesale (base) prices at the factory for specific models or series of manufactured homes and itemized options (large appliances, built-in items and equipment), plus actual itemized charges for freight from the factory to the dealer's lot or the homesite (including any rental of wheels and axles) and for any sales taxes to be paid by the dealer. The invoice may recite such prices and charges on an itemized basis or by stating an aggregate price or charge, as appropriate, for each category.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>National Registry</I> means the database of information about State certified and licensed appraisers maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>New manufactured home</I> means a manufactured home that has not been previously occupied.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>State agency</I> means a “State appraiser certifying and licensing agency” recognized in accordance with section 1118(b) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3347(b)) and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exemptions.</I> Unless otherwise specified, the requirements in paragraph (c)(3) through (6) of this section do not apply to the following types of transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan that satisfies the criteria of a qualified mortgage as defined pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1639c;
</P>
<P>(ii) An extension of credit for which the amount of credit extended is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount, which is adjusted every year to reflect increases in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, as applicable, and published in the official staff commentary to this paragraph (c)(2)(ii);
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction secured by a mobile home, boat, or trailer.
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(v) A loan with a maturity of 12 months or less, if the purpose of the loan is a “bridge” loan connected with the acquisition of a dwelling intended to become the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(vi) A reverse-mortgage transaction subject to 12 CFR 1026.33(a).
</P>
<P>(vii) An extension of credit that is a refinancing secured by a first lien, with refinancing defined as in § 1026.20(a) (except that the creditor need not be the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation), provided that the refinancing meets the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) Either—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The credit risk of the refinancing is retained by the person that held the credit risk of the existing obligation and there is no commitment, at consummation, to transfer the credit risk to another person; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The refinancing is insured or guaranteed by the same Federal government agency that insured or guaranteed the existing obligation;
</P>
<P>(B) The regular periodic payments under the refinance loan do not—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cause the principal balance to increase;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Result in a balloon payment, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(C) The proceeds from the refinancing are used solely to satisfy the existing obligation and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A transaction secured by:
</P>
<P>(A) A new manufactured home and land, but the exemption shall only apply to the requirement in paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section that the appraiser conduct a physical visit of the interior of the new manufactured home; or
</P>
<P>(B) A manufactured home and not land, for which the creditor obtains one of the following and provides a copy to the consumer no later than three business days prior to consummation of the transaction—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For a new manufactured home, the manufacturer's invoice for the manufactured home securing the transaction, provided that the date of manufacture is no earlier than 18 months prior to the creditor's receipt of the consumer's application for credit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A cost estimate of the value of the manufactured home securing the transaction obtained from an independent cost service provider; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A valuation, as defined in § 1026.42(b)(3), of the manufactured home performed by a person who has no direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction for which the valuation is performed and has training in valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Appraisals required</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer without obtaining, prior to consummation, a written appraisal of the property to be mortgaged. The appraisal must be performed by a certified or licensed appraiser who conducts a physical visit of the interior of the property that will secure the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor obtains a written appraisal that meets the requirements for an appraisal required under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section if the creditor:
</P>
<P>(A) Orders that the appraiser perform the appraisal in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(B) Verifies through the National Registry that the appraiser who signed the appraiser's certification was a certified or licensed appraiser in the State in which the appraised property is located as of the date the appraiser signed the appraiser's certification;
</P>
<P>(C) Confirms that the elements set forth in appendix N to this part are addressed in the written appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(D) Has no actual knowledge contrary to the facts or certifications contained in the written appraisal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Additional appraisal for certain higher-priced mortgage loans</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (c)(4)(vii) of this section, a creditor shall not extend a higher-priced mortgage loan to a consumer to finance the acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling without obtaining, prior to consummation, two written appraisals, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The seller acquired the property 90 or fewer days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 10 percent; or
</P>
<P>(B) The seller acquired the property 91 to 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property and the price in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property exceeds the seller's acquisition price by more than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Different certified or licensed appraisers.</I> The two appraisals required under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section may not be performed by the same certified or licensed appraiser.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Relationship to general appraisal requirements.</I> If two appraisals must be obtained under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, each appraisal shall meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Required analysis in the additional appraisal.</I> One of the two required appraisals must include an analysis of:
</P>
<P>(A) The difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, as specified in the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller;
</P>
<P>(B) Changes in market conditions between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>No charge for the additional appraisal.</I> If the creditor must obtain two appraisals under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, the creditor may charge the consumer for only one of the appraisals.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Creditor's determination of prior sale date and price</I>—(A) <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> A creditor must obtain two written appraisals under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section unless the creditor can demonstrate by exercising reasonable diligence that the requirement to obtain two appraisals does not apply. A creditor acts with reasonable diligence if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as the documents listed in appendix O to this part.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Inability to determine prior sale date or price—modified requirements for additional appraisal.</I> If, after exercising reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in paragraphs (c)(4)(i)(A) and (c)(4)(i)(B) are present and therefore must obtain two written appraisals in accordance with paragraphs (c)(4)(i) through (v) of this section, one of the two appraisals shall include an analysis of the factors in paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section only to the extent that the information necessary for the appraiser to perform the analysis can be determined.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Exemptions from the additional appraisal requirement.</I> The additional appraisal required under paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section shall not apply to extensions of credit that finance a consumer's acquisition of property:
</P>
<P>(A) From a local, State or Federal government agency;
</P>
<P>(B) From a person who acquired title to the property through foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure as a result of the person's exercise of rights as the holder of a defaulted mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(C) From a non-profit entity as part of a local, State, or Federal government program under which the non-profit entity is permitted to acquire title to single-family properties for resale from a seller who acquired title to the property through the process of foreclosure, deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, or other similar judicial or non-judicial procedure;
</P>
<P>(D) From a person who acquired title to the property by inheritance or pursuant to a court order of dissolution of marriage, civil union, or domestic partnership, or of partition of joint or marital assets to which the seller was a party;
</P>
<P>(E) From an employer or relocation agency in connection with the relocation of an employee;
</P>
<P>(F) From a servicemember, as defined in 50 U.S.C. App. 511(1), who received a deployment or permanent change of station order after the servicemember purchased the property;
</P>
<P>(G) Located in an area designated by the President as a federal disaster area, if and for as long as the Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(6), waive the requirements in title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations in that area; or
</P>
<P>(H) Located in a rural county, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Required disclosure</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a creditor shall disclose the following statement, in writing, to a consumer who applies for a higher-priced mortgage loan: “We may order an appraisal to determine the property's value and charge you for this appraisal. We will give you a copy of any appraisal, even if your loan does not close. You can pay for an additional appraisal for your own use at your own cost.” Compliance with the disclosure requirement in Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(2), satisfies the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of disclosure.</I> The disclosure required by paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section shall be delivered or placed in the mail no later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application for a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to paragraph (c) of this section. In the case of a loan that is not a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to paragraph (c) of this section at the time of application, but becomes a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to paragraph (c) of this section after application, the disclosure shall be delivered or placed in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor determines that the loan is a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Copy of appraisals</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of any written appraisal performed in connection with a higher-priced mortgage loan pursuant to paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing.</I> A creditor shall provide to the consumer a copy of each written appraisal pursuant to paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) No later than three business days prior to consummation of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a loan that is not consummated, no later than 30 days after the creditor determines that the loan will not be consummated.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Form of copy.</I> Any copy of a written appraisal required by paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section may be provided to the applicant in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>No charge for copy of appraisal.</I> A creditor shall not charge the consumer for a copy of a written appraisal required to be provided to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Relation to other rules.</I> The rules in this paragraph (c) were adopted jointly by the Federal Reserve Board (Board), the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC), the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, the Federal Housing Finance Agency, and the Bureau. These rules are substantively identical to the Board's and the OCC's higher-priced mortgage loan appraisal rules published separately in 12 CFR 226.43 (for the Board) and in 12 CFR part 34, subpart G and 12 CFR part 164, subpart B (for the OCC).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evasion; open-end credit.</I> In connection with credit secured by a consumer's principal dwelling that does not meet the definition of open-end credit in § 1026.2(a)(20), a creditor shall not structure a home-secured loan as an open-end plan to evade the requirements of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 4753, Jan. 22, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 10442, Feb. 13, 2013; 78 FR 30745, May 23, 2013; 78 FR 44718, July 24, 2013; 78 FR 60441, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 78585, 78586, Dec. 26, 2013; 80 FR 59967, Oct. 2, 2015; 81 FR 16082, Mar. 25, 2016; 86 FR 9852, Feb. 17, 2021; 90 FR 2501, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.36" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.36   Prohibited acts or practices and certain requirements for credit secured by a dwelling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Loan originator.</I> (i) For purposes of this section, the term “loan originator” means a person who, in expectation of direct or indirect compensation or other monetary gain or for direct or indirect compensation or other monetary gain, performs any of the following activities: takes an application, offers, arranges, assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain, negotiates, or otherwise obtains or makes an extension of consumer credit for another person; or through advertising or other means of communication represents to the public that such person can or will perform any of these activities. The term “loan originator” includes an employee, agent, or contractor of the creditor or loan originator organization if the employee, agent, or contractor meets this definition. The term “loan originator” includes a creditor that engages in loan origination activities if the creditor does not finance the transaction at consummation out of the creditor's own resources, including by drawing on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit or out of deposits held by the creditor. All creditors that engage in any of the foregoing loan origination activities are loan originators for purposes of paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) A person who does not take a consumer credit application or offer or negotiate credit terms available from a creditor, but who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who does engage in such activities.
</P>
<P>(B) An employee of a manufactured home retailer who does not take a consumer credit application, offer or negotiate credit terms available from a creditor, or advise a consumer on credit terms (including rates, fees, and other costs) available from a creditor.
</P>
<P>(C) A person that performs only real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person is compensated by a creditor or loan originator or by any agent of such creditor or loan originator for a particular consumer credit transaction subject to this section.
</P>
<P>(D) A seller financer that meets the criteria in paragraph (a)(4) or (a)(5) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(E) A servicer or servicer's employees, agents, and contractors who offer or negotiate terms for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing, or subordinating principal of existing mortgages where consumers are behind in their payments, in default, or have a reasonable likelihood of defaulting or falling behind. This exception does not apply, however, to a servicer or servicer's employees, agents, and contractors who offer or negotiate a transaction that constitutes a refinancing under § 1026.20(a) or obligates a different consumer on the existing debt.
</P>
<P>(ii) An “individual loan originator” is a natural person who meets the definition of “loan originator” in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) A “loan originator organization” is any loan originator, as defined in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, that is not an individual loan originator.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mortgage broker.</I> For purposes of this section, a mortgage broker with respect to a particular transaction is any loan originator that is not an employee of the creditor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Compensation.</I> The term “compensation” includes salaries, commissions, and any financial or similar incentive.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Seller financers; three properties.</I> A person (as defined in § 1026.2(a)(22)) that meets all of the following criteria is not a loan originator under paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person.
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing.
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay.
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Seller financers; one property.</I> A natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria is not a loan originator under paragraph (a)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person.
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization.
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Credit terms.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “credit terms” includes rates, fees, and other costs. Credit terms are selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics when those terms are selected based on any factors that may influence a credit decision, such as debts, income, assets, or credit history.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> Paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section apply to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. Paragraph (c)(3) of this section applies to a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling. Paragraphs (d) through (i) of this section apply to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling. This section does not apply to a home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40, except that paragraphs (h) and (i) of this section apply to such credit when secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and paragraph (c)(3) applies to such credit when secured by a dwelling. Paragraphs (d) through (i) of this section do not apply to a loan that is secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Servicing practices.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the terms “servicer” and “servicing” have the same meanings as provided in 12 CFR 1024.2(b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payment processing.</I> In connection with a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Periodic payments.</I> No servicer shall fail to credit a periodic payment to the consumer's loan account as of the date of receipt, except when a delay in crediting does not result in any charge to the consumer or in the reporting of negative information to a consumer reporting agency, or except as provided in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section. A periodic payment, as used in this paragraph (c), is an amount sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle. A payment qualifies as a periodic payment even if it does not include amounts required to cover late fees, other fees, or non-escrow payments a servicer has advanced on a consumer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Partial payments.</I> Any servicer that retains a partial payment, meaning any payment less than a periodic payment, in a suspense or unapplied funds account shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Disclose to the consumer the total amount of funds held in such suspense or unapplied funds account on the periodic statement as required by § 1026.41(d)(3), if a periodic statement is required; and
</P>
<P>(B) On accumulation of sufficient funds to cover a periodic payment in any suspense or unapplied funds account, treat such funds as a periodic payment received in accordance with paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-conforming payments.</I> If a servicer specifies in writing requirements for the consumer to follow in making payments, but accepts a payment that does not conform to the requirements, the servicer shall credit the payment as of five days after receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No pyramiding of late fees.</I> In connection with a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling, a servicer shall not impose any late fee or delinquency charge for a payment if:
</P>
<P>(i) Such a fee or charge is attributable solely to failure of the consumer to pay a late fee or delinquency charge on an earlier payment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment is otherwise a periodic payment received on the due date, or within any applicable courtesy period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Payoff statements.</I> In connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a consumer's dwelling, a creditor, assignee or servicer, as applicable, must provide an accurate statement of the total outstanding balance that would be required to pay the consumer's obligation in full as of a specified date. The statement shall be sent within a reasonable time, but in no case more than seven business days, after receiving a written request from the consumer or any person acting on behalf of the consumer. When a creditor, assignee, or servicer, as applicable, is not able to provide the statement within seven business days of such a request because a loan is in bankruptcy or foreclosure, because the loan is a reverse mortgage or shared appreciation mortgage, or because of natural disasters or other similar circumstances, the payoff statement must be provided within a reasonable time. A creditor or assignee that does not currently own the mortgage loan or the mortgage servicing rights is not subject to the requirement in this paragraph (c)(3) to provide a payoff statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibited payments to loan originators</I>—(1) <I>Payments based on a term of a transaction.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) or (iv) of this section, in connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, no loan originator shall receive and no person shall pay to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, compensation in an amount that is based on a term of a transaction, the terms of multiple transactions by an individual loan originator, or the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. If a loan originator's compensation is based in whole or in part on a factor that is a proxy for a term of a transaction, the loan originator's compensation is based on a term of a transaction. A factor that is not itself a term of a transaction is a proxy for a term of the transaction if the factor consistently varies with that term over a significant number of transactions, and the loan originator has the ability, directly or indirectly, to add, drop, or change the factor in originating the transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (d)(1) only, a “term of a transaction” is any right or obligation of the parties to a credit transaction. The amount of credit extended is not a term of a transaction or a proxy for a term of a transaction, provided that compensation received by or paid to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, is based on a fixed percentage of the amount of credit extended; however, such compensation may be subject to a minimum or maximum dollar amount.
</P>
<P>(iii) An individual loan originator may receive, and a person may pay to an individual loan originator, compensation in the form of a contribution to a defined contribution plan that is a designated tax-advantaged plan or a benefit under a defined benefit plan that is a designated tax-advantaged plan. In the case of a contribution to a defined contribution plan, the contribution shall not be directly or indirectly based on the terms of that individual loan originator's transactions. As used in this paragraph (d)(1)(iii), “designated tax-advantaged plan” means any plan that meets the requirements of Internal Revenue Code section 401(a), 26 U.S.C. 401(a); employee annuity plan described in Internal Revenue Code section 403(a), 26 U.S.C. 403(a); simple retirement account, as defined in Internal Revenue Code section 408(p), 26 U.S.C. 408(p); simplified employee pension described in Internal Revenue Code section 408(k), 26 U.S.C. 408(k); annuity contract described in Internal Revenue Code section 403(b), 26 U.S.C. 403(b); or eligible deferred compensation plan, as defined in Internal Revenue Code section 457(b), 26 U.S.C. 457(b).
</P>
<P>(iv) An individual loan originator may receive, and a person may pay to an individual loan originator, compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan (<I>i.e.,</I> any arrangement for the payment of non-deferred compensation that is determined with reference to the profits of the person from mortgage-related business), provided that:
</P>
<P>(A) The compensation paid to an individual loan originator pursuant to this paragraph (d)(1)(iv) is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of that individual loan originator's transactions that are subject to this paragraph (d); and
</P>
<P>(B) At least one of the following conditions is satisfied:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The compensation paid to an individual loan originator pursuant to this paragraph (d)(1)(iv) does not, in the aggregate, exceed 10 percent of the individual loan originator's total compensation corresponding to the time period for which the compensation under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is paid; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The individual loan originator was a loan originator for ten or fewer transactions subject to this paragraph (d) consummated during the 12-month period preceding the date of the compensation determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Payments by persons other than consumer</I>—(i) <I>Dual compensation.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(i)(C) of this section, if any loan originator receives compensation directly from a consumer in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) No loan originator shall receive compensation, directly or indirectly, from any person other than the consumer in connection with the transaction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) No person who knows or has reason to know of the consumer-paid compensation to the loan originator (other than the consumer) shall pay any compensation to a loan originator, directly or indirectly, in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<P>(B) Compensation received directly from a consumer includes payments to a loan originator made pursuant to an agreement between the consumer and a person other than the creditor or its affiliates, under which such other person agrees to provide funds toward the consumer's costs of the transaction (including loan originator compensation).
</P>
<P>(C) If a loan originator organization receives compensation directly from a consumer in connection with a transaction, the loan originator organization may pay compensation to an individual loan originator, and the individual loan originator may receive compensation from the loan originator organization, subject to paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exemption.</I> A payment to a loan originator that is otherwise prohibited by section 129B(c)(2)(A) of the Truth in Lending Act is nevertheless permitted pursuant to section 129B(c)(2)(B) of the Act, regardless of whether the consumer makes any upfront payment of discount points, origination points, or fees, as described in section 129B(c)(2)(B)(ii) of the Act, as long as the loan originator does not receive any compensation directly from the consumer as described in section 129B(c)(2)(B)(i) of the Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Affiliates.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), affiliates shall be treated as a single “person.”
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition on steering</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> In connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, a loan originator shall not direct or “steer” a consumer to consummate a transaction based on the fact that the originator will receive greater compensation from the creditor in that transaction than in other transactions the originator offered or could have offered to the consumer, unless the consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible transactions.</I> A transaction does not violate paragraph (e)(1) of this section if the consumer is presented with loan options that meet the conditions in paragraph (e)(3) of this section for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest. For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, the term “type of transaction” refers to whether:
</P>
<P>(i) A loan has an annual percentage rate that cannot increase after consummation;
</P>
<P>(ii) A loan has an annual percentage rate that may increase after consummation; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A loan is a reverse mortgage.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan options presented.</I> A transaction satisfies paragraph (e)(2) of this section only if the loan originator presents the loan options required by that paragraph and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan originator must obtain loan options from a significant number of the creditors with which the originator regularly does business and, for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest, must present the consumer with loan options that include:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan with the lowest interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) The loan with the lowest interest rate without negative amortization, a prepayment penalty, interest-only payments, a balloon payment in the first 7 years of the life of the loan, a demand feature, shared equity, or shared appreciation; or, in the case of a reverse mortgage, a loan without a prepayment penalty, or shared equity or shared appreciation; and
</P>
<P>(C) The loan with the lowest total dollar amount of discount points, origination points or origination fees (or, if two or more loans have the same total dollar amount of discount points, origination points or origination fees, the loan with the lowest interest rate that has the lowest total dollar amount of discount points, origination points or origination fees).
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan originator must have a good faith belief that the options presented to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section are loans for which the consumer likely qualifies.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each type of transaction, if the originator presents to the consumer more than three loans, the originator must highlight the loans that satisfy the criteria specified in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of loan options presented.</I> The loan originator can present fewer than three loans and satisfy paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3)(i) of this section if the loan(s) presented to the consumer satisfy the criteria of the options in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section and the provisions of paragraph (e)(3) of this section are otherwise met.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loan originator qualification requirements.</I> A loan originator for a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling must, when required by applicable State or Federal law, be registered and licensed in accordance with those laws, including the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 (SAFE Act, 12 U.S.C. 5102 <I>et seq.</I>), its implementing regulations (12 CFR part 1007 or part 1008), and State SAFE Act implementing law. To comply with this paragraph (f), a loan originator organization that is not a government agency or State housing finance agency must:
</P>
<P>(1) Comply with all applicable State law requirements for legal existence and foreign qualification;
</P>
<P>(2) Ensure that each individual loan originator who works for the loan originator organization is licensed or registered to the extent the individual is required to be licensed or registered under the SAFE Act, its implementing regulations, and State SAFE Act implementing law before the individual acts as a loan originator in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(3) For each of its individual loan originator employees who is not required to be licensed and is not licensed as a loan originator pursuant to § 1008.103 of this chapter or State SAFE Act implementing law:
</P>
<P>(i) Obtain for any individual whom the loan originator organization hired on or after January 1, 2014 (or whom the loan originator organization hired before this date but for whom there were no applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire or before January 1, 2014, used to screen the individual) and for any individual regardless of when hired who, based on reliable information known to the loan originator organization, likely does not meet the standards under § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii), before the individual acts as a loan originator in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling:
</P>
<P>(A) A criminal background check through the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry (NMLSR) or, in the case of an individual loan originator who is not a registered loan originator under the NMLSR, a criminal background check from a law enforcement agency or commercial service;
</P>
<P>(B) A credit report from a consumer reporting agency described in section 603(p) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(p)) secured, where applicable, in compliance with the requirements of section 604(b) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. 1681b(b); and
</P>
<P>(C) Information from the NMLSR about any administrative, civil, or criminal findings by any government jurisdiction or, in the case of an individual loan originator who is not a registered loan originator under the NMLSR, such information from the individual loan originator;
</P>
<P>(ii) Determine on the basis of the information obtained pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this section and any other information reasonably available to the loan originator organization, for any individual whom the loan originator organization hired on or after January 1, 2014 (or whom the loan originator organization hired before this date but for whom there were no applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire or before January 1, 2014, used to screen the individual) and for any individual regardless of when hired who, based on reliable information known to the loan originator organization, likely does not meet the standards under this paragraph (f)(3)(ii), before the individual acts as a loan originator in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, that the individual loan originator:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) Has not been convicted of, or pleaded guilty or <I>nolo contendere</I> to, a felony in a domestic or military court during the preceding seven-year period or, in the case of a felony involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, or money laundering, at any time;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of this paragraph (f)(3)(ii)(A):
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A crime is a felony only if at the time of conviction it was classified as a felony under the law of the jurisdiction under which the individual was convicted;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Expunged convictions and pardoned convictions do not render an individual unqualified; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) A conviction or plea of guilty or <I>nolo contendere</I> does not render an individual unqualified under this § 1026.36(f) if the loan originator organization has obtained consent to employ the individual from the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (or the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, as applicable) pursuant to section 19 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (FDIA), 12 U.S.C. 1829, the National Credit Union Administration pursuant to section 205 of the Federal Credit Union Act (FCUA), 12 U.S.C. 1785(d), or the Farm Credit Administration pursuant to section 5.65(d) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (FCA), 12 U.S.C. 227a-14(d), notwithstanding the bars posed with respect to that conviction or plea by the FDIA, FCUA, and FCA, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Has demonstrated financial responsibility, character, and general fitness such as to warrant a determination that the individual loan originator will operate honestly, fairly, and efficiently; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide periodic training covering Federal and State law requirements that apply to the individual loan originator's loan origination activities.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Name and NMLSR ID on loan documents.</I> (1) For a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, a loan originator organization must include on the loan documents described in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, whenever each such loan document is provided to a consumer or presented to a consumer for signature, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Its name and NMLSR ID, if the NMLSR has provided it an NMLSR ID; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The name of the individual loan originator (as the name appears in the NMLSR) with primary responsibility for the origination and, if the NMLSR has provided such person an NMLSR ID, that NMLSR ID.
</P>
<P>(2) The loan documents that must include the names and NMLSR IDs pursuant to paragraph (g)(1) of this section are:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures required by § 1026.19 (e) and (f);
</P>
<P>(iii) The note or loan contract; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The security instrument.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of this section, NMLSR ID means a number assigned by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry to facilitate electronic tracking and uniform identification of loan originators and public access to the employment history of, and the publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, loan originators.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Prohibition on mandatory arbitration clauses and waivers of certain consumer rights</I>—(1) <I>Arbitration.</I> A contract or other agreement for a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling (including a home equity line of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling) may not include terms that require arbitration or any other non-judicial procedure to resolve any controversy or settle any claims arising out of the transaction. This prohibition does not limit a consumer and creditor or any assignee from agreeing, after a dispute or claim under the transaction arises, to settle or use arbitration or other non-judicial procedure to resolve that dispute or claim.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No waivers of Federal statutory causes of action.</I> A contract or other agreement relating to a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling (including a home equity line of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling) may not be applied or interpreted to bar a consumer from bringing a claim in court pursuant to any provision of law for damages or other relief in connection with any alleged violation of any Federal law. This prohibition does not limit a consumer and creditor or any assignee from agreeing, after a dispute or claim under the transaction arises, to settle or use arbitration or other non-judicial procedure to resolve that dispute or claim.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Prohibition on financing credit insurance.</I> (1) A creditor may not finance, directly or indirectly, any premiums or fees for credit insurance in connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling (including a home equity line of credit secured by the consumer's principal dwelling). This prohibition does not apply to credit insurance for which premiums or fees are calculated and paid in full on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (i):
</P>
<P>(i) “Credit insurance”:
</P>
<P>(A) Means credit life, credit disability, credit unemployment, or credit property insurance, or any other accident, loss-of-income, life, or health insurance, or any payments directly or indirectly for any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract, but
</P>
<P>(B) Excludes credit unemployment insurance for which the unemployment insurance premiums are reasonable, the creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation in connection with the unemployment insurance premiums, and the unemployment insurance premiums are paid pursuant to a separate insurance contract and are not paid to an affiliate of the creditor;
</P>
<P>(ii) A creditor finances premiums or fees for credit insurance if it provides a consumer the right to defer payment of a credit insurance premium or fee owed by the consumer beyond the monthly period in which the premium or fee is due; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Credit insurance premiums or fees are calculated on a monthly basis if they are determined mathematically by multiplying a rate by the actual monthly outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Policies and procedures to ensure and monitor compliance.</I> (1) A depository institution must establish and maintain written policies and procedures reasonably designed to ensure and monitor the compliance of the depository institution, its employees, its subsidiaries, and its subsidiaries' employees with the requirements of paragraphs (d), (e), (f), and (g) of this section. These written policies and procedures must be appropriate to the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the mortgage lending activities of the depository institution and its subsidiaries.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this paragraph (j), “depository institution” has the meaning in section 1503(3) of the SAFE Act, 12 U.S.C. 5102(3). For purposes of this paragraph (j), “subsidiary” has the meaning in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Negative amortization counseling.</I> (1) <I>Counseling required.</I> A creditor shall not extend credit to a first-time borrower in connection with a closed-end transaction secured by a dwelling, other than a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33 or a transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), that may result in negative amortization, unless the creditor receives documentation that the consumer has obtained homeownership counseling from a counseling organization or counselor certified or approved by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development to provide such counseling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this paragraph (k), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) A “first-time borrower” means a consumer who has not previously received a closed-end credit transaction or open-end credit plan secured by a dwelling.
</P>
<P>(ii) “Negative amortization” means a payment schedule with regular periodic payments that cause the principal balance to increase.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Steering prohibited.</I> A creditor that extends credit to a first-time borrower in connection with a closed-end transaction secured by a dwelling, other than a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33 or a transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), that may result in negative amortization shall not steer or otherwise direct a consumer to choose a particular counselor or counseling organization for the counseling required under this paragraph (k).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 6966, Jan. 31, 2013; 78 FR 11006, Feb. 14, 2013; 78 FR 11410, Feb. 15, 2013; 78 FR 60441, Oct. 1, 2013; 80 FR 8776, Feb. 19, 2015; 81 FR 72388, Oct. 19, 2016; 86 FR 69781, Dec. 8, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.37" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.37   Content of disclosures for certain mortgage transactions (Loan Estimate).</HEAD>
<P>For each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e), the creditor shall disclose the information in this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General information</I>—(1) <I>Form title.</I> The title of the form, “Loan Estimate,” using that term.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form purpose.</I> The statement, “Save this Loan Estimate to compare with your Closing Disclosure.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Creditor.</I> The name and address of the creditor making the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Date issued.</I> The date the disclosures are mailed or delivered to the consumer by the creditor, labeled “Date Issued.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Applicants.</I> The name and mailing address of the consumer(s) applying for the credit, labeled “Applicants.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Property.</I> The address including the zip code of the property that secures or will secure the transaction, or if the address is unavailable, the location of such property including a zip code, labeled “Property.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Sale price.</I> (i) For transactions that involve a seller, the contract sale price of the property identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, labeled “Sale Price.”
</P>
<P>(ii) For transactions that do not involve a seller, the estimated value of the property identified in paragraph (a)(6), labeled “Prop. Value.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Loan term.</I> The term to maturity of the credit transaction, stated in years or months, or both, as applicable, labeled “Loan Term.”
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Purpose.</I> The consumer's intended use for the credit, labeled “Purpose,” using one of the following terms:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Purchase.</I> If the credit is to finance the acquisition of the property identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is for a “Purchase.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Refinance.</I> If the credit is not for the purpose described in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, and if the credit will be used to refinance an existing obligation, as defined in § 1026.20(a) (but without regard to whether the creditor is the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation), that is secured by the property identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is for a “Refinance.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Construction.</I> If the credit is not for one of the purposes described in paragraphs (a)(9)(i) or (ii) of this section and the credit will be used to finance the initial construction of a dwelling on the property identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is for “Construction.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Home equity loan.</I> If the credit is not for one of the purposes described in paragraphs (a)(9)(i) through (iii) of this section, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is a “Home Equity Loan.”
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Product.</I> A description of the loan product, labeled “Product.”
</P>
<P>(i) The description of the loan product shall include one of the following terms:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Adjustable rate.</I> If the interest rate may increase after consummation, but the rates that will apply or the periods for which they will apply are not known at consummation, the creditor shall disclose the loan product as an “Adjustable Rate.”
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Step rate.</I> If the interest rate will change after consummation, and the rates that will apply and the periods for which they will apply are known at consummation, the creditor shall disclose the loan product as a “Step Rate.”
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Fixed rate.</I> If the loan product is not an Adjustable Rate or a Step Rate, as described in paragraphs (a)(10)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, respectively, the creditor shall disclose the loan product as a “Fixed Rate.”
</P>
<P>(ii) The description of the loan product shall include the features that may change the periodic payment using the following terms, subject to paragraph (a)(10)(iii) of this section, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Negative amortization.</I> If the principal balance may increase due to the addition of accrued interest to the principal balance, the creditor shall disclose that the loan product has a “Negative Amortization” feature.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Interest only.</I> If one or more regular periodic payments may be applied only to interest accrued and not to the loan principal, the creditor shall disclose that the loan product has an “Interest Only” feature.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Step payment.</I> If scheduled variations in regular periodic payment amounts occur that are not caused by changes to the interest rate during the loan term, the creditor shall disclose that the loan product has a “Step Payment” feature.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Balloon payment.</I> If the terms of the legal obligation include a “balloon payment,” as that term is defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section, the creditor shall disclose that the loan has a “Balloon Payment” feature.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Seasonal payment.</I> If the terms of the legal obligation expressly provide that regular periodic payments are not scheduled between specified unit-periods on a regular basis, the creditor shall disclose that the loan product has a “Seasonal Payment” feature.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure of a loan feature under paragraph (a)(10)(ii) of this section shall precede the disclosure of the loan product under paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section. If a transaction has more than one of the loan features described in paragraph (a)(10)(ii) of this section, the creditor shall disclose only the first applicable feature in the order the features are listed in paragraph (a)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) The disclosures required by paragraphs (a)(10)(i)(A) and (B), and (a)(10)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section must each be preceded by the duration of any introductory rate or payment period, and the first adjustment period, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Loan type.</I> The type of loan, labeled “Loan Type,” offered to the consumer using one of the following terms, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conventional.</I> If the loan is not guaranteed or insured by a Federal or State government agency, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is a “Conventional.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>FHA.</I> If the loan is insured by the Federal Housing Administration, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is an “FHA.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>VA.</I> If the loan is guaranteed by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, the creditor shall disclose that the loan is a “VA.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Other.</I> For federally-insured or guaranteed loans other than those described in paragraphs (a)(11)(ii) and (iii) of this section, and for loans insured or guaranteed by a State agency, the creditor shall disclose the loan type as “Other,” and provide a brief description of the loan type.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Loan identification number (Loan ID #).</I> A number that may be used by the creditor, consumer, and other parties to identify the transaction, labeled “Loan ID #.”
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Rate lock.</I> A statement of whether the interest rate disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section is locked for a specific period of time, labeled “Rate Lock.”
</P>
<P>(i) For transactions in which the interest rate is locked for a specific period of time, the creditor must provide the date and time (including the applicable time zone) when that period ends.
</P>
<P>(ii) The “Rate Lock” statement required by this paragraph (a)(13) shall be accompanied by a statement that the interest rate, any points, and any lender credits may change unless the interest rate has been locked, and the date and time (including the applicable time zone) at which estimated closing costs expire.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan terms.</I> A separate table under the heading “Loan Terms” that contains the following information and that satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan amount.</I> The total amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected by the face amount of the note, labeled “Loan Amount.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Interest rate.</I> The interest rate that will be applicable to the transaction at consummation, labeled “Interest Rate.” For an adjustable rate transaction, if the interest rate at consummation is not known, the rate disclosed shall be the fully-indexed rate, which, for purposes of this paragraph, means the interest rate calculated using the index value and margin at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Principal and interest payment.</I> The initial periodic payment amount that will be due under the terms of the legal obligation, labeled “Principal &amp; Interest,” immediately preceded by the applicable unit-period, and a statement referring to the payment amount that includes any mortgage insurance and escrow payments that is required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section. If the interest rate at consummation is not known, the amount disclosed shall be calculated using the fully-indexed rate disclosed under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Prepayment penalty.</I> A statement of whether the transaction includes a prepayment penalty, labeled “Prepayment Penalty.” For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), “prepayment penalty” means a charge imposed for paying all or part of a transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due, other than a waived, bona fide third-party charge that the creditor imposes if the consumer prepays all of the transaction's principal sooner than 36 months after consummation.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Balloon payment.</I> A statement of whether the transaction includes a balloon payment, labeled “Balloon Payment.” For purposes of this paragraph (b)(5), “balloon payment” means a payment that is more than two times a regular periodic payment. “Balloon payment” includes the payment or payments under a transaction that requires only one or two payments during the loan term.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Adjustments after consummation.</I> For each amount required to be disclosed by paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, a statement of whether the amount may increase after consummation as an affirmative or negative answer to the question, and under such question disclosed as a subheading, “Can this amount increase after closing?” and, in the case of an affirmative answer, the following additional information, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adjustment in loan amount.</I> The maximum principal balance for the transaction and the due date of the last payment that may cause the principal balance to increase. The disclosure further shall indicate whether the maximum principal balance is potential or is scheduled to occur under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustment in interest rate.</I> The frequency of interest rate adjustments, the date when the interest rate may first adjust, the maximum interest rate, and the first date when the interest rate can reach the maximum interest rate, followed by a reference to the disclosure required by paragraph (j) of this section. If the loan term, as defined under paragraph (a)(8) of this section, may increase based on an interest rate adjustment, the disclosure required by this paragraph (b)(6)(ii) shall also state that fact and the maximum possible loan term determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Increase in periodic payment.</I> The scheduled frequency of adjustments to the periodic principal and interest payment, the due date of the first adjusted principal and interest payment, the maximum possible periodic principal and interest payment, and the date when the periodic principal and interest payment may first equal the maximum principal and interest payment. If any adjustments to the principal and interest payment are not the result of a change to the interest rate, a reference to the disclosure required by paragraph (i) of this section. If there is a period during which only interest is required to be paid, the disclosure required by this paragraph (b)(6)(iii) shall also state that fact and the due date of the last periodic payment of such period.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Details about prepayment penalty and balloon payment.</I> The information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (b)(4) and (5) of this section shall be disclosed as an affirmative or negative answer to the question, and under such question disclosed as a subheading, “Does the loan have these features?” If an affirmative answer for a prepayment penalty or balloon payment is required to be disclosed, the following information shall be included, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum amount of the prepayment penalty that may be imposed and the date when the period during which the penalty may be imposed terminates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum amount of the balloon payment and the due date of such payment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Timing.</I> (i) The dates required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section shall be disclosed as the year in which the event occurs, counting from the date that interest for the first scheduled periodic payment begins to accrue after consummation.
</P>
<P>(ii) The dates required to be disclosed by paragraphs (b)(6)(i), (b)(6)(iii) and (b)(7)(ii) of this section shall be disclosed as the year in which the event occurs, counting from the due date of the initial periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) The date required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(7)(i) of this section shall be disclosed as the year in which the event occurs, counting from the date of consummation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Projected payments.</I> In a separate table under the heading “Projected Payments,” an itemization of each separate periodic payment or range of payments, together with an estimate of taxes, insurance, and assessments and the payments to be made with escrow account funds.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Periodic payment or range of payments.</I> (i) The initial periodic payment or range of payments is a separate periodic payment or range of payments and, except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(1)(ii) and (iii) of this section, the following events require the disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments:
</P>
<P>(A) The periodic principal and interest payment or range of such payments may change;
</P>
<P>(B) A scheduled balloon payment, as defined in paragraph (b)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor must automatically terminate mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law; and
</P>
<P>(D) The anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment or range of payments that immediately follows the occurrence of multiple events described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section during a single year.
</P>
<P>(ii) The table required by this paragraph (c) shall not disclose more than four separate periodic payments or ranges of payments. For all events requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section occurring after the third separate periodic payment or range of payments disclosed, the separate periodic payments or ranges of payments shall be disclosed as a single range of payments, subject to the following exceptions:
</P>
<P>(A) A balloon payment that is scheduled as a final payment under the terms of the legal obligation shall always be disclosed as a separate periodic payment or range of payments, in which case all events requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) through (D) of this section occurring after the second separate periodic payment or range of payments disclosed, other than the balloon payment that is scheduled as a final payment, shall be disclosed as a single range of payments.
</P>
<P>(B) The automatic termination of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law shall require disclosure of an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments only if the total number of separate periodic payments or ranges of payments otherwise disclosed pursuant to this paragraph (c)(1) does not exceed three.
</P>
<P>(iii) When a range of payments is required to be disclosed under this paragraph (c)(1), the creditor must disclose the minimum and maximum amount for both the principal and interest payment under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and the total periodic payment under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section. A range of payments is required to be disclosed under this paragraph (c)(1) when:
</P>
<P>(A) Multiple events described in paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section are combined in a single range of payments pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Multiple events described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section occur during a single year or an event described in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(A) of this section occurs during the same year as the initial periodic payment or range of payments, in which case the creditor discloses the range of payments that would apply during the year in which the events occur; or
</P>
<P>(C) The periodic principal and interest payment may adjust based on index rates at the time an interest rate adjustment may occur.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Itemization.</I> Each separate periodic payment or range of payments disclosed on the table required by this paragraph (c) shall be itemized as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount payable for principal and interest, labeled “Principal &amp; Interest,” including the term “only interest” if the payment or range of payments includes any interest only payment:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of a loan that has an adjustable interest rate, the maximum principal and interest payment amounts are determined by assuming that the interest rate in effect throughout the loan term is the maximum possible interest rate, and the minimum amounts are determined by assuming that the interest rate in effect throughout the loan term is the minimum possible interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) In the case of a loan that has an adjustable interest rate and also contains a negative amortization feature, the maximum principal and interest payment amounts after the end of the period of the loan's term during which the loan's principal balance may increase due to the addition of accrued interest are determined by assuming the maximum principal amount permitted under the terms of the legal obligation at the end of such period, and the minimum amounts are determined pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum amount payable for mortgage insurance premiums corresponding to the principal and interest payment disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, labeled “Mortgage Insurance”;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount payable into an escrow account to pay some or all of the charges described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii), as applicable, labeled “Escrow,” together with a statement that the amount disclosed can increase over time; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The total periodic payment, calculated as the sum of the amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, labeled “Total Monthly Payment.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Subheadings.</I> (i) The labels required pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section must be listed under the subheading “Payment Calculation.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section, each separate periodic payment or range of payments to be disclosed under this paragraph (c) must be disclosed under a subheading that states the years of the loan during which that payment or range of payments will apply. The subheadings must be stated in a sequence of whole years from the due date of the initial periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(iii) A balloon payment that is scheduled as a final payment under the terms of the legal obligation must be disclosed under the subheading “Final Payment.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Taxes, insurance, and assessments.</I> Under the information required by paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The label “Taxes, Insurance &amp; Assessments”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The sum of the charges identified in § 1026.43(b)(8), other than amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), expressed as a monthly amount, even if no escrow account for the payment of some or any of such charges will be established;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section can increase over time;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement of whether the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section includes payments for property taxes, amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8), and other amounts described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, along with a description of any such other amounts, and an indication of whether such amounts will be paid by the creditor using escrow account funds;
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the consumer must pay separately any amounts described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section that are not paid by the creditor using escrow account funds; and
</P>
<P>(vi) A reference to the information disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Calculation of taxes and insurance.</I> For purposes of paragraphs (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(4)(ii) of this section, estimated property taxes and homeowner's insurance shall reflect:
</P>
<P>(i) The taxable assessed value of the real property or cooperative unit securing the transaction after consummation, including the value of any improvements on the property or to be constructed on the property, if known, whether or not such construction will be financed from the proceeds of the transaction, for property taxes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The replacement costs of the property during the initial year after the transaction, for amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Costs at closing</I>—(1) <I>Costs at closing table.</I> In a separate table, under the heading “Costs at Closing”:
</P>
<P>(i) Labeled “Closing Costs,” the dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(6) of this section, together with:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section includes the amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(4), (g)(5), and (g)(6)(ii);
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (f)(4) of this section, labeled “Loan Costs”;
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section, labeled “Other Costs”:
</P>
<P>(D) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(6)(ii) of this section, labeled “Lender Credits”; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement referring the consumer to the tables disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeled “Cash to Close,” the dollar amount calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(1)(viii) of this section, together with:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the amount includes the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) A statement referring the consumer to the location of the table required pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> For transactions that do not involve a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, instead of the amount and statements described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, the creditor may alternatively disclose, using the label “Cash to Close”:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated in accordance with paragraph (h)(2)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of whether the disclosed estimated amount is due from or to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement referring the consumer to the alternative table disclosed pursuant to paragraph (h)(2) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Web site reference.</I> A statement that the consumer may obtain general information and tools at the Web site of the Bureau, and the link or uniform resource locator address to the Web site: <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/mortgage-estimate</I>.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Closing cost details; loan costs.</I> Under the master heading “Closing Cost Details,” in a table under the heading “Loan Costs,” all loan costs associated with the transaction. The table shall contain the items and amounts listed under four subheadings, described in paragraphs (f)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Origination charges.</I> Under the subheading “Origination Charges,” an itemization of each amount, and a subtotal of all such amounts, that the consumer will pay to each creditor and loan originator for originating and extending the credit.
</P>
<P>(i) The points paid to the creditor to reduce the interest rate shall be itemized separately, as both a percentage of the amount of credit extended and a dollar amount, and using the label “____% of Loan Amount (Points).” If points to reduce the interest rate are not paid, the disclosure required by this paragraph (f)(1)(i) must be blank.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of items disclosed under this paragraph (f)(1), including the points disclosed under paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section, shall not exceed 13.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services you cannot shop for.</I> Under the subheading “Services You Cannot Shop For,” an itemization of each amount, and a subtotal of all such amounts, the consumer will pay for settlement services for which the consumer cannot shop in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) and that are provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(i) For any item that is a component of title insurance or is for conducting the closing, the introductory description “Title —” shall appear at the beginning of the label for that item.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of items disclosed under this paragraph (f)(2) shall not exceed 13.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Services you can shop for.</I> Under the subheading “Services You Can Shop For,” an itemization of each amount and a subtotal of all such amounts the consumer will pay for settlement services for which the consumer can shop in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) and that are provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(i) For any item that is a component of title insurance or is for conducting the closing, the introductory description “Title —” shall appear at the beginning of the label for that item.
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of items disclosed under this paragraph (f)(3) shall not exceed 14.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total loan costs.</I> Under the subheading “Total Loan Costs,” the sum of the subtotals disclosed under paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Item descriptions and ordering.</I> The items listed as loan costs pursuant to this paragraph (f) shall be labeled using terminology that describes each item, subject to the requirements of paragraphs (f)(1)(i), (f)(2)(i), and (f)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) The item prescribed in paragraph (f)(1)(i) of this section for points shall be the first item listed in the disclosure pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) All other items must be listed in alphabetical order by their labels under the applicable subheading.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Use of addenda.</I> (i) An addendum to a form of disclosures prescribed by this section may not be used for items described in paragraph (f)(1) or (2) of this section. If the creditor is not able to itemize every service and every corresponding charge required to be disclosed in the number of lines provided by paragraph (f)(1)(ii) or (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the remaining charges shall be disclosed as an aggregate amount in the last line permitted under paragraph (f)(1)(ii) or (f)(2)(ii), as applicable, labeled “Additional Charges.”
</P>
<P>(ii) An addendum to a form of disclosures prescribed by this section may be used for items described in paragraph (f)(3) of this section. If the creditor is not able to itemize all of the charges required to be disclosed in the number of lines provided by paragraph (f)(3)(ii), the remaining charges shall be disclosed as follows:
</P>
<P>(A) Label the last line permitted under paragraph (f)(3)(ii) with an appropriate reference to an addendum and list the remaining items on the addendum in accordance with the requirements in paragraphs (f)(3) and (5) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Disclose the remaining charges as an aggregate amount in the last line permitted under paragraph (f)(3)(ii), labeled “Additional Charges.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Closing cost details; other costs.</I> Under the master heading “Closing Cost Details,” in a table under the heading “Other Costs,” all costs associated with the transaction that are in addition to the costs disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section. The table shall contain the items and amounts listed under six subheadings, described in paragraphs (g)(1) through (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Taxes and other government fees.</I> Under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees,” the amounts to be paid to State and local governments for taxes and other government fees, and the subtotal of all such amounts, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On the first line, the sum of all recording fees and other government fees and taxes, except for transfer taxes paid by the consumer and disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(ii) of this section, labeled “Recording Fees and Other Taxes.”
</P>
<P>(ii) On the second line, the sum of all transfer taxes paid by the consumer, labeled “Transfer Taxes.”
</P>
<P>(iii) If an amount required to be disclosed by this paragraph (g)(1) is not charged to the consumer, the amount disclosed on the applicable line required by this paragraph (g)(1) must be blank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepaids.</I> Under the subheading “Prepaids,” an itemization of the amounts to be paid by the consumer in advance of the first scheduled payment, and the subtotal of all such amounts, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On the first line, the number of months for which homeowner's insurance premiums are to be paid by the consumer at consummation and the total dollar amount to be paid by the consumer at consummation for such premiums, labeled “Homeowner's Insurance Premium ( ____ months).”
</P>
<P>(ii) On the second line, the number of months for which mortgage insurance premiums are to be paid by the consumer at consummation and the total dollar amount to be paid by the consumer at consummation for such premiums, labeled “Mortgage Insurance Premium ( ____ months).”
</P>
<P>(iii) On the third line, the amount of prepaid interest to be paid per day, the number of days for which prepaid interest will be collected, the interest rate, and the total dollar amount to be paid by the consumer at consummation for such interest, labeled “Prepaid Interest ( ______ per day for ____ days @____ %).”
</P>
<P>(iv) On the fourth line, the number of months for which property taxes are to be paid by the consumer at consummation and the total dollar amount to be paid by the consumer at consummation for such taxes, labeled “Property Taxes ( ____ months).”
</P>
<P>(v) If an amount is not charged to the consumer for any item for which this paragraph (g)(2) prescribes a label, each of the amounts required to be disclosed on that line must be blank.
</P>
<P>(vi) A maximum of three additional items may be disclosed under this paragraph (g)(2), and each additional item must be identified and include the applicable time period covered by the amount to be paid by the consumer at consummation and the total amount to be paid.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial escrow payment at closing.</I> Under the subheading “Initial Escrow Payment at Closing,” an itemization of the amounts that the consumer will be expected to place into a reserve or escrow account at consummation to be applied to recurring periodic charges, and the subtotal of all such amounts, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On the first line, the amount escrowed per month, the number of months covered by an escrowed amount collected at consummation, and the total amount to be paid into the escrow account by the consumer at consummation for homeowner's insurance premiums, labeled “Homeowner's Insurance ____ per month for ____ mo.”
</P>
<P>(ii) On the second line, the amount escrowed per month, the number of months covered by an escrowed amount collected at consummation, and the total amount to be paid into the escrow account by the consumer at consummation for mortgage insurance premiums, labeled “Mortgage Insurance ____ per month for ____ mo.”
</P>
<P>(iii) On the third line, the amount escrowed per month, the number of months covered by an escrowed amount collected at consummation, and the total amount to be paid into the escrow account by the consumer at consummation for property taxes, labeled “Property Taxes ____ per month for ____ mo.”
</P>
<P>(iv) If an amount is not charged to the consumer for any item for which this paragraph (g)(3) prescribes a label, each of the amounts required to be disclosed on that line must be blank.
</P>
<P>(v) A maximum of five items may be disclosed pursuant to this paragraph (g)(3) in addition to the items described in paragraph (g)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section, and each such additional item must be identified with a descriptive label and include the applicable amount per month, the number of months collected at consummation, and the total amount to be paid.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other.</I> Under the subheading “Other,” an itemization of any other amounts in connection with the transaction that the consumer is likely to pay or has contracted with a person other than the creditor or loan originator to pay at closing and of which the creditor is aware at the time of issuing the Loan Estimate, a descriptive label of each such amount, and the subtotal of all such amounts.
</P>
<P>(i) For any item that is a component of title insurance, the introductory description “Title —” shall appear at the beginning of the label for that item.
</P>
<P>(ii) The parenthetical description “(optional)” shall appear at the end of the label for items disclosing any premiums paid for separate insurance, warranty, guarantee, or event-coverage products.
</P>
<P>(iii) The number of items disclosed under this paragraph (g)(4) shall not exceed five.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total other costs.</I> Under the subheading “Total Other Costs,” the sum of the subtotals disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Total closing costs.</I> Under the subheading “Total Closing Costs,” the component amounts and their sum, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the amounts disclosed as loan costs and other costs under paragraphs (f)(4) and (g)(5) of this section, labeled “D + I”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any lender credits, disclosed as a negative number with the label “Lender Credits” provided that, if no such amount is disclosed, the amount must be blank.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Item descriptions and ordering.</I> The items listed as other costs pursuant to this paragraph (g) shall be labeled using terminology that describes each item.
</P>
<P>(i) The items prescribed in paragraphs (g)(1)(i) and (ii), (g)(2)(i) through (iv), and (g)(3)(i) through (iii) of this section must be listed in the order prescribed as the initial items under the applicable subheading, with any additional items to follow.
</P>
<P>(ii) All additional items must be listed in alphabetical order under the applicable subheading.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Use of addenda.</I> An addendum to a form of disclosures prescribed by this section may not be used for items required to be disclosed by this paragraph (g). If the creditor is not able to itemize all of the charges described in this paragraph (g) in the number of lines provided by paragraphs (g)(2)(vi), (3)(v), or (4)(iii) of this section, the remaining charges shall be disclosed as an aggregate amount in the last line permitted under paragraphs (g)(2)(vi), (g)(3)(v), or (g)(4)(iii), as applicable, using the label “Additional Charges.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculating cash to close</I>—(1) <I>For all transactions.</I> Under the master heading “Closing Cost Details,” under the heading “Calculating Cash to Close,” the total amount of cash or other funds that must be provided by the consumer at consummation, with an itemization of that amount into the following component amounts:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Total closing costs.</I> The amount disclosed under paragraph (g)(6) of this section, labeled “Total Closing Costs”;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Closing costs to be financed.</I> The amount of any closing costs to be paid out of loan proceeds, disclosed as a negative number, labeled “Closing Costs Financed (Paid from your Loan Amount)”;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Down payment and other funds from borrower.</I> Labeled “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower”:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) In a purchase transaction as defined in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, the amount determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) from the sale price of the property disclosed under paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, except as required by paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In a purchase transaction as defined in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section that is a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction or that involves improvements to be made on the property, or when the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) exceeds the sale price of the property disclosed under paragraph (a)(7)(i) of this section, the amount of estimated funds from the consumer as determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(1)(v) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) In all transactions not subject to paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, the amount of estimated funds from the consumer as determined in accordance with paragraph (h)(1)(v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Deposit.</I> (A) In a purchase transaction as defined in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, the amount that is paid to the seller or held in trust or escrow by an attorney or other party under the terms of the agreement for the sale of the property, disclosed as a negative number, labeled “Deposit”;
</P>
<P>(B) In all transactions other than purchase transactions as defined in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section, the amount of $0, labeled “Deposit”;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Funds for borrower.</I> The amount of funds for the consumer, labeled “Funds for Borrower.” The amount of the down payment and other funds from the consumer disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (h)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, as applicable, and of funds for the consumer disclosed under this paragraph (h)(1)(v), are determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(ii) of this section) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction;
</P>
<P>(A) If the calculation under this paragraph (h)(1)(v) yields an amount that is a positive number, such amount is disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (h)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, as applicable, and $0 is disclosed under this paragraph (h)(1)(v);
</P>
<P>(B) If the calculation under this paragraph (h)(1)(v) yields an amount that is a negative number, such amount is disclosed under this paragraph (h)(1)(v) as a negative number, and $0 is disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (h)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(C) If the calculation under this paragraph (h)(1)(v) yields $0, then $0 is disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (h)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, as applicable, and under this paragraph (h)(1)(v);
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Seller credits.</I> The total amount that the seller will pay for total loan costs as determined by paragraph (f)(4) of this section and total other costs as determined by paragraph (g)(5) of this section, to the extent known, disclosed as a negative number, labeled “Seller Credits”;
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Adjustments and other credits.</I> The amount of all loan costs determined under paragraph (f) of this section and other costs determined under paragraph (g) of this section that are paid by persons other than the loan originator, creditor, consumer, or seller, together with any other amounts not otherwise disclosed under paragraph (f) or (g) of this section that are required to be paid by the consumer at closing in a transaction disclosed under paragraph (h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section or pursuant to a purchase and sale contract, labeled “Adjustments and Other Credits”; and
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Estimated Cash to Close.</I> The sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (h)(1)(i) through (vii) of this section labeled “Cash to Close.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional alternative calculating cash to close table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> For transactions that do not involve a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, instead of the table described in paragraph (h)(1) above, the creditor may alternatively provide, in a separate table, under the master heading “Closing Cost Details,” under the heading “Calculating Cash to Close,” the total amount of cash or other funds that must be provided by the consumer at consummation with an itemization of that amount into the following component amounts:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan amount.</I> The amount disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, labeled “Loan Amount”;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Total closing costs.</I> The amount disclosed under paragraph (g)(6) of this section, disclosed as a negative number if the amount disclosed under paragraph (g)(6) of this section is a positive number and disclosed as a positive number if the amount disclosed under paragraph (g)(6) of this section is a negative number, labeled “Total Closing Costs”;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Payoffs and payments.</I> The total amount of payoffs and payments to be made to third parties not otherwise disclosed under paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, labeled “Total Payoffs and Payments”;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Cash to or from consumer.</I> The amount of cash or other funds due from or to the consumer and a statement of whether the disclosed estimated amount is due from or to the consumer, calculated by the sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (h)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section, labeled “Cash to Close”; and
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Closing costs financed.</I> The sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (iii) of this section, but only to the extent that the sum is greater than zero and less than or equal to the sum disclosed under paragraph (g)(6) of this section, labeled “Closing Costs Financed (Paid from your Loan Amount).”
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Adjustable payment table.</I> If the periodic principal and interest payment may change after consummation but not based on an adjustment to the interest rate, or if the transaction is a seasonal payment product as described in paragraph (a)(10)(ii)(E) of this section, a separate table under the master heading “Closing Cost Details” required by paragraph (f) of this section and under the heading “Adjustable Payment (AP) Table” that contains the following information and satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest only payments.</I> Whether the transaction is an interest only product pursuant to paragraph (a)(10)(ii)(B) of this section as an affirmative or negative answer to the question “Interest Only Payments?” and, if an affirmative answer is disclosed, the period during which interest only periodic payments are scheduled.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Optional payments.</I> Whether the terms of the legal obligation expressly provide that the consumer may elect to pay a specified periodic principal and interest payment in an amount other than the scheduled amount of the payment, as an affirmative or negative answer to the question “Optional Payments?” and, if an affirmative answer is disclosed, the period during which the consumer may elect to make such payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Step payments.</I> Whether the transaction is a step payment product pursuant to paragraph (a)(10)(ii)(C) of this section as an affirmative or negative answer to the question “Step Payments?” and, if an affirmative answer is disclosed, the period during which the regular periodic payments are scheduled to increase.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Seasonal payments.</I> Whether the transaction is a seasonal payment product pursuant to paragraph (a)(10)(ii)(E) of this section as an affirmative or negative answer to the question “Seasonal Payments?” and, if an affirmative answer is disclosed, the period during which periodic payments are not scheduled.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Principal and interest payments.</I> Under the subheading “Principal and Interest Payments,” which subheading is immediately preceded by the applicable unit-period, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The number of the payment of the first periodic principal and interest payment that may change under the terms of the legal obligation disclosed under this paragraph (i), counting from the first periodic payment due after consummation, and the amount or range of the periodic principal and interest payment for such payment, labeled “First Change/Amount”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The frequency of subsequent changes to the periodic principal and interest payment, labeled “Subsequent Changes”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The maximum periodic principal and interest payment that may occur during the term of the transaction, and the first periodic principal and interest payment that can reach such maximum, counting from the first periodic payment due after consummation, labeled “Maximum Payment.”
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Adjustable interest rate table.</I> If the interest rate may increase after consummation, a separate table under the master heading “Closing Cost Details” required by paragraph (f) of this section and under the heading “Adjustable Interest Rate (AIR) Table” that contains the following information and satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Index and margin.</I> If the interest rate may adjust and the product type is not a “Step Rate” under paragraph (a)(10)(i)(B) of this section, the index upon which the adjustments to the interest rate are based and the margin that is added to the index to determine the interest rate, if any, labeled “Index + Margin.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Increases in interest rate.</I> If the product type is a “Step Rate” and not also an “Adjustable Rate” under paragraph (a)(10)(i)(A) of this section, the maximum amount of any adjustments to the interest rate that are scheduled and pre-determined, labeled “Interest Rate Adjustments.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial interest rate.</I> The interest rate at consummation of the loan transaction, labeled “Initial Interest Rate.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum and maximum interest rate.</I> The minimum and maximum interest rates for the loan, after any introductory period expires, labeled “Minimum/Maximum Interest Rate.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Frequency of adjustments.</I> The following information, under the subheading “Change Frequency”:
</P>
<P>(i) The month when the interest rate after consummation may first change, calculated from the date interest for the first scheduled periodic payment begins to accrue, labeled “First Change”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The frequency of interest rate adjustments after the initial adjustment to the interest rate, labeled, “Subsequent Changes.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Limits on interest rate changes.</I> The following information, under the subheading “Limits on Interest Rate Changes”:
</P>
<P>(i) The maximum possible change for the first adjustment of the interest rate after consummation, labeled “First Change”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum possible change for subsequent adjustments of the interest rate after consummation, labeled “Subsequent Changes.”
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Contact information.</I> Under the master heading, “Additional Information About This Loan,” the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry identification number (NMLSR ID) (labeled “NMLS ID/License ID”) for the creditor (labeled “Lender”) and the mortgage broker (labeled “Mortgage Broker”), if any. In the event the creditor or the mortgage broker has not been assigned an NMLSR ID, the license number or other unique identifier issued by the applicable jurisdiction or regulating body with which the creditor or mortgage broker is licensed and/or registered shall be disclosed, with the abbreviation for the State of the applicable jurisdiction or regulatory body stated before the word “License” in the label, if any;
</P>
<P>(2) The name and NMLSR ID of the individual loan officer (labeled “Loan Officer” and “NMLS ID/License ID,” respectively) of the creditor and the mortgage broker, if any, who is the primary contact for the consumer. In the event the individual loan officer has not been assigned an NMLSR ID, the license number or other unique identifier issued by the applicable jurisdiction or regulating body with which the loan officer is licensed and/or registered shall be disclosed with the abbreviation for the State of the applicable jurisdiction or regulatory body stated before the word “License” in the label, if any; and
</P>
<P>(3) The email address and telephone number of the loan officer (labeled “Email” and “Phone,” respectively).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Comparisons.</I> Under the master heading, “Additional Information About This Loan” required by paragraph (k) of this section, in a separate table under the heading “Comparisons” along with the statement “Use these measures to compare this loan with other loans”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>In five years.</I> Using the label “In 5 Years”:
</P>
<P>(i) The total principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs scheduled to be paid through the end of the 60th month after the due date of the first periodic payment, expressed as a dollar amount, along with the statement “Total you will have paid in principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs”; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The principal scheduled to be paid through the end of the 60th month after the due date of the first periodic payment, expressed as a dollar amount, along with the statement “Principal you will have paid off.”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The “Annual Percentage Rate,” using that term and the abbreviation “APR” and expressed as a percentage, and the following statement: “Your costs over the loan term expressed as a rate. This is not your interest rate.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Total interest percentage.</I> The total amount of interest that the consumer will pay over the life of the loan, expressed as a percentage of the amount of credit extended, using the term “Total Interest Percentage,” the abbreviation “TIP,” and the statement “The total amount of interest that you will pay over the loan term as a percentage of your loan amount.”
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Other considerations.</I> Under the master heading “Additional Information About This Loan” required by paragraph (k) of this section and under the heading “Other Considerations”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appraisal.</I> For transactions subject to 15 U.S.C. 1639h or 1691(e), as implemented in this part or Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, respectively, a statement, labeled “Appraisal,” that:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor may order an appraisal to determine the value of the property identified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section and may charge the consumer for that appraisal;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor will promptly provide the consumer a copy of any appraisal, even if the transaction is not consummated; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer may choose to pay for an additional appraisal of the property for the consumer's use.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assumption.</I> A statement of whether a subsequent purchaser of the property may be permitted to assume the remaining loan obligation on its original terms, labeled “Assumption.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Homeowner's insurance.</I> At the option of the creditor, a statement that homeowner's insurance is required on the property and that the consumer may choose the insurance provider, labeled “Homeowner's Insurance.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Late payment.</I> A statement detailing any charge that may be imposed for a late payment, stated as a dollar amount or percentage charge of the late payment amount, and the number of days that a payment must be late to trigger the late payment fee, labeled “Late Payment.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Refinance.</I> The following statement, labeled “Refinance”: “Refinancing this loan will depend on your future financial situation, the property value, and market conditions. You may not be able to refinance this loan.”
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Servicing.</I> A statement of whether the creditor intends to service the loan or transfer the loan to another servicer, labeled “Servicing.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Liability after foreclosure.</I> If the purpose of the credit transaction is to refinance an extension of credit as described in paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, a brief statement that certain State law protections against liability for any deficiency after foreclosure may be lost, the potential consequences of the loss of such protections, and a statement that the consumer should consult an attorney for additional information, labeled “Liability after Foreclosure.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Construction loans.</I> In transactions involving new construction, where the creditor reasonably expects that settlement will occur more than 60 days after the provision of the loan estimate, at the creditor's option, a clear and conspicuous statement that the creditor may issue a revised disclosure any time prior to 60 days before consummation, pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(F).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Signature statement.</I> (1) At the creditor's option, under the master heading required by paragraph (k) of this section and under the heading “Confirm Receipt,” a line for the signatures of the consumers in the transaction. If the creditor includes a line for the consumer's signature, the creditor must disclose the following above the signature line: “By signing, you are only confirming that you have received this form. You do not have to accept this loan because you have signed or received this form.”
</P>
<P>(2) If the creditor does not include a line for the consumer's signature, the creditor must disclose the following statement under the heading “Other Considerations” required by paragraph (m) of this section, labeled “Loan Acceptance”: “You do not have to accept this loan because you have received this form or signed a loan application.”
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this section clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures also shall be grouped together and segregated from everything else.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (o)(5) of this section, the disclosures shall contain only the information required by paragraphs (a) through (n) of this section and shall be made in the same order, and positioned relative to the master headings, headings, subheadings, labels, and similar designations in the same manner, as shown in form H-24, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Headings and labels.</I> If a master heading, heading, subheading, label, or similar designation contains the word “estimated” or a capital letter designation in form H-24, set forth in appendix H to this part, that heading, label, or similar designation shall contain the word “estimated” and the applicable capital letter designation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (o)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For a transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) that is a federally related mortgage loan, as defined in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2, the disclosures must be made using form H-24, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) For any other transaction subject to this section, the disclosures must be made with headings, content, and format substantially similar to form H-24, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosures required by this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rounding</I>—(i) <I>Nearest dollar.</I> (A) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraphs (b)(6) and (7), (c)(1)(iii), (c)(2)(ii) and (iii), (c)(4)(ii), (f), (g), (h), (i), and (l) of this section shall be rounded to the nearest whole dollar, except that the per-diem dollar amount required to be disclosed by paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section and the monthly dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraphs (g)(3)(i) through (iii) and (g)(3)(v) of this section shall not be rounded.
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amount required to be disclosed by paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not be rounded, and if the amount is a whole number then the amount disclosed shall be truncated at the decimal point.
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section shall be rounded to the nearest whole dollar, if any of the component amounts are required by paragraph (o)(4)(i)(A) of this section to be rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Percentages.</I> The percentage amounts required to be disclosed under paragraphs (b)(2) and (6), (f)(1)(i), (g)(2)(iii), (j), and (l)(2) and (3) of this section shall be disclosed by rounding the exact amounts to three decimal places and then dropping any trailing zeros that occur to the right of the decimal place.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Unit-period.</I> Wherever the form or this section uses “monthly” to describe the frequency of any payments or uses “month” to describe the applicable unit-period, the creditor shall substitute the appropriate term to reflect the fact that the transaction's terms provide for other than monthly periodic payments, such as bi-weekly or quarterly payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Translation.</I> The form may be translated into languages other than English, and creditors may modify form H-24 of appendix H to this part to the extent that translation prevents the headings, labels, designations, and required disclosure items under this section from fitting in the space provided on form H-24.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Logo or slogan.</I> The creditor providing the form may use a logo for, and include a slogan with, the information required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section in any font size or type, provided that such logo or slogan does not cause the information required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section to exceed the space provided for that information, as illustrated in form H-24 of appendix H to this part. If the creditor does not use a logo for the information required by paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the information shall be disclosed in a similar format as form H-24.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Business card.</I> The creditor may physically attach a business card over the information required to be disclosed by paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Administrative information.</I> The creditor may insert at the bottom of each page under the disclosures required by this section as illustrated by form H-24 of appendix H to this part, any administrative information, text, or codes that assist in identification of the form or the information disclosed on the form, provided that the space provided on form H-24 of appendix H to this part for any of the information required by this section is not altered.


</P>
<P>(p) <I>PACE transactions.</I> For PACE transactions as defined in § 1026.43(b)(15), the creditor must comply with the requirements of this section with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Itemization.</I> (i) In lieu of the information required by paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, the maximum amount payable for any fees or other amounts corresponding to the periodic payment for the PACE transaction that are not disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, labeled “Fees or Other Amounts.” The amount disclosed under this paragraph (p)(1)(i) of this section must be included in the calculation under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section in place of the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor shall not disclose the information in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Taxes, insurance, and assessments.</I> The creditor shall disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) In lieu of the information required by paragraph (c)(4)(iv) of this section, a statement of whether the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section includes payments for the PACE transaction, labeled “PACE Payment”; payments for other property taxes, labeled “Property Taxes (not including PACE loan)”; amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8); and other amounts described in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section, along with a description of any such other amounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) In lieu of the information required by paragraph (c)(4)(v) and (vi) of this section, a statement that the PACE transaction, described as a “PACE loan,” will be part of the property tax payment, a statement that, if the consumer has a pre-existing mortgage with an escrow account, the PACE loan will increase the consumer's escrow payment, and a statement directing the consumer to contact the consumer's mortgage servicer for what the consumer will owe and when.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contact information.</I> In addition to the information required in paragraphs (k)(1) through (3) of this section, the creditor shall disclose the name, NMLSR ID (labeled “NMLS ID/License ID”), email address, and telephone number of the PACE company (labeled “PACE Company”). In the event the PACE company has not been assigned an NMLSR ID, the creditor shall disclose the license number or other unique identifier issued by the applicable jurisdiction or regulating body with which the PACE company is licensed and/or registered, with the abbreviation for the State of the applicable jurisdiction or regulatory body stated before the word “License” in the label, if any.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assumption.</I> In lieu of the statement required by paragraph (m)(2) of this section, a statement that, if the consumer sells the property, the buyer or the buyer's mortgage lender may require the consumer to pay off the PACE transaction, using the term “PACE loan” as a condition of the sale, labeled “Selling the Property.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Late Payment.</I> In lieu of the statement required by paragraph (m)(4) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement detailing any charge specific to the transaction that may be imposed for a late payment, stated as a dollar amount or percentage charge of the late payment amount, and the number of days that a payment must be late to trigger the late payment fee, labeled “Late payment,” and
</P>
<P>(ii) For any charge that is not specific to the transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that, if the consumer's property tax payment is late, the consumer may be subject to penalties and late fees established by the consumer's property tax collector, and directing the consumer to contact the consumer's property tax collector for more information, or
</P>
<P>(B) A statement describing any charges that may result from property tax delinquency that are not specific to the PACE transaction. The statement may include dollar amounts or percentage charges and the number of days that a payment must be late to trigger the late payment fee.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Servicing.</I> In lieu of the statement required by paragraph (m)(6) of this section, a statement that the consumer will pay the PACE transaction, using the term “PACE loan,” as part of the consumer's property tax payment, and a statement directing the consumer, if the consumer has a mortgage with an escrow account that includes the consumer's property tax payments, to contact the consumer's mortgage servicer for what the consumer will owe and when.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Unit-period.</I> Wherever form H-24(H) of appendix H to this part uses “annual” to describe the frequency of any payments or the applicable unit-period, the creditor shall use the appropriate term to reflect the transaction's terms, such as semi-annual payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PACE nomenclature.</I> Wherever this section requires disclosure of the word “PACE” or form H-24(H) of appendix H to this part uses the term “PACE,” the creditor may substitute the name of a specific PACE financing program that will be recognizable to the consumer.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 80113, Dec. 31, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 8776, Feb. 19, 2015; 82 FR 37769, Aug. 11, 2017; 90 FR 2502, Jan. 10, 2025]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.38" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.38   Content of disclosures for certain mortgage transactions (Closing Disclosure).</HEAD>
<P>For each transaction subject to § 1026.19(f), the creditor shall disclose the information in this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General information</I>—(1) <I>Form title.</I> The title of the form, “Closing Disclosure,” using that term.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form purpose.</I> The following statement: “This form is a statement of final loan terms and closing costs. Compare this document with your Loan Estimate.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Closing information.</I> Under the heading “Closing Information”:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Date issued.</I> The date the disclosures required by this section are delivered to the consumer, labeled “Date Issued.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Closing date.</I> The date of consummation, labeled “Closing Date.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disbursement date.</I> The date the amount disclosed under paragraph (j)(3)(iii) (cash to close from or to borrower) or (k)(3)(iii) (cash from or to seller) of this section is expected to be paid in a purchase transaction under § 1026.37(a)(9)(i) to the consumer or seller, respectively, as applicable, except as provided in comment 38(a)(3)(iii)-1, or the date some or all of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section is expected to be paid to the consumer or a third party other than a settlement agent in a transaction that is not a purchase transaction under § 1026.37(a)(9)(i), labeled “Disbursement Date.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Settlement agent.</I> The name of the settlement agent conducting the closing, labeled “Settlement Agent.”
</P>
<P>(v) <I>File number.</I> The number assigned to the transaction by the settlement agent for identification purposes, labeled “File #.”
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Property.</I> The address or location of the property required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(6), labeled “Property.”
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Sale price.</I> (A) In credit transactions where there is a seller, the contract sale price of the property identified in paragraph (a)(3)(vi) of this section, labeled “Sale Price.”
</P>
<P>(B) In credit transactions where there is no seller, the appraised value of the property identified in paragraph (a)(3)(vi) of this section, labeled “Appraised Prop. Value.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transaction information.</I> Under the heading “Transaction Information”:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Borrower.</I> The consumer's name and mailing address, labeled “Borrower.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Seller.</I> Where applicable, the seller's name and mailing address, labeled “Seller.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lender.</I> The name of the creditor making the disclosure, labeled “Lender.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Loan information.</I> Under the heading “Loan Information”:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan term.</I> The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(8), labeled “Loan Term.”
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Purpose.</I> The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(9), labeled “Purpose.”
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Product.</I> The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(10), labeled “Product.”
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Loan type.</I> The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(11), labeled “Loan Type.”
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Loan identification number.</I> The information required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(12), labeled “Loan ID #.”
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Mortgage insurance case number.</I> The case number for any mortgage insurance policy, if required by the creditor, labeled “MIC #.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan terms.</I> A separate table under the heading “Loan Terms” that includes the information required by § 1026.37(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Projected payments.</I> A separate table, under the heading “Projected Payments,” that includes and satisfies the following information and requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Projected payments or range of payments.</I> The information required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(1) through (4), other than § 1026.37(c)(4)(vi). In disclosing estimated escrow payments as described in § 1026.37(c)(2)(iii) and (c)(4)(ii), the amount disclosed on the Closing Disclosure:
</P>
<P>(i) For transactions subject to RESPA, is determined under the escrow account analysis described in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17;
</P>
<P>(ii) For transactions not subject to RESPA, may be determined under the escrow account analysis described in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17 or in the manner set forth in § 1026.37(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimated taxes, insurance, and assessments.</I> A reference to the disclosure required by paragraph (l)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Costs at closing</I>—(1) <I>Costs at closing table.</I> In a separate table, under the heading “Costs at Closing”:
</P>
<P>(i) Labeled “Closing Costs,” the sum of the dollar amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(4), (g)(5), and (h)(3) of this section, together with:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section includes the amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f)(4), (g)(5), and (h)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (f)(4) of this section, labeled “Loan Costs”;
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (g)(5) of this section, labeled “Other Costs”;
</P>
<P>(D) The dollar amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (h)(3) of this section, labeled “Lender Credits”; and
</P>
<P>(E) A statement referring the consumer to the tables disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(ii) Labeled “Cash to Close,” the sum of the dollar amounts calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(9)(ii) of this section, together with:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section includes the amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) A statement referring the consumer to the table required pursuant to paragraph (i) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> For transactions that do not involve a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, if the creditor disclosed the optional alternative table under § 1026.37(d)(2), the creditor shall disclose, with the label “Cash to Close,” instead of the sum of the dollar amounts described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of whether the disclosed amount is due from or to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement referring the consumer to the table required pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section for details.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative calculating cash to close table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> For transactions that do not involve a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, if the creditor disclosed the optional alternative table under § 1026.37(h)(2), the creditor shall disclose, instead of the table described in paragraph (i) of this section, in a separate table, under the heading “Calculating Cash to Close,” together with the statement “Use this table to see what has changed from your Loan Estimate”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan amount.</I> Labeled “Loan Amount”:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the loan amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under paragraph (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, under the subheading “Did this change?”:
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact along with a statement of whether this amount increased or decreased; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total closing costs.</I> Labeled “Total Closing Costs”:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h)(2)(ii);
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount disclosed under paragraph (h)(1) of this section, disclosed as a negative number if the amount disclosed under paragraph (h)(1) of this section is a positive number and disclosed as a positive number if the amount disclosed under paragraph (h)(1) of this section is a negative number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (e)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section, under the subheading “Did this change?”:
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement of that fact;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the difference in the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (e)(2)(i) and (e)(2)(ii) is attributable to differences in itemized charges that are included in either or both subtotals, a statement that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed under paragraphs (f)(4) and (g)(5) of this section (together with references to such disclosures), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the increase exceeds the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3), a statement that such increase exceeds the legal limits by the dollar amount of the excess and, if any refund is provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), a statement directing the consumer to the disclosure required under paragraph (h)(3) of this section or, if applicable, a statement directing the consumer to the principal reduction disclosure under paragraph (t)(5)(vii)(B) of this section. Such dollar amount shall equal the sum total of all excesses of the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3), taking into account the different methods of calculating excesses of the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Closing costs paid before closing.</I> Labeled “Closing Costs Paid Before Closing:”
</P>
<P>(i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount of $0;
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” any amount designated as borrower-paid before closing under paragraph (h)(2) of this section, disclosed as a positive number; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, under the subheading “Did this change?”:
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer paid such amounts prior to consummation of the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(3)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Payoffs and payments.</I> Labeled “Total Payoffs and Payments,”
</P>
<P>(i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the total payoffs and payments disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii);
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the total amount of payoffs and payments made to third parties disclosed under paragraph (t)(5)(vii)(B) of this section, to the extent known, disclosed as a negative number if the total amount disclosed under paragraph (t)(5)(vii)(B) of this section is a positive number and disclosed as a positive number if the total amount disclosed under paragraph (t)(5)(vii)(B) of this section is a negative number;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (e)(4)(i) and (ii), under the subheading “Did this change?”:
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact along with a reference to the table disclosed under paragraph (t)(5)(vii)(B) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(4)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (e)(4)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cash to or from consumer.</I> Labeled “Cash to Close:”
</P>
<P>(i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the estimated cash to close on the Loan Estimate together with the statement of whether the estimated amount is due from or to the consumer as disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iv);
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount due from or to the consumer, calculated by the sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (e)(1)(ii), (e)(2)(ii), (e)(3)(ii), and (e)(4)(ii) of this section, disclosed as a positive number, together with a statement of whether the disclosed amount is due from or to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Closing costs financed.</I> Labeled “Closing Costs Financed (Paid from your Loan Amount),” the sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (e)(1)(ii) and (e)(4)(ii) of this section, but only to the extent that the sum is greater than zero and less than or equal to the sum disclosed under paragraph (h)(1) of this section minus the sum disclosed under paragraph (h)(2) of this section designated borrower-paid before closing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Closing cost details; loan costs.</I> Under the master heading “Closing Cost Details” with columns stating whether the charge was borrower-paid at or before closing, seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, all loan costs associated with the transaction, listed in a table under the heading “Loan Costs.” The table shall contain the items and amounts listed under four subheadings, described in paragraphs (f)(1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Origination charges.</I> Under the subheading “Origination Charges,” and in the applicable columns as described in paragraph (f) of this section, an itemization of each amount paid for charges described in § 1026.37(f)(1), the amount of compensation paid by the creditor to a third-party loan originator along with the name of the loan originator ultimately receiving the payment, and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Services borrower did not shop for.</I> Under the subheading “Services Borrower Did Not Shop For” and in the applicable columns as described in paragraph (f) of this section, an itemization of the services and corresponding costs for each of the settlement services required by the creditor for which the consumer did not shop in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) and that are provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker, the name of the person ultimately receiving the payment for each such amount, and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing. Items that were disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3) must be disclosed under this paragraph (f)(2) if the consumer was provided a written list of settlement service providers under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) and the consumer selected a settlement service provider contained on that written list.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Services borrower did shop for.</I> Under the subheading “Services Borrower Did Shop For” and in the applicable column as described in paragraph (f) of this section, an itemization of the services and corresponding costs for each of the settlement services required by the creditor for which the consumer shopped in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) and that are provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker, the name of the person ultimately receiving the payment for each such amount, and the total of all such itemized costs that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing. Items that were disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3) must be disclosed under this paragraph (f)(3) if the consumer was provided a written list of settlement service providers under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) and the consumer did not select a settlement service provider contained on that written list.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total loan costs.</I> Under the subheading “Total Loan Costs (Borrower-Paid),” the sum of the amounts disclosed as borrower-paid pursuant to paragraph (f)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Subtotal of loan costs.</I> The sum of loan costs, calculated by totaling the amounts described in paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) of this section for costs designated borrower-paid at or before closing, labeled “Loan Costs Subtotals.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Closing cost details; other costs.</I> Under the master heading “Closing Cost Details” disclosed pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, with columns stating whether the charge was borrower-paid at or before closing, seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, all costs in connection with the transaction, other than those disclosed under paragraph (f) of this section, listed in a table with a heading disclosed as “Other Costs.” The table shall contain the items and amounts listed under five subheadings, described in paragraphs (g)(1) through (6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Taxes and other government fees.</I> Under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees,” an itemization of each amount that is expected to be paid to State and local governments for taxes and government fees and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On the first line:
</P>
<P>(A) Before the columns described in paragraph (g) of this section, the total amount of fees for recording deeds and, separately, the total amount of fees for recording security instruments; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the applicable column as described in paragraph (g) of this section, the total amounts paid for recording fees (including, but not limited to, the amounts in paragraph (g)(1)(i)(A) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(ii) On subsequent lines, in the applicable column as described in paragraph (g) of this section, an itemization of transfer taxes, with the name of the government entity assessing the transfer tax.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepaids.</I> Under the subheading “Prepaids” and in the applicable column as described in paragraph (g) of this section, an itemization of each amount for charges described in § 1026.37(g)(2), the name of the person ultimately receiving the payment or government entity assessing the property tax, provided that the person ultimately receiving the payment need not be disclosed for the disclosure required by § 1026.37(g)(2)(iii) when disclosed pursuant to this paragraph, and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Initial escrow payment at closing.</I> Under the subheading “Initial escrow payment at closing” and in the applicable column as described in paragraph (g) of this section, an itemization of each amount for charges described in § 1026.37(g)(3), the applicable aggregate adjustment pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.17(d)(2) along with the label “aggregate adjustment,” and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other.</I> Under the subheading “Other” and in the applicable column as described in paragraph (g) of this section, an itemization of each amount for charges in connection with the transaction that are in addition to the charges disclosed under paragraphs (f) and (g)(1) through (3) for services that are required or obtained in the real estate closing by the consumer, the seller, or other party, the name of the person ultimately receiving the payment, and the total of all such itemized amounts that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing.
</P>
<P>(i) For any cost that is a component of title insurance services, the introductory description “Title —” shall appear at the beginning of the label for that actual cost.
</P>
<P>(ii) The parenthetical description “(optional)” shall appear at the end of the label for costs designated borrower-paid at or before closing for any premiums paid for separate insurance, warranty, guarantee, or event-coverage products.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total other costs.</I> Under the subheading “Total Other Costs (Borrower-Paid),” the sum of the amounts disclosed as borrower-paid pursuant to paragraph (g)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Subtotal of costs.</I> The sum of other costs, calculated by totaling the costs disclosed in paragraphs (g)(1) through (4) of this section designated borrower-paid at or before closing, labeled “Other Costs Subtotals.”
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Closing cost totals.</I> (1) The sum of the costs disclosed as borrower-paid pursuant to paragraph (h)(2) of this section and the amount disclosed in paragraph (h)(3) of this section, under the subheading “Total Closing Costs (Borrower-Paid).”
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the amounts disclosed in paragraphs (f)(5) and (g)(6) of this section, designated borrower-paid at or before closing, and the sum of the costs designated seller-paid at or before closing or paid by others disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section, labeled “Closing Costs Subtotals.”
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of lender credits as a negative number, labeled “Lender Credits” and designated borrower-paid at closing, and if a refund is provided pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), a statement that this amount includes a credit for an amount that exceeds the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3), and the amount of such credit under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v).
</P>
<P>(4) The services and costs disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section on the Closing Disclosure shall be labeled using terminology that describes the item disclosed, in a manner that is consistent with the descriptions or prescribed labels, as applicable, used for such items on the Loan Estimate pursuant to § 1026.37. The creditor must also list the items on the Closing Disclosure in the same sequential order as on the Loan Estimate pursuant to § 1026.37.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculating cash to close.</I> In a separate table, under the heading “Calculating Cash to Close,” together with the statement “Use this table to see what has changed from your Loan Estimate”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total closing costs.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the “Total Closing Costs” disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h)(1)(i), labeled using that term.
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount disclosed under paragraph (h)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(1):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A statement of that fact;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the difference in the “Total Closing Costs” is attributable to differences in itemized charges that are included in either or both subtotals, a statement that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed under paragraphs (f)(4) and (g)(5) of this section (together with references to such disclosures), as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the increase exceeds the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3), a statement that such increase exceeds the legal limits by the dollar amount of the excess, and if any refund is provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), a statement directing the consumer to the disclosure required under paragraph (h)(3) of this section or, if a principal reduction is used to provide the refund, a statement directing the consumer to the principal reduction disclosure under paragraph (j)(1)(v) of this section. Such dollar amount shall equal the sum total of all excesses of the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3), taking into account the different methods of calculating excesses of the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(1)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Closing costs paid before closing.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the dollar amount “$0,” labeled “Closing Costs Paid Before Closing.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount of “Total Closing Costs” disclosed under paragraph (h)(2) of this section and designated as borrower-paid before closing, stated as a negative number.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(2):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer paid such amounts prior to consummation of the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(2)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(2)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Closing costs financed.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii), labeled “Closing Costs Financed (Paid from your Loan Amount).”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the actual amount of the closing costs that are to be paid out of loan proceeds, if any, stated as a negative number.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(3):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(3)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer included the closing costs in the loan amount, which increased the loan amount; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(3)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Down payment/funds from borrower.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii), labeled “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final”:
</P>
<P>(A)(<I>1</I>) In a purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i), the amount determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(iv) of this section from the sale price of the property disclosed under paragraph (a)(3)(vii)(A) of this section, labeled “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower,” except as required by paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In a purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i) that is a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction or that involves improvements to be made on the property, or when the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(iv) of this section exceeds the sale price disclosed under paragraph (a)(3)(vii)(A) of this section, the amount of funds from the consumer as determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(6)(iv) of this section labeled “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower;” or
</P>
<P>(B) In all transactions not subject to paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the amount of funds from the consumer as determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(6)(iv) of this section, labeled “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower.”
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(4):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer increased or decreased this payment and that the consumer should see the details disclosed under paragraph (j)(1) or (j)(2) of this section, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Deposit.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv), labeled “Deposit.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(ii) of this section, stated as a negative number.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(5):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(5)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(5)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer increased or decreased this payment, as applicable, and that the consumer should see the details disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(ii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(5)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(5)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Funds for borrower.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v), labeled “Funds for Borrower.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the “Funds for Borrower,” labeled using that term, as determined in accordance with paragraph (i)(6)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(6):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer's available funds from the loan amount have increased or decreased, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(iv) The “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” to be disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (B) of this section, as applicable, and “Funds for Borrower” to be disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section are determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under paragraph (b) of this section and any amount for existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(iv) of this section (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under paragraph (i)(3)(ii) of this section) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction disclosed under paragraphs (j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) If the calculation under this paragraph (i)(6)(iv) yields an amount that is a positive number, such amount shall be disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (B) of this section, as applicable, and $0 shall be disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) If the calculation under this paragraph (i)(6)(iv) yields an amount that is a negative number, such amount shall be disclosed under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section, stated as a negative number, and $0 shall be disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (i)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(C) If the calculation under this paragraph (i)(6)(iv) yields $0, $0 shall be disclosed under paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (i)(4)(ii)(B) of this section, as applicable, and under paragraph (i)(6)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Seller credits.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi), labeled “Seller Credits.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section, stated as a negative number.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(7):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(7)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(7)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Under paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section and in the seller-paid column under paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Under either paragraph (j)(2)(v) of this section or in the seller-paid column under paragraphs (f) or (g) of this section, if the details are only disclosed under paragraph (j)(2)(v) or paragraph (f) or (g); or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(7)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(7)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Adjustments and other credits.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii), labeled “Adjustments and Other Credits.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the amount equal to the total of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) and (v) of this section, to the extent amounts in paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) and (v) were not included in the calculation required by paragraph (i)(4) or (6) of this section, and paragraphs (j)(1)(vi) through (x) of this section, reduced by the total of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (j)(2)(vi) through (xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the subheading “Did this change?,” disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i)(8):
</P>
<P>(A) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(8)(ii) of this section is different than the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(8)(i) of this section (unless the difference is due to rounding), a statement of that fact, along with a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed under paragraphs (j)(1)(iii) and (v) through (x) and (j)(2)(vi) through (xi) of this section, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(8)(ii) of this section is equal to the amount disclosed under paragraph (i)(8)(i) of this section, a statement of that fact.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Cash to close.</I> (i) Under the subheading “Loan Estimate,” the amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h)(1)(viii), labeled “Cash to Close” and disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i).
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the subheading “Final,” the sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (i)(1) through (i)(8) of this section under the subheading “Final,” and disclosed more prominently than the other disclosures under this paragraph (i).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Summary of borrower's transaction.</I> Under the heading “Summaries of Transactions,” with a statement to “Use this table to see a summary of your transaction,” two separate tables are disclosed. The first table shall include, under the subheading “Borrower's Transaction,” the following information and shall satisfy the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Itemization of amounts due from borrower.</I> (i) The total amount due from the consumer at closing, calculated as the sum of items required to be disclosed by paragraph (j)(1)(ii) through (x) of this section, excluding items paid from funds other than closing funds as described in paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section, labeled “Due from Borrower at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the contract sales price of the property being sold in a purchase real estate transaction, excluding the price of any tangible personal property if the consumer and seller have agreed to a separate price for such items, labeled “Sale Price of Property”;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the sales price of any tangible personal property excluded from the contract sales price pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section, labeled “Sale Price of Any Personal Property Included in Sale”;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total amount of closing costs disclosed that are designated borrower-paid at closing, as the sum of the amounts calculated pursuant to paragraphs (h)(2) and (3) of this section, labeled “Closing Costs Paid at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(v) A description and the amount of any additional items that the seller has paid prior to the real estate closing, but reimbursed by the consumer at the real estate closing, and a description and the amount of any other items owed by the consumer at the real estate closing not otherwise disclosed pursuant to paragraph (f), (g), or (j) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The description “Adjustments for Items Paid by Seller in Advance”;
</P>
<P>(vii) The prorated amount of any prepaid taxes due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “City/Town Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(viii) The prorated amount of any prepaid taxes due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “County Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(ix) The prorated amount of any prepaid assessments due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “Assessments”; and
</P>
<P>(x) A description and the amount of any additional items paid by the seller prior to the real estate closing that are due from the consumer at the real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Itemization of amounts already paid by or on behalf of borrower.</I> (i) The sum of the amounts disclosed in this paragraphs (j)(2)(ii) through (xi) of this section, excluding items paid from funds other than closing funds as described in paragraph (j)(4)(i) of this section, labeled “Paid Already by or on Behalf of Borrower at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any amount that is paid to the seller or held in trust or escrow by an attorney or other party under the terms of the agreement for the sale of the property, labeled “Deposit”;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the consumer's new loan amount or first user loan as disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, labeled “Loan Amount”;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of any existing loans that the consumer is assuming, or any loans subject to which the consumer is taking title to the property, labeled “Existing Loan(s) Assumed or Taken Subject to”;
</P>
<P>(v) The total amount of money that the seller will provide at the real estate closing as a lump sum not otherwise itemized to pay for loan costs as determined by paragraph (f) of this section and other costs as determined by paragraph (g) of this section and any other obligations of the seller to be paid directly to the consumer, labeled “Seller Credit”;
</P>
<P>(vi) Descriptions and amounts of other items paid by or on behalf of the consumer and not otherwise disclosed under paragraphs (f), (g), (h), and (j)(2) of this section, labeled “Other Credits,” and descriptions and the amounts of any additional amounts owed the consumer but payable to the seller before the real estate closing, under the heading “Adjustments”;
</P>
<P>(vii) The description “Adjustments for Items Unpaid by Seller”;
</P>
<P>(viii) The prorated amount of any unpaid taxes due from the seller to reimburse the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled ”City/Town Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(ix) The prorated amount of any unpaid taxes due from the seller to reimburse the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “County Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(x) The prorated amount of any unpaid assessments due from the seller to reimburse the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “Assessments”; and
</P>
<P>(xi) A description and the amount of any additional items which have not yet been paid and which the consumer is expected to pay after the real estate closing, but which are attributable in part to a period of time prior to the real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of borrower's transaction.</I> Under the label “Calculation”:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section, labeled “Total Due from Borrower at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount disclosed pursuant to paragraph (j)(2)(i) of this section, if any, disclosed as a negative number, labeled “Total Paid Already by or on Behalf of Borrower at Closing”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the disclosed amount is due from or to the consumer, and the amount due from or to the consumer at the real estate closing, calculated by the sum of the amounts disclosed under paragraphs (j)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, labeled “Cash to Close.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Items paid outside of closing funds.</I> (i) Costs that are not paid from closing funds but that would otherwise be disclosed in the table required pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section, should be marked with the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or the abbreviation “P.O.C.” and include the name of the party making the payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (j), “closing funds” means funds collected and disbursed at real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Summary of seller's transaction.</I> Under the heading “Summaries of Transactions” required by paragraph (j) of this section, a separate table under the subheading “Seller's Transaction,” that includes the following information and satisfies the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Itemization of amounts due to seller.</I> (i) The total amount due to the seller at the real estate closing, calculated as the sum of items required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (k)(1)(ii) through (ix) of this section, excluding items paid from funds other than closing funds as described in paragraph (k)(4)(i) of this section, labeled “Due to Seller at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of the contract sales price of the property being sold, excluding the price of any tangible personal property if the consumer and seller have agreed to a separate price for such items, labeled “Sale Price of Property”;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of the sales price of any tangible personal property excluded from the contract sales price pursuant to paragraph (k)(1)(ii) of this section, labeled “Sale Price of Any Personal Property Included in Sale”;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description and the amount of other items paid to the seller by the consumer pursuant to the contract of sale or other agreement, such as charges that were not disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37 on the Loan Estimate or items paid by the seller prior to the real estate closing but reimbursed by the consumer at the real estate closing;
</P>
<P>(v) The description “Adjustments for Items Paid by Seller in Advance”;
</P>
<P>(vi) The prorated amount of any prepaid taxes due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “City/Town Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(vii) The prorated amount of any prepaid taxes due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “County Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(viii) The prorated amount of any prepaid assessments due from the consumer to reimburse the seller at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “Assessments”; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A description and the amount of additional items paid by the seller prior to the real estate closing that are reimbursed by the consumer at the real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Itemization of amounts due from seller.</I> (i) The total amount due from the seller at the real estate closing, calculated as the sum of items required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (k)(2)(ii) through (xiii) of this section, excluding items paid from funds other than closing funds as described in paragraph (k)(4)(i) of this section, labeled “Due from Seller at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any excess deposit disbursed to the seller prior to the real estate closing, labeled “Excess Deposit”;
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount of closing costs designated seller-paid at closing disclosed pursuant to paragraph (h)(2) of this section, labeled “Closing Costs Paid at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(iv) The amount of any existing loans that the consumer is assuming, or any loans subject to which the consumer is taking title to the property, labeled “Existing Loan(s) Assumed or Taken Subject to”;
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of any loan secured by a first lien on the property that will be paid off as part of the real estate closing, labeled “Payoff of First Mortgage Loan”;
</P>
<P>(vi) The amount of any loan secured by a second lien on the property that will be paid off as part of the real estate closing, labeled “Payoff of Second Mortgage Loan”;
</P>
<P>(vii) The total amount of money that the seller will provide at the real estate closing as a lump sum not otherwise itemized to pay for loan costs as determined by paragraph (f) of this section and other costs as determined by paragraph (g) of this section and any other obligations of the seller to be paid directly to the consumer, labeled “Seller Credit”;
</P>
<P>(viii) A description and amount of any and all other obligations required to be paid by the seller at the real estate closing, including any lien-related payoffs, fees, or obligations;
</P>
<P>(ix) The description “Adjustments for Items Unpaid by Seller”;
</P>
<P>(x) The prorated amount of any unpaid taxes due from the seller to reimburse the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “City/Town Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(xi) The prorated amount of any unpaid taxes due from the seller to the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “County Taxes”;
</P>
<P>(xii) The prorated amount of any unpaid assessments due from the seller to reimburse the consumer at the real estate closing, and the time period corresponding to that amount, labeled “Assessments”; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) A description and the amount of any additional items which have not yet been paid and which the consumer is expected to pay after the real estate closing, but which are attributable in part to a period of time prior to the real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Calculation of seller's transaction.</I> Under the label “Calculation”:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount described in paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section, labeled “Total Due to Seller at Closing”;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount described in paragraph (k)(2)(i) of this section, disclosed as a negative number, labeled “Total Due from Seller at Closing”; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the disclosed amount is due from or to the seller, and the amount due from or to the seller at closing, calculated by the sum of the amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (k)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, labeled “Cash.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Items paid outside of closing funds.</I> (i) Charges that are not paid from closing funds but that would otherwise be disclosed in the table described in paragraph (k) of this section, should be marked with the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or the acronym “P.O.C.” and include a statement of the party making the payment.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph (k), “closing funds” are defined as funds collected and disbursed at real estate closing.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Loan disclosures.</I> Under the master heading “Additional Information About This Loan” and under the heading “Loan Disclosures”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Assumption.</I> Under the subheading “Assumption,” the information required by § 1026.37(m)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Demand feature.</I> Under the subheading “Demand Feature,” a statement of whether the legal obligation permits the creditor to demand early repayment of the loan and, if the statement is affirmative, a reference to the note or other loan contract for details.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Late payment.</I> Under the subheading “Late Payment,” the information required by § 1026.37(m)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Negative amortization.</I> Under the subheading “Negative Amortization (Increase in Loan Amount),” a statement of whether the regular periodic payments may cause the principal balance to increase.
</P>
<P>(i) If the regular periodic payments do not cover all of the interest due, the creditor must provide a statement that the principal balance will increase, such balance will likely become larger than the original loan amount, and increases in such balance lower the consumer's equity in the property.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the consumer may make regular periodic payments that do not cover all of the interest due, the creditor must provide a statement that, if the consumer chooses a monthly payment option that does not cover all of the interest due, the principal balance may become larger than the original loan amount and the increases in the principal balance lower the consumer's equity in the property.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Partial payment policy.</I> Under the subheading “Partial Payments”:
</P>
<P>(i) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are accepted, a statement that the creditor, using the term “lender,” may accept partial payments and apply such payments to the consumer's loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are accepted but not applied to a consumer's loan until the consumer pays the remainder of the full amount due, a statement that the creditor, using the term “lender,” may hold partial payments in a separate account until the consumer pays the remainder of the payment and then apply the full periodic payment to the consumer's loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are not accepted, a statement that the creditor, using the term “lender,” does not accept any partial payments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that, if the loan is sold, the new creditor, using the term “lender,” may have a different policy.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Security interest.</I> Under the subheading “Security Interest,” a statement that the consumer is granting a security interest in the property securing the transaction, the property address including a zip code, and a statement that the consumer may lose the property if the consumer does not make the required payments or satisfy other requirements under the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Escrow account.</I> Under the subheading “Escrow Account”:
</P>
<P>(i) Under the reference “For now,” a statement that an escrow account may also be called an impound or trust account, a statement of whether the creditor has established or will establish (at or before consummation) an escrow account in connection with the transaction, and the information required under paragraphs (l)(7)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the creditor may be liable for penalties and interest if it fails to make a payment for any cost for which the escrow account is established, a statement that the consumer would have to pay such costs directly in the absence of the escrow account, and a table, titled “Escrow,” that contains, if an escrow account is or will be established, an itemization of the amounts listed in paragraphs (l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>4</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The total amount the consumer will be required to pay into an escrow account over the first year after consummation, labeled “Escrowed Property Costs over Year 1,” together with a descriptive name of each charge to be paid (in whole or in part) from the escrow account, calculated as the amount disclosed under paragraph (l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) of this section multiplied by the number of periodic payments scheduled to be made to the escrow account during the first year after consummation;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The estimated amount the consumer is likely to pay during the first year after consummation for the mortgage-related obligations described in § 1026.43(b)(8) that are known to the creditor and that will not be paid using escrow account funds, labeled “Non-Escrowed Property Costs over Year 1,” together with a descriptive name of each such charge and a statement that the consumer may have to pay other costs that are not listed;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The total amount disclosed under paragraph (g)(3) of this section, a statement that the payment is a cushion for the escrow account, labeled “Initial Escrow Payment,” and a reference to the information disclosed under paragraph (g)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The amount the consumer will be required to pay into the escrow account with each periodic payment during the first year after consummation, labeled “Monthly Escrow Payment.”
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) A creditor complies with the requirements of paragraphs (l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>4</I>) of this section if the creditor bases the numerical disclosures required by those paragraphs on amounts derived from the escrow account analysis required under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17.
</P>
<P>(B) A statement of whether the consumer will not have an escrow account, the reason why an escrow account will not be established, a statement that the consumer must pay all property costs, such as taxes and homeowner's insurance, directly, a statement that the consumer may contact the creditor to inquire about the availability of an escrow account, and a table, titled “No Escrow,” that contains, if an escrow account will not be established, an itemization of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The estimated total amount the consumer will pay directly for the mortgage-related obligations described in § 1026.43(b)(8) during the first year after consummation that are known to the creditor and a statement that, without an escrow account, the consumer must pay the identified costs, possibly in one or two large payments, labeled “Property Costs over Year 1”; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount of any fee the creditor imposes on the consumer for not establishing an escrow account in connection with the transaction, labeled “Escrow Waiver Fee.”
</P>
<P>(ii) Under the reference “In the future”:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the consumer's property costs may change and that, as a result, the consumer's escrow payment may change;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement that the consumer may be able to cancel any escrow account that has been established, but that the consumer is responsible for directly paying all property costs in the absence of an escrow account; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the consequences if the consumer fails to pay property costs, including the actions that a State or local government may take if property taxes are not paid and the actions the creditor may take if the consumer does not pay some or all property costs, such as adding amounts to the loan balance, adding an escrow account to the loan, or purchasing a property insurance policy on the consumer's behalf that may be more expensive and provide fewer benefits than what the consumer could obtain directly.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Adjustable payment table.</I> Under the master heading “Additional Information About This Loan” required by paragraph (l) of this section, and under the heading “Adjustable Payment (AP) Table,” the table required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(i).
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Adjustable interest rate table.</I> Under the master heading “Additional Information About This Loan” required by paragraph (l) of this section, and under the heading “Adjustable Interest Rate (AIR) Table,” the table required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(j).
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Loan calculations.</I> In a separate table under the heading “Loan Calculations”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Total of payments.</I> The “Total of Payments,” using that term and expressed as a dollar amount, and a statement that the disclosure is the total the consumer will have paid after making all payments of principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs, as scheduled. The disclosed total of payments shall be treated as accurate if the amount disclosed as the total of payments:
</P>
<P>(i) Is understated by no more than $100; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Finance charge.</I> The “Finance Charge,” using that term and expressed as a dollar amount, and the following statement: “The dollar amount the loan will cost you.” The disclosed finance charge and other disclosures affected by the disclosed financed charge (including the amount financed and the annual percentage rate) shall be treated as accurate if the amount disclosed as the finance charge:
</P>
<P>(i) Is understated by no more than $100; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is greater than the amount required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amount financed.</I> The “Amount Financed,” using that term and expressed as a dollar amount, and the following statement: “The loan amount available after paying your upfront finance charge.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The “Annual Percentage Rate,” using that term and the abbreviation “APR” and expressed as a percentage, and the following statement: “Your costs over the loan term expressed as a rate. This is not your interest rate.”
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Total interest percentage.</I> The “Total Interest Percentage,” using that term and the abbreviation “TIP” and expressed as a percentage, and the following statement: “The total amount of interest that you will pay over the loan term as a percentage of your loan amount.”
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Other disclosures.</I> Under the heading “Other Disclosures”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Appraisal.</I> For transactions subject to 15 U.S.C. 1639h or 1691(e), as implemented in this part or Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, respectively, under the subheading “Appraisal,” that:
</P>
<P>(i) If there was an appraisal of the property in connection with the loan, the creditor is required to provide the consumer with a copy at no additional cost to the consumer at least three days prior to consummation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the consumer has not yet received a copy of the appraisal, the consumer should contact the creditor using the information disclosed pursuant to paragraph (r) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contract details.</I> A statement that the consumer should refer to the appropriate loan document and security instrument for information about nonpayment, what constitutes a default under the legal obligation, circumstances under which the creditor may accelerate the maturity of the obligation, and prepayment rebates and penalties, under the subheading “Contract Details.”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Liability after foreclosure.</I> A brief statement of whether, and the conditions under which, the consumer may remain responsible for any deficiency after foreclosure under applicable State law, a brief statement that certain protections may be lost if the consumer refinances or incurs additional debt on the property, and a statement that the consumer should consult an attorney for additional information, under the subheading “Liability after Foreclosure.”
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Refinanc</I>e. Under the subheading “Refinance,” the statement required by § 1026.37(m)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tax deductions.</I> Under the subheading “Tax Deductions,” a statement that, if the extension of credit exceeds the fair market value of the property, the interest on the portion of the credit extension that is greater than the fair market value of the property is not tax deductible for Federal income tax purposes and a statement that the consumer should consult a tax adviser for further information.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Questions notice.</I> In a separate notice labeled “Questions?”:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement directing the consumer to use the contact information disclosed under paragraph (r) of this section if the consumer has any questions about the disclosures required pursuant to § 1026.19(f);
</P>
<P>(2) A reference to the Bureau's Web site to obtain more information or to submit a complaint; and the link or uniform resource locator address to the Web site: <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/mortgage-closing</I>; and
</P>
<P>(3) A prominent question mark.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Contact information.</I> In a separate table, under the heading “Contact Information,” the following information for each creditor (under the subheading “Lender”), mortgage broker (under the subheading “Mortgage Broker”), consumer's real estate broker (under the subheading “Real Estate Broker (B)”), seller's real estate broker (under the subheading “Real Estate Broker (S)”), and settlement agent (under the subheading “Settlement Agent”) participating in the transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Name of the person, labeled “Name”;
</P>
<P>(2) Address, using that label;
</P>
<P>(3) Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System &amp; Registry (NMLSR ID) identification number, labeled “NMLS ID,” or, if none, license number or other unique identifier issued by the applicable jurisdiction or regulating body with which the person is licensed and/or registered, labeled “License ID,” with the abbreviation for the State of the applicable jurisdiction or regulatory body stated before the word “License” in the label, for the persons identified in paragraph (r)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Name of the natural person who is the primary contact for the consumer with the person identified in paragraph (r)(1) of this section, labeled “Contact”;
</P>
<P>(5) NMLSR ID, labeled “Contact NMLS ID,” or, if none, license number or other unique identifier issued by the applicable jurisdiction or regulating body with which the person is licensed and/or registered, labeled “Contact License ID,” with the abbreviation for the State of the applicable jurisdiction or regulatory body stated before the word “License” in the label, for the natural person identified in paragraph (r)(4) of this section,
</P>
<P>(6) Email address for the person identified in paragraph (r)(4) of this section, labeled “Email”; and
</P>
<P>(7) Telephone number for the person identified in paragraph (r)(4) of this section, labeled “Phone.”
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Signature statement.</I> (1) At the creditor's option, under the heading “Confirm Receipt,” a line for the signatures of the consumers in the transaction. If the creditor provides a line for the consumer's signature, the creditor must disclose above the signature line the statement required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(n)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) If the creditor does not provide a line for the consumer's signature, the statement required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(n)(2) under the heading “Other Disclosures” required by paragraph (p) of this section.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General requirements.</I> (i) The creditor shall make the disclosures required by this section clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures also shall be grouped together and segregated from everything else.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (t)(5), the disclosures shall contain only the information required by paragraphs (a) through (s) of this section and shall be made in the same order, and positioned relative to the master headings, headings, subheadings, labels, and similar designations in the same manner, as shown in form H-25, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Headings and labels.</I> If a master heading, heading, subheading, label, or similar designation contains the word “estimated” or a capital letter designation in form H-25, set forth in appendix H to this part, that heading, label, or similar designation shall contain the word “estimated” and the applicable capital letter designation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (t)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For a transaction subject to § 1026.19(f) that is a federally related mortgage loan, as defined in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2, the disclosures must be made using form H-25, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) For any other transaction subject to this section, the disclosures must be made with headings, content, and format substantially similar to form H-25, set forth in appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosures required by this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Rounding</I>—(i) <I>Nearest dollar.</I> The following dollar amounts are required to be rounded to the nearest whole dollar:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph (b) of this section that are required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(A) when disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(6) and (7);
</P>
<P>(B) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph (c) of this section that are required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(A) when disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(1)(iii);
</P>
<P>(C) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraphs (e) and (i) of this section under the subheading “Loan Estimate”;
</P>
<P>(D) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph (m) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) The dollar amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph (c) of this section that are required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(C) when disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Percentages.</I> The percentage amounts required to be disclosed under paragraphs (b), (f)(1), (n), and (o)(4) and (5) of this section shall be disclosed by rounding the exact amounts to three decimal places and then dropping any trailing zeros to the right of the decimal point.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Loan amount.</I> The dollar amount required to be disclosed by paragraph (b) of this section as required by § 1026.37(b)(1) shall be disclosed as an unrounded number, except that if the amount is a whole number then the amount disclosed shall be truncated at the decimal point.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Unit-period.</I> Wherever the form or this section uses “monthly” to describe the frequency of any payments or uses “month” to describe the applicable unit-period, the creditor shall substitute the appropriate term to reflect the fact that the transaction's terms provide for other than monthly periodic payments, such as bi-weekly or quarterly payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Lender credits.</I> The amount required to be disclosed by paragraph (d)(1)(i)(D) of this section may be omitted from the form if the amount is zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Administrative information.</I> The creditor may insert at the bottom of each page under the disclosures required by this section as illustrated by form H-25 of appendix H to this part, any administrative information, text, or codes that assist in identification of the form or the information disclosed on the form, provided that the space provided on form H-25 for any of the information required by this section is not altered.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Closing cost details</I>—(A) <I>Additional line numbers.</I> Line numbers provided on form H-25 of appendix H to this part for the disclosure of the information required by paragraphs (f)(1) through (3) and (g)(1) through (4) of this section that are not used may be deleted and the deleted line numbers added to the space provided for any other of those paragraphs as necessary to accommodate the disclosure of additional items.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Two pages.</I> To the extent that adding or deleting line numbers provided on form H-25 of appendix H to this part, as permitted by paragraph (t)(5)(iv)(A) of this section, does not accommodate an itemization of all information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (f) through (h) on one page, the information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (f) through (h) of this section may be disclosed on two pages, provided that the information required by paragraph (f) is disclosed on a page separate from the information required by paragraph (g). The information required by paragraph (g), if disclosed on a page separate from paragraph (f), shall be disclosed on the same page as the information required by paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Separation of consumer and seller information.</I> The creditor or settlement agent preparing the form may use form H-25 of appendix H to this part for the disclosure provided to both the consumer and the seller, with the following modifications to separate the information of the consumer and seller, as necessary:
</P>
<P>(A) The information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (j) and (k) of this section may be disclosed on separate pages to the consumer and the seller, respectively, with the information required by the other paragraph left blank. The information disclosed to the consumer pursuant to paragraph (j) of this section must be disclosed on the same page as the information required by paragraph (i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The information required to be disclosed by paragraphs (f) and (g) of this section with respect to costs paid by the consumer may be left blank on the disclosure provided to the seller.
</P>
<P>(C) The information required by paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(4)(iii), (a)(5), (b) through (d), (i), (l) through (p), (r) with respect to the creditor and mortgage broker, and (s)(2) of this section may be left blank on the disclosure provided to the seller.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Modified version of the form for a seller or third-party.</I> The information required by paragraphs (a)(2), (a)(4)(iii), (a)(5), (b) through (d), (f), and (g) with respect to costs paid by the consumer, (i), (j), (l) through (p), (q)(1), and (r) with respect to the creditor and mortgage broker, and (s) of this section may be deleted from the form provided to the seller or a third-party, as illustrated by form H-25(I) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Transaction without a seller or simultaneous subordinate financing transaction.</I> The following modifications to form H-25 of appendix H to this part may be made for a transaction that does not involve a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, and for which the alternative tables are disclosed under paragraphs (d)(2) and (e) of this section, as illustrated by form H-25(J) of appendix H to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) The information required by paragraph (a)(4)(ii), and paragraphs (f), (g), and (h) of this section with respect to costs paid by the seller, may be deleted.
</P>
<P>(B) A table under the master heading “Closing Cost Details” required by paragraph (f) of this section may be added with the heading “Payoffs and Payments” that itemizes the amounts of payments made at closing to other parties from the credit extended to the consumer or funds provided by the consumer in connection with the transaction, including designees of the consumer; the payees and a description of the purpose of such disbursements under the subheading “To”; and the total amount of such payments labeled “Total Payoffs and Payments.”
</P>
<P>(C) The tables required to be disclosed by paragraphs (j) and (k) of this section may be deleted.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Translation.</I> The form may be translated into languages other than English, and creditors may modify form H-25 of appendix H to this part to the extent that translation prevents the headings, labels, designations, and required disclosure items under this section from fitting in the space provided on form H-25.
</P>
<P>(ix) <I>Customary recitals and information.</I> An additional page may be attached to the form for the purpose of including customary recitals and information used locally in real estate settlements.


</P>
<P>(u) <I>PACE transactions.</I> For PACE transactions as defined in § 1026.43(b)(15), the creditor must comply with the requirements of this section with the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Transaction information.</I> In addition to the other disclosures required under paragraph (a)(4) of this section under the heading “Transaction Information,” the creditor shall disclose the name of any PACE company involved in the transaction, labeled “PACE Company.” For purposes of this paragraph (u)(1), “PACE company” has the same meaning as in § 1026.43(b)(14).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Projected payments.</I> The creditor shall disclose the information required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section as modified by § 1026.37(p)(1) and (2) and shall omit the information required by paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assumption.</I> In lieu of the information required by paragraph (l)(1) of this section, the creditor shall use the subheading “Selling the Property” and disclose the information required by § 1026.37(p)(4).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Late payment.</I> In lieu of the information required by paragraph (l)(3) of this section, under the subheading “Late Payment,” the creditor shall disclose the information required by § 1026.37(p)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Partial payment policy.</I> In lieu of the information required by paragraph (l)(5) of the section, under the subheading “Partial Payment,” the creditor shall disclose a statement directing the consumer to contact the mortgage servicer about the partial payment policy for the account if the consumer has a mortgage with an escrow account for property taxes and to contact the tax collector about the tax collector's partial payment policy if the consumer pays property taxes directly to the tax authority.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Escrow account.</I> The creditor shall not disclose the information required by paragraph (l)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Liability after foreclosure or tax sale.</I> The creditor shall not disclose the information required by paragraph (p)(3) of this section. If the consumer may be responsible for any deficiency after foreclosure or tax sale under applicable State law, the creditor shall instead disclose a brief statement that, if the property is sold through foreclosure or tax sale and the sale does not cover the amount owed on the PACE obligation, the consumer may be liable for some portion of the unpaid balance under State law, and a statement that the consumer may want to consult an attorney for additional information, under the subheading “Liability after Foreclosure or Tax Sale.”
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Contact information.</I> The creditor shall disclose the information described in paragraph (r)(1)-(7) of this section for the PACE company, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(14) (under the subheading “PACE Company”).
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Exceptions</I>—(i) <I>Unit-period.</I> Wherever form H-25(K) of appendix H to this part uses “annual” to describe the frequency of any payments or the applicable unit-period, the creditor shall use the appropriate term to reflect the transaction's terms, such semi-annual payments.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>PACE nomenclature.</I> (A) Wherever this section requires disclosure of the word “PACE” or form H-25(K) of appendix H to this part uses the term “PACE,” the creditor may substitute the name of a specific PACE financing program that will be recognizable to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(B) In disclosing the information required under paragraph (p)(2) of this section, the creditor shall use the term “PACE contract documents” to refer to the appropriate loan document and security instrument.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 80120, Dec. 31, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 8776, Feb. 19, 2015; 80 FR 43920, July 24, 2015; 82 FR 37770, Aug. 11, 2017; 90 FR 2502, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.39" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.39   Mortgage transfer disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> The disclosure requirements of this section apply to any covered person except as otherwise provided in this section. For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) A “<I>covered person”</I> means any person, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(22), that becomes the owner of an existing mortgage loan by acquiring legal title to the debt obligation, whether through a purchase, assignment or other transfer, and who acquires more than one mortgage loan in any twelve-month period. For purposes of this section, a servicer of a mortgage loan shall not be treated as the owner of the obligation if the servicer holds title to the loan, or title is assigned to the servicer, solely for the administrative convenience of the servicer in servicing the obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) A “<I>mortgage loan”</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An open-end consumer credit transaction that is secured by the principal dwelling of a consumer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling or real property.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each covered person is subject to the requirements of this section and shall mail or deliver the disclosures required by this section to the consumer on or before the 30th calendar day following the date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall be provided clearly and conspicuously in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The date of transfer.</I> For purposes of this section, the date of transfer to the covered person may, at the covered person's option, be either the date of acquisition recognized in the books and records of the acquiring party, or the date of transfer recognized in the books and records of the transferring party.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Multiple consumers.</I> If more than one consumer is liable on the obligation, a covered person may mail or deliver the disclosures to any consumer who is primarily liable.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple transfers.</I> If a mortgage loan is acquired by a covered person and subsequently sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another covered person, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Multiple covered persons.</I> If an acquisition involves multiple covered persons who jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exceptions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of this section, a covered person is not subject to the requirements of this section with respect to a particular mortgage loan if:
</P>
<P>(1) The covered person sells, or otherwise transfers or assigns legal title to the mortgage loan on or before the 30th calendar day following the date that the covered person acquired the mortgage loan which shall be the date of transfer recognized for purposes of paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The mortgage loan is transferred to the covered person in connection with a repurchase agreement that obligates the transferor to repurchase the loan. However, if the transferor does not repurchase the loan, the covered person must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records; or
</P>
<P>(3) The covered person acquires only a partial interest in the loan and the party authorized to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan does not change as a result of the transfer of the partial interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of required disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by this section shall identify the mortgage loan that was sold, assigned or otherwise transferred, and state the following, except that the information required by paragraph (d)(5) of this section shall be stated only for a mortgage loan that is a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling or real property other than a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33 of this part:
</P>
<P>(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the covered person.
</P>
<P>(i) If a single disclosure is provided on behalf of more than one covered person, the information required by this paragraph shall be provided for each of them unless paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section applies.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a single disclosure is provided on behalf of more than one covered person and one of them has been authorized in accordance with paragraph (d)(3) of this section to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan, the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be provided only for that covered person.
</P>
<P>(2) The date of transfer.
</P>
<P>(3) The name, address and telephone number of an agent or party authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. However, no information is required to be provided under this paragraph if the consumer can use the information provided under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) Where transfer of ownership of the debt to the covered person is or may be recorded in public records, or, alternatively, that the transfer of ownership has not been recorded in public records at the time the disclosure is provided.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Partial payment policy.</I> Under the subheading “Partial Payment”:
</P>
<P>(i) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are accepted, a statement that the covered person, using the term “lender,” may accept partial payments and apply such payments to the consumer's loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are accepted but not applied to a consumer's loan until the consumer pays the remainder of the full amount due, a statement that the covered person, using the term “lender,” may hold partial payments in a separate account until the consumer pays the remainder of the payment and then apply the full periodic payment to the consumer's loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) If periodic payments that are less than the full amount due are not accepted, a statement that the covered person, using the term “lender,” does not accept any partial payments; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that, if the loan is sold, the new covered person, using the term “lender,” may have a different policy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Optional disclosures.</I> In addition to the information required to be disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section, a covered person may, at its option, provide any other information regarding the transaction.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Successor in interest.</I> If, upon confirmation, a servicer provides a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation with a written notice and acknowledgment form in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1) of this chapter, the servicer is not required to provide to the confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by paragraph (b) of this section unless and until the confirmed successor in interest either assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law or has provided the servicer an executed acknowledgment in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv) of this chapter, that the confirmed successor in interest has not revoked.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80130, Dec. 31, 2013; 81 FR 72388, Oct. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.40" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.40   Requirements for home equity plans.</HEAD>
<P>The requirements of this section apply to open-end credit plans secured by the consumer's dwelling. For purposes of this section, an annual percentage rate is the annual percentage rate corresponding to the periodic rate as determined under § 1026.14(b).
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (d) of this section shall be made clearly and conspicuously and shall be grouped together and segregated from all unrelated information. The disclosures may be provided on the application form or on a separate form. The disclosure described in paragraph (d)(4)(iii), the itemization of third-party fees described in paragraph (d)(8), and the variable-rate information described in paragraph (d)(12) of this section may be provided separately from the other required disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Precedence of certain disclosures.</I> The disclosures described in paragraph (d)(1) through (4)(ii) of this section shall precede the other required disclosures.
</P>
<P>(3) For an application that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required under this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time of disclosures.</I> The disclosures and brochure required by paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section shall be provided at the time an application is provided to the consumer. The disclosures and the brochure may be delivered or placed in the mail not later than three business days following receipt of a consumer's application in the case of applications contained in magazines or other publications, or when the application is received by telephone or through an intermediary agent or broker.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duties of third parties.</I> Persons other than the creditor who provide applications to consumers for home equity plans must provide the brochure required under paragraph (e) of this section at the time an application is provided. If such persons have the disclosures required under paragraph (d) of this section for a creditor's home equity plan, they also shall provide the disclosures at such time. The disclosures and the brochure may be delivered or placed in the mail not later than three business days following receipt of a consumer's application in the case of applications contained in magazines or other publications, or when the application is received by telephone or through an intermediary agent or broker.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of disclosures.</I> The creditor shall provide the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retention of information.</I> A statement that the consumer should make or otherwise retain a copy of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Conditions for disclosed terms.</I> (i) A statement of the time by which the consumer must submit an application to obtain specific terms disclosed and an identification of any disclosed term that is subject to change prior to opening the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that, if a disclosed term changes (other than a change due to fluctuations in the index in a variable-rate plan) prior to opening the plan and the consumer therefore elects not to open the plan, the consumer may receive a refund of all fees paid in connection with the application.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Security interest and risk to home.</I> A statement that the creditor will acquire a security interest in the consumer's dwelling and that loss of the dwelling may occur in the event of default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Possible actions by creditor.</I> (i) A statement that, under certain conditions, the creditor may terminate the plan and require payment of the outstanding balance in full in a single payment and impose fees upon termination; prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit; and, as specified in the initial agreement, implement certain changes in the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the consumer may receive, upon request, information about the conditions under which such actions may occur.
</P>
<P>(iii) In lieu of the disclosure required under paragraph (d)(4)(ii) of this section, a statement of such conditions.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment terms.</I> The payment terms of the plan. If different payment terms may apply to the draw and any repayment period, or if different payment terms may apply within either period, the disclosures shall reflect the different payment terms. The payment terms of the plan include:
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the draw period and any repayment period.
</P>
<P>(ii) An explanation of how the minimum periodic payment will be determined and the timing of the payments. If paying only the minimum periodic payments may not repay any of the principal or may repay less than the outstanding balance, a statement of this fact, as well as a statement that a balloon payment may result. A balloon payment results if paying the minimum periodic payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the consumer must repay the entire outstanding balance at such time.
</P>
<P>(iii) An example, based on a $10,000 outstanding balance and a recent annual percentage rate, showing the minimum periodic payment, any balloon payment, and the time it would take to repay the $10,000 outstanding balance if the consumer made only those payments and obtained no additional extensions of credit. For fixed-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate is a rate that has been in effect under the plan within the twelve months preceding the date the disclosures are provided to the consumer. For variable-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate is the most recent rate provided in the historical example described in paragraph (d)(12)(xi) of this section or a rate that has been in effect under the plan since the date of the most recent rate in the table.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> For fixed-rate plans, a recent annual percentage rate imposed under the plan and a statement that the rate does not include costs other than interest. A recent annual percentage rate is a rate that has been in effect under the plan within the twelve months preceding the date the disclosures are provided to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Fees imposed by creditor.</I> An itemization of any fees imposed by the creditor to open, use, or maintain the plan, stated as a dollar amount or percentage, and when such fees are payable.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fees imposed by third parties to open a plan.</I> A good faith estimate, stated as a single dollar amount or range, of any fees that may be imposed by persons other than the creditor to open the plan, as well as a statement that the consumer may receive, upon request, a good faith itemization of such fees. In lieu of the statement, the itemization of such fees may be provided.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Negative amortization.</I> A statement that negative amortization may occur and that negative amortization increases the principal balance and reduces the consumer's equity in the dwelling.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Transaction requirements.</I> Any limitations on the number of extensions of credit and the amount of credit that may be obtained during any time period, as well as any minimum outstanding balance and minimum draw requirements, stated as dollar amounts or percentages.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Tax implications.</I> A statement that the consumer should consult a tax advisor regarding the deductibility of interest and charges under the plan.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Disclosures for variable-rate plans.</I> For a plan in which the annual percentage rate is variable, the following disclosures, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The fact that the annual percentage rate, payment, or term may change due to the variable-rate feature.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the annual percentage rate does not include costs other than interest.
</P>
<P>(iii) The index used in making rate adjustments and a source of information about the index.
</P>
<P>(iv) An explanation of how the annual percentage rate will be determined, including an explanation of how the index is adjusted, such as by the addition of a margin.
</P>
<P>(v) A statement that the consumer should ask about the current index value, margin, discount or premium, and annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that the initial annual percentage rate is not based on the index and margin used to make later rate adjustments, and the period of time such initial rate will be in effect.
</P>
<P>(vii) The frequency of changes in the annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any rules relating to changes in the index value and the annual percentage rate and resulting changes in the payment amount, including, for example, an explanation of payment limitations and rate carryover.
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement of any annual or more frequent periodic limitations on changes in the annual percentage rate (or a statement that no annual limitation exists), as well as a statement of the maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed under each payment option.
</P>
<P>(x) The minimum periodic payment required when the maximum annual percentage rate for each payment option is in effect for a $10,000 outstanding balance, and a statement of the earliest date or time the maximum rate may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(xi) An historical example, based on a $10,000 extension of credit, illustrating how annual percentage rates and payments would have been affected by index value changes implemented according to the terms of the plan. The historical example shall be based on the most recent 15 years of index values (selected for the same time period each year) and shall reflect all significant plan terms, such as negative amortization, rate carryover, rate discounts, and rate and payment limitations, that would have been affected by the index movement during the period.
</P>
<P>(xii) A statement that rate information will be provided on or with each periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Brochure.</I> The home equity brochure entitled “What You Should Know About Home Equity Lines of Credit” or a suitable substitute shall be provided.




</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitations on home equity plans.</I> No creditor may, by contract or otherwise:
</P>
<P>(1) Change the annual percentage rate unless:
</P>
<P>(i) Such change is based on an index that is not under the creditor's control; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such index is available to the general public.
</P>
<P>(2) Terminate a plan and demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance in advance of the original term (except for reverse mortgage transactions that are subject to paragraph (f)(4) of this section) unless:
</P>
<P>(i) There is fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement for any outstanding balance;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any action or inaction by the consumer adversely affects the creditor's security for the plan, or any right of the creditor in such security; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Federal law dealing with credit extended by a depository institution to its executive officers specifically requires that as a condition of the plan the credit shall become due and payable on demand, provided that the creditor includes such a provision in the initial agreement.


</P>
<P>(3) Change any term, except that a creditor may:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide in the initial agreement that it may prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit during any period in which the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor also may provide in the initial agreement that specified changes will occur if a specified event takes place (for example, that the annual percentage rate will increase a specified amount if the consumer leaves the creditor's employment).
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Change the index and margin used under the plan if the original index is no longer available, the replacement index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to that of the original index, and the replacement index and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if it and the replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect when the original index became unavailable; or
</P>
<P>(B) If a variable rate on the plan is calculated using a LIBOR index, change the LIBOR index and the margin for calculating the variable rate on or after April 1, 2022, to a replacement index and a replacement margin, as long as historical fluctuations in the LIBOR index and replacement index were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is not published on October 18, 2021, the creditor generally must use the next calendar day for which both the LIBOR index and the replacement index are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index.




</P>
<P>(iii) Make a specified change if the consumer specifically agrees to it in writing at that time.
</P>
<P>(iv) Make a change that will unequivocally benefit the consumer throughout the remainder of the plan.
</P>
<P>(v) Make an insignificant change to terms.
</P>
<P>(vi) Prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit applicable to an agreement during any period in which:
</P>
<P>(A) The value of the dwelling that secures the plan declines significantly below the dwelling's appraised value for purposes of the plan;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor reasonably believes that the consumer will be unable to fulfill the repayment obligations under the plan because of a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances;
</P>
<P>(C) The consumer is in default of any material obligation under the agreement;
</P>
<P>(D) The creditor is precluded by government action from imposing the annual percentage rate provided for in the agreement;
</P>
<P>(E) The priority of the creditor's security interest is adversely affected by government action to the extent that the value of the security interest is less than 120 percent of the credit line; or
</P>
<P>(F) The creditor is notified by its regulatory agency that continued advances constitute an unsafe and unsound practice.
</P>
<P>(4) For reverse mortgage transactions that are subject to § 1026.33, terminate a plan and demand repayment of the entire outstanding balance in advance of the original term except:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of default;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the consumer transfers title to the property securing the note;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the consumer ceases using the property securing the note as the primary dwelling; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Upon the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Refund of fees.</I> A creditor shall refund all fees paid by the consumer to anyone in connection with an application if any term required to be disclosed under paragraph (d) of this section changes (other than a change due to fluctuations in the index in a variable-rate plan) before the plan is opened and, as a result, the consumer elects not to open the plan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Imposition of nonrefundable fees.</I> Neither a creditor nor any other person may impose a nonrefundable fee in connection with an application until three business days after the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure required under this section. If the disclosures and brochure are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 69781, Dec. 8, 2021; 88 FR 30622, May 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.41" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.41   Periodic statements for residential mortgage loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling, unless an exemption in paragraph (e) of this section applies. A closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling is referred to as a <I>mortgage loan</I> for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic statements.</I> A servicer of a transaction subject to this section shall provide the consumer, for each billing cycle, a periodic statement meeting the requirements of paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section. If a mortgage loan has a billing cycle shorter than a period of 31 days (for example, a bi-weekly billing cycle), a periodic statement covering an entire month may be used. For the purposes of this section, <I>servicer</I> includes the creditor, assignee, or servicer, as applicable. A creditor or assignee that does not currently own the mortgage loan or the mortgage servicing rights is not subject to the requirement in this section to provide a periodic statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of the periodic statement.</I> The periodic statement must be delivered or placed in the mail within a reasonably prompt time after the payment due date or the end of any courtesy period provided for the previous billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of the periodic statement.</I> The servicer must make the disclosures required by this section clearly and conspicuously in writing, or electronically if the consumer agrees, and in a form that the consumer may keep. Sample forms for periodic statements are provided in appendix H-30. Proper use of these forms complies with the requirements of this paragraph (c) and the layout requirements in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content and layout of the periodic statement.</I> The periodic statement required by this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Amount due.</I> Grouped together in close proximity to each other and located at the top of the first page of the statement:
</P>
<P>(i) The payment due date;
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of any late payment fee, and the date on which that fee will be imposed if payment has not been received; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The amount due, shown more prominently than other disclosures on the page and, if the transaction has multiple payment options, the amount due under each of the payment options.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Explanation of amount due.</I> The following items, grouped together in close proximity to each other and located on the first page of the statement:
</P>
<P>(i) The monthly payment amount, including a breakdown showing how much, if any, will be applied to principal, interest, and escrow and, if a mortgage loan has multiple payment options, a breakdown of each of the payment options along with information on whether the principal balance will increase, decrease, or stay the same for each option listed;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total sum of any fees or charges imposed since the last statement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payment amount past due.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Past payment breakdown.</I> The following items, grouped together in close proximity to each other and located on the first page of the statement:
</P>
<P>(i) The total of all payments received since the last statement, including a breakdown showing the amount, if any, that was applied to principal, interest, escrow, fees and charges, and the amount, if any, sent to any suspense or unapplied funds account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total of all payments received since the beginning of the current calendar year, including a breakdown of that total showing the amount, if any, that was applied to principal, interest, escrow, fees and charges, and the amount, if any, currently held in any suspense or unapplied funds account.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transaction activity.</I> A list of all the transaction activity that occurred since the last statement. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(4), <I>transaction activity</I> means any activity that causes a credit or debit to the amount currently due. This list must include the date of the transaction, a brief description of the transaction, and the amount of the transaction for each activity on the list.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Partial payment information.</I> If a statement reflects a partial payment that was placed in a suspense or unapplied funds account, information explaining what must be done for the funds to be applied. The information must be on the front page of the statement or, alternatively, may be included on a separate page enclosed with the periodic statement or in a separate letter.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Contact information.</I> A toll-free telephone number and, if applicable, an electronic mailing address that may be used by the consumer to obtain information about the consumer's account, located on the front page of the statement.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Account information.</I> The following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of the outstanding principal balance;
</P>
<P>(ii) The current interest rate in effect for the mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The date after which the interest rate may next change;
</P>
<P>(iv) The existence of any prepayment penalty, as defined in § 1026.32(b)(6)(i), that may be charged;
</P>
<P>(v) The Web site to access either the Bureau list or the HUD list of homeownership counselors and counseling organizations and the HUD toll-free telephone number to access contact information for homeownership counselors or counseling organizations; and
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Delinquency information.</I> If the consumer is more than 45 days delinquent, the following items, grouped together in close proximity to each other and located on the first page of the statement or, alternatively, on a separate page enclosed with the periodic statement or in a separate letter:
</P>
<P>(i) The length of the consumer's delinquency;
</P>
<P>(ii) A notification of possible risks, such as foreclosure, and expenses, that may be incurred if the delinquency is not cured;
</P>
<P>(iii) An account history showing, for the previous six months or the period since the last time the account was current, whichever is shorter, the amount remaining past due from each billing cycle or, if any such payment was fully paid, the date on which it was credited as fully paid;
</P>
<P>(iv) A notice indicating any loss mitigation program to which the consumer has agreed, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(v) A notice of whether the servicer has made the first notice or filing required by applicable law for any judicial or non-judicial foreclosure process, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(vi) The total payment amount needed to bring the account current; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A reference to the homeownership counselor information disclosed pursuant to paragraph (d)(7)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> Reverse mortgage transactions, as defined by § 1026.33(a), are exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timeshare plans.</I> Transactions secured by consumers' interests in timeshare plans, as defined by 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), are exempt from the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coupon books.</I> The requirements of paragraph (a) of this section do not apply to fixed-rate loans if the servicer:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer with a coupon book that includes on each coupon the information listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides the consumer with a coupon book that includes anywhere in the coupon book:
</P>
<P>(A) The account information listed in paragraph (d)(7) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The contact information for the servicer, listed in paragraph (d)(6) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Information on how the consumer can obtain the information listed in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Makes available upon request to the consumer by telephone, in writing, in person, or electronically, if the consumer consents, the information listed in paragraph (d)(2) through (5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the consumer the information listed in paragraph (d)(8) of this section in writing, for any billing cycle during which the consumer is more than 45 days delinquent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Small servicers</I>—(i) <I>Exemption.</I> A creditor, assignee, or servicer is exempt from the requirements of this section for mortgage loans serviced by a small servicer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Small servicer defined.</I> A small servicer is a servicer that:
</P>
<P>(A) Services, together with any affiliates, 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, for all of which the servicer (or an affiliate) is the creditor or assignee;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a Housing Finance Agency, as defined in 24 CFR 266.5; or
</P>
<P>(C) Is a nonprofit entity that services 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, including any mortgage loans serviced on behalf of associated nonprofit entities, for all of which the servicer or an associated nonprofit entity is the creditor. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(4)(ii)(C), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The term “nonprofit entity” means an entity having a tax exemption ruling or determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3); 26 CFR 1.501(c)(3)-1), and;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The term “associated nonprofit entities” means nonprofit entities that by agreement operate using a common name, trademark, or servicemark to further and support a common charitable mission or purpose.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Small servicer determination.</I> In determining whether a servicer satisfies paragraph (e)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the servicer is evaluated based on the mortgage loans serviced by the servicer and any affiliates as of January 1 and for the remainder of the calendar year. In determining whether a servicer satisfies paragraph (e)(4)(ii)(C) of this section, the servicer is evaluated based on the mortgage loans serviced by the servicer as of January 1 and for the remainder of the calendar year. A servicer that ceases to qualify as a small servicer will have six months from the time it ceases to qualify or until the next January 1, whichever is later, to comply with any requirements from which the servicer is no longer exempt as a small servicer. The following mortgage loans are not considered in determining whether a servicer qualifies as a small servicer:
</P>
<P>(A) Mortgage loans voluntarily serviced by the servicer for a non-affiliate of the servicer and for which the servicer does not receive any compensation or fees.
</P>
<P>(B) Reverse mortgage transactions.
</P>
<P>(C) Mortgage loans secured by consumers' interests in timeshare plans.
</P>
<P>(D) Transactions serviced by the servicer for a seller financer that meets all of the criteria identified in § 1026.36(a)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Certain consumers in bankruptcy</I>—(i) <I>Exemption.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(5)(ii) of this section, a servicer is exempt from the requirements of this section with regard to a mortgage loan if:
</P>
<P>(A) Any consumer on the mortgage loan is a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code or has discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 727, 1141, 1228, or 1328; and
</P>
<P>(B) With regard to any consumer on the mortgage loan:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The consumer requests in writing that the servicer cease providing a periodic statement or coupon book;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The consumer's bankruptcy plan provides that the consumer will surrender the dwelling securing the mortgage loan, provides for the avoidance of the lien securing the mortgage loan, or otherwise does not provide for, as applicable, the payment of pre-bankruptcy arrearage or the maintenance of payments due under the mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A court enters an order in the bankruptcy case providing for the avoidance of the lien securing the mortgage loan, lifting the automatic stay pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 362 with regard to the dwelling securing the mortgage loan, or requiring the servicer to cease providing a periodic statement or coupon book; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The consumer files with the court overseeing the bankruptcy case a statement of intention pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 521(a) identifying an intent to surrender the dwelling securing the mortgage loan and a consumer has not made any partial or periodic payment on the mortgage loan after the commencement of the consumer's bankruptcy case.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reaffirmation or consumer request to receive statement or coupon book.</I> A servicer ceases to qualify for an exemption pursuant to paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section with respect to a mortgage loan if the consumer reaffirms personal liability for the loan or any consumer on the loan requests in writing that the servicer provide a periodic statement or coupon book, unless a court enters an order in the bankruptcy case requiring the servicer to cease providing a periodic statement or coupon book.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusive address.</I> A servicer may establish an address that a consumer must use to submit a written request under paragraph (e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (e)(5)(ii) of this section, provided that the servicer notifies the consumer of the address in a manner that is reasonably designed to inform the consumer of the address. If a servicer designates a specific address for requests under paragraph (e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (e)(5)(ii) of this section, the servicer shall designate the same address for purposes of both paragraphs (e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (e)(5)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Timing of compliance following transition</I>—(A) <I>Triggering events for transitioning to modified and unmodified periodic statements.</I> A servicer transitions to providing a periodic statement or coupon book with the modifications set forth in paragraph (f) of this section or to providing a periodic statement or coupon book without such modifications when one of the following three events occurs:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A mortgage loan becomes subject to the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A mortgage loan ceases to be subject to the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A servicer ceases to qualify for an exemption pursuant to paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section with respect to a mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Single-statement exemption.</I> As of the date on which one of the events listed in paragraph (e)(5)(iv)(A) of this section occurs, a servicer is exempt from the requirements of this section with respect to the next periodic statement or coupon book that would otherwise be required but thereafter must provide modified or unmodified periodic statements or coupon books that comply with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Charged-off loans.</I> (i) A servicer is exempt from the requirements of this section for a mortgage loan if the servicer:
</P>
<P>(A) Has charged off the loan in accordance with loan-loss provisions and will not charge any additional fees or interest on the account; and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides, within 30 days of charge-off or the most recent periodic statement, a periodic statement, clearly and conspicuously labeled “Suspension of Statements &amp; Notice of Charge Off—Retain This Copy for Your Records.” The periodic statement must clearly and conspicuously explain that, as applicable, the mortgage loan has been charged off and the servicer will not charge any additional fees or interest on the account; the servicer will no longer provide the consumer a periodic statement for each billing cycle; the lien on the property remains in place and the consumer remains liable for the mortgage loan obligation and any obligations arising from or related to the property, which may include property taxes; the consumer may be required to pay the balance on the account in the future, for example, upon sale of the property; the balance on the account is not being canceled or forgiven; and the loan may be purchased, assigned, or transferred.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Resuming compliance.</I> (A) If a servicer fails at any time to treat a mortgage loan that is exempt under paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section as charged off or charges any additional fees or interest on the account, the obligation to provide a periodic statement pursuant to this section resumes.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Prohibition on retroactive fees.</I> A servicer may not retroactively assess fees or interest on the account for the period of time during which the exemption in paragraph (e)(6)(i) of this section applied.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>PACE transactions.</I> PACE transactions, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(15), are exempt from the requirements of this section.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Modified periodic statements and coupon books for certain consumers in bankruptcy.</I> While any consumer on a mortgage loan is a debtor in bankruptcy under title 11 of the United States Code, or if such consumer has discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 727, 1141, 1228, or 1328, the requirements of this section are subject to the following modifications with regard to that mortgage loan:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requirements not applicable.</I> The periodic statement may omit the information set forth in paragraphs (d)(1)(ii) and (d)(8)(i), (ii), and (v) of this section. The requirement in paragraph (d)(1)(iii) of this section that the amount due must be shown more prominently than other disclosures on the page shall not apply.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Bankruptcy notices.</I> The periodic statement must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement identifying the consumer's status as a debtor in bankruptcy or the discharged status of the mortgage loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that the periodic statement is for informational purposes only.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Chapter 12 and chapter 13 consumers.</I> In addition to any other provisions of this paragraph (f) that may apply, with regard to a mortgage loan for which any consumer with primary liability is a debtor in a chapter 12 or chapter 13 bankruptcy case, the requirements of this section are subject to the following modifications:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Requirements not applicable.</I> In addition to omitting the information set forth in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, the periodic statement may also omit the information set forth in paragraphs (d)(8)(iii), (iv), (vi), and (vii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Amount due.</I> The amount due information set forth in paragraph (d)(1) of this section may be limited to the date and amount of the post-petition payments due and any post-petition fees and charges imposed by the servicer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Explanation of amount due.</I> The explanation of amount due information set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section may be limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) The monthly post-petition payment amount, including a breakdown showing how much, if any, will be applied to principal, interest, and escrow;
</P>
<P>(B) The total sum of any post-petition fees or charges imposed since the last statement; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any post-petition payment amount past due.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Transaction activity.</I> The transaction activity information set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section must include all payments the servicer has received since the last statement, including all post-petition and pre-petition payments and payments of post-petition fees and charges, and all post-petition fees and charges the servicer has imposed since the last statement. The brief description of the activity need not identify the source of any payments.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Pre-petition arrearage.</I> If applicable, a servicer must disclose, grouped in close proximity to each other and located on the first page of the statement or, alternatively, on a separate page enclosed with the periodic statement or in a separate letter:
</P>
<P>(A) The total of all pre-petition payments received since the last statement;
</P>
<P>(B) The total of all pre-petition payments received since the beginning of the consumer's bankruptcy case; and
</P>
<P>(C) The current balance of the consumer's pre-petition arrearage.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Additional disclosures.</I> The periodic statement must include, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) A statement that the amount due includes only post-petition payments and does not include other payments that may be due under the terms of the consumer's bankruptcy plan;
</P>
<P>(B) If the consumer's bankruptcy plan requires the consumer to make the post-petition mortgage payments directly to a bankruptcy trustee, a statement that the consumer should send the payment to the trustee and not to the servicer;
</P>
<P>(C) A statement that the information disclosed on the periodic statement may not include payments the consumer has made to the trustee and may not be consistent with the trustee's records;
</P>
<P>(D) A statement that encourages the consumer to contact the consumer's attorney or the trustee with questions regarding the application of payments; and
</P>
<P>(E) If the consumer is more than 45 days delinquent on post-petition payments, a statement that the servicer has not received all the payments that became due since the consumer filed for bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple obligors.</I> If this paragraph (f) applies in connection with a mortgage loan with more than one primary obligor, the servicer may provide the modified statement to any or all of the primary obligors, even if a primary obligor to whom the servicer provides the modified statement is not a debtor in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Coupon books.</I> A servicer that provides a coupon book instead of a periodic statement under paragraph (e)(3) of this section must include in the coupon book the disclosures set forth in paragraphs (f)(2) and (f)(3)(vi) of this section, as applicable. The servicer may include these disclosures anywhere in the coupon book provided to the consumer or on a separate page enclosed with the coupon book. The servicer must make available upon request to the consumer by telephone, in writing, in person, or electronically, if the consumer consents, the information listed in paragraph (f)(3)(v) of this section, as applicable. The modifications set forth in paragraphs (f)(1) and (f)(3)(i) through (iv) and (vi) of this section apply to a coupon book and other information a servicer provides to the consumer under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Successor in interest.</I> If, upon confirmation, a servicer provides a confirmed successor in interest who is not liable on the mortgage loan obligation with a written notice and acknowledgment form in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1) of this chapter, the servicer is not required to provide to the confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by this section unless and until the confirmed successor in interest either assumes the mortgage loan obligation under State law or has provided the servicer an executed acknowledgment in accordance with Regulation X, § 1024.32(c)(1)(iv) of this chapter, that the confirmed successor in interest has not revoked.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 11007, Feb. 14, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 44718, July 24, 2013; 78 FR 63005, Oct. 23, 2013; 79 FR 65322, Nov. 3, 2014; 81 FR 72388, Oct. 19, 2016; 83 FR 10559, Mar. 12, 2018; 90 FR 2503, Jan. 10, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.42" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.42   Valuation independence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> Except for paragraph (i) of this section, this section applies to any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. Paragraph (i) of this section applies to any mortgage, as defined in paragraph (i)(2)(v) of this section, secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, even if the mortgage is primarily for business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational purposes.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) “Covered person” means a creditor with respect to a covered transaction or a person that provides “settlement services,” as defined in 12 U.S.C. 2602(3) and implementing regulations, in connection with a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) “Covered transaction” means an extension of consumer credit that is or will be secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(19).
</P>
<P>(3) “Valuation” means an estimate of the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in written or electronic form, other than one produced solely by an automated model or system.
</P>
<P>(4) “Valuation management functions” means:
</P>
<P>(i) Recruiting, selecting, or retaining a person to prepare a valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contracting with or employing a person to prepare a valuation;
</P>
<P>(iii) Managing or overseeing the process of preparing a valuation, including by providing administrative services such as receiving orders for and receiving a valuation, submitting a completed valuation to creditors and underwriters, collecting fees from creditors and underwriters for services provided in connection with a valuation, and compensating a person that prepares valuations; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Reviewing or verifying the work of a person that prepares valuations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Valuation of consumer's principal dwelling</I>—(1) <I>Coercion.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall or shall attempt to directly or indirectly cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on any factor other than the independent judgment of a person that prepares valuations, through coercion, extortion, inducement, bribery, or intimidation of, compensation or instruction to, or collusion with a person that prepares valuations or performs valuation management functions.
</P>
<P>(i) Examples of actions that violate paragraph (c)(1) include:
</P>
<P>(A) Seeking to influence a person that prepares a valuation to report a minimum or maximum value for the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(B) Withholding or threatening to withhold timely payment to a person that prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions because the person does not value the consumer's principal dwelling at or above a certain amount;
</P>
<P>(C) Implying to a person that prepares valuations that current or future retention of the person depends on the amount at which the person estimates the value of the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(D) Excluding a person that prepares a valuation from consideration for future engagement because the person reports a value for the consumer's principal dwelling that does not meet or exceed a predetermined threshold; and
</P>
<P>(E) Conditioning the compensation paid to a person that prepares a valuation on consummation of the covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mischaracterization of value</I>—(i) <I>Misrepresentation.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no person that prepares valuations shall materially misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation. A misrepresentation is material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(i) if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling. A <I>bona fide</I> error shall not be a misrepresentation.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Falsification or alteration.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall falsify and no covered person other than a person that prepares valuations shall materially alter a valuation. An alteration is material for purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(ii) if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Inducement of mischaracterization.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, no covered person shall induce a person to violate paragraph (c)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Permitted actions.</I> Examples of actions that do not violate paragraph (c)(1) or (c)(2) include:
</P>
<P>(i) Asking a person that prepares a valuation to consider additional, appropriate property information, including information about comparable properties, to make or support a valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesting that a person that prepares a valuation provide further detail, substantiation, or explanation for the person's conclusion about the value of the consumer's principal dwelling;
</P>
<P>(iii) Asking a person that prepares a valuation to correct errors in the valuation;
</P>
<P>(iv) Obtaining multiple valuations for the consumer's principal dwelling to select the most reliable valuation;
</P>
<P>(v) Withholding compensation due to breach of contract or substandard performance of services; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Taking action permitted or required by applicable Federal or state statute, regulation, or agency guidance.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition on conflicts of interest</I>—(1)(i) <I>In general.</I> No person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions for a covered transaction may have a direct or indirect interest, financial or otherwise, in the property or transaction for which the valuation is or will be performed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors; providers of multiple settlement services.</I> In any covered transaction, no person violates paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based solely on the fact that the person:
</P>
<P>(A) Is an employee or affiliate of the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provides a settlement service in addition to preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions, or based solely on the fact that the person's affiliate performs another settlement service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years.</I> For any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million as of December 31st for both of the past two calendar years, a person subject to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section who is employed by or affiliated with the creditor does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based on the person's employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(i) The compensation of the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions is not based on the value arrived at in any valuation;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions reports to a person who is not part of the creditor's loan production function, as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, and whose compensation is not based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates; and
</P>
<P>(iii) No employee, officer or director in the creditor's loan production function, as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) of this section, is directly or indirectly involved in selecting, retaining, recommending or influencing the selection of the person to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions, or to be included in or excluded from a list of approved persons who prepare valuations or perform valuation management functions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors with assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years.</I> For any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less as of December 31st for either of the past two calendar years, a person subject to paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section who is employed by or affiliated with the creditor does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section based on the person's employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(i) The compensation of the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions is not based on the value arrived at in any valuation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor requires that any employee, officer or director of the creditor who orders, performs, or reviews a valuation for a covered transaction abstain from participating in any decision to approve, not approve, or set the terms of that transaction.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Providers of multiple settlement services.</I> For any covered transaction, a person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, does not have a conflict of interest in violation of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service for the transaction if:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor had assets of more than $250 million as of December 31st for both of the past two calendar years and the conditions in paragraph (d)(2)(i)-(iii) are met; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor had assets of $250 million or less as of December 31st for either of the past two calendar years and the conditions in paragraph (d)(3)(i)-(ii) are met.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Loan production function.</I> The term “loan production function” means an employee, officer, director, department, division, or other unit of a creditor with responsibility for generating covered transactions, approving covered transactions, or both.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Settlement service.</I> The term “settlement service” has the same meaning as in the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, 12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Affiliate.</I> The term “affiliate” has the same meaning as in Regulation Y of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, 12 CFR 225.2(a).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When extension of credit prohibited.</I> In connection with a covered transaction, a creditor that knows, at or before consummation, of a violation of paragraph (c) or (d) of this section in connection with a valuation shall not extend credit based on the valuation, unless the creditor documents that it has acted with reasonable diligence to determine that the valuation does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling. For purposes of this paragraph (e), a valuation materially misstates or misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling if the valuation contains a misstatement or misrepresentation that affects the credit decision or the terms on which credit is extended.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Customary and reasonable compensation</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to provide customary and reasonable compensation to fee appraisers.</I> In any covered transaction, the creditor and its agents shall compensate a fee appraiser for performing appraisal services at a rate that is customary and reasonable for comparable appraisal services performed in the geographic market of the property being appraised. For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, “agents” of the creditor do not include any fee appraiser as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presumption of compliance.</I> A creditor and its agents shall be presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor or its agents compensate the fee appraiser in an amount that is reasonably related to recent rates paid for comparable appraisal services performed in the geographic market of the property being appraised. In determining this amount, a creditor or its agents shall review the factors below and make any adjustments to recent rates paid in the relevant geographic market necessary to ensure that the amount of compensation is reasonable:
</P>
<P>(A) The type of property,
</P>
<P>(B) The scope of work,
</P>
<P>(C) The time in which the appraisal services are required to be performed,
</P>
<P>(D) Fee appraiser qualifications,
</P>
<P>(E) Fee appraiser experience and professional record, and
</P>
<P>(F) Fee appraiser work quality; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor and its agents do not engage in any anticompetitive acts in violation of state or Federal law that affect the compensation paid to fee appraisers, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Entering into any contracts or engaging in any conspiracies to restrain trade through methods such as price fixing or market allocation, as prohibited under section 1 of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 1, or any other relevant antitrust laws; or
</P>
<P>(B) Engaging in any acts of monopolization such as restricting any person from entering the relevant geographic market or causing any person to leave the relevant geographic market, as prohibited under section 2 of the Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. 2, or any other relevant antitrust laws.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative presumption of compliance.</I> A creditor and its agents shall be presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) of this section if the creditor or its agents determine the amount of compensation paid to the fee appraiser by relying on information about rates that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is based on objective third-party information, including fee schedules, studies, and surveys prepared by independent third parties such as government agencies, academic institutions, and private research firms;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is based on recent rates paid to a representative sample of providers of appraisal services in the geographic market of the property being appraised or the fee schedules of those providers; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of information based on fee schedules, studies, and surveys, such fee schedules, studies, or surveys, or the information derived therefrom, excludes compensation paid to fee appraisers for appraisals ordered by appraisal management companies, as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (f), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fee appraiser.</I> The term “fee appraiser” means:
</P>
<P>(A) A natural person who is a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser and receives a fee for performing an appraisal, but who is not an employee of the person engaging the appraiser; or
</P>
<P>(B) An organization that, in the ordinary course of business, employs state-licensed or state-certified appraisers to perform appraisals, receives a fee for performing appraisals, and is not subject to the requirements of section 1124 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. 3353).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Appraisal services.</I> The term “appraisal services” means the services required to perform an appraisal, including defining the scope of work, inspecting the property, reviewing necessary and appropriate public and private data sources (for example, multiple listing services, tax assessment records and public land records), developing and rendering an opinion of value, and preparing and submitting the appraisal report.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Appraisal management company.</I> The term “appraisal management company” means any person authorized to perform one or more of the following actions on behalf of the creditor:
</P>
<P>(A) Recruit, select, and retain fee appraisers;(B) Contract with fee appraisers to perform appraisal services;
</P>
<P>(C) Manage the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and underwriters, collecting fees from creditors and underwriters for services provided, and compensating fee appraisers for services performed; or
</P>
<P>(D) Review and verify the work of fee appraisers.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Mandatory reporting</I>—(1) <I>Reporting required.</I> Any covered person that reasonably believes an appraiser has not complied with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice or ethical or professional requirements for appraisers under applicable state or Federal statutes or regulations shall refer the matter to the appropriate state agency if the failure to comply is material. For purposes of this paragraph (g)(1), a failure to comply is material if it is likely to significantly affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of reporting.</I> A covered person shall notify the appropriate state agency within a reasonable period of time after the person determines that there is a reasonable basis to believe that a failure to comply required to be reported under paragraph (g)(1) of this section has occurred.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (g), “state agency” means “state appraiser certifying and licensing agency” under 12 U.S.C. 3350(1) and any implementing regulations. The appropriate state agency to which a covered person must refer a matter under paragraph (g)(1) of this section is the agency for the state in which the consumer's principal dwelling is located.
</P>
<P>(h) The Bureau issued a joint rule to implement the appraisal management company minimum requirements in the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act, as amended by section 1473 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act. <I>See</I> 12 CFR part 34.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models</I>—(1) <I>Scope.</I> The purpose of this paragraph (i) is to implement quality control standards for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This paragraph (i) applies to the use of automated valuation models by any mortgage originator or secondary market issuer, other than either a financial institution as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(7), or a subsidiary owned and controlled by such a financial institution and regulated by one of the Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(6). This paragraph (i) does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser as defined in § 1026.35(c)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> As used in this paragraph (i):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(B) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(B) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (A) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(C) Does not include any person who is not otherwise described in paragraph (A) or (B) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph;
</P>
<P>(D) Does not include a retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (A) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Discloses to the consumer in writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor and, if the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least 1 unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(E) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(F) Does not include a person that meets the criteria for seller financers provided in § 1026.36(a)(4) and (5); and
</P>
<P>(G) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quality control standards.</I> Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(ii) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(iii) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(iv) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(v) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.








</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 32687, June 9, 2015; 89 FR 64577, Aug. 7, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.43" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.43   Minimum standards for transactions secured by a dwelling.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to any consumer credit transaction that is secured by a dwelling, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(19), including any real property attached to a dwelling, other than:
</P>
<P>(1) A home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40;
</P>
<P>(2) A mortgage transaction secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan, as defined in 11 U.S.C. 101(53(D)); or
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A reverse mortgage subject to § 1026.33;
</P>
<P>(ii) A temporary or “bridge” loan with a term of 12 months or less, such as a loan to finance the purchase of a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within 12 months or a loan to finance the initial construction of a dwelling;
</P>
<P>(iii) A construction phase of 12 months or less of a construction-to-permanent loan;
</P>
<P>(iv) An extension of credit made pursuant to a program administered by a Housing Finance Agency, as defined under 24 CFR 266.5;
</P>
<P>(v) An extension of credit made by:
</P>
<P>(A) A creditor designated as a Community Development Financial Institution, as defined under 12 CFR 1805.104(h);
</P>
<P>(B) A creditor designated as a Downpayment Assistance through Secondary Financing Provider, pursuant to 24 CFR 200.194(a), operating in accordance with regulations prescribed by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development applicable to such persons;
</P>
<P>(C) A creditor designated as a Community Housing Development Organization provided that the creditor has entered into a commitment with a participating jurisdiction and is undertaking a project under the HOME program, pursuant to the provisions of 24 CFR 92.300(a), and as the terms community housing development organization, commitment, participating jurisdiction, and project are defined under 24 CFR 92.2; or
</P>
<P>(D) A creditor with a tax exemption ruling or determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3); 26 CFR 1.501(c)(3)-1), provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) During the calendar year preceding receipt of the consumer's application, the creditor extended credit secured by a dwelling no more than 200 times, except as provided in paragraph (a)(3)(vii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) During the calendar year preceding receipt of the consumer's application, the creditor extended credit secured by a dwelling only to consumers with income that did not exceed the low- and moderate-income household limit as established pursuant to section 102 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 (42 U.S.C. 5302(a)(20)) and amended from time to time by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, pursuant to 24 CFR 570.3;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The extension of credit is to a consumer with income that does not exceed the household limit specified in paragraph (a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The creditor determines, in accordance with written procedures, that the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay the extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(vi) An extension of credit made pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008 (12 U.S.C. 5211; 5219);
</P>
<P>(vii) Consumer credit transactions that meet the following criteria are not considered in determining whether a creditor exceeds the credit extension limitation in paragraph (a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is secured by a subordinate lien;
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is for the purpose of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Downpayment, closing costs, or other similar home buyer assistance, such as principal or interest subsidies;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Property rehabilitation assistance;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Energy efficiency assistance; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Foreclosure avoidance or prevention;
</P>
<P>(C) The credit contract does not require payment of interest;
</P>
<P>(D) The credit contract provides that repayment of the amount of the credit extended is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Forgiven either incrementally or in whole, at a date certain, and subject only to specified ownership and occupancy conditions, such as a requirement that the consumer maintain the property as the consumer's principal dwelling for five years;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Deferred for a minimum of 20 years after consummation of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Deferred until sale of the property securing the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Deferred until the property securing the transaction is no longer the principal dwelling of the consumer;
</P>
<P>(E) The total of costs payable by the consumer in connection with the transaction at consummation is less than 1 percent of the amount of credit extended and includes no charges other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Fees for recordation of security instruments, deeds, and similar documents;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A bona fide and reasonable application fee; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A bona fide and reasonable fee for housing counseling services; and
</P>
<P>(F) The creditor complies with all other applicable requirements of this part in connection with the transaction.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered transaction</I> means a consumer credit transaction that is secured by a dwelling, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(19), including any real property attached to a dwelling, other than a transaction exempt from coverage under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fully amortizing payment</I> means a periodic payment of principal and interest that will fully repay the loan amount over the loan term.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fully indexed rate</I> means the interest rate calculated using the index or formula that will apply after recast, as determined at the time of consummation, and the maximum margin that can apply at any time during the loan term.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Higher-priced covered transaction</I> means a covered transaction with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by 1.5 or more percentage points for a first-lien covered transaction, other than a qualified mortgage under paragraph (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section; by 3.5 or more percentage points for a first-lien covered transaction that is a qualified mortgage under paragraph (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section; or by 3.5 or more percentage points for a subordinate-lien covered transaction. For purposes of a qualified mortgage under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, for a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, the creditor must determine the annual percentage rate for purposes of this paragraph (b)(4) by treating the maximum interest rate that may apply during that five-year period as the interest rate for the full term of the loan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Loan amount</I> means the principal amount the consumer will borrow as reflected in the promissory note or loan contract.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Loan term</I> means the period of time to repay the obligation in full.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Maximum loan amount</I> means the loan amount plus any increase in principal balance that results from negative amortization, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v), based on the terms of the legal obligation assuming:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer makes only the minimum periodic payments for the maximum possible time, until the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The maximum interest rate is reached at the earliest possible time.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Mortgage-related obligations</I> mean property taxes; premiums and similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), and (10) that are required by the creditor; fees and special assessments imposed by a condominium, cooperative, or homeowners association; ground rent; and leasehold payments.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Points and fees</I> has the same meaning as in § 1026.32(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Prepayment penalty</I> has the same meaning as in § 1026.32(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Recast</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) For an adjustable-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(i), the expiration of the period during which payments based on the introductory fixed interest rate are permitted under the terms of the legal obligation;
</P>
<P>(ii) For an interest-only loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iv), the expiration of the period during which interest-only payments are permitted under the terms of the legal obligation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For a negative amortization loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v), the expiration of the period during which negatively amortizing payments are permitted under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Simultaneous loan</I> means another covered transaction or home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40 that will be secured by the same dwelling and made to the same consumer at or before consummation of the covered transaction or, if to be made after consummation, will cover closing costs of the first covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Third-party record</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A document or other record prepared or reviewed by an appropriate person other than the consumer, the creditor, or the mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), or an agent of the creditor or mortgage broker;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of a tax return filed with the Internal Revenue Service or a State taxing authority;
</P>
<P>(iii) A record the creditor maintains for an account of the consumer held by the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(iv) If the consumer is an employee of the creditor or the mortgage broker, a document or other record maintained by the creditor or mortgage broker regarding the consumer's employment status or employment income.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>PACE company</I> means a person, other than a natural person or a government unit, that administers the program through which a consumer applies for or obtains a PACE transaction.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>PACE transaction</I> means financing to cover the costs of home improvements that results in a tax assessment on the real property of the consumer.








</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repayment ability</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A creditor shall not make a loan that is a covered transaction unless the creditor makes a reasonable and good faith determination at or before consummation that the consumer will have a reasonable ability to repay the loan according to its terms.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis for determination.</I> Except as provided otherwise in paragraphs (d), (e), and (f) of this section, in making the repayment ability determination required under paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a creditor must consider the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets, other than the value of the dwelling, including any real property attached to the dwelling, that secures the loan;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the creditor relies on income from the consumer's employment in determining repayment ability, the consumer's current employment status;
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer's monthly payment on the covered transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer's monthly payment on any simultaneous loan that the creditor knows or has reason to know will be made, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(6) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) The consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations;
</P>
<P>(vi) The consumer's current debt obligations, alimony, and child support;
</P>
<P>(vii) The consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income in accordance with paragraph (c)(7) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The consumer's credit history.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Verification using third-party records.</I> A creditor must verify the information that the creditor relies on in determining a consumer's repayment ability under § 1026.43(c)(2) using reasonably reliable third-party records, except that:
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, a creditor must verify a consumer's income or assets that the creditor relies on in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(4);
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(ii) of this section, a creditor may verify a consumer's employment status orally if the creditor prepares a record of the information obtained orally; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section, if a creditor relies on a consumer's credit report to verify a consumer's current debt obligations and a consumer's application states a current debt obligation not shown in the consumer's credit report, the creditor need not independently verify such an obligation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Verification of income or assets.</I> A creditor must verify the amounts of income or assets that the creditor relies on under § 1026.43(c)(2)(i) to determine a consumer's ability to repay a covered transaction using third-party records that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets. A creditor may verify the consumer's income using a tax-return transcript issued by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS). Examples of other records the creditor may use to verify the consumer's income or assets include:
</P>
<P>(i) Copies of tax returns the consumer filed with the IRS or a State taxing authority;
</P>
<P>(ii) IRS Form W-2s or similar IRS forms used for reporting wages or tax withholding;
</P>
<P>(iii) Payroll statements, including military Leave and Earnings Statements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Financial institution records;
</P>
<P>(v) Records from the consumer's employer or a third party that obtained information from the employer;
</P>
<P>(vi) Records from a Federal, State, or local government agency stating the consumer's income from benefits or entitlements;
</P>
<P>(vii) Receipts from the consumer's use of check cashing services; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Receipts from the consumer's use of a funds transfer service.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment calculation</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(5)(ii) of this section, a creditor must make the consideration required under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section using:
</P>
<P>(A) The fully indexed rate or any introductory interest rate, whichever is greater; and
</P>
<P>(B) Monthly, fully amortizing payments that are substantially equal.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Special rules for loans with a balloon payment, interest-only loans, and negative amortization loans.</I> A creditor must make the consideration required under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section for:
</P>
<P>(A) A loan with a balloon payment, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(5)(i), using:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The maximum payment scheduled during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due for a loan that is not a higher-priced covered transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The maximum payment in the payment schedule, including any balloon payment, for a higher-priced covered transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) An interest-only loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iv), using:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fully indexed rate or any introductory interest rate, whichever is greater; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest that will repay the loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast.
</P>
<P>(C) A negative amortization loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v), using:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The fully indexed rate or any introductory interest rate, whichever is greater; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest that will repay the maximum loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Payment calculation for simultaneous loans.</I> For purposes of making the evaluation required under paragraph (c)(2)(iv) of this section, a creditor must consider, taking into account any mortgage-related obligations, a consumer's payment on a simultaneous loan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A covered transaction, by following paragraph (c)(5)of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40, by using the periodic payment required under the terms of the plan and the amount of credit to be drawn at or before consummation of the covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income</I>—(i) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c)(7), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Total monthly debt obligations.</I> The term <I>total monthly debt obligations</I> means the sum of: the payment on the covered transaction, as required to be calculated by paragraphs (c)(2)(iii) and (c)(5) of this section; simultaneous loans, as required by paragraphs (c)(2)(iv) and (c)(6) of this section; mortgage-related obligations, as required by paragraph (c)(2)(v) of this section; and current debt obligations, alimony, and child support, as required by paragraph (c)(2)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Total monthly income.</I> The term <I>total monthly income</I> means the sum of the consumer's current or reasonably expected income, including any income from assets, as required by paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculations</I>—(A) <I>Monthly debt-to-income ratio.</I> If a creditor considers the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio under paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section, the creditor must consider the ratio of the consumer's total monthly debt obligations to the consumer's total monthly income.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Monthly residual income.</I> If a creditor considers the consumer's monthly residual income under paragraph (c)(2)(vii) of this section, the creditor must consider the consumer's remaining income after subtracting the consumer's total monthly debt obligations from the consumer's total monthly income.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Refinancing of non-standard mortgages</I>—(1) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-standard mortgage.</I> The term <I>non-standard mortgage</I> means a covered transaction that is:
</P>
<P>(A) An adjustable-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(i), with an introductory fixed interest rate for a period of one year or longer;
</P>
<P>(B) An interest-only loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iv); or
</P>
<P>(C) A negative amortization loan, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard mortgage.</I> The term <I>standard mortgage</I> means a covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) That provides for regular periodic payments that do not:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Cause the principal balance to increase;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Result in a balloon payment, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(5)(i);
</P>
<P>(B) For which the total points and fees payable in connection with the transaction do not exceed the amounts specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) For which the term does not exceed 40 years;
</P>
<P>(D) For which the interest rate is fixed for at least the first five years after consummation; and
</P>
<P>(E) For which the proceeds from the loan are used solely for the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) To pay off the outstanding principal balance on the non-standard mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) To pay closing or settlement charges required to be disclosed under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, 12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Refinancing.</I> The term <I>refinancing</I> has the same meaning as in § 1026.20(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope.</I> The provisions of this paragraph (d) apply to the refinancing of a non-standard mortgage into a standard mortgage when the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The creditor for the standard mortgage is the current holder of the existing non-standard mortgage or the servicer acting on behalf of the current holder;
</P>
<P>(ii) The monthly payment for the standard mortgage is materially lower than the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage, as calculated under paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) The creditor receives the consumer's written application for the standard mortgage no later than two months after the non-standard mortgage has recast.
</P>
<P>(iv) The consumer has made no more than one payment more than 30 days late on the non-standard mortgage during the 12 months immediately preceding the creditor's receipt of the consumer's written application for the standard mortgage.
</P>
<P>(v) The consumer has made no payments more than 30 days late during the six months immediately preceding the creditor's receipt of the consumer's written application for the standard mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(vi) If the non-standard mortgage was consummated on or after January 10, 2014, the non-standard mortgage was made in accordance with paragraph (c) or (e) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exemption from repayment ability requirements.</I> A creditor is not required to comply with the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(i) The conditions in paragraph (d)(2) of this section are met; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor has considered whether the standard mortgage likely will prevent a default by the consumer on the non-standard mortgage once the loan is recast.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Offer of rate discounts and other favorable terms.</I> A creditor making a covered transaction under this paragraph (d) may offer to the consumer rate discounts and terms that are the same as, or better than, the rate discounts and terms that the creditor offers to new consumers, consistent with the creditor's documented underwriting practices and to the extent not prohibited by applicable State or Federal law.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Payment calculations.</I> For purposes of determining whether the consumer's monthly payment for a standard mortgage will be materially lower than the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage, the following provisions shall be used:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Non-standard mortgage.</I> For purposes of the comparison conducted pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the creditor must calculate the monthly payment for a non-standard mortgage based on substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payments of principal and interest using:
</P>
<P>(A) The fully indexed rate as of a reasonable period of time before or after the date on which the creditor receives the consumer's written application for the standard mortgage;
</P>
<P>(B) The term of the loan remaining as of the date on which the recast occurs, assuming all scheduled payments have been made up to the recast date and the payment due on the recast date is made and credited as of that date; and
</P>
<P>(C) A remaining loan amount that is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For an adjustable-rate mortgage under paragraph (d)(1)(i)(A) of this section, the outstanding principal balance as of the date of the recast, assuming all scheduled payments have been made up to the recast date and the payment due on the recast date is made and credited as of that date;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For an interest-only loan under paragraph (d)(1)(i)(B) of this section, the outstanding principal balance as of the date of the recast, assuming all scheduled payments have been made up to the recast date and the payment due on the recast date is made and credited as of that date; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For a negative amortization loan under paragraph (d)(1)(i)(C) of this section, the maximum loan amount, determined after adjusting for the outstanding principal balance.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard mortgage.</I> For purposes of the comparison conducted pursuant to paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, the monthly payment for a standard mortgage must be based on substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payments based on the maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after consummation.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualified mortgages</I>—(1) <I>Safe harbor and presumption of compliance</I>—(i) <I>Safe harbor for loans that are not higher-priced covered transactions and for seasoned loans.</I> A creditor or assignee of a qualified mortgage complies with the repayment ability requirements of paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan is a qualified mortgage as defined in paragraph (e)(2), (4), (5), (6), or (f) of this section that is not a higher-priced covered transaction, as defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) The loan is a qualified mortgage as defined in paragraph (e)(7) of this section, regardless of whether the loan is a higher-priced covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Presumption of compliance for higher-priced covered transactions.</I> (A) A creditor or assignee of a qualified mortgage, as defined in paragraph (e)(2), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section, that is a higher-priced covered transaction, as defined in paragraph (b)(4) of this section, is presumed to comply with the repayment ability requirements of paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) To rebut the presumption of compliance described in paragraph (e)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, it must be proven that, despite meeting the prerequisites of paragraph (e)(2), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section, the creditor did not make a reasonable and good faith determination of the consumer's repayment ability at the time of consummation, by showing that the consumer's income, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and the consumer's monthly payment (including mortgage-related obligations) on the covered transaction and on any simultaneous loans of which the creditor was aware at consummation would leave the consumer with insufficient residual income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan with which to meet living expenses, including any recurring and material non-debt obligations of which the creditor was aware at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualified mortgage defined—general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(4), (5), (6), (7), or (f) of this section, a qualified mortgage is a covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) That provides for regular periodic payments that are substantially equal, except for the effect that any interest rate change after consummation has on the payment in the case of an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage, that do not:
</P>
<P>(A) Result in an increase of the principal balance;
</P>
<P>(B) Allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal, except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(C) Result in a balloon payment, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(5)(i), except as provided in paragraph (f) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) For which the loan term does not exceed 30 years;
</P>
<P>(iii) For which the total points and fees payable in connection with the loan do not exceed the amounts specified in paragraph (e)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) For which the creditor underwrites the loan, taking into account the monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations, using:
</P>
<P>(A) The maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due; and
</P>
<P>(B) Periodic payments of principal and interest that will repay either:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The outstanding principal balance over the remaining term of the loan as of the date the interest rate adjusts to the maximum interest rate set forth in paragraph (e)(2)(iv)(A) of this section, assuming the consumer will have made all required payments as due prior to that date; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The loan amount over the loan term;
</P>
<P>(v) For which the creditor, at or before consummation:
</P>
<P>(A) Considers the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income, using the amounts determined from paragraph (e)(2)(v)(B) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(v)(A), the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income is determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(7) of this section, except that the consumer's monthly payment on the covered transaction, including the monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations, is calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) Verifies the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan using third-party records that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets, in accordance with paragraph (c)(4) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Verifies the consumer's current debt obligations, alimony, and child support using reasonably reliable third-party records in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(vi) For which the annual percentage rate does not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the amounts specified in paragraphs (e)(2)(vi)(A) through (F) of this section. The amounts specified here shall be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) that was reported on the preceding June 1. For purposes of this paragraph (e)(2)(vi), the creditor must determine the annual percentage rate for a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due by treating the maximum interest rate that may apply during that five-year period as the interest rate for the full term of the loan. See the official commentary to this paragraph (e)(2)(vi) for the current dollar amounts.
</P>
<P>(A) For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $110,260 (indexed for inflation), 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>(B) For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $66,156 (indexed for inflation) but less than $110,260 (indexed for inflation), 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>(C) For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $66,156 (indexed for inflation), 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>(D) For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $110,260 (indexed for inflation), 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>(E) For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $66,156 (indexed for inflation), 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>(F) For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $66,156 (indexed for inflation), 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limits on points and fees for qualified mortgages.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees, as defined in § 1026.32(b)(1), do not exceed:
</P>
<P>(A) For a loan amount greater than or equal to $100,000 (indexed for inflation): 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>(B) For a loan amount greater than or equal to $60,000 (indexed for inflation) but less than $100,000 (indexed for inflation): $3,000 (indexed for inflation);
</P>
<P>(C) For a loan amount greater than or equal to $20,000 (indexed for inflation) but less than $60,000 (indexed for inflation): 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>(D) For a loan amount greater than or equal to $12,500 (indexed for inflation) but less than $20,000 (indexed for inflation): $1,000 (indexed for inflation);
</P>
<P>(E) For a loan amount less than $12,500 (indexed for inflation): 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) The dollar amounts, including the loan amounts, in paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section shall be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) that was reported on the preceding June 1. See the official commentary to this paragraph (e)(3)(ii) for the current dollar amounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) For covered transactions consummated on or before January 10, 2021, if the creditor or assignee determines after consummation that the transaction's total points and fees exceed the applicable limit under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section, the loan is not precluded from being a qualified mortgage, provided:
</P>
<P>(A) The loan otherwise meets the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(B) The creditor or assignee pays to the consumer the amount described in paragraph (e)(3)(iv) of this section within 210 days after consummation and prior to the occurrence of any of the following events:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The institution of any action by the consumer in connection with the loan;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The receipt by the creditor, assignee, or servicer of written notice from the consumer that the transaction's total points and fees exceed the applicable limit under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The consumer becoming 60 days past due on the legal obligation; and
</P>
<P>(C) The creditor or assignee, as applicable, maintains and follows policies and procedures for post-consummation review of points and fees and for making payments to consumers in accordance with paragraphs (e)(3)(iii)(B) and (e)(3)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) For purposes of paragraph (e)(3)(iii) of this section, the creditor or assignee must pay to the consumer an amount that is not less than the sum of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The dollar amount by which the transaction's total points and fees exceeds the applicable limit under paragraph (e)(3)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Interest on the dollar amount described in paragraph (e)(3)(iv)(A) of this section, calculated using the contract interest rate applicable during the period from consummation until the payment described in this paragraph (e)(3)(iv) is made to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified mortgage defined</I>—<I>other agencies.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a qualified mortgage is a covered transaction that is defined as a qualified mortgage by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development under 24 CFR 201.7 and 24 CFR 203.19, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs under 38 CFR 36.4300 and 38 CFR 36.4500, or the U.S. Department of Agriculture under 7 CFR 3555.109.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Qualified mortgage defined—small creditor portfolio loans.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a qualified mortgage is a covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) That satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(2) of this section other than the requirements of paragraphs (e)(2)(v) and (vi) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) For which the creditor:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Considers and verifies at or before consummation the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan, in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Considers and verifies at or before consummation the consumer's current debt obligations, alimony, and child support in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2)(vi) and (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Considers at or before consummation the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income and verifies the debt obligations and income used to determine that ratio in accordance with paragraph (c)(7) of this section, except that the calculation of the payment on the covered transaction for purposes of determining the consumer's total monthly debt obligations in paragraph (c)(7)(i)(A) shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (e)(2)(iv) of this section instead of paragraph (c)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) That is not subject, at consummation, to a commitment to be acquired by another person, other than a person that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(5)(i)(D) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(D) For which the creditor satisfies the requirements stated in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) and (C).
</P>
<P>(ii) A qualified mortgage extended pursuant to paragraph (e)(5)(i) of this section immediately loses its status as a qualified mortgage under paragraph (e)(5)(i) if legal title to the qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person except when:
</P>
<P>(A) The qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person three years or more after consummation of the qualified mortgage;
</P>
<P>(B) The qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to a creditor that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(5)(i)(D) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) The qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person pursuant to a capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o, actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver, or bankruptcy trustee, an order of a State or Federal government agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law, or an agreement between the creditor and such an agency; or
</P>
<P>(D) The qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred pursuant to a merger of the creditor with another person or acquisition of the creditor by another person or of another person by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Qualified mortgage defined—temporary balloon-payment qualified mortgage rules.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a qualified mortgage is a covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) That satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section other than the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(vi); and
</P>
<P>(B) For which the creditor satisfies the requirements stated in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) and (C).
</P>
<P>(ii) The provisions of this paragraph (e)(6) apply only to covered transactions for which the application was received before April 1, 2016.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Qualified mortgage defined—seasoned loans</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and except as provided in paragraph (e)(7)(iv) of this section, a qualified mortgage is a first-lien covered transaction that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a fixed-rate mortgage as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii) with fully amortizing payments as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Satisfies the requirements in paragraphs (e)(2)(i) through (v) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Has met the requirements in paragraph (e)(7)(ii) of this section at the end of the seasoning period as defined in paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(C) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) Satisfies the requirements in paragraph (e)(7)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) Is not a high-cost mortgage as defined in § 1026.32(a).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Performance requirements.</I> To be a qualified mortgage under this paragraph (e)(7) of this section, the covered transaction must have no more than two delinquencies of 30 or more days and no delinquencies of 60 or more days at the end of the seasoning period.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Portfolio requirements.</I> To be a qualified mortgage under this paragraph (e)(7) of this section, the covered transaction must satisfy the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The covered transaction is not subject, at consummation, to a commitment to be acquired by another person, except for a sale, assignment, or transfer permitted by paragraph (e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>3</I>) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Legal title to the covered transaction is not sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person before the end of the seasoning period, except that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The covered transaction may be sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person pursuant to a capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o, actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver, or bankruptcy trustee, an order of a State or Federal government agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law, or an agreement between the creditor and such an agency;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The covered transaction may be sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred pursuant to a merger of the creditor with another person or acquisition of the creditor by another person or of another person by the creditor; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The covered transaction may be sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred once before the end of the seasoning period, provided that the covered transaction is not securitized as part of the sale, assignment, or transfer or at any other time before the end of the seasoning period as defined in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(C).
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (e)(7) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Delinquency</I> means the failure to make a periodic payment (in one full payment or in two or more partial payments) sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle by the date the periodic payment is due under the terms of the legal obligation. Other amounts, such as any late fees, are not considered for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A periodic payment is 30 days delinquent when it is not paid before the due date of the following scheduled periodic payment.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A periodic payment is 60 days delinquent if the consumer is more than 30 days delinquent on the first of two sequential scheduled periodic payments and does not make both sequential scheduled periodic payments before the due date of the next scheduled periodic payment after the two sequential scheduled periodic payments.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) For any given billing cycle for which a consumer's payment is less than the periodic payment due, a consumer is not delinquent as defined in this paragraph (e)(7) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The servicer chooses not to treat the payment as delinquent for purposes of any section of subpart C of Regulation X, 12 CFR part 1024, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The payment is deficient by $50 or less; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) There are no more than three such deficient payments treated as not delinquent during the seasoning period.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The principal and interest used in determining the date a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle becomes due and unpaid are the principal and interest payment amounts established by the terms and payment schedule of the loan obligation at consummation, except:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If a qualifying change as defined in paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(B) of this section is made to the loan obligation, the principal and interest used in determining the date a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle becomes due and unpaid are the principal and interest payment amounts established by the terms and payment schedule of the loan obligation at consummation as modified by the qualifying change.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If, due to reasons related to the timing of delivery, set up, or availability for occupancy of the dwelling securing the obligation, the first payment due date is modified before the first payment due date in the legal obligation at consummation, the modified first payment due date shall be considered in lieu of the first payment due date in the legal obligation at consummation in determining the date a periodic payment sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle becomes due and unpaid.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Except for purposes of making up the deficiency amount set forth in paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(A)(<I>3</I>)(<I>ii</I>) of this section, payments from the following sources are not considered in assessing delinquency under paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(A) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Funds in escrow in connection with the covered transaction; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Funds paid on behalf of the consumer by the creditor, servicer, or assignee of the covered transaction, or any other person acting on behalf of such creditor, servicer, or assignee.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Qualifying change</I> means an agreement that meets the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The agreement is entered into during or after a temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency as defined in paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(D) of this section and ends any pre-existing delinquency on the loan obligation upon taking effect;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The amount of interest charged over the full term of the loan does not increase as a result of the agreement;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The servicer does not charge any fee in connection with the agreement; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Promptly upon the consumer's acceptance of the agreement, the servicer waives all late charges, penalties, stop payment fees, or similar charges incurred during a temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency, as well as all late charges, penalties, stop payment fees, or similar charges incurred during the delinquency that led to a temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Seasoning period</I> means a period of 36 months beginning on the date on which the first periodic payment is due after consummation of the covered transaction, except that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, if there is a delinquency of 30 days or more at the end of the 36th month of the seasoning period, the seasoning period does not end until there is no delinquency; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The seasoning period does not include any period during which the consumer is in a temporary payment accommodation extended in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency, provided that during or at the end of the temporary payment accommodation there is a qualifying change as defined in paragraph (e)(7)(iv)(B) of this section or the consumer cures the loan's delinquency under its original terms. If during or at the end of the temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency there is a qualifying change or the consumer cures the loan's delinquency under its original terms, the seasoning period consists of the period from the date on which the first periodic payment was due after consummation of the covered transaction to the beginning of the temporary payment accommodation and an additional period immediately after the temporary payment accommodation ends, which together must equal at least 36 months.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency</I> means temporary payment relief granted to a consumer due to financial hardship caused directly or indirectly by a presidentially declared emergency or major disaster under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 <I>et seq.</I>) or a presidentially declared pandemic-related national emergency under the National Emergencies Act (50 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Balloon-payment qualified mortgages made by certain creditors</I>—(1) <I>Exemption.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (e)(2) of this section, a qualified mortgage may provide for a balloon payment, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan satisfies the requirements for a qualified mortgage in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(A) and (e)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor determines at or before consummation that the consumer can make all of the scheduled payments under the terms of the legal obligation, as described in paragraph (f)(1)(iv) of this section, together with the consumer's monthly payments for all mortgage-related obligations and excluding the balloon payment, from the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the dwelling that secures the loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The creditor:
</P>
<P>(A) Considers and verifies at or before consummation the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan, in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2)(i) and (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Considers and verifies at or before consummation the consumer's current debt obligations, alimony, and child support in accordance with paragraphs (c)(2)(vi) and (c)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Considers at or before consummation the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income and verifies the debt obligations and income used to determine that ratio in accordance with paragraph (c)(7) of this section, except that the calculation of the payment on the covered transaction for purposes of determining the consumer's total monthly debt obligations in (c)(7)(i)(A) shall be determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(iv)(A) of this section, together with the consumer's monthly payments for all mortgage-related obligations and excluding the balloon payment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The legal obligation provides for:
</P>
<P>(A) Scheduled payments that are substantially equal, calculated using an amortization period that does not exceed 30 years;
</P>
<P>(B) An interest rate that does not increase over the term of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(C) A loan term of five years or longer.
</P>
<P>(v) The loan is not subject, at consummation, to a commitment to be acquired by another person, other than a person that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(vi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The creditor satisfies the requirements stated in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A), (B), and (C).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Post-consummation transfer of balloon-payment qualified mortgage.</I> A balloon-payment qualified mortgage, extended pursuant to paragraph (f)(1), immediately loses its status as a qualified mortgage under paragraph (f)(1) if legal title to the balloon-payment qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person except when:
</P>
<P>(i) The balloon-payment qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person three years or more after consummation of the balloon-payment qualified mortgage;
</P>
<P>(ii) The balloon-payment qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to a creditor that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(vi) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The balloon-payment qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person pursuant to a capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o, actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver or bankruptcy trustee, an order of a State or Federal governmental agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law, or an agreement between the creditor and such an agency; or
</P>
<P>(iv) The balloon-payment qualified mortgage is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred pursuant to a merger of the creditor with another person or acquisition of the creditor by another person or of another person by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Prepayment penalties</I>—(1) <I>When permitted.</I> A covered transaction must not include a prepayment penalty unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The prepayment penalty is otherwise permitted by law; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) Has an annual percentage rate that cannot increase after consummation;
</P>
<P>(B) Is a qualified mortgage under paragraph (e)(2), (e)(4), (e)(5), (e)(6), or (f) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is not a higher-priced mortgage loan, as defined in § 1026.35(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limits on prepayment penalties.</I> A prepayment penalty:
</P>
<P>(i) Must not apply after the three-year period following consummation; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Must not exceed the following percentages of the amount of the outstanding loan balance prepaid:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent, if incurred during the first two years following consummation; and
</P>
<P>(B) 1 percent, if incurred during the third year following consummation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Alternative offer required.</I> A creditor must not offer a consumer a covered transaction with a prepayment penalty unless the creditor also offers the consumer an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty and the alternative covered transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) Has an annual percentage rate that cannot increase after consummation and has the same type of interest rate as the covered transaction with a prepayment penalty; for purposes of this paragraph (g), the term “type of interest rate” refers to whether a transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) Is a fixed-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is a step-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(ii);
</P>
<P>(ii) Has the same loan term as the loan term for the covered transaction with a prepayment penalty;
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the periodic payment conditions under paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iv) Satisfies the points and fees conditions under paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section, based on the information known to the creditor at the time the transaction is offered; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is a transaction for which the creditor has a good faith belief that the consumer likely qualifies, based on the information known to the creditor at the time the creditor offers the covered transaction without a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Offer through a mortgage broker.</I> If the creditor offers a covered transaction with a prepayment penalty to the consumer through a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), the creditor must:
</P>
<P>(i) Present the mortgage broker an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (g)(3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish by agreement that the mortgage broker must present the consumer an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (g)(3) of this section, offered by:
</P>
<P>(A) The creditor; or
</P>
<P>(B) Another creditor, if the transaction offered by the other creditor has a lower interest rate or a lower total dollar amount of discount points and origination points or fees.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Creditor that is a loan originator.</I> If the creditor is a loan originator, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), and the creditor presents the consumer a covered transaction offered by a person to which the creditor would assign the covered transaction after consummation, the creditor must present the consumer an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (g)(3) of this section, offered by:
</P>
<P>(i) The assignee; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Another person, if the transaction offered by the other person has a lower interest rate or a lower total dollar amount of origination discount points and points or fees.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Applicability.</I> This paragraph (g) applies only if a covered transaction is consummated with a prepayment penalty and is not violated if:
</P>
<P>(i) A covered transaction is consummated without a prepayment penalty; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor and consumer do not consummate a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Evasion; open-end credit.</I> In connection with credit secured by a consumer's dwelling that does not meet the definition of open-end credit in § 1026.2(a)(20), a creditor shall not structure the loan as an open-end plan to evade the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>PACE transactions.</I> (1) For PACE transactions extended to consumers who pay their property taxes through an escrow account, in making the repayment ability determination required under paragraph (c)(1) and (2) of this section, a creditor must consider the factors identified in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (viii) of this section and also must consider any monthly payments that the creditor knows or has reason to know the consumer will have to pay into any escrow account as a result of the PACE transaction that are in excess of the monthly payment amount considered under paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, taking into account:
</P>
<P>(i) The cushion of one-sixth (
<FR>1/6</FR>) of the estimated total annual payments attributable to the PACE transaction from the escrow account that the servicer may charge under § 1024.17(c)(1) of this chapter, unless the creditor reasonably expects that no such cushion will be required or unless the creditor reasonably expects that a different cushion amount will be required, in which case the creditor must use that amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the timing for when the servicer is expected to learn of the PACE transaction is likely to result in a shortage or deficiency in the consumer's escrow account, the expected effect of any such shortage or deficiency on the monthly payment that the consumer will be required to pay into the consumer's escrow account.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraphs (e)(2), (e)(5), (e)(7), or (f) of this section, a PACE transaction is not a qualified mortgage as defined in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) For a PACE transaction, the requirements of this section apply to both the creditor and any PACE company that is substantially involved in making the credit decision. A PACE company is substantially involved in making the credit decision if it, as to a particular consumer, makes the credit decision, makes a recommendation as to whether to extend credit, or applies criteria used in making the credit decision. In the case of any failure by any such PACE company to comply with any requirement imposed under this section, section 130 of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1640, shall be applied with respect to any such failure by substituting “PACE company” for “creditor” each place such term appears in each such subsection.












</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 6584, Jan. 30, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 35502, June 12, 2013; 78 FR 44718, July 24, 2013; 78 FR 60442, Oct. 1, 2013; 78 FR 63005, Oct. 23, 2013; 79 FR 65323, Nov. 3, 2014; 80 FR 59968, Oct. 2, 2015; 85 FR 67958, Oct. 26, 2020; 85 FR 86394, 86452, Dec. 29, 2020; 86 FR 8283, Feb. 5, 2021; 86 FR 60360, Nov. 2, 2021; 90 FR 2503, Jan. 10, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1026.44-1026.45" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1026.44-1026.45   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Special Rules for Private Education Loans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.46" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.46   Special disclosure requirements for private education loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage.</I> The requirements of this subpart apply to private education loans as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5). A creditor may, at its option, comply with the requirements of this subpart for an extension of credit subject to §§ 1026.17 and 1026.18 that is extended to a consumer for expenses incurred after graduation from a law, medical, dental, veterinary, or other graduate school and related to relocation, study for a bar or other examination, participation in an internship or residency program, or similar purposes.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Relation to other subparts in this part.</I> Except as otherwise specifically provided, the requirements and limitations of this subpart are in addition to and not in lieu of those contained in other subparts of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Covered educational institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An educational institution that meets the definition of an institution of higher education, as defined in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, without regard to the institution's accreditation status; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes an agent, officer, or employee of the institution of higher education. An agent means an institution-affiliated organization as defined by section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1019) or an officer or employee of an institution-affiliated organization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Institution of higher education</I> has the same meaning as in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001-1002) and the implementing regulations published by the U.S. Department of Education.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Postsecondary educational expenses</I> means any of the expenses that are listed as part of the cost of attendance, as defined under section 472 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ll), of a student at a covered educational institution. These expenses include tuition and fees, books, supplies, miscellaneous personal expenses, room and board, and an allowance for any loan fee, origination fee, or insurance premium charged to a student or parent for a loan incurred to cover the cost of the student's attendance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Preferred lender arrangement</I> has the same meaning as in section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1019).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Private education loan</I> means an extension of credit that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not made, insured, or guaranteed under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(ii) Is extended to a consumer expressly, in whole or in part, for postsecondary educational expenses, regardless of whether the loan is provided by the educational institution that the student attends;
</P>
<P>(iii) Does not include open-end credit or any loan that is secured by real property or a dwelling; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not include an extension of credit in which the covered educational institution is the creditor if:
</P>
<P>(A) The term of the extension of credit is 90 days or less; or
</P>
<P>(B) an interest rate will not be applied to the credit balance and the term of the extension of credit is one year or less, even if the credit is payable in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> The disclosures required by this subpart shall be made clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Transaction disclosures.</I> (i) The disclosures required under §§ 1026.47(b) and (c) shall be made in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep. The disclosures shall be grouped together, shall be segregated from everything else, and shall not contain any information not directly related to the disclosures required under §§ 1026.47(b) and (c), which include the disclosures required under § 1026.18.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosures may include an acknowledgement of receipt, the date of the transaction, and the consumer's name, address, and account number. The following disclosures may be made together with or separately from other required disclosures: the creditor's identity under § 1026.18(a), insurance or debt cancellation under § 1026.18(n), and certain security interest charges under § 1026.18(o).
</P>
<P>(iii) The term “finance charge” and corresponding amount, when required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(d), and the interest rate required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.47(b)(1)(i) and (c)(1), shall be more conspicuous than any other disclosure, except the creditor's identity under § 1026.18(a).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> The disclosures required under §§ 1026.47(b) and (c) may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by § 1026.47(a) may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with an application or solicitation that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act. The form required to be received under § 1026.48(e) may be accepted by the creditor in electronic form as provided for in that section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Application or solicitation disclosures.</I> (i) The disclosures required by § 1026.47(a) shall be provided on or with any application or solicitation. For purposes of this subpart, the term solicitation means an offer of credit that does not require the consumer to complete an application. A “firm offer of credit” as defined in section 603(l) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(l)) is a solicitation for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) The creditor may, at its option, disclose orally the information in § 1026.47(a) in a telephone application or solicitation. Alternatively, if the creditor does not disclose orally the information in § 1026.47(a), the creditor must provide the disclosures or place them in the mail no later than three business days after the consumer has applied for the credit, except that, if the creditor either denies the consumer's application or provides or places in the mail the disclosures in § 1026.47(b) no later than three business days after the consumer requests the credit, the creditor need not also provide the § 1026.47(a) disclosures.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, for a loan that the consumer may use for multiple purposes including, but not limited to, postsecondary educational expenses, the creditor need not provide the disclosures required by § 1026.47(a).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> The creditor shall provide the disclosures required by § 1026.47(b) before consummation on or with any notice of approval provided to the consumer. If the creditor mails notice of approval, the disclosures must be mailed with the notice. If the creditor communicates notice of approval by telephone, the creditor must mail the disclosures within three business days of providing the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates notice of approval electronically, the creditor may provide the disclosures in electronic form in accordance with § 1026.46(d)(3); otherwise the creditor must mail the disclosures within three business days of communicating the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates approval in person, the creditor must provide the disclosures to the consumer at that time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final disclosures.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.47(c) shall be provided after the consumer accepts the loan in accordance with § 1026.48(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Receipt of mailed disclosures.</I> If the disclosures under paragraphs (d)(1), (d)(2) or (d)(3) of this section are mailed to the consumer, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Basis of disclosures and use of estimates</I>—(1) <I>Legal obligation.</I> Disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Estimates.</I> If any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available at the time the disclosure is provided, and shall state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Multiple creditors; multiple consumers.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor, only one set of disclosures shall be given and the creditors shall agree among themselves which creditor will comply with the requirements that this part imposes on any or all of them. If there is more than one consumer, the disclosures may be made to any consumer who is primarily liable on the obligation.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effect of subsequent events</I>—(1) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> If a disclosure under § 1026.47(b) becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), although new disclosures may be required under § 1026.48(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Final disclosures.</I> If a disclosure under § 1026.47(c) becomes inaccurate because of an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required disclosures, the inaccuracy is not a violation of Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.47" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.47   Content of disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application or solicitation disclosures.</I> A creditor shall provide the disclosures required under paragraph (a) of this section on or with a solicitation or an application for a private education loan.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest Rates.</I> (i) The interest rate or range of interest rates applicable to the loan and actually offered by the creditor at the time of application or solicitation. If the rate will depend, in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness or other factors, a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the interest rates applicable to the loan are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the interest rate adjustments, or lack thereof; a statement that the consumer's actual rate could be higher or lower than the rates disclosed under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, if applicable; and, if the limitation is determined by applicable law, that fact.
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the applicable interest rates typically will be higher if the loan is not co-signed or guaranteed.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> (i) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due.
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any payment deferral options, or, if the consumer does not have the option to defer payments, that fact.
</P>
<P>(iii) For each payment deferral option applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether interest will accrue during the deferral period; and
</P>
<P>(B) If interest accrues, whether payment of interest may be deferred and added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cost estimates.</I> An example of the total cost of the loan calculated as the total of payments over the term of the loan:
</P>
<P>(i) Using the highest rate of interest disclosed under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and including all finance charges applicable to loans at that rate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Using an amount financed of $10,000, or $5000 if the creditor only offers loans of this type for less than $10,000; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Calculated for each payment option.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Eligibility.</I> Any age or school enrollment eligibility requirements relating to the consumer or cosigner.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Alternatives to private education loans.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>) and whether the rates are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address.
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that a covered educational institution may have school-specific education loan benefits and terms not detailed on the disclosure form.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Rights of the consumer.</I> A statement that if the loan is approved, the terms of the loan will be available and will not change for 30 days except as a result of adjustments to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Self-certification information.</I> A statement that, before the loan may be consummated, the consumer must complete the self-certification form and that the form may be obtained from the institution of higher education that the student attends.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval disclosures.</I> On or with any notice of approval provided to the consumer, the creditor shall disclose the information required under § 1026.18 and the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest rate.</I> (i) The interest rate applicable to the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the interest rate is fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the interest rate may increase after consummation of the transaction, any limitations on the rate adjustments, or lack thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> (i) An itemization of the fees or range of fees required to obtain the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any fees, changes to the interest rate, and adjustments to principal based on the consumer's defaults or late payments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> (i) The principal amount of the loan for which the consumer has been approved.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term of the loan, which is the period during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due.
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the payment deferral option chosen by the consumer, if applicable, and any other payment deferral options that the consumer may elect at a later time.
</P>
<P>(iv) Any payments required while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of any unpaid interest that will accrue while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution, based on the deferral option chosen by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(vi) A statement that if the consumer files for bankruptcy, the consumer may still be required to pay back the loan.
</P>
<P>(vii) An estimate of the total amount of payments calculated based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest rate applicable to the loan. Compliance with § 1026.18(h) constitutes compliance with this requirement.
</P>
<P>(B) The maximum possible rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%.
</P>
<P>(C) If a maximum rate cannot be determined, the estimate of the total amount for repayment must include a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the total amount for repayment disclosed under paragraph (b)(3)(vii)(B) of this section is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<P>(viii) The maximum monthly payment based on the maximum rate of interest for the loan or, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. If a maximum cannot be determined, a statement that there is no maximum rate and that the monthly payment amount disclosed is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Alternatives to private education loans.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may qualify for Federal student financial assistance through a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) The interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>), and whether the rates are fixed or variable.
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer may obtain additional information concerning Federal student financial assistance from the institution of higher education that the student attends, or at the Web site of the U.S. Department of Education, including an appropriate Web site address.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rights of the consumer.</I> (i) A statement that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until the acceptance period under § 1026.48(c)(1) has expired. The statement must include the specific date on which the acceptance period expires, based on the date upon which the consumer receives the disclosures required under this subsection for the loan. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may communicate acceptance.
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that, except for changes to the interest rate and other changes permitted by law, the rates and terms of the loan may not be changed by the creditor during the period described in paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final disclosures.</I> After the consumer has accepted the loan in accordance with § 1026.48(c)(1), the creditor shall disclose to the consumer the information required by § 1026.18 and the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interest rate.</I> Information required to be disclosed under § 1026.47(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> Information required to be disclosed under § 1026.47(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repayment terms.</I> Information required to be disclosed under § 1026.47(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Cancellation right.</I> A statement that:
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer has the right to cancel the loan, without penalty, at any time before the cancellation period under § 1026.48(d) expires, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Loan proceeds will not be disbursed until after the cancellation period under § 1026.48(d) expires. The statement must include the specific date on which the cancellation period expires and state that the consumer may cancel by that date. The statement must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may cancel. If the creditor permits cancellation by mail, the statement must specify that the consumer's mailed request will be deemed timely if placed in the mail not later than the cancellation date specified on the disclosure. The disclosures required by this paragraph (c)(4) must be made more conspicuous than any other disclosure required under this section, except for the finance charge, the interest rate, and the creditor's identity, which must be disclosed in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.46(c)(2)(iii).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.48" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.48   Limitations on private education loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Co-branding prohibited.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a creditor, other than the covered educational institution itself, shall not use the name, emblem, mascot, or logo of a covered educational institution, or other words, pictures, or symbols identified with a covered educational institution, in the marketing of private education loans in a way that implies that the covered education institution endorses the creditor's loans.
</P>
<P>(2) A creditor's marketing of private education loans does not imply that the covered education institution endorses the creditor's loans if the marketing includes a clear and conspicuous disclosure that is equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution that the covered educational institution does not endorse the creditor's loans and that the creditor is not affiliated with the covered educational institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Endorsed lender arrangements.</I> If a creditor and a covered educational institution have entered into an arrangement where the covered educational institution agrees to endorse the creditor's private education loans, and such arrangement is not prohibited by other applicable law or regulation, paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not apply if the private education loan marketing includes a clear and conspicuous disclosure that is equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution that the creditor's loans are not offered or made by the covered educational institution, but are made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer's right to accept.</I> (1) The consumer has the right to accept the terms of a private education loan at any time within 30 calendar days following the date on which the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.47(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Except for changes permitted under paragraphs (c)(3) and (c)(4), the rate and terms of the private education loan that are required to be disclosed under § 1026.47(b) and (c) may not be changed by the creditor prior to the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of disbursement of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the 30 calendar day period described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section if the consumer has not accepted the loan within that time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions not requiring re-disclosure.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, nothing in this section prevents the creditor from:
</P>
<P>(A) Withdrawing an offer before consummation of the transaction if the extension of credit would be prohibited by law or if the creditor has reason to believe that the consumer has committed fraud in connection with the loan application;
</P>
<P>(B) Changing the interest rate based on adjustments to the index used for a loan;
</P>
<P>(C) Changing the interest rate and terms if the change will unequivocally benefit the consumer; or
</P>
<P>(D) Reducing the loan amount based upon a certification or other information received from the covered educational institution, or from the consumer, indicating that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the consumer's other financial aid has increased. A creditor may make corresponding changes to the rate and other terms only to the extent that the consumer would have received the terms if the consumer had applied for the reduced loan amount.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the creditor changes the rate or terms of the loan under this paragraph (c)(3), the creditor need not provide the disclosures required under § 1026.47(b) for the new loan terms, nor need the creditor provide an additional 30-day period to the consumer to accept the new terms of the loan under paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exceptions requiring re-disclosure.</I> (i) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2) or (c)(3) of this section, nothing in this section prevents the creditor, at its option, from changing the rate or terms of the loan to accommodate a specific request by the consumer. For example, if the consumer requests a different repayment option, the creditor may, but need not, offer to provide the requested repayment option and make any other changes to the rate and terms.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the creditor changes the rate or terms of the loan under this paragraph (c)(4), the creditor shall provide the disclosures required under § 1026.47(b) and shall provide the consumer the 30-day period to accept the loan under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The creditor shall not make further changes to the rates and terms of the loan, except as specified in paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section. Except as permitted under § 1026.48(c)(3), unless the consumer accepts the loan offered by the creditor in response to the consumer's request, the creditor may not withdraw or change the rates or terms of the loan for which the consumer was approved prior to the consumer's request for a change in loan terms.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consumer's right to cancel.</I> The consumer may cancel a private education loan, without penalty, until midnight of the third business day following the date on which the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.47(c). No funds may be disbursed for a private education loan until the three-business day period has expired.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Self-certification form.</I> For a private education loan intended to be used for the postsecondary educational expenses of a student while the student is attending an institution of higher education, the creditor shall obtain from the consumer or the institution of higher education the form developed by the Secretary of Education under section 155 of the Higher Education Act of 1965, signed by the consumer, in written or electronic form, before consummating the private education loan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provision of information by preferred lenders.</I> A creditor that has a preferred lender arrangement with a covered educational institution shall provide to the covered educational institution the information required under § 1026.47(a)(1) through (5), for each type of private education loan that the lender plans to offer to consumers for students attending the covered educational institution for the period beginning July 1 of the current year and ending June 30 of the following year. The creditor shall provide the information annually by the later of the 1st day of April, or within 30 days after entering into, or learning the creditor is a party to, a preferred lender arrangement.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Special Rules Applicable to Credit Card Accounts and Open-End Credit Offered to College Students</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.51" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.51   Ability to Pay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule</I>—(1)(i) <I>Consideration of ability to pay.</I> A card issuer must not open a credit card account for a consumer under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, or increase any credit limit applicable to such account, unless the card issuer considers the consumer's ability to make the required minimum periodic payments under the terms of the account based on the consumer's income or assets and the consumer's current obligations.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Reasonable policies and procedures.</I> Card issuers must establish and maintain reasonable written policies and procedures to consider the consumer's ability to make the required minimum payments under the terms of the account based on a consumer's income or assets and a consumer's current obligations. Reasonable policies and procedures include treating any income and assets to which the consumer has a reasonable expectation of access as the consumer's income or assets, or limiting consideration of the consumer's income or assets to the consumer's independent income and assets. Reasonable policies and procedures also include consideration of at least one of the following: The ratio of debt obligations to income; the ratio of debt obligations to assets; or the income the consumer will have after paying debt obligations. It would be unreasonable for a card issuer not to review any information about a consumer's income or assets and current obligations, or to issue a credit card to a consumer who does not have any income or assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum periodic payments</I>—(i) <I>Reasonable method.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a card issuer must use a reasonable method for estimating the minimum periodic payments the consumer would be required to pay under the terms of the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbor.</I> A card issuer complies with paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section if it estimates required minimum periodic payments using the following method:
</P>
<P>(A) The card issuer assumes utilization, from the first day of the billing cycle, of the full credit line that the issuer is considering offering to the consumer; and
</P>
<P>(B) The card issuer uses a minimum payment formula employed by the issuer for the product the issuer is considering offering to the consumer or, in the case of an existing account, the minimum payment formula that currently applies to that account, provided that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the applicable minimum payment formula includes interest charges, the card issuer estimates those charges using an interest rate that the issuer is considering offering to the consumer for purchases or, in the case of an existing account, the interest rate that currently applies to purchases; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the applicable minimum payment formula includes mandatory fees, the card issuer must assume that such fees have been charged to the account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules affecting young consumers</I>—(1) <I>Applications from young consumers.</I> A card issuer may not open a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for a consumer less than 21 years old, unless the consumer has submitted a written application and the card issuer has:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial information indicating the consumer has an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the proposed extension of credit in connection with the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) A signed agreement of a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old to be either secondarily liable for any debt on the account incurred by the consumer before the consumer has attained the age of 21 or jointly liable with the consumer for any debt on the account; and
</P>
<P>(B) Financial information indicating such cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant has the ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on such debts, consistent with paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit line increases for young consumers.</I> (i) If a credit card account has been opened pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, no increase in the credit limit may be made on such account before the consumer attains the age of 21 unless:
</P>
<P>(A) At the time of the contemplated increase, the consumer has an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the increased limit consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) A cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old agrees in writing to assume liability for any debt incurred on the account, consistent with paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a credit card account has been opened pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, no increase in the credit limit may be made on such account before the consumer attains the age of 21 unless the cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder who assumed liability at account opening agrees in writing to assume liability on the increase.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 25837, May 3, 2013]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.52" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.52   Limitations on fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations during first year after account opening</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the total amount of fees a consumer is required to pay with respect to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan during the first year after account opening must not exceed 25 percent of the credit limit in effect when the account is opened. For purposes of this paragraph, an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees not subject to limitations.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Late payment fees, over-the-limit fees, and returned-payment fees; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Fees that the consumer is not required to pay with respect to the account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not authorize the imposition or payment of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law.




</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitations on penalty fees.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan unless the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, a card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if the dollar amount of the fee is consistent with either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fees based on costs.</I> A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account if the card issuer has determined that the dollar amount of the fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation. A card issuer must reevaluate this determination at least once every twelve months. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a lower fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer must begin imposing the lower fee within 45 days after completing the reevaluation. If as a result of the reevaluation the card issuer determines that a higher fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation, the card issuer may begin imposing the higher fee after complying with the notice requirements in § 1026.9.


</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Safe harbors.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(E) of this section, a card issuer may impose a fee for a late payment on an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed $8. A card issuer may impose a fee for other types of violations of the terms or other requirements of an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) $32;
</P>
<P>(B) $43 if the card issuer previously imposed a fee pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section for a violation of the same type that occurred during the same billing cycle or one of the next six billing cycles; or
</P>
<P>(C) Three percent of the delinquent balance on a charge card account that requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle if the card issuer has not received the required payment for two or more consecutive billing cycles, notwithstanding the limitation on the amount of a late payment fee in paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) The amounts in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section will be adjusted annually by the Bureau to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index.
</P>
<P>(E) A smaller card issuer, as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, may impose a fee for a late payment on an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed the amount in paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section, as applicable, notwithstanding the limitation on the amount of a late payment fee in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii).






</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibited fees</I>—(i) <I>Fees that exceed dollar amount associated with violation</I>—(A) <I>Generally.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that exceeds the dollar amount associated with the violation.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>No dollar amount associated with violation.</I> A card issuer must not impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan when there is no dollar amount associated with the violation. For purposes of paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, there is no dollar amount associated with the following violations:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Transactions that the card issuer declines to authorize;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Account inactivity; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The closure or termination of an account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Multiple fees based on a single event or transaction.</I> A card issuer must not impose more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan based on a single event or transaction. A card issuer may, at its option, comply with this prohibition by imposing no more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account during a billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Smaller card issuer.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, a card issuer is a smaller card issuer for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(E) of this section if the card issuer together with its affiliates had fewer than one million open credit card accounts, as defined in § 1026.58(b)(6), for the entire preceding calendar year. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), <I>affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) If a card issuer together with its affiliates had fewer than one million open credit card accounts for the entire preceding calendar year but meets or exceeds that number of open credit card accounts in the current calendar year, the card issuer will no longer be a smaller card issuer for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(E) of this section as of 60 days after meeting or exceeding that number of open credit card accounts.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 18797, Mar. 28, 2013; 78 FR 76035, Dec. 16, 2013; 79 FR 48017, Aug. 15, 2014; 80 FR 56898, Sept. 21, 2015; 81 FR 41421, June 27, 2016; 81 FR 84370, Nov. 22, 2016; 83 FR 43505, Aug. 27, 2018; 84 FR 37567, Aug. 1, 2019; 86 FR 60360, Nov. 2, 2021; 89 FR 19202, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.53" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.53   Allocation of payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, when a consumer makes a payment in excess of the required minimum periodic payment for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the card issuer must allocate the excess amount first to the balance with the highest annual percentage rate and any remaining portion to the other balances in descending order based on the applicable annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rules</I>—(1) <I>Accounts with balances subject to deferred interest or similar program.</I> When a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is subject to a deferred interest or similar program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on the balance if the balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Last two billing cycles.</I> The card issuer must allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment consistent with paragraph (a) of this section, except that, during the two billing cycles immediately preceding expiration of the specified period, the excess amount must be allocated first to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar program and any remaining portion allocated to any other balances consistent with paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consumer request.</I> The card issuer may at its option allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment among the balances on the account in the manner requested by the consumer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accounts with secured balances.</I> When a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is secured, the card issuer may at its option allocate any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment to that balance if requested by the consumer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.54" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.54   Limitations on the imposition of finance charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Limitations on imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a card issuer must not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if those finance charges are based on:
</P>
<P>(i) Balances for days in billing cycles that precede the most recent billing cycle; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any portion of a balance subject to a grace period that was repaid prior to the expiration of the grace period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, “grace period” has the same meaning as in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Adjustments to finance charges as a result of the resolution of a dispute under § 1026.12 or § 1026.13; or
</P>
<P>(2) Adjustments to finance charges as a result of the return of a payment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.55" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.55   Limitations on increasing annual percentage rates, fees, and charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a card issuer must not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to an exception set forth in this paragraph even if that increase would not be permitted under a different exception.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Temporary rate, fee, or charge exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) upon the expiration of a specified period of six months or longer, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to the commencement of that period, the card issuer disclosed in writing to the consumer, in a clear and conspicuous manner, the length of the period and the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that would apply after expiration of the period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon expiration of the specified period:
</P>
<P>(A) The card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to the period that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to the period;
</P>
<P>(B) If the disclosures required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section are provided pursuant to § 1026.9(c), the card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred within 14 days after provision of the notice that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to that category of transactions prior to provision of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(C) The card issuer must not apply an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred during the period that exceeds the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Variable rate exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate when:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual percentage rate varies according to an index that is not under the card issuer's control and is available to the general public; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The increase in the annual percentage rate is due to an increase in the index.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Advance notice exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) after complying with the applicable notice requirements in § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g), provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) If a card issuer discloses an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 1026.9(b), the card issuer must not apply that rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to provision of the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) If a card issuer discloses an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 1026.9(c) or (g), the card issuer must not apply that rate, fee, or charge to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iii) This exception does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) during the first year after the account is opened, while the account is closed, or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. For purposes of this paragraph, an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Delinquency exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) due to the card issuer not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The card issuer must disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner in the notice of the increase pursuant to § 1026.9(c) or (g):
</P>
<P>(A) A statement of the reason for the increase; and
</P>
<P>(B) That the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge will cease to apply if the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase, the card issuer must reduce any annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to this exception to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase with respect to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Workout and temporary hardship arrangement exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) due to the consumer's completion of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement or the consumer's failure to comply with the terms of such an arrangement, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Prior to commencement of the arrangement (except as provided in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D)), the card issuer has provided the consumer with a clear and conspicuous written disclosure of the terms of the arrangement (including any increases due to the completion or failure of the arrangement); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the completion or failure of the arrangement, the card issuer must not apply to any transactions that occurred prior to commencement of the arrangement an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to commencement of the arrangement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception.</I> If an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) has been decreased pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation, a card issuer may increase that annual percentage rate, fee, or charge once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar statute or regulation no longer applies, provided that the card issuer must not apply to any transactions that occurred prior to the decrease an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to the decrease.


</P>
<P>(7) <I>Index replacement and margin change exception.</I> A card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate when:
</P>
<P>(i) The card issuer changes the index and margin used to determine the annual percentage rate if the original index becomes unavailable, as long as historical fluctuations in the original and replacement indices were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index and replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if it and the replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate in effect when the original index became unavailable; or


</P>
<P>(ii) If a variable rate on the plan is calculated using a LIBOR index, the card issuer changes the LIBOR index and the margin for calculating the variable rate on or after April 1, 2022, to a replacement index and a replacement margin, as long as historical fluctuations in the LIBOR index and replacement index were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is not published on October 18, 2021, the card issuer generally must use the next calendar day for which both the LIBOR index and the replacement index are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Treatment of protected balances</I>—(1) <I>Definition of protected balance.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, “protected balance” means the amount owed for a category of transactions to which an increased annual percentage rate or an increased fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) cannot be applied after the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge for that category of transactions has been increased pursuant to paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Repayment of protected balance.</I> The card issuer must not require repayment of the protected balance using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) The method of repayment for the account before the effective date of the increase;
</P>
<P>(ii) An amortization period of not less than five years, beginning no earlier than the effective date of the increase; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A required minimum periodic payment that includes a percentage of the balance that is equal to no more than twice the percentage required before the effective date of the increase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Continuing application.</I> This section continues to apply to a balance on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan after:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is closed or acquired by another creditor; or
</P>
<P>(2) The balance is transferred from a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor to another credit account issued by the same creditor or its affiliate or subsidiary (unless the account to which the balance is transferred is subject to § 1026.40).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Promotional waivers or rebates of interest, fees, and other charges.</I> If a card issuer promotes the waiver or rebate of finance charges due to a periodic interest rate or fees or charges required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) and applies the waiver or rebate to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, any cessation of the waiver or rebate on that account constitutes an increase in an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge for purposes of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 69782, Dec. 8, 2021; 88 FR 30622, May 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.56" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.56   Requirements for over-the-limit transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “over-the-limit transaction” means any extension of credit by a card issuer to complete a transaction that causes a consumer's credit card account balance to exceed the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opt-in requirement</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A card issuer shall not assess a fee or charge on a consumer's credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for an over-the-limit transaction unless the card issuer:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides the consumer with an oral, written or electronic notice, segregated from all other information, describing the consumer's right to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of an over-the-limit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtains the consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to the card issuer's payment of such transactions;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provides the consumer with confirmation of the consumer's consent in writing, or if the consumer agrees, electronically; and
</P>
<P>(v) Provides the consumer notice in writing of the right to revoke that consent following the assessment of an over-the-limit fee or charge.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Completion of over-the-limit transactions without consumer consent.</I> Notwithstanding the absence of a consumer's affirmative consent under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, a card issuer may pay any over-the-limit transaction on a consumer's account provided that the card issuer does not impose any fee or charge on the account for paying that over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of election.</I> A card issuer may permit a consumer to consent to the card issuer's payment of any over-the-limit transaction in writing, orally, or electronically, at the card issuer's option. The card issuer must also permit the consumer to revoke his or her consent using the same methods available to the consumer for providing consent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing and placement of notices</I>—(1) <I>Initial notice</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall be provided prior to the assessment of any over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Oral or electronic consent.</I> If a consumer consents to the card issuer's payment of any over-the-limit transaction by oral or electronic means, the card issuer must provide the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section immediately prior to obtaining that consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Confirmation of opt-in.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section may be provided no later than the first periodic statement sent after the consumer has consented to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of right of revocation.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section shall be provided on the front of any page of each periodic statement that reflects the assessment of an over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content</I>—(1) <I>Initial notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section shall include all applicable items in this paragraph (e)(1) and may not contain any information not specified in or otherwise permitted by this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fees.</I> The dollar amount of any fees or charges assessed by the card issuer on a consumer's account for an over-the-limit transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>APRs.</I> Any increased periodic rate(s) (expressed as an annual percentage rate(s)) that may be imposed on the account as a result of an over-the-limit transaction; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Disclosure of opt-in right.</I> An explanation of the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, including the method(s) by which the consumer may consent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Subsequent notice.</I> The notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section shall describe the consumer's right to revoke any consent provided under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, including the method(s) by which the consumer may revoke.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Safe harbor.</I> Use of Model Forms G-25(A) or G-25(B) of appendix G to this part, or substantially similar notices, constitutes compliance with the notice content requirements of paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Joint relationships.</I> If two or more consumers are jointly liable on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, the card issuer shall treat the affirmative consent of any of the joint consumers as affirmative consent for that account. Similarly, the card issuer shall treat a revocation of consent by any of the joint consumers as revocation of consent for that account.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Continuing right to opt in or revoke opt-in.</I> A consumer may affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. Similarly, the consumer may revoke the consent at any time in the manner described in the notice required by paragraph (b)(1)(v) of this section.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Duration of opt-in.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions is effective until revoked by the consumer, or until the card issuer decides for any reason to cease paying over-the-limit transactions for the consumer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time to comply with revocation request.</I> A card issuer must comply with a consumer's revocation request as soon as reasonably practicable after the card issuer receives it.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Prohibited practices.</I> Notwithstanding a consumer's affirmative consent to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, a card issuer is prohibited from engaging in the following practices:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Fees or charges imposed per cycle</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> A card issuer may not impose more than one over-the-limit fee or charge on a consumer's credit card account per billing cycle, and, in any event, only if the credit limit was exceeded during the billing cycle. In addition, except as provided in paragraph (j)(1)(ii) of this section, a card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for more than three billing cycles for the same over-the-limit transaction where the consumer has not reduced the account balance below the credit limit by the payment due date for either of the last two billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception.</I> The prohibition in paragraph (j)(1)(i) of this section on imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge in more than three billing cycles for the same over-the-limit transaction(s) does not apply if another over-the-limit transaction occurs during either of the last two billing cycles.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to promptly replenish.</I> A card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge solely because of the card issuer's failure to promptly replenish the consumer's available credit following the crediting of the consumer's payment under § 1026.10.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conditioning.</I> A card issuer may not condition the amount of a consumer's credit limit on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions if the card issuer assesses a fee or charge for such service.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Over-the-limit fees attributed to fees or interest.</I> A card issuer may not impose an over-the-limit fee or charge for a billing cycle if a consumer exceeds a credit limit solely because of fees or interest charged by the card issuer to the consumer's account during that billing cycle. For purposes of this paragraph (j)(4), the relevant fees or interest charges are charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.57" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.57   Reporting and marketing rules for college student open-end credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>College student credit card.</I> The term “college student credit card” as used in this section means a credit card issued under a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan to any college student.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>College student.</I> The term “college student” as used in this section means a consumer who is a full-time or part-time student of an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Institution of higher education.</I> The term “institution of higher education” as used in this section has the same meaning as in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001 and 1002).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Affiliated organization.</I> The term “affiliated organization” as used in this section means an alumni organization or foundation affiliated with or related to an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>College credit card agreement.</I> The term “college credit card agreement” as used in this section means any business, marketing or promotional agreement between a card issuer and an institution of higher education or an affiliated organization in connection with which college student credit cards are issued to college students currently enrolled at that institution.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Public disclosure of agreements.</I> An institution of higher education shall publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer or creditor for the purpose of marketing a credit card.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited inducements.</I> No card issuer or creditor may offer a college student any tangible item to induce such student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor, if such offer is made:
</P>
<P>(1) On the campus of an institution of higher education;
</P>
<P>(2) Near the campus of an institution of higher education; or
</P>
<P>(3) At an event sponsored by or related to an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual report to the Bureau</I>—(1) <I>Requirement to report.</I> Any card issuer that was a party to one or more college credit card agreements in effect at any time during a calendar year must submit to the Bureau an annual report regarding those agreements in the form and manner prescribed by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of report.</I> The annual report to the Bureau must include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information about the card issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number);
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of any college credit card agreement to which the card issuer was a party that was in effect at any time during the period covered by the report;
</P>
<P>(iii) A copy of any memorandum of understanding in effect at any time during the period covered by the report between the card issuer and an institution of higher education or affiliated organization that directly or indirectly relates to the college credit card agreement or that controls or directs any obligations or distribution of benefits between any such entities;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total dollar amount of any payments pursuant to a college credit card agreement from the card issuer to an institution of higher education or affiliated organization during the period covered by the report, and the method or formula used to determine such amounts;
</P>
<P>(v) The total number of credit card accounts opened pursuant to any college credit card agreement during the period covered by the report; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The total number of credit card accounts opened pursuant to any such agreement that were open at the end of the period covered by the report.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timing of reports.</I> Except for the initial report described in this paragraph (d)(3), a card issuer must submit its annual report for each calendar year to the Bureau by the first business day on or after March 31 of the following calendar year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.58" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.58   Internet posting of credit card agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of this section apply to any card issuer that issues credit cards under a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions</I>—(1) <I>Agreement.</I> For purposes of this section, “agreement” or “credit card agreement” means the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a card issuer and a consumer for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. “Agreement” or “credit card agreement” also includes the pricing information, as defined in § 1026.58(b)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amends.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “amends” an agreement if it makes a substantive change (an “amendment”) to the agreement. A change is substantive if it alters the rights or obligations of the card issuer or the consumer under the agreement. Any change in the pricing information, as defined in § 1026.58(b)(7), is deemed to be substantive.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business day.</I> For purposes of this section, “business day” means a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Card issuer.</I> For purposes of this section, “card issuer” or “issuer” means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a credit card agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Offers.</I> For purposes of this section, an issuer “offers” or “offers to the public” an agreement if the issuer is soliciting or accepting applications for accounts that would be subject to that agreement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Open accounts.</I> For purposes of this section and § 1026.52, an account is an “open account” or “open credit card account” if it is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and either:
</P>
<P>(i) The cardholder can obtain extensions of credit on the account; or
</P>
<P>(ii) There is an outstanding balance on the account that has not been charged off. An account that has been suspended temporarily (for example, due to a report by the cardholder of unauthorized use of the card) is considered an “open account” or “open credit card account.”
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Pricing information.</I> For purposes of this section, “pricing information” means the information listed in § 1026.6(b)(2)(i) through (b)(2)(xii). Pricing information does not include temporary or promotional rates and terms or rates and terms that apply only to protected balances.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Private label credit card account and private label credit card plan.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) “private label credit card account” means a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a credit card that can be used to make purchases only at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “private label credit card plan” means all of the private label credit card accounts issued by a particular issuer with credit cards usable at the same single merchant or affiliated group of merchants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Submission of agreements to Bureau</I>—(1) <I>Quarterly submissions.</I> A card issuer must make quarterly submissions to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau. Quarterly submissions must be sent to the Bureau no later than the first business day on or after January 31, April 30, July 31, and October 31 of each year. Each submission must contain:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifying information about the card issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number);
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit card agreements that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter that the card issuer has not previously submitted to the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that was amended during the preceding calendar quarter and that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter, as described in § 1026.58(c)(3); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Notification regarding any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing, as described in § 1026.58(c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6), and (c)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Amended agreements.</I> If a credit card agreement has been submitted to the Bureau, the agreement has not been amended and the card issuer continues to offer the agreement to the public, no additional submission regarding that agreement is required. If a credit card agreement that previously has been submitted to the Bureau is amended and the card issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective, the card issuer must submit the entire amended agreement to the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau, by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Withdrawal of agreements.</I> If a card issuer no longer offers to the public a credit card agreement that previously has been submitted to the Bureau, the card issuer must notify the Bureau, in the form and manner specified by the Bureau, by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the issuer ceased to offer the agreement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>De minimis exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit any credit card agreements to the Bureau if the card issuer had fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts as of the last business day of the calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an issuer that previously qualified for the de minimis exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must begin making quarterly submissions to the Bureau no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the issuer ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a card issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception qualifies for the de minimis exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the card issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Private label credit card exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) Is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an agreement that previously qualified for the private label credit card exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must submit the agreement to the Bureau no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the agreement ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an agreement that did not previously qualify for the private label credit card exception qualifies for the exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau with respect to that agreement until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the agreement is being withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Product testing exception.</I> (i) A card issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement:
</P>
<P>(A) Is offered as part of a product test offered to only a limited group of consumers for a limited period of time;
</P>
<P>(B) Is used for fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is not offered to the public other than in connection with such a product test.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an agreement that previously qualified for the product testing exception ceases to qualify, the card issuer must submit the agreement to the Bureau no later than the first quarterly submission deadline after the date as of which the agreement ceased to qualify.
</P>
<P>(iii) If an agreement that did not previously qualify for the product testing exception qualifies for the exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau with respect to that agreement until the issuer notifies the Bureau that the agreement is being withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Form and content of agreements submitted to the Bureau</I>—(i) <I>Form and content generally.</I> (A) Each agreement must contain the provisions of the agreement and the pricing information in effect as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(B) Agreements must not include any personally identifiable information relating to any cardholder, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number.
</P>
<P>(C) The following are not deemed to be part of the agreement for purposes of § 1026.58, and therefore are not required to be included in submissions to the Bureau:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Disclosures required by state or Federal law, such as affiliate marketing notices, privacy policies, billing rights notices, or disclosures under the E-Sign Act;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Solicitation materials;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Periodic statements;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Ancillary agreements between the issuer and the consumer, such as debt cancellation contracts or debt suspension agreements;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Offers for credit insurance or other optional products and other similar advertisements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Documents that may be sent to the consumer along with the credit card or credit card agreement such as a cover letter, a validation sticker on the card, or other information about card security.
</P>
<P>(D) Agreements must be presented in a clear and legible font.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Pricing information.</I> (A) Pricing information must be set forth in a single addendum to the agreement. The addendum must contain all of the pricing information, as defined by § 1026.58(b)(7). The addendum may, but is not required to, contain any other information listed in § 1026.6(b), provided that information is complete and accurate as of the applicable date under § 1026.58. The addendum may not contain any other information.
</P>
<P>(B) Pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors must be disclosed either by setting forth all the possible variations (such as purchase APRs of 13 percent, 15 percent, 17 percent, and 19 percent) or by providing a range of possible variations (such as purchase APRs ranging from 13 percent to 19 percent).
</P>
<P>(C) If a rate included in the pricing information is a variable rate, the issuer must identify the index or formula used in setting the rate and the margin. Rates that may vary from one cardholder to another must be disclosed by providing the index and the possible margins (such as the prime rate plus 5 percent, 8 percent, 10 percent, or 12 percent) or range of margins (such as the prime rate plus from 5 to 12 percent). The value of the rate and the value of the index are not required to be disclosed.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Optional variable terms addendum.</I> Provisions of the agreement other than the pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors may be set forth in a single addendum to the agreement separate from the pricing information addendum.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Integrated agreement.</I> Issuers may not provide provisions of the agreement or pricing information in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders (other than the pricing information addendum and the optional variable terms addendum). Changes in provisions or pricing information must be integrated into the text of the agreement, the pricing information addendum or the optional variable terms addendum, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Posting of agreements offered to the public.</I> (1) Except as provided below, a card issuer must post and maintain on its publicly available Web site the credit card agreements that the issuer is required to submit to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c). With respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, an issuer may fulfill this requirement by posting and maintaining the agreement in accordance with the requirements of this section on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which credit cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in § 1026.58(d), agreements posted pursuant to § 1026.58(d) must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Bureau specified in § 1026.58(c)(8).
</P>
<P>(3) Agreements posted pursuant to § 1026.58(d) may be posted in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public. Agreements must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible by the public and must be accessible without submission of personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(4) The card issuer must update the agreements posted on its Web site pursuant to § 1026.58(d) at least as frequently as the quarterly schedule required for submission of agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c). If the issuer chooses to update the agreements on its Web site more frequently, the agreements posted on the issuer's Web site may contain the provisions of the agreement and the pricing information in effect as of a date other than the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agreements for all open accounts</I>—(1) <I>Availability of individual cardholder's agreement.</I> With respect to any open credit card account, a card issuer must either:
</P>
<P>(i) Post and maintain the cardholder's agreement on its Web site; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly provide a copy of the cardholder's agreement to the cardholder upon the cardholder's request. If the card issuer makes an agreement available upon request, the issuer must provide the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement both by using the issuer's Web site (such as by clicking on a clearly identified box to make the request) and by calling a readily available telephone line the number for which is displayed on the issuer's Web site and clearly identified as to purpose. The card issuer must send to the cardholder or otherwise make available to the cardholder a copy of the cardholder's agreement in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the issuer receives the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Special rule for issuers without interactive Web sites.</I> An issuer that does not maintain a Web site from which cardholders can access specific information about their individual accounts, instead of complying with § 1026.58(e)(1), may make agreements available upon request by providing the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement by calling a readily available telephone line, the number for which is displayed on the issuer's Web site and clearly identified as to purpose or included on each periodic statement sent to the cardholder and clearly identified as to purpose. The issuer must send to the cardholder or otherwise make available to the cardholder a copy of the cardholder's agreement in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the issuer receives the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Form and content of agreements.</I> (i) Except as provided in § 1026.58(e), agreements posted on the card issuer's Web site pursuant to § 1026.58(e)(1)(i) or made available upon the cardholder's request pursuant to § 1026.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2) must conform to the form and content requirements for agreements submitted to the Bureau specified in § 1026.58(c)(8).
</P>
<P>(ii) If the card issuer posts an agreement on its Web site or otherwise provides an agreement to a cardholder electronically under § 1026.58(e), the agreement may be posted or provided in any electronic format that is readily usable by the general public and must be placed in a location that is prominent and readily accessible to the cardholder.
</P>
<P>(iii) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to § 1026.58(e) may contain personally identifiable information relating to the cardholder, such as name, address, telephone number, or account number, provided that the issuer takes appropriate measures to make the agreement accessible only to the cardholder or other authorized persons.
</P>
<P>(iv) Agreements posted or otherwise provided pursuant to § 1026.58(e) must set forth the specific provisions and pricing information applicable to the particular cardholder. Provisions and pricing information must be complete and accurate as of a date no more than 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(A) The date on which the agreement is posted on the card issuer's Web site under § 1026.58(e)(1)(i); or
</P>
<P>(B) The date the cardholder's request is received under § 1026.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2).
</P>
<P>(v) Agreements provided upon cardholder request pursuant to § 1026.58(e)(1)(ii) or (e)(2) may be provided by the issuer in either electronic or paper form, regardless of the form of the cardholder's request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>E-Sign Act requirements.</I> Card issuers may provide credit card agreements in electronic form under § 1026.58(d) and (e) without regard to the consumer notice and consent requirements of section 101(c) of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Temporary suspension of agreement submission requirement</I>—(1) <I>Quarterly submissions.</I> The quarterly submission requirement in paragraph (c) of this section is suspended for the submissions that would otherwise be due to the Bureau by the first business day on or after April 30, 2015; July 31, 2015; October 31, 2015; and January 31, 2016.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Posting of agreements offered to the public.</I> Nothing in paragraph (g)(1) of this section shall affect the agreement posting requirements in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 21158, Apr. 17, 2015; 89 FR 19202, Mar. 15, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.59" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.59   Reevaluation of rate increases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule</I>—(1) <I>Evaluation of increased rate.</I> If a card issuer increases an annual percentage rate that applies to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, based on the credit risk of the consumer, market conditions, or other factors, or increased such a rate on or after January 1, 2009, and 45 days' advance notice of the rate increase is required pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2) or (g), the card issuer must:
</P>
<P>(i) Evaluate the factors described in paragraph (d) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on its review of such factors, reduce the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rate reductions</I>—(i) <I>Timing.</I> If a card issuer is required to reduce the rate applicable to an account pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the card issuer must reduce the rate not later than 45 days after completion of the evaluation described in paragraph (a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Applicability of rate reduction.</I> Any reduction in an annual percentage rate required pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall apply to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any outstanding balances to which the increased rate described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section has been applied; and
</P>
<P>(B) New transactions that occur after the effective date of the rate reduction that would otherwise have been subject to the increased rate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> A card issuer must have reasonable written policies and procedures in place to conduct the review described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A card issuer that is subject to paragraph (a) of this section must conduct the review described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section not less frequently than once every six months after the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Factors</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a card issuer must review either:
</P>
<P>(i) The factors on which the increase in an annual percentage rate was originally based; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The factors that the card issuer currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> For rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010, an issuer must consider the factors described in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) when conducting the first two reviews required under paragraph (a) of this section, unless the rate increase subject to paragraph (a) of this section was based solely upon factors specific to the consumer, such as a decline in the consumer's credit risk, the consumer's delinquency or default, or a violation of the terms of the account.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Rate increases due to delinquency.</I> If an issuer increases a rate applicable to a consumer's account pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4) based on the card issuer not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date, the issuer is not required to perform the review described in paragraph (a) of this section prior to the sixth payment due date after the effective date of the increase. However, if the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is not reduced pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii), the card issuer must perform the review described in paragraph (a) of this section. The first such review must occur no later than six months after the sixth payment due following the effective date of the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Termination of obligation to review factors.</I> The obligation to review factors described in paragraph (a) and (d) of this section ceases to apply:
</P>
<P>(1) If the issuer reduces the annual percentage rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan to the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase, or, if the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase was a variable rate, to a variable rate determined by the same formula (index and margin) that was used to calculate the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the issuer reduces the annual percentage rate to a rate that is lower than the rate described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Effective April 1, 2022, in the case where the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase was a variable rate with a formula based on a LIBOR index, the card issuer reduces the annual percentage rate to a rate determined by a replacement formula that is derived from a replacement index value on October 18, 2021, plus replacement margin that is equal to the LIBOR index value on October 18, 2021, plus the margin used to calculate the rate immediately prior to the increase (previous formula). A card issuer must satisfy the conditions set forth in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) for selecting a replacement index. If the replacement index is not published on October 18, 2021, the card issuer generally must use the values of the indices on the next calendar day for which both the LIBOR index and the replacement index are published as the index values to use to determine the replacement formula. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, as the index values to use to determine the replacement formula.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Acquired accounts</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2) of this section, this section applies to credit card accounts that have been acquired by the card issuer from another card issuer. A card issuer that complies with this section by reviewing the factors described in paragraph (d)(1)(i) must review the factors considered by the card issuer from which it acquired the accounts in connection with the rate increase.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of acquired portfolio.</I> If, not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, a card issuer reviews all of the credit card accounts it acquires in accordance with the factors that it currently considers in determining the rates applicable to its similar new credit card accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(iii), the card issuer is required to conduct reviews described in paragraph (a) of this section only for rate increases that are imposed as a result of its review under this paragraph. See §§ 1026.9 and 1026.55 for additional requirements regarding rate increases on acquired accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(2)(iii) of this section, the card issuer is not required to conduct reviews in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section for any rate increases made prior to the card issuer's acquisition of such accounts.
</P>
<P>(iii) If as a result of the card issuer's review, an account is subject to, or continues to be subject to, an increased rate as a penalty, or due to the consumer's delinquency or default, the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section apply.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Exceptions</I>—(1) <I>Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to increases in an annual percentage rate that was previously decreased pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527, provided that such a rate increase is made in accordance with § 1026.55(b)(6).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Charged off accounts.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to accounts that the card issuer has charged off in accordance with loan-loss provisions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Transition from LIBOR.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to increases in an annual percentage rate that occur as a result of the transition from the use of a LIBOR index as the index in setting a variable rate to the use of a replacement index in setting a variable rate if the change from the use of the LIBOR index to a replacement index occurs in accordance with § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 86 FR 69782, Dec. 8, 2021; 88 FR 30623, May 11, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.60" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.60   Credit and charge card applications and solicitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> The card issuer shall provide the disclosures required under this section on or with a solicitation or an application to open a credit or charge card account.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Definition of solicitation.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>solicitation</I> means an offer by the card issuer to open a credit or charge card account that does not require the consumer to complete an application. A “firm offer of credit” as defined in section 603(l) of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681a(l)) for a credit or charge card is a solicitation for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form of disclosures; tabular format.</I> (i) The disclosures in paragraphs (b)(1) through (5) (except for (b)(1)(iv)(B)) and (b)(7) through (15) of this section made pursuant to paragraph (c), (d)(2), (e)(1) or (f) of this section generally shall be in the form of a table with headings, content, and format substantially similar to any of the applicable tables found in G-10 in appendix G to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) The table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section shall contain only the information required or permitted by this section. Other information may be presented on or with an application or solicitation, provided such information appears outside the required table.
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosures required by paragraphs (b)(1)(iv)(B), (b)(1)(iv)(C) and (b)(6) of this section must be placed directly beneath the table.
</P>
<P>(iv) When a tabular format is required, any annual percentage rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any introductory rate required to be disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, any rate that will apply after a premium initial rate expires required to be disclosed under paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, and any fee or percentage amounts or maximum limits on fee amounts disclosed pursuant to paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(4), (b)(8) through (b)(13) of this section must be disclosed in bold text. However, bold text shall not be used for: The amount of any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section that is not an annualized amount; and other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>(v) For an application or a solicitation that is accessed by the consumer in electronic form, the disclosures required under this section may be provided to the consumer in electronic form on or with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(B) of this section, the table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be provided in a prominent location on or with an application or a solicitation.
</P>
<P>(B) If the table described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is provided electronically, it must be provided in close proximity to the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees based on a percentage.</I> If the amount of any fee required to be disclosed under this section is determined on the basis of a percentage of another amount, the percentage used and the identification of the amount against which the percentage is applied may be disclosed instead of the amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fees that vary by state.</I> Card issuers that impose fees referred to in paragraphs (b)(8) through (12) of this section that vary by state may, at the issuer's option, disclose in the table required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section: The specific fee applicable to the consumer's account; or the range of the fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to a disclosure provided with the table where the amount of the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A card issuer may not list fees for multiple states in the table.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exceptions.</I> This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Home-equity plans accessible by a credit or charge card that are subject to the requirements of § 1026.40;
</P>
<P>(ii) Covered overdraft credit as defined in § 1026.62 tied to asset accounts accessed by check-guarantee cards or by debit cards other than hybrid debit-credit cards as defined in § 1026.62;
</P>
<P>(iii) Lines of credit accessed by check-guarantee cards or by debit cards, other than covered overdraft credit accessed by hybrid debit-credit cards, that can be used only at automated teller machines;
</P>
<P>(iv) Lines of credit accessed solely by account numbers except for a covered separate credit feature solely accessible by an account number that is a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 or covered overdraft credit accessible by an account number that is a hybrid debit-credit card;
</P>
<P>(v) Additions of a credit or charge card to an existing open-end plan;
</P>
<P>(vi) General purpose applications unless the application, or material accompanying it, indicates that it can be used to open a credit or charge card account; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Consumer-initiated requests for applications.






</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required disclosures.</I> The card issuer shall disclose the items in this paragraph on or with an application or a solicitation in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c), (d), (e)(1), or (f) of this section. A credit card issuer shall disclose all applicable items in this paragraph except for paragraph (b)(7) of this section. A charge card issuer shall disclose the applicable items in paragraphs (b)(2), (4), (7) through (12), and (15) of this section. With respect to a covered separate credit feature that is a charge card account accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, a charge card issuer also shall disclose the applicable items in paragraphs (b)(3), (13), and (14) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Each periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance for purchases, a cash advance, or a balance transfer, expressed as an annual percentage rate (as determined by § 1026.14(b)). When more than one rate applies for a category of transactions, the range of balances to which each rate is applicable shall also be disclosed. The annual percentage rate for purchases disclosed pursuant to this paragraph shall be in at least 16-point type, except for the following: Oral disclosures of the annual percentage rate for purchases; or a penalty rate that may apply upon the occurrence of one or more specific events.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Variable rate information.</I> If a rate disclosed under paragraph (b)(1) of this section is a variable rate, the card issuer shall also disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify the type of index or formula that is used in setting the rate. The value of the index and the amount of the margin that are used to calculate the variable rate shall not be disclosed in the table. A disclosure of any applicable limitations on rate increases shall not be included in the table.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Discounted initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), the card issuer must disclose in the table the introductory rate, the time period during which the introductory rate will remain in effect, and must use the term “introductory” or “intro” in immediate proximity to the introductory rate. The card issuer also must disclose the rate that would otherwise apply to the account pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section. Where the rate is not tied to an index or formula, the card issuer must disclose the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires. In a variable-rate account, the card issuer must disclose a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in paragraphs (c)(2), (d)(3), or (e)(4) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Premium initial rate.</I> If the initial rate is temporary and is higher than the rate that will apply after the temporary rate expires, the card issuer must disclose the premium initial rate pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the time period during which the premium initial rate will remain in effect. Consistent with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the premium initial rate for purchases must be in at least 16-point type. The issuer must also disclose in the table the rate that will apply after the premium initial rate expires, in at least 16-point type. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Penalty rates</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b)(1)(iv)(B) and (C) of this section, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the card issuer must disclose pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1) the increased rate that may apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Introductory rates.</I> If the issuer discloses an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), in the table or in any written or electronic promotional materials accompanying applications or solicitations subject to paragraph (c) or (e) of this section, the issuer must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances, if any, under which the introductory rate may be revoked, and the type of rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> If a card issuer discloses in the table a preferential annual percentage rate for which only employees of the card issuer, employees of a third party, or other individuals with similar affiliations with the card issuer or third party, such as executive officers, directors, or principal shareholders are eligible, the card issuer must briefly disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which such preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after such preferential rate is revoked.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Rates that depend on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> If a rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given because the rate depends, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness, the card issuer must disclose the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply and a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness, and other factors if applicable. If the rate that depends, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness is a penalty rate, as described in paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, the card issuer at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>APRs that vary by state.</I> Issuers imposing annual percentage rates that vary by state may, at the issuer's option, disclose in the table: the specific annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account; or the range of the annual percentage rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the annual percentage rate varies by state and refers the consumer to a disclosure provided with the table where the annual percentage rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed. A card issuer may not list annual percentage rates for multiple states in the table.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fees for issuance or availability.</I> (i) Any annual or other periodic fee that may be imposed for the issuance or availability of a credit or charge card, including any fee based on account activity or inactivity; how frequently it will be imposed; and the annualized amount of the fee.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any non-periodic fee that relates to opening an account. A card issuer must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixed finance charge; minimum interest charge.</I> Any fixed finance charge and a brief description of the charge. Any minimum interest charge if it exceeds $1.00 that could be imposed during a billing cycle, and a brief description of the charge. The $1.00 threshold amount shall be adjusted periodically by the Bureau to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index. The Bureau shall calculate each year a price level adjusted minimum interest charge using the Consumer Price Index in effect on June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current minimum interest charge threshold has risen by a whole dollar, the minimum interest charge will be increased by $1.00. The issuer may, at its option, disclose in the table minimum interest charges below this threshold.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Transaction charges.</I> Any transaction charge imposed by the card issuer for the use of the card for purchases.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Grace period.</I> The date by which or the period within which any credit extended for purchases may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and any conditions on the availability of the grace period. If no grace period is provided, that fact must be disclosed. If the length of the grace period varies, the card issuer may disclose the range of days, the minimum number of days, or the average number of days in the grace period, if the disclosure is identified as a range, minimum, or average. In disclosing in the tabular format a grace period that applies to all types of purchases, the phrase “How to Avoid Paying Interest on Purchases” shall be used as the heading for the row describing the grace period. If a grace period is not offered on all types of purchases, in disclosing this fact in the tabular format, the phrase “Paying Interest” shall be used as the heading for the row describing this fact.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Balance computation method.</I> The name of the balance computation method listed in paragraph (g) of this section that is used to determine the balance for purchases on which the finance charge is computed, or an explanation of the method used if it is not listed. In determining which balance computation method to disclose, the card issuer shall assume that credit extended for purchases will not be repaid within the grace period, if any.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Statement on charge card payments.</I> A statement that charges incurred by use of the charge card are due when the periodic statement is received.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Cash advance fee.</I> Any fee imposed for an extension of credit in the form of cash or its equivalent.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Late payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed for a late payment.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Over-the-limit fee.</I> Any fee imposed for exceeding a credit limit.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Balance transfer fee.</I> Any fee imposed to transfer an outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Returned-payment fee.</I> Any fee imposed by the card issuer for a returned payment.
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Required insurance, debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage.</I> (i) A fee for insurance described in § 1026.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or suspension coverage described in § 1026.4(b)(10), if the insurance or debt cancellation or suspension coverage is required as part of the plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A cross reference to any additional information provided about the insurance or coverage accompanying the application or solicitation, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Available credit.</I> If a card issuer requires fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or requires a security deposit for such credit, and the total amount of those required fees and/or security deposit that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened is 15 percent or more of the minimum credit limit for the card, a card issuer must disclose the available credit remaining after these fees or security deposit are debited to the account, assuming that the consumer receives the minimum credit limit. In determining whether the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer must only consider fees for issuance or availability of credit, or a security deposit, that are required. If fees for issuance or availability are optional, these fees should not be considered in determining whether the disclosure must be given. Nonetheless, if the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer in providing the disclosure must disclose the amount of available credit calculated by excluding those optional fees, and the available credit including those optional fees. This paragraph does not apply with respect to fees or security deposits that are not debited to the account.
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Web site reference.</I> A reference to the Web site established by the Bureau and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit cards. Until January 1, 2013, issuers may substitute for this reference a reference to the Web site established by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct mail and electronic applications and solicitations</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The card issuer shall disclose the applicable items in paragraph (b) of this section on or with an application or solicitation that is mailed to consumers or provided to consumers in electronic form.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accuracy.</I> (i) Disclosures in direct mail applications and solicitations must be accurate as of the time the disclosures are mailed. An accurate variable annual percentage rate is one in effect within 60 days before mailing.
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclosures provided in electronic form must be accurate as of the time they are sent, in the case of disclosures sent to a consumer's email address, or as of the time they are viewed by the public, in the case of disclosures made available at a location such as a card issuer's Web site. An accurate variable annual percentage rate provided in electronic form is one in effect within 30 days before it is sent to a consumer's email address, or viewed by the public, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Telephone applications and solicitations</I>—(1) <I>Oral disclosure.</I> The card issuer shall disclose orally the information in paragraphs (b)(1) through (7) and (b)(14) of this section, to the extent applicable, in a telephone application or solicitation initiated by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative disclosure.</I> The oral disclosure under paragraph (d)(1) of this section need not be given if the card issuer either:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Does not impose a fee described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Imposes such a fee but provides the consumer with a right to reject the plan consistent with § 1026.5(b)(1)(iv); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The card issuer discloses in writing within 30 days after the consumer requests the card (but in no event later than the delivery of the card) the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The applicable information in paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) As applicable, the fact that the consumer has the right to reject the plan and not be obligated to pay fees described in paragraph (b)(2) or any other fees or charges until the consumer has used the account or made a payment on the account after receiving a billing statement.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Accuracy.</I> (i) The oral disclosures under paragraph (d)(1) of this section must be accurate as of the time they are given.
</P>
<P>(ii) The alternative disclosures under paragraph (d)(2) of this section generally must be accurate as of the time they are mailed or delivered. A variable annual percentage rate is one that is accurate if it was:
</P>
<P>(A) In effect at the time the disclosures are mailed or delivered; or
</P>
<P>(B) In effect as of a specified date (which rate is then updated from time to time, but no less frequently than each calendar month).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Applications and solicitations made available to general public.</I> The card issuer shall provide disclosures, to the extent applicable, on or with an application or solicitation that is made available to the general public, including one contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication. The disclosures shall be provided in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) or (e)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure of required credit information.</I> The card issuer may disclose in a prominent location on the application or solicitation the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicable information in paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date the required information was printed, including a statement that the required information was accurate as of that date and is subject to change after that date; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the consumer should contact the card issuer for any change in the required information since it was printed, and a toll-free telephone number or a mailing address for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No disclosure of credit information.</I> If none of the items in paragraph (b) of this section is provided on or with the application or solicitation, the card issuer may state in a prominent location on the application or solicitation the following:
</P>
<P>(i) There are costs associated with the use of the card; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consumer may contact the card issuer to request specific information about the costs, along with a toll-free telephone number and a mailing address for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prompt response to requests for information.</I> Upon receiving a request for any of the information referred to in this paragraph, the card issuer shall promptly and fully disclose the information requested.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Accuracy.</I> The disclosures given pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section must be accurate as of the date of printing. A variable annual percentage rate is accurate if it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>In-person applications and solicitations.</I> A card issuer shall disclose the information in paragraph (b) of this section, to the extent applicable, on or with an application or solicitation that is initiated by the card issuer and given to the consumer in person. A card issuer complies with the requirements of this paragraph if the issuer provides disclosures in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) or (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Balance computation methods defined.</I> The following methods may be described by name. Methods that differ due to variations such as the allocation of payments, whether the finance charge begins to accrue on the transaction date or the date of posting the transaction, the existence or length of a grace period, and whether the balance is adjusted by charges such as late payment fees, annual fees and unpaid finance charges do not constitute separate balance computation methods.
</P>
<P>(1)(i) <I>Average daily balance (including new purchases).</I> This balance is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Average daily balance (excluding new purchases).</I> This balance is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted balance.</I> This balance is figured by deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle from the outstanding balance at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Previous balance.</I> This balance is the outstanding balance at the beginning of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Daily balance.</I> For each day in the billing cycle, this balance is figured by taking the beginning balance each day, adding any new purchases, and subtracting any payment and credits.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 84370, Nov. 22, 2016; 89 FR 106837, Dec. 30, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.61" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.61   Hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hybrid prepaid-credit card</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> (i) Credit offered in connection with a prepaid account is subject to this section and this regulation as specified below.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this regulation, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a separate credit feature as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section when it can access credit from that credit feature, or with respect to a credit feature structured as a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section when it can access credit from that credit feature. A hybrid prepaid-credit card is a credit card for purposes of this regulation with respect to those credit features.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to a credit feature structured as a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account as described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, a prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card or a credit card for purposes of this regulation if the conditions set forth in paragraph (a)(4) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prepaid card can access credit from a covered separate credit feature</I>—(i) <I>Covered separate credit feature.</I> (A) A separate credit feature that can be accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as described in this paragraph (a)(2)(i) is defined as a covered separate credit feature. A prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a separate credit feature when it is a single device that can be used from time to time to access the separate credit feature where the following two conditions are both satisfied:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The card can be used to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The separate credit feature is offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner.
</P>
<P>(B) A separate credit feature that meets the conditions set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(A) of this section is a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card even with respect to credit that is drawn or transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred, from the credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Non-covered separate credit feature.</I> A separate credit feature that does not meet the two conditions set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section is defined as a non-covered separate credit feature. A prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a non-covered separate credit feature, even if the prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a covered separate credit feature as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section. A non-covered separate credit feature is not subject to the rules applicable to hybrid prepaid-credit cards; however, it may be subject to this regulation depending on its own terms and conditions, independent of the connection to the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Prepaid card can access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section, a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card when it is a single device that can be used from time to time to access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Negative asset balances.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section with regard to coverage under this regulation, structuring a hybrid prepaid-credit card to access credit through a negative balance on the asset feature violates paragraph (b) of this section. A prepaid account issuer can use a negative asset balance structure to extend credit on an asset feature of a prepaid account only if the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to that credit as described in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for credit extended through a negative balance.</I> A prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account and is not a credit card for purposes of this regulation with respect to that credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The prepaid card cannot access credit from a covered separate credit feature as described in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section that is offered by a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The prepaid card only can access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account where both paragraphs (a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section are satisfied.
</P>
<P>(A) The prepaid account issuer has an established policy and practice of either declining to authorize any transaction for which it reasonably believes the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is authorized to cover the amount of the transaction, or declining to authorize any such transactions except in one or more of the following circumstances:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The amount of the transaction will not cause the asset feature balance to become negative by more than $10 at the time of the authorization; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In cases where the prepaid account issuer has received an instruction or confirmation for an incoming electronic fund transfer originated from a separate asset account to load funds to the prepaid account or where the prepaid account issuer has received a request from the consumer to load funds to the prepaid account from a separate asset account but in either case the funds from the separate asset account have not yet settled, the amount of the transaction will not cause the asset feature balance to become negative at the time of the authorization by more than the incoming or requested load amount, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(B) The following fees or charges are not imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any fees or charges for opening, issuing, or holding a negative balance on the asset feature, or for the availability of credit, whether imposed on a one-time or periodic basis. This paragraph does not include fees or charges to open, issue, or hold the prepaid account where the amount of the fee or charge imposed on the asset feature is not higher based on whether credit might be offered or has been accepted, whether or how much credit the consumer has accessed, or the amount of credit available;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any fees or charges that will be imposed only when credit is extended on the asset feature or when there is a negative balance on the asset feature, except that a prepaid account issuer may impose fees or charges for the actual costs of collecting the credit extended if otherwise permitted by law; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any fees or charges where the amount of the fee or charge is higher when credit is extended on the asset feature or when there is a negative balance on the asset feature.
</P>
<P>(C) A prepaid account issuer may still satisfy the exception in paragraph (a)(4) of this section even if it debits fees or charges from the asset feature when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature to cover those fees or charges at the time they are imposed, so long as those fees or charges are not the type of fees or charges enumerated in paragraph (a)(4)(ii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and other provisions in the regulation that relate to hybrid prepaid-credit cards:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Affiliate</I> means any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Asset feature</I> means an asset account that is a prepaid account, or an asset subaccount of a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Business partner</I> means a person (other than the prepaid account issuer or its affiliates) that can extend credit through a separate credit feature where the person or its affiliate has an arrangement with a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate except as provided in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Arrangement defined.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section, a person that can extend credit through a separate credit feature or the person's affiliate has an arrangement with a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate if the circumstances in either paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(B) or (C) of this section are met.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Arrangement by agreement.</I> A person that can extend credit through a separate credit feature or its affiliate has an arrangement with a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate if the parties have an agreement that allows the prepaid card from time to time to draw, transfer, or authorize a draw or transfer of credit in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Marketing arrangement.</I> A person that can extend credit through a separate credit feature or its affiliate has an arrangement with a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The parties have a business, marketing, or promotional agreement or other arrangement which provides that prepaid accounts offered by the prepaid account issuer will be marketed to the customers of the person that can extend credit; or the separate credit feature offered by the person who can extend credit will be marketed to the holders of prepaid accounts offered by the prepaid account issuer (including any marketing to customers to encourage them to authorize the prepaid card to access the separate credit feature as described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section); and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) At the time of the marketing agreement or arrangement described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, or at any time afterwards, the prepaid card from time to time can draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the separate credit feature offered by the person that can extend credit in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. This requirement is satisfied even if there is no specific agreement between the parties that the card can access the credit feature, as described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Exception for certain credit card account arrangements.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(5)(iii) of this section, a person that can extend credit through a credit card account is not a business partner of a prepaid account issuer with which it has an arrangement as defined in paragraphs (a)(5)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section with regard to such credit card account if all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The credit card account is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that a consumer can access through a traditional credit card.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The prepaid account issuer and the card issuer do not allow the prepaid card to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the credit card account from time to time in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, except where the prepaid account issuer or the card issuer has received from the consumer a written request that is separately signed or initialized to authorize the prepaid card to access the credit card account as described above. If the credit card account is linked to the prepaid account prior to April 1, 2019, or prior to the arrangement between the prepaid account issuer and the card issuer as described in paragraphs (a)(5)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section, the prepaid account issuer and the card issuer will be deemed to have satisfied this condition even if they have not received from the consumer a written request that is separately signed or initialized to authorize the prepaid card to access the credit card account as described in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The prepaid account issuer and the card issuer do not condition the acquisition or retention of the prepaid account or the credit card account on whether a consumer authorizes the prepaid card to access the credit card account as described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section. If the credit card account is linked to the prepaid account prior to April 1, 2019, this condition only applies to the retention of the prepaid account and the credit card account on or after April 1, 2019.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The prepaid account issuer applies the same terms, conditions, or features to the prepaid account when a consumer authorizes linking the prepaid card to the credit card account as described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section as it applies to the consumer's prepaid account when the consumer does not authorize such a linkage. In addition, the prepaid account issuer applies the same fees to load funds from the credit card account that is linked to the prepaid account as described above as it charges for a comparable load on the consumer's prepaid account to access a credit feature offered by a person that is not the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or a person with which the prepaid account issuer has an arrangement as described in paragraphs (a)(5)(iii)(A) through (C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) The card issuer applies the same specified terms and conditions to the credit card account when a consumer authorizes linking the prepaid card to the credit card account as described in paragraph (a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) of this section as it applies to the consumer's credit card account when the consumer does not authorize such a linkage. In addition, the card issuer applies the same specified terms and conditions to extensions of credit accessed by the prepaid card from the credit card account as it applies to extensions of credit accessed by the traditional credit card. For purposes of this paragraph, “specified terms and conditions” means the terms and conditions required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b), any repayment terms and conditions, and the limits on liability for unauthorized credit transactions.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Credit feature</I> means a separate credit account or a credit subaccount of a prepaid account through which credit can be extended in connection with a prepaid card, or a negative balance on an asset feature of a prepaid account through which credit can be extended in connection with a prepaid card.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Prepaid account</I> means a prepaid account as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Prepaid account issuer</I> means a financial institution as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(i), with respect to a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Prepaid card</I> means any card, code, or other device that can be used to access a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>Separate credit feature</I> means a credit account or a credit subaccount of a prepaid account through which credit can be extended in connection with a prepaid card that is separate from the asset feature of the prepaid account. This term does not include a negative balance on an asset feature of a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Structure of credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> With respect to a credit feature that is accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, a card issuer shall not structure the credit feature as a negative balance on the asset feature of a prepaid account. A card issuer shall structure the credit feature as a separate credit feature, either as a separate credit account, or as a credit subaccount of a prepaid account that is separate from the asset feature of the prepaid account. The separate credit feature is a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing requirement for credit card solicitation or application with respect to hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> (1) With respect to a covered separate credit feature that could be accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card at any point, a card issuer must not do any of the following until 30 days after the prepaid account has been registered:
</P>
<P>(i) Open a covered separate credit feature that could be accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card;
</P>
<P>(ii) Make a solicitation or provide an application to open a covered separate credit feature that could be accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Allow an existing credit feature that was opened prior to the consumer obtaining the prepaid account to become a covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (c) of this section, the term <I>solicitation</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1026.60(a)(1).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 84370, Nov. 22, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 6439, Feb. 13, 2018]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1026.62" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.7.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1026.62   Overdraft credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) Overdraft credit is subject to this section and this part as specified below.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overdraft credit</I> is any consumer credit extended by a financial institution to pay a transaction from a checking or other transaction account (other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61) held at the financial institution when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in that account. The term overdraft credit includes, but is not limited to, any such consumer credit extended through a transfer from a credit card account or overdraft line of credit. The term does not include credit exempt from this part pursuant to § 1026.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Above breakeven overdraft credit</I> means overdraft credit extended by a very large financial institution to pay a transaction on which, as an incident to or a condition of the overdraft credit, the very large financial institution imposes a charge or combination of charges exceeding the average of its costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit as described in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covered asset account</I> means a checking or other transaction account (other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61) provided by a very large financial institution that is tied to overdraft credit provided by the very large financial institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered overdraft credit</I> means overdraft credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Covered overdraft credit account</I> means a credit account through which a financial institution extends or can extend covered overdraft credit. For example, the term includes any line of credit, credit card account, credit feature, credit plan, or credit subaccount through which the financial institution extends or can extend covered overdraft credit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Hybrid debit-credit card</I> means any card, plate, or other single credit device that a consumer may use from time to time to obtain covered overdraft credit from a very large financial institution.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Non-covered overdraft credit</I> means overdraft credit that is not subject to a finance charge and is not payable by written agreement in more than four installments.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Overdraft credit</I> has the meaning set out in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Very large financial institution</I> means an insured depository institution or an insured credit union that has total assets of more than $10,000,000,000 and any affiliate thereof, as determined under 12 U.S.C. 5515(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Structure of covered overdraft credit.</I> A very large financial institution shall not structure covered overdraft credit as a negative balance on a checking or other transaction account. The very large financial institution shall structure covered overdraft credit as a separate credit account. The separate credit account is a covered overdraft credit account. The tied checking or other transaction account is a covered asset account.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charges exceeding the average of its costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any charge or combination of charges to pay a transaction exceeds the average of a very large financial institution's costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit if the charge or combination of charges exceeds the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The pro rata share of the very large financial institution's total direct costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit in the previous year, calculated in accordance with this paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) $5.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cost and loss calculation.</I> When calculating the pro rata share of the very large financial institution's total direct costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit in the previous year, a very large financial institution may consider only those costs and charge-off losses specifically traceable to its provision of non-covered overdraft credit in the previous year. Such costs and charge-off losses include, but are not limited to, its cost of funds, its net charge-off losses, and operating expenses for its non-covered overdraft credit program. Such costs and charge-off losses do not include general overhead costs or charge-off losses due to unauthorized use, EFT errors, billing errors, returned deposit items, or rescinded provisional credit.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, a cost or charge-off loss is specifically traceable if it has a direct relationship to the provision of non-covered overdraft services and the very large financial institution can provide evidence to demonstrate that direct relationship.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, a charge or combination of charges includes all revenue received in connection with an overdraft transaction, including, but not limited to, any extended or sustained overdraft fees, any interest charges on outstanding overdraft balances, and any other payments the very large financial institution receives in connection with an overdraft transaction.
</P>
<P>(5) When calculating the pro rata share of its total direct costs and charge-off losses for providing non-covered overdraft credit in the previous year, a very large financial institution must include all non-covered overdraft transactions from the previous year in its calculation.
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section, the term “previous year” means a period that encompasses, at the very large financial institution's option, any of the following periods:
</P>
<P>(i) The prior calendar year,
</P>
<P>(ii) Any 365-day period that begins within the prior calendar year,
</P>
<P>(iii) The prior four financial quarters, or
</P>
<P>(iv) The very large financial institution's prior accounting year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 106837, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1026—Effect on State Laws




</HEAD>
<HD1>Request for Determination
</HD1>
<P>A request for a determination that a state law is inconsistent or that a state law is substantially the same as the Act and regulation shall be in writing and addressed to the Executive Secretary, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552. The request shall be made pursuant to the procedures herein.
</P>
<HD1>Supporting Documents
</HD1>
<P>A request for a determination shall include the following items:
</P>
<P>(1) The text of the state statute, regulation, or other document that is the subject of the request.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other statute, regulation, or judicial or administrative opinion that implements, interprets, or applies the relevant provision.
</P>
<P>(3) A comparison of the state law with the corresponding provision of the Federal law, including a full discussion of the basis for the requesting party's belief that the state provision is either inconsistent or substantially the same.
</P>
<P>(4) Any other information that the requesting party believes may assist the Bureau in its determination.
</P>
<HD1>Public Notice of Determination
</HD1>
<P>Notice that the Bureau intends to make a determination (either on request or on its own motion) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with an opportunity for public comment, unless the Bureau finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision.
</P>
<P>Subject to the Bureau's rules on Disclosure of Records and Information (12 CFR Part 1070), all requests made, including any documents and other material submitted in support of the requests, will be made available for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<HD1>Notice After Determination
</HD1>
<P>Notice of a final determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and the Bureau will furnish a copy of such notice to the party who made the request and to the appropriate state official.
</P>
<HD1>Reversal of Determination
</HD1>
<P>The Bureau reserves the right to reverse a determination for any reason bearing on the coverage or effect of state or Federal law.
</P>
<P>Notice of reversal of a determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a copy furnished to the appropriate state official.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16543, Mar. 20, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1026—State Exemptions




</HEAD>
<HD1>Application
</HD1>
<P>Any state may apply to the Bureau for a determination that a class of transactions subject to state law is exempt from the requirements of the Act and this part. An application shall be in writing and addressed to the Executive Secretary, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20552, and shall be signed by the appropriate state official. The application shall be made pursuant to the procedures herein.
</P>
<HD1>Supporting Documents
</HD1>
<P>An application shall be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) The text of the state statute or regulation that is the subject of the application, and any other statute, regulation, or judicial or administrative opinion that implements, interprets, or applies it.
</P>
<P>(2) A comparison of the state law with the corresponding provisions of the Federal law.
</P>
<P>(3) The text of the state statute or regulation that provides for civil and criminal liability and administrative enforcement of the state law.
</P>
<P>(4) A statement of the provisions for enforcement, including an identification of the state office that administers the relevant law, information on the funding and the number and qualifications of personnel engaged in enforcement, and a description of the enforcement procedures to be followed, including information on examination procedures, practices, and policies. If an exemption application extends to federally chartered institutions, the applicant must furnish evidence that arrangements have been made with the appropriate Federal agencies to ensure adequate enforcement of state law in regard to such creditors.
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of reasons to support the applicant's claim that an exemption should be granted.
</P>
<HD1>Public Notice of Application
</HD1>
<P>Notice of an application will be published, with an opportunity for public comment, in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> unless the Bureau finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision.
</P>
<P>Subject to the Bureau's rules on Disclosure of Records and Information (12 CFR Part 1070), all applications made, including any documents and other material submitted in support of the applications, will be made available for public inspection and copying.
</P>
<HD1>Favorable Determination
</HD1>
<P>If the Bureau determines on the basis of the information before it that an exemption should be granted, notice of the exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a copy furnished to the applicant and to each Federal official responsible for administrative enforcement.
</P>
<P>The appropriate state official shall inform the Bureau within 30 days of any change in its relevant law or regulations. The official shall file with the Bureau such periodic reports as the Bureau may require.
</P>
<P>The Bureau will inform the appropriate state official of any subsequent amendments to the Federal law, regulation, interpretations, or enforcement policies that might require an amendment to state law, regulation, interpretations, or enforcement procedures.
</P>
<HD1>Adverse Determination
</HD1>
<P>If the Bureau makes an initial determination that an exemption should not be granted, the Bureau will afford the applicant a reasonable opportunity to demonstrate further that an exemption is proper. If the Bureau ultimately finds that an exemption should not be granted, notice of an adverse determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a copy furnished to the applicant.
</P>
<HD1>Revocation of Exemption
</HD1>
<P>The Bureau reserves the right to revoke an exemption if at any time it determines that the standards required for an exemption are not met.
</P>
<P>Before taking such action, the Bureau will notify the appropriate state official of its intent, and will afford the official such opportunity as it deems appropriate in the circumstances to demonstrate that revocation is improper. If the Bureau ultimately finds that revocation is proper, notice of the Bureau's intention to revoke such exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a reasonable period of time for interested persons to comment.
</P>
<P>Notice of revocation of an exemption will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> A copy of such notice will be furnished to the appropriate state official and to the Federal officials responsible for enforcement. Upon revocation of an exemption, creditors in that state shall then be subject to the requirements of the Federal law.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16543, Mar. 20, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1026—Issuance of Official Interpretations




</HEAD>
<HD1>Official Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>Interpretations of this part issued by officials of the Bureau provide the protection afforded under section 130(f) of the Act. Except in unusual circumstances, such interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to the regulation which will be amended periodically.


</P>
<HD1>Requests for Issuance of Official Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>A request for an official interpretation shall be in writing and addressed to the Assistant Director, Office of Regulations, Division of Research, Monitoring, and Regulations, Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street, NW., Washington, DC 20552. The request shall contain a complete statement of all relevant facts concerning the issue, including copies of all pertinent documents.
</P>
<HD1>Scope of Interpretations
</HD1>
<P>No interpretations will be issued approving creditors' forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods. This restriction does not apply to forms, statements, tools, or methods whose use is required or sanctioned by a government agency.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16543, Mar. 20, 2023]






</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1026—Multiple Advance Construction Loans 
</HEAD>
<P>Section 1026.17(c)(6) permits creditors to treat multiple advance loans to finance construction of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor either as a single transaction or as more than one transaction. If the actual schedule of advances is not known, the following methods may be used to estimate the interest portion of the finance charge and the annual percentage rate and to make disclosures. If the creditor chooses to disclose the construction phase separately, whether interest is payable periodically or at the end of construction, part I may be used. If the creditor chooses to disclose the construction and the permanent financing as one transaction, part II may be used.
</P>
<HD1>Part I—Construction Period Disclosed Separately
</HD1>
<P>A. If interest is payable only on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding:
</P>
<P>1. Estimated interest—Assume that one-half of the commitment amount is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>2. Estimated annual percentage rate—Assume a single payment loan that matures at the end of the construction period. The finance charge is the sum of the estimated interest and any prepaid finance charge. The amount financed for computation purposes is determined by subtracting any prepaid finance charge from one-half of the commitment amount.
</P>
<P>3. Repayment schedule—The number and amounts of any interest payments may be omitted in disclosing the payment schedule under § 1026.18(g). The fact that interest payments are required and the timing of such payments shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>4. Amount financed—The amount financed for disclosure purposes is the entire commitment amount less any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>B. If interest is payable on the entire commitment amount without regard to the dates or amounts of actual disbursement:
</P>
<P>1. Estimated interest—Assume that the entire commitment amount is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>2. Estimated annual percentage rate—Assume a single payment loan that matures at the end of the construction period. The finance charge is the sum of the estimated interest and any prepaid finance charge. The amount financed for computation purposes is determined by subtracting any prepaid finance charge from one-half of the commitment amount.
</P>
<P>3. Repayment schedule—Interest payments shall be disclosed in making the repayment schedule disclosure under § 1026.18(g).
</P>
<P>4. Amount financed—The amount financed for disclosure purposes is the entire commitment amount less any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.000.gif"/>
<HD1>Part II—Construction and Permanent Financing Disclosed as One Transaction
</HD1>
<P>A. The creditor shall estimate the interest payable during the construction period to be included in the total finance charge as follows:
</P>
<P>1. If interest is payable only on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding, assume that one-half of the commitment amount is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>2. If interest is payable on the entire commitment amount without regard to the dates or amounts of actual disbursements, assume that the entire commitment amount is outstanding at the contract rate for the entire construction period.
</P>
<P>B. The creditor shall compute the estimated annual percentage rate as follows:
</P>
<P>1. Estimated interest payable during the construction period shall be treated for computation purposes as a prepaid finance charge (although it shall not be treated as a prepaid finance charge for disclosure purposes).
</P>
<P>2. The number of payment shall not include any payments of interest only that are made during the construction period.
</P>
<P>3. The first payment period shall consist of one-half of the construction period plus the period between the end of the construction period and the amortization payment.
</P>
<P>C. The creditor shall disclose the repayment schedule as follows:</P>
<P>1. For loans under paragraph A.1 of part II, other than loans that are subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), without reflecting the number or amounts of payments of interest only that are made during the construction period. The fact that interest payments must be made and the timing of such payments shall be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. For loans under paragraph A.2 of part II and loans under paragraph A.1 of part II that are subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), including any payments of interest only that are made during the construction period.
</P>
<P>D. The creditor shall disclose the amount financed as the entire commitment amount less any prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 80130, Dec. 31, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix E" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix E to Part 1026—Rules for Card Issuers That Bill on a Transaction-by-Transaction Basis
</HEAD>
<P>The following provisions of Subpart B apply if credit cards are issued and the card issuer and the seller are the same or related persons; no finance charge is imposed; consumers are billed in full for each use of the card on a transaction-by-transaction basis, by means of an invoice or other statement reflecting each use of the card; and no cumulative account is maintained which reflects the transactions by each consumer during a period of time, such as a month. The term “related person” refers to, for example, a franchised or licensed seller of a creditor's product or service or a seller who assigns or sells sales accounts to a creditor or arranges for credit under a plan that allows the consumer to use the credit only in transactions with that seller. A seller is not related to the creditor merely because the seller and the creditor have an agreement authorizing the seller to honor the creditor's credit card.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Section 1026.6(a)(5) or § 1026.6(b)(5)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>2. <I>Section 1026.6(a)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(3)(ii)(B), as applicable.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.6(a)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(3)(ii)(B) shall be limited to those charges that are or may be imposed as a result of the deferral of payment by use of the card, such as late payment or delinquency charges. A tabular format is not required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Section 1026.6(a)(4) or § 1026.6(b)(5)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>4. <I>Section 1026.7(a)(2) or § 1026.7(b)(2), as applicable; § 1026.7(a)(9) or § 1026.7(b)(9), as applicable.</I> Creditors may comply by placing the required disclosures on the invoice or statement sent to the consumer for each transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Section 1026.9(a).</I> Creditors may comply by mailing or delivering the statement required by § 1026.6(a)(5) or § 1026.6(b)(5)(iii) (see appendix G-3 and G-3(A) to this part) to each consumer receiving a transaction invoice during a one-month period chosen by the card issuer or by sending either the statement prescribed by § 1026.6(a)(5) or § 1026.6(b)(5)(iii), or an alternative billing error rights statement substantially similar to that in appendix G-4 and G-4(A) to this part, with each invoice sent to a consumer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Section 1026.9(c).</I> A tabular format is not required.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Section 1026.10.</I>
</P>
<P>8. <I>Section 1026.11(a).</I> This section applies when a card issuer receives a payment or other credit that exceeds by more than $1 the amount due, as shown on the transaction invoice. The requirement to credit amounts to an account may be complied with by other reasonable means, such as by a credit memorandum. Since no periodic statement is provided, a notice of the credit balance shall be sent to the consumer within a reasonable period of time following its occurrence unless a refund of the credit balance is mailed or delivered to the consumer within seven business days of its receipt by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Section 1026.12 including § 1026.12(c) and (d), as applicable.</I> Section 1026.12(e) is inapplicable.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Section 1026.13, as applicable.</I> All references to “periodic statement” shall be read to indicate the invoice or other statement for the relevant transaction. All actions with regard to correcting and adjusting a consumer's account may be taken by issuing a refund or a new invoice, or by other appropriate means consistent with the purposes of the section.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Section 1026.15, as applicable.</I>


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix F" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix F to Part 1026—Optional Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Creditors Offering Open-End Credit Plans Secured by a Consumer's Dwelling
</HEAD>
<P>In determining the denominator of the fraction under § 1026.14(c)(3), no amount will be used more than once when adding the sum of the balances subject to periodic rates to the sum of the amounts subject to specific transaction charges. (Where a portion of the finance charge is determined by application of one or more daily periodic rates, the phrase “sum of the balances” shall also mean the “average of daily balances.”) In every case, the full amount of transactions subject to specific transaction charges shall be included in the denominator. Other balances or parts of balances shall be included according to the manner of determining the balance subject to a periodic rate, as illustrated in the following examples of accounts on monthly billing cycles:
</P>
<P>1. Previous balance—none.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs on the first day of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $100. A specific transaction charge of 3% is applicable to the specific transaction. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR>% applicable to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $4.50. The denominator is the amount of the transaction (which is $100), plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the specific transactions (such excess in this case is 0), totaling $100.
</P>
<P>The annual percentage rate is the quotient (which is 4
<FR>1/2</FR>%) multiplied by 12 (the number of months in a year), i.e., 54%.
</P>
<P>2. Previous balance—$100.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $150. A specific transaction charge of 3% is applicable to the specific transaction. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR>% applicable to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge which is $5.25. The denominator is the amount of the transaction (which is $100), plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the specific transaction (such excess in this case is $50), totaling $150. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 3
<FR>1/2</FR>% × 12 = 42%.
</P>
<P>3. If, in example 2, the periodic rate applies only to the previous balance, the numerator is $4.50 and the denominator is $200 (the amount of the transaction, $100, plus the balance subject only to the periodic rate, the $100 previous balance). As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 2
<FR>1/4</FR>% × 12 = 27%.
</P>
<P>4. If, in example 2, the periodic rate applies only to an adjusted balance (previous balance less payments and credits) and the consumer made a payment of $50 at the midpoint of the billing cycle, the numerator is $3.75 and the denominator is $150 (the amount of the transaction, $100, plus the balance subject to the periodic rate, the $50 adjusted balance). As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 2
<FR>1/2</FR>% × 12 = 30%.
</P>
<P>5. Previous balance—$100.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction (check) of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $150. The specific transaction charge is $.25 per check. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR>% applied to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $2.50 and includes the $.25 check charge and the $2.25 resulting from the application of the periodic rate. The denominator is the full amount of the specific transaction (which is $100) plus the amount by which the average daily balance exceeds the amount of the specific transaction (which in this case is $50), totaling $150. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate would be 1-2/3% × 12 = 20%.
</P>
<P>6. Previous balance—none.
</P>
<P>A specific transaction of $100 occurs at the midpoint of the billing cycle. The average daily balance is $50. The specific transaction charge is 3% of the transaction amount or $3.00. The periodic rate is 1
<FR>1/2</FR>% per month applied to the average daily balance. The numerator is the amount of the finance charge, which is $3.75, including the $3.00 transaction charge and $.75 resulting from application of the periodic rate. The denominator is the full amount of the specific transaction ($100) plus the amount by which the balance subject to the periodic rate exceeds the amount of the transaction ($0). Where the specific transaction amount exceeds the balance subject to the periodic rate, the resulting number is considered to be zero rather than a negative number ($50 − $100 = −$50). The denominator, in this case, is $100. As explained in example 1, the annual percentage rate is 3
<FR>3/4</FR>% × 12 = 45%.






</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix G" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix G to Part 1026—Open-End Model Forms and Clauses






</HEAD>
<FP-2>G-1 Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Home-equity Plans) (§§ 1026.6 and 1026.7)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-1(A) Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Plans other than Home-equity Plans) (§§ 1026.6 and 1026.7)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-2 Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Home-equity Plans) (§ 1026.12)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-2(A) Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§ 1026.12)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-3 Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-equity Plans) (§§ 1026.6 and 1026.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-3(A) Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§§ 1026.6 and 1026.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-4 Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-equity Plans) (§ 1026.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-4(A) Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-equity Plans) (§ 1026.9)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-5 Rescission Model Form (When Opening an Account) (§ 1026.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-6 Rescission Model Form (For Each Transaction) (§ 1026.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-7 Rescission Model Form (When Increasing the Credit Limit) (§ 1026.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-8 Rescission Model Form (When Adding a Security Interest) (§ 1026.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-9 Rescission Model Form (When Increasing the Security) (§ 1026.15)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(A) Applications and Solicitations Model Form (Credit Cards) (§ 1026.60(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(B) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Credit Cards) (§ 1026.60(b))




</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(C) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Credit Cards) (§ 1026.60(b))






</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(D) Applications and Solicitations Model Form (Charge Cards) (§ 1026.60(b))


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-10(E) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Charge Cards) (§ 1026.60(b))






</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-11 Applications and Solicitations Made Available to General Public Model Clauses (§ 1026.60(e))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-12 Reserved
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-13(A) Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (Combined Notice) (§ 1026.9(f))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-13(B) Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (§ 1026.9(f)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-14A Home-equity Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-14B Home-equity Sample
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-15 Home-equity Model Clauses
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-16(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause (§ 1026.4(d)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-16(B) Debt Suspension Sample (§ 1026.4(d)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(A) Account-opening Model Form (§ 1026.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(B) Account-opening Sample (§ 1026.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(C) Account-opening Sample (§ 1026.6(b)(2))








</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-17(D) Account-opening Sample (§ 1026.6(b)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(A) Transactions; Interest Charges; Fees Sample (§ 1026.7(b))


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(B) Late Payment Fee Sample (§ 1026.7(b))








</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(1) Minimum Payment Warning (When Amortization Occurs and the 36-Month Disclosures Are Required) (§ 1026.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(2) Minimum Payment Warning (When Amortization Occurs and the 36-Month Disclosures Are Not Required) (§ 1026.7(b))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(C)(3) Minimum Payment Warning (When Negative or No Amortization Occurs) (§ 1026.7(b))


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(D) Periodic Statement New Balance, Due Date, Late Payment and Minimum Payment Sample (Credit cards) (§ 1026.7(b))




</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(E) [Reserved]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(F) Periodic Statement Form


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(G) Periodic Statement Form


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-18(H) Deferred Interest Periodic Statement Clause
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-19 Checks Accessing a Credit Card Account Sample (§ 1026.9(b)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-20 Change-in-Terms Sample (Increase in Annual Percentage Rate) (§ 1026.9(c)(2))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-21 Change-in-Terms Sample (Increase in Fees) (§ 1026.9(c)(2))


</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-22 Penalty Rate Increase Sample (Payment 60 or Fewer Days Late) (§ 1026.9(g)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-23 Penalty Rate Increase Sample (Payment More Than 60 Days Late) (§ 1026.9(g)(3))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-24 Deferred Interest Offer Clauses (§ 1026.16(h))
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-25(A) Consent Form for Over-the-Limit Transactions (§ 1026.56)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>G-25(B) Revocation Notice for Periodic Statement Regarding Over-the-Limit Transactions (§ 1026.56)
</FP-2>
<HD1>G-1—Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<FP-2>(a) Adjusted Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “adjusted balance” of your account. We get the “adjusted balance” by taking the balance you owed at the end of the previous billing cycle and subtracting [any unpaid finance charges and] any payments and credits received during the present billing cycle.
</P>
<FP-2>(b) Previous Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the beginning of each billing cycle [minus any unpaid finance charges]. We do not subtract any payments or credits received during the billing cycle. [The amount of payments and credits to your account this billing cycle was $ ________.]
</P>
<FP-2>(c) Average Daily Balance Method (Excluding Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account (excluding current transactions). To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day and subtract any payments or credits [and any unpaid finance charges]. We do not add in any new [purchases/advances/loans]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add all the daily balances for the billing cycle together and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<FP-2>(d) Average Daily Balance Method (Including Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account (including current transactions). To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/loans], and subtract any payments or credits, [and unpaid finance charges]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add up all the daily balances for the billing cycle and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<FP-2>(e) Ending Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the end of each billing cycle (including new purchases and deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle).
</P>
<FP-2>(f) Daily Balance Method (Including Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure [a portion of] the finance charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “daily balance” of your account for each day in the billing cycle. To get the “daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance.
</P>
<FP-1>G-1(A)—Balance Computation Methods Model Clauses (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</FP-1>
<FP-2>(a) Adjusted Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “adjusted balance” of your account. We get the “adjusted balance” by taking the balance you owed at the end of the previous billing cycle and subtracting [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments and credits received during the present billing cycle.
</P>
<FP-2>(b) Previous Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the beginning of each billing cycle. We do not subtract any payments or credits received during the billing cycle.
</P>
<FP-2>(c) Average Daily Balance Method (Excluding Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account. To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. We do not add in any new [purchases/advances/fees]. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add all the daily balances for the billing cycle together and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<FP-2>(d) Average Daily Balance Method (Including Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “average daily balance” of your account. To get the “average daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance. Then, we add up all the daily balances for the billing cycle and divide the total by the number of days in the billing cycle. This gives us the “average daily balance.”
</P>
<FP-2>(e) Ending Balance Method
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the amount you owe at the end of each billing cycle (including new [purchases/advances/fees] and deducting payments and credits made during the billing cycle).
</P>
<FP-2>(f) Daily Balance Method (Including Current Transactions)
</FP-2>
<P>We figure the interest charge on your account by applying the periodic rate to the “daily balance” of your account for each day in the billing cycle. To get the “daily balance” we take the beginning balance of your account each day, add any new [purchases/advances/fees], and subtract [any unpaid interest or other finance charges and] any payments or credits. This gives us the daily balance.
</P>
<FP-1>G-2—Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Home-Equity Plans)
</FP-1>
<P>You may be liable for the unauthorized use of your credit card [or other term that describes the credit card]. You will not be liable for unauthorized use that occurs after you notify [name of card issuer or its designee] at [address], orally or in writing, of the loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]] In any case, your liability will not exceed [insert $50 or any lesser amount under agreement with the cardholder].
</P>
<FP-1>G-2(A)—Liability for Unauthorized Use Model Clause (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</FP-1>
<P>If you notice the loss or theft of your credit card or a possible unauthorized use of your card, you should write to us immediately at: [address] [address listed on your bill],
</P>
<P>or call us at [telephone number].
</P>
<P>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]]
</P>
<P>You will not be liable for any unauthorized use that occurs after you notify us. You may, however, be liable for unauthorized use that occurs before your notice to us. In any case, your liability will not exceed [insert $50 or any lesser amount under agreement with the cardholder].
</P>
<HD1>G-3—Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD3>YOUR BILLING RIGHTS
</HD3>
<HD3>KEEP THIS NOTICE FOR FUTURE USE
</HD3>
<P>This notice contains important information about your rights and our responsibilities under the Fair Credit Billing Act.
</P>
<HD3>Notify Us in Case of Errors or Questions About Your Bill
</HD3>
<P>If you think your bill is wrong, or if you need more information about a transaction on your bill, write us [on a separate sheet] at [address] [the address listed on your bill]. Write to us as soon as possible. We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the first bill on which the error or problem appeared. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]] You can telephone us, but doing so will not preserve your rights.
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• Describe the error and explain, if you can, why you believe there is an error. If you need more information, describe the item you are not sure about.
</P>
<P>If you have authorized us to pay your credit card bill automatically from your savings or checking account, you can stop the payment on any amount you think is wrong. To stop the payment your letter must reach us three business days before the automatic payment is scheduled to occur.
</P>
<HD3>Your Rights and Our Responsibilities After We Receive Your Written Notice
</HD3>
<P>We must acknowledge your letter within 30 days, unless we have corrected the error by then. Within 90 days, we must either correct the error or explain why we believe the bill was correct.
</P>
<P>After we receive your letter, we cannot try to collect any amount you question, or report you as delinquent. We can continue to bill you for the amount you question, including finance charges, and we can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit. You do not have to pay any questioned amount while we are investigating, but you are still obligated to pay the parts of your bill that are not in question.
</P>
<P>If we find that we made a mistake on your bill, you will not have to pay any finance charges related to any questioned amount. If we didn't make a mistake, you may have to pay finance charges, and you will have to make up any missed payments on the questioned amount. In either case, we will send you a statement of the amount you owe and the date that it is due.
</P>
<P>If you fail to pay the amount that we think you owe, we may report you as delinquent. However, if our explanation does not satisfy you and you write to us within ten days telling us that you still refuse to pay, we must tell anyone we report you to that you have a question about your bill. And, we must tell you the name of anyone we reported you to. We must tell anyone we report you to that the matter has been settled between us when it finally is.
</P>
<P>If we don't follow these rules, we can't collect the first $50 of the questioned amount, even if your bill was correct.
</P>
<HD3>Special Rule for Credit Card Purchases
</HD3>
<P>If you have a problem with the quality of property or services that you purchased with a credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the property or services.
</P>
<P>There are two limitations on this right:
</P>
<P>(a) You must have made the purchase in your home state or, if not within your home state within 100 miles of your current mailing address; and
</P>
<P>(b) The purchase price must have been more than $50.
</P>
<P>These limitations do not apply if we own or operate the merchant, or if we mailed you the advertisement for the property or services.
</P>
<P>G-3(A)—Long-Form Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</P>
<HD2>Your Billing Rights: Keep This Document For Future Use
</HD2>
<P>This notice tells you about your rights and our responsibilities under the Fair Credit Billing Act.
</P>
<HD2>What To Do If You Find A Mistake On Your Statement
</HD2>
<P>If you think there is an error on your statement, write to us at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<P>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]]
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• <I>Account information:</I> Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• <I>Dollar amount:</I> The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• <I>Description of problem:</I> If you think there is an error on your bill, describe what you believe is wrong and why you believe it is a mistake.
</P>
<P>You must contact us:
</P>
<P>• Within 60 days after the error appeared on your statement.
</P>
<P>• At least 3 business days before an automated payment is scheduled, if you want to stop payment on the amount you think is wrong.
</P>
<P>You must notify us of any potential errors <I>in writing</I> [or electronically]. You may call us, but if you do we are not required to investigate any potential errors and you may have to pay the amount in question.
</P>
<HD2>What Will Happen After We Receive Your Letter
</HD2>
<P>When we receive your letter, we must do two things:
</P>
<P>1. Within 30 days of receiving your letter, we must tell you that we received your letter. We will also tell you if we have already corrected the error.
</P>
<P>2. Within 90 days of receiving your letter, we must either correct the error or explain to you why we believe the bill is correct.
</P>
<P>While we investigate whether or not there has been an error:
</P>
<P>• We cannot try to collect the amount in question, or report you as delinquent on that amount.
</P>
<P>• The charge in question may remain on your statement, and we may continue to charge you interest on that amount.
</P>
<P>• While you do not have to pay the amount in question, you are responsible for the remainder of your balance.
</P>
<P>• We can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit.
</P>
<P>After we finish our investigation, one of two things will happen:
</P>
<P>• <I>If we made a mistake:</I> You will not have to pay the amount in question or any interest or other fees related to that amount.
</P>
<P>• <I>If we do not believe there was a mistake:</I> You will have to pay the amount in question, along with applicable interest and fees. We will send you a statement of the amount you owe and the date payment is due. We may then report you as delinquent if you do not pay the amount we think you owe.
</P>
<P>If you receive our explanation but still believe your bill is wrong, you must write to us within <I>10 days</I> telling us that you still refuse to pay. If you do so, we cannot report you as delinquent without also reporting that you are questioning your bill. We must tell you the name of anyone to whom we reported you as delinquent, and we must let those organizations know when the matter has been settled between us.
</P>
<P>If we do not follow all of the rules above, you do not have to pay the first $50 of the amount you question even if your bill is correct.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights If You Are Dissatisfied With Your Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you are dissatisfied with the goods or services that you have purchased with your credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the purchase.
</P>
<P>To use this right, all of the following must be true:
</P>
<P>1. The purchase must have been made in your home state or within 100 miles of your current mailing address, and the purchase price must have been more than $50. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Neither of these are necessary if your purchase was based on an advertisement we mailed to you, or if we own the company that sold you the goods or services.)
</P>
<P>2. You must have used your credit card for the purchase. Purchases made with cash advances from an ATM or with a check that accesses your credit card account do not qualify.
</P>
<P>3. You must not yet have fully paid for the purchase.
</P>
<P>If all of the criteria above are met and you are still dissatisfied with the purchase, contact us <I>in writing</I> [or electronically] at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<P>[[Creditor Web or email address]]
</P>
<P>While we investigate, the same rules apply to the disputed amount as discussed above. After we finish our investigation, we will tell you our decision. At that point, if we think you owe an amount and you do not pay, we may report you as delinquent.
</P>
<HD1>G-4—Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD3>BILLING RIGHTS SUMMARY
</HD3>
<HD2>In Case of Errors or Questions About Your Bill
</HD2>
<P>If you think your bill is wrong, or if you need more information about a transaction on your bill, write us [on a separate sheet] at [address] [the address shown on your bill] as soon as possible. [You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address].] We must hear from you no later than 60 days after we sent you the first bill on which the error or problem appeared. You can telephone us, but doing so will not preserve your rights.
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• Describe the error and explain, if you can, why you believe there is an error. If you need more information, describe the item you are unsure about.
</P>
<P>You do not have to pay any amount in question while we are investigating, but you are still obligated to pay the parts of your bill that are not in question. While we investigate your question, we cannot report you as delinquent or take any action to collect the amount you question.
</P>
<HD2>Special Rule for Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you have a problem with the quality of goods or services that you purchased with a credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may not have to pay the remaining amount due on the goods or services. You have this protection only when the purchase price was more than $50 and the purchase was made in your home state or within 100 miles of your mailing address. (If we own or operate the merchant, or if we mailed you the advertisement for the property or services, all purchases are covered regardless of amount or location of purchase.)
</P>
<HD1>G-4(A)—Alternative Billing-Error Rights Model Form (Plans Other Than Home-Equity Plans)
</HD1>
<HD2>What To Do If You Think You Find A Mistake On Your Statement
</HD2>
<P>If you think there is an error on your statement, write to us at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<P>[You may also contact us on the Web: [Creditor Web or email address]]
</P>
<P>In your letter, give us the following information:
</P>
<P>• <I>Account information:</I> Your name and account number.
</P>
<P>• <I>Dollar amount:</I> The dollar amount of the suspected error.
</P>
<P>• <I>Description of Problem:</I> If you think there is an error on your bill, describe what you believe is wrong and why you believe it is a mistake.
</P>
<P>You must contact us within 60 days after the error appeared on your statement.
</P>
<P>You must notify us of any potential errors <I>in writing</I> [or electronically]. You may call us, but if you do we are not required to investigate any potential errors and you may have to pay the amount in question.
</P>
<P>While we investigate whether or not there has been an error, the following are true:
</P>
<P>• We cannot try to collect the amount in question, or report you as delinquent on that amount.
</P>
<P>• The charge in question may remain on your statement, and we may continue to charge you interest on that amount. But, if we determine that we made a mistake, you will not have to pay the amount in question or any interest or other fees related to that amount.
</P>
<P>• While you do not have to pay the amount in question, you are responsible for the remainder of your balance.
</P>
<P>• We can apply any unpaid amount against your credit limit.
</P>
<HD2>Your Rights If You Are Dissatisfied With Your Credit Card Purchases
</HD2>
<P>If you are dissatisfied with the goods or services that you have purchased with your credit card, and you have tried in good faith to correct the problem with the merchant, you may have the right not to pay the remaining amount due on the purchase.
</P>
<P>To use this right, all of the following must be true:
</P>
<P>1. The purchase must have been made in your home state or within 100 miles of your current mailing address, and the purchase price must have been more than $50. (<E T="04">Note:</E> Neither of these is necessary if your purchase was based on an advertisement we mailed to you, or if we own the company that sold you the goods or services.)
</P>
<P>2. You must have used your credit card for the purchase. Purchases made with cash advances from an ATM or with a check that accesses your credit card account do not qualify.
</P>
<P>3. You must not yet have fully paid for the purchase.
</P>
<P>If all of the criteria above are met and you are still dissatisfied with the purchase, contact us <I>in writing</I> [or electronically] at:
</P>
<P>[Creditor Name]
</P>
<P>[Creditor Address]
</P>
<P>[[Creditor Web address]]
</P>
<P>While we investigate, the same rules apply to the disputed amount as discussed above. After we finish our investigation, we will tell you our decision. At that point, if we think you owe an amount and you do not pay we may report you as delinquent.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.008.gif"/>
<HD1>G-10(B) APPLICATIONS AND SOLICITATIONS SAMPLE (CREDIT CARDS)





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.006.gif"/>
<HD1>G-10(C) APPLICATIONS AND SOLICITATIONS SAMPLE (CREDIT CARDS)





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.011a.gif"/>
<HD1>G-10(E) Applications and Solicitations Sample (Charge Cards)





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.008.gif"/>
<HD1>G-11—Applications and Solicitations Made Available to the General Public Model Clauses
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) Disclosure of Required Credit Information
</HD2>
<P>The information about the costs of the card described in this [application]/[solicitation] is accurate as of (<I>month/year</I>). This information may have changed after that date. To find out what may have changed, [call us at (<I>telephone number</I>)][write to us at (<I>address</I>)].
</P>
<HD2>(b) No Disclosure of Credit Information
</HD2>
<P>There are costs associated with the use of this card. To obtain information about these costs, call us at (<I>telephone number</I>) or write to us at (<I>address</I>).
</P>
<HD1>G-12 [Reserved]
</HD1>
<HD1>G-13(A)—Change in Insurance Provider Model Form (Combined Notice)
</HD1>
<P>The credit card account you have with us is insured. This is to notify you that we plan to replace your current coverage with insurance coverage from a different insurer.
</P>
<P>If we obtain insurance for your account from a different insurer, you may cancel the insurance.
</P>
<P>[Your premium rate will increase to $ ____ per ____.]
</P>
<P>[Your coverage will be affected by the following:
</P>
<P>[ ] The elimination of a type of coverage previously provided to you. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A lowering of the age at which your coverage will terminate or will become more restrictive. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A decrease in your maximum insurable loan balance, maximum periodic benefit payment, maximum number of payments, or any other decrease in the dollar amount of your coverage or benefits. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A restriction on the eligibility for benefits for you or others. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] A restriction in the definition of “disability” or other key term of coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] The addition of exclusions or limitations that are broader or other than those under the current coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details.]
</P>
<P>[ ] An increase in the elimination (waiting) period or a change to nonretroactive coverage. [(explanation)] [See ____ of the attached policy or certificate for details).]
</P>
<P>[The name and mailing address of the new insurer providing the coverage for your account is (name and address).]
</P>
<HD1>G-13(B)—Change in Insurance Provider Model Form
</HD1>
<P>We have changed the insurer providing the coverage for your account. The new insurer's name and address are (name and address). A copy of the new policy or certificate is attached.
</P>
<P>You may cancel the insurance for your account.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.019.gif"/>
<HD1>G-16(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [insert name of program], and bill my account the fee of [how cost is determined]. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>[To Enroll, Sign Here]/[To Enroll, Initial Here]. X____________________
</P>
<HD1>G-16(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [name of program], and bill my account the fee of $.83 per $100 of my month-end account balance. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>To Enroll, Initial Here. X____________________
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.020.gif"/>
<HD1>G-17(B) ACCOUNT-OPENING SAMPLE





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.009.gif"/>
<HD1>G-17(C) ACCOUNT-OPENING SAMPLE



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.023.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(A) PERIODIC STATEMEMT TRANSACTIONS; INTEREST CHARGES; FEES SAMPLE



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.011.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(B) LATE PAYMENT FEE SAMPLE



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.026a.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(D) PERIODIC STATEMENT NEW BALANCE, DUE DATE, LATE PAYMENT AND MINIMUM PAYMENT SAMPLE (CREDIT CARDS)



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.013.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(E) [Reserved]







</HD1>
<HD1>G-18(F) PERIODIC STATEMENT FORM



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.015.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(G) PERIODIC STATEMENT FORM



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.017.gif"/>
<HD1>G-18(H)—Deferred Interest Periodic Statement Clause



</HD1>
<P>[You must pay your promotional balance in full by [date] to avoid paying accrued interest charges.]
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.031.gif"/>
<HD1>G-21 CHANGE-IN-TERMS SAMPLE (INCREASE IN FEES)



</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er15mr24.018.gif"/>
<HD1>G-24—Deferred Interest Offer Clauses
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) For Credit Card Accounts Under an Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Consumer Credit Plan
</HD2>
<P>[Interest will be charged to your account from the purchase date if the purchase balance is not paid in full within the/by [deferred interest period/date] or if you make a late payment.]
</P>
<HD2>(b) For Other Open-End Plans
</HD2>
<P>[Interest will be charged to your account from the purchase date if the purchase balance is not paid in full within the/by [deferred interest period/date] or if your account is otherwise in default.]
</P>
<HD1>G-25(A)—Consent Form for Over-the-Credit Limit Transactions
</HD1>
<HD2>Your Choice Regarding Over-the-Credit Limit Coverage
</HD2>
<P>Unless you tell us otherwise, we will decline any transaction that causes you to go over your credit limit. If you want us to authorize these transactions, you can request over-the-credit limit coverage.
</P>
<P>If you have over-the-credit limit coverage and you go over your credit limit, we will charge you a fee of up to $35. We may also increase your APRs to the Penalty APR of XX.XX%. You will only pay one fee per billing cycle, even if you go over your limit multiple times in the same cycle.
</P>
<P>Even if you request over-the-credit limit coverage, in some cases we may still decline a transaction that would cause you to go over your limit, such as if you are past due or significantly over your credit limit.
</P>
<P>If you want over-the-limit coverage and to allow us to authorize transactions that go over your credit limit, please:
</P>
<FP-1>—Call us at [telephone number];
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Visit [Web site]; or
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Check or initial the box below, and return the form to us at [address].
</FP-1>
<FP-1>____________________
</FP-1>
<P>__ I want over-the-limit coverage. I understand that if I go over my credit limit, my APRs may be increased and I will be charged a fee of up to $35. [I have the right to cancel this coverage at any time.]
</P>
<P>[__ I <I>do not</I> want over-the-limit coverage. I understand that transactions that exceed my credit limit will not be authorized.] 
</P>
<FP-DASH>Printed Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Account Number]:
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>G-25(B)—Revocation Notice for Periodic Statement Regarding Over-the-Credit Limit Transactions
</HD1>
<P>You currently have over-the-credit limit coverage on your account, which means that we pay transactions that cause you go to over your credit limit. If you do go over your credit limit, we will charge you a fee of up to $35. We may also increase your APRs. To remove over-the-credit-limit coverage from your account, call us at 1-800-xxxxxxx or visit [insert Web site].
</P>
<P>[You may also write us at: [insert address].]
</P>
<P>[You may also check or initial the box below and return this form to us at: [insert address].
</P>
<P>__ I want to cancel over-the-limit coverage for my account.
</P>
<FP-DASH>Printed Name:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date:
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>[Account Number]:


</FP-DASH>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix H" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.8" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix H to Part 1026—Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses




</HEAD>
<FP-1>H-1 Credit Sale Model Form (§ 1026.18)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-2 Loan Model Form (§ 1026.18)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-3 Amount Financed Itemization Model Form (§ 1026.18(c))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(A) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 1026.18(f)(1))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(B) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 1026.18(f)(2))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(C) Variable-Rate Model Clauses (§ 1026.19(b))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(D)(1) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Model Form (§ 1026.20(c))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(D)(2) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Sample Form (§ 1026.20(c))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(D)(3) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Model Form (§ 1026.20(d))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(D)(4) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Sample Form (§ 1026.20(d))




</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(E) Fixed-Rate Mortgage Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(F) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage or Step-Rate Mortgage Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(G) Mortgage with Negative Amortization Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(H) Fixed-Rate Mortgage with Interest-Only Interest Rate and Payment Summary Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(I) Adjustable-Rate Mortgage Introductory Rate Disclosure Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s)(2)(iii))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(J) Balloon Payment Disclosure Model Clause (§ 1026.18(s)(5))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-4(K) No Guarantee to Refinance Statement Model Clause (§ 1026.18(t))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-5 Demand Feature Model Clauses (§ 1026.18(i))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-6 Assumption Policy Model Clause (§ 1026.18(q))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-7 Required Deposit Model Clause (§ 1026.18(r))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-8 Rescission Model Form (General) (§ 1026.23)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-9 Rescission Model Form (Refinancing (with Original Creditor)) (§ 1026.23)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-10 Credit Sale Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-11 Installment Loan Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-12 Refinancing Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-13 Closed-End Transaction With Demand Feature Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-14 Variable-Rate Mortgage Sample (§ 1026.19(b))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-15 Closed-End Graduated-Payment Transaction Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-16 Mortgage Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-17(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-17(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-18 Private Education Loan Application and Solicitation Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-19 Private Education Loan Approval Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-20 Private Education Loan Final Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-21 Private Education Loan Application and Solicitation Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-22 Private Education Loan Approval Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-23 Private Education Loan Final Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Fixed Rate Loan Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Interest Only Adjustable Rate Loan Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Refinance Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Balloon Payment Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Negative Amortization Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Modification to Loan Estimate for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Model Form


</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-24(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model Form for PACE Transactions


</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Fixed Rate Loan Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Borrower Funds From Second-Lien Loan in Summaries of Transactions Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Borrower Satisfaction of Seller's Second-Lien Loan Outside of Closing in Summaries of Transactions Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction Sample (amount in excess of § 1026.19(e)(3))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction With Cash From Consumer at Consummation Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Cost Details—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(I) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Disclosure Provided to Seller—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(J) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Model Form


</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-25(K) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form for PACE Transactions 




</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-26 Mortgage Loan Transaction—Pre-Loan Estimate Statement—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-27(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction —Written List of Providers—Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-27(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction—Sample of Written List of Providers
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-27(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction—Sample of Written List of Providers with Services You Cannot Shop For
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Purchase Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Refinance Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Balloon Payment Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Negative Amortization Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Purchase Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Refinance Sample
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(I) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Modification to Loan Estimate for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Spanish Language Model Form
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(J) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Spanish Language Model Form


</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(K) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model Form for PACE Transactions—Spanish Language Model Form


</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-28(L) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form for PACE Transactions—Spanish Language Model Form






</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-29 Escrow Cancellation Notice Model Form (§ 1026.20(e)) 
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(A) Sample Form of Periodic Statement (§ 1026.41)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(B) Sample Form of Periodic Statement with Delinquency Box (§ 1026.41)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(C) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for a Payment-Option Loan (§ 1026.41)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(D) Sample Clause for Homeownership Counselor Contact Information (§ 1026.41)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(E) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for Consumer in Chapter 7 or Chapter 11 Bankruptcy
</FP-1>
<FP-1>H-30(F) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for Consumer in Chapter 12 or Chapter 13 Bankruptcy


</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.035.gif"/>
<HD1>H-4(C)—Variable Rate Model Clauses
</HD1>
<P>This disclosure describes the features of the adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) program you are considering. Information on other ARM programs is available upon request.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate and Payment Are Determined
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate will be based on [an index plus a margin] [a formula].
</P>
<P>• Your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and loan term.
</P>
<FP-1>—[The interest rate will be based on (identification of index) plus our margin. Ask for our current interest rate and margin.]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—[The interest rate will be based on (identification of formula). Ask us for our current interest rate.]
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—Information about the index [formula for rate adjustments] is published [can be found] ______.
</FP-1>
<FP-1>—[The initial interest rate is not based on the (index) (formula) used to make later adjustments. Ask us for the amount of current interest rate discounts.]
</FP-1>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate can change (frequency).
</P>
<P>• [Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than ____ percentage points at each adjustment.]
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase [or decrease] more than ____ percentage points over the term of the loan.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Payment Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your payment can change (frequency) based on changes in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>• [Your payment cannot increase more than (amount or percentage) at each adjustment.]
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 210, but no more than 240, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after the initial interest rate adjustment of the loan. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 60, but no more than 120, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after any interest rate adjustment resulting in a corresponding payment change. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<P>• [For example, on a $10,000 [term] loan with an initial interest rate of ____ [(the rate shown in the interest rate column below for the year 19 ____)] [(in effect (month) (year)], the maximum amount that the interest rate can rise under this program is ____ percentage points, to ____%, and the monthly payment can rise from a first-year payment of $____ to a maximum of $____ in the ____ year. To see what your payments would be, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × ____ = $____ per month.)]
</P>
<HD2>[Example
</HD2>
<P>The example below shows how your payments would have changed under this ARM program based on actual changes in the index from 1982 to 1996. This does not necessarily indicate how your index will change in the future.
</P>
<P>The example is based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">——.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Change date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">——.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(frequency).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(frequency).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">[Margin] *</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">——.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Caps ____ [periodic interest rate cap].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">____ [lifetime interest rate cap.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">____ [payment cap].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Interest rate carryover].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Negative amortization].
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">[Interest rate discount].**
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Index(identification of index or formula).
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This is a margin we have used recently, your margin may be different.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** This is the amount of a discount we have provided recently; your loan may be discounted by a different amount.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Margin
<br/>(percentage
<br/>points)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest
<br/>rate
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly
<br/>payment
<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>balance
<br/>($)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1982</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1985</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1986</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1987</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1988</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> To see what your payments would have been during that period, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, in 1996 the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 taken out in 1982 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × ____ = $____ per month.)</P></DIV></DIV>
<img src="/graphics/er14fe13.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08de21.004.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08de21.001.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08de21.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08de21.002.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er08de21.003.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14fe13.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.039.gif"/>
<HD1>H-4(I)—Introductory Rate Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>[Introductory Rate Notice
</P>
<P>You have a discounted introductory rate of ____ % that ends after (period).
</P>
<P>In the (period in sequence), even if market rates do not change, this rate will increase to ____ %.]
</P>
<HD1>H-4(J)—Balloon Payment Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>[Final Balloon Payment due (date): $________]
</P>
<HD1>H-4(K)—“No-Guarantee-to-Refinance” Statement Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>There is no guarantee that you will be able to refinance to lower your rate and payments.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.041.gif"/>
<HD1>H-9—Rescission Model Form (Refinancing With Original Creditor)
</HD1>
<HD3>NOTICE OF RIGHT TO CANCEL
</HD3>
<HD3>Your Right To Cancel
</HD3>
<P>You are entering into a new transaction to increase the amount of credit previously provided to you. Your home is the security for this new transaction. You have a legal right under Federal law to cancel this new transaction, without cost, within three business days from whichever of the following events occurs last:
</P>
<P>(1) the date of this new transaction, which is ____________; or
</P>
<P>(2) the date you received your new Truth in Lending disclosures; or
</P>
<P>(3) the date you received this notice of your right to cancel.
</P>
<P>If you cancel this new transaction, it will not affect any amount that you presently owe. Your home is the security for that amount. Within 20 calendar days after we receive your notice of cancellation of this new transaction, we must take the steps necessary to reflect the fact that your home does not secure the increase of credit. We must also return any money you have given to us or anyone else in connection with this new transaction.
</P>
<P>You may keep any money we have given you in this new transaction until we have done the things mentioned above, but you must then offer to return the money at the address below.
</P>
<P>If we do not take possession of the money within 20 calendar days of your offer, you may keep it without further obligation.
</P>
<HD3>How To Cancel
</HD3>
<P>If you decide to cancel this new transaction, you may do so by notifying us in writing, at
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(Creditor's name and business address).
</FP>
<P>You may use any written statement that is signed and dated by you and states your intention to cancel, or you may use this notice by dating and signing below. Keep one copy of this notice because it contains important information about your rights.
</P>
<P>If you cancel by mail or telegram, you must send the notice no later than midnight of
</P>
<FP-DASH>
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>(Date)
</FP-DASH>
<FP>(or midnight of the third business day following the latest of the three events listed above).
</FP>
<P>If you send or deliver your written notice to cancel some other way, it must be delivered to the above address no later than that time.
</P>
<HD3>I WISH TO CANCEL
</HD3>
<FP-DASH>Consumer's Signature
</FP-DASH>
<FP-DASH>Date
</FP-DASH>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.044.gif"/>
<HD1>H-13—Closed-End Transaction With Demand Feature Sample

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.004.gif"/>
<FP-1>H-14—Variable Rate Mortgage Sample
</FP-1>
<P>This disclosure describes the features of the adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) program you are considering. Information on other ARM programs is available upon request.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate and Payment Are Determined
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate will be based on an index rate plus a margin.
</P>
<P>• Your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and loan term.
</P>
<P>—The interest rate will be based on the weekly average yield on United States Treasury securities adjusted to a constant maturity of 1 year (your index), plus our margin. Ask us for our current interest rate and margin.
</P>
<P>—Information about the index rate is published weekly in the Wall Street Journal.
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate will equal the index rate plus our margin unless your interest rate “caps” limit the amount of change in the interest rate.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Interest Rate Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your interest rate can change yearly.
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than 2 percentage points per year.
</P>
<P>• Your interest rate cannot increase or decrease more than 5 percentage points over the term of the loan.
</P>
<HD2>How Your Monthly Payment Can Change
</HD2>
<P>• Your monthly payment can increase or decrease substantially based on annual changes in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>• [For example, on a $10,000, 30-year loan with an initial interest rate of 12.41 percent in effect in July 1996, the maximum amount that the interest rate can rise under this program is 5 percentage points, to 17.41 percent, and the monthly payment can rise from a first-year payment of $106.03 to a maximum of $145.34 in the fourth year. To see what your payment is, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × 106.03 = $636.18 per month.)]
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 210, but no more than 240, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after the initial interest rate adjustment of the loan. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 60, but no more than 120, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after any interest rate adjustment resulting in a corresponding payment change. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<HD2>[Example
</HD2>
<P>The example below shows how your payments would have changed under this ARM program based on actual changes in the index from 1982 to 1996. This does not necessarily indicate how your index will change in the future. The example is based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">$10,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Term</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30 years.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest adjustment</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1 year.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Margin</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">3 percentage points.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Caps 2 percentage points annual interest rate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">5 percentage points lifetime interest rate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="2" scope="row">Index Weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Year
<br/>(as of 1st week ending in July)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Index
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Margin *
<br/>(percentage points)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest
<br/>rate
<br/>(%)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Monthly
<br/>payment
<br/>($)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Remaining
<br/>balance
<br/>($)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1982</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,989.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1983</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">* * 15.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">129.81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,969.66
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1984</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">127.91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,945.51
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1985</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">** 13.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">112.43</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,903.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1986</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,848.94
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1987</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,786.98
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1988</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.52</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,716.88
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1989</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.97</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,637.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1990</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,547.83
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1991</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,446.29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1992</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.96</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,331.56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1993</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.42</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,201.61
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1994</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.47</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9,054.72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1995</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.53</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,888.52
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1996</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5.82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*** 12.41</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">106.73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8,700.37
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* This is a margin we have used recently; your margin may be different.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">** This interest rate reflects a 2 percentage point annual interest rate cap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">*** This interest rate reflects a 5 percentage point lifetime interest rate cap.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note"><E T="02">Note:</E> To see what your payments would have been during that period, divide your mortgage amount by $10,000; then multiply the monthly payment by that amount. (For example, in 1996 the monthly payment for a mortgage amount of $60,000 taken out in 1982 would be: $60,000 ÷ $10,000 = 6; 6 × $106.73 = $640.38.)]</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 210, but no more than 240, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after the initial interest rate adjustment of the loan. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]
</P>
<P>• [You will be notified at least 60, but no more than 120, days before first payment at the adjusted level is due after any interest rate adjustment resulting in a corresponding payment change. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.]

</P>
<HD1>H-15 Closed-End Graduated Payment Transaction Sample

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.005.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.049.gif"/>
<HD1>H-17(A) Debt Suspension Model Clause
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [insert name of program], and bill my account the fee of [insert charge for the initial term of coverage]. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>[To Enroll, Sign Here]/[To Enroll, Initial Here].
</P>
<FP-DASH>X
</FP-DASH>
<HD1>H-17(B) Debt Suspension Sample
</HD1>
<P>Please enroll me in the optional [name of program], and bill my account the fee of $200.00. I understand that enrollment is not required to obtain credit. I also understand that depending on the event, the protection may only temporarily suspend my duty to make minimum payments, not reduce the balance I owe. I understand that my balance will actually grow during the suspension period as interest continues to accumulate.
</P>
<P>To Enroll, Initial Here.
</P>
<FP-DASH>X
</FP-DASH>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.050.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.051.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.052.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.053.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.054.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.055.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.056.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.057.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.058.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.059.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.060.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.061.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Loan Estimate that illustrates the application of the content requirements in § 1026.37. This form provides two variations of page one, four variations of page two, and four variations of page three, reflecting the variable content requirements in § 1026.37.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.014.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.015.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Fixed Rate Loan Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Loan Estimate for a fixed rate loan. This loan is for the purchase of property at a sale price of $180,000 and has a loan amount of $162,000, a 30-year loan term, a fixed interest rate of 3.875 percent, and a prepayment penalty equal to 2.00 percent of the outstanding principal balance of the loan for the first two years after consummation of the transaction. The consumer has elected to lock the interest rate. The creditor requires an escrow account and that the consumer pay for private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.018.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Interest Only Adjustable Rate Loan Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Loan Estimate for an adjustable rate loan with interest only payments. This loan is for the purchase of property at a sale price of $240,000 and has a loan amount of $211,000 and a 30-year loan term. For the first five years of the loan term, the scheduled payments cover only interest and the loan has an introductory interest rate that is fixed at 4.00 percent. After five years, the payments include principal and the interest rate adjusts every three years based on the value of the Monthly Treasury Average index plus a margin of 4.00 percent. The consumer has elected to lock the interest rate. The creditor does not require an escrow account with the loan. The creditor requires that the consumer pay for private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.021.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Refinance Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Loan Estimate for a transaction that is for a refinance of an existing mortgage loan that secures the property, for which the consumer is estimated to receive funds from the transaction. The estimated property value is $180,000, the loan amount is $150,000, the estimated outstanding balance of the existing mortgage loan is $120,000, and the interest rate is 4.25 percent. The consumer has elected to lock the interest rate. The creditor requires an escrow account and that the consumer pay for private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.024.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Balloon Payment Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required by § 1026.37(a) through (c) for a transaction with a loan term of seven years that includes a final balloon payment.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.025.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Negative Amortization Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required by § 1026.37(a) and (b) for a transaction with negative amortization.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.026.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Modification to Loan Estimate for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Loan Estimate that illustrates the application of the content requirements in § 1026.37, with the optional alternative tables permitted by § 1026.37(d)(2) and (h)(2) for transactions without a seller. This form provides one variation of page one, four variations of page two, and four variations of page three, reflecting the variable content requirements in § 1026.37.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.027.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.029.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.035.gif"/>
<HD1>H-24(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model  Form for PACE Transactions





</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.006.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.007.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.009.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.010.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.011.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.012.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.013.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.014.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Closing Disclosure that illustrates the content requirements in § 1026.38. This form provides three variations of page one, one page two, one page three, four variations of page four, and four variations of page five, reflecting the variable content requirements in § 1026.38. This form does not reflect modifications permitted under § 1026.38(t).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.044.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.047.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.048.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.049.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Fixed Rate Loan Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Closing Disclosure for the fixed rate loan illustrated by form H-24(B). The purpose, product, sale price, loan amount, loan term, and interest rate have not changed from the estimates provided on the Loan Estimate. The creditor requires an escrow account and that the consumer pay for private mortgage insurance for the transaction.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.050.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.051.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.052.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.053.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.054.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Borrower Funds From Second-Lien Loan in Summaries of Transactions Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required on the Closing Disclosure by § 1026.38(j) for disclosure of consumer funds from a simultaneous second-lien credit transaction not otherwise disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(2)(iii) or (iv) that is used to finance part of the purchase price of the property subject to the transaction.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.055.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Borrower Satisfaction of Seller's Second-Lien Loan Outside of Closing in Summaries of Transactions Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required on the Closing Disclosure by § 1026.38(j) and (k) for the satisfaction of a junior-lien transaction by the consumer, which was not paid from closing funds.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.056.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Closing Disclosure for the refinance transaction illustrated by form H-24(D). The purpose, loan amount, loan term, and interest rate have not changed from the estimates provided on the Loan Estimate. The outstanding balance of the existing mortgage loan securing the property was less than estimated on the Loan Estimate. The creditor requires an escrow account and that the consumer pay for private mortgage insurance for the transaction.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.057.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.058.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.059.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.060.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.061.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction Sample (Amount in Excess of § 1026.19(e)(3))
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the completed disclosures required by § 1026.38(e) and (h) for a completed Closing Disclosure for the refinance transaction illustrated by form H-24(D). The Closing Costs have increased in excess of the good faith requirements of § 1026.19(e)(3) by $200, for which the creditor has provided a refund under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.062.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Refinance Transaction With Cash From Consumer at Consummation
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of a completed Closing Disclosure for a refinance transaction in which the consumer must pay additional funds to satisfy the existing mortgage loan securing the property and other existing debt to consummate the transaction.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.063.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.064.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.065.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.066.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.067.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Cost Details—Model Form

</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model form of the modification to Closing Cost Details permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(B).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.068.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.069.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(I) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Disclosure Provided to Seller—Model Form

</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model form of the modification permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(vi).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.070.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.071.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(J) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Model Form

</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model form of the alternative disclosures and modifications permitted by § 1026.38(d)(2), (e), and (t)(5)(vii) for transactions without a seller.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.072.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.073.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.074.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.075.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.076.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.077.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.078.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.079.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.080.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.081.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.082.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.083.gif"/>
<HD1>H-25(K) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form for PACE Transactions

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.015.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.016.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.017.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.022.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.023.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.024.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.025.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.026.gif"/>
<HD1>H-26 Mortgage Loan Transaction—Pre-Loan Estimate Statement—Model Form

</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a model of the statement required by § 1026.19(e)(2)(ii) to be stated at the top of the front of the first page of a written estimate of terms or costs specific to a consumer that is provided to a consumer before the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.084.gif"/>
<HD1>H-27(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction—Written List of Providers—Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model form for the written list of settlement service providers required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi) and the statement required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) that the consumer may select a settlement service provider that is not on the list.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.085.gif"/>
<HD1>H-27(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction—Sample of Written List of Providers
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Written List of Providers for the transaction in the sample Loan Estimate illustrated by form H-24(B).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.086.gif"/>
<HD1>H-27(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction—Sample of Written List of Providers With Services You Cannot Shop for
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Written List of Providers with information about the providers selected by the creditor for the charges disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.087.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(A) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Loan Estimate that illustrates the application of the content requirements in § 1026.37, and is translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii). This form provides two variations of page one, four variations of page two, and four variations of page three, reflecting the variable content requirements in § 1026.37.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.088.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.089.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.090.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.091.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.092.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.093.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.094.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.095.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.096.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.097.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(B) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Purchase Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Loan Estimate illustrated by form H-24(C) for a 5 Year Interest Only, 5/3 Adjustable Rate loan, translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.098.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.099.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.100.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(C) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Refinance Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Loan Estimate illustrated by form H-24(D) for a refinance transaction in which the consumer is estimated to receive funds from the transaction, translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.101.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.102.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.103.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(D) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Balloon Payment Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required by § 1026.37(a) through (c) for a transaction with a loan term of seven years that includes a final balloon payment illustrated by form H-24(E), translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.104.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(E) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Spanish Language Negative Amortization Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the information required by § 1026.37(a) and (b) for a transaction with negative amortization illustrated by form H-24(F), translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.105.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(F) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Closing Disclosure that illustrates the content requirements in § 1026.38, and is translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(viii). This form provides three variations of page one, one page two, one page three, four variations of page four, four variations of page five, and two variations of page six reflecting the variable content requirements in § 1026.38. This form does not reflect any other modifications permitted under § 1026.38(t).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.106.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.107.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.108.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.109.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.110.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.111.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.112.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.113.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.114.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.115.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.116.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.117.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.118.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.119.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.120.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(G) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Purchase Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Closing Disclosure illustrated by form H-25(B) translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(viii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.121.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.122.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.123.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.124.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.125.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.126.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(H) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Spanish Language Refinance Sample
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a sample of the Closing Disclosure illustrated by form H-25(E) translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(viii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.127.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.128.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.129.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.130.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.131.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.132.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(I) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Modification to Loan Estimate for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Spanish Language Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Loan Estimate that illustrates form H-24(G), with the optional alternative disclosures permitted by § 1026.37(d)(2) and (h)(2) for transactions without a seller, translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.133.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.134.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.135.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.136.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.137.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.138.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.139.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.140.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.141.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(J) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Modification to Closing Disclosure for Transaction Not Involving Seller—Spanish Language Model Form
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model Closing Disclosure that illustrates form H-25(J), with the alternative disclosures under § 1026.38(d)(2), (e), and (t)(5)(vii) for transactions without a seller, translated into the Spanish language as permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(viii).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.142.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.143.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.144.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.145.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.146.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.147.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.148.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.149.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er31de13.151.gif"/>
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<img src="/graphics/er31de13.153.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.154.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.155.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(K) Mortgage Loan Transaction Loan Estimate—Model Form for PACE Transactions—Spanish Language Model Form

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.027.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.028.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.029.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.030.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.031.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.032.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.033.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.034.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.035.gif"/>
<HD1>H-28(L) Mortgage Loan Transaction Closing Disclosure—Model Form for PACE Transactions—Spanish Language Model Form

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.036.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.044.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.045.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.046.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er10ja25.047.gif"/>
<HD1>H-29 Escrow Cancellation Notice Model Form (§ 1026.20(e))
</HD1>
<P><I>Description:</I> This is a blank model form of the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e).

</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31de13.156.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14fe13.008.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er14fe13.009.gif"/>
<HD1>H-30(C) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for a Payment-Option Loan

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc16.000.gif"/>
<HD1>H-30(D) Sample Clause for Homeownership Counselor Contact Information
</HD1>
<P><I>Housing Counselor Information:</I> If you would like counseling or assistance, you can contact the following:
</P>
<P>• U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD): For a list of homeownership counselors or counseling organizations in your area, go to <I>http://www.hud.gov/offices/hsg/sfh/hcc/hcs.cfm</I> or call 800-569-4287.

</P>
<HD1>H-30(E) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for Consumer in Chapter 7 or Chapter 11 Bankruptcy

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc16.001.gif"/>
<HD1>H-30(F) Sample Form of Periodic Statement for Consumer in Chapter 12 or Chapter 13 Bankruptcy

</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er19oc16.002.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 11008, Feb. 14, 2013; 78 FR 80130, Dec. 31, 2013; 80 FR 8776, Feb. 19, 2015; 81 FR 72390, Oct. 19, 2016; 86 FR 69782, Dec. 8, 2021]







</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix I" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.9" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix I to Part 1026 [Reserved]


</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix J" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.10" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix J to Part 1026—Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Closed-End Credit Transactions
</HEAD>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) Introduction
</HD1>
<P>(1) Section 1026.22(a) of Regulation Z provides that the annual percentage rate for other than open-end credit transactions shall be determined in accordance with either the actuarial method or the United States Rule method. This appendix contains an explanation of the actuarial method as well as equations, instructions and examples of how this method applies to single advance and multiple advance transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) Under the actuarial method, at the end of each unit-period (or fractional unit-period) the unpaid balance of the amount financed is increased by the finance charge earned during that period and is decreased by the total payment (if any) made at the end of that period. The determination of unit-periods and fractional unit-periods shall be consistent with the definitions and rules in paragraphs (b)(3), (4) and (5) of this section and the general equation in paragraph (b)(8) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) In contrast, under the United States Rule method, at the end of each payment period, the unpaid balance of the amount financed is increased by the finance charge earned during that payment period and is decreased by the payment made at the end of that payment period. If the payment is less than the finance charge earned, the adjustment of the unpaid balance of the amount financed is postponed until the end of the next payment period. If at that time the sum of the two payments is still less than the total earned finance charge for the two payment periods, the adjustment of the unpaid balance of the amount financed is postponed still another payment period, and so forth.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) Instructions and Equations for the Actuarial Method
</HD1>
<HD2>(1) General Rule
</HD2>
<P>The annual percentage rate shall be the nominal annual percentage rate determined by multiplying the unit-period rate by the number of unit-periods in a year.
</P>
<HD2>(2) Term of the Transaction
</HD2>
<P>The term of the transaction begins on the date of its consummation, except that if the finance charge or any portion of it is earned beginning on a later date, the term begins on the later date. The term ends on the date the last payment is due, except that if an advance is scheduled after that date, the term ends on the later date. For computation purposes, the length of the term shall be equal to the time interval between any point in time on the beginning date to the same point in time on the ending date.
</P>
<HD2>(3) Definitions of Time Intervals
</HD2>
<P>(i) A period is the interval of time between advances or between payments and includes the interval of time between the date the finance charge begins to be earned and the date of the first advance thereafter or the date of the first payment thereafter, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) A common period is any period that occurs more than once in a transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A standard interval of time is a day, week, semimonth, month, or a multiple of a week or a month up to, but not exceeding, 1 year.
</P>
<P>(iv) All months shall be considered equal. Full months shall be measured from any point in time on a given date of a given month to the same point in time on the same date of another month. If a series of payments (or advances) is scheduled for the last day of each month, months shall be measured from the last day of the given month to the last day of another month. If payments (or advances) are scheduled for the 29th or 30th of each month, the last day of February shall be used when applicable.
</P>
<HD2>(4) Unit-Period
</HD2>
<P>(i) In all transactions other than a single advance, single payment transaction, the unit-period shall be that common period, not to exceed 1 year, that occurs most frequently in the transaction, except that
</P>
<P>(A) If 2 or more common periods occur with equal frequency, the smaller of such common periods shall be the unit-period; or
</P>
<P>(B) If there is no common period in the transaction, the unit-period shall be that period which is the average of all periods rounded to the nearest whole standard interval of time. If the average is equally near 2 standard intervals of time, the lower shall be the unit-period.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a single advance, single payment transaction, the unit-period shall be the term of the transaction, but shall not exceed 1 year.
</P>
<HD2>(5) Number of Unit-Periods Between 2 Given Dates
</HD2>
<P>(i) The number of days between 2 dates shall be the number of 24-hour intervals between any point in time on the first date to the same point in time on the second date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unit-period is a month, the number of full unit-periods between 2 dates shall be the number of months measured back from the later date. The remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be the number of days measured forward from the earlier date to the beginning of the first full unit-period, divided by 30. If the unit-period is a month, there are 12 unit-periods per year.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the unit-period is a semimonth or a multiple of a month not exceeding 11 months, the number of days between 2 dates shall be 30 times the number of full months measured back from the later date, plus the number of remaining days. The number of full unit-periods and the remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be determined by dividing such number of days by 15 in the case of a semimonthly unit-period or by the appropriate multiple of 30 in the case of a multimonthly unit-period. If the unit-period is a semimonth, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 24. If the number of unit-periods is a multiple of a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the unit-period is a day, a week, or a multiple of a week, the number of full unit-periods and the remaining fractions of a unit-period shall be determined by dividing the number of days between the 2 given dates by the number of days per unit-period. If the unit-period is a day, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365. If the unit-period is a week or a multiple of a week, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 52 divided by the number of weeks per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(v) If the unit-period is a year, the number of full unit-periods between 2 dates shall be the number of full years (each equal to 12 months) measured back from the later date. The remaining fraction of a unit-period shall be
</P>
<P>(A) The remaining number of months divided by 12 if the remaining interval is equal to a whole number of months, or
</P>
<P>(B) The remaining number of days divided by 365 if the remaining interval is <I>not</I> equal to a whole number of months.
</P>
<P>(vi) In a single advance, single payment transaction in which the term is less than a year and is equal to a whole number of months, the number of unit-periods in the term shall be 1, and the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months in the term or 365 divided by the number of days in the term.
</P>
<P>(vii) In a single advance, single payment transaction in which the term is less than a year and is <I>not</I> equal to a whole number of months, the number of unit-periods in the term shall be 1, and the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365 divided by the number of days in the term.
</P>
<HD2>(6) Percentage Rate for a Fraction of a Unit-Period
</HD2>
<P>The percentage rate of finance charge for a fraction (less than 1) of a unit-period shall be equal to such fraction multiplied by the percentage rate of finance charge per unit-period.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.062.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.063.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.064.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.065.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.066.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.067.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.068.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.069.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.070.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.071.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix K" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.11" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix K to Part 1026—Total Annual Loan Cost Rate Computations for Reverse Mortgage Transactions
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Introduction.</I> Creditors are required to disclose a series of total annual loan cost rates for each reverse mortgage transaction. This appendix contains the equations creditors must use in computing the total annual loan cost rate for various transactions, as well as instructions, explanations, and examples for various transactions. This appendix is modeled after appendix J of this part (Annual Percentage Rates Computations for Closed-end Credit Transactions); creditors should consult appendix J of this part for additional guidance in using the formulas for reverse mortgages.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Instructions and equations for the total annual loan cost rate</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> The total annual loan cost rate shall be the nominal total annual loan cost rate determined by multiplying the unit-period rate by the number of unit-periods in a year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Term of the transaction.</I> For purposes of total annual loan cost disclosures, the term of a reverse mortgage transaction is assumed to begin on the first of the month in which consummation is expected to occur. If a loan cost or any portion of a loan cost is initially incurred beginning on a date later than consummation, the term of the transaction is assumed to begin on the first of the month in which that loan cost is incurred. For purposes of total annual loan cost disclosures, the term ends on each of the assumed loan periods specified in § 1026.33(c)(6).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definitions of time intervals.</I> (i) A <I>period</I> is the interval of time between advances.
</P>
<P>(ii) A <I>common period</I> is any period that occurs more than once in a transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) A <I>standard interval of time</I> is a day, week, semimonth, month, or a multiple of a week or a month up to, but not exceeding, 1 year.
</P>
<P>(iv) All months shall be considered to have an equal number of days.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Unit-period.</I> (i) In all transactions other than single-advance, single-payment transactions, the unit-period shall be that common period, not to exceed one year, that occurs most frequently in the transaction, except that:
</P>
<P>(A) If two or more common periods occur with equal frequency, the smaller of such common periods shall be the unit-period; or
</P>
<P>(B) If there is no common period in the transaction, the unit-period shall be that period which is the average of all periods rounded to the nearest whole standard interval of time. If the average is equally near two standard intervals of time, the lower shall be the unit-period.
</P>
<P>(ii) In a single-advance, single-payment transaction, the unit-period shall be the term of the transaction, but shall not exceed one year.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Number of unit-periods between two given dates.</I> (i) The number of days between two dates shall be the number of 24-hour intervals between any point in time on the first date to the same point in time on the second date.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the unit-period is a month, the number of full unit-periods between two dates shall be the number of months. If the unit-period is a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the unit-period is a semimonth or a multiple of a month not exceeding 11 months, the number of days between two dates shall be 30 times the number of full months. The number of full unit-periods shall be determined by dividing the number of days by 15 in the case of a semimonthly unit-period or by the appropriate multiple of 30 in the case of a multimonthly unit-period. If the unit-period is a semimonth, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 24. If the number of unit-periods is a multiple of a month, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 12 divided by the number of months per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the unit-period is a day, a week, or a multiple of a week, the number of full unit-periods shall be determined by dividing the number of days between the two given dates by the number of days per unit-period. If the unit-period is a day, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 365. If the unit-period is a week or a multiple of a week, the number of unit-periods per year shall be 52 divided by the number of weeks per unit-period.
</P>
<P>(v) If the unit-period is a year, the number of full unit-periods between two dates shall be the number of full years (each equal to 12 months).
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Symbols.</I> The symbols used to express the terms of a transaction in the equation set forth in paragraph (b)(8) of this appendix are defined as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>A<E T="52">j</E> = The amount of each periodic or lump-sum advance to the consumer under the reverse mortgage transaction.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>i = Percentage rate of the total annual loan cost per unit-period, expressed as a decimal equivalent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>j = The number of unit-periods until the jth advance.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>n = The number of unit-periods between consummation and repayment of the debt.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">n</E> = Min (Bal<E T="52">n</E>, Val<E T="52">n</E>). This is the maximum amount that the creditor can be repaid at the specified loan term.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Bal<E T="52">n</E> = Loan balance at time of repayment, including all costs and fees incurred by the consumer (including any shared appreciation or shared equity amount) compounded to time n at the creditor's contract rate of interest.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Val<E T="52">n</E> = Val<E T="52">0</E>(1 + σ)
<SU>y</SU>, where Val<E T="52">0</E> is the property value at consummation, σ is the assumed annual rate of appreciation for the dwelling, and y is the number of years in the assumed term. Val<E T="52">n</E> must be reduced by the amount of any equity reserved for the consumer by agreement between the parties, or by 7 percent (or the amount or percentage specified in the credit agreement), if the amount required to be repaid is limited to the net proceeds of sale.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>σ = The summation operator.
</FP-2>
<P>Symbols used in the examples shown in this appendix are defined as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.072.gif"/>
<FP-2>w = The number of unit-periods per year.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>I = wi × 100 = the nominal total annual loan cost rate.
</FP-2>
<P>(7) <I>General equation.</I> The total annual loan cost rate for a reverse mortgage transaction must be determined by first solving the following formula, which sets forth the relationship between the advances to the consumer and the amount owed to the creditor under the terms of the reverse mortgage agreement for the loan cost rate per unit-period (the loan cost rate per unit-period is then multiplied by the number of unit-periods per year to obtain the total annual loan cost rate I; that is, I = wi):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.073.gif"/>
<P>(8) <I>Solution of general equation by iteration process.</I> (i) The general equation in paragraph (b)(7) of this appendix, when applied to a simple transaction for a reverse mortgage loan of equal monthly advances of $350 each, and with a total amount owed of $14,313.08 at an assumed repayment period of two years, takes the special form:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.074.gif"/>
<FP>Using the iteration procedures found in steps 1 through 4 of (b)(9)(i) of appendix J of this part, the total annual loan cost rate, correct to two decimals, is 48.53%.
</FP>
<P>(ii) In using these iteration procedures, it is expected that calculators or computers will be programmed to carry all available decimals throughout the calculation and that enough iterations will be performed to make virtually certain that the total annual loan cost rate obtained, when rounded to two decimals, is correct. Total annual loan cost rates in the examples below were obtained by using a 10-digit programmable calculator and the iteration procedure described in appendix J of this part.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Assumption for discretionary cash advances.</I> If the consumer controls the timing of advances made after consummation (such as in a credit line arrangement), the creditor must use the general formula in paragraph (b)(7) of this appendix. The total annual loan cost rate shall be based on the assumption that 50 percent of the principal loan amount is advanced at closing, or in the case of an open-end transaction, at the time the consumer becomes obligated under the plan. Creditors shall assume the advances are made at the interest rate then in effect and that no further advances are made to, or repayments made by, the consumer during the term of the transaction or plan.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Assumption for variable-rate reverse mortgage transactions.</I> If the interest rate for a reverse mortgage transaction may increase during the loan term and the amount or timing is not known at consummation, creditors shall base the disclosures on the initial interest rate in effect at the time the disclosures are provided.
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Assumption for closing costs.</I> In calculating the total annual loan cost rate, creditors shall assume all closing and other consumer costs are financed by the creditor.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Examples of total annual loan cost rate computations</I>—(1) <I>Lump-sum advance at consummation.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Lump-sum advance to consumer at consummation: $30,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract interest rate: 11.60%
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 78): 10 years
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 4%
</FP-1>
<FP-2>P<E T="52">10</E> = Min (103,385.84, 137,662.72) 
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.075.gif"/>
<FP-2>i = .1317069438
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.1317069438 × 1)) = 13.17%
</FP-2>
<P>(2) <I>Monthly advance beginning at consummation.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Monthly advance to consumer, beginning at consummation: $492.51
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract interest rate: 9.00%
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 78): 10 years
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 8% 
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.076.gif"/>
<FP-1>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.009061140 × 12)) = 10.87%
</FP-1>
<P>(3) <I>Lump sum advance at consummation and monthly advances thereafter.</I>
</P>
<FP-1>Lump sum advance to consumer at consummation: $10,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Monthly advance to consumer, beginning at consummation: $725
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Total of consumer's loan costs financed at consummation: $4,500
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Contract rate of interest: 8.5%
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Estimated time of repayment (based on life expectancy of a consumer at age 75): 12 years
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Appraised value of dwelling at consummation: $100,000
</FP-1>
<FP-1>Assumed annual dwelling appreciation rate: 8% 
</FP-1>
<img src="/graphics/er22de11.077.gif"/>
<FP-2>Total annual loan cost rate (100(.007708844 × 12)) = 9.25%
</FP-2>
<P>(d) <I>Reverse mortgage model form and sample form</I>—(1) <I>Model form.</I>
</P>
<HD1>Total Annual Loan Cost Rate
</HD1>
<HD2>Loan Terms
</HD2>
<P>Age of youngest borrower:
</P>
<P>Appraised property value:
</P>
<P>Interest rate:
</P>
<P>Monthly advance:
</P>
<P>Initial draw:
</P>
<P>Line of credit:
</P>
<HD2>Initial Loan Charges
</HD2>
<P>Closing costs:
</P>
<P>Mortgage insurance premium:
</P>
<P>Annuity cost:
</P>
<HD2>Monthly Loan Charges
</HD2>
<P>Servicing fee:
</P>
<HD2>Other Charges:
</HD2>
<P>Mortgage insurance:
</P>
<P>Shared Appreciation:
</P>
<HD2>Repayment Limits
</HD2>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Assumed annual appreciation
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Total annual loan cost rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2-year loan term
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[ ]-year loan term
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[ ]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The cost of any reverse mortgage loan depends on how long you keep the loan and how much your house appreciates in value. Generally, the longer you keep a reverse mortgage, the lower the total annual loan cost rate will be.
</P>
<P>This table shows the estimated cost of your reverse mortgage loan, expressed as an annual rate. It illustrates the cost for three [four] loan terms: 2 years, [half of life expectancy for someone your age,] that life expectancy, and 1.4 times that life expectancy. The table also shows the cost of the loan, assuming the value of your home appreciates at three different rates: 0%, 4% and 8%.
</P>
<P>The total annual loan cost rates in this table are based on the total charges associated with this loan. These charges typically include principal, interest, closing costs, mortgage insurance premiums, annuity costs, and servicing costs (but not costs when you sell the home).
</P>
<P>The rates in this table are estimates. Your actual cost may differ if, for example, the amount of your loan advances varies or the interest rate on your mortgage changes.
</P>
<P>Signing an Application or Receiving These Disclosures Does Not Require You To Complete This Loan
</P>
<P>(2) Sample Form.
</P>
<HD1>Total Annual Loan Cost Rate
</HD1>
<HD2>Loan Terms
</HD2>
<P>Age of youngest borrower: 75
</P>
<P>Appraised property value: $100,000
</P>
<P>Interest rate: 9%
</P>
<P>Monthly advance: $301.80
</P>
<P>Initial draw: $1,000
</P>
<P>Line of credit: $4,000
</P>
<HD2>Initial Loan Charges
</HD2>
<P>Closing costs: $5,000
</P>
<P>Mortgage insurance premium: None
</P>
<P>Annuity cost: None
</P>
<HD1>Monthly Loan Charges
</HD1>
<P>Servicing fee: None
</P>
<HD1>Other Charges
</HD1>
<P>Mortgage insurance: None
</P>
<P>Shared Appreciation: None
</P>
<HD1>Repayment Limits
</HD1>
<P>Net proceeds estimated at 93% of projected home sale
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Assumed annual appreciation
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Total annual loan cost rate
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">2-year loan term
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">6-year loan term
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12-year loan term
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">17-year loan term
<br/>(percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.87
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">39.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[14.94]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.03</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.20</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>The cost of any reverse mortgage loan depends on how long you keep the loan and how much your house appreciates in value. Generally, the longer you keep a reverse mortgage, the lower the total annual loan cost rate will be.
</P>
<P>This table shows the estimated cost of your reverse mortgage loan, expressed as an annual rate. It illustrates the cost for three [four] loan terms: 2 years, [half of life expectancy for someone your age,] that life expectancy, and 1.4 times that life expectancy. The table also shows the cost of the loan, assuming the value of your home appreciates at three different rates: 0%, 4% and 8%.
</P>
<P>The total annual loan cost rates in this table are based on the total charges associated with this loan. These charges typically include principal, interest, closing costs, mortgage insurance premiums, annuity costs, and servicing costs (but not disposition costs—costs when you sell the home).
</P>
<P>The rates in this table are estimates. Your actual cost may differ if, for example, the amount of your loan advances varies or the interest rate on your mortgage changes.
</P>
<P>Signing an Application or Receiving These Disclosures Does Not Require You To Complete This Loan


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix L" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.12" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix L to Part 1026—Assumed Loan Periods for Computations of Total Annual Loan Cost Rates
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required tables.</I> In calculating the total annual loan cost rates in accordance with appendix K of this part, creditors shall assume three loan periods, as determined by the following table.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Loan periods.</I> (1) Loan Period 1 is a two-year loan period.
</P>
<P>(2) Loan Period 2 is the life expectancy in years of the youngest borrower to become obligated on the reverse mortgage loan, as shown in the U.S. Decennial Life Tables for 1979-1981 for females, rounded to the nearest whole year.
</P>
<P>(3) Loan Period 3 is the life expectancy figure in Loan Period 3, multiplied by 1.4 and rounded to the nearest full year (life expectancy figures at .5 have been rounded up to 1).
</P>
<P>(4) At the creditor's option, an additional period may be included, which is the life expectancy figure in Loan Period 2, multiplied by .5 and rounded to the nearest full year (life expectancy figures at .5 have been rounded up to 1).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Age of youngest
<br/>borrower
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 1
<br/>(in years)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">[Optional loan period
<br/>(in years)]
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 2
<br/>(life expectancy) (in years)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Loan period 3
<br/>(in years)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">62</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[11]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">29
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">63</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[10]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[10]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">66</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">67</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[9]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">68</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">69</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[8]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">71</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">72</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">73</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[7]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">74</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">17
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">76</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[6]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">77</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">78</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[5]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">81</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">82</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">83</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">84</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[4]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">85</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">86</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[3]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">91</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">92</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">93</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">94</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">95 and over</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">[2]</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.13" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M1 to Part 1026—Repayment Disclosures
</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) “Promotional terms” means terms of a cardholder's account that will expire in a fixed period of time, as set forth by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) “Deferred interest or similar plan” means a plan where a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on balances or transactions if those balances or transactions are paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculating minimum payment repayment estimates</I>—(1) <I>Minimum payment formulas.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, card issuers must use the minimum payment formula(s) that apply to a cardholder's account. If more than one minimum payment formula applies to an account, the issuer must apply each minimum payment formula to the portion of the balance to which the formula applies. In this case, the issuer must disclose the longest repayment period calculated. For example, assume that an issuer uses one minimum payment formula to calculate the minimum payment amount for a general revolving feature, and another minimum payment formula to calculate the minimum payment amount for special purchases, such as a “club plan purchase.” Also, assume that based on a consumer's balances in these features and the annual percentage rates that apply to such features, the repayment period calculated pursuant to this appendix for the general revolving feature is 5 years, while the repayment period calculated for the special purchase feature is 3 years. This issuer must disclose 5 years as the repayment period for the entire balance to the consumer. If any promotional terms related to payments apply to a cardholder's account, such as a deferred billing plan where minimum payments are not required for 12 months, card issuers may assume no promotional terms apply to the account. For example, assume that a promotional minimum payment of $10 applies to an account for six months, and then after the promotional period expires, the minimum payment is calculated as 2 percent of the outstanding balance on the account or $20 whichever is greater. An issuer may assume during the promotional period that the $10 promotional minimum payment does not apply, and instead calculate the minimum payment disclosures based on the minimum payment formula of 2 percent of the outstanding balance or $20, whichever is greater. Alternatively, during the promotional period, an issuer in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate may apply the promotional minimum payment until it expires and then apply the minimum payment formula that applies after the promotional minimum payment expires. In the above example, an issuer could calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period by applying the $10 promotional minimum payment for the first six months and then applying the 2 percent or $20 (whichever is greater) minimum payment formula after the promotional minimum payment expires. In calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate during a promotional period, an issuer may not assume that the promotional minimum payment will apply until the outstanding balance is paid off by making only minimum payments (assuming the repayment estimate is longer than the promotional period). In the above example, the issuer may not calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period by assuming that the $10 promotional minimum payment will apply beyond the six months until the outstanding balance is repaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer must use the annual percentage rates that apply to a cardholder's account, based on the portion of the balance to which the rate applies. If any promotional terms related to annual percentage rates apply to a cardholder's account, other than deferred interest or similar plans, a card issuer in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate during the promotional period must apply the promotional annual percentage rate(s) until it expires and then must apply the rate that applies after the promotional rate(s) expires. If the rate that applies after the promotional rate(s) expires is a variable rate, a card issuer must calculate that rate based on the applicable index or formula. This variable rate is accurate if it was in effect within the last 30 days before the minimum payment repayment estimate is provided. For deferred interest plans or similar plans, if minimum payments under the deferred interest or similar plan will repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer must assume that the consumer will not be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the card issuer must apply a zero percent annual percentage rate to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. If, however, minimum payments under the deferred interest plan or similar plan may not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer must assume that a consumer will not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time and thus the consumer will be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the card issuer must apply the annual percentage rate at which interest is accruing to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Beginning balance.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer must use as the beginning balance the outstanding balance on a consumer's account as of the closing date of the last billing cycle. When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer may round the beginning balance as described above to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Assumptions.</I> When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, a card issuer for each of the terms below, may either make the following assumption about that term, or use the account term that applies to a consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(i) Only minimum monthly payments are made each month. In addition, minimum monthly payments are made each month—for example, a debt cancellation or suspension agreement, or skip payment feature does not apply to the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) No additional extensions of credit are obtained, such as new purchases, transactions, fees, charges or other activity. No refunds or rebates are given.
</P>
<P>(iii) The annual percentage rate or rates that apply to a cardholder's account will not change, through either the operation of a variable rate or the change to a rate, except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this Appendix. For example, if a penalty annual percentage rate currently applies to a consumer's account, a card issuer may assume that the penalty annual percentage rate will apply to the consumer's account indefinitely, even if the consumer may potentially return to a non-penalty annual percentage rate in the future under the account agreement.
</P>
<P>(iv) There is no grace period.
</P>
<P>(v) The final payment pays the account in full (<I>i.e.,</I> there is no residual finance charge after the final month in a series of payments).
</P>
<P>(vi) The average daily balance method is used to calculate the balance.
</P>
<P>(vii) All months are the same length and leap year is ignored. A monthly or daily periodic rate may be assumed. If a daily periodic rate is assumed, the issuer may either assume (1) a year is 365 days long, and all months are 30.41667 days long, or (2) a year is 360 days long, and all months are 30 days long.
</P>
<P>(viii) Payments are credited either on the last day of the month or the last day of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>(ix) Payments are allocated to lower annual percentage rate balances before higher annual percentage rate balances.
</P>
<P>(x) The account is not past due and the account balance does not exceed the credit limit.
</P>
<P>(xi) When calculating the minimum payment repayment estimate, the assumed payments, current balance and interest charges for each month may be rounded to the nearest cent, as shown in appendix M2 to this part.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tolerance.</I> A minimum payment repayment estimate shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 2 months above or below the minimum payment repayment estimate determined in accordance with the guidance in this appendix (prior to rounding described in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B) and without use of the assumptions listed in paragraph (b)(4) of this appendix to the extent a card issuer chooses instead to use the account terms that apply to a consumer's account). For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this appendix is 28 months (2 years, 4 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 30 months (2 years, 6 months). The minimum payment repayment estimate should be disclosed as 2 years, due to the rounding rule set forth in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B). Nonetheless, based on the 30-month estimate, the issuer disclosed 3 years, based on that rounding rule. The issuer would be in compliance with this guidance by disclosing 3 years, instead of 2 years, because the issuer's estimate is within the 2 months' tolerance, prior to rounding. In addition, even if an issuer's estimate is more than 2 months above or below the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this Appendix, so long as the issuer discloses the correct number of years to the consumer based on the rounding rule set forth in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B), the issuer would be in compliance with this guidance. For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this appendix is 32 months (2 years, 8 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 38 months (3 years, 2 months). Under the rounding rule set forth in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B), both of these estimates would be rounded and disclosed to the consumer as 3 years. Thus, if the issuer disclosed 3 years to the consumer, the issuer would be in compliance with this guidance even though the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is outside the 2 months' tolerance amount.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculating the minimum payment total cost estimate.</I> When calculating the minimum payment total cost estimate, a card issuer must total the dollar amount of the interest and principal that the consumer would pay if he or she made minimum payments for the length of time calculated as the minimum payment repayment estimate under paragraph (b) of this Appendix. The minimum payment total cost estimate is deemed to be accurate if it is based on a minimum payment repayment estimate that is within the tolerance guidance set forth in paragraph (b)(5) of this Appendix. For example, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated using the guidance in this appendix is 28 months (2 years, 4 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 30 months (2 years, 6 months). The minimum payment total cost estimate will be deemed accurate even if it is based on the 30 month estimate for length of repayment, because the issuer's minimum payment repayment estimate is within the 2 months' tolerance, prior to rounding. In addition, assume the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated under this appendix is 32 months (2 years, 8 months), and the minimum payment repayment estimate calculated by the issuer is 38 months (3 years, 2 months). Under the rounding rule set forth in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B), both of these estimates would be rounded and disclosed to the consumer as 3 years. If the issuer based the minimum payment total cost estimate on 38 months (or any other minimum payment repayment estimate that would be rounded to 3 years), the minimum payment total cost estimate would be deemed to be accurate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> When calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must calculate the estimated monthly payment amount that would be required to pay off the outstanding balance shown on the statement within 36 months, assuming the consumer paid the same amount each month for 36 months.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Weighted annual percentage rate.</I> In calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, an issuer may use a weighted annual percentage rate that is based on the annual percentage rates that apply to a cardholder's account and the portion of the balance to which the rate applies, as shown in appendix M2 to this part. If a card issuer uses a weighted annual percentage rate and any promotional terms related to annual percentage rates apply to a cardholder's account, other than deferred interest plans or similar plans, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the issuer must calculate a weighted average of the promotional rate and the rate that will apply after the promotional rate expires based on the percentage of 36 months each rate will apply, as shown in appendix M2 to this part. For deferred interest plans or similar plans, if minimum payments under the deferred interest or similar plan will repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, if a card issuer uses a weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must assume that the consumer will not be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must apply a zero percent annual percentage rate to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. If, however, minimum payments under the deferred interest plan or similar plan may not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time, a card issuer in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate must assume that a consumer will not repay the balances or transactions in full prior to the expiration of the specified period of time and thus the consumer will be obligated to pay the accrued interest. This means, in calculating the weighted annual percentage rate, the card issuer must apply the annual percentage rate at which interest is accruing to the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar plan. A card issuer may use a method of calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months other than a weighted annual percentage rate, so long as the calculation results in the same payment amount each month and so long as the total of the payments would pay off the outstanding balance shown on the periodic statement within 36 months.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Assumptions.</I> In calculating the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must use the same terms described in paragraph (b) of this Appendix, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Tolerance.</I> An estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is not more than 10 percent above or below the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months determined in accordance with the guidance in this appendix (after rounding described in § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculating the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months.</I> When calculating the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, a card issuer must total the dollar amount of the interest and principal that the consumer would pay if he or she made the estimated monthly payment calculated under paragraph (d) of this appendix each month for 36 months. The total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is based on the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months that is calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this appendix.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Calculating the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months.</I> When calculating the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months, if a card issuer chooses under § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) to round the disclosures to the nearest whole dollar when disclosing them on the periodic statement, the card issuer must calculate the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months by subtracting the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months calculated under paragraph (e) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest whole dollar) from the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest whole dollar). If a card issuer chooses under § 1026.7(b)(12)(i), however, to round the disclosures to the nearest cent when disclosing them on the periodic statement, the card issuer must calculate the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months by subtracting the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months calculated under paragraph (e) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest cent) from the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix (rounded to the nearest cent). The savings estimate for repayment in 36 months shall be considered accurate if it is based on the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months that is calculated in accordance with paragraph (e) of this appendix and the minimum payment total cost estimate calculated under paragraph (c) of this appendix.


</P>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix M2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.14" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix M2 to Part 1026—Sample Calculations of Repayment Disclosures
</HEAD>
<P>The following is an example of how to calculate the minimum payment repayment estimate, the minimum payment total cost estimate, the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, and the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months using the guidance in appendix M1 to this part where three annual percentage rates apply (where one of the rates is a promotional APR), the total outstanding balance is $1000, and the minimum payment formula is 2 percent of the outstanding balance or $20, whichever is greater. The following calculation is written in SAS code.
</P>
<P>data one;
</P>
<FP-2>/*
</FP-2>
<FP-2>Note:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt01 = estimated monthly payment to repay balance in 36 months sumpmts36 = sum of payments for repayment in 36 months
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = number of months to repay total balance if making only minimum payments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt = minimum monthly payment
</FP-2>
<FP-2>fc = monthly finance charge
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = sum of payments for minimum payments
</FP-2>
<FP-2>*/
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* inputs;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* annual percentage rates; apr1 = 0.0; apr2 = 0.17; apr3 = 0.21; * insert in ascending order;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* outstanding balances; cbal1 = 500; cbal2 = 250; cbal3 = 250;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* dollar minimum payment; dmin = 20;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* percent minimum payment; pmin = 0.02; * (0.02 + perrate);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* promotional rate information;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* last month for promotional rate; expm = 6; * = 0 if no promotional rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* regular rate; rrate = .17; * = 0 if no promotional rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array apr(3); array perrate(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>days = 365/12; * calculate days in month;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* calculate estimated monthly payment to pay off balances in 36 months, and total cost of repaying balance in 36 months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array xperrate(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>xperrate(I) = (apr(I)/365) * days; * calculate periodic rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if expmgt 0 then xperrate1a = (expm/36) * xperrate1 + (1-(expm/36)) * (rrate/365) * days; else xperrate1a = xperrate1;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tbal = cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>perrate36 = (cbal1 * xperrate1a + cbal2 * xperrate2 + cbal3 * xperrate3)/(cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* months to repay; dmonths = 36;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize counters for sum of payments for repayment in 36 months; Sumpmts36 = 0;
</FP-2>
<P>pvaf = (1-(1 + perrate36) ** -dmonths)/perrate36; * calculate present value of annuity factor;
</P>
<FP-2>pmt01 = round(tbal/pvaf,0.01); * calculate monthly payment for designated number of months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts36 = pmt01 * 36;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* calculate time to repay and total cost of making minimum payments each month;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize counter for months, and sum of payments;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>perrate(I) = (apr(I)/365) * days; * calculate periodic rate;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put perrate1 = perrate2 = perrate3 =;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>eins:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>month = month + 1; * increment month counter;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>pmt = round(pmin * tbal,0.01); * calculate payment as percentage of balance;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if month geexpm and expm ne 0 then perrate1 = (rrate/365) * days;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmtltdmin then pmt = dmin; * set dollar minimum payment;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>array xxxbal(3); array cbal(3);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>xxxbal(I) = round(cbal(I) * (1 + perrate(I)),0.01);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>fc = xxxbal1 + xxxbal2 + xxxbal3 − tbal;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmtgt (tbal + fc) then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>do I = 1 to 3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if cbal(I) gt 0 then pmt = round(cbal(I) * (1 + perrate(I)),0.01); * set final payment amount;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmt le xxxbal1 then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal1 = xxxbal1 − pmt;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = xxxbal2;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmtgt xxxbal1 and xxxbal2 gt 0 and pmt le (xxxbal1 + xxxbal2) then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = xxxbal2 − (pmt − xxxbal1);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal1 = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if pmtgt xxxbal2 and xxxbal3 gt 0 then do;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal3 = xxxbal3 − (pmt − xxxbal1 − xxxbal2);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>cbal2 = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>end;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>sumpmts = sumpmts + pmt; * increment sum of payments;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>tbal = cbal1 + cbal2 + cbal3; * calculate new total balance;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* print month, balance, payment amount, and finance charge;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put month = tbal = cbal1 = cbal2 = cbal3 = pmt = fc =;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>if tbalgt 0 then go to eins; * go to next month if balance is greater than zero;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* initialize total cost savings;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>savtot = 0;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>savtot = round(sumpmts,1)—round (sumpmts36,1);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>* print number of months to repay debt if minimum payments made, final balance (zero), total cost if minimum payments made, estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, total cost for repayment in 36 months, and total savings if repaid in 36 months;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘ ’;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘number of months to repay debt if minimum payment made, final balance, total cost if minimum payments made, estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, total cost for repayment in 36 months, and total savings if repaid in 36 months’;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put month = tbal = sumpmts = pmt01 = sumpmts36 = savtot =;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>put title = ‘ ’;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>run;


</FP-2>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix N" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.15" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix N to Part 1026—Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Safe Harbor Review
</HEAD>
<P>To qualify for the safe harbor provided in § 1026.35(c)(3)(ii), a creditor must confirm that the written appraisal:
</P>
<P>1. Identifies the creditor who ordered the appraisal and the property and the interest being appraised.
</P>
<P>2. Indicates whether the contract price was analyzed.
</P>
<P>3. Addresses conditions in the property's neighborhood.
</P>
<P>4. Addresses the condition of the property and any improvements to the property.
</P>
<P>5. Indicates which valuation approaches were used, and includes a reconciliation if more than one valuation approach was used.
</P>
<P>6. Provides an opinion of the property's market value and an effective date for the opinion.
</P>
<P>7. Indicates that a physical property visit of the interior of the property was performed, as applicable.
</P>
<P>8. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice.
</P>
<P>9. Includes a certification signed by the appraiser that the appraisal was prepared in accordance with the requirements of title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>), and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10444, Feb. 13, 2013, as amended at 78 FR 78586, Dec. 26, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix O" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.16" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix O to Part 1026—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HEAD>
<P>A creditor acts with reasonable diligence under § 1026.35(c)(4)(vi)(A) if the creditor bases its determination on information contained in written source documents, such as:
</P>
<P>1. A copy of the recorded deed from the seller.
</P>
<P>2. A copy of a property tax bill.
</P>
<P>3. A copy of any owner's title insurance policy obtained by the seller.
</P>
<P>4. A copy of the RESPA settlement statement from the seller's acquisition (<I>i.e.,</I> the HUD-1 or any successor form).
</P>
<P>5. A property sales history report or title report from a third-party reporting service.
</P>
<P>6. Sales price data recorded in multiple listing services.
</P>
<P>7. Tax assessment records or transfer tax records obtained from local governments.
</P>
<P>8. A written appraisal performed in compliance with § 1026.35(c)(3)(i) for the same transaction.
</P>
<P>9. A copy of a title commitment report detailing the seller's ownership of the property, the date it was acquired, or the price at which the seller acquired the property.
</P>
<P>10. A property abstract.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 10444, Feb. 13, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix P" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.17" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix P to Part 1026 [Reserved]












</HEAD>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.1.9.1.1.18" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1026—Official Interpretations








</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20241230" REFID="120">Link to an amendment published at 89 FR 106838, Dec. 30, 2024.</XREF>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> This commentary is the vehicle by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation Z. Good faith compliance with this commentary affords protection from liability under section 130(f) of the Truth in Lending Act. Section 130(f) (15 U.S.C. 1640) protects creditors from civil liability for any act done or omitted in good faith in conformity with any interpretation issued by a duly authorized official or employee of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Procedure for requesting interpretations.</I> Under appendix C of the regulation, anyone may request an official interpretation. Interpretations that are adopted will be incorporated in this commentary following publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> No official interpretations are expected to be issued other than by means of this commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rules of construction.</I> (a) Lists that appear in the commentary may be exhaustive or illustrative; the appropriate construction should be clear from the context. In most cases, illustrative lists are introduced by phrases such as “including, but not limited to,” “among other things,” “for example,” or “such as.”
</P>
<P>(b) Throughout the commentary, reference to “this section” or “this paragraph” means the section or paragraph in the regulation that is the subject of the comment.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Comment designations.</I> Each comment in the commentary is identified by a number and the regulatory section or paragraph which it interprets. The comments are designated with as much specificity as possible according to the particular regulatory provision addressed. For example, some of the comments to § 1026.18(b) are further divided by subparagraph, such as comment 18(b)(1)-1 and comment 18(b)(2)-1. In other cases, comments have more general application and are designated, for example, as comment 18-1 or comment 18(b)-1. This introduction may be cited as comments I-1 through I-4. Comments to the appendices may be cited, for example, as comment app. A-1.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart A—General
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.1—Authority, Purpose, Coverage, Organization, Enforcement and Liability
</HD2>
<HD3>1(c) Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation Z applies to all persons (including branches of foreign banks and sellers located in the United States) that extend consumer credit to residents (including resident aliens) of any state as defined in § 1026.2. If an account is located in the United States and credit is extended to a U.S. resident, the transaction is subject to the regulation. This will be the case whether or not a particular advance or purchase on the account takes place in the United States and whether or not the extender of credit is chartered or based in the United States or a foreign country. For example, if a U.S. resident has a credit card account located in the consumer's state issued by a bank (whether U.S. or foreign-based), the account is covered by the regulation, including extensions of credit under the account that occur outside the United States. In contrast, if a U.S. resident residing or visiting abroad, or a foreign national abroad, opens a credit card account issued by a foreign branch of a U.S. bank, the account is not covered by the regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(c)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exemption for certain mortgage transactions.</I> Section 1026.1(c)(5) implements sections 128(a)(16) through (19), 128(b)(4), 129C(f)(1), 129C(g)(2) and (3), 129C(h), 129D(h), 129D(j)(1)(A), and 129D(j)(1)(B) of the Truth in Lending Act and section 4(c) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, by exempting persons from the disclosure requirements of those sections, except in certain transactions. The exemptions do not apply to certain transactions for which the disclosure requirements are implemented in other parts of Regulation Z. Sections 1026.37 and 1026.38 implement sections 128(a)(16) through (19), 128(b)(4), 129C(f)(1), 129C(g)(2) and (3), 129D(h), and 129D(j)(1)(A) of the Truth in Lending Act and section 4(c) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act for transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f). Section 1026.38(l)(5) implements the disclosure requirements of section 129C(h) of the Truth in Lending Act for transactions subject to § 1026.19(f). Section 1026.39(d)(5) implements the disclosure requirements of section 129C(h) of the Truth in Lending Act for transactions subject to § 1026.39(d)(5). Section 1026.20(e) implements the disclosure requirements of section 129D(j)(1)(B) of the Truth in Lending Act for transactions subject to § 1026.20(e). Section 1026.1(c)(5) does not exempt any person from any other requirement of this part, Regulation X (12 CFR part 1024), the Truth in Lending Act, or the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act.
</P>
<P><I>1(d) Organization.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 1(d)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Effective date.</I> i. <I>General.</I> The Bureau's revisions to Regulation X and Regulation Z published on December 31, 2013 (the TILA-RESPA Final Rule) apply to covered loans (closed-end credit transactions that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit, whether or not treated as real property under State or other applicable law) for which the creditor or mortgage broker receives an application on or after October 3, 2015 (the effective date), except that § 1026.19(e)(2), the amendments to § 1026.28(a)(1), and the amendments to the commentary to § 1026.29 became effective on October 3, 2015, without respect to whether an application was received as of that date. Additionally, §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5), as amended or adopted by the TILA-RESPA Final Rule, took effect on October 3, 2015, for transactions for which the creditor or mortgage broker received an application on or after October 3, 2015, and take effect October 1, 2018, with respect to transactions for which a creditor or mortgage broker received an application prior to October 3, 2015.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Pre-application activities.</I> The provisions of § 1026.19(e)(2) apply prior to a consumer's receipt of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and therefore restrict activity that may occur prior to receipt of an application by a creditor or mortgage broker. These provisions include § 1026.19(e)(2)(i), which restricts the fees that may be imposed on a consumer, § 1026.19(e)(2)(ii), which requires a statement to be included on written estimates of terms or costs specific to a consumer, and § 1026.19(e)(2)(iii), which prohibits creditors from requiring the submission of documents verifying information related to the consumer's application. Accordingly, the provisions of § 1026.19(e)(2) are effective on October 3, 2015, without respect to whether an application has been received on that date.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Determination of preemption.</I> The amendments to § 1026.28 and the commentary to § 1026.29 govern the preemption of State laws, and thus the amendments to those provisions and associated commentary made by the TILA-RESPA Final Rule are effective on October 3, 2015, without respect to whether an application has been received on that date.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Post-consummation escrow cancellation disclosure and partial payment disclosure.</I> A creditor, servicer, or covered person, as applicable, must provide the disclosures required by §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5) for transactions for which the conditions in § 1026.20(e) or § 1026.39(d)(5), as applicable, exist on or after October 1, 2018, regardless of when the corresponding applications were received. For transactions in which such conditions exist on or after October 3, 2015, through September 30, 2018, a creditor, servicer, or covered person, as applicable, complies with §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5) if it provides the mandated disclosures in all cases or if it provides them only in cases where the corresponding applications were received on or after October 3, 2015.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Examples.</I> For purposes of the following examples, an application received before or after the effective date is any submission for the purpose of obtaining an extension of credit that satisfies the definition in § 1026.2(a)(3), as adopted by the TILA-RESPA Final Rule, even if that definition was not yet in effect on the date in question. Cross-references in the following examples to provisions of Regulation Z refer to those provisions as adopted or amended by the TILA-RESPA Final Rule, together with any subsequent amendments, unless noted otherwise.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Application received on or after effective date of the TILA-RESPA Final Rule.</I> Assume a creditor receives an application on October 3, 2015, and that consummation of the transaction occurs on October 31, 2015. The amendments of the TILA-RESPA Final Rule, including the requirement to provide the Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure under § 1026.19(e) and (f), apply to the transaction. The creditor is also required to provide the special information booklet under § 1026.19(g).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Application received before effective date of the TILA-RESPA Final Rule.</I> Assume a creditor receives an application on September 30, 2015, and that consummation of the transaction occurs on October 30, 2015. The requirement to provide the Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure under § 1026.19(e) and (f) does not apply to the transaction. Instead, the creditor and the settlement agent must provide the disclosures required by § 1026.19, as it existed prior to the effective date of the TILA-RESPA Final Rule, and by Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.8. Similarly, the creditor must provide the special information booklet required by Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.6. However, the provisions of § 1026.19(e)(2) apply to the transaction beginning on October 3, 2015, because they became effective on October 3, 2015, without respect to whether an application was received by the creditor or mortgage broker on that date.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Predisclosure written estimates.</I> Assume a creditor receives a request from a consumer for a written estimate of terms or costs specific to the consumer on October 3, 2015, before the consumer submits an application to the creditor and thus before the consumer has received the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). The creditor, if it provides such a written estimate to the consumer, must comply with § 1026.19(e)(2)(ii) and provide the required statement on the written estimate, even though the creditor has not received an application on that date.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Request for preemption determination.</I> Assume a creditor submits a request to the Bureau under § 1026.28(a)(1) for a determination of whether a State law is inconsistent with the disclosure requirements in Regulation Z on October 3, 2015. Because the amendments to § 1026.28(a)(1) are effective on that date and do not depend on whether the creditor has received an application, § 1026.28(a)(1) is applicable to the request on that date, and the Bureau would make a determination based on the provisions of Regulation Z in effect on that date, including the requirements of § 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>E. <I>Effective dates for the post-consummation escrow cancelation disclosure and partial payment disclosure.</I> Assume a creditor receives an application on October 10, 2010, and that the loan was consummated on November 19, 2010. Assume further that, on December 19, 2016, the escrow account established in connection with the mortgage loan was canceled or the loan is sold to another covered person. A creditor, servicer, or covered person, as applicable, may provide the disclosures required under §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5) to the consumer, but the creditor, servicer, or covered person, as applicable, is not required to provide those disclosures in this case. Assume the same circumstances, except that the escrow account established in connection with the loan is canceled or the mortgage loan is sold to another covered person on April 14, 2020. A creditor, servicer, or covered person, as applicable, must provide the disclosures in §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5), as applicable, because a condition requiring these disclosures occurred after October 1, 2018 (thus the date the application was received is irrelevant).
</P>
<P>2. <I>2017 TILA-RESPA Amendments.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> Except as provided in comment 1(d)(5)-2.ii, compliance with the amendments to this part effective on October 10, 2017 (the 2017 TILA-RESPA Amendments) is mandatory with respect to transactions for which a creditor or mortgage broker received an application on or after October 1, 2018. Except as provided in comment 1(d)(5)-2.ii, for transactions for which a creditor or mortgage broker received an application prior to October 1, 2018, from the effective date of the 2017 TILA-RESPA Amendments:
</P>
<P>A. A person has the option of complying either: with 12 CFR part 1026 as it is in effect; or with 12 CFR part 1026 as it was in effect on October 9, 2017, together with any amendments to 12 CFR part 1026 that become effective after October 9, 2017, other than the 2017 TILA-RESPA Amendments; and
</P>
<P>B. An act or omission violates 12 CFR part 1026 only if it violates both: 12 CFR part 1026 as it is in effect; and 12 CFR part 1026 as it was in effect on October 9, 2017, together with any amendments to 12 CFR part 1026 that become effective after October 9, 2017, other than the 2017 TILA-RESPA Amendments.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Post-consummation escrow cancellation disclosure and partial payment disclosure.</I> Comment 1(d)(5)-1.iv sets forth the transactions to which the disclosures required by §§ 1026.20(e) and 1026.39(d)(5) are applicable.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.2—Definitions and Rules of Construction
</HD2>
<HD3>2(a)(2) Advertisement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Only commercial messages that promote consumer credit transactions requiring disclosures are advertisements. Messages inviting, offering, or otherwise announcing generally to prospective customers the availability of credit transactions, whether in visual, oral, or print media, are covered by Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026).
</P>
<P>i. Examples include:
</P>
<P>A. Messages in a newspaper, magazine, leaflet, promotional flyer, or catalog.
</P>
<P>B. Announcements on radio, television, or public address system.
</P>
<P>C. Electronic advertisements, such as on the Internet.
</P>
<P>D. Direct mail literature or other printed material on any exterior or interior sign.
</P>
<P>E. Point of sale displays.
</P>
<P>F. Telephone solicitations.
</P>
<P>G. Price tags that contain credit information.
</P>
<P>H. Letters sent to customers or potential customers as part of an organized solicitation of business.
</P>
<P>I. Messages on checking account statements offering auto loans at a stated annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>J. Communications promoting a new open-end plan or closed-end transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>A. Direct personal contacts, such as follow-up letters, cost estimates for individual consumers, or oral or written communication relating to the negotiation of a specific transaction.
</P>
<P>B. Informational material, for example, interest-rate and loan-term memos, distributed only to business entities.
</P>
<P>C. Notices required by Federal or state law, if the law mandates that specific information be displayed and only the information so mandated is included in the notice.
</P>
<P>D. News articles the use of which is controlled by the news medium.
</P>
<P>E. Market-research or educational materials that do not solicit business.
</P>
<P>F. Communications about an existing credit account (for example, a promotion encouraging additional or different uses of an existing credit card account).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Persons covered.</I> All <I>persons</I> must comply with the advertising provisions in §§ 1026.16 and 1026.24, not just those that meet the definition of creditor in § 1026.2(a)(17). Thus, home builders, merchants, and others who are not themselves creditors must comply with the advertising provisions of the regulation if they advertise consumer credit transactions. However, under section 145 of the Act, the owner and the personnel of the medium in which an advertisement appears, or through which it is disseminated, are not subject to civil liability for violations.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(3) Application.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> An application means the submission of a consumer's financial information for purposes of obtaining an extension of credit. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), or (g) of this part, the term consists of the consumer's name, the consumer's income, the consumer's social security number to obtain a credit report, the property address, an estimate of the value of the property, and the mortgage loan amount sought. This definition does not prevent a creditor from collecting whatever additional information it deems necessary in connection with the request for the extension of credit. However, once a creditor has received these six pieces of information, it has an application for purposes of the requirements of Regulation Z. A submission may be in written or electronic format and includes a written record of an oral application. The following examples for a transaction subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), or (g) are illustrative of this provision:</P>
<P>i. Assume a creditor provides a consumer with an application form containing 20 questions about the consumer's credit history and the collateral value. The consumer submits answers to nine of the questions and informs the creditor that the consumer will contact the creditor the next day with answers to the other 11 questions. Although the consumer provided nine pieces of information, the consumer did not provide a social security number. The creditor has not yet received an application for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a creditor requires all applicants to submit 20 pieces of information. The consumer submits only six pieces of information and informs the creditor that the consumer will contact the creditor the next day with answers to the other 14 questions. The six pieces of information provided by the consumer were the consumer's name, income, social security number, property address, estimate of the value of the property, and the mortgage loan amount sought. Even though the creditor requires 14 additional pieces of information to process the consumer's request for a mortgage loan, the creditor has received an application for the purposes of § 1026.2(a)(3) and therefore must comply with the relevant requirements under § 1026.19.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Social security number to obtain a credit report.</I> If a consumer does not have a social security number, the creditor may substitute whatever unique identifier the creditor uses to obtain a credit report on the consumer. For example, a creditor has obtained a social security number to obtain a credit report for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii) if the creditor collects a Tax Identification Number from a consumer who does not have a social security number, such as a foreign national.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Receipt of credit report fees.</I> Section 1026.19(a)(1)(iii) permits the imposition of a fee to obtain the consumer's credit history prior to the delivery of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(a)(1)(i). Section 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(B) permits the imposition of a fee to obtain the consumer's credit report prior to the delivery of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). Whether, or when, such fees are received does not affect whether an application has been received for the purposes of the definition in § 1026.2(a)(3) and the timing requirements in § 1026.19(a)(1)(i) and (e)(1)(iii). For example, if, in a transaction subject to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), a creditor receives the six pieces of information identified under § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii) on Monday, June 1, but does not receive a credit report fee from the consumer until Tuesday, June 2, the creditor does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) if it provides the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) after Thursday, June 4. The three-business-day period beings on Monday, June 1, the date the creditor received the six pieces of information. The waiting period does not begin on Tuesday, June 2, the date the creditor received the credit report fee.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(4) Billing Cycle or Cycle
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Intervals.</I> In open-end credit plans, the billing cycle determines the intervals for which periodic disclosure statements are required; these intervals are also used as measuring points for other duties of the creditor. Typically, billing cycles are monthly, but they may be more frequent or less frequent (but not less frequent than quarterly).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditors that do not bill.</I> The term <I>cycle</I> is interchangeable with <I>billing cycle</I> for definitional purposes, since some creditors' cycles do not involve the sending of bills in the traditional sense but only statements of account activity. This is commonly the case with financial institutions when periodic payments are made through payroll deduction or through automatic debit of the consumer's asset account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Equal cycles.</I> Although cycles must be equal, there is a permissible variance to account for weekends, holidays, and differences in the number of days in months. If the actual date of each statement does not vary by more than four days from a fixed “day” (for example, the third Thursday of each month) or “date” (for example, the 15th of each month) that the creditor regularly uses, the intervals between statements are considered equal. The requirement that cycles be equal applies even if the creditor applies a daily periodic rate to determine the finance charge. The requirement that intervals be equal does not apply to the first billing cycle on an open-end account (<I>i.e.,</I> the time period between account opening and the generation of the first periodic statement) or to a transitional billing cycle that can occur if the creditor occasionally changes its billing cycles so as to establish a new statement day or date. (<I>See</I> comments 9(c)(1)-3 and 9(c)(2)-3.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Payment reminder.</I> The sending of a regular payment reminder (rather than a late payment notice) establishes a cycle for which the creditor must send periodic statements.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(6) Business Day
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Business function test.</I> Activities that indicate that the creditor is open for substantially all of its business functions include the availability of personnel to make loan disbursements, to open new accounts, and to handle credit transaction inquiries. Activities that indicate that the creditor is not open for substantially all of its business functions include a retailer's merely accepting credit cards for purchases or a bank's having its customer-service windows open only for limited purposes such as deposits and withdrawals, bill paying, and related services.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rule for rescission, disclosures for certain mortgage transactions, and private education loans.</I> A more precise rule for what is a business day (all calendar days except Sundays and the Federal legal holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a)) applies when the right of rescission, the receipt of disclosures for certain dwelling- or real estate-secured mortgage transactions under §§ 1026.19(a)(1)(ii), 1026.19(a)(2), 1026.19(e)(1)(iii)(B), 1026.19(e)(1)(iv), 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(A), 1026.19(e)(4)(ii), 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), 1026.19(f)(1)(iii), 1026.20(e)(5), 1026.31(c), or the receipt of disclosures for private education loans under § 1026.46(d)(4) is involved. Four Federal legal holidays are identified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a) by a specific date: New Year's Day, January 1; Independence Day, July 4; Veterans Day, November 11; and Christmas Day, December 25. When one of these holidays (July 4, for example) falls on a Saturday, Federal offices and other entities might observe the holiday on the preceding Friday (July 3). In cases where the more precise rule applies, the observed holiday (in the example, July 3) is a business day.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(7) Card Issuer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Agent.</I> i. An agent of a card issuer is considered a card issuer. Except as provided in comment 2(a)(7)-1.ii, because agency relationships are traditionally defined by contract and by state or other applicable law, the regulation does not define agent. Merely providing services relating to the production of credit cards or data processing for others, however, does not make one the agent of the card issuer. In contrast, a financial institution may become the agent of the card issuer if an agreement between the institution and the card issuer provides that the cardholder may use a line of credit with the financial institution to pay obligations incurred by use of the credit card.
</P>
<P>ii. Under § 1026.2(a)(7), with respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 where that credit feature is offered by an affiliate or business partner of the prepaid account issuer as those terms are defined in § 1026.61, the affiliate or business partner offering the credit feature is an agent of the prepaid account issuer and thus, is itself a card issuer with respect to the hybrid prepaid-credit card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> See § 1026.61(a) and comments 61(a)(2)-5.iii and 61(a)(4)-1.iv for guidance on the applicability of this regulation in connection with credit accessible by prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(8) Cardholder
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> A cardholder is a natural person at whose request a card is issued for consumer credit purposes or who is a co-obligor or guarantor for such a card issued to another. The second category does not include an employee who is a co-obligor or guarantor on a card issued to the employer for business purposes, nor does it include a person who is merely the authorized user of a card issued to another.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limited application of regulation.</I> For the limited purposes of the rules on issuance of credit cards and liability for unauthorized use, a cardholder includes <I>any</I> person, including an organization, to whom a card is issued for <I>any</I> purpose—including a business, agricultural, or commercial purpose.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Issuance.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.12(a).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Dual-purpose cards and dual-card systems.</I> Some card issuers offer dual-purpose cards that are for business as well as consumer purposes. If a card is issued to an individual for consumer purposes, the fact that an organization has guaranteed to pay the debt does not make it business credit. On the other hand, if a card is issued for business purposes, the fact that an individual sometimes uses it for consumer purchases does not subject the card issuer to the provisions on periodic statements, billing-error resolution, and other protections afforded to consumer credit. Some card issuers offer dual-card systems—that is, they issue two cards to the same individual, one intended for business use, the other for consumer or personal use. With such a system, the same person may be a cardholder for general purposes when using the card issued for consumer use, and a cardholder only for the limited purposes of the restrictions on issuance and liability when using the card issued for business purposes.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(9) Cash Price
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Components.</I> This amount is a starting point in computing the amount financed and the total sale price under § 1026.18 for credit sales. Any charges imposed equally in cash and credit transactions may be included in the cash price, or they may be treated as other amounts financed under § 1026.18(b)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Service contracts.</I> Service contracts include contracts for the repair or the servicing of goods, such as mechanical breakdown coverage, even if such a contract is characterized as insurance under state law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rebates.</I> The creditor has complete flexibility in the way it treats rebates for purposes of disclosure and calculation. (See the commentary to § 1026.18(b).)
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(10) Closed-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The coverage of this term is defined by exclusion. That is, it includes any credit arrangement that does not fall within the definition of open-end credit. Subpart C contains the disclosure rules for closed-end credit when the obligation is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(11) Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Guarantors, endorsers, and sureties are not generally consumers for purposes of the regulation, but they may be entitled to rescind under certain circumstances and they may have certain rights if they are obligated on credit card plans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rescission rules.</I> For purposes of rescission under §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23, a consumer includes any natural person whose ownership interest in his or her principal dwelling is subject to the risk of loss. Thus, if a security interest is taken in A's ownership interest in a house and that house is A's principal dwelling, A is a consumer for purposes of rescission, even if A is not liable, either primarily or secondarily, on the underlying consumer credit transaction. An ownership interest does not include, for example, leaseholds or inchoate rights, such as dower.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Trusts.</I> Credit extended to trusts established for tax or estate planning purposes or to land trusts, as described in comment 3(a)-10, is considered to be extended to a natural person for purposes of the definition of consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Successors in interest.</I> i. <I>Assumption of the mortgage loan obligation.</I> A servicer may not require a confirmed successor in interest to assume the mortgage loan obligation to be considered a consumer for purposes of §§ 1026.20(c) through (e), 1026.36(c), 1026.39, and 1026.41. If a successor in interest assumes a mortgage loan obligation under State law or is otherwise liable on the mortgage loan obligation, the protections the successor in interest enjoys under this part are not limited to §§ 1026.20(c) through (e), 1026.36(c), 1026.39, and 1026.41.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Communications with confirmed successors in interest.</I> Communications in compliance with this part to a confirmed successor in interest as defined in § 1026.2(a)(27)(ii) do not violate section 805(b) of the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA) because consumer for purposes of FDCPA section 805 includes any person who meets the definition in this part of confirmed successor in interest.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Treatment of transferor consumer.</I> Even after a servicer's confirmation of a successor in interest, the servicer is still required to comply with all applicable requirements of §§ 1026.20(c) through (e), 1026.36(c), 1026.39, and 1026.41 with respect to the consumer who transferred an ownership interest to the successor in interest.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Multiple notices unnecessary.</I> Except as required by Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.36, a servicer is not required to provide to a confirmed successor in interest any written disclosure required by § 1026.20(c), (d), or (e), § 1026.39, or § 1026.41 if the servicer is providing the same specific disclosure to another consumer on the account. For example, a servicer is not required to provide a periodic statement required by § 1026.41 to a confirmed successor in interest if the servicer is providing the same periodic statement to another consumer; a single statement may be sent in that billing cycle. If a servicer confirms more than one successor in interest, the servicer need not send any disclosure required by § 1026.20(c), (d), or (e), § 1026.39, or § 1026.41 to more than one of the confirmed successors in interest.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(12) Consumer Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Primary purpose.</I> There is no precise test for what constitutes credit offered or extended for personal, family, or household purposes, nor for what constitutes the primary purpose. (See, however, the discussion of business purposes in the commentary to § 1026.3(a).)
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(13) Consummation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>State law governs.</I> When a contractual obligation on the consumer's part is created is a matter to be determined under applicable law; Regulation Z does not make this determination. A contractual commitment agreement, for example, that under applicable law binds the consumer to the credit terms would be consummation. Consummation, however, does not occur merely because the consumer has made some financial investment in the transaction (for example, by paying a nonrefundable fee) unless, of course, applicable law holds otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit v. sale.</I> Consummation does not occur when the consumer becomes contractually committed to a sale transaction, unless the consumer also becomes legally obligated to accept a particular credit arrangement. For example, when a consumer pays a nonrefundable deposit to purchase an automobile, a purchase contract may be created, but consummation for purposes of the regulation does not occur unless the consumer also contracts for financing at that time.








</P>
<HD3>2(a)(14) Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Exclusions.</I> The following situations are not considered credit for purposes of the regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Layaway plans, unless the consumer is contractually obligated to continue making payments. Whether the consumer is so obligated is a matter to be determined under applicable law. The fact that the consumer is not entitled to a refund of any amounts paid towards the cash price of the merchandise does not bring layaways within the definition of credit.
</P>
<P>ii. Involuntary tax liens, involuntary tax assessments, court judgments, and court approvals of reaffirmation of debts in bankruptcy. However, third-party financing of such obligations (for example, a bank loan obtained to pay off an involuntary tax lien) is credit for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<P>iii. Insurance premium plans that involve payment in installments with each installment representing the payment for insurance coverage for a certain future period of time, unless the consumer is contractually obligated to continue making payments.
</P>
<P>iv. Home improvement transactions that involve progress payments, if the consumer pays, as the work progresses, only for work completed and has no contractual obligation to continue making payments.
</P>
<P>v. Borrowing against the accrued cash value of an insurance policy or a pension account, if there is no independent obligation to repay.
</P>
<P>vi. Letters of credit.
</P>
<P>vii. The execution of option contracts. However, there may be an extension of credit when the option is exercised, if there is an agreement at that time to defer payment of a debt.
</P>
<P>viii. Investment plans in which the party extending capital to the consumer risks the loss of the capital advanced. This includes, for example, an arrangement with a home purchaser in which the investor pays a portion of the downpayment and of the periodic mortgage payments in return for an ownership interest in the property, and shares in any gain or loss of property value.
</P>
<P>ix. Mortgage assistance plans administered by a government agency in which a portion of the consumer's monthly payment amount is paid by the agency. No finance charge is imposed on the subsidy amount, and that amount is due in a lump-sum payment on a set date or upon the occurrence of certain events. (If payment is not made when due, a new note imposing a finance charge may be written, which may then be subject to the regulation.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payday loans; deferred presentment.</I> Credit includes a transaction in which a cash advance is made to a consumer in exchange for the consumer's personal check, or in exchange for the consumer's authorization to debit the consumer's deposit account, and where the parties agree either that the check will not be cashed or deposited, or that the consumer's deposit account will not be debited, until a designated future date. This type of transaction is often referred to as a “payday loan” or “payday advance” or “deferred-presentment loan.” A fee charged in connection with such a transaction may be a finance charge for purposes of § 1026.4, regardless of how the fee is characterized under State law. Where the fee charged constitutes a finance charge under § 1026.4 and the person advancing funds regularly extends consumer credit, that person is a creditor and is required to provide disclosures consistent with the requirements of Regulation Z. (See § 1026.2(a)(17).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions on the asset features of prepaid accounts when there are insufficient or unavailable funds.</I> Credit includes authorization of a transaction on the asset feature of a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 where the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is authorized to cover the amount of the transaction. It also includes settlement of a transaction on the asset feature of a prepaid account where the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is settled to cover the amount of the transaction. This includes a transaction where the consumer has sufficient or available funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account to cover the amount of the transaction at the time the transaction is authorized but insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the transaction amount at the time the transaction is settled. See § 1026.61 and related commentary on the applicability of this regulation to credit that is extended in connection with a prepaid account.








</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(15)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Usable from time to time.</I> A credit card must be usable from time to time. Since this involves the possibility of repeated use of a single device, checks and similar instruments that can be used only once to obtain a single credit extension are not credit cards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. Examples of credit cards include:
</P>
<P>A. A card that guarantees checks or similar instruments, if the asset account is also tied to covered overdraft credit or if the instrument directly accesses a line of credit.
</P>
<P>B. A debit card (other than a debit card that is solely an account number) that also accesses a credit account (that is, a debit-credit card or hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62). See comment 2(a)(15)-2.ii.C for guidance on whether a debit card that is solely an account number is a credit card.
</P>
<P>C. An identification card that permits the consumer to defer payment on a purchase.
</P>
<P>D. An identification card indicating loan approval that is presented to a merchant or to a lender, whether or not the consumer signs a separate promissory note for each credit extension.
</P>
<P>E. A card or device that can be activated upon receipt to access credit, even if the card has a substantive use other than credit, such as a purchase-price discount card. Such a card or device is a credit card notwithstanding the fact that the recipient must first contact the card issuer to access or activate the credit feature.
</P>
<P>F. A prepaid card that is a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, credit card does not include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. A check-guarantee or debit card with no credit feature or agreement.
</P>
<P>B. Any card, key, plate, or other device that is used in order to obtain petroleum products for business purposes from a wholesale distribution facility or to gain access to that facility, and that is required to be used without regard to payment terms.
</P>
<P>C. An account number that accesses a credit account, unless the account number can access an open-end line of credit to purchase goods or services or as provided in § 1026.61 with respect to a hybrid prepaid-credit card. An account number that can access an open-end line of credit to purchase goods or services includes an account number that can access a covered overdraft credit account offered by a very large financial institution. For example, if a creditor provides a consumer with an open-end line of credit that can be accessed by an account number in order to transfer funds into another account (such as an asset account with the same creditor), the account number is not a credit card for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(15)(i). However, if the account number can also access the line of credit to purchase goods or services (such as an account number that can be used to purchase goods or services on the internet), the account number is a credit card for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(15)(i), regardless of whether the creditor treats such transactions as purchases, cash advances, or some other type of transaction. Furthermore, if the line of credit can also be accessed by a card (such as a debit card), that card is a credit card for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(15)(i).
</P>
<P>D. A prepaid card that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>E. A check-guarantee or debit card that can access non-covered overdraft credit as defined in § 1026.62 and cannot access any other form of credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charge card.</I> i. Charge cards are credit cards where no periodic rate is used to compute the finance charge. The term <I>charge card</I> does not include a hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62. Thus, covered overdraft credit extended by a very large financial institution through a hybrid debit-credit card is not subject to special charge card rules.
</P>
<P>A. Under the regulation, a reference to credit cards generally includes charge cards. In particular, references to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan in subparts B and G generally include charge cards.
</P>
<P>B. The term <I>charge card</I> is, however, distinguished from credit card or credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan in §§ 1026.6(b)(2)(xiv), 1026.7(b)(11) (except as described in comment 2(a)(15)-3.ii below), 1026.7(b)(12), 1026.9(e), 1026.9(f), 1026.28(d), 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), 1026.60, and appendices G-10 through G-13.
</P>
<P>ii. A hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 is a charge card with respect to a covered separate credit feature if no periodic rate is used to compute the finance charge in connection with the covered separate credit feature. Unlike other charge card accounts, the requirements in § 1026.7(b)(11) apply to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card that is a charge card when that covered separate credit feature is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. Thus, under § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A), with respect to a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a card issuer of a hybrid prepaid-credit card that meets the definition of a charge card because no periodic rate is used to compute a finance charge in connection with the covered separate credit feature must adopt reasonable procedures for the covered separate credit feature designed to ensure that
</P>
<P>(1) periodic statements are mailed or delivered at least 21 days prior to the payment due date disclosed on the statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A); and
</P>
<P>(2) the card issuer does not treat as late for any purposes a required minimum periodic payment received by the card issuer within 21 days after mailing or delivery of the periodic statement disclosing the due date for that payment.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.</I>
</P>
<P>i. An open-end consumer credit account is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(15)(ii) if:
</P>
<P>A. The account is accessed by a credit card, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(15)(i); and
</P>
<P>B. The account is not excluded under § 1026.2(a)(15)(ii)(A) or (B).
</P>
<P>ii. The exclusion from credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan provided by § 1026.2(a)(15)(ii)(B) for covered overdraft credit offered by a creditor that is not a very large financial institution does not apply to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card (including a hybrid prepaid-credit card that is solely an account number) as defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(16) Credit Sale
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Special disclosure.</I> If the seller is a creditor in the transaction, the transaction is a credit sale and the special credit sale disclosures (that is, the disclosures under § 1026.18(j)) must be given. This applies even if there is more than one creditor in the transaction and the creditor making the disclosures is not the seller. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(d).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Sellers who arrange credit.</I> If the seller of the property or services involved arranged for financing but is not a creditor as to that sale, the transaction is not a credit sale. Thus, if a seller assists the consumer in obtaining a direct loan from a financial institution and the consumer's note is payable to the financial institution, the transaction is a loan and only the financial institution is a creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Refinancings.</I> Generally, when a credit sale is refinanced within the meaning of § 1026.20(a), loan disclosures should be made. However, if a new sale of goods or services is also involved, the transaction is a credit sale.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Incidental sales.</I> Some lenders <I>sell</I> a product or service—such as credit, property, or health insurance—as part of a loan transaction. Section 1026.4 contains the rules on whether the cost of credit life, disability or property insurance is part of the finance charge. If the insurance is financed, it may be disclosed as a separate credit-sale transaction or disclosed as part of the primary transaction; if the latter approach is taken, either loan or credit-sale disclosures may be made. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1) for further discussion of this point.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Credit extensions for educational purposes.</I> A credit extension for educational purposes in which an educational institution is the creditor may be treated as either a credit sale or a loan, regardless of whether the funds are given directly to the student, credited to the student's account, or disbursed to other persons on the student's behalf. The disclosure of the total sale price need not be given if the transaction is treated as a loan.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(17) Creditor
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The definition contains four independent tests. If any one of the tests is met, the person is a creditor for purposes of that particular test.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prerequisites.</I> This test is composed of two requirements, both of which must be met in order for a particular credit extension to be subject to the regulation and for the credit extension to count towards satisfaction of the numerical tests mentioned in § 1026.2(a)(17)(v).
</P>
<P>i. <I>First,</I> there must be either or both of the following:
</P>
<P>A. A written (rather than oral) agreement to pay in more than four installments. A letter that merely confirms an oral agreement does not constitute a written agreement for purposes of the definition.
</P>
<P>B. A finance charge imposed for the credit. The obligation to pay the finance charge need not be in writing.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Second,</I> the obligation must be payable to the person in order for that person to be considered a creditor. If an obligation is made payable to <I>bearer,</I> the creditor is the one who initially accepts the obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assignees.</I> If an obligation is initially payable to one person, that person is the creditor even if the obligation by its terms is simultaneously assigned to another person. For example:
</P>
<P>i. An auto dealer and a bank have a business relationship in which the bank supplies the dealer with credit sale contracts that are initially made payable to the dealer and provide for the immediate assignment of the obligation to the bank. The dealer and purchaser execute the contract only after the bank approves the creditworthiness of the purchaser. Because the obligation is initially payable on its face to the dealer, the dealer is the only creditor in the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Numerical tests.</I> The examples below illustrate how the numerical tests of § 1026.2(a)(17)(v) are applied. The examples assume that consumer credit with a finance charge or written agreement for more than 4 installments was extended in the years in question and that the person did not extend such credit in 2006.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Counting transactions.</I> For purposes of closed-end credit, the creditor counts each credit transaction. For open-end credit, <I>transactions</I> means accounts, so that outstanding accounts are counted instead of individual credit extensions. Normally the number of transactions is measured by the preceding calendar year; if the requisite number is met, then the person is a creditor for all transactions in the current year. However, if the person did not meet the test in the preceding year, the number of transactions is measured by the current calendar year. For example, if the person extends consumer credit 26 times in 2007, it is a creditor for purposes of the regulation for the last extension of credit in 2007 and for all extensions of consumer credit in 2008. On the other hand, if a business begins in 2007 and extends consumer credit 20 times, it is not a creditor for purposes of the regulation in 2007. If it extends consumer credit 75 times in 2008, however, it becomes a creditor for purposes of the regulation (and must begin making disclosures) after the 25th extension of credit in that year and is a creditor for all extensions of consumer credit in 2009.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Relationship between consumer credit in general and credit secured by a dwelling.</I> Extensions of credit secured by a dwelling are counted towards the 25-extensions test. For example, if in 2007 a person extends unsecured consumer credit 23 times and consumer credit secured by a dwelling twice, it becomes a creditor for the succeeding extensions of credit, whether or not they are secured by a dwelling. On the other hand, extensions of consumer credit not secured by a dwelling are <I>not</I> counted towards the number of credit extensions secured by a dwelling. For example, if in 2007 a person extends credit not secured by a dwelling 8 times and credit secured by a dwelling 3 times, it is not a creditor.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Effect of satisfying one test.</I> Once one of the numerical tests is satisfied, the person is also a creditor for the other type of credit. For example, in 2007 a person extends consumer credit secured by a dwelling 5 times. That person is a creditor for all succeeding credit extensions, whether they involve credit secured by a dwelling or not.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Trusts.</I> In the case of credit extended by trusts, each individual trust is considered a separate entity for purposes of applying the criteria. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A bank is the trustee for three trusts. Trust A makes 15 extensions of consumer credit annually; Trust B makes 10 extensions of consumer credit annually; and Trust C makes 30 extensions of consumer credit annually. Only Trust C is a creditor for purposes of the regulation.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> See § 1026.61(a) and comments 61(a)(2)-5.iii and 61(a)(4)-1.iv for guidance on the applicability of this regulation in connection with credit accessible by prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(ii) [Reserved]
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card issuers subject to Subpart B.</I> Section 1026.2(a)(17)(iii) makes certain card issuers creditors for purposes of the open-end credit provisions of the regulation. This includes, for example, the issuers of so-called travel and entertainment cards that expect repayment at the first billing and do not impose a finance charge. Since all disclosures are to be made only as applicable, such card issuers would omit finance charge disclosures. Other provisions of the regulation regarding such areas as scope, definitions, determination of which charges are finance charges, Spanish language disclosures, record retention, and use of model forms, also apply to such card issuers.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> See § 1026.61(a) and comments 61(a)(2)-5.iii and 61(a)(4)-1.iv for guidance on the applicability of this regulation in connection with credit accessible by prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(17)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card issuers subject to Subparts B and C.</I> Section 1026.2(a)(17)(iv) includes as creditors card issuers extending closed-end credit in which there is a finance charge or an agreement to pay in more than four installments. These card issuers are subject to the appropriate provisions of Subparts B and C, as well as to the general provisions.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(18) Downpayment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Allocation.</I> If a consumer makes a lump-sum payment, partially to reduce the cash price and partially to pay prepaid finance charges, only the portion attributable to reducing the cash price is part of the downpayment. (See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(23).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pick-up payments.</I> i. Creditors may treat the deferred portion of the downpayment, often referred to as <I>pick-up payments,</I> in a number of ways. If the pick-up payment is treated as part of the downpayment:
</P>
<P>A. It is subtracted in arriving at the amount financed under § 1026.18(b).
</P>
<P>B. It may, but need not, be reflected in the payment schedule under § 1026.18(g).
</P>
<P>ii. If the pick-up payment does not meet the definition (for example, if it is payable after the second regularly scheduled payment) or if the creditor chooses not to treat it as part of the downpayment:
</P>
<P>A. It must be included in the amount financed.B. It must be shown in the payment schedule.
</P>
<P>iii. Whichever way the pick-up payment is treated, the total of payments under § 1026.18(h) must equal the sum of the payments disclosed under § 1026.18(g).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of existing liens.</I> i. <I>No cash payment.</I> In a credit sale, the “downpayment” may only be used to reduce the cash price. For example, when a trade-in is used as the downpayment and the existing lien on an automobile to be traded in exceeds the value of the automobile, creditors must disclose a zero on the downpayment line rather than a negative number. To illustrate, assume a consumer owes $10,000 on an existing automobile loan and that the trade-in value of the automobile is only $8,000, leaving a $2,000 deficit. The creditor should disclose a downpayment of $0, not −$2,000.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Cash payment.</I> If the consumer makes a cash payment, creditors may, at their option, disclose the entire cash payment as the downpayment, or apply the cash payment first to any excess lien amount and disclose any remaining cash as the downpayment. In the above example:
</P>
<P>A. If the downpayment disclosed is equal to the cash payment, the $2,000 deficit must be reflected as an additional amount financed under § 1026.18(b)(2).
</P>
<P>B. If the consumer provides $1,500 in cash (which does not extinguish the $2,000 deficit), the creditor may disclose a downpayment of $1,500 or of $0.
</P>
<P>C. If the consumer provides $3,000 in cash, the creditor may disclose a downpayment of $3,000 or of $1,000.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(19) Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> A dwelling need not be the consumer's <I>principal</I> residence to fit the definition, and thus a vacation or second home could be a dwelling. However, for purposes of the definition of residential mortgage transaction, the right to rescind, and the application of automated valuation model requirements, a dwelling must be the principal residence of the consumer. (<I>See</I> the commentary to §§ 1026.2(a)(24), 1026.15, 1026.23, and 1026.42.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use as a residence.</I> Mobile homes, boats, and trailers are dwellings if they are in fact used as residences, just as are condominium and cooperative units. Recreational vehicles, campers, and the like not used as residences are not dwellings.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to exemptions.</I> Any transaction involving a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling (as well as in any real property) remains subject to the regulation despite the general exemption in § 1026.3(b).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automated valuation models.</I> For purposes of the application of the automated valuation model requirements in § 1026.42(i), a consumer can have only one principal dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of applying this definition to a particular transaction. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(24).)


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(20) Open-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This definition describes the characteristics of open-end credit (for which the applicable disclosure and other rules are contained in Subpart B), as distinct from closed-end credit. Open-end credit is consumer credit that is extended under a plan and meets <I>all 3</I> criteria set forth in the definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existence of a plan.</I> i. The definition requires that there be a plan, which connotes a contractual arrangement between the creditor and the consumer.
</P>
<P>ii. With respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, a plan means a program where the consumer is obligated contractually to repay any credit extended by the creditor. For example, a plan includes a program under which a creditor routinely extends credit from a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner where the prepaid card can be used from time to time to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, and the consumer is obligated contractually to repay those credit transactions. Such a program constitutes a plan notwithstanding that, for example, the creditor has not agreed in writing to extend credit for those transactions, the creditor retains discretion not to extend credit for those transactions, or the creditor does not extend credit for those transactions once the consumer has exceeded a certain amount of credit. See § 1026.61(a) and related commentary for guidance on the applicability of this regulation to credit accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.
</P>
<P>iii. Some creditors offer programs containing a number of different credit features. The consumer has a single account with the institution that can be accessed repeatedly via a number of sub-accounts established for the different program features and rate structures. Some features of the program might be used repeatedly (for example, an overdraft line) while others might be used infrequently (such as the part of the credit line available for secured credit). If the program as a whole is subject to prescribed terms and otherwise meets the definition of open-end credit, such a program would be considered a single, multifeatured plan.
</P>
<P>iv. With respect to a covered asset account as defined in § 1026.62, a plan includes, for example, a program where the consumer is obligated contractually to repay any credit extended by the creditor. Such a program constitutes a plan notwithstanding that, for example, the creditor has not agreed in writing to extend credit for those transactions, the creditor retains discretion not to extend credit for those transactions, or the creditor does not extend credit for those transactions once the consumer has exceeded a certain amount of credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Repeated transactions.</I> Under this criterion, the creditor must reasonably contemplate repeated transactions. This means that the credit plan must be usable from time to time and the creditor must legitimately expect that there will be repeat business rather than a one-time credit extension. The creditor must expect repeated dealings with consumers under the credit plan as a whole and need not believe a consumer will reuse a particular feature of the plan. The determination of whether a creditor can reasonably contemplate repeated transactions requires an objective analysis. Information that much of the creditor's customer base with accounts under the plan make repeated transactions over some period of time is relevant to the determination, particularly when the plan is opened primarily for the financing of infrequently purchased products or services. A standard based on reasonable belief by a creditor necessarily includes some margin for judgmental error. The fact that particular consumers do not return for further credit extensions does not prevent a plan from having been properly characterized as open-end. For example, if much of the customer base of a clothing store makes repeat purchases, the fact that some consumers use the plan only once would not affect the characterization of the store's plan as open-end credit. The criterion regarding repeated transactions is a question of fact to be decided in the context of the creditor's type of business and the creditor's relationship with its customers. For example, it would be more reasonable for a bank or depository institution to contemplate repeated transactions with a customer than for a seller of aluminum siding to make the same assumption about its customers.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Finance charge on an outstanding balance.</I> i. The requirement that a finance charge may be computed and imposed from time to time on the outstanding balance means that there is no specific amount financed for the plan for which the finance charge, total of payments, and payment schedule can be calculated. A plan may meet the definition of open-end credit even though a finance charge is not normally imposed, provided the creditor has the right, under the plan, to impose a finance charge from time to time on the outstanding balance. For example, in some plans, a finance charge is not imposed if the consumer pays all or a specified portion of the outstanding balance within a given time period. Such a plan could meet the finance charge criterion, if the creditor has the right to impose a finance charge, even though the consumer actually pays no finance charges during the existence of the plan because the consumer takes advantage of the option to pay the balance (either in full or in installments) within the time necessary to avoid finance charges.
</P>
<P>ii. With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, any service, transaction, activity, or carrying charges imposed on the covered separate credit feature, and any such charges imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account to the extent that the amount of the charge exceeds comparable charges imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, generally is a finance charge. <I>See</I> § 1026.4(a) and (b)(11). Such charges include a periodic fee to participate in the covered separate credit feature, regardless of whether this fee is imposed on the credit feature or on the asset feature of the prepaid account. With respect to credit from a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, any service, transaction, activity, or carrying charges that are finance charges under § 1026.4 constitute finance charges imposed from time to time on an outstanding unpaid balance as described in § 1026.2(a)(20) if there is no specific amount financed for the credit feature for which the finance charge, total of payments, and payment schedule can be calculated.
</P>
<P>iii. Regardless of whether a financial institution assesses such charges on a covered asset account as defined in § 1026.62 or a separate credit account, any service, transaction, activity, or carrying charges imposed by the financial institution for paying a transaction that overdraws a consumer's covered asset account held at the financial institution are generally finance charges unless they are otherwise addressed by § 1026.4(b)(2), (b)(12), or (c). <I>See</I> § 1026.4(a), (b)(2), (b)(12), and (c). Additionally, such charges would constitute finance charges imposed from time to time on an outstanding unpaid balance, as described in § 1026.2(a)(20), if there is no specific amount financed for the plan for which the finance charge, total of payments, and payment schedule can be calculated.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Reusable line.</I> The total amount of credit that may be extended during the existence of an open-end plan is unlimited because available credit is generally replenished as earlier advances are repaid. A line of credit is self-replenishing even though the plan itself has a fixed expiration date, as long as during the plan's existence the consumer may use the line, repay, and reuse the credit. The creditor may occasionally or routinely verify credit information such as the consumer's continued income and employment status or information for security purposes but, to meet the definition of open-end credit, such verification of credit information may not be done as a condition of granting a consumer's request for a particular advance under the plan. In general, a credit line is self-replenishing if the consumer can take further advances as outstanding balances are repaid without being required to separately apply for those additional advances. A credit card account where the plan as a whole replenishes meets the self-replenishing criterion, notwithstanding the fact that a credit card issuer may verify credit information from time to time in connection with specific transactions. This criterion of unlimited credit distinguishes open-end credit from a series of advances made pursuant to a closed-end credit loan commitment. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Under a closed-end commitment, the creditor might agree to lend a total of $10,000 in a series of advances as needed by the consumer. When a consumer has borrowed the full $10,000, no more is advanced under that particular agreement, even if there has been repayment of a portion of the debt. (<I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(17)(iv) for disclosure requirements when a credit card is used to obtain the advances.)
</P>
<P>ii. This criterion does not mean that the creditor must establish a specific credit limit for the line of credit or that the line of credit must always be replenished to its original amount. The creditor may reduce a credit limit or refuse to extend new credit in a particular case due to changes in the creditor's financial condition or the consumer's creditworthiness. (The rules in § 1026.40(f), however, limit the ability of a creditor to suspend credit advances for home equity plans.) While consumers should have a reasonable expectation of obtaining credit as long as they remain current and within any preset credit limits, further extensions of credit need not be an absolute right in order for the plan to meet the self-replenishing criterion.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Verifications of collateral value.</I> Creditors that otherwise meet the requirements of § 1026.2(a)(20) extend open-end credit notwithstanding the fact that the creditor must verify collateral values to comply with Federal, state, or other applicable law or verifies the value of collateral in connection with a particular advance under the plan.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Open-end real estate mortgages.</I> Some credit plans call for negotiated advances under so-called open-end real estate mortgages. Each such plan must be independently measured against the definition of open-end credit, regardless of the terminology used in the industry to describe the plan. The fact that a particular plan is called an open-end real estate mortgage, for example, does not, by itself, mean that it is open-end credit under the regulation.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(21) Periodic Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Basis.</I> The periodic rate may be stated as a percentage (for example, 1 and 
<FR>1/2</FR>% per month) or as a decimal equivalent (for example, .015 monthly). It may be based on any portion of a year the creditor chooses. Some creditors use 
<FR>1/360</FR> of an annual rate as their periodic rate. These creditors:
</P>
<P>i. May disclose a 
<FR>1/360</FR> rate as a <I>daily</I> periodic rate, without further explanation, if it is in fact only applied 360 days per year. But if the creditor applies that rate for 365 days, the creditor must note that fact and, of course, disclose the true annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Would have to apply the rate to the balance to disclose the annual percentage rate with the degree of accuracy required in the regulation (that is, within 
<FR>1/8</FR>th of 1 percentage point of the rate based on the actual 365 days in the year).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transaction charges. Periodic rate</I> does not include initial one-time transaction charges, even if the charge is computed as a percentage of the transaction amount.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(22) Person
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Joint ventures.</I> A joint venture is an organization and is therefore a person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Attorneys.</I> An attorney and his or her client are considered to be the same person for purposes of this part when the attorney is acting within the scope of the attorney-client relationship with regard to a particular transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Trusts.</I> A trust and its trustee are considered to be the same person for purposes of this part.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(23) Prepaid Finance Charge
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Prepaid finance charges must be taken into account under § 1026.18(b) in computing the disclosed amount financed, and must be disclosed if the creditor provides an itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. Common examples of prepaid finance charges include:
</P>
<P>A. Buyer's points.
</P>
<P>B. Service fees.
</P>
<P>C. Loan fees.
</P>
<P>D. Finder's fees.
</P>
<P>E. Loan-guarantee insurance.
</P>
<P>F. Credit-investigation fees.
</P>
<P>ii. However, in order for these or any other finance charges to be considered prepaid, they must be either paid separately in cash or check or withheld from the proceeds. Prepaid finance charges include any portion of the finance charge paid prior to or at closing or settlement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exclusions. Add-on</I> and <I>discount</I> finance charges are not prepaid finance charges for purposes of this part. Finance charges are not <I>prepaid</I> merely because they are precomputed, whether or not a portion of the charge will be rebated to the consumer upon prepayment. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.18(b).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Allocation of lump-sum payments.</I> In a credit sale transaction involving a lump-sum payment by the consumer and a discount or other item that is a finance charge under § 1026.4, the discount or other item is a prepaid finance charge to the extent the lump-sum payment is not applied to the cash price. For example, a seller sells property to a consumer for $10,000, requires the consumer to pay $3,000 at the time of the purchase, and finances the remainder as a closed-end credit transaction. The cash price of the property is $9,000. The seller is the creditor in the transaction and therefore the $1,000 difference between the credit and cash prices (the discount) is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 1026.4(b)(9) and (c)(5).) If the creditor applies the entire $3,000 to the cash price and adds the $1,000 finance charge to the interest on the $6,000 to arrive at the total finance charge, all of the $3,000 lump-sum payment is a downpayment and the discount is not a prepaid finance charge. However, if the creditor only applies $2,000 of the lump-sum payment to the cash price, then $2,000 of the $3,000 is a downpayment and the $1,000 discount is a prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(24) Residential Mortgage Transaction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> This term is important in five provisions in the regulation:
</P>
<P>i. Section 1026.4(c)(7)—exclusions from the finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 1026.15(f)—exemption from the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>iii. Section 1026.18(q)—whether or not the obligation is assumable.
</P>
<P>iv. Section 1026.20(b)—disclosure requirements for assumptions.
</P>
<P>v. Section 1026.23(f)—exemption from the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lien status.</I> The definition is not limited to first lien transactions. For example, a consumer might assume a paid-down first mortgage (or borrow part of the purchase price) and borrow the balance of the purchase price from a creditor who takes a second mortgage. The second mortgage transaction is a <I>residential mortgage transaction</I> if the dwelling purchased is the consumer's principal residence.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can have only <I>one</I> principal dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of applying this definition to a particular transaction. (<I>See</I> the commentary to §§ 1026.15(a) and 1026.23(a).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Construction financing.</I> If a transaction meets the definition of a residential mortgage transaction and the creditor chooses to disclose it as several transactions under § 1026.17(c)(6), each one is considered to be a residential mortgage transaction, even if different creditors are involved. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The creditor makes a construction loan to finance the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling, and the loan will be disbursed in five advances. The creditor gives six sets of disclosures (five for the construction phase and one for the permanent phase). Each one is a residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. One creditor finances the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling and another creditor makes a loan to satisfy the construction loan and provide permanent financing. Both transactions are residential mortgage transactions.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Acquisition.</I> i. A residential mortgage transaction finances the acquisition of a consumer's principal dwelling. The term does not include a transaction involving a consumer's principal dwelling if the consumer had previously purchased and acquired some interest to the dwelling, even though the consumer had not acquired full legal title.
</P>
<P>ii. Examples of new transactions involving a previously acquired dwelling include the financing of a balloon payment due under a land sale contract and an extension of credit made to a joint owner of property to buy out the other joint owner's interest. In these instances, disclosures are not required under § 1026.18(q) (assumability policies). However, the rescission rules of §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23 do apply to these new transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. In other cases, the disclosure and rescission rules do not apply. For example, where a buyer enters into a written agreement with the creditor holding the seller's mortgage, allowing the buyer to assume the mortgage, if the buyer had previously purchased the property and agreed with the seller to make the mortgage payments, § 1026.20(b) does not apply (assumptions involving residential mortgages).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple purpose transactions.</I> A transaction meets the definition of this section if any part of the loan proceeds will be used to finance the acquisition or initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling. For example, a transaction to finance the initial construction of the consumer's principal dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction even if a portion of the funds will be disbursed directly to the consumer or used to satisfy a loan for the purchase of the land on which the dwelling will be built.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Construction on previously acquired vacant land.</I> A residential mortgage transaction includes a loan to finance the construction of a consumer's principal dwelling on a vacant lot previously acquired by the consumer.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(25) Security Interest
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Threshold test.</I> The threshold test is whether a particular interest in property is recognized as a security interest under applicable law. The regulation does not determine whether a particular interest is a security interest under applicable law. If the creditor is unsure whether a particular interest is a security interest under applicable law (for example, if statutes and case law are either silent or inconclusive on the issue), the creditor may at its option consider such interests as security interests for Truth in Lending purposes. However, the regulation and the commentary do exclude specific interests, such as after-acquired property and accessories, from the scope of the definition regardless of their categorization under applicable law, and these named exclusions may not be disclosed as security interests under the regulation. (But see the discussion of exclusions elsewhere in the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(25).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The general definition of security interest excludes three groups of interests: incidental interests, interests in after-acquired property, and interests that arise solely by operation of law. These interests may not be disclosed with the disclosures required under §§ 1026.18, 1026.19(e) and (f), and 1026.38(l)(6), but the creditor is not precluded from preserving these rights elsewhere in the contract documents, or invoking and enforcing such rights, if it is otherwise lawful to do so. If the creditor is unsure whether a particular interest is one of the excluded interests, the creditor may, at its option, consider such interests as security interests for purposes of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>) and Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Incidental interests.</I> i. Incidental interests in property that are not security interests include, among other things:
</P>
<P>A. Assignment of rents.
</P>
<P>B. Right to condemnation proceeds.
</P>
<P>C. Interests in accessories and replacements.
</P>
<P>D. Interests in escrow accounts, such as for taxes and insurance.
</P>
<P>E. Waiver of homestead or personal property rights.
</P>
<P>ii. The notion of an <I>incidental interest</I> does not encompass an explicit security interest in an insurance policy if that policy is the primary collateral for the transaction—for example, in an insurance premium financing transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Operation of law.</I> Interests that arise solely by operation of law are excluded from the general definition. Also excluded are interests arising by operation of law that are merely repeated or referred to in the contract. However, if the creditor has an interest that arises by operation of law, such as a vendor's lien, and takes an independent security interest in the same property, such as a UCC security interest, the latter interest is a disclosable security interest unless otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rescission rules.</I> Security interests that arise solely by operation of law are security interests for purposes of rescission. Examples of such interests are mechanics' and materialmen's liens.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Specificity of disclosure.</I> A creditor need not separately disclose multiple security interests that it may hold in the same collateral. The creditor need only disclose that the transaction is secured by the collateral, even when security interests from prior transactions remain of record and a new security interest is taken in connection with the transaction. In disclosing the fact that the transaction is secured by the collateral, the creditor also need not disclose how the security interest arose. For example, in a closed-end credit transaction, a rescission notice need not specifically state that a new security interest is “acquired” or an existing security interest is “retained” in the transaction. The acquisition or retention of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling instead may be disclosed in a rescission notice with a general statement such as the following: “Your home is the security for the new transaction.”


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 2(a)(27)
</HD3>
<P>2(a)(27)(i) Successor in interest
</P>
<P>1. <I>Joint tenants and tenants by the entirety.</I> If a consumer who has an ownership interest as a joint tenant or tenant by the entirety in a dwelling securing a closed-end consumer credit transaction dies, a surviving joint tenant or tenant by the entirety with a right of survivorship in the property is a successor in interest as defined in § 1026.2(a)(27)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Beneficiaries of</I> inter vivos <I>trusts.</I> In the event of a transfer into an <I>inter vivos</I> trust in which the consumer is and remains a beneficiary and which does not relate to a transfer of rights of occupancy in the property, the beneficiaries of the <I>inter vivos</I> trust rather than the <I>inter vivos</I> trust itself are considered to be the successors in interest for purposes of § 1026.2(a)(27)(i). For example, assume Consumer A transfers her home into such an <I>inter vivos</I> trust for the benefit of her spouse and herself. As of the transfer date, Consumer A and her spouse are considered successors in interest and, upon confirmation, are consumers for purposes of certain provisions of this part. If the creditor has not released Consumer A from the loan obligation, Consumer A also remains a consumer more generally for purposes of this part.


</P>
<HD3>2(b) Rules of Construction
</HD3>
<P>1. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount.</I> The numerical amount must be a dollar amount unless otherwise indicated. For example, in a closed-end transaction (Subpart C), the amount financed and the amount of any payment must be expressed as a dollar amount. In some cases, an amount should be expressed as a percentage. For example, in disclosures provided before the first transaction under an open-end plan (Subpart B), creditors are permitted to explain how the amount of any finance charge will be determined; where a cash-advance fee (which is a finance charge) is a percentage of each cash advance, the amount of the finance charge for that fee is expressed as a percentage.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.3—Exempt Transactions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.12.</I> The provisions in § 1026.12(a) and (b) governing the issuance of credit cards and the limitations on liability for their unauthorized use apply to all credit cards, even if the credit cards are issued for use in connection with extensions of credit that otherwise are exempt under this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 1026.42(i).</I> As provided in § 1026.3(i), the provisions in § 1026.42(i) governing the use of automated valuation models apply even if the transactions in which automated valuation models are used would otherwise be exempt under this section.










</P>
<HD3>3(a) Business, Commercial, Agricultural, or Organizational Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Primary purposes.</I> A creditor must determine in each case if the transaction is primarily for an exempt purpose. If some question exists as to the primary purpose for a credit extension, the creditor is, of course, free to make the disclosures, and the fact that disclosures are made under such circumstances is not controlling on the question of whether the transaction was exempt. (See comment 3(a)-2, however, with respect to credit cards.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Business purpose purchases.</I> i. <I>Business-purpose credit cards—extensions of credit for consumer purposes.</I> If a business-purpose credit card is issued to a person, the provisions of the regulation do not apply, other than as provided in §§ 1026.12(a) and 1026.12(b), even if extensions of credit for consumer purposes are occasionally made using that business-purpose credit card. For example, the billing error provisions set forth in § 1026.13 do not apply to consumer-purpose extensions of credit using a business-purpose credit card.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Consumer-purpose credit cards—extensions of credit for business purposes.</I> If a consumer-purpose credit card is issued to a person, the provisions of the regulation apply, even to occasional extensions of credit for business purposes made using that consumer-purpose credit card. For example, a consumer may assert a billing error with respect to any extension of credit using a consumer-purpose credit card, even if the specific extension of credit on such credit card or open-end credit plan that is the subject of the dispute was made for business purposes.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Factors.</I> In determining whether credit to finance an acquisition—such as securities, antiques, or art—is primarily for business or commercial purposes (as opposed to a consumer purpose), the following factors should be considered:
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> A. The relationship of the borrower's primary occupation to the acquisition. The more closely related, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
</P>
<P>B. The degree to which the borrower will personally manage the acquisition. The more personal involvement there is, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
</P>
<P>C. The ratio of income from the acquisition to the total income of the borrower. The higher the ratio, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
</P>
<P>D. The size of the transaction. The larger the transaction, the more likely it is to be business purpose.
</P>
<P>E. The borrower's statement of purpose for the loan.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Business-purpose examples.</I> Examples of business-purpose credit include:
</P>
<P>A. A loan to expand a business, even if it is secured by the borrower's residence or personal property.
</P>
<P>B. A loan to improve a principal residence by putting in a business office.
</P>
<P>C. A business account used occasionally for consumer purposes.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Consumer-purpose examples.</I> Examples of consumer-purpose credit include:
</P>
<P>A. Credit extensions by a company to its employees or agents if the loans are used for personal purposes.
</P>
<P>B. A loan secured by a mechanic's tools to pay a child's tuition.
</P>
<P>C. A personal account used occasionally for business purposes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Non-owner-occupied rental property.</I> Credit extended to acquire, improve, or maintain rental property (regardless of the number of housing units) that is not owner-occupied is deemed to be for business purposes. This includes, for example, the acquisition of a warehouse that will be leased or a single-family house that will be rented to another person to live in. If the owner expects to occupy the property for more than 14 days during the coming year, the property cannot be considered non-owner-occupied and this special rule will not apply. For example, a beach house that the owner will occupy for a month in the coming summer and rent out the rest of the year is owner occupied and is not governed by this special rule. (<I>See</I> comment 3(a)-5, however, for rules relating to owner-occupied rental property.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Owner-occupied rental property.</I> If credit is extended to acquire, improve, or maintain rental property that is or will be owner-occupied within the coming year, different rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. Credit extended to acquire the rental property is deemed to be for business purposes if it contains more than 2 housing units.
</P>
<P>ii. Credit extended to improve or maintain the rental property is deemed to be for business purposes if it contains more than 4 housing units. Since the amended statute defines dwelling to include 1 to 4 housing units, this rule preserves the right of rescission for credit extended for purposes other than acquisition. Neither of these rules means that an extension of credit for property containing fewer than the requisite number of units is necessarily consumer credit. In such cases, the determination of whether it is business or consumer credit should be made by considering the factors listed in comment 3(a)-3.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Business credit later refinanced.</I> Business-purpose credit that is exempt from the regulation may later be rewritten for consumer purposes. Such a transaction is consumer credit requiring disclosures only if the existing obligation is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation made for consumer purposes undertaken by the same obligor.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Credit card renewal.</I> A consumer-purpose credit card that is subject to the regulation may be converted into a business-purpose credit card at the time of its renewal, and the resulting business-purpose credit card would be exempt from the regulation. Conversely, a business-purpose credit card that is exempt from the regulation may be converted into a consumer-purpose credit card at the time of its renewal, and the resulting consumer-purpose credit card would be subject to the regulation.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Agricultural purpose.</I> An agricultural purpose includes the planting, propagating, nurturing, harvesting, catching, storing, exhibiting, marketing, transporting, processing, or manufacturing of food, beverages (including alcoholic beverages), flowers, trees, livestock, poultry, bees, wildlife, fish, or shellfish by a natural person engaged in farming, fishing, or growing crops, flowers, trees, livestock, poultry, bees, or wildlife. The exemption also applies to a transaction involving real property that includes a dwelling (for example, the purchase of a farm with a homestead) if the transaction is primarily for agricultural purposes.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Organizational credit.</I> The exemption for transactions in which the borrower is not a natural person applies, for example, to loans to corporations, partnerships, associations, churches, unions, and fraternal organizations. The exemption applies regardless of the purpose of the credit extension and regardless of the fact that a natural person may guarantee or provide security for the credit. <I>But see</I> comment 3(a)-10 concerning credit extended to trusts.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Trusts.</I> Credit extended for consumer purposes to certain trusts is considered to be credit extended to a natural person rather than credit extended to an organization. Specifically:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Trusts for tax or estate planning purposes.</I> In some instances, a creditor may extend credit for consumer purposes to a trust that a consumer has created for tax or estate planning purposes (or both). Consumers sometimes place their assets in trust, with themselves or themselves and their families or other prospective heirs as beneficiaries, to obtain certain tax benefits and to facilitate the future administration of their estates. During their lifetimes, however, such consumers may continue to use the assets and/or income of such trusts as their property. A creditor extending credit to finance the acquisition of, for example, a consumer's dwelling that is held in such a trust, or to refinance existing debt secured by such a dwelling, may prepare the note, security instrument, and similar loan documents for execution by a trustee, rather than the beneficiaries of the trust. Regardless of the capacity or capacities in which the loan documents are executed, assuming the transaction is primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, the transaction is subject to the regulation because in substance (if not form) consumer credit is being extended.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Land trusts.</I> In some jurisdictions, a financial institution financing a residential real estate transaction for an individual uses a land trust mechanism. Title to the property is conveyed to the land trust for which the financial institution itself is trustee. The underlying installment note is executed by the financial institution in its capacity as trustee and payment is secured by a trust deed, reflecting title in the financial institution as trustee. In some instances, the consumer executes a personal guaranty of the indebtedness. The note provides that it is payable only out of the property specifically described in the trust deed and that the trustee has no personal liability on the note. Assuming the transactions are primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, these transactions are subject to the regulation because in substance (if not form) consumer credit is being extended.


</P>
<HD3>3(b) Credit Over Applicable Threshold Amount
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Threshold amount.</I> For purposes of § 1026.3(b), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in comment 3(b)-3 below for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 3(b)-3 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 1026.3(b), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. Prior to July 21, 2011, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From July 21, 2011, through December 31, 2011, the threshold amount is $50,000.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, the threshold amount is $51,800.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2013, through December 31, 2013, the threshold amount is $53,000.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $53,500.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $54,600.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $55,800.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $57,200.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $58,300.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $61,000.
</P>
<P>xiv. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $66,400.
</P>
<P>xv. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $69,500.
</P>
<P>xvi. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $71,900.
</P>
<P>xvii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $73,400.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Qualifying for exemption.</I> An open-end account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) (unless secured by real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling) if either of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>A. The creditor makes an initial extension of credit at or after account opening that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time the initial extension is made. If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit after account opening that does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made, the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable), including but not limited to the requirements of § 1026.6 (account-opening disclosures), § 1026.7 (periodic statements), § 1026.52 (limitations on fees), and § 1026.55 (limitations on increasing annual percentage rates, fees, and charges). For example:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $60,000. In this circumstance, no requirements of this part apply to the account.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Assume that the threshold amount in effect on January 1 is $50,000. On February 1, an account is opened but the creditor does not make an initial extension of credit at that time. On July 1, the creditor makes an initial extension of credit of $50,000 or less. In this circumstance, the account is not exempt, and the creditor must have satisfied all of the applicable requirements of this part from the date the account was opened (or earlier, if applicable).
</P>
<P>B. The creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the account is opened with no requirement of additional credit information for any advances on the account (except as permitted from time to time with respect to open-end accounts pursuant to § 1026.2(a)(20)).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes generally.</I> Subsequent changes to an open-end account or the threshold amount may result in the account no longer qualifying for the exemption in § 1026.3(b). In these circumstances, the creditor must begin to comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part within a reasonable period of time after the account ceases to be exempt. Once an account ceases to be exempt, the requirements of this part apply to any balances on the account. The creditor, however, is not required to comply with the requirements of this part with respect to the period of time during which the account was exempt. For example, if an open-end credit account ceases to be exempt, the creditor must within a reasonable period of time provide the disclosures required by § 1026.6 reflecting the current terms of the account and begin to provide periodic statements consistent with § 1026.7. However, the creditor is not required to disclose fees or charges imposed while the account was exempt. Furthermore, if the creditor provided disclosures consistent with the requirements of this part while the account was exempt, it is not required to provide disclosures required by § 1026.6 reflecting the current terms of the account. See also comment 3(b)-6.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Subsequent changes when exemption is based on initial extension of credit.</I> If a creditor makes an initial extension of credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at that time, the open-end account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount, including an increase pursuant to § 1026.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. Furthermore, in these circumstances, the account remains exempt even if there are no further extensions of credit, subsequent extensions of credit do not exceed the threshold amount, the account balance is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the extension), or the credit limit for the account is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount. However, if the initial extension of credit on an account does not exceed the threshold amount in effect at the time of the extension, the account is not exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if a subsequent extension exceeds the threshold amount or if the account balance later exceeds the threshold amount (for example, due to the subsequent accrual of interest).
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Subsequent changes when exemption is based on firm commitment.</I>
</P>
<P>A. <I>General.</I> If a creditor makes a firm written commitment at account opening to extend a total amount of credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at that time, the open-end account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount pursuant to § 1026.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. However, see comment 3(b)-8 with respect to the increase in the threshold amount from $25,000 to $50,000. If an open-end account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit, the account remains exempt even if the amount of credit actually extended does not exceed the threshold amount. In contrast, if the firm commitment does not exceed the threshold amount at account opening, the account is not exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if the account balance later exceeds the threshold amount. In addition, if a creditor reduces a firm commitment, the account ceases to be exempt unless the reduced firm commitment exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of the reduction. For example:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $53,000, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b). However, if during year one the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $40,000, the account is no longer exempt under § 1026.3(b).
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. If the threshold amount is $56,000 on January 1 of year six as a result of increases in the CPI-W, the account remains exempt. However, if the creditor reduces its firm commitment to $54,000 on July 1 of year six, the account ceases to be exempt under § 1026.3(b).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Initial extension of credit.</I> If an open-end account qualifies for a § 1026.3(b) exemption at account opening based on a firm commitment, that account may also subsequently qualify for a § 1026.3(b) exemption based on an initial extension of credit. However, that initial extension must be a single advance in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time the extension is made. In addition, the account must continue to qualify for an exemption based on the firm commitment until the initial extension of credit is made. For example:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Assume that, at account opening in year one, the threshold amount in effect is $50,000 and the account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit. The account is not used for an extension of credit during year one. On January 1 of year two, the threshold amount is increased to $51,000 pursuant to § 1026.3(b)(1)(ii) as a result of an increase in the CPI-W. On July 1 of year two, the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $52,000. As a result of this extension of credit, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if, after July 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $51,000 or less.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Same facts as in paragraph 4.iv.B.1 of this section except that the consumer uses the account for an initial extension of $30,000 on July 1 of year two and for an extension of $22,000 on July 15 of year two. In these circumstances, the account is not exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the $30,000 initial extension of credit because that extension did not exceed the applicable threshold amount ($51,000), although the account remains exempt based on the firm commitment to extend $55,000 in credit.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> Same facts as in paragraph 4.iv.B.1 of this section except that, on April 1 of year two, the creditor reduces the firm commitment to $50,000, which is below the $51,000 threshold then in effect. Because the account ceases to qualify for a § 1026.3(b) exemption on April 1 of year two, the account does not qualify for a § 1026.3(b) exemption based on a $52,000 initial extension of credit on July 1 of year two.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Qualifying for exemption.</I> A closed-end loan is exempt under § 1026.3(b) (unless the extension of credit is secured by real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling; or is a private education loan as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5)), if either of the following conditions is met:
</P>
<P>A. The creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if the amount owed is subsequently reduced below the threshold amount (such as through repayment of the loan).
</P>
<P>B. The creditor makes a commitment at consummation to extend a total amount of credit in excess of the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation. In these circumstances, the loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) even if the total amount of credit extended does not exceed the threshold amount.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes.</I> If a creditor makes a closed-end extension of credit or commitment to extend closed-end credit that exceeds the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation, the closed-end loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b) regardless of a subsequent increase in the threshold amount. However, a closed-end loan is not exempt under § 1026.3(b) merely because it is used to satisfy and replace an existing exempt loan, unless the new extension of credit is itself exempt under the applicable threshold amount. For example, assume a closed-end loan that qualified for a § 1026.3(b) exemption at consummation in year one is refinanced in year ten and that the new loan amount is less than the threshold amount in effect in year ten. In these circumstances, the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part with respect to the year ten transaction if the original loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan, which is not exempt under § 1026.3(b). See also comment 3(b)-6.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Addition of a security interest in real property or a dwelling after account opening or consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Open-end credit.</I> For open-end accounts, if after account opening a security interest is taken in real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, a previously exempt account ceases to be exempt under § 1026.3(b) and the creditor must begin to comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part within a reasonable period of time. See comment 3(b)-4.ii. If a security interest is taken in the consumer's principal dwelling, the creditor must also give the consumer the right to rescind the security interest consistent with § 1026.15.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Closed-end credit.</I> For closed-end loans, if after consummation a security interest is taken in real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, an exempt loan remains exempt under § 1026.3(b). However, the addition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is a transaction for purposes of § 1026.23, and the creditor must give the consumer the right to rescind the security interest consistent with that section. See § 1026.23(a)(1) and its commentary. In contrast, if a closed-end loan that is exempt under § 1026.3(b) is satisfied and replaced by a loan that is secured by real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling, the new loan is not exempt under § 1026.3(b), and the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of this part. See comment 3(b)-5.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Application to extensions secured by mobile homes.</I> Because a mobile home can be a dwelling under § 1026.2(a)(19), the exemption in § 1026.3(b) does not apply to a credit extension secured by a mobile home that is used or expected to be used as the principal dwelling of the consumer. See comment 3(b)-6.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Transition rule for open-end accounts exempt prior to July 21, 2011.</I> Section 1026.3(b)(2) applies only to open-end accounts opened prior to July 21, 2011. Section 1026.3(b)(2) does not apply if a security interest is taken by the creditor in real property, or in personal property used or expected to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling. If, on July 20, 2011, an open-end account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit in excess of $25,000, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b)(2) until December 31, 2011 (unless the firm commitment is reduced to $25,000 or less). If the firm commitment is increased on or before December 31, 2011, to an amount in excess of $50,000, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W. If the firm commitment is not increased on or before December 31, 2011, to an amount in excess of $50,000, the account ceases to be exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on a firm commitment to extend credit. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, on July 20, 2011, the account is exempt under § 1026.3(b) based on the creditor's firm commitment to extend $30,000 in credit. On November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $55,000. In these circumstances, the account remains exempt under § 1026.3(b)(1) regardless of subsequent increases in the threshold amount as a result of increases in the CPI-W.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as paragraph 8.i of this section except, on November 1, 2011, the creditor increases the firm commitment on the account to $40,000. In these circumstances, the account ceases to be exempt under § 1026.3(b)(2) after December 31, 2011, and the creditor must begin to comply with the applicable requirements of this part.


</P>
<HD3>3(c) Public Utility Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of public utility services include:
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> A. Gas, water, or electrical services.
</P>
<P>B. Cable television services.
</P>
<P>C. Installation of new sewer lines, water lines, conduits, telephone poles, or metering equipment in an area not already serviced by the utility.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Extensions of credit not covered.</I> The exemption does not apply to extensions of credit, for example:
</P>
<P>A. To purchase appliances such as gas or electric ranges, grills, or telephones.
</P>
<P>B. To finance home improvements such as new heating or air conditioning systems.
</P>
<HD3>3(d) Securities or Commodities Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption does not apply to a transaction with a broker registered solely with the state, or to a separate credit extension in which the proceeds are used to purchase securities.
</P>
<HD3>3(e) Home Fuel Budget Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Under a typical home fuel budget plan, the fuel dealer estimates the total cost of fuel for the season, bills the customer for an average monthly payment, and makes an adjustment in the final payment for any difference between the estimated and the actual cost of the fuel. Fuel is delivered as needed, no finance charge is assessed, and the customer may withdraw from the plan at any time. Under these circumstances, the arrangement is exempt from the regulation, even if a charge to cover the billing costs is imposed.
</P>
<HD3>3(f) Student Loan Programs
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This exemption applies to loans made, insured, or guaranteed under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>). This exemption does not apply to private education loans as defined by § 1026.46(b)(5).


</P>
<HD3>3(h) Partial exemption for certain mortgage loans. 
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Partial exemption.</I> Section 1026.3(h) exempts certain transactions from the disclosures described in § 1026.19(g), and, under certain circumstances, § 1026.19(e) and (f). Section 1026.3(h) exempts transactions from § 1026.19(e) and (f) if the creditor chooses to provide disclosures described in § 1026.18 that comply with this part pursuant to § 1026.3(h)(6)(i), but does not exempt transactions from § 1026.19(e) and (f) if the creditor chooses to provide disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f) that comply with this part pursuant to § 1026.3(h)(6)(ii). Creditors may provide, at their option, either the disclosures described in § 1026.18 or the disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f). In providing these disclosures, creditors must comply with all provisions of this part relating to those disclosures. Section 1026.3(h) does not exempt transactions from any of the other requirements of this part, to the extent they are applicable. For transactions that would otherwise be subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), and (g), creditors must comply with all other applicable requirements of this part, including the consumer's right to rescind the transaction under § 1026.23, to the extent that provision is applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Establishing compliance.</I> The conditions that the transaction not require the payment of interest under § 1026.3(h)(3) and that repayment of the amount of credit extended be forgiven or deferred in accordance with § 1026.3(h)(4) must be reflected in the loan contract. The other requirements of § 1026.3(h) need not be reflected in the loan contract, but the creditor must retain evidence of compliance with those provisions, as required by § 1026.25(a) or (c), as applicable. In particular, because the exemption in § 1026.3(h) means the creditor is not required to provide the disclosures of closing costs under § 1026.37 or § 1026.38 (unless the creditor chooses to provide disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f) that comply with this part), the creditor must retain evidence reflecting that the costs payable by the consumer in connection with the transaction at consummation are limited to recording fees, transfer taxes, a bona fide and reasonable application fee, and a bona fide and reasonable housing counseling fee, and that the total of application and housing counseling fees is less than 1 percent of the amount of credit extended, in accordance with § 1026.3(h)(5). Unless the itemization of the amount financed provided to the consumer sufficiently details this requirement, the creditor must establish compliance with § 1026.3(h)(5) by some other written document and retain it in accordance with § 1026.25(a) or (c), as applicable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to partial exemption for certain federally related mortgage loans.</I> Regulation X provides a partial exemption from certain Regulation X disclosure requirements in 12 CFR 1024.5(d). The partial exemption in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.5(d)(2) provides that certain Regulation X disclosure requirements do not apply to a federally related mortgage loan, as defined in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2(b), that satisfies the criteria in § 1026.3(h) of this part. For a federally related mortgage loan that is not otherwise covered by Regulation Z, lenders may satisfy the criteria in § 1026.3(h)(6) by providing the disclosures described in § 1026.18 that comply with this part or the disclosures described in § 1026.19(e) and (f) that comply with this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Recording fees.</I> See comment 37(g)(1)-1 for a discussion of what constitutes a recording fee.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transfer taxes.</I> See comment 37(g)(1)-3 for a discussion of what constitutes a transfer tax.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.4—Finance Charge
</HD2>
<HD3>4(a) Definition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Charges in comparable cash transactions.</I> Charges imposed uniformly in cash and credit transactions are not finance charges. In determining whether an item is a finance charge, the creditor should compare the credit transaction in question with a similar cash transaction. A creditor financing the sale of property or services may compare charges with those payable in a similar cash transaction by the seller of the property or service.
</P>
<P>i. For example, the following items are not finance charges:
</P>
<P>A. Taxes, license fees, or registration fees paid by both cash and credit customers.
</P>
<P>B. Discounts that are available to cash and credit customers, such as quantity discounts.
</P>
<P>C. Discounts available to a particular group of consumers because they meet certain criteria, such as being members of an organization or having accounts at a particular financial institution. This is the case even if an individual must pay cash to obtain the discount, provided that credit customers who are members of the group and do not qualify for the discount pay no more than the nonmember cash customers.
</P>
<P>D. Charges for a service policy, auto club membership, or policy of insurance against latent defects offered to or required of both cash and credit customers for the same price.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, the following items are finance charges:
</P>
<P>A. Inspection and handling fees for the staged disbursement of construction-loan proceeds.
</P>
<P>B. Fees for preparing a Truth in Lending disclosure statement, if permitted by law (for example, the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act prohibits such charges in certain transactions secured by real property).
</P>
<P>C. Charges for a required maintenance or service contract imposed only in a credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. If the charge in a credit transaction exceeds the charge imposed in a comparable cash transaction, only the difference is a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>A. If an escrow agent is used in both cash and credit sales of real estate and the agent's charge is $100 in a cash transaction and $150 in a credit transaction, only $50 is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Costs of doing business.</I> Charges absorbed by the creditor as a cost of doing business are not finance charges, even though the creditor may take such costs into consideration in determining the interest rate to be charged or the cash price of the property or service sold. However, if the creditor separately imposes a charge on the consumer to cover certain costs, the charge is a finance charge if it otherwise meets the definition. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A discount imposed on a credit obligation when it is assigned by a seller-creditor to another party is not a finance charge as long as the discount is not separately imposed on the consumer. (<I>See</I> § 1026.4(b)(6).)
</P>
<P>ii. A tax imposed by a state or other governmental body on a creditor is not a finance charge if the creditor absorbs the tax as a cost of doing business and does not separately impose the tax on the consumer. (For additional discussion of the treatment of taxes, see other commentary to § 1026.4(a).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forfeitures of interest.</I> If the creditor reduces the interest rate it pays or stops paying interest on the consumer's deposit account or any portion of it for the term of a credit transaction (including, for example, an overdraft on a checking account or a loan secured by a certificate of deposit), the interest lost is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 1026.4(c)(6).) For example:
</P>
<P>i. A consumer borrows $5,000 for 90 days and secures it with a $10,000 certificate of deposit paying 15% interest. The creditor charges the consumer an interest rate of 6% on the loan and stops paying interest on $5,000 of the $10,000 certificate for the term of the loan. The interest lost is a finance charge and must be reflected in the annual percentage rate on the loan.
</P>
<P>ii. However, the consumer must be entitled to the interest that is not paid in order for the lost interest to be a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>A. A consumer wishes to buy from a financial institution a $10,000 certificate of deposit paying 15% interest but has only $4,000. The financial institution offers to lend the consumer $6,000 at an interest rate of 6% but will pay the 15% interest only on the amount of the consumer's deposit, $4,000. The creditor's failure to pay interest on the $6,000 does not result in an additional finance charge on the extension of credit, provided the consumer is entitled by the deposit agreement with the financial institution to interest only on the amount of the consumer's deposit.
</P>
<P>B. A consumer enters into a combined time deposit/credit agreement with a financial institution that establishes a time deposit account and an open-end line of credit. The line of credit may be used to borrow against the funds in the time deposit. The agreement provides for an interest rate on any credit extension of, for example, 1%. In addition, the agreement states that the creditor will pay 0% interest on the amount of the time deposit that corresponds to the amount of the credit extension(s). The interest that is not paid on the time deposit by the financial institution is not a finance charge (and therefore does not affect the annual percentage rate computation).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Treatment of transaction fees on credit card plans.</I> Except with regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, which are addressed in more detail in §§ 1026.4(b)(11) and 1026.61, any transaction charge imposed on a cardholder by a card issuer is a finance charge, regardless of whether the issuer imposes the same, greater, or lesser charge on withdrawals of funds from an asset account such as a checking or savings account. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Any charge imposed on a credit cardholder by a card issuer for the use of an automated teller machine (ATM) to obtain a cash advance (whether in a proprietary, shared, interchange, or other system) is a finance charge regardless of whether the card issuer imposes a charge on its debit cardholders for using the ATM to withdraw cash from a consumer asset account, such as a checking or savings account.
</P>
<P>ii. Any charge imposed on a credit cardholder for making a purchase or obtaining a cash advance outside the United States, with a foreign merchant, or in a foreign currency is a finance charge, regardless of whether a charge is imposed on debit cardholders for such transactions. The following principles apply in determining what is a foreign transaction fee and the amount of the fee:
</P>
<P>A. Included are (1) fees imposed when transactions are made in a foreign currency and converted to U.S. dollars; (2) fees imposed when transactions are made in U.S. dollars outside the U.S.; and (3) fees imposed when transactions are made (whether in a foreign currency or in U.S. dollars) with a foreign merchant, such as via a merchant's Web site. For example, a consumer may use a credit card to make a purchase in Bermuda, in U.S. dollars, and the card issuer may impose a fee because the transaction took place outside the United States.
</P>
<P>B. Included are fees imposed by the card issuer and fees imposed by a third party that performs the conversion, such as a credit card network or the card issuer's corporate parent. (For example, in a transaction processed through a credit card network, the network may impose a 1 percent charge and the card-issuing bank may impose an additional 2 percent charge, for a total of a 3 percentage point foreign transaction fee being imposed on the consumer.)
</P>
<P>C. Fees imposed by a third party are included only if they are directly passed on to the consumer. For example, if a credit card network imposes a 1 percent fee on the card issuer, but the card issuer absorbs the fee as a cost of doing business (and only passes it on to consumers in the general sense that the interest and fees are imposed on all its customers to recover its costs), then the fee is not a foreign transaction fee and need not be disclosed. In another example, if the credit card network imposes a 1 percent fee for a foreign transaction on the card issuer, and the card issuer imposes this same fee on the consumer who engaged in the foreign transaction, then the fee is a foreign transaction fee and a finance charge.
</P>
<P>D. A card issuer is not required to disclose a fee imposed by a merchant. For example, if the merchant itself performs the currency conversion and adds a fee, this fee need not be disclosed by the card issuer. Under § 1026.9(d), a card issuer is not obligated to disclose finance charges imposed by a party honoring a credit card, such as a merchant, although the merchant is required to disclose such a finance charge if the merchant is subject to the Truth in Lending Act and Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>E. The foreign transaction fee is determined by first calculating the dollar amount of the transaction by using a currency conversion rate outside the card issuer's and third party's control. Any amount in excess of that dollar amount is a foreign transaction fee. Conversion rates outside the card issuer's and third party's control include, for example, a rate selected from the range of rates available in the wholesale currency exchange markets, an average of the highest and lowest rates available in such markets, or a government-mandated or government-managed exchange rate (or a rate selected from a range of such rates).
</P>
<P>F. The rate used for a particular transaction need not be the same rate that the card issuer (or third party) itself obtains in its currency conversion operations. In addition, the rate used for a particular transaction need not be the rate in effect on the date of the transaction (purchase or cash advance).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Taxes.</I> i. Generally, a tax imposed by a state or other governmental body solely on a creditor is a finance charge if the creditor separately imposes the charge on the consumer.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, a tax is not a finance charge (even if it is collected by the creditor) if applicable law imposes the tax:
</P>
<P>A. Solely on the consumer;
</P>
<P>B. On the creditor and the consumer jointly;
</P>
<P>C. On the credit transaction, without indicating which party is liable for the tax; or
</P>
<P>D. On the creditor, if applicable law directs or authorizes the creditor to pass the tax on to the consumer. (For purposes of this section, if applicable law is silent as to passing on the tax, the law is deemed not to authorize passing it on.)
</P>
<P>iii. For example, a stamp tax, property tax, intangible tax, or any other state or local tax imposed on the consumer, or on the credit transaction, is not a finance charge even if the tax is collected by the creditor.
</P>
<P>iv. In addition, a tax is not a finance charge if it is excluded from the finance charge by another provision of the regulation or commentary (for example, if the tax is imposed uniformly in cash and credit transactions).
</P>
<HD3>4(a)(1) Charges by Third Parties
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Choosing the provider of a required service.</I> An example of a third-party charge included in the finance charge is the cost of required mortgage insurance, even if the consumer is allowed to choose the insurer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Annuities associated with reverse mortgages.</I> Some creditors offer annuities in connection with a reverse-mortgage transaction. The amount of the premium is a finance charge if the creditor requires the purchase of the annuity incident to the credit. Examples include the following:
</P>
<P>i. The credit documents reflect the purchase of an annuity from a specific provider or providers.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor assesses an additional charge on consumers who do not purchase an annuity from a specific provider.
</P>
<P>iii. The annuity is intended to replace in whole or in part the creditor's payments to the consumer either immediately or at some future date.
</P>
<HD3>4(a)(2) Special Rule; Closing Agent Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This rule applies to charges by a third party serving as the closing agent for the particular loan. An example of a closing agent charge included in the finance charge is a courier fee where the creditor requires the use of a courier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Required closing agent.</I> If the creditor requires the use of a closing agent, fees charged by the closing agent are included in the finance charge only if the creditor requires the particular service, requires the imposition of the charge, or retains a portion of the charge. Fees charged by a third-party closing agent may be otherwise excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4. For example, a fee that would be paid in a comparable cash transaction may be excluded under § 1026.4(a). A charge for conducting or attending a closing is a finance charge and may be excluded only if the charge is included in and is incidental to a lump-sum fee excluded under § 1026.4(c)(7).
</P>
<HD3>4(a)(3) Special Rule; Mortgage Broker Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A fee charged by a mortgage broker is excluded from the finance charge if it is the type of fee that is also excluded when charged by the creditor. For example, to exclude an application fee from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1), a mortgage broker must charge the fee to all applicants for credit, whether or not credit is extended.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Coverage.</I> This rule applies to charges paid by consumers to a mortgage broker in connection with a consumer credit transaction secured by real property or a dwelling.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensation by lender.</I> The rule requires all mortgage broker fees to be included in the finance charge. Creditors sometimes compensate mortgage brokers under a separate arrangement with those parties. Creditors may draw on amounts paid by the consumer, such as points or closing costs, to fund their payment to the broker. Compensation paid by a creditor to a mortgage broker under an agreement is not included as a separate component of a consumer's total finance charge (although this compensation may be reflected in the finance charge if it comes from amounts paid by the consumer to the creditor that are finance charges, such as points and interest).
</P>
<HD3>4(b) Examples of Finance Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to other provisions.</I> Charges or fees shown as examples of finance charges in § 1026.4(b) may be excludable under § 1026.4(c), (d), or (e). For example:
</P>
<P>i. Premiums for credit life insurance, shown as an example of a finance charge under § 1026.4(b)(7), may be excluded if the requirements of § 1026.4(d)(1) are met.
</P>
<P>ii. Appraisal fees mentioned in § 1026.4(b)(4) are excluded for real property or residential mortgage transactions under § 1026.4(c)(7).
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(b)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Checking or transaction account charges.</I> A charge imposed in connection with a credit feature on a checking or transaction account (other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 or a covered asset account as that term is defined in § 1026.62) is a finance charge under § 1026.4(b)(2) to the extent the charge exceeds the charge for a similar account without a credit feature and the charge is not addressed by § 1026.4(b)(12). If a charge for an account with a credit feature does not exceed the charge for an account without a credit feature, the charge is not a finance charge under § 1026.4(b)(2). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. A $5 service charge is imposed on an account with an overdraft line of credit (where the institution has agreed in writing to pay an overdraft), while a $3 service charge is imposed on an account without a credit feature; the $2 difference is a finance charge. (If the difference is not related to account activity, however, it may be excludable as a participation fee. See the commentary to § 1026.4(c)(4)).
</P>
<P>ii. A $5 service charge is imposed for each item that results in an overdraft on an account with an overdraft line of credit, while a $25 service charge is imposed for paying or returning each item on a similar account without a credit feature; the $5 charge is not a finance charge.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid accounts.</I> Fees or charges related to credit offered in connection with prepaid accounts as defined in § 1026.61 are discussed in §§ 1026.4(b)(11) and 1026.61 and related commentary.






</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Assumption fees.</I> The assumption fees mentioned in § 1026.4(b)(3) are finance charges only when the assumption occurs and the fee is imposed on the new buyer. The assumption fee is a finance charge in the new buyer's transaction.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit loss insurance.</I> Common examples of the insurance against credit loss mentioned in § 1026.4(b)(5) are mortgage guaranty insurance, holder in due course insurance, and repossession insurance. Such premiums must be included in the finance charge only for the period that the creditor requires the insurance to be maintained.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Residual value insurance.</I> Where a creditor requires a consumer to maintain residual value insurance or where the creditor is a beneficiary of a residual value insurance policy written in connection with an extension of credit (as is the case in some forms of automobile balloon-payment financing, for example), the premiums for the insurance must be included in the finance charge for the period that the insurance is to be maintained. If a creditor pays for residual-value insurance and absorbs the payment as a cost of doing business, such costs are not considered finance charges. (See comment 4(a)-2.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraphs 4(b)(7) and (b)(8)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Pre-existing insurance policy.</I> The insurance discussed in § 1026.4(b)(7) and (b)(8) does not include an insurance policy (such as a life or an automobile collision insurance policy) that is already owned by the consumer, even if the policy is assigned to or otherwise made payable to the creditor to satisfy an insurance requirement. Such a policy is not “written in connection with” the transaction, as long as the insurance was not purchased for use in that credit extension, since it was previously owned by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance written in connection with a transaction.</I> Credit insurance sold before or after an open-end (not home-secured) plan is opened is considered “written in connection with a credit transaction.” Insurance sold after consummation in closed-end credit transactions or after the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 is not considered “written in connection with” the credit transaction if the insurance is written because of the consumer's default (for example, by failing to obtain or maintain required property insurance) or because the consumer requests insurance after consummation or the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 (although credit-sale disclosures may be required for the insurance sold after consummation if it is financed).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substitution of life insurance.</I> The premium for a life insurance policy purchased and assigned to satisfy a credit life insurance requirement must be included in the finance charge, but only to the extent of the cost of the credit life insurance if purchased from the creditor or the actual cost of the policy (if that is less than the cost of the insurance available from the creditor). If the creditor does not offer the required insurance, the premium to be included in the finance charge is the cost of a policy of insurance of the type, amount, and term required by the creditor.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other insurance.</I> Fees for required insurance not of the types described in § 1026.4(b)(7) and (b)(8) are finance charges and are not excludable. For example, the premium for a hospitalization insurance policy, if it is required to be purchased only in a credit transaction, is a finance charge.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(9)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Discounts for payment by other than credit.</I> The discounts to induce payment by other than credit mentioned in § 1026.4(b)(9) include, for example, the following situation: The seller of land offers individual tracts for $10,000 each. If the purchaser pays cash, the price is $9,000, but if the purchaser finances the tract with the seller the price is $10,000. The $1,000 difference is a finance charge for those who buy the tracts on credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exception for cash discounts.</I> i. Creditors may exclude from the finance charge discounts offered to consumers for using cash or another means of payment instead of using a credit card or an open-end plan. The discount may be in whatever amount the seller desires, either as a percentage of the regular price (as defined in section 103(z) of the Act, as amended) or a dollar amount. Pursuant to section 167(b) of the Act, this provision applies only to transactions involving an open-end credit plan or a credit card (whether open-end or closed-end credit is extended on the card). The merchant must offer the discount to prospective buyers whether or not they are cardholders or members of the open-end credit plan. The merchant may, however, make other distinctions. For example:
</P>
<P>A. The merchant may limit the discount to payment by cash and not offer it for payment by check or by use of a debit card.
</P>
<P>B. The merchant may establish a discount plan that allows a 15% discount for payment by cash, a 10% discount for payment by check, and a 5% discount for payment by a particular credit card. None of these discounts is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. Pursuant to section 171(c) of the Act, discounts excluded from the finance charge under this paragraph are also excluded from treatment as a finance charge or other charge for credit under any state usury or disclosure laws.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Determination of the regular price.</I> i. The <I>regular price</I> is critical in determining whether the difference between the price charged to cash customers and credit customers is a <I>discount</I> or a <I>surcharge,</I> as these terms are defined in amended section 103 of the Act. The <I>regular price</I> is defined in section 103 of the Act as—* * * the tag or posted price charged for the property or service if a single price is tagged or posted, or the price charged for the property or service when payment is made by use of an open-end credit account or a credit card if either (1) no price is tagged or posted, or (2) two prices are tagged or posted * * *.
</P>
<P>ii. For example, in the sale of motor vehicle fuel, the tagged or posted price is the price displayed at the pump. As a result, the higher price (the open-end credit or credit card price) must be displayed at the pump, either alone or along with the cash price. Service station operators may designate separate pumps or separate islands as being for either cash or credit purchases and display only the appropriate prices at the various pumps. If a pump is capable of displaying on its meter either a cash or a credit price depending upon the consumer's means of payment, both the cash price and the credit price must be displayed at the pump. A service station operator may display the cash price of fuel by itself on a curb sign, as long as the sign clearly indicates that the price is limited to cash purchases.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(10)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Debt cancellation coverage provides for payment or satisfaction of all or part of a debt when a specified event occurs. The term “debt cancellation coverage” includes guaranteed automobile protection, or “GAP,” agreements, which pay or satisfy the remaining debt after property insurance benefits are exhausted. Debt suspension coverage provides for suspension of the obligation to make one or more payments on the date(s) otherwise required by the credit agreement, when a specified event occurs. The term “debt suspension” does not include loan payment deferral arrangements in which the triggering event is the bank's unilateral decision to allow a deferral of payment and the borrower's unilateral election to do so, such as by skipping or reducing one or more payments (“skip payments”).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Coverage written in connection with a transaction.</I> Coverage sold after consummation in closed-end credit transactions or after the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 is not “written in connection with” the credit transaction if the coverage is written because the consumer requests coverage after consummation or the opening of a home-equity plan subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 (although credit-sale disclosures may be required for the coverage sold after consummation if it is financed). Coverage sold before or after an open-end (not home-secured) plan is opened is considered “written in connection with a credit transaction.”


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(11)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit in connection with a prepaid card.</I> Section 1026.61 governs credit offered in connection with a prepaid card.
</P>
<P>i. A separate credit feature that meets the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) is defined as a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card. <I>See</I> § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) and comment 61(a)(2)-4. In this case, the hybrid prepaid-credit card can access both the covered separate credit feature and the asset feature of the prepaid account. The rules for classification of fees or charges as finance charges with respect to the covered separate credit feature are specified in § 1026.4(b)(11) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>ii. If a prepaid card can access a non-covered separate credit feature as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii), the card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to that credit feature. In that case:
</P>
<P>A. Section 1026.4(b)(11) and related commentary do not apply to fees or charges imposed on the non-covered separate credit feature; instead, the general rules set forth in § 1026.4 determine whether these fees or charges are finance charges; and
</P>
<P>B. Fees or charges on the asset feature of the prepaid account are not finance charges under § 1026.4 with respect to the non-covered separate credit feature. See comment 61(a)(2)-5.iii for guidance on the applicability of this regulation in connection with non-covered credit features accessible by prepaid cards.
</P>
<P>iii. If the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(4), with regard to that credit, fees charged on the asset feature of the prepaid account in accordance with § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) are not finance charges.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(11)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transaction fees imposed on the covered separate credit feature.</I> Consistent with comment 4(a)-4, any transaction charge imposed on a cardholder by a card issuer on a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card is a finance charge. Transaction charges that are imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account are subject to § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii) and related commentary, instead of § 1026.4(b)(11)(i).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(b)(11)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account.</I> i. Under § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii), with regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined § 1026.61, any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account is a finance charge to the extent that the amount of the fee or charge exceeds comparable fees or charges imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card. This comment provides guidance with respect to comparable fees under § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii) for the two types of credit extensions on a covered separate credit feature. <I>See</I> § 1026.61(a)(2)(i)(B) and comment 61(a)(2)-4.ii. Comment 4(b)(11)(ii)-1.ii provides guidance for credit extensions where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. Comment 4(b)(11)(ii)-1.iii provides guidance for credit extensions where a consumer draws or transfers credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>ii. Where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, any per transaction fees imposed on the asset feature of prepaid accounts, including load and transfer fees, for such credit from the credit feature are comparable only to per transaction fees for each transaction to access funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account that are imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that does not have such a credit feature. Per transaction fees for a transaction that is conducted to load or draw funds into a prepaid account from some other source are not comparable for purposes of § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>A. Assume a prepaid account issuer charges $0.50 on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts. Also, assume that the prepaid account issuer charges $0.50 per transaction on the asset feature of prepaid accounts in the same prepaid program where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of a transaction. In this case, the $0.50 per transaction fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature is not a finance charge.
</P>
<P>B. Assume same facts as in paragraph A above, except that assume the prepaid account issuer charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account for each transaction where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from the covered separate credit feature in the course of the transaction. In this case, the additional $0.75 is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>C. Assume a prepaid account issuer charges $0.50 on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for each transaction that accesses funds in the asset feature of the prepaid accounts. Assume also that the prepaid account issuer charges both a $0.50 per transaction fee and a $1.25 transfer fee on the asset feature of prepaid accounts in the same prepaid program where the hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses credit from a covered separate credit feature in the course of a transaction. In this case, both fees charged on a per-transaction basis for the credit transaction (<I>i.e.,</I> a combined fee of $1.75 per transaction) must be compared to the $0.50 per transaction fee to access funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature. Accordingly, the $1.25 excess is a finance charge.
</P>
<P>D. Assume same facts as in paragraph C above, except that assume the prepaid account issuer also charges a load fee of $1.25 whenever funds are transferred or loaded from a separate asset account, such as from a deposit account via a debit card, in the course of a transaction on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature, in addition to charging a $0.50 per transaction fee. The $1.25 excess in paragraph C is still a finance charge because load or transfer fees that are charged on the asset feature of prepaid account for credit from the covered separate credit feature are compared only to per transaction fees imposed for accessing funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account for prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. Per transaction fees for a transaction that is conducted to load or draw funds into a prepaid account from some other source are not comparable for purposes of § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer may choose in a particular circumstance to draw or transfer credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. For example, a consumer may use the prepaid card at the prepaid account issuer's website to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. <I>See</I> § 1026.61(a)(2)(i)(B) and comment 61(a)(2)-4.ii. In these situations, load or transfer fees imposed for draws or transfers of credit from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction are compared only with fees, if any, to load funds as a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits that are charged on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature. Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a separate asset account or from a non-covered separate credit feature are not comparable for purposes of § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>A. Assume a prepaid account issuer charges a $1.25 load fee to transfer funds from a non-covered separate credit feature, such as a non-covered separate credit card account, into prepaid accounts that do not have a covered separate credit feature and does not charge a fee for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on those prepaid accounts. Assume the prepaid account issuer charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction. In this case, the $1.25 fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature is a finance charge because no fee is charged for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on prepaid accounts without such a credit feature. Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a non-covered separate credit feature are not comparable for purposes of § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
</P>
<P>B. Assume that a prepaid account issuer charges a $1.25 load fee for a one-time transfer of funds from a separate asset account, such as from a deposit account via a debit card, to a prepaid account without a covered separate credit feature and does not charge a fee for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on those prepaid accounts. Assume the prepaid account issuer charges $1.25 on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction. In this case, the $1.25 fee imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature is a finance charge because no fee is charged for a direct deposit of salary from an employer or a direct deposit of government benefits on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature. Fees imposed on prepaid accounts without a covered separate credit feature for a one-time load or transfer of funds from a separate asset account are not comparable for purposes of § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to Regulation E.</I> See Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.18(g), which only permits a financial institution to charge the same or higher fees on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card than the amount of a comparable fee it charges on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program without such a credit feature. Under that provision, a financial institution cannot charge a lower fee on the asset feature of a prepaid account with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card than the amount of a comparable fee it charges on prepaid accounts without such a credit feature in the same prepaid account program.


</P>
<HD3>4(c) Charges Excluded From the Finance Charge
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application fees.</I> An application fee that is excluded from the finance charge is a charge to recover the costs associated with processing applications for credit. The fee may cover the costs of services such as credit reports, credit investigations, and appraisals. The creditor is free to impose the fee in only certain of its loan programs, such as mortgage loans. However, if the fee is to be excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1), it must be charged to all applicants, not just to applicants who are approved or who actually receive credit.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Late payment charges.</I> i. Late payment charges can be excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(2) whether or not the person imposing the charge continues to extend credit on the account or continues to provide property or services to the consumer. In determining whether a charge is for actual unanticipated late payment on a 30-day account, for example, factors to be considered include:
</P>
<P>A. The terms of the account. For example, is the consumer required by the account terms to pay the account balance in full each month? If not, the charge may be a finance charge.
</P>
<P>B. The practices of the creditor in handling the accounts. For example, regardless of the terms of the account, does the creditor allow consumers to pay the accounts over a period of time without demanding payment in full or taking other action to collect? If no effort is made to collect the full amount due, the charge may be a finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. section 1026.4(c)(2) applies to late payment charges imposed for failure to make payments as agreed, as well as failure to pay an account in full when due.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other excluded charges.</I> Charges for “delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence” include, for example, charges for reinstatement of credit privileges or for submitting as payment a check that is later returned unpaid.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 4(c)(3)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Assessing interest on an overdraft balance.</I> Except with respect to credit offered in connection with a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 and above breakeven overdraft credit as defined in § 1026.62(b)(1), a charge on an overdraft balance computed by applying a rate of interest to the amount of the overdraft is not a finance charge, even though the consumer agrees to the charge in the account agreement, unless the financial institution agrees in writing that it will pay such items.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit accessed in connection with a prepaid account.</I> See comment 4(b)(11)-1 for guidance on when fees imposed with regard to credit accessed in connection with a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 are finance charges.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credit accessed in connection with a covered asset account.</I> See § 1026.4(b)(12) for guidance on when fees imposed on a covered asset account as defined in § 1026.62 are finance charges.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Participation fees—periodic basis.</I> The participation fees described in § 1026.4(c)(4) do not necessarily have to be formal membership fees, nor are they limited to credit card plans. Except as provided in § 1026.4(c)(4) for covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61, the provision applies to any credit plan in which payment of a fee is a condition of access to the plan itself, but it does not apply to fees imposed separately on individual closed-end transactions. The fee may be charged on a monthly, annual, or other periodic basis; a one-time, non-recurring fee imposed at the time an account is opened is not a fee that is charged on a periodic basis, and may not be treated as a participation fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Participation fees—exclusions.</I> Minimum monthly charges, charges for non-use of a credit card, and other charges based on either account activity or the amount of credit available under the plan are not excluded from the finance charge by § 1026.4(c)(4). Thus, for example, a fee that is charged and then refunded to the consumer based on the extent to which the consumer uses the credit available would be a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 1026.4(b)(2). Also, see comment 14(c)-2 for treatment of certain types of fees excluded in determining the annual percentage rate for the periodic statement.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credit accessed in connection with by a prepaid account.</I> See comment 4(b)(11)-1 for guidance on when fees imposed with regard to credit accessed in connection with a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 are finance charges.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Seller's points.</I> The seller's points mentioned in § 1026.4(c)(5) include any charges imposed by the creditor upon the noncreditor seller of property for providing credit to the buyer or for providing credit on certain terms. These charges are excluded from the finance charge even if they are passed on to the buyer, for example, in the form of a higher sales price. Seller's points are frequently involved in real estate transactions guaranteed or insured by governmental agencies. A <I>commitment fee</I> paid by a noncreditor seller (such as a real estate developer) to the creditor should be treated as seller's points. Buyer's points (that is, points charged to the buyer by the creditor), however, are finance charges.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other seller-paid amounts.</I> Mortgage insurance premiums and other finance charges are sometimes paid at or before consummation or settlement on the borrower's behalf by a noncreditor seller. The creditor should treat the payment made by the seller as seller's points and exclude it from the finance charge if, based on the seller's payment, the consumer is not legally bound to the creditor for the charge. A creditor who gives disclosures before the payment has been made should base them on the best information reasonably available.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 4(c)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Lost interest.</I> Certain Federal and state laws mandate a percentage differential between the interest rate paid on a deposit and the rate charged on a loan secured by that deposit. In some situations, because of usury limits the creditor must reduce the interest rate paid on the deposit and, as a result, the consumer loses some of the interest that would otherwise have been earned. Under § 1026.4(c)(6), such “lost interest” need not be included in the finance charge. This rule applies only to an interest reduction imposed because a rate differential is required by law and a usury limit precludes compliance by any other means. If the creditor imposes a differential that exceeds that required, only the lost interest attributable to the excess amount is a finance charge. (See the commentary to § 1026.4(a).)
</P>
<HD3>4(c)(7) Real-Estate Related Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Real estate or residential mortgage transaction charges.</I> The list of charges in § 1026.4(c)(7) applies both to residential mortgage transactions (which may include, for example, the purchase of a mobile home) and to other transactions secured by real estate. The fees are excluded from the finance charge even if the services for which the fees are imposed are performed by the creditor's employees rather than by a third party. In addition, the cost of verifying or confirming information connected to the item is also excluded. For example, credit-report fees cover not only the cost of the report but also the cost of verifying information in the report. In all cases, charges excluded under § 1026.4(c)(7) must be bona fide and reasonable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lump-sum charges.</I> If a lump sum charged for several services includes a charge that is not excludable, a portion of the total should be allocated to that service and included in the finance charge. However, a lump sum charged for conducting or attending a closing (for example, by a lawyer or a title company) is excluded from the finance charge if the charge is primarily for services related to items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) (for example, reviewing or completing documents), even if other incidental services such as explaining various documents or disbursing funds for the parties are performed. The entire charge is excluded even if a fee for the incidental services would be a finance charge if it were imposed separately.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges assessed during the loan term.</I> Real estate or residential mortgage transaction charges excluded under § 1026.4(c)(7) are those charges imposed solely in connection with the initial decision to grant credit. This would include, for example, a fee to search for tax liens on the property or to determine if flood insurance is required. The exclusion does not apply to fees for services to be performed periodically during the loan term, regardless of when the fee is collected. For example, a fee for one or more determinations during the loan term of the current tax-lien status or flood-insurance requirements is a finance charge, regardless of whether the fee is imposed at closing, or when the service is performed. If a creditor is uncertain about what portion of a fee to be paid at consummation or loan closing is related to the initial decision to grant credit, the entire fee may be treated as a finance charge.
</P>
<HD3>4(d) Insurance and Debt Cancellation and Debt Suspension Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.4(d) permits insurance premiums and charges and debt cancellation and debt suspension charges to be excluded from the finance charge. The required disclosures must be made in writing, except as provided in § 1026.4(d)(4). The rules on location of insurance and debt cancellation and debt suspension disclosures for closed-end transactions are in § 1026.17(a). For purposes of § 1026.4(d), all references to insurance also include debt cancellation and debt suspension coverage unless the context indicates otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing of disclosures.</I> If disclosures are given early, for example under § 1026.17(f) or § 1026.19(a), the creditor need not redisclose if the actual premium is different at the time of consummation. If insurance disclosures are not given at the time of early disclosure and insurance is in fact written in connection with the transaction, the disclosures under § 1026.4(d) must be made in order to exclude the premiums from the finance charge.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Premium rate increases.</I> The creditor should disclose the premium amount based on the rates currently in effect and need not designate it as an estimate even if the premium rates may increase. An increase in insurance rates after consummation of a closed-end credit transaction or during the life of an open-end credit plan does not require redisclosure in order to exclude the additional premium from treatment as a finance charge.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unit-cost disclosures.</I> i. <I>Open-end credit.</I> The premium or fee for insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension for the initial term of coverage may be disclosed on a unit-cost basis in open-end credit transactions. The cost per unit should be based on the initial term of coverage, unless one of the options under comment 4(d)-12 is available.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Closed-end credit.</I> One of the transactions for which unit-cost disclosures (such as 50 cents per year for each $100 of the amount financed) may be used in place of the total insurance premium involves a particular kind of insurance plan. For example, a consumer with a current indebtedness of $8,000 is covered by a plan of credit life insurance coverage with a maximum of $10,000. The consumer requests an additional $4,000 loan to be covered by the same insurance plan. Since the $4,000 loan exceeds, in part, the maximum amount of indebtedness that can be covered by the plan, the creditor may properly give the insurance-cost disclosures on the $4,000 loan on a unit-cost basis.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Required credit life insurance; debt cancellation or suspension coverage.</I> Credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, and debt cancellation and suspension coverage described in § 1026.4(b)(10), must be voluntary in order for the premium or charges to be excluded from the finance charge. Whether the insurance or coverage is in fact required or optional is a factual question. If the insurance or coverage is required, the premiums must be included in the finance charge, whether the insurance or coverage is purchased from the creditor or from a third party. If the consumer is required to elect one of several options—such as to purchase credit life insurance, or to assign an existing life insurance policy, or to pledge security such as a certificate of deposit—and the consumer purchases the credit life insurance policy, the premium must be included in the finance charge. (If the consumer assigns a preexisting policy or pledges security instead, no premium is included in the finance charge. The security interest would be disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(4), § 1026.6(b)(5)(ii), or § 1026.18(m). See the commentary to § 1026.4(b)(7) and (b)(8).)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Other types of voluntary insurance.</I> Insurance is not credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance if the creditor or the credit account of the consumer is not the beneficiary of the insurance coverage. If the premium for such insurance is not imposed by the creditor as an incident to or a condition of credit, it is not covered by § 1026.4.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Signatures.</I> If the creditor offers a number of insurance options under § 1026.4(d), the creditor may provide a means for the consumer to sign or initial for each option, or it may provide for a single authorizing signature or initial with the options selected designated by some other means, such as a check mark. The insurance authorization may be signed or initialed by any consumer, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(11), or by an authorized user on a credit card account.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Property insurance.</I> To exclude property insurance premiums or charges from the finance charge, the creditor must allow the consumer to choose the insurer and disclose that fact. This disclosure must be made whether or not the property insurance is available from or through the creditor. The requirement that an option be given does not require that the insurance be readily available from other sources. The premium or charge must be disclosed only if the consumer elects to purchase the insurance from the creditor; in such a case, the creditor must also disclose the term of the property insurance coverage if it is less than the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Single-interest insurance.</I> Blanket and specific single-interest coverage are treated the same for purposes of the regulation. A charge for either type of single-interest insurance may be excluded from the finance charge if:
</P>
<P>i. The insurer waives any right of subrogation.
</P>
<P>ii. The other requirements of § 1026.4(d)(2) are met. This includes, of course, giving the consumer the option of obtaining the insurance from a person of the consumer's choice. The creditor need not ascertain whether the consumer is able to purchase the insurance from someone else.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Single-interest insurance defined.</I> The term <I>single-interest insurance</I> as used in the regulation refers only to the types of coverage traditionally included in the term <I>vendor's single-interest insurance</I> (or <I>VSI</I>), that is, protection of tangible property against normal property damage, concealment, confiscation, conversion, embezzlement, and skip. Some comprehensive insurance policies may include a variety of additional coverages, such as repossession insurance and holder-in-due-course insurance. These types of coverage do not constitute single-interest insurance for purposes of the regulation, and premiums for them do not qualify for exclusion from the finance charge under § 1026.4(d). If a policy that is primarily VSI also provides coverages that are not VSI or other property insurance, a portion of the premiums must be allocated to the nonexcludable coverages and included in the finance charge. However, such allocation is not required if the total premium in fact attributable to all of the non-VSI coverages included in the policy is $1.00 or less (or $5.00 or less in the case of a multiyear policy).
</P>
<P>11. <I>Initial term.</I> i. The initial term of insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage determines the period for which a premium amount must be disclosed, unless one of the options discussed under comment 4(d)-12 is available. For purposes of § 1026.4(d), the initial term is the period for which the insurer or creditor is obligated to provide coverage, even though the consumer may be allowed to cancel the coverage or coverage may end due to nonpayment before that term expires.
</P>
<P>ii. For example: A. The initial term of a property insurance policy on an automobile that is written for one year is one year even though premiums are paid monthly and the term of the credit transaction is four years.
</P>
<P>B. The initial term of an insurance policy is the full term of the credit transaction if the consumer pays or finances a single premium in advance.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Initial term; alternative.</I> i. <I>General.</I> A creditor has the option of providing cost disclosures on the basis of one year of insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage instead of a longer initial term (provided the premium or fee is clearly labeled as being for one year) if:
</P>
<P>A. The initial term is indefinite or not clear, or
</P>
<P>B. The consumer has agreed to pay a premium or fee that is assessed periodically but the consumer is under no obligation to continue the coverage, whether or not the consumer has made an initial payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Open-end plans.</I> For open-end plans, a creditor also has the option of providing unit-cost disclosure on the basis of a period that is less than one year if the consumer has agreed to pay a premium or fee that is assessed periodically, for example monthly, but the consumer is under no obligation to continue the coverage.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> To illustrate:
</P>
<P>A. A credit life insurance policy providing coverage for a 30-year mortgage loan has an initial term of 30 years, even though premiums are paid monthly and the consumer is not required to continue the coverage. Disclosures may be based on the initial term, but the creditor also has the option of making disclosures on the basis of coverage for an assumed initial term of one year.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Loss-of-income insurance.</I> The loss-of-income insurance mentioned in § 1026.4(d) includes involuntary unemployment insurance, which provides that some or all of the consumer's payments will be made if the consumer becomes unemployed involuntarily.
</P>
<HD3>4(d)(3) Voluntary Debt Cancellation or Debt Suspension Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Fees charged for the specialized form of debt cancellation agreement known as guaranteed automobile protection (“GAP”) agreements must be disclosed according to § 1026.4(d)(3) rather than according to § 1026.4(d)(2) for property insurance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosures.</I> Creditors can comply with § 1026.4(d)(3) by providing a disclosure that refers to debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage whether or not the coverage is considered insurance. Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage constitutes insurance under state law. (See Model Clauses and Samples at G-16 and H-17 in appendix G and appendix H to part 1026 for guidance on how to provide the disclosure required by § 1026.4(d)(3)(iii) for debt suspension products.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple events.</I> If debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage for two or more events is provided at a single charge, the entire charge may be excluded from the finance charge if at least one of the events is accident or loss of life, health, or income and the conditions specified in § 1026.4(d)(3) or, as applicable, § 1026.4(d)(4), are satisfied.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosures in programs combining debt cancellation and debt suspension features.</I> If the consumer's debt can be cancelled under certain circumstances, the disclosure may be modified to reflect that fact. The disclosure could, for example, state (in addition to the language required by § 1026.4(d)(3)(iii)) that “In some circumstances, my debt may be cancelled.” However, the disclosure would not be permitted to list the specific events that would result in debt cancellation.
</P>
<HD3>4(d)(4) Telephone Purchases
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Affirmative request.</I> A creditor would not satisfy the requirement to obtain a consumer's affirmative request if the “request” was a response to a script that uses leading questions or negative consent. A question asking whether the consumer wishes to enroll in the credit insurance or debt cancellation or suspension plan and seeking a yes-or-no response (such as “Do you want to enroll in this optional debt cancellation plan?”) would not be considered leading.
</P>
<HD3>4(e) Certain Security Interest Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> i. <I>Excludable charges.</I> Sums must be actually paid to public officials to be excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(e)(1) and (e)(3). Examples are charges or other fees required for filing or recording security agreements, mortgages, continuation statements, termination statements, and similar documents, as well as intangible property or other taxes even when the charges or fees are imposed by the state solely on the creditor and charged to the consumer (if the tax must be paid to record a security agreement). (See comment 4(a)-5 regarding the treatment of taxes, generally.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Charges not excludable.</I> If the obligation is between the creditor and a third party (an assignee, for example), charges or other fees for filing or recording security agreements, mortgages, continuation statements, termination statements, and similar documents relating to that obligation are not excludable from the finance charge under this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization.</I> The various charges described in § 1026.4(e)(1) and (e)(3) may be totaled and disclosed as an aggregate sum, or they may be itemized by the specific fees and taxes imposed. If an aggregate sum is disclosed, a general term such as security interest fees or filing fees may be used.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notary fees.</I> In order for a notary fee to be excluded under § 1026.4(e)(1), all of the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>i. The document to be notarized is one used to perfect, release, or continue a security interest.
</P>
<P>ii. The document is required by law to be notarized.
</P>
<P>iii. A notary is considered a public official under applicable law.
</P>
<P>iv. The amount of the fee is set or authorized by law.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nonfiling insurance.</I> The exclusion in § 1026.4(e)(2) is available only if nonfiling insurance is purchased. If the creditor collects and simply retains a fee as a sort of “self-insurance” against nonfiling, it may not be excluded from the finance charge. If the nonfiling insurance premium exceeds the amount of the fees excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(e)(1), only the excess is a finance charge. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The fee for perfecting a security interest is $5.00 and the fee for releasing the security interest is $3.00. The creditor charges $10.00 for nonfiling insurance. Only $8.00 of the $10.00 is excludable from the finance charge.
</P>
<HD3>4(f) Prohibited Offsets
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Earnings on deposits or investments.</I> The rule that the creditor shall not deduct any earnings by the consumer on deposits or investments applies whether or not the creditor has a security interest in the property.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart B—Open-End Credit
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.5—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>5(a) Form of Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>5(a)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The “clear and conspicuous” standard generally requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form. Disclosures for credit card applications and solicitations under § 1026.60, highlighted account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6(b)(1), highlighted disclosure on checks that access a credit card under § 1026.9(b)(3), highlighted change-in-terms disclosures under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and highlighted disclosures when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or for a penalty under § 1026.9(g)(3)(ii) must also be readily noticeable to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous—reasonably understandable form.</I> Except where otherwise provided, the reasonably understandable form standard does not require that disclosures be segregated from other material or located in any particular place on the disclosure statement, or that numerical amounts or percentages be in any particular type size. For disclosures that are given orally, the standard requires that they be given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. (See comment 5(b)(1)(ii)-1.) Except where otherwise provided, the standard does not prohibit:
</P>
<P>i. Pluralizing required terminology (“finance charge” and “annual percentage rate”).
</P>
<P>ii. Adding to the required disclosures such items as contractual provisions, explanations of contract terms, state disclosures, and translations.
</P>
<P>iii. Sending promotional material with the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Using commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations (such as “mo.” for “month” or “TX” for “Texas”) in making any required disclosures.
</P>
<P>v. Using codes or symbols such as “APR” (for annual percentage rate), “FC” (for finance charge), or “Cr” (for credit balance), so long as a legend or description of the code or symbol is provided on the disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous—readily noticeable standard.</I> To meet the readily noticeable standard, disclosures for credit card applications and solicitations under § 1026.60, highlighted account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6(b)(1), highlighted disclosures on checks that access a credit card account under § 1026.9(b)(3), highlighted change-in-terms disclosures under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(D), and highlighted disclosures when a rate is increased due to delinquency, default or penalty pricing under § 1026.9(g)(3)(ii) must be given in a minimum of 10-point font. (See special rule for font size requirements for the annual percentage rate for purchases under §§ 1026.60(b)(1) and 1026.6(b)(2)(i).)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Integrated document.</I> The creditor may make both the account-opening disclosures (§ 1026.6) and the periodic-statement disclosures (§ 1026.7) on more than one page, and use both the front and the reverse sides, except where otherwise indicated, so long as the pages constitute an integrated document. An integrated document would not include disclosure pages provided to the consumer at different times or disclosures interspersed on the same page with promotional material. An integrated document would include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Multiple pages provided in the same envelope that cover related material and are folded together, numbered consecutively, or clearly labeled to show that they relate to one another; or
</P>
<P>ii. A brochure that contains disclosures and explanatory material about a range of services the creditor offers, such as credit, checking account, and electronic fund transfer features.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Disclosures covered.</I> Disclosures that must meet the “clear and conspicuous” standard include all required communications under this subpart. Therefore, disclosures made by a person other than the card issuer, such as disclosures of finance charges imposed at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card under § 1026.9(d), and notices, such as the correction notice required to be sent to the consumer under § 1026.13(e), must also be clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(1)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> Disclosures that need not be provided in writing under § 1026.5(a)(1)(ii)(A) may be provided in writing, orally, or in electronic form. If the consumer requests the service in electronic form, such as on the creditor's Web site, the specified disclosures may be provided in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 5(a)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures not subject to E-Sign Act.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.5(a)(1)(ii)(A) regarding disclosures (in addition to those specified under § 1026.5(a)(1)(iii)) that may be provided in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<HD3>5(a)(2) Terminology
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When disclosures must be more conspicuous.</I> For home-equity plans subject to § 1026.40, the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate,</I> when required to be used with a number, must be disclosed more conspicuously than other required disclosures, except in the cases provided in § 1026.5(a)(2)(ii). At the creditor's option, <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> may also be disclosed more conspicuously than the other required disclosures even when the regulation does not so require. The following examples illustrate these rules:
</P>
<P>i. In disclosing the annual percentage rate as required by § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii), the term <I>annual percentage rate</I> is subject to the <I>more conspicuous</I> rule.
</P>
<P>ii. In disclosing the amount of the finance charge, required by § 1026.7(a)(6)(i), the term <I>finance charge</I> is subject to the <I>more conspicuous</I> rule.
</P>
<P>iii. Although neither <I>finance charge</I> nor <I>annual percentage rate</I> need be emphasized when used as part of general informational material or in textual descriptions of other terms, emphasis is permissible in such cases. For example, when the terms appear as part of the explanations required under § 1026.6(a)(1)(iii) and (a)(1)(iv), they may be equally conspicuous as the disclosures required under §§ 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) and 1026.7(a)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Making disclosures more conspicuous.</I> In disclosing the terms <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> more conspicuously for home-equity plans subject to § 1026.40, only the words <I>finance charge</I> and <I>annual percentage rate</I> should be accentuated. For example, if the term <I>total finance charge</I> is used, only <I>finance charge</I> should be emphasized. The disclosures may be made more conspicuous by, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Capitalizing the words when other disclosures are printed in lower case.
</P>
<P>ii. Putting them in bold print or a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>iii. Underlining them.
</P>
<P>iv. Setting them off with asterisks.
</P>
<P>v. Printing them in larger type.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of figures—exception to more conspicuous rule.</I> For home-equity plans subject to § 1026.40, the terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>finance charge</I> need not be more conspicuous than figures (including, for example, numbers, percentages, and dollar signs).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consistent terminology.</I> Language used in disclosures required in this subpart must be close enough in meaning to enable the consumer to relate the different disclosures; however, the language need not be identical.
</P>
<HD3>5(b) Time of Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>5(b)(1) Account-Opening Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>5(b)(1)(i) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure before the first transaction.</I> When disclosures must be furnished “before the first transaction,” account-opening disclosures must be delivered before the consumer becomes obligated on the plan. Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Purchases.</I> The consumer makes the first purchase, such as when a consumer opens a credit plan and makes purchases contemporaneously at a retail store, except when the consumer places a telephone call to make the purchase and opens the plan contemporaneously. (See commentary to § 1026.5(b)(1)(iii) below.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Advances.</I> The consumer receives the first advance. If the consumer receives a cash advance check at the same time the account-opening disclosures are provided, disclosures are still timely if the consumer can, after receiving the disclosures, return the cash advance check to the creditor without obligation (for example, without paying finance charges).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reactivation of suspended account.</I> If an account is temporarily suspended (for example, because the consumer has exceeded a credit limit, or because a credit card is reported lost or stolen) and then is reactivated, no new account-opening disclosures are required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reopening closed account.</I> If an account has been closed (for example, due to inactivity, cancellation, or expiration) and then is reopened, new account-opening disclosures are required. No new account-opening disclosures are required, however, when the account is closed merely to assign it a new number (for example, when a credit card is reported lost or stolen) and the “new” account then continues on the same terms.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Converting closed-end to open-end credit.</I> If a closed-end credit transaction is converted to an open-end credit account under a written agreement with the consumer, account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6 must be given before the consumer becomes obligated on the open-end credit plan. (See the commentary to § 1026.17 on converting open-end credit to closed-end credit.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Balance transfers.</I> A creditor that solicits the transfer by a consumer of outstanding balances from an existing account to a new open-end plan must furnish the disclosures required by § 1026.6 so that the consumer has an opportunity, after receiving the disclosures, to contact the creditor before the balance is transferred and decline the transfer. For example, assume a consumer responds to a card issuer's solicitation for a credit card account subject to § 1026.60 that offers a range of balance transfer annual percentage rates, based on the consumer's creditworthiness. If the creditor opens an account for the consumer, the creditor would comply with the timing rules of this section by providing the consumer with the annual percentage rate (along with the fees and other required disclosures) that would apply to the balance transfer in time for the consumer to contact the creditor and withdraw the request. A creditor that permits consumers to withdraw the request by telephone has met this timing standard if the creditor does not effect the balance transfer until 10 days after the creditor has sent account-opening disclosures to the consumer, assuming the consumer has not contacted the creditor to withdraw the request. Card issuers that are subject to the requirements of § 1026.60 may establish procedures that comply with both §§ 1026.60 and 1026.6 in a single disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Substitution or replacement of credit card accounts.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> When a card issuer substitutes or replaces an existing credit card account with another credit card account, the card issuer must either provide notice of the terms of the new account consistent with § 1026.6(b) or provide notice of the changes in the terms of the existing account consistent with § 1026.9(c)(2). Whether a substitution or replacement results in the opening of a new account or a change in the terms of an existing account for purposes of the disclosure requirements in §§ 1026.6(b) and 1026.9(c)(2) is determined in light of all the relevant facts and circumstances. For additional requirements and limitations related to the substitution or replacement of credit card accounts, see §§ 1026.12(a) and 1026.55(d) and comments 12(a)(1)-1 through -8, 12(a)(2)-1 through -9, 55(b)(3)-3, and 55(d)-1 through -3.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Relevant facts and circumstances.</I> Listed below are facts and circumstances that are relevant to whether a substitution or replacement results in the opening of a new account or a change in the terms of an existing account for purposes of the disclosure requirements in §§ 1026.6(b) and 1026.9(c)(2). When most of the facts and circumstances listed below are present, the substitution or replacement likely constitutes the opening of a new account for which § 1026.6(b) disclosures are appropriate. When few of the facts and circumstances listed below are present, the substitution or replacement likely constitutes a change in the terms of an existing account for which § 1026.9(c)(2) disclosures are appropriate.
</P>
<P>A. Whether the card issuer provides the consumer with a new credit card;
</P>
<P>B. Whether the card issuer provides the consumer with a new account number;
</P>
<P>C. Whether the account provides new features or benefits after the substitution or replacement (such as rewards on purchases);
</P>
<P>D. Whether the account can be used to conduct transactions at a greater or lesser number of merchants after the substitution or replacement (such as when a retail card is replaced with a cobranded general purpose credit card that can be used at a wider number of merchants);
</P>
<P>E. Whether the card issuer implemented the substitution or replacement on an individualized basis (such as in response to a consumer's request); and
</P>
<P>F. Whether the account becomes a different type of open-end plan after the substitution or replacement (such as when a charge card is replaced by a credit card).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Replacement as a result of theft or unauthorized use.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs i and ii above, a card issuer that replaces a credit card or provides a new account number because the consumer has reported the card stolen or because the account appears to have been used for unauthorized transactions is not required to provide a notice under §§ 1026.6(b) or 1026.9(c)(2) unless the card issuer has changed a term of the account that is subject to §§ 1026.6(b) or 1026.9(c)(2).
</P>
<HD3>5(b)(1)(ii) Charges Imposed as Part of an Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosing charges before the fee is imposed.</I> Creditors may disclose charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured) plan orally or in writing at any time before a consumer agrees to pay the fee or becomes obligated for the charge, unless the charge is specified under § 1026.6(b)(2). (Charges imposed as part of an open-end (not home-secured plan) that are not specified under § 1026.6(b)(2) may alternatively be disclosed in electronic form; see the commentary to § 1026.5(a)(1)(ii)(A).) Creditors must provide such disclosures at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice them. For example, if a consumer telephones a card issuer to discuss a particular service, a creditor would meet the standard if the creditor clearly and conspicuously discloses the fee associated with the service that is the topic of the telephone call orally to the consumer. Similarly, a creditor providing marketing materials in writing to a consumer about a particular service would meet the standard if the creditor provided a clear and conspicuous written disclosure of the fee for that service in those same materials. A creditor that provides written materials to a consumer about a particular service but provides a fee disclosure for another service not promoted in such materials would not meet the standard. For example, if a creditor provided marketing materials promoting payment by Internet, but included the fee for a replacement card on such materials with no explanation, the creditor would not be disclosing the fee at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice the fee.
</P>
<HD3>5(b)(1)(iii) Telephone Purchases
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Return policies.</I> In order for creditors to provide disclosures in accordance with the timing requirements of this paragraph, consumers must be permitted to return merchandise purchased at the time the plan was established without paying mailing or return-shipment costs. Creditors may impose costs to return subsequent purchases of merchandise under the plan, or to return merchandise purchased by other means such as a credit card issued by another creditor. A reasonable return policy would be of sufficient duration that the consumer is likely to have received the disclosures and had sufficient time to make a decision about the financing plan before his or her right to return the goods expires. Return policies need not provide a right to return goods if the consumer consumes or damages the goods, or for installed appliances or fixtures, provided there is a reasonable repair or replacement policy to cover defective goods or installations. If the consumer chooses to reject the financing plan, creditors comply with the requirements of this paragraph by permitting the consumer to pay for the goods with another reasonable form of payment acceptable to the merchant and keep the goods although the creditor cannot require the consumer to do so.
</P>
<HD3>5(b)(1)(iv) Membership Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Membership fees.</I> See § 1026.60(b)(2) and related commentary for guidance on fees for issuance or availability of a credit or charge card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rejecting the plan.</I> If a consumer has paid or promised to pay a membership fee including an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1) before receiving account-opening disclosures, the consumer may, after receiving the disclosures, reject the plan and not be obligated for the membership fee, application fee, or any other fee or charge. A consumer who has received the disclosures and uses the account, or makes a payment on the account after receiving a billing statement, is deemed not to have rejected the plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Using the account.</I> A consumer uses an account by obtaining an extension of credit after receiving the account-opening disclosures, such as by making a purchase or obtaining an advance. A consumer does not “use” the account by activating the account. A consumer also does not “use” the account when the creditor assesses fees on the account (such as start-up fees or fees associated with credit insurance or debt cancellation or suspension programs agreed to as a part of the application and before the consumer receives account-opening disclosures). For example, the consumer does not “use” the account when a creditor sends a billing statement with start-up fees, there is no other activity on the account, the consumer does not pay the fees, and the creditor subsequently assesses a late fee or interest on the unpaid fee balances. A consumer also does not “use” the account by paying an application fee excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1) prior to receiving the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Home-equity plans.</I> Creditors offering home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 are subject to the requirements of § 1026.40(h) regarding the collection of fees.
</P>
<HD3>5(b)(2) Periodic Statements
</HD3>
<HD3>5(b)(2)(i) Statement Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic statements not required.</I> Periodic statements need not be sent in the following cases:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor adjusts an account balance so that at the end of the cycle the balance is less than $1—so long as no finance charge has been imposed on the account for that cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. If a statement was returned as undeliverable. If a new address is provided, however, within a reasonable time before the creditor must send a statement, the creditor must resume sending statements. Receiving the address at least 20 days before the end of a cycle would be a reasonable amount of time to prepare the statement for that cycle. For example, if an address is received 22 days before the end of the June cycle, the creditor must send the periodic statement for the June cycle. (<I>See</I> § 1026.13(a)(7).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Termination of draw privileges.</I> When a consumer's ability to draw on an open-end account is terminated without being converted to closed-end credit under a written agreement, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements to those consumers entitled to receive them under § 1026.5(b)(2)(i), for example, when the draw period of an open-end credit plan ends and consumers are paying off outstanding balances according to the account agreement or under the terms of a workout agreement that is not converted to a closed-end transaction. In addition, creditors must continue to follow all of the other open-end credit requirements and procedures in subpart B.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Uncollectible accounts.</I> An account is deemed uncollectible for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(i) when a creditor has ceased collection efforts, either directly or through a third party.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Instituting collection proceedings.</I> Creditors institute a delinquency collection proceeding by filing a court action or initiating an adjudicatory process with a third party. Assigning a debt to a debt collector or other third party would not constitute instituting a collection proceeding.
</P>
<HD3>5(b)(2)(ii) Timing Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mailing or delivery of periodic statements.</I> A creditor is not required to determine the specific date on which a periodic statement is mailed or delivered to an individual consumer for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii). A creditor complies with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii) if it has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than a certain number of days after the closing date of the billing cycle and adds that number of days to the 21-day or 14-day period required by § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii) when determining, as applicable, the payment due date for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A), the date on which any grace period expires for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>), or the date after which the payment will be treated as late for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>). For example:
</P>
<P>A. If a creditor has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan or an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that provides a grace period are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than three days after the closing date of the billing cycle, the payment due date for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) and the date on which any grace period expires for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) must be no less than 24 days after the closing date of the billing cycle. Similarly, in these circumstances, the limitations in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) on treating a payment as late and imposing finance charges apply for 24 days after the closing date of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. If a creditor has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that periodic statements for an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that does not provide a grace period are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than five days after the closing date of the billing cycle, the date on which a payment must be received in order to avoid being treated as late for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) must be no less than 19 days after the closing date of the billing cycle. Similarly, in these circumstances, the limitation in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) on treating a payment as late for any purpose applies for 19 days after the closing date of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Treating a payment as late for any purpose.</I> Treating a payment as late for any purpose includes increasing the annual percentage rate as a penalty, reporting the consumer as delinquent to a credit reporting agency, assessing a late fee or any other fee, initiating collection activities, or terminating benefits (such as rewards on purchases) based on the consumer's failure to make a payment within a specified amount of time or by a specified date. The prohibitions in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(2)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) on treating a payment as late for any purpose apply only during the 21-day or 14-day period (as applicable) following mailing or delivery of the periodic statement stating the due date for that payment and only if the required minimum periodic payment is received within that period. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, a periodic statement mailed on April 4 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $50 is due on April 25. If the card issuer does not receive any payment on or before April 25, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit the card issuer from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in paragraph i above. On April 20, the card issuer receives a payment of $30 and no additional payment is received on or before April 25. Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit the card issuer from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in paragraph i above. On May 4, the card issuer has not received the $50 required minimum periodic payment that was due on April 25. The periodic statement mailed on May 4 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $150 is due on May 25. Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not permit the card issuer to treat the $150 required minimum periodic payment as late until April 26. However, the card issuer may continue to treat the $50 required minimum periodic payment as late during this period.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume that, for an account under an open-end consumer credit plan that does not provide a grace period, a periodic statement mailed on September 10 states that a required minimum periodic payment of $100 is due on September 24. If the creditor does not receive any payment on or before September 24, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) does not prohibit the creditor from treating the required minimum periodic payment as late.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Grace periods.</I> i. <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B), “grace period” means a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. A deferred interest or similar promotional program under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time is not a grace period for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B). Similarly, a period following the payment due date during which a late payment fee will not be imposed is not a grace period for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B). <I>See</I> comments 7(b)(11)-1, 7(b)(11)-2, and 54(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Applicability of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(1).</I> Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) applies if an account is eligible for a grace period when the periodic statement is mailed or delivered. Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not require the creditor to provide a grace period or prohibit the creditor from placing limitations and conditions on a grace period to the extent consistent with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 1026.54. <I>See</I> comment 54(a)(1)-1. Furthermore, the prohibition in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) applies only during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the periodic statement and applies only when the creditor receives a payment within that 21-day period that satisfies the terms of the grace period.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth of the month. Assume also that, under the terms of the account, the balance at the end of a billing cycle must be paid in full by the following payment due date in order for the account to remain eligible for the grace period. At the end of the April billing cycle, the balance on the account is $500. The grace period applies to the $500 balance because the balance for the March billing cycle was paid in full on April 25. Accordingly, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) requires the creditor to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that the periodic statement reflecting the $500 balance is mailed or delivered on or before May 4. Furthermore, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) requires the creditor to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that the creditor does not impose finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period if a $500 payment is received on or before May 25. However, if the creditor receives a payment of $300 on April 25, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>) would not prohibit the creditor from imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of the grace period (to the extent permitted by § 1026.54).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Application of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii) to charge card and charged-off accounts.</I> i. <I>Charge card accounts.</I> For purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is the date the card issuer is required to disclose on the periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A). Because § 1026.7(b)(11)(ii) provides that § 1026.7(b)(11)(i) does not apply to periodic statements provided solely for charge card accounts other than covered separate credit features that are charge card accounts accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) also does not apply to the mailing or delivery of periodic statements provided solely for such accounts. However, in these circumstances, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires the card issuer to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that a payment is not treated as late for any purpose during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the statement. A card issuer that complies with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A) as discussed above with respect to a charge card account has also complied with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>). Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not apply to charge card accounts because, for purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B), a grace period is a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate and, consistent with § 1026.2(a)(15)(iii), charge card accounts do not impose a finance charge based on a periodic rate.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Charged-off accounts.</I> For purposes of § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is the date the card issuer is required to disclose on the periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A). Because § 1026.7(b)(11)(ii) provides that § 1026.7(b)(11)(i) does not apply to periodic statements provided for charged-off accounts where full payment of the entire account balance is due immediately, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) also does not apply to the mailing or delivery of periodic statements provided solely for such accounts. Furthermore, although § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires the card issuer to have reasonable procedures designed to ensure that a payment is not treated as late for any purpose during the 21-day period following mailing or delivery of the statement, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit a card issuer from continuing to treat prior payments as late during that period. <I>See</I> comment 5(b)(2)(ii)-2. Similarly, although § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) applies to open-end consumer credit accounts in these circumstances, § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) does not prohibit a creditor from continuing treating prior payments as late during the 14-day period following mailing or delivery of a periodic statement. Section 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not apply to charged-off accounts where full payment of the entire account balance is due immediately because such accounts do not provide a grace period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Consumer request to pick up periodic statements.</I> When a consumer initiates a request, the creditor may permit, but may not require, the consumer to pick up periodic statements. If the consumer wishes to pick up a statement, the statement must be made available in accordance with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Deferred interest and similar promotional programs.</I> See comment 7(b)-1.iv.
</P>
<HD3>5(c) Basis of Disclosures and Use of Estimates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Legal obligation.</I> The disclosures should reflect the credit terms to which the parties are legally bound at the time of giving the disclosures.
</P>
<P>i. The legal obligation is determined by applicable state or other law.
</P>
<P>ii. The fact that a term or contract may later be deemed unenforceable by a court on the basis of equity or other grounds does not, by itself, mean that disclosures based on that term or contract did not reflect the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>iii. The legal obligation normally is presumed to be contained in the contract that evidences the agreement. But this may be rebutted if another agreement between the parties legally modifies that contract.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimates—obtaining information.</I> Disclosures may be estimated when the exact information is unknown at the time disclosures are made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the creditor at the time disclosures are made. The reasonably available standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. In using estimates, the creditor is not required to disclose the basis for the estimated figures, but may include such explanations as additional information. The creditor normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. For example, the creditor might look to insurance companies for the cost of insurance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Estimates—redisclosure.</I> If the creditor makes estimated disclosures, redisclosure is not required for that consumer, even though more accurate information becomes available before the first transaction. For example, in an open-end plan to be secured by real estate, the creditor may estimate the appraisal fees to be charged; such an estimate might reasonably be based on the prevailing market rates for similar appraisals. If the exact appraisal fee is determinable after the estimate is furnished but before the consumer receives the first advance under the plan, no new disclosure is necessary.
</P>
<HD3>5(d) Multiple Creditors; Multiple Consumers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> Under § 1026.5(d):
</P>
<P>i. Creditors must choose which of them will make the disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. A single, complete set of disclosures must be provided, rather than partial disclosures from several creditors.
</P>
<P>iii. All disclosures for the open-end credit plan must be given, even if the disclosing creditor would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> Disclosures may be made to either obligor on a joint account. Disclosure responsibilities are not satisfied by giving disclosures to only a surety or guarantor for a principal obligor or to an authorized user. In rescindable transactions, however, separate disclosures must be given to each consumer who has the right to rescind under § 1026.15.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Card issuer and person extending credit not the same person.</I> Section 127(c)(4)(D) of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1637(c)(4)(D)) contains rules pertaining to charge card issuers with plans that allow access to an open-end credit plan that is maintained by a person other than the charge card issuer. These rules are not implemented in Regulation Z (although they were formerly implemented in § 1026.60(f)). However, the statutory provisions remain in effect and may be used by charge card issuers with plans meeting the specified criteria.
</P>
<HD3>5(e) Effect of Subsequent Events
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Events causing inaccuracies.</I> Inaccuracies in disclosures are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made. For example, when the consumer fails to fulfill a prior commitment to keep the collateral insured and the creditor then provides the coverage and charges the consumer for it, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate. The creditor may, however, be required to provide a new disclosure(s) under § 1026.9(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of inserts.</I> When changes in a creditor's plan affect required disclosures, the creditor may use inserts with outdated disclosure forms. Any insert:
</P>
<P>i. Should clearly refer to the disclosure provision it replaces.
</P>
<P>ii. Need not be physically attached or affixed to the basic disclosure statement.
</P>
<P>iii. May be used only until the supply of outdated forms is exhausted.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.6—Account-Opening Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD3>6(a) Rules Affecting Home-Equity Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>6(a)(1) Finance Charge
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When finance charges accrue.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose a specific date when finance charges will begin to accrue. Creditors may provide a general explanation such as that the consumer has 30 days from the closing date to pay the new balance before finance charges will accrue on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Grace periods.</I> In disclosing whether or not a grace period exists, the creditor need not use “free period,” “free-ride period,” “grace period” or any other particular descriptive phrase or term. For example, a statement that “the finance charge begins on the date the transaction is posted to your account” adequately discloses that no grace period exists. In the same fashion, a statement that “finance charges will be imposed on any new purchases only if they are not paid in full within 25 days after the close of the billing cycle” indicates that a grace period exists in the interim.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Range of balances.</I> The range of balances disclosure is inapplicable:
</P>
<P>i. If only one periodic rate may be applied to the entire account balance.
</P>
<P>ii. If only one periodic rate may be applied to the entire balance for a feature (for example, cash advances), even though the balance for another feature (purchases) may be subject to two rates (a 1.5% monthly periodic rate on purchase balances of $0-$500, and a 1% monthly periodic rate for balances above $500). In this example, the creditor must give a range of balances disclosure for the purchase feature.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate disclosures—coverage.</I> i. <I>Examples.</I> This section covers open-end credit plans under which rate changes are specifically set forth in the account agreement and are tied to an index or formula. A creditor would use variable-rate disclosures for plans involving rate changes such as the following:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are tied to the rate the creditor pays on its six-month certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are tied to Treasury bill rates.
</P>
<P>C. Rate changes that are tied to changes in the creditor's commercial lending rate.
</P>
<P>ii. An open-end credit plan in which the employee receives a lower rate contingent upon employment (that is, with the rate to be increased upon termination of employment) is not a variable-rate plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate plan—rate(s) in effect.</I> In disclosing the rate(s) in effect at the time of the account-opening disclosures (as is required by § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii)), the creditor may use an insert showing the current rate; may give the rate as of a specified date and then update the disclosure from time to time, for example, each calendar month; or may disclose an estimated rate under § 1026.5(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Variable-rate plan—additional disclosures required.</I> In addition to disclosing the rates in effect at the time of the account-opening disclosures, the disclosures under § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) also must be made.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Variable-rate plan—index.</I> The index to be used must be clearly identified; the creditor need not give, however, an explanation of how the index is determined or provide instructions for obtaining it.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Variable-rate plan—circumstances for increase.</I> i. Circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. An increase in the Treasury bill rate.
</P>
<P>B. An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor must disclose when the increase will take effect; for example:
</P>
<P>A. “An increase will take effect on the day that the Treasury bill rate increases,” or
</P>
<P>B. “An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate will take effect on the first day of the creditor's billing cycle.”
</P>
<P>7. <I>Variable-rate plan—limitations on increase.</I> In disclosing any limitations on rate increases, limitations such as the maximum increase per year or the maximum increase over the duration of the plan must be disclosed. When there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact. (A maximum interest rate must be included in dwelling-secured open-end credit plans under which the interest rate may be changed. <I>See</I> § 1026.30 and the commentary to that section.) Legal limits such as usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations need not be disclosed. Examples of limitations that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. “The rate on the plan will not exceed 25% annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>ii. “Not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR> percent increase in the annual percentage rate per year will occur.”
</P>
<P>8. <I>Variable-rate plan—effects of increase.</I> Examples of effects of rate increases that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. Any requirement for additional collateral if the annual percentage rate increases beyond a specified rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Any increase in the scheduled minimum periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Variable-rate plan—change-in-terms notice not required.</I> No notice of a change in terms is required for a rate increase under a variable-rate plan as defined in comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-2.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Discounted variable-rate plans.</I> In some variable-rate plans, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula.
</P>
<P>i. For example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the current Treasury bill rate is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent, or the creditor may disregard the index or formula and set the initial rate at 9 percent.
</P>
<P>ii. When creditors use an initial rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the account-opening disclosure statement should reflect:
</P>
<P>A. The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate), together with a statement of how long the initial rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>B. The current rate that would have been applied using the index or formula (also expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate); and
</P>
<P>C. The other variable-rate information required in § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>iii. In disclosing the current periodic and annual percentage rates that would be applied using the index or formula, the creditor may use any of the disclosure options described in comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-3.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Increased penalty rates.</I> If the initial rate may increase upon the occurrence of one or more specific events, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the creditor must disclose the initial rate and the increased penalty rate that may apply. If the penalty rate is based on an index and an increased margin, the issuer must disclose the index and the margin. The creditor must also disclose the specific event or events that may result in the increased rate, such as “22% APR, if 60 days late.” If the penalty rate cannot be determined at the time disclosures are given, the creditor must provide an explanation of the specific event or events that may result in the increased rate. At the creditor's option, the creditor may disclose the period for which the increased rate will remain in effect, such as “until you make three timely payments.” The creditor need not disclose an increased rate that is imposed when credit privileges are permanently terminated.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> A shorthand phrase such as “previous balance method” does not suffice in explaining the balance computation method. (See Model Clauses G-1 and G-1(A) to part 1026.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Allocation of payments.</I> Creditors may, but need not, explain how payments and other credits are allocated to outstanding balances. For example, the creditor need not disclose that payments are applied to late charges, overdue balances, and finance charges before being applied to the principal balance; or in a multifeatured plan, that payments are applied first to finance charges, then to purchases, and then to cash advances. (<I>See</I> comment 7-1 for definition of multifeatured plan.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(a)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Finance charges.</I> In addition to disclosing the periodic rate(s) under § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii), creditors must disclose any other type of finance charge that may be imposed, such as minimum, fixed, transaction, and activity charges; required insurance; or appraisal or credit report fees (unless excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(7)). Creditors are not required to disclose the fact that no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed.
</P>
<HD3>6(a)(2) Other Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General; examples of other charges.</I> Under § 1026.6(a)(2), significant charges related to the plan (that are not finance charges) must also be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Late-payment and over-the-credit-limit charges.
</P>
<P>ii. Fees for providing documentary evidence of transactions requested under § 1026.13 (billing error resolution).
</P>
<P>iii. Charges imposed in connection with residential mortgage transactions or real estate transactions such as title, appraisal, and credit-report fees (see § 1026.4(c)(7)).
</P>
<P>iv. A tax imposed on the credit transaction by a state or other governmental body, such as a documentary stamp tax on cash advances. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.4(a)).
</P>
<P>v. A membership or participation fee for a package of services that includes an open-end credit feature, unless the fee is required whether or not the open-end credit feature is included. For example, a membership fee to join a credit union is not an “other charge,” even if membership is required to apply for credit. For example, if the primary benefit of membership in an organization is the opportunity to apply for a credit card, and the other benefits offered (such as a newsletter or a member information hotline) are merely incidental to the credit feature, the membership fee would be disclosed as an “other charge.”
</P>
<P>vi. Charges imposed for the termination of an open-end credit plan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exclusions.</I> The following are examples of charges that are not “other charges”:
</P>
<P>i. Fees charged for documentary evidence of transactions for income tax purposes.
</P>
<P>ii. Amounts payable by a consumer for collection activity after default; attorney's fees, whether or not automatically imposed; foreclosure costs; post-judgment interest rates imposed by law; and reinstatement or reissuance fees.
</P>
<P>iii. Premiums for voluntary credit life or disability insurance, or for property insurance, that are not part of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>iv. Application fees under § 1026.4(c)(1).
</P>
<P>v. A monthly service charge for a checking account with overdraft protection that is applied to all checking accounts, whether or not a credit feature is attached.
</P>
<P>vi. Charges for submitting as payment a check that is later returned unpaid (See commentary to § 1026.4(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>vii. Charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system. (<I>See</I> also comment 7(a)(2)-2.)
</P>
<P>viii. Taxes and filing or notary fees excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(e).
</P>
<P>ix. A fee to expedite delivery of a credit card, either at account opening or during the life of the account, provided delivery of the card is also available by standard mail service (or other means at least as fast) without paying a fee for delivery.
</P>
<P>x. A fee charged for arranging a single payment on the credit account, upon the consumer's request (regardless of how frequently the consumer requests the service), if the credit plan provides that the consumer may make payments on the account by another reasonable means, such as by standard mail service, without paying a fee to the creditor.
</P>
<HD3>6(a)(3) Home-Equity Plan Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Additional disclosures required.</I> For home-equity plans, creditors must provide several of the disclosures set forth in § 1026.40(d) along with the disclosures required under § 1026.6. Creditors also must disclose a list of the conditions that permit the creditor to terminate the plan, freeze or reduce the credit limit, and implement specified modifications to the original terms. (<I>See</I> comment 40(d)(4)(iii)-1.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The home-equity disclosures provided under this section must be in a form the consumer can keep, and are governed by § 1026.5(a)(1). The segregation standard set forth in § 1026.40(a) does not apply to home-equity disclosures provided under § 1026.6.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of payment and variable-rate examples.</I> i. The payment-example disclosure in § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) and the variable-rate information in § 1026.40(d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi), and (d)(12)(xii) need not be provided with the disclosures under § 1026.6 if the disclosures under § 1026.40(d) were provided in a form the consumer could keep; and the disclosures of the payment example under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii), the maximum-payment example under § 1026.40(d)(12)(x) and the historical table under § 1026.40(d)(12)(xi) included a representative payment example for the category of payment options the consumer has chosen.
</P>
<P>ii. For example, if a creditor offers three payment options (one for each of the categories described in the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5)), describes all three options in its early disclosures, and provides all of the disclosures in a retainable form, that creditor need not provide the § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) or (d)(12) disclosures again when the account is opened. If the creditor showed only one of the three options in the early disclosures (which would be the case with a separate disclosure form rather than a combined form, as discussed under § 1026.40(a)), the disclosures under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii), (d)(12)(viii), (d)(12)(x), (d)(12)(xi) and (d)(12)(xii) must be given to any consumer who chooses one of the other two options. If the § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12) disclosures are provided with the second set of disclosures, they need not be transaction-specific, but may be based on a representative example of the category of payment option chosen.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosures for the repayment period.</I> The creditor must provide disclosures about both the draw and repayment phases when giving the disclosures under § 1026.6. Specifically, the creditor must make the disclosures in § 1026.6(a)(3), state the corresponding annual percentage rate, and provide the variable-rate information required in § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) for the repayment phase. To the extent the corresponding annual percentage rate, the information in § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii), and any other required disclosures are the same for the draw and repayment phase, the creditor need not repeat such information, as long as it is clear that the information applies to both phases.
</P>
<HD3>6(a)(4) Security Interests
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors are not required to use specific terms to describe a security interest, or to explain the type of security or the creditor's rights with respect to the collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of property.</I> Creditors sufficiently identify collateral by type by stating, for example, <I>motor vehicle</I> or <I>household appliances.</I> (Creditors should be aware, however, that the Federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) The creditor may, at its option, provide a more specific identification (for example, a model and serial number).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> If collateral for preexisting credit with the creditor will secure the plan being opened, the creditor must disclose that fact. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) The creditor need not specifically identify the collateral; a reminder such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan” is sufficient. At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional collateral.</I> If collateral is required when advances reach a certain amount, the creditor should disclose the information available at the time of the account-opening disclosures. For example, if the creditor knows that a security interest will be taken in household goods if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, the creditor should disclose accordingly. If the creditor knows that security will be required if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, but the creditor does not know what security will be required, the creditor must disclose on the initial disclosure statement that security will be required if the balance exceeds $1,000, and the creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c) at the time the security is taken. (See comment 6(a)(4)-2.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> Security interests taken in connection with the plan must be disclosed, whether the collateral is owned by the consumer or a third party.
</P>
<HD3>6(a)(5) Statement of Billing Rights
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>See</I> the commentary to Model Forms G-3, G-3(A), G-4, and G-4(A).
</P>
<HD3>6(b) Rules Affecting Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>6(b)(1) Form of Disclosures; Tabular Format for Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relation to tabular summary for applications and solicitations.</I> See commentary to § 1026.60(a), (b), and (c) regarding format and content requirements, except for the following:
</P>
<P>i. Creditors must use the accuracy standard for annual percentage rates in § 1026.6(b)(4)(ii)(G).
</P>
<P>ii. Generally, creditors must disclose the specific rate for each feature that applies to the account. If the rates on an open-end (not home-secured) plan vary by state and the creditor is providing the account-opening table in person at the time the plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services the creditor may, at its option, disclose in the account-opening table (A) the rate applicable to the consumer's account, or (B) the range of rates, if the disclosure includes a statement that the rate varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the rate applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed.
</P>
<P>iii. Creditors must explain whether or not a grace period exists for all features on the account. The row heading “Paying Interest” must be used if any one feature on the account does not have a grace period.
</P>
<P>iv. Creditors must name the balance computation method used for each feature of the account and state that an explanation of the balance computation method(s) is provided in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>v. Creditors must state that consumers' billing rights are provided in the account-opening disclosures.
</P>
<P>vi. If fees on an open-end (not home-secured) plan vary by state and the creditor is providing the account-opening table in person at the time the plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services the creditor may, at its option, disclose in the account-opening table (A) the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, or (B) the range of fees, if the disclosure includes a statement that the amount of the fee varies by state and refers the consumer to the account agreement or other disclosure provided with the account-opening table where the fee applicable to the consumer's account is disclosed.
</P>
<P>vii. Creditors that must disclose the amount of available credit must state the initial credit limit provided on the account.
</P>
<P>viii. Creditors must disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked. Issuers of credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan are subject to limitations on the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked. (See comment 60(b)(1)-5 for guidance on how a card issuer may disclose the circumstances under which an introductory rate may be revoked.)
</P>
<P>ix. The applicable forms providing safe harbors for account-opening tables are under appendix G-17 to part 1026.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to § 1026.6 disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> Section 1026.6(b)(1) generally requires that the headings, content, and format of the tabular disclosures be substantially similar, but need not be identical, to the tables in appendix G to part 1026; but see § 1026.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to § 1026.6(b).
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2) Required Disclosures for Account-Opening Table for Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, a creditor is required to disclose under § 1026.6(b)(2) any fees or charges imposed on the asset feature that are charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) to the extent those fees fall within the categories of fees or charges required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2). For example, assume that a creditor imposes a $1.25 per transaction fee on an asset feature of the prepaid account for purchases when a hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing purchase transactions conducted with the card, and a $0.50 transaction fee for purchases that access funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account in the same program without such a credit feature. In this case, the $0.75 excess is a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) and must be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan.</I> A creditor is not required to disclose under § 1026.6(b)(2) any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). See § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3).


</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2)(iii) Fixed Finance Charge; Minimum Interest Charge
</HD3>
<P><I>1. Example of brief statement. See</I> Samples G-17(B), G-17(C), and G-17(D) for guidance on how to provide a brief description of a minimum interest charge.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2)(v) Grace Period
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Grace period.</I> Creditors must state any conditions on the applicability of the grace period. A creditor, however, may not disclose under § 1026.6(b)(2)(v) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 1026.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some creditors may offer a grace period on all types of transactions under which interest will not be charged on transactions if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 1026.6(b)(2)(v) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period and the conditions for its applicability using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ______ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on your account if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on all types of transactions under which interest may be charged on transactions even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 1026.6(b)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No grace period.</I> Creditors may use the following language to describe that no grace period is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on [applicable transactions] on the transaction date.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Grace period on some features.</I> Some creditors do not offer a grace period on cash advances and balance transfers, but offer a grace period for all purchases under which interest will not be charged on purchases if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 1026.6(b)(2)(v) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period for purchases and the conditions for its applicability, and the lack of a grace period for cash advances and balance transfers using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on purchases if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month. We will begin charging interest on cash advances and balance transfers on the transaction date.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest may be charged on purchases even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 1026.6(a)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period. Also, some creditors may not offer a grace period on cash advances and balance transfers, and will begin charging interest on these transactions from a date other than the transaction date, such as the posting date. In these circumstances, § 1026.6(a)(2)(v) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to be accurate.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2)(vi) Balance Computation Method
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Use of same balance computation method for all features.</I> In cases where the balance for each feature is computed using the same balance computation method, a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is sufficient. In this case, a creditor may use an appropriate name listed in § 1026.60(g) (e.g., “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>”) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the method for all features on the account, even though the name only refers to purchases. For example, if a creditor uses the average daily balance method including new transactions for all features, a creditor may use the name “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>” listed in § 1026.60(g)(i) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the balance computation method for all features. As an alternative, in this situation, a creditor may revise the balance computation names listed in § 1026.60(g) to refer more broadly to all new credit transactions, such as using the language “new transactions” or “current transactions” (<I>e.g., “average daily balance (including new transactions)”),</I> rather than simply referring to new purchases when the same method is used to calculate the balances for all features of the account. <I>See</I> Samples G-17(B) and G-17(C) for guidance on how to disclose the balance computation method where the same method is used for all features on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of balance computation names in § 1026.60(g) for balances other than purchases.</I> The names of the balance computation methods listed in § 1026.60(g) describe balance computation methods for purchases. When a creditor is disclosing the name of the balance computation methods separately for each feature, in using the names listed in § 1026.60(g) to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.6(b)(2)(vi) for features other than purchases, a creditor must revise the names listed in § 1026.60(g) to refer to the other features. For example, when disclosing the name of the balance computation method applicable to cash advances, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 1026.60(g)(i) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (including new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. Similarly, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 1026.60(g)(ii) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (excluding new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. <I>See</I> comment 6(b)(2)(vi)-1 for guidance on the use of one balance computation name when the same balance computation method is used for all features on the account.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(2)(xiii) Available Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Right to reject the plan.</I> Creditors may use the following language to describe consumers' right to reject a plan after receiving account-opening disclosures: “You may still reject this plan, provided that you have not yet used the account or paid a fee after receiving a billing statement. If you do reject the plan, you are not responsible for any fees or charges.”
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(3) Disclosure of Charges Imposed as Part of Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When finance charges accrue.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose a specific date when a cost that is a finance charge under § 1026.4 will begin to accrue.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Grace periods.</I> In disclosing in the account agreement or disclosure statement whether or not a grace period exists, the creditor need not use any particular descriptive phrase or term. However, the descriptive phrase or term must be sufficiently similar to the disclosures provided pursuant to §§ 1026.60(b)(5) and 1026.6(b)(2)(v) to satisfy a creditor's duty to provide consistent terminology under § 1026.5(a)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>No finance charge imposed below certain balance.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose the fact that no finance charge is imposed when the outstanding balance is less than a certain amount or the balance below which no finance charge will be imposed.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Failure to use the plan as agreed.</I> Late payment fees, over-the-limit fees, and fees for payments returned unpaid are examples of charges resulting from consumers' failure to use the plan as agreed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of fees that affect the plan.</I> Examples of charges the payment, or nonpayment, of which affects the consumer's account are:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Access to the plan.</I> Fees for using the card at the creditor's ATM to obtain a cash advance, fees to obtain additional cards including replacements for lost or stolen cards, fees to expedite delivery of cards or other credit devices, application and membership fees, and annual or other participation fees identified in § 1026.4(c)(4).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> Fees for increasing the credit limit on the account, whether at the consumer's request or unilaterally by the creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Timing or method of billing or payment.</I> Fees to pay by telephone or via the Internet.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold test.</I> If the creditor is unsure whether a particular charge is a cost imposed as part of the plan, the creditor may at its option consider such charges as a cost imposed as part of the plan for purposes of the Truth in Lending Act.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(iii)


</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(iii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees for package of services.</I> A fee to join a credit union is an example of a fee for a package of services that is not imposed as part of the plan, even if the consumer must join the credit union to apply for credit. In contrast, a membership fee is an example of a fee for a package of services that is considered to be imposed as part of a plan where the primary benefit of membership in the organization is the opportunity to apply for a credit card, and the other benefits offered (such as a newsletter or a member information hotline) are merely incidental to the credit feature.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(iii)(D)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> Under § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D), with regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, a fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to a covered separate credit feature to the extent that the amount of the fee or charge does not exceed comparable fees or charges imposed on prepaid accounts in the same prepaid account program that do not have a covered separate credit feature accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a prepaid account issuer charges a $0.50 per transaction fee on an asset feature of the prepaid account for purchases when a hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing purchase transactions conducted with the card and a $0.50 transaction fee for purchases that access funds in the asset feature of a prepaid account in the same program without such a credit feature. The $0.50 fees are comparable fees and the $0.50 fee for purchases when a hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing purchase transactions conducted with the card is not a charge imposed as part of the plan. However, if in this example, the prepaid account issuer imposes a $1.25 per transaction fee on an asset feature of the prepaid account for purchases when a hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing purchase transactions conducted with the card, the $0.75 excess is a charge imposed as part of the plan. This $0.75 excess also is a finance charge under § 1026.4(b)(11)(ii).
</P>
<P>ii. See comment 4(b)(11)(ii)-1 for additional illustrations of when a prepaid account issuer is charging comparable per transaction fees or load or transfer fees on the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 6(b)(3)(iii)(E)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account in connection with a non-covered separate credit feature.</I> With regard to a non-covered separate credit feature accessible by a prepaid card as defined in § 1026.61, under § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(E), none of the fees or charges imposed on the asset balance of the prepaid account are charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to the non-covered separate credit feature. In addition, none of these fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account are finance charges with respect to the non-covered separate credit feature as discussed in comment 4(b)(11)-1.ii.B.


</P>
<HD3>6(b)(4) Disclosure of Rates for Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>6(b)(4)(i)(B) Range of Balances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Range of balances.</I> Creditors are not required to disclose the range of balances:
</P>
<P>i. If only one periodic interest rate may be applied to the entire account balance.
</P>
<P>ii. If only one periodic interest rate may be applied to the entire balance for a feature (for example, cash advances), even though the balance for another feature (purchases) may be subject to two rates (a 1.5% monthly periodic interest rate on purchase balances of $0-$500, and a 1% periodic interest rate for balances above $500). In this example, the creditor must give a range of balances disclosure for the purchase feature.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(4)(i)(D) Balance Computation Method
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> Creditors do not provide a sufficient explanation of a balance computation method by using a shorthand phrase such as “previous balance method” or the name of a balance computation method listed in § 1026.60(g). (<I>See</I> Model Clauses G-1(A) in appendix G to part 1026. <I>See</I> § 1026.6(b)(2)(vi) regarding balance computation descriptions in the account-opening summary.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Allocation of payments.</I> Creditors may, but need not, explain how payments and other credits are allocated to outstanding balances.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(4)(ii) Variable-Rate Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate disclosures—coverage.</I> i. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of open-end plans that permit the rate to change and are considered variable-rate plans include:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are tied to the rate the creditor pays on its six-month certificates of deposit.
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are tied to Treasury bill rates.
</P>
<P>C. Rate changes that are tied to changes in the creditor's commercial lending rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Examples of open-end plans that permit the rate to change and are not considered variable-rate include:
</P>
<P>A. Rate changes that are invoked under a creditor's contract reservation to increase the rate without reference to such an index or formula (for example, a plan that simply provides that the creditor reserves the right to raise its rates).
</P>
<P>B. Rate changes that are triggered by a specific event such as an open-end credit plan in which the employee receives a lower rate contingent upon employment, and the rate increases upon termination of employment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate plan—circumstances for increase.</I> i. The following are examples that comply with the requirement to disclose circumstances under which the rate(s) may increase:
</P>
<P>A. “The Treasury bill rate increases.”
</P>
<P>B. “The Federal Reserve discount rate increases.”
</P>
<P>ii. Disclosing the frequency with which the rate may increase includes disclosing when the increase will take effect; for example:
</P>
<P>A. “An increase will take effect on the day that the Treasury bill rate increases.”
</P>
<P>B. “An increase in the Federal Reserve discount rate will take effect on the first day of the creditor's billing cycle.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate plan—limitations on increase.</I> In disclosing any limitations on rate increases, limitations such as the maximum increase per year or the maximum increase over the duration of the plan must be disclosed. When there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact. Legal limits such as usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations need not be disclosed. Examples of limitations that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. “The rate on the plan will not exceed 25% annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>ii. “Not more than 
<FR>1/2</FR>; of 1% increase in the annual percentage rate per year will occur.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Variable-rate plan—effects of increase.</I> Examples of effects of rate increases that must be disclosed include:
</P>
<P>i. Any requirement for additional collateral if the annual percentage rate increases beyond a specified rate.
</P>
<P>ii. Any increase in the scheduled minimum periodic payment amount.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Discounted variable-rate plans.</I> In some variable-rate plans, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula.
</P>
<P>i. For example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the current Treasury bill rate is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent, or the creditor may disregard the index or formula and set the initial rate at 9 percent.
</P>
<P>ii. When creditors disclose in the account-opening disclosures an initial rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the disclosure should reflect:
</P>
<P>A. The initial rate (expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate), together with a statement of how long the initial rate will remain in effect;
</P>
<P>B. The current rate that would have been applied using the index or formula (also expressed as a periodic rate and a corresponding annual percentage rate); and
</P>
<P>C. The other variable-rate information required by § 1026.6(b)(4)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(4)(iii) Rate Changes Not Due to Index or Formula
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Events that cause the initial rate to change.</I> i. <I>Changes based on expiration of time period.</I> If the initial rate will change at the expiration of a time period, creditors that disclose the initial rate in the account-opening disclosure must identify the expiration date and the fact that the initial rate will end at that time.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Changes based on specified contract terms.</I> If the account agreement provides that the creditor may change the initial rate upon the occurrence of a specified event or events, the creditor must identify the events or events. Examples include the consumer not making the required minimum payment when due, or the termination of an employee preferred rate when the employment relationship is terminated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rate that will apply after initial rate changes.</I> i. <I>Increased margins.</I> If the initial rate is based on an index and the rate may increase due to a change in the margin applied to the index, the creditor must disclose the increased margin. If more than one margin could apply, the creditor may disclose the highest margin.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Risk-based pricing.</I> In some plans, the amount of the rate change depends on how the creditor weighs the occurrence of events specified in the account agreement that authorize the creditor to change rates, as well as other factors. Creditors must state the increased rate that may apply. At the creditor's option, the creditor may state the possible rates as a range, or by stating only the highest rate that could be assessed. The creditor must disclose the period for which the increased rate will remain in effect, such as “until you make three timely payments,” or if there is no limitation, the fact that the increased rate may remain indefinitely.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of rate change on balances.</I> Creditors must disclose information to consumers about the balance to which the new rate will apply and the balance to which the current rate at the time of the change will apply. Card issuers subject to § 1026.55 may be subject to certain restrictions on the application of increased rates to certain balances.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(5) Additional Disclosures for Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>6(b)(5)(i) Voluntary Credit Insurance, Debt Cancellation or Debt Suspension
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> Under § 1026.4(d), disclosures required to exclude the cost of voluntary credit insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage from the finance charge must be provided before the consumer agrees to the purchase of the insurance or coverage. Creditors comply with § 1026.6(b)(5)(i) if they provide those disclosures in accordance with § 1026.4(d). For example, if the disclosures required by § 1026.4(d) are provided at application, creditors need not repeat those disclosures at account opening.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(5)(ii) Security Interests
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors are not required to use specific terms to describe a security interest, or to explain the type of security or the creditor's rights with respect to the collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification of property.</I> Creditors sufficiently identify collateral by type by stating, for example, <I>motor vehicle</I> or <I>household appliances.</I> (Creditors should be aware, however, that the Federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) The creditor may, at its option, provide a more specific identification (for example, a model and serial number.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> If collateral for preexisting credit with the creditor will secure the plan being opened, the creditor must disclose that fact. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) The creditor need not specifically identify the collateral; a reminder such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan” is sufficient. At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Additional collateral.</I> If collateral is required when advances reach a certain amount, the creditor should disclose the information available at the time of the account-opening disclosures. For example, if the creditor knows that a security interest will be taken in household goods if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, the creditor should disclose accordingly. If the creditor knows that security will be required if the consumer's balance exceeds $1,000, but the creditor does not know what security will be required, the creditor must disclose on the initial disclosure statement that security will be required if the balance exceeds $1,000, and the creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c) at the time the security is taken. (See comment 6(b)(5)(ii)-2.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> Security interests taken in connection with the plan must be disclosed, whether the collateral is owned by the consumer or a third party.
</P>
<HD3>6(b)(5)(iii) Statement of Billing Rights
</HD3>
<P>1. See the commentary to Model Forms G-3(A) and G-4(A).










</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.7—Periodic Statement
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> Some plans involve a number of different features, such as purchases, cash advances, or overdraft checking. Groups of transactions subject to different finance charge terms because of the dates on which the transactions took place are treated like different features for purposes of disclosures on the periodic statements. The commentary includes additional guidance for multifeatured plans.
</P>
<HD3>7(a) Rules Affecting Home-Equity Plans
</HD3>
<HD3>7(a)(1) Previous Balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> If the previous balance is a credit balance, it must be disclosed in such a way so as to inform the consumer that it is a credit balance, rather than a debit balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the previous balance may be disclosed either as an aggregate balance for the account or as separate balances for each feature (for example, a previous balance for purchases and a previous balance for cash advances). If separate balances are disclosed, a total previous balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some open-end credit plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the previous balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(2) Identification of Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In identifying transactions under § 1026.7(a)(2) for multifeatured plans, creditors may, for example, choose to arrange transactions by feature (such as disclosing sale transactions separately from cash advance transactions) or in some other clear manner, such as by arranging the transactions in general chronological order.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated teller machine (ATM) charges imposed by other institutions in shared or interchange systems.</I> A charge imposed on the cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system and included by the terminal-operating institution in the amount of the transaction need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(3) Credits
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification—sufficiency.</I> The creditor need not describe each credit by type (returned merchandise, rebate of finance charge, <I>etc.</I>)—“credit” would suffice—except if the creditor is using the periodic statement to satisfy the billing-error correction notice requirement. (See the commentary to § 1026.13(e) and (f).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> A creditor may list credits relating to credit extensions (payments, rebates, <I>etc.</I>) together with other types of credits (such as deposits to a checking account), as long as the entries are identified so as to inform the consumer which type of credit each entry represents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date.</I> If only one date is disclosed (that is, the crediting date as required by the regulation), no further identification of that date is necessary. More than one date may be disclosed for a single entry, as long as it is clear which date represents the date on which credit was given.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Totals.</I> A total of amounts credited during the billing cycle is not required.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(4) Periodic Rates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of periodic rates—whether or not actually applied.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.7(a)(4)(ii), any periodic rate that may be used to compute finance charges (and its corresponding annual percentage rate) must be disclosed whether or not it is applied during the billing cycle. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer's account has both a purchase feature and a cash advance feature, the creditor must disclose the rate for each, even if the consumer only makes purchases on the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. If the rate varies (such as when it is tied to a particular index), the creditor must disclose each rate in effect during the cycle for which the statement was issued.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of periodic rates required only if imposition possible.</I> With regard to the periodic rate disclosure (and its corresponding annual percentage rate), only rates that <I>could have</I> been imposed during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement need to be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor is changing rates effective during the next billing cycle (because of a variable-rate plan), the rates required to be disclosed under § 1026.7(a)(4) are only those in effect during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement. For example, if the monthly rate applied during May was 1.5%, but the creditor will increase the rate to 1.8% effective June 1, 1.5% (and its corresponding annual percentage rate) is the only required disclosure under § 1026.7(a)(4) for the periodic statement reflecting the May account activity.
</P>
<P>ii. If rates applicable to a particular type of transaction changed after a certain date and the old rate is only being applied to transactions that took place prior to that date, the creditor need not continue to disclose the old rate for those consumers that have no outstanding balances to which that rate could be applied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple rates—same transaction.</I> If two or more periodic rates are applied to the same balance for the <I>same</I> type of transaction (for example, if the finance charge consists of a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the outstanding balance and a required credit life insurance component calculated at 0.1% per month on the same outstanding balance), the creditor may do either of the following:
</P>
<P>i. Disclose each periodic rate, the range of balances to which it is applicable, and the corresponding annual percentage rate for each. (For example, 1.5% monthly, 18% annual percentage rate; 0.1% monthly, 1.2% annual percentage rate.)
</P>
<P>ii. Disclose one composite periodic rate (that is, 1.6% per month) along with the applicable range of balances and the corresponding annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Corresponding annual percentage rate.</I> In disclosing the annual percentage rate that corresponds to each periodic rate, the creditor may use “corresponding annual percentage rate,” “nominal annual percentage rate,” “corresponding nominal annual percentage rate,” or similar phrases.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rate same as actual annual percentage rate.</I> When the corresponding rate is the same as the annual percentage rate disclosed under § 1026.7(a)(7), the creditor need disclose only one annual percentage rate, but must use the phrase “annual percentage rate.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Range of balances.</I> See comment 6(a)(1)(ii)-1. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(5) Balance on Which Finance Charge Computed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Limitation to periodic rates.</I> Section 1026.7(a)(5) only requires disclosure of the balance(s) to which a periodic rate was applied and does not apply to balances on which other kinds of finance charges (such as transaction charges) were imposed. For example, if a consumer obtains a $1,500 cash advance subject to both a 1% transaction fee and a 1% monthly periodic rate, the creditor need only disclose the balance subject to the monthly rate (which might include portions of earlier cash advances not paid off in previous cycles).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Split rates applied to balance ranges.</I> If split rates were applied to a balance because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, the creditor need not separately disclose the portions of the balance subject to such different rates since the range of balances to which the rates apply has been separately disclosed. For example, a creditor could disclose a balance of $700 for purchases even though a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the first $500, and a monthly periodic rate of 1% to the remainder. This option to disclose a combined balance does not apply when the finance charge is computed by applying the split rates to each day's balance (in contrast, for example, to applying the rates to the average daily balance). In that case, the balances must be disclosed using any of the options that are available if two or more daily rates are imposed. (<I>See</I> comment 7(a)(5)-5.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Monthly rate on average daily balance.</I> Creditors may apply a monthly periodic rate to an average daily balance.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the creditor must disclose a separate balance (or balances, as applicable) to which a periodic rate was applied for each feature or group of features subject to different periodic rates or different balance computation methods. Separate balances are not required, however, merely because a grace period is available for some features but not others. A total balance for the entire plan is optional. This does not affect how many balances the creditor must disclose—or may disclose—within each feature. (<I>See</I>, for example, comment 7(a)(5)-5.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Daily rate on daily balances.</I> If the finance charge is computed on the balance each day by application of one or more daily periodic rates, the balance on which the finance charge was computed may be disclosed in any of the following ways for each feature:
</P>
<P>i. If a single daily periodic rate is imposed, the balance to which it is applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. The sum of the daily balances during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>D. The average daily balance during the billing cycle, in which case the creditor shall explain that the average daily balance is or can be multiplied by the number of days in the billing cycle and the periodic rate applied to the product to determine the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. If two or more daily periodic rates may be imposed, the balances to which the rates are applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. Two or more average daily balances, each applicable to the daily periodic rates imposed for the time that those rates were in effect, as long as the creditor explains that the finance charge is or may be determined by (<I>1</I>) multiplying each of the average balances by the number of days in the billing cycle (or if the daily rate varied during the cycle, by multiplying by the number of days the applicable rate was in effect), (<I>2</I>) multiplying each of the results by the applicable daily periodic rate, and (<I>3</I>) adding these products together.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Explanation of balance computation method.</I> See the commentary to 6(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Information to compute balance.</I> In connection with disclosing the finance charge balance, the creditor need not give the consumer all of the information necessary to compute the balance if that information is not otherwise required to be disclosed. For example, if current purchases are included from the date they are posted to the account, the posting date need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Non-deduction of credits.</I> The creditor need not specifically identify the total dollar amount of credits not deducted in computing the finance charge balance. Disclosure of the amount of credits not deducted is accomplished by listing the credits (§ 1026.7(a)(3)) and indicating which credits will not be deducted in determining the balance (for example, “credits after the 15th of the month are not deducted in computing the finance charge.”).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Use of one balance computation method explanation when multiple balances disclosed.</I> Sometimes the creditor will disclose more than one balance to which a periodic rate was applied, even though each balance was computed using the same balance computation method. For example, if a plan involves purchases and cash advances that are subject to different rates, more than one balance must be disclosed, even though the same computation method is used for determining the balance for each feature. In these cases, one explanation of the balance computation method is sufficient. Sometimes the creditor separately discloses the portions of the balance that are subject to different rates because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, even when a combined balance disclosure would be permitted under comment 7(a)(5)-2. In these cases, one explanation of the balance computation method is also sufficient (assuming, of course, that all portions of the balance were computed using the same method).
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(6) Amount of Finance Charge and Other Charges
</HD3>
<HD3>7(a)(6)(i) Finance Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total.</I> A total finance charge amount for the plan is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization—types of finance charges.</I> Each type of finance charge (such as periodic rates, transaction charges, and minimum charges) imposed during the cycle must be separately itemized; for example, disclosure of only a combined finance charge attributable to both a minimum charge and transaction charges would not be permissible. Finance charges of the same type may be disclosed, however, individually or as a total. For example, five transaction charges of $1 may be listed separately or as $5.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Itemization—different periodic rates.</I> Whether different periodic rates are applicable to different types of transactions or to different balance ranges, the creditor may give the finance charge attributable to each rate or may give a total finance charge amount. For example, if a creditor charges 1.5% per month on the first $500 of a balance and 1% per month on amounts over $500, the creditor may itemize the two components ($7.50 and $1.00) of the $8.50 charge, or may disclose $8.50.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, in disclosing the amount of the finance charge attributable to the application of periodic rates no total periodic rate disclosure for the entire plan need be given.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Finance charges not added to account.</I> A finance charge that is not included in the new balance because it is payable to a third party (such as required life insurance) must still be shown on the periodic statement as a finance charge.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Finance charges other than periodic rates.</I> See comment 6(a)(1)(iv)-1 for examples.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, no disclosure is required of finance charges that have accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Start-up fees.</I> Points, loan fees, and similar finance charges relating to the opening of the account that are paid prior to the issuance of the first periodic statement need not be disclosed on the periodic statement. If, however, these charges are financed as part of the plan, including charges that are paid out of the first advance, the charges must be disclosed as part of the finance charge on the first periodic statement. However, they need not be factored into the annual percentage rate. (<I>See</I> § 1026.14(c)(3).)
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(6)(ii) Other Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification.</I> In identifying any <I>other charges</I> actually imposed during the billing cycle, the type is adequately described as <I>late charge</I> or <I>membership fee,</I> for example. Similarly, <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs,</I> for example, may be used to describe charges imposed in connection with real estate transactions that are excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(7), if the same term (such as <I>closing costs</I>) was used in the initial disclosures and if the creditor chose to itemize and individually disclose the costs included in that term. Even though the taxes and filing or notary fees excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(e) are not required to be disclosed as <I>other charges</I> under § 1026.6(a)(2), these charges may be included in the amount shown as <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs</I> on the periodic statement, if the charges were itemized and disclosed as part of the <I>closing costs</I> or <I>settlement costs</I> on the initial disclosure statement. (<I>See</I> comment 6(a)(2)-1 for examples of <I>other charges.</I>)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date.</I> The date of imposing or debiting <I>other charges</I> need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total.</I> Disclosure of the total amount of other charges is optional.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Itemization—types of other charges.</I> Each type of <I>other charge</I> (such as late-payment charges, over-the-credit-limit charges, and membership fees) imposed during the cycle must be separately itemized; for example, disclosure of only a total of <I>other charges</I> attributable to both an over-the-credit-limit charge and a late-payment charge would not be permissible. <I>Other charges</I> of the same type may be disclosed, however, individually or as a total. For example, three fees of $3 for providing copies related to the resolution of a billing error could be listed separately or as $9.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(7) Annual Percentage Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40.</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, creditors are not required to disclose an effective annual percentage rate. Creditors that state an annualized rate in addition to the corresponding annual percentage rate required by § 1026.7(a)(4) must calculate that rate in accordance with § 1026.14(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Labels.</I> Creditors that choose to disclose an annual percentage rate calculated under § 1026.14(c) and label the figure as “annual percentage rate” must label the periodic rate expressed as an annualized rate as the “corresponding APR,” “nominal APR,” or a similar phrase as provided in comment 7(a)(4)-4. Creditors also comply with the label requirement if the rate calculated under § 1026.14(c) is described as the “effective APR” or something similar. For those creditors, the periodic rate expressed as an annualized rate could be labeled “annual percentage rate,” consistent with the requirement under § 1026.7(b)(4). If the two rates represent different values, creditors must label the rates differently to meet the clear and conspicuous standard under § 1026.5(a)(1).
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(8) Grace Period
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> Although the creditor is required to indicate any time period the consumer may have to pay the balance outstanding without incurring additional finance charges, no specific wording is required, so long as the language used is consistent with that used on the account-opening disclosure statement. For example, “To avoid additional finance charges, pay the new balance before ____” would suffice.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(9) Address for Notice of Billing Errors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> The periodic statement should indicate the general purpose for the address for billing-error inquiries, although a detailed explanation or particular wording is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Telephone number.</I> A telephone number, email address, or Web site location may be included, but the mailing address for billing-error inquiries, which is the required disclosure, must be clear and conspicuous. The address is deemed to be clear and conspicuous if a precautionary instruction is included that telephoning or notifying the creditor by email or Web site will not preserve the consumer's billing rights, unless the creditor has agreed to treat billing error notices provided by electronic means as written notices, in which case the precautionary instruction is required only for telephoning.
</P>
<HD3>7(a)(10) Closing Date of Billing Cycle; New Balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> See comment 7(a)(1)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the new balance may be disclosed for each feature or for the plan as a whole. If separate new balances are disclosed, a total new balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the new balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<HD3>7(b) Rules Affecting Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> Creditors offer a variety of payment plans for purchases that permit consumers to avoid interest charges if the purchase balance is paid in full by a certain date. “Deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 1026.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. The following provides guidance for a deferred interest or similar plan where, for example, no interest charge is imposed on a $500 purchase made in January if the $500 balance is paid by July 31.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Annual percentage rates.</I> Under § 1026.7(b)(4), creditors must disclose each annual percentage rate that may be used to compute the interest charge. Under some plans with a deferred interest or similar feature, if the deferred interest balance is not paid by a certain date, July 31 in this example, interest charges applicable to the billing cycles between the date of purchase in January and July 31 may be imposed. Annual percentage rates that may apply to the deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) if the balance is not paid in full by July 31 must appear on periodic statements for the billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31. However, if the consumer does not pay the deferred interest balance by July 31, the creditor is not required to identify, on the periodic statement disclosing the interest charge for the deferred interest balance, annual percentage rates that have been disclosed in previous billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Balances subject to periodic rates.</I> Under § 1026.7(b)(5), creditors must disclose the balances subject to interest during a billing cycle. The deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) is not subject to interest for billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31 in this example. Periodic statements sent for those billing cycles should not include the deferred interest balance in the balance disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(5). This amount must be separately disclosed on periodic statements and identified by a term other than the term used to identify the balance disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(5) (such as “deferred interest balance”). During any billing cycle in which an interest charge on the deferred interest balance is debited to the account, the balance disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(5) should include the deferred interest balance for that billing cycle.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Amount of interest charge.</I> Under § 1026.7(b)(6)(ii), creditors must disclose interest charges imposed during a billing cycle. For some deferred interest purchases, the creditor may impose interest from the date of purchase if the deferred interest balance ($500 in this example) is not paid in full by July 31 in this example, but otherwise will not impose interest for billing cycles between the date of purchase and July 31. Periodic statements for billing cycles preceding July 31 in this example should not include in the interest charge disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(6)(ii) the amounts a consumer may owe if the deferred interest balance is not paid in full by July 31. In this example, the February periodic statement should not identify as interest charges interest attributable to the $500 January purchase. This amount must be separately disclosed on periodic statements and identified by a term other than “interest charge” (such as “contingent interest charge” or “deferred interest charge”). The interest charge on a deferred interest balance should be reflected on the periodic statement under § 1026.7(b)(6)(ii) for the billing cycle in which the interest charge is debited to the account.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Due date to avoid obligation for finance charges under a deferred interest or similar program.</I> Section 1026.7(b)(14) requires disclosure on periodic statements of the date by which any outstanding balance subject to a deferred interest or similar program must be paid in full in order to avoid the obligation for finance charges on such balance. This disclosure must appear on the front of any page of each periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period beginning with the first periodic statement issued during the deferred interest period that reflects the deferred interest or similar transaction.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(1) Previous Balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances.</I> If the previous balance is a credit balance, it must be disclosed in such a way so as to inform the consumer that it is a credit balance, rather than a debit balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the previous balance may be disclosed either as an aggregate balance for the account or as separate balances for each feature (for example, a previous balance for purchases and a previous balance for cash advances). If separate balances are disclosed, a total previous balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some open-end credit plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the previous balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(2) Identification of Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> Creditors may, but are not required to, arrange transactions by feature (such as disclosing purchase transactions separately from cash advance transactions). Pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(6), however, creditors must group all fees and all interest separately from transactions and may not disclose any fees or interest charges with transactions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated teller machine (ATM) charges imposed by other institutions in shared or interchange systems.</I> A charge imposed on the cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system and included by the terminal-operating institution in the amount of the transaction need not be separately disclosed on the periodic statement.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(3) Credits
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification—sufficiency.</I> The creditor need not describe each credit by type (returned merchandise, rebate of finance charge, <I>etc.</I>)—“credit” would suffice—except if the creditor is using the periodic statement to satisfy the billing-error correction notice requirement. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.13(e) and (f).) Credits may be distinguished from transactions in any way that is clear and conspicuous, for example, by use of debit and credit columns or by use of plus signs and/or minus signs.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date.</I> If only one date is disclosed (that is, the crediting date as required by the regulation), no further identification of that date is necessary. More than one date may be disclosed for a single entry, as long as it is clear which date represents the date on which credit was given.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Totals.</I> A total of amounts credited during the billing cycle is not required.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(4) Periodic Rates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of periodic interest rates—whether or not actually applied.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.7(b)(4)(ii), any periodic interest rate that may be used to compute finance charges, expressed as and labeled “Annual Percentage Rate,” must be disclosed whether or not it is applied during the billing cycle. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer's account has both a purchase feature and a cash advance feature, the creditor must disclose the annual percentage rate for each, even if the consumer only makes purchases on the account during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. If the annual percentage rate varies (such as when it is tied to a particular index), the creditor must disclose each annual percentage rate in effect during the cycle for which the statement was issued.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of periodic interest rates required only if imposition possible.</I> With regard to the periodic interest rate disclosure (and its corresponding annual percentage rate), only rates that could have been imposed during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement need to be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor is changing annual percentage rates effective during the next billing cycle (either because it is changing terms or because of a variable-rate plan), the annual percentage rates required to be disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(4) are only those in effect during the billing cycle reflected on the periodic statement. For example, if the annual percentage rate applied during May was 18%, but the creditor will increase the rate to 21% effective June 1, 18% is the only required disclosure under § 1026.7(b)(4) for the periodic statement reflecting the May account activity.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer has an overdraft line that might later be expanded upon the consumer's request to include secured advances, the rates for the secured advance feature need not be given until such time as the consumer has requested and received access to the additional feature.
</P>
<P>iii. If annual percentage rates applicable to a particular type of transaction changed after a certain date and the old rate is only being applied to transactions that took place prior to that date, the creditor need not continue to disclose the old rate for those consumers that have no outstanding balances to which that rate could be applied.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple rates—same transaction.</I> If two or more periodic rates are applied to the same balance for the same type of transaction (for example, if the interest charge consists of a monthly periodic interest rate of 1.5% applied to the outstanding balance and a required credit life insurance component calculated at 0.1% per month on the same outstanding balance), creditors must disclose the periodic interest rate, expressed as an 18% annual percentage rate and the range of balances to which it is applicable. Costs attributable to the credit life insurance component must be disclosed as a fee under § 1026.7(b)(6)(iii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees.</I> Creditors that identify fees in accordance with § 1026.7(b)(6)(iii) need not identify the periodic rate at which a fee would accrue if the fee remains unpaid. For example, assume a fee is imposed for a late payment in the previous cycle and that the fee, unpaid, would be included in the purchases balance and accrue interest at the rate for purchases. The creditor need not separately disclose that the purchase rate applies to the portion of the purchases balance attributable to the unpaid fee.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Ranges of balances. See</I> comment 6(b)(4)(i)(B)-1. A creditor is not required to adjust the range of balances disclosure to reflect the balance below which only a minimum charge applies.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Deferred interest transactions. See</I> comment 7(b)-1.i.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(5) Balance on Which Finance Charge Computed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Split rates applied to balance ranges.</I> If split rates were applied to a balance because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, the creditor need not separately disclose the portions of the balance subject to such different rates since the range of balances to which the rates apply has been separately disclosed. For example, a creditor could disclose a balance of $700 for purchases even though a monthly periodic rate of 1.5% applied to the first $500, and a monthly periodic rate of 1% to the remainder. This option to disclose a combined balance does not apply when the interest charge is computed by applying the split rates to each day's balance (in contrast, for example, to applying the rates to the average daily balance). In that case, the balances must be disclosed using any of the options that are available if two or more daily rates are imposed. (<I>See</I> comment 7(b)(5)-4.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Monthly rate on average daily balance.</I> Creditors may apply a monthly periodic rate to an average daily balance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the creditor must disclose a separate balance (or balances, as applicable) to which a periodic rate was applied for each feature. Separate balances are not required, however, merely because a grace period is available for some features but not others. A total balance for the entire plan is optional. This does not affect how many balances the creditor must disclose—or may disclose—within each feature. (See, for example, comments 7(b)(5)-4 and 7(b)(4)-5.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Daily rate on daily balance.</I> If a finance charge is computed on the balance each day by application of one or more daily periodic interest rates, the balance on which the interest charge was computed may be disclosed in any of the following ways for each feature:
</P>
<P>i. If a single daily periodic interest rate is imposed, the balance to which it is applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. The sum of the daily balances during the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>D. The average daily balance during the billing cycle, in which case the creditor may, at its option, explain that the average daily balance is or can be multiplied by the number of days in the billing cycle and the periodic rate applied to the product to determine the amount of interest.
</P>
<P>ii. If two or more daily periodic interest rates may be imposed, the balances to which the rates are applicable may be stated as:
</P>
<P>A. A balance for each day in the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>B. A balance for each day in the billing cycle on which the balance in the account changes.
</P>
<P>C. Two or more average daily balances, each applicable to the daily periodic interest rates imposed for the time that those rates were in effect. The creditor may, at its option, explain that interest is or may be determined by (<I>1</I>) multiplying each of the average balances by the number of days in the billing cycle (or if the daily rate varied during the cycle, by multiplying by the number of days the applicable rate was in effect), (<I>2</I>) multiplying each of the results by the applicable daily periodic rate, and (<I>3</I>) adding these products together.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Information to compute balance.</I> In connection with disclosing the interest charge balance, the creditor need not give the consumer all of the information necessary to compute the balance if that information is not otherwise required to be disclosed. For example, if current purchases are included from the date they are posted to the account, the posting date need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Non-deduction of credits.</I> The creditor need not specifically identify the total dollar amount of credits not deducted in computing the finance charge balance. Disclosure of the amount of credits not deducted is accomplished by listing the credits (§ 1026.7(b)(3)) and indicating which credits will not be deducted in determining the balance (for example, “credits after the 15th of the month are not deducted in computing the interest charge.”).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Use of one balance computation method explanation when multiple balances disclosed.</I> Sometimes the creditor will disclose more than one balance to which a periodic rate was applied, even though each balance was computed using the same balance computation method. For example, if a plan involves purchases and cash advances that are subject to different rates, more than one balance must be disclosed, even though the same computation method is used for determining the balance for each feature. In these cases, one explanation or a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is sufficient. Sometimes the creditor separately discloses the portions of the balance that are subject to different rates because different portions of the balance fall within two or more balance ranges, even when a combined balance disclosure would be permitted under comment 7(b)(5)-1. In these cases, one explanation or a single identification of the name of the balance computation method is also sufficient (assuming, of course, that all portions of the balance were computed using the same method). In these cases, a creditor may use an appropriate name listed in § 1026.60(g) (e.g., “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>”) as the single identification of the name of the balance computation method applicable to all features, even though the name only refers to purchases. For example, if a creditor uses the average daily balance method including new transactions for all features, a creditor may use the name “<I>average daily balance (including new purchases)</I>” listed in § 1026.60(g)(i) to satisfy the requirement to disclose the name of the balance computation method for all features. As an alternative, in this situation, a creditor may revise the balance computation names listed in § 1026.60(g) to refer more broadly to all new credit transactions, such as using the language “new transactions” or “current transactions” (e.g., “<I>average daily balance (including new transactions)</I>”), rather than simply referring to new purchases, when the same method is used to calculate the balances for all features of the account.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Use of balance computation names in § 1026.60(g) for balances other than purchases.</I> The names of the balance computation methods listed in § 1026.60(g) describe balance computation methods for purchases. When a creditor is disclosing the name of the balance computation methods separately for each feature, in using the names listed in § 1026.60(g) to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(5) for features other than purchases, a creditor must revise the names listed in § 1026.60(g) to refer to the other features. For example, when disclosing the name of the balance computation method applicable to cash advances, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 1026.60(g)(i) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (including new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (including new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. Similarly, a creditor must revise the name listed in § 1026.60(g)(ii) to disclose it as “<I>average daily balance (excluding new cash advances)</I>” when the balance for cash advances is figured by adding the outstanding balance (excluding new cash advances and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. <I>See</I> comment 7(b)(5)-7 for guidance on the use of one balance computation method explanation or name when multiple balances are disclosed.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(6) Charges Imposed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of charges. See</I> commentary to § 1026.6(b)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees.</I> Costs attributable to periodic rates other than interest charges shall be disclosed as a fee. For example, if a consumer obtains credit life insurance that is calculated at 0.1% per month on an outstanding balance and a monthly interest rate of 1.5% applies to the same balance, the creditor must disclose the dollar cost attributable to interest as an “interest charge” and the credit insurance cost as a “fee.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total fees and interest charged for calendar year to date.</I> i. <I>Monthly statements.</I> Some creditors send monthly statements but the statement periods do not coincide with the calendar month. For creditors sending monthly statements, the following comply with the requirement to provide calendar year-to-date totals.
</P>
<P>A. A creditor may disclose calendar-year-to-date totals at the end of the calendar year by separately aggregating finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates and fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during January and finishing with the period that begins during December. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering December 10, 2011 through January 9, 2012, may disclose the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed from January 10, 2011, through January 9, 2012. Alternatively, the creditor could provide a statement for the cycle ending January 9, 2012, showing the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed January 1, 2011, through December 31, 2011.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor may disclose calendar-year-to-date totals at the end of the calendar year by separately aggregating finance charges attributable to periodic interest rates and fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during December and finishing with the period that begins during November. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering November 10, 2011 through December 9, 2011, may disclose the separate year-to-date totals for interest charged and fees imposed from December 10, 2010, through December 9, 2011.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Quarterly statements.</I> Creditors issuing quarterly statements may apply the guidance set forth for monthly statements to comply with the requirement to provide calendar year-to-date totals on quarterly statements.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Minimum charge in lieu of interest.</I> A minimum charge imposed if a charge would otherwise have been determined by applying a periodic rate to a balance except for the fact that such charge is smaller than the minimum must be disclosed as a fee. For example, assume a creditor imposes a minimum charge of $1.50 in lieu of interest if the calculated interest for a billing period is less than that minimum charge. If the interest calculated on a consumer's account for a particular billing period is 50 cents, the minimum charge of $1.50 would apply. In this case, the entire $1.50 would be disclosed as a fee; the periodic statement would reflect the $1.50 as a fee, and $0 in interest.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Adjustments to year-to-date totals.</I> In some cases, a creditor may provide a statement for the current period reflecting that fees or interest charges imposed during a previous period were waived or reversed and credited to the account. Creditors may, but are not required to, reflect the adjustment in the year-to-date totals, nor, if an adjustment is made, to provide an explanation about the reason for the adjustment. Such adjustments should not affect the total fees or interest charges imposed for the current statement period.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> An institution that acquires an account or plan must include, as applicable, fees and charges imposed on the account or plan prior to the acquisition in the aggregate disclosures provided under § 1026.7(b)(6) for the acquired account or plan. Alternatively, the institution may provide separate totals reflecting activity prior and subsequent to the account or plan acquisition. For example, a creditor that acquires an account or plan on August 12 of a given calendar year may provide one total for the period from January 1 to August 11 and a separate total for the period beginning on August 12.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Account upgrades.</I> A creditor that upgrades, or otherwise changes, a consumer's plan to a different open-end credit plan must include, as applicable, fees and charges imposed for that portion of the calendar year prior to the upgrade or change in the consumer's plan in the aggregate disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(6) for the new plan. For example, assume a consumer has incurred $125 in fees for the calendar year to date for a retail credit card account, which is then replaced by a cobranded credit card account also issued by the creditor. In this case, the creditor must reflect the $125 in fees incurred prior to the replacement of the retail credit card account in the calendar year-to-date totals provided for the cobranded credit card account. Alternatively, the institution may provide two separate totals reflecting activity prior and subsequent to the plan upgrade or change.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(7) Change-in-Terms and Increased Penalty Rate Summary for Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Location of summary tables.</I> If a change-in-terms notice required by § 1026.9(c)(2) is provided on or with a periodic statement, a tabular summary of key changes must appear on the front of the statement. Similarly, if a notice of a rate increase due to delinquency or default or as a penalty required by § 1026.9(g)(1) is provided on or with a periodic statement, information required to be provided about the increase, presented in a table, must appear on the front of the statement.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(8) Grace Period
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> In describing the grace period, the language used must be consistent with that used on the account-opening disclosure statement. (<I>See</I> § 1026.5(a)(2)(i).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Deferred interest transactions. See</I> comment 7(b)-1.iv.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Limitation on the imposition of finance charges in § 1026.54.</I> Section 1026.7(b)(8) does not require a card issuer to disclose the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 1026.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(9) Address for Notice of Billing Errors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terminology.</I> The periodic statement should indicate the general purpose for the address for billing-error inquiries, although a detailed explanation or particular wording is not required.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Telephone number.</I> A telephone number, email address, or Web site location may be included, but the mailing address for billing-error inquiries, which is the required disclosure, must be clear and conspicuous. The address is deemed to be clear and conspicuous if a precautionary instruction is included that telephoning or notifying the creditor by email or Web site will not preserve the consumer's billing rights, unless the creditor has agreed to treat billing error notices provided by electronic means as written notices, in which case the precautionary instruction is required only for telephoning.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(10) Closing Date of Billing Cycle; New Balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit balances. See</I> comment 7(b)(1)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multifeatured plans.</I> In a multifeatured plan, the new balance may be disclosed for each feature or for the plan as a whole. If separate new balances are disclosed, a total new balance is optional.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accrued finance charges allocated from payments.</I> Some plans provide that the amount of the finance charge that has accrued since the consumer's last payment is directly deducted from each new payment, rather than being separately added to each statement and therefore reflected as an increase in the obligation. In such a plan, the new balance need not reflect finance charges accrued since the last payment.


</P>
<HD3>7(b)(11) Due Date; Late Payment Costs
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Informal periods affecting late payments.</I> Although the terms of the account agreement may provide that a card issuer may assess a late payment fee if a payment is not received by a certain date, the card issuer may have an informal policy or practice that delays the assessment of the late payment fee for payments received a brief period of time after the date upon which a card issuer has the contractual right to impose the fee. A card issuer must disclose the due date according to the legal obligation between the parties, and need not consider the end of an informal “courtesy period” as the due date under § 1026.7(b)(11).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assessment of late payment fees.</I> Some State or other laws require that a certain number of days must elapse following a due date before a late payment fee may be imposed. In addition, a card issuer may be restricted by the terms of the account agreement from imposing a late payment fee until a payment is late for a certain number of days following a due date. For example, assume a payment is due on March 10 and the account agreement or State law provides that a late payment fee cannot be assessed before March 21. A card issuer must disclose the due date under the terms of the legal obligation (March 10 in this example), and not a date different than the due date, such as when the card issuer is restricted by the account agreement or State or other law from imposing a late payment fee unless a payment is late for a certain number of days following the due date (March 21 in this example). Consumers' rights under State law to avoid the imposition of late payment fees during a specified period following a due date are unaffected by the disclosure requirement. In this example, the card issuer would disclose March 10 as the due date for purposes of § 1026.7(b)(11), but could not, under State law, assess a late payment fee before March 21.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fee or rate triggered by multiple events.</I> If a late payment fee or penalty rate is triggered after multiple events, such as two late payments in six months, the card issuer may, but is not required to, disclose the late payment and penalty rate disclosure each month. The disclosures must be included on any periodic statement for which a late payment could trigger the late payment fee or penalty rate, such as after the consumer made one late payment in this example. For example, if a cardholder has already made one late payment, the disclosure must be on each statement for the following five billing cycles.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Range of late fees or penalty rates.</I> A card issuer that imposes a range of late payment fees or rates on a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan may state the highest fee or rate along with an indication lower fees or rates could be imposed. For example, a phrase indicating the late payment fee could be “up to $8” complies with this requirement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Penalty rate in effect.</I> If the highest penalty rate has previously been triggered on an account, the card issuer may, but is not required to, delete the amount of the penalty rate and the warning that the rate may be imposed for an untimely payment, as not applicable. Alternatively, the card issuer may, but is not required to, modify the language to indicate that the penalty rate has been increased due to previous late payments (if applicable).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Same day each month.</I> The requirement that the due date be the same day each month means that the due date must generally be the same numerical date. For example, a consumer's due date could be the 25th of every month. In contrast, a due date that is the same relative date but not numerical date each month, such as the third Tuesday of the month, generally would not comply with this requirement. However, a consumer's due date may be the last day of each month, even though that date will not be the same numerical date. For example, if a consumer's due date is the last day of each month, it will fall on February 28th (or February 29th in a leap year) and on August 31st.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Change in due date.</I> A creditor may adjust a consumer's due date from time to time provided that the new due date will be the same numerical date each month on an ongoing basis. For example, a creditor may choose to honor a consumer's request to change from a due date that is the 20th of each month to the 5th of each month, or may choose to change a consumer's due date from time to time for operational reasons. <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(4)-3 for guidance on transitional billing cycles.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Billing cycles longer than one month.</I> The requirement that the due date be the same day each month does not prohibit billing cycles that are two or three months, provided that the due date for each billing cycle is on the same numerical date of the month. For example, a creditor that establishes two-month billing cycles could send a consumer periodic statements disclosing due dates of January 25, March 25, and May 25.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Payment due date when the creditor does not accept or receive payments by mail.</I> If the due date in a given month falls on a day on which the creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail and the creditor is required to treat a payment received the next business day as timely pursuant to § 1026.10(d), the creditor must disclose the due date according to the legal obligation between the parties, not the date as of which the creditor is permitted to treat the payment as late. For example, assume that the consumer's due date is the 4th of every month, and the creditor does not accept or receive payments by mail on Thursday, July 4. Pursuant to § 1026.10(d), the creditor may not treat a mailed payment received on the following business day, Friday, July 5, as late for any purpose. The creditor must nonetheless disclose July 4 as the due date on the periodic statement and may not disclose a July 5 due date.










</P>
<HD3>7(b)(12) Repayment Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rounding.</I> In disclosing on the periodic statement the minimum payment total cost estimate, the estimated monthly payment for repayment in 36 months, the total cost estimate for repayment in 36 months, and the savings estimate for repayment in 36 months under § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) as applicable, a card issuer, at its option, must either round these disclosures to the nearest whole dollar or to the nearest cent. Nonetheless, an issuer's rounding for all of these disclosures must be consistent. An issuer may round all of these disclosures to the nearest whole dollar when disclosing them on the periodic statement, or may round all of these disclosures to the nearest cent. An issuer may not, however, round some of the disclosures to the nearest whole dollar, while rounding other disclosures to the nearest cent.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 7(b)(12)(i)(F)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed on the periodic statement is three years or less.</I> Section 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(F)(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) provides that a credit card issuer is not required to provide the disclosures related to repayment in 36 months if the minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed under § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B) after rounding is 3 years or less. For example, if the minimum payment repayment estimate is 2 years 6 months to 3 years 5 months, issuers would be required under § 1026.7(b)(12)(i)(B) to disclose that it would take 3 years to pay off the balance in full if making only the minimum payment. In these cases, an issuer would not be required to disclose the 36-month disclosures on the periodic statement because the minimum payment repayment estimate disclosed to the consumer on the periodic statement (after rounding) is 3 years or less.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(12)(iv) Provision of Information About Credit Counseling Services
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Approved organizations.</I> Section 1026.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) requires card issuers to provide information regarding at least three organizations that have been approved by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 111(a)(1) to provide credit counseling services in, at the card issuer's option, either the state in which the billing address for the account is located or the state specified by the consumer. A card issuer does not satisfy the requirements in § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) by providing information regarding providers that have been approved pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 111(a)(2) to offer personal financial management courses.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information regarding approved organizations.</I> i. <I>Provision of information obtained from United States Trustee or bankruptcy administrator.</I> A card issuer complies with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) if, through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii), it provides the consumer with information obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator, such as information obtained from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee. Section 1026.7(b)(12)(iv)(A) does not require a card issuer to provide information that is not available from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. If, for example, the Web site address for an organization approved by the United States Trustee is not available from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee, a card issuer is not required to provide a Web site address for that organization. However, § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv)(B) requires the card issuer to, at least annually, update the information it provides for consistency with the information provided by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Provision of information consistent with request of approved organization.</I> If requested by an approved organization, a card issuer may at its option provide, in addition to the name of the organization obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator, another name used by that organization through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii). In addition, if requested by an approved organization, a card issuer may at its option provide through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) a street address, telephone number, or Web site address for the organization that is different than the street address, telephone number, or Web site address obtained from the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. However, if requested by an approved organization, a card issuer must not provide information regarding that organization through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Information regarding approved organizations that provide credit counseling services in a language other than English.</I> A card issuer may at its option provide through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) information regarding approved organizations that provide credit counseling services in languages other than English. In the alternative, a card issuer may at its option state that such information is available from the Web site operated by the United States Trustee. Disclosing this Web site address does not by itself constitute a statement that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee for purposes of comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-2.iv.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Statements regarding approval by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator.</I> Section 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) does not require a card issuer to disclose through the toll-free number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12)(i) or (b)(12)(ii) that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator. However, if a card issuer chooses to make such a disclosure, § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) requires that the card issuer also disclose that:
</P>
<P>A. The United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator has determined that the organizations meet the minimum requirements for nonprofit pre-bankruptcy budget and credit counseling;
</P>
<P>B. The organizations may provide other credit counseling services that have not been reviewed by the United States Trustee or a bankruptcy administrator; and
</P>
<P>C. The United States Trustee or the bankruptcy administrator does not endorse or recommend any particular organization.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Automated response systems or devices.</I> At their option, card issuers may use toll-free telephone numbers that connect consumers to automated systems, such as an interactive voice response system, through which consumers may obtain the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) by inputting information using a touch-tone telephone or similar device.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> A card issuer may provide a toll-free telephone number that is designed to handle customer service calls generally, so long as the option to receive the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) is prominently disclosed to the consumer. For automated systems, the option to receive the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) is prominently disclosed to the consumer if it is listed as one of the options in the first menu of options given to the consumer, such as “Press or say ‘3’ if you would like information about credit counseling services.” If the automated system permits callers to select the language in which the call is conducted and in which information is provided, the menu to select the language may precede the menu with the option to receive information about accessing credit counseling services.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Third parties.</I> At their option, card issuers may use a third party to establish and maintain a toll-free telephone number for use by the issuer to provide the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Web site address.</I> When making the repayment disclosures on the periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(12), a card issuer at its option may also include a reference to a Web site address (in addition to the toll-free telephone number) where its customers may obtain the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv), so long as the information provided on the Web site complies with § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv). The Web site address disclosed must take consumers directly to the Web page where information about accessing credit counseling may be obtained. In the alternative, the card issuer may disclose the Web site address for the Web page operated by the United States Trustee where consumers may obtain information about approved credit counseling organizations. Disclosing this Web site address does not by itself constitute a statement that organizations have been approved by the United States Trustee for purposes of comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-2.iv.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Advertising or marketing information.</I> If a consumer requests information about credit counseling services, the card issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials to the consumer (except for providing the name of the issuer) prior to providing the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv). Educational materials that do not solicit business are not considered advertisements or marketing materials for this purpose. Examples:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> As described in comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-4, an issuer may provide a toll-free telephone number that is designed to handle customer service calls generally, so long as the option to receive the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv) through that toll-free telephone number is prominently disclosed to the consumer. Once the consumer selects the option to receive the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv), the issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials to the consumer (except for providing the name of the issuer) prior to providing the required information.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Web page.</I> If the issuer discloses a link to a Web site address as part of the disclosures pursuant to comment 7(b)(12)(iv)-6, the issuer may not provide advertisements or marketing materials (except for providing the name of the issuer) on the Web page accessed by the address prior to providing the information required by § 1026.7(b)(12)(iv).
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(12)(v) Exemptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Billing cycle where paying the minimum payment due for that billing cycle will pay the outstanding balance on the account for that billing cycle.</I> Under § 1026.7(b)(12)(v)(C), a card issuer is exempt from the repayment disclosure requirements set forth in § 1026.7(b)(12) for a particular billing cycle where paying the minimum payment due for that billing cycle will pay the outstanding balance on the account for that billing cycle. For example, if the entire outstanding balance on an account for a particular billing cycle is $20 and the minimum payment is $20, an issuer would not need to comply with the repayment disclosure requirements for that particular billing cycle. In addition, this exemption would apply to a charged-off account where payment of the entire account balance is due immediately.
</P>
<HD3>7(b)(13) Format Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Combined asset account and credit account statements.</I> Some financial institutions provide information about deposit account and open-end credit account activity on one periodic statement. For purposes of providing disclosures on the front of the first page of the periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(13), the first page of such a combined statement shall be the page on which credit transactions first appear. This guidance also applies to financial institutions that provide information about prepaid accounts and account activity in connection with covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61 on one periodic statement.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.8—Identifying Transactions on Periodic Statements
</HD2>
<HD3>8(a) Sale Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Sale credit.</I> The term “sale credit” refers to a purchase in which the consumer uses a credit card or otherwise directly accesses an open-end line of credit (see comment 8(b)-1 if access is by means of a check) to obtain goods or services from a merchant, whether or not the merchant is the card issuer or creditor. See comment 8(a)-9 for guidance on when credit accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card from a covered separate credit feature is “sale credit' or “nonsale credit.” “Sale credit” includes:
</P>
<P>i. The purchase of funds-transfer services (such as a wire transfer) from an intermediary.
</P>
<P>ii. The purchase of services from the card issuer or creditor. For the purchase of services that are costs imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3), card issuers and creditors comply with the requirements for identifying transactions under this section by disclosing the fees in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(6). For the purchases of services that are not costs imposed as part of the plan, card issuers and creditors may, at their option, identify transactions under this section or in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.7(b)(6).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount—transactions not billed in full.</I> If sale transactions are not billed in full on any single statement, but are billed periodically in precomputed installments, the first periodic statement reflecting the transaction must show either the full amount of the transaction together with the date the transaction actually took place; or the amount of the first installment that was debited to the account together with the date of the transaction or the date on which the first installment was debited to the account. In any event, subsequent periodic statements should reflect each installment due, together with either any other identifying information required by § 1026.8(a) (such as the seller's name and address in a three-party situation) or other appropriate identifying information relating the transaction to the first billing. The debiting date for the particular installment, or the date the transaction took place, may be used as the date of the transaction on these subsequent statements.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date—when a transaction takes place.</I> i. If the consumer conducts the transaction in person, the date of the transaction is the calendar date on which the consumer made the purchase or order, or secured the advance.
</P>
<P>ii. For transactions billed to the account on an ongoing basis (other than installments to pay a precomputed amount), the date of the transaction is the date on which the amount is debited to the account. This might include, for example, monthly insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>iii. For mail, Internet, or telephone orders, a creditor may disclose as the transaction date either the invoice date, the debiting date, or the date the order was placed by telephone or via the Internet.
</P>
<P>iv. In a foreign transaction, the debiting date may be considered the transaction date.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date—sufficiency of description.</I> i. If the creditor discloses only the date of the transaction, the creditor need not identify it as the “transaction date.” If the creditor discloses more than one date (for example, the transaction date and the posting date), the creditor must identify each.
</P>
<P>ii. The month and day sufficiently identify the transaction date, unless the posting of the transaction is delayed so long that the year is needed for a clear disclosure to the consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Same or related persons.</I> i. For purposes of identifying transactions, the term <I>same or related persons</I> refers to, for example:
</P>
<P>A. Franchised or licensed sellers of a creditor's product or service.
</P>
<P>B. Sellers who assign or sell open-end sales accounts to a creditor or arrange for such credit under a plan that allows the consumer to use the credit only in transactions with that seller.
</P>
<P>ii. A seller is not related to the creditor merely because the seller and the creditor have an agreement authorizing the seller to honor the creditor's credit card.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Brief identification—sufficiency of description.</I> The “brief identification” provision in § 1026.8(a)(1)(i) requires a designation that will enable the consumer to reconcile the periodic statement with the consumer's own records. In determining the sufficiency of the description, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. While item-by-item descriptions are not necessary, reasonable precision is required. For example, “merchandise,” “miscellaneous,” “second-hand goods,” or “promotional items” would not suffice.
</P>
<P>ii. A reference to a department in a sales establishment that accurately conveys the identification of the types of property or services available in the department is sufficient—for example, “jewelry,” or “sporting goods.”
</P>
<P>iii. A number or symbol that is related to an identification list printed elsewhere on the statement that reasonably identifies the transaction with the creditor is sufficient.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Seller's name—sufficiency of description.</I> The requirement contemplates that the seller's name will appear on the periodic statement in essentially the same form as it appears on transaction documents provided to the consumer at the time of the sale. The seller's name may also be disclosed as, for example:
</P>
<P>i. A more complete spelling of the name that was alphabetically abbreviated on the receipt or other credit document.
</P>
<P>ii. An alphabetical abbreviation of the name on the periodic statement even if the name appears in a more complete spelling on the receipt or other credit document. Terms that merely indicate the form of a business entity, such as “Inc.,” “Co.,” or “Ltd.,” may always be omitted.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Location of transaction.</I> i. If the seller has multiple stores or branches within a city, the creditor need not identify the specific branch at which the sale occurred.
</P>
<P>ii. When no meaningful address is available because the consumer did not make the purchase at any fixed location of the seller, the creditor may omit the address, or may provide some other identifying designation, such as “aboard plane,” “ABC Airways Flight,” “customer's home,” “telephone order,” “internet order” or “mail order.”
</P>
<P>9. <I>Covered separate credit feature accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> i. A transaction will be treated as a “sale credit” under § 1026.8(a) in cases where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant with credit from a covered separate credit feature and the credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature without transferring funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume that the consumer has $10 of funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account and initiates a transaction with a merchant to obtain goods or services with the hybrid prepaid-credit card for $25. In this case, $10 is debited from the asset feature, and $15 of credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card without any transfer of funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. The $15 credit transaction will be treated as “sale credit” under § 1026.8(a).
</P>
<P>ii. On the other hand, a transaction will be treated as “nonsale credit” for purposes of § 1026.8(b) in cases where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume the same facts as above, except that the $15 will be transferred from the credit feature to the asset feature, and a transaction of $25 is debited from the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, the $15 credit transaction is treated as “nonsale credit” under § 1026.8(b). <I>See</I> comment 8(b)-1.vi below.
</P>
<P>iii. If a transaction is “sale credit” as described above in comment 8(a)-9.i, the following applies:
</P>
<P>A. If a hybrid prepaid-credit card is used to obtain goods or services from a merchant and the transaction is partially paid with funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account, and partially paid with credit from a covered separate credit feature, the amount to be disclosed under § 1026.8(a) is the amount of the credit extension, not the total amount of the purchase transaction.
</P>
<P>B. For a transaction at point of sale where credit from a covered separate credit feature is accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, and that transaction partially involves the purchase of goods or services and partially involves other credit such as cash back given to the cardholder, the creditor must disclose the entire amount of the credit transaction as sale credit, including the part of the transaction that does not relate to the purchase of goods or services.
</P>
<P><I>8(b) Nonsale Credit</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Nonsale credit.</I> The term “nonsale credit” refers to any form of loan credit including, for example:
</P>
<P>i. A cash advance.
</P>
<P>ii. An advance on a credit plan that is accessed by overdrafts on an asset account other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>iii. The use of a “supplemental credit device” in the form of a check or draft or the use of the overdraft credit plan accessed by a debit card, even if such use is in connection with a purchase of goods or services.
</P>
<P>iv. Miscellaneous debits to remedy mispostings, returned checks, and similar entries.
</P>
<P>v. An advance at an ATM on a covered separate credit feature accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61. If a hybrid prepaid-credit card is used to obtain an advance at an ATM and the transaction is partially paid with funds from the asset feature of the prepaid account, and partially paid with a credit extension from the covered separate credit feature, the amount to be disclosed under § 1026.8(b) is the amount of the credit extension, not the total amount of the ATM transaction.
</P>
<P>vi. A transaction where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase, as described in comment 8(a)-9.ii. In this scenario, the amount to be disclosed under § 1026.8(b) is the amount of the credit extension, not the total amount of the purchase transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount—overdraft credit plans.</I> If credit is extended under an overdraft credit plan tied to an asset account other than a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 or by means of a debit card tied to an overdraft credit plan:
</P>
<P>i. The amount to be disclosed is that of the credit extension, not the face amount of the check or the total amount of the debit/credit transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor may disclose the amount of the credit extensions on a cumulative daily basis, rather than the amount attributable to each check or each use of the debit card that accesses the credit plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Date of transaction.</I> See comment 8(a)-4.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nonsale transaction—sufficiency of identification.</I> The creditor sufficiently identifies a nonsale transaction by describing the type of advance it represents, such as cash advance, loan, overdraft loan, or any readily understandable trade name for the credit program.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.9—Subsequent Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>9(a) Furnishing Statement of Billing Rights
</HD3>
<HD3>9(a)(1) Annual Statement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The creditor may provide the annual billing rights statement:
</P>
<P>i. By sending it in one billing period per year to each consumer that gets a periodic statement for that period; or
</P>
<P>ii. By sending a copy to all of its accountholders sometime during the calendar year but not necessarily all in one billing period (for example, sending the annual notice in connection with renewal cards or when imposing annual membership fees).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See the commentary to Model Forms G-3 and G-3(A) in appendix G to part 1026.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(2) Alternative Summary Statement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changing from long-form to short form statement and vice versa.</I> If the creditor has been sending the long-form annual statement, and subsequently decides to use the alternative summary statement, the first summary statement must be sent no later than 12 months after the last long-form statement was sent. Conversely, if the creditor wants to switch to the long-form, the first long-form statement must be sent no later than 12 months after the last summary statement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially similar.</I> See the commentary to Model Forms G-4 and G-4(A) in appendix G to part 1026.
</P>
<HD3>9(b) Disclosures for Supplemental Credit Access Devices and Additional Features
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit access device—examples. Credit access device</I> includes, for example, a blank check, payee-designated check, blank draft or order, or authorization form for issuance of a check; it does not include a check issued payable to a consumer representing loan proceeds or the disbursement of a cash advance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit account feature—examples.</I> A new credit account <I>feature</I> would include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The addition of overdraft checking to an existing account (although the regular checks that could trigger the overdraft feature are not themselves “devices”).
</P>
<P>ii. The option to use an existing credit card to secure cash advances, when previously the card could only be used for purchases.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Different finance charge terms.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.9(b)(3) for checks that access a credit card account, if the finance charge terms are different from those previously disclosed, the creditor may satisfy the requirement to give the finance charge terms either by giving a complete set of new account-opening disclosures reflecting the terms of the added device or feature or by giving only the finance charge disclosures for the added device or feature.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(3) Checks That Access a Credit Card Account
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(3)(i) Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Front of the page containing the checks.</I> The following would comply with the requirement that the tabular disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.9(b)(3) appear on the front of the page containing the checks:
</P>
<P>i. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of the first page on which checks appear, for an offer where checks are provided on multiple pages;
</P>
<P>ii. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of a mini-book or accordion booklet containing the checks; or
</P>
<P>iii. Providing the tabular disclosure on the front of the solicitation letter, when the checks are printed on the front of the same page as the solicitation letter even if the checks can be separated by the consumer from the solicitation letter using perforations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Combined disclosures for checks and other transactions subject to the same terms.</I> A card issuer may include in the tabular disclosure provided pursuant to § 1026.9(b)(3) disclosures regarding the terms offered on non-check transactions, provided that such transactions are subject to the same terms that are required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.9(b)(3)(i) for the checks that access a credit card account. However, a card issuer may not include in the table information regarding additional terms that are not required disclosures for checks that access a credit card account pursuant to § 1026.9(b)(3).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(3)(i)(D)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Grace period.</I> A creditor may not disclose under § 1026.9(b)(3)(i)(D) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 1026.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on transactions as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some creditors may offer a grace period on credit extended by the use of an access check under which interest will not be charged on the check transactions if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 1026.9(b)(3)(i)(D) requires that the creditor disclose the grace period using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on check transactions if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other creditors may offer a grace period on check transactions under which interest may be charged on check transactions even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 1026.9(b)(3)(i)(D) requires the creditor to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period. Creditors may use the following language to describe that no grace period on check transactions is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on these checks on the transaction date.”
</P>
<HD3>9(c) Change in Terms










</HD3>
<HD3>9(c)(1) Rules Affecting Home-Equity Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes initially disclosed.</I> No notice of a change in terms need be given if the specific change is set forth initially, such as: rate increases under a properly disclosed variable rate plan, a rate increase that occurs when an employee has been under a preferential rate agreement and terminates employment, or an increase that occurs when the consumer has been under an agreement to maintain a certain balance in a savings account in order to keep a particular rate and the account balance falls below the specified minimum. The rules in § 1026.40(f) relating to home-equity plans limit the ability of a creditor to change the terms of such plans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State law issues.</I> Examples of issues not addressed by § 1026.9(c) because they are controlled by state or other applicable law include:
</P>
<P>i. The types of changes a creditor may make. (<I>But see</I> § 1026.40(f).)
</P>
<P>ii. How changed terms affect existing balances, such as when a periodic rate is changed and the consumer does not pay off the entire existing balance before the new rate takes effect.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Change in billing cycle.</I> Whenever the creditor changes the consumer's billing cycle, it must give a change-in-terms notice if the change either affects any of the terms required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(a) or increases the minimum payment, unless an exception under § 1026.9(c)(1)(ii) applies; for example, the creditor must give advance notice if the creditor initially disclosed a 25-day grace period on purchases and the consumer will have fewer days during the billing cycle change.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing index for calculating a variable rate from LIBOR to the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans in specified circumstances.</I> If a creditor is replacing a LIBOR index with the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor is not changing the margin used to calculate the variable rate as a result of the replacement, and a periodic rate or the corresponding annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is unknown to the creditor at the time the change-in-terms notice is provided because the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans has not been published at the time the creditor provides the change-in-terms notice but will be published by the time the replacement of the index takes effect on the account, the creditor may comply with any requirement to disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new index), or a change in the periodic rate or the corresponding annual percentage rate (as calculated using the replacement index), based on the best information reasonably available, clearly stating that the disclosure is an estimate. For example, in this situation, the creditor may state that: (1) information about the rate is not yet available but that the creditor estimates that, at the time the index is replaced, the rate will be substantially similar to what it would be if the index did not have to be replaced; and (2) the rate will vary with the market based on a SOFR index. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I>


</P>
<HD3>9(c)(1)(i) Written Notice Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Affected consumers.</I> Change-in-terms notices need only go to those consumers who may be affected by the change. For example, a change in the periodic rate for check overdraft credit need not be disclosed to consumers who do not have that feature on their accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing—effective date of change.</I> The rule that the notice of the change in terms be provided at least 15 days before the change takes effect permits mid-cycle changes when there is clearly no retroactive effect, such as the imposition of a transaction fee. Any change in the balance computation method, in contrast, would need to be disclosed at least 15 days prior to the billing cycle in which the change is to be implemented.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing—advance notice not required.</I> Advance notice of 15 days is not necessary—that is, a notice of change in terms is required, but it may be mailed or delivered as late as the effective date of the change—in two circumstances:
</P>
<P>i. If there is an increased periodic rate or any other finance charge attributable to the consumer's delinquency or default.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer agrees to the particular change. This provision is intended for use in the unusual instance when a consumer substitutes collateral or when the creditor can advance additional credit only if a change relatively unique to that consumer is made, such as the consumer's providing additional security or paying an increased minimum payment amount. Therefore, the following are not “agreements” between the consumer and the creditor for purposes of § 1026.9(c)(1)(i): The consumer's general acceptance of the creditor's contract reservation of the right to change terms; the consumer's use of the account (which might imply acceptance of its terms under state law); and the consumer's acceptance of a unilateral term change that is not particular to that consumer, but rather is of general applicability to consumers with that type of account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Form of change-in-terms notice.</I> A complete new set of the initial disclosures containing the changed term complies with § 1026.9(c)(1)(i) if the change is highlighted in some way on the disclosure statement, or if the disclosure statement is accompanied by a letter or some other insert that indicates or draws attention to the term change.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Security interest change—form of notice.</I> A copy of the security agreement that describes the collateral securing the consumer's account may be used as the notice, when the term change is the addition of a security interest or the addition or substitution of collateral.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Changes to home-equity plans entered into on or after November 7, 1989.</I> Section 1026.9(c)(1) applies when, by written agreement under § 1026.40(f)(3)(iii), a creditor changes the terms of a home-equity plan—entered into on or after November 7, 1989—at or before its scheduled expiration, for example, by renewing a plan on terms different from those of the original plan. In disclosing the change:
</P>
<P>i. If the index is changed, the maximum annual percentage rate is increased (to the limited extent permitted by § 1026.30), or a variable-rate feature is added to a fixed-rate plan, the creditor must include the disclosures required by § 1026.40(d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi), unless these disclosures are unchanged from those given earlier.
</P>
<P>ii. If the minimum payment requirement is changed, the creditor must include the disclosures required by § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) (and, in variable-rate plans, the disclosures required by § 1026.40(d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi)) unless the disclosures given earlier contained representative examples covering the new minimum payment requirement. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii), (d)(12)(x) and (d)(12)(xi) for a discussion of representative examples.)
</P>
<P>iii. When the terms are changed pursuant to a written agreement as described in § 1026.40(f)(3)(iii), the advance-notice requirement does not apply.


</P>
<HD3>9(c)(1)(ii) Notice Not Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following are examples of changes that do not require a change-in-terms notice:
</P>
<P>i. A change in the consumer's credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. A change in the name of the credit card or credit card plan.
</P>
<P>iii. The substitution of one insurer for another.
</P>
<P>iv. A termination or suspension of credit privileges. (<I>But see</I> § 1026.40(f).)
</P>
<P>v. Changes arising merely by operation of law; for example, if the creditor's security interest in a consumer's car automatically extends to the proceeds when the consumer sells the car.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Skip features.</I> If a credit program allows consumers to skip or reduce one or more payments during the year, or involves temporary reductions in finance charges, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction or upon resumption of the higher rates or payments if these features are explained on the initial disclosure statement (including an explanation of the terms upon resumption). For example, a merchant may allow consumers to skip the December payment to encourage holiday shopping, or a teachers' credit union may not require payments during summer vacation. Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original schedule or rate, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The change-in-terms notice may be combined with the notice offering the reduction. For example, the periodic statement reflecting the reduction or skip feature may also be used to notify the consumer of the resumption of the original schedule or rate, either by stating explicitly when the higher payment or charges resume, or by indicating the duration of the skip option. Language such as “You may skip your October payment,” or “We will waive your finance charges for January,” may serve as the change-in-terms notice.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> The exception in § 1026.9(c)(1)(ii) under which a creditor is not required to provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1) when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge does not apply on or after October 1, 2022, to margin reductions when a LIBOR index is replaced, as permitted by § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B). For change-in-terms notices provided under § 1026.9(c)(1) on or after October 1, 2022, covering changes permitted by § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B), a creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1) disclosing the replacement index for a LIBOR index and any adjusted margin that is permitted under § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B), even if the margin is reduced. From April 1, 2022, through September 30, 2022, a creditor has the option of disclosing a reduced margin in the change-in-terms notice that discloses the replacement index for a LIBOR index as permitted by § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B).


</P>
<HD3>9(c)(1)(iii) Notice to Restrict Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written request for reinstatement.</I> If a creditor requires the request for reinstatement of credit privileges to be in writing, the notice under § 1026.9(c)(1)(iii) must state that fact.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice not required.</I> A creditor need not provide a notice under this paragraph if, pursuant to the commentary to § 1026.40(f)(2), a creditor freezes a line or reduces a credit line rather than terminating a plan and accelerating the balance.
</P>
<HD3>9(c)(2) Rules Affecting Open-End (Not Home-Secured) Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes initially disclosed.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.9(g)(1), no notice of a change in terms need be given if the specific change is set forth initially consistent with any applicable requirements, such as rate or fee increases upon expiration of a specific period of time that were disclosed in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or rate increases under a properly disclosed variable-rate plan in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(C). In contrast, notice must be given if the contract allows the creditor to increase a rate or fee at its discretion.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State law issues.</I> Some issues are not addressed by § 1026.9(c)(2) because they are controlled by state or other applicable laws. These issues include the types of changes a creditor may make, to the extent otherwise permitted by this part.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Change in billing cycle.</I> Whenever the creditor changes the consumer's billing cycle, it must give a change-in-terms notice if the change affects any of the terms described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(i), unless an exception under § 1026.9(c)(2)(v) applies; for example, the creditor must give advance notice if the creditor initially disclosed a 28-day grace period on purchases and the consumer will have fewer days during the billing cycle change. <I>See also</I> § 1026.7(b)(11)(i)(A) regarding the general requirement that the payment due date for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan must be the same day each month.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relationship to § 1026.9(b).</I> If a creditor adds a feature to the account on the type of terms otherwise required to be disclosed under § 1026.6, the creditor must satisfy: The requirement to provide the finance charge disclosures for the added feature under § 1026.9(b); and any applicable requirement to provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c), including any advance notice that must be provided. For example, if a creditor adds a balance transfer feature to an account more than 30 days after account-opening disclosures are provided, it must give the finance charge disclosures for the balance transfer feature under § 1026.9(b) as well as comply with the change-in-terms notice requirements under § 1026.9(c), including providing notice of the change at least 45 days prior to the effective date of the change. Similarly, if a creditor makes a balance transfer offer on finance charge terms that are higher than those previously disclosed for balance transfers, it would also generally be required to provide a change-in-terms notice at least 45 days in advance of the effective date of the change. A creditor may provide a single notice under § 1026.9(c) to satisfy the notice requirements of both paragraphs (b) and (c) of § 1026.9. For checks that access a credit card account subject to the disclosure requirements in § 1026.9(b)(3), a creditor is not subject to the notice requirements under § 1026.9(c) even if the applicable rate or fee is higher than those previously disclosed for such checks. Thus, for example, the creditor need not wait 45 days before applying the new rate or fee for transactions made using such checks, but the creditor must make the required disclosures on or with the checks in accordance with § 1026.9(b)(3).
</P>
<HD3>9(c)(2)(i) Changes Where Written Advance Notice is Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Affected consumers.</I> Change-in-terms notices need only go to those consumers who may be affected by the change. For example, a change in the periodic rate for check overdraft credit need not be disclosed to consumers who do not have that feature on their accounts. If a single credit account involves multiple consumers that may be affected by the change, the creditor should refer to § 1026.5(d) to determine the number of notices that must be given.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing—effective date of change.</I> The rule that the notice of the change in terms be provided at least 45 days before the change takes effect permits mid-cycle changes when there is clearly no retroactive effect, such as the imposition of a transaction fee. Any change in the balance computation method, in contrast, would need to be disclosed at least 45 days prior to the billing cycle in which the change is to be implemented.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes agreed to by the consumer. See also</I> comment 5(b)(1)(i)-6.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Form of change-in-terms notice.</I> Except if § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) applies, a complete new set of the initial disclosures containing the changed term complies with § 1026.9(c)(2)(i) if the change is highlighted on the disclosure statement, or if the disclosure statement is accompanied by a letter or some other insert that indicates or draws attention to the term being changed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Security interest change—form of notice.</I> A creditor must provide a description of any security interest it is acquiring under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv). A copy of the security agreement that describes the collateral securing the consumer's account may also be used as the notice, when the term change is the addition of a security interest or the addition or substitution of collateral.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples. See</I> comment 55(a)-1 and 55(b)-3 for examples of how a card issuer that is subject to § 1026.55 may comply with the timing requirements for notices required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(i).


</P>
<HD3>9(c)(2)(iii) Charges not Covered by § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> Generally, if a creditor increases any component of a charge, or introduces a new charge, that is imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) but is not required to be disclosed as part of the account-opening summary table under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2), the creditor must either, at its option (i) provide at least 45 days' written advance notice before the change becomes effective to comply with the requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(i), or (ii) provide notice orally or in writing, or electronically if the consumer requests the service electronically, of the amount of the charge to an affected consumer before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that a consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure. (<I>See</I> the commentary under § 1026.5(a)(1)(iii) regarding disclosure of such changes in electronic form.) For example, a fee for expedited delivery of a credit card is a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) but is not required to be disclosed in the account-opening summary table under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2). If a creditor changes the amount of that expedited delivery fee, the creditor may provide written advance notice of the change to affected consumers at least 45 days before the change becomes effective. Alternatively, the creditor may provide oral or written notice, or electronic notice if the consumer requests the service electronically, of the amount of the charge to an affected consumer before the consumer agrees to or becomes obligated to pay the charge, at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice the disclosure. (<I>See</I> comment 5(b)(1)(ii)-1 for examples of disclosures given at a time and in a manner that the consumer would be likely to notice them.)




</P>
<HD3>9(c)(2)(iv) Disclosure Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changing margin for calculating a variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a margin used to calculate a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new margin) in the table described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv), and include a reminder that the rate is a variable rate. For example, if a creditor is changing the margin for a variable rate that uses the prime rate as an index, the creditor must disclose in the table the new rate (as calculated using the new margin) and indicate that the rate varies with the market based on the prime rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changing index for calculating a variable rate.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> If a creditor is changing the index used to calculate a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new index) and indicate that the rate varies and how the rate is determined, as explained in § 1026.6(b)(2)(i)(A). For example, if a creditor is changing from using a LIBOR index to using a prime index in calculating a variable rate, the creditor would disclose in the table the new rate (using the new index) and indicate that the rate varies with the market based on a prime index.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Changing index for calculating a variable rate from LIBOR to the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans in specified circumstances.</I> If a creditor is replacing a LIBOR index with the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor is not changing the margin used to calculate the variable rate as a result of the replacement, and a periodic rate or the corresponding annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is unknown to the creditor at the time the change-in-terms notice is provided because the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans has not been published at the time the creditor provides the change-in-terms notice, but will be published by the time the replacement of the index takes effect on the account, the creditor may comply with any requirement to disclose the amount of the new rate (as calculated using the new index), or a change in the periodic rate or the corresponding annual percentage rate (as calculated using the replacement index), based on the best information reasonably available, clearly stating that the disclosure is an estimate. For example, in this situation, the creditor may state that: (1) information about the rate is not yet available but that the creditor estimates that, at the time the index is replaced, the rate will be substantially similar to what it would be if the index did not have to be replaced; and (2) the rate will vary with the market based on a SOFR index. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a rate applicable to a consumer's account from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, the creditor generally must provide a notice as otherwise required under § 1026.9(c) even if the variable rate at the time of the change is higher than the non-variable rate. However, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) if the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (c)(2)(v)(D) in connection with changing a variable rate to a lower nonvariable rate. Similarly, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) when changing a variable rate to a lower non-variable rate in order to comply with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation. Finally, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) when changing a variable rate to a lower non-variable rate in order to comply with § 1026.55(b)(4).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.</I> If a creditor is changing a rate applicable to a consumer's account from a non-variable rate to a variable rate, the creditor generally must provide a notice as otherwise required under § 1026.9(c) even if the non-variable rate is higher than the variable rate at the time of the change. However, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) if the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (c)(2)(v)(D) in connection with changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate. Similarly, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) when changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate in order to comply with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation. Finally, a creditor is not required to provide a notice under § 1026.9(c) when changing a non-variable rate to a lower variable rate in order to comply with § 1026.55(b)(4). <I>See</I> comment 55(b)(2)-4 regarding the limitations in § 1026.55(b)(2) on changing the rate that applies to a protected balance from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Changes in the penalty rate, the triggers for the penalty rate, or how long the penalty rate applies.</I> If a creditor is changing the amount of the penalty rate, the creditor must also redisclose the triggers for the penalty rate and the information about how long the penalty rate applies even if those terms are not changing. Likewise, if a creditor is changing the triggers for the penalty rate, the creditor must redisclose the amount of the penalty rate and information about how long the penalty rate applies. If a creditor is changing how long the penalty rate applies, the creditor must redisclose the amount of the penalty rate and the triggers for the penalty rate, even if they are not changing.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Changes in fees.</I> If a creditor is changing part of how a fee that is disclosed in a tabular format under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (2) is determined, the creditor must redisclose all relevant information related to that fee regardless of whether this other information is changing. For example, if a creditor currently charges a cash advance fee of “Either $5 or 3% of the transaction amount, whichever is greater (Max: $100),” and the creditor is only changing the minimum dollar amount from $5 to $10, the issuer must redisclose the other information related to how the fee is determined. For example, the creditor in this example would disclose the following: “Either $10 or 3% of the transaction amount, whichever is greater (Max: $100).”
</P>
<P>7. <I>Combining a notice described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) with a notice described in § 1026.9(g)(3).</I> If a creditor is required to provide a notice described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) and a notice described in § 1026.9(g)(3) to a consumer, the creditor may combine the two notices. This would occur if penalty pricing has been triggered, and other terms are changing on the consumer's account at the same time.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Content.</I> Sample G-20 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) when a variable rate is being changed to a non-variable rate on a credit card account. The sample explains when the new rate will apply to new transactions and to which balances the current rate will continue to apply. Sample G-21 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) when the late payment fee on a credit card account is being increased, and the returned payment fee is also being increased. The sample discloses the consumer's right to reject the changes in accordance with § 1026.9(h).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard. See</I> comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to disclosures required under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>10. <I>Terminology. See</I> § 1026.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to disclosures required under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>11. <I>Reasons for increase.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> Section 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(8) requires card issuers to disclose the principal reason(s) for increasing an annual percentage rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The regulation does not mandate a minimum number of reasons that must be disclosed. However, the specific reasons disclosed under § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>) are required to relate to and accurately describe the principal factors actually considered by the card issuer in increasing the rate. A card issuer may describe the reasons for the increase in general terms. For example, the notice of a rate increase triggered by a decrease of 100 points in a consumer's credit score may state that the increase is due to “a decline in your creditworthiness ” or “a decline in your credit score.” Similarly, a notice of a rate increase triggered by a 10% increase in the card issuer's cost of funds may be disclosed as “a change in market conditions.” In some circumstances, it may be appropriate for a card issuer to combine the disclosure of several reasons in one statement. However, § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>8</I>) requires that the notice specifically disclose any violation of the terms of the account on which the rate is being increased, such as a late payment or a returned payment, if such violation of the account terms is one of the four principal reasons for the rate increase.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that a consumer made a late payment on the credit card account on which the rate increase is being imposed, made a late payment on a credit card account with another card issuer, and the consumer's credit score decreased, in part due to such late payments. The card issuer may disclose the reasons for the rate increase as a decline in the consumer's credit score and the consumer's late payment on the account subject to the increase. Because the late payment on the credit card account with the other issuer also likely contributed to the decline in the consumer's credit score, it is not required to be separately disclosed. However, the late payment on the credit card account on which the rate increase is being imposed must be specifically disclosed even if that late payment also contributed to the decline in the consumer's credit score.


</P>
<HD3>9(c)(2)(v) Notice not Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes not requiring notice.</I> The following are examples of changes that do not require a change-in-terms notice:
</P>
<P>i. A change in the consumer's credit limit except as otherwise required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(vi).
</P>
<P>ii. A change in the name of the credit card or credit card plan.
</P>
<P>iii. The substitution of one insurer for another.
</P>
<P>iv. A termination or suspension of credit privileges.
</P>
<P>v. Changes arising merely by operation of law; for example, if the creditor's security interest in a consumer's car automatically extends to the proceeds when the consumer sells the car.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Skip features.</I> i. <I>Skipped or reduced payments.</I> If a credit program allows consumers to skip or reduce one or more payments during the year, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction in payments or upon resumption of the higher payments if these features are explained on the account-opening disclosure statement (including an explanation of the terms upon resumption). For example, a merchant may allow consumers to skip the December payment to encourage holiday shopping, or a teacher's credit union may not require payments during summer vacation. Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original payment schedule, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The change-in-terms notice may be combined with the notice offering the reduction. For example, the periodic statement reflecting the skip feature may also be used to notify the consumer of the resumption of the original payment schedule, either by stating explicitly when the higher resumes or by indicating the duration of the skip option. Language such as “You may skip your October payment” may serve as the change-in-terms notice.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Temporary reductions in interest rates or fees.</I> If a credit program involves temporary reductions in an interest rate or fee, no notice of the change in terms is required either prior to the reduction or upon resumption of the original rate or fee if these features are disclosed in advance in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B). Otherwise, the creditor must give notice prior to resuming the original rate or fee, even though no notice is required prior to the reduction. The notice provided prior to resuming the original rate or fee must comply with the timing requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(i) and the content and format requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(A), (B) (if applicable), (C) (if applicable), and (D). <I>See</I> comment 55(b)-3 for guidance regarding the application of § 1026.55 in these circumstances.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate. See</I> comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-3.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate. See</I> comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-4.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Temporary rate or fee reductions offered by telephone.</I> The timing requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) are deemed to have been met, and written disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) may be provided as soon as reasonably practicable after the first transaction subject to a rate that will be in effect for a specified period of time (a temporary rate) or the imposition of a fee that will be in effect for a specified period of time (a temporary fee) if:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer accepts the offer of the temporary rate or temporary fee by telephone;
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor permits the consumer to reject the temporary rate or temporary fee offer and have the rate or rates or fee that previously applied to the consumer's balances reinstated for 45 days after the creditor mails or delivers the written disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B), except that the creditor need not permit the consumer to reject a temporary rate or temporary fee offer if the rate or rates or fee that will apply following expiration of the temporary rate do not exceed the rate or rates or fee that applied immediately prior to commencement of the temporary rate or temporary fee; and
</P>
<P>iii. The disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and the consumer's right to reject the temporary rate or temporary fee offer and have the rate or rates or fee that previously applied to the consumer's account reinstated, if applicable, are disclosed to the consumer as part of the temporary rate or temporary fee offer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>First listing.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) are only required to be provided in close proximity and in equal prominence to the first listing of the temporary rate or fee in the disclosure provided to the consumer. For purposes of § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B), the first statement of the temporary rate or fee is the most prominent listing on the front side of the first page of the disclosure. If the temporary rate or fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of the disclosure, then the first listing of the temporary rate or fee is the most prominent listing of the temporary rate on the subsequent pages of the disclosure. For advertising requirements for promotional rates, see § 1026.16(g).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Close proximity—point of sale.</I> Creditors providing the disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) of this section in person in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services may, at the creditor's option, disclose the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after expiration of the period on a separate page or document from the temporary rate or fee and the length of the period, provided that the disclosure of the annual percentage rate or fee that would apply after the expiration of the period is equally prominent to, and is provided at the same time as, the disclosure of the temporary rate or fee and length of the period.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Disclosure of annual percentage rates.</I> If a rate disclosed pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) or (D) is a variable rate, the creditor must disclose the fact that the rate may vary and how the rate is determined. For example, a creditor could state “After October 1, 2009, your APR will be 14.99%. This APR will vary with the market based on the Prime Rate.”
</P>
<P>9. <I>Deferred interest or similar programs.</I> If the applicable conditions are met, the exception in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) applies to deferred interest or similar promotional programs under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. For purposes of this comment and § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B), “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 1026.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. For such programs, a creditor must disclose pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) the length of the deferred interest period and the rate that will apply to the balance subject to the deferred interest program if that balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the deferred interest period. Examples of language that a creditor may use to make the required disclosures under § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) include:
</P>
<P>i. “No interest if paid in full in 6 months. If the balance is not paid in full in 6 months, interest will be imposed from the date of purchase at a rate of 15.99%.”
</P>
<P>ii. “No interest if paid in full by December 31, 2010. If the balance is not paid in full by that date, interest will be imposed from the transaction date at a rate of 15%.”
</P>
<P>10. <I>Relationship between §§ 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and 1026.6(b).</I> A disclosure of the information described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) provided in the account-opening table in accordance with § 1026.6(b) complies with the requirements of § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>), if the listing of the introductory rate in such tabular disclosure also is the first listing as described in comment 9(c)(2)(v)-6.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Disclosure of the terms of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement.</I> In order for the exception in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D) to apply, the disclosure provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) must set forth:
</P>
<P>i. The annual percentage rate that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
</P>
<P>ii. The annual percentage rate that will apply to such balances if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of, the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
</P>
<P>iii. Any reduced fee or charge of a type required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), (viii), (ix), (xi), or (xii) that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, as well as the fee or charge that will apply if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement;
</P>
<P>iv. Any reduced minimum periodic payment that will apply to balances subject to the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, as well as the minimum periodic payment that will apply if the consumer completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement; and
</P>
<P>v. If applicable, that the consumer must make timely minimum payments in order to remain eligible for the workout or temporary hardship arrangement.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Index not under creditor's control. See</I> comment 55(b)(2)-2 for guidance on when an index is deemed to be under a creditor's control.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Temporary rates—relationship to § 1026.59.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.59 requires a card issuer to review rate increases imposed due to the revocation of a temporary rate. In some circumstances, § 1026.59 may require an issuer to reinstate a reduced temporary rate based on that review. If, based on a review required by § 1026.59, a creditor reinstates a temporary rate that had been revoked, the card issuer is not required to provide an additional notice to the consumer when the reinstated temporary rate expires, if the card issuer provided the disclosures required by § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) prior to the original commencement of the temporary rate. <I>See</I> § 1026.55 and the associated commentary for guidance on the permissibility and applicability of rate increases.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Example.</I> A consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on January 1, 2011. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 18%. The card issuer offers the consumer a 15% rate on purchases made between January 1, 2012 and January 1, 2014. Prior to January 1, 2012, the card issuer discloses, in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B), that the rate on purchases made during that period will increase to the standard 18% rate on January 1, 2014. In March 2012, the consumer makes a payment that is ten days late. The card issuer, upon providing 45 days' advance notice of the change under § 1026.9(g), increases the rate on new purchases to 18% effective as of June 1, 2012. On December 1, 2012, the issuer performs a review of the consumer's account in accordance with § 1026.59. Based on that review, the card issuer is required to reduce the rate to the original 15% temporary rate as of January 15, 2013. On January 1, 2014, the card issuer may increase the rate on purchases to 18%, as previously disclosed prior to January 1, 2012, without providing an additional notice to the consumer.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> The exception in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(A) under which a creditor is not required to provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) when the change involves a reduction of any component of a finance or other charge does not apply on or after October 1, 2022, to margin reductions when a LIBOR index is replaced as permitted by § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii). For change-in-terms notices provided under § 1026.9(c)(2) on or after October 1, 2022, covering changes permitted by § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii), a creditor must provide a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) disclosing the replacement index for a LIBOR index and any adjusted margin that is permitted under § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii), even if the margin is reduced. From April 1, 2022, through September 30, 2022, a creditor has the option of disclosing a reduced margin in the change-in-terms notice that discloses the replacement index for a LIBOR index as permitted by § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii).


</P>
<HD3>9(d) Finance Charge Imposed at Time of Transaction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure prior to imposition.</I> A person imposing a finance charge at the time of honoring a consumer's credit card must disclose the amount of the charge, or an explanation of how the charge will be determined, prior to its imposition. This must be disclosed before the consumer becomes obligated for property or services that may be paid for by use of a credit card. For example, disclosure must be given before the consumer has dinner at a restaurant, stays overnight at a hotel, or makes a deposit guaranteeing the purchase of property or services.
</P>
<HD3>9(e) Disclosures Upon Renewal of Credit or Charge Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This paragraph applies to credit and charge card accounts of the type subject to § 1026.60. (<I>See</I> § 1026.60(a)(5) and the accompanying commentary for discussion of the types of accounts subject to § 1026.60.) The disclosure requirements are triggered when a card issuer imposes any annual or other periodic fee on such an account or if the card issuer has changed or amended any term of a cardholder's account required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2) that has not previously been disclosed to the consumer, whether or not the card issuer originally was required to provide the application and solicitation disclosures described in § 1026.60.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form.</I> The disclosures under this paragraph must be clear and conspicuous, but need not appear in a tabular format or in a prominent location. The disclosures need not be in a form the cardholder can retain.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terms at renewal.</I> Renewal notices must reflect the terms actually in effect at the time of renewal. For example, a card issuer that offers a preferential annual percentage rate to employees during their employment must send a renewal notice to employees disclosing the lower rate actually charged to employees (although the card issuer also may show the rate charged to the general public).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Variable rate.</I> If the card issuer cannot determine the rate that will be in effect if the cardholder chooses to renew a variable-rate account, the card issuer may disclose the rate in effect at the time of mailing or delivery of the renewal notice. Alternatively, the card issuer may use the rate as of a specified date within the last 30 days before the disclosure is provided.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Renewals more frequent than annual.</I> If a renewal fee is billed more often than annually, the renewal notice should be provided each time the fee is billed. In this instance, the fee need not be disclosed as an annualized amount. Alternatively, the card issuer may provide the notice no less than once every 12 months if the notice explains the amount and frequency of the fee that will be billed during the time period covered by the disclosure, and also discloses the fee as an annualized amount. The notice under this alternative also must state the consequences of a cardholder's decision to terminate the account after the renewal-notice period has expired. For example, if a $2 fee is billed monthly but the notice is given annually, the notice must inform the cardholder that the monthly charge is $2, the annualized fee is $24, and $2 will be billed to the account each month for the coming year unless the cardholder notifies the card issuer. If the cardholder is obligated to pay an amount equal to the remaining unpaid monthly charges if the cardholder terminates the account during the coming year but after the first month, the notice must disclose the fact.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terminating credit availability.</I> Card issuers have some flexibility in determining the procedures for how and when an account may be terminated. However, the card issuer must clearly disclose the time by which the cardholder must act to terminate the account to avoid paying a renewal fee, if applicable. State and other applicable law govern whether the card issuer may impose requirements such as specifying that the cardholder's response be in writing or that the outstanding balance be repaid in full upon termination.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Timing of termination by cardholder.</I> When a card issuer provides notice under § 1026.9(e)(1), a cardholder must be given at least 30 days or one billing cycle, whichever is less, from the date the notice is mailed or delivered to make a decision whether to terminate an account.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Timing of notices.</I> A renewal notice is deemed to be provided when mailed or delivered. Similarly, notice of termination is deemed to be given when mailed or delivered.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Prompt reversal of renewal fee upon termination.</I> In a situation where a cardholder has provided timely notice of termination and a renewal fee has been billed to a cardholder's account, the card issuer must reverse or otherwise withdraw the fee promptly. Once a cardholder has terminated an account, no additional action by the cardholder may be required.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Disclosure of changes in terms required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.6(b)(1) and (b)(2).</I> Clear and conspicuous disclosure of a changed term on a periodic statement provided to a consumer prior to renewal of the consumer's account constitutes prior disclosure of that term for purposes of § 1026.9(e)(1). Card issuers should refer to § 1026.9(c)(2) for additional timing, content, and formatting requirements that apply to certain changes in terms under that paragraph.
</P>
<HD3>9(e)(2) Notification on Periodic Statements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Combined disclosures.</I> If a single disclosure is used to comply with both §§ 1026.9(e) and 1026.7, the periodic statement must comply with the rules in §§ 1026.60 and 1026.7. For example, a description substantially similar to the heading describing the grace period required by § 1026.60(b)(5) must be used and the name of the balance-calculation method must be identified (if listed in § 1026.60(g)) to comply with the requirements of § 1026.60. A card issuer may include some of the renewal disclosures on a periodic statement and others on a separate document so long as there is some reference indicating that the disclosures relate to one another. All renewal disclosures must be provided to a cardholder at the same time.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Preprinted notices on periodic statements.</I> A card issuer may preprint the required information on its periodic statements. A card issuer that does so, however, must make clear on the periodic statement when the preprinted renewal disclosures are applicable. For example, the card issuer could include a special notice (not preprinted) at the appropriate time that the renewal fee will be billed in the following billing cycle, or could show the renewal date as a regular (preprinted) entry on all periodic statements.
</P>
<HD3>9(f) Change in Credit Card Account Insurance Provider
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This paragraph applies to credit card accounts of the type subject to § 1026.60 if credit insurance (typically life, disability, and unemployment insurance) is offered on the outstanding balance of such an account. (Credit card accounts subject to § 1026.9(f) are the same as those subject to § 1026.9(e); <I>see</I> comment 9(e)-1.) Charge card accounts are not covered by this paragraph. In addition, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph apply only where the card issuer initiates the change in insurance provider. For example, if the card issuer's current insurance provider is merged into or acquired by another company, these disclosures would not be required. Disclosures also need not be given in cases where card issuers pay for credit insurance themselves and do not separately charge the cardholder.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No increase in rate or decrease in coverage.</I> The requirement to provide the disclosure arises when the card issuer changes the provider of insurance, even if there will be no increase in the premium rate charged to the consumer and no decrease in coverage under the insurance policy.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of notice.</I> If a substantial decrease in coverage will result from the change in provider, the card issuer either must explain the decrease or refer to an accompanying copy of the policy or group certificate for details of the new terms of coverage. (<I>See</I> the commentary to AppendixG-13 to part 1026.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Discontinuation of insurance.</I> In addition to stating that the cardholder may cancel the insurance, the card issuer may explain the effect the cancellation would have on the consumer's credit card plan.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Mailing by third party.</I> Although the card issuer is responsible for the disclosures, the insurance provider or another third party may furnish the disclosures on the card issuer's behalf.
</P>
<HD3>9(f)(3) Substantial Decrease in Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determination.</I> Whether a substantial decrease in coverage will result from the change in provider is determined by the two-part test in § 1026.9(f)(3): First, whether the decrease is in a significant term of coverage; and second, whether the decrease might reasonably be expected to affect a cardholder's decision to continue the insurance. If both conditions are met, the decrease must be disclosed in the notice.
</P>
<HD3>9(g) Increase in Rates Due to Delinquency or Default or as a Penalty
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between § 1026.9(c) and (g) and § 1026.55—examples.</I> Card issuers subject to § 1026.55 are prohibited from increasing the annual percentage rate for a category of transactions on any consumer credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). See comments 55(a)-1 and 55(b)-3 and the commentary to § 1026.55(b)(4) for examples that illustrate the relationship between the notice requirements of § 1026.9(c) and (g) and § 1026.55.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Affected consumers.</I> If a single credit account involves multiple consumers that may be affected by the change, the creditor should refer to § 1026.5(d) to determine the number of notices that must be given.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combining a notice described in § 1026.9(g)(3) with a notice described in § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv).</I> If a creditor is required to provide notices pursuant to both § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv) and (g)(3) to a consumer, the creditor may combine the two notices. This would occur when penalty pricing has been triggered, and other terms are changing on the consumer's account at the same time.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Content.</I> Sample G-22 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 1026.9(g)(3)(i) when the rate on a consumer's credit card account is being increased to a penalty rate as described in § 1026.9(g)(1)(ii), based on a late payment that is not more than 60 days late. Sample G-23 contains an example of how to comply with the requirements in § 1026.9(g)(3)(i) when the rate increase is triggered by a delinquency of more than 60 days.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to disclosures required under § 1026.9(g).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terminology.</I> See § 1026.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to disclosures required under § 1026.9(g).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Reasons for increase.</I> See comment 9(c)(2)(iv)-11 for guidance on disclosure of the reasons for a rate increase for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan.
</P>
<HD3>9(g)(4) Exception for Decrease in Credit Limit
</HD3>
<P>1. The following illustrates the requirements of § 1026.9(g)(4). Assume that a creditor decreased the credit limit applicable to a consumer's account and sent a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(g)(4) on January 1, stating among other things that the penalty rate would apply if the consumer's balance exceeded the new credit limit as of February 16. If the consumer's balance exceeded the credit limit on February 16, the creditor could impose the penalty rate on that date. However, a creditor could not apply the penalty rate if the consumer's balance did not exceed the new credit limit on February 16, even if the consumer's balance had exceeded the new credit limit on several dates between January 1 and February 15. If the consumer's balance did not exceed the new credit limit on February 16 but the consumer conducted a transaction on February 17 that caused the balance to exceed the new credit limit, the general rule in § 1026.9(g)(1)(ii) would apply and the creditor would be required to give an additional 45 days' notice prior to imposition of the penalty rate (but under these circumstances the consumer would have no ability to cure the over-the-limit balance in order to avoid penalty pricing).
</P>
<HD3>9(h) Consumer Rejection of Certain Significant Changes in Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Circumstances in which § 1026.9(h) does not apply.</I> Section 1026.9(h) applies when § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) requires disclosure of the consumer's right to reject a significant change to an account term. Thus, for example, § 1026.9(h) does not apply to changes to the terms of home equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 that are accessible by a credit or charge card because § 1026.9(c)(2) does not apply to such plans. Similarly, § 1026.9(h) does not apply in the following circumstances because § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require disclosure of the right to reject in those circumstances: (i) An increase in the required minimum periodic payment; (ii) a change in an annual percentage rate applicable to a consumer's account (such as changing the margin or index for calculating a variable rate, changing from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, or changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate); (iii) a change in the balance computation method necessary to comply with § 1026.54; and (iv) when the change results from the creditor not receiving the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
</P>
<HD3>9(h)(1) Right To Reject
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable requirements for submission of rejections.</I> A creditor may establish reasonable requirements for the submission of rejections pursuant to § 1026.9(h)(1). For example:
</P>
<P>i. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be made by the primary account holder and that the consumer identify the account number.
</P>
<P>ii. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be made only using the toll-free telephone number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.9(c). It would also be reasonable for a creditor to designate additional channels for the submission of rejections (such as an address for rejections submitted by mail) so long as the creditor does not require that rejections be submitted through such additional channels.
</P>
<P>iii. It would be reasonable for a creditor to require that rejections be received before the effective date disclosed pursuant to § 1026.9(c) and to treat the account as not subject to § 1026.9(h) if a rejection is received on or after that date. It would not, however, be reasonable to require that rejections be submitted earlier than the day before the effective date. If a creditor is unable to process all rejections received before the effective date, the creditor may delay implementation of the change in terms until all rejections have been processed. In the alternative, the creditor could implement the change on the effective date and then, on any account for which a timely rejection was received, reverse the change and remove or credit any interest charges or fees imposed as a result of the change. For example, if the effective date for a change in terms is June 15 and the creditor cannot process all rejections received by telephone on June 14 until June 16, the creditor may delay imposition of the change until June 17. Alternatively, the creditor could implement the change for all affected accounts on June 15 and then, once all rejections have been processed, return any account for which a timely rejection was received to the prior terms and ensure that the account is not assessed any additional interest or fees as a result of the change or that the account is credited for such interest or fees.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of account following provision of notice.</I> A consumer does not waive or forfeit the right to reject a significant change in terms by using the account for transactions prior to the effective date of the change. Similarly, a consumer does not revoke a rejection by using the account for transactions after the rejection is received.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(h)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Termination or suspension of credit availability.</I> Section 1026.9(h)(2)(ii) does not prohibit a creditor from terminating or suspending credit availability as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Solely as a result of rejection.</I> A creditor is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge or treating an account as in default solely as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms. For example, if credit availability is terminated or suspended as a result of the consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms, a creditor is prohibited from imposing a periodic fee that was not charged before the consumer rejected the change (such as a closed account fee). <I>See</I> also comment 55(d)-1. However, regardless of whether credit availability is terminated or suspended as a result of the consumer's rejection, a creditor is not prohibited from continuing to charge a periodic fee that was charged before the rejection. Similarly, a creditor that charged a fee for late payment before a change was rejected is not prohibited from charging that fee after rejection of the change.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(h)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relevant date for repayment methods.</I> Once a consumer has rejected a significant change in terms, § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii) prohibits the creditor from requiring repayment of the balance on the account using a method that is less beneficial to the consumer than one of the methods listed in § 1026.55(c)(2). When applying the methods listed in § 1026.55(c)(2) pursuant to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii), a creditor may utilize the date on which the creditor was notified of the rejection or a later date (such as the date on which the change would have gone into effect but for the rejection). For example, assume that on April 16 a creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the monthly maintenance fee for the account will increase effective June 1. The notice also states that the consumer may reject the increase by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before June 1 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On May 5, the consumer calls the toll-free number and exercises the right to reject. If the creditor chooses to establish a five-year amortization period for the balance on the account consistent with § 1026.55(c)(2)(ii), that period may begin no earlier than the date on which the creditor was notified of the rejection (May 5). However, the creditor may also begin the amortization period on the date on which the change would have gone into effect but for the rejection (June 1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Balance on the account.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> When applying the methods listed in § 1026.55(c)(2) pursuant to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii), the provisions in § 1026.55(c)(2) and the guidance in the commentary to § 1026.55(c)(2) regarding protected balances also apply to a balance on the account subject to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii). If a creditor terminates or suspends credit availability based on a consumer's rejection of a significant change in terms, the balance on the account that is subject to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii) is the balance at the end of the day on which credit availability is terminated or suspended. However, if a creditor does not terminate or suspend credit availability based on the consumer's rejection, the balance on the account subject to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii) is the balance at the end of the day on which the creditor was notified of the rejection or, at the creditor's option, a later date.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that on June 16 a creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the annual fee for the account will increase effective August 1. The notice also states that the consumer may reject the increase by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before August 1 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On July 20, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 and the consumer calls the toll-free number and exercises the right to reject. On July 22, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. If the creditor terminates credit availability on July 25 as a result of the rejection, the balance subject to the repayment limitations in § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii) is the $1,200 purchase balance at the end of the day on July 25. However, if the creditor does not terminate credit availability as a result of the rejection, the balance subject to the repayment limitations in § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii) is the $1,000 purchase balance at the end of the day on the date the creditor was notified of the rejection (July 20), although the creditor may, at its option, treat the $200 purchase as part of the balance subject to § 1026.9(h)(2)(iii).
</P>
<HD3>9(h)(3) Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1026.9(h)(3) provides that § 1026.9(h) does not apply when the creditor has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment. The following examples illustrate the application of this exception:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent before notice provided.</I> Assume that a credit card account is opened on January 1 of year one and that the payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month. On June 20 of year two, the creditor has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on April 15, May 15, and June 15. On June 20, the creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that a monthly maintenance fee of $10 will be charged beginning on August 4. However, § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require the creditor to notify the consumer of the right to reject because the creditor has not received the April 15 minimum payment within 60 days after the due date. Furthermore, the exception in § 1026.9(h)(3) applies and the consumer may not reject the fee.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent after rejection.</I> Assume that a credit card account is opened on January 1 of year one and that the payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month. On April 20 of year two, the creditor has not received the required minimum periodic payment due on April 15. On April 20, the creditor provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that an annual fee of $100 will be charged beginning on June 4. The notice further states that the consumer may reject the fee by calling a specified toll-free telephone number before June 4 but that, if the consumer does so, credit availability for the account will be terminated. On May 5, the consumer calls the toll-free telephone number and rejects the fee. Section 1026.9(h)(2)(i) prohibits the creditor from charging the $100 fee to the account. If, however, the creditor does not receive the minimum payments due on April 15 and May 15 by June 15, § 1026.9(h)(3) permits the creditor to charge the $100 fee. The creditor must provide a second notice of the fee pursuant to § 1026.9(c), but § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B) does not require the creditor to disclose the right to reject and § 1026.9(h)(3) does not allow the consumer to reject the fee. Similarly, the restrictions in § 1026.9(h)(2)(ii) and (iii) no longer apply.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.10—Payments
</HD2>
<HD3>10(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Crediting date.</I> Section 1026.10(a) does not require the creditor to post the payment to the consumer's account on a particular date; the creditor is only required to credit the payment <I>as of</I> the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date of receipt.</I> The “date of receipt” is the date that the payment instrument or other means of completing the payment reaches the creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Payment by check is received when the creditor gets it, not when the funds are collected.
</P>
<P>ii. In a payroll deduction plan in which funds are deposited to an asset account held by the creditor, and from which payments are made periodically to an open-end credit account, payment is received on the date when it is debited to the asset account (rather than on the date of the deposit), provided the payroll deduction method is voluntary and the consumer retains use of the funds until the contractual payment date. Section 1026.12(d)(3)(ii) defines “periodically” to mean no more frequently than once per calendar month for payments made periodically from a deposit account, including a prepaid account, held by a card issuer to pay credit card debt in a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 held by the card issuer. In a payroll deduction plan in which funds are deposited to a prepaid account held by the card issuer, and from which payments are made on a monthly basis to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card that is held by the card issuer, payment is received on the date when it is debited to the prepaid account (rather than on the date of the deposit), provided the payroll deduction method is voluntary and the consumer retains use of the funds until the contractual payment date.
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer elects to have payment made by a third party payor such as a financial institution, through a preauthorized payment or telephone bill-payment arrangement, payment is received when the creditor gets the third party payor's check or other transfer medium, such as an electronic fund transfer, as long as the payment meets the creditor's requirements as specified under § 1026.10(b).
</P>
<P>iv. Payment made via the creditor's Web site is received on the date on which the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment, even if the consumer gives the instruction authorizing that payment in advance of the date on which the creditor is authorized to effect the payment. If the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment immediately, but the consumer's instruction is received after 5 p.m. or any later cut-off time specified by the creditor, the date on which the consumer authorizes the creditor to effect the payment is deemed to be the next business day.
</P>
<HD3>10(b) Specific Requirements for Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payment by electronic fund transfer.</I> A creditor may be prohibited from specifying payment by preauthorized electronic fund transfer. See section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.10(e).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment methods promoted by creditor.</I> If a creditor promotes a specific payment method, any payments made via that method (prior to any cut-off time specified by the creditor, to the extent permitted by § 1026.10(b)(2)) are generally conforming payments for purposes of § 1026.10(b). For example:
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor promotes electronic payment via its Web site (such as by disclosing on the Web site itself that payments may be made via the Web site), any payments made via the creditor's Web site prior to the creditor's specified cut-off time, if any, would generally be conforming payments for purposes of § 1026.10(b).
</P>
<P>ii. If a creditor promotes payment by telephone (for example, by including the option to pay by telephone in a menu of options provided to consumers at a toll-free number disclosed on its periodic statement), payments made by telephone would generally be conforming payments for purposes of § 1026.10(b).
</P>
<P>iii. If a creditor promotes in-person payments, for example by stating in an advertisement that payments may be made in person at its branch locations, such in-person payments made at a branch or office of the creditor generally would be conforming payments for purposes of § 1026.10(b).
</P>
<P>iv. If a creditor promotes that payments may be made through an unaffiliated third party, such as by disclosing the Web site address of that third party on the periodic statement, payments made via that third party's Web site generally would be conforming payments for purposes of § 1026.10(b). In contrast, if a customer service representative of the creditor confirms to a consumer that payments may be made via an unaffiliated third party, but the creditor does not otherwise promote that method of payment, § 1026.10(b) permits the creditor to treat payments made via such third party as nonconforming payments in accordance with § 1026.10(b)(4).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Acceptance of nonconforming payments.</I> If the creditor accepts a nonconforming payment (for example, payment mailed to a branch office, when the creditor had specified that payment be sent to a different location), finance charges may accrue for the period between receipt and crediting of payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Implied guidelines for payments.</I> In the absence of specified requirements for making payments (see § 1026.10(b)):
</P>
<P>i. Payments may be made at any location where the creditor conducts business.
</P>
<P>ii. Payments may be made any time during the creditor's normal business hours.
</P>
<P>iii. Payment may be by cash, money order, draft, or other similar instrument in properly negotiable form, or by electronic fund transfer if the creditor and consumer have so agreed.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Payments made at point of sale.</I> If a card issuer that is a financial institution issues a credit card under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that can be used only for transactions with a particular merchant or merchants or a credit card that is cobranded with the name of a particular merchant or merchants, and a consumer is able to make a payment on that credit card account at a retail location maintained by such a merchant, that retail location is not considered to be a branch or office of the card issuer for purposes of § 1026.10(b)(3).
</P>
<P>6. <I>In-person payments on credit card accounts.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(b)(3), payments made in person at a branch or office of a financial institution include payments made with the direct assistance of, or to, a branch or office employee, for example a teller at a bank branch. A payment made at the bank branch without the direct assistance of a branch or office employee, for example a payment placed in a branch or office mail slot, is not a payment made in person for purposes of § 1026.10(b)(3).
</P>
<P>7. <I>In-person payments at affiliate of card issuer.</I> If an affiliate of a card issuer that is a financial institution shares a name with the card issuer, such as “ABC,” and accepts in-person payments on the card issuer's credit card accounts, those payments are subject to the requirements of § 1026.10(b)(3).
</P>
<HD3>10(d) Crediting of Payments When Creditor Does Not Receive or Accept Payments on Due Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> A day on which the creditor does not receive or accept payments by mail may occur, for example, if the U.S. Postal Service does not deliver mail on that date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Treating a payment as late for any purpose.</I> See comment 5(b)(2)(ii)-2 for guidance on treating a payment as late for any purpose. When an account is not eligible for a grace period, imposing a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate does not constitute treating a payment as late.
</P>
<HD3>10(e) Limitations on Fees Related to Method of Payment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(e), the term “separate fee” means a fee imposed on a consumer for making a payment to the consumer's account. A fee or other charge imposed if payment is made after the due date, such as a late fee or finance charge, is not a separate fee to allow consumers to make a payment for purposes of § 1026.10(e).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Expedited.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(e), the term “expedited” means crediting a payment the same day or, if the payment is received after any cut-off time established by the creditor, the next business day.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Service by a customer service representative.</I> Service by a customer service representative of a creditor means any payment made to the consumer's account with the assistance of a live representative or agent of the creditor, including those made in person, on the telephone, or by electronic means. A customer service representative does not include automated means of making payment that do not involve a live representative or agent of the creditor, such as a voice response unit or interactive voice response system. Service by a customer service representative includes any payment transaction which involves the assistance of a live representative or agent of the creditor, even if an automated system is required for a portion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(e), the term “creditor” includes a third party that collects, receives, or processes payments on behalf of a creditor. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a creditor uses a service provider to receive, collect, or process on the creditor's behalf payments made through the creditor's Web site or made through an automated telephone payment service. In these circumstances, the service provider would be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a consumer pays a fee to a money transfer or payment service in order to transmit a payment to the creditor on the consumer's behalf. In these circumstances, the money transfer or payment service would not be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a consumer has a checking account at a depository institution. The consumer makes a payment to the creditor from the checking account using a bill payment service provided by the depository institution. In these circumstances, the depository institution would not be considered a creditor for purposes of paragraph (e).
</P>
<HD3>10(f) Changes by Card Issuer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Address for receiving payment.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(f), “address for receiving payment” means a mailing address for receiving payment, such as a post office box, or the address of a branch or office at which payments on credit card accounts are accepted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Materiality.</I> For purposes of § 1026.10(f), a “material change” means any change in the address for receiving payment or procedures for handling cardholder payments which causes a material delay in the crediting of a payment. “Material delay” means any delay in crediting payment to a consumer's account which would result in a late payment and the imposition of a late fee or finance charge. A delay in crediting a payment which does not result in a late fee or finance charge would be immaterial.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Safe harbor.</I> i. <I>General.</I> A card issuer may elect not to impose a late fee or finance charge on a consumer's account for the 60-day period following a change in address for receiving payment or procedures for handling cardholder payments which could reasonably be expected to cause a material delay in crediting of a payment to the consumer's account. For purposes of § 1026.10(f), a late fee or finance charge is not imposed if the fee or charge is waived or removed, or an amount equal to the fee or charge is credited to the account.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Retail location.</I> For a material change in the address of a retail location or procedures for handling cardholder payments at a retail location, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge on a consumer's account for a late payment during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect. However, if a card issuer is notified by a consumer no later than 60 days after the card issuer transmitted the first periodic statement that reflects the late fee or finance charge for a late payment that the late payment was caused by such change, the card issuer must waive or remove any late fee or finance charge, or credit an amount equal to any late fee or finance charge, imposed on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> i. A card issuer changes the mailing address for receiving payments by mail from a five-digit postal zip code to a nine-digit postal zip code. A consumer mails a payment using the five-digit postal zip code. The change in mailing address is immaterial and it does not cause a delay. Therefore, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the account.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer changes the mailing address for receiving payments by mail from one post office box number to another post office box number. For a 60-day period following the change, the card issuer continues to use both post office box numbers for the collection of payments received by mail. The change in mailing address would not cause a material delay in crediting a payment because payments would be received and credited at both addresses. Therefore, a card issuer may impose a late fee or finance charge for a late payment on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect.
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as paragraph ii above, except the prior post office box number is no longer valid and mail sent to that address during the 60-day period following the change would be returned to sender. The change in mailing address is material and the change could cause a material delay in the crediting of a payment because a payment sent to the old address could be delayed past the due date. If, as a result, a consumer makes a late payment on the account during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect, a card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge for the late payment.
</P>
<P>iv. A card issuer permanently closes a local branch office at which payments are accepted on credit card accounts. The permanent closing of the local branch office is a material change in address for receiving payment. Relying on the safe harbor, the card issuer elects not to impose a late fee or finance charge for the 60-day period following the local branch closing for late payments on consumer accounts which the issuer reasonably determines are associated with the local branch and which could reasonably be expected to have been caused by the branch closing.
</P>
<P>v. A consumer has elected to make payments automatically to a credit card account, such as through a payroll deduction plan or a third party payor's preauthorized payment arrangement. A card issuer changes the procedures for handling such payments and as a result, a payment is delayed and not credited to the consumer's account before the due date. In these circumstances, a card issuer may not impose any late fee or finance charge during the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect for a late payment on the account.
</P>
<P>vi. A card issuer no longer accepts payments in person at a retail location as a conforming method of payment, which is a material change in the procedures for handling cardholder payment. In the 60-day period following the date on which the change took effect, a consumer attempts to make a payment in person at a retail location of a card issuer. As a result, the consumer makes a late payment and the issuer charges a late fee on the consumer's account. The consumer notifies the card issuer of the late fee for the late payment which was caused by the material change. In order to comply with § 1026.10(f), the card issuer must waive or remove the late fee or finance charge, or credit the consumer's account in an amount equal to the late fee or finance charge.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Finance charge due to periodic interest rate.</I> When an account is not eligible for a grace period, imposing a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate does not constitute imposition of a finance charge for a late payment for purposes of § 1026.10(f).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.11—Treatment of Credit Balances; Account Termination
</HD2>
<HD3>11(a) Credit Balances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing of refund.</I> The creditor may also fulfill its obligations under § 1026.11 by:
</P>
<P>i. Refunding any credit balance to the consumer immediately.
</P>
<P>ii. Refunding any credit balance prior to receiving a written request (under § 1026.11(a)(2)) from the consumer.
</P>
<P>iii. Refunding any credit balance upon the consumer's oral or electronic request.
</P>
<P>iv. Making a good faith effort to refund any credit balance before 6 months have passed. If that attempt is unsuccessful, the creditor need not try again to refund the credit balance at the end of the 6-month period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount of refund.</I> The phrases <I>any part of the remaining credit balance</I> in § 1026.11(a)(2) and <I>any part of the credit balance remaining in the account</I> in § 1026.11(a)(3) mean the amount of the credit balance at the time the creditor is required to make the refund. The creditor may take into consideration intervening purchases or other debits to the consumer's account (including those that have not yet been reflected on a periodic statement) that decrease or eliminate the credit balance.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written requests—standing orders.</I> The creditor is not required to honor standing orders requesting refunds of any credit balance that may be created on the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Good faith effort to refund.</I> The creditor must take positive steps to return any credit balance that has remained in the account for over 6 months. This includes, if necessary, attempts to trace the consumer through the consumer's last known address or telephone number, or both.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Good faith effort unsuccessful.</I> Section 1026.11 imposes no further duties on the creditor if a good faith effort to return the balance is unsuccessful. The ultimate disposition of the credit balance (or any credit balance of $1 or less) is to be determined under other applicable law.
</P>
<HD3>11(b) Account Termination
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 11(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Expiration date.</I> The credit agreement determines whether or not an open-end plan has a stated expiration (maturity) date. Creditors that offer accounts with no stated expiration date are prohibited from terminating those accounts solely because a consumer does not incur a finance charge, even if credit cards or other access devices associated with the account expire after a stated period. Creditors may still terminate such accounts for inactivity consistent with § 1026.11(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>11(c) Timely Settlement of Estate Debts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Administrator of an estate.</I> For purposes of § 1026.11(c), the term “administrator” means an administrator, executor, or any personal representative of an estate who is authorized to act on behalf of the estate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of reasonable procedures that satisfy this rule:
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer may decline future transactions and terminate the account upon receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer may credit the account for fees and charges imposed after the date of receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>iii. A card issuer may waive the estate's liability for all charges made to the account after receiving reasonable notice of the consumer's death.
</P>
<P>iv. A card issuer may authorize an agent to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>v. A card issuer may require administrators of an estate to provide documentation indicating authority to act on behalf of the estate.
</P>
<P>vi. A card issuer may establish or designate a department, business unit, or communication channel for administrators, such as a specific mailing address or toll-free number, to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>vii. A card issuer may direct administrators, who call a general customer service toll-free number or who send correspondence by mail to an address for general correspondence, to an appropriate customer service representative, department, business unit, or communication channel to handle matters in accordance with the requirements of this rule.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Request by an administrator of an estate.</I> A card issuer may receive a request for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account in writing or by telephone call from the administrator of an estate. If a request is made in writing, such as by mail, the request is received on the date the card issuer receives the correspondence.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timely statement of balance.</I> A card issuer must disclose the balance on a deceased consumer's account, upon request by the administrator of the decedent's estate. A card issuer may provide the amount, if any, by a written statement or by telephone. This does not preclude a card issuer from providing the balance amount to appropriate persons, other than the administrator, such as the spouse or a relative of the decedent, who indicate that they may pay any balance. This provision does not relieve card issuers of the requirements to provide a periodic statement, under § 1026.5(b)(2). A periodic statement, under § 1026.5(b)(2), may satisfy the requirements of § 1026.11(c)(2), if provided within 30 days of receiving a request by an administrator of the estate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Imposition of fees and interest charges.</I> Section 1026.11(c)(3) does not prohibit a card issuer from imposing fees and finance charges due to a periodic interest rate based on balances for days that precede the date on which the card issuer receives a request pursuant to § 1026.11(c)(2). For example, if the last day of the billing cycle is June 30 and the card issuer receives a request pursuant to § 1026.11(c)(2) on June 25, the card issuer may charge interest that accrued prior to June 25.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Example.</I> A card issuer receives a request from an administrator for the amount of the balance on a deceased consumer's account on March 1. The card issuer discloses to the administrator on March 25 that the balance is $1,000. If the card issuer receives payment in full of the $1,000 on April 24, the card issuer must waive or rebate any additional interest that accrued on the $1,000 balance between March 25 and April 24. If the card issuer receives a payment of $1,000 on April 25, the card issuer is not required to waive or rebate interest charges on the $1,000 balance in respect of the period between March 25 and April 25. If the card issuer receives a partial payment of $500 on April 24, the card issuer is not required to waive or rebate interest charges on the $1,000 balance in respect of the period between March 25 and April 25.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Application to joint accounts.</I> A card issuer may impose fees and charges on an account of a deceased consumer if a joint accountholder remains on the account. If only an authorized user remains on the account of a deceased consumer, however, then a card issuer may not impose fees and charges.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.12—Special Credit Card Provisions
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Sections 1026.12(a) and (b) deal with the issuance and liability rules for credit cards, whether the card is intended for consumer, business, or any other purposes. Sections 1026.12(a) and (b) are exceptions to the general rule that the regulation applies only to consumer credit. (See §§ 1026.1 and 1026.3.) Notwithstanding paragraph (g) of this section or Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.12(a), paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section apply to hybrid debit-credit cards as defined in § 1026.62.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definition of “accepted credit card”.</I> For purposes of this section, “accepted credit card” means any credit card that a cardholder has requested or applied for and received, or has signed, used, or authorized another person to use to obtain credit. Any credit card issued as a renewal or substitute in accordance with § 1026.12(a) becomes an accepted credit card when received by the cardholder.


</P>
<HD2>12(a) Issuance of Credit Cards
</HD2>
<HD2>Paragraph 12(a)(1)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Explicit request.</I> A request or application for a card must be explicit. For example, a request for an overdraft plan tied to a checking account does not constitute an application for a credit card with overdraft checking features. Therefore, a very large financial institution cannot issue a hybrid debit-credit card to a person without first receiving an oral or written request or application for the hybrid debit-credit card. The term hybrid debit-credit card has the same meaning as provided in § 1026.62.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Addition of credit features.</I> If the consumer has a non-credit card, including a prepaid card, the addition of a credit feature or plan to the card that would make the card into a credit card under § 1026.2(a)(15)(i) constitutes issuance of a credit card. For example, the following constitute issuance of a credit card:
</P>
<P>i. Granting overdraft privileges on a checking account when the consumer already has a check guarantee card; or
</P>
<P>ii. Allowing a prepaid card to access a covered separate credit feature that would make the card into a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 with respect to the covered separate credit feature.
</P>
<P>iii. Extending covered overdraft credit through a hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variance of card from request.</I> The request or application need not correspond exactly to the card that is issued. For example:
</P>
<P>i. The name of the card requested may be different when issued.
</P>
<P>ii. The card may have features in addition to those reflected in the request or application.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Permissible form of request.</I> The request or application may be oral (in response to a telephone solicitation by a card issuer, for example) or written.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Time of issuance.</I> A credit card may be issued in response to a request made before any cards are ready for issuance (for example, if a new program is established), even if there is some delay in issuance.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Persons to whom cards may be issued.</I> A card issuer may issue a credit card to the person who requests it, and to anyone else for whom that person requests a card and who will be an authorized user on the requester's account. In other words, cards may be sent to consumer A on A's request, and also (on A's request) to consumers B and C, who will be authorized users on A's account. In these circumstances, the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. The additional cards may be imprinted in either A's name or in the names of B and C.
</P>
<P>ii. No liability for unauthorized use (by persons other than B and C), not even the $50, may be imposed on B or C since they are merely users and not cardholders as that term is defined in § 1026.2 and used in § 1026.12(b); of course, liability of up to $50 for unauthorized use of B's and C's cards may be imposed on A.
</P>
<P>iii. Whether B and C may be held liable for their own use, or on the account generally, is a matter of state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Issuance of non-credit cards.</I> i. <I>Issuance of non-credit cards other than prepaid cards.</I> A. Under § 1026.12(a)(1), a credit card cannot be issued except in response to a request or an application. (See comment 2(a)(15)-2 for examples of cards or devices that are and are not credit cards.) A non-credit card other than a prepaid card may be sent on an unsolicited basis by an issuer that does not propose to connect the card to any credit plan; a credit feature may be added to a previously issued non-credit card other than a prepaid card only upon the consumer's specific request.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Examples.</I> A purchase-price discount card may be sent on an unsolicited basis by an issuer that does not propose to connect the card to any credit plan. An issuer demonstrates that it proposes to connect the card to a credit plan by, for example, including promotional materials about credit features or account agreements and disclosures required by § 1026.6. The issuer will violate the rule against unsolicited issuance if, for example, at the time the card is sent a credit plan can be accessed by the card or the recipient of the unsolicited card has been preapproved for credit that the recipient can access by contacting the issuer and activating the card.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Issuance of a prepaid card.</I> Section 1026.12(a)(1) does not apply to the issuance of a prepaid card where an issuer does not connect the card to any covered separate credit feature that would make the prepaid card into a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 at the time the card is issued and only opens a covered separate credit feature, or provides an application or solicitation to open a covered separate credit feature, or allows an existing credit feature to become a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 in compliance with § 1026.61(c). A covered separate credit feature may be added to a previously issued prepaid card only upon the consumer's application or specific request and only in compliance with § 1026.61(c). An issuer does not connect a prepaid card to a covered separate credit feature that would make the card into a credit card simply by providing the disclosures required by Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.18(b)(2)(x), (b)(4)(iv), and (vii), with the prepaid card. See § 1026.12(a)(2) and related commentary for when a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 may be issued as a replacement or substitution for another hybrid prepaid-credit card. See also Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.5 and 1005.18(a), and related commentary, governing issuance of access devices under Regulation E.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Unsolicited issuance of PINs.</I> A card issuer may issue personal identification numbers (PINs) to existing credit cardholders without a specific request from the cardholders, provided the PINs cannot be used alone to obtain credit. For example, the PINs may be necessary if consumers wish to use their existing credit cards at automated teller machines or at merchant locations with point of sale terminals that require PINs.
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 12(a)(2)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Renewal.</I> Renewal generally contemplates the regular replacement of existing cards because of, for example, security reasons or new technology or systems. It also includes the re-issuance of cards that have been suspended temporarily, but does not include the opening of a new account after a previous account was closed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substitution—examples.</I> Substitution encompasses the replacement of one card with another because the underlying account relationship has changed in some way—such as when the card issuer has:
</P>
<P>i. Changed its name.
</P>
<P>ii. Changed the name of the card.
</P>
<P>iii. Changed the credit or other features available on the account. For example, the original card could be used to make purchases and obtain cash advances at teller windows. The substitute card might be usable, in addition, for obtaining cash advances through automated teller machines. (If the substitute card constitutes an access device, as defined in Regulation E, then the Regulation E issuance rules would have to be followed.) The substitution of one card with another on an unsolicited basis is not permissible, however, where in conjunction with the substitution an additional credit card account is opened and the consumer is able to make new purchases or advances under both the original and the new account with the new card. For example, if a retail card issuer replaces its credit card with a combined retailer/bank card, each of the creditors maintains a separate account, and both accounts can be accessed for new transactions by use of the new credit card, the card cannot be provided to a consumer without solicitation.
</P>
<P>iv. Substituted a card user's name on the substitute card for the cardholder's name appearing on the original card.
</P>
<P>v. Changed the merchant base, provided that the new card is honored by at least one of the persons that honored the original card. However, unless the change in the merchant base is the addition of an affiliate of the existing merchant base, the substitution of a new card for another on an unsolicited basis is not permissible where the account is inactive. A credit card cannot be issued in these circumstances without a request or application. For purposes of § 1026.12(a), an account is inactive if no credit has been extended and if the account has no outstanding balance for the prior 24 months. (See § 1026.11(b)(2)).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substitution—successor card issuer.</I> Substitution also occurs when a successor card issuer replaces the original card issuer (for example, when a new card issuer purchases the accounts of the original issuer and issues its own card to replace the original one). A permissible substitution exists even if the original issuer retains the existing receivables and the new card issuer acquires the right only to future receivables, provided use of the original card is cut off when use of the new card becomes possible.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Substitution—non-credit-card plan.</I> A credit card that replaces a retailer's open-end credit plan not involving a credit card is not considered a substitute for the retailer's plan—even if the consumer used the retailer's plan. A credit card cannot be issued in these circumstances without a request or application.
</P>
<P>5. <I>One-for-one rule.</I> An accepted card may be replaced by no more than one renewal or substitute card. For example, the card issuer may not replace a credit card permitting purchases and cash advances with two cards, one for the purchases and another for the cash advances.
</P>
<P>6. <I>One-for-one rule—exceptions.</I> The regulation does not prohibit the card issuer from:
</P>
<P>i. Replacing a single card that is both a debit card and a credit card, such as a hybrid debit-credit card as defined in § 1026.62, with a credit card and a separate debit card with only debit functions (or debit functions plus an associated capability to extend overdraft credit that is not covered overdraft credit as defined in § 1026.62), since the latter card could be issued on an unsolicited basis under Regulation E.
</P>
<P>ii. Replacing a single card that is both a prepaid card and a credit card with a credit card and a separate prepaid card where the latter card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>iii. Replacing an accepted card with more than one renewal or substitute card, provided that:
</P>
<P>A. No replacement card accesses any account not accessed by the accepted card;
</P>
<P>B. For terms and conditions required to be disclosed under § 1026.6, all replacement cards are issued subject to the same terms and conditions, except that a creditor may vary terms for which no change in terms notice is required under § 1026.9(c); and
</P>
<P>C. Under the account's terms the consumer's total liability for unauthorized use with respect to the account does not increase.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Methods of terminating replaced card.</I> The card issuer need not physically retrieve the original card, provided the old card is voided in some way, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The issuer includes with the new card a notification that the existing card is no longer valid and should be destroyed immediately.
</P>
<P>ii. The original card contained an expiration date.
</P>
<P>iii. The card issuer, in order to preclude use of the card, reprograms computers or issues instructions to authorization centers.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Incomplete replacement.</I> If a consumer has duplicate credit cards on the same account (Card A—one type of bank credit card, for example), the card issuer may not replace the duplicate cards with one Card A and one Card B (Card B—another type of bank credit card) unless the consumer requests Card B.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Multiple entities.</I> Where multiple entities share responsibilities with respect to a credit card issued by one of them, the entity that issued the card may replace it on an unsolicited basis, if that entity terminates the original card by voiding it in some way, as described in comment 12(a)(2)-7. The other entity or entities may not issue a card on an unsolicited basis in these circumstances.
















</P>
<HD3>12(b) Liability of Cardholder for Unauthorized Use
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of cardholder.</I> For purposes of this provision, cardholder includes any person (including organizations) to whom a credit card is issued for any purpose, including business. When a corporation is the cardholder, required disclosures should be provided to the corporation (as opposed to an employee user).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Imposing liability.</I> A card issuer is not required to impose liability on a cardholder for the unauthorized use of a credit card; if the card issuer does not seek to impose liability, the issuer need not conduct any investigation of the cardholder's claim.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reasonable investigation.</I> If a card issuer seeks to impose liability when a claim of unauthorized use is made by a cardholder, the card issuer must conduct a reasonable investigation of the claim. In conducting its investigation, the card issuer may reasonably request the cardholder's cooperation. The card issuer may not automatically deny a claim based solely on the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request, including providing an affidavit or filing a police report; however, if the card issuer otherwise has no knowledge of facts confirming the unauthorized use, the lack of information resulting from the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the card issuer reasonably to terminate the investigation. The procedures involved in investigating claims may differ, but actions such as the following represent steps that a card issuer may take, as appropriate, in conducting a reasonable investigation:
</P>
<P>i. Reviewing the types or amounts of purchases made in relation to the cardholder's previous purchasing pattern.
</P>
<P>ii. Reviewing where the purchases were delivered in relation to the cardholder's residence or place of business.
</P>
<P>iii. Reviewing where the purchases were made in relation to where the cardholder resides or has normally shopped.
</P>
<P>iv. Comparing any signature on credit slips for the purchases to the signature of the cardholder or an authorized user in the card issuer's records, including other credit slips.
</P>
<P>v. Requesting documentation to assist in the verification of the claim.
</P>
<P>vi. Requiring a written, signed statement from the cardholder or authorized user. For example, the creditor may include a signature line on a billing rights form that the cardholder may send in to provide notice of the claim. However, a creditor may not require the cardholder to provide an affidavit or signed statement under penalty of perjury as part of a reasonable investigation.
</P>
<P>vii. Requesting a copy of a police report, if one was filed.
</P>
<P>viii. Requesting information regarding the cardholder's knowledge of the person who allegedly used the card or of that person's authority to do so.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Checks that access a credit card account.</I> The liability provisions for unauthorized use under § 1026.12(b)(1) only apply to transactions involving the use of a credit card, and not if an unauthorized transaction is made using a check accessing the credit card account. However, the billing error provisions in § 1026.13 apply to both of these types of transactions.
</P>
<HD3>12(b)(1)(ii) Limitation on Amount
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of authority.</I> Section 1026.12(b)(1)(i) defines unauthorized use in terms of whether the user has actual, implied, or apparent authority. Whether such authority exists must be determined under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Liability limits—dollar amounts.</I> As a general rule, the cardholder's liability for a series of unauthorized uses cannot exceed either $50 or the value obtained through the unauthorized use before the card issuer is notified, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Implied or apparent authority.</I> If a cardholder furnishes a credit card and grants authority to make credit transactions to a person (such as a family member or coworker) who exceeds the authority given, the cardholder is liable for the transaction(s) unless the cardholder has notified the creditor that use of the credit card by that person is no longer authorized.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit card obtained through robbery or fraud.</I> An unauthorized use includes, but is not limited to, a transaction initiated by a person who has obtained the credit card from the consumer, or otherwise initiated the transaction, through fraud or robbery.
</P>
<HD3>12(b)(2) Conditions of Liability
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Issuer's option not to comply.</I> A card issuer that chooses not to impose any liability on cardholders for unauthorized use need not comply with the disclosure and identification requirements discussed in § 1026.12(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(b)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of liability and means of notifying issuer.</I> The disclosures referred to in § 1026.12(b)(2)(ii) may be given, for example, with the initial disclosures under § 1026.6, on the credit card itself, or on periodic statements. They may be given at any time preceding the unauthorized use of the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Meaning of “adequate notice.”</I> For purposes of this provision, “adequate notice” means a printed notice to a cardholder that sets forth clearly the pertinent facts so that the cardholder may reasonably be expected to have noticed it and understood its meaning. The notice may be given by any means reasonably assuring receipt by the cardholder.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(b)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Means of identifying cardholder or user.</I> To fulfill the condition set forth in § 1026.12(b)(2)(iii), the issuer must provide some method whereby the cardholder or the authorized user can be identified. This could include, for example, a signature, photograph, or fingerprint on the card or other biometric means, or electronic or mechanical confirmation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Identification by magnetic strip.</I> Unless a magnetic strip (or similar device not readable without physical aids) must be used in conjunction with a secret code or the like, it would not constitute sufficient means of identification. Sufficient identification also does not exist if a “pool” or group card, issued to a corporation and signed by a corporate agent who will not be a user of the card, is intended to be used by another employee for whom no means of identification is provided.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions not involving card.</I> The cardholder may not be held liable under § 1026.12(b) when the card itself (or some other sufficient means of identification of the cardholder) is not presented. Since the issuer has not provided a means to identify the user under these circumstances, the issuer has not fulfilled one of the conditions for imposing liability. For example, when merchandise is ordered by telephone or the Internet by a person without authority to do so, using a credit card account number by itself or with other information that appears on the card (for example, the card expiration date and a 3- or 4-digit cardholder identification number), no liability may be imposed on the cardholder.
</P>
<HD3>12(b)(3) Notification to Card Issuer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>How notice must be provided.</I> Notice given in a normal business manner—for example, by mail, telephone, or personal visit—is effective even though it is not given to, or does not reach, some particular person within the issuer's organization. Notice also may be effective even though it is not given at the address or phone number disclosed by the card issuer under § 1026.12(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Who must provide notice.</I> Notice of loss, theft, or possible unauthorized use need not be initiated by the cardholder. Notice is sufficient so long as it gives the “pertinent information” which would include the name or card number of the cardholder and an indication that unauthorized use has or may have occurred.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to § 1026.13.</I> The liability protections afforded to cardholders in § 1026.12 do not depend upon the cardholder's following the error resolution procedures in § 1026.13. For example, the written notification and time limit requirements of § 1026.13 do not affect the § 1026.12 protections. (See also comment 12(b)-4.)
</P>
<HD3>12(b)(5) Business Use of Credit Cards
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Agreement for higher liability for business use cards.</I> The card issuer may not rely on § 1026.12(b)(5) if the business is clearly not in a position to provide 10 or more cards to employees (for example, if the business has only 3 employees). On the other hand, the issuer need not monitor the personnel practices of the business to make sure that it has at least 10 employees at all times.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unauthorized use by employee.</I> The protection afforded to an employee against liability for unauthorized use in excess of the limits set in § 1026.12(b) applies only to unauthorized use by someone other than the employee. If the employee uses the card in an unauthorized manner, the regulation sets no restriction on the employee's potential liability for such use.




</P>
<HD2>12(c) Right of Cardholder To Assert Claims or Defenses Against Card Issuer
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.13.</I> The § 1026.12(c) credit card “holder in due course” provision deals with the consumer's right to assert against the card issuer a claim or defense concerning property or services purchased with a credit card, if the merchant has been unwilling to resolve the dispute. Even though certain merchandise disputes, such as non-delivery of goods, may also constitute “billing errors” under § 1026.13, that section operates independently of § 1026.12(c). The cardholder whose asserted billing error involves undelivered goods may institute the error resolution procedures of § 1026.13; but whether or not the cardholder has done so, the cardholder may assert claims or defenses under § 1026.12(c). Conversely, the consumer may pay a disputed balance and thus have no further right to assert claims and defenses, but still may assert a billing error if notice of that billing error is given in the proper time and manner. An assertion that a particular transaction resulted from unauthorized use of the card could also be both a “defense” and a billing error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Claims and defenses assertible.</I> Section 1026.12(c) merely preserves the consumer's right to assert against the card issuer any claims or defenses that can be asserted against the merchant. It does not determine what claims or defenses are valid as to the merchant; this determination must be made under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions excluded.</I> Section 1026.12(c) does not apply to the use of a check guarantee card or a debit card (other than a hybrid debit-credit card) in connection with an overdraft credit plan, or to a check guarantee card used in connection with cash-advance checks.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Method of calculating the amount of credit outstanding.</I> The amount of the claim or defense that the cardholder may assert shall not exceed the amount of credit outstanding for the disputed transaction at the time the cardholder first notifies the card issuer or the person honoring the credit card of the existence of the claim or defense. However, when a consumer has asserted a claim or defense against a creditor pursuant to § 1026.12(c), the creditor must apply any payment or other credit in a manner that avoids or minimizes any reduction in the amount subject to that claim or defense. Accordingly, to determine the amount of credit outstanding for purposes of this section, payments and other credits must be applied first to amounts other than the disputed transaction.
</P>
<P>i. For examples of how to comply with §§ 1026.12 and 1026.53 for credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, see comment 53-3.
</P>
<P>ii. For other types of credit card accounts, creditors may, at their option, apply payments consistent with § 1026.53 and comment 53-3. In the alternative, payments and other credits may be applied to: Late charges in the order of entry to the account; then to finance charges in the order of entry to the account; and then to any debits other than the transaction subject to the claim or defense in the order of entry to the account. In these circumstances, if more than one item is included in a single extension of credit, credits are to be distributed pro rata according to prices and applicable taxes.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prepaid cards.</I> i. Section 1026.12(c) applies to property or services purchased with the hybrid prepaid-credit card that accesses a covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61. The following examples illustrate when a hybrid prepaid-credit card is used to purchase property or services:
</P>
<P>A. A consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is drawn directly from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card without transferring funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume that the consumer has $10 of funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account and initiates a transaction with a merchant to obtain goods or services with the hybrid prepaid-credit card for $25. In this case, $10 is debited from the asset feature and $15 of credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card without any transfer of funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. In this case, the consumer is using credit accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card to purchase property or services where credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card to cover the amount of the purchase.
</P>
<P>B. A consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume the same facts as above, except that the $15 will be transferred from a covered separate credit feature to the asset feature, and a transaction of $25 is debited from the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, the consumer is using credit accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card to purchase property or services because credit is transferred to the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of a purchase made with the card. This is true even though the $15 credit transaction is treated as “nonsale credit” under § 1026.8(b). <I>See</I> comments 8(a)-9.ii and 8(b)-1.vi.
</P>
<P>ii. For a transaction at point of sale where a hybrid prepaid-credit card is used to obtain goods or services from a merchant and the transaction is partially paid with funds from the asset feature of the prepaid account, and partially paid with credit from the covered separate credit feature, the amount of the purchase transaction that is funded by credit generally would be subject to the requirements of § 1026.12(c). The amount of the transaction funded from the prepaid account would not be subject to the requirements of § 1026.12(c).
</P>
<HD2>12(c)(1) General Rule
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Situations excluded and included.</I> The consumer may assert claims or defenses only when the goods or services are “purchased with the credit card.” This would include when the goods or services are purchased by a consumer using a hybrid prepaid-credit card to access a covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61 or using a hybrid debit-credit card to access a covered overdraft credit account as defined in § 1026.62. This could include mail, the internet or telephone orders, if the purchase is charged to the credit card account. But it would exclude:
</P>
<P>i. Use of a credit card to obtain a cash advance, even if the consumer then uses the money to purchase goods or services. Such a transaction would not involve “property or services purchased with the credit card.”
</P>
<P>ii. The purchase of goods or services by use of a check accessing an overdraft account and a credit card used solely for identification of the consumer. (On the other hand, if the credit card is used to make partial payment for the purchase and not merely for identification, the right to assert claims or defenses would apply to credit extended via the credit card, although not to credit extended by the overdraft line. If partial payment for the purchase is made with a hybrid prepaid-credit card or a hybrid debit-credit card, the right to assert claims or defenses would apply to credit accessed from a covered separate credit feature or covered overdraft credit account, respectively.)
</P>
<P>iii. Purchases made by use of a check guarantee card in conjunction with a cash advance check (or by cash advance checks alone). (<I>See</I> comment 12(c)-3.) A cash advance check is a check that, when written, does not draw on an asset account; instead, it is charged entirely to an open-end credit account.
</P>
<P>iv. Purchases effected by use of either a check guarantee card or a debit card (other than a hybrid debit-credit card) when used to draw on overdraft credit plans. (<I>See</I> comment 12(c)-3.) The debit card exemption applies whether the card accesses an asset account via point of sale terminals, automated teller machines, or in any other way, and whether the card qualifies as an “access device” under Regulation E or is only a paper based debit card. If a card serves both as an ordinary credit card and also as a check guarantee or debit card, a transaction will be subject to this rule on asserting claims and defenses when used as an ordinary credit card (including when used as a hybrid debit-credit card to access a covered overdraft credit account), but not when used as a check guarantee or debit card. For purchases effected by use of a hybrid debit-credit card where the transaction is partially paid with funds from the asset account, and partially paid with covered overdraft credit, the provisions of § 1026.12(c) apply only to the credit portion of the purchase transaction.








</P>
<HD3>12(c)(2) Adverse Credit Reports Prohibited
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of prohibition.</I> Although an amount in dispute may not be reported as delinquent until the matter is resolved:
</P>
<P>i. That amount may be reported as disputed.
</P>
<P>ii. Nothing in this provision prohibits the card issuer from undertaking its normal collection activities for the delinquent and undisputed portion of the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Settlement of dispute.</I> A card issuer may not consider a dispute settled and report an amount disputed as delinquent or begin collection of the disputed amount until it has completed a reasonable investigation of the cardholder's claim. A reasonable investigation requires an independent assessment of the cardholder's claim based on information obtained from both the cardholder and the merchant, if possible. In conducting an investigation, the card issuer may request the cardholder's reasonable cooperation. The card issuer may not automatically consider a dispute settled if the cardholder fails or refuses to comply with a particular request. However, if the card issuer otherwise has no means of obtaining information necessary to resolve the dispute, the lack of information resulting from the cardholder's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the card issuer reasonably to terminate the investigation.
</P>
<HD3>12(c)(3) Limitations
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(c)(3)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Resolution with merchant.</I> The consumer must have tried to resolve the dispute with the merchant. This does not require any special procedures or correspondence between them, and is a matter for factual determination in each case. The consumer is not required to seek satisfaction from the manufacturer of the goods involved. When the merchant is in bankruptcy proceedings, the consumer is not required to file a claim in those proceedings, and may instead file a claim for the property or service purchased with the credit card with the card issuer directly.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(c)(3)(i)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Geographic limitation.</I> The question of where a transaction occurs (as in the case of mail, Internet, or telephone orders, for example) is to be determined under state or other applicable law.
</P>
<HD3>12(c)(3)(ii) Exclusion
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Merchant honoring card.</I> The exceptions (stated in § 1026.12(c)(3)(ii)) to the amount and geographic limitations in § 1026.12(c)(3)(i)(B) do not apply if the merchant merely honors, or indicates through signs or advertising that it honors, a particular credit card.


</P>
<HD3>12(d) Offsets by Card Issuer Prohibited
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of funds on deposit.</I> For purposes of § 1026.12(d), funds of the cardholder held on deposit include funds in a consumer's prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61. In addition, for purposes of § 1026.12(d), deposit account includes a prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(d)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Holds on accounts.</I> “Freezing” or placing a hold on funds in the cardholder's deposit account is the functional equivalent of an offset and would contravene the prohibition in § 1026.12(d)(1), unless done in the context of one of the exceptions specified in § 1026.12(d)(2). For example, if the terms of a security agreement permitted the card issuer to place a hold on the funds, the hold would not violate the offset prohibition. Similarly, if an order of a bankruptcy court required the card issuer to turn over deposit account funds to the trustee in bankruptcy, the issuer would not violate the regulation by placing a hold on the funds in order to comply with the court order.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Funds intended as deposits.</I> If the consumer tenders funds as a deposit (to a checking account, for example) or if the card issuer receives funds designated for the consumer's prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 with the issuer, such as by means of an ACH deposit or an electronic transmittal of funds the consumer submits as cash at a non-bank location, the card issuer may not apply the funds to repay indebtedness on the consumer's credit card account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Types of indebtedness; overdraft accounts.</I> The offset prohibition applies to any indebtedness arising from transactions under a credit card plan, including accrued finance charges and other charges on the account. The prohibition also applies to balances arising from transactions not using the credit card itself but taking place under plans that involve credit cards. For example, if the consumer writes a check that accesses an overdraft line of credit, the resulting indebtedness is subject to the offset prohibition since it is incurred through a credit card plan, even though the consumer did not use an associated check guarantee or debit card.
</P>
<P>4. <I>When prohibition applies in case of termination of account.</I> The offset prohibition applies even after the card issuer terminates the cardholder's credit card privileges, if the indebtedness was incurred prior to termination. If the indebtedness was incurred after termination, the prohibition does not apply.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(d)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Security interest—limitations.</I> In order to qualify for the exception stated in § 1026.12(d)(2), a security interest must be affirmatively agreed to by the consumer and must be disclosed in the issuer's account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6. The security interest must not be the functional equivalent of a right of offset; as a result, routinely including in agreements contract language indicating that consumers are giving a security interest in any deposit accounts maintained with the issuer does not result in a security interest that falls within the exception in § 1026.12(d)(2). For a security interest to qualify for the exception under § 1026.12(d)(2) the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer must be aware that granting a security interest is a condition for the credit card account (or for more favorable account terms) and must specifically intend to grant a security interest in a deposit account.
</P>
<P>ii. With respect to a credit card account other than a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, indicia of the consumer's awareness and intent to grant a security interest in a deposit account include at least one of the following (or a substantially similar procedure that evidences the consumer's awareness and intent):
</P>
<P>A. Separate signature or initials on the agreement indicating that a security interest is being given.
</P>
<P>B. Placement of the security agreement on a separate page, or otherwise separating the security interest provisions from other contract and disclosure provisions.
</P>
<P>C. Reference to a specific amount of deposited funds or to a specific deposit account number.
</P>
<P>iii. With respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, in order for a consumer to show awareness and intent to grant a security interest in a deposit account, including a prepaid account, all of the following conditions must be met:
</P>
<P>A. In addition to being disclosed in the issuer's account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6, the security agreement must be provided to the consumer in a document separate from the deposit account agreement and the credit card account agreement;
</P>
<P>B. The separate document setting forth the security agreement must be signed by the consumer;
</P>
<P>C. The separate document setting forth the security agreement must refer to the deposit account number and to a specific amount of funds in the deposit account in which the card issuer is taking a security interest and these two elements of the document must be separately signed or initialed by the consumer;
</P>
<P>D. The separate document setting forth the security agreement must specifically enumerate the conditions under which the card issuer will enforce the security interest and each of those conditions must be separately signed or initialed by the consumer.
</P>
<P>iv. The security interest must be obtainable and enforceable by creditors generally. If other creditors could not obtain a security interest in the consumer's deposit accounts to the same extent as the card issuer, the security interest is prohibited by § 1026.12(d)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Security interest—after-acquired property.</I> As used in § 1026.12(d)(2), the term “security interest” does not exclude (as it does for other Regulation Z purposes) interests in after-acquired property. Thus, a consensual security interest in deposit-account funds, including funds deposited after the granting of the security interest would constitute a permissible exception to the prohibition on offsets.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Court order.</I> If the card issuer obtains a judgment against the cardholder, and if state and other applicable law and the terms of the judgment do not so prohibit, the card issuer may offset the indebtedness against the cardholder's deposit account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(d)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Automatic payment plans—scope of exception.</I> With regard to automatic debit plans under § 1026.12(d)(3), the following rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. The cardholder's authorization must be in writing and signed or initialed by the cardholder.
</P>
<P>ii. The authorizing language need not appear directly above or next to the cardholder's signature or initials, provided it appears on the same document and that it clearly spells out the terms of the automatic debit plan.
</P>
<P>iii. If the cardholder has the option to accept or reject the automatic debit feature (such option may be required under section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.10(e)), the fact that the option exists should be clearly indicated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automatic payment plans—additional exceptions.</I> The following practices are not prohibited by § 1026.12(d)(1):
</P>
<P>i. Automatically deducting charges for participation in a program of banking services (one aspect of which may be a credit card plan).
</P>
<P>ii. Debiting the cardholder's deposit account on the cardholder's specific request rather than on an automatic periodic basis (for example, a cardholder might check a box on the credit card bill stub, requesting the issuer to debit the cardholder's account to pay that bill).
</P>
<P>iii. Automatically deducting from the consumer's deposit account any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). See § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and non-covered separate credit features as those terms are defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prepaid accounts.</I> With respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61, a card issuer is not prohibited under § 1026.12(d) from periodically deducting all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from a deposit account (including the prepaid account) held with the card issuer (subject to the limitations of § 1026.13(d)(1)) under a plan that is authorized in writing by the cardholder, so long as the creditor does not deduct all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from the deposit account more frequently than once per calendar month, pursuant to such a plan. To illustrate, with respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, assume that a periodic statement is sent out each month to a cardholder on the first day of the month and the payment due date for the amount due on that statement is the 25th day of each month. In this case:
</P>
<P>i. The card issuer is not prohibited under § 1026.12(d) from automatically deducting the amount due on the periodic statement on the 25th of each month, or on an earlier date in each calendar month, from a deposit account held by the card issuer, if the deductions are pursuant to a plan that is authorized in writing by the cardholder (as discussed in comment 12(d)(3)-1) and comply with the limitations in § 1026.13(d)(1).
</P>
<P>ii. The card issuer is prohibited under § 1026.12(d) from automatically deducting all or part of the cardholder's credit card debt from a deposit account (including the prepaid account) held with the card issuer more frequently than once per calendar month, such as on a daily or weekly basis, or whenever deposits are made or expected to be made to the deposit account.


</P>
<HD3>12(e) Prompt Notification of Returns and Crediting of Refunds
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(e)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Normal channels.</I> The term normal channels refers to any network or interchange system used for the processing of the original charge slips (or equivalent information concerning the transaction).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 12(e)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Crediting account.</I> The card issuer need not actually post the refund to the consumer's account within three business days after receiving the credit statement, provided that it credits the account as of a date within that time period.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.13—Billing Error Resolution
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Creditor's failure to comply with billing error provisions.</I> Failure to comply with the error resolution procedures may result in the forfeiture of disputed amounts as prescribed in section 161(e) of the Act. (Any failure to comply may also be a violation subject to the liability provisions of section 130 of the Act.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges for error resolution.</I> If a billing error occurred, whether as alleged or in a different amount or manner, the creditor may not impose a charge related to any aspect of the error resolution process (including charges for documentation or investigation) and must credit the consumer's account if such a charge was assessed pending resolution. Since the Act grants the consumer error resolution rights, the creditor should avoid any chilling effect on the good faith assertion of errors that might result if charges are assessed when no billing error has occurred.
</P>
<HD3>13(a) Definition of Billing Error
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Actual, implied, or apparent authority.</I> Whether use of a credit card or open-end credit plan is authorized is determined by state or other applicable law. (<I>See</I> comment 12(b)(1)(ii)-1.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. Section 1026.13(a)(3) covers disputes about goods or services that are “not accepted” or “not delivered * * * as agreed”; for example:
</P>
<P>A. The appearance on a periodic statement of a purchase, when the consumer refused to take delivery of goods because they did not comply with the contract.
</P>
<P>B. Delivery of property or services different from that agreed upon.
</P>
<P>C. Delivery of the wrong quantity.
</P>
<P>D. Late delivery.
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<P>E. Delivery to the wrong location.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 1026.13(a)(3) does not apply to a dispute relating to the quality of property or services that the consumer accepts. Whether acceptance occurred is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to purchases made using a third-party payment intermediary.</I> Section 1026.13(a)(3) generally applies to disputes about goods and services that are purchased using a third-party payment intermediary, such as a person-to-person Internet payment service, funded through use of a consumer's open-end credit plan when the goods or services are not accepted by the consumer or not delivered to the consumer as agreed. However, the extension of credit must be made at the time the consumer purchases the good or service and match the amount of the transaction to purchase the good or service (including ancillary taxes and fees). Under these circumstances, the property or service for which the extension of credit is made is not the payment service, but rather the good or service that the consumer has purchased using the payment service. Thus, for example, § 1026.13(a)(3) would not apply to purchases using a third party payment intermediary that is funded through use of an open-end credit plan if:
</P>
<P>i. The extension of credit is made to fund the third-party payment intermediary “account,” but the consumer does not contemporaneously use those funds to purchase a good or service at that time.
</P>
<P>ii. The extension of credit is made to fund only a portion of the purchase amount, and the consumer uses other sources to fund the remaining amount.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Notice to merchant not required.</I> A consumer is not required to first notify the merchant or other payee from whom he or she has purchased goods or services and attempt to resolve a dispute regarding the good or service before providing a billing-error notice to the creditor under § 1026.13(a)(3) asserting that the goods or services were not accepted or delivered as agreed.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(a)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Computational errors.</I> In periodic statements that are combined with other information, the error resolution procedures are triggered only if the consumer asserts a computational billing error in the credit-related portion of the periodic statement. For example, if a bank combines a periodic statement reflecting the consumer's credit card transactions with the consumer's monthly checking statement, a computational error in the checking account portion of the combined statement is not a billing error.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(a)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Documentation requests.</I> A request for documentation such as receipts or sales slips, unaccompanied by an allegation of an error under § 1026.13(a) or a request for additional clarification under § 1026.13(a)(6), does not trigger the error resolution procedures. For example, a request for documentation merely for purposes such as tax preparation or recordkeeping does not trigger the error resolution procedures.
</P>
<HD3>13(b) Billing Error Notice
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Withdrawal of billing error notice by consumer.</I> The creditor need not comply with the requirements of § 1026.13(c) through (g) of this section if the consumer concludes that no billing error occurred and voluntarily withdraws the billing error notice. The consumer's withdrawal of a billing error notice may be oral, electronic or written.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of written notice.</I> The creditor may require that the written notice not be made on the payment medium or other material accompanying the periodic statement if the creditor so stipulates in the billing rights statement required by §§ 1026.6(a)(5) or (b)(5)(iii), and 1026.9(a). In addition, if the creditor stipulates in the billing rights statement that it accepts billing error notices submitted electronically, and states the means by which a consumer may electronically submit a billing error notice, a notice sent in such manner will be deemed to satisfy the written notice requirement for purposes of § 1026.13(b).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Failure to send periodic statement—timing.</I> If the creditor has failed to send a periodic statement, the 60-day period runs from the time the statement should have been sent. Once the statement is provided, the consumer has another 60 days to assert any billing errors reflected on it.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Failure to reflect credit—timing.</I> If the periodic statement fails to reflect a credit to the account, the 60-day period runs from transmittal of the statement on which the credit should have appeared.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transmittal.</I> If a consumer has arranged for periodic statements to be held at the financial institution until called for, the statement is “transmitted” when it is first made available to the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identity of the consumer.</I> The billing error notice need not specify both the name and the account number if the information supplied enables the creditor to identify the consumer's name and account.
</P>
<HD3>13(c) Time for Resolution; General Procedures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Temporary or provisional corrections.</I> A creditor may temporarily correct the consumer's account in response to a billing error notice, but is not excused from complying with the remaining error resolution procedures within the time limits for resolution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Correction without investigation.</I> A creditor may correct a billing error in the manner and amount asserted by the consumer without the investigation or the determination normally required. The creditor must comply, however, with all other applicable provisions. If a creditor follows this procedure, no presumption is created that a billing error occurred.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship with § 1026.12.</I> The consumer's rights under the billing error provisions in § 1026.13 are independent of the provisions set forth in § 1026.12(b) and (c). (<I>See</I> comments 12(b)-4, 12(b)(3)-3, and 12(c)-1.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Time for resolution.</I> The phrase two complete billing cycles means two actual billing cycles occurring after receipt of the billing error notice, not a measure of time equal to two billing cycles. For example, if a creditor on a monthly billing cycle receives a billing error notice mid-cycle, it has the remainder of that cycle plus the next two full billing cycles to resolve the error.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Finality of error resolution procedure.</I> A creditor must comply with the error resolution procedures and complete its investigation to determine whether an error occurred within two complete billing cycles as set forth in § 1026.13(c)(2). Thus, for example, § 1026.13(c)(2) prohibits a creditor from reversing amounts previously credited for an alleged billing error even if the creditor obtains evidence after the error resolution time period has passed indicating that the billing error did not occur as asserted by the consumer. Similarly, if a creditor fails to mail or deliver a written explanation setting forth the reason why the billing error did not occur as asserted, or otherwise fails to comply with the error resolution procedures set forth in § 1026.13(f), the creditor generally must credit the disputed amount and related finance or other charges, as applicable, to the consumer's account. However, if a consumer receives more than one credit to correct the same billing error, § 1026.13 does not prevent a creditor from reversing amounts it has previously credited to correct that error, provided that the total amount of the remaining credits is equal to or more than the amount of the error and that the consumer does not incur any fees or other charges as a result of the timing of the creditor's reversal. For example, assume that a consumer asserts a billing error with respect to a $100 transaction and that the creditor posts a $100 credit to the consumer's account to correct that error during the time period set forth in § 1026.13(c)(2). However, following that time period, a merchant or other person honoring the credit card issues a $100 credit to the consumer to correct the same error. In these circumstances, § 1026.13(c)(2) does not prohibit the creditor from reversing its $100 credit once the $100 credit from the merchant or other person has posted to the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>13(d) Rules Pending Resolution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disputed amount.</I> Disputed amount is the dollar amount alleged by the consumer to be in error. When the allegation concerns the description or identification of the transaction (such as the date or the seller's name) rather than a dollar amount, the disputed amount is the amount of the transaction or charge that corresponds to the disputed transaction identification. If the consumer alleges a failure to send a periodic statement under § 1026.13(a)(7), the disputed amount is the entire balance owing.
</P>
<HD3>13(d)(1) Consumer's Right To Withhold Disputed Amount; Collection Action Prohibited
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited collection actions.</I> During the error resolution period, the creditor is prohibited from trying to collect the disputed amount from the consumer. Prohibited collection actions include, for example, instituting court action, taking a lien, or instituting attachment proceedings.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Right to withhold payment.</I> If the creditor reflects any disputed amount or related finance or other charges on the periodic statement, and is therefore required to make the disclosure under § 1026.13(d)(4), the creditor may comply with that disclosure requirement by indicating that payment of any disputed amount is not required pending resolution. Making a disclosure that only refers to the disputed amount would, of course, in no way affect the consumer's right under § 1026.13(d)(1) to withhold related finance and other charges. The disclosure under § 1026.13(d)(4) need not appear in any specific place on the periodic statement, need not state the specific amount that the consumer may withhold, and may be preprinted on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Imposition of additional charges on undisputed amounts.</I> The consumer's withholding of a disputed amount from the total bill cannot subject undisputed balances (including new purchases or cash advances made during the present or subsequent cycles) to the imposition of finance or other charges. For example, if on an account with a grace period (that is, an account in which paying the new balance in full allows the consumer to avoid the imposition of additional finance charges), a consumer disputes a $2 item out of a total bill of $300 and pays $298 within the grace period, the consumer would not lose the grace period as to any undisputed amounts, even if the creditor determines later that no billing error occurred. Furthermore, finance or other charges may not be imposed on any new purchases or advances that, absent the unpaid disputed balance, would not have finance or other charges imposed on them. Finance or other charges that would have been incurred even if the consumer had paid the disputed amount would not be affected.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automatic payment plans—coverage.</I> The coverage of this provision is limited to the card issuer's automatic payment plans, whether or not the consumer's asset account is held by the card issuer or by another financial institution. It does not apply to automatic or bill-payment plans offered by financial institutions other than the credit card issuer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Automatic payment plans—time of notice.</I> While the card issuer does not have to restore or prevent the debiting of a disputed amount if the billing error notice arrives after the three-business-day cut-off, the card issuer must, however, prevent the automatic debit of any part of the disputed amount that is still outstanding and unresolved at the time of the next scheduled debit date.
</P>
<HD3>13(d)(2) Adverse Credit Reports Prohibited
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Report of dispute.</I> Although the creditor must not issue an adverse credit report because the consumer fails to pay the disputed amount or any related charges, the creditor may report that the amount or the account is in dispute. Also, the creditor may report the account as delinquent if undisputed amounts remain unpaid.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Person.</I> During the error resolution period, the creditor is prohibited from making an adverse credit report about the disputed amount to any person—including employers, insurance companies, other creditors, and credit bureaus.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Creditor's agent.</I> Whether an agency relationship exists between a creditor and an issuer of an adverse credit report is determined by state or other applicable law.
</P>
<HD3>13(e) Procedures If Billing Error Occurred as Asserted
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Correction of error.</I> The phrase as applicable means that the necessary corrections vary with the type of billing error that occurred. For example, a misidentified transaction (or a transaction that is identified by one of the alternative methods in § 1026.8) is cured by properly identifying the transaction and crediting related finance and any other charges imposed. The creditor is not required to cancel the amount of the underlying obligation incurred by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of correction notice.</I> The written correction notice may take a variety of forms. It may be sent separately, or it may be included on or with a periodic statement that is mailed within the time for resolution. If the periodic statement is used, the amount of the billing error must be specifically identified. If a separate billing error correction notice is provided, the accompanying or subsequent periodic statement reflecting the corrected amount may simply identify it as credit.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Discovery of information after investigation period. See</I> comment 13(c)(2)-2.
</P>
<HD3>13(f) Procedures If Different Billing Error or No Billing Error Occurred
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Different billing error.</I> Examples of a different billing error include:
</P>
<P>i. Differences in the amount of an error (for example, the customer asserts a $55.00 error but the error was only $53.00).
</P>
<P>ii. Differences in other particulars asserted by the consumer (such as when a consumer asserts that a particular transaction never occurred, but the creditor determines that only the seller's name was disclosed incorrectly).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of creditor's explanation.</I> The written explanation (which also may notify the consumer of corrections to the account) may take a variety of forms. It may be sent separately, or it may be included on or with a periodic statement that is mailed within the time for resolution. If the creditor uses the periodic statement for the explanation and correction(s), the corrections must be specifically identified. If a separate explanation, including the correction notice, is provided, the enclosed or subsequent periodic statement reflecting the corrected amount may simply identify it as a credit. The explanation may be combined with the creditor's notice to the consumer of amounts still owing, which is required under § 1026.13(g)(1), provided it is sent within the time limit for resolution. (See commentary to § 1026.13(e).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reasonable investigation.</I> A creditor must conduct a reasonable investigation before it determines that no billing error occurred or that a different billing error occurred from that asserted. In conducting its investigation of an allegation of a billing error, the creditor may reasonably request the consumer's cooperation. The creditor may not automatically deny a claim based solely on the consumer's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request, including providing an affidavit or filing a police report. However, if the creditor otherwise has no knowledge of facts confirming the billing error, the lack of information resulting from the consumer's failure or refusal to comply with a particular request may lead the creditor reasonably to terminate the investigation. The procedures involved in investigating alleged billing errors may differ depending on the billing error type.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Unauthorized transaction.</I> In conducting an investigation of a notice of billing error alleging an unauthorized transaction under § 1026.13(a)(1), actions such as the following represent steps that a creditor may take, as appropriate, in conducting a reasonable investigation:
</P>
<P>A. Reviewing the types or amounts of purchases made in relation to the consumer's previous purchasing pattern.
</P>
<P>B. Reviewing where the purchases were delivered in relation to the consumer's residence or place of business.
</P>
<P>C. Reviewing where the purchases were made in relation to where the consumer resides or has normally shopped.
</P>
<P>D. Comparing any signature on credit slips for the purchases to the signature of the consumer (or an authorized user in the case of a credit card account) in the creditor's records, including other credit slips.
</P>
<P>E. Requesting documentation to assist in the verification of the claim.
</P>
<P>F. Requiring a written, signed statement from the consumer (or authorized user, in the case of a credit card account). For example, the creditor may include a signature line on a billing rights form that the consumer may send in to provide notice of the claim. However, a creditor may not require the consumer to provide an affidavit or signed statement under penalty of perjury as a part of a reasonable investigation.
</P>
<P>G. Requesting a copy of a police report, if one was filed.
</P>
<P>H. Requesting information regarding the consumer's knowledge of the person who allegedly obtained an extension of credit on the account or of that person's authority to do so.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Nondelivery of property or services.</I> In conducting an investigation of a billing error notice alleging the nondelivery of property or services under § 1026.13(a)(3), the creditor shall not deny the assertion unless it conducts a reasonable investigation and determines that the property or services were actually delivered, mailed, or sent as agreed.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Incorrect information.</I> In conducting an investigation of a billing error notice alleging that information appearing on a periodic statement is incorrect because a person honoring the consumer's credit card or otherwise accepting an access device for an open-end plan has made an incorrect report to the creditor, the creditor shall not deny the assertion unless it conducts a reasonable investigation and determines that the information was correct.
</P>
<HD3>13(g) Creditor's Rights and Duties After Resolution
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(g)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts owed by consumer.</I> Amounts the consumer still owes may include both minimum periodic payments and related finance and other charges that accrued during the resolution period. As explained in the commentary to § 1026.13(d)(1), even if the creditor later determines that no billing error occurred, the creditor may not include finance or other charges that are imposed on undisputed balances solely as a result of a consumer's withholding payment of a disputed amount.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Time of notice.</I> The creditor need not send the notice of amount owed within the time period for resolution, although it is under a duty to send the notice promptly after resolution of the alleged error. If the creditor combines the notice of the amount owed with the explanation required under § 1026.13(f)(1), the combined notice must be provided within the time limit for resolution.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(g)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Grace period if no error occurred.</I> If the creditor determines, after a reasonable investigation, that a billing error did not occur as asserted, and the consumer was entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer provided the billing error notice, the consumer must be given a period of time equal to the grace period disclosed under § 1026.6(a)(1) or (b)(2) and § 1026.7(a)(8) or (b)(8) to pay any disputed amounts due without incurring additional finance or other charges. However, the creditor need not allow a grace period disclosed under the above-mentioned sections to pay the amount due under § 1026.13(g)(1) if no error occurred and the consumer was not entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer asserted the error. For example, assume that a creditor provides a consumer a grace period of 20 days to pay a new balance to avoid finance charges, and that the consumer did not carry an outstanding balance from the prior month. If the consumer subsequently asserts a billing error for the current statement period within the 20-day grace period, and the creditor determines that no billing error in fact occurred, the consumer must be given at least 20 days (<I>i.e.,</I> the full disclosed grace period) to pay the amount due without incurring additional finance charges. Conversely, if the consumer was not entitled to a grace period at the time the consumer asserted the billing error, for example, if the consumer did not pay the previous monthly balance of undisputed charges in full, the creditor may assess finance charges on the disputed balance for the entire period the item was in dispute.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(g)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Time for payment.</I> The consumer has a minimum of 10 days to pay (measured from the time the consumer could reasonably be expected to have received notice of the amount owed) before the creditor may issue an adverse credit report; if an initially disclosed grace period allows the consumer a longer time in which to pay, the consumer has the benefit of that longer period.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 13(g)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit reporting.</I> Under § 1026.13(g)(4)(i) and (iii) the creditor's additional credit reporting responsibilities must be accomplished promptly. The creditor need not establish costly procedures to fulfill this requirement. For example, a creditor that reports to a credit bureau on scheduled updates need not transmit corrective information by an unscheduled computer or magnetic tape; it may provide the credit bureau with the correct information by letter or other commercially reasonable means when using the scheduled update would not be “prompt.” The creditor is not responsible for ensuring that the credit bureau corrects its information immediately.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adverse report to credit bureau.</I> If a creditor made an adverse report to a credit bureau that disseminated the information to other creditors, the creditor fulfills its § 1026.13(g)(4)(ii) obligations by providing the consumer with the name and address of the credit bureau.
</P>
<HD3>13(i) Relation to Electronic Fund Transfer Act and Regulation E
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Credit extended directly from a non-overdraft credit line is governed solely by Regulation Z, even though a combined credit card/access device is used to obtain the extension.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Incidental credit under an agreement with respect to an account other than a prepaid account.</I> Except with respect to a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61, for credit extended incident to an electronic fund transfer under an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution, § 1026.13(i)(1) provides that certain error resolution procedures in both this part and Regulation E apply. Except with respect to a prepaid account, incidental credit that is not extended under an agreement between the consumer and the financial institution is governed solely by the error resolution procedures in Regulation E. For example, credit inadvertently extended incident to an electronic fund transfer using a debit card, such as under an overdraft service not subject to Regulation Z, is governed solely by the Regulation E error resolution procedures, if the bank and the consumer do not have an agreement to extend credit when the consumer's account is overdrawn.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Application to debit/credit transactions</I>—<I>examples.</I> If a consumer uses a debit card to withdraw money at an automated teller machine and activates an overdraft credit feature on the checking account:
</P>
<P>i. An error asserted with respect to the transaction is subject, for error resolution purposes, to the applicable Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) provisions (such as timing and notice) for the entire transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor need not provisionally credit the consumer's account, under 12 CFR 1005.11(c)(2)(i), for any portion of the unpaid extension of credit.
</P>
<P>iii. The creditor must credit the consumer's account under § 1005.11(c) with any finance or other charges incurred as a result of the alleged error.
</P>
<P>iv. The provisions of § 1026.13(d) and (g) apply only to the credit portion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit under a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> For transactions involving a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, whether Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) or Regulation Z applies depends on the nature of the transaction. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the transaction solely involves an extension of credit under a covered separate credit feature and does not access funds from the asset feature of the prepaid account, the error resolution requirements of Regulation Z apply. To illustrate, assume that there is $0 in the asset feature of the prepaid account, and the consumer makes a $25 transaction with the card. The error resolution requirements of Regulation Z apply to the transaction. This is true regardless of whether the $25 of credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature without a transfer to the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the transaction, or whether the $25 of credit is transferred from the covered separate credit feature to the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. If the transaction accesses funds from the asset feature of a prepaid account only (with no credit extended under the credit feature), the provisions of Regulation E apply.
</P>
<P>iii. If the transaction accesses funds from the asset feature of a prepaid account but also involves an extension of credit under the covered separate credit feature, a creditor must comply with the requirements of Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.11, and 1005.18(e) as applicable, governing error resolution rather than those of § 1026.13(a), (b), (c), (e), (f), and (h). To illustrate, assume that there is $10 in the asset feature of the prepaid account, and the consumer makes a $25 transaction with the card. The error resolution requirements of Regulations E and Z apply as described above to the transaction. This is true regardless of whether $10 is debited from the asset feature and $15 of credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature without a transfer to the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the transaction, or whether $15 of credit is transferred from the covered separate credit feature to the asset feature of the prepaid account and a $25 transaction is debited from the asset feature to cover the amount of the transaction. When this paragraph applies:
</P>
<P>A. An error asserted with respect to the transaction is subject, for error resolution purposes, to the applicable Regulation E (12 CFR part 1005) provisions (such as timing and notice) for the entire transaction.
</P>
<P>B. The creditor need not provisionally credit the consumer's account, under Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.11(c)(2)(i), for any portion of the unpaid extension of credit.
</P>
<P>C. The creditor must credit the consumer's account under § 1005.11(c) with any finance or other charges incurred as a result of the alleged error.
</P>
<P>D. The provisions of § 1026.13(d) and (g) apply only to the credit portion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(C) and (D), and (a)(2)(iii) provide guidance on whether error resolution procedures in Regulations E or Z apply to transactions involving credit features that are accessed by prepaid cards that are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61. Regulation E 12 CFR 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(C) provides that with respect to transactions that involve credit extended through a negative balance to the asset feature of a prepaid account that meets the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4), these transactions are governed solely by error resolution procedures in Regulation E, and Regulation Z does not apply. Regulation E 12 CFR 1005.12(a)(1)(iv)(D) and (a)(2)(iii), taken together, provide that with respect to transactions involving a prepaid account and a non-covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61, a financial institution must comply with Regulation E's error resolution procedures with respect to transactions that access the prepaid account as applicable, and the creditor must comply with Regulation Z's error resolution procedures with respect to transactions that access the non-covered separate credit feature, as applicable.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.14—Determination of Annual Percentage Rate
</HD2>
<HD3>14(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Tolerance.</I> The tolerance of 1/8th of 1 percentage point above or below the annual percentage rate applies to any required disclosure of the annual percentage rate. The disclosure of the annual percentage rate is required in §§ 1026.60, 1026.40, 1026.6, 1026.7, 1026.9, 1026.15, 1026.16, 1026.26, 1026.55, and 1026.56.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding.</I> The regulation does not require that the annual percentage rate be calculated to any particular number of decimal places; rounding is permissible within the 1/8th of 1 percent tolerance. For example, an exact annual percentage rate of 14.33333% may be stated as 14.33% or as 14.3%, or even as 14
<FR>1/4</FR>%; but it could not be stated as 14.2% or 14%, since each varies by more than the permitted tolerance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Periodic rates.</I> No explicit tolerance exists for any periodic rate as such; a disclosed periodic rate may vary from precise accuracy (for example, due to rounding) only to the extent that its annualized equivalent is within the tolerance permitted by § 1026.14(a). Further, a periodic rate need not be calculated to any particular number of decimal places.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Finance charges.</I> The regulation does not prohibit creditors from assessing finance charges on balances that include prior, unpaid finance charges; state or other applicable law may do so, however.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Good faith reliance on faulty calculation tools.</I> The regulation relieves a creditor of liability for an error in the annual percentage rate or finance charge that resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor. Whether or not the creditor's use of the tool was in good faith must be determined on a case-by-case basis, but the creditor must in any case have taken reasonable steps to verify the accuracy of the tool, including any instructions, before using it. Generally, the safe harbor from liability is available only for errors directly attributable to the calculation tool itself, including software programs; it is not intended to absolve a creditor of liability for its own errors, or for errors arising from improper use of the tool, from incorrect data entry, or from misapplication of the law.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Effect of leap year.</I> Any variance in the annual percentage rate that occurs solely by reason of the addition of February 29 in a leap year may be disregarded, and such a rate may be disclosed without regard to such variance.
</P>
<HD3>14(b) Annual Percentage Rate—In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Corresponding annual percentage rate computation.</I> For purposes of §§ 1026.60, 1026.40, 1026.6, 1026.7(a)(4) or (b)(4), 1026.9, 1026.15, 1026.16, 1026.26, 1026.55, and 1026.56, the annual percentage rate is determined by multiplying the periodic rate by the number of periods in the year. This computation reflects the fact that, in such disclosures, the rate (known as the corresponding annual percentage rate) is prospective and does not involve any particular finance charge or periodic balance.
</P>
<HD3>14(c) Optional Effective Annual Percentage Rate for Periodic Statements for Creditors Offering Open-End Credit Plans Secured by a Consumer's Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> The periodic statement may reflect (under § 1026.7(a)(7)) the annualized equivalent of the rate actually applied during a particular cycle; this rate may differ from the corresponding annual percentage rate because of the inclusion of, for example, fixed, minimum, or transaction charges. Sections 1026.14(c)(1) through (c)(4) state the computation rules for the effective rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges related to opening, renewing, or continuing an account.</I> Sections 1026.14(c)(2) and (c)(3) exclude from the calculation of the effective annual percentage rate finance charges that are imposed during the billing cycle such as a loan fee, points, or similar charge that relates to opening, renewing, or continuing an account. The charges involved here do not relate to a specific transaction or to specific activity on the account, but relate solely to the opening, renewing, or continuing of the account. For example, an annual fee to renew an open-end credit account that is a percentage of the credit limit on the account, or that is charged only to consumers that have not used their credit card for a certain dollar amount in transactions during the preceding year, would not be included in the calculation of the annual percentage rate, even though the fee may not be excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(4). (See comment 4(c)(4)-2.) This rule applies even if the loan fee, points, or similar charges are billed on a subsequent periodic statement or withheld from the proceeds of the first advance on the account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Classification of charges.</I> If the finance charge includes a charge not due to the application of a periodic rate, the creditor must use the annual percentage rate computation method that corresponds to the type of charge imposed. If the charge is tied to a specific transaction (for example, 3 percent of the amount of each transaction), then the method in § 1026.14(c)(3) must be used. If a fixed or minimum charge is applied, that is, one not tied to any specific transaction, then the formula in § 1026.14(c)(2) is appropriate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Small finance charges.</I> Section 1026.14(c)(4) gives the creditor an alternative to § 1026.14(c)(2) and (c)(3) if small finance charges (50 cents or less) are involved; that is, if the finance charge includes minimum or fixed fees not due to the application of a periodic rate and the total finance charge for the cycle does not exceed 50 cents. For example, while a monthly activity fee of 50 cents on a balance of $20 would produce an annual percentage rate of 30 percent under the rule in § 1026.14(c)(2), the creditor may disclose an annual percentage rate of 18 percent if the periodic rate generally applicable to all balances is 1 and 
<FR>1/2</FR> percent per month.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prior-cycle adjustments.</I> i. The annual percentage rate reflects the finance charges imposed during the billing cycle. However, finance charges imposed during the billing cycle may relate to activity in a prior cycle. Examples of circumstances when this may occur are:
</P>
<P>A. A cash advance occurs on the last day of a billing cycle on an account that uses the transaction date to figure finance charges, and it is impracticable to post the transaction until the following cycle.
</P>
<P>B. An adjustment to the finance charge is made following the resolution of a billing error dispute.
</P>
<P>C. A consumer fails to pay the purchase balance under a deferred payment feature by the payment due date, and finance charges are imposed from the date of purchase.
</P>
<P>ii. Finance charges relating to activity in prior cycles should be reflected on the periodic statement as follows:
</P>
<P>A. If a finance charge imposed in the current billing cycle is attributable to periodic rates applicable to prior billing cycles (such as when a deferred payment balance was not paid in full by the payment due date and finance charges from the date of purchase are now being debited to the account, or when a cash advance occurs on the last day of a billing cycle on an account that uses the transaction date to figure finance charges and it is impracticable to post the transaction until the following cycle), and the creditor uses the quotient method to calculate the annual percentage rate, the numerator would include the amount of any transaction charges plus any other finance charges posted during the billing cycle. At the creditor's option, balances relating to the finance charge adjustment may be included in the denominator if permitted by the legal obligation, if it was impracticable to post the transaction in the previous cycle because of timing, or if the adjustment is covered by comment 14(c)-5.ii.B.
</P>
<P>B. If a finance charge that is posted to the account relates to activity for which a finance charge was debited or credited to the account in a previous billing cycle (for example, if the finance charge relates to an adjustment such as the resolution of a billing error dispute, or an unintentional posting error, or a payment by check that was later returned unpaid for insufficient funds or other reasons), the creditor shall at its option:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Calculate the annual percentage rate in accordance with ii.A of this paragraph, or
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Disclose the finance charge adjustment on the periodic statement and calculate the annual percentage rate for the current billing cycle without including the finance charge adjustment in the numerator and balances associated with the finance charge adjustment in the denominator.
</P>
<HD3>14(c)(1) Solely Periodic Rates Imposed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic rates.</I> Section 1026.14(c)(1) applies if the only finance charge imposed is due to the application of a periodic rate to a balance. The creditor may compute the annual percentage rate either:
</P>
<P>i. By multiplying each periodic rate by the number of periods in the year; or
</P>
<P>ii. By the “quotient” method. This method refers to a composite annual percentage rate when different periodic rates apply to different balances. For example, a particular plan may involve a periodic rate of 
<FR>1/2</FR> percent on balances up to $500, and 1 percent on balances over $500. If, in a given cycle, the consumer has a balance of $800, the finance charge would consist of $7.50 (500 × .015) plus $3.00 (300 × .01), for a total finance charge of $10.50. The annual percentage rate for this period may be disclosed either as 18% on $500 and 12 percent on $300, or as 15.75 percent on a balance of $800 (the quotient of $10.50 divided by $800, multiplied by 12).
</P>
<HD3>14(c)(2) Minimum or Fixed Charge, But Not Transaction Charge, Imposed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Certain charges not based on periodic rates.</I> Section 1026.14(c)(2) specifies use of the quotient method to determine the annual percentage rate if the finance charge imposed includes a certain charge not due to the application of a periodic rate (other than a charge relating to a specific transaction). For example, if the creditor imposes a minimum $1 finance charge on all balances below $50, and the consumer's balance was $40 in a particular cycle, the creditor would disclose an annual percentage rate of 30 percent (1/40 × 12).
</P>
<P>2. <I>No balance.</I> If there is no balance to which the finance charge is applicable, an annual percentage rate cannot be determined under § 1026.14(c)(2). This could occur not only when minimum charges are imposed on an account with no balance, but also when a periodic rate is applied to advances from the date of the transaction. For example, if on May 19 the consumer pays the new balance in full from a statement dated May 1, and has no further transactions reflected on the June 1 statement, that statement would reflect a finance charge with no account balance.
</P>
<HD3>14(c)(3) Transaction Charge Imposed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transaction charges.</I> i. Section 1026.14(c)(3) transaction charges include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. A loan fee of $10 imposed on a particular advance.
</P>
<P>B. A charge of 3 percent of the amount of each transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. The reference to avoiding duplication in the computation requires that the amounts of transactions on which transaction charges were imposed not be included both in the amount of total balances and in the “other amounts on which a finance charge was imposed” figure. In a multifeatured plan, creditors may consider each bona fide feature separately in the calculation of the denominator. A creditor has considerable flexibility in defining features for open-end plans, as long as the creditor has a reasonable basis for the distinctions. For further explanation and examples of how to determine the components of this formula, see appendix F to part 1026.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> Section 1026.14(c)(3) sets forth an acceptable method for calculating the annual percentage rate if the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate. This section includes the requirement that the creditor follow the rules in appendix F to part 1026 in calculating the annual percentage rate, especially the provision in the introductory section of appendix F which addresses the daily rate/transaction charge situation by providing that the “average of daily balances” shall be used instead of the “sum of the balances.”
</P>
<HD3>14(d) Calculations Where Daily Periodic Rate Applied
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Quotient method.</I> Section 1026.14(d) addresses use of a daily periodic rate(s) to determine some or all of the finance charge and use of the quotient method to determine the annual percentage rate. Since the quotient formula in § 1026.14(c)(1)(ii) and (c)(2) cannot be used when a daily rate is being applied to a series of daily balances, § 1026.14(d) provides two alternative ways to calculate the annual percentage rate—either of which satisfies the provisions of § 1026.7(a)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> If the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate, see comment 14(c)(3)-2 for guidance on an appropriate calculation method.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.15—Right of Rescission
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<P>1. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> Credit extensions that are not subject to the regulation are not covered by § 1026.15 even if the customer's principal dwelling is the collateral securing the credit. For this purpose, <I>credit extensions</I> also would include the occurrences listed in comment 15(a)(1)-1. For example, the right of rescission does not apply to the opening of a business-purpose credit line, even though the loan is secured by the customer's principal dwelling.
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<HD3>15(a) Consumer's Right To Rescind
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(a)(1)
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<P>1. <I>Occurrences subject to right.</I> Under an open-end credit plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the right of rescission generally arises with each of the following occurrences:
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<P>i. Opening the account.
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<P>ii. Each credit extension.
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<P>iii. Increasing the credit limit.
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<P>iv. Adding to an existing account a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling.
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<P>v. Increasing the dollar amount of the security interest taken in the dwelling to secure the plan. For example, a consumer may open an account with a $10,000 credit limit, $5,000 of which is initially secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. The consumer has the right to rescind at that time and (except as noted in § 1026.15(a)(1)(ii)) with each extension on the account. Later, if the creditor decides that it wants the credit line fully secured, and increases the amount of its interest in the consumer's dwelling, the consumer has the right to rescind the increase.
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<P>2. <I>Exceptions.</I> Although the consumer generally has the right to rescind with each transaction on the account, Section 125(e) of the Act provides an exception: the creditor need not provide the right to rescind at the time of each credit extension made under an open-end credit plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling to the extent that the credit extended is in accordance with a previously established credit limit for the plan. This limited rescission option is available whether or not the plan existed prior to the effective date of the Act.
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<P>3. <I>Security interest arising from transaction.</I> i. In order for the right of rescission to apply, the security interest must be retained as part of the credit transaction. For example:
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<P>A. A security interest that is acquired by a contractor who is also extending the credit in the transaction.
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<P>B. A mechanic's or materialman's lien that is retained by a subcontractor or supplier of a contractor-creditor, even when the latter has waived its own security interest in the consumer's home.
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<P>ii. The security interest is not part of the credit transaction, and therefore the transaction is not subject to the right of rescission when, for example:
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<P>A. A mechanic's or materialman's lien is obtained by a contractor who is not a party to the credit transaction but merely is paid with the proceeds of the consumer's cash advance.
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<P>B. All security interests that may arise in connection with the credit transaction are validly waived.
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<P>C. The creditor obtains a lien and completion bond that in effect satisfies all liens against the consumer's principal dwelling as a result of the credit transaction.
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<P>iii. Although liens arising by operation of law are not considered security interests for purposes of disclosure under § 1026.2, that section specifically includes them in the definition for purposes of the right of rescission. Thus, even though an interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is not a required disclosure under § 1026.6(c), it may still give rise to the right of rescission.
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<P>4. <I>Consumer.</I> To be a consumer within the meaning of § 1026.2, that person must at least have an ownership interest in the dwelling that is encumbered by the creditor's security interest, although that person need not be a signatory to the credit agreement. For example, if only one spouse enters into a secured plan, the other spouse is a consumer if the ownership interest of that spouse is subject to the security interest.
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<P>5. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can only have one principal dwelling at a time. (But see comment 15(a)(1)-6.) A vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. A transaction secured by a second home (such as a vacation home) that is not currently being used as the consumer's principal dwelling is not rescindable, even if the consumer intends to reside there in the future. When a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within one year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling if it secures the open-end credit line. In that case, the transaction secured by the new dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction and is not rescindable. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, an advance on an open-end line to finance B and secured by B is a residential mortgage transaction. Dwelling, as defined in § 1026.2, includes structures that are classified as personalty under state law. For example, a transaction secured by a mobile home, trailer, or houseboat used as the consumer's principal dwelling may be rescindable.
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<P>6. <I>Special rule for principal dwelling.</I> Notwithstanding the general rule that consumers may have only one principal dwelling, when the consumer is acquiring or constructing a new principal dwelling, a credit plan or extension that is subject to Regulation Z and is secured by the equity in the consumer's current principal dwelling is subject to the right of rescission regardless of the purpose of that loan (for example, an advance to be used as a bridge loan). For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a loan to finance B and secured by A is subject to the right of rescission. Moreover, a loan secured by both A and B is, likewise, rescindable.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(a)(2)
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<P>1. <I>Consumer's exercise of right.</I> The consumer must exercise the right of rescission in writing but not necessarily on the notice supplied under § 1026.15(b). Whatever the means of sending the notification of rescission—mail, telegram or other written means—the time period for the creditor's performance under § 1026.15(d)(2) does not begin to run until the notification has been received. The creditor may designate an agent to receive the notification so long as the agent's name and address appear on the notice provided to the consumer under § 1026.15(b). Where the creditor fails to provide the consumer with a designated address for sending the notification of rescission, delivery of the notification to the person or address to which the consumer has been directed to send payments constitutes delivery to the creditor or assignee. State law determines whether delivery of the notification to a third party other than the person to whom payments are made is delivery to the creditor or assignee, in the case where the creditor fails to designate an address for sending the notification of rescission.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(a)(3)
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<P>1. <I>Rescission period.</I> i. The period within which the consumer may exercise the right to rescind runs for 3 business days from the last of 3 events:
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<P>A. The occurrence that gives rise to the right of rescission.
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<P>B. Delivery of <I>all</I> material disclosures that are relevant to the plan.
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<P>C. Delivery to the consumer of the required rescission notice.
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<P>ii. For example, an account is opened on Friday, June 1, and the disclosures and notice of the right to rescind were given on Thursday, May 31; the rescission period will expire at midnight of the third business day after June 1—that is, Tuesday June 5. In another example, if the disclosures are given and the account is opened on Friday, June 1, and the rescission notice is given on Monday, June 4, the rescission period expires at midnight of the third business day after June 4—that is Thursday, June 7. The consumer must place the rescission notice in the mail, file it for telegraphic transmission, or deliver it to the creditor's place of business within that period in order to exercise the right.
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<P>2. <I>Material disclosures.</I> Section 1026.15(a)(3) sets forth the material disclosures that must be provided before the rescission period can begin to run. The creditor must provide sufficient information to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.6 for these disclosures. A creditor may satisfy this requirement by giving an initial disclosure statement that complies with the regulation. Failure to give the other required initial disclosures (such as the billing rights statement) or the information required under § 1026.40 does not prevent the running of the rescission period, although that failure may result in civil liability or administrative sanctions. The payment terms set forth in § 1026.15(a)(3) apply to any repayment phase set forth in the agreement. Thus, the payment terms described in § 1026.6(e)(2) for any repayment phase as well as for the draw period are “material disclosures.”
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<P>3. <I>Material disclosures—variable rate program.</I> For a variable rate program, the material disclosures also include the disclosures listed in § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii): the circumstances under which the rate may increase; the limitations on the increase; and the effect of an increase. The disclosures listed in § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) for any repayment phase also are material disclosures for variable-rate programs.
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<P>4. <I>Unexpired right of rescission.</I> i. When the creditor has failed to take the action necessary to start the three-day rescission period running the right to rescind automatically lapses on the occurrence of the earliest of the following three events:
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<P>A. The expiration of three years after the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission.
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<P>B. Transfer of all the consumer's interest in the property.
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<P>C. Sale of the consumer's interest in the property, including a transaction in which the consumer sells the dwelling and takes back a purchase money note and mortgage or retains legal title through a device such as an installment sale contract.
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<P>ii. Transfer of all the consumer's interest includes such transfers as bequests and gifts. A sale or transfer of the property need not be voluntary to terminate the right to rescind. For example, a foreclosure sale would terminate an unexpired right to rescind. As provided in section 125 of the Act, the three-year limit may be extended by an administrative proceeding to enforce the provisions of § 1026.15. A partial transfer of the consumer's interest, such as a transfer bestowing co-ownership on a spouse, does not terminate the right of rescission.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(a)(4)
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<P>1. <I>Joint owners.</I> When more than one consumer has the right to rescind a transaction, any one of them may exercise that right and cancel the transaction on behalf of all. For example, if both a husband and wife have the right to rescind a transaction, either spouse acting alone may exercise the right and both are bound by the rescission.
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<HD3>15(b) Notice of Right To Rescind
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<P>1. <I>Who receives notice.</I> Each consumer entitled to rescind must be given two copies of the rescission notice and the material disclosures.In a transaction involving joint owners, both of whom are entitled to rescind, both must receive the notice of the right to rescind and disclosures. For example, if both spouses are entitled to rescind a transaction, each must receive two copies of the rescission notice (one copy to each if the notice is provided in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act) and one copy of the disclosures.
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<P>2. <I>Format.</I> The rescission notice may be physically separated from the material disclosures or combined with the material disclosures, so long as the information required to be included on the notice is set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner. See the model notices in appendix G.
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<P>3. <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all of the information outlined in § 1026.15(b)(1) through (5). The requirement in § 1026.15(b) that the transaction or occurrence be identified may be met by providing the date of the transaction or occurrence. The notice may include additional information related to the required information, such as:
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<P>i. A description of the property subject to the security interest.
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<P>ii. A statement that joint owners may have the right to rescind and that a rescission by one is effective for all.
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<P>iii. The name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of rescission.
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<P>4. <I>Time of providing notice.</I> The notice required by § 1026.15(b) need not be given before the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission. The creditor may deliver the notice after the occurrence, but the rescission period will not begin to run until the notice is given. For example, if the creditor provides the notice on May 15, but disclosures were given and the credit limit was raised on May 10, the 3-business-day rescission period will run from May 15.
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<HD3>15(c) Delay of Creditor's Performance
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<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> i. Until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded, the creditor must not, either directly or through a third party:
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<P>A. Disburse advances to the consumer.
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<P>B. Begin performing services for the consumer.
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<P>C. Deliver materials to the consumer.
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<P>ii. A creditor may, however, continue to allow transactions under an existing open-end credit plan during a rescission period that results solely from the addition of a security interest in the consumer's principal dwelling. (See comment 15(c)-3 for other actions that may be taken during the delay period.)
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<P>2. <I>Escrow.</I> The creditor may disburse advances during the rescission period in a valid escrow arrangement. The creditor may not, however, appoint the consumer as “trustee” or “escrow agent” and distribute funds to the consumer in that capacity during the delay period.
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<P>3. <I>Actions during the delay period.</I> Section 1026.15(c) does not prevent the creditor from taking other steps during the delay, short of beginning actual performance. Unless otherwise prohibited, such as by state law, the creditor may, for example:
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<P>i. Prepare the cash advance check.
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<P>ii. Perfect the security interest.
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<P>iii. Accrue finance charges during the delay period.
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<P>4. <I>Performance by third party.</I> The creditor is relieved from liability for failure to delay performance if a third party with no knowledge that the rescission right has been activated provides materials or services, as long as any debt incurred for materials or services obtained by the consumer during the rescission period is not secured by the security interest in the consumer's dwelling. For example, if a consumer uses a bank credit card to purchase materials from a merchant in an amount below the floor limit, the merchant might not contact the card issuer for authorization and therefore would not know that materials should not be provided.
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<P>5. <I>Delay beyond rescission period.</I> i. The creditor must wait until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by doing one of the following:
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<P>A. Waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the rescission period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice.
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<P>B. Obtaining a written statement from the consumer that the right has not been exercised.
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<P>ii. When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the creditor cannot reasonably rely on the assurance of only one consumer, because other consumers may exercise the right.
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<HD3>15(d) Effects of Rescission
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(1)
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<P>1. <I>Termination of security interest.</I> Any security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void when the consumer exercises the right of rescission. The security interest is automatically negated, regardless of its status and whether or not it was recorded or perfected. Under § 1026.15(d)(2), however, the creditor must take any action necessary to reflect the fact that the security interest no longer exists.
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<P>2. <I>Extent of termination.</I> The creditor's security interest is void to the extent that it is related to the occurrence giving rise to the right of rescission. For example, upon rescission:
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<P>i. If the consumer's right to rescind is activated by the opening of a plan, any security interest in the principal dwelling is void.
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<P>ii. If the right arises due to an increase in the credit limit, the security interest is void as to the amount of credit extensions over the prior limit, but the security interest in amounts up to the original credit limit is unaffected.
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<P>iii. If the right arises with each individual credit extension, then the interest is void as to that extension, and other extensions are unaffected.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(2)
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<P>1. <I>Refunds to consumer.</I> The consumer cannot be required to pay any amount in the form of money or property either to the creditor or to a third party as part of the occurrence subject to the right of rescission. Any amounts of this nature already paid by the consumer must be refunded. “Any amount” includes finance charges already accrued, as well as other charges such as broker fees, application and commitment fees, or fees for a title search or appraisal, whether paid to the creditor, paid by the consumer directly to a third party, or passed on from the creditor to the third party. It is irrelevant that these amounts may not represent profit to the creditor. For example:
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<P>i. If the occurrence is the opening of the plan, the creditor must return any membership or application fee paid.
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<P>ii. If the occurrence is the increase in a credit limit or the addition of a security interest, the creditor must return any fee imposed for a new credit report or filing fees.
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<P>iii. If the occurrence is a credit extension, the creditors must return fees such as application, title, and appraisal or survey fees, as well as any finance charges related to the credit extension.
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<P>2. <I>Amounts not refundable to consumer.</I> Creditors need not return any money given by the consumer to a third party outside of the occurrence, such as costs incurred for a building permit or for a zoning variance. Similarly, the term <I>any amount</I> does not apply to money or property given by the creditor to the consumer; those amounts must be tendered by the consumer to the creditor under § 1026.15(d)(3).
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<P>3. <I>Reflection of security interest termination.</I> The creditor must take whatever steps are necessary to indicate that the security interest is terminated. Those steps include the cancellation of documents creating the security interest, and the filing of release or termination statements in the public record. In a transaction involving subcontractors or suppliers that also hold security interests related to the occurrence rescinded by the consumer, the creditor must insure that the termination of their security interests is also reflected. The 20-day period for the creditor's action refers to the time within which the creditor must begin the process. It does not require all necessary steps to have been completed within that time, but the creditor is responsible for seeing the process through to completion.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(3)
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<P>1. <I>Property exchange.</I> Once the creditor has fulfilled its obligation under § 1026.15(d)(2), the consumer must tender to the creditor any property or money the creditor has already delivered to the consumer. At the consumer's option, property may be tendered at the location of the property. For example, if fixtures or furniture have been delivered to the consumer's home, the consumer may tender them to the creditor by making them available for pick-up at the home, rather than physically returning them to the creditor's premises. Money already given to the consumer <I>must</I> be tendered at the creditor's place of business. For purpose of property exchange, the following additional rules apply:
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<P>i. A cash advance is considered money for purposes of this section even if the creditor knows what the consumer intends to purchase with the money.
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<P>ii. In a 3-party open-end credit plan (that is, if the creditor and seller are not the same or related persons), extensions by the creditor that are used by the consumer for purchases from third-party sellers are considered to be the same as cash advances for purposes of tendering value to the creditor, even though the transaction is a purchase for other purposes under the regulation. For example, if a consumer exercises the unexpired right to rescind after using a 3-party credit card for one year, the consumer would tender the amount of the purchase price for the items charged to the account, rather than tendering the items themselves to the creditor.
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<P>2. <I>Reasonable value.</I> If returning the property would be extremely burdensome to the consumer, the consumer may offer the creditor its reasonable value rather than returning the property itself. For example, if building materials have already been incorporated into the consumer's dwelling, the consumer may pay their reasonable value.
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<HD3>Paragraph 15(d)(4)
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<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> The procedures outlined in § 1026.15(d)(2) and (3) may be modified by a court. For example, when a consumer is in bankruptcy proceedings and prohibited from returning anything to the creditor, or when the equities dictate, a modification might be made. The sequence of procedures under § 1026.15(d)(2) and (3), or a court's modification of those procedures under § 1026.15(d)(4), does not affect a consumer's substantive right to rescind and to have the loan amount adjusted accordingly. Where the consumer's right to rescind is contested by the creditor, a court would normally determine whether the consumer has a right to rescind and determine the amounts owed before establishing the procedures for the parties to tender any money or property.
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<HD3>15(e) Consumer's Waiver of Right To Rescind
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<P>1. <I>Need for waiver.</I> To waive the right to rescind, the consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that must be met before the end of the rescission period. The existence of the consumer's waiver will not, of itself, automatically insulate the creditor from liability for failing to provide the right of rescission.
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<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> To waive or modify the right to rescind, the consumer must give a written statement that specifically waives or modifies the right, and also includes a brief description of the emergency. Each consumer entitled to rescind must sign the waiver statement. In a transaction involving multiple consumers, such as a husband and wife using their home as collateral, the waiver must bear the signatures of both spouses.
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<HD3>15(f) Exempt Transactions
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<P>1. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> Although residential mortgage transactions would seldom be made on bona fide open-end credit plans (under which repeated transactions must be reasonably contemplated), an advance on an open-end plan could be for a downpayment for the purchase of a dwelling that would then secure the remainder of the line. In such a case, only the particular advance for the downpayment would be exempt from the rescission right.
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<P>2. <I>State creditors.</I> Cities and other political subdivisions of states acting as creditors are not exempt from § 1026.15.
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<P>3. <I>Spreader clause.</I> When the creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's principal dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a “spreader clause” (also known as a “dragnet” or cross-collateralization clause), subsequent occurrences such as the opening of a plan or individual credit extensions are subject to the right of rescission to the same degree as if the security interest were taken directly to secure the open-end plan, unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent open-end credit extensions.
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<HD2>Section 1026.16—Advertising
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<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—general.</I> Section 1026.16 is subject to the general “clear and conspicuous” standard for subpart B (<I>see</I> § 1026.5(a)(1)) but prescribes no specific rules for the format of the necessary disclosures, other than the format requirements related to the disclosure of a promotional rate or payment under § 1026.16(d)(6), a promotional rate or promotional fee under § 1026.16(g), or a deferred interest or similar offer under § 1026.16(h). Other than the disclosure of certain terms described in §§ 1026.16(d)(6), (g), or (h), the credit terms need not be printed in a certain type size nor need they appear in any particular place in the advertisement.
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<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—promotional rates or payments; deferred interest or similar offers.</I> i. For purposes of § 1026.16(d)(6), a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in § 1026.16(d)(6)(ii)(A)-(C) is disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the promotional rate or payment to which it applies. If the information in § 1026.16(d)(6)(ii)(A)-(C) is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the promotional rate or payment to which it applies, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent and in close proximity. Notwithstanding the above, for electronic advertisements that disclose promotional rates or payments, compliance with the requirements of § 1026.16(c) is deemed to satisfy the clear and conspicuous standard.
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<P>ii. For purposes of § 1026.16(g)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements only, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means the required information in § 1026.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) must be equally prominent to the promotional rate or promotional fee to which it applies. If the information in § 1026.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) is the same type size as the promotional rate or promotional fee to which it applies, the disclosures would be deemed to be equally prominent. For purposes of § 1026.16(h)(3) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements only, a clear and conspicuous disclosure means the required information in § 1026.16(h)(3) must be equally prominent to each statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period. If the information required to be disclosed under § 1026.16(h)(3) is the same type size as the statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period, the disclosure would be deemed to be equally prominent.
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<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—Internet advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure for visual text advertisements on the Internet for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 1026.16(d). (See also comment 16(c)(1)-2.)
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<P>4. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—televised advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 1026.16(e), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of visual text advertisements on television for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40 means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices, are displayed in a manner that allows for a consumer to read the information required to be disclosed, and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 1026.16(d). For example, very fine print in a television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read the information required to be disclosed.
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<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—oral advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 1026.16(e), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of an oral advertisement for home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, whether by radio, television, the Internet, or other medium, means that the required disclosures are given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. For example, information stated very rapidly at a low volume in a radio or television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot hear and comprehend the information required to be disclosed.
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<P>6. <I>Expressing the annual percentage rate in abbreviated form.</I> Whenever the annual percentage rate is used in an advertisement for open-end credit, it may be expressed using a readily understandable abbreviation such as APR.
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<HD3>16(a) Actually Available Terms
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<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> To the extent that an advertisement mentions specific credit terms, it may state only those terms that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not advertise a very low annual percentage rate that will not in fact be available at any time. Section 1026.16(a) is not intended to inhibit the promotion of new credit programs, but to bar the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. For example, a creditor may advertise terms that will be offered for only a limited period, or terms that will become available at a future date.
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<P>2. <I>Specific credit terms. Specific credit terms</I> is not limited to the disclosures required by the regulation but would include any specific components of a credit plan, such as the minimum periodic payment amount or seller's points in a plan secured by real estate.
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<HD3>16(b) Advertisement of Terms That Require Additional Disclosures
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<HD3>Paragraph 16(b)(1)
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<P>1. <I>Triggering terms.</I> Negative as well as affirmative references trigger the requirement for additional information. For example, if a creditor states <I>no interest</I> or <I>no annual membership fee</I> in an advertisement, additional information must be provided. Other examples of terms that trigger additional disclosures are:
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<P>i. <I>Small monthly service charge on the remaining balance,</I> which describes how the amount of a finance charge will be determined.
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<P>ii. <I>12 percent Annual Percentage Rate</I> or <I>A $15 annual membership fee buys you $2,000 in credit,</I> which describe required disclosures under § 1026.6.
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<P>2. <I>Implicit terms.</I> Section 1026.16(b) applies even if the triggering term is not stated explicitly, but may be readily determined from the advertisement.
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<P>3. <I>Membership fees.</I> A membership fee is not a triggering term nor need it be disclosed under § 1026.16(b)(1)(iii) if it is required for participation in the plan whether or not an open-end credit feature is attached. (See comment 6(a)(2)-1 and § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(B).)
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<P>4. <I>Deferred billing and deferred payment programs.</I> Statements such as “Charge it—you won't be billed until May” or “You may skip your January payment” are not in themselves triggering terms, since the timing for initial billing or for monthly payments are not terms required to be disclosed under § 1026.6. However, a statement such as “No interest charges until May” or any other statement regarding when interest or finance charges begin to accrue is a triggering term, whether appearing alone or in conjunction with a description of a deferred billing or deferred payment program such as the examples above.
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<P>5. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> In disclosing the annual percentage rate in an advertisement for a variable-rate plan, as required by § 1026.16(b)(1)(ii), the creditor may use an insert showing the current rate; or may give the rate as of a specified recent date. The additional requirement in § 1026.16(b)(1)(ii) to disclose the variable-rate feature may be satisfied by disclosing that the annual percentage rate may vary or a similar statement, but the advertisement need not include the information required by § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) or (b)(4)(ii).
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<P>6. <I>Membership fees for open-end (not home-secured) plans.</I> For purposes of § 1026.16(b)(1)(iii), membership fees that may be imposed on open-end (not home-secured) plans shall have the same meaning as in § 1026.60(b)(2).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 16(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Assumptions.</I> In stating the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation, assuming that the consumer pays only the periodic payment amounts advertised, as required under § 1026.16(b)(2), the following additional assumptions may be made:
</P>
<P>i. Payments are made timely so as not to be considered late by the creditor;
</P>
<P>ii. Payments are made each period, and no debt cancellation or suspension agreement, or skip payment feature applies to the account;
</P>
<P>iii. No interest rate changes will affect the account;
</P>
<P>iv. No other balances are currently carried or will be carried on the account;
</P>
<P>v. No taxes or ancillary charges are or will be added to the obligation;
</P>
<P>vi. Goods or services are delivered on a single date; and
</P>
<P>vii. The consumer is not currently and will not become delinquent on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Positive periodic payment amounts.</I> Only positive periodic payment amounts trigger the additional disclosures under § 1026.16(b)(2). Therefore, if the periodic payment amount advertised is not a positive amount (e.g., “No payments”), the advertisement need not state the total of payments and the time period to repay the obligation.
</P>
<HD3>16(c) Catalogs or Other Multiple-Page Advertisements; Electronic Advertisements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The multiple-page advertisements to which § 1026.16(c) refers are advertisements consisting of a series of sequentially numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing consisting of several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope does not constitute a single multiple-page advertisement for purposes of § 1026.16(c).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 16(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.16(c)(1) permits creditors to put credit information together in one place in a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site). The rule applies only if the advertisement contains one or more of the triggering terms from § 1026.16(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic advertisement.</I> If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) contains the table or schedule permitted under § 1026.16(c)(1), any statement of terms set forth in § 1026.6 appearing anywhere else in the advertisement must clearly direct the consumer to the location where the table or schedule begins. For example, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 16(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Table or schedule if credit terms depend on outstanding balance.</I> If the credit terms of a plan vary depending on the amount of the balance outstanding, rather than the amount of any property purchased, a table or schedule complies with § 1026.16(c)(2) if it includes the required disclosures for representative balances. For example, a creditor would disclose that a periodic rate of 1.5% is applied to balances of $500 or less, and a 1% rate is applied to balances greater than $500.
</P>
<HD3>16(d) Additional Requirements for Home-Equity Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Trigger terms.</I> Negative as well as affirmative references trigger the requirement for additional information. For example, if a creditor states <I>no annual fee, no points,</I> or <I>we waive closing costs</I> in an advertisement, additional information must be provided. (<I>See</I> comment 16(d)-4 regarding the use of a phrase such as <I>no closing costs.</I>) Inclusion of a statement such as <I>low fees,</I> however, would not trigger the need to state additional information. References to payment terms include references to the draw period or any repayment period, to the length of the plan, to how the minimum payments are determined and to the timing of such payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees to open the plan.</I> Section 1026.16(d)(1)(i) requires a disclosure of any fees imposed by the creditor or a third party to open the plan. In providing the fee information required under this paragraph, the corresponding rules for disclosure of this information apply. For example, fees to open the plan may be stated as a range. Similarly, if property insurance is required to open the plan, a creditor either may estimate the cost of the insurance or provide a statement that such insurance is required. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(7) and (d)(8).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements of tax deductibility.</I> An advertisement that refers to deductibility for tax purposes is not misleading if it includes a statement such as “consult a tax advisor regarding the deductibility of interest.” An advertisement distributed in paper form or through the Internet (rather than by radio or television) that states that the advertised extension of credit may exceed the fair market value of the consumer's dwelling is not misleading if it clearly and conspicuously states the required information in §§ 1026.16(d)(4)(i) and (d)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Misleading terms prohibited.</I> Under § 1026.16(d)(5), advertisements may not refer to home-equity plans as <I>free money</I> or use other misleading terms. For example, an advertisement could not state “no closing costs” or “we waive closing costs” if consumers may be required to pay any closing costs, such as recordation fees. In the case of property insurance, however, a creditor may state, for example, “no closing costs” even if property insurance may be required, as long as the creditor also provides a statement that such insurance may be required. (<I>See</I> the commentary to this section regarding fees to open a plan.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Promotional rates and payments in advertisements for home-equity plans.</I> Section 1026.16(d)(6) requires additional disclosures for promotional rates or payments.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate plans, if the advertised annual percentage rate is based on (or the advertised payment is derived from) the index and margin that will be used to make rate (or payment) adjustments over the term of the loan, then there is no promotional rate or promotional payment. If, however, the advertised annual percentage rate is not based on (or the advertised payment is not derived from) the index and margin that will be used to make rate (or payment) adjustments, and a reasonably current application of the index and margin would result in a higher annual percentage rate (or, given an assumed balance, a higher payment) then there is a promotional rate or promotional payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Equal prominence, close proximity.</I> Information required to be disclosed in § 1026.16(d)(6)(ii) that is immediately next to or directly above or below the promotional rate or payment (but not in a footnote) is deemed to be closely proximate to the listing. Information required to be disclosed in § 1026.16(d)(6)(ii) that is in the same type size as the promotional rate or payment is deemed to be equally prominent.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Amounts and time periods of payments.</I> Section 1026.16(d)(6)(ii)(C) requires disclosure of the amount and time periods of any payments that will apply under the plan. This section may require disclosure of several payment amounts, including any balloon payment. For example, if an advertisement for a home-equity plan offers a $100,000 five-year line of credit and assumes that the entire line is drawn resulting in a minimum payment of $800 per month for the first six months, increasing to $1,000 per month after month six, followed by a $50,000 balloon payment after five years, the advertisement must disclose the amount and time period of each of the two monthly payment streams, as well as the amount and timing of the balloon payment, with equal prominence and in close proximity to the promotional payment. However, if the final payment could not be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments, the final payment need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Plans other than variable-rate plans.</I> For a plan other than a variable-rate plan, if an advertised payment is calculated in the same way as other payments based on an assumed balance, the fact that the minimum payment could increase solely if the consumer made an additional draw does not make the payment a promotional payment. For example, if a payment of $500 results from an assumed $10,000 draw, and the payment would increase to $1,000 if the consumer made an additional $10,000 draw, the payment is not a promotional payment.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Conversion option.</I> Some home-equity plans permit the consumer to repay all or part of the balance during the draw period at a fixed rate (rather than a variable rate) and over a specified time period. The fixed-rate conversion option does not, by itself, make the rate or payment that would apply if the consumer exercised the fixed-rate conversion option a promotional rate or payment.
</P>
<P>vi. <I>Preferred-rate provisions.</I> Some home-equity plans contain a preferred-rate provision, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the consumer-employee leaving the creditor's employ, the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor, or the consumer revoking an election to make automated payments. A preferred-rate provision does not, by itself, make the rate or payment under the preferred-rate provision a promotional rate or payment.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reasonably current index and margin.</I> For the purposes of this section, an index and margin is considered reasonably current if:
</P>
<P>i. For direct mail advertisements, it was in effect within 60 days before mailing;
</P>
<P>ii. For advertisements in electronic form it was in effect within 30 days before the advertisement is sent to a consumer's email address, or in the case of an advertisement made on an Internet Web site, when viewed by the public; or
</P>
<P>iii. For printed advertisements made available to the general public, including ones contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication, it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> Advertisements for home-equity plans must comply with all provisions in § 1026.16, not solely the rules in § 1026.16(d). If an advertisement contains information (such as the payment terms) that triggers the duty under § 1026.16(d) to state the annual percentage rate, the additional disclosures in § 1026.16(b) must be provided in the advertisement. While § 1026.16(d) does not require a statement of fees to use or maintain the plan (such as membership fees and transaction charges), such fees must be disclosed under § 1026.16(b)(1)(i) and (b)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Inapplicability of closed-end rules.</I> Advertisements for home-equity plans are governed solely by the requirements in § 1026.16, except § 1026.16(g), and not by the closed-end advertising rules in § 1026.24. Thus, if a creditor states payment information about the repayment phase, this will trigger the duty to provide additional information under § 1026.16, but not under § 1026.24.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Balloon payment. See</I> comment 40(d)(5)(ii)-3 for information not required to be stated in advertisements, and on situations in which the balloon payment requirement does not apply.
</P>
<HD3>16(e) Alternative Disclosures—Television or Radio Advertisements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multi-purpose telephone number.</I> When an advertised telephone number provides a recording, disclosures must be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several options—such as providing directions to the advertiser's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement accompanying toll free number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the telephone number, such as “call 1-(800) 000-0000 for details about credit costs and terms.”
</P>
<HD3>16(g) Promotional Rates and Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rate in effect at the end of the promotional period.</I> If the annual percentage rate that will be in effect at the end of the promotional period (<I>i.e.,</I> the post-promotional rate) is a variable rate, the post-promotional rate for purposes of § 1026.16(g)(2)(i) is the rate that would have applied at the time the promotional rate was advertised if the promotional rate was not offered, consistent with the accuracy requirements in § 1026.60(c)(2) and (e)(4), as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, including the term “introductory” or “intro” in the same phrase as the listing of the introductory rate or introductory fee is deemed to be in immediate proximity of the listing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prominent location closely proximate.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, information required to be disclosed in § 1026.16(g)(4)(i) and, as applicable, (g)(4)(ii) and (g)(4)(iii) that is in the same paragraph as the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is deemed to be in a prominent location closely proximate to the listing. Information disclosed in a footnote will not be considered in a prominent location closely proximate to the listing.
</P>
<P>4. <I>First listing.</I> For purposes of § 1026.16(g)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements, the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document. The principal promotional document is the document designed to be seen first by the consumer in a mailing, such as a cover letter or solicitation letter. If the promotional rate or promotional fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document, then the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the subsequent pages of the principal promotional document. If the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document, the first listing is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the front side of the first page of each document listing the promotional rate or promotional fee. If the promotional rate or promotional fee does not appear on the front side of the first page of a document, then the first listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee is the most prominent listing of the rate or fee on the subsequent pages of the document. If the listing of the promotional rate or promotional fee with the largest type size on the front side of the first page (or subsequent pages if the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the front side of the first page) of the principal promotional document (or each document listing the promotional rate or promotional fee if the promotional rate or promotional fee is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document) is used as the most prominent listing, it will be deemed to be the first listing. Consistent with comment 16(c)-1, a catalog or multiple-page advertisement is considered one document for purposes of § 1026.16(g)(4).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Post-promotional rate depends on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> For purposes of disclosing the rate that may apply after the end of the promotional rate period, at the advertiser's option, the advertisement may disclose the rates that may apply as either specific rates, or a range of rates. For example, if there are three rates that may apply (9.99%, 12.99% or 17.99%), an issuer may disclose these three rates as specific rates (9.99%, 12.99% or 17.99%) or as a range of rates (9.99%-17.99%).
</P>
<HD3>16(h) Deferred Interest or Similar Offers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Deferred interest or similar offers clarified.</I> Deferred interest or similar offers do not include offers that allow a consumer to skip payments during a specified period of time, and under which the consumer is not obligated under any circumstances for any interest or other finance charges that could be attributable to that period. Deferred interest or similar offers also do not include 0% annual percentage rate offers where a consumer is not obligated under any circumstances for interest attributable to the time period the 0% annual percentage rate was in effect, though such offers may be considered promotional rates under § 1026.16(g)(2)(i). Deferred interest or similar offers also do not include skip payment programs that have no required minimum payment for one or more billing cycles but where interest continues to accrue and is imposed during that period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Deferred interest period clarified.</I> Although the terms of an advertised deferred interest or similar offer may provide that a creditor may charge the accrued interest if the balance is not paid in full by a certain date, creditors sometimes have an informal policy or practice that delays charging the accrued interest for payment received a brief period of time after the date upon which a creditor has the contractual right to charge the accrued interest. The advertisement need not include the end of an informal “courtesy period” in disclosing the deferred interest period under § 1026.16(h)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, including the deferred interest period in the same phrase as the statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” or “same as cash” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is deemed to be in immediate proximity of the statement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prominent location closely proximate.</I> For written or electronic advertisements, information required to be disclosed in § 1026.16(h)(4)(i) and (ii) that is in the same paragraph as the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” or “same as cash” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is deemed to be in a prominent location closely proximate to the statement. Information disclosed in a footnote is not considered in a prominent location closely proximate to the statement.
</P>
<P>5. <I>First listing.</I> For purposes of § 1026.16(h)(4) as it applies to written or electronic advertisements, the first statement of “no interest,” “no payments,” “deferred interest,” “same as cash,” or similar term regarding interest or payments during the deferred interest period is the most prominent listing of one of these statements on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document. The principal promotional document is the document designed to be seen first by the consumer in a mailing, such as a cover letter or solicitation letter. If one of the statements does not appear on the front side of the first page of the principal promotional document, then the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of a statement on the subsequent pages of the principal promotional document. If one of the statements is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document, the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of the statement on the front side of the first page of each document containing one of these statements. If one of the statements does not appear on the front side of the first page of a document, then the first listing of one of these statements is the most prominent listing of a statement on the subsequent pages of the document. If the listing of one of these statements with the largest type size on the front side of the first page (or subsequent pages if one of these statements is not listed on the front side of the first page) of the principal promotional document (or each document listing one of these statements if a statement is not listed on the principal promotional document or there is no principal promotional document) is used as the most prominent listing, it will be deemed to be the first listing. Consistent with comment 16(c)-1, a catalog or multiple-page advertisement is considered one document for purposes of § 1026.16(h)(4).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional information.</I> Consistent with comment 5(a)-2, the information required under § 1026.16(h)(4) need not be segregated from other information regarding the deferred interest or similar offer. Advertisements may also be required to provide additional information pursuant to § 1026.16(b) though such information need not be integrated with the information required under § 1026.16(h)(4).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of disclosures that could be used to comply with the requirements of § 1026.16(h)(3) include: “no interest if paid in full within 6 months” and “no interest if paid in full by December 31, 2010.”
</P>
<HD1>Subpart C—Closed-End Credit
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.17—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Rules for certain mortgage disclosures.</I> Section 1026.17(a) and (b) does not apply to the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e), (f), and (g), and § 1026.20(e). For the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e), (f), and (g), rules regarding the disclosures' form are found in §§ 1026.19(g), 1026.37(o), and 1026.38(t) and rules regarding timing are found in § 1026.19(e), (f), and (g). For the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e), rules regarding the disclosures' form are found in § 1026.20(e)(4) and rules regarding timing are found in § 1026.20(e)(5).


</P>
<HD3>17(a) Form of Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> This standard requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form. For example, while the regulation requires no mathematical progression or format, the disclosures must be presented in a way that does not obscure the relationship of the terms to each other. In addition, although no minimum type size is mandated (except for the interest rate and payment summary for mortgage transactions required by § 1026.18(s)), the disclosures must be legible, whether typewritten, handwritten, or printed by computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Segregation of disclosures.</I> i. The disclosures may be grouped together and segregated from other information in a variety of ways. For example, the disclosures may appear on a separate sheet of paper or may be set off from other information on the contract or other documents:
</P>
<P>A. By outlining them in a box.
</P>
<P>B. By bold print dividing lines.
</P>
<P>C. By a different color background.
</P>
<P>D. By a different type style.
</P>
<P>ii. The general segregation requirement described in this subparagraph does not apply to the disclosures required under § 1026.19(b) although the disclosures must be clear and conspicuous.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Location.</I> The regulation imposes no specific location requirements on the segregated disclosures. For example:
</P>
<P>i. They may appear on a disclosure statement separate from all other material.
</P>
<P>ii. They may be placed on the same document with the credit contract or other information, so long as they are segregated from that information.
</P>
<P>iii. They may be shown on the front or back of a document.
</P>
<P>iv. They need not begin at the top of a page.
</P>
<P>v. They may be continued from one page to another.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Content of segregated disclosures.</I> Section 1026.17(a)(1) contains exceptions to the requirement that the disclosures under § 1026.18 be segregated from material that is not directly related to those disclosures. Section 1026.17(a)(1) lists the items that may be added to the segregated disclosures, even though not directly related to those disclosures. The section also lists the items required under § 1026.18 that may be deleted from the segregated disclosures and appear elsewhere. Any one or more of these additions or deletions may be combined and appear either together with or separate from the segregated disclosures. The itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c), however, must be separate from the other segregated disclosures under § 1026.18, except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47. If a creditor chooses to include the security interest charges required to be itemized under § 1026.4(e) and § 1026.18(o) in the amount financed itemization, it need not list these charges elsewhere.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Directly related.</I> The segregated disclosures may, at the creditor's option, include any information that is directly related to those disclosures. The following is directly related information:
</P>
<P>i. A description of a grace period after which a late payment charge will be imposed. For example, the disclosure given under § 1026.18(l) may state that a late charge will apply to “any payment received more than 15 days after the due date.”
</P>
<P>ii. A statement that the transaction is not secured. For example, the creditor may add a category labeled “unsecured” or “not secured” to the security interest disclosures given under § 1026.18(m).
</P>
<P>iii. The basis for any estimates used in making disclosures. For example, if the maturity date of a loan depends solely on the occurrence of a future event, the creditor may indicate that the disclosures assume that event will occur at a certain time.
</P>
<P>iv. The conditions under which a demand feature may be exercised. For example, in a loan subject to demand after five years, the disclosures may state that the loan will become payable on demand in five years.
</P>
<P>v. An explanation of the use of pronouns or other references to the parties to the transaction. For example, the disclosures may state, “ ‘You’ refers to the customer and ‘we’ refers to the creditor.”
</P>
<P>vi. Instructions to the creditor or its employees on the use of a multiple-purpose form. For example, the disclosures may state, “Check box if applicable.”
</P>
<P>vii. A statement that the borrower may pay a minimum finance charge upon prepayment in a simple-interest transaction. For example, when state law prohibits penalties, but would allow a minimum finance charge in the event of prepayment, the creditor may make the § 1026.18(k)(1) disclosure by stating, “You may be charged a minimum finance charge.”
</P>
<P>viii. A brief reference to negative amortization in variable-rate transactions. For example, in the variable-rate disclosure, the creditor may include a short statement such as “Unpaid interest will be added to principal.” (See the commentary to § 1026.18(f)(1)(iii).)
</P>
<P>ix. A brief caption identifying the disclosures. For example, the disclosures may bear a general title such as “Federal Truth in Lending Disclosures” or a descriptive title such as “Real Estate Loan Disclosures.”
</P>
<P>x. A statement that a due-on-sale clause or other conditions on assumption are contained in the loan document. For example, the disclosure given under § 1026.18(q) may state, “Someone buying your home may, subject to conditions in the due-on-sale clause contained in the loan document, assume the remainder of the mortgage on the original terms.”
</P>
<P>xi. If a state or Federal law prohibits prepayment penalties and excludes the charging of interest after prepayment from coverage as a penalty, a statement that the borrower may have to pay interest for some period after prepayment in full. The disclosure given under § 1026.18(k) may state, for example, “If you prepay your loan on other than the regular installment date, you may be assessed interest charges until the end of the month.”
</P>
<P>xii. More than one hypothetical example under § 1026.18(f)(1)(iv) in transactions with more than one variable-rate feature. For example, in a variable-rate transaction with an option permitting consumers to convert to a fixed-rate transaction, the disclosures may include an example illustrating the effects on the payment terms of an increase resulting from conversion in addition to the example illustrating an increase resulting from changes in the index.
</P>
<P>xiii. The disclosures set forth under § 1026.18(f)(1) for variable-rate transactions subject to § 1026.18(f)(2).
</P>
<P>xiv. A statement whether or not a subsequent purchaser of the property securing an obligation may be permitted to assume the remaining obligation on its original terms.
</P>
<P>xv. A late-payment fee disclosure under § 1026.18(l) on a single payment loan.
</P>
<P>xvi. The notice set forth in § 1026.19(a)(4), in a closed-end transaction not subject to § 1026.19(a)(1)(i). In a mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.19(a)(1)(i), the creditor must disclose the notice contained in § 1026.19(a)(4) grouped together with the disclosures made under § 1026.18. <I>See</I> comment 19(a)(4)-1.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple-purpose forms.</I> The creditor may design a disclosure statement that can be used for more than one type of transaction, so long as the required disclosures for individual transactions are clear and conspicuous. (See the commentary to Appendices G and H for a discussion of the treatment of disclosures that do not apply to specific transactions.) Any disclosure listed in § 1026.18 (except the itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c) for transactions other than private education loans) may be included on a standard disclosure statement even though not all of the creditor's transactions include those features. For example, the statement may include:
</P>
<P>i. The variable rate disclosure under § 1026.18(f).
</P>
<P>ii. The demand feature disclosure under § 1026.18(i).
</P>
<P>iii. A reference to the possibility of a security interest arising from a spreader clause, under § 1026.18(m).
</P>
<P>iv. The assumption policy disclosure under § 1026.18(q).
</P>
<P>v. The required deposit disclosure under § 1026.18(r).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Balloon payment financing with leasing characteristics.</I> In certain credit sale or loan transactions, a consumer may reduce the dollar amount of the payments to be made during the course of the transaction by agreeing to make, at the end of the loan term, a large final payment based on the expected residual value of the property. The consumer may have a number of options with respect to the final payment, including, among other things, retaining the property and making the final payment, refinancing the final payment, or transferring the property to the creditor in lieu of the final payment. Such transactions may have some of the characteristics of lease transactions subject to Regulation M (12 CFR Part 1013), but are considered credit transactions where the consumer assumes the indicia of ownership, including the risks, burdens and benefits of ownership, upon consummation. These transactions are governed by the disclosure requirements of this part instead of Regulation M. Creditors should not include in the segregated Truth in Lending disclosures additional information. Thus, disclosures should show the large final payment in the payment schedule or interest rate and payment summary table under § 1026.18(g) or (s), as applicable, and should not, for example, reflect the other options available to the consumer at maturity.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When disclosures must be more conspicuous.</I> The following rules apply to the requirement that the terms “annual percentage rate” (except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47) and “finance charge” be shown more conspicuously:
</P>
<P>i. The terms must be more conspicuous only in relation to the other required disclosures under § 1026.18. For example, when the disclosures are included on the contract document, those two terms need not be more conspicuous as compared to the heading on the contract document or information required by state law.
</P>
<P>ii. The terms need not be more conspicuous except as part of the finance charge and annual percentage rate disclosures under § 1026.18(d) and (e), although they may, at the creditor's option, be highlighted wherever used in the required disclosures. For example, the terms may, but need not, be highlighted when used in disclosing a prepayment penalty under § 1026.18(k) or a required deposit under § 1026.18(r).
</P>
<P>iii. The creditor's identity under § 1026.18(a) may, but need not, be more prominently displayed than the finance charge and annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>iv. The terms need not be more conspicuous than figures (including, for example, numbers, percentages, and dollar signs).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Making disclosures more conspicuous.</I> The terms “finance charge” and (except for private education loan disclosures made in compliance with § 1026.47) “annual percentage rate” may be made more conspicuous in any way that highlights them in relation to the other required disclosures. For example, they may be:
</P>
<P>i. Capitalized when other disclosures are printed in capital and lower case.
</P>
<P>ii. Printed in larger type, bold print or different type face.
</P>
<P>iii. Printed in a contrasting color.
</P>
<P>iv. Underlined.
</P>
<P>v. Set off with asterisks.
</P>
<HD3>17(b) Time of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consummation.</I> As a general rule, disclosures must be made before “consummation” of the transaction. The disclosures need not be given by any particular time before consummation, except in certain mortgage transactions and variable-rate transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year under § 1026.19, and in private education loan transactions disclosed in compliance with §§ 1026.46 and 1026.47. (See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(13) regarding the definition of consummation.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Converting open-end to closed-end credit.</I> Except for home equity plans subject to § 1026.40 in which the agreement provides for a repayment phase, if an open-end credit account is converted to a closed-end transaction under a written agreement with the consumer, the creditor must provide a set of closed-end credit disclosures before consummation of the closed-end transaction. (See the commentary to § 1026.19(b) for the timing rules for additional disclosures required upon the conversion to a variable-rate transaction secured by a consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year.) If consummation of the closed-end transaction occurs at the same time as the consumer enters into the open-end agreement, the closed-end credit disclosures may be given at the time of conversion. If disclosures are delayed until conversion and the closed-end transaction has a variable-rate feature, disclosures should be based on the rate in effect at the time of conversion. (See the commentary to § 1026.5 regarding conversion of closed-end to open-end credit.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosures provided on credit contracts.</I> Creditors must give the required disclosures to the consumer in writing, in a form that the consumer may keep, before consummation of the transaction. <I>See</I> § 1026.17(a)(1) and (b). Sometimes the disclosures are placed on the same document with the credit contract. Creditors are not required to give the consumer two separate copies of the document before consummation, one for the consumer to keep and a second copy for the consumer to execute. The disclosure requirement is satisfied if the creditor gives a copy of the document containing the unexecuted credit contract and disclosures to the consumer to read and sign; and the consumer receives a copy to keep at the time the consumer becomes obligated. It is not sufficient for the creditor merely to show the consumer the document containing the disclosures before the consumer signs and becomes obligated. The consumer must be free to take possession of and review the document in its entirety before signing.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Example.</I> To illustrate, a creditor gives a consumer a multiple-copy form containing a credit agreement and TILA disclosures. The consumer reviews and signs the form and returns it to the creditor, who separates the copies and gives one copy to the consumer to keep. The creditor has satisfied the disclosure requirement.
</P>
<HD3>17(c) Basis of Disclosures and Use of Estimates
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Legal obligation.</I> The disclosures shall reflect the terms to which the consumer and creditor are legally bound as of the outset of the transaction. In the case of disclosures required under § 1026.20(c), (d), and (e), the disclosures shall reflect the credit terms to which the consumer and creditor are legally bound when the disclosures are provided. The legal obligation is determined by applicable State law or other law. Disclosures based on the assumption that the consumer will abide by the terms of the legal obligation throughout the term of the transaction comply with § 1026.17(c)(1). (Certain transactions are specifically addressed in this commentary. See, for example, the discussion of buydown transactions elsewhere in the commentary to § 1026.17(c).) The fact that a term or contract may later be deemed unenforceable by a court on the basis of equity or other grounds does not, by itself, mean that disclosures based on that term or contract did not reflect the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Modification of obligation.</I> The legal obligation normally is presumed to be contained in the note or contract that evidences the agreement between the consumer and the creditor. But this presumption is rebutted if another agreement between the consumer and creditor legally modifies that note or contract. If the consumer and creditor informally agree to a modification of the legal obligation, the modification should not be reflected in the disclosures unless it rises to the level of a change in the terms of the legal obligation. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If the creditor offers a preferential rate, such as an employee preferred rate, the disclosures should reflect the terms of the legal obligation. (See the commentary to § 1026.19(b) for an example of a preferred-rate transaction that is a variable-rate transaction.)
</P>
<P>ii. If the contract provides for a certain monthly payment schedule but payments are made on a voluntary payroll deduction plan or an informal principal-reduction agreement, the disclosures should reflect the schedule in the contract.
</P>
<P>iii. If the contract provides for regular monthly payments but the creditor informally permits the consumer to defer payments from time to time, for instance, to take account of holiday seasons or seasonal employment, the disclosures should reflect the regular monthly payments.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, a seller or other third party may pay an amount, either to the creditor or to the consumer, in order to reduce the consumer's payments for all or a portion of the credit term. For example, a consumer and a bank agree to a mortgage with an interest rate of 15% and level payments over 25 years. By a separate agreement, the seller of the property agrees to subsidize the consumer's payments for the first two years of the mortgage, giving the consumer an effective rate of 12% for that period.
</P>
<P>i. If the third-party buydown is reflected in the credit contract between the consumer and the bank, the finance charge and all other disclosures affected by it must take the buydown into account as an amendment to the contract's interest rate provision. For example, the annual percentage rate must be a composite rate that takes account of both the lower initial rate and the higher subsequent rate, and the disclosures required under §§ 1026.18(g), 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), and 1026.38(c), as applicable, must reflect the two payment levels, except as otherwise provided in those paragraphs. However, the amount paid by the seller would not be specifically reflected in the disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it given by the bank, since that amount constitutes seller's points and thus is not part of the finance charge. The seller-paid amount is disclosed, however, as a credit from the seller in the summaries of transactions disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j) and (k).
</P>
<P>ii. If the third-party buydown is not reflected in the credit contract between the consumer and the bank and the consumer is legally bound to the 15% rate from the outset, the disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it given by the bank must not reflect the seller buydown in any way. For example, the annual percentage rate and disclosures required under §§ 1026.18(g), 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), and 1026.38(c), as applicable, would not take into account the reduction in the interest rate and payment level for the first two years resulting from the buydown. The seller-paid amount is, however, disclosed as a credit from the seller in the summaries of transactions disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j) and (k).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consumer buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, the consumer may pay an amount to the creditor to reduce the payments on the transaction. Consumer buydowns must be reflected as an amendment to the contract's interest rate provision in the disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it given for that transaction. To illustrate, in a mortgage transaction, the creditor and consumer agree to a note specifying a 14 percent interest rate. However, in a separate document, the consumer agrees to pay an amount to the creditor at consummation in return for lower payments for a portion of the mortgage term. The amount paid by the consumer may be deposited in an escrow account or may be retained by the creditor. Depending upon the buydown plan, the consumer's prepayment of the obligation may or may not result in a portion of the amount being credited or refunded to the consumer. In the disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it given for the mortgage, the creditor must reflect the terms of the buydown agreement.
</P>
<P>i. For example:
</P>
<P>A. The amount paid by the consumer is a prepaid finance charge (even if deposited in an escrow account).
</P>
<P>B. A composite annual percentage rate must be calculated, taking into account both interest rates, as well as the effect of the prepaid finance charge.
</P>
<P>C. The disclosures under §§ 1026.18(g) and (s), 1026.37(c), and 1026.38(c), as applicable, must reflect the multiple rate and payment levels resulting from the buydown, except as otherwise provided in those sections. Further, for example, the disclosures must reflect that the transaction is a step rate product under §§ 1026.37(a)(10)(B) and 1026.38(a)(5)(iii).
</P>
<P>ii. The rules regarding consumer buydowns do not apply to transactions known as “lender buydowns.” In lender buydowns, a creditor pays an amount (either into an account or to the party to whom the obligation is sold) to reduce the consumer's payments or interest rate for all or a portion of the credit term. Typically, these transactions are structured as a buydown of the interest rate during an initial period of the transaction with a higher than usual rate for the remainder of the term. The disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it for lender buydowns should be based on the terms of the legal obligation between the consumer and the creditor. See comment 17(c)(1)-3 for the analogous rules concerning third-party buydowns.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Split buydowns.</I> In certain transactions, a third party (such as a seller) and a consumer both pay an amount to the creditor to reduce the interest rate. The creditor must include the portion paid by the consumer in the finance charge and disclose the corresponding multiple payment levels, except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), and 1026.38(c), and composite annual percentage rate. The portion paid by the third party and the corresponding reduction in interest rate, however, should not be reflected in the disclosure of the finance charge and other disclosures affected by it unless the lower rate is reflected in the credit contract. See the discussion on third-party and consumer buydown transactions elsewhere in the commentary to § 1026.17(c).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Wrap-around financing.</I> Wrap-around transactions, usually loans, involve the creditor's wrapping the outstanding balance on an existing loan and advancing additional funds to the consumer. The pre-existing loan, which is wrapped, may be to the same consumer or to a different consumer. In either case, the consumer makes a single payment to the new creditor, who makes the payments on the pre-existing loan to the original creditor. Wrap-around loans or sales are considered new single-advance transactions, with an amount financed equaling the sum of the new funds advanced by the wrap creditor and the remaining principal owed to the original creditor on the pre-existing loan. In disclosing the itemization of the amount financed, the creditor may use a label such as “the amount that will be paid to creditor X” to describe the remaining principal balance on the pre-existing loan. This approach to Truth in Lending calculations has no effect on calculations required by other statutes, such as state usury laws.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Wrap-around financing with balloon payments.</I> For wrap-around transactions involving a large final payment of the new funds before the maturity of the pre-existing loan, the amount financed is the sum of the new funds and the remaining principal on the pre-existing loan. The disclosures should be based on the shorter term of the wrap loan, with a large final payment of both the new funds and the total remaining principal on the pre-existing loan (although only the wrap loan will actually be paid off at that time).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Basis of disclosures in variable-rate transactions.</I> Except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37 and 1026.38, as applicable, the disclosures for a variable-rate transaction must be given for the full term of the transaction and must be based on the terms in effect at the time of consummation. Creditors should base the disclosures only on the initial rate and should not assume that this rate will increase, except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37 and 1026.38. For example, in a loan with an initial rate of 10 percent and a 5 percentage points rate cap, creditors should base the disclosures on the initial rate and should not assume that this rate will increase 5 percentage points. However, in a variable-rate transaction with a seller buydown that is reflected in the credit contract, a consumer buydown, or a discounted or premium rate, disclosures should not be based solely on the initial terms. In those transactions, the disclosed annual percentage rate should be a composite rate based on the rate in effect during the initial period and the rate that is the basis of the variable-rate feature for the remainder of the term. See the commentary to § 1026.17(c) for a discussion of buydown, discounted, and premium transactions and the commentary to § 1026.19(a)(2), (e), and (f) for a discussion of the redisclosure in certain mortgage transactions with a variable-rate feature. See §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c) for rules regarding disclosure of variable-rate transactions in the projected payments table for transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>9. <I>Use of estimates in variable-rate transactions.</I> The variable-rate feature does not, by itself, make the disclosures estimates.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Discounted and premium variable-rate transactions.</I> In some variable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula. However, in some cases the initial rate may be higher. In a discounted transaction, for example, a creditor may calculate interest rates according to a formula using the six-month Treasury bill rate plus a 2 percent margin. If the Treasury bill rate at consummation is 10 percent, the creditor may forgo the 2 percent spread and charge only 10 percent for a limited time, instead of setting an initial rate of 12 percent.
</P>
<P>i. When creditors use an initial interest rate that is not calculated using the index or formula for later rate adjustments, the disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate based on the initial rate for as long as it is charged and, for the remainder of the term, the rate that would have been applied using the index or formula at the time of consummation. The rate at consummation need not be used if a contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, creditors may use any index value in effect during the 45 day period before consummation in calculating a composite annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>ii. The effect of the multiple rates must also be reflected in the calculation and disclosure of the finance charge, total of payments, and the disclosures required under §§ 1026.18(g) and (s), 1026.37(c), 1026.37(l)(1) and (3), 1026.38(c), and 1026.38(o)(5), as applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. If a loan contains a rate or payment cap that would prevent the initial rate or payment, at the time of the first adjustment, from changing to the rate determined by the index or formula at consummation, the effect of that rate or payment cap should be reflected in the disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Because these transactions involve irregular payment amounts, an annual percentage rate tolerance of 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percent applies, in accordance with § 1026.22(a)(3).
</P>
<P>v. Examples of discounted variable-rate transactions include:
</P>
<P>A. A 30-year loan for $100,000 with no prepaid finance charges and rates determined by the Treasury bill rate plus two percent. Rate and payment adjustments are made annually. Although the Treasury bill rate at the time of consummation is 10 percent, the creditor sets the interest rate for one year at 9 percent, instead of 12 percent according to the formula. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.63 percent based on 9 percent for one year and 12 percent for 29 years. Reflecting those two rate levels, the payment schedule disclosed pursuant to § 1026.18(g) should show 12 payments of $804.62 and 348 payments of $1,025.31. Similarly, the disclosures required by §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), 1026.37(l)(1) and (3), 1026.38(c), and 1026.38(o)(5) should reflect the effect of this calculation. The finance charge should be $266,463.32 and, for transactions subject to § 1026.18, the total of payments should be $366,463.32.
</P>
<P>B. Same loan as above, except with a two-percent rate cap on periodic adjustments. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.53 percent based on 9 percent for the first year, 11 percent for the second year, and 12 percent for the remaining 28 years. Reflecting those three rate levels, the payment schedule disclosed pursuant to § 1026.18(g) should show 12 payments of $804.62, 12 payments of $950.09, and 336 payments of $1,024.34. Similarly, the disclosures required by §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), 1026.37(l)(1) and (3), 1026.38(c), and 1026.38(o)(5) should reflect the effect of this calculation. The finance charge should be $265,234.76 and, for transactions subject to § 1026.18, the total of payments should be $365,234.76.
</P>
<P>C. Same loan as above, except with a 7
<FR>1/2</FR> percent cap on payment adjustments. The disclosures should reflect a composite annual percentage rate of 11.64 percent, based on 9 percent for one year and 12 percent for 29 years. Because of the payment cap, five levels of payments should be reflected. The payment schedule disclosed pursuant to § 1026.18(g) should show 12 payments of $804.62, 12 payments of $864.97, 12 payments of $929.84, 12 payments of $999.58, and 312 payments of $1,070.04. Similarly, the disclosures required by §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), 1026.37(l)(1) and (3), 1026.38(c), and 1026.38(o)(5) should reflect the effect of this calculation. The finance charge should be $277,040.60, and, for transactions subject to § 1026.18, the total of payments should be $377,040.60.
</P>
<P>vi. A loan in which the initial interest rate is set according to the index or formula used for later adjustments but is not set at the value of the index or formula at consummation is not a discounted variable-rate loan. For example, if a creditor commits to an initial rate based on the formula on a date prior to consummation, but the index has moved during the period between that time and consummation, a creditor should base its disclosures on the initial rate.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Examples of variable-rate transactions.</I> Variable-rate transactions include:
</P>
<P>i. Renewable balloon-payment instruments where the creditor is both unconditionally obligated to renew the balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control) and has the option of increasing the interest rate at the time of renewal. Disclosures must be based on the payment amortization (unless the specified term of the obligation with renewals is shorter) and on the rate in effect at the time of consummation of the transaction. (Examples of conditions within a consumer's control include requirements that a consumer be current in payments or continue to reside in the mortgaged property. In contrast, setting a limit on the rate at which the creditor would be obligated to renew or reserving the right to change the credit standards at the time of renewal are examples of conditions outside a consumer's control.) If, however, a creditor is not obligated to renew as described above, disclosures must be based on the term of the balloon-payment loan. Disclosures also must be based on the term of the balloon-payment loan in balloon-payment instruments in which the legal obligation provides that the loan will be renewed by a “refinancing” of the obligation, as that term is defined by § 1026.20(a). If it cannot be determined from the legal obligation that the loan will be renewed by a “refinancing,” disclosures must be based either on the term of the balloon-payment loan or on the payment amortization, depending on whether the creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew the loan as described above. (This discussion does not apply to construction loans subject to § 1026.17(c)(6).)
</P>
<P>ii. “Shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest and an appreciation share based on the consumer's equity in the mortgaged property. The appreciation share is payable in a lump sum at a specified time. Disclosures must be based on the fixed interest rate. (As discussed in the commentary to § 1026.2, other types of shared-equity arrangements are not considered “credit” and are not subject to Regulation Z.)
</P>
<P>iii. Preferred-rate loans where the terms of the legal obligation provide that the initial underlying rate is fixed but will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the employ of the creditor, and the note reflects the preferred rate. The disclosures are to be based on the preferred rate.
</P>
<P>iv. Graduated-payment mortgages and step-rate transactions without a variable-rate feature are not considered variable-rate transactions.
</P>
<P>v. “Price level adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation. Disclosures are to be based on the fixed interest rate, except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37, and 1026.38, as applicable.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Graduated payment adjustable rate mortgages.</I> These mortgages involve both a variable interest rate and scheduled variations in payment amounts during the loan term. For example, under these plans, a series of graduated payments may be scheduled before rate adjustments affect payment amounts, or the initial scheduled payment may remain constant for a set period before rate adjustments affect the payment amount. In any case, the initial payment amount may be insufficient to cover the scheduled interest, causing negative amortization from the outset of the transaction. In these transactions, except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), and 1026.38(c), the disclosures should treat these features as follows:
</P>
<P>i. The finance charge includes the amount of negative amortization based on the assumption that the rate in effect at consummation remains unchanged.
</P>
<P>ii. The amount financed does not include the amount of negative amortization.
</P>
<P>iii. As in any variable-rate transaction, the annual percentage rate is based on the terms in effect at consummation.
</P>
<P>iv. The disclosures required by § 1026.18(g) and (s) reflect the amount of any scheduled initial payments followed by an adjusted level of payments based on the initial interest rate. Since some mortgage plans contain limits on the amount of the payment adjustment, the disclosures required by § 1026.18(g) and (s) may require several different levels of payments, even with the assumption that the original interest rate does not increase. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), see § 1026.37(c) and its commentary for a discussion of different rules for graduated payment adjustable rate mortgages.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Growth-equity mortgages.</I> i. Also referred to as payment-escalated mortgages, these mortgage plans involve scheduled payment increases to prematurely amortize the loan. The initial payment amount is determined as for a long-term loan with a fixed interest rate. Payment increases are scheduled periodically, based on changes in an index. The larger payments result in accelerated amortization of the loan. In disclosing these mortgage plans, creditors may either:
</P>
<P>A. Estimate the amount of payment increases, based on the best information reasonably available; or
</P>
<P>B. Disclose by analogy to the variable-rate disclosures in 1026.18(f)(1).
</P>
<P>ii. This discussion does not apply to growth-equity mortgages in which the amount of payment increases can be accurately determined at the time of disclosure. For these mortgages, as for graduated-payment mortgages, disclosures should reflect the scheduled increases in payments.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> Reverse mortgages, also known as reverse annuity or home equity conversion mortgages, typically involve the disbursement of monthly advances to the consumer for a fixed period or until the occurrence of an event such as the consumer's death. Repayment of the loan (generally a single payment of principal and accrued interest) may be required to be made at the end of the disbursements or, for example, upon the death of the consumer. In disclosing these transactions, creditors must apply the following rules, as applicable:
</P>
<P>i. If the reverse mortgage has a specified period for disbursements but repayment is due only upon the occurrence of a future event such as the death of the consumer, the creditor must assume that disbursements will be made until they are scheduled to end. The creditor must assume repayment will occur when disbursements end (or within a period following the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval between disbursements). This assumption should be used even though repayment may occur before or after the disbursements are scheduled to end. In such cases, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume that you will repay the loan at the time our payments to you end. As provided in your agreement, your repayment may be required at a different time.”
</P>
<P>ii. If the reverse mortgage has neither a specified period for disbursements nor a specified repayment date and these terms will be determined solely by reference to future events including the consumer's death, the creditor may assume that the disbursements will end upon the consumer's death (estimated by using actuarial tables, for example) and that repayment will be required at the same time (or within a period following the date of the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval for disbursements). Alternatively, the creditor may base the disclosures upon another future event it estimates will be most likely to occur first. (If terms will be determined by reference to future events which do not include the consumer's death, the creditor must base the disclosures upon the occurrence of the event estimated to be most likely to occur first.)
</P>
<P>iii. In making the disclosures, the creditor must assume that all disbursements and accrued interest will be paid by the consumer. For example, if the note has a nonrecourse provision providing that the consumer is not obligated for an amount greater than the value of the house, the creditor must nonetheless assume that the full amount to be disbursed will be repaid. In this case, however, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume full repayment of the amount advanced plus accrued interest, although the amount you may be required to pay is limited by your agreement.”
</P>
<P>iv. Some reverse mortgages provide that some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property will be shared between the consumer and the creditor. Such loans are considered variable-rate mortgages, as described in comment 17(c)(1)-11, and the appreciation feature must be disclosed in accordance with § 1026.18(f)(1). If the reverse mortgage has a variable interest rate, is written for a term greater than one year, and is secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the shared appreciation feature must be described under § 1026.19(b)(2)(vii).
</P>
<P>15. <I>Morris Plan transactions.</I> When a deposit account is created for the sole purpose of accumulating payments and then is applied to satisfy entirely the consumer's obligation in the transaction, each deposit made into the account is considered the same as a payment on a loan for purposes of making disclosures.
</P>
<P>16. <I>Number of transactions.</I> Creditors have flexibility in handling credit extensions that may be viewed as multiple transactions. For example:
</P>
<P>i. When a creditor finances the credit sale of a radio and a television on the same day, the creditor may disclose the sales as either 1 or 2 credit sale transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. When a creditor finances a loan along with a credit sale of health insurance, the creditor may disclose in one of several ways: a single credit sale transaction, a single loan transaction, or a loan and a credit sale transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. The separate financing of a downpayment in a credit sale transaction may, but need not, be disclosed as 2 transactions (a credit sale and a separate transaction for the financing of the downpayment).
</P>
<P>17. <I>Special rules for tax refund anticipation loans.</I> Tax refund loans, also known as refund anticipation loans (RALs), are transactions in which a creditor will lend up to the amount of a consumer's expected tax refund. RAL agreements typically require repayment upon demand, but also may provide that repayment is required when the refund is made. The agreements also typically provide that if the amount of the refund is less than the payment due, the consumer must pay the difference. Repayment often is made by a preauthorized offset to a consumer's account held with the creditor when the refund has been deposited by electronic transfer. Creditors may charge fees for RALs in addition to fees for filing the consumer's tax return electronically. In RAL transactions subject to the regulation the following special rules apply:
</P>
<P>i. If, under the terms of the legal obligation, repayment of the loan is required when the refund is received by the consumer (such as by deposit into the consumer's account), the disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time the refund will be delivered even if the loan also contains a demand clause. The practice of a creditor to demand repayment upon delivery of refunds does not determine whether the legal obligation requires that repayment be made at that time; this determination must be made according to applicable state or other law. (See comment 17(c)(5)-1 for the rules regarding disclosures if the loan is payable solely on demand or is payable either on demand or on an alternate maturity date.)
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer is required to repay more than the amount borrowed, the difference is a finance charge unless excluded under § 1026.4. In addition, to the extent that any fees charged in connection with the loan (such as for filing the tax return electronically) exceed those fees for a comparable cash transaction (that is, filing the tax return electronically without a loan), the difference must be included in the finance charge.
</P>
<P>18. <I>Pawn Transactions.</I> When, in connection with an extension of credit, a consumer pledges or sells an item to a pawnbroker creditor in return for a sum of money and retains the right to redeem the item for a greater sum (the redemption price) within a specified period of time, disclosures are required. In addition to other disclosure requirements that may be applicable under § 1026.18, for purposes of pawn transactions:
</P>
<P>i. The amount financed is the initial sum paid to the consumer. The pawnbroker creditor need not provide a separate itemization of the amount financed if that entire amount is paid directly to the consumer and the disclosed description of the amount financed is “the amount of cash given directly to you” or a similar phrase.
</P>
<P>ii. The finance charge is the difference between the initial sum paid to the consumer and the redemption price plus any other finance charges paid in connection with the transaction. (See § 1026.4.)
</P>
<P>iii. The term of the transaction, for calculating the annual percentage rate, is the period of time agreed to by the pawnbroker creditor and the consumer. The term of the transaction does not include a grace period (including any statutory grace period) after the agreed redemption date.
</P>
<P>19. <I>Rebates and loan premiums.</I> In a loan transaction, the creditor may offer a premium in the form of cash or merchandise to prospective borrowers. Similarly, in a credit sale transaction, a seller's or manufacturer's rebate may be offered to prospective purchasers of the creditor's goods or services. Such premiums and rebates must be reflected in accordance with the terms of the legal obligation between the consumer and the creditor. Thus, if the creditor is legally obligated to provide the premium or rebate to the consumer as part of the credit transaction, the disclosures should reflect its value in the manner and at the time the creditor is obligated to provide it.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Basis for estimates.</I> Except as otherwise provided in §§ 1026.19, 1026.37, and 1026.38, disclosures may be estimated when the exact information is unknown at the time disclosures are made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosures are made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. For example, the creditor must at a minimum utilize generally accepted calculation tools, but need not invest in the most sophisticated computer program to make a particular type of calculation. The creditor normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. For example, the creditor might look to the consumer for the time of consummation, to insurance companies for the cost of insurance, or to realtors for taxes and escrow fees. The creditor may utilize estimates in making disclosures even though the creditor knows that more precise information will be available by the point of consummation. However, new disclosures may be required under § 1026.17(f) or § 1026.19. For purposes of § 1026.17(c)(2)(i), creditors must provide the actual amounts of the information required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38, pursuant to § 1026.19(e) and (f), subject to the estimation and redisclosure rules in those provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Labeling estimates.</I> Estimates must be designated as such in the segregated disclosures. For the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e) and (f), use of the Loan Estimate form H-24 of appendix H to this part pursuant to § 1026.37(o) or the Closing Disclosure form H-25 of appendix H to this part pursuant to § 1026.38(t), respectively, satisfies the requirement that the disclosure state clearly that the disclosure is an estimate. For all other disclosures, even though they are based on the same assumption on which a specific estimated disclosure was based, the creditor has flexibility in labeling the estimates. Generally, only the particular disclosure for which the exact information is unknown is labeled as an estimate. However, when several disclosures are affected because of the unknown information, the creditor has the option of labeling either every affected disclosure or only the disclosure primarily affected. For example, when the finance charge is unknown because the date of consummation is unknown, the creditor must label the finance charge as an estimate and may also label as estimates the total of payments and the payment schedule. When many disclosures are estimates, the creditor may use a general statement, such as “all numerical disclosures except the late payment disclosure are estimates,” as a method to label those disclosures as estimates.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Simple-interest transactions.</I> If consumers do not make timely payments in a simple-interest transaction, some of the amounts calculated for Truth in Lending disclosures will differ from amounts that consumers will actually pay over the term of the transaction. Creditors may label disclosures as estimates in these transactions, except as otherwise provided by § 1026.19. For example, because the finance charge and total of payments may be larger than disclosed if consumers make late payments, creditors may label the finance charge and total of payments as estimates. On the other hand, creditors may choose not to label disclosures as estimates. In all cases, creditors comply with § 1026.17(c)(2)(i) by basing disclosures on the assumption that payments will be made on time and in the amounts required by the terms of the legal obligation, disregarding any possible differences resulting from consumers' payment patterns.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Per-diem interest.</I> Section 1026.17(c)(2)(ii) applies to any numerical amount (such as the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or payment amount) that is affected by the amount of the per-diem interest charge that will be collected at consummation. If the amount of per-diem interest used in preparing the disclosures for consummation is based on the information known to the creditor at the time the disclosure document is prepared, the disclosures are considered accurate under this rule, and affected disclosures are also considered accurate, even if the disclosures are not labeled as estimates. For example, if the amount of per-diem interest used to prepare disclosures is less than the amount of per-diem interest charged at consummation, and as a result the finance charge is understated by $200, the disclosed finance charge is considered accurate even though the understatement is not within the $100 tolerance of § 1026.18(d)(1), and the finance charge was not labeled as an estimate. In this example, if in addition to the understatement related to the per-diem interest, a $90 fee is incorrectly omitted from the finance charge, causing it to be understated by a total of $290, the finance charge is considered accurate because the $90 fee is within the tolerance in § 1026.18(d)(1). For purposes of transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), the creditor shall disclose the actual amount of per diem interest that will be collected at consummation, subject only to the disclosure rules in those sections.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Minor variations.</I> Section 1026.17(c)(3) allows creditors to disregard certain factors in calculating and making disclosures. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Creditors may ignore the effects of collecting payments in whole cents. Because payments cannot be collected in fractional cents, it is often difficult to amortize exactly an obligation with equal payments; the amount of the last payment may require adjustment to account for the rounding of the other payments to whole cents.
</P>
<P>ii. Creditors may base their disclosures on calculation tools that assume that all months have an equal number of days, even if their practice is to take account of the variations in months for purposes of collecting interest. For example, a creditor may use a calculation tool based on a 360-day year, when it in fact collects interest by applying a factor of 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the annual rate to 365 days. This rule does not, however, authorize creditors to ignore, for disclosure purposes, the effects of applying 
<FR>1/360</FR> of an annual rate to 365 days.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of special rules.</I> A creditor may utilize the special rules in § 1026.17(c)(3) for purposes of calculating and making all disclosures for a transaction or may, at its option, use the special rules for some disclosures and not others.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payment schedule irregularities.</I> When one or more payments in a transaction differ from the others because of a long or short first period, the variations may be ignored in disclosing the payment schedule pursuant to § 1026.18(g), the disclosures required pursuant to §§ 1026.18(s), 1026.37(c), or 1026.38(c), or the finance charge, annual percentage rate, and other terms. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A 36-month auto loan might be consummated on June 8 with payments due on July 1 and the first of each succeeding month. The creditor may base its calculations on a payment schedule that assumes 36 equal intervals and 36 equal installment payments, even though a precise computation would produce slightly different amounts because of the shorter first period.
</P>
<P>ii. By contrast, in the same example, if the first payment were not scheduled until August 1, the irregular first period would exceed the limits in § 1026.17(c)(4); the creditor could not use the special rule and could not ignore the extra days in the first period in calculating its disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Measuring odd periods.</I> i. In determining whether a transaction may take advantage of the rule in § 1026.17(c)(4), the creditor must measure the variation against a regular period. For purposes of that rule:
</P>
<P>A. The first period is the period from the date on which the finance charge begins to be earned to the date of the first payment.
</P>
<P>B. The term is the period from the date on which the finance charge begins to be earned to the date of the final payment.
</P>
<P>C. The regular period is the most common interval between payments in the transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. In transactions involving regular periods that are monthly, semimonthly or multiples of a month, the length of the irregular and regular periods may be calculated on the basis of either the actual number of days or an assumed 30-day month. In other transactions, the length of the periods is based on the actual number of days.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Use of special rules.</I> A creditor may utilize the special rules in § 1026.17(c)(4) for purposes of calculating and making some disclosures but may elect not to do so for all of the disclosures. For example, the variations may be ignored in calculating and disclosing the annual percentage rate but taken into account in calculating and disclosing the finance charge and payment schedule.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relation to prepaid finance charges.</I> Prepaid finance charges, including “odd-days” or “per-diem” interest, paid prior to or at closing may not be treated as the first payment on a loan. Thus, creditors may not disregard an irregularity in disclosing such finance charges.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Demand disclosures.</I> Disclosures for demand obligations are based on an assumed 1-year term, unless an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation. Whether an alternate maturity date is stated in the legal obligation is determined by applicable law. An alternate maturity date is not inferred from an informal principal reduction agreement or a similar understanding between the parties. However, when the note itself specifies a principal reduction schedule (for example, “payable on demand or $2,000 plus interest quarterly”), an alternate maturity is stated and the disclosures must reflect that date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Future event as maturity date.</I> An obligation whose maturity date is determined solely by a future event, as for example, a loan payable only on the sale of property, is not a demand obligation. Because no demand feature is contained in the obligation, demand disclosures under § 1026.18(i) are inapplicable and demand disclosures under § 1026.38(l)(2) are answered in the negative. The disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time at which the specified event will occur and, except as otherwise provided in § 1026.19(e) and (f), may indicate the basis for the creditor's estimate, as noted in the commentary to § 1026.17(a).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Demand after stated period.</I> Most demand transactions contain a demand feature that may be exercised at any point during the term, but certain transactions convert to demand status only after a fixed period. The disclosures for a transaction that converts to demand status after a fixed period should be based upon the legally agreed-upon maturity date. Thus, for example, if a mortgage containing a call option that the creditor may exercise during the first 30 days of the eighth year after loan origination is written as a 20-year obligation, the disclosures should be based on the 20-year term, with the demand feature disclosed under § 1026.18(i) or § 1026.38(l)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Balloon mortgages.</I> Balloon payment mortgages, with payments based on a long-term amortization schedule and a large final payment due after a shorter term, are not demand obligations unless a demand feature is specifically contained in the contract. For example, a mortgage with a term of five years and a payment schedule based on 20 years would not be treated as a mortgage with a demand feature, in the absence of any contractual demand provisions. In this type of mortgage, disclosures should be based on the five-year term. See §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c) and their commentary for projected payment disclosures for balloon payment mortgages.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(c)(6)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Series of advances.</I> Section 1026.17(c)(6)(i) deals with a series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount. A creditor may treat all of the advances as a single transaction or disclose each advance as a separate transaction. If these advances are treated as 1 transaction and the timing and amounts of advances are unknown, creditors must make disclosures based on estimates, as provided in § 1026.17(c)(2). If the advances are disclosed separately, disclosures must be provided before each advance occurs, with the disclosures for the first advance provided by consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Construction loans.</I> Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) provides a flexible rule for disclosure of construction loans that may be permanently financed. These transactions have 2 distinct phases, similar to 2 separate transactions. The construction loan may be for initial construction or subsequent construction, such as rehabilitation or remodeling. The construction period usually involves several disbursements of funds at times and in amounts that are unknown at the beginning of that period, with the consumer paying only accrued interest until construction is completed. Unless the obligation is paid at that time, the loan then converts to permanent financing in which the loan amount is amortized just as in a standard mortgage transaction. Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) permits the creditor to give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for the 2 phases. This rule is available whether the consumer is initially obligated to accept construction financing only or is obligated to accept both construction and permanent financing from the outset. If the consumer is obligated on both phases and the creditor chooses to give 2 sets of disclosures, both sets must be given to the consumer initially, because both transactions would be consummated at that time. (Appendix D provides a method of calculating the annual percentage rate and other disclosures for construction loans, which may be used, at the creditor's option, in disclosing construction financing.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple-advance construction loans.</I> Section 1026.17(c)(6)(i) and (ii) are not mutually exclusive. For example, in a transaction that finances the construction of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase may consist of a series of advances under an agreement to extend credit up to a certain amount. In these cases, the creditor may disclose the construction phase as either 1 or more than 1 transaction and also disclose the permanent financing as a separate transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(24) for a discussion of the effect of § 1026.17(c)(6) on the definition of a residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Allocation of costs.</I> When a creditor uses the special rule in § 1026.17(c)(6) to disclose credit extensions as multiple transactions, fees and charges must be allocated for purposes of calculating disclosures. In the case of a construction-permanent loan that a creditor chooses to disclose as multiple transactions, the creditor must allocate to the construction transaction finance charges under § 1026.4 and points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) that would not be imposed but for the construction financing. For example, inspection and handling fees for the staged disbursement of construction loan proceeds must be included in the disclosures for the construction phase and may not be included in the disclosures for the permanent phase. If a creditor charges separate amounts for finance charges under § 1026.4 and points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) for the construction phase and the permanent phase, such amounts must be allocated to the phase for which they are charged. If a creditor charges an origination fee for construction financing only but charges a greater origination fee for construction-permanent financing, the difference between the two fees must be allocated to the permanent phase. All other finance charges under § 1026.4 and points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) must be allocated to the permanent financing. Fees and charges that are not used to compute the finance charge under § 1026.4 or points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) may be allocated between the transactions in any manner the creditor chooses. For example, a reasonable appraisal fee paid to an independent, third-party appraiser may be allocated in any manner the creditor chooses because it would be excluded from the finance charge pursuant to § 1026.4(c)(7) and excluded from points and fees pursuant to § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii).


</P>
<HD3>17(d) Multiple Creditors; Multiple Consumers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> If a credit transaction involves more than one creditor:
</P>
<P>i. The creditors must choose which of them will make the disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. A single, complete set of disclosures must be provided, rather than partial disclosures from several creditors.
</P>
<P>iii. All disclosures for the transaction must be given, even if the disclosing creditor would not otherwise have been obligated to make a particular disclosure. For example, if one of the creditors is the seller, the total sale price disclosure under § 1026.18(j) must be made, even though the disclosing creditor is not the seller.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> When two consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, the disclosures may be given to either one of them. If one consumer is merely a surety or guarantor, the disclosures must be given to the principal debtor. In rescindable transactions, however, separate disclosures must be given to each consumer who has the right to rescind under § 1026.23, although the disclosures required under § 1026.19(b) need only be provided to the consumer who expresses an interest in a variable-rate loan program. When two consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, the early disclosures required by § 1026.19(a), (e), or (g), as applicable, may be provided to any one of them. In rescindable transactions, the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f) must be given separately to each consumer who has the right to rescind under § 1026.23. In transactions that are not rescindable, the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f) may be provided to any consumer with primary liability on the obligation. <I>See</I> §§ 1026.2(a)(11), 1026.17(b), 1026.19(a), 1026.19(f), and 1026.23(b).


</P>
<HD3>17(e) Effect of Subsequent Events
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Events causing inaccuracies.</I> Subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), inaccuracies in disclosures are not violations if attributable to events occurring after the disclosures are made. For example, when the consumer fails to fulfill a prior commitment to keep the collateral insured and the creditor then provides the coverage and charges the consumer for it, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate. The creditor may, however, be required to make new disclosures under § 1026.17(f) or § 1026.19 if the events occurred between disclosure and consummation, in some cases after consummation under § 1026.19(f), or under § 1026.20 if the events occurred after consummation. For rules regarding permissible changes to the information required to be disclosed by § 1026.19(e) and (f), see § 1026.19(e)(3) and (f)(2) and their commentary.


</P>
<HD3>17(f) Early Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Change in rate or other terms.</I> Redisclosure is required for changes that occur between the time disclosures are made and consummation if the annual percentage rate in the consummated transaction exceeds the limits prescribed in § 1026.17(f) even if the prior disclosures would be considered accurate under the tolerances in § 1026.18(d) or 1026.22(a). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Transactions not secured by real property or a cooperative unit.</I> A. For transactions not secured by real property or a cooperative unit, if disclosures are made in a regular transaction on July 1, the transaction is consummated on July 15, and the actual annual percentage rate varies by more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point from the disclosed annual percentage rate, the creditor must either redisclose the changed terms or furnish a complete set of new disclosures before consummation. Redisclosure is required even if the disclosures made on July 1 are based on estimates and marked as such.
</P>
<P>B. In a regular transaction not secured by real property or a cooperative unit, if early disclosures are marked as estimates and the disclosed annual percentage rate is within 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point of the rate at consummation, the creditor need not redisclose the changed terms (including the annual percentage rate).
</P>
<P>C. If disclosures for transactions not secured by real property or a cooperative unit are made on July 1, the transaction is consummated on July 15, and the finance charge increased by $35 but the disclosed annual percentage rate is within the permitted tolerance, the creditor must at least redisclose the changed terms that were not marked as estimates. <I>See</I> § 1026.18(d)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> In a transaction subject to § 1026.19(a) and not § 1026.19(e) and (f), assume that, at the time the disclosures required by § 1026.19(a) are prepared in July, the loan closing is scheduled for July 31 and the creditor does not plan to collect per-diem interest at consummation. Assume further that consummation actually occurs on August 5, and per-diem interest for the remainder of August is collected as a prepaid finance charge. The creditor may rely on the disclosures prepared in July that were accurate when they were prepared. However, if the creditor prepares new disclosures in August that will be provided at consummation, the new disclosures must take into account the amount of the per-diem interest known to the creditor at that time.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit other than reverse mortgages.</I> For transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit other than reverse mortgages, assume that, at the time the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e) are prepared in July, the loan closing is scheduled for July 31 and the creditor does not plan to collect per-diem interest at consummation. Assume further that consummation actually occurs on August 5, and per-diem interest for the remainder of August is collected as a prepaid finance charge. The creditor must make the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f) three days before consummation, and the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f) must take into account the amount of per-diem interest that will be collected at consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable rate.</I> The addition of a variable rate feature to the credit terms, after early disclosures are given, requires new disclosures. See § 1026.19(e) and (f) to determine when new disclosures are required for transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Content of new disclosures.</I> Except as provided by § 1026.19(e) and (f), if redisclosure is required, the creditor has the option of either providing a complete set of new disclosures, or providing disclosures of only the terms that vary from those originally disclosed. <I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.19(a)(2).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Special rules.</I> In mortgage transactions subject to § 1026.19(a), the creditor must redisclose if, between the delivery of the required early disclosures and consummation, the annual percentage rate changes by more than a stated tolerance. When subsequent events occur after consummation, new disclosures are required only if there is a refinancing or an assumption within the meaning of § 1026.20.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 17(f)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Irregular transactions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph, a transaction is deemed to be “irregular” according to the definition in § 1026.22(a)(3).


</P>
<HD3>17(g) Mail or Telephone Orders—Delay in Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Conditions for use.</I> Except for extensions of credit subject to § 1026.19(a) or (e) and (f), when the creditor receives a mail or telephone request for credit, the creditor may delay making the disclosures until the first payment is due if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>i. The credit request is initiated without face-to-face or direct telephone solicitation. (Creditors may, however, use the special rule when credit requests are solicited by mail.)
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor has supplied the specified credit information about its credit terms either to the individual consumer or to the public generally. That information may be distributed through advertisements, catalogs, brochures, special mailers, or similar means.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Insurance.</I> The location requirements for the insurance disclosures under § 1026.18(n) permit them to appear apart from the other disclosures. Therefore, a creditor may mail an insurance authorization to the consumer and then prepare the other disclosures to reflect whether or not the authorization is completed by the consumer. Creditors may also disclose the insurance cost on a unit-cost basis, if the transaction meets the requirements of § 1026.17(g).
</P>
<HD3>17(h) Series of Sales—Delay in Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> Except for extensions of credit covered by § 1026.19(a) or (e) and (f), the creditor may delay the disclosures for individual credit sales in a series of such sales until the first payment is due on the current sale, assuming the two conditions in § 1026.17(h) are met. If those conditions are not met, the general timing rules in § 1026.17(b) apply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> Creditors structuring disclosures for a series of sales under § 1026.17(h) may compute the total sale price as either:
</P>
<P>i. The cash price for the sale plus that portion of the finance charge and other charges applicable to that sale; or
</P>
<P>ii. The cash price for the sale, other charges applicable to the sale, and the total finance charge and outstanding principal.
</P>
<HD3>17(i) Interim Student Credit Extensions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Student credit plans involve extensions of credit for education purposes where the repayment amount and schedule are not known at the time credit is advanced. These plans include loans made under any student credit plan, whether government or private, where the repayment period does not begin immediately. (Certain student credit plans that meet this definition are exempt from Regulation Z. See § 1026.3(f).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to other sections.</I> For disclosures made before the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under §§ 1026.46, 47, and 48, paragraph 17(i) permitted creditors to omit from the disclosures the terms set forth in that paragraph at the time the credit was actually extended. However, creditors were required to make complete disclosures at the time the creditor and consumer agreed upon the repayment schedule for the total obligation. At that time, a new set of disclosures of all applicable items under § 1026.18 was required. Most student credit plans are subject to the requirements in §§ 1026.46, 47, and 48. Consequently, for applications for student credit plans received on or after the mandatory compliance date of §§ 1026.46, 47, and 48, the creditor may not omit from the disclosures the terms set forth in paragraph 17(i). Instead, the creditor must comply with §§ 1026.46, 47, and 48, if applicable, or with §§ 1026.17 and 1026.18.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Basis of disclosures.</I> The disclosures given at the time of execution of the interim note should reflect two annual percentage rates, one for the interim period and one for the repayment period. The use of § 1026.17(i) in making disclosures does not, by itself, make those disclosures estimates. Any portion of the finance charge, such as statutory interest, that is attributable to the interim period and is paid by the student (either as a prepaid finance charge, periodically during the interim period, in one payment at the end of the interim period, or capitalized at the beginning of the repayment period) must be reflected in the interim annual percentage rate. Interest subsidies, such as payments made by either a state or the Federal Government on an interim loan, must be excluded in computing the annual percentage rate on the interim obligation, when the consumer has no contingent liability for payment of those amounts. Any finance charges that are paid separately by the student at the outset or withheld from the proceeds of the loan are prepaid finance charges. An example of this type of charge is the loan guarantee fee. The sum of the prepaid finance charges is deducted from the loan proceeds to determine the amount financed and included in the calculation of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consolidation.</I> Consolidation of the interim student credit extensions through a renewal note with a set repayment schedule is treated as a new transaction with disclosures made as they would be for a refinancing. Any unearned portion of the finance charge must be reflected in the new finance charge and annual percentage rate, and is not added to the new amount financed. In itemizing the amount financed under § 1026.18(c), the creditor may combine the principal balances remaining on the interim extensions at the time of consolidation and categorize them as the amount paid on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Approved student credit forms.</I> See the commentary to appendix H regarding disclosure forms approved for use in certain student credit programs for which applications were received prior to the mandatory compliance date of §§ 1026.46, 1026.47, and 1026.48.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.18—Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>As applicable.</I> i. The disclosures required by this section need be made only as applicable. Any disclosure not relevant to a particular transaction may be eliminated entirely. For example:
</P>
<P>A. In a loan transaction, the creditor may delete disclosure of the total sale price.
</P>
<P>B. In a credit sale requiring disclosure of the total sale price under § 1026.18(j), the creditor may delete any reference to a downpayment where no downpayment is involved.
</P>
<P>ii. Where the amounts of several numerical disclosures are the same, the “as applicable” language also permits creditors to combine the terms, so long as it is done in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example:
</P>
<P>A. In a transaction in which the amount financed equals the total of payments, the creditor may disclose “amount financed/total of payments,” together with descriptive language, followed by a single amount.
</P>
<P>B. However, if the terms are separated on the disclosure statement and separate space is provided for each amount, both disclosures must be completed, even though the same amount is entered in each space.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.17 and appendix H for a discussion of the format to be used in making these disclosures, as well as acceptable modifications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Scope of coverage.</I> i. Section 1026.18 applies to closed-end consumer credit transactions, other than transactions that are subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f). Section 1026.19(e) and (f) applies to closed-end consumer credit transactions that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages subject to § 1026.33. Accordingly, the disclosures required by § 1026.18 apply only to closed-end consumer credit transactions that are:
</P>
<P>A. Unsecured;
</P>
<P>B. Secured by personal property that is not a dwelling;
</P>
<P>C. Secured by personal property (other than a cooperative unit) that is a dwelling and are not also secured by real property; or
</P>
<P>D. Reverse mortgages subject to § 1026.33.
</P>
<P>ii. Of the foregoing transactions that are subject to § 1026.18, the creditor discloses a payment schedule under § 1026.18(g) for those described in paragraphs i.A and i.B of this comment. For transactions described in paragraphs i.C and i.D of this comment, the creditor discloses an interest rate and payment summary table under § 1026.18(s). See also comments 18(g)-6 and 18(s)-4 for additional guidance on the applicability to different transaction types of §§ 1026.18(g) or (s) and 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<P>iii. Because § 1026.18 does not apply to transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages, references in the section and its commentary to “mortgages” refer only to transactions described in paragraphs i.C and i.D of this comment, as applicable.


</P>
<HD3>18(a) Creditor
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification of creditor.</I> The creditor making the disclosures must be identified. This disclosure may, at the creditor's option, appear apart from the other disclosures. Use of the creditor's name is sufficient, but the creditor may also include an address and/or telephone number. In transactions with multiple creditors, any one of them may make the disclosures; the one doing so must be identified.
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<HD3>18(b) Amount Financed
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<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The net amount of credit extended must be disclosed using the term <I>amount financed</I> and a descriptive explanation similar to the phrase in the regulation.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(b)(1)
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<P>1. <I>Downpayments.</I> A downpayment is defined in § 1026.2(a)(18) to include, at the creditor's option, certain deferred downpayments or pick-up payments. A deferred downpayment that meets the criteria set forth in the definition may be treated as part of the downpayment, at the creditor's option.
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<P>i. Deferred downpayments that are not treated as part of the downpayment (either because they do not meet the definition or because the creditor simply chooses not to treat them as downpayments) are included in the amount financed.
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<P>ii. Deferred downpayments that are treated as part of the downpayment are not part of the amount financed under § 1026.18(b)(1).
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(b)(2)
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<P>1. <I>Adding other amounts.</I> Fees or other charges that are not part of the finance charge and that are financed rather than paid separately at consummation of the transaction are included in the amount financed. Typical examples are real estate settlement charges and premiums for voluntary credit life and disability insurance excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4. This paragraph does not include any amounts already accounted for under § 1026.18(b)(1), such as taxes, tag and title fees, or the costs of accessories or service policies that the creditor includes in the cash price.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(b)(3)
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<P>1. <I>Prepaid finance charges.</I> i. Prepaid finance charges that are paid separately in cash or by check should be deducted under § 1026.18(b)(3) in calculating the amount financed. To illustrate:
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<P>A. A consumer applies for a loan of $2,500 with a $40 loan fee. The face amount of the note is $2,500 and the consumer pays the loan fee separately by cash or check at closing. The principal loan amount for purposes of § 1026.18(b)(1) is $2,500 and $40 should be deducted under § 1026.18(b(3), thereby yielding an amount financed of $2,460.
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<P>ii. In some instances, as when loan fees are financed by the creditor, finance charges are incorporated in the face amount of the note. Creditors have the option, when the charges are not add-on or discount charges, of determining a principal loan amount under § 1026.18(b)(1) that either includes or does not include the amount of the finance charges. (Thus the principal loan amount may, but need not, be determined to equal the face amount of the note.) When the finance charges are included in the principal loan amount, they should be deducted as prepaid finance charges under § 1026.18(b)(3). When the finance charges are not included in the principal loan amount, they should not be deducted under § 1026.18(b)(3). The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.18(b) to this type of transaction. Each example assumes a loan request of $2,500 with a loan fee of $40; the creditor assesses the loan fee by increasing the face amount of the note to $2,540.
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<P>A. If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 1026.18(b)(1) to be $2,540, it has included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should deduct $40 as a prepaid finance charge under § 1026.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,500.
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<P>B. If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 1026.18(b)(1) to be $2,500, it has not included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should not deduct any amount under § 1026.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,500.
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<P>iii. The same rules apply when the creditor does not increase the face amount of the note by the amount of the charge but collects the charge by withholding it from the amount advanced to the consumer. To illustrate, the following examples assume a loan request of $2,500 with a loan fee of $40; the creditor prepares a note for $2,500 and advances $2,460 to the consumer.
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<P>A. If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 1026.18(b)(1) to be $2,500, it has included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should deduct $40 as a prepaid finance charge under § 1026.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,460.
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<P>B. If the creditor determines the principal loan amount under § 1026.18(b)(1) to be $2,460, it has not included the loan fee in the principal loan amount and should not deduct any amount under § 1026.18(b)(3), thereby obtaining an amount financed of $2,460.
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<P>iv. Thus in the examples where the creditor derives the net amount of credit by determining a principal loan amount that does not include the amount of the finance charge, no subtraction is appropriate. Creditors should note, however, that although the charges are not subtracted as <I>prepaid</I> finance charges in those examples, they are nonetheless finance charges and must be treated as such.
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<P>2. <I>Add-on or discount charges.</I> All finance charges must be deducted from the amount of credit in calculating the amount financed. If the principal loan amount reflects finance charges that meet the definition of a prepaid finance charge in § 1026.2, those charges are included in the § 1026.18(b)(1) amount and deducted under § 1026.18(b)(3). However, if the principal loan amount includes finance charges that do not meet the definition of a prepaid finance charge, the § 1026.18(b)(1) amount must exclude those finance charges. The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.18(b) to these types of transactions. Each example assumes a loan request of $1000 for 1 year, subject to a 6 percent precomputed interest rate, with a $10 loan fee paid separately at consummation.
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<P>i. The creditor assesses add-on interest of $60 which is added to the $1000 in loan proceeds for an obligation with a face amount of $1060. The principal for purposes of § 1026.18(b)(1) is $1000, no amounts are added under § 1026.18(b)(2), and the $10 loan fee is a prepaid finance charge to be deducted under § 1026.18(b)(3). The amount financed is $990.
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<P>ii. The creditor assesses discount interest of $60 and distributes $940 to the consumer, who is liable for an obligation with a face amount of $1000. The principal under § 1026.18(b)(1) is $940, which results in an amount financed of $930, after deduction of the $10 prepaid finance charge under § 1026.18(b)(3).
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<P>iii. The creditor assesses $60 in discount interest by increasing the face amount of the obligation to $1060, with the consumer receiving $1000. The principal under § 1026.18(b)(1) is thus $1000 and the amount financed $990, after deducting the $10 prepaid finance charge under § 1026.18(b)(3).
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<HD3>18(c) Itemization of Amount Financed
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<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> i. The creditor has 2 alternatives in complying with § 1026.18(c):
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<P>A. The creditor may inform the consumer, on the segregated disclosures, that a written itemization of the amount financed will be provided on request, furnishing the itemization only if the customer in fact requests it.
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<P>B. The creditor may provide an itemization as a matter of course, without notifying the consumer of the right to receive it or waiting for a request.
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<P>ii. Whether given as a matter of course or only on request, the itemization must be provided at the same time as the other disclosures required by § 1026.18, although separate from those disclosures.
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<P>2. <I>Additional information.</I> Section 1026.18(c) establishes only a minimum standard for the material to be included in the itemization of the amount financed. Creditors have considerable flexibility in revising or supplementing the information listed in § 1026.18(c) and shown in model form H-3, although no changes are required. The creditor may, for example, do one or more of the following:
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<P>i. Include amounts that reflect payments not part of the amount financed. For example, escrow items and certain insurance premiums may be included, as discussed in the commentary to § 1026.18(g).
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<P>ii. Organize the categories in any order. For example, the creditor may rearrange the terms in a mathematical progression that depicts the arithmetic relationship of the terms.
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<P>iii. Add categories. For example, in a credit sale, the creditor may include the cash price and the downpayment. If the credit sale involves a trade-in of the consumer's car and an existing lien on that car exceeds the value of the trade-in amount, the creditor may disclose the consumer's trade-in value, the creditor's payoff of the existing lien, and the resulting additional amount financed.
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<P>iv. Further itemize each category. For example, the amount paid directly to the consumer may be subdivided into the amount given by check and the amount credited to the consumer's savings account.
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<P>v. Label categories with different language from that shown in § 1026.18(c). For example, an amount paid on the consumer's account may be revised to specifically identify the account as “your auto loan with us.”
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<P>vi. Delete, leave blank, mark “N/A,” or otherwise note inapplicable categories in the itemization. For example, in a credit sale with no prepaid finance charges or amounts paid to others, the amount financed may consist of only the cash price less downpayment. In this case, the itemization may be composed of only a single category and all other categories may be eliminated.
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<P>3. <I>Amounts appropriate to more than one category.</I> When an amount may appropriately be placed in any of several categories and the creditor does not wish to revise the categories shown in § 1026.18(c), the creditor has considerable flexibility in determining where to show the amount. For example, in a credit sale, the portion of the purchase price being financed by the creditor may be viewed as either an amount paid to the consumer or an amount paid on the consumer's account.
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<P>4. <I>RESPA transactions.</I> The Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) requires creditors to provide a good faith estimate of closing costs and a settlement statement listing the amounts paid by the consumer. Reverse mortgages subject to RESPA and § 1026.18 are exempt from the requirements of § 1026.18(c) if the creditor complies with RESPA's requirements for a good faith estimate and settlement statement. The itemization of the amount financed need not be given, even though the content and timing of the good faith estimate and settlement statement under RESPA differ from the requirements of §§ 1026.18(c) and 1026.19(a)(2). If a creditor chooses to substitute RESPA's settlement statement for the itemization when redisclosure is required under § 1026.19(a)(2), the statement must be delivered to the consumer at or prior to consummation. The disclosures required by §§ 1026.18(c) and 1026.19(a)(2) may appear on the same page or on the same document as the good faith estimate or the settlement statement, so long as the requirements of § 1026.17(a) are met.


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<HD3>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts paid to consumer.</I> This encompasses funds given to the consumer in the form of cash or a check, including joint proceeds checks, as well as funds placed in an asset account. It may include money in an interest-bearing account even if that amount is considered a required deposit under § 1026.18(r). For example, in a transaction with total loan proceeds of $500, the consumer receives a check for $300 and $200 is required by the creditor to be put into an interest-bearing account. Whether or not the $200 is a required deposit, it is part of the amount financed. At the creditor's option, it may be broken out and labeled in the itemization of the amount financed.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts credited to consumer's account.</I> The term <I>consumer's account</I> refers to an account in the nature of a debt with that creditor. It may include, for example, an unpaid balance on a prior loan, a credit sale balance or other amounts owing to that creditor. It does not include asset accounts of the consumer such as savings or checking accounts.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts paid to others.</I> This includes, for example, tag and title fees; amounts paid to insurance companies for insurance premiums; security interest fees, and amounts paid to credit bureaus, appraisers or public officials. When several types of insurance premiums are financed, they may, at the creditor's option, be combined and listed in one sum, labeled “insurance” or similar term. This includes, but is not limited to, different types of insurance premiums paid to one company and different types of insurance premiums paid to different companies. Except for insurance companies and other categories noted in § 1026.18(c)(1)(iii), third parties must be identified by name.
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<P>2. <I>Charges added to amounts paid to others.</I> A sum is sometimes added to the amount of a fee charged to a consumer for a service provided by a third party (such as for an extended warranty or a service contract) that is payable in the same amount in comparable cash and credit transactions. In the credit transaction, the amount is retained by the creditor. Given the flexibility permitted in meeting the requirements of the amount financed itemization (see the commentary to § 1026.18(c)), the creditor in such cases may reflect that the creditor has retained a portion of the amount paid to others. For example, the creditor could add to the category “amount paid to others” language such as “(we may be retaining a portion of this amount).”
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(c)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid finance charge.</I> Prepaid finance charges that are deducted under § 1026.18(b)(3) must be disclosed under this section. The prepaid finance charges must be shown as a total amount but may, at the creditor's option, also be further itemized and described. All amounts must be reflected in this total, even if portions of the prepaid finance charge are also reflected elsewhere. For example, if at consummation the creditor collects interim interest of $30 and a credit report fee of $10, a total prepaid finance charge of $40 must be shown. At the creditor's option, the credit report fee paid to a third party may also be shown elsewhere as an amount included in § 1026.18(c)(1)(iii). The creditor may also further describe the 2 components of the prepaid finance charge, although no itemization of this element is required by § 1026.18(c)(1)(iv).
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<P>2. <I>Prepaid mortgage insurance premiums.</I> Regulation X under RESPA, 12 CFR 1024.8, requires creditors to give consumers a settlement statement disclosing the costs associated with reverse mortgage loan transactions. Included on the settlement statement are mortgage insurance premiums collected at settlement, which are prepaid finance charges. In calculating the total amount of prepaid finance charges, creditors should use the amount for mortgage insurance listed on the line for mortgage insurance on the settlement statement (line 1003 on HUD-1 or HUD 1-A), without adjustment, even if the actual amount collected at settlement may vary because of RESPA's escrow accounting rules. Figures for mortgage insurance disclosed in conformance with RESPA shall be deemed to be accurate for purposes of Regulation Z.


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<HD3>18(d) Finance Charge
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must disclose the finance charge as a dollar amount, using the term <I>finance charge,</I> and must include a brief description similar to that in § 1026.18(d). The creditor may, but need not, further modify the descriptor for variable rate transactions with a phrase such as <I>which is subject to change.</I> The finance charge must be shown on the disclosures only as a total amount; the elements of the finance charge must not be itemized in the segregated disclosures, although the regulation does not prohibit their itemization elsewhere.
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<HD3>18(d)(2) Other Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Tolerance.</I> When a finance charge error results in a misstatement of the amount financed, or some other dollar amount for which the regulation provides no specific tolerance, the misstated disclosure does not violate the Act or the regulation if the finance charge error is within the permissible tolerance under this paragraph.
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<HD3>18(e) Annual Percentage Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must disclose the cost of the credit as an annual rate, using the term <I>annual percentage rate,</I> plus a brief descriptive phrase comparable to that used in § 1026.18(e). For variable rate transactions, the descriptor may be further modified with a phrase such as <I>which is subject to change.</I> Under § 1026.17(a), the terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>finance charge</I> must be more conspicuous than the other required disclosures.
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<P>2. <I>Exception.</I> Section 1026.18(e) provides an exception for certain transactions in which no annual percentage rate disclosure is required.
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<HD3>18(f) Variable Rate
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<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The requirements of § 1026.18(f) apply to all transactions in which the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the rate originally disclosed to the consumer. It includes not only increases in the interest rate but also increases in other components, such as the rate of required credit life insurance. The provisions, however, do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, acceleration or transfer of the collateral. Section 1026.18(f)(1) applies to variable-rate transactions that are not secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and to those that are secured by the principal dwelling but have a term of one year or less. Section 1026.18(f)(2) applies to variable-rate transactions that are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and have a term greater than one year. Moreover, transactions subject to § 1026.18(f)(2) are subject to the special early disclosure requirements of § 1026.19(b). (However, “shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 1026.18(f)(1) and not to the requirements of §§ 1026.18(f)(2) and 1026.19(b) regardless of the general coverage of those sections.) Creditors are permitted under § 1026.18(f)(1) to substitute in any variable-rate transaction the disclosures required under § 1026.19(b) for those disclosures ordinarily required under § 1026.18(f)(1). Creditors who provide variable-rate disclosures under § 1026.19(b) must comply with all of the requirements of that section, including the timing of disclosures, and must also provide the disclosures required under § 1026.18(f)(2). Creditors substituting § 1026.19(b) disclosures for § 1026.18(f)(1) disclosures may, but need not, also provide disclosures pursuant to § 1026.20(c). (Substitution of disclosures under § 1026.18(f)(1) in transactions subject to § 1026.19(b) is not permitted.)
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> In describing the variable rate feature, the creditor need not use any prescribed terminology. For example, limitations and hypothetical examples may be described in terms of interest rates rather than annual percentage rates. The model forms in appendix H provide examples of ways in which the variable rate disclosures may be made.
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<P>2. <I>Conversion feature.</I> In variable-rate transactions with an option permitting consumers to convert to a fixed-rate transaction, the conversion option is a variable-rate feature that must be disclosed. In making disclosures under § 1026.18(f)(1), creditors should disclose the fact that the rate may increase upon conversion; identify the index or formula used to set the fixed rate; and state any limitations on and effects of an increase resulting from conversion that differ from other variable-rate features. Because § 1026.18(f)(1)(iv) requires only one hypothetical example (such as an example of the effect on payments resulting from changes in the index), a second hypothetical example need not be given.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Circumstances.</I> The circumstances under which the rate may increase include identification of any index to which the rate is tied, as well as any conditions or events on which the increase is contingent.
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<P>i. When no specific index is used, any identifiable factors used to determine whether to increase the rate must be disclosed.
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<P>ii. When the increase in the rate is purely discretionary, the fact that any increase is within the creditor's discretion must be disclosed.
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<P>iii. When the index is internally defined (for example, by that creditor's prime rate), the creditor may comply with this requirement by either a brief description of that index or a statement that any increase is in the discretion of the creditor. An externally defined index, however, must be identified.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Limitations.</I> This includes any maximum imposed on the amount of an increase in the rate at any time, as well as any maximum on the total increase over the life of the transaction. Except for private education loans disclosures, when there are no limitations, the creditor may, but need not, disclose that fact, and limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. (See § 1026.30 for the rule requiring that a maximum interest rate be included in certain variable-rate transactions.) For disclosures with respect to private education loan disclosures, see comment 47(b)(1)-2.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(iii)
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<P>1. <I>Effects.</I> Disclosure of the effect of an increase refers to an increase in the number or amount of payments or an increase in the final payment. In addition, the creditor may make a brief reference to negative amortization that may result from a rate increase. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(a)(1) regarding directly related information.) If the effect cannot be determined, the creditor must provide a statement of the possible effects. For example, if the exercise of the variable-rate feature may result in either more or larger payments, both possibilities must be noted.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Hypothetical example.</I> The example may, at the creditor's option appear apart from the other disclosures. The creditor may provide either a standard example that illustrates the terms and conditions of that type of credit offered by that creditor or an example that directly reflects the terms and conditions of the particular transaction. In transactions with more than one variable-rate feature, only one hypothetical example need be provided. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(a)(1) regarding disclosure of more than one hypothetical example as directly related information.)
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<P>2. <I>Hypothetical example not required.</I> The creditor need not provide a hypothetical example in the following transactions with a variable-rate feature:
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<P>i. Demand obligations with no alternate maturity date.
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<P>ii. Private education loans as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5).
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<P>iii. Multiple-advance construction loans disclosed pursuant to appendix D, Part I.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(f)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In variable-rate transactions that have a term greater than one year and are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, the creditor must give special early disclosures under § 1026.19(b) in addition to the later disclosures required under § 1026.18(f)(2). The disclosures under § 1026.18(f)(2) must state that the transaction has a variable-rate feature and that variable-rate disclosures have been provided earlier. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(a)(1) regarding the disclosure of certain directly related information in addition to the variable-rate disclosures required under § 1026.18(f)(2).)


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<HD3>18(g) Payment Schedule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts included in repayment schedule.</I> The repayment schedule should reflect all components of the finance charge, not merely the portion attributable to interest. A prepaid finance charge, however, should not be shown in the repayment schedule as a separate payment. The payments may include amounts beyond the amount financed and finance charge. For example, the disclosed payments may, at the creditor's option, reflect certain insurance premiums where the premiums are not part of either the amount financed or the finance charge, as well as real estate escrow amounts such as taxes added to the payment in mortgage transactions.
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<P>2. <I>Deferred downpayments.</I> As discussed in the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(18), deferred downpayments or pick-up payments that meet the conditions set forth in the definition of downpayment may be treated as part of the downpayment. Even if treated as a downpayment, that amount may nevertheless be disclosed as part of the payment schedule, at the creditor's option.
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<P>3. <I>Total number of payments.</I> In disclosing the number of payments for transactions with more than one payment level, creditors may but need not disclose as a single figure the total number of payments for all levels. For example, in a transaction calling for 108 payments of $350, 240 payments of $335, and 12 payments of $330, the creditor need not state that there will be a total of 360 payments.
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<P>4. <I>Timing of payments.</I> i. <I>General rule.</I> Section 1026.18(g) requires creditors to disclose the timing of payments. To meet this requirement, creditors may list all of the payment due dates. They also have the option of specifying the “period of payments” scheduled to repay the obligation. As a general rule, creditors that choose this option must disclose the payment intervals or frequency, such as “monthly” or “bi-weekly,” and the calendar date that the beginning payment is due. For example, a creditor may disclose that payments are due “monthly beginning on July 1, 1998.” This information, when combined with the number of payments, is necessary to define the repayment period and enable a consumer to determine all of the payment due dates.
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<P>ii. <I>Exception.</I> In a limited number of circumstances, the beginning-payment date is unknown and difficult to determine at the time disclosures are made. For example, a consumer may become obligated on a credit contract that contemplates the delayed disbursement of funds based on a contingent event, such as the completion of repairs. Disclosures may also accompany loan checks that are sent by mail, in which case the initial disbursement and repayment dates are solely within the consumer's control. In such cases, if the beginning-payment date is unknown the creditor may use an estimated date and label the disclosure as an estimate pursuant to § 1026.17(c). Alternatively, the disclosure may refer to the occurrence of a particular event, for example, by disclosing that the beginning payment is due “30 days after the first loan disbursement.” This information also may be included with an estimated date to explain the basis for the creditor's estimate. <I>See</I> comment 17(a)(1)-5.iii.
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<P>5. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>6. <I>Mortgage transactions.</I> Section 1026.18(g) applies to closed-end transactions, other than transactions that are subject to § 1026.18(s) or § 1026.19(e) and (f). Section 1026.18(s) applies to closed-end transactions secured by real property or a dwelling, unless they are subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f). Section 1026.19(e) and (f) applies to closed-end transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages. Thus, if a closed-end consumer credit transaction is secured by real property, a cooperative unit, or a dwelling and the transaction is a reverse mortgage or the dwelling is personal property but not a cooperative unit, then the creditor discloses an interest rate and payment summary table in accordance with § 1026.18(s). <I>See</I> comment 18(s)-4. If a closed-end consumer credit transaction is secured by real property or a cooperative unit and is not a reverse mortgage, the creditor discloses a projected payments table in accordance with §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c), as required by § 1026.19(e) and (f). In all such cases, the creditor is not subject to the requirements of § 1026.18(g). On the other hand, if a closed-end consumer credit transaction is not secured by real property or a dwelling (for example, if it is unsecured or secured by an automobile), the creditor discloses a payment schedule in accordance with § 1026.18(g) and is not subject to the requirements of § 1026.18(s) or §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c).


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<HD3>Paragraph 18(g)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Demand obligations.</I> In demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor has the option of disclosing only the due dates or periods of scheduled interest payments in the first year (for example, “interest payable quarterly” or “interest due the first of each month”). The amounts of the interest payments need not be shown.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(g)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Abbreviated disclosure.</I> The creditor may disclose an abbreviated payment schedule when the amount of each regularly scheduled payment (other than the first or last payment) includes an equal amount to be applied on principal and a finance charge computed by application of a rate to the decreasing unpaid balance. In addition, in transactions where payments vary because interest and principal are paid at different intervals, the two series of payments may be disclosed separately and the abbreviated payment schedule may be used for the interest payments. For example, in transactions with fixed quarterly principal payments and monthly interest payments based on the outstanding principal balance, the amount of the interest payments will change quarterly as principal declines. In such cases the creditor may treat the interest and principal payments as two separate series of payments, separately disclosing the number, amount, and due dates of principal payments, and, using the abbreviated payment schedule, the number, amount, and due dates of interest payments. This option may be used when interest and principal are scheduled to be paid on the same date of the month as well as on different dates of the month. The creditor using this alternative must disclose the dollar amount of the highest and lowest payments and make reference to the variation in payments.
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<P>2. <I>Combined payment schedule disclosures.</I> Creditors may combine the option in § 1026.18(g)(2) with the general payment schedule requirements in transactions where only a portion of the payment schedule meets the conditions of § 1026.18(g)(2). For example, in a transaction where payments rise sharply for five years and then decline over the next 25 years, the first five years would be disclosed under the general rule in § 1026.18(g) and the next 25 years according to the abbreviated schedule in § 1026.18(g)(2).
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<P>3. <I>Effect on other disclosures.</I> Section 1026.18(g)(2) applies only to the payment schedule disclosure. The actual amounts of payments must be taken into account in calculating and disclosing the finance charge and the annual percentage rate.
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<HD3>Paragraph 18(h) Total of Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The total of payments must be disclosed using that term, along with a descriptive phrase similar to the one in the regulation. The descriptive explanation may be revised to reflect a variable rate feature with a brief phrase such as “based on the current annual percentage rate which may change.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of total of payments.</I> The total of payments is the sum of the payments disclosed under § 1026.18(g). For example, if the creditor disclosed a deferred portion of the downpayment as part of the payment schedule, that payment must be reflected in the total disclosed under this paragraph. To calculate the total of payments amount for transactions subject to § 1026.18(s), creditors should use the rules in § 1026.18(g) and associated commentary and, for adjustable-rate transactions, comments 17(c)(1)-8 and -10.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exception.</I> Section 1026.18(h) permits creditors to omit disclosure of the total of payments in single-payment transactions. This exception does not apply to a transaction calling for a single payment of principal combined with periodic payments of interest.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Demand obligations.</I> In demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor may omit disclosure of payment amounts under § 1026.18(g)(1). In those transactions, the creditor need not disclose the total of payments.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(i) Demand Feature
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> The disclosure requirements of this provision apply not only to transactions payable on demand from the outset, but also to transactions that are not payable on demand at the time of consummation but convert to a demand status after a stated period. In demand obligations in which the disclosures are based on an assumed maturity of 1 year under § 1026.17(c)(5), that fact must also be stated. appendix H contains model clauses that may be used in making this disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Covered demand features.</I> The type of demand feature triggering the disclosures required by § 1026.18(i) includes only those demand features contemplated by the parties as part of the legal obligation. For example, this provision does not apply to transactions that covert to a demand status as a result of the consumer's default. A due-on-sale clause is not considered a demand feature. A creditor may, but need not, treat its contractual right to demand payment of a loan made to its executive officers as a demand feature to the extent that the contractual right is required by Regulation O of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 215.5) or other Federal law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to payment schedule disclosures.</I> As provided in § 1026.18(g)(1), in demand obligations with no alternate maturity date, the creditor need only disclose the due dates or payment periods of any scheduled interest payments for the first year. If the demand obligation states an alternate maturity, however, the disclosed payment schedule must reflect that stated term; the special rule in § 1026.18(g)(1) is not available.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(j) Total Sale Price
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In a credit sale transaction, the <I>total sale price</I> must be disclosed using that term, along with a descriptive explanation similar to the one in the regulation. For variable rate transactions, the descriptive phrase may, at the creditor's option, be modified to reflect the variable rate feature. For example, the descriptor may read: “The total cost of your purchase on credit, which is subject to change, including your downpayment of * * *.” The reference to a downpayment may be eliminated in transactions calling for no downpayment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of total sale price.</I> The figure to be disclosed is the sum of the cash price, other charges added under § 1026.18(b)(2), and the finance charge disclosed under § 1026.18(d).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effect of existing liens.</I> When a credit sale transaction involves property that is being used as a trade-in (an automobile, for example) and that has a lien exceeding the value of the trade-in, the total sale price is affected by the amount of any cash provided. (See comment 2(a)(18)-3.) To illustrate, assume a consumer finances the purchase of an automobile with a cash price of $20,000. Another vehicle used as a trade-in has a value of $8,000 but has an existing lien of $10,000, leaving a $2,000 deficit that the consumer must finance.
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer pays $1,500 in cash, the creditor may apply the cash first to the lien, leaving a $500 deficit, and reflect a downpayment of $0. The total sale price would include the $20,000 cash price, an additional $500 financed under § 1026.18(b)(2), and the amount of the finance charge. Alternatively, the creditor may reflect a downpayment of $1,500 and finance the $2,000 deficit. In that case, the total sale price would include the sum of the $20,000 cash price, the $2,000 lien payoff amount as an additional amount financed, and the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer pays $3,000 in cash, the creditor may apply the cash first to extinguish the lien and reflect the remainder as a downpayment of $1,000. The total sale price would reflect the $20,000 cash price and the amount of the finance charge. (The cash payment extinguishes the trade-in deficit and no charges are added under § 1026.18(b)(2).) Alternatively, the creditor may elect to reflect a downpayment of $3,000 and finance the $2,000 deficit. In that case, the total sale price would include the sum of the $20,000 cash price, the $2,000 lien payoff amount as an additional amount financed, and the amount of the finance charge.
</P>
<HD3>18(k) Prepayment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must give a definitive statement of whether or not a prepayment penalty will be imposed or a prepayment rebate will be given.
</P>
<P>i. The fact that no prepayment penalty will be imposed may not simply be inferred from the absence of a prepayment penalty disclosure; the creditor must indicate that prepayment will not result in a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>ii. If a prepayment penalty or prepayment rebate is possible for one type of prepayment, even though not for all, a positive disclosure is required. This applies to any type of prepayment, whether voluntary or involuntary as in the case of prepayments resulting from acceleration.
</P>
<P>iii. Any difference in prepayment rebate or prepayment penalty policy, depending on whether prepayment is voluntary or not, must not be disclosed with the segregated disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rebate-penalty disclosure.</I> A single transaction may involve both a precomputed finance charge and a finance charge computed by application of a rate to the unpaid balance (for example, mortgages with mortgage-guarantee insurance). In these cases, disclosures about both prepayment rebates and prepayment penalties are required. Sample form H-15 in appendix H to this part illustrates a mortgage transaction in which both rebate and penalty disclosures are necessary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prepaid finance charge.</I> The existence of a prepaid finance charge in a transaction does not, by itself, require a disclosure under § 1026.18(k). A prepaid finance charge is not considered a prepayment penalty under § 1026.18(k)(1), nor does it require a disclosure under § 1026.18(k)(2). At its option, however, a creditor may consider a prepaid finance charge to be under § 1026.18(k)(2). If a disclosure is made under § 1026.18(k)(2) with respect to a prepaid finance charge or other finance charge, the creditor may further identify that finance charge. For example, the disclosure may state that the borrower “will not be entitled to a refund of the prepaid finance charge” or some other term that describes the finance charge.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(k)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of prepayment penalties.</I> For purposes of § 1026.18(k)(1), the following are examples of prepayment penalties:</P>
<P>i. A charge determined by treating the loan balance as outstanding for a period of time after prepayment in full and applying the interest rate to such “balance,” even if the charge results from interest accrual amortization used for other payments in the transaction under the terms of the loan contract. “Interest accrual amortization” refers to the method by which the amount of interest due for each period (<I>e.g.,</I> month) in a transaction's term is determined. For example, “monthly interest accrual amortization” treats each payment as made on the scheduled, monthly due date even if it is actually paid early or late (until the expiration of any grace period). Thus, under the terms of a loan contract providing for monthly interest accrual amortization, if the amount of interest due on May 1 for the preceding month of April is $3,000, the loan contract will require payment of $3,000 in interest for the month of April whether the payment is made on April 20, on May 1, or on May 10. In this example, if the consumer prepays the loan in full on April 20 and if the accrued interest as of that date is $2,000, then assessment of a charge of $3,000 constitutes a prepayment penalty of $1,000 because the amount of interest actually earned through April 20 is only $2,000.
</P>
<P>ii. A fee, such as an origination or other loan closing cost, that is waived by the creditor on the condition that the consumer does not prepay the loan. However, the term prepayment penalty does not include a waived bona fide third-party charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer pays all of a covered transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due sooner than 36 months after consummation. For example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup the $3,000 in waived charges if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 charge is not a prepayment penalty. In contrast, for example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup $4,500 in part to recoup waived charges, if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 that the creditor may impose to cover the waived bona fide third-party charges is not a prepayment penalty, but the additional $1,500 charge is a prepayment penalty and must be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(k)(1).
</P>
<P>iii. A minimum finance charge in a simple interest transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees that are not prepayment penalties.</I> For purposes of § 1026.18(k)(1), fees which are not prepayment penalties include, for example:</P>
<P>i. Fees imposed for preparing and providing documents when a loan is paid in full, if such fees are imposed whether or not the loan is prepaid. Examples include a loan payoff statement, a reconveyance document, or another document releasing the creditor's security interest in the dwelling that secures the loan.
</P>
<P>ii. Loan guarantee fees.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(k)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rebate of finance charge.</I> i. This applies to any finance charges that do not take account of each reduction in the principal balance of an obligation. This category includes, for example:</P>
<P>A. Precomputed finance charges such as add-on charges. This includes computing a refund of an unearned finance charge, such as precomputed interest, by a method that is less favorable to the consumer than the actuarial method, as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d). For purposes of computing a refund of unearned interest, if using the actuarial method defined by applicable State law results in a refund that is greater than the refund calculated by using the method described in section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, creditors should use the State law definition in determining if a refund is a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>B. Charges that take account of some but not all reductions in principal, such as mortgage guarantee insurance assessed on the basis of an annual declining balance, when the principal is reduced on a monthly basis.
</P>
<P>ii. No description of the method of computing earned or unearned finance charges is required or permitted as part of the segregated disclosures under § 1026.18(k)(2).


</P>
<HD3>18(l) Late Payment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> This paragraph requires a disclosure only if charges are added to individual delinquent installments by a creditor who otherwise considers the transaction ongoing on its original terms. Late payment charges do not include:
</P>
<P>i. The right of acceleration.
</P>
<P>ii. Fees imposed for actual collection costs, such as repossession charges or attorney's fees.
</P>
<P>iii. Deferral and extension charges.
</P>
<P>iv. The continued accrual of simple interest at the contract rate after the payment due date. However, an increase in the interest rate is a late payment charge to the extent of the increase.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of disclosure.</I> Many state laws authorize the calculation of late charges on the basis of either a percentage or a specified dollar amount, and permit imposition of the lesser or greater of the 2 charges. The disclosure made under § 1026.18(l) may reflect this alternative. For example, stating that the charge in the event of a late payment is 5% of the late amount, not to exceed $5.00, is sufficient. Many creditors also permit a grace period during which no late charge will be assessed; this fact may be disclosed as directly related information. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(a).) 
</P>
<HD3>18(m) Security Interest
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Purchase money transactions.</I> When the collateral is the item purchased as part of, or with the proceeds of, the credit transaction, § 1026.18(m) requires only a general identification such as “the property purchased in this transaction.” However, the creditor may identify the property by item or type instead of identifying it more generally with a phrase such as “the property purchased in this transaction.” For example, a creditor may identify collateral as “a motor vehicle,” or as “the property purchased in this transaction.” Any transaction in which the credit is being used to purchase the collateral is considered a purchase money transaction and the abbreviated identification may be used, whether the obligation is treated as a loan or a credit sale.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Nonpurchase money transactions.</I> In nonpurchase money transactions, the property subject to the security interest must be identified by item or type. This disclosure is satisfied by a general disclosure of the category of property subject to the security interest, such as “motor vehicles,” “securities,” “certain household items,” or “household goods.” (Creditors should be aware, however, that the Federal credit practices rules, as well as some state laws, prohibit certain security interests in household goods.) At the creditor's option, however, a more precise identification of the property or goods may be provided.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mixed collateral.</I> In some transactions in which the credit is used to purchase the collateral, the creditor may also take other property of the consumer as security. In those cases, a combined disclosure must be provided, consisting of an identification of the purchase money collateral consistent with comment 18(m)-1 and a specific identification of the other collateral consistent with comment 18(m)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>After-acquired property.</I> An after-acquired property clause is not a security interest to be disclosed under § 1026.18(m).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Spreader clause.</I> The fact that collateral for pre-existing credit with the institution is being used to secure the present obligation constitutes a security interest and must be disclosed. (Such security interests may be known as “spreader” or “dragnet” clauses, or as “cross-collateralization” clauses.) A specific identification of that collateral is unnecessary but a reminder of the interest arising from the prior indebtedness is required. The disclosure may be made by using language such as “collateral securing other loans with us may also secure this loan.” At the creditor's option, a more specific description of the property involved may be given.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> No specified terminology is required in disclosing a security interest. Although the disclosure may, at the creditor's option, use the term <I>security interest,</I> the creditor may designate its interest by using, for example, <I>pledge, lien,</I> or <I>mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>7. <I>Collateral from third party.</I> In certain transactions, the consumer's obligation may be secured by collateral belonging to a third party. For example, a loan to a student may be secured by an interest in the property of the student's parents. In such cases, the security interest is taken in connection with the transaction and must be disclosed, even though the property encumbered is owned by someone other than the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>18(n) Insurance and Debt Cancellation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Location.</I> This disclosure may, at the creditor's option, appear apart from the other disclosures. It may appear with any other information, including the amount financed itemization, any information prescribed by state law, or other supplementary material. When this information is disclosed with the other segregated disclosures, however, no additional explanatory material may be included.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt cancellation.</I> Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation coverage constitutes insurance under state law. Otherwise, they may provide a parallel disclosure that refers to debt cancellation coverage.
</P>
<HD3>18(o) Certain Security Interest Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Format.</I> No special format is required for these disclosures; under § 1026.4(e), taxes and fees paid to government officials with respect to a security interest may be aggregated, or may be broken down by individual charge. For example, the disclosure could be labeled “filing fees and taxes” and all funds disbursed for such purposes may be aggregated in a single disclosure. This disclosure may appear, at the creditor's option, apart from the other required disclosures. The inclusion of this information on a statement required under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act is sufficient disclosure for purposes of Truth in Lending.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(p) Contract Reference
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> Creditors may substitute, for the phrase “appropriate contract document,” a reference to specific transaction documents in which the additional information is found, such as “promissory note” or “retail installment sale contract.” A creditor may, at its option, delete inapplicable items in the contract reference, as for example when the contract documents contain no information regarding the right of acceleration.
</P>
<HD3>18(q) Assumption Policy
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Policy statement.</I> In many mortgages, the creditor cannot determine, at the time disclosure must be made, whether a loan may be assumable at a future date on its original terms. For example, the assumption clause commonly used in mortgages sold to the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation conditions an assumption on a variety of factors such as the creditworthiness of the subsequent borrower, the potential for impairment of the lender's security, and execution of an assumption agreement by the subsequent borrower. In cases where uncertainty exists as to the future assumability of a mortgage, the disclosure under § 1026.18(q) should reflect that fact. In making disclosures in such cases, the creditor may use phrases such as “subject to conditions,” “under certain circumstances,” or “depending on future conditions.” The creditor may provide a brief reference to more specific criteria such as a due-on-sale clause, although a complete explanation of all conditions is not appropriate. For example, the disclosure may state, “Someone buying your home may be allowed to assume the mortgage on its original terms, subject to certain conditions, such as payment of an assumption fee.” See comment 17(a)(1)-5 for an example for a reference to a due-on-sale clause.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Original terms.</I> The phrase <I>original terms</I> for purposes of § 1026.18(q) does not preclude the imposition of an assumption fee, but a modification of the basic credit agreement, such as a change in the contract interest rate, represents different terms.
</P>
<HD3>18(r) Required Deposit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> The creditor must inform the consumer of the existence of a required deposit. (Appendix H provides a model clause that may be used in making that disclosure.) Section 1026.18(r) describes 3 types of deposits that need not be considered required deposits. Use of the phrase “need not” permits creditors to include the disclosure even in cases where there is doubt as to whether the deposit constitutes a required deposit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Pledged account mortgages.</I> In these transactions, a consumer pledges as collateral funds that the consumer deposits in an account held by the creditor. The creditor withdraws sums from that account to supplement the consumer's periodic payments. Creditors may treat these pledged accounts as required deposits or they may treat them as consumer buydowns in accordance with the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Escrow accounts.</I> The escrow exception in § 1026.18(r) applies, for example, to accounts for such items as maintenance fees, repairs, or improvements, whether in a realty or a nonrealty transaction. (See the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1) regarding the use of escrow accounts in consumer buydown transactions.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Interest-bearing accounts.</I> When a deposit earns at least 5 percent interest per year, no disclosure is required under § 1026.18(r). This exception applies whether the deposit is held by the creditor or by a third party.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Morris Plan transactions.</I> A deposit under a Morris Plan, in which a deposit account is created for the sole purpose of accumulating payments and this is applied to satisfy entirely the consumer's obligation in the transaction, is not a required deposit.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples of amounts excluded.</I> The following are among the types of deposits that need not be treated as required deposits:
</P>
<P>i. Requirement that a borrower be a customer or a member even if that involves a fee or a minimum balance.
</P>
<P>ii. Required property insurance escrow on a mobile home transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. Refund of interest when the obligation is paid in full.
</P>
<P>iv. Deposits that are immediately available to the consumer.
</P>
<P>v. Funds deposited with the creditor to be disbursed (for example, for construction) before the loan proceeds are advanced.
</P>
<P>vi. [Reserved]
</P>
<P>vii. Escrow of loan proceeds to be released when the repairs are completed.
</P>
<HD3>18(s) Interest Rate and Payment Summary for Mortgage Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Section 1026.18(s) prescribes format and content for disclosure of interest rates and monthly (or other periodic) payments for reverse mortgages and certain transactions secured by dwellings that are personal property but not cooperative units. The information in § 1026.18(s)(2) through (4) is required to be in the form of a table, except as otherwise provided, with headings and format substantially similar to model clause H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), or H-4(H) in appendix H to this part. A disclosure that does not include the shading shown in a model clause but otherwise follows the model clause's headings and format is substantially similar to that model clause. Where § 1026.18(s)(2) through (4) or the applicable model clause requires that a column or row of the table be labeled using the word “monthly” but the periodic payments are not due monthly, the creditor should use the appropriate term, such as “bi-weekly” or “quarterly.” In all cases, the table should have no more than five vertical columns corresponding to applicable interest rates at various times during the loan's term; corresponding payments would be shown in horizontal rows. Certain loan types and terms are defined for purposes of § 1026.18(s) in § 1026.18(s)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amortizing loans.</I> Loans described as amortizing in §§ 1026.18(s)(2)(i) and 1026.18(s)(3) include interest-only loans if they do not also permit negative amortization. (For rules relating to loans with balloon payments, see § 1026.18(s)(5)). If an amortizing loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory rate (less than the fully-indexed rate), creditors must provide a special explanation of introductory rates. <I>See</I> § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Negative amortization.</I> For negative amortization loans, creditors must follow the rules in §§ 1026.18(s)(2)(ii) and 1026.18(s)(4) in disclosing interest rates and monthly payments. Loans with negative amortization also require special explanatory disclosures about rates and payments. <I>See</I> § 1026.18(s)(6). Loans with negative amortization include “payment option” loans, in which the consumer is permitted to make minimum payments that will cover only some of the interest accruing each month. <I>See also</I> comment 17(c)(1)-12, regarding graduated-payment adjustable-rate mortgages.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Scope of coverage in relation to § 1026.19(e) and (f).</I> Section 1026.18(s) applies to transactions secured by real property or a dwelling, other than transactions that are subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f). Those provisions apply to closed-end transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages. Accordingly, § 1026.18(s) governs only closed-end reverse mortgages and closed-end transactions secured by a dwelling, other than a cooperative, that is personal property (such as a mobile home that is not deemed real property under State or other applicable law).


</P>
<HD3>18(s)(2) Interest Rates 
</HD3>
<HD3>18(s)(2)(i) Amortizing Loans 
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fixed rate loans—payment increases.</I> Although the interest rate will not change after consummation for a fixed-rate loan, some fixed-rate loans may have periodic payments that increase after consummation. For example, the terms of the legal obligation may permit the consumer to make interest-only payments for a specified period such as the first five years after consummation. In such cases, the creditor must include the increased payment under § 1026.18(s)(3)(ii)(B) in the payment row, and must show the interest rate in the column for that payment, even though the rate has not changed since consummation. See also comment 17(c)(1)-13, regarding growth equity mortgages.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages.</I> Creditors must disclose more than one interest rate for adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages, in accordance with § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(B). Creditors must assume that an adjustable-rate mortgage's interest rate will increase after consummation as rapidly as possible, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maximum interest rate during first five years—adjustable-rate mortgages and step-rate mortgages.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum rate that could apply during the first five years after consummation. If there are no interest rate caps other than the maximum rate required under § 1026.30, then the creditor should disclose only the rate at consummation and the maximum rate. Such a table would have only two columns.
</P>
<P>i. For an adjustable-rate mortgage, the creditor must take into account any interest rate caps when disclosing the maximum interest rate during the first five years. The creditor must also disclose the earliest date on which that adjustment may occur.
</P>
<P>ii. If the transaction is a step-rate mortgage, the creditor should disclose the rate that will apply after consummation. For example, the legal obligation may provide that the rate is 6 percent for the first two years following consummation, and then increases to 7 percent for at least the next three years. The creditor should disclose the maximum rate during the first five years as 7 percent and the date on which the rate is scheduled to increase to 7 percent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Maximum interest rate at any time.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum rate that could apply at any time during the term of the loan and the earliest date on which the maximum rate could apply.
</P>
<P>i. For an adjustable-rate mortgage, the creditor must take into account any interest rate caps in disclosing the maximum interest rate. For example, if the legal obligation provides that at each annual adjustment the rate may increase by no more than 2 percentage points, the creditor must take this limit into account in determining the earliest date on which the maximum possible rate may be reached.
</P>
<P>ii. For a step-rate mortgage, the creditor should disclose the highest rate that could apply under the terms of the legal obligation and the date on which that rate will first apply.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(i)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payment increases.</I> For some loans, the payment may increase following consummation for reasons unrelated to an interest rate adjustment. For example, an adjustable-rate mortgage may have an introductory fixed rate for the first five years following consummation and permit the borrower to make interest-only payments for the first three years. The disclosure requirement of § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(C) applies to all amortizing loans, including interest-only loans, if the consumer's payment can increase in the manner described in § 1026.18(s)(3)(i)(B), even if it is not the type of loan covered by § 1026.18(s)(3)(i). Thus, § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(C) requires that the creditor disclose the interest rate that corresponds to the first payment that includes principal as well as interest, even though the interest rate will not adjust at that time. In such cases, if the loan is an interest-only loan, the creditor also must disclose the corresponding periodic payment pursuant to § 1026.18(s)(3)(ii). The table would show, from left to right: The interest rate and payment at consummation with the payment itemized to show that the payment is being applied to interest only; the interest rate and payment when the interest-only option ends; the maximum interest rate and payment during the first five years; and the maximum possible interest rate and payment. The disclosure requirements of § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(C) do not apply to minor payment variations resulting solely from the fact that months have different numbers of days.
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(2)(ii) Negative Amortization Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rate at consummation.</I> In all cases the interest rate in effect at consummation must be disclosed, even if it will apply only for a short period such as one month.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rates for adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> The creditor must assume that interest rates rise as quickly as possible after consummation, in accordance with any interest rate caps under the legal obligation. For adjustable-rate mortgages with no rate caps except a lifetime maximum, creditors must assume that interest rate reaches the maximum at the first adjustment. For example, assume that the legal obligation provides for an interest rate at consummation of 1.5 percent. One month after consummation, the interest rate adjusts and will adjust monthly thereafter, according to changes in the index. The consumer may make payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month, until the date the principal balance reaches 115 percent of its original balance, or until the end of the fifth year after consummation, whichever comes first. The maximum possible rate is 10.5 percent. No other limits on interest rates apply. The minimum required payment adjusts each year, and may increase by no more than 7.5 percent over the previous year's payment. The creditor should disclose the following rates and the dates when they are scheduled to occur: A rate of 1.5 percent for the first month following consummation and the minimum payment; a rate of 10.5 percent, and the corresponding minimum payment taking into account the 7.5 percent limit on payment increases, at the beginning of the second year; and a rate of 10.5 percent and the corresponding minimum payment taking into account the 7.5 percent payment increase limit, at the beginning of the third year. The creditor also must disclose the rate of 10.5 percent, the fully amortizing payment, and the date on which the consumer must first make such a payment under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(2)(iii) Introductory Rate Disclosure for Amortizing Adjustable-Rate Mortgage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Introductory rate.</I> In some adjustable-rate mortgages, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is lower than the fully indexed rate at consummation. For amortizing loans with an introductory rate, creditors must disclose the information required in § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii) directly below the table.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(iii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Place in sequence.</I> “Designation of the place in sequence” refers to identifying the month or year, as applicable, of the change in the rate resulting from the expiration of an introductory rate by its place in the sequence of months or years, as applicable, of the transaction's term. For example, if a transaction has a discounted rate for the first three years, § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii)(B) requires a statement such as, “In the fourth year, even if market rates do not change, this rate will increase to ____%.”
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(2)(iii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fully indexed rate.</I> The fully indexed rate is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7) as the index plus the margin at consummation. For purposes of § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii)(C), “at consummation” refers to disclosures delivered at consummation, or three business days before consummation pursuant to § 1026.19(a)(2)(ii); for early disclosures delivered within three business days after receipt of a consumer's application pursuant to § 1026.19(a)(1), the fully indexed rate disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii)(C) may be based on the index in effect at the time the disclosures are provided. The index in effect at consummation (or at the time of early disclosures) need not be used if a contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, creditors may use any index value in effect during the 45 days before consummation (or any earlier date of disclosure) in calculating the fully indexed rate to be disclosed.
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(3) Payments for Amortizing Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payments corresponding to interest rates.</I> Creditors must disclose the periodic payment that corresponds to each interest rate disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(A)-(C). The corresponding periodic payment is the regular payment for each such interest rate, without regard to any final payment that differs from others because of the rounding of periodic payments to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents. Balloon payments, however, must be disclosed as provided in § 1026.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Principal and interest payment amounts; examples.</I> i. For fixed-rate interest-only transactions, § 1026.18(s)(3)(ii)(B) requires scheduled increases in the regular periodic payment amounts to be disclosed along with the date of the increase. For example, in a fixed-rate interest-only loan, a scheduled increase in the payment amount from an interest-only payment to a fully amortizing payment must be disclosed. Similarly, in a fixed-rate balloon loan, the balloon payment must be disclosed in accordance with § 1026.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. For adjustable-rate mortgage transactions, § 1026.18(s)(3)(i)(A) requires that for each interest rate required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(2)(i) (the interest rate at consummation, the maximum rate during the first five years, and the maximum possible rate) a corresponding payment amount must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>iii. The format of the payment disclosure varies depending on whether all regular periodic payment amounts will include principal and interest, and whether there will be an escrow account for taxes and insurance.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(i)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Taxes and insurance.</I> An estimated payment amount for taxes and insurance must be disclosed if the creditor will establish an escrow account for such amounts. If the escrow account will include amounts for items other than taxes and insurance, such as homeowners association dues, the creditor may but is not required to include such items in the estimate. When such estimated escrow payments must be disclosed in multiple columns of the table, such as for adjustable- and step-rate transactions, each column should use the same estimate for taxes and insurance except that the estimate should reflect changes in periodic mortgage insurance premiums or any functionally equivalent fee that are known to the creditor at the time the disclosure is made. The estimated amounts of mortgage insurance premiums or any functionally equivalent fee should be based on the declining principal balance that will occur as a result of changes to the interest rate that are assumed for purposes of disclosing those rates under § 1026.18(s)(2) and accompanying commentary. The payment amount must include estimated amounts for property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor, such as insurance against loss of or damage to property, or against liability arising out of the ownership or use of the property, or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss. Premiums for credit insurance, debt suspension and debt cancellation agreements, however, should not be included. Except for periodic mortgage insurance premiums or any functionally equivalent fee included in the escrow payment under § 1026.18(s)(3)(i)(C), amounts included in the escrow payment disclosure such as property taxes and homeowner's insurance generally are not finance charges under § 1026.4 and, therefore, do not affect other disclosures, including the finance charge and annual percentage rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent.</I> For purposes of § 1026.18(s), “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” means the amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(5). “Mortgage guarantees” (such as a United States Department of Veterans Affairs or United States Department of Agriculture guarantee) provide coverage similar to mortgage insurance, even if not technically considered insurance under State or other applicable law. For purposes of § 1026.18(s), “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” includes any mortgage guarantee. Payment amounts under § 1026.18(s)(3)(i) should reflect the consumer's mortgage insurance payments or any functionally equivalent fee until the date on which the creditor must automatically terminate coverage under applicable law, even though the consumer may have a right to request that the insurance be cancelled earlier. The payment amount must reflect the terms of the legal obligation, as determined by applicable State or other law. For example, assume that under applicable law, mortgage insurance must terminate after the 130th scheduled monthly payment, and the creditor collects at closing and places in escrow two months of premiums. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will include mortgage insurance premiums in 130 payments and refund the escrowed payments when the insurance is terminated, payment amounts disclosed through the 130th payment should reflect premium payments. If, under the legal obligation, the creditor will apply the amount escrowed to the two final insurance payments, payments disclosed through the 128th payment should reflect premium payments. The escrow amount reflected on the disclosure should include mortgage insurance premiums even if they are not escrowed and even if there is no escrow account established for the transaction.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(i)(D)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total monthly payment.</I> For amortizing loans, each column should add up to a total estimated payment. The total estimated payment amount should be labeled. If periodic payments are not due monthly, the creditor should use the appropriate term such as “quarterly” or “annually.”
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(3)(ii) Interest-Only Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Interest-only loans that are also negative amortization loans.</I> The rules in § 1026.18(s)(3)(ii) for disclosing payments on interest-only loans apply only if the loan is not also a negative amortization loan. If the loan is a negative amortization loan, even if it also has an interest-only feature, payments are disclosed under the rules in § 1026.18(s)(4).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(3)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Escrows.</I> See the commentary under § 1026.18(s)(3)(i)(C) for guidance on escrows for purposes of § 1026.18(s)(3)(ii)(C).
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(4) Payments for Negative Amortization Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Table.</I> Section 1026.18(s)(1) provides that tables shall include only the information required in § 1026.18(s)(2)-(4). Thus, a table for a negative amortization loan must contain no more than two horizontal rows of payments and no more than five vertical columns of interest rates.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment amounts.</I> The payment amounts disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(4) are the minimum or fully amortizing periodic payments, as applicable, corresponding to the interest rates disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(2)(ii). The corresponding periodic payment is the regular payment for each such interest rate, without regard to any final payment that differs from the rest because of the rounding of periodic payments to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(4)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Minimum required payments.</I> In one row of the table, the creditor must disclose the minimum required payment in each column of the table, corresponding to each interest rate or adjustment required in § 1026.18(s)(2)(ii). The payments in this row must be calculated based on an assumption that the consumer makes the minimum required payment for as long as possible under the terms of the legal obligation. This row should be identified as the minimum payment option, and the statement required by § 1026.18(s)(4)(i)(C) should be included in the heading for the row.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 18(s)(4)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fully amortizing payments.</I> In one row of the table, the creditor must disclose the fully amortizing payment in each column of the table, corresponding to each interest rate required in § 1026.18(s)(2)(ii). The creditor must assume, for purposes of calculating the amounts in this row that the consumer makes only fully amortizing payments starting with the first scheduled payment.
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(5) Balloon Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A balloon payment is one that is more than two times the regular periodic payment. In a reverse mortgage transaction, the single payment is not considered a balloon payment. A balloon payment must be disclosed outside and below the table, unless the balloon payment coincides with an interest rate adjustment or a scheduled payment increase. In those cases, the balloon payment must be disclosed in the table.
</P>
<HD3>18(s)(6) Special Disclosures for Loans With Negative Amortization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Escrows.</I> See the commentary under § 1026.18(s)(3)(i)(C) for guidance on escrows for purposes of § 1026.18(s)(6). Under that guidance, because mortgage insurance payments and functionally equivalent fees decline over a loan's term, the payment amounts shown in the table should reflect the mortgage insurance payment and functionally equivalent fees that will be applicable at the time each disclosed periodic payment will be in effect. Accordingly, the disclosed mortgage insurance payment or functionally equivalent fee will be zero if it corresponds to a periodic payment that will occur after the creditor will be legally required to terminate mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent. On the other hand, because only one escrow amount is disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(6) for negative amortization loans and escrows that are not itemized in the payment amounts, the single escrow amount disclosed should reflect the mortgage insurance amount or any functionally equivalent fee that will be collected at the outset of the loan's term, even though that amount will decline in the future and ultimately will be discontinued pursuant to the terms of the mortgage insurance policy.


</P>
<HD3>18(s)(7) Definitions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> Under § 1026.18(s)(7)(v), a negative amortization loan is one that requires only a minimum periodic payment that covers only a portion of the accrued interest, resulting in negative amortization. For such a loan, § 1026.18(s)(4)(iii) requires creditors to disclose the fully amortizing periodic payment for each interest rate disclosed under § 1026.18(s)(2)(ii), in addition to the minimum periodic payment, regardless of whether the legal obligation explicitly recites that the consumer may make the fully amortizing payment. Some loan types that result in negative amortization do not meet the definition of negative amortization loan for purposes of § 1026.18(s). These include, for example, loans requiring level, amortizing payments but having a payment schedule containing gaps during which interest accrues and is added to the principal balance before regular, amortizing payments begin (or resume). For example, “seasonal income” loans may provide for amortizing payments during nine months of the year and no payments for the other three months; the required minimum payments (when made) are amortizing payments, thus such loans are not negative amortization loans under § 1026.18(s)(7)(v). An adjustable-rate loan that has fixed periodic payments that do not adjust when the interest rate adjusts also would not be disclosed as a negative amortization loan under § 1026.18(s). For example, assume the initial rate is 4%, for which the fully amortizing payment is $1500. Under the terms of the legal obligation, the consumer will make $1500 monthly payments even if the interest rate increases, and the additional interest is capitalized. The possibility (but not certainty) of negative amortization occurring after consummation does not make this transaction a negative amortization loan for purposes of § 1026.18(s). Loans that do not meet the definition of negative amortization loan, even if they may have negative amortization, are amortizing loans and are disclosed under §§ 1026.18(s)(2)(i) and 1026.18(s)(3).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.19—Certain Mortgage and Variable-Rate Transactions
</HD2>
<HD3>19(a)(1)(i) Time of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1026.19(a) requires early disclosure of credit terms in reverse mortgage transactions subject to § 1026.33 that are secured by a consumer's dwelling that are also subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) and its implementing Regulation X. To be covered by § 1026.19(a), a transaction must be a Federally related mortgage loan under RESPA. “Federally related mortgage loan” is defined under RESPA (12 U.S.C. 2602) and Regulation X (12 CFR 1024.2(b)), and is subject to any interpretations by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing and use of estimates.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.19(a)(1)(i) must be delivered or mailed not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application. The general definition of “business day” in § 1026.2(a)(6)—a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for substantially all of its business functions—is used for purposes of § 1026.19(a)(1)(i). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-1. This general definition is consistent with the definition of “business day” in Regulation X—a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying on substantially all of its business functions. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1024.2. Accordingly, the three-business-day period in § 1026.19(a)(1)(i) for making early disclosures coincides with the time period within which creditors subject to RESPA must provide good faith estimates of settlement costs. If the creditor does not know the precise credit terms, the creditor must base the disclosures on the best information reasonably available and indicate that the disclosures are estimates under § 1026.17(c)(2). If many of the disclosures are estimates, the creditor may include a statement to that effect (such as “all numerical disclosures except the late-payment disclosure are estimates”) instead of separately labeling each estimate. In the alternative, the creditor may label as an estimate only the items primarily affected by unknown information. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(2).) The creditor may provide explanatory material concerning the estimates and the contingencies that may affect the actual terms, in accordance with the commentary to § 1026.17(a)(1).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written application.</I> Creditors may rely on RESPA and Regulation X (including any interpretations issued by the Bureau) in deciding whether a “written application” has been received. In general, Regulation X defines “application” to mean the submission of a borrower's financial information in anticipation of a credit decision relating to a federally related mortgage loan. <I>See</I> 12 CFR 1024.2(b). An application is received when it reaches the creditor in any of the ways applications are normally transmitted—by mail, hand delivery, or through an intermediary agent or broker. (<I>See</I> comment 19(b)-3 for guidance in determining whether or not the transaction involves an intermediary agent or broker.) If an application reaches the creditor through an intermediary agent or broker, the application is received when it reaches the creditor, rather than when it reaches the agent or broker.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Denied or withdrawn applications.</I> The creditor may determine within the three-business-day period that the application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested, as, for example, when a consumer applies for a type or amount of credit that the creditor does not offer, or the consumer's application cannot be approved for some other reason. In that case, or if the consumer withdraws the application within the three-business-day period, the creditor need not make the disclosures under this section. If the creditor fails to provide early disclosures and the transaction is later consummated on the original terms, the creditor will be in violation of this provision. If, however, the consumer amends the application because of the creditor's unwillingness to approve it on its original terms, no violation occurs for not providing disclosures based on the original terms. But the amended application is a new application subject to § 1026.19(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Itemization of amount financed.</I> In many mortgage transactions, the itemization of the amount financed required by § 1026.18(c) will contain items, such as origination fees or points, that also must be disclosed as part of the good faith estimates of settlement costs required under RESPA. Creditors furnishing the RESPA good faith estimates need not give consumers any itemization of the amount financed.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(1)(ii) Imposition of Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing of fees.</I> The consumer must receive the disclosures required by this section before paying or incurring any fee imposed by a creditor or other person in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage transaction that is subject to § 1026.19(a)(1)(i), except as provided in § 1026.19(a)(1)(iii). If the creditor delivers the disclosures to the consumer in person, a fee may be imposed anytime after delivery. If the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the creditor may impose a fee after the consumer receives the disclosures or, in all cases, after midnight on the third business day following mailing of the disclosures. For purposes of § 1026.19(a)(1)(ii), the term “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2. For example, assuming that there are no intervening legal public holidays, a creditor that receives the consumer's written application on Monday and mails the early mortgage loan disclosure on Tuesday may impose a fee on the consumer after midnight on Friday.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees restricted.</I> A creditor or other person may not impose any fee, such as for an appraisal, underwriting, or broker services, until the consumer has received the disclosures required by § 1026.19(a)(1)(i). The only exception to the fee restriction allows the creditor or other person to impose a <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, such as for a credit report(s).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Collection of fees.</I> A creditor complies with § 1026.19(a)(1)(ii) if:
</P>
<P>i. The creditor receives a consumer's written application directly from the consumer and does not collect any fee, other than a fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, until the consumer receives the early mortgage loan disclosure.
</P>
<P>ii. A third party submits a consumer's written application to a creditor and both the creditor and third party do not collect any fee, other than a fee for obtaining a consumer's credit history, until the consumer receives the early mortgage loan disclosure from the creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. A third party submits a consumer's written application to a second creditor following a prior creditor's denial of an application made by the same consumer (or following the consumer's withdrawal), and, if a fee already has been assessed, the new creditor or third party does not collect or impose any additional fee until the consumer receives an early mortgage loan disclosure from the new creditor.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(1)(iii) Exception to Fee Restriction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a fee before the consumer receives the required disclosures if it is for obtaining the consumer's credit history, such as by purchasing a credit report(s) on the consumer. The fee also must be <I>bona fide</I> and reasonable in amount. For example, a creditor may collect a fee for obtaining a credit report(s) if it is in the creditor's ordinary course of business to obtain a credit report(s). If the criteria in § 1026.19(a)(1)(iii) are met, the creditor may describe or refer to this fee, for example, as an “application fee.”
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(2) Waiting Periods for Early Disclosures and Corrected Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Business day definition.</I> For purposes of § 1026.19(a)(2), “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consummation after both waiting periods expire.</I> Consummation may not occur until both the seven-business-day waiting period and the three-business-day waiting period have expired. For example, assume a creditor delivers the early disclosures to the consumer in person or places them in the mail on Monday, June 1, and the creditor then delivers corrected disclosures in person to the consumer on Wednesday, June 3. Although Saturday, June 6 is the third business day after the consumer received the corrected disclosures, consummation may not occur before Tuesday, June 9, the seventh business day following delivery or mailing of the early disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 19(a)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.19(a)(1)(i) must be delivered or placed in the mail no later than the seventh business day before consummation. The seven-business-day waiting period begins when the creditor delivers the early disclosures or places them in the mail, not when the consumer receives or is deemed to have received the early disclosures. For example, if a creditor delivers the early disclosures to the consumer in person or places them in the mail on Monday, June 1, consummation may occur on or after Tuesday, June 9, the seventh business day following delivery or mailing of the early disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 19(a)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Conditions for redisclosure.</I> If, at the time of consummation, the annual percentage rate disclosed is accurate under § 1026.22, the creditor does not have to make corrected disclosures under § 1026.19(a)(2). If, on the other hand, the annual percentage rate disclosed is not accurate under § 1026.22, the creditor must make corrected disclosures of all changed terms (including the annual percentage rate) so that the consumer receives them not later than the third business day before consummation. For example, assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 11 and the early disclosures for a regular mortgage transaction disclose an annual percentage rate of 7.00%:
</P>
<P>i. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.10%. The creditor is not required to make corrected disclosures under § 1026.19(a)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.15%. The creditor must make corrected disclosures so that the consumer receives them on or before Monday, June 8.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content of new disclosures.</I> If redisclosure is required, the creditor may provide a complete set of new disclosures, or may redisclose only the changed terms. If the creditor chooses to provide a complete set of new disclosures, the creditor may but need not highlight the new terms, provided that the disclosures comply with the format requirements of § 1026.17(a). If the creditor chooses to disclose only the new terms, all the new terms must be disclosed. For example, a different annual percentage rate will almost always produce a different finance charge, and often a new schedule of payments; all of these changes would have to be disclosed. If, in addition, unrelated terms such as the amount financed or prepayment penalty vary from those originally disclosed, the accurate terms must be disclosed. However, no new disclosures are required if the only inaccuracies involve estimates other than the annual percentage rate, and no variable rate feature has been added. For a discussion of the requirement to redisclose when a variable-rate feature is added, <I>see</I> comment 17(f)-2. For a discussion of redisclosure requirements in general, <I>see</I> the commentary on § 1026.17(f).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing.</I> When redisclosures are necessary because the annual percentage rate has become inaccurate, they must be received by the consumer no later than the third business day before consummation. (For redisclosures triggered by other events, the creditor must provide corrected disclosures before consummation. <I>See</I> § 1026.17(f).) If the creditor delivers the corrected disclosures to the consumer in person, consummation may occur any time on the third business day following delivery. If the creditor provides the corrected disclosures by mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are placed in the mail, for purposes of determining when the three-business-day waiting period required under § 1026.19(a)(2)(ii) begins. Creditors that use electronic mail or a courier other than the postal service may also follow this approach.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Basis for annual percentage rate comparison.</I> To determine whether a creditor must make corrected disclosures under § 1026.22, a creditor compares (a) what the annual percentage rate will be at consummation to (b) the annual percentage rate stated in the most recent disclosures the creditor made to the consumer. For example, assume consummation for a regular mortgage transaction is scheduled for Thursday, June 11, the early disclosures provided in May stated an annual percentage rate of 7.00%, and corrected disclosures received by the consumer on Friday, June 5 stated an annual percentage rate of 7.15%:
</P>
<P>i. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.25%, which exceeds the most recently disclosed annual percentage rate by less than the applicable tolerance. The creditor is not required to make additional corrected disclosures or wait an additional three business days under § 1026.19(a)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.30%, which exceeds the most recently disclosed annual percentage rate by more than the applicable tolerance. The creditor must make corrected disclosures such that the consumer receives them on or before Monday, June 8.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(3) Consumer's Waiver of Waiting Period Before Consummation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to a waiting period required by § 1026.19(a)(2) only after the creditor makes the disclosures required by § 1026.18. The consumer must have a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency that necessitates consummating the credit transaction before the end of the waiting period. Whether these conditions are met is determined by the facts surrounding individual situations. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure, where the foreclosure sale will proceed unless loan proceeds are made available to the consumer during the waiting period, is one example of a <I>bona fide</I> personal financial emergency. Each consumer who is primarily liable on the legal obligation must sign the written statement for the waiver to be effective.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of waivers within the seven-business-day waiting period.</I> Assume the early disclosures are delivered to the consumer in person on Monday, June 1, and at that time the consumer executes a waiver of the seven-business-day waiting period (which would end on Tuesday, June 9) so that the loan can be consummated on Friday, June 5:
</P>
<P>i. If the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures is inaccurate under § 1026.22, the creditor must provide a corrected disclosure to the consumer before consummation, which triggers the three-business-day waiting period in § 1026.19(a)(2)(ii). After the consumer receives the corrected disclosure, the consumer must execute a waiver of the three-business-day waiting period in order to consummate the transaction on Friday, June 5.
</P>
<P>ii. If a change occurs that does not render the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures inaccurate under § 1026.22, the creditor must disclose the changed terms before consummation, consistent with § 1026.17(f). Disclosure of the changed terms does not trigger an additional waiting period, and the transaction may be consummated on June 5 without the consumer giving the creditor an additional modification or waiver.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of waivers made after the seven-business-day waiting period.</I> Assume the early disclosures are delivered to the consumer in person on Monday, June 1 and consummation is scheduled for Friday, June 19. On Wednesday, June 17, a change to the annual percentage rate occurs:
</P>
<P>i. If the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures is inaccurate under § 1026.22, the creditor must provide a corrected disclosure to the consumer before consummation, which triggers the three-business-day waiting period in § 1026.19(a)(2). After the consumer receives the corrected disclosure, the consumer must execute a waiver of the three-business-day waiting period in order to consummate the transaction on Friday, June 19.
</P>
<P>ii. If a change occurs that does not render the annual percentage rate on the early disclosures inaccurate under § 1026.22, the creditor must disclose the changed terms before consummation, consistent with § 1026.17(f). Disclosure of the changed terms does not trigger an additional waiting period, and the transaction may be consummated on Friday, June 19 without the consumer giving the creditor an additional modification or waiver.
</P>
<HD3>19(a)(4) Notice
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Inclusion in other disclosures.</I> The notice required by § 1026.19(a)(4) must be grouped together with the disclosures required by § 1026.19(a)(1)(i) or § 1026.19(a)(2). <I>See</I> comment 17(a)(1)-2 for a discussion of the rules for segregating disclosures. In other cases, the notice set forth in § 1026.19(a)(4) may be disclosed together with or separately from the disclosures required under § 1026.18. <I>See</I> comment 17(a)(1)-5.xvi.
</P>
<HD3>19(b) Certain Variable-Rate Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1026.19(b) applies to all closed-end variable-rate transactions that are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling and have a term greater than one year. The requirements of this section apply not only to transactions financing the initial acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling, but also to any other closed-end variable-rate transaction secured by the principal dwelling. Closed-end variable-rate transactions that are not secured by the principal dwelling, or are secured by the principal dwelling but have a term of one year or less, are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 1026.18(f)(1) rather than those of § 1026.19(b). (Furthermore, “shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgages are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 1026.18(f)(1) rather than those of § 1026.19(b) regardless of the general coverage of those sections.) For purposes of this section, the term of a variable-rate demand loan is determined in accordance with the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(5). In determining whether a construction loan that may be permanently financed by the same creditor is covered under this section, the creditor may treat the construction and the permanent phases as separate transactions with distinct terms to maturity or as a single combined transaction. For purposes of the disclosures required under § 1026.18, the creditor may nevertheless treat the two phases either as separate transactions or as a single combined transaction in accordance with § 1026.17(c)(6). Finally, in any assumption of a variable-rate transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year, disclosures need not be provided under §§ 1026.18(f)(2)(ii) or 1026.19(b).
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<P>2. <I>Timing.</I> A creditor must give the disclosures required under this section at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a nonrefundable fee, whichever is earlier.
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<P>i. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> In cases where a creditor receives a written application through an intermediary agent or broker, however, § 1026.19(b) provides a substitute timing rule requiring the creditor to deliver the disclosures or place them in the mail not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's written application. (See comment 19(b)-3 for guidance in determining whether or not the transaction involves an intermediary agent or broker.) This three-day rule also applies where the creditor takes an application over the telephone.
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<P>ii. <I>Telephone request.</I> In cases where the consumer merely requests an application over the telephone, the creditor must include the early disclosures required under this section with the application that is sent to the consumer.
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<P>iii. <I>Mail solicitations.</I> In cases where the creditor solicits applications through the mail, the creditor must also send the disclosures required under this section if an application form is included with the solicitation.
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<P>iv. <I>Conversion.</I> In cases where an open-end credit account will convert to a closed-end transaction subject to this section under a written agreement with the consumer, disclosures under this section may be given at the time of conversion. (See the commentary to § 1026.20(a) for information on the timing requirements for § 1026.19(b)(2) disclosures when a variable-rate feature is later added to a transaction.)
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<P>v. <I>Form of electronic disclosures provided on or with electronic applications.</I> Creditors must provide the disclosures required by this section (including the brochure) on or with a blank application that is made available to the consumer in electronic form, such as on a creditor's Internet Web site. Creditors have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. There are various methods creditors could use to satisfy the requirement. Whatever method is used, a creditor need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures. Methods include, but are not limited to, the following examples:
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<P>A. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application appears;
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<P>B. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
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<P>C. Creditors could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
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<P>D. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application.
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<P>3. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> i. In certain transactions involving an “intermediary agent or broker,” a creditor may delay providing disclosures. A creditor may not delay providing disclosures in transactions involving either a legal agent (as determined by applicable law) or any other third party that is not an “intermediary agent or broker.” In determining whether or not a transaction involves an “intermediary agent or broker” the following factors should be considered:
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<P>A. The number of applications submitted by the broker to the creditor as compared to the total number of applications received by the creditor. The greater the percentage of total loan applications submitted by the broker in any given period of time, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor during the next period.
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<P>B. The number of applications submitted by the broker to the creditor as compared to the total number of applications received by the broker. (This factor is applicable only if the creditor has such information.) The greater the percentage of total loan applications received by the broker that is submitted to a creditor in any given period of time, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor during the next period.
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<P>C. The amount of work (such as document preparation) the creditor expects to be done by the broker on an application based on the creditor's prior dealings with the broker and on the creditor's requirements for accepting applications, taking into consideration the customary practice of brokers in a particular area. The more work that the creditor expects the broker to do on an application, in excess of what is usually expected of a broker in that area, the less likely it is that the broker would be considered an “intermediary agent or broker” of the creditor.
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<P>ii. An example of an “intermediary agent or broker” is a broker who, customarily within a brief period of time after receiving an application, inquires about the credit terms of several creditors with whom the broker does business and submits the application to one of them. The broker is responsible for only a small percentage of the applications received by that creditor. During the time the broker has the application, it might request a credit report and an appraisal (or even prepare an entire loan package if customary in that particular area).
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<P>4. <I>Other variable-rate regulations.</I> Transactions in which the creditor is required to comply with and has complied with the disclosure requirements of the variable-rate regulations of other Federal agencies are exempt from the requirements of § 1026.19(b), by virtue of § 1026.19(d). The exception is also available to creditors that are required by State law to comply with the Federal variable-rate regulations noted above. Creditors using this exception should comply with the timing requirements of those regulations rather than the timing requirements of Regulation Z in making the variable-rate disclosures.
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<P>5. <I>Examples of variable-rate transactions.</I> i. The following transactions, if they have a term greater than one year and are secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, constitute variable-rate transactions subject to the disclosure requirements of § 1026.19(b).
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<P>A. Renewable balloon-payment instruments where the creditor is both unconditionally obligated to renew the balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control) and has the option of increasing the interest rate at the time of renewal. (See comment 17(c)(1)-11 for a discussion of conditions within a consumer's control in connection with renewable balloon-payment loans.)
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<P>B. Preferred-rate loans where the terms of the legal obligation provide that the initial underlying rate is fixed but will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the employ of the creditor, and the note reflects the preferred rate. The disclosures under §§ 1026.19(b)(1) and 1026.19(b)(2)(v), (viii), (ix), and (xii) are not applicable to such loans.
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<P>C. “Price-level-adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation. The disclosures under § 1026.19(b)(1) are not applicable to such loans, nor are the following provisions to the extent they relate to the determination of the interest rate by the addition of a margin, changes in the interest rate, or interest rate discounts: § 1026.19(b)(2)(i), (iii), (iv), (v), (vi), (vii), (viii), and (ix). (See comments 20(c)(1)(ii)-3.ii, 20(d)(1)(ii)-2.ii, and 30-1 regarding the inapplicability of variable-rate adjustment notices and interest rate limitations to price-level-adjusted or similar mortgages.)
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<P>ii. Graduated-payment mortgages and step-rate transactions without a variable-rate feature are not considered variable-rate transactions.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(1)
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<P>1. <I>Substitute.</I> Creditors who wish to use publications other than the <I>Consumer Handbook on Adjustable Rate Mortgages,</I> available on the Bureau's Web site, must make a good faith determination that their brochures are suitable substitutes to the <I>Consumer Handbook.</I> A substitute is suitable if it is, at a minimum, comparable to the Consumer Handbook in substance and comprehensiveness. Creditors are permitted to provide more detailed information than is contained in the <I>Consumer Handbook.</I>
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<P>2. <I>Applicability.</I> The <I>Consumer Handbook</I> need not be given for variable-rate transactions subject to this section in which the underlying interest rate is fixed. (See comment 19(b)-5 for an example of a variable-rate transaction where the underlying interest rate is fixed.)
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)
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<P>1. <I>Disclosure for each variable-rate program.</I> A creditor must provide disclosures to the consumer that fully describe each of the creditor's variable-rate loan programs in which the consumer expresses an interest. If a program is made available only to certain customers of an institution, a creditor need not provide disclosures for that program to other consumers who express a general interest in a creditor's ARM programs. Disclosures must be given at the time an application form is provided or before the consumer pays a nonrefundable fee, whichever is earlier. If program disclosures cannot be provided because a consumer expresses an interest in individually negotiating loan terms that are not generally offered, disclosures reflecting those terms may be provided as soon as reasonably possible after the terms have been decided upon, but not later than the time a non-refundable fee is paid. If a consumer who has received program disclosures subsequently expresses an interest in other available variable-rate programs subject to 1026.19(b)(2), or the creditor and consumer decide on a program for which the consumer has not received disclosures, the creditor must provide appropriate disclosures as soon as reasonably possible. The creditor, of course, is permitted to give the consumer information about additional programs subject to § 1026.19(b) initially.
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<P>2. <I>Variable-rate loan program defined.</I> i. Generally, if the identification, the presence or absence, or the exact value of a loan feature must be disclosed under this section, variable-rate loans that differ as to such features constitute separate loan programs. For example, separate loan programs would exist based on differences in any of the following loan features:
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<P>A. The index or other formula used to calculate interest rate adjustments.
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<P>B. The rules relating to changes in the index value, interest rate, payments, and loan balance.
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<P>C. The presence or absence of, and the amount of, rate or payment caps.
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<P>D. The presence of a demand feature.
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<P>E. The possibility of negative amortization.
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<P>F. The possibility of interest rate carryover.
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<P>G. The frequency of interest rate and payment adjustments.
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<P>H. The presence of a discount feature.
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<P>I. In addition, if a loan feature must be taken into account in preparing the disclosures required by § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii), variable-rate loans that differ as to that feature constitute separate programs under § 1026.19(b)(2).
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<P>ii. If, however, a representative value may be given for a loan feature or the feature need not be disclosed under § 1026.19(b)(2), variable-rate loans that differ as to such features do not constitute separate loan programs. For example, separate programs would not exist based on differences in the following loan features:
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<P>A. The amount of a discount.
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<P>B. The amount of a margin.
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<P>3. <I>Form of program disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide separate program disclosure forms for each ARM program it offers or a single disclosure form that describes multiple programs. A disclosure form may consist of more than one page. For example, a creditor may attach a separate page containing the historical payment example for a particular program. A disclosure form describing more than one program need not repeat information applicable to each program that is described. For example, a form describing multiple programs may disclose the information applicable to all of the programs in one place with the various program features (such as options permitting conversion to a fixed rate) disclosed separately. The form, however, must state if any program feature that is described is available only in conjunction with certain other program features. Both the separate and multiple program disclosures may illustrate more than one loan maturity or payment amortization—for example, by including multiple payment and loan balance columns in the historical payment example. Disclosures may be inserted or printed in the <I>Consumer Handbook</I> (or a suitable substitute) as long as they are identified as the creditor's loan program disclosures.
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<P>4. <I>As applicable.</I> The disclosures required by this section need only be made as applicable. Any disclosure not relevant to a particular transaction may be eliminated. For example, if the transaction does not contain a demand feature, the disclosure required under § 1026.19(b)(2)(x) need not be given. As used in this section, <I>payment</I> refers only to a payment based on the interest rate, loan balance and loan term, and does not refer to payment of other elements such as mortgage insurance premiums.
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<P>5. <I>Revisions.</I> A creditor must revise the disclosures required under this section once a year as soon as reasonably possible after the new index value becomes available. Revisions to the disclosures also are required when the loan program changes.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Change in interest rate, payment, or term.</I> A creditor must disclose the fact that the terms of the legal obligation permit the creditor, after consummation of the transaction, to increase (or decrease) the interest rate, payment, or term of the loan initially disclosed to the consumer. For example, the disclosures for a variable-rate program in which the interest rate and payment (but not loan term) can change might read, “Your interest rate and payment can change yearly.” In transactions where the term of the loan may change due to rate fluctuations, the creditor must state that fact.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Identification of index or formula.</I> If a creditor ties interest rate changes to a particular index, this fact must be disclosed, along with a source of information about the index. For example, if a creditor uses the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity as its index, the disclosure might read, “Your index is the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year published weekly in the <I>Wall Street Journal.”</I> If no particular index is used, the creditor must briefly describe the formula used to calculate interest rate changes.
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<P>2. <I>Changes at creditor's discretion.</I> If interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion, this fact must be disclosed. If an index is internally defined, such as by a creditor's prime rate, the creditor should either briefly describe that index or state that interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(iii)
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<P>1. <I>Determination of interest rate and payment.</I> This provision requires an explanation of how the creditor will determine the consumer's interest rate and payment. In cases where a creditor bases its interest rate on a specific index and adjusts the index through the addition of a margin, for example, the disclosure might read, “Your interest rate is based on the index plus a margin, and your payment will be based on the interest rate, loan balance, and remaining loan term.” In transactions where paying the periodic payments will not fully amortize the outstanding balance at the end of the loan term and where the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, the creditor must disclose this fact. For example, the disclosure might read, “Your periodic payments will not fully amortize your loan and you will be required to make a single payment of the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance at the end of the loan term.” The creditor, however, need not reflect any irregular final payment in the historical example or in the disclosure of the initial and maximum rates and payments. If applicable, the creditor should also disclose that the rate and payment will be rounded.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(iv)
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<P>1. <I>Current margin value and interest rate.</I> Because the disclosures can be prepared in advance, the interest rate and margin may be several months old when the disclosures are delivered. A statement, therefore, is required alerting consumers to the fact that they should inquire about the current margin value applied to the index and the current interest rate. For example, the disclosure might state, “Ask us for our current interest rate and margin.”
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(v)
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<P>1. <I>Discounted and premium interest rate.</I> In some variable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Typically, this initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula. However, in some cases the initial rate may be higher. If the initial interest rate will be a discount or a premium rate, creditors must alert the consumer to this fact. For example, if a creditor discounted a consumer's initial rate, the disclosure might state, “Your initial interest rate is not based on the index used to make later adjustments.” (See the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1) for a further discussion of discounted and premium variable-rate transactions.) In addition, the disclosure must suggest that consumers inquire about the amount that the program is currently discounted. For example, the disclosure might state, “Ask us for the amount our adjustable rate mortgages are currently discounted.” In a transaction with a consumer buydown or with a third-party buydown that will be incorporated in the legal obligation, the creditor should disclose the program as a discounted variable-rate transaction, but need not disclose additional information regarding the buydown in its program disclosures. (See the commentary to § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii) for a discussion of how to reflect the discount or premium in the historical example or the maximum rate and payment disclosure).
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(vi)
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<P>1. <I>Frequency.</I> The frequency of interest rate and payment adjustments must be disclosed. If interest rate changes will be imposed more frequently or at different intervals than payment changes, a creditor must disclose the frequency and timing of both types of changes. For example, in a variable-rate transaction where interest rate changes are made monthly, but payment changes occur on an annual basis, this fact must be disclosed. In certain ARM transactions, the interval between loan closing and the initial adjustment is not known and may be different from the regular interval for adjustments. In such cases, the creditor may disclose the initial adjustment period as a range of the minimum and maximum amount of time from consummation or closing. For example, the creditor might state: “The first adjustment to your interest rate and payment will occur no sooner than 6 months and no later than 18 months after closing. Subsequent adjustments may occur once each year after the first adjustment.” (See comments 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-7 and 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-4 for guidance on other disclosures when this alternative disclosure rule is used.)
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(vii)
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<P>1. <I>Rate and payment caps.</I> The creditor must disclose limits on changes (increases or decreases) in the interest rate or payment. If an initial discount is not taken into account in applying overall or periodic rate limitations, that fact must be disclosed. If separate overall or periodic limitations apply to interest rate increases resulting from other events, such as the exercise of a fixed-rate conversion option or leaving the creditor's employ, those limitations must also be stated. Limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. (See § 1026.30 for the rule requiring that a maximum interest rate be included in certain variable-rate transactions.) The creditor need not disclose each periodic or overall rate limitation that is currently available. As an alternative, the creditor may disclose the range of the lowest and highest periodic and overall rate limitations that may be applicable to the creditor's ARM transactions. For example, the creditor might state: “The limitation on increases to your interest rate at each adjustment will be set at an amount in the following range: Between 1 and 2 percentage points at each adjustment. The limitation on increases to your interest rate over the term of the loan will be set at an amount in the following range: Between 4 and 7 percentage points above the initial interest rate.” A creditor using this alternative rule must include a statement in its program disclosures suggesting that the consumer ask about the overall rate limitations currently offered for the creditor's ARM programs. (See comments 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-6 and 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-3 for an explanation of the additional requirements for a creditor using this alternative rule for disclosure of periodic and overall rate limitations.)
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<P>2. <I>Negative amortization and interest rate carryover.</I> A creditor must disclose, where applicable, the possibility of negative amortization. For example, the disclosure might state, “If any of your payments is not sufficient to cover the interest due, the difference will be added to your loan amount.” Loans that provide for more than one way to trigger negative amortization are separate variable-rate programs requiring separate disclosures. (See the commentary to § 1026.19(b)(2) for a discussion on the definition of a variable-rate loan program and the format for disclosure.) If a consumer is given the option to cap monthly payments that may result in negative amortization, the creditor must fully disclose the rules relating to the option, including the effects of exercising the option (such as negative amortization will occur and the principal loan balance will increase); however, the disclosure in § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii) need not be provided.
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<P>3. <I>Conversion option.</I> If a loan program permits consumers to convert their variable-rate loans to fixed-rate loans, the creditor must disclose that the interest rate may increase if the consumer converts the loan to a fixed-rate loan. The creditor must also disclose the rules relating to the conversion feature, such as the period during which the loan may be converted, that fees may be charged at conversion, and how the fixed rate will be determined. The creditor should identify any index or other measure or formula used to determine the fixed rate and state any margin to be added. In disclosing the period during which the loan may be converted and the margin, the creditor may use information applicable to the conversion feature during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures and state that the information is representative of conversion features recently offered by the creditor. The information may be used until the program disclosures are otherwise revised. Although the rules relating to the conversion option must be disclosed, the effect of exercising the option should not be reflected elsewhere in the disclosures, such as in the historical example or in the calculation of the initial and maximum interest rate and payments.
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<P>4. <I>Preferred-rate loans.</I> Section 1026.19(b) applies to preferred-rate loans, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as an employee leaving the creditor's employ, whether or not the underlying rate is fixed or variable. In these transactions, the creditor must disclose the event that would allow the creditor to increase the rate such as that the rate may increase if the employee leaves the creditor's employ. The creditor must also disclose the rules relating to termination of the preferred rate, such as that fees may be charged when the rate is changed and how the new rate will be determined.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii)
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<P>1. <I>Historical example and initial and maximum interest rates and payments.</I> A creditor may disclose both the historical example and the initial and maximum interest rates and payments.
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)
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<P>1. <I>Index movement.</I> This section requires a creditor to provide an historical example, based on a $10,000 loan amount originating in 1977, showing how interest rate changes implemented according to the terms of the loan program would have affected payments and the loan balance at the end of each year during a 15-year period. (In all cases, the creditor need only calculate the payments and loan balance for the term of the loan. For example, in a five-year loan, a creditor would show the payments and loan balance for the five-year term, from 1977 to 1981, with a zero loan balance reflected for 1981. For the remaining ten years, 1982-1991, the creditor need only show the remaining index values, margin and interest rate and must continue to reflect all significant loan program terms such as rate limitations affecting them.) Pursuant to this section, the creditor must provide a history of index values for the preceding 15 years. Initially, the disclosures would give the index values from 1977 to the present. Each year thereafter, the revised program disclosures should include an additional year's index value until 15 years of values are shown. If the values for an index have not been available for 15 years, a creditor need only go back as far as the values are available in giving a history and payment example. In all cases, only one index value per year need be shown. Thus, in transactions where interest rate adjustments are implemented more frequently than once per year, a creditor may assume that the interest rate and payment resulting from the index value chosen will stay in effect for the entire year for purposes of calculating the loan balance as of the end of the year and for reflecting other loan program terms. In cases where interest rate changes are at the creditor's discretion (see the commentary to § 1026.19(b)(2)(ii)), the creditor must provide a history of the rates imposed for the preceding 15 years, beginning with the rates in 1977. In giving this history, the creditor need only go back as far as the creditor's rates can reasonably be determined.
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<P>2. <I>Selection of index values.</I> The historical example must reflect the method by which index values are determined under the program. If a creditor uses an average of index values or any other index formula, the history given should reflect those values. The creditor should select one date or, when an average of single values is used as an index, one period and should base the example on index values measured as of that same date or period for each year shown in the history. A date or period at any time during the year may be selected, but the same date or period must be used for each year in the historical example. For example, a creditor could use values for the first business day in July or for the first week ending in July for each of the 15 years shown in the example.
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<P>3. <I>Selection of margin.</I> For purposes of the disclosure required under § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), a creditor may select a representative margin that has been used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the margin is one that the creditor has used recently. The margin selected may be used until a creditor revises the disclosure form.
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<P>4. <I>Amount of discount or premium.</I> For purposes of the disclosure required under § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), a creditor may select a discount or premium (amount and term) that has been used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the discount or premium is one that the creditor has used recently. The discount or premium should be reflected in the historical example for as long as the discount or premium is in effect. A creditor may assume that a discount that would have been in effect for any part of a year was in effect for the full year for purposes of reflecting it in the historical example. For example, a 3-month discount may be treated as being in effect for the entire first year of the example; a 15-month discount may be treated as being in effect for the first two years of the example. In illustrating the effect of the discount or premium, creditors should adjust the value of the interest rate in the historical example, and should not adjust the margin or index values. For example, if during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures the fully indexed rate would have been 10% but the first year's rate under the program was 8%, the creditor would discount the first interest rate in the historical example by 2 percentage points.
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<P>5. <I>Term of the loan.</I> In calculating the payments and loan balances in the historical example, a creditor need not base the disclosures on each term to maturity or payment amortization that it offers. Instead, disclosures for ARMs may be based upon terms to maturity or payment amortizations of 5, 15 and 30 years, as follows: ARMs with terms or amortizations from over 1 year to 10 years may be based on a 5-year term or amortization; ARMs with terms or amortizations from over 10 years to 20 years may be based on a 15-year term or amortization; and ARMs with terms or amortizations over 20 years may be based on a 30-year term or amortization. Thus, disclosures for ARMs offered with any term from over 1 year to 40 years may be based solely on terms of 5, 15 and 30 years. Of course, a creditor may always base the disclosures on the actual terms or amortizations offered. If the creditor bases the disclosures on 5-, 15- or 30-year terms or payment amortization as provided above, the term or payment amortization used in making the disclosure must be stated.
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<P>6. <I>Rate caps.</I> A creditor using the alternative rule described in comment 19(b)(2)(vii)-1 for disclosure of rate limitations must base the historical example upon the highest periodic and overall rate limitations disclosed under § 1026.19(b)(2)(vii). In addition, the creditor must state the limitations used in the historical example. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-3 for an explanation of the use of the highest rate limitation in other disclosures.)
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<P>7. <I>Frequency of adjustments.</I> In certain transactions, creditors may use the alternative rule described in comment 19(b)(2)(vi)-1 for disclosure of the frequency of rate and payment adjustments. In such cases, the creditor may assume for purposes of the historical example that the first adjustment occurred at the end of the first full year in which the adjustment could occur. For example, in an ARM in which the first adjustment may occur between 6 and 18 months after closing and annually thereafter, the creditor may assume that the first adjustment occurred at the end of the first year in the historical example. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)-4 for an explanation of how to compute the maximum interest rate and payment when the initial adjustment period is not known.)
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(viii)(B)
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<P>1. <I>Initial and maximum interest rates and payments.</I> The disclosure form must state the initial and maximum interest rates and payments for a $10,000 loan originated at an initial interest rate (index value plus margin adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure. (See comment 19(b)(2)-5 on revisions to the loan program disclosure.) In calculating the maximum payment under this paragraph, a creditor should assume that the interest rate increases as rapidly as possible under the loan program, and the maximum payment disclosed should reflect the amortization of the loan during this period. Thus, in a loan with 2 percentage point annual (and 5 percentage point overall) interest rate limitations or “caps,” the maximum interest rate would be 5 percentage points higher than the initial interest rate disclosed. Moreover, the loan would not reach the maximum interest rate until the fourth year because of the 2 percentage point annual rate limitations, and the maximum payment disclosed would reflect the amortization of the loan during this period. If the loan program includes a discounted or premium initial interest rate, the initial interest rate should be adjusted by the amount of the discount or premium.
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<P>2. <I>Term of the loan.</I> In calculating the initial and maximum payments, the creditor need not base the disclosures on each term to maturity or payment amortization offered under the program. Instead, the creditor may follow the rules set out in comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-5. If a historical example is provided under § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(A), the terms to maturity or payment amortization used in the historical example must be used in calculating the initial and maximum payment. In addition, creditors must state the term or payment amortization used in making the disclosures under this section.
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<P>3. <I>Rate caps.</I> A creditor using the alternative rule for disclosure of interest rate limitations described in comment 19(b)(2)(vii)-1 must calculate the maximum interest rate and payment based upon the highest periodic and overall rate limitations disclosed under § 1026.19(b)(2)(vii). In addition, the creditor must state the rate limitations used in calculating the maximum interest rate and payment. (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-6 for an explanation of the use of the highest rate limitation in other disclosures.)
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<P>4. <I>Frequency of adjustments.</I> In certain transactions, a creditor may use the alternative rule for disclosure of the frequency of rate and payment adjustments described in comment 19(b)(2)(vi)-1. In such cases, the creditor must base the calculations of the initial and maximum rates and payments upon the earliest possible first adjustment disclosed under § 1026.19(b)(2)(vi). (See comment 19(b)(2)(viii)(A)-7 for an explanation of how to disclose the historical example when the initial adjustment period is not known.)
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic payment statement.</I> The statement that the periodic payment may increase or decrease substantially may be satisfied by the disclosure in paragraph 19(b)(2)(vi) if it states for example, “your monthly payment can increase or decrease substantially based on annual changes in the interest rate.”
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(ix)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of payments.</I> A creditor is required to include a statement on the disclosure form that explains how a consumer may calculate his or her actual monthly payments for a loan amount other than $10,000. The example should be based upon the most recent payment shown in the historical example or upon the initial interest rate reflected in the maximum rate and payment disclosure. In transactions in which the latest payment shown in the historical example is not for the latest year of index values shown (such as in a five-year loan), a creditor may provide additional examples based on the initial and maximum payments disclosed under § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(B). The creditor, however, is not required to calculate the consumer's payments. (See the model clauses in appendix H-4(C).)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(x)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Demand feature.</I> If a variable-rate loan subject to § 1026.19(b) requirements contains a demand feature as discussed in the commentary to § 1026.18(i), this fact must be disclosed. (Pursuant to § 1026.18(i), creditors would also disclose the demand feature in the standard disclosures given later.)
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(xi)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Adjustment notices.</I> A creditor must disclose to the consumer the type of information that will be contained in subsequent notices of adjustments and when such notices will be provided. (See the commentary to § 1026.20(c) and (d) regarding notices of adjustments.) For example, the disclosure provided pursuant to § 1026.20(d) might state, “You will be notified at least 210, but no more than 240, days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due after the initial interest rate adjustment of the loan. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.” The disclosure provided pursuant to § 1026.20(c) might state, “You will be notified at least 60, but no more than 120, days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due after any interest rate adjustment resulting in a corresponding payment change. This notice will contain information about the adjustment, including the interest rate, payment amount, and loan balance.”
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<HD3>Paragraph 19(b)(2)(xii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple loan programs.</I> A creditor that offers multiple variable-rate loan programs is required to have disclosures for each variable-rate loan program subject to § 1026.19(b)(2). Unless disclosures for all of its variable-rate programs are provided initially, the creditor must inform the consumer that other closed-end variable-rate programs exist, and that disclosure forms are available for these additional loan programs. For example, the disclosure form might state, “Information on other adjustable rate mortgage programs is available upon request.”
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<HD3>19(c) Electronic Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If a consumer accesses an ARM loan application electronically (other than as described under ii. below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses an ARM loan application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.


</P>
<HD3>19(e) Mortgage loans—Early disclosures.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Affiliate.</I> The term “affiliate,” as used in § 1026.19(e), has the same meaning as in § 1026.32(b)(5).
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(1) Provision of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(1)(i) Creditor.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(i) requires early disclosure of credit terms in closed-end credit transactions that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages. These disclosures must be provided in good faith. Except as otherwise provided in § 1026.19(e), a disclosure is in good faith if it is consistent with § 1026.17(c)(2)(i). Section 1026.17(c)(2)(i) provides that if any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. See comment 17(c)(2)(i)-1 for an explanation of the standard set forth in § 1026.17(c)(2)(i). See comment 17(c)(2)(i)-2 for labeling disclosures required under § 1026.19(e) that are estimates.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Cooperative units.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(i) requires early disclosure of credit terms in closed-end credit transactions, other than reverse mortgages, that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit, regardless of whether a cooperative unit is treated as real property under State or other applicable law.
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<P><I>19(e)(1)(ii) Mortgage broker.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage broker responsibilities.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(ii)(A) provides that if a mortgage broker receives a consumer's application, either the creditor or the mortgage broker must provide the consumer with the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii). Section 1026.19(e)(1)(ii)(A) also provides that if the mortgage broker provides the required disclosures, it must comply with all relevant requirements of § 1026.19(e). This means that “mortgage broker” should be read in the place of “creditor” for all provisions of § 1026.19(e), except to the extent that such a reading would create responsibility for mortgage brokers under § 1026.19(f). To illustrate, § 1026.19(e)(4)(i) states that if a creditor uses a revised estimate pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), the creditor shall provide a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) or the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) (including any corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) or (ii)) reflecting the revised estimate. “Mortgage broker” could not be read in place of “creditor” in reference to the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), (f)(2)(i), or (f)(2)(ii) because mortgage brokers are not responsible for the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), (f)(2)(i), or (f)(2)(ii). In addition, § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii)(A) provides that the creditor must ensure that disclosures provided by mortgage brokers comply with all requirements of § 1026.19(e), and that disclosures provided by mortgage brokers that do comply with all such requirements satisfy the creditor's obligation under § 1026.19(e). The term “mortgage broker,” as used in § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii), has the same meaning as in § 1026.36(a)(2). See also comment 36(a)-2. Section 1026.19(e)(1)(ii)(B) provides that if a mortgage broker provides any disclosure required under § 1026.19(e), the mortgage broker must also comply with the requirements of § 1026.25(c). For example, if a mortgage broker provides the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), it must maintain records for three years, in compliance with § 1026.25(c)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditor responsibilities.</I> If a mortgage broker issues any disclosure required under § 1026.19(e) in the creditor's place, the creditor remains responsible under § 1026.19(e) for ensuring that the requirements of § 1026.19(e) have been satisfied. For example, if a mortgage broker receives a consumer's application and provides the consumer with the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the creditor does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if it provides duplicative disclosures to the consumer. In the same example, even if the broker provides an erroneous disclosure, the creditor is responsible and may not issue a revised disclosure correcting the error. The creditor is expected to maintain communication with the broker to ensure that the broker is acting in place of the creditor.
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<P><I>19(e)(1)(iii) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing and use of estimates.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) must be delivered not later than three business days after the creditor receives the consumer's application. For example, if an application is received on Monday, the creditor satisfies this requirement by either hand delivering the disclosures on or before Thursday, or placing them in the mail on or before Thursday, assuming each weekday is a business day. For purposes of § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii)(A), the term “business day” means a day on which the creditor's offices are open to the public for carrying out substantially all of its business functions. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(6).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Waiting period.</I> The seven-business-day waiting period begins when the creditor delivers the disclosures or places them in the mail, not when the consumer receives or is considered to have received the disclosures. For example, if a creditor delivers the early disclosures to the consumer in person or places them in the mail on Monday, June 1, consummation may occur on or after Tuesday, June 9, the seventh business day following delivery or mailing of the early disclosures, because, for the purposes of § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii)(B), Saturday is a business day, pursuant to § 1026.2(a)(6).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Denied or withdrawn applications.</I> The creditor may determine within the three-business-day period that the application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested, such as when a consumer's credit score is lower than the minimum score required for the terms the consumer applied for, or the consumer applies for a type or amount of credit that the creditor does not offer. In that case, or if the consumer withdraws the application within the three-business-day period by, for instance, informing the creditor that he intends to take out a loan from another creditor within the three-business-day period, the creditor need not make the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). If the creditor fails to provide early disclosures and the transaction is later consummated on the terms originally applied for, then the creditor does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). If, however, the consumer amends the application because of the creditor's unwillingness to approve it on the terms originally applied for, no violation occurs for not providing disclosures based on those original terms. But the amended application is a new application subject to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Timeshares.</I> If consummation occurs within three business days after a creditor's receipt of an application for a transaction that is secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), a creditor complies with § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) by providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) instead of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Multiple-advance construction loans.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) generally requires a creditor to deliver the Loan Estimate or place it in the mail not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application and not later than the seventh business day before consummation. When a multiple-advance loan to finance the construction of a dwelling may be permanently financed by the same creditor, § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) and comment 17(c)(6)-2 permit creditors to treat the construction phase and the permanent phase as either one transaction, with one combined disclosure, or more than one transaction, with a separate disclosure for each transaction. For construction—permanent transactions disclosed as one transaction, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) by delivering or placing in the mail one combined disclosure required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) not later than the third business day after the creditor receives an application and not later than the seventh business day before consummation. For construction—permanent transactions disclosed as a separate construction phase and a separate permanent phase for which an application for both the construction and permanent financing has been received, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) by delivering or placing in the mail the separate disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for both the construction financing and the permanent financing not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the application and not later than the seventh business day before consummation. A creditor may also provide a separate disclosure required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for the permanent phase before receiving an application for permanent financing at any time not later than the seventh business day before consummation. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a creditor receives a consumer's application for construction financing only on Monday, June 1. The creditor must deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for only the construction financing no later than Thursday, June 4, the third business day after the creditor received the consumer's application, and not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the creditor receives a consumer's application for both construction and permanent financing on Monday, June 1. The creditor must deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for both the construction and permanent financing, disclosed as either one transaction or separate transactions, no later than Thursday, June 4, the third business day after the creditor received the consumer's application, and not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume the creditor receives a consumer's application for construction financing only on Monday, June 1. Assume further that the creditor receives the consumer's application for permanent financing on Monday, June 8. The creditor must deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for the construction financing no later than Thursday, June 4, the third business day after the creditor received the consumer's application for the construction financing only, and not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the construction transaction. The creditor must deliver or place in the mail the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for the permanent financing no later than Thursday, June 11, the third business day after the creditor received the consumer's application for the permanent financing, and not later than the seventh business day before consummation of the permanent financing transaction.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume the same facts as in comment 19(e)(1)(iii)-5.ii, under which the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for both construction financing and permanent financing. If the creditor generally conducts separate closings for the construction financing and the permanent financing or expects that the construction financing and the permanent financing may have separate closings, providing separate Loan Estimates for the construction financing and for the permanent financing allows the creditor to deliver separate Closing Disclosures for the separate phases. For example, assume further that the consumer has requested permanent financing after receiving separate Loan Estimates for the construction financing and for the permanent financing, that consummation of the construction financing is scheduled for July 1, and that consummation of the permanent financing is scheduled on or about June 1 of the following year. The creditor may provide the construction financing Closing Disclosure at least three business days before consummation of that transaction on July 1 and delay providing the permanent financing Closing Disclosure until three business days before consummation of that transaction on or about June 1 of the following year, in accordance with § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii). The creditor may also issue a revised Loan Estimate for the permanent financing at any time prior to 60 days before consummation, following the procedures under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(F).
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<P><I>19(e)(1)(iv) Receipt of early disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mail delivery.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(iv) provides that, if any disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail. The creditor may, alternatively, rely on evidence that the consumer received the disclosures earlier than three business days. For example, if the creditor sends the disclosures via overnight mail on Monday, and the consumer signs for receipt of the overnight delivery on Tuesday, the creditor could demonstrate that the disclosures were received on Tuesday.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic delivery.</I> The three-business-day period provided in § 1026.19(e)(1)(iv) applies to methods of electronic delivery, such as email. For example, if a creditor sends the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e) via email on Monday, pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(iv) the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures on Thursday, three business days later. The creditor may, alternatively, rely on evidence that the consumer received the emailed disclosures earlier. For example, if the creditor emails the disclosures at 1 p.m. on Tuesday, the consumer emails the creditor with an acknowledgement of receipt of the disclosures at 5 p.m. on the same day, the creditor could demonstrate that the disclosures were received on the same day. Creditors using electronic delivery methods, such as email, must also comply with § 1026.37(o)(3)(iii), which provides that the disclosures in § 1026.37 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act. For example, if a creditor delivers the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) to a consumer via email, but the creditor did not obtain the consumer's consent to receive disclosures via email prior to delivering the disclosures, then the creditor does not comply with § 1026.37(o)(3)(iii), and the creditor does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), assuming the disclosures were not provided in a different manner in accordance with the timing requirements of § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(1)(v) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to the seven-business-day waiting period required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) only after the creditor makes the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). The consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that necessitates consummating the credit transaction before the end of the waiting period. Whether these conditions are met is determined by the circumstances of the individual situation. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure, where the foreclosure sale will proceed unless loan proceeds are made available to the consumer during the waiting period, is one example of a bona fide personal financial emergency. Each consumer who is primarily liable on the legal obligation must sign the written statement for the waiver to be effective.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of waivers within the seven-business-day waiting period.</I> If the early disclosures are delivered to the consumer in person on Monday, June 1, the seven-business-day waiting period ends on Tuesday, June 9. If on Monday, June 1, the consumer executes a waiver of the seven-business-day waiting period, the final disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) could then be delivered three business days before consummation, as required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), on Tuesday, June 2, and the loan could be consummated on Friday, June 5. See § 1026.19(f)(1)(iv) for waiver of the three-business-day waiting period under § 1026.19(f).
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(1)(vi) Shopping for settlement service providers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permission to shop.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) permits creditors to impose reasonable requirements regarding the qualifications of the provider. For example, the creditor may require that a settlement agent chosen by the consumer must be appropriately licensed in the relevant jurisdiction. In contrast, a creditor does not permit a consumer to shop for purposes of § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi) if the creditor requires the consumer to choose a provider from a list provided by the creditor. Whether the creditor permits the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) is determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances. The requirements of § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(B) and (C) do not apply if the creditor does not permit the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of services for which the consumer may shop.</I> If a creditor permits a consumer to shop for a settlement service, § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(B) requires the creditor to identify settlement services required by the creditor for which the consumer is permitted to shop in the disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). See § 1026.37(f)(3) regarding the content and format for disclosure of services required by the creditor for which the consumer is permitted to shop.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written list of providers.</I> If the creditor permits the consumer to shop for a settlement service it requires, § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) requires the creditor to provide the consumer with a written list identifying at least one available provider of that service and stating that the consumer may choose a different provider for that service. The settlement service providers identified on the written list required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) must correspond to the required settlement services for which the consumer may shop, disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(3). See form H-27 in appendix H to this part for a model list. Creditors using form H-27 in appendix H properly are deemed to be in compliance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C). Creditors may make changes in the format or content of form H-27 in appendix H and be deemed to be in compliance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C), so long as the changes do not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the form. An acceptable change to form H-27 in appendix H includes, for example, deleting the column for estimated fee amounts.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Identification of available providers.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) provides that the creditor must identify settlement service providers, that are available to the consumer, for the settlement services that are required by the creditor for which a consumer is permitted to shop. A creditor does not comply with the identification requirement in § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) unless it provides sufficient information to allow the consumer to contact the provider, such as the name under which the provider does business and the provider's address and telephone number. Similarly, a creditor does not comply with the availability requirement in § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) if it provides a written list consisting of only settlement service providers that are no longer in business or that do not provide services where the consumer or property is located.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Statement that consumer may choose different provider.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) requires the creditor to include on the written list a statement that the consumer may choose a provider that is not included on that list. <I>See</I> form H-27 of appendix H to this part for a model of such a statement.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional information on written list.</I> The creditor may include a statement on the written list that the listing of a settlement service provider does not constitute an endorsement of that service provider. The creditor may also identify on the written list providers of services for which the consumer is not permitted to shop, provided that the creditor clearly and conspicuously distinguishes those services from the services for which the consumer is permitted to shop. This may be accomplished by placing the services under different headings. For example, if the list provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C) identifies providers of pest inspections and surveys, but the consumer may select a provider, other than those identified on the list, for only the survey, then the list must specifically inform the consumer that the consumer is permitted to select a provider, other than a provider identified on the list, for only the survey.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Relation to RESPA and Regulation X.</I> Section 1026.19 does not prohibit creditors from including affiliates on the written list required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C). However, a creditor that includes affiliates on the written list must also comply with 12 CFR 1024.15. Furthermore, the written list is a “referral” under 12 CFR 1024.14(f).
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(2) Predisclosure activity.</I>
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(2)(i) Imposition of fees on consumer.</I>
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(2)(i)(A) Fee restriction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fees restricted.</I> A creditor or other person may not impose any fee, such as for an application, appraisal, or underwriting, until the consumer has received the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and indicated an intent to proceed with the transaction. The only exception to the fee restriction allows the creditor or other person to impose a bona fide and reasonable fee for obtaining a consumer's credit report, pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intent to proceed.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(A) provides that a consumer may indicate an intent to proceed with a transaction in any manner the consumer chooses, unless a particular manner of communication is required by the creditor. The creditor must document this communication to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.25. For example, oral communication in person immediately upon delivery of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) is sufficiently indicative of intent. Oral communication over the phone, written communication via email, or signing a pre-printed form are also sufficiently indicative of intent if such actions occur after receipt of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). However, a consumer's silence is not indicative of intent because it cannot be documented to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.25. For example, a creditor or third party may not deliver the disclosures, wait for some period of time for the consumer to respond, and then charge the consumer a fee for an appraisal if the consumer does not respond, even if the creditor or third party disclosed that it would do so.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing of fees.</I> At any time prior to delivery of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), a creditor or other person may impose a credit report fee in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage loan that is subject to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) as provided in § 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(B). The consumer must have received the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and indicated an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures before paying or incurring any other fee imposed by a creditor or other person in connection with the consumer's application for a mortgage loan that is subject to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Collection of fees.</I> A creditor or other person complies with § 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(A) if:</P>
<P>i. A creditor receives a consumer's application directly from the consumer and does not impose any fee, other than a bona fide and reasonable fee for obtaining a consumer's credit report, until the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures.
</P>
<P>ii. A third party submits a consumer's application to a creditor and neither the creditor nor the third party imposes any fee, other than a bona fide and reasonable fee for obtaining a consumer's credit report, until the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures.
</P>
<P>iii. A third party submits a consumer's application to a creditor following a different creditor's denial of the consumer's application (or following the consumer's withdrawal of that application), and if a fee already has been assessed for obtaining the credit report, the new creditor or third party does not impose any additional fee until the consumer receives disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) from the new creditor and indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Fees “imposed by” a person.</I> For purposes of § 1026.19(e), a fee is “imposed by” a person if the person requires a consumer to provide a method for payment, even if the payment is not made at that time. For example, if a creditor or other person requires the consumer to provide a $500 check to pay for a “processing fee” before the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the creditor or other person does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(2)(i), even if the creditor or other person had stated that the check will not be cashed until after the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are received by the consumer and waited until after the consumer subsequently indicated an intent to proceed to cash the check. Similarly, a creditor or other person does not comply with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(2)(i) if the creditor or other person requires the consumer to provide a credit card number before the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), even if the creditor or other person had promised not to charge the consumer's credit card for the $500 processing fee until after the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are received by the consumer and waited until after the consumer subsequently indicated an intent to proceed. In contrast, a creditor or other person complies with § 1026.19(e)(2)(i) if the creditor or other person requires the consumer to provide a credit card number before the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and subsequently indicates an intent to proceed, provided that the consumer's authorization is only to pay for the cost of a credit report and the creditor or other person only charges a reasonable and bona fide fee for obtaining the consumer's credit report. This is so even if the creditor or other person maintains the consumer's credit card number on file and charges the consumer a $500 processing fee after the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are received and the consumer subsequently indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures, provided that the creditor or other person requested and received a separate authorization from the consumer for the processing fee after the consumer received the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and indicated an intent to proceed with the transaction described by those disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>19(e)(2)(i)(B) Exception to fee restriction.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A creditor or other person may impose a fee before the consumer receives the required disclosures if the fee is for purchasing a credit report on the consumer. The fee also must be bona fide and reasonable in amount. For example, a creditor or other person may collect a fee for obtaining a credit report if it is in the creditor's or other person's ordinary course of business to obtain a credit report. If the criteria in § 1026.19(e)(2)(i)(B) are met, the creditor or other person must accurately describe or refer to this fee, for example, as a “credit report fee.”
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<P><I>19(e)(2)(ii) Written information provided to consumer.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(2)(ii) requires the creditor or other person to include a clear and conspicuous statement on the top of the front of the first page of a written estimate of terms or costs specific to the consumer if it is provided to the consumer before the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). For example, if the creditor provides a document showing the estimated monthly payment for a mortgage loan, and the estimate was based on the estimated loan amount and the consumer's estimated credit score, then the creditor must include the statement on the document. In contrast, if the creditor provides the consumer with a preprinted list of closing costs common in the consumer's area, the creditor need not include the statement. Similarly, the statement would not be required on a preprinted list of available rates for different loan products. This requirement does not apply to an advertisement, as defined in § 1026.2(a)(2). Section 1026.19(e)(2)(ii) requires that the notice must be in a font size that is no smaller than 12-point font, and must state: “Your actual rate, payment, and costs could be higher. Get an official Loan Estimate before choosing a loan.” <I>See</I> form H-26 of appendix H to this part for a model statement. Section 1026.19(e)(2)(ii) also prohibits the creditor or other person from making these written estimates with headings, content, and format substantially similar to form H-24 or H-25 of appendix H to this part.
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<P><I>19(e)(2)(iii) Verification of information.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> The creditor or other person may collect from the consumer any information that it requires prior to providing the early disclosures before or at the same time as collecting the information listed in § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii). However, the creditor or other person is not permitted to require, before providing the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), that the consumer submit documentation to verify the information collected from the consumer. See also § 1026.2(a)(3) and the related commentary regarding the definition of application. To illustrate:</P>
<P>i. A creditor may ask for the sale price and address of the property, but the creditor may not require the consumer to provide a purchase and sale agreement to support the information the consumer provides orally before the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
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<P>ii. A mortgage broker may ask for the names, account numbers, and balances of the consumer's checking and savings accounts, but the mortgage broker may not require the consumer to provide bank statements, or similar documentation, to support the information the consumer provides orally before the mortgage broker provides the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
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<P><I>19(e)(3) Good faith determination for estimates of closing costs.</I>
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(i) General rule.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(3)(i) provides the general rule that an estimated closing cost disclosed under § 1026.19(e) is not in good faith if the charge paid by or imposed on the consumer exceeds the amount originally disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). Although § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) and (iii) provide exceptions to the general rule, the charges that are generally subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) include, but are not limited to, the following:
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<P>i. Fees paid to the creditor.
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<P>ii. Fees paid to a mortgage broker.
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<P>iii. Fees paid to an affiliate of the creditor or a mortgage broker.
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<P>iv. Fees paid to an unaffiliated third party if the creditor did not permit the consumer to shop for a third party service provider for a settlement service.
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<P>v. Transfer taxes.
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<P>2. <I>Charges “paid by or imposed on the consumer.”</I> For purposes of § 1026.19(e), a charge “paid by or imposed on the consumer” refers to the final amount for the charge paid by or imposed on the consumer at consummation or settlement, whichever is later. “Consummation” is defined in § 1026.2(a)(13). “Settlement” is defined in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2(b). For example, at consummation, the consumer pays the creditor $100 for recording fees. Settlement of the transaction concludes five days after consummation, and the actual recording fees are $70. The creditor refunds the consumer $30 immediately after recording. The recording fee paid by the consumer is $70.
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<P>3. <I>Fees “paid to” a person.</I> For purposes of § 1026.19(e), a fee is not considered “paid to” a person if the person does not retain the fee. For example, if a consumer pays the creditor transfer taxes and recording fees at the real estate closing and the creditor subsequently uses those funds to pay the county that imposed these charges, then the transfer taxes and recording fees are not “paid to” the creditor for purposes of § 1026.19(e). Similarly, if a consumer pays the creditor an appraisal fee in advance of the real estate closing and the creditor subsequently uses those funds to pay another party for an appraisal, then the appraisal fee is not “paid to” the creditor for the purposes of § 1026.19(e). A fee is also not considered “paid to” a person, for purposes of § 1026.19(e), if the person retains the fee as reimbursement for an amount it has already paid to another party. If a creditor pays for an appraisal in advance of the real estate closing and the consumer pays the creditor an appraisal fee at the real estate closing, then the fee is not “paid to” the creditor for the purposes of § 1026.19(e), even though the creditor retains the fee, because the payment is a reimbursement for an amount already paid.
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<P>4. <I>Transfer taxes and recording fees.</I> See comments 37(g)(1)-1, -2, and -3 for a discussion of the difference between transfer taxes and recording fees.
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<P>5. <I>Lender credits.</I> The disclosure of “lender credits,” as identified in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii), is required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). “Lender credits,” as identified in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii), represents the sum of non-specific lender credits and specific lender credits. Non-specific lender credits are generalized payments from the creditor to the consumer that do not pay for a particular fee on the disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1). Specific lender credits are specific payments, such as a credit, rebate, or reimbursement, from a creditor to the consumer to pay for a specific fee. Non-specific lender credits and specific lender credits are negative charges to the consumer. The actual total amount of lender credits, whether specific or non-specific, provided by the creditor that is less than the estimated “lender credits” identified in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii) and disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e) is an increased charge to the consumer for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). For example, if the creditor discloses a $750 estimate for “lender credits” pursuant to § 1026.19(e), but only $500 of lender credits is actually provided to the consumer, the creditor has not complied with § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) because the actual amount of lender credits provided is less than the estimated “lender credits” disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e), and is therefore, an increased charge to the consumer for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). However, if the creditor discloses a $750 estimate for “lender credits” identified in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii) to cover the cost of a $750 appraisal fee, and the appraisal fee subsequently increases by $150, and the creditor increases the amount of the lender credit by $150 to pay for the increase, the credit is not being revised in a way that violates the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) because, although the credit increased from the amount disclosed, the amount paid by the consumer did not. However, if the creditor discloses a $750 estimate for “lender credits” to cover the cost of a $750 appraisal fee, but subsequently reduces the credit by $50 because the appraisal fee decreased by $50, then the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) have been violated because, although the amount of the appraisal fee decreased, the amount of the lender credit decreased. See also § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(D) and comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(D)-1 for a discussion of lender credits in the context of interest rate dependent charges.
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<P>6. <I>Good faith analysis for lender credits.</I> For purposes of conducting the good faith analysis required under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) for lender credits, the total amount of lender credits, whether specific or non-specific, actually provided to the consumer is compared to the amount of the “lender credits” identified in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii). The total amount of lender credits actually provided to the consumer is determined by aggregating the amount of the “lender credits” identified in § 1026.38(h)(3) with the amounts paid by the creditor that are attributable to a specific loan cost or other cost, disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(f) and (g).
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<P>7. <I>Use of unrounded numbers.</I> Sections 1026.37(o)(4) and 1026.38(t)(4) require that the dollar amounts of certain charges disclosed on the Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure, respectively, to be rounded to the nearest whole dollar. However, to conduct the good faith analysis required under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), the creditor should use unrounded numbers to compare the actual charge paid by or imposed on the consumer for a settlement service with the estimated cost of the service.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(ii) Limited increases permitted for certain charges.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) provides that certain estimated charges are in good faith if the sum of all such charges paid by or imposed on the consumer does not exceed the sum of all such charges disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e) by more than 10 percent. Section 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) permits this limited increase for only the following items:
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<P>i. Fees paid to an unaffiliated third party if the creditor permitted the consumer to shop for the third-party service, consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A).
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<P>ii. Recording fees.
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<P>2. <I>Aggregate increase limited to ten percent.</I> Under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii)(A), whether an individual estimated charge subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) is in good faith depends on whether the sum of all charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) increases by more than 10 percent, regardless of whether a particular charge increases by more than 10 percent. This is true even if an individual charge was omitted from the estimate provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and then imposed at consummation. The following examples illustrate the determination of good faith for charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii):
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<P>i. Assume that, in the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the creditor includes a $300 estimated fee for a settlement agent, the settlement agent fee is included in the category of charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), and the sum of all charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) (including the settlement agent fee) equals $1,000. In this case, the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) if the actual settlement agent fee exceeds the estimated settlement agent fee by more than 10 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> the fee exceeds $330), provided that the sum of all such actual charges does not exceed the sum of all such estimated charges by more than 10 percent (<I>i.e.,</I> the sum of all such charges does not exceed $1,100).
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<P>ii. Assume that, in the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the sum of all estimated charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) equals $1,000. If the creditor does not include an estimated charge for a notary fee but a $10 notary fee is charged to the consumer, and the notary fee is subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), then the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the sum of all amounts charged to the consumer subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) does not exceed $1,100, even though an individual notary fee was not included in the estimated disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i).
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<P>3. <I>Services for which the consumer may, but does not, select a settlement service provider.</I> Good faith is determined pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), instead of § 1026.19(e)(3)(i), if the creditor permits the consumer to shop for a settlement service provider, consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A). Section 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) provides that if the creditor requires a service in connection with the mortgage loan transaction, and permits the consumer to shop for that service consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi), but the consumer either does not select a settlement service provider or chooses a settlement service provider identified by the creditor on the list, then good faith is determined pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), instead of § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). For example, if, in the disclosures provided pursuant to §§ 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and 1026.37(f)(3), a creditor discloses an estimated fee for an unaffiliated settlement agent and permits the consumer to shop for that service, but the consumer either does not choose a provider, or chooses a provider identified by the creditor on the written list provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C), then the estimated settlement agent fee is included with the fees that may, in aggregate, increase by no more than 10 percent for the purposes of § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii). If, however, the consumer chooses a provider that is not on the written list, then good faith is determined according to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii).
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<P>4. <I>Recording fees.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) provides that an estimate of a charge for a third-party service or recording fees is in good faith if the conditions specified in § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii)(A), (B), and (C) are satisfied. Recording fees are not charges for third-party services because recording fees are paid to the applicable government entity where the documents related to the mortgage transaction are recorded, and thus, the condition specified in § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii)(B) that the charge for third-party service not be paid to an affiliate of the creditor is inapplicable for recording fees. The condition specified in § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii)(C), that the creditor permits the consumer to shop for the third-party service, is similarly inapplicable. Therefore, estimates of recording fees need only satisfy the condition specified in § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii)(A) to meet the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii).
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<P>5. <I>Calculating the aggregate amount of estimated charges.</I> In calculating the aggregate amount of estimated charges for purposes of conducting the good faith analysis pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), the aggregate amount of estimated charges must reflect charges for services that are actually performed. For example, assume that the creditor included a $100 estimated fee for a pest inspection in the disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), and the fee is included in the category of charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), but a pest inspection was not obtained in connection with the transaction, then for purposes of the good faith analysis required under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), the sum of all charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) paid by or imposed on the consumer is compared to the sum of all such charges disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e), minus the $100 estimated pest inspection fee.
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<P>6. <I>Shopping for a third-party service.</I> For good faith to be determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) a creditor must permit a consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A). Section 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) provides that a creditor permits a consumer to shop for a settlement service if the creditor permits the consumer to select the provider of that service, subject to reasonable requirements. If the creditor permits the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), unless the settlement service provider is the creditor or an affiliate of the creditor, in which case good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). As noted in comment 19(e)(1)(vi)-1, whether the creditor permits the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) is determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iii) Variations permitted for certain charges.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Good faith requirement for prepaid interest, property insurance premiums, and escrowed amounts.</I> Estimates of prepaid interest, property insurance premiums, and amounts placed into an escrow, impound, reserve or similar account must be consistent with the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosures are provided. Differences between the amounts of such charges disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and the amounts of such charges paid by or imposed on the consumer do not constitute a lack of good faith, so long as the original estimated charge, or lack of an estimated charge for a particular service, was based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure was provided. This means that the estimate disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) was obtained by the creditor through due diligence, acting in good faith. <I>See</I> comments 17(c)(2)(i)-1 and 19(e)(1)(i)-1. For example, if the creditor requires homeowner's insurance but fails to include a homeowner's insurance premium on the estimates provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), then the creditor's failure to disclose does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii). However, if the creditor does not require flood insurance and the subject property is located in an area where floods frequently occur, but not specifically located in a zone where flood insurance is required, failure to include flood insurance on the original estimates provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) does not constitute a lack of good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii). Or, if the creditor knows that the loan must close on the 15th of the month but estimates prepaid interest to be paid from the 30th of that month, then the under-disclosure does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii). If, however, the creditor estimates consistent with the best information reasonably available that the loan will close on the 30th of the month and bases the estimate of prepaid interest accordingly, but the loan actually closed on the 1st of the next month instead, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii).
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<P>2. <I>Good faith requirement for required services chosen by the consumer.</I> If a service is required by the creditor, the creditor permits the consumer to shop for that service consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A), the creditor provides the list required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C), and the consumer chooses a service provider that is not on that list to perform that service, then the actual amounts of such fees need not be compared to the original estimates for such fees to perform the good faith analysis required under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) or (ii). Differences between the amounts of such charges disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and the amounts of such charges paid by or imposed on the consumer do not constitute a lack of good faith, so long as the original estimated charge, or lack of an estimated charge for a particular service, was based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure was provided. For example, if the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer will choose a settlement agent not identified by the creditor on the written list provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C), and the creditor discloses an unreasonably low estimated settlement agent fee of $20 when the average prices for settlement agent fees in that area are $150, then the under-disclosure does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) and good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). If the creditor permits the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) but fails to provide the written list required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C), good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) instead of § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) unless the settlement service provider is the creditor or an affiliate of the creditor in which case good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). As noted in comment 19(e)(1)(vi)-1 whether the creditor permits the consumer to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(A) is determined based on all the relevant facts and circumstances.
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<P>3. <I>Good faith requirement for property taxes or non-required services chosen by the consumer.</I> Differences between the amounts of estimated charges for property taxes or services not required by the creditor disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and the amounts of such charges paid by or imposed on the consumer do not constitute a lack of good faith, so long as the original estimated charge, or lack of an estimated charge for a particular service, was based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure was provided. For example, if the consumer informs the creditor that the consumer will obtain a type of inspection not required by the creditor, the creditor must include the charge for that item in the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), but the actual amount of the inspection fee need not be compared to the original estimate for the inspection fee to perform the good faith analysis required by § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii). The original estimated charge, or lack of an estimated charge for a particular service, complies with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) if it is made based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time that the estimate was provided. But, for example, if the subject property is located in a jurisdiction where consumers are customarily represented at closing by their own attorney, even though it is not a requirement, and the creditor fails to include a fee for the consumer's attorney, or includes an unreasonably low estimate for such fee, on the original estimates provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), then the creditor's failure to disclose, or unreasonably low estimation, does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii). Similarly, the amount disclosed for property taxes must be based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure was provided. For example, if the creditor fails to include a charge for property taxes, or includes an unreasonably low estimate for that charge, on the original estimates provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), then the creditor's failure to disclose, or unreasonably low estimation, does not comply with § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) and the charge for property tax would be subject to the good faith determination under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i).
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<P>4. <I>Bona fide charges.</I> In covered transactions, § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) requires the creditor to provide the consumer with good faith estimates of the disclosures in § 1026.37. Section 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) provides that an estimate of the charges listed in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) is in good faith if it is consistent with the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure is provided and that good faith is determined under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) even if such charges are paid to the creditor or affiliates of the creditor, so long as the charges are bona fide. For determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), to be bona fide, charges must be lawful and for services that are actually performed.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv) Revised estimates.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), good faith is determined by calculating the difference between the estimated charges originally provided pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and the actual charges paid by or imposed on the consumer. Section 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) provides the exception to this rule. Pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv), for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), the creditor may use a revised estimate of a charge instead of the amount originally disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the revision is due to one of the reasons set forth in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) through (F).
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<P>2. <I>Actual increase.</I> A creditor may determine good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii) based on the increased charges reflected on revised disclosures only to the extent that the reason for revision, as identified in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) through (F), actually increased the particular charge. For example, if a consumer requests a rate lock extension, then the revised disclosures on which a creditor relies for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) may reflect a new rate lock extension fee, but the fee may be no more than the rate lock extension fee charged by the creditor in its usual course of business, and the creditor may not rely on changes to other charges unrelated to the rate lock extension for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii).
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<P>3. <I>Documentation requirement.</I> In order to comply with § 1026.25, creditors must retain records demonstrating compliance with the requirements of § 1026.19(e). For example, if revised disclosures are provided because of a changed circumstance under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) affecting settlement costs, the creditor must be able to show compliance with § 1026.19(e) by documenting the original estimate of the cost at issue, explaining the reason for revision and how it affected settlement costs, showing that the corrected disclosure increased the estimate only to the extent that the reason for revision actually increased the cost, and showing that the timing requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) were satisfied. However, the documentation requirement does not require separate corrected disclosures for each change. A creditor may provide corrected disclosures reflecting multiple changed circumstances, provided that the creditor's documentation demonstrates that each correction complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e).
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<P>4. <I>Revised disclosures for general informational purposes.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) does not prohibit the creditor from issuing revised disclosures for informational purposes, <I>e.g.,</I> to keep the consumer apprised of updated information, even if the revised disclosures may not be used for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii). See comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(A)-1.ii for an example in which the creditor issues revised disclosures even though the sum of all costs subject to the 10 percent tolerance category has not increased by more than 10 percent.
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<P>5. <I>Best information reasonably available.</I> Regardless of whether a creditor may use particular disclosures for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), except as otherwise provided in § 1026.19(e), any disclosures must be based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time they are provided to the consumer. <I>See</I> § 1026.17(c)(2)(i) and comment 17(c)(2)(i)-1. For example, if the creditor issues revised disclosures reflecting a new rate lock extension fee for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i), other charges unrelated to the rate lock extension must be reflected on the revised disclosures based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the revised disclosures are provided. Nonetheless, any increases in those other charges unrelated to the rate lock extension may not be used for the purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3).
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(A) Changed circumstance affecting settlement charges.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> For the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), revised charges are compared to actual charges if the revision was caused by a changed circumstance. See also comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(A)-2 regarding the definition of a changed circumstance. The following examples illustrate the application of this provision:</P>
<P>i. <I>Charges subject to the zero percent tolerance category.</I> Assume a creditor provides a $200 estimated appraisal fee pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), which will be paid to an affiliated appraiser and therefore may not increase for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i), except as provided in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv). The estimate was based on information provided by the consumer at application, which included information indicating that the subject property was a single-family dwelling. Upon arrival at the subject property, the appraiser discovers that the property is actually a single-family dwelling located on a farm. A different schedule of appraisal fees applies to residences located on farms. A changed circumstance has occurred (<I>i.e.,</I> information provided by the consumer is found to be inaccurate after the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) were provided), which caused an increase in the cost of the appraisal. Therefore, if the creditor issues revised disclosures with the corrected appraisal fee, the actual appraisal fee of $400 paid at the real estate closing by the consumer will be compared to the revised appraisal fee of $400 to determine if the actual fee has increased above the estimated fee. However, if the creditor failed to provide revised disclosures, then the actual appraisal fee of $400 must be compared to the originally disclosed estimated appraisal fee of $200.
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<P>ii. <I>Charges subject to the ten percent tolerance category.</I> Assume a creditor provides a $400 estimate of title fees, which are included in the category of fees which may not increase by more than 10 percent for the purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii), except as provided in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv). An unreleased lien is discovered and the title company must perform additional work to release the lien. However, the additional costs amount to only a five percent increase over the sum of all fees included in the category of fees which may not increase by more than 10 percent. A changed circumstance has occurred (<I>i.e.,</I> new information), but the sum of all costs subject to the 10 percent tolerance category has not increased by more than 10 percent. Section 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) does not prohibit the creditor from issuing revised disclosures, but if the creditor issues revised disclosures in this scenario, when the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) are delivered, the actual title fees of $500 may not be compared to the revised title fees of $500; they must be compared to the originally estimated title fees of $400 because the changed circumstance did not cause the sum of all costs subject to the 10 percent tolerance category to increase by more than 10 percent.
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<P>2. <I>Changed circumstance.</I> A changed circumstance may be an extraordinary event beyond the control of any interested party. For example, a war or a natural disaster would be an extraordinary event beyond the control of an interested party. A changed circumstance may also be an unexpected event specific to the consumer or the transaction. For example, if the creditor provided an estimate of title insurance on the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), but the title insurer goes out of business during underwriting, then this unexpected event specific to the transaction is a changed circumstance. A changed circumstance may also be information specific to the consumer or transaction that the creditor relied upon when providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and that was inaccurate or changed after the disclosures were provided. For example, if the creditor relied on the consumer's income when providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), and the consumer represented to the creditor that the consumer had an annual income of $90,000, but underwriting determines that the consumer's annual income is only $80,000, then this inaccuracy in information relied upon is a changed circumstance. Or, assume two co-applicants applied for a mortgage loan. One applicant's income was $30,000, while the other applicant's income was $50,000. If the creditor relied on the combined income of $80,000 when providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), but the applicant earning $30,000 becomes unemployed during underwriting, thereby reducing the combined income to $50,000, then this change in information relied upon is a changed circumstance. A changed circumstance may also be the discovery of new information specific to the consumer or transaction that the creditor did not rely on when providing the original disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). For example, if the creditor relied upon the value of the property in providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), but during underwriting a neighbor of the seller, upon learning of the impending sale of the property, files a claim contesting the boundary of the property to be sold, then this new information specific to the transaction is a changed circumstance.
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<P>3. <I>Six pieces of information presumed collected, but not required.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) requires creditors to deliver the disclosures not later than the third business day after the creditor receives the consumer's application, which consists of the six pieces of information identified in § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii). A creditor is not required to collect the consumer's name, monthly income, social security number to obtain a credit report, the property address, an estimate of the value of the property, or the mortgage loan amount sought. However, for purposes of determining whether an estimate is provided in good faith under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), a creditor is presumed to have collected these six pieces of information. For example, if a creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) prior to receiving the property address from the consumer, the creditor cannot subsequently claim that the receipt of the property address is a changed circumstance pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) or (B).
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(B) Changed circumstance affecting eligibility.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> If changed circumstances cause a change in the consumer's eligibility for specific loan terms disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and revised disclosures are provided because the change in eligibility resulted in increased cost for a settlement service beyond the applicable tolerance threshold, the charge paid by or imposed on the consumer for the settlement service for which cost increased due to the change in eligibility is compared to the revised estimated cost for the settlement service to determine if the actual fee has increased above the estimated fee. For example, assume that, prior to providing the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the creditor believed that the consumer was eligible for a loan program that did not require an appraisal. The creditor then provides the estimated disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), which do not include an estimated charge for an appraisal. During underwriting it is discovered that the consumer was delinquent on mortgage loan payments in the past, making the consumer ineligible for the loan program originally identified on the estimated disclosures, but the consumer remains eligible for a different program that requires an appraisal. If the creditor provides revised disclosures reflecting the new program and including the appraisal fee, then the actual appraisal fee will be compared to the appraisal fee included in the revised disclosures to determine if the actual fee has increased above the estimated fee. However, if the revised disclosures also include increased estimates for title fees, the actual title fees must be compared to the original estimates assuming that the increased title fees do not stem from the change in eligibility or any other change warranting a revised disclosure. See also § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) and comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(A)-2 regarding the definition of changed circumstances.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(C) Revisions requested by the consumer.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> If the consumer requests revisions to the transaction that affect items disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), and the creditor provides revised disclosures reflecting the consumer's requested changes, the final disclosures are compared to the revised disclosures to determine whether the actual fee has increased above the estimated fee. For example, assume that the consumer decides to grant a power of attorney authorizing a family member to consummate the transaction on the consumer's behalf after the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are provided. If the creditor provides revised disclosures reflecting the fee to record the power of attorney, then the actual charges will be compared to the revised charges to determine if the fees have increased.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(D) Interest rate dependent charges.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> If the interest rate is not locked when the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are provided, then, no later than three business days after the date the interest rate is subsequently locked, § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(D) requires the creditor to provide a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) reflecting the revised interest rate, the points disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1), lender credits, and any other interest rate dependent charges and terms. The following example illustrates this requirement:
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<P>i. Assume a creditor sets the interest rate by executing a rate lock agreement with the consumer. If such an agreement exists when the original disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) are provided, then the actual points and lender credits are compared to the estimated points disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1) and lender credits included in the original disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). If the consumer enters into a rate lock agreement with the creditor after the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) were provided, then § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(D) requires the creditor to provide, no later than three business days after the date that the consumer and the creditor enter into a rate lock agreement, a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) reflecting the revised interest rate, the points disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1), lender credits, and any other interest rate dependent charges and terms. Provided that the revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) reflect any revised points disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1) and lender credits, the actual points and lender credits are compared to the revised points and lender credits for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i).
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<P>2. <I>After the Closing Disclosure is provided.</I> Under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(D), no later than three business days after the date the interest rate is locked, the creditor must provide to the consumer a revised version of the Loan Estimate as required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). Section 1026.19(e)(4)(ii) prohibits a creditor from providing a revised version of the Loan Estimate as required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) on or after the date on which the creditor provides the Closing Disclosure as required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i). If the interest rate is locked on or after the date on which the creditor provides the Closing Disclosure and the Closing Disclosure is inaccurate as a result, then the creditor must provide the consumer a corrected Closing Disclosure, at or before consummation, reflecting any changed terms, pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2). If the rate lock causes the Closing Disclosure to become inaccurate before consummation in a manner listed in § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii), the creditor must ensure that the consumer receives a corrected Closing Disclosure no later than three business days before consummation, as provided in that paragraph.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(E) Expiration.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> If the consumer indicates an intent to proceed with the transaction more than 10 business days after the disclosures were originally provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii), for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), a creditor may use a revised estimate of a charge instead of the amount originally disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). Section 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(E) requires no justification for the change to the original estimate other than the lapse of 10 business days. For example, assume a creditor includes a $500 underwriting fee on the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and the creditor delivers those disclosures on a Monday. If the consumer indicates intent to proceed 11 business days later, the creditor may provide new disclosures with a $700 underwriting fee. In this example, § 1026.19(e) and § 1026.25 require the creditor to document that a new disclosure was provided under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(E) but do not require the creditor to document a reason for the increase in the underwriting fee.
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<P>2. <I>Longer time period.</I> For transactions in which the interest rate is locked for a specific period of time, § 1026.37(a)(13)(ii) requires the creditor to provide the date and time (including the applicable time zone) when that period ends. If the creditor establishes a period greater than 10 business days after the disclosures were originally provided (or subsequently extends it to such a longer period) before the estimated closing costs expire, notwithstanding the 10-business-day period discussed in comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(E)-1, that longer time period becomes the relevant time period for purposes of § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(E). Accordingly, in such a case, the creditor may not issue revised disclosures for purposes of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii) under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(E) until after the longer time period has expired. A creditor establishes such a period greater than 10 business days by communicating the greater time period to the consumer, including through oral communication.
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<P><I>19(e)(3)(iv)(F) Delayed settlement date on a construction loan.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> A loan for the purchase of a home that has yet to be constructed, or a loan to purchase a home under construction (<I>i.e.,</I> construction is currently underway), is a construction loan to build a home for the purposes of § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(F). However, if a use and occupancy permit has been issued for the home prior to the issuance of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), then the home is not considered to be under construction and the transaction would not be a construction loan to build a home for the purposes of § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(F).
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<P><I>19(e)(4) Provision and receipt of revised disclosures.</I>
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<P><I>19(e)(4)(i) General Rule</I>
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<P>1. <I>Three-business-day requirement.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(4)(i) provides that, subject to the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4)(ii), if a creditor uses a revised estimate pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), the creditor shall provide a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) or the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) (including any corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) or (ii)) reflecting the revised estimate within three business days of receiving information sufficient to establish that one of the reasons for revision provided under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A) through (F) has occurred. The following examples illustrate these requirements:
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<P>i. Assume a creditor requires a pest inspection. The unaffiliated pest inspection company informs the creditor on Monday that the subject property contains evidence of termite damage, requiring a further inspection, the cost of which will cause an increase in estimated settlement charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) by more than 10 percent. The creditor must provide revised disclosures by Thursday to comply with § 1026.19(e)(4)(i).
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<P>ii. Assume a creditor receives information on Monday that, because of a changed circumstance under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A), the title fees will increase by an amount totaling six percent of the originally estimated settlement charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii). The creditor had received information three weeks before that, because of a changed circumstance under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(A), the pest inspection fees increased by an amount totaling five percent of the originally estimated settlement charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii). Thus, on Monday, the creditor has received sufficient information to establish a valid reason for revision and must provide revised disclosures reflecting the 11 percent increase by Thursday to comply with § 1026.19(e)(4)(i).
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<P>iii. Assume a creditor requires an appraisal. The creditor receives the appraisal report, which indicates that the value of the home is significantly lower than expected. However, the creditor has reason to doubt the validity of the appraisal report. A reason for revision has not been established because the creditor reasonably believes that the appraisal report is incorrect. The creditor then chooses to send a different appraiser for a second opinion, but the second appraiser returns a similar report. At this point, the creditor has received information sufficient to establish that a reason for revision has, in fact, occurred, and must provide corrected disclosures within three business days of receiving the second appraisal report. In this example, in order to comply with §§ 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) and 1026.25, the creditor must maintain records documenting the creditor's doubts regarding the validity of the appraisal to demonstrate that the reason for revision did not occur upon receipt of the first appraisal report.
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<P><I>19(e)(4)(ii) Relationship Between Revised Loan Estimates and Closing Disclosures</I>
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<P>1. <I>Revised Loan Estimate may not be delivered at the same time as the Closing Disclosure.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(4)(ii) prohibits a creditor from providing a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) on or after the date on which the creditor provides the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i). Section 1026.19(e)(4)(ii) also requires that the consumer must receive any revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) no later than four business days prior to consummation, and provides that if the revised version of the disclosures are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the revised version of the disclosures three business days after the creditor delivers or places in the mail the revised version of the disclosures. See also comments 19(e)(1)(iv)-1 and -2. However, if a creditor uses a revised estimate pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv) for the purpose of determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), § 1026.19(e)(4)(i) permits the creditor to provide the revised estimate in the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) (including any corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) or (ii)). See below for illustrative examples:
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<P>i. If the creditor is scheduled to meet with the consumer and provide the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Wednesday, June 3, and the APR becomes inaccurate on Tuesday, June 2, the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) by providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the revised APR on Wednesday, June 3. However, the creditor does not comply with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) if it provides both a revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) reflecting the revised APR on Wednesday, June 3, and also provides the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Wednesday, June 3.
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<P>ii. If the creditor is scheduled to email the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) to the consumer on Wednesday, June 3, and the consumer requests a change to the loan that would result in revised disclosures pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(C) on Tuesday, June 2, the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) by providing the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the consumer-requested changes on Wednesday, June 3. However, the creditor does not comply with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) if it provides disclosures reflecting the consumer-requested changes using both the revised version of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) on Wednesday, June 3, and also the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Wednesday, June 3.
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<P>iii. Consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 4. The creditor hand delivers the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Monday, June 1, and, on Tuesday, June 2, the consumer requests a change to the loan that would result in revised disclosures pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(C) but would not require a new waiting period pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii). Under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i), the creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures reflecting any changed terms to the consumer so that the consumer receives the corrected disclosures at or before consummation. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) by hand delivering the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) reflecting the consumer-requested changes on Thursday, June 4.
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<P>iv. Consummation is originally scheduled for Wednesday, June 10. The creditor hand delivers the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Friday, June 5. On Monday, June 8, the consumer reschedules consummation for Wednesday, June 17. Also on Monday, June 8, the consumer requests a rate lock extension that would result in revised disclosures pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(C) but would not require a new waiting period pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii). The creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) by delivering or placing in the mail the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) reflecting the consumer-requested changes on Thursday, June 11. Under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i), the creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures reflecting any changed terms to the consumer so that the consumer receives the corrected disclosures at or before consummation. The creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) by hand delivering the disclosures on Thursday, June 11. Alternatively, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) by providing the disclosures to the consumer by mail, including by electronic mail, on Thursday, June 11, because the consumer is considered to have received the corrected disclosures on Monday, June 15 (unless the creditor relies on evidence that the consumer received the corrected disclosures earlier). See § 1026.19(f)(1)(iii) and comments 19(f)(1)(iii)-1 and -2. See also § 1026.38(t)(3) and comment 19(f)(1)(iii)-2 regarding providing the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) (including any corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) or (ii)) in electronic form.
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<P>v. Consummation is originally scheduled for Wednesday, June 10. The creditor hand delivers the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Friday, June 5, and the APR becomes inaccurate on Monday, June 8, such that the creditor is required to delay consummation and provide corrected disclosures, including any other changed terms, so that the consumer receives them at least three business days before consummation under § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii). Consummation is rescheduled for Friday, June 12. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(e)(4) by hand delivering the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii) reflecting the revised APR and any other changed terms to the consumer on Tuesday, June 9. See § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii) and associated commentary regarding changes before consummation requiring a new waiting period. See comment 19(e)(4)(i)-1 for further guidance on when sufficient information has been received to establish an event has occurred.
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<P><I>19(f) Mortgage loans—Final disclosures.</I>
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<P><I>19(f)(1) Provision of disclosures.</I>
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<P><I>19(f)(1)(i) Scope.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(1)(i) requires disclosure of the actual terms of the credit transaction, and the actual costs associated with the settlement of that transaction, for closed-end credit transactions that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit, other than reverse mortgages subject to § 1026.33. For example, if the creditor requires the consumer to pay money into a reserve account for the future payment of taxes, the creditor must disclose to the consumer the exact amount that the consumer is required to pay into the reserve account. If the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) do not contain the actual terms of the transaction, the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if the creditor provides corrected disclosures that contain the actual terms of the transaction and complies with the other requirements of § 1026.19(f), including the timing requirements in § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii) and (f)(2). For example, if the creditor provides the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Monday, June 1, but the consumer adds a mobile notary service to the terms of the transaction on Tuesday, June 2, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if it provides disclosures reflecting the revised terms of the transaction on or after Tuesday, June 2, assuming that the corrected disclosures are also provided at or before consummation, under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Best information reasonably available.</I> Creditors may estimate disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) and (f)(2)(ii) using the best information reasonably available when the actual term is unknown to the creditor at the time disclosures are made, consistent with § 1026.17(c)(2)(i).
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<P>i. <I>Actual term unknown.</I> An actual term is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosures are made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the creditor, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining the information. For example, the creditor must at a minimum utilize generally accepted calculation tools, but need not invest in the most sophisticated computer program to make a particular type of calculation. The creditor normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. For example, the creditor might look to the consumer for the time of consummation, to insurance companies for the cost of insurance, to realtors for taxes and escrow fees, or to a settlement agent for homeowner's association dues or other information in connection with a real estate settlement. The following examples illustrate the reasonably available standard for purposes of § 1026.19(f)(1)(i).
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<P>A. Assume a creditor provides the disclosure under § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) for a transaction in which the title insurance company that is providing the title insurance policies is acting as the settlement agent in connection with the transaction, but the creditor does not request the actual cost of the lender's title insurance policy that the consumer is purchasing from the title insurance company and instead discloses an estimate based on information from a different transaction. The creditor has not exercised due diligence in obtaining the information about the cost of the lender's title insurance policy required under the “reasonably available” standard in connection with the estimate disclosed for the lender's title insurance policy.
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<P>B. Assume that in the prior example the creditor obtained information about the terms of the consumer's transaction from the settlement agent regarding the amounts disclosed under § 1026.38(j) and (k). The creditor has exercised due diligence in obtaining the information about the costs under § 1026.38(j) and (k) for purposes of the “reasonably available” standard in connection with such disclosures under § 1026.38(j) and (k).
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<P>ii. <I>Estimates.</I> If an actual term is unknown, the creditor may utilize estimates using the best information reasonably available in making disclosures even though the creditor knows that more precise information will be available at or before consummation. However, the creditor may not utilize an estimate without exercising due diligence to obtain the actual term for the consumer's transaction. <I>See</I> comment 19(f)(1)(i)-2.i. The creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures containing the actual terms of the transaction at or before consummation under § 1026.19(f)(2), subject to the exceptions provided for in that paragraph. Disclosures under § 1026.19(f) are subject to the labeling rules set forth in § 1026.38. See comment 17(c)(2)(i)-2 for guidance on labeling estimates.
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<P>iii. <I>Settlement agent.</I> If a settlement agent provides disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) three business days before consummation pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(v), the “best information reasonably available” standard applies to terms for which the actual term is unknown to the settlement agent at the time the disclosures are provided. The settlement agent normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information, but if information about actual terms is not reasonably available, the settlement agent also must satisfy the “best information reasonably available” standard. Accordingly, the settlement agent is required to exercise due diligence to obtain information if it is providing the Closing Disclosure pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(v). For example, for the loan terms table required to be disclosed under § 1026.38(b), the settlement agent would be considered to have exercised due diligence if it obtained such information from the creditor. Because the creditor remains responsible under § 1026.19(f)(1)(v) for ensuring that the Closing Disclosure is provided in accordance with § 1026.19(f), the creditor is expected to maintain communication with the settlement agent to ensure that the settlement agent is acting in place of the creditor. See comment 19(f)(1)(v)-3 for guidance on a creditor's responsibilities where a settlement agent provides disclosures.
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<P>3. <I>Denied or withdrawn applications.</I> The creditor is not required to provide the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if, before the time the creditor is required to provide the disclosures under § 1026.19(f), the creditor determines the consumer's application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested, or the consumer has withdrawn the application, and, as such, the transaction will not be consummated. For transactions covered by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), the creditor may rely on comment 19(e)(1)(iii)-3 in determining that disclosures are not required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) because the consumer's application will not or cannot be approved on the terms requested or the consumer has withdrawn the application.
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<P><I>19(f)(1)(ii) Timing.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(B), (f)(2)(i), (f)(2)(iii), (f)(2)(iv), and (f)(2)(v), the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) must be received by the consumer no later than three business days before consummation. For example, if consummation is scheduled for Thursday, the creditor satisfies this requirement by hand delivering the disclosures on Monday, assuming each weekday is a business day. For purposes of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), the term “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2.
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<P>2. <I>Receipt of disclosures three business days before consummation.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) provides that the consumer must receive the disclosures no later than three business days before consummation. To comply with this requirement, the creditor must arrange for delivery accordingly. Section 1026.19(f)(1)(iii) provides that, if any disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail. Thus, for example, if consummation is scheduled for Thursday, a creditor would satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on Thursday of the previous week, because, for the purposes of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii), Saturday is a business day, pursuant to § 1026.2(a)(6), and, pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(iii), the consumer would be considered to have received the disclosures on the Monday before consummation is scheduled. <I>See</I> comment 19(f)(1)(iii)-1. A creditor would not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) in this example if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on the Monday before consummation. However, the creditor in this example could satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) by delivering the disclosures on Monday, for instance, by way of electronic mail, provided the requirements of § 1026.38(t)(3)(iii) relating to disclosures in electronic form are satisfied and assuming that each weekday is a business day, and provided that the creditor obtains evidence that the consumer received the emailed disclosures on Monday. <I>See</I> comment 19(f)(1)(iii)-2.
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<P>3. <I>Timeshares.</I> For transactions secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan described in 11 U.S.C. 101(53D), § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(B) requires a creditor to ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) no later than consummation. Timeshare transactions covered by § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(B) may be consummated at the time or any time after the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) are received by the consumer. For example, if a consumer provides the creditor with an application, as defined by § 1026.2(a)(3), for a mortgage loan secured by a timeshare on Monday, June 1, and consummation of the timeshare transaction is scheduled for Friday, June 5, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(B) by ensuring that the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) no later than consummation on Friday, June 5. If a consumer provides the creditor with an application for a mortgage loan secured by a timeshare on Monday, June 1 and consummation of the timeshare transaction is scheduled for Tuesday, June 2, then the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(B) by ensuring that the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) no later than consummation on Tuesday, June 2. In some cases, a Loan Estimate must be provided under § 1026.19(e) before provision of the Closing Disclosure. See comment 19(e)(1)(iii)-4 for guidance on providing the Loan Estimate for transactions secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan.
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<P><I>19(f)(1)(iii) Receipt of disclosures.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Mail delivery.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(1)(iii) provides that, if any disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail. If the creditor delivers the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) in person, consummation may occur any time on the third business day following delivery. If the creditor provides the disclosures by mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are placed in the mail, for purposes of determining when the three-business-day waiting period required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) begins. The creditor may, alternatively, rely on evidence that the consumer received the disclosures earlier than three business days after mailing. See comment 19(e)(1)(iv)-1 for an example in which the creditor sends disclosures via overnight mail.
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<P>2. <I>Other forms of delivery.</I> Creditors that use electronic mail or a courier other than the United States Postal Service also may follow the approach for disclosures provided by mail described in comment 19(f)(1)(iii)-1. For example, if a creditor sends a disclosure required under § 1026.19(f) via email on Monday, pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(iii) the consumer is considered to have received the disclosure on Thursday, three business days later. The creditor may, alternatively, rely on evidence that the consumer received the emailed disclosures earlier after delivery. See comment 19(e)(1)(iv)-2 for an example in which the creditor emails disclosures and receives an acknowledgment from the consumer on the same day. Creditors using electronic delivery methods, such as email, must also comply with § 1026.38(t)(3)(iii). For example, if a creditor delivers the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) to a consumer via email, but the creditor did not obtain the consumer's consent to receive disclosures via email prior to delivering the disclosures, then the creditor does not comply with § 1026.38(t)(3)(iii), and the creditor does not comply with § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), assuming the disclosures were not provided in a different manner in accordance with the timing requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii).
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<P><I>19(f)(1)(iv) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to the three-business-day waiting periods required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) or (f)(2)(ii) only after the creditor makes the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i). The consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that necessitates consummating the credit transaction before the end of the waiting period. Whether these conditions are met is determined by the facts surrounding individual situations. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure, where the foreclosure sale will proceed unless loan proceeds are made available to the consumer during the waiting period, is one example of a bona fide personal financial emergency. Each consumer who is primarily liable on the legal obligation must sign the written statement for the waiver to be effective.
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<P><I>19(f)(1)(v) Settlement agent.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> For purposes of § 1026.19(f), a settlement agent is the person conducting the settlement. A settlement agent may provide the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) instead of the creditor. By assuming this responsibility, the settlement agent becomes responsible for complying with all of the relevant requirements of § 1026.19(f), meaning that “settlement agent” should be read in the place of “creditor” for all the relevant provisions of § 1026.19(f), except where such a reading would create responsibility for settlement agents under § 1026.19(e). For example, comment 19(f)(1)(ii)-3 explains that, in some cases involving transactions secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan, a Loan Estimate must be provided under § 1026.19(e). “Settlement agent” could not be read in place of “creditor” in comment 19(f)(1)(ii)-3 because settlement agents are not responsible for the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). To ensure timely and accurate compliance with the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(v), the creditor and settlement agent need to communicate effectively.
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<P>2. <I>Settlement agent responsibilities.</I> If a settlement agent provides any disclosure under § 1026.19(f), the settlement agent must comply with the relevant requirements of § 1026.19(f). For example, if the creditor and settlement agent agree that the creditor will deliver the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) to be received by the consumer three business days before consummation, pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A), and that the settlement agent will deliver any corrected disclosures at or before consummation, including disclosures provided so that they are received by the consumer three business days before consummation under § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii), and will permit the consumer to inspect the disclosures during the business day before consummation, the settlement agent must ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) at or before consummation and is able to inspect the disclosures during the business day before consummation, if the consumer so requests, in accordance with § 1026.19(f)(2)(i). See comment 19(f)(1)(v)-3 below for additional guidance regarding the creditor's responsibilities where the settlement agent provides disclosures. The settlement agent may assume the responsibility to provide some or all of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f). See comment 19(f)(1)(v)-4 for guidance on how creditors and settlement agents may divide responsibilities for completing the disclosures.
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<P>3. <I>Creditor responsibilities.</I> If a settlement agent provides disclosures required under § 1026.19(f) in the creditor's place, the creditor remains responsible under § 1026.19(f) for ensuring that the requirements of § 1026.19(f) have been satisfied. For example, if the settlement agent assumes the responsibility for providing all of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), the creditor does not comply with § 1026.19(f) if the settlement agent does not provide these disclosures at all, or if the consumer receives the disclosures later than three business days before consummation, as required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii)(A) and, as applicable, (f)(2)(ii). The creditor does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f) if it provides duplicative disclosures. For example, a creditor does not satisfy its obligation by issuing disclosures required under § 1026.19(f) that mirror ones already issued by the settlement agent for the purpose of demonstrating that the consumer received timely disclosures. The creditor is expected to maintain communication with the settlement agent to ensure that the settlement agent is acting in place of the creditor. Disclosures provided by a settlement agent in accordance with § 1026.19(f)(1)(v) satisfy the creditor's obligation under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i).
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<P>4. <I>Shared responsibilities permitted—completing the disclosures.</I> Creditors and settlement agents may agree to divide responsibility with respect to completing any of the disclosures under § 1026.38 for the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i). The settlement agent may assume the responsibility to complete some or all of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f). For example, the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) and the settlement agent complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(1)(v) if the settlement agent agrees to complete only the portion of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) related to closing costs for taxes, title fees, and insurance premiums, and the creditor agrees to complete the remainder of the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), and either the settlement agent or the creditor provides the consumer with one single disclosure form containing all of the information required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), in accordance with the other requirements in § 1026.19(f), such as requirements related to timing and delivery.
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<P><I>19(f)(2) Subsequent changes.</I>
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<P><I>19(f)(2)(i) Changes before consummation not requiring a new waiting period.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i), if the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) become inaccurate before consummation, other than as provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii), the creditor shall provide corrected disclosures reflecting any changed terms to the consumer so that the consumer receives the corrected disclosures at or before consummation. The creditor need not comply with the timing requirements in § 1026.19(f)(1)(ii) if an event other than one identified in § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii) occurs, and such changes occur after the creditor provides the consumer with the disclosures required by § 1026.19(f)(1)(i). For example:</P>
<P>i. Assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, the consumer received the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Monday, and a walk-through inspection occurs on Wednesday morning. During the walk-through the consumer discovers damage to the dishwasher. The seller agrees to credit the consumer $500 towards a new dishwasher. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(f) if the creditor provides corrected disclosures so that the consumer receives them at or before consummation on Thursday.
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<P>ii. Assume consummation is scheduled for Friday and on Monday morning the creditor sends the disclosures via overnight delivery to the consumer, ensuring that the consumer receives the disclosures on Tuesday. On Monday night, the seller agrees to sell certain household furnishings to the consumer for an additional $1,000, to be paid at the real estate closing, and the consumer immediately informs the creditor of the change. The creditor must provide corrected disclosures so that the consumer receives them at or before consummation. The creditor does not violate § 1026.19(f) because the change to the transaction resulting from negotiations between the seller and consumer occurred after the creditor provided the final disclosures, regardless of the fact that the change occurred before the consumer had received the final disclosures.
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<P>iii. Assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, the consumer received the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) on Monday, and a walk-through inspection occurs on Wednesday morning. As a result of consumer and seller negotiations, the total amount due from the buyer increases by $500. Also on Wednesday, the creditor discovers that the homeowner's insurance premium that was disclosed as $800 is actually $850. The new $500 amount due and the $50 insurance premium understatements are not violations of § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), and the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) by providing corrected disclosures reflecting the $550 increase so that the consumer receives them at or before consummation, pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii).
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<P>2. <I>Inspection.</I> A settlement agent may satisfy the requirement to permit the consumer to inspect the disclosures under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i), subject to § 1026.19(f)(1)(v).
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<P><I>19(f)(2)(ii) Changes before consummation requiring a new waiting period.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Conditions for corrected disclosures.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii), if, at the time of consummation, the annual percentage rate becomes inaccurate, the loan product changes, or a prepayment penalty is added to the transaction, the creditor must provide corrected disclosures with all changed terms so that the consumer receives them not later than the third business day before consummation. Requirements for annual percentage rate disclosures are set forth in § 1026.38(o)(4), and requirements determining whether an annual percentage rate is accurate are set forth in § 1026.22. Requirements for loan product disclosures are set forth in § 1026.38(a)(5)(iii) and § 1026.37(a)(10). Requirements for prepayment penalty disclosures are set forth in § 1026.38(b) and § 1026.37(b)(4).
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<P>i. <I>Example—APR becomes inaccurate.</I> Assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 11 and the disclosure for a regular mortgage transaction received by the consumer on Monday, June 8 under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) discloses an annual percentage rate of 7.00 percent:</P>
<P>A. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.10 percent. The creditor is not required to delay consummation to provide corrected disclosures under § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii) because the annual percentage rate is accurate pursuant to § 1026.22, but the creditor is required under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i) to provide corrected disclosures, including any other changed terms, so that the consumer receives them on or before Thursday, June 11.
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<P>B. On Thursday, June 11, the annual percentage rate will be 7.15 percent and corrected disclosures were not received by the consumer on or before Monday, June 8 because the annual percentage rate is inaccurate pursuant to § 1026.22. The creditor is required to delay consummation and provide corrected disclosures, including any other changed terms, so that the consumer receives them at least three business days before consummation under § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii).
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<P>ii. <I>Example—loan product changes.</I> Assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 11 and the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) disclose a product required to be disclosed as a “Fixed Rate” that contains no features that may change the periodic payment.
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<P>A. On Thursday, June 11, the loan product required to be disclosed changes to a “5/1 Adjustable Rate.” The creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures and delay consummation until the consumer has received the corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the change in the product disclosure, and any other changed terms, at least three business days before consummation. If, after the corrected disclosures in this example are provided, the loan product subsequently changes before consummation to a “3/1 Adjustable Rate,” the creditor is required to provide additional corrected disclosures and again delay consummation until the consumer has received the corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the change in the product disclosure, and any other changed terms, at least three business days before consummation.
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<P>B. On Thursday, June 11, the loan product required to be disclosed has changed to a “Fixed Rate” with a “Negative Amortization” feature. The creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures and delay consummation until the consumer has received the corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the change in the product disclosure, and any other changed terms, at least three business days before consummation.
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<P>iii. <I>Example—prepayment penalty is added.</I> Assume consummation is scheduled for Thursday, June 11 and the disclosure provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) did not disclose a prepayment penalty. On Wednesday, June 10, a prepayment penalty is added to the transaction such that the disclosure required by § 1026.38(b) becomes inaccurate. The creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures and delay consummation until the consumer has received the corrected disclosures provided under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) reflecting the change in the disclosure of the loan terms, and any other changed terms, at least three business days before consummation. If, after the revised disclosures in this example are provided but before consummation, the prepayment penalty is removed such that the description of the prepayment penalty again becomes inaccurate, and no other changes to the transaction occur, the creditor is required to provide corrected disclosures so that the consumer receives them at or before consummation under § 1026.19(f)(2)(i), but the creditor is not required to delay consummation because § 1026.19(f)(2)(ii)(C) applies only when a prepayment penalty is added.
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<P><I>19(f)(2)(iii) Changes due to events occurring after consummation.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Under § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii), if during the 30-day period following consummation, an event in connection with the settlement of the transaction occurs that causes the disclosures to become inaccurate, and such inaccuracy results in a change to an amount actually paid by the consumer from that amount disclosed under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), the creditor shall deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures not later than 30 days after receiving information sufficient to establish that such event has occurred. The following examples illustrate this requirement. (See also comment 19(e)(4)(i)-1 for further guidance on when sufficient information has been received to establish an event has occurred.)
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<P>i. Assume consummation occurs on a Monday and the security instrument is recorded on Tuesday, the day after consummation. If the creditor learns on Tuesday that the fee charged by the recorder's office differs from that previously disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), and the changed fee results in a change in the amount actually paid by the consumer, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) and (f)(2)(iii) by revising the disclosures accordingly and delivering or placing them in the mail no later than 30 days after Tuesday.
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<P>ii. Assume consummation occurs on a Tuesday, October 1 and the security instrument is not recorded until 15 days after October 1 on Thursday, October 16. The creditor learns on Monday, November 4 that the transfer taxes owed to the State differ from those previously disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), resulting in an increase in the amount actually paid by the consumer. The creditor complies with § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) and § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii) by revising the disclosures accordingly and delivering or placing them in the mail no later than 30 days after Monday, November 4. Assume further that the increase in transfer taxes paid by the consumer also exceeds the amount originally disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) above the limitations prescribed by § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). Pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the creditor refunds the excess to the consumer no later than 60 days after consummation, and the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if the creditor delivers disclosures corrected to reflect the refund of such excess no later than 60 days after consummation. The creditor satisfies these requirements under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v) if it revises the disclosures accordingly and delivers or places them in the mail by November 30.
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<P>iii. Assume consummation occurs on a Monday and the security instrument is recorded on Tuesday, the day after consummation. During the recording process on Tuesday the settlement agent and the creditor discover that the property is subject to an unpaid $500 nuisance abatement assessment, which was not disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), and learns that pursuant to an agreement with the seller, the $500 assessment will be paid by the seller rather than the consumer. Because the $500 assessment does not result in a change to an amount actually paid by the consumer, the creditor is not required to provide a corrected disclosure pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii). However, the assessment will result in a change to an amount actually paid by the seller from the amount disclosed under § 1026.19(f)(4)(i). Pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(4)(ii), the settlement agent must deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures to the seller no later than 30 days after Tuesday and provide a copy to the creditor pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(4)(iv).
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<P>iv. Assume consummation occurs on a Monday and the security instrument is recorded on Tuesday, the day after consummation. Assume further that ten days after consummation the municipality in which the property is located raises property tax rates effective after the date on which settlement concludes. Section 1026.19(f)(2)(iii) does not require the creditor to provide the consumer with corrected disclosures because the increase in property tax rates is not in connection with the settlement of the transaction.
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<P>2. <I>Per-diem interest.</I> Under § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii), if during the 30-day period following consummation, an event in connection with the settlement of the transaction occurs that causes the disclosures to become inaccurate, and such inaccuracy results in a change to an amount actually paid by the consumer from that amount disclosed under § 1026.19(f)(1)(i), the creditor must provide the consumer corrected disclosures, except as described in this comment. A creditor is not required to provide corrected disclosures under § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii) if the only changes that would be required to be disclosed in the corrected disclosure are changes to per-diem interest and any disclosures affected by the change in per-diem interest, even if the amount of per-diem interest actually paid by the consumer differs from the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(2) and (o). Nonetheless, if a creditor is providing a corrected disclosure under § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii) for reasons other than changes in per-diem interest and the per-diem interest has changed as well, the creditor must disclose in the corrected disclosures under § 1026.19(f)(2)(iii) the correct amount of the per-diem interest and provide corrected disclosures for any disclosures that are affected by the change in per-diem interest.
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<P><I>19(f)(2)(iv) Changes due to clerical errors.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(2)(iv) requires the creditor to deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures if the disclosures provided pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) contain non-numeric clerical errors. An error is considered clerical if it does not affect a numerical disclosure and does not affect requirements imposed by § 1026.19(e) or (f). For example, if the disclosure identifies the incorrect settlement service provider as the recipient of a payment, then § 1026.19(f)(2)(iv) requires the creditor to deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures reflecting the corrected non-numeric disclosure no later than 60 days after consummation. However, if, for example, the disclosure lists the wrong property address, which affects the delivery requirement imposed by § 1026.19(e) or (f), the error would not be considered clerical.
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<P><I>19(f)(2)(v) Refunds related to the good faith analysis.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(2)(v) provides that, if amounts paid at consummation exceed the amounts specified under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) or (ii), the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the creditor refunds the excess to the consumer no later than 60 days after consummation, and the creditor does not violate § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if the creditor delivers or places in the mail disclosures corrected to reflect the refund of such excess no later than 60 days after consummation. For example, assume that at consummation the consumer must pay four itemized charges that are subject to the good faith determination under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i). If the actual amounts paid by the consumer for the four itemized charges subject to § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) exceed their respective estimates on the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) by $30, $25, $25, and $15, then the total would exceed the limitations prescribed by § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) by $95. If, further, the amounts paid by the consumer for services that are subject to the good faith determination under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) totaled $1,190, but the respective estimates on the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) totaled only $1,000, then the total would exceed the limitations prescribed by § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) by $90. The creditor does not violate § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the creditor refunds $185 to the consumer no later than 60 days after consummation. The creditor does not violate § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) if the creditor delivers or places in the mail corrected disclosures reflecting the $185 refund of the excess amount collected no later than 60 days after consummation. See comments 38-4 and 38(h)(3)-2 for additional guidance on disclosing refunds.
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<P><I>19(f)(3) Charges disclosed.</I>
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<P><I>19(f)(3)(i) Actual charge.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(3)(i) provides the general rule that the amount imposed on the consumer for any settlement service shall not exceed the amount actually received by the settlement service provider for that service. Except as otherwise provided in § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii), a creditor violates § 1026.19(f)(3)(i) if the amount imposed upon the consumer exceeds the amount actually received by the service provider for that service.
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<P><I>19(f)(3)(ii) Average charge.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements.</I> Average-charge pricing is the exception to the rule in § 1026.19(f)(3)(i) that consumers shall not pay more than the exact amount charged by a settlement service provider for the performance of that service. <I>See</I> comment 19(f)(3)(i)-1. If the creditor develops representative samples of specific settlement costs for a particular class of transactions, the creditor may charge the average cost for that settlement service instead of the actual cost for such transactions. An average-charge program may not be used in a way that inflates the cost for settlement services overall.
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<P>2. <I>Defining the class of transactions.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(3)(ii)(B) requires a creditor to use an appropriate period of time, appropriate geographic area, and appropriate type of loan to define a particular class of transactions. For purposes of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii)(B), a period of time is appropriate if the sample size is sufficient to calculate average costs with reasonable precision, provided that the period of time is not less than 30 days and not more than six months. For purposes of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii)(B), a geographic area and loan type are appropriate if the sample size is sufficient to calculate average costs with reasonable precision, provided that the area and loan type are not defined in a way that pools costs between dissimilar populations. For example:
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<P>i. Assume a creditor defines a geographic area that contains two subdivisions, one with a median appraisal cost of $200, and the other with a median appraisal cost of $1,000. This geographic area would not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii) because the cost characteristics of the two populations are dissimilar. However, a geographic area would be appropriately defined if both subdivisions had a relatively normal distribution of appraisal costs, even if the distribution for each subdivision ranges from below $200 to above $1,000.
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<P>ii. Assume a creditor defines a type of loan that includes two distinct rate products. The median recording fee for one product is $80, while the median recording fee for the other product is $130. This definition of loan type would not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii) because the cost characteristics of the two products are dissimilar. However, a type of loan would be appropriately defined if both products had a relatively normal distribution of recording fees, even if the distribution for each product ranges from below $80 to above $130.
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<P>3. <I>Uniform use.</I> If a creditor chooses to use an average charge for a settlement service for a particular loan within a class, § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii)(C) requires the creditor to use that average charge for that service on all loans within the class. For example:
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<P>i. Assume a creditor elects to use an average charge for appraisal fees. The creditor defines a class of transactions as all fixed rate loans originated between January 1 and April 30 secured by real property or a cooperative unit located within a particular metropolitan statistical area. The creditor must then charge the average appraisal charge to all consumers obtaining fixed rate loans originated between May 1 and August 30 secured by real property or a cooperative unit located within the same metropolitan statistical area.
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<P>ii. The example in paragraph i of this comment assumes that a consumer would not be required to pay the average appraisal charge unless an appraisal was required on that particular loan. Using the example above, if a consumer applies for a loan within the defined class, but already has an appraisal report acceptable to the creditor from a prior loan application, the creditor may not charge the consumer the average appraisal fee because an acceptable appraisal report has already been obtained for the consumer's application. Similarly, although the creditor defined the class broadly to include all fixed rate loans, the creditor may not require the consumer to pay the average appraisal charge if the particular fixed rate loan program the consumer applied for does not require an appraisal.
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<P>4. <I>Average amount paid.</I> The average charge must correspond to the average amount paid by or imposed on consumers and sellers during the prior defined time period. For example, assume a creditor calculates an average tax certification fee based on four-month periods starting January 1 of each year. The tax certification fees charged to a consumer on May 20 may not exceed the average tax certification fee paid from January 1 through April 30. A creditor may delay the period by a reasonable amount of time if such delay is needed to perform the necessary analysis and update the affected systems, provided that each subsequent period is scheduled accordingly. For example, a creditor may define a four-month period from January 1 to April 30 and begin using the average charge from that period on May 15, provided the average charge is used until September 15, at which time the average charge for the period from May 1 to August 31 becomes effective.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Adjustments based on retrospective analysis required.</I> Creditors using average charges must ensure that the total amount paid by or imposed on consumers for a service does not exceed the total amount paid to the providers of that service for the particular class of transactions. A creditor may find that, even though it developed an average-cost pricing program in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii), over time it has collected more from consumers than it has paid to settlement service providers. For example, assume a creditor defines a class of transactions and uses that class to develop an average charge of $135 for pest inspections. The creditor then charges $135 per transaction for 100 transactions from January 1 through April 30, but the actual average cost to the creditor of pest inspections during this period is $115. The creditor then decreases the average charge for the May to August period to account for the lower average cost during the January to April period. At this point, the creditor has collected $2,000 more than it has paid to settlement service providers for pest inspections. The creditor then charges $115 per transaction for 70 transactions from May 1 to August 30, but the actual average cost to the creditor of pest inspections during this period is $125. Based on the average cost to the creditor from the May to August period, the average charge to the consumer for the September to December period should be $125. However, while the creditor spent $700 more than it collected during the May to August period, it collected $1,300 more than it spent from January to August. In cases such as these, the creditor remains responsible for ensuring that the amount collected from consumers does not exceed the total amounts paid for the corresponding settlement services over time. The creditor may develop a variety of methods that achieve this outcome. For example, the creditor may choose to refund the proportional overage paid to the affected consumers. Or the creditor may choose to factor in the excess amount collected to decrease the average charge for an upcoming period. Although any method may comply with this requirement, a creditor is deemed to have complied if it defines a six-month time period and establishes a rolling monthly period of reevaluation. For example, assume a creditor defines a six-month time period from January 1 to June 30 and the creditor uses the average charge starting July 1. If, at the end of July, the creditor recalculates the average cost from February 1 to July 31, and then uses the recalculated average cost for transactions starting August 1, the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii), even if the creditor actually collected more from consumers than was paid to providers over time.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Adjustments based on prospective analysis permitted, but not required.</I> A creditor may prospectively adjust average charges if it develops a statistically reliable and accurate method for doing so. For example, assume a creditor calculates average charges based on two time periods: winter (October 1 to March 31), and summer (April 1 to September 30). If the creditor can demonstrate that the average cost of a particular settlement service is always at least 15 percent more expensive during the winter period than the summer period, the creditor may increase the average charge for the next winter period by 15 percent over the average cost for the current summer period, provided, however, that the creditor performs retrospective periodic adjustments, as explained in comment 19(f)(3)(ii)-5.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Charges that vary with loan amount or property value.</I> An average charge may not be used for any charge that varies according to the loan amount or property value. For example, an average charge may not be used for a transfer tax if the transfer tax is calculated as a percentage of the loan amount or property value. Average charges also may not be used for any insurance premium. For example, average charges may not be used for title insurance or for either the upfront premium or initial escrow deposit for hazard insurance.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Prohibited by law.</I> An average charge may not be used where prohibited by any applicable State or local law. For example, a creditor may not impose an average charge for an appraisal if applicable law prohibits creditors from collecting any amount in excess of the actual cost of the appraisal.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Documentation required.</I> To comply with § 1026.25, a creditor must retain all documentation used to calculate the average charge for a particular class of transactions for at least three years after any settlement for which that average charge was used. The documentation must support the components and methods of calculation. For example, if a creditor calculates an average charge for a particular county recording fee by simply averaging all of the relevant fees paid in the prior month, the creditor need only retain the receipts for the individual recording fees, a ledger demonstrating that the total amount received did not exceed the total amount paid over time, and a document detailing the calculation. However, if a creditor develops complex algorithms for determining averages, not only must the creditor maintain the underlying receipts and ledgers, but the creditor must maintain documentation sufficiently detailed to allow an examiner to verify the accuracy of the calculations.
</P>
<P><I>19(f)(4) Transactions involving a seller.</I>
</P>
<P><I>19(f)(4)(i) Provision to seller.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(4)(i) requires the settlement agent to provide the seller with the disclosures required under § 1026.38 that relate to the seller's transaction reflecting the actual terms of the seller's transaction. The settlement agent complies with this provision by providing a copy of the Closing Disclosure provided to the consumer, if the Closing Disclosure also contains the information under § 1026.38 relating to the seller's transaction or, alternatively, by providing the disclosures under § 1026.38(t)(5)(v) or (vi), as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> In a purchase transaction with simultaneous subordinate financing, the settlement agent complies with § 1026.19(f)(4)(i) by providing the seller with only the first-lien transaction disclosures required under § 1026.38 that relate to the seller's transaction reflecting the actual terms of the seller's transaction in accordance with comment 19(f)(4)(i)-1 if the first-lien Closing Disclosure records the entirety of the seller's transaction. If the first-lien Closing Disclosure does not record the entirety of the seller's transaction, the settlement agent complies with § 1026.19(f)(4)(i) by providing the seller with both the first-lien and simultaneous subordinate financing transaction disclosures required under § 1026.38 that relate to the seller's transaction reflecting the actual terms of the seller's transaction in accordance with comment 19(f)(4)(i)-1.
</P>
<P><I>19(f)(4)(ii) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirement.</I> Section 1026.19(f)(4)(ii) provides that the settlement agent shall provide the disclosures required under § 1026.19(f)(4)(i) no later than the day of consummation. If during the 30-day period following consummation, an event in connection with the settlement of the transaction occurs that causes such disclosures to become inaccurate and such inaccuracy results in a change to the amount actually paid by the seller from that amount disclosed under § 1026.19(f)(4)(i), the settlement agent shall deliver or place in the mail corrected disclosures not later than 30 days after receiving information sufficient to establish that such event has occurred. Section 1026.19(f)(4)(i) requires disclosure of the items that relate to the seller's transaction. Thus, the settlement agent need only redisclose if an item related to the seller's transaction becomes inaccurate and such inaccuracy results in a change to the amount actually paid by the seller. For example, assume a transaction where the seller pays the transfer tax, the consummation occurs on Monday, and the security instrument is recorded on Tuesday, the day after consummation. If the settlement agent receives information on Tuesday sufficient to establish that transfer taxes owed to the State differ from those disclosed pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(4)(i), the settlement agent complies with § 1026.19(f)(4)(ii) by revising the disclosures accordingly and delivering or placing them in the mail not later than 30 days after Tuesday. See comment 19(e)(4)(i)-1 for guidance on when sufficient information has been received to establish an event has occurred. See also comment 19(f)(2)(iii)-1.iii for another example in which corrected disclosures must be provided to the seller.
</P>
<HD3>19(g) Special information booklet at time of application.
</HD3>
<P><I>19(g)(1) Creditor to provide special information booklet.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Revision of booklet.</I> The Bureau may, from time to time, issue revised or alternative versions of the special information booklet that addresses transactions subject to § 1026.19(g) by publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Bureau also may choose to permit the forms or booklets of other Federal agencies to be used by creditors. In such an event, the availability of the booklet or alternate materials for these transactions will be set forth in a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The current version of the booklet can be accessed on the Bureau's Web site, <I>www.consumerfinance.gov/learnmore</I>.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more persons apply together for a loan, the creditor complies with § 1026.19(g) if the creditor provides a copy of the booklet to one of the persons applying.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consumer's application.</I> Section 1026.19(g)(1)(i) requires that the creditor deliver or place in the mail the special information booklet not later than three business days after the consumer's application is received. “Application” is defined in § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii). The creditor need not provide the booklet under § 1026.19(g)(1)(i) when it denies an application or if the consumer withdraws the application before the end of the three-business-day period under § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii)(A). See comment 19(e)(1)(iii)-3 for additional guidance on denied or withdrawn applications.
</P>
<P><I>19(g)(2) Permissible changes.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reproduction.</I> The special information booklet may be reproduced in any form, provided that no changes are made, except as otherwise provided under § 1026.19(g)(2). <I>See also</I> comment 19(g)(2)-3. Provision of the special information booklet as a part of a larger document does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(g). Any color, size and quality of paper, type of print, and method of reproduction may be used so long as the booklet is clearly legible.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other permissible changes.</I> The special information booklet may be translated into languages other than English. Changes to the booklet other than those specified in § 1026.19(g)(2)(i) through (iv) and comment 19(g)(2)-3 do not comply with § 1026.19(g).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Permissible changes to title of booklets in use before October 3, 2015.</I> Section 1026.19(g)(2)(iv) provides that the title appearing on the cover of the booklet shall not be changed. Comment 19(g)(1)-1 states that the Bureau may, from time to time, issue revised or alternative versions of the special information booklet that address transactions subject to § 1026.19(g) by publishing a notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Until the Bureau issues a version of the special information booklet relating to the Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure under §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38, for applications that are received on or after October 3, 2015, a creditor may change the title appearing on the cover of the version of the special information booklet in use before October 3, 2015, provided the words “settlement costs” are used in the title. See comment 1(d)(5)-1 for guidance regarding compliance with § 1026.19(g) for applications received on or after October 3, 2015.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.20 Disclosure Requirements Regarding Post-Consummation Events
</HD2>
<HD3>20(a) Refinancings
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> A refinancing is a new transaction requiring a complete new set of disclosures. Whether a refinancing has occurred is determined by reference to whether the original obligation has been satisfied or extinguished and replaced by a new obligation, based on the parties' contract and applicable law. The refinancing may involve the consolidation of several existing obligations, disbursement of new money to the consumer or on the consumer's behalf, or the rescheduling of payments under an existing obligation. In any form, the new obligation must completely replace the prior one.
</P>
<P>i. Changes in the terms of an existing obligation, such as the deferral of individual installments, will not constitute a refinancing unless accomplished by the cancellation of that obligation and the substitution of a new obligation.
</P>
<P>ii. A substitution of agreements that meets the refinancing definition will require new disclosures, even if the substitution does not substantially alter the prior credit terms.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Exceptions.</I> A transaction is subject to § 1026.20(a) only if it meets the general definition of a refinancing. Section 1026.20(a)(1) through (5) lists 5 events that are not treated as refinancings, even if they are accomplished by cancellation of the old obligation and substitution of a new one.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Variable-rate.</I> i. If a variable-rate feature was properly disclosed under the regulation, a rate change in accord with those disclosures is not a refinancing. For example, no new disclosures are required when the variable-rate feature is invoked on a renewable balloon-payment mortgage that was previously disclosed as a variable-rate transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Even if it is not accomplished by the cancellation of the old obligation and substitution of a new one, a new transaction subject to new disclosures results if the creditor either:
</P>
<P>A. Increases the rate based on a variable-rate feature that was not previously disclosed; or
</P>
<P>B. Adds a variable-rate feature to the obligation. A creditor does not add a variable-rate feature by changing the index of a variable-rate transaction to a comparable index, whether the change replaces the existing index or substitutes an index for one that no longer exists. For example, a creditor does not add a variable-rate feature by changing the index of a variable-rate transaction from the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index to the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index respectively because the replacement index is a comparable index to the corresponding U.S. Dollar LIBOR index. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans. See</I> comment 20(a)-3.iv for factors to be used in determining whether a replacement index is comparable to a particular LIBOR index.
</P>
<P>iii. If either of the events in paragraph 20(a)-3.ii.A or ii.B occurs in a transaction secured by a principal dwelling with a term longer than one year, the disclosures required under § 1026.19(b) also must be given at that time.
</P>
<P>iv. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the relevant factors to be considered in determining whether a replacement index is comparable to a particular LIBOR index depend on the replacement index being considered and the LIBOR index being replaced. For example, these determinations may need to consider certain aspects of the historical data itself for a particular replacement index, such as whether the replacement index is a backward-looking rate (e.g., historical average of rates) such that timing aspects of the data may need to be adjusted to match up with the particular forward-looking LIBOR term-rate being replaced. The types of relevant factors to establish if a replacement index could meet the “comparable” standard with respect to a particular LIBOR index using historical data or future expectations, include but are not limited to, whether: (1) the movements over time are comparable; (2) the consumers' payments using the replacement index compared to payments using the LIBOR index are comparable if there is sufficient data for this analysis; (3) the index levels are comparable; (4) the replacement index is publicly available; and (5) the replacement index is outside the control of the creditor. The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans is considered comparable with respect to the LIBOR tenor being replaced, and therefore, these factors need not be considered.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unearned finance charge.</I> In a transaction involving precomputed finance charges, the creditor must include in the finance charge on the refinanced obligation any unearned portion of the original finance charge that is not rebated to the consumer or credited against the underlying obligation. For example, in a transaction with an add-on finance charge, a creditor advances new money to a consumer in a fashion that extinguishes the original obligation and replaces it with a new one. The creditor neither refunds the unearned finance charge on the original obligation to the consumer nor credits it to the remaining balance on the old obligation. Under these circumstances, the unearned finance charge must be included in the finance charge on the new obligation and reflected in the annual percentage rate disclosed on refinancing. Accrued but unpaid finance charges are included in the amount financed in the new obligation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1026.20(a) applies only to refinancings undertaken by the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation. A “refinancing” by any other person is a new transaction under the regulation, not a refinancing under this section.






</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Renewal.</I> This exception applies both to obligations with a single payment of principal and interest and to obligations with periodic payments of interest and a final payment of principal. In determining whether a new obligation replacing an old one is a renewal of the original terms or a refinancing, the creditor may consider it a renewal even if:
</P>
<P>i. Accrued unpaid interest is added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>ii. Changes are made in the terms of renewal resulting from the factors listed in § 1026.17(c)(3).
</P>
<P>iii. The principal at renewal is reduced by a curtailment of the obligation.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Annual percentage rate reduction.</I> A reduction in the annual percentage rate with a corresponding change in the payment schedule is not a refinancing. If the annual percentage rate is subsequently increased (even though it remains below its original level) and the increase is effected in such a way that the old obligation is satisfied and replaced, new disclosures must then be made.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Corresponding change.</I> A corresponding change in the payment schedule to implement a lower annual percentage rate would be a shortening of the maturity, or a reduction in the payment amount or the number of payments of an obligation. The exception in § 1026.20(a)(2) does not apply if the maturity is lengthened, or if the payment amount or number of payments is increased beyond that remaining on the existing transaction.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Court agreements.</I> This exception includes, for example, agreements such as reaffirmations of debts discharged in bankruptcy, settlement agreements, and post-judgment agreements. (See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(14) for a discussion of court-approved agreements that are not considered “credit.”)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Workout agreements.</I> A workout agreement is not a refinancing unless the annual percentage rate is increased or additional credit is advanced beyond amounts already accrued plus insurance premiums.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 20(a)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Insurance renewal.</I> The renewal of optional insurance added to an existing credit transaction is not a refinancing, assuming that appropriate Truth in Lending disclosures were provided for the initial purchase of the insurance.
</P>
<HD3>20(b) Assumptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General definition.</I> i. An assumption as defined in § 1026.20(b) is a new transaction and new disclosures must be made to the subsequent consumer. An assumption under the regulation requires the following three elements:
</P>
<P>A. A residential mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>B. An express acceptance of the subsequent consumer by the creditor.
</P>
<P>C. A written agreement.
</P>
<P>ii. The assumption of a nonexempt consumer credit obligation requires no disclosures unless all three elements are present. For example, an automobile dealer need not provide Truth in Lending disclosures to a customer who assumes an existing obligation secured by an automobile. However, a residential mortgage transaction with the elements described in § 1026.20(b) is an assumption that calls for new disclosures; the disclosures must be given whether or not the assumption is accompanied by changes in the terms of the obligation. (See comment 2(a)(24)-5 for a discussion of assumptions that are not considered residential mortgage transactions.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Existing residential mortgage transaction.</I> A transaction may be a residential mortgage transaction as to one consumer and not to the other consumer. In that case, the creditor must look to the assuming consumer in determining whether a residential mortgage transaction exists. To illustrate: The original consumer obtained a mortgage to purchase a home for vacation purposes. The loan was not a residential mortgage transaction as to that consumer. The mortgage is assumed by a consumer who will use the home as a principal dwelling. As to that consumer, the loan is a residential mortgage transaction. For purposes of § 1026.20(b), the assumed loan is an “existing residential mortgage transaction” requiring disclosures, if the other criteria for an assumption are met.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Express agreement. Expressly agrees</I> means that the creditor's agreement must relate specifically to the new debtor and must unequivocally accept that debtor as a primary obligor. The following events are not construed to be express agreements between the creditor and the subsequent consumer:
</P>
<P>i. Approval of creditworthiness.
</P>
<P>ii. Notification of a change in records.
</P>
<P>iii. Mailing of a coupon book to the subsequent consumer.
</P>
<P>iv. Acceptance of payments from the new consumer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Retention of original consumer.</I> The retention of the original consumer as an obligor in some capacity does not prevent the change from being an assumption, provided the new consumer becomes a primary obligor. But the mere addition of a guarantor to an obligation for which the original consumer remains primarily liable does not give rise to an assumption. However, if neither party is designated as the primary obligor but the creditor accepts payment from the subsequent consumer, an assumption exists for purposes of § 1026.20(b).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Status of parties.</I> Section 1026.20(b) applies only if the previous debtor was a consumer and the obligation is assumed by another consumer. It does not apply, for example, when an individual takes over the obligation of a corporation.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Disclosures.</I> For transactions that are assumptions within this provision, the creditor must make disclosures based on the “remaining obligation.” For example:
</P>
<P>i. The amount financed is the remaining principal balance plus any arrearages or other accrued charges from the original transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. If the finance charge is computed from time to time by application of a percentage rate to an unpaid balance, in determining the amount of the finance charge and the annual percentage rate to be disclosed, the creditor should disregard any prepaid finance charges paid by the original obligor, but must include in the finance charge any prepaid finance charge imposed in connection with the assumption.
</P>
<P>iii. If the creditor requires the assuming consumer to pay any charges as a condition of the assumption, those sums are prepaid finance charges as to that consumer, unless exempt from the finance charge under § 1026.4. If a transaction involves add-on or discount finance charges, the creditor may make abbreviated disclosures, as outlined in § 1026.20(b)(1) through (5). Creditors providing disclosures pursuant to this section for assumptions of variable-rate transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term longer than one year need not provide new disclosures under § 1026.18(f)(2)(ii) or § 1026.19(b). In such transactions, a creditor may disclose the variable-rate feature solely in accordance with § 1026.18(f)(1).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Abbreviated disclosures.</I> The abbreviated disclosures permitted for assumptions of transactions involving add-on or discount finance charges must be made clearly and conspicuously in writing in a form that the consumer may keep. However, the creditor need not comply with the segregation requirement of § 1026.17(a)(1). The terms <I>annual percentage rate</I> and <I>total of payments,</I> when disclosed according to § 1026.20(b)(4) and (5), are not subject to the description requirements of § 1026.18(e) and (h). The term <I>annual percentage rate</I> disclosed under § 1026.20(b)(4) need not be more conspicuous than other disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>20(c) Rate adjustments with a corresponding change in payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Creditors, assignees, and servicers.</I> Creditors, assignees, and servicers that own either the applicable adjustable-rate mortgage or the applicable mortgage servicing rights or both are subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(c). Creditors, assignees, and servicers are also subject to the requirements of any provision of subpart C that governs § 1026.20(c). For example, the form requirements of § 1026.17(a) apply to § 1026.20(c) disclosures and thus, assignees and servicers, as well as creditors, are subject to those requirements. While creditors, assignees, and servicers are all subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(c), they may decide among themselves which of them will provide the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan modifications.</I> Under § 1026.20(c), the interest rate adjustment disclosures are required only for interest rate adjustments occurring pursuant to the loan contract. Accordingly, creditors, assignees, and servicers need not provide the disclosures for interest rate adjustments occurring in loan modifications made for loss mitigation purposes. Subsequent interest rate adjustments resulting in a corresponding payment change occurring pursuant to the modified loan contract, however, are subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(c).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Conversions.</I> In addition to the disclosures required for interest rate adjustments under an adjustable-rate mortgage, § 1026.20(c) also requires the disclosures for an ARM converting to a fixed-rate transaction when the conversion changes the interest rate and results in a corresponding payment change. When an open-end account converts to a closed-end adjustable-rate mortgage, the § 1026.20(c) disclosure is not required until the implementation of an interest rate adjustment post-conversion that results in a corresponding payment change. For example, for an open-end account that converts to a closed-end 3/1 hybrid ARM, <I>i.e.,</I> an ARM with a fixed rate of interest for the first three years after which the interest rate adjusts annually, the first § 1026.20(c) disclosure would not be required until three years after the conversion, and only if that first adjustment resulted in a payment change.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> An adjustable-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.20(c)(1)(i), is a variable-rate transaction as that term is used in subpart C, except as distinguished by comment § 1026.20(c)(1)(ii)-3. The requirements of this section are not limited to transactions financing the initial acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Short-term ARMs.</I> Under § 1026.20(c)(1)(ii), construction, home improvement, bridge, and other loans with terms of one year or less are not subject to the requirements in § 1026.20(c). In determining the term of a construction loan that may be permanently financed by the same creditor or assignee, the creditor or assignee may treat the construction and the permanent phases as separate transactions with distinct terms to maturity or as a single combined transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>First new payment due within 210 days after consummation.</I> Section 1026.20(c) disclosures are not required if the first payment at the adjusted level is due within 210 days after consummation, when the new interest rate disclosed at consummation pursuant to § 1026.20(d) is not an estimate. For example, the creditor, assignee, or servicer would not be required to provide the disclosures required by § 1026.20(c) for the first time an ARM interest rate adjusts if the first payment at the adjusted level was due 120 days after consummation and the adjusted interest rate disclosed at consummation pursuant to § 1026.20(d) was not an estimate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Non-adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> The following transactions, if structured as fixed-rate and not as adjustable-rate mortgages based on an index or formula, are not subject to § 1026.20(c):
</P>
<P>i. Shared-equity or shared-appreciation mortgages;
</P>
<P>ii. Price-level adjusted or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation;
</P>
<P>iii. Graduated-payment mortgages or step-rate transactions;
</P>
<P>iv. Renewable balloon-payment instruments; and
</P>
<P>v. Preferred-rate loans.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The requirement that § 1026.20(c) disclosures be provided to consumers within a certain timeframe means that the creditor, assignee, or servicer must deliver the notice or place it in the mail within that timeframe, excluding any grace or courtesy periods. The requirement that the § 1026.20(c) disclosures must be provided between 25 and 120 days before the first payment at the adjusted level is due for frequently-adjusting ARMs, applies to ARMs that adjust regularly at a maximum of every 60 days.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. C<I>urrent and new interest rates.</I> The current interest rate is the interest rate that applies on the date the disclosure is provided to the consumer. The new interest rate is the actual interest rate that will apply on the date of the adjustment. The new interest rate is used to determine the new payment. The “new interest rate” has the same meaning as the “adjusted interest rate.” The requirements of § 1026.20(c)(2)(ii)(A) do not preclude creditors, assignees, and servicers from rounding the interest rate, pursuant to the requirements of the ARM contract.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate limits and foregone interest rate increases.</I> Interest rate carryover, or foregone interest rate increases, is the amount of interest rate increase foregone at any ARM interest rate adjustment that, subject to rate caps, can be added to future interest rate adjustments to increase, or to offset decreases in, the rate determined by using the index or formula. The disclosures required by § 1026.20(c)(2)(iv) regarding foregone interest rate increases apply only to transactions permitting interest rate carryover.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2)(v)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Application of previously foregone interest rate increases.</I> The disclosures regarding the application of previously foregone interest rate increases apply only to transactions permitting interest rate carryover.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amortization statement.</I> For ARMs requiring the payment of interest only, such as interest-only loans, § 1026.20(c)(2)(vi) requires a statement that the new payment covers all of the interest but none of the principal, and therefore will not reduce the loan balance. For negatively-amortizing ARMs, § 1026.20(c)(2)(vi) requires a statement that the new payment covers only part of the interest and none of the principal, and therefore the unpaid interest will be added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amortization payment.</I> Disclosure of the payment needed to amortize fully the outstanding balance at the new interest rate over the remainder of the loan term is required only when negative amortization occurs as a result of the interest rate adjustment. The disclosure is not required simply because a loan has interest-only or partially-amortizing payments. For example, an ARM with a five-year term and payments based on a longer amortization schedule, in which the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, does not require disclosure of the payment necessary to amortize fully the loan in the remainder of the five-year term. A disclosure is also not required when the new payment is sufficient to prevent negative amortization but the final loan payment will be a different amount due to rounding.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prepayment penalty.</I> The creditor, assignee, or servicer of an ARM with no prepayment penalty, as that term is used in § 1026.20(c)(2)(vii), may decide to exclude the prepayment section from the § 1026.20(c) disclosure, retain the prepayment section and insert after the heading “None” or other indication that there is no prepayment penalty, or indicate there is no prepayment penalty in some other manner. <I>See also</I> comment 1.vi to Appendices G and H—Open-End and Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(c)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Format of disclosures.</I> The requirements of § 1026.20(c)(3)(i) and (ii) to provide the § 1026.20(c) disclosures in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, the model and sample forms do not preclude creditors, assignees, and servicers from modifying the disclosures to accommodate particular consumer circumstances or transactions not addressed by the forms. For example, in the case of a consumer bankruptcy or under certain State laws, the creditor, assignee, or servicer may modify the forms to remove language regarding personal liability. Creditors, assignees, and servicers providing the required notice to a consumer whose ARM is converting to a fixed-rate mortgage, may modify the model language to explain that the interest rate will no longer adjust. Creditors, assignees, and servicers electing to provide consumers with interest rate notices in cases where the interest rate adjusts without a corresponding change in payment may modify the forms to fit that circumstance. A payment-option ARM, which is an ARM permitting consumers to choose among several different payment options for each billing period, is an example of a loan that may require modification of the § 1026.20(c) model and sample forms. See appendix H-30(C) for an example of an allocation table for a payment-option loan.
</P>
<P><I>20(d) Initial rate adjustment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Creditors, assignees, and servicers.</I> Creditors, assignees, and servicers that own either the applicable adjustable-rate mortgage or the applicable mortgage servicing rights or both are subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(d). Creditors, assignees, and servicers are also subject to the requirements of any provision of subpart C that governs § 1026.20(d). For example, the form requirements of § 1026.17(a) apply to § 1026.20(d) disclosures and thus, assignees and servicers, as well as creditors, are subject to those requirements. While creditors, assignees, and servicers are all subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(d), they may decide among themselves which of them will provide the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan modifications.</I> Under § 1026.20(d), the interest rate adjustment disclosures are required only for the initial interest rate adjustment occurring pursuant to the loan contract. Accordingly, creditors, assignees, and servicers need not provide the disclosures for interest rate adjustments occurring in loan modifications made for loss mitigation purposes. The initial interest rate adjustment occurring pursuant to the modified loan contract, however, is subject to the requirements of § 1026.20(d).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing and form of initial rate adjustment.</I> The requirement that § 1026.20(d) disclosures be provided in writing, separate and distinct from all other correspondence, means that the initial ARM interest rate adjustment notice must be provided to consumers as a separate document but may, in the case of mailing the disclosure, be in the same envelope with other material and, in the case of emailing the disclosure, be a separate attachment from other attachments in the same email. The requirement that the disclosures be provided to consumers between 210 and 240 days “before the first payment at the adjusted level is due” means the creditor, assignee, or servicer must deliver the notice or place it in the mail between 210 and 240 days prior to the due date, excluding any grace or courtesy periods, of the first payment calculated using the adjusted interest rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Conversions.</I> When an open-end account converts to a closed-end adjustable-rate mortgage, the § 1026.20(d) disclosure is not required until the implementation of the initial interest rate adjustment post-conversion. For example, for an open-end account that converts to a closed-end 3/1 hybrid ARM, <I>i.e.,</I> an ARM with a fixed rate of interest for the first three years after which the interest rate adjusts annually, the § 1026.20(d) disclosure would not be required until three years after the conversion when the interest rate adjusts for the first time.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> An adjustable-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.20(d)(1)(i), is a variable-rate transaction as that term is used in subpart C, except as distinguished by comment § 1026.20(d)(1)(ii)-2. The requirements of this section are not limited to transactions financing the initial acquisition of the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Short-term ARMs.</I> Under § 1026.20(d)(1)(ii), construction, home improvement, bridge, and other loans with terms of one year or less are not subject to the requirements in § 1026.20(d). In determining the term of a construction loan that may be permanently financed by the same creditor or assignee, the creditor or assignee may treat the construction and the permanent phases as separate transactions with distinct terms to maturity or as a single combined transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Non-adjustable-rate mortgages.</I> The following transactions, if structured as fixed-rate and not as adjustable-rate mortgages based on an index or formula, are not subject to § 1026.20(d):
</P>
<P>i. Shared-equity or shared-appreciation mortgages;
</P>
<P>ii. Price-level adjusted or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation;
</P>
<P>iii. Graduated-payment mortgages or step-rate transactions;
</P>
<P>iv. Renewable balloon-payment instruments; and
</P>
<P>v. Preferred-rate loans.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Date of the disclosure.</I> The date that must appear on the disclosure is the date the creditor, assignee, or servicer generates the notice to be provided to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(2)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Current and new interest rates.</I> The current interest rate is the interest rate that applies on the date of the disclosure. The new interest rate is the interest rate used to calculate the new payment and may be an estimate pursuant to § 1026.20(d)(2). The new payment, if calculated from an estimated new interest rate, will also be an estimate. The “new interest rate” has the same meaning as the “adjusted interest rate.” The requirements of § 1026.20(d)(2)(iii)(A) do not preclude creditors, assignees, and servicers from rounding the interest rate, pursuant to the requirements of the ARM contract.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate limits and foregone interest rate increases.</I> Interest rate carryover, or foregone interest rate increases, is the amount of interest rate increase foregone at the first ARM interest rate adjustment that, subject to rate caps, can be added to future interest rate adjustments to increase, or to offset decreases in, the rate determined by using the index or formula. The disclosures required by § 1026.20(d)(2)(v) regarding foregone interest rate increases apply only to transactions permitting interest rate carryover.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amortization statement.</I> For ARMs requiring the payment of interest only, such as interest-only loans, § 1026.20(d)(2)(vii) requires a statement that the new payment covers all of the interest but none of the principal, and therefore will not reduce the loan balance. For negatively-amortizing ARMs, § 1026.20(d)(2)(vii) requires a statement that the new payment covers only part of the interest and none of the principal, and therefore the unpaid interest will be added to the principal balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amortization payment.</I> Disclosure of the payment needed to amortize fully the outstanding balance at the new interest rate over the remainder of the loan term is required only when negative amortization occurs as a result of the interest rate adjustment. The disclosure is not required simply because a loan has interest-only or partially-amortizing payments. For example, an ARM with a five-year term and payments based on a longer amortization schedule, in which the final payment will equal the periodic payment plus the remaining unpaid balance, does not require disclosure of the payment necessary to amortize fully the loan in the remainder of the five-year term. A disclosure is also not required when the new payment is sufficient to prevent negative amortization but the final loan payment will be a different amount due to rounding.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(2)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prepayment penalty.</I> The creditor, assignee, or servicer of an ARM with no prepayment penalty, as that term is used in § 1026.20(d)(2)(viii), may decide to exclude the prepayment section from the § 1026.20(d) disclosure, retain the prepayment section and insert after the heading “None” or other indication that there is no prepayment penalty, or indicate there is no prepayment penalty in some other manner. <I>See also</I> comment to Appendices G and H—Open-End and Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses—1.vi.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(d)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Format of disclosures.</I> The requirements of § 1026.20(d)(3)(i) and (iii) to provide the § 1026.20(d) disclosures in the same order as, and with headings and format substantially similar to, the model and sample forms do not preclude creditors, assignees, and servicers from modifying the disclosures to accommodate particular consumer circumstances or transactions not addressed by the forms. For example, in the case of a consumer bankruptcy or under certain State laws, the creditor, assignee, or servicer may modify the forms to remove language regarding personal liability. A payment-option ARM, which is an ARM permitting consumers to choose among several different payment options for each billing period, is an example of a loan that may require modification of the § 1026.20(d) model and sample forms. See appendix H-30(C) for an example of an allocation table for a payment-option loan.
</P>
<P><I>20(e) Escrow account cancellation notice for certain mortgage transactions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(1) Scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Real property or dwelling.</I> For purposes of § 1026.20(e)(1), the term “real property” includes vacant and unimproved land. The term “dwelling” includes vacation and second homes and mobile homes, boats, and trailers used as residences. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(19) and related commentary for additional guidance regarding the term “dwelling.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Escrow account established in connection with the consumer's delinquency or default.</I> Neither creditors nor servicers are required to provide the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) when an escrow account that was established solely in connection with the consumer's delinquency or default on the underlying debt obligation will be cancelled.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Termination of the underlying debt obligation.</I> Neither creditors nor servicers are required to provide disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) when the underlying debt obligation for which an escrow account was established is terminated, including by repayment, refinancing, rescission, and foreclosure.
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(2) Content requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The clear and conspicuous standard generally requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form and readily noticeable to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 20(e)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Escrow closing fee.</I> Section 1026.20(e)(2)(i) requires the creditor to itemize the amount of any fee the creditor or servicer imposes on the consumer in connection with the closure of the consumer's escrow account, labeled “Escrow Closing Fee.” If the creditor or servicer independently decides to cancel the escrow account, rather than agreeing to close it at the request of the consumer, and does not charge a fee in connection with the cancellation, the creditor or service complies with § 1026.20(e)(2) by leaving the disclosure blank on the front-side of the one-page document described in § 1026.20(e)(4).
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(3) Optional information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Optional information permitted.</I> Section 1026.20(e)(3) lists information that the creditor or servicer may, at its option, include on the notice required by § 1026.20(e). To comply with § 1026.20(e)(3), the creditor or servicer may place the information required by § 1026.20(e)(3), other than the name and logo of the creditor or servicer, between the heading required by § 1026.20(e)(2) and the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2)(i) and (ii). The name and logo may be placed above the heading required § 1026.20(e)(2).
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(4) Form of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Grouped and separate.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) must be grouped together on the front side of a separate one-page document that contains no other material.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice must be in writing in a form that the consumer may keep.</I> The notice containing the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) must be in writing in a form that the consumer may keep. See also § 1026.17(a) and related commentary for additional guidance on the form requirements applicable to the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Modifications of disclosures.</I> The requirements of § 1026.20(e)(4) to provide the § 1026.20(e) disclosures with the headings, content, order, and format substantially similar to model form H-29 in appendix H to this part do not preclude creditors and servicers from modifying the disclosures to accommodate particular consumer circumstances or transactions not addressed by the form or from adjusting the statement required by § 1026.20(e)(2)(ii)(A), concerning consequences if the consumer fails to pay property costs, to the circumstances of the particular consumer.
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(5) Timing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(5)(i) Cancellation upon consumer's request.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing requirements</I> Section 1026.20(e)(5)(i) provides that if the creditor or servicer cancels the escrow account at the consumer's request, the creditor or servicer shall ensure that the consumer receives the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) no later than three business days before closure of the consumer's escrow account. For example, for closure to occur on Thursday, the consumer must receive the disclosures on or before Monday, assuming each weekday is a business day. For purposes of § 1026.20(e)(5), the term “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2.
</P>
<P><I>20(e)(5)(iii) Receipt of disclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing of receipt.</I> Section 1026.20(e)(5)(iii) provides that if the disclosures required under § 1026.20(e)(2) are not provided to the consumer in person, the consumer is considered to have received the disclosures three business days after they are delivered or placed in the mail. If the creditor or servicer provides the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) by mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are placed in the mail for purposes of determining when the waiting periods required by § 1026.20(e)(5)(i) and (ii) begins. Creditors and servicers that use electronic mail or a courier to provide disclosures may also follow this approach. If, however, the creditor or servicer delivers the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e)(2) to the consumer in person, the escrow account may be closed any time on the third or 30th business day following the date of delivery, as applicable. Whatever method is used to provide disclosures, creditors and servicers may rely on documentation of receipt in determining when the waiting periods required by § 1026.20(e)(5)(i) and (ii) begin.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.21—Treatment of Credit Balances
</HD2>
<HD3>Paragraph 21(a)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit balance.</I> A credit balance arises whenever the creditor receives or holds funds in an account in excess of the total balance due from the consumer on that account. A balance might result, for example, from the debtor's paying off a loan by transmitting funds in excess of the total balance owed on the account, or from the early payoff of a loan entitling the consumer to a rebate of insurance premiums and finance charges. However, § 1026.21 does not determine whether the creditor in fact owes or holds sums for the consumer. For example, if a creditor has no obligation to rebate any portion of precomputed finance charges on prepayment, the consumer's early payoff would not create a credit balance with respect to those charges. Similarly, nothing in this provision interferes with any rights the creditor may have under the contract or under state law with respect to set-off, cross collateralization, or similar provisions.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Total balance due.</I> The phrase <I>total balance due</I> refers to the total outstanding balance. Thus, this provision does not apply where the consumer has simply paid an amount in excess of the payment due for a given period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing of refund.</I> The creditor may also fulfill its obligation under this section by:
</P>
<P>i. Refunding any credit balance to the consumer immediately.
</P>
<P>ii. Refunding any credit balance prior to a written request from the consumer.
</P>
<P>iii. Making a good faith effort to refund any credit balance before 6 months have passed. If that attempt is unsuccessful, the creditor need not try again to refund the credit balance at the end of the 6-month period.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 21(b)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written requests—standing orders.</I> The creditor is not required to honor standing orders requesting refunds of any credit balance that may be created on the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 21(c)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Good faith effort to refund.</I> The creditor must take positive steps to return any credit balance that has remained in the account for over 6 months. This includes, if necessary, attempts to trace the consumer through the consumer's last known address or telephone number, or both.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Good faith effort unsuccessful.</I> Section 1026.21 imposes no further duties on the creditor if a good faith effort to return the balance is unsuccessful. The ultimate disposition of the credit balance (or any credit balance of $1 or less) is to be determined under other applicable law.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.22—Determination of Annual Percentage Rate
</HD2>
<HD3>22(a) Accuracy of Annual Percentage Rate
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Calculation method.</I> The regulation recognizes both the actuarial method and the United States Rule Method (U.S. Rule) as measures of an exact annual percentage rate. Both methods yield the same annual percentage rate when payment intervals are equal. They differ in their treatment of unpaid accrued interest.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Actuarial method.</I> When no payment is made, or when the payment is insufficient to pay the accumulated finance charge, the actuarial method requires that the unpaid finance charge be added to the amount financed and thereby capitalized. Interest is computed on interest since in succeeding periods the interest rate is applied to the unpaid balance including the unpaid finance charge. Appendix J provides instructions and examples for calculating the annual percentage rate using the actuarial method.
</P>
<P>3. <I>U.S. Rule.</I> The U.S. Rule produces no compounding of interest in that any unpaid accrued interest is accumulated separately and is not added to principal. In addition, under the U.S. Rule, no interest calculation is made until a payment is received.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Basis for calculations.</I> When a transaction involves “step rates” or “split rates”—that is, different rates applied at different times or to different portions of the principal balance—a single composite annual percentage rate must be calculated and disclosed for the entire transaction. Assume, for example, a step-rate transaction in which a $10,000 loan is repayable in 5 years at 10 percent interest for the first 2 years, 12 percent for years 3 and 4, and 14 percent for year 5. The monthly payments are $210.71 during the first 2 years of the term, $220.25 for years 3 and 4, and $222.59 for year 5. The composite annual percentage rate, using a calculator with a “discounted cash flow analysis” or “internal rate of return” function, is 10.75 percent.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Good faith reliance on faulty calculation tools.</I> Section 1026.22(a)(1) absolves a creditor of liability for an error in the annual percentage rate or finance charge that resulted from a corresponding error in a calculation tool used in good faith by the creditor. Whether or not the creditor's use of the tool was in good faith must be determined on a case-by-case basis, but the creditor must in any case have taken reasonable steps to verify the accuracy of the tool, including any instructions, before using it. Generally, the creditor is not liable only for errors directly attributable to the calculation tool itself, including software programs; § 1026.22(a)(1) is not intended to absolve a creditor of liability for its own errors, or for errors arising from improper use of the tool, from incorrect data entry, or from misapplication of the law.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Regular transactions.</I> The annual percentage rate for a regular transaction is considered accurate if it varies in either direction by not more than 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point from the actual annual percentage rate. For example, when the exact annual percentage rate is determined to be 101/8%, a disclosed annual percentage rate from 10% to 10 
<FR>1/4</FR>%, or the decimal equivalent, is deemed to comply with the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Irregular transactions.</I> The annual percentage rate for an irregular transaction is considered accurate if it varies in either direction by not more than 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point from the actual annual percentage rate. This tolerance is intended for more complex transactions that do not call for a single advance and a regular series of equal payments at equal intervals. The 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point tolerance may be used, for example, in a construction loan where advances are made as construction progresses, or in a transaction where payments vary to reflect the consumer's seasonal income. It may also be used in transactions with graduated payment schedules where the contract commits the consumer to several series of payments in different amounts. It does not apply, however, to loans with variable rate features where the initial disclosures are based on a regular amortization schedule over the life of the loan, even though payments may later change because of the variable rate feature.
</P>
<HD3>22(a)(4) Mortgage Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> If a creditor improperly omits a $75 fee from the finance charge on a regular transaction, the understated finance charge is considered accurate under § 1026.18(d)(1) or § 1026.38(o)(2), as applicable, and the annual percentage rate corresponding to that understated finance charge also is considered accurate even if it falls outside the tolerance of 
<FR>1/8</FR> of 1 percentage point provided under § 1026.22(a)(2). Because a $75 error was made, an annual percentage rate corresponding to a $100 understatement of the finance charge would not be considered accurate.


</P>
<HD3>22(a)(5) Additional Tolerance for Mortgage Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> This paragraph contains an additional tolerance for a disclosed annual percentage rate that is incorrect but is closer to the actual annual percentage rate than the rate that would be considered accurate under the tolerance in § 1026.22(a)(4). To illustrate: in an irregular transaction subject to a 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point tolerance, if the actual annual percentage rate is 9.00 percent and a $75 omission from the finance charge corresponds to a rate of 8.50 percent that is considered accurate under § 1026.22(a)(4), a disclosed APR of 8.65 percent is within the tolerance in § 1026.22(a)(5). In this example of an understated finance charge, a disclosed annual percentage rate below 8.50 or above 9.25 percent will not be considered accurate.
</P>
<HD3>22(b) Computation Tools
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Bureau tables.</I> Volumes I and II of the Bureau's Annual Percentage Rate Tables provide a means of calculating annual percentage rates for regular and irregular transactions, respectively. An annual percentage rate computed in accordance with the instructions in the tables is deemed to comply with the regulation, even where use of the tables produces a rate that falls outside the general standard of accuracy. To illustrate:Volume I may be used for single advance transactions with completely regular payment schedules or with payment schedules that are regular except for an odd first payment, odd first period or odd final payment. When used for a transaction with a large final balloon payment, Volume I may produce a rate that is considerably higher than the exact rate produced using a computer program based directly on appendix J. However, the Volume I rate—produced using certain adjustments in that volume—is considered to be in compliance.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 22(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Other calculation tools.</I> Creditors need not use the Bureau tables in calculating the annual percentage rates. Any computation tools may be used, so long as they produce annual percentage rates within 
<FR>1/8</FR> or 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1 percentage point, as applicable, of the precise actuarial or U.S. Rule annual percentage rate.
</P>
<HD3>22(c) Single Add-On Rate Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Creditors applying a single add-on rate to all transactions up to 60 months in length may disclose the same annual percentage rate for all those transactions, although the actual annual percentage rate varies according to the length of the transaction. Creditors utilizing this provision must show the highest of those rates. For example, an add-on rate of 10 percent converted to an annual percentage rate produces the following actual annual percentage rates at various maturities: At 3 months, 14.94 percent; at 21 months, 18.18 percent; and at 60 months, 17.27 percent. The creditor must disclose an annual percentage rate of 18.18 percent (the highest annual percentage rate) for any transaction up to 5 years, even though that rate is precise only for a transaction of 21 months.
</P>
<HD3>22(d) Certain Transactions Involving Ranges of Balances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Creditors applying a fixed dollar finance charge to all balances within a specified range of balances may understate the annual percentage rate by up to 8 percent of that rate, by disclosing for all those balances the annual percentage rate computed on the median balance within that range. For example: If a finance charge of $9 applies to all balances between $91 and $100, an annual percentage rate of 10 percent (the rate on the median balance) may be disclosed as the annual percentage rate for all balances, even though a $9 finance charge applied to the lowest balance ($91) would actually produce an annual percentage rate of 10.7 percent.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.23—Right of Rescission
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Transactions not covered.</I> Credit extensions that are not subject to the regulation are not covered by § 1026.23 even if a customer's principal dwelling is the collateral securing the credit. For example, the right of rescission does not apply to a business purpose loan, even though the loan is secured by the customer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<HD3>23(a) Consumer's Right to Rescind
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Security interest arising from transaction.</I> i. In order for the right of rescission to apply, the security interest must be retained as part of the credit transaction. For example:
</P>
<P>A. A security interest that is acquired by a contractor who is also extending the credit in the transaction.
</P>
<P>B. A mechanic's or materialman's lien that is retained by a subcontractor or supplier of the contractor-creditor, even when the latter has waived its own security interest in the consumer's home.
</P>
<P>ii. The security interest is not part of the credit transaction and therefore the transaction is not subject to the right of rescission when, for example:
</P>
<P>A. A mechanic's or materialman's lien is obtained by a contractor who is not a party to the credit transaction but is merely paid with the proceeds of the consumer's unsecured bank loan.
</P>
<P>B. All security interests that may arise in connection with the credit transaction are validly waived.
</P>
<P>C. The creditor obtains a lien and completion bond that in effect satisfies all liens against the consumer's principal dwelling as a result of the credit transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. Although liens arising by operation of law are not considered security interests for purposes of disclosure under § 1026.2, that section specifically includes them in the definition for purposes of the right of rescission. Thus, even though an interest in the consumer's principal dwelling is not a required disclosure under § 1026.18(m), it may still give rise to the right of rescission.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer.</I> To be a consumer within the meaning of § 1026.2, that person must at least have an ownership interest in the dwelling that is encumbered by the creditor's security interest, although that person need not be a signatory to the credit agreement. For example, if only one spouse signs a credit contract, the other spouse is a consumer if the ownership interest of that spouse is subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> A consumer can only have one principal dwelling at a time. (But see comment 23(a)(1)-4.) A vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. A transaction secured by a second home (such as a vacation home) that is not currently being used as the consumer's principal dwelling is not rescindable, even if the consumer intends to reside there in the future. When a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within one year or upon completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling if it secures the acquisition or construction loan. In that case, the transaction secured by the new dwelling is a residential mortgage transaction and is not rescindable. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a construction loan to finance B and secured by B is a residential mortgage transaction. Dwelling, as defined in § 1026.2, includes structures that are classified as personalty under state law. For example, a transaction secured by a mobile home, trailer, or houseboat used as the consumer's principal dwelling may be rescindable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Special rule for principal dwelling.</I> Notwithstanding the general rule that consumers may have only one principal dwelling, when the consumer is acquiring or constructing a new principal dwelling, any loan subject to Regulation Z and secured by the equity in the consumer's current principal dwelling (for example, a bridge loan) is subject to the right of rescission regardless of the purpose of that loan. For example, if a consumer whose principal dwelling is currently A builds B, to be occupied by the consumer upon completion of construction, a construction loan to finance B and secured by A is subject to the right of rescission. A loan secured by both A and B is, likewise, rescindable.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Addition of a security interest.</I> Under § 1026.23(a), the addition of a security interest in a consumer's principal dwelling to an existing obligation is rescindable even if the existing obligation is not satisfied and replaced by a new obligation, and even if the existing obligation was previously exempt under § 1026.3(b). The right of rescission applies only to the added security interest, however, and not to the original obligation. In those situations, only the § 1026.23(b) notice need be delivered, not new material disclosures; the rescission period will begin to run from the delivery of the notice.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's exercise of right.</I> The consumer must exercise the right of rescission in writing but not necessarily on the notice supplied under § 1026.23(b). Whatever the means of sending the notification of rescission—mail, telegram or other written means—the time period for the creditor's performance under § 1026.23(d)(2) does not begin to run until the notification has been received. The creditor may designate an agent to receive the notification so long as the agent's name and address appear on the notice provided to the consumer under § 1026.23(b). Where the creditor fails to provide the consumer with a designated address for sending the notification of rescission, delivering notification to the person or address to which the consumer has been directed to send, payments constitutes delivery to the creditor or assignee. State law determines whether delivery of the notification to a third party other than the person to whom payments are made is delivery to the creditor or assignee, in the case where the creditor fails to designate an address for sending the notification of rescission.
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<HD3>Paragraph 23(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rescission period.</I> i. The period within which the consumer may exercise the right to rescind runs for 3 business days from the last of 3 events:
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<P>A. Consummation of the transaction.
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<P>B. Delivery of all material disclosures.
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<P>C. Delivery to the consumer of the required rescission notice.
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<P>ii. For example:
</P>
<P>A. If a transaction is consummated on Friday, June 1, and the disclosures and notice of the right to rescind were given on Thursday, May 31, the rescission period will expire at midnight of the third business day after June 1—that is, Tuesday, June 5.
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<P>B. If the disclosures are given and the transaction consummated on Friday, June 1, and the rescission notice is given on Monday, June 4, the rescission period expires at midnight of the third business day after June 4—that is, Thursday, June 7. The consumer must place the rescission notice in the mail, file it for telegraphic transmission, or deliver it to the creditor's place of business within that period in order to exercise the right.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Material disclosures.</I> Section 1026.23(a)(3)(ii) sets forth the material disclosures that must be provided before the rescission period can begin to run. Failure to provide information regarding the annual percentage rate also includes failure to inform the consumer of the existence of a variable rate feature. Failure to give the other required disclosures does not prevent the running of the rescission period, although that failure may result in civil liability or administrative sanctions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Unexpired right of rescission.</I> i. When the creditor has failed to take the action necessary to start the three-business day rescission period running, the right to rescind automatically lapses on the occurrence of the earliest of the following three events:
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<P>A. The expiration of three years after consummation of the transaction.
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<P>B. Transfer of all the consumer's interest in the property.
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<P>C. Sale of the consumer's interest in the property, including a transaction in which the consumer sells the dwelling and takes back a purchase money note and mortgage or retains legal title through a device such as an installment sale contract.
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<P>ii. Transfer of all the consumers' interest includes such transfers as bequests and gifts. A sale or transfer of the property need not be voluntary to terminate the right to rescind. For example, a foreclosure sale would terminate an unexpired right to rescind. As provided in Section 125 of the Act, the three-year limit may be extended by an administrative proceeding to enforce the provisions of this section. A partial transfer of the consumer's interest, such as a transfer bestowing co-ownership on a spouse, does not terminate the right of rescission.
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<HD3>Paragraph 23(a)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Joint owners.</I> When more than one consumer has the right to rescind a transaction, any of them may exercise that right and cancel the transaction on behalf of all. For example, if both husband and wife have the right to rescind a transaction, either spouse acting alone may exercise the right and both are bound by the rescission.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(b)
</HD3>
<HD3>23(b)(1) Notice of Right To Rescind
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Who receives notice.</I> Each consumer entitled to rescind must be given two copies of the rescission notice and the material disclosures. In a transaction involving joint owners, both of whom are entitled to rescind, both must receive the notice of the right to rescind and disclosures. For example, if both spouses are entitled to rescind a transaction, each must receive two copies of the rescission notice (one copy to each if the notice is provided in electronic form in accordance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the E-Sign Act) and one copy of the disclosures.
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<P>2. <I>Format.</I> The notice must be on a separate piece of paper, but may appear with other information such as the itemization of the amount financed. The material must be clear and conspicuous, but no minimum type size or other technical requirements are imposed. The notices in appendix H provide models that creditors may use in giving the notice.
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<P>3. <I>Content.</I> The notice must include all of the information outlined in Section 1026.23(b)(1)(i) through (v). The requirement in § 1026.23(b) that the transaction be identified may be met by providing the date of the transaction. The creditor may provide a separate form that the consumer may use to exercise the right of rescission, or that form may be combined with the other rescission disclosures, as illustrated in appendix H. The notice may include additional information related to the required information, such as:
</P>
<P>i. A description of the property subject to the security interest.
</P>
<P>ii. A statement that joint owners may have the right to rescind and that a rescission by one is effective for all.
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<P>iii. The name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of rescission.
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<P>4. <I>Time of providing notice.</I> The notice required by § 1026.23(b) need not be given before consummation of the transaction. The creditor may deliver the notice after the transaction is consummated, but the rescission period will not begin to run until the notice is given. For example, if the creditor provides the notice on May 15, but disclosures were given and the transaction was consummated on May 10, the 3-business day rescission period will run from May 15.
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<HD3>23(c) Delay of Creditor's Performance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Until the rescission period has expired and the creditor is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded, the creditor must not, either directly or through a third party:
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<P>i. Disburse loan proceeds to the consumer.
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<P>ii. Begin performing services for the consumer.
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<P>iii. Deliver materials to the consumer.
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<P>2. <I>Escrow.</I> The creditor may disburse loan proceeds during the rescission period in a valid escrow arrangement. The creditor may not, however, appoint the consumer as “trustee” or “escrow agent” and distribute funds to the consumer in that capacity during the delay period.
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<P>3. <I>Actions during the delay period.</I> Section 1026.23(c) does not prevent the creditor from taking other steps during the delay, short of beginning actual performance. Unless otherwise prohibited, such as by state law, the creditor may, for example:
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<P>i. Prepare the loan check.
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<P>ii. Perfect the security interest.
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<P>iii. Prepare to discount or assign the contract to a third party.
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<P>iv. Accrue finance charges during the delay period.
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<P>4. <I>Delay beyond rescission period.</I> i. The creditor must wait until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not rescinded. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by doing one of the following:
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<P>A. Waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the rescission period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice.
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<P>B. Obtaining a written statement from the consumer that the right has not been exercised.
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<P>ii. When more than one consumer has the right to rescind, the creditor cannot reasonably rely on the assurance of only one consumer, because other consumers may exercise the right.
</P>
<HD3>23(d) Effects of Rescission
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(d)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Termination of security interest.</I> Any security interest giving rise to the right of rescission becomes void when the consumer exercises the right of rescission. The security interest is automatically negated regardless of its status and whether or not it was recorded or perfected. Under § 1026.23(d)(2), however, the creditor must take any action necessary to reflect the fact that the security interest no longer exists.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(d)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Refunds to consumer.</I> The consumer cannot be required to pay any amount in the form of money or property either to the creditor or to a third party as part of the credit transaction. Any amounts of this nature already paid by the consumer must be refunded. “Any amount” includes finance charges already accrued, as well as other charges, such as broker fees, application and commitment fees, or fees for a title search or appraisal, whether paid to the creditor, paid directly to a third party, or passed on from the creditor to the third party. It is irrelevant that these amounts may not represent profit to the creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts not refundable to consumer.</I> Creditors need not return any money given by the consumer to a third party outside of the credit transaction, such as costs incurred for a building permit or for a zoning variance. Similarly, the term <I>any amount</I> does not apply to any money or property given by the creditor to the consumer; those amounts must be tendered by the consumer to the creditor under § 1026.23(d)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reflection of security interest termination.</I> The creditor must take whatever steps are necessary to indicate that the security interest is terminated. Those steps include the cancellation of documents creating the security interest, and the filing of release or termination statements in the public record. In a transaction involving subcontractors or suppliers that also hold security interests related to the credit transaction, the creditor must insure that the termination of their security interests is also reflected. The 20-day period for the creditor's action refers to the time within which the creditor must begin the process. It does not require all necessary steps to have been completed within that time, but the creditor is responsible for seeing the process through to completion.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(d)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Property exchange.</I> Once the creditor has fulfilled its obligations under § 1026.23(d)(2), the consumer must tender to the creditor any property or money the creditor has already delivered to the consumer. At the consumer's option, property may be tendered at the location of the property. For example, if lumber or fixtures have been delivered to the consumer's home, the consumer may tender them to the creditor by making them available for pick-up at the home, rather than physically returning them to the creditor's premises. Money already given to the consumer <I>must</I> be tendered at the creditor's place of business.
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<P>2. <I>Reasonable value.</I> If returning the property would be extremely burdensome to the consumer, the consumer may offer the creditor its reasonable value rather than returning the property itself. For example, if building materials have already been incorporated into the consumer's dwelling, the consumer may pay their reasonable value.
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<HD3>Paragraph 23(d)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> The procedures outlined in § 1026.23(d)(2) and (3) may be modified by a court. For example, when a consumer is in bankruptcy proceedings and prohibited from returning anything to the creditor, or when the equities dictate, a modification might be made. The sequence of procedures under § 1026.23(d)(2) and (3), or a court's modification of those procedures under § 1026.23(d)(4), does not affect a consumer's substantive right to rescind and to have the loan amount adjusted accordingly. Where the consumer's right to rescind is contested by the creditor, a court would normally determine whether the consumer has a right to rescind and determine the amounts owed before establishing the procedures for the parties to tender any money or property.
</P>
<HD3>23(e) Consumer's Waiver of Right to Rescind
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Need for waiver.</I> To waive the right to rescind, the consumer must have a bona fide personal financial emergency that must be met before the end of the rescission period. The existence of the consumer's waiver will not, of itself, automatically insulate the creditor from liability for failing to provide the right of rescission.
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<P>2. <I>Procedure.</I> To waive or modify the right to rescind, the consumer must give a written statement that specifically waives or modifies the right, and also includes a brief description of the emergency. Each consumer entitled to rescind must sign the waiver statement. In a transaction involving multiple consumers, such as a husband and wife using their home as collateral, the waiver must bear the signatures of both spouses.
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<HD3>23(f) Exempt Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Residential mortgage transaction.</I> Any transaction to construct or acquire a principal dwelling, whether considered real or personal property, is exempt. (See the commentary to § 1026.23(a).) For example, a credit transaction to acquire a mobile home or houseboat to be used as the consumer's principal dwelling would not be rescindable.
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<P>2. <I>Lien status.</I> The lien status of the mortgage is irrelevant for purposes of the exemption in § 1026.23(f)(1); the fact that a loan has junior lien status does not by itself preclude application of this exemption. For example, a home buyer may assume the existing first mortgage and create a second mortgage to finance the balance of the purchase price. Such a transaction would not be rescindable.
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<P>3. <I>Combined-purpose transaction.</I> A loan to acquire a principal dwelling and make improvements to that dwelling is exempt if treated as one transaction. If, on the other hand, the loan for the acquisition of the principal dwelling and the subsequent advances for improvements are treated as more than one transaction, then only the transaction that finances the acquisition of that dwelling is exempt.
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<P>4. <I>New advances.</I> The exemption in § 1026.23(f)(2) applies only to refinancings (including consolidations) by the original creditor. The original creditor is the creditor to whom the written agreement was initially made payable. In a merger, consolidation or acquisition, the successor institution is considered the original creditor for purposes of the exemption in § 1026.23(f)(2). If the refinancing involves a new advance of money, the amount of the new advance is rescindable. In determining whether there is a new advance, a creditor may rely on the amount financed, refinancing costs, and other figures stated in the latest Truth in Lending disclosures provided to the consumer and is not required to use, for example, more precise information that may only become available when the loan is closed. For purposes of the right of rescission, a new advance does not include amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. These amounts would include § 1026.4(c)(7) charges (such as attorneys fees and title examination and insurance fees, if bona fide and reasonable in amount), as well as insurance premiums and other charges that are not finance charges. (Finance charges on the new transaction—points, for example—would not be considered in determining whether there is a new advance of money in a refinancing since finance charges are not part of the amount financed.) To illustrate, if the sum of the outstanding principal balance plus the earned unpaid finance charge is $50,000 and the new amount financed is $51,000, then the refinancing would be exempt if the extra $1,000 is attributed solely to costs financed in connection with the refinancing that are not finance charges. Of course, if new advances of money are made (for example, to pay for home improvements) and the consumer exercises the right of rescission, the consumer must be placed in the same position as he or she was in prior to entering into the new credit transaction. Thus, all amounts of money (which would include all the costs of the refinancing) already paid by the consumer to the creditor or to a third party as part of the refinancing would have to be refunded to the consumer. (See the commentary to § 1026.23(d)(2) for a discussion of refunds to consumers.) A model rescission notice applicable to transactions involving new advances appears in appendix H. The general rescission notice (model form H-8) is the appropriate form for use by creditors not considered original creditors in refinancing transactions.
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<P>5. <I>State creditors.</I> Cities and other political subdivisions of states acting as creditors are not exempted from this section.
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<P>6. <I>Multiple advances.</I> Just as new disclosures need not be made for subsequent advances when treated as one transaction, no new rescission rights arise so long as the appropriate notice and disclosures are given at the outset of the transaction. For example, the creditor extends credit for home improvements secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, with advances made as repairs progress. As permitted by § 1026.17(c)(6), the creditor makes a single set of disclosures at the beginning of the construction period, rather than separate disclosures for each advance. The right of rescission does not arise with each advance. However, if the advances are treated as separate transactions, the right of rescission applies to each advance.7. <I>Spreader clauses.</I> When the creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's principal dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a “spreader clause,” subsequent loans made are separate transactions and are subject to the right of rescission. Those loans are rescindable unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent transactions.
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<P>8. <I>Converting open-end to closed-end credit.</I> Under certain state laws, consummation of a closed-end credit transaction may occur at the time a consumer enters into the initial open-end credit agreement. As provided in the commentary to § 1026.17(b), closed-end credit disclosures may be delayed under these circumstances until the conversion of the open-end account to a closed-end transaction. In accounts secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, no new right of rescission arises at the time of conversion. Rescission rights under § 1026.15 are unaffected.
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<HD3>23(g) Tolerances for Accuracy
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> See comment 38(o)-1 for examples illustrating the interaction of the finance charge and total of payments accuracy requirements for each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f).


</P>
<HD3>23(g)(2) One Percent Tolerance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>New advance.</I> The phrase “new advance” has the same meaning as in comment 23(f)-4.
</P>
<HD3>23(h) Special Rules for Foreclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rescission.</I> Section 1026.23(h) applies only to transactions that are subject to rescission under § 1026.23(a)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 23(h)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage broker fees.</I> A consumer may rescind a loan in foreclosure if a mortgage broker fee that should have been included in the finance charge was omitted, without regard to the dollar amount involved. If the amount of the mortgage broker fee is included but misstated the rule in § 1026.23(h)(2) applies.
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<HD3>23(h)(2) Tolerance for Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The tolerance for disclosure of the finance charge is based on the accuracy of the total finance charge rather than its component charges. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), the tolerance for disclosure of the total of payments is based on the accuracy of the total of payments, taken as a whole, rather than its component charges.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> See comment 38(o)-1 for examples illustrating the interaction of the finance charge and total of payments accuracy requirements for each transaction subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.24—Advertising
</HD2>
<HD3>24(a) Actually Available Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> To the extent that an advertisement mentions specific credit terms, it may state only those terms that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not advertise a very low annual percentage rate that will not in fact be available at any time. This provision is not intended to inhibit the promotion of new credit programs, but to bar the advertising of terms that are not and will not be available. For example, a creditor may advertise terms that will be offered for only a limited period, or terms that will become available at a future date.
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<HD3>24(b) Clear and Conspicuous Standard
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—general.</I> This section is subject to the general “clear and conspicuous” standard for this subpart, <I>see</I> § 1026.17(a)(1), but prescribes no specific rules for the format of the necessary disclosures, other than the format requirements related to the advertisement of rates and payments as described in comment 24(b)-2 below. The credit terms need not be printed in a certain type size nor need they appear in any particular place in the advertisement. For example, a merchandise tag that is an advertisement under the regulation complies with this section if the necessary credit terms are on both sides of the tag, so long as each side is accessible.
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<P>2. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—rates and payments in advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of § 1026.24(f), a clear and conspicuous disclosure means that the required information in §§ 1026.24(f)(2)(i) and 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) is disclosed with equal prominence and in close proximity to the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, and that the required information in § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(C) is disclosed prominently and in close proximity to the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures. If the required information in §§ 1026.24(f)(2)(i) and 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) is the same type size as the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, the disclosures are deemed to be equally prominent. The information in § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(C) must be disclosed prominently, but need not be disclosed with equal prominence or be the same type size as the payments triggering the required disclosures. If the required information in §§ 1026.24(f)(2)(i) and 1026.24(f)(3)(i) is located immediately next to or directly above or below the advertised rates or payments triggering the required disclosures, without any intervening text or graphical displays, the disclosures are deemed to be in close proximity. Notwithstanding the above, for electronic advertisements that disclose rates or payments, compliance with the requirements of § 1026.24(e) is deemed to satisfy the clear and conspicuous standard.
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<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—Internet advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, a clear and conspicuous disclosure for visual text advertisements on the Internet for credit secured by a dwelling means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 1026.24. <I>See also</I> comment 24(e)-4.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—televised advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 1026.24(g), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of visual text advertisements on television for credit secured by a dwelling means that the required disclosures are not obscured by techniques such as graphical displays, shading, coloration, or other devices, are displayed in a manner that allows a consumer to read the information required to be disclosed, and comply with all other requirements for clear and conspicuous disclosures under § 1026.24. For example, very fine print in a television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot see and read the information required to be disclosed.
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<P>5. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard—oral advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling.</I> For purposes of this section, including alternative disclosures as provided for by § 1026.24(g), a clear and conspicuous disclosure in the context of an oral advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, whether by radio, television, or other medium, means that the required disclosures are given at a speed and volume sufficient for a consumer to hear and comprehend them. For example, information stated very rapidly at a low volume in a radio or television advertisement would not meet the clear and conspicuous standard if consumers cannot hear and comprehend the information required to be disclosed.
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<HD3>24(c) Advertisement of Rate of Finance Charge
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Advertised rates must be stated in terms of an <I>annual percentage rate,</I> as defined in § 1026.22. Even though state or local law permits the use of add-on, discount, time-price differential, or other methods of stating rates, advertisements must state them as annual percentage rates. Unlike the transactional disclosure of an annual percentage rate under § 1026.18(e), the advertised annual percentage rate need not include a descriptive explanation of the term and may be expressed using the abbreviation <I>APR.</I> The advertisement must state that the rate is subject to increase after consummation if that is the case, but the advertisement need not describe the rate increase, its limits, or how it would affect the payment schedule. As under § 1026.18(f), relating to disclosure of a variable rate, the rate increase disclosure requirement in this provision does not apply to any rate increase due to delinquency (including late payment), default, acceleration, assumption, or transfer of collateral.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Simple or periodic rates.</I> The advertisement may not simultaneously state any other rate, except that a simple annual rate or periodic rate applicable to an unpaid balance may appear along with (but not more conspicuously than) the annual percentage rate. An advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling may not state a periodic rate, other than a simple annual rate, that is applied to an unpaid balance. For example, in an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, a simple annual interest rate may be shown in the same type size as the annual percentage rate for the advertised credit, subject to the requirements of § 1026.24(f). A simple annual rate or periodic rate that is applied to an unpaid balance is the rate at which interest is accruing; those terms do not include a rate lower than the rate at which interest is accruing, such as an effective rate, payment rate, or qualifying rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Buydowns.</I> When a third party (such as a seller) or a creditor wishes to promote the availability of reduced interest rates (consumer or seller buydowns), the advertised annual percentage rate must be determined in accordance with the commentary to § 1026.17(c) regarding the basis of transactional disclosures for buydowns. The seller or creditor may advertise the reduced simple interest rate, provided the advertisement shows the limited term to which the reduced rate applies and states the simple interest rate applicable to the balance of the term. The advertisement may also show the effect of the buydown agreement on the payment schedule for the buydown period, but this will trigger the additional disclosures under § 1026.24(d)(2).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Discounted variable-rate transactions.</I> The advertised annual percentage rate for discounted variable-rate transactions must be determined in accordance with comment 17(c)(1)-10 regarding the basis of transactional disclosures for such financing.
</P>
<P>i. A creditor or seller may promote the availability of the initial rate reduction in such transactions by advertising the reduced simple annual rate, provided the advertisement shows with equal prominence and in close proximity the limited term to which the reduced rate applies and the annual percentage rate that will apply after the term of the initial rate reduction expires. <I>See</I> § 1026.24(f).
</P>
<P>ii. Limits or caps on periodic rate or payment adjustments need not be stated. To illustrate using the second example in comment 17(c)(1)-10, the fact that the rate is presumed to be 11 percent in the second year and 12 percent for the remaining 28 years need not be included in the advertisement.
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<P>iii. The advertisement may also show the effect of the discount on the payment schedule for the discount period, but this will trigger the additional disclosures under § 1026.24(d).
</P>
<HD3>24(d) Advertisement of Terms That Require Additional Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Under § 1026.24(d)(1), whenever certain triggering terms appear in credit advertisements, the additional credit terms enumerated in § 1026.24(d)(2) must also appear. These provisions apply even if the triggering term is not stated explicitly but may be readily determined from the advertisement. For example, an advertisement may state “80 percent financing available,” which is in fact indicating that a 20 percent downpayment is required.
</P>
<HD3>24(d)(1) Triggering Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Downpayment.</I> i. The dollar amount of a downpayment or a statement of the downpayment as a percentage of the price requires further information. By virtue of the definition of <I>downpayment</I> in § 1026.2, this triggering term is limited to credit sale transactions. It includes such statements as:
</P>
<P>A. Only 5% down.
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<P>B. As low as $100 down.
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<P>C. Total move-in costs of $800.
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<P>ii. This provision applies only if a downpayment is actually required; statements such as <I>no downpayment</I> or <I>no trade-in required</I> do not trigger the additional disclosures under this paragraph.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment period.</I> i. The number of payments required or the total period of repayment includes such statements as:
</P>
<P>A. 48-month payment terms.
</P>
<P>B. 30-year mortgage.
</P>
<P>C. Repayment in as many as 36 monthly installments.
</P>
<P>ii. But it does not include such statements as “pay weekly,” “monthly payment terms arranged,” or “take years to repay,” since these statements do not indicate a time period over which a loan may be financed.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment amount.</I> i. The dollar amount of any payment includes statements such as:
</P>
<P>A. “Payable in installments of $103.”
</P>
<P>B. “$25 weekly.”
</P>
<P>C. “$500,000 loan for just $1,650 per month.”
</P>
<P>D. “$1,200 balance payable in 10 equal installments.”
</P>
<P>ii. In the last example, the amount of each payment is readily determinable, even though not explicitly stated. But statements such as “monthly payments to suit your needs” or “regular <I>monthly</I> payments” are not deemed to be statements of the amount of any payment.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Finance charge.</I> i. The dollar amount of the finance charge or any portion of it includes statements such as:
</P>
<P>A. “$500 total cost of credit.”
</P>
<P>B. “$2 monthly carrying charge.”
</P>
<P>C. “$50,000 mortgages, 2 points to the borrower.”
</P>
<P>ii. In the last example, the $1,000 prepaid finance charge can be readily determined from the information given. Statements of the annual percentage rate or statements that there is no particular charge for credit (such as “no closing costs”) are not triggering terms under this paragraph.
</P>
<HD3>24(d)(2) Additional Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of downpayment.</I> The total downpayment as a dollar amount or percentage must be shown, but the word “downpayment” need not be used in making this disclosure. For example, “10% cash required from buyer” or “credit terms require minimum $100 trade-in” would suffice.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of repayment terms.</I> The phrase “terms of repayment” generally has the same meaning as the “payment schedule” required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(g), the interest rate and payment summary table required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.18(s), or the projected payments table required to be disclosed pursuant to §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c), as applicable. Section 1026.24(d)(2)(ii) provides flexibility to creditors in making this disclosure for advertising purposes. Repayment terms may be expressed in a variety of ways in addition to an exact repayment schedule; this is particularly true for advertisements that do not contemplate a single specific transaction. Repayment terms, however, must reflect the consumer's repayment obligations over the full term of the loan, including any balloon payment, <I>see</I> comment 24(d)(2)-3, not just the repayment terms that will apply for a limited period of time. For example:</P>
<P>i. A creditor may use a unit-cost approach in making the required disclosure, such as “48 monthly payments of $27.83 per $1,000 borrowed.”
</P>
<P>ii. In an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, when any series of payments varies because of the inclusion of mortgage insurance premiums, a creditor may state the number and timing of payments, the fact that payments do not include amounts for mortgage insurance premiums, and that the actual payment obligation will be higher.
</P>
<P>iii. In an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling, when one series of monthly payments will apply for a limited period of time followed by a series of higher monthly payments for the remaining term of the loan, the advertisement must state the number and time period of each series of payments, and the amounts of each of those payments. For this purpose, the creditor must assume that the consumer makes the lower series of payments for the maximum allowable period of time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balloon payment; disclosure of repayment terms.</I> In some transactions, a balloon payment will occur when the consumer only makes the minimum payments specified in an advertisement. A balloon payment results if paying the minimum payments does not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, usually the end of the term of the loan, and the consumer must repay the entire outstanding balance at such time. If a balloon payment will occur when the consumer only makes the minimum payments specified in an advertisement, the advertisement must state with equal prominence and in close proximity to the minimum payment statement the amount and timing of the balloon payment that will result if the consumer makes only the minimum payments for the maximum period of time that the consumer is permitted to make such payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> The advertised annual percentage rate may be expressed using the abbreviation “APR.” The advertisement must also state, if applicable, that the annual percentage rate is subject to increase after consummation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Use of examples.</I> A creditor may use illustrative credit transactions to make the necessary disclosures under § 1026.24(d)(2). That is, where a range of possible combinations of credit terms is offered, the advertisement may use examples of typical transactions, so long as each example contains all of the applicable terms required by § 1026.24(d). The examples must be labeled as such and must reflect representative credit terms made available by the creditor to present and prospective customers.
</P>
<HD3>24(e) Catalogs or Other Multiple-Page Advertisements; Electronic Advertisements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The multiple-page advertisements to which this section refers are advertisements consisting of a series of sequentially numbered pages—for example, a supplement to a newspaper. A mailing consisting of several separate flyers or pieces of promotional material in a single envelope does not constitute a single multiple-page advertisement for purposes of § 1026.24(e).
</P>
<P>2. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.24(e) permits creditors to put credit information together in one place in a catalog or other multiple-page advertisement or in an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site). The rule applies only if the advertisement contains one or more of the triggering terms from § 1026.24(d)(1). A list of different annual percentage rates applicable to different balances, for example, does not trigger further disclosures under § 1026.24(d)(2) and so is not covered by § 1026.24(e).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Representative examples.</I> The table or schedule must state all the necessary information for a representative sampling of amounts of credit. This must reflect amounts of credit the creditor actually offers, up to and including the higher-priced items. This does not mean that the chart must make the disclosures for the single most expensive item the seller offers, but only that the chart cannot be limited to information about less expensive sales when the seller commonly offers a distinct level of more expensive goods or services. The range of transactions shown in the table or schedule in a particular catalog or multiple-page advertisement need not exceed the range of transactions actually offered in that advertisement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Electronic advertisement.</I> If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) contains the table or schedule permitted under § 1026.24(e)(1), any statement of terms set forth in § 1026.24(d)(1) appearing anywhere else in the advertisement must clearly direct the consumer to the location where the table or schedule begins. For example, a term triggering additional disclosures may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<HD3>24(f) Disclosure of Rates and Payments in Advertisements for Credit Secured by a Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The requirements of § 1026.24(f)(2) apply to advertisements for loans where more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply. The requirements of § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A) require a clear and conspicuous disclosure of each payment that will apply over the term of the loan. In determining whether a payment will apply when the consumer may choose to make a series of lower monthly payments that will apply for a limited period of time, the creditor must assume that the consumer makes the series of lower payments for the maximum allowable period of time. <I>See</I> comment 24(d)(2)-2.iii. However, for purposes of § 1026.24(f), the creditor may, but need not, assume that specific events which trigger changes to the simple annual rate of interest or to the applicable payments will occur. For example:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate conversion loans.</I> If a loan program permits consumers to convert their variable-rate loans to fixed rate loans, the creditor need not assume that the fixed-rate conversion option, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 1026.24(f)(2) and need not disclose as a separate payment under § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A) the payment that would apply if the consumer exercised the fixed-rate conversion option.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Preferred-rate loans.</I> Some loans contain a preferred-rate provision, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the consumer-employee leaving the creditor's employ or the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor or the consumer revoking an election to make automated payments. A creditor need not assume that the preferred-rate provision, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 1026.24(f)(2) and the payments that would apply upon occurrence of the event that triggers the rate increase need not be disclosed as a separate payment under § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Rate reductions.</I> Some loans contain a provision where the rate will decrease upon the occurrence of some event, such as if the consumer makes a series of payments on time. A creditor need not assume that the rate reduction provision, by itself, means that more than one simple annual rate of interest will apply to the loan under § 1026.24(f)(2) and need not disclose the payments that would apply upon occurrence of the event that triggers the rate reduction as a separate payment under § 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Equal prominence, close proximity.</I> Information required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.24(f)(2)(i) and 1026.24(f)(3)(i) that is immediately next to or directly above or below the simple annual rate or payment amount (but not in a footnote) is deemed to be closely proximate to the listing. Information required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.24(f)(2)(i) and 1026.24(f)(3)(i)(A) and (B) that is in the same type size as the simple annual rate or payment amount is deemed to be equally prominent.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> For more information about the applicable clear and conspicuous standard, see comment 24(b)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Comparisons in advertisements.</I> When making any comparison in an advertisement between actual or hypothetical credit payments or rates and the payments or rates available under the advertised product, the advertisement must state all applicable payments or rates for the advertised product and the time periods for which those payments or rates will apply, as required by this section.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Application to variable-rate transactions—disclosure of rates.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate transactions, if a simple annual rate that applies at consummation is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent rate adjustments over the term of the loan, the requirements of § 1026.24(f)(2)(i) apply.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reasonably current index and margin.</I> For the purposes of this section, an index and margin is considered reasonably current if:
</P>
<P>i. For direct mail advertisements, it was in effect within 60 days before mailing;
</P>
<P>ii. For advertisements in electronic form it was in effect within 30 days before the advertisement is sent to a consumer's email address, or in the case of an advertisement made on an Internet Web site, when viewed by the public; or
</P>
<P>iii. For printed advertisements made available to the general public, including ones contained in a catalog, magazine, or other generally available publication, it was in effect within 30 days before printing.
</P>
<HD3>24(f)(3) Disclosure of Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amounts and time periods of payments.</I> Section 1026.24(f)(3)(i) requires disclosure of the amounts and time periods of all payments that will apply over the term of the loan. This section may require disclosure of several payment amounts, including any balloon payment. For example, if an advertisement for credit secured by a dwelling offers $300,000 of credit with a 30-year loan term for a payment of $600 per month for the first six months, increasing to $1,500 per month after month six, followed by a balloon payment of $30,000 at the end of the loan term, the advertisement must disclose the amount and time periods of each of the two monthly payment streams, as well as the amount and timing of the balloon payment, with equal prominence and in close proximity to each other. However, if the final scheduled payment of a fully amortizing loan is not greater than two times the amount of any other regularly scheduled payment, the final payment need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to variable-rate transactions—disclosure of payments.</I> In advertisements for variable-rate transactions, if the payment that applies at consummation is not based on the index and margin that will be used to make subsequent payment adjustments over the term of the loan, the requirements of § 1026.24(f)(3)(i) apply.
</P>
<HD3>24(g) Alternative Disclosures—Television or Radio Advertisements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multi-purpose telephone number.</I> When an advertised telephone number provides a recording, disclosures should be provided early in the sequence to ensure that the consumer receives the required disclosures. For example, in providing several options—such as providing directions to the advertiser's place of business—the option allowing the consumer to request disclosures should be provided early in the telephone message to ensure that the option to request disclosures is not obscured by other information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement accompanying telephone number.</I> Language must accompany a telephone number indicating that disclosures are available by calling the telephone number, such as “call 1-(800) 000-0000 for details about credit costs and terms.”
</P>
<HD3>24(i) Prohibited Acts or Practices in Advertisements for Credit Secured by a Dwelling
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Comparisons in advertisements.</I> The requirements of § 1026.24(i)(2) apply to all advertisements for credit secured by a dwelling, including radio and television advertisements. A comparison includes a claim about the amount a consumer may save under the advertised product. For example, a statement such as “save $300 per month on a $300,000 loan” constitutes an implied comparison between the advertised product's payment and a consumer's current payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Misrepresentations about government endorsement.</I> A statement that the Federal Community Reinvestment Act entitles the consumer to refinance his or her mortgage at the low rate offered in the advertisement is prohibited because it conveys a misleading impression that the advertised product is endorsed or sponsored by the Federal government.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Misleading claims of debt elimination.</I> The prohibition against misleading claims of debt elimination or waiver or forgiveness does not apply to legitimate statements that the advertised product may reduce debt payments, consolidate debts, or shorten the term of the debt. Examples of misleading claims of debt elimination or waiver or forgiveness of loan terms with, or obligations to, another creditor of debt include: “Wipe-Out Personal Debts!”, “New DEBT-FREE Payment”, “Set yourself free; get out of debt today”, “Refinance today and wipe your debt clean!”, “Get yourself out of debt * * * Forever!”, and “Pre-payment Penalty Waiver.”
</P>
<HD1>Subpart D—Miscellaneous
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.25—Record Retention
</HD2>
<HD3>25(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of required actions.</I> The creditor must retain evidence that it performed the required actions as well as made the required disclosures. This includes, for example, evidence that the creditor properly handled adverse credit reports in connection with amounts subject to a billing dispute under § 1026.13, and properly handled the refunding of credit balances under §§ 1026.11 and 1026.21.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methods of retaining evidence.</I> Adequate evidence of compliance does not necessarily mean actual paper copies of disclosure statements or other business records. The evidence may be retained by any method that reproduces records accurately (including computer programs). Unless otherwise required, the creditor need retain only enough information to reconstruct the required disclosures or other records. Thus, for example, the creditor need not retain each open-end periodic statement, so long as the specific information on each statement can be retrieved.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Certain variable-rate transactions.</I> In variable-rate transactions that are subject to the disclosure requirements of § 1026.19(b), written procedures for compliance with those requirements as well as a sample disclosure form for each loan program represent adequate evidence of compliance. (See comment 25(a)-2 pertaining to permissible methods of retaining the required disclosures.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Home equity plans.</I> In home equity plans that are subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, written procedures for compliance with those requirements as well as a sample disclosure form and contract for each home equity program represent adequate evidence of compliance. (See comment 25(a)-2 pertaining to permissible methods of retaining the required disclosures.)
</P>
<P><I>25(c) Records Related to Certain Requirements for Mortgage Loans.</I>


</P>
<HD3>25(c)(1) Records related to requirements for loans secured by real property or a cooperative unit.</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of required actions.</I> The creditor must retain evidence that it performed the required actions as well as made the required disclosures. This includes, for example, evidence that the creditor properly differentiated between affiliated and independent third party settlement service providers for determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3); evidence that the creditor properly documented the reason for revisions under § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv); or evidence that the creditor properly calculated average cost under § 1026.19(f)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage brokers.</I> See § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii)(B) for the responsibilities of mortgage brokers to comply with the requirements of § 1026.25(c).


</P>
<HD3>25(c)(2) Records Related to Requirements for Loan Originator Compensation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of records of loan originator compensation.</I> Section 1026.25(c)(2)(i) requires a creditor to maintain records sufficient to evidence all compensation it pays to a loan originator, as well as the compensation agreements that govern those payments, for three years after the date of the payments. Section 1026.25(c)(2)(ii) requires that a loan originator organization maintain records sufficient to evidence all compensation it receives from a creditor, a consumer, or another person and all compensation it pays to any individual loan originators, as well as the compensation agreements that govern those payments or receipts, for three years after the date of the receipts or payments.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Records sufficient to evidence payment and receipt of compensation.</I> Records are sufficient to evidence payment and receipt of compensation if they demonstrate the following facts: The nature and amount of the compensation; that the compensation was paid, and by whom; that the compensation was received, and by whom; and when the payment and receipt of compensation occurred. The compensation agreements themselves are to be retained in all circumstances consistent with § 1026.25(c)(2)(i). The additional records that are sufficient necessarily will vary on a case-by-case basis depending on the facts and circumstances, particularly with regard to the nature of the compensation. For example, if the compensation is in the form of a salary, records to be retained might include copies of required filings under the Internal Revenue Code that demonstrate the amount of the salary. If the compensation is in the form of a contribution to or a benefit under a designated tax-advantaged plan, records to be maintained might include copies of required filings under the Internal Revenue Code or other applicable Federal law relating to the plan, copies of the plan and amendments thereto in which individual loan originators participate and the names of any loan originators covered by the plan, or determination letters from the Internal Revenue Service regarding the plan. If the compensation is in the nature of a commission or bonus, records to be retained might include a settlement agent “flow of funds” worksheet or other written record or a creditor closing instructions letter directing disbursement of fees at consummation. Where a loan originator is a mortgage broker, a disclosure of compensation or broker agreement required by applicable State law that recites the broker's total compensation for a transaction is a record of the amount actually paid to the loan originator in connection with the transaction, unless actual compensation deviates from the amount in the disclosure or agreement. Where compensation has been decreased to defray the cost, in whole or part, of an unforeseen increase in an actual settlement cost over an estimated settlement cost disclosed to the consumer pursuant to section 5(c) of RESPA (or omitted from that disclosure), records to be maintained are those documenting the decrease in compensation and reasons for it.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Compensation agreement.</I> For purposes of § 1026.25(c)(2), a compensation agreement includes any agreement, whether oral, written, or based on a course of conduct that establishes a compensation arrangement between the parties (e.g., a brokerage agreement between a creditor and a mortgage broker or provisions of employment contracts between a creditor and an individual loan originator employee addressing payment of compensation). Where a compensation agreement is oral or based on a course of conduct and cannot itself be maintained, the records to be maintained are those, if any, evidencing the existence or terms of the oral or course of conduct compensation agreement. Creditors and loan originators are free to specify what transactions are governed by a particular compensation agreement as they see fit. For example, they may provide, by the terms of the agreement, that the agreement governs compensation payable on transactions consummated on or after some future effective date (in which case, a prior agreement governs transactions consummated in the meantime). For purposes of applying the record retention requirement to transaction-specific commissions, the relevant compensation agreement for a given transaction is the agreement pursuant to which compensation for that transaction is determined.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Three-year retention period.</I> The requirements in § 1026.25(c)(2)(i) and (ii) that the records be retained for three years after the date of receipt or payment, as applicable, means that the records are retained for three years after each receipt or payment, as applicable, even if multiple compensation payments relate to a single transaction. For example, if a loan originator organization pays an individual loan originator a commission consisting of two separate payments of $1,000 each on June 5 and July 7, 2014, then the loan originator organization is required to retain records sufficient to evidence the two payments through June 4, 2017, and July 6, 2017, respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> An example of the application of § 1026.25(c)(2) to a loan originator organization is as follows: Assume a loan originator organization originates only transactions that are not subject to § 1026.36(d)(2), thus all of its origination compensation is paid exclusively by creditors that fund its originations. Further assume that the loan originator organization pays its individual loan originator employees commissions and annual bonuses. The loan originator organization must retain a copy of the agreement with any creditor that pays the loan originator organization compensation for originating consumer credit transactions subject to § 1026.36 and documentation evidencing the specific payment it receives from the creditor for each transaction originated. In addition, the loan originator organization must retain copies of the agreements with its individual loan originator employees governing their commissions and their annual bonuses and records of any specific commissions and bonuses paid.
</P>
<P><I>25(c)(3) Records related to minimum standards for transactions secured by a dwelling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of compliance with repayment ability provisions.</I> A creditor must retain evidence of compliance with § 1026.43 for three years after the date of consummation of a consumer credit transaction covered by that section. (See comment 25(c)(3)-2 for guidance on the retention of evidence of compliance with the requirement to offer a consumer a loan without a prepayment penalty under § 1026.43(g)(3).) If a creditor must verify and document information used in underwriting a transaction subject to § 1026.43, the creditor shall retain evidence sufficient to demonstrate compliance with the documentation requirements of the rule. Although a creditor need not retain actual paper copies of the documentation used in underwriting a transaction subject to § 1026.43, to comply with § 1026.25(c)(3), the creditor must be able to reproduce such records accurately. For example, if the creditor uses a consumer's Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form W-2 to verify the consumer's income, the creditor must be able to reproduce the IRS Form W-2 itself, and not merely the income information that was contained in the form.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Dwelling-secured transactions and prepayment penalties.</I> If a transaction covered by § 1026.43 has a prepayment penalty, the creditor must maintain records that document that the creditor complied with requirements for offering the consumer an alternative transaction that does not include a prepayment penalty under § 1026.43(g)(3), (4), or (5). However, the creditor need not maintain records that document compliance with those provisions if a transaction is consummated without a prepayment penalty or if the creditor and consumer do not consummate a covered transaction. If a creditor offers a transaction with a prepayment penalty to a consumer through a mortgage broker, to evidence compliance with § 1026.43(g)(4) the creditor should retain evidence of the alternative covered transaction presented to the mortgage broker, such as a rate sheet, and the agreement with the mortgage broker required by § 1026.43(g)(4)(ii).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.26—Use of Annual Percentage Rate in Oral Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Application of rules.</I> The restrictions of § 1026.26 apply only if the creditor chooses to respond orally to the consumer's request for credit cost information. Nothing in the regulation requires the creditor to supply rate information orally. If the creditor volunteers information (including rate information) through oral solicitations directed generally to prospective customers, as through a telephone solicitation, those communications may be advertisements subject to the rules in §§ 1026.16 and 1026.24.
</P>
<HD3>26(a) Open-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information that may be given.</I> The creditor may state periodic rates in addition to the required annual percentage rate, but it need not do so. If the annual percentage rate is unknown because transaction charges, loan fees, or similar finance charges may be imposed, the creditor must give the corresponding annual percentage rate (that is, the periodic rate multiplied by the number of periods in a year, as described in §§ 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) and (b)(4)(i)(A) and 1026.7(a)(4) and (b)(4)). In such cases, the creditor may, but need not, also give the consumer information about other finance charges and other charges.
</P>
<HD3>26(b) Closed-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Information that may be given.</I> The creditor may state other annual or periodic rates that are applied to an unpaid balance, along with the required annual percentage rate. This rule permits disclosure of a simple interest rate, for example, but not an add-on, discount, or similar rate. If the creditor cannot give a precise annual percentage rate in its oral response because of variables in the transaction, it must give the annual percentage rate for a comparable sample transaction; in this case, other cost information may, but need not, be given. For example, the creditor may be unable to state a precise annual percentage rate for a mortgage loan without knowing the exact amount to be financed, the amount of loan fees or mortgage insurance premiums, or similar factors. In this situation, the creditor should state an annual percentage rate for a sample transaction; it may also provide information about the consumer's specific case, such as the contract interest rate, points, other finance charges, and other charges.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.27—Language of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent disclosures.</I> If a creditor provides account-opening disclosures in a language other than English, subsequent disclosures need not be in that other language. For example, if the creditor gave Spanish-language account-opening disclosures, periodic statements and change-in-terms notices may be made in English.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.28—Effect on State Laws
</HD2>
<HD3>28(a) Inconsistent Disclosure Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> There are three sets of preemption criteria: One applies to the general disclosure and advertising rules of the regulation, and two apply to the credit billing provisions. Section 1026.28 also provides for Bureau determinations of preemption. For purposes of determining whether a State law is inconsistent with the requirements of sections 4 and 5 of RESPA (other than the RESPA section 5(c) requirements regarding provision of a list of certified homeownership counselors) and §§ 1026.19(e) and (f), 1026.37, and 1026.38 under § 1026.28, any reference to “creditor” in § 1026.28 or this commentary includes a creditor, a mortgage broker, or a settlement agent, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rules for chapters 1, 2, and 3.</I> The standard for judging whether state laws that cover the types of requirements in chapters 1 (General provisions), 2 (Credit transactions), and 3 (Credit advertising) of the Act are inconsistent and therefore preempted, is contradiction of the Federal law. Examples of laws that would be preempted include:
</P>
<P>i. A state law that requires use of the term <I>finance charge,</I> but defines the term to include fees that the Federal law excludes, or to exclude fees the Federal law includes.
</P>
<P>ii. A state law that requires a label such as <I>nominal annual interest rate</I> to be used for what the Federal law calls the <I>annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>3. <I>Laws not contradictory to chapters 1, 2, and 3.</I> i. Generally, state law requirements that call for the disclosure of items of information not covered by the Federal law, or that require more detailed disclosures, do not contradict the Federal requirements. Examples of laws that are not preempted include:
</P>
<P>A. A state law that requires disclosure of the minimum periodic payment for open-end credit, even though not required by § 1026.7.
</P>
<P>B. A state law that requires contracts to contain warnings such as: “Read this contract before you sign. Do not sign if any spaces are left blank. You are entitled to a copy of this contract.”
</P>
<P>ii. Similarly, a state law that requires itemization of the amount financed does not automatically contradict the permissive itemization under § 1026.18(c). However, a state law requirement that the itemization appear with the disclosure of the amount financed in the segregated closed-end credit disclosures is inconsistent, and this location requirement would be preempted.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor's options.</I> Before the Bureau makes a determination about a specific state law, the creditor has certain options.
</P>
<P>i. Since the prohibition against giving the state disclosures does not apply until the Bureau makes its determination, the creditor may choose to give state disclosures until the Bureau formally determines that the state law is inconsistent. (The Bureau will provide sufficient time for creditors to revise forms and procedures as necessary to conform to its determinations.) Under this first approach, as in all cases, the Federal disclosures must be clear and conspicuous, and the closed-end disclosures must be properly segregated in accordance with § 1026.17(a)(1). This ability to give state disclosures relieves any uncertainty that the creditor might have prior to Bureau determinations of inconsistency.
</P>
<P>ii. As a second option, the creditor may apply the preemption standards to a state law, conclude that it is inconsistent, and choose not to give the state-required disclosures. However, nothing in § 1026.28(a) provides the creditor with immunity for violations of state law if the creditor chooses <I>not</I> to make state disclosures and the Bureau later determines that the state law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rules for correction of billing errors and regulation of credit reports.</I> The preemption criteria for the fair credit billing provisions set forth in § 1026.28 have two parts. With respect to the rules on correction of billing errors and regulation of credit reports (which are in § 1026.13), § 1026.28(a)(2)(i) provides that a state law is inconsistent and preempted if its requirements are different from the Federal law. An exception is made, however, for state laws that allow the consumer to inquire about an account and require the creditor to respond to such inquiries beyond the time limits in the Federal law. Such a state law is not preempted with respect to the extra time period. For example, § 1026.13 requires the consumer to submit a written notice of billing error within 60 days after transmittal of the periodic statement showing the alleged error. If a state law allows the consumer 90 days to submit a notice, the state law remains in effect to provide the extra 30 days. Any state law disclosures concerning this extended state time limit must reflect the qualifications and conform to the format specified in § 1026.28(a)(2)(i). Examples of laws that would be preempted include:
</P>
<P>i. A state law that has a narrower or broader definition of <I>billing error.</I>
</P>
<P>ii. A state law that requires the creditor to take different steps to resolve errors.
</P>
<P>iii. A state law that provides different timing rules for error resolution (subject to the exception discussed above).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Rules for other fair credit billing provisions.</I> The second part of the criteria for fair credit billing relates to the other rules implementing chapter 4 of the Act (addressed in §§ 1026.4(c)(8), 1026.5(b)(2)(ii), 1026.6(a)(5) and (b)(5)(iii), 1026.7(a)(9) and (b)(9), 1026.9(a), 1026.10, 1026.11, 1026.12(c) through (f), 1026.13, and 1026.21). Section 1026.28(a)(2)(ii) provides that the test of inconsistency is whether the creditor can comply with state law without violating Federal law. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A state law that allows the card issuer to offset the consumer's credit-card indebtedness against funds held by the card issuer would be preempted, since § 1026.12(d) prohibits such action.
</P>
<P>ii. A state law that requires periodic statements to be sent more than 14 days before the end of a free-ride period would not be preempted.
</P>
<P>iii. A state law that permits consumers to assert claims and defenses against the card issuer without regard to the $50 and 100-mile limitations of § 1026.12(c)(3)(ii) would not be preempted.
</P>
<P>iv. In paragraphs ii. and iii. of this comment, compliance with state law would involve no violation of the Federal law.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Who may receive a chapter 4 determination.</I> Only states (through their authorized officials) may request and receive determinations on inconsistency with respect to the fair credit billing provisions.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Preemption determination—Arizona.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1983, the Board of Governors determined that the following provisions in the state law of Arizona are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Section 44-287 B.5—Disclosure of final cash price balance. This provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the final cash price balance is the same as the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 44-287 B.6—Disclosure of finance charge. This provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the finance charge is different from the amount of the Federal finance charge, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount.
</P>
<P>iii. Section 44-287 B.7—Disclosure of the time balance. The time balance disclosure provision is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Preemption determination—Florida.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1983, the Board of Governors determined that the following provisions in the state law of Florida are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Sections 520.07(2)(f) and 520.34(2)(f)—Disclosure of amount financed. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is different from the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount.
</P>
<P>ii. Sections 520.07(2)(g), 520.34(2)(g), and 520.35(2)(d)—Disclosure of finance charge and a description of its components. The finance charge disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the finance charge is different from the Federal amount, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount. The requirement to describe or itemize the components of the finance charge, which is also included in these provisions, is not preempted.
</P>
<P>iii. Sections 520.07(2)(h) and 520.34(2)(h)—Disclosure of total of payments. The total of payments disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount differs from the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount than the Federal law.
</P>
<P>iv. Sections 520.07(2)(i) and 520.34(2)(i)—Disclosure of deferred payment price. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal total sale price, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a different term than the Federal law to represent the same amount as the Federal law.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Preemption determination—Missouri.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1983, the Board of Governors determined that the following provisions in the state law of Missouri are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Sections 365.070-6(9) and 408.260-5(6)—Disclosure of principal balance. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount of the principal balance is the same as the Federal amount financed, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a term different from the Federal term to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>ii. Sections 365.070-6(10) and 408.260-5(7)—Disclosure of time price differential and time charge, respectively. These disclosures are preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal finance charge, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a term different from the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>iii. Sections 365.070-2 and 408.260-2—Use of the terms <I>time price differential</I> and <I>time charge</I> in certain notices to the buyer. In those transactions in which the state disclosure of the time price differential or time charge is preempted, the use of the terms in this notice also is preempted. The notice itself is not preempted.
</P>
<P>iv. Sections 365.070-6(11) and 408.260-5(8)—Disclosure of time balance. The time balance disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the amount of the Federal total of payments, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a different term than the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>v. Sections 365.070-6(12) and 408.260-5(9)—Disclosure of time sale price. This disclosure is preempted in those transactions in which the amount is the same as the Federal total sale price, since in such transactions the state law requires the use of a different term from the Federal law to represent the same amount.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Preemption determination—Mississippi.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1984, the Board of Governors determined that the following provision in the state law of Mississippi is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Section 63-19-31(2)(g)—Disclosure of finance charge. This disclosure is preempted in those cases in which the term <I>finance charge</I> would be used under state law to describe a different amount than the finance charge disclosed under Federal law.
</P>
<P>12. <I>Preemption determination—South Carolina.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1984, the Board of Governors determined that the following provision in the state law of South Carolina is preempted by the Federal law.
</P>
<P>i. Section 37-10-102(c)—Disclosure of due-on-sale clause. This provision is preempted, but only to the extent that the creditor is required to include the disclosure with the segregated Federal disclosures. If the creditor may comply with the state law by placing the due-on-sale notice apart from the Federal disclosures, the state law is not preempted.
</P>
<P>13. <I>Preemption determination—Arizona.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination.
</P>
<P>i. Effective October 1, 1986, the Board of Governors determined that the following provision in the state law of Arizona is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>A. Section 6-621A.2—Use of the term <I>the total sum of</I> $________ in certain notices provided to borrowers. This term describes the same item that is disclosed under Federal law as the <I>total of payments.</I> Since the state law requires the use of a different term than Federal law to describe the same item, the state-required term is preempted. The notice itself is not preempted.
</P>
<P>ii. Note: The state disclosure notice that incorporated the above preempted term was amended on May 4, 1987, to provide that disclosures must now be made pursuant to the Federal disclosure provisions.
</P>
<P>14. <I>Preemption determination—Indiana.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1988, the Board of Governors determined that the following provision in the state law of Indiana is preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Section 23-2-5-8—Inclusion of the loan broker's fees and charges in the calculation of, among other items, the finance charge and annual percentage rate disclosed to potential borrowers. This disclosure is inconsistent with section 106(a) and § 1026.4(a) of the Federal statute and regulation, respectively, and is preempted in those instances where the use of the same term would disclose a different amount than that required to be disclosed under Federal law.
</P>
<P>15. <I>Preemption determination—Wisconsin.</I> The Bureau recognizes state law preemption determinations made by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1991, the Board of Governors determined that the following provisions in the state law of Wisconsin are preempted by the Federal law:
</P>
<P>i. Section 422.308(1)—the disclosure of the annual percentage rate in cases where the amount of the annual percentage rate disclosed to consumers under the state law differs from the amount that would be disclosed under Federal law, since in those cases the state law requires the use of the same term as the Federal law to represent a different amount than the Federal law.
</P>
<P>ii. Section 766.565(5)—the provision permitting a creditor to include in an open-end home equity agreement authorization to declare the account balance due and payable upon receiving notice of termination from a non-obligor spouse, since such provision is inconsistent with the purpose of the Federal law.
</P>
<HD3>28(b) Equivalent Disclosure Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A state disclosure may be substituted for a Federal disclosure only <I>after</I> the Bureau has made a finding of substantial similarity. Thus, the creditor may not unilaterally choose to make a state disclosure in place of a Federal disclosure, even if it believes that the state disclosure is substantially similar. Since the rule stated in § 1026.28(b) does not extend to any requirement relating to the finance charge or annual percentage rate, no state provision on computation, description, or disclosure of these terms may be substituted for the Federal provision.
</P>
<HD3>28(d) Special Rule for Credit and Charge Cards
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The standard that applies to preemption of state laws as they affect transactions of the type subject to §§ 1026.60 and 1026.9(e) differs from the preemption standards generally applicable under the Truth in Lending Act. The Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act fully preempts state laws relating to the disclosure of credit information in consumer credit or charge card applications or solicitations. (For purposes of this section, a single credit or charge card application or solicitation that may be used to open either an account for consumer purposes or an account for business purposes is deemed to be a “consumer credit or charge card application or solicitation.”) For example, a state law requiring disclosure of credit terms in direct mail solicitations for consumer credit card accounts is preempted. A state law requiring disclosures in telephone applications for consumer credit card accounts also is preempted, even if it applies to applications initiated by the consumer rather than the issuer, because the state law relates to the disclosure of credit information in applications or solicitations within the general field of preemption, that is, consumer credit and charge cards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Limitations on field of preemption.</I> Preemption under the Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act does not extend to state laws applying to types of credit other than open-end consumer credit and charge card accounts. Thus, for example, a state law is not preempted as it applies to disclosures in credit and charge card applications and solicitations solely for business-purpose accounts. On the other hand, state credit disclosure laws will not apply to a single application or solicitation to open either an account for consumer purposes or an account for business purposes. Such “dual purpose” applications and solicitations are treated as “consumer credit or charge card applications or solicitations” under this section and state credit disclosure laws applicable to them are preempted. Preemption under this statute does not extend to state laws applicable to home equity plans; preemption determinations in this area are based on the Home Equity Loan Consumer Protection Act, as implemented in § 1026.40 of the regulation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Laws not preempted.</I> State laws relating to disclosures concerning credit and charge cards other than in applications, solicitations, or renewal notices are not preempted under § 1026.28(d). In addition, state laws regulating the terms of credit and charge card accounts are not preempted, nor are laws preempted that regulate the form or content of information unrelated to the information required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.60 and 1026.9(e). Finally, state laws concerning the enforcement of the requirements of §§ 1026.60 and 1026.9(e) and state laws prohibiting unfair or deceptive acts or practices concerning credit and charge card applications, solicitations and renewals are not preempted. Examples of laws that are not preempted include:
</P>
<P>i. A state law that requires card issuers to offer a grace period or that prohibits certain fees in credit and charge card transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. A state retail installment sales law or a state plain language law, except to the extent that it regulates the disclosure of credit information in applications, solicitations and renewals of accounts of the type subject to §§ 1026.60 and 1026.9(e).
</P>
<P>iii. A state law requiring notice of a consumer's rights under antidiscrimination or similar laws or a state law requiring notice about credit information available from state authorities.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.29—State Exemptions
</HD2>
<HD3>29(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Classes eligible.</I> The state determines the classes of transactions for which it will request an exemption, and makes its application for those classes. Classes might be, for example, all open-end credit transactions, all open-end and closed-end transactions, or all transactions in which the creditor is a bank.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantial similarity.</I> The “substantially similar” standard requires that State statutory or regulatory provisions and State interpretations of those provisions be generally the same as the Federal Act and Regulation Z. This includes the requirement that State provisions for reimbursement to consumers for overcharges be at least equivalent to those required in section 108 of the Act. A State will be eligible for an exemption even if its law covers classes of transactions not covered by the Federal law. For example, if a State's law covers agricultural credit, this will not prevent the Bureau from granting an exemption for consumer credit, even though agricultural credit is not covered by the Federal law. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), § 1026.29(a)(1) requires that the State statutory or regulatory provisions and State interpretations of those provisions require disclosures that are generally the same as the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e) and (f), with form and content as prescribed by §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Adequate enforcement.</I> The standard requiring adequate provision for enforcement generally means that appropriate state officials must be authorized to enforce the state law through procedures and sanctions comparable to those available to Federal enforcement agencies. Furthermore, state law must make adequate provision for enforcement of the reimbursement rules.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Exemptions granted.</I> i. The Bureau recognizes exemptions granted by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System prior to July 21, 2011, until and unless the Bureau makes and publishes any contrary determination. Effective October 1, 1982, the Board of Governors granted the following exemptions from portions of the revised Truth in Lending Act:
</P>
<P>A. <I>Maine.</I> Credit or lease transactions subject to the Maine Consumer Credit Code and its implementing regulations are exempt from chapters 2, 4 and 5 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a Federally chartered institution is a creditor or lessor.)
</P>
<P>B. <I>Connecticut.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Connecticut Truth in Lending Act are exempt from chapters 2 and 4 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a Federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P>C. <I>Massachusetts.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Massachusetts Truth in Lending Act are exempt from chapters 2 and 4 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a Federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P>D. <I>Oklahoma.</I> Credit or lease transactions subject to the Oklahoma Consumer Credit Code are exempt from chapters 2 and 5 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to sections 132 through 135 of the Federal Act, nor does it apply to transactions in which a Federally chartered institution is a creditor or lessor.)
</P>
<P>E. <I>Wyoming.</I> Credit transactions subject to the Wyoming Consumer Credit Code are exempt from chapter 2 of the Federal Act. (The exemption does not apply to transactions in which a Federally chartered institution is a creditor.)
</P>
<P>ii. Although RESPA and its implementing Regulation X do not provide procedures for granting State exemptions, for transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) and (f), compliance with the requirements of §§ 1026.19(e) and (f), 1026.37, and 1026.38 satisfies the requirements of sections 4 and 5 of RESPA (other than the RESPA section 5(c) requirements regarding provision of a list of certified homeownership counselors). If such a transaction is subject to one of the State exemptions previously granted by the Board of Governors and noted in comment 29(a)-4.i above, however, then compliance with the requirements of any State laws and regulations incorporating the requirements of §§ 1026.19(e) and (f), 1026.37, and 1026.38 likewise satisfies the requirements of sections 4 and 5 of RESPA (other than the RESPA section 5(c) requirements regarding provision of a list of certified homeownership counselors) and the provisions of Regulation X (12 CFR part 1024) implementing those sections of RESPA.


</P>
<HD3>29(b) Civil Liability
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Not eligible for exemption.</I> The provision that an exemption may not extend to sections 130 and 131 of the Act assures that consumers retain access to both Federal and state courts in seeking damages or civil penalties for violations, while creditors retain the defenses specified in those sections.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.30—Limitation on Rates
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scope of coverage.</I> i. The requirement of this section applies to consumer credit obligations secured by a dwelling (as dwelling is defined in § 1026.2(a)(19)) in which the annual percentage rate may increase after consummation (or during the term of the plan, in the case of open-end credit) as a result of an increase in the interest rate component of the finance charge—whether those increases are tied to an index or formula or are within a creditor's discretion. The section applies to credit sales as well as loans. Examples of credit obligations subject to this section include:
</P>
<P>A. Dwelling-secured credit obligations that require variable-rate disclosures under the regulation because the interest rate may increase during the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>B. Dwelling-secured open-end credit plans entered into before November 7, 1989 (the effective date of the home equity rules) that are not considered variable-rate obligations for purposes of disclosure under the regulation but where the creditor reserves the contractual right to increase the interest rate—periodic rate and corresponding annual percentage rate—during the term of the plan.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, credit obligations in which there is no contractual right to increase the interest rate during the term of the obligation are not subject to this section. Examples include:
</P>
<P>A. “Shared-equity” or “shared-appreciation” mortgage loans that have a fixed rate of interest and a shared-appreciation feature based on the consumer's equity in the mortgaged property. (The appreciation share is payable in a lump sum at a specified time.)
</P>
<P>B. Dwelling-secured fixed-rate closed-end balloon-payment mortgage loans and dwelling-secured fixed-rate open-end plans with a stated term that the creditor may renew at maturity. (Contrast with the renewable balloon-payment mortgage instrument described in comment 17(c)(1)-11.)
</P>
<P>C. Dwelling-secured fixed-rate closed-end multiple advance transactions in which each advance is disclosed as a separate transaction.
</P>
<P>D. “Price level adjusted mortgages” or other indexed mortgages that have a fixed rate of interest but provide for periodic adjustments to payments and the loan balance to reflect changes in an index measuring prices or inflation.
</P>
<P>iii. The requirement of this section does not apply to credit obligations entered into prior to December 9, 1987. Consequently, new advances under open-end credit plans existing prior to December 9, 1987, are not subject to this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Refinanced obligations.</I> On or after December 9, 1987, when a credit obligation is refinanced, as defined in § 1026.20(a), the new obligation is subject to this section if it is dwelling-secured and allows for increases in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assumptions.</I> On or after December 9, 1987, when a credit obligation is assumed, as defined in § 1026.20(b), the obligation becomes subject to this section if it is dwelling-secured and allows for increases in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Modifications of obligations.</I> The modification of an obligation, regardless of when the obligation was entered into, is generally not covered by this section. For example, increasing the credit limit on a dwelling-secured, open-end plan with a variable interest rate entered into before the effective date of the rule does not make the obligation subject to this section. If, however, a security interest in a dwelling is added on or after December 9, 1987, to a credit obligation that allows for interest rate increases, the obligation becomes subject to this section. Similarly, if a variable interest rate feature is added to a dwelling-secured credit obligation, the obligation becomes subject to this section.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Land trusts.</I> In some states, a land trust is used in residential real estate transactions. (See discussion in comment 3(a)-8.) If a consumer-purpose loan that allows for interest rate increases is secured by an assignment of a beneficial interest in a land trust that holds title to a consumer's dwelling, that loan is subject to this section.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relationship to other sections.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in the commentary to this section, other provisions of the regulation such as definitions, exemptions, rules and interpretations also apply to this section where appropriate. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. An adjustable interest rate business-purpose loan is not subject to this section even if the loan is secured by a dwelling because such credit extensions are not subject to the regulation. (See generally § 1026.3(a).)
</P>
<P>ii. Creditors subject to this section are only those that fall within the definition of a creditor in § 1026.2(a)(17).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Consumer credit contract.</I> Creditors are required to specify a lifetime maximum interest rate in their credit contracts—the instrument that creates personal liability and generally contains the terms and conditions of the agreement (for example, a promissory note or home-equity line of credit agreement). In some states, the signing of a commitment letter may create a binding obligation, for example, constituting <I>consummation</I> as defined in § 1026.2(a)(13). The maximum interest rate must be included in the credit contract, but a creditor may include the rate ceiling in the commitment instrument as well.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Manner of stating the maximum interest rate.</I> The maximum interest rate must be stated in the credit contract either as a specific amount or in any other manner that would allow the consumer to easily ascertain, at the time of entering into the obligation, what the rate ceiling will be over the term of the obligation.
</P>
<P>i. For example, the following statements would be sufficiently specific:
</P>
<P>A. The maximum interest rate will not exceed X%.
</P>
<P>B. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points above the initial rate of Y%.
</P>
<P>C. The interest rate will not exceed X%, or X percentage points above [a rate to be determined at some future point in time], whichever is less.
</P>
<P>D. The maximum interest rate will not exceed X%, or the state usury ceiling, whichever is less.
</P>
<P>ii. The following statements would not comply with this section:
</P>
<P>A. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points over the prevailing market rate.
</P>
<P>B. The interest rate will never be higher than X percentage points above [a rate to be determined at some future point in time].
</P>
<P>C. The interest rate will not exceed the state usury ceiling which is currently X%.
</P>
<P>iii. A creditor may state the maximum rate in terms of a maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed. Under an open-end credit plan, this normally would be the corresponding annual percentage rate. (<I>See generally</I> § 1026.6(a)(1)(ii) and (b)(4)(i)(A).)
</P>
<P>9. <I>Multiple interest rate ceilings.</I> Creditors are not prohibited from setting multiple interest rate ceilings. For example, on loans with multiple variable-rate features, creditors may establish a maximum interest rate for each feature. To illustrate, in a variable-rate loan that has an option to convert to a fixed rate, a creditor may set one maximum interest rate for the initially imposed index-based variable-rate feature and another for the conversion option. Of course, a creditor may establish one maximum interest rate applicable to all features.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Interest rate charged after default.</I> State law may allow an interest rate after default higher than the contract rate in effect at the time of default; however, the interest rate after default is subject to a maximum interest rate set forth in a credit obligation that is otherwise subject to this section. This rule applies only in situations in which a post-default agreement is still considered part of the original obligation.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Increasing the maximum interest rate—general rule.</I> Generally, a creditor may not increase the maximum interest rate originally set on a credit obligation subject to this section unless the consumer and the creditor enter into a new obligation. Therefore, under an open-end plan, a creditor may not increase the rate ceiling imposed merely because there is an increase in the credit limit. If an open-end plan is closed and another opened, a new rate ceiling may be imposed. Furthermore, where an open-end plan has a fixed maturity and a creditor renews the plan at maturity, or enters into a closed-end credit transaction, a new maximum interest rate may be set at that time. If the open-end plan provides for a repayment phase, the maximum interest rate cannot be increased when the repayment phase begins unless the agreement provided for such an increase. For a closed-end credit transaction, a new maximum interest rate may be set only if the transaction is satisfied and replaced by a new obligation. (The exceptions in § 1026.20(a)(1)-(5) which limit what transactions are considered refinancings for purposes of disclosure do not apply with respect to increasing a rate ceiling that has been imposed; if a transaction is satisfied and replaced, the rate ceiling may be increased.)
</P>
<P>12. <I>Increasing the maximum interest rate—assumption of an obligation.</I> If an obligation subject to this section is assumed by a new obligor and the original obligor is released from liability, the maximum interest rate set on the obligation may be increased as part of the assumption agreement. (This rule applies whether or not the transaction constitutes an assumption as defined in § 1026.20(b).) 
</P>
<HD1>Subpart E—Special Rules for Certain Home Mortgage Transactions 
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.31—General Rules 
</HD2>
<HD3>31(c) Timing of Disclosure
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Furnishing disclosures.</I> Disclosures are considered furnished when received by the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>31(c)(1) Disclosures for high-cost mortgages.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Pre-consummation or account opening waiting period.</I> A creditor must furnish § 1026.32 disclosures at least three business days prior to consummation for a closed-end, high-cost mortgage and at least three business days prior to account opening for an open-end, high-cost mortgage. Under § 1026.32, “business day” has the same meaning as the rescission rule in comment 2(a)(6)-2—all calendar days except Sundays and the Federal legal holidays listed in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). However, while the disclosure rule under §§ 1026.15 and 1026.23 extends to midnight of the third business day, the rule under § 1026.32 does not. For example, under § 1026.32, if disclosures were provided on a Friday, consummation or account opening could occur any time on Tuesday, the third business day following receipt of the disclosures. If the timing of the rescission rule were to be used, consummation or account opening could not occur until after midnight on Tuesday.
</P>
<HD3>31(c)(1)(i) Change in Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Redisclosure required.</I> Creditors must provide new disclosures when a change in terms makes disclosures previously provided under § 1026.32(c) inaccurate, including disclosures based on and labeled as an estimate. A change in terms may result from a formal written agreement or otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Premiums or other charges financed at consummation or account opening.</I> If the consumer finances the payment of premiums or other charges as permitted under § 1026.34(a)(10), and as a result the monthly payment differs from what was previously disclosed under § 1026.32, redisclosure is required and a new three-day waiting period applies.
</P>
<P><I>31(c)(1)(ii) Telephone disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Telephone disclosures.</I> Disclosures by telephone must be furnished at least three business days prior to consummation or account opening, as applicable, calculated in accordance with the timing rules under § 1026.31(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>31(c)(1)(iii) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation or account opening.</I> 
</P>
<P><I>31(c)(1)(iii) Consumer's waiver of waiting period before consummation or account opening.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modification or waiver.</I> A consumer may modify or waive the right to the three-day waiting period only after receiving the disclosures required by § 1026.32 and only if the circumstances meet the criteria for establishing a bona fide personal financial emergency under § 1026.23(e). Whether these criteria are met is determined by the facts surrounding individual situations. The imminent sale of the consumer's home at foreclosure during the three-day period is one example of a bona fide personal financial emergency. Each consumer entitled to the three-day waiting period must sign the handwritten statement for the waiver to be effective.
</P>
<HD3>31(c)(2) Disclosures for Reverse Mortgages
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Business days.</I> For purposes of providing reverse mortgage disclosures, “business day” has the same meaning as in comment 31(c)(1)-1—all calendar days except Sundays and the Federal legal holidays listed in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). This means if disclosures are provided on a Friday, consummation could occur any time on Tuesday, the third business day following receipt of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Open-end plans.</I> Disclosures for open-end reverse mortgages must be provided at least three business days before the first transaction under the plan (<I>see</I> § 1026.5(b)(1)).
</P>
<HD3>31(d) Basis of Disclosures and Use of Estimates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Redisclosure.</I> Section 1026.31(d) allows the use of estimates when information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, provided that the disclosure is clearly identified as an estimate. For purposes of Subpart E, the rule in § 1026.31(c)(1)(i) requiring new disclosures when the creditor changes terms also applies to disclosures labeled as estimates.
</P>
<HD3>31(d)(3) Per-Diem Interest
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Per-diem interest.</I> This paragraph applies to the disclosure of any numerical amount (such as the finance charge, annual percentage rate, or payment amount) that is affected by the amount of the per-diem interest charge that will be collected at consummation. If the amount of per-diem interest used in preparing the disclosures for consummation is based on the information known to the creditor at the time the disclosure document is prepared, the disclosures are considered accurate under this rule, and affected disclosures are also considered accurate, even if the disclosures were not labeled as estimates. (See comment 17(c)(2)(ii)-1 generally.) 
</P>
<P><I>31(h) Corrections and unintentional violations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Notice requirements.</I> Notice of a violation pursuant to § 1026.31(h)(1) or (2) should be in writing. The notice should make the consumer aware of the choices available under § 1026.31(h)(1)(iii) and (2)(iii). For notice to be adequate, the consumer should have at least 60 days in which to consider the available options and communicate a choice to the creditor or assignee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable time.</I> To claim the benefit of § 1026.31(h), a creditor or assignee must implement appropriate restitution and the consumer's elected adjustment within a reasonable time after the consumer provides notice of that election to the creditor or assignee. What length of time is reasonable will depend on what changes to a loan or credit plan's documentation, disclosure, or terms are necessary to effectuate the adjustment. In general, implementing appropriate restitution and completing an adjustment within 30 days of the consumer's providing notice of the election can be considered reasonable.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.32—Requirements for High-Cost Mortgages 
</HD2>
<HD3>32(a) Coverage 
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. The term <I>high-cost mortgage</I> includes both a closed-end credit transaction and an open-end credit plan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. For purposes of determining coverage under § 1026.32, an open-end consumer credit transaction is the account opening of an open-end credit plan. An advance of funds or a draw on the credit line under an open-end credit plan subsequent to account opening does not constitute an open-end “transaction.”




</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Average prime offer rate. High-cost mortgages</I> include closed- and open-end consumer credit transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the specified amount. The term “average prime offer rate” is defined in § 1026.35(a)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Comparable transaction.</I> Guidance for determining a comparable transaction is set forth in comments 35(a)(1)-1 and 35(a)(2)-2 and -3, which direct creditors to published tables of average prime offer rates for fixed- and variable-rate closed-end credit transactions. Creditors opening open-end credit plans must compare the annual percentage rate for the plan to the average prime offer rate for the most closely comparable closed-end transaction. To identify the most closely comparable closed-end transaction, the creditor should identify whether the credit plan is fixed- or variable-rate; if the plan is fixed-rate, the term of the plan to maturity; if the plan is variable-rate, the duration of any initial, fixed-rate period; and the date the interest rate for the plan is set. If a fixed-rate plan has no definite plan length, a creditor must use the average prime offer rate for a 30-year fixed-rate loan. If a variable-rate plan has an optional, fixed-rate feature, a creditor must use the rate table for variable-rate transactions. If a variable-rate plan has an initial, fixed-rate period that is not in whole years, a creditor must identify the most closely-comparable transaction by using the number of whole years closest to the actual fixed-rate period. For example, if a variable-rate plan has an initial fixed-rate period of 20 months, a creditor must use the average prime offer rate for a two-year adjustable-rate loan. If a variable-rate plan has no initial fixed-rate period, or if it has an initial fixed-rate period of less than one year, a creditor must use the average prime offer rate for a one-year adjustable-rate loan. Thus, for example, if the initial fixed-rate period is six months, a creditor must use the average prime offer rate for a one-year adjustable-rate loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate set.</I> Comment 35(a)(1)-2 provides guidance for determining the average prime offer rate in effect on the date that the interest rate for the transaction is set.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Loan amount less than $50,000.</I> The creditor must determine whether to apply the APR threshold in § 1026.32(a)(1)(i)(B) based on the loan amount, which is the face amount of the note.






</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Annual adjustment of $1,000 amount.</I> The $1,000 figure in § 1026.32(a)(1)(ii)(B) is adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI that was in effect on the preceding June 1. The Bureau will publish adjustments after the June figures become available each year.
</P>
<P>i. For 2015, $1,020, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2013 to June 2014, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ii. For 2016, $1,017, reflecting a 0.2 percent decrease in the CPI-U from June 2014 to June 2015, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iii. For 2017, $1,029, reflecting a 1.1 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2015 to June 2016, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iv. For 2018, $1,052, reflecting a 2.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2016 to June 2017, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>v. For 2019, $1,077, reflecting a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2017 to June 2018, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vi. For 2020, $1,099, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2018 to June 2019, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vii. For 2021, $1,103, reflecting a 0.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2019 to June 2020, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>viii. For 2022, $1,148, reflecting a 4.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2020 to June 2021, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ix. For 2023, $1,243, reflecting an 8.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2021 to June 2022, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>x. For 2024, $1,305, reflecting a 4.9 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2022 to June 2023, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xi. For 2025, $1,348, reflecting a 3.4 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2023 to June 2024, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xii. For 2026, $1,380, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2024 to June 2025, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Historical adjustment of $400 amount.</I> Prior to January 10, 2014, a mortgage loan was covered by § 1026.32 if the total points and fees payable by the consumer at or before loan consummation exceeded the greater of $400 or 8 percent of the total loan amount. The $400 figure was adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI that was in effect on the preceding June 1, as follows:
</P>
<P>i. For 1996, $412, reflecting a 3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1994 to June 1995, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ii. For 1997, $424, reflecting a 2.9 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1995 to June 1996, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iii. For 1998, $435, reflecting a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1996 to June 1997, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iv. For 1999, $441, reflecting a 1.4 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1997 to June 1998, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>v. For 2000, $451, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1998 to June 1999, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vi. For 2001, $465, reflecting a 3.1 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 1999 to June 2000, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vii. For 2002, $480, reflecting a 3.27 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2000 to June 2001, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>viii. For 2003, $488, reflecting a 1.64 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2001 to June 2002, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ix. For 2004, $499, reflecting a 2.22 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2002 to June 2003, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>x. For 2005, $510, reflecting a 2.29 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2003 to June 2004, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xi. For 2006, $528, reflecting a 3.51 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2004 to June 2005, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xii. For 2007, $547, reflecting a 3.55 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2005 to June 2006, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xiii. For 2008, $561, reflecting a 2.56 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2006 to June 2007, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xiv. For 2009, $583, reflecting a 3.94 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2007 to June 2008, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xv. For 2010, $579, reflecting a 0.74 percent decrease in the CPI-U from June 2008 to June 2009, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xvi. For 2011, $592, reflecting a 2.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2009 to June 2010, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xvii. For 2012, $611, reflecting a 3.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2010 to June 2011, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xviii. For 2013, $625, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2011 to June 2012, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xix. For 2014, $632, reflecting a 1.1 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2012 to June 2013, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Applicable threshold.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(a)(1)(ii), a creditor must determine the applicable points and fees threshold based on the face amount of the note (or, in the case of an open-end credit plan, the credit limit for the plan when the account is opened). However, the creditor must apply the allowable points and fees percentage to the “total loan amount,” as defined in § 1026.32(b)(4). For closed-end credit transactions, the total loan amount may be different than the face amount of the note. The $20,000 amount in § 1026.32(a)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) is adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI that was in effect on the preceding June 1.
</P>
<P>i. For 2015, $20,391, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2013 to June 2014, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ii. For 2016, $20,350, reflecting a 0.2 percent decrease in the CPI-U from June 2014 to June 2015, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iii. For 2017, $20,579, reflecting a 1.1 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2015 to June 2016, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>iv. For 2018, $21,032, reflecting a 2.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2016 to June 2017, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>v. For 2019, $21,549, reflecting a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2017 to June 2018, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vi. For 2020, $21,980, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2018 to June 2019, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>vii. For 2021, $22,052, reflecting a 0.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2019 to June 2020, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>viii. For 2022, $22,969, reflecting a 4.2 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2020 to June 2021, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>ix. For 2023, $24,866, reflecting an 8.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2021 to June 2022, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>x. For 2024, $26,092, reflecting a 4.9 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2022 to June 2023, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xi. For 2025, $26,968, reflecting a 3.4 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2023 to June 2024, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>xii. For 2026, $27,592, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U from June 2024 to June 2025, rounded to the nearest whole dollar.








</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Maximum period and amount.</I> Section 1026.32(a)(1)(iii) provides that a closed-end credit transaction or an open-end credit plan is a high-cost mortgage if, under the terms of the loan contract or open-end credit agreement, a creditor can charge either a prepayment penalty more than 36 months after consummation or account opening, or total prepayment penalties that exceed 2 percent of any amount prepaid. Section 1026.32(a)(1)(iii) applies only for purposes of determining whether a transaction is subject to the high-cost mortgage requirements and restrictions in § 1026.32(c) and (d) and § 1026.34. However, if a transaction is subject to those requirements and restrictions by operation of any provision of § 1026.32(a)(1), including by operation of § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii), then the transaction may not include a prepayment penalty. <I>See</I> § 1026.32(d)(6). As a result, § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii) effectively establishes a maximum period during which a prepayment penalty may be imposed, and a maximum prepayment penalty amount that may be imposed, on a closed-end credit transaction or open-end credit plan (other than such a mortgage as described in § 1026.32(a)(2)) secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. Closed-end credit transactions covered by § 1026.43 are subject to the additional prepayment penalty restrictions set forth in § 1026.43(g).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples; open-end credit.</I> If the terms of an open-end credit agreement allow for a prepayment penalty that exceeds 2 percent of the initial credit limit for the plan, the agreement will be deemed to be a transaction with a prepayment penalty that exceeds 2 percent of the “amount prepaid” within the meaning of § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii). The following examples illustrate how to calculate whether the terms of an open-end credit agreement comply with the maximum prepayment penalty period and amounts described in § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the terms of a home-equity line of credit with an initial credit limit of $10,000 require the consumer to pay a $500 flat fee if the consumer terminates the plan less than 36 months after account opening. The $500 fee constitutes a prepayment penalty under § 1026.32(b)(6)(ii), and the penalty is greater than 2 percent of the $10,000 initial credit limit, which is $200. Under § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii), the plan is a high-cost mortgage subject to the requirements and restrictions set forth in §§ 1026.32 and 1026.34.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that the terms of a home-equity line of credit with an initial credit limit of $10,000 and a ten-year term require the consumer to pay a $200 flat fee if the consumer terminates the plan prior to its normal expiration. The $200 prepayment penalty does not exceed 2 percent of the initial credit limit, but the terms of the agreement permit the creditor to charge the fee more than 36 months after account opening. Thus, under § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii), the plan is a high-cost mortgage subject to the requirements and restrictions set forth in §§ 1026.32 and 1026.34.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that, under the terms of a home-equity line of credit with an initial credit limit of $150,000, the creditor may charge the consumer any closing costs waived by the creditor if the consumer terminates the plan less than 36 months after account opening. Assume also that the creditor waived closing costs of $1,000. Bona fide third-party charges comprised $800 of the $1,000 in waived closing costs, and origination charges retained by the creditor or its affiliate comprised the remaining $200. Under § 1026.32(b)(6)(ii), the $800 in bona fide third-party charges is not a prepayment penalty, while the $200 for the creditor's own originations costs is a prepayment penalty. The total prepayment penalty of $200 is less than 2 percent of the initial $150,000 credit limit, and the penalty does not apply if the consumer terminates the plan more than 36 months after account opening. Thus, the plan is not a high-cost mortgage under § 1026.32(a)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>32(a)(2) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Construction-permanent loans.</I> Section 1026.32 does not apply to a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. This exemption applies to a construction-only loan as well as to the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan. Section 1026.32 may apply, however, to permanent financing that replaces a construction loan, whether the permanent financing is extended by the same or a different creditor. When a construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) permits the creditor to give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See also</I> comment 17(c)(6)-2. Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) addresses only how a creditor may elect to disclose a construction to permanent transaction. Which disclosure option a creditor elects under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) does not affect the determination of whether the permanent phase of the transaction is subject to § 1026.32. When the creditor discloses the two phases as separate transactions, the annual percentage rate for the permanent phase must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 1026.32. Likewise, a single amount of points and fees, also reflecting the appropriate charges from the permanent phase, must be calculated and compared with the total loan amount to determine coverage under § 1026.32. When the creditor discloses the two phases as a single transaction, a single annual percentage rate, reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases, must be calculated for the transaction in accordance with § 1026.32(a)(3) and appendix D to part 1026. This annual percentage rate must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 1026.32. Likewise, a single amount of points and fees, also reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases of the transaction, must be calculated and compared with the total loan amount to determine coverage under § 1026.32. If the transaction is determined to be a high-cost mortgage, only the permanent phase is subject to the requirements of §§ 1026.32 and 1026.34.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(a)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Housing Finance Agency.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(a)(2)(iii), a Housing Finance Agency means a housing finance agency as defined in 24 CFR 266.5.
</P>
<P><I>32(a)(3) Determination of annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The guidance set forth in the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1) and in § 1026.40 addresses calculation of the annual percentage rate disclosures for closed-end credit transactions and open-end credit plans, respectively. Section 1026.32(a)(3) requires a different calculation of the annual percentage rate solely to determine coverage under § 1026.32(a)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Open-end credit.</I> The annual percentage rate for an open-end credit plan must be determined in accordance with § 1026.32(a)(3), regardless of whether there is an advance of funds at account opening. Section 1026.32(a)(3) does not require the calculation of the annual percentage rate for any extensions of credit subsequent to account opening. Any draw on the credit line subsequent to account opening is not treated as a separate transaction for purposes of determining annual percentage rate threshold coverage.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rates that vary; index rate plus maximum margin.</I> i. Section 1026.32(a)(3)(ii) applies in the case of a closed- or open-end credit transaction when the interest rate for the transaction varies solely in accordance with an index. For purposes of § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), a transaction's interest rate varies in accordance with an index even if the transaction has an initial rate that is not determined by the index used to make later interest rate adjustments provided that, following the first rate adjustment, the interest rate for the transaction varies solely in accordance with an index.
</P>
<P>ii. In general, for transactions subject to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), the annual percentage rate is determined by adding the index rate in effect on the date that the interest rate for the transaction is set to the maximum margin for the transaction, as set forth in the agreement for the loan or plan. In some cases, a transaction subject to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii) may have an initial rate that is a premium rate and is higher than the index rate plus the maximum margin as of the date the interest rate for the transaction is set. In such cases, the annual percentage rate is determined based on the initial “premium” rate.
</P>
<P>iii. The following examples illustrate the rule:
</P>
<P>A. Assume that the terms of a closed-end, adjustable-rate mortgage loan provide for a fixed, initial interest rate of 2 percent for two years following consummation, after which the interest rate will adjust annually in accordance with an index plus a 2 percent margin. Also assume that the applicable index is 3 percent as of the date the interest rate for the transaction is set, and a lifetime interest rate cap of 15 percent applies to the transaction. Pursuant to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), for purposes of determining the annual percentage rate for § 1026.32(a)(1)(i), the interest rate for the transaction is 5 percent (3 percent index rate plus 2 percent margin).
</P>
<P>B. Assume the same transaction terms set forth in paragraph 3.iii.A, except that an initial interest rate of 6 percent applies to the transaction. Pursuant to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), for purposes of determining the annual percentage rate for § 1026.32(a)(1)(i), the interest rate for the transaction is 6 percent.
</P>
<P>C. Assume that the terms of an open-end credit agreement with a five-year draw period and a five-year repayment period provide for a fixed, initial interest rate of 2 percent for the first year of the repayment period, after which the interest rate will adjust annually pursuant to a publicly-available index outside the creditor's control, in accordance with the limitations applicable to open-end credit plans in § 1026.40(f). Also assume that, pursuant to the terms of the open-end credit agreement, a margin of 2 percent applies because the consumer is employed by the creditor, but that the margin will increase to 4 percent if the consumer's employment with the creditor ends. Finally, assume that the applicable index rate is 3.5 percent as of the date the interest rate for the transaction is set, and a lifetime interest rate cap of 15 percent applies to the transaction. Pursuant to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), for purposes of determining the annual percentage rate for § 1026.32(a)(1)(i), the interest rate for the transaction is 7.5 percent (3.5 percent index rate plus 4 percent maximum margin).
</P>
<P>D. Assume the same transaction terms set forth in paragraph 3.iii.C, except that an initial interest rate of 8 percent applies to the transaction. Pursuant to § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii), for purposes of determining the annual percentage rate for § 1026.32(a)(1)(i), the interest rate for the transaction is 8 percent.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rates that vary other than in accordance with an index.</I> Section 1026.32(a)(3)(iii) applies when the interest rate applicable to a closed- or open-end transaction may or will vary, except as described in § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii). Section 1026.32(a)(3)(iii) thus applies where multiple fixed rates apply to a transaction, such as in a step-rate mortgage. For example, assume the following interest rates will apply to a transaction: 3 percent for the first six months, 4 percent for the next 10 years, and 5 percent for the remaining loan term. In this example, § 1026.32(a)(3)(iii) would be used to determine the interest rate, and 5 percent would be the maximum interest rate applicable to the transaction used to determine the annual percentage rate for purposes of § 1026.32(a)(1)(i). Section 1026.32(a)(3)(iii) also applies to any other adjustable-rate loan where the interest rate may vary but according to a formula other than the sum of an index and a margin.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Fixed-rate and -term payment options.</I> If an open-end credit plan has only a fixed rate during the draw period, a creditor must use the interest rate applicable to that feature to determine the annual percentage rate, as required by § 1026.32(a)(3)(i). However, if an open-end credit plan has a variable rate, but also offers a fixed-rate and -term payment option during the draw period, § 1026.32(a)(3) requires a creditor to use the terms applicable to the variable-rate feature for determining the annual percentage rate, as described in § 1026.32(a)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>32(b) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<HD3>32(b) Definitions
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Known at or before consummation.</I> Section 1026.32(b)(1) includes in points and fees for closed-end credit transactions those items listed in § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) through (vi) that are known at or before consummation. The following examples clarify how to determine whether a charge or fee is known at or before consummation.
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> In general, a charge or fee is “known at or before consummation” if the creditor knows at or before consummation that the charge or fee will be imposed in connection with the transaction, even if the charge or fee is scheduled to be paid after consummation. Thus, for example, if the creditor charges the consumer $400 for an appraisal conducted by an affiliate of the creditor, the $400 is included in points and fees, even if the consumer finances it and repays it over the loan term, because the creditor knows at or before consummation that the charge or fee is imposed in connection with the transaction. By contrast, if a creditor does not know whether a charge or fee will be imposed, it is not included in points and fees. For example, charges or fees that the creditor may impose if the consumer seeks to modify a loan after consummation are not included in points and fees, because the creditor does not know at or before consummation whether the consumer will seek to modify the loan and therefore incur the fees or charges.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Prepayment penalties.</I> Notwithstanding the guidance in comment 32(b)(1)-1.i, under § 1026.32(b)(1)(v) the maximum prepayment penalty that may be charged or collected under the terms of the mortgage loan is included in points and fees because the amount of the maximum prepayment penalty that may be charged or collected is known at or before consummation.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Certain mortgage and credit insurance premiums.</I> Notwithstanding the guidance in comment 32(b)(1)-1.i, under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>) and (iii) premiums and charges for private mortgage insurance and credit insurance that are payable after consummation are not included in points and fees, even if the amounts of such premiums and charges are known at or before consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges paid by parties other than the consumer.</I> Under § 1026.32(b)(1), points and fees may include charges paid by third parties in addition to charges paid by the consumer. Specifically, charges paid by third parties that fall within the definition of points and fees set forth in § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) through (vi) are included in points and fees. In calculating points and fees in connection with a transaction, creditors may rely on written statements from the consumer or third party paying for a charge, including the seller, to determine the source and purpose of any third-party payment for a charge.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples—included in points and fees.</I> A creditor's origination charge paid by a consumer's employer on the consumer's behalf that is included in the finance charge as defined in § 1026.4(a) or (b), must be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i), unless other exclusions under § 1026.4 or § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(A) through (F) apply. In addition, consistent with comment 32(b)(1)(i)-1, a third-party payment of an item excluded from the finance charge under a provision of § 1026.4, while not included in the total points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i), may be included under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii) through (vi). For example, a payment by a third party of a creditor-imposed fee for an appraisal performed by an employee of the creditor is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii). <I>See</I> comment 32(b)(1)(i)-1.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples—not included in points and fees.</I> A charge paid by a third party is not included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) if the exclusions to points and fees in § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(A) through (F) apply. For example, certain bona fide third-party charges not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either are excluded from points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D), regardless of whether those charges are paid by a third party or the consumer.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Seller's points.</I> Seller's points, as described in § 1026.4(c)(5) and commentary, are excluded from the finance charge and thus are not included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i). However, charges paid by the seller for items listed in § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii) through (vi) are included in points and fees.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Creditor-paid charges.</I> Charges that are paid by the creditor, other than loan originator compensation paid by the creditor that is required to be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii), are excluded from points and fees. <I>See</I> §§ 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(A), 1026.4(a), and comment 4(a)-(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.32(b)(1)(i) includes in the total “points and fees” items included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a) and (b). However, certain items that may be included in the finance charge are excluded from points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(A) through (F). Items excluded from the finance charge under other provisions of § 1026.4 are not included in the total points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i), but may be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii) through (vi). To illustrate: A fee imposed by the creditor for an appraisal performed by an employee of the creditor meets the definition of “finance charge” under § 1026.4(a) as “any charge payable directly or indirectly by the consumer and imposed directly or indirectly by the creditor as an incident to or a condition of the extension of credit.” However, § 1026.4(c)(7) specifies that appraisal fees are not included in the finance charge. A fee imposed by the creditor for an appraisal performed by an employee of the creditor therefore would not be included in the finance charge and would not be counted in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i). Section 1026.32(b)(1)(iii), however, expressly includes in points and fees items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) (including appraisal fees) if the creditor receives compensation in connection with the charge. A creditor would receive compensation for an appraisal performed by its own employee. Thus, the appraisal fee in this example must be included in the calculation of points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Federal and State mortgage insurance premiums and guaranty fees.</I> Under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(B), mortgage insurance premiums or guaranty fees in connection with a Federal or State agency program are excluded from points and fees, even though they are included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a) and (b). For example, if a consumer is required to pay a $2,000 mortgage insurance premium for a loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration, the $2,000 must be included in the finance charge but is not counted in points and fees. Similarly, if a consumer pays a 2 percent funding fee for a loan guaranteed by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or through the U.S Department of Agriculture's Rural Development Single Family Housing Guaranteed Loan Program, the fee is included in the finance charge but is not included in points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Private mortgage insurance premiums.</I> i. <I>Payable after consummation.</I> Under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>1</I>), private mortgage insurance premiums payable after consummation are excluded from points and fees.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Payable at or before consummation.</I> A. <I>General.</I> Under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>2</I>), private mortgage insurance premiums payable at or before consummation (<I>i.e.,</I> single or up-front premiums) may be excluded from points and fees, even though they are included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a) and (b). However, the portion of the premium that exceeds the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)) is included in points and fees. To determine whether any portion of the premium exceeds the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act, a creditor references the premium amount that would be payable for the transaction under that Act, as implemented by applicable regulations and other written authorities issued by the Federal Housing Administration (such as Mortgagee Letters), even if the transaction would not qualify to be insured under that Act (including, for example, because the principal amount exceeds the maximum insurable under that Act).
</P>
<P>B. <I>Non-refundable premiums.</I> To qualify for the exclusion from points and fees, private mortgage insurance premiums payable at or before consummation must be required to be refunded on a pro rata basis and the refund must be automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Example.</I> Assume that a $3,000 private mortgage insurance premium charged on a closed-end mortgage loan is payable at or before closing and is required to be refunded on a pro rata basis and that the refund is automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan. Assume also that the maximum premium allowable under the National Housing Act is $2,000. In this case, the creditor could exclude $2,000 from points and fees but would have to include the $1,000 that exceeds the allowable premium under the National Housing Act. However, if the $3,000 private mortgage insurance premium were not required to be refunded on a pro rata basis or if the refund were not automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan, the entire $3,000 premium would be included in points and fees.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of paying private mortgage insurance premiums.</I> The portion of any private mortgage insurance premiums payable at or before consummation that does not qualify for an exclusion from points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C)(<I>2</I>) must be included in points and fees for purposes of § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) whether paid in cash or financed and whether the insurance is optional or required.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Charges not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either.</I> In general, a creditor is not required to count in points and fees any bona fide third-party charge not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either. For example, if bona fide charges are imposed by a third-party settlement agent and are not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either, those charges are not included in points and fees, even if those charges are included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a)(2). The term <I>loan originator</I> has the same meaning as in § 1026.36(a)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Private mortgage insurance.</I> The exclusion for bona fide third-party charges not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either is limited by § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C) in the general definition of “points and fees.” Section 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(C) requires inclusion in points and fees of premiums or other charges payable at or before consummation for any private guaranty or insurance protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss to the extent that the premium or charge exceeds the amount payable under policies in effect at the time of origination under section 203(c)(2)(A) of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1709(c)(2)(A)). These premiums or charges must also be included if the premiums or charges are not required to be refundable on a pro-rated basis, or the refund is not required to be automatically issued upon notification of the satisfaction of the underlying mortgage loan. Under these circumstances, even if the premiums or other charges are not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either, they must be included in the points and fees calculation for qualified mortgages. See comments 32(b)(1)(i)(c)-1 and -2 for further discussion of including private mortgage insurance premiums payable at or before consummation in the points and fees calculation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Real estate-related fees.</I> The exclusion for bona fide third-party charges not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either is limited by § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii) in the general definition of points and fees. Section 1026.32(b)(1)(iii) requires inclusion in points and fees of items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) unless the charge is reasonable, the creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation in connection with the charge, and the charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor. If a charge is required to be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii), it may not be excluded under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D), even if the criteria for exclusion in § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Credit insurance.</I> The exclusion for bona fide third-party charges not retained by the creditor, loan originator, or an affiliate of either is limited by § 1026.32(b)(1)(iv) in the general definition of points and fees. Section 1026.32(b)(1)(iv) requires inclusion in points and fees of premiums and other charges for credit insurance and certain other types of insurance. If a charge is required to be included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iv), it may not be excluded under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D), even if the criteria for exclusion in § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D) are satisfied.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i)(E).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bona fide discount point.</I> The term <I>bona fide discount point</I> is defined in § 1026.32(b)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> The average prime offer rate for purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(i)(E) of this section is the average prime offer rate that applies to a comparable transaction as of the date the discounted interest rate for the transaction is set. For the meaning of “comparable transaction,” refer to comment 35(a)(2)-2. The table of average prime offer rates published by the Bureau indicates how to identify the comparable transaction. <I>See</I> comment 35(a)(2)-2.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Example.</I> Assume a transaction that is a first-lien, purchase-money home mortgage with a fixed interest rate and a 30-year term. Assume also that the consumer locks in an interest rate of 6 percent on May 1, 2014 that was discounted from a rate of 6.5 percent because the consumer paid two discount points. Finally, assume that the average prime offer rate as of May 1, 2014 for home mortgages with a fixed interest rate and a 30-year term is 5.5 percent. The creditor may exclude two bona fide discount points from the points and fees calculation because the rate from which the discounted rate was derived (6.5 percent) exceeded the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the rate on the transaction was set (5.5 percent) by only 1 percentage point.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(i)(F).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bona fide discount point and average prime offer rate.</I> Comments 32(b)(1)(i)(E)-1 and -2 provide guidance concerning the definition of <I>bona fide discount point</I> and <I>average prime offer rate,</I> respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume a transaction that is a first-lien, purchase-money home mortgage with a fixed interest rate and a 30-year term. Assume also that the consumer locks in an interest rate of 6 percent on May 1, 2014, that was discounted from a rate of 7 percent because the consumer paid four discount points. Finally, assume that the average prime offer rate as of May 1, 2014, for home mortgages with a fixed interest rate and a 30-year term is 5 percent. The creditor may exclude one discount point from the points and fees calculation because the rate from which the discounted rate was derived (7 percent) exceeded the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the rate on the transaction was set (5 percent) by only 2 percentage points.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Loan originator compensation—general.</I> Compensation paid by a consumer or creditor to a loan originator, other than an employee of the creditor, is included in the calculation of points and fees for a transaction, provided that such compensation can be attributed to that particular transaction at the time the interest rate is set. Compensation paid to an employee of a creditor is not included in points and fees. Loan originator compensation includes amounts the loan originator retains and is not dependent on the label or name of any fee imposed in connection with the transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan originator compensation—attributable to a particular transaction.</I> Loan originator compensation is compensation that is paid by a consumer or creditor to a loan originator that can be attributed to that particular transaction. The amount of compensation that can be attributed to a particular transaction is the dollar value of compensation that the loan originator will receive if the transaction is consummated. As explained in comment 32(b)(1)(ii)-3, the amount of compensation that a loan originator will receive is calculated as of the date the interest rate is set and includes compensation that is paid before, at, or after consummation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Loan originator compensation—timing.</I> Compensation paid to a loan originator that can be attributed to a transaction must be included in the points and fees calculation for that loan regardless of whether the compensation is paid before, at, or after consummation. The amount of loan originator compensation that can be attributed to a transaction is determined as of the date the interest rate is set. Thus, loan originator compensation for a transaction includes compensation that can be attributed to that transaction at the time the creditor sets the interest rate for the transaction, even if that compensation is not paid until after consummation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Loan originator compensation—calculating loan originator compensation in connection with other charges or payments included in the finance charge or made to loan originators.</I> i. <I>Consumer payments to mortgage brokers.</I> As provided in § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii)(A), consumer payments to a mortgage broker already included in the points and fees calculation under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) need not be counted again under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). For example, assume a consumer pays a mortgage broker a $3,000 fee for a transaction. The $3,000 mortgage broker fee is included in the finance charge under § 1026.4(a)(3). Because the $3,000 mortgage broker fee is already included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i), it is not counted again under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Payments by a mortgage broker to its individual loan originator employee.</I> As provided in § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii)(B), compensation paid by a mortgage broker to its individual loan originator employee is not included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). For example, assume a consumer pays a $3,000 fee to a mortgage broker, and the mortgage broker pays a $1,500 commission to its individual loan originator employee for that transaction. The $3,000 mortgage broker fee is included in points and fees, but the $1,500 commission is not included in points and fees because it has already been included in points and fees as part of the $3,000 mortgage broker fee.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Creditor's origination fees—loan originator not employed by creditor.</I> Compensation paid by a creditor to a loan originator who is not employed by the creditor is included in the calculation of points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). Such compensation is included in points and fees in addition to any origination fees or charges paid by the consumer to the creditor that are included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i). For example, assume that a consumer pays to the creditor a $3,000 origination fee and that the creditor pays a mortgage broker $1,500 in compensation attributed to the transaction. Assume further that the consumer pays no other charges to the creditor that are included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) and that the mortgage broker receives no other compensation that is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). For purposes of calculating points and fees, the $3,000 origination fee is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(i) and the $1,500 in loan originator compensation is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii), equaling $4,500 in total points and fees, provided that no other points and fees are paid or compensation received.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Loan originator compensation—calculating loan originator compensation in manufactured home transactions.</I> i. If a manufactured home retailer qualifies as a loan originator under § 1026.36(a)(1), then compensation that is paid by a consumer or creditor to the retailer for loan origination activities and that can be attributed to the transaction at the time the interest rate is set must be included in points and fees. For example, assume a manufactured home retailer takes a residential mortgage loan application and is entitled to receive at consummation a $1,000 commission from the creditor for taking the mortgage loan application. The $1,000 commission is loan originator compensation that must be included in points and fees.
</P>
<P>ii. If the creditor has knowledge that the sales price of a manufactured home includes loan originator compensation, then such compensation can be attributed to the transaction at the time the interest rate is set and therefore is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). However, the creditor is not required to investigate the sales price of a manufactured home to determine if the sales price includes loan originator compensation.
</P>
<P>iii. As provided in § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii)(D), compensation paid by a manufactured home retailer to its employees is not included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>ii. If the creditor has knowledge that the sales price of a manufactured home includes loan originator compensation, then such compensation can be attributed to the transaction at the time the interest rate is set and therefore is included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). However, the creditor is not required to investigate the sales price of a manufactured home to determine if the sales price includes loan originator compensation.
</P>
<P>iii. As provided in § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii)(D), compensation paid by a manufactured home retailer to its employees is not included in points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Other charges.</I> Section 1026.32(b)(1)(iii) defines points and fees to include all items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7), other than amounts held for the future payment of taxes, unless certain exclusions apply. An item listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) may be excluded from the points and fees calculation if the charge is reasonable; the creditor receives no direct or indirect compensation from the charge; and the charge is not paid to an affiliate of the creditor. For example, a reasonable fee paid by the consumer to an independent, third-party appraiser may be excluded from the points and fees calculation (assuming no compensation is paid to the creditor or its affiliate and no charge is paid to an affiliate). By contrast, a fee paid by the consumer for an appraisal performed by the creditor must be included in the calculation, even though the fee may be excluded from the finance charge if it is bona fide and reasonable in amount.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(1)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit insurance and debt cancellation or suspension coverage.</I> In determining points and fees for purposes of § 1026.32(b)(1), premiums paid at or before consummation for credit insurance or any debt cancellation or suspension agreement or contract are included in points and fees whether they are paid in cash or, if permitted by applicable law, financed and whether the insurance or coverage is optional or required. Such charges are also included whether the amount represents the entire premium or payment for the coverage or an initial payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit property insurance.</I> Credit property insurance includes insurance against loss of or damage to personal property, such as a houseboat or manufactured home. Credit property insurance covers the creditor's security interest in the property. Credit property insurance does not include homeowners' insurance, which, unlike credit property insurance, typically covers not only the dwelling but its contents and protects the consumer's interest in the property.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance.</I> Premiums or other charges for these types of insurance are included in points and fees only if the creditor is a beneficiary. If the consumer or another person designated by the consumer is the sole beneficiary, then the premiums or other charges are not included in points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comment 32(b)(1)-2 for guidance concerning the inclusion in points and fees of charges paid by parties other than the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Finance charge.</I> The points and fees calculation under § 1026.32(b)(2) generally does not include items that are included in the finance charge but that are not known until after account opening, such as minimum monthly finance charges or charges based on account activity or inactivity. Transaction fees also generally are not included in the points and fees calculation, except as provided in § 1026.32(b)(2)(vi). See comments 32(b)(1)-1 and 32(b)(1)(i)-1 for additional guidance concerning the calculation of points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comment 32(b)(1)(i)(B)-1 for further guidance concerning the exclusion of mortgage insurance premiums payable in connection with any Federal or State agency program.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comment 32(b)(1)(i)(C)-1 and -2 for further guidance concerning the exclusion of mortgage insurance premiums payable for any guaranty or insurance that protects the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss and that is not in connection with any Federal or State agency program.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(2)(i)(D), the term <I>loan originator</I> means a loan originator as that term is defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), without regard to § 1026.36(a)(2). See comments 32(b)(1)(i)(D)-1 through -4 for further guidance concerning the exclusion of bona fide third-party charges from points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i)(E).</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comments 32(b)(1)(i)(E)-1 through -3 for further guidance concerning the exclusion of up to two bona fide discount points from points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(i)(F).</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comments 32(b)(1)(i)(F)-1 and -2 for further guidance concerning the exclusion of up to one bona fide discount point from points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(2)(ii), the term <I>loan originator</I> means a loan originator as that term is defined in § 1026.36(a)(1), without regard to § 1026.36(a)(2). See the commentary to § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii) for additional guidance concerning the inclusion of loan originator compensation in points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Other charges.</I> See comment 32(b)(1)(iii)-1 for further guidance concerning the inclusion of items listed in § 1026.4(c)(7) in points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credit insurance and debt cancellation or suspension coverage.</I> See comments 32(b)(1)(iv)-1 through -3 for further guidance concerning the inclusion of premiums for credit insurance and debt cancellation or suspension coverage in points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Participation fees.</I> Fees charged for participation in a credit plan must be included in the points and fees calculation for purposes of § 1026.32 if payable at or before account opening. These fees include annual fees or other periodic fees that must be paid as a condition of access to the plan itself. See commentary to § 1026.4(c)(4) for a description of these fees.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(b)(2)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transaction fees to draw down the credit line.</I> Section 1026.32(b)(2)(viii) requires creditors in open-end credit plans to include in points and fees any transaction fee, including any per-transaction fee, that will be charged for a draw on the credit line. Section 1026.32(b)(2)(viii) requires the creditor to assume that the consumer will make at least one draw during the term of the credit plan. Thus, if the terms of the open-end credit plan permit the creditor to charge a $10 transaction fee each time the consumer draws on the credit line, § 1026.32(b)(2)(viii) requires the creditor to include one $10 charge in the points and fees calculation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fixed-rate loan option.</I> If the terms of an open-end credit plan permit a consumer to draw on the credit line using either a variable-rate feature or a fixed-rate feature, § 1026.32(b)(2)(viii) requires the creditor to use the terms applicable to the variable-rate feature for determining the transaction fee that must be included in the points and fees calculation.
</P>
<P><I>32(b)(3) Bona fide discount point.</I>
</P>
<P><I>32(b)(3)(i) Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition of bona fide discount point.</I> Section 1026.32(b)(3) provides that, to be bona fide, a discount point must reduce the interest rate based on a calculation that is consistent with established industry practices for determining the amount of reduction in the interest rate or time-price differential appropriate for the amount of discount points paid by the consumer. To satisfy this standard, a creditor may show that the reduction is reasonably consistent with established industry norms and practices for secondary mortgage market transactions. For example, a creditor may rely on pricing in the to-be-announced (TBA) market for mortgage-backed securities (MBS) to establish that the interest rate reduction is consistent with the compensation that the creditor could reasonably expect to receive in the secondary market. The creditor may also establish that its interest rate reduction is consistent with established industry practices by showing that its calculation complies with requirements prescribed in Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac guidelines for interest rate reductions from bona fide discount points. For example, assume that the Fannie Mae Single-Family Selling Guide or the Freddie Mac Single Family Seller/Servicer Guide imposes a cap on points and fees but excludes from the cap discount points that result in a bona fide reduction in the interest rate. Assume the guidelines require that, for a discount point to be bona fide so that it would not count against the cap, a discount point must result in at least a 25 basis point reduction in the interest rate. Accordingly, if the creditor offers a 25 basis point interest rate reduction for a discount point and the requirements of § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(E) or (F) are satisfied, the discount point is bona fide and is excluded from the calculation of points and fees.
</P>
<P><I>32(b)(4) Total loan amount.</I>
</P>
<P><I>32(b)(4)(i) Closed-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Total loan amount; examples.</I> Below are several examples showing how to calculate the total loan amount for closed-end mortgage loans, each using a $10,000 amount borrowed, a $300 appraisal fee, and $400 in prepaid finance charges. A $500 single premium for optional credit unemployment insurance is used in one example.
</P>
<P>i. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for a creditor-conducted appraisal and pays $400 in prepaid finance charges at closing, the amount financed under § 1026.18(b) is $9,900 ($10,000 plus the $300 appraisal fee that is paid to and financed by the creditor, less $400 in prepaid finance charges). The $300 appraisal fee paid to the creditor is added to other points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii). It is deducted from the amount financed ($9,900) to derive a total loan amount of $9,600.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer pays the $300 fee for the creditor-conducted appraisal in cash at closing, the $300 is included in the points and fees calculation because it is paid to the creditor. However, because the $300 is not financed by the creditor, the fee is not part of the amount financed under § 1026.18(b). In this case, the amount financed is the same as the total loan amount: $9,600 ($10,000, less $400 in prepaid finance charges).
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for an appraisal conducted by someone other than the creditor or an affiliate, the $300 fee is not included with other points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(iii). In this case, the amount financed is the same as the total loan amount: $9,900 ($10,000 plus the $300 fee for an independently-conducted appraisal that is financed by the creditor, less the $400 paid in cash and deducted as prepaid finance charges).
</P>
<P>iv. If the consumer finances a $300 fee for a creditor-conducted appraisal and a $500 single premium for optional credit unemployment insurance, and pays $400 in prepaid finance charges at closing, the amount financed under § 1026.18(b) is $10,400 ($10,000, plus the $300 appraisal fee that is paid to and financed by the creditor, plus the $500 insurance premium that is financed by the creditor, less $400 in prepaid finance charges). The $300 appraisal fee paid to the creditor is added to other points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii), and the $500 insurance premium is added under 1026.32(b)(1)(iv). The $300 and $500 costs are deducted from the amount financed ($10,400) to derive a total loan amount of $9,600.
</P>
<P><I>32(b)(6) Prepayment penalty.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of prepayment penalties; closed-end credit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(6)(i), the following are examples of prepayment penalties:
</P>
<P>i. A charge determined by treating the loan balance as outstanding for a period of time after prepayment in full and applying the interest rate to such “balance,” even if the charge results from interest accrual amortization used for other payments in the transaction under the terms of the loan contract. “Interest accrual amortization” refers to the method by which the amount of interest due for each period (<I>e.g.,</I> month) in a transaction's term is determined. For example, “monthly interest accrual amortization” treats each payment as made on the scheduled, monthly due date even if it is actually paid early or late (until the expiration of any grace period). Thus, under the terms of a loan contract providing for monthly interest accrual amortization, if the amount of interest due on May 1 for the preceding month of April is $3,000, the loan contract will require payment of $3,000 in interest for the month of April whether the payment is made on April 20, on May 1, or on May 10. In this example, if the consumer prepays the loan in full on April 20 and if the accrued interest as of that date is $2,000, then assessment of a charge of $3,000 constitutes a prepayment penalty of $1,000 because the amount of interest actually earned through April 20 is only $2,000.
</P>
<P>ii. A fee, such as an origination or other loan closing cost, that is waived by the creditor on the condition that the consumer does not prepay the loan. However, the term prepayment penalty does not include a waived bona fide third-party charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer pays all of a covered transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due sooner than 36 months after consummation. For example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup the $3,000 in waived charges if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 charge is not a prepayment penalty. In contrast, for example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup $4,500, in part to recoup waived charges, if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 that the creditor may impose to cover the waived bona fide third-party charges is not a prepayment penalty, but the additional $1,500 charge is a prepayment penalty and subject to the restrictions under § 1026.43(g).
</P>
<P>iii. A minimum finance charge in a simple interest transaction.
</P>
<P>iv. Computing a refund of unearned interest by a method that is less favorable to the consumer than the actuarial method, as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d). For purposes of computing a refund of unearned interest, if using the actuarial method defined by applicable State law results in a refund that is greater than the refund calculated by using the method described in section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, creditors should use the State law definition in determining if a refund is a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees that are not prepayment penalties; closed-end credit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(6)(i), fees that are not prepayment penalties include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Fees imposed for preparing and providing documents when a loan is paid in full if such fees are imposed whether or not the loan is prepaid. Examples include a loan payoff statement, a reconveyance document, or another document releasing the creditor's security interest in the dwelling that secures the loan.
</P>
<P>ii. Loan guarantee fees.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of prepayment penalties; open-end credit.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(6)(ii), the term <I>prepayment penalty</I> includes a charge, including a waived closing cost, imposed by the creditor if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan prior to the end of its term. This includes a charge imposed if the consumer terminates the plan outright or, for example, if the consumer terminates the plan in connection with obtaining a new loan or plan with the current holder of the existing plan, a servicer acting on behalf of the current holder, or an affiliate of either. However, the term <I>prepayment penalty</I> does not include a waived bona fide third-party charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer terminates the open-end credit plan during the first 36 months after account opening.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees that are not prepayment penalties; open-end credit.</I> For purposes of § 1026.32(b)(6)(ii), fees that are not prepayment penalties include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Fees imposed for preparing and providing documents when an open-end credit plan is terminated, if such fees are imposed whether or not the consumer terminates the plan prior to the end of its term. Examples include a payoff statement, a reconveyance document, or another document releasing the creditor's security interest in the dwelling that secures the line of credit.
</P>
<P>ii. Loan guarantee fees.
</P>
<P>iii. Any fee that the creditor may impose in lieu of termination and acceleration under comment 40(f)(2)-2.
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(2) Annual percentage rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosing annual percentage rate for open-end high-cost mortgages.</I> In disclosing the annual percentage rate for an open-end, high-cost mortgage under § 1026.32(c)(2), creditors must comply with § 1026.6(a)(1). If a fixed-rate, discounted introductory or initial interest rate is offered on the transaction, § 1026.32(c)(2) requires a creditor to disclose the annual percentage rate of the fixed-rate, discounted introductory or initial interest rate feature, and the rate that would apply when the feature expires.
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(3) Regular payment; minimum periodic payment example; balloon payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Balloon payment.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.32(d)(1)(ii) and (iii), a mortgage transaction subject to this section may not include a payment schedule that results in a balloon payment.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(c)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The regular payment is the amount due from the consumer at regular intervals, such as monthly, bimonthly, quarterly, or annually. There must be at least two payments, and the payments must be in an amount and at such intervals that they fully amortize the amount owed. In disclosing the regular payment, creditors may rely on the rules set forth in § 1026.18(g); however, the amounts for voluntary items, such as credit life insurance, may be included in the regular payment disclosure only if the consumer has previously agreed to the amounts.
</P>
<P>i. If the loan has more than one payment level, the regular payment for each level must be disclosed. For example:
</P>
<P>A. In a 30-year graduated payment mortgage where there will be payments of $300 for the first 120 months, $400 for the next 120 months, and $500 for the last 120 months, each payment amount must be disclosed, along with the length of time that the payment will be in effect.
</P>
<P>B. If interest and principal are paid at different times, the regular amount for each must be disclosed.
</P>
<P>C. In discounted or premium variable-rate transactions where the creditor sets the initial interest rate and later rate adjustments are determined by an index or formula, the creditor must disclose both the initial payment based on the discount or premium and the payment that will be in effect thereafter. Additional explanatory material which does not detract from the required disclosures may accompany the disclosed amounts. For example, if a monthly payment is $250 for the first six months and then increases based on an index and margin, the creditor could use language such as the following: “Your regular monthly payment will be $250 for six months. After six months your regular monthly payment will be based on an index and margin, which currently would make your payment $350. Your actual payment at that time may be higher or lower.”
</P>
<P><I>32(c)(4) Variable-rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculating “worst-case” payment example.</I> For a closed-end credit transaction, creditors may rely on instructions in § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(B) for calculating the maximum possible increases in rates in the shortest possible timeframe, based on the face amount of the note (not the hypothetical loan amount of $10,000 required by § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(B)). The creditor must provide a maximum payment for each payment level, where a payment schedule provides for more than one payment level and more than one maximum payment amount is possible. For an open-end credit plan, the maximum monthly payment must be based on the following assumptions:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer borrows the full credit line at account opening with no additional extensions of credit.
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer makes only minimum periodic payments during the draw period and any repayment period.
</P>
<P>iii. If the annual percentage rate may increase during the plan, the maximum annual percentage rate that is included in the contract, as required by § 1026.30, applies to the plan at account opening.
</P>
<HD3>32(c)(5) Amount Borrowed
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Optional insurance; debt-cancellation coverage.</I> This disclosure is required when the amount borrowed in a refinancing includes premiums or other charges for credit life, accident, health, or loss-of-income insurance, or debt-cancellation coverage (whether or not the debt-cancellation coverage is insurance under applicable law) that provides for cancellation of all or part of the consumer's liability in the event of the loss of life, health, or income or in the case of accident. See comment 4(d)(3)-2 and comment app. G and H-2 regarding terminology for debt-cancellation coverage.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 32(d) Limitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Additional prohibitions applicable under other sections.</I> Section 1026.34 sets forth certain prohibitions in connection with high-cost mortgages, in addition to the limitations in § 1026.32(d). Further, § 1026.35(b) prohibits certain practices in connection with closed-end transactions that meet the coverage test in § 1026.35(a). Because the coverage test in § 1026.35(a) is generally broader than the coverage test in § 1026.32(a), most closed-end high-cost mortgages are also subject to the prohibitions set forth in § 1026.35(b) (such as escrows), in addition to the limitations in § 1026.32(d).
</P>
<HD3>32(d)(1)(i) Balloon Payment
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> The repayment schedule for a high-cost mortgage must fully amortize the outstanding principal balance through “regular periodic payments.” A payment is a “regular periodic payment” if it is not more than two times the amount of other payments. For purposes of open-end credit plans, the term “regular periodic payment” or “periodic payment” means the required minimum periodic payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Repayment period.</I> If the terms of an open-end credit plan provide for a repayment period during which no further draws may be taken, the limitations in § 1026.32(d)(1)(i) apply to regular periodic payments required by the credit plan during the draw period, but do not apply to any adjustment in the regular periodic payment that results from the transition from the credit plan's draw period to its repayment period. Further, the limitation on balloon payments in § 1026.32(d)(1)(i) does not preclude increases in regular periodic payments that result solely from the initial draw or additional draws on the credit line during the draw period.
</P>
<P>3. <I>No repayment period.</I> If the terms of an open-end credit plan do not provide for a repayment period, the repayment schedule must fully amortize any outstanding principal balance in the draw period through regular periodic payments. However, the limitation on balloon payments in § 1026.32(d)(1)(i) does not preclude increases in regular periodic payments that result solely from the initial draw or additional draws on the credit line during the draw period.
</P>
<HD3>32(d)(2) Negative Amortization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Negative amortization.</I> The prohibition against negative amortization in a high-cost mortgage does not preclude reasonable increases in the principal balance that result from events permitted by the legal obligation unrelated to the payment schedule. For example, when a consumer fails to obtain property insurance and the creditor purchases insurance, the creditor may add a reasonable premium to the consumer's principal balance, to the extent permitted by applicable law and the consumer's legal obligation.
</P>
<HD3>32(d)(4) Increased Interest Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate transactions.</I> The limitation on interest rate increases does not apply to rate increases resulting from changes in accordance with the legal obligation in a variable-rate transaction, even if the increase occurs after default by the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>32(d)(5) Rebates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of refunds.</I> The limitation applies only to refunds of precomputed (such as add-on) interest and not to any other charges that are considered finance charges under § 1026.4 (for example, points and fees paid at closing). The calculation of the refund of interest includes odd-days interest, whether paid at or after consummation.
</P>
<HD3>32(d)(8) Acceleration of debt.
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 32(d)(8)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fraud or material misrepresentation.</I> A creditor may terminate a loan or open-end credit agreement and accelerate the balance if there has been fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the loan or open-end credit agreement. What constitutes fraud or misrepresentation is determined by applicable State law and may include acts of omission as well as overt acts, as long as any necessary intent on the part of the consumer exists.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 32(d)(8)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Failure to meet repayment terms.</I> A creditor may terminate a loan or open-end credit agreement and accelerate the balance when the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms resulting in a default in payment under the agreement; a creditor may do so, however, only if the consumer actually fails to make payments resulting in a default in the agreement. For example, a creditor may not terminate and accelerate if the consumer, in error, sends a payment to the wrong location, such as a branch rather than the main office of the creditor. If a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy, the creditor may terminate and accelerate under § 1026.32(d)(8)(ii) if the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms resulting in a default of the agreement. Section 1026.32(d)(8)(ii) does not override any State or other law that requires a creditor to notify a consumer of a right to cure, or otherwise places a duty on the creditor before it can terminate a loan or open-end credit agreement and accelerate the balance.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 32(d)(8)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Impairment of security.</I> A creditor may terminate a loan or open-end credit agreement and accelerate the balance if the consumer's action or inaction adversely affects the creditor's security for the loan, or any right of the creditor in that security. Action or inaction by third parties does not, in itself, permit the creditor to terminate and accelerate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. A creditor may terminate and accelerate, for example, if:
</P>
<P>A. The consumer transfers title to the property or sells the property without the permission of the creditor.
</P>
<P>B. The consumer fails to maintain required insurance on the dwelling.
</P>
<P>C. The consumer fails to pay taxes on the property.
</P>
<P>D. The consumer permits the filing of a lien senior to that held by the creditor.
</P>
<P>E. The sole consumer obligated on the credit dies.
</P>
<P>F. The property is taken through eminent domain.
</P>
<P>G. A prior lienholder forecloses.
</P>
<P>ii. By contrast, the filing of a judgment against the consumer would be cause for termination and acceleration only if the amount of the judgment and collateral subject to the judgment is such that the creditor's security is adversely and materially affected in violation of the loan or open-end credit agreement. If the consumer commits waste or otherwise destructively uses or fails to maintain the property, including demolishing or removing structures from the property, such that the action adversely affects the security in a material way, the loan or open-end credit agreement may be terminated and the balance accelerated. Illegal use of the property by the consumer would permit termination and acceleration if it subjects the property to seizure. If one of two consumers obligated on a loan dies, the creditor may terminate the loan and accelerate the balance if the security is adversely affected. If the consumer moves out of the dwelling that secures the loan and that action adversely affects the security in a material way, the creditor may terminate a loan or open-end credit agreement and accelerate the balance.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.33—Requirements for Reverse Mortgages
</HD2>
<HD3>33(a) Definition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Nonrecourse transaction.</I> A nonrecourse reverse mortgage transaction limits the homeowner's liability to the proceeds of the sale of the home (or any lesser amount specified in the credit obligation). If a transaction structured as a closed-end reverse mortgage transaction allows recourse against the consumer, and the annual percentage rate or the points and fees exceed those specified under § 1026.32(a)(1), the transaction is subject to all the requirements of § 1026.32, including the limitations concerning balloon payments and negative amortization.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 33(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Default.</I> Default is not defined by the statute or regulation, but rather by the legal obligation between the parties and state or other law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definite term or maturity date.</I> To meet the definition of a reverse mortgage transaction, a creditor cannot require any principal, interest, or shared appreciation or equity to be due and payable (other than in the case of default) until after the consumer's death, transfer of the dwelling, or the consumer ceases to occupy the dwelling as a principal dwelling. Some state laws require legal obligations secured by a mortgage to specify a definite maturity date or term of repayment in the instrument. An obligation may state a definite maturity date or term of repayment and still meet the definition of a reverse-mortgage transaction if the maturity date or term of repayment used would not operate to cause maturity prior to the occurrence of any of the maturity events recognized in the regulation. For example, some reverse mortgage programs specify that the final maturity date is the borrower's 150th birthday; other programs include a shorter term but provide that the term is automatically extended for consecutive periods if none of the other maturity events has yet occurred. These programs would be permissible.
</P>
<HD3>33(c) Projected Total Cost of Credit
</HD3>
<HD3>33(c)(1) Costs to Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Costs and charges to consumer—relation to finance charge.</I> All costs and charges to the consumer that are incurred in a reverse mortgage transaction are included in the projected total cost of credit, and thus in the total annual loan cost rates, whether or not the cost or charge is a finance charge under § 1026.4.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Annuity costs.</I> As part of the credit transaction, some creditors require or permit a consumer to purchase an annuity that immediately—or at some future time—supplements or replaces the creditor's payments. The amount paid by the consumer for the annuity is a cost to the consumer under this section, regardless of whether the annuity is purchased through the creditor or a third party, or whether the purchase is mandatory or voluntary. For example, this includes the costs of an annuity that a creditor offers, arranges, assists the consumer in purchasing, or that the creditor is aware the consumer is purchasing as a part of the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disposition costs excluded.</I> Disposition costs incurred in connection with the sale or transfer of the property subject to the reverse mortgage are not included in the costs to the consumer under this paragraph. (However, see the definition of Val<E T="52">n</E>in appendix K to the regulation to determine the effect certain disposition costs may have on the total annual loan cost rates.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 33(c)(2) Payments to Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payments upon a specified event.</I> The projected total cost of credit should not reflect contingent payments in which a credit to the outstanding loan balance or a payment to the consumer's estate is made upon the occurrence of an event (for example, a “death benefit” payable if the consumer's death occurs within a certain period of time). Thus, the table of total annual loan cost rates required under § 1026.33(b)(2) would not reflect such payments. At its option, however, a creditor may put an asterisk, footnote, or similar type of notation in the table next to the applicable total annual loan cost rate, and state in the body of the note, apart from the table, the assumption upon which the total annual loan cost is made and any different rate that would apply if the contingent benefit were paid.
</P>
<HD3>33(c)(3) Additional Creditor Compensation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Shared appreciation or equity.</I> Any shared appreciation or equity that the creditor is entitled to receive pursuant to the legal obligation must be included in the total cost of a reverse mortgage loan. For example, if a creditor agrees to a reduced interest rate on the transaction in exchange for a portion of the appreciation or equity that may be realized when the dwelling is sold, that portion is included in the projected total cost of credit.
</P>
<HD3>33(c)(4) Limitations on Consumer Liability
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Creditors must include any limitation on the consumer's liability (such as a nonrecourse limit or an equity conservation agreement) in the projected total cost of credit. These limits and agreements protect a portion of the equity in the dwelling for the consumer or the consumer's estate. For example, the following are limitations on the consumer's liability that must be included in the projected total cost of credit:
</P>
<P>i. A limit on the consumer's liability to a certain percentage of the projected value of the home.
</P>
<P>ii. A limit on the consumer's liability to the net proceeds from the sale of the property subject to the reverse mortgage.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Uniform assumption for “net proceeds” recourse limitations.</I> If the legal obligation between the parties does not specify a percentage for the “net proceeds” liability of the consumer, for purposes of the disclosures required by § 1026.33, a creditor must assume that the costs associated with selling the property will equal 7 percent of the projected sale price (see the definition of the Val<E T="52">n</E> symbol under appendix K(b)(6)).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.34—Prohibited Acts or Practices in Connection With High-Cost Mortgages
</HD2>
<HD3>34(a) Prohibited Acts or Practices for High-Cost Mortgages
</HD3>
<HD3>34(a)(1) Home-Improvement Contracts
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Joint payees.</I> If a creditor pays a contractor with an instrument jointly payable to the contractor and the consumer, the instrument must name as payee each consumer who is primarily obligated on the note.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(2) Notice to Assignee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent sellers or assignors.</I> Any person, whether or not the original creditor, that sells or assigns a mortgage subject to § 1026.32 must furnish the notice of potential liability to the purchaser or assignee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> While the notice of potential liability need not be in any particular format, the notice must be prominent. Placing it on the face of the note, such as with a stamp, is one means of satisfying the prominence requirement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Assignee liability.</I> Pursuant to section 131(d) of the Act, the Act's general holder-in-due course protections do not apply to purchasers and assignees of loans covered by § 1026.32. For such loans, a purchaser's or other assignee's liability for all claims and defenses that the consumer could assert against the creditor is not limited to violations of the Act.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(3) Refinancings Within One-Year Period
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In the borrower's interest.</I> The determination of whether or not a refinancing covered by § 1026.34(a)(3) is in the borrower's interest is based on the totality of the circumstances, at the time the credit is extended. A written statement by the borrower that “this loan is in my interest” alone does not meet this standard.
</P>
<P>i. A refinancing would be in the borrower's interest if needed to meet the borrower's “bona fide personal financial emergency” (see generally § 1026.23(e) and § 1026.31(c)(1)(iii)).
</P>
<P>ii. In connection with a refinancing that provides additional funds to the borrower, in determining whether a loan is in the borrower's interest consideration should be given to whether the loan fees and charges are commensurate with the amount of new funds advanced, and whether the real estate-related charges are bona fide and reasonable in amount (see generally § 1026.4(c)(7)).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application of the one-year refinancing prohibition to creditors and assignees.</I> The prohibition in § 1026.34(a)(3) applies where an extension of credit subject to § 1026.32 is refinanced into another loan subject to § 1026.32. The prohibition is illustrated by the following examples. Assume that Creditor A makes a loan subject to § 1026.32 on January 15, 2003, secured by a first lien; this loan is assigned to Creditor B on February 15, 2003:
</P>
<P>i. Creditor A is prohibited from refinancing the January 2003 loan (or any other loan subject to § 1026.32 to the same borrower) into a loan subject to § 1026.32, until January 15, 2004. Creditor B is restricted until January 15, 2004, or such date prior to January 15, 2004 that Creditor B ceases to hold or service the loan. During the prohibition period, Creditors A and B may make a subordinate lien loan that does not refinance a loan subject to § 1026.32. Assume that on April 1, 2003, Creditor A makes but does not assign a second-lien loan subject to § 1026.32. In that case, Creditor A would be prohibited from refinancing either the first-lien or second-lien loans (or any other loans to that borrower subject to § 1026.32) into another loan subject to § 1026.32 until April 1, 2004.
</P>
<P>ii. The loan made by Creditor A on January 15, 2003 (and assigned to Creditor B) may be refinanced by Creditor C at any time. If Creditor C refinances this loan on March 1, 2003 into a new loan subject to § 1026.32, Creditor A is prohibited from refinancing the loan made by Creditor C (or any other loan subject to § 1026.32 to the same borrower) into another loan subject to § 1026.32 until January 15, 2004. Creditor C is similarly prohibited from refinancing any loan subject to § 1026.32 to that borrower into another until March 1, 2004. (The limitations of § 1026.34(a)(3) no longer apply to Creditor B after Creditor C refinanced the January 2003 loan and Creditor B ceased to hold or service the loan.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(4) Repayment Ability for High-Cost Mortgages
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application of repayment ability rule.</I> The § 1026.34(a)(4) prohibition against making loans without regard to consumers' repayment ability applies to open-end, high-cost mortgages. The § 1026.43 repayment ability provisions apply to closed-end, high-cost mortgages. Accordingly, in connection with a closed-end, high-cost mortgage, § 1026.34(a)(4) requires a creditor to comply with the repayment ability requirements set forth in § 1026.43.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General prohibition.</I> Section 1026.34(a)(4) prohibits a creditor from extending credit under a high-cost, open-end credit plan based on the value of the consumer's collateral without regard to the consumer's repayment ability as of account opening, including the consumer's current and reasonably expected income, employment, assets other than the collateral, current obligations, and property tax and insurance obligations. A creditor may base its determination of repayment ability on current or reasonably expected income from employment or other sources, on assets other than the collateral, or both.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other dwelling-secured obligations.</I> For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(4), current obligations include another credit obligation of which the creditor has knowledge undertaken prior to or at account opening and secured by the same dwelling that secures the high-cost mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Discounted introductory rates and non-amortizing payments.</I> A credit agreement may determine a consumer's initial payments using a temporarily discounted interest rate or permit the consumer to make initial payments that are non-amortizing. In such cases the creditor may determine repayment ability using the assumptions provided in § 1026.34(a)(4)(iv).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Repayment ability as of account opening.</I> Section 1026.34(a)(4) prohibits a creditor from disregarding repayment ability based on the facts and circumstances known to the creditor as of account opening. In general, a creditor does not violate this provision if a consumer defaults because of a significant reduction in income (for example, a job loss) or a significant obligation (for example, an obligation arising from a major medical expense) that occurs after account opening. However, if a creditor has knowledge as of account opening of reductions in income (for example, if a consumer's written application states that the consumer plans to retire within twelve months without obtaining new employment, or states that the consumer will transition from full-time to part-time employment), the creditor must consider that information.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Income, assets, and employment.</I> Any current or reasonably expected assets or income may be considered by the creditor, except the collateral itself. For example, a creditor may use information about current or expected salary, wages, bonus pay, tips, and commissions. Employment may be full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment. Other sources of income could include interest or dividends; retirement benefits; public assistance; and alimony, child support, or separate maintenance payments. A creditor may also take into account assets such as savings accounts or investments that the consumer can or will be able to use.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Interaction with Regulation B.</I> Section 1026.34(a)(4) does not require or permit the creditor to make inquiries or verifications that would be prohibited by Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(4)(i) Mortgage-Related Obligations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage-related obligations.</I> A creditor must include in its repayment ability analysis the expected property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor as set forth in § 1026.35(b), as well as similar mortgage-related expenses. Similar mortgage-related expenses include homeowners' association dues and condominium or cooperative fees.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(4)(ii) Verification of Repayment Ability
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Income and assets relied on.</I> A creditor must verify the income and assets the creditor relies on to evaluate the consumer's repayment ability. For example, if a consumer earns a salary and also states that he or she is paid an annual bonus, but the creditor only relies on the applicant's salary to evaluate repayment ability, the creditor need only verify the salary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Income and assets—co-applicant.</I> If two persons jointly apply for credit and both list income or assets on the application, the creditor must verify repayment ability with respect to both applicants unless the creditor relies only on the income or assets of one of the applicants in determining repayment ability.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Expected income.</I> If a creditor relies on expected income, the expectation must be reasonable and it must be verified with third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's expected income. For example, if the creditor relies on an expectation that a consumer will receive an annual bonus, the creditor may verify the basis for that expectation with documents that show the consumer's past annual bonuses and the expected bonus must bear a reasonable relationship to past bonuses. Similarly, if the creditor relies on a consumer's expected salary following the consumer's receipt of an educational degree, the creditor may verify that expectation with a written statement from an employer indicating that the consumer will be employed upon graduation at a specified salary.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form W-2.</I> A creditor may verify a consumer's income using a consumer's IRS Form W-2 (or any subsequent revisions or similar IRS Forms used for reporting wages and tax withholding). The creditor may also use an electronic retrieval service for obtaining the consumer's W-2 information.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Tax returns.</I> A creditor may verify a consumer's income or assets using the consumer's tax return. A creditor may also use IRS Form 4506 “Request for Copy of Tax Return,” Form 4506-T “Request for Transcript of Tax Return,” or Form 8821 “Tax Information Authorization” (or any subsequent revisions or similar IRS Forms appropriate for obtaining tax return information directly from the IRS) to verify the consumer's income or assets. The creditor may also use an electronic retrieval service for obtaining tax return information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other third-party documents that provide reasonably reliable evidence of consumer's income or assets.</I> Creditors may verify income and assets using documents produced by third parties. Creditors may not rely on information provided orally by third parties, but may rely on correspondence from the third party, such as by letter or email. The creditor may rely on any third-party document that provides reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets. For example, creditors may verify the consumer's income using receipts from a check-cashing or remittance service, or by obtaining a written statement from the consumer's employer that states the consumer's income.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Information specific to the consumer.</I> Creditors must verify a consumer's income or assets using information that is specific to the individual consumer. Creditors may use third-party databases that contain individual-specific data about a consumer's income or assets, such as a third-party database service used by the consumer's employer for the purpose of centralizing income verification requests, so long as the information is reasonably current and accurate. Information about average incomes for the consumer's occupation in the consumer's geographic location or information about average incomes paid by the consumer's employer, however, would not be specific to the individual consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Duplicative collection of documentation.</I> A creditor that has made a loan to a consumer and is refinancing or extending new credit to the same consumer need not collect from the consumer a document the creditor previously obtained if the creditor has no information that would reasonably lead the creditor to believe that document has changed since it was initially collected. For example, if the creditor has obtained the consumer's 2006 tax return to make a home purchase loan in May 2007, the creditor may rely on the 2006 tax return if the creditor makes a home equity loan to the same consumer in August 2007. Similarly, if the creditor has obtained the consumer's bank statement for May 2007 in making the first loan, the creditor may rely on that bank statement for that month in making the subsequent loan in August 2007.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A credit report may be used to verify current obligations. A credit report, however, might not reflect an obligation that a consumer has listed on an application. The creditor is responsible for considering such an obligation, but the creditor is not required to independently verify the obligation. Similarly, a creditor is responsible for considering certain obligations undertaken just before or at account opening and secured by the same dwelling that secures the transaction (for example, a “piggy back” loan), of which the creditor knows, even if not reflected on a credit report. <I>See</I> comment 34(a)(4)-3.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(4)(iii) Presumption of Compliance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor is presumed to have complied with § 1026.34(a)(4) if the creditor follows the three underwriting procedures specified in paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii) for verifying repayment ability, determining the payment obligation, and measuring the relationship of obligations to income. The procedures for verifying repayment ability are required under § 1026.34(a)(4)(ii); the other procedures are not required but, if followed along with the required procedures, create a presumption that the creditor has complied with § 1026.34(a)(4). The consumer may rebut the presumption with evidence that the creditor nonetheless disregarded repayment ability despite following these procedures. For example, evidence of a very high debt-to-income ratio and a very limited residual income could be sufficient to rebut the presumption, depending on all of the facts and circumstances. If a creditor fails to follow one of the non-required procedures set forth in § 1026.34(a)(4)(iii), then the creditor's compliance is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without there being a presumption of either compliance or violation.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determination of payment schedule.</I> To retain a presumption of compliance under § 1026.34(a)(4)(iii), a creditor must determine the consumer's ability to pay the principal and interest obligation based on the maximum scheduled payment. In general, a creditor should determine a payment schedule for purposes of § 1026.34(a)(4)(iii)(B) based on the guidance in the commentary to § 1026.32(c)(3).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 34(a)(4)(iii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>“Income” and “debt”.</I> To determine whether to classify particular inflows or obligations as “income” or “debt,” creditors may look to widely accepted governmental and non-governmental underwriting standards, including, for example, those set forth in the Federal Housing Administration's handbook on Mortgage Credit Analysis for Mortgage Insurance.
</P>
<HD3>34(a)(4)(iv) Exclusions From Presumption of Compliance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The exclusions from the presumption of compliance should be interpreted consistent with comments 32(d)(1)(i)-1 and 32(d)(2)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewable balloon loan.</I> If a creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew a balloon-payment loan at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control), the full term resulting from such renewal is the relevant term for purposes of the exclusion of certain balloon-payment loans. See comment 17(c)(1)-11 for a discussion of conditions within a consumer's control in connection with renewable balloon-payment loans.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5) Pre-loan counseling.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5)(i) Certification of counseling required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>HUD-approved counselor.</I> For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(5), counselors approved by the Secretary of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development are homeownership counselors certified pursuant to section 106(e) of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1701x(e)), or as otherwise determined by the Secretary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>State housing finance authority.</I> For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(5), a “State housing finance authority” has the same meaning as “State housing finance agency” provided in 24 CFR 214.3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Processing applications.</I> Prior to receiving certification of counseling, a creditor may not extend a high-cost mortgage, but may engage in other activities, such as processing an application that will result in the extension of a high-cost mortgage (by, for example, ordering an appraisal or title search).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Form of certification.</I> The written certification of counseling required by § 1026.34(a)(5)(i) may be received by mail, email, facsimile, or any other method, so long as the certification is in a retainable form.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Purpose of certification.</I> Certification of counseling indicates that a consumer has received counseling as required by § 1026.34(a)(5), but it does not indicate that a counselor has made a judgment or determination as to the appropriateness of the transaction for the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5)(ii) Timing of counseling.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures for open-end credit plans.</I> Section 1026.34(a)(5)(ii) permits receipt of either the disclosure required by section 5(c) of RESPA or the disclosures required under § 1026.40 to allow counseling to occur. Pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.7(h), the disclosures required by § 1026.40 can be provided for open-end plans in lieu of the usual disclosure required by section 5(c) of RESPA.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transactions not subject to RESPA or § 1026.40.</I> For closed-end mortgage transactions that are not subject to RESPA, the counseling certification must include a statement that the consumer(s) received counseling on the advisability of the high-cost mortgage based on the terms provided in the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c). (Reference to counseling on advisability using the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c) is not required for transactions subject to RESPA or § 1026.40.) The disclosures required by § 1026.32(c) must be furnished to the consumer at least three business days prior to consummation of the mortgage. The creditor may wish to furnish the disclosures sooner, to provide sufficient time for counseling and certification.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Initial disclosure.</I> Counseling may occur after receipt of either an initial disclosure required by section 5(c) of RESPA, the disclosures required by § 1026.40, or the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c), regardless of whether revised versions of such disclosures are subsequently provided to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5)(iv) Content of certification.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statement of counseling on advisability.</I> A statement that a consumer has received counseling on the advisability of the high-cost mortgage means that the consumer has received counseling about key terms of the mortgage transaction, as set out in either the disclosure required by section 5(c) of RESPA or the disclosures provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1026.40, or, for closed-end transactions not subject to RESPA, the disclosures required by § 1026.32(c); the consumer's budget, including the consumer's income, assets, financial obligations, and expenses; and the affordability of the mortgage transaction for the consumer. Examples of such terms of the mortgage transaction include the initial interest rate, the initial monthly payment, whether the payment may increase, how the minimum periodic payment will be determined, and fees imposed by the creditor, as may be reflected in the applicable disclosure. A statement that a consumer has received counseling on the advisability of the high-cost mortgage does not require the counselor to have made a judgment or determination as to the appropriateness of the mortgage transaction for the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statement of verification.</I> A statement that a counselor has verified that the consumer has received the disclosures required by either § 1026.32(c) or by RESPA for the high-cost mortgage means that a counselor has confirmed, orally, in writing, or by some other means, receipt of such disclosures with the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5)(v) Counseling fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Financing.</I> Section 1026.34(a)(5)(v) does not prohibit a creditor from financing the counseling fee as part of the transaction for a high-cost mortgage, if the fee is a bona fide third-party charge as provided by § 1026.32(b)(5)(i).
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(5)(vi) Steering prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. An example of an action that constitutes steering would be when a creditor repeatedly highlights or otherwise distinguishes the same counselor in the notices the creditor provides to consumers pursuant to § 1026.34(a)(5)(vii).
</P>
<P>2. Section 1026.34(a)(5)(vi) does not prohibit a creditor from providing a consumer with objective information related to counselors or counseling organizations in response to a consumer's inquiry. An example of an action that would not constitute steering would be when a consumer asks the creditor for information about the fees charged by a counselor, and the creditor responds by providing the consumer information about fees charged by the counselor to other consumers that previously obtained counseling pursuant to § 1026.34(a)(5).
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(6) Recommended default.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Facts and circumstances.</I> Whether a creditor or mortgage broker “recommends or encourages” default for purposes of § 1026.34(a)(6) depends on all of the relevant facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. A creditor or mortgage broker “recommends or encourages” default when the creditor or mortgage broker advises the consumer to stop making payments on an existing loan in a manner that is likely to cause the consumer to default on the existing loan.
</P>
<P>ii. When delay of consummation of a high-cost mortgage occurs for reasons outside the control of a creditor or mortgage broker, that creditor or mortgage broker does not “recommend or encourage” default because the creditor or mortgage broker informed a consumer that:
</P>
<P>A. The consumer's high-cost mortgage is scheduled to be consummated prior to the due date for the next payment due on the consumer's existing loan, which is intended to be paid by the proceeds of the new high-cost mortgage; and
</P>
<P>B. Any delay of consummation of the new high-cost mortgage beyond the payment due date of the existing loan will not relieve the consumer of the obligation to make timely payment on that loan.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(8) Late fees.</I>
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(8)(i) General.</I>
</P>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(8), in connection with an open-end credit plan, the amount of the payment past due is the required minimum periodic payment as provided under the terms of the open-end credit agreement.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(8)(iii) Multiple late charges assessed on payment subsequently paid.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Section 1026.34(a)(8)(iii) prohibits the pyramiding of late fees or charges in connection with a high-cost mortgage payment. For example, assume that a consumer's regular periodic payment of $500 is due on the 1st of each month. On August 25, the consumer makes a $500 payment which was due on August 1, and as a result, a $10 late charge is assessed. On September 1, the consumer makes another $500 payment for the regular periodic payment due on September 1, but does not pay the $10 late charge assessed on the August payment. Under § 1026.34(h)(2), it is impermissible to allocate $10 of the consumer's September 1 payment to cover the late charge, such that the September payment becomes delinquent. In short, because the $500 payment made on September 1 is a full payment for the applicable period and is paid by its due date or within any applicable grace period, no late charge may be imposed on the account in connection with the September payment.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(8)(iv) Failure to make required payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Under § 1026.34(a)(8)(iv), if a consumer fails to make one or more required payments and then resumes making payments but fails to bring the account current, it is permissible, if permitted by the terms of the loan contract or open-end credit agreement, to apply the consumer's payments first to the past due payment(s) and to impose a late charge on each subsequent required payment until the account is brought current. To illustrate: Assume that a consumer's regular periodic payment of $500 is due on the 1st of each month, or before the expiration of a 15-day grace period. Also assume that the consumer fails to make a timely installment payment by August 1 (or within the applicable grace period), and a $10 late charge therefore is imposed. The consumer resumes making monthly payments on September 1. Under § 1026.34(a)(8)(iv), if permitted by the terms of the loan contract, the creditor may apply the $500 payment made on September 1 to satisfy the missed $500 payment that was due on August 1. If the consumer makes no other payment prior to the end of the grace period for the payment that was due on September 1, the creditor may also impose a $10 late fee for the payment that was due on September 1.
</P>
<P><I>34(a)(10) Financing of points and fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Points and fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(10), “points and fees” means those items that are required to be included in the calculation of points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1) and (2). Thus, for example, in connection with the extension of credit under a high-cost mortgage, a creditor may finance a fee charged by a third-party counselor in connection with the consumer's receipt of pre-loan counseling under § 1026.34(a)(5), because, pursuant to § 1026.32(b)(1)(i)(D) and (b)(2)(i)(D), such a fee is excluded from the calculation of points and fees as a bona fide third-party charge.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of financing points and fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.34(a)(10), points and fees are financed if, for example, they are added to the loan balance or financed through a separate note, if the note is payable to the creditor or to an affiliate of the creditor. In the case of an open-end credit plan, a creditor also finances points and fees if the creditor advances funds from the credit line to cover the fees.
</P>
<P><I>34(b) Prohibited acts or practices for dwelling-secured loans; structuring loans to evade high-cost mortgage requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> i. A creditor structures a transaction in violation of § 1026.34(b) if, for example, the creditor structures a loan that would otherwise be a high-cost mortgage as two or more loans, whether made consecutively or at the same time, for example, to divide the loan fees to avoid the points and fees threshold for high-cost mortgages in § 1026.32(a)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor does not structure a transaction in violation of § 1026.34(b) when a loan to finance the initial construction of a dwelling may be permanently financed by the same creditor, such as a “construction-to-permanent” loan, and the construction phase and the permanent phase are treated as separate transactions. Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) permits the creditor to give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See also</I> comment 17(c)(6)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> Where a loan is documented as open-end credit but the features and terms or other circumstances demonstrate that it does not meet the definition of open-end credit, the loan is subject to the rules for closed-end credit. Thus, in determining the “total loan amount” for purposes of applying the triggers under § 1026.32, the amount of credit that would have been extended if the loan had been documented as a closed-end loan is a factual determination to be made in each case. Factors to be considered include the amount of money the consumer originally requested, the amount of the first advance or the highest outstanding balance, or the amount of the credit line. The full amount of the credit line is considered only to the extent that it is reasonable to expect that the consumer might use the full amount of credit.
</P>
<HD3>34(b) Prohibited Acts or Practices for Dwelling-Secured Loans; Open-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> Where a loan is documented as open-end credit but the features and terms or other circumstances demonstrate that it does not meet the definition of open-end credit, the loan is subject to the rules for closed-end credit, including § 1026.32 if the rate or fee trigger is met. In applying the triggers under § 1026.32, the “amount financed,” including the “principal loan amount” must be determined. In making the determination, the amount of credit that would have been extended if the loan had been documented as a closed-end loan is a factual determination to be made in each case. Factors to be considered include the amount of money the consumer originally requested, the amount of the first advance or the highest outstanding balance, or the amount of the credit line. The full amount of the credit line is considered only to the extent that it is reasonable to expect that the consumer might use the full amount of credit.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.35—Requirements for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans
</HD2>
<HD3>35(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(a)(1)</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Comparable transaction.</I> A higher-priced mortgage loan is a consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the specified margin. The table of average prime offer rates published by the Bureau indicates how to identify the comparable transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rate set.</I> A transaction's annual percentage rate is compared to the average prime offer rate as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set (or “locked”) before consummation. Sometimes a creditor sets the interest rate initially and then re-sets it at a different level before consummation. The creditor should use the last date the interest rate is set before consummation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold for “jumbo” loans.</I> Section 1026.35(a)(1)(ii) provides a separate threshold for determining whether a transaction is a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to § 1026.35 when the principal balance exceeds the limit in effect as of the date the transaction's rate is set for the maximum principal obligation eligible for purchase by Freddie Mac (a “jumbo” loan). The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) establishes and adjusts the maximum principal obligation pursuant to rules under 12 U.S.C. 1454(a)(2) and other provisions of federal law. Adjustments to the maximum principal obligation made by FHFA apply in determining whether a mortgage loan is a “jumbo” loan to which the separate coverage threshold in § 1026.35(a)(1)(ii) applies.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> Average prime offer rates are annual percentage rates derived from average interest rates, points, and other loan pricing terms currently offered to consumers by a representative sample of creditors for mortgage transactions that have low-risk pricing characteristics. Other pricing terms include commonly used indices, margins, and initial fixed-rate periods for variable-rate transactions. Relevant pricing characteristics include a consumer's credit history and transaction characteristics such as the loan-to-value ratio, owner-occupant status, and purpose of the transaction. To obtain average prime offer rates, the Bureau uses a survey of creditors that both meets the criteria of § 1026.35(a)(2) and provides pricing terms for at least two types of variable-rate transactions and at least two types of non-variable-rate transactions. An example of such a survey is the Freddie Mac Primary Mortgage Market Survey®.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Bureau table.</I> The Bureau publishes on the Internet, in table form, average prime offer rates for a wide variety of transaction types. The Bureau calculates an annual percentage rate, consistent with Regulation Z (<I>see</I> § 1026.22 and appendix J), for each transaction type for which pricing terms are available from a survey. The Bureau estimates annual percentage rates for other types of transactions for which direct survey data are not available based on the loan pricing terms available in the survey and other information. The Bureau publishes on the Internet the methodology it uses to arrive at these estimates.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional guidance on determination of average prime offer rates.</I> The average prime offer rate has the same meaning in § 1026.35 as in Regulation C, 12 CFR part 1003. See 12 CFR 1003.4(a)(12)(ii). Guidance on the average prime offer rate under § 1026.35(a)(2), such as when a transaction's rate is set and determination of the comparable transaction, is provided in the official commentary under Regulation C, the publication entitled “A Guide to HMDA Reporting: Getting it Right!”, and the relevant “Frequently Asked Questions” on Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) compliance posted on the FFIEC's Web site at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/hmda.</I>
</P>
<HD3>35(b) Escrow Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> Section 1026.35(b)(1) applies to principal dwellings, including structures that are classified as personal property under State law. For example, an escrow account must be established on a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a first lien on a manufactured home, boat, or trailer used as the consumer's principal dwelling. <I>See</I> the commentary under §§ 1026.2(a)(19) and(24), 1026.15, and 1026.23. Section 1026.35(b)(1) also applies to a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a first lien on a condominium if it is in fact used as the consumer's principal dwelling. But see § 1026.35(b)(2) for exemptions from the escrow requirement that may apply to such transactions.
</P>
<HD3>35(b)(1) Requirement to escrow for property taxes and insurance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Administration of escrow accounts.</I> Section 1026.35(b)(1) requires creditors to establish an escrow account for payment of property taxes and premiums for mortgage-related insurance required by the creditor before the consummation of a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling. Section 6 of RESPA, 12 U.S.C. 2605, and Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17, address how escrow accounts must be administered.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Optional insurance items.</I> Section 1026.35(b)(1) does not require that an escrow account be established for premiums for mortgage-related insurance that the creditor does not require in connection with the credit transaction, such as earthquake insurance or credit life insurance, even if the consumer voluntarily obtains such insurance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transactions not subject to § 1026.35(b)(1).</I> Section 1026.35(b)(1) requires a creditor to establish an escrow account before consummation of a first-lien higher-priced mortgage loan. This requirement does not affect a creditor's ability, right, or obligation, pursuant to the terms of the legal obligation or applicable law, to offer or require an escrow account for a transaction that is not subject to § 1026.35(b)(1).


</P>
<HD3>35(b)(2) Exemptions
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Construction-permanent loans.</I> Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(ii)(B), § 1026.35 does not apply to a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. Section 1026.35 may apply, however, to permanent financing that replaces a construction loan, whether the permanent financing is extended by the same or a different creditor. When a construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) permits the creditor to give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See also</I> comment 17(c)(6)-2. Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) addresses only how a creditor may elect to disclose a construction-permanent transaction. Which disclosure option a creditor elects under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) does not affect the determination of whether the permanent phase of the transaction is subject to § 1026.35. When the creditor discloses the two phases as separate transactions, the annual percentage rate for the permanent phase must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine whether the transaction is a higher-priced mortgage loan under § 1026.35(a). When the creditor discloses the two phases as a single transaction, a single annual percentage rate, reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases, must be calculated for the transaction in accordance with § 1026.22(a)(1) and appendix D to part 1026. This annual percentage rate must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine the transaction is a higher-priced mortgage loan under § 1026.35(a). If the transaction is determined to be a higher-priced mortgage loan, only the permanent phase is subject to the requirement of § 1026.35(b)(1) to establish and maintain an escrow account, and the period for which the escrow account must remain in place under § 1026.35(b)(3) is measured from the time the conversion to the permanent phase financing occurs.


</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limited exemption.</I> A creditor is required to escrow for payment of property taxes for all first-lien higher-priced mortgage loans secured by condominium, planned unit development, or similar dwellings or units regardless of whether the creditor escrows for insurance premiums for such dwellings or units.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Planned unit developments.</I> Planned unit developments (PUDs) are a form of property ownership often used in retirement communities, golf communities, and similar communities made up of homes located within a defined geographical area. PUDs usually have a homeowners' association or some other governing association, analogous to a condominium association and with similar authority and obligations. Thus, as with condominiums, PUDs often have master insurance policies that cover all units in the PUD. Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(ii), if a PUD's governing association is obligated to maintain such a master insurance policy, an escrow account required by § 1026.35(b)(1) for a transaction secured by a unit in the PUD need not include escrows for insurance. This exemption applies not only to condominiums and PUDs but also to any other type of property ownership arrangement that has a governing association with an obligation to maintain a master insurance policy.
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<P>3. <I>More than one governing association associated with a dwelling.</I> The limited exemption provided pursuant to § 1026.35(b)(2)(ii) applies to each master insurance policy for properties with multiple governing associations, to the extent each governing association has an obligation to maintain a master insurance policy.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirements for exemption.</I> Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii), except as provided in § 1026.35(b)(2)(v), a creditor need not establish an escrow account for taxes and insurance for a higher-priced mortgage loan, provided the following four conditions are satisfied when the higher-priced mortgage loan is consummated:
</P>
<P>i. During the preceding calendar year, or during either of the two preceding calendar years if the application for the loan was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, a creditor extended a first-lien covered transaction, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by a property located in an area that is either “rural” or “underserved,” as set forth in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>A. In general, whether the rural-or-underserved test is satisfied depends on the creditor's activity during the preceding calendar year. However, if the application for the loan in question was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, the creditor may instead meet the rural-or-underserved test based on its activity during the next-to-last calendar year. This provides creditors with a grace period if their activity meets the rural-or-underserved test (in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A)) in one calendar year but fails to meet it in the next calendar year.
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<P>B. A creditor meets the rural-or-underserved test for any higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during a calendar year if it extended a first-lien covered transaction in the preceding calendar year secured by a property located in a rural-or-underserved area. If the creditor does not meet the rural-or-underserved test in the preceding calendar year, the creditor meets this condition for a higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during the current calendar year only if the application for the loan was received before April 1 of the current calendar year and the creditor extended a first-lien covered transaction during the next-to-last calendar year that is secured by a property located in a rural or underserved area. The following examples are illustrative:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Assume that a creditor extended during 2016 a first-lien covered transaction that is secured by a property located in a rural or underserved area. Because the creditor extended a first-lien covered transaction during 2016 that is secured by a property located in a rural or underserved area, the creditor can meet this condition for exemption for any higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2017.
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<P><I>2.</I> Assume that a creditor did not extend during 2016 a first-lien covered transaction secured by a property that is located in a rural or underserved area. Assume further that the same creditor extended during 2015 a first-lien covered transaction that is located in a rural or underserved area. Assume further that the creditor consummates a higher-priced mortgage loan in 2017 for which the application was received in November 2017. Because the creditor did not extend during 2016 a first-lien covered transaction secured by a property that is located in a rural or underserved area, and the application was received on or after April 1, 2017, the creditor does not meet this condition for exemption. However, assume instead that the creditor consummates a higher-priced mortgage loan in 2017 based on an application received in February 2017. The creditor meets this condition for exemption for this loan because the application was received before April 1, 2017, and the creditor extended during 2015 a first-lien covered transaction that is located in a rural or underserved area.
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<P>ii. The creditor and its affiliates together extended no more than 2,000 covered transactions, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred by the creditor or its affiliates to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person, during the preceding calendar year or during either of the two preceding calendar years if the application for the loan was received before April 1 of the current calendar year. For purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B), a transfer of a first-lien covered transaction to “another person” includes a transfer by a creditor to its affiliate.
</P>
<P>A. In general, whether this condition is satisfied depends on the creditor's activity during the preceding calendar year. However, if the application for the loan in question is received before April 1 of the current calendar year, the creditor may instead meet this condition based on activity during the next-to-last calendar year. This provides creditors with a grace period if their activity falls at or below the threshold in one calendar year but exceeds it in the next calendar year.
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<P>B. For example, assume that in 2015 a creditor and its affiliates together extended 1,500 loans that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred by the creditor or its affiliates to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person, and 2,500 such loans in 2016. Because the 2016 transaction activity exceeds the threshold but the 2015 transaction activity does not, the creditor satisfies this condition for exemption for a higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2017 if the creditor received the application for the loan before April 1, 2017, but does not satisfy this condition for a higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2017 if the application for the loan was received on or after April 1, 2017.
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<P>C. For purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B), extensions of first-lien covered transactions, during the applicable time period, by all of a creditor's affiliates, as “affiliate” is defined in § 1026.32(b)(5), are counted toward the threshold in this section. “Affiliate” is defined in § 1026.32(b)(5) as “any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another company, as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>).” Under the Bank Holding Company Act, a company has control over a bank or another company if it directly or indirectly or acting through one or more persons owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 per centum or more of any class of voting securities of the bank or company; it controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors or trustees of the bank or company; or the Federal Reserve Board determines, after notice and opportunity for hearing, that the company directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of the bank or company. 12 U.S.C. 1841(a)(2).
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<P>iii. As of the end of the preceding calendar year, or as of the end of either of the two preceding calendar years if the application for the loan was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, the creditor and its affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions secured by first liens, together, had total assets that are less than the applicable annual asset threshold.
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<P>A. For purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(C), in addition to the creditor's assets, only the assets of a creditor's “affiliate” (as defined by § 1026.32(b)(5)) that regularly extended covered transactions (as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1)) secured by first liens, are counted toward the applicable annual asset threshold. <I>See</I> comment 35(b)(2)(iii)-1.ii.C for discussion of definition of “affiliate.”
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<P>B. Only the assets of a creditor's affiliate that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during the applicable period are included in calculating the creditor's assets. The meaning of “regularly extended” is based on the number of times a person extends consumer credit for purposes of the definition of “creditor” in § 1026.2(a)(17). Because covered transactions are “transactions secured by a dwelling,” consistent with § 1026.2(a)(17)(v), an affiliate regularly extended covered transactions if it extended more than five covered transactions in a calendar year. Also consistent with § 1026.2(a)(17)(v), because a covered transaction may be a high-cost mortgage subject to § 1026.32, an affiliate regularly extends covered transactions if, in any 12-month period, it extends more than one covered transaction that is subject to the requirements of § 1026.32 or one or more such transactions through a mortgage broker. Thus, if a creditor's affiliate regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during the preceding calendar year, the creditor's assets as of the end of the preceding calendar year, for purposes of the asset limit, take into account the assets of that affiliate. If the creditor, together with its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions, exceeded the asset limit in the preceding calendar year—to be eligible to operate as a small creditor for transactions with applications received before April 1 of the current calendar year—the assets of the creditor's affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions in the year before the preceding calendar year are included in calculating the creditor's assets.
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<P>C. If multiple creditors share ownership of a company that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions, the assets of the company count toward the asset limit for a co-owner creditor if the company is an “affiliate,” as defined in § 1026.32(b)(5), of the co-owner creditor. Assuming the company is not an affiliate of the co-owner creditor by virtue of any other aspect of the definition (such as by the company and co-owner creditor being under common control), the company's assets are included toward the asset limit of the co-owner creditor only if the company is controlled by the co-owner creditor, “as set forth in the Bank Holding Company Act.” If the co-owner creditor and the company are affiliates (by virtue of any aspect of the definition), the co-owner creditor counts all of the company's assets toward the asset limit, regardless of the co-owner creditor's ownership share. Further, because the co-owner and the company are mutual affiliates the company also would count all of the co-owner's assets towards its own asset limit. <I>See</I> comment 35(b)(2)(iii)-1.ii.C for discussion of the definition of “affiliate.”
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<P>D. A creditor satisfies the criterion in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(C) for purposes of any higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2016, for example, if the creditor (together with its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions) had total assets of less than the applicable asset threshold on December 31, 2015. A creditor that (together with its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions) did not meet the applicable asset threshold on December 31, 2015, satisfies this criterion for a higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2016 if the application for the loan was received before April 1, 2016, and the creditor (together with its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions) had total assets of less than the applicable asset threshold on December 31, 2014.
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<P>E. Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(C), the $2,000,000,000 asset threshold adjusts automatically each year based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million dollars. The Bureau will publish notice of the asset threshold each year by amending this comment. For calendar year 2026, the asset threshold is $2,785,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2025 has total assets of less than $2,785,000,000 on December 31, 2025, satisfies this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2026 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2027 for which the application was received before April 1, 2027. For historical purposes:
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<P><I>1.</I> For calendar year 2013, the asset threshold was $2,000,000,000. Creditors that had total assets of less than $2,000,000,000 on December 31, 2012, satisfied this criterion for purposes of the exemption during 2013.
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<P><I>2.</I> For calendar year 2014, the asset threshold was $2,028,000,000. Creditors that had total assets of less than $2,028,000,000 on December 31, 2013, satisfied this criterion for purposes of the exemption during 2014.
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<P><I>3.</I> For calendar year 2015, the asset threshold was $2,060,000,000. Creditors that had total assets of less than $2,060,000,000 on December 31, 2014, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2015 and, if the creditor's assets together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2014 were less than that amount, for purposes of any loan consummated in 2016 for which the application was received before April 1, 2016.
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<P><I>4.</I> For calendar year 2016, the asset threshold was $2,052,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2015 had total assets of less than $2,052,000,000 on December 31, 2015, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2016 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2017 for which the application was received before April 1, 2017.
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<P><I>5.</I> For calendar year 2017, the asset threshold was $2,069,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2016 had total assets of less than $2,069,000,000 on December 31, 2016, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2017 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2018 for which the application was received before April 1, 2018.
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<P><I>6.</I> For calendar year 2018, the asset threshold was $2,112,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2017 had total assets of less than $2,112,000,000 on December 31, 2017, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2018 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2019 for which the application was received before April 1, 2019.
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<P><I>7.</I> For calendar year 2019, the asset threshold was $2,167,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2018 had total assets of less than $2,167,000,000 on December 31, 2018, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2019 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2020 for which the application was received before April 1, 2020.
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<P><I>8.</I> For calendar year 2020, the asset threshold was $2,202,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2019 had total assets of less than $2,202,000,000 on December 31, 2019, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2020 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2021 for which the application was received before April 1, 2021.
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<P><I>9.</I> For calendar year 2021, the asset threshold was $2,230,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2020 had total assets of less than $2,230,000,000 on December 31, 2020, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2021 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2022 for which the application was received before April 1, 2022.
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<P><I>10.</I> For calendar year 2022, the asset threshold was $2,336,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2021 had total assets of less than $2,336,000,000 on December 31, 2021, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2022 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2023 for which the application was received before April 1, 2023.
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<P><I>11.</I> For calendar year 2023, the asset threshold was $2,537,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2022 had total assets of less than $2,537,000,000 on December 31, 2022, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2023 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2024 for which the application was received before April 1, 2024.
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<P><I>12.</I> For calendar year 2024, the asset threshold was $2,640,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2023 had total assets of less than $2,640,000,000 on December 31, 2023, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2024 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2025 for which the application was received before April 1, 2025.
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<P><I>13.</I> For calendar year 2025, the asset threshold was $2,717,000,000. A creditor that together with the assets of its affiliates that regularly extended first-lien covered transactions during calendar year 2024 had total assets of less than $2,717,000,000 on December 31, 2024, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2025 and for purposes of any loan consummated in 2026 for which the application was received before April 1, 2026.
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<P>iv. The creditor and its affiliates do not maintain an escrow account for any mortgage transaction being serviced by the creditor or its affiliate at the time the transaction is consummated, except as provided in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>). Thus, the exemption applies, provided the other conditions of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) (or, if applicable, the conditions for the exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)) are satisfied, even if the creditor previously maintained escrow accounts for mortgage loans, provided it no longer maintains any such accounts except as provided in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>). Once a creditor or its affiliate begins escrowing for loans currently serviced other than those addressed in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>), however, the creditor and its affiliate become ineligible for the exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) and (vi) on higher-priced mortgage loans they make while such escrowing continues. Thus, as long as a creditor (or its affiliate) services and maintains escrow accounts for any mortgage loans, other than as provided in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>), the creditor will not be eligible for the exemption for any higher-priced mortgage loan it may make. For purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) and (vi), a creditor or its affiliate “maintains” an escrow account only if it services a mortgage loan for which an escrow account has been established at least through the due date of the second periodic payment under the terms of the legal obligation.






</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(1)</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Exception for certain accounts.</I> Escrow accounts established for first-lien higher-priced mortgage loans for which applications were received on or after April 1, 2010, and before June 17, 2021, are not counted for purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D). For applications received on and after June 17, 2021, creditors, together with their affiliates, that establish new escrow accounts, other than those described in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), do not qualify for the exemptions provided under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) and (vi). Creditors, together with their affiliates, that continue to maintain escrow accounts established for first-lien higher-priced mortgage loans for which applications were received on or after April 1, 2010, and before June 17, 2021, still qualify for the exemptions provided under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) and (vi) so long as they do not establish new escrow accounts for transactions for which they received applications on or after June 17, 2021, other than those described in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), and they otherwise qualify under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) or (vi).


</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(2)</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Exception for post-consummation escrow accounts for distressed consumers.</I> An escrow account established after consummation for a distressed consumer does not count for purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D). Distressed consumers are consumers who are working with the creditor or servicer to attempt to bring the loan into a current status through a modification, deferral, or other accommodation to the consumer. A creditor, together with its affiliates, that establishes escrow accounts after consummation as a regular business practice, regardless of whether consumers are in distress, does not qualify for the exception described in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>).






</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(iv).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Requirements for “rural” or “underserved” status.</I> An area is considered to be “rural” or “underserved” during a calendar year for purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A) if it satisfies either the definition for “rural” or the definition for “underserved” in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv). A creditor's extensions of covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens on properties located in such areas are considered in determining whether the creditor satisfies the condition in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A). <I>See</I> comment 35(b)(2)(iii)-1.
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<P>i. Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A), an area is rural during a calendar year if it is: A county that is neither in a metropolitan statistical area nor in a micropolitan statistical area that is adjacent to a metropolitan statistical area; or a census block that is not in an urban area, as defined by the U.S. Census Bureau using the latest decennial census of the United States. Metropolitan statistical areas and micropolitan statistical areas are defined by the Office of Management and Budget and applied under currently applicable Urban Influence Codes (UICs), established by the United States Department of Agriculture's Economic Research Service (USDA-ERS). For purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>), “adjacent” has the meaning applied by the USDA-ERS in determining a county's UIC; as so applied, “adjacent” entails a county not only being physically contiguous with a metropolitan statistical area but also meeting certain minimum population commuting patterns. A county is a “rural” area under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) if the USDA-ERS categorizes the county under UIC 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, or 12. Descriptions of UICs are available on the USDA-ERS website at <I>http://www.ers.usda.gov/data-products/urban-influence-codes/documentation.aspx.</I> A county for which there is no currently applicable UIC (because the county has been created since the USDA-ERS last categorized counties) is a rural area only if all counties from which the new county's land was taken are themselves rural under currently applicable UICs.
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<P>ii. Under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(B), an area is underserved during a calendar year if, according to Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA) data for the preceding calendar year, it is a county in which no more than two creditors extended covered transactions, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, five or more times on properties in the county. Specifically, a county is an “underserved” area if, in the applicable calendar year's public HMDA aggregate dataset, no more than two creditors have reported five or more first-lien covered transactions, with HMDA geocoding that places the properties in that county.
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<P>iii. A. Each calendar year, the Bureau applies the “underserved” area test and the “rural” area test to each county in the United States. If a county satisfies either test, the Bureau will include the county on a list of counties that are rural or underserved as defined by § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(B) for a particular calendar year, even if the county contains census blocks that are designated by the Census Bureau as urban. To facilitate compliance with appraisal requirements in § 1026.35(c), the Bureau also creates a list of those counties that are rural under the Bureau's definition without regard to whether the counties are underserved. To the extent that U.S. territories are treated by the Census Bureau as counties and are neither metropolitan statistical areas nor micropolitan statistical areas adjacent to metropolitan statistical areas, such territories will be included on these lists as rural areas in their entireties. The Bureau will post on its public website the applicable lists for each calendar year by the end of that year to assist creditors in ascertaining the availability to them of the exemption during the following year. Any county that the Bureau includes on these lists of counties that are rural or underserved under the Bureau's definitions for a particular year is deemed to qualify as a rural or underserved area for that calendar year for purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv), even if the county contains census blocks that are designated by the Census Bureau as urban. A property located in such a listed county is deemed to be located in a rural or underserved area, even if the census block in which the property is located is designated as urban.
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<P>B. A property is deemed to be in a rural or underserved area according to the definitions in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv) during a particular calendar year if it is identified as such by an automated tool provided on the Bureau's public website. A printout or electronic copy from the automated tool provided on the Bureau's public website designating a particular property as being in a rural or underserved area may be used as “evidence of compliance” that a property is in a rural or underserved area, as defined in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A) and (B), for purposes of the record retention requirements in § 1026.25.
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<P>C. The U.S. Census Bureau may provide on its public website an automated address search tool that specifically indicates if a property is located in an urban area for purposes of the Census Bureau's most recent delineation of urban areas. For any calendar year that began after the date on which the Census Bureau announced its most recent delineation of urban areas, a property is deemed to be in a rural area if the search results provided for the property by any such automated address search tool available on the Census Bureau's public website do not designate the property as being in an urban area. A printout or electronic copy from such an automated address search tool available on the Census Bureau's public website designating a particular property as not being in an urban area may be used as “evidence of compliance” that the property is in a rural area, as defined in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A), for purposes of the record retention requirements in § 1026.25.
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<P>D. For a given calendar year, a property qualifies for a safe harbor if any of the enumerated safe harbors affirms that the property is in a rural or underserved area or not in an urban area. For example, the Census Bureau's automated address search tool may indicate a property is in an urban area, but the Bureau's rural or underserved counties list indicates the property is in a rural or underserved county. The property in this example is in a rural or underserved area because it qualifies under the safe harbor for the rural or underserved counties list. The lists of counties posted on the Bureau's public website, the automated tool on its public website, and the automated address search tool available on the Census Bureau's public website, are not the exclusive means by which a creditor can demonstrate that a property is in a rural or underserved area as defined in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A) and (B). However, creditors are required to retain “evidence of compliance” in accordance with § 1026.25, including determinations of whether a property is in a rural or underserved area as defined in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A) and (B).
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. An area is considered “rural” for a given calendar year based on the most recent available UIC designations by the USDA-ERS and the most recent available delineations of urban areas by the U.S. Census Bureau that are available at the beginning of the calendar year. These designations and delineations are updated by the USDA-ERS and the U.S. Census Bureau respectively once every ten years. As an example, assume a creditor makes first-lien covered transactions in Census Block X that is located in County Y during calendar year 2017. As of January 1, 2017, the most recent UIC designations were published in the second quarter of 2013, and the most recent delineation of urban areas was announced in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in 2012, <I>see</I> U.S. Census Bureau, <I>Qualifying Urban Areas for the 2010 Census,</I> 77 FR 18652 (Mar. 27, 2012). To determine whether County Y is rural under the Bureau's definition during calendar year 2017, the creditor can use USDA-ERS's 2013 UIC designations. If County Y is not rural, the creditor can use the U.S. Census Bureau's 2012 delineation of urban areas to determine whether Census Block X is rural and is therefore a “rural” area for purposes of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A).
</P>
<P>ii. A county is considered an “underserved” area for a given calendar year based on the most recent available HMDA data. For example, assume a creditor makes first-lien covered transactions in County Y during calendar year 2016, and the most recent HMDA data are for calendar year 2015, published in the third quarter of 2016. The creditor will use the 2015 HMDA data to determine “underserved” area status for County Y in calendar year 2016 for the purposes of qualifying for the “rural or underserved” exemption for any higher-priced mortgage loans consummated in calendar year 2017 or for any higher-priced mortgage loan consummated during 2018 for which the application was received before April 1, 2018.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be transferred or sold to a purchaser pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the loan is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” Even if a creditor is otherwise eligible for an exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi), a first-lien higher-priced mortgage loan that will be acquired by a purchaser pursuant to a forward commitment is subject to the requirement to establish an escrow account under § 1026.35(b)(1) unless the purchaser is also eligible for an exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi), or the transaction is otherwise exempt under § 1026.35(b)(2). The escrow requirement applies to any such transaction, whether the forward commitment provides for the purchase and sale of the specific transaction or for the purchase and sale of mortgage obligations with certain prescribed criteria that the transaction meets. For example, assume a creditor that qualifies for an exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi) makes a higher-priced mortgage loan that meets the purchase criteria of an investor with which the creditor has an agreement to sell such mortgage obligations after consummation. If the investor is ineligible for an exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi), an escrow account must be established for the transaction before consummation in accordance with § 1026.35(b)(1) unless the transaction is otherwise exempt (such as a reverse mortgage or home equity line of credit).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. For guidance on applying the grace periods for determining asset size or transaction thresholds under § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)(A), (B) and (C), the rural or underserved requirement, or other aspects of the exemption in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi) not specifically discussed in the commentary to § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi), an insured depository institution or insured credit union may refer to the commentary to § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii), while allowing for differences between the features of the two exemptions.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(vi)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. The asset threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)(A) will adjust automatically each year, based on the year-to-year change in the average of the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers, not seasonally adjusted, for each 12-month period ending in November, with rounding to the nearest million dollars. Unlike the asset threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii) and the other thresholds in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi), affiliates are not considered in calculating compliance with this threshold. The Bureau will publish notice of the asset threshold each year by amending this comment. For calendar year 2026, the asset threshold is $12,485,000,000. A creditor that is an insured depository institution or insured credit union that during calendar year 2025 had assets of $12,485,000,000 or less on December 31, 2025, satisfies this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2026 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2027 for which the application was received before April 1, 2027. For historical purposes:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> For calendar year 2021, the asset threshold was $10,000,000,000. Creditors that had total assets of 10,000,000,000 or less on December 31, 2020, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2021 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2022 for which the application was received before April 1, 2022.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> For calendar year 2022, the asset threshold was $10,473,000,000. Creditors that had total assets of $10,473,000,000 or less on December 31, 2021, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2022 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2023 for which the application was received before April 1, 2023.
</P>
<P><I>3.</I> For calendar year 2023, the asset threshold was $11,374,000,000. A creditor that is an insured depository institution or insured credit union that during calendar year 2022 had assets of $11,374,000,000 or less on December 31, 2022, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2023 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2024 for which the application was received before April 1, 2024.
</P>
<P><I>4.</I> For calendar year 2024, the asset threshold was $11,835,000,000. A creditor that is an insured depository institution or insured credit union that during calendar year 2023 had assets of $11,835,000,000 or less on December 31, 2023, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2024 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2025 for which the application was received before April 1, 2025.
</P>
<P><I>5.</I> For calendar year 2025, the asset threshold was $12,179,000,000. A creditor that is an insured depository institution or insured credit union that during calendar year 2024 had assets of $12,179,000,000 or less on December 31, 2024, satisfied this criterion for purposes of any loan consummated in 2025 and for purposes of any loan secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling of a consumer consummated in 2026 for which the application was received before April 1, 2026.










</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 35(b)(2)(vi)(B)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. The transaction threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)(B) differs from the transaction threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) in two ways. First, the threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)(B) is 1,000 loans secured by first liens on a principal dwelling, while the threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) is 2,000 loans secured by first liens on a dwelling. Second, all loans made by the creditor and its affiliates secured by a first lien on a principal dwelling count toward the 1,000-loan threshold in § 1026.35(b)(2)(vi)(B), whether or not such loans are held in portfolio. By contrast, under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B), only loans secured by first liens on a dwelling that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person, are counted toward the 2,000-loan threshold.








</P>
<P><I>35(b)(3) Cancellation.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Termination of underlying debt obligation.</I> Section 1026.35(b)(3)(i) provides that, in general, an escrow account required by § 1026.35(b)(1) may not be cancelled until the underlying debt obligation is terminated or the consumer requests cancellation at least five years after consummation. Methods by which an underlying debt obligation may be terminated include, among other things, repayment, refinancing, rescission, and foreclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum durations.</I> Section 1026.35(b)(3) establishes minimum durations for which escrow accounts established pursuant to § 1026.35(b)(1) must be maintained. This requirement does not affect a creditor's right or obligation, pursuant to the terms of the legal obligation or applicable law, to offer or require an escrow account thereafter.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Less than eighty percent unpaid principal balance.</I> The term “original value” in § 1026.35(b)(3)(ii)(A) means the lesser of the sales price reflected in the sales contract for the property, if any, or the appraised value of the property at the time the transaction was consummated. In determining whether the unpaid principal balance has reached less than 80 percent of the original value of the property securing the underlying debt, the creditor or servicer shall count any subordinate lien of which it has reason to know. If the consumer certifies in writing that the equity in the property securing the underlying debt obligation is unencumbered by a subordinate lien, the creditor or servicer may rely upon the certification in making its determination unless it has actual knowledge to the contrary.
</P>
<HD2>35(c)—Appraisals
</HD2>
<HD3>35(c)(1) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>35(c)(1)(i) Certified or Licensed Appraiser
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>USPAP.</I> The Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) are established by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(9)). Under § 1026.35(c)(1)(i), the relevant USPAP standards are those found in the edition of USPAP and that are in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> The appraiser's certification refers to the certification that must be signed by the appraiser for each appraisal assignment. This requirement is specified in USPAP Standards Rule 2-3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>FIRREA title XI and implementing regulations.</I> The relevant regulations are those prescribed under section 1110 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA), as amended (12 U.S.C. 3339), that relate to an appraiser's development and reporting of the appraisal in effect at the time the appraiser signs the appraiser's certification. Paragraph (3) of FIRREA section 1110 (12 U.S.C. 3339(3)), which relates to the review of appraisals, is not relevant for determining whether an appraiser is a certified or licensed appraiser under § 1026.35(c)(1)(i).
</P>
<HD3>35(c)(2) Exemptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Compliance with title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA).</I> Section 1026.35(c)(2) provides exemptions solely from the requirements of section 1026.35(c)(3) through (6). Institutions subject to the requirements of FIRREA and its implementing regulations that make a loan qualifying for an exemption under section 1026.35(c)(2) must still comply with appraisal and evaluation requirements under FIRREA and its implementing regulations.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Qualified mortgage criteria.</I> Under § 1026.35(c)(2)(i), a loan is exempt from the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c) if either:
</P>
<P>i. The loan is—(1) subject to the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in § 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in § 1026.43(b)(1)) and (2) a qualified mortgage pursuant to the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD), U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA), U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), or Rural Housing Service (RHS), a qualified mortgage pursuant to applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's definition of a qualified mortgage applies to those loans); or
</P>
<P>ii. The loan is—(1) not subject to the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in § 1026.43 as a “covered transaction” (defined in § 1026.43(b)(1)), but (2) meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the Bureau's rules or, for loans insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, meets the criteria for a qualified mortgage in the applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). To explain further, loans enumerated in § 1026.43(a) are not “covered transactions” under the Bureau's ability-to-repay requirements in § 1026.43, and thus cannot be qualified mortgages (entitled to a rebuttable presumption or safe harbor of compliance with the ability-to-repay requirements of § 1026.43, <I>see, e.g.,</I> § 1026.43(e)(1)). These include an extension of credit made pursuant to a program administered by a Housing Finance Agency, as defined under 24 CFR 266.5, or pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (vi). They also include extensions of credit made by a creditor identified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v). However, these loans are eligible for the exemption in § 1026.35(c)(2)(i) if they meet the Bureau's qualified mortgage criteria in § 1026.43(e)(2), (4), (5), or (6) or § 1026.43(f) (including limits on when loans must be consummated) or, for loans that are insured, guaranteed, or administered by HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS, in applicable rules prescribed by those agencies (but only once such rules are in effect; otherwise, the Bureau's criteria for a qualified mortgage applies to those loans). For example, assume that HUD has prescribed rules to define loans insured under its programs that are qualified mortgages and those rules are in effect. Assume further that a creditor designated as a Community Development Financial Institution, as defined under 12 CFR 1805.104(h), originates a loan insured by the Federal Housing Administration, which is a part of HUD. The loan is not a “covered transaction” and thus is not a qualified mortgage. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(A) and (b)(1). Nonetheless, the transaction is eligible for an exemption from the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c) if it meets the qualified mortgage criteria in HUD's rules. Nothing in § 1026.35(c)(2)(i) alters the definition of a qualified mortgage under regulations of the Bureau, HUD, VA, USDA, or RHS.




</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Threshold amount.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-3 for that period. The threshold amount is adjusted effective January 1 of each year by any annual percentage increase in the Consumer Price Index for Urban Wage Earners and Clerical Workers (CPI-W) that was in effect on the preceding June 1. Comment 35(c)(2)(ii)-3 will be amended to provide the threshold amount for the upcoming year after the annual percentage change in the CPI-W that was in effect on June 1 becomes available. Any increase in the threshold amount will be rounded to the nearest $100 increment. For example, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $950 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $1,000. However, if the annual percentage increase in the CPI-W would result in a $949 increase in the threshold amount, the threshold amount will be increased by $900.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No increase in the CPI-W.</I> If the CPI-W in effect on June 1 does not increase from the CPI-W in effect on June 1 of the previous year, the threshold amount effective the following January 1 through December 31 will not change from the previous year. When this occurs, for the years that follow, the threshold is calculated based on the annual percentage change in the CPI-W applied to the dollar amount that would have resulted, after rounding, if decreases and any subsequent increases in the CPI-W had been taken into account.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Net increases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is greater than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will increase accordingly.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Net decreases.</I> If the resulting amount calculated, after rounding, is equal to or less than the current threshold, then the threshold effective January 1 the following year will not change, but future increases will be calculated based on the amount that would have resulted.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Threshold.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii), the threshold amount in effect during a particular period is the amount stated in the following for that period.
</P>
<P>i. From January 18, 2014, through December 31, 2014, the threshold amount is $25,000.
</P>
<P>ii. From January 1, 2015, through December 31, 2015, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iii. From January 1, 2016, through December 31, 2016, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>iv. From January 1, 2017, through December 31, 2017, the threshold amount is $25,500.
</P>
<P>v. From January 1, 2018, through December 31, 2018, the threshold amount is $26,000.
</P>
<P>vi. From January 1, 2019, through December 31, 2019, the threshold amount is $26,700.
</P>
<P>vii. From January 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>viii. From January 1, 2021, through December 31, 2021, the threshold amount is $27,200.
</P>
<P>ix. From January 1, 2022, through December 31, 2022, the threshold amount is $28,500.
</P>
<P>x. From January 1, 2023, through December 31, 2023, the threshold amount is $31,000.
</P>
<P>xi. From January 1, 2024, through December 31, 2024, the threshold amount is $32,400.
</P>
<P>xii. From January 1, 2025, through December 31, 2025, the threshold amount is $33,500.
</P>
<P>xiii. From January 1, 2026, through December 31, 2026, the threshold amount is $34,200.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Qualifying for exemption—in general.</I> A transaction is exempt under § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii) if the creditor makes an extension of credit at consummation that is equal to or below the threshold amount in effect at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Qualifying for exemption—subsequent changes.</I> A transaction does not meet the condition for an exemption under § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii) merely because it is used to satisfy and replace an existing exempt loan unless the amount of the new extension of credit is equal to or less than the applicable threshold amount. For example, assume a closed-end loan that qualified for a § 1026.35(c)(2)(ii) exemption at consummation in year one is refinanced in year ten and that the new loan amount is greater than the threshold amount in effect in year ten. In these circumstances, the creditor must comply with all of the applicable requirements of § 1026.35(c) with respect to the year ten transaction if the original loan is satisfied and replaced by the new loan unless another exemption from the requirements of § 1026.35(c) applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.35(c)(2) and (c)(4)(vii).






</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a mobile home.</I> For purposes of the exemption in § 1026.35(c)(2)(iii), a mobile home does not include a manufactured home, as defined in § 1026.35(c)(1)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Construction-to-permanent loans.</I> Section 1026.35(c) does not apply to a transaction to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. This exclusion applies to a construction-only loan as well as to the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan. Section 1026.35(c) does apply, however, to permanent financing that replaces a construction loan, whether the permanent financing is extended by the same or a different creditor, unless the permanent financing is otherwise exempt from the requirements of § 1026.35(c). <I>See</I> § 1026.35(c)(2). When a construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the general disclosure requirements for closed-end credit (§ 1026.17) provide that the creditor may give either one combined disclosure for both the construction financing and the permanent financing, or a separate set of disclosures for each of the two phases as though they were two separate transactions. <I>See</I> § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) and comment 17(c)(6)-2. Section 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) addresses only how a creditor may elect to disclose a construction-to-permanent transaction. Which disclosure option a creditor elects under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) does not affect the determination of whether the permanent phase of the transaction is subject to § 1026.35(c). When the creditor discloses the two phases as separate transactions, the annual percentage rate for the permanent phase must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 1026.35(c). When the creditor discloses the two phases as a single transaction, a single annual percentage rate, reflecting the appropriate charges from both phases, must be calculated for the transaction in accordance with § 1026.35 and appendix D to part 1026. The annual percentage rate must be compared to the average prime offer rate for a transaction that is comparable to the permanent financing to determine coverage under § 1026.35(c). If the transaction is determined to be a higher-priced mortgage loan not otherwise exempt under § 1026.35(c)(2), only the permanent phase is subject to the requirements of § 1026.35(c).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Financing initial construction.</I> The exemption for construction loans in § 1026.35(c)(2)(iv) applies to temporary financing of the construction of a dwelling that will be replaced by permanent financing once construction is complete. The exemption does not apply, for example, to loans to finance the purchase of manufactured homes that have not been or are in the process of being built when the financing obtained by the consumer at that time is permanent. <I>See</I> § 1026.35(c)(2)(viii).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(vii)(A)(<I>1</I>)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Same credit risk holder.</I> The requirement that the holder of the credit risk on the existing obligation and the refinancing be the same applies to situations in which an entity bears the financial responsibility for the default of a loan by either holding the loan in its portfolio or guaranteeing payments of principal and any interest to investors in a mortgage-backed security in which the loan is pooled. <I>See</I> § 1026.35(c)(1)(ii) (defining “credit risk”). For example, a credit risk holder could be a bank that bears the credit risk on the existing obligation by holding the loan in the bank's portfolio. Another example of a credit risk holder would be a government-sponsored enterprise that bears the risk of default on a loan by guaranteeing the payment of principal and any interest on a loan to investors in a mortgage-backed security. The holder of credit risk under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii)(A)(<I>1</I>) does not mean individual investors in a mortgage-backed security or providers of private mortgage insurance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Same credit risk holder—illustrations.</I>
</P>
<P>Illustrations of the credit risk holder of the existing obligation continuing to be the credit risk holder of the refinancing include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a bank, thus the bank holds the credit risk. The bank arranges to refinance the loan and also will hold the refinancing in its portfolio. If the refinancing otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the bank arranged to refinance the loan directly or indirectly, such as through the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation.
</P>
<P>ii. The existing obligation is held in the portfolio of a government-sponsored enterprise (GSE), thus the GSE holds the credit risk. The existing obligation is then refinanced by the servicer of the loan and immediately transferred to the GSE. The GSE pools the refinancing in a mortgage-backed security guaranteed by the GSE, thus the GSE holds the credit risk on the refinance loan. If the refinance transaction otherwise meets the requirements for an exemption under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii), the transaction will qualify for the exemption because the credit risk holder is the same for the existing obligation and the refinance transaction. In this case, the exemption would apply regardless of whether the existing obligation was refinanced by the servicer or subservicer on the existing obligation (acting as a “creditor” under § 1026.2(a)(17)) or by a different creditor.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be sold or otherwise transferred pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the transaction is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” A refinance loan does not satisfy the requirement of § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii)(A)(<I>1</I>) if the loan will be acquired pursuant to a forward commitment, such that the credit risk on the refinance loan will transfer to a person who did not hold the credit risk on the existing obligation.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(vii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> Under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii)(B), the regular periodic payments on the refinance loan must not: result in an increase of the principal balance (negative amortization); allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal (<I>see</I> comment 43(e)(2)(i)-2); or result in a balloon payment. Thus, the terms of the legal obligation must require the consumer to make payments of principal and interest on a monthly or other periodic basis that will repay the loan amount over the loan term. Except for payments resulting from any interest rate changes after consummation in an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage, the periodic payments must be substantially equal. For an explanation of the term “substantially equal,” see comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. In addition, a single-payment transaction is not a refinancing meeting the requirements of § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii) because it does not require “regular periodic payments.”
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(vii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Permissible use of proceeds.</I> The exemption for a refinancing under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii) is available only if the proceeds from the refinancing are used exclusively for the existing obligation and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. The existing obligation includes the unpaid principal balance of the existing first lien loan, any earned unpaid finance charges, and any other lawful charges related to the existing loan. For guidance on the meaning of refinancing costs, see comment 23(f)-4. If the proceeds of a refinancing are used for other purposes, such as to pay off other liens or to provide additional cash to the consumer for discretionary spending, the transaction does not qualify for the exemption for a refinancing under § 1026.35(c)(2)(vii) from the appraisal requirements in § 1026.35(c).


</P>
<HD3>For applications received on or after July 18, 2015
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(viii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by new manufactured home and land—physical visit of the interior.</I> A transaction secured by a new manufactured home and land is subject to the requirements of § 1026.35(c)(3) through (6) except for the requirement in § 1026.35(c)(3)(i) that the appraiser conduct a physical inspection of the interior of the property. Thus, for example, a creditor of a loan secured by a new manufactured home and land could comply with § 1026.35(c)(3)(i) by obtaining an appraisal conducted by a state-certified or -licensed appraiser based on plans and specifications for the new manufactured home and an inspection of the land on which the property will be sited, as well as any other information necessary for the appraiser to complete the appraisal assignment in conformity with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice and the requirements of FIRREA and any implementing regulations.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(viii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Secured by a manufactured home and not land.</I> Section 1026.35(c)(2)(viii)(B) applies to a higher-priced mortgage loan secured by a manufactured home and not land, regardless of whether the home is titled as realty by operation of state law.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(viii)(B)(<I>2</I>)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Independent.</I> A cost service provider from which the creditor obtains a manufactured home unit cost estimate under § 1026.35(c)(2)(viii)(B)(<I>2</I>) is “independent” if that person is not affiliated with the creditor in the transaction, such as by common corporate ownership, and receives no direct or indirect financial benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustments.</I> The requirement that the cost estimate be from an independent cost service provider does not prohibit a creditor from providing a cost estimate that reflects adjustments to account for factors such as special features, condition or location. However, the requirement that the estimate be obtained from an independent cost service provider means that any adjustments to the estimate must be based on adjustment factors available as part of the independent cost service used, with associated values that are determined by the independent cost service.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(2)(viii)(C)(<I>3</I>)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Interest in the property.</I> A person has a direct or indirect in the property if, for example, the person has any ownership or reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the manufactured home. To illustrate, a person who seeks a loan to purchase the manufactured home to be valued has a reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest in the transaction.</I> A person has a direct or indirect interest in the transaction if, for example, the person or an affiliate of that person also serves as a loan officer of the creditor or otherwise arranges the credit transaction, or is the retail dealer of the manufactured home. A person also has a prohibited interest in the transaction if the person is compensated or otherwise receives financial or other benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Training in valuing manufactured homes.</I> Training in valuing manufactured homes includes, for example, successfully completing a course in valuing manufactured homes offered by a state or national appraiser association or receiving job training from an employer in the business of valuing manufactured homes.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Manufactured home valuation—example.</I> A valuation in compliance with § 1026.35(c)(2)(viii)(B)(<I>3</I>) would include, for example, an appraisal of the manufactured home in accordance with the appraisal requirements for a manufactured home classified as personal property under the Title I Manufactured Home Loan Insurance Program of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development, pursuant to section 2(b)(10) of the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1703(b)(10).


</P>
<HD3>35(c)(3) Appraisals Required
</HD3>
<HD3>35(c)(3)(i) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written appraisal—electronic transmission.</I> To satisfy the requirement that the appraisal be “written,” a creditor may obtain the appraisal in paper form or via electronic transmission.
</P>
<P>35(c)(3)(ii) Safe Harbor.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A creditor that satisfies the safe harbor conditions in § 1026.35(c)(3)(ii)(A) through (D) complies with the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c)(3)(i). A creditor that does not satisfy the safe harbor conditions in § 1026.35(c)(3)(ii)(A) through (D) does not necessarily violate the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraiser's certification.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(3)(ii), the appraiser's certification refers to the certification specified in item 9 of appendix N. <I>See also</I> comment 35(c)(1)(i)-2.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(3)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Confirming elements in the appraisal.</I> To confirm that the elements in appendix N to this part are included in the written appraisal, a creditor need not look beyond the face of the written appraisal and the appraiser's certification.
</P>
<HD3>35(c)(4) Additional Appraisal for Certain Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Acquisition.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4), the terms “acquisition” and “acquire” refer to the acquisition of legal title to the property pursuant to applicable State law, including by purchase.
</P>
<HD3>35(c)(4)(i) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Appraisal from a previous transaction.</I> An appraisal that was previously obtained in connection with the seller's acquisition or the financing of the seller's acquisition of the property does not satisfy the requirements to obtain two written appraisals under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>90-day, 180-day calculation.</I> The time periods described in § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) and (B) are calculated by counting the day after the date on which the seller acquired the property, up to and including the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property that secures the transaction. For example, assume that the creditor determines that date of the consumer's acquisition agreement is October 15, 2012, and that the seller acquired the property on April 17, 2012. The first day to be counted in the 180-day calculation would be April 18, 2012, and the last day would be October 15, 2012. In this case, the number of days from April 17 would be 181, so an additional appraisal is not required.
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<P>3. <I>Date seller acquired the property.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) and (B), the date on which the seller acquired the property is the date on which the seller became the legal owner of the property pursuant to applicable State law.
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<P>4. <I>Date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property.</I> For the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) and (B), the creditor should use the date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement provided to the creditor by the consumer. The date on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement might not be the date on which the consumer became contractually obligated under State law to acquire the property. For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) and (B), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. If the dates on which the consumer and the seller signed the agreement differ, the creditor should use the later of the two dates.
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<P>5. <I>Price at which the seller acquired the property.</I> The price at which the seller acquired the property refers to the amount paid by the seller to acquire the property. The price at which the seller acquired the property does not include the cost of financing the property.
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<P>6. <I>Price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.</I> The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property is the price indicated on the consumer's agreement with the seller to acquire the property. The price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property from the seller does not include the cost of financing the property. For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) and (B), a creditor is not obligated to determine whether and to what extent the agreement is legally binding on both parties. <I>See also</I> comment 35(c)(4)(i)-4.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(ii) Different Certified or Licensed Appraisers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Independent appraisers.</I> The requirements that a creditor obtain two separate appraisals under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i), and that each appraisal be conducted by a different licensed or certified appraiser under § 1026.35(c)(4)(ii), indicate that the two appraisals must be conducted independently of each other. If the two certified or licensed appraisers are affiliated, such as by being employed by the same appraisal firm, then whether they have conducted the appraisal independently of each other must be determined based on the facts and circumstances of the particular case known to the creditor.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(iii) Relationship to General Appraisal Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> When a creditor is required to obtain an additional appraisal under § 1026(c)(4)(i), the creditor must comply with the requirements of both § 1026.35(c)(3)(i) and § 1026.35(c)(4)(ii) through (v) for that appraisal. The creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.35(c)(3)(i) for the additional appraisal if the creditor meets the safe harbor conditions in § 1026.35(c)(3)(ii) for that appraisal.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(iv) Required Analysis in the Additional Appraisal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determining acquisition dates and prices used in the analysis of the additional appraisal.</I> For guidance on identifying the date on which the seller acquired the property, see comment 35(c)(4)(i)-3. For guidance on identifying the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property, see comment 35(c)(4)(i)-4. For guidance on identifying the price at which the seller acquired the property, see comment 35(c)(4)(i)-5. For guidance on identifying the price the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property, see comment 35(c)(4)(i)-6.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(v) No Charge for Additional Appraisal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for the performance of one of the two appraisals required under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i), including by imposing a fee specifically for that appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(vi) Creditor's Determination of Prior Sale Date and Price
</HD3>
<HD3>35(c)(4)(vi)(A) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Estimated sales price.</I> If a written source document describes the seller's acquisition price in a manner that indicates that the price described is an estimated or assumed amount and not the actual price, the creditor should look at an alternative document to satisfy the reasonable diligence standard in determining the price at which the seller acquired the property.
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<P>2. <I>Reasonable diligence—oral statements insufficient.</I> Reliance on oral statements of interested parties, such as the consumer, seller, or mortgage broker, does not constitute reasonable diligence under § 1026.35(c)(4)(vi)(A).
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<P>3. <I>Lack of information and conflicting information—two appraisals required.</I> If a creditor is unable to demonstrate that the requirement to obtain two appraisals under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i) does not apply, the creditor must obtain two written appraisals before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the requirements of § 1026.35(c). <I>See also</I> comment 35(c)(4)(vi)(B)-1. For example:
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<P>i. Assume a creditor orders and reviews the results of a title search, which shows that a prior sale occurred between 91 and 180 days ago, but not the price paid in that sale. Thus, based on the title search, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the price the consumer is obligated to pay under the consumer's acquisition agreement is more than 20 percent higher than the seller's acquisition price, pursuant to § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(B). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c), the creditor must either: (1) Perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition price and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or (2) obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 1026.35(c)(4). <I>See also</I> comment 35(c)(4)(vi)(B)-1.
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<P>ii. Assume a creditor reviews the results of a title search indicating that the last recorded purchase was more than 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. Assume also that the creditor subsequently receives a written appraisal indicating that the seller acquired the property between 91 and 180 days before the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. In this case, unless one of these sources is clearly wrong on its face, the creditor would not be able to determine whether the seller acquired the property within 180 days of the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property from the seller, pursuant to § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(B). Before extending a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to the appraisal requirements of § 1026.35(c), the creditor must either: perform additional diligence to ascertain the seller's acquisition date and, based on this information, determine whether two written appraisals are required; or obtain two written appraisals in compliance with § 1026.35(c)(4). <I>See also</I> comment 35(c)(4)(vi)(B)-1.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(vi)(B) Inability To Determine Prior Sales Date or Price—Modified Requirements for Additional Appraisal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Required analysis.</I> In general, the additional appraisal required under § 1026.35(c)(4)(i) should include an analysis of the factors listed in § 1026.35(c)(4)(iv)(A) through (C). However, if, following reasonable diligence, a creditor cannot determine whether the conditions in § 1026.35(c)(4)(i)(A) or (B) are present due to a lack of information or conflicting information, the required additional appraisal must include the analyses required under § 1026.35(c)(4)(iv)(A) through (C) only to the extent that the information necessary to perform the analyses is known. For example, assume that a creditor is able, following reasonable diligence, to determine that the date on which the seller acquired the property occurred between 91 and 180 days prior to the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is unable, following reasonable diligence, to determine the price at which the seller acquired the property. In this case, the creditor is required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes an analysis under § 1026.35(c)(4)(iv)(B) and (c)(4)(iv)(C) of the changes in market conditions and any improvements made to the property between the date the seller acquired the property and the date of the consumer's agreement to acquire the property. However, the creditor is not required to obtain an additional written appraisal that includes analysis under § 1026.35(c)(4)(iv)(A) of the difference between the price at which the seller acquired the property and the price that the consumer is obligated to pay to acquire the property.
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<HD3>35(c)(4)(vii) Exemptions From the Additional Appraisal Requirement
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(4)(vii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Non-profit entity.</I> For purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4)(vii)(C), a “non-profit entity” is a person with a tax exemption ruling or determination letter from the Internal Revenue Service under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)).
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<HD3>Paragraph 35(c)(4)(vii)(H)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Bureau table of rural counties.</I> The Bureau publishes on its Web site a table of rural counties under § 1026.35(c)(4)(vii)(H) for each calendar year by the end of that calendar year. <I>See</I> comment 35(b)(2)(iv)-1. A property securing an HPML subject to § 1026.35(c) is in a rural county under § 1026.35(c)(4)(vii)(H) if the county in which the property is located is on the table of rural counties most recently published by the Bureau. For example, for a transaction occurring in 2015, assume that the Bureau most recently published a table of rural counties at the end of 2014. The property securing the transaction would be located in a rural county for purposes of § 1026.35(c)(4)(vii)(H) if the county is on the table of rural counties published by the Bureau at the end of 2014.
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<HD3>35(c)(5) Required Disclosure
</HD3>
<HD3>35(c)(5)(i) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the disclosure to only one of the consumers.
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<P>2. <I>Appraisal independence requirements not affected.</I> Nothing in the text of the consumer notice required by § 1026.35(c)(5)(i) should be construed to affect, modify, limit, or supersede the operation of any legal, regulatory, or other requirements or standards relating to independence in the conduct of appraisers or restrictions on the use of borrower-ordered appraisals by creditors.
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<HD3>35(c)(6) Copy of Appraisals
</HD3>
<HD3>35(c)(6)(i) In General
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<P>1. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for a loan subject to this section, the creditor is required to give the copy of each required appraisal to only one of the consumers.
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<HD3>35(c)(6)(ii) Timing
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<P>1. <I>“Provide.”</I> For purposes of the requirement to provide a copy of the appraisal within a specified time under § 1026.35(c)(6)(ii), “provide” means “deliver.” Delivery occurs three business days after mailing or delivering the copies to the last-known address of the applicant, or when evidence indicates actual receipt by the applicant (which, in the case of electronic receipt, must be based upon consent that complies with the E-Sign Act), whichever is earlier.
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<P>2. <I>No waiver.</I> Regulation B, 12 CFR 1002.14(a)(1), allowing the consumer to waive the requirement that the appraisal copy be provided three business days before consummation, does not apply to higher-priced mortgage loans subject to § 1026.35(c). A consumer of a higher-priced mortgage loan subject to § 1026.35(c) may not waive the timing requirement to receive a copy of the appraisal under § 1026.35(c)(6)(i).
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<HD3>35(c)(6)(iv) No Charge for Copy Of Appraisal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees and mark-ups.</I> The creditor is prohibited from charging the consumer for any copy of an appraisal required to be provided under § 1026.35(c)(6)(i), including by imposing a fee specifically for a required copy of an appraisal or by marking up the interest rate or any other fees payable by the consumer in connection with the higher-priced mortgage loan.
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<HD3>35(e) Rules for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 35(e)(2)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payment change.</I> Section 1026.35(e)(2) provides that a loan subject to this section may not have a penalty described by § 1026.32(d)(6) unless certain conditions are met. Section 1026.35(e)(2)(ii)(C) lists as a condition that the amount of the periodic payment of principal or interest or both may not change during the four-year period following consummation. For examples showing whether a prepayment penalty is permitted or prohibited in connection with particular payment changes, see comment 32(d)(7)(iv)-1. Those examples, however, include a condition that § 1026.35(e)(2) does not include: The condition that, at consummation, the consumer's total monthly debt payments may not exceed 50 percent of the consumer's monthly gross income. For guidance about circumstances in which payment changes are not considered payment changes for purposes of this section, see comment 32(d)(7)(iv)-2.
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<P>2. <I>Negative amortization.</I> Section 1026.32(d)(2) provides that a loan described in § 1026.32(a) may not have a payment schedule with regular periodic payments that cause the principal balance to increase. Therefore, the commentary to § 1026.32(d)(7)(iv) does not include examples of payment changes in connection with negative amortization. The following examples show whether, under § 1026.35(e)(2), prepayment penalties are permitted or prohibited in connection with particular payment changes, when a loan agreement permits negative amortization:
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<P>i. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010, are $1,000 per month and the loan agreement permits negative amortization to occur. Under the loan agreement, the first date that a scheduled payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014, and the creditor does not have the right to change scheduled payments prior to that date even if negative amortization occurs. A prepayment penalty is permitted with this mortgage transaction provided that the other § 1026.35(e)(2) conditions are met, that is: Provided that the prepayment penalty is permitted by other applicable law, the penalty expires on or before December 31, 2011, and the penalty will not apply if the source of the prepayment funds is a refinancing by the creditor or its affiliate.
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<P>ii. Initial payments for a variable-rate transaction consummated on January 1, 2010 are $1,000 per month and the loan agreement permits negative amortization to occur. Under the loan agreement, the first date that a scheduled payment in a different amount may be due is January 1, 2014, but the creditor has the right to change scheduled payments prior to that date if negative amortization occurs. A prepayment penalty is prohibited with this mortgage transaction because the payment may change within the four-year period following consummation.


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<HD2>Section 1026.36—Prohibited Acts or Practices and Certain Requirements for Credit Secured by a Dwelling
</HD2>
<HD3>36(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of loan originator.</I> i. <I>General.</I> A. Section 1026.36(a) defines the set of activities or services any one of which, if done for or in the expectation of compensation or gain, makes the person doing such activities or performing such services a loan originator, unless otherwise excluded. The scope of activities covered by the term loan originator includes:
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<P><I>1.</I> Referring a consumer to any person who participates in the origination process as a loan originator. Referring is an activity included under each of the activities of offering, arranging, or assisting a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain an extension of credit. Referring includes any oral or written action directed to a consumer that can affirmatively influence the consumer to select a particular loan originator or creditor to obtain an extension of credit when the consumer will pay for such credit. See comment 36(a)-4 with respect to certain activities that do not constitute referring.
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<P><I>2.</I> Arranging a credit transaction, including initially contacting and orienting the consumer to a particular loan originator's or creditor's origination process or particular credit terms that are or may be available to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics, assisting the consumer to apply for credit, taking an application, offering particular credit terms to the consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics, negotiating credit terms, or otherwise obtaining or making an extension of credit.
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<P><I>3.</I> Assisting a consumer in obtaining or applying for consumer credit by advising on particular credit terms that are or may be available to that consumer based on the consumer's financial characteristics, filling out an application form, preparing application packages (such as a credit application or pre-approval application or supporting documentation), or collecting application and supporting information on behalf of the consumer to submit to a loan originator or creditor. A person who, acting on behalf of a loan originator or creditor, collects information or verifies information provided by the consumer, such as by asking the consumer for documentation to support the information the consumer provided or for the consumer's authorization to obtain supporting documents from third parties, is not collecting information on behalf of the consumer. See also comment 36(a)-4.i through .iv with respect to application-related administrative and clerical tasks and comment 36(a)-1.v with respect to third-party advisors.
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<P><I>4.</I> Presenting particular credit terms for the consumer's consideration that are selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics, or communicating with a consumer for the purpose of reaching a mutual understanding about prospective credit terms.
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<P><I>5.</I> Advertising or communicating to the public that one can or will perform any loan origination services. Advertising the services of a third party that engages or intends to engage in loan origination activities does not make the advertiser a loan originator.
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<P>B. The term “loan originator” includes employees, agents, and contractors of a creditor as well as employees, agents, and contractors of a mortgage broker that satisfy this definition.
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<P>C. The term “loan originator” includes any creditor that satisfies the definition of loan originator but makes use of “table funding” by a third party. See comment 36(a)-1.ii discussing table funding. Solely for purposes of § 1026.36(f) and (g) concerning loan originator qualifications, the term loan originator includes any creditor that satisfies the definition of loan originator, even if the creditor does not make use of table funding. Such a person is a creditor, not a loan originator, for general purposes of this part, including the provisions of § 1026.36 other than § 1026.36(f) and (g).
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<P>D. A “loan originator organization” is a loan originator other than a natural person. The term includes any legal person or organization such as a sole proprietorship, trust, partnership, limited liability partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, corporation, bank, thrift, finance company, or credit union. An “individual loan originator” is limited to a natural person. (Under § 1026.2(a)(22), the term “person” means a natural person or an organization.)
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<P>E. The term “loan originator” does not include consumers who obtain extensions of consumer credit on their own behalf.
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<P>ii. <I>Table funding.</I> Table funding occurs when the creditor does not provide the funds for the transaction at consummation out of the creditor's own resources, including, for example, by drawing on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit or out of deposits held by the creditor. Accordingly, a table-funded transaction is consummated with the debt obligation initially payable by its terms to one person, but another person provides the funds for the transaction at consummation and receives an immediate assignment of the note, loan contract, or other evidence of the debt obligation. Although § 1026.2(a)(17)(i)(B) provides that a person to whom a debt obligation is initially payable on its face generally is a creditor, § 1026.36(a)(1) provides that, solely for the purposes of § 1026.36, such a person is also considered a loan originator. For example, if a person closes a transaction in its own name but does not fund the transaction from its own resources and assigns the transaction after consummation to the person providing the funds, it is considered a creditor for purposes of Regulation Z and also a loan originator for purposes of § 1026.36. However, if a person closes in its own name and finances a consumer credit transaction from the person's own resources, including drawing on a <I>bona fide</I> warehouse line of credit or out of deposits held by the person, and does not assign the loan at closing, the person is a creditor not making use of table funding but is included in the definition of loan originator for the purposes of § 1026.36(f) and (g) concerning loan originator qualifications.
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<P>iii. <I>Servicing.</I> A loan servicer or a loan servicer's employees, agents, or contractors that otherwise meet the definition of “loan originator” are excluded from the definition when modifying or offering to modify an existing loan on behalf of the current owner or holder of the loan (including an assignee or the servicer, if applicable). Other than § 1026.36(c), § 1026.36 applies to extensions of consumer credit. Thus, other than § 1026.36(c), § 1026.36 does not apply if a person renegotiates, modifies, replaces, or subordinates an existing obligation or its terms, unless the transaction constitutes a refinancing under § 1026.20(a) or obligates a different consumer on the existing debt.
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<P>iv. <I>Real estate brokerage.</I> The definition of “loan originator” does not include a person that performs only real estate brokerage activities (<I>e.g.,</I> does not perform mortgage broker or consumer credit referral activities or extend consumer credit) if the person is licensed or registered under applicable State law governing real estate brokerage, unless such person is paid by a loan originator or a creditor for a particular consumer credit transaction subject to § 1026.36. Such a person is not paid by a loan originator or a creditor if the person is paid by a loan originator or creditor on behalf of a buyer or seller solely for performing real estate brokerage activities. Such a person is not paid for a particular consumer credit transaction subject to § 1026.36 if the person is paid compensation by a loan originator or creditor, or affiliate of the loan originator or creditor, solely for performing real estate brokerage activities in connection with a property owned by that loan originator or creditor.
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<P>v. <I>Third-party advisors.</I> The definition of “loan originator” does not include bona fide third-party advisors such as accountants, attorneys, registered financial advisors, housing counselors, or others who do not receive compensation for engaging in loan origination activities. Advisory activity not constituting loan originator activity would include, for example, licensed accountants advising clients on tax implications of credit terms, registered financial advisors advising clients on potential effects of credit terms on client finances, HUD-approved housing counselors assisting consumers with understanding the credit origination process and various credit terms or collecting and organizing documents to support a credit application, or a licensed attorney assisting clients with consummating a real property transaction or with divorce, trust, or estate planning matters. Such a person, however, who advises a consumer on credit terms offered by either the person or the person's employer, or who receives compensation or other monetary gain, directly or indirectly, from the loan originator or creditor on whose credit offer the person advises a consumer, generally would be a loan originator. A referral by such a person does not make the person a loan originator, however, where the person neither receives nor expects any compensation from a loan originator or creditor for referring the consumer. HUD-approved housing counselors who simply assist a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain consumer credit from a loan originator or creditor are not loan originators if the compensation is not contingent on referrals or on engaging in additional loan origination activities and either of two alternative conditions is satisfied: The first alternative condition is that the compensation is expressly permitted by applicable local, State, or Federal law that requires counseling and the counseling performed complies with such law (for example, § 1026.34(a)(5) and § 1026.36(k)). The second alternative condition is that the compensation is a fixed sum received from a creditor, loan originator, or the affiliate of a loan originator or a creditor as a result of agreements between creditors or loan originators and local, State, or Federal agencies. However, HUD-approved housing counselors are loan originators if, for example, they receive compensation that is contingent on referrals or on engaging in loan originator activity other than assisting a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain consumer credit from a loan originator or creditor.
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<P>2. <I>Meaning of mortgage broker.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36, with respect to a particular transaction, the term “mortgage broker” refers to a loan originator who is not an employee of the creditor. Accordingly, the term “mortgage broker” includes companies that engage in the activities described in § 1026.36(a) and also includes employees of such companies that engage in these activities. Section 1026.36(d) prohibits certain payments to a loan originator. These prohibitions apply to payments made to all loan originators, including payments made to mortgage brokers, and payments made by a company acting as a mortgage broker to its employees who are loan originators.
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<P>3. <I>Meaning of creditor.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36(d) and (e), a creditor means a creditor that is not deemed to be a loan originator on the transaction under this section. Thus, a person that closes a loan in its own name (but another person provides the funds for the transaction at consummation and receives an immediate assignment of the note, loan contract, or other evidence of the debt obligation) is deemed a loan originator, not a creditor, for purposes of § 1026.36. However, that person is still a creditor for all other purposes of Regulation Z.
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<P>4. <I>Managers, administrative and clerical staff.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36, managers, administrative and clerical staff, and similar individuals who are employed by (or contractor or agent of) a creditor or loan originator organization and take an application, offer, arrange, assist a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain, negotiate, or otherwise obtain or make a particular extension of credit for another person are loan originators. The following examples describe activities that, in the absence of any other activities, do not render a manager, administrative or clerical staff member, or similar employee a loan originator:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Application-related administrative and clerical tasks.</I> The definition of loan originator does not include a loan originator's or creditor's employee who provides a credit application form from the entity for which the person works to the consumer for the consumer to complete or, without assisting the consumer in completing the credit application, processing or analyzing the information, or discussing particular credit terms that are or may be available from a creditor or loan originator to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics, delivers the credit application from a consumer to a loan originator or creditor. A person does not assist the consumer in completing the application if the person explains to the consumer filling out the application the contents of the application or where particular consumer information is to be provided, or generally describes the credit application process to a consumer without discussing particular credit terms that are or may be available from a creditor or loan originator to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics.
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<P>ii. <I>Responding to consumer inquiries and providing general information.</I> The definition of loan originator does not include persons who:
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<P>A. Provide general explanations, information, or descriptions in response to consumer queries, such as explaining credit terminology or lending policies or who confirm written offer terms already transmitted to the consumer;
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<P>B. As employees of a creditor or loan originator, provide loan originator or creditor contact information of the loan originator or creditor entity for which he or she works, or of a person who works for that the same entity to a consumer, provided that the person does not discuss particular credit terms that are or may be available from a creditor or loan originator to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics and does not direct the consumer, based on his or her assessment of the consumer's financial characteristics, to a particular loan originator or particular creditor seeking to originate credit transactions to consumers with those financial characteristics;
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<P>C. Describe other product-related services (for example, persons who describe optional monthly payment methods via telephone or via automatic account withdrawals, the availability and features of online account access, the availability of 24-hour customer support, or free mobile applications to access account information); or
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<P>D. Explain or describe the steps that a consumer would need to take to obtain an offer of credit, including providing general guidance on qualifications or criteria that would need to be met that is not specific to that consumer's circumstances.
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<P>iii. <I>Loan processing.</I> The definition of loan originator does not include persons who, acting on behalf of a loan originator or a creditor:
</P>
<P>A. Compile and assemble credit application packages and supporting documentation;
</P>
<P>B. Verify information provided by the consumer in a credit application such as by asking the consumer for supporting documentation or the consumer's authorization for the person to obtain supporting documentation from other persons;
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<P>C. Coordinate consummation of the credit transaction or other aspects of the credit transaction process, including by communicating with a consumer about process deadlines and documents needed at consummation, provided that any communication that includes a discussion about credit terms available from a creditor to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics only confirms credit terms already agreed to by the consumer;
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<P>D. Provide a consumer with information unrelated to credit terms, such as the best days of the month for scheduling consummation; or
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<P>E. Communicate on behalf of a loan originator that a written credit offer has been sent to a consumer without providing any details of that offer.
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<P>iv. <I>Underwriting, credit approval, and credit pricing.</I> The definition of loan originator does not include persons who:
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<P>A. Receive and evaluate a consumer's information to make underwriting decisions on whether a consumer qualifies for an extension of credit and communicate decisions to a loan originator or creditor, provided that only a loan originator communicates such underwriting decisions to the consumer;
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<P>B. Approve particular credit terms or set particular credit terms available from a creditor to that consumer selected based on the consumer's financial characteristics in offer or counter-offer situations, provided that only a loan originator communicates to or with the consumer regarding these credit terms, an offer, or provides or engages in negotiation, a counter-offer, or approval conditions; or
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<P>C. Establish credit pricing that the creditor offers generally to the public, via advertisements or other marketing or via other persons that are loan originators.
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<P>v. <I>Producing managers.</I> Managers that work for creditors or loan originator organizations sometimes engage themselves in loan origination activities, as set forth in the definition of loan originator in § 1026.36(a)(1)(i) (such managers are sometimes referred to as “producing managers”). The definition of loan originator includes persons, including managers, who are employed by a creditor or loan originator organization and take an application, offer, arrange, assist a consumer with obtaining or applying to obtain, negotiate, or otherwise obtain or make a particular extension of credit for another person, even if such persons are also employed by the creditor or loan originator organization to perform duties that are not loan origination activities. Thus, such producing managers are loan originators.
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<P>5. <I>Compensation.</I> i. <I>General.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36, compensation is defined in § 1026.36(a)(3) as salaries, commissions, and any financial or similar incentive. For example, the term “compensation” includes:
</P>
<P>A. An annual or other periodic bonus; or
</P>
<P>B. Awards of merchandise, services, trips, or similar prizes.
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<P>ii. <I>Name of fee.</I> Compensation includes amounts the loan originator retains and is not dependent on the label or name of any fee imposed in connection with the transaction. For example, if a loan originator imposes a “processing fee” in connection with the transaction and retains such fee, it is compensation for purposes of § 1026.36, including § 1026.36(d) and (e), whether the originator expends the time to process the consumer's application or uses the fee for other expenses, such as overhead.
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<P>iii. <I>Amounts for third-party charges.</I> Compensation does not include amounts the loan originator receives as payment for bona fide and reasonable charges, such as credit reports, where those amounts are passed on to a third party that is not the creditor, its affiliate, or the affiliate of the loan originator. <I>See</I> comment 36(a)-5.v.
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<P>iv. <I>Amounts for charges for services that are not loan origination activities.</I>
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<P><I>1.</I> A payment received by a loan originator organization for bona fide and reasonable charges for services it performs that are not loan origination activities;
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<P><I>2.</I> A payment received by an affiliate of a loan originator organization for bona fide and reasonable charges for services it performs that are not loan origination activities; or
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<P><I>3.</I> A payment received by a loan originator organization for bona fide and reasonable charges for services that are not loan origination activities where those amounts are not retained by the loan originator but are paid to the creditor, its affiliate, or the affiliate of the loan originator organization. <I>See</I> comment 36(a)-5.v.
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<P>B. Compensation includes any salaries, commissions, and any financial or similar incentive to an individual loan originator, regardless of whether it is labeled as payment for services that are not loan origination activities.
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<P>C. Loan origination activities for purposes of this comment means activities described in § 1026.36(a)(1)(i) (<I>e.g.,</I> taking an application, offering, arranging, negotiating, or otherwise obtaining an extension of consumer credit for another person) that would make a person performing those activities for compensation a loan originator as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1)(i).
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<P>v. <I>Amounts that exceed the actual charge for a service.</I> In some cases, amounts received by the loan originator organization for payment for third-party charges described in comment 36(a)-5.iii or payment for services to the creditor, its affiliates, or the affiliates of the loan originator organization described in comment 36(a)-5.iv.A.<I>3</I> may exceed the actual charge because, for example, the loan originator organization cannot determine with accuracy what the actual charge will be when it is imposed and instead uses average charge pricing (in accordance with the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act). In such a case, the difference retained by the loan originator organization is not compensation if the charge imposed on the consumer or collected from a person other than the consumer was bona fide and reasonable and also complies with State and other applicable law. On the other hand, if the loan originator organization marks up the charge (a practice known as “upcharging”), and the originator retains the difference between the actual charge and the marked-up charge, the amount retained is compensation for purposes of § 1026.36, including § 1026.36(d) and (e). For example:
</P>
<P>A. Assume a loan originator organization receives compensation directly from either a consumer or a creditor. Further assume the loan originator organization uses average charge pricing in accordance with the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act and, based on its past average cost for credit reports, charges the consumer $25 for a credit report provided by a third party. Under the loan originator organization's agreement with the consumer reporting agency, the cost of the credit report is to be paid in a month-end bill and will vary between $15 and $35 depending on how many credit reports the originator obtains that month. Assume the $25 for the credit report is paid by the consumer or is paid by the creditor with proceeds from a rebate. At the end of the month, the cost for the credit report is determined to be $15 for this consumer's transaction, based on the loan originator organization's credit report volume that month. In this case, the $10 difference between the $25 credit report fee imposed on the consumer and the actual $15 cost for the credit report is not compensation for purposes of § 1026.36, even though the $10 is retained by the loan originator organization.
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<P>B. Using the same example as in comment 36(a)-5.v.A, the $10 difference would be compensation for purposes of § 1026.36 if the price for a credit report varies between $10 and $15.
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<P>vi. <I>Returns on equity interests and dividends on equity holdings.</I> The term “compensation” for purposes of § 1026.36(d) and (e) also includes, for example, awards of stock, stock options and equity interests. Thus, the awarding of stock, stock options, or equity interests to loan originators is subject to the restrictions in § 1026.36(d) and (e). For example, a person may not award additional stock or a preferable type of equity interest to a loan originator based on the terms of a consumer credit transaction subject to § 1026.36 originated by that loan originator. However, bona fide returns or dividends paid on stock or other equity holdings, including those paid to owners or shareholders of a loan originator organization who own such stock or equity interests, are not compensation for purposes of § 1026.36(d) and (e). Bona fide returns or dividends are those returns and dividends that are paid pursuant to documented ownership or equity interests and that are not functionally equivalent to compensation. Ownership and equity interests must be bona fide. Bona fide ownership and equity interests are allocated according to a loan originator's respective capital contribution where the allocation is not a mere subterfuge for the payment of compensation based on terms of a transaction. Ownership and equity interests also are not bona fide if the formation or maintenance of the business from which returns or dividends are paid is a mere subterfuge for the payment of compensation based on the terms of a transaction. For example, assume that three individual loan originators form a loan originator organization that is a limited liability company (LLC). The three individual loan originators are members of the LLC, and the LLC agreement governing the loan originator organization's structure calls for regular distributions based on the members' respective equity interests. If the members' respective equity interests are allocated based on the members' terms of transactions, rather than according to their respective capital contributions, then distributions based on such equity interests are not bona fide and, thus, are compensation for purposes of § 1026.36(d) and (e).
</P>
<P><I>36(a)(1)(i)(B) Employee of a retailer of manufactured homes.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The definition of loan originator does not include an employee of a manufactured home retailer that “assists” a consumer in obtaining or applying for consumer credit as defined in comment 36(a)-1.i.A.<I>3,</I> provided the employee does not advise the consumer on specific credit terms, or otherwise engage in loan originator activity as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1). The following examples describe activities that, in the absence of other activities, do not define a manufactured home retailer employee as a loan originator:
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<P>i. Generally describing the credit application process to a consumer without advising on credit terms available from a creditor.
</P>
<P>ii. Preparing residential mortgage loan packages, which means compiling and processing loan application materials and supporting documentation, and providing general application instructions to consumers so consumers can complete an application, without interacting or communicating with the consumer regarding transaction terms, but not filling out a consumer's application, inputting the information into an online application or other automated system, or taking information from the consumer over the phone to complete the application.
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<P>iii. Collecting information on behalf of the consumer with regard to a residential mortgage loan. Collecting information “on behalf of the consumer” would include gathering information or supporting documentation from third parties on behalf of the consumer to provide to the consumer, for the consumer then to provide in the application or for the consumer to submit to the loan originator or creditor.
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<P>iv. Providing or making available general information about creditors or loan originators that may offer financing for manufactured homes in the consumer's general area, when doing so does not otherwise amount to “referring” as defined in comment 36(a)-1.i.A.<I>1.</I> This includes making available, in a neutral manner, general brochures or information about the different creditors or loan originators that may offer financing to a consumer, but does not include recommending a particular creditor or loan originator or otherwise influencing the consumer's decision.


</P>
<HD3>36(a)(4) Seller Financers; Three Properties
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Reasonable ability to repay safe harbors.</I> A person in good faith determines that the consumer to whom the person extends seller financing has a reasonable ability to repay the obligation if the person complies with § 1026.43(c) of this part or complies with the alternative criteria discussed in this comment. If the consumer intends to make payments from income, the person considers evidence of the consumer's current or reasonably expected income. If the consumer intends to make payments with income from employment, the person considers the consumer's earnings, which may be reflected in payroll statements or earnings statements, IRS Form W-2s or similar IRS forms used for reporting wages or tax withholding, or military Leave and Earnings Statements. If the consumer intends to make payments from other income, the person considers the consumer's income from sources such as a Federal, State, or local government agency providing benefits and entitlements. If the consumer intends to make payments from income earned from assets, the person considers the relevant assets, such as funds held in accounts with financial institutions, equity ownership interests, or rental property. However, the value of the dwelling that secures the financing does not constitute evidence of the consumer's ability to repay. In considering these and other potential sources of income to determine in good faith that the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay the obligation, the person making that determination may rely on copies of tax returns the consumer filed with the Internal Revenue Service or a State taxing authority.
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<P>2. <I>Adjustable rate safe harbors.</I> i. <I>Annual rate increase.</I> An annual rate increase of two percentage points or less is reasonable.
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<P>ii. <I>Lifetime increase.</I> A lifetime limitation of an increase of six percentage points or less, subject to a minimum floor of the person's choosing and maximum ceiling that does not exceed the usury limit applicable to the transaction, is reasonable.
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<HD3>36(a)(5) Seller Financers; One Property
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Adjustable rate safe harbors.</I> For a discussion of reasonable annual and lifetime interest rate increases, see comment 36(a)(4)-2.
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<P><I>36(b) Scope.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Scope of coverage.</I> Section 1026.36(c)(1) and (c)(2) applies to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. Section 1026.36(c)(3) applies to a consumer credit transaction, including home equity lines of credit under § 1026.40, secured by a consumer's dwelling. Paragraphs (h) and (i) of § 1026.36 apply to home equity lines of credit under § 1026.40 secured by a consumer's principal dwelling. Paragraphs (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), and (i) of § 1026.36 apply to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling. Closed-end consumer credit transactions include transactions secured by first or subordinate liens, and reverse mortgages that are not home equity lines of credit under § 1026.40. See § 1026.36(b) for additional restrictions on the scope of § 1026.36, and §§ 1026.1(c) and 1026.3(a) and corresponding commentary for further discussion of extensions of credit subject to Regulation Z.


</P>
<HD3>36(c) Servicing Practices
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Crediting of payments.</I> Under § 1026.36(c)(1)(i), a mortgage servicer must credit a payment to a consumer's loan account as of the date of receipt. This does not require that a mortgage servicer post the payment to the consumer's loan account on a particular date; the servicer is only required to credit the payment <I>as of</I> the date of receipt. Accordingly, a servicer that receives a payment on or before its due date (or within any grace period), and does not enter the payment on its books or in its system until after the payment's due date (or expiration of any grace period), does not violate this rule as long as the entry does not result in the imposition of a late charge, additional interest, or similar penalty to the consumer, or in the reporting of negative information to a consumer reporting agency.
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<P>2. <I>Method of crediting periodic payments.</I> The method by which periodic payments shall be credited is based on the legal obligation between the creditor and consumer, subject to applicable law.
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<P>3. <I>Date of receipt.</I> The “date of receipt” is the date that the payment instrument or other means of payment reaches the mortgage servicer. For example, payment by check is received when the mortgage servicer receives it, not when the funds are collected. If the consumer elects to have payment made by a third-party payor such as a financial institution, through a preauthorized payment or telephone bill-payment arrangement, payment is received when the mortgage servicer receives the third-party payor's check or other transfer medium, such as an electronic fund transfer.
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<P>4. <I>Temporary loss mitigation programs.</I> If a loan contract has not been permanently modified but the consumer has agreed to a temporary loss mitigation program, a periodic payment under § 1026.36(c)(1)(i) is the amount sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle under the loan contract, regardless of the payment due under the temporary loss mitigation program.
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<P>5. <I>Permanent loan modifications.</I> If a loan contract has been permanently modified, a periodic payment under § 1026.36(c)(1)(i) is an amount sufficient to cover principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable) for a given billing cycle under the modified loan contract.
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Handling of partial payments.</I> If a servicer receives a partial payment from a consumer, to the extent not prohibited by applicable law or the legal obligation between the parties, the servicer may take any of the following actions:
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<P>i. Credit the partial payment upon receipt.
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<P>ii. Return the partial payment to the consumer.
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<P>iii. Hold the payment in a suspense or unapplied funds account. If the payment is held in a suspense or unapplied funds account, this fact must be reflected on future periodic statements, in accordance with § 1026.41(d)(3). When sufficient funds accumulate to cover a periodic payment, as defined in § 1026.36(c)(1)(i), they must be treated as a periodic payment received in accordance with § 1026.36(c)(1)(i).
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment requirements.</I> The servicer may specify reasonable requirements for making payments in writing, such as requiring that payments be accompanied by the account number or payment coupon; setting a cut-off hour for payment to be received, or setting different hours for payment by mail and payments made in person; specifying that only checks or money orders should be sent by mail; specifying that payment is to be made in U.S. dollars; or specifying one particular address for receiving payments, such as a post office box. The servicer may be prohibited, however, from requiring payment solely by preauthorized electronic fund transfer. <I>See</I> section 913 of the Electronic Fund Transfer Act, 15 U.S.C. 1693k.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment requirements—Limitations.</I> Requirements for making payments must be reasonable; it should not be difficult for most consumers and potential successors in interest to make conforming payments. For example, it would be reasonable to require a cut-off time of 5 p.m. for receipt of a mailed check at the location specified by the servicer for receipt of such check.
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<P>3. <I>Implied guidelines for payments.</I> In the absence of specified requirements for making payments, payments may be made at any location where the servicer conducts business; any time during the servicer's normal business hours; and by cash, money order, draft, or other similar instrument in properly negotiable form, or by electronic fund transfer if the servicer and consumer have so agreed.
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pyramiding of late fees.</I> The prohibition on pyramiding of late fees in § 1026.36(c)(2) should be construed consistently with the “credit practices rule” of the Federal Trade Commission, 16 CFR 444.4.
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<P><I>Paragraph 36(c)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Person acting on behalf of the consumer.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36(c)(3), a person acting on behalf of the consumer may include the consumer's representative, such as an attorney representing the individual, a non-profit consumer counseling or similar organization, or a creditor with which the consumer is refinancing and which requires the payoff statement to complete the refinancing. A creditor, assignee or servicer may take reasonable measures to verify the identity of any person acting on behalf of the consumer and to obtain the consumer's authorization to release information to any such person before the “reasonable time” period begins to run.
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<P>2. <I>Payment requirements.</I> The creditor, assignee or servicer may specify reasonable requirements for making payoff requests, such as requiring requests to be directed to a mailing address, email address, or fax number specified by the creditor, assignee or servicer or any other reasonable requirement or method. If the consumer does not follow these requirements, a longer timeframe for responding to the request would be reasonable.
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<P>3. <I>Accuracy of payoff statements.</I> Payoff statements must be accurate when issued.


</P>
<HD3>36(d) Prohibited Payments to Loan Originators
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Persons covered.</I> Section 1026.36(d) prohibits any person (including a creditor) from paying compensation to a loan originator in connection with a covered credit transaction, if the amount of the payment is based on a term of a transaction. For example, a person that purchases an extension of credit from the creditor after consummation may not compensate the loan originator in a manner that violates § 1026.36(d).
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<P>2. <I>Mortgage brokers.</I> The payments made by a company acting as a mortgage broker to its employees who are loan originators are subject to the section's prohibitions. For example, a mortgage broker may not pay its employee more for a transaction with a 7 percent interest rate than for a transaction with a 6 percent interest rate.
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<HD3>36(d)(1) Payments Based on a Term of a Transaction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Compensation that is “based on” a term of a transaction.</I> i. <I>Objective facts and circumstances.</I> Whether compensation is “based on” a term of a transaction does not require a comparison of multiple transactions or proof that any person subjectively intended that there be a relationship between the amount of the compensation paid and a transaction term. Instead, the determination is based on the objective facts and circumstances indicating that compensation would have been different if a transaction term had been different. Generally, when there is a compensation policy in place and the objective facts and circumstances indicate the policy was followed, the determination of whether compensation would have been different if a transaction term had been different is made by analysis of the policy. In the absence of a compensation policy, or when a compensation policy is not followed, the determination may be made based on a comparison of transactions originated and the amounts of compensation paid.
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<P>ii. <I>Single or multiple transactions.</I> The prohibition on payment and receipt of compensation under § 1026.36(d)(1)(i) encompasses compensation that directly or indirectly is based on the terms of a single transaction of a single individual loan originator, the terms of multiple transactions by that single individual loan originator, or the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. Compensation to an individual loan originator that is based upon profits determined with reference to a mortgage-related business is considered compensation that is based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. For clarification about the exceptions permitting compensation based upon profits determined with reference to mortgage-related business pursuant to either a designated tax-advantaged plan or a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan, see comment 36(d)(1)-3. For clarification about “mortgage-related business,” see comments 36(d)(1)-3.v.B and -3.v.E.
</P>
<P>A. Assume that a creditor pays a bonus to an individual loan originator out of a bonus pool established with reference to the creditor's profits and the profits are determined with reference to the creditor's revenue from origination of closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling. In such instance, the bonus is considered compensation that is based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. Therefore, the bonus is prohibited under § 1026.36(d)(1)(i), unless it is otherwise permitted under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv).
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<P>B. Assume that an individual loan originator's employment contract with a creditor guarantees a quarterly bonus in a specified amount conditioned upon the individual loan originator meeting certain performance benchmarks (e.g., volume of originations monthly). A bonus paid following the satisfaction of those contractual conditions is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of a transaction by an individual loan originator, the terms of multiple transactions by that individual loan originator, or the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators under § 1026.36(d)(1)(i) as clarified by this comment 36(d)(1)-1.ii, because the creditor is obligated to pay the bonus, in the specified amount, regardless of the terms of transactions of the individual loan originator or multiple individual loan originators and the effect of those terms of multiple transactions on the creditor's profits. Because this type of bonus is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators, as described in § 1026.36(d)(1)(i) (as clarified by this comment 36(d)(1)-1.ii), it is not subject to the 10-percent total compensation limit described in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>).
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<P>iii. <I>Transaction term defined.</I> A “term of a transaction” under § 1026.36(d)(1)(ii) is any right or obligation of any of the parties to a credit transaction. A “credit transaction” is the operative acts (<I>e.g.,</I> the consumer's purchase of certain goods or services essential to the transaction) and written and oral agreements that, together, create the consumer's right to defer payment of debt or to incur debt and defer its payment. For the purposes of § 1026.36(d)(1)(ii), this definition includes:
</P>
<P>A. The rights and obligations, or part of any rights or obligations, memorialized in a promissory note or other credit contract, as well as the security interest created by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security instrument, and in any document incorporated by reference in the note, contract, or security instrument;
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<P>B. The payment of any loan originator or creditor fees or charges for the credit, or for a product or service provided by the loan originator or creditor related to the extension of that credit, imposed on the consumer, including any fees or charges financed through the interest rate; and
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<P>C. The payment of any fees or charges imposed on the consumer, including any fees or charges financed through the interest rate, for any product or service required to be obtained or performed as a condition of the extension of credit.
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<P>D. The fees and charges described above in paragraphs B and C can only be a term of a transaction if the fees or charges are required to be disclosed in the Good Faith Estimate, the HUD-1, or the HUD-1A (and subsequently in any integrated disclosures promulgated by the Bureau under TILA section 105(b) (15 U.S.C. 1604(b)) and RESPA section 4 (12 U.S.C. 2603) as amended by sections 1098 and 1100A of the Dodd-Frank Act).
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<P>2. <I>Compensation that is or is not based on a term of a transaction or a proxy for a term of a transaction.</I> Section 1026.36(d)(1) does not prohibit compensating a loan originator differently on different transactions, provided the difference is not based on a term of a transaction or a proxy for a term of a transaction. The rule prohibits compensation to a loan originator for a transaction based on, among other things, that transaction's interest rate, annual percentage rate, collateral type (<I>e.g.,</I> condominium, cooperative, detached home, or manufactured housing), or the existence of a prepayment penalty. The rule also prohibits compensation to a loan originator that is based on any factor that is a proxy for a term of a transaction. Compensation paid to a loan originator organization directly by a consumer in a transaction is not prohibited by § 1026.36(d)(1) simply because that compensation itself is a term of the transaction. Nonetheless, that compensation may not be based on any other term of the transaction or a proxy for any other term of the transaction. In addition, in a transaction where a loan originator organization is paid compensation directly by a consumer, compensation paid by the loan originator organization to individual loan originators is not prohibited by § 1026.36(d)(1) simply because it is based on the amount of compensation paid directly by the consumer to the loan originator organization but the compensation to the individual loan originator may not be based on any other term of the transaction or proxy for any other term of the transaction.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Permissible methods of compensation.</I> Compensation based on the following factors is not compensation based on a term of a transaction or a proxy for a term of a transaction:
</P>
<P>A. The loan originator's overall dollar volume (<I>i.e.,</I> total dollar amount of credit extended or total number of transactions originated), delivered to the creditor. See comment 36(d)(1)-9 discussing variations of compensation based on the amount of credit extended.
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<P>B. The long-term performance of the originator's loans.
</P>
<P>C. An hourly rate of pay to compensate the originator for the actual number of hours worked.
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<P>D. Whether the consumer is an existing customer of the creditor or a new customer.
</P>
<P>E. A payment that is fixed in advance for every loan the originator arranges for the creditor (<I>e.g.,</I> $600 for every credit transaction arranged for the creditor, or $1,000 for the first 1,000 credit transactions arranged and $500 for each additional credit transaction arranged).
</P>
<P>F. The percentage of applications submitted by the loan originator to the creditor that results in consummated transactions.
</P>
<P>G. The quality of the loan originator's loan files (<I>e.g.,</I> accuracy and completeness of the loan documentation) submitted to the creditor.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Proxies for terms of a transaction.</I> If the loan originator's compensation is based in whole or in part on a factor that is a proxy for a term of a transaction, then the loan originator's compensation is based on a term of a transaction. A factor (that is not itself a term of a transaction) is a proxy for a term of a transaction if the factor consistently varies with a term or terms of the transaction over a significant number of transactions, and the loan originator has the ability, directly or indirectly, to add, drop, or change the factor when originating the transaction. For example:
</P>
<P>A. Assume a creditor pays a loan originator a higher commission for transactions to be held by the creditor in portfolio than for transactions sold by the creditor into the secondary market. The creditor holds in portfolio only extensions of credit that have a fixed interest rate and a five-year term with a final balloon payment. The creditor sells into the secondary market all other extensions of credit, which typically have a higher fixed interest rate and a 30-year term. Thus, whether an extension of credit is held in portfolio or sold into the secondary market for this creditor consistently varies with the interest rate and whether the credit has a five-year term or a 30-year term (which are terms of the transaction) over a significant number of transactions. Also, the loan originator has the ability to change the factor by, for example, advising the consumer to choose an extension of credit a five-year term. Therefore, under these circumstances, whether or not an extension of credit will be held in portfolio is a proxy for a term of a transaction.
</P>
<P>B. Assume a loan originator organization pays loan originators higher commissions for transactions secured by property in State A than in State B. For this loan originator organization, over a significant number of transactions, transactions in State B have substantially lower interest rates than transactions in State A. The loan originator, however, does not have any ability to influence whether the transaction is secured by property located in State A or State B. Under these circumstances, the factor that affects compensation (the location of the property) is not a proxy for a term of a transaction.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Pooled compensation.</I> Section 1026.36(d)(1) prohibits the sharing of pooled compensation among loan originators who originate transactions with different terms and are compensated differently. For example, assume that Loan Originator A receives a higher commission than Loan Originator B and that loans originated by Loan Originator A generally have higher interest rates than loans originated by Loan Originator B. Under these circumstances, the two loan originators may not share pooled compensation because each receives compensation based on the terms of the transactions they collectively make.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interpretation of § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii) and (iv).</I> Subject to certain restrictions, § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii) and § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) permit contributions to or benefits under designated tax-advantaged plans and compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan even if the contributions, benefits, or compensation, respectively, are based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Designated tax-advantaged plans.</I> Section 1026.36(d)(1)(iii) permits an individual loan originator to receive, and a person to pay, compensation in the form of contributions to a defined contribution plan or benefits under a defined benefit plan provided the plan is a designated tax-advantaged plan (as defined in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii)), even if contributions to or benefits under such plans are directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. In the case of a designated tax-advantaged plan that is a defined contribution plan, § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii) does not permit the contribution to be directly or indirectly based on the terms of that individual loan originator's transactions. A defined contribution plan has the meaning set forth in Internal Revenue Code section 414(i), 26 U.S.C. 414(i). A defined benefit plan has the meaning set forth in Internal Revenue Code section 414(j), 26 U.S.C. 414(j).
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<P>ii. <I>Non-deferred profits-based compensation plans.</I> As used in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv), a “non-deferred profits-based compensation plan” is any compensation arrangement where an individual loan originator may be paid variable, additional compensation based in whole or in part on the mortgage-related business profits of the person paying the compensation, any affiliate, or a business unit within the organizational structure of the person or the affiliate, as applicable (<I>i.e.,</I> depending on the level within the person's or affiliate's organization at which the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is established). A non-deferred profits-based compensation plan does not include a designated tax-advantaged plan or other forms of deferred compensation that are not designated tax-advantaged plans, such as those created pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 409A, 26 U.S.C. 409A. Thus, if contributions to or benefits under a designated tax-advantaged plan or compensation under another form of deferred compensation plan are determined with reference to the mortgage-related business profits of the person making the contribution, then the contribution, benefits, or other compensation, as applicable, are not permitted by § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) (although, in the case of contributions to or benefits under a designated tax-advantaged plan, the benefits or contributions may be permitted by § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii)). Under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan, the individual loan originator may, for example, be paid directly in cash, stock, or other non-deferred compensation, and the compensation under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan may be determined by a fixed formula or may be at the discretion of the person (e.g., the person may elect not to pay compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan in a given year), provided the compensation is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of the individual loan originator's transactions. As used in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) and this commentary, non-deferred profits-based compensation plans include, without limitation, bonus pools, profits pools, bonus plans, and profit-sharing plans. Compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan could include, without limitation, annual or periodic bonuses, or awards of merchandise, services, trips, or similar prizes or incentives where the bonuses, contributions, or awards are determined with reference to the profits of the person, business unit, or affiliate, as applicable. As used in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) and this commentary, a business unit is a division, department, or segment within the overall organizational structure of the person or the person's affiliate that performs discrete business functions and that the person or the affiliate treats separately for accounting or other organizational purposes. For example, a creditor that pays its individual loan originators bonuses at the end of a calendar year based on the creditor's average net return on assets for the calendar year is operating a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv). A bonus that is paid to an individual loan originator from a source other than a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan (or a deferred compensation plan where the bonus is determined with reference to mortgage-related business profits), such as a retention bonus budgeted for in advance or a performance bonus paid out of a bonus pool set aside at the beginning of the company's annual accounting period as part of the company's operating budget, does not violate the prohibition on payment of compensation based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators under § 1026.36(d)(1)(i), as clarified by comment 36(d)(1)-1.ii; therefore, § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) does not apply to such bonuses.
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<P>iii. <I>Compensation that is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators.</I> The compensation arrangements addressed in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii) and (iv) are permitted even if they are directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators. See comment 36(d)(1)-1 for additional interpretation. If a loan originator organization's revenues are exclusively derived from transactions subject to § 1026.36(d) (whether paid by creditors, consumers, or both) and that loan originator organization pays its individual loan originators a bonus under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan, the bonus is not directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple transactions by multiple individual loan originators if § 1026.36(d)(1)(i) is otherwise complied with.
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<P>iv. <I>Compensation based on terms of an individual loan originator's transactions.</I> Under both § 1026.36(d)(1)(iii), with regard to contributions made to a defined contribution plan that is a designated tax-advantaged plan, and § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(A), with regard to compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan, the payment of compensation to an individual loan originator may not be directly or indirectly based on the terms of that individual loan originator's transaction or transactions. Consequently, for example, where an individual loan originator makes loans that vary in their interest rate spread, the compensation payment may not take into account the average interest rate spread on the individual loan originator's transactions during the relevant calendar year.
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<P>v. <I>Compensation under non-deferred profits-based compensation plans.</I> Assuming that the conditions in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(A) are met, § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) permits certain compensation to an individual loan originator under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan. Specifically, if the compensation is determined with reference to the profits of the person from mortgage-related business, compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is permitted provided the compensation does not, in the aggregate, exceed 10 percent of the individual loan originator's total compensation corresponding to the time period for which compensation under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is paid. The compensation restrictions under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) are sometimes referred to in this commentary as the “10-percent total compensation limit” or the “10-percent limit.”
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<P>A. <I>Total compensation.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>), the individual loan originator's total compensation consists of the sum total of: (1) All wages and tips reportable for Medicare tax purposes in box 5 on IRS form W-2 (or, if the individual loan originator is an independent contractor, reportable compensation on IRS form 1099-MISC) that are actually paid during the relevant time period (regardless of when the wages and tips are earned), except for any compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan that is earned during a different time period (see comment 36(d)(1)-3.v.C); (2) at the election of the person paying the compensation, all contributions that are actually made during the relevant time period by the creditor or loan originator organization to the individual loan originator's accounts in designated tax-advantaged plans that are defined contribution plans (regardless of when the contributions are earned); and (3) at the election of the person paying the compensation, all compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan that is earned during the relevant time period, regardless of whether the compensation is actually paid during that time period (see comment 36(d)(1)-3.v.C). If an individual loan originator has some compensation that is reportable on the W-2 and some that is reportable on the 1099-MISC, the total compensation is the sum total of what is reportable on each of the two forms.
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<P>B. <I>Profits of the Person.</I> Under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv), a plan is a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan if compensation is paid, based in whole or in part, on the profits of the person paying the compensation. As used in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv), “profits of the person” include, as applicable depending on where the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is set, the profits of the person, the business unit to which the individual loan originators are assigned for accounting or other organizational purposes, or any affiliate of the person. Profits from mortgage-related business are profits determined with reference to revenue generated from transactions subject to § 1026.36(d). Pursuant to § 1026.36(b) and comment 36(b)-1, § 1026.36(d) applies to closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by dwellings. This revenue includes, without limitation, and as applicable based on the particular sources of revenue of the person, business unit, or affiliate, origination fees and interest associated with dwelling-secured transactions for which individual loan originators working for the person were loan originators, income from servicing of such transactions, and proceeds of secondary market sales of such transactions. If the amount of the individual loan originator's compensation under non-deferred profits-based compensation plans paid for a time period does not, in the aggregate, exceed 10 percent of the individual loan originator's total compensation corresponding to the same time period, compensation under non-deferred profits-based compensation plans may be paid under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) regardless of whether or not it was determined with reference to the profits of the person from mortgage-related business.
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<P>C. <I>Time period for which the compensation under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is paid and to which the total compensation corresponds.</I> Under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>), determination of whether payment of compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan complies with the 10-percent limit requires a calculation of the ratio of the compensation under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan (<I>i.e.,</I> the compensation subject to the 10-percent limit) and the total compensation corresponding to the relevant time period. For compensation subject to the 10-percent limit, the relevant time period is the time period for which a person makes reference to profits in determining the compensation (<I>i.e.,</I> when the compensation was earned). It does not matter whether the compensation is actually paid during that particular time period. For total compensation, the relevant time period is the same time period, but only certain types of compensation may be included in the total compensation amount for that time period (see comment 36(d)(1)-3.v.A). For example, assume that during calendar year 2014 a creditor pays an individual loan originator compensation in the following amounts: $80,000 in commissions based on the individual loan originator's performance and volume of loans generated during the calendar year; and $10,000 in an employer contribution to a designated tax-advantaged defined contribution plan on behalf of the individual loan originator. The creditor desires to pay the individual loan originator a year-end bonus of $10,000 under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan. The commissions are paid and employer contributions to the designated tax-advantaged defined contribution plan are made during calendar year 2014, but the year-end bonus will be paid in January 2015. For purposes of the 10-percent limit, the year-end bonus is counted toward the 10-percent limit for calendar year 2014, even though it is not actually paid until 2015. Therefore, for calendar year 2014 the individual loan originator's compensation that is subject to the 10-percent limit would be $10,000 (<I>i.e.,</I> the year-end bonus) and the total compensation would be $100,000 (<I>i.e.,</I> the sum of the commissions, the designated tax-advantaged plan contribution (assuming the creditor elects to include it in total compensation for calendar year 2014), and the bonus (assuming the creditor elects to include it in total compensation for calendar year 2014)); the bonus would be permissible under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) because it does not exceed 10 percent of total compensation. The determination of total compensation corresponding to 2014 also would not take into account any compensation subject to the 10-percent limit that is actually paid in 2014 but is earned during a different calendar year (e.g., an annual bonus determined with reference to mortgage-related business profits for calendar year 2013 that is paid in January 2014). If the employer contribution to the designated tax-advantaged plan is earned in 2014 but actually made in 2015, however, it may not be included in total compensation for 2014. A company, business unit, or affiliate, as applicable, may pay compensation subject to the 10-percent limit during different time periods falling within its annual accounting period for keeping records and reporting income and expenses, which may be a calendar year or a fiscal year depending on the annual accounting period. In such instances, however, the 10-percent limit applies both as to each time period and cumulatively as to the annual accounting period. For example, assume that a creditor uses a calendar-year accounting period. If the creditor pays an individual loan originator a bonus at the end of each quarter under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan, the payment of each quarterly bonus is subject to the 10-percent limit measured with respect to each quarter. The creditor can also pay an annual bonus under the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan that does not exceed the difference of 10 percent of the individual loan originator's total compensation corresponding to the calendar year and the aggregate amount of the quarterly bonuses.
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<P>D. <I>Awards of merchandise, services, trips, or similar prizes or incentives.</I> If any compensation paid to an individual loan originator under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv) consists of an award of merchandise, services, trips, or similar prize or incentive, the cash value of the award is factored into the calculation of the 10-percent total compensation limit. For example, during a given calendar year, individual loan originator A and individual loan originator B are each employed by a creditor and paid $40,000 in salary, and $45,000 in commissions. The creditor also contributes $5,000 to a designated tax-advantaged defined contribution plan for each individual loan originator during that calendar year, which the creditor elects to include in the total compensation amount. Neither individual loan originator is paid any other form of compensation by the creditor. In December of the calendar year, the creditor rewards both individual loan originators for their performance during the calendar year out of a bonus pool established with reference to the profits of the mortgage origination business unit. Individual loan originator A is paid a $10,000 cash bonus, meaning that individual loan originator A's total compensation is $100,000 (assuming the creditor elects to include the bonus in the total compensation amount). Individual loan originator B is paid a $7,500 cash bonus and awarded a vacation package with a cash value of $3,000, meaning that individual loan originator B's total compensation is $100,500 (assuming the creditor elects to include the reward in the total compensation amount). Under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>), individual loan originator A's $10,000 bonus is permissible because the bonus would not constitute more than 10 percent of individual loan originator A's total compensation for the calendar year. The creditor may not pay individual loan originator B the $7,500 bonus and award the vacation package, however, because the total value of the bonus and the vacation package would be $10,500, which is greater than 10 percent (10.45 percent) of individual loan originator B's total compensation for the calendar year. One way to comply with § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) would be if the amount of the bonus were reduced to $7,000 or less or the vacation package were structured such that its cash value would be $2,500 or less.
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<P>E. <I>Compensation determined only with reference to non-mortgage-related business profits.</I> Compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is not subject to the 10-percent total compensation limit under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) if the non-deferred profits-based compensation plan is determined with reference only to profits from business other than mortgage-related business, as determined in accordance with reasonable accounting principles. Reasonable accounting principles reflect an accurate allocation of revenues, expenses, profits, and losses among the person, any affiliate of the person, and any business units within the person or affiliates, and are consistent with the accounting principles applied by the person, the affiliate, or the business unit with respect to, as applicable, its internal budgeting and auditing functions and external reporting requirements. Examples of external reporting and filing requirements that may be applicable to creditors and loan originator organizations are Federal income tax filings, Federal securities law filings, or quarterly reporting of income, expenses, loan origination activity, and other information required by government-sponsored enterprises. As used in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>), profits means positive profits or losses avoided or mitigated.
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<P>F. <I>Additional examples. 1.</I> Assume that, during a given calendar year, a loan originator organization pays an individual loan originator employee $40,000 in salary and $125,000 in commissions, and makes a contribution of $15,000 to the individual loan originator's 401(k) plan. At the end of the year, the loan originator organization wishes to pay the individual loan originator a bonus based on a formula involving a number of performance metrics, to be paid out of a profit pool established at the level of the company but that is determined in part with reference to the profits of the company's mortgage origination unit. Assume that the loan originator organization derives revenues from sources other than transactions covered by § 1026.36(d). In this example, the performance bonus would be directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple individual loan originators' transactions as described in § 1026.36(d)(1)(i), because it is being determined with reference to profits from mortgage-related business. Assume, furthermore, that the loan originator organization elects to include the bonus in the total compensation amount for the calendar year. Thus, the bonus is permissible under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) if it does not exceed 10 percent of the loan originator's total compensation, which in this example consists of the individual loan originator's salary and commissions, the contribution to the 401(k) plan (if the loan originator organization elects to include the contribution in the total compensation amount), and the performance bonus. Therefore, if the loan originator organization elects to include the 401(k) contribution in total compensation for these purposes, the loan originator organization may pay the individual loan originator a performance bonus of up to $20,000 (<I>i.e.,</I> 10 percent of $200,000 in total compensation). If the loan originator organization does not include the 401(k) contribution in calculating total compensation, or the 401(k) contribution is actually made in January of the following calendar year (in which case it cannot be included in total compensation for the initial calendar year), the bonus may be up to $18,333.33. If the loan originator organization includes neither the 401(k) contribution nor the performance bonus in the total compensation amount, the bonus may not exceed $16,500.
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<P><I>2.</I> Assume that the compensation during a given calendar year of an individual loan originator employed by a creditor consists of only salary and commissions, and the individual loan originator does not participate in a designated tax-advantaged defined contribution plan. Assume further that the creditor uses a calendar-year accounting period. At the end of the calendar year, the creditor pays the individual loan originator two bonuses: A “performance” bonus based on the individual loan originator's aggregate loan volume for a calendar year that is paid out of a bonus pool determined with reference to the profits of the mortgage origination business unit, and a year-end “holiday” bonus in the same amount to all company employees that is paid out of a company-wide bonus pool. Because the performance bonus is paid out of a bonus pool that is determined with reference to the profits of the mortgage origination business unit, it is compensation that is determined with reference to mortgage-related business profits, and the bonus is therefore subject to the 10-percent total compensation limit. If the company-wide bonus pool from which the “holiday” bonus is paid is derived in part from profits of the creditor's mortgage origination business unit, then the combination of the “holiday” bonus and the performance bonus is subject to the 10-percent total compensation limit. The “holiday” bonus is not subject to the 10-percent total compensation limit if the bonus pool is determined with reference only to the profits of business units other than the mortgage origination business unit, as determined in accordance with reasonable accounting principles. If the “performance” bonus and the “holiday” bonus in the aggregate do not exceed 10 percent of the individual loan originator's total compensation, the bonuses may be paid under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) without the necessity of determining from which bonus pool they were paid or whether they were determined with reference to the profits of the creditor's mortgage origination business unit.
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<P>G. <I>Reasonable reliance by individual loan originator on accounting or statement by person paying compensation.</I> An individual loan originator is deemed to comply with its obligations regarding receipt of compensation under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) if the individual loan originator relies in good faith on an accounting or a statement provided by the person who determined the individual loan originator's compensation under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan pursuant to § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) and where the statement or accounting is provided within a reasonable time period following the person's determination.
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<P>vi. <I>Individual loan originators who originate ten or fewer transactions.</I> Assuming that the conditions in § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(A) are met, § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>2</I>) permits compensation to an individual loan originator under a non-deferred profits-based compensation plan even if the payment or contribution is directly or indirectly based on the terms of multiple individual loan originators' transactions if the individual is a loan originator (as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1)(i)) for ten or fewer consummated transactions during the 12-month period preceding the compensation determination. For example, assume a loan originator organization employs two individual loan originators who originate transactions subject to § 1026.36 during a given calendar year. Both employees are individual loan originators as defined in § 1026.36(a)(1)(ii), but only one of them (individual loan originator B) acts as a loan originator in the normal course of business, while the other (individual loan originator A) is called upon to do so only occasionally and regularly performs other duties (such as serving as a manager). In January of the following calendar year, the loan originator organization formally determines the financial performance of its mortgage business for the prior calendar year. Based on that determination, the loan originator organization on February 1 decides to pay a bonus to the individual loan originators out of a company bonus pool. Assume that, between February 1 of the prior calendar year and January 31 of the current calendar year, individual loan originator A was the loan originator for eight consummated transactions, and individual loan originator B was the loan originator for 15 consummated transactions. The loan originator organization may award the bonus to individual loan originator A under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>2</I>). The loan originator organization may not award the bonus to individual loan originator B relying on the exception under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>2</I>) because it would not apply, although it could award a bonus pursuant to the 10-percent total compensation limit under § 1026.36(d)(1)(iv)(B)(<I>1</I>) if the requirements of that provision are complied with.
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<P>4. <I>Creditor's flexibility in setting loan terms.</I> Section 1026.36(d) also does not limit a creditor from offering or providing different loan terms to the consumer based on the creditor's assessment of the credit and other transactional risks involved. If a creditor pays compensation to a loan originator in compliance with § 1026.36(d), the creditor may recover the costs of the loan originator's compensation and other costs of the transaction by charging the consumer points or fees or a higher interest rate or a combination of these. Thus, in these transactions, a creditor may charge a higher interest rate to a consumer who will pay fewer of the costs of the transaction at or before closing or it may offer the consumer a lower rate if the consumer pays more of the transaction costs at or before closing. For example, if the consumer pays half of the transaction costs at or before closing, a creditor may charge an interest rate of 6.0 percent but, if the consumer pays none of the transaction costs at or before closing, the creditor may charge an interest rate of 6.5 percent. In these transactions, a creditor also may offer different consumers varying interest rates that include a consistent interest rate premium to recoup the loan originator's compensation through increased interest paid by the consumer (such as by consistently adding 0.25 percentage points to the interest rate on each transaction where the loan originator is compensated based on a percentage of the amount of the credit extended).
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<P>5. <I>Effect of modification of transaction terms.</I> Under § 1026.36(d)(1), a loan originator's compensation may not be based on any of the terms of a credit transaction. Thus, a creditor and a loan originator may not agree to set the loan originator's compensation at a certain level and then subsequently lower it in selective cases (such as where the consumer is able to obtain a lower rate from another creditor). When the creditor offers to extend credit with specified terms and conditions (such as the rate and points), the amount of the originator's compensation for that transaction is not subject to change (increase or decrease) based on whether different credit terms are negotiated. For example, if the creditor agrees to lower the rate that was initially offered, the new offer may not be accompanied by a reduction in the loan originator's compensation. Thus, while the creditor may change credit terms or pricing to match a competitor, to avoid triggering high-cost mortgage provisions, or for other reasons, the loan originator's compensation on that transaction may not be changed for those reasons. A loan originator therefore may not agree to reduce its compensation or provide a credit to the consumer to pay a portion of the consumer's closing costs, for example, to avoid high-cost mortgage provisions. A loan originator organization may not reduce its own compensation in a transaction where the loan originator organization receives compensation directly from the consumer, with or without a corresponding reduction in compensation paid to an individual loan originator. See comment 36(d)(1)-7 for further interpretation.
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<P>6. <I>Periodic changes in loan originator compensation and terms of transactions.</I> Section 1026.36 does not limit a creditor or other person from periodically revising the compensation it agrees to pay a loan originator. However, the revised compensation arrangement must not result in payments to the loan originator that are based on the terms of a credit transaction. A creditor or other person might periodically review factors such as loan performance, transaction volume, as well as current market conditions for loan originator compensation, and prospectively revise the compensation it agrees to pay to a loan originator. For example, assume that during the first six months of the year, a creditor pays $3,000 to a particular loan originator for each loan delivered, regardless of the terms of the transaction. After considering the volume of business produced by that loan originator, the creditor could decide that as of July 1, it will pay $3,250 for each loan delivered by that particular loan originator, regardless of the terms of the transaction. No violation occurs even if the loans made by the creditor after July 1 generally carry a higher interest rate than loans made before that date, to reflect the higher compensation.
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<P>7. <I>Permitted decreases in loan originator compensation.</I> Notwithstanding comment 36(d)(1)-5, § 1026.36(d)(1) does not prohibit a loan originator from decreasing its compensation to defray the cost, in whole or part, of an unforeseen increase in an actual settlement cost over an estimated settlement cost disclosed to the consumer pursuant to section 5(c) of RESPA or an unforeseen actual settlement cost not disclosed to the consumer pursuant to section 5(c) of RESPA. For purposes of comment 36(d)(1)-7, an increase in an actual settlement cost over an estimated settlement cost or a cost not disclosed is unforeseen if the increase occurs even though the estimate provided to the consumer is consistent with the best information reasonably available to the disclosing person at the time of the estimate. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a consumer agrees to lock an interest rate with a creditor in connection with the financing of a purchase-money transaction. A title issue with the property being purchased delays closing by one week, which in turn causes the rate lock to expire. The consumer desires to re-lock the interest rate. Provided that the title issue was unforeseen, the loan originator may decrease the loan originator's compensation to pay for all or part of the rate-lock extension fee.
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<P>ii. Assume that when applying the tolerance requirements under the regulations implementing RESPA sections 4 and 5(c), there is a tolerance violation of $70 that must be cured. Provided the violation was unforeseen, the rule is not violated if the individual loan originator's compensation decreases to pay for all or part of the amount required to cure the tolerance violation.
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<P>8. <I>Record retention. See</I> comment 25(c)(2)-1 and -2 for commentary on complying with the record retention requirements of § 1026.25(c)(2) as they apply to § 1026.36(d)(1).
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<P>9. <I>Amount of credit extended.</I> A loan originator's compensation may be based on the amount of credit extended, subject to certain conditions. Section 1026.36(d)(1) does not prohibit an arrangement under which a loan originator is paid compensation based on a percentage of the amount of credit extended, provided the percentage is fixed and does not vary with the amount of credit extended. However, compensation that is based on a fixed percentage of the amount of credit extended may be subject to a minimum and/or maximum dollar amount, as long as the minimum and maximum dollar amounts do not vary with each credit transaction. For example:
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<P>i. A creditor may offer a loan originator 1 percent of the amount of credit extended for all loans the originator arranges for the creditor, but not less than $1,000 or greater than $5,000 for each loan.
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<P>ii. A creditor may <I>not</I> offer a loan originator 1 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans of $300,000 or more, 2 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans between $200,000 and $300,000, and 3 percent of the amount of credit extended for loans of $200,000 or less.
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<P>10. <I>Amount of credit extended under a reverse mortgage.</I> For closed-end reverse mortgage loans, the “amount of credit extended” for purposes of § 1026.36(d)(1) means either:
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<P>i. The maximum proceeds available to the consumer under the loan; or
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<P>ii. The maximum claim amount as defined in 24 CFR 206.3 if the mortgage is subject to 24 CFR part 206, or the appraised value of the property, as determined by the appraisal used in underwriting the loan, if the mortgage is not subject to 24 CFR part 206.
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<HD3>36(d)(2) Payments by Persons Other Than Consumer
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<HD3>36(d)(2)(i) Dual Compensation
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<P>1. <I>Compensation in connection with a particular transaction.</I> Under § 1026.36(d)(2)(i)(A), if any loan originator receives compensation directly from a consumer in a transaction, no other person may provide any compensation to any loan originator, directly or indirectly, in connection with that particular credit transaction, whether before, at, or after consummation. See comment 36(d)(2)(i)-2 discussing compensation received directly from the consumer. The restrictions imposed under § 1026.36(d)(2)(i) relate only to payments, such as commissions, that are specific to, and paid solely in connection with, the transaction in which the consumer has paid compensation directly to a loan originator. In a transaction where a loan originator receives compensation directly from a consumer, a creditor still may provide funds for the benefit of the consumer in that transaction, provided such funds are applied solely toward costs of the transaction other than loan originator compensation. Section 1026.36(d)(2)(i)(C) provides that, if a loan originator organization receives compensation directly from a consumer, the loan originator organization may provide compensation to individual loan originators, and the individual loan originator may receive compensation from the loan originator organization, subject to the restriction in § 1026.36(d)(1). (See comment 36(a)(1)-1.i for an explanation of the use of the term “loan originator organization” and “individual loan originator” for purposes of § 1026.36(d)(2)(i)(C).) For example, payments by a mortgage broker to an individual loan originator as compensation for originating a specific credit transaction do not violate § 1026.36(d)(2)(i)(A) even if the consumer directly pays the mortgage broker a fee in connection with that transaction. However, neither the mortgage broker nor the individual loan originator can receive compensation from the creditor in connection with that particular credit transaction.
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<P>2. <I>Compensation received directly from a consumer.</I> i. Payments by a consumer to a loan originator from loan proceeds are considered compensation received directly from the consumer, while payments derived from an increased interest rate are not considered compensation received directly from the consumer. However, payments by a consumer to the creditor are not considered payments to the loan originator that are received directly from the consumer whether they are paid directly by the consumer (for example, in cash or by check) or out of the loan proceeds. See the definition of “compensation” in § 1026.36(a)(3) and related commentary.
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<P>ii. Funds from the creditor that will be applied to reduce the consumer's settlement charges, including origination fees paid by a creditor to the loan originator, that are characterized on the disclosures made pursuant to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act as a “credit” are nevertheless not considered to be received by the loan originator directly from the consumer for purposes of § 1026.36(d)(2)(i).
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<P>iii. Section 1026.36(d)(2)(i)(B) provides that compensation received directly from a consumer includes payments to a loan originator made pursuant to an agreement between the consumer and a person other than the creditor or its affiliates, under which such other person agrees to provide funds toward the consumer's costs of the transaction (including loan originator compensation). Compensation to a loan originator is sometimes paid on the consumer's behalf by a person other than a creditor or its affiliates, such as a non-creditor seller, home builder, home improvement contractor or real estate broker or agent. Such payments to a loan originator are considered compensation received directly from the consumer for purposes of § 1026.36(d)(2) if they are made pursuant to an agreement between the consumer and the person other than the creditor or its affiliates. State law determines whether there is an agreement between the parties. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(b)(3). The parties do not have to agree specifically that the payments will be used to pay for the loan originator's compensation, but just that the person will make a payment to the loan originator toward the consumer's costs of the transaction, or “closing costs” and the loan originator retains such payment. For example, assume that a non-creditor seller (that is not the creditor's affiliate) has an agreement with the consumer to pay $1,000 of the consumer's closing costs on a transaction. Any of the $1,000 that is paid by the non-creditor seller to the loan originator and constitutes “compensation” as defined in § 1026.36(a)(3) to the loan originator is compensation received directly from the consumer, even if the agreement does not specify that some or all of $1,000 must be used to compensate the loan originator. Nonetheless, payments by the consumer to the creditor are not payments to the loan originator that are received directly from the consumer. <I>See</I> comment 36(d)(2)(i)-2.i. Accordingly, payments in the transaction to the creditor on behalf of the consumer by a person other than the creditor or its affiliates are not payments to the loan originator that are received directly from the consumer.
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<HD3>36(d)(3) Affiliates
</HD3>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1026.36(d), affiliates are treated as a single “person.” The term “affiliate” is defined in § 1026.32(b)(2). For example, assume a parent company has two mortgage lending subsidiaries. Under § 1026.36(d)(1), subsidiary “A” could not pay a loan originator greater compensation for a loan with an interest rate of 8 percent than it would pay for a loan with an interest rate of 7 percent. If the loan originator may deliver loans to both subsidiaries, they must compensate the loan originator in the same manner. Accordingly, if the loan originator delivers the loan to subsidiary “B” and the interest rate is 8 percent, the originator must receive the same compensation that would have been paid by subsidiary A for a loan with a rate of either 7 or 8 percent.
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<HD3>36(e) Prohibition on Steering
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Compensation.</I> See comment 36(d)(1)-1 for guidance on compensation that is subject to § 1026.36(e).
</P>
<HD3>36(e)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Steering.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36(e), directing or “steering” a consumer to consummate a particular credit transaction means advising, counseling, or otherwise influencing a consumer to accept that transaction. For such actions to constitute steering, the consumer must actually consummate the transaction in question. Thus, § 1026.36(e)(1) does not address the actions of a loan originator if the consumer does not actually obtain a loan through that loan originator.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prohibited conduct.</I> Under § 1026.36(e)(1), a loan originator may not direct or steer a consumer to consummate a transaction based on the fact that the loan originator would increase the amount of compensation that the loan originator would receive for that transaction compared to other transactions, unless the consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest.
</P>
<P>i. In determining whether a consummated transaction is in the consumer's interest, that transaction must be compared to other possible loan offers available through the originator, if any, and for which the consumer was likely to qualify, at the time that transaction was offered to the consumer. Possible loan offers are available through the loan originator if they could be obtained from a creditor with which the loan originator regularly does business. Section 1026.36(e)(1) does not require a loan originator to establish a business relationship with any creditor with which the loan originator does not already do business. To be considered a possible loan offer available through the loan originator, an offer need not be extended by the creditor; it need only be an offer that the creditor likely would extend upon receiving an application from the applicant, based on the creditor's current credit standards and its current rate sheets or other similar means of communicating its current credit terms to the loan originator. An originator need not inform the consumer about a potential transaction if the originator makes a good faith determination that the consumer is not likely to qualify for it.
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<P>ii. Section 1026.36(e)(1) does not require a loan originator to direct a consumer to the transaction that will result in a creditor paying the least amount of compensation to the originator. However, if the loan originator reviews possible loan offers available from a significant number of the creditors with which the originator regularly does business, and the originator directs the consumer to the transaction that will result in the least amount of creditor-paid compensation for the loan originator, the requirements of § 1026.36(e)(1) are deemed to be satisfied. In the case where a loan originator directs the consumer to the transaction that will result in a greater amount of creditor-paid compensation for the loan originator, § 1026.36(e)(1) is not violated if the terms and conditions on that transaction compared to the other possible loan offers available through the originator, and for which the consumer likely qualifies, are the same. A loan originator who is an employee of the creditor on a transaction may not obtain compensation that is based on the transaction's terms or conditions pursuant to § 1026.36(d)(1), and compliance with that provision by such a loan originator also satisfies the requirements of § 1026.36(e)(1) for that transaction with the creditor. However, if a creditor's employee acts as a broker by forwarding a consumer's application to a creditor <I>other than</I> the loan originator's employer, such as when the employer does not offer any loan products for which the consumer would qualify, the loan originator is not an employee of the creditor in that transaction and is subject to § 1026.36(e)(1) if the originator is compensated for arranging the loan with the other creditor.
</P>
<P>iii. See the commentary under § 1026.36(e)(3) for additional guidance on what constitutes a “significant number of creditors with which a loan originator regularly does business” and guidance on the determination about transactions for which “the consumer likely qualifies.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> Assume a loan originator determines that a consumer likely qualifies for a loan from Creditor A that has a fixed interest rate of 7 percent, but the loan originator directs the consumer to a loan from Creditor B having a rate of 7.5 percent. If the loan originator receives more in compensation from Creditor B than the amount that would have been paid by Creditor A, the prohibition in § 1026.36(e) is violated unless the higher-rate loan is in the consumer's interest. For example, a higher-rate loan might be in the consumer's interest if the lower-rate loan has a prepayment penalty, or if the lower-rate loan requires the consumer to pay more in up-front charges that the consumer is unable or unwilling to pay or finance as part of the loan amount.
</P>
<HD3>36(e)(2) Permissible Transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbors.</I> A loan originator that satisfies § 1026.36(e)(2) is deemed to comply with § 1026.36(e)(1). A loan originator that does not satisfy § 1026.36(e)(2) is not subject to any presumption regarding the originator's compliance or noncompliance with § 1026.36(e)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Minimum number of loan options.</I> To obtain the safe harbor, § 1026.36(e)(2) requires that the loan originator present loan options that meet the criteria in § 1026.36(e)(3)(i) for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest. As required by § 1026.36(e)(3)(ii), the loan originator must have a good faith belief that the options presented are loans for which the consumer likely qualifies. If the loan originator is not able to form such a good faith belief for loan options that meet the criteria in § 1026.36(e)(3)(i) for a given type of transaction, the loan originator may satisfy § 1026.36(e)(2) by presenting all loans for which the consumer likely qualifies and that meet the other requirements in § 1026.36(e)(3) for that given type of transaction. A loan originator may present to the consumer any number of loan options, but presenting a consumer more than four loan options for each type of transaction in which the consumer expressed an interest and for which the consumer likely qualifies would not likely help the consumer make a meaningful choice.
</P>
<HD3>36(e)(3) Loan Options Presented
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Significant number of creditors.</I> A significant number of the creditors with which a loan originator regularly does business is three or more of those creditors. If the loan originator regularly does business with fewer than three creditors, the originator is deemed to comply by obtaining loan options from all the creditors with which it regularly does business. Under § 1026.36(e)(3)(i), the loan originator must obtain loan options from a significant number of creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business, but the loan originator need not present loan options from all such creditors to the consumer. For example, if three loans available from one of the creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business satisfy the criteria in § 1026.36(e)(3)(i), presenting those and no options from any other creditor satisfies that section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditors with which loan originator regularly does business.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor in § 1026.36(e)(2), the loan originator must obtain and review loan options from a significant number of the creditors with which the loan originator regularly does business. For this purpose, a loan originator regularly does business with a creditor if:
</P>
<P>i. There is a written agreement between the originator and the creditor governing the originator's submission of mortgage loan applications to the creditor;
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor has extended credit secured by a dwelling to one or more consumers during the current or previous calendar month based on an application submitted by the loan originator; or
</P>
<P>iii. The creditor has extended credit secured by a dwelling twenty-five or more times during the previous twelve calendar months based on applications submitted by the loan originator. For this purpose, the previous twelve calendar months begin with the calendar month that precedes the month in which the loan originator accepted the consumer's application.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Lowest interest rate.</I> To qualify under the safe harbor in § 1026.36(e)(2), for each type of transaction in which the consumer has expressed an interest, the loan originator must present the consumer with loan options that meet the criteria in § 1026.36(e)(3)(i) for which the loan originator has a good faith belief that the consumer is likely to qualify. The criteria are: the loan with the lowest interest rate; the loan with the lowest total dollar amount of discount points, origination points or origination fees; and a loan with the lowest interest rate without negative amortization, a prepayment penalty, a balloon payment in the first seven years of the loan term, shared equity, or shared appreciation, or, in the case of a reverse mortgage, a loan without a prepayment penalty, shared equity, or shared appreciation. The loan with the lowest interest rate for which the consumer likely qualifies is the loan with the lowest rate the consumer can likely obtain, regardless of how many discount points, origination points or origination fees the consumer must pay to obtain it. To identify the loan with the lowest interest rate, for any loan that has an initial rate that is fixed for at least five years, the loan originator uses the initial rate that would be in effect at consummation. For a loan with an initial rate that is not fixed for at least five years:
</P>
<P>i. If the interest rate varies based on changes to an index, the originator uses the fully-indexed rate that would be in effect at consummation without regard to any initial discount or premium.
</P>
<P>ii. For a step-rate loan, the originator uses the highest rate that would apply during the first five years.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transactions for which the consumer likely qualifies.</I> To qualify under the safe harbor in § 1026.36(e)(2), the loan originator must have a good faith belief that the loan options presented to the consumer pursuant to § 1026.36(e)(3) are transactions for which the consumer likely qualifies. The loan originator's belief that the consumer likely qualifies should be based on information reasonably available to the loan originator at the time the loan options are presented. In making this determination, the loan originator may rely on information provided by the consumer, even if it subsequently is determined to be inaccurate. For purposes of § 1026.36(e)(3), a loan originator is not expected to know all aspects of each creditor's underwriting criteria. But pricing or other information that is routinely communicated by creditors to loan originators is considered to be reasonably available to the loan originator, for example, rate sheets showing creditors' current pricing and the required minimum credit score or other eligibility criteria.
</P>
<HD3>36(f) Loan Originator Qualification Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> Section 1026.36(f) sets forth qualification requirements that a loan originator must meet. As provided in § 1026.36(a)(1) and accompanying commentary, the term “loan originator” includes natural persons and organizations and does not exclude creditors for purposes of the qualification requirements in § 1026.36(f).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Licensing and registration requirements.</I> Section 1026.36(f) requires loan originators to comply with applicable State and Federal licensing and registration requirements, including any such requirements imposed by the SAFE Act and its implementing regulations and State laws. SAFE Act licensing and registration requirements apply to individual loan originators, but many State licensing and registration requirements apply to loan originator organizations as well.
</P>
<P>3. <I>No effect on licensing and registration requirements.</I> Section 1026.36(f) does not affect which loan originators must comply with State and Federal licensing and registration requirements. For example, the fact that the definition of loan originator in § 1026.36(a)(1) differs somewhat from that in the SAFE Act does not affect who must comply with the SAFE Act. To illustrate, assume an individual is an employee of an organization that a State has determined to be a bona fide nonprofit organization and the State has not subjected the employee to that State's SAFE Act loan originator licensing. If that same individual meets the definition of loan originator in § 1026.36(a)(1), the individual is subject to the requirements of § 1026.36, but the State may continue not to subject the employee to that State's SAFE Act licensing requirements. Similarly, the qualification requirements imposed under § 1026.36(f) do not add to or affect the criteria that States must consider in determining whether a loan originator organization is a bona fide nonprofit organization under the SAFE Act.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Legal existence and foreign qualification.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(1) requires a loan originator organization to comply with applicable State law requirements governing the legal existence and foreign qualification of the loan originator organization. Covered State law requirements include those that must be complied with to bring the loan originator organization into legal existence, to maintain its legal existence, to be permitted to transact business in another State, or to facilitate service of process. For example, covered State law requirements include those for incorporation or other type of legal formation and for designating and maintaining a registered agent for service of process. State law requirements to pay taxes and other requirements that do not relate to legal accountability of the loan originator organization to consumers are outside the scope of § 1026.36(f)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>License or registration.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(2) requires the loan originator organization to ensure that individual loan originators who work for it are licensed or registered in compliance with the SAFE Act and other applicable law. The individual loan originators who work for a loan originator organization include individual loan originators who are its employees or who operate under a brokerage agreement with the loan originator organization. Thus, for example, a brokerage is responsible for verifying that the loan originator individuals who work directly for it are licensed and registered in accordance with applicable law, whether the individual loan originators are its employees or independent contractors who operate pursuant to a brokerage agreement. A loan originator organization can meet this duty by confirming the registration or license status of an individual at <I>www.nmlsconsumeraccess.org.</I>
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Unlicensed individual loan originators.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(3) sets forth actions that a loan originator organization must take for any of its individual loan originator employees who are not required to be licensed and are not licensed as a loan originator pursuant to the SAFE Act. Individual loan originators who are not subject to SAFE Act licensing generally include employees of depository institutions and their Federally regulated subsidiaries and employees of bona fide nonprofit organizations that a State has exempted from licensing under the criteria in 12 CFR 1008.103(e)(7).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Criminal and credit histories.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(3)(i) requires the loan originator organization to obtain, for any of its individual loan originator employees who is not required to be licensed and is not licensed as a loan originator pursuant to the SAFE Act, a criminal background check, a credit report, and information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal determinations by any government jurisdiction. The requirement applies to individual loan originator employees who were hired on or after January 1, 2014 (or whom the loan originator organization hired before this date but for whom there were no applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire or before January 1, 2014, used to screen the individual). A credit report may be obtained directly from a consumer reporting agency or through a commercial service. A loan originator organization with access to the NMLSR can meet the requirement for the criminal background check by reviewing any criminal background check it receives upon compliance with the requirement in 12 CFR 1007.103(d)(1) and can meet the requirement to obtain information related to any administrative, civil, or criminal determinations by any government jurisdiction by obtaining the information through the NMLSR. Loan originator organizations that do not have access to these items through the NMLSR may obtain them by other means. For example, a criminal background check may be obtained from a law enforcement agency or commercial service. Information on any past administrative, civil, or criminal findings (such as from disciplinary or enforcement actions) may be obtained from the individual loan originator.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Retroactive obtaining of information not required.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(3)(i) does not require the loan originator organization to obtain the covered information for an individual whom the loan originator organization hired as a loan originator before January 1, 2014, and screened under applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire. However, if the individual subsequently ceases to be employed as a loan originator by that loan originator organization, and later resumes employment as a loan originator by that loan originator organization (or any other loan originator organization), the loan originator organization is subject to the requirements of § 1026.36(f)(3)(i).


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P><I>Paragraph 36(f)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope of review.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(3)(ii) requires the loan originator organization to review the information that it obtains under § 1026.36(f)(3)(i) and other reasonably available information to determine whether the individual loan originator meets the standards in § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii). Other reasonably available information includes any information the loan originator organization has obtained or would obtain as part of a reasonably prudent hiring process, including information obtained from application forms, candidate interviews, other reliable information and evidence provided by a candidate, and reference checks. The requirement applies to individual loan originator employees who were hired on or after January 1, 2014 (or whom the loan originator organization hired before this date but for whom there were no applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire or before January 1, 2014, used to screen the individual).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Retroactive determinations not required.</I> Section 1026.36(f)(3)(ii) does not require the loan originator organization to review the covered information and make the required determinations for an individual whom the loan originator organization hired as a loan originator on or before January 1, 2014 and screened under applicable statutory or regulatory background standards in effect at the time of hire. However, if the individual subsequently ceases to be employed as a loan originator by that loan originator organization, and later resumes employment as a loan originator by that loan originator organization (or any other loan originator organization), the loan originator organization employing the individual is subject to the requirements of § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Subsequent determinations.</I> The loan originator organization must make the required determinations for an individual before the individual acts as a loan originator. Subsequent reviews and assessments are required only if the loan originator organization knows of reliable information indicating that the individual loan originator likely no longer meets the required standards in § 1026.36(f)(3). For example, if the loan originator organization has knowledge of criminal conduct of its individual loan originator through a newspaper article, a previously obtained criminal background report, or the NMLSR, the loan originator organization must determine whether any resulting conviction, or any other information, causes the individual to fail to meet the standards in § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii), regardless of when the loan originator was hired or previously screened.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(3)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Financial responsibility, character, and general fitness.</I> The determination of financial responsibility, character, and general fitness required under § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii)(B) requires an assessment of all information obtained pursuant to paragraph (f)(3)(i) and any other reasonably available information, including information that is known to the loan originator organization or would become known to the loan originator organization as part of a reasonably prudent hiring process. The absence of any significant adverse information is sufficient to support an affirmative determination that the individual meets the standards. A review and assessment of financial responsibility is sufficient if it considers, as relevant factors, the existence of current outstanding judgments, tax liens, other government liens, nonpayment of child support, or a pattern of bankruptcies, foreclosures, or delinquent accounts. A review and assessment of financial responsibility is not required to consider debts arising from medical expenses. A review and assessment of character and general fitness is sufficient if it considers, as relevant factors, acts of unfairness or dishonesty, including dishonesty by the individual in the course of seeking employment or in connection with determinations pursuant to the qualification requirements of § 1026.36(f), and any disciplinary actions by regulatory or professional licensing agencies. No single factor necessarily requires a determination that the individual does not meet the standards for financial responsibility, character, or general fitness, provided that the loan originator organization considers all relevant factors and reasonably determines that, on balance, the individual meets the standards.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written procedures for making determinations.</I> A loan originator organization that establishes written procedures for determining whether individuals meet the financial responsibility, character, and general fitness standards under § 1026.36(f)(3)(ii)(B) and comment 36(f)(3)(ii)(B)-1 and follows those written procedures for an individual and complies with the requirement for that individual. Such procedures may provide that bankruptcies and foreclosures are considered under the financial responsibility standard only if they occurred within a recent timeframe established in the procedures. Such procedures are not required to include review of a credit score.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(f)(3)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Training.</I> The periodic training required in § 1026.36(f)(3)(iii) must be sufficient in frequency, timing, duration, and content to ensure that the individual loan originator has the knowledge of State and Federal legal requirements that apply to the individual loan originator's loan origination activities. The training must take into consideration the particular responsibilities of the individual loan originator and the nature and complexity of the mortgage loans with which the individual loan originator works. An individual loan originator is not required to receive training on requirements and standards that apply to types of mortgage loans that the individual loan originator does not originate, or on subjects in which the individual loan originator already has the necessary knowledge and skill. Training may be delivered by the loan originator organization or any other person and may utilize workstation, internet, teleconferencing, or other interactive technologies and delivery methods. Training that a government agency or housing finance agency has established for an individual to originate mortgage loans under a program sponsored or regulated by a Federal, State, or other government agency or housing finance agency satisfies the requirement in § 1026.36(f)(3)(iii), to the extent that the training covers the types of loans the individual loan originator originates and applicable Federal and State laws and regulations. Training that the NMLSR has approved to meet the licensed loan originator continuing education requirement at § 1008.107(a)(2) of this chapter satisfies the requirement of § 1026.36(f)(3)(iii), to the extent that the training covers the types of loans the individual loan originator originates and applicable Federal and State laws and regulations. The training requirements under § 1026.36(f)(3)(iii) apply to individual loan originators regardless of when they were hired.
</P>
<HD3>36(g) Name and NMLSR ID on Loan Documents
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(g)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>NMLSR ID.</I> Section 1026.36(g) requires a loan originator organization to include its name and NMLSR ID and the name and NMLSR ID of the individual loan originator on certain loan documents. As provided in § 1026.36(a)(1), the term “loan originator” includes creditors that engage in loan originator activities for purposes of this requirement. Thus, for example, if an individual loan originator employed by a bank originates a loan, the names and NMLSR IDs of the individual and the bank must be included on covered loan documents. The NMLSR ID is a number generally assigned by the NMLSR to individuals registered or licensed through NMLSR to provide loan origination services. For more information, see the SAFE Act sections 1503(3) and (12) and 1504 (12 U.S.C. 5102(3) and (12) and 5103), and its implementing regulations (12 CFR 1007.103(a) and 1008.103(a)(2)). A loan originator organization may also have an NMLSR unique identifier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan originators without NMLSR IDs.</I> An NMLSR ID is not required by § 1026.36(g) to be included on loan documents if the loan originator is not required to obtain and has not been issued an NMLSR ID. For example, certain loan originator organizations and individual loan originators who are employees of bona fide nonprofit organizations may not be required to obtain a unique identifier under State law. However, some loan originators may have obtained NMLSR IDs, even if they are not required to have one for their current jobs. If a loan originator organization or an individual loan originator has been provided a unique identifier by the NMLSR, it must be included on the covered loan documents, regardless of whether the loan originator organization or individual loan originator is required to obtain an NMLSR unique identifier. In any event, the name of the loan originator is required by § 1026.36(g) to be included on the covered loan documents.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Inclusion of name and NMLSR ID.</I> Section 1026.36(g)(1) requires the inclusion of loan originator names and NMLSR IDs on each loan document. Those items need not be included more than once on each loan document on which loan originator names and NMLSR IDs are required, such as by including them on every page of a document.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 36(g)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple individual loan originators.</I> If more than one individual meets the definition of a loan originator for a transaction, the name and NMLSR ID of the individual loan originator with primary responsibility for the transaction at the time the loan document is issued must be included. A loan originator organization that establishes and follows a reasonable, written policy for determining which individual loan originator has primary responsibility for the transaction at the time the document is issued complies with the requirement. If the individual loan originator with primary responsibility for a transaction at the time a document is issued is not the same individual loan originator who had primary responsibility for the transaction at the time that a previously issued document was issued, the previously issued document is not required to be reissued merely to change a loan originator name and NMLSR ID.
</P>
<P><I>36(i) Prohibition on financing credit insurance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Financing credit insurance premiums or fees.</I> In the case of single-premium credit insurance, a creditor violates § 1026.36(i) by adding the credit insurance premium or fee to the amount owed by the consumer at closing. In the case of monthly-pay credit insurance, a creditor violates § 1026.36(i) if, upon the close of the monthly period in which the premium or fee is due, the creditor includes the premium or fee in the amount owed by the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>36(k) Negative amortization counseling.</I>
</P>
<P><I>36(k)(1) Counseling required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>HUD-certified or -approved counselor or counseling organization.</I> For purposes of § 1026.36(k), organizations or counselors certified or approved by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to provide the homeownership counseling required by § 1026.36(k) include counselors and counseling organizations that are certified or approved pursuant to section 106(e) of the Housing and Urban Development Act of 1968 (12 U.S.C. 1701x(e)) or 24 CFR part 214, unless HUD determines otherwise.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Homeownership counseling.</I> The counseling required under § 1026.36(k) must include information regarding the risks and consequences of negative amortization.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Documentation.</I> Examples of documentation that demonstrate a consumer has received the counseling required under § 1026.36(k) include a certificate of counseling, letter, or email from a HUD-certified or -approved counselor or counseling organization indicating that the consumer has received homeownership counseling.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Processing applications.</I> Prior to receiving documentation that a consumer has received the counseling required under § 1026.36(k), a creditor may not extend credit to a first-time borrower in connection with a closed-end transaction secured by a dwelling that may result in negative amortization, but may engage in other activities, such as processing an application for such a transaction (by, for example, ordering an appraisal or title search).
</P>
<P><I>36(k)(3) Steering prohibited.</I>
</P>
<P>1. See comments 34(a)(5)(vi)-1 and -2 for guidance concerning steering.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.37—Content of Disclosures for Certain Mortgage Transactions (Loan Estimate)
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<P>1. <I>Disclosures not applicable.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.37 are required to reflect the terms of the legal obligation between the parties, and if any information necessary for an accurate disclosure is unknown to the creditor, the creditor shall make the disclosure in good faith, based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor pursuant to §§ 1026.17(c) and 1026.19(e). See comments 17(c)(1)-1, 17(c)(2)(i)-1 and -2, and 19(e)(1)(i)-1. Where a disclosure is not applicable to a particular transaction, unless otherwise provided by § 1026.37, form H-24 of appendix H to this part may not be modified to delete the disclosure from form H-24, or to state “not applicable” or “N/A” in place of such disclosure. The portion of the form pertaining to the inapplicable disclosure may be left blank, unless otherwise provided by § 1026.37. For example, in a transaction for which the consumer does not pay points to the creditor to reduce the interest rate, the amounts required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(f)(1)(i) may be left blank on form H-24. As provided in § 1026.37(i) and (j), however, the adjustable payment and adjustable interest rate tables required by those paragraphs may be included only if those disclosures are applicable to the transaction and otherwise must be excluded.
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<P>2. <I>Format.</I> See § 1026.37(o) and its commentary for guidance on the proper format to be used in making the disclosures, as well as permissible modifications.
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<P><I>37(a) General information.</I>
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<P><I>37(a)(3) Creditor.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> For transactions with multiple creditors, see § 1026.17(d) and comment 17(d)-1 for further guidance. The creditor making the disclosures, however, must be identified as the creditor for purposes of § 1026.37(a)(3).
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<P>2. <I>Mortgage broker as loan originator.</I> In transactions involving a mortgage broker, the name and address of the creditor must be disclosed, if known, even if the mortgage broker provides the disclosures to the consumer under § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii). As required by § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), the mortgage broker must make a good faith effort to disclose the name and address of the creditor, but if the name of the creditor is not yet known, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(3) may be left blank. <I>See</I> comment 37-1.
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<P><I>37(a)(4) Date issued.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Applicable date.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(4) requires disclosure of the date the creditor mails or delivers the Loan Estimate to the consumer. The creditor's method of delivery does not affect the date issued. For example, if the creditor hand delivers the Loan Estimate to the consumer on August 14, or if the creditor places the Loan Estimate in the mail on August 14, the date disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(4) is August 14.
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<P>2. <I>Mortgage broker as loan originator.</I> In transactions involving a mortgage broker, the date disclosed is the date the mortgage broker mails or delivers the Loan Estimate to the consumer, because pursuant to § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii), the mortgage broker is required to comply with all relevant requirements of § 1026.19(e).
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<P><I>37(a)(5) Applicants.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> If there is more than one consumer applying for the credit, § 1026.37(a)(5) requires disclosure of the name and the mailing address of each consumer to whom the Loan Estimate will be delivered. If the names and mailing addresses of all consumers applying for the credit do not fit in the space allocated on the Loan Estimate, an additional page with that information may be appended to the end of the form. For additional information on permissible changes, see § 1026.37(o)(5) and its commentary.
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<P><I>37(a)(6) Property.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Alternate property address.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(6) requires disclosure of the address including the zip code of the property that secures or will secure the transaction. A creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(6) by disclosing a complete address for purposes of the U.S. Postal Service. If the address is unavailable, a creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(6) by disclosing the location of such property including a zip code, which is required in all instances. Location of the property under § 1026.37(a)(6) includes location information, such as a lot number. The disclosure of multiple zip codes is permitted if the consumer is investigating home purchase opportunities in multiple zip codes.
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<P>2. <I>Personal property.</I> Where personal property also secures the credit transaction, a description of that property may be disclosed, at the creditor's option pursuant to § 1026.37(a)(6), if a description fits in the space provided on form H-24 for the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(6). An additional page may not be appended to the form to disclose a description of personal property.
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<P>3. <I>Multiple properties.</I> Where more than one property secures the credit transaction, § 1026.37(a)(6) requires disclosure of all properties. If the addresses of all properties securing the transaction do not fit in the space allocated on the Loan Estimate, an additional page with that information with respect to real properties may be appended to the end of the form.
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<P><I>37(a)(7) Sale price.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Estimated property value.</I> In transactions where there is no seller, such as in a refinancing, § 1026.37(a)(7)(ii) requires the creditor to disclose the estimated value of the property identified in § 1026.37(a)(6) based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, which may include, at the creditor's option, the estimated value of the improvements to be made on the property in transactions involving construction. The creditor may use the estimate provided by the consumer at application unless it has performed its own estimate of the property value by the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, in which case the creditor must use its own estimate. If the creditor has obtained any appraisals or valuations of the property for the application at the time the disclosure is issued to the consumer, the value determined by the appraisal or valuation to be used during underwriting for the application is disclosed as the estimated property value. If the creditor has obtained multiple appraisals or valuations and has not yet determined which one will be used during underwriting, it may disclose the value from any appraisal or valuation it reasonably believes it may use in underwriting the transaction. In a transaction that involves a seller, if the sale price is not yet known, the creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(7) if it discloses the estimated value of the property that it used as the basis for the disclosures in the Loan Estimate.
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<P>2. <I>Personal property.</I> In transactions involving personal property that is separately valued from real property, only the value of the real property or cooperative unit is disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(7). Where personal property is included in the sale price of the real property or cooperative unit (for example, if the consumer is purchasing the furniture inside the dwelling), however, § 1026.37(a)(7) permits disclosure of the aggregate price without any reduction for the appraised or estimated value of the personal property.
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<P><I>37(a)(8) Loan term.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Partial years.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Terms to maturity of 24 months or more.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(8) requires disclosure of the term to maturity in years, or months, or both, as applicable. Where the term exceeds 24 months and equals a whole number of years, a creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(8) by disclosing the number of years, followed by the designation “years.” Where the term exceeds 24 months but does not equal a whole number of years, a creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(8) by disclosing the term to maturity as the number of years followed by the designation “yr.” and the remaining number of months, followed by the designation “mo.” For example, if the term to maturity of the transaction is 185 months, the correct disclosure would be “15 yr. 5 mo.”
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<P>ii. <I>Terms to maturity of less than 24 months.</I> If the term to maturity is less than 24 months and does not equal a whole number of years, a creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(8) by disclosing the number of months only, followed by the designation “mo.” For example, if the term to maturity of a transaction is six months or 16 months, it would be disclosed as “6 mo.” or “16 mo.,” respectively. If the term to maturity is 12 months, however it would be disclosed simply as “1 year.”
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<P>2. <I>Adjustable loan term.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(8) requires disclosure of the term to maturity of the credit transaction. If the term to maturity is adjustable, <I>i.e.,</I> it is not known with certainty at consummation, the creditor complies with § 1026.37(a)(8), if it discloses the possible range of the loan term, including the maximum number of years possible under the terms of the legal obligation. For example, if the loan term depends on the value of interest rate adjustments during the term of the loan, to calculate the maximum loan term, the creditor assumes that the interest rate rises as rapidly as possible after consummation, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation, including any applicable caps on interest rate adjustments and lifetime interest rate cap.
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<P>3. <I>Loan term start date.</I> See comment app. D-7.i for an explanation of how a creditor discloses the loan term of a multiple-advance loan to finance the construction of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor.
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<P><I>37(a)(9) Purpose.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(9) requires disclosure of the consumer's intended use of the credit. In ascertaining the consumer's intended use, § 1026.37(a)(9) requires the creditor to consider all relevant information known to the creditor at the time of the disclosure. If the purpose is not known, the creditor may rely on the consumer's stated purpose. The following examples illustrate when each of the permissible purposes should be disclosed:
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<P>i. <I>Purchase.</I> The consumer intends to use the proceeds from the transaction to purchase the property that will secure the extension of credit. In a purchase transaction with simultaneous subordinate financing, the simultaneous subordinate loan is also disclosed with the purpose “Purchase.”
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<P>ii. <I>Refinance.</I> The consumer refinances an existing obligation already secured by the consumer's dwelling to change the rate, term, or other loan features and may or may not receive cash from the transaction. For example, in a refinance with no cash provided, the new amount financed does not exceed the unpaid principal balance, any earned unpaid finance charge on the existing debt, and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. Conversely, in a refinance with cash provided, the consumer refinances an existing mortgage obligation and receives money from the transaction that is in addition to the funds used to pay the unpaid principal balance, any earned unpaid finance charge on the existing debt, and amounts attributed solely to the costs of the refinancing. In such a transaction, the consumer may, for example, use the newly-extended credit to pay off the balance of the existing mortgage and other consumer debt, such as a credit card balance.
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<P>iii. <I>Construction.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(9)(iii) requires the creditor to disclose that the loan is for construction in transactions where the creditor extends credit to finance only the cost of initial construction (construction-only loan), not renovations to existing dwellings, and in transactions where a multiple advance loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor (construction-permanent loan). In a construction-only loan, the borrower may be required to make interest-only payments during the loan term with the balance commonly due at the end of the construction project. For additional guidance on disclosing construction-permanent loans, see § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii), comments 17(c)(6)-2, -3, and -5, and appendix D to this part.
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<P>iv. <I>Home equity loan.</I> The creditor is required to disclose that the credit is for a “home equity loan” if the creditor intends to extend credit for any purpose other than a purchase, refinancing, or construction. This disclosure applies whether the loan is secured by a first or subordinate lien.
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<P>2. <I>Refinance coverage.</I> The disclosure requirements under § 1026.37(a)(9)(ii) apply to credit transactions that meet the definition of a refinancing under § 1026.20(a) but without regard to whether they are made by a creditor, holder, or servicer of the existing obligation. Section 1026.20(a) applies only to refinancings undertaken by the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original debt. <I>See</I> comment 20(a)-5.
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<P><I>37(a)(10) Product.</I>
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<P>1. <I>No features.</I> If the loan product disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(a)(10) does not include any of the features described in § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii), only the product type and introductory and first adjustment periods, if applicable, are disclosed. For example:</P>
<P>i. <I>Adjustable rate.</I> When disclosing an adjustable rate product, the disclosure of the loan product must be preceded by the length of the introductory period and the frequency of the first adjustment period thereafter. Thus, for example, if the loan product is an adjustable rate with an introductory rate that is fixed for the first five years of the loan term and then adjusts every three years starting in year six, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) is “5/3 Adjustable Rate.” If the first adjustment period is not the period for all adjustments under the terms of the legal obligation, the creditor should still disclose the initial adjustment period and should not disclose other adjustment periods. For example, if the loan product is an adjustable rate with an introductory rate that is fixed for the first five years of the loan term and then adjusts every three years starting in year six, and then annually starting in year fifteen, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) would still be “5/3 Adjustable Rate.”
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<P>A. <I>No introductory period.</I> If the loan product is an adjustable rate with no introductory rate, the creditor should disclose “0” where the introductory rate period would ordinarily be disclosed. For example, if the loan product is an adjustable rate that adjusts every three years with no introductory period, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) is “0/3 Adjustable Rate.”
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<P>B. <I>Introductory period not yet known.</I> If the loan product is an adjustable rate with an introductory period that is not yet known at the time of delivery of the Loan Estimate, the creditor should disclose the shortest potential introductory period for the particular loan product offered. For example, if the loan product is an adjustable rate with an introductory period that may be between 36 and 48 months and the rate would then adjust every year, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) is “3/1 Adjustable Rate.”
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<P>ii. <I>Step rate.</I> If the loan product is a step rate with an introductory interest rate that lasts for ten years and adjusts every year thereafter for the next five years, and then adjusts every three years for the next 15 years, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) is “10/1 Step Rate.” If the loan product is a step rate with no introductory rate, the creditor should disclose “0” where the introductory rate period would ordinarily be disclosed.
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<P>iii. <I>Fixed rate.</I> If the loan product is not an adjustable rate or a step rate, as described in § 1026.37(a)(10)(i)(A) and (B), even if an additional feature described in § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii) may change the consumer's periodic payment, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10)(i) is “Fixed Rate.”
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<P>2. <I>Additional features.</I> When disclosing a loan product with at least one of the features described in § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii), § 1026.37(a)(10)(iii) and (iv) require the disclosure of only the first applicable feature in the order of § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii) and that it be preceded by the time period or the length of the introductory period and the frequency of the first adjustment period, as applicable, followed by a description of the loan product and its time period as provided for in § 1026.37(a)(10)(i). For example:
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<P>i. <I>Negative amortization.</I> Some loan products, such as “payment option” loans, permit the borrower to make payments that are insufficient to cover all of the interest accrued, and the unpaid interest is added to the principal balance. Where the loan product includes a loan feature that may cause the loan balance to increase, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(A) is preceded by the time period that the borrower is permitted to make payments that result in negative amortization (<I>e.g.,</I> “2 Year Negative Amortization”), followed by the loan product type. Thus, a fixed rate product with a step-payment feature for the first two years of the legal obligation that may negatively amortize is disclosed as “2 Year Negative Amortization, Fixed Rate.”
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<P>ii. <I>Interest only.</I> When disclosing an “Interest Only” feature, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iv), the applicable time period must precede the label “Interest Only.” Thus, a fixed rate loan with only interest due for the first five years of the loan term is disclosed as “5 Year Interest Only, Fixed Rate.” If the interest only feature fails to cover the total interest due, then, as required by § 1026.37(a)(10)(iii), the disclosure must reference the negative amortization feature and not the interest only feature (<I>e.g.,</I> “5 Year Negative Amortization, Fixed Rate”). See comment app. D-7.ii for an explanation of the disclosure of the time period of an interest only feature for a construction loan or a construction-permanent loan.
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<P>iii. <I>Step payment.</I> When disclosing a step payment feature (which is sometimes referred to instead as a graduated payment), the period of time at the end of which the scheduled payments will change must precede the label “Step Payment” (<I>e.g.,</I> “5 Year Step Payment”) followed by the name of the loan product. Thus, a fixed rate mortgage subject to a 5-year step payment plan is disclosed as a “5 Year Step Payment, Fixed Rate.”
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<P>iv. <I>Balloon payment.</I> If a loan product includes a “balloon payment,” as that term is defined in § 1026.37(b)(5), the disclosure of the balloon payment feature, including the year the payment is due, precedes the disclosure of the loan product. Thus, if the loan product is a step rate with an introductory rate that lasts for three years and adjusts each year thereafter until the balloon payment is due in the seventh year of the loan term, the disclosure required is “Year 7 Balloon Payment, 3/1 Step Rate.” If the loan product includes more than one balloon payment, only the earliest year that a balloon payment is due shall be disclosed.
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<P>v. <I>Seasonal payment.</I> If a loan product includes a seasonal payment feature, § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(E) requires that the creditor disclose the feature. The feature is not, however, required to be disclosed with any preceding time period. Disclosure of the label “Seasonal Payment” without any preceding number of years satisfies this requirement.
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<P>3. <I>Periods not in whole years.</I>
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<P>i. <I>Terms of 24 months or more.</I> For product types and features that have introductory periods or adjustment periods that do not equate to a number of whole years, if the period is a number of months that is 24 or greater and does not equate to a whole number of years, § 1026.37(a)(10) requires disclosure of the whole number of years followed by a decimal point with the remaining months rounded to two places. For example, if the loan product is an adjustable rate with an introductory period of 30 months that adjusts every year thereafter, the creditor would be required to disclose “2.5/1 Adjustable Rate.” If the introductory period were 31 months, the required disclosure would be 2.58/1 Adjustable Rate.”
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<P>ii. <I>Terms of less than 24 months.</I> For product types and features that have introductory periods or adjustment periods that do not equate to a number of whole years, if the period is less than 24 months, § 1026.37(a)(10) requires disclosure of the number of months, followed by the designation “mo.” For example, if the product type is an adjustable rate with an 18-month introductory period that adjusts every 18 months starting in the 19th month, the required disclosure would be “18 mo./18mo. Adjustable Rate.”
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<P>iii. <I>Adjustments more frequent than monthly.</I> For adjustment periods that change more frequently than monthly, § 1026.37(a)(10) requires disclosure of the applicable unit-period, such as daily, weekly, or bi-weekly. For example, for an adjustable rate construction loan with no introductory fixed rate period where the interest rate adjusts every seven days, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(10) is “0/Weekly Adjustable Rate.”
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<P><I>37(a)(11) Loan type</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Other.</I> If the transaction is a type other than a conventional, FHA, or VA loan, § 1026.37(a)(11)(iv) requires the creditor to disclose the loan type as “Other” and provide a name or brief description of the loan type. For example, a loan that is guaranteed or funded by the Federal government under the Rural Housing Service (RHS) of the U.S. Department of Agriculture is required to be disclosed under the subcategory “Other.” Section 1026.37(a)(11)(iv) requires a brief description of the loan type (<I>e.g.,</I> “RHS”). A loan that is insured or guaranteed by a State agency must also be disclosed as “Other.”
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<P><I>37(a)(12) Loan identification number (Loan ID # )</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Unique identifier.</I> Section 1026.37(a)(12) requires that the creditor disclose a loan identification number that may be used by the creditor, consumer, and other parties to identify the transaction, labeled as “Loan ID # .” The loan identification number is determined by the creditor, which number may contain any alpha-numeric characters. Because the number must allow for the identification of the particular credit transaction under § 1026.37(a)(12), a creditor must use a unique loan identification number, <I>i.e.,</I> the creditor may not use the same loan identification number for different, but related, loan transactions (such as different loans to the same borrower). Where a creditor issues a revised Loan Estimate for a transaction, the loan identification number must be sufficient to enable identification of the transaction pursuant to § 1026.37(a)(12).
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<P><I>37(a)(13) Rate lock</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Interest rate.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(a)(13), the interest rate is locked for a specific period of time if the creditor has agreed to extend credit to the consumer at a given rate, subject to contingencies that are described in any rate lock agreement between the creditor and consumer.
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<P>2. <I>Expiration date.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(13)(ii) related to estimated closing costs is required regardless of whether the interest rate is locked for a specific period of time or whether the terms and costs are otherwise accepted or extended. If the consumer fails to indicate an intent to proceed with the transaction within 10 business days after the disclosures were originally provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii) (or within any longer time period established by the creditor), then, for determining good faith under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) and (ii), a creditor may use a revised estimate of a charge instead of the amount originally disclosed under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). <I>See</I> comment 19(e)(3)(iv)(E)-2.
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<P>3. <I>Time zone.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(a)(13) requires the applicable time zone for all times provided, as determined by the creditor. For example, if the creditor is located in New York and determines that the Loan Estimate will expire at 5:00 p.m. in the time zone applicable to its location, while standard time is in effect, the disclosure must include a reference to the Eastern time zone (<I>i.e.,</I> 5:00 p.m. EST).
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<P>4. <I>Revised disclosures.</I> Once the consumer indicates an intent to proceed within the time specified by the creditor under § 1026.37(a)(13)(ii), the date and time at which estimated closing costs expire are left blank on any subsequent revised disclosures. The creditor may extend the period of availability to expire beyond the time disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(13)(ii). If the consumer indicates an intent to proceed within that longer time period, the date and time at which estimated closing costs expire are left blank on subsequent revised disclosures, if any. <I>See</I> comment 19(e)(3)(iv)-5.
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<P><I>37(b) Loan terms</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Legal obligation.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.37 must reflect good faith estimates of the credit terms to which the parties will be legally bound for the transaction. Accordingly, if certain terms of the transaction are known or reasonably available to the creditor, based on information such as the consumer's selection of a product type or other information in the consumer's application, § 1026.37 requires the creditor to disclose those credit terms. For example, if the consumer selects a product type with a prepayment penalty, § 1026.37(b)(4) requires disclosure of the maximum amount of the prepayment penalty and period in which the prepayment penalty may be charged as known to the creditor at the time the disclosures are provided.
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<P><I>37(b)(2) Interest rate.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Interest rate at consummation not known.</I> Where the interest rate that will apply at consummation is not known at the time the creditor must deliver the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e), § 1026.37(b)(2) requires disclosure of the fully-indexed rate, defined as the index plus the margin at consummation. Although § 1026.37(b)(2) refers to the index plus margin “at consummation,” if the index value that will be in effect at consummation is unknown at the time the disclosures are provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(iii), <I>i.e.,</I> within three business days after receipt of a consumer's application, the fully-indexed rate disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(2) may be based on the index in effect at the time the disclosure is delivered. The index in effect at consummation (or the time the disclosure is delivered under § 1026.19(e)) need not be used if the contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, creditors may use any index value in effect during the 45 days before consummation (or any earlier date of disclosure) in calculating the fully-indexed rate to be disclosed. See comment app. D-7.iii for an explanation of the disclosure of the permanent financing interest rate for a construction-permanent loan.
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<P><I>37(b)(3) Principal and interest payment</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Frequency of principal and interest payment.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.37(o)(5)(i), if the contract provides for a unit-period, as defined in appendix J to this part, of a month, such as a monthly payment schedule, the payment disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(3) should be labeled “Monthly Principal &amp; Interest.” If the contract requires bi-weekly payments of principal or interest, the payment should be labeled “Bi-Weekly Principal &amp; Interest.” If a creditor voluntarily permits a payment schedule not provided for in the contract, such as an informal principal-reduction arrangement, the disclosure should reflect only the payment frequency provided for in the contract. <I>See</I> § 1026.17(c)(1).
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<P>2. <I>Initial periodic payment if not known.</I> Under § 1026.37(b)(3), the initial periodic payment amount that will be due under the terms of the legal obligation must be disclosed. If the initial periodic payment is not known because it will be based on an interest rate at consummation that is not known at the time the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e) must be provided, for example, if it is based on an external index that may fluctuate before consummation, § 1026.37(b)(3) requires that the disclosure be based on the fully-indexed rate disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(2). See comment 37(b)(2)-1 for guidance regarding calculating the fully-indexed rate.
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<P><I>37(b)(4) Prepayment penalty</I>.
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<P>1. <I>Transaction includes a prepayment penalty.</I> Section 1026.37(b)(4) requires disclosure of a statement of whether the transaction includes a prepayment penalty. If the transaction includes a prepayment penalty, § 1026.37(b)(7) sets forth the information that must be disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(4) (<I>i.e.,</I> the maximum amount of the prepayment penalty that may be imposed under the terms of the loan contract and the date on which the penalty will no longer be imposed). For an example of such disclosure, see form H-24 of appendix H to this part. The disclosure under § 1026.37(b)(4) applies to transactions where the terms of the loan contract provide for a prepayment penalty, even though the creditor does not know at the time of the disclosure whether the consumer will, in fact, make a payment to the creditor that would cause imposition of the penalty. For example, if the monthly interest accrual amortization method described in comment 37(b)(4)-2.i is used such that interest is assessed on the balance for a full month even if the consumer makes a full prepayment before the end of the month, the transaction includes a prepayment penalty that must be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(4).
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<P>2. <I>Examples of prepayment penalties.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(b)(4), the following are examples of prepayment penalties:</P>
<P>i. A charge determined by treating the loan balance as outstanding for a period of time after prepayment in full and applying the interest rate to such “balance,” even if the charge results from interest accrual amortization used for other payments in the transaction under the terms of the loan contract. “Interest accrual amortization” refers to the method by which the amount of interest due for each period (<I>e.g.,</I> month) in a transaction's term is determined. For example, “monthly interest accrual amortization” treats each payment as made on the scheduled, monthly due date even if it is actually paid early or late (until the expiration of any grace period). Thus, under the terms of a loan contract providing for monthly interest accrual amortization, if the amount of interest due on May 1 for the preceding month of April is $3,000, the loan contract will require payment of $3,000 in interest for the month of April whether the payment is made on April 20, on May 1, or on May 10. In this example, if the consumer prepays the loan in full on April 20 and if the accrued interest as of that date is $2,000, then assessment of a charge of $3,000 constitutes a prepayment penalty of $1,000 because the amount of interest actually earned through April 20 is only $2,000.
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<P>ii. A fee, such as an origination or other loan closing cost, that is waived by the creditor on the condition that the consumer does not prepay the loan. See comment 37(b)(4)-3.iii below for additional guidance regarding waived bona fide third-party charges imposed by the creditor if the consumer pays all of a covered transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due sooner than 36 months after consummation.
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<P>iii. A minimum finance charge in a simple interest transaction.
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<P>iv. Computing a refund of unearned interest by a method that is less favorable to the consumer than the actuarial method, as defined by section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, 15 U.S.C. 1615(d). For purposes of computing a refund of unearned interest, if using the actuarial method defined by applicable State law results in a refund that is greater than the refund calculated by using the method described in section 933(d) of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, creditors should use the State law definition in determining if a refund is a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees that are not prepayment penalties.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(b)(4), fees that are not prepayment penalties include, for example:</P>
<P>i. Fees imposed for preparing and providing documents when a loan is paid in full, if such fees are imposed whether or not the loan is prepaid. Examples include a loan payoff statement, a reconveyance document, or another document releasing the creditor's security interest in the dwelling that secures the loan.
</P>
<P>ii. Loan guarantee fees.
</P>
<P>iii. A waived bona fide third-party charge imposed by the creditor if the consumer pays all of a covered transaction's principal before the date on which the principal is due sooner than 36 months after consummation. For example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup the $3,000 in waived charges if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 charge is not a prepayment penalty. In contrast, for example, assume that at consummation, the creditor waives $3,000 in closing costs to cover bona fide third-party charges but the terms of the loan agreement provide that the creditor may recoup $4,500 in part to recoup waived charges, if the consumer repays the entire loan balance sooner than 36 months after consummation. The $3,000 that the creditor may impose to cover the waived bona fide third-party charges is not a prepayment penalty, but the additional $1,500 charge is a prepayment penalty and must be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(4).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebate of finance charge.</I> For an obligation that includes a finance charge that does not take into account each reduction in the principal balance of the obligation, the disclosure under § 1026.37(b)(4) reflects whether or not the consumer is entitled to a rebate of any finance charge if the obligation is prepaid in full or part. Finance charges that do not take into account each reduction in the principal balance of an obligation may include precomputed finance charges. If any portion of an unearned precomputed finance charge will not be provided as a rebate upon full prepayment, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(b)(4) will be an affirmative answer, indicate the maximum amount of such precomputed finance charge that may not be provided as a rebate to the consumer upon any prepayment, and state when the period during which a full rebate would not be provided terminates, as required by § 1026.37(b)(7). If, instead, there will be a full rebate of the precomputed finance charge and no other prepayment penalty imposed on the consumer, to comply with the requirements of § 1026.37(b)(4) and (7), the creditor states a negative answer only. If the transaction involves both a precomputed finance charge and a finance charge computed by application of a rate to an unpaid balance, disclosure about both the entitlement to any rebate of the finance charge upon prepayment and any other prepayment penalty are made as one disclosure under § 1026.37(b)(4), stating one affirmative or negative answer and an aggregated amount and time period for the information required by § 1026.37(b)(7). For example, if in such a transaction, a portion of the precomputed finance charge will not be provided as a rebate and the loan contract also provides for a prepayment penalty based on the amount prepaid, both disclosures are made under § 1026.37(b)(4) as one aggregate amount, stating the maximum amount and time period under § 1026.37(b)(7). If the transaction instead provides a rebate of the precomputed finance charge upon prepayment, but imposes a prepayment penalty based on the amount prepaid, to comply with § 1026.37(b)(4), the creditor states an affirmative answer and the information about the prepayment penalty, as required by § 1026.37(b)(7). For further guidance and examples of these types of charges, see comment 18(k)(2)-1. For analogous guidance, see comment 18(k)-2. For further guidance on prepaid finance charges generally, see comment 18(k)-3.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional guidance.</I> For additional guidance generally on disclosure of prepayment penalties, see comment 18(k)-1.
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(5) Balloon payment</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payment.</I> If a payment is not itself a regular periodic payment and is more than two times any one regular periodic payment during the loan term, then it is disclosed as a balloon payment under § 1026.37(b)(5). The regular periodic payments used to determine whether a payment is a balloon payment under § 1026.37(b)(5) are the payments of principal and interest (or interest only, depending on the loan features) specified under the terms of the loan contract that are due from the consumer for two or more unit-periods in succession. All regular periodic payments during the loan term are used to determine whether a particular payment is a balloon payment, regardless of whether the regular periodic payments have changed during the loan term due to rate adjustments or other payment changes permitted or required under the loan contract.
</P>
<P>i. For example, assume that, under a 15-year step rate mortgage, the loan contract provides for scheduled monthly payments of $300 each during the years one through three and scheduled monthly payments of $700 each during years four through 15. If an irregular payment of $1,000 is scheduled during the final month of year 15, that payment is disclosed as a balloon payment under § 1026.37(b)(5), because it is more than two times the regular periodic payment amount of $300 during years one through three. This is the case even though the irregular payment is not more than two times the regular periodic payment of $700 per month during years four through fifteen. The $700 monthly payments during years four through fifteen are not balloon payments even though they are more than two times the regular periodic payments during years one through three, because they are regular periodic payments.
</P>
<P>ii. If the loan has an adjustable rate under which the regular periodic payments may increase after consummation, but the amounts of such payment increases (if any) are unknown at the time of consummation, then the regular periodic payments are based on the fully-indexed rate, except as otherwise determined by any premium or discounted rates, the application of any interest rate adjustment caps, or any other known, scheduled rates under the terms specified in the loan contract. For analogous guidance, see comments 17(c)(1)-8 and -10. Similarly, if a loan has an adjustable interest rate which does not adjust the regular periodic payment but would, if the rate increased, increase only the final payment, the amount of the final payment for purposes of the balloon payment determination is based on the fully-indexed rate, except as otherwise determined by any premium or discounted rate caps, or any other known, scheduled rates under the terms specified in the loan contract. For example, assume that, under a 30-year adjustable rate mortgage, (1) the loan contract requires monthly payments of $300 during years one through five, (2) the loan contract permits interest rate increases every three years starting in the sixth year up to the fully-indexed rate, subject to caps on interest rate adjustments specified in the loan contract, (3) based on the application of the interest rate adjustment caps, the interest rate may increase to the fully-indexed rate starting in year nine, and (4) the monthly payment based on the fully-indexed rate is $700. The regular periodic payments during years one through five are $300 per month, because they are known and scheduled. The regular periodic payments during years six through eight are up to $700 per month, based on the fully-indexed rate but subject to the application of interest rate adjustment caps specified under the loan contract. The regular periodic payments during years nine through thirty are $700, based on the fully-indexed rate. Therefore, if an irregular payment of $1,000 is scheduled during the final month of year 30, that payment is disclosed as a balloon payment under § 1026.37(b)(5), because it is more than two times the regular periodic payment amount of $300 during years one through five. This is the case even though the irregular payment is not more than two times the regular periodic payment during years nine through thirty (<I>i.e.,</I> based on the fully-indexed rate). However, the regular periodic payments during years six through thirty themselves are not balloon payments, even though they may be more than two times the regular periodic payments during years one through five.
</P>
<P>iii. For a loan with a negative amortization feature, the regular periodic payment does not take into account the possibility that the consumer may exercise an option to make a payment greater than the scheduled periodic payment specified under the terms of the loan contract, if any.
</P>
<P>iv. A final payment that differs from other regular periodic payments because of rounding to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents is still a regular periodic payment and need not be disclosed as a balloon payment under § 1026.37(b)(5).
</P>
<P>v. The disclosure of balloon payments in the “Projected Payments” table under § 1026.37(c) is governed by that section and its commentary, rather than § 1026.37(b)(5), except that the determination, as a threshold matter, of whether a payment disclosed under § 1026.37(c) is a balloon payment is made in accordance with § 1026.37(b)(5) and its commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Single and double payment transactions.</I> The definition of a “balloon payment” under § 1026.37(b)(5) includes the payments under transactions that require only one or two payments during the loan term, even though a single payment transaction does not require regular periodic payments, and a transaction with only two scheduled payments during the loan term may not require regular periodic payments.
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(6) Adjustments after consummation</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periods not in whole years.</I> For guidance on how to disclose increases after consummation that occur after a number of months less than 24 but that do not equate to a number of whole years or within a number of days less than a week, see the guidance provided in comment 37(a)(10)-3. For increases that occur after more than 24 months, see the guidance provided in comment 37(b)(8)-1.
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(6)(i) Adjustment in loan amount</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional information regarding adjustment in loan amount.</I> A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(i) to disclose additional information indicating whether the maximum principal balance is potential or is scheduled to occur under the terms of the legal obligation by using the phrase “Can go as high as” or “Goes as high as,” respectively. A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(i) to disclose additional information indicating the due date of the last payment that may cause the principal balance to increase by using the phrase “Increases until.” See form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the required format of such phrases, which is required for federally related mortgage loans under § 1026.37(o)(3).
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(6)(ii) Adjustment in interest rate</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional information regarding adjustment in interest rate.</I> A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(ii) to disclose additional information indicating the frequency of adjustments to the interest rate and date when the interest rate may first adjust by using the phrases “Adjusts every” and “starting in.” A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(ii) to disclose additional information indicating the maximum interest rate, and the first date when the interest rate can reach the maximum interest rate using the phrase “Can go as high as” and then indicating the date at the end of that phrase or for a scheduled maximum interest rate under a step rate loan, “Goes as high as.” If the loan term may increase based on an interest rate adjustment, the disclosure shall indicate the maximum possible loan term using the phrase “Can increase loan term to.” See form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the required format of such phrases, which is required for federally related mortgage loans under § 1026.37(o)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest rates that adjust at multiple intervals.</I> If the terms of the legal obligation provide for more than one adjustment period, § 1026.37(b)(6)(ii) requires disclosure of only the frequency of the first interest rate adjustment. For example, if the interest rate is fixed for five years, then adjusts every two years starting in year six, then adjusts every year starting in year 10, the disclosure required is “Adjusts every 2 years starting in year 6.”
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(6)(iii) Increase in periodic payment</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional information regarding increase in periodic payment.</I> A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) to disclose additional information indicating the scheduled frequency of adjustments to the periodic principal and interest payment by using the phrases “Adjusts every” and “starting in.” A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) to disclose additional information indicating the maximum possible periodic principal and interest payment, and the date when the periodic principal and interest payment may first equal the maximum principal and interest payment by using the phrase “Can go as high as” and then indicating the date at the end of that phrase or, for a scheduled maximum amount, such as under a step payment loan, “Goes as high as.” A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) to indicate that there is a period during which only interest is required to be paid and the due date of the last periodic payment of such period using the phrase “Includes only interest and no principal until.” See form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the required format of such phrases, which is required for federally related mortgage loans under § 1026.37(o)(3). See comment app. D-7.iv for an explanation of the disclosure of an increase in the periodic payment for a construction or construction-permanent loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Periodic principal and interest payments that adjust at multiple intervals.</I> If there are multiple periods of adjustment under the terms of the legal obligation, § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) requires disclosure of the frequency of only the first adjustment to the periodic principal and interest payment, regardless of the basis for the adjustment. Accordingly, where the periodic principal and interest payment may change because of more than one factor and such adjustments are on different schedules, the frequency disclosed is the adjustment of whichever factor adjusts first. For example, where the interest rate for a transaction is fixed until year six and then adjusts every three years but the transaction also has a negative amortization feature that ends in year seven, § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) requires disclosure that the interest rate will adjust every three years starting in year six because the periodic principal and interest payment adjusts based on the interest rate before it adjusts based on the end of the negative amortization period.
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(7) Details about prepayment penalty and balloon payment</I>.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(b)(7)(i)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Maximum prepayment penalty.</I> Section 1026.37(b)(7)(i) requires disclosure of the maximum amount of the prepayment penalty that may be imposed under the terms of the legal obligation. The creditor complies with § 1026.37(b)(7)(i) when it assumes that the consumer prepays at a time when the prepayment penalty may be charged and that the consumer makes all payments prior to the prepayment on a timely basis and in the amount required by the terms of the legal obligation. The creditor must determine the maximum of each amount used in calculating the prepayment penalty. For example, if a transaction is fully amortizing and the prepayment penalty is two percent of the loan balance at the time of prepayment, the prepayment penalty amount should be determined by using the highest loan balance possible during the period in which the penalty may be imposed. If more than one type of prepayment penalty applies, the creditor must aggregate the maximum amount of each type of prepayment penalty in the maximum penalty disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Additional information regarding prepayment penalty.</I> A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(7)(i) to disclose additional information indicating the maximum amount of the prepayment penalty that may be imposed and the date when the period during which the penalty may be imposed terminates using the phrases “As high as” and “if you pay off the loan during.” See form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the required format of such phrases, which is required for federally related mortgage loans under § 1026.37(o)(3).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(b)(7)(ii)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional information regarding balloon payment.</I> A creditor complies with the requirement under § 1026.37(b)(7)(ii) to disclose additional information indicating the maximum amount of the balloon payment and the due date of such payment using the phrases “You will have to pay” and “at the end of.” See form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the required format of such phrases, which is required for federally related mortgage loans under § 1026.37(o)(3). If the transaction includes more than one balloon payment, a creditor complies with § 1026.37(b)(7)(ii) by disclosing the highest of the balloon payments and the due date of that payment.
</P>
<P><I>37(b)(8) Timing</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Whole years.</I> For adjustments that occur after a period of whole years, the timing of information required by § 1026.37(b)(8) starts with year number “1,” counting from the date that interest for the first scheduled periodic payment begins to accrue for § 1026.37(b)(8)(i), or from the due date of the first periodic payment for § 1026.37(b)(8)(ii), or from the date of consummation for § 1026.37(b)(8)(iii). For example, an interest rate that is fixed for five years and can first adjust at the beginning of the 61st month from the date that interest for the regularly scheduled periodic payment began to accrue would be disclosed as beginning to adjust in “year 6.” A monthly periodic payment that adjusts starting with the 61st scheduled payment likewise would be disclosed as adjusting in “year 6.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Periods not in whole years.</I> For adjustments that occur after a number of months less than 24 that do not equate to a number of whole years or within a number of days less than a week, see the guidance provided in comment 37(a)(10)-3.
</P>
<P><I>37(c) Projected payments</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(c), the terms “adjustable rate,” “fixed rate,” “negative amortization,” and “interest only” have the meanings in § 1026.37(a)(10).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Construction loans.</I> See comment app. D-7.v for an explanation of the projected payments disclosure for a construction or construction-permanent loan.
</P>
<P><I>37(c)(1) Periodic payment or range of payments</I>.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i), the periodic payment is the regularly scheduled payment of principal and interest, mortgage insurance premiums, and escrow payments described in § 1026.37(c)(2) without regard to any final payment that differs from other payments because of rounding to account for payment amounts including fractions of cents.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Initial periodic payment or range of payments.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(1)(i) requires the creditor to disclose the initial periodic payment or range of payments. The disclosure required is of the actual periodic payment or range of payments that corresponds to the interest rate that will apply at consummation, including any initial discounted or premium interest rate. For examples of discounted and premium rate transactions, see comment 17(c)(1)-10.v. For guidance regarding whether the disclosure should reflect a buydown, see comments 17(c)(1)-3 through -5. If the initial periodic payment or range of payments may vary based on an adjustment to an index value that applies at consummation, § 1026.37(c)(1)(i) requires that the disclosure of the initial periodic payment or range of payments be based on the fully-indexed rate disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(2). See comment 37(b)(2)-1 for guidance regarding calculating the fully-indexed rate.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Periodic principal and interest payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A), periodic principal and interest payments may change when the interest rate, applicable interest rate caps, required periodic principal and interest payments, or ranges of such payments may change. Minor payment variations resulting solely from the fact that months have different numbers of days are not changes to periodic principal and interest payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative amortization.</I> In a loan that contains a negative amortization feature, periodic principal and interest payments or the range of such payments may change for purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) at the time the negative amortization period ends under the terms of the legal obligation, meaning the consumer must begin making payments that do not result in an increase of the principal balance. The occurrence of an event requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments should be based on the assumption that the consumer will make payments as scheduled or, if applicable, elect to make the periodic payments that would extend the negative amortization period to the latest time permitted under the terms of the legal obligation. The occurrence of all subsequent events requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments should be based on this assumption. The table required by § 1026.37(c) should also reflect any balloon payment that would result from such scheduled payments or election. See § 1026.37(c)(1)(ii)(A) for special rules regarding disclosure of balloon payments.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interest only.</I> In a loan that contains an interest only feature, periodic principal and interest payments may change for purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) when the interest only period ends, meaning the consumer must begin making payments that do not defer repayment of principal.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Balloon payment.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(B), whether a balloon payment occurs is determined pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(5) and its commentary. For guidance on the amount of a balloon payment disclosed on the table required by § 1026.37(c), see comment 37(c)(2)(i)-3.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> “Mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” means the amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(5). For purposes of § 1026.37(c), “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” includes any mortgage guarantee that provides coverage similar to mortgage insurance (such as a United States Department of Veterans Affairs or United States Department of Agriculture guarantee), even if not technically considered insurance under State or other applicable law. The fees for such a guarantee are included in “mortgage insurance premiums.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of mortgage insurance termination.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(C), mortgage insurance premiums should be calculated based on the declining principal balance that will occur as a result of changes to the interest rate and payment amounts, applying the interest rates applicable to the transaction. Such calculation should take into account any initial discounted or premium interest rate. For example, for an adjustable rate transaction that has a discounted interest rate during an initial five-year period, the creditor makes the calculation using a composite rate based on the rate in effect during the initial five-year period and, thereafter, the fully-indexed rate, unless otherwise required by applicable law. For guidance on calculation of the amount of mortgage insurance premiums to disclose on the table required by § 1026.37(c), see § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii) and its commentary. See comment 37(b)(2)-1 for guidance regarding calculating the fully-indexed rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of mortgage insurance termination.</I> The table required by § 1026.37(c) should reflect the consumer's mortgage insurance premiums until the date on which the creditor must automatically terminate coverage under applicable law, even though the consumer may have a right to request that the insurance be cancelled earlier. Unlike termination of mortgage insurance, a subsequent decline in the consumer's mortgage insurance premiums is not, by itself, an event that requires the disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments in the table required by § 1026.37(c). For example, some mortgage insurance programs annually adjust premiums based on the declining loan balance. Such annual adjustment to the amount of premiums would not require a separate disclosure of a periodic payment or range payments.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(i)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Anniversary of the due date of initial periodic payment.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(D) provides that the anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment or range of payments that immediately follows the occurrence of multiple events described in § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) during a single year is an event that requires disclosure of additional periodic payments or ranges of payments. Section 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) provides that a potential change in the periodic principal and interest payment is an event requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments. See comment 37(c)(1)(iii)(B)-1 for an example of the application of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(D).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Special rule regarding balloon payments that are final payments.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(1)(ii)(A) is an exception to the general rule in § 1026.37(c)(1)(ii), and requires that a balloon payment that is scheduled as a final payment under the terms of the legal obligation is always disclosed as a separate periodic payment or range of payments, in which case the creditor discloses as a single range of payments all events requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments described in § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) through (D), other than the final balloon payment, occurring after the second separate periodic payment or range of payments disclosed. Balloon payments that are not scheduled as final payments under the terms of the legal obligation, such as a balloon payment due at the scheduled recast of a loan that permits negative amortization, are disclosed pursuant to the general rule in § 1026.37(c)(1)(ii). A balloon payment that is a final payment is disclosed as a single payment, and not combined with other changes to periodic principal and interest payments and disclosed as a range.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume a loan with a term of seven years, where the interest rate adjusts each year for the first three years and is fixed thereafter, that provides for a balloon payment as the final payment, where no mortgage insurance is required, and no escrow account will be established for the payment of charges described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii). The creditor discloses on the table required by § 1026.37(c) in the first column the initial periodic payment or range of payments, in the second column the periodic payment or range of payments that would apply after the first interest rate adjustment, in the third column the periodic payments or ranges of payments that would apply after the second interest rate adjustment until the final balloon payment (disclosed as a single range of payments), and in the fourth column the final balloon payment. Although the balloon payment that is scheduled as the final payment under the terms of the legal obligation occurs after the third separate periodic payment or range of payments, the creditor discloses the final balloon payment as a separate event requiring disclosure of additional periodic payments or range of payments due to the special rule in § 1026.37(c)(1)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(ii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Special rule regarding disclosure of the automatic termination of mortgage insurance.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(1)(ii)(B) is an exception to the general rule in § 1026.37(c)(1)(ii), and requires that the automatic termination of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law is disclosed as a separate periodic payment or range of payments only if the total number of separate periodic payments or ranges of payments otherwise disclosed does not exceed three. This means that the automatic termination of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law is disclosed as its own event only if there is a column in which to disclose it, <I>i.e.,</I> there are only three other separate periodic payments or ranges of payments that are required to be disclosed. Where the automatic termination of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law is not disclosed as a separate periodic payment or range of payments, the absence of a required mortgage insurance payment is disclosed with the next disclosed event requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments, as applicable.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of special rule regarding disclosure of the automatic termination of mortgage insurance.</I> i. Assume a step-rate loan with a 30-year term with an introductory interest rate that lasts for five years, a different interest rate that applies for the next five-year period, a final interest rate adjustment after 10 years, where mortgage insurance would terminate for purposes of § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(C) in the third year, and where no escrow account would be established for the payment of charges described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii). The creditor would disclose on the table required by § 1026.37(c) the initial periodic payment for years one through three (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the introductory interest rate and payments for mortgage insurance premiums), an additional separate periodic payment for years four and five (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the introductory rate and no payments for mortgage insurance premiums), an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments for years six through 10 (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the interest rate that would apply after the introductory rate), and an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments for years 11 through 30 (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the interest rate that would apply after the second interest rate adjustment until the end of the loan term). In this example, the automatic termination of mortgage insurance would be separately disclosed on the table required by § 1026.37(c) because the total number of separate periodic payments or ranges of payments otherwise disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(1) does not exceed three.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same loan as above, except that the terms of the legal obligation also provide for a third interest rate adjustment that would occur after 15 years. The creditor would disclose on the table required by § 1026.37(c) the initial periodic payment for years one through five (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the introductory interest rate and payments for mortgage insurance premiums), an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments for years six through 10 (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the interest rate that would apply after the first interest rate adjustment and no payments for mortgage insurance premiums), an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments for years 11 through 15 (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the interest rate that would apply after the second interest rate adjustment), and an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments for years 16 through 30 (reflecting the principal and interest payment corresponding to the interest rate that would apply after the third interest rate adjustment until the end of the loan term). In this example, the automatic termination of mortgage insurance would not be separately disclosed on the table required by § 1026.37(c) because the total number of separate periodic payments or ranges of payments otherwise disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(1) exceeds three. However, the creditor would disclose the termination of mortgage insurance beginning with the periodic payment or range of payments for years six through 10, which is the next disclosed event requiring disclosure of additional separate periodic payments or ranges of payments.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Ranges of payments.</I> When a range of payments is required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(1), § 1026.37(c)(1)(iii) requires the creditor to disclose the minimum and maximum amount for both the principal and interest payment under § 1026.37(c)(2)(i) and the total periodic payment under § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv). The amount required to be disclosed for mortgage insurance premiums pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii) and the amount payable into an escrow account pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(iii) shall not be disclosed as a range.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple events occurring in a single year.</I> If multiple changes to periodic principal and interest payments would result in more than one separate periodic payment or range of payments in a single year, § 1026.37(c)(1)(iii)(B) requires the creditor to disclose the range of payments that would apply during the year in which the events occur. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a loan with a 30-year term with a payment that adjusts every month for the first 12 months and is fixed thereafter, where mortgage insurance is not required, and where no escrow account would be established for the payment of charges described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii). The creditor discloses as a single range of payments the initial periodic payment and the periodic payment that would apply after each payment adjustment during the first 12 months, which single range represents the minimum payment and maximum payment, respectively. Under § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(D), the creditor also discloses, as an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments, the periodic principal and interest payment or range of payments that would apply after the payment becomes fixed.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume instead a loan with a 30-year term with a payment that adjusts upward at three months and at six months and is fixed thereafter, where mortgage insurance is not required, and where no escrow account would be established for the payment of charges described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii). The creditor discloses as a single range of payments the initial periodic payment, the periodic payment that would apply after the payment adjustment that occurs at three months, and the periodic payment that would apply after the payment adjustment that occurs at six months, which single range represents the minimum payment and maximum payment, respectively, which would apply during the first year of the loan. Under § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(D), the creditor also discloses as an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments, the principal and interest payment that would apply on the first anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment or range of payments, because that is the anniversary that immediately follows the occurrence of the multiple payments or ranges of payments that occurred during the first year of the loan.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that the same loan has a payment that, instead of becoming fixed after the adjustment at six months, adjusts once more at 18 months and becomes fixed thereafter. The creditor discloses the same single range of payments for year one. Under § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(D), the creditor separately discloses the principal and interest payment that would apply on the first anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment in year two. Under § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) and (c)(3)(ii), beginning in the next year in the sequence (<I>i.e.,</I> in year three), the creditor separately discloses the periodic payment that would apply after the payment adjustment that occurs at 18 months. See comment 37(c)(3)(ii)-1 regarding subheadings that state the years.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(1)(iii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustable rate mortgages.</I> For an adjustable rate loan, the periodic principal and interest payment at each time the interest rate may change will depend on the rate that applies at the time of the adjustment, which is not known at the time the disclosure is provided. As a result, the creditor discloses the minimum and maximum periodic principal and interest payment that could apply during each period disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(1) after the first period.
</P>
<P><I>37(c)(2) Itemization.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General rule for adjustable rate loans.</I> For an adjustable rate loan, in disclosing the maximum possible payment for principal and interest under § 1026.37(c), the creditor assumes that the interest rate will rise as rapidly as possible after consummation, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation, including any applicable caps on interest rate adjustments and lifetime interest rate cap. For a loan with no lifetime interest rate cap, the maximum rate is determined by reference to other applicable laws, such as State usury law. In disclosing the minimum payment for purposes of § 1026.37(c), the creditor assumes that the interest rate will decrease as rapidly as possible after consummation, taking into account any introductory rates, caps on interest rate adjustments, and lifetime interest rate floor. For an adjustable rate loan based on an index that has no lifetime interest rate floor, the minimum interest rate is equal to the margin.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Special rule for adjustable rate loans with negative amortization features.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(2)(i)(B) provides a special rule for calculation of the maximum principal and interest payment in an adjustable rate loan that contains a negative amortization feature. That section provides that the maximum amounts payable for principal and interest after the negative amortization period ends are calculated using the maximum principal amount permitted under the terms of the legal obligation at the end of the negative amortization period. See section § 1026.37(c)(1)(i)(A) and associated commentary for guidance regarding when the negative amortization period ends for purposes of § 1026.37(c)(2). For example, if the maximum principal balance for the last payment in the negative amortization period is achieved at an interest rate that is not the maximum interest rate permitted under the terms of the legal obligation before the negative amortization period ends, future events requiring disclosure of additional, separate periodic payments or ranges of payments assume that the interest rate in effect at the end of the negative amortization period was such interest rate, and not the maximum possible interest rate. After the end of the negative amortization period, the general rule under § 1026.37(c)(2)(i)(A) regarding assumptions of interest rate changes for the maximum principal and interest payment to be disclosed applies from such interest rate. The minimum payment in an adjustable rate loan that contains a negative amortization feature is determined pursuant to the general rule under § 1026.37(c)(2)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosure of balloon payment amounts.</I> Although the existence of a balloon payment is determined pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(5) and its commentary (<I>see</I> comment 37(c)(1)(i)(B)-1), balloon payment amounts to be disclosed under § 1026.37(c) are calculated in the same manner as periodic principal and interest payments under § 1026.37(c)(2)(i). For example, for a balloon payment amount that can change depending on previous interest rate adjustments that are based on the value of an index at the time of the adjustment, the balloon payment amounts are calculated using the assumptions for minimum and maximum interest rates described in § 1026.37(c)(2)(i) and its commentary, and should be disclosed as a range of payments.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage insurance disclosure.</I> Mortgage insurance premiums should be reflected on the disclosure required by § 1026.37(c) even if no escrow account is established for the payment of mortgage insurance premiums. If the consumer is not required to purchase mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent, the creditor discloses the mortgage insurance premium amount as “0.” If the creditor is disclosing the automatic termination or the absence of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent under applicable law or the absence of mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent after coverage has terminated, the creditor discloses the mortgage insurance premium as “-.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to principal and interest disclosure.</I> The creditor discloses mortgage insurance premiums pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii) on the same periodic basis that payments for principal and interest are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(i), even if mortgage insurance premiums are actually paid on some other periodic basis.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Escrow disclosure.</I> The disclosure described in § 1026.37(c)(2)(iii) is required only if the creditor will establish an escrow account for the payment of some or all of the charges described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii). If no escrow account for the payment of some or all such charges will be established, the creditor discloses the escrow amount as “0.” If an escrow account is established for the payment of amounts described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii), but no escrow payment is required with a particular periodic payment (such as with a final balloon payment) or range of payments, the escrow payment should be disclosed as “—.”
</P>
<P><I>37(c)(3) Subheadings.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(3)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Years.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(3)(ii) requires that each separate periodic payment or range of payments be disclosed under a subheading that states the years during which that payment or range of payments will apply and that such subheadings be stated in a sequence of whole years from the due date of the initial periodic payment. Therefore, for purposes of § 1026.37(c), “year” is defined as the twelve-month interval beginning on the due date of the initial periodic payment, and the next whole year begins each anniversary thereafter. If an event requiring the disclosure of an additional separate periodic payment or range of payments occurs on a date other than the anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment, and no other events occur during that single year requiring disclosure of multiple events under § 1026.37(c)(1)(iii)(B), such event is disclosed beginning in the next year in the sequence, because the separate periodic payment or range of payments that applied during the previous year will also apply during a portion of that year. For example:</P>
<P>i. Assume a fixed rate loan with a term of 124 months (10 years, four months). The creditor would label the disclosure of periodic payments as “Years 1-11.”
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a loan with a 30-year term that does not require mortgage insurance and requires interest only payments for the first 60 months from the due date of the initial periodic payment, then requires fixed, fully amortizing payments of principal and interest beginning at the 61st month for the duration of the loan, the creditor would label the first disclosure of periodic payments as “Years 1-5” (including the term “only interest” pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(i)) and the second disclosure of periodic payments or range of payments as “Years 6-30.” If that loan requires interest only payments for the first 54 months from the due date of the initial periodic payment, then requires fixed, fully amortizing payments of principal and interest for the duration of the loan, because the change in the periodic payment occurs on a date other than the anniversary of the due date of the initial periodic payment and the previous payment applies during that year, the creditor would likewise label the first disclosure of periodic payments as “Years 1-5” (including the term “only interest” pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(i)) and the second disclosure of periodic payments or range of payments as “Years 6-30.” If the loan that requires interest only payments for the first 54 months also requires mortgage insurance that would automatically terminate under applicable law after the 100th month from the due date of the initial periodic payment, the creditor would label the first disclosure of periodic payments as “Years 1-5” (including the term “only interest” pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(2)(i)), the second disclosure of periodic payments or range of payments as “Years 6-9,” and the third disclosure of periodic payments or range of payments as “Years 10-30.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loans with variable terms.</I> If the loan term may increase based on an adjustment of the interest rate, the creditor must disclose the maximum loan term possible under the legal obligation. To calculate the maximum loan term, the creditor assumes that the interest rate rises as rapidly as possible, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation, including any applicable caps on interest rate adjustments and lifetime interest rate cap. <I>See</I> comment 37(a)(8)-2.
</P>
<P><I>37(c)(4) Taxes, insurance, and assessments.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(4)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition of taxes, insurance, and assessments.</I> See the commentary under § 1026.43(b)(8) for guidance on the charges that are included in taxes, insurance, and assessments for purposes of § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii), except that the portion of that commentary related to amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(5) is inapplicable to the disclosure required by § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(c)(4)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Description of other amounts.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(4)(iv) requires the creditor to disclose a statement of whether the amount disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii) includes payments for property taxes, amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8) (homeowner's insurance premiums), and other amounts described in § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii), along with a description of any such other amounts. If the amount disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii) requires the creditor to disclose a description of more than one amount other than amounts for payment of property taxes or homeowner's insurance premiums, the creditor may disclose a descriptive statement of one such amount along with an indication that additional amounts are also included, such as by using the phrase “and additional costs.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts paid by the creditor using escrow account funds.</I> Section 1026.37(c)(4)(iv) requires the creditor to disclose an indication of whether the amounts disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii) will be paid by the creditor using escrow account funds. If only a portion of the amounts disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(4)(ii), including, without limitation, property taxes, homeowner's insurance, and assessments, will be paid by the creditor using escrow account funds, the creditor may indicate that only a portion of the amounts disclosed will be paid using escrow account funds, such as by using the word “some.”
</P>
<P><I>37(d) Costs at closing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(d)(2) Optional alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Optional use.</I> The optional alternative disclosure of the estimated cash to close provided for in § 1026.37(d)(2) may be used by a creditor only in a transaction without a seller or a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction. In a purchase transaction, the optional alternative disclosure may be used for the simultaneous subordinate financing Loan Estimate only if the first-lien Closing Disclosure will record the entirety of the seller's transaction. Creditors may only use this alternative estimated cash to close disclosure in conjunction with the alternative disclosure under § 1026.37(h)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of indication.</I> The indication of whether the estimated cash is either due from or payable to the consumer can be made by the use of check boxes as shown in form H-24(D) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>37(f) Closing cost details; loan costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General description.</I> The items disclosed under § 1026.37(f) include services that the creditor or mortgage broker require for consummation, such as underwriting, appraisal, and title services.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgage broker.</I> Commentary under § 1026.19(e)(1)(ii) discusses the requirements and responsibilities of mortgage brokers that provide the disclosures required by § 1026.19(e), which include the disclosures set forth in § 1026.37(f).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Construction loan inspection and handling fees.</I> Inspection and handling fees for the staged disbursement of construction loan proceeds, including draw fees, are loan costs associated with the transaction for purposes of § 1026.37(f). If inspection and handling fees are collected at or before consummation, the total of such fees is disclosed in the loan costs table. If inspection and handling fees will be collected after consummation, the total of such fees is disclosed in a separate addendum and the fees are not counted for purposes of the calculating cash to close table. See comment 37(f)(6)-3 for a description of an addendum used to disclose inspection and handling fees that will be collected after consummation. See also comments 38(f)-2 and app. D-7.vii. If the number of inspections and disbursements is not known at the time the disclosures are provided, the creditor discloses the fees that will be collected based on the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure is provided. <I>See</I> comment 19(e)(1)(i)-1. See § 1026.17(e) and its commentary for an explanation of the effect of subsequent events that cause inaccuracies in disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>37(f)(1) Origination charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Origination charges.</I> Charges included under the subheading “Origination Charges” pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(1) are those charges paid by the consumer to each creditor and loan originator for originating and extending the credit, regardless of how such fees are denominated. In accordance with § 1026.37(o)(4), the dollar amounts disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1) must be rounded to the nearest whole dollar and the percentage amounts must be disclosed as an exact number up to two or three decimal places, except that decimal places shall not be disclosed if the percentage is a whole number. See comment 19(e)(3)(i)-3 for a discussion of when a fee is considered to be “paid to” a person. See § 1026.36(a) and associated commentary for a discussion of the meaning of “loan originator” in connection with limits on compensation in a consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Indirect loan originator compensation.</I> Only charges paid directly by the consumer to compensate a loan originator are included in the amounts listed under § 1026.37(f)(1). Compensation of a loan originator paid indirectly by the creditor through the interest rate is not itemized on the Loan Estimate required by § 1026.19(e). However, pursuant to § 1026.38(f)(1), such compensation is itemized on the Closing Disclosure required by § 1026.19(f).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Description of charges.</I> Other than for points charged in connection with the transaction to reduce the interest rate, for which specific language must be used, the creditor may use a general label that uses terminology that, under § 1026.37(f)(5), is consistent with § 1026.17(a)(1), clearly and conspicuously describes the service that is disclosed as an origination charge pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(1). Items that are listed under the subheading “Origination Charges” may include, for example, application fee, origination fee, underwriting fee, processing fee, verification fee, and rate-lock fee.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Points.</I> If there are no points charged in connection with the transaction to reduce the interest rate, the creditor leaves blank the percentage of points used in the label and the dollar amount disclosed under § 1026.37(f)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Itemization.</I> Creditors determine the level of itemization of “Origination Charges” that is appropriate under § 1026.37(f)(1) in relation to charges paid by the consumer to the creditor, subject to the limitations in § 1026.37(f)(1)(ii). For example, the following charges should be itemized separately: compensation paid directly by a consumer to a loan originator that is not also the creditor; or a charge imposed to pay for a loan level pricing adjustment assessed on the creditor, which the creditor passes onto the consumer as a charge at consummation and not as an adjustment to the interest rate.
</P>
<P><I>37(f)(2) Services you cannot shop for.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Services disclosed.</I> Items included under the subheading “Services You Cannot Shop For” pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) are for those services that the creditor requires in connection with the transaction that would be provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker and for which the creditor does not permit the consumer to shop in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi). Comment 19(e)(1)(vi)-1 clarifies that a consumer is not permitted to shop if the consumer must choose a provider from a list provided by the creditor. Comment 19(e)(3)(i)-1 addresses determining good faith in providing estimates under § 1026.19(e), including estimates for services for which the consumer cannot shop. Comments 19(e)(3)(iv)-1 through -3 discuss limits and requirements applicable to providing revised estimates for services for which the consumer cannot shop.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of charges.</I> Examples of the services and amounts to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) might include an appraisal fee, appraisal management company fee, credit report fee, flood determination fee, government funding fee, homeowner's association certification fee, lender's attorney fee, tax status research fee, third-party subordination fee, title—closing protection letter fee, title—lender's title insurance policy, and an upfront mortgage insurance fee, provided that the fee is charged at consummation and is not a prepayment of future premiums over a specific future time period or a payment into an escrow account. Government funding fees include a United States Department of Veterans Affairs or United States Department of Agriculture guarantee fee, or any other fee paid to a government entity as part of a governmental loan program, that is paid at consummation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Title insurance services.</I> The services required to be labeled beginning with “Title -” pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) or (3) are those required for the issuance of title insurance policies to the creditor in connection with the consummation of the transaction or for conducting the closing. These services may include, for example:</P>
<P>i. Examination and evaluation, based on relevant law and title insurance underwriting principles and guidelines, of the title evidence to determine the insurability of the title being examined and what items to include or exclude in any title commitment and policy to be issued;
</P>
<P>ii. Preparation and issuance of the title commitment or other document that discloses the status of the title as it is proposed to be insured, identifies the conditions that must be met before the policy will be issued, and obligates the insurer to issue a policy of title insurance if such conditions are met;
</P>
<P>iii. Resolution of underwriting issues and taking the steps needed to satisfy any conditions for the issuance of the policies;
</P>
<P>iv. Preparation and issuance of the policy or policies of title insurance; and
</P>
<P>v. Premiums for any title insurance coverage for the benefit of the creditor.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Lender's title insurance policy.</I> Section 1026.37(f)(2) and (3) requires disclosure of the amount the consumer will pay for the lender's title insurance policy. However, an owner's title insurance policy that covers the consumer and is not required to be purchased by the creditor is only disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g). Accordingly, the creditor must quote the amount of the lender's title insurance coverage pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) or (3) as applicable based on the type of lender's title insurance policy required by its underwriting standards for that loan. The amount disclosed for the lender's title insurance policy pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) or (3) is the amount of the premium without any adjustment that might be made for the simultaneous purchase of an owner's title insurance policy. This amount may be disclosed as “Title —Premium for Lender's Coverage,” or in any similar manner that clearly indicates the amount of the premium disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(2) is for the lender's title insurance coverage. See comment 37(g)(4)-1 for a discussion of the disclosure of the premium for an owner's title insurance policy that covers the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>37(f)(3) Services you can shop for.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Services disclosed.</I> Items included under the subheading “Services You Can Shop For” pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3) are for those services: That the creditor requires in connection with its decision to make the loan; that would be provided by persons other than the creditor or mortgage broker; and for which the creditor allows the consumer to shop in accordance with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi). Comments 19(e)(3)(ii)-1 through -3, and -5 address the determination of good faith in providing estimates of charges for services for which the consumer can shop. Comment 19(e)(3)(iii)-2 discusses the determination of good faith when the consumer chooses a provider that is not on the list the creditor provides to the consumer when the consumer is permitted to shop consistent with § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi). Comments 19(e)(3)(iv)-1 through -3 discuss limits and requirements applicable to providing revised estimates for services for which the consumer can shop.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example of charges.</I> Examples of the services to be listed under this subheading pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3) might include a pest inspection fee, survey fee, title—closing agent fee, and title—closing protection letter fee.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Title insurance.</I> See comments 37(f)(2)-3 and -4 for guidance on services that are to be labeled beginning with “Title —” and on calculating and labeling the amount disclosed for lender's title insurance pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3). See comment 37(g)(4)-1 for a discussion of the disclosure of the premium for owner's title insurance coverage.
</P>
<P><I>37(f)(5) Item descriptions and ordering.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Section 1026.37(f)(5) requires creditors to label the loan costs disclosed pursuant § 1026.37(f) using terminology that describes each item. A creditor complies with this requirement if it uses terminology that is clear and conspicuous, consistent with § 1026.17(a)(1), and describes the service or administrative function that the charge pays for in a manner that is reasonably understood by consumers within the space provided in form H-24 of appendix H to this part. For example, if a creditor imposes a fee on a consumer to cover the costs associated with underwriting the transaction, the creditor would comply with § 1026.37(f)(5) if it labeled the cost “Underwriting Fee.” A label that uses abbreviations or acronyms that are not reasonably understood by consumers would not comply with § 1026.37(f)(5).
</P>
<P><I>37(f)(6) Use of addenda.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law disclosures.</I> If a creditor is required by State law to make additional disclosures that, pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(6)(i), cannot be included in the disclosures required under § 1026.37(f), the creditor may make those additional State law disclosures on a document whose pages are separate from, and are not presented as part of, the disclosures prescribed in § 1026.37, for example, as an addendum to the Loan Estimate. <I>See</I> comment 37(o)(1)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reference to addendum.</I> If an addendum is used as permitted under § 1026.37(f)(6)(ii), an example of a label that complies with the requirement for an appropriate reference on the last line is: “See attached page for additional items you can shop for.”
</P>
<P><I>3. Addendum for post-consummation inspection and handling fees.</I> A creditor makes the disclosures required by § 1026.37(f) and comment 37(f)-3 for construction loan inspection and handling fees collected after consummation by disclosing the total of such fees under the heading “Inspection and Handling Fees Collected After Closing” in an addendum, which may be the addendum pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(6) or any other addendum or additional page under § 1026.37. <I>See</I> comment 37(o)(1)-1. For purposes of comment 38(f)-2, the addendum may be any addendum or additional page under § 1026.38. If the actual amount of such fees is not known at the time the disclosures are provided, the disclosures in the addendum are based upon the best information reasonably available to the creditor at the time the disclosure is provided. <I>See</I> comment 19(e)(1)(i)-1. For example, such information could include amounts the creditor has previously charged in similar construction transactions or the amount of estimated inspection and handling fees used by the creditor for purposes of setting the construction loan's commitment amount.
</P>
<P><I>37(g) Closing cost details; other costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General description.</I> The items listed under the heading of “Other Costs” pursuant to § 1026.37(g) include services that are ancillary to the creditor's decision to evaluate the collateral and the consumer for the loan. The amounts disclosed for these items are: Established by government action; determined by standard calculations applied to ongoing fixed costs; or based on an obligation incurred by the consumer independently of any requirement imposed by the creditor. Except for prepaid interest under § 1026.37(g)(2)(iii), or charges for optional credit insurance provided by the creditor, the creditor does not retain any of the amounts or portions of the amounts disclosed as other costs.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Charges pursuant to property contract.</I> The creditor is required to disclose charges that are described in § 1026.37(g)(1) through (3). Other charges that are required to be paid at or before closing pursuant to the property contract for sale between the consumer and seller are disclosed on the Loan Estimate to the extent the creditor has knowledge of those charges when it issues the Loan Estimate, consistent with the good faith standard under § 1026.19(e). A creditor has knowledge of those charges where, for example, it has the real estate purchase and sale contract. <I>See also</I> § 1026.37(g)(4) and comment 37(g)(4)-3.
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(1) Taxes and other government fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Recording fees.</I> Recording fees listed under § 1026.37(g)(1) are fees assessed by a government authority to record and index the loan and title documents as required under State or local law. Recording fees are assessed based on the type of document to be recorded or its physical characteristics, such as the number of pages. Unlike transfer taxes, recording fees are not based on the sale price of the property or loan amount. For example, a fee for recording a subordination agreement that is $20, plus $3 for each page over three pages, is a recording fee, but a fee of $1,250 based on 0.5 percent of the loan amount is a transfer tax, and not a recording fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other government charges.</I> Any charges or fees imposed by a State or local government that are not transfer taxes are aggregated with recording fees and disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transfer taxes—terminology.</I> In general, transfer taxes listed under § 1026.37(g)(1) are State and local government fees on mortgages and home sales that are based on the loan amount or sales price, while recording fees are State and local government fees for recording the loan and title documents. The name that is used under State or local law to refer to these amounts is not determinative of whether they are disclosed as transfer taxes or as recording fees and other taxes under § 1026.37(g)(1).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transfer taxes—consumer.</I> Only transfer taxes paid by the consumer are disclosed on the Loan Estimate pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(1). State and local government transfer taxes are governed by State or local law, which determines if the seller or consumer is ultimately responsible for paying the transfer taxes. For example, if State law indicates a lien can attach to the consumer's acquired property if the transfer tax is not paid, the transfer tax is disclosed. If State or local law is unclear or does not specifically attribute transfer taxes to the seller or the consumer, the creditor is in compliance with requirements of § 1026.37(g)(1) if the amount of the transfer tax disclosed is not less than the amount apportioned to the consumer using common practice in the locality of the property.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Transfer taxes—seller.</I> Transfer taxes paid by the seller in a purchase transaction are not disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(g)(1), but are disclosed on the Closing Disclosure pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Deletion and addition of items.</I> The lines and labels required by § 1026.37(g)(1) may not be deleted, even if recording fees or transfer taxes are not charged to the consumer. No additional items may be listed under the subheading in § 1026.37(g)(1).
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(2) Prepaids.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Prepaid items required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(2) include the interest due at consummation for the period of time before interest begins to accrue for the first scheduled periodic payment and certain periodic charges that are required by the creditor to be paid at consummation. Each periodic charge listed as a prepaid item indicates, as applicable, the time period that the charge will cover, the daily amount, the percentage rate of interest used to calculate the charge, and the total dollar amount of the charge. Examples of periodic charges that are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(2) include:</P>
<P>i. Real estate property taxes due within 60 days after consummation of the transaction;
</P>
<P>ii. Past-due real estate property taxes;
</P>
<P>iii. Mortgage insurance premiums;
</P>
<P>iv. Flood insurance premiums; and
</P>
<P>v. Homeowner's insurance premiums.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest rate.</I> The interest rate disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(2)(iii) is the same interest rate disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(g)(2), the term “property taxes” has the same meaning as in § 1026.43(b)(8) and further described in comment 43(b)(8)-2; the term “homeowner's insurance” means the amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8); and the term “mortgage insurance” has the same meaning as “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” in § 1026.37(c), which means the amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(5).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deletion of items.</I> The lines and labels required by § 1026.37(g)(2) may not be deleted, even if amounts for those labeled items are not charged to the consumer. If an amount for a labeled item is not charged to the consumer, the time period, daily amount, and percentage used in the labels are left blank.
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(3) Initial escrow payment at closing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Listed item not charged.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(3), each periodic charge to be included in the escrow or reserve account must be itemized under the “Initial Escrow Payment at Closing” subheading, with a relevant label, monthly payment amount, and number of months expected to be collected at consummation. If an item described in § 1026.37(g)(3)(i) through (iii) is not charged to the consumer, the monthly payment amount and time period used in the labels are left blank.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Aggregate escrow account calculation.</I> The aggregate escrow account adjustment required under § 1026.38(g)(3) and 12 CFR 1024.17(d)(2) is not included on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(g)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> As used in § 1026.37(g)(3), the term “property taxes” has the same meaning as in § 1026.43(b)(8) and further described in comment 43(b)(8)-2; the term “homeowner's insurance” means the amounts identified in § 1026.4(b)(8); and the term “mortgage insurance” has the same meaning as “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” in § 1026.37(c).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deletion of items.</I> The lines and labels required by § 1026.37(g)(3) may not be deleted, even if amounts for those labeled items are not charged to the consumer.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Escrowed tax payments for different time frames.</I> Payments for property taxes that are paid at different time periods can be itemized separately when done in accordance with 12 CFR 1024.17, as applicable. For example, a general property tax covering a fiscal year from January 1 to December 31 can be listed as a property tax under § 1026.37(g)(3)(i); and a separate property tax to fund schools that cover a fiscal year from November 1 to October 31 can be added as a separate item under § 1026.37(g)(3)(v).
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(4) Other.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Owner's title insurance policy rate.</I> The amount disclosed for an owner's title insurance premium pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(4) is based on a basic owner's policy rate, and not on an “enhanced” title insurance policy premium, except that the creditor may instead disclose the premium for an “enhanced” policy when the “enhanced” title insurance policy is required by the real estate sales contract, if such requirement is known to the creditor when issuing the Loan Estimate. This amount should be disclosed as “Title—Owner's Title Policy (optional),” or in any similar manner that includes the introductory description “Title -” at the beginning of the label for the item, the parenthetical description “(optional)” at the end of the label, and clearly indicates the amount of the premium disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(4) is for the owner's title insurance coverage. See comment 37(f)(2)-4 for a discussion of the disclosure of the premium for lender's title insurance coverage.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Simultaneous title insurance premium rate in purchase transactions.</I> The premium for an owner's title insurance policy for which a special rate may be available based on the simultaneous issuance of a lender's and an owner's policy is calculated and disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(4) as follows:</P>
<P>i. The title insurance premium for a lender's title policy is based on the full premium rate, consistent with § 1026.37(f)(2) or (f)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. The owner's title insurance premium is calculated by taking the full owner's title insurance premium, adding the simultaneous issuance premium for the lender's coverage, and then deducting the full premium for lender's coverage.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Designation of optional items.</I> Products disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(4) for which the parenthetical description “(optional)” is included at the end of the label for the item include only items that are separate from any item disclosed on the Loan Estimate under paragraphs other than § 1026.37(g)(4). For example, such items may include optional owner's title insurance, credit life insurance, debt suspension coverage, debt cancellation coverage, warranties of home appliances and systems, and similar products, when coverage is written in connection with a credit transaction that is subject to § 1026.19(e). However, because the requirement in § 1026.37(g)(4)(ii) applies to separate products only, additional coverage and endorsements on insurance otherwise required by the lender are not disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(4). See comments 4(b)(7) and (b)(8)-1 through -3 and comments 4(b)(10)-1 and -2 for guidance on determining when credit life insurance, debt suspension coverage, debt cancellation coverage, and similar coverage is written in connection with a transaction subject to § 1026.19(e).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of other items that are disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(4) if the creditor is aware of those items when it issues the Loan Estimate include commissions of real estate brokers or agents, additional payments to the seller to purchase personal property pursuant to the property contract, homeowner's association and condominium charges associated with the transfer of ownership, and fees for inspections not required by the creditor but paid by the consumer pursuant to the property contract. Although the consumer is obligated for these costs, they are not imposed upon the consumer by the creditor or loan originator. Therefore, they are not disclosed with the parenthetical description “(optional)” at the end of the label for the item, and they are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g) rather than § 1026.37(f). Even if such items are not required to be disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(g)(4), however, they may be required to be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure pursuant to § 1026.38. Comment 19(e)(3)(iii)-3 discusses application of the good faith requirement for services chosen by the consumer that are not required by the creditor.
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(6) Total closing costs.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(g)(6)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Lender credits.</I> Section 1026.19(e)(1)(i) requires disclosure of lender credits as provided in § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii). Such lender credits include non-specific lender credits as well as specific lender credits. <I>See</I> comment 19(e)(3)(i)-5.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credits or rebates from the creditor to offset a portion or all of the closing costs.</I> For loans where a portion or all of the closing costs are offset by a credit or rebate provided by the creditor (sometimes referred to as “no-cost” loans), whether all or a defined portion of the closing costs disclosed under § 1026.37(f) or (g) will be paid by a credit or rebate from the creditor, the creditor discloses such credit or rebate as a lender credit under § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii). The creditor should ensure that the lender credit disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii) is sufficient to cover the estimated costs the creditor represented to the consumer as not being required to be paid by the consumer at consummation, regardless of whether such representations pertained to specific items.
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(7) Item descriptions and ordering.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 37(f)(5)-1 for guidance regarding the requirement to label items using terminology that describes each item.
</P>
<P><I>37(g)(8) Use of addenda.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law disclosures.</I> If a creditor is required by State law to make additional disclosures that, pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(8), cannot be included in the disclosures required under § 1026.37(g), the creditor may make those additional State law disclosures on a separate document whose pages are physically separate from, and are not presented as part of, the disclosures prescribed in § 1026.37. <I>See</I> comment 37(o)(1)-1.
</P>
<P><I>37(h) Calculating cash to close.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1) For all transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Labels for amounts disclosed.</I> Section 1026.37(h)(1) describes the amounts that are used to calculate the estimated amount of cash or other funds that the consumer must provide at consummation. The labels that are to be used under § 1026.37(h)(1) are illustrated by form H-24(A) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> On the Loan Estimate for simultaneous subordinate financing purchase transactions, the sale price disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(7)(i) is not used under § 1026.37(h)(1) for the calculating cash to close table calculations that include the sale price as a component of the calculation. For example, sale price is generally included in the closing costs financed calculation under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii) as a component of the estimated total amount of payments to third parties. However, for simultaneous subordinate financing transactions, the estimated total amount of payments to third parties would not include the sale price. The estimated total amount of payments to third parties only includes payments occurring in the simultaneous subordinate financing transaction other than payments toward the sale price.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(ii) Closing costs financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of amount.</I> The amount of closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii) is determined by subtracting the estimated total amount of payments to third parties not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.37(f) and (g) from the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1). The estimated total amount of payments to third parties includes the sale price disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(7)(i), if applicable, unless otherwise excluded under comment 37(h)(1)-2. Other examples of payments to third parties not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.37(f) and (g) include the amount of construction costs for transactions that involve improvements to be made on the property and payoffs of secured or unsecured debt. If the result of the calculation is zero or negative, the amount of $0 is disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii). If the result of the calculation is a positive number, that amount is disclosed as a negative number under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii), but only to the extent that the absolute value of the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii) does not exceed the total amount of closing costs disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(6).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan amount.</I> The loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1), a component of the closing costs financed calculation, is the total amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected by the face amount of the note.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(iii) Down payment and other funds from borrower.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Down payment and funds from borrower calculation.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the down payment and funds from borrower amount is calculated as the difference between the sale price of the property disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(7)(i) and the sum of the loan amount and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv). The calculation is independent of any loan program or investor requirements.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Funds for borrower.</I> Section 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires that, in a purchase transaction as defined in paragraph (a)(9)(i) of this section that is a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction or that involves improvements to be made on the property, or when the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) exceeds the sale price disclosed under § 1026.37(a)(7)(i), the amount of funds from the consumer is determined in accordance with § 1026.37(h)(1)(v). Section 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(B) requires that, for all non-purchase transactions, the amount of estimated funds from the consumer is determined in accordance with § 1026.37(h)(1)(v). Pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(1)(v), the amount to be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (B) is determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii)) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction. The total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction is the sum of the amounts that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v), as applicable. When the result of the calculation is positive, that amount is disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v) as “Funds for Borrower.” When the result of the calculation is negative, that amount is disclosed as a negative number under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v) as “Funds for Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower.” When the result is $0, $0 is disclosed as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” and “Funds for Borrower” under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii) and (v), respectively.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(iv) Deposit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. Section 1026.37(h)(1)(iv)(A) requires disclosure of a deposit in a purchase transaction. The deposit to be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv)(A) is any amount that the consumer has agreed to pay to a party identified in the real estate purchase and sale agreement to be held until consummation of the transaction, which is often referred to as an earnest money deposit. In a purchase transaction in which no such deposit is paid in connection with the transaction, § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv)(A) requires the creditor to disclose $0. In any other type of transaction, § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv)(B) requires disclosure of the deposit amount as $0.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(v) Funds for borrower.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>No funds for borrower.</I> When the down payment and other funds from the borrower is determined in accordance with § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v) as funds for the borrower is $0.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Total amount of existing debt satisfied in the transaction.</I> The amounts disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (B), as applicable, and (h)(1)(v) are determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(ii)) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction. The total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction is the sum of the amounts that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v), as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(vi) Seller credits.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-specific seller credits to be disclosed.</I> Non-specific seller credits, <I>i.e.,</I> general payments from the seller to the consumer that do not pay for a particular fee on the disclosures provided under § 1026.19(e)(1), known to the creditor at the time of delivery of the Loan Estimate, are disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi). For example, a creditor may learn the amount of seller credits that will be paid in the transaction from information obtained from the consumer, from a review of the purchase and sale contract, or from information obtained from a real estate agent in the transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Seller credits for specific charges.</I> To the extent known by the creditor at the time of delivery of the Loan Estimate, specific seller credits, <I>i.e.,</I> seller credits for specific items disclosed under § 1026.37(f) and (g), may be either disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi) or reflected in the amounts disclosed for those specific items under § 1026.37(f) and (g). For example, if the creditor knows at the time of the delivery of the Loan Estimate that the seller has agreed to pay half of a $100 required pest inspection fee, the creditor may either disclose the required pest inspection fee as $100 under § 1026.37(f) with a $50 seller credit disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi) or disclose the required pest inspection fee as $50 under § 1026.37(f), reflecting the specific seller credit in the amount disclosed for the pest inspection fee. If the creditor knows at the time of the delivery of the Loan Estimate that the seller has agreed to pay the entire $100 pest inspection fee, the creditor may either disclose the required pest inspection fee as $100 under § 1026.37(f) with a $100 seller credit disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi) or disclose nothing under § 1026.37(f), reflecting that the specific seller credit will cover the entire pest inspection fee.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(vii) Adjustments and other credits.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Other credits known at the time the Loan Estimate is issued.</I> Amounts expected to be paid at closing by third parties not otherwise associated with the transaction, such as gifts from family members and not otherwise identified under § 1026.37(h)(1), are included in the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii). Amounts expected to be provided in advance of closing by third parties, including family members, not otherwise associated with the transaction are not required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Persons that may make payments causing adjustment and other credits.</I> Persons, as defined under § 1026.2(a)(22), means natural persons or organizations. Accordingly, persons that may pay amounts disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii) include, for example, any individual family members providing gifts or a developer or home builder organization providing a credit in the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credits.</I> Only credits from persons other than the creditor or seller can be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii). Seller credits and credits from the creditor are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(1)(vi) and § 1026.37(g)(6)(ii), respectively.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other credits to be disclosed.</I> Credits other than those from the creditor or seller are disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii). Disclosure of other credits is, like other disclosures under § 1026.37, subject to the good faith requirement under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i). See § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) and comments 17(c)(2)(i)-1 and 19(e)(1)(i)-1. The creditor may obtain information regarding items to be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii), for example, from the consumer, from a review of the purchase and sale contract, or from information obtained from a real estate agent in the transaction.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Proceeds from subordinate financing or other source.</I> Funds that are provided to the consumer from the proceeds of subordinate financing, local or State housing assistance grants, or other similar sources are included in the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii) on the first-lien transaction Loan Estimate.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reduction in amounts for adjustments.</I> Adjustments that require additional funds from the consumer in a transaction disclosed using the formula under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or pursuant to the real estate purchase and sale contract, such as for additional personal property that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(1)(iii) or adjustments that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v), are only included in the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii) if such amounts are not included in the calculation under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>2</I>) or (B) or § 1026.37(h)(1)(v) as debt being satisfied in the transaction. Other examples of adjustments for additional funds from the consumer include payoffs of secured or unsecured debt in a purchase transaction disclosed using the formula under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or prorations for property taxes and homeowner's association dues. The total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(vii) is a sum of adjustments requiring additional funds from the consumer, calculated as positive amounts, and other credits, such as those provided for in comment 37(h)(1)(vii)-1, calculated as negative amounts.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(1)(viii) Estimated cash to close.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Result of cash to close calculation.</I> The sum of the amounts disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(1)(i) through (vii) is disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(viii) as either a positive number, a negative number, or zero. A positive number indicates the amount that the consumer will pay at consummation. A negative number indicates the amount that the consumer will receive at consummation. A result of zero indicates that the consumer will neither pay nor receive any amount at consummation.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(2) Optional alternative calculating cash to close table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Optional use.</I> The optional alternative disclosure of the calculating cash to close table in § 1026.37(h)(2) may only be provided by a creditor in a transaction without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing. In a purchase transaction, the optional alternative disclosure may be used for the simultaneous subordinate financing Loan Estimate only if the first-lien Closing Disclosure will record the entirety of the seller's transaction. The use of this alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing is optional, but creditors may only use this alternative estimated cash to close disclosure in conjunction with the alternative disclosure under § 1026.37(d)(2).
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(2)(iii) Payoffs and payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of the amounts incorporated in the total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii) include, but are not limited to: Payoffs of existing liens secured by the property identified under § 1026.37(a)(6) such as existing mortgages, deeds of trust, judgments that have attached to the real property, mechanics' and materialmen's liens, and local, State and Federal tax liens; payments of unsecured outstanding debts of the consumer; construction costs associated with the transaction that the consumer will be obligated to pay in any transaction in which the creditor is otherwise permitted to use the alternative calculating cash to close table; and payments to other third parties for outstanding debts of the consumer, excluding settlement services, as required to be paid as a condition for the extension of credit. Amounts that will be paid with funds provided by the consumer, including partial payments, such as a portion of construction costs, or amounts that will be paid by third parties and will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B), are calculated as credits, using positive numbers, in the total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of subordinate financing.</I> i. <I>First-lien Loan Estimate.</I> On the Loan Estimate for a first-lien transaction disclosed with the optional alternative table pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(2), such as a refinance transaction that also has simultaneous subordinate financing, the proceeds of the simultaneous subordinate financing are included, as a positive number, in the total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii). The total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii) is a negative number unless the proceeds from the subordinate financing and any amounts entered as credits as discussed in comment 37(h)(2)(iii)-1 equal or exceed the total amount of other payoffs and payments that are included in the calculation under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii). If the proceeds from the subordinate financing and any amounts entered as credits as discussed in comment 37(h)(2)(iii)-1 equal or exceed the total amount of other payoffs and payments that are included in the calculation under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii), the total amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii) is disclosed as $0 or a positive number.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing Loan Estimate.</I> On the simultaneous subordinate financing Loan Estimate disclosed with the optional alternative table pursuant to § 1026.37(h)(2), the proceeds of the subordinate financing that will be applied to the first-lien transaction may be included in the payoffs and payments disclosure under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(2)(iv) Cash to or from consumer.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Method of indication.</I> The indication of whether the estimated cash to close is either due from or payable to the consumer is made by the use of check boxes, which is illustrated by form H-24(D) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>37(h)(2)(v) Closing costs financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Limitation on amount disclosed.</I> The amount disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(v) is limited to the total amount of closing costs disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(6), even if the difference between § 1026.37(h)(2)(i) and § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii) is greater than the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(6).
</P>
<P><I>37(i) Adjustable payment table.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When table is not permitted to be disclosed.</I> The disclosure described in § 1026.37(i) is required only if the periodic principal and interest payment may change after consummation based on a loan term other than a change to the interest rate, or the transaction contains a seasonal payment product feature as described in § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(E). If the transaction does not contain such loan terms, this table shall not appear on the Loan Estimate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Periods to be disclosed.</I> Section 1026.37(i)(1) through (4) requires disclosure of the periods during which interest only, optional payment, step payment, and seasonal payment product features will be in effect. The periods required to be disclosed should be disclosed by describing the number of payments counting from the first periodic payment due after consummation. The period of seasonal payments required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(i)(4), to be clear and conspicuous, should be disclosed with a noun that identifies the unit-period, because such feature may apply on a regular basis during the loan term that does not depend on when regular periodic payments begin. The disclosures required by § 1026.37(i)(1) through (4) may include abbreviations to fit in the space provided for the information on form H-24, provided the information is disclosed in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example:</P>
<P>i. <I>Period from date of consummation.</I> If a loan has an interest only period for the first 60 regular periodic payments due after consummation, the disclosure states “for your first 60 payments.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Period during middle of loan term.</I> If the loan has an interest only period between the 61st and 85th payments, the disclosure states “from your 61st to 85th payment.”
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Multiple successive periods.</I> If there are multiple periods during which a certain adjustable payment term applies, such as a period of step payments that occurs from the first through 12th payments, does not occur from the 13th through 24th payments, and occurs again from the 25th through 36th payments, the period disclosed is the entire span of all such periods. Accordingly, such period is disclosed as “for your first 36 payments.”
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Seasonal payments.</I> For a seasonal payment product with a unit-period of a month that does not require periodic payments for the months of June, July, and August each year during the loan term, because such feature depends on calendar months and not on when regular periodic payments begin, the period is disclosed as “from June to August.” For a transaction with a quarterly unit-period that does not require a periodic payment every third quarter during the loan term and does not depend on calendar months, the period is disclosed as “every third payment.” In the same transaction, if the seasonal payment feature ends after the 20th quarter, the period is disclosed as “every quarter until the 20th quarter.” As described above in this comment 37(i)-2, the creditor may abbreviate “quarter” to “quart.” or “Q.”
</P>
<P><I>37(i)(5) Principal and interest payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statement of periodic payment frequency.</I> The subheading required by § 1026.37(i)(5) must include the unit-period of the transaction, such as “quarterly,” “bi-weekly,” or “annual.” This unit-period should be the same as disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(3). <I>See</I> § 1026.37(o)(5)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Initial payment adjustment unknown.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(i)(5) must state the number of the first payment for which the regular periodic principal and interest payment may change. This payment is typically set forth in the legal obligation. However, if the exact payment number of the first adjustment is not known at the time the creditor provides the Loan Estimate, the creditor must disclose the earliest possible payment that may change under the terms of the legal obligation, based on the information available to the creditor at the time, as the initial payment number and amount.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Subsequent changes.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(i)(5) must state the frequency of adjustments to the regular periodic principal and interest payment after the initial adjustment, if any, expressed in years, except if adjustments are more frequent than once every year, in which case the disclosure should be expressed as payments. If there is only one adjustment of the periodic payment under the terms of the legal obligation (for example, if the loan has an interest only period for the first 60 payments and there are no adjustments to the payment after the end of the interest only period), the disclosure should state: “No subsequent changes.” If the loan has graduated increases in the regular periodic payment every 12th payment, the disclosure should state: “Every year.” If the frequency of adjustments to the periodic payment may change under the terms of the legal obligation, the disclosure should state the smallest period of adjustments that may occur. For example, if an increase in the periodic payment is scheduled every sixth payment for 36 payments, and then every 12th payment for the next 24 payments, the disclosure should state: “Every 6th payment.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Maximum payment.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(i)(5) must state the larger of the maximum scheduled or maximum potential amount of a regular periodic principal and interest payment under the terms of the legal obligation, as well as the payment number of the first periodic principal and interest payment that can reach such amount. If the disclosed payment is scheduled, § 1026.37(i)(5) requires that the disclosure state the payment number when such payment is reached with the preceding text, “starting at.” If the disclosed payment is only potential, as may be the case for a loan that permits optional payments, the disclosure states the earliest payment number when such payment can be reached with the preceding text, “as early as.” Section 1026.37(i)(5) requires that the first possible periodic principal and interest payment that can reach the maximum be disclosed. For example, for a fixed interest rate optional-payment loan with scheduled payments that result in negative amortization under the terms of the legal obligation, the maximum periodic payment disclosed should be based on the consumer having elected to make the periodic payments that would increase the principal balance to the maximum amount at the latest time possible before the loan begins to fully amortize, which would cause the periodic principal and interest payment to be the maximum possible. For example, if the earliest payment that could reach the maximum principal balance was the 41st payment at which time the loan would begin to amortize and the periodic principal and interest payment would be recalculated, but the last payment that permitted the principal balance to increase was the 60th payment, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(i)(5) must assume the consumer only reaches the maximum principal balance at the 60th payment because this would result in the maximum possible principal and interest payment under the terms of the legal obligation. The disclosure must state the maximum periodic principal and interest payment based on this assumption and state “as early as the 61st payment.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Payments that do not pay principal.</I> Although the label of the disclosure required by § 1026.37(i)(5) is “Principal and Interest Payments,” and the section refers to periodic principal and interest payments, it includes a scheduled periodic payment that only covers some or all of the interest that is due and not any principal (<I>i.e.,</I> an interest only or negatively amortizing payment).
</P>
<P><I>37(j) Adjustable interest rate table.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When table is not permitted to be disclosed.</I> The disclosure described in § 1026.37(j) is required only if the interest rate may increase after consummation, either based on changes to an index or scheduled changes to the interest rate. If the legal obligation does not permit the interest rate to adjust after consummation, such as for a “Fixed Rate” product under § 1026.37(a)(10), this table is not permitted to appear on the Loan Estimate. The creditor may not disclose a blank table or a table with “N/A” inserted within each row.


</P>
<HD3>37(j)(1) Index and Margin
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Index and margin.</I> The index disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(j)(1) must be stated such that a consumer reasonably can identify it. A common abbreviation or acronym of the name of the index may be disclosed in place of the proper name of the index, if it is a commonly used public method of identifying the index. For example, “SOFR” may be disclosed instead of Secured Overnight Financing Rate. The margin should be disclosed as a percentage. For example, if the contract determines the interest rate by adding 4.25 percentage points to the index, the margin should be disclosed as “4.25%.”
</P>
<P><I>37(j)(2) Increases in interest rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustments not based on an index.</I> If the legal obligation includes both adjustments to the interest rate based on an external index and scheduled and pre-determined adjustments to the interest rate, such as for a “Step Rate” product under § 1026.37(a)(10), the disclosure required by § 1026.37(j)(1), and not § 1026.37(j)(2), must be provided pursuant to § 1026.37(j)(2). The disclosure described in § 1026.37(j)(2) is stated only if the product type does not permit the interest rate to adjust based on an external index.
</P>
<P><I>37(j)(3) Initial interest rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Interest rate at consummation.</I> In all cases, the interest rate in effect at consummation must be disclosed as the initial interest rate, even if it will apply only for a short period, such as one month.
</P>
<P><I>37(j)(4) Minimum and maximum interest rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Minimum interest rate.</I> The minimum interest rate required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(j)(4) is the minimum interest rate that may occur at any time during the term of the transaction, after any introductory or “teaser” interest rate expires, under the terms of the legal obligation, such as an interest rate “floor.” If the terms of the legal obligation do not state a minimum interest rate, the minimum interest rate that applies to the transaction under applicable law must be disclosed. If the terms of the legal obligation do not state a minimum interest rate, and no other minimum interest rate applies to the transaction under applicable law, the amount of the margin is disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maximum interest rate.</I> The maximum interest rate required to be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(j)(4) is the maximum interest rate permitted under the terms of the legal obligation, such as an interest rate “cap.” If the terms of the legal obligation do not specify a maximum interest rate, the maximum interest rate permitted by applicable law, such as State usury law, must be disclosed.
</P>
<P><I>37(j)(5) Frequency of adjustments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Exact month unknown.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(j)(5) must state the first month for which the interest rate may change. This month is typically scheduled in the terms of the legal obligation. However, if the exact month is not known at the time the creditor provides the Loan Estimate, the creditor must disclose the earliest possible month under the terms of the legal obligation, based on the best information available to the creditor at the time.
</P>
<P><I>37(j)(6) Limits on interest rate changes.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Different limits on subsequent interest rate adjustments.</I> If more than one limit applies to the amount of adjustments to the interest rate after the initial adjustment, the greatest limit on subsequent adjustments must be disclosed. For example, if the initial interest rate adjustment is capped at two percent, the second adjustment is capped at two and a half percent, and all subsequent adjustments are capped at three percent, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(j)(6)(ii) states “3%.”
</P>
<P><I>37(k) Contact information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>NMLSR ID.</I> Section 1026.37(k) requires the disclosure of an Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System and Registry (NMLSR ID) number for each creditor, mortgage broker, and loan officer identified on the Loan Estimate. The NMLSR ID is a unique number or other identifier generally assigned to individuals registered or licensed through NMLSR to provide loan originating services. For more information, see the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 (SAFE Act) sections 1503(3) and (12) and 1504 (12 U.S.C. 5102(3) and (12) and 5103), and its implementing regulations (<I>i.e.,</I> 12 CFR 1007.103(a) and 1008.103(a)(2)). An entity may also have an NMLSR ID. Thus, if the creditor, mortgage broker, or loan officer has obtained an NMLSR ID, the NMLSR IDs must be provided in the disclosures required by § 1026.37(k)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>License number or unique identifier.</I> Section 1026.37(k)(1) and (2) requires the disclosure of a license number or unique identifier for the creditor, mortgage broker, and loan officer if such entity or individual has not obtained an NMLSR ID. In such event, if the applicable State, locality, or other regulatory body with responsibility for licensing and/or registering such entity's or individual's business activities has issued a license number or other unique identifier to such entity or individual, that number is disclosed. In addition, § 1026.37(k)(1) and (2) require the abbreviation of the State of the jurisdiction or regulatory body that issued such license or registration is required to be included before the word “License” in the label required by § 1026.37(k)(1) and (2). If no such license or registration is required to be disclosed, such as if an NMLSR number is disclosed, the space provided for such an abbreviation in form H-24 of appendix H to this part may be left blank. A U.S. Postal Service State abbreviation complies with § 1026.37(k)(1) and (2), if applicable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Contact.</I> Section 1026.37(k)(2) requires the disclosure of the name and NMLSR ID of the person who is the primary contact for the consumer, labeled “Loan Officer.” The loan officer is generally the natural person employed by the creditor or mortgage broker disclosed under § 1026.37(k)(1) who interacts most frequently with the consumer and who has an NMLSR ID or, if none, a license number or other unique identifier to be disclosed under § 1026.37(k)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Email address and phone number.</I> Section 1026.37(k)(3) requires disclosure of the loan officer's email address and phone number. Disclosure of a general number or email address for the loan officer's lender or mortgage broker, as applicable, satisfies this requirement if no such information is generally available for such person.
</P>
<P><I>37(l) Comparisons.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(l)(1) In five years.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Loans with terms of less than five years.</I> In transactions with a scheduled loan term of less than 60 months, to comply with § 1026.37(l)(1), the creditor discloses the amounts paid through the end of the loan term.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(l)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of total payments in five years.</I> The amount disclosed under § 1026.37(l)(1)(i) is the sum of principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs scheduled to be paid through the end of the 60th month after the due date of the first periodic payment. For guidance on how to calculate interest for mortgage loans that are Adjustable Rate products under § 1026.37(a)(10)(i)(A) for purposes of § 1026.37(l)(1)(i), see comment 17(c)(1)-10. In addition, for purposes of § 1026.37(l)(1)(i), the creditor should assume that the consumer makes payments as scheduled and on time. For purposes of § 1026.37(l)(1)(i), mortgage insurance means “mortgage insurance or any functional equivalent” as defined under comment 37(c)(1)(i)(C)-1 and includes prepaid or escrowed mortgage insurance. Loan costs are those costs disclosed under § 1026.37(f).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> For loans that have a negative amortization feature under § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(A), the creditor calculates the total payments in five years using the scheduled payments, even if it is a negatively amortizing payment amount, until the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(l)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of principal paid in five years.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(l)(1)(ii) is calculated in the same manner as the disclosure required by § 1026.37(l)(1)(i), except that the disclosed amount reflects only the total payments to principal through the end of the 60th month after the due date of the first periodic payment.
</P>
<P><I>37(l)(3) Total interest percentage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> When calculating the total interest percentage, the creditor assumes that the consumer will make each payment in full and on time and will not make any additional payments. The creditor includes prepaid interest that the consumer will pay when calculating the total interest percentage. Prepaid interest that is disclosed as a negative number under §§ 1026.37(g)(2) or 1026.38(g)(2) is included as a negative value when calculating the total interest percentage.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustable rate and step rate mortgages.</I> For Adjustable Rate products under § 1026.37(a)(10)(i)(A), § 1026.37(l)(3) requires that the creditor compute the total interest percentage in accordance with comment 17(c)(1)-10. For Step Rate products under § 1026.37(a)(10)(i)(B), § 1026.37(l)(3) requires that the creditor compute the total interest percentage in accordance with § 1026.17(c)(1) and its associated commentary.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Negative amortization loans.</I> For loans that have a negative amortization feature under § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(A), § 1026.37(l)(3) requires that the creditor compute the total interest percentage using the scheduled payment, even if it is a negatively amortizing payment amount, until the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P><I>37(m) Other considerations.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(1) Appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.37(m)(1) is only applicable to transactions subject to § 1026.19(e) that are also subject either to 15 U.S.C. 1639h or 1691(e) or both, as implemented by this part or Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, respectively. Accordingly, if a transaction is not also subject to either or both of these provisions, as implemented by this part or Regulation B, respectively, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(m)(1) may be omitted from the Loan Estimate as described by comment 37-1 as illustrated by form H-24 of appendix H to this part. For transactions subject to section 1639h but not section 1691(e), the creditor may delete the word “promptly” from the disclosure required by § 1026.37(m)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consummation.</I> Section 1026.37(m)(1) requires the creditor to disclose that it will provide a copy of any appraisal, even if the transaction is not consummated. On form H-24, the disclosure required by § 1026.37(m)(1) states that the creditor will provide an appraisal, even if the “loan does not close.” Pursuant to § 1026.37(o)(3), the disclosure required by § 1026.37(m)(1) is that illustrated by form H-24.
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(2) Assumption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure.</I> Section 1026.37(m)(2) requires the creditor to disclose whether or not a third party may be allowed to assume the loan on its original terms if the property is sold or transferred by the consumer. In many cases, the creditor cannot determine, at the time the disclosure is made, whether a loan may be assumable at a future date on its original terms. For example, the assumption clause commonly used in mortgages sold to the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation conditions an assumption on a variety of factors, such as the creditworthiness of the subsequent borrower, the potential for impairment of the creditor's security, and the execution of an assumption agreement by the subsequent borrower. If the creditor can determine that such assumption is not permitted, the creditor complies with § 1026.37(m)(2) by disclosing that the loan is not assumable. In all other situations, including where assumption of a loan is permitted or is dependent on certain conditions or factors, or uncertainty exists as to the future assumability of a mortgage loan, the creditor complies with § 1026.37(m)(2) by disclosing that, under certain conditions, the creditor may allow a third party to assume the loan on its original terms.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Original terms.</I> For purposes of § 1026.37(m)(2), the imposition of an assumption fee is not a departure from the original terms of the obligation but a modification of the legal obligation, such as a change in the contract interest rate, represents a departure from the original terms.
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(3) Homeowner's insurance.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Optional disclosure.</I> Section 1026.37(m)(3) provides that creditors may, but are not required to, disclose a statement of whether homeowner's insurance is required on the property and whether the consumer may choose the insurance provider, labeled “Homeowner's Insurance.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to the finance charge.</I> Section 1026.4(d)(2) describes the conditions under which a creditor may exclude premiums for homeowner's insurance from the finance charge. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e), a creditor satisfies § 1026.4(d)(2)(i) by disclosing the statement described in § 1026.37(m)(3).
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(4) Late payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Section 1026.37(m)(4) requires a disclosure if charges are added to an individual delinquent installment by a creditor that otherwise considers the transaction ongoing on its original terms. Late payment charges do not include: (i) The right of acceleration; (ii) fees imposed for actual collection costs, such as repossession charges or attorney's fees; (iii) referral and extension charges; or (iv) the continued accrual of simple interest at the contract rate after the payment due date. However, an increase in the interest rate on account of a late payment by the consumer is a late payment charge to the extent of the increase.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Applicability of State law.</I> Many State laws authorize the calculation of late charges as either a percentage of the delinquent payment amount or a specified dollar amount, and permit the imposition of the lesser or greater of the two calculations. The language provided in the disclosure may reflect the requirements and alternatives allowed under State law.
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(6) Servicing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Creditor's intent.</I> Section 1026.37(m)(6) requires the creditor to disclose whether it intends to service the loan directly or transfer servicing to another servicer after consummation. A creditor complies with § 1026.37(m)(6) if the disclosure reflects the creditor's intent at the time the Loan Estimate is issued.
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(7) Liability after foreclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When statement is not permitted to be disclosed.</I> The disclosure described by § 1026.37(m)(7) is required under the condition specified by § 1026.37(m)(7), specifically, if the purpose of the credit transaction is a refinance under § 1026.37(a)(9)(ii). Under any other conditions, this statement is not permitted to appear in the Loan Estimate.
</P>
<P><I>37(m)(8) Construction loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous statement regarding redisclosure for construction loans.</I> For construction loans in transactions involving new construction, where the creditor reasonably expects the settlement date to be 60 days or more after the provision of the disclosures required under § 1026.19(e)(1)(i), providing the statement, “You may receive a revised Loan Estimate at any time prior to 60 days before consummation” under the master heading “Additional Information About This Loan” and the heading “Other Considerations” pursuant to § 1026.37(m)(8) satisfies the requirements set forth in § 1026.19(e)(3)(iv)(F) that the statement be made clearly and conspicuously on the disclosure.
</P>
<P><I>37(n) Signature statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Signature line optional.</I> Whether a signature line is provided under § 1026.37(n) is determined solely by the creditor. If a signature line is provided, however, the disclosure must include the statement required by § 1026.37(n)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple consumers.</I> If there is more than one consumer who will be obligated in the transaction, the first consumer signs as the applicant and each additional consumer signs as a co-applicant. If there is not enough space under the heading “Confirm Receipt” to provide signature lines for every consumer in the transaction, the creditor may add additional signature pages, as needed, at the end of the form for the remaining consumers' signatures. However, the creditor is required to disclose the heading and statement required by § 1026.37(n)(1) on such additional pages.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Consumer's name.</I> The creditor may insert the consumer's name under the signature line, rather than using the designation “Applicant” or “Co-Applicant” as illustrated in form H-24 of appendix H to this part, but is not required to do so pursuant to § 1026.37(n)(1).
</P>
<P><I>37(o) Form of disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(1) General requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous; segregation.</I> The clear and conspicuous standard requires that the disclosures required by § 1026.37 be legible and in a readily understandable form. Section 1026.37(o)(1)(i) requires that the disclosures be grouped together and segregated from everything else. For example, creditors may not add additional pages in between the pages of the Loan Estimate, or attach to the Loan Estimate additional pages that are not provided for under § 1026.37 after the last page of the Loan Estimate. As required by § 1026.37(o)(3)(i), the disclosures for any transaction that is a federally related mortgage loan under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2, must be made using the standard form H-24 of appendix H to this part. Accordingly, use of that form constitutes compliance with the clear and conspicuous and segregation requirements of § 1026.37(o). In addition, § 1026.37(o)(1)(ii) requires creditors to disclose on the Loan Estimate only the information required by § 1026.37(a) through (n), except as otherwise provided by § 1026.37(o), and in the same order, and positioned relative to the master headings, headings, subheadings, labels, and similar designations in the same manner, as shown in form H-24, set forth in appendix H to this part. For example, creditors may not use form H-24, but include in the Loan Terms table under the subheading “Can this amount increase after closing?” information that is not required by § 1026.37(b)(6).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Balloon payment financing with leasing characteristics.</I> In certain credit sale or loan transactions, a consumer may reduce the dollar amount of the payments to be made during the transaction by agreeing to make, at the end of the loan term, a large final payment based on the expected residual value of the property. The consumer may have a number of options with respect to the final payment, including, among other things, retaining the property and making the final payment, refinancing the final payment, or transferring the property to the creditor in lieu of the final payment. Such transactions may have some of the characteristics of lease transactions subject to Regulation M (12 CFR part 1013), but are considered credit transactions where the consumer assumes the indicia of ownership, including the risks, burdens, and benefits of ownership, upon consummation. These transactions are governed by the disclosure requirements of this part instead of Regulation M. Under § 1026.37(o)(1)(ii), creditors may not include any additional information with the disclosures required by § 1026.37, except as provided in § 1026.37(o)(5). Thus, the disclosures must show the large final payment as a balloon payment in the projected payments table required by § 1026.37(c) and should not, for example, reflect the other options available to the consumer at maturity.
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(2) Headings and labels.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated amounts.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(2) incorporates the “estimated” designations reflected on form H-24 of appendix H to this part into the disclosure requirements of § 1026.37, even if the relevant provision of § 1026.37 does not expressly require or permit disclosure of the word “estimate.” Where form H-24 uses the abbreviation “est.” in place of the word “estimated,” § 1026.37(o)(2) also incorporates that designation into its requirement. For example, § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv) requires disclosure of the total periodic payment labeled “Total Monthly Payment,” but the label on form H-24 contains the designation “Estimated” and thus, the label required by § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv) must contain the designation “Estimated.” Although many of the disclosures required by § 1026.38 cross-reference their counterparts in § 1026.37, § 1026.38(t) incorporates the “estimated” designations reflected on form H-25, not form H-24.
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(3) Form.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-federally related mortgage loans.</I> For a non-federally related mortgage loan, the creditor is not required to use form H-24 of appendix H to this part, although its use as a model form for such transactions, if properly completed with accurate content, constitutes compliance with the clear and conspicuous and segregation requirements of § 1026.37(o)(1)(i). Even when the creditor elects not to use the model form, § 1026.37(o)(1) requires that the disclosures be grouped together and segregated from everything else; contain only the information required by § 1026.37(a) through (n); and be provided in the same order as they occur in form H-24, using the same relative positions of the headings, labels, and similar designations as shown in the form. In addition, § 1026.37(o)(2) requires that the creditor include the designation of “estimated” for all headings, subheading, labels, and similar designations required by § 1026.37 for which form H-24 contains the “estimated” designation in such heading, subheading, label, or similar designation. The disclosures required by § 1026.37 comply with the requirement to be in a format substantially similar to form H-24 when provided on letter size (8.5″ x 11″) paper.
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(4) Rounding.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rounding.</I> Consistent with § 1026.2(b)(4), except as otherwise provided in § 1026.37(o)(4), any amount required to be disclosed by § 1026.37 is not permitted to be rounded and is disclosed using decimal places where applicable, unless otherwise provided.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculations.</I> If a dollar amount that is required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i) on the Loan Estimate is a total of one or more dollar amounts that are not required or permitted to be rounded, the total amount must be rounded consistent with § 1026.37(o)(4)(i), but such component amounts used in the calculation must use such unrounded numbers. In addition, if any such unrounded component amount is required to be disclosed under § 1026.37, consistent with § 1026.2(b)(4), it should be disclosed as an unrounded number. If an amount that is required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i) on the Loan Estimate is a total of one or more components that are also required to be rounded by § 1026.37(o)(4)(i), the total amount must be calculated using such rounded amounts. For example, the subtotals required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(f)(1), (2), and (3) are calculated using the rounded amounts disclosed under those subsections. <I>See also</I> comment 37(o)(4)(i)(C)-1. However, the amounts required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(l) reference actual amounts for their components, rather than other amounts disclosed under § 1026.37 and rounded pursuant to § 1026.37(o)(4)(i), and thus, they are calculated using unrounded numbers.
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(4)(i) Nearest dollar.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(o)(4)(i)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rounding of dollar amounts.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(A) requires that certain dollar amounts be rounded to the nearest whole dollar. For example, under § 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(A), periodic mortgage insurance payments are rounded and disclosed to the nearest dollar, such that a periodic mortgage insurance payment of $164.50 is disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii) as $165, but a periodic mortgage insurance payment of $164.49 is disclosed as $164. The per-diem amount disclosed under § 1026.37(g)(2)(iii) and the monthly amounts for the initial escrow payment at closing disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(3)(i) through (iii) and (v) do not include partial cents. Dollar amounts are rounded or truncated to the nearest whole cent. For example, under § 1026.37(g)(2)(iii), the creditor discloses per-diem interest of $68.1254 as $68.13 or $68.12. See form H-24(B) in appendix H to this part for an illustration of per-diem amounts for homeowner's insurance disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(g)(3)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(o)(4)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rounding of loan amount.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(B) requires the loan amount to be disclosed truncated at the decimal place if the loan amount is a whole number. For example, if § 1026.37(b)(1) requires disclosure of a loan amount of $481,516.23, the creditor discloses the amount as $481,516.23. However, if the loan amount required to be disclosed were $481,516.00, the creditor would disclose $481,516.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 37(o)(4)(i)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rounding of the total monthly payment.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(4)(i)(C) requires the total monthly payment amount disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv) to be rounded if any of its components are rounded. For example, if the total monthly payment disclosed under § 1026.37(c)(2)(iv) is composed of a $2,000.49 periodic principal and interest payment required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(c)(2)(i) and a $164.49 periodic mortgage insurance payment required to be disclosed by § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii), the creditor would calculate the total monthly payment by adding the exact periodic principal and interest payment of $2,000.49 and the rounded periodic mortgage insurance payment of $164, round the total, and disclose $2,164.
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(4)(ii) Percentages.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Decimal places.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(4)(ii) requires the percentage amounts disclosed rounding exact amounts to three decimal places, but the creditor does not disclose trailing zeros to the right of the decimal point. For example, a 2.4999 percent annual percentage rate is disclosed as “2.5%” under § 1026.37(o)(4)(ii). Similarly, a 7.005 percent annual percentage rate is disclosed as “7.005%,” and a 7.000 percent annual percentage rate is disclosed as “7%.”
</P>
<P><I>37(o)(5) Exceptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> The changes required or permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5) are permitted for federally related mortgage loans for which the use of form H-24 is required under § 1026.37(o)(3). For non-federally related mortgage loans, the changes required or permitted by § 1026.37(o)(5) do not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure and therefore, are permissible. Any changes to the disclosure not specified in § 1026.37(o)(5) or not permitted by other provisions of § 1026.37 are not permissible for federally related mortgage loans. Creditors in non-federally related mortgage loans making any changes that affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure will lose their protection from civil liability under TILA section 130.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manual completion.</I> Section 1026.37(o) does not require the creditor to use a computer, typewriter, or other word processor to complete the disclosure form. The information and amounts required to be disclosed by § 1026.37 on form H-24 of appendix H to this part may be filled in by hand printing or using any other method, provided the information is clear and legible and complies with the formatting required by form H-24, including replicating bold font where required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Contact information.</I> If a transaction involves more than one creditor or mortgage broker, the space provided on form H-24 of appendix H to this part for the contact information required by § 1026.37(m) may be altered to add additional labels to accommodate the additional information of such parties, provided that the information required by § 1026.37(l), (m), and (n) are disclosed on the same page as illustrated by form H-24. If the space provided on form H-24 of appendix H to this part does not allow for the disclosure of such contact and other information on the same page, an additional page may be added to provide the required contact information with an appropriate reference to the additional page.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Unit-period.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(5)(i) provides that wherever form H-24 or § 1026.37 uses “monthly” to describe the frequency of any payments or uses “month” to describe the applicable unit-period, the creditor is required to substitute the appropriate term to reflect the fact that the transaction's terms provide for other than monthly periodic payments, such as bi-weekly or quarterly payments. For purposes of § 1026.37, the term “unit-period” has the same meaning as in appendix J to Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional page.</I> Information required or permitted to be disclosed by § 1026.37 on a separate page should be formatted similarly to form H-24 of appendix H to this part, so as not to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure. In addition, information provided on additional pages should be consolidated on as few pages as necessary to not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Translation.</I> Section 1026.37(o)(5)(ii) permits the translation of form H-24 into languages other than English, consistent with § 1026.27. Pursuant to § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii) creditors may modify form H-24 to the extent that translation prevents the headings, labels, designations, and required disclosure items under § 1026.37 from fitting in the space provided on form H-24. For example, if the translation of a required label does not fit within the line provided for such label in form H-24, the label may be disclosed over two lines. See form H-28 of appendix H to this part for Spanish translations of form H-24.


</P>
<P><I>37(p) PACE Transactions.</I>
</P>
<HD3>37(p)(5) Late Payment
</HD3>
<P>1. For purposes of § 1026.37(p)(5), a charge is specific to the PACE transaction if the property tax collector does not impose the same charges for general property tax delinquencies.
</P>
<HD3>37(p)(7) Exceptions
</HD3>
<HD3>37(p)(7)(ii) PACE Nomenclature
</HD3>
<P>1. Wherever § 1026.37 requires disclosure of the word “PACE” or form H-24(H) of appendix H uses the term “PACE,” § 1026.37(p)(7)(ii) permits a creditor to substitute the name of a specific PACE financing program that will be recognizable to the consumer in lieu of the term “PACE.” The name of a specific PACE financing program will not be recognizable to the consumer unless it is used consistently in financing documents for the PACE transaction and any marketing materials provided to the consumer. For example, if the name XYZ Financing is used in marketing materials and financing documents for the PACE transaction provided to the consumer, such that XYZ Financing will be recognizable to the consumer, the creditor may substitute the name XYZ Financing for PACE on the Loan Estimate.






</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.38—Content of Disclosures for Certain Mortgage Transactions (Closing Disclosure)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures not applicable.</I> Where a disclosure is not applicable to a particular transaction, form H-25 of appendix H to this part may not be modified to state “not applicable” or “N/A.” The portion of the form pertaining to the inapplicable disclosure may be left blank unless otherwise provided by § 1026.38. For example, the disclosure required by § 1026.38(r) of the consumer's or seller's real estate broker may be left blank for a transaction that does not involve real estate brokers, such as a refinance or home equity loan. As provided in § 1026.38(m) and (n), however, the adjustable payment and adjustable interest rate tables required by those paragraphs may be included only if those disclosures are applicable to the transaction and otherwise must be excluded.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> See § 1026.38(t) and its commentary for guidance on the proper format to be used in making the disclosures, as well as required and permissible modifications.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Good faith requirement.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.38 are required to reflect the actual terms of the legal obligation between the parties, and the actual costs associated with the settlement of the transaction. Creditors and settlement agents may estimate disclosures as provided pursuant to § 1026.19(f)(1)(i) when the actual term or cost is unknown at the time the disclosures are made. <I>See</I> §§ 1026.17(c)(2) and 1026.19(f)(1)(i) and comments 17(c)(2)(i)-1 and -2, and 19(f)(1)(i)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reductions in principal balance.</I> A principal reduction that occurs immediately or very soon after closing must be disclosed in the summaries of transactions table on the standard Closing Disclosure pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or in the payoffs and payments table on the alternative Closing Disclosure pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B). The disclosure of a principal reduction under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or (t)(5)(vii)(B) includes the following elements: (1) The amount of the principal reduction; (2) the phrase “principal reduction” or a similar phrase; (3) for a principal reduction disclosure under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) only, the name of the payee; (4) if applicable to the transaction, the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or “P.O.C.” and the name of the party making the payment; and (5) if the principal reduction is used to satisfy the requirements of § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), a statement that the principal reduction is being provided to offset charges that exceed the legal limits, using any language that meets the clear and conspicuous standard under § 1026.38(t)(1)(i). If a creditor is required to disclose the name of the party making the payment or that the principal reduction is being provided to offset charges that exceed the legal limits, and there is insufficient space under the § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or (t)(5)(vii)(B) disclosure for these elements of the principal reduction disclosure, the creditor may omit these elements from the § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or (t)(5)(vii)(B) disclosure. If the creditor omits these elements from the § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or (t)(5)(vii)(B) disclosure, the creditor must provide a complete principal reduction disclosure under an appropriate heading on an additional page, in accordance with § 1026.38(j) and (t)(5)(ix), as applicable, with a reference to the abbreviated principal reduction disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or (t)(5)(vii)(B).
</P>
<P>i. <I>Principal reduction not paid with closing funds.</I> A principal reduction is disclosed in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) and marked with the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or the abbreviation “P.O.C.” pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(4)(i), or in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) marked with the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or the abbreviation “P.O.C.,” if it is not paid from closing funds. For a principal reduction disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) that is not paid from closing funds, the amount of the principal reduction is not included in computing the summaries of transactions totals under § 1026.38(j) or the cash to close disclosures under § 1026.38(i). For a principal reduction disclosed under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) that is not paid from closing funds, the amount of the principal reduction is not included in computing the total payoffs and payments amount disclosed under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) or the cash to close amount disclosed under § 1026.38(e)(5)(ii). For example, a creditor providing a $500 principal reduction to satisfy the refund requirements of § 1026.19(f)(2)(v) discloses the principal reduction under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) by providing in Section K of the summaries of transactions table a statement such as “$500.00 Principal Reduction for exceeding legal limits P.O.C. Lender,” and not including the amount of the principal reduction in the summaries of transactions totals under § 1026.38(j) or the calculating cash to close disclosures under § 1026.38(i). Alternatively, if there is insufficient space under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) for a creditor to disclose the name of the party making the payment or a statement that the principal reduction is being provided to offset charges that exceed the legal limits, a creditor may disclose a statement such as “$500.00 Principal Reduction P.O.C.” under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) and a statement on an additional page such as “$500.00 Principal Reduction for exceeding legal limits P.O.C. Lender. See Section K on page 3.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Principal reduction paid with closing funds.</I> A principal reduction is disclosed in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) or in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) without the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or the abbreviation “P.O.C.” if it is paid from closing funds. The amount of a principal reduction that is paid with closing funds is included in the applicable calculations required under § 1026.38. For example, in a refinance transaction using the alternative tables on the Closing Disclosure, a creditor discloses a $1,000 principal reduction to reduce the cash provided to the consumer by providing in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) a statement such as “Principal Reduction to Consumer” under the column heading “TO” and “$1,000.00” under the column heading “AMOUNT,” and by including such amount in the total payoffs and payments amount under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) and in the cash to close amount under § 1026.38(e)(5)(ii). In this example, the creditor must disclose the following elements under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B): The amount of the principal reduction, the phrase “principal reduction” or a similar phrase, and the name of the payee. The creditor should not include in the disclosure the phrase “Paid Outside of Closing” or “P.O.C.” and the name of the party making the payment, or a statement that the principal reduction is being provided to offset charges that exceed the legal limits, because those principal reduction disclosure elements are not applicable to the transaction in this particular example. The creditor may not use an addendum for the principal reduction disclosure in this example.
</P>
<P><I>38(a) General information.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3) Closing information.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(i) Date issued.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicable date.</I> For general guidance on identifying the date issued for the Closing Disclosure, see the commentary to § 1026.37(a)(4).
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(iii) Disbursement date.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing disbursement date.</I> The disbursement date on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure is the date some or all of the subordinate financing loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b) is expected to be paid to the consumer or a third party other than a settlement agent.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(iv) Settlement agent.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Entity name.</I> Section 1026.38(a)(3)(iv) requires the name of the entity that employs the settlement agent. The name of the individual conducting the closing is not required.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(v) File number.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Alpha-numeric characters.</I> The file number required by § 1026.38(a)(3)(v) may contain any alpha-numeric characters and need not be limited to numbers.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(vi) Property.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Alternative property.</I> For guidance on disclosing the location of a property for which an address is unavailable, see the commentary to § 1026.37(a)(6). Where personal property also secures the credit transaction, a description of that property may be disclosed, at the creditor's option, pursuant to § 1026.38(a)(3)(vi). If the form does not provide enough space to disclose a description of personal property under § 1026.38(a)(3)(vi), at the creditor's option an additional page may be used and appended to the end of the form provided that the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.38(t)(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple properties.</I> Where more than one property secures the credit transaction, § 1026.38(a)(3)(vi) requires disclosure of all property addresses. If the addresses of all properties securing the transaction do not fit in the space allocated on the Closing Disclosure, an additional page with the addresses of all such properties may be appended to the end of the form.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(3)(vii) Sale price.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>No seller.</I> In transactions where there is no seller, such as in a refinancing, § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii)(B) requires the creditor to disclose the appraised value of the property. To comply with this requirement, the creditor discloses the value determined by the appraisal or valuation used to determine approval of the credit transaction. If the creditor has not obtained an appraisal, the creditor may disclose the estimated value of the property. Where an estimate is disclosed, rather than an appraisal, the label for the disclosure is changed to “Estimated Prop. Value.” The creditor may use the estimate provided by the consumer at application but, if it has performed its own estimate of the property value for purposes of approving the credit transaction by the time the disclosure is provided to the consumer, the creditor must disclose the estimate it used for purposes of approving the credit transaction. For transactions involving construction where there is no seller, the creditor must disclose the value of the property that is used to determine the approval of the credit transaction, including improvements to be made on the property if those improvements are used in determining the approval of the credit transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Personal property.</I> For guidance on how to disclose the sale price of a transaction that includes personal property under § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii), see comment 37(a)(7)-2.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(4) Transaction information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple borrowers and sellers.</I> The name and address of each consumer and seller in the transaction must be provided under the heading “Transaction Information.” If the form does not provide enough space to include the required information for each consumer and seller, an additional page may be used and appended to the end of the form provided that the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.38(t)(3). For additional guidance on disclosing multiple borrowers, see comment 37(a)(5)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No seller transactions or simultaneous subordinate financing transactions.</I> In transactions where there is no seller, such as in a refinancing or home equity loan, or for simultaneous subordinate financing purchase transactions if the first-lien Closing Disclosure will record the entirety of the seller's transaction, the disclosure under § 1026.38(a)(4)(ii) may be left blank. <I>See also</I> § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(A).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Multiple creditors.</I> See comment 37(a)(3)-1 regarding identification requirements for multiple creditors.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consumers.</I> Section 1026.38(a)(4)(i) requires disclosure of the consumer's name and mailing address, labeled “Borrower.” For purposes of § 1026.38(a)(4)(i), the term “consumer” is limited to persons to whom the credit is offered or extended. For guidance on how to disclose multiple consumers, see comment 38(a)(4)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(5) Loan information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> See commentary to § 1026.37(a)(8) through (12) for guidance on the general requirements and definitions applicable to § 1026.38(a)(5)(i) through (v).
</P>
<P><I>38(a)(5)(v) Loan identification number.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Same identification number as Loan Estimate.</I> The loan identification number disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(a)(5)(v) must be one that enables the creditor, consumer, and other parties to identify the transaction as the same transaction disclosed on the Loan Estimate. The loan identification number may contain any alpha-numeric characters. If a creditor uses the same loan identification number on several revised Loan Estimates to the consumer, but adds after such number a hyphen and a number to denote the number of revised Loan Estimates in sequence, the creditor must disclose the loan identification number before such hyphen on the Closing Disclosure to identify the transaction as the same for which the initial and revised Loan Estimates were provided.
</P>
<P><I>38(b) Loan terms.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.37(b) for guidance on the content of the disclosures required by § 1026.38(b).
</P>
<P><I>38(c) Projected payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> For guidance on the disclosure of the projected payments table, see § 1026.37(c) and its commentary.
</P>
<P><I>38(c)(1) Projected payments or range of payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Escrow account analysis.</I> The amount of estimated escrow payments disclosed on the Closing Disclosure is accurate if it differs from the estimated escrow payment disclosed on the Loan Estimate because of the escrow account analysis described in Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17.
</P>
<P><I>38(d) Costs at closing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(d)(2) Alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Required use.</I> The disclosure of the alternative cash to close table in § 1026.38(d)(2) may only be provided by a creditor in a transaction without a seller or for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction. In a purchase transaction, the alternative disclosure may be used for the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure only if the first-lien Closing Disclosure records the entirety of the seller's transaction. The use of this alternative table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing transactions is required if the Loan Estimate provided to the consumer disclosed the optional alternative table under § 1026.37(d)(2) and must be used in conjunction with the use of the alternative calculating cash to close disclosure under § 1026.38(e). See comments 38(j)-3 and 38(k)(2)(vii)-1 for disclosure requirements applicable to the first-lien transaction when the alternative disclosures are used for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction and a seller contributes to the costs of the subordinate financing. See also comments 38(t)(5)(vii)(B)-1 and -2 for the requirement to disclose the seller's contributions, if any, toward the subordinate financing in the payoffs and payments table on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of indication.</I> The indication of whether the cash is either due from or payable to the consumer is made by the use of check boxes as shown in form H-25(J) of appendix H to this part. Forms H-25(E) and H-25(G) of appendix H to this part contain examples of the use of these checkboxes.
</P>
<P><I>38(e) Alternative calculating cash to close table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Required use.</I> The disclosure of the table in § 1026.38(e) may only be provided by a creditor in a transaction without a seller or for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction. In a purchase transaction, the alternative disclosure may be used for the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure only if the first-lien Closing Disclosure records the entirety of the seller's transaction. The use of this alternative calculating cash to close table for transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing is required for transactions in which the Loan Estimate provided to the consumer disclosed the optional alternative table under § 1026.37(h)(2), and must be used in conjunction with the alternative disclosure under § 1026.38(d)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>More prominent disclosures.</I> Section 1026.38(e)(1)(iii), (2)(iii), (3)(iii), and (4)(iii) requires that statements are given as to whether the “Final” amount disclosed under each subparagraph (ii) of § 1026.38(e)(1) through (e)(4) is different than or equal to, and in some cases whether the amount is greater than or less than, the corresponding “Loan Estimate” amount disclosed under each subparagraph (i) of § 1026.38(e)(1) through (e)(4). These statements are more prominent than the other disclosures under § 1026.38(e). The statement of whether the estimated and final amounts are different, stated as a “Yes” or “No” in capital letters and in boldface, under the subheading “Did this change?,” as shown on forms H-25(E) and H-25(G) of appendix H to this part, complies with the requirement to state whether the amounts are different more prominently. Such statement of “No” satisfies the requirement to state that the estimated and final amounts are equal, and these sections do not provide for any narrative text to be included with such statement. The prominence requirement also requires that, in the event an increase or decrease in costs has occurred, certain words within the narrative text to be included under the subheading “Did this change?” for a “Yes” answer are displayed more prominently than other disclosures. For example, under § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A), this more prominent statement could take the form of the phrases “Total Loan Costs (D)” and “Total Other Costs (I)” being shown in boldface, as shown on forms H-25(E) and H-25(G) of appendix H to this part. See comment 38(e)-4 for further guidance regarding the prominence of such statements.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements of differences.</I> The dollar amounts disclosed under § 1026.38 generally are shown to two decimal places unless otherwise required. <I>See</I> comment 38(t)(4)-1. Any amount in the “Final” column of the alternative calculating cash to close table under § 1026.38(e) is shown to two decimal places unless otherwise required. Pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(4)(i)(C), however, any amount in the “Loan Estimate” column of the alternative calculating cash to close table under § 1026.38(e) is rounded to the nearest dollar amount to match the corresponding estimated amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate's calculating cash to close table under § 1026.37(h). For purposes of § 1026.38(e)(1)(iii), (2)(iii), and (4)(iii), each statement of a change between the amounts disclosed on the Loan Estimate and the Closing Disclosure is based on the actual, non-rounded estimate that would have been disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h) if it had been shown to two decimal places rather than a whole dollar amount. For example, if the amounts in the “Loan Estimate” column of the total closing costs row disclosed under § 1026.38(e)(2)(i) is $12,500, but the non-rounded estimate of total closing costs is $12,500.35, and the “Final” column of the total closing costs row disclosed under § 1026.38(e)(2)(ii) is $12,500.35, then, even though the table would appear to show a $0.35 increase in total closing costs, no statement of such increase is given under § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statements that the consumer should see details.</I> The provisions of § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A) and (e)(4)(iii)(A) each require a statement that the consumer should see certain details of the closing costs disclosed under § 1026.38(f), (g), or (t). Forms H-25(E) and H-25(G) of appendix H to this part contain examples of these statements. For example, § 1026.38(e)(4)(iii)(A) requires a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B), and, as shown on forms H-25(E) and H-25(G) of appendix H to this part, the statement, “See Payoffs and Payments,” in which the words “Payoffs and Payments” are in boldface, complies with this provision.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Statement of increase or decrease.</I> Section 1026.38(e)(1)(iii)(A) requires a statement of whether the loan amount increased or decreased. A creditor complies with this requirement by disclosing, “This amount increased” or “This amount decreased” with the words “increase” and “decrease” in boldface font.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Estimated amounts.</I> The amounts disclosed on the alternative calculating cash to close table under the subheading “Loan Estimate” under § 1026.38(e)(1)(i), (2)(i), (4)(i), and (5)(i) are the amounts disclosed on the most recent Loan Estimate provided to the consumer under § 1026.19(e).
</P>
<P><I>38(e)(1) Loan amount.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(e)(1)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statements of increases or decreases.</I> Section 1026.38(e)(1)(iii)(A) requires a statement of whether the amount increased or decreased from the estimated amount. The statement, “This amount increased,” in which the word “increased” is in boldface font and is replaced with the word “decreased” as applicable, complies with this requirement.
</P>
<P><I>38(e)(2) Total closing costs.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(e)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reference to disclosure of total closing costs.</I> Under § 1026.38(e)(2)(i), the amount disclosed is labeled “Total Closing Costs,” and such label is accompanied by a reference to the disclosure of “Total Closing Costs” under § 1026.38(h)(1). This reference may take the form, for example, of a cross-reference in parenthesis to the row on the table disclosed under § 1026.38(h) that includes the itemized amount for “Total Closing Costs,” as shown on form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(e)(2)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statements and references regarding the total loan costs and total other costs.</I> Under § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A), the statements under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5) are made only if and to the extent the difference in the “Total Closing Costs” is attributable to differences in itemized charges that are included in either or both of such subtotals.
</P>
<P>i. For example, if an increase in the “Total Closing Costs” is attributable only to an increase in the appraisal fee (which is an itemized charge on the Closing Disclosure under the subheading “Services Borrower Did Not Shop For,” itself under the heading “Loan Costs”), then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs subtotal disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4). If the increase in “Total Closing Costs” is attributable only to an increase in recording fees (which is an itemized charge on the Closing Disclosure under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees,” itself under the heading “Other Costs”), then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total other costs subtotal disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(g)(5). If, however, the increase is attributable in part to an increase in the appraisal fee and in part to an increase in the recording fee, then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. For guidance regarding the requirement that this statement be accompanied by a reference to the disclosures of the total loan costs and total other costs under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5), see comment 38(e)(2)(i)-1. For an example of such reference, see form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of excess amounts above limitations on increases in closing costs.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Because certain closing costs, individually, are generally subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) (<I>e.g.,</I> fees paid to the creditor, transfer taxes, fees paid to an affiliate of the creditor), while other closing costs are collectively subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) (<I>e.g.,</I> recording fees, fees paid to an unaffiliated third party identified by the creditor if the creditor permitted the consumer to shop for the service provider), § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A) requires the creditor or closing agent to calculate subtotals for each type of excess amount, and then add such subtotals together to yield the dollar amount to be disclosed in the table. See commentary to § 1026.19(e)(3) for additional guidance on calculating excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. Under § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A), calculation of the excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs takes into account that the itemized, estimated closing costs disclosed on the Loan Estimate will not result in charges to the consumer if the service is not actually provided at or before consummation. For example, if the Loan Estimate included under “Services You Cannot Shop For” a $30 charge for a “title courier fee,” but the title company elects to hand-deliver the title documents package to the creditor at no charge, the $30 fee is not factored into the calculation of the “Total Closing Costs” that are subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs. However, if the title courier fee was assessed, but at only $15, the charge is factored into the calculation because the third party service was actually provided, albeit at a lower amount than estimated. For an example, see form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>iii. Under § 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A), calculation of the excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs takes into account that certain itemized charges listed on the Loan Estimate under the subheading “Services You Can Shop For” may be subject to different limitations depending on the circumstances. Although § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) provides exceptions to the general rule, such a charge would generally be subject to the limitations under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) if the consumer decided to use a provider affiliated with the creditor. However, the same charge would instead be subject to the limitations under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) if the consumer selected a third party service provider unaffiliated with but identified by the creditor, and the creditor permitted the consumer to shop for the service provider. See commentary to § 1026.19(e)(3) for additional guidance on calculating excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements regarding excess amount and any credit to the consumer.</I> Section 1026.38(e)(2)(iii)(A) requires a statement that an increase in closing costs exceeds legal limits by the dollar amount of the excess and a statement directing the consumer to the disclosure of lender credits under § 1026.38(h)(3) or a principal reduction under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B), if provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v). See form H-25(F) in appendix H to this part for examples of such statements under § 1026.38(h)(3). <I>See also</I> comments 38-4 and 38(h)(3)-2.
</P>
<P><I>38(e)(3) Closing costs paid before closing.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(e)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimate of closing costs paid before closing.</I> Under § 1026.38(e)(3)(i), the “Loan Estimate” amount for “Closing Costs Subtotal Paid Before Closing” is always shown as “$0,” because an estimate of such amount is not disclosed on the Loan Estimate.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(e)(3)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Equal amount.</I> Under § 1026.38(e)(3)(iii)(B), the creditor gives a statement that the “Final” amount disclosed under § 1026.38(e)(3)(ii) is equal to the “Loan Estimate” amount disclosed under § 1026.38(e)(3)(i), only if the “Final” amount is $0, because the “Loan Estimate” amount is always disclosed as $0 under § 1026.38(e)(3)(i). <I>See</I> comment 38(e)(3)(i)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(f) Closing cost details; loan costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Lender-paid charges and specific lender credits.</I> Charges that are designated as paid by others under § 1026.38(f) and (g), below, may include the letter “L” in parentheses, <I>i.e.</I> “(L),” to the left of the amount in the column to designate those charges paid by the creditor pursuant to the legal obligation between the creditor and consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Construction loan inspection and handling fees.</I> Construction loan inspection and handling fees are loan costs associated with the transaction for purposes of § 1026.38(f). For information on how to disclose inspection and handling fees for the staged disbursement of construction loan proceeds if the amount or number of such fees or when they will be collected is not known at or before consummation, see comments 37(f)-3, 37(f)(6)-3, and app. D-7.vii. See § 1026.17(e) and its commentary concerning the effect of subsequent events that cause inaccuracies in disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>38(f)(1) Origination charges.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance in other comments.</I> For a description of origination charges and discount points, see comments 37(f)(1)-1, -2, and -3.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan originator compensation.</I> All compensation paid to a loan originator, as defined by § 1026.36(a)(1), that is a third-party associated with the transaction, regardless of the party that pays the compensation, must be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(f)(1). Compensation from the consumer to a third-party loan originator is designated as borrower-paid at or before closing, as applicable, on the Closing Disclosure. Compensation from the creditor to a third-party loan originator is designated as paid by others on the Closing Disclosure. Compensation to a third-party loan originator from both the consumer and the creditor in the transaction is prohibited under § 1026.36(d)(2).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculating compensation to a loan originator from the creditor.</I> The amount disclosed as paid from the creditor to a third-party loan originator under § 1026.38(f)(1) is the dollar value of salaries, commissions, and any financial or similar compensation provided to a third-party loan originator by the creditor that are considered to be points and fees under § 1026.32(b)(1)(ii). For additional guidance and examples on the calculation of compensation paid to the third-party loan originator from the creditor, see comments 32(b)(1)(ii)-1, --2, -3, and -4.
</P>
<P><I>38(f)(2) Services borrower did not shop for.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance in other comments.</I> For examples of services, costs, and their descriptions disclosed under § 1026.38(f)(2), see comments 37(f)(2)-1, -2, -3, and -4.
</P>
<P><I>38(f)(3) Services borrower did shop for.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Provider on written list.</I> Items that were disclosed pursuant to § 1026.37(f)(3) cannot be disclosed under § 1026.38(f)(3) when the consumer selected a provider contained on the written list provided under § 1026.19(e)(1)(vi)(C). Instead, such costs are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(f)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(f)(5) Subtotal of loan costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Charges subtotaled.</I> The only charges that are loan costs that are subtotaled pursuant to § 1026.38(f)(5) are those costs designated borrower-paid at or before closing. Charges which are loan costs designated seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, are not subtotaled pursuant to § 1026.38(f)(5). The subtotal of charges that are seller-paid at or before closing or paid by others is disclosed under § 1026.38(h)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(g) Closing costs details; other costs.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(g)(1) Taxes and other government fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> For additional guidance on taxes and other government fees, see comments 37(g)(1)-1, -2, -3, and -4.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfer taxes—itemization.</I> The creditor may itemize the transfer taxes paid on as many lines as necessary pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(1) in order to disclose all of the transfer taxes paid as part of the transaction. The taxes should be allocated in the applicable columns as borrower-paid at or before closing, seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, as provided by State or local law, the terms of the legal obligation, or the real estate purchase contract.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Recording fees.</I> i. <I>Fees for recording deeds and security instruments.</I> Section 1026.38(g)(1)(i)(A) requires, on the first line under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees” and before the columns described in § 1026.38(g), disclosure of the total fees expected to be paid to State and local governments for recording deeds and, separately, the total fees expected to be paid to State and local governments for recording security instruments. On a line labeled “Recording Fees,” form H-25 of appendix H to this part illustrates such disclosures with the additional labels “Deed” and “Mortgage,” respectively.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Total of all recording fees.</I> Section 1026.38(g)(1)(i)(B) requires, on the first line under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees” and in the applicable column described in § 1026.38(g), disclosure of the total amounts paid for recording fees, including but not limited to the amounts subject to § 1026.38(g)(1)(i)(A). The total amount disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(1)(i)(B) also includes recording fees expected to be paid to State and local governments for recording any other instrument or document to preserve marketable title or to perfect the creditor's security interest in the property. See comments 37(g)(1)-1, -2, and -3 for discussions of the difference between transfer taxes and recording fees.
</P>
<P><I>38(g)(2) Prepaids.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> For additional guidance on prepaids, see comments 37(g)(2)-1 and -2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative prepaid interest.</I> The prepaid interest amount is disclosed as a negative number if the calculation of prepaid interest results in a negative number.
</P>
<P>3. <I>No prepaid interest.</I> If interest is not collected for any period between closing and the date from which interest will be collected with the first monthly payment, then $0.00 is disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(2).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Interest rate for prepaid interest.</I> The dollar amounts disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(2) must be based on the interest rate disclosed under § 1026.38(b), as required by § 1026.37(b)(2).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Property taxes.</I> For a description of items that constitute property taxes, see comment 43(b)(8)-2.
</P>
<P><I>38(g)(3) Initial escrow payment at closing.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Initial escrow account itemization.</I> The creditor must state the amount that it will require the consumer to place into a reserve or escrow account at consummation to be applied to recurring charges for property taxes, homeowner's and similar insurance, mortgage insurance, homeowner's association dues, condominium dues, and other periodic charges. Each periodic charge to be included in the escrow or reserve account must be itemized under the “Initial Escrow Payment at Closing” subheading, with a relevant label, monthly payment amount, and number of months collected at closing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Aggregate accounting.</I> The method used to determine the aggregate adjustment for the purposes of establishing the escrow account is described in 12 CFR 1024.17(d)(2). Examples of this calculation methodology can be found in appendix E to 12 CFR part 1024. The aggregate adjustment, as illustrated by form H-25 of appendix H to this part, is disclosed as the last listed item in the amounts disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Escrowed tax payments for different timeframes.</I> Payments for property taxes that are paid at different time periods can be itemized separately when done in accordance with 12 CFR 1024.17. For example, a general property tax covering a fiscal year from January 1 to December 31 can be listed as a property tax under § 1026.38(g)(3) and a separate property tax to fund schools that cover a fiscal year from November 1 to October 31 can be added as a separate itemized amount under § 1026.38(g)(3).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Property taxes.</I> For a description of items that constitute property taxes, see comment 43(b)(8)-2.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Definition of escrow account.</I> For a description of the amounts included in the initial escrow account disclosure under § 1026.38(g)(3), see the definition of “escrow account” in 12 CFR 1024.17(b).
</P>
<P><I>38(g)(4) Other.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Costs disclosed.</I> The costs disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(4) include all real estate brokerage fees, homeowner's or condominium association charges paid at consummation, home warranties, inspection fees, and other fees that are part of the real estate closing but not required by the creditor or not disclosed elsewhere under § 1026.38.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Owner's title insurance premium.</I> In a jurisdiction where simultaneous issuance title insurance rates are permitted, any owner's title insurance premium disclosed under § 1026.38(g)(4) is calculated by using the full owner's title insurance premium, adding any simultaneous issuance premium for issuance of lender's coverage, and then deducting the full premium for lender's coverage disclosed under § 1026.38(f)(2) or (f)(3). Section 1026.38(g)(4)(i) requires that the disclosure of the cost of the premium for an owner's title insurance policy include “Title—” at the beginning of the label. In addition, § 1026.38(g)(4)(ii) requires that the disclosure of the cost of the premium for an owner's title insurance policy include the parenthetical “(optional)” at the end of the label when designated borrower-paid at or before closing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Guidance.</I> For additional guidance on the use of the term “(optional)” under § 1026.38(g)(4)(ii), see comment 37(g)(4)-3.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Real estate commissions.</I> The amount of real estate commissions pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(4) must be the total amount paid to any real estate brokerage as a commission, regardless of the identity of the party holding any earnest money deposit. Additional charges made by real estate brokerages or agents to the seller or consumer are itemized separately as additional items for services rendered, with a description of the service and an identification of the person ultimately receiving the payment.
</P>
<P><I>38(g)(6) Subtotal of costs.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Costs subtotaled.</I> The only costs that are subtotaled pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(6) are those costs that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing. Costs that are designated seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, are not subtotaled pursuant to § 1026.38(g)(6). The subtotal of charges that are designated seller-paid at or before closing or paid by others is disclosed under § 1026.38(h)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(h) Closing cost totals.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(h)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Charges paid by seller and by others subtotaled.</I> All loan costs and other costs that are designated seller-paid at or before closing, or paid by others, are also totaled under § 1026.38(h)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(h)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General lender credits.</I> When the consumer receives a generalized credit from the creditor for closing costs, the amount of the credit must be disclosed under § 1026.38(h)(3). However, if such credit is attributable to a specific loan cost or other cost listed in the Closing Cost Details tables, pursuant to § 1026.38(f) or (g), that amount should be reflected in the Paid by Others column in the Closing Cost Details tables under § 1026.38(f) or (g). For a description of lender credits from the creditor, see comment 17(c)(1)-19. For a discussion of general lender credits and lender credits for specific charges, see comment 19(e)(3)(i)-5.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credits for excess charges.</I> Credits from the creditor to offset an amount charged in excess of the limitations described in § 1026.19(e)(3) are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(h)(3), along with a statement that such amount was paid to offset an excess charge, with funds other than closing funds. If an excess charge to the consumer is discovered after consummation and a refund provided, the corrected disclosure must be provided to the consumer under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v). For an example, see form H-25(F) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(h)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consistent terminology and order of charges.</I> On the Closing Disclosure the creditor must label the corresponding services and costs disclosed under § 1026.38(f) and (g) using terminology that describes each item, as applicable, and must use terminology or the prescribed label, as applicable, that is consistent with that used on the Loan Estimate to identify each corresponding item. In addition, § 1026.38(h)(4) requires the creditor to list the items disclosed under each subcategory of charges in a consistent order. If costs move between subheadings under § 1026.38(f)(2) and (f)(3), listing the costs in alphabetical order in each subheading category is considered to be in compliance with § 1026.38(h)(4). See comment 37(f)(5)-1 for guidance regarding the requirement to use terminology that describes the items to be disclosed.
</P>
<P><I>38(i) Calculating cash to close.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>More prominent disclosures.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(1)(iii), (2)(iii), (3)(iii), (4)(iii), (5)(iii), (6)(iii), (7)(iii), and (8)(iii) requires that statements are given as to whether the “Final” amount disclosed under each subparagraph (ii) of § 1026.38(i)(1) through (i)(8) is different or equal to, and in some cases whether the amount is greater than or less than, the corresponding “Loan Estimate” amount disclosed under each subparagraph (i) of § 1026.38(i)(1) through (i)(8). These statements are more prominent than the other disclosures under § 1026.38(i). The statement of whether the estimated and final amounts are different, stated as a “Yes” or “No” in capital letters and in boldface font, under the subheading “Did this change?,” as shown on form H-25 of appendix H to this part, complies with the requirement to state whether the amounts are different more prominently. Such statement of “No” satisfies the requirement to state that the estimated and final amounts are equal, and these sections do not provide for any narrative text to be included with such statement. The prominence requirement also requires that, in the event an increase or decrease in costs has occurred, certain words within the narrative text to be included under the subheading “Did this change?” for a “Yes” answer are displayed more prominently than other disclosures. For example, under § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A), this more prominent statement could take the form of the phrases “Total Loan Costs” and “Total Other Costs” being shown in boldface, as shown on form H-25 of appendix H to this part. See comments 38(i)-3 and -4 for further guidance regarding the prominence of such statements.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Statements of differences.</I> The dollar amounts disclosed under § 1026.38 generally are shown to two decimal places unless otherwise required. <I>See</I> comment 38(t)(4)-1. Any amount in the “Final” column of the calculating cash to close table under § 1026.38(i) is shown to two decimal places unless otherwise required. Under § 1026.38(t)(4)(i)(C), however, any amount in the “Loan Estimate” column of the calculating cash to close table under § 1026.38(i) is rounded to the nearest dollar amount to match the corresponding estimated amount disclosed on the Loan Estimate's calculating cash to close table under § 1026.37(h). For purposes of § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii), (3)(iii), (4)(iii), (5)(iii), (6)(iii), (7)(iii), and (8)(iii), each statement of a change between the amounts disclosed on the Loan Estimate and the Closing Disclosure is based on the actual, non-rounded estimate that would have been disclosed on the Loan Estimate under § 1026.37(h) if it had been shown to two decimal places rather than a whole dollar amount. For example, if the amount in the “Loan Estimate” column of the total closing costs row disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(1)(i) is $12,500, but the non-rounded estimate of total closing costs is $12,500.35, and the amount in the “Final” column of the total closing costs row disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(1)(ii) is $12,500.35, then, even though the table would appear to show a $0.35 increase in total closing costs, no statement of such increase is given under § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements that the consumer should see details.</I> The provisions of § 1026.38(i)(4)(iii)(A), (5)(iii)(A), (7)(iii)(A), and (8)(iii)(A) each require a statement that the consumer should see certain details of the closing costs disclosed under § 1026.38(j). Form H-25 of appendix H to this part contains some examples of these statements. For example, § 1026.38(i)(5)(iii)(A) requires a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(ii). The following statement, which is similar to that shown on form H-25(B) of appendix H to this part for § 1026.38(i)(7)(iii)(A), “See Deposit in Section L,” in which the words “Section L” are in boldface font, complies with this provision. In addition, for example, the statement “See details in Sections K and L,” in which the words “Sections K and L” are in boldface font, complies with the requirement under § 1026.38(i)(8)(iii)(A). See form H-25(B) of appendix H to this part for an example of the statement required by § 1026.38(i)(8)(iii)(A). See also comment 38(i)(7)(iii)(A)-1 for additional examples that comply with the requirements under § 1026.38(i)(7)(iii)(A).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Statements of increases or decreases.</I> The provisions of § 1026.38(i)(4)(iii)(A), (i)(5)(iii)(A), and (i)(6)(iii)(A) each require a statement of whether the amount increased or decreased from the estimated amount. For the statement required by § 1026.38(i)(6)(iii)(A), the statement “This amount increased,” in which the word “increased” is in boldface and is replaced with the word “decreased” as applicable, complies with this requirement. For the statements required by § 1026.38(i)(4)(iii)(A) and (i)(5)(iii)(A), the statement, “You increased this payment,” in which the word “increased” is in boldface and is replaced with the word “decreased” as applicable, complies with these requirements.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Estimated amounts.</I> The amounts disclosed in the “Loan Estimate” column of the calculating cash to close table under § 1026.38(i)(1)(i), (3)(i), (4)(i), (5)(i), (6)(i), (7)(i), (8)(i), and (9)(i) are the amounts disclosed on the most recent Loan Estimate provided to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(1) Total closing costs.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(1)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statements and references regarding the total loan costs and total other costs.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A), the statements under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5) is made only if and to the extent the difference in the “Total Closing Costs” is attributable to differences in itemized charges that are included in either or both of such subtotals.
</P>
<P>i. For example, if an increase in the “Total Closing Costs” is attributable only to an increase in the appraisal fee (which is an itemized charge on the Closing Disclosure under the subheading “Services Borrower Did Not Shop For,” itself under the heading “Loan Costs”), then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs subtotal disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4). If the increase in “Total Closing Costs” is attributable only to an increase in recording fees (which is an itemized charge on the Closing Disclosure under the subheading “Taxes and Other Government Fees,” itself under the heading “Other Costs”), then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total other costs subtotal disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(g)(5). If, however, the increase is attributable in part to an increase in the appraisal fee and in part to an increase in the recording fee, then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see the total loan costs and total other costs subtotals disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. For guidance regarding the requirement that this statement be accompanied by a reference to the disclosures of the total loan costs and total other costs under § 1026.38(f)(4) and (g)(5), see comment 38(i)-1. For an example of such reference, see form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of excess amounts above limitations on increases in closing costs.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Because certain closing costs, individually, are generally subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) (<I>e.g.,</I> fees paid to the creditor, transfer taxes, fees paid to an affiliate of the creditor), while other closing costs are collectively subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) (<I>e.g.,</I> recording fees, fees paid to an unaffiliated third party identified by the creditor if the creditor permitted the consumer to shop for the service provider), § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A) requires the creditor or closing agent to calculate subtotals for each type of excess amount, and then add such subtotals together to yield the dollar amount to be disclosed in the table. See commentary to § 1026.19(e)(3) for additional guidance on calculating excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. Under § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A), calculation of the excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs takes into account that the itemized, estimated closing costs disclosed on the Loan Estimate will not result in charges to the consumer if the service is not actually provided at or before consummation. For example, if the Loan Estimate included under “Services You Cannot Shop For” a $30 charge for a “title courier fee,” but the title company elects to hand-deliver the title documents package to the creditor at no charge, the $30 fee is not factored into the calculation of the “Total Closing Costs” that are subject to the limitations on increases in closing costs. However, if the title courier fee was assessed, but at only $15, the charge is factored into the calculation because the third-party service was actually provided, albeit at a lower amount than estimated.
</P>
<P>iii. Under § 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A), calculation of the excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs takes into account that certain itemized charges listed on the Loan Estimate under the subheading “Services You Can Shop For” may be subject to different limitations depending on the circumstances. Although § 1026.19(e)(3)(iii) provides exceptions to the general rule, such a charge would generally be subject to the limitations under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) if the consumer decided to use a provider affiliated with the creditor. However, the same charge would instead be subject to the limitations under § 1026.19(e)(3)(ii) if the consumer selected a third-party service provider unaffiliated with but identified by the creditor, and the creditor permitted the consumer to shop for the service provider. See commentary to § 1026.19(e)(3) for additional guidance on calculating excess amounts above the limitations on increases in closing costs under § 1026.19(e)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Statements regarding excess amount and any credit to the consumer.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(1)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) requires statements that an increase in closing costs exceeds legal limits by the dollar amount of the excess and a statement directing the consumer to the disclosure of lender credits under § 1026.38(h)(3), or a principal reduction under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v), if either is provided under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v). See form H-25(F) of appendix H to this part for examples of such statements under § 1026.38(h)(3). <I>See also</I> comments 38-4 and 38(h)(3)-2.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(2) Closing costs paid before closing</I>.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(2)(i)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimate of closing costs paid before closing.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(2)(i), the “Loan Estimate” amount for “Closing Costs Paid Before Closing” is always shown as “$0,” because an estimate of such amount is not disclosed on the Loan Estimate.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(2)(iii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Equal amount.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(2)(iii)(B), the creditor or closing agent will give a statement that the “Final” amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(2)(ii) is equal to the “Loan Estimate” amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(2)(i), only if the “Final” amount is $0, because the “Loan Estimate” amount is always disclosed as $0 pursuant to § 1026.38(i)(2)(i). <I>See</I> comment 38(i)(2)(i)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(3) Closing costs financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of amount.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> The amount of closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3) is determined by subtracting the total amount of payments to third parties not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.38(f) and (g) from the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b). The total amount of payments to third parties includes the sale price of the property disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii). Other examples of payments to third parties not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.38(f) and (g) include the amount of construction costs for transactions that involve improvements to be made on the property, and payoffs of secured or unsecured debt. If the result of the calculation is zero or negative, the amount of $0 is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3). If the result of the calculation is positive, that amount is disclosed as a negative number under § 1026.38(i)(3), but only to the extent that the absolute value of the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3) does not exceed the total amount of closing costs disclosed under § 1026.38(h)(1).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> For simultaneous subordinate financing transactions, no sale price will be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), and therefore no sale price will be included in the closing costs financed calculation as a payment to third parties. The total amount of payments to third parties only includes payments occurring in the simultaneous subordinate financing transaction other than payments toward the sale price.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loan amount.</I> The loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b), a component of the closing costs financed calculation, is the total amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected by the face amount of the note.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(4) Down payment/funds from borrower.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(4)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Down payment and funds from borrower calculation.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the down payment and funds from borrower amount is calculated as the difference between the sale price of the property disclosed under § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii)(A) and the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv), except as required by § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>). The calculation is independent of any loan program or investor requirements. The “Final” amount disclosed for “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” reflects any change, following delivery of the Loan Estimate, in the amount of down payment and other funds required of the consumer. This change might result, for example, from an increase in the purchase price of the property.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Funds for borrower.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires that, in a purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i) that is a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction or that involves improvements to be made on the property, or when the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) exceeds the sale price disclosed under § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii)(A), the amount of funds from the consumer is determined in accordance with § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv). Pursuant to § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv), the “Final” amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” to be disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) is determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3)(ii)) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v). The amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” under the subheading “Final” is disclosed either as a positive number or $0, depending on the result of the calculation. When the result of the calculation is positive, that amount is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) as “Funds for Borrower.” When the result of the calculation is negative, that amount is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) as “Funds for Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower.” When the result is $0, $0 is disclosed as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” and “Funds for Borrower” under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) and (6)(ii), respectively. An increase in the amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” under the subheading “Final” relative to the corresponding amount under the subheading “Loan Estimate” might result, for example, from a decrease in the loan amount or an increase in the amount of existing debt being satisfied in the transaction. For additional discussion of the determination of the “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” amount, see comment 38(i)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(4)(ii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Funds for borrower.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(B) requires that, in all transactions not subject to § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A), the “Final” amount disclosed for “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” is the amount determined in accordance with § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv). Pursuant to § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv), the “Final” amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” to be disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(B) is determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3)(ii)) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v). The “Final” amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” is disclosed either as a positive number or $0, depending on the result of the calculation. When the result of the calculation is positive, that amount is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(B) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) as “Funds for Borrower.” When the result of the calculation is negative, that amount is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) as “Funds for Borrower,” and $0 is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(B) as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower.” When the result is $0, $0 is disclosed as “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” and “Funds for Borrower” under § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(B) and (6)(ii), respectively. An increase in the “Final” amount of “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” relative to the corresponding “Loan Estimate” amount might result, for example, from a decrease in the loan amount or an increase in the amount of existing debt being satisfied in the transaction. For additional discussion of the determination of the “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” amount, see comment 38(i)(6)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(4)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statement of differences.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(4)(iii)(A) requires, as applicable, a statement that the consumer has increased or decreased this payment, along with a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1) or (j)(2), as applicable. The applicable disclosure to be referenced corresponds to the label on the Closing Disclosure under which the information accounting for the increase in the “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” amount is disclosed. For example, in a transaction that is a purchase as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i), if the purchase price of the property has increased and therefore caused the “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” amount to increase, the statement, “You increased this payment. See details in Section K,” with the words “increased” and “Section K” in boldface, complies with this requirement. In a purchase or refinancing transaction, in the event the amount of the credit extended by the creditor has decreased and therefore caused the “Down Payment/Funds from Borrower” amount to increase, the statement can read, for example, “You increased this payment. See details in Section L,” with the same in boldface.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(5) Deposit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>When no deposit.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(5) requires the disclosure in the calculating cash to close table of the deposit required to be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv) and under § 1026.38(j)(2)(ii), under the subheadings “Loan Estimate” and “Final,” respectively. Under § 1026.37(h)(1)(iv), for all transactions other than a purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i), the amount required to be disclosed is $0. In a purchase transaction in which no deposit is paid in connection with the transaction, under §§ 1026.37(h)(1)(iv) and 1026.38(i)(5)(i) and (ii) the amount required to be disclosed is $0.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(6) Funds for borrower.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(6)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Final funds for borrower.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) provides that the “Final” amount for “Funds for Borrower” is determined in accordance with § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv). Under § 1026.38(i)(6)(iv), the “Final” amount of “Funds for Borrower” to be disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) is determined by subtracting the sum of the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.38(b) and any amount of existing loans assumed or taken subject to that is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) (excluding any closing costs financed disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(3)(ii)) from the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v). The amount is disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) either as a negative number or as $0, depending on the result of the calculation. The “Final” amount of “Funds for Borrower” disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) is an amount to be disbursed to the consumer or a designee of the consumer at consummation, if any.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No funds for borrower.</I> When the down payment and funds from the borrower is determined in accordance with § 1026.38(i)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(6)(ii) as “Funds for Borrower” is $0.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(7) Seller credits.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(7)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Final seller credits.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(7)(ii), the “Final” amount of “Seller Credits” reflects any change, following the delivery of the Loan Estimate, in the amount of funds given by the seller to the consumer for generalized (<I>i.e.,</I> lump sum) credits for closing costs or for allowances for items purchased separately (<I>e.g.,</I> if the seller is a builder). Seller credits are distinguished from payments by the seller for items attributable to periods of time prior to consummation, which are among the “Adjustments and Other Credits” separately disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(i)(8). For additional guidance regarding seller credits, see comments 38(j)(2)(v)-1 and -2.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(7)(iii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statement that the consumer should see details.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(7)(iii)(A), if the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(7)(ii) in the “Final” column is not equal to the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(7)(i) in the “Loan Estimate” column (unless the difference is due to rounding), the creditor must disclose a statement that the consumer should see the details disclosed either: (1) Under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v) in the summaries of transactions table and the seller-paid column of the closing cost details table under § 1026.38(f) or (g); or (2) if the difference is attributable only to general seller credits disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v), or only to specific seller credits disclosed in the seller-paid column of the closing cost details table under § 1026.38(f) or (g), under only the applicable provision. If, for example, a decrease in the seller credits disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(7)(ii) is attributable only to a decrease in general (<I>i.e.,</I> lump sum) seller credits, then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” in the calculating cash to close table that the consumer should see the details disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v) in the summaries of transactions table and the seller-paid column of § 1026.38(f) or (g), or that the consumer should see the details disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v) in the summaries of transactions table. Form H-25(B) in appendix H to this part demonstrates this disclosure where the decrease in seller credits is attributable only to a decrease in general seller credits and the creditor choses only to reference the applicable provision; form H-25(B)'s statement “See Seller Credits in Section L,” in which the words “Section L” are in boldface font, complies with this requirement. Where the decrease in the seller credits disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(7)(ii) is attributable to specific and general seller credits, or the creditor does not elect to reference only the applicable provision, then a statement is given under the subheading “Did this change?” that the consumer should see both the details disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v) in the summaries of transactions table and the seller-paid column of the closing cost details table under § 1026.38(f) or (g). For example, the statement “See Seller-Paid column on page 2 and Seller Credits in Section L,” in which the words “Seller-Paid” and “Section L” are in boldface font, complies with this requirement.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(8) Adjustments and other credits.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(8)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustments and other credits.</I> Under § 1026.38(i)(8)(ii), the “Final” amount for “Adjustments and Other Credits” would include, for example, prorations of taxes or homeowner's association fees, utilities used but not paid for by the seller, rent collected in advance by the seller from a tenant for a period extending beyond the consummation, and interest on loan assumptions. This category also includes generalized credits toward closing costs given by parties other than the seller. For additional guidance regarding adjustments and other credits, see commentary to §§ 1026.37(h)(1)(vii) and 1026.38(j)(2)(vi) and (xi). If the calculation required by § 1026.38(i)(8)(ii) yields a negative number, the creditor or closing agent discloses the amount as a negative number.
</P>
<P><I>38(i)(9) Cash to close.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(i)(9)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Final cash to close amount.</I> The “Final” amount of “Cash to Close” disclosed under § 1026.38(i)(9)(ii) is the same as the amount disclosed on the Closing Disclosure as “Cash to Close” under § 1026.38(j)(3)(iii). If the calculation required by § 1026.38(i)(9)(ii) yields a negative number, the creditor or closing agent discloses the amount as a negative number.
</P>
<P>2. <I>More prominent disclosure.</I> Section 1026.38(i)(9)(ii) requires that the disclosure of the “Final” amount of “Cash to Close” be more prominent than the other disclosures under § 1026.38(i). Such more prominent disclosure can take the form, for example, of boldface font, as shown on form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>38(j) Summary of borrower's transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> It is permissible to have two separate Closing Disclosures in a transaction: one that reflects the consumer's costs and credits only, which is provided to the consumer, and one that reflects the seller's costs and credits only, which is provided to the seller. <I>See</I> § 1026.38(t)(5)(v) and (vi). Some State laws may prohibit provision of information about the consumer to the seller and about the seller to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Addenda.</I> Additional pages may be attached to the Closing Disclosure to add lines, as necessary, to accommodate the complete listing of all items required to be shown on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j) and (k), and for the purpose of including customary recitals and information used locally in real estate closings (for example, breakdown of payoff figures, a breakdown of the consumer's total monthly mortgage payments, an accounting of debits received and check disbursements, a statement stating receipt of funds, applicable special stipulations between consumer and seller, and the date funds are transferred). <I>See</I> § 1026.38(t)(5)(ix). A reference such as “See attached page for additional information” should be placed in the applicable section of the Closing Disclosure.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Identical amounts.</I> The amounts disclosed under the following provisions of § 1026.38(j) are the same as the amounts disclosed under the corresponding provisions of § 1026.38(k): § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii) and (k)(1)(ii); § 1026.38(j)(1)(iii) and (k)(1)(iii); if the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) is attributable to contractual adjustments between the consumer and seller, § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) and (k)(1)(iv); § 1026.38(j)(1)(vii) and (k)(1)(vi); § 1026.38(j)(1)(viii) and (k)(1)(vii); § 1026.38(j)(1)(ix) and (k)(1)(viii); § 1026.38(j)(1)(x) and (k)(1)(ix); § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv) and (k)(2)(iv); unless seller contributions toward simultaneous subordinate financing are disclosed under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure and § 1026.38(k)(2)(vii) on the first-lien Closing Disclosure, § 1026.38(j)(2)(v) and (k)(2)(vii); § 1026.38(j)(2)(viii) and (k)(2)(x); § 1026.38(j)(2)(ix) and (k)(2)(xi); § 1026.38(j)(2)(x) and (k)(2)(xii); and § 1026.38(j)(2)(xi) and (k)(2)(xiii).
</P>
<P><I>38(j)(1) Itemization of amounts due from borrower.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Contract sales price and personal property.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(1)(ii) requires disclosure of the contract sales price of the property being sold, excluding the price of any tangible personal property if the consumer and seller have agreed to a separate price for such items. On the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure, no contract sales price is disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii). Personal property is defined by State law, but could include such items as carpets, drapes, and appliances. Manufactured homes are not considered personal property under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(1)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Contractual adjustments.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(1)(v) requires disclosure of amounts not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.38(j) that are owed to the seller but payable to the consumer after the real estate closing. For example, the following items must be disclosed and listed under the heading “Adjustments” under § 1026.38(j), to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>i. The balance in the seller's reserve account held in connection with an existing loan, if assigned to the consumer in a loan assumption transaction;
</P>
<P>ii. Any rent that the consumer will collect after the real estate closing for a period of time prior to the real estate closing; and
</P>
<P>iii. The treatment of any tenant security deposit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other consumer charges.</I> The amounts disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) which are for charges owed by the consumer at the real estate closing not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.38(f), (g), and (j) will not have a corresponding credit in the summary of the seller's transaction under § 1026.38(k)(1)(iv). For example, the amounts paid to any holders of existing liens on the property in a refinance transaction, construction costs in connection with the transaction that the consumer will be obligated to pay, payoff of other secured or unsecured debt, any outstanding real estate property taxes, and principal reductions are disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) without a corresponding credit in the summary of the seller's transaction under § 1026.38(k)(1)(iv). See comment 38-4 for an explanation of how to disclose a principal reduction under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure.</I> On the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure, the proceeds of the subordinate financing applied to the first-lien transaction may be included in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v). See also comments 37(h)(1)(v)-2 and 37(h)(1)(vii)-6 for an explanation of how to disclose on the Loan Estimate amounts that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(1)(x).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Additional adjustments.</I> Examples of items for which adjustments may be made include taxes, other than those disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(1)(vii) and (viii), paid in advance for an entire year or other period, when the real estate closing occurs prior to the expiration of the year or other period for which they were paid. Additional examples of items for which adjustments may be made include:</P>
<P>i. Flood and hazard insurance premiums, if the consumer is being substituted as an insured under the same policy;
</P>
<P>ii. Mortgage insurance in loan assumptions;
</P>
<P>iii. Planned unit development or condominium association assessments paid in advance;
</P>
<P>iv. Fuel or other supplies on hand, purchased by the seller, which the consumer will use when the consumer takes possession of the property; and
</P>
<P>v. Ground rent paid in advance.
</P>
<P><I>38(j)(2) Itemization of amounts already paid by or on behalf of borrower.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Deposit.</I> All amounts paid into a trust account by the consumer pursuant to the contract of sale for real estate, any addenda thereto, or any other agreement between the consumer and seller must be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(ii). If there is no deposit paid in a transaction, that amount is left blank on the Closing Disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reduction of deposit when deposit used to pay for closing charges prior to closing.</I> If the consumer's deposit has been applied toward a charge for a closing cost, the amount applied should not be included in the amount disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(2)(ii), but instead should be shown on the appropriate line for the closing cost in the Closing Cost Detail tables pursuant to § 1026.38(f) or (g), designated borrower-paid before closing.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>First user loan.</I> For purposes of § 1026.38(j), a first user loan is a loan to finance construction of a new structure or purchase of a new manufactured home that is known at the time of consummation to be real property under State law, where the structure was constructed for sale or the manufactured home was purchased for purposes of resale and the loan is used as or converted to a loan to finance purchase by the first user. For other loans subject to § 1026.19(f) that finance construction of a new structure or purchase of a manufactured home that is known at the time of consummation to be real property under State law, the sales price of the land and the construction cost or purchase price of the manufactured home should be disclosed separately and the amount of the loan in the current transaction must be disclosed. The remainder of the Closing Disclosure should be completed taking into account adjustments and charges related to the temporary financing and permanent financing that are known at the time of consummation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assumption of existing loan obligation of seller by consumer.</I> The outstanding amount of any loans that the consumer is assuming, or subject to which the consumer is taking title to the property must be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv). When more than one loan is being assumed, the total amount of all outstanding loans being assumed should be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General seller credits.</I> When the consumer receives a generalized credit from the seller for closing costs or where the seller (typically a builder) is making an allowance to the consumer for items to purchase separately, the amount of the credit must be disclosed. However, if the seller credit is attributable to a specific loan cost or other cost listed in the Closing Cost Details tables, pursuant to § 1026.38(f) or (g), that amount should be reflected in the seller-paid column in the Closing Cost Details tables under § 1026.38(f) or (g).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other seller credits.</I> Any other obligations of the seller to be paid directly to the consumer, such as for issues identified at a walk-through of the property prior to closing, are disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(v).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Credits from any party other than the seller or creditor.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(2)(vi) requires disclosure of a description and the amount of items paid by or on behalf of the consumer and not disclosed elsewhere under § 1026.38(j)(2). For example, credits a consumer receives from a real estate agent or other third party, other than a seller or creditor, are disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi). However, if the credit is attributable to a specific closing cost listed in the Closing Cost Details tables under § 1026.38(f) or (g), that amount should be reflected in the paid by others column on the Closing Cost Details tables and not in the disclosure required under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi). Similarly, if a real estate agent rebates a portion of the agent's commission to the consumer, the rebate should be listed as a credit along with a description of the rebate, which must include the name of the party giving the credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Subordinate financing proceeds on first-lien Closing Disclosure.</I> Any financing arrangements or other new loans not otherwise disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(iii) or (iv) must be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi) on the first-lien Closing Disclosure. For example, if the consumer is using a second mortgage loan to finance part of the purchase price, whether from the same creditor, another creditor, or the seller, the principal amount of the second loan must be disclosed with a brief explanation on the first-lien Closing Disclosure. In this example, the principal amount of the subordinate financing is disclosed on the summaries of transactions table for the borrower's transaction either on line 04 under the subheading “L. Paid Already by or on Behalf of Borrower at Closing,” or under the subheading “Other Credits.” If the net proceeds of the subordinate financing are less than the principal amount of the subordinate financing, the net proceeds must also be listed, and may be listed on the same line as the principal amount of the subordinate financing on the first-lien Closing Disclosure. For an example, see form H-25(C) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Satisfaction of existing subordinate liens by consumer.</I> For payments to subordinate lien holders by or on behalf of the consumer, disclosure of any amounts paid with funds other than closing funds, as defined under § 1026.38(j)(4)(ii), in connection with the second mortgage payoff are required to be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi), with a statement that such amounts were paid outside of closing funds. For an example, see form H-25(D) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transferred escrow balances.</I> In a refinance transaction, any transferred escrow balance is listed as a credit pursuant to § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi), along with a description of the transferred escrow balance.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Gift funds.</I> A credit must be disclosed only for any money or other payments made at closing by third parties, including family members, not otherwise associated with the transaction, along with a description of the nature of the funds provided under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi). Amounts provided in advance of the real estate closing to consumers by third parties, including family members, not otherwise associated with the transaction, are not required to be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Adjustments.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(2)(vi) requires the disclosure of any additional amounts not already disclosed under § 1026.38(f), (g), (h), and (j)(2), that are owed to the consumer but payable to the seller before the real estate closing. The disclosures made under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi) must also include a description for each disclosed amount. For example, rent paid to the seller from a tenant before the real estate closing for a period extending beyond the real estate closing is disclosed by identifying the amount as rent from a tenant under the heading “Adjustments.” See also § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii), which requires disclosure of a description and amount of any and all other obligations required to be paid by the seller at the real estate closing.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(2)(xi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(2)(xi) requires the disclosure of any amounts the consumer is expected to pay after the real estate closing that are attributable in part to a period of time prior to the real estate closing. Examples of items that would be disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(2)(xi) include:
</P>
<P>i. Utilities used but not paid for by the seller; and
</P>
<P>ii. Interest on loan assumptions.
</P>
<P><I>38(j)(3) Calculation of borrower's transaction.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(3)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Stating if amount is due to or from consumer.</I> To comply with § 1026.38(j)(3)(iii), the creditor must state either the cash required from the consumer at closing, or cash payable to the consumer at closing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methodology.</I> To calculate the cash to close, total the amounts disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(3)(i) and (ii). If that calculation results in a positive amount, the amount is due from the consumer. If the calculation results in a negative amount, the amount is due to the consumer.
</P>
<P><I>38(j)(4) Items paid outside of closing funds.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(j)(4)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Charges not paid with closing funds.</I> Section 1026.38(j)(4)(i) requires that any charges not paid from closing funds but that otherwise are disclosed under § 1026.38(j) be marked as “paid outside of closing” or “P.O.C.” The disclosure must identify the party making the payment, such as the consumer, seller, loan originator, real estate agent, or any other person. For an example of a disclosure of a charge not made from closing funds, see form H-25(D) of appendix H to this part. For an explanation of what constitutes closing funds, see § 1026.38(j)(4)(ii). See also comment 38-4 for an explanation of how to disclose a principal reduction that is not paid from closing funds.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Items paid without closing funds not included in sums.</I> Charges that are paid outside of closing funds under § 1026.38(j)(4)(i) should not be included in computing totals under § 1026.38(j)(1) and (j)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(k) Summary of seller's transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transactions with no seller or simultaneous subordinate financing transactions.</I> Section 1026.38(k) does not apply in a transaction where there is no seller, such as a refinance transaction or a transaction with a construction purpose as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(iii), or in a simultaneous subordinate financing purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i) if the first-lien Closing Disclosure records the entirety of the seller's transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Extra line items.</I> For guidance regarding the use of addenda for items disclosed on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(k), see comment 38(j)-2.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Identical amounts.</I> The amounts disclosed under certain provisions of § 1026.38(k) are the same as the amounts disclosed under certain provisions of § 1026.38(j). <I>See</I> comment 38(j)-3 for a listing of the specific provisions.
</P>
<P><I>38(k)(1) Itemization of amounts due to seller.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing.</I> Section 1026.38(k) does not apply in a simultaneous subordinate financing purchase transaction as defined in § 1026.37(a)(9)(i) if the first-lien Closing Disclosure records the entirety of the seller's transaction. If § 1026.38(k) applies to a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction, § 1026.38(k) is completed based only on the terms and conditions of the simultaneous subordinate financing transaction and no contract sales price is disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(1)(ii) on the Closing Disclosure for the simultaneous subordinate financing.
</P>
<P><I>38(k)(2) Itemization of amounts due from seller.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(k)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Distributions of deposit to seller prior to closing.</I> If the deposit or any portion thereof has been disbursed to the seller prior to closing, the amount of the deposit that has been distributed to the seller must be disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(k)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Assumption of existing loan obligation of seller by consumer.</I> If the consumer is assuming or taking title subject to existing liens and the amounts of the outstanding balance of the liens are to be deducted from the sales price, the amounts of the outstanding balance of the liens must be disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other seller credits.</I> Any other obligations of the seller to be paid directly to the consumer, such as credits for issues identified at a walk-through of the property prior to the real estate closing, are disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(vii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(k)(2)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing—seller contribution.</I> If a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction is disclosed with the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e), the first-lien Closing Disclosure must include any contributions from the seller toward the simultaneous subordinate financing that are disclosed in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure. For example, assume the simultaneous subordinate financing transaction is disclosed using the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e) and the seller contributes $200.00 toward the closing costs of the simultaneous subordinate financing. The simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure must include the $200.00 contribution in the payoffs and payments table pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) and comments 38(t)(5)(vii)(B)-1 and -2. The first-lien Closing Disclosure must include the $200.00 contribution in the summaries of transactions table for the seller's transaction under § 1026.38(k)(2)(vii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(k)(2)(viii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Satisfaction of other seller obligations.</I> Seller obligations, other than second liens, that must be paid off to clear title to the property must be disclosed pursuant to § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii). Examples of disclosures pursuant to § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii) include the satisfaction of outstanding liens imposed due to Federal, State, or local income taxes, real estate property tax liens, judgments against the seller reduced to a lien upon the property, or any other obligations the seller wishes the closing agent to pay from their proceeds at the real estate closing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer satisfaction of outstanding subordinate loans.</I> If the consumer is satisfying existing liens which will not be deducted from the sales price, the amount of the outstanding balance of the loan must be disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii). For example, the amount of any second lien which will be paid as part of the real estate closing that is not deducted from the seller's proceeds under § 1026.38(k)(2)(iv), is disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii). For payments to the subordinate lien holder, any amounts paid must be disclosed, and other amounts paid by or on behalf of the seller must be disclosed as paid outside of closing funds under § 1026.38(j)(2)(vi). For additional discussion, see comment 38(j)(2)(vi)-2.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Escrows held by closing agent for payment of invoices received after consummation.</I> Funds to be held by the closing agent for the payment of either repairs, or water, fuel, or other utility bills that cannot be prorated between the parties at closing because the amounts used by the seller prior to closing are not yet known must be disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(2)(viii). Subsequent disclosure of the actual amount of these post-closing items to be paid from closing funds is optional.
</P>
<P><I>38(k)(3) Calculation of seller's transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Stating if amount is due to or from seller.</I> To comply with § 1026.38(k)(3)(iii), the creditor must state either the cash required from the seller at closing, or cash payable to the seller at closing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Methodology.</I> To calculate the cash due to or from the consumer, total the amounts disclosed under § 1026.38(k)(3)(i) and (ii). If that calculation results in a positive amount, the amount is due to the seller. If the calculation results in a negative amount, the amount is due from the seller.
</P>
<P><I>38(k)(4) Items paid outside of closing funds.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> For guidance regarding the disclosure of items paid with funds other than closing funds, see comments 38(j)(4)(i)-1 and -2.
</P>
<P><I>38(l) Loan disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(l)(2) Demand feature.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Covered features.</I> See comment 18(i)-2 for a description of demand features triggering the disclosure requirements of § 1026.38(l)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(l)(3) Late payment.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.37(m)(4) for guidance on disclosing late payment fees, as required under § 1026.38(l)(3).
</P>
<P><I>38(l)(6) Security interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Alternate property address.</I> Section 1026.38(l)(6) requires disclosure of the address for the property that secures the credit, including the zip code. If the address is unavailable, § 1026.38(l)(6) requires disclosure of other location information for the property, such as a lot number; however, disclosure of a zip code is required in all instances. For transactions secured by a consumer's interest in a timeshare plan, the creditor may disclose as other location information a lot, square, or other such number or other legal description of the property assigned by the local governing authority, or if no such number or description is available, disclose the name of the timeshare property or properties with a designation indicating that the property is an interest in a timeshare plan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Personal property.</I> Where personal property also secures the credit transaction, a description of that property may be disclosed, at the creditor's option, pursuant to § 1026.38(l)(6). If the form does not provide enough space to disclose a description of personal property to be disclosed under § 1026.38(l)(6), an additional page may be used and appended to the end of the form provided that the creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.38(t)(3). The creditor may use one addendum to disclose the personal property under § 1026.38(a)(3)(vi) and (l)(6). <I>See</I> comment 38(a)(3)(vi)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(l)(7) Escrow account.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Definition of escrow account.</I> For a description of an escrow account for purposes of the escrow account disclosure under § 1026.38(l)(7), see the definition of “escrow account” in 12 CFR 1024.17(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Addenda.</I> Additional pages may be attached to the Closing Disclosure to add lines, as necessary, to accommodate the complete listing of all items required to be shown on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(l)(7). <I>See</I> § 1026.38(t)(5)(ix). A reference such as “See attached page for additional information” must be placed in the applicable section of the Closing Disclosure, if an additional page is used to list all items required to be shown.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(l)(7)(i)(A)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated costs not paid by escrow account funds.</I> Section 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires the creditor to estimate the amount the consumer is likely to pay during the first year after consummation for the mortgage-related obligations described in § 1026.43(b)(8) that are known to the creditor and that will not be paid using escrow account funds. The creditor discloses this amount only if an escrow account will be established.
</P>
<P>2. <I>During the first year.</I> Section 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) requires disclosure based on payments during the first year after consummation. Alternatively, if the creditor elects to make the disclosures required by § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) based on amounts derived from the escrow account analysis required under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17, then the creditor may make the disclosures required by § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>2</I>) based on a 12-month period beginning with the borrower's initial payment date (rather than beginning with consummation). <I>See</I> comment 38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>5</I>)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(l)(7)(i)(A)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated costs paid using escrow account funds.</I> The amount the consumer will be required to pay into an escrow account with each periodic payment during the first year after consummation disclosed under § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) is equal to the sum of the amount of estimated escrow payments disclosed under § 1026.38(c)(1) (as described in § 1026.37(c)(2)(iii)) and the amount the consumer will be required to pay into an escrow account to pay some or all of the mortgage insurance premiums disclosed under § 1026.38(c)(1) (as described in § 1026.37(c)(2)(ii)).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(l)(7)(i)(A)(5).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>During the first year.</I> Section 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) requires disclosure of the amount the consumer will be required to pay into the escrow account with each periodic payment during the first year after consummation. Section 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) requires a disclosure, labeled “Escrowed Property Costs over Year 1,” calculated as the amount disclosed under § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>4</I>) multiplied by the number of periodic payments scheduled to be made to the escrow account during the first year after consummation. For example, creditors may base such disclosures on less than 12 payments if, based on the payment schedule dictated by the legal obligation, fewer than 12 periodic payments will be made to the escrow account during the first year after consummation. Alternatively, § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>5</I>) permits the creditor to base the disclosures required by § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>4</I>) on amounts derived from the escrow account analysis required under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.17, even if those disclosures differ from what would otherwise be disclosed under § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>4</I>)—as, for example, when there are fewer than 12 periodic payments scheduled to be made to the escrow account during the first year after consummation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(l)(7)(i)(B)(1).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated costs paid directly by the consumer.</I> The creditor discloses an amount under § 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) only if no escrow account will be established.
</P>
<P>2. <I>During the first year.</I> Section 1026.38(l)(7)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) requires disclosure based on payments during the first year after consummation. A creditor may comply with this requirement by basing the disclosure on a 12-month period beginning with the borrower's initial payment date or on a 12-month period beginning with consummation.
</P>
<P><I>38(m) Adjustable payment table.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.37(i) for guidance regarding the disclosure required by § 1026.38(m).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Master heading.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.38(m) is required to be provided under a different master heading than the disclosure required by § 1026.37(i), but all other requirements applicable to the disclosure required by § 1026.37(i) apply to the disclosure required by § 1026.38(m).
</P>
<P>3. <I>When table is not permitted to be disclosed.</I> Like the disclosure required by § 1026.37(i), the disclosure required by § 1026.38(m) is required only if the periodic principal and interest payment may change after consummation based on a loan term other than on an adjustment to the interest rate or if the transaction is a seasonal payment product as described under § 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(E). If the transaction does not contain these terms, this table is not permitted on the Closing Disclosure. <I>See</I> comments 37-1 and 37(i)-1.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Final loan terms.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.38(m) must include the information required by § 1026.37(i), as applicable, but the creditor must make the disclosure using the information that is required by § 1026.19(f). <I>See</I> comments 19(f)(1)(i)-1 and -2.
</P>
<P><I>38(n) Adjustable interest rate table.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Guidance.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.37(j) for guidance regarding the disclosures required by § 1026.38(n).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Master heading.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.38(n) is required to be provided under a different master heading than the disclosure required by § 1026.37(j), but all other requirements applicable to the disclosure required by § 1026.37(j) apply to the disclosure required by § 1026.38(n).
</P>
<P>3. <I>When table is not permitted to be disclosed.</I> Like the disclosure required by § 1026.37(j), the disclosure required by § 1026.38(n) is required only if the interest rate may change after consummation based on the terms of the legal obligation. If the interest rate will not change after consummation, this table is not permitted on the Closing Disclosure. <I>See</I> comments 37-1 and 37(j)-1.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Final loan terms.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.38(n) must include the information required by § 1026.37(j), as applicable, but the creditor must make the disclosure using the information that is known at the time the disclosure is required to be provided by § 1026.19(f).
</P>
<P><I>38(o) Loan calculations.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Section 1026.38(o)(1) and (2) sets forth the accuracy requirements for the total of payments and the finance charge, respectively. The following examples illustrate the interaction of these provisions:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that loan costs that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing and that are part of the finance charge (see § 1026.4 for calculation of the finance charge) are understated by more than $100. For example, assume that borrower-paid loan origination fees (see § 1026.4(a)) are cumulatively understated by $150, resulting in the amounts disclosed as the total of payments and the finance charge both being understated by more than $100. Both the disclosed total of payments and the disclosed finance charge would not be accurate for purposes of § 1026.38(o)(1) and (2), respectively.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that loan costs that are designated borrower-paid at or before closing and that are not part of the finance charge are understated by more than $100. For example, assume that borrower-paid property appraisal and inspection fees that are excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(7)(iv) are cumulatively understated by $150, resulting in the amount disclosed as the total of payments being understated by more than $100. The disclosed total of payments would not be accurate for purposes of § 1026.38(o)(1), but the disclosed finance charge would be accurate for purposes of § 1026.38(o)(2).
</P>
<P><I>38(o)(1) Total of payments.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of total of payments.</I> The total of payments is the total, expressed as a dollar amount, the consumer will have paid after making all payments of principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs, as scheduled, through the end of the loan term. The total of payments excludes charges that would otherwise be included as components of the total of payments if such charges are designated on the Closing Disclosure as paid by seller or paid by others. A seller or other party, such as the creditor, may agree to offset payments of principal, interest, mortgage insurance, or loan costs, whether in whole or in part, through a specific credit, for example through a specific seller or lender credit. Because these amounts are not paid by the consumer, they are excluded from the total of payments calculation. Non-specific credits, however, are generalized payments to the consumer that do not pay for a particular fee and therefore do not offset amounts for purposes of the total of payments calculation. For guidance on the amounts included in the total of payments calculation, see the “In 5 Years” disclosure under § 1026.37(l)(1)(i) and comment 37(l)(1)(i)-1. For a discussion of lender credits, see comment 19(e)(3)(i)-5. For a discussion of seller credits, see comment 38(j)(2)(v)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(o)(2) Finance charge.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of finance charge.</I> The finance charge is calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.4 and its commentary and is expressed as a dollar amount.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure.</I> The finance charge is disclosed as a total amount; the components of the finance charge are not itemized.
</P>
<P><I>38(o)(3) Amount financed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of amount financed.</I> The amount financed is calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.18(b) and its commentary.
</P>
<P><I>38(o)(5) Total interest percentage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> For guidance on calculation and disclosure of the total interest percentage, see § 1026.37(l)(3) and its commentary.
</P>
<P><I>38(p) Other disclosures.</I>
</P>
<P><I>38(p)(1) Appraisal.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure required by § 1026.38(p)(1) is only applicable to closed-end transactions subject to § 1026.19(f) that are also subject either to 15 U.S.C. 1639h or 1691(e), as implemented by this part or Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002, respectively. Accordingly, if a transaction is not subject to either of those provisions, the disclosure required by § 1026.38(p)(1) may be left blank on form H-25 of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P><I>38(p)(3) Liability after foreclosure.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>State law requirements.</I> If the creditor forecloses on the property and the proceeds of the foreclosure sale are less than the unpaid balance on the loan, whether the consumer has continued or additional responsibility for the loan balance after foreclosure, and the conditions under which liability occurs, will vary by State. If the applicable State law affords any type of protection, other than a statute of limitations that only limits the timeframe in which a creditor may seek redress, § 1026.38(p)(3) requires a statement that State law may protect the consumer from liability for the unpaid balance.
</P>
<P><I>38(q) Questions notice.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(q)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prominent question mark.</I> The notice required under § 1026.38(q) includes a prominent question mark. This prominent question mark is an aspect of form H-25 of appendix H to this part, the standard form or model form, as applicable, pursuant to § 1026.38(t). If the creditor deviates from the depiction of the question mark as shown on form H-25, the creditor complies with § 1026.38(q) if (1) the size and location of the question mark on the Closing Disclosure are substantially similar in size and location to the question mark shown on form H-25, and (2) the creditor otherwise complies with § 1026.38(t)(5) regarding permissible changes to the form of the Closing Disclosure.
</P>
<P><I>38(r) Contact information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Each person to be identified.</I> Form H-25 of appendix H to this part includes the contact information required to be disclosed under § 1026.38(r) generally in a five-column tabular format (<I>i.e.,</I> there are columns from left to right that disclose the contact information for the creditor, mortgage broker, consumer's real estate broker, seller's real estate broker, and settlement agent). Columns are left blank where no such person is participating in the transaction. For example, if there is no mortgage broker involved in the transaction, the column for the mortgage broker is left blank. Conversely, in the event the transaction involves more than one of each such person (<I>e.g.,</I> two sellers' real estate brokers splitting a commission), the space in the contact information table provided on form H-25 of appendix H to this part may be altered to accommodate the information for such persons, provided that the information required by § 1026.38(o),(p),(q),(r) and (s) is disclosed on the same page as illustrated by form H-25. If the space provided on form H-25 does not accommodate the addition of such information, an additional table to accommodate the information may be provided on a separate page, with an appropriate reference to the additional table. A creditor or settlement agent may also omit a column on the table that is inapplicable or, if necessary, replace an inapplicable column with the contact information for the additional person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Name of person.</I> Where § 1026.38(r)(1) calls for disclosure of the name of the person participating in the transaction, the person's legal name (<I>e.g.,</I> the name used for registration, incorporation, or chartering purposes), the person's trade name, if any, or an abbreviation of the person's legal name or the trade name is disclosed, so long as the disclosure is clear and conspicuous as required by § 1026.38(t)(1)(i). For example, if the creditor's legal name is “Alpha Beta Chi Bank and Trust Company, N.A.” and its trade name is “ABC Bank,” then under § 1026.38(r)(1) the full legal name, the trade name, or an abbreviation such as “ABC Bank &amp; Trust Co.” may be disclosed. However, the abbreviation “Bank &amp; Trust Co.” is not sufficiently distinct to enable a consumer to identify the person, and therefore would not be clear and conspicuous. If the creditor, mortgage broker, seller's real estate broker, consumer's real estate broker, or settlement agent participating in the transaction is a natural person, the natural person's name is listed in the § 1026.38(r)(1) and (r)(4) disclosures (assuming that such natural person is the primary contact for the consumer or seller, as applicable).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Address.</I> The address disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(2) is the identified person's place of business where the primary contact for the transaction is located (usually the local office), rather than a general corporate headquarters address. If a natural person's name is to be disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1), <I>see</I> comment 38(r)-2, the business address of such natural person is listed (assuming that such natural person is the primary contact for the consumer or seller, as applicable).
</P>
<P>4. <I>NMLSR ID.</I> Section 1026.38(r)(3) and (5) requires the disclosure of an NMLSR identification (ID) number for each person identified in the table. The NMLSR ID is a unique number or other identifier that is generally assigned by the Nationwide Mortgage Licensing System &amp; Registry (NMLSR) to individuals registered or licensed through NMLSR to provide loan originating services (for more information, see the Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008 (SAFE Act) sections 1503(3) and (12) and 1504, 12 U.S.C. 5102(3) and (12) and 5103, and its implementing regulations (<I>i.e.,</I> 12 CFR 1007.103(a) and 1008.103(a)(2)). An entity may also have an NMLSR ID. Thus, any NMLSR ID that is obtained by a creditor or mortgage broker entity disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1), as applicable, or a natural person disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(4), either as required under the SAFE Act or otherwise, is disclosed. If the creditor, mortgage broker, or natural person has an NMLSR ID and a separate license number or unique identifier issued by the applicable State, locality, or other regulatory body with responsibility for licensing and/or registering such entity or person's business activities, both the NMLSR ID and the separate license number or unique identifier may be disclosed. The space in the table is left blank for the disclosures in the columns corresponding to persons that have no NMLSR ID to be disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(3) and (5); provided that, the creditor may omit the column from the table or, if necessary, replace the column with the contact information for an additional person. <I>See</I> comment 38(r)-1.
</P>
<P>5. <I>License number or unique identifier.</I> Section 1026.38(r)(3) and (5) requires the disclosure of a license number or unique identifier for each person (including natural persons) identified in the table who does not have a NMLSR ID if the applicable State, locality, or other regulatory body with responsibility for licensing and/or registering such person's business activities has issued a license number or other unique identifier to such person under § 1026.38(r)(3) and (5). The space in the table is left blank for the disclosures in the columns corresponding to persons who are not subject to the issuance of such a license number or unique identifier to be disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(3) and (5); provided that, the creditor or settlement agent may omit the column from the table or, if necessary, replace the column with the contact information for an additional person. <I>See</I> comment 38(r)-1. In addition, under § 1026.38(r)(3) and (5), the abbreviation of the State or the jurisdiction or regulatory body that issued such license or registration is required to be included before the word “License” in the label required by § 1026.37(r)(3) and (5). If no such license or registration is required to be disclosed, such as if an NMLSR number is disclosed, the space provided for such an abbreviation in form H-25 of appendix H to this part may be left blank. A creditor complies with the requirements of § 1026.38(r)(3) and (5) to disclose the abbreviation of the State by disclosing a U.S. Postal Service State abbreviation, if applicable.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Contact.</I> Section 1026.38(r)(4) requires the disclosure of the primary contact for the consumer. The primary contact is the natural person employed by the person disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1) who interacts most frequently with the consumer and who has an NMLSR ID or, if none, a license number or other unique identifier to be disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(5), as applicable. For example, if the senior loan officer employed by the creditor or mortgage broker disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1) has an NMLSR ID, but the consumer meets with a different loan officer to complete the application and answer questions, the senior loan officer's name is disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(4) unless the other loan officer also has an NMLSR ID, in which case the other loan officer's name is disclosed. Further, if the sales agent employed by the consumer's real estate broker disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1) has a State-issued brokers' license number, but the consumer meets with an associate sales agent to tour the property being purchased and complete the sales contract, the sales agent's name is disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(4) unless the associate sales agent also has a State-issued license number, in which case the associate sales agent's name is disclosed. Moreover, if the closing attorney employed by the settlement agent disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(1) has a State-issued settlement agent license number, but the consumer meets with the attorney's assistant to fill out any necessary documentation prior to the closing and to answer questions, the closing attorney's name is disclosed under § 1026.38(r)(4) because the assistant is only performing clerical functions.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Email address and phone number.</I> Section 1026.38(r)(6) and (7) requires disclosure of the email address and phone number, respectively, for the persons listed in § 1026.37(r)(4). Disclosure of a general number or email address for the lender, mortgage broker, real estate broker, or settlement agent, as applicable, satisfies this requirement if no such information is generally available for such person.
</P>
<P><I>38(s) Signature statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General requirements.</I> See the commentary to § 1026.37(n) for guidance regarding the optional signature requirements and signature lines for multiple consumers.
</P>
<P>38(t) Form of disclosures.
</P>
<P>38(t)(1) General requirements.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous; segregation.</I> The clear and conspicuous standard requires that the disclosures required by § 1026.38 be legible and in a readily understandable form. The disclosures also must be grouped together and segregated from everything else. As required by § 1026.38(t)(3), the disclosures for any transaction that is a federally related mortgage loan under Regulation X, 12 CFR 1024.2, must be made using the standard form H-25 of appendix H to this part. Accordingly, use of that form constitutes compliance with the clear and conspicuous and segregation requirements of § 1026.38(t)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Balloon payment financing with leasing characteristics.</I> In certain credit sale or loan transactions, a consumer may reduce the dollar amount of the payments to be made during the course of the transaction by agreeing to make, at the end of the loan term, a large final payment based on the expected residual value of the property. The consumer may have a number of options with respect to the final payment, including, among other things, retaining the property and making the final payment, refinancing the final payment, or transferring the property to the creditor in lieu of the final payment. Such transactions may have some of the characteristics of lease transactions subject to Regulation M (12 CFR part 1013), but are considered credit transactions where the consumer assumes the indicia of ownership, including the risks, burdens and benefits of ownership, upon consummation. These transactions are governed by the disclosure requirements of this part instead of Regulation M. Under § 1026.38(t)(1)(ii), creditors may not include any additional information in the disclosures required by § 1026.38. Thus, the disclosures must show the large final payment as a balloon payment in the projected payments table required by § 1026.38(c) and should not, for example, reflect the other options available to the consumer at maturity.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(2) Headings and labels.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Estimated amounts.</I> Certain amounts are estimated when provided on the disclosure required by § 1026.37. When disclosed as required by § 1026.38, however, many of the corresponding disclosures must be actual amounts rather than estimates in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.19(f), even though the provision of § 1026.38 cross-references a counterpart in § 1026.37. Section 1026.38(t)(2) provides that, if a master heading, heading, subheading, label, or similar designation contains the word “estimated” in form H-25 of appendix H to this part, that heading, label, or similar designation shall contain the word “estimated.” Thus, § 1026.38(t)(2) incorporates the “estimated” designations reflected on form H-25 into the requirements of § 1026.38. <I>See</I> comment 37(o)(2)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(3) Form.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-federally related mortgage loans.</I> For a transaction that is not a federally related mortgage loan, the creditor is not required to use form H-25 of appendix H to this part, although its use as a model form for such transactions, if properly completed with accurate content, constitutes compliance with the clear and conspicuous and segregation requirements of § 1026.38(t)(1)(i). Even when the creditor elects not to use the model form, § 1026.38(t)(1)(ii) requires that the disclosures contain only the information required by § 1026.38(a) through (s), and that the creditor make the disclosures in the same order as they occur in form H-25, use the same headings, labels, and similar designations as used in the form (many of which also are expressly required by § 1026.38(a) through (s)), and position the disclosures relative to those designations in the same manner as shown in the form. In order to be in a format substantially similar to form H-25, the disclosures required by § 1026.38 must be provided on letter size (8.5″ x 11″) paper.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(4) Rounding.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> Consistent with § 1026.2(b)(4), any amount required to be disclosed by § 1026.38 and not required to be rounded by § 1026.38(t)(4) must be disclosed as an exact numerical amount using decimal places where applicable, unless otherwise provided. For example, under § 1026.38(t)(4), the principal and interest payment disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(3) and § 1026.38(b) must be disclosed using decimal places even if the amount of cents is zero, in contrast to the loan amount disclosed under § 1026.37(b)(1) and § 1026.38(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Guidance.</I> For guidance regarding the requirements of § 1026.38(t)(4), see the commentary to § 1026.37(o)(4).
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5) Exceptions.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> The changes required and permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5) are permitted for federally related mortgage loans for which the use of form H-25 is required under § 1026.38(t)(3). For non-federally related mortgage loans, the changes required or permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5), do not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure and therefore, are permissible. Any changes to the disclosure not specified in § 1026.38(t)(5) or not permitted by other provisions of § 1026.38 are not permissible for federally related mortgage loans. Creditors in non-federally related mortgage loans making any changes that affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure will lose their protection from civil liability under TILA section 130.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manual completion.</I> The creditor, or settlement agent preparing the form, under § 1026.19(f)(1)(v) is not required to use a computer, typewriter, or other word processor to complete the disclosure required by § 1026.38. The creditor or settlement agent may fill in information and amounts required to be disclosed by § 1026.38 on form H-25 of appendix H to this part by hand printing or using any other method, provided the person produces clear and legible text and uses the formatting required by § 1026.38, including replicating bold font where required.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Unit-period.</I> Section 1026.38(t)(5)(i) provides that wherever form H-25 or § 1026.38 uses “monthly” to describe the frequency of any payments or uses “month” to describe the applicable unit-period, the creditor is required to substitute the appropriate term to reflect the fact that the transaction's terms provide for other than monthly periodic payments, such as bi-weekly or quarterly payments. For purposes of § 1026.38, the term “unit-period” has the same meaning as in appendix J to Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Signature lines.</I> Section 1026.38(t) does not restrict the addition of signature lines to the disclosure required by § 1026.38, provided any signature lines for confirmations of receipt of the disclosure appear only under the “Confirm Receipt” heading required by § 1026.38(s) as illustrated by form H-25 of appendix H to this part. If the number of signatures requested by the creditor for confirming receipt of the disclosure requires space for signature lines in excess of that provided on form H-25, an additional page may be added to accommodate the additional signature lines with an appropriate reference to the additional page. Such additional page should also contain the heading and statement required by § 1026.38(s) in the format provided on form H-25. Signatures for a purpose other than confirming receipt of the form may be obtained on a separate page, and consistent with § 1026.38(t)(1)(i), not on the same page as the information required by § 1026.38.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Additional page.</I> Information required or permitted to be disclosed by § 1026.38 on a separate page should be formatted similarly to form H-25 of appendix H to this part, so as not to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure. In addition, information provided on additional pages should be consolidated on as few pages as necessary so as not to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Page numbers.</I> References required by provisions of § 1026.38 to information disclosed pursuant to other provisions of the section, as illustrated on form H-25 of appendix H, may be altered to refer to the appropriate page number of the form containing such information.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Translation.</I> Section 1026.38(t)(5)(viii) permits the translation of form H-25 into languages other than English, similar to § 1026.37(o)(5)(ii). Pursuant § 1026.38(t)(5)(viii) creditors may modify form H-25 to the extent that translation prevents the headings, labels, designations, and required disclosure items under § 1026.38 from fitting in the space provided on form H-25. For example, if the translation of a required label does not fit within the line provided for such label in form H-25, the label may be disclosed over two lines. See form H-28 of appendix H to this part for Spanish translations of form H-25.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5)(iv) Closing Cost Details.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Line numbers; closing cost details.</I> Section 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(A) permits the deletion of unused lines from the disclosures required by § 1026.38(f)(1) through (3) and (g)(1) through (4), if necessary to allow the addition of lines to other sections that require them for the required disclosures. This provision permits creditors and settlement agents to use the space gained from deleting unused lines for additional lines to accommodate all of the costs that are required to be itemized. For example, if the only origination charge required by § 1026.38(f)(1) is points, the remaining seven lines illustrated on form H-25 of appendix H to this part may be deleted and added to the disclosure required by § 1026.38(g)(4), if seven lines in addition to those provided on form H-25 are necessary to accommodate such disclosure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Two pages; closing cost details.</I> Section 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(B) permits the disclosure of the information required by § 1026.38(f) through (h) over two pages, but only if form H-25 of appendix H to this part, as modified pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(A), does not accommodate all of the costs required to be disclosed on one page. If the deletion of unused lines and the addition of such lines to other sections permits the disclosures required by § 1026.38(f) through (h) to fit on one page, modification pursuant to § 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(B) is not permissible.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Separate pages for Loan Costs and Other Costs.</I> The modification permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(B) allows the information required by § 1026.38(f) through (h) to be disclosed over two pages, numbered as “2a” and “2b.” For an example of such a modification, see form H-25(H) of appendix H to this part. Under this modification, the information required by § 1026.38(h) must remain on the same page as the information required by § 1026.38(g). Accordingly, the Loan Costs section of form H-25 may appear on its own page “2a,” but the Other Costs section must appear on the same page as the Total Closing Costs section on page “2b.” The modifications permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(iv)(A) and (B) may be used in conjunction to ensure disclosure of § 1026.38(f) on one page and § 1026.38(g) and (h) on a separate page.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5)(v) Separation of consumer and seller information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permissible form modifications to separate consumer and seller information.</I> The modifications to the form permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(v) may be made by the creditor in any one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>i. Leave the applicable disclosure blank concerning the seller or consumer on the form provided to the other party;
</P>
<P>ii. Omit the table or label, as applicable, for the disclosure concerning the seller or consumer on the form provided to the other party; or
</P>
<P>iii. Provide to the seller, or assist the settlement agent in providing to the seller, a modified version of the form under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vi), as illustrated by form H-25(I) of appendix H to this part.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Provision of separate disclosure to consumer.</I> If applicable State law prohibits sharing with the consumer the information disclosed under § 1026.38(k), a creditor may provide a separate form to the consumer. A creditor may also provide a separate form to the consumer in any other situation where the creditor in its discretion chooses to do so, such as based on the seller's request. For the permissible form modifications to separate consumer and seller information, see comment 38(t)(5)(v)-1.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Provision of separate disclosure to seller.</I> To separate the information of the consumer and seller under § 1026.38(t)(5)(v), a creditor may assist the settlement agent in providing (or provide when acting as a settlement agent) a separate form to the seller where applicable State law prohibits sharing with the seller the information disclosed under § 1026.38(a)(2), (a)(4)(iii), (a)(5), (b) through (d), (f), or (g), with respect to closing costs paid by the consumer, or § 1026.38(i), (j), (l) through (p), or (r), with respect to closing costs paid by the creditor and mortgage broker. A creditor may also assist the settlement agent in providing (or provide when acting as a settlement agent) a separate form to the seller in any other situation where the creditor in its discretion chooses to do so, such as based on the consumer's request. For the permissible form modifications to separate consumer and seller information, see comment 38(t)(5)(v)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5)(vi) Modified version of the form for a seller or third-party.</I>
</P>
<P>1. For permissible form modifications to separate consumer and seller information, see comment 38(t)(5)(v)-1.
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5)(vii) Transaction without a seller or simultaneous subordinate financing transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Alternative tables.</I> The alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e) are required to be disclosed to use the modification permitted under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Appraised property value.</I> The modifications permitted by § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii) do not specifically refer to the label required by § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii)(B) for transactions that do not involve a seller, because the label is required by that section and therefore is not a modification. As required by § 1026.38(a)(3)(vii)(B), a form used for a transaction that does not involve a seller and is modified under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii) must contain the label “Appraised Prop. Value” or “Estimated Prop. Value” where there is no appraisal.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 38(t)(5)(vii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amounts paid by third parties.</I> Under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B), the payoffs and payments table itemizes the amounts of payments made at closing to other parties from the credit extended to the consumer or funds provided by the consumer, including designees of the consumer. Designees of the consumer for purposes of § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) include third parties who provide funds on behalf of the consumer. Such amounts may be disclosed as credits in the payoffs and payments table. Some examples of amounts paid by third parties that may be disclosed as credits on the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) include gift funds, grants, proceeds from loans that satisfy the partial exemption criteria in § 1026.3(h), and, on the Closing Disclosure for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction, contributions from a seller for costs associated with the subordinate financing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of subordinate financing.</I> i. <I>First-lien Closing Disclosure.</I> On the Closing Disclosure for a first-lien transaction disclosed with the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e), such as a refinance transaction, that also has simultaneous subordinate financing, the proceeds of the subordinate financing are included in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) by disclosing, as a credit, the principal amount of the subordinate financing, and, if the net proceeds of the subordinate financing are less than the principal amount of the subordinate financing, the net proceeds. The creditor may list the principal amount and net proceeds of the subordinate financing on the same line. For example, the creditor may disclose the principal amount of the subordinate financing under the subheading “To” with a description of the payment, and the net proceeds of the subordinate financing under the subheading “Amount.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure.</I> On the Closing Disclosure for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction disclosed with the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e), the proceeds of the subordinate financing applied to the first-lien transaction may be included in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B).
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Simultaneous subordinate financing—seller contribution.</I> If a creditor discloses the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e) on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure, the creditor must also disclose as a credit in the payoffs and payments table on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure, any contributions from the seller toward the simultaneous subordinate financing. For example, assume the subordinate-lien creditor provides the alternative tables pursuant to § 1026.38(d)(2) and (e) on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure and the seller contributes $200.00 toward the closing costs of the simultaneous subordinate financing. The subordinate-lien creditor must disclose the $200.00 contribution as a credit on the simultaneous subordinate financing Closing Disclosure in the payoffs and payments table under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B). See also comments 38(j)-3 and 38(k)(2)(vii)-1 for disclosure requirements applicable to the first-lien transaction when the alternative disclosures are used for a simultaneous subordinate financing transaction and a seller contributes to the costs of the subordinate financing.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other examples.</I> For additional examples of items disclosed under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B), see comment 37(h)(2)(iii)-1. See also comment 38-4 for an explanation of how to disclose a principal reduction under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B).
</P>
<P><I>38(t)(5)(ix) Customary recitals and information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Customary recitals and information.</I> Section 1026.38(t)(5)(ix) permits an additional page to be added to the disclosure for customary recitals and information used locally in real estate settlements. Examples of such information include a breakdown of payoff figures, a breakdown of the consumer's total monthly mortgage payments, check disbursements, a statement indicating receipt of funds, applicable special stipulations between buyer and seller, and the date funds are transferred.








</P>
<P><I>38(u)—PACE Transactions</I>


</P>
<P><I>38(u)(9) Exceptions</I>


</P>
<HD3>38(u)(9)(ii)(A) PACE Nomenclature
</HD3>
<P>1. Wherever § 1026.38 requires disclosure of the word “PACE” or form H-25(K) of appendix H uses the term “PACE,” § 1026.38(u)(9)(ii)(A) permits a creditor to substitute the name of a specific PACE financing program that will be recognizable to the consumer in lieu of the term “PACE.” The name of a specific PACE financing program will not be recognizable to the consumer unless it is used consistently in financing documents for the PACE transaction and any marketing materials provided to the consumer. For example, if the name XYZ Financing is used in marketing materials and financing documents provided to the consumer for the PACE transaction, such that XYZ Financing will be recognizable to the consumer, the creditor may substitute the name XYZ Financing for PACE on the Closing Disclosure.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.39—Mortgage Transfer Disclosures
</HD2>
<HD3>39(a) Scope
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(a)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Covered persons.</I> The disclosure requirements of this section apply to any “covered person” that becomes the legal owner of an existing mortgage loan, whether through a purchase, or other transfer or assignment, regardless of whether the person also meets the definition of a “creditor” in Regulation Z. The fact that a person purchases or acquires mortgage loans and provides the disclosures under this section does not by itself make that person a “creditor” as defined in the regulation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquisition of legal title.</I> To become a “covered person” subject to this section, a person must become the owner of an existing mortgage loan by acquiring legal title to the debt obligation.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Partial interest.</I> A person may become a covered person by acquiring a partial interest in the mortgage loan. If the original creditor transfers a partial interest in the loan to one or more persons, all such transferees are covered persons under this section.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Joint acquisitions.</I> All persons that jointly acquire legal title to the loan are covered persons under this section, and under § 1026.39(b)(5), a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all such covered persons. Multiple persons are deemed to jointly acquire legal title to the loan if each acquires a partial interest in the loan pursuant to the same agreement or by otherwise acting in concert. <I>See</I> comments 39(b)(5)-1 and 39(d)(1)(ii)-1 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple persons that jointly acquire a loan.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Affiliates.</I> An acquiring party that is a separate legal entity from the transferor must provide the disclosures required by this section even if the parties are affiliated entities.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Exclusions.</I> i. <I>Beneficial interest.</I> Section 1026.39 does not apply to a party that acquires only a beneficial interest or a security interest in the loan, or to a party that assumes the credit risk without acquiring legal title to the loan. For example, an investor that acquires mortgage-backed securities, pass-through certificates, or participation interests and does not acquire legal title in the underlying mortgage loans is not covered by this section.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Loan servicers.</I> Pursuant to TILA Section 131(f)(2), the servicer of a mortgage loan is not the owner of the obligation for purposes of this section if the servicer holds title to the loan as a result of the assignment of the obligation to the servicer solely for the administrative convenience of the servicer in servicing the obligation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mergers, corporate acquisitions, or reorganizations.</I> Disclosures are required under this section when, as a result of a merger, corporate acquisition, or reorganization, the ownership of a mortgage loan is transferred to a different legal entity.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(a)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage transactions covered.</I> Section 1026.39 applies to closed-end or open-end consumer credit transactions secured by the principal dwelling of a consumer.
</P>
<HD3>39(b) Disclosure Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> A covered person must mail or deliver the disclosures required by this section on or before the 30th calendar day following the date of transfer, unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. For example, if a covered person acquires a mortgage loan on March 15, the disclosure must be mailed or delivered on or before April 14.
</P>
<HD3>39(b)(1) Form of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Combining disclosures.</I> The disclosures under this section can be combined with other materials or disclosures, including the transfer of servicing notices required by the Real Estate Settlement Procedure Act (12 U.S.C. 2601 <I>et seq.</I>) so long as the combined disclosure satisfies the timing and other requirements of this section.
</P>
<HD3>39(b)(4) Multiple Transfers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Single disclosure for multiple transfers.</I> A mortgage loan might be acquired by a covered person and subsequently transferred to another entity that is also a covered person required to provide the disclosures under this section. In such cases, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons instead of providing two separate disclosures if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person. For example, if a covered person acquires a loan on March 15 with the intent to assign the loan to another entity on April 30, the covered person could mail the disclosure on or before April 14 to provide the required information for both entities and indicate when the subsequent transfer is expected to occur.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Estimating the date.</I> When a covered person provides the disclosure required by this section that also describes a subsequent transfer, the date of the subsequent transfer may be estimated when the exact date is unknown at the time the disclosure is made. Information is unknown if it is not reasonably available to the covered person at the time the disclosure is made. The “reasonably available” standard requires that the covered person, acting in good faith, exercise due diligence in obtaining information. The covered person normally may rely on the representations of other parties in obtaining information. The covered person might make the disclosure using an estimated date even though the covered person knows that more precise information will be available in the future. For example, a covered person may provide a disclosure on March 31 stating that it acquired the loan on March 15 and that a transfer to another entity is expected to occur “on or around” April 30, even if more precise information will be available by April 14.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Duty to comply.</I> Even though one covered person provides the disclosures for another covered person, each has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies.
</P>
<HD3>39(b)(5) Multiple Covered Person
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Single disclosure required.</I> If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons instead of providing separate disclosures. <I>See</I> comment 39(a)(1)-2.ii regarding a joint acquisition of legal title, and comment 39(d)(1)(ii)-1 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple persons that jointly acquire a loan. If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan and complete the acquisition on separate dates, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all persons on or before the 30th day following the earliest acquisition date. For examples, if covered persons A and B enter into an agreement with the original creditor to jointly acquire the loan, and complete the acquisition on March 15 and March 25, respectively, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of both persons on or before April 14. If the two acquisition dates are more than 30 days apart, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of both persons on or before the 30th day following the earlier acquisition date, even though one person has not completed its acquisition. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-2 regarding use of an estimated date of transfer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Single disclosure not required.</I> If multiple covered persons each acquire a partial interest in the loan pursuant to separate and unrelated agreements and not jointly, each covered person has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. The parties may, but are not required to, provide a single disclosure that satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing requirements.</I> A single disclosure provided on behalf of multiple covered persons must satisfy the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Duty to comply.</I> Even though one covered person provides the disclosures for another covered person, each has a duty to ensure that disclosures related to its acquisition are accurate and provided in a timely manner unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. <I>See</I> comments 39(c)(1)-2, 39(c)(3)-1 and 39(c)(3)-2 regarding transfers of a partial interest in the mortgage loan.
</P>
<HD3>39(c) Exceptions 
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(c)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transfer of all interest.</I> A covered person is not required to provide the disclosures required by this section if it sells, assigns or otherwise transfers all of its interest in the mortgage loan on or before the 30th calendar day following the date that it acquired the loan. For example, if covered person A acquires the loan on March 15 and subsequently transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person B on April 1, person A is not required to provide the disclosures required by this section. Person B, however, must provide the disclosures required by this section unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfer of partial interests.</I> A covered person that subsequently transfers a partial interest in the loan is required to provide the disclosures required by this section if the covered person retains a partial interest in the loan on the 30th calendar day after it acquired the loan, unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. For example, if covered person A acquires the loan on March 15 and subsequently transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B on April 1, person A is required to provide the disclosures under this section if it retains a partial interest in the loan on April 14. Person B in this example must also provide the disclosures required under this section unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. Either person A or person B could provide the disclosure on behalf of both of them if the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each of them. In this example, a single disclosure for both covered persons would have to be provided on or before April 14 to satisfy the timing requirements for person A's acquisition of the loan on March 15. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-1 regarding a single disclosure for multiple transfers.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(c)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Repurchase agreements.</I> The original creditor or owner of the mortgage loan might sell, assign or otherwise transfer legal title to the loan to secure temporary business financing under an agreement that obligates the original creditor or owner to repurchase the loan. The covered person that acquires the loan in connection with such a repurchase agreement is not required to provide disclosures under this section. However, if the transferor does not repurchase the mortgage loan, the acquiring party must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Intermediary parties.</I> The exception in § 1026.39(c)(2) applies regardless of whether the repurchase arrangement involves an intermediary party. For example, legal title to the loan may transfer from the original creditor to party A through party B as an intermediary. If the original creditor is obligated to repurchase the loan, neither party A nor party B is required to provide the disclosures under this section. However, if the original creditor does not repurchase the loan, party A must provide the disclosures required by this section within 30 days after the date that the transaction is recognized as an acquisition on its books and records unless another exception in § 1026.39(c) applies.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(c)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Acquisition of partial interests.</I> This exception applies if the covered person acquires only a partial interest in the loan, and there is no change in the agent or person authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments. If, as a result of the transfer of a partial interest in the loan, a different agent or party is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments, the disclosures under this section must be provided.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. A covered person is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if it acquires a partial interest in the loan from the original creditor who remains authorized to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments after the transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. The original creditor transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person A. Person A does not provide the disclosures under this section because the exception in § 1026.39(c)(3) applies. The creditor then transfers the remaining fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B and does not retain any interest in the loan. Person B must provide the disclosures under this section.
</P>
<P>iii. The original creditor transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person A and also authorizes party X as its agent to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. Since there is a change in an agent or party authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments, person A is required to provide the disclosures under this section. Person A then transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person B. Person B is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if the original creditor retains a partial interest in the loan and party X retains the same authority.
</P>
<P>iv. The original creditor transfers all of its interest in the loan to covered person A. Person A provides the disclosures under this section and notifies the consumer that party X is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. Person A then transfers fifty percent of its interest in the loan to covered person B. Person B is not required to provide the disclosures under this section if person A retains a partial interest in the loan and party X retains the same authority.
</P>
<HD3>39(d) Content of Required Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identifying the loan.</I> The disclosures required by this section must identify the loan that was acquired or transferred. The covered person has flexibility in determining what information to provide for this purpose and may use any information that would reasonably inform a consumer which loan was acquired or transferred. For example, the covered person may identify the loan by stating:
</P>
<P>i. The address of the mortgaged property along with the account number or loan number previously disclosed to the consumer, which may appear in a truncated format;
</P>
<P>ii. The account number alone, or other identifying number, if that number has been previously provided to the consumer, such as on a statement that the consumer receives monthly; or
</P>
<P>iii. The date on which the credit was extended and the original amount of the loan or credit line.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Partial payment policy.</I> The disclosures required by § 1026.39(d)(5) must identify whether the covered person accepts periodic payments from the consumer that are less than the full amount due and whether the covered person applies the payments to a consumer's loan or holds the payments in a separate account until the consumer pays the remainder of the full amount due. The disclosures required by § 1026.39(d)(5) apply only to a mortgage loan that is a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling or real property and that is not a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33. In an open-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, § 1026.39(d) requires a covered person to provide the disclosures required by § 1026.39(d)(1) through (4), but not the partial payment policy disclosure required by § 1026.39(d)(5). If, however, the dwelling in the open-end consumer credit transaction is not the consumer's principal dwelling (<I>e.g.,</I> it is used solely for vacation purposes), none of the disclosures required by § 1026.39(d) is required because the transaction is not a mortgage loan for purposes of § 1026.39. <I>See</I> § 1026.39(a)(2). In contrast, a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's dwelling that is not the consumer's principal dwelling is considered a mortgage loan for purposes of § 1026.39. Assuming that the transaction is not a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33, § 1026.39(d) requires a covered person to provide the disclosures under § 1026.39(d)(1) through (5). But if the transaction is a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33, § 1026.39(d) requires a covered person to provide only the disclosures under § 1026.39(d)(1) through (4).


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(d)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identification of covered person.</I> Section 1026.39(d)(1) requires a covered person to provide its name, address, and telephone number. The party identified must be the covered person who owns the mortgage loan, regardless of whether another party services the loan or is the covered person's agent. In addition to providing its name, address and telephone number, the covered person may, at its option, provide an address for receiving electronic mail or an Internet Web site address, but is not required to do so.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(d)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple transfers, single disclosure.</I> If a mortgage loan is acquired by a covered person and subsequently transferred to another covered person, a single disclosure may be provided on behalf of both covered persons instead of providing two separate disclosures as long as the disclosure satisfies the timing and content requirements applicable to each covered person. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(4)-1 regarding multiple transfers. A single disclosure for multiple transfers must state the name, address, and telephone number of each covered person unless § 1026.39(d)(1)(ii) applies.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(d)(1)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple covered persons, single disclosure.</I> If multiple covered persons jointly acquire the loan, a single disclosure must be provided on behalf of all covered persons instead of providing separate disclosures. The single disclosure must provide the name, address, and telephone number of each covered person unless § 1026.39(d)(1)(ii) applies and one of the covered persons has been authorized in accordance with § 1026.39(d)(3) of this section to receive the consumer's notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. In such cases, the information required by § 1026.39(d)(1) may be provided only for that covered person.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple covered persons, multiple disclosures.</I> If multiple covered persons each acquire a partial interest in the loan in separate transactions and not jointly, each covered person must comply with the disclosure requirements of this section unless an exception in § 1026.39(c) applies. <I>See</I> comment 39(a)(1)-2.ii regarding a joint acquisition of legal title, and comment 39(b)(5)-2 regarding the disclosure requirements for multiple covered persons.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(d)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identifying agents.</I> Under § 1026.39(d)(3), the covered person must provide the name, address and telephone number for the agent or other party having authority to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan. If multiple persons are identified under this paragraph, the disclosure shall provide the name, address and telephone number for each and indicate the extent to which the authority of each person differs. Section 1026.39(d)(3) does not require that a covered person designate an agent or other party, but if the consumer cannot contact the covered person for these purposes, the disclosure must provide the name, address and telephone number for an agent or other party that can address these matters. If an agent or other party is authorized to receive the notice of the right to rescind and resolve issues concerning the consumer's payments on the loan, the disclosure can state that the consumer may contact that agent regarding any questions concerning the consumer's account without specifically mentioning rescission or payment issues. However, if multiple agents are listed on the disclosure, the disclosure shall state the extent to which the authority of each agent differs by indicating if only one of the agents is authorized to receive notice of the right to rescind, or only one of the agents is authorized to resolve issues concerning payments.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other contact information.</I> The covered person may also provide an agent's electronic mail address or Internet Web site address, but is not required to do so.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 39(d)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Where recorded.</I> Section 1026.39(d)(4) requires the covered person to disclose where transfer of ownership of the debt to the covered person is recorded if it has been recorded in public records. Alternatively, the disclosure can state that the transfer of ownership of the debt has not been recorded in public records at the time the disclosure is provided, if that is the case, or the disclosure can state where the transfer may later be recorded. An exact address is not required and it would be sufficient, for example, to state that the transfer of ownership is recorded in the office of public land records or the recorder of deeds office for the county or local jurisdiction where the property is located.
</P>
<HD3>39(d)(5) Partial payment policy.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Format of disclosure.</I> Section 1026.39(d)(5) requires disclosure of the partial payment policy of covered persons for closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling or real property, other than a reverse mortgage transaction subject to § 1026.33. A covered person may utilize the format of the disclosure illustrated by form H-25 of appendix H to this part for the information required to be disclosed by § 1026.38(l)(5). For example, the statement required § 1026.39(d)(5)(iii) that a new covered person may have a different partial payment policy may be disclosed using the language illustrated by form H-25, which states “If this loan is sold, your new lender may have a different policy.” The text illustrated by form H-25 may be modified to suit the format of the covered person's disclosure under § 1026.39. For example, the format illustrated by form H-25 begins with the text, “Your lender may” or “Your lender does not,” which may not be suitable to the format of the covered person's other disclosures under § 1026.39. This text may be modified to suit the format of the covered person's integrated disclosure, using a phrase such as “We will” or “We are your new lender and have a different Partial Payment Policy than your previous lender. Under our policy we will.” Any modifications must be appropriate and not affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the disclosure.


</P>
<HD3>39(e) Optional Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> Section 1026.39(e) provides that covered persons may, at their option, include additional information about the mortgage transaction that they consider relevant or helpful to consumers. For example, the covered person may choose to inform consumers that the location where they should send mortgage payments has not changed. <I>See</I> comment 39(b)(1)-1 regarding combined disclosures.




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.40—Requirements for Home-Equity Plans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This section applies to all open-end credit plans secured by the consumer's <I>dwelling,</I> as defined in § 1026.2(a)(19), and is not limited to plans secured by the consumer's principal dwelling. (See the commentary to § 1026.3(a), which discusses whether transactions are consumer or business-purpose credit, for guidance on whether a home equity plan is subject to Regulation Z.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes to home equity plans entered into on or after November 7, 1989.</I> Section 1026.9(c) applies if, by written agreement under § 1026.40(f)(3)(iii), a creditor changes the terms of a home equity plan—entered into on or after November 7, 1989—at or before its scheduled expiration, for example, by renewing a plan on different terms. A new plan results, however, if the plan is renewed (with or without changes to the terms) after the scheduled expiration. The new plan is subject to all open-end credit rules, including §§ 1026.6, 1026.15, and 1026.40.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transition rules and renewals of preexisting plans.</I> The requirements of this section do not apply to home equity plans entered into before November 7, 1989. The requirements of this section also do not apply if the original consumer, on or after November 7, 1989, renews a plan entered into prior to that date (with or without changes to the terms). If, on or after November 7, 1989, a security interest in the consumer's dwelling is added to a line of credit entered into before that date, the substantive restrictions of this section apply for the remainder of the plan, but no new disclosures are required under this section.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosure of repayment phase—applicability of requirements.</I> Some plans provide in the initial agreement for a period during which no further draws may be taken and repayment of the amount borrowed is made. All of the applicable disclosures in this section must be given for the repayment phase. Thus, for example, a creditor must provide payment information about the repayment phase as well as about the draw period, as required by § 1026.40(d)(5). If the rate that will apply during the repayment phase is fixed at a known amount, the creditor must provide an annual percentage rate under § 1026.40(d)(6) for that phase. If, however, a creditor uses an index to determine the rate that will apply at the time of conversion to the repayment phase—even if the rate will thereafter be fixed—the creditor must provide the information in § 1026.40(d)(12), as applicable.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Payment terms—applicability of closed-end provisions and substantive rules.</I> All payment terms that are provided for in the initial agreement are subject to the requirements of subpart B and not subpart C of the regulation. Payment terms that are subsequently added to the agreement may be subject to subpart B or to subpart C, depending on the circumstances. The following examples apply these general rules to different situations:
</P>
<P>i. If the initial agreement provides for a repayment phase or for other payment terms such as options permitting conversion of part or all of the balance to a fixed rate during the draw period, these terms must be disclosed pursuant to §§ 1026.6 and 1026.40, and not under subpart C. Furthermore, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements under § 1026.7 and comply with other provisions of subpart B (such as the substantive requirements of § 1026.40(f)) throughout the plan, including the repayment phase.
</P>
<P>ii. If the consumer and the creditor enter into an agreement during the draw period to repay all or part of the principal balance on different terms (for example, with a fixed rate of interest) and the amount of available credit will be replenished as the principal balance is repaid, the creditor must continue to comply with subpart B. For example, the creditor must continue to provide periodic statements and comply with the substantive requirements of § 1026.40(f) throughout the plan.
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer and creditor enter into an agreement during the draw period to repay all or part of the principal balance and the amount of available credit will not be replenished as the principal balance is repaid, the creditor must give closed-end credit disclosures pursuant to subpart C for that new agreement. In such cases, subpart B, including the substantive rules, does not apply to the closed-end credit transaction, although it will continue to apply to any remaining open-end credit available under the plan.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Spreader clause.</I> When a creditor holds a mortgage or deed of trust on the consumer's dwelling and that mortgage or deed of trust contains a <I>spreader clause</I> (also known as a <I>dragnet</I> or cross-collateralization clause), subsequent occurrences such as the opening of an open-end plan are subject to the rules applicable to home equity plans to the same degree as if a security interest were taken directly to secure the plan, unless the creditor effectively waives its security interest under the spreader clause with respect to the subsequent open-end credit extensions.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Appraisals and other valuations.</I> For consumer credit transactions subject to § 1026.40 and secured by the consumer's principal dwelling, creditors and other persons must comply with the requirements for appraisals and other valuations under § 1026.42.
</P>
<HD3>40(a) Form of Disclosures 
</HD3>
<HD3>40(a)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written disclosures.</I> The disclosures required under this section must be clear and conspicuous and in writing, but need not be in a form the consumer can keep. (<I>See</I> the commentary to § 1026.6(a)(3) for special rules when disclosures required under § 1026.40(d) are given in a retainable form.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosure of annual percentage rate—more conspicuous requirement.</I> As provided in § 1026.5(a)(2), when the term <I>annual percentage rate</I> is required to be disclosed with a number, it must be more conspicuous than other required disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Segregation of disclosures.</I> i. While most of the disclosures must be grouped together and segregated from all unrelated information, the creditor is permitted to include information that explains or expands on the required disclosures, including, for example:
</P>
<P>A. Any prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>B. How a substitute index may be chosen.
</P>
<P>C. Actions the creditor may take short of terminating and accelerating an outstanding balance.
</P>
<P>D. Renewal terms.
</P>
<P>E. Rebate of fees.
</P>
<P>ii. An example of information that does not explain or expand on the required disclosures and thus cannot be included is the creditor's underwriting criteria, although the creditor could provide such information separately from the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Method of providing disclosures.</I> A creditor may provide a single disclosure form for all of its home equity plans, as long as the disclosure describes all aspects of the plans. For example, if the creditor offers several payment options, all such options must be disclosed. (See, however, the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12) (x) and (xi) for disclosure requirements relating to these provisions.) If any aspects of a plan are linked together, the creditor must disclose clearly the relationship of the terms to each other. For example, if the consumer can only obtain a particular payment option in conjunction with a certain variable-rate feature, this fact must be disclosed. A creditor has the option of providing separate disclosure forms for multiple options or variations in features. For example, a creditor that offers different payment options for the draw period may prepare separate disclosure forms for the two payment options. A creditor using this alternative, however, must include a statement on each disclosure form that the consumer should ask about the creditor's other home equity programs. (This disclosure is required only for those programs available generally to the public. Thus, if the only other programs available are employee preferred-rate plans, for example, the creditor would not have to provide this statement.) A creditor that receives a request for information about other available programs must provide the additional disclosures as soon as reasonably possible.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Form of electronic disclosures provided on or with electronic applications.</I> Creditors must provide the disclosures required by this section (including the brochure) on or with a blank application that is made available to the consumer in electronic form, such as on a creditor's Internet Web site. Creditors have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. Methods creditors could use to satisfy the requirement include, but are not limited to, the following examples (whatever method is used, a creditor need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures):
</P>
<P>i. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application appears;
</P>
<P>ii. The disclosures could be located on the same Web page as the application (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
</P>
<P>iii. Creditors could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
</P>
<P>iv. The disclosures could be located on the same Web page as the application without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application.
</P>
<HD3>40(a)(2) Precedence of Certain Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Precedence rule.</I> The list of conditions provided at the creditor's option under § 1026.40(d)(4)(iii) need not precede the other disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(a)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If a consumer accesses a home equity credit line application electronically (other than as described under ii. below), such as online at a home computer, the creditor must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application form on its Web site) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application. If the creditor instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the creditor's office, and accesses a home equity credit line application electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the creditor to provide applications to consumers), the creditor may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the creditor complies with the timing, delivery, and retainability requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>40(b) Time of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mail and telephone applications.</I> If the creditor sends applications through the mail, the disclosures and a brochure must accompany the application. If an application is taken over the telephone, the disclosures and brochure may be delivered or mailed within three business days of taking the application. If an application is mailed to the consumer following a telephone request, however, the creditor also must send the disclosures and a brochure along with the application.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General purpose applications.</I> The disclosures and a brochure need not be provided when a general purpose application is given to a consumer unless (1) the application or materials accompanying it indicate that it can be used to apply for a home equity plan or (2) the application is provided in response to a consumer's specific inquiry about a home equity plan. On the other hand, if a general purpose application is provided in response to a consumer's specific inquiry only about credit other than a home equity plan, the disclosures and brochure need not be provided even if the application indicates it can be used for a home equity plan, unless it is accompanied by promotional information about home equity plans.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Publicly-available applications.</I> Some creditors make applications for home equity plans, such as <I>take-ones,</I> available without the need for a consumer to request them. These applications must be accompanied by the disclosures and a brochure, such as by attaching the disclosures and brochure to the application form.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Response cards.</I> A creditor may solicit consumers for its home equity plan by mailing a <I>response card</I> which the consumer returns to the creditor to indicate interest in the plan. If the only action taken by the creditor upon receipt of the response card is to send the consumer an application form or to telephone the consumer to discuss the plan, the creditor need not send the disclosures and brochure with the response card.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Denial or withdrawal of application.</I> In situations where § 1026.40(b) permits the creditor a three-day delay in providing disclosures and the brochure, if the creditor determines within that period that an application will not be approved, the creditor need not provide the consumer with the disclosures or brochure. Similarly, if the consumer withdraws the application within this three-day period, the creditor need not provide the disclosures or brochure.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Intermediary agent or broker.</I> In determining whether or not an application involves an <I>intermediary agent or broker</I> as discussed in § 1026.40(b), creditors should consult the provisions in comment 19(b)-3.
</P>
<HD3>40(c) Duties of Third Parties
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure requirements.</I> Although third parties who give applications to consumers for home equity plans must provide the brochure required under § 1026.40(e) in all cases, such persons need provide the disclosures required under § 1026.40(d) only in certain instances. A third party has no duty to obtain disclosures about a creditor's home equity plan or to create a set of disclosures based on what it knows about a creditor's plan. If, however, a creditor provides the third party with disclosures along with its application form, the third party must give the disclosures to the consumer with the application form. The duties under this section are those of the third party; the creditor is not responsible for ensuring that a third party complies with those obligations. If an intermediary agent or broker takes an application over the telephone or receives an application contained in a magazine or other publication, § 1026.40(c) permits that person to mail the disclosures and brochure within three business days of receipt of the application. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(h) about imposition of nonrefundable fees.)
</P>
<HD3>40(d) Content of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosures given as applicable.</I> The disclosures required under this section need be made only as applicable. Thus, for example, if negative amortization cannot occur in a home equity plan, a reference to it need not be made.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Duty to respond to requests for information.</I> If the consumer, prior to the opening of a plan, requests information as suggested in the disclosures (such as the current index value or margin), the creditor must provide this information as soon as reasonably possible after the request.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(1) Retention of Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When disclosure not required.</I> The creditor need not disclose that the consumer should make or otherwise retain a copy of the disclosures if they are retainable—for example, if the disclosures are not part of an application that must be returned to the creditor to apply for the plan.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(2) Conditions for Disclosed Terms
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Guaranteed terms.</I> The requirement that the creditor disclose the time by which an application must be submitted to obtain the disclosed terms does not require the creditor to guarantee any terms. If a creditor chooses not to guarantee any terms, it must disclose that all of the terms are subject to change prior to opening the plan. The creditor also is permitted to guarantee some terms and not others, but must indicate which terms are subject to change.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date for obtaining disclosed terms.</I> The creditor may disclose either a specific date or a time period for obtaining the disclosed terms. If the creditor discloses a time period, the consumer must be able to determine from the disclosure the specific date by which an application must be submitted to obtain any guaranteed terms. For example, the disclosure might read, “To obtain the following terms, you must submit your application within 60 days after the date appearing on this disclosure,” provided the disclosure form also shows the date.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relation to other provisions.</I> Creditors should consult the rules in § 1026.40(g) regarding refund of fees.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(4) Possible Actions by Creditor
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(4)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees imposed upon termination.</I> This disclosure applies only to fees (such as penalty or prepayment fees) that the creditor imposes if it terminates the plan prior to normal expiration. The disclosure does not apply to fees that are imposed either when the plan expires in accordance with the agreement or if the consumer terminates the plan prior to its scheduled maturity. In addition, the disclosure does not apply to fees associated with collection of the debt, such as attorneys fees and court costs, or to increases in the annual percentage rate linked to the consumer's failure to make payments. The actual amount of the fee need not be disclosed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Changes specified in the initial agreement.</I> If changes may occur pursuant to § 1026.40(f)(3)(i), a creditor must state that certain changes will be implemented as specified in the initial agreement.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(4)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure of conditions.</I> In making this disclosure, the creditor may provide a highlighted copy of the document that contains such information, such as the contract or security agreement. The relevant items must be distinguished from the other information contained in the document. For example, the creditor may provide a cover sheet that specifically points out which contract provisions contain the information, or may mark the relevant items on the document itself. As an alternative to disclosing the conditions in this manner, the creditor may simply describe the conditions using the language in §§ 1026.40(f)(2)(i)-(iii), 1026.40(f)(3)(i) (regarding freezing the line when the maximum annual percentage rate is reached), and 1026.40(f)(3)(vi) or language that is substantially similar. The condition contained in § 1026.40(f)(2)(iv) need not be stated. In describing specified changes that may be implemented during the plan, the creditor may provide a disclosure such as “Our agreement permits us to make certain changes to the terms of the line at specified times or upon the occurrence of specified events.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosure.</I> The list of conditions under § 1026.40(d)(4)(iii) may appear with the segregated disclosures or apart from them. If the creditor elects to provide the list of conditions with the segregated disclosures, the list need not comply with the precedence rule in § 1026.40(a)(2).
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(5) Payment Terms
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(5)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Length of the plan.</I> The combined length of the draw period and any repayment period need not be stated. If the length of the repayment phase cannot be determined because, for example, it depends on the balance outstanding at the beginning of the repayment period, the creditor must state that the length is determined by the size of the balance. If the length of the plan is indefinite (for example, because there is no time limit on the period during which the consumer can take advances), the creditor must state that fact.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Renewal provisions.</I> If, under the credit agreement, a creditor retains the right to review a line at the end of the specified draw period and determine whether to renew or extend the draw period of the plan, the possibility of renewal or extension—regardless of its likelihood—should be ignored for purposes of the disclosures. For example, if an agreement provides that the draw period is five years and that the creditor may renew the draw period for an additional five years, the possibility of renewal should be ignored and the draw period should be considered five years. (See the commentary accompanying § 1026.9(c)(1) dealing with change in terms requirements.)
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(5)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determination of the minimum periodic payment.</I> This disclosure must reflect how the minimum periodic payment is determined, but need only describe the principal and interest components of the payment. Other charges that may be part of the payment (as well as the balance computation method) may, but need not, be described under this provision.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fixed rate and term payment options during draw period.</I> If the home equity plan permits the consumer to repay all or part of the balance during the draw period at a fixed rate (rather than a variable rate) and over a specified time period, this feature must be disclosed. To illustrate, a variable-rate plan may permit a consumer to elect during a ten-year draw period to repay all or a portion of the balance over a three-year period at a fixed rate. The creditor must disclose the rules relating to this feature including the period during which the option can be selected, the length of time over which repayment can occur, any fees imposed for such a feature, and the specific rate or a description of the index and margin that will apply upon exercise of this choice. For example, the index and margin disclosure might state: “If you choose to convert any portion of your balance to a fixed rate, the rate will be the highest prime rate published in the ‘Wall Street Journal’ that is in effect at the date of conversion plus a margin.” If the fixed rate is to be determined according to an index, it must be one that is outside the creditor's control and is publicly available in accordance with § 1026.40(f)(1). The effect of exercising the option should not be reflected elsewhere in the disclosures, such as in the historical example required in § 1026.40(d)(12)(xi).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balloon payments.</I> In programs where the occurrence of a balloon payment is possible, the creditor must disclose the possibility of a balloon payment even if such a payment is uncertain or unlikely. In such cases, the disclosure might read, “Your minimum payments may not be sufficient to fully repay the principal that is outstanding on your line. If they are not, you will be required to pay the entire outstanding balance in a single payment.” In programs where a balloon payment will occur, such as programs with interest-only payments during the draw period and no repayment period, the disclosures must state that fact. For example, the disclosure might read, “Your minimum payments will not repay the principal that is outstanding on your line. You will be required to pay the entire outstanding balance in a single payment.” In making this disclosure, the creditor is not required to use the term “balloon payment.” The creditor also is not required to disclose the amount of the balloon payment. (See, however, the requirement under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii).) The balloon payment disclosure does not apply in cases where repayment of the entire outstanding balance would occur only as a result of termination and acceleration. The creditor also need not make a disclosure about balloon payments if the final payment could not be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(5)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Minimum periodic payment example.</I> In disclosing the payment example, the creditor may assume that the credit limit as well as the outstanding balance is $10,000 if such an assumption is relevant to calculating payments. (If the creditor only offers lines of credit for less than $10,000, the creditor may assume an outstanding balance of $5,000 instead of $10,000 in making this disclosure.) The example should reflect the payment comprised only of principal and interest. Creditors may provide an additional example reflecting other charges that may be included in the payment, such as credit insurance premiums. Creditors may assume that all months have an equal number of days, that payments are collected in whole cents, and that payments will fall on a business day even though they may be due on a non-business day. For variable-rate plans, the example must be based on the last rate in the historical example required in § 1026.40(d)(12)(xi), or a more recent rate. In cases where the last rate shown in the historical example is different from the index value and margin (for example, due to a rate cap), creditors should calculate the rate by using the index value and margin. A discounted rate may not be considered a more recent rate in calculating this payment example for either variable- or fixed-rate plans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Representative examples.</I> i. In plans with multiple payment options within the draw period or within any repayment period, the creditor may provide representative examples as an alternative to providing examples for each payment option. The creditor may elect to provide representative payment examples based on three categories of payment options. The first category consists of plans that permit minimum payment of only accrued finance charges (<I>interest only</I> plans). The second category includes plans in which a fixed percentage or a fixed fraction of the outstanding balance or credit limit (for example, 2% of the balance or 1/180th of the balance) is used to determine the minimum payment. The third category includes all other types of minimum payment options, such as a specified dollar amount plus any accrued finance charges. Creditors may classify their minimum payment arrangements within one of these three categories even if other features exist, such as varying lengths of a draw or repayment period, required payment of past due amounts, late charges, and minimum dollar amounts. The creditor may use a single example within each category to represent the payment options in that category. For example, if a creditor permits minimum payments of 1%, 2%, 3% or 4% of the outstanding balance, it may pick one of these four options and provide the example required under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) for that option alone.
</P>
<P>ii. The example used to represent a category must be an option commonly chosen by consumers, or a typical or representative example. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(12)(x) and (xi) for a discussion of the use of representative examples for making those disclosures. Creditors using a representative example within each category must use the same example for purposes of the disclosures under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) and (d)(12)(x) and (xi).) Creditors may use representative examples under § 1026.40(d)(5) only with respect to the payment example required under paragraph (d)(5)(iii). Creditors must provide a full narrative description of all payment options under § 1026.40(d)(5)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples for draw and repayment periods.</I> Separate examples must be given for the draw and repayment periods unless the payments are determined the same way during both periods. In setting forth payment examples for any repayment period under this section (and the historical example under § 1026.40(d)(12)(xi)), creditors should assume a $10,000 advance is taken at the beginning of the draw period and is reduced according to the terms of the plan. Creditors should not assume an additional advance is taken at any time, including at the beginning of any repayment period.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> Reverse mortgages, also known as reverse annuity or home equity conversion mortgages, in addition to permitting the consumer to obtain advances, may involve the disbursement of monthly advances to the consumer for a fixed period or until the occurrence of an event such as the consumer's death. Repayment of the reverse mortgage (generally a single payment of principal and accrued interest) may be required to be made at the end of the disbursements or, for example, upon the death of the consumer. In disclosing these plans, creditors must apply the following rules, as applicable:
</P>
<P>i. If the reverse mortgage has a specified period for advances and disbursements but repayment is due only upon occurrence of a future event such as the death of the consumer, the creditor must assume that disbursements will be made until they are scheduled to end. The creditor must assume repayment will occur when disbursements end (or within a period following the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval between disbursements). This assumption should be used even though repayment may occur before or after the disbursements are scheduled to end. In such cases, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume that you will repay the line at the time the draw period and our payments to you end. As provided in your agreement, your repayment may be required at a different time.” The single payment should be considered the “minimum periodic payment” and consequently would not be treated as a balloon payment. The example of the minimum payment under § 1026.40(d)(5)(iii) should assume a single $10,000 draw.
</P>
<P>ii. If the reverse mortgage has neither a specified period for advances or disbursements nor a specified repayment date and these terms will be determined solely by reference to future events, including the consumer's death, the creditor may assume that the draws and disbursements will end upon the consumer's death (estimated by using actuarial tables, for example) and that repayment will be required at the same time (or within a period following the date of the final disbursement which is not longer than the regular interval for disbursements). Alternatively, the creditor may base the disclosures upon another future event it estimates will be most likely to occur first. (If terms will be determined by reference to future events which do not include the consumer's death, the creditor must base the disclosures upon the occurrence of the event estimated to be most likely to occur first.)
</P>
<P>iii. In making the disclosures, the creditor must assume that all draws and disbursements and accrued interest will be paid by the consumer. For example, if the note has a non-recourse provision providing that the consumer is not obligated for an amount greater than the value of the house, the creditor must nonetheless assume that the full amount to be drawn or disbursed will be repaid. In this case, however, the creditor may include a statement such as “The disclosures assume full repayment of the amount advanced plus accrued interest, although the amount you may be required to pay is limited by your agreement.”
</P>
<P>iv. Some reverse mortgages provide that some or all of the appreciation in the value of the property will be shared between the consumer and the creditor. The creditor must disclose the appreciation feature, including describing how the creditor's share will be determined, any limitations, and when the feature may be exercised.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(6) Annual Percentage Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preferred-rate plans.</I> If a creditor offers a preferential fixed-rate plan in which the rate will increase a specified amount upon the occurrence of a specified event, the creditor must disclose the specific amount the rate will increase.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(7) Fees Imposed by Creditor
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The fees referred to in § 1026.40(d)(7) include items such as application fees, points, annual fees, transaction fees, fees to obtain checks to access the plan, and fees imposed for converting to a repayment phase that is provided for in the original agreement. This disclosure includes any fees that are imposed by the creditor to use or maintain the plan, whether the fees are kept by the creditor or a third party. For example, if a creditor requires an annual credit report on the consumer and requires the consumer to pay this fee to the creditor or directly to the third party, the fee must be specifically stated. Third party fees to open the plan that are initially paid by the consumer to the creditor may be included in this disclosure or in the disclosure under § 1026.40(d)(8).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Manner of describing fees.</I> Charges may be stated as an estimated dollar amount for each fee, or as a percentage of a typical or representative amount of credit. The creditor may provide a stepped fee schedule in which a fee will increase a specified amount at a specified date. (See the discussion contained in the commentary to § 1026.40(f)(3)(i).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees not required to be disclosed.</I> Fees that are not imposed to open, use, or maintain a plan, such as fees for researching an account, photocopying, paying late, stopping payment, having a check returned, exceeding the credit limit, or closing out an account do not have to be disclosed under this section. Credit report and appraisal fees imposed to investigate whether a condition permitting a freeze continues to exist—as discussed in the commentary to § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)—are not required to be disclosed under this section or § 1026.40(d)(8).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates of closing costs.</I> If closing costs are imposed they must be disclosed, regardless of whether such costs may be rebated later (for example, rebated to the extent of any interest paid during the first year of the plan).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Terms used in disclosure.</I> Creditors need not use the terms <I>finance charge</I> or <I>other charge</I> in describing the fees imposed by the creditor under this section or those imposed by third parties under § 1026.40(d)(8).
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(8) Fees Imposed by Third Parties to Open a Plan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> Section 1026.40(d)(8) applies only to fees imposed by third parties to open the plan. Thus, for example, this section does not require disclosure of a fee imposed by a government agency at the end of a plan to release a security interest. Fees to be disclosed include appraisal, credit report, government agency, and attorneys fees. In cases where property insurance is required by the creditor, the creditor either may disclose the amount of the premium or may state that property insurance is required. For example, the disclosure might state, “You must carry insurance on the property that secures this plan.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemization of third-party fees.</I> In all cases creditors must state the total of third-party fees as a single dollar amount or a range except that the total need not include costs for property insurance if the creditor discloses that such insurance is required. A creditor has two options with regard to providing the more detailed information about third party fees. Creditors may provide a statement that the consumer may request more specific cost information about third party fees from the creditor. As an alternative to including this statement, creditors may provide an itemization of such fees (by type and amount) with the early disclosures. Any itemization provided upon the consumer's request need not include a disclosure about property insurance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Manner of describing fees.</I> A good faith estimate of the amount of fees must be provided. Creditors may provide, based on a typical or representative amount of credit, a range for such fees or state the dollar amount of such fees. Fees may be expressed on a unit cost basis, for example, $5 per $1,000 of credit.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rebates of third party fees.</I> Even if fees imposed by third parties may be rebated, they must be disclosed. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(7).)
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(9) Negative Amortization
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Disclosure required.</I> In transactions where the minimum payment will not or may not be sufficient to cover the interest that accrues on the outstanding balance, the creditor must disclose that negative amortization will or may occur. This disclosure is required whether or not the unpaid interest is added to the outstanding balance upon which interest is computed. A disclosure is not required merely because a loan calls for non-amortizing or partially amortizing payments.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(10) Transaction Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> A limitation on automated teller machine usage need not be disclosed under this paragraph unless that is the only means by which the consumer can obtain funds.
</P>
<HD3>40(d)(12) Disclosures for Variable-Rate Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate provisions.</I> Sample forms in appendix G-14 provide illustrative guidance on the variable-rate rules.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(12)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Determination of annual percentage rate.</I> If the creditor adjusts its index through the addition of a margin, the disclosure might read, “Your annual percentage rate is based on the index plus a margin.” The creditor is not required to disclose a specific value for the margin.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(12)(viii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Preferred-rate provisions.</I> This paragraph requires disclosure of preferred-rate provisions, where the rate will increase upon the occurrence of some event, such as the borrower-employee leaving the creditor's employ or the consumer closing an existing deposit account with the creditor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Provisions on conversion to fixed rates.</I> The commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5)(ii) discusses the disclosure requirements for options permitting the consumer to convert from a variable rate to a fixed rate.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(12)(ix)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic limitations on increases in rates.</I> The creditor must disclose any annual limitations on increases in the annual percentage rate. If the creditor bases its rate limitation on 12 monthly billing cycles, such a limitation should be treated as an annual cap. Rate limitations imposed on less than an annual basis must be stated in terms of a specific amount of time. For example, if the creditor imposes rate limitations on only a semiannual basis, this must be expressed as a rate limitation for a six-month time period. If the creditor does not impose periodic limitations (annual or shorter) on rate increases, the fact that there are no annual rate limitations must be stated.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Maximum limitations on increases in rates.</I> The maximum annual percentage rate that may be imposed under each payment option over the term of the plan (including the draw period and any repayment period provided for in the initial agreement) must be provided. The creditor may disclose this rate as a specific number (for example, 18%) or as a specific amount above the initial rate. For example, this disclosure might read, “The maximum annual percentage rate that can apply to your line will be 5 percentage points above your initial rate.” If the creditor states the maximum rate as a specific amount above the initial rate, the creditor must include a statement that the consumer should inquire about the rate limitations that are currently available. If an initial discount is not taken into account in applying maximum rate limitations, that fact must be disclosed. If separate overall limitations apply to rate increases resulting from events such as the exercise of a fixed-rate conversion option or leaving the creditor's employ, those limitations also must be stated. Limitations do not include legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The creditor need not disclose each periodic or maximum rate limitation that is currently available. Instead, the creditor may disclose the range of the lowest and highest periodic and maximum rate limitations that may be applicable to the creditor's home equity plans. Creditors using this alternative must include a statement that the consumer should inquire about the rate limitations that are currently available.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(12)(x)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Maximum rate payment example.</I> In calculating the payment creditors should assume the maximum rate is in effect. Any discounted or premium initial rates or periodic rate limitations should be ignored for purposes of this disclosure. If a range is used to disclose the maximum cap under § 1026.40(d)(12)(ix), the highest rate in the range must be used for the disclosure under this paragraph. As an alternative to making disclosures based on each payment option, the creditor may choose a representative example within the three categories of payment options upon which to base this disclosure. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5).) However, separate examples must be provided for the draw period and for any repayment period unless the payment is determined the same way in both periods. Creditors should calculate the example for the repayment period based on an assumed $10,000 balance. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5) for a discussion of the circumstances in which a creditor may use a lower outstanding balance.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Time the maximum rate could be reached.</I> In stating the date or time when the maximum rate could be reached, creditors should assume the rate increases as rapidly as possible under the plan. In calculating the date or time, creditors should factor in any discounted or premium initial rates and periodic rate limitations. This disclosure must be provided for the draw phase and any repayment phase. Creditors should assume the index and margin shown in the last year of the historical example (or a more recent rate) is in effect at the beginning of each phase.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(d)(12)(xi)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Index movement.</I> Index values and annual percentage rates must be shown for the entire 15 years of the historical example and must be based on the most recent 15 years. The example must be updated annually to reflect the most recent 15 years of index values as soon as reasonably possible after the new index value becomes available. If the values for an index have not been available for 15 years, a creditor need only go back as far as the values have been available and may start the historical example at the year for which values are first available.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Selection of index values.</I> The historical example must reflect the method of choosing index values for the plan. For example, if an average of index values is used in the plan, averages must be used in the example, but if an index value as of a particular date is used, a single index value must be shown. The creditor is required to assume one date (or one period, if an average is used) within a year on which to base the history of index values. The creditor may choose to use index values as of any date or period as long as the index value as of this date or period is used for each year in the example. Only one index value per year need be shown, even if the plan provides for adjustments to the annual percentage rate or payment more than once in a year. In such cases, the creditor can assume that the index rate remained constant for the full year for the purpose of calculating the annual percentage rate and payment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Selection of margin.</I> A value for the margin must be assumed in order to prepare the example. A creditor may select a representative margin that it has used with the index during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures and state that the margin is one that it has used recently. The margin selected may be used until the creditor annually updates the disclosure form to reflect the most recent 15 years of index values.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amount of discount or premium.</I> In reflecting any discounted or premium initial rate, the creditor may select a discount or premium that it has used during the six months preceding preparation of the disclosures, and should disclose that the discount or premium is one that the creditor has used recently. The discount or premium should be reflected in the example for as long as it is in effect. The creditor may assume that a discount or premium that would have been in effect for any part of a year was in effect for the full year for purposes of reflecting it in the historical example.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Rate limitations.</I> Limitations on both periodic and maximum rates must be reflected in the historical example. If ranges of rate limitations are provided under § 1026.40(d)(12)(ix), the highest rates provided in those ranges must be used in the example. Rate limitations that may apply more often than annually should be treated as if they were annual limitations. For example, if a creditor imposes a 1% cap every six months, this should be reflected in the example as if it were a 2% annual cap.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Assumed advances.</I> The creditor should assume that the $10,000 balance is an advance taken at the beginning of the first billing cycle and is reduced according to the terms of the plan, and that the consumer takes no subsequent draws. As discussed in the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5), creditors should not assume an additional advance is taken at the beginning of any repayment period. If applicable, the creditor may assume the $10,000 is both the advance and the credit limit. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5) for a discussion of the circumstances in which a creditor may use a lower outstanding balance.)
</P>
<P>7. <I>Representative payment options.</I> The creditor need not provide an historical example for all of its various payment options, but may select a representative payment option within each of the three categories of payments upon which to base its disclosure. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5).)
</P>
<P>8. <I>Payment information.</I> i. The payment figures in the historical example must reflect all significant program terms. For example, features such as rate and payment caps, a discounted initial rate, negative amortization, and rate carryover must be taken into account in calculating the payment figures if these would have applied to the plan. The historical example should include payments for as much of the length of the plan as would occur during a 15-year period. For example:
</P>
<P>A. If the draw period is 10 years and the repayment period is 15 years, the example should illustrate the entire 10-year draw period and the first 5 years of the repayment period.
</P>
<P>B. If the length of the draw period is 15 years and there is a 15-year repayment phase, the historical example must reflect the payments for the 15-year draw period and would not show any of the repayment period. No additional historical example would be required to reflect payments for the repayment period.
</P>
<P>C. If the length of the plan is less than 15 years, payments in the historical example need only be shown for the number of years in the term. In such cases, however, the creditor must show the index values, margin and annual percentage rates and continue to reflect all significant plan terms such as rate limitations for the entire 15 years.
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor need show only a single payment per year in the example, even though payments may vary during a year. The calculations should be based on the actual payment computation formula, although the creditor may assume that all months have an equal number of days. The creditor may assume that payments are made on the last day of the billing cycle, the billing date or the payment due date, but must be consistent in the manner in which the period used to illustrate payment information is selected. Information about balloon payments and remaining balance may, but need not, be reflected in the example.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Disclosures for repayment period.</I> The historical example must reflect all features of the repayment period, including the appropriate index values, margin, rate limitations, length of the repayment period, and payments. For example, if different indices are used during the draw and repayment periods, the index values for that portion of the 15 years that reflect the repayment period must be the values for the appropriate index.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Reverse mortgages.</I> The historical example for reverse mortgages should reflect 15 years of index values and annual percentage rates, but the payment column should be blank until the year that the single payment will be made, assuming that payment is estimated to occur within 15 years. (See the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5) for a discussion of reverse mortgages.)
</P>
<HD3>40(e) Brochure
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substitutes.</I> A brochure is a suitable substitute for the home equity brochure, “What You Should Know About Home Equity Lines of Credit,” (available on the Bureau's Web site) if it is, at a minimum, comparable to that brochure in substance and comprehensiveness. Creditors are permitted to provide more detailed information than is contained in that brochure.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effect of third party delivery of brochure.</I> If a creditor determines that a third party has provided a consumer with the required brochure pursuant to § 1026.40(c), the creditor need not give the consumer a second brochure.
</P>
<HD3>40(f) Limitations on Home Equity Plans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Section 1026.40(f) limits both actions that may be taken and language that may be included in contracts, and applies to any assignee or holder as well as to the original creditor. The limitations apply to the draw period and any repayment period, and to any renewal or modification of the original agreement.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>External index.</I> A creditor may change the annual percentage rate for a plan only if the change is based on an index outside the creditor's control. Thus, a creditor may not make rate changes based on its own prime rate or cost of funds and may not reserve a contractual right to change rates at its discretion. A creditor is permitted, however, to use a published prime rate, such as that in the Wall Street Journal, even if the bank's own prime rate is one of several rates used to establish the published rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Publicly available.</I> The index must be available to the public. A publicly available index need not be published in a newspaper, but it must be one the consumer can independently obtain (by telephone, for example) and use to verify rates imposed under the plan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Provisions not prohibited.</I> This paragraph does not prohibit rate changes that are specifically set forth in the agreement. For example, stepped-rate plans, in which specified rates are imposed for specified periods, are permissible. In addition, preferred-rate provisions, in which the rate increases by a specified amount upon the occurrence of a specified event, also are permissible.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Limitations on termination and acceleration.</I> In general, creditors are prohibited from terminating and accelerating payment of the outstanding balance before the scheduled expiration of a plan. However, creditors may take these actions in the four circumstances specified in § 1026.40(f)(2). Creditors are not permitted to specify in their contracts any other events that allow termination and acceleration beyond those permitted by the regulation. Thus, for example, an agreement may not provide that the balance is payable on demand nor may it provide that the account will be terminated and the balance accelerated if the rate cap is reached.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other actions permitted.</I> If an event permitting termination and acceleration occurs, a creditor may instead take actions short of terminating and accelerating. For example, a creditor could temporarily or permanently suspend further advances, reduce the credit limit, change the payment terms, or require the consumer to pay a fee. A creditor also may provide in its agreement that a higher rate or higher fees will apply in circumstances under which it would otherwise be permitted to terminate the plan and accelerate the balance. A creditor that does not immediately terminate an account and accelerate payment or take another permitted action may take such action at a later time, provided one of the conditions permitting termination and acceleration exists at that time.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fraud or material misrepresentation.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance if there has been fraud or material misrepresentation by the consumer in connection with the plan. This exception includes fraud or misrepresentation at any time, either during the application process or during the draw period and any repayment period. What constitutes fraud or misrepresentation is determined by applicable state law and may include acts of omission as well as overt acts, as long as any necessary intent on the part of the consumer exists.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Failure to meet repayment terms.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance when the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms provided for in the agreement. However, a creditor may terminate and accelerate under this provision only if the consumer actually fails to make payments. For example, a creditor may not terminate and accelerate if the consumer, in error, sends a payment to the wrong location, such as a branch rather than the main office of the creditor. If a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy, the creditor may terminate and accelerate under this provision if the consumer fails to meet the repayment terms of the agreement. This section does not override any state or other law that requires a right-to-cure notice, or otherwise places a duty on the creditor before it can terminate a plan and accelerate the balance.
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<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Impairment of security.</I> A creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance if the consumer's action or inaction adversely affects the creditor's security for the plan, or any right of the creditor in that security. Action or inaction by third parties does not, in itself, permit the creditor to terminate and accelerate.
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<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> i. A creditor may terminate and accelerate, for example, if:
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<P>A. The consumer transfers title to the property or sells the property without the permission of the creditor.
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<P>B. The consumer fails to maintain required insurance on the dwelling.
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<P>C. The consumer fails to pay taxes on the property.
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<P>D. The consumer permits the filing of a lien senior to that held by the creditor.
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<P>E. The sole consumer obligated on the plan dies.
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<P>F. The property is taken through eminent domain.
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<P>G. A prior lienholder forecloses.
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<P>ii. By contrast, the filing of a judgment against the consumer would permit termination and acceleration only if the amount of the judgment and collateral subject to the judgment is such that the creditor's security is adversely affected. If the consumer commits waste or otherwise destructively uses or fails to maintain the property such that the action adversely affects the security, the plan may be terminated and the balance accelerated. Illegal use of the property by the consumer would permit termination and acceleration if it subjects the property to seizure. If one of two consumers obligated on a plan dies the creditor may terminate the plan and accelerate the balance if the security is adversely affected. If the consumer moves out of the dwelling that secures the plan and that action adversely affects the security, the creditor may terminate a plan and accelerate the balance.
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<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of provision.</I> In general, a creditor may not change the terms of a plan after it is opened. For example, a creditor may not increase any fee or impose a new fee once the plan has been opened, even if the fee is charged by a third party, such as a credit reporting agency, for a service. The change of terms prohibition applies to all features of a plan, not only those required to be disclosed under this section. For example, this provision applies to charges imposed for late payment, although this fee is not required to be disclosed under § 1026.40(d)(7).
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<P>2. <I>Charges not covered.</I> There are three charges not covered by this provision. A creditor may pass on increases in taxes since such charges are imposed by a governmental body and are beyond the control of the creditor. In addition, a creditor may pass on increases in premiums for property insurance that are excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(d)(2), since such insurance provides a benefit to the consumer independent of the use of the line and is often maintained notwithstanding the line. A creditor also may pass on increases in premiums for credit insurance that are excluded from the finance charge under § 1026.4(d)(1), since the insurance is voluntary and provides a benefit to the consumer.
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<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes provided for in agreement.</I> A creditor may provide in the initial agreement that further advances will be prohibited or the credit line reduced during any period in which the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor also may provide for other specific changes to take place upon the occurrence of specific events. Both the triggering event and the resulting modification must be stated with specificity. For example, in home equity plans for employees, the agreement could provide that a specified higher rate or margin will apply if the borrower's employment with the creditor ends. A contract could contain a stepped-rate or stepped-fee schedule providing for specified changes in the rate or the fees on certain dates or after a specified period of time. A creditor also may provide in the initial agreement that it will be entitled to a share of the appreciation in the value of the property as long as the specific appreciation share and the specific circumstances which require the payment of it are set forth. A contract may permit a consumer to switch among minimum payment options during the plan.
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<P>2. <I>Prohibited provisions.</I> A creditor may not include a general provision in its agreement permitting changes to any or all of the terms of the plan. For example, creditors may not include “boilerplate” language in the agreement stating that they reserve the right to change the fees imposed under the plan. In addition, a creditor may not include any “triggering events” or responses that the regulation expressly addresses in a manner different from that provided in the regulation. For example, an agreement may not provide that the margin in a variable-rate plan will increase if there is a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances, because the regulation specifies that temporarily freezing the line or lowering the credit limit is the permissible response to a material change in the consumer's financial circumstances. Similarly a contract cannot contain a provision allowing the creditor to freeze a line due to an insignificant decline in property value since the regulation allows that response only for a significant decline.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P><I>1. Replacing LIBOR.</I> A creditor may use either the provision in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (f)(3)(ii)(B) to replace a LIBOR index used under a plan so long as the applicable conditions are met for the provision used. Neither provision, however, excuses the creditor from noncompliance with contractual provisions. The following examples illustrate when a creditor may use the provisions in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B) to replace the LIBOR index used under a plan.
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<P>i. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a creditor may not replace an index unilaterally under a plan unless the original index becomes unavailable and provides that the replacement index and replacement margin will result in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the original index becomes unavailable. In this case, the creditor may use § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) to replace the LIBOR index used under the plan so long as the conditions of that provision are met. Section 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) provides that a creditor may replace the LIBOR index if, among other conditions, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is not published on October 18, 2021, the creditor generally must use the next calendar day for which both the LIBOR index and the replacement index are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I> In this example, however, the creditor would be contractually prohibited from replacing the LIBOR index used under the plan unless the replacement index and replacement margin also will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the LIBOR index becomes unavailable.
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<P>ii. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a creditor may not replace an index unilaterally under a plan unless the original index becomes unavailable but does not require that the replacement index and replacement margin will result in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the original index becomes unavailable. In this case, the creditor would be contractually prohibited from unilaterally replacing a LIBOR index used under the plan until it becomes unavailable. At that time, the creditor has the option of using § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B) to replace the LIBOR index if the conditions of the applicable provision are met.
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<P>iii. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a creditor may change the terms of the contract (including the index) as permitted by law. In this case, if the creditor replaces a LIBOR index under a plan on or after April 1, 2022, but does not wait until the LIBOR index becomes unavailable to do so, the creditor may only use § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) to replace the LIBOR index if the conditions of that provision are met. In this case, the creditor may not use § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A). If the creditor waits until the LIBOR index used under the plan becomes unavailable to replace the LIBOR index, the creditor has the option of using § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) or (B) to replace the LIBOR index if the conditions of the applicable provision are met.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substitution of index.</I> A creditor may change the index and margin used under the plan if the original index becomes unavailable, as long as historical fluctuations in the original and replacement indices were substantially similar, and as long as the replacement index and replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the original index became unavailable. If the replacement index is newly established and therefore does not have any rate history, it may be used if it and the replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate in effect when the original index became unavailable.
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<P>2. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> For purposes of replacing a LIBOR index used under a plan, a replacement index that is not newly established must have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the historical fluctuations considered are the historical fluctuations up through when the LIBOR index becomes unavailable or up through the date indicated in a Bureau determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, whichever is earlier.
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<P>i. The Bureau has determined that effective April 1, 2022, the prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the 1-month and 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR indices, and no further determination is required. In order to use this prime rate as the replacement index for the 1-month or 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor also must comply with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) that the prime rate and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. <I>See also</I> comment 40(f)(3)(ii)(A)-3.
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<P>ii. By operation of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U, and the Board's implementing regulation, 12 CFR part 253, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index being replaced. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I> As a result, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans meets the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard for the LIBOR index tenor it replaces, and no further determination is required. In order to use the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as the replacement index for the applicable LIBOR index, the creditor also must comply with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) that the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. <I>See also</I> comment 40(f)(3)(ii)(A)-3.
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<P>iii. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the relevant factors to be considered in determining whether a replacement index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of a particular LIBOR index depend on the replacement index being considered and the LIBOR index being replaced. For example, these determinations may need to consider certain aspects of the historical data itself for a particular replacement index, such as whether the replacement index is a backward-looking rate (e.g., historical average of rates) such that timing aspects of the data may need to be adjusted to match up with the particular forward-looking LIBOR term-rate being replaced. The types of relevant factors to establish if a replacement index would meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to a particular LIBOR index using historical data, include but are not limited to, whether: (1) the movements over time are substantially similar; and (2) the consumers' payments using the replacement index compared to payments using the LIBOR index are substantially similar if there is sufficient historical data for this analysis. The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans is considered to meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to the LIBOR tenor being replaced, and therefore, these factors need not be considered.
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<P>3. <I>Substantially similar rate when LIBOR becomes unavailable.</I> Under § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A), the replacement index and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect based on the LIBOR index used under the plan when the LIBOR index became unavailable. For this comparison of the rates, a creditor generally must use the value of the replacement index and the LIBOR index on the day that LIBOR becomes unavailable. If the replacement index is not published on the day that the LIBOR index becomes unavailable, the creditor generally must use the previous calendar day that both indices are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The replacement index and replacement margin are not required to produce an annual percentage rate that is substantially similar on the day that the replacement index and replacement margin become effective on the plan. For purposes of § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A), if a creditor uses the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index as the replacement index and uses as the replacement margin the same margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan, the creditor will be deemed to be in compliance with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(A) that the replacement index and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. The following example illustrates this comment.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index used under a plan becomes unavailable on June 30, 2023, and on that day the LIBOR index value is 2%, the margin is 10%, and the annual percentage rate is 12%. Also, assume that a creditor has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on June 30, 2023. The creditor would satisfy the requirement to use a replacement index and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect when the LIBOR index used under the plan became unavailable by selecting a 7% replacement margin. (The prime index value of 5% and the replacement margin of 7% would produce a rate of 12% on June 30, 2023.) Thus, if the creditor provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1) on July 1, 2023, disclosing the prime index as the replacement index and a replacement margin of 7%, where these changes will become effective on July 17, 2023, the creditor satisfies the requirement to use a replacement index and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect when the LIBOR index used under the plan became unavailable. This is true even if the prime index value changes after June 30, 2023, and the annual percentage rate calculated using the prime index value and 7% margin on July 17, 2022, is not substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on June 30, 2023.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> For purposes of replacing a LIBOR index used under a plan, a replacement index that is not newly established must have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the historical fluctuations considered are the historical fluctuations up through the relevant date. If the Bureau has made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the date indicated in that determination. If the Bureau has not made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the later of April 1, 2022, or the date no more than 30 days before the creditor makes a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar.
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<P>i. The Bureau has determined that effective April 1, 2022, the prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the 1-month and 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR indices, and no further determination is required. In order to use this prime rate as the replacement index for the 1-month or 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the creditor also must comply with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) that the prime rate index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. <I>See also</I> comments 40(f)(3)(ii)(B)-2 and -3.
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<P>ii. By operation of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U, and the Board's implementing regulation, 12 CFR part 253, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index being replaced. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I> As a result, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans meets the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard for the LIBOR index it replaces, and no further determination is required. In order to use the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as the replacement index for the applicable LIBOR index, the creditor also must comply with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) that the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Because of the exception in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B), the creditor must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. <I>See also</I> comments 40(f)(3)(ii)(B)-2 and -3.
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<P>iii. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the relevant factors to be considered in determining whether a replacement index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of a particular LIBOR index depend on the replacement index being considered and the LIBOR index being replaced. For example, these determinations may need to consider certain aspects of the historical data itself for a particular replacement index, such as whether the replacement index is a backward-looking rate (e.g., historical average of rates) such that timing aspects of the data may need to be adjusted to match up with the particular forward-looking LIBOR term-rate being replaced. The types of relevant factors to establish if a replacement index would meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to a particular LIBOR index using historical data, include but are not limited to, whether: (1) the movements over time are substantially similar; and (2) the consumers' payments using the replacement index compared to payments using the LIBOR index are substantially similar if there is sufficient historical data for this analysis. The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans is considered to meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to the LIBOR tenor being replaced, and therefore, these factors need not be considered.
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<P>2. <I>Using index values on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan.</I> Under § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B), if the replacement index was published on October 18, 2021, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. The margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan is the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to when the creditor provides the change-in-terms notice disclosing the replacement index for the variable rate. The following example illustrates this comment.
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<P>i. Assume a variable rate used under the plan that is based on the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index and assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023. On October 18, 2021, the LIBOR index value is 2%, the margin on that day is 10% and the annual percentage rate using that index value and margin is 12%. Assume on January 1, 2022, a creditor provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1) disclosing a new margin of 12% for the variable rate pursuant to a written agreement under § 1026.40(f)(3)(iii), and this change in the margin becomes effective on January 1, 2022, pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(1). Assume that there are no more changes in the margin that is used in calculating the variable rate prior to April 1, 2022, the date on which the creditor provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1), disclosing the replacement index and replacement margin for the variable rate that will be effective on April 17, 2022. In this case, the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan is 12%. Assume that the creditor has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on October 18, 2021. A replacement margin of 9% is permissible under § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) because that replacement margin combined with the prime index value of 5% on October 18, 2021, will produce an annual percentage rate of 14%, which is substantially similar to the 14% annual percentage rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, (which is 2%) and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan (which is 12%).
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<P>3. <I>Substantially similar rates using index values on October 18, 2021.</I> Under § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B), if the replacement index was published on October 18, 2021, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. The replacement index and replacement margin are not required to produce an annual percentage rate that is substantially similar on the day that the replacement index and replacement margin become effective on the plan. For purposes of § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B), if a creditor uses the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index as the replacement index and uses as the replacement margin the same margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan, the creditor will be deemed to be in compliance with the condition in § 1026.40(f)(3)(ii)(B) that the replacement index and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index. The following example illustrates this comment.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index used under the plan has a value of 2% on October 18, 2021, the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan is 10%, and the annual percentage rate based on that LIBOR index value and that margin is 12%. Also, assume that the creditor has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on October 18, 2021. A creditor would satisfy the requirement to use a replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan, by selecting a 7% replacement margin. (The prime index value of 5% and the replacement margin of 7% would produce a rate of 12%.) Thus, if the creditor provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(1) on April 1, 2022, disclosing the prime index as the replacement index and a replacement margin of 7%, where these changes will become effective on April 17, 2022, the creditor satisfies the requirement to use a replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. This is true even if the prime index value or the LIBOR index value changes after October 18, 2021, and the annual percentage rate calculated using the prime index value and 7% margin on April 17, 2022, is not substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on October 18, 2021, or substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on April 17, 2022.




</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Changes by written agreement.</I> A creditor may change the terms of a plan if the consumer expressly agrees in writing to the change at the time it is made. For example, a consumer and a creditor could agree in writing to change the repayment terms from interest-only payments to payments that reduce the principal balance. The provisions of any such agreement are governed by the limitations in § 1026.40(f). For example, a mutual agreement could not provide for future annual percentage rate changes based on the movement of an index controlled by the creditor or for termination and acceleration under circumstances other than those specified in the regulation. By contrast, a consumer could agree to a new credit limit for the plan, although the agreement could not permit the creditor to later change the credit limit except by a subsequent written agreement or in the circumstances described in § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Written agreement.</I> The change must be agreed to in writing by the consumer. Creditors are not permitted to assume consent because the consumer uses an account, even if use of an account would otherwise constitute acceptance of a proposed change under state law.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Beneficial changes.</I> After a plan is opened, a creditor may make changes that unequivocally benefit the consumer. Under this provision, a creditor may offer more options to consumers, as long as existing options remain. For example, a creditor may offer the consumer the option of making lower monthly payments or could increase the credit limit. Similarly, a creditor wishing to extend the length of the plan on the same terms may do so. Creditors are permitted to temporarily reduce the rate or fees charged during the plan (though a change in terms notice may be required under § 1026.9(c) when the rate or fees are returned to their original level). Creditors also may offer an additional means of access to the line, even if fees are associated with using the device, provided the consumer retains the ability to use prior access devices on the original terms.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(v)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Insignificant changes.</I> A creditor is permitted to make insignificant changes after a plan is opened. This rule accommodates operational and similar problems, such as changing the address of the creditor for purposes of sending payments. It does not permit a creditor to change a term such as a fee charged for late payments.
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<P>2. <I>Examples of insignificant changes.</I> Creditors may make minor changes to features such as the billing cycle date, the payment due date (as long as the consumer does not have a diminished grace period if one is provided), and the day of the month on which index values are measured to determine changes to the rate for variable-rate plans. A creditor also may change its rounding practice in accordance with the tolerance rules set forth in § 1026.14 (for example, stating an exact APR of 14.3333 percent as 14.3 percent, even if it had previously been stated as 14.33 percent). A creditor may change the balance computation method it uses only if the change produces an insignificant difference in the finance charge paid by the consumer. For example, a creditor may switch from using the average daily balance method (including new transactions) to the daily balance method (including new transactions).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 40(f)(3)(vi)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Suspension of credit privileges or reduction of credit limit.</I> A creditor may prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit in the circumstances specified in this section of the regulation. In addition, as discussed under § 1026.40(f)(3)(i), a creditor may contractually reserve the right to take such actions when the maximum annual percentage rate is reached. A creditor may not take these actions under other circumstances, unless the creditor would be permitted to terminate the line and accelerate the balance as described in § 1026.40(f)(2). The creditor's right to reduce the credit limit does not permit reducing the limit below the amount of the outstanding balance if this would require the consumer to make a higher payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Temporary nature of suspension or reduction.</I> Creditors are permitted to prohibit additional extensions of credit or reduce the credit limit only while one of the designated circumstances exists. When the circumstance justifying the creditor's action ceases to exist, credit privileges must be reinstated, assuming that no other circumstance permitting such action exists at that time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Imposition of fees.</I> If not prohibited by state law, a creditor may collect only bona fide and reasonable appraisal and credit report fees if such fees are actually incurred in investigating whether the condition permitting the freeze continues to exist. A creditor may not, in any circumstances, impose a fee to reinstate a credit line once the condition has been determined not to exist.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Reinstatement of credit privileges.</I> Creditors are responsible for ensuring that credit privileges are restored as soon as reasonably possible after the condition that permitted the creditor's action ceases to exist. One way a creditor can meet this responsibility is to monitor the line on an ongoing basis to determine when the condition ceases to exist. The creditor must investigate the condition frequently enough to assure itself that the condition permitting the freeze continues to exist. The frequency with which the creditor must investigate to determine whether a condition continues to exist depends upon the specific condition permitting the freeze. As an alternative to such monitoring, the creditor may shift the duty to the consumer to request reinstatement of credit privileges by providing a notice in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(1)(iii). A creditor may require a reinstatement request to be in writing if it notifies the consumer of this requirement on the notice provided under § 1026.9(c)(1)(iii). Once the consumer requests reinstatement, the creditor must promptly investigate to determine whether the condition allowing the freeze continues to exist. Under this alternative, the creditor has a duty to investigate only upon the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Suspension of credit privileges following request by consumer.</I> A creditor may honor a specific request by a consumer to suspend credit privileges. If the consumer later requests that the creditor reinstate credit privileges, the creditor must do so provided no other circumstance justifying a suspension exists at that time. If two or more consumers are obligated under a plan and each has the ability to take advances, the agreement may permit any of the consumers to direct the creditor not to make further advances. A creditor may require that all persons obligated under a plan request reinstatement.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Significant decline defined.</I> What constitutes a significant decline for purposes of § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)(A) will vary according to individual circumstances. In any event, if the value of the dwelling declines such that the initial difference between the credit limit and the available equity (based on the property's appraised value for purposes of the plan) is reduced by fifty percent, this constitutes a significant decline in the value of the dwelling for purposes of § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)(A). For example, assume that a house with a first mortgage of $50,000 is appraised at $100,000 and the credit limit is $30,000. The difference between the credit limit and the available equity is $20,000, half of which is $10,000. The creditor could prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit if the value of the property declines from $100,000 to $90,000. This provision does not require a creditor to obtain an appraisal before suspending credit privileges although a significant decline must occur before suspension can occur.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Material change in financial circumstances.</I> Two conditions must be met for § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)(B) to apply. First, there must be a “material change” in the consumer's financial circumstances, such as a significant decrease in the consumer's income. Second, as a result of this change, the creditor must have a reasonable belief that the consumer will be unable to fulfill the payment obligations of the plan. A creditor may, but does not have to, rely on specific evidence (such as the failure to pay other debts) in concluding that the second part of the test has been met. A creditor may prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit under this section if a consumer files for or is placed in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Default of a material obligation.</I> Creditors may specify events that would qualify as a default of a material obligation under § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)(C). For example, a creditor may provide that default of a material obligation will exist if the consumer moves out of the dwelling or permits an intervening lien to be filed that would take priority over future advances made by the creditor.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Government limits on the annual percentage rate.</I> Under § 1026.40(f)(3)(vi)(D), a creditor may prohibit further advances or reduce the credit limit if, for example, a state usury law is enacted which prohibits a creditor from imposing the agreed-upon annual percentage rate.
</P>
<HD3>40(g) Refund of Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Refund of fees required.</I> If any disclosed term, including any term provided upon request pursuant to § 1026.40(d), changes between the time the early disclosures are provided to the consumer and the time the plan is opened, and the consumer as a result decides to not enter into the plan, a creditor must refund all fees paid by the consumer in connection with the application. All fees, including credit report fees and appraisal fees, must be refunded whether such fees are paid to the creditor or directly to third parties. A consumer is entitled to a refund of fees under these circumstances whether or not terms are guaranteed by the creditor under § 1026.40(d)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate plans.</I> The right to a refund of fees does not apply to changes in the annual percentage rate resulting from fluctuations in the index value in a variable-rate plan. Also, if the maximum annual percentage rate is expressed as an amount over the initial rate, the right to refund of fees would not apply to changes in the cap resulting from fluctuations in the index value.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes in terms.</I> If a term, such as the maximum rate, is stated as a range in the early disclosures, and the term ultimately applicable to the plan falls within that range, a change does not occur for purposes of this section. If, however, no range is used and the term is changed (for example, a rate cap of 6 rather than 5 percentage points over the initial rate), the change would permit the consumer to obtain a refund of fees. If a fee imposed by the creditor is stated in the early disclosures as an estimate and the fee changes, the consumer could elect to not enter into the agreement and would be entitled to a refund of fees. On the other hand, if fees imposed by third parties are disclosed as estimates and those fees change, the consumer is not entitled to a refund of fees paid in connection with the application. Creditors must, however, use the best information reasonably available in providing disclosures about such fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Timing of refunds and relation to other provisions.</I> The refund of fees must be made as soon as reasonably possible after the creditor is notified that the consumer is not entering into the plan because of the changed term, or that the consumer wants a refund of fees. The fact that an application fee may be refunded to some applicants under this provision does not render such fees finance charges under § 1026.4(c)(1) of the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>40(h) Imposition of Nonrefundable Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Collection of fees after consumer receives disclosures.</I> A fee may be collected after the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure and before the expiration of three days, although the fee must be refunded if, within three days of receiving the required information, the consumer decides to not enter into the agreement. In such a case, the consumer must be notified that the fee is refundable for three days. The notice must be clear and conspicuous and in writing, and may be included with the disclosures required under § 1026.40(d) or as an attachment to them. If disclosures and brochure are mailed to the consumer, § 1026.40(h) provides that a nonrefundable fee may not be imposed until six business days after the mailing.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Collection of fees before consumer receives disclosures.</I> An application fee may be collected before the consumer receives the disclosures and brochure (for example, when an application contained in a magazine is mailed in with an application fee) provided that it remains refundable until three business days after the consumer receives the § 1026.40 disclosures. No other fees except a refundable membership fee may be collected until after the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.40.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to other provisions.</I> A fee collected before disclosures are provided may become nonrefundable except that, under § 1026.40(g), it must be refunded if the consumer elects to not enter into the plan because of a change in terms. (Of course, all fees must be refunded if the consumer later rescinds under § 1026.15.) 


</P>
<HD3>Section 1026.41—Periodic Statements for Residential Mortgage Loans
</HD3>
<P><I>41(a) In general.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Recipient of periodic statement.</I> When two consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on a closed-end consumer credit transaction secured by a dwelling subject to § 1026.41, the periodic statement may be sent to either one of them. For example, if spouses jointly own a home, the servicer need not send statements to both spouses; a single statement may be sent.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Billing cycles shorter than a 31-day period.</I> If a loan has a billing cycle shorter than a period of 31 days (for example, a bi-weekly billing cycle), a periodic statement covering an entire month may be used. Such statement would separately list the upcoming payment due dates and amounts due, as required by § 1026.20(d)(1), and list all transaction activity that occurred during the related time period, as required by paragraph (d)(4). Such statement may aggregate the information for the explanation of amount due, as required by paragraph (d)(2), and past payment breakdown, as required by paragraph (d)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>One statement per billing cycle.</I> The periodic statement requirement in § 1026.41 applies to the “creditor, assignee, or servicer as applicable.” The creditor, assignee, and servicer are all subject to this requirement (<I>but see</I> comment 41(a)-4), but only one statement must be sent to the consumer each billing cycle. When two or more parties are subject to this requirement, they may decide among themselves which of them will send the statement.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Opting out.</I> A consumer may not opt out of receiving periodic statements altogether. However, consumers who have demonstrated the ability to access statements online may opt out of receiving notifications that statements are available. Such an ability may be demonstrated, for example, by the consumer receiving notification that the statements is available, going to the Web site where the information is available, viewing the information about their account and selecting a link or option there to indicate they no longer would like to receive notifications when new statements are available.
</P>
<P><I>41(b) Timing of the periodic statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Reasonably prompt time.</I> Section 1026.41(b) requires that the periodic statement be delivered or placed in the mail no later than a reasonably prompt time after the payment due date or the end of any courtesy period. Delivering, emailing or placing the periodic statement in the mail within four days of the close of the courtesy period of the previous billing cycle generally would be considered reasonably prompt.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Courtesy period.</I> The meaning of “courtesy period” is explained in comment 7(b)(11)-1.
</P>
<P><I>41(c) Form of the periodic statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> The “clear and conspicuous” standard generally requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form. Except where otherwise provided, the standard does not prohibit adding to the required disclosures, as long as the additional information does not overwhelm or obscure the required disclosures. For example, while certain information about the escrow account (such as the account balance) is not required on the periodic statement, this information may be included.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Additional information; disclosures required by other laws.</I> Nothing in § 1026.41 prohibits a servicer from including additional information or combining disclosures required by other laws with the disclosures required by this subpart, unless such prohibition is expressly set forth in this subpart, or other applicable law.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Electronic distribution.</I> The periodic statement may be provided electronically if the consumer agrees. The consumer must give affirmative consent to receive statements electronically. If statements are provided electronically, the creditor, assignee, or servicer may send a notification that a consumer's statement is available, with a link to where the statement can be accessed, in place of the statement itself.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Presumed consent.</I> Any consumer who is currently receiving disclosures for any account (for example, a mortgage or checking account) electronically from their servicer shall be deemed to have consented to receiving e-statements in place of paper statements.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Servicers may modify the sample forms for periodic statements provided in appendix H-30 of this part to remove language that could suggest liability under the mortgage loan agreement if such language is not applicable. For example, in the case of a confirmed successor in interest who has not assumed the mortgage loan obligation under State law and is not otherwise liable on the mortgage loan obligation, a servicer may modify the forms to:
</P>
<P>i. Use “this mortgage” or “the mortgage” instead of “your mortgage.”
</P>
<P>ii. Use “The payments on this mortgage are late” instead of “You are late on your mortgage payments.”
</P>
<P>iii. Use “This is the amount needed to bring the loan current” instead of “You must pay this amount to bring your loan current.”
</P>
<P><I>41(d) Content and layout of the periodic statement.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Close proximity.</I> Section 1026.41(d) requires several disclosures to be provided in close proximity to one another. To meet this requirement, the items to be provided in close proximity must be grouped together, and set off from other groupings of items. This may be accomplished in a variety of ways, for example, by presenting the information in boxes, or by arranging the items on the document and including spacing between the groupings. Items in close proximity may not have any unrelated text between them. Text is unrelated if it does not explain or expand upon the required disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Not applicable.</I> If an item required by paragraph (d) or (e) of this section is not applicable to the loan, it may be omitted from the periodic statement or coupon book. For example, if there is no prepayment penalty associated with a loan, the prepayment penalty disclosures need not be provided on the periodic statement.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terminology.</I> A servicer may use terminology other than that found on the sample periodic statements in appendix H-30, so long as the new terminology is commonly understood. For example, servicers may take into consideration regional differences in terminology and refer to the account for the collection of taxes and insurance, referred to in § 1026.41(d) as the “escrow account,” as an “impound account.”
</P>
<P>4. <I>Temporary loss mitigation programs.</I> If the consumer has agreed to a temporary loss mitigation program, the disclosures required by § 1026.41(d)(2), (3), and (5) regarding how payments were and will be applied must identify how payments are applied according to the loan contract, regardless of the temporary loss mitigation program.
</P>
<P>5. <I>First statement after exemption terminates.</I> Section 1026.41(d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i), and (d)(4) requires the disclosure of the total sum of any fees or charges imposed since the last statement, the total of all payments received since the last statement, including a breakdown of how payments were applied, and a list of all transaction activity since the last statement. For purposes of the first periodic statement provided to the consumer following termination of an exemption under § 1026.41(e), the disclosures required by § 1026.41(d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i), and (d)(4) may be limited to account activity since the last payment due date that occurred while the exemption was in effect. For example, if mortgage loan payments are due on the first of each month and the servicer's exemption under § 1026.41(e) terminated on January 15, the first statement provided to the consumer after January 15 may be limited to the total sum of any fees or charges imposed, the total of all payments received, a breakdown of how the payments were applied, and a list of all transaction activity since January 1.
</P>
<P><I>41(d)(1) Amount due.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acceleration.</I> If the balance of a mortgage loan has been accelerated but the servicer will accept a lesser amount to reinstate the loan, the amount due under § 1026.41(d)(1) must identify only the lesser amount that will be accepted to reinstate the loan. The periodic statement must be accurate when provided and should indicate, if applicable, that the amount due is accurate only for a specified period of time. For example, the statement may include language such as “as of [date]” or “good through [date]” and provide an amount due that will reinstate the loan as of that date or good through that date, respectively.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Temporary loss mitigation programs.</I> If the consumer has agreed to a temporary loss mitigation program, the amount due under § 1026.41(d)(1) may identify either the payment due under the temporary loss mitigation program or the amount due according to the loan contract.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Permanent loan modifications.</I> If the loan contract has been permanently modified, the amount due under § 1026.41(d)(1) must identify only the amount due under the modified loan contract.
</P>
<P><I>41(d)(2) Explanation of amount due.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Acceleration.</I> If the balance of a mortgage loan has been accelerated but the servicer will accept a lesser amount to reinstate the loan, the explanation of amount due under § 1026.41(d)(2) must list both the reinstatement amount that is disclosed as the amount due and the accelerated amount but not the monthly payment amount that would otherwise be required under § 1026.41(d)(2)(i). The periodic statement must also include an explanation that the reinstatement amount will be accepted to reinstate the loan through the “as of [date]” or “good through [date],” as applicable, along with any special instructions for submitting the payment. The explanation should be on the front page of the statement or, alternatively, may be included on a separate page enclosed with the periodic statement. The explanation may include related information, such as a statement that the amount disclosed is “not a payoff amount.”
</P>
<P>2. <I>Temporary loss mitigation programs.</I> If the consumer has agreed to a temporary loss mitigation program and the amount due identifies the payment due under the temporary loss mitigation program, the explanation of amount due under § 1026.41(d)(2) must include both the amount due according to the loan contract and the payment due under the temporary loss mitigation program. The statement must also include an explanation that the amount due is being disclosed as a different amount because of the temporary loss mitigation program. The explanation should be on the front page of the statement or, alternatively, may be included on a separate page enclosed with the periodic statement or in a separate letter.
</P>
<P><I>41(d)(3) Past payment breakdown.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Partial payments.</I> The disclosure of any partial payments received since the previous statement that were sent to a suspense or unapplied funds account as required by § 1026.41(d)(3)(i) should reflect any funds that were received in the time period covered by the current statement and that were placed in such account. The disclosure of any portion of payments since the beginning of the calendar year that was sent to a partial payment or suspense account as required by § 1026.41(d)(3)(ii) should reflect all funds that are currently held in a suspense or unapplied funds account. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Suppose a payment of $1,000 is due, but the consumer sends in only $600 on January 1, which is held in a suspense account. Further assume there are no fees charged on this account. Assuming there are no other funds in the suspense account, the January statement should reflect: Unapplied funds since last statement—$600. Unapplied funds YTD—$600.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same facts as in the preceding paragraph, except that during February the consumer sends in $300 and this too is held in the suspense account. The statement should reflect: Unapplied funds since last statement—$300. Unapplied funds YTD—$900.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume the same facts as in the preceding paragraph, except that during March the consumer sends in $400. Of this payment, $100 completes a full periodic payment when added to the $900 in funds already held in the suspense account. This $1,000 is applied to the January payment, and the remaining $300 remains in the suspense account. The statement should reflect: Unapplied funds since last statement—$300. Unapplied Funds YTD—$300.
</P>
<P><I>41(d)(4) Transaction Activity.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Meaning.</I> Transaction activity includes any transaction that credits or debits the amount currently due. This is the same amount that is required to be disclosed under § 1026.41(d)(1)(iii). Examples of such transactions include, without limitation:
</P>
<P>i. Payments received and applied;
</P>
<P>ii. Payments received and held in a suspense account;
</P>
<P>iii. The imposition of any fees (for example late fees); and
</P>
<P>iv. The imposition of any charges (for example, private mortgage insurance).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Description of late fees.</I> The description of any late fee charges includes the date of the late fee, the amount of the late fee, and the fact that a late fee was imposed.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Partial payments.</I> If a partial payment is sent to a suspense or unapplied funds account, this fact must be in the transaction description along with the date and amount of the payment.
</P>
<P><I>41(d)(8) Delinquency information.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Length of delinquency.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(d)(8), the length of a consumer's delinquency is measured as of the date of the periodic statement or the date of the written notice provided under § 1026.41(e)(3)(iv). A consumer's delinquency begins on the date an amount sufficient to cover a periodic payment of principal, interest, and escrow, if applicable, becomes due and unpaid, even if the consumer is afforded a period after the due date to pay before the servicer assesses a late fee. A consumer is delinquent if one or more periodic payments of principal, interest, and escrow, if applicable, are due and unpaid.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application of funds.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(d)(8), if a servicer applies payments to the oldest outstanding periodic payment, a payment by a delinquent consumer advances the date the consumer's delinquency began. For example, assume a mortgage loan obligation under which a consumer's periodic payment is due on the first of each month. A consumer fails to make a payment on January 1 but makes a periodic payment on February 3. The servicer applies the payment received on February 3 to the outstanding January payment. On February 4, the consumer is three days delinquent, and the next periodic statement should disclose the length of the consumer's delinquency using February 2 as the first day of delinquency.
</P>
<P><I>41(e) Exemptions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(3) Coupon book exemption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Fixed rate.</I> For guidance on the meaning of “fixed rate” for purposes of § 1026.41(e)(3), see § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii) and its commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Coupon book.</I> A coupon book is a booklet provided to the consumer with a page for each billing cycle during a set period of time (often covering one year). These pages are designed to be torn off and returned to the servicer with a payment for each billing cycle. Additional information about the loan is often included on or inside the front or back cover, or on filler pages in the coupon book.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Information location.</I> The information required by paragraph (e)(3)(ii) need not be provided on each coupon, but should be provided somewhere in the coupon book. Such information could be located, e.g., on or inside the front or back cover, or on filler pages in the coupon book.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Outstanding principal balance.</I> Paragraph (e)(3)(ii)(A) requires the information listed in paragraph (d)(7) to be included in the coupon book. Paragraph (d)(7)(i) requires the disclosure of the outstanding principal balance. If the servicer makes use of a coupon book and the exemption in § 1026.41(e)(3), the servicer need only disclose the principal balance at the beginning of the time period covered by the coupon book.
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(4) Small servicers.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(4)(ii) Small servicer defined.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mortgage loans considered.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.41(a)(1), the mortgage loans considered in determining status as a small servicer are closed-end consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling, subject to the exclusions in § 1026.41(e)(4)(iii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Services, together with affiliates, 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans.</I> To qualify as a small servicer, under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A), a servicer must service, together with any affiliates, 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, for all of which the servicer (or an affiliate) is the creditor or assignee. There are two elements to satisfying § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A). First, a servicer, together with any affiliates, must service 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans. Second, a servicer must service only mortgage loans for which the servicer (or an affiliate) is the creditor or assignee. To be the creditor or assignee of a mortgage loan, the servicer (or an affiliate) must either currently own the mortgage loan or must have been the entity to which the mortgage loan obligation was initially payable (that is, the originator of the mortgage loan). A servicer is not a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) if it services any mortgage loans for which the servicer or an affiliate is not the creditor or assignee (that is, for which the servicer or an affiliate is not the owner or was not the originator). The following two examples demonstrate circumstances in which a servicer would not qualify as a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) because it did not meet both requirements under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) for determining a servicer's status as a small servicer:
</P>
<P>i. A servicer services 3,000 mortgage loans, all of which it or an affiliate owns or originated. An affiliate of the servicer services 4,000 other mortgage loans, all of which it or an affiliate owns or originated. Because the number of mortgage loans serviced by a servicer is determined by counting the mortgage loans serviced by a servicer together with any affiliates, both of these servicers are considered to be servicing 7,000 mortgage loans and neither servicer is a small servicer.
</P>
<P>ii. A service services 3,100 mortgage loans—3,000 mortgage loans it owns or originated and 100 mortgage loans it neither owns nor originated, but for which it owns the mortgage servicing rights. The servicer is not a small servicer because it services mortgage loans for which the servicer (or an affiliate) is not the creditor or assignee, notwithstanding that the servicer services fewer than 5,000 mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Master servicing and subservicing.</I> A servicer that qualifies as a small servicer does not lose its small servicer status if it retains a subservicer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1024.31, to service any of its mortgage loans. A subservicer can gain the benefit of the small servicer exemption only if (1) the master servicer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1024.31, is a small servicer and (2) the subservicer is a small servicer. A subservicer generally will not qualify as a small servicer because it does not own or did not originate the mortgage loans it subservices—unless it is an affiliate of a master servicer that qualifies as a small servicer. The following examples demonstrate the application of the small servicer exemption for different forms of servicing relationships:
</P>
<P>i. A credit union services 4,000 mortgage loans, all of which it originated or owns. The credit union retains a credit union service organization, that is not an affiliate, to subservice 1,000 of the mortgage loans. The credit union is a small servicer and, thus, can gain the benefit of the small servicer exemption for the 3,000 mortgage loans the credit union services itself. The credit union service organization is not a small servicer because it services mortgage loans it does not own or did not originate. Accordingly, the credit union service organization does not gain the benefit of the small servicer exemption and, thus, must comply with any applicable mortgage servicing requirements for the 1,000 mortgage loans it subservices.
</P>
<P>ii. A bank holding company, through a lender subsidiary, owns or originated 4,000 mortgage loans. All mortgage servicing rights for the 4,000 mortgage loans are owned by a wholly owned master servicer subsidiary. Servicing for the 4,000 mortgage loans is conducted by a wholly owned subservicer subsidiary. The bank holding company controls all of these subsidiaries and, thus, they are affiliates of the bank holding company pursuant 12 CFR 1026.32(b)(2). Because the master servicer and subservicer service 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, and because all the mortgage loans are owned or originated by an affiliate, the master servicer and the subservicer both qualify for the small servicer exemption for all 4,000 mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>iii. A nonbank servicer services 4,000 mortgage loans, all of which it originated or owns. The servicer retains a “component servicer” to assist it with servicing functions. The component servicer is not engaged in “servicing” as defined in 12 CFR 1024.2; that is, the component servicer does not receive any scheduled periodic payments from a borrower pursuant to the terms of any mortgage loan, including amounts for escrow accounts, and does not make the payments to the owner of the loan or other third parties of principal and interest and such other payments with respect to the amounts received from the borrower as may be required pursuant to the terms of the mortgage servicing loan documents or servicing contract. The component servicer is not a subservicer pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.31 because it is not engaged in servicing, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1024.2. The nonbank servicer is a small servicer and, thus, can gain the benefit of the small servicer exemption with regard to all 4,000 mortgage loans it services.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Nonprofit entity that services 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans.</I> To qualify as a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C), a servicer must be a nonprofit entity that services 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, including any mortgage loans serviced on behalf of associated nonprofit entities, for all of which the servicer or an associated nonprofit entity is the creditor. There are two elements to satisfying § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C). First, a nonprofit entity must service 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, including any mortgage loans serviced on behalf of associated nonprofit entities. For each associated nonprofit entity, the small servicer determination is made separately, without consideration of the number of loans serviced by another associated nonprofit entity. Second, a nonprofit entity must service only mortgage loans for which the servicer (or an associated nonprofit entity) is the creditor. To be the creditor, the servicer (or an associated nonprofit entity) must have been the entity to which the mortgage loan obligation was initially payable (that is, the originator of the mortgage loan). A nonprofit entity is not a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C) if it services any mortgage loans for which the servicer (or an associated nonprofit entity) is not the creditor (that is, for which the servicer or an associated nonprofit entity was not the originator). The first of the following two examples demonstrates circumstances in which a nonprofit entity would qualify as a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C) because it meets both requirements for determining a nonprofit entity's status as a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C). The second example demonstrates circumstances in which a nonprofit entity would not qualify as a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C) because it does not meet both requirements under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C).
</P>
<P>i. Nonprofit entity A services 3,000 of its own mortgage loans, and 1,500 mortgage loans on behalf of associated nonprofit entity B. All 4,500 mortgage loans were originated by A or B. Associated nonprofit entity C services 2,500 mortgage loans, all of which it originated. Because the number of mortgage loans serviced by a nonprofit entity is determined by counting the number of mortgage loans serviced by the nonprofit entity (including mortgage loans serviced on behalf of associated nonprofit entities) but not counting any mortgage loans serviced by an associated nonprofit entity, A and C are both small servicers.
</P>
<P>ii. A nonprofit entity services 4,500 mortgage loans—3,000 mortgage loans it originated, 1,000 mortgage loans originated by associated nonprofit entities, and 500 mortgage loans neither it nor an associated nonprofit entity originated. The nonprofit entity is not a small servicer because it services mortgage loans for which neither it nor an associated nonprofit entity is the creditor, notwithstanding that it services fewer than 5,000 mortgage loans.
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(4)(iii) Small servicer determination.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Loans obtained by merger or acquisition.</I> Any mortgage loans obtained by a servicer or an affiliate as part of a merger or acquisition, or as part of the acquisition of all of the assets or liabilities of a branch office of a creditor, should be considered mortgage loans for which the servicer or an affiliate is the creditor to which the mortgage loan is initially payable. A branch office means either an office of a depository institution that is approved as a branch by a Federal or State supervisory agency or an office of a for-profit mortgage lending institution (other than a depository institution) that takes applications from the public for mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Timing for small servicer exemption.</I> The following examples demonstrate when a servicer either is considered or is no longer considered a small servicer under § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) and (C):
</P>
<P>i. Assume a servicer (that as of January 1 of the current year qualifies as a small servicer) begins servicing more than 5,000 mortgage loans on October 1, and services more than 5,000 mortgage loans as of January 1 of the following year. The servicer would no longer be considered a small servicer on January 1 of the following year and would have to comply with any requirements from which it is no longer exempt as a small servicer on April 1 of the following year.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a servicer (that as of January 1 of the current year qualifies as a small servicer) begins servicing more than 5,000 mortgage loans on February 1, and services more than 5,000 mortgage loans as of January 1 of the following year. The servicer would no longer be considered a small servicer on January 1 of the following year and would have to comply with any requirements from which it is no longer exempt as a small servicer on that same January 1.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume a servicer (that as of January 1 of the current year qualifies as a small servicer) begins servicing more than 5,000 mortgage loans on February 1, but services fewer than 5,000 mortgage loans as of January 1 of the following year. The servicer is considered a small servicer for the following year.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mortgage loans not considered in determining whether a servicer is a small servicer.</I> Mortgage loans that are not considered pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(4)(iii) in applying § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) are not considered either for determining whether a servicer (together with any affiliates) services 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans or whether a servicer is servicing only mortgage loans that it (or an affiliate) owns or originated. For example, assume a servicer services 5,400 mortgage loans. Of these mortgage loans, the servicer owns or originated 4,800 mortgage loans, voluntarily services 300 mortgage loans that neither it (nor an affiliate) owns or originated and for which the servicer does not receive any compensation or fees, and services 300 reverse mortgage transactions. The voluntarily serviced mortgage loans and reverse mortgage loans are not considered in determining whether the servicer qualifies as a small servicer pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(4)(iii)(A). Thus, because only the 4,800 mortgage loans owned or originated by the servicer are considered in determining whether the servicer qualifies as a small servicer, the servicer satisfies § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(A) with regard to all 5,400 mortgage loans it services.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mortgage loans not considered in determining whether a nonprofit entity is a small servicer.</I> Mortgage loans that are not considered pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(4)(iii) in applying § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C) are not considered either for determining whether a nonprofit entity services 5,000 or fewer mortgage loans, including any mortgage loans serviced on behalf of associated nonprofit entities, or whether a nonprofit entity is servicing only mortgage loans that it or an associated nonprofit entity originated. For example, assume a servicer that is a nonprofit entity services 5,400 mortgage loans. Of these mortgage loans, the nonprofit entity originated 2,800 mortgage loans and associated nonprofit entities originated 2,000 mortgage loans. The nonprofit entity receives compensation for servicing the loans originated by associated nonprofits. The nonprofit entity also voluntarily services 600 mortgage loans that were originated by an entity that is not an associated nonprofit entity, and receives no compensation or fees for servicing these loans. The voluntarily serviced mortgage loans are not considered in determining whether the servicer qualifies as a small servicer. Thus, because only the 4,800 mortgage loans originated by the nonprofit entity or associated nonprofit entities are considered in determining whether the servicer qualifies as a small servicer, the servicer satisfies § 1026.41(e)(4)(ii)(C) with regard to all 5,400 mortgage loans it services.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Limited role of voluntarily serviced mortgage loans.</I> Reverse mortgages and mortgage loans secured by consumers' interests in timeshare plans, in addition to not being considered in determining small servicer qualification, are also exempt from the requirements of § 1026.41. In contrast, although voluntarily serviced mortgage loans, as defined by § 1026.41(e)(4)(iii)(A), are likewise not considered in determining small servicer status, they are not exempt from the requirements of § 1026.41. Thus, a servicer that does not qualify as a small servicer would not have to provide periodic statements for reverse mortgages and timeshare plans because they are exempt from the rule, but would have to provide periodic statements for mortgage loans it voluntarily services.
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5) Certain consumers in bankruptcy.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's representative.</I> If an agent of the consumer, such as the consumer's bankruptcy counsel, submits a request under § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (e)(5)(ii), the request is deemed to be submitted by the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple requests.</I> A consumer's most recent written request under § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (e)(5)(ii) that the servicer cease or continue, as applicable, providing a periodic statement or coupon book determines whether the exemption in § 1026.41(e)(5)(i) applies.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Effective upon receipt.</I> A consumer's written request under § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (e)(5)(ii) is effective as of the date of receipt by the servicer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Bankruptcy case revived.</I> If a consumer's bankruptcy case is revived, for example, if the court reinstates a previously dismissed case or reopens a case, § 1026.41(e)(5) may apply again, including the timing requirements in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv).
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5)(i) Exemption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Multiple obligors.</I> When two or more consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.41, § 1026.41(e)(5)(i) applies if any one of the consumers meets its criteria. For example, assume that two spouses jointly own a home and are primary obligors on the mortgage loan. One spouse files for chapter 13 bankruptcy and has a bankruptcy plan that provides for surrendering the dwelling that secures the mortgage loan. In part, § 1026.41(e)(5)(i) exempts the servicer from providing a periodic statement with regard to that mortgage loan, unless one of the spouses requests in writing that the servicer provide a periodic statement or coupon book pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(5)(ii). If either spouse, including the one who is not a debtor in bankruptcy, submits a written request to receive a periodic statement or coupon book, the servicer must provide a periodic statement or coupon book for that mortgage loan account.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(e)(5)(i)(B)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Bankruptcy plan.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>), bankruptcy plan refers to the consumer's most recently filed bankruptcy plan under the applicable provisions of title 11 of the United States Code, regardless of whether the court overseeing the consumer's bankruptcy case has confirmed or approved the plan.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(e)(5)(i)(B)(4).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Statement of intention.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>4</I>), the statement of intention refers to the consumer's most recently filed statement of intention. For example, if a consumer files a statement of intention on June 1 identifying an intent to surrender the dwelling securing the mortgage loan but files an amended statement of intention on June 15 identifying an intent to retain the dwelling, the consumer's June 15 statement of intention is the relevant filing for purposes of § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>4</I>).
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5)(ii) Reaffirmation or consumer request to receive statement or coupon book.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Form of periodic statement or coupon book.</I> Section 1026.41(e)(5)(ii) generally requires a servicer, notwithstanding § 1026.41(e)(5)(i), to resume providing a periodic statement or coupon book if the consumer in bankruptcy reaffirms personal liability for the mortgage loan or any consumer on the mortgage loan requests in writing that the servicer provide a periodic statement or coupon book. Whether a servicer provides a periodic statement or coupon book as modified by § 1026.41(f) or an unmodified periodic statement or coupon book depends on whether or not § 1026.41(f) applies to that mortgage loan at that time. For example, § 1026.41(f) does not apply with respect to a mortgage loan once the consumer has reaffirmed personal liability; therefore, following a consumer's reaffirmation, a servicer generally would provide a periodic statement or coupon book that complies with § 1026.41 but without the modifications set forth in § 1026.41(f). <I>See</I> comment 41(f)-6. Section 1026.41(f) does apply, however, with respect to a mortgage loan following a consumer's written request to receive a periodic statement or coupon book, so long as any consumer on the mortgage loan remains in bankruptcy or has discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan; accordingly, following that written request, a servicer must provide a periodic statement or coupon book that includes the modifications set forth in § 1026.41(f).
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5)(iv) Timing of compliance following transition.</I>
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5)(iv)(A) Triggering events for transitioning to modified and unmodified periodic statements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Section 1026.41(f) becomes applicable or ceases to apply.</I> Section 1026.41(e)(5)(iv) sets forth the time period in which a servicer must provide a periodic statement or coupon book for the first time after a mortgage loan either becomes subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f) or ceases to be subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f). A mortgage loan becomes subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f) when, for example, any consumer on the mortgage loan becomes a debtor in bankruptcy or discharges personal liability for the mortgage loan. A mortgage loan may cease to be subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f) when, for example, the consumer in bankruptcy reaffirms personal liability for a mortgage loan or the consumer's bankruptcy case is closed or dismissed without the consumer having discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan. <I>See</I> comment 41(f)-6.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Servicer ceases to qualify for an exemption.</I> Section 1026.41(e)(5)(iv) sets forth the time period in which a servicer must provide a periodic statement or coupon book for the first time after a servicer ceases to qualify for an exemption pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(5)(i) with respect to a mortgage loan. A servicer ceases to qualify for an exemption pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(5)(i) with respect to a mortgage loan when, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer's bankruptcy case is dismissed or closed without the consumer having discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer files an amended bankruptcy plan or statement of intention that provides, as applicable, for the maintenance of payments due under the mortgage loan and the payment of pre-petition arrearage or that the consumer will retain the dwelling securing the mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>iii. A consumer makes a partial or periodic payment on the mortgage loan despite the consumer in bankruptcy having filed a statement of intention identifying an intent to surrender the dwelling securing the mortgage loan, thus making § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>4</I>) inapplicable;
</P>
<P>iv. The consumer in bankruptcy reaffirms personal liability for the mortgage loan; or
</P>
<P>v. The consumer submits a written request pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(ii) that the servicer resume providing a periodic statement or coupon book.
</P>
<P><I>41(e)(5)(iv)(B) Single-Statement Exemption.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The exemption in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(B) applies with respect to a single periodic statement or coupon book following an event listed in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A). For example, assume that a mortgage loan has a monthly billing cycle, each payment due date is on the first day of the month following its respective billing cycle, and each payment due date has a 15-day courtesy period. In this scenario:
</P>
<P>i. If an event listed in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A) occurs on October 6, before the end of the 15-day courtesy period provided for the October 1 payment due date, and the servicer has not yet provided a periodic statement or coupon book for the billing cycle with a November 1 payment due date, the servicer is exempt from providing a periodic statement or coupon book for that billing cycle. The servicer is required thereafter to resume providing periodic statements or coupon books that comply with the requirements of § 1026.41 by providing a modified or unmodified periodic statement or coupon book for the billing cycle with a December 1 payment due date within a reasonably prompt time after November 1 or the end of the 15-day courtesy period provided for the November 1 payment due date. <I>See</I> § 1026.41(b).
</P>
<P>ii. If an event listed in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A) occurs on October 20, after the end of the 15-day courtesy period provided for the October 1 payment due date, and the servicer timely provided a periodic statement or coupon book for the billing cycle with the November 1 payment due date, the servicer is not required to correct the periodic statement or coupon book already provided and is exempt from providing the next periodic statement or coupon book, which is the one that would otherwise be required for the billing cycle with a December 1 payment due date. The servicer is required thereafter to resume providing periodic statements or coupon books that comply with the requirements of § 1026.41 by providing a modified or unmodified periodic statement or coupon book for the billing cycle with a January 1 payment due date within a reasonably prompt time after December 1 or the end of the 15-day courtesy period provided for the December 1 payment due date. <I>See</I> § 1026.41(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Duplicate coupon books not required.</I> If a servicer provides a coupon book instead of a periodic statement under § 1026.41(e)(3), § 1026.41 requires the servicer to provide a new coupon book after one of the events listed in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A) occurs only to the extent the servicer has not previously provided the consumer with a coupon book that covers the upcoming billing cycle.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Subsequent triggering events.</I> The single-statement exemption in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(B) might apply more than once over the life of a loan. For example, assume the exemption applies beginning on April 14 because the consumer files for bankruptcy on that date and the bankruptcy plan provides that the consumer will surrender the dwelling, such that the mortgage loan becomes subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f). <I>See</I> § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>). If the consumer later exits bankruptcy on November 2 and has not discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan pursuant to 11 U.S.C. 727, 1141, 1228, or 1328, such that the mortgage loan ceases to be subject to the requirements of § 1026.41(f), the single-statement exemption would apply again beginning on November 2. <I>See</I> § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv)(A)(<I>2</I>).






</P>
<P><I>41(e)(6) Charged-off loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Change in ownership.</I> If a charged-off mortgage loan is subsequently purchased, assigned, or transferred, § 1026.39(b) requires a covered person, as defined in § 1026.39(a)(1), to provide mortgage transfer disclosures. <I>See</I> § 1026.39.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Change in servicing.</I> A servicer may take advantage of the exemption in § 1026.41(e)(6)(i), subject to the requirements of that paragraph, and may rely on a prior servicer's provision to the consumer of a periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.41(e)(6)(i)(B) unless the servicer provided the consumer a periodic statement pursuant to § 1026.41(a).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 41(e)(6)(i)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Clearly and conspicuously.</I> Section 1026.41(e)(6)(i)(B) requires that the periodic statement be clearly and conspicuously labeled “Suspension of Statements &amp; Notice of Charge Off—Retain This Copy for Your Records” and that it clearly and conspicuously provide certain explanations to the consumer, as applicable, but no minimum type size or other technical requirements are imposed. The clear and conspicuous standard generally requires that disclosures be in a reasonably understandable form and readily noticeable to the consumer. <I>See</I> comment 41(c)-1.
</P>
<P><I>41(f) Modified periodic statements and coupon books for certain consumers in bankruptcy.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Compliance after the bankruptcy case ends.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.41(e)(5), § 1026.41(f) applies with regard to a mortgage loan for which any consumer with primary liability is a debtor in a case under title 11 of the United States Code. After the debtor exits bankruptcy, § 1026.41(f) continues to apply if the consumer has discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan, but § 1026.41(f) does not apply if the consumer has reaffirmed personal liability for the mortgage loan or otherwise has not discharged personal liability for the mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Terminology.</I> With regard to a periodic statement provided under § 1026.41(f), a servicer may use terminology other than that found on the sample periodic statements in appendix H-30, so long as the new terminology is commonly understood. <I>See</I> comment 41(d)-3. For example, a servicer may take into account terminology appropriate for consumers in bankruptcy and refer to the “amount due” identified in § 1026.41(d)(1), as the “payment amount.” Similarly, a servicer may refer to an amount past due identified in § 1026.41(d)(2)(iii) as “past unpaid amount.” Additionally, a servicer may refer to the delinquency information required by § 1026.41(d)(8) as an “account history,” and to the amount needed to bring the loan current, referred to in § 1026.41(d)(8)(vi) as “the total payment amount needed to bring the account current,” as “unpaid amount.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Other periodic statement requirements continue to apply.</I> The requirements of § 1026.41, including the content and layout requirements of § 1026.41(d), apply unless modified expressly by § 1026.41(e)(5) or (f). For example, the requirement under § 1026.41(d)(3) to disclose a past payment breakdown applies without modification with respect to a periodic statement provided to a consumer in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Further modifications.</I> A periodic statement or coupon book provided under § 1026.41(f) may be modified as necessary to facilitate compliance with title 11 of the United States Code, the Federal Rules of Bankruptcy Procedure, court orders, and local rules, guidelines, and standing orders. For example, a periodic statement or coupon book may include additional disclosures or disclaimers not required under § 1026.41(f) but that are related to the consumer's status as a debtor in bankruptcy or that advise the consumer how to submit a written request under § 1026.41(e)(5)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>). <I>See</I> comment 41(f)(3)-1.ii for a discussion of the treatment of a bankruptcy plan that modifies the terms of the mortgage loan, such as by reducing the outstanding balance of the mortgage loan or altering the applicable interest rate.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Commencing compliance.</I> A servicer must begin to provide a periodic statement or coupon book that complies with paragraph (f) of this section within the timeframe set forth in § 1026.41(e)(5)(iv).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reaffirmation.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(f), a consumer who has reaffirmed personal liability for a mortgage loan is not considered to be a debtor in bankruptcy.
</P>
<P><I>41(f)(3) Chapter 12 and chapter 13 consumers.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pre-petition payments and post-petition payments.</I> i. For purposes of § 1026.41(f)(3), pre-petition payments are payments made to cure the consumer's pre-bankruptcy defaults, and post-petition payments are payments made to satisfy the mortgage loan's periodic payments as they come due after the bankruptcy case is filed. For example, assume a consumer is $3,600 in arrears as of the bankruptcy filing date on a mortgage loan requiring monthly periodic payments of $2,000. The consumer's most recently filed bankruptcy plan requires the consumer to make payments of $100 each month for 36 months to pay the pre-bankruptcy arrearage, and $2,000 each month to satisfy the monthly periodic payments. Assuming the consumer makes the payments according to the plan, the $100 payments are the pre-petition payments and the $2,000 payments are the post-petition payments for purposes of the disclosures required under § 1026.41(f)(3).
</P>
<P>ii. If a consumer is a debtor in a case under chapter 12 or if a consumer's bankruptcy plan modifies the terms of the mortgage loan, such as by reducing the outstanding balance of the mortgage loan or altering the applicable interest rate, the disclosures under § 1026.41(d)(1) and (2) and (f)(3)(ii) and (iii) may disclose either the amount payable under the original terms of the mortgage loan, the amount payable under the remaining secured portion of the adjusted mortgage loan, or a statement that the consumer should contact the trustee or the consumer's attorney with any questions about the amount payable. In such cases, the remaining disclosures under § 1026.41(d) or (f)(3), as applicable, may be limited to how payments are applied to the remaining secured portion of the adjusted mortgage loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Post-petition fees and charges.</I> For purposes of § 1026.41(f)(3), post-petition fees and charges are those fees and charges imposed after the bankruptcy case is filed. To the extent that the court overseeing the consumer's bankruptcy case requires such fees and charges to be included as an amendment to a servicer's proof of claim, a servicer may include such fees and charges in the balance of the pre-petition arrearage under § 1026.41(f)(3)(v)(C) rather than treating them as post-petition fees and charges for purposes of § 1026.41(f)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>First statement after exemption terminates.</I> Section § 1026.41(f)(3)(iii) through (v) requires, in part, the disclosure of certain information regarding account activity that has occurred since the last statement. For purposes of the first periodic statement provided to the consumer following termination of an exemption under § 1026.41(e), those disclosures regarding account activity that has occurred since the last statement may be limited to account activity since the last payment due date that occurred while the exemption was in effect. <I>See</I> comment 41(d)-5.
</P>
<P><I>41(f)(3)(ii) Amount due.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Amount due.</I> The amount due under § 1026.41(d)(1) is not required to include any amounts other than post-petition payments the consumer is required to make under the terms of a bankruptcy plan, including any past due post-petition payments, and post-petition fees and charges that a servicer has imposed. The servicer is not required to include in the amount due any pre-petition payments due under a bankruptcy plan or other amounts payable pursuant to a court order. The servicer is not required to include in the amount due any post-petition fees and charges that the servicer has not imposed. A servicer that defers collecting a fee or charge until after complying with the Federal Rule of Bankruptcy Procedure 3002.1 procedures, and thus after a potential court determination on whether the fee or charge is allowed, is not required to disclose the fee or charge until complying with such procedures. However, a servicer may include in the amount due other amounts due to the servicer that are not post-petition payments or fees or charges, such as amounts due under an agreed order, provided those other amounts are also disclosed in the explanation of amount due and transaction activity.
</P>
<P><I>41(f)(3)(iii) Explanation of amount due.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Explanation of amount due.</I> The explanation of amount due under § 1026.41(d)(2) is not required to include any amounts other than the post-petition payments, including the amount of any past due post-petition payments and post-petition fees and charges that a servicer has imposed. Consistent with § 1026.41(d)(3)(i), the post-petition payments must be broken down by the amount, if any, that will be applied to principal, interest, and escrow. The servicer is not required to disclose, as part of the explanation of amount due, any pre-petition payments or the amount of the consumer's pre-bankruptcy arrearage. However, a servicer may identify other amounts due to the servicer provided those amounts are also disclosed in the amount due and transaction activity. <I>See</I> comment 41(d)-4.
</P>
<P><I>41(f)(3)(v) Pre-petition arrearage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Pre-petition arrearage.</I> If the pre-petition arrearage is subject to dispute, or has not yet been determined by the servicer, the periodic statement may include a statement acknowledging the unresolved amount of the pre-petition arrearage. A servicer may omit the information required by § 1026.41(f)(3)(v) from the periodic statement until such time as the servicer has had a reasonable opportunity to determine the amount of the pre-petition arrearage. The servicer may not omit the information required by § 1026.41(f)(3)(v) from the periodic statement after the date that the bankruptcy court has fixed for filing proofs of claim in the consumer's bankruptcy case.
</P>
<P><I>41(f)(4) Multiple obligors.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Modified statements.</I> When two or more consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.41, a servicer may send the periodic statement to any one of the primary obligors. <I>See</I> comment 41(a)-1. Section 1026.41(f)(4) provides that a servicer may provide a modified statement under § 1026.41(f), if applicable, to any or all of the primary obligors, even if a primary obligor to whom the servicer provides the modified statement is not a debtor in bankruptcy. The servicer need not provide an unmodified statement to any of the primary obligors. For example, assume that two spouses jointly own a home and are both primarily liable on the mortgage loan. One spouse files for chapter 13 bankruptcy, and that spouse's chapter 13 bankruptcy plan provides that the same spouse will retain the home by making pre-petition and post-petition payments. The servicer complies with § 1026.41 by providing the modified periodic statement under § 1026.41(f) to either spouse.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Obligors in different chapters of bankruptcy.</I> If two or more consumers are joint obligors with primary liability on a mortgage loan subject to § 1026.41 and are debtors under different chapters of bankruptcy, only one of which is subject to § 1026.41(f)(3), a servicer may, but need not, include the modifications set forth in § 1026.41(f)(3). For example, assume one joint obligor is a debtor in a case under chapter 7 and another joint obligor is a debtor in a case under chapter 13, and that the servicer is not exempt from the periodic statement requirement under § 1026.41(e)(5). The periodic statement or coupon book is subject to the modifications set forth in § 1026.41(f)(1) and (2), but the servicer may determine whether it is appropriate to include the modifications set forth in § 1026.41(f)(3).


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.42—Valuation Independence 


</HD2>
<HD3>42(a) Scope


</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Open- and closed-end credit.</I> Section 1026.42 applies to both open-end and closed-end transactions secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer's principal dwelling.</I> Except for section 1026.42(i), section 1026.42 applies only if the dwelling that will secure a consumer credit transaction is the principal dwelling of the consumer who obtains credit. Section 1026.42(i) applies if the dwelling that will secure a mortgage, as defined in § 1026.42(i)(2)(v), is the principal dwelling of the consumer who obtains credit, even if the mortgage is primarily for business, commercial, agricultural, or organizational purposes. The term “dwelling” is defined in § 1026.2(a)(19). Comments 2(a)(19)-4 and 42(b)(2)-1 discuss the term “principal dwelling.”










</P>
<HD3>42(b) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 42(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of covered persons.</I> “Covered persons” include creditors, mortgage brokers, appraisers, appraisal management companies, real estate agents, and other persons that provide “settlement services” as defined under the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act and implementing regulations. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 2602(3).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of persons not covered.</I> The following persons are not “covered persons” (unless, of course, they are creditors with respect to a covered transaction or perform “settlement services” in connection with a covered transaction):
</P>
<P>i. The consumer who obtains credit through a covered transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. A person secondarily liable for a covered transaction, such as a guarantor.
</P>
<P>iii. A person that resides in or will reside in the consumer's principal dwelling but will not be liable on the covered transaction, such as a non-obligor spouse.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 42(b)(2)










</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Principal dwelling.</I> The term “principal dwelling” has the same meaning under § 1026.42(b) and (i) as under §§ 1026.2(a)(24), 1026.15(a), and 1026.23(a). <I>See</I> comments 2(a)(19)-4, 2(a)(24)-3, 15(a)(1)-5, and 23(a)-3. The term “dwelling” is defined in § 1026.2(a)(19).


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 42(b)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Valuation.</I> A “valuation” is an estimate of value prepared by a natural person, such as an appraisal report prepared by an appraiser or an estimate of market value prepared by a real estate agent. The term includes photographic or other information included with a written estimate of value. A “valuation” includes an estimate provided or viewed electronically, such as an estimate transmitted via electronic mail or viewed using a computer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Automated model or system.</I> A “valuation” does not include an estimate of value produced exclusively using an automated model or system. However, a “valuation” includes an estimate of value developed by a natural person based in part on an estimate of value produced using an automated model or system.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Estimate.</I> An estimate of the value of the consumer's principal dwelling includes an estimate of a range of values for the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<HD3>42(c) Valuation for consumer's principal dwelling
</HD3>
<HD3>42(c)(1) Coercion
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<P>1. <I>State law.</I> The terms “coercion,” “extortion,” “inducement,” “bribery,” “intimidation,” “compensation,” “instruction,” and “collusion” have the meanings given to them by applicable state law or contract. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(b)(3).
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<P>2. <I>Purpose.</I> A covered person does not violate § 1026.42(c)(1) if the person does not engage in an act or practice set forth in § 1026.42(c)(1) for the purpose of causing the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of a person that prepares valuations. For example, requesting that a person that prepares a valuation take certain actions, such as consider additional, appropriate property information, does not violate § 1026.42(c), because such request does not supplant the independent judgment of the person that prepares a valuation. <I>See</I> § 1026.42(c)(3)(i). A covered person also may provide incentives, such as additional compensation, to a person that prepares valuations or performs valuation management functions under § 1026.42(c)(1), as long as the covered person does not cause or attempt to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the person that prepares valuations.
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<P>3. <I>Person that prepares valuations.</I> For purposes of § 1026.42, the term “valuation” includes an estimate of value regardless of whether it is an appraisal prepared by a state-certified or -licensed appraiser. See comment 42(b)(3)-1. A person that prepares valuations may or may not be a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser. Thus a person violates § 1026.42(c)(1) by engaging in prohibited acts or practices directed towards any person that prepares or may prepare a valuation of the consumer's principal dwelling for a covered transaction. For example, a person violates § 1026.42(c)(1) by seeking to coerce a real estate agent to assign a value to the consumer's principal dwelling based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the real estate agent, in connection with a covered transaction.
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<P>4. <I>Indirect acts or practices.</I> Section 1026.42(c)(1) prohibits both direct and indirect attempts to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the independent judgment of the person that prepares the valuation, through coercion and certain other acts and practices. For example, a creditor violates § 1026.42(c)(1) if the creditor attempts to cause the value an appraiser engaged by an appraisal management company assigns to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the appraiser's independent judgment, by threatening to withhold future business from a title company affiliated with the appraisal management company unless the appraiser assigns a value to the dwelling that meets or exceeds a minimum threshold.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(c)(1)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Applicability of examples.</I> Section 1026.42(c)(1)(i) provides examples of coercion of a person that prepares valuations. However, § 1026.42(c)(1)(i) also applies to coercion of a person that performs valuation management functions or its affiliate. <I>See</I> § 1026.42(c)(1); comment 42(c)(1) 4.
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<P>2. <I>Specific value or predetermined threshold.</I> As used in the examples of actions prohibited under § 1026.42(c)(1), a “specific value” and a “predetermined threshold” include a predetermined minimum, maximum, or range of values. Further, although the examples assume a covered person's prohibited actions are designed to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to equal or exceed a certain amount, the rule applies equally to cases where a covered person's prohibited actions are designed to cause the value assigned to the dwelling to be below a certain amount.
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<HD3>42(c)(2) Mischaracterization of Value
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<HD3>42(c)(2)(i) Misrepresentation
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<P>1. <I>Opinion of value.</I> Section 1026.42(c)(2)(i) prohibits a person that performs valuations from misrepresenting the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation. Such person misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling by assigning a value to such dwelling that does not reflect the person's opinion of the value of such dwelling. For example, an appraiser misrepresents the value of the consumer's principal dwelling if the appraiser estimates that the value of such dwelling is $250,000 applying the standards required by the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Standards but assigns a value of $300,000 to such dwelling in a Uniform Residential Appraisal Report.
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<HD3>42(c)(2)(iii) Inducement of Mischaracterization
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<P>1. <I>Inducement.</I> A covered person may not induce a person to materially misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in a valuation or to falsify or alter a valuation. For example, a loan originator may not coerce a loan underwriter to alter an appraisal report to increase the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling.
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<HD3>42(d) Prohibition on Conflicts of Interest
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<HD3>42(d)(1)(i) In General
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<P>1. <I>Prohibited interest in the property.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions for a covered transaction has a prohibited interest in the property under paragraph (d)(1)(i) if the person has any ownership or reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property. For example, a person who seeks a mortgage to purchase a home has a reasonably foreseeable ownership interest in the property securing the mortgage, and therefore is not permitted to prepare the valuation or perform valuation management functions for that mortgage transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Prohibited interest in the transaction.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions has a prohibited interest in the transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i) if that person or an affiliate of that person also serves as a loan officer of the creditor, mortgage broker, real estate broker, or other settlement service provider for the transaction and the conditions under paragraph (d)(4) are not satisfied. A person also has a prohibited interest in the transaction if the person is compensated or otherwise receives financial or other benefits based on whether the transaction is consummated. Under these circumstances, the person is not permitted to prepare the valuation or perform valuation management functions for that transaction under paragraph (d)(1)(i).
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<HD3>42(d)(1)(ii) Employees and Affiliates of Creditors; Providers of Multiple Settlement Services
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<P>1. <I>Employees and affiliates of creditors.</I> In general, a creditor may use employees or affiliates to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions without violating paragraph (d)(1)(i). However, whether an employee or affiliate has a direct or indirect interest in the property or transaction that creates a prohibited conflict of interest under paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on the facts and circumstances of a particular case, including the structure of the employment or affiliate relationship.
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<P>2. <I>Providers of multiple settlement services.</I> In general, a person who prepares a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a covered transaction may perform another settlement service for the same transaction, or the person's affiliate may perform another settlement service, without violating paragraph (d)(1)(i). However, whether the person has a direct or indirect interest in the property or transaction that creates a prohibited conflict of interest under paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on the facts and circumstances of a particular case.
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<HD3>42(d)(2) Employees and Affiliates of Creditors with Assets of More than $250 Million for Both of the Past two Calendar Years
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A person who a prepares valuation or performs valuation management functions for a covered transaction and is an employee or affiliate of the creditor will not be deemed to have an interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) on the basis of the employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two years, the creditor may use its own employee or affiliate to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a particular transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(2) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(2) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(d)(2)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Prohibition on reporting to a person who is part of the creditor's loan production function.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2), the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions may not report to a person who is part of the creditor's loan production function (as defined in paragraph (d)(5)(i) and comment 42(d)(5)(i)-1). For example, if a person preparing a valuation is directly supervised or managed by a loan officer or other person in the creditor's loan production function, or by a person who is directly supervised or managed by a loan officer, the condition under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<P>2. <I>Prohibition on reporting to a person whose compensation is based on the transaction closing.</I> To qualify for the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2), the person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions may not report to a person whose compensation is based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates. For example, assume an appraisal management company performs valuation management functions for a transaction in which the creditor is an affiliate of the appraisal management company. If the employee of the appraisal management company who is in charge of valuation management functions for that transaction is supervised by a person who earns a commission or bonus based on the percentage of closed transactions for which the appraisal management company provides valuation management functions, the condition under paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(d)(2)(iii)
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<P>1. <I>Direct or indirect involvement in selection of person who prepares a valuation.</I> In any covered transaction, the safe harbor under paragraph (d)(2) is available if, among other things, no employee, officer or director in the creditor's loan production function (as defined in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) and comment 42(d)(4)(ii)-1) is directly or indirectly involved in selecting, retaining, recommending or influencing the selection of the person to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions, or to be included in or excluded from a list or panel of approved persons who prepare valuations or perform valuation management functions. For example, if the person who selects the person to prepare the valuation for a covered transaction is supervised by an employee of the creditor who also supervises loan officers, the condition in paragraph (d)(2)(iii) is not met.
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<HD3>42(d)(3) Employees and Affiliates of Creditors With Assets of $250 Million or Less for Either of the Past Two Calendar Years
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor.</I> A person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions for a covered transaction and is an employee or affiliate of the creditor will not be deemed to have interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) on the basis of the employment or affiliate relationship with the creditor if the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years, the creditor may use its own employee or affiliate to prepare a valuation or perform valuation management functions for a particular transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(3) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(3) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<HD3>42(d)(4) Providers of Multiple Settlement Services
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(d)(4)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor in transactions in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the same transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, will not be deemed to have interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction with a creditor that had assets of more than $250 million for the past two years, a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions, or its affiliate, may provide another settlement service for the same transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(i) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<P>2. <I>Reporting.</I> The safe harbor under paragraph (d)(4)(i) is available if the condition specified in paragraph (d)(2)(ii), among others, is met. Paragraph (d)(2)(ii) prohibits a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions from reporting to a person whose compensation is based on the closing of the transaction to which the valuation relates. For example, assume an appraisal management company performs both valuation management functions and title services, including providing title insurance, for the same covered transaction. If the appraisal management company employee in charge of valuation management functions for the transaction is supervised by the title insurance agent in the transaction, whose compensation depends in whole or in part on whether title insurance is sold at the loan closing, the condition in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) is not met.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(d)(4)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Safe harbor in transactions in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two calendar years.</I> A person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions in addition to performing another settlement service for the same transaction, or whose affiliate performs another settlement service for the transaction, will not be deemed to have an interest prohibited under paragraph (d)(1)(i) as a result of the person or the person's affiliate performing another settlement service if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied. Even if the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied, however, the person may have a prohibited conflict of interest on other grounds, such as if the person performs a valuation for a purchase-money mortgage transaction in which the person is the buyer or seller of the subject property. Thus, in general, in any covered transaction in which the creditor had assets of $250 million or less for either of the past two years, a person preparing a valuation or performing valuation management functions, or its affiliate, may provide other settlement services for the same transaction, as long as the conditions described in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are satisfied. If the conditions in paragraph (d)(4)(ii) are not satisfied, whether a person preparing valuations or performing valuation management functions has violated paragraph (d)(1)(i) depends on all of the facts and circumstances.
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<HD3>42(d)(5) Definitions
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<HD3>42(d)(5)(i) Loan Production Function
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<P>1. <I>Loan production function.</I> One condition of the safe harbors under paragraphs (d)(2) and (d)(4)(i), involving transactions in which the creditor had assets of more than $250 million for both of the past two calendar years, is that the person who prepares a valuation or performs valuation management functions must report to a person who is not part of the creditor's “loan production function.” A creditor's “loan production function” includes retail sales staff, loan officers, and any other employee of the creditor with responsibility for taking a loan application, offering or negotiating loan terms or whose compensation is based on loan processing volume. A person is not considered part of a creditor's loan production function solely because part of the person's compensation includes a general bonus not tied to specific transactions or a specific percentage of transactions closing, or a profit sharing plan that benefits all employees. A person solely responsible for credit administration or risk management is also not considered part of a creditor's loan production function. Credit administration and risk management includes, for example, loan underwriting, loan closing functions (e.g., loan documentation), disbursing funds, collecting mortgage payments and otherwise servicing the loan (e.g., escrow management and payment of taxes), monitoring loan performance, and foreclosure processing.
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<HD3>42(e) When Extension of Credit Prohibited
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable diligence.</I> A creditor will be deemed to have acted with reasonable diligence under § 1026.42(e) if the creditor extends credit based on a valuation other than the valuation subject to the restriction in § 1026.42(e). A creditor need not obtain a second valuation to document that the creditor has acted with reasonable diligence to determine that the valuation does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling, however. For example, assume an appraiser notifies a creditor before consummation that a loan originator attempted to cause the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling to be based on a factor other than the appraiser's independent judgment, through coercion. If the creditor reasonably determines and documents that the appraisal does not materially misstate or misrepresent the value of the consumer's principal dwelling, for purposes of § 1026.42(e), the creditor may extend credit based on the appraisal.
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<HD3>42(f) Customary and Reasonable Compensation
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<HD3>42(f)(1) Requirement to Provide Customary and Reasonable Compensation to Fee Appraisers
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<P>1. <I>Agents of the creditor.</I> Whether a person is an agent of the creditor is determined by applicable law; however, a “fee appraiser” as defined in paragraph (f)(4)(i) is not an agent of the creditor for purposes of paragraph (f), and therefore is not required to pay other fee appraisers customary and reasonable compensation under paragraph (f).
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<P>2. <I>Geographic market.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f), the “geographic market of the property being appraised” means the geographic market relevant to compensation levels for appraisal services. Depending on the facts and circumstances, the relevant geographic market may be a state, metropolitan statistical area (MSA), metropolitan division, area outside of an MSA, county, or other geographic area. For example, assume that fee appraisers who normally work only in County A generally accept $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. Assume also that <I>very few or no</I> fee appraisers who work only in contiguous County B will accept a rate comparable to $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. The relevant geographic market for an attached single-family property in County A may reasonably be defined as County A. On the other hand, assume that fee appraisers who normally work only in County A generally accept $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. Assume also that <I>many</I> fee appraisers who normally work only in contiguous County B will accept a rate comparable to $400 to appraise an attached single-family property in County A. The relevant geographic market for an attached single-family property in County A may reasonably be defined to include both County A and County B.
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<P>3. <I>Failure to perform contractual obligations.</I> Paragraph (f)(1) does not prohibit a creditor or its agent from withholding compensation from a fee appraiser for failing to meet contractual obligations, such as failing to provide the appraisal report or violating state or Federal appraisal laws in performing the appraisal.
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<P>4. <I>Agreement that fee is “customary and reasonable.”</I> A document signed by a fee appraiser indicating that the appraiser agrees that the fee paid to the appraiser is “customary and reasonable” does not by itself create a presumption of compliance with § 1026.42(f) or otherwise satisfy the requirement to pay a fee appraiser at a customary and reasonable rate.
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<P>5. <I>Volume-based discounts.</I> Section 1026.42(f)(1) does not prohibit a fee appraiser and a creditor (or its agent) from agreeing to compensation based on transaction volume, so long as the compensation is customary and reasonable. For example, assume that a fee appraiser typically receives $300 for appraisals from creditors with whom it does business; the fee appraiser, however, agrees to reduce the fee to $280 for a particular creditor, in exchange for a minimum number of assignments from the creditor.
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<HD3>42(f)(2) Presumption of Compliance
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<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor and its agent are presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if the creditor or its agent meets the conditions specified in paragraph (f)(2) in determining the compensation paid to a fee appraiser. These conditions are not requirements for compliance but, if met, create a presumption that the creditor or its agent has complied with § 1026.42(f)(1). A person may rebut this presumption with evidence that the amount of compensation paid to a fee appraiser was not customary and reasonable for reasons unrelated to the conditions in paragraph (f)(2)(i) or (f)(2)(ii). If a creditor or its agent does not meet one of the non-required conditions set forth in paragraph (f)(2), the creditor's and its agent's compliance with paragraph (f)(1) is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without a presumption of either compliance or violation.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Two-step process for determining customary and reasonable rates.</I> Paragraph (f)(2)(i) sets forth a two-step process for a creditor or its agent to determine the amount of compensation that is customary and reasonable in a given transaction. First, the creditor or its agent must identify recent rates paid for comparable appraisal services in the relevant geographic market. Second, once recent rates have been identified, the creditor or its agent must review the factors listed in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A)-(F) and make any appropriate adjustments to the rates to ensure that the amount of compensation is reasonable.
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<P>2. <I>Identifying recent rates.</I> Whether rates may reasonably be considered “recent” depends on the facts and circumstances. Generally, “recent” rates would include rates charged within one year of the creditor's or its agent's reliance on this information to qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2). For purposes of the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2), a creditor or its agent may gather information about recent rates by using a reasonable method that provides information about rates for appraisal services in the geographic market of the relevant property; a creditor or its agent may, but is not required to, use or perform a fee survey.
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<P>3. <I>Accounting for factors.</I> Once recent rates in the relevant geographic market have been identified, the creditor or its agent must review the factors listed in paragraph (f)(2)(i)(A)-(F) to determine the appropriate rate for the current transaction. For example, if the recent rates identified by the creditor or its agent were solely for appraisal assignments in which the scope of work required consideration of two comparable properties, but the current transaction required an appraisal that considered three comparable properties, the creditor or its agent might reasonably adjust the rate by an amount that accounts for the increased scope of work, in addition to making any other appropriate adjustments based on the remaining factors.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(A)
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<P>1. <I>Type of property.</I> The type of property may include, for example, detached or attached single-family property, condominium or cooperative unit, or manufactured home.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(B)
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<P>1. <I>Scope of work.</I> The scope of work may include, for example, the type of inspection (such as exterior only or both interior and exterior) or number of comparables required for the appraisal.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(D)
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser qualifications.</I> The fee appraiser qualifications may include, for example, a state license or certification in accordance with the minimum criteria issued by the Appraisal Qualifications Board of the Appraisal Foundation, or completion of continuing education courses on effective appraisal methods and related topics.
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<P>2. <I>Membership in professional appraisal organization.</I> Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(D) does not override state or Federal laws prohibiting the exclusion of an appraiser from consideration for an assignment solely by virtue of membership or lack of membership in any particular appraisal organization. <I>See, e.g.,</I> 12 CFR 225.66(a).
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(E)
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser experience and professional record.</I> The fee appraiser's level of experience may include, for example, the fee appraiser's years of service as a state-licensed or state-certified appraiser, or years of service appraising properties in a particular geographical area or of a particular type. The fee appraiser's professional record may include, for example, whether the fee appraiser has a past record of suspensions, disqualifications, debarments, or judgments for waste, fraud, abuse or breach of legal or professional standards.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(i)(F)
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<P>1. <I>Fee appraiser work quality.</I> The fee appraiser's work quality may include, for example, the past quality of appraisals performed by the appraiser based on the written performance and review criteria of the creditor or agent of the creditor.
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<HD3>Paragraph 42(f)(2)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Restraining trade.</I> Under § 1026.42(f)(2)(ii)(A), creditor or its agent would not qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2) if it engaged in any acts to restrain trade such as entering into a price fixing or market allocation agreement that affect the compensation of fee appraisers. For example, if appraisal management company A and appraisal management company B agreed to compensate fee appraisers at no more than a specific rate or range of rates, neither appraisal management company would qualify for the presumption of compliance. Likewise, if appraisal management company A and appraisal management company B agreed that appraisal management company A would limit its business to a certain portion of the relevant geographic market and appraisal management company B would limit its business to a different portion of the relevant geographic market, and as a result each appraisal management company unilaterally set the fees paid to fee appraisers in their respective portions of the market, neither appraisal management company would qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2).
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<P>2. <I>Acts of monopolization.</I> Under § 1026.42(f)(2)(ii)(B), a creditor or its agent would not qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(2) if it engaged in any act of monopolization such as restricting entry into the relevant geographic market or causing any person to leave the relevant geographic market, resulting in anticompetitive effects that affect the compensation paid to fee appraisers. For example, if only one appraisal management company exists or is predominant in a particular market area, that appraisal management company might not qualify for the presumption of compliance if it entered into exclusivity agreements with all creditors in the market or all fee appraisers in the market, such that other appraisal management companies had to leave or could not enter the market. Whether this behavior would be considered an anticompetitive act that affects the compensation paid to fee appraisers depends on all of the facts and circumstances, including applicable law.
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<HD3>42(f)(3) Alternative Presumption of Compliance
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<P>1. <I>In general.</I> A creditor and its agent are presumed to comply with paragraph (f)(1) if the creditor or its agent determine the compensation paid to a fee appraiser based on information about customary and reasonable rates that satisfies the conditions in paragraph (f)(3) for that information. Reliance on information satisfying the conditions in paragraph (f)(3) is not a requirement for compliance with paragraph (f)(1), but creates a presumption that the creditor or its agent has complied. A person may rebut this presumption with evidence that the rate of compensation paid to a fee appraiser by the creditor or its agent is not customary and reasonable based on facts or information other than third-party information satisfying the conditions of this paragraph (f)(3). If a creditor or its agent does not rely on information that meets the conditions in paragraph (f)(3), the creditor's and its agent's compliance with paragraph (f)(1) is determined based on all of the facts and circumstances without a presumption of either compliance or violation.
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<P>2. <I>Geographic market.</I> The meaning of “geographic market” for purposes of paragraph (f) is explained in comment (f)(1)-1.
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<P>3. <I>Recent rates.</I> Whether rates may reasonably be considered “recent” depends on the facts and circumstances. Generally, “recent” rates would include rates charged within one year of the creditor's or its agent's reliance on this information to qualify for the presumption of compliance under paragraph (f)(3).
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<HD3>42(f)(4) Definitions
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<HD3>42(f)(4)(i) Fee Appraiser
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<P>1. <I>Organization.</I> The term “organization” in paragraph 42(f)(4)(i)(B) includes a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, or other business entity and does not include a natural person.
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<HD3>42(g) Mandatory Reporting
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<HD3>42(g)(1) Reporting Required
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable basis.</I> A person reasonably believes that an appraiser has materially failed to comply with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) established by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(9)) or ethical or professional requirements for appraisers under applicable state or Federal statutes or regulations if the person possesses knowledge or information that would lead a reasonable person in the same circumstances to conclude that the appraiser has materially failed to comply with USPAP or such statutory or regulatory requirements.
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<P>2. <I>Material failure to comply.</I> For purposes of § 1026.42(g)(1), a material failure to comply is one that is likely to affect the value assigned to the consumer's principal dwelling. The following are examples of a material failure to comply with USPAP or ethical or professional requirements:
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<P>i. Mischaracterizing the value of the consumer's principal dwelling in violation of § 1026.42(c)(2)(i).
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<P>ii. Performing an assignment in a grossly negligent manner, in violation of a rule under USPAP.
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<P>iii. Accepting an appraisal assignment on the condition that the appraiser will report a value equal to or greater than the purchase price for the consumer's principal dwelling, in violation of a rule under USPAP.
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<P>3. <I>Other matters.</I> Section 1026.42(g)(1) does not require reporting of a matter that is not material under § 1026.42(g)(1), for example:
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<P>i. An appraiser's disclosure of confidential information in violation of applicable state law.
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<P>ii. An appraiser's failure to maintain errors and omissions insurance in violation of applicable state law.
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<P>4. <I>Examples of covered persons.</I> “Covered persons” include creditors, mortgage brokers, appraisers, appraisal management companies, real estate agents, and other persons that provide “settlement services” as defined in section 3(3) of the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (12 U.S.C. 2602(3)) and the implementing regulation at 12 CFR 1024.2. <I>See</I> § 1026.42(b)(1).
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<P>5. <I>Examples of persons not covered.</I> The following persons are not “covered persons” (unless, of course, they are creditors with respect to a covered transaction or perform “settlement services” in connection with a covered transaction):
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<P>i. The consumer who obtains credit through a covered transaction.
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<P>ii. A person secondarily liable for a covered transaction, such as a guarantor.
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<P>iii. A person that resides in or will reside in the consumer's principal dwelling but will not be liable on the covered transaction, such as a non-obligor spouse.
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<P>6. <I>Appraiser.</I> For purposes of § 1026.42(g)(1), an “appraiser” is a natural person who provides opinions of the value of dwellings and is required to be licensed or certified under the laws of the state in which the consumer's principal dwelling is located or otherwise is subject to the jurisdiction of the appraiser certifying and licensing agency for that state. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 3350(1).


</P>
<HD3>42(i) Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 42(i)(2)(vi)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Servicers.</I> The term mortgage originator generally excludes servicers and their employees, agents, and contractors. However, a person is a servicer with respect to a particular transaction only after it is consummated, and that person retains or obtains its servicing rights. Therefore, the term mortgage originator includes a servicer and its employees, agents, or contractors when they perform mortgage originator activities for purposes of 15 U.S.C. 1602(dd)(2) with respect to any transaction that constitutes a new extension of credit, including a refinancing or a transaction that obligates a different consumer on an existing debt.








</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.43—Minimum Standards for Transactions Secured by a Dwelling
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Record retention.</I> See § 1026.25(c)(3) and comments 25(c)(3)-1 and -2 for guidance on the required retention of records as evidence of compliance with § 1026.43.
</P>
<P>2. <I>General QM Amendments Effective on March 1, 2021.</I> The Bureau's revisions to Regulation Z contained in Qualified Mortgage Definition Under the Truth in Lending Act (Regulation Z): General QM Loan Definition published on December 29, 2020 (2021 General QM Amendments) apply with respect to transactions for which a creditor received an application on or after March 1, 2021 (effective date). Compliance with the 2021 General QM Amendments is mandatory with respect to transactions for which a creditor received an application on or after October 1, 2022 (mandatory compliance date). For a given transaction for which a creditor received an application on or after March 1, 2021 but prior to October 1, 2022, a person has the option of complying either: With 12 CFR part 1026 as it is in effect; or with 12 CFR part 1026 as it was in effect on February 26, 2021, together with any amendments to 12 CFR part 1026 that become effective after February 26, 2021, other than the 2021 General QM Amendments. For transactions subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), or (g), creditors determine the date the creditor received the consumer's application, for purposes of this comment, in accordance with § 1026.2(a)(3)(ii). For transactions that are not subject to § 1026.19(e), (f), or (g), creditors can determine the date the creditor received the consumer's application, for purposes of this comment, in accordance with either § 1026.2(a)(3)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<P><I>43(a) Scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consumer credit.</I> In general, § 1026.43 applies to consumer credit transactions secured by a dwelling, but certain dwelling-secured consumer credit transactions are exempt or partially exempt from coverage under § 1026.43(a)(1) through (3). (See § 1026.2(a)(12) for the definition of “consumer credit.”) Section 1026.43 does not apply to an extension of credit primarily for a business, commercial, or agricultural purpose, even if it is secured by a dwelling. See § 1026.3 and associated commentary for guidance in determining the primary purpose of an extension of credit. In addition, § 1026.43 does not apply to any change to an existing loan that is not treated as a refinancing under § 1026.20(a).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Real property.</I> “Dwelling” means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not the structure is attached to real property. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(19). For purposes of § 1026.43, the term “dwelling” includes any real property to which the residential structure is attached that also secures the covered transaction. For example, for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(i), the value of the dwelling that secures the covered transaction includes the value of any real property to which the residential structure is attached that also secures the covered transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(a)(3).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Renewable temporary or “bridge” loan.</I> Under § 1026.43(a)(3)(ii), a temporary or “bridge” loan with a term of 12 months or less is exempt from § 1026.43(c) through (f). Examples of such a loan are a loan to finance the purchase of a new dwelling where the consumer plans to sell a current dwelling within 12 months and a loan to finance the initial construction of a dwelling. Where a temporary or “bridge loan” is renewable, the loan term does not include any additional period of time that could result from a renewal provision provided that any renewal possible under the loan contract is for one year or less. For example, if a construction loan has an initial loan term of 12 months but is renewable for another 12-month loan term, the loan is exempt from § 1026.43(c) through (f) because the initial loan term is 12 months.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan.</I> Under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iii), a construction phase of 12 months or less of a construction-to-permanent loan is exempt from § 1026.43(c) through (f). A construction-to-permanent loan is a potentially multiple-advance loan to finance the construction, rehabilitation, or improvement of a dwelling that may be permanently financed by the same creditor. For such a loan, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as separate transactions for the purpose of compliance with § 1026.43(c) through (f), and the construction phase of the loan is exempt from § 1026.43(c) through (f), provided the initial term is 12 months or less. See § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii), allowing similar treatment for disclosures. Where the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan is renewable for a period of one year or less, the term of that construction phase does not include any additional period of time that could result from a renewal provision. For example, if the construction phase of a construction-to-permanent loan has an initial term of 12 months but is renewable for another 12-month term before permanent financing begins, the construction phase is exempt from § 1026.43(c) through (f) because the initial term is 12 months. Any renewal of one year or less also qualifies for the exemption. The permanent phase of the loan is treated as a separate transaction and is not exempt under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iii). It may be a qualified mortgage if it satisfies the appropriate requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(a)(3)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) do not apply to an extension of credit made pursuant to a program administered by a Housing Finance Agency, as defined under 24 CFR 266.5. Under the exemption, the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) do not apply to extensions of credit made by housing finance agencies and extensions of credit made by intermediaries (<I>e.g.,</I> private creditors) pursuant to a program administered by a housing finance agency. For example, if a creditor is extending credit, including a subordinate-lien covered transaction, that will be made pursuant to a program administered by a housing finance agency, the creditor is exempt from the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f). Similarly, the creditor is exempt from the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) regardless of whether the program administered by a housing finance agency is funded by Federal, State, or other sources.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(a)(3)(v)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> An extension of credit is exempt from the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) if the credit is extended by a creditor described in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D), provided the conditions specified in that section are satisfied. The conditions specified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) are determined according to activity that occurred in the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the consumer's application was received. Section 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) provides that, during the preceding calendar year, the creditor must have extended credit only to consumers with income that did not exceed the limit then in effect for low- and moderate-income households, as specified in regulations prescribed by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to 24 CFR 570.3. For example, a creditor has satisfied the requirement in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) if the creditor extended credit only to consumers with incomes that did not exceed the limit in effect on the dates the creditor received each consumer's individual application. The condition specified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>3</I>), which relates to the current extension of credit, provides that the extension of credit must be to a consumer with income that does not exceed the limit specified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) in effect on the date the creditor received the consumer's application. For example, assume that a creditor with a tax exemption ruling under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 has satisfied the conditions identified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>). If, on May 21, 2014, the creditor in this example extends credit secured by a dwelling to a consumer whose application reflected income in excess of the limit identified in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>2</I>) in effect on the date the creditor received that consumer's application, the creditor has not satisfied the condition in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>3</I>) and this extension of credit is not exempt from the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(a)(3)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) do not apply to a mortgage loan modification made in connection with a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008. If a creditor is underwriting an extension of credit that is a refinancing, as defined by § 1026.20(a), that will be made pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008, the creditor also need not comply with § 1026.43(c) through (f). A creditor need not determine whether the mortgage loan modification is considered a refinancing under § 1026.20(a) for purposes of determining applicability of § 1026.43; if the transaction is made in connection with these programs, the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f) do not apply. In addition, if a creditor underwrites a new extension of credit, such as a subordinate-lien mortgage loan, that will be made pursuant to a program authorized by sections 101 and 109 of the Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008, the creditor need not comply with the requirements of § 1026.43(c) through (f).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(a)(3)(vii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirements of exclusion.</I> Section 1026.43(a)(3)(vii) excludes certain transactions from the credit extension limit set forth in § 1026.43(a)(3)(v)(D)(<I>1</I>), provided a transaction meets several conditions. The terms of the credit contract must satisfy the conditions that the transaction not require the payment of interest under § 1026.43(a)(3)(vii)(C) and that repayment of the amount of credit extended be forgiven or deferred in accordance with § 1026.43(a)(3)(vii)(D). The other requirements of § 1026.43(a)(3)(vii) need not be reflected in the credit contract, but the creditor must retain evidence of compliance with those provisions, as required by § 1026.25(a). In particular, the creditor must have information reflecting that the total of closing costs imposed in connection with the transaction is less than 1 percent of the amount of credit extended and include no charges other than recordation, application, and housing counseling fees, in accordance with § 1026.43(a)(3)(vii)(E). Unless an itemization of the amount financed sufficiently details this requirement, the creditor must establish compliance with § 1026.43(a)(3)(vii)(E) by some other written document and retain it in accordance with § 1026.25(a).
</P>
<P><I>43(b) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(b)(1) Covered transaction.</I>
</P>
<P>1. The definition of covered transaction restates the scope of the rule as described at § 1026.43(a).
</P>
<P><I>43(b)(3) Fully indexed rate.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Discounted and premium adjustable-rate transactions.</I> In some adjustable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. In some cases, the initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were calculated using the index or formula that will apply after recast, as determined at consummation (<I>i.e.,</I> a “discounted rate”). In other cases, the initial rate may be higher (<I>i.e.,</I> a “premium rate”). For purposes of determining the fully indexed rate where the initial interest rate is not determined using the index or formula for subsequent interest rate adjustments, the creditor must use the interest rate that would have applied had the creditor used such index or formula plus margin at the time of consummation. That is, in determining the fully indexed rate, the creditor must not take into account any discounted or premium rate. To illustrate, assume an adjustable-rate transaction where the initial interest rate is not based on an index or formula, or is based on an index or formula that will not apply after recast, and is set at 5 percent for the first five years. The loan agreement provides that future interest rate adjustments will be calculated based on a specific index plus a 3 percent margin. If the value of the index at consummation is 5 percent, the interest rate that would have been applied at consummation had the creditor based the initial rate on this index is 8 percent (5 percent plus 3 percent margin). For purposes of § 1026.43(b)(3), the fully indexed rate is 8 percent. For discussion of payment calculations based on the greater of the fully indexed rate or premium rate for purposes of the repayment ability determination under § 1026.43(c), see § 1026.43(c)(5)(i) and comment 43(c)(5)(i)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Index or formula value at consummation.</I> The value at consummation of the index or formula need not be used if the contract provides for a delay in the implementation of changes in an index value or formula. For example, if the contract specifies that rate changes are based on the index value in effect 45 days before the change date, the creditor may use any index value in effect during the 45 days before consummation in calculating the fully indexed rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interest rate adjustment caps.</I> If the terms of the legal obligation contain a periodic interest rate adjustment cap that would prevent the initial rate, at the time of the first adjustment, from changing to the rate determined using the index or formula value at consummation (<I>i.e.,</I> the fully indexed rate), the creditor must not give any effect to that rate cap when determining the fully indexed rate. That is, a creditor must determine the fully indexed rate without taking into account any periodic interest rate adjustment cap that may limit how quickly the fully indexed rate may be reached at any time during the loan term under the terms of the legal obligation. To illustrate, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage has an initial fixed rate of 5 percent for the first three years of the loan, after which the rate will adjust annually to a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent. The loan agreement provides for a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap, and a lifetime maximum interest rate of 10 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent; the fully indexed rate is 7.5 percent (4.5 percent plus 3 percent), regardless of the 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap that would limit when the fully indexed rate would take effect under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Lifetime maximum interest rate.</I> A creditor may choose, in its sole discretion, to take into account the lifetime maximum interest rate provided under the terms of the legal obligation when determining the fully indexed rate. To illustrate, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage has an initial fixed rate of 5 percent for the first three years of the loan, after which the rate will adjust annually to a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent. The loan agreement provides for a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap and a lifetime maximum interest rate of 7 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent; under the generally applicable rule, the fully indexed rate is 7.5 percent (4.5 percent plus 3 percent). Nevertheless, the creditor may choose to use the lifetime maximum interest rate of 7 percent as the fully indexed rate, rather than 7.5 percent, for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(3). Furthermore, if the creditor chooses to use the lifetime maximum interest rate and the loan agreement provides a range for the maximum interest rate, then the creditor complies by using the highest rate in that range as the maximum interest rate for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(3).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Step-rate and fixed-rate mortgages.</I> Where the interest rate offered under the terms of the legal obligation is not based on, and does not vary with, an index or formula (<I>i.e.,</I> there is no fully indexed rate), the creditor must use the maximum interest rate that may apply at any time during the loan term. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. Assume a step-rate mortgage with an interest rate fixed at 6.5 percent for the first two years of the loan, 7 percent for the next three years, and 7.5 percent thereafter for the remainder of loan term. For purposes of this section, the creditor must use 7.5 percent, which is the maximum rate that may apply during the loan term. “Step-rate mortgage” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(ii).
</P>
<P>ii. Assume a fixed-rate mortgage with an interest rate at consummation of 7 percent that is fixed for the 30-year loan term. For purposes of this section, the maximum interest rate that may apply during the loan term is 7 percent, which is the interest rate that is fixed at consummation. “Fixed-rate mortgage” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii).


</P>
<HD2>43(b)(4) Higher-Priced Covered Transaction
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Average prime offer rate.</I> The average prime offer rate is defined in § 1026.35(a)(2). For further explanation of the meaning of “average prime offer rate,” and additional guidance on determining the average prime offer rate, <I>see</I> comments 35(a)(2)-1 through -4.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Comparable transaction.</I> A higher-priced covered transaction is a consumer credit transaction that is secured by the consumer's dwelling with an annual percentage rate that exceeds by the specified amount the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set. The published tables of average prime offer rates indicate how to identify a comparable transaction. <I>See</I> comment 35(a)(2)-2.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate set.</I> A transaction's annual percentage rate is compared to the average prime offer rate as of the date the transaction's interest rate is set (or “locked”) before consummation. Sometimes a creditor sets the interest rate initially and then re-sets it at a different level before consummation. The creditor should use the last date the interest rate is set before consummation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Determining the annual percentage rate for certain loans for which the interest rate may or will change.</I> Provisions in subpart C of this part, including the commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1), address how to determine the annual percentage rate disclosures for closed-end credit transactions. Provisions in § 1026.32(a)(3) address how to determine the annual percentage rate to determine coverage under § 1026.32(a)(1)(i). Section 1026.43(b)(4) requires, only for the purposes of a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), a different determination of the annual percentage rate for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(4) for a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. <I>See</I> comment 43(e)(2)(vi)-4 for how to determine the annual percentage rate of such a loan.
</P>
<P><I>43(b)(5) Loan amount.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Disbursement of the loan amount.</I> The definition of “loan amount” requires the creditor to use the entire loan amount as reflected in the loan contract or promissory note, even though the loan amount may not be fully disbursed at consummation. For example, assume the consumer enters into a loan agreement where the consumer is obligated to repay the creditor $200,000 over 15 years, but only $100,000 is disbursed at consummation and the remaining $100,000 will be disbursed during the year following consummation in a series of advances ($25,000 each quarter). For purposes of this section, the creditor must use the loan amount of $200,000, even though the loan agreement provides that only $100,000 will be disbursed to the consumer at consummation. Generally, creditors should rely on § 1026.17(c)(6) and associated commentary regarding treatment of multiple-advance and construction-to-permanent loans as single or multiple transactions. <I>See also</I> comment 43(a)(3)-2.
</P>
<P><I>43(b)(6) Loan term.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The loan term is the period of time it takes to repay the loan amount in full. For example, a loan with an initial discounted rate that is fixed for the first two years, and that adjusts periodically for the next 28 years has a loan term of 30 years, which is the amortization period on which the periodic amortizing payments are based.
</P>
<P><I>43(b)(7) Maximum loan amount.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Calculation of maximum loan amount.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii) and (c)(5)(ii)(C), a creditor must determine the maximum loan amount for a negative amortization loan by using the loan amount plus any increase in principal balance that can result from negative amortization based on the terms of the legal obligation. In determining the maximum loan amount, a creditor must assume that the consumer makes the minimum periodic payment permitted under the loan agreement for as long as possible, until the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments; and that the interest rate rises as quickly as possible after consummation under the terms of the legal obligation. Thus, creditors must assume that the consumer makes the minimum periodic payment until any negative amortization cap is reached or until the period permitting minimum periodic payments expires, whichever occurs first. “Loan amount” is defined in § 1026.43(b)(5); “negative amortization loan” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Assumed interest rate.</I> In calculating the maximum loan amount for an adjustable-rate mortgage that is a negative amortization loan, the creditor must assume that the interest rate will increase as rapidly as possible after consummation, taking into account any periodic interest rate adjustment caps provided in the loan agreement. For an adjustable-rate mortgage with a lifetime maximum interest rate but no periodic interest rate adjustment cap, the creditor must assume that the interest rate increases to the maximum lifetime interest rate at the first adjustment.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the maximum loan amount for a negative amortization loan (all amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values):
</P>
<P>i. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with negative amortization.</I> A. Assume an adjustable-rate mortgage in the amount of $200,000 with a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the consumer can make minimum monthly payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month until the principal balance reaches 115 percent of its original balance (<I>i.e.,</I> a negative amortization cap of 115 percent) or for the first five years of the loan (60 monthly payments), whichever occurs first. The introductory interest rate at consummation is 1.5 percent. One month after the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation, the interest rate adjusts and will adjust monthly thereafter based on the specified index plus a margin of 3.5 percent. The maximum lifetime interest rate is 10.5 percent; there are no other periodic interest rate adjustment caps that limit how quickly the maximum lifetime rate may be reached. The minimum monthly payment for the first year is based on the initial interest rate of 1.5 percent. After that, the minimum monthly payment adjusts annually, but may increase by no more than 7.5 percent over the previous year's payment. The minimum monthly payment is $690 in the first year, $742 in the second year, and $797 in the first part of the third year.
</P>
<P>B. To determine the maximum loan amount, assume that the initial interest rate increases to the maximum lifetime interest rate of 10.5 percent at the first adjustment (<I>i.e.,</I> the due date of the first periodic monthly payment) and accrues at that rate until the loan is recast. Assume the consumer makes the minimum monthly payments as scheduled, which are capped at 7.5 percent from year-to-year. As a result, the consumer's minimum monthly payments are less than the interest accrued each month, resulting in negative amortization (<I>i.e.,</I> the accrued but unpaid interest is added to the principal balance). Thus, assuming that the consumer makes the minimum monthly payments for as long as possible and that the maximum interest rate of 10.5 percent is reached at the first rate adjustment (<I>i.e.,</I> the due date of the first periodic monthly payment), the negative amortization cap of 115 percent is reached on the due date of the 27th monthly payment and the loan is recast. The maximum loan amount as of the due date of the 27th monthly payment is $229,251.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Fixed-rate, graduated payment mortgage with negative amortization.</I> A loan in the amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7.5 percent, and requires the consumer to make minimum monthly payments during the first year, with payments increasing 12.5 percent over the previous year every year for four years. The payment schedule provides for payments of $943 in the first year, $1,061 in the second year, $1,193 in the third year, $1,343 in the fourth year, and $1,511 for the remaining term of the loan. During the first three years of the loan, the payments are less than the interest accrued each month, resulting in negative amortization. Assuming that the consumer makes the minimum periodic payments for as long as possible, the maximum loan amount is $207,662, which is reached at the end of the third year of the loan (on the due date of the 36th monthly payment). See comment 43(c)(5)(ii)(C)-3 providing examples of how to determine the consumer's repayment ability for a negative amortization loan.
</P>
<HD3>43(b)(8) Mortgage-Related Obligations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) defines mortgage-related obligations, which must be considered in determining a consumer's ability to repay pursuant to § 1026.43(c). Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes, in the evaluation of mortgage-related obligations, fees and special assessments owed to a condominium, cooperative, or homeowners association. Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes ground rent and leasehold payments in the definition of mortgage-related obligations. See commentary to § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) regarding the requirement to take into account any mortgage-related obligations for purposes of determining a consumer's ability to repay.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Property taxes.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes property taxes in the evaluation of mortgage-related obligations. Obligations that are related to the ownership or use of real property and paid to a taxing authority, whether on a monthly, quarterly, annual, or other basis, are property taxes for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8). Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes obligations that are equivalent to property taxes, even if such obligations are not denominated as “taxes.” For example, governments may establish or allow independent districts with the authority to impose levies on properties within the district to fund a special purpose, such as a local development bond district, water district, or other public purpose. These levies may be referred to as taxes, assessments, surcharges, or by some other name. For purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8), these are property taxes and are included in the determination of mortgage-related obligations. Any payments for pre-existing PACE transactions are considered property taxes for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Insurance premiums and similar charges.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes in the evaluation of mortgage-related obligations premiums and similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), or (10) that are required by the creditor. This includes all premiums or charges related to coverage protecting the creditor against a consumer's default, credit loss, collateral loss, or similar loss, if the consumer is required to pay the premium or charge. For example, if Federal law requires flood insurance to be obtained in connection with the mortgage loan, the flood insurance premium is a mortgage-related obligation for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8). Section 1026.43(b)(8) does not include premiums or similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), or (10) that are not required by the creditor and that the consumer purchases voluntarily. For example:
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor does not require earthquake insurance to be obtained in connection with the mortgage loan, but the consumer voluntarily chooses to purchase such insurance, the earthquake insurance premium is not a mortgage-related obligation for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8).
</P>
<P>ii. If a creditor requires a minimum amount of coverage for homeowners' insurance and the consumer voluntarily chooses to purchase a more comprehensive amount of coverage, the portion of the premium allocated to the required minimum coverage is a mortgage-related obligation for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8), while the portion of the premium allocated to the more comprehensive coverage voluntarily purchased by the consumer is not a mortgage-related obligation for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8).
</P>
<P>iii. If the consumer purchases insurance or similar coverage not required by the creditor at consummation without having requested the specific non-required insurance or similar coverage and without having agreed to the premium or charge for the specific non-required insurance or similar coverage prior to consummation, the premium or charge is not voluntary for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8) and is a mortgage-related obligation.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mortgage insurance, guarantee, or similar charges.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes in the evaluation of mortgage-related obligations premiums or charges protecting the creditor against the consumer's default or other credit loss. This includes all premiums or similar charges, whether denominated as mortgage insurance, guarantee, or otherwise, as determined according to applicable State or Federal law. For example, monthly “private mortgage insurance” payments paid to a non-governmental entity, annual “guarantee fee” payments required by a Federal housing program, and a quarterly “mortgage insurance” payment paid to a State agency administering a housing program are all mortgage-related obligations for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8). Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes these charges in the definition of mortgage-related obligations if the creditor requires the consumer to pay them, even if the consumer is not legally obligated to pay the charges under the terms of the insurance program. For example, if a mortgage insurance program obligates the creditor to make recurring mortgage insurance payments, and the creditor requires the consumer to reimburse the creditor for such recurring payments, the consumer's payments are mortgage-related obligations for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8). However, if a mortgage insurance program obligates the creditor to make recurring mortgage insurance payments, and the creditor does not require the consumer to reimburse the creditor for the cost of the mortgage insurance payments, the recurring mortgage insurance payments are not mortgage-related obligations for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(8).
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<P>5. <I>Relation to the finance charge.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) includes in the evaluation of mortgage-related obligations premiums and similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), or (10) that are required by the creditor. These premiums and similar charges are mortgage-related obligations regardless of whether the premium or similar charge is excluded from the finance charge pursuant to § 1026.4(d). For example, a premium for insurance against loss or damage to the property written in connection with the credit transaction is a premium identified in § 1026.4(b)(8). If this premium is required by the creditor, the premium is a mortgage-related obligation pursuant to § 1026.43(b)(8), regardless of whether the premium is excluded from the finance charge pursuant to § 1026.4(d)(2).


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<P><I>43(b)(11) Recast.</I>
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<P>1<I>. Date of the recast.</I> The term “recast” means, for an adjustable-rate mortgage, the expiration of the period during which payments based on the introductory fixed rate are permitted; for an interest-only loan, the expiration of the period during which the interest-only payments are permitted; and, for a negative amortization loan, the expiration of the period during which negatively amortizing payments are permitted. For adjustable-rate mortgages, interest-only loans, and negative amortization loans, the date on which the recast is considered to occur is the due date of the last monthly payment based on the introductory fixed rate, the interest-only payment, or the negatively amortizing payment, respectively. To illustrate: A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate and permits interest-only payments for the first five years of the loan (60 months). The loan is recast on the due date of the 60th monthly payment. Thus, the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast is 25 years (300 months).
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<P><I>43(b)(12) Simultaneous loan.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(12) defines a simultaneous loan as another covered transaction or a home equity line of credit (HELOC) subject to § 1026.40 that will be secured by the same dwelling and made to the same consumer at or before consummation of the covered transaction, whether it is made by the same creditor or a third-party creditor. (As with all of § 1026.43, the term “dwelling” includes any real property attached to a dwelling.) For example, assume a consumer will enter into a legal obligation that is a covered transaction with Creditor A. Immediately prior to consummation of the covered transaction with Creditor A, the consumer opens a HELOC that is secured by the same dwelling with Creditor B. For purposes of this section, the loan extended by Creditor B is a simultaneous loan. See commentary to § 1026.43(c)(2)(iv) and (c)(6), discussing the requirement to consider the consumer's payment obligation on any simultaneous loan for purposes of determining the consumer's ability to repay the covered transaction subject to this section.
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<P>2. <I>Same consumer.</I> For purposes of the definition of “simultaneous loan,” the term “same consumer” includes any consumer, as that term is defined in § 1026.2(a)(11), that enters into a loan that is a covered transaction and also enters into another loan (<I>e.g.,</I> second-lien covered transaction or HELOC) secured by the same dwelling. Where two or more consumers enter into a legal obligation that is a covered transaction, but only one of them enters into another loan secured by the same dwelling, the “same consumer” includes the person that has entered into both legal obligations. For example, assume Consumer A and Consumer B will both enter into a legal obligation that is a covered transaction with a creditor. Immediately prior to consummation of the covered transaction, Consumer B opens a HELOC that is secured by the same dwelling with the same creditor; Consumer A is not a signatory to the HELOC. For purposes of this definition, Consumer B is the same consumer and the creditor must include the HELOC as a simultaneous loan.
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<P><I>43(b)(13) Third-party record.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Electronic records.</I> Third-party records include records transmitted electronically. For example, to verify a consumer's credit history using third-party records as required by § 1026.43(c)(2)(viii) and 1026.43(c)(3), a creditor may use a credit report prepared by a consumer reporting agency that is transmitted electronically.
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<P>2. <I>Forms.</I> A record prepared by a third party includes a form a creditor gives to a third party to provide information, even if the creditor completes parts of the form unrelated to the information sought. For example, if a creditor gives a consumer's employer a form for verifying the consumer's employment status and income, the creditor may fill in the creditor's name and other portions of the form unrelated to the consumer's employment status or income.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(13)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Reviewed record.</I> Under § 1026.43(b)(13)(i), a third-party record includes a document or other record prepared by the consumer, the creditor, the mortgage broker, or the creditor's or mortgage broker's agent, if the record is reviewed by an appropriate third party. For example, a profit-and-loss statement prepared by a self-employed consumer and reviewed by a third-party accountant is a third-party record under § 1026.43(b)(13)(i). In contrast, a profit-and-loss statement prepared by a self-employed consumer and reviewed by the consumer's non-accountant spouse is not a third-party record under § 1026.43(b)(13)(i).
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(b)(13)(iii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Creditor's records.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(13)(iii) provides that a third-party record includes a record the creditor maintains for an account of the consumer held by the creditor. Examples of such accounts include checking accounts, savings accounts, and retirement accounts. Examples of such accounts also include accounts related to a consumer's outstanding obligations to a creditor. For example, a third-party record includes the creditor's records for a first-lien mortgage to a consumer who applies for a subordinate-lien home equity loan.


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<P><I>43(b)(14) PACE Company</I>
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<P>1. Indicia of whether a person administers a PACE financing program for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(14) include, for example, marketing PACE financing to consumers, developing or implementing policies and procedures for the origination process, being substantially involved in making a credit decision, or extending an offer to the consumer.








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<P><I>43(c) Repayment ability.</I>
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<P><I>43(c)(1) General requirement.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Reasonable and good faith determination. i. General.</I> Creditors generally are required by § 1026.43(c)(1) to make reasonable and good faith determinations of consumers' ability to repay. Section 1026.43(c) and the accompanying commentary describe certain requirements for making this ability-to-repay determination, but do not provide comprehensive underwriting standards to which creditors must adhere. For example, the rule and commentary do not specify how much income is needed to support a particular level of debt or how credit history should be weighed against other factors. So long as creditors consider the factors set forth in § 1026.43(c)(2) according to the requirements of § 1026.43(c), creditors are permitted to develop their own underwriting standards and make changes to those standards over time in response to empirical information and changing economic and other conditions. Whether a particular ability-to-repay determination is reasonable and in good faith will depend not only on the underwriting standards adopted by the creditor, but on the facts and circumstances of an individual extension of credit and how a creditor's underwriting standards were applied to those facts and circumstances. A consumer's statement or attestation that the consumer has the ability to repay the loan is not indicative of whether the creditor's determination was reasonable and in good faith.
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<P>ii. <I>Considerations.</I> A. The following may be evidence that a creditor's ability-to-repay determination was reasonable and in good faith:
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<P><I>1.</I> The consumer demonstrated actual ability to repay the loan by making timely payments, without modification or accommodation, for a significant period of time after consummation or, for an adjustable-rate, interest-only, or negative-amortization mortgage, for a significant period of time after recast;
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<P><I>2.</I> The creditor used underwriting standards that have historically resulted in comparatively low rates of delinquency and default during adverse economic conditions; or
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<P><I>3.</I> The creditor used underwriting standards based on empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound models.
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<P>B. In contrast, the following may be evidence that a creditor's ability-to-repay determination was not reasonable or in good faith:
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<P><I>1.</I> The consumer defaulted on the loan a short time after consummation or, for an adjustable-rate, interest-only, or negative-amortization mortgage, a short time after recast;
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<P><I>2.</I> The creditor used underwriting standards that have historically resulted in comparatively high levels of delinquency and default during adverse economic conditions;
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<P><I>3.</I> The creditor applied underwriting standards inconsistently or used underwriting standards different from those used for similar loans without reasonable justification;
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<P><I>4.</I> The creditor disregarded evidence that the underwriting standards it used are not effective at determining consumers' repayment ability;
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<P><I>5.</I> The creditor disregarded evidence that the consumer may have insufficient residual income to cover other recurring obligations and expenses, taking into account the consumer's assets other than the property securing the loan, after paying his or her monthly payments for the covered transaction, any simultaneous loans, mortgage-related obligations, and any current debt obligations; or
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<P><I>6.</I> The creditor disregarded evidence that the consumer would have the ability to repay only if the consumer subsequently refinanced the loan or sold the property securing the loan.
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<P>C. All of the considerations listed in paragraphs (A) and (B) above may be relevant to whether a creditor's ability-to-repay determination was reasonable and in good faith. However, these considerations are not requirements or prohibitions with which creditors must comply, nor are they elements of a claim that a consumer must prove to establish a violation of the ability-to-repay requirements. For example, creditors are not required to validate their underwriting criteria using mathematical models. These considerations also are not absolute in their application; instead they exist on a continuum and may apply to varying degrees. For example, the longer a consumer successfully makes timely payments after consummation or recast the less likely it is that the creditor's determination of ability to repay was unreasonable or not in good faith. Finally, each of these considerations must be viewed in the context of all facts and circumstances relevant to a particular extension of credit. For example, in some cases inconsistent application of underwriting standards may indicate that a creditor is manipulating those standards to approve a loan despite a consumer's inability to repay. The creditor's ability-to-repay determination therefore may be unreasonable or in bad faith. However, in other cases inconsistently applied underwriting standards may be the result of, for example, inadequate training and may nonetheless yield a reasonable and good faith ability-to-repay determination in a particular case. Similarly, although an early payment default on a mortgage will often be persuasive evidence that the creditor did not have a reasonable and good faith belief in the consumer's ability to repay (and such evidence may even be sufficient to establish a prima facie case of an ability-to-repay violation), a particular ability-to-repay determination may be reasonable and in good faith even though the consumer defaulted shortly after consummation if, for example, the consumer experienced a sudden and unexpected loss of income. In contrast, an ability-to-repay determination may be unreasonable or not in good faith even though the consumer made timely payments for a significant period of time if, for example, the consumer was able to make those payments only by foregoing necessities such as food and heat.
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<P>2. <I>Repayment ability at consummation.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(1) requires the creditor to determine, at or before the time the loan is consummated, that a consumer will have a reasonable ability to repay the loan. A change in the consumer's circumstances after consummation (for example, a significant reduction in income due to a job loss or a significant obligation arising from a major medical expense) that cannot be reasonably anticipated from the consumer's application or the records used to determine repayment ability is not relevant to determining a creditor's compliance with the rule. However, if the application or records considered at or before consummation indicate there will be a change in a consumer's repayment ability after consummation (for example, if a consumer's application states that the consumer plans to retire within 12 months without obtaining new employment or that the consumer will transition from full-time to part-time employment), the creditor must consider that information under the rule.
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<P>3. <I>Interaction with Regulation B.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(1) does not require or permit the creditor to make inquiries or verifications prohibited by Regulation B, 12 CFR part 1002.
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<P><I>43(c)(2) Basis for determination.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(2) sets forth factors creditors must consider when making the ability-to-repay determination required under § 1026.43(c)(1) and the accompanying commentary provides guidance regarding these factors. Creditors must conform to these requirements and may rely on guidance provided in the commentary. However, § 1026.43(c) and the accompanying commentary do not provide comprehensive guidance on definitions and other technical underwriting criteria necessary for evaluating these factors in practice. So long as a creditor complies with the provisions of § 1026.43(c), the creditor is permitted to use its own definitions and other technical underwriting criteria. A creditor may, but is not required to, look to guidance issued by entities such as the Federal Housing Administration, the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, the U.S. Department of Agriculture, or Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac while operating under the conservatorship of the Federal Housing Finance Agency. For example, a creditor may refer to such guidance to classify particular inflows, obligations, or property as “income,” “debt,” or “assets.” Similarly, a creditor may refer to such guidance to determine what information to use when evaluating the income of a self-employed or seasonally employed consumer or what information to use when evaluating the credit history of a consumer who has obtained few or no extensions of traditional “credit” as defined in § 1026.2(a)(14). These examples are illustrative, and creditors are not required to conform to guidance issued by these or other such entities. However, as required by § 1026.43(c)(1), a creditor must ensure that its underwriting criteria, as applied to the facts and circumstances of a particular extension of credit, result in a reasonable, good faith determination of a consumer's ability to repay. For example, a definition used in underwriting that is reasonable in isolation may lead to ability-to-repay determinations that are unreasonable or not in good faith when considered in the context of a creditor's underwriting standards or when adopted or applied in bad faith. Similarly, an ability-to-repay determination is not unreasonable or in bad faith merely because the underwriting criteria used included a definition that was by itself unreasonable.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Income or assets generally.</I> A creditor may base its determination of repayment ability on current or reasonably expected income from employment or other sources, assets other than the dwelling that secures the covered transaction, or both. The creditor may consider any type of current or reasonably expected income, including, for example, the following: salary; wages; self-employment income; military or reserve duty income; bonus pay; tips; commissions; interest payments; dividends; retirement benefits or entitlements; rental income; royalty payments; trust income; public assistance payments; and alimony, child support, and separate maintenance payments. The creditor may consider any of the consumer's assets, other than the value of the dwelling that secures the covered transaction, including, for example, the following: funds in a savings or checking account, amounts vested in a retirement account, stocks, bonds, certificates of deposit, and amounts available to the consumer from a trust fund. (As stated in § 1026.43(a), the value of the dwelling includes the value of the real property to which the residential structure is attached, if the real property also secures the covered transaction.)
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<P>2. <I>Income or assets relied on.</I> A creditor need consider only the income or assets necessary to support a determination that the consumer can repay the covered transaction. For example, if a consumer's loan application states that the consumer earns an annual salary from both a full-time job and a part-time job and the creditor reasonably determines that the consumer's income from the full-time job is sufficient to repay the loan, the creditor need not consider the consumer's income from the part-time job. Further, a creditor need verify only the income (or assets) relied on to determine the consumer's repayment ability. <I>See</I> comment 43(c)(4)-1.
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<P>3. <I>Reasonably expected income.</I> If a creditor relies on expected income in excess of the consumer's income, either in addition to or instead of current income, the expectation that the income will be available for repayment must be reasonable and verified with third-party records that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's expected income. For example, if the creditor relies on an expectation that a consumer will receive an annual bonus, the creditor may verify the basis for that expectation with records that show the consumer's past annual bonuses, and the expected bonus must bear a reasonable relationship to the past bonuses. Similarly, if the creditor relies on a consumer's expected salary from a job the consumer has accepted and will begin after receiving an educational degree, the creditor may verify that expectation with a written statement from an employer indicating that the consumer will be employed upon graduation at a specified salary.
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<P>4. <I>Seasonal or irregular income.</I> A creditor reasonably may determine that a consumer can make periodic loan payments even if the consumer's income, such as self-employment income, is seasonal or irregular. For example, assume a consumer receives seasonal income from the sale of crops or from agricultural employment. Each year, the consumer's income arrives during only a few months. If the creditor determines that the consumer's annual income divided equally across 12 months is sufficient for the consumer to make monthly loan payments, the creditor reasonably may determine that the consumer can repay the loan, even though the consumer may not receive income during certain months.
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<P>5. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for an extension of credit as joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(i) does not require the creditor to consider income or assets that are not needed to support the creditor's repayment ability determination. If the income or assets of one applicant are sufficient to support the creditor's repayment ability determination, the creditor is not required to consider the income or assets of the other applicant. For example, if a husband and wife jointly apply for a loan and the creditor reasonably determines that the wife's income is sufficient to repay the loan, the creditor is not required to consider the husband's income.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(ii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Employment status and income.</I> Employment status need not be full-time, and employment need not occur at regular intervals. If, in determining the consumer's repayment ability, the creditor relies on income from the consumer's employment, then that employment may be, for example, full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment, so long as the creditor considers those characteristics of the employment. Under § 1026.43(c)(2)(ii), a creditor must verify a consumer's current employment status only if the creditor relies on the consumer's employment income in determining the consumer's repayment ability. For example, if a creditor relies wholly on a consumer's investment income to determine repayment ability, the creditor need not verify or document employment status. See comments 43(c)(2)(i)-5 and 43(c)(4)-2 for guidance on which income to consider when multiple consumers apply jointly for a loan.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(iii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> For purposes of the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(2), a creditor must consider the consumer's monthly payment on a covered transaction that is calculated as required under § 1026.43(c)(5).




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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(iv).</I>


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<P>1. <I>Home equity lines of credit.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iv), a simultaneous loan includes any covered transaction or home equity line of credit (HELOC) subject to § 1026.40 that will be made to the same consumer at or before consummation of the covered transaction and secured by the same dwelling that secures the covered transaction. A HELOC that is a simultaneous loan that the creditor knows or has reason to know about must be considered as a mortgage obligation in determining a consumer's ability to repay the covered transaction even though the HELOC is not a covered transaction subject to § 1026.43. See § 1026.43(a) discussing the scope of this section. “Simultaneous loan” is defined in § 1026.43(b)(12). For further explanation of “same consumer,” see comment 43(b)(12)-2.
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<P>2. <I>Knows or has reason to know.</I> In determining a consumer's repayment ability for a covered transaction under § 1026.43(c)(2), a creditor must consider the consumer's payment obligation on any simultaneous loan that the creditor knows or has reason to know will be or has been made at or before consummation of the covered transaction. For example, where a covered transaction is a home purchase loan, the creditor must consider the consumer's periodic payment obligation for any “piggyback” second-lien loan that the creditor knows or has reason to know will be used to finance part of the consumer's down payment. The creditor complies with this requirement where, for example, the creditor follows policies and procedures that are designed to determine whether at or before consummation the same consumer has applied for another credit transaction secured by the same dwelling. To illustrate, assume a creditor receives an application for a home purchase loan where the requested loan amount is less than the home purchase price. The creditor's policies and procedures must require the consumer to state the source of the down payment and provide verification. If the creditor determines the source of the down payment is another extension of credit that will be made to the same consumer at or before consummation and secured by the same dwelling, the creditor knows or has reason to know of the simultaneous loan and must consider the simultaneous loan. Alternatively, if the creditor has information that suggests the down payment source is the consumer's existing assets, the creditor would be under no further obligation to determine whether a simultaneous loan will be extended at or before consummation of the covered transaction. The creditor is not obligated to investigate beyond reasonable underwriting policies and procedures to determine whether a simultaneous loan will be extended at or before consummation of the covered transaction.
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<P>3. <I>Scope of timing.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iv), a simultaneous loan includes a loan that comes into existence concurrently with the covered transaction subject to § 1026.43(c). A simultaneous loan does not include a credit transaction that occurs after consummation of the covered transaction that is subject to this section. However, any simultaneous loan that specifically covers closing costs of the covered transaction, but is scheduled to be extended after consummation must be considered for the purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iv).
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<P>4. <I>Knows or has reason to know—PACE transaction.</I> In addition to the guidance provided under comment 43(c)(2)(iv)-2, a creditor originating a PACE transaction knows or has reason to know of any simultaneous loans that are PACE transactions if the transactions are included in any existing database or registry of PACE transactions that includes the geographic area in which the property is located and to which the creditor has access.














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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(v).</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> A creditor must include in its repayment ability assessment the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations, such as the expected property taxes and premiums or similar charges identified in § 1026.4(b)(5), (7), (8), or (10) that are required by the creditor. See § 1026.43(b)(8) defining the term “mortgage-related obligations.” Mortgage-related obligations must be included in the creditor's determination of repayment ability regardless of whether the amounts are included in the monthly payment or whether there is an escrow account established. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) includes only payments that occur on an ongoing or recurring basis in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. One-time charges, or obligations satisfied at or before consummation, are not ongoing or recurring, and are therefore not part of the consumer's monthly payment for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(v). For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a consumer will be required to pay property taxes, as described in comment 43(b)(8)-2, on a quarterly, annual, or other basis after consummation. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) includes these recurring property taxes in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. However, if the consumer will incur a one-time charge to satisfy property taxes that are past due, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not include this one-time charge in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations.
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<P>ii. Assume that a consumer will be required to pay mortgage insurance premiums, as described in comment 43(b)(8)-2, on a monthly, annual, or other basis after consummation. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) includes these recurring mortgage insurance payments in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. However, if the consumer will incur a one-time fee or charge for mortgage insurance or similar purposes, such as an up-front mortgage insurance premium imposed at consummation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not include this up-front mortgage insurance premium in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations.
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<P>2. <I>Obligations to an association, other than special assessments.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) defines mortgage-related obligations to include obligations owed to a condominium, cooperative, or homeowners association. However, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require a creditor to include in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations payments to such associations imposed in connection with the extension of credit, or imposed as an incident to the transfer of ownership, if such obligations are fully satisfied at or before consummation. For example, if a homeowners association imposes a one-time transfer fee on the transaction, and the consumer will pay the fee at or before consummation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require the creditor to include this one-time transfer fee in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) also does not require the creditor to include this fee in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations if the consumer finances the fee in the loan amount. However, if the consumer incurs the obligation and will satisfy the obligation with recurring payments after consummation, regardless of whether the obligation is escrowed, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) requires the creditor to include the transfer fee in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations.
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<P>3. <I>Special assessments imposed by an association.</I> Section 1026.43(b)(8) defines mortgage-related obligations to include special assessments imposed by a condominium, cooperative, or homeowners association. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require a creditor to include special assessments in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations if the special assessments are fully satisfied at or before consummation. For example, if a homeowners association imposes a special assessment that the consumer will have to pay in full at or before consummation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not include the special assessment in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require a creditor to include special assessments in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations if the special assessments are imposed as a one-time charge. For example, if a homeowners association imposes a special assessment that the consumer will have to satisfy in one payment, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not include this one-time special assessment in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. However, if the consumer will pay the special assessment on a recurring basis after consummation, regardless of whether the consumer's payments for the special assessment are escrowed, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) requires the creditor to include this recurring special assessment in the evaluation of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations.
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<P>4. <I>Pro rata amount.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(v), the creditor may divide the recurring payments for mortgage-related obligations into monthly, pro rata amounts. In considering a mortgage-related obligation that is not paid monthly, if the mortgage loan is originated pursuant to a government program the creditor may determine the pro rata monthly amount of the mortgage-related obligation in accordance with the specific requirements of that program. If the mortgage loan is originated pursuant to a government program that does not contain specific standards for determining the pro rata monthly amount of the mortgage-related obligation, or if the mortgage loan is not originated pursuant to a government program, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by dividing the total amount of a particular non-monthly mortgage-related obligation by no more than the number of months from the month that the non-monthly mortgage-related obligation was due prior to consummation until the month that the non-monthly mortgage-related obligation will be due after consummation. When determining the pro rata monthly payment amount, the creditor may also consider comment 43(c)(2)(v)-5, which explains that the creditor need not project potential changes. The following examples further illustrate how a creditor may determine the pro rata monthly amount of mortgage-related obligations, pursuant to § 1026.43(c)(2)(v):
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<P>i. Assume that a consumer applies for a mortgage loan on February 1st. Assume further that the subject property is located in a jurisdiction where property taxes are paid in arrears on the first day of October. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by determining the annual property tax amount owed in the prior October, dividing the amount by 12, and using the resulting amount as the pro rata monthly property tax payment amount for the determination of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. The creditor complies even if the consumer will likely owe more in the next year than the amount owed the prior October because the jurisdiction normally increases the property tax rate annually, provided that the creditor does not have knowledge of an increase in the property tax rate at the time of underwriting. See also comment 43(c)(2)(v)-5 regarding estimates of mortgage-related obligations.
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<P>ii. Assume that a subject property is located in a special water district, the assessments for which are billed separately from local property taxes. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by dividing the full amount that will be owed by the number of months in the assessment period, and including the resulting amount in the calculation of monthly mortgage-related obligations. However, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require a creditor to adjust the monthly amount to account for potential deviations from the average monthly amount. For example, assume in this example that the special water assessment is billed every eight months, that the consumer will have to pay the first water district bill four months after consummation, and that the seller will not provide the consumer with any funds to pay for the seller's obligation (<I>i.e.,</I> the four months prior to consummation). Although the consumer will be required to budget twice the average monthly amount to pay the first water district bill, § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require the creditor to use the increased amount; the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by using the average monthly amount.
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<P>iii. Assume that the subject property is located in an area where flood insurance is required by Federal law, and assume further that the flood insurance policy premium is paid every three years following consummation. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by dividing the three-year premium by 36 months and including the resulting amount in the determination of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. The creditor complies even if the consumer will not establish a monthly escrow for flood insurance.
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<P>iv. Assume that the subject property is part of a homeowners association that has imposed upon the seller a special assessment of $1,200. Assume further that this special assessment will become the consumer's obligation upon consummation of the transaction, that the consumer is permitted to pay the special assessment in twelve $100 installments after consummation, and that the mortgage loan will not be originated pursuant to a government program that contains specific requirements for prorating special assessments. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by dividing the $1,200 special assessment by 12 months and including the resulting $100 monthly amount in the determination of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations. The creditor complies by using this calculation even if the consumer intends to pay the special assessment in a manner other than that used by the creditor in determining the monthly pro rata amount, such as where the consumer intends to pay six $200 installments.
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<P>5. <I>Estimates.</I> Estimates of mortgage-related obligations should be based upon information that is known to the creditor at the time the creditor underwrites the mortgage obligation. Information is known if it is reasonably available to the creditor at the time of underwriting the loan. Creditors may rely on guidance provided under comment 17(c)(2)(i)-1 in determining if information is reasonably available. For purposes of this section, the creditor need not project potential changes, such as by estimating possible increases in taxes and insurance. See comment 43(c)(2)(v)-4 for additional examples discussing the projection of potential changes. The following examples further illustrate the requirements of § 1026.43(c)(2)(v):
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<P>i. Assume that the property is subject to a community governance association, such as a homeowners association. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by relying on an estimate of mortgage-related obligations prepared by the homeowners association. In accordance with the guidance provided under comment 17(c)(2)(i)-1, the creditor need only exercise due diligence in determining mortgage-related obligations, and complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by relying on the representations of other reliable parties in preparing estimates.
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<P>ii. Assume that the homeowners association has imposed a special assessment on the seller, but the seller does not inform the creditor of the special assessment, the homeowners association does not include the special assessment in the estimate of expenses prepared for the creditor, and the creditor is unaware of the special assessment. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) if it does not include the special assessment in the determination of mortgage-related obligations. The creditor may rely on the representations of other reliable parties, in accordance with the guidance provided under comment 17(c)(2)(i)-1.
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<P>iii. Assume that the homeowners association imposes a special assessment after the creditor has completed underwriting, but prior to consummation. The creditor does not violate § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) if the creditor does not include the special assessment in the determination of the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations, provided the homeowners association does not inform the creditor about the special assessment during underwriting. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(v) does not require the creditor to re-underwrite the loan. The creditor has complied with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by including the obligations known to the creditor at the time the loan is underwritten, even if the creditor learns of new mortgage-related obligations before the transaction is consummated.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(vi).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Consideration of current debt obligations.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) requires creditors to consider a consumer's current debt obligations and any alimony or child support the consumer is required to pay. Examples of current debt obligations include student loans, automobile loans, revolving debt, and existing mortgages that will not be paid off at or before consummation. Creditors have significant flexibility to consider current debt obligations in light of attendant facts and circumstances, including that an obligation is likely to be paid off soon after consummation. For example, a creditor may take into account that an existing mortgage is likely to be paid off soon after consummation because there is an existing contract for sale of the property that secures that mortgage. Similarly, creditors should consider whether debt obligations in forbearance or deferral at the time of underwriting are likely to affect the consumer's ability to repay based on the payment for which the consumer will be liable upon expiration of the forbearance or deferral period and other relevant facts and circumstances, such as when the forbearance or deferral period will expire.
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<P>2. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for an extension of credit as joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) requires a creditor to consider the debt obligations of all such joint applicants. For example, if a co-applicant is repaying a student loan at the time of underwriting, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) by considering the co-applicant's student loan obligation. If one consumer is merely a surety or guarantor, § 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) does not require a creditor to consider the debt obligations of such surety or guarantor. The requirements of § 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) do not affect the disclosure requirements of this part, such as, for example, §§ 1026.17(d), 1026.23(b), 1026.31(e), 1026.39(b)(3), and 1026.46(f).
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(vii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Monthly debt-to-income ratio and residual income.</I> See § 1026.43(c)(7) and its associated commentary regarding the definitions and calculations for the monthly debt-to-income ratio and residual income.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(2)(viii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Consideration of credit history.</I> “Credit history” may include factors such as the number and age of credit lines, payment history, and any judgments, collections, or bankruptcies. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(viii) does not require creditors to obtain or consider a consolidated credit score or prescribe a minimum credit score that creditors must apply. The rule also does not specify which aspects of credit history a creditor must consider or how various aspects of credit history should be weighed against each other or against other underwriting factors. Some aspects of a consumer's credit history, whether positive or negative, may not be directly indicative of the consumer's ability to repay. A creditor therefore may give various aspects of a consumer's credit history as much or as little weight as is appropriate to reach a reasonable, good faith determination of ability to repay. Where a consumer has obtained few or no extensions of traditional “credit,” as defined in § 1026.2(a)(14), a creditor may, but is not required to, look to nontraditional credit references, such as rental payment history or utility payments.
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<P>2. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> When two or more consumers apply for an extension of credit as joint obligors with primary liability on an obligation, § 1026.43(c)(2)(viii) requires a creditor to consider the credit history of all such joint applicants. If a consumer is merely a surety or guarantor, § 1026.43(c)(2)(viii) does not require a creditor to consider the credit history of such surety or guarantor. The requirements of § 1026.43(c)(2)(viii) do not affect the disclosure requirements of this part, such as, for example, §§ 1026.17(d), 1026.23(b), 1026.31(e), 1026.39(b)(3), and 1026.46(f).
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<P><I>43(c)(3) Verification using third-party records.</I>


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<P>1. <I>Records specific to the individual consumer.</I> Records a creditor uses for verification under § 1026.43(c)(3) and (4) must be specific to the individual consumer. Records regarding average incomes in the consumer's geographic location or average wages paid by the consumer's employer, for example, are not specific to the individual consumer and are not sufficient for verification.
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<P>2. <I>Obtaining records.</I> To conduct verification under § 1026.43(c)(3) and (4), a creditor may obtain records from a third-party service provider, such as a party the consumer's employer uses to respond to income verification requests, as long as the records are reasonably reliable and specific to the individual consumer. A creditor also may obtain third-party records directly from the consumer, likewise as long as the records are reasonably reliable and specific to the individual consumer. For example, a creditor using payroll statements to verify the consumer's income, as allowed under § 1026.43(c)(4)(iii), may obtain the payroll statements from the consumer.
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<P>3. <I>Credit report as a reasonably reliable third-party record.</I> A credit report generally is considered a reasonably reliable third-party record under § 1026.43(c)(3) for purposes of verifying items customarily found on a credit report, such as the consumer's current debt obligations, monthly debts, and credit history. Section 1026.43(c)(3) generally does not require creditors to obtain additional reasonably reliable third-party records to verify information contained in a credit report. For example, if a credit report states the existence and amount of a consumer's debt obligation, the creditor is not required to obtain additional verification of the existence or amount of that obligation. In contrast, a credit report does not serve as a reasonably reliably third-party record for purposes of verifying items that do not appear on the credit report. For example, certain monthly debt obligations, such as legal obligations like alimony or child support, may not be reflected on a credit report. Thus, a credit report that does not list a consumer's monthly alimony obligation does not serve as a reasonably reliable third-party record for purposes of verifying that obligation. If a credit report reflects a current debt obligation that a consumer has not listed on the application, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(3) if the creditor considers the existence and amount of the debt obligation as it is reflected in the credit report. However, in some cases a creditor may know or have reason to know that a credit report may be inaccurate in whole or in part. For example, a creditor may have information indicating that a credit report is subject to a fraud alert, extended alert, active duty alert, or similar alert identified in 15 U.S.C. 1681c-1 or that a debt obligation listed on a credit report is subject to a statement of dispute pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 1681i(b). A creditor may also have other reasonably reliable third-party records or other information or evidence that the creditor reasonably finds to be reliable that contradict the credit report or otherwise indicate that the credit report is inaccurate. If a creditor knows or has reason to know that a credit report may be inaccurate in whole or in part, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(3) by disregarding an inaccurate or disputed item, items, or credit report, but does not have to obtain additional third-party records. The creditor may also, but is not required, to obtain other reasonably reliable third-party records to verify information with respect to which the credit report, or item therein, may be inaccurate. For example, the creditor might obtain statements or bank records regarding a particular debt obligation subject to a statement of dispute. See also comment 43(c)(3)-6, which describes a situation in which a consumer reports a debt obligation that is not listed on a credit report.
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<P>4. <I>Verification of simultaneous loans.</I> Although a credit report may be used to verify current obligations, it will not reflect a simultaneous loan that has not yet been consummated and may not reflect a loan that has just recently been consummated. If the creditor knows or has reason to know that there will be a simultaneous loan extended at or before consummation, the creditor may verify the simultaneous loan by obtaining third-party verification from the third-party creditor of the simultaneous loan. For example, the creditor may obtain a copy of the promissory note or other written verification from the third-party creditor. For further guidance, see comments 43(c)(3)-1 and -2 discussing verification using third-party records.
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<P>5. <I>Verification of mortgage-related obligations.</I> Creditors must make the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(2) based on information verified from reasonably reliable records. For general guidance regarding verification see comments 43(c)(3)-1 and -2, which discuss verification using third-party records. With respect to the verification of mortgage-related obligations that are property taxes required to be considered under § 1026.43(c)(2)(v), a record is reasonably reliable if the information in the record was provided by a governmental organization, such as a taxing authority or local government. The creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by relying on property taxes referenced in the title report if the source of the property tax information was a local taxing authority. A creditor that knows or has reason to know that a consumer has an existing PACE transaction does not comply with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by relying on information provided by a governmental organization, either directly or indirectly, if the information provided does not reflect the PACE transaction. With respect to other information in a record provided by an entity assessing charges, such as a homeowners association, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) if it relies on homeowners association billing statements provided by the seller. Records are also reasonably reliable if the information in the record was obtained from a valid and legally executed contract. For example, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) by relying on the amount of monthly ground rent referenced in the ground rent agreement currently in effect and applicable to the subject property. Records, other than those discussed above, may be reasonably reliable for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(v) if the source provided the information objectively.
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<P>6. <I>Verification of current debt obligations.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(3) does not require creditors to obtain additional records to verify the existence or amount of obligations shown on a consumer's credit report or listed on the consumer's application, absent circumstances described in comment 43(c)(3)-3. Under § 1026.43(c)(3)(iii), if a creditor relies on a consumer's credit report to verify a consumer's current debt obligations and the consumer's application lists a debt obligation not shown on the credit report, the creditor may consider the existence and amount of the obligation as it is stated on the consumer's application. The creditor is not required to further verify the existence or amount of the obligation, absent circumstances described in comment 43(c)(3)-3.
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<P>7. <I>Verification of credit history.</I> To verify credit history, a creditor may, for example, look to credit reports from credit bureaus or to reasonably reliable third-party records that evidence nontraditional credit references, such as evidence of rental payment history or public utility payments.
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<P>8. <I>Verification of military employment.</I> A creditor may verify the employment status of military personnel by using a military Leave and Earnings Statement or by using the electronic database maintained by the Department of Defense to facilitate identification of consumers covered by credit protections provided pursuant to 10 U.S.C. 987.


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<HD2>43(c)(4) Verification of Income or Assets
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Income or assets relied on.</I> A creditor need consider, and therefore need verify, only the income or assets the creditor relies on to evaluate the consumer's repayment ability. <I>See</I> comment 43(c)(2)(i)-2. For example, if a consumer's application states that the consumer earns a salary and is paid an annual bonus and the creditor relies on only the consumer's salary to evaluate the consumer's repayment ability, the creditor need verify only the salary. <I>See also</I> comments 43(c)(3)-1 and -2.
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<P>2. <I>Multiple applicants.</I> If multiple consumers jointly apply for a loan and each lists income or assets on the application, the creditor need verify only the income or assets the creditor relies on in determining repayment ability. <I>See</I> comment 43(c)(2)(i)-5.
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<P>3. <I>Tax-return transcript.</I> Under § 1026.43(c)(4), a creditor may verify a consumer's income using an Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax-return transcript, which summarizes the information in a consumer's filed tax return, another record that provides reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income, or both. A creditor may obtain a copy of a tax-return transcript or a filed tax return directly from the consumer or from a service provider. A creditor need not obtain the copy directly from the IRS or other taxing authority. <I>See</I> comment 43(c)(3)-2.
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<P>4. <I>Unidentified funds.</I> A creditor does not meet the requirements of § 1026.43(c)(4) if it observes an inflow of funds into the consumer's account without confirming that the funds are income. For example, a creditor would not meet the requirements of § 1026.43(c)(4) where it observes an unidentified $5,000 deposit in the consumer's account but fails to take any measures to confirm or lacks any basis to conclude that the deposit represents the consumer's personal income and not, for example, proceeds from the disbursement of a loan.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(4)(vi).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Government benefits.</I> In verifying a consumer's income, a creditor may use a written or electronic record from a government agency of the amount of any benefit payments or awards, such as a “proof of income letter” issued by the Social Security Administration (also known as a “budget letter,” “benefits letter,” or “proof of award letter”).
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<P><I>43(c)(5) Payment calculation.</I>
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<P><I>43(c)(5)(i) General rule.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), a creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the covered transaction using the payment calculation methods set forth in § 1026.43(c)(5). The payment calculation methods differ depending on the type of credit extended. The payment calculation method set forth in § 1026.43(c)(5)(i) applies to any covered transaction that does not have a balloon payment, or that is not an interest-only or negative amortization loan, whether such covered transaction is a fixed-rate, adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage. The terms “fixed-rate mortgage,” “adjustable-rate mortgage,” “step-rate mortgage,” “interest-only loan” and “negative amortization loan” are defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii), (i), (ii), (iv) and (v), respectively. For the meaning of the term “balloon payment,” see § 1026.18(s)(5)(i). The payment calculation methods set forth in § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii) apply to any covered transaction that is a loan with a balloon payment, interest-only loan, or negative amortization loan. See comment 43(c)(5)(i)-5 and the commentary to § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii), which provide examples for calculating the monthly payment for purposes of the repayment ability determination required under § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii).
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<P>2. <I>Greater of the fully indexed rate or introductory rate; premium adjustable-rate transactions.</I> A creditor must determine a consumer's repayment ability for the covered transaction using substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payments that are based on the greater of the fully indexed rate or any introductory interest rate. In some adjustable-rate transactions, creditors may set an initial interest rate that is not determined by the index or formula used to make later interest rate adjustments. Sometimes, this initial rate charged to consumers is lower than the rate would be if it were determined by using the index plus margin, or formula (<I>i.e.,</I> fully indexed rate). However, an initial rate that is a premium rate is higher than the rate based on the index or formula. In such cases, creditors must calculate the fully amortizing payment based on the initial “premium” rate. “Fully indexed rate” is defined in § 1026.43(b)(3).
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<P>3. <I>Monthly, fully amortizing payments.</I> Section 1026.43(c)(5)(i) does not prescribe the terms or loan features that a creditor may choose to offer or extend to a consumer, but establishes the calculation method a creditor must use to determine the consumer's repayment ability for a covered transaction. For example, the terms of the loan agreement may require that the consumer repay the loan in quarterly or bi-weekly scheduled payments, but for purposes of the repayment ability determination, the creditor must convert these scheduled payments to monthly payments in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(5)(i)(B). Similarly, the loan agreement may not require the consumer to make fully amortizing payments, but for purposes of the repayment ability determination under § 1026.43(c)(5)(i), the creditor must convert any non-amortizing payments to fully amortizing payments.
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<P>4. <I>Substantially equal.</I> In determining whether monthly, fully amortizing payments are substantially equal, creditors should disregard minor variations due to payment-schedule irregularities and odd periods, such as a long or short first or last payment period. That is, monthly payments of principal and interest that repay the loan amount over the loan term need not be equal, but the monthly payments should be substantially the same without significant variation in the monthly combined payments of both principal and interest. For example, where no two monthly payments vary from each other by more than 1 percent (excluding odd periods, such as a long or short first or last payment period), such monthly payments would be considered substantially equal for purposes of this section. In general, creditors should determine whether the monthly, fully amortizing payments are substantially equal based on guidance provided in § 1026.17(c)(3) (discussing minor variations), and § 1026.17(c)(4)(i) through (iii) (discussing payment-schedule irregularities and measuring odd periods due to a long or short first period) and associated commentary.
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<P>5. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the consumer's repayment ability based on substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payments as required under § 1026.43(c)(5)(i) (all amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values):
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<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate mortgage.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term and a fixed interest rate of 7 percent. For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a payment of $1,331, which is the substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payment that will repay $200,000 over 30 years using the fixed interest rate of 7 percent.
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<P>ii. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for five years.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 6 percent that is fixed for an initial period of five years, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual periodic interest rate adjustment cap. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent; the fully indexed rate is 7.5 percent (4.5 percent plus 3 percent). Even though the scheduled monthly payment required for the first five years is $1199, for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii) the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a payment of $1,398, which is the substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payment that will repay $200,000 over 30 years using the fully indexed rate of 7.5 percent.
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<P>iii. <I>Step-rate mortgage.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the interest rate will be 6.5 percent for the first two years of the loan, 7 percent for the next three years of the loan, and 7.5 percent thereafter. Accordingly, the scheduled payment amounts are $1,264 for the first two years, $1,328 for the next three years, and $1,388 thereafter for the remainder of the term. For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a payment of $1,398, which is the substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payment that would repay $200,000 over 30 years using the fully indexed rate of 7.5 percent.
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<P><I>43(c)(5)(ii) Special rules for loans with a balloon payment, interest-only loans, and negative amortization loans.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(5)(ii)(A).</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> For loans with a balloon payment, the rules differ depending on whether the loan is a higher-priced covered transaction, as defined under § 1026.43(b)(4), or is not a higher-priced covered transaction because the annual percentage rate does not exceed the applicable threshold calculated using the applicable average prime offer rate (APOR) for a comparable transaction. “Average prime offer rate” is defined in § 1026.35(a)(2); “higher-priced covered transaction” is defined in § 1026.43(b)(4). For higher-priced covered transactions with a balloon payment, the creditor must consider the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on the payment schedule under the terms of the legal obligation, including any required balloon payment. For loans with a balloon payment that are not higher-priced covered transactions, the creditor should use the maximum payment scheduled during the first five years of the loan following the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. “Balloon payment” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(5)(i).
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<P>2. <I>First five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due.</I> Under § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), the creditor must determine a consumer's ability to repay a loan with a balloon payment that is not a higher-priced covered transaction using the maximum payment scheduled during the first five years (60 months) after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. To illustrate:
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<P>i. Assume a loan that provides for regular monthly payments and a balloon payment due at the end of a six-year loan term. The loan is consummated on August 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on October 1, 2014. The first five years after the first monthly payment end on October 1, 2019. The balloon payment must be made on the due date of the 72nd monthly payment, which is September 1, 2020. For purposes of determining the consumer's ability to repay the loan under § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor need not consider the balloon payment that is due on September 1, 2020.
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<P>ii. Assume a loan that provides for regular monthly payments and a balloon payment due at the end of a five-year loan term. The loan is consummated on August 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on October 1, 2014. The first five years after the first monthly payment end on October 1, 2019. The balloon payment must be made on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, which is September 1, 2019. For purposes of determining the consumer's ability to repay the loan under § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must consider the balloon payment that is due on September 1, 2019.
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<P>3. <I>Renewable balloon-payment mortgage; loan term.</I> A balloon-payment mortgage that is not a higher-priced covered transaction could provide that a creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew a balloon-payment mortgage at the consumer's option (or is obligated to renew subject to conditions within the consumer's control). See comment 17(c)(1)-11 discussing renewable balloon-payment mortgages. For purposes of this section, the loan term does not include any period of time that could result from a renewal provision. To illustrate, assume a three-year balloon-payment mortgage that is not a higher-priced covered transaction contains an unconditional obligation to renew for another three years at the consumer's option. In this example, the loan term for the balloon-payment mortgage is three years, and not the potential six years that could result if the consumer chooses to renew the loan. Accordingly, the creditor must underwrite the loan using the maximum payment scheduled in the first five years after consummation, which includes the balloon payment due at the end of the three-year loan term. See comment 43(c)(5)(ii)(A)-4.ii, which provides an example of how to determine the consumer's repayment ability for a three-year renewable balloon-payment mortgage that is not a higher-priced covered transaction.
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<P>4. <I>Examples of loans with a balloon payment that are not higher-priced covered transactions.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the maximum payment scheduled during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due (all amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values):
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<P>i. <I>Balloon-payment mortgage with a three-year loan term; fixed interest rate.</I> A loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 6 percent, which is below the APOR-calculated threshold for a comparable transaction; thus the loan is not a higher-priced covered transaction. The loan amount is $200,000, and the loan has a three-year loan term but is amortized over 30 years. The monthly payment scheduled for the first three years following consummation is $1,199, with a balloon payment of $193,367 due at the end of the third year. For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on the balloon payment of $193,367.
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<P>ii. <I>Renewable balloon-payment mortgage with a three-year loan term.</I> Assume the same facts above in comment 43(c)(5)(ii)(A)-4.i, except that the loan agreement also provides that the creditor is unconditionally obligated to renew the balloon-payment mortgage at the consumer's option at the end of the three-year term for another three years. In determining the maximum payment scheduled during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, the creditor must use a loan term of three years. Accordingly, for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on the balloon payment of $193,367.
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<P>iii. <I>Balloon-payment mortgage with a six-year loan term; fixed interest rate.</I> A loan provides for a fixed interest rate of 6 percent, which is below the APOR threshold for a comparable transaction, and thus, the loan is not a higher-priced covered transaction. The loan amount is $200,000, and the loan has a six-year loan term but is amortized over 30 years. The loan is consummated on March 15, 2014, and the monthly payment scheduled for the first six years following consummation is $1,199, with the first monthly payment due on May 1, 2014. The first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due end on May 1, 2019. The balloon payment of $183,995 is required on the due date of the 72nd monthly payment, which is April 1, 2020 (more than five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due). For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor may determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on the monthly payment of $1,199, and need not consider the balloon payment of $183,995 due on April 1, 2020.
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<P>5. <I>Higher-priced covered transaction with a balloon payment.</I> Where a loan with a balloon payment is a higher-priced covered transaction, the creditor must determine the consumer's repayment ability based on the loan's payment schedule, including any balloon payment. For example (all amounts are rounded): Assume a higher-priced covered transaction with a fixed interest rate of 7 percent. The loan amount is $200,000 and the loan has a ten year loan term, but is amortized over 30 years. The monthly payment scheduled for the first ten years is $1,331, with a balloon payment of $172,955. For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must consider the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on the payment schedule that fully repays the loan amount, including the balloon payment of $172,955.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(5)(ii)(B).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> For loans that permit interest-only payments, the creditor must use the fully indexed rate or introductory rate, whichever is greater, to calculate the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest that will repay the loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast. For discussion regarding the fully indexed rate, and the meaning of “substantially equal,” see comments 43(b)(3)-1 through -5 and 43(c)(5)(i)-4, respectively. Under § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(B), the relevant term of the loan is the period of time that remains as of the date the loan is recast to require fully amortizing payments. For a loan on which only interest and no principal has been paid, the loan amount will be the outstanding principal balance at the time of the recast. “Loan amount” and “recast” are defined in § 1026.43(b)(5) and (b)(11), respectively. “Interest-only” and “Interest-only loan” are defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iv).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the consumer's repayment ability based on substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest under § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(B) (all amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values):
</P>
<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate mortgage with interest-only payments for five years.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7 percent, and permits interest-only payments for the first five years. The monthly payment of $1,167 scheduled for the first five years would cover only the interest due. The loan is recast on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, after which the scheduled monthly payments increase to $1,414, a monthly payment that repays the loan amount of $200,000 over the 25 years remaining as of the date the loan is recast (300 months). For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a payment of $1,414, which is the substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payment that would repay $200,000 over the 25 years remaining as of the date the loan is recast using the fixed interest rate of 7 percent.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for three years and interest-only payments for five years.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term, but provides for interest-only payments for the first five years. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 5 percent that is fixed for an initial period of three years, after which the interest rate will adjust each year based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to an annual interest rate adjustment cap of 2 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent; the fully indexed rate is 7.5 percent (4.5 percent plus 3 percent). The monthly payments for the first three years are $833. For the fourth year, the payments are $1,167, based on an interest rate of 7 percent, calculated by adding the 2 percent annual adjustment cap to the initial rate of 5 percent. For the fifth year, the payments are $1,250, applying the fully indexed rate of 7.5 percent. These first five years of payments will cover only the interest due. The loan is recast on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, after which the scheduled monthly payments increase to $1,478, a monthly payment that will repay the loan amount of $200,000 over the remaining 25 years of the loan (300 months). For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a monthly payment of $1,478, which is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest that would repay $200,000 over the 25 years remaining as of the date the loan is recast using the fully indexed rate of 7.5 percent.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(c)(5)(ii)(C).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> For purposes of determining the consumer's ability to repay a negative amortization loan, the creditor must use substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest based on the fully indexed rate or the introductory rate, whichever is greater, that will repay the maximum loan amount over the term of the loan that remains as of the date the loan is recast. Accordingly, before determining the substantially equal, monthly payments the creditor must first determine the maximum loan amount and the period of time that remains in the loan term after the loan is recast. “Recast” is defined in § 1026.43(b)(11). Second, the creditor must use the fully indexed rate or introductory rate, whichever is greater, to calculate the substantially equal, monthly payment amount that will repay the maximum loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast. For discussion regarding the fully indexed rate and the meaning of “substantially equal,” see comments 43(b)(3)-1 through -5 and 43(c)(5)(i)-4, respectively. For the meaning of the term “maximum loan amount” and a discussion of how to determine the maximum loan amount for purposes of § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(C), see § 1026.43(b)(7) and associated commentary. “Negative amortization loan” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(v).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Term of loan.</I> Under § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(C), the relevant term of the loan is the period of time that remains as of the date the terms of the legal obligation recast. That is, the creditor must determine substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest that will repay the maximum loan amount based on the period of time that remains after any negative amortization cap is triggered or any period permitting minimum periodic payments expires, whichever occurs first.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the consumer's repayment ability based on substantially equal, monthly payments of principal and interest as required under § 1026.43(c)(5)(ii)(C) (all amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values):
</P>
<P>i. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with negative amortization.</I> A. Assume an adjustable-rate mortgage in the amount of $200,000 with a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the consumer can make minimum monthly payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month until the date on which the principal balance reaches 115 percent of its original balance (<I>i.e.,</I> a negative amortization cap of 115 percent) or for the first five years of the loan (60 monthly payments), whichever occurs first. The introductory interest rate at consummation is 1.5 percent. One month after consummation, the interest rate adjusts and will adjust monthly thereafter based on the specified index plus a margin of 3.5 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent; the fully indexed rate is 8 percent (4.5 percent plus 3.5 percent). The maximum lifetime interest rate is 10.5 percent; there are no other periodic interest rate adjustment caps that limit how quickly the maximum lifetime rate may be reached. The minimum monthly payment for the first year is based on the initial interest rate of 1.5 percent. After that, the minimum monthly payment adjusts annually, but may increase by no more than 7.5 percent over the previous year's payment. The minimum monthly payment is $690 in the first year, $742 in the second year, and $797 in the first part of the third year.
</P>
<P>B. To determine the maximum loan amount, assume that the interest rate increases to the maximum lifetime interest rate of 10.5 percent at the first adjustment (<I>i.e.,</I> the due date of the first periodic monthly payment), and interest accrues at that rate until the loan is recast. Assume that the consumer makes the minimum monthly payments scheduled, which are capped at 7.5 percent from year-to-year, for the maximum possible time. Because the consumer's minimum monthly payments are less than the interest accrued each month, negative amortization occurs (<I>i.e.,</I> the accrued but unpaid interest is added to the principal balance). Thus, assuming that the consumer makes the minimum monthly payments for as long as possible and that the maximum interest rate of 10.5 percent is reached at the first rate adjustment (<I>i.e.,</I> the due date of the first periodic monthly payment), the negative amortization cap of 115 percent is reached on the due date of the 27th monthly payment and the loan is recast as of that date. The maximum loan amount as of the due date of the 27th monthly payment is $229,251, and the remaining term of the loan is 27 years and nine months (333 months).
</P>
<P>C. For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a monthly payment of $1,716, which is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest that will repay the maximum loan amount of $229,251 over the remaining loan term of 333 months using the fully indexed rate of 8 percent. See comments 43(b)(7)-1 and -2 discussing the calculation of the maximum loan amount, and § 1026.43(b)(11) for the meaning of the term “recast.”
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Fixed-rate, graduated payment mortgage.</I> A loan in the amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7.5 percent, and requires the consumer to make minimum monthly payments during the first year, with payments increasing 12.5 percent over the previous year every year for four years (the annual payment cap). The payment schedule provides for payments of $943 in the first year, $1,061 in the second year, $1,193 in the third year, $1,343 in the fourth year, and then requires $1,511 for the remaining term of the loan. During the first three years of the loan, the payments are less than the interest accrued each month, resulting in negative amortization. Assuming the minimum payments increase year-to-year up to the 12.5 percent payment cap, the consumer will begin making payments that cover at least all of the interest accrued at the end of the third year. Thus, the loan is recast on the due date of the 36th monthly payment. The maximum loan amount on that date is $207,662, and the remaining loan term is 27 years (324 months). For purposes of § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), the creditor must determine the consumer's ability to repay the loan based on a monthly payment of $1,497, which is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest that will repay the maximum loan amount of $207,662 over the remaining loan term of 27 years using the fixed interest rate of 7.5 percent.
</P>
<P><I>43(c)(6) Payment calculation for simultaneous loans.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> In determining the consumer's repayment ability for a covered transaction under § 1026.43(c)(2)(iii), a creditor must include consideration of any simultaneous loan which it knows, or has reason to know, will be made at or before consummation of the covered transaction. For a discussion of the standard “knows or has reason to know,” see comment 43(c)(2)(iv)-2. For the meaning of the term “simultaneous loan,” see § 1026.43(b)(12).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment calculation—covered transaction.</I> For a simultaneous loan that is a covered transaction, as that term is defined under § 1026.43(b)(1), a creditor must determine a consumer's ability to repay the monthly payment obligation for a simultaneous loan as set forth in § 1026.43(c)(5), taking into account any mortgage-related obligations required to be considered under § 1026.43(c)(2)(v). For the meaning of the term “mortgage-related obligations,” see § 1026.43(b)(8).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment calculation—home equity line of credit.</I> For a simultaneous loan that is a home equity line of credit subject to § 1026.40, the creditor must consider the periodic payment required under the terms of the plan when assessing the consumer's ability to repay the covered transaction secured by the same dwelling as the simultaneous loan. Under § 1026.43(c)(6)(ii), a creditor must determine the periodic payment required under the terms of the plan by considering the actual amount of credit to be drawn by the consumer at consummation of the covered transaction. The amount to be drawn is the amount requested by the consumer; when the amount requested will be disbursed, or actual receipt of funds, is not determinative. Any additional draw against the line of credit that the creditor of the covered transaction does not know or have reason to know about before or during underwriting need not be considered in relation to ability to repay. For example, where the creditor's policies and procedures require the source of down payment to be verified, and the creditor verifies that a simultaneous loan that is a HELOC will provide the source of down payment for the first-lien covered transaction, the creditor must consider the periodic payment on the HELOC by assuming the amount drawn is at least the down payment amount. In general, a creditor should determine the periodic payment based on guidance in the commentary to § 1026.40(d)(5) (discussing payment terms).


</P>
<HD2>43(c)(7) Monthly Debt-to-Income Ratio or Residual Income
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Monthly debt-to-income ratio or monthly residual income.</I> Under § 1026.43(c)(2)(vii), the creditor must consider the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, or the consumer's monthly residual income, in accordance with the requirements in § 1026.43(c)(7). Section 1026.43(c) does not prescribe a specific monthly debt-to-income ratio with which creditors must comply. Instead, an appropriate threshold for a consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or monthly residual income is for the creditor to determine in making a reasonable and good faith determination of a consumer's ability to repay.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of both monthly debt-to-income ratio and monthly residual income.</I> If a creditor considers the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio, the creditor may also consider the consumer's residual income as further validation of the assessment made using the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Compensating factors.</I> The creditor may consider factors in addition to the monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income in assessing a consumer's repayment ability. For example, the creditor may reasonably and in good faith determine that a consumer has the ability to repay despite a higher debt-to-income ratio or lower residual income in light of the consumer's assets other than the dwelling, including any real property attached to the dwelling, securing the covered transaction, such as a savings account. The creditor may also reasonably and in good faith determine that a consumer has the ability to repay despite a higher debt-to-income ratio in light of the consumer's residual income.
</P>
<P><I>43(d) Refinancing of non-standard mortgages.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(1) Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(1)(i) Non-standard mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(1)(i)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory fixed rate.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(1)(i)(A), an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory fixed interest rate for one year or longer is considered a “non-standard mortgage.” For example, a covered transaction that has a fixed introductory rate for the first two, three, or five years and then converts to a variable rate for the remaining 28, 27, or 25 years, respectively, is a “non-standard mortgage.” A covered transaction with an introductory rate for six months that then converts to a variable rate for the remaining 29 and one-half years is not a “non-standard mortgage.”
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(1)(ii) Standard mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(1)(ii)(A).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(1)(ii)(A), a “standard mortgage” must provide for regular periodic payments that do not result in an increase of the principal balance (negative amortization), allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal (<I>see</I> comment 43(e)(2)(i)-2), or result in a balloon payment. Thus, the terms of the legal obligation must require the consumer to make payments of principal and interest on a monthly or other periodic basis that will repay the loan amount over the loan term. Except for payments resulting from any interest rate changes after consummation in an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage, the periodic payments must be substantially equal. For an explanation of the term “substantially equal,” see comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. In addition, a single-payment transaction is not a “standard mortgage” because it does not require “regular periodic payments.” <I>See also</I> comment 43(e)(2)(i)-1.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(1)(ii)(D).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>First five years after consummation.</I> A “standard mortgage” must have an interest rate that is fixed for at least the first five years (60 months) after consummation. For example, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage that applies the same fixed interest rate to determine the first 60 payments of principal and interest due. The loan is consummated on August 15, 2013, and the first monthly payment is due on October 1, 2013. The date that is five years after consummation is August 15, 2018. The first interest rate adjustment occurs on September 1, 2018. This loan meets the criterion for a “standard mortgage” under § 1026.43(d)(1)(ii)(D) because the interest rate is fixed until September 1, 2018, which is more than five years after consummation. For guidance regarding step-rate mortgages, see comment 43(e)(2)(iv)-3.iii.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(1)(ii)(E).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Permissible use of proceeds.</I> To qualify as a “standard mortgage,” the loan's proceeds may be used for only two purposes: paying off the non-standard mortgage and paying for closing costs, including paying escrow amounts required at or before closing. If the proceeds of a covered transaction are used for other purposes, such as to pay off other liens or to provide additional cash to the consumer for discretionary spending, the transaction does not meet the definition of a “standard mortgage.”
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(2) Scope.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Written application.</I> For an explanation of the requirements for a “written application” in § 1026.43(d)(2)(iii), (d)(2)(iv), and (d)(2)(v), see comment 19(a)(1)(i)-3.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Materially lower.</I> The exemptions afforded under § 1026.43(d)(3) apply to a refinancing only if the monthly payment for the new loan is “materially lower” than the monthly payment for an existing non-standard mortgage. The payments to be compared must be calculated based on the requirements under § 1026.43(d)(5). Whether the new loan payment is “materially lower” than the non-standard mortgage payment depends on the facts and circumstances. In all cases, a payment reduction of 10 percent or more meets the “materially lower” standard.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Late payment—12 months prior to application.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(2)(iv), the exemptions in § 1026.43(d)(3) apply to a covered transaction only if, during the 12 months immediately preceding the creditor's receipt of the consumer's written application for a refinancing, the consumer has made no more than one payment on the non-standard mortgage more than 30 days late. (For an explanation of “written application,” see comment 43(d)(2)-1.) For example, assume a consumer applies for a refinancing on May 1, 2014. Assume also that the consumer made a non-standard mortgage payment on August 15, 2013, that was 45 days late. The consumer made no other late payments on the non-standard mortgage between May 1, 2013, and May 1, 2014. In this example, the requirement under § 1026.43(d)(2)(iv) is met because the consumer made only one payment that was over 30 days late within the 12 months prior to applying for the refinancing (<I>i.e.,</I> eight and one-half months prior to application).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payment due date.</I> Whether a payment is more than 30 days late is measured in relation to the contractual due date not accounting for any grace period. For example, if the contractual due date for a non-standard mortgage payment is the first day of every month, but no late fee will be charged as long as the payment is received by the 16th of the month, the payment due date for purposes of § 1026.43(d)(2)(iv) and (v) is the first day of the month, not the 16th day of the month. Thus, a payment due under the contract on October 1st that is paid on November 1st is made more than 30 days after the payment due date.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(2)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Late payment—six months prior to application.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(2)(v), the exemptions in § 1026.43(d)(3) apply to a covered transaction only if, during the six months immediately preceding the creditor's receipt of the consumer's written application for a refinancing, the consumer has made no payments on the non-standard mortgage more than 30 days late. (For an explanation of “written application” and how to determine the payment due date, see comments 43(d)(2)-1 and 43(d)(2)(iv)-2.) For example, assume a consumer with a non-standard mortgage applies for a refinancing on May 1, 2014. If the consumer made a payment on March 15, 2014, that was 45 days late, the requirement under § 1026.43(d)(2)(v) is not met because the consumer made a payment more than 30 days late one and one-half months prior to application. If the number of months between consummation of the non-standard mortgage and the consumer's application for the standard mortgage is six or fewer, the consumer may not have made any payment more than 30 days late on the non-standard mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(d)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Non-standard mortgage loan made in accordance with ability-to-repay or qualified mortgage requirements.</I> For non-standard mortgages that are consummated on or after January 10, 2014, § 1026.43(d)(2)(vi) provides that the refinancing provisions set forth in § 1026.43(d) apply only if the non-standard mortgage was made in accordance with the requirements of § 1026.43(c) or (e), as applicable. For example, if a creditor originated a non-standard mortgage on or after January 10, 2014 that did not comply with the requirements of § 1026.43(c) and was not a qualified mortgage pursuant to § 1026.43(e), § 1026.43(d) would not apply to the refinancing of the non-standard mortgage loan into a standard mortgage loan. However, § 1026.43(d) applies to the refinancing of a non-standard mortgage loan into a standard mortgage loan, regardless of whether the non-standard mortgage loan was made in compliance with § 1026.43(c) or (e), if the non-standard mortgage loan was consummated prior to January 10, 2014.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(3) Exemption from repayment ability requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Two-part determination.</I> To qualify for the exemptions in § 1026.43(d)(3), a creditor must have considered, first, whether the consumer is likely to default on the existing mortgage once that loan is recast and, second, whether the new mortgage likely would prevent the consumer's default.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(4) Offer of rate discounts and other favorable terms.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Documented underwriting practices.</I> In connection with a refinancing made pursuant to § 1026.43(d), § 1026.43(d)(4) requires a creditor offering a consumer rate discounts and terms that are the same as, or better than, the rate discounts and terms offered to new consumers to make such an offer consistent with the creditor's documented underwriting practices. Section 1026.43(d)(4) does not require a creditor making a refinancing pursuant to § 1026.43(d) to comply with the underwriting requirements of § 1026.43(c). Rather, § 1026.43(d)(4) requires creditors providing such discounts to do so consistent with documented policies related to loan pricing, loan term qualifications, or other similar underwriting practices. For example, assume that a creditor is providing a consumer with a refinancing made pursuant to § 1026.43(d) and that this creditor has a documented practice of offering rate discounts to consumers with credit scores above a certain threshold. Assume further that the consumer receiving the refinancing has a credit score below this threshold, and therefore would not normally qualify for the rate discount available to consumers with high credit scores. This creditor complies with § 1026.43(d)(4) by offering the consumer the discounted rate in connection with the refinancing made pursuant to § 1026.43(d), even if the consumer would not normally qualify for that discounted rate, provided that the offer of the discounted rate is not prohibited by applicable State or Federal law. However, § 1026.43(d)(4) does not require a creditor to offer a consumer such a discounted rate.
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(5) Payment calculations.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(d)(5)(i) Non-Standard mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Payment calculation for a non-standard mortgage.</I> In determining whether the monthly periodic payment for a standard mortgage is materially lower than the monthly periodic payment for the non-standard mortgage under § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii), the creditor must consider the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage that will result after the loan is “recast,” assuming substantially equal payments of principal and interest that amortize the remaining loan amount over the remaining term as of the date the mortgage is recast. For guidance regarding the meaning of “substantially equal,” see comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. For the meaning of “recast,” see § 1026.43(b)(11) and associated commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fully indexed rate.</I> The term “fully indexed rate” in § 1026.43(d)(5)(i)(A) for calculating the payment for a non-standard mortgage is generally defined in § 1026.43(b)(3) and associated commentary. Under § 1026.43(b)(3) the fully indexed rate is calculated at the time of consummation. For purposes of § 1026.43(d)(5)(i), however, the fully indexed rate is calculated within a reasonable period of time before or after the date the creditor receives the consumer's written application for the standard mortgage. Thirty days is generally considered “a reasonable period of time.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Written application.</I> For an explanation of the requirements for a “written application” in § 1026.43(d)(5)(i), see comment 19(a)(1)(i)-3.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Payment calculation for an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory fixed rate.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(5)(i), the monthly periodic payment for an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory fixed interest rate for a period of one or more years must be calculated based on several assumptions.
</P>
<P>i. First, the payment must be based on the outstanding principal balance as of the date on which the mortgage is recast, assuming all scheduled payments have been made up to that date and the last payment due under those terms is made and credited on that date. For example, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage with a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the payments for the first 24 months are based on a fixed rate, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index and margin. The loan is recast on the due date of the 24th payment. If the 24th payment is due on September 1, 2014, the creditor must calculate the outstanding principal balance as of September 1, 2014, assuming that all 24 payments under the fixed rate terms have been made and credited timely.
</P>
<P>ii. Second, the payment calculation must be based on substantially equal monthly payments of principal and interest that will fully repay the outstanding principal balance over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast. Thus, in the example above, the creditor must assume a loan term of 28 years (336 monthly payments).
</P>
<P>iii. Third, the payment must be based on the fully indexed rate, as described in § 1026.43(d)(5)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Example of payment calculation for an adjustable-rate mortgage with an introductory fixed rate.</I> The following example illustrates the rule described in comment 43(d)(5)(i)-4:
</P>
<P>i. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted introductory interest rate of 5 percent that is fixed for an initial period of two years, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percentage points.
</P>
<P>ii. The non-standard mortgage is consummated on February 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on April 1, 2014. The loan is recast on the due date of the 24th monthly payment, which is March 1, 2016.
</P>
<P>iii. On March 15, 2015, the creditor receives the consumer's written application for a refinancing after the consumer has made 12 monthly on-time payments. On this date, the index value is 4.5 percent.
</P>
<P>iv. To calculate the non-standard mortgage payment that must be compared to the standard mortgage payment under § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii), the creditor must use:
</P>
<P>A. The outstanding principal balance as of March 1, 2016, assuming all scheduled payments have been made up to March 1, 2016, and the last payment due under the fixed rate terms is made and credited on March 1, 2016. In this example, the outstanding principal balance is $193,948.
</P>
<P>B. The fully indexed rate of 7.5 percent, which is the index value of 4.5 percent as of March 15, 2015 (the date on which the application for a refinancing is received) plus the margin of 3 percent.
</P>
<P>C. The remaining loan term as of March 1, 2016, the date of the recast, which is 28 years (336 monthly payments).
</P>
<P>v. Based on these assumptions, the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage for purposes of determining whether the standard mortgage monthly payment is lower than the non-standard mortgage monthly payment (<I>see</I> § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii)) is $1,383. This is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest required to repay the outstanding principal balance at the fully indexed rate over the remaining term.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Payment calculation for an interest-only loan.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(5)(i), the monthly periodic payment for an interest-only loan must be calculated based on several assumptions:
</P>
<P>i. First, the payment must be based on the outstanding principal balance as of the date of the recast, assuming all scheduled payments are made under the terms of the legal obligation in effect before the mortgage is recast. For a loan on which only interest and no principal has been paid, the outstanding principal balance at the time of recast will be the loan amount, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(5), assuming all scheduled payments are made under the terms of the legal obligation in effect before the mortgage is recast. For example, assume that a mortgage has a 30-year loan term, and provides that the first 24 months of payments are interest-only. If the 24th payment is due on September 1, 2015, the creditor must calculate the outstanding principal balance as of September 1, 2015, assuming that all 24 payments under the interest-only payment terms have been made and credited timely and that no payments of principal have been made.
</P>
<P>ii. Second, the payment calculation must be based on substantially equal monthly payments of principal and interest that will fully repay the loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast. Thus, in the example above, the creditor must assume a loan term of 28 years (336 monthly payments).
</P>
<P>iii. Third, the payment must be based on the fully indexed rate, as described in § 1026.43(d)(5)(i)(A).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Example of payment calculation for an interest-only loan.</I> The following example illustrates the rule described in comment 43(d)(5)(i)-6:
</P>
<P>i. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 7 percent, and permits interest-only payments for the first two years (the first 24 payments), after which time amortizing payments of principal and interest are required.
</P>
<P>ii. The non-standard mortgage is consummated on February 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on April 1, 2014. The loan is recast on the due date of the 24th monthly payment, which is March 1, 2016.
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<P>iii. On March 15, 2015, the creditor receives the consumer's written application for a refinancing, after the consumer has made 12 monthly on-time payments. The consumer has made no additional payments of principal.
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<P>iv. To calculate the non-standard mortgage payment that must be compared to the standard mortgage payment under § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii), the creditor must use:
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<P>A. The loan amount, which is the outstanding principal balance as of March 1, 2016, assuming all scheduled interest-only payments have been made and credited up to that date. In this example, the loan amount is $200,000.
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<P>B. An interest rate of 7 percent, which is the interest rate in effect at the time of consummation of this fixed-rate non-standard mortgage.
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<P>C. The remaining loan term as of March 1, 2016, the date of the recast, which is 28 years (336 monthly payments).
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<P>v. Based on these assumptions, the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage for purposes of determining whether the standard mortgage monthly payment is lower than the non-standard mortgage monthly payment (<I>see</I> § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii)) is $1,359. This is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest required to repay the loan amount at the fully indexed rate over the remaining term.
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<P>8. <I>Payment calculation for a negative amortization loan.</I> Under § 1026.43(d)(5)(i), the monthly periodic payment for a negative amortization loan must be calculated based on several assumptions:
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<P>i. First, the calculation must be based on the maximum loan amount, determined after adjusting for the outstanding principal balance. If the consumer makes only the minimum periodic payments for the maximum possible time, until the consumer must begin making fully amortizing payments, the outstanding principal balance will be the maximum loan amount, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(7). In this event, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(d)(5)(i)(C)(<I>3</I>) by relying on the examples of how to calculate the maximum loan amount, see comment 43(b)(7)-3. If the consumer makes payments above the minimum periodic payments for the maximum possible time, the creditor must calculate the maximum loan amount based on the outstanding principal balance. In this event, the creditor complies with § 1026.43(d)(5)(i)(C)(<I>3</I>) by relying on the examples of how to calculate the maximum loan amount in comment 43(d)(5)(i)-10.
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<P>ii. Second, the calculation must be based on substantially equal monthly payments of principal and interest that will fully repay the maximum loan amount over the term of the loan remaining as of the date the loan is recast. For example, if the loan term is 30 years and the loan is recast on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, the creditor must assume a remaining loan term of 25 years (300 monthly payments).
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<P>iii. Third, the payment must be based on the fully indexed rate as of the date of the written application for the standard mortgage.
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<P>9. <I>Example of payment calculation for a negative amortization loan if only minimum payments made.</I> The following example illustrates the rule described in comment 43(d)(5)(i)-8:
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<P>i. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the consumer can make minimum monthly payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month until the date on which the principal balance increases to the negative amortization cap of 115 percent of the loan amount, or for the first five years of monthly payments (60 payments), whichever occurs first. The loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage that adjusts monthly according to a specified index plus a margin of 3.5 percent.
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<P>ii. The non-standard mortgage is consummated on February 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on April 1, 2014. Assume that the consumer has made only the minimum periodic payments. Assume further that, based on the calculation of the maximum loan amount required under § 1026.43(b)(7) and associated commentary, the negative amortization cap of 115 percent would be reached on June 1, 2016, the due date of the 27th monthly payment.
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<P>iii. On March 15, 2015, the creditor receives the consumer's written application for a refinancing, after the consumer has made 12 monthly on-time payments. On this date, the index value is 4.5 percent.
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<P>iv. To calculate the non-standard mortgage payment that must be compared to the standard mortgage payment under § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii), the creditor must use:
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<P>A. The maximum loan amount of $229,251 as of June 1, 2016;
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<P>B. The fully indexed rate of 8 percent, which is the index value of 4.5 percent as of March 15, 2015 (the date on which the creditor receives the application for a refinancing) plus the margin of 3.5 percent; and
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<P>C. The remaining loan term as of June 1, 2016, the date of the recast, which is 27 years and nine months (333 monthly payments).
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<P>v. Based on these assumptions, the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage for purposes of determining whether the standard mortgage monthly payment is lower than the non-standard mortgage monthly payment (<I>see</I> § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii)) is $1,716. This is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest required to repay the maximum loan amount at the fully indexed rate over the remaining term.
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<P>10. <I>Example of payment calculation for a negative amortization loan if payments above minimum amount made.</I> The following example illustrates the rule described in comment 43(d)(5)(i)-8:
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<P>i. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the consumer can make minimum monthly payments that cover only part of the interest accrued each month until the date on which the principal balance increases to the negative amortization cap of 115 percent of the loan amount, or for the first five years of monthly payments (60 payments), whichever occurs first. The loan is an adjustable-rate mortgage that adjusts monthly according to a specified index plus a margin of 3.5 percent. The introductory interest rate at consummation is 1.5 percent. One month after consummation, the interest rate adjusts and will adjust monthly thereafter based on the specified index plus a margin of 3.5 percent. The maximum lifetime interest rate is 10.5 percent; there are no other periodic interest rate adjustment caps that limit how quickly the maximum lifetime rate may be reached. The minimum monthly payment for the first year is based on the initial interest rate of 1.5 percent. After that, the minimum monthly payment adjusts annually, but may increase by no more than 7.5 percent over the previous year's payment. The minimum monthly payment is $690 in the first year, $742 in the second year, $798 in the third year, $857 in the fourth year, and $922 in the fifth year.
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<P>ii. The non-standard mortgage is consummated on February 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on April 1, 2014. Assume that the consumer has made more than the minimum periodic payments, and that after the consumer's 12th monthly on-time payment the outstanding principal balance is $195,000. Based on the calculation of the maximum loan amount after adjusting for this outstanding principal balance, the negative amortization cap of 115 percent would be reached on March 1, 2019, the due date of the 60th monthly payment.
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<P>iii. On March 15, 2015, the creditor receives the consumer's written application for a refinancing, after the consumer has made 12 monthly on-time payments. On this date, the index value is 4.5 percent.
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<P>iv. To calculate the non-standard mortgage payment that must be compared to the standard mortgage payment under § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii), the creditor must use:
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<P>A. The maximum loan amount of $229,219 as of March 1, 2019.
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<P>B. The fully indexed rate of 8 percent, which is the index value of 4.5 percent as of March 15, 2015 (the date on which the creditor receives the application for a refinancing) plus the margin of 3.5 percent.
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<P>C. The remaining loan term as of March 1, 2019, the date of the recast, which is exactly 25 years (300 monthly payments).
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<P>v. Based on these assumptions, the monthly payment for the non-standard mortgage for purposes of determining whether the standard mortgage monthly payment is lower than the non-standard mortgage monthly payment (<I>see</I> § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii)) is $1,769. This is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest required to repay the maximum loan amount at the fully indexed rate over the remaining term.
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<P><I>43(d)(5)(ii) Standard mortgage.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Payment calculation for a standard mortgage.</I> In determining whether the monthly periodic payment for a standard mortgage is materially lower than the monthly periodic payment for a non-standard mortgage, the creditor must consider the monthly payment for the standard mortgage that will result in substantially equal, monthly, fully amortizing payments (as defined in § 1026.43(b)(2)) using the rate as of consummation. For guidance regarding the meaning of “substantially equal” see comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4. For a mortgage with a single, fixed rate for the first five years after consummation, the maximum rate that will apply during the first five years after consummation will be the rate at consummation. For a step-rate mortgage, however, the rate that must be used is the highest rate that will apply during the first five years after consummation. For example, if the rate for the first two years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 4 percent, the rate for the following two years is 5 percent, and the rate for the next two years is 6 percent, the rate that must be used is 6 percent.
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<P>2. <I>Example of payment calculation for a standard mortgage.</I> The following example illustrates the rule described in comment 43(d)(5)(ii)-1: A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for an interest rate of 6 percent that is fixed for an initial period of five years, after which time the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap. The creditor must determine whether the standard mortgage monthly payment is materially lower than the non-standard mortgage monthly payment (<I>see</I> § 1026.43(d)(2)(ii)) based on a standard mortgage payment of $1,199. This is the substantially equal, monthly payment of principal and interest required to repay $200,000 over 30 years at an interest rate of 6 percent.
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<P><I>43(e) Qualified mortgages.</I>
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<P><I>43(e)(1) Safe harbor and presumption of compliance.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.43(c) requires a creditor to make a reasonable and good faith determination at or before consummation that a consumer will be able to repay a covered transaction. Section 1026.43(e)(1)(i) and (ii) provide a safe harbor or presumption of compliance, respectively, with the repayment ability requirements of § 1026.43(c) for creditors and assignees of covered transactions that satisfy the requirements of a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (f). <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(1)(i) and (ii) and associated commentary.
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<P><I>43(e)(1)(i)(A) Safe harbor for transactions that are not higher-priced covered transactions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Higher-priced covered transactions.</I> For guidance on determining whether a loan is a higher-priced covered transaction, see comments 43(b)(4)-1 through -3.
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<P><I>43(e)(1)(ii) Presumption of compliance for higher-priced covered transactions.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(1)(ii), a creditor or assignee of a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), (e)(4), or (f) that is a higher-priced covered transaction is presumed to comply with the repayment ability requirements of § 1026.43(c). To rebut the presumption, it must be proven that, despite meeting the standards for a qualified mortgage (including either the debt-to-income standard in § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi) or the standards of one of the entities specified in § 1026.43(e)(4)(ii)), the creditor did not have a reasonable and good faith belief in the consumer's repayment ability. Specifically, it must be proven that, at the time of consummation, based on the information available to the creditor, the consumer's income, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and the consumer's monthly payment (including mortgage-related obligations) on the covered transaction and on any simultaneous loans of which the creditor was aware at consummation would leave the consumer with insufficient residual income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan with which to meet living expenses, including any recurring and material non-debt obligations of which the creditor was aware at the time of consummation, and that the creditor thereby did not make a reasonable and good faith determination of the consumer's repayment ability. For example, a consumer may rebut the presumption with evidence demonstrating that the consumer's residual income was insufficient to meet living expenses, such as food, clothing, gasoline, and health care, including the payment of recurring medical expenses of which the creditor was aware at the time of consummation, and after taking into account the consumer's assets other than the value of the dwelling securing the loan, such as a savings account. In addition, the longer the period of time that the consumer has demonstrated actual ability to repay the loan by making timely payments, without modification or accommodation, after consummation or, for an adjustable-rate mortgage, after recast, the less likely the consumer will be able to rebut the presumption based on insufficient residual income and prove that, at the time the loan was made, the creditor failed to make a reasonable and good faith determination that the consumer had the reasonable ability to repay the loan.
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<P><I>43(e)(2) Qualified mortgage defined—general.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General QM Amendments Effective on March 1, 2021.</I> Comment 43-2 provides that, for a transaction for which a creditor received an application on or after March 1, 2021 but prior to October 1, 2022, a person has the option of complying either: With 12 CFR part 1026 as it is in effect; or with 12 CFR part 1026 as it was in effect on February 26, 2021, together with any amendments to 12 CFR part 1026 that become effective after February 26, 2021, other than the revisions to Regulation Z contained in Qualified Mortgage Definition Under the Truth in Lending Act (Regulation Z): General QM Loan Definition published on December 29, 2020 (2021 General QM Amendments). Prior to the effective date of the 2021 General QM Amendments, § 1026.43(e)(2) provided a qualified mortgage definition that, among other things, required that the ratio of the consumer's total monthly debt to total monthly income at the time of consummation not exceed 43 percent. The 2021 General QM Amendments removed that requirement and replaced it with the annual percentage rate thresholds in § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), among other revisions. Both the qualified mortgage definition in § 1026.43(e)(2) that was in effect prior to the 2021 General QM Amendments and the qualified mortgage definition in § 1026.43(e)(2) as amended by the 2021 General QM Amendments are available to creditors for transactions for which a creditor received an application on or after March 1, 2021 but prior to October 1, 2022. <I>See</I> comment 43-2 for an explanation of how creditors determine the date the creditor received the consumer's application for purposes of that comment.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Regular periodic payments.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(2)(i), a qualified mortgage must provide for regular periodic payments that may not result in an increase of the principal balance (negative amortization), deferral of principal repayment, or a balloon payment. Thus, the terms of the legal obligation must require the consumer to make payments of principal and interest, on a monthly or other periodic basis, that will fully repay the loan amount over the loan term. The periodic payments must be substantially equal except for the effect that any interest rate change after consummation has on the payment in the case of an adjustable-rate or step-rate mortgage. In addition, because § 1026.43(e)(2)(i) requires that a qualified mortgage provide for regular periodic payments, a single-payment transaction may not be a qualified mortgage.
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<P>2. <I>Deferral of principal repayment.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(2)(i)(B), a qualified mortgage's regular periodic payments may not allow the consumer to defer repayment of principal, except as provided in § 1026.43(f). A loan allows the deferral of principal repayment if one or more of the periodic payments may be applied solely to accrued interest and not to loan principal. Deferred principal repayment also occurs if the payment is applied to both accrued interest and principal but the consumer is permitted to make periodic payments that are less than the amount that would be required under a payment schedule that has substantially equal payments that fully repay the loan amount over the loan term. Graduated payment mortgages, for example, allow deferral of principal repayment in this manner and therefore may not be qualified mortgages.
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<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(ii).</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> The 30-year term limitation in § 1026.43(e)(2)(ii) is applied without regard to any interim period between consummation and the beginning of the first full unit period of the repayment schedule. For example, assume a covered transaction is consummated on March 20, 2014 and the due date of the first regular periodic payment is April 30, 2014. The beginning of the first full unit period of the repayment schedule is April 1, 2014 and the loan term therefore ends on April 1, 2044. The transaction would comply with the 30-year term limitation in § 1026.43(e)(2)(ii).


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<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(iv).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Maximum interest rate during the first five years.</I> For a qualified mortgage, the creditor must underwrite the loan using a periodic payment of principal and interest based on the maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. Creditors must use the maximum rate that could apply at any time during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, regardless of whether the maximum rate is reached at the first or subsequent adjustment during the five year period.
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<P>2. <I>Fixed-rate mortgage.</I> For a fixed-rate mortgage, creditors should use the interest rate in effect at consummation. “Fixed-rate mortgage” is defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii).
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<P>3. <I>Interest rate adjustment caps.</I> For an adjustable-rate mortgage, creditors should assume the interest rate increases after consummation as rapidly as possible, taking into account the terms of the legal obligation. That is, creditors should account for any periodic interest rate adjustment cap that may limit how quickly the interest rate can increase under the terms of the legal obligation. Where a range for the maximum interest rate during the first five years is provided, the highest rate in that range is the maximum interest rate for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(iv). Where the terms of the legal obligation are not based on an index plus margin or formula, the creditor must use the maximum interest rate that occurs during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. To illustrate:
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<P>i. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for three years.</I> Assume an adjustable-rate mortgage has an initial discounted rate of 5 percent that is fixed for the first three years, measured from the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation, after which the rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent. The loan agreement provides for an annual interest rate adjustment cap of 2 percent, and a lifetime maximum interest rate of 12 percent. The first rate adjustment occurs on the due date of the 36th monthly payment; the rate can adjust to no more than 7 percent (5 percent initial discounted rate plus 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap). The second rate adjustment occurs on the due date of the 48th monthly payment; the rate can adjust to no more than 9 percent (7 percent rate plus 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap). The third rate adjustment occurs on the due date of the 60th monthly payment; the rate can adjust to no more than 11 percent (9 percent rate plus 2 percent annual interest rate cap adjustment). The maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 11 percent (the rate on the due date of the 60th monthly payment). For further discussion of how to determine whether a rate adjustment occurs during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, see comment 43(e)(2)(iv)-7.
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<P>ii. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for three years.</I> Assume the same facts as in paragraph 3.i except that the lifetime maximum interest rate is 10 percent, which is less than the maximum interest rate in the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 11 percent that would apply but for the lifetime maximum interest rate. The maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 10 percent.
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<P>iii. <I>Step-rate mortgage.</I> Assume a step-rate mortgage with an interest rate fixed at 6.5 percent for the first two years, measured from the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation, 7 percent for the next three years, and then 7.5 percent for the remainder of the loan term. The maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 7.5 percent.
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<P>4. <I>First five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(2)(iv)(A), the creditor must underwrite the loan using the maximum interest rate that may apply during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. To illustrate, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage with an initial fixed interest rate of 5 percent for the first five years, measured from the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation, after which the interest rate will adjust annually to the specified index plus a margin of 6 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap. The index value in effect at consummation is 5.5 percent. The loan consummates on September 15, 2014, and the first monthly payment is due on November 1, 2014. The first rate adjustment to no more than 7 percent (5 percent plus 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap) occurs on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, which is October 1, 2019, and therefore, the rate adjustment occurs during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. To meet the definition of qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), the creditor must underwrite the loan using a monthly payment of principal and interest based on an interest rate of 7 percent.
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<P>5. <I>Loan amount.</I> To meet the definition of qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), a creditor must determine the periodic payment of principal and interest using the maximum interest rate permitted during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due that repays either:
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<P>i. The outstanding principal balance as of the earliest date the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due can take effect under the terms of the legal obligation, over the remaining term of the loan. To illustrate, assume a loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 5 percent that is fixed for an initial period of three years, measured from the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap and a lifetime maximum interest rate of 9 percent. The index value in effect at consummation equals 4.5 percent. Assuming the interest rate increases after consummation as quickly as possible, the rate adjustment to the lifetime maximum interest rate of 9 percent occurs on the due date of the 48th monthly payment. The outstanding principal balance on the loan at the end of the fourth year (after the 48th monthly payment is credited) is $188,218. The creditor will meet the definition of qualified mortgage if it underwrites the covered transaction using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,564 to repay the outstanding principal balance of $188,218 over the remaining 26 years of the loan term (312 months) using the maximum interest rate during the first five years of 9 percent; or
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<P>ii. The loan amount, as that term is defined in § 1026.43(b)(5), over the entire loan term, as that term is defined in § 1026.43(b)(6). Using the same example above, the creditor will meet the definition of qualified mortgage if it underwrites the covered transaction using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,609 to repay the loan amount of $200,000 over the 30-year loan term using the maximum interest rate during the first five years of 9 percent.
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<P>6. <I>Mortgage-related obligations.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(2)(iv) requires creditors to take the consumer's monthly payment for mortgage-related obligations into account when underwriting the loan. For the meaning of the term “mortgage-related obligations,” see § 1026.43(b)(8) and associated commentary.
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<P>7. <I>Examples.</I> The following are examples of how to determine the periodic payment of principal and interest based on the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due for purposes of meeting the definition of qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) (all payment amounts shown are rounded, and all amounts are calculated using non-rounded values; all initial fixed interest rate periods are measured from the first day of the first full calendar month following consummation):
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<P>i. <I>Fixed-rate mortgage.</I> A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term and a fixed interest rate of 7 percent. The maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due for a fixed-rate mortgage is the interest rate in effect at consummation, which is 7 percent under this example. The monthly fully amortizing payment scheduled over the 30 years is $1,331. The creditor will meet the definition of qualified mortgage if it underwrites the loan using the fully amortizing payment of $1,331.
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<P>ii. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for three years.</I> A. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 5 percent that is fixed for an initial period of three years, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap and a lifetime maximum interest rate of 9 percent. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent. The loan is consummated on March 15, 2014, and the first regular periodic payment is due May 1, 2014. The loan agreement provides that the first rate adjustment occurs on April 1, 2017 (the due date of the 36th monthly payment); the second rate adjustment occurs on April 1, 2018 (the due date of the 48th monthly payment); and the third rate adjustment occurs on April 1, 2019 (the due date of the 60th monthly payment). Under this example, the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment due is 9 percent (the lifetime interest rate cap), which applies beginning on April 1, 2018 (the due date of the 48th monthly payment). The outstanding principal balance at the end of the fourth year (after the 48th payment is credited) is $188,218.
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<P>B. The transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,564 to repay the outstanding principal balance at the end of the fourth year of $188,218 over the remaining 26 years of the loan term (312 months), using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 9 percent. Alternatively, the transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,609 to repay the loan amount of $200,000 over the 30-year loan term, using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 9 percent.
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<P>iii. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for five years.</I> A. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 6 percent that is fixed for an initial period of five years, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent. The loan consummates on March 15, 2014 and the first regular periodic payment is due May 1, 2014. Under the terms of the loan agreement, the first rate adjustment to no more than 8 percent (6 percent plus 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap) is on April 1, 2019 (the due date of the 60th monthly payment), which occurs less than five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. Thus, the maximum interest rate under the terms of the loan during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 8 percent.
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<P>B. The transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,436 to repay the outstanding principal balance at the end of the fifth year of $186,109 over the remaining 25 years of the loan term (300 months), using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 8 percent. Alternatively, the transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,468 to repay the loan amount of $200,000 over the 30-year loan term, using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 8 percent.
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<P>iv. <I>Adjustable-rate mortgage with discount for seven years.</I> A. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides for a discounted interest rate of 6 percent that is fixed for an initial period of seven years, after which the interest rate will adjust annually based on a specified index plus a margin of 3 percent, subject to a 2 percent annual interest rate adjustment cap. The index value in effect at consummation is 4.5 percent. The loan is consummated on March 15, 2014, and the first regular periodic payment is due May 1, 2014. Under the terms of the loan agreement, the first rate adjustment is on April 1, 2021 (the due date of the 84th monthly payment), which occurs more than five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. Thus, the maximum interest rate under the terms of the loan during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 6 percent.
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<P>B. The transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,199 to repay the loan amount of $200,000 over the 30-year loan term using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 6 percent.
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<P>iv. <I>Step-rate mortgage.</I> A. A loan in an amount of $200,000 has a 30-year loan term. The loan agreement provides that the interest rate is 6.5 percent for the first two years of the loan, 7 percent for the next three years, and then 7.5 percent for remainder of the loan term. The maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 7.5 percent, which occurs on the due date of the 60th monthly payment. The outstanding principal balance at the end of the fifth year (after the 60th payment is credited) is $187,868.
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<P>B. The transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using a monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,388 to repay the outstanding principal balance of $187,868 over the remaining 25 years of the loan term (300 months), using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 7.5 percent. Alternatively, the transaction will meet the definition of a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using a monthly payment of principal and interest of $1,398 to repay $200,000 over the 30-year loan term using the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due of 7.5 percent.


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(v)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> For guidance on satisfying § 1026.43(e)(2)(v), a creditor may rely on commentary to § 1026.43(c)(2)(i) and (vi), (c)(3), and (c)(4).


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(v)(A)
</HD2>
<P><I>Consider.</I> In order to comply with the requirement to consider under § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(A), a creditor must take into account current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income in its ability-to-repay determination. A creditor must maintain written policies and procedures for how it takes into account, pursuant to its underwriting standards, income or assets, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income in its ability-to-repay determination. A creditor must also retain documentation showing how it took into account income or assets, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income in its ability-to-repay determination, including how it applied its policies and procedures, in order to meet this requirement to consider and thereby meet the requirements for a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2). This documentation may include, for example, an underwriter worksheet or a final automated underwriting system certification, in combination with the creditor's applicable underwriting standards and any applicable exceptions described in its policies and procedures, that shows how these required factors were taken into account in the creditor's ability-to-repay determination.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Requirement to consider monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(A) does not prescribe specifically how a creditor must consider monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income. Section 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(A) also does not prescribe a particular monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income threshold with which a creditor must comply. A creditor may, for example, consider monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income by establishing monthly debt-to-income or residual income thresholds for its own underwriting standards and documenting how it applied those thresholds to determine the consumer's ability to repay. A creditor may also consider these factors by establishing monthly debt-to-income or residual income thresholds and exceptions to those thresholds based on other compensating factors, and documenting application of the thresholds along with any applicable exceptions.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Flexibility to consider additional factors related to a consumer's ability to repay.</I> The requirement to consider income or assets, debt obligations, alimony, child support, and monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income does not preclude the creditor from taking into account additional factors that are relevant in determining a consumer's ability to repay the loan. For guidance on considering additional factors in determining the consumer's ability to repay, see comment 43(c)(7)-3.


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(v)(B)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Verification of income, assets, debt obligations, alimony, and child support.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) does not prescribe specific methods of underwriting that creditors must use. Section 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B)(<I>1</I>) requires a creditor to verify the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(4), which states that a creditor must verify such amounts using third-party records that provide reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets. Section 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B)(<I>2</I>) requires a creditor to verify the consumer's current debt obligations, alimony, and child support in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(3), which states that a creditor must verify such amounts using reasonably reliable third-party records. So long as a creditor complies with the provisions of § 1026.43(c)(3) with respect to debt obligations, alimony, and child support and § 1026.43(c)(4) with respect to income and assets, the creditor is permitted to use any reasonable verification methods and criteria.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Classifying and counting income, assets, debt obligations, alimony, and child support.</I> “Current and reasonably expected income or assets other than the value of the dwelling (including any real property attached to the dwelling) that secures the loan” is determined in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(2)(i) and its commentary. “Current debt obligations, alimony, and child support” has the same meaning as under § 1026.43(c)(2)(vi) and its commentary. Section 1026.43(c)(2)(i) and (vi) and the associated commentary apply to a creditor's determination with respect to what inflows and property it may classify and count as income or assets and what obligations it must classify and count as debt obligations, alimony, and child support, pursuant to its compliance with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Safe harbor for compliance with specified external standards.</I>
</P>
<P>i. Meeting the standards in the following manuals for verifying current or reasonably expected income or assets using third-party records provides a creditor with reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's income or assets. Meeting the standards in the following manuals for verifying current debt obligations, alimony, and child support using third-party records provides a creditor with reasonably reliable evidence of the consumer's debt obligations, alimony, and child support obligations. Accordingly, a creditor complies with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) if it complies with verification standards in one or more of the following manuals:
</P>
<P>A. Chapters B3-3 through B3-6 of the Fannie Mae Single Family Selling Guide, published June 3, 2020;
</P>
<P>B. Sections 5102 through 5500 of the Freddie Mac Single-Family Seller/Servicer Guide, published June 10, 2020;
</P>
<P>C. Sections II.A.1 and II.A.4-5 of the Federal Housing Administration's Single Family Housing Policy Handbook, issued October 24, 2019;
</P>
<P>D. Chapter 4 of the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs' Lenders Handbook, revised February 22, 2019;
</P>
<P>E. Chapter 4 of the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Field Office Handbook for the Direct Single Family Housing Program, revised March 15, 2019; and
</P>
<P>F. Chapters 9 through 11 of the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Handbook for the Single Family Guaranteed Loan Program, revised March 19, 2020.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Applicable provisions in manuals.</I> A creditor complies with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) if it complies with requirements in the manuals listed in comment 43(e)(2)(v)(B)-3 for creditors to verify income, assets, debt obligations, alimony and child support using specified reasonably reliable third-party documents or to include or exclude particular inflows, property, and obligations as income, assets, debt obligations, alimony, and child support.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Inapplicable provisions in manuals.</I> For purposes of compliance with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B), a creditor need not comply with requirements in the manuals listed in comment 43(e)(2)(v)(B)-3 other than those that require creditors to verify income, assets, debt obligations, alimony and child support using specified documents or to classify and count particular inflows, property, and obligations as income, assets, debt obligations, alimony, and child support.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Revised versions of manuals.</I> A creditor also complies with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) where it complies with revised versions of the manuals listed in comment 43(e)(2)(v)(B)-3.i, provided that the two versions are substantially similar.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Use of standards from more than one manual.</I> A creditor complies with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) if it complies with the verification standards in one or more of the manuals specified in comment 43(e)(2)(v)(B)-3.i. Accordingly, a creditor may, but need not, comply with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v)(B) by complying with the verification standards from more than one manual (in other words, by “mixing and matching” verification standards).




</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(2)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Determining the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set.</I> For guidance on determining the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set, see comments 43(b)(4)-1 through -3.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Determination of applicable threshold.</I> A creditor must determine the applicable threshold by determining which category the loan falls into based on the face amount of the note (the “loan amount” as defined in § 1026.43(b)(5)). For example, for a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount of $75,000, the loan would fall into the tier for loans greater than or equal to $66,156 (indexed for inflation) but less than $110,260 (indexed for inflation), for which the applicable threshold is 3.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Annual adjustment for inflation.</I> The dollar amounts in § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi) will be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI-U that was in effect on the preceding June 1. The Bureau will publish adjustments after the June figures become available each year.
</P>
<P>i. For 2022, reflecting a 4.2 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, to satisfy § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the annual percentage rate may not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the following amounts:
</P>
<P>A. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $114,847, 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>B. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $68,908 but less than $114,847, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>C. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $68,908, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>D. For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $114,847, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>E. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $68,908, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>F. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $68,908, 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>ii. For 2023, reflecting an 8.3 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, to satisfy § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the annual percentage rate may not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the following amounts:
</P>
<P>A. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $124,331, 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>B. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $74,599 but less than $124,331, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>C. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $74,599, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>D. For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $124,331, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>E. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $74,599, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>F. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $74,599, 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>iii. For 2024, reflecting a 4.9 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, to satisfy § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the annual percentage rate may not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the following amounts:
</P>
<P>A. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $130,461, 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>B. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $78,277 but less than $130,461, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>C. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $78,277, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>D. For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $130,461, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>E. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $78,277, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>F. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $78,277, 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>iv. For 2025, reflecting a 3.4 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, to satisfy § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the annual percentage rate may not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the following amounts:
</P>
<P>A. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $134,841, 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>B. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $80,905 but less than $134,841, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>C. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $80,905, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>D. For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $134,841, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>E. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $80,905, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>F. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $80,905, 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>v. For 2026, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, to satisfy § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the annual percentage rate may not exceed the average prime offer rate for a comparable transaction as of the date the interest rate is set by the following amounts:
</P>
<P>A. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $137,958, 2.25 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>B. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $82,775 but less than $137,958, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>C. For a first-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $82,775, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>D. For a first-lien covered transaction secured by a manufactured home with a loan amount less than $137,958, 6.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>E. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount greater than or equal to $82,775, 3.5 or more percentage points;
</P>
<P>F. For a subordinate-lien covered transaction with a loan amount less than $82,775, 6.5 or more percentage points.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Determining the annual percentage rate for certain loans for which the interest rate may or will change.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>In general.</I> The commentary to § 1026.17(c)(1) and other provisions in subpart C address how to determine the annual percentage rate disclosures for closed-end credit transactions. Provisions in § 1026.32(a)(3) address how to determine the annual percentage rate to determine coverage under § 1026.32(a)(1)(i). Section 1026.43(e)(2)(vi) requires, for the purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), a different determination of the annual percentage rate for a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2) for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. An identical special rule for determining the annual percentage rate for such a loan also applies for purposes of § 1026.43(b)(4).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Loans for which the interest rate may or will change.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(2)(vi) includes a special rule for determining the annual percentage rate for a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due. This rule applies to adjustable-rate mortgages that have a fixed-rate period of five years or less and to step-rate mortgages for which the interest rate changes within that five-year period.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Maximum interest rate during the first five years.</I> For a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, a creditor must treat the maximum interest rate that could apply at any time during that five-year period as the interest rate for the full term of the loan to determine the annual percentage rate for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), regardless of whether the maximum interest rate is reached at the first or subsequent adjustment during the five-year period. For additional instruction on how to determine the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, see comments 43(e)(2)(iv)-3 and -4.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Treatment of the maximum interest rate in determining the annual percentage rate.</I> For a loan for which the interest rate may or will change within the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due, the creditor must determine the annual percentage rate for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi) by treating the maximum interest rate that may apply within the first five years as the interest rate for the full term of the loan. For example, assume an adjustable-rate mortgage with a loan term of 30 years and an initial discounted rate of 5.0 percent that is fixed for the first three years. Assume that the maximum interest rate during the first five years after the date on which the first regular periodic payment will be due is 7.0 percent. Pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi), the creditor must determine the annual percentage rate based on an interest rate of 7.0 percent applied for the full 30-year loan term.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Meaning of a manufactured home.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi)(D), manufactured home means any residential structure as defined under regulations of the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) establishing manufactured home construction and safety standards (24 CFR 3280.2). Modular or other factory-built homes that do not meet the HUD code standards are not manufactured homes for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi)(D).
</P>
<P>6. <I>Scope of threshold for transactions secured by a manufactured home.</I> The threshold in § 1026.43(e)(2)(vi)(D) applies to first-lien covered transactions less than $110,260 (indexed for inflation) that are secured by a manufactured home and land, or by a manufactured home only.




</P>
<P><I>43(e)(3) Limits on points and fees for qualified mortgages.</I>












</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Total loan amount.</I> The term “total loan amount” is defined in § 1026.32(b)(4)(i). For an explanation of how to calculate the “total loan amount” under § 1026.43(e)(3)(i), see comment 32(b)(4)(i)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Calculation of allowable points and fees.</I> A creditor must determine which category the loan falls into based on the face amount of the note (the “loan amount” as defined in § 1026.43(b)(5)). For categories with a percentage limit, the creditor must apply the allowable points and fees percentage to the “total loan amount,” which may be different than the loan amount. A creditor must calculate the allowable amount of points and fees for a qualified mortgage as follows:
</P>
<P>i. First, the creditor must determine the “tier” into which the loan falls based on the loan amount. The loan amount is the principal amount the consumer will borrow, as reflected in the promissory note or loan contract. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(b)(5). For example, if the loan amount is $55,000, the loan falls into the tier for loans greater than or equal to $20,000 but less than $60,000, to which a 5 percent cap on points and fees applies. For tiers with a prescribed dollar limit on points and fees (<I>e.g.,</I> for loans from $60,000 up to $100,000, the limit is $3,000), the creditor does not need to do any further calculations.
</P>
<P>ii. Second, for tiers with a percentage limit, the creditor must determine the total loan amount based on the calculation for the total loan amount under comment 32(b)(4)(i)-1. If the loan amount is $55,000, for example, the total loan amount may be a different amount, such as $52,000.
</P>
<P>iii. Third, the creditor must apply the percentage cap on points and fees to the total loan amount. For example, for a loan of $55,000 where the total loan amount is $52,000, the allowable points and fees are 5 percent of $52,000, or $2,600.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Sample determination of allowable points and fees.</I>
</P>
<P>i. A covered transaction with a loan amount of $105,000 falls into the first points and fees tier, to which a points and fees cap of 3 percent of the total loan amount applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(3)(i)(A). Therefore, if the calculation under comment 32(b)(4)(i)-1 results in a total loan amount of $102,000, then the allowable total points and fees for this loan are 3 percent of $102,000, or $3,060.
</P>
<P>ii. A covered transaction with a loan amount of $75,000 falls into the second points and fees tier, to which a points and fees cap of $3,000 applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(3)(i)(B). The allowable total points and fees for this loan are $3,000, regardless of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>iii. A covered transaction with a loan amount of $50,000 falls into the third points and fees tier, to which a points and fees cap of 5 percent of the total loan amount applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(3)(i)(C). Therefore, if the calculation under comment 32(b)(4)(i)-1 results in a total loan amount of $48,000, then the allowable total points and fees for this loan are 5 percent of $48,000, or $2,400.
</P>
<P>iv. A covered transaction with a loan amount of $15,000 falls into the fourth points and fees tier, to which a points and fees cap of $1,000 applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(3)(i)(D). The allowable total points and fees for this loan are $1,000, regardless of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>v. A covered transaction with a loan amount of $10,000 falls into the fifth points and fees tier, to which a points and fees cap of 8 percent of the total loan amount applies. <I>See</I> § 1026.43(e)(3)(i)(E). Therefore, if the calculation under comment 32(b)(4)(i)-1 results in a total loan amount of $7,000, then the allowable total points and fees for this loan are 8 percent of $7,000, or $560.
























</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(3)(ii)</I>.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Annual adjustment for inflation.</I> The dollar amounts, including the loan amounts, in § 1026.43(e)(3)(i) will be adjusted annually on January 1 by the annual percentage change in the CPI-U that was in effect on the preceding June 1. The Bureau will publish adjustments after the June figures become available each year.
</P>
<P>i. For 2015, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transactions total points and fees do not exceed;
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $101,953: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $61,172 but less than $101,953: $3,059;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $20,391 but less than $61,172: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $12,744 but less than $20,391; $1,020;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $12,744: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>ii. For 2016, reflecting a 0.2 percent decrease in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transactions total points and fees do not exceed;
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $101,749: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $61,050 but less than $101,749: $3,052;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $20,350 but less than $61,050: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $12,719 but less than $20,350; $1,017;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $12,719: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>iii. For 2017, reflecting a 1.1 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transactions total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $102,894: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $61,737 but less than $102,894: $3,087;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $20,579 but less than $61,737: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $12,862 but less than $20,579: $1,029;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $12,862: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>iv. For 2018, reflecting a 2.2 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $105,158: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $63,095 but less than $105,158: $3,155;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $21,032 but less than $63,095: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $13,145 but less than $21,032: $1,052;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $13,145: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>v. For 2019, reflecting a 2.5 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $107,747: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $64,648 but less than $107,747: $3,232;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $21,549 but less than $64,648: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $13,468 but less than $21,549: $1,077;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $13,468: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>vi. For 2020, reflecting a 2 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $109,898: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $65,939 but less than $109,898: $3,297;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $21,980 but less than $65,939: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $13,737 but less than $21,980: $1,099;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $13,737: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>vii. For 2021, reflecting a 0.3 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $110,260: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $66,156 but less than $110,260: $3,308;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $22,052 but less than $66,156: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $13,783 but less than $22,052: $1,103;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $13,783: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>viii. For 2022, reflecting a 4.2 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $114,847: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $68,908 but less than $114,847: $3,445;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $22,969 but less than $68,908: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $14,356 but less than $22,969: $1,148;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $14,356: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>ix. For 2023, reflecting an 8.3 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $124,331: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $74,599 but less than $124,331: $3,730;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $24,866 but less than $74,599: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $15,541 but less than $24,866: $1,243;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $15,541: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>x. For 2024, reflecting a 4.9 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $130,461: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $78,277 but less than $130,461: $3,914;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $26,092 but less than $78,277: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $16,308 but less than $26,092: $1,305;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $16,308: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>xi. For 2025, reflecting a 3.4 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $134,841: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $80,905 but less than $134,841: $4,045;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $26,968 but less than $80,905: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $16,855 but less than $26,968: $1,305;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $16,855: 8 percent of the total loan amount.
</P>
<P>xii. For 2026, reflecting a 2.3 percent increase in the CPI-U that was reported on the preceding June 1, a covered transaction is not a qualified mortgage unless the transaction's total points and fees do not exceed:
</P>
<P>A. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $137,958: 3 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>B. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $82,775 but less than $137,958: $4,139;
</P>
<P>C. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $27,592 but less than $82,775: 5 percent of the total loan amount;
</P>
<P>D. For a loan amount greater than or equal to $17,245 but less than $27,592: $1,380;
</P>
<P>E. For a loan amount less than $17,245: 8 percent of the total loan amount.




</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(e)(3)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Interest rate.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv)(B), interest is calculated using the contract interest rate applicable during the period from consummation until the payment described in § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv) is made to the consumer. In an adjustable-rate or step-rate transaction in which more than one interest rate applies during the period from consummation until payment is made to the consumer, the minimum payment amount is determined by calculating interest on the dollar amount described in § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv)(A) at each such interest rate for the part of the overall period during which that rate applies. However, § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv) provides that, for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(3)(iii), the creditor or assignee can pay to the consumer an amount that exceeds the sum of the amounts described in § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv)(A) and (B). Therefore, a creditor or assignee may, for example, elect to calculate interest using the maximum interest rate that may apply during the period from consummation until payment is made to the consumer. See comment 43(e)(3)(iii)-1 for guidance on making payments to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relationship to RESPA tolerance cure.</I> Under Regulation X (12 CFR 1024.7(i)), if any charges at settlement exceed the charges listed on the good faith estimate of settlement costs by more than the amounts permitted under 12 CFR 1024.7(e), the loan originator may cure the tolerance violation by reimbursing the amount by which the tolerance was exceeded at settlement or within 30 calendar days after settlement. Similarly, under § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), if amounts paid by the consumer exceed the amounts specified under § 1026.19(e)(3)(i) or (ii), the creditor complies with § 1026.19(e)(1)(i) if the creditor refunds the excess to the consumer no later than 60 days after consummation. The amount paid to the consumer pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv) may be offset by the amount paid to the consumer pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.7(i) or § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), to the extent that the amount paid to the consumer pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.7(i) or § 1026.19(f)(2)(v) is being applied to fees or charges included in points and fees pursuant to § 1026.32(b)(1). However, a creditor or assignee has not satisfied § 1026.43(e)(3)(iii) unless the total amount described in § 1026.43(e)(3)(iv), including any offset due to a payment made pursuant to 12 CFR 1024.7(i) or § 1026.19(f)(2)(v), is paid to the consumer within 210 days after consummation and prior to the occurrence of any of the events in § 1026.43(e)(3)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P><I>43(e)(4) Qualified mortgage defined—other agencies.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The Department of Housing and Urban Development, Department of Veterans Affairs, and the Department of Agriculture have promulgated definitions for qualified mortgages under mortgage programs they insure, guarantee, or provide under applicable law. Cross-references to those definitions are listed in § 1026.43(e)(4) to acknowledge the covered transactions covered by those definitions are qualified mortgages for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Mortgages for which the creditor received the consumer's application prior to October 1, 2022.</I> Covered transactions that met the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(2)(i) through (iii), were eligible for purchase or guarantee by the Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac) (or any limited-life regulatory entity succeeding the charter of either) operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617), and for which the creditor received the consumer's application prior to the mandatory compliance date of October 1, 2022, continue to be qualified mortgages for the purposes of this section, including those covered transactions that were consummated on or after October 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mortgages for which the creditor received the consumer's application on or after March 1, 2021 but prior to October 1, 2022.</I> For a discussion of the optional early compliance period for the 2021 General QM Amendments, please see comment 43-2.
</P>
<P>4. [Reserved].
</P>
<P>5. [Reserved].


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(e)(5)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Satisfaction of qualified mortgage requirements.</I> For a covered transaction to be a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5), the mortgage must satisfy the requirements for a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2), other than the requirements in § 1026.43(e)(2)(v) and (vi). For example, a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) may not have a loan term in excess of 30 years because longer terms are prohibited for qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(2)(ii). Similarly, a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) may not result in a balloon payment because § 1026.43(e)(2)(i)(C) provides that qualified mortgages may not have balloon payments except as provided under § 1026.43(f). However, a covered transaction need not comply with § 1026.43(e)(2)(v) and (vi).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt-to-income ratio or residual income.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(5) does not prescribe a specific monthly debt-to-income ratio with which creditors must comply. Instead, creditors must consider a consumer's debt-to-income ratio or residual income calculated generally in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(7) and verify the information used to calculate the debt-to-income ratio or residual income in accordance with § 1026.43(c)(3) and (4). However, § 1026.43(c)(7) refers creditors to § 1026.43(c)(5) for instructions on calculating the payment on the covered transaction. Section 1026.43(c)(5) requires creditors to calculate the payment differently than § 1026.43(e)(2)(iv). For purposes of the qualified mortgage definition in § 1026.43(e)(5), creditors must base their calculation of the consumer's debt-to-income ratio or residual income on the payment on the covered transaction calculated according to § 1026.43(e)(2)(iv) instead of according to § 1026.43(c)(5).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be transferred or sold to a purchaser pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the transaction is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” A mortgage that will be acquired by a purchaser pursuant to a forward commitment does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(5), whether the forward commitment provides for the purchase and sale of the specific transaction or for the purchase and sale of transactions with certain prescribed criteria that the transaction meets. However, a forward commitment to another person that also meets the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(5)(i)(D) is permitted. For example, assume a creditor that is eligible to make qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5) makes a mortgage. If that mortgage meets the purchase criteria of an investor with which the creditor has an agreement to sell loans after consummation, then the loan does not meet the definition of a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5). However, if the investor meets the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(5)(i)(D), the mortgage will be a qualified mortgage if all other applicable criteria also are satisfied.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Creditor qualifications.</I> To be eligible to make qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5), a creditor must satisfy the requirements stated in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) and (C). Section 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B) requires that, during the preceding calendar year, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, during either of the two preceding calendar years, the creditor and its affiliates together extended no more than 2,000 covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person. Section 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(C) requires that, as of the preceding December 31st, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, as of either of the two preceding December 31sts, the creditor and its affiliates that regularly extended, during the applicable period, covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, together, had total assets of less than $2 billion, adjusted annually by the Bureau for inflation.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Requirement to hold in portfolio.</I> Creditors generally must hold a loan in portfolio to maintain the transaction's status as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5), subject to four exceptions. Unless one of these exceptions applies, a loan is no longer a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) once legal title to the debt obligation is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person. Accordingly, unless one of the exceptions applies, the transferee could not benefit from the presumption of compliance for qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(1) unless the loan also met the requirements of another qualified mortgage definition.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Application to subsequent transferees.</I> The exceptions contained in § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii) apply not only to an initial sale, assignment, or other transfer by the originating creditor but to subsequent sales, assignments, and other transfers as well. For example, assume Creditor A originates a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5). Six months after consummation, Creditor A sells the qualified mortgage to Creditor B pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(B) and the loan retains its qualified mortgage status because Creditor B complies with the limits on asset size and number of transactions. If Creditor B sells the qualified mortgage, it will lose its qualified mortgage status under § 1026.43(e)(5) unless the sale qualifies for one of the § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii) exceptions for sales three or more years after consummation, to another qualifying institution, as required by supervisory action, or pursuant to a merger or acquisition.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Transfer three years after consummation.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(A), if a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred three years or more after consummation, the loan retains its status as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) following the transfer. The transferee need not be eligible to originate qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5). The loan will continue to be a qualified mortgage throughout its life, and the transferee, and any subsequent transferees, may invoke the presumption of compliance for qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(1).
</P>
<P>8. <I>Transfer to another qualifying creditor.</I> Under § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(B), a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) may be sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred at any time to another creditor that meets the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(5)(i)(D). That section requires that a creditor together with all its affiliates, extended no more than 2,000 first-lien covered transactions that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred by the creditor or its affiliates to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person; and have, together with its affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions secured by first liens, total assets less than $2 billion (as adjusted for inflation). These tests are assessed based on transactions and assets from the calendar year preceding the current calendar year or from either of the two calendar years preceding the current calendar year if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year. A qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) transferred to a creditor that meets these criteria would retain its qualified mortgage status even if it is transferred less than three years after consummation.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Supervisory sales.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(C) facilitates sales that are deemed necessary by supervisory agencies to revive troubled creditors and resolve failed creditors. A qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) retains its qualified mortgage status if it is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person pursuant to: A capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o; the actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver or bankruptcy trustee; an order of a State or Federal government agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law; or an agreement between the creditor and such an agency. A qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) that is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred under these circumstances retains its qualified mortgage status regardless of how long after consummation it is sold and regardless of the size or other characteristics of the transferee. Section 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(C) does not apply to transfers done to comply with a generally applicable regulation with future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy in the absence of a specific order by or a specific agreement with a governmental agency described in § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(C) directing the sale of one or more qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5) held by the creditor or one of the other circumstances listed in § 1026.43(e)(5)(ii)(C). For example, a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) that is sold pursuant to a capital restoration plan under 12 U.S.C. 1831o would retain its status as a qualified mortgage following the sale. However, if the creditor simply chose to sell the same qualified mortgage as one way to comply with general regulatory capital requirements in the absence of supervisory action or agreement it would lose its status as a qualified mortgage following the sale unless it qualifies under another definition of qualified mortgage.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> A qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(5) retains its qualified mortgage status if a creditor merges with, is acquired by, or acquires another person regardless of whether the creditor or its successor is eligible to originate new qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5) after the merger or acquisition. However, the creditor or its successor can originate new qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5) only if it complies with all of the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(5) after the merger or acquisition. For example, assume a creditor that originates 250 covered transactions each year and originates qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(e)(5) is acquired by a larger creditor that originates 10,000 covered transactions each year. Following the acquisition, the small creditor would no longer be able to originate § 1026.43(e)(5) qualified mortgages because, together with its affiliates, it would originate more than 500 covered transactions each year. However, the § 1026.43(e)(5) qualified mortgages originated by the small creditor before the acquisition would retain their qualified mortgage status.
</P>
<P><I>43(e)(7) Seasoned loans.</I>


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fixed-rate mortgage.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(7)(i)(A) provides that, for a covered transaction to become a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(7), the covered transaction must be a fixed-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii). Under § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii), the term “fixed-rate mortgage” means a transaction secured by real property or a dwelling that is not an adjustable-rate mortgage or a step-rate mortgage. Thus, a covered transaction that is an adjustable-rate mortgage or step-rate mortgage is not eligible to become a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(7).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fully amortizing payments.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(7)(i)(A) provides that for a covered transaction to become a qualified mortgage as a seasoned loan under § 1026.43(e)(7), a mortgage must meet certain product requirements and be a fixed-rate mortgage with fully amortizing payments. Only loans for which the scheduled periodic payments do not require a balloon payment, as defined in § 1026.18(s), to fully amortize the loan within the loan term can become seasoned loans for the purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7). However, § 1026.43(e)(7)(i)(A) does not prohibit a qualifying change as defined in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(B) that is entered into during or after a temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency, even if such a qualifying change involves a balloon payment or lengthened loan term.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement to hold in portfolio.</I> For a covered transaction to become a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(7), a creditor generally must hold the transaction in portfolio until the end of the seasoning period, subject to the exceptions set forth in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) through (<I>3</I>). Unless one of these exceptions applies, a covered transaction cannot become a qualified mortgage as a seasoned loan under § 1026.43(e)(7) if legal title to the debt obligation is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person before the end of the seasoning period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to subsequent transferees.</I> The exception contained in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)<I>(3</I>) may be used only one time for a covered transaction. The exceptions contained in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) apply not only to an initial sale, assignment, or other transfer by the originating creditor but to subsequent sales, assignments, and other transfers as well. For example, assume Creditor A originates a covered transaction that is not a qualified mortgage at origination. Six months after consummation, the covered transaction is transferred to Creditor B pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>3</I>). The transfer does not fail to comply with the requirements in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii) because the loan is not securitized as part of the transfer or at any other time before the end of the seasoning period. If Creditor B sells the covered transaction before the end of the seasoning period, the covered transaction is not eligible to season into a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(7) unless the sale falls within an exception set forth in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) or (<I>2</I>) (<I>i.e.,</I> the transfer is required by supervisory action or pursuant to a merger or acquisition).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Supervisory sales.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) facilitates sales that are deemed necessary by supervisory agencies to revive troubled creditors and resolve failed creditors. A covered transaction does not violate the requirements in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii) if it is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person before the end of the seasoning period pursuant to: A capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o; the actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver or bankruptcy trustee; an order of a State or Federal government agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law; or an agreement between the creditor and such an agency. Section 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not apply to transfers done to comply with a generally applicable regulation with future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy in the absence of a specific order by or a specific agreement with a governmental agency described in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>) directing the sale of one or more covered transactions held by the creditor or one of the other circumstances listed in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>). For example, a covered transaction does not violate the requirements in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii) if the covered transaction is sold pursuant to a capital restoration plan under 12 U.S.C. 1831o before the end of seasoning period. However, if the creditor simply chose to sell the same covered transaction as one way to comply with general regulatory capital requirements in the absence of supervisory action or agreement, then the covered transaction cannot become a qualified mortgage as a seasoned loan under § 1026.43(e)(7), unless the sale met the requirements of § 1026.43(e)(7)(iii)(B)(<I>3</I>) or the covered transaction qualifies under another definition of qualified mortgage.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iv)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Due date.</I> In determining whether a scheduled periodic payment is delinquent for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7), the due date is the date the payment is due under the terms of the legal obligation, without regard to whether the consumer is afforded a period after the due date to pay before the servicer assesses a late fee.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iv)(A)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>60 days delinquent.</I> The following example illustrates the meaning of 60 days delinquent for purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7). Assume a loan is consummated on October 15, 2022, that the consumer's periodic payment is due on the 1st of each month, and that the consumer timely made the first periodic payment due on December 1, 2022. For purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7), the consumer is 30 days delinquent if the consumer fails to make a payment (sufficient to cover the scheduled January 1, 2023 periodic payment of principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable)) before February 1, 2023. For purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7), the consumer is 60 days delinquent if the consumer then fails to make two payments (sufficient to cover the scheduled January 1, 2023 and February 1, 2023 periodic payments of principal, interest, and escrow (if applicable)) before March 1, 2023.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iv)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Qualifying change.</I> An agreement that meets the conditions specified in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(B) is a qualifying change even if it is not in writing.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iv)(C)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Suspension of seasoning period during certain temporary payment accommodations.</I> Section 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>) provides that the seasoning period does not include any period during which the consumer is in a temporary payment accommodation extended in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency, provided that during or at the end of the temporary payment accommodation there is a qualifying change as defined in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(B) or the consumer cures the loan's delinquency under its original terms. Section 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(C)(<I>2</I>) further explains that, under these circumstances, the seasoning period consists of the period from the date on which the first periodic payment was due after origination of the covered transaction to the beginning of the temporary payment accommodation and an additional period immediately after the temporary payment accommodation ends, which together must equal at least 36 months. For example, assume the consumer enters into a covered transaction for which the first periodic payment is due on March 1, 2022, and the consumer enters a three-month temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency, effective March 1, 2023. Assume further that the consumer misses the March 1, April 1, and May 1, 2023 periodic payments during the temporary payment accommodation period, but enters into a qualifying change as defined in § 1026.43(e)(7)(iv)(B) on June 1, 2023, and is not delinquent on June 1, 2023. Under these circumstances, the seasoning period consists of the period from March 1, 2022 to February 28, 2023 and the period from June 1, 2023 to May 31, 2025, assuming the consumer is not 30 days or more delinquent on May 31, 2025.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 43(e)(7)(iv)(D)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Temporary payment accommodation in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency.</I> For purposes of § 1026.43(e)(7), examples of temporary payment accommodations in connection with a disaster or pandemic-related national emergency include, but are not limited to a trial loan modification plan, a temporary payment forbearance program, or a temporary repayment plan.
</P>
<P><I>43(f) Balloon-Payment qualified mortgages made by certain creditors.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(f)(1) Exemption.</I>
</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(i)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Satisfaction of qualified mortgage requirements.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(1)(i), for a mortgage that provides for a balloon payment to be a qualified mortgage, the mortgage must satisfy the requirements for a qualified mortgage in paragraphs (e)(2)(i)(A), (e)(2)(ii), and (e)(2)(iii). Therefore, a covered transaction with balloon payment terms must provide for regular periodic payments that do not result in an increase of the principal balance, pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(2)(i)(A); must have a loan term that does not exceed 30 years, pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(2)(ii); and must have total points and fees that do not exceed specified thresholds pursuant to § 1026.43(e)(2)(iii).


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(ii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Example.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(1)(ii), if a qualified mortgage provides for a balloon payment, the creditor must determine that the consumer is able to make all scheduled payments under the legal obligation other than the balloon payment. For example, assume a loan in an amount of $200,000 that has a five-year loan term, but is amortized over 30 years. The loan agreement provides for a fixed interest rate of 6 percent. The loan consummates on March 3, 2014, and the monthly payment of principal and interest scheduled for the first five years is $1,199, with the first monthly payment due on April 1, 2014. The balloon payment of $187,308 is required on the due date of the 60th monthly payment, which is April 1, 2019. The loan can be a qualified mortgage if the creditor underwrites the loan using the scheduled principal and interest payment of $1,199, plus the consumer's monthly payment for all mortgage-related obligations, and satisfies the other criteria set forth in § 1026.43(f).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Creditor's determination.</I> A creditor must determine that the consumer is able to make all scheduled payments other than the balloon payment to satisfy § 1026.43(f)(1)(ii), in accordance with the legal obligation, together with the consumer's monthly payments for all mortgage-related obligations and excluding the balloon payment, to meet the repayment ability requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(ii). A creditor satisfies § 1026.43(f)(1)(ii) if it uses the maximum payment in the payment schedule, excluding any balloon payment, to determine if the consumer has the ability to make the scheduled payments.


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(iii)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Debt-to-income or residual income.</I> A creditor must consider and verify the consumer's monthly debt-to-income ratio or residual income to meet the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(iii)(C). To calculate the consumer's monthly debt-to-income or residual income for purposes of § 1026.43(f)(1)(iii)(C), the creditor may rely on the definitions and calculation rules in § 1026.43(c)(7) and its accompanying commentary, except for the calculation rules for a consumer's total monthly debt obligations (which is a component of debt-to-income and residual income under § 1026.43(c)(7)). For purposes of calculating the consumer's total monthly debt obligations under § 1026.43(f)(1)(iii), the creditor must calculate the monthly payment on the covered transaction using the payment calculation rules in § 1026.43(f)(1)(iv)(A), together with all mortgage-related obligations and excluding the balloon payment.


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(iv)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Scheduled payments.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(1)(iv)(A), the legal obligation must provide that scheduled payments must be substantially equal and determined using an amortization period that does not exceed 30 years. Balloon payments often result when the periodic payment would fully repay the loan amount only if made over some period that is longer than the loan term. For example, a loan term of 10 years with periodic payments based on an amortization period of 20 years would result in a balloon payment being due at the end of the loan term. Whatever the loan term, the amortization period used to determine the scheduled periodic payments that the consumer must pay under the terms of the legal obligation may not exceed 30 years.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially equal.</I> The calculation of payments scheduled by the legal obligation under § 1026.43(f)(1)(iv)(A) are required to result in substantially equal amounts. This means that the scheduled payments need to be similar, but need not be equal. For further guidance on substantially equal payments, see comment 43(c)(5)(i)-4.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Interest-only payments.</I> A mortgage that only requires the payment of accrued interest each month does not meet the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(iv)(A).


</P>
<HD2>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(v)
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Forward commitments.</I> A creditor may make a mortgage loan that will be transferred or sold to a purchaser pursuant to an agreement that has been entered into at or before the time the transaction is consummated. Such an agreement is sometimes known as a “forward commitment.” A balloon-payment mortgage that will be acquired by a purchaser pursuant to a forward commitment does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(v), whether the forward commitment provides for the purchase and sale of the specific transaction or for the purchase and sale of transactions with certain prescribed criteria that the transaction meets. However, a purchase and sale of a balloon-payment qualified mortgage to another person that separately meets the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi) is permitted. For example: Assume a creditor that meets the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi) makes a balloon-payment mortgage that meets the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(i) through (iv); if the balloon-payment mortgage meets the purchase criteria of an investor with which the creditor has an agreement to sell such loans after consummation, then the balloon-payment mortgage does not meet the definition of a qualified mortgage in accordance with § 1026.43(f)(1)(v). However, if the investor meets the requirement of § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi), the balloon-payment qualified mortgage retains its qualified mortgage status.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(f)(1)(vi).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Creditor qualifications.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi), to make a qualified mortgage that provides for a balloon payment, the creditor must satisfy three criteria that are also required under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A), (B) and (C), which require:
</P>
<P>i. During the preceding calendar year or during either of the two preceding calendar years if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, the creditor extended a first-lien covered transaction, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), on a property that is located in an area that is designated either “rural” or “underserved,” as defined in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv), to satisfy the requirement of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A) (the rural-or-underserved test). Pursuant to § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv), an area is considered to be rural if it is: A county that is neither in a metropolitan statistical area, nor a micropolitan statistical area adjacent to a metropolitan statistical area, as those terms are defined by the U.S. Office of Management and Budget; or a census block that is not in an urban area, as defined by the U.S. Census Bureau using the latest decennial census of the United States. An area is considered to be underserved during a calendar year if, according to HMDA data for the preceding calendar year, it is a county in which no more than two creditors extended covered transactions secured by first liens on properties in the county five or more times.
</P>
<P>A. The Bureau determines annually which counties in the United States are rural or underserved as defined by § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) or § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv)(B) and publishes on its public website lists of those counties to assist creditors in determining whether they meet the criterion at § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(A). Creditors may also use an automated tool provided on the Bureau's public website to determine whether specific properties are located in areas that qualify as “rural” or “underserved” according to the definitions in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv) for a particular calendar year. In addition, the U.S. Census Bureau may also provide on its public website an automated address search tool that specifically indicates if a property address is located in an urban area for purposes of the Census Bureau's most recent delineation of urban areas. For any calendar year that begins after the date on which the Census Bureau announced its most recent delineation of urban areas, a property is located in an area that qualifies as “rural” according to the definitions in § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv) if the search results provided for the property by any such automated address search tool available on the Census Bureau's public website do not identify the property as being in an urban area.
</P>
<P>B. For example, if a creditor extended during 2017 a first-lien covered transaction that is secured by a property that is located in an area that meets the definition of rural or underserved under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv), the creditor meets this element of the exception for any transaction consummated during 2018.
</P>
<P>C. Alternatively, if the creditor did not extend in 2017 a transaction that meets the definition of rural or underserved test under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv), the creditor satisfies this criterion for any transaction consummated during 2018 for which it received the application before April 1, 2018, if it extended during 2016 a first-lien covered transaction that is secured by a property that is located in an area that meets the definition of rural or underserved under § 1026.35(b)(2)(iv).
</P>
<P>ii. During the preceding calendar year, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, during either of the two preceding calendar years, the creditor together with its affiliates extended no more than 2,000 covered transactions, as defined by § 1026.43(b)(1), secured by first liens, that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person, to satisfy the requirement of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(B).
</P>
<P>iii. As of the preceding December 31st, or, if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year, as of either of the two preceding December 31sts, the creditor and its affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions secured by first liens, together, had total assets that do not exceed the applicable asset threshold established by the Bureau, to satisfy the requirement of § 1026.35(b)(2)(iii)(C). The Bureau publishes notice of the asset threshold each year by amending comment 35(b)(2)(iii)-1.iii.
</P>
<P><I>43(f)(2) Post-consummation transfer of balloon-payment qualified mortgage.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Requirement to hold in portfolio.</I> Creditors generally must hold a balloon-payment qualified mortgage in portfolio to maintain the transaction's status as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1), subject to four exceptions. Unless one of these exceptions applies, a balloon-payment qualified mortgage is no longer a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) once legal title to the debt obligation is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person. Accordingly, unless one of the exceptions applies, the transferee could not benefit from the presumption of compliance for qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1) unless the loan also met the requirements of another qualified mortgage definition.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application to subsequent transferees.</I> The exceptions contained in § 1026.43(f)(2) apply not only to an initial sale, assignment, or other transfer by the originating creditor but to subsequent sales, assignments, and other transfers as well. For example, assume Creditor A originates a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1). Six months after consummation, Creditor A sells the qualified mortgage to Creditor B pursuant to § 1026.43(f)(2)(ii) and the loan retains its qualified mortgage status because Creditor B complies with the conditions relating to operating in rural or underserved areas, asset size, and number of transactions. If Creditor B sells the qualified mortgage, it will lose its qualified mortgage status under § 1026.43(f)(1) unless the sale qualifies for one of the § 1026.43(f)(2) exceptions for sales three or more years after consummation, to another qualifying institution, as required by supervisory action, or pursuant to a merger or acquisition.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(f)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transfer three years after consummation.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(2)(i), if a balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred three years or more after consummation, the balloon-payment qualified mortgage retains its status as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) following the sale. The transferee need not be eligible to originate qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi). The balloon-payment qualified mortgage will continue to be a qualified mortgage throughout its life, and the transferee, and any subsequent transferees, may invoke the presumption of compliance for qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(f)(2)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transfer to another qualifying creditor.</I> Under § 1026.43(f)(2)(ii), a balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) may be sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred at any time to another creditor that meets the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1)(vi). That section requires that a creditor: (1) Extended a first-lien covered transaction, as defined in § 1026.43(b)(1), on a property located in a rural or underserved area; (2) together with all affiliates, extended no more than 2,000 first-lien covered transactions that were sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred by the creditor or its affiliates to another person, or that were subject at the time of consummation to a commitment to be acquired by another person; and (3) have, together with its affiliates that regularly extended covered transactions secured by first liens, total assets less than $2 billion (as adjusted for inflation). These tests are assessed based on transactions and assets from the calendar year preceding the current calendar year or from either of the two calendar years preceding the current calendar year if the application for the transaction was received before April 1 of the current calendar year. A balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) transferred to a creditor that meets these criteria would retain its qualified mortgage status even if it is transferred less than three years after consummation.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(f)(2)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Supervisory sales.</I> Section 1026.43(f)(2)(iii) facilitates sales that are deemed necessary by supervisory agencies to revive troubled creditors and resolve failed creditors. A balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) retains its qualified mortgage status if it is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred to another person pursuant to: (1) A capital restoration plan or other action under 12 U.S.C. 1831o; (2) the actions or instructions of any person acting as conservator, receiver, or bankruptcy trustee; (3) an order of a State or Federal government agency with jurisdiction to examine the creditor pursuant to State or Federal law; or (4) an agreement between the creditor and such an agency. A balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) that is sold, assigned, or otherwise transferred under these circumstances retains its qualified mortgage status regardless of how long after consummation it is sold and regardless of the size or other characteristics of the transferee. Section 1026.43(f)(2)(iii) does not apply to transfers done to comply with a generally applicable regulation with future effect designed to implement, interpret, or prescribe law or policy in the absence of a specific order by or a specific agreement with a governmental agency described in § 1026.43(f)(2)(iii) directing the sale of one or more qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1) held by the creditor or one of the other circumstances listed in § 1026.43(f)(2)(iii). For example, a balloon-payment qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) that is sold pursuant to a capital restoration plan under 12 U.S.C. 1831o would retain its status as a qualified mortgage following the sale. However, if the creditor simply chose to sell the same qualified mortgage as one way to comply with general regulatory capital requirements in the absence of supervisory action or agreement the transaction would lose its status as a qualified mortgage following the sale unless it qualifies under another definition of qualified mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(f)(2)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Mergers and acquisitions.</I> A qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(f)(1) retains its qualified mortgage status if a creditor merges with, is acquired by another person, or acquires another person regardless of whether the creditor or its successor is eligible to originate new balloon-payment qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1) after the merger or acquisition. However, the creditor or its successor can originate new balloon-payment qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1) only if it complies with all of the requirements of § 1026.43(f)(1) after the merger or acquisition. For example, assume a small creditor that originates 250 first-lien covered transactions each year and originates balloon-payment qualified mortgages under § 1026.43(f)(1) is acquired by a larger creditor that originates 10,000 first-lien covered transactions each year. Following the acquisition, the small creditor would no longer be able to originate balloon-payment qualified mortgages because, together with its affiliates, it would originate more than 500 first-lien covered transactions each year. However, the balloon-payment qualified mortgages originated by the small creditor before the acquisition would retain their qualified mortgage status.
</P>
<P><I>43(g) Prepayment penalties.</I>
</P>
<P><I>43(g)(2) Limits on prepayment penalties.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Maximum period and amount.</I> Section 1026.43(g)(2) establishes the maximum period during which a prepayment penalty may be imposed and the maximum amount of the prepayment penalty. A covered transaction may include a prepayment penalty that may be imposed during a shorter period or in a lower amount than provided under § 1026.43(g)(2). For example, a covered transaction may include a prepayment penalty that may be imposed for two years after consummation and that equals 1 percent of the amount prepaid in each of those two years.
</P>
<P><I>43(g)(3) Alternative offer required.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(g)(3)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Same type of interest rate.</I> Under § 1026.43(g)(3)(i), if a creditor offers a consumer a covered transaction with a prepayment penalty, the creditor must offer the consumer an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty and with an annual percentage rate that cannot increase after consummation. Under § 1026.43(g)(3)(i), if the covered transaction with a prepayment penalty is a fixed-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(iii), then the alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty must also be a fixed-rate mortgage. Likewise, if the covered transaction with a prepayment penalty is a step-rate mortgage, as defined in § 1026.18(s)(7)(ii), then the alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty must also be a step-rate mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(g)(3)(iv).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Points and fees.</I> Whether or not an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty satisfies the points and fees conditions for a qualified mortgage is determined based on the information known to the creditor at the time the creditor offers the consumer the transaction. At the time a creditor offers a consumer an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty under § 1026.43(g)(3), the creditor may know the amount of some, but not all, of the points and fees that will be charged for the transaction. For example, a creditor may not know that a consumer intends to buy single-premium credit unemployment insurance, which would be included in the points and fees for the covered transaction. The points and fees condition under § 1026.43(g)(3)(iv) is satisfied if a creditor reasonably believes, based on information known to the creditor at the time the offer is made, that the amount of points and fees to be charged for an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty will be less than or equal to the amount of points and fees allowed for a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e)(2)(iii).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 43(g)(3)(v).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transactions for which the consumer likely qualifies.</I> Under § 1026.43(g)(3)(v), the alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty the creditor must offer under § 1026.43(g)(3) must be a transaction for which the creditor has a good faith belief the consumer likely qualifies. For example, assume the creditor has a good faith belief the consumer can afford monthly payments of up to $800. If the creditor offers the consumer a fixed-rate mortgage with a prepayment penalty for which monthly payments are $700 and an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty for which monthly payments are $900, the requirements of § 1026.43(g)(3)(v) are not met. The creditor's belief that the consumer likely qualifies for the covered transaction without a prepayment penalty should be based on the information known to the creditor at the time the creditor offers the transaction. In making this determination, the creditor may rely on information provided by the consumer, even if the information subsequently is determined to be inaccurate.
</P>
<P><I>43(g)(4) Offer through a mortgage broker.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rate sheet.</I> Under § 1026.43(g)(4), where the creditor offers covered transactions with a prepayment penalty to consumers through a mortgage broker, as defined in § 1026.36(a)(2), the creditor must present the mortgage broker an alternative covered transaction that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.43(g)(3). Creditors may comply with this requirement by providing a rate sheet to the mortgage broker that states the terms of such an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Alternative to creditor's offer.</I> Section 1026.43(g)(4)(ii) requires that the creditor provide, by agreement, for the mortgage broker to present the consumer an alternative covered transaction that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.43(g)(3) offered by either the creditor or by another creditor, if the other creditor offers a covered transaction with a lower interest rate or a lower total dollar amount of discount points and origination points or fees. The agreement may provide for the mortgage broker to present both the creditor's covered transaction and an alternative covered transaction offered by another creditor with a lower interest rate or a lower total dollar amount of origination discount points and points or fees. See comment 36(e)(3)-3 for guidance in determining which step-rate mortgage has a lower interest rate.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Agreement.</I> The creditor's agreement with a mortgage broker for purposes of § 1026.43(g)(4) may be part of another agreement with the mortgage broker, for example, a compensation agreement. Thus, the creditor need not enter into a separate agreement with the mortgage broker with respect to each covered transaction with a prepayment penalty.
</P>
<P><I>43(g)(5) Creditor that is a loan originator.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Loan originator.</I> The definition of “loan originator” in § 1026.36(a)(1) applies for purposes of § 1026.43(g)(5). Thus, a loan originator includes any creditor that satisfies the definition of loan originator but makes use of “table-funding” by a third party. <I>See</I> comment 36(a)-1.i and ii.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lower interest rate.</I> Under § 1026.43(g)(5), a creditor that is a loan originator must present an alternative covered transaction without a prepayment penalty that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.43(g)(3) offered by either the assignee for the covered transaction or another person, if that other person offers a transaction with a lower interest rate or a lower total dollar amount of origination points or fees or discount points. See comment 36(e)(3)-3 for guidance in determining which step-rate mortgage has a lower interest rate.
</P>
<P><I>43(h) Evasion; open-end credit.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Subject to closed-end credit rules.</I> Where a creditor documents a loan as open-end credit but the features and terms, or other circumstances, demonstrate that the loan does not meet the definition of open-end credit in § 1026.2(a)(20), the loan is subject to the rules for closed-end credit, including § 1026.43.
</P>
<HD1>Subpart F—Special Rules for Private Education Loans
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.46—Special Disclosure Requirements for Private Education Loans
</HD2>
<HD3>46(a) Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> This subpart applies to all private education loans as defined in § 1026.46(b)(5). Coverage under this subpart is optional for certain extensions of credit that do not meet the definition of “private education loan” because the credit is not extended, in whole or in part, for “postsecondary educational expenses” defined in § 1026.46(b)(3). If a transaction is not covered and a creditor opts to comply with any section of this subpart, the creditor must comply with all applicable sections of this subpart. If a transaction is not covered and a creditor opts not to comply with this subpart, the creditor must comply with all applicable requirements under §§ 1026.17 and 1026.18. Compliance with this subpart is optional for an extension of credit for expenses incurred after graduation from a law, medical, dental, veterinary, or other graduate school and related to relocation, study for a bar or other examination, participation in an internship or residency program, or similar purposes. However, if any part of such loan is used for postsecondary educational expenses as defined in § 1026.46(b)(3), then compliance with Subpart F is mandatory not optional.
</P>
<HD3>46(b) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>46(b)(1) Covered Educational Institution
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A covered educational institution includes any educational institution that meets the definition of an institution of higher education in § 1026.46(b)(2). An institution is also a covered educational institution if it otherwise meets the definition of an institution of higher education, except for its lack of accreditation. Such an institution may include, for example, a university or community college. It may also include an institution, whether accredited or unaccredited, offering instruction to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized profession, such as flying, culinary arts, or dental assistance. A covered educational institution does not include elementary or secondary schools.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Agent.</I> For purposes of § 1026.46(b)(1), the term agent means an institution-affiliated organization as defined by Section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C 1019) or an officer or employee of an institution-affiliated organization. Under Section 151 of the Higher Education Act, an institution-affiliated organization means any organization that is directly or indirectly related to a covered institution and is engaged in the practice of recommending, promoting, or endorsing education loans for students attending the covered institution or the families of such students. An institution-affiliated organization may include an alumni organization, athletic organization, foundation, or social, academic, or professional organization, of a covered institution, but does not include any creditor with respect to any private education loan made by that creditor.
</P>
<HD3>46(b)(2) Institution of Higher Education
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> An institution of higher education includes any institution that meets the definitions contained in sections 101 and 102 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1001-1002) and implementing Department of Education regulations (34 CFR 600). Such an institution may include, for example, a university or community college. It may also include an institution offering instruction to prepare students for gainful employment in a recognized profession, such as flying, culinary arts, or dental assistance. An institution of higher education does not include elementary or secondary schools.
</P>
<HD3>46(b)(3) Postsecondary Educational Expenses
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The examples listed in § 1026.46(b)(3) are illustrative only. The full list of postsecondary educational expenses is contained in section 472 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1087ll).
</P>
<HD3>46(b)(4) Preferred Lender Arrangement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The term “preferred lender arrangement” is defined in section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1019). The term refers to an arrangement or agreement between a creditor and a covered educational institution (or an institution-affiliated organization as defined by section 151 of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C 1019)) under which a creditor provides private education loans to consumers for students attending the covered educational institution and the covered educational institution recommends, promotes, or endorses the private education loan products of the creditor. It does not include arrangements or agreements with respect to Federal Direct Stafford/Ford loans, or Federal PLUS loans made under the Federal PLUS auction pilot program.
</P>
<HD3>46(b)(5) Private Education Loan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Extended expressly for postsecondary educational expenses.</I> A private education loan is one that is extended expressly for postsecondary educational expenses. The term includes loans extended for postsecondary educational expenses incurred while a student is enrolled in a covered educational institution as well as loans extended to consolidate a consumer's pre-existing private education loans.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple-purpose loans.</I> i. <I>Definition.</I> A private education loan may include an extension of credit not excluded under § 1026.46(b)(5) that the consumer may use for multiple purposes including, but not limited to, postsecondary educational expenses. If the consumer expressly indicates that the proceeds of the loan will be used to pay for postsecondary educational expenses by indicating the loan's purpose on an application, the loan is a private education loan.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Coverage.</I> A creditor generally will not know before an application is received whether the consumer intends to use the loan for postsecondary educational expenses. For this reason, the creditor need not provide the disclosures required by § 1026.47(a) on or with the application or solicitation for a loan that may be used for multiple purposes. <I>See</I> § 1026.47(d)(1)(i). However, if the consumer expressly indicates that the proceeds of the loan will be used to pay for postsecondary educational expenses, the creditor must comply with §§ 1026.47(b) and (c) and § 1026.48. For purposes of the required disclosures, the creditor must calculate the disclosures based on the entire amount of the loan, even if only a part of the proceeds is intended for postsecondary educational expenses. The creditor may rely solely on a check-box, or a purpose line, on a loan application to determine whether or not the applicant intends to use loan proceeds for postsecondary educational expenses.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> The creditor must comply only if the extension of credit also meets the other parts of the definition of private education loan. For example, if the creditor uses a single application form for both open-end and closed-end credit, and the consumer applies for open-end credit to be used for postsecondary educational expenses, the extension of credit is not covered. Similarly, if the consumer indicates the extension of credit will be used for educational expenses that are not postsecondary educational expenses, such as elementary or secondary educational expenses, the extension of credit is not covered. These examples are only illustrative, not exhaustive.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Short-term loans.</I> Some covered educational institutions offer loans to students with terms of 90 days or less to assist the student in paying for educational expenses, usually while the student waits for other funds to be disbursed. Under § 1026.46(b)(5)(iv)(A) such loans are not considered private education loans, even if interest is charged on the credit balance. (Because these loans charge interest, they are not covered by the exception under § 1026.46(b)(5)(iv)(B).) However, these loans are extensions of credit subject to the requirements of §§ 1026.17 and 18. The legal agreement may provide that repayment is required when the consumer or the educational institution receives certain funds. If, under the terms of the legal obligation, repayment of the loan is required when the certain funds are received by the consumer or the educational institution (such as by deposit into the consumer's or educational institution's account), the disclosures should be based on the creditor's estimate of the time the funds will be delivered.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Billing plans.</I> Some covered educational institutions offer billing plans that permit a consumer to make payments in installments. Such plans are not considered private education loans, if an interest rate will not be applied to the credit balance and the term of the extension of credit is one year or less, even if the plan is payable in more than four installments. However, such plans may be extensions of credit subject to the requirements of §§ 1026.17 and 1026.18.
</P>
<HD3>46(c) Form of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosures—relation to other sections.</I> Creditors must make the disclosures required under this subpart in accordance with § 1026.46(c). Section 1026.46(c)(2) requires that the disclosures be grouped together and segregated from everything else. In complying with this requirement, creditors may follow the rules in § 1026.17, except where specifically provided otherwise. For example, although § 1026.17(b) requires creditors to provide only one set of disclosures before consummation of the transaction, §§ 1026.47(b) and (c) require that the creditor provide the disclosures under § 1026.18 both upon approval and after the consumer accepts the loan.
</P>
<HD3>46(c)(3) Electronic Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application and solicitation disclosures—electronic disclosures.</I> If the disclosures required under § 1026.47(a) are provided electronically, they must be provided on or with the application or solicitation reply form. Electronic disclosures are deemed to be on or with an application or solicitation if they meet one of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>i. They automatically appear on the screen when the application or solicitation reply form appears;
</P>
<P>ii. They are located on the same Web “page” as the application or solicitation reply form without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, if the application or reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>iii. They are posted on a Web site and the application or solicitation reply form is linked to the disclosures in a manner that prevents the consumer from by passing the disclosures before submitting the application or reply form.
</P>
<HD3>46(d) Timing of Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of disclosures.</I> Under § 1026.46(d)(4), if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed. For purposes of § 1026.46(d)(4), “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(6)-2. For example, if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on Thursday, June 4, the disclosures are considered received on Monday, June 8.
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<HD3>46(d)(1) Application or Solicitation Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Invitations to apply.</I> A creditor may contact a consumer who has not been pre-selected for a private education loan about taking out a loan (whether by direct mail, telephone, or other means) and invite the consumer to complete an application. Such a contact does not meet the definition of solicitation, nor is it covered by this subpart, unless the contact itself includes the following:
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<P>i. An application form in a direct mailing, electronic communication or a single application form as a “take-one” (in racks in public locations, for example);
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<P>ii. An oral application in a telephone contact; or
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<P>iii. An application in an in-person contact.
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<HD3>46(d)(2) Approval Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The creditor must provide the disclosures required by § 1026.47(b) at the time the creditor provides to the consumer any notice that the loan has been approved. However, nothing in this section prevents the creditor from communicating to the consumer that additional information is required from the consumer before approval may be granted. In such a case, a creditor is not required to provide the disclosures at that time. If the creditor communicates notice of approval to the consumer by mail, the disclosures must be mailed at the same time as the notice of approval. If the creditor communicates notice of approval by telephone, the creditor must place the disclosures in the mail within three business days of the telephone call. If the creditor communicates notice of approval in electronic form, the creditor may provide the disclosures in electronic form. If the creditor has complied with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>) the creditor may provide the disclosures solely in electronic form; otherwise, the creditor must place the disclosures in the mail within three business days of the communication.
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<HD3>46(g) Effect of Subsequent Events
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Approval disclosures.</I> Inaccuracies in the disclosures required under § 1026.47(b) are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made, although creditors are restricted under § 1026.48(c)(2) from making certain changes to the loan's rate or terms after the creditor provides an approval disclosure to a consumer. Since creditors are required provide the final disclosures under § 1026.47(c), they need not make new approval disclosures in response to an event that occurs after the creditor delivers the required approval disclosures, except as specified under § 1026.48(c)(4). For example, at the time the approval disclosures are provided, the creditor may not know the precise disbursement date of the loan funds and must provide estimated disclosures based on the best information reasonably available and labeled as an estimate. If, after the approval disclosures are provided, the creditor learns from the educational institution the precise disbursement date, new approval disclosures would not be required, unless specifically required under § 1026.48(c)(4) if other changes are made. Similarly, the creditor may not know the precise amounts of each loan to be consolidated in a consolidation loan transaction and information about the precise amounts would not require new approval disclosures, unless specifically required under § 1026.48(c)(4) if other changes are made.
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<P>2. <I>Final disclosures.</I> Inaccuracies in the disclosures required under § 1026.47(c) are not violations if attributable to events occurring after disclosures are made. For example, if the consumer initially chooses to defer payment of principal and interest while enrolled in a covered educational institution, but later chooses to make payments while enrolled, such a change does not make the original disclosures inaccurate.
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<HD2>Section 1026.47—Content of Disclosures
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>As applicable.</I> The disclosures required by this subpart need be made only as applicable, unless specifically required otherwise. The creditor need not provide any disclosure that is not applicable to a particular transaction. For example, in a transaction consolidating private education loans, or in transactions under § 1026.46(a) for which compliance with this subpart is optional, the creditor need not disclose the information under §§ 1026.47(a)(6), and (b)(4), and any other information otherwise required to be disclosed under this subpart that is not applicable to the transaction. Similarly, creditors making loans to consumers where the student is not attending an institution of higher education, as defined in § 1026.46(b)(2), need not provide the disclosures regarding the self-certification form in § 1026.47(a)(8).
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<HD3>47(a) Application or Solicitation Disclosures 
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rates actually offered.</I> The disclosure may state only those rates that the creditor is actually prepared to offer. For example, a creditor may not disclose a very low interest rate that will not in fact be offered at any time. For a loan with variable interest rates, the ranges of rates will be considered actually offered if:
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<P>i. For disclosures in applications or solicitations sent by direct mail, the rates were in effect within 60 days before mailing;
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<P>ii. For disclosures in applications or solicitations in electronic form, the rates were in effect within 30 days before the disclosures are sent to a consumer, or for disclosures made on an Internet Web site, within 30 days before being viewed by the public;
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<P>iii. For disclosures in printed applications or solicitations made available to the general public, the rates were in effect within 30 days before printing; or
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<P>iv. For disclosures provided orally in telephone applications or solicitations, the rates are currently available at the time the disclosures are provided.
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<P>2. <I>Creditworthiness and other factors.</I> If the rate will depend, at least in part, on a later determination of the consumer's creditworthiness or other factors, the disclosure must include a statement that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at approval will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors. The creditor may, but is not required to, specify any additional factors that it will use to determine the interest rate. For example, if the creditor will determine the interest rate based on information in the consumer's or cosigner's credit report and the type of school the consumer attends, the creditor may state, “Your interest rate will be based on your credit history and other factors (cosigner credit and school type).”
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<P>3. <I>Rates applicable to the loan.</I> For a variable-rate private education loan, the disclosure of the interest rate or range of rates must reflect the rate or rates calculated based on the index and margin that will be used to make interest rate adjustments for the loan. The creditor may provide a description of the index and margin or range of margins used to make interest rate adjustments, including a reference to a source, such as a newspaper, where the consumer may look up the index.
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<HD3>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> The interest rate is considered variable if the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the interest rate originally disclosed to the consumer and the requirements of § 1026.47(a)(1)(iii) apply to all such transactions. The provisions do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, or acceleration.
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<P>2. <I>Limitations.</I> The creditor must disclose how often the rate may change and any limit on the amount that the rate may increase at any one time. The creditor must also disclose any maximum rate over the life of the transaction. If the legal obligation between the parties does specify a maximum rate, the creditor must disclose any legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. However, if the applicable maximum rate is in the form of a legal limit, such as a state's usury cap (rather than a maximum rate specified in the legal obligation between the parties), the creditor must disclose that the maximum rate is determined by applicable law. The creditor must also disclose that the consumer's actual rate may be higher or lower than the initial rates disclosed under § 1026.47(a)(1)(i), if applicable.
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<HD3>Paragraph 47(a)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Cosigner or guarantor—changes in applicable interest rate.</I> The creditor must state whether the interest rate typically will be higher if the loan is not co-signed or guaranteed by a third party. The creditor is required to provide a statement of the effect on the interest rate and is not required to provide a numerical estimate of the effect on the interest rate. For example, a creditor may state: “Rates are typically higher without a cosigner.” 
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<HD3>47(a)(2) Fees and Default or Late Payment Costs
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or range of fees.</I> The creditor must itemize fees required to obtain the private education loan. The creditor must give a single dollar amount for each fee, unless the fee is based on a percentage, in which case a percentage must be stated. If the exact amount of the fee is not known at the time of disclosure, the creditor may disclose the dollar amount or percentage for each fee as an estimated range.
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<P>2. <I>Fees required to obtain the private education loan.</I> The creditor must itemize the fees that the consumer must pay to obtain the private education loan. Fees disclosed include all finance charges under § 1026.4, such as loan origination fees, credit report fees, and fees charged upon entering repayment, as well as fees not considered finance charges but required to obtain credit, such as application fees that are charged whether or not credit is extended. Fees disclosed include those paid by the consumer directly to the creditor and fees paid to third parties by the creditor on the consumer's behalf. Creditors are not required to disclose fees that apply if the consumer exercises an option under the loan agreement after consummation, such as fees for deferment, forbearance, or loan modification.
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<HD3>47(a)(3) Repayment Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Loan term.</I> The term of the loan is the maximum period of time during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest will be due on the loan.
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<P>2. <I>Payment deferral options—general.</I> The creditor must describe the options that the consumer has under the loan agreement to defer payment on the loan. When there is no deferment option provided for the loan, the creditor must disclose that fact. Payment deferral options required to be disclosed include options for immediate deferral of payments, such as when the student is currently enrolled at a covered educational institution. The description may include of the length of the maximum initial in-school deferment period, the types of payments that may be deferred, and a description of any payments that are required during the deferment period. The creditor may, but need not, disclose any conditions applicable to the deferment option, such as that deferment is permitted only while the student is continuously enrolled in school. If payment deferral is not an option while the student is enrolled in school, the creditor may disclose that the consumer must begin repayment upon disbursement of the loan and that the consumer may not defer repayment while enrolled in school. If the creditor offers payment deferral options that may apply during the repayment period, such as an option to defer payments if the student returns to school to pursue an additional degree, the creditor must include a statement referring the consumer to the contract document or promissory note for more information.
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<P>3. <I>Payment deferral options—in school deferment.</I> For each payment deferral option applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution the creditor must disclose whether interest will accrue while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution and, if interest does accrue, whether payment of interest may be deferred and added to the principal balance.
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<P>4. <I>Combination with cost estimate disclosure.</I> The disclosures of the loan term under § 1026.47(a)(3)(i) and of the payment deferral options applicable while the student is enrolled at a covered educational institution under §§ 1026.47(a)(3)(ii) and (iii) may be combined with the disclosure of cost estimates required in § 1026.47(a)(4). For example, the creditor may describe each payment deferral option in the same chart or table that provides the cost estimates for each payment deferral option. <I>See</I> appendix H-21.
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<P>5. <I>Bankruptcy limitations.</I> The creditor may comply with § 1026.47(a)(3)(iv) by disclosing the following statement: “If you file for bankruptcy you may still be required to pay back this loan.” 
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<HD3>47(a)(4) Cost Estimates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Total cost of the loan.</I> For purposes of § 1026.47(a)(4), the creditor must calculate the example of the total cost of the loan in accordance with the rules in § 1026.18(h) for calculating the loan's total of payments.
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<P>2. <I>Basis for estimates.</I> i. The creditor must calculate the total cost estimate by determining all finance charges that would be applicable to loans with the highest rate of interest required to be disclosed under § 1026.47(a)(1)(i). For example, if a creditor charges a range of origination fees from 0% to 3%, but the 3% origination fee would apply to loans with the highest initial rate, the lender must assume the 3% origination fee is charged. The creditor must base the total cost estimate on a total loan amount that includes all prepaid finance charges and results in a $10,000 amount financed. For example, if the prepaid finance charges are $600, the creditor must base the estimate on a $10,600 total loan amount and an amount financed of $10,000. The example must reflect an amount provided of $10,000. If the creditor only offers a particular private education loan for less than $10,000, the creditor may assume a loan amount that results in a $5,000 amount financed for that loan.
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<P>ii. If a prepaid finance charge is determined as a percentage of the amount financed, for purposes of the example, the creditor should assume that the fee is determined as a percentage of the total loan amount, even if this is not the creditor's usual practice. For example, suppose the consumer requires a disbursement of $10,000 and the creditor charges a 3% origination fee. In order to calculate the total cost example, the creditor must determine the loan amount that will result in a $10,000 amount financed after the 3% fee is assessed. In this example, the resulting loan amount would be $10,309.28. Assessing the 3% origination fee on the loan amount of $10,309.28 results in an origination fee of $309.28, which is withheld from the loan funds disbursed to the consumer. The principal loan amount of $10,309.28 minus the prepaid finance charge of $309.28 results in an amount financed of $10,000.
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<P>3. <I>Calculated for each option to defer interest payments.</I> The example must include an estimate of the total cost of the loan for each in-school deferral option disclosed in § 1026.47(a)(3)(iii). For example, if the creditor provides the consumer with the option to begin making principal and interest payments immediately, to defer principal payments but begin making interest-only payments immediately, or to defer all principal and interest payments while in school, the creditor is required to disclose three estimates of the total cost of the loan, one for each deferral option. If the creditor adds accrued interest to the loan balance (<I>i.e.,</I> interest is capitalized), the estimate of the total loan cost should be based on the capitalization method that the creditor actually uses for the loan. For instance, for each deferred payment option where the creditor would capitalize interest on a quarterly basis, the total loan cost must be calculated assuming interest capitalizes on a quarterly basis.
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<P>4. <I>Deferment period assumptions.</I> Creditors may use either of the following two methods for estimating the duration of in-school deferment periods:
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<P>i. For loan programs intended for educational expenses of undergraduate students, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for a four-year matriculation period, plus the loan's maximum applicable grace period, if any. For all other loans, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers for a two-year matriculation period, plus the maximum applicable grace period, if any, or the maximum time the consumer may defer payments under the loan program, whichever is shorter.
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<P>ii. Alternatively, if the creditor knows that the student will be enrolled in a program with a standard duration, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for the full duration of the program (plus any grace period). For example, if a creditor makes loans intended for students enrolled in a four-year medical school degree program, the creditor may assume that the consumer defers payments for four years plus the loan's maximum applicable grace period, if any. However, the creditor may not modify the disclosure to correspond to a particular student's situation. For example, even if the creditor knows that a student will be a second-year medical school student, the creditor must assume a four-year deferral period.
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<HD3>Paragraph 47(a)(6)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terms of Federal student loans.</I> The creditor must disclose the interest rates available under each program under title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 and whether the rates are fixed or variable, as prescribed in the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1077a). Where the fixed interest rate for a loan varies by statute depending on the date of disbursement or receipt of application, the creditor must disclose only the interest rate as of the time the disclosure is provided.
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<HD3>Paragraph 47(a)(6)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Web site address.</I> The creditor must include with this disclosure an appropriate U.S. Department of Education Web site address such as “federalstudentaid.ed.gov.” 
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<HD3>47(b) Approval Disclosures 
</HD3>
<HD3>47(b)(1) Interest Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variable rate disclosures.</I> The interest rate is considered variable if the terms of the legal obligation allow the creditor to increase the interest rate originally disclosed to the consumer. The provisions do not apply to increases resulting from delinquency (including late payment), default, assumption, or acceleration. In addition to disclosing the information required under §§ 1026.47(b)(ii) and (iii), the creditor must disclose the information required under §§ 1026.18(f)(1)(i) and (iii)—the circumstances under which the rate may increase and the effect of an increase, respectively. The creditor is required to disclose the maximum monthly payment based on the maximum possible rate in § 1026.47(b)(3)(viii), and the creditor need not disclose a separate example of the payment terms that would result from an increase under § 1026.18(f)(1)(iv).
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<P>2. <I>Limitations on rate adjustments.</I> The creditor must disclose how often the rate may change and any limit on the amount that the rate may increase at any one time. The creditor must also disclose any maximum rate over the life of the transaction. If the legal obligation between the parties does provide a maximum rate, the creditor must disclose any legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations. However, if the applicable maximum rate is in the form of a legal limit, such as a state's usury cap (rather than a maximum rate specified in the legal obligation between the parties), the creditor must disclose that the maximum rate is determined by applicable law. Compliance with § 1026.18(f)(1)(ii) (requiring disclosure of any limitations on the increase of the interest rate) does not necessarily constitute compliance with this section. Specifically, this section requires that if there are no limitations on interest rate increases, the creditor must disclose that fact. By contrast, comment 18(f)(1)(ii)-1 states that if there are no limitations the creditor need not disclose that fact. In addition, under this section, limitations on rate increases include, rather than exclude, legal limits in the nature of usury or rate ceilings under state or Federal statutes or regulations.
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<P>3. <I>Rates applicable to the loan.</I> For a variable-rate loan, the disclosure of the interest rate must reflect the index and margin that will be used to make interest rate adjustments for the loan. The creditor may provide a description of the index and margin or range of margins used to make interest rate adjustments, including a reference to a source, such as a newspaper, where the consumer may look up the index.
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<HD3>47(b)(2) Fees and Default or Late Payment Costs
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees and default or late payment costs.</I> Creditors may follow the commentary for § 1026.47(a)(2) in complying with § 1026.47(b)(2). Creditors must disclose the late payment fees required to be disclosed under § 1026.18(l) as part of the disclosure required under § 1026.47(b)(2)(ii). If the creditor includes the itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c)(1), any fees disclosed as part of the itemization need not be separately disclosed elsewhere.
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<HD3>47(b)(3) Repayment Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Principal amount.</I> The principal amount must equal what the face amount of the note would be as of the time of approval, and it must be labeled “Total Loan Amount.” <I>See</I> appendix H-18. This amount may be different from the “principal loan amount” used to calculate the amount financed under comment 18(b)(3)-1, because the creditor has the option under that comment of using a “principal loan amount” that is different from the face amount of the note. If the creditor elects to provide an itemization of the amount financed under § 1026.18(c)(1) the creditor need not disclose the amount financed elsewhere.
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<P>2. <I>Loan term.</I> The term of the loan is the maximum period of time during which regularly scheduled payments of principal and interest are due on the loan.
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<P>3. <I>Payment deferral options applicable to the consumer.</I> Creditors may follow the commentary for § 1026.47(a)(3)(ii) in complying with § 1026.47(b)(3)(iii).
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<P>4. <I>Payments required during enrollment.</I> Required payments that must be disclosed include payments of interest and principal, interest only, or other payments that the consumer must make during the time that the student is enrolled. Compliance with § 1026.18(g) constitutes compliance with § 1026.47(b)(3)(iv).
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<P>5. <I>Bankruptcy limitations.</I> The creditor may comply with § 1026.47(b)(3)(vi) by disclosing the following statement: “If you file for bankruptcy you may still be required to pay back this loan.”
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<P>6. <I>An estimate of the total amount for repayment.</I> The creditor must disclose an estimate of the total amount for repayment at two interest rates:
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<P>i. The interest rate in effect on the date of approval. Compliance with the total of payments disclosure requirement of § 1026.18(h) constitutes compliance with this requirement.
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<P>ii. The maximum possible rate of interest applicable to the loan or, if the maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. If the legal obligation between the parties specifies a maximum rate of interest, the creditor must calculate the total amount for repayment based on that rate. If the legal obligation does not specify a maximum rate but a usury or rate ceiling under state or Federal statutes or regulations applies, the creditor must use that rate. If a there is no maximum rate in the legal obligation or under a usury or rate ceiling, the creditor must base the disclosure on a rate of 25% and must disclose that there is no maximum rate and that the total amount for repayment disclosed under § 1026.47(b)(3)(vii)(B) is an estimate and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
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<P>iii. If terms of the legal obligation provide a limitation on the amount that the interest rate may increase at any one time, the creditor may reflect the effect of the interest rate limitation in calculating the total cost example. For example, if the legal obligation provides that the interest rate may not increase by more than three percentage points each year, the creditor may assume that the rate increases by three percentage points each year until it reaches that maximum possible rate, or if a maximum rate cannot be determined, an interest rate of 25%.
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<P>7. <I>The maximum monthly payment.</I> The creditor must disclose the maximum payment that the consumer could be required to make under the loan agreement, calculated using the maximum rate of interest applicable to the loan, or if the maximum rate cannot be determined, a rate of 25%. The creditor must determine and disclose the maximum rate of interest in accordance with comments 47(b)(3)-6.ii and 47(b)(3)-6.iii. In addition, if a maximum rate cannot be determined, the creditor must state that there is no maximum rate and that the monthly payment amounts disclosed under § 1026.47(b)(3)(viii) are estimates and will be higher if the applicable interest rate increases.
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<HD3>47(b)(4) Alternatives to Private Education Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Creditors may use the guidance provided in the commentary for § 1026.47(a)(6) in complying with § 1026.47(b)(4).
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<HD3>47(b)(5) Rights of the Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notice of acceptance period.</I> The disclosure that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until the acceptance period under § 1026.48(c)(1) has expired must include the specific date on which the acceptance period expires and state that the consumer may accept the terms of the loan until that date. Under § 1026.48(c)(1), the date on which the acceptance period expires is based on when the consumer receives the disclosures. If the creditor mails the disclosures, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after the creditor places the disclosures in the mail <I>See</I> § 1026.46(d)(4). If the creditor provides an acceptance period longer than the minimum 30 calendar days, the disclosure must reflect the later date. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may communicate acceptance.
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<HD3>47(c) Final Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notice of right to cancel.</I> The disclosure of the right to cancel must include the specific date on which the three-day cancellation period expires and state that the consumer has a right to cancel by that date. <I>See</I> comments 48(d)-1 and -2. For example, if the disclosures were mailed to the consumer on Friday, June 1, and the consumer is deemed to receive them on Tuesday, June 5, the creditor could state: “You have a right to cancel this transaction, without penalty, by midnight on June 8, 2009. No funds will be disbursed to you or to your school until after this time. You may cancel by calling us at 800-XXX-XXXX.” If the creditor permits cancellation by mail, the statement must specify that the consumer's mailed request will be deemed timely if placed in the mail not later than the cancellation date specified on the disclosure. The disclosure must also specify the method or methods by which the consumer may cancel.
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<P>2. <I>More conspicuous.</I> The statement of the right to cancel must be more conspicuous than any other disclosure required under this section except for the finance charge, the interest rate, and the creditor's identity. <I>See</I> § 1026.46(c)(2)(iii). The statement will be deemed to be made more conspicuous if it is segregated from other disclosures, placed near or at the top of the disclosure document, and highlighted in relation to other required disclosures. For example, the statement may be outlined with a prominent, noticeable box; printed in contrasting color; printed in larger type, bold print, or different type face; underlined; or set off with asterisks.
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<HD2>Section 1026.48—Limitations on Private Education Loans
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Co-branding—definition of marketing.</I> The prohibition on co-branding in §§ 1026.48(a) and (b) applies to the marketing of private education loans. The term marketing includes any advertisement under § 1026.2(a)(2). In addition, the term marketing includes any document provided by the creditor to the consumer related to a specific transaction, such as an application or solicitation, a promissory note or a contract provided to the consumer. For example, prominently displaying the name of the educational institution at the top of the application form or promissory note without mentioning the name of the creditor, such as by naming the loan product the “University of ABC Loan,” would be prohibited.2. <I>Implied endorsement.</I> A suggestion that a private education loan is offered or made by the covered educational institution instead of by the creditor is included in the prohibition on implying that the covered educational institution endorses the private education loan under § 1026.48(a)(1). For example, naming the loan the “University of ABC Loan,” suggests that the loan is offered by the educational institution. However, the use of a creditor's full name, even if that name includes the name of a covered educational institution, does not imply endorsement. For example, a credit union whose name includes the name of a covered educational institution is not prohibited from using its own name. In addition, the authorized use of a state seal by a state or an institution of higher education in the marketing of state education loan products does not imply endorsement.
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<P>3. <I>Disclosure.</I> i. A creditor is considered to have complied with § 1026.48(a)(2) if the creditor's marketing contains a clear and conspicuous statement, equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution, using the name of the creditor and the name of the covered educational institution that the covered educational institution does not endorse the creditor's loans and that the creditor is not affiliated with the covered educational institution. For example, “[Name of creditor]'s loans are not endorsed by [name of school] and [name of creditor] is not affiliated with [name of school].” The statement is considered to be equally prominent and closely proximate if it is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the reference to the educational institution, without any intervening text or graphical displays.
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<P>ii. A creditor is considered to have complied with § 1026.48(b) if the creditor's marketing contains a clear and conspicuous statement, equally prominent and closely proximate to the reference to the covered educational institution, using the name of the creditor's loan or loan program, the name of the covered educational institution, and the name of the creditor, that the creditor's loans are not offered or made by the covered educational institution, but are made by the creditor. For example, “[Name of loan or loan program] is not being offered or made by [name of school], but by [name of creditor].” The statement is considered to be equally prominent and closely proximate if it is the same type size and is located immediately next to or directly above or below the reference to the educational institution, without any intervening text or graphical displays.
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<HD3>48(c) Consumer's Right to Accept
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>30 day acceptance period.</I> The creditor must provide the consumer with at least 30 calendar days from the date the consumer receives the disclosures required under § 1026.47(b) to accept the terms of the loan. The creditor may provide the consumer with a longer period of time. If the creditor places the disclosures in the mail, the consumer is considered to have received them three business days after they are mailed under § 1026.46(d)(4). For purposes of determining when a consumer receives mailed disclosures, “business day” means all calendar days except Sundays and the legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> comment 46(d)-1. The consumer may accept the loan at any time before the end of the 30-day period.
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<P>2. <I>Method of acceptance.</I> The creditor must specify a method or methods by which the consumer can accept the loan at any time within the 30-day acceptance period. The creditor may require the consumer to communicate acceptance orally or in writing. Acceptance may also be communicated electronically, but electronic communication must not be the only means provided for the consumer to communicate acceptance unless the creditor has provided the approval disclosure electronically in compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). If acceptance by mail is allowed, the consumer's communication of acceptance is considered timely if placed in the mail within the 30-day period.
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<P>3. <I>Prohibition on changes to rates and terms.</I> The prohibition on changes to the rates and terms of the loan applies to changes that affect those terms that are required to be disclosed under §§ 1026.47(b) and (c). The creditor is permitted to make changes that do not affect any of the terms disclosed to the consumer under those sections.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—re-disclosure not required.</I> Creditors are not required to consummate a loan where the extension of credit would be prohibited by law or where the creditor has reason to believe that the consumer has committed fraud. A creditor may make changes to the rate based on adjustments to the index used for the loan and changes that will unequivocally benefit the consumer. For example, a creditor is permitted to reduce the interest rate or lower the amount of a fee. A creditor may also reduce the loan amount based on a certification or other information received from a covered educational institution or from the consumer indicating that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the amount of other financial aid has increased. A creditor may also withdraw the loan approval based on a certification or other information received from a covered educational institution or from the consumer indicating that the student is not enrolled in the institution. For these changes permitted by § 1026.48(c)(3), the creditor is not required to provide a new set of approval disclosures required under § 1026.47(b) or provide the consumer with a new 30-day acceptance period under § 1026.48(c)(1). The creditor must provide the final disclosures under § 1026.47(c).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—school certification.</I> If the creditor reduces the loan amount based on information that the student's cost of attendance has decreased or the amount of other financial aid has increased, the creditor may make certain corresponding changes to the rate and terms. The creditor may change the rate or terms to those that the consumer would have received if the consumer had applied for the reduced loan amount. For example, assume a consumer applies for, and is approved for, a $10,000 loan at a 7% interest rate. However, after the consumer receives the approval disclosures, the consumer's school certifies that the consumer's financial need is only $8,000. The creditor may reduce the loan amount for which the consumer is approved to $8,000. The creditor may also, for example, increase the interest rate on the loan to 7.125%, but only if the consumer would have received a rate of 7.125% if the consumer had originally applied for an $8,000 loan.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Permissible changes to rates and terms—re-disclosure required.</I> A creditor may make changes to the interest rate or terms to accommodate a request from a consumer. For example, assume a consumer applies for a $10,000 loan and is approved for the $10,000 amount at an interest rate of 6%. After the creditor has provided the approval disclosures, the consumer's financial need increases, and the consumer requests to a loan amount of $15,000. In this situation, the creditor is permitted to offer a $15,000 loan, and to make any other changes such as raising the interest rate to 7%, in response to the consumer's request. The creditor must provide a new set of disclosures under § 1026.47(b) and provide the consumer with 30 days to accept the offer under § 1026.48(c) for the $15,000 loan offered in response to the consumer's request. However, because the consumer may choose not to accept the offer for the $15,000 loan at the higher interest rate, the creditor may not withdraw or change the rate or terms of the offer for the $10,000 loan, except as permitted under § 1026.48(c)(3), unless the consumer accepts the $15,000 loan.
</P>
<HD3>48(d) Consumer's Right to Cancel
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Right to cancel.</I> If the creditor mails the disclosures, the disclosures are considered received by the consumer three business days after the disclosures were mailed. For purposes of determining when the consumer receives the disclosures, the term “business day” is defined as all calendar days except Sunday and the legal public holidays referred to in § 1026.2(a)(6). <I>See</I> § 1026.46(d)(4). The consumer has three business days from the date on which the disclosures are deemed received to cancel the loan. For example, if the creditor places the disclosures in the mail on Thursday, June 4, the disclosures are considered received on Monday, June 8. The consumer may cancel any time before midnight Thursday, June 11. The creditor may provide the consumer with more time to cancel the loan than the minimum three business days required under this section. If the creditor provides the consumer with a longer period of time in which to cancel the loan, the creditor may disburse the funds three business days after the consumer has received the disclosures required under this section, but the creditor must honor the consumer's later timely cancellation request.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Method of cancellation.</I> The creditor must specify a method or methods by which the consumer may cancel. For example, the creditor may require the consumer to communicate cancellation orally or in writing. Cancellation may also be communicated electronically, but electronic communication must not be the only means by which the consumer may cancel unless the creditor provided the final disclosure electronically in compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). If the creditor allows cancellation by mail, the creditor must specify an address or the name and address of an agent of the creditor to receive notice of cancellation. The creditor must wait to disburse funds until it is reasonably satisfied that the consumer has not canceled. For example, the creditor may satisfy itself by waiting a reasonable time after expiration of the cancellation period to allow for delivery of a mailed notice. The creditor may also satisfy itself by obtaining a written statement from the consumer, which must be provided to and signed by the consumer only at the end of the three-day period, that the right has not been exercised.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Cancellation without penalty.</I> The creditor may not charge the consumer a fee for exercising the right to cancel under § 1026.48(d). The prohibition extends only to fees charged specifically for canceling the loan. The creditor is not required to refund fees, such as an application fee, that are charged to all consumers whether or not the consumer cancels the loan.
</P>
<HD3>48(e) Self-Certification Form
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.48(e) requires that the creditor obtain the self-certification form, signed by the consumer, before consummating the private education loan. The rule applies only to private education loans that will be used for the postsecondary educational expenses of a student while that student is attending an institution of higher education as defined in § 1026.46(b)(2). It does not apply to all covered educational institutions. The requirement applies even if the student is not currently attending an institution of higher education, but will use the loan proceeds for postsecondary educational expenses while attending such institution. For example, a creditor is required to obtain the form before consummating a private education loan provided to a high school senior for expenses to be incurred during the consumer's first year of college. This provision does not require that the creditor obtain the self-certification form in instances where the loan is not intended for a student attending an institution of higher education, such as when the consumer is consolidating loans after graduation. Section 155(a)(2) of the Higher Education Act of 1965 provides that the form shall be made available to the consumer by the relevant institution of higher education. However, § 1026.48(e) provides flexibility to institutions of higher education and creditors as to how the completed self-certification form is provided to the lender. The creditor may receive the form directly from the consumer, or the creditor may receive the form from the consumer through the institution of higher education. In addition, the creditor may provide the form, and the information the consumer will require to complete the form, directly to the consumer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic signature.</I> Under section 155(a)(2) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the institution of higher education may provide the self-certification form to the consumer in written or electronic form. Under section 155(a)(5) of the Higher Education Act of 1965, the form may be signed electronically by the consumer. A creditor may accept the self-certification form from the consumer in electronic form. A consumer's electronic signature is considered valid if it meets the requirements issued by the Department of Education under section 155(a)(5) of the Higher Education Act of 1965.
</P>
<HD3>48(f) Provision of Information by Preferred Lenders
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.48(f) does not specify the format in which creditors must provide the required information to the covered educational institution. Creditors may choose to provide only the required information or may provide copies of the form or forms the lender uses to comply with § 1026.47(a). A creditor is only required to provide the required information if the creditor is aware that it is a party to a preferred lender arrangement. For example, if a creditor is placed on a covered educational institution's preferred lender list without the creditor's knowledge, the creditor is not required to comply with § 1026.48(f).
</P>
<HD1>Subpart G—Special Rules Applicable to Credit Card Accounts and Open-End Credit Offered to College Students
</HD1>
<HD2>Section 1026.51 Ability To Pay
</HD2>
<HD3>51(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<HD3>51(a)(1)(i) Consideration of Ability to Pay
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consideration of additional factors.</I> Section 1026.51(a) requires a card issuer to consider a consumer's ability to make the required minimum periodic payments under the terms of an account based on the consumer's income or assets and current obligations. The card issuer may also consider consumer reports, credit scores, and other factors, consistent with Regulation B (12 CFR part 1002).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ability to pay as of application or consideration of increase.</I> A card issuer complies with § 1026.51(a) if it bases its consideration of a consumer's ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the facts and circumstances known to the card issuer at the time the consumer applies to open the credit card account or when the card issuer considers increasing the credit line on an existing account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credit line increase.</I> When a card issuer considers increasing the credit line on an existing account, § 1026.51(a) applies whether the consideration is based upon a request of the consumer or is initiated by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Consideration of income and assets.</I> For purposes of § 1026.51(a):
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer may consider any current or reasonably expected income or assets of the consumer or consumers who are applying for a new account or will be liable for debts incurred on that account, including a cosigner or guarantor. Similarly, when a card issuer is considering whether to increase the credit limit on an existing account, the card issuer may consider any current or reasonably expected income or assets of the consumer or consumers who are accountholders, cosigners, or guarantors, and are liable for debts incurred on that account. In both of these circumstances, a card issuer may treat any income and assets to which an applicant, accountholder, joint applicant, cosigner, or guarantor who is or will be liable for debts incurred on the account has a reasonable expectation of access as the applicant's current or reasonably expected income—but is not required to do so. A card issuer may instead limit its consideration of a consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets to the consumer's independent income or assets as discussed in comments 51(b)(1)(i)-1 and 51(b)(2)-2. Although these comments clarify the independent ability-to-pay requirement that governs applications from consumers under 21, they provide guidance regarding the use of “independent income and assets” as an underwriting criterion under § 1026.51(a). For example, comment 51(b)(1)(i)-1 explains that card issuers may not consider income or assets to which applicants under 21 have only a reasonable expectation of access. An issuer who chooses to comply with § 1026.51(a) by limiting its consideration to applicants' independent income and assets likewise would not consider income or assets to which applicants 21 or older have only a reasonable expectation of access.
</P>
<P>ii. Current or reasonably expected income includes, for example, current or expected salary, wages, bonus pay, tips, and commissions. Employment may be full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment. Other sources of income include interest or dividends, retirement benefits, public assistance, alimony, child support, and separate maintenance payments. Proceeds from student loans may be considered as current or reasonably expected income only to the extent that those proceeds exceed the amount disbursed or owed to an educational institution for tuition and other expenses. Current or reasonably expected income also includes income that is being deposited regularly into an account on which the consumer is an accountholder (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual deposit account or joint account). Assets include, for example, savings accounts and investments.
</P>
<P>iii. Consideration of the income or assets of authorized users, household members, or other persons who are not liable for debts incurred on the account does not satisfy the requirement to consider the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets, unless a Federal or State statute or regulation grants a consumer who is liable for debts incurred on the account an ownership interest in such income and assets (<I>e.g.,</I> joint ownership granted under State community property laws), such income is being deposited regularly into an account on which the consumer is an accountholder (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual deposit account or a joint account), or the consumer has a reasonable expectation of access to such income or assets even though the consumer does not have a current or expected ownership interest in the income or assets. See comment 51(a)(1)-6 for examples of non-applicant income to which a consumer has a reasonable expectation of access.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Information regarding income and assets.</I> For purposes of § 1026.51(a), a card issuer may consider the consumer's current or reasonably expected income and assets based on the following information:
</P>
<P>i. Information provided by the consumer in connection with the account, including information provided by the consumer through the application process. For example, card issuers may rely without further inquiry on information provided by applicants in response to a request for “salary,” “income,” “assets,” “available income,” “accessible income,” or other language requesting that the applicant provide information regarding current or reasonably expected income or assets or any income or assets to which the applicant has a reasonable expectation of access. However, card issuers may not rely solely on information provided in response to a request for “household income.” In that case, the card issuer would need to obtain additional information about an applicant's current or reasonably expected income, including income and assets to which the applicant has a reasonable expectation of access (such as by contacting the applicant). See comments 51(a)(1)-4, -5, and -6 for additional guidance on determining the consumer's current or reasonably expected income under § 1026.51(a)(1). See comment 51(a)(1)-9 for guidance regarding the use of a single, common application form or process for all credit card applicants, regardless of age.
</P>
<P>ii. Information provided by the consumer in connection with any other financial relationship the card issuer or its affiliates have with the consumer (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules).
</P>
<P>iii. Information obtained through third parties (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules).
</P>
<P>iv. Information obtained through any empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound model that reasonably estimates a consumer's income or assets, including any income or assets to which the consumer has a reasonable expectation of access.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples of considering income.</I> Assume that an applicant is not employed and that the applicant is age 21 or older so § 1026.51(b) does not apply.
</P>
<P>i. If a non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited regularly into a joint account shared with the applicant, a card issuer is permitted to consider the amount of the non-applicant's income that is being deposited regularly into the account to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(a).
</P>
<P>ii. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access. However, the non-applicant regularly transfers a portion of that income into the applicant's individual deposit account. A card issuer is permitted to consider the amount of the non-applicant's income that is being transferred regularly into the applicant's account to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(a).
</P>
<P>iii. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access. However, the non-applicant regularly uses a portion of that income to pay for the applicant's expenses. A card issuer is permitted to consider the amount of the non-applicant's income that is used regularly to pay for the applicant's expenses to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(a) because the applicant has a reasonable expectation of access to that income.
</P>
<P>iv. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access, the non-applicant does not regularly use that income to pay for the applicant's expenses, and no Federal or State statute or regulation grants the applicant an ownership interest in that income. A card issuer is not permitted to consider the non-applicant's income as the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(a) because the applicant does not have a reasonable expectation of access to the non-applicant's income.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Current obligations.</I> A card issuer may consider the consumer's current obligations based on information provided by the consumer or in a consumer report. In evaluating a consumer's current obligations, a card issuer need not assume that credit lines for other obligations are fully utilized.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Joint applicants and joint accountholders.</I> With respect to the opening of a joint account for two or more consumers or a credit line increase on such an account, the card issuer may consider the collective ability of all persons who are or will be liable for debts incurred on the account to make the required payments.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Single application.</I> A card issuer may use a single, common application form or process for all credit card applicants, regardless of age. A card issuer may rely without further verification on income and asset information provided by applicants through such an application, so long as the application questions gather sufficient information to allow the card issuer to satisfy the requirements of both § 1026.51(a) and (b), depending on whether a particular applicant has reached the age of 21. For example, a card issuer might provide two separate line items on its application form, one prompting applicants to provide their “personal income,” and the other prompting applicants for “available income.” A card issuer might also prompt applicants, regardless of age, using only the term “income” and satisfy the requirements of both § 1026.51(a) and (b).
</P>
<HD3>51(a)(2) Minimum Periodic Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicable minimum payment formula.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 1026.51(a)(2)(ii), if the account has or may have a promotional program, such as a deferred payment or similar program, where there is no applicable minimum payment formula during the promotional period, the issuer must estimate the required minimum periodic payment based on the minimum payment formula that will apply when the promotion ends.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Interest rate for purchases.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 1026.51(a)(2)(ii), if the interest rate for purchases is or may be a promotional rate, the issuer must use the post-promotional rate to estimate interest charges.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Mandatory fees.</I> For purposes of estimating required minimum periodic payments under the safe harbor set forth in § 1026.51(a)(2)(ii), mandatory fees that must be assumed to be charged include those fees the card issuer knows the consumer will be required to pay under the terms of the account if the account is opened, such as an annual fee. If a mandatory fee is a promotional fee (as defined in § 1026.16(g)), the issuer must use the post-promotional fee amount for purposes of § 1026.51(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>51(b) Rules Affecting Young Consumers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Age as of date of application or consideration of credit line increase.</I> Sections 1026.51(b)(1) and (b)(2) apply only to a consumer who has not attained the age of 21 as of the date of submission of the application under § 1026.51(b)(1) or the date the credit line increase is requested by the consumer (or if no request has been made, the date the credit line increase is considered by the card issuer) under § 1026.51(b)(2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Liability of cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder.</I> Sections 1026.51(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) require the signature or written consent of a cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder agreeing either to be secondarily liable for any debt on the account incurred by the consumer before the consumer has attained the age of 21 or to be jointly liable with the consumer for any debt on the account. Sections 1026.51(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2) do not prohibit a card issuer from also requiring the cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder to assume liability for debts incurred after the consumer has attained the age of 21, consistent with any agreement made between the parties.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Authorized users exempt.</I> If a consumer who has not attained the age of 21 is being added to another person's account as an authorized user and has no liability for debts incurred on the account, § 1026.51(b)(1) and (b)(2) do not apply.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Electronic application.</I> Consistent with § 1026.5(a)(1)(iii), an application may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>) in the circumstances set forth in § 1026.60. The electronic submission of an application from a consumer or a consent to a credit line increase from a cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder to a card issuer would constitute a written application or consent for purposes of § 1026.51(b) and would not be considered a consumer disclosure for purposes of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Current obligations.</I> A card issuer may consider the consumer's current obligations under § 1026.51(b)(1) and (b)(2)(i) based on information provided by the consumer or in a consumer report. In evaluating a consumer's current obligations, a card issuer need not assume that credit lines for other obligations are fully utilized.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Joint applicants or joint accountholders.</I> With respect to the opening of a joint account for two or more consumers under § 1026.51(b)(1) or a credit line increase on such an account under § 1026.51(b)(2)(i), the card issuer may consider the collective ability of all persons who are or will be liable for debts incurred on the account to make the required payments. See commentary to § 1026.51(b)(1)(i) and (b)(2) for information on income and assets that may be considered for joint applicants, joint accountholders, cosigners, or guarantors who are under the age of 21, and commentary to § 1026.51(b)(1)(ii) for information on income and assets that may be considered for joint applicants, joint accountholders, cosigners, or guarantors who are at least 21 years old.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Relation to Regulation B.</I> In considering an application or credit line increase on the credit card account of a consumer who is less than 21 years old, card issuers must comply with the applicable rules in Regulation B (12 CFR part 1026). A card issuer does not violate Regulation B by complying with the requirements in § 1026.51(b).
</P>
<HD3>51(b)(1) Applications from young consumers
</HD3>
<P>Paragraph 51(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Consideration of income and assets for young consumers.</I> For purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i):
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer may consider any current or reasonably expected income or assets of the consumer or consumers who are applying for a new account or will be liable for debts incurred on that account, including a cosigner or guarantor. However, because § 1026.51(b)(1)(i) requires that the consumer who has not attained the age of 21 have an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments, the card issuer may only consider the applicant's current or reasonably expected income or assets under § 1026.51(b)(1)(i). The card issuer may not consider income or assets to which an applicant, joint applicant, cosigner, or guarantor, in each case who is under the age of 21 and is or will be liable for debts incurred on the account, has only a reasonable expectation of access.
</P>
<P>ii. Current or reasonably expected income includes, for example, current or expected salary, wages, bonus pay, tips, and commissions. Employment may be full-time, part-time, seasonal, irregular, military, or self-employment. Other sources of income include interest or dividends, retirement benefits, public assistance, alimony, child support, and separate maintenance payments. Proceeds from student loans may be considered as current or reasonably expected income only to the extent that those proceeds exceed the amount disbursed or owed to an educational institution for tuition and other expenses. Current or reasonably expected income includes income that is being deposited regularly into an account on which the consumer is an accountholder (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual deposit account or a joint account). Assets include, for example, savings accounts and investments. Current or reasonably expected income and assets does not include income and assets to which the consumer only has a reasonable expectation of access.
</P>
<P>iii. Consideration of the income and assets of authorized users, household members, or other persons who are not liable for debts incurred on the account does not satisfy the requirement to consider the consumer's current or reasonably expected income or assets, unless a Federal or State statute or regulation grants a consumer who is liable for debts incurred on the account an ownership interest in such income or assets (<I>e.g.,</I> joint ownership granted under State community property laws), or the income is being deposited regularly into an account on which the consumer is an accountholder (<I>e.g.,</I> an individual deposit account or a joint account). See comment 51(b)(1)(i)-3 for examples of income that may be relied upon as a consumer's current or reasonably expected income.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information regarding income and assets for young consumers.</I> For purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i), a card issuer may consider the consumer's current or reasonably expected income and assets based on the following information:
</P>
<P>i. Information provided by the consumer in connection with the account, including information provided by the consumer through the application process. For example, card issuers may rely without further inquiry on information provided by applicants in response to a request for “salary,” “income,” “personal income,” “individual income,” “assets,” or other language requesting that the applicant provide information regarding his or her current or reasonably expected income or assets. However, card issuers may not rely solely on information provided in response to a request for “household income.” Nor may they rely solely on information provided in response to a request for “available income,” “accessible income,” or other language requesting that the applicant provide any income or assets to which the applicant has a reasonable expectation of access. In such cases, the card issuer would need to obtain additional information about an applicant's current or reasonably expected income (such as by contacting the applicant). See comments 51(b)(1)(i)-1, -2, and -3 for additional guidance on determining the consumer's current or reasonably expected income under § 1026.51(b)(1)(i). See comment 51(a)(1)-9 for guidance regarding the use of a single, common application for all credit card applicants, regardless of age.
</P>
<P>ii. Information provided by the consumer in connection with any other financial relationship the card issuer or its affiliates have with the consumer (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules).
</P>
<P>iii. Information obtained through third parties (subject to any applicable information-sharing rules).
</P>
<P>iv. Information obtained through any empirically derived, demonstrably and statistically sound model that reasonably estimates a consumer's income or assets.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of considering income for young consumers.</I> Assume that an applicant is not employed and the applicant is under the age of 21 so § 1026.51(b) applies.
</P>
<P>i. If a non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited regularly into a joint account shared with the applicant, a card issuer is permitted to consider the amount of the non-applicant's income that is being deposited regularly into the account to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>ii. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access. However, the non-applicant regularly transfers a portion of that income into the applicant's individual deposit account. A card issuer is permitted to consider the amount of the non-applicant's income that is being transferred regularly into the applicant's account to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>iii. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access. However, the non-applicant regularly uses that income to pay for the applicant's expenses. A card issuer is not permitted to consider the non-applicant's income that is used regularly to pay for the applicant's expenses as the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i), unless a Federal or State statute or regulation grants the applicant an ownership interest in such income.
</P>
<P>iv. The non-applicant's salary or other income is deposited into an account to which the applicant does not have access, the non-applicant does not regularly use that income to pay for the applicant's expenses, and no Federal or State statute or regulation grants the applicant an ownership interest in that income. The card issuer is not permitted to consider the non-applicant's income to be the applicant's current or reasonably expected income for purposes of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph 51(b)(1)(ii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Financial information.</I> Information regarding income and assets that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(a) also satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(b)(1)(ii)(B) and card issuers may rely on the guidance in comments 51(a)(1)-4, -5, and -6 for purposes of determining whether a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old has the ability to make the required minimum periodic payments in accordance with § 1026.51(b)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<HD3>51(b)(2) Credit line increases for young consumers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit line request by joint accountholder aged 21 or older.</I> The requirement under § 1026.51(b)(2) that a cosigner, guarantor, or joint accountholder for a credit card account opened pursuant to § 1026.51(b)(1)(ii) must agree in writing to assume liability for the increase before a credit line is increased, does not apply if the cosigner, guarantor or joint accountholder who is at least 21 years old initiates the request for the increase.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Independent ability-to-pay standard.</I> Under § 1026.51(b)(2), if a credit card account has been opened pursuant to § 1026.51(b)(1)(i), no increase in the credit limit may be made on such account before the consumer attains the age of 21 unless, at the time of the contemplated increase, the consumer has an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments on the increased limit, consistent with § 1026.51(b)(1)(i), or a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old assumes liability for any debt incurred on the account, consistent with § 1026.51(b)(1)(ii). Thus, when a card issuer is considering whether to increase the credit limit on an existing account, § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(A) requires that consumers who have not attained the age of 21 and do not have a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is 21 years or older must have an independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments as of the time of the contemplated increase. Thus, the card issuer may not consider income or assets to which an accountholder, cosigner, or guarantor, in each case who is under the age of 21 and is or will be liable for debts incurred on the account, has only a reasonable expectation of access under § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(A). The card issuer, however, may consider income or assets to which an accountholder, cosigner, or guarantor, in each case who is age 21 or older and is or will be liable for debts incurred on the account, has a reasonable expectation of access under § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(B). Information regarding income and assets that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(b)(1)(i) also satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(A) and card issuers may rely on the guidance in the commentary to § 1026.51(b)(1)(i) for purposes of determining whether an accountholder who is less than 21 years old has the independent ability to make the required minimum periodic payments in accordance with § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(A). Information regarding income and assets that satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(a) also satisfies the requirements of § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(B) and card issuers may rely on the guidance in comments 51(a)(1)-4, -5, and -6 for purposes of determining whether a cosigner, guarantor, or joint applicant who is at least 21 years old has the ability to make the required minimum periodic payments in accordance with § 1026.51(b)(2)(i)(B).












</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.52—Limitations on Fees
</HD2>
<HD3>52(a) Limitations During First Year After Account Opening
</HD3>
<HD3>52(a)(1) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Application.</I> The 25 percent limit in § 1026.52(a)(1) applies to fees that the card issuer charges to the account as well as to fees that the card issuer requires the consumer to pay with respect to the account through other means (such as through a payment from the consumer's asset account, including a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61, to the card issuer or from another credit account provided by the card issuer). For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that, under the terms of a credit card account, a consumer is required to pay $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. The consumer is also required to pay a cash advance fee that is equal to five percent of the cash advance and a late payment fee of $8 if the required minimum periodic payment is not received by the payment due date (which is the twenty-fifth of the month). The card issuer is not a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3). At account opening on January 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account the $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. On February 1 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $100 cash advance. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge a $5 cash-advance fee to the account. On March 26 of year one, the card issuer has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment. Section 1026.52(a)(2) permits the card issuer to charge a $8 late payment fee to the account. On July 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $50 cash advance. Section 1026.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to charge a $2.50 cash advance fee to the account. Furthermore, § 1026.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from collecting the $2.50 cash advance fee from the consumer by other means.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that, under the terms of a credit card account, a consumer is required to pay $125 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit during the first year after account opening. At account opening on January 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge the $125 in fees to the account. However, § 1026.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to make payments to the card issuer for additional non-exempt fees with respect to the account during the first year after account opening. Section 1026.52(a)(1) also prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to open a separate credit account with the card issuer to fund the payment of additional non-exempt fees during the first year after the credit card account is opened.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a consumer opens a prepaid account accessed by a prepaid card on January 1 of year one and opens a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61 that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on March 1 of year one. Assume that, under the terms of the covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card, a consumer is required to pay $50 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. At credit account opening on March 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $200. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge the $50 in fees to the credit account. However, § 1026.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to make payments to the card issuer for additional non-exempt fees with respect to the credit account during the first year after account opening. Section 1026.52(a)(1) also prohibits the card issuer from requiring the consumer to open an additional credit feature with the card issuer to fund the payment of additional non-exempt fees during the first year after the covered separate credit feature is opened.
</P>
<P>iv. Assume that a consumer opens a prepaid account accessed by a prepaid card on January 1 of year one and opens a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on March 1 of year one. Assume that, under the terms of the covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card, a consumer is required to pay $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. The consumer is also required to pay a cash advance fee that is equal to 5 percent of any cash advance and a late payment fee of $8 if the required minimum periodic payment is not received by the payment due date (which is the 25th of the month). The card issuer is not a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3). At credit account opening on March 1 of year one, the credit limit for the account is $500. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account the $120 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit at account opening. On April 1 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $100 cash advance. Section 1026.52(a)(1) permits the card issuer to charge a $5 cash advance fee to the account. On April 26 of year one, the card issuer has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment. Section 1026.52(a)(2) permits the card issuer to charge a $8 late payment fee to the account. On July 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account for a $50 cash advance. Section 1026.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to charge a $2.50 cash advance fee to the account, because the total amount of non-exempt fees reached the 25 percent limit with the $5 cash advance fee on April 1 (the $8 late fee on April 26 is exempt pursuant to § 1026.52(a)(2)(i)). Furthermore, § 1026.52(a)(1) prohibits the card issuer from collecting the $2.50 cash advance fee from the consumer by other means.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees that exceed 25 percent limit.</I> A card issuer that charges a fee to a credit card account that exceeds the 25 percent limit complies with § 1026.52(a)(1) if the card issuer waives or removes the fee and any associated interest charges or credits the account for an amount equal to the fee and any associated interest charges within a reasonable amount of time but no later than the end of the billing cycle following the billing cycle during which the fee was charged. For example, assuming the facts in the example in comment 52(a)(1)-1.i, the card issuer complies with § 1026.52(a)(1) if the card issuer charged the $2.50 cash advance fee to the account on July 15 of year one but waived or removed the fee or credited the account for $2.50 (plus any interest charges on that $2.50) at the end of the billing cycle.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Changes in credit limit during first year.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Increases in credit limit.</I> If a card issuer increases the credit limit during the first year after the account is opened, § 1026.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to require the consumer to pay additional fees that would otherwise be prohibited (such as a fee for increasing the credit limit). For example, assume that, at account opening on January 1, the credit limit for a credit card account is $400 and the consumer is required to pay $100 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit. On July 1, the card issuer increases the credit limit for the account to $600. Section 1026.52(a)(1) does not permit the card issuer to require the consumer to pay additional fees based on the increased credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Decreases in credit limit.</I> If a card issuer decreases the credit limit during the first year after the account is opened, § 1026.52(a)(1) requires the card issuer to waive or remove any fees charged to the account that exceed 25 percent of the reduced credit limit or to credit the account for an amount equal to any fees the consumer was required to pay with respect to the account that exceed 25 percent of the reduced credit limit within a reasonable amount of time but no later than the end of the billing cycle following the billing cycle during which the credit limit was reduced. For example, assume that, at account opening on January 1, the credit limit for a credit card account is $1,000 and the consumer is required to pay $250 in fees for the issuance or availability of credit. The billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. On July 30, the card issuer decreases the credit limit for the account to $600. Section 1026.52(a)(1) requires the card issuer to waive or remove $100 in fees from the account or to credit the account for an amount equal to $100 within a reasonable amount of time but no later than August 31.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date on which account may first be used by consumer to engage in transactions.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Methods of compliance.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1), an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions. A card issuer may consider an account open for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1) on any of the following dates:
</P>
<P>A. The date the account is first used by the consumer for a transaction (such as when an account is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services).
</P>
<P>B. The date the consumer complies with any reasonable activation procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use of a new account (such as requiring the consumer to provide information that verifies his or her identity), provided that the account may be used for transactions on that date.
</P>
<P>C. The date that is seven days after the card issuer mails or delivers to the consumer account-opening disclosures that comply with § 1026.6, provided that the consumer may use the account for transactions after complying with any reasonable activation procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use of the new account (such as requiring the consumer to provide information that verifies his or her identity). If a card issuer has reasonable procedures designed to ensure that account-opening disclosures that comply with § 1026.6 are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than a certain number of days after the card issuer establishes the account, the card issuer may add that number of days to the seven-day period for purposes of determining the date on which the account was opened.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A. Assume that, on July 1 of year one, a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is established in connection with financing the purchase of goods or services and a $500 transaction is charged to the account by the consumer. The card issuer may consider the account open on July 1 of year one for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 1026.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 1 of year two.
</P>
<P>B. Assume that, on July 1 of year one, a card issuer approves a consumer's application for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and establishes the account on its internal systems. On July 5, the card issuer mails or delivers to the consumer account-opening disclosures that comply with § 1026.6. If the consumer may use the account for transactions on the date the consumer complies with any reasonable procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use, the card issuer may consider the account open on July 12 of year one for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 1026.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 12 of year two.
</P>
<P>C. Same facts as in comment 52(a)(1)-4.ii.B except that the card issuer has adopted reasonable procedures designed to ensure that account-opening disclosures that comply with § 1026.6 are mailed or delivered to consumers no later than three days after an account is established on its systems. If the consumer may use the account for transactions on the date the consumer complies with any reasonable procedures imposed by the card issuer for preventing fraud or unauthorized use, the card issuer may consider the account open on July 11 of year one for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1). Accordingly, § 1026.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 11 of year two. However, if the consumer uses the account for a transaction or complies with the card issuer's reasonable procedures for preventing fraud or unauthorized use on July 8 of year one, the card issuer may, at its option, consider the account open on that date for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1), and therefore § 1026.52(a)(1) ceases to apply to the account on July 8 of year two.






</P>
<HD3>52(a)(2) Fees Not Subject to Limitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Covered fees.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.52(a)(2) and except as provided in comments 52(a)(2)-2 and-3, § 1026.52(a) applies to any fees or other charges that a card issuer will or may require the consumer to pay with respect to a credit card account during the first year after account opening, other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates. For example, § 1026.52(a) applies to:
</P>
<P>i. Fees that the consumer is required to pay for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 1026.60(b)(2), including any fee based on account activity or inactivity and any fee that a consumer is required to pay in order to receive a particular credit limit;
</P>
<P>ii. Fees for insurance described in § 1026.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage described in § 1026.4(b)(10) written in connection with a credit transaction, if the insurance or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage is required by the terms of the account;
</P>
<P>iii. Fees that the consumer is required to pay in order to engage in transactions using the account (such as cash advance fees, balance transfer fees, foreign transaction fees, and fees for using the account for purchases);
</P>
<P>iv. Fees that the consumer is required to pay for violating the terms of the account (except to the extent specifically excluded by § 1026.52(a)(2)(i));
</P>
<P>v. Fixed finance charges; and
</P>
<P>vi. Minimum charges imposed if a charge would otherwise have been determined by applying a periodic interest rate to a balance except for the fact that such charge is smaller than the minimum.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees in connection with a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature of the prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 where the credit feature is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, § 1026.52(a) applies to the following fees:
</P>
<P>i. Except as provided in § 1026.52(a)(2), any fee or charge imposed on the covered separate credit feature, other than a charge attributable to a periodic interest rate, during the first year after account opening that the card issuer will or may require the consumer to pay in connection with the credit feature, and
</P>
<P>ii. Except as provided in § 1026.52(a)(2), any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account, other than a charge attributable to a periodic interest rate, during the first year after account opening that the card issuer will or may require the consumer to pay where that fee or charge is a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan.</I> Section 1026.52(a) does not apply to any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). See § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and non-covered separate credit features as those terms are defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees the consumer is not required to pay.</I> Section 1026.52(a)(2)(ii) provides that § 1026.52(a) does not apply to fees that the consumer is not required to pay with respect to the account. For example, § 1026.52(a) generally does not apply to fees for making an expedited payment (to the extent permitted by § 1026.10(e)), fees for optional services (such as travel insurance), fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card, or statement reproduction fees.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Security deposits.</I> A security deposit that is charged to a credit card account is a fee for purposes of § 1026.52(a). In contrast, however, a security deposit is not subject to the 25 percent limit in § 1026.52(a)(1) if it is not charged to the account. For example, § 1026.52(a)(1) does not prohibit a card issuer from requiring a consumer to provide funds at account opening pledged as security for the account that exceed 25 percent of the credit limit at account opening so long as those funds are not obtained from the account.
</P>
<HD3>52(a)(3) Rule of Construction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law.</I> Section 1026.52(a) does not authorize the imposition or payment of fees or charges otherwise prohibited by law. For example, see 16 CFR 310.4(a)(4).


</P>
<HD3>52(b) Limitations on Penalty Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees for violating the account terms or other requirements.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b), a fee includes any charge imposed by a card issuer based on an act or omission that violates the terms of the account or any other requirements imposed by the card issuer with respect to the account, other than charges attributable to periodic interest rates. Accordingly, for purposes of § 1026.52(b), a fee does not include charges attributable to an increase in an annual percentage rate based on an act or omission that violates the terms or other requirements of an account.
</P>
<P>i. The following are examples of fees that are subject to the limitations in § 1026.52(b) or are prohibited by § 1026.52(b):
</P>
<P>A. Late payment fees and any other fees imposed by a card issuer if an account becomes delinquent or if a payment is not received by a particular date. A late payment fee or late fee is any fee imposed for a late payment. <I>See</I> § 1026.60(b)(9) and accompanying commentary.
</P>
<P>B. Returned payment fees and any other fees imposed by a card issuer if a payment received via check, automated clearing house, or other payment method is returned.
</P>
<P>C. Any fee or charge for an over-the-limit transaction as defined in § 1026.56(a), to the extent the imposition of such a fee or charge is permitted by § 1026.56.
</P>
<P>D. Any fee imposed by a card issuer if payment on a check that accesses a credit card account is declined.
</P>
<P>E. Any fee or charge for a transaction that the card issuer declines to authorize. <I>See</I> § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>F. Any fee imposed by a card issuer based on account inactivity (including the consumer's failure to use the account for a particular number or dollar amount of transactions or a particular type of transaction). <I>See</I> § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>G. Any fee imposed by a card issuer based on the closure or termination of an account. <I>See</I> § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>ii. The following are examples of fees to which § 1026.52(b) does not apply:
</P>
<P>A. Balance transfer fees.
</P>
<P>B. Cash advance fees.
</P>
<P>C. Foreign transaction fees.
</P>
<P>D. Annual fees and other fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 1026.60(b)(2), except to the extent that such fees are based on account inactivity. <I>See</I> § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>E. Fees for insurance described in § 1026.4(b)(7) or debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage described in § 1026.4(b)(10) written in connection with a credit transaction, provided that such fees are not imposed as a result of a violation of the account terms or other requirements of an account.
</P>
<P>F. Fees for making an expedited payment (to the extent permitted by § 1026.10(e)).
</P>
<P>G. Fees for optional services (such as travel insurance).
</P>
<P>H. Fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding to nearest whole dollar.</I> A card issuer may round any fee that complies with § 1026.52(b) to the nearest whole dollar. For example, if § 1026.52(b) permits a card issuer to impose a late payment fee of $5.50, the card issuer may round that amount up to the nearest whole dollar and impose a late payment fee of $6. However, if the late payment fee permitted by § 1026.52(b) were $5.49, the card issuer would not be permitted to round that amount up to $6, although the card issuer could round that amount down and impose a late payment fee of $5.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees in connection with covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 where the credit feature is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, § 1026.52(b) applies to any fee for violating the terms or other requirements of the credit feature, regardless of whether those fees are imposed on the credit feature or on the asset feature of the prepaid account. For example, assume that a late fee will be imposed by the card issuer if the covered separate credit feature becomes delinquent or if a payment is not received by a particular date. This fee is subject to § 1026.52(b) regardless of whether the fee is imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account or on the separate credit feature.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan.</I> Section 1026.52(b) does not apply to any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). <I>See</I> § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and non-covered separate credit features as those terms are defined in § 1026.61.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Examples.</I> Any dollar amount examples in the commentary to § 1026.52(b) relating to the safe harbors in § 1026.52(b)(1) are based on the original historical safe-harbor thresholds of $25 and $35 for penalty fees other than late fees, and on the threshold of $8 for late fees applicable to card issuers other than smaller card issuers as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3).
</P>
<HD3>52(b)(1) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship between § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) and (ii) and (b)(2).</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Relationship between § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) and (ii).</I> A card issuer may impose a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account pursuant to either § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<P>A. A card issuer that complies with the safe harbors in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) is not required to determine that its fees represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of a type of violation under § 1026.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer may impose a fee for one type of violation pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) and may impose a fee for a different type of violation pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). For example, a card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $9 based on a cost determination pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) but impose returned payment and over-the-limit fees of $25 or $35 pursuant to the safe harbors in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer that previously based the amount of a penalty fee for a particular type of violation on a cost determination pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) may begin to impose a penalty fee for that type of violation that is consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) at any time (subject to the notice requirements in § 1026.9), provided that the first fee imposed pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) is consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). For example, assume that consistent with § 1026.56, a consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. A transaction occurs on January 15 that causes the account balance to exceed the credit limit and, based on a cost determination pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), the card issuer imposes a $30 over-the-limit fee. The consumer's next monthly payment brings the account balance below the credit limit. On July 15, another transaction causes the account balance to exceed the credit limit. The card issuer may impose another $30 over-the-limit fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) or may impose a $25 over-the-limit fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). However, the card issuer may not impose a $35 over-the-limit fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B). If the card issuer imposes a $25 fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) for the July 15 over-the-limit transaction and on September 15 another transaction causes the account balance to exceed the credit limit, the card issuer may impose a $35 fee for the September 15 over-the-limit transaction pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<HD3>ii. <I>Relationship between § 1026.52(b)(1) and (2).</I> Section 1026.52(b)(1) does not permit a card issuer to impose a fee that is inconsistent with the prohibitions in § 1026.52(b)(2). For example, if § 1026.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee that exceeds $7, § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to impose a higher late payment fee.
</HD3>
<P>52(b)(1)(i) Fees Based on Costs
</P>
<P>1. <I>Costs incurred as a result of violations.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(1)(i) does not require a card issuer to base a fee on the costs incurred as a result of a specific violation of the terms or other requirements of an account. Instead, for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a card issuer must have determined that a fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account represents a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of that type of violation. A card issuer may make a single determination for all of its credit card portfolios or may make separate determinations for each portfolio. The factors relevant to this determination include:
</P>
<P>i. The number of violations of a particular type experienced by the card issuer during a prior period of reasonable length (for example, a period of twelve months).
</P>
<P>ii. The costs incurred by the card issuer during that period as a result of those violations.
</P>
<P>iii. At the card issuer's option, the number of fees imposed by the card issuer as a result of those violations during that period that the card issuer reasonably estimates it will be unable to collect. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(1)(i)-5.
</P>
<P>iv. At the card issuer's option, reasonable estimates for an upcoming period of changes in the number of violations of that type, the resulting costs, and the number of fees that the card issuer will be unable to collect. <I>See</I> illustrative examples in comments 52(b)(1)(i)-6 through -9.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amounts excluded from cost analysis.</I> The following amounts are not costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of violations of the terms or other requirements of an account for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i):
</P>
<P>i. Losses and associated costs (including the cost of holding reserves against potential losses, the cost of funding delinquent accounts, and any collection costs that are incurred after an account is charged off in accordance with loan-loss provisions).
</P>
<P>ii. Costs associated with evaluating whether consumers who have not violated the terms or other requirements of an account are likely to do so in the future (such as the costs associated with underwriting new accounts). However, once a violation of the terms or other requirements of an account has occurred, the costs associated with preventing additional violations for a reasonable period of time are costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of violations of the terms or other requirements of an account for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Third-party charges.</I> As a general matter, amounts charged to the card issuer by a third party as a result of a violation of the terms or other requirements of an account are costs incurred by the card issuer for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i). For example, if a card issuer is charged a specific amount by a third party for each returned payment, that amount is a cost incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments. However, if the amount is charged to the card issuer by an affiliate or subsidiary of the card issuer, the card issuer must have determined that the charge represents a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the affiliate or subsidiary as a result of the type of violation. For example, if an affiliate of a card issuer provides collection services to the card issuer on delinquent accounts, the card issuer must have determined that the amounts charged to the card issuer by the affiliate for such services represent a reasonable proportion of the costs incurred by the affiliate as a result of late payments.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Amounts charged by other card issuers.</I> The fact that a card issuer's fees for violating the terms or other requirements of an account are comparable to fees assessed by other card issuers does not satisfy the requirements of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Uncollected fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a card issuer may consider fees that it is unable to collect when determining the appropriate fee amount. Fees that the card issuer is unable to collect include fees imposed on accounts that have been charged off by the card issuer, fees that have been discharged in bankruptcy, and fees that the card issuer is required to waive in order to comply with a legal requirement (such as a requirement imposed by this part or 50 U.S.C. app. 527). However, fees that the card issuer chooses not to impose or chooses not to collect (such as fees the card issuer chooses to waive at the request of the consumer or under a workout or temporary hardship arrangement) are not relevant for purposes of this determination. <I>See</I> illustrative examples in comments 52(b)(2)(i)-6 through -9.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Late payment fees.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of late payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of late payments include the costs associated with the collection of late payments, such as the costs associated with notifying consumers of delinquencies and resolving delinquencies (including the establishment of workout and temporary hardship arrangements).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A. <I>Late payment fee based on past delinquencies and costs.</I> Assume that, during year one, a card issuer experienced 1 million delinquencies and incurred $26 million in costs as a result of those delinquencies. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $26 late payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect.</I> Same facts as in comment 52(b)(1)(i)-6.ii.A except that the card issuer imposed a late payment fee for each of the 1 million delinquencies experienced during year one but was unable to collect 25% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 250,000 fees, leaving a total of 750,000 late payments for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), a late payment fee of $35 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes.</I> Same facts as in comments 52(b)(1)(i)-6.ii.A and B except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past delinquency rates and other factors relevant to potential delinquency rates for year two—it will experience a 2% decrease in delinquencies during year two (in other words, 20,000 fewer delinquencies for a total of 980,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect the same percentage of fees (25%) during year two as during year one (in other words, the card issuer will be unable to collect 245,000 fees, leaving a total of 735,000 late payments for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of delinquencies and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 5% increase in costs during year two (in other words, $1.3 million in additional costs for a total of $27.3 million). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $37 late payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of late payments during year two.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Returned payment fees.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of returned payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of returned payments include:
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with processing returned payments and reconciling the card issuer's systems and accounts to reflect returned payments;
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with investigating potential fraud with respect to returned payments; and
</P>
<P>C. Costs associated with notifying the consumer of the returned payment and arranging for a new payment.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A. <I>Returned payment fee based on past returns and costs.</I> Assume that, during year one, a card issuer experienced 150,000 returned payments and incurred $3.1 million in costs as a result of those returned payments. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $21 returned payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect.</I> Same facts as in comment 52(b)(1)(i)-7.ii.A except that the card issuer imposed a returned payment fee for each of the 150,000 returned payments experienced during year one but was unable to collect 15% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 22,500 fees, leaving a total of 127,500 returned payments for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), a returned payment fee of $24 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes.</I> Same facts as in comments 52(b)(1)(i)-7.ii.A and B except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past returned payment rates and other factors relevant to potential returned payment rates for year two—it will experience a 2% increase in returned payments during year two (in other words, 3,000 additional returned payments for a total of 153,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect 25% of returned payment fees during year two (in other words, the card issuer will be unable to collect 38,250 fees, leaving a total of 114,750 returned payments for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of returned payments and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 1% decrease in costs during year two (in other words, a $31,000 reduction in costs for a total of $3.069 million). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $27 returned payment fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of returned payments during year two.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Over-the-limit fees.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions include:
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with determining whether to authorize over-the-limit transactions; and
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with notifying the consumer that the credit limit has been exceeded and arranging for payments to reduce the balance below the credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Costs not incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), costs associated with obtaining the affirmative consent of consumers to the card issuer's payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit consistent with § 1026.56 are not costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> A. <I>Over-the-limit fee based on past fees and costs.</I> Assume that, during year one, a card issuer authorized 600,000 over-the-limit transactions and incurred $4.5 million in costs as a result of those over-the-limit transactions. However, because of the affirmative consent requirements in § 1026.56, the card issuer was only permitted to impose 200,000 over-the-limit fees during year one. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $23 over-the-limit fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Adjustment based on fees card issuer is unable to collect.</I> Same facts as in comment 52(b)(1)(i)-8.iii.A except that the card issuer was unable to collect 30% of the 200,000 over-the-limit fees imposed during year one (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 60,000 fees, leaving a total of 140,000 over-the-limit transactions for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), an over-the-limit fee of $32 would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Adjustment based on reasonable estimate of future changes.</I> Same facts as in comments 52(b)(1)(i)-8.iii.A and B except the card issuer reasonably estimates that—based on past over-the-limit transaction rates, the percentages of over-the-limit transactions that resulted in an over-the-limit fee in the past (consistent with § 1026.56), and factors relevant to potential changes in those rates and percentages for year two—it will authorize approximately the same number of over-the-limit transactions during year two (600,000) and impose approximately the same number of over-the-limit fees (200,000). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that it will be unable to collect the same percentage of fees (30%) during year two as during year one (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 60,000 fees, leaving a total of 140,000 over-the-limit transactions for which the card issuer will be able to collect a fee). The card issuer also reasonably estimates that—based on past changes in costs incurred as a result of over-the-limit transactions and other factors relevant to potential costs for year two—it will experience a 6% decrease in costs during year two (in other words, a $270,000 reduction in costs for a total of $4.23 million). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $30 over-the-limit fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of over-the-limit transactions during year two.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Declined access check fees.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Costs incurred as a result of declined access checks.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), the costs incurred by a card issuer as a result of declining payment on a check that accesses a credit card account include:
</P>
<P>A. Costs associated with determining whether to decline payment on access checks;
</P>
<P>B. Costs associated with processing declined access checks and reconciling the card issuer's systems and accounts to reflect declined access checks;
</P>
<P>C. Costs associated with investigating potential fraud with respect to declined access checks; and
</P>
<P>D. Costs associated with notifying the consumer and the merchant or other party that accepted the access check that payment on the check has been declined.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Example.</I> Assume that, during year one, a card issuer declined 100,000 access checks and incurred $2 million in costs as a result of those declined checks. The card issuer imposed a fee for each declined access check but was unable to collect 10% of those fees (in other words, the card issuer was unable to collect 10,000 fees, leaving a total of 90,000 declined access checks for which the card issuer did collect or could have collected a fee). For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i), a $22 declined access check fee would represent a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of declined access checks during year two.
</P>
<HD3>52(b)(1)(ii) Safe Harbors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Multiple violations of same type.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>Same billing cycle or next six billing cycles.</I> A card issuer other than a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3) cannot impose a late fee in excess of $8 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), regardless of whether the card issuer has imposed a late fee within the six previous billing cycles. For all other penalty fees, a card issuer cannot impose a fee for a violation pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) unless a fee has previously been imposed for the same type of violation pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). Once a fee has been imposed for a violation pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer may impose a fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) for any subsequent violation of the same type until that type of violation has not occurred for a period of six consecutive complete billing cycles. A fee has been imposed for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) even if the card issuer waives or rebates all or part of the fee.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Late payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), a late payment occurs during the billing cycle in which the payment may first be treated as late consistent with the requirements of this part and the terms or other requirements of the account.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Returned payments.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), a returned payment occurs during the billing cycle in which the payment is returned to the card issuer.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Transactions that exceed the credit limit.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), a transaction that exceeds the credit limit for an account occurs during the billing cycle in which the transaction occurs or is authorized by the card issuer.
</P>
<P>D. <I>Declined access checks.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), a check that accesses a credit card account is declined during the billing cycle in which the card issuer declines payment on the check.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Relationship to §§ 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) and 1026.56(j)(1).</I> If multiple violations are based on the same event or transaction such that § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing more than one fee, the event or transaction constitutes a single violation for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). Furthermore, consistent with § 1026.56(j)(1)(i), no more than one violation for exceeding an account's credit limit can occur during a single billing cycle for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit a card issuer from imposing fees for exceeding the credit limit in consecutive billing cycles based on the same over-the-limit transaction to the extent permitted by § 1026.56(j)(1). In these circumstances, the second and third over-the-limit fees permitted by § 1026.56(j)(1) may be imposed pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B). <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text and (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) with respect to credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that are not charge card accounts. For purposes of these examples, assume that the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3). Also assume that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Violations of same type (over the credit limit).</I> Consistent with § 1026.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On March 20, a transaction causes the account balance to increase to $1,150, which exceeds the account's $1,000 credit limit. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), the card issuer imposes a $25 over-the-limit fee for the March billing cycle. The card issuer receives a $300 payment on March 25, bringing the account below the credit limit. In order for the card issuer to impose a $35 over-the-limit fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), a second over-the-limit transaction must occur during the April, May, June, July, August, or September billing cycles.
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> Same facts as in the lead-in paragraph to comment 52(b)(1)(ii)-1.iii.A. On April 20, a transaction causes the account balance to increase to $1,200, which exceeds the account's $1,000 credit limit. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), the card issuer may impose a $35 over-the-limit fee for the April billing cycle. Furthermore, the card issuer may impose a $35 over-the-limit payment fee for any over-the-limit transaction or event that triggers an over-the-limit fee that occurs during the May, June, July, August, September, or October billing cycles, subject to the limitations in § 1026.56(j)(1).
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> Same facts as in the lead-in paragraph to comment 52(b)(1)(ii)-1.iii.A. The account remains below the limit from March 25 until October 20, when a transaction causes the account balance to exceed the credit limit. However, because this over-the-limit transaction did not occur during the six billing cycles following the March billing cycle, § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) only permits the card issuer to impose an over-the-limit fee of $25.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Violations of different types (late payment and over the credit limit).</I> The credit limit for an account is $1,000. Consistent with § 1026.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. A required minimum periodic payment of $35 is due on August 25. On August 26, a late payment has occurred because no payment has been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), the card issuer imposes a $8 late payment fee on August 26. On August 30, the card issuer receives a $35 payment. On September 10, a transaction causes the account balance to increase to $1,150, which exceeds the account's $1,000 credit limit. On September 11, a second transaction increases the account balance to $1,350. On September 23, the card issuer receives the $50 required minimum periodic payment due on September 25, which reduces the account balance to $1,300. On September 30, the card issuer imposes a $25 over-the-limit fee, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A). On October 26, a late payment has occurred because the $60 required minimum periodic payment due on October 25 has not been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) the card issuer imposes a $8 late payment fee on October 26.
</P>
<P>C. <I>Violations of different types (late payment and returned payment).</I> A required minimum periodic payment of $40 is due on July 25. On July 26, a late payment has occurred because no payment has been received. Accordingly, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), the card issuer imposes a $8 late payment fee on July 26. On July 30, the card issuer receives a $60 payment. A required minimum periodic payment of $40 is due on August 25. On August 24, a $40 payment is received. On August 27, the $40 payment is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds. In these circumstances, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) permits the card issuer to impose either a late payment fee or a returned payment fee but not both, because the late payment and the returned payment result from the same event or transaction. Accordingly, for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), the event or transaction constitutes a single violation. However, if the card issuer imposes a late payment fee, § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) permits the issuer to impose a fee of $8. If the card issuer imposes a returned payment fee, the amount of the fee may be no more than $25 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustments based on Consumer Price Index for penalty fees imposed pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B).</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B), the Bureau shall calculate each year price level adjusted amounts using the Consumer Price Index in effect on June 1 of that year. When the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current amounts in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) has risen by a whole dollar, those amounts will be increased by $1.00. Similarly, when the cumulative change in the adjusted minimum value derived from applying the annual Consumer Price level to the current amounts in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) has decreased by a whole dollar, those amounts will be decreased by $1.00. The Bureau will publish adjustments to the amounts in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B).
</P>
<P>i. <I>Historical thresholds.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $25 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $35 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2013.
</P>
<P>B. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $26 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $37 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2014.
</P>
<P>C. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $27 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $38 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2015.
</P>
<P>D. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $27 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A), through December 31, 2016. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $37 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through June 26, 2016, and $38 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) from June 27, 2016, through December 31, 2016.
</P>
<P>E. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $27 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $38 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2017.
</P>
<P>F. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $27 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $38 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2018.
</P>
<P>G. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $28 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $39 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2019.
</P>
<P>H. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $29 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $40 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2020.
</P>
<P>I. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $29 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $40 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through December 31, 2021.
</P>
<P>J. Card issuers were permitted to impose a fee for violating the terms of an agreement if the fee did not exceed $30 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and $41 under § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), through May 13, 2024.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Delinquent balance for charge card accounts.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) provides that, when a charge card issuer that requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle has not received the required payment for two or more consecutive billing cycles, the card issuer may impose a late payment fee that does not exceed three percent of the delinquent balance. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the delinquent balance is any previously billed amount that remains unpaid at the time the late payment fee is imposed pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C). Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii), a charge card issuer that imposes a fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) with respect to a late payment may not impose a fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B) with respect to the same late payment. The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C):
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a charge card issuer requires payment of outstanding balances in full at the end of each billing cycle and that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. Also assume that the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3). At the end of the June billing cycle, the account has a balance of $1,000. On July 5, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing the $1,000 balance consistent with § 1026.7. During the July billing cycle, the account is used for $292 in transactions, increasing the balance to $1,292. At the end of the July billing cycle, no payment has been received and the card issuer imposes a $8 late payment fee consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). On August 5, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing the $1,300 balance consistent with § 1026.7. During the August billing cycle, the account is used for $200 in transactions, increasing the balance to $1,500. At the end of the August billing cycle, no payment has been received. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $39, which is 3% of the $1,300 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle. Section 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C) does not permit the card issuer to include the $200 in transactions that occurred during the August billing cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(1)(ii)-3.i except that, on August 25, a $100 payment is received. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $36, which is 3% of the unpaid portion of the $1,300 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle ($1,200).
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(1)(ii)-3.i except that, on August 25, a $200 payment is received. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(C), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $33, which is 3% of the unpaid portion of the $1,300 balance that was due at the end of the August billing cycle ($1,100). In the alternative, the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Smaller card issuers.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(E) provides that a card issuer meeting the definition of smaller card issuer in § 1026.52(b)(3) may impose a fee for a late payment on an account if the dollar amount of the fee does not exceed the amount in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) or (B), as applicable, notwithstanding the $8 limit on the amount of a late fee in § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii). Thus, assuming that the original historical safe harbor threshold amounts apply, a smaller card issuer may impose a late fee of $25 for a first late payment violation and a late fee of $35 for a late payment violation that occurs during the same billing cycle or one of the next six billing cycles, provided that those amounts are consistent with § 1026.52(b)(2).
















































































</P>
<HD2>52(b)(2) Prohibited Fees
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.52(b)(1).</I> A card issuer does not comply with § 1026.52(b) if it imposes a fee that is inconsistent with the prohibitions in § 1026.52(b)(2). Thus, the prohibitions in § 1026.52(b)(2) apply even if a fee is consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) or (ii). For example, even if a card issuer has determined for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) that a $27 fee represents a reasonable proportion of the total costs incurred by the card issuer as a result of a particular type of violation, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing that fee if the dollar amount associated with the violation is less than $27. Similarly, even if § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) permits a card issuer to impose a $25 fee, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing that fee if the dollar amount associated with the violation is less than $25.
</P>
<HD3>52(b)(2)(i) Fees That Exceed Dollar Amount Associated With Violation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Late payment fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with a late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due immediately prior to assessment of the late payment fee. Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a late payment fee that exceeds the amount of that required minimum periodic payment. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a $15 required minimum periodic payment is due on September 25. The card issuer does not receive any payment on or before September 25. On September 26, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on September 25 ($15). Thus, under § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of that fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)).
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<P>ii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(2)(i)-1.i except that, on September 25, the card issuer receives a $10 payment. No further payments are received. On September 26, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the full amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on September 25 ($15), rather than the unpaid portion of that payment ($5). Thus, under § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of the late payment fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)).
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<P>iii. Assume that a $15 required minimum periodic payment is due on October 28 and the billing cycle for the account closes on October 31. The card issuer does not receive any payment on or before November 3. On November 3, the card issuer determines that the required minimum periodic payment due on November 28 is $50. On November 5, the card issuer imposes a late payment fee. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the late payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on October 28 ($15), rather than the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on November 28 ($50). Thus, under § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the amount of that fee cannot exceed $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)).
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<P>2. <I>Returned payment fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with a returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due immediately prior to the date on which the payment is returned to the card issuer. Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds the amount of that required minimum periodic payment. However, if a payment has been returned and is submitted again for payment by the card issuer, there is no additional dollar amount associated with a subsequent return of that payment and § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an additional returned payment fee. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. A minimum payment of $15 is due on March 25. The card issuer receives a check for $100 on March 23, which is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds on March 26. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 ($15). Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)). Furthermore, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from assessing both a late payment fee and a returned payment fee in these circumstances. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
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<P>ii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(2)(i)-2.i except that the card issuer receives the $100 check on March 31 and the check is returned for insufficient funds on April 2. The minimum payment due on April 25 is $30. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 ($15), rather than the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on April 25 ($30). Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)). Furthermore, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from assessing both a late payment fee and a returned payment fee in these circumstances. <I>See</I> comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.
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<P>iii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(2)(i)-2.i except that, on March 28, the card issuer presents the $100 check for payment a second time. On April 1, the check is again returned for insufficient funds. Section 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee based on the return of the payment on April 1.
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<P>iv. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. A minimum payment of $15 is due on August 25. The card issuer receives a check for $15 on August 23, which is not returned. The card issuer receives a check for $50 on September 5, which is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds on September 7. Section 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee in these circumstances. Instead, for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the returned payment is the amount of the required minimum periodic payment due on August 25 ($15). Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a returned payment fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)).
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<P>3. <I>Over-the-limit fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit for an account is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the billing cycle in which the over-the-limit fee is imposed. Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee that exceeds that amount. Nothing in § 1026.52(b) permits a card issuer to impose an over-the-limit fee if imposition of the fee is inconsistent with § 1026.56. The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) to over-the-limit fees:
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<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account with a credit limit of $5,000 begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. Assume also that, consistent with § 1026.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On March 1, the account has a $4,950 balance. On March 6, a $60 transaction is charged to the account, increasing the balance to $5,010. On March 25, a $5 transaction is charged to the account, increasing the balance to $5,015. On the last day of the billing cycle (March 31), the card issuer imposes an over-the-limit fee. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the March billing cycle ($15). Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee that exceeds $15 (even if a higher fee would be permitted under § 1026.52(b)(1)).
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<P>ii. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(2)(i)-3.i except that, on March 26, the card issuer receives a payment of $20, reducing the balance below the credit limit to $4,995. Nevertheless, for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the extensions of credit in excess of the credit limit is the total amount of credit extended by the card issuer in excess of the credit limit during the March billing cycle ($15). Thus, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $15.
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<P>4. <I>Declined access check fees.</I> For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with declining payment on a check that accesses a credit card account is the amount of the check. Thus, when a check that accesses a credit card account is declined, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee that exceeds the amount of that check. For example, assume that a check that accesses a credit card account is used as payment for a $50 transaction, but payment on the check is declined by the card issuer because the transaction would have exceeded the credit limit for the account. For purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(i), the dollar amount associated with the declined check is the amount of the check ($50). Thus, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(A) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a fee that exceeds $50. However, the amount of this fee must also comply with § 1026.52(b)(1)(i) or (ii).
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<P>5. <I>Inactivity fees.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee with respect to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan based on inactivity on that account (including the consumer's failure to use the account for a particular number or dollar amount of transactions or a particular type of transaction). For example, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a $50 fee when a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is not used for at least $2,000 in purchases over the course of a year. Similarly, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a $50 annual fee on all accounts of a particular type but waiving the fee on any account that is used for at least $2,000 in purchases over the course of a year if the card issuer promotes the waiver or rebate of the annual fee for purposes of § 1026.55(e). However, if the card issuer does not promote the waiver or rebate of the annual fee for purposes of § 1026.55(e), § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>2</I>) does not prohibit a card issuer from considering account activity along with other factors when deciding whether to waive or rebate annual fees on individual accounts (such as in response to a consumer's request).
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<P>6. <I>Closed account fees.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing a fee based on the closure or termination of an account. For example, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3</I>) prohibits a card issuer from:
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<P>i. Imposing a one-time fee to consumers who close their accounts.
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<P>ii. Imposing a periodic fee (such as an annual fee, a monthly maintenance fee, or a closed account fee) after an account is closed or terminated if that fee was not imposed prior to closure or termination. This prohibition applies even if the fee was disclosed prior to closure or termination. <I>See also</I> comment 55(d)-1.
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<P>iii. Increasing a periodic fee (such as an annual fee or a monthly maintenance fee) after an account is closed or terminated. However, a card issuer is not prohibited from continuing to impose a periodic fee that was imposed before the account was closed or terminated.
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<P>7. <I>Declined transaction fees.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) states that card issuers must not impose a fee when there is no dollar amount associated with the violation, such as for transactions that the card issuer declines to authorize. With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 where the credit feature is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) prohibits a card issuer from imposing declined transaction fees in connection with the credit feature, regardless of whether the declined transaction fee is imposed on the credit feature or on the asset feature of the prepaid account. For example, if the prepaid card attempts to access credit from the covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card and the transaction is declined, § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a declined transaction fee, regardless of whether the fee is imposed on the credit feature or on the asset feature of the prepaid account. Fees imposed for declining a transaction that would have only accessed the asset feature of the prepaid account and would not have accessed the covered separate credit feature accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit are not covered by § 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>).
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<HD3>52(b)(2)(ii) Multiple Fees Based on a Single Event or Transaction
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<P>1. <I>Single event or transaction.</I> Section 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits a card issuer from imposing more than one fee for violating the terms or other requirements of an account based on a single event or transaction. If § 1026.56(j)(1) permits a card issuer to impose fees for exceeding the credit limit in consecutive billing cycles based on the same over-the-limit transaction, those fees are not based on a single event or transaction for purposes of § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii). The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii). Assume for purposes of these examples that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month.
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<P>i. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $20 and the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3). On March 26, the card issuer has not received any payment and imposes a late payment fee. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2)(i), the card issuer may impose an $8 late payment fee on March 26. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an additional late payment fee if the $20 minimum payment has not been received by a subsequent date (such as March 31).
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<P>A. On April 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $70 required minimum periodic payment is due on April 25. This minimum payment includes the $20 minimum payment due on March 25 and the $8 late payment fee imposed on March 26. On April 20, the card issuer receives a $20 payment. No additional payments are received during the April billing cycle. Section 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee based on the consumer's failure to make the $70 required minimum periodic payment on or before April 25. Accordingly, consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) and (b)(2)(i), the card issuer may impose an $8 late payment fee on April 26.
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<P>B. On April 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $20 required minimum periodic payment is due on April 25. This minimum payment does not include the $20 minimum payment due on March 25 or the $8 late payment fee imposed on March 26. On April 20, the card issuer receives a $20 payment. No additional payments are received during the April billing cycle. Because the card issuer has received the required minimum periodic payment due on April 25 and because § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a second late payment fee based on the consumer's failure to make the $20 minimum payment due on March 25, the card issuer cannot impose a late payment fee in these circumstances.
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<P>ii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $30 and the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3).
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<P>A. On March 25, the card issuer receives a check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 27. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text, (b)(1)(ii)(A), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 or a returned payment fee of $25. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>B. Same facts as in comment 52(b)(2)(ii)-1.ii.A except that that card issuer receives the $50 check on March 27 and the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 29. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text, (b)(1)(ii)(A), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 or a returned payment fee of $25. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction. If no payment is received on or before the next payment due date (April 25), § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing a late payment fee.
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<P>iii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on July 25 is $30 and the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3). On July 10, the card issuer receives a $50 payment, which is not returned. On July 20, the card issuer receives a $100 payment, which is returned for insufficient funds on July 24. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25. Nothing in § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the imposition of this fee.
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<P>iv. Assume that the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3) and the credit limit for an account is $1,000 and that, consistent with § 1026.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On March 31, the balance on the account is $970 and the card issuer has not received the $35 required minimum periodic payment due on March 25. On that same date (March 31), a $70 transaction is charged to the account, which increases the balance to $1,040. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text, (b)(1)(ii)(A), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 and an over-the-limit fee of $25. Section 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) does not prohibit the imposition of both fees because those fees are based on different events or transactions. No additional transactions are charged to the account during the March, April, or May billing cycles. If the account balance remains more than $35 above the credit limit on April 26, the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), to the extent consistent with § 1026.56(j)(1). Furthermore, if the account balance remains more than $35 above the credit limit on May 26, the card issuer may again impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B), to the extent consistent with § 1026.56(j)(1). Thereafter, § 1026.56(j)(1) does not permit the card issuer to impose additional over-the-limit fees unless another over-the-limit transaction occurs. However, if an over-the-limit transaction occurs during the six billing cycles following the May billing cycle, the card issuer may impose an over-the-limit fee of $35 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(B).
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<P>v. Assume that the credit limit for an account is $5,000 and that, consistent with § 1026.56, the consumer has affirmatively consented to the payment of transactions that exceed the credit limit. On July 23, the balance on the account is $4,950. On July 24, the card issuer receives the $100 required minimum periodic payment due on July 25, reducing the balance to $4,850. On July 26, a $75 transaction is charged to the account, which increases the balance to $4,925. On July 27, the $100 payment is returned for insufficient funds, increasing the balance to $5,025. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25 or an over-the-limit fee of $25. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>vi. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 is $50 and the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3). On March 20, the card issuer receives a check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 22. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(A) and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a returned payment fee of $25. On March 25, the card issuer receives a second check for $50, but the check is returned for insufficient funds on March 27. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text, (b)(1)(ii)(A) and (B), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 or a returned payment fee of $35. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction.
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<P>vii. Assume that the required minimum periodic payment due on February 25 is $100 and the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(3). On February 25, the card issuer receives a check for $100. On March 3, the card issuer provides a periodic statement disclosing that a $120 required minimum periodic payment is due on March 25. On March 4, the $100 check is returned to the card issuer for insufficient funds. Consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) introductory text, (b)(1)(ii)(A), and (b)(2)(i)(A), the card issuer may impose a late payment fee of $8 or a returned payment fee of $25 with respect to the $100 payment. However, § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing both fees because those fees would be based on a single event or transaction. On March 20, the card issuer receives a $120 check, which is not returned. No additional payments are received during the March billing cycle. Because the card issuer has received the required minimum periodic payment due on March 25 and because § 1026.52(b)(2)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing a second fee based on the $100 payment that was returned for insufficient funds, the card issuer cannot impose a late payment fee in these circumstances.
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<HD3>52(b)(3) Smaller Card Issuer
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<HD3>52(b)(3)(i)
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<P>1. <I>Entire calendar year.</I> To meet the definition of smaller card issuer, a card issuer together with its affiliates must have fewer than one million open credit accounts for the entire preceding calendar year. Thus, for example, if a card issuer together with its affiliates had more than one million open credit card accounts from January through October of the preceding calendar year but had fewer than that threshold number in November and December, the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer in the next calendar year. Further, the card issuer is not a smaller card issuer until such time that the card issuer's number of open credit card accounts, together with those of its affiliates, remains below one million for an entire preceding calendar year.
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<HD3>52(b)(3)(ii)
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<P>1. <I>Meeting or exceeding threshold in current calendar year.</I> If a card issuer together with its affiliates had fewer than one million open credit card accounts for the entire preceding calendar year but meets or exceeds that number of open credit card accounts in the current calendar year, then the card issuer will no longer meet the definition of smaller card issuer and therefore may not impose a late fee pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii)(E) as of 60 days after meeting or exceeding the threshold number of open credit card accounts. For purposes of imposing a late fee pursuant to the safe harbor provisions, the card issuer may impose a late fee of no more than $8 pursuant to § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii) as of the 60th day.






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<HD2>Section 1026.53—Allocation of Payments
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<P>1. <I>Required minimum periodic payment.</I> Section 1026.53 addresses the allocation of amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the minimum periodic payment required by the card issuer. Section 1026.53 does not limit or otherwise address the card issuer's ability to determine, consistent with applicable law and regulatory guidance, the amount of the required minimum periodic payment or how that payment is allocated. A card issuer may, but is not required to, allocate the required minimum periodic payment consistent with the requirements in § 1026.53 to the extent consistent with other applicable law or regulatory guidance.
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<P>2. <I>Applicable rates and balances.</I> Section 1026.53 permits a card issuer to allocate an amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment based on the annual percentage rates and balances on the day the preceding billing cycle ends, on the day the payment is credited to the account, or on any day in between those two dates. The day used by the card issuer to determine the applicable annual percentage rates and balances for purposes of § 1026.53 generally must be consistent from billing cycle to billing cycle, although the card issuer may adjust this day from time to time. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account start on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. On the date the March billing cycle ends (March 31), the account has a purchase balance of $500 at a promotional annual percentage rate of 5% and another purchase balance of $200 at a non-promotional annual percentage rate of 15%. On April 5, a $100 purchase to which the 15% rate applies is charged to the account. On April 15, the promotional rate expires and § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to the $500 balance from 5% to 18%. On April 25, the card issuer credits to the account $400 paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. If the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the last day of the prior billing cycle, the card issuer would allocate the $400 payment to pay in full the $200 balance to which the 15% rate applied on March 31 and then allocate the remaining $200 to the $500 balance to which the 5% rate applied on March 31. In the alternative, if the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the day a payment is credited to the account, the card issuer would allocate the $400 payment to the $500 balance to which the 18% rate applied on April 25.
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on April 25, the card issuer credits to the account $750 paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. If the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the last day of the prior billing cycle, the card issuer would allocate the $750 payment to pay in full the $200 balance to which the 15% rate applied on March 31 and the $500 balance to which the 5% rate applied on March 31 and then allocate the remaining $50 to the $100 purchase made on April 5. In the alternative, if the card issuer's practice is to allocate payments based on the rates and balances on the day a payment is credited to the account, the card issuer would allocate the $750 payment to pay in full the $500 balance to which the 18% rate applied on April 25 and then allocate the remaining $250 to the $300 balance to which the 15% rate applied on April 25.
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<P>3. <I>Claims or defenses under § 1026.12(c) and billing error disputes under § 1026.13.</I> When a consumer has asserted a claim or defense against the card issuer pursuant to § 1026.12(c) or alleged a billing error under § 1026.13, the card issuer must apply the consumer's payment in a manner that avoids or minimizes any reduction in the amount subject to that claim, defense, or dispute. For example:
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<P>i. Assume that a credit card account has a $500 cash advance balance at an annual percentage rate of 25% and a $1,000 purchase balance at an annual percentage rate of 17%. Assume also that $200 of the cash advance balance is subject to a claim or defense under § 1026.12(c) or a billing error dispute under § 1026.13. If the consumer pays $900 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment, the card issuer must allocate $300 of the excess payment to pay in full the portion of the cash advance balance that is not subject to the claim, defense, or dispute and then allocate the remaining $600 to the $1,000 purchase balance.
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that the consumer pays $1,400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. The card issuer must allocate $1,300 of the excess payment to pay in full the $300 cash advance balance that is not subject to the claim, defense, or dispute and the $1,000 purchase balance. If there are no new transactions or other amounts to which the remaining $100 can be allocated, the card issuer may apply that amount to the $200 cash advance balance that is subject to the claim, defense, or dispute. However, if the card issuer subsequently determines that a billing error occurred as asserted by the consumer, the card issuer must credit the account for the disputed amount and any related finance or other charges and send a correction notice consistent with § 1026.13(e).
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<P>4. <I>Balances with the same rate.</I> When the same annual percentage rate applies to more than one balance on an account and a different annual percentage rate applies to at least one other balance on that account, § 1026.53 generally does not require that any particular method be used when allocating among the balances with the same annual percentage rate. Under these circumstances, a card issuer may treat the balances with the same rate as a single balance or separate balances. <I>See</I> example in comment 53-5.iv. However, when a balance on a credit card account is subject to a deferred interest or similar program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on the balance if the balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time, that balance must be treated as a balance with an annual percentage rate of zero for purposes of § 1026.53 during that period of time. For example, if an account has a $1,000 purchase balance and a $2,000 balance that is subject to a deferred interest program that expires on July 1 and a 15% annual percentage rate applies to both, the balances must be treated as balances with different rates for purposes of § 1026.53 until July 1. In addition, unless the card issuer allocates amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment in the manner requested by the consumer pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii), § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to apply any excess payments first to the $1,000 purchase balance except during the last two billing cycles of the deferred interest period (when it must be applied first to any remaining portion of the $2,000 balance). <I>See</I> example in comment 53-5.v.
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<P>5. <I>Examples.</I> For purposes of the following examples, assume that none of the required minimum periodic payment is allocated to the balances discussed (unless otherwise stated).
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<P>i. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and a purchase balance of $1,500 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and that the consumer pays $800 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 1026.53(a), the card issuer must allocate $500 to pay off the cash advance balance and then allocate the remaining $300 to the purchase balance.
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<P>ii. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and a purchase balance of $1,500 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and that the consumer pays $400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 1026.53(a), the card issuer must allocate the entire $400 to the cash advance balance.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $100 at an annual percentage rate of 20%, a purchase balance of $300 at an annual percentage rate of 18%, and a $600 protected balance on which the 12% annual percentage rate cannot be increased pursuant to § 1026.55. If the consumer pays $500 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment, § 1026.53(a) requires the card issuer to allocate $100 to pay off the cash advance balance, $300 to pay off the purchase balance, and $100 to the protected balance.
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<P>iv. Assume that a credit card account has a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20%, a purchase balance of $1,000 at an annual percentage rate of 15%, and a transferred balance of $2,000 that was previously at a discounted annual percentage rate of 5% but is now at an annual percentage rate of 15%. Assume also that the consumer pays $800 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Under § 1026.53(a), the card issuer must allocate $500 to pay off the cash advance balance and allocate the remaining $300 among the purchase balance and the transferred balance in the manner the card issuer deems appropriate.
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<P>v. Assume that on January 1 a consumer uses a credit card account to make a $1,200 purchase subject to a deferred interest program under which interest accrues at an annual percentage rate of 15% but the consumer will not be obligated to pay that interest if the balance is paid in full on or before June 30. The billing cycles for this account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. Each month from January through June, the consumer uses the account to make $200 in purchases that are not subject to the deferred interest program but are subject to the 15% rate.
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<P>A. Each month from February through June, the consumer pays $400 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment on the payment due date, which is the twenty-fifth of the month. Any interest that accrues on the purchases not subject to the deferred interest program is paid by the required minimum periodic payment. The card issuer does not accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii). Thus, § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the $400 excess payments received on February 25, March 25, and April 25 consistent with § 1026.53(a). In other words, the card issuer must allocate those payments as follows: $200 to pay off the balance not subject to the deferred interest program (which is subject to the 15% rate) and the remaining $200 to the deferred interest balance (which is treated as a balance with a rate of zero). However, § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the entire $400 excess payment received on May 25 to the deferred interest balance. Similarly, § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate the $400 excess payment received on June 25 as follows: $200 to the deferred interest balance (which pays that balance in full) and the remaining $200 to the balance not subject to the deferred interest program.
</P>
<P>B. Same facts as above, except that the card issuer does accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii). In addition, on April 25, the card issuer receives an excess payment of $800, which the consumer requests be allocated to pay off the $800 balance subject to the deferred interest program. Section 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) permits the card issuer to allocate the $800 excess payment in the manner requested by the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>53(b) Special Rules
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Deferred interest and similar programs.</I> Section 1026.53(b)(1) applies to deferred interest or similar programs under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. For purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1), “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 1026.16(h)(2) and associated commentary. Section 1026.53(b)(1) applies regardless of whether the consumer is required to make payments with respect to that balance during the specified period. However, a grace period during which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate is not a deferred interest or similar program for purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1). Similarly, a temporary annual percentage rate of zero percent that applies for a specified period of time consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1) is not a deferred interest or similar program for purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1) unless the consumer may be obligated to pay interest that accrues during the period if a balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the period.
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<P>2. <I>Expiration of deferred interest or similar program during billing cycle.</I> For purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1)(i), a billing cycle does not constitute one of the two billing cycles immediately preceding expiration of a deferred interest or similar program if the expiration date for the program precedes the payment due date in that billing cycle. For example, assume that a credit card account has a balance subject to a deferred interest program that expires on June 15. Assume also that the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the required minimum periodic payment is due on the twenty-fifth day of the month. The card issuer does not accept requests from consumers regarding the allocation of excess payments pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii). Because the expiration date for the deferred interest program (June 15) precedes the due date in the June billing cycle (June 25), § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) requires the card issuer to allocate first to the deferred interest balance any amount paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment during the April and May billing cycles (as well as any amount paid by the consumer before June 15). However, if the deferred interest program expired on June 25 or on June 30 (or on any day in between), § 1026.53(b)(1)(i) would apply only to the May and June billing cycles.
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<P>3. <I>Consumer requests.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> Section 1026.53(b) does not require a card issuer to allocate amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment in the manner requested by the consumer, provided that the card issuer instead allocates such amounts consistent with § 1026.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable. For example, a card issuer may decline consumer requests regarding payment allocation as a general matter or may decline such requests when a consumer does not comply with requirements set by the card issuer (such as submitting the request in writing or submitting the request prior to or contemporaneously with submission of the payment), provided that amounts paid by the consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment are allocated consistent with § 1026.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable. Similarly, a card issuer that accepts requests pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) must allocate amounts paid by a consumer in excess of the required minimum periodic payment consistent with § 1026.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, if the consumer does not submit a request. Furthermore, a card issuer that accepts requests pursuant to § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) must allocate consistent with § 1026.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, if the consumer submits a request with which the card issuer cannot comply (such as a request that contains a mathematical error), unless the consumer submits an additional request with which the card issuer can comply.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples of consumer requests that satisfy § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2).</I> A consumer has made a request for purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) if:
</P>
<P>A. The consumer contacts the card issuer orally, electronically, or in writing and specifically requests that a payment or payments be allocated in a particular manner during the period of time that the deferred interest or similar program applies to a balance on the account or the period of time that a balance on the account is secured.
</P>
<P>B. The consumer completes and submits to the card issuer a form or payment coupon provided by the card issuer for the purpose of requesting that a payment or payments be allocated in a particular manner during the period of time that the deferred interest or similar program applies to a balance on the account or the period of time that a balance on the account is secured.
</P>
<P>C. The consumer contacts the card issuer orally, electronically, or in writing and specifically requests that a payment that the card issuer has previously allocated consistent with § 1026.53(a) or (b)(1)(i), as applicable, instead be allocated in a different manner.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Examples of consumer requests that do not satisfy § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2).</I> A consumer has not made a request for purposes of § 1026.53(b)(1)(ii) or (b)(2) if:
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<P>A. The terms and conditions of the account agreement contain preprinted language stating that by applying to open an account, by using that account for transactions subject to a deferred interest or similar program, or by using the account to purchase property in which the card issuer holds a security interest the consumer requests that payments be allocated in a particular manner.
</P>
<P>B. The card issuer's online application contains a preselected check box indicating that the consumer requests that payments be allocated in a particular manner and the consumer does not deselect the box.
</P>
<P>C. The payment coupon provided by the card issuer contains preprinted language or a preselected check box stating that by submitting a payment the consumer requests that the payment be allocated in a particular manner.
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<P>D. The card issuer requires a consumer to accept a particular payment allocation method as a condition of using a deferred interest or similar program, purchasing property in which the card issuer holds a security interest, making a payment, or receiving account services or features.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.54—Limitations on the Imposition of Finance Charges 
</HD2>
<HD3>54(a) Limitations on imposing finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period 
</HD3>
<HD3>54(a)(1) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Eligibility for grace period.</I> Section 1026.54 prohibits the imposition of finance charges as a result of the loss of a grace period in certain specified circumstances. Section 1026.54 does not require the card issuer to provide a grace period. Furthermore, § 1026.54 does not prohibit the card issuer from placing limitations and conditions on a grace period (such as limiting application of the grace period to certain types of transactions or conditioning eligibility for the grace period on certain transactions being paid in full by a particular date), provided that such limitations and conditions are consistent with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 1026.54. Finally, § 1026.54 does not limit the imposition of finance charges with respect to a transaction when the consumer is not eligible for a grace period on that transaction at the end of the billing cycle in which the transaction occurred. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. Assume also that, for purchases made during the current billing cycle (for purposes of this example, the June billing cycle), the grace period applies from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle (July 25), subject to two conditions. First, the purchase balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle (the May billing cycle) must have been paid in full by the payment due date in the current billing cycle (June 25). Second, the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) must be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). Finally, assume that the consumer was eligible for a grace period at the start of the June billing cycle (in other words, assume that the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25).
</P>
<P>A. If the consumer pays the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, then at the end of the June billing cycle the consumer is eligible for a grace period with respect to purchases made during that billing cycle. Therefore, § 1026.54 limits the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle if the consumer does not pay the purchase balance for the June billing cycle in full by July 25. Specifically, § 1026.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on the purchase balance at the end of the June billing cycle for days that precede the July billing cycle. Furthermore, § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on any portion of the balance at the end of the June billing cycle that was paid on or before July 25.
</P>
<P>B. If the consumer does not pay the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, then the consumer is not eligible for a grace period with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle at the end of that cycle. Therefore, § 1026.54 does not limit the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle regardless of whether the consumer pays the purchase balance for the June billing cycle in full by July 25.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that the card issuer places only one condition on the provision of a grace period for purchases made during the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle): that the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). In these circumstances, § 1026.54 applies to the same extent as discussed in paragraphs i.A and i.B above regardless of whether the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Definition of grace period.</I> For purposes of §§ 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and 1026.54, a grace period is a period within which any credit extended may be repaid without incurring a finance charge due to a periodic interest rate. The following are not grace periods for purposes of § 1026.54:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Deferred interest and similar programs.</I> A deferred interest or similar promotional program under which a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time is not a grace period for purposes of § 1026.54. Thus, § 1026.54 does not prohibit the card issuer from charging accrued interest to an account upon expiration of a deferred interest or similar program if the balance was not paid in full prior to expiration (to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law and regulatory guidance).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Waivers or rebates of interest.</I> As a general matter, a card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to transactions for purposes of § 1026.54 if, on an individualized basis (such as in response to a consumer's request), the card issuer waives or rebates finance charges that have accrued on transactions. In addition, when a balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle is paid in full on or before the payment due date in the current billing cycle, a card issuer that waives or rebates trailing or residual interest accrued on that balance or any other transactions during the current billing cycle has not provided a grace period with respect to that balance or any other transactions for purposes of § 1026.54. However, if the terms of the account provide that all interest accrued on transactions will be waived or rebated if the balance for those transactions at the end of the billing cycle during which the transactions occurred is paid in full by the following payment due date, the card issuer is providing a grace period with respect to those transactions for purposes of § 1026.54. For example:
</P>
<P>A. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. On March 31, the balance on the account is $1,000 and the consumer is not eligible for a grace period with respect to that balance because the balance at the end of the prior billing cycle was not paid in full on March 25. On April 15, the consumer uses the account for a $500 purchase. On April 25, the card issuer receives a payment of $1,000. On May 3, the card issuer mails or delivers a periodic statement reflecting trailing or residual interest that accrued on the $1,000 balance from April 1 through April 24 as well as interest that accrued on the $500 purchase from April 15 through April 30. On May 10, the consumer requests that the trailing or residual interest charges be waived and the card issuer complies. By waiving these interest charges, the card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to the $1,000 balance or the $500 purchase.
</P>
<P>B. Same facts as in paragraph ii.A above except that the terms of the account state that trailing or residual interest will be waived in these circumstances or it is the card issuer's practice to waive trailing or residual interest in these circumstances. By waiving these interest charges, the card issuer has not provided a grace period with respect to the $1,000 balance or the $500 purchase.
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<P>C. Assume that the billing cycles for a credit card account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the payment due date is the twenty-fifth day of the month. Assume also that, for purchases made during the current billing cycle (for purposes of this example, the June billing cycle), the terms of the account provide that interest accrued on those purchases from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle (July 25) will be waived or rebated, subject to two conditions. First, the purchase balance at the end of the preceding billing cycle (the May billing cycle) must have been paid in full by the payment due date in the current billing cycle (June 25). Second, the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle (the June billing cycle) must be paid in full by the following payment due date (July 25). Under these circumstances, the card issuer is providing a grace period on purchases for purposes of § 1026.54. Therefore, assuming that the consumer was eligible for this grace period at the start of the June billing cycle (in other words, assuming that the purchase balance for the April billing cycle was paid in full by May 25) and assuming that the consumer pays the purchase balance for the May billing cycle in full by June 25, § 1026.54 applies to the imposition of finance charges with respect to purchases made during the June billing cycle. Specifically, § 1026.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on the purchase balance at the end of the June billing cycle for days that precede the July billing cycle. Furthermore, § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges based on any portion of the balance at the end of the June billing cycle that was paid on or before July 25.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship to payment allocation requirements in § 1026.53.</I> Card issuers must comply with the payment allocation requirements in § 1026.53 even if doing so will result in the loss of a grace period.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prohibition on two-cycle balance computation method.</I> When a consumer ceases to be eligible for a grace period, § 1026.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from computing the finance charge using the two-cycle average daily balance computation method. This method calculates the finance charge using a balance that is the sum of the average daily balances for two billing cycles. The first balance is for the current billing cycle, and is calculated by adding the total balance (including or excluding new purchases and deducting payments and credits) for each day in the billing cycle, and then dividing by the number of days in the billing cycle. The second balance is for the preceding billing cycle.
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<P>5. <I>Prohibition on imposing finance charges on amounts paid within grace period.</I> When a balance on a credit card account is eligible for a grace period and the card issuer receives payment for some but not all of that balance prior to the expiration of the grace period, § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from imposing finance charges on the portion of the balance paid. Card issuers are not required to use a particular method to comply with § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii). However, when § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) applies, a card issuer is in compliance if, for example, it applies the consumer's payment to the balance subject to the grace period at the end of the preceding billing cycle (in a manner consistent with the payment allocation requirements in § 1026.53) and then calculates interest charges based on the amount of the balance that remains unpaid.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Examples.</I> Assume that the annual percentage rate for purchases on a credit card account is 15%. The billing cycle starts on the first day of the month and ends on the last day of the month. The payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month. For purchases made during the current billing cycle, the card issuer provides a grace period from the date of the purchase until the payment due date in the following billing cycle, provided that the purchase balance at the end of the current billing cycle is paid in full by the following payment due date. For purposes of this example, assume that none of the required minimum periodic payment is allocated to the balances discussed. During the March billing cycle, the following transactions are charged to the account: A $100 purchase on March 10, a $200 purchase on March 15, and a $300 purchase on March 20. On March 25, the purchase balance for the February billing cycle is paid in full. Thus, for purposes of § 1026.54, the consumer is eligible for a grace period on the March purchases. At the end of the March billing cycle (March 31), the consumer's total purchase balance is $600 and the consumer will not be charged interest on that balance if it is paid in full by the following due date (April 25).
</P>
<P>i. On April 10, a $150 purchase is charged to the account. On April 25, the card issuer receives $500 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. Section 1026.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from reaching back and charging interest on any of the March transactions from the date of the transaction through the end of the March billing cycle (March 31). In these circumstances, the card issuer may comply with § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) by applying the $500 excess payment to the $600 purchase balance and then charging interest only on the portion of the $600 purchase balance that remains unpaid ($100) from the start of the April billing cycle (April 1) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 30). In addition, the card issuer may charge interest on the $150 purchase from the date of the transaction (April 10) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 31).
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as in paragraph 6 above except that, on March 18, a $250 cash advance is charged to the account at an annual percentage rate of 25%. The card issuer's grace period does not apply to cash advances, but the card issuer does provide a grace period on the March purchases because the purchase balance for the February billing cycle is paid in full on March 25. On April 25, the card issuer receives $600 in excess of the required minimum periodic payment. As required by § 1026.53, the card issuer allocates the $600 excess payment first to the balance with the highest annual percentage rate (the $250 cash advance balance). Although § 1026.54(a)(1)(i) prohibits the card issuer from charging interest on the March purchases based on days in the March billing cycle, the card issuer may charge interest on the $250 cash advance from the date of the transaction (March 18) through April 24. In these circumstances, the card issuer may comply with § 1026.54(a)(1)(ii) by applying the remainder of the excess payment ($350) to the $600 purchase balance and then charging interest only on the portion of the $600 purchase balance that remains unpaid ($250) from the start of the April billing cycle (April 1) through the end of the April billing cycle (April 30).
</P>
<P>iii. Same facts as in paragraph 6 above except that the consumer does not pay the balance for the February billing cycle in full on March 25 and therefore is not eligible for a grace period on the March purchases. Under these circumstances, § 1026.54 does not apply and the card issuer may charge interest from the date of each transaction through April 24 and interest on the remaining $100 from April 25 through the end of the April billing cycle (April 25).




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.55—Limitations on Increasing Annual Percentage Rates, Fees, and Charges
</HD2>
<HD3>55(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Increase in rate, fee, or charge.</I> Section 1026.55(a) prohibits card issuers from increasing an annual percentage rate or any fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on a credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). Except as specifically provided in § 1026.55(b), this prohibition applies even if the circumstances under which an increase will occur are disclosed in advance. The following examples illustrate the general application of § 1026.55(a) and (b). Additional examples illustrating specific aspects of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b) are provided in the commentary to those exceptions.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Account-opening disclosure of non-variable rate for six months, then variable rate.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases is a non-variable rate of 15% and will apply for six months. The card issuer also discloses that, after six months, the annual percentage rate for purchases will be a variable rate that is currently 18% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 8 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. Furthermore, the card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for cash advances is the same variable rate that will apply to purchases after six months. Finally, the card issuer discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer makes a late payment. The payment due date for the account is the twenty-fifth day of the month and the required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase and cash advance balances.
</P>
<P>A. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year.</I> On January 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account to make a $2,000 purchase and a $500 cash advance. No other transactions are made on the account. At the start of each quarter, the card issuer may adjust the variable rate that applies to the $500 cash advance consistent with changes in the index (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2)). All required minimum periodic payments are received on or before the payment due date until May of year one, when the payment due on May 25 is received by the creditor on May 28. At this time, the card issuer is prohibited by § 1026.55 from increasing the rates that apply to the $2,000 purchase, the $500 cash advance, or future purchases and cash advances. Six months after account opening (July 1), the card issuer may begin to accrue interest on the $2,000 purchase at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using an 8-point margin (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). Because no other increases in rate were disclosed at account opening, the card issuer may not subsequently increase the variable rate that applies to the $2,000 purchase and the $500 cash advance (except due to increases in the index pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2)). On November 16, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two (calculated using the same index and an increased margin of 12 percentage points). On December 15, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer may increase the margin used to determine the variable rate that applies to new purchases to 12 percentage points (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3)). However, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to the $2,000 purchase balance. Furthermore, although the $100 purchase occurred more than 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice, § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to that purchase because it occurred during the first year after account opening. On January 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $300 purchase. The card issuer may apply the variable rate determined using the 12-point margin to the $300 purchase.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent during first year.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on May 25 of year one is not received by the card issuer until July 30 of year one. Because the card issuer received the required minimum periodic payment more than 60 days after the payment due date, § 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to increase the annual percentage rate applicable to the $2,000 purchase, the $500 cash advance, and future purchases and cash advances. However, § 1026.55(b)(4)(i) requires the card issuer to first comply with the notice requirements in § 1026.9(g). Thus, if the card issuer provided a § 1026.9(g) notice on July 25 stating that all rates on the account would be increased to the 30% penalty rate, the card issuer could apply that rate beginning on September 8 to all balances and to future transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Account-opening disclosure of non-variable rate for six months, then increased non-variable rate for six months, then variable rate; change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases will increase as follows: A non-variable rate of 5% for six months; a non-variable rate of 10% for an additional six months; and thereafter a variable rate that is currently 15% and will be adjusted monthly by adding a margin of 5 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The payment due date for the account is the fifteenth day of the month and the required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance. On January 15 of year one, the consumer uses the account to make a $1,500 purchase. Six months after account opening (July 1), the card issuer may begin to accrue interest on the $1,500 purchase at the previously-disclosed 10% non-variable rate (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). On September 15, the consumer uses the account for a $700 purchase. On November 16, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two (calculated using the same index and an increased margin of 8 percentage points). One year after account opening (January 1 of year two), the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $2,200 purchase balance at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using a 5-point margin (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin to the $2,200 purchase balance. Furthermore, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to subsequently increase the variable rate determined using the 5-point margin that applies to the $2,200 purchase balance (except due to increases in the index pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2)). The card issuer may, however, apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin to purchases made on or after January 1 of year two (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3)).
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<P>iii. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase for new transactions after first year; penalty rate increase after first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that the annual percentage rate for purchases is a variable rate determined by adding a margin of 6 percentage points to a publicly-available index outside of the card issuer's control. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 28% may apply if the consumer makes a late payment. The due date for the account is the fifteenth of the month. On May 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000. On May 31, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on July 16 for all purchases made on or after June 15 (calculated by using the same index and an increased margin of 8 percentage points). On June 14, the consumer makes a $500 purchase. On June 15, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On July 1, the card issuer has not received the payment due on June 15 and provides the consumer with a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(g) stating that the 28% penalty rate will apply as of August 15 to all transactions made on or after July 16 and that, if the consumer becomes more than 60 days late, the penalty rate will apply to all balances on the account. On July 17, the consumer makes a $300 purchase.
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<P>A. <I>Account does not become more than 60 days delinquent.</I> The payment due on June 15 of year two is received on July 2. On July 16, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin disclosed in the § 1026.9(c) notice to the $200 purchase made on June 15 but does not permit the card issuer to apply this rate to the $1,500 purchase balance. On August 15, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% penalty rate disclosed at account opening and in the § 1026.9(g) notice to the $300 purchase made on July 17 but does not permit the card issuer to apply this rate to the $1,500 purchase balance (which remains at the variable rate determined using the 6-point margin) or the $200 purchase (which remains at the variable rate determined using the 8-point margin).
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<P>B. <I>Account becomes more than 60 days delinquent after provision of § 1026.9(g) notice.</I> Same facts as above except the payment due on June 15 of year two has not been received by August 15. Section 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% penalty rate to the $1,500 purchase balance and the $200 purchase because it has not received the June 15 payment within 60 days after the due date. However, in order to do so, § 1026.55(b)(4)(i) requires the card issuer to first provide an additional notice pursuant to § 1026.9(g). This notice must be sent no earlier than August 15, which is the first day the account became more than 60 days' delinquent. If the notice is sent on August 15, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $1,500 purchase balance and the $200 purchase at the 28% penalty rate beginning on September 29.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to grace period.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 prohibits a card issuer from assessing interest due to the loss of a grace period to the extent consistent with § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B) and § 1026.54. In addition, a card issuer has not reduced an annual percentage rate on a credit card account for purposes of § 1026.55 if the card issuer does not charge interest on a balance or a portion thereof based on a payment received prior to the expiration of a grace period. For example, if the annual percentage rate for purchases on an account is 15% but the card issuer does not charge any interest on a $500 purchase balance because that balance was paid in full prior to the expiration of the grace period, the card issuer has not reduced the 15% purchase rate to 0% for purposes of § 1026.55.
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<P>3. <I>Fees in connection with covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards.</I> With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 where the credit feature is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, § 1026.55(a) prohibits card issuers from increasing an annual percentage rate or any fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) on a credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). This is true regardless of whether these fees or annual percentage rates are imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account or on the credit feature.
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<P>4. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan.</I> Section 1026.55(a) does not apply to any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). See § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and non-covered separate credit features as those terms are defined in § 1026.61.
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<P>5. <I>Fees in connection with covered overdraft credit.</I> With regard to covered overdraft credit accessible by a hybrid debit-credit card, § 1026.55(a) prohibits card issuers from increasing an annual percentage rate or any fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (iii), or (xii) on a credit card account unless specifically permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). This is true regardless of whether these fees or annual percentage rates are imposed on the covered asset account associated with the covered overdraft credit or on the covered overdraft credit account.




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<HD3>55(b) Exceptions
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<P>1. <I>Exceptions not mutually exclusive.</I> A card issuer generally may increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to an exception set forth in § 1026.55(b) even if that increase would not be permitted under a different exception. For example, although a card issuer cannot increase an annual percentage rate pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1) unless that rate is provided for a specified period of at least six months, the card issuer may increase an annual percentage rate during a specified period due to an increase in an index consistent with § 1026.55(b)(2). Similarly, although § 1026.55(b)(3) does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate during the first year after account opening, the card issuer may increase the rate during the first year after account opening pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4) if the required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days after the due date. However, if § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires a card issuer to decrease the rate, fee, or charge that applies to a balance while the account is subject to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement or subject to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation, the card issuer may not impose a higher rate, fee, or charge on that balance pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(5) or (b)(6) upon completion or failure of the arrangement or once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar Federal or state statute or regulation no longer applies. For example, assume that, on January 1, the annual percentage rate that applies to a $1,000 balance is increased from 12% to 30% pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4). On February 1, the rate on that balance is decreased from 30% to 15% consistent with § 1026.55(b)(5) as a part of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement. On July 1, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance from 15% to 12%. If the consumer subsequently completes or fails to comply with the terms of the workout or temporary hardship arrangement, the card issuer may not increase the 12% rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(5).
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<P>2. <I>Relationship between exceptions in § 1026.55(b) and notice requirements in § 1026.9.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 alters the requirements in § 1026.9(c) and (g) that creditors provide written notice at least 45 days prior to the effective date of certain increases in annual percentage rates, fees, and charges.
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<P>i. <I>14-day rule in § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii).</I> Although § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) permits a card issuer that discloses an increased rate pursuant to § 1026.9(c) or (g) to apply that rate to transactions that occur more than 14 days after provision of the notice, the card issuer cannot begin to accrue interest at the increased rate until that increase goes into effect, consistent with § 1026.9(c) or (g). For example, if on May 1 a card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) stating that a rate will increase from 15% to 18% on June 15, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to transactions that occur on or after May 16. However, neither § 1026.55 nor § 1026.9(c) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 18% rate on those transactions until June 15. See additional examples in comment 55(b)(3)-4.
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<P>ii. <I>Mid-cycle increases; application of balance computation methods.</I> Once an increased rate has gone into effect, the card issuer cannot calculate interest charges based on that increased rate for days prior to the effective date. Assume that, in the example in paragraph i above, the billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. If, for example, the card issuer uses the average daily balance computation method, it cannot apply the 18% rate to the average daily balance for the entire June billing cycle because that rate did not become effective until June 15. However, the card issuer could apply the 15% rate to the average daily balance from June 1 through June 14 and the 18% rate to the average daily balance from June 15 through June 30. Similarly, if the card issuer that uses the daily balance computation method, it could apply the 15% rate to the daily balance for each day from June 1 through June 14 and the 18% rate to the daily balance for each day from June 15 through June 30.
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<P>iii. <I>Mid-cycle increases; delayed implementation of increase.</I> If § 1026.55(b) and § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g) permit a card issuer to apply an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge on a date that is not the first day of a billing cycle, the card issuer may delay application of the increased rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle without relinquishing the ability to apply that rate, fee, or charge. Thus, in the example in paragraphs i and ii above, the card issuer could delay application of the 18% rate until the start of the next billing cycle (April 1) without relinquishing its ability to apply that rate under § 1026.55(b)(3). Similarly, assume that, at account opening on January 1, a card issuer discloses that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 10% will apply to purchases for six months and a non-variable rate of 15% will apply thereafter. The first day of each billing cycle for the account is the fifteenth of the month. If the six-month period expires on July 1, the card issuer may delay application of the 15% rate until the start of the next billing cycle (July 15) without relinquishing its ability to apply that rate under § 1026.55(b)(1).
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<P>3. <I>Application of a lower rate, fee, or charge.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 prohibits a card issuer from lowering an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii). However, a card issuer that does so cannot subsequently increase the rate, fee, or charge unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). The following examples illustrate the application of the rule:
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<P>i. <I>Application of lower rate during first year.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% will apply to purchases. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the tenth of the month. The required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance.
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<P>A. <I>Temporary rate returns to standard rate at expiration.</I> On September 30 of year one, the account has a purchase balance of $1,400 at the 15% rate. On October 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from October 1 through March 31 of year two) and that, beginning on April 1 of year two, the rate for purchases will increase to the 15% non-variable rate disclosed at account opening. The card issuer does not apply the 5% rate to the $1,400 purchase balance. On October 14 of year one, the consumer makes a $300 purchase at the 5% rate. On January 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $150 purchase at the 5% rate. On April 1 of year two, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $300 purchase and the $150 purchase at 15% as disclosed in the § 1026.9(c) notice (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)).
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<P>B. <I>Penalty rate increase.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on November 10 of year one is not received until November 15. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to increase any annual percentage rate on the account at this time. The card issuer may apply the 30% penalty rate to new transactions beginning on April 1 of year two pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3) by providing a § 1026.9(g) notice informing the consumer of this increase no later than February 14 of year two. The card issuer may not, however, apply the 30% penalty rate to the $1,400 purchase balance as of September 30 of year one, the $300 purchase on October 15 of year one, or the $150 purchase on January 15 of year two.
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<P>ii. <I>Application of lower rate at end of first year.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, a card issuer discloses that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% will apply to purchases for one year and discloses that, after the first year, the card issuer will apply a variable rate that is currently 20% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. On December 31 of year one, the account has a purchase balance of $3,000.
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<P>A. <I>Notice of extension of existing temporary rate provided consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1)(i).</I> On December 15 of year one, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the existing 15% rate will continue to apply until July 1 of year two. The notice further states that, on July 1 of year two, the variable rate disclosed at account opening will apply. On July 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to apply that variable rate to any remaining portion of the $3,000 balance and to new transactions.
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<P>B. <I>Notice of new temporary rate provided consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1)(i).</I> On December 15 of year one, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer of a new variable rate that will apply on January 1 of year two that is lower than the variable rate disclosed at account opening. The new variable rate is calculated using the same index and a reduced margin of 8 percentage points. The notice further states that, on July 1 of year two, the margin will increase to the margin disclosed at account opening (10 percentage points). On July 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to increase the margin used to determine the variable rate that applies to new purchases to 10 percentage points and to apply that rate to any remaining portion of the $3,000 purchase balance.
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<P>C. <I>No notice provided.</I> Same facts as in paragraph ii.B above except that the card issuer does not send a notice on December 15 of year one. Instead, on January 1 of year two, the card issuer lowers the margin used to determine the variable rate to 8 percentage points and applies that rate to the $3,000 purchase balance and to new purchases. Section 1026.9 does not require advance notice in these circumstances. However, unless the account becomes more than 60 days' delinquent, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to subsequently increase the rate that applies to the $3,000 purchase balance except due to increases in the index (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2)).
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<P>iii. <I>Application of lower rate after first year.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 10% will apply to purchases for one year, after which that rate will increase to a non-variable rate of 15%. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the tenth of the month. The required minimum periodic payments are applied to accrued interest and fees but do not reduce the purchase balance.
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<P>A. <I>Effect of 14-day period.</I> On June 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at the 15% rate. On July 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from July 1 through December 31 of year two) and that, beginning on January 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 17%. On July 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On July 16, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On January 1 of year three, the card issuer may begin accruing interest on the $100 purchase at 17% (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). However, § 1026.55(b)(1)(ii)(B) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 17% rate to the $200 purchase because that transaction occurred within 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice. Instead, the card issuer may apply the 15% rate that applied to purchases prior to provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice. In addition, if the card issuer applied the 5% rate to the $1,000 purchase balance, § 1026.55(b)(ii)(A) would not permit the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to that balance on January 1 of year three to a rate that is higher than 15% that previously applied to the balance.
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<P>B. <I>Penalty rate increase.</I> Same facts as above except that the required minimum periodic payment due on August 25 is received on August 30. At this time, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to increase the annual percentage rates that apply to the $1,000 purchase balance, the $200 purchase, or the $100 purchase. Instead, those rates can only be increased as discussed in paragraph iii.A above. However, if the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) or (g) on September 1, § 1026.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to apply an increased rate (such as the 17% purchase rate or the 30% penalty rate) to transactions that occur on or after September 16 beginning on October 16.
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<P>C. <I>Application of lower temporary rate during specified period.</I> Same facts as in paragraph iii above. On June 30 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at the 15% non-variable rate. On July 1, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for the $1,000 balance and new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 12% for six months (from July 1 through December 31 of year two) and that, beginning on January 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a variable rate that is currently 20% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. On August 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $500 purchase. On October 1, the card issuer provides another notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for the $1,000 balance, the $500 purchase, and new purchases will decrease to a non-variable rate of 5% for six months (from October 1 of year two through March 31 of year three) and that, beginning on April 1 of year three, the rate for purchases will increase to a variable rate that is currently 23% and is determined by adding a margin of 13 percentage points to the previously-disclosed index. On November 15 of year two, the consumer makes a $300 purchase. On April 1 of year three, § 1026.55 permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest using the following rates for any remaining portion of the following balances: The 15% non-variable rate for the $1,000 balance; the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin for the $500 purchase; and the variable rate determined using the 13-point margin for the $300 purchase.
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<P>4. <I>Date on which transaction occurred.</I> When a transaction occurred for purposes of § 1026.55 is generally determined by the date of the transaction. However, if a transaction that occurred within 14 days after provision of a § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice is not charged to the account prior to the effective date of the change or increase, the card issuer may treat the transaction as occurring more than 14 days after provision of the notice for purposes of § 1026.55. See example in comment 55(b)(3)-4.iii.B. In addition, when a merchant places a “hold” on the available credit on an account for an estimated transaction amount because the actual transaction amount will not be known until a later date, the date of the transaction for purposes of § 1026.55 is the date on which the card issuer receives the actual transaction amount from the merchant. See example in comment 55(b)(3)-4.iii.A.
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<P>5. <I>Category of transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.55, a “category of transactions” is a type or group of transactions to which an annual percentage rate applies that is different than the annual percentage rate that applies to other transactions. Similarly, a type or group of transactions is a “category of transactions” for purposes of § 1026.55 if a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) applies to those transactions that is different than the fee or charge that applies to other transactions. For example, purchase transactions, cash advance transactions, and balance transfer transactions are separate categories of transactions for purposes of § 1026.55 if a card issuer applies different annual percentage rates to each. Furthermore, if, for example, the card issuer applies different annual percentage rates to different types of purchase transactions (such as one rate for purchases of gasoline or purchases over $100 and a different rate for all other purchases), each type constitutes a separate category of transactions for purposes of § 1026.55.
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<HD3>55(b)(1) Temporary rate, fee, or charge exception
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<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.55(b)(1)(i).
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<P>2. <I>Period of six months or longer.</I> A temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge must apply for a specified period of six months or longer before a card issuer can increase that rate, fee, or charge pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1). The specified period must expire no less than six months after the date on which the card issuer provides the consumer with the disclosures required by § 1026.55(b)(1)(i) or, if later, the date on which the account can be used for transactions to which the temporary rate, fee, or charge applies. Section 1026.55(b)(1) does not prohibit a card issuer from limiting the application of a temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge to a particular category of transactions (such as to balance transfers or to purchases over $100). However, in circumstances where the card issuer limits application of the temporary rate, fee, or charge to a single transaction, the specified period must expire no less than six months after the date on which that transaction occurred. The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.55(b)(1):
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<P>i. Assume that on January 1 a card issuer offers a consumer a 5% annual percentage rate on purchases made during the months of January through June. A 15% rate will apply thereafter. On February 15, a $500 purchase is charged to the account. On June 15, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. On July 1, the card issuer may begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $500 purchase and the $200 purchase (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)).
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<P>ii. Same facts as above except that on January 1 the card issuer offered the 5% rate on purchases beginning in the month of February. Section 1026.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $500 purchase and the $200 purchase until August 1.
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<P>iii. Assume that on October 31 of year one the annual percentage rate for purchases is 17%. On November 1, the card issuer offers the consumer a 0% rate for six months on purchases made during the months of November and December. The 17% rate will apply thereafter. On November 15, a $500 purchase is charged to the account. On December 15, a $300 purchase is charged to the account. On January 15 of year two, a $150 purchase is charged to the account. Section 1026.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 17% rate on the $500 purchase and the $300 purchase until May 1 of year two. However, the card issuer may accrue interest at the 17% rate on the $150 purchase beginning on January 15 of year two.
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<P>iv. Assume that on June 1 of year one a card issuer offers a consumer a 0% annual percentage rate for six months on the purchase of an appliance. An 18% rate will apply thereafter. On September 1, a $5,000 transaction is charged to the account for the purchase of an appliance. Section 1026.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 18% rate on the $5,000 transaction until March 1 of year two.
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<P>v. Assume that on May 31 of year one the annual percentage rate for purchases is 15%. On June 1, the card issuer offers the consumer a 5% rate for six months on a balance transfer of at least $1,000. The 15% rate will apply thereafter. On June 15, a $3,000 balance is transferred to the account. On July 15, a $200 purchase is charged to the account. Section 1026.55(b)(1) would not permit the card issuer to begin accruing interest at the 15% rate on the $3,000 transferred balance until December 15. However, the card issuer may accrue interest at the 15% rate on the $200 purchase beginning on July 15.
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<P>vi. Same facts as in paragraph v above except that the card issuer offers the 5% rate for six months on all balance transfers of at least $1,000 during the month of June and a $2,000 balance is transferred to the account on June 30 (in addition to the $3,000 balance transfer on June 15). Because the 5% rate is not limited to a particular transaction, § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest on the $3,000 and $2,000 transferred balances on December 1.
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<P>vii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for the account is $0 until January 1 of year two, when the fee will increase to $50. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer may impose the $50 annual fee. However, the issuer must also comply with the notice requirements in § 1026.9(e).
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<P>viii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the monthly maintenance fee for the account is $0 until July 1 of year one, when the fee will increase to $10. Beginning on July 1 of year one, the card issuer may impose the $10 monthly maintenance fee (to the extent consistent with § 1026.52(a)).
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<P>3. <I>Deferred interest and similar promotional programs.</I> i. <I>Application of § 1026.55.</I> The general prohibition in § 1026.55(a) applies to the imposition of accrued interest upon the expiration of a deferred interest or similar promotional program under which the consumer is not obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time. However, the exception in § 1026.55(b)(1) also applies to these programs, provided that the specified period is six months or longer and that, prior to the commencement of the period, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the rate at which interest will accrue on the balance subject to the deferred interest or similar program if that balance is not paid in full prior to expiration of the period. See comment 9(c)(2)(v)-9. For purposes of § 1026.55, “deferred interest” has the same meaning as in § 1026.16(h)(2) and associated commentary.
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<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A. <I>Deferred interest offer at account opening.</I> Assume that, at account opening on January 1 of year one, the card issuer discloses the following with respect to a deferred interest program: “No interest on purchases made in January of year one if paid in full by December 31 of year one. If the balance is not paid in full by that date, interest will be imposed from the transaction date at a rate of 20%.” On January 15 of year one, the consumer makes a purchase of $2,000. No other transactions are made on the account. The terms of the deferred interest program require the consumer to make minimum periodic payments with respect to the deferred interest balance, and the payment due on April 1 is not received until April 10. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account interest that has accrued on the $2,000 purchase at this time. Furthermore, if the consumer pays the $2,000 purchase in full on or before December 31 of year one, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account any interest that has accrued on that purchase. If, however, the $2,000 purchase has not been paid in full by January 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to charge to the account the interest accrued on that purchase at the 20% rate during year one (to the extent consistent with other applicable law).
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<P>B. <I>Deferred interest offer after account opening.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the rate that applies to purchases is a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 18% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 8 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The card issuer also discloses that, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55 and other applicable law, a non-variable penalty rate of 30% may apply if the consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the first of the month. On June 30 of year two, the consumer uses the account for a $1,000 purchase in response to an offer of a deferred interest program. Under the terms of this program, interest on the purchase will accrue at the variable rate for purchases but the consumer will not be obligated to pay that interest if the purchase is paid in full by December 31 of year three. The terms of the deferred interest program require the consumer to make minimum periodic payments with respect to the deferred interest balance, and the payment due on September 1 of year two is not received until September 6. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account interest that has accrued on the $1,000 purchase at this time. Furthermore, if the consumer pays the $1,000 purchase in full on or before December 31 of year three, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to charge to the account any interest that has accrued on that purchase. On December 31 of year three, the $1,000 purchase has been paid in full. Under these circumstances, the card issuer may not charge any interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase.
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<P>C. <I>Application of § 1026.55(b)(4) to deferred interest programs.</I> Same facts as in paragraph ii.B above except that, on November 2 of year two, the card issuer has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on September 1, October 1, or November 1 of year two and sends a § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice stating that interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two will be charged to the account on December 17 of year two and thereafter interest will be charged on the $1,000 purchase consistent with the variable rate for purchases. On December 17 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to charge to the account interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two and § 1026.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to begin charging interest on the $1,000 purchase consistent with the variable rate for purchases. However, if the card issuer receives the required minimum periodic payments due on January 1, February 1, March 1, April 1, May 1, and June 1 of year three, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to cease charging the account for interest on the $1,000 purchase no later than the first day of the next billing cycle. See comment 55(b)(4)-3.iii. However, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) does not require the card issuer to waive or credit the account for interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase since June 30 of year two. If the $1,000 purchase is paid in full on December 31 of year three, the card issuer is not permitted to charge to the account interest accrued on the $1,000 purchase after June 1 of year three.
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<P>4. <I>Contingent or discretionary increases.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(1) permits a card issuer to increase a temporary annual percentage rate, fee, or charge upon the expiration of a specified period of time. However, § 1026.55(b)(1) does not permit a card issuer to apply an increased rate, fee, or charge that is contingent on a particular event or occurrence or that may be applied at the card issuer's discretion. The following examples illustrate rate increases that are not permitted by § 1026.55:
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<P>i. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% applies to purchases but that all rates on an account may be increased to a non-variable penalty rate of 30% if a consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the fifteenth of the month. On March 1, the account has a $2,000 purchase balance. The payment due on March 15 is not received until March 20. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the 30% penalty rate to the $2,000 purchase balance. However, pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3), the card issuer could provide a § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice on or before November 16 informing the consumer that, on January 1 of year two, the 30% rate (or a different rate) will apply to new transactions.
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<P>ii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 5% applies to transferred balances but that this rate will increase to a non-variable rate of 18% if the consumer does not use the account for at least $200 in purchases each billing cycle. On July 1, the consumer transfers a balance of $4,000 to the account. During the October billing cycle, the consumer uses the account for $150 in purchases. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to the $4,000 transferred balance or the $150 in purchases. However, pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3), the card issuer could provide a § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice on or before November 16 informing the consumer that, on January 1 of year two, the 18% rate (or a different rate) will apply to new transactions.
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<P>iii. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for the account is $10 but may be increased to $50 if a consumer's required minimum periodic payment is received after the payment due date, which is the fifteenth of the month. The payment due on July 15 is not received until July 23. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to impose the $50 annual fee at this time. Furthermore, § 1026.55(b)(3) does not permit the card issuer to increase the $10 annual fee during the first year after account opening. However, § 1026.55(b)(3) does permit the card issuer to impose the $50 fee (or a different fee) on January 1 of year two if, on or before November 16 of year one, the issuer informs the consumer of the increased fee consistent with § 1026.9(c) and the consumer does not reject that increase pursuant to § 1026.9(h).
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<P>iv. Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual fee for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is $0 but may be increased to $100 if the consumer's balance in a deposit account provided by the card issuer or its affiliate or subsidiary falls below $5,000. On June 1 of year one, the balance on the deposit account is $4,500. Section 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to impose the $100 annual fee at this time. Furthermore, § 1026.55(b)(3) does not permit the card issuer to increase the $0 annual fee during the first year after account opening. However, § 1026.55(b)(3) does permit the card issuer to impose the $100 fee (or a different fee) on January 1 of year two if, on or before November 16 of year one, the issuer informs the consumer of the increased fee consistent with § 1026.9(c) and the consumer does not reject that increase pursuant to § 1026.9(h).
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<P>5. <I>Application of increased fees and charges.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(1)(ii) limits the ability of a card issuer to apply an increased fee or charge to certain transactions. However, to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(3), (c), and (d), a card issuer generally is not prohibited from increasing a fee or charge that applies to the account as a whole. <I>See</I> comments 55(c)(1)-3 and 55(d)-1.


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<HD3>55(b)(2) Variable Rate Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Increases due to increase in index.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(2) provides that an annual percentage rate that varies according to an index that is not under the card issuer's control and is available to the general public may be increased due to an increase in the index. This section does not permit a card issuer to increase the rate by changing the method used to determine a rate that varies with an index (such as by increasing the margin), even if that change will not result in an immediate increase. However, from time to time, a card issuer may change the day on which index values are measured to determine changes to the rate.
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<P>2. <I>Index not under card issuer's control.</I> A card issuer may increase a variable annual percentage rate pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2) only if the increase is based on an index or indices outside the card issuer's control. For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(2), an index is under the card issuer's control if:
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<P>i. The index is the card issuer's own prime rate or cost of funds. A card issuer is permitted, however, to use a published prime rate, such as that in the Wall Street Journal, even if the card issuer's own prime rate is one of several rates used to establish the published rate.
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<P>ii. The variable rate is subject to a fixed minimum rate or similar requirement that does not permit the variable rate to decrease consistent with reductions in the index. A card issuer is permitted, however, to establish a fixed maximum rate that does not permit the variable rate to increase consistent with increases in an index. For example, assume that, under the terms of an account, a variable rate will be adjusted monthly by adding a margin of 5 percentage points to a publicly-available index. When the account is opened, the index is 10% and therefore the variable rate is 15%. If the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will not decrease below 15% even if the index decreases below 10%, the card issuer cannot increase that rate pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(2). However, § 1026.55(b)(2) does not prohibit the card issuer from providing in the terms of the account that the variable rate will not increase above a certain amount (such as 20%).
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<P>iii. The variable rate can be calculated based on any index value during a period of time (such as the 90 days preceding the last day of a billing cycle). A card issuer is permitted, however, to provide in the terms of the account that the variable rate will be calculated based on the average index value during a specified period. In the alternative, the card issuer is permitted to provide in the terms of the account that the variable rate will be calculated based on the index value on a specific day (such as the last day of a billing cycle). For example, assume that the terms of an account provide that a variable rate will be adjusted at the beginning of each quarter by adding a margin of 7 percentage points to a publicly-available index. At account opening at the beginning of the first quarter, the variable rate is 17% (based on an index value of 10%). During the first quarter, the index varies between 9.8% and 10.5% with an average value of 10.1%. On the last day of the first quarter, the index value is 10.2%. At the beginning of the second quarter, § 1026.55(b)(2) does not permit the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.5% based on the first quarter's maximum index value of 10.5%. However, if the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will be calculated based on the average index value during the prior quarter, § 1026.55(b)(2) permits the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.1% (based on the average index value of 10.1% during the first quarter). In the alternative, if the terms of the account provide that the variable rate will be calculated based on the index value on the last day of the prior quarter, § 1026.55(b)(2) permits the card issuer to increase the variable rate to 17.2% (based on the index value of 10.2% on the last day of the first quarter).
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<P>3. <I>Publicly available.</I> The index or indices must be available to the public. A publicly-available index need not be published in a newspaper, but it must be one the consumer can independently obtain (by telephone, for example) and use to verify the annual percentage rate applied to the account.
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<P>4. <I>Changing a non-variable rate to a variable rate.</I> Section 1026.55 generally prohibits a card issuer from changing a non-variable annual percentage rate to a variable annual percentage rate because such a change can result in an increase. However, a card issuer may change a non-variable rate to a variable rate to the extent permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). For example, § 1026.55(b)(1) permits a card issuer to change a non-variable rate to a variable rate upon expiration of a specified period of time. Similarly, following the first year after the account is opened, § 1026.55(b)(3) permits a card issuer to change a non-variable rate to a variable rate with respect to new transactions (after complying with the notice requirements in § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g)).
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<P>5. <I>Changing a variable rate to a non-variable rate.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 prohibits a card issuer from changing a variable annual percentage rate to an equal or lower non-variable rate. Whether the non-variable rate is equal to or lower than the variable rate is determined at the time the card issuer provides the notice required by § 1026.9(c). For example, assume that on March 1 a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 15% applies to a balance of $2,000 and the card issuer sends a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the variable rate will be converted to a non-variable rate of 14% effective April 15. On April 15, the card issuer may apply the 14% non-variable rate to the $2,000 balance and to new transactions even if the variable rate on March 2 or a later date was less than 14%.


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<HD3>55(b)(3) Advance notice exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.9(h).</I> A card issuer may not increase a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3) if the consumer has rejected the increased fee or charge pursuant to § 1026.9(h).
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<P>2. <I>Notice provided pursuant to § 1026.9(b) and (c).</I> If an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge is disclosed pursuant to both § 1026.9(b) and (c), that rate, fee, or charge may only be applied to transactions that occur more than 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice as provided in § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii).
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<P>3. <I>Account opening.</I> i. <I>Multiple accounts with same card issuer.</I> When a consumer has a credit card account with a card issuer and the consumer opens a new credit card account with the same card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary), the opening of the new account constitutes the opening of a credit card account for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) if, more than 30 days after the new account is opened, the consumer has the option to obtain additional extensions of credit on each account. For example, assume that, on January 1 of year one, a consumer opens a credit card account with a card issuer. On July 1 of year one, the consumer opens a second credit card account with that card issuer. On July 15, a $1,000 balance is transferred from the first account to the second account. The opening of the second account constitutes the opening of a credit card account for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) so long as, on August 1, the consumer has the option to engage in transactions using either account. Under these circumstances, the card issuer could not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) on the second account pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3) until July 1 of year two (which is one year after the second account was opened).
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<P>ii. <I>Substitution, replacement or consolidation.</I> A. <I>Generally.</I> A credit card account has not been opened for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) when a credit card account issued by a card issuer is substituted, replaced, or consolidated with another credit card account issued by the same card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary). Circumstances in which a credit card account has not been opened for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) include when:
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<P><I>1.</I> A retail credit card account is replaced with a cobranded general purpose credit card account that can be used at a wider number of merchants;
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<P><I>2.</I> A credit card account is replaced with another credit card account offering different features;
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<P><I>3.</I> A credit card account is consolidated or combined with one or more other credit card accounts into a single credit card account; or
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<P><I>4.</I> A credit card account acquired through merger or acquisition is replaced with a credit card account issued by the acquiring card issuer.
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<P>B. <I>Limitation.</I> A card issuer that replaces or consolidates a credit card account with another credit card account issued by the card issuer (or its affiliate or subsidiary) may not increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) in a manner otherwise prohibited by § 1026.55. For example, assume that, on January 1 of year one, a consumer opens a credit card account with an annual percentage rate of 15% for purchases. On July 1 of year one, the account is replaced with a credit card account that offers different features (such as rewards on purchases). Under these circumstances, § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) prohibits the card issuer from increasing the annual percentage rate for new purchases to a rate that is higher than 15% pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3) until January 1 of year two (which is one year after the first account was opened).
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<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> i. <I>Change-in-terms rate increase; temporary rate increase; 14-day period.</I> Assume that an account is opened on January 1 of year one. On March 14 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15%. On March 15, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 18% on May 1. The notice further states that the 18% rate will apply for six months (until November 1) and that thereafter the card issuer will apply a variable rate that is currently 22% and is determined by adding a margin of 12 percentage points to a publicly-available index that is not under the card issuer's control. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is March 29 and, on that date, the consumer makes a $200 purchase. On March 30, the consumer makes a $1,000 purchase. On May 1, the card issuer may begin accruing interest at 18% on the $1,000 purchase made on March 30 (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3)). Section 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 18% rate to the $2,200 purchase balance as of March 29 because that balance reflects transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after the provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice. After six months (November 2), the card issuer may begin accruing interest on any remaining portion of the $1,000 purchase at the previously-disclosed variable rate determined using the 12-point margin (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1) and (b)(3)).
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<P>ii. <I>Checks that access an account.</I> Assume that a card issuer discloses at account opening on January 1 of year one that the annual percentage rate that applies to cash advances is a variable rate that is currently 24% and will be adjusted quarterly by adding a margin of 14 percentage points to a publicly available index not under the card issuer's control. On July 1 of year two, the card issuer provides checks that access the account and, pursuant to § 1026.9(b)(3)(i)(A), discloses that a promotional rate of 15% will apply to credit extended by use of the checks until January 1 of year three, after which the cash advance rate determined using the 14-point margin will apply. On July 9 of year two, the consumer uses one of the checks to pay for a $500 transaction. Beginning on January 1 of year three, the card issuer may apply the cash advance rate determined using the 14-point margin to any remaining portion of the $500 transaction (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1) and (b)(3)).
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<P>iii. <I>Hold on available credit; 14-day period.</I> Assume that an account is opened on January 1 of year one. On September 14 of year two, the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 17%. On September 15, the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 20% on October 30. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is September 29. On September 28, the consumer uses the credit card to check into a hotel and the hotel obtains authorization for a $1,000 hold on the account to ensure there is adequate available credit to cover the anticipated cost of the stay.
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<P>A. The consumer checks out of the hotel on October 2. The actual cost of the stay is $1,100 because of additional incidental costs. On October 2, the hotel charges the $1,100 transaction to the account. For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3), the transaction occurred on October 2. Therefore, on October 30, § 1026.55(b)(3) permits the card issuer to apply the 20% rate to new purchases and to the $1,100 transaction. However, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) does not permit the card issuer to apply the 20% rate to any remaining portion of the $2,000 purchase balance.
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<P>B. Same facts as above except that the consumer checks out of the hotel on September 29. The actual cost of the stay is $250, but the hotel does not charge this amount to the account until November 1. For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3), the card issuer may treat the transaction as occurring more than 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) notice (<I>i.e.,</I> after September 29). Accordingly, the card issuer may apply the 20% rate to the $250 transaction.
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<P>5. <I>Application of increased fees and charges. See</I> comment 55(c)(1)-3.
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<P>6. <I>Delayed implementation of increase.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) does not prohibit a card issuer from notifying a consumer of an increase in an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge consistent with § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g). However, § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) does prohibit application of an increased rate, fee, or charge during the first year after the account is opened, while the account is closed, or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. If § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g) permits a card issuer to apply an increased rate, fee, or charge on a particular date and the account is closed on that date or the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions on that date, the card issuer may delay application of the increased rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle without relinquishing the ability to apply that rate, fee, or charge (assuming the increase is otherwise consistent with § 1026.55). <I>See</I> examples in comment 55(b)-2.iii. However, if the account is closed or the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions on the first day of the following billing cycle, then the card issuer must provide a new notice of the increased rate, fee, or charge consistent with § 1026.9(b), (c), or (g).
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<P>7. <I>Date on which account may first be used by consumer to engage in transactions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii), an account is considered open no earlier than the date on which the account may first be used by the consumer to engage in transactions. An account is considered open for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) on any date that the card issuer may consider the account open for purposes of § 1026.52(a)(1). <I>See</I> comment 52(a)(1)-4.
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<HD3>55(b)(4) Delinquency exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Receipt of required minimum periodic payment within 60 days of due date.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(4) applies when a card issuer has not received the consumer's required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for that payment. In order to satisfy this condition, a card issuer that requires monthly minimum payments generally must not have received two consecutive required minimum periodic payments. Whether a required minimum periodic payment has been received for purposes of § 1026.55(b)(4) depends on whether the amount received is equal to or more than the first outstanding required minimum periodic payment. For example, assume that the required minimum periodic payments for a credit card account are due on the fifteenth day of the month. On May 13, the card issuer has not received the $50 required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 or the $150 required minimum periodic payment due on April 15. The sixtieth day after the March 15 payment due date is May 14. If the card issuer receives a $50 payment on May 14, § 1026.55(b)(4) does not apply because the payment is equal to the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 and therefore the account is not more than 60 days delinquent. However, if the card issuer instead received a $40 payment on May 14, § 1026.55(b)(4) would apply beginning on May 15 because the payment is less than the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15. Furthermore, if the card issuer received the $50 payment on May 15, § 1026.55(b)(4) would apply because the card issuer did not receive the required minimum periodic payment due on March 15 within 60 days after the due date for that payment.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 1026.9(g)(3)(i)(B).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.9(g)(3)(i)(B) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.55(b)(4)(i).
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<P>3. <I>Reduction in rate pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii).</I> Section 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) provides that, if the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the first payment due following the effective date of the increase, the card issuer must reduce any annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4) to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase with respect to transactions that occurred prior to or within 14 days after provision of the § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice.
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<P>i. <I>Six consecutive payments immediately following effective date of increase.</I> Section 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) does not apply if the card issuer does not receive six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date beginning with the payment due immediately following the effective date of the increase, even if, at some later point in time, the card issuer receives six consecutive required minimum periodic payments on or before the payment due date.
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<P>ii. <I>Rate, fee, or charge that does not exceed rate, fee, or charge that applied before increase.</I> Although § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge increased pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4) to the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied prior to the increase, this provision does not prohibit the card issuer from applying an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge consistent with any of the other exceptions in § 1026.55(b). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to the § 1026.55(b)(4) increase and the temporary rate expired before a reduction in rate pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii), the card issuer may apply an increased rate to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to the § 1026.55(b)(4) increase, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(2).
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<P>iii. <I>Delayed implementation of reduction.</I> If § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires a card issuer to reduce an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge on a date that is not the first day of a billing cycle, the card issuer may delay application of the reduced rate, fee, or charge until the first day of the following billing cycle.
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<P>iv. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate the application of § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii):
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<P>A. Assume that the billing cycles for an account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month and that the required minimum periodic payments are due on the fifteenth day of the month. Assume also that the account has a $5,000 purchase balance to which a non-variable annual percentage rate of 15% applies. On May 16 of year one, the card issuer has not received the required minimum periodic payments due on the fifteenth day of March, April, or May and sends a § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice stating that the annual percentage rate applicable to the $5,000 balance and to new transactions will increase to 28% effective July 1. On July 1, § 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to apply the 28% rate to the $5,000 balance and to new transactions. The card issuer receives the required minimum periodic payments due on the fifteenth day of July, August, September, October, November, and December. On January 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 15%. The card issuer is not required to reduce the rate that applies to any transactions that occurred on or after May 31 (which is the fifteenth day after provision of the § 1026.9(c) or (g) notice).
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<P>B. Same facts as paragraph iv.A above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 1026.55(b)(4) increase was scheduled to increase to 20% on August 1 of year one (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). On January 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 20%.
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<P>C. Same facts as paragraph iv.A above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 1026.55(b)(4) increase was scheduled to increase to 20% on March 1 of year two (pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(1)). On January 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to 15%.
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<P>D. Same facts as paragraph iv.A above except that the 15% rate that applied to the $5,000 balance prior to the § 1026.55(b)(4) increase was a variable rate that was determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control (consistent with § 1026.55(b)(2)). On January 1 of year two, § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) requires the card issuer to reduce the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance to the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin.
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<P>E. For an example of the application of § 1026.55(b)(4)(ii) to deferred interest or similar programs, see comment 55(b)(1)-3.ii.C.
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<HD3>55(b)(5) Workout and temporary hardship arrangement exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of exception.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55(b)(5) permits a card issuer to alter the requirements of § 1026.55 pursuant to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement. For example, a card issuer cannot increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) pursuant to a workout or temporary hardship arrangement unless otherwise permitted by § 1026.55. In addition, a card issuer cannot require the consumer to make payments with respect to a protected balance that exceed the payments permitted under § 1026.55(c).
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D).</I> A card issuer that has complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D) has also complied with the disclosure requirements in § 1026.55(b)(5)(i). See comment 9(c)(2)(v)-10. Thus, although the disclosures required by § 1026.55(b)(5)(i) must generally be provided in writing prior to commencement of the arrangement, a card issuer may comply with § 1026.55(b)(5)(i) by complying with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(D), which states that the disclosure of the terms of the arrangement may be made orally by telephone, provided that the card issuer mails or delivers a written disclosure of the terms of the arrangement to the consumer as soon as reasonably practicable after the oral disclosure is provided.
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<P>3. <I>Rate, fee, or charge that does not exceed rate, fee, or charge that applied before workout or temporary hardship arrangement.</I> Upon the completion or failure of a workout or temporary hardship arrangement, § 1026.55(b)(5)(ii) prohibits the card issuer from applying to any transactions that occurred prior to commencement of the arrangement an annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the annual percentage rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to commencement of the arrangement. However, this provision does not prohibit the card issuer from applying an increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge upon completion or failure of the arrangement, to the extent consistent with any of the other exceptions in § 1026.55(b). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to the arrangement and that rate expired during the arrangement, the card issuer may apply an increased rate upon completion or failure of the arrangement to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to the arrangement, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate upon completion or failure of the arrangement to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(2).
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<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> i. Assume that an account is subject to a $50 annual fee and that, consistent with § 1026.55(b)(4), the margin used to determine a variable annual percentage rate that applies to a $5,000 balance is increased from 5 percentage points to 15 percentage points. Assume also that the card issuer and the consumer subsequently agree to a workout arrangement that reduces the annual fee to $0 and reduces the margin back to 5 points on the condition that the consumer pay a specified amount by the payment due date each month. If the consumer does not pay the agreed-upon amount by the payment due date, § 1026.55(b)(5) permits the card issuer to increase the annual fee to $50 and increase the margin for the variable rate that applies to the $5,000 balance up to 15 percentage points.
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<P>ii. Assume that a consumer fails to make four consecutive monthly minimum payments totaling $480 on a consumer credit card account with a balance of $6,000 and that, consistent with § 1026.55(b)(4), the annual percentage rate that applies to that balance is increased from a non-variable rate of 15% to a non-variable penalty rate of 30%. Assume also that the card issuer and the consumer subsequently agree to a temporary hardship arrangement that reduces all rates on the account to 0% on the condition that the consumer pay an amount by the payment due date each month that is sufficient to cure the $480 delinquency within six months. If the consumer pays the agreed-upon amount by the payment due date during the six-month period and cures the delinquency, § 1026.55(b)(5) permits the card issuer to increase the rate that applies to any remaining portion of the $6,000 balance to 15% or any other rate up to the 30% penalty rate.


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<HD3>55(b)(6) Servicemembers Civil Relief Act exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rate, fee, or charge that does not exceed rate, fee, or charge that applied before decrease.</I> When a rate or a fee or charge subject to § 1026.55 has been decreased pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation, § 1026.55(b)(6) permits the card issuer to increase the rate, fee, or charge once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or the similar statute or regulation no longer applies. However, § 1026.55(b)(6) prohibits the card issuer from applying to any transactions that occurred prior to the decrease a rate, fee, or charge that exceeds the rate, fee, or charge that applied to those transactions prior to the decrease (except to the extent permitted by one of the other exceptions in § 1026.55(b)). For example, if a temporary rate applied prior to a decrease in rate pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 and the temporary rate expired during the period that 50 U.S.C. app. 527 applied to the account, the card issuer may apply an increased rate once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1). Similarly, if a variable rate applied prior to a decrease in rate pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527, the card issuer may apply any increase in that variable rate once 50 U.S.C. app. 527 no longer applies to the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(2).
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<P>2. <I>Decreases in rates, fees, and charges to amounts consistent with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or similar statute or regulation.</I> If a card issuer deceases an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge subject to § 1026.55 pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation and if the card issuer also decreases other rates, fees, or charges (such as the rate that applies to new transactions) to amounts that are consistent with 50 U.S.C. app. 527 or a similar Federal or state statute or regulation, the card issuer may increase those rates, fees, and charges consistent with § 1026.55(b)(6).
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<P>3. <I>Example.</I> Assume that on December 31 of year one the annual percentage rate that applies to a $5,000 balance on a credit card account is a variable rate that is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index that is not under the card issuer's control. The account is also subject to a monthly maintenance fee of $10. On January 1 of year two, the card issuer reduces the rate that applies to the $5,000 balance to a non-variable rate of 6% and ceases to impose the $10 monthly maintenance fee and other fees (including late payment fees) pursuant to 50 U.S.C. app. 527. The card issuer also decreases the rate that applies to new transactions to 6%. During year two, the consumer uses the account for $1,000 in new transactions. On January 1 of year three, 50 U.S.C. app. 527 ceases to apply and the card issuer provides a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that on February 15 of year three the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin will apply to any remaining portion of the $5,000 balance and to any remaining portion of the $1,000 balance. The notice also states that the $10 monthly maintenance fee and other fees (including late payment fees) will resume on February 15 of year three. Consistent with § 1026.9(c)(2)(iv)(B), the card issuer is not required to provide a right to reject in these circumstances. On February 15 of year three, § 1026.55(b)(6) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest on any remaining portion of the $5,000 and $1,000 balances at the variable rate determined using the 10-point margin and to resume imposing the $10 monthly maintenance fee and other fees (including late payment fees).


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<HD3>55(b)(7) Index Replacement and Margin Change Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> A card issuer may use either the provision in § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii) to replace a LIBOR index used under the plan so long as the applicable conditions are met for the provision used. Neither provision, however, excuses the card issuer from noncompliance with contractual provisions. The following examples illustrate when a card issuer may use the provisions in § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii) to replace a LIBOR index on the plan.
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<P>i. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a card issuer may not replace an index unilaterally under a plan unless the original index becomes unavailable and provides that the replacement index and replacement margin will result in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the original index becomes unavailable. The card issuer may use § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) to replace the LIBOR index used under the plan so long as the conditions of that provision are met. Section 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) provides that a card issuer may replace the LIBOR index if, among other conditions, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. If the replacement index is not published on October 18, 2021, the card issuer generally must use the next calendar day for which both the LIBOR index and the replacement index are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. In this example, however, the card issuer would be contractually prohibited from replacing the LIBOR index used under the plan unless the replacement index and replacement margin also will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the LIBOR index becomes unavailable.
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<P>ii. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a card issuer may not replace an index unilaterally under a plan unless the original index becomes unavailable but does not require that the replacement index and replacement margin will result in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to a rate that is in effect when the original index becomes unavailable. In this case, the card issuer would be contractually prohibited from unilaterally replacing the LIBOR index used under the plan until it becomes unavailable. At that time, the card issuer has the option of using § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii) to replace the LIBOR index used under the plan if the conditions of the applicable provision are met.
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<P>iii. Assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023, and assume a contract provides that a card issuer may change the terms of the contract (including the index) as permitted by law. In this case, if the card issuer replaces the LIBOR index used under the plan on or after April 1, 2022, but does not wait until the LIBOR index becomes unavailable to do so, the card issuer may only use § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) to replace the LIBOR index if the conditions of that provision are met. In that case, the card issuer may not use § 1026.55(b)(7)(i). If the card issuer waits until the LIBOR index used under the plan becomes unavailable to replace LIBOR, the card issuer has the option of using § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii) to replace the LIBOR index if the conditions of the applicable provisions are met.


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<HD3>Paragraph 55(b)(7)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> For purposes of replacing a LIBOR index used under a plan, a replacement index that is not newly established must have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the historical fluctuations considered are the historical fluctuations up through when the LIBOR index becomes unavailable or up through the date indicated in a Bureau determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, whichever is earlier.
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<P>i. The Bureau has determined that effective April 1, 2022, the prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the 1-month and 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR indices, and no further determination is required. In order to use this prime rate as the replacement index for the 1-month or 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer also must comply with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) that the prime rate and replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. <I>See also</I> comment 55(b)(7)(i)-2.
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<P>ii. By operation of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U, codified at 12 U.S.C. 5803(e)(2), and the Board's implementing regulation, 12 CFR 253.4(b)(2), the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index being replaced. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I> As a result, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans meets the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard for the LIBOR index it replaces, and no further determination is required. In order to use the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as the replacement index for the applicable LIBOR index, the card issuer also must comply with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) that the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans and replacement margin will produce a rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. <I>See also</I> comment 55(b)(7)(i)-2.
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<P>iii. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the relevant factors to be considered in determining whether a replacement index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of a particular LIBOR index depend on the replacement index being considered and the LIBOR index being replaced. For example, these determinations may need to consider certain aspects of the historical data itself for a particular replacement index, such as whether the replacement index is a backward-looking rate (e.g., historical average of rates) such that timing aspects of the data may need to be adjusted to match up with the particular forward-looking LIBOR term-rate being replaced. The types of relevant factors to establish if a replacement index would meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to a particular LIBOR index using historical data, include but are not limited to, whether: (1) the movements over time are substantially similar; and (2) the consumers' payments using the replacement index compared to payments using the LIBOR index are substantially similar if there is sufficient historical data for this analysis. The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans is considered to meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to the LIBOR tenor being replaced, and therefore, these factors need not be considered.
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<P>2. <I>Substantially similar rate when LIBOR becomes unavailable.</I> Under § 1026.55(b)(7)(i), the replacement index and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect at the time the LIBOR index used under the plan became unavailable. For this comparison of the rates, a card issuer generally must use the value of the replacement index and the LIBOR index on the day that LIBOR becomes unavailable. If the replacement index is not published on the day that the LIBOR index becomes unavailable, the card issuer generally must use the previous calendar day that both indices are published as the date for selecting indices values in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The one exception is that if the replacement index is the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. The replacement index and replacement margin are not required to produce an annual percentage rate that is substantially similar on the day that the replacement index and replacement margin become effective on the plan. For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(7)(i), if a card issuer uses the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index as the replacement index and uses as the replacement margin the same margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan the card issuer will be deemed to be in compliance with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) that the replacement index and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate in effect at the time the LIBOR index became unavailable. The following example illustrates this comment.
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<P>i. Assume that the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index used under the plan becomes unavailable on June 30, 2023, and on that day the LIBOR value is 2%, the margin is 10%, and the annual percentage rate is 12%. Also, assume that a card issuer has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on June 30, 2023. The card issuer would satisfy the requirement to use a replacement index and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect when the LIBOR index used under the plan became unavailable by selecting a 7% replacement margin. (The prime index value of 5% and the replacement margin of 7% would produce a rate of 12% on June 30, 2023.) Thus, if the card issuer provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) on July 1, 2023, disclosing the prime index as the replacement index and a replacement margin of 7%, where these changes will become effective on August 16, 2023, the card issuer satisfies the requirement to use a replacement index and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate that was in effect when the LIBOR index used under the plan became unavailable. This is true even if the prime index value changes after June 30, 2023, and the annual percentage rate calculated using the prime index value and 7% margin on August 16, 2023, is not substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on June 30, 2023.
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<HD3>Paragraph 55(b)(7)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Replacing LIBOR.</I> For purposes of replacing a LIBOR index used under a plan, a replacement index that is not newly established must have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the historical fluctuations considered are the historical fluctuations up through the relevant date. If the Bureau has made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the date indicated in that determination. If the Bureau has not made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the later of April 1, 2022, or the date no more than 30 days before the card issuer makes a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar.
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<P>i. The Bureau has determined that effective April 1, 2022, the prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the 1-month and 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR indices, and no further determination is required. In order to use this prime rate as the replacement index for the 1-month or 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, the card issuer also must comply with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) that the prime rate index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. <I>See also</I> comments 55(b)(7)(ii)-2 and -3.
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<P>ii. By operation of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U and the Board's implementing regulation, 12 CFR part 253, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index being replaced. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I> As a result, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans meets the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard for the LIBOR index it replaces, and no further determination is required. In order to use the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as the replacement index for the applicable LIBOR index, the card issuer also must comply with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) that the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumers loans and replacement margin will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. Because of the exception in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii), the card issuer must use the index value on June 30, 2023, for the LIBOR index and, for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans, must use the index value on the first date that index is published, in determining whether the annual percentage rate based on the replacement index is substantially similar to the rate based on the LIBOR index. <I>See also</I> comments 55(b)(7)(ii)-2 and -3.
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<P>iii. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the relevant factors to be considered in determining whether a replacement index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of a particular LIBOR index depend on the replacement index being considered and the LIBOR index being replaced. For example, these determinations may need to consider certain aspects of the historical data itself for a particular replacement index, such as whether the replacement index is a backward-looking rate (e.g., historical average of rates) such that timing aspects of the data may need to be adjusted to match up with the particular forward-looking LIBOR term-rate being replaced. The types of relevant factors to establish if a replacement index would meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to a particular LIBOR index using historical data, include but are not limited to, whether: (1) the movements over time are substantially similar; and (2) the consumers' payments using the replacement index compared to payments using the LIBOR index are substantially similar if there is sufficient historical data for this analysis. The Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans is considered to meet the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard with respect to the LIBOR tenor being replaced, and therefore, these factors need not be considered.
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<P>2. <I>Using index values on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan.</I> Under § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii), if the replacement index was published on October 18, 2021, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. The margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan is the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to when the card issuer provides the change-in-terms notice disclosing the replacement index for the variable rate. The following examples illustrate how to determine the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan.
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<P>i. Assume a variable rate used under the plan that is based on the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, and assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023. On October 18, 2021, the LIBOR index value is 2%, the margin on that day is 10% and the annual percentage rate using that index value and margin is 12%. Assume that on November 16, 2021, pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3), a card issuer provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) disclosing a new margin of 12% for the variable rate that will apply to new transactions after November 30, 2021, and this change in the margin becomes effective on January 1, 2022. The margin for the variable rate applicable to the transactions that occurred on or prior to November 30, 2021, remains at 10%. Assume that there are no more changes in the margin used on the variable rate that applied to transactions that occurred after November 30, 2021, or to the margin used on the variable rate that applied to transactions that occurred on or prior to November 30, 2021, prior to when the card issuer provides a change-in-terms notice on April 1, 2022, disclosing the replacement index and replacement margins for both variable rates that will be effective on May 17, 2022. In this case, the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for transactions that occurred on or prior to November 30, 2021, is 10%. The margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for transactions that occurred after November 30, 2021, is 12%. Assume that the card issuer has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on October 18, 2021. A replacement margin of 7% is permissible under § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) for transactions that occurred on or prior to November 30, 2021, because that replacement margin combined with the prime index value of 5% on October 18, 2021, will produce an annual percentage rate of 12%, which is substantially similar to the 12% annual percentage rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, (which is 2%) and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for that balance (which is 10%). A replacement margin of 9% is permissible under § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) for transactions that occurred after November 30, 2021, because that replacement margin combined with the prime index value of 5% on October 18, 2021, will produce an annual percentage rate of 14%, which is substantially similar to the 14% annual percentage rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, (which is 2%) and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for transactions that occurred after November 30, 2021, (which is 12%).
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<P>ii. Assume a variable rate used under the plan that is based on the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index, and assume that LIBOR becomes unavailable after June 30, 2023. On October 18, 2021, the LIBOR index value is 2%, the margin on that day is 10% and the annual percentage rate using that index value and margin is 12%. Assume that on November 16, 2021, pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(4), a card issuer provides a penalty rate notice under § 1026.9(g) increasing the margin for the variable rate to 20% that will apply to both outstanding balances and new transactions effective January 1, 2022, because the consumer was more than 60 days late in making a minimum payment. Assume that there are no more changes in the margin used on the variable rate for either the outstanding balance or new transactions prior to April 1, 2022, the date on which the card issuer provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) disclosing the replacement index and replacement margin for the variable rate that will be effective on May 17, 2022. The margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for the outstanding balance and new transactions is 12%. Assume that the card issuer has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on October 18, 2021. A replacement margin of 17% is permissible under § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) for the outstanding balance and new transactions because that replacement margin combined with the prime index value of 5% on October 18, 2021, will produce an annual percentage rate of 22%, which is substantially similar to the 22% annual percentage rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, (which is 2%) and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan for the outstanding balance and new transactions (which is 20%).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substantially similar rate using index values on October 18, 2021.</I> Under § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii), if the replacement index was published on October 18, 2021, the replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin must produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. A card issuer is not required to produce an annual percentage rate that is substantially similar on the day that the replacement index and replacement margin become effective on the plan. For purposes of § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii), if a card issuer uses the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index as the replacement index and uses as the replacement margin the same margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan, the card issuer will be deemed to be in compliance with the condition in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) that the replacement index and replacement margin would have resulted in an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index. The following example illustrates this comment.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index used under the plan has a value of 2% on October 18, 2021, the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan is 10%, and the annual percentage rate based on that LIBOR index value and that margin is 12%. Also, assume that the card issuer has selected the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index, and the value of the prime index is 5% on October 18, 2021. A card issuer would satisfy the requirement to use a replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan, by selecting a 7% replacement margin. (The prime index value of 5% and the replacement margin of 7% would produce a rate of 12%.) Thus, if the card issuer provides a change-in-terms notice under § 1026.9(c)(2) on April 1, 2022, disclosing the prime index as the replacement index and a replacement margin of 7%, where these changes will become effective on May 17, 2022, the card issuer satisfies the requirement to use a replacement index value in effect on October 18, 2021, and replacement margin that will produce an annual percentage rate substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR value in effect on October 18, 2021, and the margin that applied to the variable rate immediately prior to the replacement of the LIBOR index used under the plan. This is true even if the prime index value or the LIBOR value change after October 18, 2021, and the annual percentage rate calculated using the prime index value and 7% margin on May 17, 2022, is not substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on October 18, 2021, or substantially similar to the rate calculated using the LIBOR index value on May 17, 2022.


</P>
<HD3>55(c) Treatment of protected balances
</HD3>
<HD3>55(c)(1) Definition of protected balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example of protected balance.</I> Assume that, on March 15 of year two, an account has a purchase balance of $1,000 at a non-variable annual percentage rate of 12% and that, on March 16, the card issuer sends a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) informing the consumer that the annual percentage rate for new purchases will increase to a non-variable rate of 15% on May 1. The fourteenth day after provision of the notice is March 29. On March 29, the consumer makes a $100 purchase. On March 30, the consumer makes a $150 purchase. On May 1, § 1026.55(b)(3)(ii) permits the card issuer to begin accruing interest at 15% on the $150 purchase made on March 30 but does not permit the card issuer to apply that 15% rate to the $1,100 purchase balance as of March 29. Accordingly, the protected balance for purposes of § 1026.55(c) is the $1,100 purchase balance as of March 29. The $150 purchase made on March 30 is not part of the protected balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>First year after account opening.</I> Section 1026.55(c) applies to amounts owed for a category of transactions to which an increased annual percentage rate or an increased fee or charge cannot be applied after the rate, fee, or charge for that category of transactions has been increased pursuant to § 1026.55(b)(3). Because § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii) does not permit a card issuer to increase an annual percentage rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) during the first year after account opening, § 1026.55(c) does not apply to balances during the first year after account opening.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Increased fees and charges.</I> Except as provided in § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii), § 1026.55(b)(3) permits a card issuer to increase a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) after complying with the applicable notice requirements in § 1026.9(b) or (c), provided that the increased fee or charge is not applied to a protected balance. To the extent consistent with § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii), a card issuer is not prohibited from increasing a fee or charge that applies to the account as a whole or to balances other than the protected balance. For example, after the first year following account opening, a card issuer generally may add or increase an annual or a monthly maintenance fee for an account after complying with the notice requirements in § 1026.9(c), including notifying the consumer of the right to reject the new or increased fee under § 1026.9(h). However, except as otherwise provided in § 1026.55(b), an increased fee or charge cannot be applied to an account while the account is closed or while the card issuer does not permit the consumer to use the account for new transactions. <I>See</I> § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii); <I>see also</I> §§ 1026.52(b)(2)(i)(B)(<I>3)</I> and 1026.55(d)(1). Furthermore, if the consumer rejects an increase in a fee or charge pursuant to § 1026.9(h), the card issuer is prohibited from applying the increased fee or charge to the account and from imposing any other fee or charge solely as a result of the rejection. <I>See</I> § 1026.9(h)(2)(i) and (ii); comment 9(h)(2)(ii)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Changing balance computation method.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 prohibits a card issuer from changing the balance computation method that applies to new transactions as well as protected balances.
</P>
<HD3>55(c)(2) Repayment of protected balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>No less beneficial to the consumer.</I> A card issuer may provide a method of repaying the protected balance that is different from the methods listed in § 1026.55(c)(2) so long as the method used is no less beneficial to the consumer than one of the listed methods. A method is no less beneficial to the consumer if the method results in a required minimum periodic payment that is equal to or less than a minimum payment calculated using the method for the account before the effective date of the increase. Similarly, a method is no less beneficial to the consumer if the method amortizes the balance in five years or longer or if the method results in a required minimum periodic payment that is equal to or less than a minimum payment calculated consistent with § 1026.55(c)(2)(iii). For example:
</P>
<P>i. If at account opening the cardholder agreement stated that the required minimum periodic payment would be either the total of fees and interest charges plus 1% of the total amount owed or $20 (whichever is greater), the card issuer may require the consumer to make a minimum payment of $20 even if doing so would pay off the balance in less than five years or constitute more than 2% of the balance plus fees and interest charges.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer could increase the percentage of the balance included in the required minimum periodic payment from 2% to 5% so long as doing so would not result in amortization of the balance in less than five years.
</P>
<P>iii. A card issuer could require the consumer to make a required minimum periodic payment that amortizes the balance in four years so long as doing so would not more than double the percentage of the balance included in the minimum payment prior to the date on which the increased annual percentage rate, fee, or charge became effective.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 55(c)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amortization period starting from effective date of increase.</I> Section 1026.55(c)(2)(ii) provides for an amortization period for the protected balance of no less than five years, starting from the date on which the increased annual percentage rate or fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii) became effective. A card issuer is not required to recalculate the required minimum periodic payment for the protected balance if, during the amortization period, that balance is reduced as a result of the allocation of payments by the consumer in excess of that minimum payment consistent with § 1026.53 or any other practice permitted by these rules and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Amortization when applicable rate is variable.</I> If the annual percentage rate that applies to the protected balance varies with an index, the card issuer may adjust the interest charges included in the required minimum periodic payment for that balance accordingly in order to ensure that the balance is amortized in five years. For example, assume that a variable rate that is currently 15% applies to a protected balance and that, in order to amortize that balance in five years, the required minimum periodic payment must include a specific amount of principal plus all accrued interest charges. If the 15% variable rate increases due to an increase in the index, the creditor may increase the required minimum periodic payment to include the additional interest charges.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 55(c)(2)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Portion of required minimum periodic payment on other balances.</I> Section 1026.55(c)(2)(iii) addresses the portion of the required minimum periodic payment based on the protected balance. Section 1026.55(c)(2)(iii) does not limit or otherwise address the card issuer's ability to determine the portion of the required minimum periodic payment based on other balances on the account or the card issuer's ability to apply that portion of the minimum payment to the balances on the account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example.</I> Assume that the method used by a card issuer to calculate the required minimum periodic payment for a credit card account requires the consumer to pay either the total of fees and accrued interest charges plus 2% of the total amount owed or $50, whichever is greater. Assume also that the account has a purchase balance of $2,000 at an annual percentage rate of 15% and a cash advance balance of $500 at an annual percentage rate of 20% and that the card issuer increases the rate for purchases to 18% but does not increase the rate for cash advances. Under § 1026.55(c)(2)(iii), the card issuer may require the consumer to pay fees and interest plus 4% of the $2,000 purchase balance. Section 1026.55(c)(2)(iii) does not limit the card issuer's ability to increase the portion of the required minimum periodic payment that is based on the cash advance balance.
</P>
<HD3>55(d) Continuing application
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Closed accounts.</I> If a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a balance is closed, § 1026.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a card issuer or a consumer closes a credit card account with a balance, § 1026.55(d)(1) prohibits the card issuer from increasing the annual percentage rate that applies to that balance or imposing a periodic fee based solely on that balance that was not charged before the account was closed (such as a closed account fee) unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> If, through merger or acquisition (for example), a card issuer acquires a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a balance, § 1026.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a credit card account has a $1,000 purchase balance with an annual percentage rate of 15% and the card issuer that acquires that account applies an 18% rate to purchases, § 1026.55(d)(1) prohibits the card issuer from applying the 18% rate to the $1,000 balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Balance transfers.</I> i. <I>Between accounts issued by the same creditor.</I> If a balance is transferred from a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor to another credit account issued by the same creditor or its affiliate or subsidiary, § 1026.55 continues to apply to that balance. For example, if a credit card account has a $2,000 purchase balance with an annual percentage rate of 15% and that balance is transferred to another credit card account issued by the same creditor that applies an 18% rate to purchases, § 1026.55(d)(2) prohibits the creditor from applying the 18% rate to the $2,000 balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). However, the creditor would not generally be prohibited from charging a new periodic fee (such as an annual fee) on the second account so long as the fee is not based solely on the $2,000 balance and the creditor has notified the consumer of the fee either by providing written notice 45 days before imposing the fee pursuant to § 1026.9(c) or by providing account-opening disclosures pursuant to § 1026.6(b). See also § 1026.55(b)(3)(iii); comment 55(b)(3)-3; comment 5(b)(1)(i)-6. Additional circumstances in which a balance is considered transferred for purposes of § 1026.55(d)(2) include when:
</P>
<P>A. A retail credit card account with a balance is replaced or substituted with a cobranded general purpose credit card account that can be used with a broader merchant base;
</P>
<P>B. A credit card account with a balance is replaced or substituted with another credit card account offering different features;
</P>
<P>C. A credit card account with a balance is consolidated or combined with one or more other credit card accounts into a single credit card account; and
</P>
<P>D. A credit card account is replaced or substituted with a line of credit that can be accessed solely by an account number.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Between accounts issued by different creditors.</I> If a balance is transferred to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan issued by a creditor from a credit card account issued by a different creditor or an institution that is not an affiliate or subsidiary of the creditor that issued the account to which the balance is transferred, § 1026.55(d)(2) does not prohibit the creditor to which the balance is transferred from applying its account terms to that balance, provided that those terms comply with this part. For example, if a credit card account issued by creditor A has a $1,000 purchase balance at an annual percentage rate of 15% and the consumer transfers that balance to a credit card account with a purchase rate of 17% issued by creditor B, creditor B may apply the 17% rate to the $1,000 balance. However, creditor B may not subsequently increase the rate on that balance unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b).
</P>
<HD3>55(e) Promotional waivers or rebates of interest, fees, and other charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Generally.</I> Nothing in § 1026.55 prohibits a card issuer from waiving or rebating finance charges due to a periodic interest rate or a fee or charge required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii), (b)(2)(iii), or (b)(2)(xii). However, if a card issuer promotes and applies the waiver or rebate to an account, the card issuer cannot temporarily or permanently cease or terminate any portion of the waiver or rebate on that account unless permitted by one of the exceptions in § 1026.55(b). For example:
</P>
<P>i. A card issuer applies an annual percentage rate of 15% to balance transfers but promotes a program under which all of the interest accrued on transferred balances will be waived or rebated for one year. If, prior to the commencement of the one-year period, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the annual percentage rate that will apply to transferred balances after expiration of that period consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1)(i), § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances after one year. Furthermore, if, during the one-year period, a required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days of the payment due date, § 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances (after providing a notice consistent with § 1026.9(g) and § 1026.55(b)(4)(i)). However, if a required minimum periodic payment is not more than 60 days delinquent or if the consumer otherwise violates the terms or other requirements of the account, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to begin imposing interest charges on transferred balances until the expiration of the one-year period.
</P>
<P>ii. A card issuer imposes a monthly maintenance fee of $10 but promotes a program under which the fee will be waived or rebated for the six months following account opening. If, prior to account opening, the card issuer discloses the length of the period and the monthly maintenance fee that will be imposed after expiration of that period consistent with § 1026.55(b)(1)(i), § 1026.55(b)(1) permits the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee six months after account opening. Furthermore, if, during the six-month period, a required minimum periodic payment is not received within 60 days of the payment due date, § 1026.55(b)(4) permits the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee (after providing a notice consistent with § 1026.9(c) and § 1026.55(b)(4)(i)). However, if a required minimum periodic payment is not more than 60 days delinquent or if the consumer otherwise violates the terms or other requirements of the account, § 1026.55 does not permit the card issuer to begin imposing the monthly maintenance fee until the expiration of the six-month period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Promotion of waiver or rebate.</I> For purposes of § 1026.55(e), a card issuer generally promotes a waiver or rebate if the card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in an advertisement (as defined in § 1026.2(a)(2)). <I>See</I> comment 2(a)(2)-1. In addition, a card issuer generally promotes a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 1026.55(e) if the card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in communications regarding existing accounts (such as communications regarding a promotion that encourages additional or different uses of an existing account). However, a card issuer does not promote a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 1026.55(e) if the advertisement or communication relates to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge or to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Examples of promotional communications.</I> The following are examples of circumstances in which a card issuer is promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 1026.55(e):
</P>
<P>A. A card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate in a newspaper, magazine, leaflet, promotional flyer, catalog, sign, or point-of-sale display, unless the disclosure relates to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived.
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer discloses the waiver or rebate on radio or television or through electronic advertisements (such as on the Internet), unless the disclosure relates to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer discloses a waiver or rebate to individual consumers, such as by telephone, letter, or electronic communication, through direct mail literature, or on or with account statements, unless the disclosure relates to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge or to interest, fees, or charges that have already been waived or rebated.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples of non-promotional communications.</I> The following are examples of circumstances in which a card issuer is not promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 1026.55(e):
</P>
<P>A. After a card issuer has waived or rebated interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 1026.55 with respect to an account, the issuer discloses the waiver or rebate to the accountholder on the periodic statement or by telephone, letter, or electronic communication. However, if the card issuer also discloses prospective waivers or rebates in the same communication, the issuer is promoting a waiver or rebate for purposes of § 1026.55(e).
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer communicates with a consumer about a waiver or rebate of interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 1026.55 in relation to an inquiry or dispute about a specific charge, including a dispute under §§ 1026.12 or 1026.13.
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer waives or rebates interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 1026.55 in order to comply with a legal requirement (such as the limitations in § 1026.52(a)).
</P>
<P>D. A card issuer discloses a grace period, as defined in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<P>E. A card issuer provides a period after the payment due date during which interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 1026.55 are waived or rebated even if a payment has not been received.
</P>
<P>F. A card issuer provides benefits (such as rewards points or cash back on purchases or finance charges) that can be applied to the account as credits, provided that the benefits are not promoted as reducing interest, fees, or other charges subject to § 1026.55.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relationship of § 1026.55(e) to grace period.</I> Section 1026.55(e) does not apply to the waiver of finance charges due to a periodic rate consistent with a grace period, as defined in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(<I>3</I>).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.56—Requirements for Over-the-Limit Transactions
</HD2>
<HD3>56(b) Opt-in requirement.
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Policy and practice of declining over-the-limit transactions.</I> Section 1026.56(b)(1)(i)-(v), including the requirements to provide notice and obtain consumer consent, do not apply to any card issuer that has a policy and practice of declining to pay any over-the-limit transactions for the consumer's credit card account when the card issuer has a reasonable belief that completing a transaction will cause the consumer to exceed the consumer's credit limit for that account. For example, if a card issuer only authorizes those transactions which, at the time of authorization, would not cause the consumer to exceed a credit limit, it is not subject to the requirement to provide consumers notice and an opportunity to affirmatively consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. However, if an over-the-limit transaction is paid without the consumer providing affirmative consent, the card issuer may not charge a fee for paying the transaction.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Over-the-limit transactions not required to be authorized or paid.</I> Section 1026.56 does not require a card issuer to authorize or pay an over-the-limit transaction even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Examples of reasonable opportunity to provide affirmative consent.</I> A card issuer provides a reasonable opportunity for the consumer to provide affirmative consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions when, among other things, it provides reasonable methods by which the consumer may affirmatively consent. A card issuer provides such reasonable methods if:
</P>
<P>i. <I>On the application.</I> The card issuer provides the notice on the application form that the consumer can fill out to request the service as part of the application;
</P>
<P>ii. <I>By mail.</I> The card issuer provides a form with the account-opening disclosures or the periodic statement for the consumer to fill out and mail to affirmatively request the service;
</P>
<P>iii. <I>By telephone.</I> The card issuer provides a readily available telephone line that consumers may call to provide affirmative consent.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>By electronic means.</I> The card issuer provides an electronic means for the consumer to affirmatively consent. For example, a card issuer could provide a form that can be accessed and processed at its Web site, where the consumer can check a box to opt in and confirm that choice by clicking on a button that affirms the consumer's consent.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Separate consent required.</I> A consumer's affirmative consent, or opt-in, to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions must be obtained separately from other consents or acknowledgments obtained by the card issuer. For example, a consumer's signature on a credit application to request a credit card would not by itself sufficiently evidence the consumer's consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. However, a card issuer may obtain a consumer's affirmative consent by providing a blank signature line or a check box on the application that the consumer can sign or select to request the over-the-limit service, provided that the signature line or check box is used solely for purposes of evidencing the choice and not for any other purpose, such as to also obtain consumer consents for other account services or features or to receive disclosures electronically.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Written confirmation.</I> A card issuer may comply with the requirement in § 1026.56(b)(1)(iv) to provide written confirmation of the consumer's decision to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions by providing the consumer a copy of the consumer's completed opt-in form or by sending a letter or notice to the consumer acknowledging that the consumer has elected to opt into the card issuer's service. A card issuer may also satisfy the written confirmation requirement by providing the confirmation on the first periodic statement sent after the consumer has opted in. For example, a card issuer could provide a written notice consistent with § 1026.56(e)(2) on the periodic statement. A card issuer may not, however, assess any over-the-limit fees or charges on the consumer's credit card account unless and until the card issuer has sent the written confirmation. Thus, if a card issuer elects to provide written confirmation on the first periodic statement after the consumer has opted in, it would not be permitted to assess any over-the-limit fees or charges until the next statement cycle.
</P>
<HD3>56(b)(2) Completion of over-the-limit transactions without consumer consent
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples of over-the-limit transactions paid without consumer consent.</I> Section 1026.56(b)(2) provides that a card issuer may pay an over-the-limit transaction even if the consumer has not provided affirmative consent, so long as the card issuer does not impose a fee or charge for paying the transaction. The prohibition on imposing fees for paying an over-the-limit transaction applies even in circumstances where the card issuer is unable to avoid paying a transaction that exceeds the consumer's credit limit.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Transactions not submitted for authorization.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer purchases a $3 cup of coffee using his credit card. Because of the small dollar amount of the transaction, the merchant does not submit the transaction to the card issuer for authorization. The transaction causes the consumer to exceed the credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Settlement amount exceeds authorization amount.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer uses his credit card at a pay-at-the-pump fuel dispenser to purchase $50 of fuel. Before permitting the consumer to use the fuel pump, the merchant verifies the validity of the card by requesting an authorization hold of $1. The subsequent $50 transaction amount causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Intervening charges.</I> A consumer has not affirmatively consented to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer makes a $50 purchase using his credit card. However, before the $50 transaction is charged to the consumer's account, a separate recurring charge is posted to the account. The $50 purchase then causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit. Under these circumstances, the card issuer is prohibited from imposing a fee or charge on the consumer's credit card account for paying the over-the-limit transaction because the consumer has not opted in to the card issuer's over-the-limit service.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Permissible fees or charges when a consumer has not consented.</I> Section 1026.56(b)(2) does not preclude a card issuer from assessing fees or charges other than over-the-limit fees when an over-the-limit transaction is completed. For example, if a consumer has not opted in, the card issuer may assess a balance transfer fee in connection with a balance transfer, provided such a fee is assessed whether or not the transfer exceeds the credit limit. Section 1026.56(b)(2) does not limit the card issuer's ability to debit the consumer's account for the amount of the over-the-limit transaction if the card issuer is permitted to do so under applicable law. The card issuer may also assess interest charges in connection with the over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<HD3>56(c) Method of election
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card issuer-determined methods.</I> A card issuer may determine the means available to consumers to affirmatively consent, or opt in, to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. For example, a card issuer may decide to obtain consents in writing, electronically, or orally, or through some combination of these methods. Section 1026.56(c) further requires, however, that such methods must be made equally available for consumers to revoke a prior consent. Thus, for example, if a card issuer allows a consumer to consent in writing or electronically, it must also allow the consumer to revoke that consent in writing or electronically.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Electronic requests.</I> A consumer consent or revocation request submitted electronically is not considered a consumer disclosure for purposes of the E-Sign Act.
</P>
<HD3>56(d) Timing and placement of notices
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Contemporaneous notice for oral or electronic consent.</I> Under § 1026.56(d)(1)(ii), if a card issuer seeks to obtain consent from the consumer orally or by electronic means, the card issuer must provide a notice containing the disclosures in § 1026.56(e)(1) prior to and as part of the process of obtaining the consumer's consent.
</P>
<HD3>56(e) Content
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amount of over-the-limit fee.</I> See Model Forms G-25(A) and G-25(B) for guidance on how to disclose the amount of the over-the-limit fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Notice content.</I> In describing the consumer's right to affirmatively consent to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the card issuer may explain that any transactions that exceed the consumer's credit limit will be declined if the consumer does not consent to the service. In addition, the card issuer should explain that even if a consumer consents, the payment of over-the-limit transactions is at the discretion of the card issuer. For example, the card issuer may indicate that it may decline a transaction for any reason, such as if the consumer is past due or significantly over the limit. The card issuer may also disclose the consumer's right to revoke consent.
</P>
<HD3>56(f) Joint relationships
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Authorized users.</I> Section 1026.56(f) does not permit a card issuer to treat a request to opt in to or to revoke a prior request for the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions from an authorized user that is not jointly liable on a credit card account as a consent or revocation request for that account.
</P>
<HD3>56(g) Continuing right to opt in or revoke opt-in
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges for over-the-limit transactions incurred prior to revocation.</I> Section 1026.56(g) provides that a consumer may revoke his or her prior consent at any time. If a consumer does so, this provision does not require the card issuer to waive or reverse any over-the-limit fees or charges assessed to the consumer's account for transactions that occurred prior to the card issuer's implementation of the consumer's revocation request. Nor does this requirement prevent the card issuer from assessing over-the-limit fees in subsequent cycles if the consumer's account balance continues to exceed the credit limit after the payment due date as a result of an over-the-limit transaction that occurred prior to the consumer's revocation of consent.
</P>
<HD3>56(h) Duration of opt-in
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card issuer ability to stop paying over-the-limit transactions after consumer consent.</I> A card issuer may cease paying over-the-limit transactions for consumers that have previously opted in at any time and for any reason. For example, a card issuer may stop paying over-the-limit transactions for a consumer to respond to changes in the credit risk presented by the consumer.
</P>
<HD3>56(j) Prohibited practices
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Periodic fees or charges.</I> A card issuer may charge an over-the-limit fee or charge only if the consumer has exceeded the credit limit during the billing cycle. Thus, a card issuer may not impose any recurring or periodic fees for paying over-the-limit transactions (for example, a monthly “over-the-limit protection” service fee), even if the consumer has affirmatively consented to or opted in to the service, unless the consumer has in fact exceeded the credit limit during that cycle.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples of limits on fees or charges imposed per billing cycle.</I> Section 1026.56(j)(1) generally prohibits a card issuer from assessing a fee or charge due to the same over-the-limit transaction for more than three billing cycles. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a consumer has opted into a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer exceeds the credit limit during the December billing cycle and does not make sufficient payment to bring the account balance back under the limit for four consecutive cycles. The consumer does not engage in any additional transactions during this period. In this case, § 1026.56(j)(1) would permit the card issuer to charge a maximum of three over-the-limit fees for the December over-the-limit transaction.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume the same facts as above except that the consumer makes sufficient payment to reduce his account balance by the payment due date during the February billing cycle. The card issuer may charge over-the-limit fees for the December and January billing cycles. However, because the consumer's account balance was below the credit limit by the payment due date for the February billing cycle, the card issuer may not charge an over-the-limit fee for the February billing cycle.
</P>
<P>iii. Assume the same facts as in paragraph i, except that the consumer engages in another over-the-limit transaction during the February billing cycle. Because the consumer has obtained an additional extension of credit which causes the consumer to exceed his credit limit, the card issuer may charge over-the-limit fees for the December transaction on the January, February and March billing statements, and additional over-the-limit fees for the February transaction on the April and May billing statements. The card issuer may not charge an over-the-limit fee for each of the December and the February transactions on the March billing statement because it is prohibited from imposing more than one over-the-limit fee during a billing cycle.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Replenishment of credit line.</I> Section 1026.56(j)(2) does not prevent a card issuer from delaying replenishment of a consumer's available credit where appropriate, for example, where the card issuer may suspect fraud on the credit card account. However, a card issuer may not assess an over-the-limit fee or charge if the over-the-limit transaction is caused by the card issuer's decision not to promptly replenish the available credit after the consumer's payment is credited to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples of conditioning.</I> Section 1026.56(j)(3) prohibits a card issuer from conditioning or otherwise tying the amount of a consumer's credit limit on the consumer affirmatively consenting to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions where the card issuer assesses an over-the-limit fee for the transaction. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Amount of credit limit.</I> Assume that a card issuer offers a credit card with a credit limit of $1,000. The consumer is informed that if the consumer opts in to the payment of the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the initial credit limit would be increased to $1,300. If the card issuer would have offered the credit card with the $1,300 credit limit but for the fact that the consumer did not consent to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions, the card issuer would not be in compliance with § 1026.56(j)(3). Section 1026.56(j)(3) prohibits the card issuer from tying the consumer's opt-in to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions as a condition of obtaining the credit card with the $1,300 credit limit.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Access to credit.</I> Assume the same facts as above, except that the card issuer declines the consumer's application altogether because the consumer has not affirmatively consented or opted in to the card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The card issuer is not in compliance with § 1026.56(j)(3) because the card issuer has required the consumer's consent as a condition of obtaining credit.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Over-the-limit fees caused by accrued fees or interest.</I> Section 1026.56(j)(4) prohibits a card issuer from imposing any over-the-limit fees or charges on a consumer's account if the consumer has exceeded the credit limit solely because charges imposed as part of the plan as described in § 1026.6(b)(3) were charged to the consumer's account during the billing cycle. For example, a card issuer may not assess an over-the-limit fee or charge even if the credit limit was exceeded due to fees for services requested by the consumer if such fees would constitute charges imposed as part of the plan (such as fees for voluntary debt cancellation or suspension coverage). Section 1026.56(j)(4) does not, however, restrict card issuers from assessing over-the-limit fees or charges due to accrued finance charges or fees from prior cycles that have subsequently been added to the account balance. The following examples illustrate the prohibition.
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a consumer has opted in to a card issuer's payment of over-the-limit transactions. The consumer's account has a credit limit of $500. The billing cycles for the account begin on the first day of the month and end on the last day of the month. The account is not eligible for a grace period as defined in § 1026.5(b)(2)(ii)(B)(3). On December 31, the only balance on the account is a purchase balance of $475. On that same date, $50 in fees charged as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3)(i) and interest charges are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance at the end of the December billing cycle to $525. Although the total balance exceeds the $500 credit limit, § 1026.56(j)(4) prohibits the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge for the December billing cycle in these circumstances because the consumer's credit limit was exceeded solely because of the imposition of fees and interest charges during that cycle.
</P>
<P>ii. Same facts as above except that, on December 31, the only balance on the account is a purchase balance of $400. On that same date, $50 in fees imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3)(i), including interest charges, are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance at the end of the December billing cycle to $450. The consumer makes a $25 payment by the January payment due date and the remaining $25 in fees imposed as part of the plan in December is added to the outstanding balance. On January 25, an $80 purchase is charged to the account. At the close of the cycle on January 31, an additional $20 in fees imposed as part of the plan are imposed on the account, increasing the total balance to $525. Because § 1026.56(j)(4) does not require the issuer to consider fees imposed as part of the plan for the prior cycle in determining whether an over-the-limit fee may be properly assessed for the current cycle, the issuer need not take into account the remaining $25 in fees and interest charges from the December cycle in determining whether fees imposed as part of the plan caused the consumer to exceed the credit limit during the January cycle. Thus, under these circumstances, § 1026.56(j)(4) does not prohibit the card issuer from imposing an over-the-limit fee or charge for the January billing cycle because the $20 in fees imposed as part of the plan for the January billing cycle did not cause the consumer to exceed the credit limit during that cycle.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Additional restrictions on over-the-limit fees.</I> See § 1026.52(b).




</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.57—Reporting and Marketing Rules for College Student Open-End Credit 
</HD2>
<HD3>57(a) Definitions 
</HD3>
<HD3>57(a)(1) College Student Credit Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> The definition of college student credit card excludes home-equity lines of credit accessed by credit cards and covered overdraft credit accounts as defined in 1026.62 offered by a creditor other than a very large financial institution as defined in 1026.62 that is accessed by a debit card or account number. A college student credit card includes a college affinity card within the meaning of TILA section 127(r)(1)(A). In addition, a card may fall within the scope of the definition regardless of the fact that it is not intentionally targeted at or marketed to college students. For example, an agreement between a college and a card issuer may provide for marketing of credit cards to alumni, faculty, staff, and other non-student consumers who have a relationship with the college, but also contain provisions that contemplate the issuance of cards to students. A credit card issued to a student at the college in connection with such an agreement qualifies as a college student credit card. The definition of college student credit card includes a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61 that is issued to any college student where the card can access a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The definition of college student credit card also includes a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 that is issued to any college student where a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61 may be added in the future to the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>57(a)(5) College credit card agreement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition.</I> Section 1026.57(a)(5) defines “college credit card agreement” to include any business, marketing or promotional agreement between a card issuer and a college or university (or an affiliated organization, such as an alumni club or a foundation) if the agreement provides for the issuance of credit cards to full-time or part-time students. Business, marketing or promotional agreements may include a broad range of arrangements between a card issuer and an institution of higher education or affiliated organization, including arrangements that do not meet the criteria to be considered college affinity card agreements as discussed in TILA section 127(r)(1)(A). For example, TILA section 127(r)(1)(A) specifies that under a college affinity card agreement, the card issuer has agreed to make a donation to the institution or affiliated organization, the card issuer has agreed to offer discounted terms to the consumer, or the credit card will display pictures, symbols, or words identified with the institution or affiliated organization; even if these conditions are not met, an agreement may qualify as a college credit card agreement, if the agreement is a business, marketing or promotional agreement that contemplates the issuance of college student credit cards to college students currently enrolled (either full-time or part-time) at the institution. An agreement may qualify as a college credit card agreement even if marketing of cards under the agreement is targeted at alumni, faculty, staff, and other non-student consumers, as long as cards may also be issued to students in connection with the agreement. This definition also includes a business, marketing, or promotional agreement between a card issuer and a college or university (or an affiliated organization, such as an alumni club or a foundation) if the agreement provides for the addition of a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61 to prepaid accounts previously issued to full-time or part-time students. This definition also includes a business, marketing, or promotional agreement between a card issuer and a college or university (or an affiliated organization, such as an alumni club or a foundation) if (1) the agreement provides for the issuance of prepaid accounts as defined in § 1026.61 to full-time or part-time students; and (2) a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61 may be added in the future to the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>57(b) Public disclosure of agreements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Public disclosure.</I> Section 1026.57(b) requires an institution of higher education to publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer or creditor for the purpose of marketing a credit card. Examples of publicly disclosing such contracts or agreements include, but are not limited to, posting such contracts or agreements on the institution's Web site or making such contracts or agreements available upon request, provided the procedures for requesting the documents are reasonable and free of cost to the requestor, and the requested contracts or agreements are provided within a reasonable time frame.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Redaction prohibited.</I> An institution of higher education must publicly disclose any contract or other agreement made with a card issuer for the purpose of marketing a credit card in its entirety and may not redact any portion of such contract or agreement. Any clause existing in such contracts or agreements, providing for the confidentiality of any portion of the contract or agreement, would be invalid to the extent it restricts the ability of the institution of higher education to publicly disclose the contract or agreement in its entirety.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Credit card accounts in connection with prepaid accounts.</I> Section 1026.57(b) applies to any contract or other agreement that an institution of higher education makes with a card issuer or creditor for the purpose of marketing either (1) the addition of a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to prepaid accounts previously issued to full-time or part-time students; or (2) new prepaid accounts as defined in § 1026.61 where a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 may be added in the future to the prepaid account. Thus, under § 1026.57(b), an institution of higher education must publicly disclose such agreements.


</P>
<HD3>57(c) Prohibited inducements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Tangible item clarified.</I> A tangible item includes any physical item, such as a gift card, a t-shirt, or a magazine subscription, that a card issuer or creditor offers to induce a college student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor. Tangible items do not include non-physical inducements such as discounts, rewards points, or promotional credit terms.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Inducement clarified.</I> If a tangible item is offered to a person whether or not that person applies for or opens an open-end consumer credit plan, the tangible item has not been offered to induce the person to apply for or open the plan. For example, refreshments offered to a college student on campus that are not conditioned on whether the student has applied for or agreed to open an open-end consumer credit plan would not violate § 1026.57(c).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Near campus clarified.</I> A location that is within 1,000 feet of the border of the campus of an institution of higher education, as defined by the institution of higher education, is considered near the campus of an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Mailings included.</I> The prohibition in § 1026.57(c) on offering a tangible item to a college student to induce such student to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor applies to any solicitation or application mailed to a college student at an address on or near the campus of an institution of higher education.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Related event clarified.</I> An event is related to an institution of higher education if the marketing of such event uses the name, emblem, mascot, or logo of an institution of higher education, or other words, pictures, symbols identified with an institution of higher education in a way that implies that the institution of higher education endorses or otherwise sponsors the event.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Reasonable procedures for determining if applicant is a student.</I> Section 1026.57(c) applies solely to offering a tangible item to a college student. Therefore, a card issuer or creditor may offer any person who is not a college student a tangible item to induce such person to apply for or open an open-end consumer credit plan offered by such card issuer or creditor, on campus, near campus, or at an event sponsored by or related to an institution of higher education. The card issuer or creditor must have reasonable procedures for determining whether an applicant is a college student before giving the applicant the tangible item. For example, a card issuer or creditor may ask whether the applicant is a college student as part of the application process. The card issuer or creditor may rely on the representations made by the applicant.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Credit card accounts in connection with prepaid accounts.</I> Section 1026.57(c) applies to (1) the application for or opening of a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 that is being added to a prepaid account previously issued to a full-time or part-time student as well as (2) the application for or opening of a prepaid account as defined in § 1026.61 where a covered separate credit feature that is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 may be added in the future to the prepaid account.


</P>
<HD3>57(d) Annual report to the Bureau 
</HD3>
<HD3>57(d)(2) Contents of report
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Memorandum of understanding.</I> Section 1026.57(d)(2) requires that the report to the Bureau include, among other items, a copy of any memorandum of understanding between the card issuer and the institution (or affiliated organization) that “directly or indirectly relates to the college credit card agreement or that controls or directs any obligations or distribution of benefits between any such entities.” Such a memorandum of understanding includes any document that amends the college credit card agreement, or that constitutes a further agreement between the parties as to the interpretation or administration of the agreement. For example, a memorandum of understanding required to be included in the report would include a document that provides details on the dollar amounts of payments from the card issuer to the university, to supplement the original agreement which only provided for payments in general terms (e.g., as a percentage). A memorandum of understanding for these purposes would not include email (or other) messages that merely discuss matters such as the addresses to which payments should be sent or the names of contact persons for carrying out the agreement.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.58—Internet Posting of Credit Card Agreements 
</HD2>
<HD3>58(b) Definitions 
</HD3>
<HD3>58(b)(1) Agreement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Inclusion of pricing information.</I> For purposes of this section, a credit card agreement is deemed to include certain information, such as annual percentage rates and fees, even if the issuer does not otherwise include this information in the basic credit contract. This information is listed under the defined term “pricing information” in § 1026.58(b)(7). For example, the basic credit contract may not specify rates, fees and other information that constitutes pricing information as defined in § 1026.58(b)(7); instead, such information may be provided to the cardholder in a separate document sent along with the card. However, this information nevertheless constitutes part of the agreement for purposes of § 1026.58.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Provisions contained in separate documents included.</I> A credit card agreement is defined as the written document or documents evidencing the terms of the legal obligation, or the prospective legal obligation, between a card issuer and a consumer for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. An agreement therefore may consist of several documents that, taken together, define the legal obligation between the issuer and consumer. For example, provisions that mandate arbitration or allow an issuer to unilaterally alter the terms of the card issuer's or consumer's obligation are part of the agreement even if they are provided to the consumer in a document separate from the basic credit contract.
</P>
<HD3>58(b)(2) Amends
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantive changes.</I> A change to an agreement is substantive, and therefore is deemed an amendment of the agreement, if it alters the rights or obligations of the parties. Section 1026.58(b)(2) provides that any change in the pricing information, as defined in § 1026.58(b)(7), is deemed to be substantive. Examples of other changes that generally would be considered substantive include:
</P>
<P>i. Addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer a right under the agreement, such as a clause that allows an issuer to unilaterally change the terms of an agreement.
</P>
<P>ii. Addition or deletion of a provision giving the issuer or consumer an obligation under the agreement, such as a clause requiring the consumer to pay an additional fee.
</P>
<P>iii. Changes that may affect the cost of credit to the consumer, such as changes in a provision describing how the minimum payment will be calculated.
</P>
<P>iv. Changes that may affect how the terms of the agreement are construed or applied, such as changes in a choice-of-law provision.
</P>
<P>v. Changes that may affect the parties to whom the agreement may apply, such as provisions regarding authorized users or assignment of the agreement.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Non-substantive changes.</I> Changes that generally would not be considered substantive include, for example:
</P>
<P>i. Correction of typographical errors that do not affect the meaning of any terms of the agreement.
</P>
<P>ii. Changes to the card issuer's corporate name, logo, or tagline.
</P>
<P>iii. Changes to the format of the agreement, such as conversion to a booklet from a full-sheet format, changes in font, or changes in margins.
</P>
<P>iv. Changes to the name of the credit card to which the program applies.
</P>
<P>v. Reordering sections of the agreement without affecting the meaning of any terms of the agreement.
</P>
<P>vi. Adding, removing, or modifying a table of contents or index.
</P>
<P>vii. Changes to titles, headings, section numbers, or captions.
</P>
<HD3>58(b)(4) Card issuer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card issuer clarified.</I> Section 1026.58(b)(4) provides that, for purposes of § 1026.58, card issuer or issuer means the entity to which a consumer is legally obligated, or would be legally obligated, under the terms of a credit card agreement. For example, Bank X and Bank Y work together to issue credit cards. A consumer that obtains a credit card issued pursuant to this arrangement between Bank X and Bank Y is subject to an agreement that states “This is an agreement between you, the consumer, and Bank X that governs the terms of your Bank Y Credit Card.” The card issuer in this example is Bank X, because the agreement creates a legally enforceable obligation between the consumer and Bank X. Bank X is the issuer even if the consumer applied for the card through a link on Bank Y's Web site and the cards prominently feature the Bank Y logo on the front of the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of third-party service providers.</I> An institution that is the card issuer as defined in § 1026.58(b)(4) has a legal obligation to comply with the requirements of § 1026.58. However, a card issuer generally may use a third-party service provider to satisfy its obligations under § 1026.58, provided that the issuer acts in accordance with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance. In some cases, an issuer may wish to arrange for the institution with which it partners to issue credit cards to fulfill the requirements of § 1026.58 on the issuer's behalf. For example, Retailer and Bank work together to issue credit cards. Under the § 1026.58(b)(4) definition, Bank is the issuer of these credit cards for purposes of § 1026.58. However, Retailer services the credit card accounts, including mailing account opening materials and periodic statements to cardholders. While Bank is responsible for ensuring compliance with § 1026.58, Bank may arrange for Retailer (or another appropriate third-party service provider) to submit credit card agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58 on Bank's behalf. Bank must comply with regulatory guidance regarding use of third-party service providers and other applicable regulatory guidance.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Partner institution Web sites.</I> i. As explained in comments 58(d)-2 and 58(e)-3, if an issuer provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party Web site, the issuer is deemed to maintain that Web site for purposes of § 1026.58. Such a Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1026.58 even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. A partner institution's Web site is an example of a third-party Web site that may be deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1026.58. For example, Retailer and Bank work together to issue credit cards. Under the § 1026.58(b)(4) definition, Bank is the issuer of these credit cards for purposes of § 1026.58. Bank does not have a Web site. However, cardholders can access information about their individual accounts, such as balance information and copies of statements, through a Web site maintained by Retailer. Retailer designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site. The Web site is branded and held out to the public as belonging to Retailer. Because cardholders can access information about their individual accounts through this Web site, the Web site is deemed to be maintained by Bank for purposes of § 1026.58. Bank therefore may comply with § 1026.58(d) by ensuring that agreements offered to the public are posted on Retailer's Web site in accordance with § 1026.58(d). Bank may comply with § 1026.58(e) by ensuring that cardholders can request copies of their individual agreements through Retailer's Web site in accordance with § 1026.58(e)(1). Bank need not create and maintain a Web site branded and held out to the public as belonging to Bank in order to comply with §§ 1026.58(d) and (e) as long as Bank ensures that Retailer's Web site complies with these sections.
</P>
<P>ii. In addition, § 1026.58(d)(1) provides that, with respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, an issuer may comply with § 1026.58(d) by posting the agreement on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which credit cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used. This rule is not conditioned on cardholders' ability to access account-specific information through the merchant's Web site.
</P>
<HD3>58(b)(5) Offers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Cards offered to limited groups.</I> A card issuer is deemed to offer a credit card agreement to the public even if the issuer solicits, or accepts applications from, only a limited group of persons. For example, a card issuer may market affinity cards to students and alumni of a particular educational institution, or may solicit only high-net-worth individuals for a particular card; in these cases, the agreement would be considered to be offered to the public. Similarly, agreements for credit cards issued by a credit union are considered to be offered to the public even though such cards are available only to credit union members.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Individualized agreements.</I> A card issuer is deemed to offer a credit card agreement to the public even if the terms of the agreement are changed immediately upon opening of an account to terms not offered to the public.
</P>
<HD3>58(b)(6) Open account
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Open account clarified.</I> The definition of open account includes a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan if either (i) the cardholder can obtain extensions of credit on the account; or (ii) there is an outstanding balance on the account that has not been charged off. Under this definition, an account that meets either of these criteria is considered to be open even if the account is inactive. Similarly, if an account has been closed for new activity (for example, due to default by the cardholder), but the cardholder is still making payments to pay off the outstanding balance, the account is considered open.
</P>
<HD3>58(b)(8) Private Label Credit Card Account and Private Label Credit Card Plan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Private label credit card account.</I> The term private label credit card account means a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan with a credit card that can be used to make purchases only at a single merchant or an affiliated group of merchants. This term applies to any such credit card account, regardless of whether it is issued by the merchant or its affiliate or by an unaffiliated third party.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Co-branded credit cards.</I> The term private label credit card account does not include accounts with so-called co-branded credit cards. Credit cards that display the name, mark, or logo of a merchant or affiliated group of merchants as well as the mark, logo, or brand of payment network are generally referred to as co-branded cards. While these credit cards may display the brand of the merchant or affiliated group of merchants as the dominant brand on the card, such credit cards are usable at any merchant that participates in the payment network. Because these credit cards can be used at multiple unaffiliated merchants, accounts with such credit cards are not considered private label credit card accounts under § 1026.58(b)(8).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Affiliated group of merchants.</I> The term “affiliated group of merchants” means two or more affiliated merchants or other persons that are related by common ownership or common corporate control. For example, the term would include franchisees that are subject to a common set of corporate policies or practices under the terms of their franchise licenses. The term also applies to two or more merchants or other persons that agree among each other, by contract or otherwise, to accept a credit card bearing the same name, mark, or logo (other than the mark, logo, or brand of a payment network), for the purchase of goods or services solely at such merchants or persons. For example, several local clothing retailers jointly agree to issue credit cards called the “Main Street Fashion Card” that can be used to make purchases only at those retailers. For purposes of this section, these retailers would be considered an affiliated group of merchants.
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<P>4. <I>Private label credit card plan.</I> i. Which credit card accounts issued by a particular issuer constitute a private label credit card plan is determined by where the credit cards can be used. All of the private label credit card accounts issued by a particular card issuer with credit cards usable at the same merchant or affiliated group of merchants constitute a single private label credit card plan, regardless of whether the rates, fees, or other terms applicable to the individual credit card accounts differ. For example, a card issuer has 3,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 5,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and its affiliates. The card issuer has two separate private label credit card plans, as defined by § 1026.58(b)(8)—one plan consisting of 3,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and another plan consisting of 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and its affiliates.
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<P>ii. The example above remains the same regardless of whether (or the extent to which) the terms applicable to the individual open accounts differ. For example, assume that, with respect to the card issuer's 3,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A in the example above, 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 12 percent, 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 15 percent, and 1,000 of the open accounts have a purchase APR of 18 percent. All of the 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates have the same 15 percent purchase APR. The card issuer still has only two separate private label credit card plans, as defined by § 1026.58(b)(8). The open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A do not constitute three separate private label credit card plans under § 1026.58(b)(8), even though the accounts are subject to different terms.
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<HD3>58(c) Submission of Agreements to Bureau
</HD3>
<HD3>58(c)(1) Quarterly Submissions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Quarterly submission requirement.</I> Section 1026.58(c)(1) requires card issuers to send quarterly submissions to the Bureau no later than the first business day on or after January 31, April 30, July 31, and October 31 of each year. For example, a card issuer has already submitted three credit card agreements to the Bureau. On October 15, the card issuer stops offering agreement A. On November 20, the card issuer amends agreement B. On December 1, the issuer starts offering a new agreement D. The card issuer must submit to the Bureau no later than the first business day on or after January 31 (i) notification that the card issuer is withdrawing agreement A, because it is no longer offered to the public; (ii) the amended version of agreement B; and (iii) agreement D.
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<P>2. <I>No quarterly submission required.</I> i. Under § 1026.58(c)(1), a card issuer is not required to make any submission to the Bureau at a particular quarterly submission deadline if, during the previous calendar quarter, the card issuer did not take any of the following actions:
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<P>A. Offering a new credit card agreement that was not submitted to the Bureau previously.
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<P>B. Amending an agreement previously submitted to the Bureau.
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<P>C. Ceasing to offer an agreement previously submitted to the Bureau.
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<P>ii. For example, a card issuer offers five agreements to the public as of September 30 and submits these to the Bureau by October 31, as required by § 1026.58(c)(1). Between September 30 and December 31, the card issuer continues to offer all five of these agreements to the public without amending them and does not begin offering any new agreements. The card issuer is not required to make any submission to the Bureau by the following January 31.
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<P>3. <I>Quarterly submission of complete set of updated agreements.</I> Section 1026.58(c)(1) permits a card issuer to submit to the Bureau on a quarterly basis a complete, updated set of the credit card agreements the card issuer offers to the public. For example, a card issuer offers agreements A, B, and C to the public as of March 31. The card issuer submits each of these agreements to the Bureau by April 30 as required by § 1026.58(c)(1). On May 15, the card issuer amends agreement A, but does not make any changes to agreements B or C. As of June 30, the card issuer continues to offer amended agreement A and agreements B and C to the public. At the next quarterly submission deadline, July 31, the card issuer must submit the entire amended agreement A and is not required to make any submission with respect to agreements B and C. The card issuer may either: (i) Submit the entire amended agreement A and make no submission with respect to agreements B and C; or (ii) submit the entire amended agreement A and also resubmit agreements B and C. A card issuer may choose to resubmit to the Bureau all of the agreements it offered to the public as of a particular quarterly submission deadline even if the card issuer has not introduced any new agreements or amended any agreements since its last submission and continues to offer all previously submitted agreements.
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<HD3>58(c)(3) Amended Agreements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>No requirement to resubmit agreements not amended.</I> Under § 1026.58(c)(3), if a credit card agreement has been submitted to the Bureau, the agreement has not been amended, and the card issuer continues to offer the agreement to the public, no additional submission regarding that agreement is required. For example, a credit card issuer begins offering an agreement in October and submits the agreement to the Bureau the following January 31, as required by § 1026.58(c)(1). As of March 31, the card issuer has not amended the agreement and is still offering the agreement to the public. The card issuer is not required to submit anything to the Bureau regarding that agreement by April 30.
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<P>2. <I>Submission of amended agreements.</I> If a card issuer amends a credit card agreement previously submitted to the Bureau, § 1026.58(c)(3) requires the card issuer to submit the entire amended agreement to the Bureau. The issuer must submit the amended agreement to the Bureau by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective. However, the issuer is required to submit the amended agreement to the Bureau only if the issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change became effective. For example, a card issuer submits an agreement to the Bureau on October 31. On November 15, the issuer changes the balance computation method used under the agreement. Because an element of the pricing information has changed, the agreement has been amended for purposes of § 1026.58(c)(3). On December 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the change in the balance computation method became effective, the issuer still offers the agreement to the public as amended on November 15. The issuer must submit the entire amended agreement to the Bureau no later than January 31.
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<P>3. <I>Agreements amended but no longer offered to the public.</I> A card issuer should submit an amended agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(3) only if the issuer offered the amended agreement to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter in which the amendment became effective. Agreements that are not offered to the public as of the last day of the calendar quarter should not be submitted to the Bureau. For example, on December 31 a card issuer offers two agreements, Agreement A and Agreement B. The issuer submits these agreements to the Bureau by January 31 as required by § 1026.58. On February 15, the issuer amends both Agreement A and Agreement B. On February 28, the issuer stops offering Agreement A to the public. On March 15, the issuer amends Agreement B a second time. As a result, on March 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter, the issuer offers to the public one agreement—Agreement B as amended on March 15. By the April 30 quarterly submission deadline, the issuer must (i) notify the Bureau that it is withdrawing Agreement A because Agreement A is no longer offered to the public; and (ii) submit to the Bureau Agreement B as amended on March 15. The issuer should not submit to the Bureau either Agreement A as amended on February 15 or the earlier version of Agreement B (as amended on February 15), as neither was offered to the public on March 31, the last business day of the calendar quarter.
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<P>4. <I>Change-in-terms notices not permissible.</I> Section 1026.58(c)(3) requires that if an agreement previously submitted to the Bureau is amended, the card issuer must submit the entire revised agreement to the Bureau. A card issuer may not fulfill this requirement by submitting a change-in-terms or similar notice covering only the terms that have changed. In addition, amendments must be integrated into the text of the agreement (or the addenda described in § 1026.58(c)(8)), not provided as separate riders. For example, a card issuer changes the purchase APR associated with an agreement the issuer has previously submitted to the Bureau. The purchase APR for that agreement was included in the addendum of pricing information, as required by § 1026.58(c)(8). The card issuer may not submit a change-in-terms or similar notice reflecting the change in APR, either alone or accompanied by the original text of the agreement and original pricing information addendum. Instead, the card issuer must revise the pricing information addendum to reflect the change in APR and submit to the Bureau the entire text of the agreement and the entire revised addendum, even though no changes have been made to the provisions of the agreement and only one item on the pricing information addendum has changed.
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<HD3>58(c)(4) Withdrawal of Agreements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notice of withdrawal of agreement.</I> Section 1026.58(c)(4) requires a card issuer to notify the Bureau if any agreement previously submitted to the Bureau by that issuer is no longer offered to the public by the first quarterly submission deadline after the last day of the calendar quarter in which the card issuer ceased to offer the agreement. For example, on January 5 a card issuer stops offering to the public an agreement it previously submitted to the Bureau. The card issuer must notify the Bureau that the agreement is being withdrawn by April 30, the first quarterly submission deadline after March 31, the last day of the calendar quarter in which the card issuer stopped offering the agreement.
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<HD3>58(c)(5) De Minimis Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to other exceptions.</I> The de minimis exception is distinct from the private label credit card exception under § 1026.58(c)(6) and the product testing exception under § 1026.58(c)(7). The de minimis exception provides that a card issuer with fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau, regardless of whether those agreements qualify for the private label credit card exception or the product testing exception. In contrast, the private label credit card exception and the product testing exception provide that a card issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau agreements offered solely in connection with certain types of credit card plans with fewer than 10,000 open accounts, regardless of the card issuer's total number of open accounts.
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<P>2. <I>De minimis exception.</I> Under § 1026.58(c)(5), a card issuer is not required to submit any credit card agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) if the card issuer has fewer than 10,000 open credit card accounts as of the last business day of the calendar quarter. For example, a card issuer offers five credit card agreements to the public as of September 30. However, the card issuer has only 2,000 open credit card accounts as of September 30. The card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau by October 31 because the issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception.
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<P>3. <I>Date for determining whether card issuer qualifies clarified.</I> Whether a card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception is determined as of the last business day of each calendar quarter. For example, as of December 31, a card issuer offers three agreements to the public and has 9,500 open credit card accounts. As of January 30, the card issuer still offers three agreements, but has 10,100 open accounts. As of March 31, the card issuer still offers three agreements, but has only 9,700 open accounts. Even though the card issuer had 10,100 open accounts at one time during the calendar quarter, the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception because the number of open accounts was less than 10,000 as of March 31. The card issuer therefore is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) by April 30.
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<P>4. <I>Date for determining whether card issuer ceases to qualify clarified.</I> Whether a card issuer has ceased to qualify for the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5) is determined as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, For example, as of June 30, a card issuer offers three agreements to the public and has 9,500 open credit card accounts. The card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) because the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception. As of July 15, the card issuer still offers the same three agreements, but now has 10,000 open accounts. The card issuer is not required to take any action at this time, because whether a card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5) is determined as of the last business day of the calendar quarter. As of September 30, the card issuer still offers the same three agreements and still has 10,000 open accounts. Because the card issuer had 10,000 open accounts as of September 30, the card issuer ceased to qualify for the de minimis exception and must submit the three agreements it offers to the Bureau by October 31, the next quarterly submission deadline.
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<P>5. <I>Option to withdraw agreements clarified.</I> Section 1026.58(c)(5) provides that if a card issuer that did not previously qualify for the de minimis exception qualifies for the de minimis exception, the card issuer must continue to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau as required by § 1026.58(c)(1) until the card issuer notifies the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing all agreements it previously submitted to the Bureau. For example, a card issuer has 10,001 open accounts and offers three agreements to the public as of December 31. The card issuer has submitted each of the three agreements to the Bureau as required under § 1026.58(c)(1). As of March 31, the card issuer has only 9,999 open accounts. The card issuer has two options. First, the card issuer may notify the Bureau that the card issuer is withdrawing each of the three agreements it previously submitted. Once the card issuer has notified the Bureau, the card issuer is no longer required to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1). Alternatively, the card issuer may choose not to notify the Bureau that it is withdrawing its agreements. In this case, the card issuer must continue making quarterly submissions to the Bureau as required by § 1026.58(c)(1). The card issuer might choose not to withdraw its agreements if, for example, the card issuer believes that it likely will cease to qualify for the de minimis exception again in the near future.
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<HD3>58(c)(6) Private Label Credit Card Exception
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Private label credit card exception.</I> i. Under § 1026.58(c)(6)(i), a card issuer is not required to submit to the Bureau a credit card agreement if, as of the last business day of the calendar quarter, the agreement (A) is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts; and (B) is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan. For example, a card issuer offers to the public a credit card agreement offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards that can be used only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 8,000 open accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer is not required to submit this agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) because the agreement is offered for a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts, and the credit card agreement is not offered to the public other than for accounts under that private label credit card plan.
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<P>ii. In contrast, assume the same card issuer also offers to the public a different credit card agreement that is offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The card issuer has 12,000 open accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The private label credit card exception does not apply. Although this agreement is offered for a private label credit card plan (<I>i.e.,</I> the 12,000 private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B), and the agreement is not offered to the public other than for accounts under that private label credit card plan, the private label credit card plan has more than 10,000 open accounts. (The card issuer still is not required to submit to the Bureau the agreement offered in connection with credit cards usable only at Merchant A, as each agreement is evaluated separately under the private label credit card exception.)
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<P>2. <I>Card issuers with small private label and other credit card plans.</I> Whether the private label credit card exception applies is determined on an agreement-by-agreement basis. Therefore, some agreements offered by a card issuer may qualify for the private label credit card exception even though the card issuer also offers other agreements that do not qualify, such as agreements offered for accounts with cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants or agreements offered for accounts under private label plans with 10,000 or more open accounts.
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<P>3. <I>De minimis exception distinguished.</I> The private label credit card exception under § 1026.58(c)(6) is distinct from the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5). The private label credit card exception exempts card issuers from submitting certain agreements to the Bureau regardless of the card issuer's overall size as measured by total number of open accounts. In contrast, the de minimis exception exempts a particular card issuer from submitting any credit card agreements to the Bureau if the card issuer has fewer than 10,000 total open accounts. For example, a card issuer offers to the public two credit card agreements. Agreement A is offered solely for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 5,000 open credit card accounts with such credit cards usable only at Merchant A. Agreement B is offered solely for credit card accounts with cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants that participate in a major payment network. The card issuer has 40,000 open credit card accounts with such payment network cards. The card issuer is not required to submit agreement A to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) because agreement A qualifies for the private label credit card exception under § 1026.58(c)(6). Agreement A is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts (<I>i.e.,</I> the 5,000 accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A) and is not otherwise offered to the public. The card issuer is required to submit agreement B to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1). The card issuer does not qualify for the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5) because it has more than 10,000 open accounts, and agreement B does not qualify for the private label credit card exception under § 1026.58(c)(6) because it is not offered solely for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts.
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<P>4. <I>Agreement otherwise offered to the public.</I> i. An agreement qualifies for the private label exception only if it is offered for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans with fewer than 10,000 open accounts and is not offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan. For example, a card issuer offers a single agreement to the public. The agreement is offered for private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer has 9,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The agreement also is offered for credit card accounts with credit cards usable at multiple unaffiliated merchants that participate in a major payment network. The agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception. The agreement is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts. However, the agreement also is offered to the public for accounts that are not part of a private label credit card plan and therefore does not qualify for the private label credit card exception.
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<P>ii. Similarly, an agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception if it is offered in connection with one private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts and one private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts. For example, a card issuer offers a single credit card agreement to the public. The agreement is offered for two types of accounts. The first type of account is a private label credit card account with a credit card usable only at Merchant A. The second type of account is a private label credit card account with a credit card usable only at Merchant B. The card issuer has 10,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 5,000 such open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B. The agreement does not qualify for the private label credit card exception. While the agreement is offered for accounts under a private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts (<I>i.e.,</I> the 5,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant B), the agreement is also offered for accounts not under such a plan (<I>i.e.,</I> the 10,000 open accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A).
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<P>5. <I>Agreement used for multiple small private label plans.</I> The private label exception applies even if the same agreement is used for more than one private label credit card plan with fewer than 10,000 open accounts. For example, a card issuer has 15,000 total open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 7,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A, 5,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B, and 3,000 accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant C. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for all three types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account. The card issuer is not required to submit the agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1). The agreement is used for three different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A, the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B, and the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant C), each of which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts, and the card issuer does not offer the agreement for any other type of account. The agreement therefore qualifies for the private label credit card exception under § 1026.58(c)(6).
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<P>6. <I>Multiple agreements used for one private label credit card plan.</I> The private label credit card exception applies even if a card issuer offers more than one agreement in connection with a particular private label credit card plan. For example, a card issuer has 5,000 open private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The card issuer offers to the public three different agreements each of which may be used in connection with private label credit card accounts with credit cards usable only at Merchant A. The agreements are not offered for any other type of credit card account. The card issuer is not required to submit any of the three agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1) because each of the agreements is used for a private label credit card plan which has fewer than 10,000 open accounts and none of the three is offered to the public other than for accounts under such a plan.
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<HD3>58(c)(8) Form and content of agreements submitted to the Bureau
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>“As of” date clarified.</I> Agreements submitted to the Bureau must contain the provisions of the agreement and pricing information in effect as of the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter. For example, on June 1, a card issuer decides to decrease the purchase APR associated with one of the agreements it offers to the public. The change in the APR will become effective on August 1. If the card issuer submits the agreement to the Bureau on July 31 (for example, because the agreement has been otherwise amended), the agreement submitted should not include the new lower APR because that APR was not in effect on June 30, the last business day of the preceding calendar quarter.
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<P>2. <I>Pricing agreement addendum.</I> Pricing information must be set forth in the separate addendum described in § 1026.58(c)(8)(ii)(A) even if it is also stated elsewhere in the agreement.
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<P>3. <I>Pricing agreement variations do not constitute separate agreements.</I> Pricing information that may vary from one cardholder to another depending on the cardholder's creditworthiness or state of residence or other factors must be disclosed by setting forth all the possible variations or by providing a range of possible variations. Two agreements that differ only with respect to variations in the pricing information do not constitute separate agreements for purposes of this section. For example, a card issuer offers two types of credit card accounts that differ only with respect to the purchase APR. The purchase APR for one type of account is 15 percent, while the purchase APR for the other type of account is 18 percent. The provisions of the agreement and pricing information for the two types of accounts are otherwise identical. The card issuer should not submit to the Bureau one agreement with a pricing information addendum listing a 15 percent purchase APR and another agreement with a pricing information addendum listing an 18 percent purchase APR. Instead, the card issuer should submit to the Bureau one agreement with a pricing information addendum listing possible purchase APRs of 15 or 18 percent.
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<P>4. <I>Optional variable terms addendum.</I> Examples of provisions that might be included in the variable terms addendum include a clause that is required by law to be included in credit card agreements in a particular state but not in other states (unless, for example, a clause is included in the agreement used for all cardholders under a heading such as “For State X Residents”), the name of the credit card plan to which the agreement applies (if this information is included in the agreement), or the name of a charitable organization to which donations will be made in connection with a particular card (if this information is included in the agreement).
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<P>5. <I>Integrated agreement requirement.</I> Card issuers may not provide provisions of the agreement or pricing information in the form of change-in-terms notices or riders. The only two addenda that may be submitted as part of an agreement are the pricing information addendum and optional variable terms addendum described in § 1026.58(c)(8). Changes in provisions or pricing information must be integrated into the body of the agreement, pricing information addendum, or optional variable terms addendum described in § 1026.58(c)(8). For example, it would be impermissible for a card issuer to submit to the Bureau an agreement in the form of a terms and conditions document dated January 1, 2005, four subsequent change in terms notices, and 2 addenda showing variations in pricing information. Instead, the card issuer must submit a document that integrates the changes made by each of the change in terms notices into the body of the original terms and conditions document and a single addendum displaying variations in pricing information.
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<HD3>58(d) Posting of Agreements Offered to the Public
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement applies only to agreements submitted to the Bureau.</I> Card issuers are only required to post and maintain on their publicly available Web site the credit card agreements that the card issuer must submit to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c). If, for example, a card issuer is not required to submit any agreements to the Bureau because the card issuer qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5), the card issuer is not required to post and maintain any agreements on its Web site under § 1026.58(d). Similarly, if a card issuer is not required to submit a specific agreement to the Bureau, such as an agreement that qualifies for the private label exception under § 1026.58(c)(6), the card issuer is not required to post and maintain that agreement under § 1026.58(d) (either on the card issuer's publicly available Web site or on the publicly available Web sites of merchants at which private label credit cards can be used). (The card issuer in both of these cases is still required to provide each individual cardholder with access to his or her specific credit card agreement under § 1026.58(e) by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's Web site or by providing a copy of the agreement upon the cardholder's request.)
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<P>2. <I>Card issuers that do not otherwise maintain Web sites.</I> Unlike § 1026.58(e), § 1026.58(d) does not include a special rule for card issuers that do not otherwise maintain a Web site. If a card issuer is required to submit one or more agreements to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c), that card issuer must post those agreements on a publicly available Web site it maintains (or, with respect to an agreement for a private label credit card, on the publicly available Web site of at least one of the merchants at which the card may be used, as provided in § 1026.58(d)(1)). If an issuer provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party Web site, the issuer is considered to maintain that Web site for purposes of § 1026.58. Such a third-party Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1026.58(d) even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. Therefore, issuers that provide cardholders with access to account-specific information through a third-party Web site can comply with § 1026.58(d) by ensuring that the agreements the issuer submits to the Bureau are posted on the third-party Web site in accordance with § 1026.58(d). (In contrast, the § 1026.58(d)(1) rule regarding agreements for private label credit cards is not conditioned on cardholders' ability to access account-specific information through the merchant's Web site.)
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<P>3. <I>Private label credit card plans.</I> i. Section 1026.58(d) provides that, with respect to an agreement offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, a card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the Web site of at least one of the merchants at which the cards issued under each private label credit card plan with 10,000 or more open accounts may be used. For example, a card issuer has 100,000 open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 75,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 25,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates, Merchants C and D. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for both of these types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account.
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<P>ii. The card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1). (The card issuer has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 1026.58(c)(5) de minimis exception does not apply. The agreement is offered solely for two different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A and one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B and its affiliates, Merchants C and D), but both of these plans have more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 1026.58(c)(6) private label credit card exception does not apply. Finally, the agreement is not offered solely in connection with a product test by the card issuer, so the § 1026.58(c)(7) product test exception does not apply.)
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<P>iii. Because the card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1), the card issuer is required to post and maintain the agreement on the card issuer's publicly available Web site under § 1026.58(d). However, because the agreement is offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, the card issuer may comply with § 1026.58(d) in either of two ways. First, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's own publicly available Web site. Alternatively, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the publicly available Web site of Merchant A <I>and</I> the publicly available Web site of at least one of Merchants B, C and D. It would not be sufficient for the card issuer to post the agreement on Merchant A's Web site alone because § 1026.58(d) requires the card issuer to post the agreement on the publicly available Web site of “at least one of the merchants at which cards issued under <I>each</I> private label credit card plan may be used” (emphasis added).
</P>
<P>iv. In contrast, assume that a card issuer has 100,000 open private label credit card accounts. Of these, 5,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant A and 95,000 open accounts have credit cards usable only at Merchant B and Merchant B's affiliates, Merchants C and D. The card issuer offers to the public a single credit card agreement that is offered for both of these types of accounts and is not offered for any other type of account.
</P>
<P>v. The card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1). (The card issuer has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 1026.58(c)(5) de minimis exception does not apply. The agreement is offered solely for two different private label credit card plans (<I>i.e.,</I> one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant A and one plan consisting of the accounts with credit cards usable at Merchant B and its affiliates, Merchants C and D), but one of these plans has more than 10,000 open accounts, so the § 1026.58(c)(6) private label credit card exception does not apply. Finally, the agreement is not offered solely in connection with a product test by the card issuer, so the § 1026.58(c)(7) product test exception does not apply.)
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<P>vi. Because the card issuer is required to submit the agreement to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c)(1), the card issuer is required to post and maintain the agreement on the card issuer's publicly available Web site under § 1026.58(d). However, because the agreement is offered solely for accounts under one or more private label credit card plans, the card issuer may comply with § 1026.58(d) in either of two ways. First, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the card issuer's own publicly available Web site. Alternatively, the card issuer may comply by posting and maintaining the agreement on the publicly available Web site of at least one of Merchants B, C and D. The card issuer is not required to post and maintain the agreement on the publicly available Web site of Merchant A because the card issuer's private label credit card plan consisting of accounts with cards usable only at Merchant A has fewer than 10,000 open accounts.
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<HD3>58(e) Agreements for All Open Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Requirement applies to all open accounts.</I> The requirement to provide access to credit card agreements under § 1026.58(e) applies to all open credit card accounts, regardless of whether such agreements are required to be submitted to the Bureau pursuant to § 1026.58(c) (or posted on the card issuer's Web site pursuant to § 1026.58(d)). For example, a card issuer that is not required to submit agreements to the Bureau because it qualifies for the de minimis exception under § 1026.58(c)(5)) would still be required to provide cardholders with access to their specific agreements under § 1026.58(e). Similarly, an agreement that is no longer offered to the public would not be required to be submitted to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c), but would still need to be provided to the cardholder to whom it applies under § 1026.58(e).
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<P>2. <I>Readily available telephone line.</I> Section 1026.58(e) provides that card issuers that provide copies of cardholder agreements upon request must provide the cardholder with the ability to request a copy of their agreement by calling a readily available telephone line. To satisfy the readily available standard, the financial institution must provide enough telephone lines so that consumers get a reasonably prompt response. The institution need only provide telephone service during normal business hours. Within its primary service area, an institution must provide a local or toll-free telephone number. It need not provide a toll-free number or accept collect long-distance calls from outside the area where it normally conducts business.
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<P>3. <I>Issuers without interactive Web sites.</I> Section 1026.58(e)(2) provides that a card issuer that does not maintain a Web site from which cardholders can access specific information about their individual accounts is not required to provide a cardholder with the ability to request a copy of the agreement by using the card issuer's Web site. A card issuer without a Web site of any kind could comply by disclosing the telephone number on each periodic statement; a card issuer with a non-interactive Web site could comply in the same way, or alternatively could comply by displaying the telephone number on the card issuer's Web site. An issuer is considered to maintain an interactive Web site for purposes of the § 1026.58(e)(2) special rule if the issuer provide cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts, such as balance information or copies of statements, through a third-party interactive Web site. Such a Web site is deemed to be maintained by the issuer for purposes of § 1026.58(e)(2) even where, for example, an unaffiliated entity designs the Web site and owns and maintains the information technology infrastructure that supports the Web site, cardholders with credit cards from multiple issuers can access individual account information through the same Web site, and the Web site is not labeled, branded, or otherwise held out to the public as belonging to the issuer. An issuer that provides cardholders with access to specific information about their individual accounts through such a Web site is not permitted to comply with the special rule in § 1026.58(e)(2). Instead, such an issuer must comply with § 1026.58(e)(1).
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<P>4. <I>Deadline for providing requested agreements clarified.</I> Sections 1026.58(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(2) require that credit card agreements provided upon request must be sent to the cardholder or otherwise made available to the cardholder in electronic or paper form no later than 30 days after the cardholder's request is received. For example, if a card issuer chooses to respond to a cardholder's request by mailing a paper copy of the cardholder's agreement, the card issuer must mail the agreement no later than 30 days after receipt of the cardholder's request. Alternatively, if a card issuer chooses to respond to a cardholder's request by posting the cardholder's agreement on the card issuer's Web site, the card issuer must post the agreement on its Web site no later than 30 days after receipt of the cardholder's request. Section 1026.58(e)(3)(v) provides that a card issuer may provide cardholder agreements in either electronic or paper form regardless of the form of the cardholder's request.


</P>
<HD3>58(g) Temporary Suspension of Agreement Submission Requirement
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Suspended quarterly submission requirement.</I> Pursuant to § 1026.58(g)(1), card issuers are not required to make quarterly submissions to the Bureau, as otherwise required by § 1026.58(c), for the submissions that would otherwise be due by the first business day on or after April 30, 2015; July 31, 2015; October 31, 2015; and January 31, 2016. Specifically, a card issuer is not required to submit information about the issuer and its agreements pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(i), new credit card agreements pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(ii), amended agreements pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(iii) and (c)(3), or notification of withdrawn agreements pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(iv) and (c)(4) through (7) for those four quarters.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Resuming submission of credit card agreements to the Bureau.</I> Beginning with the submission due on the first business day on or after April 30, 2016, card issuers shall resume submitting credit card agreements on a quarterly basis to the Bureau pursuant to § 1026.58(c). A card issuer shall submit agreements for the prior calendar quarter (that is, the calendar quarter ending March 31, 2016), as specified in § 1026.58(c)(1)(ii) through (iv) and (c)(3) through (7), to the Bureau no later than the first business day on or after April 30, 2016.
</P>
<P>i. Specifically, the submission due on the first business day on or after April 30, 2016 shall contain, as applicable:
</P>
<P>A. Identifying information about the card issuer and the agreements submitted, including the issuer's name, address, and identifying number (such as an RSSD ID number or tax identification number), pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(i);
</P>
<P>B. The credit card agreements that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter ending March 31, 2016 that the card issuer had not previously submitted to the Bureau as of the first business day on or after January 31, 2015, pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(ii);
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<P>C. Any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that was amended since the last business day of the calendar quarter ending December 31, 2014 and that the card issuer offered to the public as of the last business day of the calendar quarter ending March 31, 2016, pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(iii) and (c)(3); and
</P>
<P>D. Notification regarding any credit card agreement previously submitted to the Bureau that the issuer is withdrawing, pursuant to § 1026.58(c)(1)(iv) and (c)(4) through (7).
</P>
<P>ii. In lieu of the submission described in comment 58(g)-2.i.B through D, § 1026.58(c)(1) permits a card issuer to submit to the Bureau a complete, updated set of the credit card agreements the card issuer offered to the public as of the calendar quarter ending March 31, 2016. <I>See</I> comment 58(c)(1)-3.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Continuing obligation to post agreements on a card issuer's own Web site.</I> Section 1026.58(d) requires a card issuer to post and maintain on its publicly available Web site the credit card agreements that the issuer is required to submit to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c). Pursuant to § 1026.58(g)(2), during the temporary suspension period set forth in § 1026.58(g)(1), a card issuer shall continue to post its agreements to its own publicly available Web site as required by § 1026.58(d) using the agreements it would have otherwise submitted to the Bureau under § 1026.58(c). For example, for purposes of § 1026.58(d)(4), a card issuer must continue to update the agreements posted on its own Web site at least as frequently as the quarterly schedule required for submission of agreements to the Bureau set forth in § 1026.58(c)(1), notwithstanding the temporary suspension of submission requirements in § 1026.58(g)(1). Similarly, for purposes of § 1026.58(d)(2), agreements posted by a card issuer on its own Web site must continue to conform to the form and content requirements set forth in § 1026.58(c)(8).


</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.59—Reevaluation of Rate Increases
</HD2>
<HD3>59(a) General Rule
</HD3>
<HD3>59(a)(1) Evaluation of Increased Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Types of rate increases covered.</I> Section 1026.59(a) applies both to increases in annual percentage rates imposed on a consumer's account based on that consumer's credit risk or other circumstances specific to that consumer and to increases in annual percentage rates imposed based on factors that are not specific to the consumer, such as changes in market conditions or the issuer's cost of funds.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rate increases actually imposed.</I> Under § 1026.59(a), a card issuer must review changes in factors only if the increased rate is actually imposed on the consumer's account. For example, if a card issuer increases the penalty rate for a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan and the consumer's account has no balances that are currently subject to the penalty rate, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) of the change in terms, but the requirements of § 1026.59 do not apply. However, if the consumer's account later becomes subject to the penalty rate, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(g) and the requirements of § 1026.59 begin to apply upon imposition of the penalty rate. Similarly, if a card issuer raises the cash advance rate applicable to a consumer's account but the consumer engages in no cash advance transactions to which that increased rate is applied, the card issuer is required to provide a notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c) of the change in terms, but the requirements of § 1026.59 do not apply. If the consumer subsequently engages in a cash advance transaction, the requirements of § 1026.59 begin to apply at that time.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Change in type of rate.</I> i. <I>Generally.</I> A change from a variable rate to a non-variable rate or from a non-variable rate to a variable rate is not a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59, if the rate in effect immediately prior to the change in type of rate is equal to or greater than the rate in effect immediately after the change. For example, a change from a variable rate of 15.99% to a non-variable rate of 15.99% is not a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59 at the time of the change. <I>See</I> § 1026.55 for limitations on the permissibility of changing from a non-variable rate to a variable rate.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Change from non-variable rate to variable rate.</I> A change from a non-variable to a variable rate constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59 if the variable rate exceeds the non-variable rate that would have applied if the change in type of rate had not occurred. For example, assume a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is opened on January 1 of year 1 and that a non-variable annual percentage rate of 12% applies to all transactions on the account. On January 1 of year 2, upon 45 days' advance notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2), the rate on all new transactions is changed to a variable rate that is currently 12% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control. The change from the 12% non-variable rate to the 12% variable rate on January 1 of year 2 is not a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59(a). On April 1 of year 2, the value of the variable rate increases to 12.5%. The increase in the rate from 12% to 12.5% is a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59, and the card issuer must begin periodically conducting reviews of the account pursuant to § 1026.59. The increase that must be evaluated for purposes of § 1026.59 is the increase from a non-variable rate of 12% to a variable rate of 12.5%.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Change from variable rate to non-variable rate.</I> A change from a variable to a non-variable rate constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59 if the non-variable rate exceeds the variable rate that would have applied if the change in type of rate had not occurred. For example, assume a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is opened on January 1 of year 1 and that a variable annual percentage rate that is currently 15% and is determined by adding a margin of 10 percentage points to a publicly-available index not under the card issuer's control applies to all transactions on the account. On January 1 of year 2, upon 45 days' advance notice pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2), the rate on all existing balances and new transactions is changed to a non-variable rate that is currently 15%. The change from the 15% variable rate to the 15% non-variable rate on January 1 of year 2 is not a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59(a). On April 1 of year 2, the value of the variable rate that would have applied to the account decreases to 12.5%. Accordingly, on April 1 of year 2, the non-variable rate of 15% exceeds the 12.5% variable rate that would have applied but for the change in type of rate. At this time, the change to the non-variable rate of 15% constitutes a rate increase for purposes of § 1026.59, and the card issuer must begin periodically conducting reviews of the account pursuant to § 1026.59. The increase that must be evaluated for purposes of § 1026.59 is the increase from a variable rate of 12.5% to a non-variable rate of 15%.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Rate increases prior to effective date of rule.</I> For increases in annual percentage rates made on or after January 1, 2009, and prior to August 22, 2010, § 1026.59(a) requires the card issuer to review the factors described in § 1026.59(d) and reduce the rate, as appropriate, if the rate increase is of a type for which 45 days' advance notice would currently be required under § 1026.9(c)(2) or (g). For example, 45 days' notice is not required under § 1026.9(c)(2) if the rate increase results from the increase in the index by which a properly-disclosed variable rate is determined in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(C) or if the increase occurs upon expiration of a specified period of time and disclosures complying with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) have been provided. The requirements of § 1026.59 do not apply to such rate increases.
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<P>5. <I>Amount of rate decrease.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Even in circumstances where a rate reduction is required, § 1026.59 does not require that a card issuer decrease the rate that applies to a credit card account to the rate that was in effect prior to the rate increase subject to § 1026.59(a). The amount of the rate decrease that is required must be determined based upon the card issuer's reasonable policies and procedures under § 1026.59(b) for consideration of factors described in § 1026.59(a) and (d). For example, assume a consumer's rate on new purchases is increased from a variable rate of 15.99% to a variable rate of 23.99% based on the consumer's making a required minimum periodic payment five days late. The consumer makes all of the payments required on the account on time for the six months following the rate increase. Assume that the card issuer evaluates the account by reviewing the factors on which the increase in an annual percentage rate was originally based, in accordance with § 1026.59(d)(1)(i). The card issuer is not required to decrease the consumer's rate to the 15.99% that applied prior to the rate increase. However, the card issuer's policies and procedures for performing the review required by § 1026.59(a) must be reasonable, as required by § 1026.59(b), and must take into account any reduction in the consumer's credit risk based upon the consumer's timely payments.
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<P>ii. <I>Change in type of rate.</I> If the rate increase subject to § 1026.59 involves a change from a variable rate to a non-variable rate or from a non-variable rate to a variable rate, § 1026.59 does not require that the issuer reinstate the same type of rate that applied prior to the change. However, the amount of any rate decrease that is required must be determined based upon the card issuer's reasonable policies and procedures under § 1026.59(b) for consideration of factors described in § 1026.59(a) and (d).
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<HD3>59(a)(2) Rate Reductions
</HD3>
<HD3>59(a)(2)(ii) Applicability of Rate Reduction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of reduced rate to new transactions.</I> Section 1026.59(a)(2)(ii) requires, in part, that any reduction in rate required pursuant to § 1026.59(a)(1) must apply to new transactions that occur after the effective date of the rate reduction, if those transactions would otherwise have been subject to the increased rate described in § 1026.59(a)(1). A credit card account may have multiple types of balances, for example, purchases, cash advances, and balance transfers, to which different rates apply. For example, assume a new credit card account opened on January 1 of year one has a rate applicable to purchases of 15% and a rate applicable to cash advances and balance transfers of 20%. Effective March 1 of year two, consistent with the limitations in § 1026.55 and upon giving notice required by § 1026.9(c)(2), the card issuer raises the rate applicable to new purchases to 18% based on market conditions. The only transaction in which the consumer engages in year two is a $1,000 purchase made on July 1. The rate for cash advances and balance transfers remains at 20%. Based on a subsequent review required by § 1026.59(a)(1), the card issuer determines that the rate on purchases must be reduced to 16%. Section 1026.59(a)(2)(ii) requires that the 16% rate be applied to the $1,000 purchase made on July 1 and to all new purchases. The rate for new cash advances and balance transfers may remain at 20%, because there was no rate increase applicable to those types of transactions and, therefore, the requirements of § 1026.59(a) do not apply.
</P>
<HD3>59(c) Timing
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> The issuer may review all of its accounts subject to § 1026.59(a) at the same time once every six months, may review each account once each six months on a rolling basis based on the date on which the rate was increased for that account, or may otherwise review each account not less frequently than once every six months.
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<P>2. <I>Example.</I> A card issuer increases the rates applicable to one half of its credit card accounts on June 1, 2011. The card issuer increases the rates applicable to the other half of its credit card accounts on September 1, 2011. The card issuer may review the rate increases for all of its credit card accounts on or before December 1, 2011, and at least every six months thereafter. In the alternative, the card issuer may first review the rate increases for the accounts that were repriced on June 1, 2011 on or before December 1, 2011, and may first review the rate increases for the accounts that were repriced on September 1, 2011 on or before March 1, 2012.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Rate increases prior to effective date of rule.</I> For increases in annual percentage rates applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan on or after January 1, 2009 and prior to August 22, 2010, § 1026.59(c) requires that the first review for such rate increases be conducted prior to February 22, 2011.


</P>
<HD3>59(d) Factors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Change in factors.</I> A creditor that complies with § 1026.59(a) by reviewing the factors it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts may change those factors from time to time. When a creditor changes the factors it considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts from time to time, it may comply with § 1026.59(a) by reviewing the set of factors it considered immediately prior to the change in factors for a brief transition period, or may consider the new factors. For example, a creditor changes the factors it uses to determine the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts on January 1, 2012. The creditor reviews the rates applicable to its existing accounts that have been subject to a rate increase pursuant to § 1026.59(a) on January 25, 2012. The creditor complies with § 1026.59(a) by reviewing, at its option, either the factors that it considered on December 31, 2011 when determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts or the factors that it considers as of January 25, 2012. For purposes of compliance with § 1026.59(d), a transition period of 60 days from the change of factors constitutes a brief transition period.
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<P>2. <I>Comparison of existing account to factors used for similar new accounts.</I> Under § 1026.59(a), if a card issuer evaluates an existing account using the same factors that it considers in determining the rates applicable to similar new accounts, the review of factors need not result in existing accounts being subject to exactly the same rates and rate structure as a card issuer imposes on similar new accounts. For example, a card issuer may offer variable rates on similar new accounts that are computed by adding a margin that depends on various factors to the value of a SOFR index. The account that the card issuer is required to review pursuant to § 1026.59(a) may have variable rates that were determined by adding a different margin, depending on different factors, to a published prime index. In performing the review required by § 1026.59(a), the card issuer may review the factors it uses to determine the rates applicable to similar new accounts. If a rate reduction is required, however, the card issuer need not base the variable rate for the existing account on the SOFR index but may continue to use the published prime index. Section 1026.59(a) requires, however, that the rate on the existing account after the reduction, as determined by adding the published prime index and margin, be comparable to the rate, as determined by adding the margin and the SOFR index, charged on a new account for which the factors are comparable.
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<P>3. <I>Similar new credit card accounts.</I> A card issuer complying with § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) is required to consider the factors that the card issuer currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. For example, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to credit card plans for which the consumer pays an annual fee and receives rewards points than it reviews in determining the rates for credit card plans with no annual fee and no rewards points. Similarly, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to private label credit cards than it reviews in determining the rates applicable to credit cards that can be used at a wider variety of merchants. In addition, a card issuer may review different factors in determining the annual percentage rate that applies to private label credit cards usable only at Merchant A than it may review for private label credit cards usable only at Merchant B. However, § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) requires a card issuer to review the factors it considers when determining the rates for new credit card accounts with similar features that are offered for similar purposes.
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<P>4. <I>No similar new credit card accounts.</I> In some circumstances, a card issuer that complies with § 1026.59(a) by reviewing the factors that it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new accounts may not be able to identify a class of new accounts that are similar to the existing accounts on which a rate increase has been imposed. For example, consumers may have existing credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan but the card issuer may no longer offer a product to new consumers with similar characteristics, such as the availability of rewards, size of credit line, or other features. Similarly, some consumers' accounts may have been closed and therefore cannot be used for new transactions, while all new accounts can be used for new transactions. In those circumstances, § 1026.59 requires that the card issuer nonetheless perform a review of the rate increase on the existing customers' accounts. A card issuer does not comply with § 1026.59 by maintaining an increased rate without performing such an evaluation. In such circumstances, § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) requires that the card issuer compare the existing accounts to the most closely comparable new accounts that it offers.
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<P>5. <I>Consideration of consumer's conduct on existing account.</I> A card issuer that complies with § 1026.59(a) by reviewing the factors that it currently considers in determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new accounts may consider the consumer's payment or other account behavior on the existing account only to the same extent and in the same manner that the issuer considers such information when one of its current cardholders applies for a new account with the card issuer. For example, a card issuer might obtain consumer reports for all of its applicants. The consumer reports contain certain information regarding the applicant's past performance on existing credit card accounts. However, the card issuer may have additional information about an existing cardholder's payment history or account usage that does not appear in the consumer report and that, accordingly, it would not generally have for all new applicants. For example, a consumer may have made a payment that is five days late on his or her account with the card issuer, but this information does not appear on the consumer report. The card issuer may consider this additional information in performing its review under § 1026.59(a), but only to the extent and in the manner that it considers such information if a current cardholder applies for a new account with the issuer.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Multiple rate increases between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.59(d)(2) applies if an issuer increased the rate applicable to a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010, and the increase was not based solely upon factors specific to the consumer. In some cases, a credit card account may have been subject to multiple rate increases during the period from January 1, 2009 to February 21, 2010. Some such rate increases may have been based solely upon factors specific to the consumer, while others may have been based on factors not specific to the consumer, such as the issuer's cost of funds or market conditions. In such circumstances, when conducting the first two reviews required under § 1026.59, the card issuer may separately review: {i} Rate increases imposed based on factors not specific to the consumer, using the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) (as required by § 1026.59(d)(2)); and {ii} rate increases imposed based on consumer-specific factors, using the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(i). If the review of factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(i) indicates that it is appropriate to continue to apply a penalty or other increased rate to the account as a result of the consumer's payment history or other factors specific to the consumer, § 1026.59 permits the card issuer to continue to impose the penalty or other increased rate, even if the review of the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) would otherwise require a rate decrease.
</P>
<P><I>i. Example.</I> Assume a credit card account was subject to a rate of 15% on all transactions as of January 1, 2009. On May 1, 2009, the issuer increased the rate on existing balances and new transactions to 18%, based upon market conditions or other factors not specific to the consumer or the consumer's account. Subsequently, on September 1, 2009, based on a payment that was received five days after the due date, the issuer increased the applicable rate on existing balances and new transactions from 18% to a penalty rate of 25%. When conducting the first review required under § 1026.59, the card issuer reviews the rate increase from 15% to 18% using the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) (as required by § 1026.59(d)(2)), and separately but concurrently reviews the rate increase from 18% to 25% using the factors described in paragraph § 1026.59(d)(1)(i). The review of the rate increase from 15% to 18% based upon the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii) indicates that a similarly situated new consumer would receive a rate of 17%. The review of the rate increase from 18% to 25% based upon the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(i) indicates that it is appropriate to continue to apply the 25% penalty rate based upon the consumer's late payment. Section 1026.59 permits the rate on the account to remain at 25%.


</P>
<HD3>59(f) Termination of Obligation To Review Factors
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Revocation of temporary rates.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> If an annual percentage rate is increased due to revocation of a temporary rate, § 1026.59(a) requires that the card issuer periodically review the increased rate. In contrast, if the rate increase results from the expiration of a temporary rate previously disclosed in accordance with § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B), the review requirements in § 1026.59(a) do not apply. If a temporary rate is revoked such that the requirements of § 1026.59(a) apply, § 1026.59(f) permits an issuer to terminate the review of the rate increase if and when the applicable rate is the same as the rate that would have applied if the increase had not occurred.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> Assume that on January 1, 2011, a consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 15%. The card issuer offers the consumer a 10% rate on purchases made between February 1, 2012, and August 1, 2013, and discloses pursuant to § 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) that on August 1, 2013, the rate on purchases will revert to the original 15% rate. The consumer makes a payment that is five days late in July 2012.
</P>
<P>A. Upon providing 45 days' advance notice and to the extent permitted under § 1026.55, the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to 15%, effective on September 1, 2012. The card issuer must review that rate increase under § 1026.59(a) at least once each six months during the period from September 1, 2012, to August 1, 2013, unless and until the card issuer reduces the rate to 10%. The card issuer performs reviews of the rate increase on January 1, 2013, and July 1, 2013. Based on those reviews, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 15%. Beginning on August 1, 2013, the card issuer is not required to continue periodically reviewing the rate increase, because if the temporary rate had expired in accordance with its previously disclosed terms, the 15% rate would have applied to purchase balances as of August 1, 2013, even if the rate increase had not occurred on September 1, 2012.
</P>
<P>B. Same facts as above except that the review conducted on July 1, 2013, indicates that a reduction to the original temporary rate of 10% is appropriate. Section 1026.59(a)(2)(i) requires that the rate be reduced no later than 45 days after completion of the review, or no later than August 15, 2013. Because the temporary rate would have expired prior to the date on which the rate decrease is required to take effect, the card issuer may, at its option, reduce the rate to 10% for any portion of the period from July 1, 2013, to August 1, 2013, or may continue to impose the 15% rate for that entire period. The card issuer is not required to conduct further reviews of the 15% rate on purchases.
</P>
<P>C. Same facts as above except that on September 1, 2012, the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to the penalty rate on the consumer's account, which is 25%. The card issuer conducts reviews of the increased rate in accordance with § 1026.59 on January 1, 2013, and July 1, 2013. Based on those reviews, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 25%. The card issuer's obligation to review the rate increase continues to apply after August 1, 2013, because the 25% penalty rate exceeds the 15% rate that would have applied if the temporary rate expired in accordance with its previously disclosed terms. The card issuer's obligation to review the rate terminates if and when the annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is reduced to the 15% rate.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example—relationship to § 1026.59(a).</I> Assume that on January 1, 2011, a consumer opens a new credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. The annual percentage rate applicable to purchases is 15%. Upon providing 45 days' advance notice and to the extent permitted under § 1026.55, the card issuer increases the rate applicable to new purchases to 18%, effective on September 1, 2012. The card issuer conducts reviews of the increased rate in accordance with § 1026.59 on January 1, 2013, and July 1, 2013, based on the factors described in § 1026.59(d)(1)(ii). Based on the January 1, 2013, review, the rate applicable to purchases remains at 18%. In the review conducted on July 1, 2013, the card issuer determines that, based on the relevant factors, the rate it would offer on a comparable new account would be 14%. Consistent with § 1026.59(f), § 1026.59(a) requires that the card issuer reduce the rate on the existing account to the 15% rate that was in effect prior to the September 1, 2012, rate increase.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Transition from LIBOR.</I> i. <I>General.</I> Effective April 1, 2022, in the case where the rate applicable immediately prior to the increase was a variable rate with a formula based on a LIBOR index, a card issuer may terminate the obligation to review if the card issuer reduces the annual percentage rate to a rate determined by a replacement formula that is derived from a replacement index value on October 18, 2021, plus replacement margin that is equal to the annual percentage rate of the LIBOR index value on October 18, 2021, plus the margin used to calculate the rate immediately prior to the increase (previous formula).
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Examples.</I> A. Assume that on April 1, 2022, the previous formula is the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index plus a margin of 10% equal to a 12% annual percentage rate. In this case, the LIBOR index value is 2%. The card issuer selects the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index. The replacement formula used to derive the rate at which the card issuer may terminate its obligation to review factors must be set at a replacement index plus replacement margin that equals 12%. If the prime index is 4% on October 18, 2021, the replacement margin must be 8% in the replacement formula. The replacement formula for purposes of determining when the card issuer can terminate the obligation to review factors is the prime index plus 8%.
</P>
<P>B. Assume that on April 1, 2022, the account was not subject to § 1026.59 and the annual percentage rate was the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index plus a margin of 10% equal to 12%. On May 1, 2022, the card issuer raises the annual percentage rate to the 1-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index plus a margin of 12% equal to 14%. On June 1, 2022, the card issuer transitions the account from the LIBOR index in accordance with § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii). The card issuer selects the prime index published in the Wall Street Journal as the replacement index with a value on October 18, 2021, of 4%. The replacement formula used to derive the rate at which the card issuer may terminate its obligation to review factors must be set at the value of a replacement index on October 18, 2021, plus replacement margin that equals 12%. In this example, the replacement formula is the prime index plus 8%.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Selecting a replacement index.</I> In selecting a replacement index for purposes of § 1026.59(f)(3), the card issuer must meet the conditions for selecting a replacement index that are described in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii) and comment 55(b)(7)(ii)-1. For example, a card issuer may select a replacement index that is not newly established for purposes of § 1026.59(f)(3), so long as the replacement index has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index used in the previous formula. Except for the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans as defined in § 1026.2(a)(28), the historical fluctuations considered are the historical fluctuations up through the relevant date. If the Bureau has made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the date indicated in that determination. If the Bureau has not made a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar, the relevant date is the later of April 1, 2022, or the date no more than 30 days before the card issuer makes a determination that the replacement index and the LIBOR index have historical fluctuations that are substantially similar. The Bureau has determined that effective April 1, 2022, the prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal has historical fluctuations that are substantially similar to those of the 1-month and 3-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR indices, and no further determination is required. By operation of the Adjustable Interest Rate (LIBOR) Act, Public Law 117-103, division U, codified at 12 U.S.C. 5803(e)(2), and the Board's implementing regulation, 12 CFR 253.4(b)(2), the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans to replace the 1-month, 3-month, 6-month, or 12-month U.S. Dollar LIBOR index has historical fluctuations substantially similar to those of the LIBOR index being replaced. <I>See</I> § 1026.2(a)(28) for the definition of <I>the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans.</I>
</P>
<FP><I>See also</I> comment 55(b)(7)(ii)-1. As a result, the Board-selected benchmark replacement for consumer loans meets the “historical fluctuations are substantially similar” standard for the LIBOR index being replaced, and no further determination is required. Also, for purposes of § 1026.59(f)(3), a card issuer may select a replacement index that is newly established as described in § 1026.55(b)(7)(ii).










</FP>
<HD3>59(g) Acquired Accounts
</HD3>
<HD3>59(g)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relationship to § 1026.59(d)(2) for rate increases imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010.</I> Section 1026.59(d)(2) applies to acquired accounts. Accordingly, if a card issuer acquires accounts on which a rate increase was imposed between January 1, 2009 and February 21, 2010 that was not based solely upon consumer-specific factors, that acquiring card issuer must consider the factors that it currently considers when determining the annual percentage rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts, if it conducts either or both of the first two reviews of such accounts that are required after August 22, 2010 under § 1026.59(a).
</P>
<HD3>59(g)(2) Review of Acquired Portfolio
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example—general.</I> A card issuer acquires a portfolio of accounts that currently are subject to annual percentage rates of 12%, 15%, and 18%. Not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, the card issuer reviews all of these accounts in accordance with the factors that it currently uses in determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts. As a result of that review, the card issuer decreases the rate on the accounts that are currently subject to a 12% annual percentage rate to 10%, leaves the rate applicable to the accounts currently subject to a 15% annual percentage rate at 15%, and increases the rate applicable to the accounts currently subject to a rate of 18% to 20%. Section 1026.59(g)(2) requires the card issuer to review, no less frequently than once every six months, the accounts for which the rate has been increased to 20%. The card issuer is not required to review the accounts subject to 10% and 15% rates pursuant to § 1026.59(a), unless and until the card issuer makes a subsequent rate increase applicable to those accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Example—penalty rates.</I> A card issuer acquires a portfolio of accounts that currently are subject to standard annual percentage rates of 12% and 15%. In addition, several acquired accounts are subject to a penalty rate of 24%. Not later than six months after the acquisition of such accounts, the card issuer reviews all of these accounts in accordance with the factors that it currently uses in determining the rates applicable to similar new credit card accounts. As a result of that review, the card issuer leaves the standard rates applicable to the accounts at 12% and 15%, respectively. The card issuer decreases the rate applicable to the accounts currently at 24% to its penalty rate of 23%. Section 1026.59(g)(2) requires the card issuer to review, no less frequently than once every six months, the accounts that are subject to a penalty rate of 23%. The card issuer is not required to review the accounts subject to 12% and 15% rates pursuant to § 1026.59(a), unless and until the card issuer makes a subsequent rate increase applicable to those accounts.


</P>
<HD3>59(h) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transition from LIBOR.</I> The exception to the requirements of this section does not apply to rate increases already subject to § 1026.59 prior to the transition from the use of a LIBOR index as the index in setting a variable rate to the use of a different index in setting a variable rate where the change from the use of a LIBOR index to a different index occurred in accordance with § 1026.55(b)(7)(i) or (ii).








</P>
<HD2>Section 1026.60—Credit and Charge Card Applications and Solicitations
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1026.60 generally requires that credit disclosures be contained in application forms and solicitations initiated by a card issuer to open a credit or charge card account. (See § 1026.60(a)(5) and (e)(2) for exceptions; see § 1026.60(a)(1) and accompanying commentary for the definition of solicitation; see also § 1026.2(a)(15) and accompanying commentary for the definition of charge card and § 1026.61(c) for restrictions on when credit or charge card accounts can be added to previously issued prepaid accounts.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substitution of account-opening summary table for the disclosures required by § 1026.60.</I> In complying with § 1026.60(c), (e)(1) or (f), a card issuer may provide the account-opening summary table described in § 1026.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures required by § 1026.60, if the issuer provides the disclosures required by § 1026.6 on or with the application or solicitation.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> See comment 5(a)(1)-1 for the clear and conspicuous standard applicable to § 1026.60 disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>60(a) General Rules
</HD3>
<HD3>60(a)(1) Definition of Solicitation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Invitations to apply.</I> A card issuer may contact a consumer who has not been preapproved for a card account about opening an account (whether by direct mail, telephone, or other means) and invite the consumer to complete an application. Such a contact does not meet the definition of <I>solicitation,</I> nor is it covered by this section, unless the contact itself includes an application form in a direct mailing, electronic communication or “take-one”; an oral application in a telephone contact initiated by the card issuer; or an application in an in-person contact initiated by the card issuer.










</P>
<HD3>60(a)(2) Form of Disclosures; Tabular Format
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Location of table.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>General.</I> Except for disclosures given electronically, disclosures in § 1026.60(b) that are required to be provided in a table must be prominently located on or with the application or solicitation. Disclosures are deemed to be prominently located, for example, if the disclosures are on the same page as an application or solicitation reply form. If the disclosures appear elsewhere, they are deemed to be prominently located if the application or solicitation reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that they contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Electronic disclosures.</I> If the table is provided electronically, the table must be provided in close proximity to the application or solicitation. Card issuers have flexibility in satisfying this requirement. Methods card issuers could use to satisfy the requirement include, but are not limited to, the following examples (whatever method is used, a card issuer need not confirm that the consumer has read the disclosures):
</P>
<P>A. The disclosures could automatically appear on the screen when the application or reply form appears;
</P>
<P>B. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application or reply form (whether or not they appear on the initial screen), if the application or reply form contains a clear and conspicuous reference to the location of the disclosures and indicates that the disclosures contain rate, fee, and other cost information, as applicable;
</P>
<P>C. Card issuers could provide a link to the electronic disclosures on or with the application (or reply form) as long as consumers cannot bypass the disclosures before submitting the application or reply form. The link would take the consumer to the disclosures, but the consumer need not be required to scroll completely through the disclosures; or
</P>
<P>D. The disclosures could be located on the same web page as the application or reply form without necessarily appearing on the initial screen, immediately preceding the button that the consumer will click to submit the application or reply.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple accounts.</I> If a tabular format is required to be used, card issuers offering several types of accounts may disclose the various terms for the accounts in a single table or may provide a separate table for each account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Information permitted in the table. See</I> the commentary to § 1026.60(b), (d), and (e)(1) for guidance on additional information permitted in the table.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deletion of inapplicable disclosures.</I> Generally, disclosures need only be given as applicable. Card issuers may, therefore, omit inapplicable headings and their corresponding boxes in the table. For example, if no foreign transaction fee is imposed on the account, the heading <I>Foreign transaction</I> and disclosure may be deleted from the table, or the disclosure form may contain the heading <I>Foreign transaction</I> and a disclosure showing <I>none.</I> There is an exception for the grace period disclosure; even if no grace period exists, that fact must be stated.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Highlighting of annual percentage rates and fee amounts.</I>
</P>
<P>i. <I>In general. See</I> Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) of appendix G to this part for guidance on providing the disclosures described in § 1026.60(a)(2)(iv) in bold text. Other annual percentage rates or fee amounts disclosed in the table may not be in bold text. Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) also provide guidance to issuers on how to disclose the rates and fees described in § 1026.60(a)(2)(iv) in a clear and conspicuous manner, by including these rates and fees generally as the first text in the applicable rows of the table so that the highlighted rates and fees generally are aligned vertically in the table.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Maximum limits on fees.</I> Section 1026.60(a)(2)(iv) provides that any maximum limits on fee amounts must be disclosed in bold text. For example, assume that a card issuer is not a smaller card issuer as defined in § 1026.52(b)(3) and consistent with § 1026.52(b)(1)(ii), the card issuer's late payment fee will not exceed $8. The maximum limit of $8 for the late payment fee must be highlighted in bold. Similarly, assume an issuer will charge a cash advance fee of $5 or 3 percent of the cash advance transaction amount, whichever is greater, but the fee will not exceed $100. The maximum limit of $100 for the cash advance fee must be highlighted in bold.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Periodic fees.</I> Section 1026.60(a)(2)(iv) provides that any periodic fee disclosed pursuant to § 1026.60(b)(2) that is not an annualized amount must not be disclosed in bold. For example, if an issuer imposes a $10 monthly maintenance fee for a card account, the issuer must disclose in the table that there is a $10 monthly maintenance fee, and that the fee is $120 on an annual basis. In this example, the $10 fee disclosure would not be disclosed in bold, but the $120 annualized amount must be disclosed in bold. In addition, if an issuer must disclose any annual fee in the table, the amount of the annual fee must be disclosed in bold.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> Whether disclosures must be in electronic form depends upon the following:
</P>
<P>i. If a consumer accesses a credit card application or solicitation electronically (other than as described under comment 60(a)(2)-6.ii), such as online at a home computer, the card issuer must provide the disclosures in electronic form (such as with the application or solicitation on its website) in order to meet the requirement to provide disclosures in a timely manner on or with the application or solicitation. If the issuer instead mailed paper disclosures to the consumer, this requirement would not be met.
</P>
<P>ii. In contrast, if a consumer is physically present in the card issuer's office, and accesses a credit card application or solicitation electronically, such as via a terminal or kiosk (or if the consumer uses a terminal or kiosk located on the premises of an affiliate or third party that has arranged with the card issuer to provide applications or solicitations to consumers), the issuer may provide disclosures in either electronic or paper form, provided the issuer complies with the timing and delivery (“on or with”) requirements of the regulation.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Terminology.</I> Section 1026.60(a)(2)(i) generally requires that the headings, content, and format of the tabular disclosures be substantially similar, but need not be identical, to the applicable tables in appendix G to this part; but <I>see</I> § 1026.5(a)(2) for terminology requirements applicable to § 1026.60 disclosures.










</P>
<HD3>60(a)(4) Fees That Vary by State
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Manner of disclosing range.</I> If the card issuer discloses a range of fees instead of disclosing the amount of the specific fee applicable to the consumer's account, the range may be stated as the lowest authorized fee (zero, if there are one or more states where no fee applies) to the highest authorized fee.
</P>
<HD3>60(a)(5) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Noncoverage of consumer-initiated requests.</I> Applications provided to a consumer upon request are not covered by § 1026.60, even if the request is made in response to the card issuer's invitation to apply for a card account. To illustrate, if a card issuer invites consumers to call a toll-free number or to return a response card to obtain an application, the application sent in response to the consumer's request need not contain the disclosures required under § 1026.60. Similarly, if the card issuer invites consumers to call and make an oral application on the telephone, § 1026.60 does not apply to the application made by the consumer. If, however, the card issuer calls a consumer or initiates a telephone discussion with a consumer about opening a card account and contemporaneously takes an oral application, such applications are subject to § 1026.60, specifically § 1026.60(d). Likewise, if the card issuer initiates an in-person discussion with a consumer about opening a card account and contemporaneously takes an application, such applications are subject to § 1026.60, specifically § 1026.60(f).
</P>
<HD3>60(b) Required Disclosures
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Tabular format.</I> Provisions in § 1026.60(b) and its commentary provide that certain information must appear or is permitted to appear in a table. The tabular format is required for § 1026.60(b) disclosures given pursuant to § 1026.60(c), (d)(2), (e)(1) and (f). The tabular format does not apply to oral disclosures given pursuant to § 1026.60(d)(1). (<I>See</I> § 1026.60(a)(2).)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Accuracy.</I> Rules concerning accuracy of the disclosures required by § 1026.60(b), including variable rate disclosures, are stated in § 1026.60(c)(2), (d)(3), and (e)(4), as applicable.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account in connection with a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> With regard to a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account that are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61, a card issuer is required to disclose under § 1026.60(b) any fees or charges imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) to the extent those fees or charges fall within the categories of fees or charges required to be disclosed under § 1026.60(b). For example, assume that a card issuer imposes a $1.25 per transaction fee on the asset feature of a prepaid account for purchases when a hybrid prepaid-credit card accesses a covered separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing purchase transactions conducted with the card, and the card issuer charges $0.50 per transaction for purchases that access funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account in the same program without such a credit feature. In this case, the $0.75 excess is a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) and must be disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(4).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees imposed on the asset feature of a prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan.</I> A card issuer is not required under § 1026.60(b) to disclose any fee or charge imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that is not a charge imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3). See § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E) and related commentary regarding fees imposed on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are not charges imposed as part of the plan under § 1026.6(b)(3) with respect to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards and non-covered separate credit features as those terms are defined in § 1026.61.


</P>
<HD3>60(b)(1) Annual Percentage Rate
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Variable-rate accounts—definition.</I> For purposes of § 1026.60(b)(1), a variable-rate account exists when rate changes are part of the plan and are tied to an index or formula. (See the commentary to § 1026.6(b)(4)(ii) for examples of variable-rate plans.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate accounts—fact that rate varies and how the rate will be determined.</I> In describing how the applicable rate will be determined, the card issuer must identify in the table the type of index or formula used, such as the prime rate. In describing the index, the issuer may not include in the table details about the index. For example, if the issuer uses a prime rate, the issuer must disclose the rate as a “prime rate” and may not disclose in the table other details about the prime rate, such as the fact that it is the highest prime rate published in the Wall Street Journal two business days before the closing date of the statement for each billing period. The issuer may not disclose in the table the current value of the index (such as that the prime rate is currently 7.5 percent) or the amount of the margin or spread added to the index or formula in setting the applicable rate. A card issuer may not disclose any applicable limitations on rate increases or decreases in the table, such as describing that the rate will not go below a certain rate or higher than a certain rate. (See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose the fact that the applicable rate varies and how it is determined.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Discounted initial rates.</I> i. <I>Immediate proximity.</I> If the term “introductory” is in the same phrase as the introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), it will be deemed to be in immediate proximity of the listing. For example, an issuer that uses the phrase “introductory balance transfer APR X percent” has used the word “introductory” within the same phrase as the rate. (See Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the expiration date of the introductory rate and the rate that will apply after the introductory rate expires, if an introductory rate is disclosed in the table.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Subsequent changes in terms.</I> The fact that an issuer may reserve the right to change a rate subsequent to account opening, pursuant to the notice requirements of § 1026.9(c) and the limitations in § 1026.55, does not, by itself, make that rate an introductory rate. For example, assume an issuer discloses an annual percentage rate for purchases of 12.99% but does not specify a time period during which that rate will be in effect. Even if that issuer subsequently increases the annual percentage rate for purchases to 15.99%, pursuant to a change-in-terms notice provided under § 1026.9(c), the 12.99% is not an introductory rate.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>More than one introductory rate.</I> If more than one introductory rate may apply to a particular balance in succeeding periods, the term “introductory” need only be used to describe the first introductory rate. For example, if an issuer offers a rate of 8.99% on purchases for six months, 10.99% on purchases for the following six months, and 14.99% on purchases after the first year, the term “introductory” need only be used to describe the 8.99% rate.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Premium initial rates—subsequent changes in terms.</I> The fact that an issuer may reserve the right to change a rate subsequent to account opening, pursuant to the notice requirements of § 1026.9(c) and the limitations in § 1026.55 (as applicable), does not, by itself, make that rate a premium initial rate. For example, assume an issuer discloses an annual percentage rate for purchases of 18.99% but does not specify a time period during which that rate will be in effect. Even if that issuer subsequently reduces the annual percentage rate for purchases to 15.99%, the 18.99% is not a premium initial rate. If the rate decrease is the result of a change from a non-variable rate to a variable rate or from a variable rate to a non-variable rate, see comments 9(c)(2)(v)-3 and 9(c)(2)(v)-4 for guidance on the notice requirements under § 1026.9(c).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Increased penalty rates.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> For rates that are not introductory rates or employee preferential rates, if a rate may increase as a penalty for one or more events specified in the account agreement, such as a late payment or an extension of credit that exceeds the credit limit, the card issuer must disclose the increased rate that would apply, a brief description of the event or events that may result in the increased rate, and a brief description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect. The description of the specific event or events that may result in an increased rate should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase a rate to the penalty rate because the consumer does not make the minimum payment by 5 p.m., Eastern Time, on its payment due date, the issuer should describe this circumstance in the table as “make a late payment.” Similarly, if an issuer may increase a rate that applies to a particular balance because the account is more than 60 days late, the issuer should describe this circumstance in the table as “make a late payment.” An issuer may not distinguish between the events that may result in an increased rate for existing balances and the events that may result in an increased rate for new transactions. (See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) for additional guidance on the level of detail in which the specific event or events should be described.) The description of how long the increased rate will remain in effect also should be brief. If a card issuer reserves the right to apply the increased rate to any balances indefinitely, to the extent permitted by §§ 1026.55(b)(4) and 1026.59, the issuer should disclose that the penalty rate may apply indefinitely. The card issuer may not disclose in the table any limitations imposed by §§ 1026.55(b)(4) and 1026.59 on the duration of increased rates. For example, if the issuer generally provides that the increased rate will apply until the consumer makes twelve timely consecutive required minimum periodic payments, except to the extent that §§ 1026.55(b)(4) and 1026.59 apply, the issuer should disclose that the penalty rate will apply until the consumer makes twelve consecutive timely minimum payments. (See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) for additional guidance on the level of detail which the issuer should use to describe how long the increased rate will remain in effect.) A card issuer will be deemed to meet the standard to clearly and conspicuously disclose the information required by § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv)(A) if the issuer uses the format shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) (in the row labeled “Penalty APR and When it Applies”) to disclose this information.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Introductory rates—general.</I> An issuer is required to disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an introductory rate, as that term is defined in § 1026.16(g)(2)(ii), may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the revocation. This information about revocation of an introductory rate and the rate that will apply after revocation must be provided even if the rate that will apply after the introductory rate is revoked is the rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period. In a variable-rate account, the rate that would have applied at the end of the promotional period is a rate based on the applicable index or formula in accordance with the accuracy requirements set forth in § 1026.60(c)(2) or (e)(4). In describing the rate that will apply after revocation of the introductory rate, if the rate that will apply after revocation of the introductory rate is already disclosed in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the rate, but may refer to that rate in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the rate that will apply after revocation of an introductory rate is the standard rate that applies to that type of transaction (such as a purchase or balance transfer transaction), and the standard rates are labeled in the table as “standard APRs,” the issuer may refer to the “standard APR” when describing the rate that will apply after revocation of an introductory rate. (See Sample G-10(C) in the disclosure labeled “Loss of Introductory APR” directly beneath the table.) The description of the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase an introductory rate because the account is more than 60 days late, the issuer should describe this circumstance directly beneath the table as “make a late payment.” In addition, if the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked are already listed elsewhere in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the circumstances again, but may refer to those circumstances in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked are the same as the event or events that may trigger a “penalty rate” as described in § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv)(A), the issuer may refer to the actions listed in the Penalty APR row, in describing the circumstances in which the introductory rate could be revoked. (See Sample G-10(C) in the disclosure labeled “Loss of Introductory APR” directly beneath the table for additional guidance on the level of detail in which to describe the circumstances in which an introductory rate could be revoked.) A card issuer will be deemed to meet the standard to clearly and conspicuously disclose the information required by § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv)(B) if the issuer uses the format shown in Sample G-10(C) to disclose this information.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Introductory rates—limitations on revocation.</I> Issuers that are disclosing an introductory rate are prohibited by § 1026.55 from increasing or revoking the introductory rate before it expires unless the consumer fails to make a required minimum periodic payment within 60 days after the due date for the payment. In making the required disclosure pursuant to § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv)(B), issuers should describe this circumstance directly beneath the table as “make a late payment.”
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Employee preferential rates.</I> An issuer is required to disclose directly beneath the table the circumstances under which an employee preferential rate may be revoked, and the rate that will apply after the revocation. In describing the rate that will apply after revocation of the employee preferential rate, if the rate that will apply after revocation of the employee preferential rate is already disclosed in the table, the issuer is not required to repeat the rate, but may refer to that rate in a clear and conspicuous manner. For example, if the rate that will apply after revocation of an employee preferential rate is the standard rate that applies to that type of transaction (such as a purchase or balance transfer transaction), and the standard rates are labeled in the table as “standard APRs,” the issuer may refer to the “standard APR” when describing the rate that will apply after revocation of an employee preferential rate. The description of the circumstances in which an employee preferential rate could be revoked should be brief. For example, if an issuer may increase an employee preferential rate based upon termination of the employee's employment relationship with the issuer or a third party, issuers may describe this circumstance as “if your employment with [issuer or third party] ends.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Rates that depend on consumer's creditworthiness.</I> i. <I>In general.</I> The card issuer, at its option, may disclose the possible rates that may apply as either specific rates, or a range of rates. For example, if there are three possible rates that may apply (9.99, 12.99 or 17.99 percent), an issuer may disclose specific rates (9.99, 12.99 or 17.99 percent) or a range of rates (9.99 to 17.99 percent). The card issuer may not disclose only the lowest, highest or median rate that could apply. (See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose a range of rates.)
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Penalty rates.</I> If the rate is a penalty rate, as described in § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv), the card issuer at its option may disclose the highest rate that could apply, instead of disclosing the specific rates or the range of rates that could apply. For example, if the penalty rate could be up to 28.99 percent, but the issuer may impose a penalty rate that is less than that rate depending on factors at the time the penalty rate is imposed, the issuer may disclose the penalty rate as “up to” 28.99 percent. The issuer also must include a statement that the penalty rate for which the consumer may qualify will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness, and other factors if applicable.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Other factors.</I> Section 1026.60(b)(1)(v) applies even if other factors are used in combination with a consumer's creditworthiness to determine the rate for which a consumer may qualify at account opening. For example, § 1026.60(b)(1)(v) would apply if the issuer considers the type of purchase the consumer is making at the time the consumer opens the account, in combination with the consumer's creditworthiness, to determine the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening. If other factors are considered, the issuer should amend the statement about creditworthiness, to indicate that the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening will depend on the consumer's creditworthiness and other factors. Nonetheless, § 1026.60(b)(1)(v) does not apply if a consumer's creditworthiness is not one of the factors that will determine the rate for which the consumer may qualify at account opening (for example, if the rate is based solely on the type of purchase that the consumer is making at the time the consumer opens the account, or is based solely on whether the consumer has other banking relationships with the card issuer).
</P>
<P>7. <I>Rate based on another rate on the account.</I> In some cases, one rate may be based on another rate on the account. For example, assume that a penalty rate as described in § 1026.60(b)(1)(iv)(A) is determined by adding 5 percentage points to the current purchase rate, which is 10 percent. In this example, the card issuer in disclosing the penalty rate must disclose 15 percent as the current penalty rate. If the purchase rate is a variable rate, then the penalty rate also is a variable rate. In that case, the card issuer also must disclose the fact that the penalty rate may vary and how the rate is determined, such as “This APR may vary with the market based on the Prime Rate.” In describing the penalty rate, the issuer shall not disclose in the table the amount of the margin or spread added to the current purchase rate to determine the penalty rate, such as describing that the penalty rate is determined by adding 5 percentage points to the purchase rate. (See § 1026.60(b)(1)(i) and comment 60(b)(1)-2 for further guidance on describing a variable rate.)
</P>
<P>8. <I>Rates.</I> The only rates that shall be disclosed in the table are annual percentage rates determined under § 1026.14(b). Periodic rates shall not be disclosed in the table.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Deferred interest or similar transactions.</I> An issuer offering a deferred interest or similar plan, such as a promotional program that provides that a consumer will not be obligated to pay interest that accrues on a balance if that balance is paid in full prior to the expiration of a specified period of time, may not disclose a 0% rate as the rate applicable to deferred interest or similar transactions if there are any circumstances under which the consumer will be obligated for interest on such transactions for the deferred interest or similar period.
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(2) Fees for Issuance or Availability
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Membership fees.</I> Membership fees for opening an account must be disclosed under this paragraph. A membership fee to join an organization that provides a credit or charge card as a privilege of membership must be disclosed only if the card is issued automatically upon membership. Such a fee shall not be disclosed in the table if membership results merely in eligibility to apply for an account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Enhancements.</I> Fees for optional services in addition to basic membership privileges in a credit or charge card account (for example, travel insurance or card-registration services) shall not be disclosed in the table if the basic account may be opened without paying such fees. Issuing a card to each primary cardholder (not authorized users) is considered a basic membership privilege and fees for additional cards, beyond the first card on the account, must be disclosed as a fee for issuance or availability. Thus, a fee to obtain an additional card on the account beyond the first card (so that each cardholder would have his or her own card) must be disclosed in the table as a fee for issuance or availability under § 1026.60(b)(2). This fee must be disclosed even if the fee is optional; that is, if the fee is charged only if the cardholder requests one or more additional cards. (See the available credit disclosure in § 1026.60(b)(14).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>One-time fees.</I> Disclosure of non-periodic fees is limited to fees related to opening the account, such as one-time membership or participation fees, or an application fee that is excludable from the finance charge under § 1026.4(c)(1). The following are examples of fees that shall not be disclosed in the table:
</P>
<P>i. Fees for reissuing a lost or stolen card.
</P>
<P>ii. Statement reproduction fees.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Waived or reduced fees.</I> If fees required to be disclosed are waived or reduced for a limited time, the introductory fees or the fact of fee waivers may be disclosed in the table in addition to the required fees if the card issuer also discloses how long the reduced fees or waivers will remain in effect in accordance with the requirements of §§ 1026.9(c)(2)(v)(B) and 1026.55(b)(1).
</P>
<P>5. <I>Periodic fees and one-time fees.</I> A card issuer disclosing a periodic fee must disclose the amount of the fee, how frequently it will be imposed, and the annualized amount of the fee. A card issuer disclosing a non-periodic fee must disclose that the fee is a one-time fee. (See Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to meet these requirements.) 
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(3) Fixed Finance Charge; Minimum Interest Charge
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Example of brief statement.</I> See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to provide a brief description of a minimum interest charge.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Adjustment of $1.00 threshold amount.</I> Consistent with § 1026.60(b)(3), the Bureau will publish adjustments to the $1.00 threshold amount, as appropriate.
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(4) Transaction Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Charges imposed by person other than card issuer.</I> Charges imposed by a third party, such as a seller of goods, shall not be disclosed in the table under this section; the third party would be responsible for disclosing the charge under § 1026.9(d)(1).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign transaction fees.</I> A transaction charge imposed by the card issuer for the use of the card for purchases includes any fee imposed by the issuer for purchases in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant. (See comment 4(a)-4 for guidance on when a foreign transaction fee is considered charged by the card issuer.) If an issuer charges the same foreign transaction fee for purchases and cash advances in a foreign currency, or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant, the issuer may disclose this foreign transaction fee as shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C). Otherwise, the issuer must revise the foreign transaction fee language shown in Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) to disclose clearly and conspicuously the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to purchases and the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to cash advances.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Prepaid cards.</I> i. With respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61, if a card issuer assesses a fee (other than a periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance) to make a purchase where this fee is imposed as part of the plan as described in § 1026.6(b)(3), that fee is a transaction charge described in § 1026.60(b)(4). <I>See</I> comments 60(b)-3 and -4. This is so whether the fee is a per transaction fee to make a purchase, or a flat fee for each day (or other period) the consumer has an outstanding balance of purchase transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. A fee for a transaction will be treated as a fee to make a purchase under § 1026.60(b)(4) in cases where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is drawn directly from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card without transferring funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume that the consumer has $10 of funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account and initiates a transaction with a merchant to obtain goods or services with the hybrid prepaid-credit card for $25. In this case, $10 is debited from the asset feature and $15 of credit is drawn directly from the covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card without any transfer of funds into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. A per transaction fee imposed for the $15 credit transaction must be disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(4).
</P>
<P>iii. On the other hand, a fee for a transaction will be treated as a cash advance fee under § 1026.60(b)(8) in cases where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. For example, assume the same facts as above, except that the $15 will be transferred from the covered separate credit feature to the asset feature, and a transaction of $25 is debited from the asset feature of the prepaid account. In this case, a per transaction fee for the $15 credit transaction must be disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(8).


</P>
<HD3>60(b)(5) Grace Period
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>How grace period disclosure is made.</I> The card issuer must state any conditions on the applicability of the grace period. An issuer, however, may not disclose under § 1026.60(b)(5) the limitations on the imposition of finance charges as a result of a loss of a grace period in § 1026.54, or the impact of payment allocation on whether interest is charged on purchases as a result of a loss of a grace period. Some issuers may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest will not be charged on purchases if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement for one or more billing cycles. In these circumstances, § 1026.60(b)(5) requires that the issuer disclose the grace period and the conditions for its applicability using the following language, or substantially similar language, as applicable: “Your due date is [at least] ____ days after the close of each billing cycle. We will not charge you any interest on purchases if you pay your entire balance by the due date each month.” However, other issuers may offer a grace period on all purchases under which interest may be charged on purchases even if the consumer pays the outstanding balance shown on a periodic statement in full by the due date shown on that statement each billing cycle. In these circumstances, § 1026.60(b)(5) requires the issuer to amend the above disclosure language to describe accurately the conditions on the applicability of the grace period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No grace period.</I> The issuer may use the following language to describe that no grace period on any purchases is offered, as applicable: “We will begin charging interest on purchases on the transaction date.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Grace period on some purchases.</I> If the issuer provides a grace period on some types of purchases but no grace period on others, the issuer may combine and revise the language in comments 60(b)(5)-1 and -2 as appropriate to describe to which types of purchases a grace period applies and to which types of purchases no grace period is offered.
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(6) Balance Computation Method
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Form of disclosure.</I> In cases where the card issuer uses a balance computation method that is identified by name in § 1026.60(g), the card issuer must disclose below the table only the name of the method. In cases where the card issuer uses a balance computation method that is not identified by name in § 1026.60(g), the disclosure below the table must clearly explain the method in as much detail as set forth in the descriptions of balance methods in § 1026.60(g). The explanation need not be as detailed as that required for the disclosures under § 1026.6(b)(4)(i)(D).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Determining the method.</I> In determining which balance computation method to disclose for purchases, the card issuer must assume that a purchase balance will exist at the end of any grace period. Thus, for example, if the average daily balance method will include new purchases only if purchase balances are not paid within the grace period, the card issuer would disclose the name of the average daily balance method that includes new purchases. The card issuer must not assume the existence of a purchase balance, however, in making other disclosures under § 1026.60(b).
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(7) Statement on Charge Card Payments
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability and content.</I> The disclosure that charges are payable upon receipt of the periodic statement is applicable only to charge card accounts. In making this disclosure, the card issuer may make such modifications as are necessary to more accurately reflect the circumstances of repayment under the account. For example, the disclosure might read, “Charges are due and payable upon receipt of the periodic statement and must be paid no later than 15 days after receipt of such statement.” 
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(8) Cash Advance Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the cash advance fee.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Foreign cash advances.</I> Cash advance fees required to be disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(8) include any charge imposed by the card issuer for cash advances in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant. (See comment 4(a)-4 for guidance on when a foreign transaction fee is considered charged by the card issuer.) If an issuer charges the same foreign transaction fee for purchases and cash advances in a foreign currency or that take place outside the United States or with a foreign merchant, the issuer may disclose this foreign transaction fee as shown in Samples G-10(B) and (C). Otherwise, the issuer must revise the foreign transaction fee language shown in Samples G-10(B) and (C) to disclose clearly and conspicuously the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to purchases and the amount of the foreign transaction fee that applies to cash advances.
</P>
<P>3. <I>ATM fees.</I> An issuer is not required to disclose pursuant to § 1026.60(b)(8) any charges imposed on a cardholder by an institution other than the card issuer for the use of the other institution's ATM in a shared or interchange system.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prepaid cards.</I> i. With respect to a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined by § 1026.61, if a card issuer assesses a fee (other than a periodic rate that may be used to compute the finance charge on an outstanding balance) for a cash advance, such as a cash withdrawal at an ATM, where the fee is imposed as part of the plan as described in § 1026.6(b)(3), that fee is a cash advance fee. <I>See</I> comments 60(b)-3 and -4. In addition, a fee for a transaction will be treated as a cash advance fee under § 1026.60(b)(8) in cases where a consumer uses a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61 to make a purchase to obtain goods or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from a covered separate credit feature accessed by the hybrid prepaid-credit card into the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the amount of the purchase. <I>See</I> comment 60(b)(4)-3.iii.
</P>
<P>ii. If the cash advance fee is the same dollar amount as the transaction charge for purchases described in § 1026.60(b)(4), the card issuer may disclose the fee amount under a heading that indicates the fee applies to both purchase transactions and cash advances. Examples of how fees for purchase transactions described in § 1026.60(b)(4) and fees for cash advances described in § 1026.60(b)(8) must be disclosed are as follows. Assume that all the fees in the examples below are charged on the covered separate credit feature.
</P>
<P>A. A card issuer assesses a $15 fee for credit drawn from a covered separate credit feature using a hybrid prepaid-credit card to purchase goods or services at the point of sale when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the prepaid account as described in comment 60(b)(4)-3.ii. The card issuer assesses a $25 fee for credit drawn from a covered separate credit feature using a hybrid prepaid-credit card for a cash advance at an ATM when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the prepaid account. In this instance, the card issuer must disclose separately a purchase transaction charge of $15 and a cash advance fee of $25.
</P>
<P>B. A card issuer assesses a $15 fee for credit drawn from a covered separate credit feature using a hybrid prepaid-credit card to purchase goods or services at the point of sale when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the prepaid account as discussed in comment 60(b)(4)-3.ii. The card issuer assesses a $15 fee for credit drawn from a covered separate credit feature using a hybrid prepaid-credit card for providing cash at an ATM when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the prepaid account. In this instance, the card issuer may disclose the $15 fee under a heading that indicates the fee applies to both purchase transactions and ATM cash advances. Alternatively, the card issuer may disclose the $15 fee on two separate rows, one row indicating that a $15 fee applies to purchase transactions, and a second row indicating that a $15 fee applies to ATM cash advances.
</P>
<P>C. A card issuer assesses a $15 fee for credit drawn from a covered separate credit feature using a hybrid prepaid-credit card for providing cash at an ATM when the consumer has insufficient or unavailable funds in the prepaid account. The card issuer also assesses a fee of $1.50 for out-of-network ATM cash withdrawals and $1.00 for in-network ATM cash withdrawals. The card issuer must disclose the cash advance fee as $16.50 for out-of-network ATM cash withdrawals, indicating that $1.50 is for the out-of-network ATM withdrawal fee, such as “$16.50 (including a $1.50 out-of-network ATM withdrawal fee).” The card issuer also must disclose the cash advance fee as $16.00 for in-network ATM cash withdrawals, indicating that $1.00 is for the in-network ATM withdrawal fee, such as “$16 (including a $1.00 in-network ATM cash withdrawal fee).”


</P>
<HD3>60(b)(9) Late Payment Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure of the fee for a late payment includes only those fees that will be imposed for actual, unanticipated late payments. (See the commentary to § 1026.4(c)(2) for additional guidance on late payment fees. See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the late payment fee.) 
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(10) Over-the-Limit Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability.</I> The disclosure of fees for exceeding a credit limit does not include fees for other types of default or for services related to exceeding the limit. For example, no disclosure is required of fees for reinstating credit privileges or fees for the dishonor of checks on an account that, if paid, would cause the credit limit to be exceeded. (See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on how to disclose clearly and conspicuously the over-the-limit fee.) 
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(13) Required Insurance, Debt Cancellation or Debt Suspension Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> See Sample G-10(B) for guidance on how to comply with the requirements in § 1026.60(b)(13).
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(14) Available Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Calculating available credit.</I> If the 15 percent threshold test is met, the issuer must disclose the available credit excluding optional fees, and the available credit including optional fees. In calculating the available credit to disclose in the table, the issuer must consider all fees for the issuance or availability of credit described in § 1026.60(b)(2), and any security deposit, that will be imposed and charged to the account when the account is opened, such as one-time issuance and set-up fees. For example, in calculating the available credit, issuers must consider the first year's annual fee and the first month's maintenance fee (as applicable) if they are charged to the account on the first billing statement. In calculating the amount of the available credit including optional fees, if optional fees could be charged multiple times, the issuer shall assume that the optional fee is only imposed once. For example, if an issuer charges a fee for each additional card issued on the account, the issuer in calculating the amount of the available credit including optional fees may assume that the cardholder requests only one additional card. In disclosing the available credit, the issuer shall round down the available credit amount to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Content.</I> See Sample G-10(C) for guidance on how to provide the disclosure required by § 1026.60(b)(14) clearly and conspicuously.
</P>
<HD3>60(b)(15) Web Site Reference
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Content.</I> See Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) for guidance on disclosing a reference to the Web site established by the Bureau and a statement that consumers may obtain on the Web site information about shopping for and using credit card accounts.
</P>
<HD3>60(c) Direct Mail and Electronic Applications and Solicitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Mailed publications.</I> Applications or solicitations contained in generally available publications mailed to consumers (such as subscription magazines) are subject to the requirements applicable to <I>take-ones</I> in § 1026.60(e), rather than the direct mail requirements of § 1026.60(c). However, if a primary purpose of a card issuer's mailing is to offer credit or charge card accounts—for example, where a card issuer “prescreens” a list of potential cardholders using credit criteria, and then mails to the targeted group its catalog containing an application or a solicitation for a card account—the direct mail rules apply. In addition, a card issuer may use a single application form as a <I>take-one</I> (in racks in public locations, for example) and for direct mailings, if the card issuer complies with the requirements of § 1026.60(c) even when the form is used as a <I>take-one</I>—that is, by presenting the required § 1026.60 disclosures in a tabular format. When used in a direct mailing, the credit term disclosures must be accurate as of the mailing date whether or not the § 1026.60(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) disclosures are included; when used in a <I>take-one,</I> the disclosures must be accurate for as long as the <I>take-one</I> forms remain available to the public if the § 1026.60(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) disclosures are omitted. (If those disclosures are included in the take-one, the credit term disclosures need only be accurate as of the printing date.) 
</P>
<HD3>60(d) Telephone Applications and Solicitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. This paragraph applies if:
</P>
<P>A. A telephone conversation between a card issuer and consumer may result in the issuance of a card as a consequence of an issuer-initiated offer to open an account for which the issuer does not require any application (that is, a <I>prescreened</I> telephone solicitation).
</P>
<P>B. The card issuer initiates the contact and at the same time takes application information over the telephone.
</P>
<P>ii. This paragraph does not apply to:
</P>
<P>A. Telephone applications initiated by the consumer.
</P>
<P>B. Situations where no card will be issued—because, for example, the consumer indicates that he or she does not want the card, or the card issuer decides either during the telephone conversation or later not to issue the card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Right to reject the plan.</I> The right to reject the plan referenced in this paragraph is the same as the right to reject the plan described in § 1026.5(b)(1)(iv). If an issuer substitutes the account-opening summary table described in § 1026.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures specified in § 1026.60(d)(2)(ii), the disclosure specified in § 1026.60(d)(2)(ii)(B) must appear in the table, if the issuer is required to do so pursuant to § 1026.6(b)(2)(xiii). Otherwise, the disclosure specified in § 1026.60(d)(2)(ii)(B) may appear either in or outside the table containing the required credit disclosures.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Substituting account-opening table for alternative written disclosures.</I> An issuer may substitute the account-opening summary table described in § 1026.6(b)(1) in lieu of the disclosures specified in § 1026.60(d)(2)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>60(e) Applications and Solicitations Made Available to General Public
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> Applications and solicitations made available to the general public include what are commonly referred to as <I>take-one</I> applications typically found at counters in banks and retail establishments, as well as applications contained in catalogs, magazines and other generally available publications. In the case of credit unions, this paragraph applies to applications and solicitations to open card accounts made available to those in the general field of membership.
</P>
<P>2. <I>In-person applications and solicitations.</I> In-person applications and solicitations initiated by a card issuer are subject to § 1026.60(f), not § 1026.60(e). (<I>See</I> § 1026.60(f) and accompanying commentary for rules relating to in-person applications and solicitations.)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Toll-free telephone number.</I> If a card issuer, in complying with any of the disclosure options of § 1026.60(e), provides a telephone number for consumers to call to obtain credit information, the number must be toll-free for nonlocal calls made from an area code other than the one used in the card issuer's dialing area. Alternatively, a card issuer may provide any telephone number that allows a consumer to call for information and reverse the telephone charges.
</P>
<HD3>60(e)(1) Disclosure of Required Credit Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Date of printing.</I> Disclosure of the month and year fulfills the requirement to disclose the date an application was printed.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of disclosures.</I> The disclosures specified in § 1026.60(e)(1)(ii) and (e)(1)(iii) may appear either in or outside the table containing the required credit disclosures.
</P>
<HD3>60(e)(2) No Disclosure of Credit Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When disclosure option available.</I> A card issuer may use this option only if the issuer does not include on or with the application or solicitation any statement that refers to the credit disclosures required by § 1026.60(b). Statements such as <I>no annual fee, low interest rate, favorable rates,</I> and <I>low costs</I> are deemed to refer to the required credit disclosures and, therefore, may not be included on or with the solicitation or application, if the card issuer chooses to use this option.
</P>
<HD3>60(e)(3) Prompt Response to Requests for Information
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prompt disclosure.</I> Information is promptly disclosed if it is given within 30 days of a consumer's request for information but in no event later than delivery of the credit or charge card.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information disclosed.</I> When a consumer requests credit information, card issuers need not provide all the required credit disclosures in all instances. For example, if disclosures have been provided in accordance with § 1026.60(e)(1) and a consumer calls or writes a card issuer to obtain information about changes in the disclosures, the issuer need only provide the items of information that have changed from those previously disclosed on or with the application or solicitation. If a consumer requests information about particular items, the card issuer need only provide the requested information. If, however, the card issuer has made disclosures in accordance with the option in § 1026.60(e)(2) and a consumer calls or writes the card issuer requesting information about costs, all the required disclosure information must be given.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Manner of response.</I> A card issuer's response to a consumer's request for credit information may be provided orally or in writing, regardless of the manner in which the consumer's request is received by the issuer. Furthermore, the card issuer must provide the information listed in § 1026.60(e)(1). Information provided in writing need not be in a tabular format.
</P>
<HD3>60(f) In-Person Applications and Solicitations
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Coverage.</I> i. This paragraph applies if:
</P>
<P>A. An in-person conversation between a card issuer and a consumer may result in the issuance of a card as a consequence of an issuer-initiated offer to open an account for which the issuer does not require any application (that is, a <I>preapproved</I> in-person solicitation).
</P>
<P>B. The card issuer initiates the contact and at the same time takes application information in person. For example, the following are covered:
</P>
<P><I>1.</I> A consumer applies in person for a car loan at a financial institution and the loan officer invites the consumer to apply for a credit or charge card account; the consumer accepts the invitation and submits an application.
</P>
<P><I>2.</I> An employee of a retail establishment, in the course of processing a sales transaction using a bank credit card, asks a customer if he or she would like to apply for the retailer's credit or charge card; the customer responds affirmatively and submits an application.
</P>
<P>ii. This paragraph does not apply to:
</P>
<P>A. In-person applications initiated by the consumer.
</P>
<P>B. Situations where no card will be issued—because, for example, the consumer indicates that he or she does not want the card, or the card issuer decides during the in-person conversation not to issue the card.


</P>
<HD3>Section 1026.61 Hybrid Prepaid-Credit Cards
</HD3>
<HD3>61(a) Hybrid Prepaid-Credit Card
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Scope of § 1026.61.</I> Section 1026.61 sets forth the definition of hybrid prepaid-credit card, and several requirements that only apply to covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i). Hybrid prepaid-credit cards and covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards are also subject to other rules in this regulation, and some of those rules and related commentary contain specific guidance related to hybrid prepaid-credit cards and covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards. For example, as discussed in §§ 1026.2(a)(15)(i) and 1026.61(a), a hybrid prepaid-credit card is a credit card for purposes of this regulation with respect to a covered separate credit feature. A covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card also will be a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan as defined in § 1026.2(a)(15)(ii) if the covered separate credit feature is an open-end credit plan. Thus, the provisions in this regulation that apply to credit cards and credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan generally will apply to hybrid prepaid-credit cards and covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards as applicable (<I>see generally</I> subparts B and G). Some of those rules and related commentary contain specific guidance with respect to hybrid prepaid-credit cards and covered separate credit features accessible by hybrid prepaid-credit cards. <I>See, e.g.,</I> §§ 1026.2(a)(15)(i) and (ii), 1026.4(b)(11), (c)(3) and (4), 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D) and (E), 1026.7(b)(11)(ii)(A), 1026.12(d)(3)(ii), 1026.13(i)(2), 1026.60(a)(5)(iv) and (b), and related commentary to these and other rules in the regulation.
</P>
<HD3>61(a)(1) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit.</I> Under § 1026.61(a)(1), except as provided in § 1026.61(a)(4), a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card if the prepaid card can access credit from a covered separate credit feature as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) or if it can access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account as described in § 1026.61(a)(3). When § 1026.61 references credit that can be accessed from a separate credit feature or credit that can be extended through a negative balance on the asset feature, it means credit that can be accessed or can be extended even if, for example:
</P>
<P>i. The person that can extend the credit does not agree in writing to extend the credit;
</P>
<P>ii. The person retains discretion not to extend the credit, or
</P>
<P>iii. The person does not extend the credit once the consumer has exceeded a certain amount of credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Prepaid card that is solely an account number.</I> A prepaid card that is solely an account number is a hybrid prepaid-credit card if it meets the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Usable from time to time.</I> In order for a prepaid card to be a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a), the prepaid card must be capable of being used from time to time to access credit as described in § 1026.61(a). Since this involves the possibility of repeated use of a single device, checks and similar instruments that can be used only once to obtain a single credit extension are not hybrid prepaid-credit cards. With respect to a preauthorized check that is issued on a prepaid account for which credit is extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account, or credit is drawn, transferred or authorized to be drawn or transferred from a separate credit feature, the credit is obtained using the prepaid account number and not the check at the time of preauthorization using the prepaid account number. The prepaid account number is a hybrid prepaid-credit card if the account number meets the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a). <I>See</I> comment 61(a)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Prepaid account that is a digital wallet.</I> i. A digital wallet that is capable of being loaded with funds is a prepaid account under Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b)(3). <I>See</I> Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b)(3) and comment 2(b)(3)(i)-6. A prepaid account number that can access such a digital wallet would be a hybrid prepaid-credit card if it meets the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a). To illustrate:
</P>
<P>A. A prepaid account number that can access such a digital wallet is a hybrid prepaid-credit card where it can be used from time to time to access a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the prepaid account number to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>B. A prepaid account number that can access such a digital wallet also is a hybrid prepaid-credit card where it can be used from time to time to access the stored credentials for a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the prepaid account number to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>C. A prepaid account number that can access such a digital wallet is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credentials stored in the prepaid account that can access a non-covered separate credit feature as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii) that is not offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner, even if the prepaid account number can access those credentials in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the prepaid account number to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>D. A prepaid account number that can access such a digital wallet is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credentials stored in the prepaid account that can access a non-covered separate credit feature as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii) where the prepaid account number cannot access those credentials in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction conducted with the prepaid account number to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, even if such credit feature is offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner.
</P>
<P>ii. A digital wallet is not a prepaid account under Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b)(3), if the digital wallet can never be loaded with funds, such as a digital wallet that only stores payment credentials for other accounts. <I>See</I> Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b)(3) and comment 2(b)(3)(i)-6. An account number that can access such a digital wallet would not be a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a), even if it stores a credential for a separate credit feature that is offered by the digital wallet provider, its affiliate, or its business partner and can be used in the course of a transaction involving the digital wallet.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Prepaid account that can be used for bill payment services.</I> Where a prepaid account can be used for online bill payment services offered by the prepaid account issuer, the prepaid card (including a prepaid account number) that can access that prepaid account is a hybrid prepaid-credit card if it meets the requirements set forth in § 1026.61(a). For example, if a prepaid account number can be used from time to time to initiate a transaction using the online bill payment service offered by the prepaid account issuer to pay a bill, and credit can be drawn, transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred, to the prepaid account from a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing that transaction as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i), the prepaid account number would be a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a). In this case, the prepaid account number can be used to draw or transfer credit, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit, from a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of completing a transaction to pay for goods or services through the online bill payment service.
</P>
<HD3>61(a)(2) Prepaid Card Can Access Credit From a Covered Separate Credit Feature
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Draws or transfers of credit.</I> i. For a prepaid card to be a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) with respect to a separate credit feature, the prepaid account must be structured such that the draw or transfer of credit, or authorizations of either, from a separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner is capable of occurring in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the prepaid card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. See comment 61(a)(2)-2 for guidance on when draws or transfers of credit can occur in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i). In this case, the separate credit feature is a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>ii. A prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a covered separate credit feature regardless of whether:
</P>
<P>A. The credit is pushed from the covered separate credit feature to the asset feature of the prepaid account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers; or
</P>
<P>B. The credit is pulled from the covered separate credit feature to the asset feature of the prepaid account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>iii. A prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a covered separate credit feature regardless of whether the covered separate credit feature can only be used as an overdraft credit feature, solely accessible by the hybrid prepaid-credit card, or whether it is a general line of credit that can be accessed in other ways.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit that can be accessed from a separate credit feature in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing a transaction.</I> i. Under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i), a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card when the card can be used from time to time to access a separate credit feature that is offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner and can be used to access credit in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. A draw, transfer, or authorization of a draw or transfer from a separate credit feature is deemed to be in the “course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing” a transaction if it occurs during the authorization phase of the transaction as discussed in comment 61(a)(2)-2.ii or in later periods up to the settlement of the transaction, as discussed in comment 61(a)(2)-2.iii.
</P>
<P>ii. The following examples illustrate transactions where credit can be drawn, transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred from a separate credit feature in the course of authorizing a transaction.
</P>
<P>A. A transaction initiated using a prepaid card when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is initiated and credit is transferred from the credit feature to the asset feature at the time the transaction is authorized to complete the transaction.
</P>
<P>B. A transaction initiated using a prepaid card when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is initiated and credit is directly drawn from the credit feature to complete the transaction, without transferring funds into the prepaid account.
</P>
<P>iii. The following examples illustrate transactions where credit can be drawn, transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred, in the course of settling a transaction.
</P>
<P>A. A transaction initiated using a prepaid card when there are sufficient or available funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time of authorization to cover the amount of the transaction but where the consumer does not have sufficient or available funds in the asset feature to cover the transaction at the time of settlement. Credit automatically is drawn, transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred from the credit feature at settlement to pay the transaction.
</P>
<P>B. A transaction that was not authorized in advance where the consumer does not have sufficient or available funds in the asset feature to cover the transaction at the time of settlement. Credit automatically is drawn, transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred from the credit feature at settlement to pay the transaction.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Accessing credit when the asset feature has sufficient funds.</I> Section 1026.61(a)(2)(i) applies where the prepaid card can be used from time to time to draw funds from a covered separate credit feature that is offered by a prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers, even if there are sufficient or available funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to complete the transaction. For example, the following separate credit feature would meet the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(2)(i).
</P>
<P>i. The prepaid card can be used from time to time both to access the asset feature of a prepaid account and to draw on the covered separate credit feature in the course of a transaction independent of whether there are sufficient or available funds in the asset feature to complete the transaction. For example, assume that a consumer has $50 available funds in her prepaid account. The consumer initiates a $25 transaction with the card to purchase goods and services. If the consumer chooses at the time the transaction is initiated to use the card to access the prepaid account, the card will draw on the funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to complete the transaction. If the consumer chooses at the time the transaction is initiated to use the card to access the credit feature, the card will draw on credit from the credit feature to complete the transaction, regardless of the fact that there were sufficient or available funds the prepaid account to complete the transaction.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Covered separate credit features.</I> i. Under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i), a separate credit feature that meets the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) is defined as a covered separate credit feature. In this case, the hybrid prepaid-credit card can access both the covered separate credit feature and the asset feature of the prepaid account. Section 1026.61 and other provisions in the regulation and commentary related to hybrid prepaid-credit cards refer to this credit feature either as a covered separate credit feature or a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card. <I>See, e.g.,</I> §§ 1026.4(c)(4), 1026.7(b)(11)(ii)(A), 1026.12(d)(3)(ii), and 1026.60(a)(5)(iv) and (b). In addition, several provisions in the regulation and commentary also describe this arrangement as one where a covered separate credit feature and an asset feature on a prepaid account are both accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card as defined in § 1026.61. <I>See, e.g.,</I> §§ 1026.4(b)(11), 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(D), and 1026.13(i)(2).
</P>
<P>ii. If a prepaid card is capable of drawing or transferring credit, or authorizing either, from a separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the prepaid card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct a person-to-person transfer, the credit feature is a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, even with respect to credit that is drawn or transferred, or authorized to be drawn or transferred, from the credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. For example, with respect to a covered separate credit feature, a consumer may use the prepaid card at the prepaid account issuer's Web site to load funds from the covered separate credit feature outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. This credit transaction is considered a credit transaction on a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, even though the load or transfer of funds occurred outside the course of a transaction conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Non-covered separate credit features.</I> A separate credit feature that does not meet the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) is defined as a non-covered separate credit feature as described in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii). A prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a non-covered separate credit feature. To illustrate:
</P>
<P>i. A prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) with respect to a separate credit feature if the credit feature is not offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner. This is true even if the draw or transfer of credit, or authorization of either, occurs during the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. For example, assume a consumer links her prepaid account to a credit card issued by a card issuer that is not the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner so that credit is drawn automatically into the asset feature of the prepaid account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the prepaid card for which there are insufficient funds in the asset feature. In this case, the separate credit feature is a non-covered separate credit feature under § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii). In this situation, the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to the separate credit feature offered by the unrelated third-party card issuer.
</P>
<P>ii. Even if a separate credit feature is offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner, a prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) with respect to that separate credit feature if the separate credit feature cannot be accessed within the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. For example, assume that a consumer can only conduct a draw or transfer of credit, or authorization of either, from a separate credit feature to a prepaid account at the prepaid account issuer's Web site, and these draws, transfers, or authorizations of either, cannot occur in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions at the Web site to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. In this case, the separate credit feature is a non-covered separate credit feature under § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii). In this situation, the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to this non-covered separate credit feature.
</P>
<P>iii. The person offering the non-covered separate credit feature does not become a card issuer under § 1026.2(a)(7) and thus does not become a creditor under § 1026.2(a)(17)(iii) or (iv) because the prepaid card can be used to access credit from the non-covered separate credit feature. The person offering the non-covered separate credit feature, however, may already have obligations under this regulation with respect to that separate credit feature. For example, if the non-covered separate credit feature is an open-end credit card account offered by an unrelated third-party creditor that is not an affiliate or business partner of the prepaid account issuer, the person already will be a card issuer under § 1026.2(a)(7) and a creditor under § 1026.2(a)(17)(iii). Nonetheless, in that case, the person does not need to comply with the provisions in the regulation applicable to hybrid prepaid-credit cards even though the prepaid card can access credit from the non-covered separate credit feature. The obligations under this regulation that apply to a non-covered separate credit feature are not affected by the fact that the prepaid card can access credit from the non-covered separate credit feature. <I>See</I> § 1026.6(b)(3)(iii)(E) and comments 4(b)(11)-1.ii, 6(b)(2)-2, 6(b)(3)(iii)(E)-1, 12(d)(3)-2.iii, 52(a)(2)-3, 52(b)-4, 55(a)-4, and 60(b)-4.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Prepaid card that can access multiple separate credit features.</I> i. Even if a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to a covered separate credit feature, it is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to any non-covered separate credit features.
</P>
<P>ii. For example, assume that a prepaid card can access “Separate Credit Feature A” where the card can be used from time to time to access credit from a separate credit feature that is offered by the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the card to obtain goods or services, obtain cash, or conduct person-to-person transfers. In addition, assume that the prepaid card can also access “Separate Credit Feature B” but that credit feature is being offered by an unrelated third-party creditor that is not the prepaid account issuer, its affiliate, or its business partner. The prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to Separate Credit Feature A because it is a covered separate credit feature. The prepaid card, however, is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to Separate Credit Feature B because it is a non-covered separate credit feature.


</P>
<HD3>61(a)(3) Prepaid Card Can Access Credit Extended Through a Negative Balance on the Asset Feature
</HD3>
<HD3>61(a)(3)(i) In General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit accessed on an asset feature of a prepaid account.</I> i. See comment 2(a)(14)-3 for examples of when transactions authorized or paid on the asset feature of a prepaid account meet the definition of credit under § 1026.2(a)(14).
</P>
<P>ii. Except as provided in § 1026.61(a)(4), a prepaid card would trigger coverage as a hybrid prepaid-credit card if it is a single device that can be used from time to time to access credit that can be extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account. (However, unless the credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account meets the requirements of § 1026.61(a)(4), such a product structure would violate the rules under § 1026.61(b).) A credit extension through a negative balance on the asset feature of a prepaid account can occur during the authorization phase of the transaction as discussed in comment 61(a)(3)(i)-1.iii or in later periods up to the settlement of the transaction, as discussed in comment 61(a)(3)(i)-1.iv.
</P>
<P>iii. The following example illustrates transactions where a credit extension occurs during the course of authorizing a transaction.
</P>
<P>A. A transaction initiated using a prepaid card when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time the transaction is initiated and credit is extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account when the transaction is authorized.
</P>
<P>iv. The following examples illustrate transactions where a credit extension occurs at settlement.
</P>
<P>A. Transactions that occur when there are sufficient or available funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time of authorization to cover the amount of the transaction but where the consumer does not have sufficient or available funds in the asset feature to cover the transaction at the time of settlement. Credit is extended through a negative balance on the asset feature at settlement to pay those transactions.
</P>
<P>B. Transactions that settle even though they were not authorized in advance where credit is extended through a negative balance on the asset feature at settlement to pay those transactions.
</P>
<HD3>61(a)(3)(ii) Negative Asset Balances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit extended on the asset feature of the prepaid account.</I> Section 1026.61(a)(3)(i) determines whether a prepaid card triggers coverage as a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a), and thus, whether a prepaid account issuer is a card issuer under § 1026.2(a)(7) subject to this regulation, including § 1026.61(b). However, § 1026.61(b) requires that any credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card must be structured as a separate credit feature using either a credit subaccount of the prepaid account or a separate credit account. Unless § 1026.61(a)(4) applies, a card issuer would violate § 1026.61(b) if it structures a credit feature as a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account. A prepaid account issuer can use a negative asset balance structure to extend credit on a prepaid account if the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to that credit as described in § 1026.61(a)(4).
</P>
<HD3>61(a)(4) Exception for Credit Extended Through a Negative Balance
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Prepaid card that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card.</I> i. A prepaid card that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card as described in § 1026.61(a)(4) with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account is not a credit card under this regulation with respect to that credit. A prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account if:
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<P>A. The card cannot access credit from a covered separate credit feature under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) that is offered by the prepaid account issuer or its affiliate, though it is permissible for it to access credit from a covered separate credit feature offered by a business partner or from a non-covered separate credit feature as described under § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii); and
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<P>B. The card can only access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account in accordance with both the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B).
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<P>ii. If the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(4) are met and the prepaid card can access credit from a covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) that is offered by a business partner, the prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to the covered separate credit feature pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) but is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended by a prepaid account issuer through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account that meets the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(4) or with respect to any non-covered separate credit feature pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii). If the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(4) are met and the prepaid card cannot access credit from any covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i), the prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended by a prepaid account issuer through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account that meets the conditions of § 1026.61(a)(4) or with respect to any non-covered separate credit feature pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii).
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<P>iii. Below is an example of when a prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account because the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4) have been met.
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<P>A. The prepaid card can only access credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account in accordance with both the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) and (B). The card can access credit from a non-covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii) and from a covered separate credit feature as defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) offered by a business partner, but cannot access credit for a covered separate credit feature that is offered by a prepaid account issuer or its affiliate.
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<P>iv. Below is an example of when a prepaid card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account because the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4) have not been met.
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<P>A. When there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account at the time a transaction is initiated, the card can be used to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from a covered separate credit feature offered by the prepaid account issuer or its affiliate during the authorization phase to complete the transaction so that credit is not extended on the asset feature of the prepaid account. The exception in § 1026.61(a)(4) does not apply because the prepaid card can be used to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from a covered separate credit feature defined in § 1026.61(a)(2)(i) that is offered by the prepaid account issuer or its affiliate. The card is a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(3) and with respect to the covered separate credit feature pursuant to § 1026.61(a)(2)(i). In that case, a card issuer has violated § 1026.61(b) because it has structured the credit feature as a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account. <I>See</I> § 1026.61(a)(3)(ii) and (b).
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<P>v. In the case where a prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to credit extended through a negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account because the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4) are met:
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<P>A. The prepaid account issuer is not a card issuer under § 1026.2(a)(7) with respect to the prepaid card when it accesses credit extended through the negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account. The prepaid account issuer also is not a creditor under § 1026.2(a)(17)(iii) or (iv) because it is not a card issuer under § 1026.2(a)(7) with respect to the prepaid card when it accesses credit extended through the negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account. The prepaid account issuer also is not a creditor under § 1026.2(a)(17)(i) with respect to credit extended through the negative balance on the asset feature of the prepaid account as a result of imposing fees on the prepaid account because those fees are not finance charges with respect to that credit. <I>See</I> comment 4(b)(11)-1.iii.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Authorization not required for every transaction.</I> The prepaid account issuer is not required to receive an authorization request for each transaction to comply with § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A). Nonetheless, the prepaid account issuer generally must establish an authorization policy as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) and have reasonable practices in place to comply with its established policy with respect to the authorization requests it receives. In that case, a prepaid account issuer is deemed to satisfy § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) even if a negative balance results on the prepaid account when a transaction is settled.
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<P>2. <I>Provisional credit.</I> A prepaid account issuer may still satisfy the requirements set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) even if a negative balance results on the asset feature of the prepaid account because the prepaid account issuer debits the amount of any provisional credit that was previously granted on the prepaid account as specified in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.11, so long as the prepaid account issuer otherwise complies with the conditions set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4). For example, under § 1026.61(a)(4), a prepaid account issuer may not impose a fee or charge enumerated under § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) with respect to this negative balance.
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<P>3. <I>Delayed load cushion.</I> i. <I>Incoming fund transfers.</I> For purposes of § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>), cases where the prepaid account issuer has received an instruction or confirmation for an incoming electronic fund transfer originated from a separate asset account to load funds to the prepaid account include a direct deposit of salary from an employer and a direct deposit of government benefits.
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<P>ii. <I>Consumer requests.</I> For purposes of § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>), cases where the prepaid account issuer has received a request from the consumer to load funds to the prepaid account from a separate asset account include where the consumer, in the course of a transaction, requests a load from a deposit account or uses a debit card to cover the amount of the transaction if there are insufficient funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to pay for the transaction.
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<P>4. <I>Permitted authorization circumstances are not mutually exclusive.</I> The two circumstances set forth in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) are not mutually exclusive. For example, assume a prepaid account issuer has adopted the $10 cushion described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>), and the delayed load cushion described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>). Also, assume the prepaid account issuer has received an instruction or confirmation for an incoming electronic fund transfer originated from a separate asset account to load funds to the prepaid account but the prepaid account issuer has not received the funds from the separate asset account. In this case, a prepaid account issuer satisfies § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A) if the amount of a transaction at authorization will not cause the prepaid account balance to become negative at the time of the authorization by more than the requested load amount plus the $10 cushion.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(B)
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<P>1. <I>Different terms on different prepaid account programs.</I> Section 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) does not prohibit a prepaid account issuer from charging different terms on different prepaid account programs. For example, the terms may differ between a prepaid account program where a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card is not offered in connection with any prepaid accounts within the prepaid account program, and a prepaid account program where a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card may be offered to some consumers in connection with their prepaid accounts.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(1).</I> To qualify for the exception in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B), the prepaid account issuer may not impose any fees or charges for opening, issuing, or holding a negative balance on the asset feature, or for the availability of credit, whether imposed on a one-time or periodic basis. Section 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) does not include fees or charges to open, issue, or hold the prepaid account where the amount of the fee or charge imposed on the asset feature is not higher based on whether credit might be offered or has been accepted, whether or how much credit the consumer has accessed, or the amount of credit available.
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<P>i. The types of fees or charges prohibited by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) include:
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<P>A. A daily, weekly, monthly, or other periodic fee assessed each period a prepaid account has a negative balance or is in “overdraft” status; and
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<P>B. A daily, weekly, monthly or other periodic fee to hold the prepaid account where the amount of the fee that applies each period is higher if the consumer is enrolled in a purchase cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or a delayed load cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) during that period. For example, assume that a consumer will pay a fee to hold the prepaid account of $10 if the consumer is not enrolled in a purchase cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or a delayed load cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) during that month, and will pay a fee to hold the prepaid account of $15 if the consumer is enrolled in a purchase cushion or delayed load cushion that period. The $15 charge is a charge described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) because the amount of the fee to hold the prepaid account is higher based on whether the consumer is participating in the payment cushion or delayed load cushion during that period.
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<P>ii. Fees or charges described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) do not include:
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<P>A. A daily, weekly, monthly, or other periodic fee to hold the prepaid account where the amount of the fee is not higher based on whether the consumer is enrolled in a purchase cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) or a delayed load cushion as described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) during that period, whether or how much credit has been extended during that period, or the amount of credit that is available during that period.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(2).</I> To qualify for the exception in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B), the prepaid account issuer may not impose any fees or charges on the asset feature of the prepaid account that will be imposed only when credit is extended on the asset feature or when there is a negative balance on the asset feature.
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<P>i. These types of fees or charges include:
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<P>A. A fee imposed because the balance on the prepaid account becomes negative;
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<P>B. Interest charges attributable to a periodic rate that applies to the negative balance;
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<P>C. Any fees for delinquency, default, or a similar occurrences that result from the prepaid account having a negative balance or being in “overdraft” status, except that the actual costs to collect the credit may be imposed if otherwise permitted by law; and
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<P>D. Late payment fees.
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<P>ii. Fees or charges described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) do not include:
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<P>A. Fees for actual collection costs, including attorney's fees, to collect any credit extended on the prepaid account if otherwise permitted by law. Late payment fees are not considered fees imposed for actual collection costs. <I>See</I> comment 61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>)-1.i.D.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(3).</I> i. To qualify for the exception in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B), the prepaid account issuer may not impose any fees or charges on the asset feature of the prepaid account that are higher when credit is extended on the asset feature or when there is a negative balance on the asset feature. These types of fees or charges include:
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<P>A. Transaction fees where the amount of the fee is higher based on whether the transaction accesses only asset funds in the asset feature or accesses credit. For example, a $15 transaction charge is imposed on the asset feature each time a transaction is authorized or paid when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature at the time of the authorization or settlement. A $1.50 fee is imposed each time a transaction only accesses funds in the asset feature. The $15 charge is a charge described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>) because the amount of the transaction fee is higher when the transaction accesses credit than the amount of the fee that applies when the transaction accesses only asset funds in the asset feature; and
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<P>B. A fee for a service on the prepaid account where the amount of the fee is higher based on whether the service is requested when the asset feature has a negative balance. For example, if a prepaid account issuer charges a higher fee for an ATM balance inquiry requested on the prepaid account if the balance inquiry is requested when there is a negative balance on the asset feature than the amount of fee imposed when there is a positive balance on the asset feature, the balance inquiry fee is a fee described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>) because the amount of the fee is higher based on whether it is imposed when there is a negative balance on the asset feature.
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<P>ii. Fees or charges described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) do not include:
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<P>A. Transaction fees on the prepaid account where the amount of the fee imposed when the transaction accesses credit does not exceed the amount of the fee imposed when the transaction only accesses asset funds in the prepaid account. For example, assume a $1.50 transaction charge is imposed on the prepaid account for each paid transaction that is made with the prepaid card, including transactions that only access asset funds, transactions that take the account balance negative, and transactions that occur when the account balance is already negative. The $1.50 transaction charge imposed on the prepaid account is not a fee described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B); and
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<P>B. A fee for a service on the prepaid account where the amount of the fee is not higher based on whether the service is requested when the asset feature has a negative balance. For example, if a prepaid account issuer charges the same amount of fee for an ATM balance inquiry regardless of whether there is a positive or negative balance on the asset feature, the balance inquiry fee is not a fee described in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B).
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(4)(ii)(C)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Fees or charges not covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B).</I> Under § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(C), a prepaid account issuer may still satisfy the exception in § 1026.61(a)(4) even if it debits fees or charges from the prepaid account when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover those fees or charges at the time they are imposed, so long as those fees or charges are not the type of fees or charges enumerated in § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B). A fee or charge not otherwise covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) does not become covered by that provision simply because there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to pay the fee when it is imposed. For example, assume that a prepaid account issuer imposes a fee for an ATM balance inquiry and the amount of the fee is not higher based on whether credit is extended or whether there is a negative balance on the prepaid account. Also assume that when the fee is imposed, there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to pay the fee. The ATM balance inquiry fee does not become a fee covered by § 1026.61(a)(4)(ii)(B) because the fee is debited from the prepaid account balance when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover the fee at the time it is imposed.
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<HD3>61(a)(5) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Card network or payment network agreements.</I> A draw, transfer, or authorization of the draw or transfer from a credit feature may be effectuated through a card network or a payment network. However, for purposes of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii), agreements to participate in a card network or payment network themselves do not constitute an “agreement” or a “business, marketing, or promotional agreement or other arrangement” described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(B) or (C), respectively.
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<P>2. <I>Relationship to prepaid account issuer.</I> A person (other than a prepaid account issuer or its affiliates) that can extend credit through a separate credit feature will be deemed to have an arrangement with the prepaid account issuer if the person that can extend credit, its service provider, or the person's affiliate has an arrangement with the prepaid account issuer, its service provider such as a program manager, or the issuer's affiliate. In that case, the person that can extend credit will be a business partner of the prepaid account issuer. For example, if the affiliate of the person that can extend credit has an arrangement with the prepaid account issuer's affiliate, the person that can extend credit will be the business partner of the prepaid account issuer.
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<HD3>61(a)(5)(iii)(D) Exception for Certain Credit Card Account Arrangements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When the exception applies.</I> If the exception in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) applies, a person that can extend credit through the credit card account is not a business partner of a prepaid account issuer with which it has an arrangement as defined in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(A) through (C). Accordingly, where a consumer has authorized his or her prepaid card in accordance with § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) to be linked to the credit card account in such a way as to allow the prepaid card to access the credit card account as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), the linked prepaid card is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card with respect to the linked credit card account. Rather, the linked credit card account is a non-covered separate credit feature as discussed in § 1026.61(a)(2)(ii). <I>See</I> comment 61(a)(2)-5. In this case, by definition, the linked credit card account will be subject to the credit card rules in this regulation in its own right because it is a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan, pursuant to the condition set forth in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>).
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Traditional credit card.</I> For purposes of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D), “traditional credit card<I>”</I> means a credit card that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card. Thus, the condition in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>) is not satisfied if the only credit card that a consumer can use to access the credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan is a hybrid prepaid-credit card.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Written request.</I> Under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), any accountholder on either the prepaid account or the credit card account may make the written request.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(4)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Account terms, conditions, or features.</I> Account terms, conditions, and features subject to § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>) include, but are not limited to:
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<P>i. Interest paid on funds deposited into the prepaid account, if any;
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<P>ii. Fees or charges imposed on the prepaid account (see comment 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>)-3 for additional guidance on this element with regard to load fees);
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<P>iii. The type of access device provided to the consumer;
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<P>iv. Minimum balance requirements on the prepaid account; or
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<P>v. Account features offered in connection with the prepaid account, such as online bill payment services.
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<P>2. <I>The same terms, conditions, and features apply to the consumer's prepaid account.</I> For the exception in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) to apply, under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>), the prepaid account issuer must not vary the terms, conditions, and features on the consumer's prepaid account depending on whether the consumer has authorized linking the prepaid card to the credit card account as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>). For example, a prepaid account issuer would not satisfy this condition of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>) if it provides on a consumer's prepaid account rewards points or cash back on purchases with the prepaid card where the consumer has authorized a link to the credit card account as discussed above while not providing such rewards points or cash back on the consumer's account if the consumer has not authorized such a linkage.
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<P>3. <I>Example of impermissible variations in load fees.</I> For the exception in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) to apply, under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>), the prepaid account issuer must apply the same fees to load funds from the credit card account that is linked to the prepaid account as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) as it charges for a comparable load on the consumer's prepaid account to access a credit feature offered by a person that is not the prepaid account issuer, its affiliates, or a person with which the prepaid account issuer has an arrangement as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(A) through (C). For example, a prepaid account issuer would not satisfy this condition of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>4</I>) if it charges on the consumer's prepaid account $0.50 to load funds in the course of a transaction from a credit card account offered by a card issuer with which the prepaid account issuer has an arrangement, but $1.00 to load funds in the course of a transaction from a credit card account offered by a card issuer with which it does not have an arrangement.
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<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(5)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Specified terms and conditions.</I> For purposes of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D), “specified terms and conditions” on a credit card account means:
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<P>i. The terms and conditions required to be disclosed under § 1026.6(b), which include pricing terms, such as periodic rates, annual percentage rates, and fees and charges imposed on the credit card account; any security interests acquired under the credit account; claims and defenses rights under § 1026.12(c); and error resolution rights under § 1026.13;
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<P>ii. Any repayment terms and conditions, including the length of the billing cycle, the payment due date, any grace period on the transactions on the account, the minimum payment formula, and the required or permitted methods for making conforming payments on the credit feature; and
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<P>iii. The limits on liability for unauthorized credit transactions.
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<P>2. <I>Same specified terms and conditions regardless of whether the credit card account is linked to the prepaid account.</I> For the exception in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) to apply, under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>5</I>), the card issuer must not vary the specified terms and conditions on the consumer's credit card account depending on whether the consumer has authorized linking the prepaid card to the credit card account as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>). The following are examples of circumstances in which a card issuer would not meet the condition described above:
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<P>i. The card issuer structures the credit card account as a “charge card account” (where no periodic rate is used to compute a finance charge on the credit card account) if the credit feature is linked to the prepaid card as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), but applies a periodic rate to compute a finance charge on the consumer's account (and thus does not use a charge card account structure) if there is no such link. See § 1026.2(a)(15)(iii) for the definition of “charge card.”
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<P>ii. The card issuer imposes a $50 annual fee on a consumer's credit card account if the credit feature is linked to the prepaid card as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>), but does not impose an annual fee on the consumer's credit card account if there is no such link.
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<P>3. <I>Same specified terms and conditions regardless of whether credit is accessed by the prepaid card or the traditional credit card.</I> To satisfy the condition of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>), the credit card account must be a credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan that a consumer can access through a traditional credit card. As explained in comment 61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>1</I>)-1, for purposes of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D), “traditional credit card” means a credit card that is not a hybrid prepaid-credit card. For the exception in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D) to apply, under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>5</I>), a card issuer must not vary the specified terms and conditions on the credit card account when a consumer authorizes linking the account with the prepaid card as described in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>2</I>) depending on whether a particular credit extension from the credit card account is accessed by the prepaid card or by the traditional credit card.
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<P>i. The following examples are circumstances in which a card issuer would not meet the condition of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iii)(D)(<I>5</I>) described above:
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<P>A. The card issuer considers transactions using the traditional credit card to obtain goods or services from an unaffiliated merchant of the card issuer as purchase transactions with certain annual percentage rates (APRs), fees, and a grace period that applies to those purchase transactions, but treats credit extensions as cash advances that are subject to different APRs, fees, grace periods, and other specified terms and conditions where the prepaid card is used to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the linked credit card account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the prepaid card to obtain goods or services from an unaffiliated merchant of the card issuer.
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<P>B. The card issuer generally treats one-time transfers of credit using the credit card account number to asset accounts as cash advance transactions with certain APRs and fees, but treats one-time transfers of credit using the prepaid card to the prepaid account as purchase transactions that are subject to different APRs and fees.
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<P>ii. To apply the same rights under § 1026.12(c) regarding claims and defenses applicable to use of a credit card to purchase property or services, the card issuer must treat an extension of credit as a credit card transaction to purchase property or services where a prepaid card is used to draw, transfer, or authorize the draw or transfer of credit from the linked credit card account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing transactions conducted with the prepaid card to purchase property or services and provide the same rights under § 1026.12(c) as it applies to property or services purchased with the traditional credit card. This includes situations where a consumer uses a prepaid card to make a purchase to obtain property or services from a merchant and credit is transferred from the linked credit card account in the course of authorizing, settling, or otherwise completing the prepaid transaction to make the purchase. For a transaction where a prepaid card is used to obtain property or services from a merchant and the transaction is partially paid with funds from the asset feature of the prepaid account, and partially paid with credit from the linked credit card account, the amount of the purchase transaction that is funded by credit would be subject to this guidance. A card issuer is not required to provide the rights under § 1026.12(c) with respect to the amount of the transaction funded from the prepaid account.
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<P>iii. To apply the same limits on liability for unauthorized extensions of credit from the credit card account using the prepaid card as it applies to unauthorized extensions of credit from the credit card account using the traditional credit card, the card issuer must treat an extension of credit accessed by the prepaid card as a credit card transaction for purposes of the limits on liability for unauthorized extensions of credit set forth in § 1026.12(b) and impose the same liability under § 1026.12(b) to this credit extension as it applies to unauthorized transactions using the traditional credit card.


</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Applicability of credit feature definition.</I> The definition of credit feature set forth in § 1026.61(a)(5)(iv) only defines that term for purposes of this regulation in relation to credit in connection with a prepaid account or prepaid card. This definition does not impact when an account, subaccount or negative balance is a credit feature under the regulation with respect to credit in relation to a checking account or other transaction account that is not a prepaid account, or a debit card. <I>See, e.g.,</I> comments 2(a)(15)-2.ii.A and 4(b)(2)-1 for where the term credit feature is used in relation to a debit card or asset account other than a prepaid account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Asset account other than a prepaid account.</I> A credit feature for purposes of § 1026.61(a)(5)(iv) does not include an asset account other than a prepaid account that has an attached overdraft feature. For example, assume that funds are loaded or transferred to a prepaid account from an asset account (other than a prepaid account) on which an overdraft feature is attached. The asset account is not a credit feature under § 1026.61(a)(5)(iv) even if the load or transfer of funds to the prepaid account triggers the overdraft feature that is attached to the asset account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 61(a)(5)(vii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definition of prepaid card.</I> The term “prepaid card” in § 1026.61(a)(5)(vii) includes any card, code, or other device that can be used to access a prepaid account, including a prepaid account number or other code.


</P>
<HD3>61(b) Structure of Credit Features Accessible by Hybrid Prepaid-Credit Cards
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit subaccount on a prepaid account.</I> If a credit feature that is accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card is structured as a subaccount of the prepaid account, the credit feature must be set up as a separate balance on the prepaid account such that there are at least two balances on the prepaid account—the asset account balance and the credit account balance.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Credit extended on a credit subaccount or a separate credit account.</I> Under § 1026.61(b), with respect to a credit feature that is accessed by a hybrid prepaid-credit card, a card issuer at its option may structure the credit feature as a separate credit feature, either as a subaccount on the prepaid account that is separate from the asset feature or as a separate credit account. The separate credit feature would be a covered separate credit feature accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card under § 1026.61(a)(2)(i). Regardless of whether the card issuer is structuring its covered separate credit feature as a subaccount of the prepaid account or as a separate credit account:
</P>
<P>i. If at the time a prepaid card transaction is initiated there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to complete the transaction, credit must be drawn, transferred or authorized to be drawn or transferred, from the covered separate credit feature at the time the transaction is authorized. The card issuer may not allow the asset feature on the prepaid account to become negative and draw or transfer the credit from the covered separate credit feature at a later time, such as at the end of the day. The card issuer must comply with the applicable provisions of this regulation with respect to the credit extension from the time the prepaid card transaction is authorized.
</P>
<P>ii. For transactions where there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the asset feature of the prepaid account to cover that transaction at the time it settles and the prepaid transaction either was not authorized in advance or the transaction was authorized and there were sufficient or available funds in the prepaid account at the time of authorization to cover the transaction, credit must be drawn from the covered separate credit feature to settle these transactions. The card issuer may not allow the asset feature on the prepaid account to become negative. The card issuer must comply with the applicable provisions of this regulation from the time the transaction is settled.
</P>
<P>iii. If a negative balance would result on the asset feature in circumstances other than those described in comment 61(b)-2.i and ii, credit must be drawn from the covered separate credit feature to avoid the negative balance. The card issuer may not allow the asset feature on the prepaid account to become negative. The card issuer must comply with the applicable provisions in this regulation from the time credit is drawn from the covered separate credit feature. For example, assume that a fee for an ATM balance inquiry is imposed on the prepaid account when there are insufficient or unavailable funds to cover the amount of the fee when it is imposed. Credit must be drawn from the covered separate credit feature to avoid a negative balance.


</P>
<HD3>61(c) Timing Requirement for Solicitation or Application With Respect to Hybrid Prepaid-Credit Cards
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Meaning of registration of a prepaid card or prepaid account.</I> A prepaid card or prepaid account is registered, such that the 30-day timing requirement required by § 1026.61(c) begins, when the prepaid account issuer successfully completes its collection of consumer identifying information and identity verification in accordance with the requirements of applicable Federal and state law. The beginning of the required 30-day timing requirement is triggered by successful completion of collection of consumer identifying information and identity verification, not by the consumer's mere purchase or obtaining of the card. With respect to a prepaid account for which customer identification and verification are completed before the account is opened, the 30-day timing requirement begins on the day the prepaid account is opened.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Unsolicited issuance of credit cards and disclosures related to applications or solicitations for credit or charge card accounts.</I> See § 1026.12(a)(1) and comment 12(a)(1)-7.ii for additional rules that apply to the addition of a credit card or charge card account to a previously-issued prepaid account. See also § 1026.60 and related commentary for disclosures that generally must be provided on or with applications or solicitations to open a credit or charge card account.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Replacement or substitute cards.</I> A card issuer is not required to comply with § 1026.61(c) when a hybrid prepaid-credit card is permitted to be replaced, or substituted, for another hybrid prepaid-credit card without a request or application under § 1026.12(a)(2) and related commentary. For example, § 1026.61(c) does not apply to situations where a prepaid account or credit feature that is accessible by a hybrid prepaid-credit card is replaced because of security concerns and a new hybrid prepaid-credit card is issued to access the new prepaid account or covered separate credit feature without a request or application under § 1026.12(a)(2).


</P>
<HD1>Appendix A—Effect on State Laws 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Who may make requests.</I> Appendix A sets forth the procedures for preemption determinations. As discussed in § 1026.28, which contains the standards for preemption, a request for a determination of whether a state law is inconsistent with the requirements of chapters 1, 2, or 3 may be made by creditors, states, or any interested party. However, only states may request and receive determinations in connection with the fair credit billing provisions of chapter 4. 


</P>
<HD1>Appendix B—State Exemptions 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Appendix B sets forth the procedures for exemption applications. The exemption standards are found in § 1026.29 and are discussed in the commentary to that section. 


</P>
<HD1>Appendix C—Issuance of Official Interpretations 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This commentary is the vehicle for providing official interpretations. Individual interpretations generally will not be issued separately from the commentary.


</P>
<HD1>Appendix D—Multiple-Advance Construction Loans 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Appendix D provides a special procedure that creditors may use, at their option, to estimate and disclose the terms of multiple-advance construction loans when the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at consummation of the transaction. This appendix reflects the approach taken in § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii), which permits creditors to provide separate or combined disclosures for the construction period and for the permanent financing, if any; <I>i.e.,</I> the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as one transaction or more than one transaction. appendix D may also be used in multiple-advance transactions other than construction loans, when the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at consummation.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Variable-rate multiple-advance loans.</I> The hypothetical disclosure required in variable-rate transactions by § 1026.18(f)(1)(iv) is not required for multiple-advance loans disclosed pursuant to appendix D, part I.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Calculation of the total of payments.</I> When disclosures are made pursuant to appendix D, the total of payments may reflect either the sum of the payments or the sum of the amount financed and the finance charge.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Annual percentage rate.</I> Appendix D does not require the use of Volume I of the Bureau's Annual Percentage Rate Tables for calculation of the annual percentage rate. Creditors utilizing appendix D in making calculations and disclosures may use other computation tools to determine the estimated annual percentage rate, based on the finance charge and payment schedule obtained by use of the appendix.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Interest reserves.</I> In a multiple-advance construction loan, a creditor may establish an “interest reserve” to ensure that interest is paid as it accrues by designating a portion of the loan to be used for paying the interest that accrues on the loan. An interest reserve is not treated as a prepaid finance charge, whether the interest reserve is the same as or different from the estimated interest figure calculated under appendix D.
</P>
<P>i. If a creditor permits a consumer to make interest payments as they become due, the interest reserve should be disregarded in the disclosures and calculations under appendix D.
</P>
<P>ii. If a creditor requires the establishment of an interest reserve and automatically deducts interest payments from the reserve amount rather than allow the consumer to make interest payments as they become due, the fact that interest will accrue on those interest payments as well as the other loan proceeds must be reflected in the calculations and disclosures. To reflect the effects of such compounding, a creditor should first calculate interest on the commitment amount (exclusive of the interest reserve) and then add the figure obtained by assuming that one-half of that interest is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period. For example, using the example shown under paragraph A, part I of appendix D, the estimated interest would be $1,117.68 ($1093.75 plus an additional $23.93 calculated by assuming half of $1093.75 is outstanding at the contract interest rate for the entire construction period), and the estimated annual percentage rate would be 21.18%.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Relation to § 1026.18(s).</I> A creditor must disclose an interest rate and payment summary table for certain transactions secured by a dwelling, pursuant to § 1026.18(s), instead of the general payment schedule required by § 1026.18(g) or the projected payments table required by §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c). Accordingly, some home construction loans that are secured by a dwelling are subject to § 1026.18(s) and not § 1026.18(g). <I>See</I> comment app. D-7 for a discussion of transactions that are subject to §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38. Under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii), when a multiple-advance construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as either one transaction or more than one transaction. Following are illustrations of the application of appendix D to transactions subject to § 1026.18(s), under each of these two alternatives:</P>
<P>i. If a creditor uses appendix D and elects pursuant to § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) to disclose the construction and permanent phases as separate transactions, the construction phase must be disclosed according to the rules in § 1026.18(s). Under § 1026.18(s), the creditor must disclose the applicable interest rates and corresponding periodic payments during the construction phase in an interest rate and payment summary table. The provision in appendix D, part I.A.3, which allows the creditor to omit the number and amounts of any interest payments “in disclosing the payment schedule under § 1026.18(g)” does not apply because the transaction is governed by § 1026.18(s) rather than § 1026.18(g). Also, because the construction phase is being disclosed as a separate transaction and its terms do not repay all principal, the creditor must disclose a balloon payment, pursuant to § 1026.18(s)(5).
</P>
<P>ii. On the other hand, if the creditor elects to disclose the construction and permanent phases as a single transaction, where interest is payable on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding, the construction phase must be disclosed pursuant to appendix D, part II.C.1, which provides that the creditor shall disclose the repayment schedule without reflecting the number or amounts of payments of interest only that are made during the construction phase. Appendix D also provides, however, that creditors must disclose (outside of the table) the fact that interest payments must be made and the timing of such payments. The interest rate and payment summary table disclosed under § 1026.18(s) in such cases must reflect only the permanent phase of the transaction. Therefore, in determining the rates and payments that must be disclosed in the columns of the table, creditors should apply the requirements of § 1026.18(s) to the permanent phase only. For example, under § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(A) or § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(B)(<I>1),</I> as applicable, the creditor should disclose the interest rate corresponding to the first installment due under the permanent phase and not any rate applicable during the construction phase.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Relation to §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38.</I> Creditors may use, at their option, the following methods to estimate and disclose the terms of multiple-advance construction loans pursuant to §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38. As stated in comment app. D-1, appendix D may also be used in multiple-advance transactions other than construction loans, when the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at consummation.
</P>
<P>i. <I>Loan term.</I> A. <I>Disclosure as single transaction.</I> If the construction and permanent financing are disclosed as a single transaction, the loan term disclosed is the total combined term of the construction period and the permanent period. For example, if the term of the construction financing is 12 months and the term of the permanent financing is 30 years, and the two phases are disclosed as a single transaction, the loan term disclosed is 31 years.
</P>
<P>B. <I>Term of permanent financing.</I> The loan term of the permanent financing is counted from the date that interest for the permanent financing periodic payments begins to accrue, regardless of when the permanent phase is disclosed.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Product.</I> A. <I>Separate construction loan disclosure.</I> If the construction financing is disclosed separately and has payments of interest only, the time period of the “Interest Only” feature that is disclosed as part of the product disclosure under §§ 1026.37(a)(10) and 1026.38(a)(5)(iii) is the period during which interest-only payments are actually made and excludes any final balloon payment of principal and interest. For example, the product disclosure for a fixed rate, interest-only construction loan with a term of 12 months in which there will be 11 monthly interest payments and a final balloon payment of principal and interest is “11 mo. Interest Only, Fixed Rate.”
</P>
<P>B. <I>Combined construction-permanent disclosure.</I> If a single, combined construction-permanent disclosure is provided, the time period of the “Interest Only” feature that is disclosed as part of the product disclosure under §§ 1026.37(a)(10) and 1026.38(a)(5)(iii) is the full term of the interest-only construction financing plus any interest-only period for the permanent financing. For example, the product disclosure for a single disclosure, fixed rate, construction-permanent loan with a 12 month interest-only construction phase where the interest rate is not subject to modification upon conversion to the permanent phase is “1 Year Interest Only, Fixed Rate.” If the first year of the permanent phase in this example also has a 12 month interest-only period, the product disclosure is “2 Year Interest Only, Fixed Rate.”
</P>
<P>C. <I>Product when interest rate at consummation not known.</I> If the interest rate for the permanent phase is not known at consummation for a construction-permanent loan using a single, combined construction-permanent disclosure or using separate disclosures for the permanent phase, the creditor shall disclose the loan product under §§ 1026.37(a)(10) and 1026.38(a)(5)(iii) as “Adjustable Rate.” If the interest rate may increase under the terms of the legal obligation from the disclosures provided at consummation, the loan product description is “Adjustable Rate” in such cases, even if the interest rate will be fixed for the term of the permanent phase once it is set.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Interest rate.</I> If the permanent financing has an adjustable rate at consummation and separate disclosures are provided, the rate disclosed for the permanent financing is the fully-indexed rate pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(2) and its commentary. If the permanent financing has a fixed rate that will not be adjusted when the construction phase converts to the permanent phase, that fixed rate is used for disclosure purposes. If the permanent financing has a rate that may adjust when the construction phase converts to the permanent phase, the permanent financing has an adjustable rate. If the legal obligation for a loan secured by the consumer's principal dwelling provides that the permanent financing interest rate may adjust when the construction financing converts to permanent financing, and such adjustment to the interest rate results in a corresponding adjustment to the payment, the creditor provides the disclosures pursuant to § 1026.20(c), but not (d), if the interest rate for the permanent phase will be fixed after the conversion.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Increase in periodic payment.</I> If the amounts or timing of advances is unknown at or before consummation and the appendix D assumption that applies if interest is payable only on the amount advanced for the time it is outstanding is used to calculate the periodic payment:
</P>
<P>A. A creditor discloses “YES” as the answer to “Can this amount increase after closing?” pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) whether the creditor provides separate construction disclosures or combined construction-permanent disclosures, even though calculation of the construction financing periodic payments using the assumptions in appendix D produces interest-only periodic payments that are equal in amount.
</P>
<P>B. A creditor that discloses “YES” as the answer to “Can this amount increase after closing?” pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) may use months or years for the § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) disclosures, consistent with comment 37(b)(6)-1. For example, for a 10-month construction loan, the first § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) disclosure bullet may disclose, “Adjusts every mo. starting in mo. 1” and the second § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) disclosure bullet may disclose, “Can go as high as $[insert maximum possible periodic principal and interest payment] in year 1”. The calculation of the maximum possible periodic principal and interest payment disclosed is based on the maximum principal balance that could be outstanding during the construction phase. As part of the “First Change/Amount” disclosure in the “Adjustable Payment (AP) Table” pursuant to § 1026.37(i)(5)(i), the creditor may omit and leave blank the amount or range corresponding to the first periodic principal and interest payment that may change. In such cases, the creditor must still disclose the timing of the first change, which is the number of the earliest possible payment (<I>e.g.,</I> 1st payment) that may change under the terms of the legal obligation.
</P>
<P>C. When separate construction disclosures or the combined construction-permanent disclosures are provided for adjustable-rate construction financing, a creditor provides the § 1026.37(b)(6)(iii) disclosures reflecting changes that are due to changes in the interest rate and changes that are due to changes in the total amount advanced. Such a creditor discloses “YES” as the answer to “Can this amount increase after closing?” pursuant to § 1026.37(b)(6), because the initial periodic payment may increase based upon an increase in the interest rate in addition to a change based on the total amount advanced. Such a creditor also discloses a reference to the adjustable payment table required by § 1026.37(i), disclosed as provided in comment app. D-7.iv.B, because that disclosure reflects both a change due to a change in the total amount advanced, which is a change to the periodic principal and interest payment that is not based on an adjustment to the interest rate, as well as the fact that there are interest-only payments. Such a creditor also includes a reference to the adjustable interest rate table required by § 1026.37(j) because that disclosure reflects a change due to a change in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>v. <I>Projected payments table.</I> A creditor must disclose a projected payments table for certain transactions secured by real property or a cooperative unit, pursuant to §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c), instead of the general payment schedule required by § 1026.18(g) or the interest rate and payments summary table required by § 1026.18(s). Accordingly, some home construction loans that are secured by real property or a cooperative unit are subject to §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c) and not § 1026.18(g). See comment app. D-6 for a discussion of transactions that are subject to § 1026.18(s). Under § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii), when a multiple-advance construction loan may be permanently financed by the same creditor, the construction phase and the permanent phase may be treated as either one transaction or more than one transaction. The following are illustrations of the application of appendix D to transactions subject to §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c), under each of the § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) alternatives:
</P>
<P>A. If a creditor uses appendix D and elects pursuant to § 1026.17(c)(6)(ii) to disclose the construction and permanent phases as separate transactions, the construction phase must be disclosed according to the rules in §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c). Under §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c), the creditor must disclose the periodic payments during the construction phase in a projected payments table. The provision in appendix D, part I.A.3, which allows the creditor to omit the number and amounts of any interest payments “in disclosing the payment schedule under § 1026.18(g)” does not apply because the transaction is governed by §§ 1026.37(c) and 1026.38(c) rather than § 1026.18(g). If interest is payable only on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding, the creditor determines the amount of the interest-only payment to be made during the construction phase using the assumptions in appendix D, part I.A.1. Also, because the construction phase is being disclosed as a separate transaction and its periodic payments do not repay the principal, the creditor must disclose the construction phase transaction as a product with a balloon payment feature, pursuant to §§ 1026.37(a)(10)(ii)(D) and 1026.38(a)(5)(iii), unless the transaction has negative amortization, interest-only, or step payment features, consistent with the requirement at § 1026.37(a)(10)(iii). In addition, the creditor must provide the balloon payment disclosures pursuant to §§ 1026.37(b)(5), 1026.37(b)(7)(ii), and 1026.38(b) and disclose the balloon payment in the projected payments table.
</P>
<P>B. If the creditor elects to disclose the construction and permanent phases as a single transaction, the repayment schedule must be disclosed pursuant to appendix D, part II.C.2. Under appendix D, part II.C.2, the projected payments table reflects the interest-only payments during the construction phase in a first column. The first column also reflects the amortizing payments, and mortgage insurance and escrow payments, if any, for the permanent phase if the term of the construction phase is not a full year. The following column(s) reflect the payments for the permanent phase. If interest is payable only on the amount actually advanced for the time it is outstanding, the creditor determines the amount of the interest-only payment to be made during the construction phase using the assumption in appendix D, part II.A.1.
</P>
<P>C. Consistent with comments 37(c)(2)(ii)-1 and 37(c)(2)(iii)-1, when the loan is disclosed as one transaction and only the terms of the legal obligation for the permanent phase require mortgage insurance or escrow, the way the creditor discloses the escrow and mortgage insurance depends on whether the first column of the projected payments table exclusively discloses the construction phase. If the first column of the projected payments table exclusively discloses the construction phase, the creditor discloses “0” in the first column of the projected payments table for mortgage insurance and a hyphen or dash in the first column of the projected payments table for escrow. If the first column discloses both the construction phase and the permanent phase payments, the amount of the mortgage insurance premium or escrow payment (if any) for the permanent phase is disclosed in the first column.
</P>
<P>vi. <I>Disclosure of construction costs.</I>
</P>
<P>A. Construction costs are the costs of improvements to be made to the property that the consumer contracts for in connection with the financing transaction and that will be paid in whole or in part with loan proceeds.
</P>
<P>B. On the Loan Estimate, a creditor factors construction costs into the funds for borrower calculation under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v). Because these amounts are disclosed under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) on the Closing Disclosure, they are included in existing debt that is factored into the funds for borrower calculation under § 1026.37(h)(1)(v). Comment 37(h)(1)(v)-2 explains that the total amount of all existing debt being satisfied in the transaction that is used in the funds for borrower calculation is the sum of the amounts that will be disclosed on the Closing Disclosure in the summaries of transactions table under § 1026.38(j)(1)(ii), (iii), and (v), as applicable. For transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, construction costs may instead be disclosed under § 1026.37(h)(2)(iii) in the optional alternative calculating cash to close table.
</P>
<P>C. A creditor discloses the amount of construction costs on the Closing Disclosure under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) in the summaries of transactions table and factors them into the down payment/funds from borrower and funds for borrower calculation under § 1026.38(i)(4) and (6). For transactions without a seller or for simultaneous subordinate financing, construction costs may instead be disclosed under § 1026.38(t)(5)(vii)(B) in the optional alternative calculating cash to close table.
</P>
<P>D. A creditor in some cases places a portion of a construction loan's proceeds in a reserve or other account at consummation. The amount of such an account, at the creditor's option, may be disclosed separately from other construction costs under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v) if space permits, or may be included in the amount disclosed for construction costs under § 1026.38(j)(1)(v). If the creditor chooses to disclose separately the amount of loan proceeds placed in a reserve or other account at consummation, the creditor may disclose the amount as a separate itemized cost, along with an itemized cost for the balance of the construction costs, in accordance with the disclosure and calculation options described in comments app. D-7.vi-B and C. The amount may be labeled with any accurate term, so long as any label the creditor uses is in accordance with the “clear and conspicuous” standard explained at comment 37(f)(5)-1. If the amount placed in an account is disclosed separately, the balance of construction costs disclosed excludes the amount placed in an account to avoid double counting.
</P>
<P>vii. <I>Construction loan inspection and handling fees.</I> Comment 4(a)-1.ii.A provides that inspection and handling fees, including draw fees, for the staged disbursement of construction loan proceeds are part of the finance charge. Comment 37(f)-3 states that such inspection and handling fees are loan costs associated with the transaction for purposes of § 1026.37(f) and, as such, must be disclosed accurately as part of the Loan Estimate. These fees must also be disclosed accurately as part of the Closing Disclosure. Comment 38(f)-2 refers to explanations under comments 37(f)-3 and 37(f)(6)-3 for making these disclosures. Comment 37(f)-3 explains that, if such fees are collected at or before consummation, they are disclosed in the loan costs table. If such fees will be collected after consummation, they are disclosed in a separate addendum and are not counted for purposes of the calculating cash to close table. Comment 37(f)(6)-3 explains how to disclose inspection and handling fees that will be collected after consummation in an addendum. Under comment 38(f)-2, the same explanation applies to an addendum used for disclosing such fees in the Closing Disclosure. Comment 37(l)(1)-1 explains that the amount disclosed under § 1026.37(l)(1)(i) is the sum of principal, interest, mortgage insurance, and loan costs scheduled to be paid through the end of the 60th month after the due date of the first periodic payment, and that loan costs are those costs disclosed under § 1026.37(f). Construction loan inspection and handling fees are loan costs that must be included in the sum of the “In 5 Years” disclosure under § 1026.37(l)(1) and the “Total of Payments” disclosure under § 1026.38(o)(1) because they are disclosed under § 1026.37(f), even when they are disclosed on an addendum.


</P>
<HD1>Appendix F—Optional Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Creditors Offering Open-End Credit Plans Secured by a Consumer's Dwelling 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Daily rate with specific transaction charge.</I> If the finance charge results from a charge relating to a specific transaction and the application of a daily periodic rate, see comment 14(c)(3)-2 for guidance on an appropriate calculation method. 
</P>
<HD1>Appendices G and H—Open-End and Closed-End Model Forms and Clauses 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Permissible changes.</I> Although use of the model forms and clauses is not required, creditors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to those disclosures. Creditors may make certain changes in the format or content of the forms and clauses and may delete any disclosures that are inapplicable to a transaction or a plan without losing the Act's protection from liability, except formatting changes may not be made to model forms and samples in H-18, H-19, H-20, H-21, H-22, H-23, H-24, H-25, H-26, H-27, H-28, G-2(A), G-3(A), G-4(A), G-10(A)-(E), G-17(A)-(D), G-18(A) (except as permitted pursuant to § 1026.7(b)(2)), G-18(B)-(C), G-19, G-20, and G-21, or to the model clauses in H-4(E), H-4(F), H-4(G), and H-4(H). Creditors may modify the heading of the second column shown in Model Clause H-4(H) to read “first adjustment” or “first increase,” as applicable, pursuant to § 1026.18(s)(2)(i)(C). The rearrangement of the model forms and clauses may not be so extensive as to affect the substance, clarity, or meaningful sequence of the forms and clauses. Creditors making revisions with that effect will lose their protection from civil liability. Except as otherwise specifically required, acceptable changes include, for example:</P>
<P>i. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the borrower.
</P>
<P>ii. Using “borrower” and “creditor” instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>iii. Rearranging the sequences of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>iv. Not using bold type for headings.
</P>
<P>v. Incorporating certain State “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>vi. Deleting inapplicable disclosures by whiting out, blocking out, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items. (This should permit use of multipurpose standard forms.)
</P>
<P>vii. Using a vertical, rather than a horizontal, format for the boxes in the closed-end disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Debt-cancellation coverage.</I> This part does not authorize creditors to characterize debt-cancellation fees as insurance premiums for purposes of this part. Creditors may provide a disclosure that refers to debt cancellation or debt suspension coverage whether or not the coverage is considered insurance. Creditors may use the model credit insurance disclosures only if the debt cancellation coverage constitutes insurance under state law. 


</P>
<HD1>Appendix G—Open-End Model Forms and Clauses





 
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Models G-1 and G-1(A).</I> The model disclosures in G-1 and G-1(A) (different balance computation methods) may be used in both the account-opening disclosures under § 1026.6 and the periodic disclosures under § 1026.7. As is clear from the models given, “shorthand” descriptions of the balance computation methods are not sufficient, except where § 1026.7(b)(5) applies. For creditors using model G-1, the phrase “a portion of” the finance charge should be included if the total finance charge includes other amounts, such as transaction charges, that are not due to the application of a periodic rate. If unpaid interest or finance charges are subtracted in calculating the balance, that fact must be stated so that the disclosure of the computation method is accurate. Only model G-1(b) contains a final sentence appearing in brackets, which reflects the total dollar amount of payments and credits received during the billing cycle. The other models do not contain this language because they reflect plans in which payments and credits received during the billing cycle are subtracted. If this is not the case, however, the language relating to payments and credits should be changed, and the creditor should add either the disclosure of the dollar amount as in model G-1(b) or an indication of which credits (disclosed elsewhere on the periodic statement) will not be deducted in determining the balance. (Such an indication may also substitute for the bracketed sentence in model G-1(b).) (See the commentary to § 1026.7(a)(5) and (b)(5).) For open-end plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, creditors may, at their option, use the clauses in G-1 or G-1(A).
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<P>2. <I>Models G-2 and G-2(A).</I> These models contain the notice of liability for unauthorized use of a credit card. For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, at the creditor's option, a creditor either may use G-2 or G-2(A). For open-end plans not subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, creditors properly use G-2(A).
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<P>3. <I>Models G-3, G-3(A), G-4 and G-4(A).</I>
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<P>i. These set out models for the long-form billing-error rights statement (for use with the account-opening disclosures and as an annual disclosure or, at the creditor's option, with each periodic statement) and the alternative billing-error rights statement (for use with each periodic statement), respectively. For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, at the creditor's option, a creditor either may use G-3 or G-3(A), and for creditors that use the short form, G-4 or G-4(A). For open-end (not home-secured) plans that are not subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, creditors properly use G-3(A) and G-4(A). Creditors must provide the billing-error rights statements in a form substantially similar to the models in order to comply with the regulation. The model billing-rights statements may be modified in any of the ways set forth in the first paragraph to the commentary on Appendices G and H. The models may, furthermore, be modified by deleting inapplicable information, such as:
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<P>A. The paragraph concerning stopping a debit in relation to a disputed amount, if the creditor does not have the ability to debit automatically the consumer's savings or checking account for payment.
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<P>B. The rights stated in the special rule for credit card purchases and any limitations on those rights.
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<P>ii. The model billing rights statements also contain optional language that creditors may use. For example, the creditor may:
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<P>A. Include a statement to the effect that notice of a billing error must be submitted on something other than the payment ticket or other material accompanying the periodic disclosures.
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<P>B. Insert its address or refer to the address that appears elsewhere on the bill.
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<P>C. Include instructions for consumers, at the consumer's option, to communicate with the creditor electronically or in writing.
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<P>iii. Additional information may be included on the statements as long as it does not detract from the required disclosures. For instance, information concerning the reporting of errors in connection with a checking account may be included on a combined statement as long as the disclosures required by the regulation remain clear and conspicuous.
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<P>4. <I>Models G-5 through G-9.</I> These models set out notices of the right to rescind that would be used at different times in an open-end plan. The last paragraph of each of the rescission model forms contains a blank for the date by which the consumer's notice of cancellation must be sent or delivered. A parenthetical is included to address the situation in which the consumer's right to rescind the transaction exists beyond 3 business days following the date of the transaction, for example, when the notice or material disclosures are delivered late or when the date of the transaction in paragraph 1 of the notice is an estimate. The language of the parenthetical is not optional. See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(25) regarding the specificity of the security interest disclosure for model form G-7.
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<P>5. <I>Model G-10(A), samples G-10(B) and G-10(C), model G-10(D), sample G-10(E), model G-17(A), and samples G-17(B), 17(C) and 17(D).</I> i. Model G-10(A) and Samples G-10(B) and G-10(C) illustrate, in the tabular format, the disclosures required under § 1026.60 for applications and solicitations for credit cards other than charge cards. Model G-10(D) and Sample G-10(E) illustrate the tabular format disclosure for charge card applications and solicitations and reflect the disclosures in the table. Model G-17(A) and Samples G-17(B), G-17(C) and G-17(D) illustrate, in the tabular format, the disclosures required under § 1026.6(b)(2) for account-opening disclosures.
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<P>ii. Except as otherwise permitted, disclosures must be substantially similar in sequence and format to Models G-10(A), G-10(D) and G-17(A). While proper use of the model forms will be deemed in compliance with the regulation, card issuers and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are permitted to disclose the annual percentage rates for purchases, cash advances, or balance transfers in the same row in the table for any transaction types for which the issuer or creditor charges the same annual percentage rate. Similarly, card issuer and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are permitted to disclose fees of the same amount in the same row if the fees are in the same category. Fees in different categories may not be disclosed in the same row. For example, a transaction fee and a penalty fee that are of the same amount may not be disclosed in the same row. Card issuers and other creditors offering open-end (not home-secured) plans are also permitted to use headings other than those in the forms if they are clear and concise and are substantially similar to the headings contained in model forms, with the following exceptions. The heading “penalty APR” must be used when describing rates that may increase due to default or delinquency or as a penalty, and in relation to required insurance, or debt cancellation or suspension coverage, the term “required” and the name of the product must be used. (See also §§ 1026.60(b)(5) and 1026.6(b)(2)(v) for guidance on headings that must be used to describe the grace period, or lack of grace period, in the disclosures required under § 1026.60 for applications and solicitations for credit cards other than charge cards, and the disclosures required under § 1026.6(b)(2) for account-opening disclosures, respectively.)
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<P>iii. Models G-10(A) and G-17(A) contain two alternative headings (“Minimum Interest Charge” and “Minimum Charge”) for disclosing a minimum interest or fixed finance charge under §§ 1026.60(b)(3) and 1026.6(b)(2)(iii). If a creditor imposes a minimum charge in lieu of interest in those months where a consumer would otherwise incur an interest charge but that interest charge is less than the minimum charge, the creditor should disclose this charge under the heading “Minimum Interest Charge” or a substantially similar heading. Other minimum or fixed finance charges should be disclosed under the heading “Minimum Charge” or a substantially similar heading.
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<P>iv. Models G-10(A), G-10(D) and G-17(A) contain two alternative headings (“Annual Fees” and “Set-up and Maintenance Fees”) for disclosing fees for issuance or availability of credit under § 1026.60(b)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii). If the only fee for issuance or availability of credit disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii) is an annual fee, a creditor should use the heading “Annual Fee” or a substantially similar heading to disclose this fee. If a creditor imposes fees for issuance or availability of credit disclosed under § 1026.60(b)(2) or § 1026.6(b)(2)(ii) other than, or in addition to, an annual fee, the creditor should use the heading “Set-up and Maintenance Fees” or a substantially similar heading to disclose fees for issuance or availability of credit, including the annual fee.
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<P>v. Although creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the §§ 1026.60 or 1026.6(b)(1) and (2) disclosures, samples G-10(B), G-10(C), G-17(B), G-17(C) and G-17(D) are designed to be printed on an 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inch sheet of paper. A creditor may use a smaller sheet of paper, such as 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch sheet of paper. If the table is not provided on a single side of a sheet of paper, the creditor must include a reference or references, such as “SEE BACK OF PAGE for more important information about your account.” at the bottom of each page indicating that the table continues onto an additional page or pages. A creditor that splits the table onto two or more pages must disclose the table on consecutive pages and may not include any intervening information between portions of the table. In addition, the following formatting techniques were used in presenting the information in the sample tables to ensure that the information is readable:
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<P>A. A readable font style and font size (10-point Arial font style, except for the purchase annual percentage rate which is shown in 16-point type).
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<P>B. Sufficient spacing between lines of the text.
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<P>C. Adequate spacing between paragraphs when several pieces of information were included in the same row of the table, as appropriate. For example, in the samples in the row of the tables with the heading “APR for Balance Transfers,” the forms disclose two components: The applicable balance transfer rate and a cross reference to the balance transfer fee. The samples show these two components on separate lines with adequate space between each component. On the other hand, in the samples, in the disclosure of the late payment fee, the forms disclose two components: The late payment fee, and the cross reference to the penalty rate. Because the disclosure of both these components is short, these components are disclosed on the same line in the tables.
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<P>D. Standard spacing between words and characters. In other words, the text was not compressed to appear smaller than 10-point type.
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<P>E. Sufficient white space around the text of the information in each row, by providing sufficient margins above, below and to the sides of the text.
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<P>F. Sufficient contrast between the text and the background. Generally, black text was used on white paper.
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<P>vi. While the Bureau is not requiring issuers to use the above formatting techniques in presenting information in the table (except for the 10-point and 16-point font requirement), the Bureau encourages issuers to consider these techniques when deciding how to disclose information in the table, to ensure that the information is presented in a readable format.
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<P>vii. Creditors are allowed to use color, shading and similar graphic techniques with respect to the table, so long as the table remains substantially similar to the model and sample forms in appendix G.
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<P>viii. Models G-10(A) and G-17(A) contain rows in the table with the prescribed language, “For Credit Card Tips from the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau” and calling for a “[Reference to the Bureau's Web site]” next to that language. Until January 1, 2013, creditors may substitute “For Credit Card Tips from the Federal Reserve Board” for these two model forms' prescribed language and may provide a reference to the Federal Reserve Board's Web site rather than the Bureau's Web site.
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<P>6. <I>Model G-11.</I> Model G-11 contains clauses that illustrate the general disclosures required under § 1026.60(e) in applications and solicitations made available to the general public.
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<P>7. <I>Models G-13(A) and G-13(B).</I> These model forms illustrate the disclosures required under § 1026.9(f) when the card issuer changes the entity providing insurance on a credit card account. Model G-13(A) contains the items set forth in § 1026.9(f)(3) as examples of significant terms of coverage that may be affected by the change in insurance provider. The card issuer may either list all of these potential changes in coverage and place a check mark by the applicable changes, or list only the actual changes in coverage. Under either approach, the card issuer must either explain the changes or refer to an accompanying copy of the policy or group certificate for details of the new terms of coverage. Model G-13(A) also illustrates the permissible combination of the two notices required by § 1026.9(f)—the notice required for a planned change in provider and the notice required once a change has occurred. This form may be modified for use in providing only the disclosures required before the change if the card issuer chooses to send two separate notices. Thus, for example, the references to the attached policy or certificate would not be required in a separate notice prior to a change in the insurance provider since the policy or certificate need not be provided at that time. Model G-13(B) illustrates the disclosures required under § 1026.9(f)(2) when the insurance provider is changed.
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<P>8. <I>Samples G-18(A)-(D).</I> For home-equity plans subject to the requirements of § 1026.40, if a creditor chooses to comply with the requirements in § 1026.7(b), the creditor may use Samples G-18(A) through G-18(D) to comply with these requirements, as applicable.
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<P>9. <I>Samples G-18(D).</I> Sample G-18(D) illustrates how credit card issuers may comply with proximity requirements for payment information on periodic statements. Creditors that offer card accounts with a charge card feature and a revolving feature may change the disclosure to make clear to which feature the disclosures apply.
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<P>10. <I>Forms G-18(F)-(G).</I> Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) are intended as a compliance aid to illustrate front sides of a periodic statement, and how a periodic statement for open-end (not home-secured) plans might be designed to comply with the requirements of § 1026.7. The samples contain information that is not required by Regulation Z. The samples also present information in additional formats that are not required by Regulation Z.
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<P>i. Creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the § 1026.7 disclosures. However, Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) are designed to be printed on an 8 × 14 inch sheet of paper.
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<P>ii. The due date for a payment, if a late payment fee or penalty rate may be imposed, must appear on the front of the first page of the statement. See Sample G-18(D) that illustrates how a creditor may comply with proximity requirements for other disclosures. The payment information disclosures appear in the upper right-hand corner on Samples G-18(F) and G-18(G), but may be located elsewhere, as long as they appear on the front of the first page of the periodic statement. The summary of account activity presented on Samples G-18(F) and G-18(G) is not itself a required disclosure, although the previous balance and the new balance, presented in the summary, must be disclosed in a clear and conspicuous manner on periodic statements.
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<P>iii. Additional information not required by Regulation Z may be presented on the statement. The information need not be located in any particular place or be segregated from disclosures required by Regulation Z, although the effect of proximity requirements for required disclosures, such as the due date, may cause the additional information to be segregated from those disclosures required to be disclosed in close proximity to one another. Any additional information must be presented consistent with the creditor's obligation to provide required disclosures in a clear and conspicuous manner.
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<P>iv. Model Forms G-18(F) and G-18(G) demonstrate two examples of ways in which transactions could be presented on the periodic statement. Model Form G-18(G) presents transactions grouped by type and Model Form G-18(F) presents transactions in a list in chronological order. Neither of these approaches to presenting transactions is required; a creditor may present transactions differently, such as in a list grouped by authorized user or other means.
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<P>11. <I>Model Form G-19.</I> See § 1026.9(b)(3) regarding the headings required to be disclosed when describing in the tabular disclosure a grace period (or lack of a grace period) offered on check transactions that access a credit card account.
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<P>12. <I>Sample G-24.</I> Sample G-24 includes two model clauses for use in complying with § 1026.16(h)(4). Model clause (a) is for use in connection with credit card accounts under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan. Model clause (b) is for use in connection with other open-end credit plans.


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<HD1>Appendix H—Closed-End Forms and Clauses
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Models H-1 and H-2.</I> i. Creditors may make several types of changes to closed-end model forms H-1 (credit sale) and H-2 (loan) and still be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation, provided that the required disclosures are made clearly and conspicuously. Permissible changes include the addition of the information permitted by § 1026.17(a)(1) and “directly related” information as set forth in the commentary to § 1026.17(a).ii. The creditor may also delete or, on multi-purpose forms, indicate inapplicable disclosures, such as:
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<P>A. The itemization of the amount financed option. (See Samples H-12 through H-15.)
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<P>B. The credit life and disability insurance disclosures. (See Samples H-11 and H-12.)
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<P>C. The property insurance disclosures. (See Samples H-10 through H-12, and H-14.)
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<P>D. The “filing fees” and “non-filing insurance” disclosures. (See Samples H-11 and H-12.)
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<P>E. The prepayment penalty or rebate disclosures. (See Samples H-12 and H-14.)
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<P>F. The total sale price. (See Samples H-11 through H-15.)
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<P>iii. Other permissible changes include:
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<P>A. Adding the creditor's address or telephone number. (See the commentary to § 1026.18(a).)
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<P>B. Combining required terms where several numerical disclosures are the same, for instance, if the “total of payments” equals the “total sale price.” (See the commentary to § 1026.18.)
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<P>C. Rearranging the sequence or location of the disclosures—for instance, by placing the descriptive phrases outside the boxes containing the corresponding disclosures, or by grouping the descriptors together as a glossary of terms in a separate section of the segregated disclosures; by placing the payment schedule at the top of the form; or by changing the order of the disclosures in the boxes, including the annual percentage rate and finance charge boxes.
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<P>D. Using brackets, instead of checkboxes, to indicate inapplicable disclosures.
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<P>E. Using a line for the consumer to initial, rather than a checkbox, to indicate an election to receive an itemization of the amount financed.
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<P>F. Deleting captions for disclosures.
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<P>G. Using a symbol, such as an asterisk, for estimated disclosures, instead of an “e.”
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<P>H. Adding a signature line to the insurance disclosures to reflect joint policies.
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<P>I. Separately itemizing the filing fees.
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<P>J. Revising the late charge disclosure in accordance with the commentary to § 1026.18(l).
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<P>2. <I>Model H-3.</I> Creditors have considerable flexibility in filling out Model H-3 (itemization of the amount financed). Appropriate revisions, such as those set out in the commentary to § 1026.18(c), may be made to this form without loss of protection from civil liability for proper use of the model forms.
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<P>3. <I>Models H-4 through H-7.</I> The model clauses are not included in the model forms although they are mandatory for certain transactions. Creditors using the model clauses when applicable to a transaction are deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to that disclosure.
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<P>4. <I>Model H-4(A).</I> This model contains the variable rate model clauses applicable to transactions subject to § 1026.18(f)(1) and is intended to give creditors considerable flexibility in structuring variable rate disclosures to fit individual plans. The information about circumstances, limitations, and effects of an increase may be given in terms of the contract interest rate or the annual percentage rate. Clauses are shown for hypothetical examples based on the specific amount of the transaction and based on a representative amount. Creditors may preprint the variable rate disclosures based on a representative amount for similar types of transactions, instead of constructing an individualized example for each transaction. In both representative examples and transaction-specific examples, creditors may refer either to the incremental change in rate, payment amount, or number of payments, or to the resulting rate, payment amount, or number of payments. For example, creditors may state that the rate will increase by 2%, with a corresponding $150 increase in the payment, or creditors may state that the rate will increase to 16%, with a corresponding payment of $850.
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<P>5. <I>Model H-4(B).</I> This model clause illustrates the variable-rate disclosure required under § 1026.18(f)(2), which would alert consumers to the fact that the transaction contains a variable-rate feature and that disclosures were provided earlier.
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<P>6. <I>Model H-4(C).</I> This model clause illustrates the early disclosures required generally under § 1026.19(b). It includes information on how the consumer's interest rate is determined and how it can change over the term of the loan, and explains changes that may occur in the borrower's monthly payment. It contains an example of how to disclose historical changes in the index or formula values used to compute interest rates for the preceding 15 years. The model clause also illustrates the disclosure of the initial and maximum interest rates and payments based on an initial interest rate (index value plus margin, adjusted by the amount of any discount or premium) in effect as of an identified month and year for the loan program disclosure and illustrates how to provide consumers with a method for calculating the monthly payment for the loan amount to be borrowed.
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<P>7. <I>Models H-4(D) through H-4(J).</I> These model clauses and sample and model forms illustrate certain notices, statements, and other disclosures required as follows:
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<P>i. Model H-4(D)(1) illustrates the interest rate adjustment notice required under § 1026.20(c) and Model H-4(D)(2) provides an example of a notice of interest rate adjustment with corresponding payment change. Model H-4(D)(3) illustrates the interest rate adjustment notice required under § 1026.20(d) and Model H-4(D)(4) provides an example of a notice of initial interest rate adjustment.
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<P>ii. Model H-4(E) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 1026.18(s) for a fixed-rate mortgage transaction.
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<P>iii. Model H-4(F) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 1026.18(s) for an adjustable-rate or a step-rate mortgage transaction.
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<P>iv. Model H-4(G) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 1026.18(s) for a mortgage transaction with negative amortization.
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<P>v. Model H-4(H) illustrates the interest rate and payment summary table required under § 1026.18(s) for a fixed-rate, interest-only mortgage transaction.
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<P>vi. Model H-4(I) illustrates the introductory rate disclosure required by § 1026.18(s)(2)(iii) for an adjustable-rate mortgage transaction with an introductory rate.
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<P>vii. Model H-4(J) illustrates the balloon payment disclosure required by § 1026.18(s)(5) for a mortgage transaction with a balloon payment term.
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<P>viii. Model H-4(K) illustrates the no-guarantee-to-refinance statement required by § 1026.18(t) for a mortgage transaction.
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<P>8. <I>Model H-5.</I> This contains the demand feature clause.
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<P>9. <I>Model H-6.</I> This contains the assumption clause.
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<P>10. <I>Model H-7.</I> This contains the required deposit clause.
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<P>11. <I>Models H-8 and H-9.</I> These models contain the rescission notices for a typical closed-end transaction and a refinancing, respectively. The last paragraph of each model form contains a blank for the date by which the consumer's notice of cancellation must be sent or delivered. A parenthetical is included to address the situation in which the consumer's right to rescind the transaction exists beyond 3 business days following the date of the transaction, for example, where the notice or material disclosures are delivered late or where the date of the transaction in paragraph 1 of the notice is an estimate. The language of the parenthetical is not optional. See the commentary to § 1026.2(a)(25) regarding the specificity of the security interest disclosure for model form H-9. The prior version of model form H-9 is substantially similar to the current version and creditors may continue to use it, as appropriate. Creditors are encouraged, however, to use the current version when reordering or reprinting forms.
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<P>12. <I>Sample forms.</I> The sample forms (H-10 through H-15) serve a different purpose than the model forms. The samples illustrate various ways of adapting the model forms to the individual transactions described in the commentary to appendix H. The deletions and rearrangements shown relate only to the specific transactions described. As a result, the samples do not provide the general protection from civil liability provided by the model forms and clauses.
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<P>13. <I>Sample H-10.</I> This sample illustrates an automobile credit sale. The cash price is $7,500 with a downpayment of $1,500. There is an 8% add-on interest rate and a term of 3 years, with 36 equal monthly payments. The credit life insurance premium and the filing fees are financed by the creditor. There is a $25 credit report fee paid by the consumer before consummation, which is a prepaid finance charge.
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<P>14. <I>Sample H-11.</I> This sample illustrates an installment loan. The amount of the loan is $5,000. There is a 12% simple interest rate and a term of 2 years. The date of the transaction is expected to be April 15, 1981, with the first payment due on June 1, 1981. The first payment amount is labeled as an estimate since the transaction date is uncertain. The odd days' interest ($26.67) is collected with the first payment. The remaining 23 monthly payments are equal.
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<P>15. <I>Sample H-12.</I> This sample illustrates a refinancing and consolidation loan. The amount of the loan is $5,000. There is a 15% simple interest rate and a term of 3 years. The date of the transaction is April 1, 1981, with the first payment due on May 1, 1981. The first 35 monthly payments are equal, with an odd final payment. The credit disability insurance premium is financed. In calculating the annual percentage rate, the U.S. Rule has been used. Since an itemization of the amount financed is included with the disclosures, the statement regarding the consumer's option to receive an itemization is deleted.
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<P>16. <I>Samples H-13 through H-15.</I> These samples illustrate various closed-end transactions. Samples H-13 and H-15 are for transactions subject to § 1026.17(a). Samples H-13 and H-15 do not illustrate the requirements of § 1026.18(c) or (p) regarding the itemization of the amount financed and a reference to contract documents. See form H-2 for a model for these requirements.
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<P>17. <I>Sample H-13.</I> This sample illustrates a mortgage with a demand feature. The loan amount is $44,900, payable in 360 monthly installments at a simple interest rate of 14.75%. The 15 days of interim interest ($294.34) is collected as a prepaid finance charge at the time of consummation of the loan (April 15, 1981). In calculating the disclosure amounts, the minor irregularities provision in § 1026.17(c)(4) has been used. The property insurance premiums are not included in the payment schedule. This disclosure statement could be used for notes with the 7-year call option required by the Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA) in states where due-on-sale clauses are prohibited.
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<P>18. <I>Sample H-14.</I> This sample disclosure form illustrates the disclosures under § 1026.19(b) for a variable-rate transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling with a term greater than one year. The sample form shows a creditor how to adapt the model clauses in appendix H-4(C) to the creditor's own particular variable-rate program. The sample disclosure form describes the features of a specific variable-rate mortgage program and alerts the consumer to the fact that information on the creditor's other closed-end variable-rate programs is available upon request. It includes information on how the interest rate is determined and how it can change over time. Section 1026.19(b)(2)(viii) permits creditors the option to provide either a historical example or an initial and maximum interest rates and payments disclosure; both are illustrated in the sample disclosure. The historical example explains how the monthly payment can change based on a $10,000 loan amount, payable in 360 monthly installments, based on historical changes in the values for the weekly average yield on U.S. Treasury Securities adjusted to a constant maturity of one year. Index values are measured for 15 years, as of the first week ending in July. This reflects the requirement that the index history be based on values for the same date or period each year in the example. The sample disclosure also illustrates the alternative disclosure under § 1026.19(b)(2)(viii)(B) that the initial and the maximum interest rates and payments be shown for a $10,000 loan originated at an initial interest rate of 12.41 percent (which was in effect July 1996) and to have 2 percentage point annual (and 5 percentage point overall) interest rate limitations or caps. Thus, the maximum amount that the interest rate could rise under this program is 5 percentage points higher than the 12.41 percent initial rate to 17.41 percent, and the monthly payment could rise from $106.03 to a maximum of $145.34. The loan would not reach the maximum interest rate until its fourth year because of the 2 percentage point annual rate limitations, and the maximum payment disclosed reflects the amortization of the loan during that period. The sample form also illustrates how to provide consumers with a method for calculating their actual monthly payment for a loan amount other than $10,000.
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<P>19. <I>Sample H-15.</I> This sample illustrates a graduated payment transaction subject to § 1026.17(a) with a 5-year graduation period and a 7
<FR>1/2</FR> percent yearly increase in payments. The loan amount is $44,900, payable in 360 monthly installments at a simple interest rate of 14.75%. Two points ($898), as well as an initial guarantee insurance premium of $225.00, are included in the prepaid finance charge. The guarantee insurance premiums are calculated on the basis of 
<FR>1/4</FR> of 1% of the outstanding principal balance under an annual reduction plan. The abbreviated disclosure permitted under § 1026.18(g)(2) is used for the payment schedule for years 6 through 30. The prepayment disclosure refers to both penalties and rebates because information about penalties is required for the simple interest portion of the obligation and information about rebates is required for the guarantee insurance portion of the obligation.
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<P>20. <I>Sample H-16.</I> This sample illustrates the disclosures required under § 1026.32(c). The sample illustrates the amount borrowed and the disclosures about optional insurance that are required for mortgage refinancings under § 1026.32(c)(5). Creditors may, at their option, include these disclosures for all loans subject to § 1026.32. The sample also includes disclosures required under § 1026.32(c)(3) when the legal obligation includes a balloon payment.
</P>
<P>21. <I>HRSA-500-1 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-500-1 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all Health Education Assistance Loans (HEAL) with a variable interest rate that were considered interim student credit extensions as defined in Regulation Z.
</P>
<P>22. <I>HRSA-500-2 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-500-2 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a fixed interest rate that were considered interim student credit extensions as defined in Regulation Z.23. <I>HRSA-502-1 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-502-1 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a variable interest rate in which the borrower has reached repayment status and is making payments of both interest and principal.
</P>
<P>24. <I>HRSA-502-2 9-82.</I> Pursuant to section 113(a) of the Truth in Lending Act, Form HRSA-502-2 9-82 issued by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for certain student loans has been approved for use for loans made prior to the mandatory compliance date of the disclosures required under Subpart F. The form was approved for all HEAL loans with a fixed interest rate in which the borrower has reached repayment status and is making payments of both interest and principal.
</P>
<P>25. <I>Models H-18, H-19, H-20.</I> i. These model forms illustrate disclosures required under § 1026.47 on or with an application or solicitation, at approval, and after acceptance of a private education loan. Although use of the model forms is not required, creditors using them properly will be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation with regard to private education loan disclosures. Creditors may make certain types of changes to private education loan model forms H-18 (application and solicitation), H-19 (approval), and H-20 (final) and still be deemed to be in compliance with the regulation, provided that the required disclosures are made clearly and conspicuously. The model forms aggregate disclosures into groups under specific headings. Changes may not include rearranging the sequence of disclosures, for instance, by rearranging which disclosures are provided under each heading or by rearranging the sequence of the headings and grouping of disclosures. Changes to the model forms may not be so extensive as to affect the substance or clarity of the forms. Creditors making revisions with that effect will lose their protection from civil liability.
</P>
<P>ii. The creditor may delete inapplicable disclosures, such as:
</P>
<P>A. The Federal student financial assistance alternatives disclosures.
</P>
<P>B. The self-certification disclosure.
</P>
<P>iii. Other permissible changes include, for example:
</P>
<P>A. Adding the creditor's address, telephone number, or Web site.
</P>
<P>B. Adding loan identification information, such as a loan identification number.
</P>
<P>C. Adding the date on which the form was printed or produced.
</P>
<P>D. Placing the notice of the right to cancel in the top left or top right of the disclosure to accommodate a window envelope.
</P>
<P>E. Combining required terms where several numerical disclosures are the same. For instance, if the itemization of the amount financed is provided, the amount financed need not be separately disclosed.
</P>
<P>F. Combining the disclosure of loan term and payment deferral options required in § 1026.47(a)(3) with the disclosure of cost estimates required in § 1026.47(a)(4) in the same chart or table (<I>See</I> comment 47(a)(3)-4.)
</P>
<P>G. Using the first person, instead of the second person, in referring to the borrower.
</P>
<P>H. Using “borrower” and “creditor” instead of pronouns.
</P>
<P>I. Incorporating certain state “plain English” requirements.
</P>
<P>J. Deleting inapplicable disclosures by whiting out, blocking out, filling in “N/A” (not applicable) or “0,” crossing out, leaving blanks, checking a box for applicable items, or circling applicable items.
</P>
<P>iv. Although creditors are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the §§ 1026.47(a), (b) and (c) disclosures, samples H-21, H-22, and H-23 are designed to be printed on two 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11 inch sheets of paper. A creditor may use a larger sheet of paper, such as 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 14 inch sheets of paper, or may use multiple pages. If the disclosures are provided on two sides of a single sheet of paper, the creditor must include a reference or references, such as “SEE BACK OF PAGE” at the bottom of each page indicating that the disclosures continue onto the back of the page. If the disclosures are on two or more pages, a creditor may not include any intervening information between portions of the disclosure. In addition, the following formatting techniques were used in presenting the information in the sample tables to ensure that the information is readable:
</P>
<P>A. A readable font style and font size (10-point Helvetica font style for body text).
</P>
<P>B. Sufficient spacing between lines of the text.
</P>
<P>C. Standard spacing between words and characters. In other words, the body text was not compressed to appear smaller than the 10-point type size.
</P>
<P>D. Sufficient white space around the text of the information in each row, by providing sufficient margins above, below and to the sides of the text.
</P>
<P>E. Sufficient contrast between the text and the background. Generally, black text was used on white paper.
</P>
<P>v. While the Bureau is not requiring issuers to use the above formatting techniques in presenting information in the disclosure, the Bureau encourages issuers to consider these techniques when deciding how to disclose information in the disclosure to ensure that the information is presented in a readable format.
</P>
<P>vi. Creditors are allowed to use color, shading and similar graphic techniques in the disclosures, so long as the disclosures remain substantially similar to the model and sample forms in appendix H.
</P>
<P>26. <I>Sample H-21.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 1026.47(a). The sample assumes a range of interest rates between 7.375% and 17.375%. The sample assumes a variable interest rate that will never exceed 25% over the life of the loan. The term of the sample loan is 20 years for an amount up to $20,000 and 30 years for an amount more than $20,000. The repayment options and sample costs have been combined into a single table, as permitted in the commentary to § 1026.47(a)(3). It demonstrates the loan amount, interest rate, and total paid when a consumer makes loan payments while in school, pays only interest while in school, and defers all payments while in school.
</P>
<P>27. <I>Sample H-22.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 1026.47(b). The sample assumes the consumer financed $10,000 at an 8.23% annual percentage rate. The sample assumes a variable interest rate that will never exceed 25% over the life of the loan. The payment schedule and terms assumes a 20-year loan term and that the consumer elected to defer payments while enrolled in school. This includes a sample disclosure of a total loan amount of $10,600 and prepaid finance charges totaling $600, for a total amount financed of $10,000.
</P>
<P>28. <I>Sample H-22.</I> This sample illustrates a disclosure required under § 1026.47(c). The sample assumes the consumer financed $10,000 at an 8.23% annual percentage rate. The sample assumes a variable annual percentage rate in an instance where there is no maximum interest rate. The sample demonstrates disclosure of an assumed maximum rate, and the statement that the consumer's actual maximum rate and payment amount could be higher. The payment schedule and terms assumes a 20-year loan term, the assumed maximum interest rate, and that the consumer elected to defer payments while enrolled in school. This includes a sample disclosure of a total loan amount of $10,600 and prepaid finance charges totaling $600, for a total amount financed of $10,000.
</P>
<P>29. <I>Model Form H-29.</I> Model form H-29 contains the disclosures for the cancellation of an escrow account established in connection with a closed-end transaction secured by a first lien on real property or a dwelling.
</P>
<P>i. This model form illustrates the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e).
</P>
<P>ii. A creditor or servicer satisfies § 1026.20(e) if it provides model form H-29 or a substantially similar notice, which is properly completed with the disclosures required by § 1026.20(e).
</P>
<P>iii. Although creditors and servicers are not required to use a certain paper size in disclosing the information under § 1026.20(e), model form H-29 is designed to be printed on an 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 1- inch sheet of paper. In addition, the following formatting techniques were used in presenting the information in the model form to ensure that the information is readable:</P>
<P>A. A readable font style and font size (10-point minimum font size);
</P>
<P>B. Sufficient spacing between lines of the text;
</P>
<P>C. Standard spacing between words and characters. In other words, the text was not compressed to appear smaller than 10-point type;
</P>
<P>D. Sufficient white space around the text of the information in each row, by providing sufficient margins above, below and to the sides of the text;
</P>
<P>E. Sufficient contrast between the text and the background. Generally, black text was used on white paper.
</P>
<P>iv. While the regulation does not require creditors or servicers to use the above formatting techniques in presenting information in the tabular format (except for the 10-point minimum font size requirement), creditors and servicers are encouraged to consider these techniques when deciding how to disclose information in the notice to ensure that the information is presented in a readable format.
</P>
<P>v. Creditors and servicers may use color, shading and similar graphic techniques with respect to the notice, so long as the notice remains substantially similar to model form H-29.
</P>
<P>30. <I>Standard Loan Estimate and Closing Disclosure forms.</I> Forms H-24(A) through (H), H-25(A) through (K), and H-28(A) through (L) are model forms for the disclosures required under §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38. However, pursuant to §§ 1026.37(o)(3) and 1026.38(t)(3), for federally related mortgage loans forms H-24(A) through (H) and H-25(A) through (K) are standard forms required to be used for the disclosures required under §§ 1026.37 and 1026.38, respectively.




</P>
<HD1>Appendix J—Annual Percentage Rate Computations for Closed-End Credit Transactions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Use of appendix J.</I> Appendix J sets forth the actuarial equations and instructions for calculating the annual percentage rate in closed-end credit transactions. While the formulas contained in this appendix may be directly applied to calculate the annual percentage rate for an individual transaction, they may also be utilized to program calculators and computers to perform the calculations.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Relation to Bureau tables.</I> The Bureau's Annual Percentage Rate Tables also provide creditors with a calculation tool that applies the technical information in appendix J. An annual percentage rate computed in accordance with the instructions in the tables is deemed to comply with the regulation. Volume I of the tables may be used for credit transactions involving equal payment amounts and periods, as well as for transactions involving any of the following irregularities: odd first period, odd first payment and odd last payment. Volume II of the tables may be used for transactions that involve any type of irregularities. These tables may be obtained from the Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552, upon request. The tables are also available on the Bureau's website at: <I>https://www.consumerfinance.gov/compliance/compliance-resources/other-applicable-requirements/annual-percentage-rate-tables/.</I>






</P>
<HD1>Appendix K—Total Annual Loan Cost Rate Computations for Reverse Mortgage Transactions
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The calculation of total annual loan cost rates under appendix K is based on the principles set forth and the estimation or “iteration” procedure used to compute annual percentage rates under appendix J. Rather than restate this iteration process in full, the regulation cross-references the procedures found in appendix J. In other aspects the appendix reflects the special nature of reverse mortgage transactions. Special definitions and instructions are included where appropriate.
</P>
<HD3>(b) Instructions and equations for the total annual loan cost rate
</HD3>
<HD3>(b)(5) Number of unit-periods between two given dates
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Assumption as to when transaction begins.</I> The computation of the total annual loan cost rate is based on the assumption that the reverse mortgage transaction begins on the first day of the month in which consummation is estimated to occur. Therefore, fractional unit-periods (used under appendix J for calculating annual percentage rates) are not used.
</P>
<HD3>(b)(9) Assumption for discretionary cash advances
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amount of credit.</I> Creditors should compute the total annual loan cost rates for transactions involving discretionary cash advances by assuming that 50 percent of the initial amount of the credit available under the transaction is advanced at closing or, in an open-end transaction, when the consumer becomes obligated under the plan. (For the purposes of this assumption, the initial amount of the credit is the principal loan amount less any costs to the consumer under § 1026.33(c)(1).)
</P>
<HD3>(b)(10) Assumption for variable-rate reverse mortgage transactions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Initial discount or premium rate.</I> Where a variable-rate reverse mortgage transaction includes an initial discount or premium rate, the creditor should apply the same rules for calculating the total annual loan cost rate as are applied when calculating the annual percentage rate for a loan with an initial discount or premium rate (see the commentary to § 1026.17(c)).
</P>
<HD2>(d) Reverse mortgage model form and sample form
</HD2>
<HD3>(d)(2) Sample form
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The “clear and conspicuous” standard for reverse mortgage disclosures does not require disclosures to be printed in any particular type size. Disclosures may be made on more than one page, and use both the front and the reverse sides, as long as the pages constitute an integrated document and the table disclosing the total annual loan cost rates is on a single page.
</P>
<HD1>Appendix L—Assumed Loan Periods for Computations of Total Annual Loan Cost Rates
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The life expectancy figures used in appendix L are those found in the U.S. Decennial Life Tables for women, as rounded to the nearest whole year and as published by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services. The figures contained in appendix L must be used by creditors for all consumers (men and women). Appendix L will be revised periodically by the Bureau to incorporate revisions to the figures made in the Decennial Tables.


</P>
<HD1>Appendix O—Illustrative Written Source Documents for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loan Appraisal Rules
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Title commitment report.</I> The “title commitment report” is a document from a title insurance company describing the property interest and status of its title, parties with interests in the title and the nature of their claims, issues with the title that must be resolved prior to closing of the transaction between the parties to the transfer, amount and disposition of the premiums, and endorsements on the title policy. This document is issued by the title insurance company prior to the company's issuance of an actual title insurance policy to the property's transferee and/or creditor financing the transaction. In different jurisdictions, this instrument may be referred to by different terms, such as a title commitment, title binder, title opinion, or title report.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79772, Dec. 22, 2011]
</CITA>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>For <E T="04">Federal Register</E> citations affecting supplement I to part 1026, see the List of CFR Sections Affected, which appears in the Finding Aids section of the printed volume and at <I>www.govinfo.gov.</I></PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1030" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1030—TRUTH IN SAVINGS (REGULATION DD)
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4302-4304, 4308, 5512, 5581.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1030.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.1   Authority, purpose, coverage, and effect on state laws.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part, known as Regulation DD, is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection to implement the Truth in Savings Act of 1991 (the act), contained in the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation Improvement Act of 1991 (12 U.S.C. 3201 <I>et seq.,</I> Public Law 102-242, 105 Stat. 2236), as amended by title X, section 1100B of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376). Information-collection requirements contained in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget under the provisions of 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.</I> and have been assigned OMB No. 3170-0004.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to enable consumers to make informed decisions about accounts at depository institutions. This part requires depository institutions to provide disclosures so that consumers can make meaningful comparisons among depository institutions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Coverage.</I> This part applies to depository institutions except for credit unions. In addition, the advertising rules in § 1030.8 of this part apply to any person who advertises an account offered by a depository institution, including deposit brokers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect on state laws.</I> State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. Additional information on inconsistent state laws and the procedures for requesting a preemption determination from the Bureau are set forth in appendix C of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Relationship to Regulation CC.</I> The Director of the Bureau and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System jointly issue regulations under sections 603(d)(1), 604, 605, and 609(a) of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4002(d)(1), 4003, 4004, 4008(a)) that are codified within Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Account</I> means a deposit account at a depository institution that is held by or offered to a consumer. It includes time, demand, savings, and negotiable order of withdrawal accounts. For purposes of the advertising requirements in § 1030.8 of this part, the term also includes an account at a depository institution that is held by or on behalf of a deposit broker, if any interest in the account is held by or offered to a consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertisement</I> means a commercial message, appearing in any medium, that promotes directly or indirectly:
</P>
<P>(1) The availability or terms of, or a deposit in, a new account; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of §§ 1030.8(a) and 1030.11 of this part, the terms of, or a deposit in, a new or existing account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual percentage yield</I> means a percentage rate reflecting the total amount of interest paid on an account, based on the interest rate and the frequency of compounding for a 365-day period and calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Average daily balance method</I> means the application of a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is determined by adding the full amount of principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Bonus</I> means a premium, gift, award, or other consideration worth more than $10 (whether in the form of cash, credit, merchandise, or any equivalent) given or offered to a consumer during a year in exchange for opening, maintaining, renewing, or increasing an account balance. The term does not include interest, other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, or the absorption of expenses.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Business day</I> means a calendar day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, or any of the legal public holidays specified in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Consumer</I> means a natural person who holds an account primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, or to whom such an account is offered. The term does not include a natural person who holds an account for another in a professional capacity.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Daily balance method</I> means the application of a daily periodic rate to the full amount of principal in the account each day.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Depository institution</I> and <I>institution</I> mean an institution defined in section 19(b)(1)(A)(i) through (vi) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 461), except credit unions defined in section 19(b)(1)(A)(iv).
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Deposit broker</I> means any person who is a deposit broker as defined in section 29(g) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831f(g)).
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Fixed-rate account</I> means an account for which the institution contracts to give at least 30 calendar days advance written notice of decreases in the interest rate.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Grace period</I> means a period following the maturity of an automatically renewing time account during which the consumer may withdraw funds without being assessed a penalty.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Interest</I> means any payment to a consumer or to an account for the use of funds in an account, calculated by application of a periodic rate to the balance. The term does not include the payment of a bonus or other consideration worth $10 or less given during a year, the waiver or reduction of a fee, or the absorption of expenses.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Interest rate</I> means the annual rate of interest paid on an account which does not reflect compounding. For the purposes of the account disclosures in § 1030.4(b)(1)(i) of this part, the interest rate may, but need not, be referred to as the “annual percentage rate” in addition to being referred to as the “interest rate.”
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Passbook savings account</I> means a savings account in which the consumer retains a book or other document in which the institution records transactions on the account.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Periodic statement</I> means a statement setting forth information about an account (other than a time account or passbook savings account) that is provided to a consumer on a regular basis four or more times a year.
</P>
<P>(r) <I>State</I> means a state, the District of Columbia, the commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any territory or possession of the United States.
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Stepped-rate account</I> means an account that has two or more interest rates that take effect in succeeding periods and are known when the account is opened.
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Tiered-rate account</I> means an account that has two or more interest rates that are applicable to specified balance levels.
</P>
<P>(u) <I>Time account</I> means an account with a maturity of at least seven days in which the consumer generally does not have a right to make withdrawals for six days after the account is opened, unless the deposit is subject to an early withdrawal penalty of at least seven days' interest on amounts withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Variable-rate account</I> means an account in which the interest rate may change after the account is opened, unless the institution contracts to give at least 30 calendar days advance written notice of rate decreases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.3   General disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> Depository institutions shall make the disclosures required by §§ 1030.4 through 1030.6 of this part, as applicable, clearly and conspicuously, in writing, and in a form the consumer may keep. The disclosures required by this part may be provided to the consumer in electronic form, subject to compliance with the consumer consent and other applicable provisions of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>). The disclosures required by §§ 1030.4(a)(2) and 1030.8 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act in the circumstances set forth in those sections. Disclosures for each account offered by an institution may be presented separately or combined with disclosures for the institution's other accounts, as long as it is clear which disclosures are applicable to the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> The disclosures shall reflect the terms of the legal obligation of the account agreement between the consumer and the depository institution. Disclosures may be made in languages other than English, provided the disclosures are available in English upon request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Relation to Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005).</I> Disclosures required by and provided in accordance with the Electronic Fund Transfer Act (15 U.S.C. 1693 <I>et seq.</I>) and its implementing Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005) that are also required by this part may be substituted for the disclosures required by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Multiple consumers.</I> If an account is held by more than one consumer, disclosures may be made to any one of the consumers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral response to inquiries.</I> In an oral response to a consumer's inquiry about interest rates payable on its accounts, the depository institution shall state the annual percentage yield. The interest rate may be stated in addition to the annual percentage yield. No other rate may be stated.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields</I>—(1) <I>Rounding.</I> The annual percentage yield, the annual percentage yield earned, and the interest rate shall be rounded to the nearest one-hundredth of one percentage point (.01%) and expressed to two decimal places. For account disclosures, the interest rate may be expressed to more than two decimal places.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Accuracy.</I> The annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) will be considered accurate if not more than one-twentieth of one percentage point (.05%) above or below the annual percentage yield (and the annual percentage yield earned) determined in accordance with the rules in appendix A of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.4" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.4   Account disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delivery of account disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Account opening</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A depository institution shall provide account disclosures to a consumer before an account is opened or a service is provided, whichever is earlier. An institution is deemed to have provided a service when a fee required to be disclosed is assessed. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, if the consumer is not present at the institution when the account is opened or the service is provided and has not already received the disclosures, the institution shall mail or deliver the disclosures no later than 10 business days after the account is opened or the service is provided, whichever is earlier.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Timing of electronic disclosures.</I> If a consumer who is not present at the institution uses electronic means (for example, an Internet Web site) to open an account or request a service, the disclosures required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided before the account is opened or the service is provided.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests.</I> (i) A depository institution shall provide account disclosures to a consumer upon request. If a consumer who is not present at the institution makes a request, the institution shall mail or deliver the disclosures within a reasonable time after it receives the request and may provide the disclosures in paper form, or electronically if the consumer agrees.
</P>
<P>(ii) In providing disclosures upon request, the institution may:
</P>
<P>(A) Specify an interest rate and annual percentage yield that were offered within the most recent seven calendar days; state that the rate and yield are accurate as of an identified date; and provide a telephone number consumers may call to obtain current rate information.
</P>
<P>(B) State the maturity of a time account as a term rather than a date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of account disclosures.</I> Account disclosures shall include the following, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rate information</I>—(i) <I>Annual percentage yield and interest rate.</I> The “annual percentage yield” and the “interest rate,” using those terms, and for fixed-rate accounts the period of time the interest rate will be in effect.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Variable rates.</I> For variable-rate accounts:
</P>
<P>(A) The fact that the interest rate and annual percentage yield may change;
</P>
<P>(B) How the interest rate is determined;
</P>
<P>(C) The frequency with which the interest rate may change; and
</P>
<P>(D) Any limitation on the amount the interest rate may change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Compounding and crediting</I>—(i) <I>Frequency.</I> The frequency with which interest is compounded and credited.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Effect of closing an account.</I> If consumers will forfeit interest if they close the account before accrued interest is credited, a statement that interest will not be paid in such cases.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Balance information</I>—(i) <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> (A) Any minimum balance required to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Open the account;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Avoid the imposition of a fee; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Obtain the annual percentage yield disclosed.
</P>
<P>(B) Except for the balance to open the account, the disclosure shall state how the balance is determined for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Balance computation method.</I> An explanation of the balance computation method specified in § 1030.7 of this part used to calculate interest on the account.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>When interest begins to accrue.</I> A statement of when interest begins to accrue on noncash deposits.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Fees.</I> The amount of any fee that may be imposed in connection with the account (or an explanation of how the fee will be determined) and the conditions under which the fee may be imposed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transaction limitations.</I> Any limitations on the number or dollar amount of withdrawals or deposits.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Features of time accounts.</I> For time accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time requirements.</I> The maturity date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Early withdrawal penalties.</I> A statement that a penalty will or may be imposed for early withdrawal, how it is calculated, and the conditions for its assessment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Withdrawal of interest prior to maturity.</I> If compounding occurs during the term and interest may be withdrawn prior to maturity, a statement that the annual percentage yield assumes interest remains on deposit until maturity and that a withdrawal will reduce earnings. For accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, that require interest payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that interest cannot remain on deposit and that payout of interest is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Renewal policies.</I> A statement of whether or not the account will renew automatically at maturity. If it will, a statement of whether or not a grace period will be provided and, if so, the length of that period must be stated. If the account will not renew automatically, a statement of whether interest will be paid after maturity if the consumer does not renew the account must be stated.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Bonuses.</I> The amount or type of any bonus, when the bonus will be provided, and any minimum balance and time requirements to obtain the bonus.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to existing account holders</I>—(1) <I>Notice of availability of disclosures.</I> Depository institutions shall provide a notice to consumers who receive periodic statements and who hold existing accounts of the type offered by the institution on June 21, 1993. The notice shall be included on or with the first periodic statement sent on or after June 21, 1993 (or on or with the first periodic statement for a statement cycle beginning on or after that date). The notice shall state that consumers may request account disclosures containing terms, fees, and rate information for their account. In responding to such a request, institutions shall provide disclosures in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Alternative to notice.</I> As an alternative to the notice described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, institutions may provide account disclosures to consumers. The disclosures may be provided either with a periodic statement or separately, but must be sent no later than when the periodic statement described in paragraph (c)(1) is sent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.5" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.5   Subsequent disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Change in terms</I>—(1) <I>Advance notice required.</I> A depository institution shall give advance notice to affected consumers of any change in a term required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b) of this part if the change may reduce the annual percentage yield or adversely affect the consumer. The notice shall include the effective date of the change. The notice shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before the effective date of the change.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No notice required.</I> No notice under this section is required for:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Variable-rate changes.</I> Changes in the interest rate and corresponding changes in the annual percentage yield in variable-rate accounts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Check printing fees.</I> Changes in fees assessed for check printing.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Short-term time accounts.</I> Changes in any term for time accounts with maturities of one month or less.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one month that renew automatically.</I> For time accounts with a maturity longer than one month that renew automatically at maturity, institutions shall provide the disclosures described below before maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 30 calendar days before maturity of the existing account. Alternatively, the disclosures may be mailed or delivered at least 20 calendar days before the end of the grace period on the existing account, provided a grace period of at least five calendar days is allowed.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Maturities of longer than one year.</I> If the maturity is longer than one year, the institution shall provide account disclosures set forth in § 1030.4(b) of this part for the new account, along with the date the existing account matures. If the interest rate and annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account are unknown when disclosures are provided, the institution shall state that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number consumers may call to obtain the interest rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maturities of one year or less but longer than one month.</I> If the maturity is one year or less but longer than one month, the institution shall either:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide disclosures as set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Disclose to the consumer:
</P>
<P>(A) The date the existing account matures and the new maturity date if the account is renewed;
</P>
<P>(B) The interest rate and the annual percentage yield for the new account if they are known (or that those rates have not yet been determined, the date when they will be determined, and a telephone number the consumer may call to obtain the interest rate and the annual percentage yield that will be paid for the new account); and
</P>
<P>(C) Any difference in the terms of the new account as compared to the terms required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b) of this part for the existing account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one year that do not renew automatically.</I> For time accounts with a maturity longer than one year that do not renew automatically at maturity, institutions shall disclose to consumers the maturity date and whether interest will be paid after maturity. The disclosures shall be mailed or delivered at least 10 calendar days before maturity of the existing account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.6" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.6   Periodic statement disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> If a depository institution mails or delivers a periodic statement, the statement shall include the following disclosures:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual percentage yield earned.</I> The “annual percentage yield earned” during the statement period, using that term, calculated according to the rules in appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of interest.</I> The dollar amount of interest earned during the statement period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees imposed.</I> Fees required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b)(4) of this part that were debited to the account during the statement period. The fees shall be itemized by type and dollar amounts. Except as provided in § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part, when fees of the same type are imposed more than once in a statement period, a depository institution may itemize each fee separately or group the fees together and disclose a total dollar amount for all fees of that type.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Length of period.</I> The total number of days in the statement period, or the beginning and ending dates of the period.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Aggregate fee disclosure.</I> If applicable, the total overdraft and returned item fees required to be disclosed by § 1030.11(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special rule for average daily balance method.</I> In making the disclosures described in paragraph (a) of this section, institutions that use the average daily balance method and that calculate interest for a period other than the statement period shall calculate and disclose the annual percentage yield earned and amount of interest earned based on that period rather than the statement period. The information in paragraph (a)(4) of this section shall be stated for that period as well as for the statement period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.7" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.7   Payment of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Permissible methods</I>—(1) <I>Balance on which interest is calculated.</I> Institutions shall calculate interest on the full amount of principal in an account for each day by use of either the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. Institutions shall calculate interest by use of a daily rate of at least 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the interest rate. In a leap year a daily rate of 
<FR>1/366</FR> of the interest rate may be used.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Determination of minimum balance to earn interest.</I> An institution shall use the same method to determine any minimum balance required to earn interest as it uses to determine the balance on which interest is calculated. An institution may use an additional method that is unequivocally beneficial to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Compounding and crediting policies.</I> This section does not require institutions to compound or credit interest at any particular frequency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Date interest begins to accrue.</I> Interest shall begin to accrue not later than the business day specified for interest-bearing accounts in section 606 of the Expedited Funds Availability Act (12 U.S.C. 4005) and in § 229.14 of that act's implementing Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229). Interest shall accrue until the day funds are withdrawn.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.8" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.8   Advertising.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Misleading or inaccurate advertisements.</I> An advertisement shall not:
</P>
<P>(1) Be misleading or inaccurate or misrepresent a depository institution's deposit contract; or
</P>
<P>(2) Refer to or describe an account as “free” or “no cost” (or contain a similar term) if any maintenance or activity fee may be imposed on the account. The word “profit” shall not be used in referring to interest paid on an account.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible rates.</I> If an advertisement states a rate of return, it shall state the rate as an “annual percentage yield” using that term. (The abbreviation “APY” may be used provided the term “annual percentage yield” is stated at least once in the advertisement.) The advertisement shall not state any other rate, except that the “interest rate,” using that term, may be stated in conjunction with, but not more conspicuously than, the annual percentage yield to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When additional disclosures are required.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if the annual percentage yield is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Variable rates.</I> For variable-rate accounts, a statement that the rate may change after the account is opened.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time annual percentage yield is offered.</I> The period of time the annual percentage yield will be offered, or a statement that the annual percentage yield is accurate as of a specified date.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum balance.</I> The minimum balance required to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield. For tiered-rate accounts, the minimum balance required for each tier shall be stated in close proximity and with equal prominence to the applicable annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Minimum opening deposit.</I> The minimum deposit required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effect of fees.</I> A statement that fees could reduce the earnings on the account.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Features of time accounts.</I> For time accounts:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Time requirements.</I> The term of the account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Early withdrawal penalties:</I> A statement that a penalty will or may be imposed for early withdrawal.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Required interest payouts.</I> For noncompounding time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, that require interest payouts at least annually, and that disclose an APY determined in accordance with section E of appendix A of this part, a statement that interest cannot remain on deposit and that payout of interest is mandatory.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bonuses.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if a bonus is stated in an advertisement, the advertisement shall state the following information, to the extent applicable, clearly and conspicuously:
</P>
<P>(1) The “annual percentage yield,” using that term;
</P>
<P>(2) The time requirement to obtain the bonus;
</P>
<P>(3) The minimum balance required to obtain the bonus;
</P>
<P>(4) The minimum balance required to open the account, if it is greater than the minimum balance necessary to obtain the bonus; and
</P>
<P>(5) When the bonus will be provided.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exemption for certain advertisements</I>—(1) <I>Certain media.</I> If an advertisement is made through one of the following media, it need not contain the information in paragraphs (c)(1), (c)(2), (c)(4), (c)(5), (c)(6)(ii), (d)(4), and (d)(5) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Outdoor media, such as billboards; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Telephone response machines.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indoor signs.</I> (i) Signs inside the premises of a depository institution (or the premises of a deposit broker) are not subject to paragraphs (b), (c), (d) or (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a sign exempt by paragraph (e)(2) of this section states a rate of return, it shall:
</P>
<P>(A) State the rate as an “annual percentage yield,” using that term or the term “APY.” The sign shall not state any other rate, except that the interest rate may be stated in conjunction with the annual percentage yield to which it relates.
</P>
<P>(B) Contain a statement advising consumers to contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts.</I> Institutions that promote the payment of overdrafts in an advertisement shall include in the advertisement the disclosures required by § 1030.11(b) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.9" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.9   Enforcement and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> Section 270 of the act (12 U.S.C. 4309) contains the provisions relating to administrative sanctions for failure to comply with the requirements of the act and this part. Compliance is enforced by the agencies listed in that section.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record retention.</I> A depository institution shall retain evidence of compliance with this part for a minimum of two years after the date disclosures are required to be made or action is required to be taken. The administrative agencies responsible for enforcing this part may require depository institutions under their jurisdiction to retain records for a longer period if necessary to carry out their enforcement responsibilities under section 270 of the act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.10" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.10   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1030.11" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1030.11   Additional disclosure requirements for overdraft services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A depository institution must separately disclose on each periodic statement, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying checks or other items when there are insufficient or unavailable funds and the account becomes overdrawn, using the term “Total Overdraft Fees;” and
</P>
<P>(ii) The total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for returning items unpaid.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Totals required.</I> The disclosures required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section must be provided for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Format requirements.</I> The aggregate fee disclosures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be disclosed in close proximity to fees identified under § 1030.6(a)(3), using a format substantially similar to Sample Form B-10 in appendix B to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advertising disclosures for overdraft services</I>—(1) <I>Disclosures.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (b)(2) through (4) of this section, any advertisement promoting the payment of overdrafts shall disclose in a clear and conspicuous manner:
</P>
<P>(i) The fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft;
</P>
<P>(ii) The categories of transactions for which a fee for paying an overdraft may be imposed;
</P>
<P>(iii) The time period by which the consumer must repay or cover any overdraft; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The circumstances under which the institution will not pay an overdraft.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Communications about the payment of overdrafts not subject to additional advertising disclosures.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) An advertisement promoting a service where the institution's payment of overdrafts will be agreed upon in writing and subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026);
</P>
<P>(ii) A communication by an institution about the payment of overdrafts in response to a consumer-initiated inquiry about deposit accounts or overdrafts. Providing information about the payment of overdrafts in response to a balance inquiry made through an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM, or an institution's Internet site, is not a response to a consumer-initiated inquiry for purposes of this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(iii) An advertisement made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio;
</P>
<P>(iv) An advertisement made on outdoor media, such as billboards;
</P>
<P>(v) An ATM receipt;
</P>
<P>(vi) An in-person discussion with a consumer;
</P>
<P>(vii) Disclosures required by federal or other applicable law;
</P>
<P>(viii) Information included on a periodic statement or a notice informing a consumer about a specific overdrawn item or the amount the account is overdrawn;
</P>
<P>(ix) A term in a deposit account agreement discussing the institution's right to pay overdrafts;
</P>
<P>(x) A notice provided to a consumer, such as at an ATM, that completing a requested transaction may trigger a fee for overdrawing an account, or a general notice that items overdrawing an account may trigger a fee;
</P>
<P>(xi) Informational or educational materials concerning the payment of overdrafts if the materials do not specifically describe the institution's overdraft service; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An opt-out or opt-in notice regarding the institution's payment of overdrafts or provision of discretionary overdraft services.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for ATM screens and telephone response machines.</I> The disclosures described in paragraphs (b)(1)(ii) and (iv) of this section are not required in connection with any advertisement made on an ATM screen or using a telephone response machine.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Exception for indoor signs.</I> Paragraph (b)(1) of this section does not apply to advertisements for the payment of overdrafts on indoor signs as described by § 1030.8(e)(2) of this part, provided that the sign contains a clear and conspicuous statement that fees may apply and that consumers should contact an employee for further information about applicable fees and terms. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(4), an indoor sign does not include an ATM screen.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of account balances.</I> If an institution discloses balance information to a consumer through an automated system, the balance may not include additional amounts that the institution may provide to cover an item when there are insufficient or unavailable funds in the consumer's account, whether under a service provided in its discretion, a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026), or a service to transfer funds from another account of the consumer. The institution may, at its option, disclose additional account balances that include such additional amounts, if the institution prominently state s that any such balance includes such additional amounts and, if applicable, that additional amounts are not available for all transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.12.19" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1030—Annual Percentage Yield Calculation
</HEAD>
<P>The annual percentage yield measures the total amount of interest paid on an account based on the interest rate and the frequency of compounding. The annual percentage yield reflects only interest and does not include the value of any bonus (or other consideration worth $10 or less) that may be provided to the consumer to open, maintain, increase or renew an account. Interest or other earnings are not to be included in the annual percentage yield if such amounts are determined by circumstances that may or may not occur in the future. The annual percentage yield is expressed as an annualized rate, based on a 365-day year. Institutions may calculate the annual percentage yield based on a 365-day or a 366-day year in a leap year. Part I of this appendix discusses the annual percentage yield calculations for account disclosures and advertisements, while part II discusses annual percentage yield earned calculations for periodic statements.
</P>
<HD1>Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes
</HD1>
<P>In general, the annual percentage yield for account disclosures under §§ 1030.4 and 1030.5 and for advertising under § 1030.8 is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of interest that would be earned by the consumer for the term of the account and the amount of principal used to calculate that interest. Special rules apply to accounts with tiered and stepped interest rates, and to certain time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year.
</P>
<HD2>A. General Rules
</HD2>
<P>Except as provided in part I.E. of this appendix, the annual percentage yield shall be calculated by the formula shown below. Institutions shall calculate the annual percentage yield based on the actual number of days in the term of the account. For accounts without a stated maturity date (such as a typical savings or transaction account), the calculation shall be based on an assumed term of 365 days. In determining the total interest figure to be used in the formula, institutions shall assume that all principal and interest remain on deposit for the entire term and that no other transactions (deposits or withdrawals) occur during the term. This assumption shall not be used if an institution requires, as a condition of the account, that consumers withdraw interest during the term. In such a case, the interest (and annual percentage yield calculation) shall reflect that requirement. For time accounts that are offered in multiples of months, institutions may base the number of days on either the actual number of days during the applicable period, or the number of days that would occur for any actual sequence of that many calendar months. If institutions choose to use the latter rule, they must use the same number of days to calculate the dollar amount of interest earned on the account that is used in the annual percentage yield formula (where “Interest” is divided by “Principal”).
</P>
<P>The annual percentage yield is calculated by use of the following general formula (“APY” is used for convenience in the formulas):
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100 [(1+Interest/Principal)<E T="51">(365/Days in term)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<P>“Principal” is the amount of funds assumed to have been deposited at the beginning of the account.
</P>
<P>“Interest” is the total dollar amount of interest earned on the Principal for the term of the account.
</P>
<P>“Days in term” is the actual number of days in the term of the account. When the “days in term” is 365 (that is, where the stated maturity is 365 days or where the account does not have a stated maturity), the annual percentage yield can be calculated by use of the following simple formula:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100 (Interest/Principal)
</FP-2>
<P><I>Examples:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) If an institution pays $61.68 in interest for a 365-day year on $1,000 deposited into a NOW account, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.17%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100[(1+61.68/1,000)<E T="51">(365/365)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=6.17%
</FP-2>
<P>Or, using the simple formula above (since, as an account without a stated term, the term is deemed to be 365 days):
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(61.68/1,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=6.17%
</FP-2>
<P>(2) If an institution pays $30.37 in interest on a $1,000 six-month certificate of deposit (where the six-month period used by the institution contains 182 days), using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.18%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100[(1+30.37/1,000)<E T="51">(365/182)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=6.18%
</FP-2>
<HD2>B. Stepped-Rate Accounts (Different Rates Apply in Succeeding Periods)
</HD2>
<P>For accounts with two or more interest rates applied in succeeding periods (where the rates are known at the time the account is opened), an institution shall assume each interest rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in the deposit contract.
</P>
<P><I>Examples:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 6-month certificate of deposit on which it pays a 5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which contain 91 days), and a 5.5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the next three months (which contain 92 days), the total interest for six months is $26.68 and, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100[(1+26.68/1,000)<E T="51">(365/183)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.39%
</FP-2>
<P>(2) If an institution offers a $1,000 two-year certificate of deposit on which it pays a 6% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first year, and a 6.5% interest rate, compounded daily, for the next year, the total interest for two years is $133.13, and, using the general formula above, the annual percentage yield is 6.45%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100[(1+133.13/1,000)<E T="51">(365/730)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=6.45%
</FP-2>
<HD2>C. Variable-Rate Accounts
</HD2>
<P>For variable-rate accounts without an introductory premium or discounted rate, an institution must base the calculation only on the initial interest rate in effect when the account is opened (or advertised), and assume that this rate will not change during the year.
</P>
<P>Variable-rate accounts with an introductory premium (or discount) rate must be calculated like a stepped-rate account. Thus, an institution shall assume that:
</P>
<P>(1) The introductory interest rate is in effect for the length of time provided for in the deposit contract; and
</P>
<P>(2) The variable interest rate that would have been in effect when the account is opened or advertised (but for the introductory rate) is in effect for the remainder of the year. If the variable rate is tied to an index, the index-based rate in effect at the time of disclosure must be used for the remainder of the year. If the rate is not tied to an index, the rate in effect for existing consumers holding the same account (who are not receiving the introductory interest rate) must be used for the remainder of the year.
</P>
<P>For example, if an institution offers an account on which it pays a 7% interest rate, compounded daily, for the first three months (which, for example, contain 91 days), while the variable interest rate that would have been in effect when the account was opened was 5%, the total interest for a 365-day year for a $1,000 deposit is $56.52 (based on 91 days at 7% followed by 274 days at 5%). Using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield is 5.65%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(56.52/1,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.65%
</FP-2>
<HD2>D. Tiered-Rate Accounts (Different Rates Apply to Specified Balance Levels)
</HD2>
<P>For accounts in which two or more interest rates paid on the account are applicable to specified balance levels, the institution must calculate the annual percentage yield in accordance with the method described below that it uses to calculate interest. In all cases, an annual percentage yield (or a range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate) must be disclosed for each balance tier.
</P>
<P>For purposes of the examples discussed below, assume the following:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Interest rate
<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Deposit balance required to earn rate
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.25</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Up to but not exceeding $2,500.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.50</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above $2,500 but not exceeding $15,000.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5.75</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Above $15,000.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P><I>Tiering Method A.</I> (1) Under this method, an institution pays on the full balance in the account the stated interest rate that corresponds to the applicable deposit tier. For example, if a consumer deposits $8,000, the institution pays the 5.50% interest rate on the entire $8,000.
</P>
<P>When this method is used to determine interest, only one annual percentage yield will apply to each tier. Within each tier, the annual percentage yield will not vary with the amount of principal assumed to have been deposited.
</P>
<P>For the interest rates and deposit balances assumed above, the institution will state three annual percentage yields—one corresponding to each balance tier. Calculation of each annual percentage yield is similar for this type of account as for accounts with a single interest rate. Thus, the calculation is based on the total amount of interest that would be received by the consumer for each tier of the account for a year and the principal assumed to have been deposited to earn that amount of interest.
</P>
<P><I>First tier.</I> Assuming daily compounding, the institution will pay $53.90 in interest on a $1,000 deposit. Using the general formula, for the first tier, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100[(1+53.90/1,000)<E T="51">(365/365)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.39%
</FP-2>
<P>Using the simple formula:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(53.90/1,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.39%
</FP-2>
<P><I>Second tier.</I> The institution will pay $452.29 in interest on an $8,000 deposit. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the second tier is 5.65%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(452.29/8,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.65%
</FP-2>
<P><I>Third tier.</I> The institution will pay $1,183.61 in interest on a $20,000 deposit. Thus, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield for the third tier is 5.92%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(1,183.61/20,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.92%
</FP-2>
<P><I>Tiering Method B.</I> Under this method, an institution pays the stated interest rate only on that portion of the balance within the specified tier. For example, if a consumer deposits $8,000, the institution pays 5.25% on $2,500 and 5.50% on $5,500 (the difference between $8,000 and the first tier cut-off of $2,500).
</P>
<P>The institution that computes interest in this manner must provide a range that shows the lowest and the highest annual percentage yields for each tier (other than for the first tier, which, like the tiers in Method A, has the same annual percentage yield throughout). The low figure for an annual percentage yield range is calculated based on the total amount of interest earned for a year assuming the minimum principal required to earn the interest rate for that tier. The high figure for an annual percentage yield range is based on the amount of interest the institution would pay on the highest principal that could be deposited to earn that same interest rate. If the account does not have a limit on the maximum amount that can be deposited, the institution may assume any amount.
</P>
<P>For the tiering structure assumed above, the institution would state a total of five annual percentage yields—one figure for the first tier and two figures stated as a range for the other two tiers.
</P>
<P><I>First tier.</I> Assuming daily compounding, the institution would pay $53.90 in interest on a $1,000 deposit. For this first tier, using the simple formula, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(53.90/1,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.39%
</FP-2>
<P><I>Second tier.</I> For the second tier, the institution would pay between $134.75 and $841.45 in interest, based on assumed balances of $2,500.01 and $15,000, respectively. For $2,500.01, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate plus interest on $.01 at 5.50%. For the low end of the second tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield is 5.39%, using the simple formula:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(134.75/2,500)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.39%
</FP-2>
<P>For $15,000, interest is figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate. For the high end of the second tier, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.61%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100(841.45/15,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.61%
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield range for the second tier is 5.39% to 5.61%.
</P>
<P><I>Third tier.</I> For the third tier, the institution would pay $841.45 in interest on the low end of the third tier (a balance of $15,000.01). For $15,000.01, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate, plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate, plus interest on $.01 at 5.75% interest rate. For the low end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield (using the simple formula) is 5.61%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100 (841.45/15,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.61%
</FP-2>
<P>Since the institution does not limit the account balance, it may assume any maximum amount for the purposes of computing the annual percentage yield for the high end of the third tier. For an assumed maximum balance amount of $100,000, interest would be figured on $2,500 at 5.25% interest rate, plus interest on $12,500 at 5.50% interest rate, plus interest on $85,000 at 5.75% interest rate. For the high end of the third tier, therefore, the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.87%.
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100 (5,871.79/100,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.87%
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.87%.
</P>
<P>If the assumed maximum balance amount is $1,000,000 instead of $100,000, the institution would use $985,000 rather than $85,000 in the last calculation. In that case, for the high end of the third tier the annual percentage yield, using the simple formula, is 5.91%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY=100 (59134.22/1,000,000)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY=5.91%
</FP-2>
<P>Thus, the annual percentage yield range that would be stated for the third tier is 5.61% to 5.91%.
</P>
<HD2>E. Time Accounts With a Stated Maturity Greater Than One Year That Pay Interest at Least Annually
</HD2>
<P>1. For time accounts with a stated maturity greater than one year that do not compound interest on an annual or more frequent basis, and that require the consumer to withdraw interest at least annually, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the interest rate.
</P>
<HD2>Example
</HD2>
<P>(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 two-year certificate of deposit that does not compound and that pays out interest semi-annually by check or transfer at a 6.00% interest rate, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as 6.00%.
</P>
<P>(2) For time accounts covered by this paragraph that are also stepped-rate accounts, the annual percentage yield may be disclosed as equal to the composite interest rate.
</P>
<HD2>Example
</HD2>
<P>(1) If an institution offers a $1,000 three-year certificate of deposit that does not compound and that pays out interest annually by check or transfer at a 5.00% interest rate for the first year, 6.00% interest rate for the second year, and 7.00% interest rate for the third year, the institution may compute the composite interest rate and APY as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Multiply each interest rate by the number of days it will be in effect;
</P>
<P>(b) Add these figures together; and
</P>
<P>(c) Divide by the total number of days in the term.
</P>
<P>(2) Applied to the example, the products of the interest rates and days the rates are in effect are (5.00%×365 days) 1825, (6.00%×365 days) 2190, and (7.00%×365 days) 2555, respectively. The sum of these products, 6570, is divided by 1095, the total number of days in the term. The composite interest rate and APY are both 6.00%.
</P>
<HD1>Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Periodic Statements
</HD1>
<P>The annual percentage yield earned for periodic statements under § 1030.6(a) is an annualized rate that reflects the relationship between the amount of interest actually earned on the consumer's account during the statement period and the average daily balance in the account for the statement period. Pursuant to § 1030.6(b), however, if an institution uses the average daily balance method and calculates interest for a period other than the statement period, the annual percentage yield earned shall reflect the relationship between the amount of interest earned and the average daily balance in the account for that other period.
</P>
<P>The annual percentage yield earned shall be calculated by using the following formulas (“APY Earned” is used for convenience in the formulas):
</P>
<HD2>A. General Formula
</HD2>
<P>APY Earned=100 [(1+Interest earned/Balance)<E T="51">(365/Days in period)</E>−1]
</P>
<P>“Balance” is the average daily balance in the account for the period.
</P>
<P>“Interest earned” is the actual amount of interest earned on the account for the period.
</P>
<P>“Days in period” is the actual number of days for the period.
</P>
<HD2>Examples
</HD2>
<P>(1) Assume an institution calculates interest for the statement period (and uses either the daily balance or the average daily balance method), and the account has a balance of $1,500 for 15 days and a balance of $500 for the remaining 15 days of a 30-day statement period. The average daily balance for the period is $1,000. The interest earned (under either balance computation method) is $5.25 during the period. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 6.58%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned=100 [(1+5.25/1,000)<E T="51">(365/30)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned=6.58%
</FP-2>
<P>(2) Assume an institution calculates interest on the average daily balance for the calendar month and provides periodic statements that cover the period from the 16th of one month to the 15th of the next month. The account has a balance of $2,000 September 1 through September 15 and a balance of $1,000 for the remaining 15 days of September. The average daily balance for the month of September is $1,500, which results in $6.50 in interest earned for the month. The annual percentage yield earned for the month of September would be shown on the periodic statement covering September 16 through October 15. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 5.40%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned=100 [(6.50/1,500)<E T="51">(365/30)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned=5.40%
</FP-2>
<P>(3) Assume an institution calculates interest on the average daily balance for a quarter (for example, the calendar months of September through November), and provides monthly periodic statements covering calendar months. The account has a balance of $1,000 throughout the 30 days of September, a balance of $2,000 throughout the 31 days of October, and a balance of $3,000 throughout the 30 days of November. The average daily balance for the quarter is $2,000, which results in $21 in interest earned for the quarter. The annual percentage yield earned would be shown on the periodic statement for November. The annual percentage yield earned (using the formula above) is 4.28%:
</P>
<FP-2>APY Earned=100 [(1+21/2,000) <E T="51">(365/91)</E>−1]
</FP-2>
<FP-2>APY Earned=4.28%
</FP-2>
<HD2>B. Special Formula for Use Where Periodic Statement Is Sent More Often Than the Period for Which Interest Is Compounded
</HD2>
<P>Institutions that use the daily balance method to accrue interest and that issue periodic statements more often than the period for which interest is compounded shall use the following special formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03jy19.001.gif"/>
<P>The following definition applies for use in this formula (all other terms are defined under part II):
</P>
<P>“Compounding” is the number of days in each compounding period.
</P>
<P>Assume an institution calculates interest for the statement period using the daily balance method, pays a 5.00% interest rate, compounded annually, and provides periodic statements for each monthly cycle. The account has a daily balance of $1,000 for a 30-day statement period. The interest earned is $4.11 for the period, and the annual percentage yield earned (using the special formula above) is 5.00%:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er03jy19.002.gif"/>
<FP-2>APY Earned=5.00%
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 31698, July 3, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.12.20" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1030—Model Clauses and Sample Forms
</HEAD>
<HD1>Table of Contents
</HD1>
<FP-1>B-1—Model Clauses for Account Disclosures (Section 1030.4(b))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-2—Model Clauses for Change in Terms (Section 1030.5(a))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-3—Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Time Accounts (Section 1030.5(b)(2) and 1030.5(d))
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-4—Sample Form (Multiple Accounts)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-5—Sample Form (Now Account)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-6—Sample Form (Tiered Rate Money Market Account)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-7—Sample Form (Certificate of Deposit)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-8—Sample Form (Certificate of Deposit Advertisement)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-9—Sample Form (Money Market Account Advertisement)
</FP-1>
<FP-1>B-10—Sample Form (Aggregate Overdraft and Returned Item Fees)
</FP-1>
<HD1>B-1—Model Clauses for Account Disclosures
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) Rate Information
</HD2>
<HD3>(i) Fixed-Rate Accounts
</HD3>
<P>The interest rate on your account is ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%. You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)/for at least 30 calendar days].
</P>
<HD3>(ii) Variable-Rate Accounts
</HD3>
<P>The interest rate on your account is ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<P>Your interest rate and annual percentage yield may change.
</P>
<HD3>Determination of Rate
</HD3>
<P>The interest rate on your account is based on (name of index) [plus/minus a margin of ____]; or
</P>
<P>At our discretion, we may change the interest rate on your account.
</P>
<HD3>Frequency of Rate Changes
</HD3>
<P>We may change the interest rate on your account [every (time period)/at any time].
</P>
<HD3>Limitations on Rate Changes
</HD3>
<P>The interest rate for your account will never change by more than ____% each (time period).
</P>
<P>The interest rate will never be [less/more] than ____%; or
</P>
<P>The interest rate will never [exceed____% above/drop more than ____% below] the interest rate initially disclosed to you.
</P>
<HD3>(iii) Stepped-Rate Accounts
</HD3>
<P>The initial interest rate for your account is ____%. You will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)]. After that time, the interest rate for your account will be ____%, and you will be paid this rate [for (time period)/until (date)]. The annual percentage yield for your account is ____%.
</P>
<HD3>(iv) Tiered-Rate Accounts
</HD3>
<HD3>Tiering Method A
</HD3>
<P>• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or more, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of __%.
</P>
<P>• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is more than $____, but less than $____, the interest rate paid on the entire balance in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<P>• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<HD3>Tiering Method B
</HD3>
<P>• An interest rate of ____% will be paid only for that portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $____. The annual percentage yield for this tier will range from ____% to ____%, depending on the balance in the account.
</P>
<P>• An interest rate of ____% will be paid only for that portion of your [daily balance/average daily balance] that is greater than $____. The annual percentage yield for this tier will range from ____% to ____%, depending on the balance in the account.
</P>
<P>• If your [daily balance/average daily balance] is $____ or less, the interest rate paid on the entire balance will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Compounding and Crediting
</HD2>
<HD3>(i) Frequency
</HD3>
<P>Interest will be compounded [on a ____ basis/every (time period)]. Interest will be credited to your account [on a ____ basis/every (time period)].
</P>
<HD3>(ii) Effect of Closing an Account
</HD3>
<P>If you close your account before interest is credited, you will not receive the accrued interest.
</P>
<HD2>(c) Minimum Balance Requirements
</HD2>
<HD3>(i) To Open the Account
</HD3>
<P>You must deposit $____ to open this account.
</P>
<HD3>(ii) To Avoid Imposition of Fees
</HD3>
<P>A minimum balance fee of $____ will be imposed every (time period) if the balance in the account falls below $____ any day of the (time period).
</P>
<P>A minimum balance fee of $____ will be imposed every (time period) if the average daily balance for the (time period) falls below $____. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<HD3>(iii) To Obtain the Annual Percentage Yield Disclosed
</HD3>
<P>You must maintain a minimum balance of $____ in the account each day to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum average daily balance of $____ to obtain the disclosed annual percentage yield. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<HD2>(d) Balance Computation Method
</HD2>
<HD3>(i) Daily Balance Method
</HD3>
<P>We use the daily balance method to calculate the interest on your account. This method applies a daily periodic rate to the principal in the account each day.
</P>
<HD3>(ii) Average Daily Balance Method
</HD3>
<P>We use the average daily balance method to calculate interest on your account. This method applies a periodic rate to the average daily balance in the account for the period. The average daily balance is calculated by adding the principal in the account for each day of the period and dividing that figure by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<HD2>(e) Accrual of Interest on Noncash Deposits
</HD2>
<P>Interest begins to accrue no later than the business day we receive credit for the deposit of noncash items (for example, checks); or
</P>
<P>Interest begins to accrue on the business day you deposit noncash items (for example, checks).
</P>
<HD2>(f) Fees
</HD2>
<P>The following fees may be assessed against your account:
</P>
<FP>____$____
</FP>
<FP>____$____
</FP>
<FP>____$____
</FP>
<FP>____(<I>conditions for imposing fee</I>) $____
</FP>
<FP>____% of ____.
</FP>
<HD2>(g) Transaction Limitations
</HD2>
<P>The minimum amount you may [withdraw/write a check for] is $____.
</P>
<P>You may make ____ [deposits into/withdrawals from] your account each (time period).
</P>
<P>You may not make [deposits into/withdrawals from] your account until the maturity date.
</P>
<HD2>(h) Disclosures Relating to Time Accounts
</HD2>
<HD3>(i) Time Requirements
</HD3>
<P>Your account will mature on (date).
</P>
<P>Your account will mature in (time period).
</P>
<HD3>(ii) Early Withdrawal Penalties
</HD3>
<P>We [will/may] impose a penalty if you withdraw [any/all] of the [deposited funds/principal] before the maturity date. The fee imposed will equal ____ days/week[s]/month[s] of interest; or
</P>
<P>We [will/may] impose a penalty of $____ if you withdraw [any/all] of the [deposited funds/principal] before the maturity date.
</P>
<P>If you withdraw some of your funds before maturity, the interest rate for the remaining funds in your account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<HD3>(iii) Withdrawal of Interest Prior to Maturity
</HD3>
<P>The annual percentage yield assumes interest will remain on deposit until maturity. A withdrawal will reduce earnings.
</P>
<HD3>(iv) Renewal Policies
</HD3>
<HD3>(1) Automatically Renewable Time Accounts
</HD3>
<P>This account will automatically renew at maturity.
</P>
<P>You will have [____ calendar/business] days after the maturity date to withdraw funds without penalty; or
</P>
<P>There is no grace period following the maturity of this account to withdraw funds without penalty.
</P>
<HD3>(2) Non-Automatically Renewable Time Accounts
</HD3>
<P>This account will not renew automatically at maturity. If you do not renew the account, your deposit will be placed in [an interest-bearing/a noninterest-bearing] account.
</P>
<HD3>(v) Required Interest Distribution
</HD3>
<P>This account requires the distribution of interest and does not allow interest to remain in the account.
</P>
<HD2>(i) Bonuses
</HD2>
<P>You will [be paid/receive] [$____/(description of item)] as a bonus [when you open the account/on (date) ____].
</P>
<P>You must maintain a minimum [daily balance/average daily balance] of $____ to obtain the bonus.
</P>
<P>To earn the bonus, [$____/your entire principal] must remain on deposit [for (time period)/until (date)____].
</P>
<HD1>B-2—Model Clauses for Change in Terms
</HD1>
<P>On (date), the cost of (type of fee) will increase to $____.
</P>
<P>On (date), the interest rate on your account will decrease to ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%.
</P>
<P>On (date), the minimum [daily balance/average daily balance] required to avoid imposition of a fee will increase to $____.
</P>
<HD1>B-3—Model Clauses for Pre-Maturity Notices for Time Accounts
</HD1>
<HD2>(a) Automatically Renewable Time Accounts With Maturities of One Year or Less But Longer Than One Month
</HD2>
<P>Your account will mature on (date).
</P>
<P>If the account renews, the new maturity date will be (date).
</P>
<P>The interest rate for the renewed account will be ____% with an annual percentage yield of ____%; or
</P>
<P>The interest rate and annual percentage yield have not yet been determined. They will be available on (date). Please call (phone number) to learn the interest rate and annual percentage yield for your new account.
</P>
<HD2>(b) Non-Automatically Renewable Time Accounts With Maturities Longer Than One Year
</HD2>
<P>Your account will mature on (date).
</P>
<P>If you do not renew the account, interest [will/will not] be paid after maturity.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.037.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.038.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.039.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.040.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.041.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.042.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.043.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.044.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er21de11.045.gif"/>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.12.21" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix C to Part 1030—Effect on State Laws




</HEAD>
<HD1>(<E T="01">a</E>) Inconsistent Requirements
</HD1>
<P>State law requirements that are inconsistent with the requirements of the act and this part are preempted to the extent of the inconsistency. A state law is inconsistent if it requires a depository institution to make disclosures or take actions that contradict the requirements of the federal law. A state law is also contradictory if it requires the use of the same term to represent a different amount or a different meaning than the federal law, requires the use of a term different from that required in the federal law to describe the same item, or permits a method of calculating interest on an account different from that required in the federal law.




</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">b</E>) Preemption Determinations
</HD1>
<P>A depository institution, state, or other interested party may request the Bureau to determine whether a state law requirement is inconsistent with the federal requirements. A request for a determination shall be in writing and addressed to the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552. Notice that the Bureau intends to make a determination (either on request or on its own motion) will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> with an opportunity for public comment unless the Bureau finds that notice and opportunity for comment would be impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest and publishes its reasons for such decision. Notice of a final determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and furnished to the party who made the request and to the appropriate state official.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">c</E>) Effect of Preemption Determinations
</HD1>
<P>After the Bureau determines that a state law is inconsistent, a depository institution may not make disclosures using the inconsistent term or take actions relying on the inconsistent law.
</P>
<HD1>(<E T="01">d</E>) Reversal of Determination
</HD1>
<P>The Bureau reserves the right to reverse a determination for any reason bearing on the coverage or effect of state or federal law. Notice of reversal of a determination will be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> and a copy furnished to the appropriate state official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 88 FR 16543, Mar. 20, 2023]










</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.12.22" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix D to Part 1030—Issuance of Official Interpretations
</HEAD>
<P>Except in unusual circumstances, interpretations will not be issued separately but will be incorporated in an official commentary to this part, which will be amended periodically. No interpretations will be issued approving depository institutions' forms, statements, or calculation tools or methods.


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</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.2.0.1.12.23" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1030—Official Interpretations


</HEAD>
<HD1>Introduction
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>Official status.</I> This commentary is the means by which the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection issues official interpretations of Regulation DD.
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<HD2>Section 1030.1 Authority, purpose, coverage, and effect on state laws
</HD2>
<HD3>(c) Coverage
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Foreign applicability.</I> Regulation DD applies to all depository institutions, except credit unions, that offer deposit accounts to residents (including resident aliens) of any state as defined in § 1030.2(r). Accounts held in an institution located in a state are covered, even if funds are transferred periodically to a location outside the United States. Accounts held in an institution located outside the United States are not covered, even if held by a U.S. resident.
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<P>2. <I>Persons who advertise accounts.</I> Persons who advertise accounts are subject to the advertising rules. For example, if a deposit broker places an advertisement offering consumers an interest in an account at a depository institution, the advertising rules apply to the advertisement, whether the account is to be held by the broker or directly by the consumer.
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<HD2>Section 1030.2—Definitions
</HD2>
<P>(a) Account.
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<P>1. <I>Covered accounts.</I> Examples of accounts subject to the regulation are:
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<P>i. Interest-bearing and noninterest-bearing accounts.
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<P>ii. Deposit accounts opened as a condition of obtaining a credit card.
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<P>iii. Accounts denominated in a foreign currency.
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<P>iv. Individual retirement accounts (IRAs) and simplified employee pension (SEP) accounts.
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<P>v. Payable on death (POD) or “Totten trust” accounts.
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<P>2. <I>Other accounts.</I> Examples of accounts not subject to the regulation are:
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<P>i. Mortgage escrow accounts for collecting taxes and property insurance premiums.
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<P>ii. Accounts established to make periodic disbursements on construction loans.
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<P>iii. Trust accounts opened by a trustee pursuant to a formal written trust agreement (not merely declarations of trust on a signature card such as a “Totten trust,” or an IRA and SEP account).
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<P>iv. Accounts opened by an executor in the name of a decedent's estate.
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<P>3. <I>Other investments.</I> The term “account” does not apply to all products of a depository institution. Examples of products not covered are:
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<P>i. Government securities.
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<P>ii. Mutual funds.
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<P>iii. Annuities.
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<P>iv. Securities or obligations of a depository institution.
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<P>v. Contractual arrangements such as repurchase agreements, interest rate swaps, and bankers acceptances.
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<P>(b) Advertisement.
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<P>1. <I>Covered messages.</I> Advertisements include commercial messages in visual, oral, or print media that invite, offer, or otherwise announce generally to prospective customers the availability of consumer accounts—such as:
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<P>i. Telephone solicitations.
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<P>ii. Messages on automated teller machine (ATM) screens.
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<P>iii. Messages on a computer screen in an institution's lobby (including any printout) other than a screen viewed solely by the institution's employee.
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<P>iv. Messages in a newspaper, magazine, or promotional flyer or on radio.
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<P>v. Messages that are provided along with information about the consumer's existing account and that promote another account at the institution.
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<P>2. <I>Other messages.</I> Examples of messages that are not advertisements are:
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<P>i. Rate sheets in a newspaper, periodical, or trade journal (unless the depository institution, or a deposit broker offering accounts at the institution, pays a fee for or otherwise controls publication).
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<P>ii. In-person discussions with consumers about the terms for a specific account.
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<P>iii. For purposes of § 1030.8(b) of this part through § 1030.8(e) of this part, information given to consumers about existing accounts, such as current rates recorded on a voice-response machine or notices for automatically renewable time account sent before renewal.
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<P>iv. Information about a particular transaction in an existing account.
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<P>v. Disclosures required by federal or other applicable law.
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<P>vi. A deposit account agreement.
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<P><I>(f) Bonus.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Bonuses include items of value, other than interest, offered as incentives to consumers, such as an offer to pay the final installment deposit for a holiday club account. Items that are not a bonus include discount coupons for goods or services at restaurants or stores.
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<P>2. <I>De minimis rule.</I> Items with a <I>de minimis</I> value of $10 or less are not bonuses. Institutions may rely on the valuation standard used by the Internal Revenue Service to determine if the value of the item is <I>de minimis.</I> Examples of items of <I>de minimis</I> value are:
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<P>i. Disability insurance premiums valued at an amount of $10 or less per year.
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<P>ii. Coffee mugs, T-shirts or other merchandise with a market value of $10 or less.
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<P>3. <I>Aggregation.</I> In determining if an item valued at $10 or less is a bonus, institutions must aggregate per account per calendar year items that may be given to consumers. In making this determination, institutions aggregate per account only the market value of items that may be given for a specific promotion. To illustrate, assume an institution offers in January to give consumers an item valued at $7 for each calendar quarter during the year that the average account balance in a negotiable order of withdrawal (NOW) account exceeds $10,000. The bonus rules are triggered, since consumers are eligible under the promotion to receive up to $28 during the year. However, the bonus rules are not triggered if an item valued at $7 is offered to consumers opening a NOW account during the month of January, even though in November the institution introduces a new promotion that includes, for example, an offer to existing NOW account holders for an item valued at $8 for maintaining an average balance of $5,000 for the month.
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<P>4. <I>Waiver or reduction of a fee or absorption of expenses.</I> Bonuses do not include value that consumers receive through the waiver or reduction of fees (even if the fees waived exceed $10) for banking-related services such as the following:
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<P>i. A safe deposit box rental fee for consumers who open a new account.
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<P>ii. Fees for travelers checks for account holders.
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<P>iii. Discounts on interest rates charged for loans at the institution.
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<P><I>(h) Consumer.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Professional capacity.</I> Examples of accounts held by a natural person in a professional capacity for another are attorney-client trust accounts and landlord-tenant security accounts.
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<P>2. <I>Other accounts.</I> Accounts not held in a professional capacity include accounts held by an individual for a child under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act.
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<P>3. <I>Sole proprietors.</I> Accounts held by individuals as sole proprietors are not covered.
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<P>4. <I>Retirement plans.</I> IRAs and SEP accounts are consumer accounts to the extent that funds are invested in covered accounts. Keogh accounts are not subject to the regulation.
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<P><I>(j) Depository institution and institution.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Foreign institutions.</I> Branches of foreign institutions located in the United States are subject to the regulation if they offer deposit accounts to consumers. Edge Act and Agreement corporations, and agencies of foreign institutions, are not depository institutions for purposes of this part.
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<P><I>(k) Deposit broker.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General.</I> A deposit broker is a person who is in the business of placing or facilitating the placement of deposits in an institution, as defined by the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 29(g)).
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<P><I>(n) Interest.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relation to bonuses.</I> Bonuses are not interest for purposes of this part.
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<P><I>(p) Passbook savings account.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation E.</I> Passbook savings accounts include accounts accessed by preauthorized electronic fund transfers to the account (as defined in 12 CFR 1005.2(j)), such as an account that receives direct deposit of social security payments. Accounts permitting access by other electronic means are not “passbook saving accounts” and must comply with the requirements of § 1030.6 if statements are sent four or more times a year.
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<P><I>(q) Periodic statement.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> Periodic statements do not include:
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<P>i. Additional statements provided solely upon request.
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<P>ii. General service information such as a quarterly newsletter or other correspondence describing available services and products.
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<P><I>(t) Tiered-rate account.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Time accounts.</I> Time accounts paying different rates based solely on the amount of the initial deposit are not tiered-rate accounts.
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<P>2. <I>Minimum balance requirements.</I> A requirement to maintain a minimum balance to earn interest does not make an account a tiered-rate account.
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<P><I>(u) Time account.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Club accounts.</I> Although club accounts typically have a maturity date, they are not time accounts unless they also require a penalty of at least seven days' interest for withdrawals during the first six days after the account is opened.2. <I>Relation to Regulation D.</I> Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204) permits in limited circumstances the withdrawal of funds without penalty during the first six days after a “time deposit” is opened. (See 12 CFR 204.2(c)(1)(i).) But the fact that a consumer makes a withdrawal as permitted by Regulation D does not disqualify the account from being a time account for purposes of this part.
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<P><I>(v) Variable-rate account.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A certificate of deposit permitting one or more rate adjustments prior to maturity at the consumer's option is a variable-rate account.
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<HD2>Section 1030.3—General Disclosure Requirements
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) Form.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Design requirements.</I> Disclosures must be presented in a format that allows consumers to readily understand the terms of their account. Institutions are not required to use a particular type size or typeface, nor are institutions required to state any term more conspicuously than any other term. Disclosures may be made:
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<P>i. In any order.
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<P>ii. In combination with other disclosures or account terms.
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<P>iii. In combination with disclosures for other types of accounts, as long as it is clear to consumers which disclosures apply to their account.
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<P>iv. On more than one page and on the front and reverse sides.
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<P>v. By using inserts to a document or filling in blanks.
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<P>vi. On more than one document, as long as the documents are provided at the same time.
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<P>2. <I>Consistent terminology.</I> Institutions must use consistent terminology to describe terms or features required to be disclosed. For example, if an institution describes a monthly fee (regardless of account activity) as a “monthly service fee” in account-opening disclosures, the periodic statement and change-in-term notices must use the same terminology so that consumers can readily identify the fee.
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<P><I>(b) General.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Specificity of legal obligation.</I> Institutions may refer to the calendar month or to roughly equivalent intervals during a calendar year as a “month.”
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<P><I>(c) Relation to Regulation E.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Compliance with Regulation E (12 CFR Part 1005) is deemed to satisfy the disclosure requirements of this part, such as when:
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<P>i. An institution changes a term that triggers a notice under Regulation E, and uses the timing and disclosure rules of Regulation E for sending change-in-term notices.
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<P>ii. Consumers add an ATM access feature to an account, and the institution provides disclosures pursuant to Regulation E, including disclosure of fees (see 12 CFR 1005.7.)
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<P>iii. An institution complying with the timing rules of Regulation E discloses at the same time fees for electronic services (such as for balance inquiry fees at ATMs) required to be disclosed by this part but not by Regulation E.
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<P>iv. An institution relies on Regulation E's rules regarding disclosure of limitations on the frequency and amount of electronic fund transfers, including security-related exceptions. But any limitations on “intra-institutional transfers” to or from the consumer's other accounts during a given time period must be disclosed, even though intra-institutional transfers are exempt from Regulation E.
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<P><I>(e) Oral response to inquiries.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Application of rule.</I> Institutions are not required to provide rate information orally.
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<P>2. <I>Relation to advertising.</I> The advertising rules do not cover an oral response to a question about rates.
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<P>3. <I>Existing accounts.</I> This paragraph does not apply to oral responses about rate information for existing accounts. For example, if a consumer holding a one-year certificate of deposit (CD) requests interest rate information about the CD during the term, the institution need not disclose the annual percentage yield.
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<P><I>(f) Rounding and accuracy rules for rates and yields</I>
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<P><I>(f)(1) Rounding.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Permissible rounding.</I> Examples of permissible rounding are an annual percentage yield calculated to be 5.644%, rounded down and disclosed as 5.64%; 5.645% rounded up and disclosed as 5.65%.
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<P><I>(f)(2) Accuracy.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned.</I> The tolerance for annual percentage yield and annual percentage yield earned calculations is designed to accommodate inadvertent errors. Institutions may not purposely incorporate the tolerance into their calculation of yields.
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<HD2>Section 1030.4—Account Disclosures
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) Delivery of account disclosures.</I>
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<P><I>(a)(1) Account opening.</I>
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<P>1. <I>New accounts.</I> New account disclosures must be provided when:
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<P>i. A time account that does not automatically rollover is renewed by a consumer.
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<P>ii. A consumer changes a term for a renewable time account (see comment 5(b)-5 regarding disclosure alternatives.)
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<P>iii. An institution transfers funds from an account to open a new account not at the consumer's request, unless the institution previously gave account disclosures and any change-in-term notices for the new account.
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<P>iv. An institution accepts a deposit from a consumer to an account that the institution had deemed closed for the purpose of treating accrued but uncredited interest as forfeited interest (see comment 7(b)-3.)
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<P>2. <I>Acquired accounts.</I> New account disclosures need not be given when an institution acquires an account through an acquisition of or merger with another institution (but see § 1030.5(a) of this part regarding advance notice requirements if terms are changed).
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<P><I>(a)(2) Requests.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph (a)(2)(i).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Inquiries versus requests.</I> A response to an oral inquiry (by telephone or in person) about rates and yields or fees does not trigger the duty to provide account disclosures. But when consumers ask for written information about an account (whether by telephone, in person, or by other means), the institution must provide disclosures unless the account is no longer offered to the public.
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<P>2. <I>General requests.</I> When responding to a consumer's general request for disclosures about a type of account (a NOW account, for example), an institution that offers several variations may provide disclosures for any one of them.
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<P>3. <I>Timing for response.</I> Ten business days is a reasonable time for responding to requests for account information that consumers do not make in person, including requests made by electronic means (such as by electronic mail).
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<P>4. <I>Use of electronic means.</I> If a consumer who is not present at the institution makes a request for account disclosures, including a request made by telephone, email, or via the institution's Web site, the institution may send the disclosures in paper form or, if the consumer agrees, may provide the disclosures electronically, such as to an email address that the consumer provides for that purpose, or on the institution's Web site, without regard to the consumer consent or other provisions of the E-Sign Act. The regulation does not require an institution to provide, nor a consumer to agree to receive, the disclosures required by § 1030.4(a)(2) in electronic form.
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<P><I>Paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Recent rates.</I> Institutions comply with this paragraph if they disclose an interest rate and annual percentage yield accurate within the seven calendar days preceding the date they send the disclosures.
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<P><I>Paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Term.</I> Describing the maturity of a time account as “1 year” or “6 months,” for example, illustrates a statement of the maturity of a time account as a term rather than a date (“January 10, 1995”).
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<P><I>(b) Content of account disclosures.</I>
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<P><I>(b)(1) Rate information.</I>
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<P><I>(b)(1)(i) Annual percentage yield and interest rate.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Rate disclosures.</I> In addition to the interest rate and annual percentage yield, institutions may disclose a periodic rate corresponding to the interest rate. No other rate or yield (such as “tax effective yield”) is permitted. If the annual percentage yield is the same as the interest rate, institutions may disclose a single figure but must use both terms.
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<P>2. <I>Fixed-rate accounts.</I> For fixed-rate time accounts paying the opening rate until maturity, institutions may disclose the period of time the interest rate will be in effect by stating the maturity date. (See appendix B, B-7—Sample Form.) For other fixed-rate accounts, institutions may use a date (“This rate will be in effect through May 4, 1995”) or a period (“This rate will be in effect for at least 30 days”).
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<P>3. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> Each interest rate, along with the corresponding annual percentage yield for each specified balance level (or range of annual percentage yields, if appropriate), must be disclosed for tiered-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph D.)
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<P>4. <I>Stepped-rate accounts.</I> A single composite annual percentage yield must be disclosed for stepped-rate accounts. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph B.) The interest rates and the period of time each will be in effect also must be provided. When the initial rate offered for a specified time on a variable-rate account is higher or lower than the rate that would otherwise be paid on the account, the calculation of the annual percentage yield must be made as if for a stepped-rate account. (See appendix A, Part I, Paragraph C.)
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<P><I>(b)(1)(ii) Variable rates.</I>
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<P><I>Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(B).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Determining interest rates.</I> To disclose how the interest rate is determined, institutions must:
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<P>i. Identify the index and specific margin, if the interest rate is tied to an index.
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<P>ii. State that rate changes are within the institution's discretion, if the institution does not tie changes to an index.
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<P><I>Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(C).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Frequency of rate changes.</I> An institution reserving the right to change rates at its discretion must state the fact that rates may change at any time.
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<P><I>Paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(D).</I>
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<P>1. <I>Limitations.</I> A floor or ceiling on rates or on the amount the rate may decrease or increase during any time period must be disclosed. Institutions need not disclose the absence of limitations on rate changes.
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<P><I>(b)(2) Compounding and crediting.</I>
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<P><I>(b)(2)(ii) Effect of closing an account.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Deeming an account closed.</I> An institution may, subject to state or other law, provide in its deposit contracts the actions by consumers that will be treated as closing the account and that will result in the forfeiture of accrued but uncredited interest. An example is the withdrawal of all funds from the account prior to the date that interest is credited.
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<P><I>(b)(3) Balance information.</I>
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<P><I>(b)(3)(ii) Balance computation method.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Methods and periods.</I> Institutions may use different methods or periods to calculate minimum balances for purposes of imposing a fee (the daily balance for a calendar month, for example) and accruing interest (the average daily balance for a statement period, for example). Each method and corresponding period must be disclosed.
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<P><I>(b)(3)(iii) When interest begins to accrue.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Additional information.</I> Institutions may disclose additional information such as the time of day after which deposits are treated as having been received the following business day, and may use additional descriptive terms such as “ledger” or “collected” balances to disclose when interest begins to accrue.
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<P><I>(b)(4) Fees.</I>
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<P>1. <I>Covered fees.</I> The following are types of fees that must be disclosed:
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<P>i. Maintenance fees, such as monthly service fees.
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<P>ii. Fees to open or to close an account.
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<P>iii. Fees related to deposits or withdrawals, such as fees for use of the institution's ATMs.
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<P>iv. Fees for special services, such as stop-payment fees, fees for balance inquiries or verification of deposits, fees associated with checks returned unpaid, and fees for regularly sending to consumers checks that otherwise would be held by the institution.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Other fees.</I> Institutions need not disclose fees such as the following:
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<P>i. Fees for services offered to account and nonaccount holders alike, such as travelers checks and wire transfers (even if different amounts are charged to account and nonaccount holders).
</P>
<P>ii. Incidental fees, such as fees associated with state escheat laws, garnishment or attorneys fees, and fees for photocopying.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amount of fees.</I> Institutions must state the amount and conditions under which a fee may be imposed. Naming and describing the fee (such as “$4.00 monthly service fee”) will typically satisfy these requirements.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Tied-accounts.</I> Institutions must state if fees that may be assessed against an account are tied to other accounts at the institution. For example, if an institution ties the fees payable on a NOW account to balances held in the NOW account and a savings account, the NOW account disclosures must state that fact and explain how the fee is determined.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Fees for overdrawing an account.</I> Under § 1030.4(b)(4) of this part, institutions must disclose the conditions under which a fee may be imposed. In satisfying this requirement institutions must specify the categories of transactions for which an overdraft fee may be imposed. An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. It is sufficient for an institution to state that the fee applies to overdrafts “created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means,” as applicable. Disclosing a fee “for overdraft items” would not be sufficient.
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<P><I>(b)(5) Transaction limitations.</I>
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<P>1. <I>General rule.</I> Examples of limitations on the number or dollar amount of deposits or withdrawals that institutions must disclose are:
</P>
<P>i. Limits on the number of checks that may be written on an account within a given time period.
</P>
<P>ii. Limits on withdrawals or deposits during the term of a time account.
</P>
<P>iii. Limitations required by Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 204) on the number of withdrawals permitted from money market deposit accounts by check to third parties each month. Institutions need not disclose reservations of right to require notices for withdrawals from accounts required by federal or state law.
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<P><I>(b)(6) Features of time accounts.</I>
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<P><I>(b)(6)(i) Time requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>“Callable” time accounts.</I> In addition to the maturity date, an institution must state the date or the circumstances under which it may redeem a time account at the institution's option (a “callable” time account).
</P>
<P><I>(b)(6)(ii) Early withdrawal penalties.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The term “penalty” may but need not be used to describe the loss of interest that consumers may incur for early withdrawal of funds from time accounts.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of early withdrawal penalties are:
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<P>i. Monetary penalties, such as “$10.00” or “seven days' interest plus accrued but uncredited interest.”
</P>
<P>ii. Adverse changes to terms such as a lowering of the interest rate, annual percentage yield, or compounding frequency for funds remaining on deposit.
</P>
<P>iii. Reclamation of bonuses.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Relation to rules for IRAs or similar plans.</I> Penalties imposed by the Internal Revenue Code for certain withdrawals from IRAs or similar pension or savings plans are not early withdrawal penalties for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Disclosing penalties.</I> Penalties may be stated in months, whether institutions assess the penalty using the actual number of days during the period or using another method such as a number of days that occurs in any actual sequence of the total calendar months involved. For example, stating “one month's interest” is permissible, whether the institution assesses 30 days' interest during the month of April, or selects a time period between 28 and 31 days for calculating the interest for all early withdrawals regardless of when the penalty is assessed.
</P>
<P><I>(b)(6)(iv) Renewal policies.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Rollover time accounts.</I> Institutions offering a grace period on time accounts that automatically renew need not state whether interest will be paid if the funds are withdrawn during the grace period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Nonrollover time accounts.</I> Institutions paying interest on funds following the maturity of time accounts that do not renew automatically need not state the rate (or annual percentage yield) that may be paid. (See appendix B, Model Clause B-1(h)(iv)(2).)
</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.5—Subsequent Disclosures
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) Change in terms.</I>
</P>
<P><I>(a)(1) Advance notice required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Form of notice.</I> Institutions may provide a change-in-term notice on or with a periodic statement or in another mailing. If an institution provides notice through revised account disclosures, the changed term must be highlighted in some manner. For example, institutions may note that a particular fee has been changed (also specifying the new amount) or use an accompanying letter that refers to the changed term.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Effective date.</I> An example of language for disclosing the effective date of a change is “As of November 21, 1994.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Terms that change upon the occurrence of an event.</I> An institution offering terms that will automatically change upon the occurrence of a stated event need not send an advance notice of the change provided the institution fully describes the conditions of the change in the account opening disclosures (and sends any change-in-term notices regardless of whether the changed term affects that consumer's account at that time).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of changes not requiring an advance change-in-terms notice are:
</P>
<P>i. The termination of employment for consumers for whom account maintenance or activity fees were waived during their employment by the depository institution.
</P>
<P>ii. The expiration of one year in a promotion described in the account opening disclosures to “waive $4.00 monthly service charges for one year.”
</P>
<P><I>(a)(2) No notice required.</I>
</P>
<P><I>(a)(2)(ii) Check printing fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Increase in fees.</I> A notice is not required for an increase in fees for printing checks (or deposit and withdrawal slips) even if the institution adds some amount to the price charged by the vendor.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one month that renew automatically.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Maturity dates on nonbusiness days.</I> In determining the term of a time account, institutions may disregard the fact that the term will be extended beyond the disclosed number of days because the disclosed maturity falls on a nonbusiness day. For example, a holiday or weekend may cause a “one-year” time account to extend beyond 365 days (or 366, in a leap year) or a “one-month” time account to extend beyond 31 days.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Disclosing when rates will be determined.</I> Ways to disclose when the annual percentage yield will be available include the use of:
</P>
<P>i. A specific date, such as “October 28.”
</P>
<P>ii. A date that is easily determinable, such as “the Tuesday before the maturity date stated on this notice” or “as of the maturity date stated on this notice.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Alternative timing rule.</I> Under the alternative timing rule, an institution offering a 10-day grace period would have to provide the disclosures at least 10 days prior to the scheduled maturity date.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Club accounts.</I> If consumers have agreed to the transfer of payments from another account to a club time account for the next club period, the institution must comply with the requirements for automatically renewable time accounts—even though consumers may withdraw funds from the club account at the end of the current club period.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Renewal of a time account.</I> In the case of a change in terms that becomes effective if a rollover time account is subsequently renewed:
</P>
<P>i. If the change is initiated by the institution, the disclosure requirements of this paragraph apply. (Paragraph 1030.5(a) applies if the change becomes effective prior to the maturity of the existing time account.)
</P>
<P>ii. If the change is initiated by the consumer, the account opening disclosure requirements of § 1030.4(b) apply. (If the notice required by this paragraph has been provided, institutions may give new account disclosures or disclosures highlighting only the new term.)
</P>
<P>6. <I>Example.</I> If a consumer receives a prematurity notice on a one-year time account and requests a rollover to a six-month account, the institution must provide either account opening disclosures including the new maturity date or, if all other terms previously disclosed in the prematurity notice remain the same, only the new maturity date.
</P>
<P><I>(b)(1) Maturities of longer than one year.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Highlighting changed terms.</I> Institutions need not highlight terms that changed since the last account disclosures were provided.
</P>
<P><I>(c) Notice before maturity for time accounts longer than one year that do not renew automatically.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Subsequent account.</I> When funds are transferred following maturity of a nonrollover time account, institutions need not provide account disclosures unless a new account is established.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.6—Periodic Statement Disclosures
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) General rule.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Institutions are not required to provide periodic statements. If they do provide statements, disclosures need only be furnished to the extent applicable. For example, if no interest is earned for a statement period, institutions need not state that fact. Or, institutions may disclose “$0” interest earned and “0%” annual percentage yield earned.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Regulation E interim statements.</I> When an institution provides regular quarterly statements, and in addition provides a monthly interim statement to comply with Regulation E, the interim statement need not comply with this section unless it states interest or rate information. (See 12 CFR 1005.9(b).)
</P>
<P>3. <I>Combined statements.</I> Institutions may provide information about an account (such as a MMDA) on the periodic statement for another account (such as a NOW account) without triggering the disclosures required by this section, as long as:
</P>
<P>i. The information is limited to the account number, the type of account, or balance information, and
</P>
<P>ii. The institution also provides a periodic statement complying with this section for each account.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other information.</I> Additional information that may be given on or with a periodic statement includes:
</P>
<P>i. Interest rates and corresponding periodic rates applied to balances during the statement period.
</P>
<P>ii. The dollar amount of interest earned year-to-date.
</P>
<P>iii. Bonuses paid (or any <I>de minimis</I> consideration of $10 or less).
</P>
<P>iv. Fees for products such as safe deposit boxes.
</P>
<P><I>(a)(1) Annual percentage yield earned.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Ledger and collected balances.</I> Institutions that accrue interest using the collected balance method may use either the ledger or the collected balance in determining the annual percentage yield earned.
</P>
<P><I>(a)(2) Amount of interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Accrued interest.</I> Institutions must state the amount of interest that accrued during the statement period, even if it was not credited.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Terminology.</I> In disclosing interest earned for the period, institutions must use the term “interest” or terminology such as:
</P>
<P>i. “Interest paid,” to describe interest that has been credited.
</P>
<P>ii. “Interest accrued” or “interest earned,” to indicate that interest is not yet credited.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Closed accounts.</I> If consumers close an account between crediting periods and forfeits accrued interest, the institution may not show any figures for interest earned or annual percentage yield earned for the period (other than zero, at the institution's option).
</P>
<P><I>(a)(3) Fees imposed.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Periodic statements must state fees disclosed under § 1030.4(b) that were debited to the account during the statement period, even if assessed for an earlier period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Itemizing fees by type.</I> In itemizing fees imposed more than once in the period, institutions may group fees if they are the same type. (See § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part regarding certain fees that are required to be grouped.) When fees of the same type are grouped together, the description must make clear that the dollar figure represents more than a single fee, for example, “total fees for checks written this period.” Examples of fees that may not be grouped together are—
</P>
<P>i. Monthly maintenance and excess-activity fees.
</P>
<P>ii. “Transfer” fees, if different dollar amounts are imposed, such as $.50 for deposits and $1.00 for withdrawals.
</P>
<P>iii. Fees for electronic fund transfers and fees for other services, such as balance-inquiry or maintenance fees.
</P>
<P>iv. Fees for paying overdrafts and fees for returning checks or other items unpaid.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Identifying fees.</I> Statement details must enable consumers to identify the specific fee. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Institutions may use a code to identify a particular fee if the code is explained on the periodic statement or in documents accompanying the statement.
</P>
<P>ii. Institutions using debit slips may disclose the date the fee was debited on the periodic statement and show the amount and type of fee on the dated debit slip.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Relation to Regulation E.</I> Disclosure of fees in compliance with Regulation E complies with this section for fees related to electronic fund transfers (for example, totaling all electronic funds transfer fees in a single figure).
</P>
<P><I>(a)(4) Length of period.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Institutions providing the beginning and ending dates of the period must make clear whether both dates are included in the period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Opening or closing an account mid-cycle.</I> If an account is opened or closed during the period for which a statement is sent, institutions must calculate the annual percentage yield earned based on account balances for each day the account was open.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Special rule for average daily balance method.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Monthly statements and quarterly compounding.</I> This rule applies, for example, when an institution calculates interest on a quarterly average daily balance and sends monthly statements. In this case, the first two monthly statements would omit annual percentage yield earned and interest earned figures; the third monthly statement would reflect the interest earned and the annual percentage yield earned for the entire quarter.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Length of the period.</I> Institutions must disclose the length of both the interest calculation period and the statement period. For example, a statement could disclose a statement period of April 16 through May 15 and further state that “the interest earned and the annual percentage yield earned are based on your average daily balance for the period April 1 through April 30.”
</P>
<P>3. <I>Quarterly statements and monthly compounding.</I> Institutions that use the average daily balance method to calculate interest on a monthly basis and that send statements on a quarterly basis may disclose a single interest (and annual percentage yield earned) figure. Alternatively, an institution may disclose three interest and three annual percentage yield earned figures, one for each month in the quarter, as long as the institution states the number of days (or beginning and ending dates) in the interest period if different from the statement period.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.7—Payment of Interest
</HD2>
<P><I>(a)(1) Permissible methods.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Prohibited calculation methods.</I> Calculation methods that do not comply with the requirement to pay interest on the full amount of principal in the account each day include:
</P>
<P>i. Paying interest on the balance in the account at the end of the period (the “ending balance” method).
</P>
<P>ii. Paying interest for the period based on the lowest balance in the account for any day in that period (the “low balance” method).
</P>
<P>iii. Paying interest on a percentage of the balance, excluding the amount set aside for reserve requirements (the “investable balance” method).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Use of 365-day basis.</I> Institutions may apply a daily periodic rate greater than 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the interest rate—such as 
<FR>1/360</FR> of the interest rate—as long as it is applied 365 days a year.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Periodic interest payments.</I> An institution can pay interest each day on the account and still make uniform interest payments. For example, for a one-year certificate of deposit an institution could make monthly interest payments equal to 
<FR>1/12</FR> of the amount of interest that will be earned for a 365-day period (or 11 uniform monthly payments—each equal to roughly 
<FR>1/12</FR> of the total amount of interest—and one payment that accounts for the remainder of the total amount of interest earned for the period).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Leap year.</I> Institutions may apply a daily rate of 
<FR>1/366</FR> or 
<FR>1/365</FR> of the interest rate for 366 days in a leap year, if the account will earn interest for February 29.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Maturity of time accounts.</I> Institutions are not required to pay interest after time accounts mature. (See 12 CFR Part 217, Regulation Q of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, for limitations on duration of interest payments.) Examples include:
</P>
<P>i. During a grace period offered for an automatically renewable time account, if consumers decide during that period not to renew the account.
</P>
<P>ii. Following the maturity of nonrollover time accounts.
</P>
<P>iii. When the maturity date falls on a holiday, and consumers must wait until the next business day to obtain the funds.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Dormant accounts.</I> Institutions must pay interest on funds in an account, even if inactivity or the infrequency of transactions would permit the institution to consider the account to be “inactive” or “dormant” (or similar status) as defined by state or other law or the account contract.
</P>
<P><I>(a)(2) Determination of minimum balance to earn interest.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Daily balance accounts.</I> Institutions that require a minimum balance may choose not to pay interest for days when the balance drops below the required minimum, if they use the daily balance method to calculate interest.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Average daily balance accounts.</I> Institutions that require a minimum balance may choose not to pay interest for the period in which the balance drops below the required minimum, if they use the average daily balance method to calculate interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Beneficial method.</I> Institutions may not require that consumers maintain both a minimum daily balance and a minimum average daily balance to earn interest, such as by requiring consumers to maintain a $500 daily balance and a prescribed average daily balance (whether higher or lower). But an institution could offer a minimum balance to earn interest that includes an additional method that is “unequivocally beneficial” to consumers such as the following: An institution using the daily balance method to calculate interest and requiring a $500 minimum daily balance could offer to pay interest on the account for those days the minimum balance is not met as long as consumers maintain an average daily balance throughout the month of $400.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Paying on full balance.</I> Institutions must pay interest on the full balance in the account that meets the required minimum balance. For example, if $300 is the minimum daily balance required to earn interest, and a consumer deposits $500, the institution must pay the stated interest rate on the full $500 and not just on $200.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Negative balances prohibited.</I> Institutions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine:
</P>
<P>i. The daily or average daily balance on which interest will be paid.
</P>
<P>ii. Whether any minimum balance to earn interest is met.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Club accounts.</I> Institutions offering club accounts (such as a “holiday” or “vacation” club) cannot impose a minimum balance requirement for interest based on the total number or dollar amount of payments required under the club plan. For example, if a plan calls for $10 weekly payments for 50 weeks, the institution cannot set a $500 “minimum balance” and then pay interest only if the consumer has made all 50 payments.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Minimum balances not affecting interest.</I> Institutions may use the daily balance, average daily balance, or any other computation method to calculate minimum balance requirements not involving the payment of interest—such as to compute minimum balances for assessing fees.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Compounding and crediting policies.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Institutions choosing to compound interest may compound or credit interest annually, semi-annually, quarterly, monthly, daily, continuously, or on any other basis.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Withdrawals prior to crediting date.</I> If consumers withdraw funds (without closing the account) prior to a scheduled crediting date, institutions may delay paying the accrued interest on the withdrawn amount until the scheduled crediting date, but may not avoid paying interest.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Closed accounts.</I> Subject to state or other law, an institution may choose not to pay accrued interest if consumers close an account prior to the date accrued interest is credited, as long as the institution has disclosed that fact.
</P>
<P><I>(c) Date interest begins to accrue.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Relation to Regulation CC.</I> Institutions may rely on the Expedited Funds Availability Act (EFAA) and Regulation CC (12 CFR part 229) to determine, for example, when a deposit is considered made for purposes of interest accrual, or when interest need not be paid on funds because a deposited check is later returned unpaid.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Ledger and collected balances.</I> Institutions may calculate interest by using a “ledger” or “collected” balance method, as long as the crediting requirements of the EFAA are met (12 CFR 229.14).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Withdrawal of principal.</I> Institutions must accrue interest on funds until the funds are withdrawn from the account. For example, if a check is debited to an account on a Tuesday, the institution must accrue interest on those funds through Monday.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.8—Advertising
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) Misleading or inaccurate advertisements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> All advertisements are subject to the rule against misleading or inaccurate advertisements, even though the disclosures applicable to various media differ.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Indoor signs.</I> An indoor sign advertising an annual percentage yield is not misleading or inaccurate when:
</P>
<P>i. For a tiered-rate account, it also provides the lower dollar amount of the tier corresponding to the advertised annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>ii. For a time account, it also provides the term required to obtain the advertised annual percentage yield.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Fees affecting “free” accounts.</I> For purposes of determining whether an account can be advertised as “free” or “no cost,” maintenance and activity fees include:
</P>
<P>i. Any fee imposed when a minimum balance requirement is not met, or when consumers exceed a specified number of transactions.
</P>
<P>ii. Transaction and service fees that consumers reasonably expect to be imposed on a regular basis.
</P>
<P>iii. A flat fee, such as a monthly service fee.
</P>
<P>iv. Fees imposed to deposit, withdraw, or transfer funds, including per-check or per-transaction charges (for example, $.25 for each withdrawal, whether by check or in person).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Other fees.</I> Examples of fees that are not maintenance or activity fees include:
</P>
<P>i. Fees not required to be disclosed under § 1030.4(b)(4).
</P>
<P>ii. Check printing fees.
</P>
<P>iii. Balance inquiry fees.
</P>
<P>iv. Stop-payment fees and fees associated with checks returned unpaid.
</P>
<P>v. Fees assessed against a dormant account.
</P>
<P>vi. Fees for ATM or electronic transfer services (such as preauthorized transfers or home banking services) not required to obtain an account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Similar terms.</I> An advertisement may not use the term “fees waived” if a maintenance or activity fee may be imposed because it is similar to the terms “free” or “no cost.”
</P>
<P>6. <I>Specific account services.</I> Institutions may advertise a specific account service or feature as free if no fee is imposed for that service or feature. For example, institutions offering an account that is free of deposit or withdrawal fees could advertise that fact, as long as the advertisement does not mislead consumers by implying that the account is free and that no other fee (a monthly service fee, for example) may be charged.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Free for limited time.</I> If an account (or a specific account service) is free only for a limited period of time—for example, for one year following the account opening—the account (or service) may be advertised as free if the time period is also stated.
</P>
<P>8. <I>Conditions not related to deposit accounts.</I> Institutions may advertise accounts as “free” for consumers meeting conditions not related to deposit accounts, such as the consumer's age. For example, institutions may advertise a NOW account as “free for persons over 65 years old,” even though a maintenance or activity fee is assessed on accounts held by consumers 65 or younger.
</P>
<P>9. <I>Electronic advertising.</I> If an electronic advertisement (such as an advertisement appearing on an Internet Web site) displays a triggering term (such as a bonus or annual percentage yield) the advertisement must clearly refer the consumer to the location where the additional required information begins. For example, an advertisement that includes a bonus or annual percentage yield may be accompanied by a link that directly takes the consumer to the additional information.
</P>
<P>10. <I>Examples.</I> Examples of advertisements that would ordinarily be misleading, inaccurate, or misrepresent the deposit contract are:
</P>
<P>i. Representing an overdraft service as a “line of credit,” unless the service is subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR part 1026.
</P>
<P>ii. Representing that the institution will honor all checks or authorize payment of all transactions that overdraw an account, with or without a specified dollar limit, when the institution retains discretion at any time not to honor checks or authorize transactions.
</P>
<P>iii. Representing that consumers with an overdrawn account are allowed to maintain a negative balance when the terms of the account's overdraft service require consumers promptly to return the deposit account to a positive balance.
</P>
<P>iv. Describing an institution's overdraft service solely as protection against bounced checks when the institution also permits overdrafts for a fee for overdrawing their accounts by other means, such as ATM withdrawals, debit card transactions, or other electronic fund transfers.
</P>
<P>v. Advertising an account-related service for which the institution charges a fee in an advertisement that also uses the word “free” or “no cost” (or a similar term) to describe the account, unless the advertisement clearly and conspicuously indicates that there is a cost associated with the service. If the fee is a maintenance or activity fee under § 1030.8(a)(2) of this part, however, an advertisement may not describe the account as “free” or “no cost” (or contain a similar term) even if the fee is disclosed in the advertisement.
</P>
<P>11. <I>Additional disclosures in connection with the payment of overdrafts.</I> The rule in § 1030.3(a), providing that disclosures required by § 1030.8 may be provided to the consumer in electronic form without regard to E-Sign Act requirements, applies to the disclosures described in § 1030.11(b), which are incorporated by reference in § 1030.8(f).
</P>
<P>(b) Permissible rates.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> An advertisement for a tiered-rate account that states an annual percentage yield must also state the annual percentage yield for each tier, along with corresponding minimum balance requirements. Any interest rates stated must appear in conjunction with the applicable annual percentage yields for each tier.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Stepped-rate accounts.</I> An advertisement that states an interest rate for a stepped-rate account must state all the interest rates and the time period that each rate is in effect.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Representative examples.</I> An advertisement that states an annual percentage yield for a given type of account (such as a time account for a specified term) need not state the annual percentage yield applicable to other time accounts offered by the institution or indicate that other maturity terms are available. In an advertisement stating that rates for an account may vary depending on the amount of the initial deposit or the term of a time account, institutions need not list each balance level and term offered. Instead, the advertisement may:
</P>
<P>i. Provide a representative example of the annual percentage yields offered, clearly described as such. For example, if an institution offers a $25 bonus on all time accounts and the annual percentage yield will vary depending on the term selected, the institution may provide a disclosure of the annual percentage yield as follows: “For example, our 6-month certificate of deposit currently pays a 3.15% annual percentage yield.”
</P>
<P>ii. Indicate that various rates are available, such as by stating short-term and longer-term maturities along with the applicable annual percentage yields: “We offer certificates of deposit with annual percentage yields that depend on the maturity you choose. For example, our one-month CD earns a 2.75% APY. Or, earn a 5.25% APY for a three-year CD.”
</P>
<P><I>(c) When additional disclosures are required.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Trigger terms.</I> The following are examples of information stated in advertisements that are not “trigger” terms:
</P>
<P>i. “One, three, and five year CDs available.”
</P>
<P>ii. “Bonus rates available.”
</P>
<P>iii. “1% over our current rates,” so long as the rates are not determinable from the advertisement.
</P>
<P><I>(c)(2) Time annual percentage yield is offered.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Specified date.</I> If an advertisement discloses an annual percentage yield as of a specified date, that date must be recent in relation to the publication or broadcast frequency of the media used, taking into account the particular circumstances or production deadlines involved. For example, the printing date of a brochure printed once for a deposit account promotion that will be in effect for six months would be considered “recent,” even though rates change during the six-month period. Rates published in a daily newspaper or on television must reflect rates offered shortly before (or on) the date the rates are published or broadcast.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reference to date of publication.</I> An advertisement may refer to the annual percentage yield as being accurate as of the date of publication, if the date is on the publication itself. For instance, an advertisement in a periodical may state that a rate is “current through the date of this issue,” if the periodical shows the date.
</P>
<P><I>(c)(5) Effect of fees.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Scope.</I> This requirement applies only to maintenance or activity fees described in comment 8(a).
</P>
<P><I>(c)(6) Features of time accounts.</I>
</P>
<P>(c)(6)(i) Time requirements.
</P>
<P>1. <I>Club accounts.</I> If a club account has a maturity date but the term may vary depending on when the account is opened, institutions may use a phrase such as: “The maturity date of this club account is November 15; its term varies depending on when the account is opened.”
</P>
<P><I>(c)(6)(ii) Early withdrawal penalties.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Discretionary penalties.</I> Institutions imposing early withdrawal penalties on a case-by-case basis may disclose that they “may” (rather than “will”) impose a penalty if such a disclosure accurately describes the account terms.
</P>
<P><I>(d) Bonuses.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General reference to “bonus.”</I> General statements such as “bonus checking” or “get a bonus when you open a checking account” do not trigger the bonus disclosures.
</P>
<P><I>(e) Exemption for certain advertisements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>(e)(1) Certain media.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph (e)(1)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Internet advertisements.</I> The exemption for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media does not extend to advertisements posted on the Internet or sent by email.
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph (e)(1)(iii).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Tiered-rate accounts.</I> Solicitations for a tiered-rate account made through telephone response machines must provide the annual percentage yields and the balance requirements applicable to each tier.
</P>
<P><I>(e)(2) Indoor signs.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Paragraph (e)(2)(i).</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Indoor signs include advertisements displayed on computer screens, banners, preprinted posters, and chalk or peg boards. Any advertisement inside the premises that can be retained by a consumer (such as a brochure or a printout from a computer) is not an indoor sign.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.9—Enforcement and Record Retention
</HD2>
<P><I>(c) Record retention.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Evidence of required actions.</I> Institutions comply with the regulation by demonstrating that they have done the following:
</P>
<P>i. Established and maintained procedures for paying interest and providing timely disclosures as required by the regulation, and
</P>
<P>ii. Retained sample disclosures for each type of account offered to consumers, such as account-opening disclosures, copies of advertisements, and change-in-term notices; and information regarding the interest rates and annual percentage yields offered.2. <I>Methods of retaining evidence.</I> Institutions must be able to reconstruct the required disclosures or other actions. They need not keep disclosures or other business records in hard copy. Records evidencing compliance may be retained on microfilm, microfiche, or by other methods that reproduce records accurately (including computer files).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Payment of interest.</I> Institutions must retain sufficient rate and balance information to permit the verification of interest paid on an account, including the payment of interest on the full principal balance.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1030.10 [Reserved]
</HD2>
<HD2>Section 1030.11—Additional Disclosures Regarding the Payment of Overdrafts
</HD2>
<P><I>(a) Disclosure of total fees on periodic statements.</I>
</P>
<P><I>(a)(1) General.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Transfer services.</I> The overdraft services covered by § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another deposit account of the consumer to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees for paying overdrafts.</I> Institutions must disclose on periodic statements a total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for paying overdrafts. The institution must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. The total dollar amount for each of these periods includes per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, or fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check, debit card transaction, or by any other transaction type. It also includes fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. It does not include fees for transferring funds from another account of the consumer to avoid an overdraft, or fees charged under a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026). <I>See also</I> comment 11(c)-2. Under § 1030.11(a)(1)(i), the disclosure must describe the total dollar amount for all fees or charges imposed on the account for the statement period and calendar year-to-date for paying overdrafts using the term “Total Overdraft Fees.” This requirement applies notwithstanding comment 3(a)-2.3. <I>Fees for returning items unpaid.</I> The total dollar amount for all fees for returning items unpaid must include all fees charged to the account for dishonoring or returning checks or other items drawn on the account. The institution must disclose separate totals for the statement period and for the calendar year-to-date. Fees imposed when deposited items are returned are not included. Institutions may use terminology such as “returned item fee” or “NSF fee” to describe fees for returning items unpaid.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Waived fees.</I> In some cases, an institution may provide a statement for the current period reflecting that fees imposed during a previous period were waived and credited to the account. Institutions may, but are not required to, reflect the adjustment in the total for the calendar year-to-date and in the applicable statement period. For example, if an institution assesses a fee in January and refunds the fee in February, the institution could disclose a year-to-date total reflecting the amount credited, but it should not affect the total disclosed for the February statement period, because the fee was not assessed in the February statement period. If an institution assesses and then waives and credits a fee within the same cycle, the institution may, at its option, reflect the adjustment in the total disclosed for fees imposed during the current statement period and for the total for the calendar year-to-date. Thus, if the institution assesses and waives the fee in the February statement period, the February fee total could reflect a total net of the waived fee.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Totals for the calendar year to date.</I> Some institutions' statement periods do not coincide with the calendar month. In such cases, the institution may disclose a calendar year-to-date total by aggregating fees for 12 monthly cycles, starting with the period that begins during January and finishing with the period that begins during December. For example, if statement periods begin on the 10th day of each month, the statement covering December 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007 may disclose the year-to-date total for fees imposed from January 10, 2006 through January 9, 2007. Alternatively, the institution could provide a statement for the cycle ending January 9, 2007 showing the year-to-date total for fees imposed January 1, 2006 through December 31, 2006.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Itemization of fees.</I> An institution may itemize each fee in addition to providing the disclosures required by § 1030.11(a)(1) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>(a)(3) Format requirements.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Time period covered by periodic statement disclosures.</I> The disclosures under § 1030.11(a) must be included on periodic statements provided by an institution starting the first statement period that begins after January 1, 2010. For example, if a consumer's statement period typically closes on the 15th of each month, an institution must provide the disclosures required by § 1030.11(a)(1) on subsequent periodic statements for that consumer beginning with the statement reflecting the period from January 16, 2010 to February 15, 2010.
</P>
<P><I>(b) Advertising disclosures for overdraft services.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Examples of institutions promoting the payment of overdrafts.</I> A depository institution would be required to include the advertising disclosures in § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part if the institution:
</P>
<P>i. Promotes the institution's policy or practice of paying overdrafts (unless the service would be subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026)). This includes advertisements using print media such as newspapers or brochures, telephone solicitations, electronic mail, or messages posted on an Internet site. (But see § 1030.11(b)(2) of this part for communications that are not subject to the additional advertising disclosures.)
</P>
<P>ii. Includes a message on a periodic statement informing the consumer of an overdraft limit or the amount of funds available for overdrafts. For example, an institution that includes a message on a periodic statement informing the consumer of a $500 overdraft limit or that the consumer has $300 remaining on the overdraft limit, is promoting an overdraft service.
</P>
<P>iii. Discloses an overdraft limit or includes the dollar amount of an overdraft limit in a balance disclosed on an automated system, such as a telephone response machine, ATM screen or the institution's Internet site. (See, however, § 1030.11(b)(3) of this part.)
</P>
<P>2. <I>Transfer services.</I> The overdraft services covered by § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part do not include a service providing for the transfer of funds from another deposit account of the consumer to permit the payment of items without creating an overdraft, even if a fee is charged for the transfer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Electronic media.</I> The exception for advertisements made through broadcast or electronic media, such as television or radio, does not apply to advertisements posted on an institution's Internet site, on an ATM screen, provided on telephone response machines, or sent by electronic mail.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Fees.</I> The fees that must be disclosed under § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part include per-item fees as well as interest charges, daily or other periodic fees, and fees charged for maintaining an account in overdraft status, whether the overdraft is by check or by other means. The fees also include fees charged when there are insufficient funds because previously deposited funds are subject to a hold or are uncollected. The fees do not include fees for transferring funds from another account to avoid an overdraft, or fees charged when the institution has previously agreed in writing to pay items that overdraw the account and the service is subject to Regulation Z, 12 CFR Part 1026.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Categories of transactions.</I> An exhaustive list of transactions is not required. Disclosing that a fee may be imposed for covering overdrafts “created by check, in-person withdrawal, ATM withdrawal, or other electronic means” would satisfy the requirements of § 1030.11(b)(1)(ii) of this part where the fee may be imposed in these circumstances. See comment 4(b)(4)-5 of this part.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Time period to repay.</I> If a depository institution reserves the right to require a consumer to pay an overdraft immediately or on demand instead of affording consumers a specific time period to establish a positive balance in the account, an institution may comply with § 1030.11(b)(1)(iii) of this part by disclosing this fact.
</P>
<P>7. <I>Circumstances for nonpayment.</I> An institution must describe the circumstances under which it will not pay an overdraft. It is sufficient to state, as applicable: “Whether your overdrafts will be paid is discretionary and we reserve the right not to pay. For example, we typically do not pay overdrafts if your account is not in good standing, or you are not making regular deposits, or you have too many overdrafts.”
</P>
<P>8. <I>Advertising an account as “free.”</I> If the advertised account-related service is an overdraft service subject to the requirements of § 1030.11(b)(1) of this part, institutions must disclose the fee or fees for the payment of each overdraft, not merely that a cost is associated with the overdraft service, as well as other required information. Compliance with comment 8(a)-10.v. is not sufficient.
</P>
<P><I>(c) Disclosure of account balances.</I>
</P>
<P>1. <I>Balance that does not include additional amounts.</I> For purposes of the balance disclosure requirement in § 1030.11(c), if an institution discloses balance information to a consumer through an automated system, it must disclose a balance that excludes any funds that the institution may provide to cover an overdraft pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service, that will be paid by the institution under a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR Part 1026), or that will be transferred from another account held individually or jointly by a consumer. The balance may, but need not, include funds that are deposited in the consumer's account, such as from a check, that are not yet made available for withdrawal in accordance with the funds availability rules under Regulation CC of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 229). In addition, the balance may, but need not, include funds that are held by the institution to satisfy a prior obligation of the consumer (for example, to cover a hold for an ATM or debit card transaction that has been authorized but for which the bank has not settled).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Retail sweep programs.</I> In a retail sweep program, an institution establishes two legally distinct subaccounts, a transaction subaccount and a savings subaccount, which together make up the consumer's account. The institution allocates and transfers funds between the two subaccounts in order to maximize the balance in the savings account while complying with the monthly limitations on transfers out of savings accounts under Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 204.2(d)(2)). Retail sweep programs are generally not established for the purpose of covering overdrafts. Rather, institutions typically establish retail sweep programs by agreement with the consumer, in order for the institution to minimize its transaction account reserve requirements and, in some cases, to provide a higher interest rate than the consumer would earn on a transaction account alone. Section 1030.11(c) does not require an institution to exclude from the consumer's balance funds that may be transferred from another account pursuant to a retail sweep program that is established for such purposes and that has the following characteristics:
</P>
<P>i. The account involved complies with Regulation D of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR 204.2(d)(2));
</P>
<P>ii. The consumer does not have direct access to the non-transaction subaccount that is part of the retail sweep program; and
</P>
<P>iii. The consumer's periodic statements show the account balance as the combined balance in the subaccounts.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Additional balance.</I> The institution may disclose additional balances supplemented by funds that may be provided by the institution to cover an overdraft, whether pursuant to a discretionary overdraft service, a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR Part 1026), or a service that transfers funds from another account held individually or jointly by the consumer, so long as the institution prominently states that any additional balance includes these additional overdraft amounts. The institution may not simply state, for instance, that the second balance is the consumer's “available balance,” or contains “available funds.” Rather, the institution should provide enough information to convey that the second balance includes these amounts. For example, the institution may state that the balance includes “overdraft funds.” Where a consumer has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of the institution's discretionary overdraft service, any additional balance disclosed should not include funds that otherwise might be available under that service. Where a consumer has not opted into, or as applicable, has opted out of, the institution's discretionary overdraft service for some, but not all transactions (<I>e.g.</I> , the consumer has not opted into overdraft services for ATM and one-time debit card transactions), an institution that includes these additional overdraft funds in the second balance should convey that the overdraft funds are not available for all transactions. For example, the institution could state that overdraft funds are not available for ATM and one-time (or everyday) debit card transactions. Similarly, if funds are not available for all transactions pursuant to a service subject to Regulation Z (12 CFR part 1026) or a service that transfers funds from another account, a second balance that includes such funds should also indicate this fact.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Automated systems.</I> The balance disclosure requirement in § 1030.11(c) applies to any automated system through which the consumer requests a balance, including, but not limited to, a telephone response system, the institution's Internet site, or an ATM. The requirement applies whether the institution discloses a balance through an ATM owned or operated by the institution or through an ATM not owned or operated by the institution (including an ATM operated by a non-depository institution). If the balance is obtained at an ATM, the requirement also applies whether the balance is disclosed on the ATM screen or on a paper receipt.


</P>
<HD2>Appendix A to Part 1030—Annual Percentage Yield Calculation
</HD2>
<HD3>Part I. Annual Percentage Yield for Account Disclosures and Advertising Purposes
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rounding for calculations.</I> The following are examples of permissible rounding for calculating interest and the annual percentage yield:
</P>
<P>i. The daily rate applied to a balance carried to five or more decimal places
</P>
<P>ii. The daily interest earned carried to five or more decimal places
</P>
<HD3>Part II. Annual Percentage Yield Earned for Periodic Statements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Balance method.</I> The interest figure used in the calculation of the annual percentage yield earned may be derived from the daily balance method or the average daily balance method. The balance used in the formula for the annual percentage yield earned is the sum of the balances for each day in the period divided by the number of days in the period.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Negative balances prohibited.</I> Institutions must treat a negative account balance as zero to determine the balance on which the annual percentage yield earned is calculated. (See commentary to § 1030.7(a)(2).)
</P>
<HD3>A. General Formula
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Accrued but uncredited interest.</I> To calculate the annual percentage yield earned, accrued but uncredited interest:
</P>
<P>i. May not be included in the balance for statements issued at the same time or less frequently than the account's compounding and crediting frequency. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds interest daily and credits interest monthly, the balance may not be increased each day to reflect the effect of daily compounding.
</P>
<P>ii. Must be included in the balance for succeeding statements if a statement is issued more frequently than compounded interest is credited on an account. For example, if monthly statements are sent for an account that compounds interest daily and credits interest quarterly, the balance for the second monthly statement would include interest that had accrued for the prior month.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Rounding.</I> The interest earned figure used to calculate the annual percentage yield earned must be rounded to two decimals and reflect the amount actually paid. For example, if the interest earned for a statement period is $20.074 and the institution pays the consumer $20.07, the institution must use $20.07 (not $20.074) to calculate the annual percentage yield earned. For accounts paying interest based on the daily balance method that compound and credit interest quarterly, and send monthly statements, the institution may, but need not, round accrued interest to two decimals for calculating the annual percentage yield earned on the first two monthly statements issued during the quarter. However, on the quarterly statement the interest earned figure must reflect the amount actually paid.
</P>
<HD2>B. Special Formula for Use Where Periodic Statement Is Sent More Often Than the Period for Which Interest Is Compounded
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Statements triggered by Regulation E.</I> Institutions may, but need not, use this formula to calculate the annual percentage yield earned for accounts that receive quarterly statements and are subject to Regulation E's rule calling for monthly statements when an electronic fund transfer has occurred. They may do so even though no monthly statement was issued during a specific quarter. But institutions must use this formula for accounts that compound and credit interest quarterly and receive monthly statements that, while triggered by Regulation E, comply with the provisions of § 1030.6.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Days in compounding period.</I> Institutions using the special annual percentage yield earned formula must use the actual number of days in the compounding period.


</P>
<HD2>Appendix B to Part 1030—Model Clauses and Sample Forms
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Modifications.</I> Institutions that modify the model clauses will be deemed in compliance as long as they do not delete required information or rearrange the format in a way that affects the substance or clarity of the disclosures.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Format.</I> Institutions may use inserts to a document (see Sample Form B-4) or fill-in blanks (see Sample Forms B-5, B-6 and B-7, which use underlining to indicate terms that have been filled in) to show current rates, fees, or other terms.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Disclosures for opening accounts.</I> The sample forms illustrate the information that must be provided to consumers when an account is opened, as required by § 1030.4(a)(1). (See § 1030.4(a)(2), which states the requirements for disclosing the annual percentage yield, the interest rate, and the maturity of a time account in responding to a consumer's request.)
</P>
<P>4. <I>Compliance with Regulation E.</I> Institutions may satisfy certain requirements under Regulation DD with disclosures that meet the requirements of Regulation E. (See § 1030.3(c).) For disclosures covered by both this part and Regulation E (such as the amount of fees for ATM usage, institutions should consult appendix A to Regulation E for appropriate model clauses.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Duplicate disclosures.</I> If a requirement such as a minimum balance applies to more than one account term (to obtain a bonus and determine the annual percentage yield, for example), institutions need not repeat the requirement for each term, as long as it is clear which terms the requirement applies to.
</P>
<P>6. <I>Sample forms.</I> The sample forms (B-4 through B-8) serve a purpose different from the model clauses. They illustrate ways of adapting the model clauses to specific accounts. The clauses shown relate only to the specific transactions described.
</P>
<HD3>B-1 Model Clauses for Account Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>B-1(h) Disclosures Relating to Time Accounts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Maturity.</I> The disclosure in Clause (h)(i) stating a specific date may be used in all cases. The statement describing a time period is appropriate only when providing disclosures in response to a consumer's request.
</P>
<HD1>B-2 Model Clauses for Change in Terms
</HD1>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The second clause, describing a future decrease in the interest rate and annual percentage yield, applies to fixed-rate accounts only.
</P>
<HD3>B-4 Sample Form (Multiple Accounts)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Rate sheet insert.</I> In the rate sheet insert, the calculations of the annual percentage yield for the three-month and six-month certificates are based on 92 days and 181 days respectively. All calculations in the insert assume daily compounding.
</P>
<HD3>B-6 Sample Form (Tiered-Rate Money Market Account)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Sample Form B-6 uses Tiering Method A (discussed in appendix A and Clause (a)(iv)) to calculate interest. It gives a narrative description of a tiered-rate account; institutions may use different formats (for example, a chart similar to the one in Sample Form B-4), as long as all required information for each tier is clearly presented. The form does not contain a separate disclosure of the minimum balance required to obtain the annual percentage yield; the tiered-rate disclosure provides that information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 79278, Dec. 21, 2011, as amended at 84 FR 31701, July 3, 2019; 89 FR 82934, 82942, Oct. 15, 2024; 89 FR 95083, Dec. 2, 2024; 89 FR 104400, Dec. 23, 2024]







 


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1033" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1033—PERSONAL FINANCIAL DATA RIGHTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512; 12 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 5533.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 90989, Nov. 18, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.101   Authority, purpose, and organization.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part is issued by the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) pursuant to the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010 (CFPA), Pub. L. 111-203, tit. X, 124 Stat. 1955.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part implements the provisions of section 1033 of the CFPA by requiring data providers to make available to consumers and authorized third parties, upon request, covered data in the data provider's control or possession concerning a covered consumer financial product or service, in an electronic form usable by consumers and authorized third parties; and by prescribing standards to promote the development and use of standardized formats for covered data, including through industry standards developed by standard-setting bodies recognized by the CFPB. This part also sets forth obligations of third parties that would access covered data on a consumer's behalf, including limitations on their collection, use, and retention of covered data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Organization.</I> This part is divided into subparts as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A establishes the authority, purpose, organization, coverage of data providers, compliance dates, and definitions applicable to this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B provides the general obligation of data providers to make covered data available upon the request of a consumer or authorized third party, including what types of information must be made available.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C provides the requirements for data providers to establish and maintain interfaces to receive and respond to requests for covered data.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D provides the obligations of third parties that would access covered data on behalf of a consumer.
</P>
<P>(5) Appendix A to this part provides instructions for how a standard-setting body would apply for CFPB recognition.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.111" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.111   Coverage of data providers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Coverage of data providers.</I> A data provider has obligations under this part if it controls or possesses covered data concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from the data provider, subject to the exclusion in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition of covered consumer financial product or service. Covered consumer financial product or service</I> means a consumer financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(5), that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>Regulation E account,</I> which means an account, as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b);
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>Regulation Z credit card,</I> which means a credit card, as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(15)(i); or
</P>
<P>(3) Facilitation of payments from a Regulation E account or Regulation Z credit card, excluding products or services that merely facilitate first party payments. For purposes of this part, a first party payment is a transfer initiated by the payee or an agent acting on behalf of the underlying payee. First party payments include payments initiated by loan servicers.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of data provider. Data provider</I> means a covered person, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(6), that is:
</P>
<P>(1) A <I>financial institution,</I> as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(i);
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>card issuer,</I> as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(7); or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other person that controls or possesses information concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from that person.
</P>
<P><I>Example 1 to paragraph (c):</I> A digital wallet provider is a data provider.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Coverage threshold—Certain depository institutions.</I> The requirements of subparts B and C of this part do not apply to data providers defined under paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section that are depository institutions that hold total assets equal to or less than the Small Business Administration (SBA) size standard, as determined in accordance with this paragraph (d). If at any point a depository institution that held total assets greater than that SBA size standard as of or at any point after January 17, 2025 subsequently holds total assets below that amount, the requirements of subparts B and C of this part continue to apply.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Determining SBA size standard.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the SBA size standard is the SBA size standard for the data provider's appropriate North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) code for commercial banking, credit unions, savings institutions and other depository credit intermediation, or credit card issuing, as codified in 13 CFR 121.201.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculating total assets.</I> For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, total assets held by a depository institution are determined by averaging the assets reported on its own four preceding quarterly call report submissions to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council or National Credit Union Association, as applicable, or its submissions to the appropriate oversight body to the extent it does not submit such reports to the Federal Financial Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Merger or acquisition—coverage of surviving depository institution when there are not four quarterly call report submissions.</I> After a merger or acquisition the surviving depository institution shall determine quarterly assets prior to the merger or acquisition by using the combined assets reported on the quarterly call report submissions by all predecessor depository institutions. The surviving depository institution shall determine quarterly assets after the merger or acquisition by using the assets reported on the quarterly call report submissions by the surviving depository institution. The surviving depository institution shall determine total assets by using the average of the quarterly assets for the four preceding quarters, whether the quarterly assets are the combined assets of the predecessor depository institutions or from the surviving depository institution.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.121" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.121   Compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determining assets and revenue for purposes of initial compliance dates.</I> A data provider's compliance date in paragraph (b) of this section is based on the calculation of total assets or total receipts, as appropriate, described in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a depository institution data provider, total assets are determined by averaging the assets reported on its 2023 third quarter, 2023 fourth quarter, 2024 first quarter, and 2024 second quarter call report submissions to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration, as applicable, or its submissions to the appropriate oversight body to the extent it does not submit such reports to the Federal Financial Examination Council or National Credit Union Administration. If, as a result of a merger or acquisition, a depository institution data provider does not have the named four quarterly call report submissions, the depository institution data provider shall use the process set out in § 1033.111(d)(3) to determine total assets for the time period named in this paragraph (a)(1).
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a nondepository institution data provider, total receipts are calculated based on the SBA definition of receipts, as codified in 13 CFR 121.104(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial compliance dates.</I> A data provider defined under § 1033.111(c)(1) through (3) must comply with the requirements in subparts B and C of this part beginning on:
</P>
<P>(1) April 1, 2026, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $250 billion in total assets and nondepository institution data providers that generated at least $10 billion in total receipts in either calendar year 2023 or calendar year 2024.
</P>
<P>(2) April 1, 2027, for data providers that are:
</P>
<P>(i) Depository institutions that hold at least $10 billion in total assets but less than $250 billion in total assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Nondepository institutions that did not generate $10 billion or more in total receipts in both calendar year 2023 and calendar year 2024.
</P>
<P>(3) April 1, 2028, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $3 billion in total assets but less than $10 billion in total assets.
</P>
<P>(4) April 1, 2029, for depository institution data providers that hold at least $1.5 billion in total assets but less than $3 billion in total assets.
</P>
<P>(5) April 1, 2030, for depository institution data providers that hold less than $1.5 billion in total assets but more than $850 million in total assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance dates for depository institution data providers that subsequently cross coverage threshold.</I> A depository institution data provider under § 1033.111(c)(1) through (3) that has total assets as calculated in § 1033.111(d)(2) equal to or less than the SBA size standard as determined in accordance with § 1033.111(d)(1), but that subsequently holds total assets that exceed that SBA size standard, as measured in § 1033.111(d)(2), must comply with the requirements in subparts B and C of this part within a reasonable amount of time after exceeding the size standard, not to exceed five years.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.131" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.131   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Authorized third party</I> means a third party that has complied with the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401.
</P>
<P><I>Card issuer</I> is defined at § 1033.111(c)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Consensus standard</I> means a standard that is adopted by a recognized standard setter and that continues to be maintained by that recognized standard setter.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means a natural person. Trusts established for tax or estate planning purposes are considered natural persons for purposes of this definition. <I>Consumer</I> also includes guardians, trustees, custodians, or other similar natural persons acting on behalf of a consumer pursuant to State law.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer interface</I> means an interface through which a data provider receives requests for covered data and makes available covered data in an electronic form usable by consumers in response to the requests.
</P>
<P><I>Covered consumer financial product or service</I> is defined at § 1033.111(b).
</P>
<P><I>Covered data</I> is defined at § 1033.211.
</P>
<P><I>Data aggregator</I> means a person that is retained by and provides services to the authorized third party to enable access to covered data.
</P>
<P><I>Data provider</I> is defined at § 1033.111(c).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means any depository institution as defined by the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(1), or any credit union as defined by 12 CFR 700.2.
</P>
<P><I>Developer interface</I> means an interface through which a data provider receives requests for covered data and makes available covered data in an electronic form usable by authorized third parties in response to the requests.
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution</I> is defined at § 1033.111(c)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Recognized standard setter</I> means a standard-setting body that has been recognized by the CFPB under § 1033.141.
</P>
<P><I>Regulation E account</I> is defined at § 1033.111(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Regulation Z credit card</I> is defined at § 1033.111(b)(2).
</P>
<P><I>Third party</I> means any person that is not the consumer about whom the covered data pertains or the data provider that controls or possesses the consumer's covered data.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.141" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.141   Standard-setting bodies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recognition of a standard-setting body.</I> A standard-setting body may request CFPB recognition. Recognition will last up to five years, absent revocation. The CFPB will not recognize a standard-setting body unless it demonstrates that it satisfies the following attributes:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Openness.</I> The sources, procedures, and processes used are open to all interested parties, including: consumer and other public interest groups with expertise in consumer protection, financial services, community development, fair lending, and civil rights; authorized third parties; data providers; data recipients; data aggregators and other providers of services to authorized third parties; and relevant trade associations. Parties can meaningfully participate in standards development on a non-discriminatory basis.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Balance.</I> The decision-making power is balanced across all interested parties, including consumer and other public interest groups, and is reflected at all levels of the standard-setting body. There is meaningful representation for large and small commercial entities within these categories. No single interest or set of interests dominates decision-making. Achieving balance requires recognition that, even when a participant may play multiple roles, such as data provider and authorized third party, the weight of that participant's commercial concerns may align primarily with one set of interests. The ownership of participants is considered in achieving balance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Due process and appeals.</I> The standard-setting body uses documented and publicly available policies and procedures, and it provides adequate notice of meetings and standards development, sufficient time to review drafts and prepare views and objections, access to views and objections of other participants, and a fair and impartial process for resolving conflicting views. An appeals process is available for the impartial handling of procedural appeals.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consensus.</I> Standards development proceeds by consensus, which is defined as general agreement, though not necessarily unanimity. During the development of consensus, comments and objections are considered using fair, impartial, open, and transparent processes.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Transparency.</I> Procedures or processes for participating in standards development and for developing standards are transparent to participants and publicly available.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Making Covered Data Available</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.201" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.201   Availability and prohibition against evasion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation to make covered data available</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A data provider must make available to a consumer and an authorized third party, upon request, covered data in the data provider's control or possession concerning a covered consumer financial product or service that the consumer obtained from the data provider, in an electronic form usable by consumers and authorized third parties.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prohibition against evasion.</I> A data provider must not take any action:
</P>
<P>(i) With the intent of evading the requirements of subparts B and C of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) That the data provider knows or should know is likely to render unusable the covered data that the data provider makes available; or
</P>
<P>(iii) That the data provider knows or should know is likely to prevent, interfere with, or materially discourage a consumer or authorized third party from accessing covered data consistent with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Current data.</I> In complying with paragraph (a) of this section, a data provider must make available the most recently updated covered data that it has in its control or possession at the time of a request. A data provider must make available information concerning authorized but not yet settled transactions.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.211" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.211   Covered data.</HEAD>
<P><I>Covered data</I> in this part means, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(a) Transaction information, including historical transaction information in the control or possession of the data provider. A data provider is deemed to make available sufficient historical transaction information for purposes of § 1033.201(a)(1) if it makes available at least 24 months of such information.
</P>
<P><I>Example 1 to paragraph (a):</I> This category includes amount, transaction date, payment type, pending or authorized status, payee or merchant name, rewards credits, and fees or finance charges.
</P>
<P>(b) Account balance information.
</P>
<P>(c) Information to initiate payment to or from a Regulation E account directly or indirectly held by the data provider. This category includes an account and routing number that can be used to initiate an Automated Clearing House transaction.
</P>
<P>(1) In complying with its obligation under § 1033.201(a)(1), a data provider is permitted to make available a tokenized account number instead of, or in addition to, a non-tokenized account number, as long as the tokenization is not used as a pretext to restrict competitive use of payment initiation information.
</P>
<P>(2) This paragraph (c) does not apply to data providers who do not directly or indirectly hold the underlying Regulation E account. For example, a data provider that merely facilitates pass-through payments would not be required to make available account and routing number for the underlying Regulation E account.
</P>
<P>(d) Terms and conditions. For purposes of this section, terms and conditions are limited to data in agreements evidencing the terms of the legal obligation between a data provider and a consumer for a covered consumer financial product or service, such data in the account opening agreement and any amendments or additions to that agreement, including pricing information.
</P>
<P><I>Example 2 to paragraph (d):</I> This category includes the applicable fee schedule, any annual percentage rate or annual percentage yield, credit limit, rewards program terms, whether a consumer has opted into overdraft coverage, and whether a consumer has entered into an arbitration agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) Upcoming bill information.
</P>
<P><I>Example 3 to paragraph (e):</I> This category includes information about third party bill payments scheduled through the data provider and any upcoming payments due from the consumer to the data provider.
</P>
<P>(f) Basic account verification information, which is limited to the name, address, email address, and phone number associated with the covered consumer financial product or service. If a data provider directly or indirectly holds a Regulation E or Regulation Z account belonging to the consumer, the data provider must also make available a truncated account number or other identifier for that account.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.221" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.221   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>A data provider is not required to make available the following covered data to a consumer or authorized third party:
</P>
<P>(a) Any confidential commercial information, including an algorithm used to derive credit scores or other risk scores or predictors. Information does not qualify for this exception merely because it is an input to, or an output of, an algorithm, risk score, or predictor. For example, annual percentage rate and other pricing terms are sometimes determined by an internal algorithm or predictor but do not fall within this exception.
</P>
<P>(b) Any information collected by the data provider for the sole purpose of preventing fraud or money laundering, or detecting, or making any report regarding other unlawful or potentially unlawful conduct. Information collected for other purposes does not fall within this exception. For example, name and other basic account verification information do not fall within this exception.
</P>
<P>(c) Any information required to be kept confidential by any other provision of law. Information does not qualify for this exception merely because the data provider must protect it for the consumer. For example, the data provider cannot restrict access to the consumer's own information merely because that information is subject to privacy protections.
</P>
<P>(d) Any information that the data provider cannot retrieve in the ordinary course of its business with respect to that information.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Data Provider Interfaces; Responding to Requests</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.301" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.301   General requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to maintain interfaces.</I> A data provider subject to the requirements of this part must maintain a consumer interface and a developer interface. The consumer interface and the developer interface must satisfy the requirements set forth in this section. The developer interface must satisfy the additional requirements set forth in § 1033.311.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Machine-readable files upon request.</I> Upon request for covered data in a machine-readable file, and subject to paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, a data provider must make available to a consumer or an authorized third party covered data in a file that is machine-readable and that the consumer or authorized third party can retain and transfer for processing into a separate information system that is reasonably available to and in the control of the consumer or authorized third party.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Consumer interface.</I> With respect to covered data provided through its consumer interface, a data provider is not required to comply with:
</P>
<P>(i) The requirements of this paragraph (b) for the covered data described in § 1033.211(c) (payment initiation information) and (f) (account verification information); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The requirement of this paragraph (b) to provide in a file that is machine-readable the covered data described in § 1033.211(d) (terms and conditions).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Developer interface.</I> With respect to covered data provided through its developer interface, a data provider satisfies the requirements of this paragraph (b) if it makes available covered data in a form that satisfies the requirements of § 1033.311(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees prohibited.</I> A data provider must not impose any fees or charges on a consumer or an authorized third party in connection with:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Interfaces.</I> Establishing or maintaining the interfaces required by paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests.</I> Receiving requests or making available covered data in response to requests as required by this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.311" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.311   Requirements applicable to developer interface.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A developer interface required by § 1033.301(a) must satisfy the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standardized format.</I> The developer interface must make available covered data in a standardized and machine-readable format. Indicia that the format satisfies this requirement include that it conforms to a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Meaning of format.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>format</I> includes structures and definitions of covered data and requirements and protocols for communicating requests and responses for covered data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Meaning of standardized.</I> For purposes of this section, <I>standardized</I> means conforms to a format widely used by other data providers and designed to be readily usable by authorized third parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commercially reasonable performance.</I> A developer interface's performance must be commercially reasonable.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Response rate; quantitative minimum performance specification.</I> The performance of the interface cannot be commercially reasonable if it does not meet the following quantitative minimum performance specification regarding its response rate: The number of proper responses by the interface divided by the total number of requests for covered data to the interface must be equal to or greater than 99.5 percent in each calendar month. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), all of the following requirements apply:
</P>
<P>(i) Any responses by and requests to the interface during scheduled downtime for the interface must be excluded respectively from the numerator and the denominator of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(ii) In order for any downtime of the interface to qualify as scheduled downtime, the data provider must have provided reasonable notice of the downtime to all third parties to which the data provider has granted access to the interface. Indicia that the data provider's notice of the downtime may be reasonable include that the notice conforms to a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(iii) The total amount of scheduled downtime for the interface in a calendar month must be reasonable. Indicia that the total amount of scheduled downtime may be reasonable include that the amount conforms to a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(iv) A proper response is a response, other than any message provided during unscheduled downtime of the interface, that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(A) The response either fulfills the request or explains why the request was not fulfilled;
</P>
<P>(B) The response is consistent with the reasonable written policies and procedures that the data provider establishes and maintains pursuant to § 1033.351(a); and
</P>
<P>(C) The response is provided by the interface within a commercially reasonable amount of time. Indicia that a response is provided in a commercially reasonable amount of time include conformance to an applicable consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Indicia of compliance</I>—(i) <I>Indicia.</I> Indicia that a developer interface's performance is commercially reasonable as required by paragraph (c) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the interface's performance conforms to a consensus standard that is applicable to the data provider;
</P>
<P>(B) How the interface's performance compares to the performance levels achieved by the developer interfaces of similarly situated data providers; and
</P>
<P>(C) How the interface's performance compares to the performance levels achieved by the data provider's consumer interface.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Performance specifications.</I> For each of the three indicia set forth in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, relevant performance specifications include:
</P>
<P>(A) The interface's response rate as defined in paragraphs (c)(1) through (iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The interface's total amount of scheduled downtime;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of time in advance of any scheduled downtime by which notice of the downtime is provided;
</P>
<P>(D) The interface's total amount of unscheduled downtime; and
</P>
<P>(E) The interface's response time.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access caps.</I> Except as otherwise permitted by §§ 1033.221, 1033.321, and 1033.331(b) and (c), a data provider must not unreasonably restrict the frequency with which it receives or responds to requests for covered data from an authorized third party through its developer interface. Any frequency restrictions must be applied in a manner that is non-discriminatory and consistent with the reasonable written policies and procedures that the data provider establishes and maintains pursuant to § 1033.351(a). Indicia that any frequency restrictions applied are reasonable include that they conform to a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Security specifications</I>—(1) <I>Access credentials.</I> A data provider must not allow a third party to access the data provider's developer interface by using any credentials that a consumer uses to access the consumer interface. A contract between a data provider and the data provider's service provider, pursuant to which the service provider establishes or maintains the data provider's developer interface, does not violate this paragraph (e)(1) if the contract provides that the service provider will make covered data available, in a form and manner that satisfies the requirements of this part, to authorized third parties through the developer interface by means of the service provider using a consumer's credentials to access the data from the data provider's consumer interface.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security program.</I> (i) A data provider must apply to the developer interface an information security program that satisfies the applicable rules issued pursuant to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the data provider is not subject to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the data provider must apply to its developer interface the information security program required by the Federal Trade Commission's Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, 16 CFR part 314.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.321" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.321   Interface access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Denials related to risk management.</I> A data provider does not violate the general obligation in § 1033.201(a)(1) by denying a consumer or third party access to all elements of the interface described in § 1033.301(a) if:
</P>
<P>(1) Granting access would be inconsistent with policies and procedures reasonably designed to comply with:
</P>
<P>(i) Safety and soundness standards of a prudential regulator, as defined at 12 U.S.C. 5481(24), of the data provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) Information security standards required by section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, 15 U.S.C. 6801; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Other applicable laws and regulations regarding risk management; and
</P>
<P>(2) The denial is reasonable pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for reasonable denials.</I> A denial is reasonable pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section if it is:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly related to a specific risk of which the data provider is aware, such as a failure of a third party to maintain adequate data security; and
</P>
<P>(2) Applied in a consistent and non-discriminatory manner.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indicia bearing on reasonable denials.</I> Indicia bearing on the reasonableness of a denial pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the denial adheres to a consensus standard related to risk management;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the denial proceeds from standardized risk management criteria that are available to the third party upon request; and
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the third party has a certification or other identification of fitness to access covered data that is issued or recognized by a recognized standard setter or the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conditions sufficient to justify a denial.</I> Each of the following is a sufficient basis for denying access to a third party:
</P>
<P>(1) The third party does not present any evidence that its information security practices are adequate to safeguard the covered data; or
</P>
<P>(2) The third party does not make the following information available in both human-readable and machine-readable formats, and readily identifiable to members of the public, meaning the information must be at least as available as it would be on a public website:
</P>
<P>(i) Its legal name and, if applicable, any assumed name it is using while doing business with the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) A link to its website;
</P>
<P>(iii) Its Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) that is issued by:
</P>
<P>(A) A utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee, or
</P>
<P>(B) A utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (or any successor thereof) after the Global LEI Foundation assumes operational governance of the global LEI system; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Contact information a data provider can use to inquire about the third party's information security and compliance practices.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.331" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.331   Responding to requests for information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responding to requests—access by consumers.</I> To comply with the requirements in § 1033.201(a)(1), upon request from a consumer, a data provider must make available covered data when it receives information sufficient to:
</P>
<P>(1) Authenticate the consumer's identity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the scope of the data requested.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responding to requests—access by third parties.</I> (1) To comply with the requirements in § 1033.201(a)(1), upon request from an authorized third party, a data provider must make available covered data when it receives information sufficient to:
</P>
<P>(i) Authenticate the consumer's identity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authenticate the third party's identity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Document the third party has followed the authorization procedures in § 1033.401; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Identify the scope of the data requested.
</P>
<P>(2) The data provider is permitted to confirm the scope of a third party's authorization to access the consumer's data by asking the consumer to confirm:
</P>
<P>(i) The account(s) to which the third party is seeking access; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The categories of covered data the third party is requesting to access, as disclosed by the third party pursuant to § 1033.411(b)(4).
</P>
<P><I>Example 1 to paragraph (b):</I> An authorized third party that a data provider has authenticated requests covered data on behalf of an authenticated consumer through the data provider's developer interface. The data provider asks the consumer to confirm the scope of the third party's authorization using a means of communication that the consumer is not accustomed to using with the data provider and that the data provider knows or should know will take a long period of time to reach the consumer and allow the consumer to respond with the confirmation. As a result of the long wait time, the consumer cannot provide a timely confirmation, delaying the third party's access to the covered data. This data provider has violated the § 1033.201(a)(2) prohibition against evasion by taking an action that the data provider knows or should know is likely to interfere with an authorized third party's access to covered data.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Covered data not required to be made available.</I> A data provider is not required to make covered data available in response to a request when:
</P>
<P>(1) The data are withheld because an exception described in § 1033.221 applies;
</P>
<P>(2) The data are not in the data provider's control or possession, consistent with the requirement in § 1033.201(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(3) The data provider's interface is not available when the data provider receives a request requiring a response under this section. However, the data provider is subject to the performance specifications in § 1033.311(c);
</P>
<P>(4) The request is for access by a third party; and
</P>
<P>(i) The consumer has revoked the third party's authorization pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) The data provider has received notice that the consumer has revoked the third party's authorization pursuant to § 1033.421(h)(2); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The consumer has not provided a new authorization to the third party after the maximum duration period, as described in § 1033.421(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) The data provider has not received information sufficient to satisfy the conditions in paragraph(a) or (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Jointly held accounts.</I> A data provider that receives a request for covered data from a consumer that jointly holds an account or from an authorized third party acting on behalf of such a consumer must make available covered data to that consumer or authorized third party, subject to the other provisions of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Method to revoke third party authorization to access covered data.</I> A data provider does not violate the general obligation in § 1033.201(a)(1) by making available to the consumer a reasonable method to revoke any third party's authorization to access all of the consumer's covered data, provided that such method does not violate § 1033.201(a)(2). Indicia that the data provider's revocation method is reasonable include its conformance to a consensus standard. A data provider that receives a revocation request from a consumer through a revocation method it makes available must revoke the authorized third party's access and notify the authorized third party of the request in a timely manner.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.341" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.341   Information about the data provider.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement to make information about the data provider readily identifiable.</I> A data provider must make the information described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Readily identifiable to members of the public, meaning the information must be at least as available as it would be on a public website; and
</P>
<P>(2) Available in both human-readable and machine-readable formats.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identifying information.</I> A data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Its legal name and, if applicable, any assumed name it is using while doing business with the consumer;
</P>
<P>(2) A link to its website;
</P>
<P>(3) Its LEI that is issued by:
</P>
<P>(i) A utility endorsed by the LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Foundation (or any successor thereof) after the Global LEI Foundation assumes operational governance of the global LEI system; and
</P>
<P>(4) Contact information that enables a consumer or third party to receive answers to questions about accessing covered data under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Developer interface documentation.</I> For its developer interface, a data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section documentation, including metadata describing all covered data and their corresponding data fields, and other documentation sufficient for a third party to access and use the interface. A data provider is not required to make publicly available information that would impede its ability to deny a third party access to its developer interface, consistent with § 1033.321. Indicia that documentation is sufficient for a third party to access and use a developer interface include conformance to a consensus standard. The documentation must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be maintained and updated as reasonably necessary for third parties to access and use the interface in accordance with the terms to which data providers are subject under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Include how third parties can get technical support and report issues with the interface; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be easy to understand and use, similar to data providers' documentation for other commercially available products.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performance disclosure.</I> On or before the final day of each calendar month, a data provider must disclose in the manner required by paragraph (a) of this section the quantitative minimum performance specification for the response rate described in § 1033.311(c)(1)(i) through (iv) that the data provider's developer interface achieved in the previous calendar month. The data provider's disclosure must include at least a rolling 13 months of the required monthly figure, except that the disclosure need not include the monthly figure for months prior to the compliance date applicable to the data provider. The data provider must disclose the metric as a percentage rounded to four decimal places, such as “99.9999 percent.”




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.351" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.351   Policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reasonable written policies and procedures.</I> A data provider must establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to achieve the objectives set forth in subparts B and C of this part, including paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section. Policies and procedures must be appropriate to the size, nature, and complexity of the data provider's activities. A data provider has flexibility to design policies and procedures to avoid acting inconsistently with its other legal obligations, or in a way that could reasonably hinder enforcement against unlawful or potentially unlawful conduct. A data provider must periodically review the policies and procedures required by this section and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies and procedures for making covered data available.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Making available covered data.</I> A data provider creates a record of the data fields of covered data in the data provider's control or possession, what covered data are not made available through a consumer or developer interface pursuant to an exception in § 1033.221, and the reasons the exception applies. Indicia that a data provider's record of such data fields complies with the requirements of this paragraph (b)(1) include listing data fields that conform to those published by a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Denials of developer interface access.</I> When a data provider denies a third party access to a developer interface pursuant to § 1033.321, the data provider:
</P>
<P>(i) Creates a record substantiating the basis for denial; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicates in a timely manner to the third party, electronically or in writing, the reason(s) for the denial.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Denials of information requests.</I> When a data provider denies a request for information for a reason described in § 1033.331(c), to the extent the communication of the denial is not required to be standardized by § 1033.311(b), the data provider:
</P>
<P>(i) Creates a record substantiating the basis for the denial; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Communicates in a timely manner to the consumer or third party, electronically or in writing, the type(s) of information denied, if applicable, and the reason(s) for the denial.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policies and procedures for ensuring accuracy</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure that covered data are accurately made available through the data provider's developer interface.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Elements.</I> In developing its policies and procedures regarding accuracy, a data provider must consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Implementing the format requirements of § 1033.311(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Addressing information provided by a consumer or a third party regarding inaccuracies in the covered data made available through its developer interface.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indicia of compliance.</I> Indicia that a data provider's policies and procedures regarding accuracy are reasonable include whether the policies and procedures conform to a consensus standard regarding accuracy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Policies and procedures for record retention.</I> The policies and procedures required by paragraph (a) of this section must be reasonably designed to ensure retention of records that are evidence of compliance with subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retention period.</I> Records that are evidence of a data provider's actions in response to a consumer's or third party's request for information or a third party's request to access a developer interface must be retained for at least three years after a data provider has responded to the request. All other records that are evidence of compliance with subparts B and C of this part must be retained for a reasonable period of time of at least three years from the date of the action required under subparts B and C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain records retained pursuant to policies and procedures.</I> Records retained pursuant to policies and procedures required under paragraph (a) of this section must include, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Records documenting requests for a third party's access to an interface, actions taken in response to such requests, and reasons for denying access, if applicable, for at least three years after the data provider has responded to the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Records providing evidence of fulfillment of requests for information, actions taken in response to such requests, and reasons for not making the information available, if applicable, for at least three years after the data provider has responded to the request;
</P>
<P>(iii) Records documenting that the third party has followed the authorization procedures in § 1033.401 to access data on behalf of a consumer, for at least three years after such records are generated;
</P>
<P>(iv) Records providing evidence of actions taken by a consumer and a data provider to revoke a third party's access pursuant to any revocation method made available by a data provider, for at least three years after the revocation;
</P>
<P>(v) Records providing evidence of commercially reasonable performance described in § 1033.311(c)(2)(ii), for at least three years after the period recorded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Written policies and procedures required under this section for three years from the time such material was last applicable; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Disclosures required under § 1033.341, for three years from the time such material was disclosed to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Authorized Third Parties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.401" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.401   Third party authorization; general.</HEAD>
<P>To become an authorized third party, the third party must seek access to covered data from a data provider on behalf of a consumer to provide a product or service the consumer requested and:
</P>
<P>(a) Provide the consumer with an authorization disclosure as described in § 1033.411;
</P>
<P>(b) Provide a statement to the consumer in the authorization disclosure, as provided in § 1033.411(b)(5), certifying that the third party agrees to the obligations described in § 1033.421; and
</P>
<P>(c) Obtain the consumer's express informed consent to access covered data on behalf of the consumer by obtaining an authorization disclosure that is signed by the consumer electronically or in writing.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.411" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.411   Authorization disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> To comply with § 1033.401(a), a third party must provide the consumer with an authorization disclosure electronically or in writing. The authorization disclosure must be clear, conspicuous, and segregated from other material. The names included in the authorization disclosure as required by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section and by § 1033.431(b) must be readily understandable to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content.</I> The authorization disclosure must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the third party that will be authorized to access covered data pursuant to the third party authorization procedures in § 1033.401.
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the data provider that controls or possesses the covered data that the third party identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section seeks to access on the consumer's behalf.
</P>
<P>(3) A brief description of the product or service the consumer has requested from the third party identified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section and a statement that the third party will collect, use, and retain the consumer's data only as reasonably necessary to provide that product or service to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(4) The categories of data that will be accessed. Categories must have a substantially similar level of specificity as the categories in § 1033.211.
</P>
<P>(5) The certification statement described in § 1033.401(b).
</P>
<P>(6) A brief description of the expected duration of data collection and a statement that collection will not last longer than one year after the consumer's most recent reauthorization.
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the revocation method described in § 1033.421(h)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Language access</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The authorization disclosure must be in the same language as the communication in which the authorization disclosure is conveyed to the consumer. Any translation of the authorization disclosure provided to the consumer must be complete and accurate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional languages.</I> If the authorization disclosure is in a language other than English, it must include a link to an English-language translation, and it is permitted to include links to translations in other languages. If the authorization disclosure is in English, it is permitted to include links to translations in other languages.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.421" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.421   Third party obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General limitation on collection, use, and retention of consumer data</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The third party will limit its collection, use, and retention of covered data to what is reasonably necessary to provide the consumer's requested product or service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Specific purposes.</I> For purposes of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the following are not part of, or reasonably necessary to provide, any other product or service:
</P>
<P>(i) Targeted advertising;
</P>
<P>(ii) Cross-selling of other products or services; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The sale of covered data.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collection of covered data</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Collection of covered data for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section includes the scope of covered data requested and the duration and frequency of collection of covered data.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum duration.</I> In addition to the limitation described in paragraph (a) of this section, the third party will limit the duration of collection of covered data to a maximum period of one year after the consumer's most recent authorization.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Reauthorization after maximum duration.</I> To collect covered data beyond the one-year maximum period described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the third party will obtain a new authorization from the consumer pursuant to § 1033.401 no later than the anniversary of the most recent authorization from the consumer. The third party is permitted to ask the consumer for a new authorization pursuant to § 1033.401 in a reasonable manner. Indicia that a new authorization request is reasonable include its conformance to a consensus standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Use of covered data.</I> Use of covered data for purposes of paragraph (a) of this section includes both the third party's own use of covered data and provision of covered data by that third party to other third parties. Examples of uses of covered data that are permitted under paragraph (a) of this section include:
</P>
<P>(1) Uses that are specifically required under other provisions of law, including to comply with a properly authorized subpoena or summons or to respond to a judicial process or government regulatory authority;
</P>
<P>(2) Uses that are reasonably necessary to protect against or prevent actual or potential fraud, unauthorized transactions, claims, or other liability;
</P>
<P>(3) Servicing or processing the product or service the consumer requested; and
</P>
<P>(4) Uses that are reasonably necessary to improve the product or service the consumer requested.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Accuracy.</I> A third party will establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure that covered data are accurately received from a data provider and accurately provided to another third party, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Flexibility.</I> A third party has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Periodic review.</I> A third party will periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Elements.</I> In developing its policies and procedures regarding accuracy, a third party must consider, for example:
</P>
<P>(i) Accepting covered data in a format required by § 1033.311(b); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Addressing information provided by a consumer, data provider, or another third party regarding inaccuracies in the covered data.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Indicia of compliance.</I> Indicia that a third party's policies and procedures are reasonable include whether the policies and procedures conform to a consensus standard regarding accuracy.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data security.</I> (1) A third party will apply to its systems for the collection, use, and retention of covered data an information security program that satisfies the applicable rules issued pursuant to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (15 U.S.C. 6801); or
</P>
<P>(2) If the third party is not subject to section 501 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, the third party will apply to its systems for the collection, use, and retention of covered data the information security program required by the Federal Trade Commission's Standards for Safeguarding Customer Information, 16 CFR part 314.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Provision of covered data to other third parties.</I> Before providing covered data to another third party, subject to the limitation described in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, the third party will require the other third party by contract to comply with the third party obligations in paragraphs (a) through (f) of this section and the condition in paragraph (i) of this section upon receipt of the notice described in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ensuring consumers are informed.</I> (1) Upon obtaining authorization to access covered data on the consumer's behalf, the third party will provide the consumer with a copy of the authorization disclosure that the consumer has signed electronically or in writing and that reflects the date of the consumer's electronic or written signature. The third party will deliver that copy of the authorization disclosure to the consumer or make it available in a location that is readily accessible to the consumer, such as the third party's interface. If the third party makes the authorization disclosure available in such a location, the third party will ensure it is accessible to the consumer until the third party's access to the consumer's covered data terminates.
</P>
<P>(2) The third party will provide contact information that enables a consumer to receive answers to questions about the third party's access to the consumer's covered data. The contact information must be readily identifiable to the consumer.
</P>
<P>(3) The third party will establish and maintain reasonable written policies and procedures designed to ensure that the third party provides to the consumer, upon request, the information listed in this paragraph (g)(3) about the third party's access to the consumer's covered data. The third party has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities, and the third party will periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness. The policies and procedures must be designed to ensure that the third party provides the following to the consumer, upon request:
</P>
<P>(i) Categories of covered data collected;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reasons for collecting the covered data;
</P>
<P>(iii) Names of parties with which the covered data was shared. The names must be readily understandable to the consumer;
</P>
<P>(iv) Reasons for sharing the covered data;
</P>
<P>(v) Status of the third party's authorization;
</P>
<P>(vi) How the consumer can revoke the third party's authorization to access the consumer's covered data and verification the third party has adhered to requests for revocation; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A copy of any data aggregator certification statement that was provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1033.431(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Revocation of third party authorization</I>—(1) <I>Provision of revocation method.</I> The third party will provide the consumer with a method to revoke the third party's authorization to access the consumer's covered data that is as easy to access and operate as the initial authorization. The third party will also ensure the consumer is not subject to costs or penalties for revoking the third party's authorization.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of revocation.</I> The third party will notify the data provider, any data aggregator, and other third parties to whom it has provided the consumer's covered data when the third party receives a revocation request from the consumer.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Effect of maximum duration and revocation on collection, use, and retention.</I> If a consumer does not provide a new authorization as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, or if a third party receives a revocation request as described in paragraph (h)(1) of this section or notice of a consumer's revocation request as described in § 1033.331(e), a third party will:
</P>
<P>(1) No longer collect covered data pursuant to the most recent authorization; and
</P>
<P>(2) No longer use or retain covered data that was previously collected pursuant to the most recent authorization unless use or retention of that covered data remains reasonably necessary to provide the consumer's requested product or service under paragraph (a) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.431" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.431   Use of data aggregator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility for authorization procedures when the third party will use a data aggregator.</I> A data aggregator is permitted to perform the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401 on behalf of the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 to access covered data. However, the third party seeking authorization remains responsible for compliance with the authorization procedures described in § 1033.401, and the data aggregator must comply with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure of the name of the data aggregator.</I> The authorization disclosure must include the name of any data aggregator that will assist the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 with accessing covered data and a brief description of the services the data aggregator will provide.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data aggregator certification.</I> When the third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 will use a data aggregator to assist with accessing covered data on behalf of a consumer, the data aggregator must certify to the consumer that it agrees to the conditions on accessing the consumer's data in § 1033.421(a) through (f) and the condition in § 1033.421(i) upon receipt of the notice described in § 1033.421(h)(2) before accessing the consumer's data. For this requirement to be satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The third party seeking authorization under § 1033.401 must include the data aggregator's certification in the authorization disclosure described in § 1033.411; or
</P>
<P>(2) The data aggregator must provide its certification to the consumer, electronically or in writing, separate from the authorization disclosure. The certification must be in the same language as the authorization disclosure and must be clear, conspicuous, and segregated from other material. The name of any data aggregator in the certification must be readily understandable to the consumer. If, after the consumer has completed the authorization procedures, the authorized third party retains a data aggregator to assist with accessing covered data on behalf of the consumer, this data aggregator must provide its certification in accordance with this paragraph (c)(2).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1033.441" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1033.441   Policies and procedures for third party record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> A third party that is a covered person or service provider, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(6) and (26), must establish and maintain written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure retention of records that are evidence of compliance with the requirements of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention period.</I> Records required under paragraph (a) of this section must be retained for a reasonable period of time, not less than three years after a third party obtains the consumer's most recent authorization under § 1033.401(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Flexibility.</I> A third party covered under paragraph (a) of this section has flexibility to determine its policies and procedures in light of the size, nature, and complexity of its activities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Periodic review.</I> A third party covered under paragraph (a) of this section must periodically review its policies and procedures and update them as appropriate to ensure their continued effectiveness to evidence compliance with the requirements of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Certain records retained pursuant to policies and procedures.</I> Records retained pursuant to policies and procedures required under this section must include, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(1) A copy of the authorization disclosure that is signed by the consumer electronically or in writing and reflects the date of the consumer's signature and a record of actions taken by the consumer, including actions taken through a data provider or another third party, to revoke the third party's authorization; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a data aggregator covered under paragraph (a) of this section, a copy of any data aggregator certification statement that was provided to the consumer pursuant to § 1033.431(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.3.4.1.6.24" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1033—Personal Financial Data Rights Rule: How to Apply for Recognition as a Standard Setter


</HEAD>
<P>If you want the CFPB to designate your organization as a recognized standard setter, you should follow the steps described below.
</P>
<P>We may amend this process from time to time.
</P>
<HD1>Step One: Requesting Recognition
</HD1>
<P>Submit a written request for recognition.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Sensitive personal information should not be provided.</P></FTNT>
<P>This should include key contact information, evidence of your organization's policies and practices,
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> and an explanation of how your organization satisfies each of the requirements in the Personal Financial Data Rights rule to be a recognized standard setter.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Your request should also describe how current and/or anticipated standards issued by your organization relate to open banking.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Evidence may include (but is not limited to) charters, bylaws, policies, procedures, fee schedules, meeting minutes, membership lists, financial statements/disclosures, publicly available materials, and issued standards.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> Relevant legal requirements are described at 12 CFR 1033.141. When explaining how your organization meets these requirements, you should reference relevant elements of the evidence you submit in support of your application.</P></FTNT>
<P>In advance of filing your request, you can seek a pre-filing meeting with us. We can walk you through the application process and help you make a complete submission.
</P>
<P>Send formal submissions, as well as requests for pre-filing meetings, to: <I>openbankingstandards@cfpb.gov.</I>




</P>
<HD1>Step Two: Additional Information and Public Comment
</HD1>
<P>After reviewing your submission, we may request additional information to ensure that your application is complete.
</P>
<P>We may publish your application.
</P>
<P>We may also seek public input on your application and invite your responses to any information we receive on that basis.
</P>
<HD1>Step Three: Our Review
</HD1>
<P>When reviewing your application, we consider whether your policies and practices meet all the requirements for recognition. We also evaluate whether your application is accurate and complete.
</P>
<P>We prioritize and review applications based on the extent to which recognizing your organization helps us to implement open banking.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> Section 1033 of the Consumer Financial Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5533, describes the CFPB's role in implementing open banking.</P></FTNT>
<HD1>Step Four: Application Decision
</HD1>
<P>CFPB recognition will be publicly disclosed on our website, along with the applicable terms and conditions of such recognition, such as its duration.
</P>
<P>If the CFPB declines to recognize your organization, we will notify you.
</P>
<P>You may withdraw your application at any time or for any reason.
</P>
<P>If we determine that your organization is close to meeting, but does not yet meet, the requirements for CFPB recognition, we may ask you to provide a written plan specifying how and when you will take the steps required for full recognition. If that plan is satisfactory, we may state on our website that your organization has received contingent recognition. Once you provide us with evidence that you have successfully executed on that plan (or otherwise addressed the relevant contingences), the CFPB may extend full recognition.
</P>
<HD1>Step Five: Recognition
</HD1>
<P>There are several points to keep in mind about recognition.
</P>
<P>As a recognized standard setter, you agree that the CFPB may monitor your organization and that you will provide information that we request.
</P>
<P>You must also provide us, within 10 days, written explanation of any material change to information that was submitted with your application or during recognition, as well as any reason your organization may no longer meet underlying requirements for recognition.
</P>
<P>In addition, you must meet any other specified terms and conditions of your recognition, which may include our reserving the right to observe or participate in standard setting.
</P>
<P>If your recognition is set to expire, you can apply for re-recognition by re-starting at Step One at least 180 days before expiration. We may temporarily extend your recognition while we consider your request for re-recognition.
</P>
<P>We may modify or revoke your recognition. The CFPB expects to notify you of the reasons it intends to revoke or modify recognition, and to provide your organization with an opportunity to address the CFPB's concerns.














</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1041" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1041—PAYDAY, VEHICLE TITLE, AND CERTAIN HIGH-COST INSTALLMENT LOANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5511, 5512, 5514(b), 5531(b), (c), and (d), 5532.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The regulation in this part is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (Bureau) pursuant to Title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5481, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to identify certain unfair and abusive acts or practices in connection with certain consumer credit transactions and to set forth requirements for preventing such acts or practices. This part also prescribes requirements to ensure that the features of those consumer credit transactions are fully, accurately, and effectively disclosed to consumers. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Account</I> has the same meaning as in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(b).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affiliate</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 5481(1).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Closed-end credit</I> means an extension of credit to a consumer that is not open-end credit under paragraph (a)(16) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Consumer</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 5481(4).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consummation</I> means the time that a consumer becomes contractually obligated on a new loan or a modification that increases the amount of an existing loan.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Cost of credit</I> means the cost of consumer credit as expressed as a per annum rate and is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Charges included in the cost of credit.</I> The cost of credit includes all finance charges as set forth by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.4, but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculation of the cost of credit</I>—(A) <I>Closed-end credit.</I> For closed-end credit, the cost of credit must be calculated according to the requirements of Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.22.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Open-end credit.</I> For open-end credit, the cost of credit must be calculated according to the rules for calculating the effective annual percentage rate for a billing cycle as set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.14(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Covered longer-term balloon-payment loan</I> means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Covered longer-term loan</I> means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(9) [Reserved]</P>
<P>(10) <I>Covered short-term loan</I> means a loan described in § 1041.3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(11) <I>Credit</I> has the same meaning as in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(14).
</P>
<P>(12) <I>Electronic fund transfer</I> has the same meaning as in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.3(b).
</P>
<P>(13) <I>Lender</I> means a person who regularly extends credit to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(14) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(15) <I>Motor vehicle</I> means any self-propelled vehicle primarily used for on-road transportation. The term does not include motor homes, recreational vehicles, golf carts, and motor scooters.
</P>
<P>(16) <I>Open-end credit</I> means an extension of credit to a consumer that is an open-end credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20), but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), is extended by a creditor, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17), is extended to a consumer, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11), or permits a finance charge to be imposed from time to time on an outstanding balance as defined in 12 CFR 1026.4.
</P>
<P>(17) <I>Outstanding loan</I> means a loan that the consumer is legally obligated to repay, regardless of whether the loan is delinquent or is subject to a repayment plan or other workout arrangement, except that a loan ceases to be an outstanding loan if the consumer has not made at least one payment on the loan within the previous 180 days.
</P>
<P>(18) <I>Service provider</I> has the same meaning as in the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5481(26).
</P>
<P>(19) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rule of construction.</I> For purposes of this part, where definitions are incorporated from other statutes or regulations, the terms have the meaning and incorporate the embedded definitions, appendices, and commentary from those other laws except to the extent that this part provides a different definition for a parallel term.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.3   Scope of coverage; exclusions; exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This part applies to a lender that extends credit by making covered loans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered loan.</I> Covered loan means closed-end or open-end credit that is extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes that is not excluded under paragraph (d) of this section or conditionally exempted under paragraph (e) or (f) of this section; and:
</P>
<P>(1) For closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of the loan within 45 days of consummation, or for all other loans, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of any advance within 45 days of the advance;
</P>
<P>(2) For loans not otherwise covered by paragraph (b)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) For closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers, the consumer is required to repay substantially the entire balance of the loan in a single payment more than 45 days after consummation or to repay such loan through at least one payment that is more than twice as large as any other payment(s).
</P>
<P>(ii) For all other loans, either:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of an advance in a single payment more than 45 days after the advance is made or is required to make at least one payment on the advance that is more than twice as large as any other payment(s); or
</P>
<P>(B) A loan with multiple advances is structured such that paying the required minimum payments may not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the amount of the final payment to repay the outstanding balance at such time could be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan; or
</P>
<P>(3) For loans not otherwise covered by paragraph (b)(1) or (2) of this section, if both of the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) The cost of credit for the loan exceeds 36 percent per annum, as measured:
</P>
<P>(A) At the time of consummation for closed-end credit; or
</P>
<P>(B) At the time of consummation and, if the cost of credit at consummation is not more than 36 percent per annum, again at the end of each billing cycle for open-end credit, except that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Open-end credit meets the condition set forth in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) in any billing cycle in which a lender imposes a finance charge, and the principal balance is $0; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Once open-end credit meets the condition set forth in this paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B), it meets the condition set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) for the duration of the plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) The lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism as defined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Leveraged payment mechanism.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b) of this section, a lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism if it has the right to initiate a transfer of money, through any means, from a consumer's account to satisfy an obligation on a loan, except that the lender or service provider does not obtain a leveraged payment mechanism by initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exclusions for certain types of credit.</I> This part does not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certain purchase money security interest loans.</I> Credit extended for the sole and express purpose of financing a consumer's initial purchase of a good when the credit is secured by the property being purchased, whether or not the security interest is perfected or recorded.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Real estate secured credit.</I> Credit that is secured by any real property, or by personal property used or expected to be used as a dwelling, and the lender records or otherwise perfects the security interest within the term of the loan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit cards.</I> Any credit card account under an open-end (not home-secured) consumer credit plan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(15)(ii).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Student loans.</I> Credit made, insured, or guaranteed pursuant to a program authorized by subchapter IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965, 20 U.S.C. 1070 through 1099d, or a private education loan as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.46(b)(5).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Non-recourse pawn loans.</I> Credit in which the lender has sole physical possession and use of the property securing the credit for the entire term of the loan and for which the lender's sole recourse if the consumer does not elect to redeem the pawned item and repay the loan is the retention of the property securing the credit.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Overdraft services and lines of credit.</I> Overdraft services as defined in 12 CFR 1005.17(a), and overdraft lines of credit otherwise excluded from the definition of overdraft services under 12 CFR 1005.17(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Wage advance programs.</I> Advances of wages that constitute credit if made by an employer, as defined in the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(d), or by the employer's business partner, to the employer's employees, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The advance is made only against the accrued cash value of any wages the employee has earned up to the date of the advance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Before any amount is advanced, the entity advancing the funds warrants to the consumer as part of the contract between the parties on behalf of itself and any business partners, that it or they, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Will not require the consumer to pay any charges or fees in connection with the advance, other than a charge for participating in the wage advance program;
</P>
<P>(B) Has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full; and
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to the amount advanced to the consumer, will not engage in any debt collection activities if the advance is not deducted directly from wages or otherwise repaid on the scheduled date, place the amount advanced as a debt with or sell it to a third party, or report to a consumer reporting agency concerning the amount advanced.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>No-cost advances.</I> Advances of funds that constitute credit if the consumer is not required to pay any charge or fee to be eligible to receive or in return for receiving the advance, provided that before any amount is advanced, the entity advancing the funds warrants to the consumer as part of the contract between the parties:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That, with respect to the amount advanced to the consumer, such entity will not engage in any debt collection activities if the advance is not repaid on the scheduled date, place the amount advanced as a debt with or sell it to a third party, or report to a consumer reporting agency concerning the amount advanced.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Alternative loan.</I> Alternative loans are conditionally exempt from the requirements of this part. <I>Alternative loan</I> means a covered loan that satisfies the following conditions and requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Loan term conditions.</I> An alternative loan must satisfy the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan is not structured as open-end credit, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16);
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan has a term of not less than one month and not more than six months;
</P>
<P>(iii) The principal of the loan is not less than $200 and not more than $1,000;
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan is repayable in two or more payments, all of which payments are substantially equal in amount and fall due in substantially equal intervals, and the loan amortizes completely during the term of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(v) The lender does not impose any charges other than the rate and application fees permissible for Federal credit unions under regulations issued by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Borrowing history condition.</I> Prior to making an alternative loan under this paragraph (e), the lender must determine from its records that the loan would not result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under this paragraph (e) from the lender within a period of 180 days. The lender must also make no more than one alternative loan under this paragraph (e) at a time to a consumer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Income documentation condition.</I> In making an alternative loan under this paragraph (e), the lender must maintain and comply with policies and procedures for documenting proof of recurring income.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Safe harbor.</I> Loans made by Federal credit unions in compliance with the conditions set forth by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) for a Payday Alternative Loan are deemed to be in compliance with the requirements and conditions of paragraphs (e)(1), (2), and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Accommodation loans.</I> Accommodation loans are conditionally exempt from the requirements of this part. <I>Accommodation loan</I> means a covered loan if at the time that the loan is consummated:
</P>
<P>(1) The lender and its affiliates collectively have made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the current calendar year, and made 2,500 or fewer such covered loans in the preceding calendar year; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) During the most recent completed tax year in which the lender was in operation, if applicable, the lender and any affiliates that were in operation and used the same tax year derived no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the lender was not in operation in a prior tax year, the lender reasonably anticipates that the lender and any of its affiliates that use the same tax year will derive no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans during the current tax year.
</P>
<P>(3) Provided, however, that covered longer-term loans for which all transfers meet the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), and receipts from such loans, are not included for the purpose of determining whether the conditions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section have been satisfied.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Receipts.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, receipts means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; and Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers but excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; or amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Tax year.</I> For purposes of paragraph (f) of this section, “tax year” has the meaning attributed to it by the IRS as set forth in IRS Publication 538, which provides that a “tax year” is an annual accounting period for keeping records and reporting income and expenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Payments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.7" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.7   Identification of unfair and abusive practice.</HEAD>
<P>It is an unfair and abusive practice for a lender to make attempts to withdraw payment from consumers' accounts in connection with a covered loan after the lender's second consecutive attempts to withdraw payments from the accounts from which the prior attempts were made have failed due to a lack of sufficient funds, unless the lender obtains the consumers' new and specific authorization to make further withdrawals from the accounts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.8" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.8   Prohibited payment transfer attempts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section and § 1041.9:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Payment transfer</I> means any lender-initiated debit or withdrawal of funds from a consumer's account for the purpose of collecting any amount due or purported to be due in connection with a covered loan.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Means of transfer.</I> A debit or withdrawal meeting the description in paragraph (a)(1) of this section is a payment transfer regardless of the means through which the lender initiates it, including but not limited to a debit or withdrawal initiated through any of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) Electronic fund transfer, including a preauthorized electronic fund transfer as defined in Regulation E, 12 CFR 1005.2(k).
</P>
<P>(B) Signature check, regardless of whether the transaction is processed through the check network or another network, such as the automated clearing house (ACH) network.
</P>
<P>(C) Remotely created check as defined in Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff).
</P>
<P>(D) Remotely created payment order as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc).
</P>
<P>(E) When the lender is also the account-holder, an account-holding institution's transfer of funds from a consumer's account held at the same institution, other than such a transfer meeting the description in paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conditional exclusion for certain transfers by account-holding institutions.</I> When the lender is also the account-holder, an account-holding institution's transfer of funds from a consumer's account held at the same institution is not a payment transfer if all of the conditions in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii) are met, notwithstanding that the transfer otherwise meets the description in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(A) The lender, pursuant to the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement, does not charge the consumer any fee, other than a late fee under the loan agreement, in the event that the lender initiates a transfer of funds from the consumer's account in connection with the covered loan for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover.
</P>
<P>(B) The lender, pursuant to the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement, does not close the consumer's account in response to a negative balance that results from a transfer of funds initiated in connection with the covered loan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A payment transfer initiated by a one-time electronic fund transfer within one business day after the lender obtains the consumer's authorization for the one-time electronic fund transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) A payment transfer initiated by means of processing the consumer's signature check through the check system or through the ACH system within one business day after the consumer provides the check to the lender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition on initiating payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive failed payment transfers</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A lender must not initiate a payment transfer from a consumer's account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender after the lender has attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers from that account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender. For purposes of this paragraph (b), a payment transfer is deemed to have failed when it results in a return indicating that the consumer's account lacks sufficient funds or, if the lender is the consumer's account-holding institution, it is for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consecutive failed payment transfers.</I> For purposes of the prohibition in this paragraph (b):
</P>
<P>(i) <I>First failed payment transfer.</I> A failed payment transfer is the first failed payment transfer from the consumer's account if it meets any of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(A) The lender has initiated no other payment transfer from the account in connection with the covered loan or any other covered loan that the consumer has with the lender.
</P>
<P>(B) The immediately preceding payment transfer was successful, regardless of whether the lender has previously initiated a first failed payment transfer.
</P>
<P>(C) The payment transfer is the first payment transfer to fail after the lender obtains the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second consecutive failed payment transfer.</I> A failed payment transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer from the consumer's account if the immediately preceding payment transfer was a first failed payment transfer. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(2)(ii), a previous payment transfer includes a payment transfer initiated at the same time or on the same day as the failed payment transfer.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Different payment channel.</I> A failed payment transfer meeting the conditions in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section is the second consecutive failed payment transfer regardless of whether the first failed payment transfer was initiated through a different payment channel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for additional payment transfers authorized by the consumer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Notwithstanding the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section, a lender may initiate additional payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive failed payment transfers if the additional payment transfers are authorized by the consumer in accordance with the requirements and conditions in this paragraph (c) or if the lender executes a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>General authorization requirements and conditions</I>—(i) <I>Required payment transfer terms.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the specific date, amount, and payment channel of each additional payment transfer must be authorized by the consumer, except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Application of specific date requirement to re-initiating a returned payment transfer.</I> If a payment transfer authorized by the consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c) is returned for nonsufficient funds, the lender may re-initiate the payment transfer, such as by re-presenting it once through the ACH system, on or after the date authorized by the consumer, provided that the returned payment transfer has not triggered the prohibition in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Special authorization requirements and conditions for payment transfers to collect a late fee or returned item fee.</I> A lender may initiate a payment transfer pursuant to this paragraph (c) solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee without obtaining the consumer's authorization for the specific date and amount of the payment transfer only if the consumer has authorized the lender to initiate such payment transfers in advance of the withdrawal attempt. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2)(iii), the consumer authorizes such payment transfers only if the consumer's authorization obtained under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section includes a statement, in terms that are clear and readily understandable to the consumer, that payment transfers may be initiated solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee and that specifies the highest amount for such fees that may be charged and the payment channel to be used.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requirements and conditions for obtaining the consumer's authorization</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the lender must request and obtain the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers in accordance with the requirements and conditions in this paragraph (c)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Provision of payment transfer terms to the consumer.</I> The lender may request the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers no earlier than the date on which the lender provides to the consumer the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). The request must include the payment transfer terms required under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and, if applicable, the statement required by paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. The lender may provide the terms and statement to the consumer by any one of the following means:
</P>
<P>(A) In writing, by mail or in person, or in a retainable form by email if the consumer has consented to receive electronic disclosures in this manner under § 1041.9(a)(4) or agrees to receive the terms and statement by email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c).
</P>
<P>(B) By oral telephone communication, if the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender in that manner in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) and agrees to receive the terms and statement in that manner in the course of, and as part of, the same communication.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Signed authorization required</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> For an authorization to be valid under this paragraph (c), it must be signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer in writing or electronically and in a retainable format that memorializes the payment transfer terms required under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section and, if applicable, the statement required by paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section. The signed authorization must be obtained from the consumer no earlier than when the consumer receives the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) in person or electronically, or the date on which the consumer receives the notice by mail. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3)(iii)(A), the consumer is considered to have received the notice at the time it is provided to the consumer in person or electronically, or, if the notice is provided by mail, the earlier of the third business day after mailing or the date on which the consumer affirmatively responds to the mailed notice.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Special requirements for authorization obtained by oral telephone communication.</I> If the authorization is granted in the course of an oral telephone communication, the lender must record the call and retain the recording.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Memorialization required.</I> If the authorization is granted in the course of a recorded telephonic conversation or is otherwise not immediately retainable by the consumer at the time of signature, the lender must provide a memorialization in a retainable form to the consumer by no later than the date on which the first payment transfer authorized by the consumer is initiated. A memorialization may be provided to the consumer by email in accordance with the requirements and conditions in paragraph (c)(3)(ii)(A) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Expiration of authorization.</I> An authorization obtained from a consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c) becomes null and void for purposes of the exception in this paragraph (c) if:
</P>
<P>(i) The lender subsequently obtains a new authorization from the consumer pursuant to this paragraph (c); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Two consecutive payment transfers initiated pursuant to the consumer's authorization fail, as specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exception for initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request.</I> After a lender's second consecutive payment transfer has failed as specified in paragraph (b) of this section, the lender may initiate a payment transfer from the consumer's account without obtaining the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The payment transfer is a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as defined in paragraph (a)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The consumer authorizes the underlying one-time electronic fund transfer or provides the underlying signature check to the lender, as applicable, no earlier than the date on which the lender provides to the consumer the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) or on the date that the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender to discuss repayment options, whichever date is earlier.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibition against evasion.</I> A lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.9" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.9   Disclosure of payment transfer attempts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General form of disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Clear and conspicuous.</I> Disclosures required by this section must be clear and conspicuous. Disclosures required by this section may contain commonly accepted or readily understandable abbreviations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In writing or electronic delivery.</I> Disclosures required by this section must be provided in writing or, so long as the requirements of paragraph (a)(4) of this section are satisfied, through electronic delivery. The disclosures must be provided in a form that can be viewed on paper or a screen, as applicable. This paragraph (a)(2) is not satisfied by a disclosure provided orally or through a recorded message.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Retainable.</I> Disclosures required by this section must be provided in a retainable form, except for electronic short notices delivered by mobile application or text message under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic delivery.</I> Disclosures required by this section may be provided through electronic delivery if the following consent requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Consumer consent</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> Disclosures required by this section may be provided through electronic delivery if the consumer affirmatively consents in writing or electronically to the particular electronic delivery method.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Email option required.</I> To obtain valid consumer consent to electronic delivery under this paragraph, a lender must provide the consumer with the option to select email as the method of electronic delivery, separate and apart from any other electronic delivery methods such as mobile application or text message.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subsequent loss of consent.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(4)(i) of this section, a lender must not provide disclosures required by this section through a method of electronic delivery if:
</P>
<P>(A) The consumer revokes consent to receive disclosures through that delivery method; or
</P>
<P>(B) The lender receives notification that the consumer is unable to receive disclosures through that delivery method at the address or number used.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Segregation requirements for notices.</I> All notices required by this section must be segregated from all other written or provided materials and contain only the information required by this section, other than information necessary for product identification, branding, and navigation. Segregated additional content that is not required by this section must not be displayed above, below, or around the required content.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Machine readable text in notices provided through electronic delivery.</I> If provided through electronic delivery, the payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section and the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must use machine readable text that is accessible via both web browsers and screen readers.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Model forms</I>—(i) <I>Payment notice.</I> The content, order, and format of the payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Forms A-3 through A-4 in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consumer rights notice.</I> The content, order, and format of the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Electronic short notice.</I> The content, order, and format of the electronic short notice required by paragraph (b) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Clauses A-6 and A-7 in appendix A to this part. The content, order, and format of the electronic short notice required by paragraph (c) of this section must be substantially similar to Model Clause A-8 in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Foreign language disclosures.</I> Disclosures required under this section may be made in a language other than English, provided that the disclosures are made available in English upon the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment notice</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Prior to initiating the first payment withdrawal or an unusual withdrawal from a consumer's account, a lender must provide to the consumer a payment notice in accordance with the requirements in this paragraph (b) as applicable.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>First payment withdrawal</I> means the first payment transfer scheduled to be initiated by a lender for a particular covered loan, not including a single immediate payment transfer initiated at the consumer's request as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Unusual withdrawal</I> means a payment transfer that meets one or more of the conditions described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exceptions.</I> The payment notice need not be provided when the lender initiates:
</P>
<P>(A) The initial payment transfer from a consumer's account after obtaining consumer authorization pursuant to § 1041.8(c), regardless of whether any of the conditions in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section apply; or
</P>
<P>(B) A single immediate payment transfer initiated at the consumer's request in accordance with § 1041.8(a)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>First payment withdrawal notice</I>—(i) <I>Timing</I>—(A) <I>Mail.</I> If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice by mail, the lender must mail the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than six business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Electronic delivery.</I> (<I>1</I>) If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice through electronic delivery, the lender must send the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, after providing the first payment withdrawal notice through electronic delivery pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, the lender loses the consumer's consent to receive the notice through a particular electronic delivery method according to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, the lender must provide notice of any future unusual withdrawal, if applicable, through alternate means.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>In person.</I> If the lender provides the first payment withdrawal notice in person, the lender must provide the notice no earlier than when the lender obtains payment authorization and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content requirements.</I> The notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-3 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Identifying statement.</I> The statement, “Upcoming Withdrawal Notice,” using that phrase, and, in the same statement, the name of the lender providing the notice.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Transfer terms</I>—(<I>1</I>) <I>Date.</I> Date that the lender will initiate the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Amount.</I> Dollar amount of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Consumer account.</I> Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the account from which the funds will be transferred. The lender must not provide the complete account number of the consumer, but may use a truncated version similar to Model Form A-3 in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Loan identification information.</I> Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the covered loan associated with the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Payment channel.</I> Payment channel of the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Check number.</I> If the transfer will be initiated by a signature or paper check, remotely created check (as defined in Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff)), or remotely created payment order (as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc)), the check number associated with the transfer.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Payment breakdown.</I> In a tabular form:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Payment breakdown heading.</I> A heading with the statement “Payment Breakdown,” using that phrase.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Principal.</I> The amount of the payment that will be applied to principal.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Interest.</I> The amount of the payment that will be applied to accrued interest on the loan.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Fees.</I> If applicable, the amount of the payment that will be applied to fees.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Other charges.</I> If applicable, the amount of the payment that will be applied to other charges.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) <I>Amount.</I> The statement “Total Payment Amount,” using that phrase, and the total dollar amount of the payment as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) <I>Explanation of interest-only or negatively amortizing payment.</I> If applicable, a statement explaining that the payment will not reduce principal, using the applicable phrase “When you make this payment, your principal balance will stay the same and you will not be closer to paying off your loan” or “When you make this payment, your principal balance will increase and you will not be closer to paying off your loan.”
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Lender name and contact information.</I> Name of the lender, the name under which the transfer will be initiated (if different from the consumer-facing name of the lender), and two different forms of lender contact information that may be used by the consumer to obtain information about the consumer's loan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unusual withdrawal notice</I>—(i) <I>Timing</I>—(A) <I>Mail.</I> If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice by mail, the lender must mail the notice no earlier than 10 business days and no later than six business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Electronic delivery.</I> (<I>1</I>) If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice through electronic delivery, the lender must send the notice no earlier than seven business days and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If, after providing the unusual withdrawal notice through electronic delivery pursuant to the timing requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(i)(B) of this section, the lender loses the consumer's consent to receive the notice through a particular electronic delivery method according to paragraph (a)(4)(ii) of this section, the lender must provide notice of any future unusual withdrawal attempt, if applicable, through alternate means.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>In person.</I> If the lender provides the unusual withdrawal notice in person, the lender must provide the notice no earlier than seven business days and no later than three business days prior to initiating the transfer.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Exception for open-end credit.</I> If the unusual withdrawal notice is for open-end credit as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16), the lender may provide the unusual withdrawal notice in conjunction with the periodic statement required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b), in accordance with the timing requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Content requirements.</I> The unusual withdrawal notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-4 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Identifying statement.</I> The statement, “Alert: Unusual Withdrawal,” using that phrase, and, in the same statement, the name of the lender that is providing the notice.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Basic payment information.</I> The content required for the first withdrawal notice under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Description of unusual withdrawal.</I> The following content, as applicable, in a form substantially similar to the form in Model Form A-4 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Varying amount</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>General.</I> If the amount of a transfer will vary in amount from the regularly scheduled payment amount, a statement that the transfer will be for a larger or smaller amount than the regularly scheduled payment amount, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Open-end credit.</I> If the payment transfer is for open-end credit as defined in § 1041.2(a)(16), the varying amount content is required only if the amount deviates from the scheduled minimum payment due as disclosed in the periodic statement required under Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Date other than date of regularly scheduled payment.</I> If the payment transfer date is not a date on which a regularly scheduled payment is due under the terms of the loan agreement, a statement that the transfer will be initiated on a date other than the date of a regularly scheduled payment.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Different payment channel.</I> If the payment channel will differ from the payment channel of the transfer directly preceding it, a statement that the transfer will be initiated through a different payment channel and a statement of the payment channel used for the prior transfer.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>For purpose of re-initiating returned transfer.</I> If the transfer is for the purpose of re-initiating a returned transfer, a statement that the lender is re-initiating a returned transfer, a statement of the date and amount of the previous unsuccessful attempt, and a statement of the reason for the return.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic delivery</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, the lender may provide the applicable payment notice required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section through electronic delivery only if it also provides an electronic short notice, except for email delivery as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electronic short notice</I>—(A) <I>General content.</I> The electronic short notice required by this paragraph (b) must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, in a form substantially similar to Model Clause A-6 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Identifying statement,</I> as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(3)(ii)(A) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Transfer terms</I>—(<I>i</I>) <I>Date,</I> as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) <I>Amount,</I> as required under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) <I>Consumer account,</I> as required and limited under paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>3</I>) and (b)(3)(ii)(B) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Web site URL.</I> When the full notice is being provided through a linked URL rather than as a PDF attachment, the unique URL of a Web site that the consumer may use to access the full payment notice required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Additional content requirements.</I> If the transfer meets any of the conditions for unusual attempts described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C) of this section, the electronic short notice must also contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language in Model Clause A-7 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Varying amount,</I> as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Date other than due date of regularly scheduled payment,</I> as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Different payment channel,</I> as defined under paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>3</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Email delivery.</I> When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, and the method of electronic delivery is email, the lender may either deliver the full notice required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section in the body of the email or deliver the full notice as a linked URL Web page or PDF attachment along with the electronic short notice as provided in paragraph (b)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consumer rights notice</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> After a lender initiates two consecutive failed payment transfers from a consumer's account as described in § 1041.8(b), the lender must provide to the consumer a consumer rights notice in accordance with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> The lender must send the notice no later than three business days after it receives information that the second consecutive attempt has failed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Content requirements.</I> The notice must contain the following information and statements, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Identifying statement.</I> A statement that the lender, identified by name, is no longer permitted to withdraw loan payments from the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Last two attempts were returned.</I> A statement that the lender's last two attempts to withdraw payment from the consumer's account were returned due to non-sufficient funds, or, if applicable to payments initiated by the consumer's account-holding institution, caused the account to go into overdraft status.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Consumer account.</I> Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify the account from which the unsuccessful payment attempts were made. The lender must not provide the complete account number of the consumer, but may use a truncated version similar to Model Form A-5 in appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Loan identification information.</I> Sufficient information to permit the consumer to identify any covered loans associated with the unsuccessful payment attempts.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Statement of Federal law prohibition.</I> A statement, using that phrase, that in order to protect the consumer's account, Federal law prohibits the lender from initiating further payment transfers without the consumer's permission.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Contact about choices.</I> A statement that the lender may be in contact with the consumer about payment choices going forward.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Previous unsuccessful payment attempts.</I> In a tabular form:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Previous payment attempts heading.</I> A heading with the statement “previous payment attempts.”
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Payment due date.</I> The scheduled due date of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer attempted by the lender.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Date of attempt.</I> The date of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer initiated by the lender.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Amount.</I> The amount of each previous unsuccessful payment transfer initiated by the lender.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Fees.</I> The fees charged by the lender for each unsuccessful payment attempt, if applicable, with an indication that these fees were charged by the lender.
</P>
<P>(viii) <I>CFPB information.</I> A statement, using that phrase, that the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau created this notice, a statement that the CFPB is a Federal government agency, and the URL to <I>www.cfpb.gov/payday.</I> This statement must be the last piece of information provided in the notice.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Electronic delivery</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, the lender may provide the consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section through electronic delivery only if it also provides an electronic short notice, except for email delivery as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Electronic short notice</I>—(A) <I>Content.</I> The notice must contain the following information and statements, as applicable, using language substantially similar to the language set forth in Model Clause A-8 in appendix A to this part:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>Identifying statement.</I> As required under paragraph (c)(3)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) <I>Last two attempts were returned.</I> As required under paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) <I>Consumer account.</I> As required and limited under paragraph (c)(3)(iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) <I>Statement of Federal law prohibition.</I> As required under paragraph (c)(3)(v) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) <I>Web site URL.</I> When the full notice is being provided through a linked URL rather than as a PDF attachment, the unique URL of a Web site that the consumer may use to access the full consumer rights notice required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Email delivery.</I> When the consumer has consented to receive disclosures through electronic delivery, and the method of electronic delivery is email, the lender may either deliver the full notice required by paragraph (c)(1) of this section in the body of the email or deliver the full notice as a linked URL Web page or PDF attachment along with the electronic short notice as provided in paragraph (c)(4)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Recordkeeping, Anti-Evasion, Severability, and Dates</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1041.10-1041.11" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1041.10-1041.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.12" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.12   Compliance program and record retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance program.</I> A lender making a covered loan must develop and follow written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the requirements in this part. These written policies and procedures must be appropriate to the size and complexity of the lender and its affiliates, and the nature and scope of the covered loan lending activities of the lender and its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record retention.</I> A lender must retain evidence of compliance with this part for 36 months after the date on which a covered loan ceases to be an outstanding loan.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Retention of loan agreement for covered loans.</I> To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain or be able to reproduce an image of the loan agreement for each covered loan that the lender originates.
</P>
<P>(2)-(3) [Reserved] 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Retention of records relating to payment practices for covered loans.</I> To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain or be able to reproduce an image of the following documentation, as applicable, in connection with a covered loan:
</P>
<P>(i) Leveraged payment mechanism(s) obtained by the lender from the consumer;
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorization of additional payment transfer, as described in § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Underlying one-time electronic transfer authorization or underlying signature check, as described in § 1041.8(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electronic records in tabular format regarding payment practices for covered loans.</I> To comply with the requirements in this paragraph (b), a lender must retain electronic records in tabular format that include the following information for covered loans:
</P>
<P>(i) History of payments received and attempted payment transfers, as defined in § 1041.8(a)(1), including:
</P>
<P>(A) Date of receipt of payment or attempted payment transfer;
</P>
<P>(B) Amount of payment due;
</P>
<P>(C) Amount of attempted payment transfer;
</P>
<P>(D) Amount of payment received or transferred; and
</P>
<P>(E) Payment channel used for attempted payment transfer.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an attempt to transfer funds from a consumer's account is subject to the prohibition in § 1041.8(b)(1), whether the lender or service provider obtained authorization to initiate a payment transfer from the consumer in accordance with the requirements in § 1041.8(c) or (d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 85 FR 44444, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.13" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.13   Prohibition against evasion.</HEAD>
<P>A lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.14" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.14   Severability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part are separate and severable from one another. If any provision is stayed or determined to be invalid, the remaining provisions shall continue in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1041.15" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1041.15   Effective and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effective date.</I> The effective date of this part is January 16, 2018.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>April 16, 2018 application deadline.</I> The deadline to submit an application for preliminary approval for registration pursuant to § 1041.11(c)(1) is April 16, 2018.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>August 19, 2019 compliance date.</I> The compliance date for §§ 1041.2, 1041.3, 1041.7 through 1041.9, 1041.12(a), (b) introductory text and (b)(4) and (5), and 1041.13 is August 19, 2019.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019, as amended at 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.6.25" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1041—Model Forms


</HEAD>
<HD1>A-1 and A-2 Model Forms [Reserved] 
</HD1>
<HD1>A-3 Model Form for First Payment Withdrawal Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">b</E>)(2)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.012.gif"/>
<HD1>A-4 Model Form for Unusual Withdrawal Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">b</E>)(3)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.013.gif"/>
<HD1>A-5 Model Form for Consumer Rights Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">c</E>)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.014.gif"/>
<HD1>A-6 Model Clause for First Payment Withdrawal Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">b</E>)(4)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.015.gif"/>
<HD1>A-7 Model Clause for Unusual Withdrawal Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">c</E>)(4)( <E T="01">ii</E>)(B)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.016.gif"/>
<HD1>A-8 Model Clause for Consumer Rights Electronic Short Notice Under § 1041.9(<E T="01">c</E>)(4)


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er17no17.017.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]



</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.4.4.1.6.26" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Supplement I to Part 1041—Official Interpretations


</HEAD>
<HD2>Section 1041.2—Definitions
</HD2>
<HD3>2(a)(3) Closed-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(10) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of closed-end credit, but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11).


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(5) Consummation
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>New loan.</I> When a contractual obligation on the consumer's part is created is a matter to be determined under applicable law. A contractual commitment agreement, for example, that under applicable law binds the consumer to the loan terms would be consummation. Consummation, however, does not occur merely because the consumer has made some financial investment in the transaction (for example, by paying a non-refundable fee) unless applicable law holds otherwise.


</P>
<HD3>2(a)(11) Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(14) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of credit.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(12) Electronic Fund Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1005.3(b) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of electronic fund transfer.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(13) Lender
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Regularly extends credit.</I> The test for determining whether a person regularly extends credit for personal, family, or household purposes is explained in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17)(v). Any loan to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes, whether or not the loan is a covered loan under this part, counts toward the numeric threshold for determining whether a person regularly extends credit.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(16) Open-End Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>In general.</I> Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20) and its related commentary in determining the meaning of open-end credit, but without regard to whether the credit permits a finance charge to be imposed from time to time on an outstanding balance as defined in 12 CFR 1026.4. Also, for the purposes of defining open-end credit under this part, the term credit, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(11), is substituted for the term consumer credit, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12); the term lender, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(13), is substituted for the term creditor, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(17); and the term consumer, as defined in § 1041.2(a)(4), is substituted for the term consumer, as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11). See generally § 1041.2(b).
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(17) Outstanding Loan
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Payments owed to third parties.</I> A loan is an outstanding loan if it meets all the criteria set forth in § 1041.2(a)(17), regardless of whether the consumer is required to pay the lender, an affiliate of the lender, or a service provider. A lender selling the loan or the loan servicing rights to a third party does not affect whether a loan is an outstanding loan under § 1041.2(a)(17).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Stale loans.</I> A loan is generally an outstanding loan if the consumer has a legal obligation to repay the loan, even if the consumer is delinquent or if the consumer is in a repayment plan or workout arrangement. However, a loan that the consumer otherwise has a legal obligation to repay is not an outstanding loan for purposes of this part if the consumer has not made any payment on the loan within the previous 180-day period. A loan ceases to be an outstanding loan as of: The earliest of the date the consumer repays the loan in full, the date the consumer is released from the legal obligation to repay, the date the loan is otherwise legally discharged, or the date that is 180 days following the last payment that the consumer has made on the loan, even if the payment is not a regularly scheduled payment in a scheduled amount. If the consumer does not make any payments on a loan and none of these other events occur, the loan ceases to be outstanding 180 days after consummation. A loan cannot become an outstanding loan due to any events that occur after the consumer repays the loan in full, the consumer is released from the legal obligation to repay, the loan is otherwise legally discharged, 180 days following the last payment that the consumer has made on the loan, or 180 days after consummation of a loan on which the consumer makes no payments.
</P>
<HD3>2(a)(18) Service Provider
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit access businesses and credit services organizations.</I> Persons who provide a material service to lenders in connection with the lenders' offering or provision of covered loans are service providers, subject to the specific limitations in section 1002(26) of the Dodd-Frank Act. Accordingly, credit access businesses and credit service organizations that provide a material service to lenders during the course of obtaining for consumers, or assisting consumers in obtaining, loans from lenders, are service providers, subject to the specific limitations in section 1002(26) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<HD3>2(b) Rule of Construction
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Incorporation of terms from underlying statutes and regulations.</I> For purposes of this part, where definitions are incorporated from other statutes or regulations, users may as applicable rely on embedded definitions, appendices, and commentary for those other laws. For example, 12 CFR 1005.2(b) and its related commentary determine the meaning of account under § 1041.2(a)(1). However, where this part defines the same term or a parallel term in a way that creates a substantive distinction, the definition in this part shall control. See, for example, the definition of open-end credit in § 1041.2(a)(16), which is generally determined according to 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20) and its related commentary but without regard to whether the credit is consumer credit, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(12), or is extended to a consumer, as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(11), because this part provides a different and arguably broader definition of consumer in § 1041.2(a)(4).
</P>
<HD2>Section 1041.3—Scope of Coverage; Exclusions; Exemptions
</HD2>
<HD3>3(b) Covered Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Credit structure.</I> The term covered loan includes open-end credit and closed-end credit, regardless of the form or structure of the credit.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Primary purpose.</I> Under § 1041.3(b), a loan is not a covered loan unless it is extended primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1026.3(a) and its related commentary in determining the primary purpose of a loan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers.</I> A loan does not provide for multiple advances to a consumer if the loan provides for full disbursement of the loan proceeds only through disbursement on a single specific date.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loans that provide for multiple advances to consumers.</I> Both open-end credit and closed-end credit may provide for multiple advances to consumers. Open-end credit can have a fixed expiration date, as long as during the plan's existence the consumer may use credit, repay, and reuse the credit. Likewise, closed-end credit may consist of a series of advances. For example:
</P>
<P>i. Under a closed-end commitment, the lender might agree to lend a total of $1,000 in a series of advances as needed by the consumer. When a consumer has borrowed the full $1,000, no more is advanced under that particular agreement, even if there has been repayment of a portion of the debt.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Facts and circumstances test for determining whether loan is substantially repayable within 45 days.</I> Substantially repayable means that the substantial majority of the loan or advance is required to be repaid within 45 days of consummation or advance, as the case may be. Application of the standard depends on the specific facts and circumstances of each loan, including the timing and size of the scheduled payments. A loan or advance is not substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance merely because a consumer chooses to repay within 45 days when the loan terms do not require the consumer to do so.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Deposit advance products.</I> A loan or advance is substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance if the lender has the right to be repaid through a sweep or withdrawal of any qualifying electronic deposit made into the consumer's account within 45 days of consummation or advance. A loan or advance described in this paragraph is substantially repayable within 45 days of consummation or advance even if no qualifying electronic deposit is actually made into or withdrawn by the lender from the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>5. <I>Loans with alternative, ambiguous, or unusual payment schedules.</I> If a consumer, under any applicable law, would breach the terms of the agreement between the consumer and the lender or service provider by not substantially repaying the entire amount of the loan or advance within 45 days of consummation or advance, as the case may be, the loan is a covered short-term loan under § 1041.3(b)(1). For loans or advances that are not required to be repaid within 45 days of consummation or advance, if the consumer, under applicable law, would not breach the terms of the agreement between the consumer and the lender by not substantially repaying the loan or advance in full within 45 days, the loan is a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan under § 1041.3(b)(2) or a covered longer-term loan under § 1041.3(b)(3) if the loan otherwise satisfies the criteria specified in § 1041.3(b)(2) or (3), respectively.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Closed-end credit that does not provide for multiple advances to consumers. See</I> comments 3(b)(1)-1 and 3(b)(1)-2.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Payments more than twice as large as other payments.</I> For purposes of § 1041.3(b)(2)(i) and (ii), all required payments of principal and any charges (or charges only, depending on the loan features) due under the loan are used to determine whether a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment, regardless of whether the payments have changed during the loan term due to rate adjustments or other payment changes permitted or required under the loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Charges excluded.</I> Charges for actual unanticipated late payments, for exceeding a credit limit, or for delinquency, default, or a similar occurrence that may be added to a payment are excluded from the determination of whether the loan is repayable in a single payment or a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment. Likewise, sums that are accelerated and due upon default are excluded from the determination of whether the loan is repayable in a single payment or a particular payment is more than twice as large as another payment.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Multiple-advance structures.</I> Loans that provide for more than one advance are considered to be a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan under § 1041.3(b)(2)(ii) if either:
</P>
<P>i. The consumer is required to repay substantially the entire amount of an advance more than 45 days after the advance is made or is required to make at least one payment on the advance that is more than twice as large as any other payment; or
</P>
<P>ii. A loan with multiple advances is structured such that paying the required minimum payment may not fully amortize the outstanding balance by a specified date or time, and the amount of the final payment to repay the outstanding balance at such time could be more than twice the amount of other minimum payments under the plan. For example, the lender extends an open-end credit plan with a $500 credit limit, monthly billing cycles, and a minimum payment due each billing cycle that is equal to 10% of the outstanding principal. Fees or interest on the plan are equal to 10% of the outstanding principal per month, so that if a consumer pays nothing other than the minimum payment amount, the outstanding principal remains the same. All outstanding amounts must be repaid within six months of the advance. The credit plan is a covered loan under § 1041.3(b)(2)(ii) because if the consumer drew the entire amount at one time and then made only minimum payments, the sixth payment would be more than twice the amount of the minimum payment required ($50).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(3)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Conditions for coverage of a longer-term loan.</I> A loan that is not a covered short-term loan or a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan is a covered longer-term loan only if it satisfies both the cost of credit requirement of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and leveraged payment mechanism requirement of § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii). If the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3) are met, and the loan is not otherwise excluded or conditionally exempted from coverage by § 1041.3(d), (e), or (f), the loan is a covered longer-term loan. For example, a 60-day loan that is not a covered longer-term balloon-payment loan is not a covered longer-term loan if the cost of credit as measured pursuant to § 1041.2(a)(6) is less than or equal to a rate of 36 percent per annum even if the lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism.
</P>
<P>2. <I>No balance during a billing cycle.</I> Under § 1041.2(a)(6)(ii)(B), the cost of credit for open-end credit must be calculated according to the rules for calculating the effective annual percentage rate for a billing cycle as set forth in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.14(c) and (d), which provide that the annual percentage rate cannot be calculated for billing cycles in which there is a finance charge but no other balance. Accordingly, pursuant to § 1041.2(a)(6)(ii)(B), the cost of credit could not be calculated for such billing cycles. Section 1041.3(b)(3)(i)(B)(<I>1</I>) provides that, for such billing cycles, an open-end credit plan is determined to have exceeded the threshold set forth in that paragraph if there is no balance other than a finance charge imposed by the lender.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing for coverage determination.</I> A loan may become a covered longer-term loan at any such time as both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii) are met. For example:
</P>
<P>i. A lender originates a closed-end loan that is not a longer-term balloon-payment loan to be repaid within six months of consummation with a cost of credit equal to 60 percent. At the time of consummation, the loan is not a covered longer-term loan because it does not have a leveraged payment mechanism. After two weeks, the lender obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. The loan is now a covered longer-term loan because it meets both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii).
</P>
<P>ii. A lender extends an open-end credit plan with monthly billing cycles and a leveraged payment mechanism. At consummation and again at the end of the first billing cycle, the plan is not a covered longer-term loan because its cost of credit is below 36 percent. In the second billing cycle, the plan's cost of credit is 45 percent because several fees are triggered in addition to interest on the principal balance. The plan is now a covered longer-term loan because it meets both of the requirements of § 1041.3(b)(3)(i) and (ii). Beginning on the first day of the third billing cycle, and thereafter for the duration of the plan, the lender must therefore comply with the requirements of this part including by, for example, providing a first withdrawal notice before initiating the first payment transfer on or after the first day of the third billing cycle. The requirements to provide certain payment withdrawal notices under § 1041.9 have been structured so that the notices can be provided in the same mailing as the periodic statements that are required by Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.7(b). <I>See, e.g.,</I> § 1041.9(b)(3)(i)(D).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(b)(3)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The condition in § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii) is satisfied if a lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism before, at the same time as, or after the consumer receives the entire amount of funds that the consumer is entitled to receive under the loan, regardless of the means by which the lender or service provider obtains a leveraged payment mechanism.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Leveraged payment mechanism in contract.</I> The condition in § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii) is satisfied if a loan agreement authorizes the lender to elect to obtain a leveraged payment mechanism, regardless of the time at which the lender actually obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. The following are examples of situations in which a lender obtains a leveraged payment mechanism under § 1041.3(b)(3)(ii):
</P>
<P>i. <I>Future authorization.</I> A loan agreement provides that the consumer, at some future date, must authorize the lender or service provider to debit the consumer's account on a recurring basis.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Delinquency or default provisions.</I> A loan agreement provides that the consumer must authorize the lender or service provider to debit the consumer's account on a one-time or a recurring basis if the consumer becomes delinquent or defaults on the loan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(c)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Initiating a transfer of money from a consumer's account.</I> A lender or service provider obtains the ability to initiate a transfer of money when that person can collect payment, or otherwise withdraw funds, from a consumer's account, either on a single occasion or on a recurring basis, without the consumer taking further action. Generally, when a lender or service provider has the ability to “pull” funds or initiate a transfer from the consumer's account, that person has a leveraged payment mechanism. However, a “push” transaction from the consumer to the lender or service provider does not in itself give the lender or service provider a leveraged payment mechanism.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Lender-initiated transfers.</I> The following are examples of situations in which a lender or service provider has the ability to initiate a transfer of money from a consumer's account:
</P>
<P>i. <I>Check.</I> A lender or service provider obtains a check, draft, or similar paper instrument written by the consumer, other than a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as described in § 1041.3(c) and comment 3(c)-3.
</P>
<P>ii. <I>Electronic fund transfer authorization.</I> The consumer authorizes a lender or service provider to initiate an electronic fund transfer from the consumer's account in advance of the transfer, other than a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request as described in § 1041.3(c) and comment 3(c)-3.
</P>
<P>iii. <I>Remotely created checks and remotely created payment orders.</I> A lender or service provider has authorization to create or present a remotely created check (as defined by Regulation CC, 12 CFR 229.2(fff)), remotely created payment order (as defined in 16 CFR 310.2(cc)), or similar instrument drafted on the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>iv. <I>Transfer by account-holding institution.</I> A lender or service provider that is an account-holding institution has a right to initiate a transfer of funds between the consumer's account and an account of the lender or affiliate, including, but not limited to, an account-holding institution's right of set-off.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request excluded.</I> A single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2), is excluded from the definition of leveraged payment mechanism. Accordingly, if the loan or other agreement between the consumer and the lender or service provider does not otherwise provide for the lender or service provider to initiate a transfer without further consumer action, the lender or service provider can initiate a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request without causing the loan to become a covered loan under § 1041.3(b)(3). See § 1041.8(a)(2) and related commentary for guidance on what constitutes a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transfers not initiated by the lender.</I> A lender or service provider does not initiate a transfer of money from a consumer's account if the consumer authorizes a third party, such as a bank's automatic bill pay service, to initiate a transfer of money from the consumer's account to a lender or service provider.
</P>
<HD3>3(d) Exclusions
</HD3>
<HD3>3(d)(1) Certain Purchase Money Security Interest Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>“Sole purpose” test.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to loans made solely and expressly to finance the consumer's initial purchase of a good in which the lender takes a security interest as a condition of the credit. For example, the requirements of this part would not apply to a transaction in which a lender makes a loan to a consumer for the express purpose of initially purchasing a motor vehicle, television, household appliance, or furniture in which the lender takes a security interest and the amount financed is approximately equal to, or less than, the cost of acquiring the good, even if the cost of credit exceeds 36 percent per annum and the lender also obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. A loan is made solely and expressly to finance the consumer's initial purchase of a good even if the amount financed under the loan includes Federal, State, or local taxes or amounts required to be paid under applicable State and Federal licensing and registration requirements. This exclusion does not apply to refinances of credit extended for the purchase of a good.
</P>
<HD3>3(d)(2) Real Estate Secured Credit
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Real estate and dwellings.</I> The requirements of this part do not apply to credit secured by any real property, or by any personal property, such as a mobile home, used or expected to be used as a dwelling if the lender records or otherwise perfects the security interest within the term of the loan, even if the cost of credit exceeds 36 percent per annum and the lender or servicer provider also obtains a leveraged payment mechanism. If the lender does not record or perfect the security interest during the term of the loan, however, the credit is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(2).
</P>
<HD3>3(d)(5) Non-Recourse Pawn Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Lender possession required and no recourse permitted.</I> A pawn loan must satisfy two conditions to be excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5). First, the lender must have sole physical possession and use of the property securing the pawned property at all times during the entire term of the loan. If the consumer retains either possession or use of the property, however limited the consumer's possession or use of the property might be, the loan is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5). Second, the lender must have no recourse if the consumer does not elect to redeem the pawned item and repay the loan other than retaining the pawned property to dispose of according to State or local law. If any consumer, or if any co-signor, guarantor, or similar person, is personally liable for the difference between the outstanding balance on the loan and the value of the pawned property, the loan is not excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(5).
</P>
<HD3>3(d)(6) Overdraft Services
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Definitions.</I> Institutions may rely on 12 CFR 1005.17(a) and its related commentary in determining whether credit is an overdraft service or an overdraft line of credit that is excluded from the requirements of this part under § 1041.3(d)(6).
</P>
<HD3>3(d)(7) Wage Advance Programs
</HD3>
<P>1. Advances of wages under § 1041.3(d)(7) must be offered by an employer, as defined in the Fair Labor Standards Act, 29 U.S.C. 203(d), or by the employer's business partner to the employer's employees pursuant to a wage advance program. For example, an advance program might be offered by a company that provides payroll card services or accounting services to the employer, or by the employer with the assistance of such a company. Similarly, an advance program might be offered by a company that provides consumer financial products and services as part of the employer's benefits program, such that the company would have information regarding the wages accrued by the employee.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(7)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. Under the exclusion in § 1041.3(d)(7)(i), the advance must be made only against accrued wages. To qualify for that exclusion, the amount advanced must not exceed the amount of the employee's accrued wages. Accrued wages are wages that the employee is entitled to receive under State law in the event of separation from the employer for work performed for the employer, but for which the employee has yet to be paid.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(d)(7)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. Under § 1041.3(d)(7)(ii)(B), the entity advancing the funds is required to warrant that it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full. This provision does not prevent the entity from obtaining a one-time authorization to seek repayment from the consumer's transaction account.
</P>
<HD3>3(d)(8) No-Cost Advances
</HD3>
<P>1. Under § 1041.3(d)(8)(i), the entity advancing the funds is required to warrant that it has no legal or contractual claim or remedy against the consumer based on the consumer's failure to repay in the event the amount advanced is not repaid in full. This provision does not prevent the entity from obtaining a one-time authorization to seek repayment from the consumer's transaction account.
</P>
<HD3>3(e) Alternative Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.3(e) conditionally exempts from this part alternative covered loans that satisfy the conditions and requirements set forth in § 1041.3(e). Nothing in § 1041.3(e) provides lenders with an exemption from the requirements of other applicable laws, including State laws. The conditions for an alternative loan made under § 1041.3(e) largely track the conditions set forth by the National Credit Union Administration at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) for a Payday Alternative Loan made by a Federal credit union. All lenders, including Federal credit unions and persons that are not Federal credit unions, are permitted to make loans under § 1041.3(e), provided that such loans are permissible under other applicable laws, including State laws.
</P>
<HD3>3(e)(1) Loan Term Conditions
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(e)(1)(iv)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Substantially equal payments.</I> Under § 1041.3(e)(1)(iv), payments are substantially equal in amount if the amount of each scheduled payment on the loan is equal to or within a small variation of the others. For example, if a loan is repayable in six biweekly payments and the amount of each scheduled payment is within 1 percent of the amount of the other payments, the loan is repayable in substantially equal payments. In determining whether a loan is repayable in substantially equal payments, a lender may disregard the effects of collecting the payments in whole cents.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Substantially equal intervals.</I> The intervals for scheduled payments are substantially equal if the payment schedule requires repayment on the same date each month or in the same number of days of the prior scheduled payment. For example, a loan for which payment is due every 15 days has payments due in substantially equal intervals. A loan for which payment is due on the 15th day of each month also has payments due in substantially equal intervals. In determining whether payments fall due in substantially equal intervals, a lender may disregard that dates of scheduled payments may be slightly changed because the scheduled date is not a business day, that months have different numbers of days, and the occurrence of leap years. Section 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) does not prevent a lender from accepting prepayment on a loan made under § 1041.3(e).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amortization.</I> Section 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) requires that the scheduled payments fully amortize the loan over the contractual period and prohibits lenders from making loans under § 1041.3(e) with interest-only payments or with a payment schedule that front-loads payments of interest and fees. While under § 1041.3(e)(1)(iv) the payment amount must be substantially equal for each scheduled payment, the amount of the payment that goes to principal and to interest will vary. The amount of payment applied to interest will be greater for earlier payments when there is a larger principal outstanding.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 3(e)(1)(v)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Cost of credit.</I> Under § 1041.3(e)(1)(v), the lender must not impose any charges other than the rate and application fees permissible for Federal credit unions to charge under 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii). Under 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii), application fees must reflect the actual costs associated with processing the application and must not exceed $20.


</P>
<HD3>3(e)(2) Borrowing History Condition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Relevant records.</I> A lender may make an alternative covered loan under § 1041.3(e) only if the lender determines from its records that the consumer's borrowing history on alternative covered loans made under § 1041.3(e) meets the criteria set forth in § 1041.3(e)(2). The lender is not required to obtain information about a consumer's borrowing history from other persons, such as by obtaining a consumer report.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Determining 180-day period.</I> For purposes of counting the number of loans made under § 1041.3(e)(2), the 180-day period begins on the date that is 180 days prior to the consummation date of the loan to be made under § 1041.3(e) and ends on the consummation date of such loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Total number of loans made under § 1041.3(e)(2).</I> Section 1041.3(e)(2) excludes loans from the conditional exemption in § 1041.3(e) if the loan would result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender in any consecutive 180-day period. <I>See</I> § 1041.2(a)(17) for the definition of outstanding loan. Under § 1041.3(e)(2), the lender is required to determine from its records the consumer's borrowing history on alternative covered loans made under § 1041.3(e) by the lender. The lender must use this information about borrowing history to determine whether the loan would result in the consumer being indebted on more than three outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender in a consecutive 180-day period, determined in the manner described in comment 3(e)(2)-2. Section 1041.3(e) does not prevent lenders from making a covered loan subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Example.</I> For example, assume that a lender seeks to make an alternative loan under § 1041.3(e) to a consumer and the loan does not qualify for the safe harbor under § 1041.3(e)(4). The lender checks its own records and determines that during the 180 days preceding the consummation date of the prospective loan, the consumer was indebted on two outstanding loans made under § 1041.3(e) from the lender. The loan, if made, would be the third loan made under § 1041.3(e) on which the consumer would be indebted during the 180-day period and, therefore, would be exempt from this part under § 1041.3(e). If, however, the lender determined that the consumer was indebted on three outstanding loans under § 1041.3(e) from the lender during the 180 days preceding the consummation date of the prospective loan, the condition in § 1041.3(e)(2) would not be satisfied and the loan would not be an alternative loan subject to the exemption under § 1041.3(e) but would instead be a covered loan subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<HD3>3(e)(3) Income Documentation Condition
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.3(e)(3) requires lenders to maintain policies and procedures for documenting proof of recurring income and to comply with those policies and procedures when making alternative loans under § 1041.3(e). For the purposes of § 1041.3(e)(3), lenders may establish any procedure for documenting recurring income that satisfies the lender's own underwriting obligations. For example, lenders may choose to use the procedure contained in the National Credit Union Administration's guidance at 12 CFR 701.21(c)(7)(iii) on Payday Alternative Loan programs recommending that Federal credit unions document consumer income by obtaining two recent paycheck stubs.


</P>
<HD3>3(f) Accommodation Lending
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.3(f) provides a conditional exemption for covered loans if, at the time of origination: (1) The lender and its affiliates collectively have made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the current calendar year and made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in the preceding calendar year; and (2) during the most recent completed tax year in which the lender was in operation, if applicable, the lender and any affiliates that were in operation and used the same tax year derived no more than 10 percent of their receipts from covered loans, or if the lender was not in operation in a prior tax year, the lender reasonably anticipates that the lender and any of its affiliates that use the same tax year will, during the current tax year, derive no more than 10 percent of their combined receipts from covered loans. For example, assume a lender begins operation in January 2019, uses the calendar year as its tax year, and has no affiliates. In 2019, the lender could originate up to 2,500 covered loans that are not subject to the requirements of this part if at the time of each origination it reasonably anticipates that no more than 10 percent of its receipts during the current tax year will derive from covered loans. In 2020, the lender could originate up to 2,500 covered loans that are not subject to the requirements of this part if the lender made 2,500 or fewer covered loans in 2019 and the lender derived no more than 10 percent of its receipts in the 2019 tax year from covered loans. Section 1041.3(f) provides that covered longer-term loans for which all transfers meet the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), and receipts from such loans, are not included for the purpose of determining whether the conditions of § 1041.3(f)(1) and (2) have been satisfied. For example, a bank that makes a covered longer-term loan using a loan agreement that includes the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) does not need to include that loan, or the receipts from that loan, in determining whether it is below the 2,500 loan threshold or the 10 percent of receipts threshold in § 1041.3(f)(1) and (2).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reasonable anticipation of receipts for current tax year.</I> A lender and its affiliates can look to receipts to date in forecasting their total receipts for the current tax year, but are expected to make reasonable adjustments to account for an upcoming substantial change in business plans or other relevant and known factors.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1041.7—Identification of Unfair and Abusive Practice
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A lender who complies with § 1041.8 with regard to a covered loan has not committed the unfair and abusive practice under § 1041.7.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1041.8—Prohibited Payment Transfer Attempts
</HD2>
<HD3>8(a) Definitions
</HD3>
<HD3>8(a)(1) Payment Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Lender-initiated.</I> A lender-initiated debit or withdrawal includes a debit or withdrawal initiated by the lender's agent, such as a payment processor.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Any amount due.</I> The following are examples of funds transfers that are for the purpose of collecting any amount due in connection with a covered loan:
</P>
<P>i. A transfer for the amount of a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan.
</P>
<P>ii. A transfer for an amount smaller than the amount of a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan.
</P>
<P>iii. A transfer for the amount of the entire unpaid loan balance collected pursuant to an acceleration clause in a loan agreement for a covered loan.
</P>
<P>iv. A transfer for the amount of a late fee or other penalty assessed pursuant to a loan agreement for a covered loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amount purported to be due.</I> A transfer for an amount that the consumer disputes or does not legally owe is a payment transfer if it otherwise meets the definition set forth in § 1041.8(a)(1).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Transfers of funds not initiated by the lender.</I> A lender does not initiate a payment transfer when:
</P>
<P>i. A consumer, on her own initiative or in response to a request or demand from the lender, makes a payment to the lender in cash withdrawn by the consumer from the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>ii. A consumer makes a payment via an online or mobile bill payment service offered by the consumer's account-holding institution.
</P>
<P>iii. The lender seeks repayment of a covered loan pursuant to a valid court order authorizing the lender to garnish a consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic fund transfer.</I> Any electronic fund transfer meeting the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1) is a payment transfer, including but not limited to an electronic fund transfer initiated by a debit card or a prepaid card.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Signature check.</I> A transfer of funds by signature check meeting the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1) is a payment transfer regardless of whether the transaction is processed through the check network or through another network, such as the ACH network. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender processes a consumer's signature check through the check system to collect a scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The check is returned for nonsufficient funds. The lender then converts and processes the check through the ACH system, resulting in a successful payment. Both transfers are payment transfers, because both were initiated by the lender for purposes of collecting an amount due in connection with a covered loan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(i)(E)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Transfer by account-holding institution.</I> Under § 1041.8(a)(1)(i)(E), when the lender is the account holder, a transfer of funds by the account-holding institution from a consumer's account held at the same institution is a payment transfer if it meets the general definition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(i), unless the transfer of funds meets the conditions in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and is therefore excluded from the definition. See § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and related commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Examples.</I> Payment transfers initiated by an account-holding institution from a consumer's account include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>i. Initiating an internal transfer from a consumer's account to collect a scheduled payment on a covered loan.
</P>
<P>ii. Sweeping the consumer's account in response to a delinquency on a covered loan.
</P>
<P>iii. Exercising a right of offset to collect against an outstanding balance on a covered loan.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii) Conditional Exclusion for Certain Transfers by Account-Holding Institutions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) applies only to a lender that is also the consumer's account-holding institution. The exclusion applies only if the conditions in both § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) and (B) are met with respect to a particular transfer of funds. A lender whose transfer meets the exclusion has not committed the unfair and abusive practice under § 1041.7 and is not subject to § 1041.8 or § 1041.9 in connection with that transaction, but is subject to subpart C for any transfers that do not meet the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) and are therefore payment transfers under § 1041.8(a)(1).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Terms of loan agreement or account agreement.</I> The condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) is met only if the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement setting forth the restrictions on charging fees are in effect at the time the covered loan is made and remain in effect for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees prohibited.</I> Examples of the types of fees restricted under § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) include, but are not limited to, nonsufficient fund fees, overdraft fees, and returned-item fees. A lender seeking to initiate transfers of funds pursuant to the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii) may still charge the consumer a late fee for failure to make a timely payment, as permitted under the terms of the loan agreement and other applicable law, notwithstanding that the lender has initiated a transfer of funds meeting the description in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(A) in an attempt to collect the payment.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(1)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Under § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B), to be eligible for the exclusion in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii), a lender may not close the consumer's account in response to a negative balance that results from a lender-initiated transfer of funds in connection with the covered loan. A lender is not restricted from closing the consumer's account in response to another event, even if the event occurs after a lender-initiated transfer of funds has brought the account to a negative balance. For example, a lender may close the account at the consumer's request, for purposes of complying with other regulatory requirements, or to protect the account from suspected fraudulent use or unauthorized access, and still meet the condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Terms of loan agreement or account agreement.</I> The condition in § 1041.8(a)(1)(ii)(B) is met only if the terms of the loan agreement or account agreement providing that the lender will not close the account in the specified circumstances are in effect at the time the covered loan is made and remain in effect for the duration of the loan.
</P>
<HD3>8(a)(2) Single Immediate Payment Transfer at the Consumer's Request
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(2)(i)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Time of initiation.</I> A one-time electronic fund transfer is initiated at the time that the transfer is sent out of the lender's control. Thus, the electronic fund transfer is initiated at the time that the lender or its agent sends the transfer to be processed by a third party, such as the lender's bank. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender obtains a consumer's authorization for a one-time electronic fund transfer at 2 p.m. and sends the payment entry to its agent, a payment processor, at 5 p.m. on the same day. The agent then sends the payment entry to the lender's bank for further processing the next business day at 8 a.m. The timing condition in § 1041.8(a)(2)(ii) is satisfied, because the lender's agent sent the transfer out of its control within one business day after the lender obtained the consumer's authorization.
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<HD3>Paragraph 8(a)(2)(ii)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Time of processing.</I> A signature check is processed at the time that the check is sent out of the lender's control. Thus, the check is processed at the time that the lender or its agent sends the check to be processed by a third party, such as the lender's bank. For an example illustrating this concept within the context of initiating a one-time electronic fund transfer, see comment 8(a)(2)(i)-1.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Check provided by mail.</I> For purposes of § 1041.8(a)(2)(ii), if the consumer provides the check by mail, the check is deemed to be provided on the date that the lender receives it.
</P>
<HD3>8(b) Prohibition on Initiating Payment Transfers From a Consumer's Account After Two Consecutive Failed Payment Transfers
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> When the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies, a lender is generally restricted from initiating any further payment transfers from the consumer's account in connection with any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender at the time the prohibition is triggered, unless the requirements and conditions in either § 1041.8(c) or (d) are satisfied for each such covered loan for which the lender seeks to initiate further payment transfers. The prohibition applies, for example, to payment transfers that might otherwise be initiated to collect payments that later fall due under a loan agreement for a covered loan and to transfers to collect late fees or returned item fees as permitted under the terms of such a loan agreement. In addition, the prohibition applies regardless of whether the lender holds an otherwise valid authorization or instrument from the consumer, including but not limited to an authorization to collect payments by preauthorized electronic fund transfers or a post-dated check. See § 1041.8(c) and (d) and accompanying commentary for guidance on the requirements and conditions that a lender must satisfy to initiate a payment transfer from a consumer's account after the prohibition applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Account.</I> The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies only to the account from which the lender attempted to initiate the two consecutive failed payment transfers.
</P>
<P>3. <I>More than one covered loan.</I> The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is triggered after the lender has attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers in connection with any covered loan or covered loans that the consumer has with the lender. Thus, when a consumer has more than one covered loan with the lender, the two consecutive failed payment transfers need not be initiated in connection with the same loan in order for the prohibition to be triggered, but rather can be initiated in connection with two different loans. For example, the prohibition is triggered if the lender initiates the first failed payment transfer to collect payment on one covered loan and the second consecutive failed payment transfer to collect payment on a different covered loan, assuming that the conditions for a first failed payment transfer, in § 1041.8(b)(2)(i), and second consecutive failed transfer, in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), are met.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Application to bona fide subsequent loan.</I> If a lender triggers the prohibition in § 1041.8(b), the lender is not prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from initiating a payment transfer in connection with a bona fide subsequent covered loan that was originated after the prohibition was triggered, provided that the lender has not attempted to initiate two consecutive failed payment transfers from the consumer's account in connection with the bona fide subsequent covered loan. For purposes of § 1041.8(b) only, a bona fide subsequent covered loan does not include a covered loan that refinances or rolls over any covered loan that the consumer has with the lender at the time the prohibition is triggered.
</P>
<HD3>8(b)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Failed payment transfer.</I> A payment transfer results in a return indicating that the consumer's account lacks sufficient funds when it is returned unpaid, or is declined, due to nonsufficient funds in the consumer's account.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Date received.</I> The prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies as of the date on which the lender or its agent, such as a payment processor, receives the return of the second consecutive failed transfer or, if the lender is the consumer's account-holding institution, the date on which the second consecutive failed payment transfer is initiated.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Return for other reason.</I> A transfer that results in a return for a reason other than a lack of sufficient funds, such as a return made due to an incorrectly entered account number, is not a failed transfer for purposes of § 1041.8(b).
</P>
<P><I>4. Failed payment transfer initiated by a lender that is the consumer's account-holding institution.</I> When a lender that is the consumer's account-holding institution initiates a payment transfer for an amount that the account lacks sufficient funds to cover, the payment transfer is a failed payment transfer for purposes of the prohibition in § 1041.8(b), regardless of whether the result is classified or coded in the lender's internal procedures, processes, or systems as a return for nonsufficient funds or, if applicable, regardless of whether the full amount of the payment transfer is paid out of overdraft. Such a lender does not initiate a failed payment transfer for purposes of the prohibition if the lender merely defers or foregoes debiting or withdrawing payment from an account based on the lender's observation that the account lacks sufficient funds.
</P>
<HD3>8(b)(2) Consecutive Failed Payment Transfers
</HD3>
<HD3>8(b)(2)(i) First Failed Payment Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Examples.</I> The following examples illustrate concepts of first failed payment transfers under § 1041.8(b)(2)(i). All of the examples assume that the consumer has only one covered loan with the lender:
</P>
<P>i. A lender, having made no other attempts, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the first scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan, which results in a return for nonsufficient funds. The failed transfer is the first failed payment transfer. The lender, having made no attempts in the interim, re-presents the electronic fund transfer and the re-presentment results in the collection of the full payment. Because the subsequent attempt did not result in a return for nonsufficient funds, the number of consecutive failed payment transfers resets to zero. The following month, the lender initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the second scheduled payment due under the covered loan agreement, which results in a return for nonsufficient funds. That failed transfer is a first failed payment transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. A storefront lender, having made no prior attempts, processes a consumer's signature check through the check system to collect the first scheduled payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The check is returned for nonsufficient funds. This constitutes the first failed payment transfer. The lender does not thereafter convert and process the check through the ACH system, or initiate any other type of payment transfer, but instead contacts the consumer. At the lender's request, the consumer comes into the store and makes the full payment in cash withdrawn from the consumer's account. The number of consecutive failed payment transfers remains at one, because the consumer's cash payment was not a payment transfer as defined in § 1041.8(a)(2).
</P>
<HD3>8(b)(2)(ii) Second Consecutive Failed Payment Transfer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Under § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), a failed payment transfer is the second consecutive failed transfer if the previous payment transfer was a first failed payment transfer. The following examples illustrate this concept:
</P>
<P>i. Assume that a consumer has only one covered loan with a lender. The lender, having initiated no other payment transfer in connection with the covered loan, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect the first scheduled payment due under the loan agreement. The transfer is returned for nonsufficient funds. The returned transfer is the first failed payment transfer. The lender next initiates an electronic fund transfer for the following scheduled payment due under the loan agreement for the covered loan, which is also returned for nonsufficient funds. The second returned transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer.
</P>
<P>ii. Assume that a consumer has two covered loans, Loan A and Loan B, with a lender. Further assume that the lender has initiated no failed payment transfers in connection with either covered loan. On the first of the month, the lender initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect a regularly scheduled payment on Loan A, resulting in a return for nonsufficient funds. The returned transfer is the first failed payment transfer. Two weeks later, the lender, having initiated no further payment transfers in connection with either covered loan, initiates an electronic fund transfer to collect a regularly scheduled payment on Loan B, also resulting in a return for nonsufficient funds. The second returned transfer is the second consecutive failed payment transfer, and the lender is thus prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from initiating further payment transfers in connection with either covered loan.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Previous payment transfer.</I> Section 1041.8(b)(2)(ii) provides that a previous payment transfer includes a payment transfer initiated at the same time or on the same day as the first failed payment transfer. The following example illustrates how this concept applies in determining whether the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is triggered: Assume that a consumer has only one covered loan with a lender. The lender has made no other payment transfers in connection with the covered loan. On Monday at 9 a.m., the lender initiates two electronic fund transfers to collect the first scheduled payment under the loan agreement, each for half of the total amount due. Both transfers are returned for nonsufficient funds. Because each transfer is one of two failed transfers initiated at the same time, the lender has initiated a second consecutive failed payment transfer under § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), and the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) is therefore triggered.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Application to exception in § 1041.8(d).</I> When, after a second consecutive failed payment transfer, a lender initiates a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request pursuant to the exception in § 1041.8(d), the failed transfer count remains at two, regardless of whether the transfer succeeds or fails. Further, the exception is limited to a single payment transfer. Accordingly, if a payment transfer initiated pursuant to the exception fails, the lender is not permitted to re-initiate the transfer, such as by re-presenting it through the ACH system, unless the lender obtains a new authorization under § 1041.8(c) or (d).
</P>
<HD3>8(b)(2)(iii) Different Payment Channel
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 8(b)(2)(iii) provides that if a failed payment transfer meets the descriptions set forth in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii), it is the second consecutive failed transfer regardless of whether the first failed transfer was made through a different payment channel. The following example illustrates this concept: A lender initiates an electronic funds transfer through the ACH system for the purpose of collecting the first payment due under a loan agreement for a covered loan. The transfer results in a return for nonsufficient funds. This constitutes the first failed payment transfer. The lender next processes a remotely created check through the check system for the purpose of collecting the same first payment due. The remotely created check is returned for nonsufficient funds. The second failed attempt is the second consecutive failed attempt because it meets the description set forth in § 1041.8(b)(2)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>8(c) Exception for Additional Payment Transfers Authorized by the Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.8(c) sets forth one of two exceptions to the prohibition in § 1041.8(b). Under the exception in § 1041.8(c), a lender is permitted to initiate additional payment transfers from a consumer's account after the lender's second consecutive transfer has failed if the additional transfers are authorized by the consumer in accordance with certain requirements and conditions as specified in the rule. In addition to the exception under § 1041.8(c), a lender is permitted to execute a single immediate payment transfers at the consumer's request under § 1041.8(d), if certain requirements and conditions are satisfied.
</P>
<HD3>8(c)(1) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Consumer's underlying payment authorization or instrument still required.</I> The consumer's authorization required by § 1041.8(c) is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any separate payment authorization or instrument required to be obtained from the consumer under applicable laws.
</P>
<HD3>8(c)(2) General Authorization Requirements and Conditions
</HD3>
<HD3>8(c)(2)(i) Required Payment Transfer Terms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.8(c)(2)(i) sets forth the general requirement that, for purposes of the exception in § 1041.8(c), the specific date, amount, and payment channel of each additional payment transfer must be authorized by the consumer, subject to a limited exception in § 1041.8(c)(2)(iii) for payment transfers solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee. Accordingly, for the exception to apply to an additional payment transfer, the transfer's specific date, amount, and payment channel must be included in the signed authorization obtained from the consumer under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii). For guidance on the requirements and conditions that apply when obtaining the consumer's signed authorization, see § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii) and accompanying commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Specific date.</I> The requirement that the specific date of each additional payment transfer be authorized by the consumer is satisfied if the consumer authorizes the month, day, and year of each transfer.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Amount larger than specific amoun</I>t. The exception in § 1041.8(c)(2) does not apply if the lender initiates a payment transfer for an amount larger than the specific amount authorized by the consumer. Accordingly, such a transfer would violate the prohibition on additional payment transfers under § 1041.8(b).
</P>
<P>4. <I>Smaller amount.</I> A payment transfer initiated pursuant to § 1041.8(c) is initiated for the specific amount authorized by the consumer if its amount is equal to or smaller than the authorized amount.
</P>
<HD3>8(c)(2)(iii) Special Authorization Requirements and Conditions for Payment Transfers To Collect a Late Fee or Returned Item Fee
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> If a lender obtains the consumer's authorization to initiate a payment transfer solely to collect a late fee or returned item fee in accordance with the requirements and conditions under § 1041.8(c)(2)(iii), the general requirement in § 1041.8(c)(2) that the consumer authorize the specific date and amount of each additional payment transfer need not be satisfied.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Highest amount.</I> The requirement that the consumer's signed authorization include a statement that specifies the highest amount that may be charged for a late fee or returned item fee is satisfied, for example, if the statement specifies the maximum amount permitted under the loan agreement for a covered loan.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Varying fee amounts.</I> If a fee amount may vary due to the remaining loan balance or other factors, the rule requires the lender to assume the factors that result in the highest amount possible in calculating the specified amount.
</P>
<HD3>8(c)(3) Requirements and Conditions for Obtaining the Consumer's Authorization
</HD3>
<HD3>8(c)(3)(ii) Provision of Payment Transfer Terms to the Consumer
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> A lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) to request a consumer's authorization on or after the day that the lender provides the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). For the exception in § 1041.8(c) to apply, however, the consumer's signed authorization must be obtained no earlier than the date on which the consumer is considered to have received the consumer rights notice, as specified in § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Different options.</I> Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from providing different options for the consumer to consider with respect to the date, amount, or payment channel of each additional payment transfer for which the lender is requesting authorization. In addition, if a consumer declines a request, nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from making a follow-up request by providing a different set of terms for the consumer to consider. For example, if the consumer declines an initial request to authorize two recurring payment transfers for a particular amount, the lender may make a follow-up request for the consumer to authorize three recurring payment transfers for a smaller amount.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(c)(3)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Request by email.</I> Under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A), a lender is permitted to provide the required terms and statement to the consumer in writing or in a retainable form by email if the consumer has consented to receive electronic disclosures in that manner under § 1041.9(a)(4) or agrees to receive the terms and statement by email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c). The following example illustrates a situation in which the consumer agrees to receive the required terms and statement by email after affirmatively responding to the notice:
</P>
<P>i. After a lender provides the consumer rights notice in § 1041.9(c) by mail to a consumer who has not consented to receive electronic disclosures under § 1041.9(a)(4), the consumer calls the lender to discuss her options for repaying the loan, including the option of authorizing additional payment transfers pursuant to § 1041.8(c). In the course of the call, the consumer asks the lender to provide the request for the consumer's authorization via email. Because the consumer has agreed to receive the request via email in the course of a communication initiated by the consumer in response to the consumer rights notice, the lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A) to provide the request to the consumer by that method.
</P>
<P>2. <I>E-Sign Act does not apply to provision of terms and statement.</I> The required terms and statement may be provided to the consumer electronically in accordance with the requirements for requesting the consumer's authorization in § 1041.8(c)(3) without regard to the E-Sign Act. However, under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(A), an authorization obtained electronically is valid only if it is signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer in accordance with the signature requirements in the E-Sign Act. <I>See</I> § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(A) and comment 8(c)(3)(iii)(A)-1.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Same communication.</I> Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from requesting the consumer's authorization for additional payment transfers and providing the consumer rights notice in the same communication, such as a single written mailing or a single email to the consumer. Nonetheless, the consumer rights notice may be provided to the consumer only in accordance with the requirements and conditions in § 1041.9, including but not limited to the segregation requirements that apply to the notice. Thus, for example, if a lender mails the request for authorization and the notice to the consumer in the same envelope, the lender must provide the notice on a separate piece of paper, as required under § 1041.9. Similarly, a lender could provide the notice to a consumer in the body of an email and attach a document containing the request for authorization. In such cases, it would be permissible for the lender to add language after the text of the notice explaining that the other document is a request for a new authorization.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 8(c)(3)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Request by oral telephone communication.</I> Nothing in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii) prohibits a lender from contacting the consumer by telephone to discuss repayment options, including the option of authorizing additional payment transfers. However, under § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(B), a lender is permitted to provide the required terms and statement to the consumer by oral telephone communication for purposes of requesting authorization only if the consumer affirmatively contacts the lender in that manner in response to the consumer rights notice required by § 1041.9(c) and agrees to receive the terms and statement by that method of delivery in the course of, and as part of, the same communication.
</P>
<HD3>8(c)(3)(iii) Signed Authorization Required
</HD3>
<HD3>8(c)(3)(iii)(A) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>E-Sign Act signature requirements.</I> For authorizations obtained electronically, the requirement that the authorization be signed or otherwise agreed to by the consumer is satisfied if the E-Sign Act requirements for electronic records and signatures are met. Thus, for example, the requirement is satisfied by an email from the consumer or by a code entered by the consumer into the consumer's telephone keypad, assuming that in each case the signature requirements in the E-Sign Act are complied with.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Consumer's affirmative response to the notice.</I> A consumer affirmatively responds to the consumer rights notice that was provided by mail when, for example, the consumer calls the lender on the telephone to discuss repayment options after receiving the notice.
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<HD3>8(c)(3)(iii)(C) Memorialization Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Timing.</I> The memorialization is deemed to be provided to the consumer on the date it is mailed or transmitted.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Form of memorialization.</I> The requirement that the memorialization be provided in a retainable form is not satisfied by a copy of a recorded telephone call, notwithstanding that the authorization was obtained in that manner.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Electronic delivery.</I> A lender is permitted under § 1041.8(c)(3)(iii)(C) to provide the memorialization to the consumer by email in accordance with the requirements and conditions for requesting authorization in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A), regardless of whether the lender requested the consumer's authorization in that manner. For example, if the lender requested the consumer's authorization by telephone but also has obtained the consumer's consent to receive electronic disclosures by email under § 1041.9(a)(4), the lender may provide the memorialization to the consumer by email, as specified in § 1041.8(c)(3)(ii)(A).
</P>
<HD3>8(d) Exception for Initiating a Single Immediate Payment Transfer at the Consumer's Request
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> For guidance on the requirements and conditions that must be satisfied for a payment transfer to meet the definition of a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, see § 1041.8(a)(2) and accompanying commentary.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Application of prohibition.</I> A lender is permitted under the exception in § 1041.8(d) to initiate a single payment transfer requested by the consumer only once and thus is prohibited under § 1041.8(b) from re-initiating the payment transfer if it fails, unless the lender subsequently obtains the consumer's authorization to re-initiate the payment transfer under § 1041.8(c) or (d). However, a lender is permitted to initiate any number of payment transfers from a consumer's account pursuant to the exception in § 1041.8(d), provided that the requirements and conditions are satisfied for each such transfer. See comment 8(b)(2)(ii)-3 for further guidance on how the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) applies to the exception in § 1041.8(d).
</P>
<P>3. <I>Timing.</I> A consumer affirmatively contacts the lender when, for example, the consumer calls the lender after noticing on her bank statement that the lender's last two payment withdrawal attempts have been returned for nonsufficient funds.
</P>
<HD3>8(e) Prohibition Against Evasion
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.8(e) provides that a lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. In determining whether a lender has taken action with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8, the form, characterization, label, structure, or written documentation of the lender's action shall not be dispositive. Rather, the actual substance of the lender's action as well as other relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether the lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. If the lender's action is taken solely for legitimate business purposes, it is not taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. By contrast, if a consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances reveals a purpose that is not a legitimate business purpose, the lender's action may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. A lender action that is taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part may be knowing or reckless. Fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity may be one fact or circumstance that is relevant to the determination of whether a lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8, but fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity is not a prerequisite to such a finding.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Illustrative example.</I> A lender collects payment on its covered loans primarily through recurring electronic fund transfers authorized by consumers at consummation. As a matter of lender policy and practice, after a first attempt to initiate an ACH payment transfer from a consumer's account for the full payment amount is returned for nonsufficient funds, the lender initiates a second payment transfer from the account on the following day for $1.00. If the second payment transfer succeeds, the lender immediately splits the amount of the full payment into two separate payment transfers and initiates both payment transfers from the account at the same time, resulting in two returns for nonsufficient funds in the vast majority of cases. The lender developed the policy and began the practice shortly prior to August 19, 2019. The lender's prior policy and practice when re-presenting the first failed payment transfer was to re-present for the payment's full amount. Depending on the relevant facts and circumstances, the lender's actions may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of § 1041.8. Specifically, by initiating a second payment transfer for $1.00 from the consumer's account the day after a first transfer for the full payment amount fails and, if that payment transfer succeeds, initiating two simultaneous payment transfers from the account for the split amount of the full payment, resulting in two returns for nonsufficient funds in the vast majority of cases, the lender avoided the prohibition in § 1041.8(b) on initiating payment transfers from a consumer's account after two consecutive payment transfers have failed.
</P>
<HD3>Section 1041.9—Disclosure of Payment Transfer Attempts
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.9 sets forth two main disclosure requirements related to collecting payments from a consumer's account in connection with a covered loan. The first, set forth in § 1041.9(b), is a payment notice required to be provided to a consumer in advance of a initiating the first payment withdrawal or an unusual withdrawal from the consumer's account, subject to certain exceptions. The second, set forth in § 1041.9(c), is a consumer rights notice required to be provided to a consumer after a lender receives notice of a second consecutive failed payment transfer from the consumer's account, as described in § 1041.8(b). In addition, § 1041.9 requires lenders to provide an electronic short notice in two situations when they are providing the disclosures required by this section through certain forms of electronic delivery. The first, set forth in § 1041.9(b)(4), is an electronic short notice that must be provided along with the payment notice. This provision allows an exception for when the method of electronic delivery is email; for that method, the lender may use the electronic short notice under § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii) or may provide the full notice within the body of the email. The second, set forth in § 1041.9(c)(4), is an electronic short notice that must be provided along with the consumer rights notice. As with the payment notices, this consumer rights notice provision also allows an exception for when the method of electronic delivery is email; for that method, the lender may use the electronic short notice under § 1041.9(c)(4)(ii) or may provide the full notice within the body of the email.
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<HD3>9(a) General Form of Disclosures
</HD3>
<HD3>9(a)(1) Clear and Conspicuous
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Clear and conspicuous standard.</I> Disclosures are clear and conspicuous for purposes of § 1041.9 if they are readily understandable and their location and type size are readily noticeable to consumers.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(2) In Writing or Electronic Delivery
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic delivery.</I> Section 1041.9(a)(2) allows the disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery as long as the requirements of § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied, without regard to the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-Sign Act) (15 U.S.C. 7001 <I>et seq.</I>).
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<HD3>9(a)(3) Retainable
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Electronic disclosures, to the extent permitted by § 1041.9(a)(4), are retainable for purposes of § 1041.9 if they are in a format that is capable of being printed, saved, or emailed by the consumer. The general requirement to provide disclosures in a retainable form does not apply when the electronic short notices are provided in via mobile application or text message. For example, the requirement does not apply to an electronic short notice that is provided to the consumer's mobile telephone as a text message. In contrast, if the access is provided to the consumer via email, the notice must be in a retainable form, regardless of whether the consumer uses a mobile telephone to access the notice.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(4) Electronic Delivery
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.9(a)(4) permits disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery if the consumer consent requirements under § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied.
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<HD3>9(a)(4)(i) Consumer Consent
</HD3>
<HD3>9(a)(4)(i)(A) General
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.9(a)(4)(i) permits disclosures required by § 1041.9 to be provided through electronic delivery if the lender obtains the consumer's affirmative consent to receive the disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method. This affirmative consent requires lenders to provide consumers with an option to select a particular electronic delivery method. The consent must clearly show the method of electronic delivery that will be used, such as email, text message, or mobile application. Consent provided by checking a box during the origination process may qualify as being in writing. Consent can be obtained for multiple methods of electronic delivery, but the consumer must have affirmatively selected and provided consent for each method.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(4)(i)(B) Email Option Required
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section § 1041.9(a)(4)(i)(B) provides that when obtaining consumer consent to electronic delivery under § 1041.9(a)(4), a lender must provide the consumer with an option to receive the disclosures through email. The lender may choose to offer email as the only method of electronic delivery under § 1041.9(a)(4).
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(4)(ii) Subsequent Loss of Consent
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The prohibition on electronic delivery of disclosures in § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii) applies to the particular electronic method for which consent is lost. When a lender loses a consumer's consent to receive disclosures via text message, for example, but has not lost the consumer's consent to receive disclosures via email, the lender may continue to provide disclosures via email, assuming that all of the requirements in § 1041.9(a)(4) are satisfied.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Loss of consent applies to all notices.</I> The loss of consent applies to all notices required by § 1041.9. For example, if a consumer revokes consent in response to the electronic short notice text message delivered along with the payment notice under § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii), that revocation also applies to text delivery of the electronic short notice that would be delivered with the consumer rights notice under § 1041.9(c)(4)(ii).
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(4)(ii)(A)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Revocation.</I> For purposes of § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii)(A), a consumer may revoke consent for any reason and by any reasonable means of communication. Reasonable means of communication may include calling the lender and revoking consent orally, mailing a revocation to an address provided by the lender on its consumer correspondence, sending an email response or clicking on a revocation link provided in an email from the lender, and responding by text message to a text message sent by the lender.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(a)(4)(ii)(B)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Notice.</I> A lender receives notification for purposes of § 1041.9(a)(4)(ii)(B) when the lender receives any information indicating that the consumer did not receive or is unable to receive disclosures in a particular electronic manner. Examples of notice include but are not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>i. An email returned with a notification that the consumer's account is no longer active or does not exist.
</P>
<P>ii. A text message returned with a notification that the consumer's mobile telephone number is no longer in service.
</P>
<P>iii. A statement from the consumer that the consumer is unable to access or review disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(5) Segregation Requirements for Notices
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Segregated additional content.</I> Although segregated additional content that is not required by § 1041.9 may not appear above, below, or around the required content, additional content may be delivered through a separate form, such as a separate piece of paper or Web page.
</P>
<HD3>9(a)(7) Model Forms
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Safe harbor provided by use of model forms.</I> Although the use of the model forms and clauses is not required, lenders using them will be deemed to be in compliance with the disclosure requirement with respect to such model forms.
</P>
<HD3>9(b) Payment Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(1)(i) First Payment Withdrawal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>First payment withdrawal.</I> Depending on when the payment authorization granted by the consumer is obtained on a covered loan and whether the exception for a single immediate payment transfer made at the consumer's request applies, the first payment withdrawal may or may not be the first payment made on a covered loan. When a lender obtains payment authorization during the origination process, the lender may provide the first payment withdrawal notice at that time. A lender that obtains payment authorization after a payment has been made by the consumer in cash, or after initiating a single immediate payment transfer at the consumer's request, would deliver the notice later in the loan term. If a consumer provides one payment authorization that the lender uses to initiate a first payment withdrawal after a notice as required by § 1041.9(b)(1)(i), but the consumer later changes the authorization or provides an additional authorization, the lender's exercise of that new authorization would not be the first payment withdrawal; however, it may be an unusual withdrawal under § 1041.9(b)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>2. <I>First payment withdrawal is determined when the loan is in covered status.</I> As discussed in comment 3(b)(3)-3, there may be situations where a longer-term loan is not covered at the time of origination but becomes covered at a later date. The lender's first attempt to execute a payment transfer after a loan becomes a covered loan under this part is the first payment withdrawal. For example, consider a loan that is not considered covered at the time of origination. If the lender initiates a payment withdrawal during the first and second billing cycles and the loan becomes covered at the end of the second cycle, any lender initiated payment during the third billing cycle is considered a first payment withdrawal under this section.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Intervening payments.</I> Unscheduled intervening payments do not change the determination of first payment withdrawal for purposes of the notice requirement. For example, a lender originates a loan on April 1, with a payment scheduled to be withdrawn on May 1. At origination, the lender provides the consumer with a first payment withdrawal notice for May 1. On April 28, the consumer makes the payment due on May 1 in cash. The lender does not initiate a withdrawal on May 1. The lender initiates a withdrawal for the next scheduled payment June 1. The lender satisfied its notice obligation with the notice provided at origination, so it is not required to send a first payment notice in connection with the June 1 payment although it may have to send an unusual payment notice if the transfer meets one of the conditions in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C).
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(1)(iii) Exceptions
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Exception for initial payment transfer applies even if the transfer is unusual.</I> The exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies even if the situation would otherwise trigger the additional disclosure requirements for unusual attempts under § 1041.9(b)(3). For example, if the payment channel of the initial payment transfer after obtaining the consumer's consent is different than the payment channel used before the prohibition under § 1041.8 was triggered, the exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Multiple transfers in advance.</I> If a consumer has affirmatively consented to multiple transfers in advance, the exception in § 1041.9(b)(1)(iii)(A) applies only to the first initial payment transfer of that series.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2) First Payment Withdrawal Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(i) Timing
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>When the lender obtains payment authorization.</I> For all methods of delivery, the earliest point that the lender may provide the first payment withdrawal notice is when the lender obtains the payment authorization. For example, the notice can be provided simultaneously when the lender provides a consumer with a copy of a completed payment authorization, or after providing the authorization copy. The provision allows the lender to provide consumers with the notice at a convenient time because the lender and consumer are already communicating about the loan, but also allows flexibility for lenders that prefer to provide the notice closer to the payment transfer date. For example, the lender could obtain consumer consent to electronic delivery and deliver the notice through email 4 days before initiating the transfer, or the lender could hand deliver it to the consumer at the end of the loan origination process.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(i)(A) Mail
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The six business-day period begins when the lender places the notice in the mail, not when the consumer receives the notice. For example, if a lender places the notice in the mail on Monday, June 1, the lender may initiate the transfer of funds on Tuesday, June 9, if it is the 6th business day following mailing of the notice.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(i)(B) Electronic Delivery
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)(i)(B)(1)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The three-business-day period begins when the lender sends the notice, not when the consumer receives or is deemed to have received the notice. For example, if a lender sends the notice by email on Monday, June 1, the lender may initiate the transfer of funds on Thursday, June 4, the third business day following transmitting the notice.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)(i)(B)(2)
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> In some circumstances, a lender may lose a consumer's consent to receive disclosures through a particular electronic delivery method after the lender has provided the notice. In such circumstances, the lender may initiate the transfer for the payment currently due as scheduled. If the lender is scheduled to make a future unusual withdrawal attempt following the one that was disclosed in the previously provided first withdrawal notice, the lender must provide notice for that unusual withdrawal through alternate means, in accordance with the applicable timing requirements in § 1041.9(b)(3)(i).
</P>
<P><I>2. Alternate Means.</I> The alternate means may include a different electronic delivery method that the consumer has consented to, in person, or by mail, in accordance with the applicable timing requirements in § 1041.9(b)(3)(i).
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii) Content Requirements
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii)(B) Transfer Terms
</HD3>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(1) Date
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Date.</I> The initiation date is the date that the payment transfer is sent outside of the lender's control. Accordingly, the initiation date of the transfer is the date that the lender or its agent sends the payment to be processed by a third party. For example, if a lender sends its ACH payments to a payment processor working on the lender's behalf on Monday, June 1, but the processor does not submit them to its bank and the ACH network until Tuesday, June 2, the date of the payment transfer is Tuesday the 2nd.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(2) Amount
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Amount.</I> The amount of the transfer is the total amount of money that will be transferred from the consumer's account, regardless of whether the total corresponds to the amount of a regularly scheduled payment. For example, if a single transfer will be initiated for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment of $50.00 and a late fee of $30.00, the amount that must be disclosed under § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>) is $80.00.
</P>
<HD3>Paragraph 9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(5) Payment Channel
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Payment channel refers to the specific payment method, including the network that the transfer will travel through and the form of the transfer. For example, a lender that uses the consumer's paper check information to initiate a payment transfer through the ACH network would use the ACH payment channel under § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B)(<I>5</I>). A lender that uses consumer account and routing information to initiate a remotely created check over the check network would use the remotely created check payment channel. A lender that uses a post-dated signature check to initiate a transfer over the check network would use the signature check payment channel. A lender that initiates a payment from a consumer's prepaid card would specify whether that payment is processed as an ACH transfer, a PIN debit card network payment, or a signature debit card network payment.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Illustrative examples.</I> In describing the payment channel in the disclosure, the most common payment channel descriptions include, but are not limited to, ACH transfers, checks, remotely created checks, remotely created payment orders, internal transfers, PIN debit card payments, and signature debit card network payments.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii)(C) Payment Breakdown
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(2) Principal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> The amount of the payment that is applied to principal must always be included in the payment breakdown table, even if the amount applied is $0.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(4) Fees
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This field must only be provided if some of the payment amount will be applied to fees. In situations where more than one fee applies, fees may be disclosed separately or aggregated. A lender may use its own term to describe the fee, such as “late payment fee.”
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(2)(ii)(C)(5) Other Charges
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> This field must only be provided if some of the payment amount will be applied to other charges. In situations when more than one other charge applies, other charges may be disclosed separately or aggregated. A lender may use its own term to describe the charge, such as “insurance charge.”
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(3) Unusual Withdrawal Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(3)(i) Timing
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> See comments on 9(b)(2) regarding the first payment withdrawal notice.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(3)(ii) Content Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> If the payment transfer is unusual according to the circumstances described in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C), the payment notice must contain both the basic payment information required by § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(B) through (D) and the description of unusual withdrawal required by § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C).
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(3)(ii)(C) Description of Unusual Withdrawal
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> An unusual withdrawal notice is required under § 1041.9(b)(3) if one or more conditions are present. The description of an unusual withdrawal informs the consumer of the condition that makes the pending payment transfer unusual.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Illustrative example.</I> The lender provides a first payment withdrawal notice at origination. The first payment withdrawal initiated by the lender occurs on March 1, for $75, as a paper check. The second payment is scheduled for April 1, for $75, as an ACH transfer. Before the second payment, the lender provides an unusual withdrawal notice. The notice contains the basic payment information along with an explanation that the withdrawal is unusual because the payment channel has changed from paper check to ACH. Because the amount did not vary, the payment is taking place on the regularly scheduled date, and this is not a re-initiated payment, the only applicable content under § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C) is the different payment channel information.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Varying amount.</I> The information about varying amount for closed-end loans in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) applies in two circumstances. First, the requirement applies when a transfer is for the purpose of collecting a payment that is not specified by amount on the payment schedule, including, for example, a one-time electronic payment transfer to collect a late fee. Second, the requirement applies when the transfer is for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment for an amount different from the regularly scheduled payment amount according to the payment schedule. Given existing requirements for open-end credit, circumstances that trigger an unusual withdrawal for open-end credit are more limited according to § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>)(<I>ii</I>). Because the outstanding balance on open-end credit may change over time, the minimum payment due on the scheduled payment date may also fluctuate. However, the minimum payment amount due for open-end credit would be disclosed to the consumer according to the periodic statement requirement in Regulation Z. The payment transfer amount would not be considered unusual with regards to open-end credit unless the amount deviates from the minimum payment due as disclosed in the periodic statement. The requirement for a first payment withdrawal notice under § 1041.9(b)(2) and the other circumstances that could trigger an unusual withdrawal notice under § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>) through (<I>4</I>), continue to apply.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Date other than due date of regularly scheduled payment.</I> The changed date information in § 1041.9(b)(3)(ii)(C)(<I>2</I>) applies in two circumstances. First, the requirement applies when a transfer is for the purpose of collecting a payment that is not specified by date on the payment schedule, including, for example, a one-time electronic payment transfer to collect a late fee. Second, the requirement applies when the transfer is for the purpose of collecting a regularly scheduled payment on a date that differs from the regularly scheduled payment date according to the payment schedule.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(4) Electronic Delivery
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> If the lender is using a method of electronic delivery other than email, such as text or mobile application, the lender must provide the notice with the electronic short notice as provided in § 1041.9(b)(4)(ii). If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, § 1041.9(b)(4)(iii) allows the lender to determine whether to use the electronic short notice approach or to include the full text of the notice in the body of the email.
</P>
<HD3>9(b)(4)(ii) Electronic Short Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>9(b)(4)(ii)(A) General Content
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identifying statement.</I> If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, the identifying statement required in § 1041.9(b)(2)(ii)(A) and (b)(3)(ii)(A) must be provided in both the email subject line and the body of the email.
</P>
<HD3>9(c) Consumer Rights Notice
</HD3>
<HD3>9(c)(2) Timing
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Any information provided to the lender or its agent that the payment transfer has failed would trigger the timing requirement provided in § 1041.9(c)(2). For example, if the lender's agent, a payment processor, learns on Monday, June 1 that an ACH payment transfer initiated by the processor on the lender's behalf has been returned for non-sufficient funds, the lender would be required to send the consumer rights notice by Thursday, June 4.
</P>
<HD3>9(c)(3) Content Requirements
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Identifying statement.</I> If the lender is using email as the method of electronic delivery, the identifying statement required in § 1041.9(c)(3)(i) must be provided in both the email subject line and the body of the email.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Fees.</I> If the lender is also the consumer's account-holding institution, this includes all fees charged in relation to the transfer, including any returned payment fees charged to outstanding loan balance and any fees, such as overdraft or insufficient fund fees, charged to the consumer's account.
</P>
<HD3>9(c)(4) Electronic Delivery
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> See comments 9(b)(4)-1 and 9(b)(4)(ii)(A)-1.
</P>
<HD2>Section 1041.12—Compliance Program and Record Retention


</HD2>
<HD3>12(a) Compliance Program
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.12(a) requires a lender making a covered loan to develop and follow written policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to ensure compliance with the applicable requirements in this part. These written policies and procedures must provide guidance to a lender's employees on how to comply with the requirements in this part. In particular, under § 1041.12(a), a lender must develop and follow detailed written policies and procedures reasonably designed to achieve compliance, as applicable, with the payments requirements in §§ 1041.8 and 1041.9. The provisions and commentary in each section listed above provide guidance on what specific directions and other information a lender must include in its written policies and procedures.


</P>
<HD3>12(b) Record Retention
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>General.</I> Section 1041.12(b) requires a lender to retain various categories of documentation and information concerning payment practices in connection with covered loans. The items listed are non-exhaustive as to the records that may need to be retained as evidence of compliance with this part.


</P>
<HD3>12(b)(4) Retention of Records Relating to Payment Practices for Covered Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Methods of retaining documentation.</I> Section 1041.12(b)(4) requires a lender either to retain certain payment-related information in connection with covered loans in original form or to be able to reproduce an image of such documents accurately. For example, § 1041.12(b)(4) requires the lender to either retain a paper copy of the leveraged payment mechanism obtained in connection with a covered longer-term loan or to be able to reproduce an image of the mechanism. For documentation that the lender receives electronically, the lender may retain either the electronic version or a printout.


</P>
<HD3>12(b)(5) Electronic Records in Tabular Format Regarding Payment Practices for Covered Loans
</HD3>
<P>1. <I>Electronic records in tabular format.</I> Section 1041.12(b)(5) requires a lender to retain records regarding payment practices in electronic, tabular format. Tabular format means a format in which the individual data elements comprising the record can be transmitted, analyzed, and processed by a computer program, such as a widely used spreadsheet or database program. Data formats for image reproductions, such as PDF, and document formats used by word processing programs are not tabular formats.


</P>
<HD2>Section 1041.13—Prohibition Against Evasion
</HD2>
<P>1. <I>Lender action taken with the intent of evading the requirements of the rule.</I> Section 1041.13 provides that a lender must not take any action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. In determining whether a lender has taken action with the intent of evading the requirements of this part, the form, characterization, label, structure, or written documentation of the lender's action shall not be dispositive. Rather, the actual substance of the lender's action as well as other relevant facts and circumstances will determine whether the lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. If the lender's action is taken solely for legitimate business purposes, it is not taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. By contrast, if a consideration of all relevant facts and circumstances reveals the presence of a purpose that is not a legitimate business purpose, the lender's action may have been taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part. A lender action that is taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part may be knowing or reckless. Fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity may be one fact or circumstance that is relevant to the determination of whether a lender's action was taken with the intent of evading the requirements of this part, but fraud, deceit, or other unlawful or illegitimate activity is not a prerequisite to such a finding.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 54871, Nov. 17, 2017, as amended at 84 FR 27929, June 17, 2019; 85 FR 44445, July 22, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1070" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1070—DISCLOSURE OF RECORDS AND INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.;</I> 5 U.S.C. 552; 5 U.S.C. 552a; 18 U.S.C. 1905; 18 U.S.C. 641; 44 U.S.C. ch. 31; 44 U.S.C. ch. 35; 12 U.S.C. 3401 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 11503, Feb. 15, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> (1) This part is issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection, an independent Bureau within the Federal Reserve System, pursuant to the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, 12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.;</I> the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552; the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a; the Federal Records Act, 44 U.S.C. 3101; the Paperwork Reduction Act, 44 U.S.C. 3501 <I>et seq.;</I> the Right to Financial Privacy Act of 1978, 12 U.S.C. 3401; the Trade Secrets Act, 18 U.S.C. 1905; 18 U.S.C. 641; and any other applicable law that establishes a basis for the exercise of governmental authority by the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(2) This part establishes mechanisms for carrying out the CFPB's statutory responsibilities under the statutes in paragraph (a)(1) of this section to the extent those responsibilities require the disclosure, production, or withholding of information. In this regard, the CFPB has determined that the CFPB, and its delegates, may disclose information of the CFPB, in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part, whenever it is necessary or appropriate to do so in the exercise of any of the CFPB's authority. The CFPB has determined that all such disclosures, made in accordance with the rules and procedures specified in this part, are authorized by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This part contains the CFPB's rules relating to the disclosure of records and information generated by and obtained by the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(1) Subpart A contains general provisions and definitions used in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Subpart B implements the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpart C sets forth the procedures with respect to subpoenas, orders, or other requests for CFPB information in connection with legal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) Subpart D provides for the protection of confidential information and procedures for sharing confidential information with supervised institutions, government Agencies, and others in certain circumstances.
</P>
<P>(5) Subpart E implements the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.2   General definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Supervision Director</I> means the Supervision Director or any CFPB employee designated by the Director of the CFPB or the Supervision Director to act under this part.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Business day</I> means any day except Saturday, Sunday or a legal Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CFPB</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Chief FOIA Officer</I> means the Chief Operating Officer of the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Chief Operating Officer</I> means the Chief Operating Officer of the CFPB, or any CFPB employee to whom the Chief Operating Officer has delegated authority to act under this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Confidential information</I> means confidential consumer complaint information, confidential investigative information, and confidential supervisory information, as well as any other CFPB information that may be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b). Confidential information does not include information contained in records that have been made publicly available by the CFPB or information that has otherwise been publicly disclosed by an employee, or agent of the CFPB, with the authority to do so. Confidential information obtained by a third party or otherwise incorporated in the records of a third party, including another agency, shall remain confidential information subject to this part.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Confidential consumer complaint information</I> means information received or generated by the CFPB through processes or procedures established under 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3), to the extent that such information is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Confidential investigative information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any documentary material, written report, or written answers to questions, tangible thing, or transcript of oral testimony received by the CFPB in any form or format pursuant to a civil investigative demand, as those terms are set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5562, or received by the CFPB voluntarily in lieu of a civil investigative demand; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any other documents, materials, or records prepared by, on behalf of, received by, or for the use by the CFPB or any other Federal or State agency in the conduct of enforcement activities, and any information derived from such materials.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Confidential supervisory information</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Reports of examination, inspection and visitation, non-public operating, condition, and compliance reports, supervisory letter, or similar document, and any information contained in, derived from, or related to such documents;
</P>
<P>(2) Any documents, materials, or records, including reports of examination, prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the CFPB or any other Federal, State, or foreign government agency in the exercise of supervisory authority over a financial institution, and any information derived from such documents, materials, or records;
</P>
<P>(3) Any communications between the CFPB and a supervised financial institution or a Federal, State, or foreign government agency related to the CFPB's supervision of the institution;
</P>
<P>(4) Any information provided to the CFPB by a financial institution for purposes of detecting and assessing risks to consumers and to markets for consumer financial products or services pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5414(b)(1)(C), 5515(b)(1)(C), or 5516(b), or to assess whether an institution should be considered a covered person, as that term is defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481, or is subject to the CFPB's supervisory authority; and/or
</P>
<P>(5) Information that is exempt from disclosure pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(8).
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Director</I> means the Director of the CFPB or his or her designee, or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with law.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Employee</I> means all current employees or officials of the CFPB, including contract personnel, the employees of the Office of the Inspector General of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, and any other individuals who have been appointed by, or are subject to the supervision, jurisdiction, or control of the Director, as well as the Director. The procedures established within this part also apply to former employees where specifically noted.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Financial institution</I> means any person involved in the offering or provision of a “financial product or service,” including a “covered person” or “service provider,” as those terms are defined by 12 U.S.C. 5481.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the CFPB or any CFPB employee to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority to act under this part.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Report of examination</I> means the report prepared by the CFPB concerning the examination or inspection of a supervised financial institution.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>State</I> means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, or the United States Virgin Islands or any federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined by the Secretary of the Interior under section 104(a) of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994 (25 U.S.C. 479a-1(a)), and includes any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Supervised financial institution</I> means a financial institution that is or that may become subject to the CFPB's supervisory authority.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 75216, Nov. 24, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.3   Custodian of records; certification; alternative authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Custodian of records.</I> The Chief Operating Officer is the official custodian of all records of the CFPB, including records that are in the possession or control of the CFPB or any CFPB employee.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of record.</I> The Chief Operating Officer may certify the authenticity of any CFPB record or any copy of such record, or the absence thereof, for any purpose, and for or before any duly constituted Federal or State court, tribunal, or agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative authority.</I> Any action or determination required or permitted to be done by the Chief Operating Officer may be done by any employee who has been duly designated for this purpose by the Chief Operating Officer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.4" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.4   Records of the CFPB not to be otherwise disclosed.</HEAD>
<P>Except as provided by this part, employees or former employees of the CFPB, or others in possession of a record of the CFPB that the CFPB has not already made public, are prohibited from disclosing such records, without authorization, to any person who is not an employee of the CFPB.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.5" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.5   Service of summonses and complaints.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Only the General Counsel is authorized to receive and accept summonses or complaints sought to be served upon the CFPB or CFPB employees sued in their official capacity. Such documents should be served upon the General Counsel, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. This authorization for receipt shall in no way affect the requirements of service elsewhere provided in applicable rules and regulations.
</P>
<P>(b) If, notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, any summons or complaint described in that paragraph is delivered to an employee of the CFPB, the employee shall decline to accept the proffered service and may notify the person attempting to make service of the regulations set forth herein. If, notwithstanding this instruction, an employee accepts service of a document described in paragraph (a) of this section, the employee shall immediately notify and deliver a copy of the summons and complaint to the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) When a CFPB employee is sued in an individual capacity for an act or omission occurring in connection with duties performed on behalf of the CFPB (whether or not the officer or employee is also sued in an official capacity), the employee by law is to be served personally with process. <I>See</I> Fed. R. Civ. P. 4(i)(3). An employee sued in an individual capacity for an act or omission occurring in connection with duties performed on behalf of the CFPB shall immediately notify, and deliver a copy of the summons and complaint to, the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) The CFPB will only accept service of process for an employee sued in his or her official capacity. Documents for which the General Counsel accepts service in official capacity shall be marked “Service Accepted in Official Capacity Only.” Acceptance of service shall not constitute an admission or waiver with respect to jurisdiction, propriety of service, improper venue, or any other defense in law or equity available under applicable laws or rules.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Freedom of Information Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1070.10" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.10   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the regulations of the CFPB implementing the Freedom of Information Act (the FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended. These regulations set forth procedures for requesting access to records maintained by the CFPB. These regulations should be read together with the FOIA, the 1987 Office of Management and Budget Guidelines for FOIA Fees, the CFPB's Privacy Act regulations set forth in subpart E of this part, and the FOIA web page on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov,</I> which provide additional information about this topic.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.11" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.11   Information made available; discretionary disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The FOIA provides for public access to information and records developed or maintained by Federal agencies. Generally, the FOIA divides agency information into three major categories and provides methods by which each category of information is to be made available to the public. The three major categories of information are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Information required to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (see § 1070.12);
</P>
<P>(2) Information required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format or, in the alternative, to be published and offered for sale (see § 1070.13); and
</P>
<P>(3) Information required to be made available to any member of the public upon specific request (see §§ 1070.14 through 1070.22).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary disclosures.</I> Even though a FOIA exemption may apply to the information or records requested, the CFPB may, if not precluded by law, elect under the circumstances not to apply the exemption. The fact that the exemption is not applied by the CFPB in response to a particular request shall have no precedential significance in processing other requests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures of records frequently requested.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall make publicly available, as provided by § 1070.13, all records regardless of form or format, which have been released previously to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and §§ 1070.14 through 1070.22, and which the CFPB determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records. When the CFPB receives three (3) or more requests for substantially the same records, then the CFPB shall also make the released records publicly available.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.12" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.12   Publication in the <E T="0714">Federal Register</E>.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement.</I> The CFPB shall separately state, publish and maintain current in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Descriptions of its central and field organization and the established place at which, the persons from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may obtain information, make submissions or requests, or obtain decisions;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;
</P>
<P>(3) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports, or examinations;
</P>
<P>(4) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the CFPB; and
</P>
<P>(5) Each amendment, revision, or repeal of matters referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> Publication of the information under paragraph (a) of this section shall be subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)) and the limitations provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.13" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.13   Public inspection in an electronic format.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall, in conformance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), make available for public inspection in an electronic format, including by posting on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov,</I> or, in the alternative, promptly publish and offer for sale the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Those statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the CFPB but are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Its administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all records made publicly available pursuant to § 1070.11; and
</P>
<P>(5) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information made available online.</I> For records required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) (paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section), as soon as practicable, the CFPB shall make such records available on its e-FOIA Library, located at <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Record availability at the on-site e-FOIA Library.</I> Any member of the public may, upon request, access the CFPB's e-FOIA Library via a computer terminal at 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. Such a request may be made by electronic means as set forth on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov,</I> or in writing, to the Chief FOIA Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request must indicate a preferred date and time for the requested access. The CFPB reserves the right to arrange a different date and time with the requester, if necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Redaction of identifying details.</I> To prevent a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy, the CFPB may redact identifying details contained in any matter described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section before making such matters available for inspection or publication. The justification for the redaction shall be explained fully in writing, and the extent of such redaction shall be indicated on the portion of the record which is made available or published, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) under which the redaction is made. If technically feasible, the extent of the redaction shall be indicated at the place in the record where the redaction is made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.14" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.14   Requests for CFPB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the CFPB shall promptly make its records available to any person pursuant to a request that conforms to the rules and procedures of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of request.</I> A request for records of the CFPB shall be made in writing as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a request is submitted by mail or delivery service, it shall be addressed to the Chief FOIA Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. The request shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Request.”
</P>
<P>(2) If a request is submitted by electronic means, it shall be submitted as set forth on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I> The request shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Request.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of request.</I> (1) In order to ensure the CFPB's ability to respond in a timely manner, a FOIA request must describe the records that the requester seeks in sufficient detail to enable CFPB personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, the request should include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record. If known, the requester should include any file designations or descriptions for the records requested. The more specific the requester is about the records or type of records requested, the more likely the CFPB will be able to locate those records in response to the request;
</P>
<P>(2) In order to ensure the CFPB's ability to communicate effectively with the requester, a request should include contact information for the requester, including the name of the requester and, to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, and email address at which the CFPB may contact the requester regarding the request;
</P>
<P>(3) The request should state whether the requester wishes to receive the records in a specific format;
</P>
<P>(4) A requester should indicate in the request whether the requester is a commercial user, an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, representative of the news media, or “other” requester, as those terms are defined in § 1070.22(b), and the basis for claiming that fee category;
</P>
<P>(5) If a requester seeks a waiver or reduction of fees associated with processing a request, then the request shall include a statement to that effect as is required by § 1070.22(e); and
</P>
<P>(6) If a requester seeks expedited processing of a request, then the request must include a statement to that effect as is required by § 1070.17.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Perfected requests; effect of request deficiencies.</I> For purposes of computing its deadline to respond to a request, the CFPB will deem itself to have received a request only if, and on the date that, it receives a request that contains substantially all of the information required by and that otherwise conforms with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. The CFPB need not accept a request, process a request, or be bound by any deadlines in this subpart for processing a request that fails to conform, in any material respect, to the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. If a request is deficient in any material respect, then the CFPB may return it to the requester and if it does so, it shall advise the requester in what respect the request is deficient, and what additional information is needed to respond to the request. The requester may then amend or resubmit the request. A determination by the CFPB that a request is deficient in any respect is not a denial of a request for records and such determinations are not subject to appeal. If a requester fails to respond to a CFPB notification that a request is deficient within thirty (30) days of the CFPB's notification, the CFPB will deem the request withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests by an individual for CFPB records pertaining to that individual.</I> An individual who wishes to inspect or obtain copies of records of the Bureau that pertain to that individual shall provide identity verification in accordance with § 1070.53(c).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Requests for CFPB records pertaining to another individual.</I> Where a request for records pertains to a third party, a requester may receive greater access by submitting either a notarized authorization signed by that individual or a declaration by that individual made in compliance with the requirements set forth in 28 U.S.C. 1746 authorizing disclosure of the records to the requester, or submits proof that the individual is deceased (<I>e.g.,</I> a copy of a death certificate or an obituary). The CFPB may require a requester to supply additional information if necessary in order to verify that a particular individual has consented to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Assistance from FOIA Public Liaison.</I> Requesters may contact the CFPB's FOIA Public Liaison to seek assistance in determining the appropriate fee category, formatting of requests, or resolving any problems that arise prior to submitting a request or during the processing of a request. The FOIA Public Liaison can be contacted at the telephone number listed on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.15" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.15   Responsibility for responding to requests for CFPB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, the CFPB ordinarily will include only records in its possession as of the date the CFPB begins its search for them. If any other date is used, the CFPB shall inform the requester of that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The Chief FOIA Officer shall be authorized to grant or deny any request for a record of the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultations, referrals and coordination.</I> When reviewing a record in response to a request, the CFPB will determine whether another agency is better able to determine whether the record is exempt from disclosure under the FOIA. As to any such record, the agency must proceed in one of the following ways:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Referral.</I> (i) When a requested record has been created by an agency other than the CFPB, the CFPB shall refer the record to that agency for a direct response to the requester.
</P>
<P>(ii) Whenever the CFPB refers any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, it must document the referral, maintaining a copy of the record that it refers, and notify the requester of the referral, informing the requester of the name of the agency to which the record was referred, including that agency's FOIA contact information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Consultation.</I> When a FOIA request is received for a record created by the CFPB that includes information originated by another agency, the CFPB shall consult the originating agency for review and recommendation on disclosure. The CFPB shall not release any such records without prior consultation with the originating agency.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Coordination.</I> The standard referral procedure is not appropriate where disclosure of the identity of the agency to which the referral would be made could harm an interest protected by an applicable exemption, such as the exemptions that protect personal privacy or national security interests. In such instances, in order to avoid harm to an interest protected by an applicable exemption, the agency that received the request should coordinate with the originating agency to seek its views on the disclosability of the record. The release determination for the record that is the subject of the coordination should then be conveyed to the requester by the agency that originally received the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.16" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.16   Timing of responses to requests for CFPB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, and § 1070.17, the CFPB shall respond to requests according to their order of receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (1) The CFPB may establish separate tracks to process simple and complex requests. The CFPB may assign a request to the simple or complex track(s) based on the amount of work and/or time needed to process the request. The CFPB shall process requests in each track based on the date the request was perfected in accordance with § 1070.14(d).
</P>
<P>(2) The CFPB may provide a requester in its complex track with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of the simple track(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for responding to requests for records.</I> Ordinarily, the CFPB shall have twenty (20) business days from when a request is received by the CFPB to determine whether to grant or deny a request for records. The twenty (20) business day time period set forth in this paragraph (c) shall not be tolled by the CFPB except that the CFPB may:
</P>
<P>(1) Make one reasonable demand to the requester for clarifying information about the request and toll the twenty (20) business day time period while it awaits the clarifying information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Toll the twenty (20) business day time period while it awaits clarification from or addresses any dispute with the requester regarding the assessment of fees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unusual circumstances.</I> (1) Where the CFPB determines that due to unusual circumstances it cannot respond either to a request within the time period set forth in paragraph (c) of this section or to an appeal within the time period set forth in § 1070.21, the CFPB may extend the applicable time periods by informing the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances and of the date by which the CFPB expects to complete its processing of the request or appeal. Any extension or extensions of time with respect to a request or an appeal shall not cumulatively total more than ten (10) business days. However, if the CFPB determines that it needs additional time beyond a ten (10) business day extension to process a request, then the CFPB shall notify the requester, provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request, arrange for an alternative time frame for processing the request, or modify the request, and notify the requester of the availability of services provided by its FOIA Public Liaison and the Office of Government Information Services (OGIS).
</P>
<P>(2) As used in this paragraph (d), “unusual circumstances” means:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more CFPB offices having substantial subject matter interest therein.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.17" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.17   Requests for expedited processing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The CFPB shall process a request on an expedited basis whenever a requester demonstrates a compelling need for expedited processing in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) or in other cases that the CFPB deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and content of a request for expedited processing.</I> A request for expedited processing shall be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) A request for expedited processing shall be made in writing and submitted as part of a request for records in accordance with § 1070.14(b), or at any time during the processing of the request. When a request for records includes a request for expedited processing, the request shall be labeled “Expedited Processing Requested.”
</P>
<P>(2) A request for expedited processing shall contain a statement that demonstrates a compelling need for the requester to obtain expedited processing of the requested records. A “compelling need” is defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual. The requester shall fully explain the circumstances warranting such an expected threat so that the CFPB may make a reasoned determination that a delay in obtaining the requested records could pose such a threat; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal government activity. A requester who is not a full-time member of the news media must establish that the requester is a person whose primary professional activity or occupation is information dissemination, though it need not be the requester's sole occupation. Such a requester also must establish a particular urgency to inform the public about the government activity involved in the request—one that extends beyond the public's right to know about government activity generally. The existence of numerous articles published on a given subject can be helpful in establishing the requirement that there be an “urgency to inform” the public on the topic.
</P>
<P>(3) The requester shall certify the written statement that purports to demonstrate a compelling need for expedited processing to be true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief. The certification must be in the form prescribed by 28 U.S.C. 1746: “I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. Executed on [date].” The requester shall mail or submit electronically a copy of such written certification to the Chief FOIA Officer as set forth in § 1070.14(b). The CFPB may waive this certification requirement in appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determinations of requests for expedited processing.</I> Within ten (10) calendar days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing, the CFPB shall decide whether to grant it and shall notify the requester of the determination in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of granting requests for expedited processing.</I> If the CFPB grants a request for expedited processing, then the CFPB shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable. The CFPB may assign expedited requests to their own simple and complex processing tracks based upon the amount of work and/or time needed to process them. Within each such track, an expedited request shall be processed in the order of its receipt.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appeals of denials of requests for expedited processing.</I> If the CFPB denies a request for expedited processing, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying expedited processing. The requester shall label its appeal request “Appeal for Expedited Processing.” The CFPB shall act expeditiously upon an appeal of a denial of a request for expedited processing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.18" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.18   Responses to requests for CFPB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgements of requests.</I> Upon receipt of a request, the CFPB will assign to the request a unique tracking number. The CFPB will send an acknowledgement letter to the requester by mail or email within ten (10) calendar days of receipt of the request. The acknowledgment letter will contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable request tracking number;
</P>
<P>(2) The date of receipt of the request, as determined in accordance with § 1070.14(d), as well as the date when the requester may expect a response;
</P>
<P>(3) A brief statement identifying the subject matter of the request; and
</P>
<P>(4) A confirmation, with respect to any fees that may apply to the request pursuant to § 1070.22, that the requester has sought a waiver or reduction in such fees, has agreed to pay any and all applicable fees, or has specified an upper limit that the requester is willing to pay in fees to process the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination to grant or deny a request.</I> (1) The officer designated in § 1070.15(b), or his or her delegate, shall make initial determinations either to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records.
</P>
<P>(2) If the request is granted in full or in part, and if the requester requests a copy of the records requested, then a copy of the records shall be mailed or emailed to the requester in the requested format, to the extent the records are readily producible in the requested format. The CFPB shall also send the requester a statement of the applicable fees, either at the time of the determination or shortly thereafter, and inform the requester of the availability of its FOIA Public Liaison to offer assistance.
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a request for inspection, the requester shall be notified in writing of the determination, when and where the requested records may be inspected, and of the fees incurred in complying with the request. The CFPB shall then promptly make the records available for inspection at the time and place stated, in a manner that will not interfere with CFPB's operations and will not exclude other persons from making inspections. The requester shall not be permitted to remove the records from the room where inspection is made. If, after making inspection, the requester desires copies of all or a portion of the requested records, copies shall be furnished upon payment of the established fees prescribed by § 1070.22. Fees may be charged for search and review time as stated in § 1070.22.
</P>
<P>(4) If it is determined that the request for records should be denied in whole or in part, the requester shall be notified by mail or by email. The letter of notification shall:
</P>
<P>(i) State the exemptions relied upon in denying the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) If technically feasible, indicate the amount of information deleted and the exemptions under which the deletion is made at the place in the record where such deletion is made (unless providing such indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption relied upon to deny such material);
</P>
<P>(iii) Set forth the name and title or position of the responsible official;
</P>
<P>(iv) Advise the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Bureau's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Governmental Information Services;
</P>
<P>(v) Advise the requester of the right to administrative appeal in accordance with § 1070.21; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Specify the official or office to which such appeal shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(5) If it is determined, after a reasonable search for records, that no responsive records have been found to exist, the requester shall be notified in writing or by email. The notification shall also advise the requester of the right to administratively appeal the CFPB's determination that no responsive records exist (<I>i.e.,</I> to challenge the adequacy of the CFPB's search for responsive records) in accordance with § 1070.21. The response shall specify the official or office to which the appeal shall be submitted for review.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resolution of disputes.</I> The CFPB is committed to efficiently resolving disputes during the request process. The following resources are available to requesters to resolve any disputes that may arise during the request process:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>FOIA Public Liaison.</I> Any request related questions or concerns should be directed to the FOIA Public Liaison, who is responsible for reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers non-compulsory, non-binding dispute resolution services to help resolve FOIA disputes. A requester may contact OGIS directly at Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, Room 2510, 8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD 20740-6001, Email: <I>ogis@nara.gov,</I> Phone: (301) 837-1996, Fax: (301) 837-0348. This information is provided as a public service only. By providing this information, the CFPB does not commit to refer disputes to OGIS.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Format of records disclosed.</I> (1) The CFPB will provide records in the requested format if the records can readily be reproduced from the original file to that specific format.
</P>
<P>(2) The CFPB may charge fees associated with converting records or files into the requested format in accordance with § 1070.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.19" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.19   Classified information.</HEAD>
<P>Whenever a request is made for a record containing information that another agency has classified, or which may be appropriate for classification by another agency under Executive Order 13526 or any other executive order concerning the classification of information, the CFPB shall refer the responsibility for responding to the request to the classifying or originating agency, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.20" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.20   Requests for business information provided to the CFPB.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information provided to the CFPB by a business submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a FOIA request except in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Business information</I> means commercial or financial information obtained by the CFPB from a submitter that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person from whom the CFPB obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes, without limitation, corporations, State, local, and tribal governments, and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation of business information.</I> A submitter of business information will use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 of the FOIA. These designations will expire ten (10) years after the date of the submission unless the submitter requests otherwise and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> The CFPB shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of receipt of a request or appeal encompassing its business information whenever required in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such written notice shall either describe the exact nature of the business information requested or provide copies of the records or portions of records containing the business information. When notification of a voluminous number of submitters is required, notification may be made by posting or publishing the notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish it.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When notice is required.</I> (1) The CFPB shall provide a submitter with notice of receipt of a request or appeal whenever:
</P>
<P>(i) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The CFPB has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice requirements of this paragraph (e) shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(i) The CFPB determines that the information is exempt under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The information lawfully has been published or otherwise made available to the public;
</P>
<P>(iii) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1988 Comp., p. 235); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The designation made by the submitter under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section appears obviously frivolous, except that, in such a case, the CFPB shall, within a reasonable time prior to a specified disclosure date, give the submitter written notice of any final decision to disclose the information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure before release.</I> (1) Through the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section, the CFPB shall delay any release in order to afford a submitter ten (10) business days from the date of the notice to provide the CFPB with a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall specify all grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the FOIA and, in the case of Exemption 4, shall demonstrate why the information is considered to be a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that a submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified in it, the submitter shall be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter pursuant to this paragraph (f) may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(2) When notice is given to a submitter under this section, the requester shall be advised that such notice has been given to the submitter. The requester shall be further advised that a delay in responding to the request may be considered a denial of access to records and that the requester may proceed with an administrative appeal or seek judicial review, if appropriate. However, the requester will be invited to agree to a voluntary extension of time so that the CFPB may review the submitter's objection to disclose, if any.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> The CFPB shall consider a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information. Whenever the CFPB decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the CFPB shall forward to the submitter a written notice which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date which is not less than ten (10) business days after the notice of the final decision to release the requested information has been mailed to the submitter. Except as otherwise prohibited by law, a copy of the disclosure notice shall be forwarded to the requester at the same time.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice to submitter of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure of business information, the CFPB shall promptly notify the submitter of that business information of the existence of the suit.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice to requester of business information.</I> The CFPB shall notify a requester whenever it provides the submitter with notice and an opportunity to object to disclosure; whenever it notifies the submitter of its intent to disclose the requested information; and whenever a submitter files a lawsuit to prevent the disclosure of the information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.21" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.21   Administrative appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for administrative appeals.</I> A requester may appeal an initial determination of the CFPB, including for the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(1) To deny access to records in whole or in part (as provided in § 1070.18(b));
</P>
<P>(2) To assign a particular fee category to the requester (as provided in § 1070.22(b));
</P>
<P>(3) To deny a request for a reduction or waiver of fees (as provided in § 1070.22(e));
</P>
<P>(4) That no records exist that are responsive to the request (as provided in § 1070.18(b)); or
</P>
<P>(5) To deny a request for expedited processing (as provided in § 1070.17(e)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limits for filing administrative appeals.</I> An appeal, other than an appeal of a denial of expedited processing, must be postmarked or submitted electronically on a date that is within ninety (90) calendar days after the date the initial determination is sent to the requester or the date of the letter transmitting the last records released, whichever is later. An appeal of a denial of expedited processing must be made within ten (10) days of the date of the initial determination letter to deny expedited processing (see § 1070.17).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form and content of administrative appeals.</I> In order to ensure a timely response to an appeal, the appeal shall be made in writing as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If appeal is submitted by mail or delivery service, it shall be addressed to and submitted to the officer specified in paragraph (e) of this section at the address set forth in § 1070.14(b). The appeal shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(2) If an appeal is submitted by electronic means, it shall be addressed to the officer specified in paragraph (e) of this section and submitted as set forth on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I> The appeal shall be labeled “Freedom of Information Act Appeal.”
</P>
<P>(3) The appeal shall set forth contact information for the requester, including, to the extent available, a mailing address, telephone number, or email address at which the CFPB may contact the requester regarding the appeal; and
</P>
<P>(4) The appeal shall specify the applicable request tracking number, the date of the initial request, and the date of the letter of initial determination, and, where possible, enclose a copy of the initial request and the initial determination being appealed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing of administrative appeals.</I> The FOIA office will record the date that appeals are received. The receipt of the appeal will be acknowledged by the CFPB and the requester will be advised of the date the appeal was received, the appeal tracking number, and the expected date of response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determinations to grant or deny administrative appeals.</I> The General Counsel is authorized to and shall decide whether to affirm the initial determination (in whole or in part), to reverse the initial determination (in whole or in part) or to remand the initial determination to the Chief FOIA Officer for further action and shall notify the requester of this decision in writing within twenty (20) business days after the date of receipt of the appeal, unless extended pursuant to § 1070.16(d).
</P>
<P>(1) If it is decided that the appeal is to be denied (in whole or in part) the requester shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Notified in writing of the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notified of the reasons for the denial, including which of the FOIA exemptions were relied upon;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notified of the name and title or position of the official responsible for the determination on appeal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided with a statement that judicial review of the denial is available in the United States District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has a principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B); and
</P>
<P>(v) Provided with notification that dispute resolution services are available to the requester as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation through the Office of Government Information Services in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(3). Dispute resolution is a voluntary process. If the CFPB agrees to participate in the dispute resolution services provided by the Office of Governmental Information Services, it will actively engage as a partner to the process in an attempt to resolve the dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) If the initial determination is reversed on appeal, the requester shall be so notified and the request shall be processed promptly in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) If the initial determination is remanded on appeal to the Chief FOIA Officer for further action, the requester shall be so notified and the request shall be processed in accordance with the decision on appeal. The remanded request shall be treated as a new request received by the CFPB as of the date when the General Counsel transmits the remand notification to the requester. The procedures and deadlines set forth in this subpart for processing, deciding, responding to, and filing administrative appeals of new FOIA requests shall apply to the remanded request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Adjudication of administrative appeals of requests in litigation.</I> An appeal ordinarily will not be adjudicated if the request becomes a matter of FOIA litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.22" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.22   Fees for processing requests for CFPB records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The CFPB shall determine whether and to what extent to charge a requester fees for processing a FOIA request, for the services and in the amounts set forth in this paragraph (a), by determining an appropriate fee category for the requester (as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section) and then by charging the requester those fees applicable to the assigned category (as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section), unless circumstances exist (as described in paragraph (d) of this section) that render fees inapplicable or unless the requester has requested and the CFPB has granted a reduction in or waiver of fees (as set forth in paragraph (e) of this section).
</P>
<P>(1) The CFPB shall charge a requester fees for the cost of copying or printing records at the rate of $0.10 per page.
</P>
<P>(2) The CFPB shall charge a requester for all time spent by its employees searching for records that are responsive to a request. The CFPB shall charge the requester fees for search time as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The CFPB shall charge for search time at the salary rate(s) (basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employee(s) who conduct the search. However, the CFPB shall charge search fees at the rate of $9.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only administrative/clerical employees conduct a search and at the rate of $23.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only professional/executive employees conduct a search. Search charges shall also include transportation of employees and records necessary to the search at actual cost. Fees may be charged for search time even if the search does not yield any responsive records, or if records are exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CFPB shall charge the requester for the actual direct costs of conducting an electronic records search, including computer search time, runs, and output. The CFPB shall also charge for time spent by computer operators or programmers (at the rates set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section) who conduct or assist in the conduct of an electronic records search.
</P>
<P>(3) The CFPB shall charge a requester for time spent by its employees examining responsive records to determine whether any portions of such record are exempt from disclosure, pursuant to the FOIA exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b). The CFPB shall also charge a requester for time spent by its employees redacting any such exempt information from a record and preparing a record for release to the requester. The CFPB shall charge a requester for time spent reviewing records at the salary rate(s) (<I>i.e.,</I> basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employees who conduct the review. However, the CFPB shall charge review fees at the rate of $9.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only administrative/clerical employees review records and at the rate of $23.00 per fifteen (15) minutes of search time whenever only professional/executive employees review records. Fees shall be charged for review time even if records ultimately are not disclosed.
</P>
<P>(4) Fees for all services provided shall be charged whether or not copies are made available to the requester for inspection. However, no fee shall be charged for monitoring a requester's inspection of records.
</P>
<P>(5) Other services and materials requested which are not covered by this part nor required by the FOIA are chargeable at the actual cost to the CFPB. This includes, but is not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Certifying that records are true copies; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Sending records by special methods such as express mail, etc.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Categories of requesters.</I> (1) For purposes of assessing fees as set forth in this section, each requester shall be assigned to one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial user</I> refers to one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The CFPB's decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on how the requester will use the information.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Educational institution</I> refers to any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is made in connection with his or her role at the educational institution. Agencies may seek verification from the requester that the request is in furtherance of scholarly research and agencies will advise requesters of their placement in this category.
</P>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 1 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).</HED><PSPACE>A request from a professor of geology at a university for records relating to soil erosion, written on letterhead of the Department of Geology, would be presumed to be from an educational institution.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 2 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).</HED><PSPACE>A request from the same professor of geology seeking drug information from the Food and Drug Administration in furtherance of a murder mystery he is writing would not be presumed to be an institutional request, regardless of whether it was written on institutional stationery.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<EXAMPLE>
<HED>Example 3 to paragraph (b)(1)(ii).</HED><PSPACE>A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request, would qualify as part of this fee category.</PSPACE></EXAMPLE>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> refers to an institution that is not operated on a “commercial user” basis as that term is defined in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Representative of the news media</I> refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this paragraph (b)(1)(iv), the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. Other examples of news media entities include online publications and websites that regularly deliver news content to the public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the CFPB may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other requester</I> refers to a requester who does not fall within any of the categories described in paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Within twenty (20) calendar days of its receipt of a request, the CFPB shall make a determination as to the proper fee category to apply to a requester. The CFPB shall inform the requester of the determination in the request acknowledgment letter, or if no such letter is required, in another writing. Where the CFPB has reasonable cause to doubt the use to which a requester will put the records sought, or where that use is not clear from the request itself, the CFPB should seek additional clarification before assigning the request to a specific category.
</P>
<P>(3) If the CFPB assigns to a requester a fee category, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the CFPB's determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester of an adverse fee category determination. The requester shall label its appeal request “Appeal of Fee Category Determination.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees applicable to each category of requester.</I> The following fee schedule applies uniformly throughout the CFPB to requests processed under the FOIA. Specific levels of fees are prescribed for each category of requester defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial users shall be charged the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and duplicating the records they request. Moreover, when a request is received for disclosure that is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the CFPB is not required to consider a request for a waiver or reduction of fees based upon the assertion that disclosure would be in the public interest. The CFPB may recover the cost of searching for and reviewing records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records or no records are located.
</P>
<P>(2) Educational and non-commercial scientific institution requesters shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the CFPB shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge.
</P>
<P>(3) Representatives of the news media shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the CFPB shall provide them with the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge.
</P>
<P>(4) Other requesters who do not fit any of the categories described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (3) of this section shall be charged the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating records that are responsive to the request, except that the CFPB shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time free of charge. The CFPB may recover the cost of searching for records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records, or no records are located. Requests from persons for records about themselves filed in the CFPB's systems of records shall continue to be treated under the fee provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, which permit fees only for duplication, after the first one hundred (100) pages are furnished free of charge.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other circumstances when fees are not charged.</I> In the following situations the CFPB may not charge a requester certain FOIA processing fees.
</P>
<P>(1) If the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the total FOIA processing fee, then the CFPB shall not charge a requester any FOIA processing fees.
</P>
<P>(2) If the total search and review fees are less than $250, then the CFPB shall not charge a requester any search and review fees.
</P>
<P>(3) If the CFPB has waived or reduced FOIA processing fees in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, then the CFPB shall not charge the portion of the FOIA processing fees that has been waived or reduced.
</P>
<P>(4) If the CFPB fails to comply with any time limit under § 1070.15 or § 1070.21, then the CFPB shall not assess search fees or if the requester is a representative of the news media or an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, then the CFPB shall not assess duplication fees, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) A court has determined that exceptional circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, exist; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The CFPB has determined that unusual circumstances apply to the processing of the request; and
</P>
<P>(A) Provided timely written notice to the requester of the unusual circumstances in accordance with § 1070.16(d);
</P>
<P>(B) Determined that more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request; and
</P>
<P>(C) Discussed with the requester via mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(5) If the CFPB determines, as a matter of administrative discretion, that waiving or reducing the fees would serve the interest of the United States Government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) A requester shall be entitled to receive from the CFPB a waiver or reduction in the fees otherwise applicable to a FOIA request whenever the requester:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests such waiver or reduction of fees in writing as part of the FOIA request;
</P>
<P>(ii) Labels the request for waiver or reduction of fees “Fee Waiver or Reduction Requested” on the FOIA request; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrates that the fee reduction or waiver request that a waiver or reduction of the fees is in the public interest because:
</P>
<P>(A) Furnishing the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and
</P>
<P>(B) Furnishing the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) To determine whether the requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(A) of this section, the CFPB shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The subject of the requested records must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal government, with a connection that is direct and clear, and not remote or attenuated.
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either a duplicative or a substantially similar form, is not as likely to contribute to the public's understanding.
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public shall be considered. It shall be presumed that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iv) The public's understanding of the subject in question, as compared to the level of public understanding existing prior to the disclosure, must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine whether the requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (e)(1)(iii)(B) of this section, the CFPB shall consider the following factors:
</P>
<P>(i) The CFPB shall consider any commercial interest of the requester (with reference to the definition of “commercial user” in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section), or of any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. Requesters shall be given an opportunity in the administrative process to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration.
</P>
<P>(ii) A fee waiver or reduction is justified where the public interest standard is satisfied and that public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. The CFPB ordinarily shall presume that where a news media requester has satisfied the public interest standard, the public interest will be the interest primarily served by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return shall not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver shall be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(5) If the CFPB denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the CFPB shall advise the requester, in the denial notification letter, that the requester may incur fees if the CFPB proceeds to process the request. The notification letter shall also advise the requester that the CFPB will not proceed to process the request further unless the requester, in writing, directs the CFPB to do so and either agrees to pay any fees that may apply to processing the request or specifies an upper limit that the requester is willing to pay to process the request. If the CFPB does not receive this written direction and agreement/specification within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of the denial notification letter, then the CFPB shall deem the request to be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(6) If the CFPB denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1070.21. The CFPB shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying the fee reduction or waiver request. The requester should label its appeal request “Appeal for Fee Reduction/Waiver.”
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advance notice and prepayment of fees.</I> (1) The CFPB shall notify a requester of the estimated fees for processing a request and provide a breakdown of the fees attributable to search, review, and duplication, when the estimated fees are $250 or more and:
</P>
<P>(i) The fees exceed the limit set by the requester;
</P>
<P>(ii) The requester did not specify a limit; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The CFPB has denied a request for a reduction or waiver of fees.
</P>
<P>(2) The requester must provide an agreement to pay the estimated fees; however, the requester shall also be given an opportunity to reformulate the request in an attempt to reduce fees.
</P>
<P>(3) If the fees are estimated to exceed $1000, the requester must pre-pay such amount prior to the processing of the request, or provide satisfactory assurance of full payment if the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees. The requester shall also be given an opportunity to reformulate the request in such a way as to lower the applicable fees.
</P>
<P>(4) The CFPB reserves the right to request prepayment after a request is processed and before documents are released.
</P>
<P>(5) If a requester has previously failed to pay a fee within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of the billing, the requester shall be required to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the CFPB begins to process a new request or the pending request.
</P>
<P>(6) When the CFPB acts under paragraphs (f)(1) through (5) of this section, the statutory time limits of twenty (20) days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) from receipt of initial requests or appeals, plus extensions of these time limits, shall begin only after fees have been paid, a written agreement to pay fees has been provided, or a request has been reformulated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Form of payment.</I> Payment may be tendered as set forth on the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Charging interest.</I> The CFPB may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by the CFPB. The CFPB will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> Where the CFPB reasonably believes that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the CFPB may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The CFPB may presume that multiple requests of this type made within a thirty (30) day period have been made in order to avoid fees. Where requests are separated by a longer period, the CFPB will aggregate them only where there exists a solid basis for determining that aggregation is warranted under all the circumstances involved. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.23" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.23   Authority and responsibilities of the Chief FOIA Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Chief FOIA Officer.</I> The Director authorizes the Chief FOIA Officer to act upon all requests for agency records, with the exception of determining appeals from the initial determinations of the Chief FOIA Officer, which will be decided by the General Counsel. The Chief FOIA officer shall, subject to the authority of the Director:
</P>
<P>(1) Have CFPB-wide responsibility for efficient and appropriate compliance with the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor implementation of the FOIA throughout the CFPB and keep the Director, the General Counsel, and the Attorney General appropriately informed of the CFPB's performance in implementing the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(3) Recommend to the Director such adjustments to agency practices, policies, personnel and funding as may be necessary to improve the Chief FOIA Officer's implementation of the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(4) Review and report to the Attorney General, through the Director, at such times and in such formats as the Attorney General may direct, on the CFPB's performance in implementing the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(5) Facilitate public understanding of the purposes of the statutory exemptions of the FOIA by including concise descriptions of the exemptions in both the CFPB's handbook and the CFPB's annual report on the FOIA, and by providing an overview, where appropriate, of certain general categories of CFPB records to which those exemptions apply;
</P>
<P>(6) Designate one or more FOIA Public Liaisons;
</P>
<P>(7) Offer Training to Bureau staff regarding their responsibilities under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(8) Serve as the primary Bureau liaison with the Office of Government Information Services and the Office of Information Policy; and
</P>
<P>(9) Maintain and update, as necessary and in accordance with the requirements of this subpart, the CFPB's FOIA website, including its e-FOIA Library.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FOIA Public Liaisons.</I> FOIA Public Liaisons shall report to the Chief FOIA Officer and shall serve as supervisory officials to whom a requester can raise concerns about the service the requester has received from the CFPB's FOIA office, following an initial response from the FOIA office staff. FOIA Public Liaisons shall be responsible for assisting in reducing delays, increasing transparency and understanding of the status of requests, and assisting in the resolution of disputes.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Disclosure of CFPB Information in Connection with Legal Proceedings</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 46084, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1070.30" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.30   Purpose and scope; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the procedures to be followed with respect to subpoenas, court orders, or other requests or demands for any CFPB information, whether contained in the files of the CFPB or acquired by a CFPB employee as part of the performance of that employee's duties or by virtue of employee's official status.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart does not apply to requests for official information made pursuant to subparts B, D, and E of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) This subpart does not apply to requests for information made in the course of adjudicating claims against the CFPB by CFPB employees (present or former) or applicants for CFPB employment for which jurisdiction resides with the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, the U.S. Merit Systems Protection Board, the Office of Special Counsel, the Federal Labor Relations Authority, or their successor agencies, or a labor arbitrator operating under a collective bargaining agreement between the CFPB and a labor organization representing CFPB employees.
</P>
<P>(d) This subpart is intended only to inform the public about CFPB procedures concerning the service of process and responses to subpoenas, summons, or other demands or requests for official information or action and is not intended to and does not create, and may not be relied upon to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the CFPB or the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Demand</I> means a subpoena or order for official information, whether contained in CFPB records or through testimony, related to or for possible use in a legal proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Legal proceeding</I> encompasses all pre-trial, trial, and post-trial stages of all judicial or administrative actions, hearings, investigations, or similar proceedings before courts, commissions, boards, grand juries, arbitrators, or other judicial or quasi-judicial bodies or tribunals, whether criminal, civil, or administrative in nature, and whether foreign or domestic. This phrase includes all stages of discovery as well as formal or informal requests by attorneys, their agents, or others involved in legal proceedings.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Official Information</I> means all information of any kind, however stored, that is in the custody and control of the CFPB or was acquired by CFPB employees, or former employees as part of their official duties or because of their official status while such individuals were employed by or served on behalf of the CFPB. Official information also includes any information acquired by CFPB employees or former employees while such individuals were engaged in matters related to consumer financial protection functions prior to the employees' transfer to the CFPB pursuant to Subtitle F of the Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Request</I> means any request for official information in the form of testimony, affidavits, declarations, admissions, responses to interrogatories, document production, inspections, or formal or informal interviews, during the course of a legal proceeding, including pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure, or other applicable rules of procedure.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Testimony</I> means a statement in any form, including personal appearances before a court or other legal tribunal, interviews, depositions, telephonic, televised, or videographed statements or any responses given during discovery or similar proceeding in the course of litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.31" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.31   Service of subpoenas, court orders, and other demands for CFPB information or action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in cases in which the CFPB is represented by legal counsel who have entered an appearance or otherwise given notice of their representation, only the General Counsel is authorized to receive and accept subpoenas or other demands or requests directed to the CFPB or its employees, whether civil or criminal in nature, for:
</P>
<P>(1) Records of the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(2) Official information including, but not limited to, testimony, affidavits, declarations, admissions, responses to interrogatories, or informal statements, relating to material contained in the files of the CFPB or which any CFPB employee acquired in the course and scope of the performance of his or her official duties;
</P>
<P>(3) Garnishment or attachment of compensation of current or former employees; or
</P>
<P>(4) The performance or non-performance of any official CFPB duty.
</P>
<P>(b) Documents described in paragraph (a) of this section should be served upon the General Counsel, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552. Service must be effected as provided in applicable rules and regulations governing service in Federal judicial and administrative proceedings. Acceptance of such documents by the General Counsel does not constitute a waiver of any defense that might otherwise exist with respect to service under the Federal Rules of Civil or Criminal Procedure or other applicable laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that any demand or request described in paragraph (a) of this section is sought to be delivered to a CFPB employee other than in the manner prescribed in paragraph (b) of this section, such employee shall decline service and direct the server of process to these regulations. If the demand or request is nonetheless delivered to the employee, the employee shall immediately notify, and deliver a copy of that document to, the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(d) The CFPB is not an agent for service for, or otherwise authorized to accept on behalf of its employees, any subpoenas, orders, or other demands or requests, which are not related to the employees' official duties.
</P>
<P>(e) Copies of any subpoenas, orders, or other demands or requests that are directed to former employees of the CFPB in connection with the performance of official CFPB duties shall also be served upon the General Counsel. The CFPB shall not, however, serve as an agent for service for the former employee, nor is the CFPB otherwise authorized to accept service on behalf of its former employees. If the demand involves their official duties as CFPB employees, former employees who receive subpoenas, orders, or similar compulsory process should also notify, and deliver a copy of the document to, the General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.32" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.32   Testimony and production of documents prohibited unless approved by the General Counsel.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless authorized by the General Counsel, no employee or former employee of the CFPB shall, in response to a demand or a request provide oral or written testimony by deposition, declaration, affidavit, or otherwise concerning any official information.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless authorized by the General Counsel, no employee or former employee shall, in response to a demand or request, produce any document or any material acquired as part of the performance of that employee's duties or by virtue of that employee's official status.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.33" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.33   Procedure when testimony or production of documents is sought; general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, as part of a proceeding in which the United States or the CFPB is not a party, official information is sought through a demand for testimony, CFPB records, or other material, the party seeking such information must (except as otherwise required by Federal law or authorized by the General Counsel) set forth in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) The title and forum of the proceeding, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) A detailed description of the nature and relevance of the official information sought;
</P>
<P>(3) A showing that other evidence reasonably suited to the requester's needs is not available from any other source; and
</P>
<P>(4) If testimony is requested, the intended use of the testimony, a general summary of the desired testimony, and a showing that no document could be provided and used in lieu of testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) To the extent he or she deems necessary or appropriate, the General Counsel may also require from the party seeking such information a plan of all reasonably foreseeable demands, including but not limited to the names of all employees and former employees from whom testimony or discovery will be sought, areas of inquiry, expected duration of proceedings requiring oral testimony, identification of potentially relevant documents, or any other information deemed necessary to make a determination. The purpose of this requirement is to assist the General Counsel in making an informed decision regarding whether testimony, the production of documents, or the provision of other information should be authorized.
</P>
<P>(c) The General Counsel may consult or negotiate with an attorney for a party, or the party if not represented by an attorney, to refine or limit a request or demand so that compliance is less burdensome.
</P>
<P>(d) The General Counsel will notify the CFPB employee and such other persons as circumstances may warrant of his or her decision regarding compliance with the request or demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.34" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.34   Procedure when response to demand is required prior to receiving instructions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a response to a demand described in § 1070.33 is required before the General Counsel renders a decision, the CFPB will request that the appropriate CFPB attorney or an attorney of the Department of Justice, as appropriate, take steps to stay, postpone, or obtain relief from the demand pending decision. If necessary, the attorney will:
</P>
<P>(1) Appear with the employee upon whom the demand has been made;
</P>
<P>(2) Furnish the court or other authority with a copy of the regulations contained in this subpart;
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the court or other authority that the demand has been, or is being, as the case may be, referred for the prompt consideration of the appropriate CFPB official; and
</P>
<P>(4) Request the court or authority to stay the demand pending receipt of the requested instructions.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event that an immediate demand for production or disclosure is made in circumstances which would preclude the proper designation or appearance of an attorney of the CFPB or the Department of Justice on the employee's behalf, the employee, if necessary, shall request from the demanding court or authority a reasonable stay of proceedings for the purpose of obtaining instructions from the General Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.35" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.35   Procedure in the event of an adverse ruling.</HEAD>
<P>If a stay of, or other relief from, the effect of a demand made pursuant to §§ 1070.33 and 1070.34 is declined or not obtained, or if the court or other judicial or quasi-judicial authority declines to stay the effect of the demand made pursuant to §§ 1070.33 and 1070.34, or if the court or other authority rules that the demand must be complied with irrespective of the General Counsel's instructions not to produce the material or disclose the information sought, the employee upon whom the demand has been made shall decline to comply with the demand citing this subpart and <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.36" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.36   Considerations in determining whether the CFPB will comply with a demand or request.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In deciding whether to comply with a demand or request, CFPB officials and attorneys shall consider, among other pertinent considerations:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether such compliance would be unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the applicable rules of discovery or the rules of procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand arose;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the number of similar requests would have a cumulative effect on the expenditure of CFPB resources;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether compliance is appropriate under the relevant substantive law concerning privilege or disclosure of information;
</P>
<P>(4) The public interest;
</P>
<P>(5) The need to conserve the time of CFPB employees for the conduct of official business;
</P>
<P>(6) The need to avoid spending time and money of the United States for private purposes;
</P>
<P>(7) The need to maintain impartiality between private litigants in cases where a substantial government interest is not implicated;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether compliance would have an adverse effect on performance by the CFPB of its mission and duties;
</P>
<P>(9) The need to avoid involving the CFPB in controversial issues not related to its mission;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether compliance would interfere with supervisory examinations, compromise the CFPB's supervisory functions or programs, or undermine public confidence in supervised financial institutions; and
</P>
<P>(11) Whether compliance would interfere with the CFPB's ability to monitor for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products and services.
</P>
<P>(b) Among those demands and requests in response to which compliance will not ordinarily be authorized are those with respect to which any of the following factors, inter alia, exist:
</P>
<P>(1) Compliance would violate a statute or applicable rule of procedure;
</P>
<P>(2) Compliance would violate a specific regulation or Executive order;
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance would reveal information properly classified in the interest of national security;
</P>
<P>(4) Compliance would reveal confidential or privileged commercial or financial information or trade secrets without the owner's consent;
</P>
<P>(5) Compliance would compromise the integrity of the deliberative processes of the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(6) Compliance would not be appropriate or necessary under the relevant substantive law governing privilege;
</P>
<P>(7) Compliance would reveal confidential information; or
</P>
<P>(8) Compliance would interfere with ongoing investigations or enforcement proceedings, compromise constitutional rights, or reveal the identity of a confidential informant.
</P>
<P>(c) The CFPB may condition disclosure of official information pursuant to a request or demand on the entry of an appropriate protective order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.37" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.37   Prohibition on providing expert or opinion testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in this section, and subject to 5 CFR 2635.805, CFPB employees or former employees shall not provide opinion or expert testimony based upon information which they acquired in the scope and performance of their official CFPB duties, except on behalf of the CFPB or the United States or a party represented by the CFPB, or the Department of Justice, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) Any expert or opinion testimony by a former employee of the CFPB shall be excepted from paragraph (a) of this section where the testimony involves only general expertise gained while employed at the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(c) Upon a showing by the requester of exceptional need or unique circumstances and that the anticipated testimony will not be adverse to the interests of the United States, the General Counsel may, consistent with 5 CFR 2635.805, exercise his or her discretion to grant special, written authorization for CFPB employees, or former employees, to appear and testify as expert witnesses at no expense to the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) If, despite the final determination of the General Counsel, a court of competent jurisdiction or other appropriate authority orders the appearance and expert or opinion testimony of a current or former CFPB employee, that person shall immediately inform the General Counsel of such order. If the General Counsel determines that no further legal review of or challenge to the court's order will be made, the CFPB employee, or former employee, shall comply with the order. If so directed by the General Counsel, however, the employee, or former employee, shall decline to testify.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Confidential Information</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 75217, Nov. 24, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1070.40" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.40   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart does not apply to requests for official information made pursuant to subpart B, C, or E of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.41" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.41   Non-disclosure of confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-disclosure.</I> Except as required by law or as provided in this part, no current or former employee or contractor or consultant of the CFPB, or any other person in possession of confidential information, shall disclose such confidential information by any means (including written or oral communications) or in any format (including paper and electronic formats), to:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who is not an employee, contractor, or consultant of the CFPB; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any CFPB employee, contractor, or consultant when the disclosure of such confidential information to that employee, contractor, or consultant is not relevant to the performance of the employee's, contractor's, or consultant's assigned duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures to contractors and consultants.</I> CFPB contractors or consultants must treat confidential information in accordance with this part, other Federal laws and regulations that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity, as well as any additional conditions or limitations that the CFPB may impose. CFPB contractors or consultants may receive confidential information only if such contractors or consultants certify in writing to treat such confidential information in accordance with the requirements identified in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure of materials derived from confidential information.</I> The CFPB may, in its discretion, disclose materials that it derives from or creates using confidential information to the extent that such materials do not identify, either directly or indirectly, any particular person to whom the confidential information pertains.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure of confidential information with consent.</I> Where practicable, the CFPB may, in its discretion and in accordance with applicable law, disclose confidential information that directly or indirectly identifies particular persons if the CFPB obtains prior consent from such persons to make the disclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Nondisclosure of confidential information belonging to other agencies.</I> Nothing in this subpart requires or authorizes the CFPB to disclose confidential information belonging to another agency that has been provided to the CFPB (either directly or through a holder of the information such as a financial institution) to the extent that such disclosure contravenes applicable law or the terms of any agreement that exists between the CFPB and the agency to govern the CFPB's treatment of information that the agency provides to the CFPB.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.42" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.42   Disclosure of confidential supervisory information and confidential investigative information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary disclosure of confidential supervisory information or confidential investigative information by the CFPB.</I> The CFPB may, in its discretion, and to the extent consistent with applicable law, disclose confidential supervisory information or confidential investigative information concerning a person or its service providers to that person or to its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Further disclosure of confidential supervisory information.</I> Unless directed otherwise by the Supervision Director:
</P>
<P>(1) Any supervised financial institution lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information of the CFPB provided directly to it by the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may disclose such information, or portions thereof, to its affiliates and to the following individuals to the extent that the disclosure of such confidential supervisory information is relevant to the performance of such individuals' assigned duties:
</P>
<P>(i) Its directors, officers, trustees, members, general partners, or employees; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The directors, officers, trustees, members, general partners, or employees of its affiliates.
</P>
<P>(2) Any supervised financial institution or affiliate thereof that is lawfully in possession of confidential supervisory information of the CFPB provided directly to it by the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section may disclose such information, or portions thereof, to:
</P>
<P>(i) Its certified public accountant, legal counsel, contractor, consultant, or service provider;
</P>
<P>(ii) Its insurance provider pursuant to a claim made under an existing policy, provided that the Bureau has not precluded indemnification or reimbursement for the claim; information disclosed pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2)(ii) may be used by the insurance provider solely for purposes of administering such a claim; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Another person, with the prior written approval of the Supervision Director.
</P>
<P>(3) Where a supervised financial institution or its affiliate discloses confidential supervisory information of the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The recipient of such confidential supervisory information shall not, without the prior written approval of the Supervision Director utilize, make, or retain copies of, or disclose confidential supervisory information for any purpose, except as is necessary to provide advice or services to the supervised financial institution or its affiliate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The supervised financial institution or its affiliate disclosing the confidential supervisory information shall take reasonable steps to ensure that the recipient complies with paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this paragraph (b) authorizes a supervised financial institution or affiliate thereof to further disclose confidential information belonging to another agency.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Further disclosure of confidential investigative information.</I> Nothing in this subpart shall prohibit any person lawfully in possession of confidential investigative information of the CFPB pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section from further disclosing that confidential investigative information.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 75217, Nov. 24, 2020, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.43" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.43   Disclosure of confidential information to agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required disclosure of confidential information to agencies.</I> The CFPB shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose a draft of a report of examination of a supervised financial institution prior to its finalization, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5515(e)(1)(C), and disclose a final report of examination, including any and all revisions made to such a report, as provided in 12 U.S.C. 5512(c)(6)(C)(i), to a Federal or State agency with jurisdiction over that supervised financial institution, provided that the CFPB receives from the agency reasonable assurances as to the confidentiality of the information disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Disclose confidential consumer complaint information to a Federal or State agency to facilitate preparation of reports to Congress required by 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3)(C) and to facilitate the CFPB's supervision and enforcement activities and its monitoring of the market for consumer financial products and services, provided that the agency shall first give written assurance to the CFPB that it will maintain such information in confidence, including in a manner that conforms to the standards that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary disclosure of confidential information to agencies.</I> (1) Upon receipt of a written request that contains the information required by paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the CFPB may, in its discretion, disclose confidential information to a Federal or State agency to the extent that the disclosure of the information is relevant to the exercise of the agency's statutory or regulatory authority or, with respect to the disclosure of confidential supervisory information, to a Federal or State agency having jurisdiction over a supervised financial institution.
</P>
<P>(2) To obtain access to confidential information pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section, an authorized officer or employee of the agency shall submit a written request to the Director. The request shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of the particular information, kinds of information, and where possible, the particular documents to which access is sought;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement of the purpose for which the information will be used;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement certifying and identifying, as required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the agency's statutory or regulatory authority that is relevant to the requested information or, with respect to a request for confidential supervisory information, the agency's jurisdiction over a supervised financial institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement certifying and identifying the agency's legal authority for protecting the requested information from public disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(v) A certification that the agency will maintain the requested confidential information in confidence, including in a manner that conforms to the standards that apply to Federal agencies for the protection of the confidentiality of personally identifiable information and for data security and integrity, as well as any additional conditions or limitations that the CFPB may impose.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Negotiation of standing requests.</I> The CFPB may negotiate terms governing the exchange of confidential information with Federal or State agencies on a standing basis, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.44" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.44   Disclosure of confidential consumer complaint information.</HEAD>
<P>The CFPB may, to the extent permitted by law, disclose confidential consumer complaint information as it deems necessary to investigate, resolve, or otherwise respond to consumer complaints or inquiries concerning consumer financial products and services or a violation of Federal consumer financial law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.45" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.45   Affirmative disclosure of confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CFPB may disclose confidential information, in accordance with applicable law, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To a CFPB employee, as that term is defined in § 1070.2 and in accordance with § 1070.41;
</P>
<P>(2) To either House of the Congress or to an appropriate committee or subcommittee of the Congress, as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5562(d)(2), provided that, upon the receipt by the CFPB of a request from the Congress for confidential information that a financial institution submitted to the CFPB along with a claim that such information consists of a trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, or confidential supervisory information, the CFPB shall notify the financial institution in writing of its receipt of the request and provide the institution with a copy of the request;
</P>
<P>(3) In investigational hearings and witness interviews, or otherwise in the investigation and administration of enforcement actions, as is reasonably necessary, at the discretion of the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(4) In an administrative or court proceeding to which the CFPB is a party. In the case of confidential investigative information that contains any trade secret or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, as claimed by designation by the submitter of such material, or confidential supervisory information, the submitter, or the CFPB, in its discretion, may seek an appropriate order prior to disclosure of such material in a proceeding;
</P>
<P>(5) In CFPB personnel matters, as necessary and subject to appropriate protections;
</P>
<P>(6) To agencies in summary form to the extent necessary to confer with such agencies about matters relevant to the exercise of the agencies' statutory or regulatory authority; or
</P>
<P>(7) As required under any other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.46" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.46   Other disclosures of confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent permitted by law and as authorized by the Director in writing, the CFPB may disclose confidential information other than as set forth in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to disclosing confidential information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the CFPB may, as it deems appropriate under the circumstances, provide written notice to the person to whom the confidential information pertains that the CFPB intends to disclose its confidential information in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The authority of the Director to disclose confidential information pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall not be delegated. However, a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with law may exercise the authority of the Director as set forth in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.47" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.47   Other rules regarding the disclosure of confidential information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Further disclosure prohibited.</I> (1) All confidential information made available under this subpart shall remain the property of the CFPB, unless the General Counsel provides otherwise in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as set forth in this subpart, no supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the confidential information is made available under this subpart, may further disclose such confidential information without the prior written permission of the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) No person obtaining access to confidential information pursuant to this subpart may make a personal copy of any such information, and no person may remove confidential information from the premises of the institution or agency in possession of such information except as permitted under this subpart or by the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third party requests for information.</I> (1) A supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the CFPB's confidential information is made available under this subpart, that receives from a third party a legally enforceable demand or request for such confidential information (including but not limited to, a subpoena or discovery request or a request made pursuant to the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, or any State analogue to such statutes) should:
</P>
<P>(i) Inform the General Counsel of such request or demand in writing and provide the General Counsel with a copy of such request or demand as soon as practicable after receiving it;
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent permitted by applicable law, advise the requester that:
</P>
<P>(A) The confidential information sought may not be disclosed insofar as it is the property of the CFPB; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any request for the disclosure of such confidential information is properly directed to the CFPB pursuant to its regulations set forth in this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Consult with the General Counsel before complying with the request or demand, and to the extent applicable:
</P>
<P>(A) Give the CFPB a reasonable opportunity to respond to the demand or request;
</P>
<P>(B) Assert all reasonable and appropriate legal exemptions or privileges that the CFPB may request be asserted on its behalf; and
</P>
<P>(C) Consent to a motion by the CFPB to intervene in any action for the purpose of asserting and preserving any claims of confidentiality with respect to any confidential information.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in this section shall prevent a supervised financial institution, Federal or State agency, any officer, director, employee or agent thereof, or any other person to whom the information is made available under this subpart from complying with a legally valid and enforceable order of a court of competent jurisdiction compelling production of the CFPB's confidential information, or, if compliance is deemed compulsory, with a request or demand from either House of the Congress or a duly authorized committee of the Congress. To the extent that compulsory disclosure of confidential information occurs as set forth in this paragraph (b)(2), the producing party shall use its best efforts to ensure that the requestor secures an appropriate protective order or, if the requestor is a legislative body, use its best efforts to obtain the commitment or agreement of the legislative body that it will maintain the confidentiality of the confidential information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional conditions and limitations.</I> The CFPB may impose any additional conditions or limitations on disclosure or use under this subpart that it determines are necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Return or destruction of records.</I> Except with respect to confidential investigative information disclosed pursuant to § 1070.42(a), the CFPB may require any person in possession of CFPB confidential information to return the records to the CFPB or destroy them.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Non-waiver of CFPB rights.</I> Except as provided in § 1070.42(c), the disclosure of confidential information to any person in accordance with this subpart does not constitute a waiver by the CFPB of its right to control, or impose limitations on, the subsequent use and dissemination of the information.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Non-waiver of privilege</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The CFPB shall not be deemed to have waived any privilege applicable to any information by transferring that information to, or permitting that information to be used by, any Federal or State agency.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Paragraph (f)(1) of this section shall not be construed as implying that any person waives any privilege applicable to any information because paragraph (f)(1) of this section does not apply to the transfer or use of that information.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reports of unauthorized disclosure.</I> Any person that obtains confidential information under this subpart shall, as soon as possible and without unreasonable delay, notify the CFPB upon the discovery of any further disclosures made in violation of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.48" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.48   Disclosure of confidential information by the Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall limit the discretion of the Office of the Inspector General of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to disclose confidential information as needed in accordance with the Inspector General Act of 1978, 5 U.S.C. App. 3.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Privacy Act</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1070.50" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.50   Purpose and scope; definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart implements the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a (the Privacy Act). The regulations apply to all records maintained by the CFPB and which are retrieved by an individual's name or personal identifier. The regulations set forth the procedures for requests for access to, or amendment of, records concerning individuals that are contained in systems of records maintained by the CFPB. These regulations should be read in conjunction with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about this topic.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this subpart, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) The term <I>Chief Privacy Officer</I> means the Senior Agency Official for Privacy of the CFPB or any CFPB employee to whom the Senior Agency Official for Privacy has delegated authority to act under this part;
</P>
<P>(2) The term <I>guardian</I> means the parent of a minor, or the legal guardian of any individual who has been declared to be incompetent due to physical or mental incapacity or age by a court of competent jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency, including, but not limited to, his education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history and that contains his name or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voiceprint or a photograph;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Routine use</I> means the disclosure of a record that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected;
</P>
<P>(7) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of an agency from which information is retrieved by the name of the individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual; and
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 48901, Sept. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.51" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.51   Authority and responsibilities of the Chief Privacy Officer.</HEAD>
<P>The Chief Privacy Officer is authorized to:
</P>
<P>(a) Develop, implement, and maintain an organization-wide privacy program;
</P>
<P>(b) Respond to requests for access to, accounting of, or amendment of records contained in a system of records maintained by the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(c) Approve the publication of new systems of records and amend existing systems of record; and
</P>
<P>(d) File any necessary reports related to the Privacy Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.52" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.52   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Copies of records.</I> The CFPB shall provide the requester with copies of records requested pursuant to § 1070.53 at the same cost charged for duplication of records under § 1070.22.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No fee.</I> The CFPB will not charge a fee if:
</P>
<P>(1) Total charges associated with a request are less than $5; or
</P>
<P>(2) The requester is a CFPB employee or former employee, or an applicant for employment with the CFPB, and the request pertains to that employee, former employee, or applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.53" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.53   Request for access to records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for making a request for access to records.</I> An individual's requests for access to records that pertain to that individual (or to the individual for whom the requester serves as guardian) may be submitted to the CFPB in writing as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If submitted by mail or delivery service, the request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Request” and shall be addressed to the Chief Privacy Officer, Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW, Washington, DC 20552.
</P>
<P>(2) If submitted by electronic means, the request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Request” and the request shall be submitted as set forth at the CFPB's website, <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of a request for access to records.</I> A request for access to records shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the request is made pursuant to the Privacy Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of the system of records that the requester believes contains the record requested, or a description of the nature of the record sought in detail sufficient to enable CFPB personnel to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort;
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever possible, a description of the nature of the record sought, the date of the record or the period in which the requester believes that the record was created, and any other information that might assist the CFPB in identifying the record sought (<I>e.g.,</I> maiden name, dates of employment, account information, etc.);
</P>
<P>(4) Information necessary to verify the requester's identity pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(5) The mailing or email address where the CFPB's response or further correspondence should be sent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Verification of identity.</I> To obtain access to the CFPB's records pertaining to a requester, the requester shall provide proof to the CFPB of the requester's identity as provided in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) In general, the following will be considered adequate proof of a requester's identity:
</P>
<P>(i) A photocopy of two forms of identification, including one form of identification that bears the requester's photograph, and one form of identification that bears the requester's signature;
</P>
<P>(ii) A photocopy of a single form of identification that bears both the requester's photograph and signature;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement swearing or affirming the requester's identity and to the fact that the requester understands the penalties provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3); or
</P>
<P>(iv) Successful completion of a third-party's identity verification process, designated by the Bureau, where that process meets the requirements of Identity Assurance Level 2 (IAL2) as described by the National Institute of Standards and Technology.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a designated official may require additional proof of the requester's identity before action will be taken on any request, if such official determines that it is necessary to protect against unauthorized disclosure of information in a particular case. In addition, if a requester seeks records pertaining to an individual in the requester's capacity as that individual's guardian, the requester shall be required to provide adequate proof of the requester's legal relationship before action will be taken on any request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for accounting of previous disclosures.</I> An individual may request an accounting of previous disclosures of records pertaining to that individual in a system of records as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552a(c). Such requests should conform to the procedures and form for requests for access to records set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 46095, Sept. 12, 2018, as amended at 86 FR 48901, Sept. 1, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.54" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.54   CFPB procedures for responding to a request for access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgment and response.</I> The CFPB will provide written acknowledgement of the receipt of a request within twenty (20) business days from the receipt of the request and will, where practicable, respond to each request within that twenty (20) day period. When a full response is not practicable within the twenty (20) day period, the CFPB will respond as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure.</I> (1) When the CFPB discloses information in response to a request, the CFPB will make the information available for inspection and copying during regular business hours as provided in § 1070.13, or the CFPB will mail it or email it to the requester, if feasible, upon request.
</P>
<P>(2) The requester may bring with him or her anyone whom the requester chooses to see the requested material. All visitors to the CFPB's buildings must comply with the applicable security procedures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of a request.</I> If the CFPB denies a request made pursuant to § 1070.53, it will inform the requester in writing of the reason(s) for denial and the procedures for appealing the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.55" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.55   Special procedures for medical records.</HEAD>
<P>If an individual requests medical or psychological records pursuant to § 1070.53, the CFPB will disclose them directly to the requester unless the CFPB determines that such disclosure could have an adverse effect on the requester. If the CFPB makes that determination, the CFPB shall provide the information to a licensed physician or other appropriate representative that the requester designates, who shall disclose those records to the requester in a manner he or she deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.56" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.56   Request for amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures for making request.</I> (1) If an individual wishes to amend a record that pertains to that individual in a system of records, that individual may submit a request in writing to the Chief Privacy Officer, as set forth in § 1070.53(a). The request shall be labeled “Privacy Act Amendment Request.”
</P>
<P>(2) A request for amendment of a record must:
</P>
<P>(i) Identify the name of the system of records that the requester believes contains the record for which the amendment is requested, or a description of the nature of the record in detail sufficient to enable CFPB personnel to locate the system of records containing the record with a reasonable amount of effort;
</P>
<P>(ii) Specify the portion of that record requested to be amended; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Describe the nature and reasons for each requested amendment.
</P>
<P>(3) When making a request for amendment of a record, the CFPB will require a requester to verify his or her identity under the procedures set forth in § 1070.53(c), unless the requester has already done so in a related request for access or amendment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Burden of proof.</I> In a request for amendment of a record, the requester bears the burden of proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.57" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.57   CFPB review of a request for amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time limits.</I> The CFPB will acknowledge a request for amendment of records within ten (10) business days after it receives the request. In the acknowledgment, the CFPB may request additional information necessary for a determination on the request for amendment. The CFPB will make a determination on a request to amend a record promptly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of response to a request for amendment.</I> When the CFPB responds to a request for amendment, the CFPB will inform the requester in writing whether the request is granted or denied, in whole or in part. If the CFPB grants the request, it will take the necessary steps to amend the record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of its action. If the CFPB denies the request, in whole or in part, it will inform the requester in writing:
</P>
<P>(1) Why the request (or portion of the request) was denied;
</P>
<P>(2) That the requester has a right to appeal; and
</P>
<P>(3) How to file an appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.58" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.58   Appeal of adverse determination of request for access or amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeal.</I> A requester may appeal a denial of a request made pursuant to § 1070.53 or § 1070.56 within ten (10) business days after the CFPB notifies the requester that it has denied the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of appeal.</I> A requester may submit an appeal in writing as set forth in § 1070.53(a). The appeal shall be addressed to the General Counsel and labeled “Privacy Act Appeal.” The appeal must also:
</P>
<P>(1) Specify the background of the request; and
</P>
<P>(2) Provide reasons why the requester believes the denial is in error.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination.</I> The General Counsel will make a determination as to whether to grant or deny an appeal within thirty (30) business days from the date it is received, unless the General Counsel extends the time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(1) If the General Counsel grants an appeal regarding a request for amendment, he or she will take the necessary steps to amend the record and, when appropriate and possible, notify prior recipients of the record of its action.
</P>
<P>(2) If the General Counsel denies an appeal, he or she will inform the requester of such determination in writing, including the reasons for the denial, and the requester's right to file a statement of disagreement and to have a court review its decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Statement of disagreement.</I> (1) If the General Counsel denies an appeal regarding a request for amendment, a requester may file a concise statement of disagreement with the denial. The CFPB will maintain the requester's statement with the record that the requester sought to amend and any disclosure of the record will include a copy of the requester's statement of disagreement.
</P>
<P>(2) When practicable and appropriate, the CFPB will provide a copy of the statement of disagreement to any prior recipients of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.59" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.59   Restrictions on disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>The CFPB will not disclose any record about an individual contained in a system of records to any person or agency without the prior written consent of that individual unless the disclosure is authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b). Disclosures authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b) include disclosures that are compatible with one or more routine uses that are contained within the CFPB's Systems of Records Notices, which are available on the CFPB's website, at <I>http://www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.60" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.60   Exempt records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exempt systems of records.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), the CFPB exempts the systems of records listed in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section from 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G)-(H), and (f), and §§ 1070.53 through 1070.59, to the extent that such systems of records contain investigatory materials compiled for law enforcement purposes, provided, however, that if any individual is denied any right, privilege, or benefit to which he or she would otherwise be entitled under Federal law, or for which he or she would otherwise be eligible as a result of the maintenance of such material, such material shall be disclosed to such individual, except to the extent that the disclosure of such material would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the CFPB under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence:
</P>
<P>(1) CFPB.002 Depository Institution Supervision Database.
</P>
<P>(2) CFPB.003 Non-Depository Institution Supervision Database.
</P>
<P>(3) CFPB.004 Enforcement Database.
</P>
<P>(4) CFPB.005 Consumer Response System.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information compiled for civil actions or proceedings.</I> This subpart does not permit an individual to have access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of a civil action or proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.61" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.61   Training; rules of conduct; penalties for non-compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Training.</I> The Chief Privacy Officer shall institute a training program to instruct CFPB employees and contractor personnel covered by 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), who are involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any CFPB system of records, on a continuing basis with respect to the duties and responsibilities imposed on them and the rights conferred on individuals by the Privacy Act, the regulations in this subpart, and any other related regulations. Such training shall provide suitable emphasis on the civil and criminal penalties imposed on the CFPB and the individual employees or contractor personnel by the Privacy Act for non-compliance with specified requirements of the Act as implemented by the regulations in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of conduct.</I> The following rules of conduct are applicable to employees of the CFPB (including, to the extent required by the contract or 5 U.S.C. 552a(m), Government contractors and employees of such contractors), who are involved in the design, development, operation or maintenance of any system of records, or in maintaining any records, for or on behalf of the CFPB.
</P>
<P>(1) The head of each office of the CFPB shall be responsible for assuring that employees subject to such official's supervision are advised of the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the criminal penalties and civil liabilities provided therein, and the regulations in this subpart, and that such employees are made aware of their individual and collective responsibilities to protect the security of personal information, to assure its accuracy, relevance, timeliness and completeness, to avoid unauthorized disclosure either orally or in writing, and to ensure that no system of records is maintained without public notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of the CFPB involved in the design, development, operation, or maintenance of any system of records, or in maintaining any record shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Collect no information of a personal nature from individuals unless authorized to collect it to achieve a function or carry out a responsibility of the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(ii) Collect information, to the extent practicable, directly from the individual to whom it relates;
</P>
<P>(iii) Inform each individual asked to supply information, on the form used to collect the information or on a separate form that can be retained by the individual of—
</P>
<P>(A) The authority (whether granted by statute, or by executive order of the President) which authorizes the solicitation of the information and whether disclosure of such information is mandatory or voluntary;
</P>
<P>(B) The principal purpose or purposes for which the information is intended to be used;
</P>
<P>(C) The routine uses which may be made of the information, as published pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4)(D); and
</P>
<P>(D) The effects on the individual, if any, of not providing all or any part of the requested information;
</P>
<P>(iv) Not collect, maintain, use or disseminate information concerning an individual's religious or political beliefs or activities or membership in associations or organizations, unless expressly authorized by statute or by the individual about whom the record is maintained or unless pertinent to and within the scope of an authorized law enforcement activity;
</P>
<P>(v) Advise their supervisors of the existence or contemplated development of any record system which is capable of retrieving information about individuals by individual identifier;
</P>
<P>(vi) Assure that no records maintained in a CFPB system of records are disseminated without the permission of the individual about whom the record pertains, except when authorized by 5 U.S.C. 552a(b);
</P>
<P>(vii) Maintain and process information concerning individuals with care in order to ensure that no inadvertent disclosure of the information is made either within or without the CFPB;
</P>
<P>(viii) Prior to disseminating any record about an individual to any person other than an agency, unless the dissemination is made pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(2), make reasonable efforts to assure that such records are accurate, complete, timely, and relevant for agency purposes; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Assure that an accounting is kept in the prescribed form, of all dissemination of personal information outside the CFPB, whether made orally or in writing, unless disclosed under 5 U.S.C. 552 or subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The head of each office of the CFPB shall, at least annually, review the record systems subject to their supervision to ensure compliance with the provisions of the Privacy Act of 1974 and the regulations in this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.62" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.62   Preservation of records.</HEAD>
<P>The CFPB will preserve all correspondence pertaining to the requests that it receives under this part, as well as copies of all requested records, until disposition or destruction is authorized by title 44 of the United States Code or the National Archives and Records Administration's General Records Schedule 14. Records will not be disposed of or destroyed while they are the subject of a pending request, appeal, proceeding, or lawsuit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1070.63" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.5.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1070.63   Use and collection of Social Security numbers.</HEAD>
<P>The CFPB will ensure that employees authorized to collect information are aware:
</P>
<P>(a) That individuals may not be denied any right, benefit, or privilege as a result of refusing to provide their Social Security numbers, unless the collection is authorized either by a statute or by a regulation issued prior to 1975; and
</P>
<P>(b) That individuals requested to provide their Social Security numbers must be informed of:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether providing Social Security numbers is mandatory or voluntary;
</P>
<P>(2) Any statutory or regulatory authority that authorizes the collection of Social Security numbers; and
</P>
<P>(3) The uses that will be made of the numbers.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1071" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1071—RULE IMPLEMENTING EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 504.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 39119, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.100" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Equal Access to Justice Act (the Act), 5 U.S.C. 504, provides for the award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (adversary adjudications) before the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (the Bureau). An eligible party may receive an award when it prevails over the Bureau, unless the Bureau's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. This part describes the parties eligible for awards and the proceedings that are covered. This part also explains how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the Bureau will use in ruling on those applications.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When an eligible party will receive an award.</I> An eligible party will receive an award when:
</P>
<P>(1) It prevails in the adversary adjudication, unless the Bureau's position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. Whether or not the position of the Bureau was substantially justified will be determined on the basis of the administrative record as a whole that is made in the adversary proceeding for which fees and other expenses are sought; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Bureau's demand is substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and is unreasonable when compared with that decision, under all the facts and circumstances of the case, unless the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or special circumstances make an award unjust. “Demand” means the express final written demand made by the Bureau prior to initiation of the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by the Bureau of the statutory penalty in the notice of charges or elsewhere when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount. The relief requested in the Bureau's notice of charges issued pursuant to 12 CFR 1081.200(b)(3) may constitute the Bureau's demand only where the notice of charges was not preceded by an express final written demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.101   When the Act applies.</HEAD>
<P>The Act applies to any adversary adjudication pending before the Bureau at any time after July 21, 2011.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.102   Proceedings covered.</HEAD>
<P>The Act applies to all adjudicative proceedings under part 1081 as defined in § 1081.103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.103   Eligibility of applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under the Act, the applicant must be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award. The term “party” is defined in 5 U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) The types of eligible applicants are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual with a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interests, and not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a)) with not more than 500 employees; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization with a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees.
</P>
<P>(6) For purposes of receiving an award for fees and expenses for defending against an excessive Bureau demand, any small entity, as that term is defined under 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of eligibility, the net worth and number of employees of an applicant shall be determined as of the date the proceeding was initiated.
</P>
<P>(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered an “individual” rather than a “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the applicant prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests.
</P>
<P>(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the applicant, under the applicant's direction and control. Part-time employees shall be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual or group of individuals, corporation or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation or entity of which the applicant directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, will be considered an affiliate of that business for purposes of this part, unless the adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be unjust and contrary to the purposes of the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In addition, the adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant other than those described in this paragraph constitute special circumstances that would make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(g) An applicant that participates in a proceeding primarily on behalf of one or more other persons or entities that would be ineligible is not itself eligible for an award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.104   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For a prevailing party:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible prevailing applicant may receive an award for fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication in connection with the entire adversary adjudication, or on a substantive portion of the adversary adjudication that is sufficiently significant and discrete to merit treatment as a separate unit, unless the position of the Bureau was substantially justified. The burden of proof that an award should not be made to an eligible prevailing applicant because the Bureau's position was substantially justified is on counsel for the Bureau. However, no presumption arises that the Bureau's position was not substantially justified simply because the Bureau did not prevail.
</P>
<P>(2) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding or if special circumstances make the award sought unjust.
</P>
<P>(b) For a party defending against an excessive demand:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible applicant will receive an award for fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication related to defending against the portion of a Bureau demand that is substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and is unreasonable when compared with that decision under all the facts and circumstances of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) An award will be denied if the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith or if special circumstances make an award unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.105   Allowable fees and other expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Subject to the limitations in paragraph (b) of this section, awards will be based on rates customarily charged, in the locale of the hearing, by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the applicant.
</P>
<P>(b) No award for the fee of any attorney or agent under this rule may exceed the hourly rate specified in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(A). No award to compensate an expert witness may exceed the reasonable rate at which the Bureau pays witnesses with similar expertise. However an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent or witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent or expert witness, the adjudicative officer shall consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent or witness is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or, if an employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent or witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the applicant;
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(d) The reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party may be awarded, to the extent that the charge for the services does not exceed the prevailing rate for similar services, and the study or other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant's case.
</P>
<P>(e) An award of fees or expenses under the Act is limited to fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication and, with respect to excessive demands, the fees and expenses incurred in defending against the excessive portion of the demand.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.106   Delegations of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may delegate authority to take final action on matters pertaining to the Equal Access to Justice Act in particular cases.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required from Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.200" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.200   Contents of application.</HEAD>
<P>An application for an award of fees and expenses under the Act shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Identity of the applicant and the proceeding for which the award is sought;
</P>
<P>(b) A showing that the applicant has prevailed; or, if the applicant has not prevailed, a showing that the Bureau's demand was substantially in excess of the decision of the adjudicative officer and was unreasonable when compared with that decision, under the facts and circumstances of that case;
</P>
<P>(c) Identification of the Bureau position(s) in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was (were) not substantially justified; or, identification of the Bureau's demand that is alleged to be excessive and unreasonable and an explanation as to why the demand was excessive and unreasonable;
</P>
<P>(d) A brief description of the type and purpose of the organization or business (unless the applicant is an individual).
</P>
<P>(e) A statement of how the applicant meets the eligibility criteria of § 1071.103;
</P>
<P>(f) The amount of fees and expenses incurred after the initiation of the adversary adjudication, or in the case of a claim for defending against an allegedly excessive demand, the amount of fees and expenses incurred after the initiation of the adjudicative proceeding attributable to the allegedly excessive portion of the demand;
</P>
<P>(g) Any other matter the applicant wishes the Bureau to consider in determining whether and in what amount an award should be made; and
</P>
<P>(h) A written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided is true and correct, accompanied by the signature of the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.201" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.201   Net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application shall also include a detailed exhibit showing that the applicant's net worth did not exceed $2 million (if an individual) or $7 million (for all other applicants, including their affiliates) when the proceeding was initiated. The exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant's and its affiliates' assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in this subpart. The adjudicative officer may require an applicant to file additional information to determine its eligibility for an award.
</P>
<P>(b) However, an applicant may omit this exhibit if:
</P>
<P>(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that it qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) or, in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the applicant's belief that it qualifies under such section;
</P>
<P>(2) It states that it is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a));
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of an application for an award related to an allegedly excessive demand by the Bureau, it demonstrates that it is a small entity as that term is defined by 5 U.S.C. 601(6).
</P>
<P>(c) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit will be included in the public record of the proceeding. However, an applicant that objects to public disclosure of information in any portion of the exhibit and believes there are legal grounds for withholding it from disclosure may submit that exhibit directly to the adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled “Confidential Financial Information,” accompanied by a motion to withhold the information from public disclosure. The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and explain, in detail, why it falls within one or more of the specific exemptions from mandatory disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 522(b)(1) through (9), why public disclosure of the information would adversely affect the applicant, and why disclosure is not required in the public interest. The material in question shall be served on Bureau counsel but need not be served on any other party to the proceeding. If the adjudicative officer finds that the information should not be withheld from disclosure, it shall be placed in the public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy the exhibit shall be handled in accordance with the Bureau's established procedures under the Freedom of Information Act, 12 CFR subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.202" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.202   Documentation of fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>The application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication, including the cost of any study, engineering report, test, or project for which an award is sought. With respect to a claim for fees and expenses involving an excessive demand by the Bureau, the application shall be accompanied by full documentation of the fees and expenses incurred after initiation of the adversary adjudication, including the cost of any study, engineering report, test, or project for which an award is sought attributable to the portion of the demand alleged to be excessive and unreasonable. A separate itemized statement shall be submitted for each professional firm or individual whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in connection with the proceeding by each individual, a description of the specific services performed, the rate at which each fee has been computed, any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity for the services provided. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any expenses claimed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.203" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.203   When an application may be filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application may be filed not later than 30 days after the final disposition of the proceeding to which the application relates.
</P>
<P>(b) If review or reconsideration is sought or taken of a decision, proceedings for the award of fees shall be stayed pending final disposition of the underlying controversy.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this subpart, <I>final disposition</I> means the later of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date that the Director's final order issued pursuant to § 1081.405 is final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts; or
</P>
<P>(2) The date that the Bureau issues any other final resolution of a proceeding, such as a consent agreement, settlement or voluntary dismissal, that is not subject to a petition for reconsideration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Considering Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.300" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.300   Filing and service of documents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any application for an award or other pleading or document related to an application shall be filed and served on all parties to the proceeding in the same manner as other pleadings in proceedings under part 1081.
</P>
<P>(b) In addition, a copy of each application for fees and expenses shall be served on the General Counsel of the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.301" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.301   Answer to application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 days after service of an application, counsel representing the Bureau may file an answer to the application. Unless Bureau counsel requests an extension of time for filing or files a statement of intent to negotiate under paragraph (b) of this section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day period may be treated as consent to the award requested.
</P>
<P>(b) If Bureau counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the fee application can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement shall extend the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days and further extensions may be granted by the adjudicative officer upon joint request by Bureau counsel and the applicant.
</P>
<P>(c) The answer shall explain in detail any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied on in support of Bureau counsel's position. If the answer is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, Bureau counsel shall include with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1071.305 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.302" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.302   Reply.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1071.305 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.303" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.303   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to a proceeding other than the applicant and Bureau counsel may file comments on an application within 30 days after it is served or on an answer within 15 days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.304" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.304   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and Bureau counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying proceeding or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded, in accordance with the Bureau's standard settlement procedures. If a prevailing party and Bureau counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application has been filed, the application shall be filed with the proposed settlement. If a proposed settlement of an underlying proceeding provides that each side shall bear its own expenses and the settlement is accepted, no application may be filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.305" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.305   Further proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Ordinarily, the determination of an award will be made on the basis of the written record. However, on request of either the applicant or Bureau counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions or an evidentiary hearing. Such further proceedings shall be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application, and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section shall specifically identify the information sought or the disputed issues and shall explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.306" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.306   Recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>The adjudicative officer shall issue a recommended decision on the application within 60 days after the time for filing a reply, or where further proceedings are held, within 60 days after completion of such proceedings.
</P>
<P>(a) For a decision involving a prevailing party: The decision shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and status as a prevailing party, and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested and the amount awarded. The decision shall include, if at issue, findings on whether the agency's position was substantially justified, whether the applicant unduly protracted the proceedings, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.
</P>
<P>(b) For a decision involving an allegedly excessive Bureau demand: The decision on the application shall include written findings and conclusions on the applicant's eligibility and an explanation of the reasons why the Bureau's demand was or was not determined to be substantially in excess of the underlying decision of the adjudicative officer and was or was not unreasonable when compared with that decision. That determination shall be based upon all the facts and circumstances of the case. The decision on the application shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether the applicant has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.307" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.307   Bureau review.</HEAD>
<P>Either the applicant or Bureau counsel may seek review of the recommended decision on the fee application by filing a notice of appeal under § 1081.402(a), or the Director may decide to review the decision on his or her own initiative, in accordance with § 1081.402(b). If neither the applicant nor Bureau counsel seeks review and the Director does not take review on his or her own initiative, the Director will adopt the recommended decision on the application as the final decision of the Bureau within 30 days of the issuance of the recommended decision. Whether to review a decision is a matter within the discretion of the Director. If review is taken, the Director will issue a final decision on the application or remand the application to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.308" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.308   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Judicial review of final Bureau decisions on awards may be sought as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1071.309" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.6.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1071.309   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant seeking payment of an award shall submit to the Bureau a copy of the Bureau's final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts. An applicant shall be paid the amount awarded within 60 days of entry of the final decision unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1072" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1072—ENFORCEMENT OF NONDISCRIMINATION ON THE BASIS OF DISABILITY IN PROGRAMS AND ACTIVITIES CONDUCTED BY THE BUREAU OF CONSUMER FINANCIAL PROTECTION






</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>29 U.S.C. 794; 29 U.S.C. 794d.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 46609, August 6, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1072.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, as amended by the Rehabilitation, Comprehensive Services, and Developmental Disabilities Amendments of 1978, Sec. 119 (Pub. L. 95-602, 92 Stat. 2982), the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1986 (Pub. L. 99-506, 100 Stat. 1810), the Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (Pub. L. 105-220, 112 Stat. 936), and the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments of 2008 (Pub. L. 110-325, 122 Stat. 3553), to prohibit discrimination on the basis of disability in programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies or the United States Postal Service.
</P>
<P>(b) This part is also intended to implement section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended to ensure that employees and members of the public with disabilities have access to, and are able to use, electronic and information technology (EIT) to the same extent as individuals without disabilities, unless an undue burden would be imposed on the department or the Bureau. Specifically, this part clarifies that individuals with disabilities may utilize the complaint procedures established in section 504 to enforce rights guaranteed under section 508.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.102   Application.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all programs, activities, and electronic and information technology developed, procured, maintained, used, or conducted by the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part <I>Auxiliary aids</I> means services or devices that enable persons with impaired sensory, manual, or speaking skills to have an opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, programs or activities conducted by the Bureau. For example, auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired vision include readers, Brailled materials, audio recordings and other similar services and devices. Auxiliary aids useful for persons with impaired hearing include telephone handset amplifiers, telephones compatible with hearing aids, telecommunications devices for deaf persons (TDD's), interpreters, Computer-aided real-time transcription (CART), captioning, note takers, written materials, and other similar services and devices.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Complete complaint</I> means a written statement or a complaint in audio, Braille, electronic, and/or video format, that contains the complainant's name and address, and describes the Bureau's alleged discriminatory action in sufficient detail to inform the Bureau of the nature and date of the alleged violation of section 504 or section 508. It shall be signed by the complainant or by someone authorized to do so on his or her behalf. Complaints in audio, Braille, electronic, and/or video formats shall contain an affirmative identity statement of the individual, which for this purpose shall be considered to be functionally equivalent to a complaint's signature. Complaints filed on behalf of classes of individuals with disabilities shall also identify (where possible) the alleged victims of discrimination.
</P>
<P><I>Electronic and information technology</I> means information technology and any equipment or interconnected system or subsystem of equipment that is used in the creation, conversion, or duplication of data or information. The term includes, but is not limited to, telecommunications products (such as telephones), information kiosks and transaction machines, world-wide web sites, multimedia, and office equipment such as copiers and fax machines. The term does not include any equipment that contains embedded information technology that is used as an integral part of the product, but the principal function of which is not the acquisition, storage, manipulation, management, movement, control, display, switching, interchange, transmission, or reception of data or information. For example, HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) equipment such as thermostats or temperature control devices, and medical equipment where information technology is integral to its operation are not electronic and information technology.
</P>
<P><I>Facility</I> means all or any portion of a building, structure, equipment, road, walk, parking lot, rolling stock or other conveyance, or other real or personal property.
</P>
<P><I>Has a record of such an impairment</I> means has a history of, or has been misclassified as having, a mental or physical impairment that substantially limits one or more of the individual's major life activities.
</P>
<P><I>Is regarded as having an impairment</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Has a physical or mental impairment that does not substantially limit major life activities but is treated by the Bureau as constituting such a limitation;
</P>
<P>(2) Has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activities only as a result of the attitudes of others toward such impairment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Has none of the impairments defined in paragraph (1) of this definition but is treated by the Bureau as having such an impairment.
</P>
<P><I>Individual with a disability</I> means any person who has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the individual's major life activities, has a record of such an impairment, or is regarded as having such an impairment. As used in this definition, the phrase:
</P>
<P><I>Major life activities</I> includes without limitation—
</P>
<P>(1) Caring for oneself, performing manual tasks, seeing, hearing, eating, sleeping, walking, standing, sitting, reaching, lifting, bending, speaking, breathing, learning, reading, concentrating, thinking, communicating, interacting with others, and working.
</P>
<P>(2) The operation of major bodily functions of the immune system, special sense organs and skin, normal cell growth, and digestive genitourinary, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, cardiovascular, endocrine, hemic, lymphatic, musculoskeletal, and reproductive functions. The operation of a major bodily function includes the operation of an individual organ within a body system.
</P>
<P>(3) In determining other examples of major life activities, the Bureau will follow the guidance provided by EEOC in its 2011 regulations interpreting the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act of 2008.
</P>
<P><I>Physical or mental impairment</I> includes without limitation:
</P>
<P>(1) Any physiological disorder or condition, cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss affecting one or more of the following body systems: Neurological; musculoskeletal; special sense organs; respiratory, including speech organs; cardiovascular; reproductive, digestive; genitourinary; hemic and lymphatic; skin; and endocrine.
</P>
<P>(2) Any mental or psychological disorder such as an intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional or mental illness, and specific learning disabilities.
</P>
<P>(3) Diseases and conditions such as orthopedic, visual, speech and hearing impairments, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, cancer, heart disease, diabetes, intellectual disability, emotional illness, drug addiction and alcoholism.
</P>
<P><I>Program or Activity</I> means any activity of the Bureau permitted or required by its enabling statutes, including but not limited to any proceeding, investigation, hearing, or meeting.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified individual with a disability</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In reference to individuals other than employees of the Bureau—
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to any Bureau program or activity under which an individual is required to perform services or to achieve a level of accomplishment, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable accommodations, meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in the program or activity, and who can achieve the purpose of the program or activity without modifications in the program or activity that would result in a fundamental alteration in its nature; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any other program or activity, an individual with a disability who, with or without reasonable modification to rules, policies, or practices that do not change the fundamental nature of the activity, or the provision of auxiliary aids, meets the essential eligibility requirements for participation in, or receipt of benefits from, that program or activity; or
</P>
<P>(2) In reference to individuals employed by the Bureau, the definition of that term for purposes of employment contained in 29 CFR 1630.2(m), which is made applicable to this part by § 1072.101.
</P>
<P><I>Section 504</I> means section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended. As used in this part, § 504 applies only to programs or activities conducted by Executive agencies and not to federally assisted programs.
</P>
<P><I>Section 508</I> means section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 as amended.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.104   Review of compliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Bureau shall, within two years of the promulgation of this regulation, review its current policies and practices in view of advances in relevant technology and achievability. Based on this review, the Bureau shall modify its practices and procedures to ensure that the Bureau's programs and activities are fully accessible.
</P>
<P>(b) The Bureau shall provide an opportunity to interested persons, including individuals with disabilities or organizations representing individuals with disabilities, to participate in the review process.
</P>
<P>(c) The Bureau shall maintain on file and make available for public inspection until three years following the completion of the compliance review—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of areas examined and any problems identified; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of any modifications made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.105   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau shall make available to all Bureau employees, applicants, participants, beneficiaries, and other interested persons information regarding the provisions of this part and its applicability to the programs or activities conducted by the Bureau in a manner that apprises them of the protections against discrimination provided by § 504 and this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.106   General prohibitions against discrimination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No qualified individual with a disability in the United States, shall, on the basis of disability, be excluded from the participation in, be denied the benefits of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discriminatory actions prohibited.</I> (1) The Bureau, in providing any aid, benefit, or service, may not directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, on the basis of disability—
</P>
<P>(i) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service;
</P>
<P>(ii) Afford a qualified individual with a disability an opportunity to participate in or benefit from the aid, benefit, or service that is not substantially equivalent to that afforded others;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide different or separate aid, benefits or services to individuals with disabilities or to any class of individuals with disabilities than is provided to others unless such action is necessary to provide qualified individuals with disabilities with aid, benefits or services that are as effective as those provided to others;
</P>
<P>(iv) Deny a qualified individual with a disability the opportunity to participate as a member of planning or advisory boards.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of this part, aids, benefits, and services, to be equally effective, are not required to produce the identical result or level of achievement for individuals with disabilities and for persons who are not so identified, but must afford individuals with disabilities a reasonable opportunity to obtain the same result, to gain the same benefit, or to reach the same level of achievement in the most integrated setting appropriate to the individual's needs.
</P>
<P>(3) Even if the Bureau is permitted, under paragraph (b)(1)(iv) of this section, to operate a separate or different program for individuals with disabilities or for any class of individuals with disabilities, to the extent reasonably feasible, the Bureau must permit any qualified individual with a disability who wishes to participate in the program that is not separate or different to do so.
</P>
<P>(4) The Bureau may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, utilize criteria or methods of administration the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(5) The Bureau may not, in determining the site or location of a facility, make selections the purpose or effect of which would—
</P>
<P>(i) Exclude individuals with disabilities from, deny them the benefits of, or otherwise subject them to unlawful discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Defeat or substantially impair the accomplishment of the objectives of a program or activity with respect to individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(6) The Bureau, in the selection of procurement contractors, may not use criteria that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability.
</P>
<P>(7) The Bureau may not administer a licensing or certification program in a manner that subjects qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability, nor may the Bureau establish requirements for the programs or activities of licensees or certified entities that subject qualified individuals with disabilities to unlawful discrimination on the basis of disability. However, the programs or activities of entities that are licensed or certified by the Bureau are not, themselves, covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(8) The Bureau shall make reasonable modifications in policies, practices, or procedures when the modifications are necessary to avoid discrimination on the basis of disability, unless the Bureau can demonstrate that making the modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of the program, service, or activity.
</P>
<P>(c) The exclusion of persons who have not self-identified as having disabilities from the benefits of a program limited by federal statute or Executive order to individuals with disabilities or the exclusion of a specific class of individuals with disabilities from a program limited by federal statute or Executive order to a different class of individuals with disabilities is not prohibited by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) The Bureau shall administer programs and activities in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of qualified individuals with disabilities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.107" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.107   Employment.</HEAD>
<P>No qualified individual with disability shall, on the basis of disability, be subjected to unlawful discrimination in employment under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau. The definitions, requirements and procedures of § 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, 29 U.S.C. 791, as established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR parts 1614 and 1630, shall apply to employment in federally conducted programs or activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.108" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.108   Program accessibility: Discrimination prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in § 1072.109 no qualified individual with a disability shall, because the Bureau's facilities are inaccessible to or unusable by individuals with disabilities, be denied the benefits of, be excluded from participation in, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any program or activity conducted by the Bureau .


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.109" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.109   Program accessibility: Existing facilities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Bureau shall operate each program or activity so that the program or activity, when viewed in its entirety, is accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. This paragraph does not require the Bureau
</P>
<P>(1) To make structural alterations in each of its existing facilities in order to make them accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities where other methods are effective in achieving compliance with this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) To take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens. If an action would result in such an alteration or such burdens, the Bureau shall take any other action that would not result in such an alteration or such burdens but would nevertheless to the extent reasonably feasible ensure that individuals with disabilities receive the benefits and services of the program or activity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods.</I> The Bureau may comply with the requirements of this section through such means as redesign of equipment, reassignment of services to accessible buildings, assignment of aides to beneficiaries, home visits, delivery of services at alternate accessible sites, alteration of existing facilities and construction of new facilities, use of accessible rolling stock, or any other methods that result in making its programs or activities readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The Bureau, in making alterations to existing buildings, shall meet accessibility requirements to the extent compelled by the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), and any regulations implementing it. In choosing among available methods for meeting the requirements of this section, the Bureau shall give priority to those methods that offer programs and activities to qualified individuals with disabilities in the most integrated setting appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time period for compliance.</I> The Bureau shall comply with the obligations established under this section within ninety (90) days of the effective date of this part except that where structural changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes in facilities are undertaken, such changes shall be made within three years of the effective date of this part, but in any event as expeditiously as possible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.110" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.110   Program accessibility: New construction and alterations.</HEAD>
<P>Each building or part of a building that is constructed or altered by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau shall be designed, constructed, or altered so as to be readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities. The definitions, requirements, and standards of the Architectural Barriers Act (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), as implemented in 41 CFR 101-19.600 through 101-19.607, apply to buildings covered by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.111" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.111   Communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Bureau shall take appropriate steps to effectively communicate with applicants, participants, personnel of other federal entities, and members of the public.
</P>
<P>(1) The Bureau shall furnish appropriate auxiliary aids where necessary to afford an individual with a disability an equal opportunity to participate in, and enjoy the benefits of, a program or activity conducted by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(i) In determining what type of auxiliary aid is necessary, the Bureau shall give consideration to any reasonable request of the individual with a disability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bureau need not provide individually prescribed devices, readers for personal use or study, or other devices of a personal nature to applicants or participants in programs.
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Bureau communicates with applicants and beneficiaries by
</P>
<P>telephone, the Bureau shall use a telecommunication device for deaf persons (TDD's) or equally effective telecommunication systems to communicate with persons with impaired hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) The Bureau shall make available to interested persons, including persons with impaired vision or hearing, information as to the existence and location of accessible services, activities, and facilities.
</P>
<P>(c) The Bureau shall post notices at a primary entrance to each of its inaccessible facilities, directing users to an accessible facility, or to a location at which they can obtain information about accessible facilities. The international symbol for accessibility shall be used at each primary entrance of an accessible facility.
</P>
<P>(d) This section does not require the Bureau to take any action that would result in a fundamental alteration in the nature of a program or activity or in undue financial and administrative burdens.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1072.112" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.7.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1072.112   Compliance procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, this section applies to all allegations of discrimination on the basis of disability in programs and activities conducted by the Bureau and denial of access to electronic and information technology.
</P>
<P>(b) The Bureau shall process complaints alleging violations of section 504 with respect to employment according to the procedures established by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission in 29 CFR part 1614 pursuant to section 501 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 791).
</P>
<P>(c) All other complaints alleging violations of section 504 or section 508 may be sent to Labor and Employee Relations, Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer Consumer Financial Protection Bureau, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20052. The Office of the Chief Human Capital Officer shall be responsible for coordinating implementation of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Complaint-filing procedures.</I> (1) Any person who believes that he or she has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part may by himself or herself or by his or her authorized representative file a complaint. Any person who believes that any specific class of persons has been subjected to discrimination prohibited by this part and who is a member of that class or the authorized representative of a member of that class may file a class complaint.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bureau shall accept and investigate each timely filed, complete complaint over which it has jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) A complete complaint must be filed within 180 days of the alleged act of discrimination. A complaint submitted to the Bureau via first-class mail will be deemed to have been filed when postmarked. A complaint submitted to the Bureau via any other means of delivery will be deemed to have been filed when received by the Bureau. The Bureau may extend this time period for good cause.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Bureau receives a complaint over which it does not have jurisdiction, it shall promptly notify the complainant and shall make reasonable efforts to refer the complaint to the appropriate government entity.
</P>
<P>(f) The Bureau shall notify the Architectural and Transportation Barriers Compliance Board upon receipt of any complaint alleging that a building or facility that is subject to the Architectural Barriers Act of 1968, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4151-4157), is not readily accessible to and usable by individuals with disabilities.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) Within 180 days of the receipt of a timely filed, complete complaint over which it has jurisdiction, the Bureau shall notify the complainant of the results of the investigation in a letter containing:
</P>
<P>(i) Findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of a remedy for each violation found; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice of the right to appeal.
</P>
<P>(2) Bureau employees are required to cooperate in the investigation and attempted resolution of complaints. Employees who are required to participate in any investigation under this section shall do so as part of their official duties and during the course of regular duty hours.
</P>
<P>(3) If a complaint is resolved informally, the terms of the agreement shall be reduced to writing and made part of the complaint file, with a copy of the agreement provided to the complainant. The written agreement shall describe the subject matter of the complaint and any corrective action to which the parties have agreed.
</P>
<P>(h) Appeals of the findings of fact and conclusions of law or remedies must be filed by the complainant within 30 days of receipt from the Bureau of the letter required by § 1072.112(g). The Bureau may extend this time for good cause.
</P>
<P>(i) Timely appeals shall be accepted and processed by the Chief Human Capital Officer, who will issue the final agency decision which may include appropriate corrective action to be taken by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(j) The Bureau shall notify the complainant of the results of the appeal within 60 days of the receipt of the timely appeal. If the Bureau determines that it needs additional information from the complainant, it shall have 60 days from the date it received the additional information to make its determination on the appeal.
</P>
<P>(k) The time limits cited in paragraphs (g) and (j) of this section may be extended for an individual case when the Chief Human Capital Officer determines there is good cause, based on the particular circumstances of that case, for the extension.
</P>
<P>(l) The Bureau may delegate its authority for conducting complaint investigations to other federal agencies or may contract with a nongovernment investigator to perform the investigation, but the authority for making the final determination may not be delegated to another entity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1073" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1073—PROCEDURES FOR BUREAU DEBT COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 31 U.S.C. 3711, <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 41678, July 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope, Purpose, and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.101   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part establishes Bureau procedures for the collection of certain debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(a) This part applies to collections by the Bureau from:
</P>
<P>(1) Federal employees who are indebted to the Bureau;
</P>
<P>(2) Employees of the Bureau who are indebted to other agencies; and
</P>
<P>(3) Other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to the United States, except those excluded in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) To debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, U.S. Code), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>), or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) To a situation to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 7101 <I>et seq.</I>) applies; or
</P>
<P>(3) To debts arising out of acquisition contracts subject to the Federal Acquisition Regulation. These debts shall be determined, collected, compromised, terminated, or settled in accordance with that regulation (see 48 CFR part 32).
</P>
<P>(4) In any other case where collection of a debt is exclusively provided for or prohibited by another statute or applicable regulation.
</P>
<P>(c) In addition to the procedures set forth in this part, the Bureau shall also follow the procedures set forth in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, for the collection by offset from indebted government employees, and in 31 CFR part 285 and the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) for the collection of debts owed to the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3711 <I>et seq.</I>), the FCCS, or any other applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.102   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement Federal statutes and regulatory standards authorizing the Bureau to collect debts owed to the United States. This part is intended to be consistent with the following Federal statutes and regulations:
</P>
<P>(1) DCIA at 31 U.S.C. 3711 (collection and compromise of claims), section 3716 (administrative offset), section 3717 (interest and penalty on claims), and section 3718 (contracts for collection services); 31 CFR part 285 (debt collection authorities under the DCIA)
</P>
<P>(2) 31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904 (FCCS);
</P>
<P>(3) 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR part 550, subpart K (salary offset);
</P>
<P>(4) 5 U.S.C. 5584 (waiver of claims for overpayment);
</P>
<P>(5) 31 U.S.C. 3720D, 31 CFR 285.11 (administrative wage garnishment); and
</P>
<P>(6) 26 U.S.C. 6402(d), 31 U.S.C. 3720A, and 31 CFR 285.2 (tax refund offset).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Except where the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following definitions shall apply to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means withholding funds payable by the United States to, or held by the United States for, a person to satisfy a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means a department, agency, court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the executive, judicial, or legislative branch of the Federal government, including government corporations.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> or <I>CFPB</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Centralized administrative offset</I> means an offset initiated by referral to the Secretary of the Treasury, or where applicable a debt collection center designated by the Department of the Treasury, by a creditor agency of a past due debt for the purpose of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means a written statement transmitted from a creditor agency to a paying agency for purposes of administrative or salary offset, to the Financial Management Service (FMS) for offset or to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset. The certification confirms the existence and amount of the debt and verifies that the creditor agency has afforded the debtor the required procedural protections. Where the debtor requests a hearing on a claimed debt, the decision by a hearing official or administrative law judge constitutes a certification.
</P>
<P><I>Compromise</I> means the settlement or forgiveness of a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3711, in accordance with standards set forth in the FCCS and applicable Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means an agency of the Federal Government to which the debt is owed, or a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency to collect a debt. An agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> or <I>claim</I> means an amount of money, funds, or property that has been determined by an agency official to be due the United States from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal entity. For purposes of this part, a debt or claim owed to the Bureau constitutes a debt or claim owed to the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or other government agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means a person who owes a debt or a claim. The term “person” includes any individual, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection or the Director's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current adjusted basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, and, in the case of an employee not entitled to adjusted basic pay, other authorized pay, remaining for each pay period after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS)</I> means standards published at 31 CFR Parts 900 through 904.
</P>
<P><I>Financial Management Service (FMS)</I> is a Bureau of the Department of the Treasury.
</P>
<P><I>Garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
</P>
<P><I>Non-centralized administrative offset</I> means offsets that an agency conducts, at the agency's discretion, internally or in cooperation with the agency certifying or authorizing payment to the debtor.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of Intent to Offset</I> or <I>Notice of Intent</I> means a written notice from a creditor agency to an employee, organization, entity, or restitution debtor that claims a debt and informs the debtor that the creditor agency intends to collect the debt by administrative or salary offset. The notice also informs the debtor of certain procedural rights with respect to the claimed debt and respective offset procedure.
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means the agency of the Federal Government that withholds funds payable to a person who owes a debt to an agency of the Federal Government. The term “person” includes any individual, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency. An agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.
</P>
<P><I>Recoupment</I> means a special method of adjusting debts arising under the same transaction or occurrence.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deduction(s) at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a Federal employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Withholding order</I> means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial or administrative body.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.201" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.201   Applicability and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability.</I> The provisions of this subpart apply to the collection of debts owed to the United States arising out of the activities of, or referred to, the Bureau. This subpart is intended to be consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (31 CFR chapter IX and parts 900 through 904) on administrative offset issued by the Department of Treasury and the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) The Director will refer any eligible debt over 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury or a designated debt collection center for collection by centralized administrative offset. The Director may also refer any eligible debt less than 180 days delinquent to the Department of the Treasury for offset.
</P>
<P>(2) At least 60 days prior to referring a debt to the Department of the Treasury in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Director will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 1073.204 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Non-centralized administrative offset.</I> (1) When centralized administrative offset is not available or appropriate, the Director may collect past-due, legally enforceable debts through non-centralized administrative offset. In these cases, the Director may offset a payment internally or make an offset request directly to a paying agency.
</P>
<P>(2) At least 30 days prior to offsetting a payment internally or requesting a paying agency to offset a payment in accordance with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Director will send notice to the debtor in accordance with the requirements of § 1073.204 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.202" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.202   Collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may collect a claim from a person by administrative offset of monies payable by the Government only after:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing the debtor with the procedures of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing the paying agency with written certification that the debtor owes the debt in the amount stated and that the Bureau, as creditor agency, has complied with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director will initiate collection by administrative offset of only those debts for which that remedy is permissible under 31 CFR 901.3(a).
</P>
<P>(c) Unless otherwise provided, debts or payments not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under common law, or any other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.203" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.203   Omission of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau shall not be required to follow the procedures described in § 1073.204 where:
</P>
<P>(a) The offset is in the nature of a recoupment;
</P>
<P>(b) The debt arises under a contract as set forth in <I>Cecile Industries, Inc.</I> v. <I>Cheney,</I> 995 F.2d 1052 (Fed. Cir. 1993); or
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets, the Bureau first learns of the existence of the amount owed by the debtor when there is insufficient time before payment would be made to the debtor/payee to allow for prior notice and an opportunity to review. When prior notice and an opportunity to review are omitted, the Director shall give the debtor such notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practicable and shall promptly refund any money ultimately found not to be due to the U.S. Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.204" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.204   Debtor's rights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Debtor's rights prior to collection or referral.</I> Prior to collecting any claim by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, the Director shall provide the debtor with the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A Notice of Intent to Offset, which shall include written notice of the type and amount of the debt, the intention of the Director to use administrative offset to collect the debt, and an explanation of the debtor's rights under 31 U.S.C. 3716;
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity to inspect and copy Bureau records related to the debt, unless such records are exempt from disclosure;
</P>
<P>(3) An opportunity for review within the Bureau of the determination of indebtedness; and
</P>
<P>(4) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement to repay the debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Opportunity for review.</I> (1) Any request by the debtor for such review shall be in writing and shall be submitted to the Bureau within 30 calendar days of the date of the Notice of Intent to Offset. The Director may waive the time limit for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a request for review by the debtor, the Director shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when the Director determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence alone (e.g., when the determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity). Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this section is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although all significant matters discussed at the hearing shall be documented.
</P>
<P>(3) In cases where an oral hearing is not required by this section, the Bureau shall make its determination based on a documentary hearing consisting of a review of the written record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.205" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.205   No requirement for duplicate notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Director previously has given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, the Director is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.206" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.206   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717, the Director shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the United States. Interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed in accordance with 31 CFR 901.9.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall waive collection of interest on a debt or any portion of the debt which is paid in full within 30 days after the date on which the interest began to accrue.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may waive interest accrued during a period a disputed debt is under investigation or review by the Bureau, <I>i.e.,</I> from the date the Bureau receives a request for review until the date the Bureau issues a final agency decision. The Director may only grant this waiver for good cause shown by the debtor. This waiver must be requested by the debtor before the expiration of the 30-day waiver period described in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may at any time waive collection of interest, penalties, or administrative costs if he or she finds that one or more of the following conditions exists:
</P>
<P>(1) The Debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the debt within a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of interest, penalties, or administrative costs will jeopardize collection of the principal of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The Bureau is unable to enforce collection in full within a reasonable period of time through collection proceedings; or
</P>
<P>(4) Collection is against equity and good conscience or is not in the best interest of the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director is authorized to assess interest, penalties, administrative costs, or other related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.207" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.207   Termination or suspension of collection action.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may suspend or terminate collection action on a claim not in excess of $100,000, or such other amount as the Attorney General may direct, exclusive of interest, penalties, and administrative costs, after deducting the amount of partial payments or collections, if any. Any such termination or suspension shall be conducted in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3711 under the procedures established in 31 CFR part 903.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.208" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.208   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Government shall be promptly refunded. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.209" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.209   Request for offset to other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may request that a debt owed to the Bureau be administratively offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another Federal agency. In requesting administrative offset, the Bureau, as the creditor agency, will provide written certification to the Federal agency holding funds payable to the debtor, stating:
</P>
<P>(a) That the debtor owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(b) The amount and basis of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(c) That the Bureau has fully complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.210" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.210   Request for offset from other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>Any Federal agency may request that funds due and payable to its debtor by the Bureau be administratively offset by the Bureau in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor. The Director shall initiate the requested offset only upon:
</P>
<P>(a) Receipt of written certification from the creditor agency stating:
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) That the creditor agency has fully complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of 31 U.S.C. 3716; and
</P>
<P>(b) A determination that collection by offset against funds payable by the Bureau would be in the best interest of the United States and that such offset would not be contrary to law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.301" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.301   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These salary offset regulations should be read in conjunction with 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, and apply to the collection of debts owed by employees of the Bureau or other Federal agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) These salary offset procedures do not apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Where an employee consents to the recovery of a debt from his current pay account;
</P>
<P>(2) To debts arising under the Internal Revenue Code (Title 26, U.S. Code), the tariff laws of the United States, or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.
</P>
<P>(c) These procedures do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, or from questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner specified by law or these agency regulations. This subpart also does not preclude an employee from requesting waiver of the collection of a debt under any other applicable statutory authority.
</P>
<P>(d) When possible, salary offset through centralized administrative offset procedures should be attempted before seeking salary offset from a paying agency different than the creditor agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.302" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.302   Notice requirement where CFPB is creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Bureau seeks salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514 as the creditor agency, the Director shall first provide the employee with a written Notice of Intent to Offset at least 30 calendar days before salary offset is to commence. The Notice of Intent to Offset shall include the following information and statements:
</P>
<P>(a) That the Director has determined that a debt is owed to the Bureau, and the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(b) That the Director intends to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account;
</P>
<P>(c) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction, stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of disposable pay, not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay;
</P>
<P>(d) That the Director intends to continue the deductions until the debt is paid in full or otherwise resolved;
</P>
<P>(e) The opportunity (under terms agreeable to the Director) to establish a schedule for the voluntary repayment of the debt or enter into a written agreement to establish a schedule for repayment of the debt in lieu of offset. The agreement must be in writing, signed by both the employee and the Director, and documented in the Bureau's files;
</P>
<P>(f) The Bureau's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, including a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the FCCS or these regulations;
</P>
<P>(g) That the employee has the right to inspect and copy Bureau records not exempt from disclosure that relate to the debt or, if the employee or his or her representative cannot personally inspect the records, to request and receive a copy of such records;
</P>
<P>(1) Such requests must be made in writing, and identify by name and address the designated individual to whom the request should be sent.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of such a request, the designated official shall notify the employee of the time and location where the records may be inspected and copied;
</P>
<P>(h) That the employee has a right to a hearing regarding the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the salary offset schedule proposed by the Director, provided that the employee files a request for such a hearing with the Bureau in accordance with § 1073.303. Such a hearing will be conducted by an impartial official who is an administrative law judge or who is an other hearing official not under the supervision or control of the Director;
</P>
<P>(i) The procedure and deadline for requesting a hearing, including the name, address, and telephone number of the designated individual to whom a request for hearing must be sent;
</P>
<P>(j) That a request for hearing must be received by the Bureau within 15 calendar days following receipt of the Notice of Intent, and that filing of a request for hearing will stay the commencement of collection proceedings;
</P>
<P>(k) That the Director will initiate salary offset procedures not less than 30 days from the date of the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent to Offset, unless the employee files a timely request for a hearing;
</P>
<P>(l) That if a hearing is held, the administrative law judge or other hearing official will issue a decision on the hearing at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the request for the hearing, unless the employee requests and the hearing official grants a delay in the proceedings;
</P>
<P>(m) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(2) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(3) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002 or under any other applicable statutory authority;
</P>
<P>(n) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584, and may exercise any other rights and remedies available under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; and
</P>
<P>(o) That amounts paid on or deducted from the debt which are later waived or found not to be owed to the United States will be promptly refunded to the employee, unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.303" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.303   Procedures to request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request a hearing, an employee must send a written request to the designated official indicated in the Notice of Intent stating why the employee believes the determination concerning the existence or amount of debt is in error. The request must be received by the Bureau within 15 calendar days following the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent.
</P>
<P>(b) The request must be signed by the employee and fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, which the employee believes support his or her position. The request for hearing must state whether the employee is requesting an oral or documentary hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the request shall explain why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of documentary evidence alone.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.304" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.304   Failure to timely submit request for a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If the Bureau does not receive an employee's request for hearing within the 15-day period set forth in § 1073.303, the employee shall not be entitled to a hearing, and salary offset may be initiated. However, the Bureau may accept an untimely request for hearing if the employee can show that the delay was because of circumstances beyond his or her control or because of failure to receive notice of the time limit (unless otherwise aware of it).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.305" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.305   Procedures for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obtaining the services of a hearing official.</I> The Director must obtain the services of an impartial hearing official who is an administrative law judge or who is an other official not under the supervision or control of the Director. The Director shall designate an administrative law judge or contact an agent of another agency designated in appendix A to 5 CFR part 581 to arrange for a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and format of hearing</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> The hearing official shall determine whether the hearing shall be oral or documentary and shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must be held within 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be documentary, the employee shall be notified to submit evidence and written arguments in support of his or her case to the hearing official within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral hearing.</I> The hearing official may grant a request for an oral hearing if he or she determines that the issues raised by the employee cannot be resolved by review of documentary evidence alone (e.g., where credibility or veracity is at issue). Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under written or recorded oath or affirmation. An oral hearing is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing. Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and Bureau representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(ii) Informal meetings in which the hearing official interviews the employee; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Formal written submissions with an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Documentary hearing.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she will make the determination based upon a review of the available written record, including any documentation submitted by the employee in support of his or her position.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rescheduling of the hearing date.</I> The hearing official shall reschedule a hearing if requested to do so by both parties, who shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of this new hearing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Failure to appear or submit documentary evidence.</I> In the absence of good cause shown, an employee who fails to appear at an oral hearing, or fails to submit documentary evidence for a documentary hearing, will have waived the right to a hearing. Furthermore, the employee will have been deemed to admit the existence and amount of the debt as described in the Notice of Intent. If the representative of the creditor agency fails to appear without good cause shown, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and issue a decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Date of decision.</I> The hearing official shall issue a written decision based upon the evidence and information developed at the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the date on which the request for hearing was received by the Bureau, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee. In the event of such a delay, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed. The decision of the hearing official shall be final.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The facts purported to evidence the nature and origin of the proposed debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's analysis, findings and conclusions, in light of the hearing, as to the employee's and/or Bureau's grounds, the amount and validity of the alleged debt and, where applicable, the repayment schedule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.306" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.306   Salary offset process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Method and source of deductions.</I> Salary offsets under this subpart shall be deducted from current disposable pay, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of disposable pay.</I> The Bureau's Office of the Chief Financial Officer will consult with the Bureau's Office of Human Capital to determine the amount of a Bureau employee's disposable pay and will implement the salary offset. If the debtor is not employed by the Bureau, the agency employing the debtor will determine the amount of the employee's disposable pay and will implement the salary offset.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>When salary offset may begin.</I> Deductions shall begin within three official pay periods following, as applicable, the initiation of salary offset without a hearing under § 1073.304, the decision of the hearing official under § 1073.305, or receipt of the creditor agency's request for offset where the Bureau is not the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amount of salary offset.</I> The amount to be offset from each salary payment will be up to 15 percent of a debtor's disposable pay, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the disposable pay, such debt generally will be collected in one lump sum payment;
</P>
<P>(2) If the employee is financially unable to pay in one lump sum or the amount of the debt exceeds 15 percent of disposable pay for an officially established pay interval, collection will be made in installments. Installment deductions will be made over a period of no greater than the anticipated period of employment, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section. Installment deductions must ordinarily bear a reasonable relationship to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. An installment deduction will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. The creditor agency may determine that smaller deductions are appropriate based on the employee's ability to pay.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final salary or other payment.</I> After the employee has separated either voluntarily or involuntarily from the payment agency, the payment agency may, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, make a lump sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay from any final salary or other payments in order to satisfy a debt. If the debt cannot be liquidated by offset from any final payment due the former employee as of the date of separation, it may be offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 from later payments of any kind due the former employee from the United States, unless prohibited by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.307" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.307   Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset where the CFPB is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In response to a Notice of Intent, an employee may propose to voluntarily repay the debt through scheduled voluntary payments, in lieu of salary offset. An employee who wishes to repay a debt in this manner shall submit to the Bureau a written agreement proposing a repayment schedule. This proposal must be received by the Bureau within 30 calendar days following the date of the Notice of Intent.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed voluntary repayment agreement is acceptable. It is within the discretion of the Director whether to accept or reject the debtor's proposal, or whether to propose to the debtor a modification of the proposed repayment agreement:
</P>
<P>(1) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is unacceptable, he or she shall notify the employee and the employee shall have 30 calendar days from the date he or she received notice of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing on the proposed repayment agreement, as provided in § 1073.303; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the Director decides that the proposed repayment agreement is acceptable or the debtor agrees to a modification proposed by the Director, the agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.308" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.308   Special review of repayment agreement or salary offset due to changed circumstances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee subject to a voluntary repayment agreement or salary offset payable to the Bureau as creditor agency may request a special review by the Director of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability. A request for special review may be made at any time.
</P>
<P>(b) In support of a request for special review, the employee shall submit to the Bureau a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating:
</P>
<P>(1) Income from all sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of dependents;
</P>
<P>(5) Monthly expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;
</P>
<P>(6) Medical expenses; and
</P>
<P>(7) Exceptional expenses, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) The employee shall also file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in extreme financial hardship to the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents and determine whether the original salary offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee, for example, by preventing the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses such as food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care. The Director shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of his or her determination.
</P>
<P>(e) If the special review results in a revised salary offset or repayment schedule, the Director shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.309" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.309   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Where the Bureau is the creditor agency, it shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 1073.206 and in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 and 31 CFR parts 900 through 904.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.310" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.310   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where the Bureau is the creditor agency, it shall promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when the debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owing to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulation), or when an administrative or judicial order directs the Bureau to refund amounts deducted from the employee's current pay.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.311" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.311   Non-waiver of rights by payment.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under 5 U.S.C. 5514 shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights which the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provision of contract or law, unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.312" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.312   Exception to procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The procedures set forth in this subpart shall not apply to the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any adjustment to pay arising out of an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less;
</P>
<P>(2) A routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is made to correct an overpayment attributable to clerical or administrative errors or delays in processing pay documents, if the overpayment occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment and, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less, if, at the time of such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as practical, the individual is provided written notice of the nature and amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.
</P>
<P>(b) In the event of a negative adjustment to pay, as described in subsection (a)(1), the Bureau will provide a clear and concise statement in the employee's earnings statement advising the employee of the previous overpayment at the time the adjustment is made.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Administrative Wage Garnishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.401" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.401   Administrative wage garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may collect debts from a debtor's wages by means of administrative wage garnishment in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720D under the procedures established in 31 CFR 285.11.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1073.501" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1073.501   Tax refund offset.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to offset a debt owed to the United States Government from the tax refund due a taxpayer. The Director may administer tax refund offsets in accordance with the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3720A under the procedures established in 31 CFR 285.2.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1074" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1074—RULEMAKING AND GUIDANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5492(a)(1), 5512(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 76354, Dec. 28, 2012, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—[Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Use of Supervisory Guidance</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 9268, Feb. 12, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1074.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1074.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau issues regulations and guidance as part of its supervisory function. This subpart reiterates the distinctions between regulations and guidance, as stated in the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance (appendix A to this part) (Statement), and provides that the Statement is binding on the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1074.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1074.3   Implementation of the Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance.</HEAD>
<P>The Statement describes the official policy of the Bureau with respect to the use of supervisory guidance in the supervisory process. The Statement is binding on the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.9.2.1.3.27" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1074—Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HEAD>
<HD1>Statement Clarifying the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD1>
<P>The Bureau is issuing this statement to explain the role of supervisory guidance and to describe the Bureau's approach to supervisory guidance.
</P>
<HD2>Difference Between Supervisory Guidance and Laws or Regulations
</HD2>
<P>Supervisory agencies like the Bureau issue various types of supervisory guidance, including interagency statements, advisories, bulletins, policy statements, questions and answers, or frequently asked questions, to their respective supervised institutions. A law or regulation has the force and effect of law.
<SU>1</SU> Unlike a law or regulation, supervisory guidance does not have the force and effect of law, and the Bureau does not take enforcement actions based on supervisory guidance. Rather, supervisory guidance outlines the Bureau's supervisory expectations or priorities and articulates the Bureau's general views regarding appropriate practices for a given subject area. Supervisory guidance often provides examples of practices that the Bureau generally considers consistent with applicable laws and regulations, including those designed to protect consumers. Supervised institutions at times request supervisory guidance, and such guidance is important to provide insight to industry, as well as supervisory staff, in a transparent way that helps to ensure consistency in the supervisory approach.
</P>
<HD2>Ongoing Efforts To Clarify the Role of Supervisory Guidance
</HD2>
<P>The Bureau is clarifying the following policies and practices related to supervisory guidance:
</P>
<P>• The Bureau intends to limit the use of numerical thresholds or other “bright-lines” in describing expectations in supervisory guidance. Where numerical thresholds are used, the Bureau intends to clarify that the thresholds are exemplary only and not suggestive of requirements. The Bureau will continue to use numerical thresholds to tailor, and otherwise make clear, the applicability of supervisory guidance or programs to supervised institutions, and as required by statute.
</P>
<P>• Examiners will not criticize (through the issuance of matters requiring attention, matters requiring immediate attention, matters requiring board attention, documents of resolution, and supervisory recommendations) a supervised financial institution for, and the Bureau will not issue an enforcement action on the basis of, a “violation” of or “non-compliance” with supervisory guidance. In some situations, examiners may reference (including in writing) supervisory guidance to provide examples of appropriate consumer protection and risk management practices and other actions for addressing compliance with laws or regulations.
</P>
<P>• Supervisory criticisms should continue to be specific as to practices, operations or other matters that could cause consumer harm or could cause violations of laws, regulations, final agency orders, or other legally enforceable conditions.
</P>
<P>• The Bureau may decide to seek public comment on supervisory guidance. Seeking public comment on supervisory guidance does not mean that the guidance is intended to be a regulation or have the force and effect of law. The comment process helps the Bureau to improve its understanding of an issue, to gather information on institutions' risk management practices, or to seek ways to achieve a supervisory objective most effectively and with the least burden on institutions.
</P>
<P>• The Bureau will aim to reduce the issuance of multiple supervisory guidance documents on the same topic and will generally limit such multiple issuances going forward.
</P>
<P>• The Bureau will continue efforts to make the role of supervisory guidance clear in communications to examiners and to supervised financial institutions and encourages supervised institutions with questions about this statement or any applicable supervisory guidance to discuss the questions with their appropriate agency contact.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[86 FR 9268, Feb. 12, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1075" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1075—CONSUMER FINANCIAL CIVIL PENALTY FUND RULE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5497(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 26501, May 7, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1075.100" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.100   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Section 1017(d)(1) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1978 (12 U.S.C. 5497(d)) (Dodd-Frank Act) establishes the “Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund.” This part describes the conditions under which victims will be eligible for payments from the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund and the amounts of the payments they may receive. This part also establishes procedures and guidelines for allocating funds from the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund to classes of victims and distributing such funds to individual victims, and for allocating funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs. This part also establishes reporting requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau enforcement action</I> means any judicial or administrative action or proceeding in which the Bureau has obtained relief with respect to a violation.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Financial Officer</I> means the Chief Financial Officer of the Bureau or any Bureau employee to whom that officer has delegated authority to act under this part. In the absence of a Chief Financial Officer of the Bureau, the Director shall designate an alternative official of the Bureau to perform the functions of the Chief Financial Officer under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Civil Penalty Fund</I> means the Consumer Financial Civil Penalty Fund established by 12 U.S.C. 5497(d).
</P>
<P><I>Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board</I> means the body, comprised of senior Bureau officials, established by the Director of the Bureau to advise on matters relating to the Civil Penalty Fund.
</P>
<P><I>Class of victims</I> means a group of similarly situated victims who suffered harm from the same or similar violations for which the Bureau obtained relief in a Bureau enforcement action.
</P>
<P><I>Defendant</I> means a party in a Bureau enforcement action that is found or alleged to have committed a violation.
</P>
<P><I>Final order</I> means a consent order or settlement issued by a court or by the Bureau, or an appealable order issued by a court or by the Bureau as to which the time for filing an appeal has expired and no appeals are pending. For purposes of this definition, “appeals” include petitions for reconsideration, review, rehearing, and certiorari.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Redress</I> means any amounts—including but not limited to restitution, refunds, and damages—that a final order requires a defendant:
</P>
<P>(1) To distribute, credit, or otherwise pay to those harmed by a violation; or
</P>
<P>(2) To pay to the Bureau or another intermediary for distribution to those harmed by the violation.
</P>
<P><I>Victim</I> means a person harmed as a result of a violation.
</P>
<P><I>Violation</I> means any act or omission that constitutes a violation of law for which the Bureau is authorized to obtain relief pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5565(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.102   Fund administrator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> There is established the position of Civil Penalty Fund Administrator (Fund Administrator). The Fund Administrator will report to the Chief Financial Officer. The Chief Financial Officer may, to the extent permitted by applicable law, relieve the Fund Administrator of the duties of that position without notice, without cause, and prior to the naming of a successor Fund Administrator.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers and duties.</I> The Fund Administrator will have the powers and duties assigned to that official in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Interpretation of these regulations.</I> (1) On its own initiative or at the Fund Administrator's request, the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board may advise or direct the Fund Administrator on the administration of the Civil Penalty Fund, including regarding the interpretation of this part and its application to particular facts and circumstances.
</P>
<P>(2) The Fund Administrator must follow any written directions that the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board provides pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unavailability of the Fund Administrator.</I> If there is no Fund Administrator or if the Fund Administrator is otherwise unavailable, the Chief Financial Officer will perform the functions and duties of the Fund Administrator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.103   Eligible victims.</HEAD>
<P>A victim is eligible for payment from the Civil Penalty Fund if a final order in a Bureau enforcement action imposed a civil penalty for the violation or violations that harmed the victim.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.104   Payments to victims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Bureau will use funds in the Civil Penalty Fund for payments to compensate eligible victims' uncompensated harm, as described in to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Victims' uncompensated harm.</I> (1) A victim's uncompensated harm is the victim's compensable harm, as described in paragraph (c) of this section, minus any compensation for that harm that the victim has received or is reasonably expected to receive.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a victim has received or is reasonably expected to receive compensation in the amount of:
</P>
<P>(i) Any Civil Penalty Fund payment that the victim has previously received or will receive as a result of a previous allocation from the Civil Penalty Fund to the victim's class;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any redress that a final order in a Bureau enforcement action orders to be distributed, credited, or otherwise paid to the victim, and that has not been suspended or waived and that the Chief Financial Officer has not determined to be uncollectible; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other redress that the Bureau knows that has been distributed, credited, or otherwise paid to the victim, or has been paid to an intermediary for distribution to the victim, to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(A) That redress compensates the victim for the same harm as would be compensated by a Civil Penalty Fund payment; and
</P>
<P>(B) It is not unduly burdensome, in light of the amounts at stake, to determine the amount of that redress or the extent to which it compensates the victim for the same harm as would be compensated by a Civil Penalty Fund payment.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Fund Administrator deems it impracticable to assess the uncompensated harm of individual victims in a class, each individual victim's uncompensated harm will be the victim's share of the aggregate uncompensated harm of the victim's class.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Victims' compensable harm.</I> Victims' compensable harm for purposes of this part is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If a final order in a Bureau enforcement action ordered redress for a class of victims, the compensable harm of each victim in the class is equal to that victim's share of the total redress ordered, including any amounts that are suspended or waived.
</P>
<P>(2) If a final order in a Bureau enforcement action does not order redress for a class of victims, those victims' compensable harm is as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Bureau sought redress for a class of victims but a court or administrative tribunal denied that request for redress in the final order, the victims in that class have no compensable harm.
</P>
<P>(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, if the final order in the Bureau enforcement action specifies the amount of the victims' harm, including by prescribing a formula for calculating that harm, each victim's compensable harm is equal to that victim's share of the amount specified.
</P>
<P>(iii) Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, if the final order in the Bureau enforcement action does not specify the amount of the victims' harm, each victim's compensable harm is equal to the victim's out-of-pocket losses that resulted from the violation or violations for which a civil penalty was imposed, except to the extent such losses are impracticable to determine.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.105   Allocating funds from the Civil Penalty Fund—in general.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Fund Administrator will allocate Civil Penalty Fund funds specified in paragraph (c) of this section to classes of victims and to consumer education and financial literacy programs as appropriate according to the schedule established in paragraph (b) of this section and the guidelines established in §§ 1075.106 and 1075.107.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Schedule for making allocations.</I> (1) Within 60 days of May 7, 2013, the Fund Administrator will establish, and publish on <I>www.consumerfinance.gov</I>, a schedule for allocating funds in the Civil Penalty Fund, in accordance with the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The schedule will establish six-month periods and identify the start and end dates of those periods. The start date of one period will be the day immediately after the end date of the preceding period.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section, the first and second periods may be longer or shorter than six months to allow future six-month periods to start and end on dates that better serve administrative efficiency. The first and second periods will constitute “six-month periods” under this part regardless of their actual length.
</P>
<P>(iii) The start date of the first period is July 21, 2011.
</P>
<P>(2) Within 60 days after the end of a six-month period, the Fund Administrator will allocate available funds in the Civil Penalty Fund in accordance with §§ 1075.106 and 1075.107.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board determines that the schedule established under paragraph (b)(1) of this section should be changed to better serve administrative efficiency, it may change that schedule by directing the Fund Administrator to publish the new schedule on <I>www.consumerfinance.gov.</I> Any new schedule must comply with paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. The first period of any new schedule may be shorter or longer than six months. That first period will constitute a “six-month period” under this part regardless of its actual length.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Funds available for allocation.</I> The funds available for allocation following the end of a six-month period are those funds that were in the Civil Penalty Fund on the end date of that six-month period, minus:
</P>
<P>(1) Any funds already allocated,
</P>
<P>(2) Any funds that the Fund Administrator determines are necessary for authorized administrative expenses, and
</P>
<P>(3) Any funds collected pursuant to an order that has not yet become a final order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.106   Allocating funds to classes of victims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Allocations when there are sufficient funds available to compensate all uncompensated harm.</I> If the funds available under § 1075.105(c) are sufficient, the Fund Administrator will allocate to each class of victims the amount necessary to compensate fully the uncompensated harm, determined under § 1075.104(b) as of the last day of the most recently concluded six-month period, of all victims in that class to whom it is practicable to make payments.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocations when there are insufficient funds available to compensate all uncompensated harm.</I> If the funds available under § 1075.105(c) are not sufficient to make the allocations described in paragraph (a) of this section, the Fund Administrator will allocate the available funds to classes of victims as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Priority to classes of victims from the most recent six-month period.</I> The Fund Administrator will first allocate funds to classes of victims from the most recently concluded six-month period, as determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. If funds remain after allocating to each class of victims from that six-month period the amount necessary to compensate fully the uncompensated harm, determined under § 1075.104(b) as of the last day of the most recently concluded six-month period, of all victims in that class to whom it is practicable to make payments, the Fund Administrator next will allocate funds to classes of victims from the preceding six-month period, and so forth until no funds remain.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assigning classes of victims to a six-month period.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (b), the Fund Administrator will assign each class of victims to the six-month period in which the victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b). When a class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) will be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action but suspended or waived in whole or in part, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the suspension or waiver became effective.
</P>
<P>(ii) If redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action but determined by the Chief Financial Officer to be uncollectible in whole or in part, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the Chief Financial Officer made that determination.
</P>
<P>(iii) If no redress was ordered for a class of victims in a Bureau enforcement action, the class of victims first had uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b) on the date the order imposing a civil penalty became a final order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No allocation to a class of victims if making payments would be impracticable.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, the Fund Administrator will not allocate funds available under § 1075.105(c) to a class of victims if she determines that making payments to that class of victims would be impracticable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fund Administrator's discretion.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any provision in this part, the Fund Administrator, in her discretion, may depart from the procedures specified by this section, including by declining to make, or altering the amount of, any allocation provided for by this section. Whenever the Fund Administrator exercises this discretion, she will provide the Civil Penalty Fund Governance Board a written explanation of the reason for departing from the procedures specified by this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If, in allocating funds during a given time period described in § 1075.105(b)(2), the Fund Administrator exercises her discretion under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, she may allocate funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs under 1075.107 during that time period only to the same extent she could have absent that exercise of discretion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.107" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.107   Allocating funds to consumer education and financial literacy programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If funds available under § 1075.105(c) remain after the Fund Administrator allocates funds as described in § 1075.106(a), the Fund Administrator may allocate those remaining funds for consumer education and financial literacy programs.
</P>
<P>(b) The Fund Administrator shall not have the authority to allocate funds to particular consumer education or financial literacy programs or otherwise to select the particular consumer education or financial literacy programs for which allocated funds will be used.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.108" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.108   Distributing payments to victims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation of a payments administrator.</I> Upon allocating Civil Penalty Fund funds to a class of victims pursuant to § 1075.106, the Fund Administrator will designate a payments administrator who will be responsible for distributing payments to the victims in that class. A payments administrator may be any person, including a Bureau employee or contractor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Distribution plan.</I> The payments administrator must submit to the Fund Administrator a proposed plan for the distribution of funds allocated to a class of victims. The Fund Administrator will approve, approve with modifications, or disapprove the proposed distribution plan. If the Fund Administrator disapproves a proposed plan, the payments administrator must submit a new proposed plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of plan.</I> The Fund Administrator will instruct the payments administrator to prepare a distribution plan and may require that plan to include:
</P>
<P>(1) Procedures for determining the amount each victim will receive. Such procedures may, but need not, include a process for submitting and approving claims.
</P>
<P>(2) Procedures for locating and notifying victims eligible or potentially eligible for payment.
</P>
<P>(3) The method or methods by which the payments will be made.
</P>
<P>(4) The method or methods by which potentially eligible victims may contact the payments administrator.
</P>
<P>(5) Any other provisions that the Fund Administrator deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Distribution of payments.</I> The payments administrator will make payments to victims in a class, except to the extent such payments are impracticable, in accordance with the distribution plan approved under paragraph (b) of this section and subject to the Fund Administrator's supervision.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disposition of funds remaining after attempted distribution to a class of victims.</I> If funds allocated to a class of victims remain after a payments administrator distributes payments to that class, the payments administrator will distribute those remaining funds as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) To the extent practicable, the payments administrator will distribute those remaining funds to victims in that class up to the amount of their remaining uncompensated harm as described in § 1075.104(b).
</P>
<P>(2) Any remaining funds that cannot be distributed pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section will be returned to the Civil Penalty Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.109" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.109   When payments to victims are impracticable.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Individual payments.</I> Making a payment to an individual victim will be deemed impracticable if:
</P>
<P>(1) The payment to the victim would be of such a small amount that the victim would not be likely to redeem the payment;
</P>
<P>(2) The payment to the victim is too small to justify the cost of locating the victim and making the payment;
</P>
<P>(3) The victim cannot be located with effort that is reasonable in light of the amount of the payment;
</P>
<P>(4) The victim does not timely submit information that a distribution plan requires to be submitted before a payment will be made;
</P>
<P>(5) The victim does not redeem the payment within a reasonable time; or
</P>
<P>(6) The Fund Administrator determines that other circumstances make it unreasonable to make a payment to the victim.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payments to a class of victims.</I> Making payments to a class of victims will be deemed impracticable if:
</P>
<P>(1) The expected aggregate actual payment to the class of victims is too small to justify the costs of locating the victims in the class and making payments to them;
</P>
<P>(2) It would be impracticable under paragraph (a) of this section to make a payment to any victim in the class; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Fund Administrator determines that other circumstances make it unreasonable to make payments to the class.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1075.110" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.10.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1075.110   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Fund Administrator must issue regular reports, on at least an annual basis, that describe how funds in the Civil Penalty Fund have been allocated, the basis for those allocations, and how funds that have been allocated to classes of victims have been distributed. These reports will be made available on <I>www.consumerfinance.gov.</I>


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1076" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1076—CLAIMS AGAINST THE UNITED STATES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5492(a)(1), (11); 28 U.S.C. 2672; 28 CFR 14.11.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 47153, Aug. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1076.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.11.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1076.101   Claims against a Bureau employee based on negligence, wrongful act or omission.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for filing claims.</I> A claimant, or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative may present a claim against a Bureau employee based on negligence, or wrongful act or omission, as specified in 28 CFR 14.3. Claimant or claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative must file with the General Counsel of the Bureau a completed Claim for Damage or Injury (<I>Standard Form 95</I>), together with appropriate evidence and information, as specified in 28 CFR 14.4. Standard Form 95 may be obtained at <I>http://www.justice.gov/civil/docs_forms./SF-95.pdf,</I> or from the CFPB. Claimants also may submit a claim in the form of a letter or any other writing, a written statement, an audio file, a Braille or electronic document, and/or a video, as long as the submission contains all of the requirements of an administrative claim specified in 28 CFR part 14. Claims should be mailed or delivered to the General Counsel, Legal Division, CFPB, 1700 G Street NW., Washington, DC 20552, or emailed to <I>CFPB_tortclaims@cfpb.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of claims</I>—(1) <I>Delegation of authority to determine claims.</I> The General Counsel, and such employees of the Legal Division as the General Counsel may designate are authorized to consider, ascertain, adjust, determine, compromise, and settle claims pursuant to the FTCA, as amended, and the regulations contained in 28 CFR part 14 and in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disallowance of claims.</I> If the General Counsel, or the General Counsel's designee, denies a claim, the General Counsel or designee shall notify the claimant, or the claimant's duly authorized agent or legal representative.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1077" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1077—XXX
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="19">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="20">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1080" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1080—RULES RELATING TO INVESTIGATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 111-203, title X, 12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1080.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of this part apply to Bureau investigations conducted pursuant to section 1052 of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.2" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau investigation</I> means any inquiry conducted by a Bureau investigator for the purpose of ascertaining whether any person is or has been engaged in any conduct that is a violation.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau investigator</I> means any attorney or investigator employed by the Bureau who is charged with the duty of enforcing or carrying into effect any Federal consumer financial law.
</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means the custodian or any deputy custodian designated by the Bureau for the purpose of maintaining custody of information produced pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Bureau or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with the law.
</P>
<P><I>Documentary material</I> means the original or any copy of any book, document, record, report, memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation, chart, log, electronic file, or other data or data compilation stored in any medium, including electronically stored information.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, as amended, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010), title X, codified at 12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Electronically stored information (ESI)</I> means any information stored in any electronic medium from which information can be obtained either directly or, if necessary, after translation by the responding party into a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Violation</I> means any act or omission that, if proved, would constitute a violation of any provision of Federal consumer financial law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.3" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.3   Policy as to private controversies.</HEAD>
<P>The Bureau shall act only in the public interest and will not initiate an investigation or take other enforcement action when the alleged violation is merely a matter of private controversy and does not tend to affect adversely the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.4" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.4   Initiating and conducting investigations.</HEAD>
<P>The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors have the nondelegable authority to initiate investigations. Bureau investigations are conducted by Bureau investigators designated and duly authorized under section 1052 of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562, to conduct such investigations. Bureau investigators are authorized to exercise and perform their duties in accordance with the laws of the United States and the regulations of the Bureau.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.5" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.5   Notification of purpose.</HEAD>
<P>Any person compelled to furnish documentary material, tangible things, written reports or answers to questions, oral testimony, or any combination of such material, answers, or testimony to the Bureau shall be advised of the nature of the conduct constituting the alleged violation that is under investigation and the provisions of law applicable to such violation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.6" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.6   Civil investigative demands.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In accordance with section 1052(c) of the Act, the Director of the Bureau, the Enforcement Director, and the Deputy Enforcement Directors, have the nondelegable authority to issue a civil investigative demand in any Bureau investigation directing the person named therein to produce documentary material for inspection and copying or reproduction in the form or medium requested by the Bureau; to submit tangible things; to provide a written report or answers to questions; to appear before a designated representative at a designated time and place to testify about documentary material, tangible things, or other information; and to furnish any combination of such material, things, answers, or testimony.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Documentary material.</I> (i) Civil investigative demands for the production of documentary material shall describe each class of material to be produced with such definiteness and certainty as to permit such material to be fairly identified, prescribe a return date or dates that will provide a reasonable period of time within which the material so demanded may be assembled and made available for inspection and copying or reproduction, and identify the custodian to whom such material shall be made available. Documentary material for which a civil investigative demand has been issued shall be made available as prescribed in the civil investigative demand.
</P>
<P>(ii) Production of documentary material in response to a civil investigative demand shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Tangible things.</I> (i) Civil investigative demands for tangible things shall describe each class of tangible things to be produced with such definiteness and certainty as to permit such things to be fairly identified, prescribe a return date or dates which will provide a reasonable period of time within which the things so demanded may be assembled and submitted, and identify the custodian to whom such things shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Submissions of tangible things in response to a civil investigative demand shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the tangible things required by the demand and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the demand is directed have been submitted to the custodian.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Written reports or answers to questions.</I> (i) Civil investigative demands for written reports or answers to questions shall propound with definiteness and certainty the reports to be produced or the questions to be answered, prescribe a date or dates at which time written reports or answers to questions shall be submitted, and identify the custodian to whom such reports or answers shall be submitted.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each reporting requirement or question in a civil investigative demand shall be answered separately and fully in writing under oath. Responses to a civil investigative demand for a written report or answers to questions shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the demand designates, by the person to whom the demand is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person responsible for answering each reporting requirement or question, to the effect that all of the information required by the demand and in the possession, custody, control, or knowledge of the person to whom the demand is directed has been submitted to the custodian.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Oral testimony.</I> (i) Civil investigative demands for the giving of oral testimony shall prescribe a date, time, and place at which oral testimony shall be commenced, and identify a Bureau investigator who shall conduct the investigation and the custodian to whom the transcript of such investigation shall be submitted. Oral testimony in response to a civil investigative demand shall be taken in accordance with the procedures for investigational hearings prescribed by §§ 1080.7 and 1080.9 of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Where a civil investigative demand requires oral testimony from an entity, the civil investigative demand shall describe with reasonable particularity the matters for examination and the entity must designate one or more officers, directors, or managing agents, or designate other persons who consent to testify on its behalf. Unless a single individual is designated by the entity, the entity must designate the matters on which each designee will testify. The individuals designated must testify about information known or reasonably available to the entity and their testimony shall be binding on the entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner and form of production of ESI.</I> When a civil investigative demand requires the production of ESI, it shall be produced in accordance with the instructions provided by the Bureau regarding the manner and form of production. Absent any instructions as to the form for producing ESI, ESI must be produced in the form in which it is ordinarily maintained or in a reasonably usable form.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Meet and confer.</I> The recipient of a civil investigative demand shall meet and confer with a Bureau investigator within 10 calendar days after receipt of the demand or before the deadline for filing a petition to modify or set aside the demand, whichever is earlier, to discuss and attempt to resolve all issues regarding compliance with the civil investigative demand. The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors may authorize the waiver of this requirement for routine third-party civil investigative demands or in other circumstances where he or she determines that a meeting is unnecessary. The meeting may be in person or by telephone.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Personnel.</I> The recipient must make available at the meeting personnel with the knowledge necessary to resolve any issues relevant to compliance with the demand. Such personnel could include individuals knowledgeable about the recipient's information or records management systems and/or the recipient's organizational structure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>ESI.</I> If the civil investigative demand seeks ESI, the recipient shall ensure that a person familiar with its ESI systems and methods of retrieval participates in the meeting.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Petitions.</I> The Bureau will not consider petitions to set aside or modify a civil investigative demand unless the recipient has meaningfully engaged in the meet and confer process described in this subsection and will consider only issues raised during the meet and confer process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Compliance.</I> The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to negotiate and approve the terms of satisfactory compliance with civil investigative demands and, for good cause shown, may extend the time prescribed for compliance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Petition for order modifying or setting aside demand—in general.</I> Any petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand shall be filed with the Executive Secretary of the Bureau with a copy to the Enforcement Director within 20 calendar days after service of the civil investigative demand, or, if the return date is less than 20 calendar days after service, prior to the return date. Such petition shall set forth all factual and legal objections to the civil investigative demand, including all appropriate arguments, affidavits, and other supporting documentation. The attorney who objects to a demand must sign any objections.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Statement.</I> Each petition shall be accompanied by a signed statement representing that counsel for the petitioner has conferred with counsel for the Bureau pursuant to section 1080.6(c) in a good-faith effort to resolve by agreement the issues raised by the petition and has been unable to reach such an agreement. If some of the matters in controversy have been resolved by agreement, the statement shall specify the matters so resolved and the matters remaining unresolved. The statement shall recite the date, time, and place of each such meeting between counsel, and the names of all parties participating in each such meeting.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Extensions of time.</I> The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to rule upon requests for extensions of time within which to file such petitions. Requests for extensions of time are disfavored.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Bureau investigator response.</I> Bureau investigators may, without serving the petitioner, provide the Director with a statement setting forth any factual and legal response to a petition for an order modifying or setting aside the demand.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disposition.</I> The Director has the authority to rule upon a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand. The order may be served on the petitioner via email, facsimile, or any other method reasonably calculated to provide notice of the order to the petitioner.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stay of compliance period.</I> The timely filing of a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand shall stay the time permitted for compliance with the portion challenged. If the petition is denied in whole or in part, the ruling will specify a new return date.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Public disclosure.</I> All such petitions and the Director's orders in response to those petitions are part of the public records of the Bureau unless the Bureau determines otherwise for good cause shown. Any showing of good cause must be made no later than the time the petition is filed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]










</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.7" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.7   Investigational hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Investigational hearings, as distinguished from hearings in adjudicative proceedings, may be conducted pursuant to a civil investigative demand for the giving of oral testimony in the course of any Bureau investigation, including inquiries initiated for the purpose of determining whether or not a respondent is complying with an order of the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(b) Investigational hearings shall be conducted by any Bureau investigator for the purpose of hearing the testimony of witnesses and receiving documentary material, tangible things, or other information relating to any subject under investigation. Such hearings shall be under oath or affirmation and stenographically reported, and a transcript thereof shall be made a part of the record of the investigation. The Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing also may direct that the testimony be recorded by audio, audiovisual, or other means, in which case the recording shall be made a part of the record of the investigation as well.
</P>
<P>(c) In investigational hearings, the Bureau investigators shall exclude from the hearing room all persons except the person being examined, his or her counsel, the officer before whom the testimony is to be taken, any investigator or representative of an agency with which the Bureau is engaged in a joint investigation, and any individual transcribing or recording such testimony. At the discretion of the Bureau investigator, and with the consent of the person being examined, persons other than those listed in this paragraph may be present in the hearing room. The Bureau investigator shall certify or direct the individual transcribing the testimony to certify on the transcript that the witness was duly sworn and that the transcript is a true record of the testimony given by the witness. A copy of the transcript shall be forwarded promptly by the Bureau investigator to the custodian designated in section 1080.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.8" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.8   Withholding requested material.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person withholding material responsive to a civil investigative demand or any other request for production of material shall assert a claim of privilege not later than the date set for the production of material. Such person shall, if so directed in the civil investigative demand or other request for production, submit, together with such claim, a schedule of the items withheld which states, as to each such item, the type, specific subject matter, and date of the item; the names, addresses, positions, and organizations of all authors and recipients of the item; and the specific grounds for claiming that the item is privileged. The person who submits the schedule and the attorney stating the grounds for a claim that any item is privileged must sign it.
</P>
<P>(b) A person withholding material solely for reasons described in this subsection shall comply with the requirements of this subsection in lieu of filing a petition for an order modifying or setting aside a civil investigative demand pursuant to section 1080.6(e).
</P>
<P>(c) Disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications produced pursuant to a civil investigative demand shall be handled as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications shall not operate as a waiver with respect to the Bureau if:
</P>
<P>(i) The disclosure was inadvertent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the privilege or protection took reasonable steps to prevent disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The holder promptly took reasonable steps to rectify the error, including notifying a Bureau investigator of the claim of privilege or protection and the basis for it.
</P>
<P>(2) After being notified, the Bureau investigator must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if he or she disclosed it before being notified; and, if appropriate, may sequester such material until such time as a hearing officer or court rules on the merits of the claim of privilege or protection. The producing party must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications shall waive the privilege or protection with respect to the Bureau as to undisclosed information or communications only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The waiver is intentional;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosed and undisclosed information or communications concern the same subject matter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) They ought in fairness to be considered together.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.9" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.9   Rights of witnesses in investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person compelled to submit documentary material, tangible things, or written reports or answers to questions to the Bureau, or to testify in an investigational hearing, shall be entitled to retain a copy or, on payment of lawfully prescribed costs, request a copy of the materials, things, reports, or written answers submitted, or a transcript of his or her testimony. The Bureau, however, may for good cause deny such a request and limit the witness to inspection of the official transcript of the testimony. Upon completion of transcription of the testimony of the witness, the witness shall be offered an opportunity to read the transcript of his or her testimony. Any changes by the witness shall be entered and identified upon the transcript by the Bureau investigator with a statement of the reasons given by the witness for making such changes. The transcript shall then be signed by the witness and submitted to the Bureau unless the witness cannot be found, is ill, waives in writing his or her right to signature, or refuses to sign. If the signed transcript is not submitted to the Bureau within 30 calendar days of the witness being afforded a reasonable opportunity to review it, the Bureau investigator, or the individual transcribing the testimony acting at the Bureau investigator's direction, shall sign the transcript and state on the record the fact of the waiver, illness, absence of the witness, or the refusal to sign, together with any reasons given for the failure to sign.
</P>
<P>(b) Any witness compelled to appear in person at an investigational hearing may be accompanied, represented, and advised by counsel as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Counsel for a witness may advise the witness, in confidence and upon the initiative of either counsel or the witness, with respect to any question asked of the witness where it is claimed that a witness is privileged to refuse to answer the question. Counsel may not otherwise consult with the witness while a question directed to the witness is pending.
</P>
<P>(2) Any objections made under the rules in this part shall be made only for the purpose of protecting a constitutional or other legal right or privilege, including the privilege against self-incrimination. Neither the witness nor counsel shall otherwise object or refuse to answer any question. Any objection during an investigational hearing shall be stated concisely on the record in a nonargumentative and nonsuggestive manner. Following an objection, the examination shall proceed and the testimony shall be taken, except for testimony requiring the witness to divulge information protected by the claim of privilege or work product.
</P>
<P>(3) Counsel for a witness may not, for any purpose or to any extent not allowed by paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section, interrupt the examination of the witness by making any objections or statements on the record. Petitions challenging the Bureau's authority to conduct the investigation or the sufficiency or legality of the civil investigative demand shall be addressed to the Bureau in advance of the hearing in accordance with § 1080.6(e). Copies of such petitions may be filed as part of the record of the investigation with the Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing, but no arguments in support thereof will be allowed at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(4) Following completion of the examination of a witness, counsel for the witness may, on the record, request that the Bureau investigator conducting the investigational hearing permit the witness to clarify any of his or her answers. The grant or denial of such request shall be within the sole discretion of the Bureau investigator conducting the hearing.
</P>
<P>(5) The Bureau investigator conducting the hearing shall take all necessary action to regulate the course of the hearing to avoid delay and to prevent or restrain disorderly, dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct, or contemptuous language. Such Bureau investigator shall, for reasons stated on the record, immediately report to the Bureau any instances where an attorney has allegedly refused to comply with his or her obligations under the rules in this part, or has allegedly engaged in disorderly, dilatory, obstructionist, or contumacious conduct, or contemptuous language in the course of the hearing. The Bureau will thereupon take such further action, if any, as the circumstances warrant, including actions consistent with those described in 12 CFR 1081.107(c) to suspend or disbar the attorney from further practice before the Bureau or exclude the attorney from further participation in the particular investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.10" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.10   Noncompliance with civil investigative demands.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In cases of failure to comply in whole or in part with Bureau civil investigative demands, appropriate action may be initiated by the Bureau, including actions for enforcement.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director, the Enforcement Director, and the General Counsel of the Bureau are authorized to:
</P>
<P>(1) Institute, on behalf of the Bureau, an enforcement proceeding in the district court of the United States for any judicial district in which a person resides, is found, or transacts business, in connection with the failure or refusal of such person to comply with, or to obey, a civil investigative demand in whole or in part if the return date or any extension thereof has passed; and
</P>
<P>(2) Seek civil contempt or other appropriate relief in cases where a court order enforcing a civil investigative demand has been violated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.11" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.11   Disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the facts disclosed by an investigation indicate that an enforcement action is warranted, further proceedings may be instituted in Federal or State court or pursuant to the Bureau's administrative adjudicatory process. Where appropriate, the Bureau also may refer investigations to appropriate Federal, State, or foreign governmental agencies.
</P>
<P>(b) When the facts disclosed by an investigation indicate that an enforcement action is not necessary or would not be in the public interest, the investigational file will be closed. The matter may be further investigated, at any time, if circumstances so warrant.
</P>
<P>(c) The Enforcement Director and the Deputy Enforcement Directors are authorized to close Bureau investigations.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39108, June 29, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.12" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.12   Orders requiring witnesses to testify or provide other information and granting immunity.</HEAD>
<P>The Director has the nondelegable authority to request approval from the Attorney General of the United States for the issuance of an order requiring a witness to testify or provide other information and granting immunity under 18 U.S.C. 6004.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.13" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.13   Custodians.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Bureau shall designate a custodian and one or more deputy custodians for material to be delivered pursuant to a civil investigative demand in an investigation. The custodian shall have the powers and duties prescribed by 12 CFR 1070.3 and section 1052 of the Act, 12 U.S.C. 5562. Deputy custodians may perform all of the duties assigned to custodians.
</P>
<P>(b) Material produced pursuant to a civil investigative demand, while in the custody of the custodian, shall be for the official use of the Bureau in accordance with the Act; but such material shall upon reasonable notice to the custodian be made available for examination by the person who produced such material, or his or her duly authorized representative, during regular office hours established for the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1080.14" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.13.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1080.14   Confidential treatment of demand material and non-public nature of investigations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Documentary materials, written reports, answers to questions, tangible things or transcripts of oral testimony the Bureau receives in any form or format pursuant to a civil investigative demand are subject to the requirements and procedures relating to the disclosure of records and information set forth in part 1070 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) Bureau investigations generally are non-public. Bureau investigators may disclose the existence of an investigation to potential witnesses or third parties to the extent necessary to advance the investigation.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1081" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1081—RULES OF PRACTICE FOR ADJUDICATION PROCEEDINGS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5563(e).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 48740, Oct. 29, 2025, unless otherwise noted.






</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.100" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.100   Scope of the rules of practice.</HEAD>
<P>This part prescribes rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudication proceedings authorized by section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Dodd-Frank Act) to ensure or enforce compliance with the provisions of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act, rules prescribed by the Bureau under title X of the Dodd-Frank Act, and any other Federal law or regulation that the Bureau is authorized to enforce. These rules of practice do not govern the conduct of Bureau investigations, investigational hearings or other proceedings that do not arise from proceedings after a notice of charges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.101   Expedition and fairness of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent practicable, consistent with requirements of law, the Bureau's policy is to conduct such adjudication proceedings fairly and expeditiously. In the conduct of such proceedings, the hearing officer and counsel for all parties shall make every effort at each stage of a proceeding to avoid delay. With the consent of the parties, the Director, at any time, or the hearing officer at any time prior to the filing of his or her recommended decision, may shorten any time limit prescribed by this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.102   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural, and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neutral gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(c) Unless context requires otherwise, a party's counsel of record, if any, may, on behalf of that party, take any action required to be taken by the party; and
</P>
<P>(d) To the extent this part uses terms defined by section 1002 of the Dodd-Frank Act, such terms shall have the same meaning as set forth therein, unless defined differently by § 1081.103.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010).
</P>
<P><I>Adjudication proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Act and intended to lead to the formulation of a final order other than a temporary order to cease and desist issued pursuant to section 1053(c) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Chief hearing officer</I> means the hearing officer charged with assigning hearing officers to specific proceedings, in the event there is more than one hearing officer available to the Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Counsel</I> means any person representing a party pursuant to § 1081.107.
</P>
<P><I>Decisional employee</I> means any employee of the Bureau who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Director or the hearing officer, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Bureau or a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director in accordance with the law.
</P>
<P><I>Enforcement counsel</I> means any individual who files a notice of appearance as counsel on behalf of the Office of Enforcement in an adjudication proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Final order</I> means an order issued by the Bureau with or without the consent of the respondent, which has become final, without regard to the pendency of any petition for reconsideration or review.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means the General Counsel of the Bureau or any Bureau employee to whom the General Counsel has delegated authority to act under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing officer</I> means an administrative law judge or any other person duly authorized to preside at a hearing.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of charges</I> means the pleading that commences an adjudication proceeding, as described in § 1081.200, except that it does not include a stipulation and consent order under § 1081.200(d).
</P>
<P><I>Office of Administrative Adjudication</I> means the office of the Bureau responsible for conducting adjudication proceedings.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Enforcement</I> means the office of the Bureau responsible for enforcement of Federal consumer financial law.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means the Office of Enforcement, any person named as a party in any notice of charges issued pursuant to this part, and, to the extent applicable, any person who intervenes in the proceeding pursuant to § 1081.119(a) to seek a protective order.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Person employed by the Bureau</I> means Bureau employees, contractors, agents, and others acting for or on behalf of the Bureau, or at its direction, including consulting experts.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means the party named in the notice of charges.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, American Samoa, or the United States Virgin Islands or any federally recognized Indian tribe, as defined by the Secretary of the Interior under section 104(a) of the Federally Recognized Indian Tribe List Act of 1994, 25 U.S.C. 479a-1(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.104   Authority of the hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The hearing officer shall have all powers necessary to conduct a proceeding in a fair and impartial manner and to avoid unnecessary delay. No provision of this part shall be construed to limit the powers of the hearing officers provided by the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 556, 557.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The powers of the hearing officer include but are not limited to the power:
</P>
<P>(1) To administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(2) To issue subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to quash or modify any such subpoenas or orders;
</P>
<P>(3) To take depositions or cause depositions to be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) To receive relevant evidence and to rule upon the admission of evidence and offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(5) To regulate the course of a proceeding and the conduct of parties and their counsel;
</P>
<P>(6) To reject written submissions that materially fail to comply with the requirements of this part, and to deny confidential status to documents and testimony without prejudice until a party complies with all relevant rules of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(7) To hold conferences for settlement, simplification of the issues, or any other proper purpose and require the attendance at any such conference of at least one representative of each party who has authority to negotiate concerning the resolution of issues in controversy;
</P>
<P>(8) To inform the parties as to the availability of one or more alternative means of dispute resolution, and to encourage the use of such methods;
</P>
<P>(9) To certify questions to the Director for his or her determination in accordance with the rules of this part;
</P>
<P>(10) To consider and rule upon, as justice may require, all procedural and other motions appropriate in adjudication proceedings;
</P>
<P>(11) To issue and file recommended decisions;
</P>
<P>(12) To recuse himself or herself by motion made by a party or on his or her own motion;
</P>
<P>(13) To issue such sanctions against parties or their counsel as may be necessary to deter repetition of sanctionable conduct or comparable conduct by others similarly situated, as provided for in this part or as otherwise necessary to the appropriate conduct of hearings and related proceedings, provided that no sanction shall be imposed before providing the sanctioned person an opportunity to show cause why no such sanction should issue; and
</P>
<P>(14) To do all other things necessary and appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.105   Assignment, substitution, performance, disqualification of hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How assigned.</I> In the event that more than one hearing officer is available to the Bureau for the conduct of proceedings under this part, the presiding hearing officer shall be designated by the chief hearing officer, who shall notify the parties of the hearing officer designated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Interference.</I> Hearing officers shall not be subject to the supervision or direction of, or responsible to, any officer, employee, or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Bureau, and all direction by the Bureau to the hearing officer concerning any adjudication proceedings shall appear in and be made part of the record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disqualification of hearing officers.</I> (1) When a hearing officer deems himself or herself disqualified to preside in a particular proceeding, he or she shall issue a notice stating that he or she is withdrawing from the matter and setting forth the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party who has a reasonable, good faith basis to believe that a hearing officer has a personal bias, or is otherwise disqualified from hearing a case, may make a motion to the hearing officer that the hearing officer withdraw. The motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the facts alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification. Such motion shall be filed at the earliest practicable time after the party learns, or could reasonably have learned, of the alleged grounds for disqualification. If the hearing officer does not disqualify himself or herself within 14 days, he or she shall certify the motion to the Director pursuant to § 1081.211, together with any statement he or she may wish to have considered by the Director. The Director shall promptly determine the validity of the grounds alleged, either directly or on the report of another hearing officer appointed to conduct a hearing for that purpose, and shall either direct the reassignment of the matter or confirm the hearing officer's continued role in the matter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Unavailability of hearing officer.</I> In the event that the hearing officer withdraws or is otherwise unable to perform the duties of the hearing officer, the chief hearing officer or the Director shall designate another hearing officer to serve.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.106   Deadlines.</HEAD>
<P>The deadlines for action by the hearing officer established by §§ 1081.203, 1081.205, 1081.211, 1081.212, and 1081.400, or elsewhere in this part, confer no substantive rights on respondents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.107" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.107   Appearance and practice in adjudication proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before the Bureau or a hearing officer.</I> (1) <I>By attorneys.</I> Any member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State may represent others before the Bureau if such attorney is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Bureau or by a court of the United States or of any State.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> So long as such individual is not currently suspended or debarred from practice before the Bureau:
</P>
<P>(i) An individual may appear on his or her own behalf;
</P>
<P>(ii) A member of a partnership may represent the partnership;
</P>
<P>(iii) A duly authorized officer of a corporation, trust, or association may represent the corporation, trust or association; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A duly authorized officer or employee of any government unit, agency, or authority may represent that unit, agency, or authority.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any individual acting as counsel on behalf of a party, including Enforcement counsel, shall file a notice of appearance at or before the time that the individual submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudication proceeding. The notice of appearance must include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party, and if applicable, must include the attorney's jurisdiction of admission or qualification, attorney identification number, and a statement by the appearing attorney attesting to his or her good standing within the legal profession. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudication proceeding, the counsel agrees and represents that he or she is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the hearing officer, continue to accept service until a new counsel has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a pro se basis. The notice of appearance shall provide the representative's email address, telephone number, and business address and, if different from the representative's addresses, electronic or other address at which the represented party may be served.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contemptuous, or contumacious conduct at any phase of any adjudication proceeding may be grounds for exclusion or suspension of counsel from the proceeding. An order imposing a sanction must describe the sanctioned conduct and explain the basis for the sanction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards of conduct; disbarment.</I> (1) All attorneys practicing before the Bureau shall conform to the standards of ethical conduct required by the bars of which the attorneys are members.
</P>
<P>(2) If for good cause shown, the Director believes that any attorney is not conforming to such standards, or that an attorney or counsel to a party has otherwise engaged in conduct warranting disciplinary action, the Director may issue an order requiring such person to show cause why he should not be suspended or disbarred from practice before the Bureau. The alleged offender shall be granted due opportunity to be heard in his or her own defense and may be represented by counsel. Thereafter, if warranted by the facts, the Director may issue against the attorney or counsel an order of reprimand, suspension, or disbarment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.108" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.108   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice of charges shall be signed by at least one counsel of record in his or her individual name and shall state counsel's address, email address, and telephone number. A party who acts as his or her own counsel shall sign his or her individual name and state his or her address, email address, and telephone number on every filing or submission of record. Papers filed by electronic transmission may be signed with an “/s/” notation, which shall be deemed the signature of the party or representative whose name appears below the signature line.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) The signature of counsel or a party shall constitute a certification that: the counsel or party has read the filing or submission of record; to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and the filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the hearing officer shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the filer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party constitutes a certification that to the best of his or her knowledge, information, and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, his or her statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Counsel or a party that fails to abide by the requirements of this section may be subject to sanctions pursuant to § 1081.104(b)(13).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.109" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.109   Conflict of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No person shall appear as counsel for another person in an adjudication proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be materially limited by that counsel's responsibilities to a third person or by the counsel's own interests. The hearing officer may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel represents two or more parties to an adjudication proceeding or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, counsel must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 1081.107(a)(3):
</P>
<P>(1) That the counsel has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each such party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each such party and/or non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.110" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.110   Ex parte communication.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> (1) For purposes of this section, <I>ex parte communication</I> means any material oral or written communication relevant to the merits of an adjudication proceeding that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person not employed by the Bureau (including such person's counsel); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The hearing officer handling the proceeding, the Director, or a decisional employee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> A request for status of the proceeding does not constitute an ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pendency of an adjudication proceeding</I> means the time from when the Bureau issues a notice of charges, unless the person responsible for the communication has knowledge that a notice of charges will be issued, in which case the pendency of an adjudication shall commence at the time of his or her acquisition of such knowledge, or from when an order by a court of competent jurisdiction remanding a Bureau decision and order for further proceedings becomes effective, until the time the Director enters his or her final decision and order in the proceeding and the time permitted to seek reconsideration of that decision and order has elapsed. For purposes of this section, an order of remand by a court of competent jurisdiction shall be deemed to become effective when the Bureau's right to petition for review or for a writ of certiorari has lapsed without a petition having been filed, or when such a petition has been denied. If a petition for reconsideration of a Bureau decision is filed pursuant to § 1081.406, the matter shall be considered to be a pending adjudication proceeding until the time the Bureau enters an order disposing of the petition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited ex parte communications.</I> During the pendency of an adjudication proceeding, except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law or as otherwise authorized by this part:
</P>
<P>(1) No interested person not employed by the Bureau shall make or knowingly cause to be made to the Director, or to the hearing officer, or to any decisional employee, an ex parte communication; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Director, the hearing officer, or any decisional employee shall not make or knowingly cause to be made to any interested person not employed by the Bureau any ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an ex parte communication prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section is received by the hearing officer, the Director, or any decisional employee, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All other parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity, within 14 days of receipt of service of the ex parte communication, to file responses thereto and to recommend any sanctions, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions</I>—(1) <I>Adverse action on claim.</I> Upon receipt of an ex parte communication knowingly made or knowingly caused to be made by a party and prohibited by paragraph (b) of this section, the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, may, to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes, require the party to show cause why his claim or interest in the proceeding should not be dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of such violation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discipline of persons practicing before the Bureau.</I> The Director may, to the extent not prohibited by law, censure, suspend, or revoke the privilege to practice before the Bureau of any person who makes, or solicits the making of, an unauthorized ex parte communication.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Separation of functions.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of ex parte matters as authorized by law, the hearing officer may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless upon notice and opportunity for all parties to participate. An employee or agent engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions for the Bureau in a case, other than the Director, may not, in that or a factually related case, participate or advise in the decision, recommended decision, or agency review of the recommended decision, except as witness or counsel in public proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.111" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.111   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> The following papers must be filed by parties in an adjudication proceeding: the notice of charges, proof of service of the notice of charges, notices of appearance, answer, the disclosure statement required under § 1081.201(e), motion, brief, request for issuance or enforcement of a subpoena, response, opposition, reply, notice of appeal, or petition for reconsideration. The hearing officer shall file all written orders, rulings, notices, or requests. Any papers required to be filed shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication, except as otherwise provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the hearing officer, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Electronic transmission in accordance with guidance issued by the Office of Administrative Adjudication; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any of the following methods if respondent demonstrates, in accordance with guidance issued by the Office of Administrative Adjudication, that electronic filing is not practicable:
</P>
<P>(i) Personal delivery;
</P>
<P>(ii) Delivery to a reliable commercial courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Mailing the papers through the U.S. Postal Service by First Class Mail, Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Papers filed in an adjudication proceeding are presumed to be public.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Director or the hearing officer, all papers filed in connection with an adjudication proceeding are presumed to be open to the public. The Bureau may provide public access to and publish any papers filed in an adjudication proceeding except if there is a pending motion for a protective order filed pursuant to § 1081.119, or if there is an order from the Director, hearing officer, or a Federal court authorizing the confidential treatment of the papers filed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.112" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.112   Formal requirements as to papers filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed by parties must:
</P>
<P>(1) Set forth the name, address, telephone number, and email address of the counsel or party making the filing;
</P>
<P>(2) Be double-spaced (except for single-spaced footnotes and single-spaced indented quotations) and printed or typewritten on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 11 inch paper in 12-point or larger font;
</P>
<P>(3) Include at the head of the paper, or on a title page, a caption setting forth the title of the case, the docket number of the proceeding, and a brief descriptive title indicating the purpose of the paper;
</P>
<P>(4) Be paginated with margins at least one inch wide; and
</P>
<P>(5) If filed by other than electronic means, be stapled, clipped, or otherwise fastened in a manner that lies flat when opened.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Signature.</I> All papers must be dated and signed as provided in § 1081.108.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the hearing officer, one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed if filing is by electronic transmission. If filing is accomplished by any other means, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits must be filed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority to reject document for filing.</I> The Office of Administrative Adjudication or the hearing officer may reject a document for filing that materially fails to comply with this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sensitive personal information.</I> Sensitive personal information means an individual's Social Security number, taxpayer identification number, financial account number, credit card or debit card number, driver's license number, State-issued identification number, passport number, date of birth (other than year), and any sensitive health information identifiable by individual, such as an individual's medical records. Sensitive personal information shall not be included in, and must be redacted or omitted from, filings unless the person filing the paper determines that such information is relevant or otherwise necessary for the conduct of the proceeding. If the person filing a paper determines the sensitive personal information contained in the paper is relevant or necessary to the proceeding, the person shall file the paper in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section, including filing an expurgated copy of the paper with the sensitive personal information redacted.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Confidential treatment of information in certain filings.</I> A party seeking confidential treatment of information contained in a filing must contemporaneously file either a motion requesting such treatment in accordance with § 1081.119 or a copy of the order from the Director, hearing officer, or Federal court authorizing such confidential treatment. The filing must comply with any applicable order of the Director or hearing officer and must be accompanied by:
</P>
<P>(1) A complete, sealed copy of the documents containing the materials as to which confidential treatment is sought, with the allegedly confidential material clearly marked as such, and with the first page of the document labeled “Under Seal.” If the movant seeks or has obtained a protective order against disclosure to other parties as well as the public, copies of the documents shall not be served on other parties; and
</P>
<P>(2) An expurgated copy of the materials as to which confidential treatment is sought, with the allegedly confidential materials redacted. The redacted version shall indicate any omissions with brackets or ellipses, and its pagination and depiction of text on each page shall be identical to that of the sealed version.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Certificate of service.</I> Any papers filed in an adjudication proceeding shall contain proof of service on all other parties or their counsel in the form of a statement of the date and manner of service and of the names of the persons served, certified by the person who made service. The certificate of service must be affixed to the papers filed and signed in accordance with § 1081.108.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.113" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.113   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When required.</I> In every adjudication proceeding, each paper required to be filed by § 1081.111 shall be served upon each party in the proceeding in accordance with the provisions of this section; provided, however, that absent an order to the contrary, no service shall be required for motions which are to be heard ex parte.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Upon a person represented by counsel.</I> Whenever service is required to be made upon a person represented by counsel who has filed a notice of appearance pursuant to § 1081.107(a)(3), service shall be made pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section upon counsel, unless service upon the person represented is ordered by the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of service.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section or as otherwise ordered by the hearing officer or the Director, service shall be made by delivering a copy of the filing by one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) Transmitting the papers by electronic transmission where the persons so serving each other have consented to service by specified electronic transmission and provided the Bureau and the parties with notice of the means for service by electronic transmission (<I>e.g.,</I> email address or facsimile number);
</P>
<P>(2) Handing a copy to the person required to be served; or leaving a copy at the person's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof, or, if there is no one in charge, leaving it in a conspicuous place therein; or, if the office is closed or the person to be served has no office, leaving it at the person's dwelling or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein;
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers through the U.S. Postal Service by First Cass Mail, Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail delivery addressed to the person; or
</P>
<P>(4) Sending the papers through a third-party commercial courier service or express delivery service.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service of certain papers by the Office of Enforcement or the Office of Administrative Adjudication</I>—(1) <I>Service of a notice of charges by the Office of Enforcement.</I> (i) <I>To individuals.</I> Notice of a proceeding shall be made to an individual by delivering a copy of the notice of charges to the individual or to an agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive such notice. Delivery, for purposes of this paragraph (d)(1)(i), means handing a copy of the notice to the individual; or leaving a copy at the individual's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof; or leaving a copy at the individual's dwelling house or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein; or sending a copy of the notice addressed to the individual through the U.S. Postal Service by Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail delivery, or by third-party commercial carrier, for overnight delivery and obtaining a confirmation of receipt.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>To corporations or entities.</I> Notice of a proceeding shall be made to a person other than a natural person by delivering a copy of the notice of charges to an officer, managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or law to receive such notice, by any method specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Upon persons registered with the Bureau.</I> In addition to any other method of service specified in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, notice may be made to a person currently registered with the Bureau by sending a copy of the notice of charges addressed to the most recent business address shown on the person's registration form by U.S. Postal Service certified, registered, or Express Mail and obtaining a confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Upon persons in a foreign country.</I> Notice of a proceeding to a person in a foreign country may be made by any method specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, or by any other method reasonably calculated to give notice, provided that the method of service used is not prohibited by the law of the foreign country.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Record of service.</I> The Office of Enforcement will maintain and file a record of service of the notice of charges on parties, identifying the party given notice, the method of service, the date of service, the address to which service was made, and the person who made service. If service is made in person, the certificate of service shall state, if available, the name of the individual to whom the notice of charges was given. If service is made by U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail, the Office of Enforcement will maintain the confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery. If service is made to an agent authorized by appointment to receive service, the certificate of service shall be accompanied by evidence of the appointment.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Waiver of service.</I> In lieu of service as set forth in paragraph (d)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section, the party may be provided a copy of the notice of charges by First Class Mail or other reliable means if a waiver of service is obtained from the party and placed in the record.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service of recommended decisions and final orders.</I> Recommended decisions issued by the hearing officer and final orders issued by the Bureau shall be served promptly on each party pursuant to any method of service authorized under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. Such decisions and orders may also be served by electronic transmission if the party to be served has agreed to accept such service in writing, signed by the party or its counsel, and has provided the Bureau with information concerning the manner of electronic transmission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.114" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.114   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any time period prescribed by this part, by order of the Director or a hearing officer, or by any applicable statute, exclude the day of the event that triggers the period, count every day, including intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays, and include the last day of the period unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual receipt by person served;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, Express Mail delivery, First Class Mail, Registered Mail, or Certified Mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of electronic transmission, upon transmission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by First Class Mail, Registered Mail, or Certified Mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by Express Mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.115" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.115   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, the hearing officer may, in any proceeding before him or her, for good cause shown, extend the time limits prescribed by this part or by any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After appeal to the Director pursuant to § 1081.402, the Director may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted on the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all non-moving parties or on the Director's or the hearing officer's own motion, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Considerations in determining whether to extend time limits or grant postponements, adjournments and extensions.</I> Motions for extensions of time filed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section are generally disfavored. In determining whether to grant any motions, the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, shall consider, in addition to any other relevant factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The length of the proceeding to date;
</P>
<P>(2) The number of postponements, adjournments or extensions already granted;
</P>
<P>(3) The stage of the proceedings at the time of the motion;
</P>
<P>(4) The impact of the motion on the hearing officer's ability to complete the proceeding in the time specified by § 1081.400(a); and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other matters as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time limit.</I> Postponements, adjournments, or extensions of time for filing papers shall not exceed 21 days unless the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, states on the record or sets forth in a written order the reasons why a longer period of time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No effect on deadline for recommended decision.</I> The granting of any extension of time pursuant to this section shall not affect any deadlines set pursuant to § 1081.400(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.116" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.116   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>Respondents shall pay to witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions on their behalf the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a deposition subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage need be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by any respondent requesting the issuance of a subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where the Office of Enforcement is the party requesting the subpoena. The Bureau shall pay to witnesses subpoenaed for testimony or depositions on behalf of the Office of Enforcement the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, but the Bureau need not tender such fees in advance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.117" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.117   Bureau's right to conduct examination, collect information.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing contained in this part limits in any manner the right of the Bureau to conduct any examination, inspection, or visitation of any person, to conduct or continue any form of investigation authorized by law, to collect information in order to monitor the market for risks to consumers in the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, or to otherwise gather information in accordance with law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.118" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.118   Collateral attacks on adjudication proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>Unless a court of competent jurisdiction, or the Director for good cause, so directs, if an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudication proceeding, the challenged adjudication proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudication proceeding within the times prescribed in this part shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.119" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.119   Confidential information; protective orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rights of third parties.</I> Any party that intends to disclose information obtained from a third party that is subject to a claim of confidentiality must provide notice to the third party at least seven days prior to the proposed disclosure of such information. In response to such notice, the third party may consent to the disclosure of such information, which may be conditioned on the entry of an appropriate protective order, or may intervene in the proceeding for the limited purpose of moving for a protective order pursuant to this section. Any written filing by a party that contains such confidential information must be accompanied by a certification that proper notice was provided. The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any counsel or party which contains such confidential information constitutes a certification that proper notice was provided. A third party wishing to intervene for purposes of protecting its confidential information may file a single motion, in conformity with all applicable rules, setting forth the basis of both the third party's right to intervene and the basis for the protective order, in conformity with paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> In any adjudication proceeding, a party, including a third party who has intervened pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, may file a motion requesting a protective order to limit from disclosure to other parties or to the public documents or testimony that contain confidential information. The motion should include a general summary or extract of the documents or testimony without revealing confidential details, and a copy of the proposed protective order. A motion for confidential treatment of documents should be filed in accordance with § 1081.112(f), and all other applicable rules.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Basis for issuance.</I> Documents and testimony introduced in a public hearing, or filed in connection with an adjudication proceeding, are presumed to be public. A motion for a protective order shall be granted:
</P>
<P>(1) Upon a finding that public disclosure will likely result in a clearly defined, serious injury to the party or third party requesting confidential treatment;
</P>
<P>(2) After finding that the material constitutes sensitive personal information, as defined in § 1081.112(e);
</P>
<P>(3) If all parties, including third parties to the extent their information is at issue, stipulate to the entry of a protective order; or
</P>
<P>(4) Where public disclosure is prohibited by law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Requests for additional information supporting confidentiality.</I> The hearing officer may require a movant under paragraph (b) of this section to furnish in writing additional information with respect to the grounds for confidentiality. Failure to supply the information so requested within seven days from the date of receipt by the movant of a notice of the information required shall be deemed a waiver of the objection to public disclosure of that portion of the documents to which the additional information relates, unless the hearing officer shall otherwise order for good cause shown at or before the expiration of such seven-day period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality of documents pending decision.</I> Pending a determination of a motion under this section, the documents as to which confidential treatment is sought and any other documents that would reveal the confidential information in those documents shall be maintained under seal and shall be disclosed only in accordance with orders of the hearing officer. Any order issued in connection with a motion under this section shall be public unless the order would disclose information as to which a protective order has been granted, in which case that portion of the order that would reveal the protected information shall be nonpublic.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.120" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.120   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> Any respondent in an adjudication proceeding instituted under this part, may, at any time, propose in writing an offer of settlement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> An offer of settlement shall state that it is made pursuant to this section; shall recite or incorporate as a part of the offer the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section; shall be signed by the person making the offer, not by counsel; and shall be submitted to enforcement counsel.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consideration of offers of settlement.</I> (1) Offers of settlement shall be considered when time, the nature of the proceedings, and the public interest permit.
</P>
<P>(2) Any settlement offer shall be presented to the Director with a recommendation, except that, if the recommendation is unfavorable, the offer shall not be presented to the Director unless the person making the offer so requests.
</P>
<P>(3) By submitting an offer of settlement, the person making the offer waives, subject to acceptance of the offer:
</P>
<P>(i) All hearings pursuant to the statutory provisions under which the proceeding has been instituted;
</P>
<P>(ii) The filing of proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law;
</P>
<P>(iii) Proceedings before, and a recommended decision by, a hearing officer;
</P>
<P>(iv) All post-hearing procedures;
</P>
<P>(v) Judicial review by any court; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Any objection to the jurisdiction of the Bureau under section 1053 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(4) By submitting an offer of settlement the person further waives:
</P>
<P>(i) Such provisions of this part or other requirements of law as may be construed to prevent any Bureau employee from participating in the preparation of, or advising the Director as to, any order, opinion, finding of fact, or conclusion of law to be entered pursuant to the offer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any right to claim bias or prejudgment by the Director based on the consideration of or discussions concerning settlement of all or any part of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(5) If the Director rejects the offer of settlement, the person making the offer shall be notified of the Director's action and the offer of settlement shall be deemed withdrawn. The rejected offer shall not constitute a part of the record in any proceeding against the person making the offer, provided, however, that rejection of an offer of settlement does not affect the continued validity of waivers pursuant to paragraph (c)(4) of this section with respect to any discussions concerning the rejected offer of settlement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consent orders.</I> If the Director accepts the offer of settlement, all terms and conditions of a settlement entered into under this section shall be recorded in a written stipulation signed by all settling parties, and a consent order concluding the proceeding. The stipulation and consent order shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111, and shall recite or incorporate as a part of the stipulation the provisions of paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section. The Director will then issue a consent order, which shall be a final order concluding the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.121" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.1.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.121   Cooperation with other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>It is the policy of the Bureau to cooperate with other governmental agencies to avoid unnecessary overlap or duplication of regulatory functions.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Initiation of Proceedings and Prehearing Rules</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.200" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.200   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice of charges.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of proceeding.</I> A proceeding governed by subparts A through D of this part is commenced when the Bureau, through the Office of Enforcement, files a notice of charges in accordance with § 1081.111. The notice of charges must be served by the Office of Enforcement upon the respondent in accordance with § 1081.113(d)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a notice of charges.</I> The notice of charges must set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority for the proceeding and for the Bureau's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the matters of fact and law showing that the Bureau is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(4) The time and place of the hearing as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(5) The time within which to file an answer as required by law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(6) That the answer shall be filed and served in accordance with subpart A of this part; and
</P>
<P>(7) The docket number for the adjudication proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publication of notice of charges.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, the notice of charges shall be given general circulation by release to the public, by publication on the Bureau's website and, where directed by the hearing officer or the Director, by publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Bureau may publish any notice of charges after 14 days from the date of service except if there is a pending motion for a protective order filed pursuant to § 1081.119.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Commencement of proceeding through a consent order.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, where the parties agree to settlement before the filing of a notice of charges, a proceeding may be commenced by filing a stipulation and consent order. The stipulation and consent order shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111. The stipulation shall contain the information required under § 1081.120(d), and the consent order shall contain the information required under paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section. The proceeding shall be concluded upon issuance of the consent order by the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Voluntary dismissal</I>—(1) <I>Without an order.</I> The Office of Enforcement may voluntarily dismiss an adjudication proceeding without an order entered by a hearing officer by filing either:
</P>
<P>(i) A notice of dismissal before the respondent(s) serves an answer; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A stipulation of dismissal signed by all parties who have appeared.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effect.</I> Unless the notice or stipulation states otherwise, the dismissal is without prejudice, and does not operate as an adjudication on the merits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.201" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.201   Answer and disclosure statement and notification of financial interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time to file answer.</I> Within 14 days of service of the notice of charges, respondent shall file an answer as designated in the notice of charges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must specifically respond to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice of charges and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice of charges which is not denied in the answer shall be deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice of charges that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>If the allegations of the complaint are admitted.</I> If the respondent elects not to contest the allegations of fact set forth in the notice of charges, the answer shall consist of a statement that the respondent admits all of the material allegations to be true. Such an answer shall constitute a waiver of hearings as to the facts alleged in the notice of charges, and together with the notice of charges will provide a record basis on which the hearing officer shall issue a recommended decision containing appropriate findings and conclusions and a proposed order disposing of the proceeding. In such an answer, the respondent may, however, reserve the right to submit proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law under § 1081.305.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default.</I> (1) Failure of a respondent to file an answer within the time provided shall be deemed to constitute a waiver of the respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations of the notice of charges and to authorize the hearing officer, without further notice to the respondent, to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice of charges and to enter a recommended decision containing appropriate findings and conclusions. In such cases, respondent shall have no right to appeal pursuant to § 1081.402, but must instead proceed pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion to set aside a default shall be made within a reasonable time, state the reasons for the failure to appear or defend, and specify the nature of the proposed defense in the proceeding. In order to prevent injustice and on such conditions as may be appropriate, the hearing officer, at any time prior to the filing of the recommended decision, or the Director, at any time, may for good cause shown set aside a default.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosure statement and notification of financial interest</I>—(1) <I>Who must file; contents.</I> A respondent, nongovernmental intervenor, or nongovernmental amicus must file a disclosure statement and notification of financial interest that:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies any parent corporation, any publicly owned corporation owning ten percent or more of its stock, and any publicly owned corporation not a party to the proceeding that has a financial interest in the outcome of the proceeding and the nature of that interest; or
</P>
<P>(ii) States that there are no such corporations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Time for filing; supplemental filing.</I> A respondent, nongovernmental intervenor, or nongovernmental amicus must:
</P>
<P>(i) File the disclosure statement with its first appearance, pleading, motion, response, or other request addressed to the hearing officer or the Bureau; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Promptly file a supplemental statement if any required information changes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.202" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.202   Amended pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments before the hearing.</I> The notice of charges, answer, or any other pleading may be amended or supplemented only with the opposing party's written consent or leave of the hearing officer. The respondent must answer an amended notice of charges within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice of charges, or within 14 days after service of the amended notice of charges, whichever is later, unless the hearing officer orders otherwise for good cause.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice of charges or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, they will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice of charges or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice of charges or answer, the hearing officer may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action and the objecting party fails to satisfy the hearing officer that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The hearing officer may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.203" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.203   Scheduling conference.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Meeting of the parties before scheduling conference.</I> As early as practicable before the scheduling conference described in paragraph (b) of this section, counsel for the parties shall meet to discuss the nature and basis of their claims and defenses and the possibilities for a prompt settlement or resolution of the case. The parties shall also discuss and agree, if possible, on the matters set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> Within 21 days of service of the notice of charges or such other time as the parties and hearing officer may agree, counsel for all parties shall appear before the hearing officer in person at a specified time and place or by telephone for the purpose of scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding. This meeting or telephone conference is called a <I>scheduling conference.</I> At the scheduling conference, counsel for the parties shall be prepared to address:
</P>
<P>(1) Determination of the dates and location of the hearing, including, in proceedings under section 1053(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act, whether the hearing should commence later than 60 days after service of the notice of charges;
</P>
<P>(2) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(3) Amendments to pleadings;
</P>
<P>(4) Settlement of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(5) Production of documents as set forth in § 1081.206 and of witness statements as set forth in § 1081.207, and prehearing production of documents in response to subpoenas <I>duces tecum</I> as set forth in § 1081.208;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether or not the parties intend to move for summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the parties intend to seek the deposition of witnesses pursuant to § 1081.209;
</P>
<P>(8) A schedule for the exchange of expert reports and the taking of expert depositions, if any; and
</P>
<P>(9) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling order.</I> At or within seven days following the conclusion of the scheduling conference, the hearing officer shall serve on each party an order setting forth the date and location of the hearing and any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Failure to appear, default.</I> Any person who is named in a notice of charges as a person against whom findings may be made or sanctions imposed and who fails to appear, in person or through counsel, at a scheduling conference of which he or she has been duly notified may be deemed in default pursuant to § 1081.201(d)(1). A party may make a motion to set aside a default pursuant to § 1081.201(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Public access.</I> The scheduling conference shall be public unless the hearing officer determines, based on the standard set forth in § 1081.119(c), that the conference (or any part thereof) shall be closed to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.204" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.204   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> (1) On the motion of any party, or on the hearing officer's own motion, the hearing officer may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event of consolidation under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, appropriate adjustment to the prehearing schedule may be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The hearing officer may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the hearing officer finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) Undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(2) Such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.205" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.205   Non-dispositive motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all motions except motions to dismiss and motions for summary disposition. A non-dispositive motion filed pursuant to another section of this part shall comply with any specific requirements of that section and this section to the extent these requirements are not inconsistent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Unless made during a hearing or conference, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the hearing officer. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Oral motions.</I> The Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, may order that an oral motion be submitted in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses and replies.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, within 14 days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the hearing officer or the Director, as appropriate, any party may file a written response to a motion. The hearing officer shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party has had an opportunity to file a response.
</P>
<P>(2) Reply briefs, if any, may be filed within seven days after service of the response.
</P>
<P>(3) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Length limitations.</I> No motion subject to this section (together with the brief in support of the motion) or brief in response to the motion shall exceed 15 pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. No reply brief shall exceed six pages in length, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. Motions for leave to file motions and briefs in excess of these limitations are disfavored.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Meet and confer requirements.</I> Each motion filed under this section shall be accompanied by a signed statement representing that counsel for the moving party has conferred or made a good faith effort to confer with opposing counsel in a good faith effort to resolve by agreement the issues raised by the motion and has been unable to reach such an agreement. If some of the matters in controversy have been resolved by agreement, the statement shall specify the matters so resolved and the matters remaining unresolved.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on non-dispositive motions.</I> Unless otherwise provided by a relevant section of this part, a hearing officer shall rule on non-dispositive motions. Such ruling shall be issued within 14 days after the expiration of the time period allowed for the filing of all motion papers authorized by this section. The Director, for good cause, may extend the time allowed for a ruling.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Proceedings not stayed.</I> A motion under consideration by the Director or the hearing officer shall not stay proceedings before the hearing officer unless the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate, so orders.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory, or repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.206" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.206   Availability of documents for inspection and copying.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this section, the term <I>documents</I> shall include any book, document, record, report, memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation, chart, logs, electronic files, or other data or data compilations stored in any medium.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Documents to be available for inspection and copying.</I> (1) Unless otherwise provided by this section, or by order of the hearing officer, the Office of Enforcement shall make available for inspection and copying by any respondent documents obtained by the Office of Enforcement prior to the institution of proceedings, from persons not employed by the Bureau, in connection with the investigation leading to the institution of proceedings. Such documents shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any documents turned over in response to civil investigative demands or other written requests to provide documents or to be interviewed issued by the Office of Enforcement;
</P>
<P>(ii) All transcripts and transcript exhibits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other documents obtained from persons not employed by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the Office of Enforcement shall make available for inspection and copying by any respondent:
</P>
<P>(i) Each civil investigative demand or other written request to provide documents or to be interviewed issued by the Office of Enforcement in connection with the investigation leading to the institution of proceedings; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any final examination or inspection reports prepared by any other Office of the Bureau if the Office of Enforcement either intends to introduce any such report into evidence or to use any such report to refresh the recollection of, or impeach, any witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section shall limit the right of the Office of Enforcement to make available any other document, or shall limit the right of a respondent to seek access to or production pursuant to subpoena of any other document, or shall limit the authority of the hearing officer to order the production of any document pursuant to subpoena.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in paragraph (a) of this section shall require the Office of Enforcement to produce a final examination or inspection report prepared by any other Office of the Bureau or any other government agency to a respondent who is not the subject of that report.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Documents that may be withheld.</I> (1) The Office of Enforcement may withhold a document if:
</P>
<P>(i) The document is privileged;
</P>
<P>(ii) The document is an internal memorandum, note or writing prepared by a person employed by the Bureau or another government agency, other than an examination or supervision report as specified in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section, or would otherwise be subject to the work product doctrine and will not be offered in evidence;
</P>
<P>(iii) The document was obtained from a domestic or foreign governmental entity and is either not relevant to the resolution of the proceeding or was provided on condition that the information not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(iv) The document would disclose the identity of a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Applicable law prohibits the disclosure of the document; or
</P>
<P>(vi) The hearing officer grants leave to withhold a document or category of documents as not relevant to the subject matter of the proceeding or otherwise, for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) Nothing in paragraph (b)(1) of this section authorizes the Office of Enforcement in connection with an adjudication proceeding to withhold material exculpatory evidence in the possession of the Office that would otherwise be required to be produced pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Withheld document list.</I> The hearing officer may require the Office of Enforcement to produce a list of documents or categories of documents withheld pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section or to submit to the hearing officer any document withheld, except for any documents that are being withheld pursuant to paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of this section, in which case the Office of Enforcement shall inform the other parties of the fact that such documents are being withheld, but no further disclosures regarding those documents shall be required. The hearing officer may determine whether any withheld document should be made available for inspection and copying. When similar documents are withheld pursuant to paragraphs (b)(1)(i) through (v) of this section, those documents may be identified by category instead of by individual document. The hearing officer retains discretion to determine when an identification by category is insufficient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of inspection and copying.</I> Unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, the Office of Enforcement shall commence making documents available to a respondent for inspection and copying pursuant to this section no later than 14 days after service of the notice of charges.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Place of inspection and copying.</I> Documents subject to inspection and copying pursuant to this section shall be made available to the respondent for inspection and copying at the Bureau office where they are ordinarily maintained, or at such other place as the parties, in writing, may agree. A respondent shall not be given custody of the documents or leave to remove the documents from the Bureau's offices pursuant to the requirements of this section other than by written agreement of the Office of Enforcement. Such agreement shall specify the documents subject to the agreement, the date they shall be returned, and such other terms or conditions as are appropriate to provide for the safekeeping of the documents. If the Office of Enforcement determines that production of some or all the documents required to be produced under this section can be produced in an electronic format, the Office of Enforcement may instead produce the documents in an electronic format.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Copying costs and procedures.</I> The respondent may obtain a photocopy of any documents made available for inspection or, at the discretion of the Office of Enforcement, electronic copies of such documents. The respondent shall be responsible for the cost of photocopying. Unless otherwise ordered, charges for copies made by the Office of Enforcement at the request of the respondent will be at the rate charged pursuant to part 1070. The respondent shall be given access to the documents at the Bureau's offices or such other place as the parties may agree during normal business hours for copying of documents at the respondent's expense.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Duty to supplement.</I> If the Office of Enforcement acquires information that it intends to rely upon at a hearing after making its disclosures under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Office of Enforcement shall supplement its disclosures to include such information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to make documents available—harmless error.</I> In the event that a document required to be made available to a respondent pursuant to this section is not made available by the Office of Enforcement, no rehearing or redecision of a proceeding already heard or decided shall be required unless the respondent establishes that the failure to make the document available was not harmless error.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications; scope of waiver; obligations of receiving party.</I> (1) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications by any party during an adjudication proceeding shall not operate as a waiver if:
</P>
<P>(i) The disclosure was inadvertent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the privilege or protection took reasonable steps to prevent disclosure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The holder promptly took reasonable steps to rectify the error, including notifying any party that received the information or communication of the claim and the basis for it.
</P>
<P>(2) After being notified, the receiving party must promptly return, sequester, or destroy the specified information and any copies it has; must not use or disclose the information until the claim is resolved; must take reasonable steps to retrieve the information if the party disclosed it before being notified; and may promptly present the information to the hearing officer under seal for a determination of the claim. The producing party must preserve the information until the claim is resolved.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure of privileged or protected information or communications by any party during an adjudication proceeding shall waive the privilege or protection, with respect to other parties to the proceeding, as to undisclosed information or communications only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The waiver is intentional;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosed and undisclosed information or communications concern the same subject matter; and
</P>
<P>(iii) They ought in fairness to be considered together.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.207" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.207   Production of witness statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> Any respondent may move that the Office of Enforcement produce for inspection and copying any statement of any person called or to be called as a witness by the Office of Enforcement that pertains, or is expected to pertain, to his or her direct testimony and that would be required to be produced pursuant to the Jencks Act, 18 U.S.C. 3500, if the adjudication proceeding were a criminal proceeding. For purposes of this section, the term “statement” shall have the meaning set forth in 18 U.S.C. 3500(e). Such production shall be made at a time and place fixed by the hearing officer and shall be made available to any party, provided, however, that the production must be made under conditions intended to preserve the items to be inspected or copied.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to produce—harmless error.</I> In the event that a statement required to be made available to a respondent pursuant to this section is not made available by the Office of Enforcement, no rehearing or redecision of a proceeding already heard or decided shall be required unless the respondent establishes that the failure to make the statement available was not harmless error.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.208" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.208   Subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> In connection with any hearing ordered by the hearing officer, a party may request the issuance of one or more subpoenas requiring the attendance and testimony of witnesses at the designated time and place of the hearing, or the production of documentary or other tangible evidence returnable at any designated time or place.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> Unless made on the record at a hearing, requests for issuance of a subpoena shall be made in writing, and filed and served on each party pursuant to subpart A of this part. The request must contain a proposed subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of testimony or documents sought.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signing may be delegated.</I> A hearing officer may authorize issuance of a subpoena, and may delegate the manual signing of the subpoena to any other person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Standards for issuance.</I> The hearing officer shall promptly issue any subpoena requested pursuant to this section. However, where it appears to the hearing officer that the subpoena sought may be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may, in his or her discretion, as a condition precedent to the issuance of the subpoena, require the person seeking the subpoena to show further the general relevance and reasonable scope of the testimony or other evidence sought. If after consideration of all the circumstances, the hearing officer determines that the subpoena or any of its terms is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the subpoena, or issue it only upon such conditions as fairness requires. In making the foregoing determination, the hearing officer may inquire of the other participants whether they will stipulate to the facts sought to be proved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service.</I> Upon issuance by the hearing officer, the party making the request shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party in accordance with § 1081.113(c). Subpoenas may be served in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tender of fees required.</I> When a subpoena compelling the attendance of a person at a hearing is issued at the request of anyone other than an officer or agency of the United States, service is valid only if the subpoena is accompanied by a tender to the subpoenaed person of the fees for one day's attendance and mileage specified by § 1081.116.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Production of documentary material.</I> Production of documentary material in response to a subpoena shall be made under a sworn certificate, in such form as the subpoena designates, by the person to whom the subpoena is directed or, if not a natural person, by any person having knowledge of the facts and circumstances relating to such production, to the effect that all of the documentary material required by the subpoena and in the possession, custody, or control of the person to whom the subpoena is directed has been produced and made available to the custodian.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) <I>Procedure.</I> Any person to whom a subpoena is directed, or who is an owner, creator, or the subject of the documents that are to be produced pursuant to a subpoena, or any party may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than seven days after the date of service of such subpoena, move that the subpoena be quashed or modified. Such motion shall be filed and served on all parties pursuant to subpart A of this part. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued or enforcement counsel may, within seven days of service of the motion, file a response to the motion. Reply briefs are not permitted unless requested by the hearing officer. Filing a motion to modify a subpoena does not stay the movant's obligation to comply with those portions of the subpoena that the person has not sought to modify.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards governing motion to quash or modify.</I> If compliance with the subpoena would be unreasonable, oppressive, or unduly burdensome, the hearing officer shall quash or modify the subpoena, or may order return of the subpoena only upon specified conditions. These conditions may include but are not limited to a requirement that the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued shall make reasonable compensation to the person to whom the subpoena was addressed for the cost of copying or transporting evidence to the place for return of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the hearing officer which directs compliance with all or any portion of a subpoena, the Bureau's General Counsel may, on its own motion or at the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, apply to an appropriate United States district court, in the name of the Bureau but on relation of such party, for an order requiring compliance with so much of the subpoena as the hearing officer has not quashed or modified, unless, in the judgment of the General Counsel, the enforcement of such subpoena would be inconsistent with law and the policies of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act. Failure to request that the Bureau's General Counsel seek enforcement of a subpoena constitutes a waiver of any claim of prejudice predicated upon the unavailability of the testimony or evidence sought.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.209" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.209   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may request in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section that the hearing officer issue a subpoena, including a subpoena <I>duces tecum,</I> requiring the attendance of the witness at a deposition. The hearing officer may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the hearing because of age, sickness, or infirmity, or will otherwise be unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The witness's unavailability was not procured or caused by the subpoenaing party;
</P>
<P>(iii) The testimony is reasonably expected to be material; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to making a showing as required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the request for a deposition subpoena must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement showing the general relevance and reasonableness of the scope of testimony and documents sought, and the time and place for taking the deposition. Any request to record the deposition by audio-visual means must be made in the request for a deposition subpoena.
</P>
<P>(3) Any requested deposition subpoena that sets forth a valid basis for its issuance must be promptly issued, unless the hearing officer on his or her own motion requires a written response or requires attendance at a conference concerning whether the requested subpoena should be issued. However, where it appears to the hearing officer that the deposition subpoena sought may be unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may, in his or her discretion, as a condition precedent to the issuance of the deposition subpoena, require the person seeking the deposition subpoena to show further the general relevance and reasonable scope of the testimony or other evidence sought. If after consideration of all the circumstances, the hearing officer determines that the deposition subpoena or any of its terms is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he or she may refuse to issue the deposition subpoena, or issue it only upon such conditions as fairness requires. In making the foregoing determination, the hearing officer may inquire of the other participants whether they will stipulate to the facts sought to be proved.
</P>
<P>(4) Unless the hearing officer orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than 14 days' notice to the witness and all parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> Unless made on the record at a hearing, requests for issuance of a deposition subpoena shall be made in writing, and filed and served on each party pursuant to subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Signing may be delegated.</I> A hearing officer may authorize issuance of a deposition subpoena, and may delegate the manual signing of the deposition subpoena to any other person.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Service.</I> Upon issuance by the hearing officer, the party making the request shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party in accordance with § 1081.113(c). Deposition subpoenas may be served in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, on any person or company doing business in any State, territory, possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Tender of fees required.</I> When a subpoena compelling the attendance of a person at a deposition is issued at the request of anyone other than an officer or agency of the United States, service is valid only if the subpoena is accompanied by a tender to the subpoenaed person of the fees for one day's attendance and mileage specified by § 1081.116.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) <I>Procedure.</I> Any person to whom a deposition subpoena is directed, or who is an owner, creator, or the subject of the documents that are to be produced pursuant to a deposition subpoena, or any party may, prior to the time specified therein for compliance, but in no event more than ten days after the date of service of such subpoena, move that the deposition subpoena be quashed or modified. Such motion must include a statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify the deposition subpoena, and shall be filed and served on all parties pursuant to subpart A of this part. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, the party on whose behalf the deposition subpoena was issued or enforcement counsel may, within five days of service of the motion, file a response to the motion. Reply briefs are not permitted unless requested by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards governing motion to quash or modify.</I> If compliance with the deposition subpoena would be unreasonable, oppressive or unduly burdensome, or the deposition subpoena does not meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the hearing officer shall quash or modify the deposition subpoena, or may order return of the deposition subpoena only upon specified conditions. These conditions may include but are not limited to a requirement that the party on whose behalf the deposition subpoena was issued shall make reasonable compensation to the person to whom the deposition subpoena was addressed for the cost of copying or transporting evidence to the place for return of the deposition subpoena.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Depositions shall be taken before any person before whom a deposition may be taken pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (the “deposition officer”).
</P>
<P>(2) The witness being deposed may have an attorney present during the deposition.
</P>
<P>(3) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn, and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Objections to questions of evidence shall be noted by the deposition officer upon the deposition, but a deposition officer other than the hearing officer shall not have the power to decide on the competency, materiality, or relevance of evidence. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for the objection might have been avoided if the objection had been timely presented. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded.
</P>
<P>(4) The deposition must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(5) The original deposition transcript and exhibits shall be filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication. The cost of the transcript shall be paid by the party requesting the deposition. A copy of the deposition shall be available to the deponent and each party for purchase at prescribed rates.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> Any party may move before the hearing officer for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence the witness has refused to submit during the deposition. If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any order of the hearing officer which directs compliance with all or any portion of a deposition subpoena under this section, the Bureau's General Counsel may, on its own motion or at the request of the party on whose behalf the subpoena was issued, apply to an appropriate United States district court, in the name of the Bureau but on relation of such party, for an order requiring compliance with so much of the subpoena as the hearing officer has not quashed or modified, unless, in the judgment of the General Counsel, the enforcement of such subpoena would be inconsistent with law and the policies of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act. Failure to request that the Bureau seek enforcement of a subpoena constitutes a waiver of any claim of prejudice predicated upon the unavailability of the testimony or evidence sought.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.210" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.210   Expert discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At a date set by the hearing officer at the scheduling conference, each party shall serve the other with a report prepared by each of its expert witnesses. Each party shall serve the other parties with a list of any rebuttal expert witnesses and a rebuttal report prepared by each such witness not later than 28 days after the deadline for service of expert reports, unless another date is set by the hearing officer. A rebuttal report shall be limited to rebuttal of matters set forth in the expert report for which it is offered in rebuttal. If material outside the scope of fair rebuttal is presented, a party may file a motion not later than seven days after the deadline for service of rebuttal reports, seeking appropriate relief with the hearing officer, including striking all or part of the report, leave to submit a surrebuttal report by the party's own experts, or leave to call a surrebuttal witness and to submit a surrebuttal report by that witness.
</P>
<P>(b) No party may call an expert witness at the hearing unless he or she has been listed and has provided reports as required by this section, unless otherwise directed by the hearing officer at a scheduling conference. Each side will be limited to calling at the hearing five expert witnesses, including any rebuttal or surrebuttal expert witnesses. A party may file a motion seeking leave to call additional expert witnesses due to extraordinary circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) Each report shall be signed by the expert and contain a complete statement of all opinions to be expressed and the basis and reasons therefore; the data, materials, or other information considered by the witness in forming the opinions; any exhibits to be used as a summary of or support for the opinions; the qualifications of the witness, including a list of all publications authored or co-authored by the witness within the preceding ten years; the compensation to be paid for the study and testimony; and a listing of any other cases in which the witness has testified or sought to testify as an expert at trial or hearing, or by deposition within the preceding four years. A rebuttal or surrebuttal report need not include any information already included in the initial report of the witness.
</P>
<P>(d) A party may depose any person who has been identified as an expert whose opinions may be presented at trial. Unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, a deposition of any expert witness shall be conducted after the disclosure of a report prepared by the witness in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section, and at least seven days prior to the deadline for submission of rebuttal expert reports. A deposition of an expert witness shall be completed no later than 14 days before the hearing unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer. No expert deposition shall exceed eight hours on the record, absent agreement of the parties or an order of the hearing officer for good cause shown. Expert depositions shall be conducted pursuant to the procedures set forth in § 1081.209(g).
</P>
<P>(e) A party may not discover facts known or opinions held by an expert who has been retained or specifically employed by another party in anticipation of litigation or preparation for the hearing and who is not listed as a witness for the hearing. A party may not discover drafts of any report required by this section, regardless of the form in which the draft is recorded, or any communications between another party's attorney and any of that other party's experts, regardless of the form of the communications, except to the extent that the communications:
</P>
<P>(1) Relate to compensation for the testifying expert's study or testimony;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify facts or data that the other party's attorney provided and that the testifying expert considered in forming the opinions to be expressed; or
</P>
<P>(3) Identify assumptions that the other party's attorney provided and that the testifying expert relied on in forming the opinions to be expressed.
</P>
<P>(f) The hearing officer shall have the discretion to dispense with the requirement of expert discovery in appropriate cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.211" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.211   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> The Director may, at any time, direct that any matter be submitted to him or her for review. Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the hearing officer may, on his or her own motion or on the motion of any party, certify any matter for interlocutory review by the Director. This section is the exclusive remedy for review of a hearing officer's ruling or order prior to the Director's consideration of the entire proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> Any party's motion for certification of a ruling or order for interlocutory review shall be filed with the hearing officer within seven days of service of the ruling or order, shall specify the ruling or order or parts thereof for which interlocutory review is sought, shall attach any other portions of the record on which the moving party relies, and shall otherwise comply with § 1081.205. Notwithstanding § 1081.205, any response to such a motion must be filed within seven days of service of the motion. The hearing officer shall issue a ruling on the motion within seven days of the deadline for filing a response.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Certification process.</I> Unless the Director directs otherwise, a ruling or order may not be submitted to the Director for interlocutory review unless the hearing officer, upon the hearing officer's motion or upon the motion of a party, certifies the ruling or order in writing. The hearing officer shall not certify a ruling or order unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling or order would compel testimony of Bureau officers or employees, or those from another governmental agency, or the production of documentary evidence in the custody of the Bureau or another governmental agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The ruling or order involves a motion for disqualification of the hearing officer pursuant to § 1081.105(c)(2);
</P>
<P>(3) The ruling or order suspended or barred an individual from appearing before the Bureau pursuant to § 1081.107(c); or
</P>
<P>(4) Upon motion by a party, the hearing officer is of the opinion that:
</P>
<P>(i) The ruling or order involves a controlling question of law as to which there is substantial ground for difference of opinion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An immediate review of the ruling or order is likely to materially advance the completion of the proceeding or subsequent review will be an inadequate remedy.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Interlocutory review.</I> A party whose motion for certification has been denied by the hearing officer may petition the Director for interlocutory review.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Director review.</I> The Director shall determine whether or not to review a ruling or order certified under this section or the subject of a petition for interlocutory review. Interlocutory review is disfavored, and the Director will grant a petition to review a hearing officer's ruling or order prior to his or her consideration of a recommended decision only in extraordinary circumstances. The Director may decline to review a ruling or order certified by a hearing officer pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section or the petition of a party who has been denied certification if he or she determines that interlocutory review is not warranted or appropriate under the circumstances, in which case he or she may summarily deny the petition. If the Director determines to grant the review, he or she will review the matter and issue his or her ruling and order in an expeditious fashion, consistent with the Bureau's other responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Proceedings not stayed.</I> The filing of a motion requesting that the hearing officer certify any of his or her prior rulings or orders for interlocutory review or a petition for interlocutory review filed with the Director, and the grant of any such review, shall not stay proceedings before the hearing officer unless he or she, or the Director, shall so order. The Director will not consider a motion for a stay unless the motion shall have first been made to the hearing officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.212" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.212   Dispositive motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> This section governs the filing of motions to dismiss and motions for summary disposition. The filing of any such motion does not obviate a party's obligation to file an answer or take any other action required by this part or by an order of the hearing officer, unless expressly so provided by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motions to dismiss.</I> A respondent may file a motion to dismiss asserting that, even assuming the truth of the facts alleged in the notice of charges, it is entitled to dismissal as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motion for summary disposition.</I> A party may make a motion for summary disposition asserting that the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The moving party is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Filing of motions for summary disposition and responses.</I> (1) After a respondent's answer has been filed and documents have been made available to the respondent for inspection and copying pursuant to § 1081.206, any party may move for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of the material facts as to which the moving party contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits and any other evidentiary materials that the moving party contends support his or her position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the moving party. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which he or she contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as may be submitted in support of a motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) Any affidavit or declaration submitted in support of or in opposition to a motion for summary disposition shall set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence, shall show affirmatively that the affiant is competent to testify to the matters stated therein, and must be signed under oath and penalty of perjury.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Page limitations for dispositive motions.</I> A motion to dismiss or for summary disposition, together with any brief in support of the motion (exclusive of any declarations, affidavits, or attachments) shall not exceed 35 pages in length. Motions for extensions of this length limitation are disfavored.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opposition and reply response time and page limitation.</I> Any party, within 21 days after service of a dispositive motion, or within such time period as allowed by the hearing officer, may file a response to such motion. The length limitations set forth in paragraph (e) of this section shall also apply to such responses. Any reply brief filed in response to an opposition to a dispositive motion shall be filed within seven days after service of the opposition. Reply briefs shall not exceed ten pages.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Oral argument.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the hearing officer may hear oral argument on a dispositive motion.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Within 30 days following the expiration of the time for filing all responses and replies to any dispositive motion, the hearing officer shall determine whether the motion shall be granted. If the hearing officer determines that dismissal or summary disposition is warranted, he or she shall issue a recommended decision granting the motion. If the hearing officer finds that no party is entitled to dismissal or summary disposition, he or she shall make a ruling denying the motion. If it appears that a party, for good cause shown, cannot present by affidavit, prior to hearing, facts essential to justify opposition to the motion, the hearing officer shall deny or defer the motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.213" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.213   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If on a motion for summary disposition under § 1081.212 a decision is not rendered upon the whole case or for all the relief asked and a hearing is necessary, the hearing officer shall issue an order specifying the facts that appear without substantial controversy and directing further proceedings in the action. The facts so specified shall be deemed established.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.214" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.214   Prehearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prehearing conferences.</I> The hearing officer may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct counsel for the parties to meet with him or her (in person or by telephone) at a prehearing conference for further discussion of the issues outlined in § 1081.203, or for discussion of any additional matters that in the view of the hearing officer will aid in an orderly disposition of the proceeding, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identification of potential witnesses and limitation on the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(2) The exchange of any prehearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, exhibits, and any other materials;
</P>
<P>(3) Stipulations, admissions of fact, and the contents, authenticity, and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Matters of which official notice may be taken; and
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the parties intend to introduce prior sworn statements of witnesses as set forth in § 1081.303(h).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a prehearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. A transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, becomes part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of the transcript at his or her expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public access.</I> Any prehearing conferences shall be public unless the hearing officer determines, based on the standard set forth in § 1081.119(c), that the conference (or any part thereof) shall be closed to the public.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.215" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.215   Prehearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> Within the time set by the hearing officer, but in no case later than 14 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party:
</P>
<P>(1) A prehearing statement, which shall include an outline or narrative summary of its case or defense, and the legal theories upon which it will rely;
</P>
<P>(2) A final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including the name and address of each witness and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) Any prior sworn statements that a party intends to admit into evidence pursuant to § 1081.303(h);
</P>
<P>(4) A list of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any stipulations of fact or liability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Expert witnesses.</I> Each party who intends to call an expert witness shall also serve, in addition to the information required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, a statement of the expert's qualifications, a listing of other proceedings in which the expert has given or sought to give expert testimony at trial or hearing or by deposition within the preceding four years, and a list of publications authored or co-authored by the expert within the preceding ten years, to the extent such information has not already been provided pursuant to § 1081.210.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibits may be introduced at the hearing if such witness or exhibit is not listed in the prehearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.216" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.216   Amicus participation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> An amicus brief may be filed only if:
</P>
<P>(1) A motion for leave to file the brief has been granted;
</P>
<P>(2) The brief is accompanied by written consent of all parties;
</P>
<P>(3) The brief is filed at the request of the Director or the hearing officer, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(4) The brief is presented by the United States or an officer or agency thereof, or by a State or a political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> An amicus brief may be filed conditionally with the motion for leave. The motion for leave shall identify the interest of the movant and shall state the reasons why a brief of an amicus curiae is desirable. Except as all parties otherwise consent, any amicus curiae shall file its brief within the time allowed the party whose position the amicus will support, unless the Director or hearing officer, as appropriate, for good cause shown, grants leave for a later filing. In the event that a later filing is allowed, the order granting leave to file shall specify when an opposing party may reply to the brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Motions.</I> A motion for leave to file an amicus brief shall be subject to § 1081.205.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Formal requirements as to amicus briefs.</I> Amicus briefs shall be filed pursuant to § 1081.111 and shall comply with the requirements of § 1081.112 and shall be subject to the length limitation set forth in § 1081.212(e).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral argument.</I> An amicus curiae may move to present oral argument at any hearing before the hearing officer, but such motions will be granted only for extraordinary reasons.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.300" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.300   Public hearings.</HEAD>
<P>All hearings in adjudication proceedings shall be public unless a confidentiality order is entered by the hearing officer pursuant to § 1081.119 or unless otherwise ordered by the Director on the grounds that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.301" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.301   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person or by a duly authorized counsel at the hearing constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and may be deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice of charges. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the hearing officer shall file a recommended decision containing findings of fact and addressing the relief sought in the notice of charges.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.302" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.302   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>All hearings shall be conducted in a fair, impartial, expeditious, and orderly manner. Enforcement counsel shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the hearing officer, or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. Enforcement counsel shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement, and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to their order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the hearing officer shall fix the order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.303" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.303   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Burden of proof.</I> Enforcement counsel shall have the burden of proof of the ultimate issue(s) of the Bureau's claims at the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act and other applicable law. Irrelevant, immaterial, and unreliable evidence shall be excluded.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence, even if relevant, may be excluded if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice or confusion of the issues; if the evidence would be misleading; or based on considerations of undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that constitutes hearsay may be admitted if it is relevant, material, and bears satisfactory indicia of reliability so that its use is fair. Hearsay is a statement, other than one made by the declarant while testifying at the hearing, offered in evidence to prove the truth of the matter asserted. If otherwise meeting the standards for admissibility described in this section, transcripts of depositions, investigational hearings, prior testimony in Bureau or other proceedings, and any other form of hearsay shall be admissible and shall not be excluded solely on the ground that they are or contain hearsay.
</P>
<P>(4) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this part. Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to this part solely on that basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official notice.</I> Official notice may be taken of any material fact that is not subject to reasonable dispute in that it is either generally known or capable of accurate and ready determination by resort to sources whose accuracy cannot reasonably be questioned. If official notice is requested or is taken of a material fact not appearing in the evidence in the record, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to disprove such noticed fact.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, supervisory activity, inspection or visitation, prepared by the Bureau, a prudential regulator, as that term is defined in section 1002(24) of the Dodd-Frank Act, or by a State regulatory agency, is presumptively admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the hearing officer's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(4) As respondents are in the best position to determine the nature of documents generated by such respondents and which come from their own files, the burden of proof is on the respondent to introduce evidence to rebut a presumption that such documents are authentic and kept in the regular course of business.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever evidence is excluded from the record, the party offering such evidence may make an offer of proof, which shall be included in the record. Rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, shall be retained pursuant to § 1081.306(b) so as to be available for consideration by any reviewing authority.
</P>
<P>(3) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stipulations.</I> (1) The parties may, at any stage of the proceeding, stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any relevant documents. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing and are binding on the parties with respect to the matters therein stipulated.
</P>
<P>(2) Unless the hearing officer directs otherwise, all stipulations of fact and law previously agreed upon by the parties, and all documents, the admissibility of which have been previously stipulated, will be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Presentation of evidence.</I> (1) A witness at a hearing for the purpose of taking evidence shall testify under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(2) A party is entitled to present its case or defense by sworn oral testimony and documentary evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence, and to conduct such cross-examination as, in the discretion of the hearing officer, may be required for a full and true disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(3) An adverse party, or an officer, agent, or employee thereof, and any witness who appears to be hostile, unwilling, or evasive, may be interrogated by leading questions and may also be contradicted and impeached by the party calling him or her.
</P>
<P>(4) The hearing officer shall exercise reasonable control over the mode and order of interrogating witnesses and presenting evidence so as to:
</P>
<P>(i) Make the interrogation and presentation effective for the ascertainment of the truth;
</P>
<P>(ii) Avoid needless consumption of time; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Protect witnesses from harassment or undue embarrassment.
</P>
<P>(5) The hearing officer may permit a witness to appear at a hearing via video conference or telephone for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Introducing prior sworn statements of witnesses into the record.</I> At a hearing, any party wishing to introduce a prior, sworn statement of a witness, not a party, otherwise admissible in the proceeding, may make a motion setting forth the reasons therefore. If only part of a statement is offered in evidence, the hearing officer may require that all relevant portions of the statement be introduced. If all of a statement is offered in evidence, the hearing officer may require that portions not relevant to the proceeding be excluded. A motion to introduce a prior sworn statement may be granted if:
</P>
<P>(1) The witness is dead;
</P>
<P>(2) The witness is out of the United States, unless it appears that the absence of the witness was procured by the party offering the prior sworn statement;
</P>
<P>(3) The witness is unable to attend or testify because of age, sickness, infirmity, imprisonment, or other disability;
</P>
<P>(4) The party offering the prior sworn statement has been unable to procure the attendance of the witness by subpoena; or
</P>
<P>(5) In the discretion of the hearing officer, it would be desirable, in the interests of justice, to allow the prior sworn statement to be used. In making this determination, due regard shall be given to the presumption that witnesses will testify orally in an open hearing. If the parties have stipulated to accept a prior sworn statement in lieu of live testimony, consideration shall also be given to the convenience of the parties in avoiding unnecessary expense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.304" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.304   Record of the hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting and transcription.</I> Hearings shall be stenographically reported and transcribed under the supervision of the hearing officer, and the original transcript shall be a part of the record and the sole official transcript. The live oral testimony of each witness may be video recorded digitally, in which case the video recording and the written transcript of the testimony shall be made part of the record. Copies of transcripts shall be available from the reporter at prescribed rates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Corrections.</I> Corrections of the official transcript may be made only when they involve errors affecting substance and then only in the manner herein provided. Corrections ordered by the hearing officer or agreed to in a written stipulation signed by all counsel and parties not represented by counsel, and approved by the hearing officer, shall be included in the record, and such stipulations, except to the extent they are capricious or without substance, shall be approved by the hearing officer. Corrections shall not be ordered by the hearing officer except upon notice and opportunity for the hearing of objections. Such corrections shall be made by the official reporter by furnishing substitute type pages, under the usual certificate of the reporter, for insertion in the official record. The original uncorrected pages shall be retained in the files of the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Closing of the hearing record.</I> Upon completion of the hearing, the hearing officer shall issue an order closing the hearing record after giving the parties seven days to determine if the record is complete or needs to be supplemented. The hearing officer shall retain the discretion to permit or order correction of the record as provided in paragraph (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.305" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.305   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the hearing officer shall serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed promptly after that filing. Any party may file with the hearing officer proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 28 days following service of this notice by the hearing officer or within such longer period as may be ordered by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsive briefs.</I> Responsive briefs may be filed within 14 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings, conclusions, and order are due. Responsive briefs must be strictly limited to responding to matters, issues, or arguments raised in another party's papers. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a responsive brief. Unless directed by the hearing officer, reply briefs are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Order of filing.</I> The hearing officer shall not order the filing by any party of any post-hearing brief or responsive brief in advance of the other party's filing of its post-hearing brief or responsive brief.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.306" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.306   Record in proceedings before hearing officer; retention of documents; copies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of the record.</I> The record of the proceeding shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) The notice of charges, the answer, and any amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(2) Each motion, submission, or other paper filed in the proceedings, and any amendments and exceptions to or regarding them;
</P>
<P>(3) Each stipulation, transcript of testimony, and any document or other item admitted into evidence;
</P>
<P>(4) Any transcript of a conference or hearing before the hearing officer;
</P>
<P>(5) Any amicus briefs filed pursuant to § 1081.216;
</P>
<P>(6) With respect to a request to disqualify a hearing officer or to allow the hearing officer's withdrawal under § 1081.105(c), each affidavit or transcript of testimony taken and the decision made in connection with the request;
</P>
<P>(7) All motions, briefs, and other papers filed on interlocutory appeal;
</P>
<P>(8) All proposed findings and conclusions;
</P>
<P>(9) Each written order issued by the hearing officer or Director; and
</P>
<P>(10) Any other document or item accepted into the record by the hearing officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of documents not admitted.</I> Any document offered into evidence but excluded shall not be considered part of the record. The Office of Administrative Adjudication shall retain any such document until the later of the date upon which an order by the Director ending the proceeding becomes final and not appealable, or upon the conclusion of any judicial review of the Director's order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution of copies.</I> A true copy of a document may be substituted for any document in the record or any document retained pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Decision and Appeals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.400" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.400   Recommended decision of the hearing officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time period for filing recommended decision.</I> Subject to paragraph (b) of this section, the hearing officer shall file a recommended decision no later than 90 days after the deadline for filing post-hearing responsive briefs pursuant to § 1081.305(b) and in no event later than 360 days after filing of the notice of charges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extension of deadlines.</I> In the event the hearing officer presiding over the proceeding determines that it will not be possible to issue the recommended decision within the time periods specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the hearing officer shall submit a written request to the Director for an extension of the time period for filing the recommended decision. This request must be filed no later than 28 days prior to the expiration of the time for issuance of a recommended decision. The request will be served on all parties in the proceeding, who may file with the Director briefs in support of or in opposition to the request. Any such briefs must be filed within seven days of service of the hearing officer's request and shall not exceed five pages. If the Director determines that additional time is necessary or appropriate in the public interest, the Director shall issue an order extending the time period for filing the recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content.</I> (1) A recommended decision shall be based on a consideration of the whole record relevant to the issues decided, and shall be supported by reliable, probative, and substantial evidence. The recommended decision shall include a statement of findings of fact (with specific page references to principal supporting items of evidence in the record) and conclusions of law, as well as the reasons or basis therefore, as to all the material issues of fact, law, or discretion presented on the record and the appropriate order, sanction, relief or denial thereof. The recommended decision shall also state that a notice of appeal may be filed within 14 days after service of the recommended decision and include a statement that, unless a party timely files and perfects a notice of appeal of the recommended decision, the Director may adopt the recommended decision as the final decision and order of the Bureau without further opportunity for briefing or argument.
</P>
<P>(2) Consistent with paragraph (a) of this section, when more than one claim for relief is presented in an adjudication proceeding, or when multiple parties are involved, the hearing officer may direct the entry of a recommended decision as to one or more but fewer than all of the claims or parties only upon an express determination that there is no just reason for delay and upon an express direction for the entry of a recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>By whom made.</I> The recommended decision shall be made and filed by the hearing officer who presided over the hearings, except when he or she shall have become unavailable to the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reopening of proceeding by hearing officer; termination of jurisdiction.</I> (1) At any time from the close of the hearing record pursuant to § 1081.304(c) until the filing of his or her recommended decision, a hearing officer may reopen the proceeding for the receipt of further evidence for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) Except for the correction of clerical errors or pursuant to an order of remand from the Director, the jurisdiction of the hearing officer is terminated upon the filing of his or her recommended decision with respect to those issues decided pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Filing, service, and publication.</I> Upon filing by the hearing officer of the recommended decision, the Office of Administrative Adjudication shall promptly transmit the recommended decision to the Director and serve the recommended decision upon the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.401" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.401   Transmission of documents to Director; record index; certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the Office of Administrative Adjudication transmits the recommended decision to the Director, the hearing officer shall furnish to the Director a certified index of the entire record of the proceedings. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Retention of record items by the Office of Administrative Adjudication.</I> After the close of the hearing, the Office of Administrative Adjudication shall retain originals of any motions, exhibits or any other documents filed with, or accepted into evidence by, the hearing officer, or any other portions of the record that have not already been filed with the Office of Administrative Adjudication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.402" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.402   Notice of appeal; review by the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of appeal.</I> (1) <I>Filing.</I> Any party may file exceptions to the recommended decision of the hearing officer by filing a notice of appeal with the Office of Administrative Adjudication within 14 days after service of the recommended decision. The notice shall specify the party or parties against whom the appeal is taken and shall designate the recommended decision or part thereof appealed from. If a timely notice of appeal is filed by a party, any other party may thereafter file a notice of appeal within seven days after service of the first notice, or within 14 days after service of the recommended decision, whichever period expires last.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Perfecting a notice of appeal.</I> Any party filing a notice of appeal must perfect its appeal by filing its opening appeal brief within 28 days of service of the recommended decision. Any party may respond to the opening appeal brief by filing an answering brief within 28 days of service of the opening brief. Any party may file a reply to an answering brief within seven days of service of the answering brief. These briefs must conform to the requirements of § 1081.403.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Director review other than pursuant to an appeal.</I> In the event no party perfects an appeal of the recommended decision, the Director shall, within 42 days after the date of service of the recommended decision, either issue a final decision and order adopting the recommended decision, or order further briefing regarding any portion of the recommended decision. The Director's order for further briefing shall set forth the scope of review and the issues that will be considered and will make provision for the filing of briefs in accordance with the timelines set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section (except that that opening briefs shall be due within 28 days of service of the order of review) if deemed appropriate by the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 704, a perfected appeal to the Director of a recommended decision pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is a prerequisite to the seeking of judicial review of a final decision and order, or portion of the final decision and order, adopting the recommended decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.403" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.403   Briefs filed with the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of briefs.</I> Briefs shall be confined to the particular matters at issue. Each exception to the findings or conclusions being reviewed shall be stated succinctly. Exceptions shall be supported by citation to the relevant portions of the record, including references to the specific pages relied upon, and by concise argument including citation of such statutes, decisions, and other authorities as may be relevant. If the exception relates to the admission or exclusion of evidence, the substance of the evidence admitted or excluded shall be set forth in the brief, in an appendix thereto, or by citation to the record. Reply briefs shall be confined to matters in answering briefs of other parties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Length limitation.</I> Except with leave of the Director, opening and answering briefs shall not exceed 30 pages, and reply briefs shall not exceed 15 pages, exclusive of pages containing the table of contents, table of authorities, and any addendum that consists solely of copies of applicable cases, pertinent legislative provisions or rules, and exhibits. Motions to file briefs in excess of these limitations are disfavored.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.404" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.404   Oral argument before the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability.</I> The Director will consider appeals, motions, and other matters properly before him or her on the basis of the papers filed by the parties without oral argument unless the Director determines that the presentation of facts and legal arguments in the briefs and record and decisional process would be significantly aided by oral argument, in which case the Director shall issue an order setting the date on which argument shall be held. A party seeking oral argument shall so indicate on the first page of its opening or answering brief.
</P>
<P>(b)<I> Public arguments; transcription.</I> All oral arguments shall be public unless otherwise ordered by the Director. Oral arguments before the Director shall be reported stenographically, unless otherwise ordered by the Director. Motions to correct the transcript of oral argument shall be made according to the same procedure provided in § 1081.304(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.405" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.405   Decision of the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon appeal from or upon further review of a recommended decision, the Director will consider such parts of the record as are cited or as may be necessary to resolve the issues presented and, in addition, will, to the extent necessary or desirable, exercise all powers which he or she could have exercised if he or she had made the recommended decision. In proceedings before the Director, the record shall consist of all items part of the record below in accordance with § 1081.306; any notices of appeal or order directing review; all briefs, motions, submissions, and other papers filed on appeal or review; and the transcript of any oral argument held. Review by the Director of a recommended decision may be limited to the issues specified in the notice(s) of appeal or the issues, if any, specified in the order directing further briefing. On notice to all parties, however, the Director may, at any time prior to issuance of his or her decision, raise and determine any other matters that he or she deems material, with opportunity for oral or written argument thereon by the parties.
</P>
<P>(b) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of the case.
</P>
<P>(c) In rendering his or her decision, the Director will affirm, adopt, reverse, modify, set aside, or remand for further proceedings the recommended decision and will include in the decision a statement of the reasons or basis for his or her actions and the findings of fact upon which the decision is predicated.
</P>
<P>(d) At the expiration of the time permitted for the filing of reply briefs with the Director, the Office of Administrative Adjudication will notify the parties that the case has been submitted for final Bureau decision. The Director will issue and the Office of Administrative Adjudication will serve the Director's final decision and order within 90 days after such notice, unless within that time the Director orders that the adjudication proceeding or any aspect thereof be remanded to the hearing officer for further proceedings.
</P>
<P>(e) Copies of the final decision and order of the Director shall be served upon each party to the proceeding, upon other persons required by statute, and, if directed by the Director or required by statute, upon any appropriate State or Federal supervisory authority. The final decision and order will also be published on the Bureau's website or as otherwise deemed appropriate by the Bureau.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.406" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.406   Reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>Within 14 days after service of the Director's final decision and order, any party may file with the Director a petition for reconsideration, briefly and specifically setting forth the relief desired and the grounds in support thereof. Any petition filed under this section must be confined to new questions raised by the final decision or final order and upon which the petitioner had no opportunity to argue, in writing or orally, before the Director. No response to a petition for reconsideration shall be filed unless requested by the Director, who will request such response before granting any petition for reconsideration. The filing of a petition for reconsideration shall not operate to stay the effective date of the final decision or order or to toll the running of any statutory period affecting such decision or order unless specifically so ordered by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.407" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.407   Effective date; stays pending judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Other than consent orders, which shall become effective at the time specified therein, an order to cease and desist or for other affirmative action under section 1053(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act becomes effective at the expiration of 30 days after the date of service pursuant to § 1081.113(d)(2), unless the Director agrees to stay the effectiveness of the order pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Any party subject to a final decision and order, other than a consent order, may apply to the Director for a stay of all or part of that order pending judicial review.
</P>
<P>(c) A motion for stay shall state the reasons a stay is warranted and the facts relied upon, and shall include supporting affidavits or other sworn statements, and a copy of the relevant portions of the record. The motion shall address the likelihood of the movant's success on appeal, whether the movant will suffer irreparable harm if a stay is not granted, the degree of injury to other parties if a stay is granted, and why the stay is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(d) A motion for stay shall be filed within 28 days of service of the order on the party. Any party opposing the motion may file a response within seven days after receipt of the motion. The movant may file a reply brief, limited to new matters raised by the response, within seven days after receipt of the response.
</P>
<P>(e) The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Director does not, unless specifically ordered by the Director or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Director. The Director may, in his or her discretion, and on such terms as he or she finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order pending a final decision on a petition for judicial review of that order.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Temporary Cease-and-Desist Proceedings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.500" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.500   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart prescribes the rules of practice and procedure applicable to the issuance of a temporary cease-and-desist order authorized by section 1053(c) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)).
</P>
<P>(b) The issuance of a temporary cease-and-desist order does not stay or otherwise affect the proceedings instituted by the issuance of a notice of charges, which are governed by subparts A through D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.501" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.501   Basis for issuance, form, and service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Director or his or her designee may issue a temporary cease-and-desist order if he or she determines that one or more of the alleged violations specified in a notice of charges, or the continuation thereof, is likely to cause the respondent to be insolvent or otherwise prejudice the interests of consumers before the completion of the adjudication proceeding. A temporary cease-and-desist order may require the respondent to cease and desist from any violation or practice specified in the notice of charges and to take affirmative action to prevent or remedy such insolvency or other condition pending completion of the proceedings initiated by the issuance of a notice of charges.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Incomplete or inaccurate records.</I> When a notice of charges specifies, on the basis of particular facts and circumstances, that the books and records of a respondent are so incomplete or inaccurate that the Bureau is unable to determine the financial condition of the respondent or the details or purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of the respondent, then the Director or his or her designee may issue a temporary order requiring:
</P>
<P>(1) The cessation of any activity or practice which gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or
</P>
<P>(2) Affirmative action to restore such books or records to a complete and accurate state, until the completion of the adjudication proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content, scope, and form of order.</I> Every temporary cease-and-desist order accompanying a notice of charges shall describe:
</P>
<P>(1) The basis for its issuance, including the alleged violations and the harm that is likely to result without the issuance of an order; and
</P>
<P>(2) The act or acts the respondent is to take or refrain from taking.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective and enforceable upon service.</I> A temporary cease-and-desist order is effective and enforceable upon service.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Service.</I> Service of a temporary cease-and-desist order shall be made pursuant to § 1081.113(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1081.502" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.14.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1081.502   Judicial review, duration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Availability of judicial review.</I> Judicial review of a temporary cease-and-desist order shall be available solely as provided in section 1053(c)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)(2)). Any respondent seeking judicial review of a temporary cease-and-desist order issued under this subpart must, not later than ten days after service of the temporary cease-and-desist order, apply to the United States district court for the judicial district in which the residence or principal office or place of business of the respondent is located, or the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an injunction setting aside, limiting, or suspending the enforcement, operation, or effectiveness of such order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration.</I> Unless set aside, limited, or suspended by the Director or his or her designee, or by a court in proceedings authorized under section 1053(c)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5563(c)(2)), a temporary cease-and-desist order shall remain effective and enforceable until:
</P>
<P>(1) The effective date of a final order issued upon the conclusion of the adjudication proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a temporary cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to § 1081.501(b) only, the Bureau determines by examination or otherwise that the books and records are accurate and reflect the financial condition of the respondent, and the Director or his or her designee issues an order terminating, limiting, or suspending the temporary cease-and-desist order.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1082" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1082—STATE OFFICIAL NOTIFICATION RULES






</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.</I>
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1082.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1082.1   Procedures for notifying the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection when a State Official takes an action to enforce title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice requirement.</I> (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b) and except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, every State attorney general and State regulator (State Official) shall provide the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section to the Enforcement Division of the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection (the Bureau), the unit of the Bureau responsible for enforcement of Federal consumer financial law pursuant to title X of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Financial Protection Act of 2010, as amended, Public Law 111-203 (July 21, 2010), codified at 12 U.S.C. 5481 <I>et seq.</I> (the Dodd-Frank Act), and the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Bureau at least ten calendar days prior to initiating any action against any covered person. For purposes of this section, an action requiring notification is any adjudicative proceeding before a court or an administrative or regulatory body to determine whether a violation of any provision of title X of the Dodd-Frank Act or any regulation prescribed thereunder has occurred. Initiating an action under this section would include but not be limited to the filing of a complaint, motion for relief, or other document which initiates an action or a proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Notice shall be provided to the Enforcement Division and the Office of the Executive Secretary, or their successor offices, via electronic mail to <I>Enforcement@cfpb.gov</I> and <I>ExecSec@cfpb.gov.</I> In the event of technical problems preventing the delivery of notice, the Enforcement Division or its successor entity should be contacted.
</P>
<P>(3) On the same date that notice is provided to the Enforcement Division and the Office of the Executive Secretary pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a copy of the notice shall be sent to the relevant prudential regulator, if any, or the designee thereof, by mail or electronic mail.
</P>
<P>(4) Notice shall be deemed to have been provided as of the date of transmitting or mailing the materials described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) The Enforcement Division, or its successor entity, in consultation with a State Official, may provide, for good cause shown, an alternative deadline for the notice described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Emergency actions.</I> (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b), in the event that a State Official initiates or intends to initiate an action and, in order to protect the public interest or prevent irreparable and imminent harm, is unable to provide timely notice as described in paragraph (a) of this section, the State Official shall provide the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section as soon as is practicable and not later than 48 hours after initiation of the action.
</P>
<P>(2) Notice shall be provided in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraphs (a)(2) through (4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) The Enforcement Division, or its successor entity, in consultation with a State Official, may provide, for good cause shown, an alternative deadline for the notice described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of notice.</I> (1) Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5552(b), the notice required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall include a written description of the anticipated action, including:
</P>
<P>(i) The court or body in which the action is to be initiated;
</P>
<P>(ii) The identity of the parties to the action;
</P>
<P>(iii) The nature of the action to be initiated;
</P>
<P>(iv) The anticipated date of initiating the action;
</P>
<P>(v) The alleged facts underlying the action;
</P>
<P>(vi) A contact name, electronic mail address, and phone number of an individual involved with the matter in the office of the State Official with whom the Bureau may consult;
</P>
<P>(vii) A determination as to whether there may be a need to coordinate the prosecution of the action so as not to interfere with any action, including any rulemaking, undertaken by the Bureau, a prudential regulator, or another Federal agency; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A statement by the State Official setting forth any limitations on the disclosure of the substance or fact of the notice to any person or entity outside of the recipient agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The notice required under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall further include a complete and unredacted copy of any complaint, motion for relief, or similar document that is the subject of the notice, in its form as of the date the notice is provided. To the extent the complaint, motion for relief, or similar document contains the information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, provision of the complaint, motion for relief, or similar document shall be deemed sufficient notice of that information.
</P>
<P>(3) In the event that notice is provided after the initiation of an action, the written description shall also include the following, in addition to the information described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) A brief description of any proceeding that occurred as a result of the initiation of the action, including any orders issued by a court or other body;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any case number, matter number, or designation assigned to the action; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Information on scheduled court or other administrative or regulatory proceedings.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that notice is provided after the initiation of an action, in addition to the requirements set forth in paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the notice shall further include a complete, unredacted copy of any document filed by any party in relation to the action and any orders issued by the court or other body.
</P>
<P>(5) If the State Official, after providing the notice described in paragraphs (c)(1) and (c)(2) of this section, intends to file a complaint, motion for relief, or similar document that is materially different from the document included with the notice, the State Official shall provide a copy of that document prior to filing, in accordance with the method described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bureau response.</I> In any action described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Bureau may:
</P>
<P>(1) Intervene in the action as a party;
</P>
<P>(2) Upon intervening,
</P>
<P>(i) Remove the action to the appropriate United States district court, if the action was not originally brought there; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Be heard on all matters arising in the action;
</P>
<P>(3) Appeal any order or judgment, to the same extent as any other party in the proceeding may; and
</P>
<P>(4) Otherwise participate in the action as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality and privilege.</I> (1) The information described in paragraph (c) of this section, including the complaint, motion for relief, or other document, as well as the fact that notice has been provided, shall be subject to any limitations on disclosure imposed by the State Official pursuant to paragraph (c)(1)(viii) of this section; provided, however, that the recipient may disclose such information:
</P>
<P>(i) As required by law;
</P>
<P>(ii) When the information is or becomes publicly available;
</P>
<P>(iii) With the consent of the State Official; or
</P>
<P>(iv) To another State or Federal government entity when necessary to protect the public interest, after consultation with the State Official who provided the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of notice by a State Official and disclosure of information pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section shall not be deemed a waiver of any applicable privilege.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>No private right of action or defense.</I> The requirements set forth in this section are not intended to, do not, and may not be relied upon to create any right, benefit, or defense, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law by a party against the United States or any State enforcing the provisions of the Dodd-Frank Act or any regulation prescribed thereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 39116, June 29, 2012]






</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1083" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1083—CIVIL PENALTY ADJUSTMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2609(d); 12 U.S.C. 5113(d)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5565(c); 15 U.S.C. 1639e(k); 15 U.S.C. 1717a(a); 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.










</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1083.1" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.16.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1083.1   Adjustment of civil penalty amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The maximum amount of each civil penalty within the jurisdiction of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau to impose is adjusted in accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 and further amended by the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act Improvements Act of 2015 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Law
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Penalty description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Adjusted


<br/>maximum civil

<br/>penalty amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 1 penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$7,217
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(B)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 2 penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,083
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 5565(c)(2)(C)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Tier 3 penalty</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1,443,275
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1717a(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,515
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1717a(a)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annual cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,513,215
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per failure</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">118
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Annual cap</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236,451
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 2609(d)(2)(A)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per failure, where intentional</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">236
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 5113(d)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Per violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">36,439
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First violation</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14,435
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 U.S.C. 1639e(k)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Subsequent violations</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">28,866</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) The adjustments in paragraph (a) of this section shall apply to civil penalties assessed after January 15, 2025, whose associated violations occurred on or after November 2, 2015.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 1356, Jan. 8, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1090" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1090—DEFINING LARGER PARTICIPANTS OF CERTAIN CONSUMER FINANCIAL PRODUCT AND SERVICE MARKETS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(B); 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(2); 12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7)(A); and 12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.100" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.100   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part defines those nonbank covered persons that qualify as larger participants of certain markets for consumer financial products or services pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(B) and (a)(2). A larger participant of a market covered by this part is subject to the supervisory authority of the Bureau under 12 U.S.C. 5514. This part also establishes rules to facilitate the Bureau's supervision of such larger participants pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated company</I> means any company (other than an insured depository institution or insured credit union) that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, a person.
</P>
<P>(1) For purposes of this definition “company” means any corporation, limited liability company, business trust, general or limited partnership, proprietorship, cooperative, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P>(2) A person has control over another person if:
</P>
<P>(i) The person directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons owns, controls, or has power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities or similar ownership interest of the other person;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, members, or general partners of the other person; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The person directly or indirectly exercises a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other person.


</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Completed fiscal year</I> means a tax year including any fiscal year, calendar year, or short tax year. “Fiscal year,” “calendar year,” “tax year,” and “short tax year” have the meanings attributed to them by the IRS as set forth in IRS Publication 538, which provides that:
</P>
<P>(1) A “fiscal year” is 12 consecutive months ending on the last day of any month except December 31.
</P>
<P>(2) A “calendar year” is 12 consecutive months ending on December 31.
</P>
<P>(3) A “tax year” is an annual accounting period for keeping records and reporting income and expenses, or, if appropriate, a short tax year. An annual accounting period does not include a short tax year.
</P>
<P>(4) A “short tax year” is a tax year of less than 12 months.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer financial product or service</I> means any financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15), that is described in one or more categories under:
</P>
<P>(1) 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is offered or provided for use by consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Clause (i), (iii), (ix), or (x) of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is delivered, offered, or provided in connection with a consumer financial product or service referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P><I>Larger participant</I> means a nonbank covered person that has met a test under subpart B of this part within the period provided in § 1090.102 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank covered person</I> means, except for persons described in 12 U.S.C. 5515(a) and 5516(a):
</P>
<P>(1) Any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any affiliate of a person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Supervision and supervisory activity</I> mean the Bureau's exercise, or intended exercise, of supervisory authority, including by initiating or undertaking an examination, or requiring a report of a person, pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514.
</P>
<P><I>Supervision Director</I> means the Supervision Director or any Bureau employee designated by the Director of the Bureau or the Supervision Director to act under this part. The Director of the Bureau may perform the functions of the Supervision Director under this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015; 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.102   Status as larger participant subject to supervision.</HEAD>
<P>A person qualifying as a larger participant under subpart B of this part shall not cease to be a larger participant under this part until two years from the first day of the tax year in which the person last met the applicable test under subpart B.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.103   Assessing status as a larger participant.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a person receives a written communication from the Bureau initiating a supervisory activity pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514, such person may respond by asserting that the person does not meet the definition of a larger participant of a market covered by this part within 45 days of the date of the communication. Such response must be sent to the Supervision Director by electronic transmission at the address included in the communication and must include an affidavit setting forth an explanation of the basis for the person's assertion that it does not meet the definition of larger participant of a market covered by this part and therefore is not subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. In addition, a person may include with the response copies of any records, documents, or other information on which the person relied in making the assertion.
</P>
<P>(b) A person shall be deemed to have waived the opportunity, at any time that it may dispute that it qualifies as a larger participant, to rely on any argument, records, documents, or other information that it fails to submit to the Supervision Director under paragraph (a) of this section. A person who fails to respond to the Bureau's written communication within 45 days will be deemed to have acknowledged that it is a larger participant.
</P>
<P>(c) The Supervision Director shall review the affidavit, any attached records, documents, or other information submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, and any other information the Supervision Director deems relevant, and thereafter send by electronic transmission to the person a statement explaining whether the person meets the definition for a larger participant of a market covered by this part.
</P>
<P>(d) At any time, including prior to issuing the written communication referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, the Supervision Director may require that a person provide to the Bureau such records, documents, and information as the Supervision Director may deem appropriate to assess whether a person qualifies as a larger participant. Persons must provide the requisite records, documents, and other information to the Bureau within the time period specified in the request.
</P>
<P>(e) The Supervision Director, in her or his discretion, may modify any timeframe prescribed by this section on her or his own initiative or for good cause shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 94601, Nov. 29, 2024]








</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Markets</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.104   Consumer Reporting Market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market-Related definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Annual receipts</I> means receipts calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Receipts</I> means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship, “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers and excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; and amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Period of measurement.</I> (A) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person over its three most recently completed fiscal years divided by three.
</P>
<P>(B) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for less than three completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person for the period the person has been in business divided by the number of weeks in business, multiplied by 52.
</P>
<P>(C) Where a person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years, but one of the years within its period of measurement is a short tax year, annual receipts means the total receipts for the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years divided by the total number of weeks in the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years, multiplied by 52.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Annual receipts of affiliated companies.</I> (A) The annual receipts of a person are calculated by adding the annual receipts of the person with the annual receipts of each of its affiliated companies.
</P>
<P>(B) If a person has acquired an affiliated company or been acquired by an affiliated company during the applicable period of measurement, the annual receipts of the person and the affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement (not just the period after the affiliation arose).
</P>
<P>(C) Receipts are calculated separately for the person and each of its affiliated companies in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even though this may result in using a different period of measurement to calculate an affiliated company's annual receipts. Thus, for example, if an affiliated company has been in business for a period of less than three years, the affiliated company's receipts are to be annualized in accordance with paragraph (ii)(B) of this definition even if the person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(D) The annual receipts of a formerly affiliated company are not included in the annual receipts of a nonbank covered person for purposes of this section, if the affiliation ceased before the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition. The annual receipts of a nonbank covered person and its formerly affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement if the affiliation ceased during the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer reporting</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>In general.</I> Consumer reporting means collecting, analyzing, maintaining, or providing consumer report information or other account information used or expected to be used in any decision by another person regarding the offering or provision of any consumer financial product or service.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exclusion for transaction and experience information.</I> Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person collects, analyzes, maintains, or provides information that relates solely to the person's transactions or experiences with consumers.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exclusion for furnishing affiliate information to a consumer reporting entity.</I> Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person provides information that solely relates to transactions or experiences between a consumer and an affiliate of such person to another person that is engaged in consumer reporting.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Exclusion for certain authorizations or approvals.</I> Consumer reporting does not include any authorization or approval of a specific extension of credit directly or indirectly by the issuer of a credit card or similar device.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Exclusion for providing information to be used solely in a decision regarding employment, government licensing, or residential leasing or tenancy.</I> Consumer reporting does not include the activities of a person to the extent that a person provides consumer report or other account information that is used or expected to be used solely regarding a decision for employment, government licensing, or a residential lease or tenancy involving a consumer, or to be used solely in any decision regarding the offering or provision of a product or service that is not a consumer financial product or service.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> A nonbank covered person that offers or provides consumer reporting is a larger participant of the consumer reporting market if the person's annual receipts resulting from consumer reporting are more than $7 million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 42898, July 20, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.105   Consumer debt collection market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market-Related definitions.</I> As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Annual receipts</I> means, for the consumer debt collection market, receipts calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Receipts</I> means “total income” (or in the case of a sole proprietorship, “gross income”) plus “cost of goods sold” as these terms are defined and reported on Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax return forms (such as Form 1120 for corporations; Form 1120S and Schedule K for S corporations; Form 1120, Form 1065 or Form 1040 for LLCs; Form 1065 and Schedule K for partnerships; and Form 1040, Schedule C for sole proprietorships). Receipts do not include net capital gains or losses; taxes collected for and remitted to a taxing authority if included in gross or total income, such as sales or other taxes collected from customers but excluding taxes levied on the entity or its employees; or amounts collected for another (but fees earned in connection with such collections are receipts). Items such as subcontractor costs, reimbursements for purchases a contractor makes at a customer's request, and employee-based costs such as payroll taxes are included in receipts.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Period of measurement.</I> (A) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person over its three most recently completed fiscal years divided by three.
</P>
<P>(B) Annual receipts of a person that has been in business for less than three completed fiscal years means the total receipts of the person for the period the person has been in business divided by the number of weeks in business, multiplied by 52.
</P>
<P>(C) Where a person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years, but one of the years within its period of measurement is a short tax year, annual receipts means the total receipts for the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years divided by the total number of weeks in the short year and the two full fiscal or calendar years, multiplied by 52.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Annual receipts of affiliated companies.</I> (A) The annual receipts of a person are calculated by adding the annual receipts of the person with the annual receipts of each of its affiliated companies.
</P>
<P>(B) If a person has acquired an affiliated company or been acquired by an affiliated company during the applicable period of measurement, the annual receipts of the person and the affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement (not just the period after the affiliation arose).
</P>
<P>(C) Receipts are calculated separately for the person and each of its affiliated companies in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even though this may result in using a different period of measurement to calculate an affiliated company's annual receipts. Thus, for example, if an affiliated company has been in business for a period of less than three years, the affiliated company's receipts are to be annualized in accordance with paragraph (ii) of this definition even if the person has been in business for three or more completed fiscal years.
</P>
<P>(D) The annual receipts of a formerly affiliated company are not included in the annual receipts of a nonbank covered person for purposes of this section if the affiliation ceased before the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition. The annual receipts of a nonbank covered person and its formerly affiliated company are aggregated for the entire period of measurement if the affiliation ceased during the applicable period of measurement as set forth in paragraph (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(E) Annual receipts do not include receipts that result from the collection of debt that was originally owed to a medical provider.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer debt collection</I> is a debt collector's collection of debt incurred by a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes and related to a consumer financial product or service.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> means any person who offers or extends credit creating a debt or to whom a debt is owed, but such term does not include any person to the extent that the person receives an assignment or transfer of a debt in default solely for the purpose of facilitating the collection of debt for another.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collector</I> means any person who uses any instrumentality of interstate commerce or the mails in any business the principal purpose of which is the collection of any debts, or who regularly collects or attempts to collect, directly or indirectly, debts owed or due or asserted to be owed or due to another. Notwithstanding the exclusion provided by paragraph (iii) of this definition, the term includes any creditor who, in the process of collecting his own debts, uses any name other than his own which would indicate that a third person is collecting or attempting to collect such debts. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any person while acting as a debt collector for another person, both of whom are related by common ownership or affiliated by corporate control, if the person acting as a debt collector does so only for persons to whom it is so related or affiliated and if the principal business of such person is not the collection of debts;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any nonprofit organization which, at the request of consumers, performs bona fide consumer credit counseling and assists consumers in the liquidation of their debts by receiving payments from such consumers and distributing such amounts to creditors;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any person collecting or attempting to collect any debt owed or due or asserted to be owed or due another to the extent such activity:
</P>
<P>(A) Concerns a debt which was originated by such person; or
</P>
<P>(B) Concerns a debt which was not in default at the time it was obtained by such person; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any person engaged solely in enforcing a security interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the consumer debt collection market if the nonbank covered person's annual receipts resulting from consumer debt collection are more than $10 million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 65798, Oct. 31, 2012, as amended at 77 FR 72913, Dec. 7, 2012; 80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.106   Student loan servicing market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market-related definitions.</I> As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Account volume</I> means the number of accounts with respect to which a nonbank covered person is considered to perform student loan servicing, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Number of accounts.</I> A nonbank covered person has at least one account for each student or prior student with respect to whom the nonbank covered person performs student loan servicing. If a nonbank covered person is receiving separate fees for performing student loan servicing with respect to a given student or prior student, the nonbank covered person has one account for each stream of fees to which the person is entitled.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Time of measurement.</I> The number of accounts is counted as of December 31 of the prior calendar year.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Affiliated companies.</I> (A) The account volume of a nonbank covered person is the sum of the number of accounts of that nonbank covered person and of any affiliated companies of that person.
</P>
<P>(B) If two persons become affiliated companies, each person's number of accounts as of the prior calendar year's December 31 is included in the total account volume.
</P>
<P>(C) If two affiliated companies cease to be affiliated companies, the number of accounts of each continues to be included in the other's account volume until the succeeding December 31.
</P>
<P><I>Post-secondary education expenses</I> means any of the expenses that are included as part of the cost of attendance of a student as defined in 20 U.S.C. 1087<I>ll.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Post-secondary education loan</I> means a loan that is made, insured or guaranteed under Title IV of the Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. 1070 <I>et seq.</I>) or that is extended to a consumer with the expectation that the funds extended will be used in whole or in part to pay post-secondary education expenses. A loan that is extended in order to refinance or consolidate a consumer's existing post-secondary education loans is also a post-secondary education loan. However, no loan under an open-end credit plan (as defined in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(20)) or loan that is secured by real property is a post-secondary education loan, regardless of the purpose for the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Student loan servicing</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i)(A) Receiving any scheduled periodic payments from a borrower or notification of such payments and
</P>
<P>(B) Applying payments to the borrower's account pursuant to the terms of the post-secondary education loan or of the contract governing the servicing;
</P>
<P>(ii) During a period when no payment is required on a post-secondary education loan,
</P>
<P>(A) Maintaining account records for the loan and
</P>
<P>(B) Communicating with the borrower regarding the loan, on behalf of the loan's holder; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Interactions with a borrower, including activities to help prevent default on obligations arising from post-secondary education loans, conducted to facilitate the activities described in paragraph (i) or (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> A nonbank covered person that offers or provides student loan servicing is a larger participant of the student loan servicing market if the nonbank covered person's account volume exceeds one million.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 73406, Dec. 6, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.107" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.107   International Money Transfer Market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market-related definitions.</I> As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate annual international money transfers</I> means the sum of the annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person and the annual international money transfers of each of the nonbank covered person's affiliated companies.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual international money transfers.</I> Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person means the international money transfers provided by the nonbank covered person during the preceding calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Agents.</I> (A) Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person include international money transfers in which another person acts as an agent on behalf of the nonbank covered person.
</P>
<P>(B) Annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person do not include international money transfers in which another person provided the international money transfers and the nonbank covered person performed activities as an agent on behalf of that other person.
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of this paragraph (ii), agent means an agent or authorized delegate, as defined under State or other applicable law, or affiliated company of a person that provides international money transfers when such agent, authorized delegate, or affiliated company acts for that person.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Aggregating the annual international money transfers of affiliated companies.</I> (A) The annual international money transfers of each affiliated company of a nonbank covered person are calculated separately in accordance with paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this definition, treating the affiliated company as if it were an independent nonbank covered person for purposes of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(B) The annual international money transfers of a nonbank covered person must be aggregated with the annual international money transfers of any person that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time during the preceding calendar year. The annual international money transfers of the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Designated recipient</I> means any person specified by the sender as the authorized recipient of an international money transfer to be received at a location in a foreign country.
</P>
<P><I>International money transfer</I> means the electronic transfer of funds requested by a sender to a designated recipient that is sent by an international money transfer provider. The term applies regardless of whether the sender holds an account with the international money transfer provider, and regardless of whether the transaction is also an electronic fund transfer, as defined in § 1005.3(b) of this chapter. The term does not include any transfer that is excluded from the definition of “electronic fund transfer” under § 1005.3(c)(4) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>International money transfer provider</I> means any nonbank covered person that provides international money transfers for a consumer, regardless of whether the consumer holds an account with such person.
</P>
<P><I>Sender</I> means a consumer in a State who primarily for personal, family, or household purposes requests an international money transfer provider to send an international money transfer to a designated recipient.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the international money transfer market if the nonbank covered person has at least one million aggregate annual international money transfers.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 56650, Sept. 23, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.108" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.108   Automobile financing market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Market-related definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate annual originations</I> means the sum of the number of annual originations of a nonbank covered person and the number of annual originations of each of the nonbank covered person's affiliated companies, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual Originations.</I> (A) Annual originations means the sum of the following transactions for the preceding calendar year:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Credit granted for the purpose of purchasing an automobile;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Automobile leases;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Refinancings of obligations described in (i)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this definition that are secured by an automobile, and any subsequent refinancings thereof that are secured by an automobile; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Purchases or acquisitions of obligations described in (i)(A)(<I>1</I>), (<I>2</I>), or (<I>3</I>) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(B) The term annual originations does not include:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Investments in asset-backed securities; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Purchases or acquisitions of obligations by a special purpose entity established for the purpose of facilitating asset-backed securities transactions if the purchases or acquisitions are made for the purpose of facilitating an asset-backed securities transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregating the annual originations of affiliated companies.</I> The annual originations of a nonbank covered person must be aggregated with the annual originations of any person (other than an entity described in paragraph (c) of this section) that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time during the preceding calendar year. The annual originations of a nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile</I> means any self-propelled vehicle primarily used for personal, family, or household purposes for on-road transportation. The term does not include motor homes, recreational vehicles (RVs), golf carts, and motor scooters.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile financing</I> means providing or engaging in the transactions identified under the term “Annual originations” as defined in this section.
</P>
<P><I>Automobile lease</I> means a lease that is for the use of an automobile, as defined in this section, and that meets the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A)(ii) or 12 CFR 1001.2(a).
</P>
<P><I>Refinancing</I> has the same meaning as in 12 CFR 1026.20(a), except that the nonbank covered person need not be the original creditor or a holder or servicer of the original obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, a nonbank covered person that engages in automobile financing is a larger participant of the automobile financing market if the person has at least 10,000 aggregate annual originations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exclusion for dealers.</I> The following entities do not qualify as larger participants under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Persons excluded from the Bureau's authority by 12 U.S.C. 5519; and
</P>
<P>(2) Persons who meet the definition in 12 U.S.C. 5519(f)(2); are identified in 12 U.S.C. 5519(b)(2); and are predominantly engaged in the sale and servicing of motor vehicles (as that term is defined in 12 U.S.C. 5519(f)(1)), the leasing and servicing of motor vehicles, or both.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 37526, June 30, 2015]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1090.109" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.17.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1090.109   General-use digital consumer payment applications market.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Market definition. Providing a general-use digital consumer payment application</I> means providing a covered payment functionality through a digital payment application for consumers' general use in making consumer payment transaction(s) as defined in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Market-related definitions.</I> As used in this section:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Consumer payment transaction(s)</I> means, except for transactions excluded under paragraphs (a)(2)(i)(A) through (D) of this section, the transfer of funds by or on behalf of a consumer who resides in a State to another person primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. The term applies to transfers of consumer funds and transfers made by extending consumer credit, except for the following transactions:
</P>
<P>(A) An international money transfer as defined in § 1090.107(a);
</P>
<P>(B) A transfer of funds by a consumer:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) That is linked to the consumer's receipt of a different form of funds, such as a transaction for foreign exchange as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(16); or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) That is excluded from the definition of “electronic fund transfer” under § 1005.3(c)(4) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(C) A payment transaction conducted by a person for the sale or lease of goods or services that a consumer selected from that person or its affiliated company's online or physical store or marketplace, or for a donation to a fundraiser that a consumer selected from that person or its affiliated company's platform; and
</P>
<P>(D) An extension of consumer credit initiated through a digital application that is provided by a person who is extending, brokering, acquiring, or purchasing the credit or that person's affiliated company.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Covered payment functionality</I> means a funds transfer functionality as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(A) of this section, a wallet functionality as defined in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, or both.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Funds transfer functionality</I> means, in connection with a consumer payment transaction:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Receiving funds from a consumer for the purpose of transmitting them; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Accepting from a consumer and transmitting payment instructions.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Payment wallet functionality</I> means a product or service that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Stores for a consumer account or payment credentials, including in encrypted or tokenized form; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Transmits, routes, or otherwise processes such stored account or payment credentials to facilitate a consumer payment transaction.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Digital payment application,</I> for purposes of this subpart, means a software program a consumer may access through a personal computing device, including but not limited to a mobile phone, smart watch, tablet, laptop computer, or desktop computer. Examples of digital payment applications covered by this definition include an application a consumer downloads to a personal computing device, a website a consumer accesses by using an internet browser on a personal computing device, or a program the consumer activates from a personal computing device using a personal identifier such as a passkey, password, PIN, or consumer's biometric identifier, such as a fingerprint, palmprint, face, eyes, or voice. Operating a web browser is not an example of providing a digital payment application.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>General use,</I> for purposes of this subpart, means usable for a consumer to transfer funds in a consumer payment transaction to multiple, unaffiliated persons, subject to an exception for a payment functionality provided through a digital consumer payment application solely for the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Using accounts described in § 1005.2(b)(3)(ii)(A), (C) or (D) of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(B) To pay a specific debt or type of debt including:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Debts owed in connection with origination or repayment of an extension of consumer credit; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Debts in default.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>State</I> means any State, territory, or possession of the United States; the District of Columbia; the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico; or any political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Test to define larger participants.</I> A nonbank covered person is a larger participant of the general-use digital consumer payment applications market if the nonbank covered person met both of the following criteria during the preceding calendar year:
</P>
<P>(1) It provided annual covered consumer payment transaction volume as defined in paragraph (b)(3) of this section of at least 50 million consumer payment transactions; and
</P>
<P>(2) It was not a “small business concern” as that term is defined by section 3(a) of the Small Business Act, 15 U.S.C. 632(a) and implemented by the Small Business Administration under 13 CFR part 121, or any successor provisions.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual covered consumer payment transaction volume</I> means the sum of the number of consumer payment transactions denominated in U.S. dollars that the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies facilitated in the preceding calendar year by providing general-use digital consumer payment applications.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Method of aggregating the annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of affiliated companies.</I> The annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of each affiliated company of a nonbank covered person is first calculated separately, treating the affiliated company as if it were an independent nonbank covered person for purposes of the calculation. The annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of a nonbank covered person then must be aggregated with the separately-calculated annual covered consumer payment transaction volume of each person that was an affiliated company of the nonbank covered person at any time in the preceding calendar year. However, if any two or more of these companies facilitated a single consumer payment transaction denominated in U.S. dollars, that consumer payment transaction shall only be counted one time in the aggregated annual covered consumer payment volume calculation. The annual covered consumer payment transaction volumes of the nonbank covered person and its affiliated companies are aggregated for the entire preceding calendar year, even if the affiliation did not exist for the entire calendar year.
</P>
<P>(ii) [Reserved]


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 99653, Dec. 10, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1091" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1091—PROCEDURES FOR SUPERVISORY DESIGNATION PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5512(b)(1), 5514(a)(1)(C), 5514(b)(7).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 46040, Sept. 25, 2025, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.100" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.100   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth procedures to implement section 1024(a)(1)(C) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010, Public Law 111-203 (12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C)) (Dodd-Frank Act), and establishes rules to facilitate the Bureau's supervisory authority over certain nonbank covered persons pursuant to section 1024(b)(7) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5514(b)(7)).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.101" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Bureau</I> means the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer</I> means an individual or an agent, trustee, or representative acting on behalf of an individual.
</P>
<P><I>Consumer financial product or service</I> means any financial product or service, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 5481(15), that is described in one or more categories under:
</P>
<P>(1) 12 U.S.C. 5481(15) and is offered or provided for use by consumers primarily for personal, family, or household purposes; or
</P>
<P>(2) Clause (i), (iii), (ix), or (x) of 12 U.S.C. 5481(15)(A) and is delivered, offered, or provided in connection with a consumer financial product or service referred to in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Decisional employee</I> means any employee of the Bureau who has not engaged in:
</P>
<P>(1) Assisting the initiating official in either determining whether to issue a Notice of Reasonable Cause, or presenting the initiating official's position in support of a Notice of Reasonable Cause, either in writing or in a supplemental oral response, to the recommending official; or
</P>
<P>(2) Assisting the recommending official in the preparation of a recommended determination.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Bureau or his or her designee. If there is no Director, the term shall mean a person authorized to perform the functions of the Director under this part, or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Executive Secretary</I> means the Executive Secretary of the Bureau.
</P>
<P><I>Initiating official</I> means the Supervision Director or another Bureau employee designated by the Director to initiate proceedings under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank covered person</I> means, except for persons described in 12 U.S.C. 5515(a) and 5516(a):
</P>
<P>(1) Any person that engages in offering or providing a consumer financial product or service; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any affiliate of a person described in paragraph (1) of this definition if such affiliate acts as a service provider to such person.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of Reasonable Cause and Notice</I> mean a Notice issued under § 1091.102.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, partnership, company, corporation, association (incorporated or unincorporated), trust, estate, cooperative organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Recommending official</I> means an employee designated by the Director to make a recommended determination under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means a person who has been issued a Notice of Reasonable Cause under § 1091.102.
</P>
<P><I>Response</I> means the response to a Notice of Reasonable Cause filed by a respondent with the recommending official under § 1091.105.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Determination and Voluntary Consent Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.102" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.102   Issuance of Notice of Reasonable Cause.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An initiating official is authorized to issue a Notice of Reasonable Cause to a person stating that the Bureau may have reasonable cause to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.
</P>
<P>(b) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall be based on:
</P>
<P>(1) Complaints collected through the system under 12 U.S.C. 5493(b)(3); or
</P>
<P>(2) Information from other sources.
</P>
<P>(c) Except as provided in § 1091.111, a Notice of Reasonable Cause shall contain the information set forth in § 1091.103, and be served on respondent as described in § 1091.104.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.103" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.103   Contents of Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall contain the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the basis for the assertion that the Bureau may have reasonable cause to determine that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services, including a summary of the documents, records, or other items relied on by the initiating official to issue a Notice. Such summary will be consistent with the protection of sensitive information, including compliance with Federal privacy law and whistleblower protections; and
</P>
<P>(2) A statement informing a respondent that:
</P>
<P>(i) A respondent may file with the recommending official a written response to a Notice of Reasonable Cause no later than 30 days after the Notice is served on the respondent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The written response shall include the elements addressed in § 1091.105(b);
</P>
<P>(iii) A respondent may request in its written response to a Notice an opportunity to present a supplemental oral response to the recommending official as set forth in § 1091.106, including its preference that the supplemental oral response be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC;
</P>
<P>(iv) A failure timely to file a response to a Notice shall constitute a waiver of a respondent's right to respond, and may result in a default determination by the Director, based on the Notice, that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services and the issuance of a decision and order subjecting a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C);
</P>
<P>(v) The recommending official shall serve a respondent with a notice of the date and time of a supplemental oral response, if a respondent has requested the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, within 14 days of the recommending official's receipt of a timely-filed response;
</P>
<P>(vi) If a respondent has not requested the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, the recommending official shall, not later than 45 days after receiving a timely-filed response, or not later than 45 days after the service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause when a respondent fails to file a timely response, provide a recommended determination to the Director including either a proposed decision and order subjecting a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C), or a proposed notification that the Bureau has determined not to subject a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority at that time, pursuant to § 1091.108; and
</P>
<P>(vii) In connection with a proceeding under this part, including a petition for termination under § 1091.113, all documents, records or other items submitted by a respondent to the Bureau, all documents prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau, and any communications between the Bureau and a person, shall be deemed confidential supervisory information under 12 CFR 1070.2(i).
</P>
<P>(b) A Notice shall be accompanied by a proposed consent agreement under § 1091.110.
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring the Bureau to produce any documents or other information to a respondent other than as set forth in this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.104" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.104   Service of Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Notice of Reasonable Cause shall be served on a respondent as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>To individuals.</I> A Notice shall be served on a respondent that is a natural person by delivering a copy of the Notice to the individual or to an agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive such a Notice. Delivery, for purposes of this paragraph, means handing a copy of a Notice to the individual; or leaving a copy at the individual's office with a clerk or other person in charge thereof; or leaving a copy at the individual's dwelling house or usual place of abode with some person of suitable age and discretion then residing therein; or sending a copy of a Notice addressed to the individual through the U.S. Postal Service by Registered Mail, Certified Mail or Express Mail delivery, or by third-party commercial carrier, for overnight delivery and obtaining a confirmation of receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>To corporations or entities.</I> Notice shall be served on a person other than an individual by delivering a copy of a Notice to an officer, managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or law to receive such a Notice, by any method specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Upon persons registered with the Bureau.</I> In addition to any other method of service specified in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, Notice may be served on a person registered with the Bureau by sending a copy of a Notice addressed to the most recent business address shown on the person's registration form by U.S. Postal Service Certified, Registered, or Express Mail and obtaining a confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Upon persons in a foreign country.</I> Notice may be served on a person in a foreign country by any method specified in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, or by any other method reasonably calculated to give notice, provided that the method of service used is not prohibited by the law of the foreign country.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record of service.</I> The Bureau shall maintain a record of service of a Notice on a respondent, identifying the party given Notice, the method of service, the date of service, the address to which service was made, and the person who made service. If service is made in person, the certificate of service shall state, if available, the name of the individual to whom a Notice was given. If service is made by U.S. Postal Service Registered Mail, Certified Mail, or Express Mail, the Bureau shall maintain the confirmation of receipt or attempted delivery.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Waiver of service.</I> In lieu of service as set forth in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, a person may be provided a copy of a Notice by First Class Mail or other reliable means if a written waiver of service is obtained from the person to be served. In the case of a respondent that is not a natural person, a written waiver may be provided by an officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent.
</P>
<P>(b) The initiating official shall promptly submit a copy of a Notice and a copy of the certificate of service to the recommending official.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.105" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.105   Response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing.</I> Within 30 days of service of a Notice, a respondent shall file any response with the recommending official according to the instructions set forth in a Notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of the response.</I> (1) The response shall set forth the basis for a respondent's contention that the respondent is not a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.
</P>
<P>(2) The response shall include all documents, records, or other evidence a respondent wishes to use to support the arguments or assertions set forth in the response.
</P>
<P>(3) Any request to present a supplemental oral response, including the respondent's preference that the supplemental oral response be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC, must be included in the response. A respondent's failure to request to present a supplemental oral response shall constitute a waiver of the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response.
</P>
<P>(4) A response shall include an affidavit or declaration, made by the individual respondent if a natural person, or, if a corporate or other entity that is not a natural person, by an officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent, affirming that the response is true and accurate and does not contain any omissions that would cause the response to be materially misleading.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this paragraph (b), a respondent may respond to a Notice of Reasonable Cause by voluntarily consenting to the Bureau's authority to supervise the respondent under 12 U.S.C. 5514 by completing and executing the consent agreement form provided to the respondent with a Notice of Reasonable Cause in accordance with § 1091.103(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default.</I> Failure of a respondent to file a response within the time period set forth in paragraph (a) of this section shall constitute a waiver of the respondent's right to respond, and shall, based on the Notice, authorize the recommending official, without further notice to the respondent, to issue a proposed decision and order as provided in § 1091.108(c)(1) and the Director to issue a decision and order as provided in § 1091.109(a)(1).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver.</I> A respondent shall be deemed to have waived the right, at any future stage of the recommending official's or the Director's consideration of a matter, and in any petition for judicial review of an order issued pursuant to § 1091.109(a)(1), to rely on any argument, record, document, or other information that the respondent does not raise or include in its response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No discovery.</I> There shall be no discovery in connection with a response.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reply by initiating official.</I> If the respondent files a written response, within 21 days the initiating official may file a reply with the recommending official and serve it on the respondent.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.106" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.106   Supplemental oral response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A respondent may request in a response under § 1091.105 the opportunity to present to the recommending official a supplemental oral response in support of a respondent's assertion that the respondent is not a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.
</P>
<P>(b) The conduct of a supplemental oral response shall be subject to the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) The recommending official will determine whether the supplemental oral response will be by telephone, by video conference, or in person at the Bureau's headquarters in Washington, DC, after considering the preference of the respondent stated in the written response;
</P>
<P>(2) The recommending official may impose any limitations on the conduct of a supplemental oral response, including but not limited to establishing a time limit for the presentation of a supplemental oral response, and limiting the subjects to be addressed in a supplemental oral response;
</P>
<P>(3) There shall be no discovery permitted or witnesses called in connection with a supplemental oral response;
</P>
<P>(4) If a respondent is a corporate or other entity, and not a natural person, the respondent shall be represented in any supplemental oral response by:
</P>
<P>(i) An officer, managing or general member, or partner authorized to represent the respondent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An attorney in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State.
</P>
<P>(5) If a respondent is a natural person, the respondent shall be represented in any supplemental oral response by:
</P>
<P>(i) Himself or herself; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An attorney in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State.
</P>
<P>(6) The recommending official shall cause an audio recording of a supplemental oral response to be made by a court reporter. A respondent may purchase a copy or transcript of the recording at the respondent's own expense.
</P>
<P>(c) The initiating official may participate in any supplemental oral response conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) The Associate Director shall serve on a respondent, within 14 days after the Associate Director receives the respondent's timely-filed response requesting a supplemental oral response, a notice setting forth the date, time, and general information relating to the conduct of a supplemental oral response. The date of a supplemental oral response shall be scheduled not less than ten days after the date the respondent is served with the notice of supplemental oral response.
</P>
<P>(e) The notice of supplemental oral response shall be served on a respondent pursuant to § 1091.107.
</P>
<P>(f) The recommending official shall send a copy of the notice of supplemental oral response to the initiating official.
</P>
<P>(g) A respondent's failure to participate in a supplemental oral response scheduled by the recommending official shall constitute the respondent's waiver of the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.107" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.107   Manner of filing and serving papers.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise specified by the recommending official or Director, a respondent shall file the response and any other paper with the Executive Secretary at the mailing or electronic address provided by the Bureau, and the initiating official, recommending official, and Director shall serve any paper, other than a Notice as set forth in § 1091.104, on a respondent, by:
</P>
<P>(a) Electronic transmission upon any condition specified by the recommending official or Director; or
</P>
<P>(b) Any of the following methods if a respondent demonstrates electronic filing is not practicable and the recommending official or Director permits:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal delivery;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivery through a reliable commercial courier service or overnight delivery service; or
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by U.S. Postal Service First Class, Registered, Certified, or Express Mail.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.108" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.108   Recommended determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a respondent did not voluntarily consent to the Bureau's supervision authority, and did not request the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, not later than 45 days after receipt of a timely-filed response, or not later than 45 days after the service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause when a respondent fails to file a timely response, the recommending official shall make a recommended determination whether there is reasonable cause for the Bureau to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services which should result in an order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).
</P>
<P>(b) If a respondent did request the opportunity to present a supplemental oral response, not later than 90 days after service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause, the recommending official shall make a recommended determination whether there is reasonable cause for the Bureau to determine that the respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services which should result in an order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).
</P>
<P>(c) Upon making the recommended determination described in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, the recommending official shall submit to the Director either:
</P>
<P>(1) A proposed decision and order that would subject a respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) if adopted by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(2) A proposed notification that a respondent should not be subjected to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) based on the proceedings. Such a notification shall have no precedential effect and shall not prevent the issuance of another Notice of Reasonable Cause pursuant to either § 1091.102, or the procedures set forth in § 1091.111, at any time, or from issuance of a decision and order based on another Notice recommending that a respondent be subject to the Bureau's authority pursuant to either of those sections.
</P>
<P>(d) Any proposed decision and order issued by the recommending official pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall set forth:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the recommending official has preliminarily determined based on reasonable cause that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services;
</P>
<P>(2) The basis for the recommending official's determination; and
</P>
<P>(3) A proposed order directing that, pursuant to this determination, as of a specified date a respondent shall be subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514.
</P>
<P>(e) The recommending official shall include with the recommended determination submitted to the Director copies of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Notice of Reasonable Cause;
</P>
<P>(2) The record of service of a Notice of Reasonable Cause;
</P>
<P>(3) A respondent's response and any documents, records, or other items filed with the written response;
</P>
<P>(4) Any document, record, or other item considered by the recommending official to be material in making a recommended determination; and
</P>
<P>(5) An audio recording of a supplemental oral response, if a supplemental oral response was conducted, and/or a transcript if a transcript was prepared at a respondent's request or if requested by the Director.
</P>
<P>(f) The requirement that the recommending official provide to the Director the items described in paragraph (e) of this section shall confer no substantive rights on a respondent and any omission of an item may be cured by the recommending official to the extent applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Supplemental briefing.</I> The recommending official may, at any time before making a recommended determination, request that the respondent and initiating official provide any supplemental briefing that the recommending official considers appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.109" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.109   Determination by the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not later than 45 days after receipt of the recommending official's recommended determination, the Director shall, after considering the recommended determination and all documents, records, and other items submitted therewith by the recommending official, make a determination either adopting without revision, modifying, or rejecting the recommended determination, and shall issue to respondent, with copies to the recommending official and the initiating official:
</P>
<P>(1) A decision and order subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's supervisory authority pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C); or
</P>
<P>(2) A notification that the Director has determined that the respondent is not subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) as a result of the proceedings. Such notification shall have no precedential effect and shall not prevent the issuance of another Notice of Reasonable Cause pursuant to either § 1091.102, or the procedures set forth in § 1091.111, at any time, or the issuance of an order based on another Notice subjecting the respondent to the Bureau's authority pursuant to either of those sections.
</P>
<P>(b) Any decision and order issued by the Director pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement that the Director adopts the recommending official's proposed decision and order without revision as the Director's decision and order, or that the Director rejects or modifies the recommending official's proposed determination for reasons set forth by the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the Director has determined that the Bureau has reasonable cause to determine that a respondent is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services;
</P>
<P>(3) The basis for the Director's determination, which may be an adoption of the basis set forth in the recommending official's proposed decision;
</P>
<P>(4) An order directing that, pursuant to this determination, as of a specified date a respondent shall be subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514 and informing a respondent that the respondent may petition for termination of the Bureau's supervisory authority no sooner than two years from the date of the order, and no more than annually thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the recommended determination issued by the recommending official.
</P>
<P>(c) Only decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of a proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) A decision and order issued pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall constitute final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 704.
</P>
<P>(e) Any item required to be served on a respondent under this section shall be served pursuant to § 1091.107.
</P>
<P>(f) The Director may, at any time before making a determination, request that the respondent and initiating official provide any supplemental briefing that the Director considers appropriate.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.110" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.110   Voluntary consent to Bureau's authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) At any time, a person and the initiating official may enter into a consent agreement by which the person voluntarily consents to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. The consent agreement shall constitute an order authorized by 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).
</P>
<P>(b) A consent agreement under this section does not constitute an admission that a person is a nonbank covered person that is engaging, or has engaged, in conduct that poses risks to consumers with regard to the offering or provision of consumer financial products or services.
</P>
<P>(c) A consent agreement may specify a period of time that the person will be subject to the Bureau's authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514. If the consent agreement specifies a period of time, it shall not be eligible for a petition for termination pursuant to § 1091.113. If the consent agreement does not specify a period of time, the consent agreement will continue until terminated pursuant to § 1091.113.
</P>
<P>(d) A consent agreement under this section shall state that the person waives any right to judicial review of the consent agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) The initiating official encloses a proposed consent agreement with the Notice of Reasonable Cause under § 1091.103(b).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.111" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.111   Notice and response included in adjudication proceeding otherwise brought by the Bureau.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Notwithstanding §§ 1091.102 through 1091.106, the Bureau may, in its discretion, provide the notice and opportunity to respond required by 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) in a notice of charges otherwise brought by the Bureau pursuant to 12 CFR 1081.200 and the adjudication proceedings pursuant to part 1081. Also, a person may agree to submit to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C) as part of a consent order entered into in connection with an adjudication proceeding or civil action.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Bureau chooses to proceed in the manner described in paragraph (a) of this section, it shall so indicate in the notice of charges, and any order of the Director resulting from the notice of charges shall constitute the order referred to in 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).
</P>
<P>(c) If the Bureau proceeds pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, the provisions of §§ 1091.101 through 1091.110, and §§ 1091.113 through 1091.115 will be inapplicable to such proceeding.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.112" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.112   No limitation on relief sought in civil action or administrative adjudication.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall be construed to limit the relief the Bureau may seek in any civil action or administrative adjudication, including but not limited to, seeking an order to have a person deemed subject to the Bureau's supervisory authority under 12 U.S.C. 5514, including for the reasons set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1)(C).




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Post-Determination Procedures</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.113" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.113   Petition for termination of order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any person subject to an order issued pursuant to § 1091.109(a)(1) may, no sooner than two years after issuance of such an order and no more frequently than annually thereafter, petition the Director for termination of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) A petition for termination submitted pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section shall set forth the reasons supporting termination of the order, including any actions taken by a respondent since issuance of the order to address the conduct that led to issuance of the order, and may include any supporting information or evidence that the petitioner believes is relevant to the Director's determination of the matter.
</P>
<P>(c) A petition for termination shall be filed by the petitioner with the Executive Secretary at the mailing or electronic address provided by the Bureau.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director shall, promptly upon receipt of a petition for termination, send a copy of the same to the initiating official.
</P>
<P>(1) The initiating official may, within 30 days of his or her receipt of a copy of a petition for termination, file with the Director a response to the petition stating whether the initiating official recommends that the order be terminated, or modified, or that the petition for termination be denied and the basis for such recommendation.
</P>
<P>(2) The initiating official shall serve a copy of the response to a petition for termination on the petitioner pursuant to § 1091.107 at the time of filing it with the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) Not later than 90 days after submission of a petition under paragraph (a) of this section, the Director shall issue a written decision either terminating or modifying the order, or denying the petition. If the Director modifies the order or denies the petition, the Director shall explain the basis for his or her decision with respect to the petition and send the written decision to the petitioner and the initiating official.
</P>
<P>(1) The Director shall serve the written decision on a petition for termination of order on a respondent pursuant to § 1091.107.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director shall send a copy of the written decision on a petition for termination of order to the recommending official and initiating official promptly upon issuing the written decision.
</P>
<P>(3) The decision of the Director made pursuant to this paragraph (e) shall constitute final agency action under 5 U.S.C. 704.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Time Limits and Deadlines</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.114" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.114   Construction of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed by this part, or by order of the recommending official or Director, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. The last day so computed is included unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday as set forth in 5 U.S.C. 6103(a). When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time, except when the time period within which an act is to be performed is ten days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing or service of papers.</I> Filing and service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of personal service or same day commercial courier delivery, upon actual receipt by the person served;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Postal Service Express Mail delivery, or First Class, Registered, or Certified Mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection; or
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of electronic transmission, including email, upon transmission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time limits are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by U.S. Postal Service First Class, Registered, or Certified Mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period;
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by Express Mail or overnight delivery service, add one calendar day to the prescribed period; or
</P>
<P>(3) If service is made by electronic transmission, add one calendar day to the prescribed period.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1091.115" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.18.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1091.115   Change of time limits and confidentiality of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided by law, the recommending official until the issuance of a recommended determination, or the Director at any time thereafter, at their respective discretion, may extend the time limits prescribed by this part or by any notice or order issued pursuant to this part. Any request for an extension of a time limit by a respondent must be for good cause shown, in writing, and filed with the recommending official or Director, as appropriate. The mere filing of a written request for an extension does not alleviate a respondent of the obligation to meet an applicable time limit absent written confirmation that an extension has been granted.
</P>
<P>(b) Deadlines for action by the initiating official, recommending official, or the Director established in this part confer no substantive rights on respondents.
</P>
<P>(c) In connection with a proceeding under this part, including a petition for termination under § 1091.113, all documents, records or other items submitted by a respondent to the Bureau, all documents prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of the Bureau, and any communications between the Bureau and a person, shall be deemed confidential supervisory information under 12 CFR 1070.2(i).




























</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1092-1099" NODE="12:9.0.1.1.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1092-1099 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
<ECFRBRWS>
<AMDDATE>June 25, 2026
</AMDDATE>

<DIV1 N="10" NODE="12:10" TYPE="TITLE">

<HEAD>Title 12—Banks and Banking--Volume 10</HEAD>
<CFRTOC>
<PTHD>Part
</PTHD>
<CHAPTI>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xi</E>—Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1101
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xii</E>—Federal Housing Finance Agency
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1206
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xiii</E>—Financial Stability Oversight Council
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1301
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xiv</E>—Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1400
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xv</E>—Department of the Treasury
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1510
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvi</E>—Office of Financial Research, Department of the Treasury
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1600
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xvii</E>—Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight, Department of Housing and Urban Development
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1700
</PG>
<SUBJECT><E T="04">chapter xviii</E>—Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, Department of the Treasury 
</SUBJECT>
<PG>1805


</PG></CHAPTI></CFRTOC>

<DIV3 N="XI" NODE="12:10.0.1" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XI—FEDERAL FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS EXAMINATION COUNCIL</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1100" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1100 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1101" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1101—DESCRIPTION OF OFFICE, PROCEDURES, PUBLIC INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552; 12 U.S.C. 3307.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>45 FR 46794, July 11, 1980, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1101.1" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1101.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part implements the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA), 5 U.S.C. 552, with respect to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (Council), and establishes related information disclosure procedures. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1101.2" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1101.2   Authority and functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Council was established by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Act of 1978 (Act), 12 U.S.C. 3301-3308. It is composed of the Comptroller of the Currency; the Chairman of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; a Governor of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System; the Chairman of the Federal Home Loan Bank Board; and the Chairman of the National Credit Union Administration Board. 
</P>
<P>(b) The statutory functions of the Council are set out at 12 U.S.C. 3305. In summary, the mission of the Council is to promote consistency and progress in federal examination and supervision of financial institutions and their affiliates. The Council is empowered to prescribe uniform principles, standards, and reporting forms and systems; make recommendations in the interest of uniformity; and conduct examiner schools open to personnel of the agencies represented on the Council and employees of state financial institutions supervisory agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1101.3" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1101.3   Organization and methods of operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Statutory requirements relating to the Council's organization are stated in 12 U.S.C. 3303. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Council staff.</I> Administrative support and substantive coordination for Council activities are provided by a small staff detailed on a full-time basis from the five member agencies. The Executive Secretary and Deputy Executive Secretary of the Council supervise this staff. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency Liaison Group, Task Forces and Legal Advisory Group.</I> Most staff support in the substantive areas of the Council's duties is provided by interagency task forces and the Council's Legal Advisory Group (LAG). These task forces and the LAG are responsible for securing the services, as needed, of staff experts from the five agencies; supervising research and other investigative work for the Council; and preparing reports and recommendations for the Council. The Agency Liaison Group (ALG) is responsible for the overall coordination of the respective agencies' staff contributions to Council business. The ALG, the task forces, and the LAG are each composed of Council member agency staff serving the Council on a part-time basis. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>State Liaison Committee.</I> Under 12 U.S.C. 3306, the Council has established a State Liaison Committee, composed of five representatives of state financial institutions supervisory agencies. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Council address.</I> Council offices are located at 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[45 FR 46794, July 11, 1980, as amended at 53 FR 7341, Mar. 8, 1988; 75 FR 71014, Nov. 22, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1101.4" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1101.4   Disclosure of information, policies, and records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statements of policy published in the</I> <I>Federal Register</I> <I>or available for public inspection in an electronic format; indices.</I> (1) Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(l), the Council publishes general rules, policies and interpretations in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.
</P>
<P>(2) Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), policies and interpretations adopted by the Council, including instructions to Council staff affecting members of the public are available for public inspection in an electronic format at the office of the Executive Secretary of the Council, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550, during regular business hours. Policies and interpretations of the Council may be withheld from disclosure under the principles stated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, are available for public inspection in an electronic format if they:
</P>
<P>(i) Have been released to any person under paragraph (b) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Because of the nature of their subject matter, the Council determines that they have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records; or
</P>
<P>(B) They have been requested three or more times.
</P>
<P>(4) An index of the records referred to in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section is available for public inspection in an electronic format.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other records of the Council available to the public upon request; procedures</I>—(1) <I>General rule and exemptions.</I> Under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3), all other records of the Council are available to the public upon request, except to the extent exempted from disclosure as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) and described in this paragraph (b)(1), or if disclosure is prohibited by law. Unless specifically authorized by the Council, or as set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the following records, and portions thereof, are not available to the public:
</P>
<P>(i) A record, or portion thereof, which is specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and which is, in fact, properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order.
</P>
<P>(ii) A record, or portion thereof, relating solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of an agency.
</P>
<P>(iii) A record, or portion thereof, specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552b), provided that such statute:
</P>
<P>(A) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or
</P>
<P>(B) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld.
</P>
<P>(iv) A record, or portion thereof, containing trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential.
</P>
<P>(v) An intra-agency or interagency memorandum or letter that would not be routinely available by law to a private party in litigation, including, but not limited to, memoranda, reports, and other documents prepared by the personnel of the Council or its constituent agencies, and records of deliberations of the Council and discussions of meetings of the Council, any Council Committee, or Council staff, that are not subject to 5 U.S.C. 552b (the Government in the Sunshine Act). In applying this exemption, the Council will not withhold records based on the deliberative process privilege if the records were created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(vi) A personnel, medical, or similar record, including a financial record, or any portion thereof, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy.
</P>
<P>(vii) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, to the extent permitted under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(7), including records relating to a proceeding by a financial institution's State or Federal regulatory agency for the issuance of a cease-anddesist order, or order of suspension or removal, or assessment of a civil money penalty and the granting, withholding, or revocation of any approval, permission, or authority.
</P>
<P>(viii) A record, or portion thereof, containing, relating to, or derived from an examination, operating, or condition report prepared by, or on behalf of, or for the use of any State or Federal agency directly or indirectly responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(ix) A record, or portion thereof, which contains or is related to geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discretionary release of exempt information.</I> Notwithstanding the applicability of an exemption, the Council will only withhold records requested under this paragraph (b) if the Council reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by an exemption listed in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) and described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. In addition, whenever the Council determines that full disclosure of a requested record is not possible, the Council will consider whether partial disclosure is possible and will take reasonable steps necessary to segregate and release the nonexempt portion of a record. The Council or the Council's designee may elect, under the circumstances of a particular request, to disclose all or a portion of any requested record where permitted by law. Such disclosure has no precedential significance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedure for records request</I>-(i) <I>Initial request.</I> Requests for records shall be submitted in writing to the Executive Secretary of the Council:
</P>
<P>(A) By sending a letter to: FFIEC, Attn: Executive Secretary, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-708la, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550. Both the mailing envelope and the request should be marked “Freedom of Information Request,” “FOIA Request,” or the like; or
</P>
<P>(B) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request,” “FOIA Request,” or the like to the Executive Secretary at (703) 562-6446; or
</P>
<P>(C) By email to the address provided on the FFIEC's World Wide Web page, found at: <I>http://www.ffiec.gov.</I> Requests must reasonably describe the records sought.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Contents of request.</I> All requests should contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and mailing address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;
</P>
<P>(B) A statement as to whether the information is intended for commercial use, and whether the requester is an educational or noncommercial scientific institution, or news media representative; and
</P>
<P>(C) A statement agreeing to pay all applicable fees, or a statement identifying any desired fee limitation, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(H) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Defective requests.</I> The Council need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this section. The Executive Secretary may return a defective request specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as an initial request.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (A) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the Executive Secretary has determined to expedite the response, the Executive Secretary shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The requester is primarily engaged in information dissemination as a main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the request.
</P>
<P>(B) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(C) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment may be waived by the Executive Secretary as a matter of administrative discretion.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Response to initial requests.</I> (A) Except where the Executive Secretary has determined to expedite the processing of a request, the Executive Secretary will respond by mail or electronic mail to all properly submitted initial requests within 20 working days of receipt. The time for response may be extended up to 10 additional working days in unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), where the Council has provided written notice to the requester setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched. In addition, where the extension of the 20-day time limit exceeds 10 working days, as described by the FOIA, the requester shall be provided with an opportunity to modify the scope of the FOIA request so that it can be processed within that time frame or provided an opportunity to arrange an alternative time frame for processing the request or a modified request. To aid the requester, the Council's FOIA Public Liaison is available to assist the requester for this purpose and in the resolution of any disputes between the requester and the Council. The Council's FOIA Public Liaison's contact information is available at <I>http://www.ffiec.gov/foia.htm.</I> The requester may also seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(B) In response to a request that reasonably describes the records sought and otherwise satisfies the requirements of this section, a search shall be conducted of records in existence and maintained by the Council on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. The Executive Secretary shall notify the requester of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Executive Secretary's determination of the response to the request;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The reasons for the determination;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The right of the requester to seek assistance from the Council's FOIA Public Liaison; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) When an adverse determination is made (including a determination that the requested record is exempt, in whole or in part; the request does not reasonably describe the records sought; the information requested is not a record subject to the FOIA; the requested record does not exist, cannot be located, or has been destroyed; the requested record is not readily reproducible in the form or format sought by the requester; a fee waiver request or other fee categorization matter is denied; and a request for expedited processing is denied), the Executive Secretary will advise the requester in writing of that determination and will further advise the requester:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the denial is in part or in whole;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The exemptions relied on for the denial;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) The right of the requester to appeal any adverse determination to the Chairman of the Council within 90 days following the date of issuance of the notification, as specified in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) The right of the requester to seek dispute resolution services from the Council's FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Appeals of responses to initial requests.</I> A requester may appeal any adverse determination in writing, within 90 days of the date of issuance of the adverse determination. Appeals should refer to the date and tracking number of the original request and the date of the Council's initial ruling. Appeals should include an explanation of the basis for the appeal. Appeals shall be submitted to the Chairman of the Council:
</P>
<P>(A) By sending a letter to: FFIEC, Attn: Executive Secretary, 3501 Fairfax Drive, Room B-7081a, Arlington, VA, 22226-3550. Both the mailing envelope and the request should be marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like; or
</P>
<P>(B) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like to the Executive Secretary at (703) 562-6446; or
</P>
<P>(C) By email with the subject line marked “Freedom of Information Act Appeal,” “FOIA Appeal,” or the like to <I>FOIA@ffiec.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Council response to appeals.</I> The Chairman of the Council, or another member designated by the Chairman, will respond to all properly submitted appeals within 20 working days of actual receipt of the appeal by the Executive Secretary. The time for response may be extended up to 10 additional working days, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), or for other periods by agreement between the requester and the Chairman or the Chairman's designee.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Procedure for access to records if request is granted.</I> (i) When a request for access to records is granted, in whole or in part, a copy of the records to be disclosed will be promptly delivered to the requester or made available for inspection in an electronic format, whichever was requested. Inspection of records, or duplication and delivery of copies of records, will be arranged so as not to interfere with their use by the Council and other users of the records.
</P>
<P>(ii) When delivery to the requester is to be made, copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the Executive Secretary deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Council shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the Council in that form or format, but the Council need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.
</P>
<P>(iv) By arrangement with the requester, the Executive Secretary may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the records is in electronic format. If the information requested is subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be established.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Fees for document search, review, and duplication; waiver and reduction of fee</I>—(i) <I>Definitions</I>—(A) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures which the Council actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and reviewing documents to respond to a FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Search</I> means all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic tape or computer disk).
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining documents located in response to a request that is for a commercial use (<I>see</I> paragraph (b)(5)(i)(E) of this section) to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld and processing such documents for disclosure.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from or on behalf of one who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the Executive Secretary will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as the Executive Secretary deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, an elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis as that term is referenced in paragraph (b)(5)(i)(E) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purposes of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this paragraph (b)(5)(i)(H), the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by or subscription by or free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news-media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news-media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the Council may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Fees to be charged.</I> The Council will charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs, except that the charging of search and/or duplication fees is subject to the restrictions of paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(G) of this section. The Council may contract with the private sector to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records. Provided, however, that the Council has ensured that the ultimate cost to the requester is no greater than it would be if the Council performed these tasks. Fees are subject to change as costs change. In no case will the Council contract out responsibilities which the FOIA provides that it alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption, or determining whether to waive or reduce fees.
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Manual searches and review.</I> The Council will charge fees at the following rates for manual searches for and review of records:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If search/review is done by clerical staff, the hourly rate for GS-7, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If search/review is done by professional staff, the hourly rate for GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Computer searches.</I> The Council will charge fees at the hourly rate for GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent of the rate to cover benefits, plus the hourly cost of operating the computer for computer searches for records.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Duplication of records.</I> (<I>1</I>) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of a document is $.25;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The fee for records generated by computer is the hourly rate for the computer operator (at GS-7, step 5, plus 16 percent for benefits if clerical staff, and GS-13, step 5, plus 16 percent for benefits if professional staff) plus the cost of materials (computer paper, tapes, disks, labels, etc.).
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If any other method of duplication is used, the Council will charge the actual direct cost of duplicating the records.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Hourly rates.</I> If search, duplication and/or review is provided by personnel of member agencies of the Council, fees will reflect their actual hourly rates, plus 16 percent for benefits.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Fees to exceed $25.</I> If the Council estimates that duplication and/or search fees are likely to exceed $25, it will notify the requester of the estimated amount of fees, unless the requester has indicated in advance his/her willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. In the case of such notification by the Council, the requester will then have the opportunity to confer with the Council's FOIA Public Liaison with the object of reformulating the request to meet his/her needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Other services.</I> Complying with requests for special services such as certifying records as true copies or mailing records by express mail is entirely at the discretion of the Council. The Council will recover the full costs of providing such services to the extent it elects to provide them.
</P>
<P>(G) <I>Restriction on assessing fees.</I> (<I>1</I>) The Council will not charge fees to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>)(<I>i</I>) If the Council fails to comply with the time limits specified in the FOIA in which to respond to a request, the Council will not charge search fees, or, in the case of a requester described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (b)(5)(ii)(G)(<I>2</I>)(<I>ii</I>) through (<I>iv</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the Council has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in the FOIA) and the Council provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limit shall be excused for an additional 10 working days.
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) If the Council has determined that unusual circumstances apply (as the term is defined in the FOIA) and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Council may charge search fees, or, in the case of requesters described in paragraph (b)(5)(iii)(B) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken: The Council provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to the requester in accordance with the FOIA; and The Council discussed with the requester via written mail, email message, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, the Council may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(H) <I>Waiving or reducing fees.</I> As part of the initial request for records, a requester may ask that the Council waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Council and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. The initial request for records must also state the justification for a waiver or reduction of fees. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the Executive Secretary of the Council and the requester will be notified in writing of his/her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph (b)(5)(ii)(H) may be appealed to the Chairman of the Council pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Categories of requesters</I>—(A) <I>Commercial use requester</I>s. The Council will assess fees for commercial use requesters sufficient to recover the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing for release, and duplicating the records sought. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to two hours of free search time nor 100 free pages of reproduction of documents.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>News media, educational and noncommercial scientific institution requesters.</I> Requesters who are representatives of the news media, educational and noncommercial scientific institution requesters. The Council shall provide documents to requesters in these categories for the cost of reproduction alone, excluding fees for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>All other requesters.</I> The Council shall charge requesters who do not fit into any of the categories in paragraphs (b)(5)(iii)(A) and (B) of this section fees which recover the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, except that the first 100 pages of reproduction and the first two hours of search time shall be furnished without a fee.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Description of records.</I> All requesters must specifically describe records sought.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Interest on unpaid fees.</I> The Council may begin assessing interest charges on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the day on which the bill was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Fees for unsuccessful search and review.</I> The Council may assess fees for time spent searching and reviewing, even if it fails to locate the records or if records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> A requester(s) may not file multiple requests each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. If this is done, the Council may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. In no case will the Council aggregate multiple requests on unrelated subjects from the same requester.
</P>
<P>(vii) <I>Advance payment of fees.</I> The Council will not require a requester to make an assurance of payment or an advance payment unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The Council estimates or determines that allowable charges that a requester may be required to pay are likely to exceed $250. The Council will notify the requester of the likely cost and obtain satisfactory assurance of full payment where the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees, or require an advance payment of an amount up to the full estimated charges in the case of requesters with no history of payment; or
</P>
<P>(B) A requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged in a timely fashion. The Council may require the requester to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(iv) of this section or demonstrate that he/she has, in fact, paid the fee, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the Council begins to process a new request or a pending request from that requester.
</P>
<P>(C) When the Council acts under paragraph (b)(5)(vii)(A) or (B) of this section, the administrative time limits prescribed in subsection (a)(6) of the FOIA (<I>i.e.,</I> 20 working days from receipt of initial requests, plus permissible extensions of these time limits) will begin only after the Council has received the fee payments described.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Records of another agency.</I> If a requested record originated with or incorporates the information of another State or Federal agency or department, upon receipt of a request for the record the Council will promptly inform the requester of this circumstance and immediately shall forward the request to the originating agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 30726, July 3, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1101.5" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.2.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1101.5   Testimony and production of documents in response to subpoena, order, etc.</HEAD>
<P>No person shall testify, in court or otherwise, as a result of activities on behalf of the Council without prior written authorization from the Council. This section shall not restrict the authority of a Council member to testify before Congress on matters within his or her official responsibilities as a Council member. No person shall furnish documents reflecting information of the Council in compliance with a subpoena, order, or otherwise, without prior written authorization from the Council. The Council may authorize testimony or production of documents after the litigant (or the litigant's attorney) submits an affidavit to the Council setting forth the interest of the litigant and the testimony or documents desired. Authorization to testify or produce documents is limited to authority expressly granted by the Council. When the Council has not authorized testimony or production of documents, the individual to whom the subpoena or order has been directed will appear in court and respectfully state that he or she is unable to comply further with the subpoena or order by reason of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1102" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1102—APPRAISER REGULATION


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3348(a), 3332, 3335, 3338 (a)(4)(B), 3348(c), 5 U.S.C. 552a, 553(e); Executive Order 12600, 52 FR 23781 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part appear at 83 FR 43739, Aug. 28, 2018.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Temporary Waiver Requests</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3348(b).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 60875, Oct. 7, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1102.1" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under section 1119(b) of Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (Title XI; 12 U.S.C. 3348(b)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure governing temporary waiver proceedings under section 1119(b) of Title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348(b)). These procedures apply whenever a Request for Temporary Waiver is submitted to the Appraisal Subcommittee (ASC) of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC) for a temporary waiver of any requirement relating to State certification or licensing (credentialing requirements) of persons eligible to perform appraisals for federally related transactions (FRTs) under Title XI. These procedures also apply in the event the ASC receives a Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding. This subpart also contains the ASC's interpretations of terms used in section 1119(b) of Title XI.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.2" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Federally related transaction (FRT)</I> means any real estate-related financial transaction which:
</P>
<P>(1) A Federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for, or regulates; and
</P>
<P>(2) Requires the services of an appraiser under the interagency appraisal rules. ((Title XI, section 1121(4), 12 U.S.C. 3350), implemented by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency: 12 CFR 34.42(g) and 34.43(a); Federal Reserve Board: 12 CFR 225.62 and 225.63(a); Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation: 12 CFR 323.2(f) and 323.3(a); and National Credit Union Administration: 12 CFR 722.2(f) and 722.3(a).)
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Performance of appraisals</I> means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser is provided to the lender or appraisal management company (AMC).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Petition</I> means information submitted to the ASC by the Federal or State financial institutions regulatory agencies, their respective regulated financial institutions, or other persons or institutions with a demonstrable interest in appraiser regulation, including a State Appraisal Agency, asking the ASC to exercise its discretionary authority to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding, and that meets the requirements, as determined by the ASC, set forth in § 1102.4.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for Temporary Waiver</I> means information submitted to the ASC by a State Appraisal Agency with a written determination requesting a temporary waiver that meets the requirements, as determined by the ASC, set forth in § 1102.3.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers</I> means the number of active certified or licensed appraisers within a State or a specified geographical political subdivision is insufficient to meet the demand for appraisal services and such appraisers are difficult to retain.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Significant delays in the performance of appraisals</I> means delays that are substantially out of the ordinary when compared to performance of appraisals for similarly situated FRTs based on factors such as geographic location (<I>e.g.,</I> rural versus urban) and assignment type, and the delay is not the result of intervening circumstances outside the appraiser's control or brought about by the appraiser's client (<I>e.g.,</I> inability to access the subject property).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State Appraisal Agency</I> means the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency (Title XI, section 1121(1); <I>see also</I> 12 U.S.C. 3350(1)).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Temporary waiver</I> means a waiver of any or all credentialing requirements for persons eligible to perform appraisals for FRTs; if granted, a temporary waiver does not waive the requirement for a <I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice</I> (USPAP)-compliant appraisal.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.3" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.3   Request for Temporary Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who can file a Request for Temporary Waiver.</I> The State Appraisal Agency for the State in which the temporary waiver relief is sought may file a Request for Temporary Waiver.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents and receipt of a Request for Temporary Waiver.</I> A Request for Temporary Waiver from a State Appraisal Agency will not be deemed received by the ASC unless it fully and accurately sets out:
</P>
<P>(1) A written determination by the State Appraisal Agency that there is a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State;
</P>
<P>(2) The requirement(s) of State law from which relief is being sought;
</P>
<P>(3) The nature of the scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable);
</P>
<P>(4) The extent of the delays anticipated or experienced in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable);
</P>
<P>(5) How complaints concerning appraisals by persons who are not certified or licensed would be processed in the event a temporary waiver is granted; and
</P>
<P>(6) Meaningful suggestions and recommendations for remedying the situation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receipt of a Request for Temporary Waiver.</I> A Request for Temporary Waiver shall be deemed received for purposes of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for notice and comment if the ASC determines that the information submitted meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section to support that a scarcity of appraisers exists and that the scarcity is leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deny or refer back.</I> In the event the Request for Temporary Waiver is not deemed received, it may be denied in its entirety or referred back to the State Appraisal Agency for further action. In either case, the ASC shall provide written notice to the State Appraisal Agency providing an explanation for the determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.4" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.4   Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Who can file a Petition requesting the ASC initiate a temporary waiver proceeding.</I> The Federal or State financial institutions regulatory agencies, their respective regulated financial institutions, and other persons or institutions with a demonstrable interest in appraiser regulation, including a State Appraisal Agency, may petition the ASC to exercise its discretionary authority to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of a Petition.</I> (1) A Petition should include:
</P>
<P>(i) Information (statistical or otherwise verifiable) to support the existence of a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs for either a portion of, or the entire State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The extent of the delays anticipated or experienced in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers (including supporting documentation, statistical or otherwise verifiable).
</P>
<P>(2) A Petition may also include meaningful suggestions and recommendations for remedying the situation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Copy of Petition to State Appraisal Agency.</I> In the case of a Petition from a party other than a State Appraisal Agency, the party must promptly provide a copy of its Petition to the State Appraisal Agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASC review of a Petition.</I> A Petition may be processed for further action if the ASC determines that the information submitted meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and that further action should be taken to determine whether a scarcity of appraisers exists and that the scarcity is leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a specified class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Deny or refer back.</I> In the event a Petition does not meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section it may be denied in its entirety or referred back to the petitioner for further action. In either event, the ASC shall provide written notice to the petitioner providing an explanation for the determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Further action on a Petition.</I> If the ASC determines that a Petition should be processed for further action, at its discretion the ASC may:
</P>
<P>(1) Refer a Petition to the State Appraisal Agency where temporary waiver relief is sought for further evaluation and study, to include items that would be addressed in a Request for Temporary Waiver (<I>see</I> § 1102.3(b)); or
</P>
<P>(2) Take further action without referring the Petition to the State Appraisal Agency.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>State Appraisal Agency action.</I> (1) In the event the State Appraisal Agency opts to conduct further evaluation and study on a Petition, the State Appraisal Agency may:
</P>
<P>(i) Issue a written determination that there is a scarcity of certified or licensed appraisers leading to significant delays in the performance of appraisals for FRTs or a class of FRTs within either a portion of, or the entire State (or request that the ASC issue such a written determination), in which case, the procedures and requirements of §§ 1102.3 and 1102.6(a) shall apply; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Recommend that the ASC take no further action.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event the State Appraisal Agency either recommends no further action or declines to conduct further evaluation and study on a Petition, the ASC may exercise its discretion in determining whether to issue an Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding in accordance with § 1102.5(a).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.5" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.5   Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>The ASC may exercise discretion in determining whether to issue an Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding in response to a Petition, or alternatively, the ASC may exercise discretion to initiate a temporary waiver proceeding on its own initiative without a Petition being submitted. In either event, such an Order would include consideration of certain items that would be addressed in a Request for Temporary Waiver. (<I>See, e.g.,</I> § 1102.3(b)(2) through (6).) If such an Order is issued, the ASC shall publish a <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice in accordance with § 1102.6(b).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.6" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.6   Notice and comment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The ASC shall publish promptly in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a notice respecting:
</P>
<P>(1) A received Request for Temporary Waiver (<I>see</I> § 1102.3(c)); or
</P>
<P>(2) An ASC Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding (<I>see</I> § 1102.5).
</P>
<P>(b) The notice of a received Request for Temporary Waiver or ASC Order initiating a temporary waiver proceeding shall contain a concise statement of the nature and basis for the action and shall give interested persons 30 calendar days from its publication in which to submit written data, views, and arguments.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.7" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.7   ASC determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Order by the ASC.</I> Within 90 calendar days of the date of publication of the notice in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> the ASC, by Order, shall either grant or deny a waiver, in whole or in part, and upon specified terms and conditions, including provisions for waiver termination. The Order shall be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> which in the case of an Order approving a waiver, shall only be published after FFIEC approval of the waiver (<I>see</I> paragraph (b) of this section). Such Order shall respond to comments received from interested members of the public and shall provide the reasons for the ASC's finding(s).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval by the FFIEC.</I> Any ASC Order approving a waiver shall be effective only upon FFIEC approval of the waiver. FFIEC consideration of a waiver is not subject to the ASC's 90-day timeframe for a determination.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.8" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.8   Waiver extension.</HEAD>
<P>The ASC may initiate an extension of temporary waiver relief and shall follow §§ 1102.6, 1102.7 and 1102.9. A State Appraisal Agency also may seek an extension of temporary waiver relief by forwarding an additional written Request for Temporary Waiver to the ASC. A request for an extension from a State Appraisal Agency shall be subject to all the requirements of this subpart.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.9" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.9   Waiver termination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory waiver termination.</I> The ASC shall terminate a temporary waiver Order when the ASC determines that significant delays in the performance of appraisals by certified or licensed appraisers no longer exist.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Discretionary waiver termination.</I> The ASC at any time may terminate a waiver Order on the finding that the terms and conditions of the waiver Order are not being satisfied.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Publication in the</I> <I>Federal Register.</I> The ASC shall publish either a mandatory or discretionary waiver termination in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> and a discretionary waiver termination requires such publication with a 30-day comment period. In the absence of further ASC action to the contrary, a discretionary waiver termination automatically becomes final 21 calendar days after the close of the comment period. A mandatory waiver termination is final upon such a determination being made by the ASC.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Rules of Practice for Proceedings</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3332, 3335, 3347, and 3348(c). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1102.20" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.20   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued under sections 1103, 1106, 1118 and 1119(c) of title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (FIRREA) (12 U.S.C. 3332, 3335, 3347, and 3348(c)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> This subpart prescribes rules of practice and procedure governing non-recognition proceedings under section 1118 of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3347); and other proceedings necessary to carry out the purposes of title XI under section 1119(c) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348(c)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 35004, Aug. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.21" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Subcommittee</I> or <I>ASC</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council, as established under section 1011 of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3310).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Party</I> means the ASC or a person, agency or other entity named as a party, including, when appropriate, persons appearing in the proceeding under § 1102.22 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Respondent</I> means any party other than the ASC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the ASC under its Rules of Operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.22" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.22   Appearance and practice before the Subcommittee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By attorneys and notice of appearance.</I> Any person who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State or of the District of Columbia, or of any possession, territory, or commonwealth of the United States, may represent parties before the ASC upon filing with the Secretary a written notice of appearance stating that he or she is currently qualified as provided in this paragraph and is authorized to represent the particular party on whose behalf he or she acts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf. A member of a partnership may represent the partnership, and an officer, director or employee of any government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority may represent that unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority. The partner, officer, director or employee must file with the Secretary a written statement that he or she has been duly authorized by the partnership, government unit, agency, institution, corporation or authority to act on its behalf. The ASC may require the representative to attach to the statement appropriate supporting documentation, such as a corporate resolution.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct during proceedings.</I> All participants in a proceeding shall conduct themselves with dignity and in an orderly and ethical manner. The attorney or other representative of a party shall make every effort to restrain a client from improper conduct in connection with a proceeding. Improper language or conduct, refusal to comply with directions, use of dilatory tactics, or refusal to adhere to reasonable standards of orderly and ethical conduct constitute grounds for immediate exclusion from the proceeding at the direction of the ASC. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.23" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.23   Formal requirements as to papers filed.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> All papers filed under this subpart must be double-spaced and printed or typewritten on 8
<FR>1/2</FR>″ × 11″ paper. All copies shall be clear and legible. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the name of the ASC and of the filing party, the title and/or docket number of the proceeding and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Party names, signatures, certificates of service.</I> All papers filed must set forth the name, address and telephone number of the attorney or party making the filing, must be signed by the attorney or party, and must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Copies.</I> Unless otherwise specifically provided in the notice of proceeding or by the ASC during the proceeding, an original and one copy of all documents and papers shall be furnished to the Secretary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.24" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.24   Filing requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> All papers filed with the ASC in any proceeding shall be filed with the Secretary, Appraisal Subcommittee, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the ASC, filing may be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.25" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.25   Service.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Methods; appearing party.</I> A serving party, who has made an appearance under § 1102.22 of this subpart, shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Delivering the papers to a reliable commercial courier service, overnight delivery service, or to the U.S. Post Office for Express Mail delivery; and
</P>
<P>(3) Mailing the papers by first class, registered, or certified mail.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methods; non-appearing party.</I> If a party has not appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 1102.22 of this subpart, the ASC or any other party shall make service by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) By delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the party's last known address;
</P>
<P>(3) By registered or certified mail addressed to the party's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(4) By any other manner reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Subcommittee.</I> All papers required to be served by the ASC shall be served by the Secretary unless some other person shall be designated for such purpose by the ASC.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>By the respondent.</I> All papers filed in a proceeding under this subpart shall be served by a respondent on the Secretary and each party's attorney, or, if any party is not so represented, then upon such party. Such service may be made by any of the appropriate methods specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.26" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.26   When papers are deemed filed or served.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Effectiveness.</I> Filing and service are deemed effective:
</P>
<P>(1) For personal service or same-day commercial courier delivery, upon actual delivery; and
</P>
<P>(2) For overnight commercial delivery service, U.S. Express Mail delivery, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in, or delivery to, an appropriate point of collection.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Modification.</I> The effective times for filing and service in paragraph (a) of this section may be modified by the ASC in the case of filing or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.27" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.27   Computing time.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this subpart, the date of the act, event or default from which the designated period of time begins to run is not included. The last day so computed is included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day which is not a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays shall not be included in the computation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For service and filing responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice or paper, the applicable time periods are calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service is made by first class, registered or certified mail, add three days to the prescribed period; and
</P>
<P>(2) If service is made by express mail or overnight delivery service, add one day to the prescribed period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.28" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.28   Documents and exhibits in proceedings public.</HEAD>
<P>Unless and until otherwise ordered by the ASC or unless otherwise provided by statute or by ASC regulation, all documents, papers and exhibits filed in connection with any proceeding, other than those that may be withheld from disclosure under applicable law, shall be placed by the Secretary in the proceeding's public file and will be available for public inspection and copying at the address set out in § 1102.24 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.29" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.29   Conduct of proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Unless otherwise provided in the notice of proceedings, all proceedings under this subpart shall be conducted as hereinafter provided.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written submissions.</I> All aspects of the proceeding shall be conducted by written submissions only, with the exception of oral presentations allowed under § 1102.36 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disqualification.</I> A Subcommittee member who deems himself or herself disqualified may at any time withdraw. Upon receipt of a timely and sufficient affidavit of personal bias or disqualification of such member, the ASC will rule on the matter as a part of the record and decision in the case.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>User of ASC staff.</I> Appropriate members of the ASC's staff who are not engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecuting functions in the proceeding may advise and assist the ASC in the consideration of the case and in the preparation of appropriate documents for its disposition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authority of Subcommittee Chairperson.</I> The Chairperson of the ASC, in consultation with other members of the ASC whenever appropriate, shall have complete charge of the proceeding and shall have the duty to conduct it in a fair and impartial manner and to take all necessary action to avoid delay in the disposition of proceedings in accordance with this subpart.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Conferences.</I> (1) The ASC may on its own initiative or at the request of any party, direct all parties or counsel to meet with one or more duly authorized ASC members or staff at a specified time and place, or to submit to the ASC or its designee, suggestions in writing for the purpose of considering any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) Scheduling of matters, including a timetable for the information-gathering phase of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ii) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(iii) Stipulations and admissions of fact and of the content and authenticity of documents;
</P>
<P>(iv) Matters of which official notice will be taken; and
</P>
<P>(v) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding, including disclosure of the names of persons submitting affidavits or other documents and exhibits which may be introduced into the public file of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Such conferences will not be recorded, but the Secretary shall place in the proceeding's public file a memorandum summarizing the results of the conference and shall provide a copy of the memorandum to each party. The memorandum shall control the subsequent course of the proceedings, unless the ASC for good cause shown by one or more parties to the conference, modifies those results and instructs the Secretary to place an amendatory memorandum to that effect in the public file.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Changes or extensions of time and changes of place of proceeding.</I> The ASC, in connection with initiating a specific proceedings under § 1102.32 of this subpart, may instruct the Secretary to publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> time limits different from those specified in this subpart, and may, on its own initiative or for good cause shown, issue an exemption changing the place of the proceeding or extending any time limit prescribed by this subpart, including the date for ending the information-gathering phase of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Call for further briefs, memoranda, statements; reopening of matters.</I> The ASC may call for the production of further information upon any issue, the submission of briefs, memoranda and statements (together with written responses), and, upon appropriate notice, may reopen any aspect of the proceeding at any time prior to a decision on the matter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 31650, July 17, 1992, as amended at 57 FR 35004, Aug. 7, 1992]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.30" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.30   Rules of evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 551 <I>et seq.</I>) and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may be deemed or ruled admissible in a proceeding conducted under this subpart if such evidence is relevant, material, reliable and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stipulations.</I> Any party may stipulate in writing as to any relevant matters of fact, law, or the authenticity of any relevant documents. The Secretary shall place such stipulations in the public file, and they shall be binding on the parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Official notice.</I> Every matter officially noticed by the ASC shall appear in the public file, unless the ASC determines that the matter must be withheld from public disclosure under applicable Federal law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.31" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.31   Burden of proof.</HEAD>
<P>The ultimate burden of proof shall be on the respondent. The burden of going forward with a <I>prima facie</I> case shall be on the ASC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.32" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.32   Notice of Intention to Commence a Proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>The ASC shall instruct the Secretary or other designated officer acting for the ASC to publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> a Notice of Intention To Commence A Proceeding (Notice of Intention). The Notice of Intention shall be served upon the party or parties to the proceeding and shall commence at the time of service. The Notice of Intention shall state the legal authority and jurisdiction under which the proceeding is to be held; shall contain, or incorporate by appropriate reference, a specific statement of the matters of fact or law constituting the grounds for the proceeding; and shall state a date no sooner than 25 days after service of the Notice of Intention is made for termination of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding. The Notice of Intention also must contain a bold-faced warning respecting the effect of a failure to file a Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest under § 1102.33(d) of this subpart. The ASC may amend a Notice of Intention in any manner and to the extent consistent with provisions of applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.33" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.33   Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>When required.</I> A party to the proceeding may file either a Rebuttal or a Notice Not to Contest the statements contained in the Notice of Intention or any amendment thereto with the Secretary within 15 days after being served with the Notice of Intention or an amendment to such Notice. The Secretary shall place the Rebuttal or the Notice Not To Contest in the public file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements of Rebuttal; effect of failure to deny.</I> A Rebuttal filed under this section shall specifically admit, deny or state that the party does not have sufficient information to admit or deny each statement in the Notice of Intention. A statement of lack of information shall have the effect of a denial. Any statement not denied shall be deemed to be admitted. When a party intends to deny only a part or a qualification of a statement, the party shall admit so much of it as is true and shall deny only the remainder.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice Not To Contest.</I> A party filing a Notice Not To Contest the statement of fact set forth in the Notice of Intention shall constitute a waiver of the party's opportunity to rebut the facts alleged, and together with the Notice of Intention and any referenced documents, will provide a record basis on which the ASC shall decide the matter. The filing of a Notice Not To Contest shall not constitute a waiver of the right of such party to a judicial review of the ASC's decision, findings and conclusions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of failure to file Rebuttal or Notice Not To Contest.</I> Failure of a party to file a response required by this section within the time provided shall constitute a waiver of the party's opportunity to rebut and to contest the statements in the Notice of Intention and shall constitute authorization for the ASC to find the facts to be as presented in the Notice of Intention and to file with the Secretary a decision containing such findings and appropriate conclusions. The ASC, for good cause shown, will permit the filing of a Rebuttal after the prescribed time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.34" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.34   Briefs, memoranda and statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the parties.</I> Until the end of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding, any party may file with the Secretary a written brief, memorandum or other statement providing factual data and policy and legal arguments regarding the matters set out in the Notice of Intention. The filing party shall simultaneously serve other parties to the proceeding with a copy of the document. No later than ten days after such service, any party may file with the Secretary a written response to the document and must simultaneously serve a copy thereof on the other parties to the proceeding. The Secretary will receive documents and responses and will place them in the public file.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By interested persons, in non-recognition proceedings.</I> Until the end of the information-gathering phase of a proceeding under section 1118 of FIRREA (12 U.S.C. 3347), any person with a demonstrable, direct interest in the outcome of the proceeding may file with the Secretary a written brief, memorandum or other statement providing factual data and policy and legal arguments regarding the matters set out in the Notice of Intention. The ASC's Chairperson or his or her designee may not accept any such written brief, memorandum or other statement if the submitting person cannot demonstrate a direct interest in the outcome of the proceeding. Upon acceptance of the written brief, memorandum or other statement, the Secretary shall make copies of the document and forward one copy thereof to each party to the proceeding. No later than ten days after such service, any party may file with the Secretary a written response to the document and must simultaneously serve one copy thereof on the other parties to the proceeding. The Secretary will place a copy of such briefs, memoranda, statements and responses in the public file.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.35" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.35   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any party may at any time submit to the Secretary, for consideration by the Subcommittee, written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding, without prejudice to the rights of the parties. No offer or proposal shall be included in the proceeding's public file over the objection of any party to such proceeding. This paragraph shall not preclude settlement of any proceeding by the filing of a Notice Not To Contest as provided in § 1102.33(c) or by the submission of the case to the ASC on a stipulation of facts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.36" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.36   Oral presentations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A party does not have a right to an oral presentation. Under this section, a party's request to make an oral presentation may be denied if such a denial is appropriate and reasonable under the circumstances. An oral presentation shall be considered as an opportunity to offer, emphasize and clarify the facts, policies and laws concerning the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Method and time of request.</I> Between the commencement of the proceeding and ten days before the end of the information-gathering phase, any party to the proceeding may file with the Secretary a letter requesting that the Secretary schedule an opportunity for the party to give an oral presentation to the ASC. That letter shall include the reasons why an oral presentation is necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASC processing.</I> The Secretary must promptly forward the letter request to the Chairman of the ASC. The Chairman, after informally contacting other ASC members and the ASC's senior staff for their views, will instruct the Secretary to forward a letter to the party either: Scheduling a date and time for the oral presentation and specifying the allowable duration of the presentation; or declining the request and providing the reasons therefor. The party's letter request and the ASC's response will be included in the proceeding's public file.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedure on presentation day.</I> On the appropriate date and time, the party or his or her attorney (if any) will make the oral presentation before the ASC. Any ASC member may ask the party or the attorney, as the case may be, pertinent questions relating to the content of the oral presentation. Oral presentations will not be recorded or otherwise transcribed. The Secretary must enter promptly into the proceeding's public file a memorandum summarizing the subjects discussed during the oral presentation. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.37" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.37   Decision of the Subcommittee and judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>At a reasonable time after the end of the information-gathering phase of the proceeding, but not exceeding 35 days, the ASC shall issue a final decision, containing specified terms and conditions as it deems appropriate, in the matter and shall cause the decision to be published promptly in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The final decision shall be effective on issuance. The Secretary shall serve the decision upon the parties promptly, shall place it in the proceeding's public file and shall furnish it to such other persons as the ASC may direct. Pursuant to the provisions of chapter 7 of title 5 of the U.S. Code and section 1118(c)(3) of title XI of FIRREA (12 U.S.C. 3348(c)(3)), a final decision of the ASC is a prerequisite to seeking judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.38" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.38   Compliance activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where, from complaints received from members of the public, communications from Federal or State agencies, examination of information by the ASC, or otherwise, it appears that a person has violated, is violating or is about to violate title XI of FIRREA or the rules or regulations thereunder, the ASC staff may commence an informal, preliminary inquiry into the matter. If, upon such inquiry, it appears that one or more allegations relate to possible violations of regulations administered by another agency or instrumentality of the Federal Government, then the matter shall be referred to that agency or instrumentality for appropriate action. The ASC, pursuant to its responsibilities under section 1103(a)(2) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3332(a)(2)) and section 1119(c) of title XI (12 U.S.C. 3348)), shall monitor the matter. If, upon inquiry, it appears that one or more allegations are within the ASC's jurisdiction, then the ASC, in its discretion, may determine to commence a formal investigation respecting the matter and shall instruct the Secretary to create a public file for the formal investigation. The Secretary shall place in that file a memorandum naming the person or persons subject to the investigation and the statutory basis for the investigation.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise instructed by the ASC or required by law, the Secretary shall ensure that all other papers, documents and materials gathered or submitted in connection with the investigation are non-public and for ASC use only.
</P>
<P>(c) Persons who become involved in preliminary inquiries or formal investigations may, on their own initiative, submit a written statement to the Secretary setting forth their interests, positions or views regarding the subject matter of the investigation. Upon request, the staff, in its discretion, may advise such persons of the general nature of the investigation, including the indicated violations as they pertain to them and the amount of time that may be available for preparing and submitting such a statement prior to the presentation of a staff recommendation to the ASC. Upon the commencement of a formal investigation or a proceeding under this subpart, the Secretary shall place any such statement in the appropriate public file.
</P>
<P>(d) In instances where the staff has concluded its inquiry of a particular matter and has determined that it will not recommend the commencement of a formal investigation or a proceeding under this subpart against a person, the staff shall advise the person that its inquiry has been terminated. Such advice, if given, must in no way be construed as indicating that the person has been exonerated or that no action may ultimately result from the staff's inquiry into the particular matter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.39" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.2.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.39   Duty to cooperate.</HEAD>
<P>In the course of the investigations and proceedings, the ASC (and its staff, with appropriate authorization) must provide parties or persons ample opportunity to work out problems by consent, by settlement, or in some other manner.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules Pertaining to the Privacy of Individuals and Systems of Records Maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Privacy Act of 1974, Pub. L. 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896; 12 U.S.C. 552a, as amended.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1102.100" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.100   Authority, purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart is issued under the Privacy Act of 1974, Public Law 93-579, 88 Stat. 1896; 12 U.S.C. 552a, as amended. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Privacy Act of 1974 is based, in part, on the finding by Congress that “in order to protect the privacy of individuals identified in information systems maintained by Federal agencies, it is necessary and proper for the Congress to regulate the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of information by such agencies.” To achieve this objective, the Act generally provides that Federal agencies must advise an individual upon request whether records maintained by the agency in a system of records pertain to the individual and must grant the individual access to such records. The Act further provides that individuals may request amendments to records pertaining to them that are maintained by the agency, and that the agency shall either grant the requested amendments or set forth fully its reasons for refusing to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) The Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (ASC), pursuant to subsection (f) of the Privacy Act, adopts the following rules and procedures to implement the provisions of the Act summarized above and other provisions of the Act. These rules and procedures are applicable to all requests for information and access or amendment to records pertaining to an individual that are contained in any system of records that is maintained by the ASC.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.101" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions shall apply for purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) The terms <I>individual, maintain, record, system of records,</I> and <I>routine use</I> are defined for purposes of these rules as they are defined in 5 U.S.C. 552a(a)(2), (a)(3), (a)(4), (a)(5) and (a)(7).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASC</I> or <I>Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Privacy Act Officer</I> means the ASC's Associate Director for Administration or such other ASC staff officer, other than the Executive Director, duly designated by the ASC's Executive Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.102" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.102   Times, places and requirements for requests pertaining to individual records in a record system and for the identification of individuals making requests for access to records pertaining to them.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place to make request.</I> Any request by an individual to be advised whether any system of records maintained by the ASC and named by the individual contains a record pertaining to him or her, or any request by an individual for access to a record pertaining to him or her that is contained in a system of records maintained by the ASC, shall be submitted in person at the ASC between 9 a.m. and 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday, which is located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to: Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005. All requests will be required to be put in writing and signed by the individual making the request. In the case of requests for access that are made by mail, the envelope should be clearly marked “Privacy Act Request.”
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information to be included in requests.</I> Each request by an individual concerning whether the ASC maintains in a system of records a record that pertains to the individual, or for access to any record pertaining to the individual that is maintained by the ASC in a system of records, shall include such information as will assist the ASC in identifying those records as to which the individual is seeking information or access. Where practicable, the individual should identify the system of records that is the subject of his or her request by reference to the ASC's notices of systems of records, which are published in the <E T="04">Federal Register,</E> as required by section (e)(4) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4). Where a system of records is compiled on the basis of a specific identification scheme, the individual should include in his or her request the identification number or other identifier assigned to the individual. In the event the individual does not know that number or identifier, the individual shall provide other information, including his or her full name, address, date of birth and subject matter of the record, to aid in processing his or her request. If additional information is required before a request can be processed, the individual shall be so advised.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of identity.</I> When the fact of the existence of a record is not required to be disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, or when a record as to which access has been requested is not required to be disclosed under that Act, the individual seeking the information or requesting access to the record shall be required to verify his or her identity before access will be granted or information given. For this purpose, individuals shall appear at the ASC located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, between 9 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Monday through Friday. The ASC's Office is not open on Saturdays, Sundays or Federal holidays.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Methods for verifying identity—appearance in person.</I> For the purpose of verifying identity, an individual seeking information regarding pertinent records or access to those records shall furnish documentation that may reasonably be relied on to establish the individual's identity. Such documentation might include a valid birth certificate, driver's license, employee or military identification card, and medicare card.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Method for verifying identity—by mail.</I> Where an individual cannot appear at the ASC's Office for the purpose of verifying identity, the individual shall submit, along with the request for information or access, a signed and notarized statement attesting to his or her identity. Where access is being sought, the sworn statement shall include a representation that the records being sought pertain to the individual and a stipulation that the individual is aware that knowingly and willfully requesting or obtaining records pertaining to an individual from the ASC under false pretenses is a criminal offense.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional procedures for verifying identity.</I> When it appears appropriate to the Privacy Act Officer, other arrangements may be made for the verification of identity as are reasonable under the circumstances and appear to be effective to prevent unauthorized disclosure of, or access to, individual records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement of requests for information pertaining to individual records in a record system or for access to individual records.</I> (1) Except where an immediate acknowledgement is given for requests made in person, the receipt of a request for information pertaining to individual records in a record system will be acknowledged within 10 days, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. Requests will be processed as promptly as possible and a response to such requests will be given within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) unless, within the 30 day period and for cause shown, the individual making the request is notified in writing that a longer period is necessary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.103" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.103   Disclosure of requested records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial review.</I> Requests by individuals for access to records pertaining to them will be referred to the ASC's Privacy Act Officer, who initially will determine whether access will be granted.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grant of request for access.</I> (1) If it is determined that a request for access to records pertaining to an individual will be granted, the individual will be advised by mail that access will be given at the ASC or a copy of the requested record will be provided by mail if the individual shall so indicate. Where the individual requests that copies of the record be mailed to or her or requests copies of a record upon reviewing it at the ASC, the individual shall pay the cost of making requested copies, as set forth in § 1102.109 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) In granting access to an individual to a record pertaining to him or her, the ASC staff shall take steps to prevent the unauthorized disclosure of information pertaining to other individuals.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Denial of request for access.</I> If it is determined that access will not be granted, the individual making the request will be notified of that fact and given the reasons why access is being denied. The individual also will be advised of his or her right to seek review by the Executive Director of the initial decision to deny access, in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1102.107 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time for acting on requests for access.</I> Access to a record pertaining to an individual normally will be granted or denied within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) after the receipt of the request for access, unless the individual making the request is notified in writing within the 30 day period that, for good cause shown, a longer time is required. In such cases, the individual making the request shall be informed in writing of the difficulties encountered and an indication shall be given as to when it is anticipated that access may be granted or denied.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Authorization to allow designated person to review and discuss records pertaining to another individual.</I> An individual, who is granted access to records pertaining to him or her and who appears at the ASC Office to review the records, may be accompanied by another person of his or her choosing. Where the records as to which access has been granted are not required to be disclosed under provisions of the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended, the individual requesting the records, before being granted access, shall execute a written statement, signed by him or her, specifically authorizing the latter individual to review and discuss the records. If such authorization has not been given as described, the person who has accompanied the individual making the request will be excluded from any review or discussion of the records.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exclusion for certain records.</I> Nothing contained in these rules shall allow an individual access to any information compiled in reasonable anticipation of an administrative judicial or civil action or proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.104" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.104   Special procedure: Medical records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statement of physician or mental health professional.</I> When an individual requests access to records pertaining to the individual that include medical and/or psychological information, the ASC, if it deems it necessary under the particular circumstances, may require the individual to submit with the request a signed statement by the individual's physician or a mental health professional indicating that, in his or her opinion, disclosure of the requested records or information directly to the individual will not have an adverse effect on the individual.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of physician or mental health professional to receive records.</I> If the ASC believes, in good faith, that disclosure of medical and/or psychological information, directly to an individual could have an adverse effect on that individual, the individual may be asked to designate in writing a physician or mental health professional to whom the individual would like the records to be disclosed, and disclosure that otherwise would be made to the individual will instead be made to the designated physician or mental health professional.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.105" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.105   Requests for amendment of records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Place to make requests.</I> A request by an individual to amend records pertaining to him or her may be made in person during normal business hours at the ASC located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Information to be included in requests.</I> Each request to amend an ASC record shall reasonably describe the record sought to be amended. Such description should include, for example, relevant names, dates and subject matter to permit the record to be located among the records maintained by the ASC. An individual who has requested that a record pertaining to the individual be amended will be advised promptly if the record cannot be located on the basis of the description given and that further identifying information is necessary before the request can be processed. An initial evaluation of a request presented in person will be made immediately to ensure that the request is complete and to indicate what, if any, additional information will be required. Verification of the individual's identity as set forth in § 1102.102(a) (2), (3), (4) and (5) may also be required.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Basis for amendment.</I> An individual requesting an amendment to a record pertaining to the individual shall specify the substance of the amendment and set forth facts and provide such materials that would support his or her contention that the record as maintained by the ASC is not accurate, timely or complete, or that the record is not necessary and relevant to accomplish a statutory purpose of the ASC as authorized by law or by Executive Order of the President.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acknowledgement of requests for amendment.</I> Receipt of a request to amend a record pertaining to an individual normally will be acknowledged in writing within 10 days after such request has been received, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. When a request to amend is made in person, the individual making the request will be given a written acknowledgement when the request is presented. The acknowledgement will describe the request received and indicate when it is anticipated that action will be taken on the request. No acknowledgement will be sent when the request for amendment will be reviewed, and an initial decision made, within the 10 day period after such request has been received.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.106" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.106   Review of requests for amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial review.</I> As in the case of requests for access, requests by individuals for amendment to records pertaining to them will be referred to the ASC's Privacy Act Officer for an initial determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards to be applied in reviewing requests.</I> In reviewing requests to amend records, the Privacy Act Officer will be guided by the criteria set forth in 5 U.S.C. 552(e) (1) and (5), <I>i.e.,</I> that records maintained by the ASC shall contain only such information as is necessary and relevant to accomplish a statutory purpose of the ASC as required by statute or Executive Order of the President and that such information also be accurate, timely, relevant and complete. These criteria will be applied whether the request is to add material to a record or to delete information from a record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Time for acting on requests.</I> Initial review of a request by an individual to amend a record shall be completed as promptly as is reasonably possible and normally within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays) from the date the request was received, unless unusual circumstances preclude completion of review within that time. If the anticipated completion date indicated in the acknowledgement cannot be met, the individual requesting the amendment will be advised in writing of the delay and the reasons therefor, and also advised when action is expected to be completed.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Grant of requests to amend records.</I> If a request to amend a record is granted in whole or in part, the Privacy Act Officer will:
</P>
<P>(1) Advise the individual making the request in writing of the extent to which it has been granted;
</P>
<P>(2) Amend the record accordingly; and
</P>
<P>(3) Where an accounting of disclosures of the record has been kept pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c), advise all previous recipients of the record of the fact that the record has been amended and the substance of the amendment.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Denial of requests to amend records.</I> If an individual's request to amend a record pertaining to him is denied in whole or in part, the Privacy Act Officer will:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly advise the individual making the request in writing of the extent to which the request has been denied;
</P>
<P>(2) State the reasons for the denial of the request;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the procedures established by the ASC to obtain further review within the ASC of the request to amend, including the name and address of the person to whom the appeal is to be addressed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Inform the individual that the Privacy Act Officer will provide information and assistance to the individual in perfecting an appeal of the initial decision.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.107" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.107   Appeal of initial adverse agency determination regarding access or amendment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative review.</I> Any person who has been notified pursuant to § 1102.103(c) that a request for access to records pertaining to him or her has been denied in whole or in part, or pursuant to § 1102.106(e) of this subpart that a request for amendment has been denied in whole or in part, or who has received no response to a request for access or to amend within 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays) after the request was received by the ASC's staff (or within such extended period as may be permitted in accordance with §§ 1102.103(d) and 1102.106(c) of this subpart), may appeal the adverse determination or failure to respond by applying for an order of the Executive Director determining and directing that access to the record be granted or that the record be amended in accordance with his or her request.
</P>
<P>(1) The application shall be in writing and shall describe the record in issue and set forth the proposed amendment and the reasons therefor.
</P>
<P>(2) The application shall be delivered to the ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, or by mail addressed to the Privacy Act Officer, ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant may state such facts and cite such legal or other authorities in support of the application.
</P>
<P>(4) The Executive Director will make a determination with respect to any appeal within 30 days after the receipt of such appeal (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays), unless for good cause shown, the Executive Director shall extend that period. If such an extension is made, the individual who is appealing shall be advised in writing of the extension, the reasons therefor, and the anticipated date when the appeal will be decided.
</P>
<P>(5) In considering an appeal from a denial of a request to amend a record, the Executive Director shall apply the same standards as set forth in § 1102.106(b).
</P>
<P>(6) If the Executive Director concludes that access should be granted, the Executive Director shall issue an order granting access and instructing the Privacy Act Officer to comply with § 1102.103(b).
</P>
<P>(7) If the Executive Director concludes that the request to amend the record should be granted in whole or in part, the Executive Director shall issue an order granting the requested amendment in whole or in part and instructing the Privacy Act Officer to comply with the requirements of § 1102.106(d) of this subpart, to the extent applicable.
</P>
<P>(8) If the Executive Director affirms the initial decision denying access, the Executive Director shall issue an order denying access and advising the individual seeking access of:
</P>
<P>(i) The order;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for denying access; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The individual's right to obtain judicial review of the decision pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(B).
</P>
<P>(9) If the Executive Director determines that the decision of the Privacy Act Officer denying a request to amend a record should be upheld, the Executive Director shall issue an order denying the request and the individual shall be advised of:
</P>
<P>(i) The order refusing to amend the record and the reasons therefor;
</P>
<P>(ii) The individual's right to file a concise statement setting forth his or her disagreement with the Executive Director's decision not to amend the record;
</P>
<P>(iii) The procedures for filing such a statement of disagreement with the Executive Director;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fact that any such statement of disagreement will be made available to anyone to whom the record is disclosed, together with, if the Executive Director deems it appropriate, a brief statement setting forth the Executive Director's reasons for refusing to amend;
</P>
<P>(v) The fact that prior recipients of the record in issue will be provided with the statement of disagreement and the Executive Director's statement, if any, to the extent that an accounting of such disclosures has been maintained pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(c); and
</P>
<P>(vi) The individual's right to seek judicial review of the Executive Director's refusal to amend, pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement of disagreement.</I> As noted in paragraph (a)(9)(ii) of this section, an individual may file with the Executive Director a statement setting forth his or her disagreement with the Executive Director's denial of his or her request to amend a record.
</P>
<P>(1) Such statement of disagreement shall be delivered to the ASC, 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005, within 30 days after receipt by the individual of the Executive Director's order denying the amendment, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays. For good cause shown, this period can be extended for a reasonable time.
</P>
<P>(2) Such statement of disagreement shall concisely state the basis for the individual's disagreement. Unduly lengthy or irrelevant materials will be returned to the individual by the Executive Director for appropriate revisions before they become a permanent part of the individual's record.
</P>
<P>(3) The record about which a statement of disagreement has been filed will clearly note which part of the record is disputed and the Executive Director will provide copies of the statement of disagreement and, if the Executive Director deems it appropriate, provide a concise statement of his or her reasons for refusing to amend the record, to persons or other agencies to whom the record has been or will be disclosed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 36357, Aug. 13, 1992, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004; 75 FR 36270, June 25, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.108" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.108   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Extensions of time.</I> Pursuant to §§ 1102.103(b), 1102.104(d), 1102.109(c) and 1102.109(a)(4) of this subpart, the time within which a request for information, access or amendment by an individual with respect to records maintained by the ASC that pertain to him or her normally would be processed may be extended for good cause shown or because of unusual circumstances. As used in these rules, <I>good cause</I> and <I>unusual circumstances</I> shall include, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of a particular request:
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from establishments that are separate from the ASC. Some records of the ASC may be stored in Federal Records Centers in accordance with law—including many of the documents that have been on file with the ASC for more than 2 years—and cannot be made available promptly. Any person who has requested for personal examination a record stored at the Federal Records Center will be notified when the record will be made available.
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which may be demanded in a single request. While every reasonable effort will be made to comply fully with each request as promptly as possible on a first-come, first-served basis, work done to search for, collect and appropriately examine records in response to a request for a large number of records will be contingent upon the availability of processing personnel in accordance with an equitable allocation of time to all members of the public who have requested or wish to request records.
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components within the ASC having substantial subject-matter interest herein.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of action.</I> Whenever it is provided in this subpart that an acknowledgement or response to a request will be given by specific times, deposit in the mails of such acknowledgement or response by that time, addressed to the person making the request, will be deemed full compliance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records in use by a member of the ASC or its staff.</I> Although every effort will be made to make a record in use by a member of the ASC or its staff available when requested, it may occasionally be necessary to delay making such a record available when doing so at the time the request is made would seriously interfere with the work of the ASC or its staff.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Missing or lost records.</I> Any person who has requested a record or a copy of a record pertaining to him or her will be notified if the record sought cannot be found. If the person so requests, he or she will be notified if the record subsequently is found.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Oral requests; misdirected written requests</I>—(1) <I>Telephone and other oral requests.</I> Before responding to any request by an individual for information concerning whether records maintained by the ASC in a system of records pertain to the individual or to any request for access to records by an individual, such request must be in writing and signed by the individual making the request. The Executive Director will not entertain any appeal from an alleged denial of failure to comply with an oral request. Any person who has made an oral request for information or access to records who believes that the request has been improperly denied should resubmit the request in appropriate written form to obtain proper consideration and, if need be, administrative review.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Misdirected written requests.</I> The ASC cannot assure that a timely or satisfactory response will be given to written requests for information, access or amendment by an individual with respect to records pertaining to him or her that are directed to the ASC other than in a manner prescribed in §§ 1102.103(a), 1102.106(a), 1102.108(a)(2), and 1102.110 of this subpart. Any staff member who receives a written request for information, access or amendment should promptly forward the request to the Privacy Act Officer. Misdirected requests for records will be considered to have been received by the ASC only when they have been actually received by the Privacy Act Officer in cases under § 1102.108(a)(2). The Executive Director will not entertain any appeal from an alleged denial or failure to comply with a misdirected request, unless it is clearly shown that the request was in fact received by the Privacy Act Officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.109" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.109   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) There will be no charge assessed to the individual for the ASC's expense involved in searching for or reviewing the record. Copies of the ASC's records will be provided by a commercial copier at rates established by a contract between the copier and the ASC or by the ASC at the rates in § 1101.4(b)(5)(ii) of 12 CFR part 1101.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> Whenever the Executive Director of the ASC determines that good cause exists to grant a request for reduction or waiver of fees for copying documents, he or she may reduce or waive any such fees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.110" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.110   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Title 18 U.S.C. 1001 makes it a criminal offense, subject to a maximum fine of $10,000, or imprisonment for not more than 5 years or both, to knowingly and willingly make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements or representations in any matter within the jurisdiction of any agency of the United States. 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) makes it a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of not more than $5,000 for any person knowingly and willfully to request or obtain any record concerning an individual from the ASC under false pretenses. 5 U.S.C. 552a(i) (1) and (2) provide criminal penalties for certain violations of the Privacy Act by officers and employees of the ASC. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Description of Office, Procedures, Public Information</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 553(e); and Executive Order 12600, 52 FR 23781 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>57 FR 60724, Dec. 22, 1992, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1102.300" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.300   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the basic policies of the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council (“ASC”) regarding information it maintains and the procedures for obtaining access to such information. This part does not apply to the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council. Section 1102.301 sets forth definitions applicable to this part 1102, subpart D. Section 1102.302 describes the ASC's statutory authority and functions. Section 1102.303 describes the ASC's organization and methods of operation. Section 1102.304 describes the types of information and documents typically published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Section 1102.305 explains how to access public records maintained on the ASC's World Wide Web site and at the ASC's office and describes the categories of records generally found there. Section 1102.306 implements the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”) (5 U.S.C. 552). Section 1102.307 authorizes the discretionary disclosure of exempt records under certain limited circumstances. Section 1102.308 provides anyone with the right to petition the ASC to issue, amend, and repeal rules of general application. Section 1102.309 sets out the ASC's confidential treatment procedures. Section 1102.310 outlines procedures for serving a subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the ASC.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72496, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.301" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.301   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>ASC</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request from, or on behalf of, a requester who seeks records for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made. In determining whether a request falls within this category, the ASC will determine the use to which a requester will put the records requested and seek additional information as it deems necessary.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures the ASC actually incurs in searching for, duplicating, and, in the case of commercial requesters, reviewing records in response to a request for records.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclose or disclosure</I> mean to give access to a record, whether by producing the written record or by oral discussion of its contents. Where the ASC member or employee authorized to release ASC documents makes a determination that furnishing copies of the documents is necessary, these words include the furnishing of copies of documents or records.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duplication</I> means the process of making a copy of a record necessary to respond to a request for records or for inspection of original records that contain exempt material or that cannot otherwise be directly inspected. Such copies can take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audiovisual records, or machine readable records (<I>e.g.,</I> magnetic tape or computer disk).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate or graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Field review</I> includes, but is not limited to, formal and informal investigations of potential irregularities occurring at State appraiser regulatory agencies involving suspected violations of Federal or State civil or criminal laws, as well as such other investigations as may conducted pursuant to law.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution</I> means an institution that is not operated on a commercial basis as that term is defined in paragraph (b) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Record</I> includes records, files, documents, reports correspondence, books, and accounts, or any portion thereof, in any form the ASC regularly maintains them.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person primarily engaged in gathering news for, or a free-lance journalist who can demonstrate a reasonable expectation of having his or her work product published or broadcast by, an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. The term news means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the general public.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining documents located in a response to a request that is for a commercial use to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure, <I>e.g,</I> doing all that is necessary to excise them and otherwise prepare them for release. Review does not include time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Search</I> includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within records. Searches may be done manually and/or by computer using existing programming.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>State appraiser regulatory agency</I> includes, but is not limited to, any board, commission, individual or other entity that is authorized by State law to license, certify, and supervise the activities or persons authorized to perform appraisals in connections with federally related transactions and real estate related financial transactions that require the services of a State licensed or certified appraiser.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72496, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.302" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.302   ASC authority and functions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The ASC was established on August 9, 1989, pursuant to title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (“FIRREA”), 12 U.S.C. 3331 and 3310 through 3351. title XI is intended “to provide that Federal financial and public policy interests in real estate related transactions will be protected by requiring that real estate appraisals utilized in connection with federally related transactions are performed in writing, in accordance with uniform standards, by individuals whose competency has been demonstrated and whose professional conduct will be subject to effective supervision.” 12 U.S.C. 3331.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Functions.</I> The ASC's statutory functions are generally set out in 12 U.S.C. 3332. In summary, the ASC must:
</P>
<P>(1) Monitor the requirements established by the States for the certification and licensing of individuals who are qualified to perform appraisals in connection with federally related transactions, including a code of professional responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) Monitor the requirements of the Federal financial institutions regulatory agency and Resolution Trust Corporation with respect to appraisal standards for federally related transactions and determinations as to which federally related transactions require the services of a State certified appraiser and which require the services of a State licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(3) Monitor and review the practices, procedures, activities and organizational structure of the Appraisal Foundation; and
</P>
<P>(4) Maintain a national registry of State certified and licensed appraisers eligible to perform appraisals in federally related transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.303" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.303   Organization and methods of operation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory and other guidelines.</I> Statutory requirements relating to the ASC's organization are stated in 12 U.S.C. 3310, 3333 and 3334. The ASC has adopted and published Rules of Operation guiding its administration, meetings and procedures. These Rules of Operation were published at 56 FR 28561 (June 21, 1991) and 56 FR 33451 (July 22, 1991).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>ASC members and staff.</I> The ASC is composed of six members, each being designated by the head of their respective agencies: the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, National Credit Union Administration, Office of Thrift Supervision, and the Department of Housing and Urban Development. Administrative support and substantive program, policy, and legal guidance for ASC activities are provided by a small, full-time, professional staff supervised by an Executive Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FFIEC.</I> title XI placed the ASC within FFIEC as a separate, appropriated agency of the United States Government with specific statutory responsibilities under Federal law. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASD Address</I> ASC offices are located at 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[57 FR 60724, Dec. 22, 1992, as amended at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.304" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.304   Federal Register publication.</HEAD>
<P>The ASC publishes the following information in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public:
</P>
<P>(a) Description of its organization and the established places at which, the officers from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may secure information, make submittals or re nests, or obtain decisions;
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;
</P>
<P>(c) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports or examinations;
</P>
<P>(d) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the ASC;
</P>
<P>(e) Every amendment, revision or repeal of the foregoing; and
</P>
<P>(f) General notices of proposed rulemaking.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.305" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.305   Publicly available records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Records available on the ASCs World Wide Web site</I>—(1) Discretionary release of documents. The ASC encourages the public to explore the wealth of resources available on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site, located at: <I>http://www.asc.gov.</I> The ASC has elected to publish a broad range to materials on its Web site.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents required to be made available via computer telecommunications.</I> (i) The following types of documents created on or after November 1, 1996, and required to be made available through computer telecommunications, may be found on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site located at: <I>http://www.asc.gov:</I>
</P>
<P>(A) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, as well as final orders, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(B) Statements of policy and interpretations adopted by the ASC that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(C) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(D) Copies of all records (regardless of form or format), such as correspondence relating to field reviews or other regulatory subjects, released to any person under § 1102.306 that, because of the nature of their subject matter, the ASC has determined are likely to be the subject of subsequent requests;
</P>
<P>(E) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(i)(D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) To the extent permitted by law, the ASC may delete identifying details when it makes available or publishes any records. If reduction is necessary, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Types of written communications.</I> The following types of written communications shall be subject to paragraph (a) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The ASC's annual report to Congress;
</P>
<P>(2) All final opinions and orders made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(3) All statements of general policy not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P>(4) Requests for the ASC or its staff to provide interpretive advice with respect to the meaning or application of any statute administered by the ASC or any rule or regulation adopted thereunder and any ASC responses thereto;
</P>
<P>(5) Requests for a statement that, on the basis of the facts presented in such a request, the ASC would not take any enforcement action pertaining to the facts as represented and any ASC responses thereto: and
</P>
<P>(6) Correspondence between the ASC and a State appraiser regulatory agency arising out of the ASC's field review of the State agency's appraiser regulatory program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicable fees.</I> (1) If applicable, fees for furnishing records under this section are as set forth in § 1102.306(e).
</P>
<P>(2) Information on the ASC's World Wide Web site is available to the public without charge. If, however, information available on the ASC's World Wide Web site is provided pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request processed under g 1102.306 then fees apply and will be assessed pursuant to § 1102.306(e).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994, as amended at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.306" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.306   Procedures for requesting records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Making a request for records.</I> (1) The request shall be submitted in writing to the Executive Director:
</P>
<P>(i) By facsimile clearly marked “Freedom of Information Act Request” to (202) 293-6251;
</P>
<P>(ii) By letter to the Executive Director marked “Freedom of Information Act Request”; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005; or
</P>
<P>(iii) By sending Internet e-mail to the Executive Director marked “Freedom of Information Act Request” at his or her e-mail address listed on the ASC's World Wide Web site.
</P>
<P>(2) The request shall contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and address of the requester, an electronic mail address, if available, and the telephone number at which the requester may be reached during normal business hours;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the requester is an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or news media representative;
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement agreeing to pay the applicable fees, or a statement identifying a maximum fee that is acceptable to the requester, or a request for a waiver or reduction of fees that satisfies paragraph (e)(1)(x) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The preferred form and format of any responsive information requested, if other than paper copies.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for identifiable records shall reasonably describe the records in a way that enables the ASC's staff to identify and produce the records with reasonable effort and without unduly burdening or significantly interfering with any ASC operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Defective requests.</I> The ASC need not accept or process a request that does not reasonably describe the records requested or that does not otherwise comply with the requirements of this subpart. The ASC may return a defective request, specifying the deficiency. The requester may submit a corrected request, which will be treated as a new request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Processing requests</I>—(1) <I>Receipt of requests.</I> Upon receipt of any request that satisfies paragraph (a) of this section, the Executive Director shall assign the request to the appropriate processing track pursuant to this section. The date of receipt for any request, including one that is addressed incorrectly or that is referred by another agency, is the date the Executive Director actually receives the request.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Expedited processing.</I> (i) Where a person requesting expedited access to records has demonstrated a compelling need for the records, or where the ASC has determined to expedite the response, the ASC shall process the request as soon as practicable. To show a compelling need for expedited processing, the requester shall provide a statement demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(A) The failure to obtain the records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(B) The requester can establish that it is primarily engaged in information dissemination as its main professional occupation or activity, and there is urgency to inform the public of the government activity involved in the re request; and
</P>
<P>(C) The requester's statement must be certified to be true and correct to the best of the person's knowledge and belief and explain in detail the basis for requesting expedited processing.
</P>
<P>(ii) The formality of the certification required to obtain expedited treatment may be waived by the Executive Director as a matter of administrative discretion.
</P>
<P>(3) A requester seeking expedited processing will be notified whether expedited processing has been granted within ten (10) working days of the receipt of the request. If the request for expedited processing is denied, the requester may file an appeal pursuant to the procedures set forth in paragraph (g) of this section, and the ASC shall respond to the appeal within ten (10) working days after receipt of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Priority of responses.</I> Consistent with sound administrative process, the ASC processes requests in the order they are received. However, in the ASC's discretion, or upon a court order in a matter to which the ASC is a party, a particular request may be processed out of turn.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Notification.</I> (i) The time for response to requests will be twenty (20) working days except:
</P>
<P>(A) In the case of expedited treatment under paragraph (c)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) Where the running of such time is suspended for the calculation of a cost estimate for the requester if the ASC determines that the processing of the request may exceed the requester's maximum fee provision or if the charges are likely to exceed $250 as provided for in paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Where the running of such time is suspended for the payment of fees pursuant to the paragraph (c)(5)(i)(B) and (e)(1) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(D) In unusual circumstances, as defined in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B) and further described in paragraph (c)(5)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In unusual circumstances as referred to in paragraph (c)(5)(i)(D) of this section, the time limit may be extended for a period of:
</P>
<P>(A) Ten (10) working days as provided by written notice to the requester, setting forth the reasons for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such alternative time period as agreed to by the requester or as reasonably determined by the ASC when the ASC notifies the requester that the request cannot be processed in the specified time limit.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unusual circumstances may arise when:
</P>
<P>(A) The records are in facilities that are not located at the ASC's Washington office;
</P>
<P>(B) The records requested are voluminous or are not in close proximity to one another; or
</P>
<P>(C) There is a need to consult with another agency or among two or more components of the ASC having a substantial interest in the determination.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Response to request.</I> In response to a request that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, a search shall be conducted of records maintained by the ASC in existence on the date of receipt of the request, and a review made of any responsive information located. To the extent permitted by law, the ASC may redact identifying details when it makes available or publishes any records. If redaction is appropriate, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The ASC shall notify the requester of:
</P>
<P>(i) The ASC's determination of the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for the determination;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the response is a denial of an initial request or if any information is withheld, the ASC will advise the requester in writing:
</P>
<P>(A) If the denial is in part or in whole;
</P>
<P>(B) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (when other than the person signing the notification);
</P>
<P>(C) The exemptions relied on for the denial; and
</P>
<P>(D) The right of the requester to appeal the denial to the Chairman of the ASC within 30 business days following receipt of the notification, as specified in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Providing responsive records.</I> (1) Copies of requested records shall be sent to the requester by regular U.S. mail to the address indicated in the request, unless the requester elects to take delivery of the documents at the ASC or makes other acceptable arrangements, or the ASC deems it appropriate to send the documents by another means.
</P>
<P>(2) The ASC shall provide a copy of the record in any form or format requested if the record is readily reproducible by the ASC in that form or format, but the ASC need not provide more than one copy of any record to a requester.
</P>
<P>(3) By arrangement with the requester, the ASC may elect to send the responsive records electronically if a substantial portion of the request is in electronic format. If the information requested is made pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974, 5 U.S.C. 552a, it will not be sent by electronic means unless reasonable security measures can be provided.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fees</I>—(1) <I>General rules.</I> (i) Persons requesting records of the ASC shall be charged for the direct costs of search, duplication, and review as set forth in paragraphs (e)(2) and (e)(3) of this section, unless such costs are less than the ASC's cost of processing the requester's remittance.
</P>
<P>(ii) Requesters will be charged for search and review costs even if responsive records are not located or, if located, are determined to be exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(iii) Multiple requests seeking similar or related records from the same requester or group of requesters will be aggregated for the purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the ASC determines that the estimated costs of search, duplication, or review of requested records will exceed the dollar amount specified in the request, or if no dollar amount is specified, the ASC will advise the requester of the estimated costs. The requester must agree in writing to pay the costs of search, duplication, and review prior to the ASC initiating any records search.
</P>
<P>(v) If the ASC estimates that its search, duplication, and review costs will exceed $250, the requester must pay an amount equal to 20 percent of the estimated costs prior to the ASC initiating any records search.
</P>
<P>(vi) The ASC ordinarily will collect all applicable fees under the final invoice before releasing copies of requested records to the requester.
</P>
<P>(vii) The ASC may require any requester who has previously failed to pay charges under this section within 30 calendar days of mailing of the invoice to pay in advance the total estimated costs of search, duplication, and review. The ASC also may require a requester who has any charges outstanding in excess of 30 calendar days following mailing of the invoice to pay the full amount due, or demonstrate that the fee has been paid in full, prior to the ASC initiating any additional records search.
</P>
<P>(viii) The ASC may begin assessing interest charges on unpaid bills on the 31st day following the day on which the invoice was sent. Interest will be at the rate prescribed in § 3717 of title 31 of the United States Code and will accrue from the date of the invoice.
</P>
<P>(ix) The time limit for the ASC to respond to a request will not begin to run until the ASC has received the requester's written agreement under paragraph (e)(1)(iv) of this section, and advance payment under paragraph (e)(1)(v) or (vii) of this section, or payment of outstanding charges under paragraph (e)(1)(vii) or (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(x) As part of the initial request, a requester may ask that the ASC waive or reduce fees if disclosure of the records is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government and is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. Determinations as to a waiver or reduction of fees will be made by the Executive Director (or designee), and the requester will be notified in writing of his or her determination. A determination not to grant a request for a waiver or reduction of fees under this paragraph may be appealed to the ASC's Chairman pursuant to the procedure set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chargeable fees by category of requester.</I> (i) Commercial use requesters shall be charged search, duplication, and review costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) Educational institutions, noncommercial scientific institutions, and news media representatives shall be charged duplication costs, except for the first 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(iii) Requesters not described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) or (ii) of this section shall be charged the full reasonable direct cost of search and duplication, except for the first two hours of search time and first 100 pages of duplication. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fee schedule.</I> The dollar amount of fees which the ASC may charge to records requesters will be established by the Executive Director. The ASC may charge fees that recoup the full allowable direct costs it incurs. Fees are subject to change as costs change. The fee schedule will be published periodically on the ASC's Internet World Wide Web site (<I>http://www.asc.gov</I>) and will be effective on the date of publication. Copies of the fee schedule may be obtained by request at no charge by contacting the Executive Director by letter, Internet email or facsimile. 
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Manual searches for records.</I> The ASC will charge for manual searches for records at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Computer searches for records.</I> The fee for searches of computerized records is the actual direct cost of the search, including computer time, computer runs, and the operator's time apportioned to the search multiplied by the operator's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Duplication of records.</I> (A) The per-page fee for paper copy reproduction of documents is $.25. 
</P>
<P>(B) For other methods of reproduction or duplication, the ASC will charge the actual direct costs of reproducing or duplicating the documents, including each involved employee's basic rate of pay plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. 
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Review of records.</I> The ASC will charge commercial use requesters for the review of records at the time of processing the initial request to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure at the basic rate of pay of the employee making the search plus 16 percent to cover employee benefit costs. The ASC will not charge at the administrative appeal level for review of an exemption already applied. When records or portions of records are withheld in full under an exemption which is subsequently determined not to apply, the ASC may charge for a subsequent review to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. 
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other services.</I> Complying with requests for special services, other than a readily produced electronic form or format, is at the ASC's discretion. The ASC may recover the full costs of providing such services to the requester. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Use of contractors.</I> The ASC may contact with independent contractors to locate, reproduce, and/or disseminate records; provided, however, that the ASC has determined that the ultimate cost to the requester will be no greater than it would be if the ASC performed these tasks itself. In no case will the ASC contract our responsibilities which FOIA provides that the ASC alone may discharge, such as determining the applicability of an exemption or whether to waive or reduce fees. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exempt information.</I> A request for records may be denied if the requested record contains information that falls into one or more of the following categories. 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> If the requested record contains both exempt and nonexempt information, the nonexempt portions, which may reasonable be segregated from the exempt portions, will be released to the requester. If redaction is necessary, the ASC will, to the extent technically feasible, indicate the amount of material deleted at the place in the record where such deletion is made unless that indication in and of itself will jeopardize the purpose for the redaction. The categories of exempt records are as follows: 
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Classification of a record as exempt from disclosure under the provisions of this paragraph (f) shall not be construed as authority to withhold the record if it is otherwise subject to disclosure under the Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a) or other Federal statute, any applicable regulation of ASC or any other Federal agency having jurisdiction thereof, or any directive or order of any court of competent jurisdiction.</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) Records that are specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order; 
</P>
<P>(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the ASC; 
</P>
<P>(3) Records specifically exempted from disclosure by statute, provided that such statute: 
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld; 
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person that is privileged or confidential; 
</P>
<P>(5) Interagency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with the ASC; 
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel, medical, and similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; 
</P>
<P>(7) Records compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records: 
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trail or an impartial adjudication; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished records on a confidential basis;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual;
</P>
<P>(8) Records that are contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the ASC or any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appeals.</I> (1) Appeals should be addressed to the Executive Director; ASC; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005.
</P>
<P>(2) A person whose initial request for records under this section, or whose request for a waiver of fees under paragraph (e)(1)(x) of this section, has been denied, either in part or in whole, has the right to appeal the denial to the ASC's Chairman (or designee) within 30 business days after receipt of notification of the denial. Appeals of denials of initial requests or for a waiver of fees must be in writing and include any additional information relevant to consideration of the appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) Except in the case of an appeal for expedited treatment under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, the ASC will notify the appellant in writing within 20 business days after receipt of the appeal and will state:
</P>
<P>(i) Whether it is granted or denied in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(ii) The name and title of each person responsible for the denial (if other than the person signing the notification);
</P>
<P>(iii) The exemptions relied upon for the denial in the case of initial requests for records; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The right to judicial review of the denial under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(4) If a requester is appealing for denial of expedited treatment, the ASC will notify the appellant within ten business days after receipt of the appeal of the ASC's disposition.
</P>
<P>(5) Complete payment of any outstanding fee invoice will be required before an appeal is processed.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Records of another agency.</I> If a requested record is the property of another Federal agency or department, and that agency or department, either in writing or by regulation, expressly retains ownership of such record, upon receipt of a request for the record the ASC will promptly inform the requester of this ownership and immediately shall forward the request to the proprietary agency or department either for processing in accordance with the latter's regulations or for guidance with respect to disposition.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999; 65 FR 31960, May 19, 2000, as amended at 69 FR 2501, Jan. 16, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.307" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.307   Disclosure of exempt records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disclosure prohibited.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section or by 12 CFR part 1102, subpart C, no person shall disclose or permit the disclosure of any exempt records, or information contained therein, to any persons other than those officers, directors, employees, or agents of the ASC or a State appraiser regulatory agency who has a need for such records in the performance of their official duties. In any instance in which any person has possession, custody or control of ASC exempt records or information contained therein, all copies of such records shall remain the property of the ASC and under no circumstances shall any person, entity or agency disclose or make public in any manner the exempt records or information without written authorization from the Executive Director, after consultation with the ASC General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure authorized.</I> Exempt records or information of the ASC may be disclosed only in accordance with the conditions and requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Requests for discretionary disclosure of exempt records of information pursuant to this paragraph (b) may be submitted directly to the Executive Director. Such administrative request must clearly state that it seeks discretionary disclosure of exempt records, clearly identify the records sought, provide sufficient information for the ASC to evaluate whether there is good cause for disclosure, and meet all other conditions set forth in paragraph (b)(1) through (3) of this section. Authority to disclose or authorize disclosure of exempt records of the ASC is delegated to the Executive Director, after consultation with the ASC General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Disclosure by Executive Director.</I> (i) The Executive Director, or designee, may disclose or authorize the disclosure of any exempt record in response to a valid judicial subpoena, court order, or other legal process, and authorize any current or former member, officer, employee, agent of the ASC, or third party, to appear and testify regarding an exempt record or any information obtained in the performance of such person's official duties, at any administrative or judicial hearing or proceeding where such person has been served with a valid subpoena, court order, or other legal process requiring him or her to testify. The Executive Director shall consider the relevancy of such exempt records or testimony to the ligation, and the interests of justice, in determining whether to disclose such records or testimony. Third parties seeking disclosure of exempt records or testimony in litigation to which the ASC is not a party shall submit a request for discretionary disclosure directly to the Executive Director. Such requests shall specify the information sought with reasonable particularity and shall be accompanied by a statement with supporting documentation showing in detail the relevance of such exempt information to the litigation, justifying good cause for disclosure, and a commitment to be bound by a protective order. Failure to exhaust such administration request prior to service of a subpoena or other legal process may, in the Executive Director's discretion, serve as a basis for objection to such subpoena or legal process.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Executive Director, or designee, may in his or her discretion and for good cause, disclose or authorize disclosure of any exempt record or testimony by a current or former member, officer, employee, agent of the ASC, or third party, sought in connection with any civil or criminal hearing, proceeding or investigation without the service of a judicial subpoena, or other legal process requiring such disclosure or testimony. If he or she determines that the records or testimony are relevant to the hearing, proceeding or investigation and that disclosure is in the best interests of justice and not otherwise prohibited by Federal statute. Where the Executive Director or designee authorizes a current or former member, officer, director, empl9oyee or agent of the ASC to testify or disclose exempt records pursuant to this paragraph (b)(1), he or she may, in his or her discretion, limit the authorization to so much of the record or testimony as is relevant to the issues at such hearing, proceeding or investigation, and he or she shall give authorization only upon fulfillment of such conditions as he or she deems necessary and practicable to protect the confidential nature of such records or testimony. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Authorization for disclosure by the Chairman of the ASC.</I> Except where expressly prohibited by law, the Chairman of the ASC may, in his or her discretion, authorize the disclosure of any ASC records. Except where disclosure is required by law, the Chairman may direct any current or former member, officer, director, employee or agent of the ASC to refuse to disclose any record or to give testimony if the Chairman determines, in his or her discretion, that refusal to permit such disclosure is in the public interest. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limitations on disclosure.</I> All steps practicable shall be taken to protect the confidentiality of exempt records and information. Any disclosure permitted by paragraph (b) of this section is discretionary and nothing in paragraph (b) of this section shall be construed as requiring the disclosure of information. Further, nothing in paragrah (b) of this section shall be construed as restricting, in any manner, the authority of the ASC, the Chairman of the ASC, the Executive Director, the ASC General Counsel, or their designees, in their discretion and in light of the facts and circumstances attendant in any given case, to require conditions upon, and to limit, the form, manner, and extent of any disclosure permitted by this section. Wherever practicable, disclosure of exempt records shall be made pursuant to a protective order and redacted to exclude all irrelevant or non-responsive exempt information. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72500, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.308" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.308   Right to petition for issuance, amendment and repeal of rules of general application.</HEAD>
<P>Any person desiring the issuance, amendment or repeal of a rule of general application may file a petition for those purposes with the Executive Director of the ASC. The petition shall include a statement setting forth the text or substance of any proposed rule or amendment desired or shall specify the rule for which repeal is desired. The petitioner also shall state the nature of his or her interest and the reasons for seeking ASC action. The Executive Director shall acknowledge receipt of the petition within ten business days of receipt. As soon as reasonably practicable, the ASC shall consider the petition and related staff recommendations and shall take such action as it deems appropriate. The Executive Director shall notify the petitioner in writing of the ASC action within ten business days of the action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994. Redesignated at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.309" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.309   Confidential treatment procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Any submitter of written information to the ASC who desires that some or all of his or her submission be afforded confidential treatment under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) (<I>i.e.,</I> trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential) shall file a request for confidential treatment with the Executive Director of the ASC at the time the written information is submitted to the ASC or within ten business days thereafter. Nothing in this section limits the authority of the ASC and its staff to make determinations regarding access to documents under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form of request.</I> A request for confidential treatment shall be submitted in a separate letter or memorandum conspicuously entitled, “Request for Confidential Treatment.” Each request shall state in reasonable detail the facts and arguments supporting the request and its legal justification. If the submitter had been required by the ASC to provide the particular information, conclusory statements that the information would be useful to competitors or would impair sales or similar statements generally will not be considered sufficient to justify confidential treatment. When the submitter had voluntarily provided the particular information to the ASC, the submitter must specifically identify the documents or information which are of a kind the submitter would not customarily make available to the public.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation and separation of confidential material.</I> Submitters shall clearly designate all information considered confidential and shall clearly separate such information from other non-confidential information, whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>ASC action on request.</I> A request for confidential treatment of information will be considered only in connection with a request for access to the information under FOIA as implemented by this subpart. Upon the receipt of a request for access, the Executive Director or his or her designee (“ASC Officer”) as soon as possible shall provide the submitter with a written notice describing the request and shall provide the submitter with a reasonable opportunity, no longer than ten business days, to submit written objections to disclosure of the information. Notice may be given orally, and such notice shall be promptly confirmed in writing. The ASC Officer may provide a submitter with a notice if the submitter did not request confidential treatment of the requested information. If the ASC required the submitter to provide the requested information, the ASC Officer would need substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the requested information would result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter. If the submitter provided the information voluntarily to the ASC, the ASC officer would need to believe that the information is of a kind the submitter would not customarily make available to the public. The ASC Officer similarly shall notify the person seeking disclosure of the information under FOIA of the existence of a request for confidential treatment. These notice requirements need not be followed if the ASC Officer determines under this subpart that the information should not be disclosed; the information has been published or has been officially made available to the public; disclosure of the information is required by law (other than FOIA); or the submitter's request for confidential treatment appears obviously frivolous, in such instance the submitter shall be given written notice of the determination to disclose the information at least five business days prior to release. The ASC Officer shall carefully consider the issues involved, and if disclosure of the requested information is warranted, a written notice, containing a brief description of why the submitter's objections were not sustained, must be forwarded to the submitter within ten business days. The time for response may be extended up to ten additional business days, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B), or for other periods by agreement between the requester and the ASC Officer. This notice shall be provided to the submitter at least five business days prior to release of the requested information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of lawsuit.</I> The ASC Officer shall notify a submitter of any filing of any suit against the ASC pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552 to compel disclosure of documents or information covered by the submitter's request for confidential treatment within ten business days of service of the suit. The ASC Officer also shall notify the requester of the documents or information of any suit filed by the submitter against the ASC to enjoin their disclosure within ten business days of service of the suit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 1902, Jan. 13, 1994. Redesignated at 64 FR 72497, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.310" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.4.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.310   Service of process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Service.</I> Any subpoena or other legal process to obtain information maintained by the ASC shall be duly issued by a court having jurisdiction over the ASC, and served upon the Chairman ASC; 1325 G Street NW, Suite 500, Washington, DC 20005. Where the ASC is named as a party, service of process shall be made pursuant to the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure upon the Chairman at the above address. The Chairman shall immediately forward any subpoena, court order or legal process to the General Counsel. If consistent with the terms of the subpoena, court order or legal process, the ASC may require the payment of fees, in accordance with the fee schedule referred to in § 1102.306(e) prior to the release of any records requested pursuant to any subpoena or other legal process.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification by person served.</I> If any current or former member, officer, employee or agent of the ASC, or any other person who has custody of records belonging to the ASC, is served with a subpoena, court order, or other process requiring that person's attendance as a witness concerning any matter related to official duties, or the production of any exempt record of the ASC, such person shall promptly advise the Executive Director of such service, the testimony and records described in the subpoena, and all relevant facts that may assist the Executive Director, in consultation with the ASC General Counsel, in determining whether the individual in question should be authorized to testify or the records should be produced. Such person also should inform the court or tribunal that issued the process and the attorney for the party upon whose application the process was issued, if known, of the substance of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appearance by person served.</I> Absent the written authorization of the Executive Director or designee to disclose the requested information, any current or former member, officer, employee, or agent of the ASC, and any other person having custody of records of the ASC, who is required to respond to a subpoena or other legal process, shall attend at the time and place therein specified and respectfully decline to produce any such record or give any testimony with respect thereto, basing such refusal on this section. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[64 FR 72501, Dec. 28, 1999]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Collection and Transmission of Appraisal Management Company (AMC) Registry Fees</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 44501, Sept. 25, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1102.400" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.400   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Appraisal Subcommittee (ASC) under sections 1106 and 1109 (a)(4)(B) of Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 (Title XI), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3335, 3338 (a)(4)(B)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 1109 (a)(4)(B) of Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to States that elect to register and supervise appraisal management companies pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 3346 and 3353, and the regulations promulgated thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.401" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.401   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>AMC Registry</I> means the national registry maintained by the ASC of those AMCs that meet the Federal definition of AMC, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 3350(11), are registered by a State or are Federally regulated, and have paid the annual AMC registry fee.
</P>
<P><I>(b) AMC Rule</I> means the interagency final rule on minimum requirements for AMCs. (12 CFR 34.210-34.216; 12 CFR 225.190-225.196; 12 CFR 323.8-323.14; 12 CFR 1222.20-1222.26).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>ASC</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council established under section 1102 (12 U.S.C. 3310) as it amended the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3301 <I>et seq.</I>) by adding section 1011.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Performed an appraisal</I> means the appraisal service requested of an appraiser by the AMC was provided to the AMC.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>State</I> means any State, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, and American Samoa.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other terms.</I> Definitions of: <I>Appraisal management company (AMC); appraisal management services; appraisal panel; consumer credit; covered transaction; dwelling; Federally regulated AMC</I> are incorporated from the AMC Rule by reference.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.402" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.402   Establishing the annual AMC registry fee.</HEAD>
<P>The annual AMC registry fee to be applied by States that elect to register and supervise AMCs is established as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) In the case of an AMC that has been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State during the previous year; and
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of an AMC that has not been in existence for more than a year, $25 multiplied by the number of appraisers who have performed an appraisal for the AMC in connection with a covered transaction in such State since the AMC commenced doing business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1102.403" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.3.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1102.403   Collection and transmission of annual AMC registry fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of annual AMC registry fees.</I> States that elect to register and supervise AMCs pursuant to the AMC Rule shall collect an annual registry fee as established in § 1102.402 from AMCs eligible to be on the AMC Registry.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transmission of annual AMC registry fee.</I> States that elect to register and supervise AMCs pursuant to the AMC Rule shall transmit AMC registry fees as established in § 1102.402 to the ASC on an annual basis. States may align a one-year period with any 12-month period, which may, or may not, be based on the calendar year. Only those AMCs whose registry fees have been transmitted to the ASC will be eligible to be on the AMC Registry.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1103-1199" NODE="12:10.0.1.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1103-1199 [RESERVED]
</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XII" NODE="12:10.0.2" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XII—FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—ORGANIZATION AND OPERATIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1200" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1200—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552, 12 U.S.C. 4512, 12 U.S.C. 4526, 44 U.S.C. 3506.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1200.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.1.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1200.1   Federal Housing Finance Agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and authority.</I> The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) is an independent agency of the Federal Government. Division A of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654, titled the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008, amended the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>) (Safety and Soundness Act) and the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1421-1449) to establish FHFA. FHFA administers the Safety and Soundness Act and the regulated entities' authorizing statutes: the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act. FHFA is responsible for the supervision and regulation of the Federal National Mortgage Corporation (Fannie Mae), the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (Freddie Mac), (together, Enterprises), the Federal Home Loan Banks (Banks) (collectively, the “regulated entities”), and the Office of Finance (OF). FHFA is charged with ensuring that the regulated entities: Operate in a safe and sound manner, including maintaining adequate capital and internal controls; foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing finance markets; comply with the Safety and Soundness Act and their respective authorizing statutes, and rules, regulations and orders issued under the Safety and Soundness Act and the authorizing statutes; and carry out their respective statutory missions through activities and operations that are authorized and consistent with the Safety and Soundness Act, their respective authorizing statutes, and the public interest. FHFA's costs and expenses are funded by annual assessments paid by the regulated entities. FHFA is headed by a director, who is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate for a five-year term.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Location.</I> FHFA's headquarters is located at 400 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. FHFA's official hours of business are 8:00 a.m.-5 p.m. (Eastern Time), Monday through Friday, excluding Federal holidays.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1200.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.1.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1200.2   Organization of the Federal Housing Finance Agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Director.</I> The Director is responsible for overseeing the prudential operations of each regulated entity, and for ensuring that each regulated entity: Operates in a safe and sound manner; operates and acts to foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing financing markets; complies with the Safety and Soundness Act, its authorizing statute, and rules, regulations, guidelines, and orders issued under those statutes; carries out its mission only through activities that are authorized by statute; and acts and operates consistent with the public interest. The Director may delegate to FHFA officers and employees any of the functions, powers, and duties of the Director as the Director considers appropriate. The Director manages FHFA, including through authorities delegated to FHFA officers and employees.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deputy Director of the Division of Enterprise Regulation.</I> The Deputy Director is responsible for managing FHFA's program of prudential supervision of the Enterprises. The Deputy Director provides management oversight, direction, and support for all examination activity involving the Enterprises, the development of supervision findings, and preparation of the annual reports of examination. The Deputy Director provides support and advice to the Director and other senior executives and represents the division on significant and emerging supervisory issues and development of FHFA supervisory policy, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deputy Director of the Division of Housing Mission and Goals.</I> The Deputy Director is responsible for FHFA policy development and analysis, oversight of housing and regulatory policy, and oversight of the mission and goals of the Enterprises. The Deputy Director oversees and coordinates FHFA activities regarding data analysis, market surveillance, policy development, policy research and analysis affecting housing finance and financial markets, and policy analysis and research in support of FHFA's mission and the Director's responsibilities as a member of the Federal Housing Finance Oversight board, the Financial Stability Oversight Board, and the Financial Stability Oversight Council, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deputy Director of the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation.</I> The Deputy Director is responsible for managing FHFA's program of prudential supervision of the Banks and the OF. The Deputy Director provides management oversight, direction and support for all examination activity involving the Banks, the development of supervision findings, and preparation of the annual reports of examination. The Deputy Director provides support and advice to the Director and other senior executives and represents the division on significant and emerging supervisory issues and development of FHFA supervisory policy, and has such other responsibilities as the Director may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Offices and functions</I>—(1) <I>Office of the Director.</I> The Office of the Director supports the activities of the Director and includes Offices as the Director may create within the Office of the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Division of Enterprise Regulation.</I> The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (b) of this section. The division oversees and directs all Enterprise supervisory activities, develops examination findings, prepares reports of examination, and prepares the sections of the Annual Report to Congress that describe the condition and performance of each Enterprise. The division monitors and assesses the financial condition and performance of the Enterprises. By means of annual examinations and a continuous on-site presence, the division monitors and assesses the amount of risk each Enterprise assumes, the quality of risk management, and compliance with regulations.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Division of Housing Mission and Goals.</I> The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (c) of this section. In support of FHFA's mission and the Director's responsibilities as a member of the Federal Housing Finance Oversight Board, the Financial Stability Oversight Board, and the Financial Stability Oversight Committee, the division also oversees and coordinates FHFA activities that involve certain data analysis, and analysis affecting housing finance and financial markets.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation.</I> The division supports and implements the responsibilities of the Deputy Director described in paragraph (d) of this section, including overseeing and directing all Bank supervisory activities, developing examination findings, preparing reports of examination, and preparing the sections of the annual report to Congress that describe the condition and performance of the Banks. The division monitors and assesses the financial condition and performance of the Banks and the OF and monitors and assesses their compliance with regulations, the amount of risk they assume, and the quality of their risk management through annual on-site examinations, periodic visits, and ongoing off-site monitoring and analysis.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Office of Inspector General.</I> The office is headed by a presidentially appointed and Senate-confirmed Inspector General who serves under the general supervision of the Director. The office carries out activities and responsibilities established in the Inspector General Act of 1978.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Office of General Counsel.</I> The office advises and supports the Director and FHFA staff on legal matters related to the functions, activities, and operations of FHFA and the regulated entities; it supports supervision functions, development and promulgation of regulations and orders, and enforcement actions. The office manages the Freedom of Information, Privacy Act and ethics programs. The Designated Agency Ethics Official advises, counsels, and trains FHFA employees on ethical standards and conflicts of interest, and manages the agency's financial disclosure program.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Office of the Ombudsman.</I> The office is responsible for considering complaints and appeals from the regulated entities, the OF and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the OF concerning any matter relating to FHFA's regulation and supervision of that entity or the OF.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Office of Minority and Women Inclusion.</I> The office is responsible for all matters of FHFA relating to diversity in management, employment, and business activities, and for supervising the diversity requirements applicable to the regulated entities and the OF.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Other Offices and Departments.</I> The Director may from time to time establish or terminate Offices and Divisions of the agency as the Director deems necessary or appropriate to carry out FHFA's mission. The Director may establish Offices and positions as the Director deems necessary and appropriate to support the operations of a federal agency, such as a Deputy Director for one or more specified areas of responsibility, a Chief Operating Officer, a Chief Financial Officer, an Office of Information Technology, and such other offices, departments, and positions as are necessary and appropriate or may be required by statute.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional information.</I> Current information on the organization of FHFA may be obtained by mail from the Office of Congressional Affairs and Communications, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Washington, DC 20219. Such information, as well as other FHFA information, also may be obtained electronically by accessing FHFA's Web site located at <I>www.FHFA.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 45599, July 31, 2015; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1200.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.1.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1200.3   Official logo and seal.</HEAD>
<P>This section describes and displays the logo adopted by the Director as the official symbol representing FHFA. It is displayed on correspondence, selected documents, and signage. The logo serves as the official seal to certify and authenticate official documents of the agency.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Description.</I> The logo is a disc consisting of three polygons each drawn in a manner resembling a silhouette of a pitched roof house and with distinctive eaves under its roof. Each polygon is placed one in front of the other, two of which are diminished in size from the polygon behind it. Placed in the center of the smallest polygon is the acronym for the organization, “FHFA.” The polygons are encircled by a designation scroll having a solid background and containing the words “FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY” in capital letters with serifs, with two mullets on the extreme left and right of the scroll. Upon approval by the Director, FHFA may employ variations of the color or shading of its logo and seal for specified purposes; these will be available for reference on the agency Web site at <I>www.fhfa.gov.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Display.</I> FHFA's official logo and seal appears below:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er31jy15.025.gif"/>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 73264, Dec. 10, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 45599, July 31, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1200.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.1.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1200.4   OMB control numbers assigned under the Paperwork Reduction Act.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Under the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3531) and the implementing regulations of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) (5 CFR part 1320), an agency may not conduct or sponsor, and a person is not required to respond to, a collection of information unless it displays a currently valid OMB control number.
</P>
<P>(b) OMB has approved the collections of information contained in FHFA's regulations and has assigned each collection a control number. The following table displays the sections of FHFA's regulations (both those located in this chapter and those promulgated by the former Federal Housing Finance Board that appear in chapter IX of this title) containing collections of information, along with the applicable OMB control numbers and the expirations dates for those control numbers:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">12 CFR part or section where identified and described
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">OMB
<br/>control No.
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Expiration
<br/>date
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1222.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1222.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1222.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1222.25</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1222.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0013</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1223.23</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0014</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">07/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1261.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">02/28/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1261.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">02/28/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1261.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0006</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">02/28/2021
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.11</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.12</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.13</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.14</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.16</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.19</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.26</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1263.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0003</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1264.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1264.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1264.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1266.17</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0001</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12/31/2018
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1268.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0008</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">02/29/2016
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1277.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/30/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1277.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0002</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">04/30/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1290.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1290.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1290.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1290.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0005</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1291.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1291.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1291.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1291.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1291.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2590-0007</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">03/31/2020</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 76294, Nov. 2, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 39325, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1201" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1201—GENERAL DEFINITIONS APPLYING TO ALL FEDERAL HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 2322, Jan. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1201.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.2.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1201.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used throughout this chapter, the following basic terms relating to the Federal Housing Finance Agency, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal Home Loan Banks, the Office of Finance, and related entities have the meanings set forth below, unless otherwise indicated in a particular subchapter, part, section, or paragraph:
</P>
<P><I>1934 Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Acquired member assets</I> or <I>AMA</I> means assets acquired in accordance with, and satisfying the applicable requirements of, part 1268 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Advance</I> means a loan from a Bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided pursuant to a written agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Supported by a note or other written evidence of the borrower's obligation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Fully secured by collateral in accordance with the Bank Act and part 1266 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing Program or AHP</I> means the Affordable Housing Program that each Bank is required to establish pursuant to section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)) and part 1291 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the meaning set forth in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)) and, for federally-insured credit unions, means the NCUA.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate state regulator</I> means any state officer, agency, supervisor or other entity that has regulatory authority over, or is empowered to institute enforcement action against, a particular institution.
</P>
<P><I>Authorizing Statutes</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, and the Federal Home Loan Bank Act.
</P>
<P><I>Bank,</I> written in title case, means a Federal Home Loan Bank established under section 12 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432).
</P>
<P><I>Bank Act</I> means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1421 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Bank System</I> means the Federal Home Loan Bank System, consisting of all of the Banks and the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan</I> means the capital structure plan required for each Bank by section 6(b) of the Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1426(b)).
</P>
<P><I>CIP</I> means the Community Investment Program, an advance program under CICA required to be offered pursuant to section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)).
</P>
<P><I>Community Investment Cash Advance or CICA</I> means any advance made through a program offered by a Bank under section 10 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430) and parts 1291 and 1292 of this chapter to provide funding for targeted community lending and affordable housing, including advances made under a Bank's Rural Development Funding (RDF) program, offered under section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)); a Bank's Urban Development Funding (UDF) program, offered under section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)); a Bank's Affordable Housing Program (AHP), offered under section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)); a Bank's Community Investment Program (CIP), offered under section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)); or any other program offered by a Bank that meets the requirements of part 1292 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Community lending</I> means providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries, and, for community financial institutions (as defined in § 1263.1 of this chapter), purchasing or funding small business loans, small farm loans, small agri-business loans, or community development loans (as defined in § 1266.1 of this chapter).
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated obligation or CO</I> means any bond, debenture, or note on which the Banks are jointly and severally liable and which was issued under section 11 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431) and any implementing regulations, whether or not such instrument was originally issued jointly by the Banks or by the Federal Housing Finance Board on behalf of the Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Data Reporting Manual or DRM</I> means a manual issued by FHFA and amended from time to time containing reporting requirements for the Regulated Entities.
</P>
<P><I>Director,</I> written in title case, means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> means Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac (collectively, Enterprises) and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Excess stock</I> means that amount of a Bank's capital stock owned by a member or other institution in excess of that member's or other institution's minimum investment in capital stock required under the Bank's capital plan, the Bank Act, or FHFA's regulations, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Fannie Mae</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency established by Section 1311(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act. (12 U.S.C. 4511(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Financing Corporation or FICO</I> means the Financing Corporation established and supervised by the Director under section 21 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441) and part 1271 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>FRB</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Freddie Mac</I> means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Generally Accepted Accounting Principles or GAAP</I> means accounting principles generally accepted in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Ginnie Mae</I> means the Government National Mortgage Association.
</P>
<P><I>GLB Act</I> means the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (Pub. L. 106-102 (1999)).
</P>
<P><I>HERA</I> means the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654.
</P>
<P><I>Housing associate</I> means an entity that has been approved as a housing associate pursuant to part 1264 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>HUD</I> means the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.
</P>
<P><I>Member</I> means an institution that has been approved for membership in a Bank and has purchased capital stock in the Bank in accordance with §§ 1263.20 or 1263.24(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>NCUA</I> means the National Credit Union Administration.
</P>
<P><I>NRSRO</I> means a credit rating organization registered with the SEC as a nationally recognized statistical rating organization by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>OCC</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Finance or OF</I> means the Office of Finance, a joint office of the Banks established under part 1273 of this chapter and referenced in the Bank Act and the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P><I>President,</I> when referring to an officer of a Bank only, means a Bank's principal executive officer.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated Entity</I> means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, and any Federal Home Loan Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Resolution Funding Corporation or REFCORP</I> means the Resolution Funding Corporation established by section 21B of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b).
</P>
<P><I>Safety and Soundness Act</I> means the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>SBIC</I> means a small business investment company formed pursuant to section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 681).
</P>
<P><I>SEC</I> means the United States Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means a state of the United States, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, the District of Columbia, Guam, Puerto Rico, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 2322, Jan. 11, 2013, as amended at 79 FR 64665, Oct. 31, 2014; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016; 81 FR 91688, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1202" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1202—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Pub. L. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654; 5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 4526; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235; E.O. 13392, 70 FR 75373-75377, 3 CFR, 2006 Comp., p. 216-200.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1202.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.1   Why did FHFA issue this part?</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) issued this regulation to comply with the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P>(a) The Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) (5 U.S.C. 552), is a Federal law that requires the Federal Government to disclose certain Federal Government records to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) This part explains the rules that the FHFA will follow when processing and responding to requests for records under the FOIA. It also explains what you must do to request records from FHFA under the FOIA. You should read this part together with the FOIA, which explains in more detail your rights and the records FHFA may release to you.
</P>
<P>(c) If you want to request information about yourself that is contained in a system of records maintained by FHFA, you may do so under the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a). This is considered a first-party or Privacy Act request under the Privacy Act, and you must file your request following FHFA's Privacy Act regulation at part 1204 of this title. If you file a request for information about yourself, FHFA will process your request under both the FOIA and Privacy Act in order to give you the greatest degree of access to any responsive material.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding the FOIA and this part, FHFA may routinely publish or disclose to the public information without following these procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.2   What do the terms in this part mean?</HEAD>
<P>Some of the terms you need to understand while reading this regulation are—
</P>
<P><I>Aggregating</I> means combing multiple requests for documents that could reasonably have been the subject of a single request and which occur within a 30-day period, by a single requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P><I>Appeals Officer or FOIA Appeals Officer</I> means a person designated by FHFA who processes appeals of denied FOIA requests for FHFA records.
</P>
<P><I>Chief FOIA Officer</I> means the designated high-level official within FHFA (FHFA-OIG does not have a separate Chief FOIA Officer) who has overall responsibility for the agency's FOIA program and compliance with the FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Confidential commercial information</I> means records provided to the Federal Government by a submitter that contain material exempt from release under Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm.
</P>
<P><I>Days,</I> unless stated as “calendar days,” are working days and do not include Saturdays, Sundays, and Federal holidays. If the last day of any period prescribed herein falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the last day of the period will be the next working day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Direct costs</I> means the expenses, including contract services and retrieving documents from at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration, incurred by FHFA, in searching for, reviewing and/or duplicating records to respond to a request for information. In the case of a commercial use request, the term also means those expenditures FHFA actually incurs in reviewing records to respond to the request. Direct costs include the cost of the time of the employee performing the work, the cost of any computer searches, and the cost of operating duplication equipment. Direct costs do not include overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored.
</P>
<P><I>Duplication</I> means reproducing a copy of a record, or of the information contained in it, necessary to respond to a FOIA request. Copies can take the form of paper, audiovisual materials, or electronic records, among others.
</P>
<P><I>Employee,</I> for the purposes of this regulation, means any person holding an appointment to a position of employment with FHFA, or any person who formerly held such an appointment; any conservator appointed by FHFA; or any agent or independent contractor acting on behalf of FHFA, even though the appointment or contract has terminated.
</P>
<P><I>Fee Waiver</I> means the waiver or reduction of fees if the requester can demonstrate that certain statutory standards are met.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means each separate component designated by the agency as a primary organizational unit that is responsible for processing FOIA requests, as specified in Appendices A and B to this part. FHFA has two components: Federal Housing Finance Agency Headquarters (FHFA-HQ) and FHFA Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG).
</P>
<P><I>FOIA Officer, FOIA Official and Chief FOIA Officer</I> are persons designated by FHFA to process and respond to requests for FHFA records under the FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA Public Liaison</I> is a person designated by FHFA who is responsible for assisting requesters with their requests.
</P>
<P><I>Proactive disclosure</I> means records that are required by the FOIA to be made publicly available, as well as additional records identified as being of interest to the public that are appropriate for public disclosure, and for posting and indexing such records.
</P>
<P><I>Readily reproducible</I> means that the requested record or records exist in electronic format and can be downloaded or transferred intact to a computer disk, tape, or another electronic medium with equipment and software currently in use by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means information or documentary material FHFA maintains in any form or format, including electronic, which FHFA—
</P>
<P>(1) Created or received under Federal law or in connection with the transaction of public business;
</P>
<P>(2) Preserved or determined is appropriate for preservation as evidence of operations or activities of FHFA, or because of the value of the information it contains; and
</P>
<P>(3) Controls at the time it receives a request under the FOIA.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entities</I> means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I> means any person seeking access to FHFA records under the FOIA. A requester falls into one of three categories for the purpose of determining what fees may be charged. The <I>three</I> categories are—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial</I>—A request that asks for information for a use or a purpose that furthers a commercial, trade, or profit interest, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. A decision to place a requester in the commercial use category will be made on a case-by-case basis based on the requester's intended use of the information;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Noncommercial</I>—Three distinct subcategories—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Educational institution</I>—Any school that operates a program of scholarly research. A requester in this fee category must show that the request is authorized by, and is made under the auspices of, an educational institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but rather are sought to further scholarly research. To fall with this fee category, the request must serve the scholarly research goals of the institution rather than an individual research goal. A student who makes a request in furtherance of their coursework or other school-sponsored activities and provides a copy of a course syllabus or other reasonable documentation to indicate the research purpose for the request would qualify as part of this fee category;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I>—An institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as defined in this section and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. A request in this category must show that the request is authorized by and is made under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are sought to further scientific research and are not for a commercial use; or
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Representative of the news media</I>—Any person or entity that publishes or broadcasts news to the public, actively gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. The term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other</I>—All requesters who do not fall within either of the preceding two categories.
</P>
<P><I>Requester Service Centers</I> serve as the primary contacts for a requester when the requester has questions, is seeking information about how the FOIA works, or to check the status of their request.
</P>
<P><I>Review</I> means the examination of a record located in response to a request in order to determine whether any portion of it is exempt from disclosure. Review time includes processing any record for disclosure, such as doing all that is necessary to prepare the record for disclosure, including the process of redacting the record and marking the appropriate exemptions. Review costs are properly charged even if a record ultimately is not disclosed. Review time also includes time spent both obtaining and considering any formal objection to disclosure made by a confidential commercial information submitter under § 1202.8(f) of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Search</I> means the process of looking for and retrieving records or information responsive to a request, whether manually or by electronic means. Search time includes a page-by-page or line-by-line identification of information within a record and the reasonable efforts expanded to locate and retrieve information from electronic records.
</P>
<P><I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity providing confidential information to the Federal Government. The term “submitter” includes, but is not limited to corporations, state governments, and foreign governments.
</P>
<P><I>Unusual circumstances</I> means the need to—
</P>
<P>(1) Search for and collect records from agencies, offices, facilities, or locations that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) Search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records in order to process a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) Consult with another agency or among two or more components of the FHFA that have a substantial interest in the determination of a request.
</P>
<P><I>Vaughn index</I> means an itemized index, used in litigation, correlating each withheld document (or portion) with a specific FOIA exemption and the relevant part of the agency's nondisclosure justification.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.3   What information can I obtain through the FOIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> You may request that FHFA disclose to you its records on a subject of interest to you. The FOIA only requires the disclosure of records. It does not require FHFA to create compilations of information or to provide narrative responses to questions or queries.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Proactive disclosure.</I> FHFA will make available for public inspection and copying in its electronic reading room the following records:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions or orders made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Statements of policy and interpretation adopted by FHFA that are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public and are not exempt from disclosure under the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that have been released to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3), that because of the nature of their subject matter, FHFA determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records, or that have been requested 3 or more times; and
</P>
<P>(5) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (b)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reading rooms.</I> FHFA maintains an electronic reading room. FHFA will ensure that its reading room is reviewed and updated on an ongoing basis. See the Appendices to this part for location and contact information for FHFA-HQ and FHFA-OIG respective reading rooms.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.4   What information is exempt from disclosure?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless the Director of FHFA or his or her designee, or any regulation or statute specifically authorizes disclosure, FHFA will not release records if it reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by one or more of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive Order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy, and in fact is properly classified pursuant to such Executive Order;
</P>
<P>(2) Related solely to FHFA's internal personnel rules and practices;
</P>
<P>(3) Specifically exempted from disclosure by statute (other than 5 U.S.C. 552a), provided that such statute—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires that the matters be withheld from the public in such a manner as to leave no discretion on the issue, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishes particular criteria for withholding or refers to particular types of matters to be withheld;
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Contained in inter-agency or intra-agency memoranda or letters that would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with FHFA; provided that the deliberative process privilege shall not apply to records created 25 years or more before the date on which the records were requested.
</P>
<P>(6) Contained in personnel, medical or similar files (including financial files) the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information—
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution or an entity that is regulated and examined by FHFA that furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record compiled by a criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual.
</P>
<P>(8) Contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports that are prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of an agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(9) Geological and geophysical information and data, including maps, concerning wells.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Redacted portion.</I> If a requested record contains exempt information and information that can be disclosed and the portions can reasonably be segregated from each other, the disclosable portion of the record will be released to the requester after FHFA redacts the exempt portions. If it is technically feasible, FHFA will indicate the amount of the information redacted at the place in the record where the redaction is made and include a notation identifying the exemption that was applied, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by an exemption.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exempt and redacted material.</I> FHFA is not required to and will not provide a Vaughn index during the administrative stage of processing your FOIA request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.5   How do I request information from FHFA under the FOIA?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Where to send your request.</I> FHFA has a decentralized system for processing FOIA requests, made up of two components. To make a request for FHFA records, the FOIA request must be in writing. A requester must write directly to the FOIA office of the component that maintains the records being sought. The Appendices to this part contain the respective location and contact information for submitting a FOIA request for each FHFA component.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provide your name and address.</I> Your request must include your full name, your address and, if different, the address at which the component is to notify you about your request, a telephone number at which you can be reached during normal business hours, and an electronic mail address, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request is under the FOIA.</I> Your request must have a statement identifying it as being made under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Your FOIA status.</I> Your request should include a statement specifically identifying your status as a “commercial use” requester, an “educational institution” requester, a “non-commercial scientific institution” requester, or a “representative of the news media” for the purposes of the fee provisions of the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Describing the records you request.</I> You must describe the records that you seek in enough detail to enable FHFA to search for and locate the records with a reasonable amount of effort. Your request must include as much specific information as possible that you know about each record in your request, such as the date, title, name, author, recipient, subject matter, file designations, or the description of the record.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How you want the records produced to you.</I> Your request may state in what form or format you want FHFA to furnish the releasable records, <I>e.g.,</I> hardcopy, or electronic.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Agreement to pay fees.</I> In your FOIA request you must acknowledge that you are aware of the applicable fees charged under § 1202.11, and specify an amount, if any, you are willing to pay without consultation. Your inability to pay a fee does not justify granting a fee waiver. The fact that FHFA withholds all responsive documents or does not locate any documents responsive to your request, does not mean that you are not responsible for paying applicable fees. Your FOIA request will not be considered received by FHFA until your acknowledgement of the applicable fees, in writing, is received. FHFA will notify a requester of any fees above $25.00.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Valid requests.</I> FHFA will only process valid requests. A valid request must meet all the requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.6   What if my request does not have all the information FHFA requires?</HEAD>
<P>If FHFA determines that your request does not reasonably describe the records you seek, cannot be processed for reasons related to fees, or lacks required information, you will be informed in writing why your request cannot be processed. You will be given 15 calendar days to meet all requirements. If you are notified that your request cannot be processed for the reasons cited herein, your request will be placed on hold and will not be considered as being received by FHFA for the purpose of processing your request under this part.
</P>
<P>(a) If you respond with all the necessary information, FHFA will process this response as a new request and the time period for FHFA to respond to your request will start from the date the additional information is actually received by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) If you do not respond or provide additional information within the time period allowed, or if the additional information you provide is still incomplete or insufficient, FHFA will consider your request closed and will notify you that it will not be processed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.7   How will FHFA respond to my FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The FOIA Officer, FOIA Official, and the Chief FOIA Officer are authorized to grant or deny any request for FHFA records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designated standard “cut-off” date for searches.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, FHFA will include only records in its possession as of the date the FOIA request is received.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multi-Track request processing.</I> FHFA uses a multi-track system to process FOIA requests. This means that a FOIA request is processed based on its complexity. When FHFA receives your request, it is assigned to a Standard Track or Complex Track. FHFA will notify you if your request is assigned to the Complex Track as described in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Standard Track.</I> FHFA assigns FOIA requests that are routine and require little or no search time, review, or analysis to the Standard Track. FHFA responds to these requests in the order in which they are received and normally responds within 20 days after receipt. If FHFA determines while processing your Standard Track request, that it is more appropriately a Complex Track request, it will be reassigned to the Complex Track and you will be notified as described in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complex Track.</I> (i) FHFA assigns requests that are non-routine to the Complex Track. Complex Track requests are those to which FHFA determines that the request and/or response may—
</P>
<P>(A) Be voluminous;
</P>
<P>(B) Involve two or more FHFA components or units;
</P>
<P>(C) Require consultation with other agencies or entities;
</P>
<P>(D) Require searches of archived documents;
</P>
<P>(E) Seek confidential commercial information as described in § 1202.8 of this part;
</P>
<P>(F) Require an unusually high level of effort to search for, review and/or duplicate records; or
</P>
<P>(G) Cause undue disruption to the day-to-day activities of FHFA in regulating and supervising the regulated entities or in carrying out its statutory responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFA will respond to Complex Track requests as soon as reasonably possible, regardless of the date of receipt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referrals to other agencies.</I> If you submit a FOIA request that seeks records originating in another Federal Government agency, FHFA will refer those records, as applicable, to the other agency for a direct response. FHFA will provide you notice of the referral, what records were referred, and the name of the other agency and relevant contact information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consultation with other agencies.</I> When records originate with FHFA, but contain within them information of interest to another agency, FHFA will consult with the other agency(ies) prior to making a determination on your request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Responses to FOIA requests.</I> FHFA will respond to your request by granting or denying it in full, or by granting and denying it in part. The response will be in writing. In determining which records are responsive to your request, FHFA will conduct a search for records in its possession as of the date of your request.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Requests that are granted.</I> If FHFA grants your request, the response will include the requested records or details about how FHFA will provide them to you and the amount of any fees charged.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requests that are denied, or granted and denied in part.</I> If FHFA denies your request in whole or in part because a requested record does not exist or cannot be located, is not readily reproducible in the form or format you sought, is not subject to the FOIA, or is exempt from disclosure, the written response will include the requested releasable records, if any, the amount of any fees charged, the reasons for denial, and a notice and description of your right to file an administrative appeal under § 1202.9. FHFA will not provide you with a Vaughn index during the administrative stage of processing your request.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Format and delivery of disclosed records.</I> If FHFA grants, in whole or in part, your request for disclosure of records under the FOIA, the records may be made available to you in the form or format you requested, if they are readily reproducible in that form or format. The records will be sent to the address you provided by regular U.S. mail or by electronic mail unless alternate arrangements are made by mutual agreement, such as your agreement to pay express or expedited delivery service fees, or to pick up records at FHFA offices.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Extensions of time.</I> (1) In unusual circumstances, FHFA may extend the statutory time limit in paragraph (c)(1) of this section for no more than 10 days and notify you of—
</P>
<P>(i) The reason for the extension; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the determination is expected.
</P>
<P>(2) When a request requires more than 30 days to process, FHFA will make available its FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact to assist you in modifying or reformulating your request. If the request cannot be modified or reformulated, FHFA will notify you regarding an alternative time period for processing the request. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of the Office of Government Information Services to provide dispute resolution service.
</P>
<P>(3) For the purpose of satisfying unusual circumstances under the FOIA, FHFA may aggregate requests in cases where it reasonably appears that multiple requests, submitted either by a requester or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances. FHFA will not aggregate multiple requests that involve unrelated matters.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5683, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.8   If the requested records contain confidential commercial information, what procedures will FHFA follow?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FHFA will not disclose confidential commercial information in response to your FOIA request except as described in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of confidential commercial information.</I> Submitters of commercial information must use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings or written request, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, those portions of the information they deem to be protected under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part. Any such designation will expire 10 years after the records are submitted to the Federal Government, unless the submitter requests, and provides reasonable justification for a designation period of longer duration.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Pre-Disclosure Notification.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, if your FOIA request encompasses confidential commercial information, FHFA will, prior to disclosure of the information and to the extent permitted by law, provide prompt written notice to a submitter that confidential commercial information was requested when—
</P>
<P>(1) The submitter has in good faith designated the information as confidential commercial information protected from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part; or
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA has reason to believe that the request seeks confidential commercial information, the disclosure of which may result in substantial competitive harm to the submitter.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of Pre-Disclosure Notification.</I> When FHFA sends a Pre-Disclosure Notification to a submitter, it will contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the commercial information requested or copies of the records or portions thereof containing the business information; and
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity to object to disclosure within 10 days or such other time period that FHFA may allow by providing to FHFA a detailed written statement demonstrating all reasons the submitter opposes disclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exceptions to Pre-Disclosure Notification.</I> FHFA is not required to send a Pre-Disclosure Notification if—
</P>
<P>(1) FHFA determines that information should not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information has been published lawfully or has been made officially available to the public;
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law, other than the FOIA;
</P>
<P>(4) The information requested is not designated by the submitter as confidential commercial information pursuant to this section, unless the agency has substantial reason to believe that disclosure of the information would result in competitive harm; or
</P>
<P>(5) The submitter's designation, under paragraph (b) of this section, appears on its face to be frivolous; except that FHFA will provide the submitter with written notice of any final decision to disclose the designated confidential commercial information within a reasonable number of days prior to a specified disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Submitter's objection to disclosure.</I> A submitter may object to disclosure within 10 days after the date of the Pre-Disclosure Notification, or such other time period that FHFA may allow, by delivering to FHFA a written statement demonstrating all grounds on which it opposes disclosure, and all reasons supporting its contention that the information should not be disclosed. The submitter's objection must contain a certification by the submitter, or an officer or authorized representative of the submitter, that the grounds and reasons presented are true and correct to the best of the submitter's knowledge. The submitter's objection may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of Intent to disclose information.</I> FHFA will carefully consider all grounds and reasons provided by a submitter objecting to disclosure. If FHFA decides to disclose the information over the submitter's objection, the submitter will be provided with a written Notice of Intent to disclose at least 10 days before the date of disclosure. The written Notice of Intent will contain—
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons why the information will be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specific disclosure date.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice to requester.</I> FHFA will give a requester whose request encompasses confidential commercial information—
</P>
<P>(1) A written notice that the request encompasses confidential commercial information that may be exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and § 1202.4(a)(4) of this part and that the submitter of the information has been given a Pre-Disclosure Notification with the opportunity to comment on the proposed disclosure of the information; and
</P>
<P>(2) A written notice that a Notice of Intent to disclose has been provided to the submitter, and that the submitter has 10 days, or such other time period that FHFA may allow, to respond.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> FHFA will promptly notify the submitter whenever a requester files suit seeking to compel disclosure of the submitter's confidential commercial information. FHFA will promptly notify the requester whenever a submitter files suit seeking to prevent disclosure of information.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.9   How do I appeal a response denying my FOIA request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Right of appeal.</I> If FHFA denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the appropriate FHFA component specified in the Appendices to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing, form, content, and receipt of an appeal.</I> Your written appeal must be postmarked or submitted within 90 calendar days of the date of the decision by FHFA denying, in whole or in part, your request. Your appeal must include a copy of the initial request, a copy of the letter denying the request in whole or in part, and a statement of the circumstances, reasons, or arguments you believe support disclosure of the requested record(s). FHFA will not consider an improperly addressed appeal to have been received for the purposes of the 20-day time period of paragraph (d) of this section until it is actually received by the correct FHFA component.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Extensions of time to appeal.</I> If you need more time to file your appeal, you may request, in writing, an extension of time of no more than 10 calendar days in which to file your appeal, but only if your request is made within the original 90-calendar day time period for filing the appeal. Granting such an extension is in the sole discretion of the designated component Appeals Officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final action on appeal.</I> FHFA's determination on your appeal will be in writing, signed by the designated component Appeals Officer, and sent to you within 20 days after the appeal is received, or by the last day of the last extension under paragraph (e) of this section. The determination of an appeal is the final action of FHFA on a FOIA request. A determination may—
</P>
<P>(1) Affirm, in whole or in part, the initial denial of the request and may include a brief statement of the reason or reasons for the decision, including each FOIA exemption relied upon;
</P>
<P>(2) Reverse, in whole or in part, the denial of a request in whole or in part, and require the request to be processed promptly in accordance with the decision; or
</P>
<P>(3) Remand a request to FHFA, as appropriate, for re-processing.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notice of delayed determinations on appeal.</I> If FHFA cannot send a final determination on your appeal within the 20-day time limit, the designated component Appeals Officer will continue to process the appeal and upon expiration of the time limit, will inform you of the reason(s) for the delay and the date on which a determination may be expected.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> If the denial of your request for records is upheld in whole or in part, or if a determination on your appeal has not been sent at the end of the 20-day period in paragraph (d) of this section, or the last extension thereof, you may seek judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). Before seeking review by a court of FHFA's adverse determination, a requester generally must first submit a timely administrative appeal.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional resource.</I> To aid the requester, the FOIA Public Liaison is available and will assist in the resolution of any disputes. Also, the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA), Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) offers non-compulsory, non-binding services to resolve FOIA disputes. If you need information regarding the OGIS and/or the services it offers, please contact OGIS directly at Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road-OGIS, College Park, MD 20740-6001; email: <I>ogis@nara.gov;</I> phone: (202) 741-5770; toll-free: 1 (877) 684-6448; or facsimile at (202) 741-5769. This information is provided as a public service only.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.10   Will FHFA expedite my request or appeal?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for expedited processing.</I> You may request, in writing, expedited processing of an initial request or of an appeal. FHFA may grant expedited processing, and give your request or appeal priority if your request for expedited processing demonstrates a compelling need by establishing one or more of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Circumstances in which the lack of expedited treatment could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual;
</P>
<P>(2) An urgency to inform the public about an actual or alleged Federal Government activity if you are a person primarily engaged in disseminating information;
</P>
<P>(3) The loss of substantial due process or rights;
</P>
<P>(4) A matter of widespread and exceptional media interest in which there exists possible questions about the Federal Government's integrity, affecting public confidence; or
</P>
<P>(5) Humanitarian need.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification of compelling need.</I> Your request for expedited processing must include a statement certifying that the reason(s) you present demonstrate a compelling need are true and correct to the best of your knowledge.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination on request.</I> FHFA will notify you within 10 calendar days of receipt of your request whether expedited processing has been granted. If a request for expedited treatment is granted, the request will be given priority and will be processed as soon as practicable. If a request for expedited processing is denied, any appeal of that decision under § 1202.9 of this part will be acted on expeditiously.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.11   What will it cost to get the records I requested?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessment of fees, generally.</I> FHFA will assess you for fees covering the direct costs of responding to your request and costs for duplicating records, except as otherwise provided in a statute with respect to the determination of fees that may be assessed for disclosure, search time, or review of particular records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessment of fees, categories of requesters.</I> The fees that FHFA may assess vary depending on the type of request or the type of requester you are—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use.</I> If you request records for a commercial use, the fees that FHFA may assess are limited to FHFA's operating costs incurred for document search, review, and duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational institution, noncommercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media.</I> If you are not requesting records for commercial use and you are an educational institution or a noncommercial scientific institution, whose purpose is scholarly or scientific research, or a representative of the news media, the fees that may be assessed are limited to standard reasonable charges for duplication in excess of 100 pages or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other.</I> If neither paragraph (b)(1) nor paragraph (b)(2) of this section applies, the fees assessed are limited to the costs for document searching in excess of two hours and duplication in excess of 100 pages, or an electronic equivalent of 100 pages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fee schedule.</I> FHFA will charge fees for processing requests under the FOIA in accordance with the provisions of this section and OMB guidelines (basic pay plus 16 percent). There are three different groups of grades typically involved in processing FOIA requests: Personnel in grades EL-6 to EL-9; personnel in grades EL-10 to EL-13; and personnel EL-14 and above. FHFA's Web site, <I>www.fhfa.gov,</I> will contain current rates for search and review fees for each group. The rates will be updated as salaries change and will be determined by using the formula in this regulation. The formula is the sum of the mid-point of each grade divided by the number of grades in each category divided by 2088 and then multiplied by 1.16.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> Fees for searches of computerized records are based on the actual cost to FHFA. For requests that require the retrieval of records stored by FHFA at a Federal records center operated by the National Archives and Records Administration, FHFA will charge additional costs in accordance with the Transaction Billing Rate Schedule established by NARA.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Example of the rate formula is as follows: For 2016, EL-6 to EL-9 is [($55,769 + $63,554 + $71,816 + $81,152)/4][1/2088 hours per year][1.16 OMB markup factor] = $37.82 per hour.</P></FTNT>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of anticipated fees in excess of $25.00.</I> When FHFA determines or estimates that the fees chargeable to you will exceed $25.00, you will be notified of the actual or estimated amount of fees you will incur, unless you earlier indicated your willingness to pay fees as high as those anticipated. When you are notified that the actual or estimated fees exceed $25.00, your request will be tolled until you agree to pay, in writing, the anticipated total fee.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Advance payment of fees.</I> FHFA may request that you pay estimated fees or a deposit in advance of responding to your request. If FHFA requests advance payment or a deposit, your request will be tolled by FHFA until the advance payment or deposit is received. FHFA may request advance payment or a deposit if—
</P>
<P>(1) The fees are likely to exceed $250.00;
</P>
<P>(2) You do not have a history of payment;
</P>
<P>(3) You previously failed to pay a FOIA fee to FHFA in a timely fashion, <I>i.e.,</I> within 30 calendar days of the date of a billing; or
</P>
<P>(4) You have an outstanding balance due from a prior request. FHFA will require you to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, as provided in paragraph (f) of this section, or demonstrate that the fee owed has been paid, as well as payment of the full amount of anticipated fees before processing your request.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interest.</I> FHFA may charge you interest on an unpaid bill starting on the 31st calendar day following the day on which the bill was sent. Once a fee payment has been received by FHFA, even if not processed, FHFA will stay the accrual of interest. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate prescribed by 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FHFA assistance to reduce costs.</I> If FHFA notifies you of estimated fees exceeding $100.00 or requests advance payment or a deposit, you will have an opportunity to consult with FHFA FOIA staff to modify or reformulate your request to meet your needs at a lower cost.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Fee waiver requests.</I> You may request a fee waiver in accordance with the FOIA and this regulation. Requests for a waiver of fees must be made in writing and should be made at the time you submit your FOIA request. However, your fee waiver may be submitted at a later time so long as the underlying record request is pending or on administrative appeal. FHFA may grant your fee waiver request or a reduction of fees if disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Federal Government and is not primarily in your commercial interest. In submitting a fee waiver request, you must address the following six factors—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the subject of the requested records concerns the operations or activities of the Federal Government. The subject of the request must concern identifiable operations or activities of the Federal Government with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated;
</P>
<P>(2) Whether the disclosure is likely to contribute significantly to the public understanding of Federal Government operations or activities. This factor is satisfied when the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosure of the requested information must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either the same or a substantially identical form, would not be meaningfully informative if nothing new would be added to the public's understanding; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to your individual understanding. Your expertise in the subject area as well as your ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public must be considered. FHFA will presume that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure must not be primarily in your commercial interest. To determine whether disclosure of the requested information is primarily in your commercial interest FHFA will consider the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) FHFA will determine whether you have any commercial interest that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. A commercial interest includes any commercial, trade, or profit interest. You will be given an opportunity to provide explanatory information regarding this consideration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If there is an identified commercial interest, FHFA will determine whether that is the primary interest furthered by the request.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Fee Waiver determination.</I> FHFA will notify you within 20 days of receipt of your request whether the fee waiver has been granted. Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, a waiver will be granted for those records. For those records that do not satisfy the requirements for a waiver of fees, you may be charged for those records. When you have committed to pay fees and subsequently ask for a waiver of those fees and that waiver is denied, you must pay any costs incurred up to the date the fee waiver request was received. A request for fee waiver that is denied may only be appealed when a final decision has been made on the initial FOIA request.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Restrictions on charging fees.</I> (1) When FHFA determines that you are an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, or representative of the news media, and the records are not sought for commercial use, FHFA will not charge search fees.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If FHFA fails to comply with the FOIA's time limits in which to respond to your request, FHFA will not charge search fees, or, in the instances of requests from requesters described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, will not charge duplication fees, except as described in paragraphs (j)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If FHFA has determined that unusual circumstances as defined by the FOIA apply and FHFA has provided timely written notice to you in accordance with the FOIA, FHFA's failure to comply with the time limit will be excused for an additional 10 days.
</P>
<P>(iii) If FHFA determines that unusual circumstances, as defined by the FOIA, apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to your request, FHFA may charge search fees, or, in the case of a requester described in paragraph (j)(1) of this section, may charge duplication fees, if the following steps are taken. FHFA must have provided timely written notice of unusual circumstances to you in accordance with the FOIA and FHFA must have discussed with you via written mail, email, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how you could effectively limit the scope of your request in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(6)(B)(ii). If this exception is satisfied, FHFA may charge all applicable fees incurred in the processing of the request.
</P>
<P>(iv) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, as defined by the FOIA, a failure to comply with the time limits shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(3) No search or review fees will be charged for a quarter-hour period unless more than half of that period is required for search or review.
</P>
<P>(4) If you seek records for a commercial use, FHFA will provide without charge:
</P>
<P>(i) The first 100 pages of duplication (or the cost equivalent for other media); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The first two hours of search.
</P>
<P>(5) No fee will be charged when the total fee, after deducting the 100 free pages (or its cost equivalent) and the first two hours of search, is equal to or less than $25.00.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Additional resource.</I> The FOIA Public Liaison or other FOIA contact is available to assist you in modifying or reformulating a request to meet your needs at a lower cost. FHFA will also notify you of the availability of OGIS to provide dispute resolution service.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5684, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1202.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1202.12   Is there anything else I need to know about FOIA procedures?</HEAD>
<P>This FOIA regulation does not and shall not be construed to create any right or to entitle any person, as of right, to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which such person is not entitled under the FOIA. This regulation only provides procedures for requesting records under the FOIA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="0" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD> </HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.2.1.1.1" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1202—FHFA Headquarters
</HEAD>
<P>1. This Appendix applies to the Federal Housing Finance Agency's Headquarters Office.
</P>
<P>2. <I>Reading room.</I> FHFA Headquarters only maintains an electronic reading room. The electronic reading room is located on FHFA's public website at <I>http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/Reading-Room.aspx</I>.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Where to send your request.</I> You may make a request for FHFA Headquarters records by writing directly to the FOIA Office through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>foia@fhfa.gov.</I> For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: FOIA Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. When submitting your request, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Request.” FHFA's “Freedom of Information Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, provides additional information to assist you in making your request. You can find additional information on FHFA's FOIA program at <I>http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/FOIA-Reference-Guide.aspx</I>.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Right of appeal.</I> If FHFA Headquarters denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FOIA Appeals Officer through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>foia@fhfa.gov.</I> For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: FOIA Appeals Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. When submitting your appeal, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Appeal.” FHFA's “Freedom of Information Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, provides additional information to assist you in making your appeal. You can find additional information on FHFA's FOIA program at <I>http://www.fhfa.gov/AboutUs/FOIAPrivacy/Pages/FOIA-Reference-Guide.aspx</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 13745, Mar. 15, 2017, as amended at 83 FR 5685, Feb. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.3.2.1.1.2" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1202—FHFA Office of Inspector General
</HEAD>
<P>This Appendix applies to the Federal Housing Finance Agency's Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG).
</P>
<P>1. <I>Contact information for FOIA Officer.</I> You may contact the FOIA Officer at (202) 730-0399 or by email at <I>FOIA@fhfaoig.gov.</I> Hearing impaired users may utilize the Federal Relay Service (external link) by dialing 1(800) 877-8339. A Communications Assistant will dial the requested number and relay the conversation between a standard (voice) telephone user and text telephone (TTY).
</P>
<P>2. <I>Information about the FHFA-OIG FOIA process.</I> You may find information about the FHFA-OIG FOIA process at <I>https://www.fhfaoig.gov/FOIA</I>.
</P>
<P>3. <I>Reading room.</I> FHFA-OIG maintains an electronic reading room. The electronic reading room is located at <I>https://www.fhfaoig.gov/FOIA/ReadingRoom</I>.
</P>
<P>4. <I>Where to send your request.</I> You may make a request for FHFA-OIG records by writing directly to the FOIA Office through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>FOIA@fhfaoig.gov.</I> For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: Federal Housing Finance Agency Office of Inspector General, 400 Seventh Street SW., Third Floor, Washington, DC 20219, ATTN: Office of Inspector General—FOIA Officer. The facsimile number is: (202) 318-8602. When submitting your request, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Request.”
</P>
<P>5. <I>Right of appeal.</I> If FHFA-OIG denies your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FOIA Officer through electronic mail, U.S. mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>FOIA@fhfaoig.gov.</I> For U.S. mail or delivery service, the mailing address is: Federal Housing Finance Agency, Office of Inspector General, 400 Seventh Street SW., Third Floor, Washington, DC 20219, ATTN: Office of Inspector General—FOIA Officer. The facsimile number is: (202) 318-8602. When submitting your appeal, please mark electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “FOIA Appeal.”


</P>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1203" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1203—EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE ACT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4526, 5 U.S.C. 504.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 65219, Oct. 22, 2010, unless otherwise noted..


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part implements the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504, by establishing procedures for the filing and consideration of applications for awards of fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to adversary adjudications before FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to the award of fees and other expenses in connection with adversary adjudications before FHFA. However, if a court reviews the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication, an award for fees and other expenses may be made only pursuant to 28 U.S.C. 2412(d)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Adjudicative officer</I> means the official who presided at the underlying adversary adjudication, without regard to whether the official is designated as a hearing examiner, administrative law judge, administrative judge, or otherwise.
</P>
<P><I>Adversary adjudication</I> means an administrative proceeding conducted by FHFA under 5 U.S.C. 554 in which the position of FHFA or any other agency of the United States is represented by counsel or otherwise, including but not limited to an adjudication conducted under the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended, and any implementing regulations. Any issue as to whether an administrative proceeding is an adversary adjudication for purposes of this part will be an issue for resolution in the proceeding on the application for award.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means an individual, corporation, or other entity that directly or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interests of the party, or any corporation or other entity of which the party directly or indirectly owns or controls a majority of the voting shares or other interest, unless the adjudicative officer determines that it would be unjust and contrary to the purpose of the Equal Access to Justice Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities to consider them to be affiliates for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Agency counsel</I> means the attorney or attorneys designated by the General Counsel of FHFA to represent FHFA in an adversary adjudication covered by this part.
</P>
<P><I>Demand of FHFA</I> means the express demand of FHFA that led to the adversary adjudication, but does not include a recitation by FHFA of the maximum statutory penalty when accompanied by an express demand for a lesser amount.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Fees and other expenses</I> means reasonable attorney or agent fees, the reasonable expenses of expert witnesses, and the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, or test, which the agency finds necessary for the preparation of the eligible party's case.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Final disposition date</I> means the date on which a decision or order disposing of the merits of the adversary adjudication or any other complete resolution of the adversary adjudication, such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, becomes final and unappealable, both within the agency and to the courts.
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means an individual, partnership, corporation, association, or public or private organization that is named or admitted as a party, that is admitted as a party for limited purposes, or that is properly seeking and entitled as of right to be admitted as a party in an adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P><I>Position of FHFA</I> means the position taken by FHFA in the adversary adjudication, including the action or failure to act by FHFA upon which the adversary adjudication was based.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.3   Eligible parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To be eligible for an award of fees and other expenses under the Equal Access to Justice Act, the applicant must show that it meets all conditions of eligibility set out in this paragraph and has complied with all the requirements in subpart B of this part. The applicant must also be a party to the adversary adjudication for which it seeks an award.
</P>
<P>(b) To be eligible for an award of fees and other expenses for prevailing parties, a party must be one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual who has a net worth of not more than $2 million;
</P>
<P>(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth of not more than $7 million, including both personal and business interest, and not more than 500 employees; however, a party who owns an unincorporated business will be considered to be an “individual” rather than the “sole owner of an unincorporated business” if the issues on which the party prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business interests;
</P>
<P>(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3), with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1141j(a), with not more than 500 employees;
</P>
<P>(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, unit of local government, or organization that has a net worth of not more than $7 million and not more than 500 employees; or
</P>
<P>(6) For the purposes of an application filed pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(4), a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of eligibility under this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The employees of a party must include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the party, under the party's direction and control. Part-time employees must be included on a proportional basis.
</P>
<P>(2) The net worth and number of employees of the party and its affiliates must be aggregated to determine eligibility.
</P>
<P>(3) The net worth and number of employees of a party will be determined as of the date the underlying adversary adjudication was initiated.
</P>
<P>(4) A party that participates in an adversary adjudication primarily on behalf of one or more entities that would be ineligible for an award is not itself eligible for an award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.4   Standards for awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An eligible party that files an application for award of fees and other expenses in accordance with this part will receive an award of fees and other expenses related to defending against a demand of FHFA if the demand was in excess of the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication and was unreasonable when compared with the decision under the facts and circumstances of the case, unless the party has committed a willful violation of law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or unless special circumstances make an award unjust. The burden of proof that the demand of FHFA was substantially in excess of the decision and is unreasonable when compared with the decision is on the eligible party.
</P>
<P>(b) An eligible party that submits an application for award in accordance with this part will receive an award of fees and other expenses incurred in connection with an adversary adjudication in which it prevailed or in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the adversary adjudication in which it prevailed, unless the position of FHFA in the adversary adjudication was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. FHFA has the burden of proof to show that its position was substantially justified and may do so by showing that its position was reasonable in law and in fact.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.5   Allowable fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Awards of fees and other expenses will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged in the business of acting as attorneys, agents, and expert witnesses, even if the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the party. However, except as provided in § 1203.6, an award for the fee of an attorney or agent may not exceed $125 per hour and an award to compensate an expert witness may not exceed the highest rate at which FHFA pays expert witnesses. However, an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or expert witness as a separate item if he or she ordinarily charges clients separately for such expenses.
</P>
<P>(b) In determining the reasonableness of the fee sought for an attorney, agent, or expert witness, the adjudicative officer will consider the following:
</P>
<P>(1) If the attorney, agent, or expert witness is in private practice, his or her customary fees for similar services; or, if the attorney, agent, or expert witness is an employee of the eligible party, the fully allocated costs of the services;
</P>
<P>(2) The prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the attorney, agent, or expert witness ordinarily performs services;
</P>
<P>(3) The time actually spent in the representation of the eligible party;
</P>
<P>(4) The time reasonably spent in light of the difficulty or complexity of the issues in the adversary adjudication; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other factors as may bear on the value of the services provided.
</P>
<P>(c) In determining the reasonable cost of any study, analysis, engineering report, test, project, or similar matter prepared on behalf of a party, the adjudicative officer will consider the prevailing rate for similar services in the community in which the services were performed.
</P>
<P>(d) Fees and other expenses incurred before the date on which an adversary adjudication was initiated will be awarded only if the eligible party can demonstrate that they were reasonably incurred in preparation for the adversary adjudication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.6   Rulemaking on maximum rate for fees.</HEAD>
<P>If warranted by an increase in the cost of living or by special circumstances, FHFA may adopt regulations providing for an award of attorney or agent fees at a rate higher than $125 per hour in adversary adjudications covered by this part. Special circumstances include the limited availability of attorneys or agents who are qualified to handle certain types of adversary adjudications. FHFA will conduct any rulemaking proceedings for this purpose under the informal rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 553.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.7   Awards against other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>If another agency of the United States participates in an adversary adjudication before FHFA and takes a position that was not substantially justified, the award or appropriate portion of the award to an eligible party that prevailed over that agency will be made against that agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1203.8-1203.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1203.8-1203.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Information Required From Applicants</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.10   Contents of the application for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for award of fees and other expenses under either § 1203.4(a) and § 1203.4(b) must:
</P>
<P>(1) Identify the applicant and the adversary adjudication for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(2) State the amount of fees and other expenses for which an award is sought;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide the statements and documentation required by paragraph (b) or (c) of this section and § 1203.12 and any additional information required by the adjudicative officer; and
</P>
<P>(4) Be signed by the applicant or an authorized officer or attorney of the applicant and contain or be accompanied by a written verification under oath or under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is true and correct.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for award under § 1203.4(a) must show that the demand of FHFA was substantially in excess of, and was unreasonable when compared to, the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication under the facts and circumstances of the case. It must also show that the applicant is a small entity as defined in 5 U.S.C. 601.
</P>
<P>(c) An application for award under § 1203.4(b) must:
</P>
<P>(1) Show that the applicant has prevailed in a significant and discrete substantive portion of the underlying adversary adjudication and identify the position of FHFA in the adversary adjudication that the applicant alleges was not substantially justified;
</P>
<P>(2) State the number of employees of the applicant and describe briefly the type and purposes of its organization or business (if the applicant is not an individual);
</P>
<P>(3) State that the net worth of the applicant does not exceed $2 million, if the applicant is an individual; or for all other applicants, state that the net worth of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, does not exceed $7 million; and
</P>
<P>(4) Include one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed exhibit showing the net worth (net worth exhibit) of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, when the underlying adversary adjudication was initiated. The net worth exhibit may be in any form convenient to the applicant as long as the net worth exhibit provides full disclosure of the assets and liabilities of the applicant and its affiliates, if any, and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies as an eligible party;
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of a ruling by the Internal Revenue Service that shows that the applicant qualifies as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3); or in the case of a tax-exempt organization not required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt status, a statement that describes the basis for the belief that the applicant qualifies under such section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A statement that the applicant is a cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1141j(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.11   Confidentiality of net worth exhibit.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, or required by law, the statement of net worth will be for the confidential use of the adjudicative officer, the Director, and agency counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.12   Documentation for fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The application for award must be accompanied by full and itemized documentation of the fees and other expenses for which an award is sought. The adjudicative officer may require the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, logs, or other documentation for any fees or expenses claimed.
</P>
<P>(b) A separate itemized statement must be submitted for each entity or individual whose services are covered by the application. Each itemized statement must include:
</P>
<P>(1) The hours spent by each entity or individual;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the specific services performed and the rates at which each fee has been computed; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any expenses for which reimbursement is sought, the total amount claimed, and the total amount paid or payable by the applicant or by any other person or entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1203.13-1203.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1203.13-1203.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Procedures for Filing and Consideration of the Application for Award</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.20   Filing and service of the application for award and related papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An application for an award of fees and other expenses must be filed no later than 30 days after the final disposition of the underlying adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) An application for award and other papers related to the proceedings on the application for award must be filed and served on all parties in the same manner as papers are filed and served in the underlying adversary adjudication, except as otherwise provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) The computation of time for filing and service of the application of award and other papers must be computed in the same manner as in the underlying adversary adjudication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.21   Response to the application for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Agency counsel must file a response within 30 days after service of an application for award of fees and other expenses except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section. In the response, agency counsel must explain any objections to the award requested and identify the facts relied upon to support the objections. If any of the alleged facts are not already in the record of the underlying adversary adjudication, agency counsel must include with the response either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1203.25.
</P>
<P>(b) If agency counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the application for award can be settled, they may jointly file a statement of their intent to negotiate a settlement. The filing of this statement will extend the time for filing a response for an additional 30 days. Upon request by agency counsel and the applicant, the adjudicative officer may grant for good cause further time extensions.
</P>
<P>(c) Agency counsel may request that the adjudicative officer extend the time period for filing a response. If agency counsel does not respond or otherwise does not contest or settle the application for award within the 30-day period or the extended time period, the adjudicative officer may make an award of fees and other expenses upon a satisfactory showing of entitlement by the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.22   Reply to the response.</HEAD>
<P>Within 15 days after service of a response, the applicant may file a reply. If the reply is based on any alleged facts not already in the record of the underlying adversary adjudication, the applicant must include with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 1203.25.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.23   Comments by other parties.</HEAD>
<P>Any party to the underlying adversary adjudication other than the applicant and agency counsel may file comments on an application for award within 30 calendar days after it is served, or on a response within 15 calendar days after it is served. A commenting party may not participate further in proceedings on the application unless the adjudicative officer determines that the public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration of matters raised in the comments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.24   Settlement.</HEAD>
<P>The applicant and agency counsel may agree on a proposed settlement of an award before the final decision on the application for award is made, either in connection with a settlement of the underlying adversary adjudication or after the underlying adversary adjudication has been concluded. If the eligible party and agency counsel agree on a proposed settlement of an award before an application for award has been filed, the application must be filed with the proposed settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.25   Further proceedings on the application for award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) On request of either the applicant or agency counsel, on the adjudicative officer's own initiative, or as requested by the Director under § 1203.27, the adjudicative officer may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional written submissions, or, as to issues other than substantial justification (such as the applicant's eligibility or substantiation of fees and expenses), pertinent discovery or an evidential hearing. Such further proceedings will be held only when necessary for full and fair resolution of the issues arising from the application for award and will be conducted as promptly as possible. The issue as to whether the position of FHFA in the underlying adversary adjudication was substantially justified will be determined on the basis of the whole administrative record that was made in the underlying adversary adjudication.
</P>
<P>(b) A request that the adjudicative officer order further proceedings under this section must specifically identify the information sought on the disputed issues and must explain why the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.26   Decision of the adjudicative officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The adjudicative officer must make the initial decision on the basis of the written record, except if further proceedings are ordered under § 1203.25.
</P>
<P>(b) The adjudicative officer must issue a written initial decision on the application for award within 30 days after completion of proceedings on the application. The initial decision will become the final decision of FHFA after 30 days from the day it was issued, unless review is ordered under § 1203.27.
</P>
<P>(c) In all initial decisions, the adjudicative officer must include findings and conclusions with respect to the applicant's eligibility and an explanation of the reasons for any difference between the amount requested by the applicant and the amount awarded. If the applicant has sought an award against more than one agency, the adjudicative officer must also include findings and conclusions with respect to the allocation of payment of any award made.
</P>
<P>(d) In initial decisions on applications filed pursuant to § 1203.4(a), the adjudicative officer must include findings and conclusions as to whether FHFA made a demand that was substantially in excess of the decision in the underlying adversary adjudication and that was unreasonable when compared with that decision; and, if at issue, whether the applicant has committed a willful violation of the law or otherwise acted in bad faith, or whether special circumstances would make the award unjust.
</P>
<P>(e) In decisions on applications filed pursuant to § 1203.4(b), the adjudicative officer must include written findings and conclusions as to whether the applicant is a prevailing party and whether the position of FHFA was substantially justified; and, if at issue, whether the applicant unduly protracted or delayed the underlying adversary adjudication or whether special circumstance make the award unjust.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.27   Review by FHFA.</HEAD>
<P>Within 30 days after the adjudicative officer issues an initial decision under § 1203.26, either the applicant or agency counsel may request the Director to review the initial decision of the adjudicative officer. The Director may also decide, at his or her discretion, to review the initial decision. If review is ordered, the Director must issue a final decision on the application for award or remand the application for award to the adjudicative officer for further proceedings under § 1203.25.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.28   Judicial review.</HEAD>
<P>Any party, other than the United States, that is dissatisfied with the final decision on an application for award of fees and expenses under this part may seek judicial review as provided in 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1203.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.4.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1203.29   Payment of award.</HEAD>
<P>To receive payment of an award of fees and other expenses granted under this part, the applicant must submit a copy of the final decision that grants the award and a certification that the applicant will not seek review of the decision in the United States courts to the Director, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 7th Street SW., Washington, DC 20219. FHFA must pay the amount awarded to the applicant within 60 days of receipt of the submission of the copy of the final decision and the certification, unless judicial review of the award has been sought by any party to the proceedings.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 65219, Oct. 22, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1204" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1204—PRIVACY ACT IMPLEMENTATION 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 552a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1204 appear at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1204.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.1   Why did FHFA issue this part?</HEAD>
<P>The Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) issued this part to—
</P>
<P>(a) Implement the Privacy Act, a Federal law that helps protect private information about individuals that Federal agencies collect or maintain. You should read this part together with the Privacy Act, which provides additional information about records maintained on individuals;
</P>
<P>(b) Establish rules that apply to all FHFA and FHFA Office of Inspector General (FHFA-OIG) maintained systems of records retrievable by an individual's name or other personal identifier;
</P>
<P>(c) Describe procedures through which you may request access to records, request amendment or correction of those records, or request an accounting of disclosures of those records by FHFA or FHFA-OIG;
</P>
<P>(d) Inform you, that when it is appropriate to do so, FHFA or FHFA-OIG automatically processes a Privacy Act request for access to records under both the Privacy Act and FOIA, following the rules contained in this part and in FHFA's Freedom of Information Act regulation at part 1202 of this title so that you will receive the maximum amount of information available to you by law;
</P>
<P>(e) Notify you that this part does not entitle you to any service or to the disclosure of any record to which you are not entitled under the Privacy Act. It also does not, and may not be relied upon, to create any substantive or procedural right or benefit enforceable against FHFA or FHFA-OIG; and
</P>
<P>(f) Notify you that this part applies to both FHFA and FHFA-OIG.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.2   What do the terms in this part mean?</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part—
</P>
<P><I>Access</I> means making a record available to a subject individual.
</P>
<P><I>Amendment</I> means any correction of, addition to, or deletion from a record.
</P>
<P><I>Court</I> means any entity conducting a legal proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Days,</I> unless stated as “calendar days,” are working days and do not include Saturdays, Sundays, and federal holidays. If the last day of any period prescribed herein falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday, the last day of the period will be the next working day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or federal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency and includes its predecessor agencies, the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO) and the Federal Housing Finance Board (FHFB).
</P>
<P><I>FHFA-OIG</I> means the Office of Inspector General for FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA</I> means the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P><I>Individual</I> means a natural person who is either a citizen of the United States of America or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence.
</P>
<P><I>Maintain</I> includes collect, use, disseminate, or control.
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act</I> means the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552a).
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act Appeals Officer</I> means a person designated by the FHFA Director to process appeals of denials of requests for or seeking amendment of records maintained by FHFA under the Privacy Act. For appeals pertaining to records maintained by FHFA-OIG, <I>Privacy Act Appeals Officer</I> means a person designated by the FHFA Inspector General to process appeals of denials of requests for or seeking amendment of records maintained by FHFA-OIG under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Privacy Act Officer</I> means a person designated by the FHFA Director who has primary responsibility for privacy and data protection policy and is authorized to process requests for or amendment of records maintained by FHFA under the Privacy Act. For requests pertaining to records maintained by FHFA-OIG, <I>Privacy Act Officer</I> means a person designated by the FHFA Inspector General to process requests for or amendment of records maintained by FHFA-OIG under the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that FHFA or FHFA-OIG maintains within a system of records, including, but not limited to, the individual's name, an identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print, or photograph.
</P>
<P><I>Routine use</I> means the purposes for which records and information contained in a system of records may be disclosed by FHFA or FHFA-OIG without the consent of the subject of the record. Routine uses for records are identified in each system of records notice. Routine use does not include disclosure that subsection (b) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(b)) otherwise permits.
</P>
<P><I>Senior Agency Official for Privacy</I> means a person designated by the FHFA Director who has the authority and responsibility to oversee and supervise the FHFA privacy program and implementation of the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P><I>System of Records</I> means a group of records FHFA or FHFA-OIG maintains or controls from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. Single records or groups of records that are not retrieved by a personal identifier are not part of a system of records.
</P>
<P><I>System of Records Notice</I> means a notice published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> which announces the creation, deletion, or amendment of one or more system of records. System of records notices are also used to identify a system of records' routine uses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.3   How do I make a Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is a valid request?</I> In general, a Privacy Act request can be made on your own behalf for records or information about you. You can make a Privacy Act request on behalf of another individual as the parent or guardian of a minor, or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent. You also may request access to another individual's record or information if you have that individual's written consent, unless other conditions of disclosure apply.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How and where do I make a request?</I> Your request must be in writing. Regardless of whether your request seeks records from FHFA, FHFA-OIG, or both, you may appear in person to submit your written request to the FHFA Privacy Act Officer, or send your written request to the FHFA Privacy Act Officer by electronic mail, mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>privacy@fhfa.gov.</I> For mail or delivery service, the address is: FHFA Privacy Act Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is (202) 649-1073. Requests for FHFA-OIG maintained records will be forwarded to FHFA-OIG for processing and direct response. You can help FHFA and FHFA-OIG process your request by marking electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “Privacy Act Request.” FHFA's “Privacy Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, <I>http://www.fhfa.gov,</I> provides additional information to assist you in making your request.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What must the request include?</I> You must describe the record that you want in enough detail to enable either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer to locate the system of records containing it with a reasonable amount of effort. Include specific information about each record sought, such as the time period in which you believe it was compiled, the name or identifying number of each system of records in which you believe it is kept, and the date, title or name, author, recipient, or subject matter of the record. As a general rule, the more specific you are about the record that you want, the more likely FHFA or FHFA-OIG will be able to locate it in response to your request.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do I request amendment or correction of a record?</I> If you are requesting an amendment or correction of any FHFA or FHFA-OIG record, identify each particular record in question and the system of records in which the record is located, describe the amendment or correction that you want, and state why you believe that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete. You may submit any documentation that you think would be helpful, including an annotated copy of the record.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How do I request for an accounting of disclosures?</I> If you are requesting an accounting of disclosures by FHFA or FHFA-OIG of a record to another person, organization, or Federal agency, you must identify each particular record in question. An accounting generally includes the date, nature, and purpose of each disclosure, as well as the name and address of the person, organization, or Federal agency to which the disclosure was made, subject to § 1204.7.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Must I verify my identity?</I> Yes. When making requests under the Privacy Act, your request must verify your identity to protect your privacy or the privacy of the individual on whose behalf you are acting. If you make a Privacy Act request and you do not follow these identity verification procedures, FHFA or FHFA-OIG cannot and will not process your request.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>How do I verify my identity?</I> To verify your identity, you must state your full name, current address, and date and place of birth. In order to help identify and locate the records you request, you also may, at your option, include your Social Security number. If you make your request in person and your identity is not known to either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer, you must provide either two forms of unexpired identification with photographs issued by a federal, state, or local government agency or entity (<I>i.e.</I> passport, passport card, driver's license, ID card, etc.), or one form of unexpired identification with a photograph issued by a federal, state, or local government agency or entity (<I>i.e.</I> passport, passport card, driver's license, ID card, etc.) and a properly authenticated birth certificate. If you make your request by mail, your signature either must be notarized or submitted under 28 U.S.C. 1746, a law that permits statements to be made under penalty of perjury as a substitute for notarization. You may fulfill this requirement by having your signature on your request letter witnessed by a notary or by including the following statement just before the signature on your request letter: “I declare (or certify, verify, or state) under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct. Executed on [date]. [Signature].”
</P>
<P>(2) <I>How do I verify parentage or guardianship?</I> If you make a Privacy Act request as the parent or guardian of a minor, or as the guardian of someone determined by a court to be incompetent, with respect to records or information about that individual, you must establish—
</P>
<P>(i) The identity of the individual who is the subject of the record, by stating the individual's name, current address, date and place of birth, and, at your option, the Social Security number of the individual;
</P>
<P>(ii) Your own identity, as required in paragraph (f)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) That you are the parent or guardian of the individual, which you may prove by providing a properly authenticated copy of the individual's birth certificate showing your parentage or a properly authenticated court order establishing your guardianship; and
</P>
<P>(iv) That you are acting on behalf of the individual in making the request.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.4   How will FHFA or FHFA-OIG respond to my Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>How will FHFA or FHFA-OIG locate the requested records?</I> FHFA or FHFA-OIG will search to determine if requested records exist in the system of records it owns or controls. You can find FHFA and FHFA-OIG system of records notices on our Web site at <I>http://www.fhfa.gov.</I> You can also find descriptions of OFHEO and FHFB system of records that have not yet been superseded on the FHFA Web site. A description of the system of records also is available in the “Privacy Act Issuances” compilation published by the Office of the Federal Register of the National Archives and Records Administration. You can access the “Privacy Act Issuances” compilation in most large reference and university libraries or electronically at the Government Printing Office Web site at: <I>http://www.gpoaccess.gov/privacyact/index.html.</I> You also can request a copy of FHFA or FHFA-OIG system of records from the Privacy Act Officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How long does FHFA or FHFA-OIG have to respond?</I> Either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer generally will respond to your request in writing within 20 days after receiving it, if it meets the § 1204.3 requirements. For requests to amend a record, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer will respond within 10 days after receipt of the request to amend. FHFA or FHFA-OIG may extend the response time in unusual circumstances, such as when consultation is needed with another Federal agency (if that agency is subject to the Privacy Act) about a record or to retrieve a record shipped offsite for storage. If you submit your written request in person, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer may disclose records or information to you directly and create a written record of the grant of the request. If you are to be accompanied by another person when accessing your record or any information pertaining to you, FHFA or FHFA-OIG may require your written authorization before permitting access or discussing the record in the presence of the other person.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What will the FHFA or FHFA-OIG response include?</I> The written response will include a determination to grant or deny your request in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and the amount of the fee charged, if any, under § 1204.6. If you are granted a request to access a record, FHFA or FHFA-OIG will make the record available to you. If you are granted a request to amend or correct a record, the response will describe any amendments or corrections made and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended or corrected record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What is an adverse determination?</I> An adverse determination is a determination on a Privacy Act request that—
</P>
<P>(1) Withholds any requested record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(2) Denies a request for an amendment or correction of a record in whole or in part;
</P>
<P>(3) Declines to provide a requested accounting of disclosures;
</P>
<P>(4) Advises that a requested record does not exist or cannot be located; or
</P>
<P>(5) Finds what has been requested is not a record subject to the Privacy Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What will be stated in a response that includes an adverse determination?</I> If an adverse determination is made with respect to your request, either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer's written response under this section will identify the person responsible for the adverse determination, state that the adverse determination is not a final action of FHFA or FHFA-OIG, and state that you may appeal the adverse determination under § 1204.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.5   What if I am dissatisfied with the response to my Privacy Act request?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>May I appeal the response?</I> You may appeal any adverse determination made in response to your Privacy Act request. If you wish to seek review by a court of any adverse determination or denial of a request, you must first appeal it under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do I appeal the response?</I>—(1) You may appeal by submitting in writing, a statement of the reasons you believe the adverse determination should be overturned. FHFA or FHFA-OIG must receive your written appeal within 30 calendar days of the date of the adverse determination under § 1204.4. Your written appeal may include as much or as little related information as you wish, as long as it clearly identifies the determination (including the request number, if known) that you are appealing.
</P>
<P>(2) If FHFA or FHFA-OIG denied your request in whole or in part, you may appeal the denial by writing directly to the FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer through electronic mail, mail, delivery service, or facsimile. The electronic mail address is: <I>privacy@fhfa.gov.</I> For mail or express mail, the address is: FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219. The facsimile number is: (202) 649-1073. For appeals of FHFA-OIG denials, whether in whole or in part, the appeal must be clearly marked by adding “FHFA-OIG” after “Privacy Act Appeal.” All appeals from denials, in whole or part, made by FHFA-OIG will be forwarded to the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer for processing and direct response. You can help FHFA and FHFA-OIG process your appeal by marking electronic mail, letters, or facsimiles and the subject line, envelope, or facsimile cover sheet with “Privacy Act Appeal.” FHFA's “Privacy Act Reference Guide,” which is available on FHFA's Web site, <I>http://www.fhfa.gov,</I> provides additional information to assist you in making your appeal. FHFA or FHFA-OIG ordinarily will not act on an appeal if the Privacy Act request becomes a matter of litigation.
</P>
<P>(3) If you need more time to file your appeal, you may request an extension of time of no more than ten (10) calendar days in which to file your appeal, but only if your request is made within the original 30-calendar day time period for filing the appeal. Granting an extension is in the sole discretion of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Who has the authority to grant or deny appeals?</I> For appeals from the FHFA Privacy Act Officer, the FHFA Privacy Act Appeals Officer is authorized to act on your appeal. For appeals from the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer, the FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer is authorized to act on your appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>When will FHFA or FHFA-OIG respond to my appeal?</I> FHFA or FHFA-OIG generally will respond to you in writing within 30 days of receipt of an appeal that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, unless for good cause shown, the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer extends the response time.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What will the FHFA or FHFA-OIG response include?</I> The written response will include the determination of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer, whether to grant or deny your appeal in whole or in part, a brief explanation of the reasons for the determination, and information about the Privacy Act provisions for court review of the determination.
</P>
<P>(1) If your appeal concerns a request for access to records or information and the appeal determination grants your access, the records or information, if any, will be made available to you.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) If your appeal concerns an amendment or correction of a record and the appeal determination grants your request for an amendment or correction, the response will describe any amendment or correction made to the record and advise you of your right to obtain a copy of the amended or corrected record under this part. FHFA or FHFA-OIG will notify all persons, organizations, or Federal agencies to which it previously disclosed the record, if an accounting of that disclosure was made, that the record has been amended or corrected. Whenever the record is subsequently disclosed, the record will be disclosed as amended or corrected.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the response to your appeal denies your request for an amendment or correction to a record, the response will advise you of your right to file a Statement of Disagreement under paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>What is a Statement of Disagreement?</I>—(1) A Statement of Disagreement is a concise written statement in which you clearly identify each part of any record that you dispute and explain your reason(s) for disagreeing with either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer's denial, in whole or in part, of your appeal requesting amendment or correction. Your Statement of Disagreement must be received by either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Officer within 30 calendar days of either the FHFA or FHFA-OIG Privacy Act Appeals Officer's denial, in whole or in part, of your appeal concerning amendment or correction of a record. FHFA and FHFA-OIG will place your Statement of Disagreement in the system of records in which the disputed record is maintained. FHFA and FHFA-OIG may also append a concise statement of its reason(s) for denying the request for an amendment or correction of the record.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA and FHFA-OIG will notify all persons, organizations, and Federal agencies to which it previously disclosed the disputed record, if an accounting of that disclosure was made, that the record is disputed and provide your Statement of Disagreement and the FHFA or FHFA-OIG concise statement, if any. Whenever the disputed record is subsequently disclosed, a copy of your Statement of Disagreement and the FHFA or FHFA-OIG concise statement, if any, will also be disclosed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 51871, Aug. 19, 2011, as amended at 77 FR 4646, Jan. 31, 2012; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.6   What does it cost to get records under the Privacy Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Must I agree to pay fees?</I> Your Privacy Act request is your agreement to pay all applicable fees, unless you specify a limit on the amount of fees you agree to pay. FHFA or FHFA-OIG will not exceed the specified limit without your written agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How does FHFA or FHFA-OIG calculate fees?</I> FHFA and FHFA-OIG will charge a fee for duplication of a record under the Privacy Act in the same way it charges for duplication of records under FOIA in 12 CFR 1202.11. There are no fees to search for or review records.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.7   Are there any exemptions from the Privacy Act?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is a Privacy Act exemption?</I> The Privacy Act authorizes the Director and the FHFA Inspector General to exempt records or information in a system of records from some of the Privacy Act requirements, if the Director or the FHFA Inspector General, as appropriate, determines that the exemption is necessary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do I know if the records or information I want are exempt?</I>—(1) Each system of records notice will advise you if the Director or the FHFA Inspector General has determined records or information in records are exempt from Privacy Act requirements. If the Director or the FHFA Inspector General has claimed an exemption for a system of records, the system of records notice will identify the exemption and the provisions of the Privacy Act from which the system is exempt.
</P>
<P>(2) Until superseded by FHFA or FHFA-OIG systems of records, the following OFHEO and FHFB systems of records are, under 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2) or (k)(5), exempt from the Privacy Act requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4)(G), (e)(4)(H), (e)(4)(I), and (f)—
</P>
<P>(i) OFHEO-11 Litigation and Enforcement Information System; and
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFB-5 Agency Personnel Investigative Records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What exemptions potentially apply to FHFA-OIG records?</I> Unless the FHFA Inspector General, his or her designee, or a statute specifically authorizes disclosure, FHFA-OIG will not release records of matters that are subject to the following exemptions—
</P>
<P>(1) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database” contain any information compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of criminal law enforcement investigations, such information falls within the scope of exemption (j)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(j)(2), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act to that extent, for the reasons stated in paragraphs (1)(i) through (vi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation or evaluation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation or evaluation.
</P>
<P>(ii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1), because release of investigative or evaluative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative or evaluative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative or evaluative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative or evaluative burden by requiring FHFA-OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations or evaluations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness.
</P>
<P>(iv) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation or evaluation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to an investigation or evaluation. In addition, FHFA-OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, FHFA-OIG should retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation or evaluation, information may be provided to FHFA-OIG that relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation or evaluation, but which may be pertinent to the investigative or evaluative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.
</P>
<P>(v) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(2), because in a law enforcement investigation or an evaluation it is usually counterproductive to collect information to the greatest extent practicable directly from the subject thereof. It is not always feasible to rely upon the subject of an investigation or evaluation as a source for information which may implicate him or her in illegal activities. In addition, collecting information directly from the subject could seriously compromise an investigation or evaluation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could provide the subject with an opportunity to conceal criminal activities, or intimidate potential sources, in order to avoid apprehension.
</P>
<P>(vi) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(3), because providing such notice to the subject of an investigation or evaluation, or to other individual sources, could seriously compromise the investigation or evaluation by prematurely revealing its nature and scope, or could inhibit cooperation, permit the subject to evade apprehension, or cause interference with undercover activities.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database,” contain information compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of criminal law enforcement investigations, such information falls within the scope of exemption (k)(2) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(2), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of the following subsections of the Privacy Act to that extent, for the reasons stated in paragraphs (c)(2)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(c)(3), because release of an accounting of disclosures to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could reveal the nature and scope of the investigation or evaluation and could result in the altering or destruction of evidence, improper influencing of witnesses, and other evasive actions that could impede or compromise the investigation or evaluation.
</P>
<P>(ii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(1), because release of investigative or evaluative records to an individual who is the subject of an investigation or evaluation could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, constitute an unwarranted invasion of the personal privacy of third parties, reveal the identity of confidential sources, or reveal sensitive investigative or evaluative techniques and procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(d)(2), because amendment or correction of investigative or evaluative records could interfere with pending or prospective law enforcement proceedings, or could impose an impossible administrative and investigative or evaluative burden by requiring FHFA-OIG to continuously retrograde its investigations or evaluations attempting to resolve questions of accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness.
</P>
<P>(iv) From 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(1), because it is often impossible to determine relevance or necessity of information in the early stages of an investigation or evaluation. The value of such information is a question of judgment and timing; what appears relevant and necessary when collected may ultimately be evaluated and viewed as irrelevant and unnecessary to an investigation or evaluation. In addition, FHFA-OIG may obtain information concerning the violation of laws other than those within the scope of its jurisdiction. In the interest of effective law enforcement, FHFA-OIG should retain this information because it may aid in establishing patterns of unlawful activity and provide leads for other law enforcement agencies. Further, in obtaining evidence during an investigation or evaluation, information may be provided to FHFA-OIG that relates to matters incidental to the main purpose of the investigation or evaluation but which may be pertinent to the investigative or evaluative jurisdiction of another agency. Such information cannot readily be identified.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent that the systems of records entitled “FHFA-OIG Audit Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative Files Database,” “FHFA-OIG Investigative &amp; Evaluative MIS Database,” “FHFA-OIG Hotline Database,” and “FHFA-OIG Correspondence Database” contain any investigatory material compiled by FHFA-OIG for the purpose of determining suitability, eligibility, or qualifications for Federal civilian employment or Federal contracts, the release of which would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise that the identity of the source would be held in confidence, such information falls within the scope of exemption (k)(5) of the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), and therefore these systems of records are exempt from the requirements of subsection (d)(1) of the Privacy Act to that extent, because release would reveal the identity of a source who furnished information to the Government under an express promise of confidentiality. Revealing the identity of a confidential source could impede future cooperation by sources, and could result in harassment or harm to such sources.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.8   How are records secured?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What controls must FHFA and FHFA-OIG have in place?</I> FHFA and FHFA-OIG must establish administrative and physical controls to prevent unauthorized access to their systems of records, unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of records, and physical damage to or destruction of records. The stringency of these controls corresponds to the sensitivity of the records that the controls protect. At a minimum, the administrative and physical controls must ensure that—
</P>
<P>(1) Records are protected from public view;
</P>
<P>(2) The area in which records are kept is supervised during business hours to prevent unauthorized persons from having access to them;
</P>
<P>(3) Records are inaccessible to unauthorized persons outside of business hours; and
</P>
<P>(4) Records are not disclosed to unauthorized persons or under unauthorized circumstances in either oral or written form.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Is access to records restricted?</I> Access to records is restricted to authorized employees who require access in order to perform their official duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.9   Does FHFA or FHFA-OIG collect and use Social Security numbers?</HEAD>
<P>FHFA and FHFA-OIG collect Social Security numbers only when it is necessary and authorized. At least annually, the FHFA Privacy Act Officer or the Senior Agency Official for Privacy will inform employees who are authorized to collect information that—
</P>
<P>(a) Individuals may not be denied any right, benefit, or privilege as a result of refusing to provide their Social Security numbers, unless the collection is authorized either by a statute or by a regulation issued prior to 1975; and
</P>
<P>(b) They must inform individuals who are asked to provide their Social Security numbers—
</P>
<P>(1) If providing a Social Security number is mandatory or voluntary;
</P>
<P>(2) If any statutory or regulatory authority authorizes collection of a Social Security number; and
</P>
<P>(3) The uses that will be made of the Social Security number.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.10   What are FHFA and FHFA-OIG employee responsibilities under the Privacy Act?</HEAD>
<P>At least annually, the FHFA Privacy Act Officer or the Senior Agency Official for Privacy will inform employees about the provisions of the Privacy Act, including the Privacy Act's civil liability and criminal penalty provisions. Unless otherwise permitted by law, an authorized FHFA or FHFA-OIG employee shall—
</P>
<P>(a) Collect from individuals only information that is relevant and necessary to discharge FHFA or FHFA-OIG responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(b) Collect information about an individual directly from that individual whenever practicable;
</P>
<P>(c) Inform each individual from whom information is collected of—
</P>
<P>(1) The legal authority to collect the information and whether providing it is mandatory or voluntary;
</P>
<P>(2) The principal purpose for which FHFA or FHFA-OIG intends to use the information;
</P>
<P>(3) The routine uses FHFA or FHFA-OIG may make of the information; and
</P>
<P>(4) The effects on the individual, if any, of not providing the information.
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure that the employee's office does not maintain a system of records without public notice and notify appropriate officials of the existence or development of any system of records that is not the subject of a current or planned public notice;
</P>
<P>(e) Maintain all records that are used in making any determination about an individual with such accuracy, relevance, timeliness, and completeness as is reasonably necessary to ensure fairness to the individual in the determination;
</P>
<P>(f) Except for disclosures made under FOIA, make reasonable efforts, prior to disseminating any record about an individual, to ensure that the record is accurate, relevant, timely, and complete;
</P>
<P>(g) When required by the Privacy Act, maintain an accounting in the specified form of all disclosures of records by FHFA or FHFA-OIG to persons, organizations, or Federal agencies;
</P>
<P>(h) Maintain and use records with care to prevent the unauthorized or inadvertent disclosure of a record to anyone; and
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the appropriate official of any record that contains information that the Privacy Act does not permit FHFA or FHFA-OIG to maintain.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1204.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.5.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1204.11   May FHFA-OIG obtain Privacy Act records from other Federal agencies for law enforcement purposes?</HEAD>
<P>(a) The FHFA Inspector General is authorized under the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended, to make written requests under 5 U.S.C. 552a(b)(7) for transfer of records maintained by other Federal agencies which are necessary to carry out an authorized law enforcement activity under the Inspector General Act of 1978, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) The FHFA Inspector General delegates the authority under paragraph (a) of this section to the following FHFA-OIG officials—
</P>
<P>(1) Principal Deputy Inspector General;
</P>
<P>(2) Deputy Inspector General for Audits;
</P>
<P>(3) Deputy Inspector General for Investigations;
</P>
<P>(4) Deputy Inspector General for Evaluations; and
</P>
<P>(5) Deputy Inspector General for Administration.
</P>
<P>(c) The officials listed in paragraph (b) of this section may not further delegate or re-delegate the authority described in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1206" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1206—ASSESSMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4516.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1206.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the policy and procedures of the FHFA with respect to the establishment and collection of the assessments of the Regulated Entities under 12 U.S.C. 4516.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008.
</P>
<P><I>Adequately capitalized</I> means the adequately capitalized capital classification under 12 U.S.C. 1364 and related regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation; and “Enterprises” means, collectively, the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Home Loan Bank,</I> or <I>Bank,</I> means a Federal Home Loan Bank established under section 12 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432).
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum required regulatory capital</I> means the highest amount of capital necessary for a Bank to comply with any of the capital requirements established by the Director and applicable to it.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated Entity</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or any of the Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Surplus funds</I> means any amounts that are not obligated as of September 30 of the fiscal year for which the assessment was made.
</P>
<P><I>Total exposure</I> has the same meaning given to adjusted total assets in 12 CFR 1240.2.
</P>
<P><I>Working capital fund</I> means an account for amounts collected from the Regulated Entities to establish an operating reserve that is intended to provide for the payment of large or multiyear capital and operating expenditures, as well as unanticipated expenses.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, as amended at 85 FR 82198, Dec. 17 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.3   Annual assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishing assessments.</I> The Director shall establish annual assessments on the Regulated Entities in an amount sufficient to maintain a working capital fund and provide for the payment of the FHFA's costs and expenses, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Expenses of any examinations under 12 U.S.C. 4517 and section 20 of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1440);
</P>
<P>(2) Expenses of obtaining any reviews and credit assessments under 12 U.S.C. 4519;
</P>
<P>(3) Expenses of any enforcement activities under 12 U.S.C. 4635;
</P>
<P>(4) Expenses of other FHFA litigation under 12 U.S.C. 4513;
</P>
<P>(5) Expenses relating to the maintenance of the FHFA records relating to examinations and other reviews of the Regulated Entities;
</P>
<P>(6) Such amounts in excess of actual expenses for any given year deemed necessary to maintain a working capital fund;
</P>
<P>(7) Expenses relating to monitoring and ensuring compliance with housing goals;
</P>
<P>(8) Expenses relating to conducting reviews of new products;
</P>
<P>(9) Expenses related to affordable housing and community programs;
</P>
<P>(10) Other administrative expenses of the FHFA;
</P>
<P>(11) Expenses related to preparing reports and studies;
</P>
<P>(12) Expenses relating to the collection of data and development of systems to calculate the House Price Index (HPI) and the conforming loan limit;
</P>
<P>(13) Amounts deemed necessary by the Director to wind up the affairs of the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight and the Federal Housing Finance Board; and
</P>
<P>(14) Expenses relating to other responsibilities of the FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act, the Federal Home Loan Bank Act and the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Allocating assessments.</I> The Director shall allocate the annual assessments as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enterprises.</I> Assessments collected from the Enterprises shall not exceed amounts sufficient to provide for payment of the costs and expenses relating to the Enterprises as determined by the Director. Each Enterprise shall pay a proportional share that bears the same ratio to the total portion of the annual assessment allocated to the Enterprises that the total exposure of each Enterprise bears to the total exposure of both Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Federal Home Loan Banks.</I> Assessments collected from the Banks shall not exceed amounts sufficient to provide for payment of the costs and expenses relating to the Banks as determined by the Director. Each Bank shall pay a <I>pro rata</I> share of the annual assessments based on the ratio between its minimum required regulatory capital and the aggregate minimum required regulatory capital of every Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing and amount of semiannual payment.</I> Each Regulated Entity shall pay on or before October 1 and April 1 an amount equal to one-half of its annual assessment.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Surplus funds.</I> Surplus funds shall be credited to the annual assessment by reducing the amount collected in the following semiannual period by the amount of the surplus funds. Surplus funds shall be allocated to all Regulated Entities in the same proportion in which they were collected, except as determined by the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 56713, Sept. 30, 2008, as amended at 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.4   Increased costs of regulation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Increase for inadequate capitalization.</I> The Director may, at his or her discretion, increase the amount of a semiannual payment allocated to a Regulated Entity that is not classified as adequately capitalized to pay additional estimated costs of regulation of that Regulated Entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Increase for enforcement activities.</I> The Director may, at his or her discretion, adjust the amount of a semiannual payment allocated to a Regulated Entity to ensure that the Regulated Entity bears the estimated costs of enforcement activities under the Act related to that Regulated Entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional assessment for deficiencies.</I> At any time, the Director may make and collect from any Regulated Entity an assessment, payable immediately or through increased semiannual payments, to cover the estimated amount of any deficiency for the semiannual period as a result of increased costs of regulation of a Regulated Entity due to its classification as other than adequately capitalized, or as a result of enforcement activities related to that Regulated Entity. Any amount remaining from such additional assessment and the semiannual payments at the end of any semiannual period during which such an additional assessment is made shall be deducted <I>pro rata</I> (based upon the amount of the additional assessments) from the assessment for the following semiannual period for that Regulated Entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.5   Working capital fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Assessments.</I> The Director shall establish and collect from the Regulated Entities such assessments he or she deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purposes.</I> Assessments collected to maintain the working capital fund shall be used to establish an operating reserve and to provide for the payment of large or multiyear capital and operating expenditures as well as unanticipated expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remittance of excess assessed funds.</I> At the end of each year for which an assessment under this section is made, the Director shall remit to each Regulated Entity any amount of assessed and collected funds in excess of the amount the Director deems necessary to maintain a working capital fund in the same proportions as paid under the most recent annual assessment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.6   Notice and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written notice of budget.</I> The Director shall provide to each Regulated Entity written notice of the projected budget for the Agency for the upcoming fiscal year. Such notice shall be provided at least 30 days before the beginning of the applicable fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written notice of assessments.</I> The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of assessments as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual assessments.</I> The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of the annual assessment and the semiannual payments to be collected under this part. Notice of the annual assessment and semiannual payments shall be provided before the start of the new fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Immediate assessments.</I> The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of any immediate assessments to be collected under § 1206.4 of this chapter. Notice of any immediate assessment and the required payments shall be provided at such reasonable time as determined by the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Changes to assessments.</I> The Director shall provide each Regulated Entity with written notice of any changes in the assessment procedures that the Director, in his or her sole discretion, deems necessary under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for review.</I> At the written request of a Regulated Entity, the Director, in his or her discretion, may review the calculation of the proportional share of the annual assessment, the semiannual payments, and any partial payments to be collected under this part. The determination of the Director upon such review is final. Except as provided by the Director, review by the Director does not suspend the requirement that the Regulated Entity make the semiannual payment or partial payment on or before the date it is due. Any adjustments determined appropriate shall be credited or otherwise addressed by the following year's assessment for that entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.7   Delinquent payment.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may assess interest and penalties on any delinquent semiannual payment or other payment assessed under this part in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 (interest and penalty on claims) and part 1704 of this title (debt collection).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1206.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.6.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1206.8   Enforcement of payment.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may enforce the payment of any assessment under 12 U.S.C. 4631 (cease-and-desist proceedings), 12 U.S.C. 4632 (temporary cease-and-desist orders), and 12 U.S.C. 4626 (civil money penalties).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1207" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1207—MINORITY AND WOMEN OUTREACH PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4520 and 4526; 12 U.S.C. 1833e; E.O. 11478.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 14994, Mar. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1207.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.7.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms in this part have the same meaning as in FHFA's Minority and Women Inclusion Regulation at part 1223 of this chapter, as may be amended from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.7.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.2   FHFA workforce diversity; Equal Employment Opportunity Program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility.</I> FHFA's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) shall have overall responsibility for diversity and inclusion in FHFA's employment practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General.</I> FHFA shall maintain an Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) program consistent with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission requirements for Federal agencies and Executive Order 11478.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Workforce diversity.</I> FHFA shall not discriminate in employment against any person because of race, color, religion, national origin, sex, age, genetic information, disability, sexual orientation, gender identity, or status as a parent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Affirmative steps for workforce diversity.</I> FHFA shall take affirmative steps to seek diversity in its workforce, at all levels of the agency, in a manner consistent with applicable law. Such steps shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruiting at historically Black colleges and universities, Hispanic-serving institutions, women's colleges, and colleges that typically serve the individuals with disabilities and majority minority populations;
</P>
<P>(2) Sponsoring and recruiting at job fairs in urban communities;
</P>
<P>(3) Placing employment advertisements in media oriented toward minorities and women;
</P>
<P>(4) Partnering with organizations that are focused on developing opportunities for minorities and women to place talented minorities and women in industry internships, summer employment, and full-time positions; and
</P>
<P>(5) Where feasible, partnering with inner-city high schools, girls' high schools, and high schools with majority minority populations, to establish or enhance financial literacy and provide mentoring.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.7.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.3   FHFA contracting and diversity and inclusion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibilities.</I> FHFA's Office of Minority and Women Inclusion (OMWI) shall have responsibility for diversity and inclusion in FHFA's contracting practices.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Outreach.</I> FHFA's policy is to promote diversity in its contracting process. FHFA shall establish a contractor outreach program intended to ensure that minority- and women-owned businesses are made aware of and given the opportunity to compete for contracts with FHFA. FHFA shall conduct outreach activities that may include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying contractors that are minority- and women-owned by obtaining lists and directories maintained by government agencies, trade groups, and other organizations;
</P>
<P>(2) Advertising contract opportunities through media targeted to reach potential contractors that are minority- and women-owned; and
</P>
<P>(3) Participating in events such as conventions, trade shows, seminars, professional meetings, and other gatherings intended to promote business opportunities for minority- and women-owned businesses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Technical assistance.</I> FHFA shall provide technical assistance and guidance to facilitate the identification and solicitation of minority and women-owned businesses.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Monitoring.</I> FHFA's OMWI shall monitor that FHFA staff interfacing with the contracting community are knowledgeable about, and actively promoting, FHFA's Outreach program.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1207.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.7.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1207.4   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part do not, are not intended to, and should not be construed to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law, in equity, or through administrative proceeding, by any party against FHFA, the United States, its other departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1208" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1208—DEBT COLLECTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 5514; 12 U.S.C. 4526; 26 U.S.C. 6402(d); 31 U.S.C. 3701-3720D; 31 CFR 285.2; 31 CFR Chapter IX.


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 68958, Nov. 10, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1208.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.1   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> FHFA issues this part 1208 under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 31 U.S.C. 3701-3720D, and in conformity with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) at 31 CFR chapter IX; the regulations on salary offset issued by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM) at 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; the regulations on tax refund offset issued by the United States Department of the Treasury (Treasury) at 31 CFR 285.2; and the regulations on administrative wage garnishment issued by Treasury at 31 CFR 285.11.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope</I>—(1) This part applies to debts that are owed to the Federal Government by Federal employees; other persons, organizations, or entities that are indebted to FHFA; and by Federal employees of FHFA who are indebted to other agencies, except for those debts listed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Subparts B and C of this part 1208 do not apply to—
</P>
<P>(i) Debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>) or the tariff laws of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any case to which the Contract Disputes Act (41 U.S.C. 601 <I>et seq.</I>) applies;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any case where collection of a debt is explicitly provided for or provided by another statute, <I>e.g.</I> travel advances under 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses under 5 U.S.C. 4108, or, as provided for by title 11 of the United States Code, when the claims involve bankruptcy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any debt based in whole or in part on conduct in violation of the antitrust laws or involving fraud, the presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any party having an interest in the claim, unless the Department of Justice authorizes FHFA to handle the collection; or
</P>
<P>(v) Claims between agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this part precludes the compromise, suspension, or termination of collection actions, where appropriate, under standards implementing the Debt Collection Improvement Act (DCIA) (31 U.S.C. 3701 <I>et seq.</I>), the FCCS (31 CFR chapter IX) or the use of alternative dispute resolution methods if they are not inconsistent with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this part precludes an employee from requesting waiver of an erroneous payment under 5 U.S.C. 5584, 10 U.S.C. 2774, or 32 U.S.C. 716, or from questioning the amount or validity of a debt, in the manner set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms apply to this part, unless defined otherwise elsewhere-
</P>
<P><I>Administrative offset</I> means an action, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, in which the Federal Government withholds funds payable to, or held by the Federal Government for a person, organization, or other entity in order to collect a debt from that person, organization, or other entity. Such funds include funds payable by the Federal Government on behalf of a State Government.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means an executive department or agency; a military department; the United States Postal Service; the Postal Regulatory Commission; any nonappropriated fund instrumentality described in 5 U.S.C. 2105(c); the United States Senate; the United States House of Representatives; any court, court administrative office, or instrumentality in the judicial or legislative branches of the Government; or a Government corporation. If an agency under this definition is a component of an agency, the broader definition of agency may be used in applying the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 5514(b) (concerning the authority to prescribe regulations).
</P>
<P><I>Centralized administrative offset</I> means the mandatory referral to the Secretary of the Treasury by a creditor agency of a past due debt which is more than 180 days delinquent, for the purpose of collection under the Treasury's centralized offset program.
</P>
<P><I>Certification</I> means a written statement received by a paying agency from a creditor agency that requests the paying agency to institute salary offset of an employee, to the Financial Management Service (FMS) for offset or to the Secretary of the Treasury for centralized administrative offset, and specifies that required procedural protections have been afforded the debtor. Where the debtor requests a hearing on a claimed debt, the decision by a hearing official or administrative law judge constitutes a certification.
</P>
<P><I>Claim or debt</I> (used interchangeably in this part) means any amount of funds or property that has been determined by an agency official to be due the Federal Government by a person, organization, or entity, except another agency. It also means any amount of money, funds, or property owed by a person to a State, the District of Columbia, American Samoa, Guam, the United States Virgin Islands, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. For purposes of this part, a debt owed to FHFA constitutes a debt owed to the Federal Government. A claim or debt includes:
</P>
<P>(1) Funds owed on account of loans made, insured, or guaranteed by the Federal Government, including any deficiency or any difference between the price obtained by the Federal Government in the sale of a property and the amount owed to the Federal Government on a mortgage on the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Unauthorized expenditures of agency funds;
</P>
<P>(3) Overpayments, including payments disallowed by audits performed by the Inspector General of the agency administering the program;
</P>
<P>(4) Any amount the Federal Government is authorized by statute to collect for the benefit of any person;
</P>
<P>(5) The unpaid share of any non-Federal partner in a program involving a Federal payment, and a matching or cost-sharing payment by the non-Federal partner;
</P>
<P>(6) Any fine or penalty assessed by an agency; and
</P>
<P>(7) Other amounts of money or property owed to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Compromise</I> means the settlement or forgiveness of a debt under 31 U.S.C. 3711, in accordance with standards set forth in the FCCS and applicable Federal law.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor agency</I> means the agency to which the debt is owed, including a debt collection center when acting on behalf of a creditor agency in matters pertaining to the collection of a debt.
</P>
<P><I>Debt</I> See the definition of the terms “Claim or debt” of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Debt collection center</I> means the Department of the Treasury or any other agency or division designated by the Secretary of the Treasury with authority to collect debts on behalf of creditor agencies in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(g).
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means the person, organization, or entity owing money to the Federal Government.
</P>
<P><I>Delinquent debt</I> means a debt that has not been paid by the date specified in the agency's initial written demand for payment or applicable agreement or instrument (including a post-delinquency payment agreement) unless other satisfactory payment arrangements have been made.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of FHFA or Director's designee.
</P>
<P><I>Disposable pay</I> means that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, or retainer pay (or in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay) remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld (other than deductions to execute garnishment orders in accordance with 5 CFR parts 581 and 582). FHFA will apply the order of precedence contained in OPM guidance (PPM-2008-01; Order Of Precedence When Gross Pay Is Not Sufficient To Permit All Deductions), as follows—
</P>
<P>(1) Retirement deductions for defined benefit plan (including Civil Service Retirement System, Federal Employees Retirement System, or other similar defined benefit plan);
</P>
<P>(2) Social security (OASDI) tax;
</P>
<P>(3) Medicare tax;
</P>
<P>(4) Federal income tax;
</P>
<P>(5) Basic health insurance premium (including Federal Employees Health Benefits premium, pre-tax or post-tax, or premium for similar benefit under another authority but not including amounts deducted for supplementary coverage);
</P>
<P>(6) Basic life insurance premium (including Federal Employees' Group Life Insurance—FEGLI—Basic premium or premium for similar benefit under another authority);
</P>
<P>(7) State income tax;
</P>
<P>(8) Local income tax;
</P>
<P>(9) Collection of debts owed to the U.S. Government (e.g., tax debt, salary overpayment, failure to withhold proper amount of deductions, advance of salary or travel expenses, etc.; debts which may or may not be delinquent; debts which may be collected through the Treasury's Financial Management Services Treasury Offset Program, an automated centralized debt collection program for collecting Federal debt from Federal payments):
</P>
<P>(i) Continuous levy under the Federal Payment Levy Program (tax debt); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Salary offsets (whether involuntary under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or similar authority or required by a voluntarily signed written agreement; if multiple debts are subject to salary offset, the order is based on when each offset commenced—with earliest commencing offset at the top of the order—unless there are special circumstances, as determined by the paying agency).
</P>
<P>(10) Court-Ordered collection/debt:
</P>
<P>(i) Child support (may include attorney and other fees as provided for in 5 CFR 581.102(d)). If there are multiple child support orders, the priority of orders is governed by 42 U.S.C. 666(b) and implementing regulations, as required by 42 U.S.C. 659(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(ii) Alimony (may include attorney and other fees as provided for in 5 CFR 581.102(d)). If there are multiple alimony orders, they are prioritized on a first-come, first-served basis, as required by 42 U.S.C. 659(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(iii) Bankruptcy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Commercial garnishments.
</P>
<P>(11) Optional benefits:
</P>
<P>(i) Health care/limited-expense health care flexible spending accounts (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);
</P>
<P>(ii) Dental (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);
</P>
<P>(iii) Vision (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);
</P>
<P>(iv) Health Savings Account (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);
</P>
<P>(v) Optional life insurance premiums (FEGLI optional benefits or similar benefits under other authority);
</P>
<P>(vi) Long-term care insurance premiums;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dependent-care flexible spending accounts (pre-tax benefit under FedFlex or equivalent cafeteria plan);
</P>
<P>(viii) Thrift Savings Plan (TSP):
</P>
<P>(A) Loan payments;
</P>
<P>(B) Basic contributions; and
</P>
<P>(C) Catch-up contributions; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Other optional benefits.
</P>
<P>(12) Other voluntary deductions/allotments:
</P>
<P>(i) Military service deposits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Professional associations;
</P>
<P>(iii) Union dues;
</P>
<P>(iv) Charities;
</P>
<P>(v) Bonds;
</P>
<P>(vi) Personal account allotments (<I>e.g.,</I> to savings or checking account); and
</P>
<P>(vii) Additional voluntary deductions (on first-come, first-served basis); and
</P>
<P>(13) IRS paper levies.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means a current employee of FHFA or other agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or a Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS)</I> means standards published at 31 CFR chapter IX.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Garnishment</I> means the process of withholding amounts from the disposable pay of a person employed outside the Federal Government, and the paying of those amounts to a creditor in satisfaction of a withholding order.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing official</I> means an individual who is responsible for conducting any hearing with respect to the existence or amount of a debt claimed and for rendering a final decision on the basis of such hearing. A hearing official may not be under the supervision or control of the Director of FHFA when FHFA is the creditor agency but may be an administrative law judge.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of intent</I> means a written notice of a creditor agency to a debtor that states that the debtor owes a debt to the creditor agency and apprises the debtor of the applicable procedural rights.
</P>
<P><I>Notice of salary offset</I> means a written notice from the paying agency to an employee after a certification has been issued by a creditor agency that informs the employee that salary offset will begin at the next officially established pay interval.
</P>
<P><I>Paying agency</I> means an agency of the Federal Government that employs the individual who owes a debt to an agency of the Federal Government and transmits payment requests in the form of certified payment vouchers, or other similar forms, to a disbursing official for disbursement. The same agency may be both the creditor agency and the paying agency.
</P>
<P><I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of an employee without his or her consent.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or non-recovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to FHFA or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law.
</P>
<P><I>Withholding order</I> means any order for withholding or garnishment of pay issued by an agency, or judicial, or administrative body. For purposes of administrative wage garnishment, the terms “wage garnishment order” and “garnishment order” have the same meaning as “withholding order.”


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.3   Referrals to the Department of the Treasury, collection services, and use of credit bureaus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral of delinquent debts.</I> (1) FHFA shall transfer to the Secretary of the Department of the Treasury any past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that has been delinquent for a period of 180 days or more so that the Secretary may take appropriate action to collect the debt or terminate collection action in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR 550.1108, 31 CFR part 285, and the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may transfer any past due, legally enforceable nontax debt that has been delinquent for less than a period of 180 days to a debt collection center for collection in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, 5 CFR 550.1108, 31 CFR part 285, and the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collection Services.</I> Section 13 of the Debt Collection Act (31 U.S.C. 3718) authorizes agencies to enter into contracts for collection services to recover debts owed the Federal Government. The Debt Collection Act requires that certain provisions be contained in such contracts, including:
</P>
<P>(1) The agency retains the authority to resolve a dispute, including the authority to terminate a collection action or refer the matter to the Attorney General for civil remedies; and
</P>
<P>(2) The contractor is subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as it applies to private contractors, as well as subject to State and Federal laws governing debt collection practices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referrals to collection agencies.</I> (1) FHFA has authority to contract for collection services to recover delinquent debts in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718(a) and the FCCS (31 CFR 901.5).
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may use private collection agencies where it determines that their use is in the best interest of the Federal Government. Where FHFA determines that there is a need to contract for collection services, the contract will provide that:
</P>
<P>(i) The authority to resolve disputes, compromise claims, suspend or terminate collection action, or refer the matter to the Department of Justice for litigation or to take any other action under this part will be retained by FHFA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Contractors are subject to the Privacy Act of 1974, as amended, to the extent specified in 5 U.S.C. 552a(m) and to applicable Federal and State laws and regulations pertaining to debt collection practices, such as the Fair Debt Collection Practices Act, 15 U.S.C. 1692;
</P>
<P>(iii) The contractor is required to strictly account for all amounts collected;
</P>
<P>(iv) The contractor must agree that uncollectible accounts shall be returned with appropriate documentation to enable FHFA to determine whether to pursue collection through litigation or to terminate collection; and
</P>
<P>(v) The contractor must agree to provide any data in its files requested by FHFA upon returning the account to FHFA for subsequent referral to the Department of Justice for litigation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.4   Reporting delinquent debts to credit bureaus.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FHFA may report delinquent debts to consumer reporting agencies (31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(3), 3711). Sixty calendar days prior to release of information to a consumer reporting agency, the debtor shall be notified, in writing, of the intent to disclose the existence of the debt to a consumer reporting agency. Such notice of intent may be a separate correspondence or included in correspondence demanding direct payment. The notice shall be in conformance with 31 U.S.C. 3711(e) and the FCCS. In the notice, FHFA shall provide the debtor with:
</P>
<P>(1) An opportunity to inspect and copy agency records pertaining to the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity for an administrative review of the legal enforceability or past due status of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) An opportunity to enter into a repayment agreement on terms satisfactory to FHFA to prevent FHFA from reporting the debt as overdue to consumer reporting agencies, and provide deadlines and method for requesting this relief;
</P>
<P>(4) An explanation of the rate of interest that will accrue on the debt, that all costs incurred to collect the debt will be charged to the debtor, the authority for assessing these costs, and the manner in which FHFA will calculate the amount of these costs;
</P>
<P>(5) An explanation that FHFA will report the debt to the consumer reporting agencies to the detriment of the debtor's credit rating; and
</P>
<P>(6) A description of the collection actions that the agency may take in the future if those presently proposed actions do not result in repayment of the debt, including the filing of a lawsuit against the borrower by the agency and assignment of the debt for collection by offset against Federal income tax refunds or the filing of a lawsuit against the debtor by the Federal Government.
</P>
<P>(b) The information that may be disclosed to the consumer reporting agency is limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor's name, address, social security number or taxpayer identification number, and any other information necessary to establish the identity of the individual;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount, status, and history of the claim; and
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA program or activity under which the claim arose.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Subsequent reports.</I> FHFA may update its report to the credit bureau whenever it has knowledge of events that substantially change the status of the amount of liability.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subsequent reports of delinquent debts.</I> Pursuant to 31 CFR 901.4, FHFA will report delinquent debt to the Department of Housing and Urban Development's Credit Alert Interactive Voice Response System (CAIVRS).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privacy Act considerations.</I> A delinquent debt may not be reported under this section unless a notice issued pursuant to the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a(e)(4), authorizes the disclosure of information about the debtor to a credit bureau or CAIVRS.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1208.5-1208.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1208.5-1208.19   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Salary Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.20   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> FHFA may collect debts owed by employees to the Federal Government by means of salary offset under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514; 5 CFR part 550, subpart K; and this subpart B.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) The procedures set forth in this subpart B apply to situations where FHFA is attempting to collect a debt by salary offset that is owed to it by an individual employed by FHFA or by another agency; or where FHFA employs an individual who owes a debt to another agency.
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures set forth in this subpart B do not apply to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any routine intra-agency adjustment of pay that is attributable to clerical or administrative error or delay in processing pay documents that have occurred within the four pay periods preceding the adjustment, or any adjustment to collect a debt amounting to $50 or less. However, at the time of any such adjustment, or as soon thereafter as possible, FHFA or its designated payroll agent shall provide the employee with a written notice of the nature and the amount of the adjustment and a point of contact for contesting such adjustment.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any negative adjustment to pay that arises from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program that requires periodic deductions from pay, if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. However, at the time such adjustment is made, FHFA or its payroll agent shall provide in the employee's earnings statement a clear and concise statement that informs the employee of the previous overpayment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.21   Notice requirements before salary offset where FHFA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of Intent.</I> Deductions from an employee's salary may not be made unless FHFA provides the employee with a Notice of Intent at least 30 calendar days before the salary offset is initiated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of Notice of Intent.</I> The Notice of Intent shall advise the employee of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) That FHFA has reviewed the records relating to the claim and has determined that the employee owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) That FHFA intends to collect the debt by deductions from the employee's current disposable pay account;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the debt and the facts giving rise to the debt;
</P>
<P>(4) The frequency and amount of the intended deduction (stated as a fixed dollar amount or as a percentage of pay not to exceed 15 percent of disposable pay), and the intention to continue the deductions until the debt and all accumulated interest are paid in full or otherwise resolved;
</P>
<P>(5) The name, address, and telephone number of the person to whom the employee may propose a written alternative schedule for voluntary repayment, in lieu of salary offset. The employee shall include a justification for the alternative schedule in his or her proposal. If the terms of the alternative schedule are agreed upon by the employee and FHFA, the alternative written schedule shall be signed by both the employee and FHFA;
</P>
<P>(6) An explanation of FHFA's policy concerning interest, penalties, and administrative costs, the date by which payment should be made to avoid such costs, and a statement that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the FCCS;
</P>
<P>(7) The employee's right to inspect and copy all records of FHFA pertaining to his or her debt that are not exempt from disclosure or to receive copies of such records if he or she is unable personally to inspect the records as the result of geographical or other constraints;
</P>
<P>(8) The name, address, and telephone number of the FHFA employee to whom requests for access to records relating to the debt must be sent;
</P>
<P>(9) The employee's right to a hearing conducted by an impartial hearing official with respect to the existence and amount of the debt claimed or the repayment schedule <I>i.e.,</I> the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period, so long as a request is filed by the employee as prescribed in § 1208.23; the name and address of the office to which the request for a hearing should be sent; and the name, address, and telephone number of a person whom the employee may contact concerning procedures for requesting a hearing;
</P>
<P>(10) The filing of a request for a hearing on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice of Intent will stay the commencement of collection proceedings and a final decision on whether a hearing will be held (if a hearing is requested) or will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 calendar days after the request for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(11) FHFA shall initiate certification procedures to implement a salary offset unless the employee files a request for a hearing on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt of the Notice of Intent;
</P>
<P>(12) Any knowingly false or frivolous statement, representations, or evidence may subject the employee to:
</P>
<P>(i) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75, 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statutes or regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or under any other applicable statutory authority; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or under any other applicable statutory authority;
</P>
<P>(13) That the employee also has the right to request waiver of overpayment pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 5584 and may exercise any other rights and remedies available to the employee under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made;
</P>
<P>(14) Unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted from debts that are later waived or found not to be owed to the Federal Government shall be promptly refunded to the employee; and
</P>
<P>(15) Proceedings with respect to the debt are governed by 5 U.S.C. 5514.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.22   Review of FHFA records related to the debt.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for review.</I> An employee who desires to inspect or copy FHFA records related to a debt owed by the employee to FHFA must send a letter to the individual designated in the Notice of Intent requesting access to the relevant records. The letter must be received in the office of that individual within 15 calendar days after the employee's receipt of the Notice of Intent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review location and time.</I> In response to a timely request submitted by the employee, the employee shall be notified of the location and time when the employee may inspect and copy records related to his or her debt that are not exempt from disclosure. If the employee is unable personally to inspect such records as the result of geographical or other constraints, FHFA shall arrange to send copies of such records to the employee. The debtor shall pay copying costs unless they are waived by FHFA. Copying costs shall be assessed pursuant to FHFA's Freedom of Information Act Regulation, 12 CFR part 1202.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.23   Opportunity for a hearing where FHFA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for a hearing.</I> (1) <I>Time-period for submission.</I> An employee who requests a hearing on the existence or amount of the debt held by FHFA or on the salary-offset schedule proposed by FHFA, must send a written request to FHFA. The request for a hearing must be received by FHFA on or before the 30th calendar day following receipt by the employee of the Notice of Intent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Failure to submit timely.</I> If the employee files a request for a hearing after the expiration of the 30th calendar day, the employee shall not be entitled to a hearing. However, FHFA may accept the request if the employee can show that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control or that he or she failed to receive actual notice of the filing deadline.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of request.</I> The request for a hearing must be signed by the employee and must fully identify and explain with reasonable specificity all the facts, evidence, and witnesses, if any, that the employee believes support his or her position. The employee must also specify whether he or she requests an oral hearing. If an oral hearing is requested, the employee should explain why a hearing by examination of the documents without an oral hearing would not resolve the matter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Failure to request a hearing.</I> The failure of an employee to request a hearing will be considered an admission by the employee that the debt exists in the amount specified in the Notice of Intent that was provided to the employee under § 1208.21(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obtaining the services of a hearing official</I>—(1) <I>Debtor is not an FHFA employee.</I> When the debtor is not an FHFA employee and FHFA cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before an administrative law judge or other hearing official, FHFA may request a hearing official from an agent of the paying agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, or as otherwise designated by the paying agency. The paying agency must cooperate with FHFA to provide a hearing official, as required by the FCCS.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Debtor is an FHFA employee.</I> When the debtor is an FHFA employee, FHFA may contact any agent of another agency, as designated in 5 CFR part 581, appendix A, or as otherwise designated by the agency, to request a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure</I>—(1) <I>Notice of hearing.</I> After the employee requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the employee of the form of the hearing to be provided. If the hearing will be oral, the notice shall set forth the date, time, and location of the hearing, which must occur no more than 30 calendar days after the request is received, unless the employee requests that the hearing be delayed. If the hearing will be conducted by an examination of documents, the employee shall be notified within 30 calendar days that he or she should submit evidence and arguments in writing to the hearing official within 30 calendar days.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Oral hearing.</I> (i) An employee who requests an oral hearing shall be provided an oral hearing if the hearing official determines that the matter cannot be resolved by an examination of the documents alone, as for example, when an issue of credibility or veracity is involved. The oral hearing need not be an adversarial adjudication; and rules of evidence need not apply. Witnesses who testify in an oral hearing shall do so under oath or affirmation.
</P>
<P>(ii) Oral hearings may take the form of, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Informal conferences with the hearing official in which the employee and agency representative are given full opportunity to present evidence, witnesses, and argument;
</P>
<P>(B) Informal meetings in which the hearing examiner interviews the employee; or
</P>
<P>(C) Formal written submissions followed by an opportunity for oral presentation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hearing by examination of documents.</I> If the hearing official determines that an oral hearing is not necessary, he or she shall make the determination based upon an examination of the documents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record.</I> The hearing official shall maintain a summary record of any hearing conducted under this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Decision.</I> (1) The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision, based upon all evidence and information developed during the hearing, as soon as practicable after the hearing, but not later than 60 calendar days after the date on which the request was received by FHFA, unless the hearing was delayed at the request of the employee, in which case the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the hearing was postponed.
</P>
<P>(2) The decision of the hearing official shall be final and is considered to be an official certification regarding the existence and the amount of the debt for purposes of executing salary offset under 5 U.S.C. 5514. If the hearing official determines that a debt may not be collected by salary offset, but FHFA finds that the debt is still valid, FHFA may seek collection of the debt through other means in accordance with applicable law and regulations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Content of decision.</I> The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A summary of the facts concerning the origin, nature, and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The hearing official's findings, analysis, and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any repayment schedules, if applicable.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Failure to appear.</I> If, in the absence of good cause shown, such as illness, the employee or the representative of FHFA fails to appear, the hearing official shall proceed with the hearing as scheduled, and make his or her decision based upon the oral testimony presented and the documentation submitted by both parties. At the request of both parties, the hearing official may schedule a new hearing date. Both parties shall be given reasonable notice of the time and place of the new hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.24   Certification where FHFA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> FHFA shall issue a certification in all cases where the hearing official determines that a debt exists or the employee admits the existence and amount of the debt, as for example, by failing to request a hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The certification must be in writing and state:
</P>
<P>(1) That the employee owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt;
</P>
<P>(3) The date the Federal Government's right to collect the debt first accrued;
</P>
<P>(4) The date the employee was notified of the debt, the action(s) taken pursuant to FHFA's regulations, and the dates such actions were taken;
</P>
<P>(5) If the collection is to be made by lump-sum payment, the amount and date such payment will be collected;
</P>
<P>(6) If the collection is to be made in installments through salary offset, the amount or percentage of disposable pay to be collected in each installment and, if FHFA wishes, the desired commencing date of the first installment, if a date other than the next officially established pay period; and
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that FHFA's regulation on salary offset has been approved by OPM pursuant to 5 CFR part 550, subpart K.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.25   Voluntary repayment agreements as alternative to salary offset where FHFA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed repayment schedule.</I> In response to a Notice of Intent, an employee may propose to repay the debt voluntarily in lieu of salary offset by submitting a written proposed repayment schedule to FHFA. Any proposal under this section must be received by FHFA within 30 calendar days after receipt of the Notice of Intent.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of decision.</I> In response to a timely proposal by the employee, FHFA shall notify the employee whether the employee's proposed repayment schedule is acceptable. FHFA has the discretion to accept, reject, or propose to the employee a modification of the proposed repayment schedule.
</P>
<P>(1) If FHFA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is unacceptable, the employee shall have 30 calendar days from the date he or she received notice of the decision in which to file a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) If FHFA decides that the proposed repayment schedule is acceptable or the employee agrees to a modification proposed by FHFA, an agreement shall be put in writing and signed by both the employee and FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.26   Special review where FHFA is the creditor agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for review.</I> (1) An employee subject to salary offset or a voluntary repayment agreement may, at any time, request a special review by FHFA of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances, including, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.
</P>
<P>(2) The request for special review must include an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a detailed statement, with supporting documents, that shows why the current salary offset or payments result in extreme financial hardship to the employee and his or her spouse and dependents. The detailed statement must indicate:
</P>
<P>(i) Income from all sources;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) Liabilities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Number of dependents;
</P>
<P>(v) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;
</P>
<P>(vi) Medical expenses; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Exceptional expenses, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation of request.</I> FHFA shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes extreme financial hardship on the employee, for example, by preventing the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses such as food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care. FHFA shall notify the employee in writing within 30 calendar days of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule. If the special review results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, FHFA shall provide a new certification to the paying agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.27   Notice of salary offset where FHFA is the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice.</I> Upon issuance of a proper certification by FHFA (for debts owed to FHFA) or upon receipt of a proper certification from another creditor agency, FHFA shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of notice.</I> Such written notice of salary offset shall advise the employee of the:
</P>
<P>(1) Certification that has been issued by FHFA or received from another creditor agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and
</P>
<P>(3) Date and pay period when the salary offset will begin.
</P>
<P>(c) If FHFA is not the creditor agency, FHFA shall provide a copy of the notice of salary offset to the creditor agency and advise the creditor agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.28   Procedures for salary offset where FHFA is the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> FHFA shall coordinate salary deductions under this section and shall determine the amount of an employee's disposable pay and the amount of the salary offset subject to the requirements in this section. Deductions shall begin the pay period following the issuance of the certification by FHFA or the receipt by FHFA of the certification from another agency, or as soon thereafter as possible.
</P>
<P>(b) Upon issuance of a proper certification by FHFA for debts owed to FHFA, or upon receipt of a proper certification from a creditor agency, FHFA shall send the employee a written notice of salary offset. Such notice shall advise the employee:
</P>
<P>(1) That certification has been issued by FHFA or received from another creditor agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Of the amount of the debt and of the deductions to be made; and provided for in the certification, and
</P>
<P>(3) Of the initiation of salary offset at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification.
</P>
<P>(c) Where appropriate, FHFA shall provide a copy of the notice to the creditor agency and advise such agency of the dollar amount to be offset and the pay period when the offset will begin.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Types of collection</I>—(1) <I>Lump-sum payment.</I> If the amount of the debt is equal to or less than 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay, such debt ordinarily will be collected in one lump-sum payment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Installment deductions.</I> Installment deductions will be made over a period not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted for any pay period will not exceed 15 percent of the disposable pay from which the deduction is made unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. The installment payment should normally be sufficient in size and frequency to liquidate the debt in no more than three years. Installment payments of less than $50 should be accepted only in the most unusual circumstances.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Lump-sum deductions from final check.</I> In order to liquidate a debt, a lump-sum deduction exceeding 15 percent of disposable pay may be made pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 from any final salary payment due a former employee, whether the former employee was separated voluntarily or involuntarily.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Lump-sum deductions from other sources.</I> Whenever an employee subject to salary offset is separated from FHFA, and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary check, FHFA may offset any later payments of any kind to the former employee to collect the balance of the debt pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Multiple debts</I>—(1) Where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offset, or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, FHFA may, at its discretion, determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15 percent limitation.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that a debt owed FHFA is certified while an employee is subject to salary offset to repay another agency, FHFA may, at its discretion, determine whether the debt to FHFA should be repaid before the debt to the other agency is repaid, repaid simultaneously with the other debt, or repaid after the debt to the other agency.
</P>
<P>(3) A levy pursuant to the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 shall take precedence over other deductions under this section, as provided in 5 U.S.C. 5514(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.29   Coordinating salary offset with other agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Responsibility of FHFA as the creditor agency.</I> (1) FHFA shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(i) Arranging for a hearing upon proper request by a Federal employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Preparing the Notice of Intent consistent with the requirements of § 1208.21;
</P>
<P>(iii) Obtaining hearing officials from other agencies pursuant to § 1208.23(b); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensuring that each certification of debt pursuant to § 1208.24(b) is sent to a paying agency.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon completion of the procedures set forth in §§ 1208.24 through 1208.26, FHFA shall submit to the employee's paying agency, if applicable, a certified debt claim and an installment agreement or other instruction on the payment schedule.
</P>
<P>(i) If the employee is in the process of separating from the Federal Government, FHFA shall submit its debt claim to the employee's paying agency for collection by lump-sum deduction from the employee's final check. The paying agency shall certify the total amount of its collection and furnish a copy of the certification to FHFA and to the employee.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the employee is already separated and all payments due from his or her former paying agency have been paid, FHFA may, unless otherwise prohibited, request that money due and payable to the employee from the Federal Government, including payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (5 CFR 831.1801) or other similar funds, be administratively offset to collect the debt.
</P>
<P>(iii) When an employee transfers to another paying agency, FHFA shall not repeat the procedures described in §§ 1208.24 through 1208.26. Upon receiving notice of the employee's transfer, FHFA shall review the debt to ensure that collection is resumed by the new paying agency.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibility of FHFA as the paying agency</I>—(1) <I>Complete claim.</I> When FHFA receives a certified claim from a creditor agency, the employee shall be given written notice of the certification, the date salary offset will begin, and the amount of the periodic deductions. Deductions shall be scheduled to begin at the next officially established pay interval or as otherwise provided for in the certification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Incomplete claim.</I> When FHFA receives an incomplete certification of debt from a creditor agency, FHFA shall return the claim with notice that procedures under 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR 550.1104 must be followed, and that a properly certified claim must be received before FHFA will take action to collect the debt from the employee's current pay account.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review.</I> FHFA is not authorized to review the merits of the creditor agency's determination with respect to the amount or validity of the debt certified by the creditor agency.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Employees who transfer from one paying agency to another agency.</I> If, after the creditor agency has submitted the debt claim to FHFA, the employee transfers to another agency before the debt is collected in full, FHFA must certify the total amount collected on the debt as required by 5 CFR 550.1109. One copy of the certification shall be furnished to the employee and one copy shall be sent to the creditor agency along with notice of the employee's transfer. If FHFA is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the requirements set forth herein and in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met. FHFA must submit a properly certified claim to the new payment agency before a collection can be made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.30   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>Where FHFA is the creditor agency, FHFA shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS, 31 CFR chapter IX.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.31   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where FHFA is the creditor agency, FHFA shall promptly refund any amount deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when:
</P>
<P>(1) FHFA receives notice that the debt has been waived or otherwise found not to be owing to the Federal Government; or
</P>
<P>(2) An administrative or judicial order directs FHFA to make a refund.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.32   Request from a creditor agency for the services of a hearing official.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FHFA may provide qualified personnel to serve as hearing officials upon request of a creditor agency when:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is employed by FHFA and the creditor agency cannot provide a prompt and appropriate hearing before a hearing official furnished pursuant to another lawful arrangement; or
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor is employed by the creditor agency and that agency cannot arrange for a hearing official.
</P>
<P>(b) Services provided by FHFA to creditor agencies under this section shall be provided on a fully reimbursable basis pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 1535, or other applicable authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.2.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.33   Non-waiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>A debtor's payment, whether voluntary or involuntary, of all or any portion of a debt being collected pursuant to this subpart B shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights that the debtor may have under any statute, regulation, or contract, except as otherwise provided by law or contract.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.40" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.40   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart C apply to the collection of debts owed to the Federal Government arising from transactions with FHFA. Administrative offset is authorized under the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 (DCIA). This subpart C is consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (FCCS) on administrative offset issued by the Department of Justice.
</P>
<P>(b) FHFA may collect a debt owed to the Federal Government from a person, organization, or other entity by administrative offset, pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is certain in amount;
</P>
<P>(2) Administrative offset is feasible, desirable, and not otherwise prohibited;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable statute of limitations has not expired; and
</P>
<P>(4) Administrative offset is in the best interest of the Federal Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.41" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.41   Collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FHFA may collect a claim from a person, organization, or other entity by administrative offset of monies payable by the Federal Government only after:
</P>
<P>(1) Providing the debtor with due process required under this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Providing the paying agency with written certification that the debtor owes the debt in the amount stated and that FHFA, as creditor agency, has complied with this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Prior to initiating collection by administrative offset, FHFA should determine that the proposed offset is within the scope of this remedy, as set forth in 31 CFR 901.3(a). Administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may not be used to collect debts more than 10 years after the Federal Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, except as otherwise provided by law. In addition, administrative offset may not be used when a statute explicitly prohibits its use to collect the claim or type of claim involved.
</P>
<P>(c) Unless otherwise provided, debts or payments not subject to administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 may be collected by administrative offset under common law, or any other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.42" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.42   Administrative offset prior to completion of procedures.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA shall not be required to follow the procedures described in § 1208.43 where:
</P>
<P>(a) Prior to the completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43, FHFA may effect administrative offset if failure to offset would substantially prejudice its ability to collect the debt, and if the time before the payment is to be made does not reasonably permit completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43. Such prior administrative offset shall be followed promptly by the completion of the procedures described in § 1208.43. Amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to FHFA shall be promptly refunded. This section applies only to administrative offset pursuant to 31 CFR 901.3(c), and does not apply when debts are referred to the Department of the Treasury for mandatory centralized administrative offset under 31 CFR 901.3(b)(1).
</P>
<P>(b) The administrative offset is in the nature of a recoupment (<I>i.e.,</I> FHFA may offset a payment due to the debtor when both the payment due to the debtor and the debt owed to FHFA arose from the same transaction); or
</P>
<P>(c) In the case of non-centralized administrative offsets, FHFA first learns of the existence of a debt due when there would be insufficient time to afford the debtor due process under these procedures before the paying agency makes payment to the debtor; in such cases, the Director shall give the debtor notice and an opportunity for review as soon as practical and shall refund any money ultimately found not to be due to the Federal Government.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.43" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.43   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>Unless the procedures described in § 1208.42 are used, prior to collecting any debt by administrative offset or referring such claim to another agency for collection through administrative offset, FHFA shall provide the debtor with the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Written notification of the nature and amount of the debt, the intention of FHFA to collect the debt through administrative offset, and a statement of the rights of the debtor under this section;
</P>
<P>(b) An opportunity to inspect and copy the records of FHFA related to the debt that are not exempt from disclosure;
</P>
<P>(c) An opportunity for review within FHFA of the determination of indebtedness. Any request for review by the debtor shall be in writing and shall be submitted to FHFA within 30 calendar days of the date of the notice of the offset. FHFA may waive the time limits for requesting review for good cause shown by the debtor. FHFA shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when:
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires FHFA to consider waiver of the indebtedness involved, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and FHFA determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, as for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. Unless otherwise required by law, an oral hearing under this subpart C is not required to be a formal evidentiary hearing, although FHFA shall document all significant matters discussed at the hearing. In those cases where an oral hearing is not required by this subpart C, FHFA shall make its determination on the request for waiver or reconsideration based upon a review of the written record; and
</P>
<P>(d) An opportunity to enter into a written agreement for the voluntary repayment of the amount of the claim at the discretion of FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.44" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.44   Interest, penalties, and administrative costs.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA shall assess interest, penalties, and administrative costs on debts owed to the Federal Government, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS. FHFA may also assess interest and related charges on debts that are not subject to 31 U.S.C. 3717 and the FCCS to the extent authorized under the common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.45" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.45   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA shall refund promptly those amounts recovered by administrative offset but later found not to be owed to the Federal Government. Unless required by law or contract, such refunds shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.46" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.46   No requirement for duplicate notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where FHFA has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, FHFA is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating administrative offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.47" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.47   Requests for administrative offset to other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FHFA may request that a debt owed to FHFA be collected by administrative offset against funds due and payable to a debtor by another agency.
</P>
<P>(b) In requesting administrative offset, FHFA, as creditor, shall certify in writing to the agency holding funds of the debtor:
</P>
<P>(1) That the debtor owes the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount and basis of the debt; and
</P>
<P>(3) That FHFA has complied with the requirements of its own administrative offset regulations and the applicable provisions of the FCCS with respect to providing the debtor with due process, unless otherwise provided.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.48" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.48   Requests for administrative offset from other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any agency may request that funds due and payable to a debtor by FHFA be administratively offset in order to collect a debt owed to such agency by the debtor.
</P>
<P>(b) FHFA shall initiate the requested administrative offset only upon:
</P>
<P>(1) Receipt of written certification from the creditor agency that:
</P>
<P>(i) The debtor owes the debt, including the amount and basis of the debt;
</P>
<P>(ii) The agency has prescribed regulations for the exercise of administrative offset; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The agency has complied with its own administrative offset regulations and with the applicable provisions of the FCCS, including providing any required hearing or review.
</P>
<P>(2) A determination by FHFA that collection by administrative offset against funds payable by FHFA would be in the best interest of the Federal Government as determined by the facts and circumstances of the particular case and that such administrative offset would not otherwise be contrary to law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.49" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.49   Administrative offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for administrative offset.</I> Unless otherwise prohibited by law, FHFA may request that monies that are due and payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund (Fund) be offset administratively in reasonable amounts in order to collect in one full payment or in a minimal number of payments debt owed to FHFA by the debtor. Such requests shall be made to the appropriate officials of OPM in accordance with such regulations as may be prescribed by FHFA or OPM.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of certification.</I> When making a request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, FHFA shall provide OPM with a written certification that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor owes FHFA a debt, including the amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA has complied with the applicable statutes, regulations, and procedures of OPM; and
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA has complied with the requirements of the FCCS, including any required hearing or review.
</P>
<P>(c) If FHFA decides to request administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section, it shall make the request as soon as practicable after completion of the applicable procedures. This will satisfy any requirement that administrative offset be initiated prior to the expiration of the applicable statute of limitations. At such time as the debtor makes a claim for payments from the Fund, if at least one year has elapsed since the administrative offset request was originally made, the debtor shall be permitted to offer a satisfactory repayment plan in lieu of administrative offset if he or she establishes that changed financial circumstances would render the administrative offset unjust.
</P>
<P>(d) If FHFA collects part or all of the debt by other means before deductions are made or completed pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, FHFA shall act promptly to modify or terminate its request for administrative offset under paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Tax Refund Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.50" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.50   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of 26 U.S.C. 6402(d) and 31 U.S.C. 3720A authorize the Secretary of the Treasury to offset a delinquent debt owed the Federal Government from the tax refund due a taxpayer when other collection efforts have failed to recover the amount due. In addition, FHFA is authorized to collect debts by means of administrative offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 and, as part of the debt collection process, to notify the United States Department of Treasury's Financial Management Service of the amount of such debt for collection by tax refund offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.51" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.51   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following terms apply to this subpart D—
</P>
<P><I>Debt or claim</I> means an amount of money, funds or property which has been determined by FHFA to be due to the Federal Government from any person, organization, or entity, except another Federal agency.
</P>
<P>(1) A debt becomes eligible for tax refund offset procedures if:
</P>
<P>(i) It cannot currently be collected pursuant to the salary offset procedures of 5 U.S.C. 5514(a)(1);
</P>
<P>(ii) The debt is ineligible for administrative offset or cannot be collected currently by administrative offset; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The requirements of this section are otherwise satisfied.
</P>
<P>(2) All judgment debts are past due for purposes of this subpart D. Judgment debts remain past due until paid in full.
</P>
<P><I>Debtor</I> means a person who owes a debt or a claim. The term “person” includes any individual, organization or entity, except another Federal agency.
</P>
<P><I>Dispute</I> means a written statement supported by documentation or other evidence that all or part of an alleged debt is not past due or legally enforceable, that the amount is not the amount currently owed, that the outstanding debt has been satisfied, or in the case of a debt reduced to judgment, that the judgment has been satisfied or stayed.
</P>
<P><I>Notice</I> means the information sent to the debtor pursuant to § 1208.53. The date of the notice is that date shown on the notice letter as its date of issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund offset</I> means withholding or reducing a tax refund payment by an amount necessary to satisfy a debt owed by the payee(s) of a tax refund payment.
</P>
<P><I>Tax refund payment</I> means any overpayment of Federal taxes to be refunded to the person making the overpayment after the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) makes the appropriate credits.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.52" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.52   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referral to the Department of the Treasury.</I> (1) FHFA may refer any past due, legally enforceable nonjudgment debt of an individual, organization, or entity to the Department of the Treasury for tax refund offset if FHFA's or the referring agency's rights of action accrued more than three months but less than 10 years before the offset is made.
</P>
<P>(2) Debts reduced to judgment may be referred at any time.
</P>
<P>(3) Debts in amounts lower than $25 are not subject to referral.
</P>
<P>(4) In the event that more than one debt is owed, the tax refund offset procedures shall be applied in the order in which the debts became past due.
</P>
<P>(5) FHFA shall notify the Department of the Treasury of any change in the amount due promptly after receipt of payment or notice of other reductions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> FHFA shall provide the debtor with written notice of its intent to offset before initiating the offset. Notice shall be mailed to the debtor at the current address of the debtor, as determined from information obtained from the Internal Revenue Service pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 6103(m)(2), (4), (5) or maintained by FHFA. The notice sent to the debtor shall state the amount of the debt and inform the debtor that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is past due;
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA intends to refer the debt to the Department of the Treasury for offset from tax refunds that may be due to the taxpayer;
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA intends to provide information concerning the delinquent debt exceeding $100 to a consumer reporting bureau unless such debt has already been disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Before the debt is reported to a consumer reporting agency, if applicable, and referred to the Department of the Treasury for offset from tax refunds, the debtor has 65 calendar days from the date of notice to request a review under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Report to consumer reporting agency.</I> If the debtor neither pays the amount due nor presents evidence that the amount is not past due or is satisfied or stayed, FHFA will report the debt to a consumer reporting agency at the end of the notice period, if applicable, and refer the debt to the Department of the Treasury for offset from the taxpayer's Federal tax refund. FHFA shall certify to the Department of the Treasury that reasonable efforts have been made by FHFA to obtain payment of such debt.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for review.</I> A debtor may request a review by FHFA if he or she believes that all or part of the debt is not past due or is not legally enforceable, or in the case of a judgment debt, that the debt has been stayed or the amount satisfied, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor must send a written request for review to FHFA at the address provided in the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The request must state the amount disputed and reasons why the debtor believes that the debt is not past due, is not legally enforceable, has been satisfied, or if a judgment debt, has been satisfied or stayed.
</P>
<P>(3) The request must include any documents that the debtor wishes to be considered or state that additional information will be submitted within the time permitted.
</P>
<P>(4) If the debtor wishes to inspect records establishing the nature and amount of the debt, the debtor must make a written request to FHFA for an opportunity for such an inspection. The office holding the relevant records not exempt from disclosure shall make them available for inspection during normal business hours within one week from the date of receipt of the request.
</P>
<P>(5) The request for review and any additional information submitted pursuant to the request must be received by FHFA at the address stated in the notice within 65 calendar days of the date of issuance of the notice.
</P>
<P>(6) In reaching its decision, FHFA shall review the dispute and shall consider its records and any documentation and arguments submitted by the debtor. FHFA shall send a written notice of its decision to the debtor. There is no administrative appeal of this decision.
</P>
<P>(7) If the evidence presented by the debtor is considered by a non-FHFA agent or other entities or persons acting on behalf of FHFA, the debtor shall be accorded at least 30 calendar days from the date the agent or other entity or person determines that all or part of the debt is past due and legally enforceable to request review by FHFA of any unresolved dispute.
</P>
<P>(8) Any debt that previously has been reviewed pursuant to this section or any other section of this part, or that has been reduced to a judgment, may not be disputed except on the grounds of payments made or events occurring subsequent to the previous review or judgment.
</P>
<P>(9) To the extent that a debt owed has not been established by judicial or administrative order, a debtor may dispute the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of repayment. With respect to debts established by a judicial or administrative order, FHFA review will be limited to issues concerning the payment or other discharge of the debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.53" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.53   No requirement for duplicate notice.</HEAD>
<P>Where FHFA has previously given a debtor any of the required notice and review opportunities with respect to a particular debt, FHFA is not required to duplicate such notice and review opportunities prior to initiating tax refund offset.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1208.54-1208.59" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1208.54-1208.59   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Administrative Wage Garnishment</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.60" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.60   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>These administrative wage garnishment procedures are issued in compliance with 31 U.S.C. 3720D and 31 CFR 285.11(f). This subpart E provides procedures for FHFA to collect money from a debtor's disposable pay by means of administrative wage garnishment. The receipt of payments pursuant to this subpart E does not preclude FHFA from pursuing other debt collection remedies, including the offset of Federal payments. FHFA may pursue such debt collection remedies separately or in conjunction with administrative wage garnishment. This subpart E does not apply to the collection of delinquent debts from the wages of Federal employees from their Federal employment. Federal pay is subject to the Federal salary offset procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and other applicable laws.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.61" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.61   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>At least 30 days before the initiation of garnishment proceedings, FHFA will send, by first class mail to the debtor's last known address, a written notice informing the debtor of:
</P>
<P>(a) The nature and amount of the debt;
</P>
<P>(b) FHFA's intention to initiate proceedings to collect the debt through deductions from the debtor's pay until the debt and all accumulated interest penalties and administrative costs are paid in full;
</P>
<P>(c) An explanation of the debtor's rights as set forth in § 1208.62(c); and
</P>
<P>(d) The time frame within which the debtor may exercise these rights. FHFA shall retain a stamped copy of the notice indicating the date the notice was mailed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.62" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.62   Debtor's rights.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA shall afford the debtor the opportunity:
</P>
<P>(a) To inspect and copy records related to the debt;
</P>
<P>(b) To enter into a written repayment agreement with FHFA, under terms agreeable to FHFA; and
</P>
<P>(c) To the extent that a debt owed has not been established by judicial or administrative order, to request a hearing concerning the existence or amount of the debt or the terms of the repayment schedule. With respect to debts established by a judicial or administrative order, a debtor may request a hearing concerning the payment or other discharge of the debt. The debtor is not entitled to a hearing concerning the terms of the proposed repayment schedule if these terms have been established by written agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.63" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.63   Form of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor submits a timely written request for a hearing as provided in § 1208.62(c), FHFA will afford the debtor a hearing, which at FHFA's option may be oral or written. FHFA will provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing when FHFA determines that the issues in dispute cannot be resolved by review of the documentary evidence, for example, when the validity of the claim turns on the issue of credibility or veracity.
</P>
<P>(b) If FHFA determines that an oral hearing is appropriate, the time and location of the hearing shall be established by FHFA. An oral hearing may, at the debtor's option, be conducted either in person or by telephone conference. All travel expenses incurred by the debtor in connection with an in-person hearing will be borne by the debtor. All telephonic charges incurred during the hearing will be the responsibility of the agency.
</P>
<P>(c) In cases when it is determined that an oral hearing is not required by this section, FHFA will accord the debtor a “paper hearing,” that is, FHFA will decide the issues in dispute based upon a review of the written record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.64" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.64   Effect of timely request.</HEAD>
<P>If FHFA receives a debtor's written request for a hearing within 15 business days of the date FHFA mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, FHFA shall not issue a withholding order until the debtor has been provided the requested hearing, and a decision in accordance with § 1208.68 and § 1208.69 has been rendered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.65" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.65   Failure to timely request a hearing.</HEAD>
<P>If FHFA receives a debtor's written request for a hearing after 15 business days of the date FHFA mailed its notice of intent to seek garnishment, FHFA shall provide a hearing to the debtor. However, FHFA will not delay issuance of a withholding order unless it determines that the untimely filing of the request was caused by factors over which the debtor had no control, or FHFA receives information that FHFA believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.66" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.66   Hearing official.</HEAD>
<P>A hearing official may be any qualified individual, as determined by FHFA, including an administrative law judge.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.67" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.67   Procedure.</HEAD>
<P>After the debtor requests a hearing, the hearing official shall notify the debtor of:
</P>
<P>(a) The date and time of a telephonic hearing;
</P>
<P>(b) The date, time, and location of an in-person oral hearing; or
</P>
<P>(c) The deadline for the submission of evidence for a written hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.68" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.68   Format of hearing.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA will have the burden of proof to establish the existence or amount of the debt. Thereafter, if the debtor disputes the existence or amount of the debt, the debtor must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that no debt exists, or that the amount of the debt is incorrect. In addition, the debtor may present evidence that the terms of the repayment schedule are unlawful, would cause a financial hardship to the debtor, or that collection of the debt may not be pursued due to operation of law. The hearing official shall maintain a record of any hearing held under this section. Hearings are not required to be formal, and evidence may be offered without regard to formal rules of evidence. Witnesses who testify in oral hearings shall do so under oath or affirmation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.69" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.69   Date of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The hearing official shall issue a written opinion stating his or her decision as soon as practicable, but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for such hearing was received by FHFA. If FHFA is unable to provide the debtor with a hearing and decision within 60 days after the receipt of the request for such hearing:
</P>
<P>(a) FHFA may not issue a withholding order until the hearing is held and a decision rendered; or
</P>
<P>(b) If FHFA had previously issued a withholding order to the debtor's employer, the withholding order will be suspended beginning on the 61st day after the date FHFA received the hearing request and continuing until a hearing is held and a decision is rendered.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.70" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.70   Content of decision.</HEAD>
<P>The written decision shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) A summary of the facts presented;
</P>
<P>(b) The hearing official's findings, analysis and conclusions; and
</P>
<P>(c) The terms of any repayment schedule, if applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.71" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.71   Finality of agency action.</HEAD>
<P>A decision by a hearing official shall become the final decision of FHFA for the purpose of judicial review under the Administrative Procedure Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.72" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.72   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>In the absence of good cause shown, a debtor who fails to appear at a scheduled hearing will be deemed as not having timely filed a request for a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.73" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.73   Wage garnishment order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless FHFA receives information that it believes justifies a delay or cancellation of the withholding order, FHFA will send by first class mail a withholding order to the debtor's employer within 30 calendar days after the debtor fails to make a timely request for a hearing (<I>i.e.,</I> within 15 business days after the mailing of the notice of FHFA's intent to seek garnishment) or, if a timely request for a hearing is made by the debtor, within 30 calendar days after a decision to issue a withholding order becomes final.
</P>
<P>(b) The withholding order sent to the employer will be in the form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury, on FHFA's letterhead, and signed by the head of the agency or delegate. The order will contain all information necessary for the employer to comply with the withholding order, including the debtor's name, address, and social security number, as well as instructions for withholding and information as to where payments should be sent.
</P>
<P>(c) FHFA will keep a stamped copy of the order indicating the date it was mailed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.74" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.74   Certification by employer.</HEAD>
<P>Along with the withholding order, FHFA will send to the employer a certification in a form prescribed by the Secretary of the Treasury. The employer shall complete and return the certification to FHFA within the time frame prescribed in the instructions to the form. The certification will address matters such as information about the debtor's employment status and disposable pay available for withholding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.75" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.75   Amounts withheld.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon receipt of the garnishment order issued under this section, the employer shall deduct from all disposable pay paid to the debtor during each pay period the amount of garnishment described in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to the provisions of paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, the amount of garnishment shall be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount indicated on the garnishment order up to 15 percent of the debtor's disposable pay; or
</P>
<P>(2) The amount set forth in 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2). The amount set forth at 15 U.S.C. 1673(a)(2) is the amount by which the debtor's disposable pay exceeds an amount equivalent to thirty times the minimum wage.
</P>
<P>(c) When a debtor's pay is subject to withholding orders with priority, the following shall apply:
</P>
<P>(1) Unless otherwise provided by Federal law, withholding orders issued under this section shall be paid in the amounts set forth under paragraph (b) of this section and shall have priority over other withholding orders which are served later in time. However, withholding orders for family support shall have priority over withholding orders issued under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If amounts are being withheld from a debtor's pay pursuant to a withholding order served on an employer before a withholding order issued pursuant to this section, or if a withholding order for family support is served on an employer at any time, the amounts withheld pursuant to the withholding order issued under this section shall be the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount calculated under paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An amount equal to 25 percent of the debtor's disposable pay less the amount(s) withheld under the withholding order(s) with priority.
</P>
<P>(3) If a debtor owes more than one debt to FHFA, FHFA may issue multiple withholding orders. The total amount garnished from the debtor's pay for such orders will not exceed the amount set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) An amount greater than that set forth in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section may be withheld upon the written consent of the debtor.
</P>
<P>(e) The employer shall promptly pay to FHFA all amounts withheld in accordance with the withholding order issued pursuant to this section.
</P>
<P>(f) An employer shall not be required to vary its normal pay and disbursement cycles in order to comply with the withholding order.
</P>
<P>(g) Any assignment or allotment by the employee of the employee's earnings shall be void to the extent it interferes with or prohibits execution of the withholding order under this section, except for any assignment or allotment made pursuant to a family support judgment or order.
</P>
<P>(h) The employer shall withhold the appropriate amount from the debtor's wages for each pay period until the employer receives notification from FHFA to discontinue wage withholding. The garnishment order shall indicate a reasonable period of time within which the employer is required to commence wage withholding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.76" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.76   Exclusions from garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA will not garnish the wages of a debtor it knows has been involuntarily separated from employment until the debtor has been re-employed continuously for at least 12 months. The debtor has the burden of informing FHFA of the circumstances surrounding an involuntary separation from employment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.77" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.77   Financial hardship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A debtor whose wages are subject to a wage withholding order under this section, may, at any time, request a review by FHFA of the amount garnished, based on materially changed circumstances such as disability, divorce, or catastrophic illness which result in financial hardship.
</P>
<P>(b) A debtor requesting a review under this section shall submit the basis for claiming that the current amount of garnishment results in a financial hardship to the debtor, along with supporting documentation.
</P>
<P>(c) If a financial hardship is found, FHFA will downwardly adjust, by an amount and for a period of time agreeable to FHFA, the amount garnished to reflect the debtor's financial condition. FHFA will notify the employer of any adjustments to the amounts to be withheld.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.78" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.78   Ending garnishment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Once FHFA has fully recovered the amounts owed by the debtor, including interest, penalties, and administrative costs consistent with the Federal Claims Collection Standards, FHFA will send the debtor's employer notification to discontinue wage withholding.
</P>
<P>(b) At least annually, FHFA will review its debtors' accounts to ensure that garnishment has been terminated for accounts that have been paid in full.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.79" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.79   Prohibited actions by employer.</HEAD>
<P>The Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996 prohibits an employer from discharging, refusing to employ, or taking disciplinary action against the debtor due to the issuance of a withholding order under this subpart E.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.80" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.80   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If a hearing official determines that a debt is not legally due and owing to the United States, FHFA shall promptly refund any amount collected by means of administrative wage garnishment.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required by Federal law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1208.81" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.8.5.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1208.81   Right of action.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA may sue any employer for any amount that the employer fails to withhold from wages owed and payable to its employee in accordance with this subpart E. However, a suit will not be filed before the termination of the collection action involving a particular debtor, unless earlier filing is necessary to avoid expiration of any applicable statute of limitations. For purposes of this subpart E, “termination of the collection action” occurs when the agency has terminated collection action in accordance with the FCCS or other applicable standards. In any event, termination of the collection action will have been deemed to occur if FHFA has not received any payments to satisfy the debt from the particular debtor whose wages were subject to garnishment, in whole or in part, for a period of one (1) year.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1209" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1209—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 554, 556, 557, and 701 <I>et seq.;</I> 12 U.S.C. 1430c(d); 12 U.S.C. 4501, 4502, 4503, 4511, 4513, 4513b, 4517, 4526, 4566(c)(1) and (c)(7), 4581-4588, 4631-4641; and 28 U.S.C. 2461 note.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Scope and Authority</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part sets forth the Rules of Practice and Procedure for hearings on the record in administrative enforcement proceedings in accordance with the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, title XIII of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, sections 1301 <I>et seq.,</I> codified at 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.,</I> as amended (the “Safety and Soundness Act”), as stated in § 1209.4 of this part.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> As used in this part, the “Safety and Soundness Act” means the Federal Housing Enterprise Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended. <I>See</I> § 1209.3. The Safety and Soundness Act was amended by the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, sections 1101 <I>et seq.,</I> 122 Stat. 2654 (July 30, 2008) (HERA). Specifically, sections 1151 through 1158 of HERA amended sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act, (codified at 12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641) (hereafter, “Enforcement Proceedings”).</P></FTNT>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement Proceedings.</I> Subpart B of this part (Enforcement Proceedings Under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act) sets forth the statutory authority for enforcement proceedings under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641) (Enforcement Proceedings).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Rules of Practice and Procedure.</I> Subpart C of this part (Rules of Practice and Procedure) prescribes the general rules of practice and procedure applicable to adjudicatory proceedings that the Director is required by statute to conduct on the record after opportunity for a hearing under the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 554, 556, and 557, under the following statutory provisions:
</P>
<P>(1) Enforcement proceedings under sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641);
</P>
<P>(2) Removal, prohibition, and civil money penalty proceedings for violations of post-employment restrictions imposed by applicable law; 
</P>
<P>(3) Proceedings under section 102 of the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973, as amended (42 U.S.C. 4012a) to assess civil money penalties; and


</P>
<P>(4) Enforcement proceedings under sections 1341 through 1348 of the Safety and Soundness Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4581 through 4588), and section 10C of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1430c), except where the Rules of Practice and Procedure in subpart C are inconsistent with such statutory provisions or with part 1281 or 1282 of this title, in which case the statutory or regulatory provisions shall apply.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Representation and conduct.</I> Subpart D of this part (Parties and Representational Practice before the Federal Housing Finance Agency; Standards of Conduct) sets out the rules of representation and conduct that shall govern any appearance by any person, party, or representative of any person or party, before a presiding officer, the Director of FHFA, or a designated representative of the Director or FHFA staff, in any proceeding or matter pending before the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Civil money penalty inflation adjustments.</I> Subpart E of this part (Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustments) sets out the requirements for the periodic adjustment of maximum civil money penalty amounts under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (Inflation Adjustment Act) on a recurring four-year cycle.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Public Law 101-410, 104 Stat. 890, as amended by the Debt Collection Improvement Act of 1996, Public Law 104-134, title III, sec. 31001(s)(1), Apr. 26, 1996, 110 Stat. 1321-373; Public Law 105-362, title XIII, sec. 1301(a), Nov. 10, 1998, 112 Stat. 3293 (28 U.S.C. 2461 note).</P></FTNT>
<P>(f) <I>Informal proceedings.</I> Subpart F of this part (Suspension or Removal of an Entity-Affiliated Party Charged with Felony) sets out the scope and procedures for the suspension or removal of an entity-affiliated party charged with a felony under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)), which provides for an informal hearing before the Director.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 37103, June 20, 2013; 90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.2   Rules of construction.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) Any term in the singular includes the plural and the plural includes the singular, if such use would be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(b) Any use of a masculine, feminine, or neuter gender encompasses all three, if such use would be appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(c) Unless the context requires otherwise, a party's representative of record, if any, on behalf of that party, may take any action required to be taken by the party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, unless explicitly stated to the contrary:
</P>
<P><I>Adjudicatory proceeding</I> means a proceeding conducted pursuant to these rules, on the record, and leading to the formulation of a final order other than a regulation.
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(2)).
</P>
<P><I>Associated with the regulated entity</I> means, for purposes of section 1379 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4637), any direct or indirect involvement or participation in the conduct of operations or business affairs of a regulated entity, including engaging in activities related to the operations or management of, providing advice or services to, consulting or contracting with, serving as agent for, or in any other way affecting the operations or business affairs of a regulated entity—with or without regard to—any direct or indirect payment, promise to make payment, or receipt of any compensation or thing of value, such as money, notes, stock, stock options, or other securities, or other benefit or remuneration of any kind, by or on behalf of the regulated entity, except any payment made pursuant to a retirement plan or deferred compensation plan, which is determined by the Director to be permissible under section 1318(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)), or by reason of the death or disability of the party, in the form and manner commonly paid or provided to retirees of the regulated entity, unless such payment, compensation, or such benefit is promised or provided to or for the benefit of said party for the provision of services or other benefit to the regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Authorizing statutes</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(3)).
</P>
<P><I>Bank Act</I> means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1421 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Board or Board of Directors</I> means the board of directors of any Enterprise or Federal Home Loan Bank (Bank), as provided for in the respective authorizing statutes.
</P>
<P><I>Decisional employee</I> means any member of the Director's or the presiding officer's staff who has not engaged in an investigative or prosecutorial role in a proceeding and who may assist the Director or the presiding officer, respectively, in preparing orders, recommended decisions, decisions, and other documents under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(9) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(9)); except, as the context requires in this part, “director” may refer to a member of the Board of Directors or any Board committee of an Enterprise, a Federal Home Loan Bank, or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(10) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(10)).
</P>
<P><I>Entity-affiliated party</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(11) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(11)), and may include an executive officer, any director, or management of the Office of Finance, as applicable under relevant provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act or FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(12) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(12)), and may include an executive officer of the Office of Finance, as applicable under relevant provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act or FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency as defined in section 1303(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(2)).
</P>
<P><I>Notice of charges</I> means the charging document served by FHFA to commence an enforcement proceeding under this part for the issuance of a cease and desist order; removal, suspension, or prohibition order; or an order to assess a civil money penalty, under 12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641 and § 1209.23. A “notice of charges,” as used or referred to as such in this part, is not an “effective notice” under section 1375(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4635(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Office of Finance</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(19) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(19)).
</P>
<P><I>Party</I> means any person named as a respondent in any notice of charges, or FHFA, as the context requires in this part.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, organization, regulated entity, entity-affiliated party, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Presiding officer</I> means an administrative law judge or any other person appointed by or at the request of the Director under applicable law to conduct an adjudicatory proceeding under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(20) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)).
</P>
<P><I>Representative of record</I> means an individual who is authorized to represent a person or is representing himself and who has filed a notice of appearance and otherwise has complied with the requirements under § 1209.72. FHFA's representative of record may be referred to as FHFA counsel of record, agency counsel or enforcement counsel.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means any party that is the subject of a notice of charges under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Safety and Soundness Act</I> means title XIII of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, known as the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>)
</P>
<P><I>Violation</I> has the meaning defined in section 1303(25) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(25)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enforcement Proceedings Under Sections 1371 Through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.4   Scope and authority.</HEAD>
<P>The rules of practice and procedure set forth in Subpart C (Rules of Practice and Procedure) of this part shall be applicable to any hearing on the record conducted by FHFA in accordance with sections 1371 through 1379D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 through 4641), as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) Cease-and-desist proceedings under sections 1371 and 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4633);
</P>
<P>(b) Civil money penalty assessment proceedings under sections 1373 and 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4633, 4636); and
</P>
<P>(c) Removal and prohibition proceedings under sections 1373 and 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4633, 4636a), except removal proceedings under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.5   Cease and desist proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Cease and desist proceedings</I>—(1) <I>Authority</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> As prescribed by section 1371(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a)), if in the opinion of the Director, a regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party is engaging or has engaged, or the Director has reasonable cause to believe that the regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party is about to engage, in an unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the business of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or is violating or has violated, or the Director has reasonable cause to believe is about to violate, a law, rule, regulation, or order, or any condition imposed in writing by the Director in connection with the granting of any application or other request by the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or any written agreement entered into with the Director, the Director may issue and serve upon the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party a notice of charges (as described in § 1209.23) to institute cease and desist proceedings, except with regard to the enforcement of any housing goal that must be addressed under sections 1341 and 1345 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4581, 4585).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Hearing on the record.</I> In accordance with section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633), a hearing on the record shall be held in the District of Columbia. Subpart C of this part shall govern the hearing procedures.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Consent to order.</I> Unless the party served with a notice of charges shall appear at the hearing personally or through an authorized representative of record, the party shall be deemed to have consented to the issuance of the cease and desist order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Unsatisfactory rating.</I> In accordance with section 1371(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(b)), if a regulated entity receives, in its most recent report of examination, a less-than-satisfactory rating for asset quality, management, earnings, or liquidity, the Director may deem the regulated entity to be engaging in an unsafe or unsound practice within the meaning of section 1371(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a)), if any such deficiency has not been corrected.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Order.</I> As provided by section 1371(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(c)(2)), if the Director finds on the record made at a hearing in accordance with section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633) that any practice or violation specified in the notice of charges has been established (or the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party consents pursuant to section 1373(a)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633(a)(4)), the Director may issue and serve upon the regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party, an order (as set forth in § 1209.55) requiring such party to cease and desist from any such practice or violation and to take affirmative action to correct or remedy the conditions resulting from any such practice or violation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affirmative action to correct conditions resulting from violations or activities.</I> The authority to issue a cease and desist order or a temporary cease and desist order requiring a regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party to take affirmative action to correct or remedy any condition resulting from any practice or violation with respect to which such cease and desist order or temporary cease and desist order is set forth in section 1371(a), (c)(2), and (d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a), (c)(2), and (d)), and includes the authority to:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to make restitution, or to provide reimbursement, indemnification, or guarantee against loss, if—
</P>
<P>(i) Such entity or party or finance facility was unjustly enriched in connection with such practice or violation, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The violation or practice involved a reckless disregard for the law or any applicable regulations, or prior order of the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) Require the regulated entity to seek restitution, or to obtain reimbursement, indemnification, or guarantee against loss; as
</P>
<P>(3) Restrict asset or liability growth of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(4) Require the regulated entity to obtain new capital;
</P>
<P>(5) Require the regulated entity to dispose of any loan or asset involved;
</P>
<P>(6) Require the regulated entity to rescind agreements or contracts;
</P>
<P>(7) Require the regulated entity to employ qualified officers or employees (who may be subject to approval by the Director at the direction of the Director); and
</P>
<P>(8) Require the regulated entity to take such other action, as the Director determines appropriate, including limiting activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority to limit activities.</I> As provided by section 1371(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(e)), the authority of the Director to issue a cease and desist order under section 1371 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631) or a temporary cease and desist order under section 1372 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632), includes the authority to place limitations on the activities or functions of the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party or any executive officer or director of the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective date of order; judicial review</I>—(1) <I>Effective date.</I> The effective date of an order is as set forth in section 1371(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(f)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Judicial review.</I> Judicial review is governed by section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.6   Temporary cease and desist orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Temporary cease and desist orders</I>—(1) <I>Grounds for issuance.</I> The grounds for issuance of a temporary cease and desist order are set forth in section 1372(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)). In accordance with section 1372(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)), the Director may:
</P>
<P>(i) Issue a temporary order requiring that regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to cease and desist from any violation or practice specified in the notice of charges; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Require that regulated entity or entity-affiliated party to take affirmative action to prevent or remedy any insolvency, dissipation, condition, or prejudice, pending completion of the proceedings.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional requirements.</I> As provided by section 1372(a)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)(2)), an order issued under section 1372(a)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a)(1)) may include any requirement authorized under section 1371(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(d)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of temporary order.</I> The effective date of a temporary order is as provided by section 1372(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(b)). And, unless set aside, limited, or suspended by a court in proceedings pursuant to the judicial review provisions of section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), shall remain in effect and enforceable pending the completion of the proceedings pursuant to such notice of charges, and shall remain effective until the Director dismisses the charges specified in the notice or until superseded by a cease-and-desist order issued pursuant to section 1371 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Incomplete or inaccurate records</I>—(1) <I>Temporary order.</I> As provided by section 1372(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)), if a notice of charges served under section 1371(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(a), (b)), specifies on the basis of particular facts and circumstances that the books and records of the regulated entity served are so incomplete or inaccurate that the Director is unable, through the normal supervisory process, to determine the financial condition of the regulated entity or the details or the purpose of any transaction or transactions that may have a material effect on the financial condition of that regulated entity, the Director may issue a temporary order requiring:
</P>
<P>(i) The cessation of any activity or practice that gave rise, whether in whole or in part, to the incomplete or inaccurate state of the books or records; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Affirmative action to restore the books or records to a complete and accurate state.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective period.</I> Any temporary order issued under section 1372(c)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)(1)) shall become effective upon service, and remain in effect and enforceable unless set aside, limited, or suspended in accordance with section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), as provided by section 1372(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(c)(2)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Judicial review.</I> Section 1372(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(d)), authorizes a regulated entity, executive officer, director, or entity-affiliated party that has been served with a temporary order pursuant to section 1372(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(a), (b)) to apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia within 10 days after service of the temporary order for an injunction setting aside, limiting, or suspending the enforcement, operation, or effectiveness of the temporary order, pending the completion of the administrative enforcement proceeding. The district court has jurisdiction to issue such injunction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Enforcement of temporary order.</I> As provided by section 1372(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(e)), in the case of any violation, threatened violation, or failure to obey a temporary order issued pursuant to this section, the Director may bring an action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia for an injunction to enforce a temporary order, and the district court is to issue such injunction upon a finding made in accordance with section 1372(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4632(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.7   Civil money penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Civil money penalty proceedings</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636) governs the imposition of civil money penalties. Upon written notice, which shall conform to the requirements of § 1209.23 of this part, and a hearing on the record to be conducted in accordance with subpart C of this part, the Director may impose a civil money penalty on any regulated entity or any entity-affiliated party as provided by section 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act for any violation, practice, or breach addressed under sections 1371, 1372, or 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, 4636), except with regard to the enforcement of housing goals that are addressed separately under sections 1341 and 1345 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4581, 4585).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount of penalty</I>—(i) <I>First Tier.</I> Section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(1)) prescribes the civil penalty for violations as stated therein, in the amount of $10,000 for each day during which a violation continues.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second Tier.</I> Section 1376(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(2)) provides that notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) thereof, a regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty of not more than $50,000 for each day during which a violation, practice, or breach continues, if the regulated entity or entity-affiliated party commits any violation described in (b)(1) thereof, recklessly engages in an unsafe or unsound practice, or breaches any fiduciary duty, and the violation, practice, or breach is part of a pattern of misconduct; causes or is likely to cause more than a minimal loss to the regulated entity; or results in pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Third Tier.</I> Section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)) provides that, notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) thereof, any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall forfeit and pay a civil penalty, in accordance with section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), for each day during which such violation, practice, or breach continues, if such regulated entity or entity-affiliated party:
</P>
<P>(A) Knowingly—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Commits any violation described in any subparagraph of section 1376(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Engages in any unsafe or unsound practice in conducting the affairs of the regulated entity; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Breaches any fiduciary duty; and
</P>
<P>(B) Knowingly or recklessly causes a substantial loss to the regulated entity or a substantial pecuniary gain or other benefit to such party by reason of such violation, practice, or breach.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum amounts</I>—(1) <I>Maximum daily penalty.</I> Section 1376(b)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)), prescribes the maximum daily amount of a civil penalty that may be assessed for any violation, practice, or breach pursuant to section 1376(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(3)), in the case of any entity-affiliated party (not to exceed $2,000,000.00), and in the case of any regulated entity ($2,000,000.00).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Inflation Adjustment Act.</I> The maximum civil penalty amounts are subject to periodic adjustment under the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended (28 U.S.C. 2461 note), as provided in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors in determining amount of penalty.</I> In accordance with section 1376(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(2)), in assessing civil money penalties on a regulated entity or an entity-affiliated party in amounts as provided in section 1376(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(b)), the Director shall give consideration to such factors as:
</P>
<P>(1) The gravity of the violation, practice, or breach;
</P>
<P>(2) Any history of prior violations or supervisory actions, or any attempts at concealment;
</P>
<P>(3) The effect of the penalty on the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance;
</P>
<P>(4) Any loss or risk of loss to the regulated entity or to the Office of Finance;
</P>
<P>(5) Any benefits received or derived, whether directly or indirectly, by the respondent(s);
</P>
<P>(6) Any injury to the public;
</P>
<P>(7) Any deterrent effect on future violations, practices, or breaches;
</P>
<P>(8) The financial capacity of the respondent(s), or any unusual circumstance(s) of hardship upon an executive officer, director, or other individual;
</P>
<P>(9) The promptness, cost, and effectiveness of any effort to remedy or ameliorate the consequences of the violation, practice, or breach;
</P>
<P>(10) The candor and cooperation, if any, of the respondent(s); and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other factors the Director may determine by regulation to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of imposition of penalty.</I> Section 1376(c)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636(c)(3)) governs judicial review of a penalty order under section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.8   Removal and prohibition proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Removal and prohibition proceedings</I>—(1) <I>Authority to issue order.</I> As provided by section 1377(a)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)(1)), the Director may serve upon a party described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, or any officer, director, or management of the Office of Finance, a notice of the intention of the Director to suspend or remove such party from office, or to prohibit any further participation by such party in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability.</I> As provided by section 1377(a)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)(2)), a party described in this paragraph is an entity-affiliated party or any officer, director, or management of the Office of Finance, if the Director determines that:
</P>
<P>(i) That party, officer, or director has, directly or indirectly—
</P>
<P>(A) Violated—
</P>
<P>(1) Any law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) Any cease and desist order that has become final;
</P>
<P>(3) Any condition imposed in writing by the Director in connection with an application, notice, or other request by a regulated entity; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any written agreement between such regulated entity and the Director;
</P>
<P>(B) Engaged or participated in any unsafe or unsound practice in connection with any regulated entity or business institution; or
</P>
<P>(C) Committed or engaged in any act, omission, or practice which constitutes a breach of such party's fiduciary duty;
</P>
<P>(ii) By reason of such violation, practice, or breach—
</P>
<P>(A) Such regulated entity or business institution has suffered or likely will suffer financial loss or other damage; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such party directly or indirectly received financial gain or other benefit; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The violation, practice, or breach described in subparagraph (i) of this section—
</P>
<P>(A) Involves personal dishonesty on the part of such party; or
</P>
<P>(B) Demonstrates willful or continuing disregard by such party for the safety or soundness of such regulated entity or business institution.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Applicability to business entities.</I> Under section 1377(f) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(f)), this remedy applies only to a person who is an individual, unless the Director specifically finds that it should apply to a corporation, firm, or other business entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Suspension order</I>—(1) <I>Suspension or prohibition authorized.</I> If the Director serves written notice under section 1377(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a)) upon a party subject to that section, the Director may, by order, suspend or remove such party from office, or prohibit such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, if the Director:
</P>
<P>(i) Determines that such action is necessary for the protection of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Serves such party with written notice of the order.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Effective period.</I> The effective period of any order under section 1377(b)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(1)) is specified in section 1377(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(2)). An order of suspension shall become effective upon service and, absent a court-ordered stay, remains effective and enforceable until the date the Director dismisses the charges or the effective date of an order issued by the Director under section 1377(c)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(4),(5)).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Copy of order to be served on regulated entity.</I> In accordance with section 1377(b)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(b)(3)), the Director will serve a copy of any order to suspend, remove, or prohibit participation in the conduct of the affairs on the Office of Finance or any regulated entity with which such party is affiliated at the time such order is issued.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice; hearing and order</I>—(1) <I>Written notice.</I> A notice of the intention of the Director to issue an order under sections 1377(a) and (c) of the Safety and Soundness Act, (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a), (c)), shall conform with § 1209.23, and may include any such additional information as the Director may require.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Hearing.</I> A hearing on the record shall be held in the District of Columbia in accordance with sections 1373(a)(1) and 1377(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act. <I>See</I> 12 U.S.C. 4633(a)(1), 4636a(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consent.</I> As provided by section 1377(c)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(3)), unless the party that is the subject of a notice delivered under paragraph (a) of this section appears in person or by a duly authorized representative of record, in the adjudicatory proceeding, such party shall be deemed to have consented to the issuance of an order under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Issuance of order of suspension or removal.</I> As provided by section 1377(c)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(4)), the Director may issue an order under this part, as the Director may deem appropriate, if:
</P>
<P>(i) A party is deemed to have consented to the issuance of an order under paragraph (d); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon the record made at the hearing, the Director finds that any of the grounds specified in the notice have been established.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Effectiveness of order.</I> As provided by section 1377(c)(5) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)(5)), any order issued and served upon a party in accordance with this section shall become effective at the expiration of 30 days after the date of service upon such party and any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party. An order issued upon consent under paragraph (c)(3) of this section, however, shall become effective at the time specified therein. Any such order shall remain effective and enforceable except to such extent as it is stayed, modified, terminated, or set aside by action of the Director or a reviewing court.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prohibition of certain activities and industry-wide prohibition</I>—(1) <I>Prohibition of certain activities.</I> As provided by section 1377(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(d)), any person subject to an order issued under subpart B of this part shall not—
</P>
<P>(i) Participate in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of any regulated entity or the Office of Finance;
</P>
<P>(ii) Solicit, procure, transfer, attempt to transfer, vote, or attempt to vote any proxy, consent, or authorization with respect to any voting rights in any regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Violate any voting agreement previously approved by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Vote for a director, or serve or act as an entity-affiliated party of a regulated entity or as an officer or director of the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Industry-wide prohibition.</I> As provided by section 1377(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(1)), except as provided in section 1377(e)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(2)), any person who, pursuant to an order issued under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a), has been removed or suspended from office in a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or prohibited from participating in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, may not, while such order is in effect, continue or commence to hold any office in, or participate in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of, any regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Relief from industry-wide prohibition at the discretion of the Director</I>—(i) <I>Relief from order.</I> As provided by section 1377(e)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(2)), if, on or after the date on which an order has been issued under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a) that removes or suspends from office any party, or prohibits such party from participating in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, such party receives the written consent of the Director, the order shall cease to apply to such party with respect to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to the extent described in the written consent. Such written consent shall be on such terms and conditions as the Director therein may specify in his discretion. Any such consent shall be publicly disclosed.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No private right of action; no final agency action.</I> Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to require the Director to entertain or to provide such written consent, or to confer any rights to such consideration or consent upon any party, regulated entity, entity-affiliated party, or the Office of Finance. Additionally, whether the Director consents to relief from an outstanding order under this part is committed wholly to the discretion of the Director, and such determination shall not be a final agency action for purposes of seeking judicial review.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Violation of industry-wide prohibition.</I> As provided by section 1377(e)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(3)), any violation of section 1377(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(e)(1)) by any person who is subject to an order issued under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)) (suspension or removal of entity-affiliated party charged with felony) shall be treated as a violation of the order.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stay of suspension or prohibition of entity-affiliated party.</I> As provided by section 1377(g) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(g)), not later than 10 days after the date on which any entity-affiliated party has been suspended from office or prohibited from participation in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, such party may apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, or the United States district court for the judicial district in which the headquarters of the regulated entity is located, for a stay of such suspension or prohibition pending the completion of the administrative enforcement proceeding pursuant to section 1377(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(c)). The court shall have jurisdiction to stay such suspension or prohibition, but such jurisdiction does not extend to the administrative enforcement proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.9   Supervisory actions not affected.</HEAD>
<P>As provided by section 1311(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4511(c)), the authority of the Director to take action under subtitle A of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4611 <I>et seq.</I>) (<I>e.g.,</I> the appointment of a conservator or receiver for a regulated entity; entering into a written agreement or pursuing an informal agreement with a regulated entity as the Director deems appropriate; and undertaking other such actions as may be applicable to undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized regulated entities), or to initiate enforcement proceedings under subtitle C of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631 <I>et seq.</I>), shall not in any way limit the general supervisory or regulatory authority granted the Director under section 1311(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4511(b)). The selection and form of regulatory or supervisory action under the Safety and Soundness Act is committed to the discretion of the Director, and the selection of one form of action or a combination of actions does not foreclose the Director from pursuing any other supervisory action authorized by law.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Rules of Practice and Procedure</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.10   Authority of the Director.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may, at any time during the pendency of a proceeding, perform, direct the performance of, or waive performance of any act that could be done or ordered by the presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.11   Authority of the Presiding Officer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> All proceedings governed by subpart C of this part shall be conducted consistent with the provisions of chapter 5 of title 5 of the United States Code. The presiding officer shall have complete charge of the adjudicative proceeding, conduct a fair and impartial hearing, avoid unnecessary delay, and assure that a complete record of the proceeding is made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Powers.</I> The presiding officer shall have all powers necessary to conduct the proceeding in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section and 5 U.S.C. 556(c). The presiding officer is authorized to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Control the proceedings.</I> (i) Upon reasonable notice to the parties, not earlier than 30 days or later than 60 days after service of a notice of charges under the Safety and Soundness Act, set a date, time, and place for an evidentiary hearing on the record, within the District of Columbia, as provided in section 1373 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633), in a scheduling order that may be issued in conjunction with the initial scheduling conference set under § 1209.36, or otherwise as the presiding officer finds in the best interest of justice, in accordance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Upon reasonable notice to the parties, reset or change the date, time, or place (within the District of Columbia) of an evidentiary hearing;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue or recess the hearing in whole or in part for a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(3) Hold conferences to address legal or factual issues, or evidentiary matters materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses; to regulate the timing and scope of discovery and rule on discovery plans; or otherwise to consider matters that may facilitate an effective, fair, and expeditious disposition of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) Administer oaths and affirmations;
</P>
<P>(5) Issue and enforce subpoenas, subpoenas <I>duces tecum,</I> discovery and protective orders, as authorized by this part, and to revoke, quash, or modify such subpoenas issued by the presiding officer;
</P>
<P>(6) Take and preserve testimony under oath;
</P>
<P>(7) Rule on motions and other procedural matters appropriate in an adjudicatory proceeding, except that only the Director shall have the power to grant summary disposition or any motion to dismiss the proceeding or to make a final determination of the merits of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(8) Take all actions authorized under this part to regulate the scope, timing, and completion of discovery of any non-privileged documents that are materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses;
</P>
<P>(9) Regulate the course of the hearing and the conduct of representatives and parties;
</P>
<P>(10) Examine witnesses;
</P>
<P>(11) Receive materially relevant evidence, and rule upon the admissibility of evidence or exclude, limit, or otherwise rule on offers of proof;
</P>
<P>(12) Upon motion of a party, take official notice of facts;
</P>
<P>(13) Recuse himself upon his own motion or upon motion made by a party;
</P>
<P>(14) Prepare and present to the Director a recommended decision as provided in this part;
</P>
<P>(15) Establish time, place, and manner limitations on the attendance of the public and the media for any public hearing; and
</P>
<P>(16) Do all other things necessary or appropriate to discharge the duties of a presiding officer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.12   Public hearings; closed hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> As provided in section 1379B(b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4639(b)), all hearings shall be open to the public, except that the Director, in his discretion, may determine that holding an open hearing would be contrary to the public interest. The Director may make such determination <I>sua sponte</I> at any time by written notice to all parties, or as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion for closed hearing.</I> Within 20 days of service of the notice of charges, any party may file with the presiding officer a motion for a private hearing and any party may file a pleading in reply to the motion. The presiding officer shall forward the motion and any reply, together with a recommended decision on the motion, to the Director, who shall make a final determination. Such motions and replies are governed by § 1209.28 of this part. A determination under this section is committed to the discretion of the Director and is not a reviewable final agency action.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing documents under seal.</I> FHFA counsel of record, in his discretion, may file or require the filing of any document or part of a document under seal, if such counsel makes a written determination that disclosure of the document would be contrary to the public interest. The presiding officer shall issue an order to govern confidential information, and take all appropriate steps to preserve the confidentiality of such documents in whole or in part, including closing any portion of a hearing to the public or issuing a protective order under such terms as may be acceptable to FHFA counsel of record.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Procedures for closed hearing.</I> An evidentiary hearing, or any part thereof, that is closed for the purpose of offering into evidence testimony or documents filed under seal as provided in paragraph (c) of this section shall be conducted under procedures that may include: prior notification to the submitter of confidential information; provisions for sealing portions of the record, briefs, and decisions; <I>in camera</I> arguments, offers of proof, and testimony; and limitations on representatives of record or other participants, as the presiding officer may designate. Additionally, at such proceedings the presiding officer may make an opening statement as to the confidentiality and limitations and deliver an oath to the parties, representatives of record, or other approved participants as to the confidentiality of the proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.13   Good faith certification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Every filing or submission of record following the issuance of a notice of charges by the Director shall be signed by at least one representative of record in his individual name and shall state that representative's business contact information, which shall include his address, electronic mail address, and telephone number; and the names, addresses and telephone numbers of all other representatives of record for the person making the filing or submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of signature.</I> (1) By signing a document, a representative of record or party appearing <I>pro se</I> certifies that:
</P>
<P>(i) The representative of record or party has read the filing or submission of record;
</P>
<P>(ii) To the best of his knowledge, information and belief formed after reasonable inquiry, the filing or submission of record is well-grounded in fact and is warranted by existing law or a good faith, non-frivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, regulation, or FHFA order or policy; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The filing or submission of record is not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or needless increase in the cost of litigation.
</P>
<P>(2) If a filing or submission of record is not signed, the presiding officer shall strike the filing or submission of record, unless it is signed promptly after the omission is called to the attention of the pleader or movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of making oral motion or argument.</I> The act of making any oral motion or oral argument by any representative or party shall constitute a certification that to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief, formed after reasonable inquiry, his statements are well-grounded in fact and are warranted by existing law or a good faith, non-frivolous argument for the extension, modification, or reversal of existing law, regulation, or FHFA order or policy, and are not made for any improper purpose, such as to harass or to cause unnecessary delay or to needlessly increase litigation-related costs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.14   Ex parte communications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definition</I>—(1) <I>Ex parte</I> communication means any material oral or written communication relevant to an adjudication of the merits of any proceeding under this subpart that was neither on the record nor on reasonable prior notice to all parties that takes place between:
</P>
<P>(i) An interested person outside FHFA (including the person's representative of record); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The presiding officer handling that proceeding, the Director, a decisional employee assigned to that proceeding, or any other person who is or may be reasonably expected to be involved in the decisional process.
</P>
<P>(2) A communication that is procedural in that it does not concern the merits of an adjudicatory proceeding, such as a request for status of the proceeding, does not constitute an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition of ex parte communications.</I> From the time a notice of charges commencing a proceeding under this part is issued by the Director until the date that the Director issues his final decision pursuant to § 1209.55 of this part, no person referred to in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section shall knowingly make or cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication with the Director or the presiding officer. The Director, presiding officer, or a decisional employee shall not knowingly make or cause to be made an <I>ex parte</I> communication.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon occurrence of ex parte communication.</I> If an <I>ex parte</I> communication is received by any person identified in paragraph (a) of this section, that person shall cause all such written communications (or, if the communication is oral, a memorandum stating the substance of the communication) to be placed on the record of the proceeding and served on all parties. All parties to the proceeding shall have an opportunity within 10 days of receipt of service of the <I>ex parte</I> communication to file responses thereto, and to recommend sanctions that they believe to be appropriate under the circumstances, in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions.</I> Any party or representative for a party who makes an <I>ex parte</I> communication, or who encourages or solicits another to make an <I>ex parte</I> communication, may be subject to any appropriate sanction or sanctions imposed by the Director or the presiding officer, including, but not limited to, exclusion from the proceedings, an adverse ruling on the issue that is the subject of the prohibited communication, or other appropriate and commensurate action(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Consultations by presiding officer.</I> Except to the extent required for the disposition of <I>ex parte</I> matters as authorized by law, the presiding officer may not consult a person or party on any matter relevant to the merits of the adjudication, unless upon notice to and opportunity for all parties to participate.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Separation of functions.</I> An employee or agent engaged in the performance of any investigative or prosecuting function for FHFA in a case may not, in that or in a factually related case, participate or advise in the recommended decision, the Director's review under § 1209.55 of the recommended decision, or the Director's final determination on the merits based upon his review of the recommended decision, except as a witness or counsel in the adjudicatory proceedings. This section shall not prohibit FHFA counsel of record from providing necessary and appropriate legal advice to the Director on supervisory (including information or legal advice as to settlement issues) or regulatory matters.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.15   Filing of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> All pleadings, motions, memoranda, and any other submissions or papers required to be filed in the proceeding shall be addressed to the presiding officer and filed with FHFA, 400 7th Street SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219, in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Manner of filing.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the presiding officer, filing shall be accomplished by:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Overnight delivery.</I> Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the address stated above; or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>U.S. Mail.</I> First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Electronic media.</I> Transmission by electronic media shall be required by and upon any conditions specified by the Director or the presiding officer. FHFA shall provide a designated site for the electronic filing of all papers in a proceeding in accordance with any conditions specified by the presiding officer. All papers filed by electronic media shall be filed concurrently in a manner set out above and in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Formal requirements as to papers filed</I>—(1) <I>Form.</I> To be filed, all papers must set forth the name, address, telephone number, and electronic mail address of the representative or party seeking to make the filing. Additionally, all such papers must be accompanied by a certification setting forth when and how service has been made on all other parties. All papers filed must be double-spaced on 8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11-inch paper and must be clear, legible, and formatted as required by paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Signature.</I> All papers filed must be dated and signed as provided in § 1209.13.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Caption.</I> All papers filed must include at the head thereof, or on a title page, the FHFA caption, title and docket number of the proceeding, the name of the filing party, and the subject of the particular paper.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Number of copies.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Director or the presiding officer, an original and one copy of all pleadings, motions and memoranda, or other such papers shall be filed, except that only one copy of transcripts of testimony and exhibits shall be filed.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Content format.</I> All papers filed shall be formatted in such program(s) (<I>e.g.,</I> MS WORD <E T="51">©</E>, MS Excel <E T="51">©</E>, or WordPerfect <E T="51">©</E>) as the presiding officer or Director shall specify.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.16   Service of papers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as otherwise provided, a party filing papers or serving a subpoena shall serve a copy upon the representative of record for each party to the proceeding so represented, and upon any party who is not so represented, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (c)(2) and (d) of this section, a serving party shall use one or more of the following methods of service:
</P>
<P>(1) Personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the parties' respective street addresses; or
</P>
<P>(3) First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service; and
</P>
<P>(4) For transmission by electronic media, each party shall promptly provide the presiding officer and all parties, in writing, an active electronic mail address where service will be accepted on behalf of such party. Any document transmitted via electronic mail for service on a party shall comply in all respects with the requirements of § 1209.15(c).
</P>
<P>(5) Service of pleadings or other papers made by facsimile may not exceed a total page count of 30 pages. Any paper served by facsimile transmission shall meet the requirements of § 1209.15(c).
</P>
<P>(6) Any party serving a pleading or other paper by electronic media under paragraph (4) of this section also shall concurrently serve that pleading or paper by one of the methods specified in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>By the Director or the presiding officer.</I> (1) All papers required to be served by the Director or the presiding officer upon a party who has appeared in the proceeding in accordance with § 1209.72 shall be served by the means specified in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) If a notice of appearance has not been filed in the proceeding for a party in accordance with § 1209.72, the Director or the presiding officer shall make service upon the party by any of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(i) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(iii) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(iv) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(v) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subpoenas.</I> Service of a subpoena may be made:
</P>
<P>(1) By personal service;
</P>
<P>(2) If the person to be served is an individual, by delivery to a person of suitable age and discretion at the physical location where the individual resides or works;
</P>
<P>(3) If the person to be served is a corporation or other association, by delivery to an officer, managing or general agent, or to any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service and, if the agent is one authorized by statute to receive service and the statute so requires, by also mailing a copy to the party;
</P>
<P>(4) By registered or certified mail addressed to the person's last known address; or
</P>
<P>(5) By any other method reasonably calculated to give actual notice.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Area of service.</I> Service in any State or the District of Columbia, or any commonwealth, possession, territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or on any person doing business in any State or the District of Columbia, or any commonwealth, possession, territory or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or on any person as otherwise permitted by law, is effective without regard to the place where the hearing is held.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Proof of service.</I> Proof of service of papers filed by a party shall be filed before action is taken thereon. The proof of service, which shall serve as prima facie evidence of the fact and date of service, shall show the date and manner of service and may be by written acknowledgment of service, by declaration of the person making service, or by certificate of a representative of record. However, failure to file proof of service contemporaneously with the papers shall not affect the validity of actual service. The presiding officer may allow the proof to be amended or supplied, unless to do so would result in material prejudice to a party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.17   Time computations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed under this part, the date of the act or event that commences the designated period of time is not included. Computations shall include the last day of the time period, unless the day falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday or Federal holiday, the period of time shall run until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. Intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays are included in the computation of time. However, when the time period within which an act is to be performed is 10 days or less, not including any additional time allowed for in paragraph (c) of this section, intermediate Saturdays, Sundays and Federal holidays are not included.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When papers are deemed to be filed or served.</I> (1) Filing or service are deemed to be effective:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of personal service or same day reliable commercial delivery service, upon actual service;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of U.S. Postal Service or reliable commercial overnight delivery service, or first class, registered, or certified mail, upon deposit in or delivery to an appropriate point of collection;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the case of transmission by electronic media, as specified by the authority receiving the filing, in the case of filing; or
</P>
<P>(iv) In the case of transmission by electronic media or facsimile, when the device through which the document was sent provides a reliable indicator that the document has been received by the opposing party, in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(2) The effective filing and service dates specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be modified by the Director or the presiding officer, or by agreement of the parties in the case of service.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculation of time for service and filing of responsive papers.</I> Whenever a time limit is measured by a prescribed period from the service of any notice, pleading or paper, the applicable time limits shall be calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) If service was made by delivery to the U.S. Postal Service for longer than overnight delivery service by first class, registered, or certified mail, add three calendar days to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing.
</P>
<P>(2) If service was personal, or was made by delivery to the U.S. Postal Service or any reliable commercial delivery service for overnight delivery, add one calendar-day to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing.
</P>
<P>(3) If service was made by electronic media transmission or facsimile, add one calendar-day to the prescribed period for the responsive pleading or other filing—unless otherwise determined by the Director or the presiding officer <I>sua sponte,</I> or upon motion of a party in the case of filing or by prior agreement among the parties in the case of service.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.18   Change of time limits.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise by law required, the presiding officer may extend any time limit that is prescribed above or in any notice or order issued in the proceedings. After the referral of the case to the Director pursuant to § 1209.53, the Director may grant extensions of the time limits for good cause shown. Extensions may be granted on the motion of a party after notice and opportunity to respond is afforded all nonmoving parties, or on the Director's or the presiding officer's own motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.19   Witness fees and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>Witnesses (other than parties) subpoenaed for testimony (or for a deposition in lieu of personal appearance at a hearing) shall be paid the same fees for attendance and mileage as are paid in the United States district courts in proceedings in which the United States is a party, provided that, in the case of a discovery subpoena addressed to a party, no witness fees or mileage shall be paid. Fees for witnesses shall be tendered in advance by the party requesting the subpoena, except that fees and mileage need not be tendered in advance where FHFA is the party requesting the subpoena. FHFA shall not be required to pay any fees to or expenses of any witness who was not subpoenaed by FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.20   Opportunity for informal settlement.</HEAD>
<P>Any respondent may, at any time in the proceeding, unilaterally submit to FHFA's counsel of record written offers or proposals for settlement of a proceeding without prejudice to the rights of any of the parties. No such offer or proposal shall be made to any FHFA representative other than FHFA counsel of record. Submission of a written settlement offer does not provide a basis for adjourning, deferring or otherwise delaying all or any portion of a proceeding under this part. No settlement offer or proposal, or any subsequent negotiation or resolution, is admissible as evidence in any proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.21   Conduct of examination.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part limits or constrains in any manner any duty, authority, or right of FHFA to conduct or to continue any examination, investigation, inspection, or visitation of any regulated entity or entity-affiliated party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.22   Collateral attacks on adjudicatory proceeding.</HEAD>
<P>If an interlocutory appeal or collateral attack is brought in any court concerning all or any part of an adjudicatory proceeding, the challenged adjudicatory proceeding shall continue without regard to the pendency of that court proceeding. No default or other failure to act as directed in the adjudicatory proceeding within the times prescribed in subpart C of this part shall be excused based on the pendency before any court of any interlocutory appeal or collateral attack.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.23   Commencement of proceeding and contents of notice of charges.</HEAD>
<P>Proceedings under subpart C of this part are commenced by the Director by the issuance of a notice of charges, as defined in § 1209.3(p), that must be served upon a respondent. A notice of charges shall state all of the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The legal authority for the proceeding and for FHFA's jurisdiction over the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(b) A statement of the matters of fact or law showing that FHFA is entitled to relief;
</P>
<P>(c) A proposed order or prayer for an order granting the requested relief;
</P>
<P>(d) Information concerning the nature of the proceeding and pertinent procedural matters, including: the requirement that the hearing shall be held in the District of Columbia; the presiding officer will set the date and location for an evidentiary hearing in a scheduling order to be issued not less than 30 days or more than 60 days after service of the notice of charges; contact information for FHFA enforcement counsel and the presiding officer, if known; submission information for filings and appearances, the time within which to request a hearing, and citation to FHFA Rules of Practice and Procedure; and
</P>
<P>(e) Information concerning proper filing of the answer, including the time within which to file the answer as required by law or regulation, a statement that the answer shall be filed with the presiding officer or with FHFA as specified therein, and the address for filing the answer (and request for a hearing, if applicable).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.24   Answer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing deadline.</I> Unless otherwise specified by the Director in the notice, respondent shall file an answer within 20 days of service of the notice of charges initiating the enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of answer.</I> An answer must respond specifically to each paragraph or allegation of fact contained in the notice of charges and must admit, deny, or state that the party lacks sufficient information to admit or deny each allegation of fact. A statement of lack of information has the effect of a denial. Denials must fairly meet the substance of each allegation of fact denied; general denials are not permitted. When a respondent denies part of an allegation, that part must be denied and the remainder specifically admitted. Any allegation of fact in the notice that is not denied in the answer is deemed admitted for purposes of the proceeding. A respondent is not required to respond to the portion of a notice that constitutes the prayer for relief or proposed order. The answer must set forth affirmative defenses, if any, asserted by the respondent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Default.</I> Failure of a respondent to file an answer required by this section within the time provided constitutes a waiver of such respondent's right to appear and contest the allegations in the notice. If no timely answer is filed, FHFA counsel of record may file a motion for entry of an order of default. Upon a finding that no good cause has been shown for the failure to file a timely answer, the presiding officer shall file with the Director a recommended decision containing the findings and the relief sought in the notice. Any final order issued by the Director based upon a respondent's failure to answer is deemed to be an order issued upon consent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.25   Amended pleadings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Amendments.</I> The notice or answer may be amended or supplemented at any stage of the proceeding. The respondent must answer an amended notice within the time remaining for the respondent's answer to the original notice, or within 10 days after service of the amended notice, whichever period is longer, unless the Director or presiding officer orders otherwise for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to conform to the evidence.</I> When issues not raised in the notice or answer are tried at the hearing by express or implied consent of the parties, or as the presiding officer may allow for good cause shown, such issues will be treated in all respects as if they had been raised in the notice or answer, and no formal amendments are required. If evidence is objected to at the hearing on the ground that it is not within the issues raised by the notice or answer, the presiding officer may admit the evidence when admission is likely to assist in adjudicating the merits of the action. The presiding officer will do so freely when the determination of the merits of the action is served thereby and the objecting party fails to satisfy the presiding officer that the admission of such evidence would unfairly prejudice that party's action or defense upon the merits. The presiding officer may grant a continuance to enable the objecting party to meet such evidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.26   Failure to appear.</HEAD>
<P>Failure of a respondent to appear in person at the hearing or by a duly authorized representative of record constitutes a waiver of respondent's right to a hearing and is deemed an admission of the facts as alleged and consent to the relief sought in the notice. Without further proceedings or notice to the respondent, the presiding officer shall file with the Director a recommended decision containing the Agency's findings and the relief sought in the notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.27   Consolidation and severance of actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation.</I> On the motion of any party, or on the presiding officer's own motion, the presiding officer may consolidate, for some or all purposes, any two or more proceedings, if each such proceeding involves or arises out of the same transaction, occurrence or series of transactions or occurrences, or involves at least one common respondent or a material common question of law or fact, unless such consolidation would cause unreasonable delay or injustice. In the event of consolidation under this section, appropriate adjustment to the pre-hearing schedule must be made to avoid unnecessary expense, inconvenience, or delay.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Severance.</I> The presiding officer may, upon the motion of any party, sever the proceeding for separate resolution of the matter as to any respondent only if the presiding officer finds that undue prejudice or injustice to the moving party would result from not severing the proceeding and such undue prejudice or injustice would outweigh the interests of judicial economy and expedition in the complete and final resolution of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.28   Motions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In writing.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, an application or request for an order or ruling must be made by written motion.
</P>
<P>(2) All written motions must state with particularity the relief sought and must be accompanied by a proposed order.
</P>
<P>(3) No oral argument may be held on written motions except as otherwise directed by the presiding officer. Written memoranda, briefs, affidavits, or other relevant material or documents may be filed in support of or in opposition to a motion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral motions.</I> A motion may be made orally on the record, unless the presiding officer directs that such motion be reduced to writing, in which case the motion will be subject to the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Filing of motions.</I> Motions must be filed with the presiding officer and served on all parties; except that following the filing of a recommended decision, motions must be filed with the Director. Motions for pre-trial relief such as motions <I>in limine</I> or objections to offers of proof or experts shall be filed not less than 10 days prior to the date of the evidentiary hearing, except as provided with the consent of the presiding officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Responses and replies.</I> (1) Except as otherwise provided herein, any party may file a written response to a non-dispositive motion within 10 days after service of any written motion, or within such other period of time as may be established by the presiding officer or the Director; and the moving party may file a written reply to a written response to a non-dispositive motion within five days after the service of the response, unless some other period is ordered by the presiding officer or the Director. The presiding officer shall not rule on any oral or written motion before each party with an interest in the motion has had an opportunity to respond as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The failure of a party to oppose a written motion or an oral motion made on the record is deemed as consent by that party to the entry of an order substantially in the form of the order accompanying the motion.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dilatory motions.</I> Frivolous, dilatory, or substantively repetitive motions are prohibited. The filing of such motions may form the basis for sanctions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispositive motions.</I> Dispositive motions are governed by §§ 1209.34 and 1209.35 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.29   Discovery.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> (1) <I>Limits on discovery.</I> Subject to the limitations set out in paragraphs (a)(2), (b), (d), and (e) of this section, a party to a proceeding under this part may obtain document discovery by serving upon any other party in the proceeding a written request to produce documents. For purposes of such requests, the term “documents” may be defined to include records, drawings, graphs, charts, photographs, recordings, or data stored in electronic form or other data compilations from which information can be obtained or translated, if necessary, by the parties through detection devices into reasonably usable form (<I>e.g.,</I> electronically stored information), as well as written material of all kinds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discovery plan.</I> (i) In the initial scheduling conference held in accordance with § 1209.36, or otherwise at the earliest practicable time, the presiding officer shall require the parties to confer in good faith to develop and submit a joint discovery plan for the timely, cost-effective management of document discovery (including, if applicable, electronically stored information). The discovery plan should provide for the coordination of similar discovery requests by multiple parties, if any, and specify how costs are to be apportioned among those parties. The discovery plan shall specify the form of electronic productions, if any. Documents are to be produced in accordance with the technical specifications described in the discovery plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Discovery in the proceeding may commence upon the approval of the discovery plan by the presiding officer. Thereafter, the presiding officer may interpret or modify the discovery plan for good cause shown or in his or her discretion due to changed circumstances.
</P>
<P>(iii) Nothing in paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall be interpreted or deemed to require the production of documents that are privileged or not reasonably accessible because of undue burden or cost, or to require any document production otherwise inconsistent with the limitations on discovery set forth in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Relevance and scope.</I> (1) A party may obtain document discovery regarding any matter not privileged that is materially relevant to the charges or allowable defenses raised in the pending proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The scope of available discovery shall be limited in accordance with subpart C of this part. Any request for the production of documents that seeks to obtain privileged information or documents not materially relevant under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, or that is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, cumulative, or repetitive of any prior discovery requests, shall be denied or modified.
</P>
<P>(3) A request for document discovery is unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome—and shall be denied or modified—if, among other things, the request:
</P>
<P>(i) Fails to specify justifiable limitations on the relevant subject matter, time period covered, search parameters, or the geographic location(s) or data repositories to be searched;
</P>
<P>(ii) Fails to identify documents with sufficient specificity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Seeks material that is duplicative, cumulative, or obtainable from another source that is more accessible, cost-effective, or less burdensome;
</P>
<P>(iv) Calls for the production of documents to be delivered to the requesting party or his or her designee and fails to provide a written agreement by the requestor to pay in advance for the costs of production in accordance with § 1209.30, or otherwise fails to take into account costs associated with processing electronically stored information or any cost-sharing agreements between the parties;
</P>
<P>(v) Fails to afford the responding party adequate time to respond; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Fails to take into account retention policies or security protocols with respect to Federal information systems.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Forms of discovery.</I> Discovery shall be limited to requests for production of documents for inspection and copying. No other form of discovery shall be allowed. Discovery by use of interrogatories is not permitted. This paragraph shall not be interpreted to require the creation of a document.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privileged matter.</I> (1) <I>Privileged documents are not discoverable.</I> (i) Privileges include the attorney-client privilege, work-product privilege, any government's or government agency's deliberative process privilege, and any other privileges provided by the Constitution, any applicable act of Congress, or the principles of common law.
</P>
<P>(ii) The parties may enter into a written agreement to permit a producing party to assert applicable privileges of a document even after its production and to request the return or destruction of privileged matter (claw back agreement). The parties shall file the claw back agreement with the presiding officer. To ensure the enforceability of the terms of any such claw back agreement, the presiding officer shall enter an order. Any party may petition the presiding officer for an order specifying claw back procedures for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No effect on examination authority.</I> The limitations on discoverable matter provided for in this part are not intended and shall not be construed to limit or otherwise affect the examination, regulatory or supervisory authority of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time limits.</I> All discovery matters, including all responses to discovery requests, shall be completed at least 20 days prior to the date scheduled for the commencement of the testimonial phase of the hearing. No exception to this discovery time limit shall be permitted, unless the presiding officer finds on the record that good cause exists for waiving the 20-day requirement of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Production.</I> Documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business, or labeled and organized to correspond with the categories in the request, or otherwise produced in a manner determined by mutual agreement between the requesting party and the party or non-party to whom the request is directed in accordance with this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.30   Request for document discovery from parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Each request for the production of documents must conform to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Limitations.</I> Subject to applicable limitations on discovery in this part, a party may serve (requesting party) a request on another party (responding party) for the production of any non-privileged, discoverable documents in the possession, custody, or control of the responding party. A requesting party shall serve a copy of any such document request on all other parties. Each request for the production of documents must, with reasonable particularity, identify or describe the documents to be produced, either by individual item or by category, with sufficient specificity to enable the responding party to respond consistent with the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Discovery plan.</I> Document discovery under subpart C of this part shall be consistent with any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Production and costs</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Subject to the applicable limitations on discovery in this part and the discovery plan, the requesting party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for the production of documents and the performance of any related acts. The responding party shall produce documents to the requesting party in a manner consistent with the discovery plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Costs.</I> All costs associated with document productions—including, without limitation, photocopying (as specified in paragraph (b)(4) of this section) or electronic processing (as specified in paragraph (b)(5) of this section)—shall be born by the requesting party, or otherwise in accordance with any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer that may require such costs be apportioned between parties, or as otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. If consistent with the discovery plan approved by the presiding officer, the responding party may require receipt of payment of any such document production costs in advance before any such production of responsive documents.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Organization.</I> Unless otherwise provided for in any discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29 of this part, or by order of the presiding officer, documents must be produced as they are kept in the usual course of business or they shall be labeled and organized to correspond with the categories in the document request.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Photocopying charges.</I> Photocopying charges are to be set at the current rate per page imposed by FHFA under the fee schedule pursuant to § 1202.11(c) of this part for requests for documents filed under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Electronic processing.</I> In the event that any party seeks the production of electronically stored information (<I>i.e.,</I> information created, stored, communicated, or used in digital format requiring the use of computer hardware and software), the parties shall confer in good faith to resolve common discovery issues related to electronically stored information, such as preservation, search methodology, collection, and need for such information; the suitability of alternative means to obtain it; and the format of production. Consistent with the discovery plan approved by the presiding officer under § 1209.29, costs associated with the processing of such electronic information (<I>i.e.,</I> imaging; scanning; conversion of “native” files to images that are viewable and searchable; indexing; coding; database or Web-based hosting; searches; branding of endorsements, such as “confidential” or document control numbering; privilege reviews; and copies of production discs) and delivery of any such document production, shall be born by the requesting party, apportioned among the parties, or as otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. Nothing in this part shall be deemed to require FHFA to produce privileged documents or any electronic records in violation of applicable Federal law or security protocols.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to update responses.</I> A party who has responded to a discovery request is not required to supplement the response, unless:
</P>
<P>(1) The responding party learns that in some material respect the information disclosed is incomplete or incorrect, and
</P>
<P>(2) The additional or corrective information has not otherwise been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Motions to strike or limit discovery requests.</I> (1) Any party served with a document discovery request may object within 30 days of service of the request by filing a motion to strike or limit the request in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28 of this part. No other party may file an objection. If an objection is made only to a portion of an item or category in a request, the objection shall specify that portion. Any objections not made in accordance with this paragraph and § 1209.28 are waived.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who served the request that is the subject of a motion to strike or limit may file a written response in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28. A reply by the moving party, if any, shall be governed by § 1209.28. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Privilege.</I> At the time other documents are produced, all documents withheld on a claim of privilege must be reasonably identified, together with a statement of the basis for the assertion of privilege on a privilege log. When similar documents that are protected by the government's deliberative process, investigative or examination privilege, the attorney work-product doctrine, or the attorney-client privilege are voluminous, such documents may be identified on the log by category instead of by individual document. The presiding officer has discretion to permit submission of a privilege log subsequent to the document production(s), which may occur on a rolling basis if agreed to by the parties in the discovery plan, and to determine whether an identification by category is sufficient to provide notice of withheld documents.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Motions to compel production.</I> (1) If a party withholds any document as privileged or fails to comply fully with a document discovery request, the requesting party may, within 10 days of the assertion of privilege or of the time the failure to comply becomes known to the requesting party, file a motion in accordance with the provisions of § 1209.28 for the issuance of a subpoena compelling the production of any such document.
</P>
<P>(2) The party who asserted the privilege or failed to comply with the request may, within five days of service of a motion for the issuance of a subpoena compelling production, file a written response to the motion. No other party may file a response.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Ruling on motions</I>—(1) <I>Appropriate protective orders.</I> After the time for filing a response to a motion to compel pursuant to this section has expired, the presiding officer shall rule promptly on any such motion. The presiding officer may deny, grant in part, or otherwise modify any request for the production of documents, if he determines that a discovery request, or any one or more of its terms, seeks to obtain the production of documents that are privileged or otherwise not within the scope of permissible discovery under § 1209.29(b), and may issue appropriate protective orders, upon such conditions as justice may require.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No stay.</I> The pendency of a motion to strike or limit discovery, or to compel the production of any document, shall not stay or continue the proceeding, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer. Notwithstanding any other provision in this part, the presiding officer may not release, or order any party to produce, any document withheld on the basis of privilege, if the withholding party has stated to the presiding officer its intention to file with the Director a timely motion for interlocutory review of the presiding officer's privilege determination or order to produce the documents, until the Director has rendered a decision on the motion for interlocutory review.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interlocutory review by the Director.</I> Interlocutory review of a privilege determination or document discovery subpoena of the presiding officer shall be in accordance with § 1209.33. To the extent necessary to rule promptly on such matters, the Director may request that the presiding officer provide additional information from the record. As provided by § 1209.33 of this part, a pending interlocutory review of a privilege determination or document discovery subpoena shall not stay the proceedings, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or the Director.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Enforcement of document discovery subpoenas</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> If the presiding officer or Director issues a subpoena compelling production of documents by a party in a proceeding under this part, in the event of noncompliance with the subpoena and to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)(1)), the Director or the subpoenaing party may apply to the appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>United States district court jurisdiction.</I> As provided by section 1379D(c)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)(2)), the appropriate United States district court has the jurisdiction and power to order and to require compliance with any discovery subpoena issued under this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No stay; sanctions.</I> The judicial enforcement of a discovery subpoena shall not operate as a stay of the proceedings, unless the presiding officer or the Director orders a stay of such duration as the presiding officer or Director may find reasonable and in the best interest of the parties or as justice may require. A party's right to seek judicial enforcement of a subpoena shall not in any manner limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer or Director against a party who fails to produce or induces another to fail to produce subpoenaed documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.31   Document discovery subpoenas to non-parties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules</I>—(1) <I>Application for subpoena.</I> As provided under this part, any party may apply to the presiding officer for the issuance of a document discovery subpoena addressed to any person who is not a party to the proceeding. The application must contain the proposed document subpoena, and a brief statement of facts demonstrating that the documents are materially relevant to the charges and issues presented in the proceeding and the reasonableness of the scope of the document request. The subpoenaing party shall specify a reasonable time, place, and manner for production in response to the subpoena, and state its unequivocal intention to pay for the production of the documents as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Service of subpoena.</I> A party shall apply for a document subpoena under this section only within the time period during which such party could serve a discovery request under § 1209.30 of this part. The party obtaining the document subpoena is responsible for serving it on the subpoenaed person and for serving copies on all other parties. Document subpoenas may be served in the District of Columbia, or any State, Territory, possession, or other place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, or as otherwise provided by law.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Presiding officer's discretion.</I> The presiding officer shall issue promptly any document subpoena applied for under this section subject to the application conditions set forth in this section and his or her discretion. If the presiding officer determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the requested document subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, unduly burdensome, or otherwise objectionable under § 1209.29(b), he may refuse to issue the requested document subpoena or may issue it in a modified form upon such additional conditions as may be determined by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify</I>—(1) <I>Limited appearance.</I> Any non-party to a pending proceeding to whom a document subpoena is directed may enter a limited appearance, through a representative or on his or her own behalf, before the presiding officer to file with the presiding officer a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Objections.</I> Any motion to quash or modify a document subpoena must be filed on the same basis, including the assertion of any privileges, upon which a party could object to a discovery document request under § 1209.30 and during the same time limits during which such an objection could be filed.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Responses and replies.</I> The party who obtained the subpoena may respond to such motion within 10 days of service of the motion; the response shall be served on the non-party in accordance with this part. Absent express leave of the presiding officer, no other party may respond to the non-party's motion. The non-party may file a reply within five days of service of a response.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No stay.</I> A non-party's right to seek to quash or modify a document subpoena shall not stay the proceeding, or limit in any manner the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer against a party who induces another to fail to produce any such subpoenaed documents. No party may rely upon the pendency of a non-party's motion to quash or modify a document subpoena to excuse performance of any action required of that party under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing document subpoenas to non-parties</I>—(1) <I>Application for enforcement of subpoena.</I> If a non-party fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or with any order of the presiding officer that directs compliance with all or any portion of a document subpoena issued pursuant to this section, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party to the proceeding may, to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)), apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No stay.</I> A party's right to seek district court enforcement of a non-party document production subpoena under this section shall not automatically stay an enforcement proceeding under of the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Sanctions.</I> A party's right to seek district court enforcement of a non-party document subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who induces another to fail to comply with any subpoena issued under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.32   Deposition of witness unavailable for hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) If a witness will not be available for the hearing, a party desiring to preserve that witness's testimony for the record may apply to the presiding officer in accordance with the procedures set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section for the issuance of a subpoena or subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring attendance of the witness at a deposition for the purpose of preserving that witness's testimony. The presiding officer may issue a deposition subpoena under this section upon a showing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The witness will be unable to attend or may be prevented from attending the testimonial phase of the hearing because of age, sickness, or infirmity, or will be otherwise unavailable;
</P>
<P>(ii) The subpoenaing party did not cause or contribute to the unavailability of the witness for the hearing;
</P>
<P>(iii) The witness has personal knowledge and the testimony is reasonably expected to be materially relevant to claims, defenses, or matters determined to be at issue in the proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Taking the deposition will not result in any undue burden to any other party and will not cause undue delay of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) The application must contain a proposed deposition subpoena and a brief statement of the reasons for the issuance of the subpoena. The subpoena must name the witness whose deposition is to be taken and specify the time and place for taking the deposition. A deposition subpoena may require the witness to be deposed anywhere within the United States, or its Territories and possessions, in which that witness resides or has a regular place of employment or such other convenient place as the presiding officer shall fix.
</P>
<P>(3) Subpoenas must be issued promptly upon request, unless the presiding officer determines that the request fails to set forth a valid basis under this section for its issuance. Before making a determination that there is no valid basis for issuing the subpoena, the presiding officer shall require a written response from the party requesting the subpoena or require attendance at a conference to determine whether there is a valid basis upon which to issue the requested subpoena.
</P>
<P>(4) The party obtaining a deposition subpoena is responsible for serving it on the witness and for serving copies on all parties. Unless the presiding officer orders otherwise, no deposition under this section shall be taken on fewer than 10 days' notice to the witness and all parties. Deposition subpoenas may be served anywhere within the United States or its Territories and possessions, or on any person doing business anywhere within the United States or its Territories and possessions, or as otherwise permitted by law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Objections to deposition subpoenas.</I> (1) The witness and any party who has not had an opportunity to oppose a deposition subpoena issued under this section may file a motion with the presiding officer under § 1209.28 of this part to quash or modify the subpoena prior to the time for compliance specified in the subpoena, but not more than 10 days after service of the subpoena.
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the basis for the motion to quash or modify a subpoena issued under this section must accompany the motion. The motion must be served on all parties.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure upon deposition.</I> (1) Each witness testifying pursuant to a deposition subpoena must be duly sworn and each party shall have the right to examine the witness. Objections to questions or documents must be in short form, stating the grounds for the objection. Failure to object to questions or documents is not deemed a waiver except where the ground for objection might have been avoided if the objection had been presented timely. All questions, answers, and objections must be recorded and transcribed. Videotaped depositions must be transcribed for the record; copies and transcriptions must be supplied to each party.
</P>
<P>(2) Any party may move before the presiding officer for an order compelling the witness to answer any questions the witness has refused to answer or submit any evidence that, during the deposition, the witness has refused to submit.
</P>
<P>(3) The deposition transcript must be subscribed by the witness, unless the parties and the witness, by stipulation, have waived the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be found, or has refused to sign. If the deposition is not subscribed by the witness, the court reporter taking the deposition shall certify that the transcript is a true and complete transcript of the deposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or with any order of the presiding officer made upon motion under paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the subpoenaing party or other aggrieved party may, to the extent authorized by section 1379D(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4641(c)), apply to an appropriate United States district court for an order requiring compliance with the portions of the subpoena that the presiding officer has ordered enforced. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a deposition subpoena in no way limits the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who fails to comply with or induces a failure to comply with a subpoena issued under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.33   Interlocutory review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> The Director may review a ruling of the presiding officer prior to the certification of the record to the Director only in accordance with the procedures set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope of review.</I> The Director may exercise interlocutory review of a ruling of the presiding officer if the Director finds that:
</P>
<P>(1) The ruling involves a controlling question of law or policy as to which substantial grounds exist for a difference of opinion;
</P>
<P>(2) Immediate review of the ruling may materially advance the ultimate termination of the proceeding;
</P>
<P>(3) Subsequent modification of the ruling at the conclusion of the proceeding would be an inadequate remedy; or
</P>
<P>(4) Subsequent modification of the ruling would cause unusual delay or expense.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure.</I> Any motion for interlocutory review shall be filed by a party with the presiding officer within 10 days of his or her ruling. Upon the expiration of the time for filing all responses, the presiding officer shall refer the matter to the Director for final disposition. In referring the matter to the Director, the presiding officer may indicate agreement or disagreement with the asserted grounds for interlocutory review of the ruling in question.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Suspension of proceeding.</I> Neither a request for interlocutory review nor any disposition of such a request by the Director under this section suspends or stays the proceeding unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.34" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.34   Summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The presiding officer shall recommend that the Director issue a final order granting a motion for summary disposition if the undisputed pleaded facts, admissions, affidavits, stipulations, documentary evidence, matters as to which official notice may be taken, and any other evidentiary materials properly submitted in connection with a motion for summary disposition show that:
</P>
<P>(1) There is no genuine issue as to any material fact; and
</P>
<P>(2) The movant is entitled to a decision in its favor as a matter of law.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of motions and responses.</I> (1) Any party who believes there is no genuine issue of material fact to be determined and that such party is entitled to a decision as a matter of law may move at any time for summary disposition in its favor of all or any part of the proceeding. Any party, within 30 days after service of such motion or within such time period as allowed by the presiding officer, may file a response to such motion.
</P>
<P>(2) A motion for summary disposition must be accompanied by a statement of material facts as to which the movant contends there is no genuine issue. Such motion must be supported by documentary evidence, which may take the form of admissions in pleadings, stipulations, depositions, investigatory depositions, transcripts, affidavits, and any other evidentiary materials that the movant contends support its position. The motion must also be accompanied by a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention of the movant. Any party opposing a motion for summary disposition must file a statement setting forth those material facts as to which the party contends a genuine dispute exists. Such opposition must be supported by evidence of the same type as that submitted with the motion for summary disposition and a brief containing the points and authorities in support of the contention that summary disposition would be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Hearing on motion.</I> At the request of any party or on his or her own motion, the presiding officer may hear oral argument on the motion for summary disposition.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Decision on motion.</I> Following receipt of a motion for summary disposition and all responses thereto, the presiding officer shall determine whether the movant is entitled to summary disposition. If the presiding officer determines that summary disposition is warranted, the presiding officer shall submit a recommended decision to that effect to the Director, under § 1209.53. If the presiding officer finds that the moving party is not entitled to summary disposition, the presiding officer shall make a ruling denying the motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.35" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.35   Partial summary disposition.</HEAD>
<P>If the presiding officer determines that a party is entitled to summary disposition as to certain claims only, he shall defer submitting a recommended decision to the Director as to those claims. A hearing on the remaining issues must be ordered. Those claims for which the presiding officer has determined that summary disposition is warranted will be addressed in the recommended decision filed at the conclusion of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.36" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.36   Scheduling and pre-hearing conferences.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scheduling conference.</I> After service of a notice of charges commencing a proceeding under this part, the presiding officer shall order the representative(s) of record for each party, and any party not so represented who is appearing <I>pro se,</I> to meet in person or to confer by telephone at a specified time within 30 days of service of such notice for the purpose of setting the time and place of the testimonial hearing on the record to be held within the District of Columbia and scheduling the course and conduct of the proceeding (the “scheduling conference”). The identification of potential witnesses, the time for and manner of discovery, and the exchange of any pre-hearing materials including witness lists, statements of issues, stipulations, exhibits, and any other materials also may be determined at the scheduling conference.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Pre-hearing conferences.</I> The presiding officer may, in addition to the scheduling conference, on his or her own motion or at the request of any party, direct representatives for the parties to meet with (in person or by telephone) at a pre-hearing conference to address any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Simplification and clarification of the issues;
</P>
<P>(2) Stipulations, admissions of fact and the contents, authenticity and admissibility into evidence of documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Matters of which official notice may be taken;
</P>
<P>(4) Limitation of the number of witnesses;
</P>
<P>(5) Summary disposition of any or all issues;
</P>
<P>(6) Resolution of discovery issues or disputes;
</P>
<P>(7) Amendments to pleadings; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other matters as may aid in the orderly disposition of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Transcript.</I> The presiding officer, in his or her discretion, may require that a scheduling or pre-hearing conference be recorded by a court reporter. Any transcript of the conference and any materials filed, including orders, become part of the record of the proceeding. A party may obtain a copy of a transcript at such party's expense.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scheduling or pre-hearing orders.</I> Within a reasonable time following the conclusion of the scheduling conference or any pre-hearing conference, the presiding officer shall serve on each party an order setting forth any agreements reached and any procedural determinations made.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.37" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.37   Pre-hearing submissions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Within the time set by the presiding officer, but in no case later than 10 days before the start of the hearing, each party shall serve on every other party the serving party's:
</P>
<P>(1) Pre-hearing statement;
</P>
<P>(2) Final list of witnesses to be called to testify at the hearing, including name and address of each witness, and a short summary of the expected testimony of each witness;
</P>
<P>(3) List of the exhibits to be introduced at the hearing along with a copy of each exhibit; and
</P>
<P>(4) Stipulations of fact, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to comply.</I> No witness may testify and no exhibit may be introduced at the hearing that is not listed in the pre-hearing submissions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, except for good cause shown.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.38" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.29" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.38   Hearing subpoenas.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuance.</I> (1) Upon application of a party to the presiding officer showing relevance and reasonableness of scope of the testimony or other evidence sought, the presiding officer may issue a subpoena or a subpoena <I>duces tecum</I> requiring the attendance of a witness at the hearing or the production of documentary or physical evidence at such hearing. The application for a hearing subpoena must also contain a proposed subpoena specifying the attendance of a witness or the production of evidence from any place within the United States or its territories and possessions, or as otherwise provided by law, at the designated place where the hearing is being conducted. The party making the application shall serve a copy of the application and the proposed subpoena on every other party.
</P>
<P>(2) A party may apply for a hearing subpoena at any time before the commencement of or during a hearing. During a hearing, a party may make an application for a subpoena orally on the record before the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer shall promptly issue any hearing subpoena applied for under this section; except that, if the presiding officer determines that the application does not set forth a valid basis for the issuance of the subpoena, or that any of its terms are unreasonable, oppressive, excessive in scope, or unduly burdensome, he may refuse to issue the subpoena or may issue the subpoena in a modified form upon any conditions consistent with subpart C of this part. Upon issuance by the presiding officer, the party making the application shall serve the subpoena on the person named in the subpoena and on each party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Motion to quash or modify.</I> (1) Any person to whom a hearing subpoena is directed or any party may file a motion to quash or modify such subpoena, accompanied by a statement of the basis for quashing or modifying the subpoena. The movant must serve the motion on each party and on the person named in the subpoena. Any party may respond to the motion within 10 days of service of the motion.
</P>
<P>(2) Any motion to quash or modify a hearing subpoena must be filed prior to the time specified in the subpoena for compliance, but no more than 10 days after the date of service of the subpoena upon the movant.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcing subpoenas.</I> If a subpoenaed person fails to comply with any subpoena issued pursuant to this section or any order of the presiding officer that directs compliance with all or any portion of a hearing subpoena, the subpoenaing party or any other aggrieved party may seek enforcement of the subpoena pursuant to § 1209.31. A party's right to seek court enforcement of a hearing subpoena shall in no way limit the sanctions that may be imposed by the presiding officer on a party who induces a failure to comply with subpoenas issued under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1209.39-1209.49" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.30" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1209.39-1209.49   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.50" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.31" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.50   Conduct of hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rules.</I> (1) <I>Conduct.</I> Hearings shall be conducted in accordance with chapter 5 of title 5 and other applicable law and so as to provide a fair and expeditious presentation of the relevant disputed issues. Except as limited by this subpart, each party has the right to present its case or defense by oral and documentary evidence and to conduct such cross examination as may be required for full disclosure of the facts.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Order of hearing.</I> FHFA counsel of record shall present its case-in-chief first, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer or unless otherwise expressly specified by law or regulation. FHFA counsel of record shall be the first party to present an opening statement and a closing statement and may make a rebuttal statement after the respondent's closing statement. If there are multiple respondents, respondents may agree among themselves as to the order of presentation of their cases, but if they do not agree, the presiding officer shall fix the order.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Examination of witnesses.</I> Only one representative for each party may conduct an examination of a witness, except that in the case of extensive direct examination, the presiding officer may permit more than one representative for the party presenting the witness to conduct the examination. A party may have one representative conduct the direct examination and another representative conduct re-direct examination of a witness, or may have one representative conduct the cross examination of a witness and another representative conduct the re-cross examination of a witness.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Stipulations.</I> Unless the presiding officer directs otherwise, all documents that the parties have stipulated as admissible shall be admitted into evidence upon commencement of the hearing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Transcript.</I> The hearing shall be recorded and transcribed. The transcript shall be made available to any party upon payment of the cost thereof. The presiding officer shall have authority to order the record corrected, either upon motion to correct, upon stipulation of the parties, or following notice to the parties upon the presiding officer's own motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.51" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.32" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.51   Evidence.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Admissibility.</I> (1) Except as is otherwise set forth in this section, relevant, material, and reliable evidence that is not unduly repetitive is admissible to the fullest extent authorized by the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 552 <I>et seq.</I>) and other applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) Evidence that would be admissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence is admissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) Evidence that would be inadmissible under the Federal Rules of Evidence may not be deemed or ruled to be inadmissible in a proceeding conducted pursuant to subpart C of this part if such evidence is relevant, material, probative and reliable, and not unduly repetitive.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Official notice.</I> (1) Official notice may be taken of any material fact that may be judicially noticed by a United States district court and of any materially relevant information in the official public records of any Federal or State government agency.
</P>
<P>(2) All matters officially noticed by the presiding officer or the Director shall appear on the record.
</P>
<P>(3) If official notice is requested of any material fact, the parties, upon timely request, shall be afforded an opportunity to object.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documents.</I> (1) A duplicate copy of a document is admissible to the same extent as the original, unless a genuine issue is raised as to whether the copy is in some material respect not a true and legible copy of the original.
</P>
<P>(2) Subject to the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of this section, any document, including a report of examination, oversight activity, inspection, or visitation prepared by FHFA or by another Federal or State financial institution's regulatory agency, is admissible either with or without a sponsoring witness.
</P>
<P>(3) Witnesses may use existing or newly created charts, exhibits, calendars, calculations, outlines, or other graphic material to summarize, illustrate, or simplify the presentation of testimony. Such materials may, subject to the presiding officer's discretion, be used with or without being admitted into evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Objections.</I> (1) Objections to the admissibility of evidence must be timely made and rulings on all objections must appear in the record.
</P>
<P>(2) When an objection to a question or line of questioning is sustained, the examining representative of record may make a specific proffer on the record of what he or she expected to prove by the expected testimony of the witness. The proffer may be by representation of the representative or by direct interrogation of the witness.
</P>
<P>(3) The presiding officer shall retain rejected exhibits, adequately marked for identification, for the record and transmit such exhibits to the Director.
</P>
<P>(4) Failure to object to admission of evidence or to any ruling constitutes a waiver of the objection.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Stipulations.</I> The parties may stipulate as to any relevant matters of fact or the authentication of any document to be admitted into evidence. Such stipulations must be received in evidence at a hearing, are binding on the parties with respect to the matters stipulated, and shall be made part of the record.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Depositions of unavailable witnesses.</I> (1) If a witness is unavailable to testify at a hearing and that witness has testified in a deposition in accordance with § 1209.32, a party may offer as evidence all or any part of the transcript of the deposition, including deposition exhibits, if any.
</P>
<P>(2) Such deposition transcript is admissible to the same extent that testimony would have been admissible had that person testified at the hearing, provided that if a witness refused to answer proper questions during the deposition the presiding officer may, on that basis, limit the admissibility of the deposition in any manner that justice requires.
</P>
<P>(3) Only those portions of a deposition or related exhibits received in evidence at the hearing in accordance with this section shall constitute a part of the record.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.52" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.33" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.52   Post-hearing filings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Proposed findings and conclusions and supporting briefs.</I> (1) Using the same method of service for each party, the presiding officer shall serve notice upon each party that the certified transcript, together with all hearing exhibits and exhibits introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing, has been filed with the presiding officer. Any party may file with the presiding officer proposed findings of fact, proposed conclusions of law, and a proposed order within 30 days after the parties have received notice that the transcript has been filed with the presiding officer, unless otherwise ordered by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed findings and conclusions must be supported by citation to any relevant authorities and by page and line references to any relevant portions of the record. A post-hearing brief may be filed in support of proposed findings and conclusions, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(3) A party is deemed to have waived any issue not raised in proposed findings or conclusions timely filed by that party.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reply briefs.</I> Reply briefs may be filed within 15 days after the date on which the parties' proposed findings and conclusions and proposed order are due. Reply briefs shall be limited strictly to responding to new matters, issues, or arguments raised by another party in papers filed in the proceeding. A party who has not filed proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or a post-hearing brief may not file a reply brief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Simultaneous filing required.</I> The presiding officer shall not order the filing by any party of any brief or reply brief supporting proposed findings and conclusions in advance of the other party's filing of its brief.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.53" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.34" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.53   Recommended decision and filing of record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing of recommended decision and record.</I> Within 45 days after expiration of the time allowed for filing reply briefs under § 1209.52(b), the presiding officer shall file with and certify to the Director, for decision, the record of the proceeding. The record must include the presiding officer's recommended decision, recommended findings of fact and conclusions of law, and proposed order; all pre-hearing and hearing transcripts, exhibits and rulings; and the motions, briefs, memoranda, and other supporting papers filed in connection with the hearing. The presiding officer shall serve upon each party the recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Filing of index.</I> At the same time the presiding officer files with and certifies to the Director, for final determination, the record of the proceeding, the presiding officer shall furnish to the Director a certified index of the entire record of the proceeding. The certified index shall include, at a minimum, an entry for each paper, document or motion filed with the presiding officer in the proceeding, the date of the filing, and the identity of the filer. The certified index shall also include an exhibit index containing, at a minimum, an entry consisting of exhibit number and title or description for: each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence at the hearing; each exhibit introduced and admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing; and each exhibit introduced but not admitted into evidence after the completion of the hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.54" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.35" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.54   Exceptions to recommended decision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filing exceptions.</I> Within 30 days after service of the recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order under § 1209.53, a party may file with the Director written exceptions to the presiding officer's recommended decision, recommended findings and conclusions, and proposed order; to the admission or exclusion of evidence; or to the failure of the presiding officer to make a ruling proposed by a party. A supporting brief may be filed at the time the exceptions are filed, either as part of the same document or in a separate document.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effect of failure to file or raise exceptions.</I> (1) Failure of a party to file exceptions to those matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section within the time prescribed is deemed a waiver of objection thereto.
</P>
<P>(2) No exception need be considered by the Director if the party taking exception had an opportunity to raise the same objection, issue, or argument before the presiding officer and failed to do so.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents.</I> (1) All exceptions and briefs in support of such exceptions must be confined to the particular matters in or omissions from the presiding officer's recommendations to which that party takes exception.
</P>
<P>(2) All exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions must set forth page or paragraph references to the specific parts of the presiding officer's recommendations to which exception is taken, the page or paragraph references to those portions of the record relied upon to support each exception, and the legal authority relied upon to support each exception. Exceptions and briefs in support shall not exceed a total of 30 pages, except by leave of the Director on motion.
</P>
<P>(3) One reply brief may be submitted by each party opposing the exceptions within 10 days of service of exceptions and briefs in support of exceptions. Reply briefs shall not exceed 15 pages, except by leave of the Director on motion.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.55" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.36" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.55   Review by Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of submission to the Director.</I> When the Director determines that the record in the proceeding is complete, the Director shall serve notice upon the parties that the case has been submitted to the Director for final decision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Oral argument before the Director.</I> Upon the initiative of the Director or on the written request of any party filed with the Director within the time for filing exceptions, the Director may order and hear oral argument on the recommended findings, conclusions, decision and order of the presiding officer. A written request by a party must show good cause for oral argument and state reasons why arguments cannot be presented adequately in writing. A denial of a request for oral argument may be set forth in the Director's final decision. Oral argument before the Director must be transcribed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Director's final decision and order.</I> (1) Decisional employees may advise and assist the Director in the consideration and disposition of the case. The final decision of the Director will be based upon review of the entire record of the proceeding, except that the Director may limit the issues to be reviewed to those findings and conclusions to which opposing arguments or exceptions have been filed by the parties.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director shall render a final decision and issue an appropriate order within 90 days after notification to the parties that the case has been submitted for final decision, unless the Director orders that the action or any aspect thereof be remanded to the presiding officer for further proceedings. Copies of the final decision including findings of fact and an appropriate order of the Director shall be served upon each party to the proceeding and as otherwise required by statute.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director may modify, terminate, or set aside an order in accordance with section 1373(b)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4633(b)(2)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.56" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.37" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.56   Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</HEAD>
<P>To exhaust administrative remedies as to any issue on which a party disagrees with the presiding officer's recommendations, a party must file exceptions with the Director under § 1209.54 of this part. A party must exhaust administrative remedies as a precondition to seeking judicial review of any final decision and order issued under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.57" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.38" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.57   Judicial review; no automatic stay.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial review.</I> Judicial review of any final order of the Director shall be exclusively as provided by section 1374 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4634).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No automatic stay.</I> Commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final decision and order of the Director may not, unless specifically ordered by the Director or a reviewing court, operate as a stay of any order issued by the Director. The Director may, in his or her discretion and on such terms as he finds just, stay the effectiveness of all or any part of an order of the Director pending a final decision on a petition for review of that order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1209.58-1209.69" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.3.1.39" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1209.58-1209.69   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Parties and Representational Practice Before the Federal Housing Finance Agency; Standards of Conduct</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.70" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.70   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart D of this part contains rules governing practice by parties or their representatives before FHFA. This subpart addresses the imposition of sanctions by the presiding officer or the Director against parties or their representatives in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part. This subpart also covers other disciplinary sanctions—censure, suspension, or disbarment—against individuals who appear before FHFA in a representational capacity either in an adjudicatory proceeding under this part or in any other matters connected with presentations to FHFA relating to a client's or other principal's rights, privileges, or liabilities. This representation includes, but is not limited to, the practice of attorneys and accountants. Employees of FHFA are not subject to disciplinary proceedings under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.71" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.71   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Practice before FHFA</I> for the purposes of subpart D of this part, includes, but is not limited to, transacting any business with FHFA as counsel of record, representative, or agent for any other person, unless the Director orders otherwise. Practice before FHFA also includes the preparation of any statement, opinion, or other paper by a counsel, representative or agent that is filed with FHFA in any certification, notification, application, report, or other document, with the consent of such counsel, representative, or agent. Practice before FHFA does not include work prepared for a regulated entity or entity-affiliated party solely at the request of such party for use in the ordinary course of its business.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.72" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.72   Appearance and practice in adjudicatory proceedings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appearance before FHFA or a presiding officer</I>—(1) <I>By attorneys.</I> A party may be represented by an attorney who is a member in good standing of the bar of the highest court of any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia, and who is not currently suspended or disbarred from practice before FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By non-attorneys.</I> An individual may appear on his or her own behalf, <I>pro se.</I> A member of a partnership may represent the partnership and a duly authorized officer, director, employee, or other agent of any corporation or other entity not specifically listed herein may represent such corporation or other entity; provided that such officer, director, employee, or other agent is not currently suspended or disbarred from practice before FHFA. A duly authorized officer or employee of any Government unit, agency, or authority may represent that unit, agency, or authority.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of appearance.</I> Any person appearing in a representative capacity on behalf of a party, including FHFA, shall execute and file a notice of appearance with the presiding officer at or before the time such person submits papers or otherwise appears on behalf of a party in the adjudicatory proceeding. Such notice of appearance shall include a written declaration that the individual is currently qualified as provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section and is authorized to represent the particular party. By filing a notice of appearance on behalf of a party in an adjudicatory proceeding, the representative thereby agrees and represents that he is authorized to accept service on behalf of the represented party and that, in the event of withdrawal from representation, he or she will, if required by the presiding officer, continue to accept service until a new representative has filed a notice of appearance or until the represented party indicates that he or she will proceed on a <I>pro se</I> basis. Unless the representative filing the notice is an attorney, the notice of appearance shall also be executed by the person represented or, if the person is not an individual, by the chief executive officer, or duly authorized officer of that person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.73" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.73   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conflict of interest in representation.</I> No representative shall represent another person in an adjudicatory proceeding if it reasonably appears that such representation may be limited materially by that representative's responsibilities to a third person or by that representative's own interests. The presiding officer may take corrective measures at any stage of a proceeding to cure a conflict of interest in representation, including the issuance of an order limiting the scope of representation or disqualifying an individual from appearing in a representative capacity for the duration of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and waiver.</I> If any person appearing as counsel or other representative represents two or more parties to an adjudicatory proceeding, or also represents a non-party on a matter relevant to an issue in the proceeding, that representative must certify in writing at the time of filing the notice of appearance required by § 1209.72 of this part as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) That the representative has personally and fully discussed the possibility of conflicts of interest with each affected party and non-party; and
</P>
<P>(2) That each affected party and non-party waives any right it might otherwise have had to assert any known conflicts of interest or to assert any non-material conflicts of interest during the course of the proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.74" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.74   Sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General rule.</I> Appropriate sanctions may be imposed during the course of any proceeding when any party or representative of record has acted or failed to act in a manner required by applicable statute, regulation, or order, and that act or failure to act:
</P>
<P>(1) Constitutes contemptuous conduct, which includes dilatory, obstructionist, egregious, contumacious, unethical, or other improper conduct at any phase of any proceeding, hearing, or appearance before a presiding officer or the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) Has caused some other party material and substantive injury, including, but not limited to, incurring expenses including attorney's fees or experiencing prejudicial delay;
</P>
<P>(3) Is a clear and unexcused violation of an applicable statute, regulation, or order; or
</P>
<P>(4) Has delayed the proceeding unduly.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> Sanctions that may be imposed include, but are not limited to, any one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Issuing an order against a party;
</P>
<P>(2) Rejecting or striking any testimony or documentary evidence offered, or other papers filed, by the party;
</P>
<P>(3) Precluding the party from contesting specific issues or findings;
</P>
<P>(4) Precluding the party from offering certain evidence or from challenging or contesting certain evidence offered by another party;
</P>
<P>(5) Precluding the party from making a late filing or conditioning a late filing on any terms that may be just; or
</P>
<P>(6) Assessing reasonable expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by any other party as a result of the improper action or failure to act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedure for imposition of sanctions.</I> (1) The presiding officer, on the motion of any party, or on his or her own motion, and after such notice and responses as may be directed by the presiding officer, may impose any sanction authorized by this section. The presiding officer shall submit to the Director for final ruling any sanction that would result in a final order that terminates the case on the merits or is otherwise dispositive of the case.
</P>
<P>(2) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no sanction authorized by this section, other than refusing to accept late papers, shall be imposed without prior notice to all parties and an opportunity for any representative or party against whom sanctions may be imposed to be heard. The presiding officer shall determine and direct the appropriate notice and form for such opportunity to be heard. The opportunity to be heard may be limited to an opportunity to respond verbally immediately after the act or inaction in question is noted by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of interlocutory review, motions for the imposition of sanctions by any party and the imposition of sanctions shall be treated the same as motions for any other ruling by the presiding officer.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this section shall be read to preclude the presiding officer or the Director from taking any other action or imposing any other restriction or sanction authorized by any applicable statute or regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sanctions for contemptuous conduct.</I> If, during the course of any proceeding, a presiding officer finds any representative or any individual representing themself to have engaged in contemptuous conduct, the presiding officer may summarily suspend that individual from participating in that or any related proceeding or impose any other appropriate sanction.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.75" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.75   Censure, suspension, disbarment, and reinstatement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary censure, suspension, and disbarment.</I> (1) The Director may censure any individual who practices or attempts to practice before FHFA or suspend or revoke the privilege to appear or practice before FHFA of such individual if, after notice of and opportunity for hearing in the matter, that individual is found by the Director—
</P>
<P>(i) Not to possess the requisite qualifications or competence to represent others;
</P>
<P>(ii) To be seriously lacking in character or integrity or to have engaged in material unethical or improper professional conduct;
</P>
<P>(iii) To have caused unfair and material injury or prejudice to another party, such as prejudicial delay or unnecessary expenses including attorney's fees;
</P>
<P>(iv) To have engaged in, or aided and abetted, a material and knowing violation of the Safety and Soundness Act, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, or the rules or regulations issued under those statutes, or any other applicable law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(v) To have engaged in contemptuous conduct before FHFA;
</P>
<P>(vi) With intent to defraud in any manner, to have willfully and knowingly deceived, misled, or threatened any client or prospective client; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Within the last 10 years, to have been convicted of an offense involving moral turpitude, dishonesty, or breach of trust, if the conviction has not been reversed on appeal. A conviction within the meaning of this paragraph shall be deemed to have occurred when the convicting court enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken and includes a judgment or an order on a plea of <I>nolo contendere</I> or on consent, regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.
</P>
<P>(2) Suspension or revocation on the grounds set forth in paragraphs (a)(1)(ii) through (vii) of this section shall only be ordered upon a further finding that the individual's conduct or character was sufficiently egregious as to justify suspension or revocation. Suspension or disbarment under this paragraph shall continue until the applicant has been reinstated by the Director for good cause shown or until, in the case of a suspension, the suspension period has expired.
</P>
<P>(3) If the final order against the respondent is for censure, the individual may be permitted to practice before FHFA, but such individual's future representations may be subject to conditions designed to promote high standards of conduct. If a written letter of censure is issued, a copy will be maintained in FHFA's files.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory suspension and disbarment.</I> (1) Any counsel who has been and remains suspended or disbarred by a court of the United States or of any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia; any accountant or other licensed expert whose license to practice has been revoked in any State, commonwealth, possession or territory of the United States, or the District of Columbia; any person who has been and remains suspended or barred from practice by or before the Department of Housing and Urban Development, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the National Credit Union Administration, the Federal Housing Finance Board, the Farm Credit Administration, the Securities and Exchange Commission, or the Commodity Futures Trading Commission is also suspended automatically from appearing or practicing before FHFA. A disbarment or suspension within the meaning of this paragraph shall be deemed to have occurred when the disbarring or suspending agency or tribunal enters its judgment or order, regardless of whether an appeal is pending or could be taken and regardless of whether a violation is admitted in the consent.
</P>
<P>(2) A suspension or disbarment from practice before FHFA under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall continue until the person suspended or disbarred is reinstated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notices to be filed.</I> (1) Any individual appearing or practicing before FHFA who is the subject of an order, judgment, decree, or finding of the types set forth in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall file promptly with the Director a copy thereof, together with any related opinion or statement of the agency or tribunal involved.
</P>
<P>(2) Any individual appearing or practicing before FHFA who is or within the last 10 years has been convicted of a felony or of a misdemeanor that resulted in a sentence of prison term or in a fine or restitution order totaling more than $5,000 promptly shall file a notice with the Director. The notice shall include a copy of the order imposing the sentence or fine, together with any related opinion or statement of the court involved.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reinstatement.</I> (1) Unless otherwise ordered by the Director, an application for reinstatement for good cause may be made in writing by a person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (a)(1) of this section at any time more than three years after the effective date of the suspension or disbarment and, thereafter, at any time more than one year after the person's most recent application for reinstatement. An applicant for reinstatement hereunder may, in the Director's sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.
</P>
<P>(2) An application for reinstatement for good cause by any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may be filed at any time, but not less than one year after the applicant's most recent application. An applicant for reinstatement for good cause hereunder may, in the Director's sole discretion, be afforded a hearing.
</P>
<P>If, however, all the grounds for suspension or disbarment under paragraph (b)(1) of this section have been removed by a reversal of the order of suspension or disbarment or by termination of the underlying suspension or disbarment, any person suspended or disbarred under paragraph (b)(1) of this section may apply immediately for reinstatement and shall be reinstated by FHFA upon written application notifying FHFA that the grounds have been removed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Conferences.</I> (1) <I>General rule.</I> The FHFA counsel of record may confer with a proposed respondent concerning allegations of misconduct or other grounds for censure, disbarment, or suspension, regardless of whether a proceeding for censure, disbarment or suspension has been commenced. If a conference results in a stipulation in connection with a proceeding in which the individual is the respondent, the stipulation may be entered in the record at the request of either party to the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Resignation or voluntary suspension.</I> In order to avoid the institution of or a decision in a disbarment or suspension proceeding, a person who practices before FHFA may consent to censure, suspension, or disbarment from practice. At the discretion of the Director, the individual may be censured, suspended, or disbarred in accordance with the consent offered.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Hearings under this section.</I> Hearings conducted under this section shall be conducted in substantially the same manner as other hearings under this part, except that in proceedings to terminate an existing FHFA suspension or disbarment order, the person seeking the termination of the order shall bear the burden of going forward with an application and with proof and that the Director may, in the Director's sole discretion, direct that any proceeding to terminate an existing suspension or disbarment by FHFA be limited to written submissions. All hearings held under this section shall be closed to the public unless the Director, on the Director's own motion or upon the request of a party, otherwise directs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1209.76-1209.79" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1209.76-1209.79   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Civil Money Penalty Inflation Adjustments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.80" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.80   Inflation adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>The maximum amount of each civil money penalty within FHFA's jurisdiction, as set by the Safety and Soundness Act and thereafter adjusted in accordance with the Inflation Adjustment Act, is as follows:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1209.80
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">U.S. Code citation
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Description
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Catch-up 


<br/>adjusted 

<br/>maximum 

<br/>penalty 

<br/>amount
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">First Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">$14,575
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Second Tier</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,876
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 4636(b)(4)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Third Tier (Regulated Entity or Entity-Affiliated party)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2,915,057
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 4585(b)(1)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum penalty for failure described in section 1345(a)(1), for each day that the failure occurs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">145,754
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 U.S.C. 4585(b)(2)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Maximum penalty for failure described in section 1345(a)(2), (3), or (4), for each day that the failure occurs</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72,876</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.81" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.81   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicability to penalties under 12 U.S.C. 4636.</I> The inflation adjustments set out in § 1209.80 for 12 U.S.C. 4636 shall apply to civil money penalties assessed in accordance with the provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4636, and subparts B and C of this part, for violations occurring on or after January 15, 2025.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability to penalties under 12 U.S.C. 4585.</I> The inflation adjustments set out in § 1209.80 for 12 U.S.C. 4585 shall apply to civil money penalties assessed under the provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4585 and subpart C of this part. The inflation adjusted maximum civil money penalty amounts shall apply to violations occurring on or after the effective date of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1209.82-1209.99" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1209.82-1209.99   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Suspension or Removal of an Entity-Affiliated Party Charged With Felony</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.100" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.6.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.100   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Subpart F of this part applies to informal hearings afforded to any entity-affiliated party who has been suspended, removed, or prohibited from further participation in the business affairs of a regulated entity by a notice or order issued by the Director under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.101" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.6.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.101   Suspension, removal, or prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of suspension or prohibition.</I> (1) As provided by section 1377(h)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1)), if an entity-affiliated party is charged in any information, indictment, or complaint, with the commission of or participation in a crime that involves dishonesty or breach of trust that is punishable by imprisonment for more than one year under State or Federal law, the Director may, if continued service or participation by such party may pose a threat to the regulated entity or impair public confidence in the regulated entity, by written notice served upon such party, suspend such party from office or prohibit such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of any regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(2) In accordance with section 1377(h)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1)), the notice of suspension or prohibition is effective upon service. A copy of such notice will be served on the relevant regulated entity. The notice will state the basis for the suspension and the right of the party to request an informal hearing as provided in § 1209.102. The suspension or prohibition is to remain in effect until the information, indictment, or complaint is finally disposed of, or until terminated by the Director, or otherwise as provided in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Order of removal or prohibition.</I> As provided by section 1377(h)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(2)), at such time as a judgment of conviction is entered (or pretrial diversion or other plea bargain is agreed to) in connection with a crime as referred to above in paragraph (a) (the “conviction”), and the conviction is no longer subject to appellate review, the Director may, if continued service or participation by such party may pose a threat to the regulated entity or impair public confidence in the regulated entity, issue an order removing such party from office or prohibiting such party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity without the prior written consent of the Director. A copy of such order will be served on the relevant regulated entity, at which time the entity-affiliated party shall immediately cease to be a director or officer of the regulated entity. The notice will state the basis for the removal or prohibition and the right of the party to request a hearing as provided in § 1209.102.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective period.</I> Unless terminated by the Director, a notice of suspension or order of removal issued under section 1377(h)(1) or (2) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(1), (2)) shall remain effective and outstanding until the completion of any informal hearing or appeal provided under section 1377(h)(4) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(4)). The pendency of an informal hearing, if any, does not stay any notice of suspension or prohibition or order of removal or prohibition under subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effect of acquittal.</I> As provided by section 1377(h)(2)(B)(ii) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)(2)(B)(ii)), a finding of not guilty or other disposition of the charge does not preclude the Director from instituting removal, suspension, or prohibition proceedings under section 1377(a) or (b) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(a), (b)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Preservation of authority.</I> Action by the Director under section 1377(h) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a(h)), shall not be deemed as a predicate or a bar to any other regulatory, supervisory, or enforcement action under the Safety and Soundness Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.102" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.6.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.102   Hearing on removal or suspension.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Hearing requests</I>—(1) <I>Deadline.</I> An entity-affiliated party served with a notice of suspension or prohibition or an order of removal or prohibition, within 30 days of service of such notice or order, may submit to the Director a written request to appear before the Director to show that his or her continued service or participation in the affairs of the regulated entity will not pose a threat to the interests of, or threaten to impair public confidence in, the Enterprises or the Banks. The request must be addressed to the Director and sent to the Federal Housing Finance Agency at 400 Seventh Street, SW., Eighth Floor, Washington, DC 20219, by:
</P>
<P>(i) Overnight U.S. Postal Service delivery or delivery by a reliable commercial delivery service for same day or overnight delivery to the address stated above; or
</P>
<P>(ii) First class, registered, or certified mail via the U.S. Postal Service.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Waiver of appearance.</I> An entity-affiliated party may elect in writing to waive his or her right to appear to make a statement in person or through counsel and have the matter determined solely on the basis of his or her written submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and timing of hearing.</I> (1) <I>Informal hearing.</I> Hearings under subpart F of this part are not subject to the formal adjudication provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (5 U.S.C. 554 through 557), and are not conducted under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Setting of the hearing.</I> Upon receipt of a timely request for a hearing, the Director will give written notice and set a date within 30 days for the entity-affiliated party to appear, personally, or through counsel, before the Director or his or her designee(s) to submit written materials (or, at the discretion of the Director, oral testimony and oral argument) to make the necessary showing under paragraph (a) of this section. The entity-affiliated party may submit a written request for additional time for the hearing to commence, without undue delay, and the Director may extend the hearing date for a specified time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Oral testimony.</I> The Director or his or her designee, in his or her discretion, may deny, permit, or limit oral testimony in the hearing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Conduct of the hearing</I>—(1) <I>Hearing officer.</I> A hearing under this section may be presided over by the Director or one or more designated FHFA employees, except that an officer designated by the Director (hearing officer) to conduct the hearing may not have been involved in an underlying criminal proceeding, a factually related proceeding, or an enforcement proceeding in a prosecutorial or investigative role. This provision does not preclude the Director otherwise from seeking information on the matters at issue from appropriate FHFA staff on an as needed basis consistent with § 1209.101(d)(2).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submissions.</I> All submissions of the requestor and FHFA's counsel of record must be received by the Director or his or her designee no later than 10 days prior to the date set for the hearing. FHFA may respond in writing to the requestor's submission and serve the requestor (and any other interested party such as the regulated entity) not later than the date fixed by the hearing officer for submissions or other time period as the hearing officer may require.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Procedures.</I> (i) <I>Fact finding authority of the hearing officer.</I> The hearing officer shall determine all procedural matters under subpart F of this part, permit or limit the appearance of witnesses in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section, and impose time limits as he or she deems reasonable. All oral statements, witness testimony, if permitted, and documents submitted that are found by the hearing officer to be materially relevant to the proceeding and not unduly repetitious may be considered. The hearing officer may question any person appearing in the proceeding, and may make any ruling reasonably necessary to ensure the full and fair presentation of evidence and to facilitate the efficient and effective operation of the proceeding.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Statements to an officer.</I> Any oral or written statement made to the Director, a hearing officer, or any FHFA employee under subpart F of this part is deemed to be a statement made to a Federal officer or agency within the meaning of 18 U.S.C. 1006.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Oral testimony.</I> If either the requestor or FHFA counsel of record desires to present oral testimony to supplement the party's written submission he or she must make a request in writing to the hearing officer not later than 10 days prior to the hearing, as provided in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, or within a shorter time period as permitted by the hearing officer for good cause shown. The request should include the name of the individual(s), a statement generally descriptive of the expected testimony, and the reasons why such oral testimony is warranted. The hearing officer generally will not admit witnesses, absent a strong showing of specific and compelling need. Witnesses, if admitted, shall be sworn.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Written materials.</I> Each party must file a copy of any affidavit, memorandum, or other written material to be presented at the hearing with the hearing officer and serve copies on any other interested party (such as the affected regulated entity) not later than 10 days prior to commencement of the informal hearing, as provided in paragraph (c)(2), or within a shorter time period as permitted by the hearing officer for good cause shown.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Relief.</I> The purpose of the hearing is to determine whether the suspension or prohibition from participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order removing such party from office or prohibiting the party from further participation in any manner in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity will be rescinded or otherwise modified.
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Ultimate question.</I> In deciding on any request for relief from a notice of suspension or prohibition, the hearing officer shall not consider the ultimate question of guilt or innocence with respect to the outstanding criminal charge(s). In deciding on a request for relief from a removal order, the hearing officer shall not consider challenges to or efforts to impeach the validity of the conviction. In either case, the hearing officer may consider facts that show the nature of the events on which the conviction or charges were based.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Record.</I> If warranted under the circumstances of the matter, the hearing officer may require that a transcript of the proceedings be prepared at the expense of the requesting party. The hearing officer may order the record be kept open for a reasonable time following the hearing, not to exceed five business days, to permit the filing of additional pertinent submissions for the record. Thereafter, no further submissions are to be admitted to the record, absent good cause shown.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 53607, Aug. 26, 2011,, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1209.103" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.9.6.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1209.103   Recommended and final decisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Recommended decision</I>—(1) <I>Written recommended decision of the hearing officer.</I> Not later than 20 days following the close of the hearing (or if the requestor waived a hearing, from the deadline for submission of the written materials), the hearing officer will serve a copy of the recommended decision on the parties to the proceeding. The recommended decision must include a summary of the findings, the parties' respective arguments, and support for the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Five-day comment period.</I> Not later than five business days after receipt of the recommended decision, the parties shall submit written comments in response to the recommended decision, if any, to the hearing officer. The hearing officer shall not grant any extension of the stated time for responses to a recommended decision.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recommended decision to be transmitted to the Director.</I> The hearing officer shall promptly forward the recommended decision, and written comments, if any, and the record to the Director for final determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision of the Director.</I> Within 60 days of the date of the hearing, or if the requestor waived a hearing the date fixed for the hearing, the Director will notify the entity-affiliated party in writing by registered mail of the disposition of his or her request for relief from the notice of suspension or prohibition or the order of removal or prohibition. The decision will state whether the suspension or prohibition will be continued, terminated, or otherwise modified, or whether the order removing such party from any participation in the affairs of the regulated entity will be rescinded or otherwise modified. The decision will contain a brief statement of the basis for an adverse determination. The Director's decision is a final and non-appealable order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effect of notice or order.</I> A removal or prohibition by order shall remain in effect until terminated by the Director. A suspension or prohibition by notice remains in effect until the criminal charge is disposed of or until terminated by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reconsideration.</I> A suspended or removed entity-affiliated party subsequently may petition the Director to reconsider the final decision any time after the expiration of a 12-month period from the date of the decision, but no such request may be made within 12 months of a previous petition for reconsideration. An entity-affiliated party must submit a petition for reconsideration in writing; the petition shall state the specific grounds for relief from the notice of suspension or order or removal and be supported by a memorandum and any other documentation materially relevant to the request for reconsideration. No hearing will be held on a petition for reconsideration, and the Director will inform the requestor of the disposition of the reconsideration request in a timely manner. A decision on a request for reconsideration shall not constitute an appealable order.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1211" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1211—PROCEDURES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 64665, Oct. 31, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Approval</I> means a written statement issued to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance approving a transaction, activity, or item that requires FHFA approval under a statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order.
</P>
<P><I>Non-Objection Letter</I> means a written statement issued to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance providing that FHFA does not object to a proposed transaction or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory Interpretation</I> means a written interpretation issued by the FHFA General Counsel with respect to the application of a statute, rule, regulation, or order to a proposed transaction or activity.
</P>
<P><I>Requester</I> means an entity that has submitted an application for a Waiver or Approval or a request for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation.
</P>
<P><I>Waiver</I> means a written statement issued by the Director to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance that waives a provision, restriction, or requirement of an FHFA rule, regulation, policy, or order, or a required submission of information, not otherwise required by law, in connection with a particular transaction or activity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Waivers, Approvals, Non-Objection Letters, and Regulatory Interpretations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.2   Waivers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Director reserves the right, in his or her discretion and in connection with a particular transaction or activity, to waive any provision, restriction, or requirement of this chapter (or of any Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight or Federal Housing Finance Board regulation), or any required submission of information, not otherwise required by law, if such Waiver is not inconsistent with the law and does not adversely affect any substantial existing rights, upon a determination that application of the provision, restriction, or requirement would adversely affect achievement of the purposes of the Authorizing Statutes or the Safety and Soundness Act, or upon a requester's showing of good cause. The Director also reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede any previously issued Waiver, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for a Waiver in accordance with § 1211.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.3   Approvals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may grant requests submitted by an Enterprise or by a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, seeking approval of any transaction, activity, or item that requires FHFA approval under any applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede an Approval, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may apply for an Approval in accordance with § 1211.6, unless alternative application procedures are prescribed by the applicable statute, rule, regulation, policy, or order for the transaction, activity, or item at issue.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation.</I> The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, as appropriate, may, in their discretion, prescribe additional or alternative procedures for any application for approval of a transaction, activity, or item.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.4   Non-Objection Letters.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Deputy Directors for Enterprise Regulation and for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or their designees, may, in their discretion, issue to an Enterprise or to a Bank or the Office of Finance, respectively, a Non-Objection Letter stating that FHFA does not object to a proposed transaction or activity for supervisory, regulatory, or policy reasons. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Non-Objection Letter, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Non-Objection Letter in accordance with § 1211.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.5   Regulatory Interpretations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The General Counsel may, in his or her discretion, issue a Regulatory Interpretation to a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, providing guidance with respect to the application of any applicable statute, rule, regulation, or order to a proposed transaction or activity. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede a Regulatory Interpretation, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requests.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may request a Regulatory Interpretation in accordance with § 1211.6.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1211.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.10.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1211.6   Submission requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Applications for a Waiver or Approval and requests for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation shall comply with the requirements of this section and shall pertain to regulatory matters relating to the Banks or Enterprises, and not to conservatorship matters.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Filing.</I> Each application or request shall be in writing. A Bank or the Office of Finance shall submit its filing to the Deputy Director for the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, and an Enterprise shall submit its filing to the Deputy Director for Enterprise Regulation. Applications for regulatory interpretations shall be submitted also to the General Counsel.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorization.</I> An application for a Waiver or Approval and a request for a Non-Objection Letter or Regulatory Interpretation shall be signed by the principal executive officer or other authorized executive officer of the regulated entity or by the chairperson of the board of directors or authorized executive officer of the Office of Finance, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Information requirements.</I> Each application or request shall contain:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the requester, and the name, title, business address, telephone number, and business electronic mail address, if any, of the official filing the application or request on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, business address, telephone number, and business electronic mail address, if any, of a contact person from whom FHFA staff may seek additional information if necessary;
</P>
<P>(3) The section numbers of the particular provisions of the applicable statutes or rules, regulations, policies, or orders to which the application or request relates;
</P>
<P>(4) Identification of the determination or relief requested, including any alternative relief requested if the primary relief is denied, and a clear statement of why such relief is needed;
</P>
<P>(5) A statement of the particular facts and circumstances giving rise to the application or request and identifying all relevant legal and factual issues;
</P>
<P>(6) References to all other relevant authorities that the regulated entity or Office of Finance believes should be considered in evaluating the application or request, including the Authorizing Statutes, Safety and Soundness Act, FHFA rules, regulations, policies, orders, judicial decisions, administrative decisions, relevant statutory interpretations, and policy statements;
</P>
<P>(7) References to any Waivers, Non-Objection Letters, Approvals, or Regulatory Interpretations issued in the past in response to circumstances similar to those surrounding the request or application;
</P>
<P>(8) For any application or request involving interpretation of the Authorizing Statutes, Safety and Soundness Act, or FHFA regulations, a reasoned opinion of counsel supporting the relief or interpretation sought and distinguishing any adverse authority;
</P>
<P>(9) Any other non-duplicative, relevant supporting documentation; and
</P>
<P>(10) A certification by a person with knowledge of the facts that the representations made in the application or request are accurate and complete. The following form of certification is sufficient for this purpose: “I hereby certify that the statements contained in the submission are true and complete to the best of my knowledge. [Name and Title].”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exceptions.</I> In any given matter or class of matters, the Director, the Deputy Director for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, the Deputy Director for Enterprise Regulation, or the General Counsel, as appropriate, may accept an application or request that does not comply with the requirements of this section, for supervisory reasons or administrative efficiency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withdrawal.</I> Once filed, an application or request may be withdrawn only upon written request, and only if FHFA has not yet acted on the application or request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1212" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1212—POST-EMPLOYMENT RESTRICTION FOR SENIOR EXAMINERS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4526, 12 U.S.C. 4517(e).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 51075, Oct. 5, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Post-Employment Restriction for Senior Examiners</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1212.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1212.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart sets forth a one-year post-employment restriction applicable to senior examiners of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA). This restriction is in addition to the post-employment restriction applicable to employees of FHFA under 12 U.S.C. 4523.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1212.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1212.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of subpart B of this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Consultant</I> means a person who works directly on matters for, or on behalf of, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an officer or employee of FHFA, including a special Government employee.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Home Loan Bank</I> or <I>Bank</I> means a Bank established under the Federal Home Loan Bank Act; the term “Federal Home Loan Banks” means, collectively, all the Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Finance</I> means the Office of Finance of the Federal Home Loan Bank System, or any successor thereto.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, any Federal Home Loan Bank; the term “regulated entities” means, collectively, the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof, and the Federal Home Loan Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Safety and Soundness Act</I> means the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended by the Federal Housing Finance Regulatory Reform Act of 2008, Division A of the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, Public Law No. 110-289, 122 Stat. 2654 (2008).
</P>
<P><I>Senior examiner</I> means an employee of FHFA who has been:
</P>
<P>(1) Authorized by FHFA to conduct examinations or inspections on behalf of FHFA;
</P>
<P>(2) Assigned continuing, broad and lead responsibility for examining a regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Assigned responsibilities for examining, inspecting and supervising the regulated entity or the Office of Finance that—
</P>
<P>(i) Represents a substantial portion of the employee's assigned responsibilities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Requires the employee to interact routinely with officers or employees of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1212.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1212.3   Post-employment restriction for senior examiners.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibition.</I> An employee of FHFA who serves as the senior examiner of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for two or more months during the last 12 months of his or her employment with FHFA may not, within one year after leaving the employment of FHFA, knowingly accept compensation as an employee, officer, director, or consultant from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance unless the Director grants a waiver pursuant to § 1212.4.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date.</I> The post-employment restriction in paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any officer or employee of FHFA or any former officer or employee of FHFA who ceased to be an officer or employee of FHFA before November 4, 2009.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1212.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1212.4   Waiver.</HEAD>
<P>At the written request of a senior examiner or former senior examiner, the Director may waive the post-employment restriction in § 1212.3 if he or she certifies, in writing, and on a case-by-case basis, that granting a waiver of such restriction does not affect the integrity of the supervisory program of FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1212.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.11.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1212.5   Penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A senior examiner who, after leaving the employment of FHFA, violates the restriction set forth in § 1212.3 shall be subject to one or both of the following penalties—
</P>
<P>(1) An order:
</P>
<P>(i) Removing the individual from office at the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or prohibiting the individual from further participation in the affairs of the relevant regulated entity or the Office of Finance for a period of up to five years; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Prohibiting the individual from participating in the affairs of any regulated entity or the Office of Finance for a period of up to five years; and/or
</P>
<P>(2) A civil money penalty of not more than $250,000.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other penalties.</I> The penalties set forth in paragraph (a) of this section are not exclusive, and a senior examiner who violates the restrictions in § 1212.3 also may be subject to other administrative, civil, or criminal remedies or penalties as provided in law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedural rights.</I> The procedures applicable to actions under paragraph (a) of this section are those provided in the Safety and Soundness Act under section 1376, in connection with the imposition of a civil money penalty; under section 1377, in connection with a removal and prohibition order (12 U.S.C. 4636 and 4636a, respectively); and under any regulations issued by FHFA implementing such procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1213" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1213—OFFICE OF THE OMBUDSMAN
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511(b)(2), 4517(i), and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 7481, Feb 10, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1213.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to establish within FHFA the Office of the Ombudsman (Office) under section 1317(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4517(i)), as amended, and to set forth the authorities and duties of the Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) This part applies to complaints and appeals from any regulated entity and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of such regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) The establishment of the Office does not alter or limit any other right or procedure associated with appeals, complaints, or administrative matters submitted by a person regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance under any other law or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Business relationship</I> means any existing or potential interaction between a person and a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for the provision of goods or services. The term <I>business relationship</I> does not include any interaction between a mortgagor and a regulated entity that directly or indirectly owns, purchased, guarantees, or sold the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Director</I> means the Director of FHFA or his or her designee.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Finance</I> means the Office of Finance of the Federal Home Loan Bank System.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an organization, business entity, or individual that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, or that represents the interests of a person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance. The term <I>person</I> does not include an individual borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate, and any Federal Home Loan Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.3   Authorities and duties of the Ombudsman.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Office shall be headed by an Ombudsman, who shall consider complaints and appeals from any regulated entity, the Office of Finance, and any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of such regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA. In considering any complaint or appeal under this part, the Ombudsman shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct inquiries and submit findings of fact and recommendations to the Director concerning resolution of the complaint or appeal, and
</P>
<P>(2) Act as a facilitator or mediator to advance the resolution of the complaint or appeal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other duties.</I> The Ombudsman shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Establish procedures for carrying out the functions of the Office,
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and publish procedures for receiving and considering complaints and appeals, and
</P>
<P>(3) Report annually to the Director on the activities of the Office, or more frequently, as determined by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.4   Complaints and appeals from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Complaints.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> Any regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Matters subject to complaint.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA that is not subject to appeal or in litigation, arbitration, or mediation. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to complaint.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Appeals.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> Any regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit an appeal in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Matters subject to appeal.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit an appeal regarding any final, written regulatory or supervisory conclusion, decision, or examination rating by FHFA. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to appeal.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Matters not subject to appeal.</I> Matters for which there is an existing avenue of appeal or for which there is another forum for appeal; non-final decisions or conclusions; and matters in ongoing litigation, arbitration, or mediation, unless there has been a breakdown in the process, may not be appealed. Matters not subject to appeal include, but are not limited to, appointments of conservators or receivers, preliminary examination conclusions, formal enforcement decisions, formal and informal rulemakings, Freedom of Information Act appeals, final FHFA decisions subject to judicial review, and matters within the jurisdiction of the FHFA Inspector General. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are not subject to appeal.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of filing an appeal.</I> An appeal under this section does not excuse a regulated entity or the Office of Finance from complying with any regulatory or supervisory decision while the appeal is pending. However, the Director, upon consideration of a written request, may waive compliance with a regulatory or supervisory decision during the pendency of the appeal.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.5   Complaints from a person.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Any person that has a business relationship with a regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a complaint in accordance with procedures established by the Ombudsman.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Matters subject to complaint.</I> A person may submit a complaint regarding any matter relating to the regulation and supervision of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance by FHFA that is not a matter in litigation, arbitration, or mediation. The Ombudsman may further define what matters are subject to complaints.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.6   No retaliation.</HEAD>
<P>Neither FHFA nor any FHFA employee may retaliate against a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or a person for submitting a complaint or appeal under this part. The Ombudsman shall receive and address claims of retaliation. Upon receiving a complaint, the Ombudsman, in coordination with the Inspector General, shall examine the basis of the alleged retaliation. Upon completion of the examination, the Ombudsman shall report the findings to the Director with recommendations, including a recommendation to take disciplinary action against any FHFA employee found to have retaliated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1213.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.12.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1213.7   Confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>The Ombudsman shall ensure that safeguards exist to preserve confidentiality. If a party requests that information and materials remain confidential, the Ombudsman shall not disclose the information or materials, without approval of the party, except to appropriate reviewing or investigating officials, such as the Inspector General, or as required by law. However, the resolution of certain complaints (such as complaints of retaliation against a regulated entity or the Office of Finance) may not be possible if the identity of the party remains confidential. In such cases, the Ombudsman shall discuss with the party the circumstances limiting confidentiality.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1214" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.13" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1214—AVAILABILITY OF NON-PUBLIC INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 552; 12 U.S.C. 4501, 4513, 4522, 4526, 4639.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 39958, July 3, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1214.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.13.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1214.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Confidential supervisory information</I> means information prepared or received by FHFA that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The information is not a document prepared by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for its own business purposes that is in its possession;
</P>
<P>(2) The information is exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (1966); and
</P>
<P>(3) The information—(i) Consists of reports of examination, inspection and visitation, confidential operating and condition reports, and any information derived from, related to, or contained in such reports, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is gathered by FHFA in the course of any investigation, suspicious activity report, cease-and-desist order, civil money penalty enforcement order, suspension, removal or prohibition order, or other supervisory or enforcement orders or actions taken under the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, Public Law 102-550, 122 Stat. 2654.
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure</I> means release or divulgence of information by any person to a person outside of FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA employee</I> means strictly for the purpose of this regulation, any person employed by FHFA, including any current or former officer, intern, agent, contractor or contractor personnel, or detailee of FHFA, and any person employed by the FHFA Office of the Inspector General (FHFA-OIG), including any current or former officer, intern, agent, contractor or contractor personnel, or detailee of FHFA-OIG.
</P>
<P><I>Non-public information</I> means information that FHFA has not made public that is created by, obtained by, or communicated to an FHFA employee in connection with the performance of official duties, regardless of who is in possession of the information. This includes confidential supervisory information as defined above. It does not include information or documents that FHFA has disclosed under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552; 12 CFR part 1202), or Privacy Act of 1974 (5 U.S.C. 552a; 12 CFR part 1204). It also does not include specific information or documents that were previously disclosed to the public at large or information or documents that are customarily furnished to the public at large in the course of the performance of official FHFA duties, including but not limited to: Disclosures made by the Director pursuant to 24 CFR subpart F, and any FHFA successor rules; the annual report that FHFA submits to Congress pursuant to the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>), press releases, FHFA blank forms, and materials published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E>
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means individual or business entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1214.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.13.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1214.2   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to control the dissemination of non-public information, which includes confidential supervisory information, and maintain its controlled, sensitive, privileged, or proprietary nature, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part imposes a broad-based prohibition against unauthorized disclosure of any non-public information. This part does not supersede the regulations at 12 CFR part 1202 (governing disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act); 12 CFR part 1204 (governing disclosure under the Privacy Act); and the sections describing permitted disclosures in any FHFA rules on Federal Home Loan Bank Information Sharing or on the FHFA Public Use Database.
</P>
<P>(c) These provisions also do not supersede or otherwise alter the rights or liabilities created by 5 U.S.C. 7211 (governing disclosures to Congress); 5 U.S.C. 2302(b)(8) (governing disclosures of illegality, waste, fraud, abuse, or public health or safety threats); or 12 U.S.C. 3401 (governing disclosure of financial institution customer information).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1214.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.13.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1214.3   General rule.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general, Non-FHFA Employees.</I> The Director makes available to each regulated entity a copy of FHFA's report of examination of that regulated entity. The report of examination and all other confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA and is provided to the regulated entity for its confidential internal use only. Under no circumstance shall any person in possession or control of confidential supervisory information make public or disclose, in any manner, the confidential supervisory information, or any portion of the contents thereof, except as authorized in writing by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general, FHFA Employees.</I> Except as authorized in writing by the Director, no FHFA employee in possession or control of non-public information may disclose or permit the use or disclosure of such information in any manner or for any purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Persons possessing confidential supervisory information.</I> All confidential supervisory information, for which the Director authorizes disclosure, remains the property of FHFA and may not be used or disclosed for any purpose other than that authorized under this part without the prior written permission of the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No Waiver.</I> FHFA's disclosure of non-public information to any person does not constitute a waiver by FHFA of any privilege or FHFA's right to control, supervise, or impose limitations on, the subsequent use and disclosure of the non-public information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Penalties, Confidential Supervisory Information.</I> Any person that discloses or uses confidential supervisory information except as authorized under this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. In addition to those penalties, FHFA, regulated entity, Office of Finance, affiliate (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20)), or entity-affiliated party (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4502(11)) employees may be subject to appropriate administrative, enforcement, or disciplinary proceedings.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Penalties, Non-Public Information.</I> Any FHFA employee that discloses or uses non-public information except as authorized under this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641, other applicable laws, and appropriate administrative, enforcement, or disciplinary proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1214.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.13.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1214.4   Exceptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FHFA Employees.</I> Current FHFA employees may disclose or permit the disclosure of non-public information to another FHFA employee or regulated entity or the Office of Finance, when necessary and appropriate, for the performance of their official duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulated Entity Agents and Consultants.</I> (1) When necessary and appropriate for regulated entity or Office of Finance business purposes, a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or any director, officer, or employee thereof may disclose confidential supervisory information to any person currently engaged by the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as officer, director, employee, attorney, auditor, or independent auditor (“regulated entity agents”).
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or a director, officer, employee, or agent thereof, also may disclose confidential supervisory information to a consultant under this paragraph if the consultant is under a written contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and the consultant has agreed in writing:
</P>
<P>(i) To abide by the prohibition on the disclosure of confidential supervisory information contained in this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) That it will not use the confidential supervisory information for any purposes other than those stated in its contract to provide services to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Law Enforcement Proceedings.</I> Notwithstanding the general prohibition of disclosure of non-public information, to the minimum extent required by the Inspector General Act, Public Law 95-452, 92 Stat. 1101 (1978), FHFA's Office of Inspector General is permitted under this section to disclose non-public FHFA information without Director approval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Privilege.</I> FHFA retains all privilege claims for non-public information shared under § 1214.4, including, but not limited to attorney-client, attorney-work product, deliberative process, and examination privileges.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1215" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1215—PRODUCTION OF FHFA RECORDS, INFORMATION, AND EMPLOYEE TESTIMONY IN THIRD-PARTY LEGAL PROCEEDINGS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301; 12 U.S.C. 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 39961, July 3, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1215.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.1   Scope and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation sets forth the policies and procedures that must be followed in order to compel an employee of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) to produce records or information, or to provide testimony relating to the employee's official duties, in the context of a legal proceeding. Parties seeking records, information, or testimony must comply with these requirements when submitting demands or requests:
</P>
<P>(b) FHFA intends these provisions to:
</P>
<P>(1) Promote economy and efficiency in its programs and operations;
</P>
<P>(2) Minimize the possibility of involving FHFA in controversial issues not related to its mission and functions;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain FHFA's impartiality;
</P>
<P>(4) Protect employees from being compelled to serve as involuntary witnesses for wholly private interests, or as inappropriate expert witnesses regarding current law or the activities of FHFA; and
</P>
<P>(5) Protect sensitive, confidential information and FHFA's deliberative processes.
</P>
<P>(c) By providing these policies and procedures, FHFA does not waive the sovereign immunity of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) This part provides guidance for FHFA's internal operations. This part does not create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, that a party may rely upon in any legal proceeding against the United States.
</P>
<P>(e) The production of records, information, or testimony pursuant to this part, does not constitute a waiver by FHFA of any privilege.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This regulation applies to demands or requests for records, information, or testimony, in legal proceedings in which FHFA is not a named party.
</P>
<P>(b) This regulation does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Demands or requests for an FHFA employee to testify as to facts or events that are unrelated to his or her official duties or that are unrelated to the functions of FHFA;
</P>
<P>(2) Requests for the release of non-exempt records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552, or the Privacy Act, 5 U.S.C. 552a; or
</P>
<P>(3) Congressional demands or requests for records or testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Confidential supervisory information</I> means information prepared or received by FHFA that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The information is not a document prepared by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance for its own business purposes that is in its possession;
</P>
<P>(2) The information is exempt from the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552 (1966); and
</P>
<P>(3) The information:
</P>
<P>(i) Consists of reports of examination, inspection and visitation, confidential operating and condition reports, and any information derived from, related to, or contained in such reports, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is gathered by FHFA in the course of any investigation, suspicious activity report, cease-and-desist order, civil money penalty enforcement order, suspension, removal or prohibition order, or other supervisory or enforcement orders or actions taken under the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(4) The inclusion of the term “confidential” within the definition of “confidential supervisory information” is not intended to invoke the meaning of “confidential,” as that term is used in Executive Order No. 13526, December 29, 2009 (75 FR 707 (Jan. 5, 2010) (President's order on the classification of National Security Information). Confidential supervisory information is used in part 1215 to refer to the distinct category of information defined in § 1215.3. FHFA used the word “confidential” within the label for this category of information simply to be consistent with the manner in which federal banking agencies refer to similar or identical types of information.
</P>
<P><I>Demand</I> means a subpoena, or an order or other command of a court or other competent authority, for the production of records, information, or testimony that is issued in a legal proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any current or former officer or employee of FHFA or of FHFA-OIG;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other individual hired through contractual agreement by or on behalf of FHFA who has performed or is performing services under such an agreement for FHFA; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any individual who has served or is serving in any consulting or advisory capacity to FHFA, whether formal or informal.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Home Loan Bank</I> means a bank established under the authority of 12 U.S.C. 1423(a).
</P>
<P><I>FHFA</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency including the FHFA-OIG.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA Counsel</I> means an attorney in FHFA's Office of General Counsel.
</P>
<P><I>General Counsel</I> means FHFA's General Counsel or a person within FHFA's Office of General Counsel to whom the General Counsel has delegated responsibilities under this part.
</P>
<P><I>Legal proceeding</I> means any matter before a court of law, administrative board or tribunal, commission, administrative law judge, hearing officer, or other body that conducts a legal or administrative proceeding. Legal proceeding includes all phases of litigation.
</P>
<P><I>Produce</I> means provide, disclose, expose, or grant access to.
</P>
<P><I>Records or information</I> means, regardless of the person or entity in possession:
</P>
<P>(1) All documents and materials that are FHFA agency records under the Freedom of Information Act, 5 U.S.C. 552;
</P>
<P>(2) All other documents and materials contained in FHFA files; and
</P>
<P>(3) All other information or materials acquired by an FHFA employee in the performance of his or her official duties or because of his or her official status, including confidential supervisory information.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> has the same meaning as set forth in 12 U.S.C. 4502(20). For this regulation's purposes, “regulated entity” also includes:
</P>
<P>(1) The Office of Finance; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any current or former director, officer, employee, contractor or agent of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Request</I> means any informal request, by whatever method, in connection with a legal proceeding, seeking production of records, information, or testimony that has not been ordered by a court or other competent authority.
</P>
<P><I>Testimony</I> means any written or oral statements, including depositions, answers to interrogatories, affidavits, declarations, and recorded interviews made by an individual about FHFA information in connection with a legal proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.4   General prohibition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) No employee may produce records or information, or provide any testimony related to the records or information, in response to any demand or request without prior written approval to do so from the Director or the Director's designee.
</P>
<P>(b) Any person or entity that fails to comply with this part may be subject to the penalties provided in 18 U.S.C. 641 and other applicable laws. A current employee also may be subject to administrative or disciplinary proceedings.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.5   Delegation.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent permissible by statute, the Director may delegate his or her authority under this part to any FHFA employee and the General Counsel may delegate his or her authority under this part to any FHFA Counsel.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.6   Factors FHFA may consider.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may grant an employee permission to testify regarding agency matters, and to produce records and information, in response to a demand or request. Among the relevant factors that the Director may consider in making this determination are whether:
</P>
<P>(a) This part's purposes are met;
</P>
<P>(b) FHFA has an interest in the decision that may be rendered in the legal proceeding;
</P>
<P>(c) Approving the demand or request would assist or hinder FHFA in performing statutory duties or use FHFA resources;
</P>
<P>(d) Production might assist or hinder employees in doing their work;
</P>
<P>(e) The records, information, or testimony can be obtained from other sources. (Concerning testimony, “other sources” means a non-agency employee, or an agency employee other than the employee named).
</P>
<P>(f) The demand or request is unduly burdensome or otherwise inappropriate under the rules of discovery or procedure governing the case or matter in which the demand or request arose;
</P>
<P>(g) Production of the records, information, or testimony might violate or be inconsistent with a statute, Executive Order, regulation, or other legal authority;
</P>
<P>(h) Production of the records, information, or testimony might reveal confidential or privileged information, trade secrets, or confidential commercial or financial information;
</P>
<P>(i) Production of the records, information, or testimony might impede or interfere with an ongoing law enforcement investigation or proceedings, or compromise constitutional rights;
</P>
<P>(j) Production of the records, information, or testimony might result in FHFA appearing to favor one litigant over another;
</P>
<P>(k) The demand or request pertains to documents that were produced by another agency;
</P>
<P>(l) The demand or request complies with all other applicable rules;
</P>
<P>(m) The demand or request is sufficiently specific to be answered;
</P>
<P>(n) The relevance of the records, information, or testimony to the purposes for which they are sought, and for which they may be used for substantive evidence;
</P>
<P>(o) Production of the records, information, or employee testimony may implicate a substantial government interest; and
</P>
<P>(p) Any other good cause.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.7   Serving demands and submitting requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) All demands and requests must be in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) Demands must be served and requests must be submitted to the FHFA General Counsel at the following address: General Counsel, Federal Housing Finance Agency, Constitution Center, Eighth Floor, 400 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20219.
</P>
<P>(c) Demands must not be served upon, nor requests submitted to any regulated entity for records, information, or testimony regardless of whether the records, information, or testimony sought are in the possession of, or known by, the regulated entity. If a regulated entity receives a request or demand for records, information, or testimony, the regulated entity must immediately notify the General Counsel and provide FHFA an opportunity to object to the demand or request before responding to the demand or request. Submitting a demand or request to a regulated entity may result in rejection of the demand or request under § 1215.9.
</P>
<P>(d) If an employee receives a request or demand that is not properly routed through FHFA's General Counsel, as required under this section, the employee must promptly notify the General Counsel. An employee's failure to notify the General Counsel is grounds for discipline or other adverse action.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 39961, July 3, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.8   Timing and form of demands and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A party seeking records, information, or testimony must submit a request and receive a rejection before making a demand for records, information, or testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) A demand or request to FHFA must include a detailed description of the basis for the demand or request and comply with the requirements in § 1215.7.
</P>
<P>(c) Demands and requests must be submitted at least 60 days in advance of the date on which the records, information, or testimony is needed. Exceptions to this requirement may be granted upon a showing of compelling need.
</P>
<P>(d) A demand or request for testimony also must include an estimate of the amount of time that the employee will need to devote to the process of testifying (including anticipated travel time and anticipated duration of round trip travel), plus a showing that no document or the testimony of non-agency persons, including retained experts, could suffice in lieu of the employee's testimony.
</P>
<P>(e) Upon submitting a demand or request seeking employee testimony, the requesting party must notify all other parties to the legal proceeding.
</P>
<P>(f) After receiving notice of a demand or request for testimony, but before the testimony occurs, a party to the legal proceeding who did not join in the demand or request and who wishes to question the witness beyond the scope of the testimony sought must submit a separate demand or request within 60 days of receiving the notice required under paragraph (e) of this section and must then comply with paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) Every demand or request must include the legal proceeding's caption and docket number, the forum; the name, address, phone number, State Bar number, and, if available, electronic mail address of counsel to all parties to the legal proceeding (in the case of <I>pro-se</I> parties, substitute the name, address, phone number, and electronic mail address of the <I>pro-se</I> party); and a statement of the demanding or requesting party's interest in the case. In addition, the demanding or requesting party must submit a clear and concise written statement that includes: a summary of the legal and factual issues in the proceeding and a detailed explanation as to how the records, information or testimony will contribute substantially to the resolution of one or more specially identified issues in the legal proceeding. A copy of the complaint or charging document may accompany—but must not be substituted for—the required statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.9   Failure to meet this part's requirements.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA may oppose any demand or request that does not meet the requirements set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.10   Processing demands and requests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director will review every demand or request received and, in accordance with this regulation, determine whether, and under what conditions, to authorize an employee to produce records, information, or testimony.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director will process demands and requests in the order in which they are received. The Director will ordinarily respond within 60 days from the date that the agency receives all information necessary to evaluate the demand or request. However, the time for response will depend upon the scope of the demand or request. The Director may respond outside of the 60-day period:
</P>
<P>(1) Under exigent or unusual circumstances; or
</P>
<P>(2) When FHFA must receive and process records or information in the possession, custody, or control of a third party.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may confer with counsel to parties to a legal proceeding about demands or requests made pursuant to this part. The conference may be <I>ex-parte.</I> Failure to confer in good faith, in order to enable the Director to make an informed determination, may justify rejection of the demand or request.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may rely on sources of information other than those provided by the demanding or requesting parties as bases for making a determination.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director may grant a waiver of any requirement in this section to promote a significant interest of FHFA or the United States, or for other good cause.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.11   FHFA determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director makes FHFA's determinations regarding demands and requests.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director will notify the demanding or requesting party of FHFA's determination, the reasons for the approval or rejection of the demand or request, and any conditions that the Director may impose on the release of records, information, or testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.12   Restrictions that apply to testimony.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may impose conditions or restrictions on testimony, including but not limited to limiting the scope of testimony or requiring the demanding or requesting party and other parties to the legal proceeding to agree that the testimony transcript will be kept under seal or will only be used or made available in the particular legal proceeding for which testimony was requested. The Director may also require a copy of the transcript of testimony to be provided to FHFA at the demanding or requesting party's expense.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may offer an employee's written declaration in lieu of testimony.
</P>
<P>(c) If authorized to testify pursuant to this part, an employee may testify as to facts within his or her personal knowledge, but, unless specifically authorized to do so by the Director, the employee must not:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose confidential or privileged information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Testify as an expert or opinion witness with regard to any matter arising out of the employee's official duties or FHFA's mission or functions. This provision does not apply to requests from the United States for expert or opinion testimony.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may assign FHFA Counsel to be present for an employee's testimony.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.13   Restrictions that apply to records and information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may impose conditions or restrictions on the release of records and information, including but not limited to requiring that parties to the legal proceeding obtain a protective order or execute a confidentiality agreement to limit access and further disclosure, or that parties take other appropriate steps to comply with applicable privacy requirements. The terms of a protective order or confidentiality agreement must be acceptable to the Director. In cases where protective orders or confidentiality agreements have already been executed, the Director may condition the release of records and information on an amendment to the existing protective order or confidentiality agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) If the Director so determines, original agency records may be presented for examination in response to a demand or request, but they are not to be presented as evidence or otherwise used in a manner by which they could lose their status as original records, nor are they to be marked or altered. In lieu of the original records, certified copies will be presented for evidentiary purposes.
</P>
<P>(c) The scope of permissible production is limited to that set forth in the prior, written authorization granted by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) If records or information are produced in connection with a legal proceeding, the demanding or requesting party must:
</P>
<P>(1) Promptly notify all other parties to the legal proceeding that the records or information are FHFA records or information and are subject to this part and any applicable confidentiality agreement or protective order;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide copies of any confidentiality agreement or protective order to all other parties; and
</P>
<P>(3) Retrieve the records or information from the court or other competent authority's file when the court or other competent authority no longer requires the records or information and certify that every party covered by a confidentiality agreement, protective order, or other privacy protection has destroyed all copies of the records or information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.14   Procedure in the event of an adverse FHFA determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedure for seeking reconsideration of FHFA's determination.</I> A demanding or requesting party seeking reconsideration of FHFA's rejection of a demand or request, or of any restrictions on receiving records, information, or testimony, may seek reconsideration of the rejection or restrictions as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of Intention to Petition for Reconsideration.</I> The aggrieved demanding or requesting party may seek reconsideration by filing a written Notice of Intention to Petition for Reconsideration (Notice) within 10 business days of the date of FHFA's determination. The Notice must identify the petitioner, the determination for which reconsideration is being petitioned, and any dates (such as deposition, hearing, or court dates) that are significant to petitioner. The Notice must be served in accordance with § 1215.7.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Petition for Reconsideration.</I> Within five business days of filing Notice, the petitioner must file a Petition for Reconsideration (Petition) in accordance with § 1215.7. The Petition must contain a clear and concise statement of the basis for the reconsideration with supporting authorities. Determinations about petitions for reconsideration are within the discretion of the FHFA Director, and are final.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prerequisite to judicial review.</I> Pursuant to section 704 of the Administrative Procedure Act, 5 U.S.C. 704, a petition to FHFA for reconsideration of a final determination made under the authority of this part is a prerequisite to judicial review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.15   Conflicting court order.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding FHFA's rejection of a demand for records, information, or testimony, if a court or other competent authority orders an FHFA employee to comply with the demand, the employee must promptly notify FHFA's General Counsel of the order, and the employee must respectfully decline to comply, citing <I>United States ex rel. Touhy</I> v. <I>Ragen,</I> 340 U.S. 462 (1951). An employee's failure to notify the General Counsel of a court or other authority's order is grounds for discipline or other adverse action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.16   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may condition the production of records, information, or an employee's appearance on advance payment of reasonable costs to FHFA, which may include but are not limited to those associated with employee search time, copying, computer usage, and certifications.
</P>
<P>(b) Witness fees will include fees, expenses, and allowances prescribed by the rules applicable to the particular legal proceeding. If no fees are prescribed, FHFA will base fees on the rule of the federal district court closest to the location where the witness will appear. Such fees may include but are not limited to time for preparation, travel, and attendance at the legal proceeding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.17   Responses to demands served on nonemployees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) FHFA confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA, and is not to be disclosed to any person without the Director's prior written consent.
</P>
<P>(b) If any person in possession of FHFA confidential supervisory information, is served with a demand in a legal proceeding directing that person to produce FHFA's confidential supervisory information or to testify with respect thereto, such person shall immediately notify the General Counsel of such service, of the testimony requested and confidential supervisory information described in the demand, and of all relevant facts. Such person shall also object to the production of such confidential supervisory information on the basis that the confidential supervisory information is the property of FHFA and cannot be released without FHFA's consent and that production must be sought from FHFA following the procedures set forth in §§ 1215.7, 1215.8, and 1215.14 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1215.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.14.0.1.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1215.18   Inspector General.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the general prohibition of disclosure of records and information, to the minimum extent required by the Inspector General Act, Public Law 9-452 (1978), FHFA's Office of Inspector General is permitted under this section to disclose records and information and permit FHFA-OIG employee testimony without Director approval.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1217" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1217—PROGRAM FRAUD CIVIL REMEDIES ACT


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4501; 12 U.S.C. 4526, 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 31 U.S.C. 3801-3812.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 43034, July 1, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1217.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part:
</P>
<P>(1) Establishes administrative procedures for imposing civil penalties and assessments against persons who make, submit, or present, or cause to be made, submitted, or presented, false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to FHFA or to its agents; and
</P>
<P>(2) Specifies the hearing and appeal rights of persons subject to allegations of liability for such penalties and assessments. Hearings under this part shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act pursuant to part 1209, subpart C, of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies only to persons who make, submit, or present or cause to be made, submitted, or presented false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or written statements to FHFA or to those acting on its behalf in connection with FHFA employment matters and FHFA contracting activities. It does not apply to false claims or statements made in connection with matters or activities related to FHFA's supervisory, regulatory, enforcement, conservatorship, or receivership responsibilities, as other civil and administrative actions available to FHFA to redress fraud in such areas provide for remedies that are equal to or exceed those available through this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Ability to pay</I> is determined based on a review of the respondent's resources available both currently and prospectively, from which FHFA could ultimately recover the total penalty, and as appropriate, assessment, which may be predicted based on historical evidence.
</P>
<P><I>Assessment</I> means a monetary penalty that is in addition to a civil penalty and may be imposed if FHFA has made any payment, transferred property, or provided services for a claim that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of § 1217.3. An assessment may not exceed an amount that is twice the amount of the claim or portion of the claim determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of § 1217.3. A civil penalty other than an assessment may be imposed whether or not FHFA has made a payment, transferred property, or provided services in response to the false claim or statement.
</P>
<P><I>Benefit</I> means anything of value, including, but not limited to, any advantage, preference, privilege, license, permit, favorable decision, ruling, or status.
</P>
<P><I>Claim</I> means any request, demand, or submission:
</P>
<P>(1) Made to FHFA for property, services, or money (including money representing benefits);
</P>
<P>(2) Made to a recipient of property, services, or money from FHFA or to a party to a contract with FHFA:
</P>
<P>(i) For property or services, if FHFA:
</P>
<P>(A) Provided such property or services;
</P>
<P>(B) Provided any portion of the funds for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(C) Will reimburse such recipient or party for the purchase of such property or services; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For the payment of money (including money representing benefits) if the United States:
</P>
<P>(A) Provided any portion of the money requested or demanded; or
</P>
<P>(B) Will reimburse such recipient or party for any portion of the money paid on such request or demand; or
</P>
<P>(3) Made to FHFA, which has the effect of decreasing an obligation to pay or account for property, services, or money.
</P>
<P><I>Investigating official</I> means the FHFA Inspector General, or an officer or employee of the FHFA Office of Inspector General designated by the FHFA Inspector General.
</P>
<P><I>Knows or has reason to know.</I> (1) For purposes of establishing liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802 and this part, means that a person, with respect to a claim or statement:
</P>
<P>(i) Has actual knowledge that the claim or statement is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the claim or statement.
</P>
<P>(2) No proof of specific intent to defraud is required for purposes of establishing liability under 31 U.S.C. 3802 or this part.
</P>
<P><I>Makes</I> a claim or statement includes making, presenting, or submitting the claim or statement and causing the claim or statement to be made, presented, or submitted.
</P>
<P><I>Notice</I> means the charging document served by FHFA to commence an administrative proceeding to impose a civil penalty and, if appropriate, an assessment under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or private organization.
</P>
<P><I>Presiding officer</I> means an administrative law judge appointed under 5 U.S.C. 3105 or detailed to FHFA under 5 U.S.C. 3344.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments</I> is determined based on a generalized analysis made by the reviewing official, based on the limited information available in the report of investigation for purposes of determining whether the allocation of FHFA's resources to any particular action is appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Report of investigation</I> means a report containing the findings and conclusions of an investigation under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., by the investigating official, as described in § 1217.4.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means any person alleged to be liable for a civil penalty or assessment under § 1217.3.
</P>
<P><I>Reviewing official</I> means the General Counsel of FHFA, as so designated by the Director pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3801(a)(8)(A).
</P>
<P><I>Statement</I> means, unless the context indicates otherwise, any representation, certification, affirmation, document, record, or accounting or bookkeeping entry made:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a claim or to obtain the approval or payment of a claim (including relating to eligibility to make a claim); or
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to (including relating to eligibility for) a contract with, or a bid or proposal for a contract with, or benefit from, FHFA or any State, political subdivision of a State, or other party, if FHFA provides any portion of the money or property under such contract or benefit, or if FHFA will reimburse such State, political subdivision, or party for any portion of the money or property under such contract or for such benefit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.3   Basis for civil penalties and assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>False, fictitious or fraudulent claims.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) A civil penalty of not more than $14,308 may be imposed upon a person who makes a claim to FHFA for property, services, or money where the person knows or has reason to know that the claim:


</P>
<P>(i) Is false, fictitious, or fraudulent;
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes or is supported by a written statement that:
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Omits a material fact and, as a result of the omission, is false, fictitious, or fraudulent, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is for payment for the provision of property or services to FHFA which the person has not provided as claimed.
</P>
<P>(2) Each voucher, invoice, claim form, or other individual request or demand for property, services, or money constitutes a separate claim for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) A claim shall be considered made to FHFA, a recipient, or party when the claim is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity, acting for or on behalf of FHFA, the recipient, or the party.
</P>
<P>(4) Each claim for property, services, or money is subject to a civil penalty, without regard to whether the property, services, or money actually is delivered or paid.
</P>
<P>(5) There is no liability under this part if the amount of money or value of property or services claimed exceeds $150,000 as to each claim that a person submits. For purposes of this paragraph (a), a group of claims submitted simultaneously as part of a single transaction shall be considered a single claim.
</P>
<P>(6) If the FHFA has made any payment, transferred property, or provided services for a claim, then FHFA may make an assessment against a person found liable in an amount of up to twice the amount of the claim or portion of the claim that is determined to be in violation of paragraph (a)(1) of this section. This assessment is in addition to the amount of any civil penalty imposed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>False, fictitious or fraudulent statements.</I> 


</P>
<P>(1) A civil penalty of up to $14,308 may be imposed upon a person who makes a written statement to FHFA with respect to a claim, contract, bid or proposal for a contract, or benefit from FHFA that:


</P>
<P>(i) The person knows or has reason to know:
</P>
<P>(A) Asserts a material fact which is false, fictitious, or fraudulent; or
</P>
<P>(B) Omits a material fact and is false, fictitious, or fraudulent as a result of such omission, where the person making, presenting, or submitting such statement has a duty to include such material fact; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contains or is accompanied by an express certification or affirmation of the truthfulness and accuracy of the contents of the statement.
</P>
<P>(2) Each written representation, certification, or affirmation constitutes a separate statement.
</P>
<P>(3) A statement shall be considered made to FHFA when the statement is actually made to an agent, fiscal intermediary, or other entity acting for or on behalf of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Joint and several liability.</I> A civil penalty or assessment may be imposed jointly and severally if more than one person is determined to be liable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 43034, July 1, 2016, as amended at 83 FR 43968, Aug. 29, 2018; 84 FR 9704, Mar. 18, 2019; 85 FR 4905, Jan. 28, 2020; 86 FR 7496, Jan. 29, 2021; 87 FR 1661, Jan. 12, 2022; 87 FR 80025, Dec. 29, 2022; 89 FR 3333, Jan. 18, 2024; 90 FR 4609, Jan. 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.4   Investigation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FHFA may initiate an action under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part against a respondent only upon an investigation by the investigating official.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpoena.</I> Pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3804(a), the investigating official may require by subpoena the production of records and other documents. The subpoena shall state the authority under which it is issued, identify the records sought, and name the person designated to receive the records. The recipient of the subpoena shall provide a certification that the documents sought have been produced, that the documents are not available and the reasons they are not available, or that the documents, suitably identified, have been withheld based upon the assertion of an identified privilege.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Investigation report.</I> If the investigating official concludes that an action under chapter 38 of subtitle III of title 31, U.S.C., and this part may be warranted, the investigating official shall prepare a report containing the findings and conclusions of the investigation, including:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the claim or statement at issue;
</P>
<P>(2) The evidence supporting the allegations;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 1217.3; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claim or statement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Referrals to the Attorney General.</I> The investigating official may refer allegations directly to the Department of Justice for civil relief under other applicable law, as appropriate, or may defer or postpone submitting a report to the reviewing official to avoid interference with a criminal investigation or prosecution.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.5   Request for approval by the Department of Justice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the reviewing official determines that the report of investigation supports an action under this part, the reviewing official must submit a written request to the Department of Justice for approval to issue a notice under § 1217.6.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of request.</I> A request under this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the claim or statement at issue;
</P>
<P>(2) The evidence supporting the allegations;
</P>
<P>(3) An estimate of the amount of money or the value of property, services, or other benefits requested or demanded in violation of § 1217.3;
</P>
<P>(4) Any exculpatory or mitigating circumstances that may relate to the claim or statement; and
</P>
<P>(5) A statement that there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments. Determining there is a reasonable prospect of collecting an appropriate amount of penalties and assessments is separate from determining ability to pay, and may not be considered in determining the amount of any penalty or assessment in any particular case.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.6   Notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Commencement of action; notice.</I> Upon obtaining approval from the Department of Justice, the reviewing official may commence an action to establish liability of the respondent under the Program Fraud Civil Remedies Act of 1986 (31 U.S.C. 3801 <I>et seq.</I>) and this part. To commence an action, the reviewing official must issue a notice to the respondent of the allegations of liability against the respondent. The notice shall be mailed, by registered or certified mail, or shall be delivered through such other means by which delivery may be confirmed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice contents.</I> The notice required under this section shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The allegations of liability against the respondent, including the statutory basis for liability, the claim or statement at issue, and the reasons why liability arises from that claim or statement;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement that the required approval to issue the notice was received from the Department of Justice;
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the penalty and, if applicable, any assessment for which the respondent may be held liable;
</P>
<P>(4) A statement that the respondent may request a hearing by submitting a written response to the notice;
</P>
<P>(5) The addresses to which a response must be sent in accordance with § 1209.15 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) A statement that failure to submit an answer within 30 days of receipt of the notice may result in the imposition of the maximum amount of penalties and assessments sought, without right of appeal;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement that the respondent must preserve and maintain all documents and data, including electronically stored data, within the possession or control of the respondent that may relate to the allegations; and
</P>
<P>(8) A copy of this part 1217 and part 1209, subpart C of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation to preserve documents.</I> Upon the issuance of a notice under this section, FHFA and the respondent shall each preserve and maintain all documents and data, including electronically stored data, within their respective possession or control that may relate to the allegations in the complaint.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.7   Response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To obtain a hearing, the respondent must file a written response to a notice under § 1217.6:
</P>
<P>(i) In accordance with § 1209.24 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not later than 30 days after the date of service of the notice.
</P>
<P>(2) A timely filed response to a notice under § 1217.6 shall be deemed to be a request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(3) A response to a notice under § 1217.6 must include:
</P>
<P>(i) The admission or denial of each allegation of liability made in the notice;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any defense on which the respondent intends to rely;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any reasons why the penalty and, if appropriate, any assessment should be less than the amount set forth in the notice; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The name, address, and telephone number of the person who will act as the respondent's representative, if any.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to respond.</I> If no response to a notice under this part is timely submitted, FHFA may file a motion for default judgment in accordance with § 1209.24(c) of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.8   Statute of limitations.</HEAD>
<P>The statute of limitations for commencing a hearing under this part shall be tolled:
</P>
<P>(a) If the hearing is commenced in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3803(d)(2)(B) within 6 years after the date on which the claim or statement is made; or
</P>
<P>(b) If the parties agree to such tolling.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.9   Hearings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Hearings under this part shall be conducted in accordance with the procedures in subpart C of part 1209 of this chapter, governing actions in accordance with subchapter II of chapter 5, U.S.C. (commonly known as the Administrative Procedure Act).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors to consider in determining amount of penalties and assessments.</I> In determining an appropriate amount of any civil penalty and, if appropriate, any assessment, the presiding officer and, upon appeal, the Director or designee thereof, shall consider and state in his or her opinion any mitigating or aggravating circumstances. The amount of penalties and assessments imposed shall be based on the presiding officer's and the Director's or designee's consideration of evidence in support of one or more of the following factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The number of false, fictitious, or fraudulent claims or statements;
</P>
<P>(2) The time period over which such claims or statements were made;
</P>
<P>(3) The degree of the respondent's culpability with respect to the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of money or the value of the property, services, or benefit falsely claimed;
</P>
<P>(5) The value of the actual loss to FHFA as a result of the misconduct, including foreseeable consequential damages and the cost of investigation;
</P>
<P>(6) The relationship of the civil penalties to the amount of the loss to FHFA;
</P>
<P>(7) The potential or actual impact of the misconduct upon public health or safety or public confidence in the management of FHFA programs and operations, including particularly the impact on the intended beneficiaries of such programs;
</P>
<P>(8) Whether the respondent has engaged in a pattern of the same or similar misconduct;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the respondent attempted to conceal the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(10) The degree to which the respondent has involved others in the misconduct or in concealing it;
</P>
<P>(11) If the misconduct of employees or agents is imputed to the respondent, the extent to which the respondent's practices fostered or attempted to preclude the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the respondent cooperated in or obstructed an investigation of the misconduct;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the respondent assisted in identifying and prosecuting other wrongdoers;
</P>
<P>(14) The complexity of the program or transaction, and the degree of the respondent's sophistication with respect to it, including the extent of the respondent's prior participation in the program or in similar transactions;
</P>
<P>(15) Whether the respondent has been found, in any criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, to have engaged in similar misconduct or to have dealt dishonestly with the Government of the United States or of a State, directly or indirectly;
</P>
<P>(16) The need to deter the respondent and others from engaging in the same or similar misconduct;
</P>
<P>(17) The respondent's ability to pay; and
</P>
<P>(18) Any other factors that in any given case may mitigate or aggravate the seriousness of the false claim or statement.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stays ordered by the Department of Justice.</I> If at any time the Attorney General or an Assistant Attorney General designated by the Attorney General notifies the Director in writing that continuation of FHFA's action may adversely affect any pending or potential criminal or civil action related to the claim or statement at issue, the presiding officer or the Director shall stay the FHFA action immediately. The FHFA action may be resumed only upon receipt of the written authorization of the Attorney General.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1217.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.1.15.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1217.10   Settlements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The reviewing official, on behalf of FHFA, and the respondent may enter into a settlement agreement under § 1209.20 of this chapter at any time prior to the issuing of a notice of final decision under § 1209.55 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply.</I> Failure of the respondent to comply with a settlement agreement shall be sufficient cause for resuming an action under this part, or for any other judicial or administrative action.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—ENTITY REGULATIONS 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1221" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1221—MARGIN AND CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS FOR COVERED SWAP ENTITIES


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>7 U.S.C. 6s(e), 15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e), 12 U.S.C. 4513 and 12 U.S.C. 4526(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1221.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.1   Authority, purpose, scope, exemptions and compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by FHFA under section 4s(e) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s(e)), section 15F(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10(e)), 12 U.S.C. 4513 and 12 U.S.C. 4526(a)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> Section 4(s) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 6s) and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78o-10) require FHFA to establish capital and margin requirements for any regulated entity that is registered as a swap dealer, major swap participant, security-based swap dealer, or major security-based swap participant with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This regulation implements section 4s of the Commodity Exchange Act and section 15F of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 by defining terms used in the statute and related terms, establishing capital and margin requirements, and explaining the statute's requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part establishes minimum capital and margin requirements for each covered swap entity subject to this part with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps. This part applies to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by a covered swap entity on or after the related compliance date set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. Nothing in this part is intended to prevent a covered swap entity from collecting margin in amounts greater than are required under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exemptions</I>—(1) <I>Swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 45.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) and implementing regulations;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualifies for an exemption from clearing under a rule, regulation, or order that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission issued pursuant to its authority under section 4(c)(1) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 6(c)(1)) concerning cooperative entities that would otherwise be subject to the requirements of section 2(h)(1)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(1)(A)); or
</P>
<P>(iii) Satisfies the criteria in section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Security-based swaps.</I> The requirements of this part (except for § 1221.12) shall not apply to a non-cleared security-based swap if the counterparty:
</P>
<P>(i) Qualifies for an exception from clearing under section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Satisfies the criteria in section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance dates.</I> Covered swap entities shall comply with the minimum margin requirements of this part on or before the following dates for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the following dates:
</P>
<P>(1) September 1, 2016 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin and § 1221.4 for variation margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2016 that exceeds $3 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) March 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.4 for variation margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) September 1, 2017 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2017 that exceeds $2.25 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) September 1, 2018 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2018 that exceeds $1.5 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) September 1, 2019 with respect to the requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April and May 2019 that exceeds $0.75 trillion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(5)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) September 1, 2021 with respect to requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps, where both:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity combined with all its affiliates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Its counterparty combined with all its affiliates, have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, foreign exchange forwards and foreign exchange swaps for March, April, and May 2021 that exceeds $50 billion, where such amounts are calculated only for business days; and
</P>
<P>(iii) In calculating the amounts in paragraphs (e)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, an entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time, and shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(7) September 1, 2022 with respect to requirements in § 1221.3 for initial margin for any other covered swap entity with respect to non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into with any other counterparty.
</P>
<P>(f) Once a covered swap entity must comply with the margin requirements for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with respect to a particular counterparty based on the compliance dates in paragraph (e) of this section, the covered swap entity shall remain subject to the requirements of this part with respect to that counterparty.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to stricter margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user without material swaps exposure to a financial end user with material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity shall comply with the stricter margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status.
</P>
<P>(2) If a covered swap entity's counterparty changes its status such that a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with that counterparty becomes subject to less strict margin requirements under this part (such as if the counterparty's status changes from a financial end user with material swaps exposure to a financial end user without material swaps exposure), then the covered swap entity may comply with the less strict margin requirements for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into with that counterparty after the counterparty changes its status as well as for any outstanding non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into after the applicable compliance date in paragraph (e) of this section and before the counterparty changed its status.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Legacy swaps.</I> Covered swaps entities are required to comply with the requirements of this part for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the relevant compliance dates for variation margin and for initial margin established in paragraph (e) of this section. Any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into before such relevant date shall remain outside the scope of this part if amendments are made to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by method of adherence to a protocol, other amendment of a contract or confirmation, or execution of a new contract or confirmation in replacement of and immediately upon termination of an existing contract or confirmation, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap solely to comply with the requirements of 12 CFR part 47, 12 CFR part 252 subpart I, or 12 CFR part 382, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap was amended under the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(i) The swap was originally entered into before the relevant compliance date established in paragraph (e) of this section and one party to the swap booked it at, or otherwise held it at, an entity (including a branch or other authorized form of establishment) located in the United Kingdom;
</P>
<P>(ii) The entity in the United Kingdom subsequently arranged to amend the swap, solely for the purpose of transferring it to an affiliate, or a branch or other authorized form of establishment, located in any European Union member state or the United States, in connection with the entity's planning for or response to the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section, and the transferee is:
</P>
<P>(A) A covered swap entity, or
</P>
<P>(B) A covered swap entity's counterparty to the swap, and the counterparty represents to the covered swap entity that the counterparty performed the transfer in compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (h)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) The law of the European Union ceases to apply to the United Kingdom pursuant to Article 50(3) of the Treaty on European Union, without conclusion of a Withdrawal Agreement between the United Kingdom and the European Union pursuant to Article 50(2);
</P>
<P>(iv) The amendments do not modify any of the following: The payment amount calculation methods, the maturity date, or the notional amount of the swap;
</P>
<P>(v) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect on or after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section transpires; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendments cause the transfer to take effect by the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) The date that is one year after the date of the event described in paragraph (h)(2)(iii) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(B) Such other date permitted by transitional provisions under Article 35 of Commission Delegated Regulation (E.U.) No. 2016/2251, as amended.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Amendments to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that are made solely to accommodate the replacement of:
</P>
<P>(A) An interbank offered rate (IBOR) including, but not limited to, the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR), the Tokyo Interbank Offered Rate (TIBOR), the Bank Bill Swap Rate (BBSW), the Singapore Interbank Offered Rate (SIBOR), the Canadian Dollar Offered Rate (CDOR), the Euro Interbank Offered Rate (EURIBOR), and the Hong Kong Interbank Offered Rate (HIBOR);
</P>
<P>(B) Any other interest rate that a covered swap entity reasonably expects to be replaced or discontinued or reasonably determines has lost its relevance as a reliable benchmark due to a significant impairment; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any other interest rate that succeeds a rate referenced in paragraph (h)(3)(i)(A) or (B) of this section. An amendment made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C) could be one of multiple amendments made under this paragraph (h)(3)(i)(C). For example, an amendment could replace an IBOR with a temporary interest rate and later replace the temporary interest rate with a permanent interest rate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also incorporate spreads or other adjustments to the replacement interest rate and make other necessary technical changes to operationalize the determination of payments or other exchanges of economic value using the replacement interest rate, including changes to determination dates, calculation agents, and payment dates. The changes may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap beyond what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Amendments to accommodate replacement of an interest rate described in paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section may also be effectuated through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties. Portfolio compression under this paragraph (h)(3)(iii) is not subject to the limitations in paragraph (h)(4) of this section, but any non-cleared swap[s] or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression may not have a longer maturity or increase the total effective notional amount more than what is necessary to accommodate the differences between market conventions for an outgoing interest rate and its replacement.
</P>
<P>(4) Amendments solely to reduce risk or remain risk-neutral through portfolio compression between or among covered swap entities and their counterparties, as long as any non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps resulting from the portfolio compression do not:
</P>
<P>(i) Exceed the sum of the total effective notional amounts of all of the swaps that were submitted to the compression exercise that had the same or longer remaining maturity as the resulting swap; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Exceed the longest remaining maturity of all the swaps submitted to the compression exercise.
</P>
<P>(5) The non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap was amended solely for one of the following reasons:
</P>
<P>(i) To reflect technical changes, such as addresses, identities of parties for delivery of formal notices, and other administrative or operational provisions as long as they do not alter the non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's underlying asset or reference, the remaining maturity, or the total effective notional amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To reduce the notional amount, so long as:
</P>
<P>(A) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully terminated; or
</P>
<P>(B) All payment obligations attached to the total effective notional amount being eliminated as a result of the amendment are fully novated to a third party, who complies with applicable margin rules for the novated portion upon the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74913, 74914, Nov. 13, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018; 84 FR 9950, Mar. 19, 2019; 85 FR 39470, 39778, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Affiliate.</I> A company is an affiliate of another company if:
</P>
<P>(1) Either company consolidates the other on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) Both companies are consolidated with a third company on a financial statement prepared in accordance with such principles or standards;
</P>
<P>(3) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(4) FHFA has determined that a company is an affiliate of another company, based on the FHFA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks or losses of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Bank holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1841).
</P>
<P><I>Broker</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(4)).
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> means any day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(23) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Counterparty</I> means, with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to which a person is a party, each other party to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Covered swap entity</I> means any regulated entity that is a swap entity or any other entity that FHFA determines.
</P>
<P><I>Cross-currency swap</I> means a swap in which one party exchanges with another party principal and interest rate payments in one currency for principal and interest rate payments in another currency, and the exchange of principal occurs on the date the swap is entered into, with a reversal of the exchange of principal at a later date that is agreed upon when the swap is entered into.
</P>
<P><I>Currency of settlement</I> means a currency in which a party has agreed to discharge payment obligations related to a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a group of non-cleared swaps, or a group of non-cleared security-based swaps subject to a master agreement at the regularly occurring dates on which such payments are due in the ordinary course.
</P>
<P><I>Day of execution</I> means the calendar day at the time the parties enter into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, provided:
</P>
<P>(1) If each party is in a different calendar day at the time the parties enter into the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, the day of execution is deemed the latter of the two dates; and
</P>
<P>(2) If a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(i) Entered into after 4:00 p.m. in the location of a party; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Entered into on a day that is not a business day in the location of a party, then the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is deemed to have been entered into on the immediately succeeding day that is a business day for both parties, and both parties shall determine the day of execution with reference to that business day.
</P>
<P><I>Dealer</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(5) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(5)).
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(c) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(15) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(15)).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible collateral</I> means collateral described in § 1221.6.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the covered swap entity the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case,
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5381 <I>et seq.</I>), the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4617), or the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2183 and 2279cc), or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with the requirements of part 47, Subpart I of part 252 or part 382 of Title 12, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(3) The agreement does not contain a walkaway clause (that is, a provision that permits a non-defaulting counterparty to make a lower payment than it otherwise would make under the agreement, or no payment at all, to a defaulter or the estate of a defaulter, even if the defaulter or the estate of the defaulter is a net creditor under the agreement); and
</P>
<P>(4) A covered swap entity that relies on the agreement for purposes of calculating the margin required by this part must:
</P>
<P>(i) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(A) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding), the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Financial end user</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any counterparty that is not a swap entity and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A bank holding company or an affiliate thereof; a savings and loan holding company; a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153; or a nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323);
</P>
<P>(ii) A depository institution; a foreign bank; a Federal credit union or State credit union as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752(1) &amp; (6)); an institution that functions solely in a trust or fiduciary capacity as described in section 2(c)(2)(D) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(D)); an industrial loan company, an industrial bank, or other similar institution described in section 2(c)(2)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1841(c)(2)(H));
</P>
<P>(iii) An entity that is state-licensed or registered as:
</P>
<P>(A) A credit or lending entity, including a finance company; money lender; installment lender; consumer lender or lending company; mortgage lender, broker, or bank; motor vehicle title pledge lender; payday or deferred deposit lender; premium finance company; commercial finance or lending company; or commercial mortgage company; except entities registered or licensed solely on account of financing the entity's direct sales of goods or services to customers;
</P>
<P>(B) A money services business, including a check casher; money transmitter; currency dealer or exchange; or money order or traveler's check issuer;
</P>
<P>(iv) A regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)) or any entity for which the Federal Housing Finance Agency or its successor is the primary federal regulator;
</P>
<P>(v) Any institution chartered in accordance with the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.,</I> that is regulated by the Farm Credit Administration;
</P>
<P>(vi) A securities holding company; a broker or dealer; an investment adviser as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2(a)); an investment company registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>); or a company that has elected to be regulated as a business development company pursuant to section 54(a) of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-53(a));
</P>
<P>(vii) A private fund as defined in section 202(a) of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80-b-2(a)); an entity that would be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3) but for section 3(c)(5)(C); or an entity that is deemed not to be an investment company under section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 pursuant to Investment Company Act Rule 3a-7 (17 CFR 270.3a-7) of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(viii) A commodity pool, a commodity pool operator, or a commodity trading advisor as defined, respectively, in section 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(10), 1a(11), and 1a(12)); a floor broker, a floor trader, or introducing broker as defined, respectively, in 1a(22), 1a(23) and 1a(31) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(22), 1a(23), and 1a(31)); or a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28));
</P>
<P>(ix) An employee benefit plan as defined in paragraphs (3) and (32) of section 3 of the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1002);
</P>
<P>(x) An entity that is organized as an insurance company, primarily engaged in writing insurance or reinsuring risks underwritten by insurance companies, or is subject to supervision as such by a State insurance regulator or foreign insurance regulator;
</P>
<P>(xi) An entity, person or arrangement that is, or holds itself out as being, an entity, person, or arrangement that raises money from investors, accepts money from clients, or uses its own money primarily for the purpose of investing or trading or facilitating the investing or trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets for resale or other disposition or otherwise trading in loans, securities, swaps, funds or other assets; or
</P>
<P>(xii) An entity that would be a financial end user described in paragraph (1) of this definition or a swap entity, if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) The term “financial end user” does not include any counterparty that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A sovereign entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) A multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Bank for International Settlements;
</P>
<P>(iv) An entity that is exempt from the definition of financial entity pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)) and implementing regulations; or
</P>
<P>(v) An affiliate that qualifies for the exemption from clearing pursuant to section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)) or section 3C(g)(4) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)) and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign bank</I> means an organization that is organized under the laws of a foreign country and that engages directly in the business of banking outside the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange forward</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(24) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(24)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign exchange swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(25) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(25)).
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin</I> means the collateral as calculated in accordance with § 1221.8 that is posted or collected in connection with a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin collection amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a covered swap entity that does not use an initial margin model, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under appendix A of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a covered swap entity that uses an initial margin model pursuant to § 1221.8, the amount of initial margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that is required under the initial margin model.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin model</I> means an internal risk management model that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has been developed and designed to identify an appropriate, risk-based amount of initial margin that the covered swap entity must collect with respect to one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps to which the covered swap entity is a party; and
</P>
<P>(2) Has been approved by FHFA pursuant to § 1221.8.
</P>
<P><I>Initial margin threshold amount</I> means an aggregate credit exposure of $50 million resulting from all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps between a covered swap entity and its affiliates, and a counterparty and its affiliates. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 1221.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Major currency</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) United States Dollar (USD);
</P>
<P>(2) Canadian Dollar (CAD);
</P>
<P>(3) Euro (EUR);
</P>
<P>(4) United Kingdom Pound (GBP);
</P>
<P>(5) Japanese Yen (JPY);
</P>
<P>(6) Swiss Franc (CHF);
</P>
<P>(7) New Zealand Dollar (NZD);
</P>
<P>(8) Australian Dollar (AUD);
</P>
<P>(9) Swedish Kronor (SEK);
</P>
<P>(10) Danish Kroner (DKK);
</P>
<P>(11) Norwegian Krone (NOK); or
</P>
<P>(12) Any other currency as determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Margin</I> means initial margin and variation margin.
</P>
<P><I>Market intermediary</I> means a securities holding company; a broker or dealer; a futures commission merchant as defined in 1a(28) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(28)); a swap dealer as defined in section 1a(49) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(49)); or a security-based swap dealer as defined in section 3(a)(71) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(71)).
</P>
<P><I>Material swaps exposure</I> for an entity means that an entity and its affiliates have an average daily aggregate notional amount of non-cleared swaps, non-cleared security-based swaps, foreign exchange forwards, and foreign exchange swaps with all counterparties for June, July, and August of the previous calendar year that exceeds $8 billion, where such amount is calculated only for business days. An entity shall count the average daily aggregate notional amount of a non-cleared swap, a non-cleared security-based swap, a foreign exchange forward or a foreign exchange swap between the entity and an affiliate only one time. For purposes of this calculation, an entity shall not count a swap or security-based swap that is exempt pursuant to § 1221.1(d).
</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other entity that provides financing for national or regional development in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which FHFA determines poses comparable credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared swap</I> means a swap that is not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(a)) or by a clearing organization that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)).
</P>
<P><I>Non-cleared security-based swap</I> means a security-based swap that is not, directly or indirectly, submitted to and cleared by a clearing agency registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1) or by a clearing agency that the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Prudential regulator</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(39) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(39)).
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> means any regulated entity as defined in section 1303(20) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4502(20)).
</P>
<P><I>Savings and loan holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 10(n) of the Home Owners' Loan Act (12 U.S.C. 1467a(n)).
</P>
<P><I>Securities holding company</I> has the meaning specified in section 618 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 1850a).
</P>
<P><I>Security-based swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 3(a)(68) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(68)).
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign entity</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State, commonwealth, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands, American Samoa, Guam, or the United States Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary.</I> A company is a subsidiary of another company if<I>:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The company is consolidated by the other company on financial statements prepared in accordance with U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles, the International Financial Reporting Standards, or other similar standards;
</P>
<P>(2) For a company that is not subject to such principles or standards, if consolidation as described in paragraph (1) of this definition would have occurred if such principles or standards had applied; or
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA has determined that the company is a subsidiary of another company, based on FHFA's conclusion that either company provides significant support to, or is materially subject to the risks of loss of, the other company.
</P>
<P><I>Swap</I> has the meaning specified in section 1a(47) of the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1a(47)).
</P>
<P><I>Swap entity</I> means a person that is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a swap dealer or major swap participant pursuant to the Commodity Exchange Act of 1936 (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or a person that is registered with the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission as a security-based swap dealer or a major security-based swap participant pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by federal statute but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means collateral provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of its obligations under one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such collateral was provided.
</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the cumulative mark-to-market change in value to a covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, as measured from the date it is entered into (or, in the case of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap that has a positive or negative value to a covered swap entity on the date it is entered into, such positive or negative value plus any cumulative mark-to-market change in value to the covered swap entity of a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap after such date), less the value of all variation margin previously collected, plus the value of all variation margin previously posted with respect to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74913, 74914, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 50813, Oct. 10, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.3   Initial margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collection of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall collect initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap from a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure or that is a swap entity in an amount that is no less than the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Zero; or
</P>
<P>(2) The initial margin collection amount for such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap <I>less</I> the initial margin threshold amount (not including any portion of the initial margin threshold amount already applied by the covered swap entity or its affiliates to other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with the counterparty or its affiliates), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Posting of margin.</I> A covered swap entity shall post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap to a counterparty that is a financial end user with material swaps exposure. Such initial margin shall be in an amount at least as large as the covered swap entity would be required to collect under paragraph (a) of this section if it were in the place of the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the initial margin requirements described in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post initial margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 1221.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user with a material swaps exposure nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect initial margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.4   Variation margin.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the date on which a covered swap entity enters into a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity or financial end user, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin equal to the variation margin amount from the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is positive and post variation margin equal to the variation margin amount to the counterparty to such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap when the amount is negative.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing.</I> A covered swap entity shall comply with the variation margin requirements described in paragraph (a) of this section on each business day, for a period beginning on or before the business day following the day of execution and ending on the date the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security based swap terminates or expires.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other counterparties.</I> A covered swap entity is not required to collect or post variation margin with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap described in § 1221.1(d). For any other non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap between a covered swap entity and a counterparty that is neither a financial end user nor a swap entity, the covered swap entity shall collect variation margin at such times and in such forms and such amounts (if any), that the covered swap entity determines appropriately addresses the credit risk posed by the counterparty and the risks of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.5   Netting arrangements, minimum transfer amount, and satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Netting arrangements.</I> (1) For purposes of calculating and complying with the initial margin requirements of § .3 using an initial margin model as described in § 1221.8, or with the variation margin requirements of § 1221.4, a covered swap entity may net non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with this subsection.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps are executed pursuant to an eligible master netting agreement between a covered swap entity and its counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user, a covered swap entity may calculate and comply with the applicable requirements of this part on an aggregate net basis with respect to all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps governed by such agreement, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3)(i) Except as permitted in paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, if an eligible master netting agreement covers non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g), all the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps covered by that agreement are subject to the requirements of this part and included in the aggregate netting portfolio for the purposes of calculating and complying with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible master netting agreement may identify one or more separate netting portfolios that independently meet the requirements in paragraph (1) of the definition of “Eligible master netting agreement” in § 1221.2 and to which collection and posting of margin applies on an aggregate net basis separate from and exclusive of any other non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by the eligible master netting agreement. Any such netting portfolio that contains any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into on or after the applicable compliance date set forth in § 1221.1(e) or (g) is subject to the requirements of this part. Any such netting portfolio that contains only non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps entered into before the applicable compliance date is not subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) If a covered swap entity cannot conclude after sufficient legal review with a well-founded basis that the netting agreement described in this section meets the definition of eligible master netting agreement set forth in § 1221.2, the covered swap entity must treat the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps covered by the agreement on a gross basis for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to collect margin, but the covered swap entity may net those non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps in accordance with paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section for the purposes of calculating and complying with the requirements of this part to post margin.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum transfer amount.</I> Notwithstanding § 1221.3 or § 1221.4, a covered swap entity is not required to collect or post margin pursuant to this part with respect to a particular counterparty unless and until the combined amount of initial margin and variation margin that is required pursuant to this part to be collected or posted and that has not yet been collected or posted with respect to the counterparty is greater than $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Satisfaction of collecting and posting requirements.</I> A covered swap entity shall not be deemed to have violated its obligation to collect or post margin from or to a counterparty under § 1221.3, § 1221.4, or § 1221.6(e) if:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty has refused or otherwise failed to provide or accept the required margin to or from the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity has:
</P>
<P>(i) Made the necessary efforts to collect or post the required margin, including the timely initiation and continued pursuit of formal dispute resolution mechanisms, or has otherwise demonstrated upon request to the satisfaction of FHFA that it has made appropriate efforts to collect or post the required margin; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Commenced termination of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty promptly following the applicable cure period and notification requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.6   Eligible collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a swap entity.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a swap entity, a covered swap entity shall collect initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to initial margin only:
</P>
<P>(i) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(ii) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(iii) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324;
</P>
<P>(iv) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(v) A publicly traded debt security that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(vi) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(vii) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(B) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by FHFA; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(viii) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(A) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(B) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(ix) Gold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps with a financial end user.</I> For a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a financial end user, a covered swap entity shall collect and post initial margin and variation margin required pursuant to this part solely in the form of the following types of collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) Immediately available cash funds that are denominated in:
</P>
<P>(i) U.S. dollars or another major currency; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap;
</P>
<P>(2) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury;
</P>
<P>(3) A security that is issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. government agency (other than the U.S. Department of Treasury) whose obligations are fully guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States government;
</P>
<P>(4) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324;
</P>
<P>(5) A publicly traded debt security issued by, or an asset-backed security fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance received from the U.S. government that enables the repayments of the U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise's eligible securities;
</P>
<P>(6) A publicly traded debt security that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is issued by a U.S. Government-sponsored enterprise not operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the U.S. government, and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(7) A security that is issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, or a multilateral development bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A security solely in the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Publicly traded debt not otherwise described in this paragraph (b) that meets the definition of “Investment quality” in § 1267.1 of this chapter and is not an asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(ii) Publicly traded common equity that is included in:
</P>
<P>(A) The Standard &amp; Poor's Composite 1500 Index or any other similar index of liquid and readily marketable equity securities as determined by FHFA; or
</P>
<P>(B) An index that a covered swap entity's supervisor in a foreign jurisdiction recognizes for purposes of including publicly traded common equity as initial margin under applicable regulatory policy, if held in that foreign jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(9) Securities in the form of redeemable securities in a pooled investment fund representing the security-holder's proportional interest in the fund's net assets and that are issued and redeemed only on the basis of the market value of the fund's net assets prepared each business day after the security-holder makes its investment commitment or redemption request to the fund, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The fund's investments are limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that are issued by, or unconditionally guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars; or
</P>
<P>(B) Securities denominated in a common currency and issued by, or fully guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by, the European Central Bank or a sovereign entity that is assigned no higher than a 20 percent risk weight under 12 CFR part 324, and immediately-available cash funds denominated in the same currency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets of the fund may not be transferred through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreements, reverse repurchase agreements, or other means that involve the fund having rights to acquire the same or similar assets from the transferee; or
</P>
<P>(10) Gold.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The value of any eligible collateral collected or posted to satisfy margin requirements pursuant to this part is subject to the sum of the following discounts, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(i) An 8 percent discount for variation margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for immediately available cash funds denominated in U.S. dollars or another major currency;
</P>
<P>(ii) An 8 percent discount for initial margin collateral denominated in a currency that is not the currency of settlement for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, except for eligible types of collateral denominated in a single termination currency designated as payable to the non-posting counterparty as part of the eligible master netting agreement; and
</P>
<P>(iii) For variation and initial margin non-cash collateral, the discounts described in appendix B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) The value of variation margin or initial margin collateral is computed as the product of the cash or market value of the eligible collateral asset times one minus the applicable discounts pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section expressed in percentage terms. The total value of all variation margin or initial margin collateral is calculated as the sum of those values for each eligible collateral asset.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, eligible collateral for initial margin and variation margin required by this part does not include a security issued by:
</P>
<P>(1) The party or an affiliate of the party pledging such collateral;
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company, a savings and loan holding company, a U.S. intermediate holding company established or designated for purposes of compliance with 12 CFR 252.153, a foreign bank, a depository institution, a market intermediary, a company that would be any of the foregoing if it were organized under the laws of the United States or any State, or an affiliate of any of the foregoing institutions; or
</P>
<P>(3) A nonbank financial institution supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (12 U.S.C. 5323).
</P>
<P>(e) A covered swap entity shall monitor the market value and eligibility of all collateral collected and posted to satisfy the minimum initial margin and minimum variation margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the market value of such collateral has declined, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post such additional eligible collateral as is necessary to maintain compliance with the margin requirements of this part. To the extent that the collateral is no longer eligible, the covered swap entity shall promptly collect or post sufficient eligible replacement collateral to comply with the margin requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) A covered swap entity may collect or post initial margin and variation margin that is required by § 1221.3(d) or § 1221.4(c) or that is not required pursuant to this part in any form of collateral.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74914, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.7   Segregation of collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A covered swap entity that posts any collateral other than for variation margin with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that all funds or other property other than variation margin provided by the covered swap entity be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) A covered swap entity that collects initial margin required by § 1221.3(a) with respect to a non-cleared swap or a non-cleared security-based swap shall require that such initial margin be held by one or more custodians that are not the covered swap entity or counterparty and not affiliates of the covered swap entity or the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the custodian must act pursuant to a custody agreement that:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibits the custodian from rehypothecating, repledging, reusing, or otherwise transferring (through securities lending, securities borrowing, repurchase agreement, reverse repurchase agreement or other means) the collateral held by the custodian, except that cash collateral may be held in a general deposit account with the custodian if the funds in the account are used to purchase an asset described in § 1221.6(a)(2) or (b), such asset is held in compliance with this § 1221.7, and such purchase takes place within a time period reasonably necessary to consummate such purchase after the cash collateral is posted as initial margin; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is a legal, valid, binding, and enforceable agreement under the laws of all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a custody agreement may permit the posting party to substitute or direct any reinvestment of posted collateral held by the custodian, provided that, with respect to collateral collected by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 1221.3(a) or posted by a covered swap entity pursuant to § 1221.3(b), the agreement requires the posting party to:
</P>
<P>(1) Substitute only funds or other property that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 1221.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 1221.3; and
</P>
<P>(2) Direct reinvestment of funds only in assets that would qualify as eligible collateral under § 1221.6, and for which the amount net of applicable discounts described in appendix B of this part would be sufficient to meet the requirements of § 1221.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.8   Initial margin models and standardized amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standardized amounts.</I> Unless a covered swap entity's initial margin model conforms to the requirements of this section, the covered swap entity shall calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 1221.3 on a daily basis pursuant to appendix A of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use of initial margin models.</I> A covered swap entity may calculate the amount of initial margin required to be collected or posted for one or more non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps with a given counterparty pursuant to § 1221.3 on a daily basis using an initial margin model only if the initial margin model meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements for initial margin model.</I> (1) A covered swap entity must obtain the prior written approval of FHFA before using any initial margin model to calculate the initial margin required in this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity must demonstrate that the initial margin model satisfies all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis.
</P>
<P>(3) A covered swap entity must notify FHFA in writing 60 days prior to:
</P>
<P>(i) Extending the use of an initial margin model that FHFA has approved under this section to an additional product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) Making any change to any initial margin model approved by FHFA under this section that would result in a material change in the covered swap entity's assessment of initial margin requirements; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Making any material change to modeling assumptions used by the initial margin model.
</P>
<P>(4) FHFA may rescind its approval of the use of any initial margin model, in whole or in part, or may impose additional conditions or requirements if FHFA determines, in its sole discretion, that the initial margin model no longer complies with this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative requirements.</I> (1) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must calculate an amount of initial margin that is equal to the potential future exposure of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. Potential future exposure is an estimate of the one-tailed 99 percent confidence interval for an increase in the value of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps due to an instantaneous price shock that is equivalent to a movement in all material underlying risk factors, including prices, rates, and spreads, over a holding period equal to the shorter of ten business days or the maturity of the non-cleared swap, non-cleared security-based swap or netting portfolio.
</P>
<P>(2) All data used to calibrate the initial margin model must be based on an equally weighted historical observation period of at least one year and not more than five years and must incorporate a period of significant financial stress for each broad asset class that is appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(3) The covered swap entity's initial margin model must use risk factors sufficient to measure all material price risks inherent in the transactions for which initial margin is being calculated. The risk categories must include, but should not be limited to, foreign exchange or interest rate risk, credit risk, equity risk, and commodity risk, as appropriate. For material exposures in significant currencies and markets, modeling techniques must capture spread and basis risk and must incorporate a sufficient number of segments of the yield curve to capture differences in volatility and imperfect correlation of rates along the yield curve.
</P>
<P>(4) In the case of a non-cleared cross-currency swap, the covered swap entity's initial margin model need not recognize any risks or risk factors associated with the fixed, physically-settled foreign exchange transaction associated with the exchange of principal embedded in the non-cleared cross-currency swap. The initial margin model must recognize all material risks and risk factors associated with all other payments and cash flows that occur during the life of the non-cleared cross-currency swap.
</P>
<P>(5) The initial margin model may calculate initial margin for a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap or a netting portfolio of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps covered by an eligible master netting agreement. It may reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and other hedging benefits for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that are governed by the same eligible master netting agreement by incorporating empirical correlations within the following broad risk categories, provided the covered swap entity validates and demonstrates the reasonableness of its process for modeling and measuring hedging benefits: Commodity, credit, equity, and foreign exchange or interest rate. Empirical correlations under an eligible master netting agreement may be recognized by the initial margin model within each broad risk category, but not across broad risk categories.
</P>
<P>(6) If the initial margin model does not explicitly reflect offsetting exposures, diversification, and hedging benefits between subsets of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category, the covered swap entity must calculate an amount of initial margin separately for each subset within which such relationships are explicitly recognized by the initial margin model. The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each subset of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within a broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty for the portfolio of non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps within the broad risk category.
</P>
<P>(7) The sum of the initial margin amounts calculated for each broad risk category will be used to determine the aggregate initial margin due from the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(8) The initial margin model may not permit the calculation of any initial margin collection amount to be offset by, or otherwise take into account, any initial margin that may be owed or otherwise payable by the covered swap entity to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(9) The initial margin model must include all material risks arising from the nonlinear price characteristics of option positions or positions with embedded optionality and the sensitivity of the market value of the positions to changes in the volatility of the underlying rates, prices, or other material risk factors.
</P>
<P>(10) The covered swap entity may not omit any risk factor from the calculation of its initial margin that the covered swap entity uses in its initial margin model unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of FHFA that such omission is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(11) The covered swap entity may not incorporate any proxy or approximation used to capture the risks of the covered swap entity's non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps unless it has first demonstrated to the satisfaction of FHFA that such proxy or approximation is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(12) The covered swap entity must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal margin model to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(13) The covered swap entity must review and, as necessary, revise the data used to calibrate the initial margin model at least annually, and more frequently as market conditions warrant, to ensure that the data incorporate a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which the initial margin model is applied.
</P>
<P>(14) The level of sophistication of the initial margin model must be commensurate with the complexity of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it is applied. In calculating an initial margin collection amount, the initial margin model may make use of any of the generally accepted approaches for modeling the risk of a single instrument or portfolio of instruments.
</P>
<P>(15) FHFA may in its sole discretion require a covered swap entity using an initial margin model to collect a greater amount of initial margin than that determined by the covered swap entity's initial margin model if FHFA determines that the additional collateral is appropriate due to the nature, structure, or characteristics of the covered swap entity's transaction(s), or is commensurate with the risks associated with the transaction(s).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Periodic review.</I> A covered swap entity must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its initial margin model in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance the initial margin model as appropriate to ensure that the initial margin model continues to meet the requirements for approval in this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The covered swap entity must maintain a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business trading units.
</P>
<P>(2) The covered swap entity's risk control unit must validate its initial margin model prior to implementation and on an ongoing basis. The covered swap entity's validation process must be independent of the development, implementation, and operation of the initial margin model, or the validation process must be subject to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. The validation process must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the initial margin model;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking by comparing the covered swap entity's initial margin model outputs (estimation of initial margin) with relevant alternative internal and external data sources or estimation techniques. The benchmark(s) must address the chosen model's limitations. When applicable, the covered swap entity should consider benchmarks that allow for non-normal distributions such as historical and Monte Carlo simulations. When applicable, validation shall include benchmarking against observable margin standards to ensure that the initial margin required is not less than what a derivatives clearing organization or a clearing agency would require for similar cleared transactions; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting the initial margin model. This analysis must recognize and compensate for the challenges inherent in back-testing over periods that do not contain significant financial stress.
</P>
<P>(3) If the validation process reveals any material problems with the initial margin model, the covered swap entity must promptly notify FHFA of the problems, describe to FHFA any remedial actions being taken, and adjust the initial margin model to ensure an appropriately conservative amount of required initial margin is being calculated.
</P>
<P>(4) The covered swap entity must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management and the risk control unit that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the covered swap entity's initial margin model measurement systems, including the activities of the business trading units and risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the covered swap entity's initial margin requirements under this part. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the covered swap entity's board of directors or a committee thereof.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document all material aspects of its initial margin model, including the management and valuation of the non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps to which it applies, the control, oversight, and validation of the initial margin model, any review processes and the results of such processes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Escalation procedures.</I> The covered swap entity must adequately document internal authorization procedures, including escalation procedures, that require review and approval of any change to the initial margin calculation under the initial margin model, demonstrable analysis that any basis for any such change is consistent with the requirements of this section, and independent review of such demonstrable analysis and approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.9   Cross-border application of margin requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transactions to which this rule does not apply.</I> The requirements of §§ 1221.3 through 1221.8 and §§ 1221.10 through 1221.12 shall not apply to any foreign non-cleared swap or foreign non-cleared security-based swap of a foreign covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign non-cleared swap</I> or <I>foreign non-cleared security-based swap</I> is any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with respect to which neither the counterparty to the foreign covered swap entity nor any party that provides a guarantee of either party's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) A swap entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of this section, a <I>foreign covered swap entity</I> is any covered swap entity that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(3) An entity that is a subsidiary of an entity that is organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transactions for which substituted compliance determination may apply</I>—(1) <I>Determinations and reliance.</I> For non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps entered into by covered swap entities described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section, a covered swap entity may satisfy the provisions of this part by complying with the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that the prudential regulators jointly, conditionally or unconditionally, determine by public order satisfy the corresponding requirements of §§ 1221.3 through 1221.8 and §§ 1221.10 through 1221.12.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standard.</I> In determining whether to make a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the prudential regulators will consider whether the requirements of such foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps applicable to such covered swap entities are comparable to the otherwise applicable requirements of this part and appropriate for the safe and sound operation of the covered swap entity, taking into account the risks associated with non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Covered swap entities eligible for substituted compliance.</I> A covered swap entity may rely on a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section only if:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (other than a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is:
</P>
<P>(A) A foreign covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(B) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) An entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Compliance with foreign margin collection requirement.</I> A covered swap entity satisfies its requirement to post initial margin under § 1221.3(b) by posting to its counterparty initial margin in the form and amount, and at such times, that its counterparty is required to collect pursuant to a foreign regulatory framework, provided that the counterparty is subject to the foreign regulatory framework and the prudential regulators have made a determination under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless otherwise stated in that determination, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(i) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Requests for determinations.</I> (1) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may request that the prudential regulators make a determination pursuant to this section. A request for a determination must include a description of:
</P>
<P>(i) The scope and objectives of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(ii) The specific provisions of the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps that govern:
</P>
<P>(A) The scope of transactions covered;
</P>
<P>(B) The determination of the amount of initial margin and variation margin required and how that amount is calculated;
</P>
<P>(C) The timing of margin requirements;
</P>
<P>(D) Any documentation requirements;
</P>
<P>(E) The forms of eligible collateral;
</P>
<P>(F) Any segregation and rehypothecation requirements; and
</P>
<P>(G) The approval process and standards for models used in calculating initial margin and variation margin;
</P>
<P>(iii) The supervisory compliance program and enforcement authority exercised by a foreign financial regulatory authority or authorities in such system to support its oversight of the application of the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap regulatory framework and how that framework applies to the non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any other descriptions and documentation that the prudential regulators determine are appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity described in paragraph (d)(3) of this section may make a request under this section only if the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap activities of the covered swap entity are directly supervised by the authorities administering the foreign regulatory framework for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Segregation unavailable.</I> Sections 1221.3(b) and 1221.7 do not apply to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap entered into by:
</P>
<P>(1) A foreign branch of a covered swap entity that is a depository institution; or
</P>
<P>(2) A covered swap entity that is not organized under the laws of the United States or any State and is a subsidiary of a depository institution, Edge corporation, or agreement corporation, if:
</P>
<P>(i) Inherent limitations in the legal or operational infrastructure in the foreign jurisdiction make it impracticable for the covered swap entity and the counterparty to post any form of eligible initial margin collateral recognized pursuant to § 1221.6(b) in compliance with the segregation requirements of § 1221.7;
</P>
<P>(ii) The covered swap entity is subject to foreign regulatory restrictions that require the covered swap entity to transact in the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with the counterparty through an establishment within the foreign jurisdiction and do not accommodate the posting of collateral for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap outside the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The counterparty to the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap is not, and the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap do not have a guarantee from:
</P>
<P>(A) An entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State (including a U.S. branch, agency, or subsidiary of a foreign bank) or a natural person who is a resident of the United States; or
</P>
<P>(B) A branch or office of an entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(iv) The covered swap entity collects initial margin for the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap in accordance with § 1221.3(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 1221.6(b)(1), and posts and collects variation margin in accordance with § 1221.4(a) in the form of cash pursuant to § 1221.6(b)(1); and
</P>
<P>(v) FHFA provides the covered swap entity with prior written approval for the covered swap entity's reliance on this paragraph (f) for the foreign jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Guarantee</I> means an arrangement pursuant to which one party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a third-party guarantor, with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. For these purposes, a party to a non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap has rights of recourse against a guarantor if the party has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from the guarantor with respect to its counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap. In addition, any arrangement pursuant to which the guarantor has a conditional or unconditional legally enforceable right to receive or otherwise collect, in whole or in part, payments from any other third party guarantor with respect to the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, such arrangement will be deemed a guarantee of the counterparty's obligations under the non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap by the other guarantor.
</P>
<P>(h)(1) A covered swap entity described in paragraphs (d)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section is not subject to the requirements of § 1221.3(a) or § 1221.11(a) for any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap executed with an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (h)(1) of this section, “affiliate” has the same meaning provided in § 1221.11(d).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.10   Documentation of margin matters.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall execute trading documentation with each counterparty that is either a swap entity or financial end user regarding credit support arrangements that:
</P>
<P>(a) Provides the covered swap entity and its counterparty with the contractual right to collect and post initial margin and variation margin in such amounts, in such form, and under such circumstances as are required by this part, and at such time as initial margin or variation margin is required to be collected or posted under § 1221.3 or § 1221.4, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(b) Specifies:
</P>
<P>(1) The methods, procedures, rules, and inputs for determining the value of each non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap for purposes of calculating variation margin requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) The procedures by which any disputes concerning the valuation of non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps, or the valuation of assets collected or posted as initial margin or variation margin, may be resolved; and
</P>
<P>(c) Describes the methods, procedures, rules, and inputs used to calculate initial margin for non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security based swaps entered into between the covered swap entity and the counterparty.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74913, Nov. 30, 2015, as amended at 85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.11   Special rules for affiliates.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) A covered swap entity shall calculate on each business day an initial margin collection amount for each counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity.
</P>
<P>(2) If the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section does not exceed 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital, the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) do not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(3) On each business day that the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section exceeds 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital:
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) for each additional non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap executed that business day with a counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity, commencing on the day after execution and continuing on a daily basis as required under § 1221.3(c), until the earlier of;
</P>
<P>(A) The termination date of such non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap, or
</P>
<P>(B) The business day on which the aggregate of all initial margin collection amounts calculated under paragraph (a)(1) of this section falls below 15 percent of the covered swap entity's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding § 1221.7(b), to the extent the covered swap entity collects initial margin pursuant to paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section in the form of collateral other than cash collateral, the custodian for such collateral may be the covered swap entity or an affiliate of the covered swap entity; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, “tier 1 capital” means:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of common equity tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 1240.20(b) and additional tier 1 capital as defined in 12 CFR 1240.20(c).
</P>
<P>(5) If any subsidiary of the covered swap entity (including a subsidiary described in § 1221.9(h)) executes any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with any counterparty that is a swap entity or financial end user with a material swaps exposure and an affiliate of the covered swap entity;
</P>
<P>(i) The covered swap entity shall treat such non-cleared swap or security-based swap as its own for purposes of this paragraph (a); and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the subsidiary is itself a covered swap entity, the compliance by its parent covered swap entity with this paragraph (a)(5) shall be deemed to establish the subsidiary's compliance with the requirements of this paragraph (a) and to exempt the subsidiary from the requirements for a covered swap entity to collect initial margin under § 1221.3(a) from an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(b) The requirement for a covered swap entity to post initial margin under § 1221.3(b) does not apply with respect to any non-cleared swap or non-cleared security-based swap with a counterparty that is an affiliate.
</P>
<P>(c) Section 1221.3(d) shall apply to a counterparty that is an affiliate in the same manner as it applies to any counterparty that is neither a financial end user without a material swap exposure nor a swap entity.
</P>
<P>(d) For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) An <I>affiliate</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) An affiliate as defined in § 1221.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<P>(2) A <I>subsidiary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) A subsidiary as defined in § 1221.2; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any company that is controlled by the covered swap entity through the direct or indirect exercise of controlling influence over the management or policies of the controlled company.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 39779, July 1, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1221.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1221.12   Capital.</HEAD>
<P>A covered swap entity shall comply with the capital levels or such other amounts applicable to it as required by the Director of FHFA pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4611.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 74914, Nov. 30, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.13.3" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1221—Standardized Minimum Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non—cleared Security-based Swaps


</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table A—Standardized Minimum Gross Initial Margin Requirements for Non-cleared Swaps and Non-cleared Security-Based Swaps
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset Class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Gross initial margin
<br/>(% of notional exposure)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Foreign Exchange/Currency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross Currency Swaps: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cross-Currency Swaps: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 0-2 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 2-5 year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest Rate: 5+ year duration</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The initial margin amount applicable to multiple non-cleared swaps or non-cleared security-based swaps subject to an eligible master netting agreement that is calculated according to Appendix A will be computed as follows:
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Initial Margin=0.4xGross Initial Margin +0.6x NGRxGross Initial Margin
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">where;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">Gross Initial Margin = the sum of the product of each non-cleared swap's or non-cleared security-based swap's effective notional amount and the gross initial margin requirement for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement;
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">and
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">NGR = the net-to-gross ratio (that is, the ratio of the net current replacement cost to the gross current replacement cost). In calculating NGR, the gross current replacement cost equals the sum of the replacement cost for each non-cleared swap and non-cleared security-based swap subject to the eligible master netting agreement for which the cost is positive. The net current replacement cost equals the total replacement cost for all non-cleared swaps and non-cleared security-based swaps subject to the eligible master netting agreement. In cases where the gross replacement cost is zero, the NGR should be set to 1.0.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>


<DIV9 N="Appendix B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.16.0.1.13.4" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix B to Part 1221—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</HEAD>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table B—Margin Values for Eligible Noncash Margin Collateral
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Discount (%)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible government and related (e.g., central bank, multilateral development bank, GSE securities identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5) debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity between one and five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Eligible GSE debt securities not identified in § 1221.6(a)(2)(iv) or (b)(5): residual maturity greater than five years:</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity less than one-year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity between one and five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other eligible publicly traded debt: residual maturity greater than five years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equities included in S&amp;P 1500 Composite or related index but not S&amp;P 500 or related index</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Gold</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The discount to be applied to an eligible investment fund is the weighted average discount on all assets within the eligible investment fund at the end of the prior month. The weights to be applied in the weighted average should be calculated as a fraction of the fund's total market value that is invested in each asset with a given discount amount. As an example, an eligible investment fund that is comprised solely of $100 of 91 day Treasury bills and $100 of 3 year US Treasury bonds would receive a discount of (100/200)*0.5+(100/200)*2.0=(0.5)*0.5+(0.5)*2.0=1.25 percent.</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1222" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1222—APPRAISALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 3354(b); 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.;</I> 12 U.S.C. 4526; and 15 U.S.C. 1639h.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 10446, Feb. 13, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Requirements for Higher-Priced Mortgage Loans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart cross-references the requirement that creditors extending credit in the form of higher-priced mortgage loans comply with Section 129H of the Truth-in-Lending Act (TILA), 15 U.S.C. 1639h, and its implementing regulations in Regulation Z, 12 CFR 1026.35. Neither the Banks nor the Enterprises are subject to Section 129H of TILA or 12 CFR 1026.35. Originators of higher-priced mortgage loans, including Bank members and institutions that sell mortgage loans to the Enterprises, are subject to those provisions. A failure of those institutions to comply with Section 129H of TILA and 12 CFR 1026.35 may limit their ability to sell such loans to the Banks or Enterprises or to pledge such loans to the Banks as collateral, to the extent provided in the parties' agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.2   Reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart A shall be read to limit the authority of the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe and unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law. In addition, nothing in this subpart A shall be read to limit the authority of the Director to impose requirements for any purchase of higher-priced mortgage loans by an Enterprise or a Federal Home Loan Bank, or acceptance of higher-priced mortgage loans as collateral to secure advances by a Federal Home Loan Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Appraisal Management Company Minimum Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 32687, June 9, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1222.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.20   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 4526, and Title XI of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery, and Enforcement Act (FIRREA), as amended by the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376 (2010)), 12 U.S.C. 3331 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this subpart is to implement sections 1109, 1117, 1121, and 1124 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3338, 3346, 3350, and 3353.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This subpart applies to States and to appraisal management companies (AMCs) providing appraisal management services in connection with consumer credit transactions secured by a consumer's principal dwelling or securitizations of those transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Nothing in this subpart should be construed to prevent a State from establishing requirements in addition to those in this subpart. In addition, nothing in this subpart should be construed to alter guidance in, and applicability of, the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or other relevant agency guidance that cautions banks, bank holding companies, Federal savings associations, state savings associations, and credit unions, as applicable, that each such entity is accountable for overseeing the activities of third-party service providers and ensuring that any services provided by a third party comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance applicable directly to the financial institution.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 75 FR 77450 (December 10, 2010).</P></FTNT>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.21   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning provided in 12 U.S.C. 1841.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AMC National Registry</I> means the registry of State-registered AMCs and Federally regulated AMCs maintained by the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) <I>Appraisal management company</I> (AMC) means a person that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Within a given 12-month period, as defined in § 1222.22(d), oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States, as described in § 1222.22;
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Appraisal management services</I> means one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers;
</P>
<P>(2) Contracting with State-certified or State-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments;
</P>
<P>(3) Managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and
</P>
<P>(4) Reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appraiser panel</I> means a network, list or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an AMC to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the AMC. Appraisers on an AMC's “appraiser panel” under this part include both appraisers accepted by the AMC for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the AMC to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this subpart if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the AMC for purposes of Federal income taxation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appraisal Subcommittee</I> means the Appraisal Subcommittee of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Consumer credit</I> means credit offered or extended to a consumer primarily for personal, family, or household purposes.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Covered transaction</I> means any consumer credit transaction secured by the consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Creditor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A person who regularly extends consumer credit that is subject to a finance charge or is payable by written agreement in more than four installments (not including a down payment), and to whom the obligation is initially payable, either on the face of the note or contract, or by agreement when there is no note or contract.
</P>
<P>(2) A person regularly extends consumer credit if the person extended credit (other than credit subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32) more than 5 times for transactions secured by a dwelling in the preceding calendar year. If a person did not meet these numerical standards in the preceding calendar year, the numerical standards shall be applied to the current calendar year. A person regularly extends consumer credit if, in any 12-month period, the person originates more than one credit extension that is subject to the requirements of 12 CFR 1026.32 or one or more such credit extensions through a mortgage broker.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Dwelling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, mobile home, and trailer, if it is used as a residence.
</P>
<P>(2) A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Federally regulated AMC</I> means an AMC that is owned and controlled by an insured depository institution, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1813 and that is regulated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, or the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Federally related transaction regulations</I> means regulations established by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or the National Credit Union Administration, pursuant to sections 1112, 1113, and 1114 of FIRREA Title XI, 12 U.S.C. 3341-3343.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Person</I> means a natural person or an organization, including a corporation, partnership, proprietorship, association, cooperative, estate, trust, or government unit.
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Secondary mortgage market participant</I> means a guarantor or insurer of mortgage-backed securities, or an underwriter or issuer of mortgage-backed securities. Secondary mortgage market participant only includes an individual investor in a mortgage-backed security if that investor also serves in the capacity of a guarantor, insurer, underwriter, or issuer for the mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P>(o) <I>States</I> mean the 50 States and the District of Columbia and the territories of Guam, Mariana Islands, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice</I> (USPAP) means the appraisal standards promulgated by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.22   Appraiser panel—annual size calculation.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining whether, within a 12-month period, an AMC oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in a State or 25 or more State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in two or more States pursuant to § 1222.21(c)(1)(iii)—
</P>
<P>(a) An appraiser is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel as of the earliest date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Accepts the appraiser for the AMC's consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions; or
</P>
<P>(2) Engages the appraiser to perform one or more appraisals on behalf of a creditor for a covered transaction or secondary mortgage market participant in connection with covered transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) An appraiser who is deemed part of the AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section is deemed to remain on the panel until the date on which the AMC:
</P>
<P>(1) Sends written notice to the appraiser removing the appraiser from the appraiser panel, with an explanation of its action; or
</P>
<P>(2) Receives written notice from the appraiser asking to be removed from the appraiser panel or notice of the death or incapacity of the appraiser.
</P>
<P>(c) If an appraiser is removed from an AMC's appraiser panel pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, but the AMC subsequently accepts the appraiser for consideration for future assignments or engages the appraiser at any time during the twelve months after the AMC's removal, the removal will be deemed not to have occurred, and the appraiser will be deemed to have been part of the AMC's appraiser panel without interruption.
</P>
<P>(d) The period for purposes of counting appraisers on an AMC's appraiser panel may be the calendar year or a 12-month period established by law or rule of each State with which the AMC is required to register.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.23   Appraisal management company registration.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section must:
</P>
<P>(a) Establish and maintain within the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency a licensing program that is subject to the limitations set forth in § 1222.24 and with the legal authority and mechanisms to:
</P>
<P>(1) Review and approve or deny an AMC's application for initial registration;
</P>
<P>(2) Review and renew or review and deny an AMC's registration periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Examine the books and records of an AMC operating in the State and require the AMC to submit reports, information, and documents;
</P>
<P>(4) Verify that the appraisers on the AMC's panel hold valid State certifications or licenses, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(5) Conduct investigations of AMCs to assess potential violations of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders;
</P>
<P>(6) Discipline, suspend, terminate, or deny renewal of the registration of an AMC that violates applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders; and
</P>
<P>(7) Report an AMC's violation of applicable appraisal-related laws, regulations, or orders, as well as disciplinary and enforcement actions and other relevant information about an AMC's operations, to the Appraisal Subcommittee.
</P>
<P>(b) Impose requirements on AMCs that are not owned and controlled by an insured depository institution and not regulated by a Federal financial institutions regulatory agency to:
</P>
<P>(1) Register with and be subject to supervision by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency;
</P>
<P>(2) Engage only State-certified or State-licensed appraisers for Federally related transactions in conformity with any Federally related transaction regulations;
</P>
<P>(3) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC, in engaging an appraiser, selects an appraiser who is independent of the transaction and who has the requisite education, expertise, and experience necessary to competently complete the appraisal assignment for the particular market and property type;
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the appraiser to perform the assignment in accordance with USPAP; and
</P>
<P>(5) Establish and comply with processes and controls reasonably designed to ensure that the AMC conducts its appraisal management services in accordance with the requirements of section 129E(a)-(i) of the Truth in Lending Act, 15 U.S.C. 1639e(a)-(i), and regulations thereunder.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.24   Ownership limitations for State-registered appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appraiser certification or licensing of owners.</I> (1) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 shall not be registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the appropriate State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.
</P>
<P>(2) An AMC subject to State registration pursuant to § 1222.23 is not barred by paragraph (a)(1) of this section from being registered by a State or included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for a substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Good moral character of owners.</I> An AMC shall not be registered by a State if any person that owns more than 10 percent of the AMC—
</P>
<P>(1) Is determined by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency not to have good moral character; or
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to submit to a background investigation carried out by the State appraiser certifying and licensing agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.25   Requirements for Federally regulated appraisal management companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements in providing services.</I> To provide appraisal management services for a creditor or secondary mortgage market participant relating to a covered transaction, a Federally regulated AMC must comply with the requirements in § 1222.23(b)(2) through (5).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Ownership limitations.</I> (1) A Federally regulated AMC shall not be included on the AMC National Registry if such AMC, in whole or in part, directly or indirectly, is owned by any person who has had an appraiser license or certificate refused, denied, cancelled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked in any State for a substantive cause, as determined by the ASC.
</P>
<P>(2) A Federally regulated AMC is not barred pursuant to paragraph (b)(1) of this section from being included on the AMC National Registry if the license or certificate of the appraiser with an ownership interest was not revoked for substantive cause and has been reinstated by the State or States in which the appraiser was licensed or certified.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting information for the AMC National Registry.</I> A Federally regulated AMC must report to the State or States in which it operates the information required to be submitted by the State to the Appraisal Subcommittee pursuant to the Appraisal Subcommittee's policies regarding the determination of the AMC National Registry fee, including but not necessarily limited to the collection of information related to the limitations set forth in this section, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.26   Information to be presented to the Appraisal Subcommittee by participating States.</HEAD>
<P>Each State electing to register AMCs for purposes of permitting AMCs to provide appraisal management services relating to covered transactions in the State must submit to the Appraisal Subcommittee the information required to be submitted by Appraisal Subcommittee regulations or guidance concerning AMCs that operate in the State.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Quality Control Standards for Automated Valuation Models</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>90 FR 64579, Aug. 7, 2024, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1222. 27" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222. 27   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This subpart is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.,</I> 12 U.S.C. 4526, section 1125 of FIRREA, 12 U.S.C. 3354, as added by section 1473(q) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> (1) The purpose of this subpart is to implement the quality control standards in section 3354 of title 12 for the use of automated valuation models in determining the value of collateral in connection with making a credit decision or covered securitization determination regarding a mortgage or mortgage-backed security. This subpart applies to entities regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency.
</P>
<P>(2) This subpart does not apply to the use of automated valuation models in:
</P>
<P>(i) Monitoring of the quality or performance of mortgages or mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviews of the quality of already completed determinations of the value of collateral; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The development of an appraisal by a certified or licensed appraiser.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.28   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Automated valuation model</I> means any computerized model used by mortgage originators and secondary market issuers to determine the value of a consumer's principal dwelling collateralizing a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Control systems</I> means the functions (such as internal and external audits, risk review, quality control, and quality assurance) and information systems that are used to measure performance, make decisions about risk, and assess the effectiveness of processes and personnel, including with respect to compliance with statutes and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Covered securitization determination</I> means a determination regarding:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether to waive an appraisal requirement for a mortgage origination in connection with its potential sale or transfer to a secondary market issuer; or
</P>
<P>(2) Structuring, preparing disclosures for, or marketing initial offerings of mortgage-backed securitizations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit decision</I> means a decision regarding whether and under what terms to originate, modify, terminate, or make other changes to a mortgage, including a decision whether to extend new or additional credit or change the credit limit on a line of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling</I> means a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property. The term includes an individual condominium unit, cooperative unit, factory-built housing, or manufactured home, if it is used as a residence. A consumer can have only one “principal” dwelling at a time. Thus, a vacation or other second home would not be a principal dwelling. However, if a consumer buys or builds a new dwelling that will become the consumer's principal dwelling within a year or upon the completion of construction, the new dwelling is considered the principal dwelling for purposes of this subpart.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a transaction in which a mortgage, deed of trust, purchase money security interest arising under an installment sales contract, or equivalent consensual security interest is created or retained in a consumer's principal dwelling.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage originator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any person who, for direct or indirect compensation or gain, or in the expectation of direct or indirect compensation or gain—
</P>
<P>(i) Takes a mortgage application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assists a consumer in obtaining or applying to obtain a mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Offers or negotiates terms of a mortgage;
</P>
<P>(2) Includes any person who represents to the public, through advertising or other means of communicating or providing information (including the use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other promotional items), that such person can or will provide any of the services or perform any of the activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include any person who is—
</P>
<P>(i) Not otherwise described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this definition and who performs purely administrative or clerical tasks on behalf of a person who is described in any such paragraph; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A retailer of manufactured or modular homes or an employee of the retailer if the retailer or employee, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(A) Does not receive compensation or gain for engaging in activities described in paragraph (1) of this definition that is in excess of any compensation or gain received in a comparable cash transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Discloses to the consumer—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In writing any corporate affiliation with any creditor; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the retailer has a corporate affiliation with any creditor, at least one unaffiliated creditor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Does not directly negotiate with the consumer or lender on loan terms (including rates, fees, and other costs);
</P>
<P>(4) Does not include a person or entity that only performs real estate brokerage activities and is licensed or registered in accordance with applicable State law, unless such person or entity is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator or by any agent of such lender, mortgage broker, or other mortgage originator;
</P>
<P>(5) Does not include a person that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The person provides seller financing for the sale of three or fewer properties in any 12-month period to purchasers of such properties, each of which is owned by the person and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The person has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The person provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing is fully amortizing;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing is one that the person determines in good faith the consumer has a reasonable ability to repay;
</P>
<P>(C) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(6) Does not include a natural person, estate, or trust that meets all of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing for the sale of only one property in any 12-month period to purchasers of such property, which is owned by the natural person, estate, or trust and serves as security for the financing;
</P>
<P>(ii) The natural person, estate, or trust has not constructed, or acted as a contractor for the construction of, a residence on the property in the ordinary course of business of the person;
</P>
<P>(iii) The natural person, estate, or trust provides seller financing that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The financing has a repayment schedule that does not result in negative amortization;
</P>
<P>(B) The financing has a fixed rate or an adjustable rate that is adjustable after five or more years, subject to reasonable annual and lifetime limitations on interest rate increases. If the financing agreement has an adjustable rate, the rate is determined by the addition of a margin to an index rate and is subject to reasonable rate adjustment limitations. The index the adjustable rate is based on is a widely available index such as indices for U.S. Treasury securities or SOFR.
</P>
<P>(7) Does not include a servicer or servicer employees, agents and contractors, including but not limited to those who offer or negotiate terms of a mortgage for purposes of renegotiating, modifying, replacing and subordinating principal of existing mortgages where borrowers are behind in their payments, in default or have a reasonable likelihood of being in default or falling behind.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> has the meaning given in section 103 of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1602).
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market issuer</I> means any party that creates, structures, or organizes a mortgage-backed securities transaction.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1222.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.17.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1222.29   Quality control standards.</HEAD>
<P>Mortgage originators and secondary market issuers that engage in credit decisions or covered securitization determinations themselves, or through or in cooperation with a third-party or affiliate, must adopt and maintain policies, practices, procedures, and control systems to ensure that automated valuation models used in these transactions adhere to quality control standards designed to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure a high level of confidence in the estimates produced;
</P>
<P>(b) Protect against the manipulation of data;
</P>
<P>(c) Seek to avoid conflicts of interest;
</P>
<P>(d) Require random sample testing and reviews; and
</P>
<P>(e) Comply with applicable nondiscrimination laws.




</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1223" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1223—MINORITY AND WOMEN INCLUSION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4520 and 4526; 12 U.S.C. 1833e; E.O. 11478.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010. Redesignated at 82 FR 14994, Mar. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means an individual who submits an expression of interest in employment in conjunction with all of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The regulated entity acted to fill a particular position;
</P>
<P>(2) The individual followed the regulated entity's standard process for submitting an application;
</P>
<P>(3) The individual's expression of interest indicates that the individual possesses the basic qualifications for the position; and
</P>
<P>(4) The individual has not removed him or herself from consideration or otherwise indicated that he or she is no longer interested in the position.
</P>
<P><I>Business and activities</I> means operational, commercial, and economic endeavors of any kind, whether for profit or not for profit and whether regularly or irregularly engaged in by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, and includes, but is not limited to, management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, employment, procurement, insurance, and all types of contracts, including contracts for the issuance or guarantee of any debt, equity, or mortgage-related securities, the management of mortgage and securities portfolios, the making of equity investments, the purchase, sale and servicing of single- and multi-family mortgage loans, and the implementation of affordable housing or community investment programs and initiatives.
</P>
<P><I>Disability</I> has the same meaning as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(g) and 1630.3 and Appendix to Part 1630—Interpretive Guidance on title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
</P>
<P><I>Disabled-owned business</I> means a business, and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—
</P>
<P>(1) Qualified as a Service-Disabled Veteran-Owned Small Business Concern as defined in 13 CFR 125.8 through 125.13; or
</P>
<P>(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more persons with a disability; and
</P>
<P>(3) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more persons with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>D&amp;I strategic planning</I> is the process of analyzing the business and activities of a regulated entity to develop strategies for promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs in all activities and at every level of the organization, including management, employment, and contracting. A D&amp;I strategic plan serves as the primary means to communicate the board of directors' long-term D&amp;I vision for the organization, to establish measurable goals and objectives for achieving the vision, and to ensure accountability for achieving those goals and objectives.
</P>
<P><I>Diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses</I> means the dollar amount(s) paid by a regulated entity to a prime contractor that is not a minority-, women-, or disabled-owned business for professional services (<I>i.e.,</I> the amount paid for work performed, as may be adjusted, in connection with providing legal, accounting, or other professional or consulting services) provided by or allocated to a partner, member, or other equity owner who is a minority, woman, or an individual with a disability.
</P>
<P><I>Minority</I> means any Black (or African) American, Native American (or American Indian), Hispanic (or Latino) American, or Asian American.
</P>
<P><I>Minority-owned business</I> means a business, and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, and asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—
</P>
<P>(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more minority individuals; and
</P>
<P>(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more minority individuals.
</P>
<P><I>Prime contractor (tier 1)</I> means a supplier that enters into a contract with a regulated entity to provide goods and/or services directly to that regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Promotion</I> means the advancement of an employee within a regulated entity and may be the result of an employee's proactive pursuit of a higher job ranking or a reward for good performance. A promotion is typically associated with an increase in an employee's pay due to additional or enhanced job responsibilities.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable accommodation</I> has the same meaning as defined in 29 CFR 1630.2(o) and Appendix to Part 1630—Interpretive Guidance on title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act.
</P>
<P><I>Subcontractor (tier 2)</I> means a supplier that enters into a contract with a prime contractor (tier 1) of a regulated entity to provide goods and/or services to that prime contractor (tier 1) for the benefit of the regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Women-owned business</I> means a business and includes, but is not limited to, financial institutions, firms engaged in mortgage banking, investment banking, financial services, and asset management, investment consultants or advisors, underwriters, accountants, brokers, broker-dealers, and providers of legal services—
</P>
<P>(1) More than fifty percent (50%) of the ownership or control of which is held, directly or indirectly, by one or more women; and
</P>
<P>(2) More than fifty percent (50%) of the net profit or loss of which accrues to one or more women.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34394, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.2   Policy, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General policy.</I> FHFA's policy is to promote non-discrimination, diversity and, at a minimum, the inclusion of women, minorities, and individuals with disabilities in its own activities and in the business and activities of the regulated entities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes minimum standards and requirements for the regulated entities to promote diversity and ensure, to the maximum extent possible, in balance with financially safe and sound business practices, the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses at all levels, in management and employment, in all business and activities, and in all contracts for services of any kind, including services that require the services of investment banking, asset management entities, broker-dealers, financial services entities, underwriters, accountants, investment consultants, and providers of legal services.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scope.</I> This part applies to each regulated entity's development, implementation, and adherence to diversity, inclusion, and non-discrimination policies, practices, and principles, including opportunities to award contracts for goods and/or services.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.3   Limitations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as expressly provided herein for enforcement by FHFA, the regulations in this part do not, are not intended to, and should not be construed to create any right or benefit, substantive or procedural, enforceable at law, in equity, or through administrative proceeding, by any party against the United States, its departments, agencies, or entities, its officers, employees, or agents, a regulated entity, their officers, employees or agents, or any other person.
</P>
<P>(b) The contract clause required by § 1223.21(b)(9) and the itemized data reporting on numbers of contracts and amounts involved required under §§ 1223.22 and 1223.23(b)(13) through (22) apply only to contracts for services in any amount and to contracts for goods that equal or exceed $25,000 in annual value, whether in a single contract, multiple contracts, a series of contracts or renewals of contracts, with a single vendor.
</P>
<P>(c) Within ninety (90) days after August 24, 2017 each regulated entity shall submit to FHFA a list of the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1223.21(c)(2). The submission shall address the criteria identified in § 1223.21(b)(9).
</P>
<P>(d) Each regulated entity shall notify FHFA within thirty (30) days after any change in the types of contracts it considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) or any change in the thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for the implementation of § 1223.21(c)(2).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1223.4-1223.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1223.4-1223.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Minority and Women Inclusion and Diversity at Regulated Entities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.20   Office of Minority and Women Inclusion.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> Each regulated entity shall establish and maintain an Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or designate and maintain an office to perform the responsibilities of this part, under the direction of an officer of the regulated entity who reports directly to either the Chief Executive Officer or the Chief Operating Officer, or the equivalent. Each regulated entity shall notify the Director within thirty (30) days after any change in the designation of the office performing the responsibilities of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adequate resources.</I> The board of directors of each regulated entity will ensure that the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or office designated to lead the regulated entity in performing the responsibilities of this part, is provided relevant resources including, but not limited to, human, technological, and financial resources sufficient to fulfill the requirements of this part. The regulated entity will also ensure that any officer(s) designated to direct and oversee its D&amp;I programs has the necessary knowledge, skills, competencies, and abilities to effectively implement the minimum standards and requirements found in this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Responsibilities.</I> Each Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or the office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, is responsible for leading the regulated entity's board-approved strategies, for fulfilling the requirements of this part, 12 U.S.C. 1833e(b) and 4520, and such standards and requirements as the Director may issue hereunder.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.21   Promoting diversity and ensuring inclusion in all business and activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equal opportunity notice.</I> Each regulated entity shall publish a statement, endorsed by its Chief Executive Officer and approved by its Board of Directors, confirming its commitment to the principles of equal opportunity in employment and in contracting, at a minimum, regardless of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, disability status, genetic information, age, sexual orientation, gender identity, or status as a parent. 



The notice also shall confirm commitment against retaliation or reprisal. Publication shall include, at a minimum, conspicuous posting in all regulated entity physical facilities, including through alternative media formats, as necessary, and accessible posting on the regulated entity's Web site. The notice shall be updated and re-published, re-endorsed by the Chief Executive Officer and re-approved by the Board of Directors annually.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> Each regulated entity shall develop, implement, and maintain policies and procedures to ensure, to the maximum extent possible in balance with financially safe and sound business practices, the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses in all business and activities and at all levels of the regulated entity, including in management, employment, procurement, insurance, and all types of contracts. The policies and procedures of each regulated entity, at a minimum, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Confirm its adherence to the principles of equal opportunity and non-discrimination in employment and in contracting;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe its practices and principles for prohibiting discrimination in employment and contracting;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe its processes for giving consideration to MWDOBs when reviewing and evaluating contract proposals and hiring service providers as required under § 1223.2(c);
</P>
<P>(4) Establish a process for receiving and attempting to resolve complaints of discrimination in employment and in contracting. Publication will include, at a minimum, making the procedure conspicuously accessible to employees and applicants through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site;
</P>
<P>(5) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations of disabilities from employees or applicants for employment;
</P>
<P>(6) Establish a process for accepting, reviewing, and granting or denying requests for reasonable accommodations for religious beliefs or practices from employees or applicants for employment;
</P>
<P>(7) Encourage the consideration of diversity in nominating or soliciting nominees for positions on boards of directors and engage in recruiting and outreach directed at encouraging individuals who are minorities, women and individuals with disabilities to seek or apply for employment with the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(8) Establish a process for developing a stand-alone D&amp;I strategic plan or incorporating into its existing strategic plan a D&amp;I plan that proactively focuses on promoting the advancement of D&amp;I. The stand-alone D&amp;I strategic plan and the incorporated D&amp;I plan are hereinafter referred to as the D&amp;I strategic plan;
</P>
<P>(9) Except as limited by § 1223.3(b), require that each contract it enters contains a material clause committing the contractor to practice the principles of equal employment opportunity and non-discrimination in all its business activities and requiring each such contractor to include the clause in each subcontract it enters for services or goods provided to the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(10) Identify the types of contracts the regulated entity considers exempt under § 1223.3(b) and any thresholds, exceptions, and limitations the regulated entity establishes for implementing paragraph (c)(2) of this section. The policies and procedures must describe the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The rationale and need for the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The criteria used to implement the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any negative or adverse impact the implementation of the thresholds, exceptions, or limitations would likely have on contracting opportunities for minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs;
</P>
<P>(11) Be published and made accessible to employees, applicants for employment, contractors, potential contractors, and members of the public through print, electronic, or alternative media formats, as necessary, and through the regulated entity's Web site; and
</P>
<P>(12) Be reviewed at the direction of the officer immediately responsible for directing the Office of Minority and Women Inclusion, or other office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, at least annually to assess their effectiveness and to incorporate appropriate changes.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Outreach for contracting.</I> Each regulated entity shall establish a program for outreach designed to ensure to the maximum extent possible the inclusion in contracting opportunities of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses. The program at a minimum shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Apply to all contracts entered into by the regulated entity, including contracts with financial institutions, investment banking firms, investment consultants or advisors, financial services entities, mortgage banking firms, asset management entities, underwriters, accountants, brokers, brokers-dealers, and providers of legal services;
</P>
<P>(2) Establish policies, procedures and standards requiring the publication of contracting opportunities designed to encourage contractors that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and minority-, women-, and disabled-owned businesses to submit offers or bid for the award of such contracts; and
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure the consideration of the diversity of a contractor when the regulated entity reviews and evaluates offers from contractors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>D&amp;I strategic planning.</I> By no later than January 25, 2018 the board of directors of each regulated entity shall adopt a D&amp;I strategic plan for promoting D&amp;I of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs. The board of directors of each regulated entity shall review the D&amp;I strategic plan at least annually and shall readopt the plan, including any interim amendments, at least every three years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Contents of the D&amp;I strategic plan.</I> The D&amp;I strategic plan shall include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A vision and/or mission statement that addresses the importance of promoting diversity and ensuring the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities in order to fulfill § 1223.2;
</P>
<P>(2) Measurable strategic goals and objectives for accomplishing the agreed-upon priorities and intended outcomes developed to advance diversity and ensure the inclusion of minorities, women, and individuals with disabilities at the regulated entity in accordance with § 1223.2; and
</P>
<P>(3) A requirement to create and implement action plans to achieve the strategic goals and objectives and management reporting requirements for monitoring the implementation of those goals and objectives.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34396, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.22   Regulated entity reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each regulated entity, through its Office of Minority and Women Inclusion or other office designated to perform the responsibilities of this part, shall report in writing, in such format as the Director may require, to the Director describing its efforts to promote diversity and ensure the inclusion and utilization of minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, and MWDOBs at all levels, in management and employment, in all business and activities, and in all contracts for services and those contracts for goods above the material clause threshold in § 1223.3(b) and the results of such efforts.
</P>
<P>(1) Within 180 days after the effective date of this regulation each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall submit to the Director or his or her designee a preliminary status report describing actions taken, plans for and progress toward implementing the provisions of 12 U.S.C. 4520 and this part; and including to the extent available the data and information required by this part to be included in an annual report.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA intends to use the preliminary status report solely for the purpose of examining the submitting regulated entity or the Office of Finance and reporting to the institution on its operations and the condition of its program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FHFA use of reports.</I> The data and information reported to FHFA under this part (except for the initial report under paragraph (a)(1) of this section) are intended to be used for any permissible supervisory and regulatory purpose, including examinations, enforcement actions, identification of matters requiring attention, and production of FHFA examination, operating and condition reports related to one or more of the regulated entities. FHFA may use the information and data submitted to issue aggregate reports and data summaries that each regulated entity may use to assess its own progress and accomplishments, or to the public as it deems necessary. FHFA is not requiring, and does not desire, that reports under this part contain personally identifiable information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Frequency of reports.</I> Each regulated entity shall submit an annual report on or before March 31 of each year, reporting on the period of January 1 through December 31 of the preceding year, and such other reports as the Director may require. If the date for submission falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the report is due no later than the next business day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual summary.</I> Each regulated entity shall include in its annual report to the Director (pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1723a(k), 1456(c), or 1440, with respect to the regulated entities) a summary of its activities under this part during the previous year, including at a minimum, detailed information describing the actions taken by the regulated entity pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4520 and a statement of the total amounts paid by the regulated entity to contractors during the previous year and the percentage of such amounts paid to contractors that are minorities or minority-owned businesses, women or women-owned businesses, and individuals with disabilities and disabled-owned businesses respectively, as limited by § 1207.3(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25215, May 4, 2015; 82 FR 34395, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.23   Annual reports—format and contents.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Format.</I> Each annual report shall consist of a detailed summary of the regulated entity's activities during the reporting year to carry out the requirements of this part, which report may also be made a part of the regulated entity's annual report to the Director. The report shall contain a table of contents and conclude with a certification by the regulated entity's officer responsible for the annual report that the data and information presented in the report are accurate, and are approved for submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents.</I> The annual report shall contain the information provided in the regulated entity's annual summary pursuant to § 1223.22(d) and shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The EEO-1 Employer Information Report (Form EEO-1 used by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) and the Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) to collect certain demographic information) or similar reports filed by the regulated entity during the reporting year. If the regulated entity does not file Form EEO-1 or similar reports, the regulated entity shall submit to FHFA a completed Form EEO-1;
</P>
<P>(2) All other reports or plans the regulated entity submitted to the EEOC, the Department of Labor, OFCCP or Congress (“reports or plans” is not intended to include separate complaints or charges of discrimination or responses thereto) during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(3) Data showing by minority and gender the number of applicants for employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(4) Data showing by minority and gender the number of individuals hired for employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(5) Data showing by minority, gender and disability classification, and categorized as voluntary or involuntary, the number of separations from employment with the regulated entity in each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(6) Data showing the number of requests for reasonable accommodation received from employees and applicants for employment, the number of requests granted, and the disabilities accommodated and the types of accommodation granted during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(7) Data showing for the reporting year by minority, gender, and disability classification the number of applicants for promotion at the regulated entity—
</P>
<P>(i) Within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1; and
</P>
<P>(ii) From one such occupational or job category to another;
</P>
<P>(8) Data showing by minority, gender, and disability classification the number of individuals—
</P>
<P>(i) Promoted at the regulated entity within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1, after applying for such a promotion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Promoted at the regulated entity within each occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1, without applying for such a promotion; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Promoted at the regulated entity from one occupational or job category identified on the Form EEO-1 to another such category, after applying for such a promotion;
</P>
<P>(9) Data showing for the reporting year by minority, gender, and disability classification—
</P>
<P>(i) The number of individuals responsible for supervising employees and/or managing the functions or departments of the regulated entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the strategies, initiatives, and activities executed during the preceding year to promote diverse individuals to supervisory and management roles;
</P>
<P>(10)(i) Data showing for the reporting year by minority and gender classification, the number of individuals on the board of directors of each Bank and the Office of Finance—
</P>
<P>(A) Using data collected by each Bank and the Office of Finance through an information collection requesting each director's voluntary self-identification of his or her minority and gender classification without personally identifiable information;
</P>
<P>(B) Using the same classifications as those on the Form EEO-1; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the outreach activities and strategies executed during the preceding year to promote diversity in nominating or soliciting nominees for positions on boards of directors of the Banks (consistent with 12 CFR 1261.9) and the Office of Finance;
</P>
<P>(11) A comparison of the data reported by Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac under paragraphs (b)(1) through (8) of this section, and by the Banks under paragraphs (b)(1) through (9) of this section, to such data as reported in the previous year together with a narrative analysis;
</P>
<P>(12) A provision addressing the strategies, initiatives, and activities that the regulated entity has undertaken during the prior year to:
</P>
<P>(i) Communicate with minority serving organizations to help identify ways in which it might be able to improve MWDOB business with the regulated entity by enhancing MWDOB customer access, including in affordable housing and community investment programs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the regulated entity's processes for identifying, considering, and selecting MWDOBs to participate in financial transactions, which evaluation shall include an assessment of the regulated entity's internal policies and practices that may have presented unique challenges to MWDOBs' participation in financial transactions of the regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(13) Descriptions of all regulated entity outreach activity during the reporting year to recruit individuals who are minorities, women, or persons with disabilities for employment, to solicit or advertise for minority or minority-owned, women or women-owned, and disabled-owned contractors or contractors who are individuals with disabilities to offer proposals or bids to enter into business with the regulated entity, or to inform such contractors of the regulated entity's contracting process, including the identification of any partners, organizations, or government offices with which the regulated entity participated in such outreach activity;
</P>
<P>(14) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(15) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(16) Cumulative data separately showing the total number of contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—
</P>
<P>(i) Considered exempt under § 1223.3(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) Prime contracts (tier 1) entered into with minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs;
</P>
<P>(iii) Subcontractor (tier 2) contracts that prime contractors (tier 1) entered into with minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs;
</P>
<P>(17) Cumulative data separately showing the total amount paid for contracts entered into during the reporting year that were—
</P>
<P>(i) Considered exempt under § 1223.3(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) To prime contractors (tier 1) that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs in place at the beginning of the reporting year as well as those entered into during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(iii) To subcontractors (tier 2) that are minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs in place at the beginning of the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(18) Cumulative data separately showing the total diversity spend with non-diverse-owned businesses during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(19) The annual total of amounts paid to prime contractors (tier 1) and subcontractors (tier 2) and the percentage of which was paid separately through prime contracts and subcontracts to minorities, women, individuals with disabilities, or MWDOBs during the reporting year;
</P>
<P>(20) Certification of compliance with §§ 1223.20 and 1223.21, together with sufficient documentation to verify compliance;
</P>
<P>(21) Data for the reporting year showing, separately, the number of equal opportunity complaints (including administrative agency charges or complaints, arbitral or judicial claims) against the regulated entity that—
</P>
<P>(i) Claim employment discrimination, by basis or kind of the alleged discrimination (race, sex, disability, <I>etc.</I>) and by result (settlement, favorable, or unfavorable outcome);
</P>
<P>(ii) Claim discrimination in any aspect of the contracting process or administration of contracts, by basis of the alleged discrimination and by result; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Were resolved through the regulated entity's internal processes;
</P>
<P>(22) Data showing for the reporting year amounts paid to claimants by the regulated entity for settlements or judgments on discrimination complaints—
</P>
<P>(i) In employment, by basis of the alleged discrimination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In any aspect of the contracting process or in the administration of contracts, by basis of the alleged discrimination;
</P>
<P>(23) A comparison of the data reported under paragraphs (b)(13) through (19) of this section with the same information reported for the previous year;
</P>
<P>(24) A narrative identification and analysis of the reporting year's activities the regulated entity considers successful and unsuccessful in achieving the purpose and policy of regulations in this part and a description of progress made from the previous year; and
</P>
<P>(25) A narrative identification and analysis of business activities, levels, and areas in which the regulated entity's efforts need to improve with respect to achieving the purpose and policy of regulations in this part, together with a description of anticipated efforts and results the regulated entity expects in the succeeding year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 25215, May 4, 2015; 82 FR 34396, July 25, 2017; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.24   Enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may enforce this regulation and standards issued under it in any manner and through any means within his or her authority, including through identifying matters requiring attention, corrective action orders, directives, or enforcement actions under 12 U.S.C. 4513b and 4514. The Director may conduct examinations of a regulated entity's activities under and in compliance with this part pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4517.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81402, Dec. 28, 2010, as amended at 82 FR 34397, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1223.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.3.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1223.25   Office of Finance.</HEAD>
<P>All sections of this part and the standards issued under it shall apply to the Office of Finance, as defined in § 1201.1 of this chapter, in the same manner in which it applies to the regulated entities, unless the Office of Finance is otherwise specifically addressed or excluded.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 34397, July 25, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.18.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subparts C-Z [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1225" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1225—MINIMUM CAPITAL—TEMPORARY INCREASE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4513, 4526, and 4612.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 11674, Mar. 3, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1225.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1225.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA is responsible for ensuring the safe and sound operation of regulated entities. In furtherance of that responsibility, this part sets forth standards and procedures FHFA will employ to determine whether to require or rescind a temporary increase in the minimum capital levels for a regulated entity or entities pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4612(d).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1225.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1225.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Minimum capital level</I> means the lowest amount of capital meeting any regulation or orders issued pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1426 and 12 U.S.C. 4612, or any similar requirement established by regulation, order or other action.
</P>
<P><I>Rescission</I> means a removal in whole or in part of an increase in the temporary minimum capital level.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 11674, Mar. 3, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1225.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1225.3   Procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information</I>—(1) <I>Information to the regulated entity or entities.</I> If the Director determines, based on standards enunciated in this part, that a temporary increase in the minimum capital level is necessary, the Director will provide notice to the affected regulated entity or entities 30 days in advance of the date that the temporary minimum capital requirement becomes effective, unless the Director determines that an exigency exists that does not permit such notice or the Director determines a longer time period would be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Information to the Government.</I> The Director shall inform the Secretary of the Treasury, the Secretary of Housing and Urban Development, and the Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Commission of a temporary increase in the minimum capital level contemporaneously with informing the affected regulated entity or entities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Comments.</I> The affected regulated entity or entities may provide comments regarding or objections to the temporary increase to FHFA within 15 days or such other period as the Director determines appropriate under the circumstances. The Director may determine to modify, delay, or rescind the announced temporary increase in response to such comments or objection, but no further notice is required for the temporary increase to become effective upon the date originally determined by the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communication.</I> The Director shall transmit notice of a temporary increase or rescission of a temporary increase in the minimum capital level in writing, using electronic or such other means as appropriate. Such communication shall set forth, at a minimum, the bases for the Director's determination, the amount of increase or decrease in the minimum capital level, the anticipated duration of such increase, and a description of the procedures for requesting a rescission of the temporary increase in the minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written plan.</I> In making a finding under this part, the Director may require a written plan to augment capital to be submitted on a timely basis to address the methods by which such temporary increase may be attained and the time period for reaching the new temporary minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Time frame for review of temporary increase for purpose of rescission.</I> (1) Absent an earlier determination to rescind in whole or in part a temporary increase in the minimum capital level for a regulated entity or entities, the Director shall no less than every 12 months, consider the need to maintain, modify, or rescind such increase.
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated entity or regulated entities may at any time request in writing such review by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1225.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1225.4   Standards and factors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard for imposing a temporary increase.</I> In making a determination to increase temporarily a minimum capital requirement for a regulated entity or entities, the Director will consider the necessity and consistency of such an increase with the prudential regulation and the safe and sound operations of a regulated entity. The Director may impose a temporary minimum-capital increase if consideration of one or more of the following factors leads the Director to the judgment that the current minimum capital requirement for a regulated entity is insufficient to address the entity's risks:
</P>
<P>(1) Current or anticipated declines in the value of assets held by a regulated entity; the amounts of mortgage-backed securities issued or guaranteed by the regulated entity; and, its ability to access liquidity and funding;
</P>
<P>(2) Credit (including counterparty), market, operational and other risks facing a regulated entity, especially where an increase in risks is foreseeable and consequential;
</P>
<P>(3) Current or projected declines in the capital held by a regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(4) A regulated entity's material non-compliance with regulations, written orders, or agreements;
</P>
<P>(5) Housing finance market conditions;
</P>
<P>(6) Level of reserves or retained earnings;
</P>
<P>(7) Initiatives, operations, products, or practices that entail heightened risk;
</P>
<P>(8) With respect to a Bank, the ratio of the market value of its equity to par value of its capital stock where the market value of equity is the value calculated and reported by the Bank as “market value of total capital” under 12 CFR 932.5(a)(1)(ii)(A); or
</P>
<P>(9) Other conditions as detailed by the Director in the notice provided under § 1225.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standard for rescission of a temporary increase.</I> In making a determination to rescind a temporary increase in the minimum capital level for a regulated entity or entities, whether in full or in part, the Director will consider the consistency of such a rescission with the prudential regulation and safe and sound operations of a regulated entity. The Director will rescind, in full or in part, a temporary minimum capital increase if consideration of one or more of the following factors leads the Director to the judgment that rescission of a temporary minimum-capital increase for a regulated entity is appropriate considering the entity's risks:
</P>
<P>(1) Changes to the circumstances or facts that led to the imposition of a temporary increase in the minimum capital levels;
</P>
<P>(2) The meeting of targets set for a regulated entity in advance of any capital or capital-related plan agreed to by the Director;
</P>
<P>(3) Changed circumstances or facts based on new developments occurring since the imposition of the temporary increase in the minimum capital level, particularly where the original problems or concerns have been successfully addressed or alleviated in whole or in part; or
</P>
<P>(4) Such other standard as the Director may consider as detailed by the Director in the notice provided under § 1225.3.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1225.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.19.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1225.5   Guidances.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may determine, from time to time, issue guidance to elaborate, to refine or to provide new information regarding standards or procedures contained herein.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1226" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.20" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>Part 1226—XXX
</HEAD>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="21">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
<XREF ID="20260625" REFID="22">Link to an amendment published at 91 FR 38269, June 25, 2026.</XREF>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1227" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1227—SUSPENDED COUNTERPARTY PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4513, 4513b, 4514, 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the procedures FHFA follows under its Suspended Counterparty Program, the purpose of which is to protect the safety and soundness of the regulated entities. The procedures require the regulated entities to submit reports when they become aware that a person with whom they have engaged or are engaging in a covered transaction within the past three (3) years has engaged in covered misconduct. The procedures set forth a process for FHFA to issue suspension orders directing the regulated entities to cease or refrain from engaging in covered transactions with such persons and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently. A suspension order is not intended to be, and may not be issued as, a form of punishment for the suspended person. The procedures include options for:
</P>
<P>(a) Appeal of a final suspension order to the Director;
</P>
<P>(b) Request for reconsideration of a final suspension order after twelve (12) months have elapsed; and
</P>
<P>(c) Request for an exception to a final suspension order in effect in order to engage in a particular covered transaction with the suspended person.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative sanction</I> means debarment or suspension imposed by any Federal agency, or any similar administrative action that has the effect of limiting the ability of a person to do business with a Federal agency, including Limited Denials of Participation, Temporary Denials of Participation, or settlements of proposed administrative sanctions if the terms of the settlement restrict the person's ability to do business with the Federal agency in question.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means a party that either controls or is controlled by another person, whether directly or indirectly, including one or more persons that are controlled by the same third person.
</P>
<P><I>Conviction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A judgment or any other determination of guilt of a criminal offense by any court of competent jurisdiction, whether entered upon a verdict or plea; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any other resolution that is the functional equivalent of a judgment of guilt of a criminal offense, including probation before judgment and deferred prosecution. A disposition without the participation of the court is the functional equivalent of a judgment only if it includes an admission of guilt.
</P>
<P><I>Covered misconduct</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any conviction or administrative sanction within the past three (3) years if the basis of such action involved fraud, embezzlement, theft, conversion, forgery, bribery, perjury, making false statements or claims, tax evasion, obstruction of justice, or any similar offense, in each case in connection with a mortgage, mortgage business, mortgage securities or other lending product.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may impute covered misconduct among affiliates as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Conduct imputed from an individual to an organization.</I> FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of any officer, director, shareholder, partner, employee, or other individual associated with an organization, to that organization when the conduct occurred in connection with the individual's performance of duties for or on behalf of that organization, or with the organization's knowledge, approval, or acquiescence. The organization's acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval, or acquiescence.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Conduct imputed from an organization to an individual, or between individuals.</I> FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of any organization to an individual, or from one individual to another individual, if the individual to whom the conduct is imputed either participated in, had knowledge of, or had reason to know of the conduct.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Conduct imputed from one organization to another organization.</I> FHFA may impute the covered misconduct of one organization to another organization when the conduct occurred in connection with a partnership, joint venture, joint application, association, or similar arrangement, or when the organization to whom the conduct is imputed has the power to direct, manage, control, or influence the activities of the organization responsible for the conduct. Acceptance of the benefits derived from the conduct is evidence of knowledge, approval, or acquiescence and hence is a basis for imputation of conduct.
</P>
<P><I>Covered transaction</I> means a contract, agreement, or financial or business relationship between a regulated entity and a person and any affiliates thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, organization, or other entity.
</P>
<P><I>Respondent</I> means a person and any affiliate thereof that is the subject of a proposed or final suspension order.
</P>
<P><I>Suspending official</I> means the Director, or any other FHFA official with delegated authority to sign proposed and final suspension orders and their accompanying notices.
</P>
<P><I>Suspension</I> means an action taken by a suspending official pursuant to a final suspension order that requires a regulated entity to cease or refrain from engaging in any covered transactions with a person and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.3   Scope of suspension orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A suspending official may issue a final suspension order to the regulated entities directing them to cease or refrain from engaging in any covered transactions with a particular person and any affiliates thereof for a specified period of time or permanently, pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No effect on other actions by FHFA.</I> Nothing in this part shall limit the authority of FHFA to pursue any other regulatory or supervisory action with respect to any regulated entity or any other person and any affiliates thereof, whether instead of or in addition to any action taken under this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No effect on other actions by a regulated entity.</I> Nothing in this part shall limit the authority of any regulated entity to take any action it determines appropriate to address risks from any person and any affiliates thereof with which it engages in covered transactions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No effect on residential mortgage loans secured by respondent's own personal or household residence.</I> A final suspension order issued pursuant to this part shall have no effect on any transaction involving a residential mortgage loan if the loan is secured by the respondent's own personal or household residence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.4   Regulated entity reports on covered misconduct.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A regulated entity shall submit a report to FHFA when the regulated entity becomes aware that a person or any affiliates thereof with which the regulated entity is engaging or has engaged in a covered transaction within the past three (3) years has engaged in covered misconduct. A regulated entity is aware of covered misconduct when the regulated entity has reliable information that such misconduct has occurred.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of reports.</I> Each report on covered misconduct shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include sufficient information for FHFA to identify the person or persons that are the subject of the report, as well as any affiliates thereof if such affiliates are known to the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the nature and extent of any covered transaction that the regulated entity has or had with any persons and any affiliates thereof identified in the report; and
</P>
<P>(3) Include a description of the covered misconduct, including the date of the covered misconduct, documents evidencing the covered misconduct if in the possession of the regulated entity, and any other relevant information that the regulated entity chooses to submit.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of reports.</I> (1) A regulated entity shall submit a report to FHFA on covered misconduct no later than thirty (30) calendar daysafter the regulated entity becomes aware of such misconduct, even if the regulated entity lacks sufficient information to submit a complete report.
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated entity may supplement the submission of any covered misconduct report by submitting additional relevant information to FHFA at any time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.5   Proposed suspension order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A suspending official may base a proposed suspension order upon evidence of covered misconduct from any of the following sources:
</P>
<P>(1) A required report submitted by a regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A referral submitted by FHFA's Office of Inspector General; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other source of information.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for issuance.</I> A suspending official may issue a proposed suspension order with respect to a particular person and any affiliates thereof if the suspending official determines that there is evidence that:
</P>
<P>(1) The person or any affiliates thereof has engaged in covered misconduct, which evidence may include copies of any order or other documents documenting a conviction or administrative sanction for such conduct; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered misconduct is of a type that would be likely to cause significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice required.</I> If a suspending official determines that grounds exist under paragraph (b) of this section for issuance of a proposed suspension order with respect to a particular person and any affiliates thereof, the suspending official may issue a written notice of proposed suspension to the person and any affiliates thereof, and shall provide a copy of such notice to the regulated entity and to all of the other regulated entities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice of proposed suspension shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The time period during which the suspension will apply;
</P>
<P>(2) A statement of the suspending official's proposed suspension determination and supporting grounds;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed suspension order;
</P>
<P>(4) Instructions on how to respond; and
</P>
<P>(5) The date by which any response must be received, which must be at least thirty (30) calendar days after the date on which the notice is sent.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Method of sending notice.</I> The suspending official shall send the notice of proposed suspension to the last known street address, facsimile number, or email address of:
</P>
<P>(1) The person, the person's counsel, or an agent for service of process; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any affiliates of the person, the counsel for those affiliates, or an agent for service of process, if suspension is also being proposed for such affiliates.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Response from respondent</I>—(1) <I>Timing of response.</I> Any response from the affected person and any affiliates thereof must be submitted to FHFA within the time period specified in the notice. If a response is submitted after the specified deadline, the suspending official may consider or disregard such response, in the suspending official's discretion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of response.</I> The response shall identify:
</P>
<P>(i) Any information and argument in opposition to the proposed suspension;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any specific facts that contradict the statements contained in the notice of proposed suspension. A general denial is insufficient to raise a genuine dispute over facts material to the suspension;
</P>
<P>(iii) All criminal and civil proceedings not included in the notice of proposed suspension that grew out of facts relevant to the bases for the proposed suspension stated in such notice;
</P>
<P>(iv) All existing, proposed, or prior exclusions under regulations implementing Executive Order 12549 and all similar actions taken by Federal, state, or local agencies, including administrative agreements that affect only those agencies; and
</P>
<P>(v) The names and identifying information for any affiliates of the affected person.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Response from regulated entities</I>—(1) <I>Timing of response.</I> Any response from the regulated entities must be submitted to FHFA within the time period specified in the notice. If a response is submitted after the specified deadline, the suspending official may consider or disregard such response, in the suspending official's discretion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of response.</I> (i) The response shall include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any information that would indicate that suspension of the person in question could reasonably be expected to have a negative financial impact or other significant adverse effect on the financial or operating performance of the regulated entity; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any existing contractual relationship with the person in question for which the regulated entity might request a limitation or qualification.
</P>
<P>(ii) The response may include any other information that the regulated entity believes would be relevant to the proposed suspension determination, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(A) Any information related to the factual basis for the proposed suspension;
</P>
<P>(B) Any information about other known affiliates of the person;
</P>
<P>(C) Recommendations for alternatives to suspension that could mitigate the risks presented by engaging in covered transactions with the respondent; and
</P>
<P>(D) Recommendations for limitations or qualifications on the scope of the proposed suspension.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.6   Final suspension order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for issuance.</I> A suspending official may issue a final suspension order with respect to a respondent proposed for suspension if, based solely on the written record, the suspending official determines that there is adequate evidence that:
</P>
<P>(1) The respondent engaged in covered misconduct; and
</P>
<P>(2) The covered misconduct is of a type that would be likely to cause significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written record.</I> The written record shall include any material submitted by the respondent and any material submitted by the regulated entities, as well as any other material that was considered by the suspending official in making the final determination, including any information related to the factors in paragraph (c) of this section. FHFA may independently obtain information relevant to the suspension determination for inclusion in the written record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Factors that may be considered by the suspending official.</I> In determining whether or not to issue a final suspension order with respect to the respondent where the grounds for suspension are satisfied, the suspending official may also consider any factors that the suspending official determines may be relevant in light of the circumstances of the particular case, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) The actual or potential harm or impact that results or may result from the covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(2) The frequency of incidents or duration of the covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether there is a pattern of prior covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether and to what extent the respondent planned, initiated, or carried out the covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(5) Whether the respondent has accepted responsibility for the covered misconduct and recognizes its seriousness;
</P>
<P>(6) Whether the respondent has paid or agreed to pay all criminal, civil and administrative penalties or liabilities for the covered misconduct, including any investigative or administrative costs incurred by the government, and has made or agreed to make full restitution;
</P>
<P>(7) Whether the covered misconduct was pervasive within the respondent's organization;
</P>
<P>(8) The kind of positions held by the individuals involved in the covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(9) Whether the respondent's organization took appropriate corrective action or remedial measures, such as establishing ethics training and implementing programs to prevent recurrence of the covered misconduct;
</P>
<P>(10) Whether the respondent brought the covered misconduct to the attention of the appropriate government agency in a timely manner;
</P>
<P>(11) Whether the respondent has fully investigated the circumstances surrounding the covered misconduct and, if so, made the result of the investigation available to the suspending official;
</P>
<P>(12) Whether the respondent had effective standards of conduct and internal control systems in place at the time the covered misconduct occurred;
</P>
<P>(13) Whether the respondent has taken appropriate disciplinary action against the individuals responsible for the covered misconduct; or
</P>
<P>(14) Whether the respondent has had adequate time to eliminate the circumstances within the organization that led to the covered misconduct.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deadline for decision.</I> The suspending official shall make a determination on whether to issue a final suspension order with respect to the respondent within thirty (30) calendar days of the deadline given for the respondent's response in the notice of proposed suspension, unless the suspending official notifies the respondent in writing that additional time is needed.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determination not to issue final suspension order.</I> If the suspending official determines that suspension is not appropriate with respect to the respondent, the suspending official shall provide prompt written notice of that determination to the respondent, the regulated entity, and all of the other regulated entities.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Issuance of final suspension order</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> If the suspending official makes a final determination to suspend the respondent, the suspending official shall issue a final suspension order to each regulated entity regarding the respondent.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of final suspension order.</I> A final suspension order shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the suspension determination and supporting grounds, including a discussion of any relevant information submitted by the respondent or regulated entities;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identification of each person and any affiliates thereof to which the suspension applies;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the scope of the suspension, including the time period to which the suspension applies; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of any limitations or qualifications that apply to the scope of the suspension, including modification of the conduct of covered transactions that may be engaged in with the respondent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice to respondent required.</I> The suspending official shall provide prompt written notice to the respondent of the final suspension order issued to the regulated entities with respect to such respondent.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Content of notice.</I> The notice of a final suspension order shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the suspension determination and supporting grounds, including a discussion of any relevant information submitted by the respondent; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A copy of the final suspension order.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Effective date.</I> A final suspension order shall take effect on the date specified in the order, which shall be at least forty-five (45) calendar days after the date on which the order is signed by the suspending official.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 63012, Oct. 23, 2013, as amended at 80 FR 79680, Dec. 23, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.7   Appeal to the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Opportunity to appeal.</I> A respondent may submit an appeal to the Director within thirty (30) calendar days after the date a final suspension order has been signed. If the Director signed the final suspension order as the suspension official, the respondent has no appeal right under this section. The appeal shall be accompanied by a written brief specifically identifying the respondent's objections to the final suspension order and the supporting reasons for such objections.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision on appeal.</I> The Director shall issue a written final decision on an appeal of a final suspension order based on the record submitted by the suspending official, together with any material submitted with an appeal. The Director may affirm, vacate or amend the suspension, or remand to the suspending official for further proceedings, in the discretion of the Director. If the Director does not take action on an appeal prior to the effective date of the order, the order shall take effect as if it had been affirmed by the Director, on the date specified in the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Final agency action.</I> The written final decision of the Director on an appeal of a final suspension order shall be the final agency action. If the Director does not take action on an appeal prior to the effective date of the order, the order shall be the final agency action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</I> In order to fulfill the requirement to exhaust administrative remedies, a respondent must appeal a final suspension order to the Director as provided in this section prior to seeking judicial review of such order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.8   Posting of final suspension orders.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required posting.</I> FHFA will publish on its Web site all final suspension orders issued by FHFA on the effective date of the order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of posting.</I> Each posting on FHFA's Web site shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) The full name (where available) of each suspended person and any affiliates thereof subject to the final suspension order, in alphabetical order;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the time period for which the suspension applies; and
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of each final suspension order applicable to the person and any affiliates thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Removal of names.</I> FHFA will remove from the Web site all references to the suspension of a person and any affiliates thereof at such time as the suspension expires or is otherwise vacated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.9   Request for reconsideration.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Time period for request.</I> A suspended person may submit a request to the Director for reconsideration of a final suspension order at any time after the expiration of a twelve (12)-month period from the date the order took effect, but no such request may be made within twelve (12) months of a previous request for reconsideration from such person.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of request.</I> A request for reconsideration must be submitted in writing and state the specific grounds for relief from the final suspension order, which shall be limited to any new information that may indicate that engaging in covered transactions with a regulated entity would no longer present a risk of significant financial or reputational harm or threat to the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision on request.</I> The Director may approve a request for reconsideration if the Director determines that engaging in covered transactions with a regulated entity is no longer likely to result in significant financial or reputational harm to a regulated entity or otherwise threaten the safe and sound operation of a regulated entity. The Director will inform the requestor of the decision on the request for reconsideration in a timely manner. A decision on a request for reconsideration shall not constitute an appealable order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1227.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1227.10   Exception to final suspension order in effect.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request for exception.</I> A regulated entity to which a final suspension order in effect is applicable may request an exception from such order to allow it to engage in a particular covered transaction with a suspended person and any affiliates thereof. Any such request shall clearly state any reasons supporting an exception, as well as any steps the regulated entity will take to mitigate any risks presented by the exception. An exception may not be requested by a suspended person or any affiliates thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision on exception.</I> A suspending official may approve an exception from a final suspension order in effect to permit a regulated entity to engage in a particular covered transaction with a suspended person and any affiliates thereof for reasons consistent with those for which the suspending official may limit or qualify the scope or effect of a final suspension order under § 1227.6(f)(2)(iv) of this part. The decision on a request for an exception shall not constitute an appealable order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice required.</I> FHFA shall provide written notice in a timely manner to the regulated entity, the suspended person and any affiliates thereof, and the other regulated entities of any exception approved for a particular covered transaction.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.21.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1228" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.22" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1228—RESTRICTIONS ON THE ACQUISITION OF, OR TAKING SECURITY INTERESTS IN, MORTGAGES ON PROPERTIES ENCUMBERED BY CERTAIN PRIVATE TRANSFER FEE COVENANTS AND RELATED SECURITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4526, 4565, 4616, 4617, 4631.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 15574, Mar. 16, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1228.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.22.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1228.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Adjacent or contiguous property</I> means property that borders the burdened community, <I>provided that</I> such adjacent or contiguous property may be separated from the burdened community by public right of way.
</P>
<P><I>Burdened community</I> means a community comprising all of the parcels or interests in real property encumbered by a single private transfer fee covenant or a series of separate private transfer fee covenants that require payment of private transfer fees to the same entity to be used for the same purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Covered association</I> means a nonprofit mandatory membership organization comprising owners of homes, condominiums, cooperatives, manufactured homes, or any interest in real property, created pursuant to a declaration, covenant or other applicable law; or an organization described in section 501(c)(3) or section 501(c)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code. A covered association may include master and sub-associations, each of which is also a covered association.
</P>
<P><I>Direct benefit</I> means that the proceeds of a private transfer fee are used exclusively to support maintenance and improvements to encumbered properties, and acquisition, improvement, administration, and maintenance of property owned by the covered association of which the owners of the burdened property are members and used primarily for their benefit. <I>Direct benefit</I> also includes cultural, educational, charitable, recreational, environmental, conservation or other similar activities that—
</P>
<P>(1) Are conducted in or protect the burdened community or adjacent or contiguous property, or
</P>
<P>(2) Are conducted on other property that is used primarily by residents of the burdened community.


</P>
<P><I>Excepted transfer fee covenant</I> means a private transfer fee covenant that:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires payment of a private transfer fee to a covered association and limits the use of such transfer fees exclusively to purposes which provide a direct benefit to the real property encumbered by the private transfer fee covenants; or
</P>
<P>(2) Requires payment of a private transfer fee under a program meeting the Duty to Serve shared equity loan program criteria for resale restriction programs in § 1282.34(d)(4)(i)(A) and (d)(4)(ii) of this chapter, except that no household income limit shall apply.


</P>
<P><I>Private transfer fee</I> means a transfer fee, including a charge or payment, imposed by a covenant, restriction, or other similar document and required to be paid in connection with or as a result of a transfer of title to real estate, and payable on a continuing basis each time a property is transferred (except for transfers specifically excepted) for a period of time or indefinitely. A <I>private transfer fee</I> does not include fees, charges, payments, or other obligations—
</P>
<P>(1) Imposed by or payable to the Federal government or a State or local government; or
</P>
<P>(2) That defray actual costs of the transfer of the property, including transfer of membership in the relevant covered association.
</P>
<P><I>Private transfer fee covenant</I> means a covenant that:
</P>
<P>(1) Purports to run with the land or to bind current owners of, and successors in title to, such real property; and
</P>
<P>(2) Obligates a transferee or transferor of all or part of the property to pay a private transfer fee upon transfer of an interest in all or part of the property, or in consideration for permitting such transfer.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means, with respect to real property, the sale, gift, grant, conveyance, assignment, inheritance, or other transfer of an interest in the real property.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 15574, Mar. 16, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 89 FR 17716, Mar. 12, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1228.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.22.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1228.2   Restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>The regulated entities shall not purchase, invest or otherwise deal in any mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants, securities backed by such mortgages, or securities backed by the income stream from such covenants, unless such covenants are excepted transfer fee covenants. The Federal Home Loan Banks shall not accept such mortgages or securities as collateral, unless such covenants are excepted transfer fee covenants.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1228.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.22.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1228.3   Limitations on applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Beginning July 16, 2012, this part shall apply only to mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants if those covenants were created on or after February 8, 2011, except that this part shall not apply to mortgages on properties encumbered by private transfer fee covenants if those covenants were created pursuant to an agreement entered into before February 8, 2011 applicable to land that is identified in the agreement and the agreement was in settlement of litigation or approved by a government agency or body. This part also applies to securities backed by mortgages to which this part applies, and to securities issued after February 8, 2011 backed by revenue from private transfer fees, regardless of when the covenants were created.
</P>
<P>(b) This part does not apply to shared equity loans, or related securities, with promissory note dates prior to July 1, 2023, regardless of whether the loans met the Duty to Serve shared equity loan program criteria for resale restriction programs in § 1282.34(d)(4)(i)(A) and (d)(4)(ii) of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[91 FR 12675, Mar. 17, 2026]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1228.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.22.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1228.4   State restrictions unaffected.</HEAD>
<P>This part does not affect state restrictions or requirements with respect to private transfer fee covenants, such as with respect to validity, enforceability, disclosures, or duration.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1229" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1229—CAPITAL CLASSIFICATIONS AND PROMPT CORRECTIVE ACTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 4513, 4526, 4613, 4614, 4615, 4616, 4617, 4618, 4622, 4623.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Federal Home Loan Banks</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> means any payment by the Bank, whether in cash or stock, of a dividend, any return of capital or retained earnings by the Bank to its shareholders, any transaction in which the Bank redeems or repurchases capital stock, or any transaction in which the Bank redeems, repurchases or retires any other instrument which is included in the calculation of its total capital.
</P>
<P><I>Class A stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(i)) and related regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Class B stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(ii) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(ii)) and related regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Critical capital level</I> for a Bank means an amount equal to 2 percent of the Bank's total assets.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means for a Bank any of the following persons, provided that the Director may from time to time add or remove persons, positions, or functions to or from the list (individually for one or more Banks or jointly for all the Banks) by communication to the affected Banks:
</P>
<P>(1) Executive officers about whom the Banks must publicly disclose detailed compensation information under Regulation S-K, 17 CFR part 229, issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(2) Any other executive who occupies one of the following positions or is in charge of one of the following subject areas:
</P>
<P>(i) Overall Bank operations, such as the Chief Operating Officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Chief Financial Officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(iii) Chief Administrative Officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(iv) Chief Risk Officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(v) Asset and Liability Management officer, or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(vi) Chief Accounting Officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(vii) General Counsel or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(viii) Strategic Planning officer or an equivalent employee;
</P>
<P>(ix) Internal Audit officer or an equivalent employee; or
</P>
<P>(x) Chief Information Officer or an equivalent employee; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any other individual, without regard to title:
</P>
<P>(i) Who is in charge of a principal business unit, division or function; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Who reports directly to the Bank's chairman of the board of directors, vice chairman of the board of directors, president or chief operating officer.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum capital requirement</I> means the leverage and total capital requirements established for a Bank under section 6(a)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(2)) and related regulations, as such requirements may be revised by the Director, or any similar requirement established for a Bank by regulation, order, written agreement or other action.
</P>
<P><I>New business activity</I> when used in this subpart has the same meaning set forth in § 1272.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent capital</I> means the retained earnings of a Bank, determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (GAAP), plus the amount paid-in for the Bank's Class B stock.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-based capital requirement</I> means any capital requirement established for a Bank under section 6(a)(3) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(3)) and related regulations that ensures a Bank will hold sufficient permanent capital and reserves to support the risks that arise from its operations.
</P>
<P><I>Tangible equity</I> means, for a Bank, the paid-in value of its outstanding capital stock plus its retained earnings calculated in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles in the United States (GAAP) less the amount of any assets that would be intangible assets under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> means the sum of the Bank's permanent capital, the amount paid-in for its Class A stock, the amount of any general allowances for losses, and the amount of any other instruments identified in a Bank's capital plan that the Director has determined to be available to absorb losses incurred by such Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.2   Determination of a Bank's capital classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Quarterly determination.</I> The Director shall determine the capital classification for each Bank no less often than once a quarter based on the capital classifications in § 1229.3 of this subpart. The Director may make a determination with regard to a capital classification for a Bank more often than the minimum required under this paragraph or make a determination for one or more Banks without making a determination for all the Banks.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification to a Bank.</I> Before finalizing any action to classify a Bank under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the proposed action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification to the FHFA.</I> A Bank shall provide written notification within ten calendar days of any event or development that has caused or is likely to cause its permanent or total capital to fall below the level necessary to maintain its capital classification at the level assigned in the most recent capital classification or reclassification determination by the Director or that is contained in the most recent notice of a proposed capital classification or reclassification provided under § 1229.12(a) of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.3   Criteria for a Bank's capital classification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adequately capitalized.</I> Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered adequately capitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the Bank has sufficient permanent and total capital, as applicable, to meet or exceed its risk-based and minimum capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Undercapitalized.</I> Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the Bank does not have sufficient permanent or total capital, as applicable, to meet any one or more of its risk-based or minimum capital requirements but such deficiency is not of a magnitude to classify the Bank as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Significantly undercapitalized.</I> Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered significantly undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the amount of permanent or total capital held by the Bank is less than 75 percent of what is required to meet any one of its risk-based or minimum capital requirements but the magnitude of the Bank's deficiency in total capital is not sufficient to classify it as critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Critically undercapitalized.</I> Except where the Director has exercised authority to reclassify a Bank, a Bank shall be considered critically undercapitalized if, at the time of the determination under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart, the total capital held by the Bank is less than or equal to the critical capital level for a Bank as defined under § 1229.1 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.4   Reclassification by the Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary reclassification.</I> Where the Director determines that any of the grounds described in paragraph (b) of this section exist, the Director may reclassify a Bank as:
</P>
<P>(1) Undercapitalized, if it is otherwise classified as adequately capitalized;
</P>
<P>(2) Significantly undercapitalized, if it is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(3) Critically undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grounds for discretionary reclassification.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this subpart, the Director may at any time reclassify a Bank under this section if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Director determines in writing that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank is engaging in conduct that could result in the rapid depletion of permanent or total capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) The value of collateral pledged to the Bank has decreased significantly; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The value of property subject to mortgages owned by the Bank has decreased significantly.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director determines, after notice to the Bank and opportunity for an informal hearing before the Director, that a Bank is in an unsafe and unsound condition; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Director finds, under § 1371(b) of Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631(b)), that the Bank is engaging in an unsafe and unsound practice because the Bank's asset quality, management, earnings or liquidity were found to be less than satisfactory during the most recent examination, and any deficiency has not been corrected.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> Before finalizing any action to reclassify a Bank under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's proposed action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duration.</I> Any condition, action or inaction by a Bank that is the basis for a decision to reclassify a Bank under this section or under any other authority provided the Director may be considered by the Director and form the basis of further, subsequent actions to reclassify the Bank until such time as the Bank remedies such condition or takes necessary action to correct such situation to the satisfaction of the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall prevent the Director from exercising any other authority under the Safety and Soundness Act, the Bank Act or any regulation to reclassify a Bank for reasons not set forth in paragraph (b) of this section or to take any other action against a Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.5   Capital distributions for adequately capitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restriction.</I> An adequately capitalized Bank may not make a capital distribution if after doing so the Bank's capital would be insufficient to maintain a classification of adequately capitalized. A Bank may not make a capital distribution if such distribution would violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) and any other applicable regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exception.</I> Notwithstanding the restriction in paragraph (a) of this section, the Director may permit a Bank to repurchase or redeem its shares of stock if the transaction is made in connection with the issuance of additional Bank shares or obligations in at least an equivalent amount to the shares that are redeemed or repurchased and will reduce the Bank's financial obligations or otherwise improve its financial condition. Any transaction under this paragraph also must conform with any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of Bank stock set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) and in any other applicable regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.6   Mandatory actions applicable to undercapitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Mandatory Actions by the Bank.</I> A Bank that is classified as undercapitalized shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Submit to the Director for approval a capital restoration plan that complies with the requirements and procedures established by § 1229.11 of this part and receive approval from the Director for such plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Fulfill all terms, conditions and obligations contained in the capital restoration plan as approved by the Director;
</P>
<P>(3) Not make any capital distribution unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The distribution meets the requirements of § 1229.5(b) and paragraphs (a)(3)(ii) and (iii) of this section and the Director has provided permission for such distribution as set forth in § 1229.5(b);
</P>
<P>(ii) The capital distribution will not result in the Bank being reclassified as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The capital distribution does not violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the declaration or payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or in any other applicable regulation;
</P>
<P>(4) Not permit its average total assets in any calendar quarter to exceed its average total assets during the preceding calendar quarter, where such average is calculated based on the total amount of assets held by the Bank for each day in a quarter, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The Director has approved the Bank's capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director determines that:
</P>
<P>(A) The increase in total assets is consistent with the approved capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) The ratio of tangible equity to the Bank's total assets is increasing at a rate sufficient to enable the Bank to become adequately capitalized within a reasonable time and consistent with any schedule established in the capital restoration plan; and
</P>
<P>(5) Not acquire, directly or indirectly, an equity interest in any operating entity (other than as necessary to enforce a security interest granted to the Bank) nor engage in any new business activity unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The Director has approved the Bank's capital restoration plan, the Bank is implementing the capital restoration plan and the Director determines that proposed acquisition or activity will further achievement of the goals set forth in that plan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director determines that the proposed acquisition or activity will be consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank and will further the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mandatory reclassification by the Director.</I> The Director shall reclassify an undercapitalized Bank as significantly undercapitalized if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank does not submit a capital restoration plan that is substantially in compliance with § 1229.11 of this subpart and within the time frame required.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director does not approve the capital restoration plan submitted by the Bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) The Director determines that the Bank has failed in any material respect to comply with its approved capital restoration plan or fulfill any schedule for action established by that plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Monitoring.</I> The Director shall monitor the condition of any undercapitalized Bank and monitor the Bank's compliance with the capital restoration plan and any restrictions imposed under this section or § 1229.7 of this subpart. As part of this process, the Director shall review the capital restoration plan and any restrictions or requirements imposed on the undercapitalized Bank to determine whether such plan, restrictions or requirements are consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank and will further the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009; 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.7   Discretionary actions applicable to undercapitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Discretionary safeguards.</I> The Director may take any action with regard to an undercapitalized Bank that may be taken with regard to a significantly undercapitalized Bank under section 1366 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4616) or § 1229.8 or § 1229.9 if the Director determines that such action is necessary to assure the safe and sound operation of the Bank and the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedures.</I> Before finalizing any action under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action or actions and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's decision to take such action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.8   Mandatory actions applicable to significantly undercapitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank that is classified as significantly undercapitalized:
</P>
<P>(a) Shall submit to the Director for approval a capital restoration plan that complies with the requirements and procedures established by § 1229.11 of this part and receive approval from the Director for such plan;
</P>
<P>(b) Fulfill all terms, conditions and obligations contained in the capital restoration plan once the plan is approved by the Director;
</P>
<P>(c) Shall not make any capital distribution that would result in the Bank being reclassified as critically undercapitalized or that would violate any restriction on the redemption or repurchase of capital stock or the payment of a dividend set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or any applicable regulation;
</P>
<P>(d) Shall not make any capital distribution not otherwise prohibited under paragraph (c) of this section absent the prior written approval of the Director, provided that the Director may approve such distribution only if the Director determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The capital distribution will enhance the ability of the Bank to meet its risk-based and minimum capital requirements promptly;
</P>
<P>(2) The capital distribution will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the Bank; or
</P>
<P>(3) The capital distribution is otherwise in the public interest;
</P>
<P>(e) Shall not without prior written approval of the Director pay a bonus to any executive officer, provided that for purposes of this paragraph a bonus shall include any amount paid or accruing to an executive officer under a profit sharing arrangement; 
</P>
<P>(f) Shall not without the prior written approval of the Director compensate an executive officer at a rate exceeding the average rate of compensation of that officer during the 12 months preceding the calendar month in which the Bank became significantly undercapitalized, provided however, that for purposes of calculating the executive officer's average rate of compensation, such compensation shall not include any bonus or profit sharing paid or accruing to the officer during the 12 month period;
</P>
<P>(g) Comply with § 1229.6(a)(4) and (a)(5) of this subpart; and
</P>
<P>(h) Comply with any on-going restrictions or obligations that were imposed on the Bank by the Director under § 1229.7 of this subpart. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.9   Discretionary actions applicable to significantly undercapitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Actions by the Director.</I> The Director shall carry out this section by taking, at any time, one or more of the following actions with respect to a significantly undercapitalized Bank:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit the increase in any obligations or class of obligations of the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) Reduce the amount of any obligations or class of obligations held by the Bank, including any off-balance sheet obligations. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;
</P>
<P>(3) Limit the increase in, or prohibit the growth of any asset or class of assets held by the Bank. Such limitation may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current assets or in any other form chosen by the Director;
</P>
<P>(4) Reduce the amount of any asset or class of asset held by the Bank. Such reduction may be stated in an absolute dollar amount, as a percentage of current obligations or in any other form chosen by the Director;
</P>
<P>(5) Acquire new capital in the form and amount determined by the Director, which specifically may include requiring a Bank to increase its level of retained earnings;
</P>
<P>(6) Modify, limit or terminate any activity of the Bank that the Director determines creates excessive risk;
</P>
<P>(7) Take steps to improve the management at the Bank by:
</P>
<P>(i) Ordering a new election for the Bank's board of directors in accordance with procedures established by the Director;
</P>
<P>(ii) Dismissing particular directors or executive officers, in accordance with section 1366(b)(5)(B) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4616(b)(5)(B)), who held office for more than 180 days immediately prior to the date on which the Bank became undercapitalized, provided further that such dismissals shall not be considered removal pursuant to an enforcement action under section 1377 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4636a) and shall not be subject to the requirements necessary to remove an officer or director under that section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Ordering the Bank to hire qualified executive officers, the hiring of whom, prior to employment by the Bank and at of the option of the Director, may be subject to review and approval by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(8)(i) Reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank as critically undercapitalized if:
</P>
<P>(A) The Bank does not submit a capital restoration plan that is substantially in compliance with § 1229.11 of this part and within the time frame required;
</P>
<P>(B) The Director does not approve the capital restoration plan submitted by the Bank; or
</P>
<P>(C) The Director determines that the Bank has failed to make reasonable, good faith efforts to comply with its approved capital restoration plan and fulfill any schedule established by that plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to paragraph (c) of this section, the Director may reclassify a significantly undercapitalized Bank under paragraph (a)(8)(i) of this section at any time the grounds for such action exist, notwithstanding the fact that such grounds had formed the basis on which the Director reclassified a Bank from undercapitalized to significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional safeguards.</I> The Director may require a significantly undercapitalized Bank to take any other action not specifically listed in this section if the Director determines such action will help ensure the safe and sound operation of the Bank and the Bank's compliance with its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time more than any action specifically authorized under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Procedures.</I> Before finalizing any action under this section, the Director shall provide a Bank written notice describing the proposed action or actions and an opportunity to submit information that the Bank considers relevant to the Director's decision to take such action in accordance with § 1229.12 of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.10   Actions applicable to critically undercapitalized Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment of conservator or receiver.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of federal or state law, the Director may appoint the FHFA as conservator or receiver of any Bank at any time after the Director determines that the Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Periodic determination</I>—(1) <I>Determination.</I> Not later than 30 calendar days after the Director first determines that a Bank is, or the Director otherwise exercises authority to reclassify the Bank as, critically undercapitalized, and a least once during each succeeding 30-day calendar period, the Director make a determination in writing as to whether:
</P>
<P>(i) The assets of the Bank are, and during the preceding 60 calendar days have been, less than its obligations to its creditors and others, provided that the Director shall consider as an obligation only that amount of outstanding consolidated obligations for which the Bank is primary obligor or for which the Bank has been ordered to make payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank, or is actually making payments of principal or interest on behalf of another Bank; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bank is not, and during the previous 60 calendar days has not been paying its debts on a regular basis as such debts become due, provided that this provision does not apply to any unpaid debts that are the subject of a <I>bona fide</I> dispute.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory receivership.</I> If the Director determines that the conditions described in either paragraph (b)(1)(i) or (b)(1)(ii) of this section applies to a Bank, the Director shall appoint the FHFA as receiver for the Bank. The appointment of the FHFA as receiver under this paragraph shall immediately terminate any conservatorship established for the Bank.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination not required.</I> A determination under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not be required during any period in which the FHFA serves as receiver for a Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Judicial review.</I> If the Director appoints the FHFA as conservator or receiver of a Bank under paragraph (a) or (b)(2) of this section, the Bank may within 30 days of such appointment bring an action in the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank was established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the FHFA to remove itself as conservator or receiver.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other applicable actions.</I> Until such time as FHFA is appointed as conservator or receiver for a critically undercapitalized Bank, a critically undercapitalized Bank shall be subject to all mandatory restrictions or obligations applicable to a significantly undercapitalized Bank under § 1229.8 of this subpart and will remain subject to any on-going restrictions or obligations that the Director imposed on the Bank under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, or any restrictions or obligations that are applicable to the Bank under the terms of an approved capital restoration plan. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.11   Capital restoration plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents.</I> Each capital restoration plan submitted by a Bank shall set forth a plan to restore its permanent and total capital to levels sufficient to fulfill its risk-based and minimum capital requirements within a reasonable period of time. Such plan must be feasible given general market conditions and the conditions of the Bank and, at a minimum, shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Describe the actions the Bank will take, including any changes that the Bank will make to member stock purchase requirements, to assure that it will become adequately capitalized within the meaning of § 1229.3(a) of this subpart and, if appropriate, to resolve any structural or long term causes for the capital deficiency;
</P>
<P>(2) Specify the level of permanent and total capital the Bank will achieve and maintain and provide quarterly projections indicating how each component of total and permanent capital and the major components of income, assets and liabilities are expected to change over the term of the plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Specify the types and levels of activities in which the Bank will engage during the term of the plan, including any new business activities that it intends to begin during such term;
</P>
<P>(4) Describe any other actions the Bank intends to take to comply with any other requirements imposed on it under this subpart A of part 1229;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a schedule which sets forth dates for meeting specific goals and benchmarks and taking other actions described in the proposed capital restoration plan, including setting forth a schedule for it to restore its permanent and total capital to levels necessary for meeting its risk-based and minimum capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(6) Address such other items that the Director shall provide in writing in advance of such submission.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Deadline for submission.</I> A Bank must submit a proposed capital restoration plan no later than 15 business-days after it receives written notification that such a plan is required either because the notice specifically states that the Director has required the submission of a plan or the notice indicates that the Bank's capital classification or reclassification is to a category for which a capital restoration plan is a mandatory action required of the Bank. The Director may extend this deadline if the Director determines that such extension is necessary. Any such extension shall be in writing and provide a specific date by which the Bank must submit its proposed capital restoration plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of the plan by the Director.</I> The Director shall have 30 calendar days from the date the Bank submits a proposed capital restoration plan to approve or disapprove the plan. The Director may extend the period for consideration of a capital restoration plan for a single 30 calendar day period by providing the Bank with written notification that the decision deadline has been extended. The Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the decision to approve or not approve a proposed capital restoration plan. If the Director does not approve the capital restoration plan, the written notification of such decision shall provide the reasons for the disapproval.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Resubmission.</I> If the Director does not approve the Bank's proposed capital restoration plan, the Bank shall submit a new capital restoration plan acceptable to the Director within 30 calendar days of the date that the Bank was notified of the disapproval. The Director may extend the period for the Bank's submission of a new acceptable capital restoration plan upon a determination that such extension is in the public interest. The Director shall provide the Bank written notice of the extension and include in such notice the date by which the Bank must submit an acceptable plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Amendments.</I> The Director, in his or her sole discretion, may approve amendments to an approved capital restoration plan if, after consideration of changes in conditions of the Bank, changes in market conditions and other relevant factors, the Director determines that such amendments are consistent with the restoration of the Bank's capital to levels necessary to meet its risk-based and minimum capital requirements in a reasonable period of time and with the safe and sound operations of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Effectiveness of provisions.</I> A Bank is obligated to implement and fulfill all provisions of an approved capital restoration plan. Unless expressly addressed by the terms of the capital restoration plan, a Bank remains bound by each and every obligation and requirement set forth in the approved capital restoration plan until such requirement or obligation is amended under paragraph (e) of this section or terminated in writing by the Director.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Appointment of conservator or receiver.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of federal or state law, the Director may appoint the FHFA as conservator or receiver of any Bank that is classified as undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized if the Bank fails to submit a capital restoration plan acceptable to the Director within the time frames established by this section or if the Bank materially fails to implement any capital restoration plan that has been approved by the Director. A Bank may within 30 days of such appointment bring an action in the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank is established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) or in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia, for an order requiring the FHFA to remove itself as conservator or receiver. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 5604, Jan. 30, 2009, as amended at 74 FR 38513, Aug. 4, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1229.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.1.1.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.12   Procedures related to capital classification and other actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Classification or reclassification of a Bank.</I> Before finalizing any decision to classify a Bank under § 1229.2(a) of this subpart or reclassify the Bank under § 1229.4(a) of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed supervisory action required under paragraph (b) of this section. The Director also may combine a notice informing the Bank of its capital classification and simultaneously informing the Bank that the Director intends to reclassify a Bank to a lower capital classification category.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of a supervisory action.</I> Before finalizing any action or actions authorized under § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 of this subpart, the Director shall provide the Bank with written notification of the proposed action that states the reasons for the proposed action and describes the information on which the proposed action is based. The notice required under this paragraph may be combined with the notice of a proposed action to classify or reclassify the Bank required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank response.</I> During the 30 calendar day period beginning on the date that the Bank is provided notice under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section of a proposed action or actions, a Bank may submit to the Director any information that the Bank considers relevant or appropriate for the Director to consider in determining whether to finalize the proposed action. The Director may, in his or her sole discretion, convene an informal hearing with representatives of the Bank to receive or discuss any such information. The Director, in his or her sole discretion, also may extend the period in which the Bank may respond to a notice for an additional 30 calendar days for good cause, or shorten such comment period if the Director determines the condition of the Bank requires faster action or a shorter comment period or if the Bank consents to a shorter comment period. The Director shall inform the Bank in writing, which may be provided as part of the notice required under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, of any decision to extend or shorten the comment period. The failure of a Bank to provide information during the allotted comment period will waive any right of the Bank to comment on the proposed action.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final action.</I> At the earlier of the completion of the comment period established under paragraph (c) or the receipt of information provided by the Bank during such period, the Director shall determine whether to take the proposed action or actions that were the subject of the notice under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section, after taking into consideration any information provided by the Bank. Such notice shall respond to any information submitted by the Bank. Any final order that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall take effect upon the Bank's receipt of the notice required under this paragraph, unless a different effective date is set forth in this notice, and shall remain in effect and binding on the Bank until terminated in writing by the Director or until any terms and conditions for termination, as set forth in the notice, have been met.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Final actions under this section.</I> Any final decision that the Bank take action, refrain from action or comply with any other requirement that was the subject of a notice under paragraph (b) of this section shall constitute an order under the Safety and Soundness Act. The Director in his or her discretion may apply to the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or to the United States district court for the judicial district in which the Bank in question is established pursuant to section 3 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1423) for the enforcement of such order, as allowed under § 1375 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4635) . In addition, a Bank or any executive officer or director of a Bank can be subject to enforcement action, including the imposition of civil monetary penalties, under § 1371, § 1372 or § 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, or 4636) for failure to comply with such an order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Judicial review.</I> A Bank that is not classified as critically undercapitalized may obtain judicial review of any final capital classification decision or of any final decision to take supervisory action made by the Director under § 1229.2, § 1229.4, § 1229.7 or § 1229.9 in accordance with the requirements and procedures set forth in § 1369D of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4623).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Enterprises</HEAD>

<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4513b, 4526, 4613, 4614, 4615, 4616, 4617.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1229.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.23.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1229.13   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any dividend or other distribution in cash or in kind made with respect to any shares of, or other ownership interest in, an Enterprise, except a dividend consisting only of shares of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(2) Any payment made by an Enterprise to repurchase, redeem, retire, or otherwise acquire any of its shares or other ownership interests, including any extension of credit made to finance an acquisition by the Enterprise of such shares or other ownership interests, except to the extent the Enterprise makes a payment to repurchase its shares for the purpose of fulfilling an obligation of the Enterprise under an employee stock ownership plan that is qualified under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I>) or any substantially equivalent plan as determined by the Director of FHFA in writing in advance; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any payment of any claim, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated or unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured or unmatured, disputed or undisputed, legal, equitable, secured or unsecured, arising from rescission of a purchase or sale of an equity security of an Enterprise or for damages arising from the purchase, sale, or retention of such a security.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1230" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1230—EXECUTIVE COMPENSATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1427, 1431(l)(5), 1452(h), 4502(6), 4502(12), 4513, 4514, 4517, 4518, 4518a, 4526, 4631, 4632, 4636, and 1723a(d).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 4393, Jan. 28, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1230.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement requirements relating to the supervisory authority of FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act with respect to compensation provided by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance to their executive officers. This part also establishes a structured process for submission of relevant information by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance, in order to facilitate and enhance the efficiency of FHFA's oversight of executive compensation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Charter acts</I> mean the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, which are codified at 12 U.S.C. 1716 through 1723i and 12 U.S.C. 1451 through 1459, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment. Compensation includes all direct and indirect payments of benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any executive officer, including, but not limited to, payments and benefits derived from an employment contract, compensation or benefit agreement, fee arrangement, perquisite, stock option plan, post-employment benefit, or other compensatory arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (collectively, Enterprises) and, except as provided by the Director, any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to an Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) The chairman of the board of directors, chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, president, vice chairman, any executive vice president, any senior vice president, any individual in charge of a principal business unit, division, or function, and any individual who performs functions similar to such positions whether or not the individual has an official title; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other officer as identified by the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) The president, the chief financial officer, and the three other most highly compensated officers; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other officer as identified by the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to the Office of Finance:
</P>
<P>(i) The chief executive officer, chief financial officer, and chief operating officer; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other officer identified by the Director.
</P>
<P><I>Reasonable and comparable</I> means compensation that is:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Reasonable</I>—compensation, taken in whole or in part, that would be appropriate for the position and based on a review of relevant factors including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The duties and responsibilities of the position;
</P>
<P>(ii) Compensation factors that indicate added or diminished risks, constraints, or aids in carrying out the responsibilities of the position; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Performance of the regulated entity, the specific employee, or one of the entity's significant components with respect to achievement of goals, consistency with supervisory guidance and internal rules of the entity, and compliance with applicable law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Comparable</I>—compensation that, taken in whole or in part, does not materially exceed compensation paid at institutions of similar size and function for similar duties and responsibilities.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated entity</I> means any Enterprise and any Federal Home Loan Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.3   Prohibition and withholding of executive compensation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Director may review the compensation arrangements for any executive officer of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance at any time, and shall prohibit the regulated entity or the Office of Finance from providing compensation to any such executive officer that the Director determines is not reasonable and comparable with compensation for employment in other similar businesses involving similar duties and responsibilities. No regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall pay compensation to an executive officer that is not reasonable and comparable with compensation paid by such similar businesses involving similar duties and responsibilities. No Enterprise in conservatorship shall pay a bonus to any senior executive during the period of that conservatorship.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Factors to be taken into account.</I> In determining whether compensation provided by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to an executive officer is not reasonable and comparable, the Director may take into consideration any factors the Director considers relevant, including any wrongdoing on the part of the executive officer, such as any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, violation of law, rule, regulation, order, or written agreement, and insider abuse with respect to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition on setting compensation by Director.</I> In carrying out paragraph (a) of this section, the Director may not prescribe or set a specific level or range of compensation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advance notice to Director of certain compensation actions.</I> (1) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 60 days' advance written notice, enter into any written arrangement that provides incentive awards to any executive officer or officers.
</P>
<P>(2) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 30 days' advance written notice, enter into any written arrangement that:
</P>
<P>(i) Provides an executive officer a term of employment for a term of six months or more; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of a Bank or the Office of Finance, provides compensation to any executive officer in connection with the termination of employment, or establishes a policy of compensation in connection with the termination of employment.
</P>
<P>(3) A regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not, without providing the Director at least 30 days' advance written notice, pay, disburse, or transfer to any executive officer, annual compensation (where the annual amount has changed); pay for performance or other incentive pay; any amounts under a severance plan, change-in-control agreement, or other separation agreement; any compensation that would qualify as direct compensation for purposes of securities filings; or any other element of compensation identified by the Director prior to the notice period.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the foregoing review periods, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall provide five business days' advance written notice to the Director before committing to pay compensation of any amount or type to an executive officer who is being newly hired.
</P>
<P>(5) The Director reserves the right to extend any of the foregoing review periods, and may do so in the Director's discretion, upon notice to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance. Any such notice shall set forth the number of business or calendar days by which the review period is being extended.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Withholding, escrow, prohibition.</I> During the review period required by paragraph (d) of this section, or any extension thereof, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall not execute the compensation action that is under review unless the Director provides written notice of approval or non-objection. During a review under paragraph (a) or (d) of this section, or at any time before an executive compensation action has been taken, the Director may, by written notice, require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to withhold any payment, transfer, or disbursement of compensation to an executive officer, or to place such compensation in an escrow account, or may prohibit the action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.4   Prior approval of termination agreements of Enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An Enterprise may not enter into any agreement or contract to provide any payment of money or other thing of current or potential value in connection with the termination of employment of an executive officer unless the agreement or contract is approved in advance by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Covered agreements or contracts.</I> An agreement or contract that provides for termination payments to an executive officer of an Enterprise that was entered into before October 28, 1992,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> is not retroactively subject to approval or disapproval by the Director. However, any renegotiation, amendment, or change to such an agreement or contract shall be considered as entering into an agreement or contract that is subject to approval by the Director.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This date refers to the date of enactment of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992. </P></FTNT>
<P>(c) <I>Factors to be taken into account.</I> In making the determination whether to approve or disapprove termination benefits, the Director may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the benefits provided under the agreement or contract are comparable to benefits provided under such agreements or contracts for officers of other public or private entities involved in financial services and housing interests who have comparable duties and responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(2) The factors set forth in § 1230.3(b); and
</P>
<P>(3) Such other information as deemed appropriate by the Director.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exception to prior approval.</I> An employment agreement or contract subject to prior approval of the Director under this section may be entered into prior to that approval, provided that such agreement or contract specifically provides notice that termination benefits under the agreement or contract shall not be effective and no payments shall be made under such agreement or contract unless and until approved by the Director. Such notice should make clear that alteration of benefit plans subsequent to FHFA approval under this section, which affect final termination benefits of an executive officer, requires review at the time of the individual's termination from the Enterprise and prior to the payment of any benefits.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of prior approval of an agreement or contract.</I> The Director's approval of an executive officer's termination of employment benefits shall not preclude the Director from making any subsequent determination under this section to prohibit and withhold executive compensation.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Form of approval.</I> The Director's approval pursuant to this section may occur in such form and manner as the Director shall provide through written notice to the regulated entities or the Office of Finance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1230.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.24.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1230.5   Submission of supporting information.</HEAD>
<P>In support of the reviews and decisions provided for in this part, the Director may issue guidance, orders, or notices on the subject of information submissions by the regulated entities and the Office of Finance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1231" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1231—GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4517, 4518, 4518a, 4526, and 4617.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 53357, Sept. 16, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part appear at 83 FR 49993, Oct. 4, 2018.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1231.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement section 1318(e) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)) by setting forth the factors that the Director will take into consideration in determining whether to limit or prohibit golden parachute payments and agreements and by setting forth conditions for prohibited and permissible indemnification payments that regulated entities and the Office of Finance (OF) may make to affiliated parties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 65289, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1231.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated party</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a golden parachute payment:
</P>
<P>(i) Any director, officer, or employee of a regulated entity or the OF; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other person as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) who participates or participated in the conduct of the affairs of the regulated entity or the OF, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank; and
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to an indemnification payment:
</P>
<P>(i) By the OF, any director, officer, or manager of the OF; and
</P>
<P>(ii) By a regulated entity:
</P>
<P>(A) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder of, or agent for, a regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(B) Any shareholder, affiliate, consultant, or joint venture partner of a regulated entity, and any other person as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) that participates in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank;
</P>
<P>(C) Any independent contractor for a regulated entity (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The independent contractor knowingly or recklessly participates in any violation of any law or regulation, any breach of fiduciary duty, or any unsafe or unsound practice; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such violation, breach, or practice caused, or is likely to cause, more than a minimal financial loss to, or a significant adverse effect on, the regulated entity; or
</P>
<P>(D) Any not-for-profit corporation that receives its principal funding, on an ongoing basis, from any regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Agreement</I> means, with respect to a golden parachute payment, any plan, contract, arrangement, or other statement setting forth conditions for any payment by a regulated entity or the OF to an affiliated party.
</P>
<P><I>Bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement</I> means any plan, contract, agreement, or other arrangement:
</P>
<P>(1) Whereby an affiliated party voluntarily elects to defer all or a portion of the reasonable compensation, wages, or fees paid for services rendered which otherwise would have been paid to such party at the time the services were rendered (including a plan that provides for the crediting of a reasonable investment return on such elective deferrals); or
</P>
<P>(2) That is established as a nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plan, other than an elective deferral plan described in paragraph (1) of this definition:
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for certain affiliated parties in excess of the limitations on contributions and benefits imposed by sections 401(a)(17), 402(g), 415, or any other applicable provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401(a)(17), 402(g), 415); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Primarily for the purpose of providing supplemental retirement benefits or other deferred compensation for a select group of directors, management, or highly compensated employees; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of any plans as described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of this definition, the following requirements shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The affiliated party has a vested right, as defined under the applicable plan document, at the time of termination of employment to payments under such plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Benefits under such plan are accrued each period only for current or prior service rendered to the employer (except that an allowance may be made for service with a predecessor employer);
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is not based on any discretionary acceleration of vesting or accrual of benefits which occurs at any time later than one year prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution;
</P>
<P>(iv) The regulated entity or the OF has previously recognized compensation expense and accrued a liability for the benefit payments according to GAAP, or segregated or otherwise set aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan benefits and related expenses, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the troubled institution's creditors in the case of insolvency; and
</P>
<P>(v) Payments pursuant to such plans shall not be in excess of the accrued liability computed in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means an “executive officer” as defined in 12 CFR 1230.2, and includes any director, officer, employee or other affiliated party whose participation in the conduct of the business of the regulated entity or the OF has been determined by the Director to be so substantial as to justify treatment as an “executive officer.”
</P>
<P><I>Golden parachute payment</I> means any payment in the nature of compensation made by a troubled institution for the benefit of any current or former affiliated party that is contingent on or provided in connection with the termination of such party's primary employment or affiliation with the troubled institution.
</P>
<P><I>Indemnification payment</I> means any payment (or any agreement to make any payment) by any regulated entity or the OF for the benefit of any current or former affiliated party, to pay or reimburse such person for any liability or legal expense.
</P>
<P><I>Individually negotiated settlement agreement</I> means an agreement that settles a claim, or avoids a claim reasonably anticipated to be brought, against a troubled institution by an affiliated party and involves a payment in association with termination to, and a release of claims by, the affiliated party.
</P>
<P><I>Liability or legal expense</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any legal or other professional expense incurred in connection with any claim, proceeding, or action;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any settlement of any claim, proceeding, or action; and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any judgment or penalty imposed with respect to any claim, proceeding, or action.
</P>
<P><I>Payment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct or indirect transfer of any funds or any asset;
</P>
<P>(2) Any forgiveness of any debt or other obligation;
</P>
<P>(3) The conferring of any benefit, including but not limited to stock options and stock appreciation rights; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any segregation of any funds or assets, the establishment or funding of any trust or the purchase of or arrangement for any letter of credit or other instrument, for the purpose of making, or pursuant to any agreement to make, any payment on or after the date on which such funds or assets are segregated, or at the time of or after such trust is established or letter of credit or other instrument is made available, without regard to whether the obligation to make such payment is contingent on:
</P>
<P>(i) The determination, after such date, of the liability for the payment of such amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquidation, after such date, of the amount of such payment.
</P>
<P><I>Permitted</I> means, with regard to any agreement, that the agreement either does not require the Director's consent under this part or has received the Director's consent in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Troubled institution</I> means a regulated entity or the OF that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Insolvent;
</P>
<P>(2) In conservatorship or receivership;
</P>
<P>(3) Subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by FHFA that requires action to improve its financial condition or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the Director, which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve its financial condition, unless otherwise informed in writing by FHFA;
</P>
<P>(4) Assigned a composite rating of 4 or 5 by FHFA under its CAMELSO examination rating system as it may be revised from time to time;
</P>
<P>(5) Informed in writing by the Director that it is a troubled institution for purposes of the requirements of this part on the basis of the most recent report of examination or other information available to FHFA, on account of its financial condition, risk profile, or management deficiencies; or
</P>
<P>(6) In contemplation of the occurrence of an event described in paragraphs (1) through (5) of this definition. A regulated entity or the OF is subject to a rebuttable presumption that it is in contemplation of the occurrence of such an event during the 90 day period preceding such occurrence.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 65289, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1231.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.3   Golden parachute payments and agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general, FHFA consent is required.</I> No troubled institution shall make or agree to make any golden parachute payment without the Director's consent, except as provided in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exempt agreements and payments.</I> The following agreements and payments, including payments associated with an agreement, are not golden parachute agreements or payments for purposes of this part and, for that reason, may be made without the Director's consent:
</P>
<P>(1) Any pension or retirement plan that is qualified (or is intended to be qualified) under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401);
</P>
<P>(2) Any “employee welfare benefit plan” as that term is defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)), other than:
</P>
<P>(i) Any deferred compensation plan or arrangement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any severance pay plan or agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) Any benefit plan that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is a “nondiscriminatory employee plan or program” for the purposes of section 280G of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 280G) and applicable regulations; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been submitted to the Director for review in accordance with this part and that the Director has determined to be nondiscriminatory, unless such a plan is otherwise specifically addressed by this part;
</P>
<P>(4) Any “bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement” as defined in this part provided that the plan:
</P>
<P>(i) Was in effect for, and not materially amended to increase benefits payable thereunder (except for changes required by law) within, the one-year period prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has been determined to be permissible by the Director;
</P>
<P>(5) Any payment made by reason of:
</P>
<P>(i) Death; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Termination caused by disability of the affiliated party; and
</P>
<P>(6) Any severance or similar payment that is required to be made pursuant to a state statute that is applicable to all employers within the appropriate jurisdiction (with the exception of employers that are exempt due to their small number of employees or other similar criteria).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Golden parachute payment agreements for which FHFA consent is not required.</I> A troubled institution may enter into the following agreements to make a golden parachute payment without the Director's consent:
</P>
<P>(1) With any affiliated party where the agreement is expressly directed or established by the Director exercising authority conferred by 12 U.S.C. 4617.
</P>
<P>(2) With an affiliated party who is not an executive officer where the agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an individually negotiated settlement agreement, and the conditions of paragraph (e)(2) of this section are met; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides for a golden parachute payment that, when aggregated with all other golden parachute payments to the affiliated party, does not exceed $5,000 (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Golden parachute payments for which FHFA consent is not required.</I> A troubled institution may make the following golden parachute payments without the Director's consent:
</P>
<P>(1) To any affiliated party where:
</P>
<P>(i) The payment is required to be made pursuant to a permitted individually negotiated settlement agreement; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director previously consented to such payment in a written notice to the troubled institution (which may be included in the Director's consent to the agreement), the payment is made in accordance with a permitted agreement, and the troubled institution has met any conditions established by the Director for making the payment.
</P>
<P>(2) To an executive officer where the payment recognizes a significant life event and does not exceed $500 in value (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) To an affiliated party who is not an executive officer, where:
</P>
<P>(i) The payment is made in accordance with a permitted agreement and the conditions of paragraph (e)(2) of this section are met; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The payment when aggregated with other golden parachute payments to the affiliated party does not exceed $5,000 (subject to any adjustment for inflation pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Required due diligence review; due diligence standard</I>—(1) <I>Agreements and payments where consent is requested.</I> A troubled institution making a request for consent to enter into a golden parachute payment agreement with, or to make a golden parachute payment to, an individual affiliated party shall conduct due diligence appropriate to the level and responsibility of the affiliated party covered by the agreement or to whom payment would be made, to determine whether there is information, evidence, documents, or other materials that indicate there is a reasonable basis to believe, at the time the request is submitted, that the affiliated party:
</P>
<P>(i) Has committed any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the regulated entity or the OF that is likely to have a material adverse effect on the regulated entity or the OF;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is substantially responsible for the regulated entity or the OF being a troubled institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has materially violated any applicable Federal or State law or regulation that has had or is likely to have a material effect on the regulated entity or the OF; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Has violated or conspired to violate sections 215, 657, 1006, 1014, or 1344 of title 18 of the United States Code, or section 1341 or 1343 of such title affecting a “financial institution” as the term is defined in title 18 of the United States Code (18 U.S.C. 20).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agreements and payments permitted without the Director's consent.</I> No troubled institution shall enter into an agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or make a payment pursuant to paragraph (d)(3)(i) of this section unless it is reasonably assured, following due diligence in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, that the affiliated party to whom payment would be made has not engaged in any of the actions listed in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Required notice to FHFA.</I> If a troubled institution determines it is unable to enter into an agreement pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section or make a payment pursuant to (d)(3)(i) of this section without the Director's consent because it cannot meet the standard set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, and thereafter does not request the Director's consent to make the payment, then the troubled institution shall provide notice to FHFA of each reason for which it cannot meet the standard set forth in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, within 15 business days of its determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Factors for Director consideration.</I> In making a determination under this section, the Director may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and to what degree, the affiliated party was in a position of managerial or fiduciary responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) The length of time the affiliated party was affiliated with the regulated entity or the OF, and the degree to which the proposed payment represents a reasonable payment for services rendered over the period of affiliation;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the golden parachute payment would be made pursuant to an employee benefit plan that is usual and customary;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the golden parachute payment or agreement is excessive or abusive or threatens the financial condition of the troubled institution; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other factor the Director determines relevant to the facts and circumstances surrounding the golden parachute payment or agreement, including any fraudulent act or omission, breach of fiduciary duty, violation of law, rule, regulation, order, or written agreement, and the level of willful misconduct, breach of fiduciary duty, and malfeasance on the part of the affiliated party.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Adjustment for inflation.</I> Monetary amounts set forth in this part may be adjusted for inflation by increasing the dollar amount set forth in this part by the percentage, if any, by which the Consumer Price Index for all-urban consumers published by the Department of Labor (“CPI-U”) for December of the calendar year preceding payment exceeds the CPI-U for the month of November 2018, with the resulting sum rounded up to the nearest whole dollar.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 62590, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1231.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.4   Indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited indemnification payments.</I> Except as permitted in paragraph (b) of this section, a regulated entity or the OF may not make indemnification payments with respect to an administrative proceeding or civil action that has been initiated by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Permissible indemnification payments.</I> A regulated entity or the OF may pay:
</P>
<P>(1) Premiums for any commercial insurance policy or fidelity bonds for directors and officers, to the extent that the insurance or fidelity bond covers expenses and restitution, but not a judgment in favor of FHFA or a civil money penalty imposed by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) Expenses of defending an action, subject to the affiliated party's agreement to repay those expenses if the affiliated party either:
</P>
<P>(i) When the proceeding results in a final and non-reviewable order, is found culpable for violating a law or regulation that is the basis for the charges to which the expenses specifically relate; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Enters into a settlement of those charges in which the affiliated party admits culpability with respect to them; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is subject to a final and non-reviewable prohibition order under 12 U.S.C. 4636a.
</P>
<P>(3) Amounts due under an indemnification agreement entered into with a named affiliated party on or prior to September 20, 2016.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Process; factors.</I> With respect to payments under paragraph (b)(2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The board of directors of the regulated entity or the OF must conduct a due investigation and make a written determination in good faith that:
</P>
<P>(i) The affiliated party acted in good faith and in a manner that he or she reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the regulated entity or the OF; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Such payments will not materially adversely affect the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the OF.
</P>
<P>(2) The affiliated party may not participate in the board's deliberations or decision.
</P>
<P>(3) If a majority of the board are respondents in the action, the remaining board members may approve payment after obtaining a written opinion of outside counsel that the conditions of this regulation have been met.
</P>
<P>(4) If all of the board members are respondents, they may approve payment after obtaining a written opinion of outside counsel that the conditions of this regulation have been met.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Scope.</I> This section does not apply to a regulated entity operating in conservatorship or receivership or to a limited-life regulated entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 49993, Oct. 4, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1231.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.5   Applicability in the event of receivership.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part, or any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by FHFA, shall not in any way bind any receiver of a regulated entity. Any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by FHFA shall not in any way obligate FHFA as receiver to pay any claim or obligation pursuant to any golden parachute, severance, indemnification, or other agreement, or otherwise improve any claim of any affiliated party on or against FHFA as receiver. Nothing in this part may be construed to permit the payment of salary or any liability or legal expense of an affiliated party contrary to section 1318(e)(3) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4518(e)(3)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 65291, Dec, 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1231.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.25.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1231.6   Filing instructions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section contains procedures for requesting the consent of the Director and for filing any notice, where consent or notice is required by § 1231.3.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Where to file.</I> A troubled institution must submit any request for consent or notice required by § 1231.3 to the Manager, Executive Compensation Branch, or to such other person as FHFA may direct.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Content of a request for FHFA consent.</I> A request pursuant to § 1231.3 must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) State the reasons why the troubled institution seeks to enter into the agreement or make the payment;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify the affiliated party or describe of the class or group of affiliated parties who would receive or be eligible to receive payment;
</P>
<P>(4) Include a copy of any agreement, including any plan document, contract, other agreement or policy regarding the subject matter of the request;
</P>
<P>(5) State the cost of the proposed payment or payments, and the impact on the capital and earnings of the troubled institution;
</P>
<P>(6) State the reasons why consent to the agreement or payment, or to both the agreement and payment, should be granted;
</P>
<P>(7) For any plan that the troubled institution believes is a nondiscriminatory benefit plan, other than a plan covered by § 1231.3(b)(3)(i), state the basis for the conclusion that the plan is nondiscriminatory;
</P>
<P>(8) For any bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement, state whether the plan would be exempt under this part but for the fact that it was either established or materially amended to increase benefits payable thereunder (except for changes required by law) within the one-year period prior to the regulated entity or the OF becoming a troubled institution;
</P>
<P>(9) For any agreement with an individual affiliated party, or for any payment, either:
</P>
<P>(i) State that the troubled institution is reasonably assured that the affiliated party has not engaged in any of the actions listed in § 1231.3(e)(1)(i) through (iv), or,
</P>
<P>(ii) If the troubled institution is not reasonably assured that the affiliated party has not engaged in any of the actions listed in § 1231.3(e)(1)(i) through (iv) but nonetheless wishes to request consent, describe the results of its due diligence and, in light of those results, the reason why consent to the agreement or payment should be granted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FHFA decision on a request.</I> FHFA shall provide the troubled institution with written notice of the decision on a request as soon as practicable after it is rendered.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Content of notice to FHFA.</I> A notice pursuant to § 1231.3(e)(3) must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be in writing;
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the affiliated party who would receive or be eligible to receive payment;
</P>
<P>(3) Include a copy of any agreement or policy regarding the subject matter of the request; and
</P>
<P>(4) State each reason why the troubled institution cannot meet the standard set forth in § 1231.3(e)(2).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver of form or content requirements.</I> FHFA may waive or modify any requirement related to the form or content of a request or notice, in circumstances deemed appropriate by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Additional information.</I> FHFA may request additional information at any time during the processing of the request or after receiving a notice.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 65291, Dec. 20, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1233" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1233—REPORTING OF FRAUDULENT FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4514, 4526, 4642.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 4258, Jan. 27, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1233.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement the Safety and Soundness Act by requiring each regulated entity to report to FHFA upon discovery that it has purchased or sold a fraudulent loan or financial instrument, or suspects a possible fraud relating to the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument. In addition, each regulated entity must establish and maintain internal controls, policies, procedures, and operational training to discover such transactions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1233.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Entity-affiliated party</I> means—
</P>
<P>(1) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder of, or agent for, a regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Any shareholder, affiliate, consultant, or joint venture partner of a regulated entity, and any other person, as determined by the Director (by regulation or on a case-by-case basis) that participates in the conduct of the affairs of a regulated entity, provided that a member of a Federal Home Loan Bank shall not be deemed to have participated in the affairs of that Federal Home Loan Bank solely by virtue of being a shareholder of, and obtaining advances from, that Federal Home Loan Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) Any independent contractor for a regulated entity (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant);
</P>
<P>(4) Any not-for-profit corporation that receives its principal funding, on an ongoing basis, from any regulated entity; and
</P>
<P>(5) The Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Financial instrument</I> means any legally enforceable agreement, certificate, or other writing, in hardcopy or electronic form, having monetary value including, but not limited to, any agreement, certificate, or other writing evidencing an asset pledged as collateral to a Bank by a member to secure an advance by the Bank to that member.
</P>
<P><I>Fraud</I> means a misstatement, misrepresentation, or omission that cannot be corrected and that was relied upon by a regulated entity to purchase or sell a loan or financial instrument.
</P>
<P><I>Possible fraud</I> means that a regulated entity has a reasonable belief, based upon a review of information available to the regulated entity, that fraud may be occurring or has occurred.
</P>
<P><I>Purchased or sold or relating to the purchase or sale</I> means any transaction involving a financial instrument including, but not limited to, any purchase, sale, other acquisition, or creation of a financial instrument by the member of a Bank to be pledged as collateral to the Bank to secure an advance by the Bank to that member, the pledging by a member to a Bank of such financial instrument to secure such an advance, the making of a grant by a Bank under its affordable housing program or community investment program, and the effecting of a wire transfer or other form of electronic payments transaction by the Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 4258, Jan. 27, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2323, Jan. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1233.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.3   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timeframe for reporting.</I> (1) A regulated entity shall submit to the Director a timely written report upon discovery by the regulated entity that it has purchased or sold a fraudulent loan or financial instrument, or suspects a possible fraud relating to the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to submitting a report in accordance with paragraph (a)(1) of this section, in any situation that would have a significant impact on the regulated entity, the regulated entity shall immediately report any fraud or possible fraud to the Director by telephone or electronic communication.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Format for reporting.</I> (1) The report shall be in such format and shall be filed in accordance with such procedures that the Director may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(2) The Director may require a regulated entity to provide such additional or continuing information relating to such fraud or possible fraud that the Director deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) A regulated entity may satisfy the reporting requirements of this section by submitting the required information on a form or in another format used by any other regulatory agency, provided it has first obtained the prior written approval of the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Retention of records.</I> A regulated entity or entity-affiliated party shall maintain a copy of any report submitted to the Director and the original or business record equivalent of any supporting documentation for a period of five years from the date of submission.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Nondisclosure.</I> (1) A regulated entity or entity-affiliated party may not disclose to any person that it has submitted a report to the Director pursuant to this section, unless it has first obtained the prior written approval of the Director.
</P>
<P>(2) The restriction in paragraph (d)(1) of this section does not prohibit a regulated entity from—
</P>
<P>(i) Disclosing or reporting such fraud or possible fraud pursuant to legal requirements, including reporting to appropriate law enforcement or other governmental authorities; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Taking any legal or business action it may deem appropriate, including any action involving the party or parties connected with the fraud or possible fraud.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No waiver of privilege.</I> A regulated entity does not waive any privilege it may possess under any applicable law as a consequence of reporting fraud or possible fraud under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1233.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.4   Internal controls, policies, procedures, and training.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each regulated entity shall establish and maintain adequate and efficient internal controls, policies, procedures, and an operational training program to discover and report fraud or possible fraud in connection with the purchase or sale of any loan or financial instrument.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examination.</I> The examination by FHFA of fraud reporting programs of each regulated entity includes an evaluation of the effectiveness of the internal controls, policies, procedures, and operational training program in place to minimize risks from fraud and to report fraud or possible fraud to FHFA in accordance with this regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1233.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.5   Protection from liability for reports.</HEAD>
<P>As provided by section 1379E of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4642(b)), a regulated entity that, in good faith, submits a report pursuant to this part, and any entity-affiliated party, that, in good faith, submits or requires a person to submit a report pursuant to this part, shall not be liable to any person under any provision of law or regulation, any constitution, law, or regulation of any State or political subdivision of any State, or under any contract or other legally enforceable agreement (including any arbitration agreement) for such report, or for any failure to provide notice of such report to the person who is the subject of such report, or any other persons identified in the report.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1233.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.26.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1233.6   Supervisory action.</HEAD>
<P>Failure by a regulated entity to comply with this part may subject the regulated entity or the board members, officers, or employees thereof to supervisory action by FHFA, including but not limited to, cease-and-desist proceedings and civil money penalties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1234" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1234—CREDIT RISK RETENTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4526, 4617; 15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Authority, Purpose, Scope and Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.1   Purpose, scope and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part requires securitizers to retain an economic interest in a portion of the credit risk for any residential mortgage asset that the securitizer, through the issuance of an asset-backed security, transfers, sells, or conveys to a third party in a transaction within the scope of section 15G of the Exchange Act. This part specifies the permissible types, forms, and amounts of credit risk retention, and it establishes certain exemptions for securitizations collateralized by assets that meet specified underwriting standards or that otherwise qualify for an exemption.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> (1) Effective December 24, 2015, this part will apply to any securitizer that is an entity regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency with respect to a securitization transaction collateralized by residential mortgages.
</P>
<P>(2) Effective December 24, 2016, this part will apply to any securitizer that is an entity regulated by the Federal Housing Finance Agency with respect to a securitization transaction collateralized by assets other than residential mortgages.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of the Director of the Federal Housing Finance Agency to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, or violations of law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>ABS interest</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any type of interest or obligation issued by an issuing entity, whether or not in certificated form, including a security, obligation, beneficial interest or residual interest (other than an uncertificated regular interest in a REMIC that is held by another REMIC, where both REMICs are part of the same structure and a single REMIC in that structure issues ABS interests to investors, or a non-economic residual interest issued by a REMIC), payments on which are primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral owned or held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include common or preferred stock, limited liability interests, partnership interests, trust certificates, or similar interests that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are issued primarily to evidence ownership of the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The payments, if any, on which are not primarily dependent on the cash flows of the collateral held by the issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include the right to receive payments for services provided by the holder of such right, including servicing, trustee services and custodial services.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> of, or a person <I>affiliated</I> with, a specified person means a person that directly, or indirectly through one or more intermediaries, controls, or is controlled by, or is under common control with, the person specified.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Asset</I> means a self-liquidating financial asset (including but not limited to a loan, lease, mortgage, or receivable).
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(a)(79) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(79)).
</P>
<P><I>Collateral</I> means, with respect to any issuance of ABS interests, the assets that provide the cash flow and the servicing assets that support such cash flow for the ABS interests irrespective of the legal structure of issuance, including security interests in assets or other property of the issuing entity, fractional undivided property interests in the assets or other property of the issuing entity, or any other property interest in or rights to cash flow from such assets and related servicing assets. Assets or other property <I>collateralize</I> an issuance of ABS interests if the assets or property serve as collateral for such issuance.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate loan</I> has the same meaning as in § 1234.14.
</P>
<P><I>Commission</I> means the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> including the terms “controlling,” “controlled by” and “under common control with”:
</P>
<P>(1) Means the possession, direct or indirect, of the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting securities, by contract, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(2) Without limiting the foregoing, a person shall be considered to control another person if the first person:
</P>
<P>(i) Owns, controls or holds with power to vote 25 percent or more of any class of voting securities of the other person; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees or persons performing similar functions of the other person.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk of loss that could result from the failure of the borrower in the case of a securitized asset, or the issuing entity in the case of an ABS interest in the issuing entity, to make required payments of principal or interest on the asset or ABS interest on a timely basis;
</P>
<P>(2) The risk of loss that could result from bankruptcy, insolvency, or a similar proceeding with respect to the borrower or issuing entity, as appropriate; or
</P>
<P>(3) The effect that significant changes in the underlying credit quality of the asset or ABS interest may have on the market value of the asset or ABS interest.
</P>
<P><I>Creditor</I> has the same meaning as in 15 U.S.C. 1602(g).
</P>
<P><I>Depositor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor, in the case of a securitization transaction where there is not an intermediate transfer of the assets from the sponsor to the issuing entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The person that receives or purchases and transfers or sells the securitized assets to the issuing entity in the case of a securitization transaction where the person transferring or selling the securitized assets directly to the issuing entity is itself a trust.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal residual interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest in the issuing entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That is an interest in a single class or multiple classes in the issuing entity, provided that each interest meets, individually or in the aggregate, all of the requirements of this definition;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to which, on any payment date or allocation date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds to satisfy its obligation to pay all contractual interest or principal due, any resulting shortfall will reduce amounts payable to the eligible horizontal residual interest prior to any reduction in the amounts payable to any other ABS interest, whether through loss allocation, operation of the priority of payments, or any other governing contractual provision (until the amount of such ABS interest is reduced to zero); and
</P>
<P>(3) That, with the exception of any non-economic REMIC residual interest, has the most subordinated claim to payments of both principal and interest by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible horizontal cash reserve account</I> means an account meeting the requirements of § 1234.4(b).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible vertical interest</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, a single vertical security or an interest in each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as part of the securitization transaction that constitutes the same proportion of each such class.
</P>
<P><I>Federal banking agencies</I> means the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, and the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>GAAP</I> means generally accepted accounting principles as used in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Issuing entity</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the trust or other entity:
</P>
<P>(1) That owns or holds the pool of assets to be securitized; and
</P>
<P>(2) In whose name the asset-backed securities are issued.
</P>
<P><I>Majority-owned affiliate</I> of a person means an entity (other than the issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, such person. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Originator</I> means a person who:
</P>
<P>(1) Through an extension of credit or otherwise, creates an asset that collateralizes an asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(2) Sells the asset directly or indirectly to a securitizer or issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>REMIC</I> has the same meaning as in 26 U.S.C. 860D.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A transaction that is a covered transaction as defined in § 1026.43(b) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(b)(1));
</P>
<P>(2) Any transaction that is exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)); and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other loan secured by a residential structure that contains one to four units, whether or not that structure is attached to real property, including an individual condominium or cooperative unit and, if used as a residence, a mobile home or trailer.
</P>
<P><I>Retaining sponsor</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, the sponsor that has retained or caused to be retained an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization transaction</I> means a transaction involving the offer and sale of asset-backed securities by an issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitized asset</I> means an asset that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is transferred, sold, or conveyed to an issuing entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralizes the ABS interests issued by the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securitizer</I> means, with respect to a securitization transaction, either:
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor of the asset-backed securities (if the depositor is not the sponsor); or
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor of the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer</I> means any person responsible for the management or collection of the securitized assets or making allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests, but does not include a trustee for the issuing entity or the asset-backed securities that makes allocations or distributions to holders of the ABS interests if the trustee receives such allocations or distributions from a servicer and the trustee does not otherwise perform the functions of a servicer.
</P>
<P><I>Servicing assets</I> means rights or other assets designed to assure the servicing or timely distribution of proceeds to ABS interest holders and rights or other assets that are related or incidental to purchasing or otherwise acquiring and holding the issuing entity's securitized assets. Servicing assets include amounts received by the issuing entity as proceeds of securitized assets, including proceeds of rights or other assets, whether as remittances by obligors or as other recoveries.
</P>
<P><I>Single vertical security</I> means, with respect to any securitization transaction, an ABS interest entitling the sponsor to a specified percentage of the amounts paid on each class of ABS interests in the issuing entity (other than such single vertical security).
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a person who organizes and initiates a securitization transaction by selling or transferring assets, either directly or indirectly, including through an affiliate, to the issuing entity.
</P>
<P><I>State</I> has the same meaning as in Section 3(a)(16) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(16)).
</P>
<P><I>United States or U.S.</I> means the United States of America, including its territories and possessions, any State of the United States, and the District of Columbia.
</P>
<P><I>Wholly-owned affiliate</I> means a person (other than an issuing entity) that, directly or indirectly, wholly controls, is wholly controlled by, or is wholly under common control with, another person. For purposes of this definition, “wholly controls” means ownership of 100 percent of the equity of an entity.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Credit Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.3   Base risk retention requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Base risk retention requirement.</I> Except as otherwise provided in this part, the sponsor of a securitization transaction (or majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor) shall retain an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 1234.4 through 1234.10. Credit risk in securitized assets required to be retained and held by any person for purposes of compliance with this part, whether a sponsor, an originator, an originator-seller, or a third-party purchaser, except as otherwise provided in this part, may be acquired and held by any of such person's majority-owned affiliates (other than an issuing entity).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multiple sponsors.</I> If there is more than one sponsor of a securitization transaction, it shall be the responsibility of each sponsor to ensure that at least one of the sponsors of the securitization transaction (or at least one of their majority-owned or wholly-owned affiliates, as applicable) retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the securitized assets in accordance with any one of §§ 1234.4, 1234.5, 1234.8, 1234.9, or 1234.10.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.4   Standard risk retention.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as provided in §§ 1234.5 through 1234.10, the sponsor of a securitization transaction must retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(1) If the sponsor retains only an eligible vertical interest as its required risk retention, the sponsor must retain an eligible vertical interest in a percentage of not less than 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) If the sponsor retains only an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the amount of the interest must equal at least 5 percent of the fair value of all ABS interests in the issuing entity issued as a part of the securitization transaction, determined using a fair value measurement framework under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains both an eligible vertical interest and an eligible horizontal residual interest as its required risk retention, the percentage of the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest and the percentage of the eligible vertical interest must equal at least five.
</P>
<P>(4) The percentage of the eligible vertical interest, eligible horizontal residual interest, or combination thereof retained by the sponsor must be determined as of the closing date of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Option to hold base amount in eligible horizontal cash reserve account.</I> In lieu of retaining all or any part of an eligible horizontal residual interest under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor may, at closing of the securitization transaction, cause to be established and funded, in cash, an eligible horizontal cash reserve account in the amount equal to the fair value of such eligible horizontal residual interest or part thereof, provided that the account meets all of the following conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The account is held by the trustee (or person performing similar functions) in the name and for the benefit of the issuing entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Amounts in the account are invested only in cash and cash equivalents; and
</P>
<P>(3) Until all ABS interests in the issuing entity are paid in full, or the issuing entity is dissolved:
</P>
<P>(i) Amounts in the account shall be released only to:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfy payments on ABS interests in the issuing entity on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to satisfy an amount due on any ABS interest; or
</P>
<P>(B) Pay critical expenses of the trust unrelated to credit risk on any payment date on which the issuing entity has insufficient funds from any source to pay such expenses and:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Such expenses, in the absence of available funds in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account, would be paid prior to any payments to holders of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such payments are made to parties that are not affiliated with the sponsor; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Interest (or other earnings) on investments made in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section may be released once received by the account.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction the following disclosures in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (c):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Horizontal interest.</I> With respect to any eligible horizontal residual interest held under paragraph (a) of this section, a sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction. If the specific prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization are not available, the sponsor must disclose a range of fair values (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the close of the securitization transaction based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes, or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization. A sponsor disclosing a range of fair values based on a range of bona fide estimates or specified prices, sizes or rates of interest of each tranche of the securitization must also disclose the method by which it determined any range of prices, tranche sizes, or rates of interest.
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the valuation methodology used to calculate the fair values or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including any portion of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by the sponsor;
</P>
<P>(D) All key inputs and assumptions or a comprehensive description of such key inputs and assumptions that were used in measuring the estimated total fair value or range of fair values of all classes of ABS interests, including the eligible horizontal residual interest to be retained by the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(E) To the extent applicable to the valuation methodology used, the disclosure required in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section shall include, but should not be limited to, quantitative information about each of the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Discount rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Loss given default (recovery);
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Prepayment rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) Default rates;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Lag time between default and recovery; and
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) The basis of forward interest rates used.
</P>
<P>(F) The disclosure required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i)(C) and (D) of this section shall include, at a minimum, descriptions of all inputs and assumptions that either could have a material impact on the fair value calculation or would be material to a prospective investor's ability to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculations. To the extent the disclosure required in this paragraph (c)(1) includes a description of a curve or curves, the description shall include a description of the methodology that was used to derive each curve and a description of any aspects or features of each curve that could materially impact the fair value calculation or the ability of a prospective investor to evaluate the sponsor's fair value calculation. To the extent a sponsor uses information about the securitized assets in its calculation of fair value, such information shall not be as of a date more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided that for a subsequent issuance of ABS interests by the same issuing entity with the same sponsor for which the securitization transaction distributes amounts to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, such information shall not be as of a date more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors; provided further, that the balance or value (in accordance with the transaction documents) of the securitized assets may be increased or decreased to reflect anticipated additions or removals of assets the sponsor makes or expects to make between the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security and the closing date of the securitization.
</P>
<P>(G) A summary description of the reference data set or other historical information used to develop the key inputs and assumptions referenced in paragraph (c)(1)(i)(D) of this section, including loss given default and default rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(A) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest the sponsor retained at the closing of the securitization transaction, based on actual sale prices and finalized tranche sizes;
</P>
<P>(B) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to retain under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) To the extent the valuation methodology or any of the key inputs and assumptions that were used in calculating the fair value or range of fair values disclosed prior to sale and required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section materially differs from the methodology or key inputs and assumptions used to calculate the fair value at the time of closing, descriptions of those material differences.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the sponsor retains risk through the funding of an eligible horizontal cash reserve account:
</P>
<P>(A) The amount to be placed (or that is placed) by the sponsor in the eligible horizontal cash reserve account at closing, and the fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that the sponsor is required to fund through the eligible horizontal cash reserve account in order for such account, together with other retained interests, to satisfy the sponsor's risk retention requirement;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal cash reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(C) The disclosures required in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Vertical interest.</I> With respect to any eligible vertical interest retained under paragraph (a) of this section, the sponsor must disclose:
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security issued in the same offering of ABS interests,
</P>
<P>(A) The form of the eligible vertical interest;
</P>
<P>(B) The percentage that the sponsor is required to retain as a vertical interest under this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the material terms of the vertical interest and the amount that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of the vertical interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the certifications and disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.5   Revolving pool securitizations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Revolving pool securitization</I> means an issuing entity that is established to issue on multiple issuance dates more than one series, class, subclass, or tranche of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of securitized assets that will change in composition over time, and that does not monetize excess interest and fees from its securitized assets.
</P>
<P><I>Seller's interest</I> means an ABS interest or ABS interests:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized by the securitized assets and servicing assets owned or held by the issuing entity, other than the following that are not considered a component of seller's interest:
</P>
<P>(i) Servicing assets that have been allocated as collateral only for a specific series in connection with administering the revolving pool securitization, such as a principal accumulation or interest reserve account; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Assets that are not eligible under the terms of the securitization transaction to be included when determining whether the revolving pool securitization holds aggregate securitized assets in specified proportions to aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests issued; and
</P>
<P>(2) That is <I>pari passu</I> with each series of investor ABS interests issued, or partially or fully subordinated to one or more series in identical or varying amounts, with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets prior to early amortization of the revolving securitization (as specified in the securitization transaction documents); and
</P>
<P>(3) That adjusts for fluctuations in the outstanding principal balance of the securitized assets in the pool.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>General requirement.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to a securitization transaction for which the issuing entity is a revolving pool securitization if the sponsor maintains a seller's interest of not less than 5 percent of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests in the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Measuring the seller's interest.</I> In measuring the seller's interest for purposes of meeting the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) The unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets for the numerator of the 5 percent ratio shall not include assets of the types excluded from the definition of seller's interest in paragraph (a) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator of the 5 percent ratio may be reduced by the amount of funds held in a segregated principal accumulation account for the repayment of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the securitization transaction documents prevent funds in the principal accumulation account from being applied for any purpose other than the repayment of the unpaid principal of outstanding investor ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Funds in that account are invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 are permitted to be invested;
</P>
<P>(3) If the terms of the securitization transaction documents set minimum required seller's interest as a proportion of the unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, rather than as a proportion of the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests in all outstanding series combined, the percentage of the seller's interest for each such series must, when combined with the percentage of any minimum seller's interest set by reference to the aggregate outstanding investor ABS interests, equal at least 5 percent;
</P>
<P>(4) The 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied at the closing of each issuance of ABS interests to investors by the issuing entity, and
</P>
<P>(i) At least monthly at a seller's interest measurement date specified under the securitization transaction documents, until no ABS interest in the issuing entity is held by any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the revolving pool securitization fails to meet the 5 percent test as of any date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i) of this section, and the securitization transaction documents specify a cure period, the 5 percent test must be determined and satisfied within the earlier of the cure period, or one month after the date described in paragraph (c)(4)(i).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Measuring outstanding investor ABS interests.</I> In measuring the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for purposes of this section, ABS interests held for the life of such ABS interests by the sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates may be excluded.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Holding and retention of the seller's interest; legacy trusts.</I> (1) Notwithstanding § 1234.12(a), the seller's interest, and any offsetting horizontal retention interest retained pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, must be retained by the sponsor or by one or more wholly-owned affiliates of the sponsor, including one or more depositors of the revolving pool securitization.
</P>
<P>(2) If one revolving pool securitization issues collateral certificates representing a beneficial interest in all or a portion of the securitized assets held by that securitization to another revolving pool securitization, which in turn issues ABS interests for which the collateral certificates are all or a portion of the securitized assets, a sponsor may satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section by retaining the seller's interest for the assets represented by the collateral certificates through either of the revolving pool securitizations, so long as both revolving pool securitizations are retained at the direction of the same sponsor or its wholly-owned affiliates.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor retains the seller's interest associated with the collateral certificates at the level of the revolving pool securitization that issues those collateral certificates, the proportion of the seller's interest required by paragraph (b) of this section retained at that level must equal the proportion that the principal balance of the securitized assets represented by the collateral certificates bears to the principal balance of the securitized assets in the revolving pool securitization that issues the ABS interests, as of each measurement date required by paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Offset for pool-level excess funding account.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced on a dollar-for-dollar basis by the balance, as of such date, of an excess funding account in the form of a segregated account that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is funded in the event of a failure to meet the minimum seller's interest requirements or other requirement to maintain a minimum balance of securitized assets under the securitization transaction documents by distributions otherwise payable to the holder of the seller's interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Is invested only in the types of assets in which funds held in a horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 are permitted to be invested; and
</P>
<P>(3) In the event of an early amortization, makes payments of amounts held in the account to holders of investor ABS interests in the same manner as payments to holders of investor ABS interests of amounts received on securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Combined seller's interests and horizontal interest retention.</I> The 5 percent seller's interest required on each measurement date by paragraph (c) of this section may be reduced to a percentage lower than 5 percent to the extent that, for all series of investor ABS interests issued after the applicable effective date of this § 1234.5, the sponsor, or notwithstanding § 1234.12(a) a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, retains, at a minimum, a corresponding percentage of the fair value of ABS interests issued in each series, in the form of one or more of the horizontal residual interests meeting the requirements of paragraphs (h) or (i).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Residual ABS interests in excess interest and fees.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for a residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, whether certificated or uncertificated, in a single or multiple classes, subclasses, or tranches, that meets, individually or in the aggregate, the requirements of this paragraph (h);
</P>
<P>(1) Each series of the revolving pool securitization distinguishes between the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows and the series' share of the principal repayment cash flows from the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization, which may according to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, include not only the series' ratable share of such cash flows but also excess cash flows available from other series;
</P>
<P>(2) The residual ABS interest's claim to any part of the series' share of the interest and fee cash flows for any interest payment period is subordinated to all accrued and payable interest due on the payment date to more senior ABS interests in the series for that period, and further reduced by the series' share of losses, including defaults on principal of the securitized assets collateralizing the revolving pool securitization (whether incurred in that period or carried over from prior periods) to the extent that such payments would have been included in amounts payable to more senior interests in the series;
</P>
<P>(3) The revolving pool securitization continues to revolve, with one or more series, classes, subclasses, or tranches of asset-backed securities that are collateralized by a common pool of assets that change in composition over time; and
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, and the fair value of the series of outstanding investor ABS interests to which it is subordinated and supports using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP, as of:
</P>
<P>(i) The closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The seller's interest measurement dates described in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, except that for these periodic determinations the sponsor must update the fair value of the residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees for the numerator of the percentage ratio, but may at the sponsor's option continue to use the fair values determined in (h)(4)(i) for the outstanding investor ABS interests in the denominator.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Offsetting eligible horizontal residual interest.</I> The sponsor may take the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section for ABS interests that would meet the definition of eligible horizontal residual interests in § 1234.2 but for the sponsor's simultaneous holding of subordinated seller's interests, residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, or a combination of the two, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor complies with all requirements of paragraphs (b) through (e) of this section for its holdings of subordinated seller's interest, and paragraph (h) for its holdings of residual ABS interests in excess interests and fees, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of taking the offset described in paragraph (g) of this section, the sponsor determines the fair value of the eligible horizontal residual interest as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests in the series supported by the eligible horizontal residual interest, determined using the fair value measurement framework under GAAP:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the closing of the securitization transaction issuing the supported ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Without including in the numerator of the percentage ratio any fair value based on:
</P>
<P>(A) The subordinated seller's interest or residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees;
</P>
<P>(B) the interest payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section in taking the offset in paragraph (g) of this section; and,
</P>
<P>(C) the principal payable to the sponsor on the eligible horizontal residual interest, if the sponsor is including the value of the seller's interest pursuant to paragraphs (b) through (f) of this section and distributions on that seller's interest are available to reduce charge-offs that would otherwise be allocated to reduce principal payable to the offset eligible horizontal residual interest.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Specified dates.</I> A sponsor using data about the revolving pool securitization's collateral, or ABS interests previously issued, to determine the closing-date percentage of a seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this § 1234.5 may use such data prepared as of specified dates if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor describes the specified dates in the disclosures required by paragraph (k) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The dates are no more than 60 days prior to the date of first use with investors of disclosures required for the interest by paragraph (k) of this section, or for revolving pool securitizations that make distributions to investors on a quarterly or less frequent basis, no more than 135 days prior to the date of first use with investors of such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Disclosure and record maintenance.</I> (1) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors, under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” the following disclosure in written form and within the time frames set forth in this paragraph (k):
</P>
<P>(i) A reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security, a description of the material terms of the seller's interest, and the percentage of the seller's interest that the sponsor expects to retain at the closing of the securitization transaction, measured in accordance with the requirements of this § 1234.5, as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of all outstanding investor ABS interests issued, or as a percentage of the aggregate unpaid principal balance of outstanding investor ABS interests for one or more series issued, as required by the terms of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reasonable time after the closing of the securitization transaction, the amount of seller's interest the sponsor retained at closing, if that amount is materially different from the amount disclosed under paragraph (k)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the material terms of any horizontal residual interests offsetting the seller's interest in accordance with paragraphs (g), (h), and (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Disclosure of the fair value of those horizontal residual interests retained by the sponsor for the series being offered to investors and described in the disclosures, as a percentage of the fair value of the outstanding investor ABS interests issued, described in the same manner and within the same timeframes required for disclosure of the fair values of eligible horizontal residual interests specified in § 1234.4(c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Adjusted data.</I> Disclosures required by this paragraph (k) to be made a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of an asset-backed security of the amount of seller's interest, residual ABS interest in excess interest and fees, or eligible horizontal residual interest may include adjustments to the amount of securitized assets for additions or removals the sponsor expects to make before the closing date and adjustments to the amount of outstanding investor ABS interests for expected increases and decreases of those interests under the control of the sponsor.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Record maintenance.</I> A sponsor must retain the disclosures required in paragraph (k)(1) of this section in its records and must provide the disclosure upon request to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, until three years after all ABS interests are no longer outstanding.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Early amortization of all outstanding series.</I> A sponsor that organizes a revolving pool securitization that relies on this § 1234.5 to satisfy the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3, does not violate the requirements of this part if its seller's interest falls below the level required by § 1234. 5 after the revolving pool securitization commences early amortization, pursuant to the terms of the securitization transaction documents, of all series of outstanding investor ABS interests, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsor was in full compliance with the requirements of this section on all measurement dates specified in paragraph (c) of this section prior to the commencement of early amortization;
</P>
<P>(2) The terms of the seller's interest continue to make it <I>pari passu</I> with or subordinate in identical or varying amounts to each series of outstanding investor ABS interests issued with respect to the allocation of all distributions and losses with respect to the securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of any horizontal interest relied upon by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (g) to offset the minimum seller's interest amount continue to require the interests to absorb losses in accordance with the terms of paragraph (h) or (i) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(4) The revolving pool securitization issues no additional ABS interests after early amortization is initiated to any person not a wholly-owned affiliate of the sponsor, either at the time of issuance or during the amortization period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.6   Eligible ABCP conduits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following additional definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>100 percent liquidity coverage</I> means an amount equal to the outstanding balance of all ABCP issued by the conduit plus any accrued and unpaid interest without regard to the performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit and without regard to any credit enhancement.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP</I> means asset-backed commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance not exceeding 397 days, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal thereof the maturity of which is likewise limited.
</P>
<P><I>ABCP conduit</I> means an issuing entity with respect to ABCP.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible ABCP conduit</I> means an ABCP conduit, <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The ABCP conduit is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the sponsor of the ABCP conduit and from any intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(2) The ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit are:
</P>
<P>(i) ABS interests collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Special units of beneficial interest (or similar ABS interests) in a trust or special purpose vehicle that retains legal title to leased property underlying leases originated by an originator-seller that were transferred to an intermediate SPV in connection with a securitization collateralized solely by such leases and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) ABS interests in a revolving pool securitization collateralized solely by assets originated by an originator-seller and by servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(iv) ABS interests described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition that are collateralized, in whole or in part, by assets acquired by an originator-seller in a business combination that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP, and, if collateralized in part, the remainder of such assets are assets described in paragraph (2)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(v) Acquired by the ABCP conduit in an initial issuance by or on behalf of an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(A) Directly from the intermediate SPV,
</P>
<P>(B) From an underwriter of the ABS interests issued by the intermediate SPV, or
</P>
<P>(C) From another person who acquired the ABS interests directly from the intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) The ABCP conduit is collateralized solely by ABS interests acquired from intermediate SPVs as described in paragraph (2) of this definition and servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) A regulated liquidity provider has entered into a legally binding commitment to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage (in the form of a lending facility, an asset purchase agreement, a repurchase agreement, or other similar arrangement) to all the ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit by lending to, purchasing ABCP issued by, or purchasing assets from, the ABCP conduit in the event that funds are required to repay maturing ABCP issued by the ABCP conduit. With respect to the 100 percent liquidity coverage, in the event that the ABCP conduit is unable for any reason to repay maturing ABCP issued by the issuing entity, the liquidity provider shall be obligated to pay an amount equal to any shortfall, and the total amount that may be due pursuant to the 100 percent liquidity coverage shall be equal to 100 percent of the amount of the ABCP outstanding at any time plus accrued and unpaid interest (amounts due pursuant to the required liquidity coverage may not be subject to credit performance of the ABS interests held by the ABCP conduit or reduced by the amount of credit support provided to the ABCP conduit and liquidity support that only funds performing loans or receivables or performing ABS interests does not meet the requirements of this section).
</P>
<P><I>Intermediate SPV</I> means a special purpose vehicle that:
</P>
<P>(1) (i) Is a direct or indirect wholly-owned affiliate of the originator-seller; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Has nominal equity owned by a trust or corporate service provider that specializes in providing independent ownership of special purpose vehicles, and such trust or corporate service provider is not affiliated with any other transaction parties;
</P>
<P>(2) Is bankruptcy remote or otherwise isolated for insolvency purposes from the eligible ABCP conduit and from each originator-seller and each majority-owned affiliate in each case that, directly or indirectly, sells or transfers assets to such intermediate SPV;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquires assets from the originator-seller that are originated by the originator-seller or acquired by the originator-seller in the acquisition of a business that qualifies for business combination accounting under GAAP or acquires ABS interests issued by another intermediate SPV of the originator-seller that are collateralized solely by such assets; and
</P>
<P>(4) Issues ABS interests collateralized solely by such assets, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Originator-seller</I> means an entity that originates assets and sells or transfers those assets, directly or through a majority-owned affiliate, to an intermediate SPV, and includes (except for the purposes of identifying the sponsorship and affiliation of an intermediate SPV pursuant to this § 1234.6) any affiliate of the originator-seller that, directly or indirectly, majority controls, is majority controlled by or is under common majority control with, the originator-seller. For purposes of this definition, majority control means ownership of more than 50 percent of the equity of an entity, or ownership of any other controlling financial interest in the entity, as determined under GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Regulated liquidity provider</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A depository institution (as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813));
</P>
<P>(2) A bank holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1841), or a subsidiary thereof;
</P>
<P>(3) A savings and loan holding company (as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1467a), provided all or substantially all of the holding company's activities are permissible for a financial holding company under 12 U.S.C. 1843(k), or a subsidiary thereof; or
</P>
<P>(4) A foreign bank whose home country supervisor (as defined in § 211.21 of the Federal Reserve Board's Regulation K (12 CFR 211.21)) has adopted capital standards consistent with the Capital Accord of the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision, as amended, and that is subject to such standards, or a subsidiary thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirement of § 1234.3 with respect to the issuance of ABCP by an eligible ABCP conduit in a securitization transaction if, for each ABS interest the ABCP conduit acquires from an intermediate SPV:
</P>
<P>(1) An originator-seller of the intermediate SPV retains an economic interest in the credit risk of the assets collateralizing the ABS interest acquired by the eligible ABCP conduit in the amount and manner required under § 1234.4 or § 1234.5; and
</P>
<P>(2) The ABCP conduit sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Approves each originator-seller permitted to sell or transfer assets, directly or indirectly, to an intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit acquires ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(ii) Approves each intermediate SPV from which an eligible ABCP conduit is permitted to acquire ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishes criteria governing the ABS interests, and the securitized assets underlying the ABS interests, acquired by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Administers the ABCP conduit by monitoring the ABS interests acquired by the ABCP conduit and the assets supporting those ABS interests, arranging for debt placement, compiling monthly reports, and ensuring compliance with the ABCP conduit documents and with the ABCP conduit's credit and investment policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Maintains and adheres to policies and procedures for ensuring that the requirements in this paragraph (b) of this section have been met.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Originator-seller compliance with risk retention.</I> The use of the risk retention option provided in this section by an ABCP conduit sponsor does not relieve the originator-seller that sponsors ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit from such originator-seller's obligation to comply with its own risk retention obligations under this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures</I>—(1) <I>Periodic disclosures to investors.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to each purchaser of ABCP, before or contemporaneously with the first sale of ABCP to such purchaser and at least monthly thereafter, to each holder of commercial paper issued by the ABCP conduit, in writing, each of the following items of information, which shall be as of a date not more than 60 days prior to date of first use with investors:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of the regulated liquidity provider that provides liquidity coverage to the eligible ABCP conduit, including a description of the material terms of such liquidity coverage, and notice of any failure to fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to each ABS interest held by the ABCP conduit:
</P>
<P>(A) The asset class or brief description of the underlying securitized assets;
</P>
<P>(B) The standard industrial category code (SIC Code) for the originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of the percentage amount of risk retention pursuant to the rule by the originator-seller, and whether it is in the form of an eligible horizontal residual interest, vertical interest, or revolving pool securitization seller's interest, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures to regulators regarding originator-sellers.</I> An ABCP conduit sponsor relying upon this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing, all of the information required to be provided to investors in paragraph (d)(1) of this section, and the name and form of organization of each originator-seller that will retain (or has retained) pursuant to this section an interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Sale or transfer of ABS interests between eligible ABCP conduits.</I> At any time, an eligible ABCP conduit that acquired an ABS interest in accordance with the requirements set forth in this section may transfer, and another eligible ABCP conduit may acquire, such ABS interest, if the following conditions are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The sponsors of both eligible ABCP conduits are in compliance with this section; and
</P>
<P>(2) The same regulated liquidity provider has entered into one or more legally binding commitments to provide 100 percent liquidity coverage to all the ABCP issued by both eligible ABCP conduits.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The ABCP conduit sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An ABCP conduit sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor compliance by each originator-seller which is satisfying a risk retention obligation in respect of ABS interests acquired by an eligible ABCP conduit with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the ABCP conduit sponsor determines that an originator-seller no longer complies with the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Promptly notify the holders of the ABCP, and upon request, the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in writing of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that fails to retain risk in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The name and form of organization of any originator-seller that hedges, directly or indirectly through an intermediate SPV, its risk retention in violation of paragraph (b)(1) of this section and the amount of ABS interests issued by an intermediate SPV of such originator-seller and held by the ABCP conduit; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Any remedial actions taken by the ABCP conduit sponsor or other party with respect to such ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(B) Take other appropriate steps pursuant to the requirements of paragraphs (b)(2)(iv) and (v) of this section which may include, as appropriate, curing any breach of the requirements in this section, or removing from the eligible ABCP conduit any ABS interest that does not comply with the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.7   Commercial mortgage-backed securities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Special servicer</I> means, with respect to any securitization of commercial real estate loans, any servicer that, upon the occurrence of one or more specified conditions in the servicing agreement, has the right to service one or more assets in the transaction.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Third-party purchaser.</I> A sponsor may satisfy some or all of its risk retention requirements under § 1234.3 with respect to a securitization transaction if a third party (or any majority-owned affiliate thereof) purchases and holds for its own account an eligible horizontal residual interest in the issuing entity in the same form, amount, and manner as would be held by the sponsor under § 1234.4 and all of the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Number of third-party purchasers.</I> At any time, there are no more than two third-party purchasers of an eligible horizontal residual interest. If there are two third-party purchasers, each third-party purchaser's interest must be <I>pari passu</I> with the other third-party purchaser's interest.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Composition of collateral.</I> The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by commercial real estate loans and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Source of funds.</I> (i) Each third-party purchaser pays for the eligible horizontal residual interest in cash at the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) No third-party purchaser obtains financing, directly or indirectly, for the purchase of such interest from any other person that is a party to, or an affiliate of a party to, the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer other than a special servicer affiliated with the third-party purchaser), other than a person that is a party to the transaction solely by reason of being an investor.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Third-party review.</I> Each third-party purchaser conducts an independent review of the credit risk of each securitized asset prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction that includes, at a minimum, a review of the underwriting standards, collateral, and expected cash flows of each commercial real estate loan that is collateral for the asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Affiliation and control rights.</I> (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(5)(ii) of this section, no third-party purchaser is affiliated with any party to the securitization transaction (including, but not limited to, the sponsor, depositor, or servicer) other than investors in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(5)(i) of this section, a third-party purchaser may be affiliated with:
</P>
<P>(A) The special servicer for the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) One or more originators of the securitized assets, as long as the assets originated by the affiliated originator or originators collectively comprise less than 10 percent of the unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets included in the securitization transaction at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Operating Advisor.</I> The underlying securitization transaction documents shall provide for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The appointment of an operating advisor (the Operating Advisor) that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is not affiliated with other parties to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(B) Does not directly or indirectly have any financial interest in the securitization transaction other than in fees from its role as Operating Advisor; and
</P>
<P>(C) Is required to act in the best interest of, and for the benefit of, investors as a collective whole;
</P>
<P>(ii) Standards with respect to the Operating Advisor's experience, expertise and financial strength to fulfill its duties and responsibilities under the applicable transaction documents over the life of the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation with respect to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) When the eligible horizontal residual interest has been reduced by principal payments, realized losses, and appraisal reduction amounts (which reduction amounts are determined in accordance with the applicable transaction documents) to a principal balance of 25 percent or less of its initial principal balance, the special servicer for the securitized assets must consult with the Operating Advisor in connection with, and prior to, any material decision in connection with its servicing of the securitized assets, including, without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) Any material modification of, or waiver with respect to, any provision of a loan agreement (including a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement);
</P>
<P>(B) Foreclosure upon or comparable conversion of the ownership of a property; or
</P>
<P>(C) Any acquisition of a property.
</P>
<P>(v) The Operating Advisor shall have adequate and timely access to information and reports necessary to fulfill its duties under the transaction documents, including all reports made available to holders of ABS interests and third-party purchasers, and shall be responsible for:
</P>
<P>(A) Reviewing the actions of the special servicer;
</P>
<P>(B) Reviewing all reports provided by the special servicer to the issuing entity or any holder of ABS interests;
</P>
<P>(C) Reviewing for accuracy and consistency with the transaction documents calculations made by the special servicer; and
</P>
<P>(D) Issuing a report to investors (including any third-party purchasers) and the issuing entity on a periodic basis concerning:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Whether the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that the special servicer is operating in compliance with any standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Which, if any, standards the Operating Advisor believes, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, the special servicer has failed to comply.
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) The Operating Advisor shall have the authority to recommend that the special servicer be replaced by a successor special servicer if the Operating Advisor determines, in its sole discretion exercised in good faith, that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The special servicer has failed to comply with a standard required of the special servicer in the applicable transaction documents; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Such replacement would be in the best interest of the investors as a collective whole; and
</P>
<P>(B) If a recommendation described in paragraph (b)(6)(vi)(A) of this section is made, the special servicer shall be replaced upon the affirmative vote of a majority of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests voting on the matter, with a minimum of a quorum of ABS interests voting on the matter. For purposes of such vote, the applicable transaction documents shall specify the quorum and may not specify a quorum of more than the holders of 20 percent of the outstanding principal balance of all ABS interests in the issuing entity, with such quorum including at least three ABS interest holders that are not affiliated with each other.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(i) The name and form of organization of each initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of each initial third-party purchaser's experience in investing in commercial mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other information regarding each initial third-party purchaser or each initial third-party purchaser's retention of the eligible horizontal residual interest that is material to investors in light of the circumstances of the particular securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iv) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest that will be retained (or was retained) by each initial third-party purchaser, as well as the amount of the purchase price paid by each initial third-party purchaser for such interest;
</P>
<P>(v) The fair value (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) of the eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction that the sponsor would have retained pursuant to § 1234.4 if the sponsor had relied on retaining an eligible horizontal residual interest in that section to meet the requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the material terms of the eligible horizontal residual interest retained by each initial third-party purchaser, including the same information as is required to be disclosed by sponsors retaining horizontal interests pursuant to § 1234.4;
</P>
<P>(vii) The material terms of the applicable transaction documents with respect to the Operating Advisor, including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(A) The name and form of organization of the Operating Advisor;
</P>
<P>(B) A description of any material conflict of interest or material potential conflict of interest between the Operating Advisor and any other party to the transaction;
</P>
<P>(C) The standards required by paragraph (b)(6)(ii) of this section and a description of how the Operating Advisor satisfies each of the standards; and
</P>
<P>(D) The terms of the Operating Advisor's compensation under paragraph (b)(6)(iii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(viii) The representations and warranties concerning the securitized assets, a schedule of any securitized assets that are determined not to comply with such representations and warranties, and what factors were used to make the determination that such securitized assets should be included in the pool notwithstanding that the securitized assets did not comply with such representations and warranties, such as compensating factors or a determination that the exceptions were not material.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging, transfer and pledging</I>—(i) <I>General rule.</I> Except as set forth in paragraph (b)(8)(ii) of this section, each third-party purchaser and its affiliates must comply with the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 as if it were the retaining sponsor with respect to the securitization transaction and had acquired the eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to § 1234.4; provided that, the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 shall not apply on or after the date that each CRE loan (as defined in § 1234.14) that serves as collateral for outstanding ABS interests has been defeased. For purposes of this section, a loan is deemed to be defeased if:
</P>
<P>(A) cash or cash equivalents of the types permitted for an eligible horizontal cash reserve account pursuant to § 1234.4 whose maturity corresponds to the remaining debt service obligations, have been pledged to the issuing entity as collateral for the loan and are in such amounts and payable at such times as necessary to timely generate cash sufficient to make all remaining debt service payments due on such loan; and
</P>
<P>(B) the issuing entity has an obligation to release its lien on the loan.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exceptions</I>—(A) <I>Transfer by initial third-party purchaser or sponsor.</I> An initial third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, or a sponsor that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest at the closing of a securitization transaction in accordance with this section, may, on or after the date that is five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction, transfer that interest to a subsequent third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The initial third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the subsequent third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Transfer by subsequent third-party purchaser.</I> At any time, a subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest pursuant to this section may transfer its interest to a different third-party purchaser that complies with paragraph (b)(8)(ii)(C) of this section. The transferring third-party purchaser shall provide the sponsor with complete identifying information for the acquiring third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Requirements applicable to subsequent third-party purchasers.</I> A subsequent third-party purchaser is subject to all of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section applicable to third-party purchasers, provided that obligations under paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section that apply to initial third-party purchasers at or before the time of closing of the securitization transaction shall apply to successor third-party purchasers at or before the time of the transfer of the eligible horizontal residual interest to the successor third-party purchaser.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section by itself and for compliance by each initial or subsequent third-party purchaser that acquired an eligible horizontal residual interest in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) A sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures to monitor each third-party purchaser's compliance with the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), and (b)(8) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event that the sponsor determines that a third-party purchaser no longer complies with one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (b)(1), (b)(3) through (5), or (b)(8) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such third-party purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.8   Federal National Mortgage Association and Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation ABS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies its risk retention requirement under this part if the sponsor fully guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on all ABS interests issued by the issuing entity in the securitization transaction and is:
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation operating under the conservatorship or receivership of the Federal Housing Finance Agency pursuant to section 1367 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617) with capital support from the United States; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any limited-life regulated entity succeeding to the charter of either the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 1367(i) of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4617(i)), provided that the entity is operating with capital support from the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain provisions not applicable.</I> The provisions of § 1234.12(b), (c), and (d) shall not apply to a sponsor described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, its affiliates, or the issuing entity with respect to a securitization transaction for which the sponsor has retained credit risk in accordance with the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide to investors, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” and, upon request, to the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Commission, a description of the manner in which it has met the credit risk retention requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.9   Open market CLOs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>CLO</I> means a special purpose entity that:
</P>
<P>(i) Issues debt and equity interests, and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose assets consist primarily of loans that are securitized assets and servicing assets.
</P>
<P><I>CLO-eligible loan tranche</I> means a term loan of a syndicated facility that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>CLO manager</I> means an entity that manages a CLO, which entity is registered as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, as amended (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>), or is an affiliate of such a registered investment adviser and itself is managed by such registered investment adviser.
</P>
<P><I>Commercial borrower</I> means an obligor under a corporate credit obligation (including a loan).
</P>
<P><I>Initial loan syndication transaction</I> means a transaction in which a loan is syndicated to a group of lenders.
</P>
<P><I>Lead arranger</I> means, with respect to a CLO-eligible loan tranche, an institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is active in the origination, structuring and syndication of commercial loan transactions (as defined in § 1234.14) and has played a primary role in the structuring, underwriting and distribution on the primary market of the CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(ii) Has taken an allocation of the funded portion of the syndicated credit facility under the terms of the transaction that includes the CLO-eligible loan tranche of at least 20 percent of the aggregate principal balance at origination, and no other member (or members affiliated with each other) of the syndication group that funded at origination has taken a greater allocation; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is identified in the applicable agreement governing the CLO-eligible loan tranche; represents therein to the holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche and to any holders of participation interests in such CLO-eligible loan tranche that such lead arranger satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i) of this definition and, at the time of initial funding of the CLO-eligible tranche, will satisfy the requirements of paragraph (ii) of this definition; further represents therein (solely for the purpose of assisting such holders to determine the eligibility of such CLO-eligible loan tranche to be held by an open market CLO) that in the reasonable judgment of such lead arranger, the terms of such CLO-eligible loan tranche are consistent with the requirements of paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section; and covenants therein to such holders that such lead arranger will fulfill the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Open market CLO</I> means a CLO:
</P>
<P>(i) Whose assets consist of senior, secured syndicated loans acquired by such CLO directly from the sellers thereof in open market transactions and of servicing assets,
</P>
<P>(ii) That is managed by a CLO manager, and
</P>
<P>(iii) That holds less than 50 percent of its assets, by aggregate outstanding principal amount, in loans syndicated by lead arrangers that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager or originated by originators that are affiliates of the CLO or the CLO manager.
</P>
<P><I>Open market transaction</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Either an initial loan syndication transaction or a secondary market transaction in which a seller offers senior, secured syndicated loans to prospective purchasers in the loan market on market terms on an arm's length basis, which prospective purchasers include, but are not limited to, entities that are not affiliated with the seller, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A reverse inquiry from a prospective purchaser of a senior, secured syndicated loan through a dealer in the loan market to purchase a senior, secured syndicated loan to be sourced by the dealer in the loan market.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary market transaction</I> means a purchase of a senior, secured syndicated loan not in connection with an initial loan syndication transaction but in the secondary market.
</P>
<P><I>Senior, secured syndicated loan</I> means a loan made to a commercial borrower that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is not subordinate in right of payment to any other obligation for borrowed money of the commercial borrower,
</P>
<P>(ii) Is secured by a valid first priority security interest or lien in or on specified collateral securing the commercial borrower's obligations under the loan, and
</P>
<P>(iii) The value of the collateral subject to such first priority security interest or lien, together with other attributes of the obligor (including, without limitation, its general financial condition, ability to generate cash flow available for debt service and other demands for that cash flow), is adequate (in the commercially reasonable judgment of the CLO manager exercised at the time of investment) to repay the loan and to repay all other indebtedness of equal seniority secured by such first priority security interest or lien in or on the same collateral, and the CLO manager certifies, on or prior to each date that it acquires a loan constituting part of a new CLO-eligible tranche, that it has policies and procedures to evaluate the likelihood of repayment of loans acquired by the CLO and it has followed such policies and procedures in evaluating each CLO-eligible loan tranche.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor satisfies the risk retention requirements of § 1234.3 with respect to an open market CLO transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1) The open market CLO does not acquire or hold any assets other than CLO-eligible loan tranches that meet the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) The governing documents of such open market CLO require that, at all times, the assets of the open market CLO consist of senior, secured syndicated loans that are CLO-eligible loan tranches and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The open market CLO does not invest in ABS interests or in credit derivatives other than hedging transactions that are servicing assets to hedge risks of the open market CLO;
</P>
<P>(4) All purchases of CLO-eligible loan tranches and other assets by the open market CLO issuing entity or through a warehouse facility used to accumulate the loans prior to the issuance of the CLO's ABS interests are made in open market transactions on an arms-length basis;
</P>
<P>(5) The CLO manager of the open market CLO is not entitled to receive any management fee or gain on sale at the time the open market CLO issues its ABS interests.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>CLO-eligible loan tranche.</I> To qualify as a CLO-eligible loan tranche, a term loan of a syndicated credit facility to a commercial borrower must have the following features:
</P>
<P>(1) A minimum of 5 percent of the face amount of the CLO-eligible loan tranche is retained by the lead arranger thereof until the earliest of the repayment, maturity, involuntary and unscheduled acceleration, payment default, or bankruptcy default of such CLO-eligible loan tranche, provided that such lead arranger complies with limitations on hedging, transferring and pledging in § 1234.12 with respect to the interest retained by the lead arranger.
</P>
<P>(2) Lender voting rights within the credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranche are defined so as to give holders of the CLO-eligible loan tranche consent rights with respect to, at minimum, any material waivers and amendments of such applicable documents, including but not limited to, adverse changes to the calculation or payments of amounts due to the holders of the CLO-eligible tranche, alterations to <I>pro rata</I> provisions, changes to voting provisions, and waivers of conditions precedent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The pro rata provisions, voting provisions, and similar provisions applicable to the security associated with such CLO-eligible loan tranches under the CLO credit agreement and any intercreditor or other applicable agreements governing such CLO-eligible loan tranches are not materially less advantageous to the holder(s) of such CLO-eligible tranche than the terms of other tranches of comparable seniority in the broader syndicated credit facility.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosures.</I> A sponsor relying on this section shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities in the securitization transaction and at least annually with respect to the information required by paragraph (d)(1) of this section and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Open market CLOs.</I> A complete list of every asset held by an open market CLO (or before the CLO's closing, in a warehouse facility in anticipation of transfer into the CLO at closing), including the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The full legal name, Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) category code, and legal entity identifier (LEI) issued by a utility endorsed or otherwise governed by the Global LEI Regulatory Oversight Committee or the Global LEI Foundation (if an LEI has been obtained by the obligor) of the obligor of the loan or asset;
</P>
<P>(ii) The full name of the specific loan tranche held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iii) The face amount of the entire loan tranche held by the CLO, and the face amount of the portion thereof held by the CLO;
</P>
<P>(iv) The price at which the loan tranche was acquired by the CLO; and
</P>
<P>(v) For each loan tranche, the full legal name of the lead arranger subject to the sales and hedging restrictions of § 1234.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>CLO manager.</I> The full legal name and form of organization of the CLO manager.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.2.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.10   Qualified tender option bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Municipal security</I> or <I>municipal securities</I> shall have the same meaning as the term “municipal securities” in Section 3(a)(29) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(29)) and any rules promulgated pursuant to such section.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified tender option bond entity</I> means an issuing entity with respect to tender option bonds for which each of the following applies:
</P>
<P>(i) Such entity is collateralized solely by servicing assets and by municipal securities that have the same municipal issuer and the same underlying obligor or source of payment (determined without regard to any third-party credit enhancement), and such municipal securities are not subject to substitution.
</P>
<P>(ii) Such entity issues no securities other than:
</P>
<P>(A) A single class of tender option bonds with a preferred variable return payable out of capital that meets the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(B) One or more residual equity interests that, in the aggregate, are entitled to all remaining income of the issuing entity.
</P>
<P>(C) The types of securities referred to in paragraphs (ii)(A) and (B) of this definition must constitute asset-backed securities.
</P>
<P>(iii) The municipal securities held as assets by such entity are issued in compliance with Section 103 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (the “IRS Code”, 26 U.S.C. 103), such that the interest payments made on those securities are excludable from the gross income of the owners under Section 103 of the IRS Code.
</P>
<P>(iv) The terms of all of the securities issued by the entity are structured so that all holders of such securities who are eligible to exclude interest received on such securities will be able to exclude that interest from gross income pursuant to Section 103 of the IRS Code or as “exempt-interest dividends” pursuant to Section 852(b)(5) of the IRS Code (26 U.S.C. 852(b)(5)) in the case of regulated investment companies under the Investment Company Act of 1940, as amended.
</P>
<P>(v) Such entity has a legally binding commitment from a regulated liquidity provider as defined in § 1234.6(a), to provide a 100 percent guarantee or liquidity coverage with respect to all of the issuing entity's outstanding tender option bonds.
</P>
<P>(vi) Such entity qualifies for monthly closing elections pursuant to IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time.
</P>
<P><I>Tender option bond</I> means a security which has features which entitle the holders to tender such bonds to the issuing entity for purchase at any time upon no more than 397 days' notice, for a purchase price equal to the approximate amortized cost of the security, plus accrued interest, if any, at the time of tender.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention options.</I> Notwithstanding anything in this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds may retain an eligible vertical interest or eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 1234.4. In order to satisfy its risk retention requirements under this section, the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain:
</P>
<P>(1) An eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest, or any combination thereof, in accordance with the requirements of § 1234.4; or
</P>
<P>(2) An interest that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) A municipal security that meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any combination of interests and securities described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(3) of this section such that the sum of the percentages held in each form equals at least five.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tender option termination event.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may retain an interest that upon issuance meets the requirements of an eligible horizontal residual interest but that upon the occurrence of a “tender option termination event” as defined in Section 4.01(5) of IRS Revenue Procedure 2003-84, as amended or supplemented from time to time will meet the requirements of an eligible vertical interest.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of a municipal security outside of the qualified tender option bond entity.</I> The sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity may satisfy its risk retention requirements under this Section by holding municipal securities from the same issuance of municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity, the face value of which retained municipal securities is equal to 5 percent of the face value of the municipal securities deposited in the qualified tender option bond entity.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Disclosures.</I> The sponsor shall provide, or cause to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, the following disclosure in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”:
</P>
<P>(1) The name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the form and subordination features of such retained interest in accordance with the disclosure obligations in § 1234.4(c);
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible horizontal residual interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 1234.10(c)), the fair value of that interest (expressed as a percentage of the fair value of all of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction and as a dollar amount);
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent any portion of the retained interest is claimed by the sponsor as an eligible vertical interest (including any interest held in compliance with § 1234.10(c)), the percentage of ABS interests issued represented by the eligible vertical interest; and
</P>
<P>(5) To the extent any portion of the retained interest claimed by the sponsor is a municipal security held outside of the qualified tender option bond entity, the name and form of organization of the qualified tender option bond entity, the identity of the issuer of the municipal securities, the face value of the municipal securities deposited into the qualified tender option bond entity, and the face value of the municipal securities retained by the sponsor or its majority-owned affiliates and subject to the transfer and hedging prohibition.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Prohibitions on Hedging and Transfer.</I> The prohibitions on transfer and hedging set forth in § 1234.12, apply to any interests or municipal securities retained by the sponsor with respect to an issuance of tender option bonds by a qualified tender option bond entity pursuant to of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Transfer of Risk Retention</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.11   Allocation of risk retention to an originator.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A sponsor choosing to retain an eligible vertical interest or an eligible horizontal residual interest (including an eligible horizontal cash reserve account), or combination thereof under § 1234.4, with respect to a securitization transaction may offset the amount of its risk retention requirements under § 1234.4 by the amount of the eligible interests, respectively, acquired by an originator of one or more of the securitized assets if:
</P>
<P>(1) At the closing of the securitization transaction:
</P>
<P>(i) The originator acquires the eligible interest from the sponsor and retains such interest in the same manner and proportion (as between horizontal and vertical interests) as the sponsor under § 1234.4, as such interest was held prior to the acquisition by the originator;
</P>
<P>(ii) The ratio of the percentage of eligible interests acquired and retained by the originator to the percentage of eligible interests otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 1234.4, does not exceed the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets originated by the originator; to
</P>
<P>(B) The unpaid principal balance of all the securitized assets in the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) The originator acquires and retains at least 20 percent of the aggregate risk retention amount otherwise required to be retained by the sponsor pursuant to § 1234.4; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The originator purchases the eligible interests from the sponsor at a price that is equal, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the amount by which the sponsor's required risk retention is reduced in accordance with this section, by payment to the sponsor in the form of:
</P>
<P>(A) Cash; or
</P>
<P>(B) A reduction in the price received by the originator from the sponsor or depositor for the assets sold by the originator to the sponsor or depositor for inclusion in the pool of securitized assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Disclosures.</I> In addition to the disclosures required pursuant to § 1234.4(c), the sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of the asset-backed securities as part of the securitization transaction and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention”, the name and form of organization of any originator that will acquire and retain (or has acquired and retained) an interest in the transaction pursuant to this section, including a description of the form and amount (expressed as a percentage and dollar amount (or corresponding amount in the foreign currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable)) and nature (<I>e.g.,</I> senior or subordinated) of the interest, as well as the method of payment for such interest under paragraph (a)(1)(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Hedging, transferring and pledging.</I> The originator and each of its affiliates complies with the hedging and other restrictions in § 1234.12 with respect to the interests retained by the originator pursuant to this section as if it were the retaining sponsor and was required to retain the interest under subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duty to comply.</I> (1) The retaining sponsor shall be responsible for compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A retaining sponsor relying on this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Shall maintain and adhere to policies and procedures that are reasonably designed to monitor the compliance by each originator that is allocated a portion of the sponsor's risk retention obligations with the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event the sponsor determines that any such originator no longer complies with any of the requirements in paragraphs (a)(1) and (3) of this section, shall promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction of such noncompliance by such originator.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.12   Hedging, transfer and financing prohibitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Transfer.</I> Except as permitted by § 1234.7(b)(8), and subject to § 1234.5, a retaining sponsor may not sell or otherwise transfer any interest or assets that the sponsor is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part to any person other than an entity that is and remains a majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor and each such majority-owned affiliate shall be subject to the same restrictions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited hedging by sponsor and affiliates.</I> A retaining sponsor and its affiliates may not purchase or sell a security, or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or other position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited hedging by issuing entity.</I> The issuing entity in a securitization transaction may not purchase or sell a security or other financial instrument, or enter into an agreement, derivative or position, with any other person if:
</P>
<P>(1) Payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative or position are materially related to the credit risk of one or more particular ABS interests that the retaining sponsor for the transaction (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain with respect to the securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The security, instrument, agreement, derivative, or position in any way reduces or limits the financial exposure of the retaining sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) to the credit risk of one or more of the particular ABS interests that the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain pursuant to subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Permitted hedging activities.</I> The following activities shall not be considered prohibited hedging activities under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Hedging the interest rate risk (which does not include the specific interest rate risk, known as spread risk, associated with the ABS interest that is otherwise considered part of the credit risk) or foreign exchange risk arising from one or more of the particular ABS interests required to be retained by the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) under subpart B of this part or one or more of the particular securitized assets that underlie the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Purchasing or selling a security or other financial instrument or entering into an agreement, derivative, or other position with any third party where payments on the security or other financial instrument or under the agreement, derivative, or position are based, directly or indirectly, on an index of instruments that includes asset-backed securities if:
</P>
<P>(i) Any class of ABS interests in the issuing entity that were issued in connection with the securitization transaction and that are included in the index represents no more than 10 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index; and
</P>
<P>(ii) All classes of ABS interests in all issuing entities that were issued in connection with any securitization transaction in which the sponsor (or any of its majority-owned affiliates) is required to retain an interest pursuant to subpart B of this part and that are included in the index represent, in the aggregate, no more than 20 percent of the dollar-weighted average (or corresponding weighted average in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all instruments included in the index.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Prohibited non-recourse financing.</I> Neither a retaining sponsor nor any of its affiliates may pledge as collateral for any obligation (including a loan, repurchase agreement, or other financing transaction) any ABS interest that the sponsor is required to retain with respect to a securitization transaction pursuant to subpart B of this part unless such obligation is with full recourse to the sponsor or affiliate, respectively.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Duration of the hedging and transfer restrictions</I>—(1) <I>General rule.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the latest of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance (if applicable) of the securitized assets that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of the securitized assets as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(ii) The date on which the total unpaid principal obligations under the ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction has been reduced to 33 percent of the total unpaid principal obligations of the ABS interests at closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Two years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Securitizations of residential mortgages.</I> (i) If all of the assets that collateralize a securitization transaction subject to risk retention under this part are residential mortgages, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire on or after the date that is the later of:
</P>
<P>(A) Five years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction; or
</P>
<P>(B) The date on which the total unpaid principal balance of the residential mortgages that collateralize the securitization transaction has been reduced to 25 percent of the total unpaid principal balance of such residential mortgages at the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, the prohibitions on sale and hedging pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section shall expire with respect to the sponsor of a securitization transaction described in paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section on or after the date that is seven years after the date of the closing of the securitization transaction.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Conservatorship or receivership of sponsor.</I> A conservator or receiver of the sponsor (or any other person holding risk retention pursuant to this part) of a securitization transaction is permitted to sell or hedge any economic interest in the securitization transaction if the conservator or receiver has been appointed pursuant to any provision of federal or State law (or regulation promulgated thereunder) that provides for the appointment of the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, or an agency or instrumentality of the United States or of a State as conservator or receiver, including without limitation any of the following authorities:
</P>
<P>(i) 12 U.S.C. 1811;
</P>
<P>(ii) 12 U.S.C. 1787;
</P>
<P>(iii) 12 U.S.C. 4617; or
</P>
<P>(iv) 12 U.S.C. 5382.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Revolving pool securitizations.</I> The provisions of paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) are not available to sponsors of revolving pool securitizations with respect to the forms of risk retention specified in § 1234.5.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Exceptions and Exemptions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.13   Exemption for qualified residential mortgages.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Currently performing</I> means the borrower in the mortgage transaction is not currently thirty (30) days or more past due, in whole or in part, on the mortgage transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified residential mortgage</I> means a “qualified mortgage” as defined in section 129C of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C.1639c) and regulations issued thereunder, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exemption.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction, if:
</P>
<P>(1) All of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) None of the assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities are asset-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(3) As of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, each qualified residential mortgage collateralizing the asset-backed securities is currently performing; and
</P>
<P>(4)(i) The depositor with respect to the securitization transaction certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed security are qualified residential mortgages or servicing assets and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls must be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security in reliance on this section, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (b)(4)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission and its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Repurchase of loans subsequently determined to be non-qualified after closing.</I> A sponsor that has relied on the exemption provided in paragraph (b) of this section with respect to a securitization transaction shall not lose such exemption with respect to such transaction if, after closing of the securitization transaction, it is determined that one or more of the residential mortgage loans collateralizing the asset-backed securities does not meet all of the criteria to be a qualified residential mortgage <I>provided that:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (b)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) The sponsor repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining aggregate unpaid principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) no later than 90 days after the determination that the loans do not satisfy the requirements to be a qualified residential mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor promptly notifies, or causes to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is (or are) required to be repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, including the amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.14   Definitions applicable to qualifying commercial real estate loans.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply for purposes of §§ 1234.15 and 1234.17 :
</P>
<P><I>Appraisal Standards Board</I> means the board of the Appraisal Foundation that develops, interprets, and amends the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP), establishing generally accepted standards for the appraisal profession.
</P>
<P><I>Combined loan-to-value (CLTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the sum of the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property, plus the principal balance of any junior-lien mortgage loan that, to the creditor's knowledge, would exist at the closing of the transaction and that is secured by the same property, divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Commercial real estate (CRE) loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan secured by a property with five or more single family units, or by nonfarm nonresidential real property, the primary source (50 percent or more) of repayment for which is expected to be:
</P>
<P>(i) The proceeds of the sale, refinancing, or permanent financing of the property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Rental income associated with the property;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans secured by improved land if the obligor owns the fee interest in the land and the land is leased to a third party who owns all improvements on the land, and the improvements are nonresidential or residential with five or more single family units; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A land development and construction loan (including 1- to 4-family residential or commercial construction loans);
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other land loan; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unsecured loan to a developer.
</P>
<P><I>Debt service coverage (DSC) ratio</I> means the ratio of:
</P>
<P>(1) The annual NOI less the annual replacement reserve of the CRE property at the time of origination of the CRE loan(s); to
</P>
<P>(2) The sum of the borrower's annual payments for principal and interest (calculated at the fully indexed rate) on any debt obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Environmental risk assessment</I> means a process for determining whether a property is contaminated or exposed to any condition or substance that could result in contamination that has an adverse effect on the market value of the property or the realization of the collateral value.
</P>
<P><I>First lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that has priority over all other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Junior lien</I> means a lien or encumbrance on property that is lower in priority relative to other liens or encumbrances on the property.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio</I> means, at the time of origination, the principal balance of a first-lien mortgage loan on the property divided by:
</P>
<P>(1) For acquisition funding, the lesser of the purchase price or the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(2) For refinancing, the estimated market value of the real property based on an appraisal that meets the requirements set forth in § 1234.17(a)(2)(ii).
</P>
<P><I>Net operating income (NOI)</I> refers to the income a CRE property generates for the owner after all expenses have been deducted for federal income tax purposes, except for depreciation, debt service expenses, and federal and state income taxes, and excluding any unusual and nonrecurring items of income.
</P>
<P><I>Operating affiliate</I> means an affiliate of a borrower that is a lessor or similar party with respect to the commercial real estate securing the loan.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money security interest</I> means a security interest in property that secures the obligation of the obligor incurred as all or part of the price of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying leased CRE loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by commercial nonfarm real property, other than a multi-family property or a hotel, inn, or similar property:
</P>
<P>(1) That is occupied by one or more qualified tenants pursuant to a lease agreement with a term of no less than one (1) month; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where no more than 20 percent of the aggregate gross revenue of the property is payable from one or more tenants who:
</P>
<P>(i) Are subject to a lease that will terminate within six months following the date of origination; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Are not qualified tenants.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying multi-family loan</I> means a CRE loan secured by any residential property (excluding a hotel, motel, inn, hospital, nursing home, or other similar facility where dwellings are not leased to residents):
</P>
<P>(1) That consists of five or more dwelling units (including apartment buildings, condominiums, cooperatives and other similar structures) primarily for residential use; and
</P>
<P>(2) Where at least 75 percent of the NOI is derived from residential rents and tenant amenities (including income from parking garages, health or swim clubs, and dry cleaning), and not from other commercial uses.
</P>
<P><I>Rental income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Income derived from a lease or other occupancy agreement between the borrower or an operating affiliate of the borrower and a party which is not an affiliate of the borrower for the use of real property or improvements serving as collateral for the applicable loan; and
</P>
<P>(2) Other income derived from hotel, motel, dormitory, nursing home, assisted living, mini-storage warehouse or similar properties that are used primarily by parties that are not affiliates or employees of the borrower or its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Replacement reserve</I> means the monthly capital replacement or maintenance amount based on the property type, age, construction and condition of the property that is adequate to maintain the physical condition and NOI of the property.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP)</I> means generally accepted standards for professional appraisal practice issued by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77740, Dec. 24, 2014, as amended at 79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.15   Qualifying commercial real estate loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General exception.</I> Commercial real estate loans that are securitized through a securitization transaction shall be subject to a 0 percent risk retention requirement under subpart B of this part, provided that the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The CRE assets meet the underwriting standards set forth in § 1234.17;
</P>
<P>(2) The securitization transaction is collateralized solely by CRE loans and by servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) The securitization transaction does not permit reinvestment periods; and
</P>
<P>(4) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities of the issuing entity, and, upon request, to the Commission, and to the FHFA, in written form under the caption “Credit Risk Retention” a description of the manner in which the sponsor determined the aggregate risk retention requirement for the securitization transaction after including qualifying CRE loans with 0 percent risk retention.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk retention requirement.</I> For any securitization transaction described in paragraph (a) of this section, the percentage of risk retention required under § 1234.3(a) is reduced by the percentage evidenced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the qualifying CRE loans to the total unpaid principal balance of CRE loans that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the qualifying asset ratio); provided that;
</P>
<P>(1) The qualifying asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction;
</P>
<P>(2) If the qualifying asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the qualifying asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) The disclosure required by paragraph (a)(4) of this section also includes descriptions of the qualifying CRE loans and descriptions of the CRE loans that are not qualifying CRE loans, and the material differences between the group of qualifying CRE loans and CRE loans that are not qualifying loans with respect to the composition of each group's loan balances, loan terms, interest rates, borrower credit information, and characteristics of any loan collateral.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exception for securitizations of qualifying CRE only.</I> Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, the risk retention requirements of subpart B of this part shall not apply to securitization transactions where the transaction is collateralized solely by servicing assets and qualifying CRE loans.
</P>
<P>(d) Record maintenance. A regulated entity must retain the disclosures required in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the certification required in § 1234.17(a)(10) of this part, in its records until three years after all ABS interests issued in the securitization are no longer outstanding. The regulated entity must provide the disclosures and certifications upon request to the Commission and the FHFA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[79 FR 77765, Dec. 24, 2014]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.17   Underwriting standards for qualifying CRE loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Underwriting, product and other standards.</I> (1) The CRE loan must be secured by the following:
</P>
<P>(i) An enforceable first lien, documented and recorded appropriately pursuant to applicable law, on the commercial real estate and improvements;
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) An assignment of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Leases and rents and other occupancy agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor or similar party and all payments under such leases and occupancy agreements; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All franchise, license and concession agreements related to the commercial real estate or improvements or the operation thereof for which the borrower or an operating affiliate is a lessor, licensor, concession granter or similar party and all payments under such other agreements, whether the assignments described in this paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A)(<I>2</I>) are absolute or are stated to be made to the extent permitted by the agreements governing the applicable franchise, license or concession agreements;
</P>
<P>(B) An assignment of all other payments due to the borrower or due to any operating affiliate in connection with the operation of the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The right to enforce the agreements described in paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and the agreements under which payments under paragraph (a)(1)(ii)(B) of this section are due against, and collect amounts due from, each lessee, occupant or other obligor whose payments were assigned pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section upon a breach by the borrower of any of the terms of, or the occurrence of any other event of default (however denominated) under, the loan documents relating to such CRE loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A security interest:
</P>
<P>(A) In all interests of the borrower and any applicable operating affiliate in all tangible and intangible personal property of any kind, in or used in the operation of or in connection with, pertaining to, arising from, or constituting, any of the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) In the form of a perfected security interest if the security interest in such property can be perfected by the filing of a financing statement, fixture filing, or similar document pursuant to the law governing the perfection of such security interest;
</P>
<P>(2) Prior to origination of the CRE loan, the originator:
</P>
<P>(i) Verified and documented the current financial condition of the borrower and each operating affiliate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Obtained a written appraisal of the real property securing the loan that:
</P>
<P>(A) Had an effective date not more than six months prior to the origination date of the loan by a competent and appropriately State-certified or State-licensed appraiser;
</P>
<P>(B) Conforms to generally accepted appraisal standards as evidenced by the USPAP and the appraisal requirements 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> of the Federal banking agencies; and
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 CFR part 34, subpart C (OCC); 12 CFR part 208, subpart E, and 12 CFR part 225, subpart G (Board); and 12 CFR part 323 (FDIC).</P></FTNT>
<P>(C) Provides an “as is” opinion of the market value of the real property, which includes an income approach; 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See USPAP, Standard 1.</P></FTNT>
<P>(iii) Qualified the borrower for the CRE loan based on a monthly payment amount derived from level monthly payments consisting of both principal and interest (at the fully-indexed rate) over the term of the loan, not exceeding 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multi-family property;
</P>
<P>(iv) Conducted an environmental risk assessment to gain environmental information about the property securing the loan and took appropriate steps to mitigate any environmental liability determined to exist based on this assessment;
</P>
<P>(v) Conducted an analysis of the borrower's ability to service its overall debt obligations during the next two years, based on reasonable projections (including operating income projections for the property);
</P>
<P>(vi)(A) Determined that based on the two years' actual performance immediately preceding the origination of the loan, the borrower would have had:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(B) If the borrower did not own the property for any part of the last two years prior to origination, the calculation of the DSC ratio, for purposes of paragraph (a)(2)(vi)(A) of this section, shall include the property's operating income for any portion of the two-year period during which the borrower did not own the property;
</P>
<P>(vii) Determined that, based on two years of projections, which include the new debt obligation, following the origination date of the loan, the borrower will have:
</P>
<P>(A) A DSC ratio of 1.5 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying leased CRE loan, net of any income derived from a tenant(s) who is not a qualified tenant(s);
</P>
<P>(B) A DSC ratio of 1.25 or greater, if the loan is a qualifying multi-family property loan; or
</P>
<P>(C) A DSC ratio of 1.7 or greater, if the loan is any other type of CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(3) The loan documentation for the CRE loan includes covenants that:
</P>
<P>(i) Require the borrower to provide the borrower's financial statements and supporting schedules to the servicer on an ongoing basis, but not less frequently than quarterly, including information on existing, maturing and new leasing or rent-roll activity for the property securing the loan, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Impose prohibitions on:
</P>
<P>(A) The creation or existence of any other security interest with respect to the collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, except as provided in paragraph (a)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The transfer of any collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section or of any other collateral consisting of fixtures, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment other than any such fixture, furniture, furnishings, machinery or equipment that is obsolete or surplus; and
</P>
<P>(C) Any change to the name, location or organizational structure of any borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor unless such borrower, operating affiliate or other pledgor shall have given the holder of the loan at least 30 days advance notice and, pursuant to applicable law governing perfection and priority, the holder of the loan is able to take all steps necessary to continue its perfection and priority during such 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(iii) Require each borrower and each operating affiliate to:
</P>
<P>(A) Maintain insurance that protects against loss on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section for an amount no less than the replacement cost of the property improvements, and names the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan as an additional insured or lender loss payee;
</P>
<P>(B) Pay taxes, charges, fees, and claims, where non-payment might give rise to a lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) Take any action required to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Protect the security interest and the enforceability and priority thereof in the collateral described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) and (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section and defend such collateral against claims adverse to the originator's or any subsequent holder's interest; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Perfect the security interest of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan in any other collateral for the CRE loan to the extent that such security interest is required by this section to be perfected;
</P>
<P>(D) Permit the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, and the servicer, to inspect any collateral for the CRE loan and the books and records of the borrower or other party relating to any collateral for the CRE loan;
</P>
<P>(E) Maintain the physical condition of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(F) Comply with all environmental, zoning, building code, licensing and other laws, regulations, agreements, covenants, use restrictions, and proffers applicable to collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(G) Comply with leases, franchise agreements, condominium declarations, and other documents and agreements relating to the operation of collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section, and to not modify any material terms and conditions of such agreements over the term of the loan without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer; and
</P>
<P>(H) Not materially alter collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section without the consent of the originator or any subsequent holder of the loan, or the servicer.
</P>
<P>(4) The loan documentation for the CRE loan prohibits the borrower and each operating affiliate from obtaining a loan secured by a junior lien on collateral for the CRE loan described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The sum of the principal amount of such junior lien loan, plus the principal amount of all other loans secured by collateral described in paragraph (a)(1)(i) or (a)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, does not exceed the applicable CLTV ratio in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, based on the appraisal at origination of such junior lien loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Such loan is a purchase money obligation that financed the acquisition of machinery or equipment and the borrower or operating affiliate (as applicable) pledges such machinery and equipment as additional collateral for the CRE loan.
</P>
<P>(5) At origination, the applicable loan-to-value ratios for the loan are:
</P>
<P>(i) LTV less than or equal to 65 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 70 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) LTV less than or equal to 60 percent and CLTV less than or equal to 65 percent, if an appraisal used to meet the requirements set forth in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section used a direct capitalization rate, and that rate is less than or equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The 10-year swap rate, as reported in the Federal Reserve's H.15 Report (or any successor report) as of the date concurrent with the effective date of such appraisal; and
</P>
<P>(B) 300 basis points.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the appraisal required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section included a direct capitalization method using an overall capitalization rate, that rate must be disclosed to potential investors in the securitization.
</P>
<P>(6) All loan payments required to be made under the loan agreement are:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on level monthly payments of principal and interest (at the fully indexed rate) to fully amortize the debt over a term that does not exceed 25 years, or 30 years for a qualifying multifamily loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) To be made no less frequently than monthly over a term of at least ten years.
</P>
<P>(7) Under the terms of the loan agreement:
</P>
<P>(i) Any maturity of the note occurs no earlier than ten years following the date of origination;
</P>
<P>(ii) The borrower is not permitted to defer repayment of principal or payment of interest; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The interest rate on the loan is:
</P>
<P>(A) A fixed interest rate;
</P>
<P>(B) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that effectively results in a fixed interest rate; or
</P>
<P>(C) An adjustable interest rate and the borrower, prior to or concurrently with origination of the CRE loan, obtained a derivative that established a cap on the interest rate for the term of the loan, and the loan meets the underwriting criteria in paragraphs (a)(2)(vi) and (vii) of this section using the maximum interest rate allowable under the interest rate cap.
</P>
<P>(8) The originator does not establish an interest reserve at origination to fund all or part of a payment on the loan.
</P>
<P>(9) At the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the securitized assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction, all payments due on the loan are contractually current.
</P>
<P>(10)(i) The depositor of the asset-backed security certifies that it has evaluated the effectiveness of its internal supervisory controls with respect to the process for ensuring that all qualifying CRE loans that collateralize the asset-backed security and that reduce the sponsor's risk retention requirement under § 1234.15 meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) of this section and has concluded that its internal supervisory controls are effective;
</P>
<P>(ii) The evaluation of the effectiveness of the depositor's internal supervisory controls referenced in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section shall be performed, for each issuance of an asset-backed security, as of a date within 60 days of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the asset pool collateralizing such asset-backed security;
</P>
<P>(iii) The sponsor provides, or causes to be provided, a copy of the certification described in paragraph (a)(10)(i) of this section to potential investors a reasonable period of time prior to the sale of asset-backed securities in the issuing entity, and, upon request, to its appropriate Federal banking agency, if any; and
</P>
<P>(11) Within two weeks of the closing of the CRE loan by its originator or, if sooner, prior to the transfer of such CRE loan to the issuing entity, the originator shall have obtained a UCC lien search from the jurisdiction of organization of the borrower and each operating affiliate, that does not report, as of the time that the security interest of the originator in the property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section was perfected, other higher priority liens of record on any property described in paragraph (a)(1)(iii) of this section, other than purchase money security interests.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Cure or buy-back requirement.</I> If a sponsor has relied on the exception provided in § 1234.15 with respect to a qualifying CRE loan and it is subsequently determined that the CRE loan did not meet all of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor shall not lose the benefit of the exception with respect to the CRE loan if the depositor complied with the certification requirement set forth in paragraph (a)(10) of this section, and:
</P>
<P>(1) The failure of the loan to meet any of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) and (a)(11) of this section is not material; or;
</P>
<P>(2) No later than 90 days after the determination that the loan does not meet one or more of the requirements of paragraphs (a)(1) through (9) or (a)(11) of this section, the sponsor:
</P>
<P>(i) Effectuates cure, restoring conformity of the loan to the unmet requirements as of the date of cure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchases the loan(s) from the issuing entity at a price at least equal to the remaining principal balance and accrued interest on the loan(s) as of the date of repurchase.
</P>
<P>(3) If the sponsor cures or repurchases pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the sponsor must promptly notify, or cause to be notified, the holders of the asset-backed securities issued in the securitization transaction of any loan(s) included in such securitization transaction that is required to be cured or repurchased by the sponsor pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, including the principal amount of such repurchased loan(s) and the cause for such cure or repurchase.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.18   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.19   General exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Community-focused residential mortgage</I> means a residential mortgage exempt from the definition of “covered transaction” under § 1026.43(a)(3)(iv) and (v) of the CFPB's Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(a)).
</P>
<P><I>First pay class</I> means a class of ABS interests for which all interests in the class are entitled to the same priority of payment and that, at the time of closing of the transaction, is entitled to repayments of principal and payments of interest prior to or pro-rata with all other classes of securities collateralized by the same pool of first-lien residential mortgages, until such class has no principal or notional balance remaining.
</P>
<P><I>Inverse floater</I> means an ABS interest issued as part of a securitization transaction for which interest or other income is payable to the holder based on a rate or formula that varies inversely to a reference rate of interest.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan</I> means a mortgage loan that is:
</P>
<P>(i) Secured by a dwelling (as defined in 12 CFR 1026.2(a)(19)) that is owner occupied and contains three-to-four housing units;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is deemed to be for business purposes for purposes of Regulation Z under 12 CFR part 1026, Supplement I, paragraph 3(a)(5)(i); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Otherwise meets all of the requirements to qualify as a qualified mortgage under § 1026.43(e) and (f) of Regulation Z (12 CFR 1026.43(e) and (f)) as if the loan were a covered transaction under that section.
</P>
<P>(b) This part shall not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>U.S. Government-backed securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets that are insured or guaranteed (in whole or in part) as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States, and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involves the issuance of asset-backed securities that:
</P>
<P>(A) Are insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(B) Are collateralized solely by residential, multifamily, or health care facility mortgage loan assets or interests in such assets, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain agricultural loan securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by loans or other assets made, insured, guaranteed, or purchased by any institution that is subject to the supervision of the Farm Credit Administration, including the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation, and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>State and municipal securitizations.</I> Any asset-backed security that is a security issued or guaranteed by any State, or by any political subdivision of a State, or by any public instrumentality of a State that is exempt from the registration requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 by reason of section 3(a)(2) of that Act (15 U.S.C. 77c(a)(2)); and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualified scholarship funding bonds.</I> Any asset-backed security that meets the definition of a qualified scholarship funding bond, as set forth in section 150(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 150(d)(2)).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pass-through resecuritizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by asset-backed securities:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is structured so that it involves the issuance of only a single class of ABS interests; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides for the pass-through of all principal and interest payments received on the underlying asset-backed securities (net of expenses of the issuing entity) to the holders of such class.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>First-pay-class securitizations.</I> Any securitization transaction that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by first-pay classes of asset-backed securities collateralized by first-lien residential mortgages on properties located in any state:
</P>
<P>(A) For which credit risk was retained as required under subpart B of this part; or
</P>
<P>(B) That were exempted from the credit risk retention requirements of this part pursuant to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(ii) Does not provide for any ABS interest issued in the securitization transaction to share in realized principal losses other than pro rata with all other ABS interests issued in the securitization transaction based on the current unpaid principal balance of such ABS interests at the time the loss is realized;
</P>
<P>(iii) Is structured to reallocate prepayment risk;
</P>
<P>(iv) Does not reallocate credit risk (other than as a consequence of reallocation of prepayment risk); and
</P>
<P>(v) Does not include any inverse floater or similarly structured ABS interest.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Seasoned loans.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by servicing assets, and by seasoned loans that meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(A) The loans have not been modified since origination; and
</P>
<P>(B) None of the loans have been delinquent for 30 days or more.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, a <I>seasoned loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of five years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 25 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(7)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, any residential mortgage loan that has been outstanding and performing for a period of at least seven years shall be deemed a seasoned loan.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to all other classes of asset-backed securities, a loan that has been outstanding and performing for the longer of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A period of at least two years; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Until the outstanding principal balance of the loan has been reduced to 33 percent of the original principal balance.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Certain public utility securitizations.</I> (i) Any securitization transaction where the asset-back securities issued in the transaction are secured by the intangible property right to collect charges for the recovery of specified costs and such other assets, if any, of an issuing entity that is wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by an investor owned utility company that is subject to the regulatory authority of a State public utility commission or other appropriate State agency.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of this paragraph:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Specified cost</I> means any cost identified by a State legislature as appropriate for recovery through securitization pursuant to specified cost recovery legislation; and
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Specified cost recovery legislation</I> means legislation enacted by a State that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Authorizes the investor owned utility company to apply for, and authorizes the public utility commission or other appropriate State agency to issue, a financing order determining the amount of specified costs the utility will be allowed to recover;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Provides that pursuant to a financing order, the utility acquires an intangible property right to charge, collect, and receive amounts necessary to provide for the full recovery of the specified costs determined to be recoverable, and assures that the charges are non-bypassable and will be paid by customers within the utility's historic service territory who receive utility goods or services through the utility's transmission and distribution system, even if those customers elect to purchase these goods or services from a third party; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Guarantees that neither the State nor any of its agencies has the authority to rescind or amend the financing order, to revise the amount of specified costs, or in any way to reduce or impair the value of the intangible property right, except as may be contemplated by periodic adjustments authorized by the specified cost recovery legislation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemption for securitizations of assets issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are:
</P>
<P>(1) Collateralized solely by obligations issued by the United States or an agency of the United States and servicing assets;
</P>
<P>(2) Collateralized solely by assets that are fully insured or guaranteed as to the payment of principal and interest by the United States or an agency of the United States (other than those referred to in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section) and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(3) Fully guaranteed as to the timely payment of principal and interest by the United States or any agency of the United States;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation securitizations.</I> This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction that is sponsored by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation acting as conservator or receiver under any provision of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act or of Title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reduced requirement for certain student loan securitizations.</I> The 5 percent risk retention requirement set forth in § 1234.4 shall be modified as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by student loans made under the Federal Family Education Loan Program (“FFELP loans”) that are guaranteed as to 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 0 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) With respect to a securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans that are guaranteed as to at least 98 percent but less than 100 percent of defaulted principal and accrued interest, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 2 percent; and
</P>
<P>(3) With respect to any other securitization transaction that is collateralized solely by FFELP loans, and servicing assets, the risk retention requirement shall be 3 percent.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Community-focused lending securitizations.</I> (1) This part shall not apply to any securitization transaction if the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by community-focused residential mortgages and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) For any securitization transaction that includes both community-focused residential mortgages and residential mortgages that are not exempt from risk retention under this part, the percent of risk retention required under § 1234.4(a) is reduced by the ratio of the unpaid principal balance of the community-focused residential mortgages to the total unpaid principal balance of residential mortgages that are included in the pool of assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction (the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio); provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio is measured as of the cut-off date or similar date for establishing the composition of the pool assets collateralizing the asset-backed securities issued pursuant to the securitization transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio would exceed 50 percent, the community-focused residential mortgage asset ratio shall be deemed to be 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exemptions for securitizations of certain three-to-four unit mortgage loans.</I> A sponsor shall be exempt from the risk retention requirements in subpart B of this part with respect to any securitization transaction if:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans and servicing assets; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are collateralized solely by qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages as defined in § 1234.13, and servicing assets.
</P>
<P>(2) The depositor with respect to the securitization provides the certifications set forth in § 1234.13(b)(4) with respect to the process for ensuring that all assets that collateralize the asset-backed securities issued in the transaction are qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, qualified residential mortgages, or servicing assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) The sponsor of the securitization complies with the repurchase requirements in § 1234.13(c) with respect to a loan if, after closing, it is determined that the loan does not meet all of the criteria to be either a qualified residential mortgage or a qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loan, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Rule of construction.</I> Securitization transactions involving the issuance of asset-backed securities that are either issued, insured, or guaranteed by, or are collateralized by obligations issued by, or loans that are issued, insured, or guaranteed by, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or a Federal home loan bank shall not on that basis qualify for exemption under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.20   Safe harbor for certain foreign-related transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definition shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>U.S. person</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Any natural person resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity organized or incorporated under the laws of any State or of the United States;
</P>
<P>(C) Any estate of which any executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(D) Any trust of which any trustee is a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a foreign entity located in the United States;
</P>
<P>(F) Any non-discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary for the benefit or account of a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition);
</P>
<P>(G) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held by a dealer or other fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States; and
</P>
<P>(H) Any partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or other organization or entity if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Organized or incorporated under the laws of any foreign jurisdiction; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Formed by a U.S. person (as defined under any other clause of this definition) principally for the purpose of investing in securities not registered under the Act; and
</P>
<P>(ii) “U.S. person(s)” does not include:
</P>
<P>(A) Any discretionary account or similar account (other than an estate or trust) held for the benefit or account of a person not constituting a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) by a dealer or other professional fiduciary organized, incorporated, or (if an individual) resident in the United States;
</P>
<P>(B) Any estate of which any professional fiduciary acting as executor or administrator is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An executor or administrator of the estate who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the assets of the estate; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The estate is governed by foreign law;
</P>
<P>(C) Any trust of which any professional fiduciary acting as trustee is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section), if a trustee who is not a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) has sole or shared investment discretion with respect to the trust assets, and no beneficiary of the trust (and no settlor if the trust is revocable) is a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section);
</P>
<P>(D) An employee benefit plan established and administered in accordance with the law of a country other than the United States and customary practices and documentation of such country;
</P>
<P>(E) Any agency or branch of a U.S. person (as defined in paragraph (i) of this section) located outside the United States if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The agency or branch operates for valid business reasons; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agency or branch is engaged in the business of insurance or banking and is subject to substantive insurance or banking regulation, respectively, in the jurisdiction where located;
</P>
<P>(F) The International Monetary Fund, the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the United Nations, and their agencies, affiliates and pension plans, and any other similar international organizations, their agencies, affiliates and pension plans.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>In general.</I> This part shall not apply to a securitization transaction if all the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(1) The securitization transaction is not required to be and is not registered under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(2) No more than 10 percent of the dollar value (or equivalent amount in the currency in which the ABS interests are issued, as applicable) of all classes of ABS interests in the securitization transaction are sold or transferred to U.S. persons or for the account or benefit of U.S. persons;
</P>
<P>(3) Neither the sponsor of the securitization transaction nor the issuing entity is:
</P>
<P>(i) Chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State;
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office (wherever located) of an entity chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) An unincorporated branch or office located in the United States or any State of an entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(4) If the sponsor or issuing entity is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of a jurisdiction other than the United States or any State, no more than 25 percent (as determined based on unpaid principal balance) of the assets that collateralize the ABS interests sold in the securitization transaction were acquired by the sponsor or issuing entity, directly or indirectly, from:
</P>
<P>(i) A majority-owned affiliate of the sponsor or issuing entity that is chartered, incorporated, or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An unincorporated branch or office of the sponsor or issuing entity that is located in the United States or any State.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evasions prohibited.</I> In view of the objective of these rules and the policies underlying Section 15G of the Exchange Act, the safe harbor described in paragraph (b) of this section is not available with respect to any transaction or series of transactions that, although in technical compliance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, is part of a plan or scheme to evade the requirements of section 15G and this part. In such cases, compliance with section 15G and this part is required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.21   Additional exemptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization transactions.</I> The federal agencies with rulewriting authority under section 15G(b) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(b)) with respect to the type of assets involved may jointly provide a total or partial exemption of any securitization transaction as such agencies determine may be appropriate in the public interest and for the protection of investors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions, exemptions, and adjustments.</I> The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, may jointly adopt or issue exemptions, exceptions or adjustments to the requirements of this part, including exemptions, exceptions or adjustments for classes of institutions or assets in accordance with section 15G(e) of the Exchange Act (15 U.S.C. 78o-11(e)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1234.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.27.4.1.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1234.22   Periodic review of the QRM definition, exempted three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans, and community-focused residential mortgage exemption</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Federal banking agencies and the Commission, in consultation with the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development, shall commence a review of the definition of qualified residential mortgage in § 1234.13, a review of the community-focused residential mortgage exemption in § 1234.19(f), and a review of the exemption for qualifying three-to-four unit residential mortgage loans in § 1234.19(g):
</P>
<P>(1) No later than four years after the effective date of the rule (as it relates to securitizers and originators of asset-backed securities collateralized by residential mortgages), five years following the completion of such initial review, and every five years thereafter; and
</P>
<P>(2) At any time, upon the request of any Federal banking agency, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency or the Department of Housing and Urban Development, specifying the reason for such request, including as a result of any amendment to the definition of qualified mortgage or changes in the residential housing market.
</P>
<P>(b) The Federal banking agencies, the Commission, the Federal Housing Finance Agency and the Department of Housing and Urban Development shall publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> notice of the commencement of a review and, in the case of a review commenced under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the reason an agency is requesting such review. After completion of any review, but no later than six months after the publication of the notice announcing the review, unless extended by the agencies, the agencies shall jointly publish a notice disclosing the determination of their review. If the agencies determine to amend the definition of qualified residential mortgage, the agencies shall complete any required rulemaking within 12 months of publication in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> of such notice disclosing the determination of their review, unless extended by the agencies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1235" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1235—RECORD RETENTION FOR REGULATED ENTITIES AND OFFICE OF FINANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513b(a)(10) and (11), 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 33127, June 8, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1235.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth minimum requirements for a record retention program for each regulated entity and the Office of Finance. The requirements are intended to further prudent management as well as to ensure that complete and accurate records of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance are readily accessible to FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the term—
</P>
<P><I>Electronic record</I> means a record created, generated, communicated, or stored by electronic means.
</P>
<P><I>E-mail</I> means a document created or received on a computer network for transmitting messages electronically, and any attachments which may be transmitted with the document.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means any officer or employee of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Record</I> means any information, whether generated internally or received from outside sources by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, related to the conduct of the business of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance (which business, in the case of the Office of Finance, shall include any functions performed with respect to the Financing Corporation) or to legal or regulatory requirements, regardless of the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Form or format, including hard copy documents (<I>e.g.,</I> files, logs, and reports), electronic documents (<I>e.g.,</I> e-mail, databases, spreadsheets, PowerPoint presentations, electronic reporting systems, electronic tapes and back-up tapes, optical discs, CD-ROMS, and DVDs), and voicemail or recorded telephone line records;
</P>
<P>(2) Where the information is stored or located, including network servers, desktop or laptop computers and handheld computers, other wireless devices with text messaging capabilities, and on-site or off-site at a storage facility;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the information is maintained or used on regulated entity or Office of Finance equipment, or on personal or home computer systems of an employee; or
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the information is active or inactive.
</P>
<P><I>Record hold</I> means a requirement, an order, or a directive from a regulated entity, the Office of Finance, or FHFA that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is to retain records relating to a particular issue in connection with an actual or a potential FHFA examination, investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation of which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has received notice from FHFA or otherwise has knowledge.
</P>
<P><I>Record retention schedule</I> means a schedule that details the categories of records a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is required to retain and the corresponding retention periods. The record retention schedule includes all media, such as microfilm and machine-readable computer records, for each record category.
</P>
<P><I>Retention period</I> means the length of time that records must be kept before they are destroyed, as determined by the organization's record retention schedule. Records not authorized for destruction have a retention period of “permanent.”
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 33127, June 8, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.3   Establishment and evaluation of a record retention program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall establish and maintain a written record retention program and provide a copy of such program to the Deputy Director of the Division of Enterprise Regulation, or his or her designee, or the Deputy Director for the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, or his or her designee, as appropriate, within 180 days of the effective date of this part, and annually thereafter, and whenever a significant revision to the program has been made.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation.</I> Management of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall evaluate in writing the adequacy and effectiveness of the record retention program at least every two years and provide a copy of the evaluation to the board of directors and the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.4   Minimum requirements of a record retention program.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General minimum requirements.</I> The record retention program established and maintained by each regulated entity and the Office of Finance under § 1235.3 shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Assure that retained records are complete and accurate;
</P>
<P>(2) Assure that the form of retained records and the retention period—
</P>
<P>(i) Are appropriate to support administrative, business, external and internal audit functions, and litigation of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Comply with requirements of applicable laws and regulations, including this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Assign in writing the authorities and responsibilities for record retention activities for employees, including line managers and corporate management;
</P>
<P>(4) Include policies and procedures concerning record holds, consistent with § 1235.5, and, as appropriate, integrate them with policies and procedures throughout the organization;
</P>
<P>(5) Include an accurate, current, and comprehensive record retention schedule that lists records by major categories, subcategories, record type, and retention period, which retention period is appropriate to the specific record and consistent with applicable legal, regulatory, fiscal, operational, and business requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) Include appropriate security and internal controls to protect records from unauthorized access and data alteration;
</P>
<P>(7) Provide for appropriate back-up and recovery of electronic records to ensure the same accuracy as the primary records;
</P>
<P>(8) Provide for a periodic testing of the ability to access records; and
</P>
<P>(9) Provide for the proper disposition of records.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum storage requirements for electronic records.</I> Electronic records, preferably searchable, must be maintained on immutable, non-rewritable storage in a manner that provides for both ready access by any person who is entitled to access the records, including staff of FHFA, and accurate reproduction for later reference by transmission, printing or other means.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Communication and training</I>—(1) The record retention program established and maintained by each regulated entity and the Office of Finance under § 1235.3 shall provide for periodic training and communication throughout the organization.
</P>
<P>(2) The record retention program shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide for communication throughout the organization on record retention policies, procedures, and record retention schedule updates; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide for training of and notice to all employees on a periodic basis on their record retention responsibilities, including instruction regarding penalties provided by law for the unlawful removal or destruction of records. The record retention program also shall provide for training for the agents or independent contractors of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as appropriate, consistent with their respective roles and responsibilities to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.5   Record hold.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification by FHFA.</I> In the event that FHFA is requiring a record hold, FHFA shall notify the chief executive officer of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance. Regulated entities and the Office of Finance must have a written policy for handling notice of a record hold.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance.</I> The record retention program of a regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Address how employees and, as appropriate, how agents or independent contractors consistent with their respective roles and responsibilities to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, will receive prompt notification of a record hold;
</P>
<P>(2) Designate an individual to communicate specific requirements and instructions, including, when necessary, the instruction to cease immediately any otherwise permissible destruction of records; and
</P>
<P>(3) Provide that any employee and, as appropriate, any agent or independent contractor consistent with his or her respective role and responsibility to the regulated entity or Office of Finance, who has received notice of a potential investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation by FHFA involving the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or an employee, or otherwise has actual knowledge that an issue is subject to such an investigation, enforcement proceeding or litigation, shall notify immediately the legal department or the individual providing legal services as well as senior management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and shall retain any records that may be relevant in any way to such investigation, enforcement proceeding, or litigation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Method of record retention during a record hold.</I> The record retention program of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall address the method by which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance will retain records during a record hold. Specifically, the program shall describe the method for the continued preservation of electronic records, including e-mail, and, as applicable, the conversion of records from paper to electronic form as well as any alternative storage method.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Access to and retrieval of records during a record hold.</I> The record retention program of each regulated entity or the Office of Finance shall ensure access to and retrieval of records by the regulated entity and the Office of Finance, and access, upon request, by FHFA, during a record hold. Such access shall be by reasonable means, consistent with the nature and availability of the records and existing information technology.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.6   Access to records.</HEAD>
<P>Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance shall make its records available promptly upon request by FHFA, at a location and in a form and manner acceptable to FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1235.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.28.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1235.7   Supervisory action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervisory action.</I> Failure by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to comply with this part may subject the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or the board members, officers, or employees thereof to supervisory action by FHFA under the Safety and Soundness Act, including but not limited to cease-and-desist proceedings, temporary cease-and-desist proceedings, and civil money penalties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No limitation of authority.</I> This part does not limit or restrict the authority of FHFA to act under its safety and soundness mandate, in accordance with the Safety and Soundness Act. Such authority includes, but is not limited to, conducting examinations, requiring reports and disclosures, and enforcing compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1236" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1236—PRUDENTIAL MANAGEMENT AND OPERATIONS STANDARDS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513(a) and (f), 4513b, and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1236.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1236.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part addresses prudential management and operations standards that are required and authorized by 12 U.S.C. 4513b, including the establishment of Standards by Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) and the processes by which FHFA can notify a regulated entity or the Office of Finance of its failure to operate in accordance with a Standard and direct the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to take corrective action. This part further specifies the possible consequences if any regulated entity or the Office of Finance fails to operate in accordance with an applicable Standard or otherwise fails to comply with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1236.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1236.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise indicated, terms used in this part have the meanings that they have in part 1201 of this chapter, in the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.,</I> or in the Bank Act, 12 U.S.C. 1421 <I>et seq.</I>


</P>
<P><I>Extraordinary growth</I>—(1) For purposes of 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3)(C), means:
</P>
<P>(i) With respect to a Bank, growth of non-advance assets in excess of 30 percent over the six calendar quarter period preceding the date on which FHFA notified the Bank that it was required to submit a corrective plan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to an Enterprise, quarterly non-annualized growth of assets in excess of 7.5 percent in any calendar quarter during the six calendar quarter period preceding the date on which FHFA notified the Enterprise that it was required to submit a corrective plan.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of calculating an increase in assets, assets acquired through merger or acquisition approved by FHFA are not to be included.
</P>
<P><I>Standard(s)</I> means any one (or more) of the prudential management and operations standards established by the Director pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a). Standard includes the introductory statement of general responsibilities of boards of directors and senior management of the regulated entities set forth in the appendix to this part.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015; 89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1236.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1236.3   Prudential standards as regulations or guidelines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form.</I> As expressly authorized by 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a), FHFA may establish Standards as regulations or guidelines.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards established as guidelines.</I> Each Standard that has been established as a guideline is located in the appendix to this part. FHFA will provide public notice of, and seek public comment on, any Standard it plans to establish as a guideline, or on any material modification to any Standard established as a guideline. FHFA may revoke any Standard established as a guideline at any time by order or notice. Standards established as guidelines are subject to the remedial provisions of §§ 1236.4 and 1236.5.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Standards established as regulations.</I> When establishing a Standard as a regulation or amending such a Standard, FHFA shall follow applicable rulemaking procedures of the Administrative Procedure Act, 12 U.S.C. 553. Standards established as regulations may be set forth as subparts or provisions of this part; or as other parts or subparts, or as provisions of such other parts or subparts, of this chapter XII of title 12. When not set forth as a subpart of this part, the regulation or any provision thereof that is a Standard shall be identified as a Standard in the body of the regulation. Standards established as regulations are subject to this part, including the remedial provisions of §§ 1236.4 and 1236.5, and to the enforcement provisions of 12 U.S.C. chapter 46, subchapter III.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Conflicts.</I> In the case of a direct conflict between a Standard established as a guideline and any FHFA regulation, when it is not possible to comply with both that Standard and the FHFA regulation, the FHFA regulation shall control.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1236.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1236.4   Failure to meet a Standard; corrective plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination.</I> FHFA may determine, based upon an examination, inspection, or any other information, that a regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to meet one or more of the Standards. Failure to meet any Standard may constitute an unsafe and unsound practice for purposes of the enforcement provisions of 12 U.S.C. chapter 46, subchapter III.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of corrective plan.</I> When a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is required to submit a corrective plan, FHFA shall inform the regulated entity or the Office of Finance of that requirement by written notice, which shall also set forth FHFA's determination that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed a particular Standard or Standards. FHFA shall require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan if FHFA determines that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to meet a Standard established as a regulation. FHFA may require a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan for failure to meet a Standard established as a guideline.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Corrective plans</I>—(1) <I>Contents of plan.</I> A corrective plan shall be in writing and shall describe the actions the regulated entity or the Office of Finance will take to correct its failure(s) as determined by FHFA, and the time within which each action will be taken.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Filing deadline</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance must file a corrective plan with FHFA within thirty (30) calendar days of being notified by FHFA of the requirement to file a corrective plan, unless FHFA notifies the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing that the plan must be filed within a different time period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Other plans or submissions.</I> If a regulated entity must file a capital restoration plan submitted pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4622, it may submit the corrective plan required under this section as part of the capital restoration plan, subject to the deadline established in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section. If a regulated entity or the Office of Finance is operating under a cease-and-desist order entered into pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4631 or 4632, or a formal or informal agreement, or must file a response to a report of examination or report of inspection, it may, with the permission of FHFA, submit the corrective plan required under this section as part of its compliance with that order, agreement, or response, subject to the deadline established in accordance with paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, but the corrective plan would not become a part of the order, agreement, or response. FHFA may also permit a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to submit a corrective plan required under this section as part of another type of required plan or submission by a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, as deemed appropriate by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amendment of corrective plan.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance that is operating in accordance with an approved corrective plan may submit a written request to FHFA to amend the plan as necessary to reflect any changes in circumstance. Until such time that FHFA approves a proposed amendment, the regulated entity or the Office of Finance must continue to operate in accordance with the terms of the corrective plan as previously approved.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Review of corrective plans and amendments.</I> Within thirty (30) calendar days of receiving a corrective plan or proposed amendment to a plan, FHFA will notify the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing of its decision on the plan, will direct the regulated entity to submit additional information, or will notify the regulated entity in writing of any extended deadline for review that FHFA has established.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 3539, Jan. 19, 2024]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1236.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1236.5   Failure to submit a corrective plan; noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Remedies.</I> If a regulated entity or the Office of Finance fails to submit an acceptable corrective plan under § 1236.4(b), or fails in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan, FHFA shall order the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to correct that deficiency, and may:
</P>
<P>(1) Prohibit the regulated entity from increasing its average total assets, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 4516(b)(4), for any calendar quarter over its average total assets for the preceding calendar quarter, or may otherwise restrict the rate at which the average total assets of the regulated entity may increase from one calendar quarter to another;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the regulated entity from paying dividends;
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the regulated entity from redeeming or repurchasing capital stock;
</P>
<P>(4) Require the regulated entity to maintain or increase its level of retained earnings;
</P>
<P>(5) Require an Enterprise to increase its ratio of core capital to assets, or require a Bank to increase its ratio of total capital, as defined in 12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(5), to assets; or
</P>
<P>(6) Require the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to take any other action that the Director determines will better carry out the purposes of the statute by bringing the regulated entity or the Office of Finance into conformance with the Standards.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Extraordinary growth.</I> If a regulated entity that has failed to submit an acceptable corrective plan or has failed in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan, also has experienced extraordinary growth, FHFA shall impose at least one of the sanctions listed in paragraph (a) of this section, consistently with the requirements of 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Orders</I>—

(1) <I>Notice.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (c)(4) of this section, FHFA will notify a regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing of FHFA's intent to issue an order requiring the regulated entity or the Office of Finance to correct its failure to submit a corrective plan or its failure in any material respect to implement or otherwise comply with an approved corrective plan. Any such notice will include:


</P>
<P>(i) A statement that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has failed to submit a corrective plan under § 1236.4, or has not implemented or otherwise has not complied in any material respect with an approved plan;


</P>
<P>(ii) A description of any sanctions that FHFA intends to impose and, in the case of the mandatory sanctions required by 12 U.S.C. 4513b(b)(3), a statement that FHFA believes that the regulated entity has experienced extraordinary growth; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed date when any sanctions would become effective or the proposed date for completion of any required actions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to notice.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance may file a written response to a notice of intent to issue an order, which must be delivered to FHFA within fourteen (14) calendar days of the date of the notice, unless FHFA determines that a different time period is appropriate in light of the safety and soundness of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance or other relevant circumstances. The response should include:
</P>
<P>(i) An explanation of why the regulated entity or the Office of Finance believes that the action proposed by FHFA is not an appropriate exercise of discretion;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any recommended modification of the proposed order; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation or other evidence in support of the position of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance regarding the proposed order.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>Failure to file response.</I> The failure of a regulated entity or the Office of Finance to file a written response within the specified time period will constitute a waiver of the opportunity to respond and will constitute consent to issuance of the order.




</P>
<P>(4) <I>Immediate issuance of final order.</I> FHFA may issue an order requiring a regulated entity or the Office of Finance immediately to take actions to correct a Standards deficiency or to take or refrain from taking other actions pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section. Within fourteen (14) calendar days of the issuance of an order under this paragraph, or other time period specified by FHFA, a regulated entity or the Office of Finance may submit a written appeal of the order to FHFA. FHFA will respond in writing to a timely filed appeal within sixty (60) days after receiving the appeal. During this period, the order will remain in effect unless FHFA stays the effectiveness of the order.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Request for modification or rescission of order.</I> A regulated entity or the Office of Finance subject to an order under this part may submit a written request to FHFA for an amendment to the order to reflect a change in circumstance. Unless otherwise ordered by FHFA, the order shall continue in place while such a request is pending before FHFA.


</P>
<P>(e) <I>Agency review and determination.</I> FHFA will respond in writing within thirty (30) days after receiving a response or amendment request, unless FHFA notifies the regulated entity or the Office of Finance in writing that it will respond within a different time period. After considering the response or amendment request from a regulated entity or the Office of Finance, FHFA may:


</P>
<P>(1) Issue the order as proposed or in modified form;
</P>
<P>(2) Determine not to issue the order and instead issue a different order; or
</P>
<P>(3) Seek additional information or clarification of the response from the regulated entity, or any other relevant source.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 89 FR 3540, Jan. 19, 2024]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix to" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.29.0.1.6.5" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix to Part 1236—Prudential Management and Operations Standards






</HEAD>
<P>The following provisions constitute the prudential management and operations standards established as guidelines pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 4513b(a). The General Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Standards 1, 2, 8, and 10 apply to the Office of Finance as appropriate.


</P>
<HD1>General Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD1>
<P>The following provisions address the general responsibilities of the boards of directors and senior management of the regulated entities as they relate to the matters addressed by each of the Standards, and the general responsibilities of the board of directors and senior management of the Office of Finance to the extent a particular Standard is applicable to the Office of Finance. The descriptions are not a comprehensive listing of the responsibilities of either the boards or senior management, each of whom have additional duties and responsibilities to those described in these Standards.




</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors
</HD2>
<P>1. With respect to the subject matter addressed by each applicable Standard, the board of directors of each regulated entity and of the Office of Finance is responsible for adopting business strategies and policies that are appropriate for the particular subject matter. The board should review all such strategies and policies periodically. It should review and approve all major strategies and policies at least annually and make any revisions that are necessary to ensure that such strategies and policies remain consistent with the overall business plan of the entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>2. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing management of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, which includes ensuring that management includes personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to oversee the operation of the regulated entity and the Office of Finance as it relates to the functions and requirements addressed by each applicable Standard, and that management implements the policies set forth by the board.
</P>
<P>3. The board of directors is responsible for remaining informed about the operations and condition of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including operating consistently with the applicable Standards, and senior management's implementation of the strategies and policies established by the board of directors.
</P>
<P>4. The board of directors must remain sufficiently informed about the nature and level of the regulated overall risk exposures of the entity or the Office of Finance, including, as applicable, market, credit, operational, and counterparty risk, so that it can understand the possible short- and long-term effects of those exposures on the financial health of the regulated entity, including the possible short- and long-term consequences, as applicable, to earnings, liquidity, and economic value. The board of directors should: establish the risk tolerances of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance and provide management with clear guidance regarding the level of acceptable risks; review the entire risk management framework of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including policies and entity-wide risk limits at least annually; oversee the adequacy of the actions taken by senior management to identify, measure, manage, and control the risk exposures of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance; and ensure that management takes appropriate corrective measures whenever risk limit violations or breaches occur.
</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>5. With respect to the subject matter addressed by each applicable Standard, senior management is responsible for developing the policies, procedures and practices that are necessary to implement the business strategies and policies adopted by the board of directors. Senior management should ensure that such items are clearly written, sufficiently detailed, and are followed by all personnel. Senior management also should ensure that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to carry out their respective functions and that all delegated responsibilities are performed.


</P>
<P>6. Senior management should ensure that the regulated entity or the Office of Finance has adequate resources, systems, and controls available to execute effectively the business strategies, policies, and procedures of the entity or the Office of Finance, including operating consistently with each of the applicable Standards.


</P>
<P>7. Senior management should provide the board of directors with periodic reports relating to the condition and performance of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance, including the subject matter addressed by each of the applicable Standards, that are sufficiently detailed to allow the board of directors to remain fully informed about the business of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.


</P>
<P>8. Senior management should regularly review and discuss with the board of directors information regarding the risk exposures of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance that is sufficient in detail and timeliness to permit the board of directors to understand and assess the performance of management in identifying and managing the various risks to which the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is exposed.




</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>9. The board of directors and senior management should conduct themselves in such a manner as to promote high ethical standards and a culture of compliance throughout the organization.


</P>
<P>10. The board of directors and senior management should ensure that the overall risk profile of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance is aligned with its mission objectives.


</P>
<HD1>Standard 1—Internal Controls and Information Systems
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding internal controls and information systems, the board of directors of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should adopt appropriate policies, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, approve and periodically review overall business strategies, approve the organizational structure, and assess the adequacy of senior management's oversight of this function.


</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>2. Regarding internal controls and information systems, senior management should implement strategies and policies approved by the board of directors, establish appropriate policies, monitor the adequacy and effectiveness of this function, and ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent. The organizational structure should clearly assign responsibility, authority, and reporting relationships.
</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>3. Regarding internal controls and information systems, both the board of directors and senior management should promote high ethical standards, create a culture that emphasizes the importance of this function, and promptly address any issues in need of remediation.
</P>
<HD2>Framework


</HD2>
<P>4. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an adequate and effective system of internal controls, which should include a board approved organizational structure that clearly assigns responsibilities, authority, and reporting relationships, and establishes an appropriate segregation of duties that ensures that personnel are not assigned conflicting responsibilities.


</P>
<P>5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should establish appropriate internal control policies and should monitor the adequacy and effectiveness of its internal controls and information systems on an ongoing basis through a formal self-assessment process.


</P>
<P>6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an organizational culture that emphasizes and demonstrates to personnel at all levels the importance of internal controls.


</P>
<P>7. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should address promptly any violations, findings, weaknesses, deficiencies, and other issues in need of remediation relating to the internal control systems.




</P>
<HD2>Risk Recognition and Assessment
</HD2>
<P>8. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an effective risk assessment process that ensures that management recognizes and continually assesses all material risks, including credit risk, market risk, interest rate risk, liquidity risk, and operational risk.
</P>
<HD2>Control Activities and Segregation of Duties




</HD2>
<P>9. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an effective internal control system that defines control activities at every business level.


</P>
<P>10. The control activities of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should include:
</P>
<P>a. Board of directors and senior management reviews of progress toward goals and objectives;
</P>
<P>b. Appropriate activity controls for each business unit;
</P>
<P>c. Physical controls to protect property and other assets and limit access to property and systems;
</P>
<P>d. Procedures for monitoring compliance with exposure limits and follow-up on non-compliance;
</P>
<P>e. A system of approvals and authorizations for transactions over certain limits; and
</P>
<P>f. A system for verification and reconciliation of transactions.




</P>
<HD2>Information and Communication




</HD2>
<P>11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have information systems that provide relevant, accurate and timely information and data.
</P>
<P>12. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have secure information systems that are supported by adequate contingency arrangements.
</P>
<P>13. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have effective channels of communication to ensure that all personnel understand and adhere to policies and procedures affecting their duties and responsibilities.


</P>
<HD2>Monitoring Activities and Correcting Deficiencies
</HD2>
<P>14. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should monitor the overall effectiveness of its internal controls and key risks on an ongoing basis and ensure that business units and internal and external audit conduct periodic evaluations.


</P>
<P>15. Internal control deficiencies should be reported to senior management and the board of directors on a timely basis and addressed promptly.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies
</HD2>
<P>16. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing internal controls and information systems.


</P>
<HD1>Standard 2—Independence and Adequacy of Internal Audit Systems
</HD1>
<HD2>Audit Committee


</HD2>
<P>1. The board of directors of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an audit committee that exercises proper oversight and adopts appropriate policies and procedures designed to ensure the independence of the internal audit function. The audit committee should ensure that the internal audit department includes personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to oversee the internal audit function.
</P>
<P>2. The board of directors should review and approve the audit committee charter at least every three years.
</P>
<P>3. The audit committee of the board of directors is responsible for monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of the internal audit function of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance.


</P>
<P>4. Issues reported by the internal audit department to the audit committee should be promptly addressed and satisfactorily resolved.
</P>
<HD2>Internal Audit Function
</HD2>
<P>5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an internal audit function that provides for adequate testing of the system of internal controls.
</P>
<P>6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have an independent and objective internal audit department that reports directly to the audit committee of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>7. The internal audit department of each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should be adequately staffed with properly trained and competent personnel.


</P>
<P>8. The internal audit department should conduct risk-based audits.
</P>
<P>9. The internal audit department should conduct adequate testing and review of internal control and information systems.
</P>
<P>10. The internal audit department should determine whether violations, findings, weaknesses and other issues reported by regulators, external auditors, and others have been promptly addressed.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies


</HD2>
<P>11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the independence and adequacy of internal audit systems.


</P>
<HD1>Standard 3—Management of Market Risk Exposure
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding the overall management of market risk exposure, the board of directors should remain sufficiently informed about the nature and level of the regulated entity's market risk exposures. At least annually, the board should review the entire market risk framework, including policies and risk limits, and provide an assessment of compliance.
</P>
<P>2. Regarding the policies, practices and procedures surrounding the management of market risk, the board of directors should approve all major strategies and policies relating to the management of market risk, ensure all major strategies and policies are consistent with the overall business plan, establish and communicate a market risk tolerance, and ensure appropriate corrective measures are taken when market risk limit violations or breaches occur.


</P>
<P>3. The board, or a board appointed committee, should oversee the adequacy of actions taken by senior management to identify, measure, manage, and control market risk exposures, ensure market risk policies establish lines of authority and responsibility, and review risk exposures on a periodic basis.
</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>4. Regarding the overall management of market risk exposure, senior management should provide sufficient and timely information to the board of directors, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, ensure adequate systems and resources are available to manage and control market risk, report any breaches to the board of directors (or the appropriate board committee), and take appropriate remedial action.
</P>
<P>5. Regarding the policies, practices, and procedures surrounding market risk exposure, senior management should ensure market risk policies and procedures are clearly written, sufficiently detailed, and followed. Approved policies and procedures should include clear market risk limits and lines of authority for managing market risk.
</P>
<HD2>Market Risk Strategy
</HD2>
<P>6. A regulated entity should have a clearly defined and well-documented strategy for managing market risk, which must be consistent with its overall business plan, must enable the regulated entity to identify, manage, monitor, and control the regulated entity's risk exposures on a business unit and an enterprise-wide basis, and must ensure that the lines of authority and responsibility for managing market risk and monitoring market risk limits are clearly identified. The strategy should specify a target account, or target accounts, for managing market risk (<I>e.g.,</I> specify whether the objective is to control risk to earnings, net portfolio value, or some other target, or some combination of targets), and, if a market risk limit is breached, should require that the breach be reported to the board of directors, or the appropriate board committee, and that appropriate remedial action, including any ordered by the board of directors, should be taken.
</P>
<P>7. Management should ensure that the board of directors is made aware of the advantages and disadvantages of the regulated entity's chosen market risk management strategy, as well as those of alternative strategies, so that the board of directors can make an informed judgment about the relative efficacy of the different strategies.
</P>
<P>8. A Bank's strategy for managing market risk should take into account the importance of maintaining the market value of equity of member stock commensurate with the par value of that stock so that the Bank is able to redeem and repurchase member stock at par value.
</P>
<P>9. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance, (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the independence and adequacy of the management of market risk exposure.
</P>
<HD1>Standard 4—Management of Market Risk—Measurement Systems, Risk Limits, Stress Testing, and Monitoring and Reporting
</HD1>
<HD2> Risk Measurement Systems
</HD2>
<P>1. A regulated entity should have a risk measurement system (a model or models) that capture(s) all material sources of market risk and provide(s) meaningful and timely measures of the regulated entity's risk exposures, as well as personnel who are appropriately trained and competent to operate and oversee the risk measurement system.
</P>
<P>2. The risk measurement system should be capable of estimating the effect of changes in interest rates and other key risk factors on the regulated entity's earnings and market value of equity over a range of scenarios.
</P>
<P>3. The measurement system should be capable of valuing all financial assets and liabilities in the regulated entity's portfolio.
</P>
<P>4. The measurement system should address all material sources of market risk including repricing risk, yield curve risk, basis risk, and options risk.
</P>
<P>5. Management should ensure the integrity and timeliness of the data inputs used to measure the regulated entity's market risk exposures, and should ensure that assumptions and parameters are reasonable and properly documented.
</P>
<P>6. The measurement system's methodologies, assumptions, and parameters should be thoroughly documented, understood by management, and reviewed on a regular basis.
</P>
<P>7. A regulated entity's market risk model should be upgraded periodically to incorporate advances in risk modeling technology.
</P>
<P>8. A regulated entity should have a documented approval process for model changes that requires model changes to be authorized by a party independent of the party making the change.
</P>
<P>9. A regulated entity should ensure that its models are independently validated on a regular basis.
</P>
<HD2>Risk Limits
</HD2>
<P>10. Risk limits should be consistent with the regulated entity's strategy for managing interest rate risk and should take into account the financial condition of the regulated entity, including its capital position.
</P>
<P>11. Risk limits should address the potential impact of changes in market interest rates on net interest income, net income, and the regulated entity's market value of equity.
</P>
<HD2>Stress Testing
</HD2>
<P>12. A regulated entity should conduct stress tests on a regular basis for a variety of institution-specific and market-wide stress scenarios to identify potential vulnerabilities and to ensure that exposures are consistent with the regulated entity's tolerance for risk.
</P>
<P>13. A regulated entity should use stress test outcomes to adjust its market risk management strategies, policies, and positions and to develop effective contingency plans.
</P>
<P>14. Special consideration should be given to ensuring that complex financial instruments, including instruments with complex option features, are properly valued under stress scenarios and that the risks associated with options exposures are properly understood.
</P>
<P>15. Management should ensure that the regulated entity's board of directors or a committee thereof considers the results of stress tests when establishing and reviewing its strategies, policies, and limits for managing and controlling interest rate risk.
</P>
<P>16. The board of directors and senior management should review periodically the design of stress tests to ensure that they encompass the kinds of market conditions under which the regulated entity's positions and strategies would be most vulnerable.
</P>
<HD2>Monitoring and Reporting
</HD2>
<P>17. A regulated entity should have an adequate management information system for reporting market risk exposures.
</P>
<P>18. The board of directors, senior management, and the appropriate line managers should be provided with regular, accurate, informative, and timely market risk reports.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies
</HD2>
<P>19. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the management of market risk.
</P>
<HD1>Standard 5—Adequacy and Maintenance of Liquidity and Reserves
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves, the board of directors should review (at least annually) all major strategies and policies governing this area, approve appropriate revisions to such strategies and policies, and ensure senior management are appropriately trained to effectively manage liquidity.
</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>2. Regarding the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves, senior management should develop strategies, policies, and practices to manage liquidity risk, ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent, and provide the board of directors with periodic reports on the regulated entity's liquidity position.
</P>
<HD2>Policies, Practices, and Procedures
</HD2>
<P>3. A regulated entity should establish a liquidity management framework that ensures it maintains sufficient liquidity to withstand a range of stressful events.
</P>
<P>4. A regulated entity should articulate a liquidity risk tolerance that is appropriate for its business strategy and its mission goals and objectives.
</P>
<P>5. A regulated entity should have a sound process for identifying, measuring, monitoring, controlling, and reporting its liquidity position and its liquidity risk exposures.
</P>
<P>6. A regulated entity should establish a funding strategy that provides effective diversification in the sources and tenor of funding.
</P>
<P>7. A regulated entity should conduct stress tests on a regular basis for a variety of institution-specific and market-wide stress scenarios to identify sources of potential liquidity strain and to ensure that current exposures remain in accordance with each regulated entity's established liquidity risk tolerance.
</P>
<P>8. A regulated entity should use stress test outcomes to adjust its liquidity management strategies, policies, and positions and to develop effective contingency plans.
</P>
<P>9. A regulated entity should have a formal contingency funding plan that clearly sets out the strategies for addressing liquidity shortfalls in emergencies. Where practical, contingent funding sources should be tested or drawn on periodically to assess their reliability and operational soundness.
</P>
<P>10. A regulated entity should maintain adequate reserves of liquid assets, including adequate reserves of unencumbered, marketable securities that can be liquidated to meet unexpected needs.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies
</HD2>
<P>11. A regulated entity should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the adequacy and maintenance of liquidity and reserves.
</P>
<HD1>Standard 6—Management of Asset and Investment Portfolio Growth
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding the management of asset and investment portfolio growth, the board of directors is responsible for overseeing the management of growth in these areas, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, establishing policies governing the regulated entity's assets and investment growth, with prudential limits on the growth of mortgages and mortgage-backed securities, and reviewing policies at least annually.
</P>
<P>2. Regarding the management of asset and investment portfolio growth, senior management should adhere to board-approved policies governing growth in these areas, and ensure personnel are appropriately trained and competent to manage the growth.
</P>
<HD2>Risk Measurement, Monitoring, and Control
</HD2>
<P>3. A regulated entity should manage its asset growth and investment growth in a prudent manner that is consistent with the regulated entity's business strategy, board-approved policies, risk tolerances, and safe and sound operations, and should establish prudential limits on the growth of its portfolios of mortgage loans and mortgage backed securities.
</P>
<P>4. A regulated entity should manage asset growth and investment growth in a way that is compatible with mission goals and objectives.
</P>
<P>5. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisition of assets in a way that complies with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins).
</P>
<HD1>Standard 7—Investments and Acquisitions of Assets
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>1. The board of directors is responsible for overseeing the regulated entity's investments and acquisition of other assets, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, and establishing, approving and periodically reviewing policies and procedures governing investments and acquisitions of other assets.
</P>
<HD2>Policies, Practices, and Procedures
</HD2>
<P>2. A regulated entity should have a board-approved investment policy that establishes clear and explicit guidelines that are appropriate to the regulated entity's mission and objectives. The investment policy should establish the regulated entity's investment objectives, risk tolerances, investment constraints, and policies and procedures for selecting investments.
</P>
<P>3. A regulated entity should have a board-approved policy governing acquisitions of major categories of assets other than investments. The policy should establish clear and explicit guidelines for asset acquisitions that are appropriate to the regulated entity's mission and objectives.
</P>
<P>4. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisitions of assets prudently and in a manner that is consistent with mission goals and objectives.
</P>
<P>5. Each Bank's investment policies and acquisition of assets should take into account the importance of maintaining the market value of member stock commensurate with the par value of that stock so that the Bank is able to redeem and repurchase member stock at par value at all times.
</P>
<P>6. A regulated entity should manage investments and acquisitions of assets in a way that complies with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins).


</P>
<HD1>Standard 8—Overall Risk Management Processes
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding overall risk management processes, the board of directors is responsible for overseeing the process, ensuring senior management are appropriately trained and competent, ensuring processes are in place to identify, manage, monitor and control risk exposures (this function may be delegated to a board appointed committee), approving all major risk limits, and ensuring incentive compensation measures for senior management capture a full range of risks to the regulated entity or the Office of Finance.
</P>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>2. Regarding overall risk management processes, the board of directors and senior management should establish and sustain a culture that promotes effective risk management. This culture includes timely, accurate and informative risk reports, alignment of the overall risk profile of the regulated entity or the Office of Finance with its mission objectives, and the annual review of comprehensive self-assessments of material risks.


</P>
<HD2>Independent Risk Management Function


</HD2>
<P>3. A regulated entity or the Office of Finance should have an independent risk management function, or unit, with responsibility for risk measurement and risk monitoring, including monitoring and enforcement of risk limits.


</P>
<P>4. The chief risk officer should head the risk management function.
</P>
<P>5. The chief risk officer should report directly to the chief executive officer and the risk committee of the board of directors.
</P>
<P>6. The risk management function should have adequate resources, including a well-trained and capable staff.
</P>
<HD2>Risk Measurement, Monitoring, and Control
</HD2>
<P>7. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should measure, monitor, and control its overall risk exposures, reviewing, as applicable, market, credit, liquidity, and operational risk exposures on both a business unit (or business segment) and enterprise-wide basis.
</P>
<P>8. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have the risk management systems to generate, at an appropriate frequency, the information needed to manage risk. As applicable, such systems should include systems for market, credit, operational, and liquidity risk analysis, asset and liability management, regulatory reporting, and performance measurement.
</P>
<P>9. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have a comprehensive set of risk limits and monitoring procedures to ensure that risk exposures remain within established risk limits, and a mechanism for reporting violations and breaches of risk limits to senior management and the board of directors.






</P>
<P>10. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that it has sufficient controls around risk measurement models to ensure the completeness, accuracy, and timeliness of risk information.


</P>
<P>11. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have adequate and well-tested disaster recovery and business resumption plans for all major systems and have remote facilitates to limit the impact of disruptive events.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies
</HD2>
<P>12. As applicable, each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the management of risk.


</P>
<HD1>Standard 9—Management of Credit and Counterparty Risk
</HD1>
<HD2>Responsibilities of the Board of Directors and Senior Management
</HD2>
<P>1. Regarding the management of credit and counterparty risk, the board of directors and senior management are responsible for ensuring that the regulated entity has appropriate policies, procedures, and systems that cover all aspects of credit administration, including credit pricing, underwriting, credit limits, collateral standards, and collateral valuation procedures. This should also include derivatives and the use of clearing houses. They are also responsible for ensuring personnel are appropriately trained, competent, and equipped with the necessary tools, procedures and systems to assess risk.
</P>
<P>2. Senior management should provide the board of directors with regular briefings and reports on credit exposures.
</P>
<HD2>Policies, Procedures, Controls, and Systems
</HD2>
<P>3. A regulated entity should have policies that limit concentrations of credit risk and systems to identify concentrations of credit risk.
</P>
<P>4. A regulated entity should establish prudential limits to restrict exposures to a single counterparty that are appropriate to its business model.
</P>
<P>5. A regulated entity should establish prudential limits to restrict exposures to groups of related counterparties that are appropriate to its business model.
</P>
<P>6. A regulated entity should have policies, procedures, and systems for evaluating credit risk that will enable it to make informed credit decisions.
</P>
<P>7. A regulated entity should have policies, procedures, and systems for evaluating credit risk that will enable it to ensure that claims are legally enforceable.
</P>
<P>8. A regulated entity should have policies and procedures for addressing problem credits.
</P>
<P>9. A regulated entity should have an ongoing credit review program that includes stress testing and scenario analysis.
</P>
<HD2>Applicable Laws, Regulations, and Policies
</HD2>
<P>10. A regulated entity should manage credit and counterparty risk in a way that complies with applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins).


</P>
<HD1>Standard 10—Maintenance of Adequate Records
</HD1>
<P>1. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should maintain financial records in compliance with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), FHFA guidelines, and applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>2. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that assets are safeguarded and financial and operational information is timely and reliable.
</P>
<P>3. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should have a records retention program consistent with laws and corporate policies, including accounting policies, as well as personnel that are appropriately trained and competent to oversee and implement the records management plan.
</P>
<P>4. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance, with oversight from its board of directors, should conduct a review and approval of the records retention program and records retention schedule for all types of records at least once every two years.
</P>
<P>5. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should ensure that reporting errors are detected and corrected in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>6. Each regulated entity and the Office of Finance should comply with all applicable laws, regulations, and supervisory guidance (<I>e.g.,</I> advisory bulletins) governing the maintenance of adequate records.




</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[77 FR 33959, June 8, 2012, as amended at 80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015; 89 FR 3540, Jan. 19, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1237" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1237—CONSERVATORSHIP AND RECEIVERSHIP
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4513b, 4526, 4617.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1237.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.1   Purpose and applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part shall apply to the appointment and operations of the Federal Housing Finance Agency (“Agency”) as conservator or receiver of a regulated entity. These provisions implement and supplement the procedures and process set forth in the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992, as amended, by the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008 (HERA), Public Law 110-289 for conduct of a conservatorship or receivership of such entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P><I>Agency</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Agency (“FHFA”) established under 12 U.S.C. 4511, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Authorizing statutes</I> mean—
</P>
<P>(1) The Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act,
</P>
<P>(2) The Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, and
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Home Loan Bank Act.
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> has, with respect to a Bank, the definition stated in § 1229.1 of this chapter, and with respect to an Enterprise, the definition stated in § 1229.13 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment.
</P>
<P><I>Conservator</I> means the Agency as appointed by the Director as conservator for a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Default; in danger of default:</I>
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Default</I> means, with respect to a regulated entity, any official determination by the Director, pursuant to which a conservator or receiver is appointed for a regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In danger of default</I> means, with respect to a regulated entity, the definition under section 1303(8)(B) of the Safety and Soundness Act or applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Entity-affiliated party</I> means any party meeting the definition of an entity-affiliated party under section 1303(11) of the Safety and Soundness Act or applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Equity security</I> of any person shall mean any and all shares, interests, rights to purchase or otherwise acquire, warrants, options, participations or other equivalents of or interests (however designated) in equity, ownership or profits of such person, including any preferred stock, any limited or general partnership interest and any limited liability company membership interest, and any securities or other rights or interests convertible into or exchangeable for any of the foregoing.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise, any person meeting the definition of executive officer under section 1303(12) of the Safety and Soundness Act and applicable FHFA regulations under that section, and, with respect to a Bank, an executive officer as defined in applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Golden parachute payment</I> means, with respect to a regulated entity, the definition under 12 CFR part 1231 or other applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Limited-life regulated entity</I> means an entity established by the Agency under section 1367(i) of the Safety and Soundness Act with respect to a Federal Home Loan Bank in default or in danger of default, or with respect to an Enterprise in default or in danger of default.
</P>
<P><I>Receiver</I> means the Agency as appointed by the Director to act as receiver for a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Securities litigation claim</I> means any claim, whether or not reduced to judgment, liquidated or unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured or unmatured, disputed or undisputed, legal, equitable, secured or unsecured, arising from rescission of a purchase or sale of an equity security of a regulated entity or for damages arising from the purchase, sale, or retention of such a security.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer</I> means every mode, direct or indirect, absolute or conditional, voluntary or involuntary, of disposing of or parting with property or with an interest in property, including retention of title as a security interest and foreclosure of the equity of redemption of the regulated entity.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 35733, June 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 80 FR 72336, Oct. 22, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Powers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.3   Powers of the Agency as conservator or receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operation of the regulated entity.</I> The Agency, as it determines appropriate to its operations as either conservator or receiver, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Take over the assets of and operate the regulated entity with all the powers of the shareholders (including the authority to vote shares of any and all classes of voting stock), the directors, and the officers of the regulated entity and conduct all business of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Continue the missions of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(3) Ensure that the operations and activities of each regulated entity foster liquid, efficient, competitive, and resilient national housing finance markets;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure that each regulated entity operates in a safe and sound manner;
</P>
<P>(5) Collect all obligations and money due the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(6) Perform all functions of the regulated entity in the name of the regulated entity that are consistent with the appointment as conservator or receiver;
</P>
<P>(7) Preserve and conserve the assets and property of the regulated entity (including the exclusive authority to investigate and prosecute claims of any type on behalf of the regulated entity, or to delegate to management of the regulated entity the authority to investigate and prosecute claims); and
</P>
<P>(8) Provide by contract for assistance in fulfilling any function, activity, action, or duty of the Agency as conservator or receiver.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency as receiver.</I> The Agency, as receiver, shall place the regulated entity in liquidation, employing the additional powers expressed in 12 U.S.C. 4617(b)(2)(E).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Powers as conservator or receiver.</I> The Agency, as conservator or receiver, shall have all powers and authorities specifically provided by section 1367 of the Safety and Soundness Act and paragraph (a) of this section, including incidental powers, which include the authority to suspend capital classifications under section 1364(e)(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act during the duration of the conservatorship or receivership of that regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transfer or sale of assets and liabilities.</I> The Agency may, as conservator or receiver, transfer or sell any asset or liability of the regulated entity in default, and may do so without any approval, assignment, or consent with respect to such transfer or sale. Exercise of this authority by the Agency as conservator will nullify any restraints on sales or transfers in any agreement not entered into by the Agency as conservator. Exercise of this authority by the Agency as receiver will nullify any restraints on sales or transfers in any agreement not entered into by the Agency as receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.4   Receivership following conservatorship; administrative expenses.</HEAD>
<P>If a receivership immediately succeeds a conservatorship, the administrative expenses of the conservatorship shall also be deemed to be administrative expenses of the subsequent receivership.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.1.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.5   Contracts entered into before appointment of a conservator or receiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The conservator or receiver for any regulated entity may disaffirm or repudiate any contract or lease to which such regulated entity is a party pursuant to section 1367(d) of the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(b) For purposes of section 1367(d)(2) of the Safety and Soundness Act, a reasonable period shall be defined as a period of 18 months following the appointment of a conservator or receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.1.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.6   Authority to enforce contracts.</HEAD>
<P>The conservator or receiver may enforce any contract entered into by the regulated entity pursuant to the provisions and subject to the restrictions of section 1367(d)(13) of the Safety and Soundness Act.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.7   Period for determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>Before the end of the 180-day period beginning on the date on which any claim against a regulated entity is filed with the Agency as receiver, the Agency shall determine whether to allow or disallow the claim and shall notify the claimant of any determination with respect to such claim. This period may be extended by a written agreement between the claimant and the Agency as receiver, which may include an agreement to toll any applicable statute of limitations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.8   Alternate procedures for determination of claims.</HEAD>
<P>Claimants seeking a review of the determination of claims may seek alternative dispute resolution from the Agency as receiver in lieu of a judicial determination. The Director may by order, policy statement, or directive establish alternative dispute resolution procedures for this purpose.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.9   Priority of expenses and unsecured claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The receiver will grant priority to unsecured claims against a regulated entity or the receiver for that regulated entity that are proven to the satisfaction of the receiver in the following order:
</P>
<P>(1) Administrative expenses of the receiver (or an immediately preceding conservator).
</P>
<P>(2) Any other general or senior liability of the regulated entity (that is not a liability described under paragraph (a)(3) or (a)(4) of this section).
</P>
<P>(3) Any obligation subordinated to general creditors (that is not an obligation described under paragraph (a)(4) of this section).
</P>
<P>(4) Any claim by current or former shareholders or members arising as a result of their current or former status as shareholders or members, including, without limitation, any securities litigation claim. Within this priority level, the receiver shall recognize the priorities of shareholder claims <I>inter se,</I> such as that preferred shareholder claims are prior to common shareholder claims. This subparagraph (a)(4) shall not apply to any claim by a current or former member of a Federal Home Loan Bank that arises from transactions or relationships distinct from the current or former member's ownership, purchase, sale, or retention of an equity security of the Federal Home Loan Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Similarly situated creditors.</I> All claimants that are similarly situated shall be treated in a similar manner, except that the receiver may take any action (including making payments) that does not comply with this section, if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Director determines that such action is necessary to maximize the value of the assets of the regulated entity, to maximize the present value return from the sale or other disposition of the assets of the regulated entity, or to minimize the amount of any loss realized upon the sale or other disposition of the assets of the regulated entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) All claimants that are similarly situated under paragraph (a) of this section receive not less than the amount such claimants would have received if the receiver liquidated the assets and liabilities of the regulated entity in receivership and such action had not been taken.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Priority determined at default.</I> The receiver will determine priority based on a claim's status at the time of default, such default having occurred at the time of entry into the receivership, or if a conservatorship immediately preceded the receivership, at the time of entry into the conservatorship provided the claim then existed.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Limited-Life Regulated Entities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.10   Limited-life regulated entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Status.</I> The United States Government shall be considered a person for purposes of section 1367(i)(6)(C)(i) of the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Investment authority.</I> The requirements of section 1367(i)(4) shall apply only to the liquidity portfolio of a limited-life regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Policies and procedures.</I> The Agency may draft such policies and procedures with respect to limited-life regulated entities as it determines to be necessary and appropriate, including policies and procedures regarding the timing of the creation of limited-life regulated entities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.11   Authority of limited-life regulated entities to obtain credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ability to obtain credit.</I> A limited-life regulated entity may obtain unsecured credit and issue unsecured debt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Inability to obtain credit.</I> If a limited-life regulated entity is unable to obtain unsecured credit or issue unsecured debt, the Director may authorize the obtaining of credit or the issuance of debt by the limited-life regulated entity with priority over any and all of the obligations of the limited-life regulated entity, secured by a lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is not otherwise subject to a lien, or secured by a junior lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is subject to a lien.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitations.</I> The Director, after notice and a hearing, may authorize a limited-life regulated entity to obtain credit or issue debt that is secured by a senior or equal lien on property of the limited-life regulated entity that is already subject to a lien (other than mortgages that collateralize the mortgage-backed securities issued or guaranteed by an Enterprise) only if the limited-life regulated entity is unable to obtain such credit or issue such debt otherwise on commercially reasonable terms and there is adequate protection of the interest of the holder of the earlier lien on the property with respect to which such senior or equal lien is proposed to be granted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Adequate protection.</I> The adequate protection referred to in paragraph (c) of this section may be provided by:
</P>
<P>(1) Requiring the limited-life regulated entity to make a cash payment or periodic cash payments to the holder of the earlier lien, to the extent that there is likely to be a decrease in the value of such holder's interest in the property subject to the lien;
</P>
<P>(2) Providing to the holder of the earlier lien an additional or replacement lien to the extent that there is likely to be a decrease in the value of such holder's interest in the property subject to the lien; or
</P>
<P>(3) Granting the holder of the earlier lien such other relief, other than entitling such holder to compensation allowable as an administrative expense under section 1367(c) of the Safety and Soundness Act, as will result in the realization by such holder of the equivalent of such holder's interest in such property.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Other</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.12   Capital distributions while in conservatorship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a regulated entity shall make no capital distribution while in conservatorship.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may authorize, or may delegate the authority to authorize, a capital distribution that would otherwise be prohibited by paragraph (a) of this section if he or she determines that such capital distribution:
</P>
<P>(1) Will enhance the ability of the regulated entity to meet the risk-based capital level and the minimum capital level for the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(3) Is otherwise in the interest of the regulated entity; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is otherwise in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(c) This section is intended to supplement and shall not replace or affect any other restriction on capital distributions imposed by statute or regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.13   Payment of Securities Litigation Claims while in conservatorship.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment of Securities Litigation Claims while in conservatorship.</I> The Agency, as conservator, will not pay a Securities Litigation Claim against a regulated entity, except to the extent the Director determines is in the interest of the conservatorship.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Claims against limited-life regulated entities.</I> A limited-life regulated entity shall not assume, acquire, or succeed to any obligation that a regulated entity for which a receiver has been appointed may have to any shareholder of the regulated entity that arises as a result of the status of that person as a shareholder of the regulated entity, including any Securities Litigation Claim. No creditor of the regulated entity shall have a claim against a limited-life regulated entity unless the receiver has transferred that liability to the limited-life regulated entity. The charter of the regulated entity, or of the limited-life regulated entity, is not an asset against which any claim can be made by any creditor or shareholder of the regulated entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1237.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.30.4.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1237.14   Golden parachute payments [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1238" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1238—STRESS TESTING OF REGULATED ENTITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426; 4513; 4526; 4612; 5365(i).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 59222, Sept. 26, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1238.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) under section 165(i) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank Act), Public Law 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376, 1423-32 (2010), 12 U.S.C. 5365(i), as amended by section 401 of the Economic Growth, Regulatory Relief, and Consumer Protection Act (EGRRCPA), Public Law 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296 (2018), 12 U.S.C. 5365(i); and the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513, 4526, 4612).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> (1) This part implements section 165(i)(2) of the Dodd-Frank Act, as amended by section 401 of the EGRRCPA, which requires all large financial companies that have total consolidated assets of more than $250 billion, and are regulated by a primary federal financial regulatory agency, to conduct periodic stress tests.
</P>
<P>(2) This part establishes requirements that apply to each Enterprise's performance of periodic stress tests. The purpose of the periodic stress test is to provide the Enterprises, FHFA, and the FRB with additional, forward-looking information that will help them to assess capital adequacy at the Enterprises under various scenarios; to review the Enterprises' stress test results; and to increase public disclosure of the Enterprises' capital condition by requiring broad dissemination of the stress test scenarios and results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16529, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of time over which the stress projections must extend. The planning horizon cannot be less than nine quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Scenarios</I> are sets of economic and financial conditions used in the Enterprises' stress tests, including baseline and severely adverse.
</P>
<P><I>Stress test</I> is a process to assess the potential impact on an Enterprise of economic and financial conditions (“scenarios”) on the consolidated earnings, losses, and capital of the Enterprise over a set planning horizon, taking into account the current condition of the Enterprise and the Enterprise's risks, exposures, strategies, and activities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.3   Annual stress test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall complete an annual stress test of itself based on its data as of December 31 of the preceding calendar year;
</P>
<P>(2) The stress test shall be conducted in accordance with this section and the methodologies and practices described in § 1238.4 and in a supplemental guidance or order.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scenarios provided by FHFA.</I> In conducting its annual stress tests under this section, each Enterprise must use scenarios provided by FHFA, which shall be generally consistent with and comparable to those established by the FRB, that reflect a minimum of two sets of economic and financial conditions, including a baseline and severely adverse scenario. Not later than 30 days after the FRB publishes its scenarios, FHFA will issue to the Enterprises a description of the baseline and severely adverse scenarios that each Enterprise shall use to conduct its annual stress tests under this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.4   Methodologies and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Potential impact.</I> Except as noted in this subpart, in conducting a stress test under § 1238.3, each Enterprise shall calculate how each of the following is affected during each quarter of the stress test planning horizon, for each scenario:
</P>
<P>(1) Potential losses, pre-provision net revenues, and future pro forma capital positions over the planning horizon; and
</P>
<P>(2) Capital levels and capital ratios, including regulatory capital and net worth, and any other capital ratios specified by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Planning horizon.</I> Each Enterprise must use a planning horizon of at least nine quarters over which the impact of specified scenarios would be assessed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional analytical techniques.</I> If FHFA determines that the stress test methodologies and practices of an Enterprise are deficient, FHFA may determine that additional or alternative analytical techniques and exercises are appropriate for an Enterprise to use in identifying, measuring, and monitoring risks to the financial soundness of the Enterprise, and require an Enterprise to implement such techniques and exercises in order to fulfill the requirements of this part. In addition, FHFA will issue guidance annually to describe the baseline and severely adverse scenarios, and methodologies to be used in conducting the annual stress test.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Controls and oversight of the stress testing processes.</I> (1) The appropriate senior management of each Enterprise must ensure that the Enterprise establishes and maintains a system of controls, oversight, and documentation, including policies and procedures, designed to ensure that the stress testing processes used by the Enterprises are effective in meeting the requirements of this part. These policies and procedures must, at a minimum, describe the Enterprise's testing practices and methodologies, validation and use of stress test results, and processes for updating the Enterprise's stress testing practices consistent with relevant supervisory guidance;
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors, or a designated committee thereof, shall review and approve the policies and procedures established to comply with this part as frequently as economic conditions or the condition of the Enterprise warrants, but at least annually; and
</P>
<P>(3) Senior management of the Enterprise and each member of the board of directors shall receive a summary of the stress test results.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.5   Required report to FHFA and FRB of stress test results and related information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Report required for stress tests.</I> On or before May 20 of each year, the Enterprises must report the results of the stress tests required under § 1238.3 to FHFA, and to the FRB, in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Content of the report for annual stress test.</I> Each Enterprise must file a report in the manner and form established by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> Reports submitted to FHFA under this part are FHFA property and records (as defined in 12 CFR part 1202). The reports are and include non-public information contained in or related to examination, operating, or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of, FHFA in connection with the performance of the agency's responsibilities regulating or supervising the Enterprises. Disclosure of any reports submitted to FHFA or the information contained in any such report is prohibited unless authorized by this part, legal obligation, or otherwise by the Director of FHFA.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.6   Post-assessment actions by the Enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>Each Enterprise shall take the results of the stress test conducted under § 1238.3 into account in making changes, as appropriate, to the Enterprise's capital structure (including the level and composition of capital); its exposures, concentrations, and risk positions; any plans for recovery and resolution; and to improve overall risk management. If an Enterprise is under FHFA conservatorship, any post-assessment actions shall require prior FHFA approval.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.7   Publication of results by regulated entities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Public disclosure of results required for stress tests of the Enterprises.</I> The Enterprises must disclose publicly a summary of the stress test results for the severely adverse scenario not earlier than August 1 and not later than August 15 of each year. The summary may be published on the Enterprise's website or in any other form that is reasonably accessible to the public.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information to be disclosed in the summary.</I> The information disclosed by each Enterprise shall, at minimum, include—
</P>
<P>(1) A description of the types of risks being included in the stress test;
</P>
<P>(2) A high-level description of the scenario provided by FHFA, including key variables (such as GDP, unemployment rate, housing prices, and foreclosure rate, etc.);
</P>
<P>(3) A general description of the methodologies employed to estimate losses, pre-provision net revenue, and changes in capital positions over the planning horizon;
</P>
<P>(4) A general description of the use of the required stress test as one element in an Enterprise's overall capital planning and capital assessment. If an Enterprise is under conservatorship, this description shall be coordinated with FHFA;
</P>
<P>(5) Aggregate losses, pre-provision net revenue, net income, net worth, pro forma capital levels and capital ratios (including regulatory and any other capital ratios specified by FHFA) over the planning horizon, under the scenario; and
</P>
<P>(6) Such other data fields, in such form (<I>e.g.,</I> aggregated), as the Director may require.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 16530, Mar. 24, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1238.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.31.0.1.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1238.8   Additional implementing action.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may, in circumstances considered appropriate, require any regulated entity not subject to this part to conduct stress testing hereunder; and from time to time, issue such guidance and orders as may be necessary to facilitate implementation of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1239" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1239—RESPONSIBILITIES OF BOARDS OF DIRECTORS, CORPORATE PRACTICES, AND CORPORATE GOVERNANCE


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432(a), 1436(a), 1440, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4513(b), 4526, and 15 U.S.C. 78<I>oo</I>(b).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.1.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA is responsible for supervising and ensuring the safety and soundness of the regulated entities. In furtherance of those responsibilities, this part sets forth minimum standards with respect to responsibilities of boards of directors, corporate practices, and corporate governance matters of the regulated entities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.1.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, (unless otherwise noted):
</P>
<P><I>Board member</I> means a member of the board of directors of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Board of directors</I> means the board of directors of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Business risk</I> means the risk of an adverse impact on a regulated entity's profitability resulting from external factors as may occur in both the short and long run.
</P>
<P><I>Community financial institution</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1263.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with employment or in connection with service as a director.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> is the potential that a borrower or counterparty will fail to meet its financial obligations in accordance with agreed terms.
</P>
<P><I>Employee</I> means an individual, other than an executive officer, who works part-time, full-time, or temporarily for a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, president, any executive vice president, any senior vice president, and any individual with similar responsibilities, without regard to title, who is in charge of a principal business unit, division, or function, or who reports directly to the chairperson, vice chairperson, chief operating officer, or chief executive officer or president of a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Immediate family member</I> means a parent, sibling, spouse, child, dependent, or any relative sharing the same residence.
</P>
<P><I>Internal auditor</I> means the individual responsible for the internal audit function at a regulated entity.
</P>
<P><I>Liquidity risk</I> means the risk that a regulated entity will be unable to meet its financial obligations as they come due or meet the credit needs of its members and associates in a timely and cost-efficient manner.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk that the market value, or estimated fair value if market value is not available, of a regulated entity's portfolio will decline as a result of changes in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, or equity or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>NYSE</I> means the New York Stock Exchange.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).
</P>
<P><I>Risk appetite</I> means the aggregate level and types of risk the board of directors and management are willing to assume to achieve the regulated entity's strategic objectives and business plan, consistent with applicable capital, liquidity, and other regulatory requirements.
</P>
<P><I>Significant deficiency</I> means a deficiency, or a combination of deficiencies, in internal control that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention by those charged with governance.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Corporate Practices and Procedures Applicable to All Regulated Entities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.2.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.3   Law applicable to corporate governance and indemnification practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The corporate governance practices and procedures of each regulated entity, and practices and procedures relating to indemnification (including advancement of expenses), shall comply with and be subject to the applicable authorizing statutes and other Federal law, rules, and regulations, and shall be consistent with the safe and sound operations of the regulated entities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Election and designation of body of law.</I> (1) To the extent not inconsistent with paragraph (a) of this section, each regulated entity shall elect to follow the corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures set forth in one of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The law of the jurisdiction in which the principal office of the regulated entity is located;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Delaware General Corporation Law (Del. Code Ann. Title 8); or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Revised Model Business Corporation Act.
</P>
<P>(2) Each regulated entity shall designate in its bylaws the body of law elected for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures pursuant to this paragraph, and shall do so by no later than March 18, 2016.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Indemnification.</I> (1) Subject to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, to the extent applicable, a regulated entity shall indemnify (and advance the expenses of) its directors, officers, and employees under such terms and conditions as are determined by its board of directors. The regulated entity is authorized to maintain insurance for its directors and any other officer or employee.
</P>
<P>(2) Each regulated entity shall have in place policies and procedures consistent with this section for indemnification of its directors, officers, and employees. Such policies and procedures shall address how the board of directors is to approve or deny requests for indemnification from current and former directors, officers, and employees, and shall include standards relating to indemnification, investigations by the board of directors, and review by independent counsel.
</P>
<P>(3) Nothing in this paragraph (c) shall affect any rights to indemnification (including the advancement of expenses) that a director or any other officer or employee had with respect to any actions, omissions, transactions, or facts occurring prior to the effective date of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(4) FHFA has the authority under the Safety and Soundness Act to review a regulated entity's indemnification policies, procedures, and practices to ensure that they are conducted in a safe and sound manner, and that they are consistent with the body of law adopted by the board of directors under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No rights created.</I> Nothing in this part shall create or be deemed to create any rights in any third party, including in any member of a Bank, nor shall it cause or be deemed to cause any regulated entity to become subject to the jurisdiction of any state court with respect to the entity's corporate governance or indemnification practices or procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.2.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.4   Duties and responsibilities of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management of a regulated entity.</I> The management of each regulated entity shall be by or under the direction of its board of directors. While a board of directors may delegate the execution of operational functions to officers and employees of the regulated entity, the ultimate responsibility of each entity's board of directors for that entity's oversight is non-delegable. The board of directors of a regulated entity is responsible for directing the conduct and affairs of the entity in furtherance of the safe and sound operation of the entity and shall remain reasonably informed of the condition, activities, and operations of the entity.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duties of directors.</I> Each director of a regulated entity shall have the duty to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry out his or her duties as director in good faith, in a manner such director believes to be in the best interests of the regulated entity, and with such care, including reasonable inquiry, as is required under the Revised Model Business Corporation Act or the other body of law that the entity's board of directors has chosen to follow for its corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b);
</P>
<P>(2) For Bank directors, administer the affairs of the regulated entity fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any member institution;
</P>
<P>(3) At the time of election, or within a reasonable time thereafter, have a working familiarity with basic finance and accounting practices, including the ability to read and understand the regulated entity's balance sheet and income statement and to ask substantive questions of management and the internal and external auditors;
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the operations of the regulated entity in conformity with the requirements set forth in the authorizing statutes, the Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(5) Adopt and maintain in effect at all times bylaws governing the manner in which the regulated entity administers its affairs. Such bylaws shall be consistent with applicable laws and regulations administered by FHFA, and with the body of law designated for the entity's corporate governance practices and procedures in accordance with § 1239.3(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Director responsibilities.</I> The responsibilities of the board of directors include having in place adequate policies to assure its oversight of, among other matters, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The risk management and compensation programs of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) The processes for providing accurate financial reporting and other disclosures, and communications with stockholders; and
</P>
<P>(3) The responsiveness of executive officers in providing accurate and timely reports to FHFA and in addressing all supervisory concerns of FHFA in a timely and appropriate manner.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Authority regarding staff and outside consultants.</I> (1) In carrying out its duties and responsibilities under the authorizing statutes, the Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter, each regulated entity's board of directors and all committees thereof shall have authority to retain staff and outside counsel, independent accountants, or other outside consultants at the expense of the regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors and its committees may require that staff of the regulated entity that provides services to the board or any committee under paragraph (d)(1) of this section report directly to the board or such committee, as appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.2.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.5   Board committees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The board of directors may rely, in directing a regulated entity, on reports from committees of the board of directors, provided, however, that no committee of the board of directors shall have the authority of the board of directors to amend the bylaws and no committee shall operate to relieve the board of directors or any board member of a responsibility imposed by applicable law, rule, or regulation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required committees.</I> The board of directors of each regulated entity shall have committees, however styled, that address each of the following areas of responsibility: Risk management; audit; compensation; and corporate governance (in the case of the Banks, including the nomination of independent board of director candidates, and, in the case of the Enterprises, including the nomination of all board of director candidates). The risk management committee and the audit committee shall not be combined with any other committees. The board of directors may establish any other committees that it deems necessary or useful to carrying out its responsibilities, subject to the provisions of this section. In the case of the Enterprises, board committees shall comply with the charter, independence, composition, expertise, duties, responsibilities, and other requirements set forth under rules issued by the NYSE, and the audit committees shall also comply with the requirements set forth under section 301 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Public Law 107-204.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charter.</I> The board of directors shall adopt a formal written charter for each committee that specifies the scope of a committee's powers and responsibilities, as well as the committee's structure, processes, and membership requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Frequency of meetings.</I> Each committee of the board of directors shall meet regularly and with sufficient frequency to carry out its obligations and duties under applicable laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines. Committees that are structured to meet only on an as-needed basis shall meet in the manner specified by their charter. All such committees shall also meet with sufficient timeliness as necessary in light of relevant conditions and circumstances to fulfill their obligations and duties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Other Requirements Applicable to All Regulated Entities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.10   Code of conduct and ethics.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A regulated entity shall establish and administer a written code of conduct and ethics that is reasonably designed to assure that its directors, officers, and employees discharge their duties and responsibilities in an objective and impartial manner that promotes honest and ethical conduct, compliance with applicable laws, rules, and regulations, accountability for adherence to the code, and prompt internal reporting of violations of the code to appropriate persons identified in the code. The code also shall include provisions applicable to the regulated entity's principal executive officer, principal financial officer, principal accounting officer or controller, or persons performing similar functions, that are reasonably designed to promote full, fair, accurate, and understandable disclosure in reports and other documents filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission and in other public communications reporting on the entity's financial condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review.</I> Not less often than once every three years, a regulated entity shall review the adequacy of its code of conduct and ethics for consistency with practices appropriate to the entity and make any appropriate revisions to such code.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.11   Risk management.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Risk management program</I>—(1) <I>Adoption.</I> Each regulated entity's board of directors shall approve, have in effect at all times, and periodically review an enterprise-wide risk management program that establishes the regulated entity's risk appetite, aligns the risk appetite with the regulated entity's strategies and objectives, addresses the regulated entity's exposure to credit risk, market risk, liquidity risk, business risk and operational risk, and complies with the requirements of this part and with all applicable FHFA regulations and policies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk appetite.</I> The board of directors shall ensure that the risk management program aligns with the regulated entity's risk appetite.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk management program requirements.</I> The risk management program shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) Risk limitations appropriate to each business line of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, risk oversight infrastructure, and processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provisions for monitoring compliance with the regulated entity's risk limit structure and policies relating to risk management governance, risk oversight, and effective and timely implementation of corrective actions; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Provisions specifying management's authority and independence to carry out risk management responsibilities, and the integration of risk management with management's goals and compensation structure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk committee.</I> The board of each regulated entity shall establish and maintain a risk committee of the board of directors that assists the board in carrying out its duties to oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program at the regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Committee structure.</I> The risk committee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Be chaired by a director not serving in a management capacity of the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have at least one member with risk management experience that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;
</P>
<P>(iii) Have committee members that have, or that will acquire within a reasonable time after being elected to the committee, a practical understanding of risk management principles and practices relevant to the regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(iv) Fully document and maintain records of its meetings, including its risk management decisions and recommendations; and
</P>
<P>(v) Report directly to the board and not as part of, or combined with, another committee.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Committee responsibilities.</I> The risk committee shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Periodically review and recommend for board approval an appropriate enterprise-wide risk management program that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk-related factors;
</P>
<P>(ii) Receive and review regular reports from the regulated entity's chief risk officer, as required under paragraph (c)(5) of this section ; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Periodically review the capabilities for, and adequacy of resources allocated to, enterprise-wide risk management.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Chief Risk Officer.</I>—(1) <I>Appointment of a chief risk officer (CRO).</I> Each regulated entity shall appoint a CRO to implement and maintain appropriate enterprise-wide risk management practices for the regulated entity.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Organizational structure of the risk management function.</I> The CRO shall head an independent enterprise-wide risk management function, or unit, and shall report directly to the risk committee and to the chief executive officer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Responsibilities of the CRO.</I> The CRO shall be responsible for the enterprise-wide risk management function, including:
</P>
<P>(i) Allocating risk limits and monitoring compliance with such limits;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing appropriate policies and procedures relating to risk management governance, practices, and risk controls, and developing appropriate processes and systems for identifying and reporting risks, including emerging risks;
</P>
<P>(iii) Monitoring risk exposures, including testing risk controls and verifying risk measures; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Communicating within the organization about any risk management issues and/or emerging risks, and ensuring that risk management issues are effectively resolved in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(4) The CRO should have risk management expertise that is commensurate with the regulated entity's capital structure, risk appetite, complexity, activities, size, and other appropriate risk related factors.
</P>
<P>(5) The CRO shall report regularly to the risk committee and to the chief executive officer on significant risk exposures and related controls, changes to risk appetite, risk management strategies, results of risk management reviews, and emerging risks. The CRO shall also report regularly on the regulated entity's compliance with, and the adequacy of, its current risk management policies and procedures, and shall recommend any adjustments to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(6) The compensation of a regulated entity's CRO shall be appropriately structured to provide for an objective and independent assessment of the risks taken by the regulated entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.12   Compliance program.</HEAD>
<P>A regulated entity shall establish and maintain a compliance program that is reasonably designed to assure that the regulated entity complies with applicable laws, rules, regulations, and internal controls. The compliance program shall be headed by a compliance officer, however styled, who reports directly to the chief executive officer. The compliance officer also shall report regularly to the board of directors, or an appropriate committee thereof, on the adequacy of the entity's compliance policies and procedures, including the entity's compliance with them, and shall recommend any revisions to such policies and procedures that he or she considers necessary or appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.13   Regulatory reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reports.</I> Each regulated entity shall file Regulatory Reports with FHFA in accordance with the forms, instructions, and schedules issued by FHFA from time to time. If no regularly scheduled reporting dates are established, Regulatory Reports shall be filed as requested by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this section, the term <I>Regulatory Report</I> means any report to FHFA of information or raw or summary data needed to evaluate the safe and sound condition or operations of a regulated entity, or to determine compliance with any:
</P>
<P>(1) Provision in the Bank Act, Safety and Soundness Act, or other law, order, rule, or regulation;
</P>
<P>(2) Condition imposed in writing by FHFA in connection with the granting of any application or other request by a regulated entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Written agreement entered into between FHFA and a regulated entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.3.1.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.14   Strategic business plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption of strategic business plan.</I> Each board of directors shall adopt and have in effect at all times a strategic business plan for the regulated entity that describes, at a minimum, how the significant business activities of the regulated entity will achieve its mission and public purposes consistent with its authorizing statute, the Safety and Soundness Act, and, in the case of a Bank, part 1265 of this chapter. Specifically, each regulated entity's strategic business plan shall at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) In the case of a Bank, articulate measurable goals and objectives for each significant business activity and for all authorized new business activities, which must include plans for maximizing activities that further the Bank's housing finance and community lending mission, consistent with part 1265 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an Enterprise, articulate measurable goals and objectives for each significant existing activity and for significant authorized new activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Discuss how the regulated entity will address credit needs and market opportunities identified through ongoing market research and stakeholder consultations;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe any significant activities in which the regulated entity is planning to be engaged, including any significant changes to business strategy or approach that the regulated entity is planning to undertake, and discuss how such activities would further the regulated entity's mission and public purposes;
</P>
<P>(4)(i) In the case of a Bank, be supported by appropriate and timely research and analysis of relevant market developments and member and housing associate demand for Bank products and services;
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of an Enterprise, be supported by appropriate and timely research and analysis of relevant market developments; and
</P>
<P>(5) Identify current and emerging risks associated with the regulated entity's significant existing activities or new activities, and discuss how the regulated entity plans to address such risks while furthering its public purposes and mission in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review and monitoring.</I> Each board of directors shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Review the regulated entity's strategic business plan at least annually;
</P>
<P>(2) Re-adopt the strategic business plan for the regulated entity at least every three years; and
</P>
<P>(3) Establish management reporting requirements and monitor implementation of the strategic business plan and the goals and objectives contained therein.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52954, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Enterprise Specific Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.4.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.20   Board of directors of the Enterprises.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership</I>—(1) <I>Limits on service of board members.</I>—(i) <I>General requirement.</I> No board member of an Enterprise may serve on the board of directors for more than 10 years or past the age of 72, whichever comes first; provided, however, a board member may serve his or her full term if he or she has served less than 10 years or is 72 years on the date of his or her election or appointment to the board; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Waiver.</I> Upon written request of an Enterprise, the Director may waive, in his or her sole discretion and for good cause, the limits on the service of a board member under paragraph (a)(1)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Independence of board members.</I> A majority of seated members of the board of directors of an Enterprise shall be independent board members, as defined under rules set forth by the NYSE, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Segregation of duties.</I> The position of chairperson of the board of directors shall be filled by a person other than the chief executive officer, who shall also be a director of the Enterprise that is independent, as defined under the rules set forth by the NYSE, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meetings, quorum and proxies, information, and annual review</I>—(1) <I>Frequency of meetings.</I> The board of directors of an Enterprise shall meet at least eight times a year and no less than once a calendar quarter to carry out its obligations and duties under applicable laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Non-management board member meetings.</I> Non-management directors of an Enterprise shall meet at regularly scheduled executive sessions without management participation.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Quorum of board of directors; proxies not permissible.</I> For the transaction of business, a quorum of the board of directors of an Enterprise is at least a majority of the seated board of directors and a board member may not vote by proxy.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Information.</I> Management of an Enterprise shall provide a board member of the Enterprise with such adequate and appropriate information that a reasonable board member would find important to the fulfillment of his or her fiduciary duties and obligations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Annual review.</I> At least annually, the board of directors of an Enterprise shall be informed of significant changes to the requirements of laws, rules, regulations, and guidelines that are applicable to its activities and duties.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.4.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.21   Compensation of Enterprise board members.</HEAD>
<P>Each Enterprise may pay its directors reasonable and appropriate compensation for the time required of them, and their necessary and reasonable expenses, in the performance of their duties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Bank Specific Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.5.1.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.30   Bank member products policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption and review of member products policy</I>—(1) <I>Adoption.</I> Each Bank's board of directors shall have in effect at all times a policy that addresses the Bank's management of products offered by the Bank to members and housing associates, including but not limited to advances, standby letters of credit, and acquired member assets, consistent with the requirements of the Bank Act, paragraph (b) of this section, and all applicable FHFA regulations and policies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review and compliance.</I> Each Bank's board of directors shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Review the Bank's member products policy annually;
</P>
<P>(ii) Amend the member products policy as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Re-adopt the member products policy, including interim amendments, not less often than every three years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member products policy requirements.</I> In addition to meeting any other requirements set forth in this chapter, each Bank's member products policy shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Address credit underwriting criteria to be applied in evaluating applications for advances, standby letters of credit, and renewals;
</P>
<P>(2) Address appropriate levels of collateralization, valuation of collateral and discounts applied to collateral values for advances and standby letters of credit;
</P>
<P>(3) Address advances-related fees to be charged by each Bank, including any schedules or formulas pertaining to such fees;
</P>
<P>(4) Address standards and criteria for pricing member products, including differential pricing of advances pursuant to § 1266.5(b)(2) of this chapter, and criteria regarding the pricing of standby letters of credit, including any special pricing provisions for standby letters of credit that facilitate the financing of projects that are eligible for any of the Banks' CICA programs under part 1292 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) Provide that, for any draw made by a beneficiary under a standby letter of credit, the member will be charged a processing fee calculated in accordance with the requirements of § 1271.6(b) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(6) Address the maintenance of appropriate systems, procedures, and internal controls; and
</P>
<P>(7) Address the maintenance of appropriate operational and personnel capacity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.5.1.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.31   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.5.1.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.32   Audit committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Establishment.</I> The audit committee of each Bank established as required by § 1239.5(b) shall be consistent with the requirements set forth in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Composition.</I> (1) The audit committee shall comprise five or more persons drawn from the Bank's board of directors, each of whom shall meet the criteria of independence set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The audit committee shall include, to the extent practicable, a balance of representatives of:
</P>
<P>(i) Community financial institutions and other members; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Independent directors and member directors of the Bank, both as defined in the Bank Act.
</P>
<P>(3) The terms of audit committee members shall be appropriately staggered so as to provide for continuity of service.
</P>
<P>(4) At least one member of the audit committee shall have extensive accounting or related financial management experience.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independence.</I> Any member of the Bank's board of directors shall be considered to be sufficiently independent to serve as a member of the audit committee if that director does not have a disqualifying relationship with the Bank or its management that would interfere with the exercise of that director's independent judgment. Such disqualifying relationships include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Being employed by the Bank in the current year or any of the past five years;
</P>
<P>(2) Accepting any compensation from the Bank other than compensation for service as a board director;
</P>
<P>(3) Serving or having served in any of the past five years as a consultant, advisor, promoter, underwriter, or legal counsel of or to the Bank; or
</P>
<P>(4) Being an immediate family member of an individual who is, or has been in any of the past five years, employed by the Bank as an executive officer.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Charter.</I> (1) The audit committee of each Bank shall review and assess the adequacy of the Bank's audit committee charter on an annual basis, and shall recommend to the board of directors any amendments that it believes to be appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors of each Bank shall review and assess the adequacy of the audit committee charter on an annual basis, shall amend the audit committee charter whenever it deems it appropriate to do so, and shall reapprove the audit committee charter not less often than every three years; and</P>
<P>(3) Each Bank's audit committee charter shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide that the audit committee has the responsibility to select, evaluate and, where appropriate, replace the internal auditor and that the internal auditor may be removed only with the approval of the audit committee;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide that the internal auditor shall report directly to the audit committee on substantive matters and that the internal auditor is ultimately accountable to the audit committee and board of directors;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provide that the audit committee shall be directly responsible for the appointment, compensation, retention, and oversight of the work of the external auditor;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provide that the external auditor shall report directly to the audit committee;
</P>
<P>(v) Provide that both the internal auditor and the external auditor shall have unrestricted access to the audit committee without the need for any prior management knowledge or approval; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Provide that the Bank shall make available appropriate funding, as determined by the audit committee, for payment of compensation to the external auditor, to any independent advisors or counsel engaged by the audit committee, and ordinary administrative expenses that are necessary or appropriate for the audit committee to carry out its duties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Duties.</I> Each Bank's audit committee shall have the duty to:
</P>
<P>(1) Direct senior management to maintain the reliability and integrity of the accounting policies and financial reporting and disclosure practices of the Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) Review the basis for the Bank's financial statements and the external auditor's opinion rendered with respect to such financial statements (including the nature and extent of any significant changes in accounting principles or the application thereof) and ensure that policies are in place that are reasonably designed to achieve disclosure and transparency regarding the Bank's true financial performance and governance practices;
</P>
<P>(3) Oversee the internal audit function by:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviewing the scope of audit services required, significant accounting policies, significant risks and exposures, audit activities, and audit findings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the performance and determining the compensation of the internal auditor; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewing and approving the internal auditor's work plan.
</P>
<P>(4) Oversee the external audit function by:
</P>
<P>(i) Approving the external auditor's annual engagement letter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing the performance of the external auditor.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide an independent, direct channel of communication between the Bank's board of directors and the internal and external auditors;
</P>
<P>(6) Conduct or authorize investigations into any matters within the audit committee's scope of responsibilities;
</P>
<P>(7) Ensure that senior management has established and is maintaining an adequate internal control system within the Bank by:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviewing the Bank's internal control system and the resolution of identified material weaknesses and significant deficiencies in the internal control system, including the prevention or detection of management override or compromise of the internal control system; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing the programs and policies of the Bank designed to ensure compliance with applicable laws, regulations and policies, and monitoring the results of these compliance efforts;
</P>
<P>(8) Review the policies established by senior management to assess and monitor implementation of the Bank's strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained therein; 
</P>
<P>(9) Report periodically its findings to the Bank's board of directors; and
</P>
<P>(10) Establish procedures for the receipt, retention, and treatment of complaints received by the Bank regarding accounting, internal accounting controls, or auditing matters, and for the confidential, anonymous submission by employees of the Bank of concerns regarding questionable accounting or auditing matters.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Meetings.</I> The audit committee shall prepare written minutes of each audit committee meeting.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 72336, Nov. 19, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 76295, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1239.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.2.32.5.1.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1239.33   Dividends.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank's board of directors may not declare or pay a dividend based on projected or anticipated earnings and may not declare or pay a dividend if the par value of the Bank's stock is impaired or is projected to become impaired after paying such dividend.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.3" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—ENTERPRISES


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1240" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1240—CAPITAL ADEQUACY OF ENTERPRISES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4513b, 4514, 4515, 4517, 4526, 4611-4612, 4631-36.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.1   Purpose, applicability, reservations of authority, reporting, and timing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This part establishes capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards for the Enterprises. This part includes methodologies for calculating capital requirements, disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements, and transition provisions for the application of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authorities</I>—(1) <I>Limitations of authority.</I> Nothing in this part shall be read to limit the authority of FHFA to take action under other provisions of law, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law or regulation under the Safety and Soundness Act, and including action under sections 1313(a)(2), 1365-1367, 1371-1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513(a)(2), 4615-4617, and 4631-4636).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Permissible activities.</I> Nothing in this part may be construed to authorize, permit, or require an Enterprise to engage in any activity not authorized by its authorizing statute or that would otherwise be inconsistent with its authorizing statute or the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Applicability</I>—(1) <I>Covered regulated entities.</I> This part applies on a consolidated basis to each Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital requirements and overall capital adequacy standards.</I> Subject to § 1240.4, each Enterprise must calculate its capital requirements and meet the overall capital adequacy standards in subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory capital.</I> Subject to § 1240.4, each Enterprise must calculate its regulatory capital in accordance with subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Risk-weighted assets.</I> (i) Subject to § 1240.4, each Enterprise must use the methodologies in subparts D and F of this part to calculate standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to § 1240.4, each Enterprise must use the methodologies in subparts E and F of this part to calculate advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Reservation of authority regarding capital.</I> Subject to applicable provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act—
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Additional capital in the aggregate.</I> FHFA may require an Enterprise to hold an amount of regulatory capital greater than otherwise required under this part if FHFA determines that the Enterprise's capital requirements under this part are not commensurate with the Enterprise's credit, market, operational, or other risks.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Regulatory capital elements.</I> (i) If FHFA determines that a particular common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital element has characteristics or terms that diminish its ability to absorb losses, or otherwise present safety and soundness concerns, FHFA may require the Enterprise to exclude all or a portion of such element from common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the criteria for regulatory capital instruments set forth in subpart C of this part, FHFA may find that a capital element may be included in an Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital on a permanent or temporary basis consistent with the loss absorption capacity of the element and in accordance with § 1240.20(e).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amounts.</I> If FHFA determines that the risk-weighted asset amount calculated under this part by the Enterprise for one or more exposures is not commensurate with the risks associated with those exposures, FHFA may require the Enterprise to assign a different risk-weighted asset amount to the exposure(s) or to deduct the amount of the exposure(s) from its regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total leverage.</I> If FHFA determines that the adjusted total asset amount calculated by an Enterprise is inappropriate for the exposure(s) or the circumstances of the Enterprise, FHFA may require the Enterprise to adjust this exposure amount in the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the leverage ratio calculations.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consolidation of certain exposures.</I> FHFA may determine that the risk-based capital treatment for an exposure or the treatment provided to an entity that is not consolidated on the Enterprise's balance sheet is not commensurate with the risk of the exposure and the relationship of the Enterprise to the entity. Upon making this determination, FHFA may require the Enterprise to treat the exposure or entity as if it were consolidated on the balance sheet of the Enterprise for purposes of determining the Enterprise's risk-based capital requirements and calculating the Enterprise's risk-based capital ratios accordingly. FHFA will look to the substance of, and risk associated with, the transaction, as well as other relevant factors FHFA deems appropriate in determining whether to require such treatment.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other reservation of authority.</I> With respect to any deduction or limitation required under this part, FHFA may require a different deduction or limitation, provided that such alternative deduction or limitation is commensurate with the Enterprise's risk and consistent with safety and soundness.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corrective action and enforcement.</I> (1) FHFA may enforce this part pursuant to sections 1371, 1372, and 1376 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, 4636).
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA also may enforce the total capital requirement established under § 1240.10(a) and the core capital requirement established under § 1240.10(e) pursuant to section 1364 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4614).
</P>
<P>(3) This part is also a prudential standard adopted under section 1313B of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513b), excluding § 1240.11, which is a prudential standard only for purposes of § 1240.4. Section 1313B of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513b) authorizes the Director to require that an Enterprise submit a corrective plan under § 1236.4 specifying the actions the Enterprise will take to correct the deficiency if the Director determines that an Enterprise is not in compliance with this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reporting procedure and timing</I>—(1) <I>Capital Reports</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> Each Enterprise shall file a capital report with FHFA every calendar quarter providing the information and data required by FHFA. The specifics of required information and data, and the report format, will be separately provided to the Enterprise by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Required content.</I> The capital report shall include, as of the end of the last calendar quarter—
</P>
<P>(A) The common equity tier 1 capital, core capital, tier 1 capital, total capital, and adjusted total capital of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(B) The stress capital buffer, the capital conservation buffer amount (if prescribed by FHFA), the stability capital buffer, and the maximum payout ratio of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(C) The adjusted total assets of the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(D) The standardized total risk-weighted assets of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing.</I> The Enterprise must submit the capital report not later than 60 days after the last day of the calendar quarter or at such other time as the Director requires.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval.</I> The capital report must be approved by the Chief Risk Officer and the Chief Financial Officer of an Enterprise prior to submission to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Adjustment.</I> In the event an Enterprise makes an adjustment to its financial statements for a quarter or a date for which information was provided pursuant to this paragraph (f), which would cause an adjustment to a capital report, an Enterprise must file with the Director an amended capital report not later than 15 days after the date of such adjustment.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Public disclosure.</I> An Enterprise must disclose in an appropriate publicly available filing or other document each of the information reported under paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Acquired CRT exposure</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exposure that arises from a credit risk transfer of the Enterprise and has been acquired by the Enterprise since the issuance or entry into the credit risk transfer by the Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any exposure that arises from a credit risk transfer of the other Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Additional tier 1</I> capital is defined in § 1240.20(c).
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted allowances for credit losses (AACL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings for expected credit losses on financial assets measured at amortized cost and a lessor's net investment in leases that have been established to reduce the amortized cost basis of the assets to amounts expected to be collected as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, adjusted allowances for credit losses include allowances for expected credit losses on off-balance sheet credit exposures not accounted for as insurance as determined in accordance with GAAP. Adjusted allowances for credit losses allowances created that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities.
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted total assets</I> means the sum of the items described in paragraphs (1) though (9) of this definition, as adjusted pursuant to paragraph (9) of this definition for a clearing member Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(1) The balance sheet carrying value of all of the Enterprise's on-balance sheet assets, plus the value of securities sold under a repurchase transaction or a securities lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), less amounts deducted from tier 1 capital under § 1240.22(a), (c), and (d), and less the value of securities received in security-for-security repo-style transactions, where the Enterprise acts as a securities lender and includes the securities received in its on-balance sheet assets but has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received, <I>less</I> the fair value of any derivative contracts;


</P>
<P>(2)(i) The potential future exposure (PFE) for each netting set to which the Enterprise is a counterparty (including cleared transactions except as provided in paragraph (9) of this definition and, at the discretion of the Enterprise, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP), as determined under § 1240.36(c)(7), in which the term C in § 1240.36(c)(7)(i) equals zero, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4. For purposes of this paragraph, an Enterprise may set the value of the term C in § 1240.36(c)(7)(i) equal to the amount of collateral posted by a clearing member client of the Enterprise in connection with the client-facing derivative transactions within the netting set; and
</P>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise may choose to exclude the PFE of all credit derivatives or other similar instruments through which it provides credit protection when calculating the PFE under § 1240.36(c), provided that it does so consistently over time for the calculation of the PFE for all such instruments;




</P>
<P>(3)(i)(A) The replacement cost of each derivative contract or single product netting set of derivative contracts to which the Enterprise is a counterparty, calculated according to the following formula, and, for any counterparty that is not a commercial end-user, multiplied by 1.4:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Replacement Cost</I> = max{<I>V</I>−<I>CVM</I><E T="52">r</E> + <I>CVM</I><E T="52">p</E><I>;</I> 0} 
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) <I>V</I> equals the fair value for each derivative contract or each single-product netting set of derivative contracts (including a cleared transaction except as provided in paragraph (9) of this definition and, at the discretion of the Enterprise, excluding a forward agreement treated as a derivative contract that is part of a repurchase or reverse repurchase or a securities borrowing or lending transaction that qualifies for sales treatment under GAAP);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) <I>CVM</I><E T="52">r</E> equals the amount of cash collateral received from a counterparty to a derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (3)(ii) through (vi) of this definition, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral received from the clearing member client; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) <I>CVM</I><E T="52">p</E> equals the amount of cash collateral that is posted to a counterparty to a derivative contract and that has not offset the fair value of the derivative contract and that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (3)(ii) through (vi) of this definition, or, in the case of a client-facing derivative transaction, the amount of collateral posted to the clearing member client;</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (3)(i)(A) of this definition, where multiple netting sets are subject to a single variation margin agreement, an Enterprise must apply the formula for replacement cost provided in § 1240.36(c)(10)(i), in which the term C<E T="52">MA</E> may only include cash collateral that satisfies the conditions in paragraphs (3)(ii) through (vi) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (3)(i)(A) of this definition, an Enterprise must treat a derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index if the Enterprise elected to treat the derivative contract as multiple derivative contracts under § 1240.36(c)(5)(vi);
</P>
<P>(ii) For derivative contracts that are not cleared through a QCCP, the cash collateral received by the recipient counterparty is not segregated (by law, regulation, or an agreement with the counterparty);
</P>
<P>(iii) Variation margin is calculated and transferred on a daily basis based on the mark-to-fair value of the derivative contract;
</P>
<P>(iv) The variation margin transferred under the derivative contract or the governing rules of the CCP or QCCP for a cleared transaction is the full amount that is necessary to fully extinguish the net current credit exposure to the counterparty of the derivative contracts, subject to the threshold and minimum transfer amounts applicable to the counterparty under the terms of the derivative contract or the governing rules for a cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(v) The variation margin is in the form of cash in the same currency as the currency of settlement set forth in the derivative contract, provided that for the purposes of this paragraph, currency of settlement means any currency for settlement specified in the governing qualifying master netting agreement and the credit support annex to the qualifying master netting agreement, or in the governing rules for a cleared transaction; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The derivative contract and the variation margin are governed by a qualifying master netting agreement between the legal entities that are the counterparties to the derivative contract or by the governing rules for a cleared transaction, and the qualifying master netting agreement or the governing rules for a cleared transaction must explicitly stipulate that the counterparties agree to settle any payment obligations on a net basis, taking into account any variation margin received or provided under the contract if a credit event involving either counterparty occurs;




</P>
<P>(4) The effective notional principal amount (that is, the apparent or stated notional principal amount multiplied by any multiplier in the derivative contract) of a credit derivative, or other similar instrument, through which the Enterprise provides credit protection, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the amount of any reduction in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative if the reduction is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise may reduce the effective notional principal amount of the credit derivative by the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative or other similar instrument, provided that the remaining maturity of the purchased credit derivative is equal to or greater than the remaining maturity of the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection and that:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to a credit derivative that references a single exposure, the reference exposure of the purchased credit derivative is to the same legal entity and ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is junior to, the reference exposure of the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a credit derivative that references multiple exposures, the reference exposures of the purchased credit derivative are to the same legal entities and rank <I>pari passu</I> with the reference exposures of the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection, and the level of seniority of the purchased credit derivative ranks <I>pari passu</I> to the level of seniority of the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(C) Where an Enterprise has reduced the effective notional amount of a credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection in accordance with paragraph (4)(i) of this definition, the Enterprise must also reduce the effective notional principal amount of a purchased credit derivative used to offset the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection, by the amount of any increase in the mark-to-fair value of the purchased credit derivative that is recognized in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</P>
<P>(D) Where the Enterprise purchases credit protection through a total return swap and records the net payments received on a credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection in net income, but does not record offsetting deterioration in the mark-to-fair value of the credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection in net income (either through reductions in fair value or by additions to reserves), the Enterprise may not use the purchased credit protection to offset the effective notional principal amount of the related credit derivative through which the Enterprise provides credit protection;
</P>
<P>(5) Where an Enterprise acting as a principal has more than one repo-style transaction with the same counterparty and has offset the gross value of receivables due from a counterparty under reverse repurchase transactions by the gross value of payables under repurchase transactions due to the same counterparty, the gross value of receivables associated with the repo-style transactions less any on-balance sheet receivables amount associated with these repo-style transactions included under paragraph (1) of this definition, unless the following criteria are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The offsetting transactions have the same explicit final settlement date under their governing agreements;
</P>
<P>(ii) The right to offset the amount owed to the counterparty with the amount owed by the counterparty is legally enforceable in the normal course of business and in the event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Under the governing agreements, the counterparties intend to settle net, settle simultaneously, or settle according to a process that is the functional equivalent of net settlement, (that is, the cash flows of the transactions are equivalent, in effect, to a single net amount on the settlement date), where both transactions are settled through the same settlement system, the settlement arrangements are supported by cash or intraday credit facilities intended to ensure that settlement of both transactions will occur by the end of the business day, and the settlement of the underlying securities does not interfere with the net cash settlement;
</P>
<P>(6) The counterparty credit risk of a repo-style transaction, including where the Enterprise acts as an agent for a repo-style transaction and indemnifies the customer with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty in an amount limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, calculated as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the transaction is not subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) for transactions with a counterparty must be calculated on a transaction by transaction basis, such that each transaction i is treated as its own netting set, in accordance with the following formula, where Ei is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or provided as collateral to the counterparty, and Ci is the fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Enterprise has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or received as collateral from the counterparty:
</P>
<FP-2>E<E T="52">i</E>* = max {0, [E<E T="52">i</E>—C<E T="52">i</E>]}
</FP-2>
<P>(ii) If the transaction is subject to a qualifying master netting agreement, the counterparty credit risk (E*) must be calculated as the greater of zero and the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase or provided as collateral to a counterparty for all transactions included in the qualifying master netting agreement (ΣE<E T="52">i</E>), less the total fair value of the instruments, gold, or cash that the Enterprise borrowed, purchased subject to resale or received as collateral from the counterparty for those transactions (ΣC<E T="52">i</E>), in accordance with the following formula:
</P>
<FP>E* = max {0, [ΣE<E T="52">i</E>− ΣC<E T="52">i</E>]}
</FP>
<P>(7) If an Enterprise acting as an agent for a repo-style transaction provides a guarantee to a customer of the security or cash its customer has lent or borrowed with respect to the performance of the customer's counterparty and the guarantee is not limited to the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the fair value of the collateral the borrower has provided, the amount of the guarantee that is greater than the difference between the fair value of the security or cash its customer has lent and the value of the collateral the borrower has provided;
</P>
<P>(8) The credit equivalent amount of all off-balance sheet exposures of the Enterprise, excluding repo-style transactions, repurchase or reverse repurchase or securities borrowing or lending transactions that qualify for sales treatment under GAAP, and derivative transactions, determined using the applicable credit conversion factor under § 1240.35(b), provided, however, that the minimum credit conversion factor that may be assigned to an off-balance sheet exposure under this paragraph is 10 percent; and
</P>
<P>(9) For an Enterprise that is a clearing member:
</P>
<P>(i) A clearing member Enterprise that guarantees the performance of a clearing member client with respect to a cleared transaction must treat its exposure to the clearing member client as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its adjusted total assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Enterprise that guarantees the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client must treat its exposure to the CCP as a derivative contract for purposes of determining its adjusted total assets;
</P>
<P>(iii) A clearing member Enterprise that does not guarantee the performance of a CCP with respect to a transaction cleared on behalf of a clearing member client may exclude its exposure to the CCP for purposes of determining its adjusted total assets;
</P>
<P>(iv) An Enterprise that is a clearing member may exclude from its adjusted total assets the effective notional principal amount of credit protection sold through a credit derivative contract, or other similar instrument, that it clears on behalf of a clearing member client through a CCP as calculated in accordance with paragraph (4) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(v) Notwithstanding paragraphs (9)(i) through (iii) of this definition, an Enterprise may exclude from its adjusted total assets a clearing member's exposure to a clearing member client for a derivative contract, if the clearing member client and the clearing member are affiliates and consolidated for financial reporting purposes on the Enterprise's balance sheet.
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted total capital</I> means the sum of tier 1 capital and tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit-risk-weighted assets for general credit risk (including for mortgage exposures), cleared transactions, default fund contributions, unsettled transactions, securitization exposures (including retained CRT exposures), equity exposures, and the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts, each as calculated under § 1240.123.
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk, as calculated under § 1240.162(c); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Advanced market risk-weighted assets; minus
</P>
<P>(2) Excess eligible credit reserves not included in the Enterprise's tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced market risk-weighted assets</I> means the advanced measure for spread risk calculated under § 1240.204(a) multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> has the meaning given in section 1303(1) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(1)).
</P>
<P><I>Allowances for loan and lease losses (ALLL)</I> means valuation allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses on loans, lease financing receivables or other extensions of credit as determined in accordance with GAAP. For purposes of this part, <I>ALLL</I> includes allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings to cover estimated credit losses associated with off-balance sheet credit exposures as determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of an Enterprise's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.


</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, with respect to an entity or asset, that the entity or asset would be excluded from an insolvent entity's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.


</P>
<P><I>Basis derivative contract</I> means a non-foreign-exchange derivative contract (<I>i.e.,</I> the contract is denominated in a single currency) in which the cash flows of the derivative contract depend on the difference between two risk factors that are attributable solely to one of the following derivative asset classes: Interest rate, credit, equity, or commodity.


</P>
<P><I>Carrying value</I> means, with respect to an asset, the value of the asset on the balance sheet of an Enterprise as determined in accordance with GAAP. For all assets other than available-for-sale debt securities or purchased credit deteriorated assets, the carrying value is not reduced by any associated credit loss allowance that is determined in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty (CCP)</I> means a counterparty (for example, a clearing house) that facilitates trades between counterparties in one or more financial markets by either guaranteeing trades or novating contracts.
</P>
<P><I>CFTC</I> means the U.S. Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Clean-up call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating Enterprise or servicer to call securitization exposures before their stated maturity or call date.
</P>
<P><I>Cleared transaction</I> means an exposure associated with an outstanding derivative contract or repo-style transaction that an Enterprise or clearing member has entered into with a central counterparty (that is, a transaction that a central counterparty has accepted).
</P>
<P>(1) The following transactions are cleared transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) A transaction between a CCP and an Enterprise that is a clearing member of the CCP where the Enterprise enters into the transaction with the CCP for the Enterprise's own account;
</P>
<P>(ii) A transaction between a CCP and an Enterprise that is a clearing member of the CCP where the Enterprise is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client and the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 1240.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) A transaction between a clearing member client Enterprise and a clearing member where the clearing member acts as a financial intermediary on behalf of the clearing member client and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP, provided that the requirements set forth in § 1240.3(a) are met; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A transaction between a clearing member client Enterprise and a CCP where a clearing member guarantees the performance of the clearing member client Enterprise to the CCP and the transaction meets the requirements of § 1240.3(a)(2) and (3).
</P>
<P>(2) The exposure of an Enterprise that is a clearing member to its clearing member client is not a cleared transaction where the Enterprise is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a CCP or where the Enterprise provides a guarantee to the CCP on the performance of the client.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member</I> means a member of, or direct participant in, a CCP that is entitled to enter into transactions with the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing member client</I> means a party to a cleared transaction associated with a CCP in which a clearing member acts either as a financial intermediary with respect to the party or guarantees the performance of the party to the CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Client-facing derivative transaction</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction where the Enterprise is either acting as a financial intermediary and enters into an offsetting transaction with a qualifying central counterparty (QCCP) or where the Enterprise provides a guarantee on the performance of a client on a transaction between the client and a QCCP.
</P>
<P><I>Collateral agreement</I> means a legal contract that specifies the time when, and circumstances under which, a counterparty is required to pledge collateral to an Enterprise for a single financial contract or for all financial contracts in a netting set and confers upon the Enterprise a perfected, first-priority security interest (notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent), or the legal equivalent thereof, in the collateral posted by the counterparty under the agreement. This security interest must provide the Enterprise with a right to close-out the financial positions and liquidate the collateral upon an event of default of, or failure to perform by, the counterparty under the collateral agreement. A contract would not satisfy this requirement if the Enterprise's exercise of rights under the agreement may be stayed or avoided:
</P>
<P>(1) Under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than
</P>
<P>(i) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(i) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(i) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other than to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with applicable law.


</P>
<P><I>Commercial end-user</I> means an entity that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii)(A) Is not an entity described in section 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(i)(I) through (VIII)); or
</P>
<P>(B) Is not a “financial entity” for purposes of section 2(h)(7) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(C)(iii) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(C)(iii)); or
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Is using derivative contracts to hedge or mitigate commercial risk; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is not an entity described in section 3C(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(3)(A)(i) through (viii)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Qualifies for the exemption in section 2(h)(7)(A) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(A)) by virtue of section 2(h)(7)(D) of the Act (7 U.S.C. 2(h)(7)(D)); or
</P>
<P>(4) Qualifies for an exemption in section 3C(g)(1) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(1)) by virtue of section 3C(g)(4) of the Act (15 U.S.C. 78c-3(g)(4)).


</P>
<P><I>Commingled security</I> means a resecuritization of UMBS in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a UMBS guaranteed by the other Enterprise or is a resecuritization of UMBS guaranteed by the other Enterprise.


</P>
<P><I>Commitment</I> means any legally binding arrangement that obligates an Enterprise to extend credit or to purchase assets.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> is defined in § 1240.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Company</I> means a corporation, partnership, limited liability company, depository institution, business trust, special purpose entity, association, or similar organization.
</P>
<P><I>Core capital</I> has the meaning given in section 1303(7) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(7)).
</P>
<P><I>Corporate exposure</I> means an exposure to a company that is not:
</P>
<P>(1) An exposure to a sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multi-lateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a foreign bank, a credit union, or a public sector entity (PSE);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure to a GSE;
</P>
<P>(3) A mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) A cleared transaction;
</P>
<P>(5) A default fund contribution;
</P>
<P>(6) A securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(7) An equity exposure;
</P>
<P>(8) An unsettled transaction; or
</P>
<P>(9) A separate account.
</P>
<P><I>Credit default swap (CDS)</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.


</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a financial contract executed under standard industry credit derivative documentation that allows one party (the protection purchaser) to transfer the credit risk of one or more exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider) for a certain period of time.
</P>
<P><I>Credit-enhancing interest-only strip (CEIO)</I> means an on-balance sheet asset that, in form or in substance:
</P>
<P>(1) Represents a contractual right to receive some or all of the interest and no more than a minimal amount of principal due on the underlying exposures of a securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exposes the holder of the CEIO to credit risk directly or indirectly associated with the underlying exposures that exceeds a pro rata share of the holder's claim on the underlying exposures, whether through subordination provisions or other credit-enhancement techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk mitigant</I> means collateral, a credit derivative, or a guarantee.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk transfer (CRT)</I> means any traditional securitization, synthetic securitization, senior/subordinated structure, credit derivative, guarantee, or other contract, structure, or arrangement (other than primary mortgage insurance) that allows an Enterprise to transfer the credit risk of one or more mortgage exposures (reference exposure(s)) to another party (the protection provider).
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means an insured credit union as defined under the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752 <I>et seq.</I>).


</P>
<P><I>Credit valuation adjustment (CVA)</I> means the fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts.


</P>
<P><I>CRT special purpose entity (CRT SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of bearing credit risk transferred through a CRT, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose.




</P>
<P><I>Current Expected Credit Losses (CECL)</I> means the current expected credit losses methodology under GAAP.


</P>
<P><I>Custodian</I> means a financial institution that has legal custody of collateral provided to a CCP.
</P>
<P><I>Default fund contribution</I> means the funds contributed or commitments made by a clearing member to a CCP's mutualized loss sharing arrangement.
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means a financial contract whose value is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values or reference rates. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts, credit derivative contracts, and any other instrument that poses similar counterparty credit risks. Derivative contracts also include unsettled securities, commodities, and foreign exchange transactions with a contractual settlement or delivery lag that is longer than the lesser of the market standard for the particular instrument or five business days.
</P>
<P><I>Discretionary bonus payment</I> means a payment made to an executive officer of an Enterprise, where:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise retains discretion as to whether to make, and the amount of, the payment until the payment is awarded to the executive officer;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount paid is determined by the Enterprise without prior promise to, or agreement with, the executive officer; and
</P>
<P>(3) The executive officer has no contractual right, whether express or implied, to the bonus payment.
</P>
<P><I>Distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A reduction of tier 1 capital through the repurchase of a tier 1 capital instrument or by other means, except when an Enterprise, within the same quarter when the repurchase is announced, fully replaces a tier 1 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for:
</P>
<P>(i) A common equity tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A common equity tier 1 or additional tier 1 capital instrument if the instrument being repurchased was part of the Enterprise's tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction of tier 2 capital through the repurchase, or redemption prior to maturity, of a tier 2 capital instrument or by other means, except when an Enterprise, within the same quarter when the repurchase or redemption is announced, fully replaces a tier 2 capital instrument it has repurchased by issuing another capital instrument that meets the eligibility criteria for a tier 1 or tier 2 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(3) A dividend declaration or payment on any tier 1 capital instrument;
</P>
<P>(4) A dividend declaration or interest payment on any tier 2 capital instrument if the Enterprise has full discretion to permanently or temporarily suspend such payments without triggering an event of default; or
</P>
<P>(5) Any similar transaction that FHFA determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Dodd-Frank Act</I> means the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-203, 124 Stat. 1376).
</P>
<P><I>Early amortization provision</I> means a provision in the documentation governing a securitization that, when triggered, causes investors in the securitization exposures to be repaid before the original stated maturity of the securitization exposures, unless the provision:
</P>
<P>(1) Is triggered solely by events not directly related to the performance of the underlying exposures or the originating Enterprise (such as material changes in tax laws or regulations); or
</P>
<P>(2) Leaves investors fully exposed to future draws by borrowers on the underlying exposures even after the provision is triggered.
</P>
<P><I>Effective notional amount</I> means for an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the lesser of the contractual notional amount of the credit risk mitigant and the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, multiplied by the percentage coverage of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible clean-up call</I> means a clean-up call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating Enterprise or servicer;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating losses to securitization exposures held by investors or otherwise structured to provide credit enhancement to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(3)(i) For a traditional securitization, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the underlying exposures or securitization exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For a synthetic securitization or credit risk transfer, is only exercisable when 10 percent or less of the principal amount of the reference portfolio of underlying exposures (determined as of the inception of the securitization) is outstanding.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative in the form of a credit default swap, nth-to-default swap, total return swap, or any other form of credit derivative approved by FHFA, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The contract meets the requirements of an eligible guarantee and has been confirmed by the protection purchaser and the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(2) Any assignment of the contract has been confirmed by all relevant parties;
</P>
<P>(3) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or nth-to-default swap, the contract includes the following credit events:
</P>
<P>(i) Failure to pay any amount due under the terms of the reference exposure, subject to any applicable minimal payment threshold that is consistent with standard market practice and with a grace period that is closely in line with the grace period of the reference exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship or inability of the reference exposure issuer to pay its debts, or its failure or admission in writing of its inability generally to pay its debts as they become due, and similar events;
</P>
<P>(4) The terms and conditions dictating the manner in which the contract is to be settled are incorporated into the contract;
</P>
<P>(5) If the contract allows for cash settlement, the contract incorporates a robust valuation process to estimate loss reliably and specifies a reasonable period for obtaining post-credit event valuations of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(6) If the contract requires the protection purchaser to transfer an exposure to the protection provider at settlement, the terms of at least one of the exposures that is permitted to be transferred under the contract provide that any required consent to transfer may not be unreasonably withheld;
</P>
<P>(7) If the credit derivative is a credit default swap or nth-to-default swap, the contract clearly identifies the parties responsible for determining whether a credit event has occurred, specifies that this determination is not the sole responsibility of the protection provider, and gives the protection purchaser the right to notify the protection provider of the occurrence of a credit event; and
</P>
<P>(8) If the credit derivative is a total return swap and the Enterprise records net payments received on the swap as net income, the Enterprise records offsetting deterioration in the value of the hedged exposure (either through reductions in fair value or by an addition to reserves).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible credit reserves</I> means all general allowances that have been established through a charge against earnings or retained earnings to cover expected credit losses associated with on- or off-balance sheet wholesale and retail exposures, including AACL associated with such exposures. Eligible credit reserves exclude allowances that reflect credit losses on purchased credit deteriorated assets and available-for-sale debt securities and other specific reserves created against recognized losses.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible funded synthetic risk transfer</I> means a credit risk transfer in which—
</P>
<P>(1) A CRT SPE that is bankruptcy remote from the Enterprise and not consolidated with the Enterprise under GAAP is contractually obligated to reimburse the Enterprise for specified losses on a reference pool of mortgage exposures of the Enterprise upon designated credit events and designated modification events;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk transferred to the CRT SPE is transferred to one or more third parties through two or more classes of securities of different seniority issued by the CRT SPE;
</P>
<P>(3) The performance of each class of securities issued by the CRT SPE depends on the performance of the reference pool; and
</P>
<P>(4) The proceeds of the securities issued by the CRT SPE—
</P>
<P>(i) Are, at the time of entry into the transaction, in the aggregate no less than the maximum obligation of the CRT SPE to the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Are invested in financial collateral that secures the payment obligations of the CRT SPE to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantee</I> means a guarantee that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is written;
</P>
<P>(2) Is either:
</P>
<P>(i) Unconditional, or
</P>
<P>(ii) A contingent obligation of the U.S. government or its agencies, the enforceability of which is dependent upon some affirmative action on the part of the beneficiary of the guarantee or a third party (for example, meeting servicing requirements);
</P>
<P>(3) Covers all or a pro rata portion of all contractual payments of the obligated party on the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(4) Gives the beneficiary a direct claim against the protection provider;
</P>
<P>(5) Is not unilaterally cancelable by the protection provider for reasons other than the breach of the contract by the beneficiary;
</P>
<P>(6) Except for a guarantee by a sovereign, is legally enforceable against the protection provider in a jurisdiction where the protection provider has sufficient assets against which a judgment may be attached and enforced;
</P>
<P>(7) Requires the protection provider to make payment to the beneficiary on the occurrence of a default (as defined in the guarantee) of the obligated party on the reference exposure in a timely manner without the beneficiary first having to take legal actions to pursue the obligor for payment;
</P>
<P>(8) Does not increase the beneficiary's cost of credit protection on the guarantee in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the reference exposure;
</P>
<P>(9) Is not provided by an affiliate of the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(10) Is provided by an eligible guarantor.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible guarantor</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A sovereign, the Bank for International Settlements, the International Monetary Fund, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, a Federal Home Loan Bank, Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation (Farmer Mac), the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, a multilateral development bank (MDB), a depository institution, a bank holding company as defined in section 2 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1841 <I>et seq.</I>), a savings and loan holding company, a credit union, a foreign bank, or a qualifying central counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) An entity (other than a special purpose entity):
</P>
<P>(i) That at the time the guarantee is issued or anytime thereafter, has issued and outstanding an unsecured debt security without credit enhancement that is investment grade;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whose creditworthiness is not positively correlated with the credit risk of the exposures for which it has provided guarantees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) That is not an insurance company engaged predominately in the business of providing credit protection (such as a monoline bond insurer or re-insurer).
</P>
<P><I>Eligible margin loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An extension of credit where:
</P>
<P>(i) The extension of credit is collateralized exclusively by liquid and readily marketable debt or equity securities, or gold;
</P>
<P>(ii) The collateral is marked-to-fair value daily, and the transaction is subject to daily margin maintenance requirements; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The extension of credit is conducted under an agreement that provides the Enterprise the right to accelerate and terminate the extension of credit and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, conservatorship, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(A) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs,
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> This requirement is met where all transactions under the agreement are (i) executed under U.S. law and (ii) constitute “securities contracts” under section 555 of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555), qualified financial contracts under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or netting contracts between or among financial institutions.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (1)(iii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(B) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(2) In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan for purposes of this subpart, an Enterprise must comply with the requirements of § 1240.3(b) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible multifamily lender risk share</I> means a credit risk transfer under which an entity that is approved by an Enterprise to sell multifamily mortgage exposures to an Enterprise retains credit risk of one or more multifamily mortgage exposures on substantially the same terms and conditions as in effect on June 30, 2020 for Fannie Mae's credit risk transfers known as the “Delegated Underwriting and Servicing program”.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible reinsurance risk transfer</I> means a credit risk transfer in which the Enterprise transfers the credit risk on one or more mortgage exposures to an insurance company or reinsurer that has been approved by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible senior-subordinated structure</I> means a traditional securitization in which the underlying exposures are mortgage exposures of the Enterprise and the Enterprise guarantees the timely payment of principal and interest on one or more senior tranches.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible single-family lender risk share</I> means any partial or full recourse agreement or similar agreement (other than a participation agreement) between an Enterprise and the seller or servicer of a single-family mortgage exposure pursuant to which the seller or servicer agrees either to reimburse the Enterprise for losses arising out of the default of the single-family mortgage exposure or to repurchase or replace the single-family mortgage exposure in the event of the default of the single-family mortgage exposure.


</P>
<P><I>Eligible time-based call</I> means a time-based call that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is exercisable solely at the discretion of the originating Enterprise, provided the Enterprise obtains FHFA's non-objection prior to exercising the time-based call;
</P>
<P>(2) Is not structured to avoid allocating credit losses to investors or otherwise structured to provide at most <I>de minimis</I> credit protection to the securitization or credit risk transfer; and
</P>
<P>(3) Is exercisable no less than five years after the securitization or credit risk transfer issuance date or effective date, where the underlying collateral is mortgage exposures with amortization terms greater than 20 years.
</P>
<P>(4) Is exercisable no less than four years after the securitization or credit risk transfer issuance date or effective date, where the underlying collateral is mortgage exposures with amortization terms of 20 years or less.


</P>
<P><I>Equity exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A security or instrument (whether voting or non-voting and whether certificated or not certificated) that represents a direct or an indirect ownership interest in, and is a residual claim on, the assets and income of a company, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The issuing company is consolidated with the Enterprise under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise is required to deduct the ownership interest from tier 1 or tier 2 capital under this part;
</P>
<P>(iii) The ownership interest incorporates a payment or other similar obligation on the part of the issuing company (such as an obligation to make periodic payments); or
</P>
<P>(iv) The ownership interest is a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) A security or instrument that is mandatorily convertible into a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) An option or warrant that is exercisable for a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other security or instrument (other than a securitization exposure) to the extent the return on the security or instrument is based on the performance of a security or instrument described in paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>ERISA</I> means the Employee Retirement Income and Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1001 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Executive officer</I> means a person who holds the title or, without regard to title, salary, or compensation, performs the function of one or more of the following positions: President, chief executive officer, executive chairman, chief operating officer, chief financial officer, chief investment officer, chief legal officer, chief lending officer, chief risk officer, or head of a major business line, and other staff that the board of directors of the Enterprise deems to have equivalent responsibility.
</P>
<P><I>Exposure amount</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an exposure (including a mortgage exposure); (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the Enterprise determines the exposure amount under § 1240.39; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the Enterprise's carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) For the off-balance sheet component of an exposure (other than an OTC derivative contract; a repo-style transaction or an eligible margin loan for which the Enterprise calculates the exposure amount under § 1240.39; a cleared transaction; a default fund contribution; or a securitization exposure), the notional amount of the off-balance sheet component multiplied by the appropriate credit conversion factor (CCF) in § 1240.35.
</P>
<P>(3) For an exposure that is an OTC derivative contract, the exposure amount or exposure at default (EAD) determined under § 1240.36.
</P>
<P>(4) For an exposure that is a cleared transaction, the exposure amount determined under § 1240.37.
</P>
<P>(5) For an exposure that is an eligible margin loan or repo-style transaction for which the Enterprise calculates the exposure amount as provided in § 1240.39, the exposure amount determined under § 1240.39.
</P>
<P>(6) For an exposure that is a securitization exposure, the exposure amount determined under § 1240.42.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Deposit Insurance Act</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Financial collateral</I> means collateral:
</P>
<P>(1) In the form of:
</P>
<P>(i) Cash on deposit with the Enterprise (including cash held for the Enterprise by a third-party custodian or trustee);
</P>
<P>(ii) Gold bullion;
</P>
<P>(iii) Long-term debt securities that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(iv) Short-term debt instruments that are not resecuritization exposures and that are investment grade;
</P>
<P>(v) Equity securities that are publicly traded;
</P>
<P>(vi) Convertible bonds that are publicly traded; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Money market fund shares and other mutual fund shares if a price for the shares is publicly quoted daily; and
</P>
<P>(2) In which the Enterprise has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof, (with the exception of cash on deposit; and notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any priority security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP).




</P>
<P><I>Gain-on-sale</I> means an increase in the equity capital of an Enterprise resulting from a traditional securitization other than an increase in equity capital resulting from:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise's receipt of cash in connection with the securitization; or
</P>
<P>(2) The reporting of a mortgage servicing asset.
</P>
<P><I>General obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is backed by the full faith and credit of a public sector entity (PSE).
</P>
<P><I>Government-sponsored enterprise (GSE)</I> means an entity established or chartered by the U.S. government to serve public purposes specified by the U.S. Congress but whose debt obligations are not explicitly guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government, including an Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee</I> means a financial guarantee, letter of credit, insurance, or other similar financial instrument (other than a credit derivative) that allows one party (beneficiary) to transfer the credit risk of one or more specific exposures (reference exposure) to another party (protection provider).
</P>
<P><I>Guarantee asset</I> means the present value of a future consideration to be received for providing a financial guarantee on a portfolio of mortgage exposures not recognized on the balance sheet.




</P>
<P><I>Independent collateral</I> means financial collateral, other than variation margin, that is subject to a collateral agreement, or in which an Enterprise has a perfected, first-priority security interest or, outside of the United States, the legal equivalent thereof (with the exception of cash on deposit; notwithstanding the prior security interest of any custodial agent or any prior security interest granted to a CCP in connection with collateral posted to that CCP), and the amount of which does not change directly in response to the value of the derivative contract or contracts that the financial collateral secures.


</P>
<P><I>Investment grade</I> means that the entity to which the Enterprise is exposed through a loan or security, or the reference entity with respect to a credit derivative, has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments for the projected life of the asset or exposure. Such an entity or reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments if the risk of its default is low and the full and timely repayment of principal and interest is expected.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum transfer amount</I> means the smallest amount of variation margin that may be transferred between counterparties to a netting set pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security (MBS)</I> means a security collateralized by a pool or pools of mortgage exposures, including any pass-through or collateralized mortgage obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage exposure</I> means either a single-family mortgage exposure or a multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure that is secured by a first or subsequent lien on a property with five or more residential units.


</P>
<P><I>Mortgage servicing assets (MSAs)</I> means the contractual rights to service mortgage loans for a fee.


</P>
<P><I>Multilateral development bank (MDB)</I> means the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency, the International Finance Corporation, the Inter-American Development Bank, the Asian Development Bank, the African Development Bank, the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, the European Investment Bank, the European Investment Fund, the Nordic Investment Bank, the Caribbean Development Bank, the Islamic Development Bank, the Council of Europe Development Bank, and any other multilateral lending institution or regional development bank in which the U.S. government is a shareholder or contributing member or which FHFA determines poses comparable credit risk.


</P>
<P><I>Net independent collateral amount</I> means the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 1240.39(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to an Enterprise less the fair value amount of the independent collateral, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 1240.39(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the Enterprise to the counterparty, excluding such amounts held in a bankruptcy remote manner or posted to a QCCP and held in conformance with the operational requirements in § 1240.3.




</P>
<P><I>Netting set</I> means a group of transactions with a single counterparty that are subject to a qualifying master netting agreement or a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement. For derivative contracts, netting set also includes a single derivative contract between an Enterprise and a single counterparty.






</P>
<P><I>Non-guaranteed separate account</I> means a separate account where the insurance company:
</P>
<P>(1) Does not contractually guarantee either a minimum return or account value to the contract holder; and
</P>
<P>(2) Is not required to hold reserves (in the general account) pursuant to its contractual obligations to a policyholder.


</P>
<P><I>Nth-to-default credit derivative</I> means a credit derivative that provides credit protection only for the nth-defaulting reference exposure in a group of reference exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Original maturity</I> with respect to an off-balance sheet commitment means the length of time between the date a commitment is issued and:
</P>
<P>(1) For a commitment that is not subject to extension or renewal, the stated expiration date of the commitment; or
</P>
<P>(2) For a commitment that is subject to extension or renewal, the earliest date on which the Enterprise can, at its option, unconditionally cancel the commitment.
</P>
<P><I>Originating Enterprise,</I> with respect to a securitization, means an Enterprise that directly or indirectly originated or securitized the underlying exposures included in the securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Over-the-counter (OTC) derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract that is not a cleared transaction. An OTC derivative includes a transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Between an Enterprise that is a clearing member and a counterparty where the Enterprise is acting as a financial intermediary and enters into a cleared transaction with a CCP that offsets the transaction with the counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(2) In which an Enterprise that is a clearing member provides a CCP a guarantee on the performance of the counterparty to the transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Participation agreement</I> is defined in § 1240.33(a).
</P>
<P><I>Protection amount (P)</I> means, with respect to an exposure hedged by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative, the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative, reduced to reflect any currency mismatch, maturity mismatch, or lack of restructuring coverage (as provided in § 1240.38).
</P>
<P><I>Publicly-traded</I> means traded on:
</P>
<P>(1) Any exchange registered with the SEC as a national securities exchange under section 6 of the Securities Exchange Act; or
</P>
<P>(2) Any non-U.S.-based securities exchange that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is registered with, or approved by, a national securities regulatory authority; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Provides a liquid, two-way market for the instrument in question.
</P>
<P><I>Public sector entity (PSE)</I> means a state, local authority, or other governmental subdivision below the sovereign level.
</P>
<P><I>Qualifying central counterparty (QCCP)</I> means a central counterparty that:
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Is a designated financial market utility (FMU) under Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) If not located in the United States, is regulated and supervised in a manner equivalent to a designated FMU; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Meets the following standards:
</P>
<P>(A) The central counterparty requires all parties to contracts cleared by the counterparty to be fully collateralized on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(B) The Enterprise demonstrates to the satisfaction of FHFA that the central counterparty:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is in sound financial condition;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Is subject to supervision by the Federal Reserve Board, the CFTC, or the Securities Exchange Commission (SEC), or, if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, is subject to effective oversight by a national supervisory authority in its home country; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Meets or exceeds the risk-management standards for central counterparties set forth in regulations established by the Federal Reserve Board, the CFTC, or the SEC under Title VII or Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Act; or if the central counterparty is not located in the United States, meets or exceeds similar risk-management standards established under the law of its home country that are consistent with international standards for central counterparty risk management as established by the relevant standard setting body of the Bank of International Settlements; and
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Provides the Enterprise with the central counterparty's hypothetical capital requirement or the information necessary to calculate such hypothetical capital requirement, and other information the Enterprise is required to obtain under § 1240.37(d)(3);
</P>
<P>(ii) Makes available to FHFA and the CCP's regulator the information described in paragraph (2)(i) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Has not otherwise been determined by FHFA to not be a QCCP due to its financial condition, risk profile, failure to meet supervisory risk management standards, or other weaknesses or supervisory concerns that are inconsistent with the risk weight assigned to qualifying central counterparties under § 1240.37.
</P>
<P>(3) A QCCP that fails to meet the requirements of a QCCP in the future may still be treated as a QCCP under the conditions specified in § 1240.3(f).






</P>
<P><I>Qualifying cross-product master netting agreement</I> means a qualifying master netting agreement that provides for termination and close-out netting across multiple types of financial transactions or qualifying master netting agreements in the event of a counterparty's default, provided that the underlying financial transactions are OTC derivative contracts, eligible margin loans, or repo-style transactions. In order to treat an agreement as a qualifying cross-product master netting agreement for purposes of this subpart, an Enterprise must comply with the requirements of § 1240.3(c) with respect to that agreement.


</P>
<P><I>Qualifying master netting agreement</I> means a written, legally enforceable agreement provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The agreement creates a single legal obligation for all individual transactions covered by the agreement upon an event of default following any stay permitted by paragraph (2) of this definition, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty;
</P>
<P>(2) The agreement provides the Enterprise the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, conservatorship, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(i) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(A) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (2)(i)(A) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty; or
</P>
<P>(B) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (2)(i)(A) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with applicable law.
</P>
<P><I>Repo-style transaction</I> means a repurchase or reverse repurchase transaction, or a securities borrowing or securities lending transaction, including a transaction in which the Enterprise acts as agent for a customer and indemnifies the customer against loss, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The transaction is based solely on liquid and readily marketable securities, cash, or gold;
</P>
<P>(2) The transaction is marked-to-fair value daily and subject to daily margin maintenance requirements;
</P>
<P>(3)(i) The transaction is a “securities contract” or “repurchase agreement” under section 555 or 559, respectively, of the Bankruptcy Code (11 U.S.C. 555 or 559), a qualified financial contract under section 11(e)(8) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, or a netting contract between or among financial institutions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) If the transaction does not meet the criteria set forth in paragraph (3)(i) of this definition, then either:
</P>
<P>(A) The transaction is executed under an agreement that provides the Enterprise the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default, including upon an event of receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding, of the counterparty, provided that, in any such case:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any exercise of rights under the agreement will not be stayed or avoided under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions, other than:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) In receivership, conservatorship, or resolution under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, Title II of the Dodd-Frank Act, or under any similar insolvency law applicable to GSEs, or laws of foreign jurisdictions that are substantially similar to the U.S. laws referenced in this paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) in order to facilitate the orderly resolution of the defaulting counterparty;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Where the agreement is subject by its terms to, or incorporates, any of the laws referenced in paragraph (3)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>)(<I>i</I>) of this definition; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The agreement may limit the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out on a net basis all transactions under the agreement and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of default of the counterparty to the extent necessary for the counterparty to comply with applicable law; or
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Either overnight or unconditionally cancelable at any time by the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Executed under an agreement that provides the Enterprise the right to accelerate, terminate, and close-out the transaction on a net basis and to liquidate or set-off collateral promptly upon an event of counterparty default; and
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction for purposes of this subpart, an Enterprise must comply with the requirements of § 1240.3(e) with respect to that exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization</I> means a securitization which has more than one underlying exposure and in which one or more of the underlying exposures is a securitization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Resecuritization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on- or off-balance sheet exposure to a resecuritization; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a resecuritization exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Retained CRT exposure</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise, any exposure that arises from a credit risk transfer of the Enterprise and has been retained by the Enterprise since the issuance or entry into the credit risk transfer by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Revenue obligation</I> means a bond or similar obligation that is an obligation of a PSE, but which the PSE is committed to repay with revenues from the specific project financed rather than general tax funds.
</P>
<P><I>Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)</I> means the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Exchange Act</I> means the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78).
</P>
<P><I>Securitization exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An on-balance sheet or off-balance sheet credit exposure that arises from a traditional securitization or synthetic securitization (including a resecuritization);
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure that directly or indirectly references a securitization exposure described in paragraph (1) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(3) A retained CRT exposure; or
</P>
<P>(4) An acquired CRT exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Securitization special purpose entity (securitization SPE)</I> means a corporation, trust, or other entity organized for the specific purpose of holding underlying exposures of a securitization, the activities of which are limited to those appropriate to accomplish this purpose, and the structure of which is intended to isolate the underlying exposures held by the entity from the credit risk of the seller of the underlying exposures to the entity.
</P>
<P><I>Separate account</I> means a legally segregated pool of assets owned and held by an insurance company and maintained separately from the insurance company's general account assets for the benefit of an individual contract holder. To be a separate account:
</P>
<P>(1) The account must be legally recognized as a separate account under applicable law;
</P>
<P>(2) The assets in the account must be insulated from general liabilities of the insurance company under applicable law in the event of the insurance company's insolvency;
</P>
<P>(3) The insurance company must invest the funds within the account as directed by the contract holder in designated investment alternatives or in accordance with specific investment objectives or policies; and
</P>
<P>(4) All investment gains and losses, net of contract fees and assessments, must be passed through to the contract holder, provided that the contract may specify conditions under which there may be a minimum guarantee but must not include contract terms that limit the maximum investment return available to the policyholder.
</P>
<P><I>Servicer cash advance facility</I> means a facility under which the servicer of the underlying exposures of a securitization may advance cash to ensure an uninterrupted flow of payments to investors in the securitization, including advances made to cover foreclosure costs or other expenses to facilitate the timely collection of the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Single-family mortgage exposure</I> means an exposure that is secured by a first or subsequent lien on a property with one to four residential units.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign</I> means a central government (including the U.S. government) or an agency, department, ministry, or central bank of a central government.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign default</I> means noncompliance by a sovereign with its external debt service obligations or the inability or unwillingness of a sovereign government to service an existing loan according to its original terms, as evidenced by failure to pay principal and interest timely and fully, arrearages, or restructuring.
</P>
<P><I>Sovereign exposure</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct exposure to a sovereign; or
</P>
<P>(2) An exposure directly and unconditionally backed by the full faith and credit of a sovereign.
</P>
<P><I>Specific wrong-way risk</I> means wrong-way risk that arises when either:
</P>
<P>(1) The counterparty and issuer of the collateral supporting the transaction; or
</P>
<P>(2) The counterparty and the reference asset of the transaction, are affiliates or are the same entity.


</P>
<P><I>Speculative grade</I> means the reference entity has adequate capacity to meet financial commitments in the near term, but is vulnerable to adverse economic conditions, such that should economic conditions deteriorate, the reference entity would present an elevated default risk.


</P>
<P><I>Standardized market risk-weighted assets</I> means the standardized measure for spread risk calculated under § 1240.204(a) multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P><I>Standardized total risk-weighted assets</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The sum of—
</P>
<P>(i) Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk as calculated under § 1240.31;
</P>
<P>(ii) Total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions and default fund contributions as calculated under § 1240.37;
</P>
<P>(iii) Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions as calculated under § 1240.40;
</P>
<P>(iv) Total risk-weighted assets for retained CRT exposures, acquired CRT exposures, and other securitization exposures as calculated under § 1240.42;
</P>
<P>(v) Total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures as calculated under § 1240.52;


</P>
<P>(vi) Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets as calculated under § 1240.36(d);


</P>
<P>(vii) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk, as calculated under § 1240.162(c) or § 1240.162(d), as applicable; and






</P>
<P>(viii) Standardized market risk-weighted assets, as calculated under § 1240.204; minus


</P>
<P>(2) Excess eligible credit reserves not included in the Enterprise's tier 2 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means, with respect to a company, a company controlled by that company.
</P>
<P><I>Sub-speculative grade</I> means the reference entity depends on favorable economic conditions to meet its financial commitments, such that should such economic conditions deteriorate the reference entity likely would default on its financial commitments.


</P>
<P><I>Synthetic securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is retained or transferred to one or more third parties through the use of one or more credit derivatives or guarantees (other than a guarantee that transfers only the credit risk of an individual mortgage exposure or other retail exposure);
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures; and
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as mortgage exposures, loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities).
</P>
<P><I>Tier 1 capital</I> means the sum of common equity tier 1 capital and additional tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P><I>Tier 2 capital</I> is defined in § 1240.20(d).


</P>
<P><I>Time-based call</I> means a contractual provision that permits an originating Enterprise to redeem a securitization exposure on or after a specified redemption or cancellation date.


</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> has the meaning given in section 1303(23) of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4502(23)).
</P>
<P><I>Traditional securitization</I> means a transaction in which:
</P>
<P>(1) All or a portion of the credit risk of one or more underlying exposures is transferred to one or more third parties other than through the use of credit derivatives or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk associated with the underlying exposures has been separated into at least two tranches reflecting different levels of seniority;
</P>
<P>(3) Performance of the securitization exposures depends upon the performance of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(4) All or substantially all of the underlying exposures are financial exposures (such as mortgage exposures, loans, commitments, credit derivatives, guarantees, receivables, asset-backed securities, mortgage-backed securities, other debt securities, or equity securities);
</P>
<P>(5) The underlying exposures are not owned by an operating company;
</P>
<P>(6) The underlying exposures are not owned by a small business investment company defined in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act;
</P>
<P>(7) The underlying exposures are not owned by a firm an investment in which qualifies as a community development investment under section 24 (Eleventh) of the National Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(8) FHFA may determine that a transaction in which the underlying exposures are owned by an investment firm that exercises substantially unfettered control over the size and composition of its assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet exposures is not a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance;
</P>
<P>(9) FHFA may deem a transaction that meets the definition of a traditional securitization, notwithstanding paragraph (5), (6), or (7) of this definition, to be a traditional securitization based on the transaction's leverage, risk profile, or economic substance; and
</P>
<P>(10) The transaction is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An investment fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) A collective investment fund held by a State member bank as fiduciary and, consistent with local law, invested collectively—
</P>
<P>(A) In a common trust fund maintained by such bank exclusively for the collective investment and reinvestment of monies contributed thereto by the bank in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, guardian, or custodian under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act; or
</P>
<P>(B) In a fund consisting solely of assets of retirement, pension, profit sharing, stock bonus or similar trusts which are exempt from Federal income taxation under the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C.).
</P>
<P>(iii) An employee benefit plan (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(3)), a governmental plan (as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1002(32)) that complies with the tax deferral qualification requirements provided in the Internal Revenue Code;
</P>
<P>(iv) A synthetic exposure to the capital of a financial institution to the extent deducted from capital under § 1240.22; or
</P>
<P>(v) Registered with the SEC under the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>) or foreign equivalents thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Tranche</I> means all securitization exposures associated with a securitization that have the same seniority level.
</P>
<P><I>Transition order</I> means an order issued by the Director under section 1371 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4631), a plan required by the Director under section 1313B of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513b), or an order, agreement, or similar arrangement of FHFA that, in any case, provides for a compliance date for a requirement of this part that is later than the compliance date for the requirement specified under § 1240.4.
</P>
<P><I>Unconditionally cancelable</I> means with respect to a commitment, that an Enterprise may, at any time, with or without cause, refuse to extend credit under the commitment (to the extent permitted under applicable law).
</P>
<P><I>Underlying exposures</I> means one or more exposures that have been securitized in a securitization transaction.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Mortgage-backed Security (UMBS)</I> means the same as that defined in § 1248.1.
</P>
<P><I>Value-at-Risk (VaR)</I> means the estimate of the maximum amount that the value of one or more exposures could decline due to market price or rate movements during a fixed holding period within a stated confidence interval.


</P>
<P><I>Variation margin</I> means financial collateral that is subject to a collateral agreement provided by one party to its counterparty to meet the performance of the first party's obligations under one or more transactions between the parties as a result of a change in value of such obligations since the last time such financial collateral was provided.


</P>
<P><I>Variation margin agreement</I> means an agreement to collect or post variation margin.


</P>
<P><I>Variation margin amount</I> means the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 1240.39(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, that a counterparty to a netting set has posted to an Enterprise less the fair value amount of the variation margin, as adjusted by the standard supervisory haircuts under § 1240.39(b)(2)(ii), as applicable, posted by the Enterprise to the counterparty.




</P>
<P><I>Variation margin threshold</I> means the amount of credit exposure of an Enterprise to its counterparty that, if exceeded, would require the counterparty to post variation margin to the Enterprise pursuant to the variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Volatility derivative contract</I> means a derivative contract in which the payoff of the derivative contract explicitly depends on a measure of the volatility of an underlying risk factor to the derivative contract.


</P>
<P><I>Wrong-way risk</I> means the risk that arises when an exposure to a particular counterparty is positively correlated with the probability of default of such counterparty itself.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022; 88 FR 83474, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.3   Operational requirements for counterparty credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of calculating risk-weighted assets under subpart D of this part:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Cleared transaction.</I> In order to recognize certain exposures as cleared transactions pursuant to paragraphs (1)(ii), (iii), or (iv) of the definition of “cleared transaction” in § 1240.2, the exposures must meet the applicable requirements set forth in this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(1) The offsetting transaction must be identified by the CCP as a transaction for the clearing member client.
</P>
<P>(2) The collateral supporting the transaction must be held in a manner that prevents the Enterprise from facing any loss due to an event of default, including from a liquidation, receivership, insolvency, or similar proceeding of either the clearing member or the clearing member's other clients.
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from a default or receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section to be legal, valid, binding and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(4) The offsetting transaction with a clearing member must be transferable under the transaction documents and applicable laws in the relevant jurisdiction(s) to another clearing member should the clearing member default, become insolvent, or enter receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceedings.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible margin loan.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as an eligible margin loan as defined in § 1240.2, an Enterprise must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (1)(iii) of the definition of “eligible margin loan” in § 1240.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(c) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Qualifying master netting agreement.</I> In order to recognize an agreement as a qualifying master netting agreement as defined in § 1240.2, an Enterprise must:
</P>
<P>(1) Conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that:
</P>
<P>(i) The agreement meets the requirements of paragraph (2) of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 1240.2; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from default or from receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the agreement to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(2) Establish and maintain written procedures to monitor possible changes in relevant law and to ensure that the agreement continues to satisfy the requirements of the definition of “qualifying master netting agreement” in § 1240.2.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Repo-style transaction.</I> In order to recognize an exposure as a repo-style transaction as defined in § 1240.2, an Enterprise must conduct sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintain sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that the agreement underlying the exposure:
</P>
<P>(1) Meets the requirements of paragraph (3) of the definition of “repo-style transaction” in § 1240.2, and
</P>
<P>(2) Is legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under applicable law in the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Failure of a QCCP to satisfy the rule's requirements.</I> If an Enterprise determines that a CCP ceases to be a QCCP due to the failure of the CCP to satisfy one or more of the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a “QCCP” in § 1240.2, the Enterprise may continue to treat the CCP as a QCCP for up to three months following the determination. If the CCP fails to remedy the relevant deficiency within three months after the initial determination, or the CCP fails to satisfy the requirements set forth in paragraphs (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a “QCCP” continuously for a three-month period after remedying the relevant deficiency, an Enterprise may not treat the CCP as a QCCP for the purposes of this part until after the Enterprise has determined that the CCP has satisfied the requirements in paragraphs (2)(i) through (iii) of the definition of a “QCCP” for three continuous months.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.4   Transition.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Compliance dates.</I> An Enterprise will not be subject to any requirement under this part until the compliance date for the requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting requirements.</I> (1) For any reporting requirement under § 1240.1(f) or § 1240.41, the compliance date will be January 1, 2022.
</P>
<P>(2) For any reporting requirement under §§ 1240.61 through 1240.63, the compliance date will be no later than 10 business days after an Enterprise files its Annual Report on SEC Form 10-K for the fiscal year ending December 31, 2022.
</P>
<P>(3) For any reporting requirement under § 1240.205, the compliance date will be no later than 10 business days after an Enterprise files its Annual Report on SEC Form 10-K for the fiscal year ending December 31, 2022.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advanced approaches requirements.</I> Any requirement under subpart E or F (other than § 1240.162(d) or any requirement to calculate the standardized measure for spread risk under § 1240.204) will have a compliance date of the later of January 1, 2028 and any later compliance date for that requirement provided in a transition order applicable to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital requirements and buffers</I>—(1) <I>Requirements.</I> The compliance date of any requirement under § 1240.10 will be the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The date of the termination of the conservatorship of the Enterprise (or, if later, the effective date of this part); and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any later compliance date for § 1240.10 provided in a transition order applicable to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Buffers.</I> The compliance date of any requirement under § 1240.11 will be the date of the termination of the conservatorship of the Enterprise (or, if later, the effective date of this part).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Capital restoration plan.</I> If a transition order of an Enterprise provides a compliance date for § 1240.10, the Director may determine that, for the period between the compliance date for § 1240.11 under paragraph (d)(2) of this section and any later compliance date for § 1240.10 provided in the transition order—
</P>
<P>(i) The prescribed capital conservation buffer amount of the Enterprise will be the amount equal to the sum of—
</P>
<P>(A) The common equity tier 1 capital that would otherwise be required under § 1240.10(d); and
</P>
<P>(B) The prescribed capital conservation buffer amount that would otherwise apply under § 1240.11(a)(5); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The prescribed leverage buffer amount of the Enterprise will be equal to 4.0 percent of the adjusted total assets of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Prudential standard.</I> If the Director makes a determination under paragraph (d)(3) of this section, § 1240.11 will be a prudential standard adopted under section 1313B of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4513b) until the compliance date of § 1240.10.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 33429, June 2, 2022; 88 FR 83476, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Requirements and Buffers</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.10   Capital requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Total capital.</I> An Enterprise must maintain total capital not less than the amount equal to 8.0 percent of the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted total capital.</I> An Enterprise must maintain adjusted total capital not less than the amount equal to 8.0 percent of the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tier 1 capital.</I> An Enterprise must maintain tier 1 capital not less than the amount equal to 6.0 percent of the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital.</I> An Enterprise must maintain common equity tier 1 capital not less than the amount equal to 4.5 percent of the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) Standardized total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(2) Advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Core capital.</I> An Enterprise must maintain core capital not less than the amount equal to 2.5 percent of adjusted total assets.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Leverage ratio.</I> An Enterprise must maintain tier 1 capital not less than the amount equal to 2.5 percent of adjusted total assets.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Capital adequacy.</I> (1) Notwithstanding the minimum requirements in this part, an Enterprise must maintain capital commensurate with the level and nature of all risks to which the Enterprise is exposed. The supervisory evaluation of an Enterprise's capital adequacy is based on an individual assessment of numerous factors, including the character and condition of the Enterprise's assets and its existing and prospective liabilities and other corporate responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must have a process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.11   Capital conservation buffer and leverage buffer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Capital conservation buffer.</I> An Enterprise's capital conservation buffer is the amount calculated under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligible retained income.</I> The eligible retained income of an Enterprise is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise's net income, as defined under GAAP, for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter, net of any distributions and associated tax effects not already reflected in net income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The average of the Enterprise's net income for the four calendar quarters preceding the current calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Leverage buffer.</I> An Enterprise's leverage buffer is the amount calculated under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio is the percentage of eligible retained income that an Enterprise can pay out in the form of distributions and discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter. The maximum payout ratio is determined under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prescribed capital conservation buffer amount.</I> An Enterprise's prescribed capital conservation buffer amount is equal to its stress capital buffer in accordance with paragraph (a)(7) of this section plus its applicable countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section plus its applicable stability capital buffer in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Prescribed leverage buffer amount.</I> An Enterprise's prescribed leverage buffer amount is 50 percent of the Enterprise's stability capital buffer calculated in accordance with subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Stress capital buffer.</I> (i) The stress capital buffer for an Enterprise is the stress capital buffer determined under § 1240.500 except as provided in paragraph (a)(7)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If an Enterprise has not yet received a stress capital buffer requirement, its stress capital buffer for purposes of this part is 0.75 percent of the Enterprise's adjusted total assets, as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Maximum payout amount</I>—(1) <I>Limits on distributions and discretionary bonus payments.</I> An Enterprise shall not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments or create an obligation to make such distributions or payments during the current calendar quarter that, in the aggregate, exceed the amount equal to the Enterprise's eligible retained income for the calendar quarter, multiplied by its maximum payout ratio.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum payout ratio.</I> The maximum payout ratio of an Enterprise is the lowest of the payout ratios determined by its capital conservation buffer and its leverage buffer, as set forth on Table 1 to paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>No maximum payout amount limitation.</I> An Enterprise is not subject to a restriction under paragraph (b)(1) of this section if it has:
</P>
<P>(i) A capital conservation buffer that is greater than its prescribed capital conservation buffer amount; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A leverage buffer that is greater than its prescribed leverage buffer amount.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Negative eligible retained income.</I> An Enterprise may not make distributions or discretionary bonus payments during the current calendar quarter if:
</P>
<P>(i) The eligible retained income of the Enterprise is negative; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Either:
</P>
<P>(A) The capital conservation buffer of the Enterprise was less than its stress capital buffer; or
</P>
<P>(B) The leverage buffer of the Enterprise was less than its prescribed leverage buffer amount.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Prior approval.</I> Notwithstanding the limitations in paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, FHFA may permit an Enterprise to make a distribution or discretionary bonus payment upon a request of the Enterprise, if FHFA determines that the distribution or discretionary bonus payment would not be contrary to the purposes of this section or to the safety and soundness of the Enterprise. In making such a determination, FHFA will consider the nature and extent of the request and the particular circumstances giving rise to the request.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.011.gif"/>
<P>(c) <I>Capital conservation buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the capital conservation buffer.</I> The capital conservation buffer is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of capital conservation buffer.</I> (i) An Enterprise's capital conservation buffer is equal to the lowest of the following, calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter:
</P>
<P>(A) The Enterprise's adjusted total capital minus the minimum amount of adjusted total capital under § 1240.10(b);
</P>
<P>(B) The Enterprise's tier 1 capital minus the minimum amount of tier 1 capital under § 1240.10(c); or
</P>
<P>(C) The Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital minus the minimum amount of common equity tier 1 capital under § 1240.10(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(2)(i)(A) through (C) of this section, if the Enterprise's adjusted total capital, tier 1 capital, or common equity tier 1 capital is less than or equal to the Enterprise's minimum adjusted total capital, tier 1 capital, or common equity tier 1 capital, respectively, the Enterprise's capital conservation buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Leverage buffer</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the leverage buffer.</I> The leverage buffer is composed solely of tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Calculation of the leverage buffer.</I> (i) An Enterprise's leverage buffer is equal to the Enterprise's tier 1 capital minus the minimum amount of tier 1 capital under § 1240.10(f), calculated as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, if the Enterprise's tier 1 capital is less than or equal to the minimum amount of tier 1 capital under § 1240.10(d), the Enterprise's leverage buffer is zero.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(1) <I>Composition of the countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount is composed solely of common equity tier 1 capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>Initial countercyclical capital buffer.</I> The initial countercyclical capital buffer amount is zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustment of the countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> FHFA will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount in accordance with applicable law.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Range of countercyclical capital buffer amount.</I> FHFA will adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount between zero percent and 0.75 percent of adjusted total assets.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Adjustment determination.</I> FHFA will base its decision to adjust the countercyclical capital buffer amount under this section on a range of macroeconomic, financial, and supervisory information indicating an increase in systemic risk, including the ratio of credit to gross domestic product, a variety of asset prices, other factors indicative of relative credit and liquidity expansion or contraction, funding spreads, credit condition surveys, indices based on credit default swap spreads, options implied volatility, and measures of systemic risk.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Effective date of adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount</I>—(i) <I>Increase adjustment.</I> A determination by FHFA under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section to increase the countercyclical capital buffer amount will be effective 12 months from the date of announcement, unless FHFA establishes an earlier effective date and includes a statement articulating the reasons for the earlier effective date.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Decrease adjustment.</I> A determination by FHFA to decrease the established countercyclical capital buffer amount under paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section will be effective on the day following announcement of the final determination or the earliest date permissible under applicable law or regulation, whichever is later.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Twelve month sunset.</I> The countercyclical capital buffer amount will return to zero percent 12 months after the effective date that the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount is announced, unless FHFA announces a decision to maintain the adjusted countercyclical capital buffer amount or adjust it again before the expiration of the 12-month period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Stability capital buffer.</I> An Enterprise must use its stability capital buffer calculated in accordance with subpart G of this part for purposes of determining its maximum payout ratio under Table 1 to paragraph (b)(5) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022; 87 FR 33617, June 3, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Definition of Capital</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.20   Capital components and eligibility criteria for regulatory capital instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital components.</I> An Enterprise's regulatory capital components are:
</P>
<P>(1) Common equity tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(2) Additional tier 1 capital;
</P>
<P>(3) Tier 2 capital;
</P>
<P>(4) Core capital; and
</P>
<P>(5) Total capital.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Common equity tier 1 capital.</I> Common equity tier 1 capital is the sum of the common equity tier 1 capital elements in this paragraph (b), minus regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 1240.22. The common equity tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Any common stock instruments (plus any related surplus) issued by the Enterprise, net of treasury stock, that meet all the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is paid-in, issued directly by the Enterprise, and represents the most subordinated claim in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(ii) The holder of the instrument is entitled to a claim on the residual assets of the Enterprise that is proportional with the holder's share of the Enterprise's issued capital after all senior claims have been satisfied in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument has no maturity date, can only be redeemed via discretionary repurchases with the prior approval of FHFA to the extent otherwise required by law or regulation, and does not contain any term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Enterprise did not create at issuance of the instrument through any action or communication an expectation that it will buy back, cancel, or redeem the instrument, and the instrument does not include any term or feature that might give rise to such an expectation;
</P>
<P>(v) Any cash dividend payments on the instrument are paid out of the Enterprise's net income, retained earnings, or surplus related to common stock, and are not subject to a limit imposed by the contractual terms governing the instrument.
</P>
<P>(vi) The Enterprise has full discretion at all times to refrain from paying any dividends and making any other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of any other restrictions on the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(vii) Dividend payments and any other distributions on the instrument may be paid only after all legal and contractual obligations of the Enterprise have been satisfied, including payments due on more senior claims;
</P>
<P>(viii) The holders of the instrument bear losses as they occur equally, proportionately, and simultaneously with the holders of all other common stock instruments before any losses are borne by holders of claims on the Enterprise with greater priority in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(ix) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(x) The Enterprise, or an entity that the Enterprise controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xi) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Enterprise or of an affiliate of the Enterprise, and is not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument has been issued in accordance with applicable laws and regulations; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) The instrument is reported on the Enterprise's regulatory financial statements separately from other capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(2) Retained earnings.
</P>
<P>(3) Accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI) as reported under GAAP.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> <I>See</I> § 1240.22 for specific adjustments related to AOCI.</P></FTNT>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding the criteria for common stock instruments referenced above, an Enterprise's common stock issued and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (b)(1)(iii), (iv), or (xi) of this section, provided that any repurchase of the stock is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of an Enterprise that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by an Enterprise to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criterion in paragraph (b)(1)(x) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional tier 1 capital.</I> Additional tier 1 capital is the sum of additional tier 1 capital elements and any related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 1240.22. Additional tier 1 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, instruments (plus any related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in;
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors and subordinated debt holders of the Enterprise in a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Enterprise or of an affiliate of the Enterprise, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument;
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has no maturity date and does not contain a dividend step-up or any other term or feature that creates an incentive to redeem; and
</P>
<P>(v) If callable by its terms, the instrument may be called by the Enterprise only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called earlier than five years upon the occurrence of a regulatory event that precludes the instrument from being included in additional tier 1 capital, a tax event, or if the issuing entity is required to register as an investment company pursuant to the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-1 <I>et seq.</I>). In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The Enterprise must receive prior approval from FHFA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The Enterprise does not create at issuance of the instrument, through any action or communication, an expectation that the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the Enterprise must either: Replace the instrument to be called with an equal amount of instruments that meet the criteria under paragraph (b) of this section or this paragraph (c); 
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that following redemption, the Enterprise will continue to hold capital commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> Replacement can be concurrent with redemption of existing additional tier 1 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) Redemption or repurchase of the instrument requires prior approval from FHFA.
</P>
<P>(vii) The Enterprise has full discretion at all times to cancel dividends or other distributions on the instrument without triggering an event of default, a requirement to make a payment-in-kind, or an imposition of other restrictions on the Enterprise except in relation to any distributions to holders of common stock or instruments that are <I>pari passu</I> with the instrument.
</P>
<P>(viii) Any distributions on the instrument are paid out of the Enterprise's net income, retained earnings, or surplus related to other additional tier 1 capital instruments.
</P>
<P>(ix) The instrument does not have a credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Enterprise's credit quality, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Enterprise's credit quality, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(x) The paid-in amount is classified as equity under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(xi) The Enterprise, or an entity that the Enterprise controls, did not purchase or directly or indirectly fund the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(xii) The instrument does not have any features that would limit or discourage additional issuance of capital by the Enterprise, such as provisions that require the Enterprise to compensate holders of the instrument if a new instrument is issued at a lower price during a specified time frame.
</P>
<P>(xiii) If the instrument is not issued directly by the Enterprise or by a subsidiary of the Enterprise that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the Enterprise, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the Enterprise or to the Enterprise's top-tier holding company in a form which meets or exceeds all of the other criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> <I>De minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity can be disregarded for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(xiv) The governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after February 16, 2021 must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the Enterprise enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the criteria for additional tier 1 capital instruments referenced above, an instrument issued by an Enterprise and held in trust for the benefit of its employees as part of an employee stock ownership plan does not violate any of the criteria in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section, provided that any repurchase is required solely by virtue of ERISA for an instrument of an Enterprise that is not publicly-traded. In addition, an instrument issued by an Enterprise to its employee stock ownership plan does not violate the criteria in paragraphs (c)(1)(v) or (c)(1)(xi) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Tier 2 capital.</I> Tier 2 capital is the sum of tier 2 capital elements and any related surplus, minus the regulatory adjustments and deductions in § 1240.22. Tier 2 capital elements are:
</P>
<P>(1) Subject to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, instruments (plus related surplus) that meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) The instrument is issued and paid-in.
</P>
<P>(ii) The instrument is subordinated to general creditors of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(iii) The instrument is not secured, not covered by a guarantee of the Enterprise or of an affiliate of the Enterprise, and not subject to any other arrangement that legally or economically enhances the seniority of the instrument in relation to more senior claims.
</P>
<P>(iv) The instrument has a minimum original maturity of at least five years. At the beginning of each of the last five years of the life of the instrument, the amount that is eligible to be included in tier 2 capital is reduced by 20 percent of the original amount of the instrument (net of redemptions) and is excluded from regulatory capital when the remaining maturity is less than one year. In addition, the instrument must not have any terms or features that require, or create significant incentives for, the Enterprise to redeem the instrument prior to maturity.
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> An instrument that by its terms automatically converts into a tier 1 capital instrument prior to five years after issuance complies with the five-year maturity requirement of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(v) The instrument, by its terms, may be called by the Enterprise only after a minimum of five years following issuance, except that the terms of the instrument may allow it to be called sooner upon the occurrence of an event that would preclude the instrument from being included in tier 2 capital, a tax event. In addition:
</P>
<P>(A) The Enterprise must receive the prior approval of FHFA to exercise a call option on the instrument.
</P>
<P>(B) The Enterprise does not create at issuance, through action or communication, an expectation the call option will be exercised.
</P>
<P>(C) Prior to exercising the call option, or immediately thereafter, the Enterprise must either: Replace any amount called with an equivalent amount of an instrument that meets the criteria for regulatory capital under this section; 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that following redemption, the Enterprise would continue to hold an amount of capital that is commensurate with its risk.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> An Enterprise may replace tier 2 capital instruments concurrent with the redemption of existing tier 2 capital instruments.</P></FTNT>
<P>(vi) The holder of the instrument must have no contractual right to accelerate payment of principal or interest on the instrument, except in the event of a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(vii) The instrument has no credit-sensitive feature, such as a dividend or interest rate that is reset periodically based in whole or in part on the Enterprise's credit standing, but may have a dividend rate that is adjusted periodically independent of the Enterprise's credit standing, in relation to general market interest rates or similar adjustments.
</P>
<P>(viii) The Enterprise, or an entity that the Enterprise controls, has not purchased and has not directly or indirectly funded the purchase of the instrument.
</P>
<P>(ix) If the instrument is not issued directly by the Enterprise or by a subsidiary of the Enterprise that is an operating entity, the only asset of the issuing entity is its investment in the capital of the Enterprise, and proceeds must be immediately available without limitation to the Enterprise or the Enterprise's top-tier holding company in a form that meets or exceeds all the other criteria for tier 2 capital instruments under this section.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> An Enterprise may disregard <I>de minimis</I> assets related to the operation of the issuing entity for purposes of this criterion.</P></FTNT>
<P>(x) Redemption of the instrument prior to maturity or repurchase requires the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(xi) The governing agreement, offering circular, or prospectus of an instrument issued after February 16, 2021 must disclose that the holders of the instrument may be fully subordinated to interests held by the U.S. government in the event that the Enterprise enters into a receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P>(2) Any eligible credit reserves that exceed expected credit losses to the extent that the excess reserve amount does not exceed 0.6 percent of credit risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FHFA approval of a capital element.</I> (1) An Enterprise must receive FHFA prior approval to include a capital element (as listed in this section) in its common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital unless the element:
</P>
<P>(i) Was included in an Enterprise's tier 1 capital or tier 2 capital prior to June 30, 2020 and the underlying instrument may continue to be included under the criteria set forth in this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is equivalent, in terms of capital quality and ability to absorb losses with respect to all material terms, to a regulatory capital element FHFA determined may be included in regulatory capital pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise may not include an instrument in its additional tier 1 capital or a tier 2 capital unless FHFA has determined that the Enterprise has made appropriate provision, including in any resolution plan of the Enterprise, to ensure that the instrument would not pose a material impediment to the ability of an Enterprise to issue common stock instruments following the appointment of FHFA as conservator or receiver under the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(3) After determining that a regulatory capital element may be included in an Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, or tier 2 capital, FHFA will make its decision publicly available, including a brief description of the material terms of the regulatory capital element and the rationale for the determination.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>FHFA prior approval.</I> An Enterprise may not repurchase or redeem any common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1, or tier 2 capital instrument without the prior approval of FHFA to the extent such prior approval is required by paragraph (b), (c), or (d) of this section, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.22   Regulatory capital adjustments and deductions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulatory capital deductions from common equity tier 1 capital.</I> An Enterprise must deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements the items set forth in this paragraph (a):
</P>
<P>(1) Goodwill, net of associated deferred tax liabilities (DTLs) in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Intangible assets, other than MSAs, net of associated DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Deferred tax assets (DTAs) that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(4) Any gain-on-sale in connection with a securitization exposure;
</P>
<P>(5) Any defined benefit pension fund net asset, net of any associated DTL in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section, held by the Enterprise. With the prior approval of FHFA, this deduction is not required for any defined benefit pension fund net asset to the extent the Enterprise has unrestricted and unfettered access to the assets in that fund. An Enterprise must risk weight any portion of the defined benefit pension fund asset that is not deducted under this paragraph (a) as if the Enterprise directly holds a proportional ownership share of each exposure in the defined benefit pension fund.
</P>
<P>(6) The amount of expected credit loss that exceeds its eligible credit reserves.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Regulatory adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital.</I> (1) An Enterprise must adjust the sum of common equity tier 1 capital elements pursuant to the requirements set forth in this paragraph (b). Such adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital must be made net of the associated deferred tax effects.
</P>
<P>(i) An Enterprise must deduct any accumulated net gains and add any accumulated net losses on cash flow hedges included in AOCI that relate to the hedging of items that are not recognized at fair value on the balance sheet.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise must deduct any net gain and add any net loss related to changes in the fair value of liabilities that are due to changes in the Enterprise's own credit risk. An Enterprise must deduct the difference between its credit spread premium and the risk-free rate for derivatives that are liabilities as part of this adjustment.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deductions from regulatory capital related to investments in capital instruments.</I>
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> An Enterprise must deduct an investment in the Enterprise's own capital instruments as follows:
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> The Enterprise must calculate amounts deducted under paragraphs (c) through (f) of this section after it calculates the amount of ALLL or AACL, as applicable, includable in tier 2 capital under § 1240.20(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>(1) An Enterprise must deduct an investment in the Enterprise's own common stock instruments from its common equity tier 1 capital elements to the extent such instruments are not excluded from regulatory capital under § 1240.20(b)(1);
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must deduct an investment in the Enterprise's own additional tier 1 capital instruments from its additional tier 1 capital elements; and
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must deduct an investment in the Enterprise's own tier 2 capital instruments from its tier 2 capital elements.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Items subject to the 10 and 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds.</I> (1) An Enterprise must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the amount of each of the items set forth in this paragraph (d) that, individually, exceeds 10 percent of the sum of the Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital elements, less adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section (the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
</P>
<P>(i) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. An Enterprise is not required to deduct from the sum of its common equity tier 1 capital elements DTAs (net of any related valuation allowances and net of DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section) arising from timing differences that the Enterprise could realize through net operating loss carrybacks. The Enterprise must risk weight these assets at 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) MSAs net of associated DTLs, in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital elements the items listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section that are not deducted as a result of the application of the 10 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold, and that, in aggregate, exceed 17.65 percent of the sum of the Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital elements, minus adjustments to and deductions from common equity tier 1 capital required under paragraphs (a) through (c) of this section, minus the items listed in paragraph (d)(1) of this section (the 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction threshold).
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> The amount of the items in paragraph (d) of this section that is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to this section must be included in the risk-weighted assets of the Enterprise and assigned a 250 percent risk weight.</P></FTNT>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the 10 and 15 percent common equity tier 1 capital deduction thresholds, an Enterprise may exclude DTAs and DTLs relating to adjustments made to common equity tier 1 capital under paragraph (b) of this section. An Enterprise that elects to exclude DTAs relating to adjustments under paragraph (b) of this section also must exclude DTLs and must do so consistently in all future calculations. An Enterprise may change its exclusion preference only after obtaining the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Netting of DTLs against assets subject to deduction.</I> (1) Except as described in paragraph (e)(3) of this section, netting of DTLs against assets that are subject to deduction under this section is permitted, but not required, if the following conditions are met:
</P>
<P>(i) The DTL is associated with the asset; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The DTL would be extinguished if the associated asset becomes impaired or is derecognized under GAAP.
</P>
<P>(2) A DTL may only be netted against a single asset.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of calculating the amount of DTAs subject to the threshold deduction in paragraph (d) of this section, the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, may be offset by DTLs (that have not been netted against assets subject to deduction pursuant to paragraph (e)(1) of this section) subject to the conditions set forth in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(i) Only the DTAs and DTLs that relate to taxes levied by the same taxation authority and that are eligible for offsetting by that authority may be offset for purposes of this deduction.
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount of DTLs that the Enterprise nets against DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards, net of any related valuation allowances, and against DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks, net of any related valuation allowances, must be allocated in proportion to the amount of DTAs that arise from net operating loss and tax credit carryforwards (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs) and of DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks (net of any related valuation allowances, but before any offsetting of DTLs), respectively.
</P>
<P>(4) An Enterprise must net DTLs against assets subject to deduction under this section in a consistent manner from reporting period to reporting period. An Enterprise may change its preference regarding the manner in which it nets DTLs against specific assets subject to deduction under this section only after obtaining the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insufficient amounts of a specific regulatory capital component to effect deductions.</I> Under the corresponding deduction approach, if an Enterprise does not have a sufficient amount of a specific component of capital to effect the required deduction after completing the deductions required under paragraph (d) of this section, the Enterprise must deduct the shortfall from the next higher (that is, more subordinated) component of regulatory capital.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Treatment of assets that are deducted.</I> An Enterprise must exclude from standardized total risk-weighted assets and advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets any item deducted from regulatory capital under paragraphs (a), (c), and (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Risk-Weighted Assets—Standardized Approach</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.30   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth methodologies for determining risk-weighted assets for purposes of the generally applicable risk-based capital requirements for the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(b) This subpart is also applicable to covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<HD1>Risk-Weighted Assets for General Credit Risk


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.31   Mechanics for calculating risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General risk-weighting requirements.</I> An Enterprise must apply risk weights to its exposures as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) An Enterprise must determine the exposure amount of each mortgage exposure, each other on-balance sheet exposure, each OTC derivative contract, and each off-balance sheet commitment, trade and transaction-related contingency, guarantee, repo-style transaction, forward agreement, or other similar transaction that is not:
</P>
<P>(i) An unsettled transaction subject to § 1240.40;
</P>
<P>(ii) A cleared transaction subject to § 1240.37;
</P>
<P>(iii) A default fund contribution subject to § 1240.37;
</P>
<P>(iv) A retained CRT exposure, acquired CRT exposure, or other securitization exposure subject to §§ 1240.41 through 1240.46; 
</P>
<P>(v) An equity exposure (other than an equity OTC derivative contract) subject to §§ 1240.51 and 1240.52; or
</P>
<P>(vi) CVA risk-weighted assets subject to § 1240.36(d).


</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must multiply each exposure amount by the risk weight appropriate to the exposure based on the exposure type or counterparty, eligible guarantor, or financial collateral to determine the risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for general credit risk equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts calculated under this section.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83476, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.32   General risk weights.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposures to the U.S. government.</I> (1) Notwithstanding any other requirement in this subpart, an Enterprise must assign a zero percent risk weight to:
</P>
<P>(i) An exposure to the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The portion of an exposure that is directly and unconditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes a deposit or other exposure, or the portion of a deposit or other exposure, that is insured or otherwise unconditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or NCUA.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to the portion of an exposure that is conditionally guaranteed by the U.S. government, its central bank, or a U.S. government agency. This includes an exposure, or the portion of an exposure, that is conditionally guaranteed by the FDIC or NCUA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certain supranational entities and multilateral development banks (MDBs).</I> An Enterprise must assign a zero percent risk weight to an exposure to the Bank for International Settlements, the European Central Bank, the European Commission, the International Monetary Fund, the European Stability Mechanism, the European Financial Stability Facility, or an MDB.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposures to GSEs.</I> (1) An Enterprise must assign a zero percent risk weight to any MBS guaranteed by the Enterprise (other than any retained CRT exposure).
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 5 percent risk weight to an exposure to the other Enterprise in a commingled security.


</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to another GSE, including an MBS guaranteed by the other Enterprise, except for exposures under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Exposures to depository institutions and credit unions.</I> (1) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to an exposure to a depository institution or credit union that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state thereof, except as otherwise provided under paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 100 percent risk weight to an exposure to a financial institution if the exposure may be included in that financial institution's capital unless the exposure is:
</P>
<P>(i) An equity exposure; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Deducted from regulatory capital under § 1240.22.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Exposures to U.S. public sector entities (PSEs).</I> (1) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to a general obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 50 percent risk weight to a revenue obligation exposure to a PSE that is organized under the laws of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Corporate exposures.</I> (1) An Enterprise must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all its corporate exposures, except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Enterprise posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 1240.37(b)(3)(i)(A) and a 4 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Enterprise posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 1240.37(b)(3)(i)(B).
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must assign a 2 percent risk weight to an exposure to a QCCP arising from the Enterprise posting cash collateral to the QCCP in connection with a cleared transaction that meets the requirements of § 1240.37(c)(3)(i).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Residential mortgage exposures</I>—(1) <I>Single-family mortgage exposures.</I> An Enterprise must assign a risk weight to a single-family mortgage exposure in accordance with § 1240.33.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Multifamily mortgage exposures.</I> An Enterprise must assign a risk weight to a multifamily mortgage exposure in accordance with § 1240.34.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Past due exposures.</I> Except for an exposure to a sovereign entity or a mortgage exposure, if an exposure is 90 days or more past due or on nonaccrual:
</P>
<P>(1) An Enterprise must assign a 150 percent risk weight to the portion of the exposure that is not guaranteed or that is unsecured;
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise may assign a risk weight to the guaranteed portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 1240.38 if the guarantee or credit derivative meets the requirements of that section; and
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise may assign a risk weight to the collateralized portion of a past due exposure based on the risk weight that applies under § 1240.39 if the collateral meets the requirements of that section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Other assets.</I> (1) An Enterprise must assign a zero percent risk weight to cash owned and held in the offices of an insured depository institution or in transit.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to cash items in the process of collection.
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must assign a 100 percent risk weight to DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(4) An Enterprise must assign a 250 percent risk weight to the portion of each of the following items to the extent it is not deducted from common equity tier 1 capital pursuant to § 1240.22(d):
</P>
<P>(i) MSAs; and
</P>
<P>(ii) DTAs arising from temporary differences that the Enterprise could not realize through net operating loss carrybacks.
</P>
<P>(5) An Enterprise must assign a 20 percent risk weight to guarantee assets.
</P>
<P>(6) An Enterprise must assign a 100 percent risk weight to all assets not specifically assigned a different risk weight under this subpart and that are not deducted from tier 1 or tier 2 capital pursuant to § 1240.22.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Insurance assets.</I> (1) An Enterprise must risk-weight the individual assets held in a separate account that does not qualify as a non-guaranteed separate account as if the individual assets were held directly by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must assign a zero percent risk weight to an asset that is held in a non-guaranteed separate account.






</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83476, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.33   Single-family mortgage exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Subject to any additional instructions set forth on table 1 to this paragraph (a), for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted MTMLTV</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure and as of a particular time, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The MTMLTV of the single-family mortgage exposure (or, if the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure is less than 6, the OLTV of the single-family mortgage exposure); divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount equal to 1 plus either:
</P>
<P>(A) The single-family countercyclical adjustment available at the time of the exposure's origination if the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure is less than or equal to 5; or
</P>
<P>(B) The single-family countercyclical adjustment available as of that time if the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure is greater than or equal to 6.


</P>
<P><I>Approved insurer</I> means an insurance company that is currently approved by an Enterprise to guarantee or insure single-family mortgage exposures acquired by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Cancelable mortgage insurance</I> means a mortgage insurance policy that, pursuant to its terms, may or will be terminated before the maturity date of the insured single-family mortgage exposure, including as required or permitted by the Homeowners Protection Act of 1998 (12 U.S.C. 4901).
</P>
<P><I>Charter-level coverage</I> means mortgage insurance that satisfies the minimum requirements of the authorizing statute of an Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Cohort burnout</I> means the number of refinance opportunities since the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure was 6, categorized into ranges pursuant to the instructions set forth on Table 1 to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Coverage percent</I> means the percent of the sum of the unpaid principal balance, any lost interest, and any foreclosure costs that is used to determine the benefit or other coverage under a mortgage insurance policy.
</P>
<P><I>COVID-19-related forbearance</I> means a forbearance granted pursuant to section 4022 of the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act or under a program established by FHFA to provide forbearance to borrowers adversely impacted by COVID-19.
</P>
<P><I>Days past due</I> means the number of days a single-family mortgage exposure is past due.
</P>
<P><I>Debt-to-income ratio (DTI)</I> means the ratio of a borrower's total monthly obligations (including housing expense) divided by the borrower's monthly income, as calculated under the Guide of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Deflated HPI</I> means, as of a particular time, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The national, not-seasonally adjusted Expanded-Data FHFA House Price Index® as of the end of the preceding calendar quarter; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The average of the three monthly observations of the preceding calendar quarter from the non-seasonally adjusted Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, U.S. City Average, All Items Less Shelter.
</P>
<P><I>Guide</I> means, as applicable, the Fannie Mae Single Family Selling Guide, the Fannie Mae Single Family Servicing Guide and the Freddie Mac Single-family Seller/Servicers Guide.
</P>
<P><I>Guide-level coverage</I> means mortgage insurance that satisfies the requirements of the Guide of the Enterprise with respect to mortgage insurance that has a coverage percent that exceeds charter-level coverage.
</P>
<P><I>Interest-only (IO)</I> means a single-family mortgage exposure that requires only payment of interest without any principal amortization during all or part of the loan term.
</P>
<P><I>Loan age</I> means the number of scheduled payment dates since the origination of a single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Loan-level credit enhancement</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgage insurance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A participation agreement.
</P>
<P><I>Loan documentation</I> means the completeness of the documentation used to underwrite a single-family mortgage exposure, as determined under the Guide of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Loan purpose</I> means the purpose of a single-family mortgage exposure at origination.
</P>
<P><I>Long-term HPI trend</I> means, as of a particular time, the amount equal to: 0.66112295<I>e</I> <E T="51">(0.002619948*t)</E>.
</P>
<FP>Where <I>t</I> = the number of quarters from the first quarter of 1975 to and including the end of the preceding calendar quarter and where the first quarter of 1975 is counted as one.
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</FP>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> FHFA will adjust the formula for the long-term HPI trend in accordance with applicable law if two conditions are satisfied as of the end of a calendar quarter that follows the last adjustment to the long-term HPI trend: (i) The average of the long-term trend departures over four consecutive calendar quarters has been less than −5.0 percent; and (ii) after the end of the calendar quarter in which the first condition is satisfied, the deflated HPI has increased to an extent that it again exceeds the long-term HPI trend. The point in time of the new trough used by FHFA to adjust the formula for the long-term HPI trend will be identified by the calendar quarter with the smallest deflated HPI in the period that includes the calendar quarter in which the first condition is satisfied and ends at the end of the calendar quarter in which the second condition is first satisfied.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Long-term trend departure</I> means, as of a particular time, the percent amount equal to—
</P>
<P>(i) The deflated HPI as of that time divided by the long-term HPI trend as of that time; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) 1.0.
</P>
<P><I>MI cancelation feature</I> means an indicator for whether mortgage insurance is cancelable mortgage insurance or non-cancelable mortgage insurance, assigned pursuant to the instructions set forth on Table 1 to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Modification</I> means a permanent amendment or other change to the interest rate, maturity date, unpaid principal balance, or other contractual term of a single-family mortgage exposure or a deferral of a required payment until the maturity or earlier payoff of the single-family mortgage exposure. A modification does not include a repayment plan with respect to any amounts that are past due or a COVID-19-related forbearance.
</P>
<P><I>Modified re-performing loan (modified RPL)</I> means a single-family mortgage exposure (other than an NPL) that is or has been subject to a modification, excluding any single-family mortgage exposure that was not 60 or more days past due at any time in a continuous 60-calendar month period that begins at any time after the effective date of the last modification.
</P>
<P><I>Months since last modification</I> means the number of scheduled payment dates since the effective date of the last modification of a single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage concentration risk</I> means the extent to which a mortgage insurer or other counterparty is exposed to mortgage credit risk relative to other risks.
</P>
<P><I>MTMLTV</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid principal balance of the single-family mortgage exposure; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The unpaid principal balance of the single-family mortgage exposure at origination; divided by
</P>
<P>(B) The OLTV of the single-family mortgage exposure; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(C) The most recently available FHFA Purchase-only State-level House Price Index of the State in which the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure is located; divided by
</P>
<P>(D) The FHFA Purchase-only State-level House Price Index, as of date of the origination of the single-family mortgage exposure, in which the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure is located.
</P>
<P><I>Non-cancelable mortgage insurance</I> means a mortgage insurance policy that, pursuant to its terms, may not be terminated before the maturity date of the insured single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Non-modified re-performing loan (non-modified RPL)</I> means a single-family mortgage exposure (other than a modified RPL or an NPL) that was previously an NPL at any time in the prior 48 calendar months.
</P>
<P><I>Non-performing loan (NPL)</I> means a single-family mortgage exposure that is 60 days or more past due.
</P>
<P><I>Occupancy type</I> means the borrowers' intended use of the property securing a single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Original credit score</I> means the borrower's credit score as of the origination date of a single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>OLTV (original loan-to-value)</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid principal balance of the single-family mortgage exposure at origination; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The appraised value of the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure; and
</P>
<P>(B) The sale price of the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Origination channel</I> means the type of institution that originated a single-family mortgage exposure, assigned pursuant to the instructions set forth on table 1 to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Participation agreement</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, any agreement between an Enterprise and the seller of the single-family mortgage exposure pursuant to which the seller retains a participation of not less than 10 percent in the single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Past due</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, that any amount required to be paid by the borrower under the terms of the single-family mortgage exposure has not been paid.
</P>
<P><I>Payment change from modification</I> means the amount, expressed as a percent, equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) The monthly payment of a single-family mortgage exposure after a modification; divided by
</P>
<P>(B) The monthly payment of the single-family mortgage exposure before the modification; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) 1.0.
</P>
<P><I>Performing loan</I> means any single-family mortgage exposure that is not an NPL, a modified RPL, or a non-modified RPL.
</P>
<P><I>Previous maximum days past due</I> means the maximum number of days a modified RPL or non-modified RPL was past due in the prior 36 calendar months.
</P>
<P><I>Product type</I> means an indicator reflecting the contractual terms of a single-family mortgage exposure as of the origination date, assigned pursuant to the instructions set forth on Table 1 to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Property type</I> means the physical structure of the property securing a single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Refinance opportunity</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, any calendar month in which the Primary Mortgage Market Survey (PMMS) rate for the month and year of the origination of the single-family mortgage exposure exceeds the PMMS rate for that calendar month by more than 50 basis points.
</P>
<P><I>Refreshed credit score</I> means the borrower's most recently available credit score.
</P>
<P><I>Single-family countercyclical adjustment</I> means, as of a particular time, zero percent except:
</P>
<P>(i) If the long-term trend departure as of that time is greater than 5 percent, the percent amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) 1.05 multiplied by the long-term HPI trend, as of that time, divided by the deflated HPI, as of that time, minus
</P>
<P>(B) 1.0.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the long-term trend departure as of that time is less than −5 percent, the percent amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(A) 0.95 multiplied by the long-term HPI trend, as of that time, divided by the deflated HPI, as of that time, minus
</P>
<P>(B) 1.0.
</P>
<P><I>Streamlined refi</I> means a single-family mortgage exposure that was refinanced through a streamlined refinance program of an Enterprise, including the Home Affordable Refinance Program, Relief Refi, and Refi-Plus.
</P>
<P><I>Subordination</I> means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure, the amount equal to the original unpaid principal balance of any second lien single-family mortgage exposure divided by the lesser of the appraised value or sale price of the property that secures the single-family mortgage exposure.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">a</E>)—Permissible Values and Additional Instructions
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Defined term
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Permissible values
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Additional instructions
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cohort burnout</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“No burnout,” if the single-family mortgage exposure has not had a refinance opportunity since the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure was 6.</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Low,” if the single-family mortgage exposure has had 12 or fewer refinance opportunities since the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure was 6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“Medium,” if the single-family mortgage exposure has had between 13 and 24 refinance opportunities since the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure was 6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“High,” if the single-family mortgage exposure has had more than 24 refinance opportunities since the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure was 6
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Coverage percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent &lt;= coverage percent &lt;= 100 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Days past due</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-negative integer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">210 if negative or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Debt-to-income (DTI) ratio</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent &lt; DTI &lt; 100 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">42 percent if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest-only (IO)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes, no</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 &lt;= loan age &lt;= 500</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">500 if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan documentation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None, low, full</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purchase, cashout refinance, rate/term refinance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cashout refinance if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MTMLTV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent &lt; MTMLTV &lt;= 300 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure is located in Puerto Rico or the U.S. Virgin Islands, use the FHFA House Price Index of the United States.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the property securing the single-family mortgage exposure is located in Hawaii, use the FHFA Purchase-only State-level House Price Index of Guam.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the single-family mortgage exposure was originated before 1991, use the Enterprise's proprietary housing price index.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use geometric interpolation to convert quarterly housing price index data to monthly data.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 percent if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Mortgage concentration risk</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High, not high</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">MI cancellation feature</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cancellable mortgage insurance, non-cancellable mortgage insurance</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cancellable mortgage insurance, if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Occupancy type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment, owner-occupied, second home</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">OLTV</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent &lt; OLTV &lt;= 300 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 percent if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Original credit score</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 &lt;= original credit score &lt;= 850</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there are credit scores from multiple credit repositories for a borrower, use the following logic to determine a single original credit score:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from two repositories, take the lower credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from three repositories, use the middle credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from three repositories and two of the credit scores are identical, use the identical credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there are multiple borrowers, use the following logic to determine a single original credit score:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Using the logic above, determine a single credit score for each borrower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Select the lowest single credit score across all borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The original credit score for the single-family mortgage exposure is 680 if the Enterprise has verified that no borrower has a credit score at any of the three repositories.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">600 if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Origination channel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail, third-party origination (TPO)</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TPO includes broker and correspondent channels. TPO if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment change from modification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−80 percent &lt; payment change from modification &lt; 50 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If the single-family mortgage exposure initially had an adjustable or step-rate feature, the monthly payment after a permanent modification is calculated using the initial modified rate.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent if unable to determine. −79 percent if less than or equal to −80 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">49 percent if greater than or equal to 50 percent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Previous maximum days past due</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Non-negative integer</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">181 months if negative or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">“FRM30” means a fixed-rate single-family mortgage exposure with an original amortization term greater than 309 months and less than or equal to 429 months


<br/>“FRM20” means a fixed-rate single-family mortgage exposure with an original amortization term greater than 189 months and less than or equal to 309 months

<br/>“FRM15” means a fixed-rate single-family mortgage exposure with an amortization term less than or equal to 189 months

<br/>“ARM1/1” is an adjustable-rate single-family mortgage exposure that has a mortgage rate and required payment that adjust annually</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Product types other than FRM30, FRM20, FRM15 or ARM 1/1 should be assigned to FRM30.


<br/>Use the post-modification product type for modified mortgage exposures.

<br/>ARM 1/1 if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Property type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-unit, 2-4 units, condominium, manufactured home</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Use condominium for cooperatives.


<br/>2-4 units if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refreshed credit score</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">300 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;= 850</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there are credit scores from multiple credit repositories for a borrower, use the following logic to determine a single refreshed credit score:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from two repositories, take the lower credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from three repositories, use the middle credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• If there are credit scores from three repositories and two of the credit scores are identical, use the identical credit score.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If there are multiple borrowers, use the following logic to determine a single Refreshed Credit Score:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Using the logic above, determine a single credit score for each borrower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">• Select the lowest single credit score across all borrowers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">600 if outside of permissible range or unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Streamlined refi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes, no</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No if unable to determine.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subordination</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0 percent &lt;= Subordination &lt;= 80 percent</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">80 percent if outside permissible range.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Risk weight</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an Enterprise must assign a risk weight to a single-family mortgage exposure equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The base risk weight for the single-family mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (c) of this section; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The combined risk multiplier for the single-family mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (d) of this section; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(iii) The adjusted credit enhancement multiplier for the single-family mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum risk weight.</I> Notwithstanding the risk weight determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the risk weight assigned to a single-family mortgage exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Base risk weight</I>—(1) <I>Performing loan.</I> The base risk weight for a performing loan is set forth on Table 2 to this paragraph (c)(1). For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), credit score means, with respect to a single-family mortgage exposure:
</P>
<P>(i) The original credit score of the single-family mortgage exposure, if the loan age of the single-family mortgage exposure is less than 6; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The refreshed credit score of the single-family mortgage exposure.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.012.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Non-modified RPL.</I> The base risk weight for a non-modified RPL is set forth on Table 3 to this paragraph (c)(2). For purposes of this paragraph (c)(2), re-performing duration means, with respect to a non-modified RPL, the number of scheduled payment dates since the non-modified RPL was last an NPL.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.013.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Modified RPL.</I> The base risk weight for a modified RPL is set forth on Table 4 to paragraph (c)(3)(ii) of this section. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(3), re-performing duration means, with respect to a modified RPL, the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The months since last modification of the modified RPL; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of scheduled payment dates since the modified RPL was last an NPL.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.014.gif"/>
<P>(4) <I>NPL.</I> The base risk weight for an NPL is set forth on Table 5 to this paragraph (c)(4).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.015.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>Combined risk multiplier</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the combined risk multiplier for a single-family mortgage exposure is equal to the product of each of the applicable risk multipliers set forth under the applicable single-family segment on Table 6 to paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Maximum combined risk multiplier.</I> Notwithstanding the combined risk multiplier determined under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the combined risk multiplier for a single-family mortgage exposure may not exceed 3.0.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph <E T="01">(d)(2)</E>: Risk Multipliers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Risk factor
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">Value or range
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Single-family segment
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Performing
<br/>loan
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Non-
<br/>modified
<br/>RPL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Modified
<br/>RPL
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">NPL
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Purpose</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Purchase</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Cashout refinance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Rate/term refinance</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Occupancy Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Owner-occupied or second home</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Property Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">1-unit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">2-4 unit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Condominium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Manufactured home</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Origination Channel</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Retail</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">TPO</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">DTI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DTI &lt;= 25%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">25% &lt; DTI &lt;= 40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">DTI &gt;40%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Product Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FRM30</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">ARM1/1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FRM15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">FRM20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Subordination</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No subordination</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30% &lt; OLTV &lt;= 60% and 0% &lt;subordination &lt;= 5%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">30% &lt; OLTV &lt;= 60% and subordination &gt;5%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OLTV &gt;60% and 0% &lt;subordination &lt;= 5%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">OLTV &gt;60% and subordination &gt;5%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Age</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loan age &lt;= 24 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">24 months &lt;loan age &lt;= 36 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.95</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">36 months &lt;loan Age &lt;= 60 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Loan age &gt;60 months</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cohort Burnout</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No burnout</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Medium</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">High</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest-only</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No IO</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes IO</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Loan Documentation</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Full</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">None or low</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Streamlined Refi</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">No</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Yes</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refreshed Credit Score for Modified RPLs and Non-modified RPLs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refreshed credit score &lt;620
<br/>620 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;640
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.6
<br/>1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.4
<br/>1.2
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">640 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;660</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">660 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">700 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;720</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">720 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;740</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">740 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;760</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.6
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">760 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refreshed credit score &gt;= 780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.4
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Payment Change from Modification</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Payment change &gt;= 0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−20% &lt;= payment change &lt;0%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">−30% &lt;= payment change &lt; −20%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Payment change &lt; −30%</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Previous Maximum Days Past Due</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">0-59 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">60-90 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">91-150 days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">151+ days</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Refreshed Credit Score for NPLs</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refreshed credit score &lt;580</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">580 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;640</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">640 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;700</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">700 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;720</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">720 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;760</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">760 &lt;= refreshed credit score &lt;780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.7
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Refreshed credit score &gt;= 780</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Credit enhancement multiplier</I>—(1) <I>Amount</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> The adjusted credit enhancement multiplier for a single-family mortgage exposure that is subject to loan-level credit enhancement is equal to 1.0 minus the product of:
</P>
<P>(A) 1.0 minus the credit enhancement multiplier for the single-family mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (e)(2) of this section; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(B) 1.0 minus the counterparty haircut for the loan-level credit enhancement as determined under paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>No loan-level credit enhancement.</I> The adjusted credit enhancement multiplier for a single-family mortgage exposure that is not subject to loan-level credit enhancement is equal to 1.0.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit enhancement multiplier.</I> (i) The credit enhancement multiplier for a single-family mortgage exposure that is subject to a participation agreement is 1.0.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to paragraph (e)(2)(iii) of this section, the credit enhancement multiplier for—
</P>
<P>(A) A performing loan, non-modified RPL, or modified RPL that is subject to non-cancelable mortgage insurance is set forth on Table 7 to paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) A performing loan or non-modified RPL that is subject to cancelable mortgage insurance is set forth on Table 8 to paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(C) A modified RPL with a 30-year post-modification amortization that is subject to cancelable mortgage insurance is set forth on Table 9 to paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section;
</P>
<P>(D) A modified RPL with a 40-year post-modification amortization that is subject to cancelable mortgage insurance is set forth on Table 10 to paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(E) NPL, whether subject to non-cancelable mortgage insurance or cancelable mortgage insurance, is set forth on Table 11 to paragraph (e)(2)(iii)(E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this paragraph (e), for purposes of paragraph (e)(2)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) The OLTV of a single-family mortgage exposure will be deemed to be 80 percent if the single-family mortgage exposure has an OLTV less than or equal to 80 percent.
</P>
<P>(B) If the single-family mortgage exposure has an interest-only feature, any cancelable mortgage insurance will be deemed to be non-cancelable mortgage insurance.
</P>
<P>(C) If the coverage percent of the mortgage insurance is greater than charter-level coverage and less than guide-level coverage, the credit enhancement multiplier is the amount equal to a linear interpolation between the credit enhancement multiplier of the single-family mortgage exposure for charter-level coverage and the credit enhancement multiplier of the single-family mortgage exposure for guide-level coverage.
</P>
<P>(D) If the coverage percent of the mortgage insurance is less than charter-level coverage, the credit enhancement multiplier is the amount equal to the midpoint of a linear interpolation between a credit enhancement multiplier of 1.0 and the credit enhancement multiplier of the single-family mortgage exposure for charter-level coverage.
</P>
<P>(E) If the coverage percent of the mortgage insurance is greater than guide-level coverage, the credit enhancement multiplier is determined as if the coverage percent were guide-level coverage.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.018.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.019.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.020.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.021.gif"/>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.022.gif"/>
<P>(3) <I>Credit enhancement counterparty haircut</I>—(i) <I>Counterparty rating</I>—(A) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3), the counterparty rating for a counterparty is—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) 1, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty has extremely strong capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) 2, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty has very strong capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) 3, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty has strong capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) 4, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty has adequate capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) 5, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty does not have adequate capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress but does have adequate capacity to perform its financial obligations in an adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) 6, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty does not have adequate capacity to perform its financial obligations in an adverse stress;
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) 7, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty's capacity to perform its financial obligations is questionable under prevailing economic conditions;
</P>
<P>(<I>8</I>) 8, if the Enterprise has determined that the counterparty is in default on a material contractual obligation (including any obligation with respect to collateral requirements) or is under a resolution proceeding or similar regulatory proceeding.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Required considerations.</I> (<I>1</I>) In determining the capacity of a counterparty to perform its financial obligations, the Enterprise must consider the likelihood that the counterparty will not perform its material obligations with respect to the posting of collateral and the payment of any amounts payable under its contractual obligations.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A counterparty does not have an adequate capacity to perform its financial obligations in a severely adverse stress if there is a material risk that the counterparty would fail to timely perform any financial obligation in a severely adverse stress.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Counterparty haircut.</I> The counterparty haircut is set forth on table 12 to this paragraph (e)(3)(ii). For purposes of this paragraph (e)(3)(ii), RPL means either a modified RPL or a non-modified RPL.
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.023.gif"/>
<P>(f) <I>COVID-19-related forbearances</I>—(1) <I>During forbearance.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary under paragraph (c)(4) of this section, the base risk weight for an NPL is equal to the product of 0.45 and the base risk weight that would otherwise be assigned to the NPL under paragraph (c)(4) of this section if the NPL—
</P>
<P>(i) Is subject to a COVID-19-related forbearance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Was subject to a COVID-19-related forbearance at any time in the prior 6 calendar months and is subject to a trial modification plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>After forbearance.</I> Notwithstanding the definition of “past due” under paragraph (a) of this section, any period of time in which a single-family mortgage exposure was past due while subject to a COVID-19-related forbearance is to be disregarded for the purpose of assigning a risk weight under this section if the entire amount past due was repaid upon the termination of the COVID-19-related forbearance.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022; 88 FR 83476, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.34" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.34   Multifamily mortgage exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> Subject to any additional instructions set forth on Table 1 to this paragraph (a), for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition debt-service-coverage ratio (acquisition DSCR)</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The net operating income (NOI) (or, if not available, the net cash flow) of the multifamily property that secures the multifamily mortgage exposure, at the time of the acquisition by the Enterprise (or, if not available, at the time of the underwriting or origination) of the multifamily mortgage exposure; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The scheduled periodic payment on the multifamily mortgage exposure (or, if interest-only, fully amortizing payment), at the time of the acquisition by the Enterprise (or, if not available, at the time of the origination) of the multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Acquisition loan-to-value (acquisition LTV)</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount, determined as of the time of the acquisition by the Enterprise (or, if not available, at the time of the underwriting or origination) of the multifamily mortgage exposure, equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid principal balance of the multifamily mortgage exposure; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The value of the multifamily property securing the multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Affordable unit</I> means a unit within a property securing a multifamily mortgage exposure that can be rented by occupants with income less than or equal to 80 percent of the area median income where the property resides.


</P>
<P><I>Debt-service-coverage ratio</I> (<I>DSCR)</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure:
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition DSCR of the multifamily mortgage exposure if the loan age of the multifamily mortgage exposure is less than 6; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The MTMDSCR of the multifamily mortgage exposure.


</P>
<P><I>Government subsidy</I> means that the property satisfies both of the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 20 percent of the property's units are restricted to be affordable units per a regulatory agreement, recorded use restriction, a housing-assistance payments contract, or other restrictions codified in loan agreements; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The property benefits from one of the following government programs:
</P>
<P>(A) Low Income Housing Tax Credits (LIHTC);
</P>
<P>(B) Section 8 project-based rental assistance;
</P>
<P>(C) Section 515 Rural Rental Housing Loans; or
</P>
<P>(D) State/Local affordable housing programs that require the provision of affordable housing for the life of the loan.




</P>
<P><I>Interest-only (IO)</I> means a multifamily mortgage exposure that requires only payment of interest without any principal amortization during all or part of the loan term.


</P>
<P><I>Loan age</I> means the number of scheduled payment dates since the origination of the multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Loan term</I> means the number of years until final loan payment (which may be a balloon payment) under the terms of a multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>LTV</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition LTV of the multifamily mortgage exposure if the loan age of the multifamily mortgage exposure is less than 6, or
</P>
<P>(ii) The MTMLTV of the multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Mark-to-market debt-service coverage ratio (MTMDSCR)</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount equal to—
</P>
<P>(i) The net operating income (or, if not available, the net cash flow) of the multifamily property that secures the multifamily mortgage exposure, as reported on the most recently available property operating statement; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The scheduled periodic payment on the multifamily mortgage exposure (or, for interest-only, fully amortizing payment), as reported on the most recently available property operating statement.
</P>
<P><I>Mark-to-market loan-to-value (MTMLTV)</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid principal balance of the multifamily mortgage exposure; divided by
</P>
<P>(ii) The current value of the property security the multifamily mortgage exposure, estimated using either:
</P>
<P>(A) The acquisition property value adjusted using a multifamily property value index; or
</P>
<P>(B) The property value estimated based on net operating income and capitalization rate indices.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily adjustable-rate exposure</I> means a multifamily mortgage exposure that is not, at that time, a multifamily fixed-rate exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily fixed-rate exposure</I> means a multifamily mortgage exposure that, at that time, has an interest rate that may not then increase or decrease based on a change in a reference index or other methodology, including:
</P>
<P>(i) A multifamily mortgage exposure that has an interest rate that is fixed over the life of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A multifamily mortgage exposure that has an interest rate that may increase or decrease in the future, but is fixed at that time.
</P>
<P><I>Net cash flow</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The net operating income of the multifamily mortgage exposure; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) Reserves for capital improvements; minus
</P>
<P>(iii) Other expenses not included in net operating income required for the proper operation of the multifamily property securing the multifamily mortgage exposure, including any commissions paid to leasing agents in securing renters and special improvements to the property to accommodate the needs of certain renters.
</P>
<P><I>Net operating income</I> means, with respect to a multifamily mortgage exposure, the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The rental income generated by the multifamily property securing the multifamily mortgage exposure; minus
</P>
<P>(ii) The vacancy and property operating expenses of the multifamily property securing the multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<P><I>Original amortization term</I> means the number of years, determined as of the time of the origination of a multifamily mortgage exposure, that it would take a borrower to pay a multifamily mortgage exposure completely if the borrower only makes the scheduled payments, and without making any balloon payment.
</P>
<P><I>Original loan size</I> means the dollar amount of the unpaid principal balance of a multifamily mortgage exposure at origination.
</P>
<P><I>Payment performance</I> means the payment status of history of a multifamily mortgage exposure, assigned pursuant to the instructions set forth on table 1 to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P><I>Supplemental mortgage exposure</I> means any multifamily fixed-rate exposure or multifamily adjustable-rate exposure that is originated after the origination of a multifamily mortgage exposure that is secured by all or part of the same multifamily property.
</P>
<P><I>Unpaid principal balance (UPB)</I> means the outstanding loan amount of a multifamily mortgage exposure.
</P>
<HD1>Table 1 to Paragraph (a)—Permissible Values and Additional Instructions
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.028.gif"/>
<P>(b) <I>Risk weight</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Subject to paragraphs (b)(2) and (3) of this section, an Enterprise must assign a risk weight to a multifamily mortgage exposure equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The base risk weight for the multifamily mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (c) of this section; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The combined risk multiplier for the multifamily mortgage exposure as determined under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Minimum risk weight.</I> Notwithstanding the risk weight determined under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the risk weight assigned to a multifamily mortgage exposure may not be less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan groups.</I> If a multifamily property that secures a multifamily mortgage exposure also secures one or more supplemental mortgage exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) A multifamily mortgage exposure-specific base risk weight must be determined under paragraph (c) of this section using for each of these multifamily mortgage exposures a single DSCR and single LTV, both calculated as if all of the multifamily mortgage exposures secured by the multifamily property were consolidated into a single multifamily mortgage exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A multifamily mortgage exposure-specific combined risk multiplier must be determined under paragraph (d) of this section based on the risk characteristics of the multifamily mortgage exposure (except with respect to the loan size multiplier, which would be determined using the aggregate unpaid principal balance of these multifamily mortgage exposures).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Base risk weight</I>—(1) <I>Multifamily fixed-rate exposure.</I> The base risk weight for a multifamily fixed-rate exposure is set forth on table 2 to this paragraph (c)(1).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.025.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Multifamily adjustable-rate exposure.</I> The base risk weight for a multifamily adjustable-rate exposure is set forth on table 3 to this paragraph (c)(2).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.026.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>Combined risk multiplier.</I> The combined risk multiplier for a multifamily mortgage exposure is equal to the product of each of the applicable risk multipliers set forth on table 4 to this paragraph (d).


</P>
<HD1>Table 4 to Paragraph (d)—Multifamily Risk Multipliers
</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.029.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> If a multifamily mortgage exposure is collateralized by multiple properties, calculate a weighted average government subsidy multiplier by assigning a 0.6 multiplier to each property with a government subsidy and 1.0 multiplier to each property without a government subsidy, and using the total number of units in a property as weights.</P></EXTRACT>
<CITA TYPE="N"> 85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83478, Nov. 30, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.35" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.35   Off-balance sheet exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An Enterprise must calculate the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet exposure using the credit conversion factors (CCFs) in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Where an Enterprise commits to provide a commitment, the Enterprise may apply the lower of the two applicable CCFs.
</P>
<P>(3) Where an Enterprise provides a commitment structured as a syndication or participation, the Enterprise is only required to calculate the exposure amount for its pro rata share of the commitment.
</P>
<P>(4) Where an Enterprise provides a commitment or enters into a repurchase agreement and such commitment or repurchase agreement, the exposure amount shall be no greater than the maximum contractual amount of the commitment or repurchase agreement, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit conversion factors</I>—(1) <I>Zero percent CCF.</I> An Enterprise must apply a zero percent CCF to the unused portion of a commitment that is unconditionally cancelable by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>20 percent CCF.</I> An Enterprise must apply a 20 percent CCF to the amount of commitments with an original maturity of one year or less that are not unconditionally cancelable by the Enterprise.


</P>
<P>(3) <I>50 percent CCF.</I> An Enterprise must apply a 50 percent CCF to:
</P>
<P>(i) The amount of commitments with an original maturity of more than one year that are not unconditionally cancelable by the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Guarantees on exposures to the other Enterprise in commingled securities.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>100 percent CCF.</I> An Enterprise must apply a 100 percent CCF to the amount of the following off-balance sheet items and other similar transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) Guarantees, except guarantees included in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Repurchase agreements (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the Enterprise has sold subject to repurchase);
</P>
<P>(iii) Off-balance sheet securities lending transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all positions the Enterprise has lent under the transaction);
</P>
<P>(iv) Off-balance sheet securities borrowing transactions (the off-balance sheet component of which equals the sum of the current fair values of all non-cash positions the Enterprise has posted as collateral under the transaction); and
</P>
<P>(v) Forward agreements.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83480, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.36" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.36   Derivative contracts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exposure amount for derivative contracts.</I> An Enterprise must calculate the exposure amount or EAD for all its derivative contracts using the standardized approach for counterparty credit risk (SA-CCR) in paragraph (c) of this section for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets. An Enterprise must apply the treatment of cleared transactions under § 1240.37 to its derivative contracts that are cleared transactions and to all default fund contributions associated with such derivative contracts for purposes of standardized total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Methodologies for collateral recognition.</I> (1) An Enterprise may use the methodologies under § 1240.39 to recognize the benefits of financial collateral in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized OTC derivative contracts and single product netting sets of such transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must use the methodology in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate EAD for an OTC derivative contract or a set of OTC derivative contracts subject to a qualifying master netting agreement.
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must also use the methodology in paragraph (d) of this section to calculate the risk-weighted asset amounts for CVA for OTC derivatives.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>EAD for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Options for determining EAD.</I> An Enterprise must determine the EAD for a derivative contract using SA-CCR under paragraph (c)(5) of this section. The exposure amount determined under SA-CCR is the EAD for the derivative contract or derivatives contracts. An Enterprise must use the same methodology to calculate the exposure amount for all its derivative contracts. An Enterprise may reduce the EAD calculated according to paragraph (c)(5) of this section by the credit valuation adjustment that the Enterprise has recognized in its balance sheet valuation of any derivative contracts in the netting set. For purposes of this paragraph (c)(1), the credit valuation adjustment does not include any adjustments to common equity tier 1 capital attributable to changes in the fair value of the Enterprise's liabilities that are due to changes in its own credit risk since the inception of the transaction with the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (c), the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>End date</I> means the last date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references another instrument, by the underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Start date</I> means the first date of the period referenced by an interest rate or credit derivative contract or, if the derivative contract references the value of another instrument, by underlying instrument, except as otherwise provided in this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Hedging set</I> means:
</P>
<P>(A) With respect to interest rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same reference currency;
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to exchange rate derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same currency pair;
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to credit derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(D) With respect to equity derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set;
</P>
<P>(E) With respect to a commodity derivative contract, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of the following commodity categories: Energy, metal, agricultural, or other commodities;
</P>
<P>(F) With respect to basis derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference the same pair of risk factors and are denominated in the same currency; or
</P>
<P>(G) With respect to volatility derivative contracts, all such contracts within a netting set that reference one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, separated according to the requirements under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(H) If the risk of a derivative contract materially depends on more than one of interest rate, exchange rate, credit, equity, or commodity risk factors, FHFA may require an Enterprise to include the derivative contract in each appropriate hedging set under paragraphs (c)(2)(iii)(A) through (E) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit derivatives.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) An Enterprise that purchases a credit derivative that is recognized under § 1240.38 as a credit risk mitigant for an exposure is not required to calculate a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under this section so long as the Enterprise does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise that is the protection provider in a credit derivative must treat the credit derivative as an exposure to the reference obligor and is not required to calculate a counterparty credit risk capital requirement for the credit derivative under this section, so long as it does so consistently for all such credit derivatives and either includes all or excludes all such credit derivatives that are subject to a master netting agreement from any measure used to determine counterparty credit risk exposure to all relevant counterparties for risk-based capital purposes.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Equity derivatives.</I> An Enterprise must treat an equity derivative contract as an equity exposure and compute a risk-weighted asset amount for the equity derivative contract under § 1240.51. In addition, if an Enterprise is treating the contract as a covered position under subpart F of this part, the Enterprise must also calculate a risk-based capital requirement for the counterparty credit risk of an equity derivative contract under this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Exposure amount.</I> (i) The exposure amount of a netting set, as calculated under this paragraph (c), is equal to 1.4 multiplied by the sum of the replacement cost of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the variation margin agreement is not required to post variation margin, is equal to the lesser of the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and the exposure amount of the netting set calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) as if the netting set were not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set that consists of only sold options in which the premiums have been fully paid by the counterparty to the options and where the options are not subject to a variation margin agreement is zero.
</P>
<P>(iv) Notwithstanding the requirements of paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section, the exposure amount of a netting set in which the counterparty is a commercial end-user is equal to the sum of replacement cost, as calculated under paragraph (c)(6) of this section, and the potential future exposure of the netting set, as calculated under paragraph (c)(7) of this section.
</P>
<P>(v) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, an Enterprise may elect to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, if the derivative contract is subject to a requirement that the counterparties make daily cash payments to each other to account for changes in the fair value of the derivative contract and to reduce the net position of the contract to zero. If an Enterprise makes an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) for one derivative contract, it must treat all other derivative contracts within the same netting set that are eligible for an election under this paragraph (c)(5)(v) as derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(vi) For purposes of the exposure amount calculated under paragraph (c)(5)(i) of this section and all calculations that are part of that exposure amount, an Enterprise may elect to treat a credit derivative contract, equity derivative contract, or commodity derivative contract that references an index as if it were multiple derivative contracts each referencing one component of the index.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Replacement cost of a netting set</I>—(i) <I>Netting set subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding a netting set that is subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(B) The sum of the variation margin threshold and the minimum transfer amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set less the net independent collateral amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(C) Zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Netting sets not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin.</I> The replacement cost of a netting set that is not subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin to the Enterprise is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set less the sum of the net independent collateral amount and variation margin amount applicable to such derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(B) Zero.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(6)(i) and (ii) of this section, the replacement cost for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(i) of this section.


</P>
<P>(7) <I>Potential future exposure of a netting set.</I> The potential future exposure of a netting set is the product of the PFE multiplier and the aggregated amount.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>PFE multiplier.</I> The PFE multiplier is calculated according to the following formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.030.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) V is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) C is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting set; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) A is the aggregated amount of the netting set.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Aggregated amount.</I> The aggregated amount is the sum of all hedging set amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(8) of this section, within a netting set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of adjusted total assets, the potential future exposure for multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(10)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(7)(i) and (ii) of this section and when calculating the potential future exposure for purposes of adjusted total assets, the potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set must be calculated according to paragraph (c)(11)(ii) of this section.


</P>
<P>(8) <I>Hedging set amount</I>—(i) <I>Interest rate derivative contracts.</I> To calculate the hedging set amount of an interest rate derivative contract hedging set, an Enterprise may use either of the formulas provided in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:


</P>
<P>(A) Formula 1 is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.031.gif"/>
<P>(B) Formula 2 is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.032.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where in paragraphs (c)(8)(i)(A) and (B) of this section:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) <I>AddOn</I> <E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">1</E> <E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of less than one year from the present date;


</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) <I>AddOn</I> <E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">2</E> <E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of one to five years from the present date; and


</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>3</I>) <I>AddOn</I> <E T="54">TB</E><E T="52">3</E> <E T="53">IR</E> is the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set with an end date of more than five years from the present date.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Exchange rate derivative contracts.</I> For an exchange rate derivative contract hedging set, the hedging set amount equals the absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as calculated under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, within the hedging set.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Credit derivative contracts and equity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a credit derivative contract hedging set or equity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.033.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) k is each reference entity within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) K is the number of reference entities within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) <I>AddOn(Ref</I><E T="54">k</E>) equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference reference entity k.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) ρ<E T="54">k</E>Pkequals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in table 2 to paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) <I>Commodity derivative contracts.</I> The hedging set amount of a commodity derivative contract hedging set within a netting set is calculated according to the following formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.034.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) k is each commodity type within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) K is the number of commodity types within the hedging set.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) <I>AddOn (Type</I> <E T="52">k</E><I>)</I> equals the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts, as determined under paragraph (c)(9) of this section, for all derivative contracts within the hedging set that reference commodity type.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) <I>P</I> equals the applicable supervisory correlation factor, as provided in table 2 to paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(v) <I>Basis derivative contracts and volatility derivative contracts.</I> Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) of this section, an Enterprise must calculate a separate hedging set amount for each basis derivative contract hedging set and each volatility derivative contract hedging set. An Enterprise must calculate such hedging set amounts using one of the formulas under paragraphs (c)(8)(i) through (iv) that corresponds to the primary risk factor of the hedging set being calculated.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Adjusted derivative contract amount</I>—(i) <I>Summary.</I> To calculate the adjusted derivative contract amount of a derivative contract, an Enterprise must determine the adjusted notional amount of derivative contract, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(ii) of this section, and multiply the adjusted notional amount by each of the supervisory delta adjustment, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iii) of this section, the maturity factor, pursuant to paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, and the applicable supervisory factor, as provided in table 2 to paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjusted notional amount.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount equals the product of the notional amount of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation, and the supervisory duration, as calculated by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.035.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>i</I>) S is the number of business days from the present day until the start date of the derivative contract, or zero if the start date has already passed; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>ii</I>) E is the number of business days from the present day until the end date of the derivative contract.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or credit derivative contract that is a variable notional swap, the notional amount is equal to the time-weighted average of the contractual notional amounts of such a swap over the remaining life of the swap; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For an interest rate derivative contract or a credit derivative contract that is a leveraged swap, in which the notional amount of all legs of the derivative contract are divided by a factor and all rates of the derivative contract are multiplied by the same factor, the notional amount is equal to the notional amount of an equivalent unleveraged swap.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For an exchange rate derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the notional amount of the non-U.S. denominated currency leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation. If both legs of the exchange rate derivative contract are denominated in currencies other than U.S. dollars, the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract is the largest leg of the derivative contract, as measured in U.S. dollars using the exchange rate on the date of the calculation.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(B)(<I>1</I>) of this section, for an exchange rate derivative contract with multiple exchanges of principal, the Enterprise must set the adjusted notional amount of the derivative contract equal to the notional amount of the derivative contract multiplied by the number of exchanges of principal under the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract, the adjusted notional amount is the product of the fair value of one unit of the reference instrument underlying the derivative contract and the number of such units referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(ii)(C)(<I>1</I>) of this section, when calculating the adjusted notional amount for an equity derivative contract or a commodity derivative contract that is a volatility derivative contract, the Enterprise must replace the unit price with the underlying volatility referenced by the volatility derivative contract and replace the number of units with the notional amount of the volatility derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Supervisory delta adjustments.</I> (A) For a derivative contract that is not an option contract or collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is 1 if the fair value of the derivative contract increases when the value of the primary risk factor increases and −1 if the fair value of the derivative contract decreases when the value of the primary risk factor increases.
</P>
<P>(B)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is an option contract, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formulas, as applicable:


</P>
<HD1>Table 1 to Paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>)—Supervisory Delta Adjustment for Options Contracts


</HD1>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.036.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formulas in table 1 to paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B)(<I>1</I>):
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) <E T="8153">E</E> is the standard normal cumulative distribution function;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) P equals the current fair value of the instrument or risk factor, as applicable, underlying the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) K equals the strike price of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>iv</I>) T equals the number of business days until the latest contractual exercise date of the option;
</P>
<P>(<I>v</I>) λ equals zero for all derivative contracts except interest rate options for the currencies where interest rates have negative values. The same value of λ must be used for all interest rate options that are denominated in the same currency. To determine the value of λ for a given currency, an Enterprise must find the lowest value L of P and K of all interest rate options in a given currency that the Enterprise has with all counterparties. Then, λ is set according to this formula:
</P>
<FP-2>λ = max{−L + 0.1%, 0}; and
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>(<I>vi</I>) σ equals the supervisory option volatility, as provided in table 2 to paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B)(<I>2</I>).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(C)(<I>1</I>) For a derivative contract that is a collateralized debt obligation tranche, the supervisory delta adjustment is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.037.gif"/>
<P>(<I>2</I>) As used in the formula in paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(C)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) A is the attachment point, which equals the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n−1) notional amounts of the underlying exposures are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure.</P></FTNT>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) D is the detachment point, which equals one minus the ratio of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are senior to the Enterprise's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures, expressed as a decimal value between zero and one; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) The resulting amount is designated with a positive sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was purchased by the Enterprise and is designated with a negative sign if the collateralized debt obligation tranche was sold by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Maturity factor.</I> (A)(<I>1</I>) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is subject to a variation margin agreement, excluding derivative contracts that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.038.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where Margin Period of Risk (MPOR) refers to the period from the most recent exchange of collateral covering a netting set of derivative contracts with a defaulting counterparty until the derivative contracts are closed out and the resulting market risk is re-hedged.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) of this section:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) For a derivative contract that is not a client-facing derivative transaction, MPOR cannot be less than ten business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day;
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) For a derivative contract that is a client-facing derivative transaction, cannot be less than five business days plus the periodicity of re-margining expressed in business days minus one business day; and
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, or a netting set that contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, MPOR cannot be less than twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section, for a netting set subject to more than two outstanding disputes over margin that lasted longer than the MPOR over the previous two quarters, the applicable floor is twice the amount provided in paragraphs (c)(9)(iv)(A)(<I>1</I>) and (<I>2</I>) of this section.
</P>
<P>(B) The maturity factor of a derivative contract that is not subject to a variation margin agreement, or derivative contracts under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin, is determined by the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.039.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where M equals the greater of 10 business days and the remaining maturity of the contract, as measured in business days.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(C) For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iv) of this section, if an Enterprise has elected pursuant to paragraph (c)(5)(v) of this section to treat a derivative contract that is a cleared transaction that is not subject to a variation margin agreement as one that is subject to a variation margin agreement, the Enterprise must treat the derivative contract as subject to a variation margin agreement with maturity factor as determined according to (c)(9)(iv)(A) of this section, and daily settlement does not change the end date of the period referenced by the derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Derivative contract as multiple effective derivative contracts.</I> An Enterprise must separate a derivative contract into separate derivative contracts, according to the following rules:
</P>
<P>(A) For an option where the counterparty pays a predetermined amount if the value of the underlying asset is above or below the strike price and nothing otherwise (binary option), the option must be treated as two separate options. For purposes of paragraph (c)(9)(iii)(B) of this section, a binary option with strike K must be represented as the combination of one bought European option and one sold European option of the same type as the original option (put or call) with the strikes set equal to 0.95 * K and 1.05 * K so that the payoff of the binary option is reproduced exactly outside the region between the two strikes. The absolute value of the sum of the adjusted derivative contract amounts of the bought and sold options is capped at the payoff amount of the binary option.
</P>
<P>(B) For a derivative contract that can be represented as a combination of standard option payoffs (such as collar, butterfly spread, calendar spread, straddle, and strangle), an Enterprise must treat each standard option component as a separate derivative contract.
</P>
<P>(C) For a derivative contract that includes multiple-payment options, (such as interest rate caps and floors), an Enterprise may represent each payment option as a combination of effective single-payment options (such as interest rate caplets and floorlets).
</P>
<P>(D) An Enterprise may not decompose linear derivative contracts (such as swaps) into components.
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Multiple netting sets subject to a single variation margin agreement</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(6) of this section, an Enterprise shall assign a single replacement cost to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin, calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<FP-2><I>Replacement Cost = max</I>{Σ<E T="52">NS</E><I>max</I>{<I>V</I><E T="52">NS</E><I>;</I> 0}−<I>max</I>{<I>C</I><E T="52">MA</E><I>;</I> 0}; 0}
</FP-2>
<FP-2>+ <I>max</I>{Σ<E T="52">NS</E><I>min</I>{<I>V</I><E T="52">NS</E><I>;</I> 0}−<I>min</I>{<I>C</I><E T="52">MA</E><I>;</I> 0}; 0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) NS is each netting set subject to the variation margin agreement MA;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>V<E T="52">NS</E> is the sum of the fair values (after excluding any valuation adjustments) of the derivative contracts within the netting set NS; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) C<E T="52">MA</E> is the sum of the net independent collateral amount and the variation margin amount applicable to the derivative contracts within the netting sets subject to the single variation margin agreement.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(5) of this section, an Enterprise shall assign a single potential future exposure to multiple netting sets that are subject to a single variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin equal to the sum of the potential future exposure of each such netting set, each calculated according to paragraph (c)(7) of this section as if such nettings sets were not subject to a variation margin agreement.


</P>
<P>(11) <I>Netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements or a hybrid netting set</I>—(i) <I>Calculating replacement cost.</I> To calculate replacement cost for either a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, the calculation for replacement cost is provided under paragraph (c)(6)(i) of this section, except that the variation margin threshold equals the sum of the variation margin thresholds of all variation margin agreements within the netting set and the minimum transfer amount equals the sum of the minimum transfer amounts of all the variation margin agreements within the netting set.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Calculating potential future exposure.</I> (A) To calculate potential future exposure for a netting set subject to multiple variation margin agreements under which the counterparty to each variation margin agreement must post variation margin, or a netting set composed of at least one derivative contract subject to variation margin agreement under which the counterparty to the derivative contract must post variation margin and at least one derivative contract that is not subject to such a variation margin agreement, an Enterprise must divide the netting set into sub-netting sets (as described in paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(B) of this section) and calculate the aggregated amount for each sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for the netting set is calculated as the sum of the aggregated amounts for the sub-netting sets. The multiplier is calculated for the entire netting set.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of paragraph (c)(11)(ii)(A) of this section, the netting set must be divided into sub-netting sets as follows:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are not subject to a variation margin agreement or that are subject to a variation margin agreement under which the counterparty is not required to post variation margin form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is not subject to a variation margin agreement.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) All derivative contracts within the netting set that are subject to variation margin agreements in which the counterparty must post variation margin and that share the same value of the MPOR form a single sub-netting set. The aggregated amount for this sub-netting set is calculated as if the netting set is subject to a variation margin agreement, using the MPOR value shared by the derivative contracts within the netting set.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)(11)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(B)(<E T="03">2</E>)—Supervisory Option Volatility, Supervisory Correlation Parameters, and Supervisory Factors for Derivative Contracts


</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Asset class
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Category
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory


<br/>option

<br/>volatility

<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory


<br/>correlation

<br/>factor

<br/>(percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Supervisory


<br/>factor 
<sup>1</sup>

<br/>(percent)


</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Interest rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Exchange rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.46
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Sub-speculative grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Credit, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Investment Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.38


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Speculative Grade</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.06
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, single name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">120</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Equity, index</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commodity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Energy</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Electricity</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">150</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Metals</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Agricultural</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Other</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">N/A</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The applicable supervisory factor for basis derivative contract hedging sets is equal to one-half of the supervisory factor provided in this table 2, and the applicable supervisory factor for volatility derivative contract hedging sets is equal to 5 times the supervisory factor provided in this table 2.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Credit valuation adjustment (CVA) risk-weighted assets</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> With respect to its OTC derivative contracts, an Enterprise must calculate a CVA risk-weighted asset amount for its portfolio of OTC derivative transactions that are subject to the CVA capital requirement using the simple CVA approach described in paragraph (d)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recognition of hedges.</I> (i) An Enterprise may recognize a single name CDS, single name contingent CDS, any other equivalent hedging instrument that references the counterparty directly, and index credit default swaps (CDS<E T="52">ind</E>) as a CVA hedge under paragraph (d)(5)(ii) of this section or paragraph (d)(6) of this section, provided that the position is managed as a CVA hedge in accordance with the Enterprise's hedging policies.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise shall not recognize as a CVA hedge any tranched or n<E T="51">th</E>-to-default credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Total CVA risk-weighted assets.</I> Total CVA risk-weighted assets is the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, calculated for an Enterprise's entire portfolio of OTC derivative counterparties that are subject to the CVA capital requirement, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Simple CVA approach.</I> (i) Under the simple CVA approach, the CVA capital requirement, K<E T="52">CVA</E>, is calculated according to the following formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.040.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>A</I> = Σ<E T="54">i</E> 0.75 × <I>w</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="51">2</E> × (<I>M</I><E T="54">i</E> × <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E>−<I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E> × <I>B</I><E T="54">i</E>)<E T="51">2</E>
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(A) w<E T="52">i</E> = the weight applicable to counterparty i under table 3 to paragraph (d)(5)(ii);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) M<E T="52">i</E> = the EAD-weighted average of the effective maturity of each netting set with counterparty i (where each netting set's effective maturity can be no less than one year.)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> = the sum of the EAD for all netting sets of OTC derivative contracts with counterparty i calculated using the standardized approach to counterparty credit risk described in paragraph (c) of this section. When the Enterprise calculates EAD under paragraph (c) of this section, such EAD may be adjusted for purposes of calculating <I>EAD</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">total</E> by multiplying EAD by (1-exp(−0.05 × M<E T="52">i</E>))/(0.05 × M<E T="52">i</E>), where “exp” is the exponential function.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E> = the notional weighted average maturity of the hedge instrument.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(E) B<E T="52">i</E> = the sum of the notional amounts of any purchased single name CDS referencing counterparty i that is used to hedge CVA risk to counterparty i multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>))/(0.05 × <I>M</I><E T="54">i</E><E T="53">hedge</E>).
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(F) M<E T="52">ind</E> = the maturity of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> or the notional weighted average maturity of any CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk of counterparty i.
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(G) B<E T="52">ind</E> = the notional amount of one or more CDS<E T="52">ind</E> purchased to hedge CVA risk for counterparty i multiplied by (1-exp(−0.05 × M<E T="52">ind</E>))/(0.05 × M<E T="52">ind</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(H) w<E T="52">ind</E> = the weight applicable to the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> based on the average weight of the underlying reference names that comprise the index under table 3 to paragraph (d)(5)(ii).</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise may treat the notional amount of the index attributable to a counterparty as a single name hedge of counterparty i (B<E T="52">i</E>,) when calculating K<E T="52">CVA</E>, and subtract the notional amount of B<E T="52">i</E> from the notional amount of the CDS<E T="52">ind</E>. An Enterprise must treat the CDS<E T="52">ind</E> hedge with the notional amount reduced by B<E T="52">i</E> as a CVA hedge.


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">d</E>)(5)(<E T="01">ii</E>)—Assignment of Counterparty Weight
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Internal PD


<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Weight <E T="03">w</E><E T="0734">i</E>


<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">0.00-0.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.070-0.15</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.15-0.40</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;0.40-2.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;2.00-6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">&gt;6.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]








</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.37" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.37   Cleared transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements</I>—(1) <I>Clearing member clients.</I> An Enterprise that is a clearing member client must use the methodologies described in paragraph (b) of this section to calculate risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Clearing members.</I> An Enterprise that is a clearing member must use the methodologies described in paragraph (c) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for a cleared transaction and paragraph (b) of this section to calculate its risk-weighted assets for its default fund contribution to a CCP.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Clearing member client Enterprises</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, an Enterprise that is a clearing member client must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (b)(2) of this section, by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Enterprise's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the derivative contract or netting set of derivative contracts calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 1240.36(c), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Enterprise and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD for the repo-style transaction calculated using the methodology set forth in § 1240.39(b)(2) or (3), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member client Enterprise and held by the CCP or a clearing member in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) For a cleared transaction with a QCCP, a clearing member client Enterprise must apply a risk weight of:
</P>
<P>(A) 2 percent if the collateral posted by the Enterprise to the QCCP or clearing member is subject to an arrangement that prevents any loss to the clearing member client Enterprise due to the joint default or a concurrent insolvency, liquidation, or receivership proceeding of the clearing member and any other clearing member clients of the clearing member; and the clearing member client Enterprise has conducted sufficient legal review to conclude with a well-founded basis (and maintains sufficient written documentation of that legal review) that in the event of a legal challenge (including one resulting from an event of default or from liquidation, insolvency, or receivership proceedings) the relevant court and administrative authorities would find the arrangements to be legal, valid, binding, and enforceable under the law of the relevant jurisdictions.
</P>
<P>(B) 4 percent, if the requirements of paragraph (b)(3)(i)(A) of this section are not met.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member client Enterprise must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member client Enterprise that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member client Enterprise must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under this subpart D, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Clearing member Enterprise</I>—(1) <I>Risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions.</I> (i) To determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a cleared transaction, a clearing member Enterprise must multiply the trade exposure amount for the cleared transaction, calculated in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section by the risk weight appropriate for the cleared transaction, determined in accordance with paragraph (c)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Enterprise's total risk-weighted assets for cleared transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for all of its cleared transactions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Trade exposure amount.</I> A clearing member Enterprise must calculate its trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For a cleared transaction that is a derivative contract or a netting set of derivative contracts, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated using the methodology used to calculate EAD for derivative contracts set forth in § 1240.36(c), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Enterprise and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction that is a repo-style transaction or netting set of repo-style transactions, trade exposure amount equals the EAD calculated under § 1240.39(b)(2) or (3), plus the fair value of the collateral posted by the clearing member Enterprise and held by the CCP in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cleared transaction risk weights.</I> (i) A clearing member Enterprise must apply a risk weight of 2 percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a cleared transaction with a CCP that is not a QCCP, a clearing member Enterprise must apply the risk weight applicable to the CCP according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notwithstanding paragraphs (c)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section, a clearing member Enterprise may apply a risk weight of zero percent to the trade exposure amount for a cleared transaction with a QCCP where the clearing member Enterprise is acting as a financial intermediary on behalf of a clearing member client, the transaction offsets another transaction that satisfies the requirements set forth in § 1240.3(a), and the clearing member Enterprise is not obligated to reimburse the clearing member client in the event of the QCCP default.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Collateral.</I> (i) Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, collateral posted by a clearing member Enterprise that is held by a custodian (in its capacity as a custodian) in a manner that is bankruptcy remote from the CCP, clearing member, and other clearing member clients of the clearing member, is not subject to a capital requirement under this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) A clearing member Enterprise must calculate a risk-weighted asset amount for any collateral provided to a CCP, clearing member or a custodian in connection with a cleared transaction in accordance with requirements under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Default fund contributions</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> A clearing member Enterprise must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for a default fund contribution to a CCP at least quarterly, or more frequently if, in the opinion of the Enterprise or FHFA, there is a material change in the financial condition of the CCP.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to nonqualifying CCPs.</I> A clearing member Enterprise's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to CCPs that are not QCCPs equals the sum of such default fund contributions multiplied by 1,250 percent, or an amount determined by FHFA, based on factors such as size, structure, and membership characteristics of the CCP and riskiness of its transactions, in cases where such default fund contributions may be unlimited.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs.</I> A clearing member Enterprise's risk-weighted asset amount for default fund contributions to QCCPs equals the sum of its capital requirement, K<E T="52">CM</E> for each QCCP, as calculated under the methodology set forth in paragraph (d)(4) of this section, multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital requirement for default fund contributions to a QCCP.</I> A clearing member Enterprise's capital requirement for its default fund contribution to a QCCP (K<E T="52">CM</E>) is equal to:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.041.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(i) <I>K</I><E T="54">CCP</E> is the hypothetical capital requirement of the QCCP, as determined under paragraph (d)(5) of this section;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(ii) <I>DF</I><E T="53">pref</E> is prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member Enterprise to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(iii) <I>DF</I><E T="54">CCP</E> is the QCCP's own prefunded amount that are contributed to the default waterfall and are junior or <I>pari passu</I> with prefunded default fund contributions of clearing members of the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(iv) <I>DF</I><E T="54">CCPCM</E><E T="53">pref</E> is the total prefunded default fund contributions from clearing members of the QCCP to the QCCP.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(5) <I>Hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP.</I> Where a QCCP has provided its K<E T="52">CCP</E>, an Enterprise must rely on such disclosed figure instead of calculating K<E T="52">CCP</E> under this paragraph (d)(5), unless the Enterprise determines that a more conservative figure is appropriate based on the nature, structure, or characteristics of the QCCP. The hypothetical capital requirement of a QCCP (K<E T="52">CCP</E>), as determined by the Enterprise, is equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.042.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(i) CM<E T="52">i</E> is each clearing member of the QCCP; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(ii) EAD<E T="52">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member of the QCCP, as determined under paragraph (d)(6) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(6) <I>EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member.</I> (i) The EAD of a QCCP to a clearing member is equal to the sum of the EAD for derivative contracts determined under paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section and the EAD for repo-style transactions determined under paragraph (d)(6)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any derivative contracts between the QCCP and the clearing member that are cleared transactions and any guarantees that the clearing member has provided to the QCCP with respect to performance of a clearing member client on a derivative contract, the EAD is equal to the exposure amount of the QCCP to the clearing member for all such derivative contracts and guarantees of derivative contracts calculated under SA-CCR in § 1240.36(c) (or, with respect to a QCCP located outside the United States, under a substantially identical methodology in effect in the jurisdiction) using a value of 10 business days for purposes of § 1240.36(c)(9)(iv); less the value of all collateral held by the QCCP posted by the clearing member or a client of the clearing member in connection with a derivative contract for which the clearing member has provided a guarantee to the QCCP and the amount of the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(iii) With respect to any repo-style transactions between the QCCP and a clearing member that are cleared transactions, EAD is equal to:
</P>
<FP-2>EAD<E T="52">i</E> = max{EBRM<E T="52">i</E>−IM<E T="52">i</E>−DF<E T="52">i</E>;0}
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) EBRM<E T="52">i</E> is the exposure amount of the QCCP to each clearing member for all repo-style transactions between the QCCP and the clearing member, as determined under § 1240.39(b)(2) and without recognition of the initial margin collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions or the prefunded default fund contribution of the clearing member institution to the QCCP;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) IM<E T="52">i</E> is the initial margin collateral posted by each clearing member to the QCCP with respect to the repo-style transactions; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) DF<E T="52">i</E> is the prefunded default fund contribution of each clearing member to the
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) QCCP that is not already deducted in paragraph (d)(6)(ii) of this section.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(iv) EAD must be calculated separately for each clearing member's sub-client accounts and sub-house account (<I>i.e.,</I> for the clearing member's proprietary activities). If the clearing member's collateral and its client's collateral are held in the same default fund contribution account, then the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the client-related transactions within the account and the EAD of the house-related transactions within the account. For purposes of determining such EADs, the independent collateral of the clearing member and its client must be allocated in proportion to the respective total amount of independent collateral posted by the clearing member to the QCCP.
</P>
<P>(v) If any account or sub-account contains both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, the EAD of that account is the sum of the EAD for the derivative contracts within the account and the EAD of the repo-style transactions within the account. If independent collateral is held for an account containing both derivative contracts and repo-style transactions, then such collateral must be allocated to the derivative contracts and repo-style transactions in proportion to the respective product specific exposure amounts, calculated, excluding the effects of collateral, according to § 1240.39(b) for repo-style transactions and to § 1240.36(c)(5) for derivative contracts.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]












</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.38" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.38   Guarantees and credit derivatives: substitution treatment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An Enterprise may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative by substituting the risk weight associated with the protection provider for the risk weight assigned to an exposure, as provided under this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to exposures for which:
</P>
<P>(i) Credit risk is fully covered by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Credit risk is covered on a pro rata basis (that is, on a basis in which the Enterprise and the protection provider share losses proportionately) by an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tranching.</I> Exposures on which there is a tranching of credit risk (reflecting at least two different levels of seniority) generally are securitization exposures subject to §§ 1240.41 through 1240.46.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Multiple guarantees or credit derivatives.</I> If multiple eligible guarantees or eligible credit derivatives cover a single exposure described in this section, an Enterprise may treat the hedged exposure as multiple separate exposures each covered by a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and may calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each separate exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Single guarantees or credit derivatives.</I> If a single eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, an Enterprise must treat each hedged exposure as covered by a separate eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative and must calculate a separate risk-weighted asset amount for each exposure as described in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rules of recognition.</I> (1) An Enterprise may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of eligible guarantees and eligible credit derivatives.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise may only recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of an eligible credit derivative to hedge an exposure that is different from the credit derivative's reference exposure used for determining the derivative's cash settlement value, deliverable obligation, or occurrence of a credit event if:
</P>
<P>(i) The reference exposure ranks <I>pari passu</I> with, or is subordinated to, the hedged exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The reference exposure and the hedged exposure are to the same legal entity, and legally enforceable cross-default or cross-acceleration clauses are in place to ensure payments under the credit derivative are triggered when the obligated party of the hedged exposure fails to pay under the terms of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substitution approach</I>—(1) <I>Full coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is greater than or equal to the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, an Enterprise may recognize the guarantee or credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for the hedged exposure by substituting the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider under this subpart D for the risk weight assigned to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Partial coverage.</I> If an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative meets the conditions in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section and the protection amount (P) of the guarantee or credit derivative is less than the exposure amount of the hedged exposure, the Enterprise must treat the hedged exposure as two separate exposures (protected and unprotected) in order to recognize the credit risk mitigation benefit of the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise may calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the protected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is the risk weight applicable to the guarantor or credit derivative protection provider.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the unprotected exposure under this subpart D, where the applicable risk weight is that of the unprotected portion of the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(iii) The treatment provided in this section is applicable when the credit risk of an exposure is covered on a partial pro rata basis and may be applicable when an adjustment is made to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative under paragraph (d), (e), or (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Maturity mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) An Enterprise that recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative in determining the risk-weighted asset amount for a hedged exposure must adjust the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant to reflect any maturity mismatch between the hedged exposure and the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(2) A maturity mismatch occurs when the residual maturity of a credit risk mitigant is less than that of the hedged exposure(s).
</P>
<P>(3) The residual maturity of a hedged exposure is the longest possible remaining time before the obligated party of the hedged exposure is scheduled to fulfil its obligation on the hedged exposure. If a credit risk mitigant has embedded options that may reduce its term, the Enterprise (protection purchaser) must use the shortest possible residual maturity for the credit risk mitigant. If a call is at the discretion of the protection provider, the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant is at the first call date. If the call is at the discretion of the Enterprise (protection purchaser), but the terms of the arrangement at origination of the credit risk mitigant contain a positive incentive for the Enterprise to call the transaction before contractual maturity, the remaining time to the first call date is the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant.
</P>
<P>(4) A credit risk mitigant with a maturity mismatch may be recognized only if its original maturity is greater than or equal to one year and its residual maturity is greater than three months.
</P>
<P>(5) When a maturity mismatch exists, the Enterprise must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant: Pm = E × (t−0.25)/(T−0.25), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for maturity mismatch;
</P>
<P>(ii) E = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant;
</P>
<P>(iii) t = the lesser of T or the residual maturity of the credit risk mitigant, expressed in years; and
</P>
<P>(iv) T = the lesser of five or the residual maturity of the hedged exposure, expressed in years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment for credit derivatives without restructuring as a credit event.</I> If an Enterprise recognizes an eligible credit derivative that does not include as a credit event a restructuring of the hedged exposure involving forgiveness or postponement of principal, interest, or fees that results in a credit loss event (that is, a charge-off, specific provision, or other similar debit to the profit and loss account), the Enterprise must apply the following adjustment to reduce the effective notional amount of the credit derivative: Pr = Pm × 0.60, where:
</P>
<P>(1) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for lack of restructuring event (and maturity mismatch, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(2) Pm = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch, if applicable).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Currency mismatch adjustment.</I> (1) If an Enterprise recognizes an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative that is denominated in a currency different from that in which the hedged exposure is denominated, the Enterprise must apply the following formula to the effective notional amount of the guarantee or credit derivative: Pc = Pr × (1−H<E T="52">FX</E>), where:
</P>
<P>(i) Pc = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant, adjusted for currency mismatch (and maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable);
</P>
<P>(ii) Pr = effective notional amount of the credit risk mitigant (adjusted for maturity mismatch and lack of restructuring event, if applicable); and
</P>
<P>(iii) H<E T="52">FX</E> = haircut appropriate for the currency mismatch between the credit risk mitigant and the hedged exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must set H<E T="52">FX</E> equal to eight percent unless it qualifies for the use of and uses its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility based on a ten-business-day holding period. An Enterprise qualifies for the use of its own internal estimates of foreign exchange volatility if it qualifies for the use of its own-estimates haircuts in § 1240.39(c)(4).
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must adjust H<E T="52">FX</E> calculated in paragraph (f)(2) of this section upward if the Enterprise revalues the guarantee or credit derivative less frequently than once every 10 business days using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.035.gif"/>
<FP>where T<E T="52">M</E> equals the greater of 10 or the number of days between revaluation.










</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.39" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.39   Collateralized transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An Enterprise may use the following methodologies to recognize the benefits of financial collateral (other than with respect to a retained CRT exposure) in mitigating the counterparty credit risk of repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, collateralized OTC derivative contracts and single product netting sets of such transactions:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) For single product netting sets of repo-style transactions and eligible margin loans, the simple VaR methodology set forth in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise may use any combination of the two methodologies for collateral recognition; however, it must use the same methodology for similar exposures or transactions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>EAD for eligible margin loans and repo-style transactions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> An Enterprise may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of financial collateral that secures an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or single-product netting set of such transactions by determining the EAD of the exposure using:
</P>
<P>(i) The collateral haircut approach described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For netting sets only, the simple VaR methodology described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Collateral haircut approach</I>—(i) <I>EAD equation.</I> An Enterprise may determine EAD for an eligible margin loan, repo-style transaction, or netting set by setting EAD equal to
</P>
<FP-2>max{0, [(ΣE−ΣC) + Σ(E<E T="52">s</E> × H<E T="52">s</E>) + Σ(E<E T="52">fx</E> × H<E T="52">fx</E>)]},
</FP-2>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(A) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(B) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Enterprise has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the transaction (or netting set));
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(C) E<E T="52">s</E> equals the absolute value of the net position in a given instrument or in gold (where the net position in a given instrument or in gold equals the sum of the current fair values of the instrument or gold the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of that same instrument or gold the Enterprise has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty);
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(D) H<E T="52">s</E> equals the market price volatility haircut appropriate to the instrument or gold referenced in E<E T="52">s</E>;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(E) E<E T="52">fx</E> equals the absolute value of the net position of instruments and cash in a currency that is different from the settlement currency (where the net position in a given currency equals the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty minus the sum of the current fair values of any instruments or cash in the currency the Enterprise has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty); and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(F) H<E T="52">fx</E> equals the haircut appropriate to the mismatch between the currency referenced in Efx and the settlement currency.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(ii) <I>Standard supervisory haircuts.</I> Under the standard supervisory haircuts approach:
</P>
<P>(A) An Enterprise must use the haircuts for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>) in table 1 to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section;


</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(2)(<E T="01">ii</E>)(A)—Standard Supervisory Market Price Volatility Haircuts 
<sup>1</sup>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Residual maturity
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="6" scope="col">Haircut (in percent) assigned based on:
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="3" scope="col">Investment grade securitization


<br/>exposures

<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Sovereign issuers risk weight under § 1240.32 
<sup>2</sup>


<br/>(in percent)
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="3" scope="col">Non-sovereign issuers risk weight under § 1240.32


<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Zero
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20 or 50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">20
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">50
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">100
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Less than or equal to 1 year</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 1 year and less than or equal to 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Greater than 5 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.0</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Main index equities (including convertible bonds) and gold</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">15.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other publicly traded equities (including convertible bonds)</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Mutual funds</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Highest haircut applicable to any security in which the fund can invest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Cash collateral held</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">Zero.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4" scope="row">Other exposure types</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">25.0
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The market price volatility haircuts in table 1 are based on a 10 business-day holding period.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Includes a foreign PSE that receives a zero percent risk weight.</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(B) For currency mismatches, an Enterprise must use a haircut for foreign exchange rate volatility (H<E T="52">fx</E>) of 8 percent, as adjusted in certain circumstances as provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(C) and (D) of this section.
</P>
<P>(C) For repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions, an Enterprise may multiply the supervisory haircuts provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(A) and (B) of this section by the square root of 
<FR>1/2</FR> (which equals 0.707107). If the Enterprise determines that a longer holding period is appropriate for client-facing derivative transactions, then it must use a larger scaling factor to adjust for the longer holding period pursuant to paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F) of this section.
</P>
<P>(D) An Enterprise must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days (for eligible margin loans) or five business days (for repo-style transactions), using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(D) apply. If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an Enterprise must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when an Enterprise is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 1240.37). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, an Enterprise must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted longer than the holding period, then the Enterprise must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward for that netting set on the basis of a minimum holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(E)(<I>1</I>) An Enterprise must adjust the supervisory haircuts upward on the basis of a holding period longer than ten business days for collateral associated with derivative contracts (five business days for client-facing derivative contracts) using the formula provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(F) of this section where the conditions in this paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>1</I>) apply. For collateral associated with a derivative contract that is within a netting set that is composed of more than 5,000 derivative contracts that are not cleared transactions, an Enterprise must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or a derivative contract that cannot be easily replaced, an Enterprise must use a minimum holding period of twenty business days.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) or (C) or (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>1</I>) of this section, for collateral associated with a derivative contract in a netting set under which more than two margin disputes that lasted longer than the holding period occurred during the two previous quarters, the minimum holding period is twice the amount provided under paragraph (b)(2)(ii)(A) or (C) or (b)(2)(ii)(E)(<I>1</I>).
</P>
<P>(F) An Enterprise must adjust the standard supervisory haircuts upward, pursuant to the adjustments provided in paragraphs (b)(2)(ii)(C) through (E) of this section, using the following formula:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.043.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(<I>1</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals a holding period of longer than 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or longer than 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions; H<E T="52">s</E> equals the standard supervisory haircut; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>2</I>) T<E T="52">s</E> equals 10 business days for eligible margin loans and derivative contracts other than client-facing derivative transactions or 5 business days for repo-style transactions and client-facing derivative transactions.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(G) If the instrument an Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral does not meet the definition of financial collateral, the Enterprise must use a 25.0 percent haircut for market price volatility (H<E T="52">s</E>).
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Own internal estimates for haircuts.</I> With the prior written notice to FHFA, an Enterprise may calculate haircuts (H<E T="52">s</E> and H<E T="52">fx</E>) using its own internal estimates of the volatilities of market prices and foreign exchange rates.
</P>
<P>(A) To use its own internal estimates, an Enterprise must satisfy the following minimum quantitative standards:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) An Enterprise must use a 99th percentile one-tailed confidence interval.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The minimum holding period for a repo-style transaction is five business days and for an eligible margin loan is ten business days except for transactions or netting sets for which paragraph (b)(2)(iii)(A)(<I>3</I>) of this section applies. When an Enterprise calculates an own-estimates haircut on a T<E T="52">N</E>-day holding period, which is different from the minimum holding period for the transaction type, the applicable haircut (H<E T="52">M</E>) is calculated using the following square root of time formula:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er30no23.044.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP>Where:
</FP>
<FP-2>(<I>i</I>) T<E T="52">M</E> equals 5 for repo-style transactions and 10 for eligible margin loans;
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>ii</I>) T<E T="52">N</E> equals the holding period used by the Enterprise to derive H<E T="52">N</E>; and
</FP-2>
<FP-2>(<I>iii</I>) H<E T="52">N</E> equals the haircut based on the holding period T<E T="52">N</E></FP-2></EXTRACT>
<P>(<I>3</I>) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an Enterprise must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days for the following quarter (except when an Enterprise is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 1240.37). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral or an OTC derivative that cannot be easily replaced, an Enterprise must calculate the haircut using a minimum holding period of twenty business days. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Enterprise must calculate the haircut for transactions in that netting set on the basis of a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) An Enterprise is required to calculate its own internal estimates with inputs calibrated to historical data from a continuous 12-month period that reflects a period of significant financial stress appropriate to the security or category of securities.
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) An Enterprise must have policies and procedures that describe how it determines the period of significant financial stress used to calculate the Enterprise's own internal estimates for haircuts under this section and must be able to provide empirical support for the period used. The Enterprise must obtain the prior approval of FHFA for, and notify FHFA if the Enterprise makes any material changes to, these policies and procedures.
</P>
<P>(<I>6</I>) Nothing in this section prevents FHFA from requiring an Enterprise to use a different period of significant financial stress in the calculation of own internal estimates for haircuts.
</P>
<P>(<I>7</I>) An Enterprise must update its data sets and calculate haircuts no less frequently than quarterly and must also reassess data sets and haircuts whenever market prices change materially.
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to debt securities that are investment grade, an Enterprise may calculate haircuts for categories of securities. For a category of securities, the Enterprise must calculate the haircut on the basis of internal volatility estimates for securities in that category that are representative of the securities in that category that the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. In determining relevant categories, the Enterprise must at a minimum take into account:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The type of issuer of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The credit quality of the security;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The maturity of the security; and
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) The interest rate sensitivity of the security.
</P>
<P>(C) With respect to debt securities that are not investment grade and equity securities, an Enterprise must calculate a separate haircut for each individual security.
</P>
<P>(D) Where an exposure or collateral (whether in the form of cash or securities) is denominated in a currency that differs from the settlement currency, the Enterprise must calculate a separate currency mismatch haircut for its net position in each mismatched currency based on estimated volatilities of foreign exchange rates between the mismatched currency and the settlement currency.
</P>
<P>(E) An Enterprise's own estimates of market price and foreign exchange rate volatilities may not take into account the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates on either the exposure or collateral side of a transaction (or netting set) or the correlations among securities and foreign exchange rates between the exposure and collateral sides of the transaction (or netting set).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Simple VaR methodology.</I> With the prior written notice to FHFA, an Enterprise may estimate EAD for a netting set using a VaR model that meets the requirements in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section. In such event, the Enterprise must set EAD equal to max {0, [(ΣE−ΣC) + PFE]}, where:
</P>
<P>(i) ΣE equals the value of the exposure (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, or posted as collateral to the counterparty under the netting set);
</P>
<P>(ii) ΣC equals the value of the collateral (the sum of the current fair values of all instruments, gold, and cash the Enterprise has borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral from the counterparty under the netting set); and
</P>
<P>(iii) PFE (potential future exposure) equals the Enterprise's empirically based best estimate of the 99th percentile, one-tailed confidence interval for an increase in the value of (ΣE−ΣC) over a five-business-day holding period for repo-style transactions, or over a ten-business-day holding period for eligible margin loans except for netting sets for which paragraph (b)(3)(iv) of this section applies using a minimum one-year historical observation period of price data representing the instruments that the Enterprise has lent, sold subject to repurchase, posted as collateral, borrowed, purchased subject to resale, or taken as collateral. The Enterprise must validate its VaR model by establishing and maintaining a rigorous and regular backtesting regime.
</P>
<P>(iv) If the number of trades in a netting set exceeds 5,000 at any time during a quarter, an Enterprise must use a twenty-business-day holding period for the following quarter (except when an Enterprise is calculating EAD for a cleared transaction under § 1240.37). If a netting set contains one or more trades involving illiquid collateral, an Enterprise must use a twenty-business-day holding period. If over the two previous quarters more than two margin disputes on a netting set have occurred that lasted more than the holding period, then the Enterprise must set its PFE for that netting set equal to an estimate over a holding period that is at least two times the minimum holding period for that netting set.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]








</CITA>
<HD1>Risk-Weighted Assets for Unsettled Transactions




</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.40" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.40   Unsettled transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) transaction means a securities or commodities transaction in which the buyer is obligated to make payment only if the seller has made delivery of the securities or commodities and the seller is obligated to deliver the securities or commodities only if the buyer has made payment.
</P>
<P>(2) Payment-versus-payment (PvP) transaction means a foreign exchange transaction in which each counterparty is obligated to make a final transfer of one or more currencies only if the other counterparty has made a final transfer of one or more currencies.
</P>
<P>(3) A transaction has a normal settlement period if the contractual settlement period for the transaction is equal to or less than the market standard for the instrument underlying the transaction and equal to or less than five business days.
</P>
<P>(4) Positive current exposure of an Enterprise for a transaction is the difference between the transaction value at the agreed settlement price and the current market price of the transaction, if the difference results in a credit exposure of the Enterprise to the counterparty.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope.</I> This section applies to all transactions involving securities, foreign exchange instruments, and commodities that have a risk of delayed settlement or delivery. This section does not apply to:
</P>
<P>(1) Cleared transactions that are marked-to-market daily and subject to daily receipt and payment of variation margin;
</P>
<P>(2) Repo-style transactions, including unsettled repo-style transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) One-way cash payments on OTC derivative contracts; or
</P>
<P>(4) Transactions with a contractual settlement period that is longer than the normal settlement period (which are treated as OTC derivative contracts as provided in § 1240.36).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>System-wide failures.</I> In the case of a system-wide failure of a settlement, clearing system or central counterparty, FHFA may waive risk-based capital requirements for unsettled and failed transactions until the situation is rectified.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Delivery-versus-payment (DvP) and payment-versus-payment (PvP) transactions.</I> An Enterprise must hold risk-based capital against any DvP or PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Enterprise's counterparty has not made delivery or payment within five business days after the settlement date. The Enterprise must determine its risk-weighted asset amount for such a transaction by multiplying the positive current exposure of the transaction for the Enterprise by the appropriate risk weight in table 1 to this paragraph (d).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.040.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Non-DvP/non-PvP (non-delivery-versus-payment/non-payment-versus-payment) transactions.</I> (1) An Enterprise must hold risk-based capital against any non-DvP/non-PvP transaction with a normal settlement period if the Enterprise has delivered cash, securities, commodities, or currencies to its counterparty but has not received its corresponding deliverables by the end of the same business day. The Enterprise must continue to hold risk-based capital against the transaction until the Enterprise has received its corresponding deliverables.
</P>
<P>(2) From the business day after the Enterprise has made its delivery until five business days after the counterparty delivery is due, the Enterprise must calculate the risk-weighted asset amount for the transaction by treating the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Enterprise as an exposure to the counterparty and using the applicable counterparty risk weight under this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(3) If the Enterprise has not received its deliverables by the fifth business day after counterparty delivery was due, the Enterprise must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to the current fair value of the deliverables owed to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions.</I> Total risk-weighted assets for unsettled transactions is the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts of all DvP, PvP, and non-DvP/non-PvP transactions.
</P>
<HD1>Risk-Weighted Assets for CRT and Other Securitization Exposures


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.41" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.41   Operational requirements for CRT and other securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Operational criteria for traditional securitizations.</I> An Enterprise that transfers exposures it has purchased or otherwise acquired to a securitization SPE or other third party in connection with a traditional securitization may exclude the exposures from the calculation of its risk-weighted assets only if each condition in this section is satisfied. An Enterprise that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk it retains in connection with the securitization. An Enterprise that fails to meet these conditions must hold risk-based capital against the transferred exposures as if they had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the transaction. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The exposures are not reported on the Enterprise's consolidated balance sheet under GAAP;
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise has transferred to one or more third parties credit risk associated with the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(3) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls; and
</P>
<P>(4) The securitization does not:
</P>
<P>(i) Include one or more underlying exposures in which the borrower is permitted to vary the drawn amount within an agreed limit under a line of credit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Contain an early amortization provision.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Operational criteria for synthetic securitizations.</I> For synthetic securitizations, an Enterprise may recognize for risk-based capital purposes the use of a credit risk mitigant to hedge underlying exposures only if each condition in this paragraph (b) is satisfied. An Enterprise that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the synthetic securitization. An Enterprise that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk mitigant for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been synthetically securitized. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk mitigant is:
</P>
<P>(i) Financial collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) A guarantee that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 1240.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of that definition; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit derivative that meets all criteria as set forth in the definition of “eligible credit derivative” in § 1240.2, except for the criteria in paragraph (3) of the definition of “eligible guarantee” in § 1240.2.
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk mitigants employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit protection due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the Enterprise to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the Enterprise's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the Enterprise in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the Enterprise after the inception of the securitization;
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk mitigant in all relevant jurisdictions; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any clean-up calls relating to the securitization are eligible clean-up calls.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Operational criteria for credit risk transfers.</I> For credit risk transfers, an Enterprise may recognize for risk-based capital purposes, the use of a credit risk transfer only if each condition in this paragraph (c) is satisfied (or, for a credit risk transfer entered into before February 16, 2021, only if each condition in paragraphs (c)(2) and (3) of this section is satisfied). An Enterprise that meets these conditions must hold risk-based capital against any credit risk of the exposures it retains in connection with the credit risk transfer. An Enterprise that fails to meet these conditions or chooses not to recognize the credit risk transfer for purposes of this section must instead hold risk-based capital against the underlying exposures as if they had not been subject to the credit risk transfer. The conditions are:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit risk transfer is any of the following—
</P>
<P>(i) An eligible funded synthetic risk transfer;
</P>
<P>(ii) An eligible reinsurance risk transfer;
</P>
<P>(iii) An eligible single-family lender risk share;
</P>
<P>(iv) An eligible multifamily lender risk share; or
</P>
<P>(v) An eligible senior-subordinated structure.
</P>
<P>(2) The credit risk transfer has been approved by FHFA as effective in transferring the credit risk of one or more mortgage exposures to another party, taking into account any counterparty, recourse, or other risk to the Enterprise and any capital, liquidity, or other requirements applicable to counterparties;
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise transfers credit risk associated with the underlying exposures to one or more third parties, and the terms and conditions in the credit risk transfer employed do not include provisions that:
</P>
<P>(i) Allow for the termination of the credit risk transfer due to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(ii) Require the Enterprise to alter or replace the underlying exposures to improve the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iii) Increase the Enterprise's cost of credit protection in response to deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures;
</P>
<P>(iv) Increase the yield payable to parties other than the Enterprise in response to a deterioration in the credit quality of the underlying exposures; or
</P>
<P>(v) Provide for increases in a retained first loss position or credit enhancement provided by the Enterprise after the inception of the credit risk transfer;
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise obtains a well-reasoned opinion from legal counsel that confirms the enforceability of the credit risk transfer in all relevant jurisdictions;
</P>
<P>(5) Any clean-up calls relating to the credit risk transfer are eligible clean-up calls;


</P>
<P>(6) Any time-based calls relating to the credit risk transfer are eligible time-based calls; and


</P>
<P>(7) The Enterprise includes in its periodic disclosures under the Federal securities laws, or in other appropriate public disclosures, a reasonably detailed description of—
</P>
<P>(i) The material recourse or other risks that might reduce the effectiveness of the credit risk transfer in transferring the credit risk on the underlying exposures to third parties; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Each condition under paragraph (a) of this section (governing traditional securitizations) or paragraph (b) of this section (governing synthetic securitizations) that is not satisfied by the credit risk transfer and the reasons that each such condition is not satisfied.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Due diligence requirements for securitization exposures.</I> (1) Except for exposures that are deducted from common equity tier 1 capital and exposures subject to § 1240.42(h), if an Enterprise is unable to demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA a comprehensive understanding of the features of a securitization exposure that would materially affect the performance of the exposure, the Enterprise must assign the securitization exposure a risk weight of 1,250 percent. The Enterprise's analysis must be commensurate with the complexity of the securitization exposure and the materiality of the exposure in relation to its capital.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must demonstrate its comprehensive understanding of a securitization exposure under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, for each securitization exposure by:
</P>
<P>(i) Conducting an analysis of the risk characteristics of a securitization exposure prior to acquiring the exposure, and documenting such analysis within three business days after acquiring the exposure, considering:
</P>
<P>(A) Structural features of the securitization that would materially impact the performance of the exposure, for example, the contractual cash flow waterfall, waterfall-related triggers, credit enhancements, liquidity enhancements, fair value triggers, the performance of organizations that service the exposure, and deal-specific definitions of default;
</P>
<P>(B) Relevant information regarding the performance of the underlying credit exposure(s), for example, the percentage of loans 30, 60, and 90 days past due; default rates; prepayment rates; loans in foreclosure; property types; occupancy; average credit score or other measures of creditworthiness; average loan-to-value ratio; and industry and geographic diversification data on the underlying exposure(s);
</P>
<P>(C) Relevant market data of the securitization, for example, bid-ask spread, most recent sales price and historic price volatility, trading volume, implied market rating, and size, depth and concentration level of the market for the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(D) For resecuritization exposures, performance information on the underlying securitization exposures, for example, the issuer name and credit quality, and the characteristics and performance of the exposures underlying the securitization exposures; and
</P>
<P>(ii) On an on-going basis (no less frequently than quarterly), evaluating, reviewing, and updating as appropriate the analysis required under paragraph (d)(1) of this section for each securitization exposure.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.42" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.42   Risk-weighted assets for CRT and other securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Securitization risk weight approaches.</I> Except as provided elsewhere in this section or in § 1240.41:
</P>
<P>(1) An Enterprise must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from a securitization and apply a 1,250 percent risk weight to the portion of a CEIO that does not constitute after-tax gain-on-sale.
</P>
<P>(2) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an Enterprise may assign a risk weight to the securitization exposure either using the simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA) in accordance with § 1240.43(a) through (d) for a securitization exposure that is not a retained CRT exposure or an acquired CRT exposure or using the credit risk transfer approach (CRTA) in accordance with § 1240.44 for a retained CRT exposure, and in either case, subject to the limitation under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If a securitization exposure does not require deduction under paragraph (a)(1) of this section and the Enterprise cannot, or chooses not to apply the SSFA or the CRTA to the exposure, the Enterprise must assign a risk weight to the exposure as described in § 1240.45.
</P>
<P>(4) If a securitization exposure is a derivative contract (other than protection provided by an Enterprise in the form of a credit derivative) that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments), an Enterprise may choose to set the risk-weighted asset amount of the exposure equal to the amount of the exposure as determined in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures.</I> An Enterprise's total risk-weighted assets for securitization exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amount for securitization exposures that the Enterprise risk weights under § 1240.41(d), § 1240.42(a)(1), § 1240.43, § 1240.44, or § 1240.45, and paragraphs (e) through (h) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exposure amount of a CRT or other securitization exposure</I>—(1) <I>On-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> Except as provided for retained CRT exposures in § 1240.44(f), the exposure amount of an on-balance sheet securitization exposure (excluding a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, OTC derivative contract, or cleared transaction) is equal to the carrying value of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Off-balance sheet securitization exposures.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (h) of this section or as provided for retained CRT exposures in § 1240.44(f), the exposure amount of an off-balance sheet securitization exposure that is not a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, cleared transaction (other than a credit derivative), or an OTC derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the notional amount of the exposure.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Repo-style transactions, eligible margin loans, and derivative contracts.</I> The exposure amount of a securitization exposure that is a repo-style transaction, eligible margin loan, or derivative contract (other than a credit derivative) is the exposure amount of the transaction as calculated under § 1240.36 or § 1240.39, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Overlapping exposures.</I> If an Enterprise has multiple securitization exposures that provide duplicative coverage to the underlying exposures of a securitization, the Enterprise is not required to hold duplicative risk-based capital against the overlapping position. Instead, the Enterprise may apply to the overlapping position the applicable risk-based capital treatment that results in the highest risk-based capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Implicit support.</I> If an Enterprise provides support to a securitization (including a CRT) in excess of the Enterprise's contractual obligation to provide credit support to the securitization (implicit support):
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise must include in risk-weighted assets all of the underlying exposures associated with the securitization as if the exposures had not been securitized and must deduct from common equity tier 1 capital any after-tax gain-on-sale resulting from the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise must disclose publicly:
</P>
<P>(i) That it has provided implicit support to the securitization; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The risk-based capital impact to the Enterprise of providing such implicit support.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Interest-only mortgage-backed securities.</I> For non-credit-enhancing interest-only mortgage-backed securities that are not subject to § 1240.32(c), the risk weight may not be less than 100 percent.


</P>
<P>(g) <I>Nth-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> An Enterprise may assign a risk weight using the SSFA in § 1240.43 to an nth-to-default credit derivative in accordance with this paragraph (g). An Enterprise must determine its exposure in the nth-to-default credit derivative as the largest notional amount of all the underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) A<I>ttachment and detachment points.</I> For purposes of determining the risk weight for an nth-to-default credit derivative using the SSFA, the Enterprise must calculate the attachment point and detachment point of its exposure as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) The attachment point (parameter <I>A</I>) is the ratio of the sum of the notional amounts of all underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. In the case of a first-to-default credit derivative, there are no underlying exposures that are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure. In the case of a second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivative, the smallest (n-1) notional amounts of the underlying exposure(s) are subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure.
</P>
<P>(ii) The detachment point (parameter <I>D</I>) equals the sum of parameter <I>A</I> plus the ratio of the notional amount of the Enterprise's exposure in the nth-to-default credit derivative to the total notional amount of all underlying exposures. The ratio is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk weights.</I> An Enterprise that does not use the SSFA to determine a risk weight for its nth-to-default credit derivative must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Protection purchaser</I>—(i) <I>First-to-default credit derivatives.</I> An Enterprise that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a first-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 1240.38(b) must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the Enterprise synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures. An Enterprise must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 1240.36 for a first-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 1240.38(b).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Second-or-subsequent-to-default credit derivatives.</I> (A) An Enterprise that obtains credit protection on a group of underlying exposures through a nth-to-default credit derivative that meets the rules of recognition of § 1240.38(b) (other than a first-to-default credit derivative) may recognize the credit risk mitigation benefits of the derivative only if:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Enterprise also has obtained credit protection on the same underlying exposures in the form of first-through-(n-1)-to-default credit derivatives; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If n-1 of the underlying exposures have already defaulted.
</P>
<P>(B) If an Enterprise satisfies the requirements of paragraph (i)(4)(ii)(A) of this section, the Enterprise must determine its risk-based capital requirement for the underlying exposures as if the Enterprise had only synthetically securitized the underlying exposure with the nth smallest risk-weighted asset amount and had obtained no credit risk mitigant on the other underlying exposures.
</P>
<P>(C) An Enterprise must calculate a risk-based capital requirement for counterparty credit risk according to § 1240.36 for a nth-to-default credit derivative that does not meet the rules of recognition of § 1240.38(b).
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Guarantees and credit derivatives other than nth-to-default credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Protection provider.</I> For a guarantee or credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) provided by an Enterprise that covers the full amount or a pro rata share of a securitization exposure's principal and interest, the Enterprise must risk weight the guarantee or credit derivative as if it holds the portion of the reference exposure covered by the guarantee or credit derivative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Protection purchaser.</I> (i) An Enterprise that purchases a guarantee or OTC credit derivative (other than an nth-to-default credit derivative) that is recognized under § 1240.46 as a credit risk mitigant (including via collateral recognized under § 1240.39) is not required to compute a separate counterparty credit risk capital requirement under § 1240.31, in accordance with § 1240.36(c).
</P>
<P>(ii) If an Enterprise cannot, or chooses not to, recognize a purchased credit derivative as a credit risk mitigant under § 1240.46, the Enterprise must determine the exposure amount of the credit derivative under § 1240.36.
</P>
<P>(A) If the Enterprise purchases credit protection from a counterparty that is not a securitization SPE, the Enterprise must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to this subpart D.
</P>
<P>(B) If the Enterprise purchases the credit protection from a counterparty that is a securitization SPE, the Enterprise must determine the risk weight for the exposure according to § 1240.42, including § 1240.42(a)(4) for a credit derivative that has a first priority claim on the cash flows from the underlying exposures of the securitization SPE (notwithstanding amounts due under interest rate or currency derivative contracts, fees due, or other similar payments).


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.43" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.43   Simplified supervisory formula approach (SSFA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the SSFA.</I> To use the SSFA to determine the risk weight for a securitization exposure, an Enterprise must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the securitization require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An Enterprise that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SSFA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weight for a securitization exposure using the SSFA, an Enterprise must have accurate information on the following five inputs to the SSFA calculation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> is the weighted-average (with unpaid principal used as the weight for each exposure) adjusted total capital requirement of the underlying exposures calculated using this subpart. <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one (that is, an average risk weight of 100 percent represents a value of <I>K</I><E T="0112">G</E> equal to 0.08).
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter <I>W</I> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one. Parameter <I>W</I> is the ratio of the sum of the dollar amounts of any underlying exposures of the securitization that meet any of the criteria as set forth in paragraphs (b)(2)(i) through (vi) of this section to the balance, measured in dollars, of underlying exposures:
</P>
<P>(i) Ninety days or more past due;
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to a bankruptcy or insolvency proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iii) In the process of foreclosure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Held as real estate owned;
</P>
<P>(v) Has contractually deferred payments for 90 days or more, other than principal or interest payments deferred on:
</P>
<P>(A) Federally-guaranteed student loans, in accordance with the terms of those guarantee programs; or
</P>
<P>(B) Consumer loans, including non-federally-guaranteed student loans, provided that such payments are deferred pursuant to provisions included in the contract at the time funds are disbursed that provide for period(s) of deferral that are not initiated based on changes in the creditworthiness of the borrower; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Is in default.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter <I>A</I> is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Except as provided in § 1240.42(g) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter <I>A</I> equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the Enterprise to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the Enterprise's securitization exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter <I>A</I> to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter <I>A</I> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter <I>D</I> is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Except as provided in § 1240.42(g) for nth-to-default credit derivatives, parameter <I>D</I> equals parameter <I>A</I> plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the securitization exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter <I>D</I> is expressed as a decimal value between zero and one.
</P>
<P>(5) A supervisory calibration parameter, <I>p,</I> is equal to 0.5 for securitization exposures that are not resecuritization exposures and equal to 1.5 for resecuritization exposures (except <I>p</I> is equal to 0.5 for resecuritization exposures secured by MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise).
</P>
<P>(c) Mechanics of the SSFA. <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E> and <I>W</I> are used to calculate <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the augmented value of <I>K</I><E T="54">G</E>, which reflects the observed credit quality of the underlying exposures. <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> is defined in paragraph (d) of this section. The values of parameters <I>A</I> and <I>D,</I> relative to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> determine the risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure as described in paragraph (d) of this section. The risk weight assigned to a securitization exposure, or portion of a securitization exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of the risk weight determined in accordance with this paragraph (c) or paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter <I>D,</I> for a securitization exposure is less than or equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter <I>A,</I> for a securitization exposure is greater than or equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the Enterprise must calculate the risk weight in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) When <I>A</I> is less than <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and <I>D</I> is greater than <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E>, the risk weight is a weighted-average of 1,250 percent and 1,250 percent times <I>K</I><E T="52">SSFA</E> calculated in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section. For the purpose of this weighted-average calculation:
</P>
<P>(i) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent equals
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.041.gif"/>
<P>(ii) The weight assigned to 1,250 percent times <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> equals
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.042.gif"/>
<P>(iii) The risk weight will be set equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.043.gif"/>
<P>(d) <I>SSFA equation.</I> (1) The Enterprise must define the following parameters:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.044.gif"/>
<P><I>e</I> = 2.71828, the base of the natural logarithms.
</P>
<P>(2) Then the Enterprise must calculate <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> according to the following equation:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.045.gif"/>
<P>(3) The risk weight for the exposure (expressed as a percent) is equal to <I>K</I><E T="54">SSFA</E> * 1,250.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an Enterprise must assign a risk weight of not less than 20 percent to a securitization exposure.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.44" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.44   Credit risk transfer approach (CRTA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements for the CRTA.</I> To use the CRTA to determine the risk weighted assets for a retained CRT exposure, an Enterprise must have data that enables it to assign accurately the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section. Data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be the most currently available data; if the contracts governing the underlying exposures of the credit risk transfer require payments on a monthly or quarterly basis, the data used to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must be no more than 91 calendar days old. An Enterprise that does not have the appropriate data to assign the parameters described in paragraph (b) of this section must assign a risk weight of 1,250 percent to the retained CRT exposure.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CRTA parameters.</I> To calculate the risk weighted assets for a retained CRT exposure, an Enterprise must have accurate information on the following ten inputs to the CRTA calculation.
</P>
<P>(1) Parameter <I>A</I> is the attachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses will first be allocated to the exposure. Parameter <I>A</I> equals the ratio of the current dollar amount of underlying exposures that are subordinated to the exposure of the Enterprise to the current dollar amount of underlying exposures. Any reserve account funded by the accumulated cash flows from the underlying exposures that is subordinated to the Enterprise's exposure may be included in the calculation of parameter <I>A</I> to the extent that cash is present in the account. Parameter <I>A</I> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) Parameter <I>AggUPB</I><E T="52">$</E> is the aggregate unpaid principal balance of the underlying mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(3) Parameter <I>CM</I><E T="0112">%</E> is the percentage of a tranche sold in the capital markets. <I>CM</I><E T="0112">%</E> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(4) Parameter <I>Collat</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">RIF</E> is the amount of financial collateral posted by a counterparty under a loss sharing contract expressed as a percentage of the risk in force. For multifamily lender loss sharing transactions where an Enterprise has the contractual right to receive future lender guarantee-fee revenue, the Enterprise may include up to 12 months of estimated lender retained servicing fees in excess of servicing costs on the multifamily mortgage exposures subject to the loss sharing contract. <I>Collat</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">RIF</E> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(5) Parameter <I>D</I> is the detachment point for the exposure, which represents the threshold at which credit losses of principal allocated to the exposure would result in a total loss of principal. Parameter <I>D</I> equals parameter <I>A</I> plus the ratio of the current dollar amount of the exposures that are <I>pari passu</I> with the exposure (that is, have equal seniority with respect to credit risk) to the current dollar amount of the underlying exposures. Parameter <I>D</I> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(6) Parameter <I>EL</I><E T="52">$</E> is the remaining lifetime net expected credit risk losses of the underlying mortgage exposures. <I>EL</I><E T="52">$</E> must be calculated internally by an Enterprise. If the contractual terms of the CRT do not provide for the transfer of the counterparty credit risk associated with any loan-level credit enhancement or other loss sharing on the underlying mortgage exposures, then the Enterprise must calculate <I>EL</I><E T="52">$</E> assuming no counterparty haircuts. Parameter <I>EL</I><E T="52">$</E> is expressed in dollars.
</P>
<P>(7) Parameter <I>HC</I> is the haircut for the counterparty in contractual loss sharing transactions.
</P>
<P>(i) For a CRT with respect to single-family mortgage exposures, the counterparty haircut is set forth in table 12 to paragraph (e)(3)(ii) in § 1240.33, determined as if the counterparty to the CRT were a counterparty to loan-level credit enhancement (as defined in § 1240.33(a)) and considering the counterparty rating and mortgage concentration risk of the counterparty to the CRT and the single-family segment and product of the underlying single-family mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(ii) For a CRT with respect to multifamily mortgage exposures, the counterparty haircut is set forth in table 1 to this paragraph (b)(7)(ii), with counterparty rating and mortgage concentration risk having the meaning given in § 1240.33(a).
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.046.gif"/>
<P>(8) Parameter <I>LS</I><E T="0112">%</E> is the percentage of a tranche that is either insured, reinsured, or afforded coverage through lender reimbursement of credit losses of principal. <I>LS</I><E T="0112">%</E> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(9) Parameter <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> is the loss timing factor which accounts for maturity differences between the CRT and the underlying mortgage exposures. Maturity differences arise when the maturity date of the CRT is before the maturity dates of the underlying mortgage exposures. <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> is expressed as a value between 0 and 100 percent.
</P>
<P>(i) An Enterprise must have the following information to calculate <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> for a CRT with respect to multifamily mortgage exposures:
</P>
<P>(A) The remaining months to the contractual maturity of the CRT (<I>CRT</I><E T="54">RMM</E>).
</P>
<P>(B) The UPB-weighted-average remaining months to maturity of the underlying multifamily mortgage exposures that have remaining months to maturity greater than <I>CRT</I><E T="54">RMM</E> (<I>MME</I><E T="54">RMM</E>). If the underlying multifamily mortgage exposures all have maturity dates less than or equal to <I>CRT</I><E T="54">RMM</E>, <I>MME</I><E T="54">RMM</E> should equal <I>CRT</I><E T="54">RMM</E>.
</P>
<P>(C) The sum of UPB on the underlying multifamily mortgage exposures that have remaining loan terms less than or equal to <I>CRT</I><E T="54">RMM</E> expressed as a percent of total UPB on the underlying multifamily mortgage exposures <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> (<I>LTFUPB</I><E T="0112">%</E>).
</P>
<P>(D) An Enterprise must use the following method to calculate <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> for multifamily CRTs:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.047.gif"/>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise must have the following information to calculate <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E> for a newly issued CRT with respect to single-family mortgage exposures:
</P>
<P>(A) The original closing date (or effective date) of the CRT and the maturity date on the CRT.
</P>
<P>(B) UPB share of single-family mortgage exposures that have original amortization terms of less than or equal to 189 months (<I>CRTF15</I><E T="0112">%</E>).
</P>
<P>(C) UPB share of single-family mortgage exposures that have original amortization terms greater than 189 months and OLTVs of less than or equal to 80 percent(<I>CRT80NotF15</I><E T="0112">%</E>).
</P>
<P>(D) The duration of seasoning.
</P>
<P>(E) An Enterprise must use the following method to calculate LTF<E T="0112">%</E> for single-family CRTs: Calculate CRT months to maturity (<I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I>) using one of the following methods:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) For single-family CRTs with reimbursement based upon occurrence or resolution of delinquency, <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> is the difference between the CRT's maturity date and original closing date, except for the following:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If the coverage based upon delinquency is between one and three months, add 24 months to the difference between the CRT's maturity date and original closing date; and
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If the coverage based upon delinquency is between four and six months, add 18 months to the difference between the CRT's maturity date and original closing date.
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) For all other single-family CRTs, <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> is the difference between the CRT's maturity date and original closing date.
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) If <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> is a multiple of 12, then an Enterprise must use the first column of Table 2 to paragraph (b)(9)(ii)(E)(<I>2</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section to identify the row matching <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> and take a weighted average of the three loss timing factors in columns 2, 3, and 4 as follows:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16mr22.001.gif"/>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) If <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> is not a multiple of 12, an Enterprise must use the first column of Table 2 to paragraph (b)(9)(ii)(E)(<I>2</I>)(<I>iii</I>) of this section to identify the two rows that are closest to <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> and take a weighted average between the two rows of loss timing factors using linear interpolation, where the weights reflect <I>CRTMthstoMaturity.</I>
</P>
<P>(<I>iii</I>) For seasoned single-family CRTs, the <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E><I>,</I> is calculated:


</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.049.gif"/>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>where:
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTLT</I><E T="52">M</E> is the loss timing factor calculated under (ii) of this subsection.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTLT</I><E T="52">S</E> is the loss timing factor calculated under (ii) of this subsection replacing <I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> with the duration of seasoning.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTMthstoMaturity</I> is calculated as per (E) of this section.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTLT</I>15 is the CRT loss timing factor for pool groups backed by single-family mortgage exposures with original amortization terms &lt;= 189 months.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTLT</I>80<I>Not</I>15: is the CRT loss timing factor for pool groups backed by single-family mortgage exposures with original amortization terms &gt; 189 months and OLTVs &lt;=80 percent.
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>CRTLTGT</I>80<I>Not</I>15 is the CRT loss timing factor for pool groups backed by single-family mortgage exposures with original amortization terms &gt; 189 months and OLTVs &gt; 80 percent.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.050.gif"/>
<P>(10) Parameter <I>RWA</I><E T="54">$</E> is the aggregate credit risk-weighted assets associated with the underlying mortgage exposures.
</P>
<P>(11) Parameter <I>CntptyRWA</I><E T="54">$</E> is the aggregate credit risk-weighted assets due to counterparty haircuts from loan-level credit enhancements. <I>CntptyRWA</I><E T="54">$</E> is the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) Parameter <I>RWA</I><E T="54">$</E>; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Aggregate credit risk-weighted assets associated with the underlying mortgage exposures where the counterparty haircuts for loan-level credit enhancements are set to zero.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Mechanics of the CRTA.</I> The risk weight assigned to a retained CRT exposure, or portion of a retained CRT exposure, as appropriate, is the larger of <I>RW</I><E T="0112">%</E> determined in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section and a risk weight of 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(1) When the detachment point, parameter <I>D,</I> for a retained CRT exposure is less than or equal to the sum of <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and<I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 1,250 percent.
</P>
<P>(2) When the attachment point, parameter <I>A,</I> for a retained CRT exposure is greater than or equal to or equal to the sum of <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>,

determined in accordance with paragraph (d) of this section, the exposure must be assigned a risk weight of 5 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) When parameter <I>A</I> is less than or equal to the sum of <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and

<I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>, and

parameter <I>D</I> is greater than the sum of <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%,</E> the Enterprise must calculate the risk weight as the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) 1,250 percent multiplied by the ratio of (A) the sum of <I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> and

<I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E> minus parameter <I>A</I> to (B) the difference between parameter <I>D</I> and parameter <I>A</I>; and
</P>
<P>(ii) 5 percent multiplied by the ratio of (A) parameter <I>D</I> minus the sum of <I>K</I><E T="0112">A</E> and <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E> to (B) the difference between parameter <I>D</I> and parameter <I>A.</I>
</P>
<P>(d) <I>CRTA equations.</I>
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16mr22.002.gif"/>
<P>If the contractual terms of the CRT do not provide for the transfer of the counterparty credit risk associated with any loan-level credit enhancement or other loss sharing on the underlying mortgage exposures, then the Enterprise shall calculate <I>K</I><E T="52">A</E> as follows:
</P>
<P> 
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.053.gif"/>
<P>Otherwise the Enterprise shall calculate <I>K</I><E T="52">A</E> as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.054.gif"/>
<P>(e) <I>Limitations.</I> Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an Enterprise must assign an overall risk weight of not less than 5 percent to a retained CRT exposure.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Adjusted exposure amount (AEA)</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The adjusted exposure amount (AEA) of a retained CRT exposure is equal to:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.055.gif"/>
<P>(2) <I>Inputs</I>—(i) <I>Enterprise adjusted exposure.</I> The adjusted exposure (EAE) of an Enterprise with respect to a retained CRT exposure is as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er16mr22.003.gif"/>
<FP>Where the loss timing effectiveness adjustments (LTEA) for a retained CRT exposure are determined under paragraph (g) of this section, and the loss sharing effectiveness adjustment (LSEA) for a retained CRT exposure is determined under paragraph (h) of this section.
</FP>
<P>(ii) <I>Expected loss share.</I> The expected loss share is the share of a tranche that is covered by expected loss (ELS):
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.056.gif"/>
<P>(iii) <I>Risk weight.</I> The risk weight of a retained CRT exposure is determined under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Loss timing effectiveness adjustments.</I> The loss timing effectiveness adjustments (LTEA) for a retained CRT exposure is calculated according to the following calculation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>i</I>ƒ (<I>SLS</I><E T="0112">%,Tranche</E> − <I>ELS</I><E T="0112">%,Tranche</E>) &gt; 0 <I>then</I>
</FP-2>
<FP><I>LTEA</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche,CM</E>
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er16mr22.004.gif"/>
<FP><I>LTEA</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche,LS</E>
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.058.gif"/>
<P><I>Otherwise LTEA</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche,CM</E> = 100% <I>and LTEA</I><E T="0112">%</E>

<E T="54">,Tranche,LS</E> = 100%
</P>
<FP>where K<E T="52">A</E> adjusted for loss timing (LTK<E T="52">A</E>) is as follows:
</FP>
<FP-2><I>LTK</I><E T="54">A,CM</E> = max ((<I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> + <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>) * <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,CM</E> − <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>, 0%)
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>LTK</I><E T="54">A,LS</E> = max ((<I>K</I><E T="54">A</E> + <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>) * <I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,LS</E> − <I>AggEL</I><E T="0112">%</E>, 0%)
</FP-2>
<FP>and
</FP>
<P><I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,CM</E> is LTF<E T="0112">%</E> calculated for the capital markets component of the tranche,
</P>
<P><I>LTF</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,LS</E> is LTF<E T="0112">%</E> calculated for the loss sharing component of the tranche, and the share of the tranche that is covered by expected loss (ELS) and the share of the tranche that is covered by stress loss (SLS) are as follows:
</P>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.059.gif"/>
<P>(h) <I>Loss sharing effectiveness adjustment.</I> The loss sharing effectiveness adjustment (LSEA) for a retained CRT exposure is calculated according to the following calculation:
</P>
<FP-2><I>if</I> (<I>RW</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> − <I>ELS</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> * 1250%) &gt; 0 <I>then</I>
</FP-2>
<img src="/graphics/er16mr22.005.gif"/>
<FP><I>Otherwise</I>
</FP>
<FP-2><I>LSEA</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> = 100%
</FP-2>
<FP><I>where</I>
</FP>
<FP-2><I>UnCollatUL</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> = <I>max</I>(0%,<I>SLS</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> − <I>max</I>(<I>Collat</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">RIF,Tranche</E>, <I>ELS</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E>))
</FP-2>
<FP-2><I>SRIF</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> = 100% − <I>max</I>(<I>SLS</I>

<E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E>, <I>Collat</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">RIF,Tranche</E>)
</FP-2>
<FP>and the share of the tranche that is covered by expected loss (ELS) and the share of the tranche that is covered by stress loss (SLS) are as follows:
</FP>
<img src="/graphics/er17de20.061.gif"/>
<P>(i) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(j) <I>RWA supplement for retained loan-level counterparty credit risk.</I> If the Enterprise elects to use the CRTA for a retained CRT exposure and if the contractual terms of the CRT do not provide for the transfer of the counterparty credit risk associated with any loan-level credit enhancement or other loss sharing on the underlying mortgage exposures, then the Enterprise must add the following risk-weighted assets supplement (<I>RWASup</I><E T="52">$</E>) to risk weighted assets for the retained CRT exposure.
</P>
<FP-2><I>RWASup</I><E T="52">$,</E><E T="54">Tranche</E> = <I>CntptyRWA</I><E T="52">$</E> * (<I>D</I>−<I>A</I>)
</FP-2>
<FP>Otherwise the Enterprise shall add an <I>RWASup</I><E T="52">$,</E><E T="54">Tranche</E> of $0.
</FP>
<P>(k) <I>Retained CRT Exposure.</I> Credit risk-weighted assets for the retained CRT exposure are as follows:
</P>
<FP-2><I>RWA</I><E T="52">$,</E><E T="54">Tranche</E> = <I>AEA</I><E T="52">$,</E><E T="54">Tranche</E> * <I>RW</I><E T="0112">%</E><E T="54">,Tranche</E> + <I>RWASup</I><E T="52">$,</E><E T="54">Tranche</E>
</FP-2>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.45" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.45   Securitization exposures to which the SSFA and the CRTA do not apply.</HEAD>
<P>An Enterprise must assign a 1,250 percent risk weight to any acquired CRT exposure and all securitization exposures to which the Enterprise does not apply the SSFA under § 1240.43 or the CRTA under § 1240.44.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.46" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.46   Recognition of credit risk mitigants for securitization exposures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) An originating Enterprise that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge its exposure to a synthetic or traditional securitization that satisfies the operational criteria provided in § 1240.41 may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 1240.38 or § 1240.39, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) An investing Enterprise that has obtained a credit risk mitigant to hedge a securitization exposure may recognize the credit risk mitigant under § 1240.38 or § 1240.39, but only as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mismatches.</I> An Enterprise must make any applicable adjustment to the protection amount of an eligible guarantee or credit derivative as required in § 1240.38(d) through (f) for any hedged securitization exposure. In the context of a synthetic securitization, when an eligible guarantee or eligible credit derivative covers multiple hedged exposures that have different residual maturities, the Enterprise must use the longest residual maturity of any of the hedged exposures as the residual maturity of all hedged exposures.
</P>
<HD1>Risk-Weighted Assets for Equity Exposures


</HD1>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.51" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.51   Introduction and exposure measurement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> (1) To calculate its risk-weighted asset amounts for equity exposures, an Enterprise must use the Simple Risk-Weight Approach (SRWA) provided in § 1240.52.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must treat an investment in a separate account (as defined in § 1240.2) as if it were an equity exposure to an investment fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjusted carrying value.</I> For purposes of §§ 1240.51 and 1240.52, the adjusted carrying value of an equity exposure is:
</P>
<P>(1) For the on-balance sheet component of an equity exposure, the Enterprise's carrying value of the exposure;
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) For the off-balance sheet component of an equity exposure that is not an equity commitment, the effective notional principal amount of the exposure, the size of which is equivalent to a hypothetical on-balance sheet position in the underlying equity instrument that would evidence the same change in fair value (measured in dollars) given a small change in the price of the underlying equity instrument, minus the adjusted carrying value of the on-balance sheet component of the exposure as calculated in paragraph (b)(1) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) For a commitment to acquire an equity exposure (an equity commitment), the effective notional principal amount of the exposure is multiplied by the following conversion factors (CFs):
</P>
<P>(i) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of one year or less receive a CF of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(ii) Conditional equity commitments with an original maturity of over one year receive a CF of 50 percent.
</P>
<P>(iii) Unconditional equity commitments receive a CF of 100 percent.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.52" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.52   Simple risk-weight approach (SRWA).</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Under the SRWA, an Enterprise's total risk-weighted assets for equity exposures equals the sum of the risk-weighted asset amounts for each of the Enterprise's individual equity exposures as determined under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SRWA computation for individual equity exposures.</I> An Enterprise must determine the risk-weighted asset amount for an individual equity exposure by multiplying the adjusted carrying value of the equity exposure by the lowest applicable risk weight in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Community development equity exposures.</I> A 100 percent risk weight is assigned to an equity exposure that was acquired with the prior written approval of FHFA and is designed primarily to promote community welfare, including the welfare of low- and moderate-income communities or families, such as by providing services or employment, and excluding equity exposures to an unconsolidated small business investment company and equity exposures held through a small business investment company described in section 302 of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other equity exposures.</I> A 400 percent risk weight is assigned to an equity exposure to an operating company or an investment in a separate account.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1240.53-1240.60" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1240.53-1240.60   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.61" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.61   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>Sections 1240.61 through 1240.63 of this subpart establish public disclosure requirements related to the capital requirements and buffers described in subpart B and subpart G.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33429, June 2, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.62" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.62   Disclosure requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Enterprise must provide timely public disclosures each calendar quarter of the information in the applicable tables in § 1240.63, where for the purpose of these disclosure requirements timely means no later than 10 business days after an Enterprise files its corresponding Annual Report on SEC Form 10-K at the end of a fiscal year or its corresponding Quarterly Report on SEC Form 10-Q at the end of other calendar quarters. If a material change occurs, where for the purpose of these disclosure requirements a material change means a change such that the omission or misstatement of which could change or influence the assessment or decision of a user relying on that information for the purpose of making investment decisions, then an Enterprise must disclose a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact as soon as practicable thereafter, and no later than the end of the next calendar quarter. Qualitative disclosures that have not changed from the prior quarter may be omitted from the next quarterly disclosure but must be disclosed at least annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter.
</P>
<P>(b) Unless otherwise directed by FHFA, the Enterprise's management may provide all of the disclosures required by §§ 1240.61 through 1240.63 in one place on the Enterprise's public website or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Enterprise publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(c) An Enterprise must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses its approach for determining the disclosures it makes. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures.
</P>
<P>(d) The Enterprise's board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over the disclosures required by this subpart, and must ensure that appropriate review of the disclosures takes place. The Chief Risk Officer and the Chief Financial Officer of the Enterprise must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(e) If an Enterprise believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public certain information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the Enterprise is not required to disclose these specific items but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33429, June 2, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.63" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.4.5.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.63   Disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 1240.62, an Enterprise must make the disclosures described in Tables 1 through 11 of this section publicly available for each of the last three years (that is, twelve quarters) or such shorter period until an Enterprise has made twelve quarterly disclosures pursuant to this part beginning with the disclosure for the quarter ending December 31, 2022.
</P>
<P>(b) An Enterprise must publicly disclose each quarter the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulatory capital ratios for common equity tier 1 capital, additional tier 1 capital, tier 1 capital, tier 2 capital, total capital, core capital, and adjusted total capital, including the regulatory capital elements and all the regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate the numerator of such ratios;
</P>
<P>(2) Total risk-weighted assets, including the different regulatory adjustments and deductions needed to calculate total risk-weighted assets; and
</P>
<P>(3) A reconciliation of regulatory capital elements as they relate to its balance sheet in any audited consolidated financial statements.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)—Capital Structure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) Summary information on the terms and conditions of the main features of all regulatory capital instruments.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) The amount of common equity tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Common stock and related surplus;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Retained earnings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) AOCI (net of tax) and other reserves; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to common equity tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) The amount of core capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The par or stated value of outstanding common stock;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The par or stated value of outstanding perpetual, noncumulative preferred stock;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Paid-in capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Retained earnings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) The amount of tier 1 capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Additional tier 1 capital elements, including additional tier 1 capital instruments and tier 1 minority interest not included in common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to tier 1 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The amount of total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The general allowance for foreclosure losses; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Other amounts from sources of funds available to absorb losses incurred by the Enterprise that the Director by regulation determines are appropriate to include in determining total capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) The amount of adjusted total capital, with separate disclosure of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Tier 2 capital elements, including tier 2 capital instruments; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Regulatory adjustments and deductions made to adjusted total capital.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)—Capital Adequacy
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) A summary discussion of the Enterprise's approach to assessing the adequacy of its capital to support current and future activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Risk-weighted assets for:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to sovereign entities;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to certain supranational entities and MDBs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Exposures to GSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Exposures to depository institutions and credit unions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Exposures to PSEs;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Corporate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Aggregate single-family mortgage exposures categorized by:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Performing loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Non-modified re-performing loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iii) Modified re-performing loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(iv) Non-performing loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(8) Aggregate multifamily mortgage exposures categorized by:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) Multifamily fixed-rate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Multifamily adjustable-rate exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(9) Past due loans;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(10) Other assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(11) Insurance assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(12) Off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(13) Cleared transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(14) Default fund contributions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(15) Unsettled transactions;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(16) CRT and other securitization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(17) Equity exposures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Standardized market risk-weighted assets as calculated under subpart F of this part.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Risk-weighted assets for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) Common equity tier 1, tier 1, and adjusted total risk-based capital ratios.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Total standardized risk-weighted assets.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to Paragraph (<E T="01">b</E>)(3)—Capital Buffers
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) A summary discussion of the Enterprise's capital buffers.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) At least quarterly, the Enterprise must calculate and publicly disclose the prescribed capital conservation buffer amount and all its components as described under § 1240.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) At least quarterly, the Enterprise must calculate and publicly disclose the prescribed leverage buffer amount as described under § 1240.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) At least quarterly, the Enterprise must calculate and publicly disclose the eligible retained income of the Enterprise, as described under § 1240.11.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) At least quarterly, the Enterprise must calculate and publicly disclose any limitations it has on distributions and discretionary bonus payments resulting from the capital buffer framework described under § 1240.11, including the maximum payout amount for the quarter.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) For each separate risk area described in Tables 4 through 9, the Enterprise must, as a general qualitative disclosure requirement, describe its risk management objectives and policies, including: Strategies and processes; the structure and organization of the relevant risk management function; the scope and nature of risk reporting and/or measurement systems; policies for hedging and/or mitigating risk and strategies and processes for monitoring the continuing effectiveness of hedges and/or mitigants.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>) 
<sup>1</sup>—Credit Risk: General Disclosures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk (excluding counterparty credit risk disclosed in accordance with Table 5 of this section), including the:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policy for determining past due or delinquency status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policy for placing loans on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Policy for returning loans to accrual status;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Description of the methodology that the Enterprise uses to estimate its adjusted allowance for credit losses, including statistical methods used where applicable;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Policy for charging-off uncollectible amounts; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Discussion of the Enterprise's credit risk management policy.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Total credit risk exposures and average credit risk exposures, after accounting offsets in accordance with GAAP, without taking into account the effects of credit risk mitigation techniques (for example, collateral and netting not permitted under GAAP), over the period categorized by major types of credit exposure. For example, the Enterprises could use categories similar to that used for financial statement purposes. Such categories might include, for instance:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Loans, off-balance sheet commitments, and other non-derivative off-balance sheet exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Debt securities; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) OTC derivatives.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Geographic distribution of exposures, categorized in significant areas by major types of credit exposure.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) Industry or counterparty type distribution of exposures, categorized by major types of credit exposure.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) By major industry or counterparty type:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of loans not past due or past due less than 30 days;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Amount of loans past due 30 days but less than 90 days;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Amount of loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Amount of loans past due 90 days and still accruing; 
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The balance in the adjusted allowance for credit losses at the end of each period, disaggregated on the basis of loans not past due or past due less than 30 days, loans past due 30 days but less than 90 days, loans past due 90 days and on nonaccrual, and loans past due 90 days and still accruing; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) Charge-offs during the period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Amount of past due loans categorized by significant geographic areas including, if practical, the amounts of allowances related to each geographical area,
<sup>4</sup> further categorized as required by GAAP.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) Reconciliation of changes in the adjusted allowance for credit losses.
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Remaining contractual maturity delineation (for example, one year or less) of the whole portfolio, categorized by credit exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Table 4 does not cover equity exposures, which should be reported in Table 8 of this section.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Geographical areas consist of areas within the United States and territories. An Enterprise might choose to define the geographical areas based on the way the Enterprise's portfolio is geographically managed. The criteria used to allocate the loans to geographical areas must be specified.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> An Enterprise may, but is not required to, also provide an analysis of the aging of past-due loans.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> The portion of the general allowance that is not allocated to a geographical area should be disclosed separately.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> The reconciliation should include the following: A description of the allowance; the opening balance of the allowance; charge-offs taken against the allowance during the period; amounts provided (or reversed) for estimated expected credit losses during the period; any other adjustments (for example, exchange rate differences, business combinations, acquisitions, and disposals of subsidiaries), including transfers between allowances; and the closing balance of the allowance. Charge-offs and recoveries that have been recorded directly to the income statement should be disclosed separately.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—General Disclosure for Counterparty Credit Risk-Related Exposures
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to OTC derivatives, eligible margin loans, and repo-style transactions, including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The methodology used to assign credit limits for counterparty credit exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Policies for securing collateral, valuing and managing collateral, and establishing credit reserves;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The primary types of collateral taken; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The impact of the amount of collateral the Enterprise would have to provide given a deterioration in the Enterprise's own creditworthiness.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Gross positive fair value of contracts, collateral held (including type, for example, cash, government securities), and net unsecured credit exposure.
<sup>1</sup> An Enterprise also must disclose the notional value of credit derivative hedges purchased for counterparty credit risk protection and the distribution of current credit exposure by exposure type.
<sup>2</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Notional amount of purchased and sold credit derivatives, segregated between use for the Enterprise's own credit portfolio and in its intermediation activities, including the distribution of the credit derivative products used, categorized further by protection bought and sold within each product group.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> Net unsecured credit exposure is the credit exposure after considering both the benefits from legally enforceable netting agreements and collateral arrangements without taking into account haircuts for price volatility, liquidity, etc.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> This may include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, credit derivatives, commodity or other derivative contracts, repo-style transactions, and eligible margin loans.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 6 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Credit Risk Mitigation <E T="01">
<sup>1</sup> 
<sup>2</sup></E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to credit risk mitigation, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Policies and processes for collateral valuation and management;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) A description of the main types of collateral taken by the Enterprise;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The main types of guarantors/credit derivative counterparties and their creditworthiness; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Information about (market or credit) risk concentrations with respect to credit risk mitigation.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) For each separately disclosed credit risk portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by eligible financial collateral, and after the application of haircuts.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) For each separately disclosed portfolio, the total exposure that is covered by guarantees/credit derivatives and the risk-weighted asset amount associated with that exposure.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> At a minimum, an Enterprise must provide the disclosures in Table 6 in relation to credit risk mitigation that has been recognized for the purposes of reducing capital requirements under this subpart. Where relevant, the Enterprises may give further information about mitigants that have not been recognized for that purpose.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> Credit derivatives that are treated, for the purposes of this subpart, as synthetic securitization exposures should be excluded from the credit risk mitigation disclosures and included within those relating to securitization (Table 7 of this section).</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 7 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—CRT and Securitization
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to a securitization (including synthetic securitizations), including a discussion of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The Enterprise's objectives for securitizing assets, including the extent to which these activities transfer credit risk of the underlying exposures away from the Enterprise to other entities and including the type of risks assumed and retained with resecuritization activity; 
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) The nature of the risks (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> liquidity risk) inherent in the securitized assets;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) The roles played by the Enterprise in the securitization process 
<sup>2</sup> and an indication of the extent of the Enterprise's involvement in each of them;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) The processes in place to monitor changes in the credit and market risk of securitization exposures including how those processes differ for resecuritization exposures;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) The Enterprise's policy for mitigating the credit risk retained through securitization and resecuritization exposures; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) The risk-based capital approaches that the Enterprise follows for its securitization exposures including the type of securitization exposure to which each approach applies.


</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) A list of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) The type of securitization SPEs that the Enterprise, as sponsor, uses to securitize third-party exposures. The Enterprise must indicate whether it has exposure to these SPEs, either on- or off-balance sheet; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Affiliated entities:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) That the Enterprise manages or advises; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) That invest either in the securitization exposures that the Enterprise has securitized or in securitization SPEs that the Enterprise sponsors.
<sup>3</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) Summary of the Enterprise's accounting policies for CRT and securitization activities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Whether the transactions are treated as sales (<E T="03">i.e.,</E> sale accounting has been obtained) or financings;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Recognition of gain-on-sale;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(3) Methods and key assumptions applied in valuing retained or purchased interests;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(4) Changes in methods and key assumptions from the previous period for valuing retained interests and impact of the changes;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(5) Treatment of synthetic securitizations;
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(6) How exposures intended to be securitized are valued and whether they are recorded under subpart D of this part; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(7) Policies for recognizing liabilities on the balance sheet for arrangements that could require the Enterprise to provide financial support for securitized assets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) An explanation of significant changes to any quantitative information since the last reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e) The total outstanding exposures securitized by the Enterprise in securitizations that meet the operational criteria provided in § 1240.41 (categorized into traditional and synthetic securitizations), by exposure type, separately for securitizations of third-party exposures for which the Enterprise acts only as sponsor.
<sup>4</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) For exposures securitized by the Enterprise in securitizations that meet the operational criteria in § 1240.41:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Amount of securitized assets that are past due categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Losses recognized by the Enterprise during the current period categorized by exposure type.
<sup>5</sup>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(g) The total amount of outstanding exposures intended to be securitized categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(h) Aggregate amount of:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) On-balance sheet securitization exposures retained or purchased categorized by exposure type; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Off-balance sheet securitization exposures categorized by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i)(1) Aggregate amount of securitization exposures retained or purchased and the associated capital requirements for these exposures, categorized between securitization and resecuritization exposures, further categorized into a meaningful number of risk weight bands and by risk-based capital approach (<E T="03">e.g.,</E> CRTA, SSFA); and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Aggregate amount disclosed separately by type of underlying exposure in the pool of any:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(i) After-tax gain-on-sale on a securitization that has been deducted from common equity tier 1 capital; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(ii) Credit-enhancing interest-only strip that is assigned a 1,250 percent risk weight.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(j) Summary of current year's securitization activity, including the amount of exposures securitized (by exposure type), and recognized gain or loss on sale by exposure type.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(k) Aggregate amount of resecuritization exposures retained or purchased categorized according to:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Exposures to which credit risk mitigation is applied and those not applied; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Exposures to guarantors categorized according to guarantor creditworthiness categories or guarantor name.
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> The Enterprise should describe the structure of resecuritizations in which it participates; this description should be provided for the main categories of resecuritization products in which the Enterprise is active.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>2</sup> For example, these roles may include originator, investor, servicer, provider of credit enhancement, sponsor, liquidity provider, or swap provider.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>3</sup> Such affiliated entities may include, for example, money market funds, to be listed individually, and personal and private trusts, to be noted collectively.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>4</sup> “Exposures securitized” include underlying exposures originated by the Enterprise, whether generated by them or purchased, and recognized in the balance sheet, from third parties, and third-party exposures included in sponsored transactions. Securitization transactions (including underlying exposures originally on the Enterprise's balance sheet and underlying exposures acquired by the Enterprise from third-party entities) in which the originating Enterprise does not retain any securitization exposure should be shown separately but need only be reported for the year of inception. Enterprises are required to disclose exposures regardless of whether there is a capital charge under this part.
</P><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>5</sup> For example, charge-offs/allowances (if the assets remain on the Enterprise's balance sheet) or credit-related write-off of interest-only strips and other retained residual interests, as well as recognition of liabilities for probable future financial support required of the Enterprise with respect to securitized assets.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 8 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Equities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement with respect to equity risk for equities, including:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Differentiation between holdings on which capital gains are expected and those taken under other objectives including for relationship and strategic reasons; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Discussion of important policies covering the valuation of and accounting for equity holdings. This includes the accounting techniques and valuation methodologies used, including key assumptions and practices affecting valuation as well as significant changes in these practices.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative Disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Carrying value disclosed on the balance sheet of investments, as well as the fair value of those investments; for securities that are publicly traded, a comparison to publicly-quoted share values where the share price is materially different from fair value.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"></TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) The types and nature of investments, including the amount that is:
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(1) Publicly traded; and
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(2) Non publicly traded.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(d) The cumulative realized gains (losses) arising from sales and liquidations in the reporting period.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(e)(1) Total unrealized gains (losses) recognized on the balance sheet but not through earnings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (2) Total unrealized gains (losses) not recognized either on the balance sheet or through earnings.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"> (3) Any amounts of the above included in tier 1 or tier 2 capital.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(f) Capital requirements categorized by appropriate equity groupings, consistent with the Enterprise's methodology, as well as the aggregate amounts and the type of equity investments subject to any supervisory transition regarding regulatory capital requirements.
<sup>1</sup>
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">
<sup>1</sup> This disclosure must include a breakdown of equities that are subject to the 0 percent, 20 percent, 100 percent, 300 percent, 400 percent, and 600 percent risk weights, as applicable.</P></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 9 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Interest Rate Risk for Non-Trading Activities
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement, including the nature of interest rate risk for non-trading activities and key assumptions, including assumptions regarding loan prepayments and frequency of measurement of interest rate risk for non-trading activities.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Quantitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) The increase (decline) in earnings or economic value (or relevant measure used by management) for upward and downward rate shocks according to management's method for measuring interest rate risk for non-trading activities, categorized by currency (as appropriate).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 10 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Operational Risk
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Qualitative disclosures</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(a) The general qualitative disclosure requirement for operational risk.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(b) Description of the AMA, when applicable, including a discussion of relevant internal and external factors considered in the Enterprise's measurement approach.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row"> </TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">(c) A description of the use of insurance for the purpose of mitigating operational risk.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 11 to Paragraph (<E T="01">c</E>)—Tier 1 Leverage Ratio
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="4" scope="col">Dollar amounts in thousands
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Tril
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Bil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Mil
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Thou
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 1: Summary comparison of accounting assets and adjusted total assets</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 Total consolidated assets as reported in published financial statements
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 Adjustment for fiduciary assets recognized on balance sheet but excluded from total leverage exposure
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Adjustment for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Adjustment for repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Adjustment for off-balance sheet exposures (that is, conversion to credit equivalent amounts of off-balance sheet exposures)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Other adjustments
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 Adjusted total assets (sum of lines 1 to 6)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Part 2: Tier 1 leverage ratio</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">On-balance sheet exposures
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 On-balance sheet assets (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 LESS: Amounts deducted from tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 Total on-balance sheet exposures (excluding on-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions and derivative exposures, but including cash collateral received in derivative transactions) (sum of lines 1 and 2)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Derivative exposures</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4 Current exposure for derivative exposures (that is, net of cash variation margin)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 Add-on amounts for potential future exposure (PFE) for derivative exposures
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">6 Gross-up for cash collateral posted if deducted from the on-balance sheet assets, except for cash variation margin
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">7 LESS: Deductions of receivable assets for cash variation margin posted in derivative transactions, if included in on-balance sheet assets
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">8 LESS: Exempted CCP leg of client-cleared transactions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">9 Effective notional principal amount of sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">10 LESS: Effective notional principal amount offsets and PFE adjustments for sold credit protection
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">11 Total derivative exposures (sum of lines 4 to 10)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Repo-style transactions</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">12 On-balance sheet assets for repo-style transactions, except include the gross value of receivables for reverse repurchase transactions. Exclude from this item the value of securities received in a security-for-security repo-style transaction where the securities lender has not sold or re-hypothecated the securities received. Include in this item the value of securities that qualified for sales treatment that must be reversed
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">13 LESS: Reduction of the gross value of receivables in reverse repurchase transactions by cash payables in repurchase transactions under netting agreements
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">14 Counterparty credit risk for all repo-style transactions
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">15 Exposure for repo-style transactions where a banking organization acts as an agent
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">16 Total exposures for repo-style transactions (sum of lines 12 to 15)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Other off-balance sheet exposures</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">17 Off-balance sheet exposures at gross notional amounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">18 LESS: Adjustments for conversion to credit equivalent amounts
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">19 Off-balance sheet exposures (sum of lines 17 and 18)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Capital and adjusted total assets</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">20 Tier 1 capital
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">21 Adjusted total assets (sum of lines 3, 11, 16, and 19)
</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="5" scope="row"><E T="02">Tier 1 leverage ratio</E>
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">22 Tier 1 leverage ratio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell" colspan="4">(in percent)</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33429, June 2, 2022, as amended at 87 FR 37979, June 27, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Risk-Weighted Assets—Internal Ratings-Based and Advanced Measurement Approaches</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.100" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.100   Purpose, applicability, and principle of conservatism.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart establishes:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimum requirements for using Enterprise-specific internal risk measurement and management processes for calculating risk-based capital requirements; and
</P>
<P>(2) Methodologies for the Enterprises to calculate their advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) This subpart applies to each Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must also include in its calculation of advanced credit risk-weighted assets under this subpart all covered positions, as defined in subpart F of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Principle of conservatism.</I> Notwithstanding the requirements of this subpart, an Enterprise may choose not to apply a provision of this subpart to one or more exposures provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise can demonstrate on an ongoing basis to the satisfaction of FHFA that not applying the provision would, in all circumstances, unambiguously generate a risk-based capital requirement for each such exposure greater than that which would otherwise be required under this subpart;
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise appropriately manages the risk of each such exposure;
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise notifies FHFA in writing prior to applying this principle to each such exposure; and
</P>
<P>(4) The exposures to which the Enterprise applies this principle are not, in the aggregate, material to the Enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.101" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.101   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms that are set forth in § 1240.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned thereto in § 1240.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Advanced internal ratings-based (IRB) systems</I> means an Enterprise's internal risk rating and segmentation system; risk parameter quantification system; data management and maintenance system; and control, oversight, and validation system for credit risk of exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced systems</I> means an Enterprise's advanced IRB systems, operational risk management processes, operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and, to the extent used by the Enterprise, the internal models methodology, advanced CVA approach, double default excessive correlation detection process, and internal models approach (IMA) for equity exposures.
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of an Enterprise's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. In this context, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Benchmarking</I> means the comparison of an Enterprise's internal estimates with relevant internal and external data or with estimates based on other estimation techniques.
</P>
<P><I>Business environment and internal control factors</I> means the indicators of an Enterprise's operational risk profile that reflect a current and forward-looking assessment of the Enterprise's underlying business risk factors and internal control environment.
</P>
<P><I>Dependence</I> means a measure of the association among operational losses across and within units of measure.
</P>
<P><I>Economic downturn conditions</I> means, with respect to an exposure held by the Enterprise, those conditions in which the aggregate default rates for that exposure's exposure subcategory (or subdivision of such subcategory selected by the Enterprise) in the exposure's jurisdiction (or subdivision of such jurisdiction selected by the Enterprise) are significantly higher than average.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible operational risk offsets</I> means amounts, not to exceed expected operational loss, that:
</P>
<P>(i) Are generated by internal business practices to absorb highly predictable and reasonably stable operational losses, including reserves calculated consistent with GAAP; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Are available to cover expected operational losses with a high degree of certainty over a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>Expected operational loss (EOL)</I> means the expected value of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Enterprise's operational risk quantification system using a one-year horizon.
</P>
<P><I>External operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at organizations other than the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Internal operational loss event data</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise, gross operational loss amounts, dates, recoveries, and relevant causal information for operational loss events occurring at the Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss</I> means a loss (excluding insurance or tax effects) resulting from an operational loss event. Operational loss includes all expenses associated with an operational loss event except for opportunity costs, forgone revenue, and costs related to risk management and control enhancements implemented to prevent future operational losses.
</P>
<P><I>Operational loss event</I> means an event that results in loss and is associated with any of the following seven operational loss event type categories:
</P>
<P>(i) Internal fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act involving at least one internal party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent regulations, the law, or company policy excluding diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(ii) External fraud, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act by a third party of a type intended to defraud, misappropriate property, or circumvent the law. All third-party-initiated credit losses are to be treated as credit risk losses.
</P>
<P>(iii) Employment practices and workplace safety, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from an act inconsistent with employment, health, or safety laws or agreements, payment of personal injury claims, or payment arising from diversity- and discrimination-type events.
</P>
<P>(iv) Clients, products, and business practices, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the nature or design of a product or from an unintentional or negligent failure to meet a professional obligation to specific clients (including fiduciary and suitability requirements).
</P>
<P>(v) Damage to physical assets, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from the loss of or damage to physical assets from natural disaster or other events.
</P>
<P>(vi) Business disruption and system failures, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from disruption of business or system failures.
</P>
<P>(vii) Execution, delivery, and process management, which means the operational loss event type category that comprises operational losses resulting from failed transaction processing or process management or losses arising from relations with trade counterparties and vendors.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, and systems or from external events (including legal risk but excluding strategic and reputational risk).
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk exposure</I> means the 99.9th percentile of the distribution of potential aggregate operational losses, as generated by the Enterprise's operational risk quantification system over a one-year horizon (and not incorporating eligible operational risk offsets or qualifying operational risk mitigants).
</P>
<P><I>Risk parameter</I> means a variable used in determining risk-based capital requirements for exposures, such as probability of default, loss given default, exposure at default, or effective maturity.
</P>
<P><I>Scenario analysis</I> means a systematic process of obtaining expert opinions from business managers and risk management experts to derive reasoned assessments of the likelihood and loss impact of plausible high-severity operational losses. Scenario analysis may include the well-reasoned evaluation and use of external operational loss event data, adjusted as appropriate to ensure relevance to an Enterprise's operational risk profile and control structure.
</P>
<P><I>Unexpected operational loss (UOL)</I> means the difference between the Enterprise's operational risk exposure and the Enterprise's expected operational loss.
</P>
<P><I>Unit of measure</I> means the level (for example, organizational unit or operational loss event type) at which the Enterprise's operational risk quantification system generates a separate distribution of potential operational losses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.121" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.121   Minimum requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Process and systems requirements.</I> (1) An Enterprise must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile and a comprehensive strategy for maintaining an appropriate level of capital.
</P>
<P>(2) The systems and processes used by an Enterprise for risk-based capital purposes under this subpart must be consistent with the Enterprise's internal risk management processes and management information reporting systems.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Enterprise must have an appropriate infrastructure with risk measurement and management processes that meet the requirements of this section and are appropriate given the Enterprise's size and level of complexity. The Enterprise must ensure that the risk parameters and reference data used to determine its risk-based capital requirements are representative of long run experience with respect to its credit risk and operational risk exposures.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Risk rating and segmentation systems for exposures.</I> (1) An Enterprise must have an internal risk rating and segmentation system that accurately, reliably, and meaningfully differentiates among degrees of credit risk for the Enterprise's exposures. When assigning an internal risk rating, an Enterprise may consider a third-party assessment of credit risk, provided that the Enterprise's internal risk rating assignment does not rely solely on the external assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) If an Enterprise uses multiple rating or segmentation systems, the Enterprise's rationale for assigning an exposure to a particular system must be documented and applied in a manner that best reflects the obligor or exposure's level of risk. An Enterprise must not inappropriately allocate exposures across systems to minimize regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In assigning ratings to exposures, an Enterprise must use all relevant and material information and ensure that the information is current.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Quantification of risk parameters for exposures.</I> (1) The Enterprise must have a comprehensive risk parameter quantification process that produces accurate, timely, and reliable estimates of the risk parameters on a consistent basis for the Enterprise's exposures.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise's estimates of risk parameters must incorporate all relevant, material, and available data that is reflective of the Enterprise's actual exposures and of sufficient quality to support the determination of risk-based capital requirements for the exposures. In particular, the population of exposures in the data used for estimation purposes, the underwriting standards in use when the data were generated, and other relevant characteristics, should closely match or be comparable to the Enterprise's exposures and standards. In addition, an Enterprise must:
</P>
<P>(i) Demonstrate that its estimates are representative of long run experience, including periods of economic downturn conditions, whether internal or external data are used;
</P>
<P>(ii) Take into account any changes in underwriting practice or the process for pursuing recoveries over the observation period;
</P>
<P>(iii) Promptly reflect technical advances, new data, and other information as they become available;
</P>
<P>(iv) Demonstrate that the data used to estimate risk parameters support the accuracy and robustness of those estimates; and
</P>
<P>(v) Demonstrate that its estimation technique performs well in out-of-sample tests whenever possible.
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise's risk parameter quantification process must produce appropriately conservative risk parameter estimates where the Enterprise has limited relevant data, and any adjustments that are part of the quantification process must not result in a pattern of bias toward lower risk parameter estimates.
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise's risk parameter estimation process should not rely on the possibility of U.S. government financial assistance.
</P>
<P>(5) Default, loss severity, and exposure amount data must include periods of economic downturn conditions, or the Enterprise must adjust its estimates of risk parameters to compensate for the lack of data from periods of economic downturn conditions.
</P>
<P>(6) If an Enterprise uses internal data obtained prior to becoming subject to this subpart or external data to arrive at risk parameter estimates, the Enterprise must demonstrate to FHFA that the Enterprise has made appropriate adjustments if necessary to be consistent with the Enterprise's definition of default. Internal data obtained after the Enterprise becomes subject to this subpart must be consistent with the Enterprise's definition of default.
</P>
<P>(7) The Enterprise must review and update (as appropriate) its risk parameters and its risk parameter quantification process at least annually.
</P>
<P>(8) The Enterprise must, at least annually, conduct a comprehensive review and analysis of reference data to determine relevance of the reference data to the Enterprise's exposures, quality of reference data to support risk parameter estimates, and consistency of reference data to the Enterprise's definition of default.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Operational risk</I>—(1) <I>Operational risk management processes.</I> An Enterprise must:
</P>
<P>(i) Have an operational risk management function that:
</P>
<P>(A) Is independent of business line management; and
</P>
<P>(B) Is responsible for designing, implementing, and overseeing the Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems, operational risk quantification systems, and related processes;
</P>
<P>(ii) Have and document a process (which must capture business environment and internal control factors affecting the Enterprise's operational risk profile) to identify, measure, monitor, and control operational risk in the Enterprise's products, activities, processes, and systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Report operational risk exposures, operational loss events, and other relevant operational risk information to business unit management, senior management, and the board of directors (or a designated committee of the board).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operational risk data and assessment systems.</I> An Enterprise must have operational risk data and assessment systems that capture operational risks to which the Enterprise is exposed. The Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems must:
</P>
<P>(i) Be structured in a manner consistent with the Enterprise's current business activities, risk profile, technological processes, and risk management processes; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Include credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable processes that incorporate the following elements on an ongoing basis:
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Internal operational loss event data.</I> The Enterprise must have a systematic process for capturing and using internal operational loss event data in its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The Enterprise's operational risk data and assessment systems must include a historical observation period of at least five years for internal operational loss event data (or such shorter period approved by FHFA to address transitional situations, such as integrating a new business line).
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The Enterprise must be able to map its internal operational loss event data into the seven operational loss event type categories.
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Enterprise may refrain from collecting internal operational loss event data for individual operational losses below established dollar threshold amounts if the Enterprise can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that the thresholds are reasonable, do not exclude important internal operational loss event data, and permit the Enterprise to capture substantially all the dollar value of the Enterprise's operational losses.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>External operational loss event data.</I> The Enterprise must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating external operational loss event data into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Scenario analysis.</I> The Enterprise must have a systematic process for determining its methodologies for incorporating scenario analysis into its operational risk data and assessment systems.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Business environment and internal control factors.</I> The Enterprise must incorporate business environment and internal control factors into its operational risk data and assessment systems. The Enterprise must also periodically compare the results of its prior business environment and internal control factor assessments against its actual operational losses incurred in the intervening period.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Operational risk quantification systems.</I> The Enterprise's operational risk quantification systems:
</P>
<P>(i) Must generate estimates of the Enterprise's operational risk exposure using its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) Must employ a unit of measure that is appropriate for the Enterprise's range of business activities and the variety of operational loss events to which it is exposed, and that does not combine business activities or operational loss events with demonstrably different risk profiles within the same loss distribution;
</P>
<P>(iii) Must include a credible, transparent, systematic, and verifiable approach for weighting each of the four elements, described in paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this section, that an Enterprise is required to incorporate into its operational risk data and assessment systems;
</P>
<P>(iv) May use internal estimates of dependence among operational losses across and within units of measure if the Enterprise can demonstrate to the satisfaction of FHFA that its process for estimating dependence is sound, robust to a variety of scenarios, and implemented with integrity, and allows for uncertainty surrounding the estimates. If the Enterprise has not made such a demonstration, it must sum operational risk exposure estimates across units of measure to calculate its total operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(v) Must be reviewed and updated (as appropriate) whenever the Enterprise becomes aware of information that may have a material effect on the Enterprise's estimate of operational risk exposure, but the review and update must occur no less frequently than annually.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data management and maintenance.</I> (1) An Enterprise must have data management and maintenance systems that adequately support all aspects of its advanced systems and the timely and accurate reporting of risk-based capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must retain data using an electronic format that allows timely retrieval of data for analysis, validation, reporting, and disclosure purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must retain sufficient data elements related to key risk drivers to permit adequate monitoring, validation, and refinement of its advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The Enterprise's senior management must ensure that all components of the Enterprise's advanced systems function effectively and comply with the minimum requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise's board of directors (or a designated committee of the board) must at least annually review the effectiveness of, and approve, the Enterprise's advanced systems.
</P>
<P>(3) An Enterprise must have an effective system of controls and oversight that:
</P>
<P>(i) Ensures ongoing compliance with the minimum requirements in this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintains the integrity, reliability, and accuracy of the Enterprise's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Includes adequate governance and project management processes.
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise must validate, on an ongoing basis, its advanced systems. The Enterprise's validation process must be independent of the advanced systems' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the advanced systems;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and benchmarking; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting.
</P>
<P>(5) The Enterprise must have an internal audit function or equivalent function that is independent of business-line management that at least annually:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviews the Enterprise's advanced systems and associated operations, including the operations of its credit function and estimations of risk parameters;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Enterprise's advanced systems; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Documents and reports its findings to the Enterprise's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(6) The Enterprise must periodically stress test its advanced systems. The stress testing must include a consideration of how economic cycles, especially downturns, affect risk-based capital requirements (including migration across rating grades and segments and the credit risk mitigation benefits of double default treatment).
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Documentation.</I> The Enterprise must adequately document all material aspects of its advanced systems.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.122" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.122   Ongoing qualification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Changes to advanced systems.</I> An Enterprise must meet all the minimum requirements in § 1240.121 on an ongoing basis. An Enterprise must notify FHFA when the Enterprise makes any change to an advanced system that would result in a material change in the Enterprise's advanced approaches total risk-weighted asset amount for an exposure type or when the Enterprise makes any significant change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to comply with qualification requirements.</I> (1) If FHFA determines that an Enterprise fails to comply with the requirements in § 1240.121, FHFA will notify the Enterprise in writing of the Enterprise's failure to comply.
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise must establish and submit a plan satisfactory to FHFA to return to compliance with the qualification requirements.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition, if FHFA determines that the Enterprise's advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets are not commensurate with the Enterprise's credit, market, operational, or other risks, FHFA may require such an Enterprise to calculate its advanced approaches total risk-weighted assets with any modifications provided by FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.123" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.123   Advanced approaches credit risk-weighted asset calculations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Enterprise must use its advanced systems to determine its credit risk capital requirements for each of the following exposures:
</P>
<P>(1) General credit risk (including for mortgage exposures);
</P>
<P>(2) Cleared transactions;
</P>
<P>(3) Default fund contributions;
</P>
<P>(4) Unsettled transactions;
</P>
<P>(5) Securitization exposures;
</P>
<P>(6) Equity exposures; and
</P>
<P>(7) The fair value adjustment to reflect counterparty credit risk in valuation of OTC derivative contracts.
</P>
<P>(b) The credit-risk-weighted assets calculated under this subpart E equals the aggregate credit risk capital requirement under paragraph (a) of this section multiplied by 12.5.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1240.124—1240.160" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1240.124--1240.160   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.161" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.161   Qualification requirements for incorporation of operational risk mitigants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualification to use operational risk mitigants.</I> An Enterprise may adjust its estimate of operational risk exposure to reflect qualifying operational risk mitigants if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise's operational risk quantification system is able to generate an estimate of the Enterprise's operational risk exposure (which does not incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants) and an estimate of the Enterprise's operational risk exposure adjusted to incorporate qualifying operational risk mitigants; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise's methodology for incorporating the effects of insurance, if the Enterprise uses insurance as an operational risk mitigant, captures through appropriate discounts to the amount of risk mitigation:
</P>
<P>(i) The residual term of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cancelation terms of the policy, where less than one year;
</P>
<P>(iii) The policy's timeliness of payment;
</P>
<P>(iv) The uncertainty of payment by the provider of the policy; and
</P>
<P>(v) Mismatches in coverage between the policy and the hedged operational loss event.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Qualifying operational risk mitigants.</I> Qualifying operational risk mitigants are:
</P>
<P>(1) Insurance that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is provided by an unaffiliated company that the Enterprise deems to have strong capacity to meet its claims payment obligations and the Enterprise assigns the company a probability of default equal to or less than 10 basis points;
</P>
<P>(ii) Has an initial term of at least one year and a residual term of more than 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iii) Has a minimum notice period for cancellation by the provider of 90 days;
</P>
<P>(iv) Has no exclusions or limitations based upon regulatory action or for the receiver or liquidator of a failed depository institution; and
</P>
<P>(v) Is explicitly mapped to a potential operational loss event;
</P>
<P>(2) In evaluating an operational risk mitigant other than insurance, FHFA will consider whether the operational risk mitigant covers potential operational losses in a manner equivalent to holding total capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.162" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.5.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.162   Mechanics of operational risk risk-weighted asset calculation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If an Enterprise does not qualify to use or does not have qualifying operational risk mitigants, the Enterprise's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is its operational risk exposure minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(b) If an Enterprise qualifies to use operational risk mitigants and has qualifying operational risk mitigants, the Enterprise's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk is the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise's operational risk exposure adjusted for qualifying operational risk mitigants minus eligible operational risk offsets (if any); or
</P>
<P>(2) 0.8 multiplied by the difference between:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise's operational risk exposure; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible operational risk offsets (if any).
</P>
<P>(c) The Enterprise's risk-weighted asset amount for operational risk equals the greater of:
</P>
<P>(1) The Enterprise's dollar risk-based capital requirement for operational risk determined under paragraphs (a) or (b) multiplied by 12.5; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise's adjusted total assets multiplied by 0.0015 multiplied by 12.5.
</P>
<P>(d) After January 1, 2022, and until the compliance date for this section under § 1240.4, the Enterprise's risk weighted amount for operational risk will equal the Enterprise's adjusted total assets multiplied by 0.0015 multiplied by 12.5.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Risk-weighted Assets—Market Risk</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.201" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.201   Purpose, applicability, and reservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This subpart F establishes risk-based capital requirements for spread risk and provides methods for the Enterprises to calculate their measure for spread risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> This subpart applies to each Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Subject to applicable provisions of the Safety and Soundness Act:
</P>
<P>(1) FHFA may require an Enterprise to hold an amount of capital greater than otherwise required under this subpart if FHFA determines that the Enterprise's capital requirement for spread risk as calculated under this subpart is not commensurate with the spread risk of the Enterprise's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(2) If FHFA determines that the risk-based capital requirement calculated under this subpart by the Enterprise for one or more covered positions or portfolios of covered positions is not commensurate with the risks associated with those positions or portfolios, FHFA may require the Enterprise to assign a different risk-based capital requirement to the positions or portfolios that more accurately reflects the risk of the positions or portfolios.
</P>
<P>(3) In addition to calculating risk-based capital requirements for specific positions or portfolios under this subpart, the Enterprise must also calculate risk-based capital requirements for covered positions under subpart D or subpart E of this part, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) Nothing in this subpart limits the authority of FHFA under any other provision of law or regulation to take supervisory or enforcement action, including action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions, deficient capital levels, or violations of law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.202" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.202   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Terms set forth in § 1240.2 and used in this subpart have the definitions assigned in § 1240.2.
</P>
<P>(b) For the purposes of this subpart, the following terms are defined as follows:
</P>
<P><I>Backtesting</I> means the comparison of an Enterprise's internal estimates with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development. For purposes of this subpart, backtesting is one form of out-of-sample testing.
</P>
<P><I>Covered position</I> means, any asset that has more than <I>de minimis</I> spread risk (other than any intangible asset, such as any servicing asset), including:
</P>
<P>(i) Any NPL, RPL, reverse mortgage loan, or other mortgage exposure that, in any case, does not secure an MBS guaranteed by the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise, MBS guaranteed by Ginnie Mae, reverse mortgage security, PLS, commercial MBS, CRT exposure, or other securitization exposure, regardless of whether the position is held by the Enterprise for the purpose of short-term resale or with the intent of benefiting from actual or expected short-term price movements, or to lock in arbitrage profits; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any other trading asset or trading liability (whether on- or off-balance sheet).
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> Securities subject to repurchase and lending agreements are included as if they are still owned by the Enterprise.</P></FTNT>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from movements in market prices, including spread risk.
</P>
<P><I>Private label security (PLS)</I> means any MBS that is collateralized by a pool or pools of single-family mortgage exposures and that is not guaranteed by an Enterprise or by Ginnie Mae.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse mortgage</I> means a mortgage loan secured by a residential property in which a homeowner relinquishes equity in their home in exchange for regular payments.
</P>
<P><I>Reverse mortgage security</I> means a security collateralized by reverse mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>Spread risk</I> means the risk of loss on a position that could result from a change in the bid or offer price of such position relative to a risk free or funding benchmark, including when due to a change in perceptions of performance or liquidity of the position.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.203" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.203   Requirements for managing market risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Management of covered positions</I>—(1) <I>Active management.</I> An Enterprise must have clearly defined policies and procedures for actively managing all covered positions. At a minimum, these policies and procedures must require:
</P>
<P>(i) Marking covered positions to market or to model on a daily basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) Daily assessment of the Enterprise's ability to hedge position and portfolio risks, and of the extent of market liquidity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establishment and daily monitoring of limits on covered positions by a risk control unit independent of the business unit;
</P>
<P>(iv) Routine monitoring by senior management of information described in paragraphs (a)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(v) At least annual reassessment of established limits on positions by senior management; and
</P>
<P>(vi) At least annual assessments by qualified personnel of the quality of market inputs to the valuation process, the soundness of key assumptions, the reliability of parameter estimation in pricing models, and the stability and accuracy of model calibration under alternative market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Valuation of covered positions.</I> The Enterprise must have a process for prudent valuation of its covered positions that includes policies and procedures on the valuation of positions, marking positions to market or to model, independent price verification, and valuation adjustments or reserves. The valuation process must consider, as appropriate, unearned credit spreads, close-out costs, early termination costs, investing and funding costs, liquidity, and model risk.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements for internal models.</I> (1) A risk control unit independent of the business unit must approve any internal model to calculate its risk-based capital requirement under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must meet all of the requirements of this section on an ongoing basis. The Enterprise must promptly notify FHFA when:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise plans to extend the use of a model to an additional business line or product type;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise makes any change to an internal model that would result in a material change in the Enterprise's risk-weighted asset amount for a portfolio of covered positions; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The Enterprise makes any material change to its modeling assumptions.
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA may determine an appropriate capital requirement for the covered positions to which a model would apply, if FHFA determines that the model no longer complies with this subpart or fails to reflect accurately the risks of the Enterprise's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise must periodically, but no less frequently than annually, review its internal models in light of developments in financial markets and modeling technologies, and enhance those models as appropriate to ensure that they continue to meet the Enterprise's standards for model approval and employ risk measurement methodologies that are most appropriate for the Enterprise's covered positions.
</P>
<P>(5) The Enterprise must incorporate its internal models into its risk management process and integrate the internal models used for calculating its market risk measure into its daily risk management process.
</P>
<P>(6) The level of sophistication of an Enterprise's internal models must be commensurate with the complexity and amount of its covered positions. An Enterprise's internal models may use any of the generally accepted approaches, including variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, to measure market risk.
</P>
<P>(7) The Enterprise's internal models must properly measure all the material risks in the covered positions to which they are applied.
</P>
<P>(8) The Enterprise's internal models must conservatively assess the risks arising from less liquid positions and positions with limited price transparency under realistic market scenarios.
</P>
<P>(9) The Enterprise must have a rigorous and well-defined process for re-estimating, re-evaluating, and updating its internal models to ensure continued applicability and relevance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Control, oversight, and validation mechanisms.</I> (1) The Enterprise must have a risk control unit that reports directly to senior management and is independent from the business units.
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise must validate its internal models initially and on an ongoing basis. The Enterprise's validation process must be independent of the internal models' development, implementation, and operation, or the validation process must be subjected to an independent review of its adequacy and effectiveness. Validation must include:
</P>
<P>(i) An evaluation of the conceptual soundness of (including developmental evidence supporting) the internal models;
</P>
<P>(ii) An ongoing monitoring process that includes verification of processes and the comparison of the Enterprise's model outputs with relevant internal and external data sources or estimation techniques; and
</P>
<P>(iii) An outcomes analysis process that includes backtesting.
</P>
<P>(3) The Enterprise must stress test the market risk of its covered positions at a frequency appropriate to each portfolio, and in no case less frequently than quarterly. The stress tests must take into account concentration risk (including concentrations in single issuers, industries, sectors, or markets), illiquidity under stressed market conditions, and risks arising from the Enterprise's trading activities that may not be adequately captured in its internal models.
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise must have an internal audit function independent of business-line management that at least annually assesses the effectiveness of the controls supporting the Enterprise's market risk measurement systems, including the activities of the business units and independent risk control unit, compliance with policies and procedures, and calculation of the Enterprise's measures for spread risk under this subpart. At least annually, the internal audit function must report its findings to the Enterprise's board of directors (or a committee thereof).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Internal assessment of capital adequacy.</I> The Enterprise must have a rigorous process for assessing its overall capital adequacy in relation to its market risk.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Documentation.</I> The Enterprise must adequately document all material aspects of its internal models, management and valuation of covered positions, control, oversight, validation and review processes and results, and internal assessment of capital adequacy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.204" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.204   Measure for spread risk.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An Enterprise must calculate its standardized measure for spread risk by following the steps described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. An Enterprise also must calculate an advanced measure for spread risk by following the steps in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measure for spread risk.</I> An Enterprise must calculate the standardized measure for spread risk, which equals the sum of the spread risk capital requirements of all covered positions using one or more of its internal models except as contemplated by paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section. An Enterprise also must calculate the advanced measure for spread risk, which equals the sum of the spread risk capital requirements of all covered positions calculated using one or more of its internal models.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Single point approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For purposes of the standardized measure for spread risk, the spread risk capital requirement for a covered position that is an RPL, an NPL, a reverse mortgage loan, or a reverse mortgage security is the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the covered position; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicable single point shock assumption for the covered position under paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable single point shock assumption.</I> The applicable single point shock assumption is:
</P>
<P>(i) 0.0475 for an RPL or an NPL;
</P>
<P>(ii) 0.0160 for a reverse mortgage loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) 0.0410 for a reverse mortgage security.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spread duration approach</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> For purposes of the standardized measure for spread risk, the spread risk capital requirement for a covered position that is a multifamily mortgage exposure, a PLS, or an MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise or Ginnie Mae and secured by multifamily mortgage exposures is the amount equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The market value of the covered position; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(ii) The spread duration of the covered position determined by the Enterprise using one or more of its internal models; multiplied by
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicable spread shock assumption under paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicable spread shock assumption.</I> The applicable spread shock is:
</P>
<P>(i) 0.0015 for a multifamily mortgage exposure;
</P>
<P>(ii) 0.0265 for a PLS; and
</P>
<P>(iii) 0.0100 for an MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise or by Ginnie Mae and secured by multifamily mortgage exposures (other than IO securities guaranteed by an Enterprise or Ginnie Mae).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.205" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.6.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.205   Market risk disclosures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> An Enterprise must make timely public disclosures each calendar quarter, where for the purpose of these disclosure requirements timely means no later than 10 business days after an Enterprise files its corresponding Annual Report on SEC Form 10-K at the end of a fiscal year or its corresponding Quarterly Report on SEC Form 10-Q at the end of other calendar quarters. If a significant change occurs, such that the most recent reporting amounts are no longer reflective of the Enterprise's capital adequacy and risk profile, then a brief discussion of this change and its likely impact must be provided as soon as practicable thereafter. Qualitative disclosures that typically do not change each quarter may be disclosed annually, provided any material changes are disclosed as soon as practicable thereafter, and no later than the end of the next calendar quarter, where for the purpose of these disclosure requirements a material change means a change such that the omission or misstatement of which could change or influence the assessment or decision of a user relying on that information for the purpose of making investment decisions. If an Enterprise believes that disclosure of specific commercial or financial information would prejudice seriously its position by making public certain information that is either proprietary or confidential in nature, the Enterprise is not required to disclose these specific items but must disclose more general information about the subject matter of the requirement, together with the fact that, and the reason why, the specific items of information have not been disclosed.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Location.</I> The Enterprise's management may provide all of the disclosures required by this section in one place on the Enterprise's public website or may provide the disclosures in more than one public financial report or other regulatory reports, provided that the Enterprise publicly provides a summary table specifically indicating the location(s) of all such disclosures.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disclosure policy.</I> The Enterprise must have a formal disclosure policy approved by the board of directors that addresses the Enterprise's approach for determining its market risk disclosures. The policy must address the associated internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures. The board of directors and senior management must ensure that appropriate verification of the disclosures takes place and that effective internal controls and disclosure controls and procedures are maintained. The Chief Risk Officer and the Chief Financial Officer of the Enterprise must attest that the disclosures meet the requirements of this subpart, and the board of directors and senior management are responsible for establishing and maintaining an effective internal control structure over the disclosures required by this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Quantitative disclosures.</I> (1) For each material portfolio of covered positions, the Enterprise must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least quarterly:
</P>
<P>(i) Exposure amounts for each product type included in covered positions as described in § 1240.202; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Risk-weighted assets for each product type included in covered positions as described in § 1240.202.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition, the Enterprise must disclose publicly the aggregate amount of on-balance sheet and off-balance sheet securitization positions by exposure type at least quarterly.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualitative disclosures.</I> For each material portfolio of covered positions as identified using the definitions in § 1240.202, the Enterprise must provide timely public disclosures of the following information at least annually after the end of the fourth calendar quarter, or more frequently in the event of material changes for each portfolio:
</P>
<P>(1) The composition of material portfolios of covered positions;
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise's valuation policies, procedures, and methodologies for covered positions including, for securitization positions, the methods and key assumptions used for valuing such positions, any significant changes since the last reporting period, and the impact of such change;
</P>
<P>(3) The characteristics of the internal models used for purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the approaches used for validating and evaluating the accuracy of internal models and modeling processes for purposes of this subpart;
</P>
<P>(5) For each market risk category (that is, interest rate risk, credit spread risk, equity price risk, foreign exchange risk, and commodity price risk), a description of the stress tests applied to the positions subject to the factor;
</P>
<P>(6) The results of the comparison of the Enterprise's internal estimates for purposes of this subpart with actual outcomes during a sample period not used in model development; and
</P>
<P>(7) A description of the Enterprise's processes for monitoring changes in the market risk of securitization positions, including how those processes differ for resecuritization positions.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[87 FR 33434, June 2, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Stability Capital Buffer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1240.400" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.7.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.400   Stability capital buffer.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mortgage assets</I> means, with respect to an Enterprise, the dollar amount equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The unpaid principal balance of its single-family mortgage exposures, including any single-family loans that secure MBS guaranteed by the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unpaid principal balance of its multifamily mortgage exposures, including any multifamily mortgage exposures that secure MBS guaranteed by the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(iii) The carrying value of its MBS guaranteed by an Enterprise, MBS guaranteed by Ginnie Mae, PLS, and other securitization exposures (other than its retained CRT exposures); and
</P>
<P>(iv) The exposure amount of any other mortgage assets.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Residential mortgage debt outstanding</I> means the dollar amount of mortgage debt outstanding secured by one- to four-family residences or multifamily residences that are located in the United States (and excluding any mortgage debt outstanding secured by commercial or farm properties).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount.</I> An Enterprise must calculate its stability capital buffer under this section on an annual basis by December 31 of each year. The stability capital buffer of an Enterprise is equal to:
</P>
<P>(1) The ratio of:
</P>
<P>(i) The mortgage assets of the Enterprise as of December 31 of the previous calendar year; to
</P>
<P>(ii) The residential mortgage debt outstanding as of December 31 of the previous calendar year, as published by FHFA;
</P>
<P>(2) Minus 0.05;
</P>
<P>(3) Multiplied by 5;
</P>
<P>(4) Divided by 100; and
</P>
<P>(5) Multiplied by the adjusted total assets of the Enterprise, as of December 31 of the previous calendar year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date of an adjusted stability capital buffer</I>—(1) <I>Increase in stability capital buffer.</I> An increase in the stability capital buffer of an Enterprise under this section will take effect (<I>i.e.,</I> be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under table 1 to paragraph (b)(5) in § 1240.11) on January 1 of the year that is one full calendar year after the increased stability capital buffer was calculated, provided that where a stability capital buffer under paragraph (c)(2) of this section is calculated to be a decrease in the stability capital buffer from the previously calculated scheduled increase applicable on the same January 1, the decreased stability capital buffer under paragraph (c)(2) shall take effect. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decrease in stability capital buffer.</I> A decrease in the stability capital buffer of an Enterprise will take effect (<I>i.e.,</I> be incorporated into the maximum payout ratio under table 1 to paragraph (b)(5) in § 1240.11) on January 1 of the year immediately following the calendar year in which the decreased stability capital buffer was calculated.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 82198, Dec. 17, 2020, as amended at 88 FR 83481, Nov. 30, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Capital Planning and Stress Capital Buffer Determination</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>87 FR 33617, June 3, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1240.500" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.8.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1240.500   Capital planning and stress capital buffer determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> This section establishes capital planning and prior notice and approval requirements for capital distributions by the Enterprises. This section also establishes FHFA's process for determining the stress capital buffer applicable to the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Scope and reservation of authority</I>—(1) <I>Applicability.</I> This section applies to the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall limit the authority of FHFA to issue or enforce a capital directive or take any other supervisory or enforcement action, including an action to address unsafe or unsound practices or conditions or violations of law.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted total assets</I> has the same meaning as under subpart A of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Advanced approaches</I> means the risk-weighted assets calculation methodologies as set forth in subpart E of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Capital action</I> means any issuance of a debt or equity capital instrument, any capital distribution, and any similar action that FHFA determines could impact an Enterprise's consolidated capital.
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> means a redemption or repurchase of any debt or equity capital instrument, a payment of common or preferred stock dividends, a payment that may be temporarily or permanently suspended by the issuer on any instrument that is eligible for inclusion in the numerator of any minimum regulatory capital ratio, and any similar transaction that FHFA determines to be in substance a distribution of capital.
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan</I> means a written presentation of an Enterprise's capital planning strategies and capital adequacy process that includes the mandatory elements set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Capital plan cycle</I> means the period beginning on January 1 of a calendar year and ending on December 31 of that year.
</P>
<P><I>Capital policy</I> means an Enterprise's written principles and guidelines used for capital planning, capital issuance, capital usage and distributions, including internal capital goals; the quantitative or qualitative guidelines for capital distributions; the strategies for addressing potential capital shortfalls; and the internal governance procedures around capital policy principles and guidelines.
</P>
<P><I>Common equity tier 1 capital</I> has the same meaning as under subpart C of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Effective capital distribution limitations</I> means any limitations on capital distributions established by FHFA by order or regulation, provided that, for any limitations based on risk-weighted assets, such limitations must be calculated using the standardized approach, as set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Final planned capital distributions</I> means the planned capital distributions included in a capital plan that include the adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section, if any.
</P>
<P><I>Internal baseline scenario</I> means a scenario that reflects the Enterprise's expectation of the economic and financial outlook, including expectations related to the Enterprise's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P><I>Internal stress scenario</I> means a scenario designed by an Enterprise that stresses the specific vulnerabilities of the Enterprise's risk profile and operations, including those related to the Enterprise's capital adequacy and financial condition.
</P>
<P><I>Planning horizon</I> means the period of at least nine consecutive quarters for the FHFA scenarios and at least five years for the Internal scenarios, beginning with the quarter preceding the quarter in which the Enterprise submits its capital plan, over which the relevant projections extend, unless otherwise directed by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital ratio</I> means a capital ratio for which FHFA has established minimum requirements for the Enterprise by regulation or order, including, as applicable, the Enterprise's regulatory capital ratios calculated under subpart B of this part; except that the Enterprise shall not use the advanced approaches to calculate its regulatory capital ratios.
</P>
<P><I>Severely adverse scenario</I> has the same meaning as under 12 CFR part 1238.
</P>
<P><I>Stability capital buffer</I> has the same meaning as under subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Stress capital buffer</I> means the amount calculated under paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisory stress test</I> means a stress test conducted by FHFA using a severely adverse scenario and the assumptions contained in 12 CFR part 1238.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Capital planning requirements and procedures</I>—(1) <I>Annual capital planning.</I> (i) An Enterprise must develop and maintain a capital plan.
</P>
<P>(ii) An Enterprise must submit its complete capital plan to FHFA by May 20 of each calendar year, or such later date as directed by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Enterprise's board of directors or a designated committee thereof must at least annually and prior to submission of the capital plan under paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(A) Review the robustness of the Enterprise's process for assessing capital adequacy;
</P>
<P>(B) Ensure that any deficiencies in the Enterprise's process for assessing capital adequacy are appropriately remedied; and
</P>
<P>(C) Approve the Enterprise's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Mandatory elements of capital plan.</I> A capital plan must contain at least the following elements:
</P>
<P>(i) An assessment of the expected uses and sources of capital over the planning horizon that reflects the Enterprise's size, complexity, risk profile, and scope of operations, assuming both expected and stressful conditions, including:
</P>
<P>(A) Estimates of projected revenues, expenses, losses, reserves, and pro forma capital levels, including regulatory capital ratios, and any additional capital measures deemed relevant by the Enterprise, over the planning horizon under a range of scenarios, including the Internal baseline scenario and at least one Internal stress scenario, as well as any additional scenarios that FHFA may provide the Enterprise after giving notice to the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of the results of any stress test required by law or regulation, and an explanation of how the capital plan takes these results into account; and
</P>
<P>(C) A description of all planned capital actions over the planning horizon. Planned capital actions must be consistent with any effective capital distribution limitations, except as may be adjusted pursuant to paragraph (g) of this section. In determining whether an Enterprise's planned capital distributions are consistent with effective capital distribution limitations, an Enterprise must assume that:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Any countercyclical capital buffer amount currently applicable to the Enterprise remains at the same level, except that the Enterprise must reflect any increases or decreases in the countercyclical capital buffer amount that have been announced by FHFA at the times indicated by FHFA's announcement for when such increases or decreases will take effect; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Any stability capital buffer currently applicable to the Enterprise when the capital plan is submitted remains at the same level, except that the Enterprise must reflect any increase in its stability capital buffer pursuant to § 1240.400(c)(1), beginning in the fifth quarter of the planning horizon.
</P>
<P>(ii) A detailed description of the Enterprise's process for assessing capital adequacy, including:
</P>
<P>(A) A discussion of how the Enterprise will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain capital commensurate with its risks, and maintain capital above the regulatory capital ratios;
</P>
<P>(B) A discussion of how the Enterprise will, under expected and stressful conditions, maintain sufficient capital to continue its operations by maintaining ready access to funding, meeting its obligations to creditors and other counterparties, and continuing to serve as a credit intermediary;
</P>
<P>(iii) The Enterprise's capital policy; and
</P>
<P>(iv) A discussion of any expected changes to the Enterprise's business plan that are likely to have a material impact on the Enterprise's capital adequacy or liquidity.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Data collection.</I> Upon the request of FHFA, the Enterprise shall provide FHFA with information regarding:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise's financial condition, including its capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise's structure;
</P>
<P>(iii) Amount and risk characteristics of the Enterprise's on- and off-balance sheet exposures, including exposures within the Enterprise's trading account, other trading-related exposures (such as counterparty-credit risk exposures) or other items sensitive to changes in market factors, including, as appropriate, information about the sensitivity of positions to changes in market rates and prices;
</P>
<P>(iv) The Enterprise's relevant policies and procedures, including risk management policies and procedures;
</P>
<P>(v) The Enterprise's liquidity profile and management;
</P>
<P>(vi) The loss, revenue, and expense estimation models used by the Enterprise for stress scenario analysis, including supporting documentation regarding each model's development and validation; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Any other relevant qualitative or quantitative information requested by FHFA to facilitate review of the Enterprise's capital plan under this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Resubmission of a capital plan.</I> (i) An Enterprise must update and resubmit its capital plan to FHFA within 30 calendar days of the occurrence of one of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The Enterprise determines there has been or will be a material change in the Enterprise's risk profile, financial condition, or corporate structure since the Enterprise last submitted the capital plan to FHFA; or
</P>
<P>(B) FHFA instructs the Enterprise in writing to revise and resubmit its capital plan, as necessary to monitor risks to capital adequacy, for reasons including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) <I>The</I> capital plan is incomplete or the capital plan, or the Enterprise's internal capital adequacy process, contains material weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) There has been, or will likely be, a material change in the Enterprise's risk profile (including a material change in its business strategy or any risk exposure), financial condition, or corporate structure;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The Internal stress scenario(s) are not appropriate for the Enterprise's business model and portfolios, or changes in financial markets or the macro-economic outlook that could have a material impact on an Enterprise's risk profile and financial condition require the use of updated scenarios; or
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFA may extend the 30-day period in paragraph (d)(4)(i) of this section for up to an additional 60 calendar days, or such longer period as FHFA determines appropriate.
</P>
<P>(iii) Any updated capital plan must satisfy all the requirements of this section; however, an Enterprise may continue to rely on information submitted as part of a previously submitted capital plan to the extent that the information remains accurate and appropriate.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Confidential treatment of information submitted.</I> The confidentiality of information submitted to FHFA under this section and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)) and FHFA's rule in 12 CFR part 1214—Availability of Non-Public Information.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Calculation of the stress capital buffer</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> FHFA will determine the stress capital buffer that applies under § 1240.11 pursuant to this paragraph (e). FHFA will calculate the Enterprise's stress capital buffer requirement annually.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Stress capital buffer calculation.</I> An Enterprise's stress capital buffer is

equal to the Enterprise's adjusted total assets, as of the last day of the previous calendar quarter, multiplied by the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) The following calculation:
</P>
<P>(A) The ratio of an Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital to adjusted total assets, as of the final quarter of the previous capital plan cycle, unless otherwise determined by FHFA; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The lowest projected ratio of the Enterprise's common equity tier 1 capital to adjusted total assets, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; plus
</P>
<P>(C) The ratio of:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The sum of the Enterprise's planned common stock dividends (expressed as a dollar amount) for each of the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon; to
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The adjusted total assets of the Enterprise in the quarter in which the Enterprise had its lowest projected ratio of common equity tier 1 capital to adjusted total assets, in any quarter of the planning horizon under a supervisory stress test; and

(ii) 0.75 percent.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Recalculation of stress capital buffer.</I> If an Enterprise resubmits its capital plan pursuant to paragraph (d)(4) of this section, FHFA may recalculate the Enterprise's stress capital buffer. FHFA will provide notice of whether the Enterprise's stress capital buffer will be recalculated within 75 calendar days after the date on which the capital plan is resubmitted, unless FHFA provides notice to the Enterprise that it is extending the time period.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Review of capital plans by FHFA.</I> FHFA will consider the following factors in reviewing an Enterprise's capital plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The comprehensiveness of the capital plan, including the extent to which the analysis underlying the capital plan captures and addresses potential risks stemming from activities across the Enterprise and the Enterprise's capital policy;
</P>
<P>(2) The reasonableness of the Enterprise's capital plan, the assumptions and analysis underlying the capital plan, and the robustness of its capital adequacy process;
</P>
<P>(3) Relevant supervisory information about the Enterprise and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(4) The Enterprise's regulatory and financial reports, as well as supporting data that would allow for an analysis of the Enterprise's loss, revenue, and reserve projections;
</P>
<P>(5) The results of any stress tests conducted by the Enterprise or FHFA; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other information requested or required by FHFA, as well as any other information relevant, or related, to the Enterprise's capital adequacy.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>FHFA notice of stress capital buffer; final planned capital distributions</I>—(1) <I>Notice.</I> FHFA will provide an Enterprise with notice of its stress capital buffer and an explanation of the results of the supervisory stress test. Unless otherwise determined by FHFA, notice will be provided by August 15 of the calendar year in which the capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section or within 90 calendar days of receiving notice that FHFA will recalculate the Enterprise's stress capital buffer pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response to notice</I>—(i) <I>Request for reconsideration of stress capital buffer.</I> An Enterprise may request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer provided under paragraph (g)(1) of this section. To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer, an Enterprise must submit to FHFA a request pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Adjustments to planned capital distributions.</I> Within two business days of receipt of notice of a stress capital buffer under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable, an Enterprise must:
</P>
<P>(A) Determine whether the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer provided by FHFA under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer in effect; and
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would not be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer provided by FHFA under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer in effect, the Enterprise must adjust its planned capital distributions such that its planned capital distributions would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer provided by FHFA under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer in effect; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) If the planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario would be consistent with effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer provided by FHFA under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable, in place of any stress capital buffer in effect, the Enterprise may adjust its planned capital distributions. An Enterprise may not adjust its planned capital distributions to be inconsistent with the effective capital distribution limitations assuming the stress capital buffer provided by FHFA under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(B) Notify FHFA of any adjustments made to planned capital distributions for the fourth through seventh quarters of the planning horizon under the Internal baseline scenario.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Final planned capital distributions.</I> FHFA will consider the planned capital distributions, including any adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, to be the Enterprise's final planned capital distributions on the later of:
</P>
<P>(i) The expiration of the time for requesting reconsideration under paragraph (i) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The expiration of the time for adjusting planned capital distributions pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effective date of final stress capital buffer.</I> (i) FHFA will provide an Enterprise with its final stress capital buffer and confirmation of the Enterprise's final planned capital distributions by August 31 of the calendar year that a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section, unless otherwise determined by FHFA. A stress capital buffer will not be considered final so as to be agency action subject to judicial review under 5 U.S.C. 704 during the pendency of a request for reconsideration made pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section or before the time for requesting reconsideration has expired.
</P>
<P>(ii) Unless otherwise determined by FHFA, an Enterprise's final planned capital distributions and final stress capital buffer shall:
</P>
<P>(A) Be effective on October 1 of the calendar year in which a capital plan was submitted pursuant to paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(B) Remain in effect until superseded.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Publication.</I> With respect to an Enterprise subject to this section, FHFA may disclose publicly any or all of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The stress capital buffer provided to an Enterprise under paragraph (g)(1) or (h)(5) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Adjustments made pursuant to paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) A summary of the results of the supervisory stress test; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Other information.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Administrative remedies; request for reconsideration.</I> The following requirements and procedures apply to any request under this paragraph (h):
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General.</I> To request reconsideration of a stress capital buffer, provided under paragraph (g) of this section, an Enterprise must submit a written request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Timing of request.</I> A request for reconsideration of a stress capital buffer, provided under paragraph (g) of this section, must be received within 15 calendar days of receipt of a notice of an Enterprise's stress capital buffer.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Contents of request.</I> (i) A request for reconsideration must include a detailed explanation of why reconsideration should be granted (that is, why a stress capital buffer should be reconsidered). With respect to any information that was not

previously provided to FHFA in the Enterprise's capital plan, the request should include an explanation of why the information should be considered.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for reconsideration may include a request for an informal hearing on the Enterprise's request for reconsideration.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Hearing.</I> (i) FHFA may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if FHFA finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact.
</P>
<P>(ii) An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that FHFA may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Response to request.</I> Within 30 calendar days of receipt of the Enterprise's request for reconsideration of its stress capital buffer submitted under paragraph (h)(2) of this section or within 30 days of the conclusion of an informal hearing conducted under paragraph (h)(4) of this section, FHFA will notify the Enterprise of its decision to affirm or modify the Enterprise's stress capital buffer, provided that FHFA may extend this period upon notice to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Distributions during the pendency of a request for reconsideration.</I> During the pendency of FHFA's decision under paragraph (h)(5) of this section, the Enterprise may make capital distributions that are consistent with effective distribution limitations, unless prior approval is required under paragraph (i)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Approval requirements for certain capital actions</I>—(1) <I>Circumstances requiring approval</I>—<I>resubmission of a capital plan.</I> Unless it receives prior approval pursuant to paragraph (i)(3) of this section, an Enterprise may not make a capital distribution (excluding any capital distribution arising from the issuance of a capital instrument eligible for inclusion in the numerator of a regulatory capital ratio) if the capital distribution would occur after the occurrence of an event requiring resubmission under paragraph (d)(4)(i)(A) or (B) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of request.</I> A request for a capital distribution under this section must contain the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise's capital plan or a discussion of changes to the Enterprise's capital plan since it was last submitted to FHFA;
</P>
<P>(ii) The purpose of the transaction;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of the capital distribution, including for redemptions or repurchases of securities, the gross consideration to be paid and the terms and sources of funding for the transaction, and for dividends, the amount of the dividend(s); and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any additional information requested by FHFA (which may include, among other things, an assessment of the Enterprise's capital adequacy under a severely adverse scenario, a revised capital plan, and supporting data).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval of certain capital distributions.</I> (i) FHFA will act on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution within 30 calendar days after the receipt of all the information required under paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) In acting on a request for prior approval of a capital distribution, FHFA will apply the considerations and principles in paragraph (f) of this section, as appropriate. In addition, FHFA may disapprove the transaction if the Enterprise does not provide all of the information required to be submitted under paragraph (i)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Disapproval and hearing.</I> (i) FHFA will notify the Enterprise in writing

of the reasons for a decision to disapprove any proposed capital distribution. Within 15 calendar days after receipt of a disapproval by FHFA, the Enterprise may submit a written request for a hearing.
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFA may, in its sole discretion, order an informal hearing if FHFA finds that a hearing is appropriate or necessary to resolve disputes regarding material issues of fact. An informal hearing shall be held within 30 calendar days of a request, if granted, provided that FHFA may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iii) Written notice of the final decision of FHFA shall be given to the Enterprise within 60 calendar days of the conclusion of any informal hearing ordered by FHFA, provided that FHFA may extend this period upon notice to the requesting party.
</P>
<P>(iv) While FHFA's decision is pending and until such time as FHFA approves the capital distribution at issue, the Enterprise may not make such capital distribution.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Post notice requirement.</I> An Enterprise must notify FHFA within 15 days of making a capital distribution if:
</P>
<P>(1) The capital distribution was approved pursuant to paragraph (i)(3) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The dollar amount of the capital distribution will exceed the dollar amount of the Enterprise's final planned capital distributions, as measured on an aggregate basis beginning in the fourth quarter of the planning horizon through the quarter at issue.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1240.501-1240.502" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.33.8.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1240.501-1240.502   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1242" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1242—RESOLUTION PLANNING
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511; 12 U.S.C. 4513; 12 U.S.C. 4513b; 12 U.S.C. 4514; 12 U.S.C. 4517; 12 U.S.C. 4526; and 12 U.S.C. 4617.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>86 FR 23587, May 4, 2021, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1242.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.1   Purpose; identification as a prudential standard.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to require each Enterprise to develop a plan for submission to FHFA that would assist FHFA in planning for the rapid and orderly resolution of an Enterprise using FHFA's receivership authority at 12 U.S.C. 4617, in a manner that:
</P>
<P>(1) Minimizes disruption in the national housing finance markets by providing for the continued operation of the core business lines of an Enterprise in receivership by a newly constituted limited-life regulated entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Preserves the value of an Enterprise's franchise and assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Facilitates the division of assets and liabilities between the limited-life regulated entity and the receivership estate;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensures that investors in mortgage-backed securities guaranteed by the Enterprises and in Enterprise unsecured debt bear losses in accordance with the priority of payments established in the Safety and Soundness Act while minimizing unnecessary losses and costs to these investors; and
</P>
<P>(5) Fosters market discipline by making clear that no extraordinary government support will be available to indemnify investors against losses or fund the resolution of an Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Identification as a prudential standard; effect of identification.</I> This part is a prudential standard pursuant to section 1313B of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4513b, and is subject to 12 CFR part 1236. In its discretion, FHFA may deem:
</P>
<P>(1) The determination of a deficiency in a resolution plan; or
</P>
<P>(2) The failure to undertake actions or changes identified by FHFA in the notice provided pursuant to § 1242.7(b)(1), to be a failure to meet a standard for purposes of § 1236.4 of this chapter. In its discretion, FHFA may also deem a revised, resubmitted resolution plan to be a corrective plan for purposes of § 1236.4 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise indicated, terms used in this part have the meanings that they have in 12 CFR part 1201 and in the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Core business line</I> means a business line of the Enterprise that plausibly would continue to operate in a limited-life regulated entity, considering the purposes, mission, and authorized activities of the Enterprise as set forth in its authorizing statute and the Safety and Soundness Act. <I>Core business line</I> includes associated operations, services, functions, and supports necessary for any identified core business line to be continued, such as servicing, credit enhancement, securitization support, information technology support and operations, and human resources and personnel.
</P>
<P><I>Credible,</I> with regard to a resolution plan, means a resolution plan that:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrates consideration of required and prohibited assumptions set forth at § 1242.5(b);
</P>
<P>(2) Provides strategic analysis and detailed information as required by § 1242.5(c) through (g) that is well-founded and based on information and data related to the Enterprise that are observable or otherwise verifiable and employ reasonable projections from current and historical conditions within the broader financial markets; and
</P>
<P>(3) Plausibly achieves the purposes of § 1242.1(a).
</P>
<P><I>Material change</I> means an event, occurrence, change in conditions or circumstances, or other change that results in, or could reasonably be foreseen to have, a material effect on:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolvability of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise's resolution strategy; or
</P>
<P>(3) How the Enterprise's resolution plan is implemented. Material changes may include the identification of a new core business line or significant increases or decreases in business, operations, funding, or interconnections.
</P>
<P><I>Rapid and orderly resolution</I> means a process for establishing a limited-life regulated entity as successor to the Enterprise under section 1367 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C 4617), including transferring Enterprise assets and liabilities to the limited-life regulated entity, such that succession by the limited-life regulated entity can be accomplished promptly and in a manner that substantially mitigates the risk that the failure of the Enterprise would have serious adverse effects on national housing finance markets.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.3   Identification of core business lines.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enterprise preliminary identification; notice to FHFA; timing.</I> (1) Each Enterprise shall conduct periodic reviews of its business lines to identify core business lines, consistent with the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Enterprise shall establish and implement a process to identify each of its core business lines. The process shall include a methodology for evaluating the Enterprise's participation in activities and markets that may be critical to the stability of the national housing finance markets or carrying out the statutory mission and purpose of the Enterprise. The methodology shall be designed, taking into account the nature, size, complexity, and scope of the Enterprise's operations, to identify and assess:
</P>
<P>(i) The markets and activities in which the Enterprise participates or has operations;
</P>
<P>(ii) The significance of those markets and activities with respect to the national housing finance markets or the Enterprise's obligation to carry out its statutory mission and purpose; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The significance of the Enterprise as a provider or other participant in those markets and activities.
</P>
<P>(3) Enterprise identification of any business line as a core business line is preliminary and is subject to review by FHFA. Each Enterprise must provide a notice of its preliminary identification of core business lines to FHFA, including a description of its methodology and the basis for identification of each core business line.
</P>
<P>(4) The board of directors of the Enterprise shall approve each notice of preliminary identification of core business lines before submission to FHFA, with such approval noted in board minutes.
</P>
<P>(5) Each Enterprise must conduct its initial identification process and submit its initial identification of core business lines to FHFA by the date that is three months after the effective date of the final rule. Thereafter, each Enterprise shall conduct periodic identification processes, determining the timing of each periodic process to ensure that the process for identification, including FHFA review and determination required by paragraph (b) of this section, can be complete in sufficient time for each succeeding required resolution plan to include the information required under § 1242.5 for each core business line. FHFA may also direct an Enterprise as to the timeframe for conducting any subsequent identification process.
</P>
<P>(6) Each Enterprise must periodically review its identification process and update it as necessary to ensure its continued effectiveness.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FHFA identification of core business lines; notice to an Enterprise; timing of inclusion in resolution plan.</I> (1) Within three months of receiving an Enterprise notice of the preliminary identification of a business line as a core business line, FHFA will provide notice to the Enterprise of its determination of each core business line. FHFA may also identify operations, services, functions, or supports associated with any core business line.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may identify any business line of the Enterprise as a core business line, considering factors set forth in paragraph (a)(2) of this section or any other factor FHFA deems appropriate, following review of an Enterprise notice of preliminary identification or at any other time, on written notice to an Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(3) If FHFA identifies a core business line under paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an Enterprise is not required to include that core business line in a resolution plan if that plan is due within six months after the Enterprise receives notice of identification from FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reconsideration of business line identification</I>—(1) <I>Reconsideration initiated by an Enterprise.</I> (i) An Enterprise may request that FHFA reconsider the identification under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section, by submitting a written request to FHFA that includes a clear and complete statement of all arguments and all material information that the Enterprise believes is relevant to reconsideration as a core business line.
</P>
<P>(ii) The board of directors of the Enterprise shall approve each request for reconsideration of identification before submission to FHFA, with such approval noted in board minutes.
</P>
<P>(iii) FHFA will respond to an Enterprise request for reconsideration within three months after the date on which a complete request is received.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Reconsideration initiated by FHFA.</I> FHFA may reconsider the identification of any business line, including reconsideration of any operation, service, function, or support, at any time and in its discretion, on written notice to an Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>FHFA notice of reconsideration.</I> FHFA will provide a notice of reconsideration to the affected Enterprise, stating the results of the reconsideration. If FHFA determines to change an identification, such notice may also provide an effective date or other delaying or triggering condition for the change to become effective.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of reconsideration.</I> For purposes of Enterprise resolution plans, identification as a core business line continues in effect until any notice of reconsideration removing such identification becomes effective.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.4   Credible resolution plan required; other notices to FHFA.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credible resolution plan required; frequency and timing of plan submission</I>—(1) <I>Credible resolution plan required; resolution plan submission dates.</I> Each Enterprise is required to submit a credible resolution plan to FHFA in accordance with frequency and timing requirements established by FHFA. Each Enterprise is required to submit its initial resolution plan 18 months after the date on which it is required to submit its initial notice preliminarily identifying core business lines to FHFA in accordance with § 1242.3(a)(2). Thereafter, each Enterprise shall submit a resolution plan to FHFA not later than two years following the submission date for the prior resolution plan, unless otherwise notified by FHFA in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Altering submission dates.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, FHFA may determine that an Enterprise shall submit its resolution plan on a date different from any date provided in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, which may be before or after any date so established. FHFA shall provide an Enterprise with written notice of a determination under this paragraph (a)(2) no later than 12 months before the date by which the Enterprise is required to submit the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interim updates.</I> FHFA may require that an Enterprise submit an update to a resolution plan submitted under this part, within a reasonable time, as determined by FHFA. FHFA shall notify the Enterprise of its requirement to submit an update under this paragraph (a)(3) in writing and shall specify the portions or aspects of the resolution plan the Enterprise shall update. Submission of an interim update does not affect the date for submission of a resolution plan, unless otherwise notified by FHFA in accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of extraordinary events; inclusion in next resolution plan.</I> Each Enterprise shall provide FHFA with a notice no later than 45 days after any material change, merger, reorganization, sale or divestiture of a business unit or material assets, or similar transaction, or any fundamental change to the Enterprise's resolution strategy. Such notice must describe such extraordinary event and explain how it may plausibly affect the resolution of the Enterprise. The Enterprise shall address any such extraordinary event with respect to which it has provided notice pursuant to this paragraph (b) in the next resolution plan submitted by the Enterprise, provided that plan is required to be submitted more than 90 days after submission of the notice of an extraordinary event to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Board of directors' approval of resolution plan.</I> The board of directors of the Enterprise shall approve each resolution plan (including any revised resolution plan) before submission to FHFA, with such approval noted in board minutes.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Point of contact.</I> Each Enterprise shall identify an Enterprise senior management official and position responsible for serving as a point of contact regarding the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Incorporation of previously submitted resolution plan information by reference.</I> Any resolution plan submitted by an Enterprise may incorporate by reference information from a prior resolution plan submitted to FHFA, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The resolution plan seeking to incorporate information by reference clearly indicates:
</P>
<P>(i) The information the Enterprise is incorporating by reference; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Which of the Enterprise's previously submitted resolution plan(s) originally contained the information the Enterprise is incorporating by reference, including the specific location of that information in the previously submitted resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(2) The information the Enterprise is incorporating by reference remains accurate in all respects that are material to the Enterprise's resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Extensions of time.</I> Upon its own initiative or a written request by an Enterprise, FHFA may extend any time period under this part. Each extension request by an Enterprise shall be supported by a written statement describing the basis and justification for the request.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.5   Informational content of a resolution plan; required and prohibited assumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An Enterprise resolution plan shall reflect required and prohibited assumptions specified in paragraph (b) of this section and include information specified in paragraphs (c) through (h) of this section, as well as analysis, in detail, to facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution of the Enterprise by FHFA as receiver in a manner that minimizes the risk that resolution of an Enterprise would have serious adverse effects on the national housing finance markets, and to the extent possible, the amount of any losses to be realized by the Enterprise's creditors. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this part, FHFA may adjust or tailor the scope or form of information specified in paragraphs (c) through (g) of this section, as FHFA determines appropriate considering the significance of such information to FHFA when reviewing resolution plans, the appropriate level of detail of information, and reduction of burden on an Enterprise or FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Required and prohibited assumptions when developing a resolution plan.</I> In developing a resolution plan, each Enterprise shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Take into account that receivership of the Enterprise may occur under the severely adverse economic conditions provided to the Enterprise by FHFA in conjunction with any stress testing required or in another scenario provided by FHFA;
</P>
<P>(2) Not assume the provision or continuation of extraordinary support by the United States to the Enterprise to prevent either its becoming in danger of default or in default (including, in particular, support obtained or negotiated on behalf of the Enterprise by FHFA in its capacity as supervisor, conservator, or receiver of the Enterprise, including the Senior Preferred Stock Purchase Agreements entered into by FHFA and the U.S. Department of the Treasury on September 7, 2008 and any amendments thereto); and
</P>
<P>(3) Reflect statutory provisions that obligations and securities of the Enterprise issued pursuant to its authorizing statute, together with interest thereon, are not guaranteed by the United States and do not constitute a debt or obligation of the United States or any agency or instrumentality thereof other than the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Executive summary.</I> Each resolution plan of an Enterprise shall include an executive summary describing:
</P>
<P>(1) Summary of the key elements of the Enterprise's strategic analysis;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of each material change experienced by the Enterprise since submission of the Enterprise's prior resolution plan (or affirmation that no such change has occurred);
</P>
<P>(3) Changes to the Enterprise's previously submitted resolution plan resulting from any:
</P>
<P>(i) Change in law or regulation;
</P>
<P>(ii) Guidance or feedback from FHFA; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Material change described pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any actions taken by the Enterprise since submitting its prior resolution plan to improve the effectiveness of the resolution plan or remediate or otherwise mitigate any material weaknesses or impediments to a rapid and orderly resolution.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Strategic analysis.</I> Each resolution plan shall include a strategic analysis describing the Enterprise's plan for facilitating its rapid and orderly resolution by FHFA. Such analysis shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include detailed descriptions of—
</P>
<P>(i) Key assumptions and supporting analysis underlying the resolution plan, including any assumptions made concerning the economic or financial conditions that would be present at the time resolution would occur;
</P>
<P>(ii) Actions, or ranges of actions, which if taken by the Enterprise could facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution and those actions that the Enterprise intends to take;
</P>
<P>(iii) The corporate governance framework that supports determination of the specific actions to be taken to facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution as the Enterprise is becoming in danger of default (including identifying the senior management officials responsible for making those determinations and taking those actions);
</P>
<P>(iv) Funding, liquidity, and capital needs of, and resources and loss absorbing capacity available to, the Enterprise, which shall be mapped to its core business lines, in the ordinary course of business and in the event the Enterprise becomes in danger of default or in default;
</P>
<P>(v) Considering the Enterprise's core business lines, a strategy for identifying assets and liabilities of the Enterprise to be transferred to a limited-life regulated entity; and for transferring operations of, and funding for, the Enterprise to a limited-life regulated entity, which shall be mapped to core business lines;
</P>
<P>(vi) A strategy for preventing the failure or discontinuation of each core business line and its associated operations, services, functions, or supports as the core business line is transferred to a limited-life regulated entity, and actions that, in the Enterprise's view, FHFA could take to prevent or mitigate any adverse effects of such failure or discontinuation on the national housing finance markets;
</P>
<P>(vii) A strategy for mitigating the effect on the Enterprise of another Enterprise becoming in danger of default or in default, on the continuation of each of the Enterprise's core business lines and its associated operations, services, functions, or supports as any assets or operations of the other Enterprise are transferred to the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(viii) The extent to which claims against the Enterprise by creditors and counterparties would be satisfied in accordance with § 1237.9 of this chapter and the manner and source of satisfaction of those claims consistent with the continuation of the Enterprise's core business lines by the limited-life regulated entity; and
</P>
<P>(ix) A strategy for transferring or unwinding qualified financial contracts, as defined at 12 U.S.C. 4617(d)(8)(D)(i), in a manner consistent with 12 U.S.C. 4617(d)(8) through (11);
</P>
<P>(2) Identify the time period(s) the Enterprise expects would be needed to successfully execute each action identified in paragraph (d)(1)(ii) of this section to facilitate rapid and orderly resolution, and any impediments to such actions;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify and describe—
</P>
<P>(i) Any potential material weaknesses or impediments to rapid and orderly resolution as conceived in the Enterprise's plan;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any actions or steps the Enterprise has taken or proposes to take, or which other market participants could take, to remediate or otherwise mitigate the weaknesses or impediments identified by the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A timeline for the remedial or other mitigating action that the Enterprise proposes to take; and
</P>
<P>(4) Provide a detailed description of the processes the Enterprise employs for—
</P>
<P>(i) Determining the current market values and marketability of the core business lines and material asset holdings of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(ii) Assessing the feasibility of the Enterprise's plans (including timeframes) for executing any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions contemplated in the Enterprise's resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Assessing the impact of any sales, divestitures, restructurings, recapitalizations, or other similar actions on the value, funding, and operations of the Enterprise and its core business lines.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corporate governance relating to resolution planning.</I> Each resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Include a detailed description of—
</P>
<P>(i) How resolution planning is integrated into the corporate governance structure and processes of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(ii) The process for identifying core business lines, including a description of the Enterprise's methodology considering the requirements of § 1242.3(a);
</P>
<P>(iii) Enterprise policies, procedures, and internal controls governing preparation and approval of the resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The nature, extent, and frequency of reporting to Enterprise senior executive officers and the board of directors regarding the development, maintenance, and implementation of the Enterprise's resolution plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide the identity and position of the Enterprise senior management official primarily responsible for overseeing the development, maintenance, implementation, and submission of the Enterprise's resolution plan and for the Enterprise's compliance with this part;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the nature, extent, and results of any contingency planning or similar exercise conducted by the Enterprise since the date of the Enterprise's most recently submitted resolution plan to assess the viability of or improve the resolution plan of the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(4) Identify and describe the relevant risk measures used by the Enterprise to report credit risk exposures both internally to its senior management and board of directors, as well as any relevant risk measures reported externally to investors or to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Organizational structure, interconnections, and related information.</I> Each resolution plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide a detailed description of the Enterprise's organizational structure, including—
</P>
<P>(i) A list of all affiliates and trusts within the Enterprise's organization that identifies for each affiliate and trust (legal entity), the following information (provided that, where such information would be identical across multiple legal entities, it may be presented in relation to a group of identified legal entities):
</P>
<P>(A) The percentage of voting and nonvoting equity of each legal entity listed; and
</P>
<P>(B) The location, jurisdiction of incorporation, licensing, and key management associated with each material legal entity identified;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the Enterprise's operations, services, functions, and supports associated with each of its core business lines, identifying—
</P>
<P>(A) The entity, including any third-party providers, responsible for conducting each associated operation or service that supports the functioning of each core business line as well as the Enterprise's material asset holdings; and
</P>
<P>(B) Liabilities related to such operations, services, and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(2) Provide an unconsolidated balance sheet for the Enterprise and a consolidating schedule for all securitization trusts consolidated by the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a schedule showing all assets and liabilities of unconsolidated Enterprise securitization trusts;
</P>
<P>(4) Include a description of the material components of the liabilities of the Enterprise and each identified core business line that, at a minimum, separately identifies types and amounts of the short-term and long-term liabilities, secured and unsecured liabilities, and subordinated liabilities;
</P>
<P>(5) Identify and describe the processes used by the Enterprise to—
</P>
<P>(i) Determine to whom the Enterprise has pledged collateral;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify the person or entity that holds such collateral; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify the jurisdiction in which the collateral is located, and, if different, the jurisdiction in which the security interest in the collateral is enforceable against the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(6) Describe any material off-balance sheet exposures (including guarantees and contractual obligations) of the Enterprise, including a mapping to each of its core business lines;
</P>
<P>(7) Describe the practices of the Enterprise and its core business lines related to the booking of trading and derivatives activities;
</P>
<P>(8) Identify material hedges of the Enterprise and its core business lines related to trading and derivative activities, including a mapping to legal entity;
</P>
<P>(9) Describe the hedging strategies of the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(10) Describe the process undertaken by the Enterprise to establish exposure limits;
</P>
<P>(11) Identify the third-party providers with which the Enterprise has significant business connections (including third parties performing or providing operations, services, functions, or supports associated with each core business line) and describe the business connections, dependencies and relationships with such third party;
</P>
<P>(12) Report on the counterparty credit risk exposure to—
</P>
<P>(i) The 20 largest single-family mortgage sellers and the 20 largest single-family mortgage servicers to the Enterprise (where “largest” is determined as of the end of the quarter preceding submission of a resolution plan, and the Enterprise includes an entity that is among the largest in both categories in each separate report category); and
</P>
<P>(ii) All multifamily sellers and servicers to the Enterprise, based on purchasing volume during the preceding year.
</P>
<P>(13) Report on insurance in force, risk in force, and exposure and potential future exposure related to all providers of loan-level mortgage insurance;
</P>
<P>(14) Analyze whether the failure of a third-party provider to an Enterprise would likely have an adverse impact on an Enterprise or result in the Enterprise becoming in danger of default or in default, the availability of alternative providers, and the ability of the Enterprise to change providers when necessary; and
</P>
<P>(15) Identify each trading, payment, clearing, or settlement system of which the Enterprise, directly or indirectly, is a member and on which the Enterprise conducts a material number or value amount of trades or transactions, and map membership in each such system to the Enterprise and its core business lines.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Management information systems.</I> (1) Each resolution plan shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A detailed inventory and description of the key management information systems and applications, including systems and applications for risk management, automated underwriting, valuation, accounting, and financial and regulatory reporting, used by the Enterprise, and systems and applications containing records used to manage all qualified financial contracts. The description of each system or application provided shall identify the legal owner or licensor, the use or function of the system or application, service level agreements related thereto, any software and system licenses, and any intellectual property associated therewith;
</P>
<P>(ii) A mapping of the key management information systems and applications to core business lines of the Enterprise that use or rely on such systems and applications;
</P>
<P>(iii) An identification of the scope, content, and frequency of the key internal reports that senior management of the Enterprise and core business lines use to monitor the financial health, risks, and operation of the Enterprise and core business lines;
</P>
<P>(iv) A description of the process for FHFA to access the management information systems and applications identified in this paragraph (g); and
</P>
<P>(v) A description and analysis of—
</P>
<P>(A) The capabilities of the Enterprise's management information systems to collect, maintain, and report, in a timely manner to management of the Enterprise and to FHFA, the information and data underlying the resolution plan; and
</P>
<P>(B) Any gaps or weaknesses in such capabilities, and a description of the actions the Enterprise intends to take to promptly address such gaps, or weaknesses, and the timeframe for implementing such actions.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Identification of point of contact.</I> The Enterprise senior management official responsible for serving as a point of contact regarding the resolution plan shall be identified in the resolution plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.6   Form of resolution plan; confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Form of resolution plan</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> Each resolution plan of an Enterprise shall be divided into a public section and a confidential section. Each Enterprise shall segregate and separately identify the public section from the confidential section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of public section.</I> The public section of a resolution plan shall clearly reflect required and prohibited assumptions set forth at § 1242.5(b) and consist of an executive summary of the resolution plan that describes the business of the Enterprise and includes, to the extent material to an understanding of the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) A description of each core business line, including associated operations and services;
</P>
<P>(ii) Consolidated or segment financial information regarding assets, liabilities, capital and major funding sources;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of derivative activities, hedging activities, and credit risk transfer instruments;
</P>
<P>(iv) A list of memberships in material payment, clearing and settlement systems;
</P>
<P>(v) The identities of the principal officers;
</P>
<P>(vi) A description of the corporate governance structure and processes related to resolution planning;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of material management information systems; and
</P>
<P>(viii) A description, at a high level, of strategies to facilitate resolution, covering such items as the range of potential purchasers of the Enterprise's core business lines and other significant assets, as well as measures that, if taken by the Enterprise, could minimize the risk that its resolution would have serious adverse effects on the national housing finance markets and minimize the amount of potential loss to the Enterprise's investors and creditors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Confidential treatment of resolution plan.</I> (1) The confidentiality of each resolution plan and related materials shall be determined in accordance with applicable exemptions under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552(b)), 12 CFR part 1202 (FHFA's regulation implementing the Freedom of Information Act), and 12 CFR part 1214 (FHFA's regulation on the availability of non-public information).
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise submitting a resolution plan or related materials pursuant to this part that desires confidential treatment of the information under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), 12 CFR part 1202 (Freedom of Information Act), and 12 CFR part 1214 (availability of non-public information) may file a request for confidential treatment in accordance with those rules.
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent permitted by law, information comprising the confidential section of a resolution plan will be treated as confidential.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent permitted by law, the submission of any nonpublic data or information under this part shall not constitute a waiver of, or otherwise affect, any privilege arising under Federal or state law (including the rules of any Federal or state court) to which the data or information is otherwise subject. The submission of any nonpublic data or information under this part shall be subject to the examination privilege.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.7   Review of resolution plans; resubmission of deficient resolution plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>FHFA acceptance of resolution plan; review for completeness.</I> (1) After receipt of a resolution plan, FHFA will either acknowledge acceptance of the plan for review or return the resolution plan if FHFA determines that it is incomplete or that substantial additional information is required to facilitate review of the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(2) If FHFA determines that a resolution plan is incomplete or that substantial additional information is necessary to facilitate review of the resolution plan:
</P>
<P>(i) FHFA shall provide notice to the Enterprise in writing of the area(s) in which the resolution plan is incomplete or with respect to which additional information is required; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after receiving such notice (or such other time period as FHFA may establish in the notice), the Enterprise shall resubmit a complete resolution plan or such additional information as requested to facilitate review of the resolution plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FHFA review of complete plan; determination regarding deficient resolution plan.</I> (1) Following review of a complete resolution plan, FHFA will send a notification to each Enterprise that:
</P>
<P>(i) Identifies any deficiencies or shortcomings in the Enterprise's resolution plan (or confirms that no deficiencies or shortcomings were identified);
</P>
<P>(ii) Identifies any planned actions or changes set forth by the Enterprise that FHFA agrees could facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution of the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Provides any other feedback on the resolution plan (including feedback on timing of actions or changes to be undertaken by the Enterprise). FHFA will send the notification no later than 12 months after accepting a complete plan, unless FHFA determines in its discretion that extenuating circumstances exist that require delay.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a “deficiency” is an aspect of an Enterprise's resolution plan that FHFA determines presents a weakness that, individually or in conjunction with other aspects, could undermine the feasibility of the Enterprise's resolution plan. A “shortcoming” is a weakness or gap that raises questions about the feasibility of an Enterprise's resolution plan, but does not rise to the level of a deficiency. If a shortcoming is not satisfactorily explained or addressed before or in the submission of the Enterprise's next resolution plan, it may be found to be a deficiency in the Enterprise's next resolution plan. FHFA may identify an aspect of an Enterprise's resolution plan as a deficiency even if such aspect was not identified as a shortcoming in an earlier resolution plan submission.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Resubmission of a resolution plan.</I> Within 90 days of receiving a notice of deficiency, or such shorter or longer period as FHFA may establish by written notice to the Enterprise, an Enterprise shall submit a revised resolution plan to FHFA that addresses all deficiencies identified by FHFA, and that discusses in detail:
</P>
<P>(1) Revisions to the plan made by the Enterprise to address the identified deficiencies;
</P>
<P>(2) Any changes to the Enterprise's business operations and corporate structure that the Enterprise proposes to undertake to address a deficiency (including a timeline for completing such changes); and
</P>
<P>(3) Why the Enterprise believes that the revised resolution plan is feasible and would facilitate a rapid and orderly resolution by FHFA as receiver.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1242.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.34.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1242.8   No limiting effect or private right of action.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No limiting effect on resolution proceedings.</I> A resolution plan submitted pursuant to this part shall not have any binding effect on FHFA when appointed as conservator or receiver under 12 U.S.C. 4617.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No private right of action.</I> Nothing in this part creates or is intended to create a private right of action based on a resolution plan prepared or submitted under this part or based on any action taken by FHFA with respect to any resolution plan submitted under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1248" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1248—UNIFORM MORTGAGE-BACKED SECURITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1451 note; 1716; 4511; and 4526.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 7799, Mar. 5, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1248.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The definitions below are used to define terms for purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Align or alignment</I> means to cause to be sufficiently similar, or have sufficient similarity, as to produce a conditional prepayment rate (CPR) divergence of less than 2 percentage points in the three-month CPR for a cohort, and less than 5 percentage points in the three-month CPR for a the fastest paying quartile of a cohort (or less than the prevailing percentage thresholds for alignment set by FHFA, per § 1248.5(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Cohort</I> means all TBA-eligible securities with the same coupon, maturity, and loan-origination year where the combined unpaid principal balance of such securities issued by both Enterprises exceeds $10 billion.
</P>
<P><I>Conditional Prepayment Rate or CPR,</I> also known as the constant prepayment rate, means the rate at which investors receive outstanding principal in advance of scheduled principal payments. This includes receipts of principal that result from borrower prepayments and for any other reason. The CPR is expressed as a compound annual rate.
</P>
<P><I>Covered Programs, Policies, or Practices</I> means management decisions or actions that have reasonably foreseeable effects on cash flows to TBA-eligible MBS investors (<I>e.g.,</I> effects that result from prepayment rates and the circumstances under which mortgage loans are removed from MBS). These generally include management decisions or actions about: Single-family guarantee fees; loan level price adjustments and delivery fee portions of single-family guarantee fees; the spread between the note rate on the mortgage and the pass-through coupon on the TBA-eligible MBS; eligibility standards for sellers and servicers; financial and operational standards for private mortgage insurers; requirements related to the servicing of distressed loans that collateralize TBA-eligible securities; streamlined modification and refinance programs; removal of mortgage loans from securities; servicer compensation; proposals that could materially change the credit risk profile of the single-family mortgages securitized by an Enterprise; selling guide requirements for documenting creditworthiness, ability to repay, and adherence to collateral standards; refinances of HARP-eligible loans; contract provisions under which certain sellers commit to sell to an Enterprise a minimum share of the mortgage loans they originate that are eligible for sale to the Enterprises; loan modification offerings; loss mitigation practices during disasters; alternatives to repurchase for representation and warranty violations; and other actions.
</P>
<P><I>Fastest paying quartile of a cohort</I> means the quartile of a cohort that has the fastest prepayment speeds as measured by the three-month CPR. The quartiles shall be determined by ranking outstanding TBA-eligible securities with the same coupon, maturity, and loan-origination year by the three-month CPR, excluding <I>specified pools,</I> and dividing each cohort into four parts such that the total unpaid principal balance of the pools included in each part is equal.
</P>
<P><I>Material misalignment</I> means divergence of at least 3 percentage points in the three-month CPR for a cohort or at least 8 percentage points in the three-month CPR for a fastest paying quartile of a cohort, or a prolonged misalignment (as determined by FHFA), or divergence greater than either of the corresponding prevailing percentage thresholds set by FHFA, per § 1248.5(c).
</P>
<P><I>Misalign or misalignment</I> means to diverge by, or a divergence of, 2 percentage points or more, in the three-month CPR for a cohort or 5 percentage points or more, in the three-month CPR for a fastest paying quartile of a cohort (or more than either of the corresponding prevailing percentage thresholds set by FHFA, per § 1248.5(c)).
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security or MBS</I> means securities collateralized by a pool or pools of single-family mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>Specified pools</I> means pools of mortgages backing TBA-eligible MBS that have a maximum loan size of $200,000, a minimum loan-to-value ratio at the time of loan origination of 80 percent, or a maximum FICO score of 700, or where all mortgages in the pool finance investor-owned properties or properties in the states of New York or Texas or the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
</P>
<P><I>Supers</I> means single-class re-securitizations of UMBS.
</P>
<P><I>Three-month conditional prepayment rate (CPR3)</I> means the annualized measure of prepayments for a three month interval calculated as follows:
</P>
<FP-2>CPR3<E T="52">t</E> = 1 − ((1 − SMM<E T="52">t-2</E>) *

(1 − SMM<E T="52">t-1</E>) * (1 − SMM<E T="52">t</E>))
<SU>4</SU>,
</FP-2>
<FP>where t indicates the month and

SMM is the single month mortality rate, which equals

(PMT<E T="52">t</E> − I<E T="52">t</E> − P<E T="52">t</E>)/(UPB<E T="52">t</E> − P<E T="52">t</E>),

where PMT<E T="52">t</E> is the actual payments received in the month,

I<E T="52">t</E> is the scheduled payments of interest, P<E T="52">t</E> is the scheduled payments of principal, and UPB<E T="52">t</E> is the beginning unpaid principal balance.
</FP>
<P><I>To-Be-Announced Eligible Mortgage-Backed Security (TBA-Eligible MBS)</I> means Enterprise MBS (including Freddie Mac Participation Certificates, Giants, MBS, UMBS, and Supers; and Fannie Mae MBS, Megas, UMBS, and Supers) that meet criteria such that the market considers them sufficiently fungible to be forward traded in the TBA market.
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Mortgage Backed Security or UMBS</I> means a single-class MBS backed

by fixed-rate mortgage loans on one-to-four unit (single-family) properties issued by

either Enterprise which has the same characteristics (such as payment delay, pooling

prefixes, and minimum pool submission amounts) regardless of which Enterprise is the issuer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.2   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to:
</P>
<P>(a) Enhance liquidity in the MBS marketplace, and to that end, enable adoption of the UMBS, by achieving sufficient similarity of cash flows on cohorts of TBA-eligible MBS such that investors will accept delivery of UMBS from either issuer in settlement of trades on the TBA market.
</P>
<P>(b) Provide transparency and durability into the process for creating alignment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.3   General alignment.</HEAD>
<P>Each Enterprise's covered programs, policies, and practices must align with the other Enterprise's covered programs, policies, and practices.
</P>
<P>(a) When aligning covered programs, policies, and practices, the Enterprises must consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The effect of the alignment on TBA-eligible securities' pricing and particularly on the prepayment speeds of mortgages underlying TBA-eligible MBS.
</P>
<P>(2) Options that provide the greatest benefit for investors, lenders, and mortgage borrowers.
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.4   Enterprise consultation.</HEAD>
<P>When and in the manner instructed by FHFA, the Enterprises shall consult with each other on any issues, including changes to covered programs, policies, and practices that potentially or actually cause cash flows to TBA-eligible MBS investors to misalign. The Enterprises shall report to FHFA on the results of any such consultation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.5   Misalignment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Enterprises must report any misalignment to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) The Enterprises must submit, in a timely manner, a written report to FHFA on any material misalignment describing, at a minimum, the likely cause of material misalignment and the Enterprises' plan to address the material misalignment.
</P>
<P>(c) FHFA will <I>temporarily</I> adjust the percentages in the definitions of align, misalignment, and material misalignment, if FHFA determines that market conditions dictate that an adjustment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) In adjusting the percentages, FHFA will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The prevailing level and volatility of interest rates;
</P>
<P>(ii) The level of credit risk embedded in the Enterprises' TBA-eligible MBS; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Such other factors as FHFA may, in consultation with the Enterprises, determine to be appropriate to promote market confidence in the alignment of cash flows to TBA-eligible MBS investors and to foster the efficiency and liquidity of the secondary mortgage market.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA will publicly announce any temporary adjustment to the percentages in the definition of align, misalignment, and material misalignment in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) If adjusted percentages remain in effect for six months or more, FHFA will amend this part's definitions by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice, with opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(4) Temporarily adjusted percentages will remain in effect until six months after the date on which FHFA announced the temporary adjustment unless within six months of that date—
</P>
<P>(i) FHFA announces a reversion to the previously prevailing percentages; or
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFA initiates the notice and comment process, in which case the temporary percentages will remain in effect until the conclusion of that process.
</P>
<P>(d) FHFA will <I>temporarily</I> adjust the definitions of cohort, fastest paying quartile of a cohort, and specified pools, if FHFA determines that changes in market practices or conditions dictate that an adjustment is appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) In adjusting those definitions, FHFA will consider:
</P>
<P>(i) Changes in prevailing market practices related to the identification of specified pools;
</P>
<P>(ii) The prevailing interest rates environment;
</P>
<P>(iii) Observed relationships between pool characteristics and prepayment behavior of the Enterprises' TBA-eligible MBS; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Such other factors as FHFA may, in consultation with the Enterprises, determine to be appropriate to promote market confidence in the alignment of cash flows to TBA-eligible MBS investors and to foster the efficiency and liquidity of the secondary mortgage market.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA will publicly announce any temporary adjustment to the definitions of cohort and specified pools in a timely manner.
</P>
<P>(3) If adjusted definitions remain in effect for six months or more, FHFA will amend this part's definitions by <E T="04">Federal Register</E> Notice, with opportunity for public comment.
</P>
<P>(4) Temporarily adjusted definitions will remain in place until six months after the date on which FHFA announced the temporary adjustment unless within six months of that date—
</P>
<P>(i) FHFA announces a reversion to the previously prevailing definitions; or
</P>
<P>(ii) FHFA initiates the notice and comment process, in which case the temporary definitions will remain in effect until the conclusion of that process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.6   Covered programs, policies, and practices.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enterprise Change Management Processes.</I> Each Enterprise must establish and maintain an Enterprise-wide governance process to ensure that any proposed changes to covered programs, policies, and practices that may cause misalignment are identified, reviewed, escalated, and submitted, in writing, to FHFA for review and approval in a timely manner, including proposed changes to covered programs, policies, and practices that were previously aligned at the direction of FHFA as conservator.
</P>
<P>(1) Submissions to FHFA must include projections for prepayment rates and for removals of delinquent loans under a range of interest rate environments and assumptions concerning borrower defaults.
</P>
<P>(2) Submissions to FHFA must include an analysis of the impact on borrowers and impact on the fastest paying quartile of each cohort.
</P>
<P>(3) Submissions to FHFA must include an analysis of identified risks and may include potential mitigating actions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enterprise Monitoring.</I> Any changes to covered programs, policies, and practices that an Enterprise reasonably should identify as having been a likely cause of an unanticipated divergence between Enterprises in the three-month CPR of the same cohort shall be reported promptly to FHFA in writing.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FHFA Monitoring.</I> FHFA will monitor changes to covered programs, policies, and practices for effects on cash flows to TBA-eligible MBS investors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.7   Remedial actions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Based on its review of reports submitted by the Enterprises and reports issued by independent parties, if FHFA determines that there is misalignment, or the risk of misalignment, FHFA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require an Enterprise to undertake additional analysis, monitoring, or reporting to further the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Require an Enterprise to change covered programs, policies, and practices that FHFA determines conflict with the purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) To address material misalignment, FHFA may require additional and expedient Enterprise actions based on:
</P>
<P>(1) Consultation with the Enterprises regarding the cause of the material misalignment;
</P>
<P>(2) Review of Enterprise compliance with previously agreed upon or FHFA-required actions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Review of the effectiveness of such actions to determine whether they are achieving the purpose of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) Depending on the severity and cause of any material misalignment, FHFA, in its discretion, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require an Enterprise to terminate a program, policy, or practice; or
</P>
<P>(2) Require the competing Enterprise to implement a comparable program, policy, or practice.
</P>
<P>(d) When requiring an Enterprise to terminate a program, policy, or practice, or implement a comparable program, policy, or practice, FHFA will consider:
</P>
<P>(1) The effect on TBA-eligible securities pricing and particularly on the prepayment speeds of mortgages underlying TBA-eligible MBS; and
</P>
<P>(2) The costs borne by and the benefits likely to accrue to investors, lenders, and mortgage borrowers.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1248.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.35.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1248.8   <E T="7462">De minimis</E> exception.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA may exclude from the requirements of this part covered programs, policies, or practices of an Enterprise as long as those covered programs, policies, or practices do not affect more than $5 billion in unpaid principal balance of that Enterprises' TBA-eligible MBS.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1249" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1249—BOOK-ENTRY PROCEDURES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4501, 4502, 4511, 4513, 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 55928, Sept. 14, 2010, unless otherwise noted. 


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1249.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.10   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Unless the context requires otherwise, terms used in this part that are not defined in this part, have the meanings as set forth in 31 CFR 357.2 and in 12 CFR 1282.1. Definitions and terms used in 31 CFR part 357 should read as though modified to effectuate their application to the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other terms.</I> As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Book-entry Enterprise Security</I> means an Enterprise Security issued or maintained in the Book-entry System. Book-entry Enterprise Security also means the separate interest and principal components of a Book-entry Enterprise Security if such security has been designated by the Enterprise as eligible for division into such components and the components are maintained separately on the books of one or more Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Book-entry System</I> means the automated book-entry system operated by the Federal Reserve Banks acting as the fiscal agent for the Enterprises, on which Book-entry Enterprise Securities are issued, recorded, transferred and maintained in book-entry form.
</P>
<P><I>Definitive Enterprise Security</I> means an Enterprise Security in engraved or printed form, or that is otherwise represented by a certificate.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Book-entry Enterprise Security</I> means a Book-entry Enterprise Security issued or maintained in the Book-entry System which by the terms of its Securities Documentation is eligible to be converted from book-entry form into definitive form.
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise Security</I> means any security or obligation of Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac issued under its respective Charter Act in the form of a Definitive Enterprise Security or a Book-entry Enterprise Security.
</P>
<P><I>Entitlement Holder</I> means a Person or an Enterprise to whose account an interest in a Book-entry Enterprise Security is credited on the records of a Securities Intermediary.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular</I> means the publication issued by each Federal Reserve Bank that sets forth the terms and conditions under which the Reserve Bank maintains Book-entry Securities accounts (including Book-entry Enterprise Securities) and transfers Book-entry Securities (including Book-entry Enterprise Securities).
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a Person or Enterprise that maintains a Participant's Securities Account with a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Person,</I> as used in this part, means and includes an individual, corporation, company, governmental entity, association, firm, partnership, trust, estate, representative, and any other similar organization, but does not mean or include the United States, an Enterprise, or a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Revised Article 8</I> has the same meaning as in 31 CFR 357.2.
</P>
<P><I>Securities Documentation</I> means the applicable statement of terms, trust indenture, securities agreement or other documents establishing the terms of a Book-entry Enterprise Security.
</P>
<P><I>Security</I> means any mortgage participation certificate, note, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, collateral-trust certificate, transferable share, certificate of deposit for a security, or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a “security”.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer message</I> means an instruction of a Participant to a Federal Reserve Bank to effect a transfer of a Book-entry Security (including a Book-entry Enterprise Security) maintained in the Book-entry System, as set forth in Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.11   Maintenance of Enterprise Securities.</HEAD>
<P>An Enterprise Security may be maintained in the form of a Definitive Enterprise Security or a Book-entry Enterprise Security. A Book-entry Enterprise Security shall be maintained in the Book-entry System.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.12   Law governing rights and obligations of United States, Federal Reserve Banks, and Enterprises; rights of any person against United States, Federal Reserve Banks, and Enterprises; law governing other interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the following rights and obligations are governed solely by the book-entry regulations contained in this part, the Securities Documentation, and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars (but not including any choice of law provisions in the Securities Documentation to the extent such provisions conflict with the Book-entry regulations contained in this part):
</P>
<P>(1) The rights and obligations of an Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) A Book-entry Enterprise Security or Security Entitlement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Enterprise Securities; and
</P>
<P>(2) The rights of any Person, including a Participant, against an Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to:
</P>
<P>(i) A Book-entry Enterprise Security or Security Entitlement; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Enterprise Securities;
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Participant and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1249.13(c)(1), is governed by the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction where the head office of the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the Participant's Securities Account is located. A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Person that is not a Participant, and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1249.13(c)(1), is governed by the law determined in the manner specified in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) If the jurisdiction specified in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted Revised Article 8, then the law specified in paragraph (b) of this section shall be the law of that State as though Revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State.
</P>
<P>(d) To the extent not otherwise inconsistent with this part, and notwithstanding any provision in the Securities Documentation setting forth a choice of law, the provisions set forth in 31 CFR 357.11 regarding law governing other interests apply and shall be read as though modified to effectuate the application of 31 CFR 357.11 to the Enterprises.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.13   Creation of Participant's Security Entitlement; security interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Participant's Security Entitlement is created when a Federal Reserve Bank indicates by book-entry that a Book-entry Enterprise Security has been credited to a Participant's Securities Account.
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement of a Participant in favor of the United States to secure deposits of public money, including without limitation deposits to the Treasury tax and loan accounts, or other security interest in favor of the United States that is required by Federal statute, regulation, or agreement, and that is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank is thereby effected and perfected, and has priority over any other interest in the securities. Where a security interest in favor of the United States in a Security Entitlement of a Participant is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank, such Federal Reserve Bank may rely, and is protected in relying, exclusively on the order of an authorized representative of the United States directing the transfer of the security. For purposes of this paragraph, an “authorized representative of the United States” is the official designated in the applicable regulations or agreement to which a Federal Reserve Bank is a party, governing the security interest.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) An Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks have no obligation to agree to act on behalf of any Person or to recognize the interest of any transferee of a security interest or other limited interest in favor of any Person except to the extent of any specific requirement of Federal law or regulation or to the extent set forth in any specific agreement with the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the interest of the Participant is recorded. To the extent required by such law or regulation or set forth in an agreement with a Federal Reserve Bank, or the Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular, a security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, an Enterprise, or a Person may be created and perfected by a Federal Reserve Bank marking its books to record the security interest. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank shall have priority over any other interest in the securities.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the method provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a security interest, including a security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, may be perfected by any method by which a security interest may be perfected under applicable law as described in § 1249.12(b) or (d). The perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection and priority of a security interest are governed by such applicable law. A security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank shall be treated as a security interest in favor of a clearing corporation in all respects under such law, including with respect to the effect of perfection and priority of such security interest. A Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular shall be treated as a rule adopted by a clearing corporation for such purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.14   Obligations of Enterprises; no adverse claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of a security interest in favor of the United States or a Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise as provided in § 1249.13(c)(1), for the purposes of this part, each Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks shall treat the Participant to whose Securities Account an interest in a Book-entry Enterprise Security has been credited as the person exclusively entitled to issue a Transfer Message, to receive interest and other payments with respect thereof and otherwise to exercise all the rights and powers with respect to such Security, notwithstanding any information or notice to the contrary. Neither the Federal Reserve Banks nor an Enterprise shall be liable to a Person asserting or having an adverse claim to a Security Entitlement or to a Book-entry Enterprise Security in a Participant's Securities Account, including any such claim arising as a result of the transfer or disposition of a Book-entry Enterprise Security by a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to a Transfer Message that the Federal Reserve Bank reasonably believes to be genuine.
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation of the Enterprise to make payments (including payments of interest and principal) with respect to Book-entry Enterprise Securities is discharged at the time payment in the appropriate amount is made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest or other payments on Book-entry Enterprise Securities is either credited by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Funds Account maintained at such Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paid as directed by the Participant.
</P>
<P>(2) Book-entry Enterprise Securities are redeemed in accordance with their terms by a Federal Reserve Bank withdrawing the securities from the Participant's Securities Account in which they are maintained and by either crediting the amount of the redemption proceeds, including both redemption proceeds, where applicable, to a Funds Account at such Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paying such redemption proceeds as directed by the Participant. No action by the Participant ordinarily is required in connection with the redemption of a Book-entry Enterprise Security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.15   Authority of Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Enterprises to perform the following functions with respect to the issuance of Book-entry Enterprise Securities offered and sold by an Enterprise to which this part applies, in accordance with the Securities Documentation, Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars, this part, and any procedures established by the Director consistent with these authorities:
</P>
<P>(1) To service and maintain Book-entry Enterprise Securities in accounts established for such purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) To make payments with respect to such securities, as directed by the Enterprise;
</P>
<P>(3) To effect transfer of Book-entry Enterprise Securities between Participants' Securities Accounts as directed by the Participants;
</P>
<P>(4) To effect conversions between Book-entry Enterprise Securities and Definitive Enterprise Securities with respect to those securities as to which conversion rights are available pursuant to the applicable Securities Documentation; and
</P>
<P>(5) To perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this part, governing the details of its handling of Book-entry Enterprise Securities, Security Entitlements, and the operation of the Book-entry System under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.16   Withdrawal of Eligible Book-entry Enterprise Securities for conversion to definitive form.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Eligible Book-entry Enterprise Securities may be withdrawn from the Book-entry System by requesting delivery of like Definitive Enterprise Securities.
</P>
<P>(b) A Federal Reserve Bank shall, upon receipt of appropriate instructions to withdraw Eligible Book-entry Enterprise Securities from book-entry in the Book-entry System, convert such securities into Definitive Enterprise Securities and deliver them in accordance with such instructions. No such conversion shall affect existing interests in such Enterprise Securities.
</P>
<P>(c) All requests for withdrawal of Eligible Book-entry Enterprise Securities must be made prior to the maturity or date of call of the securities.
</P>
<P>(d) Enterprise Securities which are to be delivered upon withdrawal may be issued in either registered or bearer form, to the extent permitted by the applicable Securities Documentation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.17   Waiver of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>The Director reserves the right, in the Director's discretion, to waive any provision(s) of this part in any case or class of cases for the convenience of an Enterprise, the United States, or in order to relieve any person(s) of unnecessary hardship, if such action is not inconsistent with law, does not adversely affect any substantial existing rights, and the Director is satisfied that such action will not subject an Enterprise or the United States to any substantial expense or liability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.18   Liability of Enterprises and Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>An Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks may rely on the information provided in a Transfer Message, and are not required to verify the information. An Enterprise and the Federal Reserve Banks shall not be liable for any action taken in accordance with the information set out in a Transfer Message, or evidence submitted in support thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1249.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.36.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1249.19   Additional provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional requirements.</I> In any case or any class of cases arising under this part, an Enterprise may require such additional evidence and a bond of indemnity, with or without surety, as may in the judgment of the Enterprise be necessary for the protection of the interests of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of attachment for Enterprise Securities in Book-entry System.</I> The interest of a debtor in a Security Entitlement may be reached by a creditor only by legal process upon the Securities Intermediary with whom the debtor's securities account is maintained, except where a Security Entitlement is maintained in the name of a secured party, in which case the debtor's interest may be reached by legal process upon the secured party. These regulations do not purport to establish whether a Federal Reserve Bank is required to honor an order or other notice of attachment in any particular case or class of cases.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1250" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.37" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1250—FLOOD INSURANCE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4521(a)(4) and 4526; 28 U.S.C. 2461 note; 42 U.S.C. 4001 note; 42 U.S.C. 4012a(f)(3), (4), (5), (8), (9), and (10).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 2349, Jan. 15, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1250.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.37.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to set forth the responsibilities of the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (collectively, Enterprises) under the Flood Disaster Protection Act of 1973 (FDPA), as amended (42 U.S.C. 4002 <I>et seq.</I>) and the procedures to be used by the Federal Housing Finance Agency (FHFA) in any proceeding to assess civil money penalties against an Enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.37.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.2   Procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Procedures.</I> An Enterprise shall implement procedures reasonably designed to ensure for any loan that is secured by improved real estate or a mobile home located in an area that has been identified, at the time of the origination of the loan or at any time during the term of the loan, by the Director of the Federal Emergency Management Agency as an area having special flood hazards and in which flood insurance is available under the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4001 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended and purchased by the Enterprise, the building or mobile home and any personal property securing the loan is covered for the term of the loan by flood insurance in an amount at least equal to the lesser of the outstanding principal balance of the loan or the maximum limit of coverage made available with respect to the particular type of property under the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicability.</I> (1) Paragraph (a) of this section shall apply only with respect to any loan made, increased, extended, or renewed after September 22, 1995.
</P>
<P>(2) Paragraph (a) of this section shall not apply to any loan having an original outstanding balance of $5,000 or less and a repayment term of one year or less.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1250.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.37.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1250.3   Civil money penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If an Enterprise is determined by the Director of FHFA, or his or her designee, to have a pattern or practice of purchasing loans in violation of the procedures established pursuant to § 1250.2, the Director of FHFA, or his or her designee, may assess civil money penalties against such Enterprise in such amount or amounts as deemed to be appropriate under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice and hearing.</I> A civil money penalty under this section may be assessed only after notice and an opportunity for a hearing on the record has been provided to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Amount.</I> The maximum civil money penalty amount is $691 for each violation that occurs before January 15, 2025, with total penalties not to exceed $199,251. For violations that occur on or after January 15, 2025, the civil money penalty under this section may not exceed $709 for each violation, with total penalties assessed under this section against an Enterprise during any calendar year not to exceed $204,428.


</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposit of penalties.</I> Any penalties under this section shall be paid into the National Flood Mitigation Fund in accordance with section 1367 of the National Flood Insurance Act of 1968 (42 U.S.C. 4104d.), as amended.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional penalties.</I> Any penalty under this section shall be in addition to, and shall not preclude, any civil remedy, or criminal penalty otherwise available.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statute of limitations.</I> No civil money penalty may be imposed under this section after the expiration of the four-year period beginning on the date of the occurrence of the violation for which the penalty is authorized under this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 2349, Jan. 15, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 8642, Feb. 22, 2016; 81 FR 43031, July 1, 2016; 83 FR 43968, Aug. 29, 2018; 84 FR 9704, Mar. 18, 2019; 85 FR 4905, Jan. 28, 2020; 86 FR 7496, Jan. 29, 2021; 87 FR 1662, Jan. 12, 2022; 87 FR 14770, Mar. 16, 2022; 87 FR 80025, Dec. 29, 2022; 89 FR 3333, Jan. 18, 2024;90 FR 4609, Jan. 16, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1251" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.38" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1251—CONTRIBUTIONS TO THE HOUSING TRUST AND CAPITAL MAGNET FUNDS


</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1452(c), 1718(b), 4511(b), 4513(a), 4514(a), 4526(a), and 4567.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>79 FR 74597, Dec. 16, 2014, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1251.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.38.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1251.1   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to implement a prohibition against an Enterprise redirecting the cost of any allocation to the Housing Trust Fund or the Capital Magnet Fund to originators of mortgages purchased or securitized by an Enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1251.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.38.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1251.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to the terms used in and related specifically to this part. Definitions of other terms may be found in 12 CFR part 1201, General Definitions Applying to All Federal Housing Finance Agency Regulations:
</P>
<P><I>Capital Magnet Fund</I> means that Fund established at section 1339(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4569(a).
</P>
<P><I>Housing Trust Fund</I> means that Fund established by section 1338(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4568(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1251.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.38.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1251.3   Prohibition on pass-through of cost of allocation; enforcement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> No Enterprise shall re-direct or pass through the cost of any allocation to the Housing Trust Fund or the Capital Magnet Fund required pursuant to section 1337(a) of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4567(a), through increased charges or fees, or decreased premiums, or in any other manner, to the originators of mortgages purchased or securitized by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Enforcement.</I> Compliance by each Enterprise with the foregoing prohibition shall be enforced under subpart 3 of part B of the Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4581-89.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1251.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.38.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1251.4   Submission of information.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may issue guidance, orders, or notices on compliance with section 1337 and this part by the Enterprises, which may include information submissions by the Enterprises.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1252" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.39" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1252—PORTFOLIO HOLDINGS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4624.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>74 FR 5618, Jan. 30, 2009, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1252.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.39.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1252.1   Enterprise portfolio holding criteria.</HEAD>
<P>The Enterprises are required to comply with the portfolio holdings criteria set forth in their respective Senior Preferred Stock Purchase Agreements with the Department of the Treasury, as they may be amended from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1252.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.39.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1252.2   Effective duration.</HEAD>
<P>This part shall be in effect for each Enterprise so long as—
</P>
<P>(a) This part has not been superseded through amendment, and
</P>
<P>(b) The Enterprise remains subject to the terms and obligations of the respective Senior Preferred Stock Purchase Agreement.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1253" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1253—PRIOR APPROVAL FOR ENTERPRISE PRODUCTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511; 12 U.S.C. 4513; 12 U.S.C. 4526; 12 U.S.C. 4541.




</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>88 FR 79229, Dec. 27, 2022, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1253.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.1   Purpose and authority.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to establish policies and procedures implementing the prior approval authority for Enterprise products, in accordance with section 1321 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act of 1992 (12 U.S.C. 4541), as amended (Safety and Soundness Act).




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Activity</I> means a business line, business practice, offering, or service, including a guarantee, a financial instrument, consulting or marketing, that the Enterprise provides to the market either on a standalone basis or as part of a business line, business practice, offering, or service.
</P>
<P><I>Authorizing statute</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> is the potential that a borrower or counterparty will fail to meet its obligations in accordance with agreed terms. Credit risk includes the decline in measured quality of a credit exposure that might result in increased capital costs, provisioning expenses, or a reduction in economic return.
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk that the market value, or estimated fair value if the market value is not available, of an Enterprise's portfolio will decline as a result of changes in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, or equity or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>New activity</I> has the meaning provided in § 1253.3.
</P>
<P><I>New product</I> has the meaning provided in § 1253.4.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events, including all direct and indirect economic losses related to legal liability. Operational risk includes reputational risk, which is the potential for substantial negative publicity regarding an Enterprise's business practices.
</P>
<P><I>Pilot</I> means an activity that has a limited term and scope for purposes of evaluating the viability of the activity. A pilot may also be referred to as a testing initiative, test and learn, temporary authorization, or by other names.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.3   New activity description and exclusions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A new activity is any of the following if not engaged in by the Enterprise on or before February 27, 2023:
</P>
<P>(1) An activity;
</P>
<P>(2) An enhancement, alteration, or modification to an activity that—
</P>
<P>(i) Requires a new resource, type of data, policy, modification to an existing policy, process, or infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(ii) Expands the scope or increases the level of credit risk, market risk, or operational risk to the Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Involves a new category of borrower, investor, counterparty, or collateral;
</P>
<P>(3) A pilot or a modification to the volume or duration of a pilot, including a modification to a pilot that commenced before February 27, 2023; or
</P>
<P>(4) An activity that results from a pilot (including from a pilot that commenced before February 27, 2023) or an enhancement, alteration, or modification (as described by paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section) to an activity that results from a pilot (including from a pilot that commenced before February 27, 2023).
</P>
<P>(b) A new activity excludes:
</P>
<P>(1) An enhancement, alteration, or modification (as described by paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section) to the technology, operating system, or software to operate the automated loan underwriting system of an Enterprise that was in existence as of July 30, 2008.
</P>
<P>(2) An enhancement, alteration, or modification (as described by paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (iii) of this section) to the mortgage terms and conditions or mortgage underwriting criteria relating to the mortgages that are purchased or guaranteed by an Enterprise, provided that such enhancement, alteration, or modification does not alter the underlying transaction so as to include services or financing, other than residential mortgage financing.
</P>
<P>(3) Pursuant to the requirements of § 1253.8, any activity undertaken by an Enterprise that is substantially similar to—
</P>
<P>(i) The automated loan underwriting system of an Enterprise that was in existence as of July 30, 2008, including or any enhancement, alteration, or modification to the technology, operating system, or software to operate the automated loan underwriting system;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any enhancement, alteration, or modification to mortgage terms and conditions or mortgage underwriting criteria relating to the mortgages that are purchased or guaranteed by an Enterprise, provided that such activity does not alter the underlying transaction so as to include services or financing, other than residential mortgage financing; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A new product that the Director has approved for either Enterprise under § 1253.6(a) through (f) or § 1253.7 or a new product that is otherwise available to either Enterprise under § 1253.6(h).
</P>
<P>(4) Any Enterprise business practice, transaction, or conduct performed solely to facilitate the administration of an Enterprise's internal affairs.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.4   New product determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A new product is any new activity that the Director determines merits public notice and comment about whether it is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) The factors that the Director may consider when determining whether a new product is in the public interest are:
</P>
<P>(1) The degree to which the new product might advance any of the purposes of the Enterprise under its authorizing statute;
</P>
<P>(2) The degree to which the new product serves underserved markets and housing goals as set forth in sections 1332-1335 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4562-4565);
</P>
<P>(3) The degree to which the new product is being or could be supplied by other market participants;
</P>
<P>(4) The degree to which the new product promotes competition in the marketplace or, to the contrary, would result in less competition;
</P>
<P>(5) The degree to which the new product overcomes natural market barriers or inefficiencies;
</P>
<P>(6) The degree to which the new product might raise or mitigate risks to the mortgage finance or financial system;
</P>
<P>(7) The degree to which the new product furthers fair housing and fair lending; and
</P>
<P>(8) Such other factors as determined appropriate by the Director.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.5   Notice of new activity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Before commencing a new activity, an Enterprise must submit a notice of new activity to FHFA. An Enterprise may request prior consultation with FHFA about whether a notice of new activity is required.
</P>
<P>(b) In support of its notice of new activity, the Enterprise shall submit thorough, complete, and specific information as described under § 1253.9(a). FHFA will evaluate the notice of new activity to determine if the submission contains sufficient information to enable the Director to determine whether the new activity is a new product subject to prior approval. Once FHFA makes the determination that the submission is complete, FHFA will notify the Enterprise that the submission is “received” for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 4541(e)(2)(B).
</P>
<P>(c) Nothing in this regulation limits or restricts FHFA from reviewing a notice of new activity under any other applicable law, under the Director's authority to review for safety and soundness, or to determine whether the activity complies with the Enterprise's authorizing statute. FHFA may conduct such a review as part of its determination that the notice of new activity submission is complete.
</P>
<P>(d) No later than 15 days after FHFA notifies the Enterprise that the submission is received, the Director will make a determination on the notice of new activity and will notify the Enterprise accordingly. If the Director determines that the new activity is a new product, the Enterprise must elect to either submit a request for prior approval of the new product under § 1253.6 or discontinue its plan to offer the new product to the market.
</P>
<P>(e) If the Director determines that the new activity is not a new product, or if after the passage of 15 days the Director does not make a determination whether the new activity is a new product, the Enterprise may commence the new activity. The Director may establish terms, conditions, or limitations on the Enterprise's engagement in the new activity as the Director determines to be appropriate and with which the Enterprise must comply in order to engage in the new activity.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Director does not make a determination within the 15-day period, the absence of such determination does not limit or restrict the Director's safety and soundness authority or the Director's authority to review the new activity to confirm that the activity is consistent with the Enterprise's authorizing statute.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.6   Request for prior approval of a new product; public notice; standards for approval.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Enterprise must submit a request for prior approval of a new product to FHFA before offering a new product to the market.
</P>
<P>(1) An Enterprise may submit a request for prior approval of a new product if the Director determines that a new activity is a new product under § 1253.5(d) or, following consultation with FHFA, if the Director authorizes the Enterprise to submit such a request without first submitting a notice of new activity. An Enterprise must submit a request for prior approval of a new product to FHFA before offering a new product to the market.
</P>
<P>(2) In support of its request for prior approval of a new product, the Enterprise shall submit thorough, complete, and specific information as described under § 1253.9(b).
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA will evaluate the request to determine if the submission contains sufficient information for FHFA to prepare a public notice such that the public will be able to provide fully informed comments on the new product. Once FHFA makes the determination that the submission is complete, FHFA will notify the Enterprise that the submission is “received” for purposes of 12 U.S.C. 4541(c)(2).
</P>
<P>(b) Following FHFA's determination that a submission is complete, FHFA will publish a public notice soliciting comments on the new product on FHFA's website and in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> without delay.
</P>
<P>(1) The public notice will describe the new product and will include such information from the request for prior approval of a new product as necessary to provide the public with sufficient notice and opportunity to comment on the new product. The public notice will provide instructions for the submission of public comments.
</P>
<P>(2) The public will have 30 days from the date that the public notice is published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> to provide comments on the new product.
</P>
<P>(3) The Director will consider all public comments received by the closing date of the comment period.
</P>
<P>(c) No later than 30 days after the end of the public comment period, the Director will provide the Enterprise with a written determination on whether it may proceed with the new product. The written determination will specify the grounds for the Director's determination.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may approve the new product if the Director determines that the new product:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of Fannie Mae, is authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1717(b)(2), (3), (4), or (5) or 12 U.S.C. 1719; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of Freddie Mac, is authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1454(a)(1), (4), or (5); and
</P>
<P>(3) Is in the public interest; and
</P>
<P>(4) Is consistent with the safety and soundness of the Enterprise or the mortgage finance system.
</P>
<P>(e) The Director may consider the factors provided in § 1253.4(b) when determining whether a new product is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(f) The Director may establish terms, conditions, or limitations on the Enterprise's offering of the new product with which the Enterprise must comply in order to offer the new product.
</P>
<P>(g) If the Director disapproves the new product, the Enterprise may not offer the new product.
</P>
<P>(h) If the Director does not make a determination within 30 days after the end of the public comment period, the Enterprise may offer the new product. The absence of such a determination within 30 days does not limit or restrict the Director's safety and soundness authority or the Director's authority to review the new product to confirm that the product is consistent with the Enterprise's authorizing statute.
</P>
<P>(i) The Director may request any information in addition to that supplied in the completed request for prior approval of a new product if, as a result of public comment or otherwise in the course of considering the request, the Director believes that the information is necessary for the Director's decision. The Director may disapprove a new product if the Director does not receive the information requested from the Enterprise in sufficient time to permit adequate evaluation of the information within the time periods set forth in this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.7   Temporary approval of a new product.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Director may approve a new product without first seeking public comment as described in § 1253.6 if:
</P>
<P>(1) In addition to the information required by § 1253.9(b), the Enterprise submits a specific request for temporary approval that describes the exigent circumstances that make the delay associated with a 30-day public comment period contrary to the public interest and the Director determines that exigent circumstances exist and that delay associated with first seeking public comment would be contrary to the public interest; or
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding the absence of a request by the Enterprise for temporary approval, the Director determines on the Director's own initiative that there are exigent circumstances that make the delay associated with first seeking public comment contrary to the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may impose terms, conditions, or limitations on the temporary approval to ensure that the new product offering is consistent with the factors in § 1253.6(d).
</P>
<P>(c) If the Director grants temporary approval, the Director will notify the Enterprise in writing of the Director's decision and include the period for which it is effective and any terms, conditions or limitations. Upon granting of temporary approval, FHFA will also publish the request for public comment to begin the process for permanent approval in accordance with § 1253.6.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Director denies a request for temporary approval, the Director will notify the Enterprise in writing of the Director's decision and will evaluate the new product in accordance with this section.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.8   Substantially similar activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Enterprise shall notify FHFA of its intent to commence an activity that is substantially similar to any of the following activities at least 15 days prior to offering the activity:
</P>
<P>(1) The automated loan underwriting system of an Enterprise that was in existence as of July 30, 2008, including any enhancement, alteration, or modification to the technology, operating system, or software to operate the automated loan underwriting system;
</P>
<P>(2) Any enhancement, alteration, or modification to mortgage terms and conditions or underwriting criteria relating to mortgages that are purchased or guaranteed by an Enterprise, provided that such activity does not alter the underlying transaction so as to include services or financing, other than residential mortgage financing; or
</P>
<P>(3) A new product that the Director has approved for either Enterprise under § 1253.6(a) through (f) or § 1253.7 or a new product that is otherwise available to either Enterprise under § 1253.6(h).
</P>
<P>(b) The Director may determine that an activity is substantially similar to an activity described in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section, if the activity is:
</P>
<P>(1) A technology system that applies mortgage terms and conditions or underwriting criteria to residential mortgages that are purchased or guaranteed by an Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(2) An enhancement, alteration, or modification to the technology, operating system, or software to operate a technology system described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director may determine that an activity is substantially similar to an activity described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, if the activity:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires the same or a similar resource, type of data, policy, process, and infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(2) Entails the same or similar levels of credit risk, market risk, and operational risk to the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(3) Involves the same or a similar category of borrower, investor, counterparty, and collateral.
</P>
<P>(d) The notification is not required to be a notice of new activity. The notification shall include the name and a complete and specific description of the activity, as well as an explanation of why the Enterprise believes the activity qualifies as a substantially similar activity under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) Public notice and comment is not required in connection with offering substantially similar activities.
</P>
<P>(f) If the Director determines an activity is not a substantially similar activity, the Enterprise must submit a notice of new activity under § 1253.5 or a request for prior approval of a new product under § 1253.6 and may not proceed or continue with the activity except pursuant to the requirements in this part.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.9   New activity and new product submission requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A notice of new activity must provide the following items of information and appropriate supporting documentation. The corresponding paragraph number should be listed with the relevant information provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the name of the new activity and a complete and specific description of the new activity that identifies under which paragraph(s) of § 1253.3(a) the activity is described.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the business rationale, the intended market, the business line, and what products are currently being offered or are proposed to be offered under such business line. Also, include a description of any market research performed relating to the new activity.
</P>
<P>(3) State the anticipated commencement date for the new activity. Provide analysis, including assumptions, development expenses, any applicable fees, expectations for the impact of and projections for the quarterly size (for example, in terms of cost, personnel, volume of activity, or risk metrics) of the new activity for at least the first 12 months of deployment, as well as the impact of the new activity on the risk profile of the Enterprise and the key controls for the following risks: credit, market, and operational.
</P>
<P>(4) If the new activity is a pilot, include the parameters, such as duration, volume of activity, and performance. If the new activity is the result of a pilot, include an analysis on the effectiveness of the pilot that describes the pilot objectives and success criteria; volume of activity; performance; risk metrics and controls; and the modifications made for a broader offering and rationale.
</P>
<P>(5) Provide a fair housing and fair lending self-evaluation of the new activity. The self-evaluation should, at a minimum, include data on the predicted impact of the new activity for protected class categories; a summary of reasonable alternatives considered; if disparities are identified, the business justification for the new activity; and the extent to which the activity furthers fair housing and fair lending.
</P>
<P>(b) A request for prior approval of a new product must provide the following items of information with appropriate supporting documentation. The corresponding paragraph number should be listed with the relevant information provided:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide the information required for a notice of new activity as identified in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Describe the business requirements for the new product including technology requirements. Describe the Enterprise business units involved in conducting the new product, including any affiliation or subsidiary relationships, any third-party relationships, and the roles of each. Describe the reporting lines and planned oversight of the new product.
</P>
<P>(3) Provide a legal analysis as to whether the new product is—
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of Fannie Mae, authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1717(b)(2), (3), (4), or (5) or 12 U.S.C. 1719; or
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of Freddie Mac, authorized under 12 U.S.C. 1454(a)(1), (4), or (5).
</P>
<P>(4) Provide copies of all notice and application documents, including any application for patents or trademarks, the Enterprise has submitted to other Federal, State or local government regulators relating to the new product.
</P>
<P>(5) Describe the impact of the new product on the public interest and provide information to address the factors listed in § 1253.4(b).
</P>
<P>(6) Describe how the new product is consistent with the safety and soundness of the Enterprise or the mortgage finance system.
</P>
<P>(7) Explain any accounting treatment proposed for the new product.
</P>
<P>(c) FHFA may require an Enterprise to submit such further information as the Director deems necessary to make a determination on a notice of new activity or a request for prior approval of a new product, at the time of the original submission or any time thereafter.
</P>
<P>(d) An Enterprise shall certify, through an executive officer, that a notice of new activity or a request for prior approval of a new product and any supporting material submitted to FHFA pursuant to this part contain no material misrepresentations or omissions. FHFA may review and verify any information filed in connection with a notice of new activity or request for prior approval of a new product.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.10   Public disclosure.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to information disclosed in the public notice on a new product, FHFA will make public information related to the Director's determinations on new activity and new product submissions within a reasonable time period after the end of the calendar year during which either Enterprise filed such a submission. Any disclosure under this paragraph will omit any confidential and proprietary information not previously disclosed as part of a public notice on a new product.




</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1253.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.40.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1253.11   Preservation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Director's exercise of the Director's authority pursuant to the prior approval authority for products under 12 U.S.C. 4541, and this regulation, in no way restricts:
</P>
<P>(a) The safety and soundness authority of the Director over all new and existing products or activities; or
</P>
<P>(b) The authority of the Director to review all new and existing products or activities to determine that such products or activities are consistent with the authorizing statute of an Enterprise.






</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1254" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1254—VALIDATION AND APPROVAL OF CREDIT SCORE MODELS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4511, 4513, 4526 and Sec. 310, Pub. L. 115-174, 132 Stat. 1296.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 41904, Aug. 16, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1254.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The purpose of this part is to set forth standards and criteria for the process an Enterprise must establish to validate and approve any credit score model that produces any credit score that the Enterprise requires in its mortgage purchase procedures and systems.
</P>
<P>(b) The validation and approval process for a credit score model includes the following phases: Solicitation of Applications, Submission of Applications and Initial Review, Credit Score Assessment, and Enterprise Business Assessment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions apply. Definitions of other terms may be found in 12 CFR part 1201, General Definitions Applying to All Federal Housing Finance Agency Regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Credit score</I> means a numerical value or a categorization created by a third party derived from a statistical tool or modeling system used by a person who makes or arranges a loan to predict the likelihood of certain credit behaviors, including default.
</P>
<P><I>Credit score model</I> means a statistical tool or algorithm created by a third party used to produce a numerical value or categorization to predict the likelihood of certain credit behaviors.
</P>
<P><I>Credit score model developer</I> means any person with ownership rights in the intellectual property of a credit score model.
</P>
<P><I>Days</I> means calendar days.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a residential mortgage as that term is defined at 12 U.S.C. 1451(h).
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means an individual, sole proprietor, partnership, corporation, unincorporated association, trust, joint venture, pool, syndicate, organization, or other legal entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.3   Computation of time.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, each time period begins on the day after the relevant event occurs <I>(e.g.,</I> the day after a submission is made) and continues through the last day of the relevant period. When the last day is a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the period runs until the end of the next business day.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.4   Requirements for use of a credit score.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enterprise use of a credit score.</I> An Enterprise is not required to use a credit score for any business purpose. However, if an Enterprise conditions its purchase of a mortgage on the provision of a credit score for the borrower:
</P>
<P>(1) The credit score must be derived from a credit score model that has been approved by the Enterprise in accordance with this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Enterprise must provide for the use of the credit score by any automated underwriting system that uses a credit score and any other procedures and systems used by the Enterprise that use a credit score for mortgage purchases.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Replacement of credit score model.</I> An Enterprise may replace any credit score model then in use after a new credit score model has been approved in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No right to continuing use.</I> Enterprise use of a particular credit score model does not create any right to or expectation of continuing, future, or permanent use of that credit score model by an Enterprise.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.5   Solicitation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Required solicitations.</I> FHFA periodically will require the Enterprises to solicit applications from credit score model developers. FHFA will determine whether a solicitation should be initiated. FHFA will establish the solicitation requirement by notice to the Enterprises, which will include:
</P>
<P>(1) The requirement to submit a Credit Score Solicitation to FHFA for review;
</P>
<P>(2) A deadline for submission of the Credit Score Solicitation; and
</P>
<P>(3) A timeframe for the solicitation period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit Score Solicitation.</I> In connection with each required solicitation, an Enterprise must submit to FHFA a Credit Score Solicitation including:
</P>
<P>(1) The opening and closing dates of the solicitation time period during which the Enterprise will accept applications from credit score model developers;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the information that must be submitted with an application;
</P>
<P>(3) A description of the process by which the Enterprise will obtain data for the assessment of the credit score model;
</P>
<P>(4) A description of the process for the Credit Score Assessment and the Enterprise Business Assessment; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other requirements as determined by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review by FHFA.</I> Within 45 days of an Enterprise submission of its Credit Score Solicitation to FHFA, FHFA will either approve or disapprove the Enterprise's Credit Score Solicitation. FHFA may extend the time period for its review as needed. FHFA may impose such terms, conditions, or limitations on the approval of a Credit Score Solicitation as FHFA determines to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Publication.</I> Upon approval by FHFA, the Enterprise must publish the Credit Score Solicitation on its website for at least 90 days prior to the start of the solicitation time period.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Initial solicitation.</I> Each Enterprise must submit its initial Credit Score Solicitation to FHFA within 60 days of the effective date of this regulation. The initial solicitation time period will begin on a date determined by FHFA and will extend for 120 days.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.6   Submission and initial review of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application requirements.</I> Each application submitted in response to a Credit Score Solicitation must meet the requirements set forth in the Credit Score Solicitation to which it responds. Each application must include the following elements, and any additional requirements that may be set forth in the Credit Score Solicitation:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Application fee.</I> Each application must include an application fee established by the Enterprise. An Enterprise may address conditions for refunding a portion of a fee in the Credit Score Solicitation. The application fee is intended to cover the direct costs to the Enterprise of conducting the Credit Score Assessment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fair lending certification and compliance.</I> Each application must address compliance of the credit score model and credit scores produced by it with federal fair lending requirements, including information on any fair lending testing and evaluation of the model conducted. Each application must include a certification that no characteristic that is based directly on or is highly correlated solely with a classification prohibited under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691(a)(1)), the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3605(a)), or the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4545(1)) was used in the development of the credit score model or is used as a factor in the credit score model to produce credit scores.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of model by industry.</I> Each application must demonstrate use of the credit score by creditors to make a decision whether to extend credit to a prospective borrower. An Enterprise may address criteria for such demonstration in the Credit Score Solicitation. An Enterprise may permit such demonstration of use to include submission of testimonials by creditors (mortgage or non-mortgage) who use the applicant's credit score when making a determination to approve the extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Qualification of credit score model developer.</I> Each application must include any information that an Enterprise may require to evaluate the credit score model developer (<I>i.e.,</I> relevant experience and financial capacity). Such information must include a detailed description of the credit score model developer's:
</P>
<P>(i) Corporate structure, including any business relationship to any other person through any degree of common ownership or control;
</P>
<P>(ii) Governance structure; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Past financial performance.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other requirements.</I> Each application must include any other information an Enterprise may require.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Historical consumer credit data.</I> An Enterprise may obtain any historical consumer credit data necessary for the Enterprise to test a credit score model's historical record of measuring and predicting default rates and other credit behaviors. An Enterprise may assess the applicant for any costs associated with obtaining or receiving such data unless such costs were included in the up-front application fee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Acceptance of applications.</I> Each application submitted in response to a Credit Score Solicitation within the solicitation time period must be reviewed for acceptance by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of status.</I> Within 60 days of an applicant's submission, the Enterprise must provide the applicant with an Application Status Notice, which will indicate whether the application requires additional information to be provided by the applicant. An applicant may submit additional information through the end of the solicitation period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Complete application.</I> Completeness of an application will be determined by the Enterprise. An application is complete when an Enterprise determines that required information has been received by the Enterprise from the applicant and from any third party. Information from a third party for a specific application may be received by the Enterprise after the solicitation period closes. The Enterprise must notify the applicant upon determining that the application is complete with a Complete Application Notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.7   Credit Score Assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for Credit Score Assessment.</I> An Enterprise will undertake a Credit Score Assessment of each application that the Enterprise determines to be complete. An Enterprise must determine whether an application passes the Credit Score Assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Testing for Credit Score Assessment.</I> An Enterprise must conduct statistical tests for accuracy and reliability that use one or more industry standard statistical tests for demonstrating divergence among borrowers' propensity to repay using the industry standard definition of default, applied to mortgages purchased by an Enterprise (including subgroups), as identified by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Criteria for Credit Score Assessment.</I> The Credit Score Assessment is based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Testing for accuracy.</I> A credit score model is accurate if it produces a credit score that appropriately reflects a borrower's propensity to repay a mortgage loan in accordance with its terms, permitting a credit score user to rank order the risk that the borrower will not repay the obligation in accordance with its terms relative to other borrowers.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Initial Credit Score Assessment.</I> For the Credit Score Assessment of applications submitted in response to the initial solicitation under § 1254.5(e), a credit score model meets the test for accuracy if it produces credit scores that meet a benchmark established by the Enterprise in the initial Credit Score Solicitation, as demonstrated by appropriate testing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subsequent Credit Score Assessments.</I> For the Credit Score Assessment of applications submitted in response to any later solicitation under this part, a credit score model meets the test for accuracy if it produces credit scores that are more accurate than the credit scores produced by any credit score model that is required by the Enterprise at the time the test is conducted, as demonstrated by appropriate testing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Testing for reliability.</I> A credit score model is reliable if it produces credit scores that maintain accuracy through the economic cycle. The Credit Score Assessment must evaluate whether a new credit score model produces credit scores that are at least as reliable as the credit scores produced by any credit score model that is required by the Enterprise at the time the test is conducted, as demonstrated by appropriate testing. Testing for reliability must demonstrate accuracy at a minimum of two points in the economic cycle when applied to mortgages purchased by an Enterprise (including subgroups), as identified by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Testing for integrity.</I> A credit score model has integrity if, when producing a credit score, it uses relevant data that reasonably encompasses the borrower's credit history and financial performance. The Credit Score Assessment must evaluate whether a credit score model applicant has demonstrated that the model has integrity, based on appropriate testing or requirements identified by the Enterprise (which may address, for example, the level of aggregation of data or whether observable data has been omitted or discounted when producing a credit score).
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other requirements.</I> An Enterprise may establish requirements for the Credit Score Assessment in addition to the criteria established by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Third-party testing.</I> Testing required for the Credit Score Assessment may be conducted by:
</P>
<P>(1) An Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(2) An independent third party selected or approved by an Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Timing of Credit Score Assessment.</I> (1) An Enterprise must notify the applicant when the Enterprise begins the Credit Score Assessment. The Credit Score Assessment will begin no earlier than the close of the solicitation time period, unless FHFA has determined that an Enterprise should begin a Credit Score Assessment sooner. The Credit Score Assessment will extend for 180 days. FHFA may authorize not more than two extensions of time for the Credit Score Assessment, which shall not exceed 30 days each, upon a written request and showing of good cause by the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) An Enterprise must provide notice to the applicant within 30 days of a determination that the application has passed the Credit Score Assessment.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.8   Enterprise Business Assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement for Enterprise Business Assessment.</I> An Enterprise will undertake an Enterprise Business Assessment of each application that the Enterprise determines to have passed the Credit Score Assessment. An Enterprise must determine whether an application passes the Enterprise Business Assessment.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Criteria for Enterprise Business Assessment.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment is based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Accuracy; reliability.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate whether a new credit score model produces credit scores that are more accurate than and at least as reliable as credit scores produced by any credit score model currently in use by the Enterprise. This evaluation must consider credit scores as used by the Enterprise within its systems or processes that use a credit score for mortgage purchases.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Fair lending assessment.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate the fair lending risk and fair lending impact of the credit score model in accordance with standards and requirements related to the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (15 U.S.C. 1691(a)(1)), the Fair Housing Act (42 U.S.C. 3605(a)), and the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4545(1)) (including identification of potential impact, comparison of the new credit score model with any credit score model currently in use, and consideration of potential methods of using the new credit score model). This evaluation must consider credit scores as used by the Enterprise within its systems or processes that use a credit score for mortgage purchases. The fair lending assessment must also consider any impact on access to credit related to the use of a particular credit score model.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Impact on Enterprise operations and risk management, and impact on industry.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate the impact using the credit score model would have on Enterprise operations (including any impact on purchase eligibility criteria and loan pricing) and risk management (including counterparty risk management) in accordance with standards and requirements related to prudential management and operations and governance set forth at parts 1236 and 1239 of this chapter. This evaluation must consider whether the benefits of using credit scores produced by that model can reasonably be expected to exceed the adoption and ongoing costs of using such credit scores, considering projected benefits and costs to the Enterprises. The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate the impact of using the credit score model on industry operations and mortgage market liquidity, including costs associated with implementation of a newly approved credit score. This evaluation must consider whether the benefits of using credit scores produced by that model can reasonably be expected to exceed the adoption and ongoing costs of using such credit scores, considering projected benefits and costs to the Enterprises and borrowers, including market liquidity and cost and availability of credit.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Competitive effects.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate whether using the credit score model could have an impact on competition in the industry. This evaluation must consider whether use of a credit score model could have an impact on competition due to any ownership or other business relationship between the credit score model developer and any other institution.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Third-Party Provider Review.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must evaluate the credit score model developer under the Enterprise standards for approval of third-party providers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other requirements.</I> An Enterprise may establish requirements for the Enterprise Business Assessment in addition to the criteria established by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of Enterprise Business Assessment.</I> The Enterprise Business Assessment must be completed within 240 days.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FHFA Evaluation.</I> FHFA will conduct an independent analysis of the potential impacts of any change to an Enterprise's credit score model. FHFA will initiate its analysis no later than the beginning of the Enterprise Business Assessment. Based on its analysis, FHFA may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require an Enterprise to undertake additional analysis, monitoring, or reporting to further the purposes of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Require an Enterprise to permit the use of a single credit score model or multiple credit score models; or
</P>
<P>(3) Require any other change to an Enterprise program, policy, or practice related to the Enterprise's use of credit scores.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.9   Determinations on applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Enterprise determinations subject to prior review and approval by FHFA.</I> An Enterprise must submit to FHFA a proposed determination of approval or disapproval for each application. Within 45 days of an Enterprise submission, FHFA must approve or disapprove the Enterprise's proposed determination. FHFA may extend the time period for its review as needed. FHFA may impose such terms, conditions, or limitations on the approval or disapproval of the Enterprise's proposed determination as FHFA determines to be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval of a credit score model.</I> If an Enterprise approves an application for a credit score model following FHFA review of its proposed determination, the Enterprise must implement the credit score model in its mortgage purchase systems that use a credit score for mortgage purchases. The Enterprise must provide written notice to the applicant and the public within 30 days after the FHFA decision on the proposed determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disapproval of a credit score model.</I> If an Enterprise disapproves an application for a credit score model following FHFA review of its proposed determination, the Enterprise must provide written notice to the applicant within 30 days after the FHFA decision on the proposed determination. An application may be disapproved under this section at any time during the validation and approval process based on any of the criteria identified in the Credit Score Solicitation. The notice to the applicant must provide a description of the reasons for disapproval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.10   Withdrawal of application.</HEAD>
<P>At any time during the validation and approval process, an applicant may withdraw its application by notifying an Enterprise. The Enterprise may, in its sole discretion, determine whether to return any portion of the application fee paid by the applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1254.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.3.41.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1254.11   Pilot programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Pilots permitted; duration of pilots.</I> An Enterprise may undertake pilot programs to evaluate credit score models. If a pilot program involves a credit score model not in current use by an Enterprise, the credit score model is not required to be approved under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prior notice to FHFA.</I> Before commencing a pilot program, an Enterprise must submit the proposed pilot program to FHFA for review and approval. The Enterprise's submission to FHFA must include a complete and specific description of the pilot program, including its purpose, duration, and scope. FHFA may impose such terms, conditions, or limitations on the pilot program as FHFA determines to be appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER D—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANKS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1260" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1260—SHARING OF INFORMATION AMONG FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1440a, 4511 and 4513.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 73413, Dec. 6, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1260.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1260.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Non-public information</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1214.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Proprietary information</I> means trade secrets, or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information that, if shared among the Banks and the Office of Finance as provided under this part, would likely cause substantial competitive harm to the Bank to which the information pertains.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1260.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1260.2   Bank information to be shared.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In order to enable each Bank to evaluate the financial condition of any one or more of the other Banks and the Bank System, FHFA shall distribute to each Bank and to the Office of Finance, or shall require each Bank to distribute directly to each other Bank and the Office of Finance, such categories of financial and supervisory information regarding each Bank and the Bank system as it determines to be appropriate, subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> FHFA shall prepare and issue to each Bank and the Office of Finance a notice setting forth the categories of information to be distributed, which it shall review from time to time and revise as necessary to ensure that the information distributed remains useful to the Banks in evaluating the financial strength of the other Banks and the Bank System. Prior to issuing a new or revised notice, FHFA shall notify each Bank and the Office of Finance of its proposed contents and allow them a reasonable period within which to comment.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Director's orders.</I> The Director or his designee may issue such orders as are necessary to effect the distribution of the information set forth in the notice issued under paragraph (b) of this section and to carry out the provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1260.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1260.3   Requests to withhold proprietary information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Bank may request in writing that FHFA withhold from distribution, or determine that the Bank may withhold from distribution, particular information relating to the Bank that may otherwise be subject to distribution under § 1260.2 on the basis that it is proprietary information and the public interest requires that it not be shared. Any such request shall identify the particular information the Bank believes should not be distributed and provide support for the assertions that it is proprietary information and that withholding it from the other Banks and the Office of Finance is necessary to protect the public interest.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of requests.</I> (1) <I>General.</I> Unless otherwise specified as described in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, the period within which a Bank may make a request to withhold proprietary information under paragraph (a) of this section shall be as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For information that a Bank submits to FHFA, the request shall be delivered to FHFA no later than the time at which the Bank submits the subject information to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(ii) For information that FHFA creates (not including compilations of data submitted by the Banks), prior to distributing any information relating to a particular Bank, FHFA shall provide that Bank with a copy of the information to be distributed, after which the Bank shall have ten (10) business days within which to deliver the request to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(iii) For information that a Bank is required to distribute directly to the other Banks and the Office of Finance, the request shall be delivered to FHFA no later than ten (10) business days prior to the date on which the Bank would otherwise be required to distribute the information.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>As otherwise specified by FHFA.</I> Any notice issued by FHFA under § 1260.2(b) may establish requirements for the timing of requests to withhold proprietary information that are different from those specified under paragraph (b)(1) of this section for any category of information to be distributed thereunder. In establishing such requirements, FHFA shall give due regard to the volume and complexity of the information to be reviewed, the Bank's existing familiarity with the information, the frequency of submission or distribution of the information, the likelihood that the information will contain proprietary information, and the effect that any delay in the distribution of the information would have on the fulfillment of the purposes of section 20A(a) of the Bank Act.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Determination and notice by FHFA.</I> After receiving a written request that meets the requirements of paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Director or his designee shall promptly determine whether FHFA will, or the Bank may, withhold any information from distribution pursuant to the request, which determination shall be final. FHFA shall promptly notify the affected Bank of that determination and shall not distribute any information that is the subject of the request until it has provided the required notice to the Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1260.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1260.4   Timing and form of information distribution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Timing of distribution by FHFA.</I> FHFA may distribute information as provided in the notice issued under § 1260.2(b) after the expiration of the applicable time period specified in § 1260.3(b) unless, within that time period, the affected Bank has filed with FHFA a written request to withhold particular proprietary information that meets the requirements of § 1260.3(a). When a Bank has filed such a request, FHFA shall not distribute the information that is the subject of the request until the Director or his designee has made the determination and provided the notice required by § 1260.3(c) and shall distribute or withhold the subject information in conformity with that determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Timing of distribution by Banks.</I> A Bank that is required to distribute information directly to the other Banks and the Office of Finance shall distribute that information at the time specified in the notice issued under § 1260.2(b) unless, within the time period specified in § 1260.3(b)(1)(iii), the Bank has submitted to FHFA a request to withhold particular proprietary information that meets the requirements of § 1260.3(a). If the Bank has filed such a request, it need not distribute the information that is the subject of the request until the Director or his designee has made the determination and provided the notice required by § 1260.3(c). Thereafter, the Bank shall distribute or withhold the subject information in conformity with that determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form.</I> FHFA may distribute information, or require a Bank to distribute information, under this part in either tangible or electronic form, as it deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1260.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.42.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1260.5   Control and disclosure of shared information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>No waiver of privilege.</I> The release of information under this part does not constitute a waiver by FHFA of any privilege, or of its right to control, supervise or impose limitations on the subsequent use and disclosure of any information concerning a Bank. To the extent that any information provided to a Bank or the Office of Finance pursuant to this part qualifies as non-public information under part 1214 of this chapter, that information shall continue to qualify as such and shall continue to be subject to the restrictions on disclosure set forth in part 1214, provided that a Bank shall not be deemed to have violated any provision of § 1214.3 of this chapter by disclosing in its filings with the SEC non-public information about another Bank that was obtained pursuant to this part if the disclosure is limited to a recital of the relevant factual content of the underlying information and the Bank has provided the notice required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosures under the Federal securities laws.</I> If a Bank determines in good faith that it is required by any applicable provision of the 1934 Act or of 17 CFR chapter II to disclose non-public information relating to another Bank that it has received pursuant to this part, it shall provide to FHFA and to the Bank to which the information pertains prior written notice of such determination and of the content and anticipated timing of the disclosure, which notice shall be provided as far in advance of the anticipated disclosure as is feasible under the circumstances.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Safeguarding of information.</I> A Bank may use non-public information distributed pursuant to this part only for the purposes described in section 20A(a) of the Bank Act. Except as otherwise provided in this part, neither the Office of Finance, nor any Bank, nor any officer, director or employee thereof, may disclose or permit the use or disclosure of any non-public information regarding another Bank received pursuant to this part in any manner or for any purpose. Each Bank and the Office of Finance shall implement policies and procedures to prevent the improper disclosure of such information and to limit the access of its personnel to such information, which policies and procedures shall be no less stringent than those that apply to the entity's own confidential and supervisory information.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Information regarding the Office of Finance.</I> A Bank president that receives any information regarding the Office of Finance in his or her capacity as a member of the board of directors of the Office of Finance may share the information with the board of directors of the Bank at which he or she is employed, as well as with the appropriate officers and employees of the Bank, subject to the limitations of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1261" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1261—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK DIRECTORS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 1427, 1432, 4511 and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 17039, May 5, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1261.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.1   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Federal Home Loan Bank Boards of Directors: Eligibility and Elections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this Subpart B:
</P>
<P><I>Advisory Council</I> means the Advisory Council each Bank is required to establish pursuant to section 10(j)(11) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)), and part 1291 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Bona fide resident</I> of a Bank district means an individual who:
</P>
<P>(1) Maintains a principal residence in the Bank district; or
</P>
<P>(2) If serving as an independent director, owns or leases in his or her own name a residence in the Bank district and is employed in a voting state in the Bank district.
</P>
<P><I>FHFA ID number</I> means the number assigned to a member by FHFA and used by FHFA and the Banks to identify a particular member.
</P>
<P><I>Independent directorship</I> means a directorship, as defined by section 7(a)(4)(A) of the Bank Act, 12 U.S.C. 1427(a)(4)(A), that is filled by a plurality vote of the members at large by an individual having the qualifications specified by section 7(a)(3)(B)(i) or (ii), 12 U.S.C. 1427(a)(3)(B)(i) or (ii).
</P>
<P><I>Member directorship</I> means a directorship, as defined by section 7(a)(4)(A) of the Bank Act, 12 U.S.C. 1427(a)(4)(A), that is filled by a plurality vote of the members located in a particular State by an individual who is an officer or director of a member located in that State.
</P>
<P><I>Method of equal proportions</I> means the mathematical formula used by FHFA to allocate member directorships among the States in a Bank's district based on the relative amounts of Bank stock required to be held as of the record date by members located in each State.
</P>
<P><I>Public interest director</I> means an individual serving in a public interest directorship.
</P>
<P><I>Public interest directorship</I> means an independent directorship filled by an individual with more than four years of experience representing consumer or community interests in banking services, credit needs, housing or consumer financial protections.
</P>
<P><I>Record date</I> means December 31 of the calendar year immediately preceding the election year.
</P>
<P><I>Voting State</I> means the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, or the State of the United States in which a member's principal place of business, as determined in accordance with 12 CFR part 1263, or any successor provision, is located as of the record date. The voting State of a member with a principal place of business located in the U.S. Virgin Islands as of the record date is Puerto Rico, and the voting State of a member with a principal place of business located in American Samoa, Guam, or the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Islands as of the record date is Hawaii.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51460, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 17039, 17040, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.3   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Board size and composition.</I> Annually, the FHFA Director will determine the size of the board of directors for each Bank and will designate at least a majority, but no more than 60 percent, of the directorships as member directorships and the remainder as independent directorships. Annually, the board of directors of each Bank shall determine how many, if any, of the independent directorships with terms beginning the following January 1 shall be public interest directorships, ensuring that at all times the Bank will have at least two public interest independent directorships.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Term of directorships.</I> The term of office of each directorship shall be four years, except as adjusted pursuant to section 7(d) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C 1427(d)) to achieve a staggered board, and shall commence on January 1 of the calendar year so designated by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual elections.</I> Each Bank annually shall conduct an election the purpose of which is to fill all directorships designated by FHFA as commencing on January 1 of the calendar year immediately following the year in which such election is commenced. Subject to the provisions of the Bank Act and in accordance with the requirements of this subpart, the disinterested members of the board of directors of each Bank, or a committee of disinterested directors, shall administer and conduct the annual election of directors. In so doing, the disinterested directors may use Bank staff or independent contractors to perform ministerial and administrative functions concerning the elections process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Location of members.</I> In accordance with section 7(c) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C 1427(c)), for purposes of the election of member directors, a member is deemed to be located in its voting state, unless otherwise designated by the Director.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Dates.</I> If any date specified in this subpart for action by a Bank, or specified by a Bank pursuant to this subpart, falls on a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday, the relevant time period is deemed to be extended to the next calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or Federal holiday. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51460, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated at 75 FR 17039, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.4   Designation of member directorships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital stock reports.</I> (1) On or before April 10 of each year, each Bank shall deliver to FHFA a capital stock report that indicates, as of the record date, the number of members located in each voting State in the Bank's district, the number of shares of Bank stock that each member (identified by its FHFA ID number) was required to hold, and the number of shares of Bank stock that all members located in each voting State were required to hold. If a Bank has issued more than one class of stock, it shall report the total shares of stock of all classes required to be held by the members. The Bank shall certify to FHFA that, to the best of its knowledge, the information provided in the capital stock report is accurate and complete, and that it has notified each member of its minimum capital stock holding requirement as of the record date.
</P>
<P>(2) The number of shares of Bank stock that any member was required to hold as of the record date shall be determined in accordance with the minimum investment established by the capital plan for that Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Designation of member directorships.</I> Using the method of equal proportions, the Director annually will conduct a designation of member directorships for each Bank based on the number of shares of Bank stock required to be held by the members in each State as of the record date. If a Bank has issued more than one class of stock, the Director will designate the directorships for each State in that Bank district based on the combined number of shares required to be held by the members in that State. For purposes of conducting the designation, the number of shares of Bank stock required to be held by members as of that date shall be determined in accordance with the minimum investment established by the capital plan for that Bank. In all cases, the Director will designate the directorships by using the information provided by each Bank in its capital stock report required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Allocation of directorships.</I> The member directorships designated by the Director will be allocated among the States by the Director in accordance with section 7(b) and (c) of the Bank Act.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification.</I> On or before June 1 of each year, FHFA will notify each Bank in writing of the total number of directorships established for the Bank and the number of member directorships designated as representing the members in each voting state in the Bank district.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Change of state.</I> If the annual designation of member directorships results in an existing directorship being redesignated as representing members in a different State, that directorship shall be deemed to terminate in the previous State as of December 31 of that year, and a new directorship to begin in the succeeding State as of January 1 of the next year. The new directorship shall be filled by vote of the members in the succeeding State and, in order to maintain the staggered terms of directorships, shall be adjusted to a term equal to the remaining term of the previous directorship if it had not been redesignated to another State. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51460, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 17039, 17040, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.5   Director eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements for member directors.</I> Each member director, and each nominee to a member directorship, shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) A citizen of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) An officer or director of a member that is located in the district in which the Bank is located and that meets all minimum capital requirements established by its appropriate Federal banking agency or appropriate State regulator. In the case of a director elected by the members, the institution of which the director is an officer or director must have been a member as of the record date. In the case of a director elected by a Bank's board of directors to fill a vacancy, the institution of which the director is an officer or director must be a member at the time the board acts.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State designation for member directors.</I> Each member director, and each nominee to a member directorship, shall be an officer or director of a member that is located in the State to which the Director has allocated such directorship under § 1261.4(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligibility requirements for independent directors.</I> Each independent director, and each nominee to an independent directorship, shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) A citizen of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) A bona fide resident of the district in which the Bank is located.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Restrictions.</I> (1) A nominee is not eligible if he or she:
</P>
<P>(i) Is an incumbent director, unless:
</P>
<P>(A) The incumbent director's term of office would expire before the new term of office would begin; and
</P>
<P>(B) The new term of office would not be barred by the term limit provision of section 7(d) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1427(d)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Is a former director whose service would be barred by the term limit provision of section 7(d) of the Bank Act.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of applying the term limit provision of section 7(d) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1427(d)):
</P>
<P>(i) A term of office that is adjusted after July 30, 2008 to a period of fewer than four years shall not be deemed to be a full term;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any member director's election and service to a directorship with a three year term of office prior to July 30, 2008 shall be deemed to be a full term;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any three-year term of office that ends immediately before a term of office that is adjusted after July 30, 2008 to a period of fewer than four years, and any term of office commencing immediately following such adjusted term of office, shall constitute consecutive full terms of office; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Any period of time served by a director who has been elected by the board of directors to fill a vacancy shall not be deemed to constitute a full term.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loss of eligibility.</I> A director shall become ineligible to remain in office if, during his or her term of office, the directorship to which he or she has been elected is eliminated. The incumbent director shall become ineligible after the close of business on December 31 of the year in which the directorship is eliminated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51461, Oct. 7, 2009; 75 FR 17039, 17040, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.6   Determination of member votes.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Each Bank shall determine, in accordance with this section, the number of votes that each member of the Bank may cast for each directorship that is to be filled by the vote of the members. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Number of votes.</I> For each member directorship and each independent directorship that is to be filled in an election, each member shall be entitled to cast one vote for each share of Bank stock that the member was required to hold as of the record date. Notwithstanding the preceding sentence, the number of votes that any member may cast for any one directorship shall not exceed the average number of shares of Bank stock required to be held as of the record date by all members located in the same State as of the record date. If a Bank has issued more than one class of stock, it shall calculate the average number of shares separately for each class of stock, using the total number of members in a State as the denominator, and shall apply those limits separately in determining the maximum number of votes that any member owning that class of stock may cast in the election. The number of shares of Bank stock that a member was required to hold as of the record date shall be determined in accordance with the minimum investment requirement established by the Bank's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Voting preferences.</I> If the board of directors of a Bank includes any voting preferences as part of its approved capital plan, those preferences shall supersede the provisions of paragraph (b) of this section that otherwise would allow a member to cast one vote for each share of Bank stock it was required to hold as of the record date. If a Bank establishes a voting preference for a class of stock, the members with voting rights shall remain subject to the provisions of section 7(b) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1427(b)) that prohibit any member from casting any vote in excess of the average number of shares of stock required to be held by all members in its state. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51461, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 17039, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.7   Nominations for member and independent directorships.</HEAD>
<P>Within a reasonable time in advance of an election, a Bank shall notify each member in its district of the commencement of the election process. Such notice shall include:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Election announcement.</I> 
</P>
<P>(1) The number of member directorships designated for each voting state in the Bank district and the number of independent directorships for the Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) The name of each incumbent Bank director, the name and location of the member at which each member director serves, and the name and location of the organization with which each independent director is affiliated, if any, and the expiration date of each Bank director's term of office;
</P>
<P>(3) A brief statement describing the skills and experience the Bank believes are most likely to add strength to the board of directors, provided that the Bank previously has conducted the annual assessment permitted by § 1261.9 and the Bank has elected to provide the results of the assessment to the members;
</P>
<P>(4) An attachment indicating the name, location, and FHFA ID number of every member in the member's voting state, and the number of votes each such member may cast for each directorship to be filled by such members, as determined in accordance with § 1261.6; and
</P>
<P>(5) If a member directorship is to be filled by members in a State, a nominating certificate for those members.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member directorship nominations.</I> (1) Any member that is entitled to vote in the election may nominate an eligible individual to fill each available member directorship for its voting state by delivering to its Bank, prior to a deadline to be established by the Bank and set forth in the notice required in paragraph (a) of this section, a nominating certificate duly adopted by the member's governing body or by an individual authorized by the member's governing body to act on its behalf.
</P>
<P>(2) The nominating certificate shall include the name of the nominee and the name, location, and FHFA ID number of the member the nominee serves as an officer or director.
</P>
<P>(3) The Bank shall establish a deadline for delivery of nominating certificates, which shall be no earlier than 30 calendar days after the date on which the Bank delivers the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section, and the Bank shall not accept certificates received after that deadline. The Bank shall retain all accepted nominating certificates for at least two years after the date of the election.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Accepting member directorship nominations.</I> Promptly after receipt of any nominating certificate, a Bank shall notify in writing any individual nominated for a member directorship. An individual may accept the nomination only by delivering to the Bank, prior to a deadline established by the Bank and set forth in its notice, an executed director eligibility certification form prescribed by FHFA. A Bank shall allow each nominee at least 30 calendar days after the date the Bank delivered the notice of nomination within which to deliver the executed form. A nominee may decline the nomination by so advising the Bank in writing, or by failing to deliver a properly executed director eligibility certification form prior to the deadline. Each Bank shall retain all information received under this paragraph for at least two years after the date of the election.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Independent directorship nominations.</I> (1) Any individual who seeks to be an independent director of the board of directors of a Bank may deliver to the Bank, on or before the deadline set by the Bank for delivery of nominating certificates, an executed independent director application form prescribed by FHFA that demonstrates that the individual both is eligible and has either of the following qualifications:
</P>
<P>(i) More than four years of experience representing consumer or community interests in banking services, credit needs, housing, or consumer financial protections; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Knowledge of or experience in one or more of the areas set forth in paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Any other interested party may recommend to the Bank that it consider a particular individual as a nominee for an independent directorship, but the Bank shall not nominate any individual unless the individual has delivered to the Bank, on or before the date the Bank has set for delivery of nominating certificates, an executed independent director application form prescribed by FHFA. The application form prescribed by FHFA will provide a means by which an individual can indicate an intent to be considered for a public interest directorship. The board of directors of the Bank may consider any individual for any independent directorship nomination, provided it has determined that the individual is eligible and qualified, but the board shall nominate for a public interest directorship only an individual who indicates on the application form a desire to be considered for a public interest directorship. The board of directors of the Bank shall consult with the Bank's Advisory Council before nominating any individual for any independent directorship. Each Bank shall include in its bylaws the procedures it intends to use for the nomination and election of the independent directors, and shall retain all information received under this paragraph for at least two years after the date of the election.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Bank shall determine the number of public interest directorships to be included among its authorized independent directorships, provided that each Bank shall at all times have at least two such directorships, and shall announce that number to its members in the notice required by paragraph (a) of this section. In submitting nominations to its members, each Bank shall nominate at least as many individuals as there are independent directorships to be filled in that year's election.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Independent director qualifications.</I> (1) Each independent director and each nominee for an independent directorship, other than a public interest directorship, shall have experience in, or knowledge of, one or more of the following areas: auditing and accounting, derivatives, financial management, organizational management, project development, risk management practices, and the law. Before nominating any individual for an independent directorship, other than a public interest directorship, the board of directors of a Bank shall determine that such knowledge or experience of the nominee is commensurate with that needed to oversee a financial institution with a size and complexity that is comparable to that of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) Each public interest independent director and each nominee for a public interest directorship shall have more than four years of experience representing consumer or community interests in banking services, credit needs, housing or consumer financial protection.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Eligibility verification.</I> Using the information provided on member director eligibility forms prescribed by FHFA, each Bank shall verify that each nominee for each member directorship meets all the eligibility requirements for such directorship. Using the information provided on independent director application forms prescribed by FHFA, each Bank shall verify that each nominee for each public interest independent directorship and each other independent directorship meets all eligibility requirements and any knowledge or experience qualifications for such directorship, as set forth in the Bank Act and this subpart. Before announcing any independent director nominee, the Bank shall deliver to FHFA, for the Director's review, a copy of the independent director application forms executed by the individuals nominated for independent directorships. If within two weeks of such delivery FHFA provides comments to the Bank on any independent director nominee, the board of directors of the Bank shall consider the FHFA's comments in determining whether to proceed with those nominees or to reopen the nomination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51461, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 17039, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.8   Election process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Ballots.</I> Promptly after fulfilling the requirements of § 1261.7(f), each Bank shall prepare and deliver a ballot to each member that was a member as of the record date. The Bank shall include with each ballot a closing date for the Bank's receipt of voted ballots, which date shall be no earlier than 30 calendar days after the date such ballot is delivered to the member.
</P>
<P>(1) A ballot shall include at least the following provisions:
</P>
<P>(i) For states in which one or more member directorships are to be filled in the election, an alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for such directorship, the name, location, and FHFA ID number of the member each nominee serves, the nominee's title or position with the member, and the number of member directorships to be filled by the members in that voting state in the election;
</P>
<P>(ii) An alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for a public interest independent directorship and a brief description of each nominee's experience representing consumer and community interests;
</P>
<P>(iii) An alphabetical listing of the names of each nominee for the other independent directorships and a brief description of each nominee's qualifications, including his or her knowledge or experience in the areas of financial management, auditing and accounting, risk management practices, derivatives, project development, organizational management, and any other area of knowledge or experience set forth in § 1261.7(e);
</P>
<P>(iv) A statement that write-in candidates are not permitted; and
</P>
<P>(v) A confidentiality statement prohibiting the Bank from disclosing how any member voted.
</P>
<P>(2) At the election of the Bank, a ballot also may include, in the body or as an attachment, a brief description of the skills and experience of each nominee for a member directorship.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Statement on skills and experience.</I> If a Bank has conducted an annual assessment permitted by § 1261.9 and has included the results of the assessment as part of the notice to members required in § 1261.7(a), it may include with each ballot a statement of the results of that assessment or any subsequent assessment. If the statement differs from the statement provided under § 1261.7(a)(3), the Bank also shall include an explanation of why the statements differ.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Lack of member directorship nominees.</I> If, for any voting State, the number of nominees for the member directorships for that State is equal to or fewer than the number of such directorships to be filled in that year's election, the Bank shall deliver a notice to the members in the affected voting State (in lieu of including any member directorship nominees on the ballot for that State) that such nominees shall be deemed elected without further action, due to an insufficient number of nominees to warrant balloting. Thereafter, the Bank shall declare elected all such eligible nominees. The nominees declared elected shall be included as directors-elect in the report of election required under paragraph (g) of this section. Any member directorship that is not filled due to a lack of nominees shall be deemed vacant as of January 1 of the following year and shall be filled by the Bank's board of directors in accordance with § 1261.14(a).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Voting.</I> For each directorship to be filled, a member may cast the number of votes determined by the Bank pursuant to § 1261.6. A member may not split its votes among multiple nominees for a single directorship, and, where there are multiple directorships to be filled, either within the member's voting state or at large, in the case of independent directorships, a member may not cumulatively vote for a single nominee. If any member votes, it shall by resolution of its governing body either authorize the voting for specific nominees or delegate to an individual the authority to vote for specific nominees. To vote, a member shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Mark on the ballot the name of not more than one of the nominees for each directorship to be filled. Each nominee so selected shall receive all of the votes that the member is entitled to cast.
</P>
<P>(2) Execute and deliver the ballot to the Bank on or before the closing date. A Bank shall not allow a member to change a ballot after it has been delivered to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Counting ballots.</I> A Bank shall not review any ballot until after the closing date, and shall not include in the election results any ballot received after the closing date. Promptly after the closing date, each Bank shall tabulate the votes cast in the election: for the member directorships, the Bank shall tabulate votes by each voting state; for the independent directorships, the Bank shall tabulate votes for the district at-large. Any ballots cast in violation of paragraph (d) of this section shall be void.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Declaring results</I>— (1) <I>For member directorships.</I> The Bank shall declare elected the nominee receiving the highest number of votes. If more than one member directorship is to be filled for a particular State, the Bank shall declare elected each successive nominee receiving the next highest number of votes until all such open directorships are filled.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>For independent directorships.</I> (i) The bank shall tabulate separately the votes received for public interest independent director nominees and those received for other independent director nominees, in each case in accordance with paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) If the number of nominees exceeds the number of directorships to be filled, the Bank shall declare elected the nominee receiving the highest number of votes. If more than one directorship is to be filled, the Bank shall declare elected each successive nominee receiving the next highest number of votes for such directorship until all such open directorships are filled.
</P>
<P>(iii) If the number of nominees is no more than the number of directorships to be filled, the Bank shall declare elected each nominee receiving at least 20 percent of the number of votes eligible to be cast in the election. If any directorship is not filled due to any nominee's failure to receive at least 20 percent of the votes eligible to be cast, the Bank shall continue the election process for that directorship under the procedures in paragraph (h) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Tie votes.</I> In the event of a tie for the last available directorship, the disinterested incumbent members of the board of directors of the Bank, by a majority vote, shall declare elected one of the nominees for whom the number of votes cast was tied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Eligibility.</I> A Bank shall not declare elected a nominee that it has reason to know is ineligible to serve, nor shall it seat a director-elect that it has reason to know is ineligible to serve.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Record retention.</I> The Bank shall retain all ballots it receives for at least two years after the date of the election, and shall not disclose how any member voted.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Report of election.</I> Promptly following the election, each Bank shall deliver a notice to its members, to each nominee, and to FHFA that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) For each member directorship, the name of the director-elect, the name and location of the member at which he or she serves, his or her title or position at the member, the voting State represented, and the expiration date of the term of office;
</P>
<P>(2) For each independent directorship, the name of the director-elect, whether the director-elect will fill a public interest directorship and, if so, the consumer or community interest represented by such directorship, any qualifications under § 1261.7(e), and the expiration date of the term of office;
</P>
<P>(3) For member directorships, the total number of eligible votes, the number of members voting in the election, and the total number of votes cast for each nominee, which shall be reported by State; and
</P>
<P>(4) For independent directorships, the total number of eligible votes, the number of members voting in the election, and the total number of votes cast for each nominee, which shall be reported for the district at large.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Failure to fill all independent directorships.</I> If any independent directorship is not filled due to the failure of any nominee to receive at least 20 percent of the eligible vote, the Bank shall continue the election process for that directorship under the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank's board of directors, after again consulting with the Bank's Advisory Council, shall nominate at least as many individuals as there are independent directorships to be filled. It may nominate individuals who failed to be elected in the initial vote. The Bank thereafter shall deliver to FHFA a copy of the independent director application form executed by each nominee.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank then shall follow the provisions in this section that are applicable to the election process for independent directors, except for the following:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank shall not place the name of any nominee on a ballot without prior approval of FHFA; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bank may adopt a closing date that is earlier than 30 calendar days after delivery of the ballots to the eligible voting members, provided the Bank determines that an earlier closing date provides a reasonable amount of time to vote the ballots. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51462, Oct. 7, 2009. Redesignated and amended at 75 FR 17039, 17040, Apr. 5, 2010; 81 FR 76296, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.9   Actions affecting director elections.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Banks.</I> Each Bank, acting through its board of directors, may conduct an annual assessment of the skills and experience possessed by the members of its board of directors as a whole and may determine whether the capabilities of the board would be enhanced through the addition of individuals with particular skills and experience. If the board of directors determines that the Bank could benefit by the addition to the board of directors of individuals with particular qualifications, such as auditing and accounting, derivatives, financial management, organizational management, project development, risk management practices, or the law, it may identify those qualifications and so inform the members as part of its announcement of elections pursuant to § 1261.7(a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Support for nomination or election.</I> (1) A Bank director, officer, attorney, employee, or agent, acting in his or her personal capacity, may support the nomination or election of any individual for a member directorship, provided that no such individual shall purport to represent the views of the Bank or its board of directors in doing so.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank director, officer, attorney, employee or agent and the board of directors and Advisory Council (including members of the Council) of a Bank may support the candidacy of any individual nominated by the board of directors for election to an independent directorship.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibition.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, or § 1223.21(b)(7) of this chapter, no director, officer, attorney, employee, or agent of a Bank shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Communicate in any manner that a director, officer, attorney, employee, or agent of a Bank, directly or indirectly, supports or opposes the nomination or election of a particular individual for a directorship; or
</P>
<P>(2) Take any other action to influence the voting with respect to any particular individual.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51463, Oct. 7, 2009; 81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016; 83 FR 39326, Aug. 9, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.10   Independent director conflict of interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Employment interests.</I> During any independent director's term of service, such director shall not serve as an officer, employee, or director of any member of the Bank on whose board the individual sits, or of any recipient of advances from such Bank, and shall not serve as an officer of any Bank. An independent director or nominee for any independent directorship shall disclose all such interests to the Bank on whose board of directors the individual serves or which is considering the individual for nomination to its board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Holding companies.</I> Service as an officer, employee, or director of a holding company that controls one or more members of, or one or more recipients of advances from, the Bank on whose board an independent director serves is not deemed to be service as an officer, employee or director of a member or recipient of advances if the assets of all such members or all such recipients of advances constitute less than 35 percent of the assets of the holding company, on a consolidated basis.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Attribution.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with this section, a Bank shall attribute to the independent director any officer position, employee position, or directorship of the director's spouse.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51463, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.11   Conflict-of-interests policy for Bank directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption of conflict-of-interests policy.</I> Each Bank shall adopt a written conflict-of-interests policy that applies to all members of its board of directors. At a minimum, the conflict-of-interests policy of each Bank shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Require the directors to administer the affairs of the Bank fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any member;
</P>
<P>(2) Require independent directors to comply with § 1261.10(a);
</P>
<P>(3) Prohibit the use of a director's official position for personal gain;
</P>
<P>(4) Require directors to disclose actual or apparent conflicts of interests and establish procedures for addressing such conflicts;
</P>
<P>(5) Require the establishment of internal controls to ensure that conflict-of-interests reports are made and filed and that conflict-of-interests issues are disclosed and resolved; and
</P>
<P>(6) Establish procedures to monitor compliance with the conflict-of-interests policy.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disclosure and recusal.</I> A director shall disclose to the Bank's board of directors any financial interests he or she has, as well as any financial interests known to the director of any immediate family member or business associate of the director, in any matter to be considered by the Bank's board of directors and in any other business matter or proposed business matter involving the Bank and any other person or entity. A director shall disclose fully the nature of his or her interests in the matter and shall provide to the Bank's board of directors any information requested to aid in its consideration of the director's interest. A director shall refrain from considering or voting on any issue in which the director, any immediate family member, or any business associate has any financial interest.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Confidential Information.</I> Directors shall not disclose or use confidential information they receive solely by reason of their position with the Bank to obtain any benefit for themselves or for any other individual or entity.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Gifts.</I> No Bank director shall accept, and each Bank director shall discourage the director's immediate family members from accepting, any gift that the director believes or has reason to believe is given with the intent to influence the director's actions as a member of the Bank's board of directors, or where acceptance of such gift would have the appearance of intending to influence the director's actions as a member of the board. Any insubstantial gift would not be expected to trigger this prohibition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compensation.</I> Directors shall not accept compensation for services performed for the Bank from any source other than the Bank for which the services are performed.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Immediate family member</I> means parent, sibling, spouse, child, or dependent, or any relative sharing the same residence as the director.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial interest</I> means a direct or indirect financial interest in any activity, transaction, property, or relationship that involves receiving or providing something of monetary value, and includes, but is not limited to any right, contractual or otherwise, to the payment of money, whether contingent or fixed. It does not include a deposit or savings account maintained with a member, nor does it include a loan or extension of credit obtained from a member in the normal course of business on terms that are available generally to the public.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Business associate</I> means any individual or entity with whom a director has a business relationship, including, but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Any corporation or organization of which the director is an officer or partner, or in which the director beneficially owns ten percent or more of any class of equity security, including subordinated debt;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other partner, officer, or beneficial owner of ten percent or more of any class of equity security, including subordinated debt, of any such corporation or organization; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any trust or other estate in which a director has a substantial beneficial interest or as to which the director serves as trustee or in a similar fiduciary capacity. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[73 FR 55715, Sept. 26, 2008, as amended at 74 FR 51463, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.12   Reporting requirements for Bank directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Annual reporting.</I> Annually, each Bank shall require each of its directors to execute and deliver to the Bank the appropriate director eligibility certification form prescribed by FHFA for the type of directorship held by such director. The Bank promptly shall deliver to FHFA a copy of the certification form delivered to it by each director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Report of noncompliance.</I> At any time that any director believes or has reason to believe that he or she no longer meets the eligibility requirements set forth in the Bank Act or this subpart, the director promptly shall so notify the Bank and FHFA in writing. At any time that a Bank believes or has reason to believe that any director no longer meets the eligibility requirements set forth in the Bank Act or this subpart, the Bank promptly shall notify FHFA in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51463, Oct. 7, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.13   Ineligible Bank directors.</HEAD>
<P>Upon a determination by FHFA or a Bank that any director of the Bank no longer satisfies the eligibility requirements set forth in the Bank Act or this subpart, or has failed to comply with the reporting requirements of § 1261.12, the directorship shall immediately become vacant. Any director that is determined to have failed to comply with any of these requirements shall not continue to serve as a Bank director. Whenever a Bank makes such a determination, the Bank promptly shall notify the Bank director and FHFA in writing.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51464, Oct. 7, 2009, as amended at 81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.14   Vacant Bank directorships.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Filling unexpired terms.</I> (1) When a vacancy occurs on the board of directors of any Bank, the board of directors of the Bank shall elect, by a majority vote of the remaining Bank directors sitting as a board, an individual to fill the unexpired term of office of the vacant directorship, regardless of whether the remaining Bank directors constitute a quorum of the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) The board of directors of the Bank may fill an anticipated vacancy prior to the effective date of the vacancy, provided the board does so no sooner than the date of the regularly scheduled board meeting that occurs immediately prior to the effective date of the vacancy.
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors shall elect only an individual who satisfies all the eligibility requirements in the Bank Act and in this subpart that applied to his or her predecessor and, for independent directorships, also satisfies any of the qualifications in the Bank Act or this subpart. If a Bank does not have at least two sitting public interest independent directors, the board of directors of the Bank shall designate the directorship as a public interest directorship and shall elect an individual who satisfies a public interest independent directorship qualification in the Bank Act or in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Verifying eligibility.</I> Prior to any election by the board of directors, the Bank shall obtain an executed member director eligibility certification form prescribed by FHFA from each individual being considered to fill a member directorship and an executed independent director application form prescribed by FHFA from each individual being considered to fill an independent directorship. Using the executed forms, each Bank shall verify each individual's eligibility and, as to independent directors, also shall verify the individual's qualifications. Before any independent director is elected by the board of directors of a Bank, the Bank shall deliver to FHFA for its review a copy of the application form of each individual being considered by the board. The Bank shall retain the information it receives in accordance with § 1261.7(c) and (d).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notification.</I> Promptly after allowing the individual to assume the directorship, as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a Bank shall notify FHFA and each member located in the Bank's district in writing of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) For each member directorship filled by the board of a Bank, the name of the director, the name, location, and FHFA ID number of the member the director serves, the director's title or position with the member, the voting State that the director represents, and the expiration date of the director's term of office; and
</P>
<P>(2) For each independent directorship filled by the board of a Bank, the name of the director, the name and location of the organization with which the director is affiliated, if any, the director's title or position with such organization, and the expiration date of the director's term of office. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 51464, Oct. 7, 2009, as amended at 75 FR 17039, Apr. 5, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.15   Minimum number of member directorships.</HEAD>
<P>Except with respect to member directorships of a Bank resulting from the merger of any two or more Banks, the number of member directorships allocated to each state shall not be less than the number of directorships allocated to that state on December 31, 1960. The following table sets forth the states within Bank districts not created from the merger of two or more Banks whose members held more than one directorship on December 31, 1960:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">State
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of
<br/>elective
<br/>directorships on
<br/>December 31, 1960
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">California</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Colorado</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Illinois</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Indiana</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kansas</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Kentucky</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Louisiana</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Massachusetts</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Michigan</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New Jersey</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">New York</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Ohio</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Oklahoma</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Pennsylvania</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Tennessee</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Texas</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Wisconsin</TD><TD align="center" class="gpotbl_cell">4</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.2.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.16   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Federal Home Loan Bank Directors' Compensation and Expenses</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 17040, Apr. 5, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1261.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart C:
</P>
<P><I>Compensation</I> means any payment of money or the provision of any other thing of current or potential value in connection with service as a director. Compensation includes all direct and indirect payments of benefits, both cash and non-cash, granted to or for the benefit of any director.
</P>
<P><I>Expenses</I> means necessary and reasonable travel, subsistence and other related expenses incurred in connection with the performance of official duties as are payable to senior officers of the Bank under the Bank's travel policy, except gift or entertainment expenses.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.21   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard.</I> Each Bank may pay its directors reasonable compensation for the time required of them, and their necessary expenses, in the performance of their duties, as determined by a resolution adopted by the board of directors of the Bank and subject to the provisions of this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting—</I> (1) <I>Following calendar year.</I> By December 31 of each calendar year, each Bank shall report to the Director the compensation it anticipates paying to its directors for the following calendar year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Preceding calendar year.</I> No later than the tenth business day of each calendar year, each Bank shall report to the Director the following information relating to director compensation, expenses and meeting attendance for the immediately preceding calendar year:
</P>
<P>(i) The total compensation paid to each director;
</P>
<P>(ii) The total expenses paid to each director;
</P>
<P>(iii) The total compensation paid to all directors;
</P>
<P>(iv) The total expenses paid to all directors;
</P>
<P>(v) The total of all expenses incurred at group functions that are not reimbursed to individual directors, such as the cost of group meals in connection with board and committee meetings;
</P>
<P>(vi) The total number of meetings held by the board and its designated committees; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The number of board and designated committee meetings each director attended in-person or through electronic means such as video or teleconferencing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.22   Directors' compensation policy.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Bank's board of directors annually shall adopt a written compensation policy to provide for the payment of reasonable compensation and expenses to the directors for the time required of them in performing their duties as directors. Payments under the directors' compensation policy may be based on any factors that the board of directors determines reasonably to be appropriate, subject to the requirements in this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum contents.</I> The compensation policy shall address the activities or functions for which director attendance or participation is necessary and which may be compensated, and shall explain and justify the methodology used to determine the amount of compensation to be paid to the Bank directors. The compensation policy shall require that any compensation paid to a director reflect the amount of time the director has spent on official Bank business, and shall require that compensation be reduced, as necessary to reflect lesser attendance or performance at board or committee meetings during a given year.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prohibited payments.</I> A Bank shall not pay a director who regularly fails to attend board or committee meetings, and shall not pay fees to a director that do not reflect the director's performance of official Bank business conducted prior to the payment of such fees.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Submission requirements.</I> No later than the tenth business day after adopting its annual policy for director compensation and expenses, and at least 30 days prior to disbursing the first payment to any director, each Bank shall submit to the Director a copy of the policy, along with all studies or other supporting materials upon which the board relied in determining the level of compensation and expenses to pay to its directors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.23   Director disapproval.</HEAD>
<P>The Director may determine, based upon his or her review of a Bank's director compensation policy, methodology and/or other related materials, that the compensation and/or expenses to be paid to the directors are not reasonable. In such case, the Director may order the Bank to refrain from making any further payments under that compensation policy. Any such order shall apply prospectively only and will not affect either compensation or expenses that have been earned but not yet paid or reimbursed or payments that had been made prior to the date of the Director's determination and order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1261.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1261.24   Board meetings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Number of meetings.</I> The board of directors of each Bank shall hold as many meetings each year as necessary and appropriate to carry out its fiduciary responsibilities with respect to the effective oversight of Bank management and such other duties and obligations as may be imposed by applicable laws, provided the board of directors of a Bank must hold a minimum of six in-person meetings in any year.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Site of meetings.</I> The bank usually should hold board of director and committee meetings within the district served by the Bank. The Bank shall not hold board of director or committee meetings in any location that is not within the United States, including its possessions and territories.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.43.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1263" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1263—MEMBERS OF THE BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1422, 1423, 1424, 1426, 1430, 1442, 4511, 4513.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Adjusted net income</I> means net income, excluding extraordinary items such as income received from, or expense incurred in, sales of securities or fixed assets, reported on a regulatory financial report.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another entity. For purposes of this definition, one entity controls another if it:
</P>
<P>(1) Directly or indirectly, or acting through one or more other persons, owns, controls, or has the power to vote twenty-five (25) percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of voting securities of the other entity, including shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests that entitle the holder:
</P>
<P>(i) To vote for or to select directors, trustees, or partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of that entity; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of that entity;
</P>
<P>(2) Controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of the other entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Otherwise has the power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management or policies of the other entity through a management agreement, common directors or management officials, or by any other means.
</P>
<P><I>Aggregate unpaid loan principal</I> means the aggregate unpaid principal of a subscriber's or member's home mortgage loans, home-purchase contracts and similar obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Allowance for loan and lease losses</I> means a specified balance-sheet account held to fund potential losses on loans or leases, which is reported on a regulatory financial report.
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate regulator</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of an insured depository institution or a CDFI credit union, an appropriate Federal banking agency or appropriate State regulator, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an insurance company, an appropriate State regulator accredited by the NAIC.
</P>
<P><I>Captive</I> means an entity that holds an insurance license or charter under the laws of a State, but that does not meet the definition of “insurance company” set forth in this section or fall within any other category of institution that may be eligible for membership.
</P>
<P><I>CDFI credit union</I> means a State-chartered credit union that does not have Federal share insurance and that has been certified as a CDFI by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P><I>CDFI Fund</I> means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund established under section 104(a) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4703(a)).
</P>
<P><I>CFI asset cap</I> means $1 billion, as adjusted annually by FHFA, beginning in 2009, to reflect any percentage increase in the preceding year's Consumer Price Index (CPI) for all urban consumers, as published by the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Class A stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(i)) and applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Class B stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified in section 6(a)(4)(A)(ii) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)(4)(A)(ii)) and applicable FHFA regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Combination business or farm property</I> means real property for which the total appraised value is attributable to residential, and business or farm uses.
</P>
<P><I>Community development financial institution</I> or <I>CDFI</I> means an institution that is certified as a community development financial institution by the CDFI Fund under the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>), other than a bank or savings association insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>), a holding company for such a bank or savings association, or a credit union that has Federal share insurance.
</P>
<P><I>Community financial institution or CFI</I> means an institution:
</P>
<P>(1) The deposits of which are insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(2) The total assets of which, as of the date of a particular transaction, are less than the CFI asset cap, with total assets being calculated as an average of total assets over three years, with such average being based on the institution's regulatory financial reports filed with its appropriate regulator for the most recent calendar quarter and the immediately preceding 11 calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>Composite regulatory examination rating</I> means a composite rating assigned to an institution following the guidelines of the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System (issued by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council), including a CAMELS rating or other similar rating, contained in a written regulatory examination report.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidation</I> means a combination of two or more business entities, and includes a consolidation of two or more entities into a new entity, a merger of one or more entities into another entity, or a purchase of substantially all of the assets and assumption of substantially all of the liabilities of an entity by another entity.
</P>
<P><I>CRA</I> means the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>CRA performance evaluation</I> means, unless otherwise specified, a formal performance evaluation of an institution prepared by its appropriate regulator as required by the CRA or, if such a formal evaluation is unavailable for a particular institution, an informal or preliminary evaluation.
</P>
<P><I>De novo insured depository institution</I> means an insured depository institution with a charter approved by its appropriate regulator within the three years prior to the date the institution applies for Bank membership.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling unit</I> means a single room or a unified combination of rooms designed for residential use.
</P>
<P><I>Enforcement action</I> means any written notice, directive, order, or agreement initiated by an applicant for Bank membership or by its appropriate regulator to address any operational, financial, managerial, or other deficiencies of the applicant identified by such regulator. An “enforcement action” does not include a board of directors' resolution adopted by the applicant in response to examination weaknesses identified by such regulator.
</P>
<P><I>Federal share insurance</I> means insurance coverage of credit union member accounts provided by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund under subchapter II of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1781 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Funded residential construction loan</I> means the portion of a loan secured by real property made to finance the on-site construction of dwelling units on one-to-four family property or multifamily property disbursed to the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Gross revenues</I> means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, total revenues received from all sources, including grants and other donor contributions and earnings from operations.
</P>
<P><I>Home mortgage loan</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A loan, whether or not fully amortizing, or an interest in such a loan, which is secured by a mortgage, deed of trust, or other security agreement that creates a first lien on one of the following interests in property:
</P>
<P>(i) One-to-four family property or multifamily property, in fee simple;
</P>
<P>(ii) A leasehold on one-to-four family property or multifamily property under a lease of not less than 99 years that is renewable, or under a lease having a period of not less than 50 years to run from the date the mortgage was executed; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Combination business or farm property where at least fifty (50) percent of the total appraised value of the combined property is attributable to the residential portion of the property, or in the case of any community financial institution, combination business or farm property, on which is located a permanent structure actually used as a residence (other than for temporary or seasonal housing), where the residence constitutes an integral part of the property; or
</P>
<P>(2) A security representing:
</P>
<P>(i) A right to receive a portion of the cash flows from a pool of long-term loans, provided that, at the time of issuance of the security, all of the loans meet the requirements of paragraph (1) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An interest in other securities, all of which meet the requirements of paragraph (2)(i) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Insurance company</I> means an entity that holds an insurance license or charter under the laws of a State and whose primary business is the underwriting of insurance for persons or entities that are not its affiliates.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An insured depository institution as defined in section 2(9) of the Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1422(9)); and
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent provided under § 1263.19, a non-federally-insured credit union.
</P>
<P><I>Long-term</I> means a term to maturity of five years or greater at the time of origination.
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured housing</I> means a manufactured home as defined in section 603(6) of the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5402(6)).
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily property</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Real property that is solely residential and includes five or more dwelling units;
</P>
<P>(2) Real property that includes five or more dwelling units combined with commercial units, provided that the property is primarily residential; or
</P>
<P>(3) Nursing homes, dormitories, or homes for the elderly.
</P>
<P><I>NAIC</I> means the National Association of Insurance Commissioners.
</P>
<P><I>Non-federally-insured credit union</I> means a State-chartered credit union that does not have Federal share insurance and that has not been certified as a CDFI by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P><I>Nonperforming loans and leases</I> means the sum of the following, reported on a regulatory financial report:
</P>
<P>(1) Loans and leases that have been past due for 90 days (60 days, in the case of credit union applicants) or longer but are still accruing;
</P>
<P>(2) Loans and leases on a nonaccrual basis; and
</P>
<P>(3) Restructured loans and leases (not already reported as nonperforming).
</P>
<P><I>Nonresidential real property</I> means real property that is not used for residential purposes, including business or industrial property, hotels, motels, churches, hospitals, educational and charitable institution buildings or facilities, clubs, lodges, association buildings, golf courses, recreational facilities, farm property not containing a dwelling unit, or similar types of property.
</P>
<P><I>One-to-four family property</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Real property that is solely residential, including one-to-four family dwelling units or more than four family dwelling units if each dwelling unit is separated from the other dwelling units by dividing walls that extend from ground to roof, such as row houses, townhouses, or similar types of property;
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactured housing if applicable State law defines the purchase or holding of manufactured housing as the purchase or holding of real property;
</P>
<P>(3) Individual condominium dwelling units or interests in individual cooperative housing dwelling units that are part of a condominium or cooperative building without regard to the number of total dwelling units therein; or
</P>
<P>(4) Real property which includes one-to-four family dwelling units combined with commercial units, provided the property is primarily residential.
</P>
<P><I>Operating expenses</I> means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, expenses for business operations, including, but not limited to, staff salaries and benefits, professional fees, interest, loan loss provision, and depreciation, contained in the applicant's audited financial statements.
</P>
<P><I>Other real estate owned</I> means all other real estate owned (<I>i.e.,</I> foreclosed and repossessed real estate), reported on a regulatory financial report, and does not include direct and indirect investments in real estate ventures.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory examination report</I> means a written report of examination prepared by the applicant's appropriate regulator, containing, in the case of insured depository institution applicants, a composite rating assigned to the institution following the guidelines of the Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System, including a CAMELS rating or other similar rating.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory financial report</I> means a financial report that an institution is required to file with its appropriate regulator on a specific periodic basis, including the quarterly call report for commercial banks and savings associations, quarterly or semi-annual call report for credit unions, NAIC's annual or quarterly statement for insurance companies, or other similar report, including such report maintained by the appropriate regulator in an electronic database.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage loan</I> means any one of the following types of loans, whether or not fully amortizing:
</P>
<P>(1) A home mortgage loan;
</P>
<P>(2) A funded residential construction loan;
</P>
<P>(3) A loan secured by manufactured housing whether or not defined by State law as secured by an interest in real property;
</P>
<P>(4) A loan secured by a junior lien on one-to-four family property or multifamily property;
</P>
<P>(5) A security representing:
</P>
<P>(i) A right to receive a portion of the cash flows from a pool of loans, provided that, at the time of issuance of the security, all of the loans meet the requirements of one of paragraphs (1) through (4) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An interest in other securities that meet the requirements of paragraph (5)(i) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(6) A home mortgage loan secured by a leasehold interest, as defined in paragraph (1)(ii) of the definition of “home mortgage loan,” except that the period of the lease term may be for any duration; or
</P>
<P>(7) A loan that finances one or more properties or activities that, if made by a member, would satisfy the statutory requirements for the Community Investment Program established under section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)), or the regulatory requirements established for any Community Investment Cash Advance program.
</P>
<P><I>Restricted assets</I> means both permanently restricted assets and temporarily restricted assets, as those terms are used in Financial Accounting Standard No. 117, or any successor publication.
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> means the total assets reported on a regulatory financial report or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, the total assets contained in the applicant's audited financial statements.
</P>
<P><I>Unrestricted cash and cash equivalents</I> means, in the case of a CDFI applicant, cash and highly liquid assets that can be easily converted into cash that are not restricted in a manner that prevents their use in paying expenses, as contained in the applicant's audited financial statements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 25722, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Membership Application Process</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.2   Membership application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application.</I> Except as otherwise specified in this part, no institution may become a member of a Bank unless it has submitted to that Bank an application that satisfies the requirements of this part. The application shall include a written resolution or certification duly adopted by the applicant's board of directors, or by an individual with authority to act on behalf of the applicant's board of directors, of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Applicant review.</I> The applicant has reviewed the requirements of this part and, as required by this part, has provided to the best of its knowledge the most recent, accurate, and complete information available; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duty to supplement.</I> The applicant will promptly supplement the application with any relevant information that comes to its attention prior to the Bank's decision on whether to approve or deny the application, and if the Bank's decision is appealed pursuant to § 1263.5, prior to resolution of any appeal by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Digest.</I> The Bank shall prepare a written digest for each applicant stating whether or not the applicant meets each of the requirements in §§ 1263.6 to 1263.19, the Bank's findings, and the reasons therefor. In preparing a digest for an applicant whose satisfaction of the membership eligibility requirements of § 1263.6(a) is contingent upon its meeting the definition of “insurance company” set forth in § 1263.1, the Bank shall state its conclusion as to whether the applicant meets that definition and summarize the bases for that conclusion. In preparing a digest for a non-federally-insured credit union applicant, the Bank shall summarize the manner in which the applicant has complied with the requirements of § 1263.19(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>File.</I> The Bank shall maintain a membership file for each applicant for at least three years after the Bank decides whether to approve or deny membership or, in the case of an appeal to FHFA, for three years after the resolution of the appeal. The membership file shall contain at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Digest.</I> The digest required by paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Required documents.</I> All documents required by §§ 1263.6 to 1263.19, including documents required to establish or rebut a presumption under this part, shall be described in and attached to the digest. The Bank is not required to retain in the file portions of regulatory financial reports that are not relevant to its decision on the membership application. If an applicant's appropriate regulator requires return or destruction of a regulatory examination report, the date that the report is returned or destroyed shall be noted in the file.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Additional documents.</I> Any additional document submitted by the applicant, or otherwise obtained or generated by the Bank, concerning the applicant.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Decision resolution.</I> The decision resolution described in § 1263.3(b).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 25722, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.3   Decision on application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> FHFA hereby authorizes the Banks to approve or deny all applications for membership, subject to the requirements of this part. The authority to approve membership applications may be exercised only by a committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president, other than an officer with responsibility for business development.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Decision resolution.</I> For each applicant, the Bank shall prepare a written resolution duly adopted by the Bank's board of directors, by a committee of the board of directors, or by an officer with delegated authority to approve membership applications. The decision resolution shall state:
</P>
<P>(1) That the statements in the digest are accurate to the best of the Bank's knowledge, and are based on a diligent and comprehensive review of all available information identified in the digest; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank's decision and the reasons therefor. Decisions to approve an application should state specifically that:
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant is authorized under the laws of the United States and the laws of the appropriate State to become a member of, purchase stock in, do business with, and maintain deposits in, the Bank to which the applicant has applied; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant meets all of the membership eligibility criteria of the Bank Act and this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Action on applications.</I> The Bank shall act on an application within 60 calendar days of the date the Bank deems the application to be complete. An application is “complete” when the Bank has obtained all the information required by this part, and any other information the Bank deems necessary, to process the application. If an application that was deemed complete subsequently is deemed incomplete because the Bank determines during the review process that additional information is necessary to process the application, the Bank may suspend the 60-day processing period until the Bank again deems the application to be complete, at which time the processing period shall resume. The Bank shall notify an applicant in writing when it deems the applicant's application to be complete, and shall maintain a copy of the notice in the applicant's membership file. The Bank shall notify an applicant whenever it suspends or resumes the 60-day processing period, and shall maintain a written record of those notifications in the applicant's membership file. Within three business days of a Bank's decision on an application, the Bank shall provide the applicant and FHFA with a copy of the Bank's decision resolution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 25722, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.4   Automatic membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Automatic membership for certain charter conversions.</I> An insured depository institution member that converts from one charter type to another automatically shall become a member of the Bank of which the converting institution was a member on the effective date of the conversion, provided that the converted institution continues to be an insured depository institution and the assets of the institution immediately before and immediately after the conversion are not materially different. In such case, all relationships existing between the member and the Bank at the time of such conversion may continue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Automatic membership for transfers.</I> Any member that relocates its principal place of business to another Bank district or that redesignates its principal place of business to another Bank district pursuant to § 1263.18(c) automatically shall become a member of the Bank of that district upon the purchase of the minimum amount of Bank stock required for membership in that Bank, as required by § 1263.20.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Automatic membership, in the Bank's discretion, for certain consolidations.</I> (1) If a member institution (or institutions) and a nonmember institution are consolidated, and the consolidated institution has its principal place of business in a State in the same Bank district as the disappearing institution (or institutions), and the consolidated institution will operate under the charter of the nonmember institution, on the effective date of the consolidation, the consolidated institution may, in the discretion of the Bank of which the disappearing institution (or institutions) was a member immediately prior to the effective date of the consolidation, automatically become a member of such Bank upon the purchase of the minimum amount of Bank stock required for membership in that Bank, as required by § 1263.20, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) 90 percent or more of the consolidated institution's total assets are derived from the total assets of the disappearing member institution (or institutions); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The consolidated institution provides written notice to such Bank, within 60 calendar days after the effective date of the consolidation, that it desires to be a member of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The provisions of § 1263.24(b)(4)(i) shall apply, and upon approval of automatic membership by the Bank, the provisions of § 1263.24(c) shall apply.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.5   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appeals by applicants.</I>—(1) <I>Filing procedure.</I> Within 90 calendar days of the date of a Bank's decision to deny an application for membership, the applicant may file a written appeal of the decision with FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Documents.</I> The applicant's appeal shall be addressed to the Deputy Director for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 Seventh Street SW., Washington, DC 20219, with a copy to the Bank, and shall include the following documents:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bank's decision resolution.</I> A copy of the Bank's decision resolution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Basis for appeal.</I> An applicant must provide a statement of the basis for the appeal with sufficient facts, information, analysis, and explanation to rebut any applicable presumptions, or otherwise to support the applicant's position.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record for appeal.</I>—(1) <I>Copy of membership file.</I> Upon receiving a copy of an appeal, the Bank whose action has been appealed (appellee Bank) shall provide FHFA with a copy of the applicant's complete membership file. Until FHFA resolves the appeal, the appellee Bank shall supplement the materials provided to FHFA as any new materials are received.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional information.</I> FHFA may request additional information or further supporting arguments from the appellant, the appellee Bank, or any other party that FHFA deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deciding appeals.</I> FHFA shall consider the record for appeal described in paragraph (b) of this section and shall resolve the appeal based on the requirements of the Bank Act and this part within 90 calendar days of the date the appeal is filed with FHFA. In deciding the appeal, FHFA shall apply the presumptions in this part, unless the appellant or appellee Bank presents evidence to rebut a presumption as provided in § 1263.17.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Eligibility Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.6   General eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> Any building and loan association, savings and loan association, cooperative bank, homestead association, insurance company, savings bank, community development financial institution (including a CDFI credit union), or insured depository institution shall be eligible for Bank membership if:
</P>
<P>(1) It is duly organized under tribal law, or under the laws of any State or of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) It is subject to inspection and regulation under the banking laws, or under similar laws, of any State or of the United States or, in the case of a CDFI, is certified by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(3) It makes long-term home mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(4) Its financial condition is such that advances may be safely made to it;
</P>
<P>(5) The character of its management is consistent with sound and economical home financing;
</P>
<P>(6) Its home financing policy is consistent with sound and economical home financing; and
</P>
<P>(7) It has complied with any applicable requirement of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional eligibility requirement for insured depository institutions other than community financial institutions.</I> In order to be eligible to become a member of a Bank, an insured depository institution applicant other than a community financial institution also must have at least 10 percent of its total assets in residential mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Additional eligibility requirement for applicants that are not insured depository institutions.</I> In order to be eligible to become a member of a Bank, an applicant that is not an insured depository institution also must have mortgage-related assets that reflect a commitment to housing finance, as determined by the Bank in its discretion.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Ineligibility.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, an institution that does not satisfy the requirements of this part shall be ineligible for membership.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Treatment of captives previously admitted to membership.</I> A Bank that admitted one or more captives to membership prior to February 19, 2016 shall wind down its relationship with, and terminate the membership of, each of those captives as provided in this paragraph (e).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Captives admitted prior to September 12, 2014.</I>—(i) A Bank shall have until February 19, 2021 to wind down its business transactions with any captive that it had admitted to membership prior to September 12, 2014, notwithstanding the captive's ineligibility for Bank membership. The Bank may make or renew an advance to such a captive only if:
</P>
<P>(A) After making or renewing the advance, its total outstanding advances to that captive would not exceed 40 percent of the captive's total assets; and
</P>
<P>(B) The new or renewed advance has a maturity date no later than February 19, 2021.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank shall terminate the membership of any captive described in paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section no later than February 19, 2021, as provided under § 1263.27. After termination, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by, and the settlement of all other outstanding business transactions with, such terminated captive, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the captive in accordance with § 1263.29; provided that the Bank may allow the captive to repay any outstanding advance made or last renewed in accordance with the applicable requirements then in effect and having a maturity date later than its date of termination in accordance with its terms and delay the repurchase of any Bank stock held in support of that advance until after the advance has been repaid, in accordance with the Bank's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Captives admitted on or after September 12, 2014.</I>—(i) A Bank shall have until February 19, 2017 to wind down its business transactions with any captive that it had admitted to membership on or after September 12, 2014, notwithstanding the captive's ineligibility for Bank membership. The Bank shall not make or renew any advance to such a captive.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank shall terminate the membership of any captive described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section no later than February 19, 2017, as provided under § 1263.27. Upon termination, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by, and the settlement of all other outstanding business transactions with, such terminated captive, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the captive in accordance with § 1263.29; provided that all advances outstanding to that member must be repaid in full by the termination date.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.7   Duly organized requirement.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant shall be deemed to be duly organized, as required by section 4(a)(1)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(1)(A)) and § 1263.6(a)(1), if it is chartered by a State or federal agency as a building and loan association, savings and loan association, cooperative bank, homestead association, insurance company, savings bank, or insured depository institution or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, is incorporated under State or tribal law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.8   Subject to inspection and regulation requirement.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant shall be deemed to be subject to inspection and regulation, as required by section 4(a)(1)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424 (a)(1)(B)) and § 1263.6(a)(2) if, in the case of an insured depository institution or insurance company applicant, it is subject to inspection and regulation by its appropriate regulator. A CDFI applicant that is certified by the CDFI Fund is not subject to this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.9   Makes long-term home mortgage loans requirement.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant shall be deemed to make long-term home mortgage loans, as required by section 4(a)(1)(C) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(1)(C)) and § 1263.6(a)(3), if, based on the applicant's most recent regulatory financial report filed with its appropriate regulator, or other documentation provided to the Bank, in the case of a CDFI applicant that does not file such reports, the applicant originates or purchases long-term home mortgage loans.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.10   Ten percent requirement for certain insured depository institution applicants.</HEAD>
<P>An insured depository institution applicant that is subject to the 10 percent requirement of section 4(a)(2)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(A)) and § 1263.6(b) shall be deemed to comply with that requirement if, based on the applicant's most recent regulatory financial report filed with its appropriate regulator, the applicant has at least 10 percent of its total assets in residential mortgage loans, except that any assets used to secure mortgage-backed securities as described in paragraph (5) of the definition of “residential mortgage loan” set forth in § 1263.1 shall not be used to meet this requirement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.11   Financial condition requirement for depository institutions and CDFI credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review requirement.</I> In determining whether a building and loan association, savings and loan association, cooperative bank, homestead association, savings bank, insured depository institution, or CDFI credit union has complied with the financial condition requirements of section 4(a)(2)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(B)) and § 1263.6(a)(4), the Bank shall obtain as a part of the membership application and review each of the following documents:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Regulatory financial reports.</I> The regulatory financial reports filed by the applicant with its appropriate regulator for the last six calendar quarters and three year-ends preceding the date the Bank receives the application;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financial statement.</I> In order of preference—
</P>
<P>(i) The most recent independent audit of the applicant conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a certified public accounting firm which submits a report on the applicant;
</P>
<P>(ii) The most recent independent audit of the applicant's parent holding company conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a certified public accounting firm which submits a report on the consolidated holding company but not on the applicant separately;
</P>
<P>(iii) The most recent directors' examination of the applicant conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a certified public accounting firm;
</P>
<P>(iv) The most recent directors' examination of the applicant performed by other external auditors;
</P>
<P>(v) The most recent review of the applicant's financial statements by external auditors;
</P>
<P>(vi) The most recent compilation of the applicant's financial statements by external auditors; or
</P>
<P>(vii) The most recent audit of other procedures of the applicant.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Regulatory examination report.</I> The applicant's most recent available regulatory examination report prepared by its appropriate regulator, a summary prepared by the Bank of the applicant's strengths and weaknesses as cited in the regulatory examination report, and a summary prepared by the Bank or applicant of actions taken by the applicant to respond to examination weaknesses;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> A description prepared by the Bank or applicant of any outstanding enforcement actions against the applicant, responses by the applicant, reports as required by the enforcement action, and verbal or written indications, if available, from the appropriate regulator of how the applicant is complying with the terms of the enforcement action; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Additional information.</I> Any other relevant document or information concerning the applicant that comes to the Bank's attention in reviewing the applicant's financial condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards.</I> An applicant of the type described in paragraph (a) of this section shall be deemed to be in compliance with the financial condition requirement of section 4(a)(2)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(B)) and § 1263.6(a)(4), if:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Recent composite regulatory examination rating.</I> The applicant has received a composite regulatory examination rating from its appropriate regulator within two years preceding the date the Bank receives the application;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Capital requirement.</I> The applicant meets all of its minimum statutory and regulatory capital requirements as reported in its most recent quarter-end regulatory financial report filed with its appropriate regulator; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Minimum performance standard</I>—(i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section, the applicant's most recent composite regulatory examination rating from its appropriate regulator within the past two years was “1”, or the most recent rating was “2” or “3” and, based on the applicant's most recent regulatory financial report filed with its appropriate regulator, the applicant satisfied all of the following performance trend criteria—
</P>
<P>(A) <I>Earnings.</I> The applicant's adjusted net income was positive in four of the six most recent calendar quarters;
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Nonperforming assets.</I> The applicant's nonperforming loans and leases plus other real estate owned, did not exceed 10 percent of its total loans and leases plus other real estate owned, in the most recent calendar quarter; and
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Allowance for loan and lease losses.</I> The applicant's ratio of its allowance for loan and lease losses plus the allocated transfer risk reserve to nonperforming loans and leases was 60 percent or greater during four of the six most recent calendar quarters.
</P>
<P>(ii) For applicants that are not required to report financial data to their appropriate regulator on a quarterly basis, the information required in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section may be reported on a semi-annual basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) An applicant that is a CDFI credit union or a non-federally-insured credit union must meet the performance trend criteria in paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section irrespective of its composite regulatory examination rating.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible collateral not considered.</I> The availability of sufficient eligible collateral to secure advances to the applicant is presumed and shall not be considered in determining whether an applicant is in the financial condition required by section 4(a)(2)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(B)) and § 1263.6(a)(4).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 25722, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.12   Character of management requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A building and loan association, savings and loan association, cooperative bank, homestead association, savings bank, insured depository institution, insurance company, and CDFI credit union shall be deemed to be in compliance with the character of management requirements of section 4(a)(2)(C) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(C)) and § 1263.6(a)(5) if the applicant provides to the Bank an unqualified written certification duly adopted by the applicant's board of directors, or by an individual with authority to act on behalf of the applicant's board of directors, that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> Neither the applicant nor any of its directors or senior officers is subject to, or operating under, any enforcement action instituted by its appropriate regulator;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative proceedings.</I> Neither the applicant nor any of its directors or senior officers has been the subject of any criminal, civil or administrative proceedings reflecting upon creditworthiness, business judgment, or moral turpitude since the most recent regulatory examination report; and
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, lawsuits or judgments.</I> There are no known potential criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, material pending lawsuits, or unsatisfied judgments against the applicant or any of its directors or senior officers since the most recent regulatory examination report, that are significant to the applicant's operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CDFIs other than CDFI credit unions.</I> A CDFI applicant, other than a CDFI credit union, shall be deemed to be in compliance with the character of management requirement of § 1263.6(a)(5), if the applicant provides an unqualified written certification duly adopted by the applicant's board of directors, or by an individual with authority to act on behalf of the applicant's board of directors, that:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative proceedings.</I> Neither the applicant nor any of its directors or senior officers has been the subject of any criminal, civil or administrative proceedings reflecting upon creditworthiness, business judgment, or moral turpitude in the past three years; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, lawsuits or judgments.</I> There are no known potential criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, material pending lawsuits, or unsatisfied judgments against the applicant or any of its directors or senior officers arising within the past three years that are significant to the applicant's operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.13   Home financing policy requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standard.</I> An applicant shall be deemed to be in compliance with the home financing policy requirements of section 4(a)(2)(C) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(C)) and § 1263.6(a)(6), if the applicant has received a CRA rating of “Satisfactory” or better on its most recent CRA performance evaluation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Written justification required.</I> An applicant that is not subject to the CRA shall file, as part of its application for membership, a written justification acceptable to the Bank of how and why the applicant's home financing policy is consistent with the Bank System's housing finance mission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.14   De novo insured depository institution applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Presumptive compliance.</I> A de novo insured depository institution applicant shall be deemed to meet the duly organized, subject to inspection and regulation, financial condition, and character of management requirements of §§ 1263.7, 1263.8, 1263.11 and 1263.12, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Makes long-term home mortgage loans requirement.</I> A de novo insured depository institution applicant shall be deemed to make long-term home mortgage loans, as required by section 4(a)(1)(C) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(1)(C)) and § 1263.6(a)(3), if it has filed as part of its application for membership a written justification acceptable to the Bank of how its home financing credit policy and lending practices will include originating or purchasing long-term home mortgage loans.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>10 percent requirement.</I>—(1) <I>Conditional approval.</I> If a de novo insured depository institution applicant that commenced its initial business operations less than one year before applying for Bank membership is subject to, but cannot yet meet, the 10 percent requirement of section 4(a)(2)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(A)) and § 1263.6(b) as provided in § 1263.10, a Bank may conditionally approve that applicant for membership if it meets all other applicable requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval may become final.</I> If, within one year after commencement of its initial business operations, an institution that was conditionally approved for membership under paragraph (c)(1) of this section supplies evidence acceptable to the Bank that it satisfies the 10 percent requirement as provided under § 1263.10, its membership approval shall become final.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval may become void.</I> If an institution that was conditionally approved for membership under paragraph (c)(1) does not satisfy the requirements of paragraph (c)(2) of this section, it shall be deemed to be out of compliance with the 10 percent requirement, and its conditional membership approval shall become void.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Home financing policy requirement.</I>—(1) <I>Conditional approval.</I> If a de novo insured depository institution applicant cannot meet the home financing policy requirement of section 4(a)(2)(C) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)(2)(C)) and § 1263.6(a)(6) as provided under § 1263.13 because it has not received its first CRA performance evaluation, a Bank may conditionally approve that applicant for membership if it meets all other applicable requirements and has included in its application a written justification acceptable to the Bank of how and why its home financing credit policy and lending practices will meet the credit needs of its community.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Approval may become final.</I> If an institution that was conditionally approved for membership under paragraph (d)(1) of this section supplies evidence acceptable to the Bank that it has satisfied the home financing policy requirement as provided under § 1263.13 by receiving a CRA rating of “Satisfactory” or better on its first CRA performance evaluation, its membership approval shall cease to be conditional.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Approval may become void.</I> If an institution that was conditionally approved for membership under paragraph (d)(1) of this section receives a rating of “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Non-Compliance” on its first CRA performance evaluation, and fails to rebut the presumption of non-compliance with the home financing policy requirement as provided under § 1263.17(f), it shall be deemed to be out of compliance with that requirement and its conditional membership approval shall become void.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other rules.</I> An institution that has been conditionally approved for membership under paragraph (c)(1) or (d)(1) of this section shall be subject to all regulations applicable to members generally, including those relating to stock purchase requirements and or collateral, notwithstanding that its membership may be conditional for some period of time. If an institution's conditional membership approval becomes void as provided in paragraphs (c)(3) or (d)(3) of this section, then the Bank shall liquidate any outstanding indebtedness owed by the institution to the Bank and redeem or repurchase its capital stock in accordance with § 1263.29.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.15   Recently consolidated applicants.</HEAD>
<P>An applicant that has recently consolidated with another institution is subject to the requirements of §§ 1263.7 to 1263.13 except as provided in this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Financial condition requirement.</I> For purposes of § 1263.11(a)(1) and 1263.11(b)(3)(i)(A), a recently consolidated applicant that has not yet filed regulatory financial reports as a consolidated entity for six quarters or three calendar year-ends shall provide to the Bank:
</P>
<P>(1) All regulatory financial reports that the applicant has filed as a consolidated entity; and
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pro forma</I> combined financial statements for those quarters for which actual combined regulatory financial reports are unavailable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Home financing policy requirement.</I> For purposes of § 1263.13, a recently consolidated applicant that has not yet received its first CRA performance evaluation as a consolidated entity shall file as part of its application a written justification acceptable to the Bank of how and why the applicant's home financing credit policy and lending practices will meet the credit needs of its community.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Makes long-term home mortgage loans requirement; 10 percent requirement.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with §§ 1263.9 and 1263.10, a Bank may, in its discretion, permit a recently consolidated applicant that has not yet filed a regulatory financial report as a consolidated entity to provide the <I>pro forma</I> financial statement for the consolidated entity that the consolidating entities filed with the regulator that approved the consolidation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.16   Financial condition requirement for insurance company and certain CDFI applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Insurance companies.</I>—(1) An insurance company applicant shall be deemed to meet the financial condition requirement of § 1263.6(a)(4) if the Bank determines:
</P>
<P>(i) Based on the information contained in the applicant's most recent regulatory financial report filed with its appropriate regulator, that the applicant meets all of its minimum statutory and regulatory capital requirements and the capital standards established by the NAIC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Based on the applicant's most recent audited financial statements, that the applicant's financial condition is such that the Bank can safely make advances to it.
</P>
<P>(2) In making the determination required under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section, the Bank shall use audited financial statements that have been prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, if they are available. If they are not available, the Bank may use audited financial statements prepared in accordance with statutory accounting principles.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CDFIs other than CDFI credit unions.</I>—(1) <I>Review requirement.</I> In order for a Bank to determine whether a CDFI applicant, other than a CDFI credit union, has complied with the financial condition requirement of § 1263.6(a)(4), the applicant shall submit, as a part of its membership application, each of the following documents, and the Bank shall consider all such information prior to acting on the application for membership:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Financial statements.</I> An independent audit conducted within the prior year in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards by a certified public accounting firm, plus more recent quarterly statements, if available, and financial statements for the two years prior to the most recent audited financial statement. At a minimum, all such financial statements must include income and expense statements, statements of activities, statements of financial position, and statements of cash flows. The financial statement for the most recent year must include separate schedules or disclosures of the financial position of each of the applicant's affiliates, descriptions of their lines of business, detailed financial disclosures of the relationship between the applicant and its affiliates (such as indebtedness or subordinate debt obligations), disclosures of interlocking directorships with each affiliate, and identification of temporary and permanently restricted funds and the requirements of these restrictions;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>CDFI Fund certification.</I> The certification that the applicant has received from the CDFI Fund. If the certification is more than three years old, the applicant must also submit a written statement attesting that there have been no material events or occurrences since the date of certification that would adversely affect its strategic direction, mission, or business operations; and
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Additional information.</I> Any other relevant document or information a Bank requests concerning the applicant's financial condition that is not contained in the applicant's financial statements, as well as any other information that the applicant believes demonstrates that it satisfies the financial condition requirement of § 1263.6(a)(4), notwithstanding its failure to meet any of the financial condition standards of paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Standards.</I> A CDFI applicant, other than a CDFI credit union, shall be deemed to be in compliance with the financial condition requirement of § 1263.6(a)(4) if it meets all of the following minimum financial standards—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Net asset ratio.</I> The applicant's ratio of net assets to total assets is at least 20 percent, with net and total assets including restricted assets, where net assets is calculated as the residual value of assets over liabilities and is based on information derived from the applicant's most recent financial statements;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Earnings.</I> The applicant has shown positive net income, where net income is calculated as gross revenues less total expenses, is based on information derived from the applicant's most recent financial statements, and is measured as a rolling three-year average;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Loan loss reserves.</I> The applicant's ratio of loan loss reserves to loans and leases 90 days or more delinquent (including loans sold with full recourse) is at least 30 percent, where loan loss reserves are a specified balance sheet account that reflects the amount reserved for loans expected to be uncollectible and are based on information derived from the applicant's most recent financial statements;
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Liquidity.</I> The applicant has an operating liquidity ratio of at least 1.0 for the four most recent quarters, and for one or both of the two preceding years, where the numerator of the ratio includes unrestricted cash and cash equivalents and the denominator of the ratio is the average quarterly operating expense.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.17   Rebuttable presumptions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Rebutting presumptive compliance.</I> The presumption that an applicant meeting the requirements of §§ 1263.7 to 1263.16 is in compliance with the corresponding eligibility requirements of section 4(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)) and § 1263.6(a) and (b), may be rebutted, and the Bank may deny membership to an applicant, if the Bank obtains substantial evidence to overcome the presumption of compliance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rebutting presumptive noncompliance.</I> The presumption that an applicant not meeting a particular requirement of §§ 1263.8, 1263.11, 1263.12, 1263.13, or 1263.16, is not in compliance with the corresponding eligibility requirement of section 4(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424(a)) and § 1263.6(a) may be rebutted and the applicant shall be deemed to be in compliance with an eligibility requirement, if it satisfies the applicable requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Presumptive noncompliance by insurance company applicant with “subject to inspection and regulation” requirement of § 1263.8.</I> If an insurance company applicant is not subject to inspection and regulation by an appropriate State regulator accredited by the NAIC, as required by § 1263.8, the applicant or the Bank shall prepare a written justification that provides substantial evidence acceptable to the Bank that the applicant is subject to inspection and regulation as required by § 1263.6(a)(2), notwithstanding the regulator's lack of NAIC accreditation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Presumptive noncompliance with financial condition requirements of §§ 1263.11 and 1263.16</I>—(1) <I>Applicants subject to § 1263.11.</I> For applicants subject to § 1263.11, in the case of an applicant's lack of a composite regulatory examination rating within the two-year period required by § 1263.11(b)(1), a variance from the rating required by § 1263.11(b)(3)(i), or a variance from a performance trend criterion required by § 1263.11(b)(3)(i), the applicant or the Bank shall prepare a written justification pertaining to such requirement that provides substantial evidence acceptable to the Bank that the applicant is in the financial condition required by § 1263.6(a)(4), notwithstanding the lack of rating or variance.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Applicants subject to § 1263.16.</I> For applicants subject to § 1263.16, in the case of an insurance company applicant's variance from a capital requirement or standard of § 1263.16(a) or, in the case of a CDFI applicant's variance from the standards of § 1263.16(b), the applicant or the Bank shall prepare a written justification pertaining to such requirement or standard that provides substantial evidence acceptable to the Bank that the applicant is in the financial condition required by § 1263.6(a)(4), notwithstanding the variance.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Presumptive noncompliance with character of management requirement of § 1263.12</I>—(1) <I>Enforcement actions.</I> If an applicant or any of its directors or senior officers is subject to, or operating under, any enforcement action instituted by its appropriate regulator, the applicant shall provide or the Bank shall obtain:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Regulator confirmation.</I> Written or verbal confirmation from the applicant's appropriate regulator that the applicant or its directors or senior officers are in substantial compliance with all aspects of the enforcement action; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written analysis.</I> A written analysis acceptable to the Bank indicating that the applicant or its directors or senior officers are in substantial compliance with all aspects of the enforcement action. The written analysis shall state each action the applicant or its directors or senior officers are required to take by the enforcement action, the actions actually taken by the applicant or its directors or senior officers, and whether the applicant regards this as substantial compliance with all aspects of the enforcement action.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative proceedings.</I> If an applicant or any of its directors or senior officers has been the subject of any criminal, civil or administrative proceedings reflecting upon creditworthiness, business judgment, or moral turpitude since the most recent regulatory examination report or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, during the past three years, the applicant shall provide or the Bank shall obtain—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Regulator confirmation.</I> Written or verbal confirmation from the applicant's appropriate regulator that the proceedings will not likely result in an enforcement action; or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written analysis.</I> A written analysis acceptable to the Bank indicating that the proceedings will not likely result in an enforcement action or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, that the proceedings will not likely have a significantly deleterious effect on the applicant's operations. The written analysis shall state the severity of the charges, and any mitigating action taken by the applicant or its directors or senior officers.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, lawsuits or judgments.</I> If there are any known potential criminal, civil or administrative monetary liabilities, material pending lawsuits, or unsatisfied judgments against the applicant or any of its directors or senior officers since the most recent regulatory examination report or, in the case of a CDFI applicant, occurring within the past three years, that are significant to the applicant's operations, the applicant shall provide or the Bank shall obtain—
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Regulator confirmation.</I> Written or verbal confirmation from the applicant's appropriate regulator that the liabilities, lawsuits or judgments will not likely cause the applicant to fall below its applicable capital requirements set forth in §§ 1263.11(b)(2) and 1263.16(a); or
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Written analysis.</I> A written analysis acceptable to the Bank indicating that the liabilities, lawsuits or judgments will not likely cause the applicant to fall below its applicable capital requirements set forth in § 1263.11(b)(2) or § 1263.16(a), or the net asset ratio set forth in § 1263.16(b)(2)(i). The written analysis shall state the likelihood of the applicant or its directors or senior officers prevailing, and the financial consequences if the applicant or its directors or senior officers do not prevail.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Presumptive noncompliance with home financing policy requirements of §§ 1263.13 and 1263.14(d).</I> If an applicant received a “Substantial Non-Compliance” rating on its most recent CRA performance evaluation, or a “Needs to Improve” CRA rating on its most recent CRA performance evaluation and a CRA rating of “Needs to Improve” or better on any immediately preceding formal CRA performance evaluation, the applicant shall provide or the Bank shall obtain:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Regulator confirmation.</I> Written or verbal confirmation from the applicant's appropriate regulator of the applicant's recent satisfactory CRA performance, including any corrective action that substantially improved upon the deficiencies cited in the most recent CRA performance evaluation(s); or
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Written analysis.</I> A written analysis acceptable to the Bank demonstrating that the CRA rating is unrelated to home financing, and providing substantial evidence of how and why the applicant's home financing credit policy and lending practices meet the credit needs of its community.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.18   Determination of appropriate Bank district for membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility.</I> (1) An institution eligible to be a member of a Bank under the Bank Act and this part may be a member only of the Bank of the district in which the institution's principal place of business is located, except as provided in paragraph (a)(2) of this section. A member shall promptly notify its Bank in writing whenever it relocates its principal place of business to another State and the Bank shall inform FHFA in writing of any such relocation.
</P>
<P>(2) An institution eligible to become a member of a Bank under the Bank Act and this part may be a member of the Bank of a district adjoining the district in which the institution's principal place of business is located, if demanded by convenience and then only with the approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Principal place of business.</I> Except as otherwise designated in accordance with this section, the principal place of business of an institution is the State in which the institution maintains its home office established as such in conformity with the laws under which the institution is organized and from which the institution conducts business operations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation of principal place of business</I>—(1) A member or an applicant for membership may request in writing to the Bank in the district where the institution maintains its home office that a State other than the State in which it maintains its home office be designated as its principal place of business. Within 90 calendar days of receipt of such written request, the board of directors of the Bank in the district where the institution maintains its home office shall designate a State other than the State where the institution maintains its home office as the institution's principal place of business, provided that, all of the following criteria are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 80 percent of the institution's accounting books, records, and ledgers are maintained, located or held in such designated State;
</P>
<P>(ii) A majority of meetings of the institution's board of directors and constituent committees are conducted in such designated State; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A majority of the institution's five highest paid officers have their place of employment located in such designated State.
</P>
<P>(2) Written notice of a designation made pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall be sent to the Bank in the district containing the designated State, FHFA, and the institution.
</P>
<P>(3) The notice of designation made pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall include the State designated as the principal place of business and the Bank of which the subject institution is eligible to be a member.
</P>
<P>(4) If the board of directors of the Bank in the district where the institution maintains its home office fails to make the designation requested by the member or applicant pursuant to paragraph (c)(1) of this section, then the member or applicant may request in writing that FHFA make the designation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transfer of membership.</I> (1) In the case of a member whose principal place of business has been designated as a State located in another Bank district in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, or in the case of a member that has relocated its principal place of business to a State in another Bank district, the transfer of membership from one Bank to another Bank shall not take effect until the Banks involved reach an agreement on a method of orderly transfer.
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that the Banks involved fail to agree on a method of orderly transfer, FHFA shall determine the conditions under which the transfer shall take place.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Effect of transfer.</I> A transfer of membership pursuant to this section shall be effective for all purposes, but shall not affect voting rights in the year of the transfer and shall not be subject to the provisions on termination of membership set forth in section 6 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426) or §§ 1263.26 and 1263.27, nor the restriction on reacquiring Bank membership set forth in § 1263.30.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Insurance companies and CDFIs.</I> (1) For an insurance company or CDFI that cannot satisfy the requirements of paragraphs (b) or (c) of this section for designating its principal place of business, a Bank shall designate as the principal place of business the geographic location from which the institution actually conducts the predominant portion of its business activities.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank may deem an institution to conduct the predominant portion of its business activities in a particular State if any two of the following three factors are present:
</P>
<P>(i) The institution's largest office, as measured by the number of employees, is located in that State;
</P>
<P>(ii) A plurality of the institution's employees are located in that State; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The places of employment for a plurality of the institution's senior executives are located in that State.
</P>
<P>(3) If a Bank cannot designate a State as the principal place of business under paragraph (f)(1) of this section, and cannot otherwise identify a geographic location from which the institution actually conducts the predominant portion of its business activities, it shall designate the State of domicile or incorporation as the principal place of business for that institution.
</P>
<P>(4) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2) of this section, the term “senior executive” means all officers at or above the level of “senior vice president” and includes the positions of president, executive vice president, chief executive officer, chief financial officer, chief operating officer, general counsel, as well as any individuals who perform functions similar to those positions whether or not the individual has an official title.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Records.</I> A Bank designating the principal place of business for a member under this section shall document the bases for its determination in writing and shall include that documentation in the membership digest and application file for the institution that are required under § 1263.2.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.3.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.19   Non-federally-insured credit unions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Applicants.</I> Except where otherwise provided, a non-federally-insured credit union applying to become a member of a Bank shall be treated as an insured depository institution for purposes of determining its eligibility for membership under this part, provided that all of the following requirements have been met:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice.</I> Upon receiving from a non-federally-insured credit union an application for membership, a Bank shall promptly notify the applicant in writing that its application will not be deemed complete or be acted upon by the Bank until the applicant has, in addition to satisfying all other generally applicable requirements, complied with paragraph (a)(2) of this section and subsequently provided one of the items listed in paragraph (a)(3) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request to regulator.</I> After receiving the notice required under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, a non-federally-insured credit union applicant shall send to its appropriate State regulator a written request for a determination that the applicant met all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request. The applicant shall provide to the Bank a copy of that request simultaneously with its transmittal to the regulator.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Completion of application.</I> A Bank may deem the application of a non-federally-insured credit union to be complete and may act upon the application, as provided under § 1263.3(c), only if it has received from the applicant one of the following items:
</P>
<P>(i) A written statement from the applicant's appropriate State regulator that the applicant met all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) A written statement from the applicant's appropriate State regulator that it cannot or will not make a determination regarding the applicant's eligibility for Federal share insurance; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A written statement from the applicant, prepared no earlier than the end of the six-month period beginning on the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section, certifying that the applicant did not receive from its appropriate State regulator within that six-month period either a response as described in paragraph (a)(3)(i) or (ii) of this section or a response stating that the applicant did not meet all of the eligibility requirements for Federal share insurance as of the date of the request sent pursuant to paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Members canceling Federal share insurance.</I> A Bank member that is a federally insured credit union and that subsequently cancels its Federal share insurance may remain a member of the Bank, subject to all regulatory provisions applicable to insured depository institution members, provided that the Bank has determined that the institution has canceled its Federal share insurance voluntarily.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[82 FR 25723, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Stock Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.20   Stock purchase.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum purchase requirement.</I> An institution that has been approved for membership in a Bank as provided in this part shall become a member of that Bank upon purchasing the amount of stock required under the membership stock purchase provisions of that Bank's capital structure plan. If an institution fails to purchase the minimum amount of stock required for membership within 60 calendar days after the date on which it is approved for membership, the membership approval shall become void and that institution may not become a member of that Bank until after it has filed a new application and the Bank has approved that application pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Issuance of stock.</I> After approving an institution for membership, and in return for payment in full of the par value, a Bank shall issue to that institution the amount of capital stock required to be purchased under the Bank's capital structure plan.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reports.</I> Each Bank shall report to FHFA information regarding the minimum investment in Bank capital stock made by each new member referred to in paragraph (a) of this section, in accordance with the instructions provided in the Data Reporting Manual.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.21   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.22   Annual calculation of stock holdings.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall calculate annually each member's required minimum holdings of Bank stock using calendar year-end financial data provided by the member to the Bank, pursuant to § 1263.31(d), and shall notify each member of the result. The notice shall clearly state that the Bank's calculation of each member's minimum stock holdings is to be used to determine the number of votes that the member may cast in that year's election of directors and shall identify the State within the district in which the member will vote. A member that does not agree with the Bank's calculation of the minimum stock purchase requirement or with the identification of its voting State may request FHFA to review the Bank's determination. FHFA shall promptly determine the member's minimum required holdings and its proper voting State, which determination shall be final.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.23   Excess stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sale of excess stock.</I> Subject to the restriction in paragraph (b) of this section, a member may purchase excess stock as long as the purchase is approved by the member's Bank and is permitted by the laws under which the member operates.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction.</I> Any Bank with excess stock greater than one percent of its total assets shall not declare or pay any dividends in the form of additional shares of Bank stock or otherwise issue any excess stock. A Bank shall not issue excess stock, as a dividend or otherwise, if after the issuance, the outstanding excess stock at the Bank would be greater than one percent of its total assets.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Withdrawal, Termination and Readmission</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.24   Consolidations involving members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidation of members.</I> Upon the consolidation of two or more institutions that are members of the same Bank into one institution operating under the charter of one of the consolidating institutions, the membership of the surviving institution shall continue and the membership of each disappearing institution shall terminate on the cancellation of its charter. Upon the consolidation of two or more institutions, at least two of which are members of different Banks, into one institution operating under the charter of one of the consolidating institutions, the membership of the surviving institution shall continue and the membership of each disappearing institution shall terminate upon cancellation of its charter, provided, however, that if more than 80 percent of the assets of the consolidated institution are derived from the assets of a disappearing institution, then the consolidated institution shall continue to be a member of the Bank of which that disappearing institution was a member prior to the consolidation, and the membership of the other institutions shall terminate upon the effective date of the consolidation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consolidation into nonmember</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Upon the consolidation of a member into an institution that is not a member of a Bank, where the consolidated institution operates under the charter of the nonmember institution, the membership of the disappearing institution shall terminate upon the cancellation of its charter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notification.</I> If a member has consolidated into a nonmember that has its principal place of business in a State in the same Bank district as the former member, the consolidated institution shall have 60 calendar days after the cancellation of the charter of the former member within which to notify the Bank of the former member that the consolidated institution intends to apply for membership in such Bank. If the consolidated institution does not so notify the Bank by the end of the period, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by the former member, shall settle all outstanding business transactions with the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application.</I> If such a consolidated institution has notified the appropriate Bank of its intent to apply for membership, the consolidated institution shall submit an application for membership within 60 calendar days of so notifying the Bank. If the consolidated institution does not submit an application for membership by the end of the period, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by the former member, shall settle all outstanding business transactions with the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Outstanding indebtedness.</I> If a member has consolidated into a nonmember institution, the Bank need not require the former member or its successor to liquidate any outstanding indebtedness owed to the Bank or to redeem its Bank stock, as otherwise may be required under § 1263.29, during:
</P>
<P>(i) The initial 60 calendar-day notification period;
</P>
<P>(ii) The 60 calendar-day period following receipt of a notification that the consolidated institution intends to apply for membership; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The period of time during which the Bank processes the application for membership.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Approval of membership.</I> If the application of such a consolidated institution is approved, the consolidated institution shall become a member of that Bank upon the purchase of the amount of Bank stock necessary, when combined with any Bank stock acquired from the disappearing member, to satisfy the minimum stock purchase requirements established by the Bank's capital structure plan.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Disapproval of membership.</I> If the Bank disapproves the application for membership of the consolidated institution, the Bank shall require the liquidation of any outstanding indebtedness owed by, and the settlement of all other outstanding business transactions with, the former member, and shall redeem or repurchase the Bank stock owned by the former member in accordance with § 1263.29.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dividends on acquired Bank stock.</I> A consolidated institution shall be entitled to receive dividends on the Bank stock that it acquires as a result of a consolidation with a member in accordance with applicable FHFA regulations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.25   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.26   Voluntary withdrawal from membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) Any institution may withdraw from membership by providing to the Bank written notice of its intent to withdraw from membership. A member that has so notified its Bank shall be entitled to have continued access to the benefits of membership until the effective date of its withdrawal. The Bank need not commit to providing any further services, including advances, to a withdrawing member that would mature or otherwise terminate subsequent to the effective date of the withdrawal. A member may cancel its notice of withdrawal at any time prior to its effective date by providing a written cancellation notice to the Bank. A Bank may impose a fee on a member that cancels a notice of withdrawal, provided that the fee or the manner of its calculation is specified in the Bank's capital plan.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank shall notify FHFA within 10 calendar days of receipt of any notice of withdrawal or notice of cancellation of withdrawal from membership.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Effective date of withdrawal.</I> The membership of an institution that has submitted a notice of withdrawal shall terminate as of the date on which the last of the applicable stock redemption periods ends for the stock that the member is required to hold, as of the date that the notice of withdrawal is submitted, under the terms of a Bank's capital plan as a condition of membership, unless the institution has cancelled its notice of withdrawal prior to the effective date of the termination of its membership.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Stock redemption periods.</I> The receipt by a Bank of a notice of withdrawal shall commence the applicable 6-month and 5-year stock redemption periods, respectively, for all of the Class A and Class B stock held by that member that is not already subject to a pending request for redemption. In the case of an institution, the membership of which has been terminated as a result of a merger or other consolidation into a nonmember or into a member of another Bank, the applicable stock redemption periods for any stock that is not subject to a pending notice of redemption shall be deemed to commence on the date on which the charter of the former member is cancelled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.27   Involuntary termination of membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds.</I> The board of directors of a Bank may terminate the membership of any institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Fails to comply with any requirement of the Bank Act, any regulation adopted by FHFA, or any requirement of the Bank's capital plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Becomes insolvent or otherwise subject to the appointment of a conservator, receiver, or other legal custodian under federal or State law; or
</P>
<P>(3) Would jeopardize the safety or soundness of the Bank if it were to remain a member.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Stock redemption periods.</I> The applicable 6-month and 5-year stock redemption periods, respectively, for all of the Class A and Class B stock owned by a member and not already subject to a pending request for redemption, shall commence on the date that the Bank terminates the institution's membership.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Membership rights.</I> An institution whose membership is terminated involuntarily under this section shall cease being a member as of the date on which the board of directors of the Bank acts to terminate the membership, and the institution shall have no right to obtain any of the benefits of membership after that date, but shall be entitled to receive any dividends declared on its stock until the stock is redeemed or repurchased by the Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.28   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.29   Disposition of claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> If an institution withdraws from membership or its membership is otherwise terminated, the Bank shall determine an orderly manner for liquidating all outstanding indebtedness owed by that member to the Bank and for settling all other claims against the member. After all such obligations and claims have been extinguished or settled, the Bank shall return to the member all collateral pledged by the member to the Bank to secure its obligations to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank stock.</I> If an institution that has withdrawn from membership or that otherwise has had its membership terminated remains indebted to the Bank or has outstanding any business transactions with the Bank after the effective date of its termination of membership, the Bank shall not redeem or repurchase any Bank stock that is required to support the indebtedness or the business transactions until after all such indebtedness and business transactions have been extinguished or settled.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.5.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.30   Readmission to membership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> An institution that has withdrawn from membership or otherwise has had its membership terminated and which has divested all of its shares of Bank stock, may not be readmitted to membership in any Bank, or acquire any capital stock of any Bank, for a period of five years from the date on which its membership terminated and it divested all of its shares of Bank stock.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exceptions.</I> An institution that transfers membership between two Banks without interruption shall not be deemed to have withdrawn from Bank membership or had its membership terminated.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Other Membership Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.31   Reports and examinations.</HEAD>
<P>As a condition precedent to Bank membership, each member:
</P>
<P>(a) Consents to such examinations as the Bank or FHFA may require for purposes of the Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(b) Agrees that reports of examination by local, State, or Federal agencies or institutions, or by any private entity providing share insurance to a member that is a non-federally-insured credit union or a CDFI credit union, may be furnished by such authorities or entities to the Bank or FHFA upon request;
</P>
<P>(c) Agrees to give the Bank or the appropriate Federal banking agency, upon request, such information as the Bank or the appropriate Federal banking agency may need to compile and publish cost of funds indices and to publish other reports or statistical summaries pertaining to the activities of Bank members;
</P>
<P>(d) Agrees to provide the Bank with calendar year-end financial data each year, for purposes of making the calculation described in § 1263.22; and
</P>
<P>(e) To the extent applicable, agrees to provide to the Bank, within 20 days of filing, copies of reports of condition and operations required to be filed with:
</P>
<P>(1) The member's appropriate Federal banking agency;
</P>
<P>(2) The member's appropriate State regulator; or
</P>
<P>(3) Any private entity providing share insurance to a member that is a non-federally-insured credit union or a CDFI credit union.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 3277, Jan. 20, 2016, as amended at 82 FR 25723, June 5, 2017]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1263.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.44.6.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1263.32   Official membership insignia.</HEAD>
<P>Members may display the approved insignia of membership on their documents, advertising and quarters, and likewise use the words “Member Federal Home Loan Bank System.”


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1264" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1264—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK HOUSING ASSOCIATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430b, 4511, 4513 and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1264 appear at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1264.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Governmental agency</I> means the governor, legislature, and any other component of a federal, state, local, tribal, or Alaskan native village government with authority to act for or on behalf of that government. 
</P>
<P><I>State housing finance agency</I> or <I>SHFA</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A public agency, authority, or publicly sponsored corporation that serves as an instrumentality of any state or political subdivision of any state, and functions as a source of residential mortgage loan financing in that state; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A legally established agency, authority, corporation, or organization that serves as an instrumentality of any Indian tribe, band, group, nation, community, or Alaskan Native village recognized by the United States or any state, and functions as a source of residential mortgage loan financing for the Indian or Alaskan Native community. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 12849, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1264.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.2   Bank authority to make advances to housing associates.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the provisions of the Bank Act and part 1266 of this chapter, a Bank may make advances to an entity that is not a member of the Bank if the Bank has certified the entity as a housing associate under the provisions of this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1264.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.3   Housing associate eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> A Bank may certify as a housing associate any applicant that meets the following requirements, as determined using the criteria set forth in § 1264.4: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant is approved under title II of the National Housing Act (12 U.S.C. 1707, <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant is a chartered institution having succession; 
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant is subject to the inspection and supervision of some governmental agency; 
</P>
<P>(4) The principal activity of the applicant in the mortgage field consists of lending its own funds; and 
</P>
<P>(5) The financial condition of the applicant is such that advances may be safely made to it. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>State housing finance agencies.</I> In addition to meeting the requirements in paragraph (a) of this section, any applicant seeking access to advances as a SHFA pursuant to § 1266.17(b)(2) of this chapter shall provide evidence satisfactory to the Bank, such as a copy of, or a citation to, the statutes and/or regulations describing the applicant's structure and responsibilities, that the applicant is a state housing finance agency as defined in § 1264.1. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 75 FR 76622, Dec. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1264.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.4   Satisfaction of eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>HUD approval requirement.</I> An applicant shall be deemed to meet the requirement in section 10b(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430b(a)) and § 1264.3(a)(1) that it be approved under title II of the National Housing Act if it submits a current HUD Yearly Verification Report or other documentation issued by HUD stating that the Federal Housing Administration of HUD has approved the applicant as a mortgagee. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Charter requirement.</I> An applicant shall be deemed to meet the requirement in section 10b(a) of the Bank Actand § 1264.3(a)(2) that it be a chartered institution having succession if it provides evidence satisfactory to the Bank, such as a copy of, or a citation to, the statutes and/or regulations under which the applicant was created, that: 
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant is a government agency; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant is chartered under state, federal, local, tribal, or Alaskan Native village law as a corporation or other entity that has rights, characteristics, and powers under applicable law similar to those granted a corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Inspection and supervision requirement.</I> (1) An applicant shall be deemed to meet the inspection and supervision requirement in section 10b(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430b(a)) and § 1264.3(a)(3) if it provides evidence satisfactory to the Bank, such as a copy of, or a citation to, relevant statutes and/or regulations, that, pursuant to statute or regulation, the applicant is subject to the inspection and supervision of a federal, state, local, tribal, or Alaskan native village governmental agency. 
</P>
<P>(2) An applicant shall be deemed to meet the inspection requirement if there is a statutory or regulatory requirement that the applicant be audited or examined periodically by a governmental agency or by an external auditor. 
</P>
<P>(3) An applicant shall be deemed to meet the supervision requirement if the governmental agency has statutory or regulatory authority to remove an applicant's officers or directors for cause or otherwise exercise enforcement or administrative control over actions of the applicant. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Mortgage activity requirement.</I> An applicant shall be deemed to meet the mortgage activity requirement in section 10b(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430b(a)) and § 1264.3(a)(4) if it provides documentary evidence satisfactory to the Bank, such as a financial statement or other financial documents that include the applicant's mortgage loan assets and their funding liabilities, that it lends its own funds as its principal activity in the mortgage field. For purposes of this paragraph, lending funds includes, but is not limited to, the purchase of whole mortgage loans. In the case of a federal, state, local, tribal, or Alaskan Native village government agency, appropriated funds shall be considered an applicant's own funds. An applicant shall be deemed to satisfy this requirement notwithstanding that the majority of its operations are unrelated to mortgage lending if its mortgage activity conforms to this requirement. An applicant that acts principally as a broker for others making mortgage loans, or whose principal activity is to make mortgage loans for the account of others, does not meet this requirement. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Financial condition requirement.</I> An applicant shall be deemed to meet the financial condition requirement in § 1264.3(a)(5) if the Bank determines that advances may be safely made to the applicant. The applicant shall submit to the Bank copies of its most recent regulatory audit or examination report, or external audit report, and any other documentary evidence, such as financial or other information, that the Bank may require to make the determination. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 12849, Mar. 20, 2002; 70 FR 9510, Feb. 28, 2005; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1264.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.5   Housing associate application process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> The Banks are authorized to approve or deny all applications for certification as a housing associate, subject to the requirements of the Bank Act and this part. A Bank may delegate the authority to approve applications for certification as a housing associate only to a committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president other than an officer with responsibility for business development. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application requirements.</I> An applicant for certification as a housing associate shall submit an application that satisfies the requirements of the Bank Act and this part to the Bank of the district in which the applicant's principal place of business, as determined in accordance with part 925 of this title, is located. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank decision process</I>—(1) <I>Action on applications.</I> A Bank shall approve or deny an application for certification as a housing associate within 60 calendar days of the date the Bank deems the application to be complete. A Bank shall deem an application complete, and so notify the applicant in writing, when it has obtained all of the information required by this part and any other information it deems necessary to process the application. If a Bank determines during the review process that additional information is necessary to process the application, the Bank may deem the application incomplete and stop the 60-day time period by providing written notice to the applicant. When the Bank receives the additional information, it shall again deem the application complete, so notify the applicant in writing, and resume the 60-day time period where it stopped. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Decision on applications.</I> The Bank or a duly delegated committee of the Bank's board of directors, the Bank president, or a senior officer who reports directly to the Bank president other than an officer with responsibility for business development shall approve, or the board of directors of a Bank shall deny, each application for certification as a housing associate by a written decision resolution stating the grounds for the decision. Within three business days of a Bank's decision on an application, the Bank shall provide the applicant and the FHFA with a copy of the Bank's decision resolution. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>File.</I> The Bank shall maintain a certification file for each applicant for at least three years after the date the Bank decides whether to approve or deny certification or the date the FHFA resolves any appeal, whichever is later. At a minimum, the certification file shall include all documents submitted by the applicant or otherwise obtained or generated by the Bank concerning the applicant, all documents the Bank relied upon in making its determination regarding certification, including copies of statutes and regulations, and the decision resolution.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 9510, Feb. 28, 2005; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1264.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.45.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1264.6   Appeals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Within 90 calendar days of the date of a Bank's decision to deny an application for certification as a housing associate, the applicant may submit a written appeal to FHFA that includes the Bank's decision resolution and a statement of the basis for the appeal with sufficient facts, information, analysis and explanation to support the applicant's position. Send appeals to the Deputy Director for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation, Federal Housing Finance Agency, 400 7th Street SW., Seventh Floor, Washington, DC 20219, with a copy to the Bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Record for appeal.</I> Upon receiving a copy of an appeal, the Bank whose action has been appealed shall provide to the FHFA a complete copy of the applicant's certification file maintained by the Bank under § 1264.5(c)(3). Until the FHFA resolves the appeal, the Bank shall promptly provide to the FHFA any relevant new materials it receives. The FHFA may request additional information or further supporting arguments from the applicant, the Bank, or any other party that the FHFA deems appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deciding appeals.</I> Within 90 calendar days of the date an applicant files an appeal with the FHFA, the FHFA shall consider the record for appeal described in paragraph (b) of this section and resolve the appeal based on the requirements of the Bank Act and this part. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44426, July 18, 2000, as amended at 70 FR 9510, Feb. 28, 2005; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 80 FR 80233, Dec. 24, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1265" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.46" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1265—CORE MISSION ACTIVITIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511, 4513 and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 25278, May 1, 2000, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1265.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.46.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1265.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Advance</I> means a loan from a Bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided pursuant to a written agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Supported by a note or other written evidence of the borrower's obligations; and
</P>
<P>(3) Fully secured by collateral in accordance with the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1421 through 1449) and applicable regulations.
</P>
<P><I>SBIC</I> means a small business investment company formed pursuant to section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 681).
</P>
<P><I>Targeted income level</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For rural areas, incomes at or below 115 percent of the median income for the area, as adjusted for family size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable area median income standard or, at the option of the Bank, for a family of four; and
</P>
<P>(2) For urban areas, incomes at or below 100 percent of the median income for the area, as adjusted for family size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable area median income standard or, at the option of the Bank, for a family of four.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1265.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.46.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1265.2   Mission of the Banks.</HEAD>
<P>The mission of the Banks is to provide to their members' and housing associates financial products and services, including but not limited to advances, that assist and enhance such members' and housing associates financing: 
</P>
<P>(a) Financing of housing, including single-family and multi-family housing serving consumers at all income levels; and 
</P>
<P>(b) Community lending.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 25278, May 1, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 12850, Mar. 20, 2002; 67 FR 39791, June 10, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1265.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.46.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1265.3   Core mission activities.</HEAD>
<P>The following Bank activities qualify as core mission activities: 
</P>
<P>(a) Advances; 
</P>
<P>(b) Acquired member assets (AMA), except that United States government-insured or guaranteed whole single-family residential mortgage loans acquired under a commitment entered into after April 12, 2000 shall qualify only in a cumulative dollar amount up to 33 percent of: The cumulative total dollar amount of AMA acquired by a Bank after April 12, 2000, less the cumulative dollar amount of United States government-insured or guaranteed whole single-family residential mortgage loans acquired after April 12, 2000 under commitments entered into on or before April 12, 2000 (which calculation, at the discretion of two or more Banks, may be made based on aggregate transactions among those Banks); 
</P>
<P>(c) Standby letters of credit; 
</P>
<P>(d) Intermediary derivative contracts; 
</P>
<P>(e) Debt or equity investments: 
</P>
<P>(1) That primarily benefit households having a targeted income level, a significant proportion of which must benefit households with incomes at or below 80 percent of area median income, or areas targeted for redevelopment by local, state, tribal or Federal government (including Federal Empowerment Zones and Enterprise and Champion Communities), by providing or supporting one or more of the following activities: 
</P>
<P>(i) Housing; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Economic development; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Community services; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Permanent jobs; or
</P>
<P>(v) Area revitalization or stabilization; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of mortgage- or asset-backed securities, the acquisition of which would expand liquidity for loans that are not otherwise adequately provided by the private sector and do not have a readily available or well established secondary market; and
</P>
<P>(3) That involve one or more members or housing associates in a manner, financial or otherwise, and to a degree to be determined by the Bank; 
</P>
<P>(f) Investments in SBICs, where one or more members or housing associates of the Bank also make a material investment in the same activity; 
</P>
<P>(g) SBIC debentures, the short term tranche of SBIC securities, ore other debentures that are guaranteed by the Small Business Administration under title III of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958, as amended (15 U.S.C. 681 <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(h) Section 108 Interim Notes and Participation Certificates guaranteed by the Department of Housing and Urban Development under section 108 of the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5308); and
</P>
<P>(i) Investments and obligations issued or guaranteed under the Native American Housing Assistance and Self-Determination Act of 1996 (25 U.S.C. 4101 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 43981, July 17, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1266" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1266—ADVANCES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511(b), 4513, 4526(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 8256, Feb. 18, 2000, and 75 FR 76622, Dec. 9, 2010.
</PSPACE></SOURCE>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>Nomenclature changes to part 1266 appear at 75 FR 76622, Dec. 9, 2010.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Advances to Members</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part: 
</P>
<P><I>Advance</I> means a loan from a Bank that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Provided pursuant to a written agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Supported by a note or other written evidence of the borrower's obligation; and
</P>
<P>(3) Fully secured by collateral in accordance with the Bank Act and this part.
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any business entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, a member.
</P>
<P><I>Capital deficient member</I> means a member that fails to meet its minimum regulatory capital requirements as defined or otherwise required by the member's appropriate federal banking agency, insurer or, in the case of members that are not federally insured depository institutions, state regulator. 
</P>
<P><I>Cash equivalents</I> means investments that— 
</P>
<P>(1) Are readily convertible into known amounts of cash; 
</P>
<P>(2) Have a remaining maturity of 90 days or less at the acquisition date; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Are held for liquidity purposes.
</P>
<P><I>CFI member</I> means a member that is a Community Financial Institution, as defined in § 1263.1 of this chapter, except that, for purposes of this part, the member's average of total assets over three years shall be calculated by the Bank: 
</P>
<P>(1) Based on the average of total assets drawn from the institution's regulatory financial reports (as defined in § 1263.1 of this chapter) filed with its appropriate regulator (as defined in § 1263.1 of this chapter) for the three most recent calendar year-ends; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Annually, and shall be effective April 1 of each year. 
</P>
<P><I>Community development</I> has the same meaning as under the definition set forth in the Community Reinvestment rule for the Federal Reserve System (12 CFR part 228), Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (12 CFR part 345), the Office of Thrift Supervision (12 CFR part 563e) or the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (12 CFR part 25), whichever is the CFI member's primary Federal regulator.
</P>
<P><I>Community development loan</I> means a loan, or a participation interest in such loan, that has as its primary purpose community development, but such loans shall not include:
</P>
<P>(1) Any loan or instrument that qualifies as eligible security for an advance under § 1266.7(a) of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) Any loan that qualifies as a small agri-business loan, small business loan or small farm loan, under definitions set forth in this section; or
</P>
<P>(3) Consumer loans or credit extended to one or more individuals for household, family or other personal expenditures.
</P>
<P><I>Credit union</I> means a credit union as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752). 
</P>
<P><I>Depository institution</I> means a bank, savings association, or credit union. 
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling unit</I> means a single room or a unified combination of rooms designed for residential use by one household. 
</P>
<P><I>Improved residential real property</I> means residential real property excluding real property to be improved, or in the process of being improved, by the construction of dwelling units. 
</P>
<P><I>Insurer</I> means the FDIC for insured depository institutions, as defined section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2)), and the NCUA for federally-insured credit unions. 
</P>
<P><I>Long-term advance</I> means an advance with an original term to maturity greater than five years. 
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured housing</I> means a manufactured home as defined in section 603(6) of the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5402(6)). 
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An equity security representing an ownership interest in:
</P>
<P>(i) Fully disbursed, whole first mortgage loans on improved residential real property; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Mortgage pass-through or participation securities which are themselves backed entirely by fully disbursed, whole first mortgage loans on improved residential real property; or
</P>
<P>(2) An obligation, bond, or other debt security backed entirely by the assets described in paragraph (1)(i) or (ii) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily property</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1)(i) Real property that is solely residential and which includes five or more dwelling units; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Real property which includes five or more dwelling units with commercial units combined, provided the property is primarily residential. 
</P>
<P>(2) Multifamily property as defined in this section includes nursing homes, dormitories and homes for the elderly. 
</P>
<P><I>Nonresidential real property</I> means real property not used for residential purposes, including business or industrial property, hotels, motels, churches, hospitals, educational and charitable institutions, clubs, lodges, association buildings, golf courses, recreational facilities, farm property not containing a dwelling unit, or similar types of property, except as otherwise determined by the FHFA in its discretion. 
</P>
<P><I>One-to-four family property</I> means any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Real property containing: 
</P>
<P>(i) One-to-four dwelling units; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) More than four dwelling units if each unit is separated from the other units by dividing walls that extend from ground to roof, including row houses, townhouses or similar types of property; 
</P>
<P>(2) Manufactured housing if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Applicable state law defines the purchase or holding of manufactured housing as the purchase or holding of real property; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The loan to purchase the manufactured housing is secured by that manufactured housing; 
</P>
<P>(3) Individual condominium dwelling units or interests in individual cooperative housing dwelling units that are part of a condominium or cooperative building without regard to the number of total dwelling units therein; or 
</P>
<P>(4) Real property containing one-to-four dwelling units with commercial units combined, provided the property is primarily residential. 
</P>
<P><I>Residential housing finance assets</I> means any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Loans secured by residential real property;
</P>
<P>(2) Mortgage-backed securities;
</P>
<P>(3) Participations in loans secured by residential real property;
</P>
<P>(4) Loans or investments providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries;
</P>
<P>(5) Loans secured by manufactured housing, regardless of whether such housing qualifies as residential real property;
</P>
<P>(6) Any loans or investments which FHFA, in its discretion, otherwise determines to be residential housing finance assets; and
</P>
<P>(7) For CFI members, and to the extent not already included in categories (1) through (6), small business loans, small farm loans, small agri-business loans, or community development loans.
</P>
<P><I>Residential real property</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any of the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) One-to-four family property; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Multifamily property; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Real property to be improved by the construction of dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Real property in the process of being improved by the construction of dwelling units; 
</P>
<P>(2) The term residential real property does not include nonresidential real property as defined in this section. 
</P>
<P><I>Savings association</I> means a savings association as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)). 
</P>
<P><I>Small agri-business loans</I> means loans to finance agricultural production and other loans to farmers that are within the legal lending limit of the reporting CFI member, and that are reported on either: Schedule RC-C, Part I, item 3 of the Report of Condition and Income filed by insured commercial banks and FDIC-supervised savings banks; or Schedule SC300, SC303 or SC306 of the Thrift Financial Report filed by savings associations (or equivalent successor schedules). 
</P>
<P><I>Small business loans</I> means commercial and industrial loans that are within the legal lending limit of the reporting CFI member and that are reported on either: Schedule RC-C, Part I, item 1.e or Schedule RC-C, Part I, item 4 of the Report of Condition and Income filed by insured commercial banks and FDIC-supervised savings banks; or Schedule SC300, SC303 or SC306 of the Thrift Financial Report filed by savings associations (or equivalent successor schedules). 
</P>
<P><I>Small farm loans</I> means loans secured primarily by farmland that are within the legal lending limit of the reporting CFI member, and that are reported on either: Schedule RC-C, Part I, item 1.a. or 1.b. of the Report of Condition and Income filed by insured commercial banks and FDIC-supervised savings banks; or Schedule SC260 of the Thrift Financial Report filed by savings associations (or equivalent successor schedules).
</P>
<P><I>State housing finance agency</I> or <I>SHFA</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1264.1 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P><I>State regulator</I> means a state insurance commissioner or state regulatory entity with primary responsibility for supervising a member borrower that is not a federally insured depository institution. 
</P>
<P><I>Tangible capital</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Capital, calculated according to GAAP, less “intangible assets” except for purchased mortgage servicing rights to the extent such assets are included in a member's core or Tier 1 capital, as reported in a member's Report of Condition and Income for members whose primary federal regulator is the FDIC, the OCC, or the FRB.
</P>
<P>(2) Capital calculated according to GAAP, less intangible assets, as defined by a Bank for members that are not regulated by the FDIC, the OCC, or the FRB; provided that a Bank shall include a member's purchased mortgage servicing rights to the extent such assets are included for the purpose of meeting regulatory capital requirements. In addition, for those members that are insurance companies and that do not file or otherwise prepare financial statements based on GAAP, Banks may base this calculation on the member's financial statements prepared using Statutory Accounting Principles as implemented by the insurance company member's appropriate state regulator.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted beneficiaries</I> has the meaning set forth in § 952.1 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 58 FR 29477, May 20, 1993; 59 FR 2949, Jan. 20, 1994; 62 FR 8871, Feb. 27, 1997; 62 FR 12079, Mar. 14, 1997; 63 FR 35128, June 29, 1998; 63 FR 65545, Nov. 27, 1998; 64 FR 16621, Apr. 6, 1999; 65 FR 8262, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44428, July 18, 2000; 66 FR 50295, Oct. 3, 2001; 67 FR 12850, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 76622, Dec. 9, 2010; 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.2   Authorization and application for advances; obligation to repay advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Application for advances.</I> A Bank may accept oral or written applications for advances from its members. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Obligation to repay advances.</I> (1) A Bank shall require any member to which an advance is made to enter into a primary and unconditional obligation to repay such advance and all other indebtedness to the Bank, together with interest and any unpaid costs and expenses in connection therewith, according to the terms under which such advance was made or other indebtedness incurred. 
</P>
<P>(2) Such obligations shall be evidenced by a written advances agreement that shall be reviewed by the Bank's legal counsel to ensure such agreement is in compliance with applicable law. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secured advances.</I> (1) Each Bank shall make only fully secured advances to its members as set forth in the Bank Act, the provisions of this part and policy guidelines established by the FHFA. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank shall execute a written security agreement with each borrowing member which establishes the Bank's security interest in collateral securing advances. 
</P>
<P>(3) Such written security agreement shall, at a minimum, describe the type of collateral securing the advances and give the Bank a perfectible security interest in the collateral. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Form of applications and agreements.</I> Applications for advances, advances agreements and security agreements shall be in substantially such form as approved by the Bank's board of directors, or a committee thereof specifically authorized by the board of directors to approve such forms. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Status of secured lending.</I> All secured transactions, regardless of the form of the transaction, for money borrowed from a Bank by a member of any Bank shall be considered an advance subject to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 71278, Dec. 21, 1999; 65 FR 8262, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000; 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.3   Purpose of long-term advances; Proxy test.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Bank shall make long-term advances only for the purpose of enabling any member to purchase or fund new or existing residential housing finance assets.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Prior to approving an application for a long-term advance, a Bank shall determine that the principal amount of all long-term advances currently held by the member does not exceed the total book value of residential housing finance assets held by such member. The Bank shall determine the total book value of such residential housing finance assets, using the most recent Thrift Financial Report, Report of Condition and Income, financial statement or other reliable documentation made available by the member.
</P>
<P>(2) Applications for CICA advances are exempt from the requirements of paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.4   Limitations on access to advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Credit underwriting.</I> A Bank, in its discretion, may: 
</P>
<P>(1) Limit or deny a member's application for an advance if, in the Bank's judgment, such member: 
</P>
<P>(i) Is engaging or has engaged in any unsafe or unsound banking practices; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Has inadequate capital; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Is sustaining operating losses; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Has financial or managerial deficiencies, as determined by the Bank, that bear upon the member's creditworthiness; or 
</P>
<P>(v) Has any other deficiencies, as determined by the Bank; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Make advances and renewals only if the Bank determines that it may safely make such advance or renewal to the member, including advances and renewals made pursuant to this section. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>New advances to members without positive tangible capital.</I> (1) A Bank shall not make a new advance to a member without positive tangible capital unless the member's appropriate federal banking agency or insurer requests in writing that the Bank make such advance. The Bank shall promptly provide the FHFA with a copy of any such request. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank shall use the most recently available Thrift Financial Report, Report of Condition, and Income or other regulatory report of financial condition to determine whether a member has positive tangible capital. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Renewals of advances to members without positive tangible capital</I>—(1) <I>Renewal for 30-day terms.</I> A Bank may renew outstanding advances, for successive terms of up to 30 days each, to a member without positive tangible capital; provided, however, that a Bank shall honor any written request of the appropriate federal banking agency or insurer that the Bank not renew such advances. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Renewal for longer than 30-day terms.</I> A Bank may renew outstanding advances to a member without positive tangible capital for a term greater than 30 days at the written request of the appropriate federal banking agency or insurer. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Advances to capital deficient but solvent members.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (d)(2)(i) of this section, a Bank may make a new advance or renew an outstanding advance to a capital deficient member that has positive tangible capital. 
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A Bank shall not lend to a capital deficient member that has positive tangible capital if it receives written notice from the appropriate federal banking agency or insurer that the member's use of Bank advances has been prohibited. The Bank shall promptly provide the FHFA with a copy of any such notice. 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank may resume lending to such a capital deficient member if the Bank receives a written statement from the appropriate federal banking agency or insurer which re-establishes the member's ability to use advances.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting.</I> (1) Each Bank shall provide the FHFA with a report of the advances and commitments outstanding to each of its members in accordance with the instructions provided in the Data Reporting Manual issued by the FHFA, as amended from time to time.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Bank shall, upon written request from a member's appropriate federal banking agency or insurer, provide to such entity information on advances and commitments outstanding to the member.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Members without federal regulators.</I> In the case of members that are not federally insured depository institutions, the references in paragraphs (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this section to “appropriate federal banking agency or insurer” shall mean the member's state regulator acting in a capacity similar to an appropriate federal banking agency or insurer. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Advance commitments.</I> (1) In the event that a member's access to advances from a Bank is restricted pursuant to this section, the Bank shall not fund outstanding commitments for advances not exercised prior to the imposition of the restriction. This requirement shall apply to all advance commitments made by a Bank after August 25, 1993.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Bank shall include the stipulation contained in paragraph (g)(1) of this section as a clause in either:
</P>
<P>(i) The written advances agreement required by § 1266.2(b)(2) of this part; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The written advances application required by § 1266.2(a) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 59 FR 2949, Jan. 20, 1994; 64 FR 71278, Dec. 21, 1999; 65 FR 8263, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002; 71 FR 35500, June 21, 2006]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.5   Terms and conditions for advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advance maturities.</I> Each Bank shall offer advances with maturities of up to ten years, and may offer advances with longer maturities consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advance pricing</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A Bank shall not price its advances to members below: 
</P>
<P>(i) The marginal cost to the Bank of raising matching term and maturity funds in the marketplace, including embedded options; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The administrative and operating costs associated with making such advances to members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Differential pricing.</I> (i) Each Bank may, in pricing its advances, distinguish among members based upon its assessment of: 
</P>
<P>(A) The credit and other risks to the Bank of lending to any particular member; or 
</P>
<P>(B) Other reasonable criteria that may be applied equally to all members. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Each Bank shall include in its member products policy required by § 917.4 of this title, standards and criteria for such differential pricing and shall apply such standards and criteria consistently and without discrimination to all members applying for advances. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exceptions.</I> The advance pricing policies contained in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall not apply in the case of: 
</P>
<P>(i) A Bank's CICA programs; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other advances programs that are volume limited and specifically approved by the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authorization for pricing advances.</I> (1) A Bank's board of directors, a committee thereof, or the Bank's president, if so authorized by the Bank's board of directors, shall set the rates of interest on advances consistent with paragraph (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank president authorized to set interest rates on advances pursuant to this paragraph (c) may delegate any part of such authority to any officer or employee of the Bank. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Putable or convertible advances</I>—(1) <I>Disclosure.</I> A Bank that offers a putable or convertible advance to a member shall disclose in writing to such member the type and nature of the risks associated with putable or convertible advance funding. The disclosure should include detail sufficient to describe such risks. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Replacement funding for putable advances.</I> If a Bank terminates a putable advance prior to the stated maturity date of such advance, the Bank shall offer to provide replacement funding to the member, provided the member is able to satisfy the normal credit and collateral requirements of the Bank for the replacement funding requested.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of this paragraph (d), the term <I>putable advance</I> means an advance that a Bank may, at its discretion, terminate and require the member to repay prior to the stated maturity date of the advance. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 61 FR 52687, Oct. 8, 1996; 65 FR 8263, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.6   Fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Fees in member products policy.</I> All fees charged by each Bank and any schedules or formulas pertaining to such fees shall be included in the Bank's member products policy required by § 917.4 of this title. Any such fee schedules or formulas shall be applied consistently and without discrimination to all members. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prepayment fees.</I> (1) Except where an advance product contains a prepayment option, each Bank shall establish and charge a prepayment fee pursuant to a specified formula which makes the Bank financially indifferent to the borrower's decision to repay the advance prior to its maturity date.
</P>
<P>(2) Prepayment fees are not required for: 
</P>
<P>(i) Advances with original terms to maturity or repricing periods of six months or less; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Advances funded by callable debt; or 
</P>
<P>(iii) Advances which are otherwise appropriately hedged so that the Bank is financially indifferent to their prepayment. 
</P>
<P>(3) The board of directors of each Bank, a designated committee thereof, or officers specifically authorized by the board of directors, may waive a prepayment fee only if such prepayment will not result in an economic loss to the Bank. Any such waiver must subsequently be ratified by the board of directors. 
</P>
<P>(4) A Bank, in determining whether or not to waive a prepayment fee, shall apply consistent standards to all of its members. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Commitment fees.</I> Each Bank may charge a fee for its commitment to fund an advance. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other fees.</I> Each Bank is authorized to charge other fees as it deems necessary and appropriate. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993; 65 FR 8263, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.7   Collateral.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible security for advances to all members.</I> At the time of origination or renewal of an advance, each Bank shall obtain from the borrowing member or, in accordance with paragraph (g) of this section, an affiliate of the borrowing member, and thereafter maintain, a security interest in collateral that meets the requirements of one or more of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Mortgage loans and privately issued securities.</I> (i) Fully disbursed, whole first mortgage loans on improved residential real property not more than 90 days delinquent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Privately issued mortgage-backed securities, excluding the following:
</P>
<P>(A) Securities that represent a share of only the interest payments or only the principal payments from the underlying mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(B) Securities that represent a subordinate interest in the cash flows from the underlying mortgage loans;
</P>
<P>(C) Securities that represent an interest in any residual payments from the underlying pool of mortgage loans; or
</P>
<P>(D) Such other high-risk securities as the FHFA in its discretion may determine. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Agency securities.</I> Securities issued, insured or guaranteed by the United States Government, or any agency thereof, including without limitation:
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgage-backed securities issued or guaranteed by Freddie Mac, Fannie Mae, Ginnie Mae, or any other agency of the United States Government; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Mortgages or other loans, regardless of delinquency status, to the extent that the mortgage or loan is insured or guaranteed by the United States or any agency thereof, or otherwise is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States, and such insurance, guarantee or other backing is for the direct benefit of the holder of the mortgage or loan; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Securities backed by, or representing an equity interest in, mortgages or other loans referred to in paragraph (a)(2)(ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Cash or deposits.</I> Cash or deposits in a Bank. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other real estate-related collateral.</I> (i) Other real estate-related collateral provided that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Such collateral has a readily ascertainable value, can be reliably discounted to account for liquidation and other risks, and can be liquidated in due course; and 
</P>
<P>(B) The Bank can perfect a security interest in such collateral. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Eligible other real estate-related collateral may include, but is not limited to: 
</P>
<P>(A) Privately issued mortgage-backed securities not otherwise eligible under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section; 
</P>
<P>(B) Second mortgage loans, including home equity loans; 
</P>
<P>(C) Commercial real estate loans; and 
</P>
<P>(D) Mortgage loan participations. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Securities representing equity interests in eligible advances collateral.</I> Any security the ownership of which represents an undivided equity interest in underlying assets, all of which qualify either as: 
</P>
<P>(i) Eligible collateral under paragraphs (a)(1), (2), (3) or (4) of this section; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Cash equivalents. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional collateral eligible as security for advances to CFI members or their affiliates</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Subject to the requirements set forth in part 1272 of this chapter, a Bank is authorized to accept from CFI members or their affiliates as security for advances small business loans, small farm loans, small agri-business loans, or community development loans, in each case fully secured by collateral other than real estate, or securities representing a whole interest in such secured loans, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) Such collateral has a readily ascertainable value, can be reliably discounted to account for liquidation and other risks, and can be liquidated in due course; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bank can perfect a security interest in such collateral. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Change in CFI status.</I> If a Bank determines, as of April 1 of each year, that a member that has previously qualified as a CFI no longer qualifies as a CFI, and the member has total advances outstanding that exceed the amount that can be fully secured by collateral under paragraph (a) of this section, the Bank may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Permit the advances of such member to run to their stated maturities; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Renew such member's advances to mature no later than March 31 of the following year; provided that the total of the member's advances under paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) of this section shall be fully secured by collateral set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bank restrictions on eligible advances collateral.</I> A Bank at its discretion may further restrict the types of eligible collateral acceptable to the Bank as security for an advance, based upon the creditworthiness or operations of the borrower, the quality of the collateral, or other reasonable criteria. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional advances collateral.</I> The provisions of paragraph (a) of this section shall not affect the ability of any Bank to take such steps as it deems necessary to protect its secured position on outstanding advances, including requiring additional collateral, whether or not such additional collateral conforms to the requirements for eligible collateral in paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section or section 10 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bank stock as collateral.</I> (1) Pursuant to section 10(c) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(c)), a Bank shall have a lien upon, and shall hold, the stock of a member in the Bank as further collateral security for all indebtedness of the member to the Bank. 
</P>
<P>(2) The written security agreement used by the Bank shall provide that the borrowing member's Bank stock is assigned as additional security by the member to the Bank. 
</P>
<P>(3) The security interest of the Bank in such member's Bank stock shall be entitled to the priority provided for in section 10(e) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(e)). 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Advances collateral security requiring formal approval.</I> No home mortgage loan otherwise eligible to be accepted as collateral for an advance by a Bank under this section shall be accepted as collateral for an advance if any director, officer, employee, attorney or agent of the Bank or of the borrowing member is personally liable thereon, unless the board of directors of the Bank has specifically approved such acceptance by formal resolution, and the FHFA has endorsed such resolution. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Pledge of advances collateral by affiliates.</I> Assets held by an affiliate of a member that are eligible as collateral under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section may be used to secure advances to that member only if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The collateral is pledged to secure either: 
</P>
<P>(i) The member's obligation to repay advances; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A surety or other agreement under which the affiliate has assumed, along with the member, a primary obligation to repay advances made to the member; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank obtains and maintains a legally enforceable security interest pursuant to which the Bank's legal rights and privileges with respect to the collateral are functionally equivalent in all material respects to those that the Bank would possess if the member were to pledge the same collateral directly, and such functional equivalence is supported by adequate documentation.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 16621, Apr. 6, 1999; 65 FR 8262, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000; 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.8   Banks as secured creditors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, notwithstanding any other provision of law, any security interest granted to a Bank by a member, or by an affiliate of a member, shall be entitled to priority over the claims and rights of any party, including any receiver, conservator, trustee or similar party having rights of a lien creditor, to such collateral. 
</P>
<P>(b) A Bank's security interest as described in paragraph (a) of this section shall not be entitled to priority over the claims and rights of a party that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Would be entitled to priority under otherwise applicable law; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Is an actual bona fide purchaser for value of such collateral or is an actual secured party whose security interest in such collateral is perfected in accordance with applicable state law.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993. Redesignated at 65 FR 8256, Feb. 18, 2000 and further redesignated at 65 FR 44429, July 18, 2000, as amended at 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002] 


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.9   Pledged collateral; verification.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collateral safekeeping.</I> (1) A Bank may permit a member that is a depository institution to retain documents evidencing collateral pledged to the Bank, provided that the Bank and such member have executed a written security agreement pursuant to § 1266.2(c) of this part whereby such collateral is retained solely for the Bank's benefit and subject to the Bank's control and direction. 
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank shall take any steps necessary to ensure that its security interest in all collateral pledged by non-depository institutions for an advance is as secure as its security interest in collateral pledged by depository institutions. 
</P>
<P>(3) A Bank may at any time perfect its security interest in collateral securing an advance to a member. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collateral verification.</I> Each Bank shall establish written procedures and standards for verifying the existence of collateral securing the Bank's advances, and shall regularly verify the existence of the collateral securing its advances in accordance with such procedures and standards.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 64 FR 16621, Apr. 6, 1999; 65 FR 8263, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000; 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.10   Collateral valuation; appraisals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Collateral valuation.</I> Each Bank shall determine the value of collateral securing the Bank's advances in accordance with the collateral valuation procedures set forth in the Bank's member products policy established pursuant to § 1239.30 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fair application of procedures.</I> Each Bank shall apply the collateral valuation procedures consistently and fairly to all borrowing members, and the valuation ascribed to any item of collateral by the Bank shall be conclusive as between the Bank and the member. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Appraisals.</I> A Bank may require a member to obtain an appraisal of any item of collateral, and to perform such other investigations of collateral as the Bank deems necessary and proper.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000, as amended at 81 FR 76297, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.11   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.12   Intradistrict transfer of advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Advances held by members.</I> A Bank may allow one of its members to assume an advance extended by the Bank to another of its members, provided the assumption complies with the requirements of this part governing the issuance of new advances. A Bank may charge an appropriate fee for processing the transfer.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advances held by nonmembers.</I> A Bank may allow one of its members to assume an advance held by a nonmember, provided the advance was originated by the Bank and provided the assumption complies with the requirements of this part governing the issuance of new advances. A Bank may charge an appropriate fee for processing the transfer.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 2950, Jan. 20, 1994. Redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.13   Special advances to savings associations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible institutions.</I> (1) A Bank, upon receipt of a written request from the OCC, with respect to a federal savings association, or from the FDIC, with respect to a state chartered savings association, may make short-term advances to a savings association member pursuant to section 10(h) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(h)).
</P>
<P>(2) Such request must certify that the savings association member:
</P>
<P>(i) Is solvent but presents a supervisory concern to the OCC or FDIC, as appropriate, because of the member's financial condition; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Has reasonable and demonstrable prospects of returning to a satisfactory financial condition.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> Advances made by a Bank to a member savings association under this section shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Be subject to all applicable collateral requirements of the Bank, this part and section 10(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(a)); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Be at the interest rate applicable to advances of similar type and maturity that are made available to other members that do not pose such a supervisory concern. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993. Redesignated at 65 FR 8256, Feb. 18, 2000 and further redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000; 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.14   Advances to the Savings Association Insurance Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Upon receipt of a written request from the FDIC, a Bank may make advances to the FDIC for the use of the Savings Association Insurance Fund. The Bank shall provide a copy of such request to the FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Requirements.</I> Advances to the FDIC for the use of the Savings Association Insurance Fund shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Bear a rate of interest not less than the Bank's marginal cost of funds, taking into account the maturities involved and reasonable administrative costs; 
</P>
<P>(2) Have a maturity acceptable to the Bank; 
</P>
<P>(3) Be subject to any prepayment, commitment, or other appropriate fees of the Bank; and 
</P>
<P>(4) Be adequately secured by collateral acceptable to the Bank. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 8262, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.1.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.15   Liquidation of advances upon termination of membership.</HEAD>
<P>If an institution's membership in a Bank is terminated, the Bank shall determine an orderly schedule for liquidating any indebtedness of such member to the Bank; this section shall not require a Bank to call any such indebtedness prior to maturity of the advance. The Bank shall deem any such liquidation a prepayment of the member's indebtedness, and the member shall be subject to any fees applicable to such prepayment. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993. Redesignated at 65 FR 8256, Feb. 18, 2000 and further redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Advances to Housing Associates</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>62 FR 12079, Mar. 14, 1997, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1266.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.16   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Except as otherwise provided in §§ 1266.14 and 1266.17, the requirements of subpart A apply to this subpart.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993. Redesignated at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1266.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.47.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1266.17   Advances to housing associates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Subject to the provisions of the Bank Act and this subpart, a Bank may make advances only to a housing associate whose principal place of business, as determined in accordance with part 1263 of this chapter, is located in the Bank's district. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Collateral requirements</I>—(1) <I>Advances to housing associates.</I> A Bank may make an advance to any housing associate upon the security of the following collateral: 
</P>
<P>(i) Mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration of HUD under title II of the National Housing Act; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities representing a whole interest in the principal and interest payments due on a pool of mortgage loans insured by the Federal Housing Administration of HUD under title II of the National Housing Act. A Bank may only accept as collateral the securities described in this paragraph (b)(1)(ii) if the housing associate provides evidence that such securities are backed solely by mortgages of the type described in paragraph (b)(1)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Certain advances to SHFAs.</I> (i) In addition to the collateral described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, a Bank may make an advance to a housing associate that has satisfied the requirements of § 1264.3(b) for the purpose of facilitating residential or commercial mortgage lending that benefits individuals or families meeting the income requirements in section 142(d) or 143(f) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 142(d) or 143(f)) upon the security of the following collateral: 
</P>
<P>(A) The collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(1) or (2). 
</P>
<P>(B) The collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(3). Solely for the purpose of facilitating acceptance of such collateral, a Bank may establish a cash collateral account for a housing associate that has satisfied the requirements of § 1264.3(b). 
</P>
<P>(C) The other real estate-related collateral described in § 1266.7(a)(4), provided that such collateral comprises mortgage loans on one-to-four family or multifamily residential property. 
</P>
<P>(ii) Prior to making an advance pursuant to this paragraph (b)(2), a Bank shall obtain a written certification from the housing associate that it shall use the proceeds of the advance for the purposes described in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Terms and conditions</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> Subject to the provisions of this paragraph (c), a Bank, in its discretion, shall determine whether, and on what terms, it will make advances to a housing associate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Advance pricing.</I> (i) A Bank shall price advances to housing associates in accordance with the requirements for pricing advances to members set forth in § 1266.5(b). Wherever the term “member” appears in § 1266.5(b) the term shall be construed also to mean “housing associate.” 
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank shall apply the pricing criteria identified in § 1266.5(b)(2) equally to all of its member and housing associate borrowers. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limit on advances.</I> The principal amount of any advance made to a housing associate may not exceed 90 percent of the unpaid principal of the mortgage loans or securities pledged as security for the advance. This limit does not apply to an advance made to a housing associate under paragraph (b)(2) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Transaction accounts.</I> Solely for the purpose of facilitating the making of advances to a housing associate, a Bank may establish a transaction account for each housing associate. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Loss of eligibility</I>—(1) <I>Notification of status changes.</I> A Bank shall require a housing associate that applies for an advance to agree in writing that it will promptly inform the Bank of any change in its status as a housing associate. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Verification of eligibility.</I> A Bank may, from time to time, require a housing associate to provide evidence that it continues to satisfy all of the eligibility requirements of the Bank Act, this subpart and part 1264 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loss of eligibility.</I> A Bank shall not extend a new advance or renew an existing advance to a housing associate that no longer meets the eligibility requirements of the Bank Act, this subpart and part 1264 of this chapter until the entity has provided evidence satisfactory to the Bank that it is in compliance with such requirements.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[58 FR 29469, May 20, 1993, as amended at 65 FR 203, Jan. 4, 2000; 65 FR 8263, Feb. 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 65 FR 44430, July 18, 2000; 67 FR 12851, Mar. 20, 2002; 70 FR 9510, Feb. 28, 2005; 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1267" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.48" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1267—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK INVESTMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 1436, 4511, 4513, 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 29151, May 20, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1267.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.48.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1267.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Asset-backed security</I> means a debt instrument backed by loans, but does not include debt instruments that meet the definition of a mortgage-backed security.
</P>
<P><I>Deposits in banks or trust companies</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit in another Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A demand account in a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit in or sale of Federal funds to:
</P>
<P>(i) An insured depository institution, as defined in section 2(9) of the Bank Act, that is designated by the Bank's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) A trust company that is a member of the Federal Reserve System or insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and is designated by the Bank's board of directors; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign Bank as defined in the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended, (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>) that is subject to supervision of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and is designated by the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means generally a financial contract the value of which is derived from the values of one or more referenced assets, rates, or indices of asset values, or credit-related events. Derivative contracts include interest rate derivative contracts, foreign exchange rate derivative contracts, equity derivative contracts, precious metals derivative contracts, commodity derivative contracts and credit derivatives, and any other instruments that pose similar risks.
</P>
<P><I>Indexed principal swap</I> means an interest rate swap agreement in which the notional principal balance amortizes based upon the prepayment experience of a specified group of mortgage-backed securities or asset-backed securities or the behavior of an interest rate index.
</P>
<P><I>Interest-only stripped security</I> means a class of mortgage-backed or asset-backed security that is allocated only the interest payments made on the underlying mortgages or loans and receives no principal payments.
</P>
<P><I>Investment quality</I> means a determination made by the Bank with respect to a security or obligation that, based on documented analysis, including consideration of the sources for repayment on the security or obligation:
</P>
<P>(1) There is adequate financial backing so that full and timely payment of principal and interest on such security or obligation is expected; and
</P>
<P>(2) There is minimal risk that the timely payment of principal or interest would not occur because of adverse changes in economic and financial conditions during the projected life of the security or obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage-backed security</I> means a security or instrument, including collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs), and Real Estate Mortgage Investment Trusts (REMICS), that represents an interest in, or is secured by, one or more pools of mortgage loans.
</P>
<P><I>Principal-only stripped security</I> means a class of mortgage-backed or asset-backed security that is allocated only the principal payments made on the underlying mortgages or loans and receives no interest payments.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> shall have the meaning set forth in § 1229.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29151, May 20, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 78 FR 67008, Nov. 8, 2013; 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1267.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.48.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1267.2   Authorized investments and transactions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In addition to assets enumerated in parts 1266 and 1268 of this chapter and subject to the applicable limitations set forth in this part, and in part 1272 of this chapter, each Bank may invest in:
</P>
<P>(1) Obligations of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits in banks or trust companies;
</P>
<P>(3) Obligations, participations or other instruments of, or issued by, the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Government National Mortgage Association;
</P>
<P>(4) Mortgages, obligations, or other securities that are, or ever have been, sold by the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation pursuant to section 305 or 306 of the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act (12 U.S.C. 1454 or 1455);
</P>
<P>(5) Stock, obligations, or other securities of any small business investment company formed pursuant to 15 U.S.C. 681, to the extent such investment is made for purposes of aiding members of the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(6) Instruments that the Bank has determined are permissible investments for fiduciary or trust funds under the laws of the state in which the Bank is located.
</P>
<P>(b) Subject to any applicable limitations set forth in this part and in part 1272 of this chapter, a Bank also may enter into the following types of transactions:
</P>
<P>(1) Derivative contracts;
</P>
<P>(2) Standby letters of credit, pursuant to the requirements of part 1269 of this title;
</P>
<P>(3) Forward asset purchases and sales;
</P>
<P>(4) Commitments to make advances; and
</P>
<P>(5) Commitments to make or purchase other loans.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29151, May 20, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 91688, Dec. 19, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1267.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.48.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1267.3   Prohibited investments and prudential rules.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prohibited investments.</I> A Bank may not invest in:
</P>
<P>(1) Instruments that provide an ownership interest in an entity, except for investments described in § 1265.3(e) and (f) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) Instruments issued by non-United States entities, except United States branches and agency offices of foreign commercial banks;
</P>
<P>(3) Debt instruments that are not investment quality, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Investments described in § 1265.3(e) of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Debt instruments that a Bank determined became less than investment quality because of developments or events that occurred after acquisition of the instrument by the Bank;
</P>
<P>(4) Whole mortgages or other whole loans, or interests in mortgages or loans, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Acquired member assets;
</P>
<P>(ii) Investments described in § 1265.3(e) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Marketable direct obligations of state, local, or Tribal government units or agencies, that are investment quality, where the purchase of such obligations by the Bank provides to the issuer the customized terms, necessary liquidity, or favorable pricing required to generate needed funding for housing or community lending;
</P>
<P>(iv) Mortgage-backed securities, or asset-backed securities collateralized by manufactured housing loans or home equity loans, that meet the definition of the term “securities” under 15 U.S.C. 77b(a)(1) and are not otherwise prohibited under paragraphs (a)(5) through (a)(7) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(v) Loans held or acquired pursuant to section 12(b) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432(b)).
</P>
<P>(5) Residual interest and interest accrual classes of securities;
</P>
<P>(6) Interest-only and principal-only stripped securities; and
</P>
<P>(7) Fixed rate mortgage-backed securities or eligible asset-backed securities or floating rate mortgage-backed securities or eligible asset-backed securities that on the trade date are at rates equal to their contractual cap, with average lives that vary more than six years under an assumed instantaneous interest rate change of 300 basis points, unless the instrument qualifies as an acquired member asset under part 955 of this title.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Foreign currency or commodity positions prohibited.</I> A Bank may not take a position in any commodity or foreign currency. The Banks may issue consolidated obligations denominated in a currency other than U.S. Dollars or linked to equity or commodity prices, provided that the Banks meet the requirements of § 1270.9(d) of this chapter, and all other applicable requirements related to issuing consolidated obligations.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limits on certain investments.</I> (1) A purchase, otherwise authorized under this part, of mortgage-backed securities or asset-backed securities, may not cause the aggregate value of all such securities held by the Bank to exceed 300 percent of the Bank's total capital. For purposes of this limitation, such aggregate value will be measured as of the transaction trade date for such purchase, and total capital will be the most recent amount reported by a Bank to FHFA. A Bank will not be required to divest securities solely to bring the level of its holdings into compliance with the limits of this paragraph, provided that the original purchase of the securities complied with the limits in this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank's purchase of any mortgage-backed or asset-backed security may not cause the value of its total holdings of mortgage-backed and asset-backed securities, measured as of the transaction trade date for such purchase, to increase in any calendar quarter by more than 50 percent of its total capital as of the beginning of such quarter.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of applying the limits under this paragraph (c), the value of relevant mortgage-backed or asset-backed securities shall be calculated based on amortized historical costs for securities classified as held-to-maturity or available-for-sale and on fair value for trading securities.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 29151, May 20, 2011, as amended at 79 FR 67009, Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1267.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.48.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1267.4   Limitations and prudential requirements on use of derivative instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Non-speculative use.</I> Derivative instruments that do not qualify as hedging instruments pursuant to GAAP may be used only if a non-speculative use is documented by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional Prohibitions.</I> (1) A Bank may not enter into interest rate swaps that amortize according to behavior of instruments described in § 1267.3(a)(5) or (6) of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank may not enter into indexed principal swaps that have average lives that vary by more than six years under an assumed instantaneous change in interest rates of 300 basis points, unless they are entered into in conjunction with the issuance of consolidated obligations or the purchase of permissible investments or entry into a permissible transaction in which all interest rate risk is passed through to the investor or counterparty.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Documentation requirements.</I> (1) Derivative transactions with a single counterparty shall be governed by a single master agreement when practicable.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank's agreement with the counterparty for over-the-counter derivative contracts shall include:
</P>
<P>(i) A requirement that market value determinations and subsequent adjustments of collateral be made at least on a monthly basis;
</P>
<P>(ii) A statement that failure of a counterparty to meet a collateral call will result in an early termination event;
</P>
<P>(iii) A description of early termination pricing and methodology, with the methodology reflecting a reasonable estimate of the market value of the over-the-counter derivative contract at termination (standard International Swaps and Derivatives Association, Inc. language relative to early termination pricing and methodology may be used to satisfy this requirement); and
</P>
<P>(iv) A requirement that the Bank's consent be obtained prior to the transfer of an agreement or contract by a counterparty.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1268" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1268—ACQUIRED MEMBER ASSETS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511, 4513, 4526.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 91688, Dec. 19, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1268.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any business entity that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with, a member.
</P>
<P><I>AMA investment grade</I> means a determination made by the Bank with respect to an asset or pool, based on documented analysis, including consideration of applicable insurance, credit enhancements, and other sources for repayment on the asset or pool, that the Bank has a high degree of confidence that it will be paid principal and interest in all material respects, even under reasonably likely adverse changes to expected economic conditions.
</P>
<P><I>AMA product</I> means a structure that is defined by a specific set of terms and conditions that comply with this part 1268 and that is established by a Bank for purposes of governing the Bank's purchase of AMA-eligible loans.
</P>
<P><I>AMA program</I> means a Bank-established program to buy mortgage loans that meet the requirements of this part, which may comprise multiple AMA products.
</P>
<P><I>Expected losses</I> means the loss on the asset or pool given the expected future economic and market conditions in the model or methodology used by the Bank under § 1268.5 and applicable to an AMA product.
</P>
<P><I>Participating financial institution</I> means a member or housing associate of a Bank that is authorized to sell, credit enhance, or service mortgage loans to or for its own Bank through an AMA program, or a member or housing associate of another Bank that has been authorized to sell, credit enhance, or service mortgage loans to or for the other Bank pursuant to an agreement between the Bank acquiring the AMA product and the Bank of which the selling institution is a member or housing associate.
</P>
<P><I>Pool</I> means a group of loans acquired under one or more loan funding commitments, contractual agreements, or similar arrangements.
</P>
<P><I>Qualified insurer</I> means an insurer that a Bank approves in accordance with § 1268.5(e)(1) to provide any form of mortgage insurance coverage on assets and pools purchased under an AMA program.
</P>
<P><I>Residential real property</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1266.1 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.2   Authorization for acquired member assets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Bank is authorized to invest in assets that qualify as AMA, subject to the requirements of this part and part 1272 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grandfathered transactions.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a Bank may continue to hold as AMA assets that were previously authorized by the Federal Housing Finance Board or FHFA for purchase as AMA, provided that the assets were purchased, and continue to be held, in compliance with that authorization.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.3   Asset requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Assets that qualify as AMA shall be limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) Whole loans that are eligible to secure advances under § 1266.7(a)(1)(i),
</P>
<P>(a)(2)(ii), (a)(4), or (b)(1) of this chapter, excluding:
</P>
<P>(1) Single-family mortgage loans where the loan amount exceeds the limits established pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1717(b)(2), unless the loan is guaranteed or insured by an agency or department of the U.S. government, in which case the limits in 12 U.S.C. 1717(b)(2) do not apply; and
</P>
<P>(2) Loans made to an entity, or secured by property, not located in a state;
</P>
<P>(b) Whole loans secured by manufactured housing, regardless of whether such housing qualifies as residential real property under applicable state law;
</P>
<P>(c) State and local housing finance agency bonds; or
</P>
<P>(d) Certificates representing interests in whole loans if:
</P>
<P>(1) The loans qualify as AMA under paragraphs (a) or (b) of this section and meet the nexus requirement of § 1268.4; and
</P>
<P>(2) The certificates:
</P>
<P>(i) Meet the credit enhancement requirements of § 1268.5;
</P>
<P>(ii) Are issued pursuant to an agreement between the Bank and a participating financial institution to share risks consistent with the requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Are acquired substantially by the initiating Bank or Banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.4   Member or housing associate nexus requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General provision.</I> To qualify as AMA, any assets described in § 1268.3 must be acquired in a purchase or funding transaction only from:
</P>
<P>(1) A participating financial institution, provided that the asset was:
</P>
<P>(i) Originated or issued by, through, or on behalf of the participating financial institution, or an affiliate thereof; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Held for a valid business purpose by the participating financial institution, or an affiliate thereof, prior to acquisition by the Bank; or
</P>
<P>(2) Another Bank, provided that the asset was originally acquired by the selling Bank consistent with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Special provision for housing finance agency bonds.</I> In the case of housing finance agency bonds acquired by a Bank from a housing associate located in the district of another Bank (local Bank), the arrangement required by the definition of “participating financial institution” in § 1268.1 between the acquiring Bank and the local Bank may be reached in accordance with the following process:
</P>
<P>(1) The housing finance agency shall first offer the local Bank right of first refusal to purchase, or negotiate the terms of, its proposed bond offering;
</P>
<P>(2) If the local Bank indicates, within three business days, it will negotiate in good faith to purchase the bonds, the housing finance agency may not offer to sell or negotiate the terms of a purchase with another Bank; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the local Bank declines the offer, or has failed to respond within three business days, the acquiring Bank will be considered to have an arrangement with the local Bank for purposes of this section and may offer to buy or negotiate the terms of a bond sale with the housing finance agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.5   Credit risk-sharing requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General credit risk-sharing requirement.</I> For each AMA product, the Bank shall implement and have in place at all times, a credit risk-sharing structure that:
</P>
<P>(1) Requires a participating financial institution to provide the credit enhancement necessary to enhance an eligible asset or pool to the credit quality specified by the terms and conditions of the AMA product, provided, however, that such credit enhancement results in the eligible asset or pool being at least AMA investment grade, as defined in § 1268.1; and
</P>
<P>(2) Meets the requirements of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of necessary credit enhancement.</I> (1) No later than 30 calendar days after the purchase of the asset or after a pool closes, the Bank shall determine the total credit enhancement necessary to enhance the asset or pool to at least AMA investment grade and to be consistent with the terms and conditions of a specific AMA product. The enhancement shall be for the life of the asset or pool. The Bank shall make this determination for each AMA product using a model and methodology that the Bank deems appropriate, subject to paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank shall document its basis for concluding that the contractual credit enhancement required from each participating financial institution with regard to a particular asset or pool will equal or exceed the credit enhancement level specified in the terms and conditions of the AMA product and determined in accordance with paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit risk-sharing structure.</I> Under any credit risk-sharing structure, the credit enhancement provided by the participating financial institution shall at all times meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The participating financial institution that is providing the credit enhancement required under this paragraph (c) shall in all cases:
</P>
<P>(i) Bear the direct economic consequences of actual credit losses on the asset or pool:
</P>
<P>(A) From the first dollar of loss up to the amount of expected losses; or
</P>
<P>(B) Immediately following expected losses, but in an amount equal to or exceeding the amount of expected losses; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Fully secure its direct credit enhancement obligation in accordance with § 1266.7; and
</P>
<P>(2) The participating financial institution also may provide all or a portion of the credit enhancement, with the approval of the Bank, by:
</P>
<P>(i) Contracting with an insurance affiliate of that participating financial institution to provide an enhancement, but only where such insurance is positioned in the credit risk-sharing structure so as to cover only losses remaining after the participating financial institution has borne losses as required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Purchasing loan-level insurance only where:
</P>
<P>(A) The participating financial institution is legally obligated at all times to maintain such insurance with a qualified insurer; and
</P>
<P>(B) Such insurance is positioned in the credit enhancement structure so as to cover only losses remaining after the participating financial institution has borne losses as required under paragraph (c)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(iii) Purchasing pool-level insurance only where:
</P>
<P>(A) The participating financial institution is legally obligated at all times to maintain such insurance with a qualified insurer;
</P>
<P>(B) Such insurance insures that portion of the required credit enhancement attributable to the geographic concentration and size of the pool; and
</P>
<P>(C) Such insurance is positioned last in the credit enhancement structure so as to cover only those losses remaining after all other elements of the credit enhancement structure have been exhausted;
</P>
<P>(iv) Contracting with another participating financial institution in the Bank's district to provide a credit enhancement consistent with this section, in return for compensation; or
</P>
<P>(v) Contracting with a participating financial institution in another Bank's district, pursuant to an arrangement between the two Banks, to provide a credit enhancement consistent with this section, in return for compensation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Loans guaranteed or insured by a department or agency of the U.S. government.</I> Instead of the structure set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, a participating financial institution also may provide the required credit enhancement through loan-level insurance that is issued by an agency or department of the U.S. government or is a guarantee from an agency or department of the U.S. government, provided that the government insurance or guarantee remains in place for as long as the Bank owns the loan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Qualified insurers.</I> (1) Within one year of January 18, 2017, each Bank must develop, and subsequently maintain, written financial and operational standards that an insurer must meet for the Bank to approve it as a qualified insurer. A Bank shall review qualified insurers at least once every two years to determine whether they still meet the financial and operational standards set by the Bank. A Bank may delegate responsibility for development of these standards and approval of qualified insurers to another Bank or group of Banks pursuant to § 1268.8.
</P>
<P>(2) Only qualified insurers may provide private loan insurance on AMA eligible assets or the loan or pool insurance allowed as part of the credit enhancement structure for AMA products under paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) or (iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appropriate methodology for calculating credit enhancement.</I> A Bank shall use a model and methodology for estimating the amount of credit enhancement for an asset or pool. A Bank shall provide to FHFA upon request information about the model and methodology, including and without limitation results of any model runs and the results of any tests of the model performed by the Bank. FHFA reserves the right to direct a Bank to make changes to its model and methodology, and a Bank promptly shall institute any such FHFA-directed changes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.6   Servicing of AMA loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Servicing of AMA loans may be performed by or transferred to any institution, including an institution that is not a member of the Bank System, provided that the loans, after such transfer, continue to meet all requirements to qualify as AMA under §§ 1268.3, 1268.4, and 1268.5.
</P>
<P>(b) The transfer of mortgage servicing rights and responsibilities must be approved by the Bank or Banks that own the loan or a participation interest in the loan.
</P>
<P>(c) A Bank shall have in place policies and procedures to ensure that the transfer of mortgage servicing rights does not negatively affect the credit enhancement on the loans in question or substantially increase the Bank's exposure to the credit risk for the asset or pool.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.7   Reporting requirements for acquired member assets.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall report information related to AMA in accordance with the instructions provided in the Data Reporting Manual issued by FHFA, as amended from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1268.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.49.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1268.8   Administrative transactions and agreements between Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delegation of administrative duties.</I> A Bank may delegate the administration of an AMA program to another Bank whose administrative office has been examined and approved by FHFA, or previously examined and approved by the Federal Housing Finance Board, to process AMA transactions. The existence of such a delegation, or the possibility that such a delegation may be made, must be disclosed to any potential participating financial institution as part of any AMA-related agreements signed with that participating financial institution. A Bank may contract with one or more parties, including without limitation another Bank, to provide services related to the administration of its own AMA program or the AMA program of another Bank for which it has been delegated administrative responsibility, without the necessity for further disclosure to the participating financial institutions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination of agreements.</I> Any agreement made between two or more Banks in connection with the administration of any AMA program may be terminated by any party after a reasonable notice period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Delegation of pricing authority.</I> A Bank that has delegated its AMA pricing function to another Bank shall retain a right to refuse to acquire AMA at prices it does not consider appropriate, pursuant to contractual provisions among the parties.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1269" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1269—STANDBY LETTERS OF CREDIT
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1429, 1430, 1430b, 1431, 4511, 4513 and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 65 FR 8256, Feb. 18, 2000, and further redesignated at 67 FR 12853, Mar. 20, 2002, and 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1269.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1269.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means a person or entity at whose request or for whose account a standby letter of credit is issued.
</P>
<P><I>Beneficiary</I> means a person or entity who, under the terms of a standby letter of credit, is entitled to have its complying presentation honored.
</P>
<P><I>Community lending</I> means providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries, and, for community financial institutions (as defined in § 1263.1 of this title), purchasing or funding small business loans, small farm loans or small agri-business loans (as defined in § 1266.1 of this chapter).
</P>
<P><I>Confirm</I> means to undertake, at the request or with the consent of the issuer, to honor a presentation under a standby letter of credit issued by a member or housing associate.
</P>
<P><I>Document</I> means a draft or other demand, document of title, investment security, certificate, invoice, or other record, statement, or representation of fact, law, right, or opinion that is presented under the terms of a standby letter of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Issuer</I> means a person or entity that issues a standby letter of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Presentation</I> means delivery of a document to an issuer, or an entity that has undertaken a confirmation at the request or with the consent of the issuer, for the giving of value under a standby letter of credit.
</P>
<P><I>Residential housing finance</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) The purchase or funding of “residential housing finance assets,” as that term is defined in § 1266.1 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(2) Other activities that support the development or construction of residential housing.
</P>
<P><I>SHFA associate</I> means a housing associate that is a “state housing finance agency,” as that term is defined in § 1264.1 of this chapter, and that has met the requirements of § 1269.3(b) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Standby letter of credit</I> means a definite undertaking by an issuer on behalf of an applicant that represents an obligation to the beneficiary, pursuant to a complying presentation: to repay money borrowed by, advanced to, or for the account of the applicant; to make payment on account of any indebtedness undertaken by the applicant; or to make payment on account of any default by the applicant in the performance of an obligation. The term <I>standby letter of credit</I> does not include a commercial letter of credit, or any short-term self-liquidating instrument used to finance the movement of goods.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 8265, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44431, July 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 67 FR 12853, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010; 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 78 FR 67009, Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1269.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1269.2   Standby letters of credit on behalf of members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority and purposes.</I> Each Bank is authorized to issue or confirm on behalf of members standby letters of credit that comply with the requirements of this part, for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To assist members in facilitating residential housing finance;
</P>
<P>(2) To assist members in facilitating community lending; 
</P>
<P>(3) To assist members with asset/liability management; or
</P>
<P>(4) To provide members with liquidity or other funding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fully secured.</I> A Bank, at the time it issues or confirms a standby letter of credit on behalf of a member, shall obtain and maintain a security interest in collateral that is sufficient to secure fully the member's unconditional obligation described in § 1269.4(a)(2) of this part, and that complies with the requirements set forth in paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Eligible collateral.</I> (1) Any standby letter of credit issued or confirmed on behalf of a member may be secured in accordance with the requirements for advances under § 1266.7 of this chapter. 
</P>
<P>(2) A standby letter of credit issued or confirmed on behalf of a member for a purpose described in paragraphs (a)(1) or (a)(2) of this section may, in addition to the collateral described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, be secured by obligations of state or local government units or agencies, where such obligations have a readily ascertainable value, can be reliably discounted to account for liquidation and other risks, and can be liquidated in due course.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 8265, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44431, July 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 67 FR 12853, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010; 78 FR 67009, Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1269.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1269.3   Standby letters of credit on behalf of housing associates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Housing associates.</I> Each Bank is authorized to issue or confirm on behalf of housing associates standby letters of credit that are fully secured by collateral described in § 1266.17(b)(1)(i) or (ii) of this chapter, and that otherwise comply with the requirements of this part, for any of the following purposes:
</P>
<P>(1) To assist housing associates in facilitating residential housing finance;
</P>
<P>(2) To assist housing associates in facilitating community lending;
</P>
<P>(3) To assist housing associates with asset/liability management; or
</P>
<P>(4) To provide housing associates with liquidity or other funding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>SHFA associates.</I> Each Bank is authorized to issue or confirm on behalf of SHFA associates standby letters of credit that are fully secured by collateral described in § 1266.17(b)(2)(i)(A),(B) or (C) of this chapter, and that otherwise comply with the requirements of this part, for the purpose of facilitating residential or commercial mortgage lending that benefits individuals or families meeting the income requirements in section 142(d) or 143(f) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 142(d) or 143(f)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 8265, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44431, July 18, 2000; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1269.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1269.4   Obligation to Bank under all standby letters of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Obligation to reimburse.</I> A Bank may issue or confirm a standby letter of credit only on behalf of a member or housing associate that has:
</P>
<P>(1) Established with the Bank a cash account pursuant to §§ 1266.17(b)(2)(i)(B), 1266.17(d), or 1270.3 of this chapter; and
</P>
<P>(2) Assumed an unconditional obligation to reimburse the Bank for value given by the Bank to the beneficiary under the terms of the standby letter of credit by depositing immediately available funds into the account described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section not later than the date of the Bank's payment of funds to the beneficiary.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prompt action to recover funds.</I> If a member or housing associate fails to fulfill the obligation described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, the Bank shall take action promptly to recover the funds that such member or housing associate is obligated to repay.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Obligation financed by advance.</I> Notwithstanding the obligations and duties of the Bank and its member or housing associate under paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, the Bank may, at its discretion, permit such member or housing associate to finance repayment of the obligation described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section by receiving an advance that complies with sections 10 or 10b of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430, 1430(b)) and part 1266 of this title.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 8265, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44431, July 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 67 FR 12853, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010; 75 FR 76623, Dec. 9, 2010; 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1269.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.50.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1269.5   Additional provisions applying to all standby letters of credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements.</I> Each standby letter of credit issued or confirmed by a Bank shall: 
</P>
<P>(1) Contain a specific expiration date, or be for a specific term; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Require approval in advance by the Bank of any transfer of the standby letter of credit from the original beneficiary to another person or entity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional collateral provisions.</I> (1) A Bank may take such steps as it deems necessary to protect its secured position on standby letters of credit, including requiring additional collateral, whether or not such additional collateral conforms to the requirements of § 1269.2 or § 1269.3.3 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Collateral pledged by a member or housing associate to secure a letter of credit issued or confirmed on its behalf by a Bank shall be subject to the provisions of §§ 1266.7(d), 1266.7(e), 1266.8, 1266.9 and 1266.10 of this chapter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[63 FR 65699, Nov. 30, 1998, as amended at 65 FR 8265, Feb. 18, 2000; 65 FR 44431, July 18, 2000. Redesignated and amended at 67 FR 12853, Mar. 20, 2002; 75 FR 8240, Feb. 24, 2010]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1270" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1270—LIABILITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1431, 1432, 1435, 4511, 4512, 4513, and 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 18369, Apr. 4, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part, unless the context otherwise requires or indicates:
</P>
<P><I>Adverse Claim</I> means a claim that a claimant has a property interest in a Book-entry consolidated obligation and that it is a violation of the rights of the claimant for another Person to hold, transfer, or deal with the Security.
</P>
<P><I>Book-entry consolidated obligation</I> means a consolidated obligation maintained in the book-entry system of the Federal Reserve Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Consolidated obligation</I> means any bond, debenture or note on which the Banks are jointly and severally liable and which was issued under section 11 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431) and in accordance with any implementing regulations, whether or not such instrument was originally issued jointly by the Banks or by the Federal Housing Finance Board on behalf of the Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Deposits in banks or trust companies</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A deposit in another Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A demand account in a Federal Reserve Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) A deposit in, or a sale of Federal funds to:
</P>
<P>(i) An insured depository institution, as defined in section 2(9)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(9)(A)), that is designated by a Bank's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(ii) A trust company that is a member of the Federal Reserve System or insured by the FDIC, and is designated by a Bank's board of directors; or
</P>
<P>(iii) A U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank, as defined in the International Banking Act of 1978, as amended (12 U.S.C. 3101 <I>et seq.</I>), that is subject to the supervision of the Federal Reserve Board, and is designated by a Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P><I>Entitlement Holder</I> means a Person or a Bank to whose account an interest in a Book-entry consolidated obligation is credited on the records of a Securities Intermediary.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank</I> means a Federal Reserve Bank or branch, acting as fiscal agent for the Office of Finance, unless otherwise indicated.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular</I> means the publication issued by each Federal Reserve Bank that sets forth the terms and conditions under which the Federal Reserve Bank maintains Book-entry Securities accounts and transfers Book-entry Securities.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Board</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Funds account</I> means a reserve and/or clearing account at a Federal Reserve Bank to which debits or credits are posted for transfers against payment, Book-entry Securities transaction fees, or principal and interest payments.
</P>
<P><I>Non-complying Bank</I> means a Bank that has failed to provide the liquidity certification as required under § 1270.10(b)(1).
</P>
<P><I>Office of Finance</I> means the Office of Finance, a joint office of the Banks established under part 1273 of this chapter and referenced in the Bank Act and the Safety and Soundness Act, including the Office of Finance acting as agent of the Banks in all matters relating to the issuance of Book-entry consolidated obligations and in the performance of all other necessary and proper functions relating to Book-entry consolidated obligations, including the payment of principal and interest due thereon.
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a Person or a Bank that maintains a Participant's Securities Account with a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Participant's Securities Account</I> means an account in the name of a Participant at a Federal Reserve Bank to which Book-entry consolidated obligations held for a Participant are or may be credited.
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means and includes an individual, corporation, company, governmental entity, association, firm, partnership, trust, estate, representative, and any other similar organization, but does not mean or include a Bank, the Director, FHFA, the Office of Finance, the United States, or a Federal Reserve Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Repurchase agreement</I> means an agreement in which a Bank sells securities and simultaneously agrees to repurchase those securities or similar securities at an agreed upon price, with or without a stated time for repurchase.
</P>
<P><I>Revised Article 8</I> means Uniform Commercial Code, Revised Article 8, Investment Securities (with Conforming and Miscellaneous Amendments to Articles 1, 3, 4, 5, 9, and 10) 1994 Official Text. Copies of this publication are available from the Executive Office of the American Law Institute, 4025 Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104, and the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, 676 North St. Clair Street, Suite 1700, Chicago, IL 60611.
</P>
<P><I>SBIC</I> means a small business investment company formed pursuant to section 301 of the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 681).
</P>
<P><I>Securities Intermediary</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Person that is registered as a “clearing agency” under the Federal securities laws; a Federal Reserve Bank; any other person that provides clearance or settlement services with respect to a Book-entry consolidated obligation that would require it to register as a clearing agency under the Federal securities laws but for an exclusion or exemption from the registration requirement, if its activities as a clearing corporation, including promulgation of rules, are subject to regulation by a Federal or State governmental authority; or (2) A Person (other than an individual, unless such individual is registered as a broker or dealer under the Federal securities laws), including a bank or broker, that in the ordinary course of its business maintains securities accounts for others and is acting in that capacity.
</P>
<P><I>Security Entitlement</I> means the rights and property interest of an Entitlement Holder with respect to a Book-entry consolidated obligation.
</P>
<P><I>Transfer Message</I> means an instruction of a Participant to a Federal Reserve Bank to effect a transfer of a Book-entry consolidated obligation, as set forth in Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18369, Apr. 4, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013; 78 FR 67009, Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Sources of Funds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.2   Authorized liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>As a source of funds for business operations, each Bank is authorized to incur liabilities by:
</P>
<P>(a) Accepting proceeds from the issuance of consolidated obligations issued in accordance with this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Accepting time or demand deposits from members, other Banks or instrumentalities of the United States, and cash accounts from associates or members pursuant to §§ 1266.17(b)(2)(i)(B), 1266.17(d) and 1269.4(a)(1) of this chapter, or § 1270.3 of this part, or from other institutions for which the Bank is providing correspondent services pursuant to section 11(e) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431(e));
</P>
<P>(c) Purchasing Federal funds; and
</P>
<P>(d) Entering into repurchase agreements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.3   Deposits from members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Banks may accept demand and time deposits from members, reserving the right to require notice of intention to withdraw any part of time deposits. Rates of interest paid on all deposits shall be set by the Bank's board of directors (or, between regular meetings thereof, by a committee of directors selected by the board) or by the Bank President, if so authorized by the board. Unless otherwise specified by the board, a Bank President may delegate to any officer or employee of the Bank any authority he possesses under this section.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Bank shall at all times have at least an amount equal to the current deposits received from its members invested in:
</P>
<P>(1) Obligations of the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) Deposits in banks or trust companies; or
</P>
<P>(3) Advances with a remaining maturity not to exceed five years that are made to members in conformity with part 1266 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Consolidated Obligations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.4   Issuance of consolidated obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Consolidated obligations issued by the Banks</I>—(1) Subject to the provisions of this part and such other rules, regulations, terms, and conditions as the Director may prescribe, the Banks may issue joint debt under section 11(c) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431(c)), which shall be consolidated obligations, on which the Banks shall be jointly and severally liable in accordance with § 1270.10 of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) Consolidated obligations shall be issued only through the Office of Finance, as agent of the Banks pursuant to this part and part 1273 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(3) All consolidated obligations shall be issued in <I>pari passu.</I>
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Negative pledge</I> <I>requirement.</I> Each Bank shall at all times maintain assets described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section free from any lien or pledge, in an amount at least equal to a <I>pro rata</I> share of the total amount of currently outstanding consolidated obligations and equal to such Bank's participation in all such consolidated obligations outstanding, provided that any assets that are subject to a lien or pledge for the benefit of the holders of any issue of consolidated obligations shall be treated as if they were assets free from any lien or pledge for purposes of compliance with this paragraph (b). Eligible assets are:
</P>
<P>(1) Cash;
</P>
<P>(2) Obligations of or fully guaranteed by the United States;
</P>
<P>(3) Secured advances;
</P>
<P>(4) Mortgages as to which one or more Banks have any guaranty or insurance, or commitment therefor, by the United States or any agency thereof; and
</P>
<P>(5) Investments described in section 16(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1436(a)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18369, Apr. 4, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 67009, Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.5   Bank operations.</HEAD>
<P>The Banks, individually and collectively, shall operate in such manner and take any actions necessary, including without limitation reducing leverage, to ensure that consolidated obligations maintain a high level of acceptance by financial markets and are generally perceived by investors as presenting a low level of credit risk.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 67009. Nov. 8, 2013]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.6   Transactions in consolidated obligations.</HEAD>
<P>The general regulations of the Department of the Treasury now or hereafter in force governing transactions in United States securities, except 31 CFR part 357 regarding book-entry procedure, are hereby incorporated into this subpart C of this part, so far as applicable and as necessarily modified to relate to consolidated obligations, as the regulations of FHFA for similar transactions on consolidated obligations. The book-entry procedure for consolidated obligations is contained in subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.7   Lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated or defaced consolidated obligations.</HEAD>
<P>United States statutes and regulations of the Department of the Treasury now or hereafter in force governing relief on account of the loss, theft, destruction, mutilation or defacement of United States securities, so far as applicable and as necessarily modified to relate to consolidated obligations, are hereby adopted as the regulations of FHFA for the issuance of substitute consolidated obligations or the payment of lost, stolen, destroyed, mutilated or defaced consolidated obligations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.8   Administrative provision.</HEAD>
<P>The Secretary of the Treasury or the Acting Secretary of the Treasury is hereby authorized and empowered, as the agent of FHFA and the Banks, to administer §§ 1270.6 and 1270.7, and to delegate such authority at their discretion to other officers, employees, and agents of the Department of the Treasury. Any such regulations may be waived on behalf of FHFA and the Banks by the Secretary of the Treasury, the Acting Secretary of the Treasury, or by an officer of the Department of the Treasury authorized to waive similar regulations with respect to United States securities, but only in any particular case in which a similar regulation with respect to United States securities would be waived. The terms “securities” and “bonds” as used in this section shall, unless the context otherwise requires, include and apply to coupons and interim certificates.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.9   Conditions for issuance of consolidated obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Office of Finance board of directors shall authorize the offering for current and forward settlement (up to 12 months) or the reopening of consolidated obligations, as necessary, and authorize the maturities, rates of interest, terms and conditions thereof, subject to the provisions of 31 U.S.C. 9108.
</P>
<P>(b) Consolidated obligations may be offered for sale only to the extent that Banks are committed to take the proceeds.
</P>
<P>(c) Consolidated obligations shall not be purchased by any Bank as part of an initial issuance whether such consolidated obligation is purchased directly from the Office of Finance or indirectly from an underwriter.
</P>
<P>(d) If the Banks issue consolidated obligations denominated in a currency other than U.S. Dollars or linked to equity or commodity prices, then any Bank accepting proceeds from those consolidated obligations shall meet the following requirements with regard to such consolidated obligations:
</P>
<P>(1) The relevant foreign exchange, equity price or commodity price risks associated with the consolidated obligation must be hedged in accordance with § 1267.4 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(2) If there is a default on the part of a counterparty to a contract hedging the foreign exchange, equity or commodity price risk associated with a consolidated obligation, the Bank shall enter into a replacement contract in a timely manner and as soon as market conditions permit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 18369, Apr. 4, 2011, as amended at 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.10   Joint and several liability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general</I>—(1) Each and every Bank, individually and collectively, has an obligation to make full and timely payment of all principal and interest on consolidated obligations when due.
</P>
<P>(2) Each and every Bank, individually and collectively, shall ensure that the timely payment of principal and interest on all consolidated obligations is given priority over, and is paid in full in advance of, any payment to or redemption of shares from any shareholder.
</P>
<P>(3) The provisions of this part shall not limit, restrict or otherwise diminish, in any manner, the joint and several liability of all of the Banks on any consolidated obligation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Certification and reporting</I>—(1) Before the end of each calendar quarter, and before declaring or paying any dividend for that quarter, the President of each Bank shall certify in writing to FHFA that, based on known current facts and financial information, the Bank will remain in compliance with the liquidity requirements set forth in section 11(g) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1431(g)), and any regulations (as the same may be amended, modified or replaced), and will remain capable of making full and timely payment of all of its current obligations, including direct obligations, coming due during the next quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank shall immediately provide written notice to FHFA if at any time the Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) Is unable to provide the certification required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Projects at any time that it will fail to comply with statutory or regulatory liquidity requirements, or will be unable to timely and fully meet all of its current obligations, including direct obligations, due during the quarter;
</P>
<P>(iii) Actually fails to comply with statutory or regulatory liquidity requirements or to timely and fully meet all of its current obligations, including direct obligations, due during the quarter; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Negotiates to enter or enters into an agreement with one or more other Banks to obtain financial assistance to meet its current obligations, including direct obligations, due during the quarter; the notice of which shall be accompanied by a copy of the agreement, which shall be subject to the approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consolidated obligation payment plans</I>—(1) A Bank promptly shall file a consolidated obligation payment plan for FHFA approval:
</P>
<P>(i) If the Bank becomes a non-complying Bank as a result of failing to provide the certification required in paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Bank becomes a non-complying Bank as a result of being required to provide the notice required pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section, except in the event that a failure to make a principal or interest payment on a consolidated obligation when due was caused solely by a temporary interruption in the Bank's debt servicing operations resulting from an external event such as a natural disaster or a power failure; or
</P>
<P>(iii) If FHFA determines that the Bank will cease to be in compliance with the statutory or regulatory liquidity requirements, or will lack the capacity to timely and fully meet all of its current obligations, including direct obligations, due during the quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidated obligation payment plan shall specify the measures the non-complying Bank will undertake to make full and timely payments of all of its current obligations, including direct obligations, due during the applicable quarter.
</P>
<P>(3) A non-complying Bank may continue to incur and pay normal operating expenses incurred in the regular course of business (including salaries, benefits, or costs of office space, equipment and related expenses), but shall not incur or pay any extraordinary expenses, or declare, or pay dividends, or redeem any capital stock, until such time as FHFA has approved the Bank's consolidated obligation payment plan or inter-Bank assistance agreement, or ordered another remedy, and all of the non-complying Bank's direct obligations have been paid.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FHFA payment orders; Obligation to reimburse</I>—(1) FHFA, in its discretion and notwithstanding any other provision in this section, may at any time order any Bank to make any principal or interest payment due on any consolidated obligation.
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent that a Bank makes any payment on any consolidated obligation on behalf of another Bank, the paying Bank shall be entitled to reimbursement from the non-complying Bank, which shall have a corresponding obligation to reimburse the Bank providing assistance, to the extent of such payment and other associated costs (including interest to be determined by FHFA).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Adjustment of equities</I>—(1) Any non-complying Bank shall apply its assets to fulfill its direct obligations.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Bank is required to meet, or otherwise meets, the direct obligations of another Bank due to a temporary interruption in the latter Bank's debt servicing operations (<I>e.g.,</I> in the event of a natural disaster or power failure), the assisting Bank shall have the same right to reimbursement set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) If FHFA determines that the assets of a non-complying Bank are insufficient to satisfy all of its direct obligations as set forth in paragraph (e)(1) of this section, then FHFA may allocate the outstanding liability among the remaining Banks on a <I>pro rata</I> basis in proportion to each Bank's participation in all consolidated obligations outstanding as of the end of the most recent month for which FHFA has data, or otherwise as FHFA may prescribe.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reservation of authority.</I> Nothing in this section shall affect the Director's authority to adjust equities between the Banks in a manner different than the manner described in paragraph (e) of this section, or to take enforcement or other action against any Bank pursuant to the Director's authority under the Safety and Soundness Act or the Bank Act, or otherwise to supervise the Banks and ensure that they are operated in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>No rights created</I>—(1) Nothing in this part shall create or be deemed to create any rights in any third party.
</P>
<P>(2) Payments made by a Bank toward the direct obligations of another Bank are made for the sole purpose of discharging the joint and several liability of the Banks on consolidated obligations.
</P>
<P>(3) Compliance, or the failure to comply, with any provision in this section shall not be deemed a default under the terms and conditions of the consolidated obligations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.11   Savings clause.</HEAD>
<P>Any agreements or other instruments entered into in connection with the issuance of consolidated obligations prior to the amendments made to this part shall continue in effect with respect to all consolidated obligations issued under the authority of section 11 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431) and pursuant to this part. References to consolidated obligations in such agreements and instruments shall be deemed to refer to all joint and several obligations of the Banks.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Book-Entry Procedure for Consolidated Obligations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.12   Law governing rights and obligations of Banks, FHFA, Office of Finance, United States and Federal Reserve Banks; rights of any Person against Banks, FHFA, Office of Finance, United States and Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the rights and obligations of the Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: A Book-entry consolidated obligation or Security Entitlement and the operation of the Book-entry system, as it applies to consolidated obligations; and the rights of any Person, including a Participant, against the Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: A Book-entry consolidated obligation or Security Entitlement and the operation of the Book-entry system, as it applies to consolidated obligations; are governed solely by regulations of FHFA, including the regulations of this part 1270, the applicable offering notice, applicable procedures established by the Office of Finance, and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars.
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Participant and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1270.14(c)(1), is governed by the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction where the head office of the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the Participant's Securities Account is located. A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Person that is not a Participant, and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1270.14(c)(1), is governed by the law determined in the manner specified in § 1270.13.
</P>
<P>(c) If the jurisdiction specified in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted Revised Article 8, then the law specified in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section shall be the law of that State as though Revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.13   Law governing other interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent not inconsistent with this part 1270, the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of a Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction governs:
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of a Security Entitlement from the Securities Intermediary;
</P>
<P>(2) The rights and duties of the Securities Intermediary and Entitlement Holder arising out of a Security Entitlement;
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the Securities Intermediary owes any duties to an adverse claimant to a Security Entitlement;
</P>
<P>(4) Whether an Adverse Claim can be asserted against a Person who acquires a Security Entitlement from the Securities Intermediary or a Person who purchases a Security Entitlement or interest therein from an Entitlement Holder; and
</P>
<P>(5) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection, and priority of a security interest in a Security Entitlement.
</P>
<P>(b) The following rules determine a “Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction” for purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder specifies that it is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(2) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify the governing law as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but expressly specifies that the securities account is maintained at an office in a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction.
</P>
<P>(3) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the office identified in an account statement as the office serving the Entitlement Holder's account.
</P>
<P>(4) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and an account statement does not identify an office serving the Entitlement Holder's account as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the chief executive office of the Securities Intermediary.
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the general rule in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the law (but not the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction in which the Person creating a security interest is located governs whether and how the security interest may be perfected automatically or by filing a financing statement.
</P>
<P>(d) If the jurisdiction specified in paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted Revised Article 8, then the law for the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be the law of that State as though Revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State. For purposes of the application of the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the Securities Account is a clearing corporation, and the Participant's interest in a Bank Book-entry Security is a Security Entitlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.14   Creation of Participant's Security Entitlement; security interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Participant's Security Entitlement is created when a Federal Reserve Bank indicates by book entry that a Book-entry consolidated obligation has been credited to a Participant's Securities Account.
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement of a Participant in favor of the United States to secure deposits of public money, including, without limitation, deposits to the Treasury tax and loan accounts, or other security interest in favor of the United States that is required by Federal statute, regulation, or agreement, and that is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank is thereby effected and perfected, and has priority over any other interest in the Securities. Where a security interest in favor of the United States in a Security Entitlement of a Participant is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank, such Federal Reserve Bank may rely, and is protected in relying, exclusively on the order of an authorized representative of the United States directing the transfer of the Security. For purposes of this paragraph (b), an “authorized representative of the United States” is the official designated in the applicable regulations or agreement to which a Federal Reserve Bank is a party, governing the security interest.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States and the Federal Reserve Banks have no obligation to agree to act on behalf of any Person or to recognize the interest of any transferee of a security interest or other limited interest in a Security Entitlement in favor of any Person except to the extent of any specific requirement of Federal law or regulation or to the extent set forth in any specific agreement with the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the interest of the Participant is recorded. To the extent required by such law or regulation or set forth in an agreement with a Federal Reserve Bank, or the Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular, a security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank or a Person may be created and perfected by a Federal Reserve Bank marking its books to record the security interest. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank shall have priority over any other interest in the Securities.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the method provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement, including a security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, may be perfected by any method by which a security interest may be perfected under applicable law as described in § 1270.12(b) or § 1270.13. The perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection, and priority of a security interest are governed by that applicable law. A security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank shall be treated as a security interest in favor of a clearing corporation in all respects under that law, including with respect to the effect of perfection and priority of the security interest. A Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular shall be treated as a rule adopted by a clearing corporation for such purposes.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.15   Obligations of the Banks and the Office of Finance; no Adverse Claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of a security interest in favor of the United States or a Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise as provided in § 1270.14(c)(1), for the purposes of this part 1270, the Banks, the Office of Finance and the Federal Reserve Banks shall treat the Participant to whose Securities Account an interest in a Book-entry consolidated obligations has been credited as the person exclusively entitled to issue a Transfer Message, to receive interest and other payments with respect thereof and otherwise to exercise all the rights and powers with respect to the Security, notwithstanding any information or notice to the contrary. Neither the Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States, nor the Federal Reserve Banks are liable to a Person asserting or having an Adverse Claim to a Security Entitlement or to Book-entry consolidated obligations in a Participant's Securities Account, including any such claim arising as a result of the transfer or disposition of a Book-entry consolidated obligation by a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to a Transfer Message that the Federal Reserve Bank reasonably believes to be genuine.
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation of the Banks and the Office of Finance to make payments of interest and principal with respect to Book-entry consolidated obligations is discharged at the time payment in the appropriate amount is made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Interest on Book-entry consolidated obligations is either credited by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Funds Account maintained at the Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paid as directed by the Participant.
</P>
<P>(2) Book-entry consolidated obligations are paid, either at maturity or upon redemption, in accordance with their terms by a Federal Reserve Bank withdrawing the securities from the Participant's Securities Account in which they are maintained and by either crediting the amount of the proceeds, including both principal and interest, where applicable, to a Funds Account at the Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise paying such principal and interest as directed by the Participant. No action by the Participant is required in connection with the payment of a Book-entry consolidated obligation, unless otherwise expressly required.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.16   Authority of Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Office of Finance: To perform functions with respect to the issuance of Book-entry consolidated obligations, in accordance with the terms of the applicable offering notice and with procedures established by the Office of Finance; to service and maintain Book-entry consolidated obligations in accounts established for such purposes; to make payments of principal, interest and redemption premium (if any), as directed by the Office of Finance; to effect transfer of Book-entry consolidated obligations between Participants' Securities Accounts as directed by the Participants; and to perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this part 1270, governing the details of its handling of Book-entry consolidated obligations, Security Entitlements, and the operation of the Book-entry system under this part 1270.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.17   Liability of Banks, FHFA, Office of Finance and Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>The Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance and the Federal Reserve Banks may rely on the information provided in a tender, transaction request form, other transaction documentation, or Transfer Message, and are not required to verify the information. Neither the Banks, FHFA, the Director, the Office of Finance, the United States, nor the Federal Reserve Banks shall be liable for any action taken in accordance with the information set out in a tender, transaction request form, other transaction documentation, or Transfer Message, or evidence submitted in support thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.18   Additional requirements; notice of attachment for Book-entry consolidated obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Additional requirements.</I> In any case or any class of cases arising under the regulations in this part 1270, the Office of Finance may require such additional evidence and a bond of indemnity, with or without surety, as may in its judgment, or in the judgment of the Banks or FHFA, be necessary for the protection of the interests of the Banks, FHFA, the Office of Finance or the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of attachment.</I> The interest of a debtor in a Security Entitlement may be reached by a creditor only by legal process upon the Securities Intermediary with whom the debtor's securities account is maintained, except where a Security Entitlement is maintained in the name of a secured party, in which case the debtor's interest may be reached by legal process upon the secured party. The regulations in this part 1270 do not purport to establish whether a Federal Reserve Bank is required to honor an order or other notice of attachment in any particular case or class of cases.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.19   Reference to certain Department of Treasury commentary and determinations.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding provisions in § 1270.6 regarding Department of Treasury regulations set forth in 31 CFR part 357:
</P>
<P>(a) The Department of Treasury TRADES Commentary (31 CFR part 357, appendix B) addressing the Department of Treasury regulations governing book-entry procedure for Treasury Securities is hereby referenced, so far as applicable and as necessarily modified to relate to Book-entry consolidated obligations, as an interpretive aid to this subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) Determinations of the Department of Treasury regarding whether a State shall be considered to have adopted Revised Article 8 for purposes of 31 CFR part 357, as published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> or otherwise, shall also apply to this subpart D of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1270.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.51.4.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1270.20   Consolidated obligations are not obligations of the United States or guaranteed by the United States.</HEAD>
<P>Consolidated obligations are not obligations of the United States and are not guaranteed by the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1271" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1271—MISCELLANEOUS FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK OPERATIONS AND AUTHORITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430, 1431, 1432, 1441(b)(8), (c), (j), 1442, 4511(b), 4513(a), 4526.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Collection, Settlement, and Processing of Payment Instruments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>Unless otherwise defined in this subpart, the terms used in this subpart shall conform, in the following order, to: Regulations of FHFA, the Uniform Commercial Code, regulations of the Federal Reserve System, and general banking usage. As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Account processing</I> includes charging, crediting, and settling of member or eligible institution accounts, excluding individual customer accounts.
</P>
<P><I>Assets</I> includes furniture and equipment, leasehold improvements, and capitalized start-up costs.
</P>
<P><I>Data communication</I> means transmitting and receiving of data to or from Banks, Federal Reserve offices, clearinghouse associations, depository institutions or their service bureaus, and other direct sending entities; arrangement for delivery of information; and telephone inquiry service.
</P>
<P><I>Data processing</I> includes capture, storage, and assembling of, and computation of, data from payment instruments received from Federal Reserve offices, Banks, clearinghouse associations, depository institutions, and other direct lending entities.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible institution</I> means any institution that is eligible to make application to become a member of a Bank under section 4 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1424), including any building and loan association, savings and loan association, cooperative bank, homestead association, insurance company, savings bank, community development financial institution, or any insured depository institution (as defined in section 2(9) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1422(9))), regardless of whether the institution applies for or would be approved for membership.
</P>
<P><I>Issuance of forms</I> means the designation and distribution of standardized forms for use in collection, processing, and settlement services.
</P>
<P><I>Presentment</I> means a demand for acceptance or payment made upon the maker, acceptor, drawee or other payor by or on behalf of the holder, and may involve the use of electronic transmission of an instrument or item or transmission of data from the instrument or item by electronic or mechanical means.
</P>
<P><I>Statement packaging</I> includes receiving statement information from members or eligible institutions or their service bureaus on respective customer cycle dates; printing statements; matching customer account statements; packaging the statements with appropriate items and informational materials, as authorized by individual members and eligible institutions, for distribution to their customers; sending the packages to the members or eligible institutions or mailing the packages directly to their customers.
</P>
<P><I>Storage services</I> includes filing, storage, and truncation of items.
</P>
<P><I>Transportation of items</I> includes transporting items from Federal Reserve offices, other Banks' clearinghouse associations, depository institutions, and other direct sending entities to a Bank; forwarding items to financial institutions after sorting; and forwarding cash items or return items to Federal Reserve offices and other sending entities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.2   Authority and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Pursuant to section 11(e)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431(e)(2)), FHFA has promulgated this subpart governing the collection, processing, and settlement, and services incidental thereto, of drafts, checks, and other negotiable and nonnegotiable items and instruments by Banks. Settlement, collection, and processing include the following activities as defined in this subpart: Account processing, data processing, data communication, issuance of forms, transportation of items, and storage services.
</P>
<P>(b) Any activity authorized by section 11(e)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1431(e)(2)) shall be governed by the provisions of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.3   General provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The Banks are authorized to:
</P>
<P>(a) Engage in, be agents or intermediaries for, or otherwise participate or assist in, the processing, collection, and settlement of checks, drafts, or any other negotiable or nonnegotiable items and instruments of payment drawn on eligible institutions or Bank members; and
</P>
<P>(b) Be drawees of checks, drafts, and other negotiable and nonnegotiable items and instruments issued by eligible institutions or Bank members.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.4   Incidental powers.</HEAD>
<P>In connection with the collection, processing, and settlement of items and instruments drawn on or issued by eligible institutions or Bank members, a Bank may also perform the following services:
</P>
<P>(a) Statement packaging; and
</P>
<P>(b) Any other activity that FHFA shall, from time to time, after notice and comment, find necessary for the exercise of the authority of this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.5   Operations.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank may utilize the services of a Federal Reserve Bank and may become a member or use the services of a clearinghouse, public or private financial institution, or agency in the exercise of any powers or functions under this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.6   Pricing of services.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Banks shall charge for services authorized in this subpart in a manner consistent with the principles of section 11A(c) of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 248a(c)), as interpreted by this subpart.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Payment instrument account services.</I> (1) In determining the fees for services provided under this subpart, a Bank must take into account all direct and indirect costs of providing the services.
</P>
<P>(2) Prices must reflect the imputed rate of return that would have been earned and the taxes that would have been paid if the Bank were a private corporation, by using a cost of capital adjustment factor applied to those assets used in providing services authorized under this subpart.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review and publication.</I> For any year during which any Bank actually provides services authorized by this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) FHFA shall from time to time and at least annually review the cost of capital adjustment factor and review prices for services authorized in this subpart for compliance with the principles set forth in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, and
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA shall annually publish in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> all prices for Bank services authorized in this subpart except those for fees charged to an applicant for draws made by a beneficiary under a standby letter of credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.7   Rights, powers, responsibilities, duties, and liabilities.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent it is not inconsistent with other provisions of this subpart, the Uniform Commercial Code governs the rights, powers, responsibilities, duties, and liabilities of Banks in the exercise of their authority under this subpart. For purposes of this paragraph, the term “bank,” as used in the Uniform Commercial Code and clearinghouse rules, includes Banks and their members and eligible institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Miscellaneous Bank Authorities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.10   Transfer of funds between Banks.</HEAD>
<P>Inter-Bank borrowing shall be through unsecured deposits bearing interest at rates negotiated between Banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.11   Trustee powers.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank may act, and make reasonable charges for doing so, as trustee of any trust affecting the business of any member or any institution or group applying for membership, if:
</P>
<P>(a) Such trust is created or arises for the benefit of the institution or its depositors, investors, or borrowers, or for the promotion of sound and economical home financing; and
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of applicants, the Bank ceases to act as trustee if the application is withdrawn or rejected.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Bank Requests for Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.15   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Confidential regulatory information</I> means any record, data, or report, including but not limited to examination reports, or any part thereof, that is non-public, privileged or otherwise not intended for public disclosure which is in the possession or control of a financial regulatory agency and which contains information regarding members of a Bank or financial institutions with which a Bank has had or contemplates having transactions under the Bank Act.
</P>
<P><I>Financial regulatory agency</I> means any of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The Department of the Treasury, including the Comptroller of the Currency;
</P>
<P>(2) The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System;
</P>
<P>(3) The National Credit Union Administration; or
</P>
<P>(4) The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Third party</I> means any person or entity except a director, officer, employee or agent of either:
</P>
<P>(1) A Bank in possession of any particular confidential regulatory information; or
</P>
<P>(2) The financial regulatory agency that supplied the particular confidential regulatory information to such Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.16   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart governs the procedure by which a Bank will request and receive confidential regulatory information pursuant to section 22 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1442).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.17   Request for confidential regulatory information.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall make all requests for confidential regulatory information to a financial regulatory agency, or to a regional office of such agency if mutually agreeable, in accordance with the procedures contained in this subpart as well as any procedures of general applicability for requesting information promulgated by such financial regulatory agency. This subpart and its procedures may be supplemented by a confidentiality agreement between a Bank and a financial regulatory agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.18   Form of request.</HEAD>
<P>A request by a Bank to a financial regulatory agency for confidential regulatory information shall be made in writing or by such other means as may be agreed upon between the Bank and the financial regulatory agency. The request shall reference section 22 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1442), as amended, and this regulation, and shall describe the confidential regulatory information requested and identify its intended use pursuant to the Bank Act. The request shall be signed or otherwise made by any duly authorized Bank officer or employee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.19   Storage of confidential regulatory information.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Store all identified confidential regulatory information in secure storage areas or filing cabinets or other secured facilities generally used by such Bank and limit access thereto in the same manner as it maintains the confidentiality of its own members' privileged or non-public information;
</P>
<P>(b) Have in place a written set of procedures and policies designed to ensure the confidentiality of confidential regulatory information in its possession; and
</P>
<P>(c) Establish an internal review of its procedures for storing confidential regulatory information and maintaining its confidentiality, as a part of its internal audit process.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.20   Access to confidential regulatory information.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall ensure that access to the confidential regulatory information stored at its facility is limited to those with a need to know such information and that employees with access maintain the confidentiality of the confidential regulatory information in accordance with the Bank's own procedures for maintaining the confidentiality of its members' privileged or non-public information.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.21   Third party requests for confidential regulatory information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In the event a Bank receives a request for confidential regulatory information in its possession from any third party, the Bank shall forward such request to the financial regulatory agency from which the confidential regulatory information was obtained.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Subpoena.</I> In the event a Bank receives a subpoena for confidential regulatory information issued by a Federal, state or local government department, agency, court or bureau, the Bank shall give timely written notice of such subpoena to the financial regulatory agency from which the confidential regulatory information was obtained, unless such notice is prohibited by applicable law. Except as limited in this subpart, the Bank may disclose confidential regulatory information pursuant to the subpoena, after giving timely written notice, when:
</P>
<P>(1) The financial regulatory agency gives written approval to the disclosure; or
</P>
<P>(2) A binding order to produce the confidential regulatory information has become final with all rights of appeal either exhausted or lapsed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Nondisclosure to third parties.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a Bank shall not disclose confidential regulatory information to any third party. A Bank shall refer all third party requests for such confidential regulatory information to the financial regulatory agency that released the confidential regulatory information to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Disclosure to FHFA.</I> (1) Neither this subpart nor any confidentiality agreement executed between a Bank and a financial regulatory agency shall prevent a Bank from disclosing confidential regulatory information in its possession to FHFA whenever disclosure is necessary to accomplish FHFA's supervision of Bank membership applications or Bank director eligibility issues, or disclosing any confidential regulatory information in its possession if such disclosure is made pursuant to an audit conducted pursuant to § 1271.19 or section 20 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1440).
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA shall keep all confidential regulatory information received under this paragraph (d) in strict confidence.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.22   Computer data.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this subpart shall preclude a Bank from arranging with any financial regulatory agency to transmit or allow access to confidential regulatory information with the consent of such agency by means of an electronic computer system. Any such arrangement shall ensure the security of the computerized data stored in a Bank's computer and restrict access to such data in order to preserve confidentiality in a manner agreed upon by the Bank and the financial regulatory agency.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Financing Corporation Operations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.30   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this subpart:
</P>
<P><I>Administrative expenses.</I> (1) Include general office and operating expenses such as telephone and photocopy charges, printing, legal, and professional fees, postage, courier services, and office supplies; and
</P>
<P>(2) Do not include any form of employee compensation, custodian fees, issuance costs, or any interest on (and any redemption premium with respect to) any Financing Corporation obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Custodian fees</I> means any fee incurred by the Financing Corporation in connection with the transfer of any security to, or maintenance of any security in, the segregated account established under section 21(g)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(g)(2)), and any other expense incurred by the Financing Corporation in connection with the establishment or maintenance of such account.
</P>
<P><I>Directorate</I> means the board established under section 21(b) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(b)) to manage the Financing Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813).
</P>
<P><I>Issuance costs</I> means issuance fees and commissions incurred by the Financing Corporation in connection with the issuance or servicing of Financing Corporation obligations, including legal and accounting expenses, trustee, fiscal, and paying agent charges, securities processing charges, joint collection agent charges, advertising expenses, and costs incurred in connection with preparing and printing offering materials to the extent the Financing Corporation incurs such costs in connection with issuing any obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Non-administrative expenses</I> means custodian fees, issuance costs, and interest on Financing Corporation obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Obligations</I> means debentures, bonds, and similar debt securities issued by the Financing Corporation under sections 21(c)(3) and (e) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(c)(3) and (e)).
</P>
<P><I>Receivership proceeds</I> means the liquidating dividends and payments made on claims received by the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation Resolution Fund established under section 11A of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1821a) from receiverships, that are not required by the Resolution Funding Corporation to provide funds for the Funding Corporation Principal Fund established under section 21B of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.31   General authority.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the limitations and interpretations in this subpart and such orders and directions as FHFA may prescribe, the Financing Corporation shall have authority to exercise all powers and authorities granted to it by the Bank Act and by its charter and bylaws regardless of whether the powers and authorities are specifically implemented in regulation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.32   Authority to establish investment policies and procedures.</HEAD>
<P>The Directorate shall have authority to establish investment policies and procedures with respect to Financing Corporation funds provided that the investment policies and procedures are consistent with the requirements of section 21(g) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(g)). The Directorate shall promptly notify FHFA in writing of any changes to the investment policies and procedures.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.33   Book-entry procedure for Financing Corporation obligations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> Any Federal Reserve Bank shall have authority to apply book-entry procedure to Financing Corporation obligations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Procedure.</I> The book-entry procedure for Financing Corporation obligations shall be governed by the book-entry procedure established for Bank consolidated obligations, codified at part 1270 of this chapter. Wherever the terms “Bank(s),” “consolidated obligation(s)” or “Book-entry consolidated obligation(s)” appear in part 1270, the terms shall be construed also to mean “Financing Corporation,” “Financing Corporation obligation(s),” or “Book-entry Financing Corporation obligation(s),” respectively, if appropriate to accomplish the purposes of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.34" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.34   Bank and Office of Finance employees.</HEAD>
<P>Without further approval of FHFA, the Financing Corporation shall have authority to utilize the officers, employees, or agents of any Bank or the Office of Finance in such manner as may be necessary to carry out its functions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.35" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.35   Budget and expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Directorate approval.</I> The Financing Corporation shall submit annually to the Directorate for approval, a budget of proposed expenditures for the next calendar year that includes administrative and non-administrative expenses.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>FHFA approval.</I> The Directorate shall submit annually to FHFA for approval, the budget of the Financing Corporation's proposed expenditures it approved pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Spending limitation.</I> The Financing Corporation shall not exceed the amount provided for in the annual budget approved by FHFA pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, or as it may be amended by the Directorate within limits set by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amended budgets.</I> Whenever the Financing Corporation projects or anticipates that it will incur expenditures, other than interest on Financing Corporation obligations, that exceed the amount provided for in the annual budget approved by FHFA or the Directorate pursuant to paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, the Financing Corporation shall submit an amended annual budget to the Directorate for approval, and the Directorate shall submit such amended budget to FHFA for approval.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.36" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.36   Administrative expenses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payment by Banks.</I> The Banks shall pay all administrative expenses of the Financing Corporation approved pursuant to § 1271.35.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amount.</I> The Financing Corporation shall determine the amount of administrative expenses each Bank shall pay in the manner provided by section 21(b)(7)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(b)(7)(B)). The Financing Corporation shall bill each Bank for such amount periodically.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Adjustments.</I> The Financing Corporation shall adjust the amount of administrative expenses the Banks are required to pay in any calendar year pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, by deducting any funds that remain from the amount paid by the Banks for administrative expenses in the prior calendar year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.37" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.37   Non-administrative expenses; assessments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interest expenses.</I> The Financing Corporation shall determine anticipated interest expenses on its obligations at least semiannually.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Assessments on insured depository institutions</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> To provide sufficient funds to pay the non-administrative expenses of the Financing Corporation approved under § 1271.35, the Financing Corporation shall, with the approval of the board of directors of the FDIC, assess against each insured depository institution an assessment in the same manner as assessments are made by the FDIC under section 7 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1817).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Assessment rate</I>—(i) <I>Determination.</I> The Financing Corporation at least semiannually shall establish an assessment rate formula, which may include rounding methodology, to determine the rate or rates of the assessment it will assess against insured depository institutions pursuant to section 21(f)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(f)(2)) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice.</I> The Financing Corporation shall notify the FDIC and the collection agent, if any, of the formula established under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Collecting assessments</I>—(i) <I>Collection agent.</I> The Financing Corporation shall have authority to collect assessments made under section 21(f)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(f)(2)) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section through a collection agent of its choosing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Accounts.</I> Each Bank shall permit any insured depository institution whose principal place of business is in its district to establish and maintain at least one demand deposit account to facilitate collection of the assessments made under section 21(f)(2) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(f)(2)) and paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Receivership proceeds</I>—(1) <I>Authority.</I> To the extent the amounts collected under paragraph (b) of this section are insufficient to pay the non-administrative expenses of the Financing Corporation approved under § 1271.35, the Financing Corporation shall have authority to require the FDIC to transfer receivership proceeds to the Financing Corporation in accordance with section 21(f)(3) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(f)(3)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Procedure.</I> The Directorate shall request in writing that the FDIC transfer the receivership proceeds to the Financing Corporation. Such request shall specify the estimated amount of funds required to pay the non-administrative expenses of the Financing Corporation approved under § 1271.35.
</P>
<P>(d)(1) <I>Final assessments.</I> All Financing Corporation assessments collected during 2019 shall be final. Subsequent to March 29, 2019, no insured depository institution shall have any right to receive refunds for any overpayment of any prior Financing Corporation assessments nor shall it be billed for any underpayment of any prior Financing Corporation assessments that arise as a result of an amendment to any Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income on which the prior Financing Corporation assessment had been based.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Amendments to call reports.</I> Amendments to an institution's Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income for quarters prior to and including the fourth quarter of 2018 shall not affect an institution's Financing Corporation assessments after March 26, 2019.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>June 2019 assessment.</I> In the event Financing Corporation assessments are collected in June 2019, amendments to an institution's first quarter 2019 Consolidated Reports of Condition and Income that are submitted after June 25, 2019 shall not affect the institution's Financing Corporation assessment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[78 FR 2324, Jan. 11, 2013, as amended at 83 FR 63058, Dec. 7, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.38" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.38   Reports to FHFA.</HEAD>
<P>The Financing Corporation shall file such reports as FHFA shall direct.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.39" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.4.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.39   Review of books and records.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA shall examine the Financing Corporation at least annually to determine whether the Financing Corporation is performing its functions in accordance with the requirements of section 21 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441) and this subpart.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Authority for Bank Assistance of the Resolution Funding Corporation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1271.41" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.52.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1271.41   Bank employees.</HEAD>
<P>Upon the request of the Directorate of the Resolution Funding Corporation, established pursuant to section 21B(b) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b(b)), officers, employees, or agents of the Banks are authorized to act for and on behalf of the Resolution Funding Corporation in such manner as may be necessary to carry out the functions of the Resolution Funding Corporation as provided in section 21B(c)(6)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b(c)(6)(B)).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1272" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1272—NEW BUSINESS ACTIVITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1431(a), 1432(a), 4511(b), 4513, 4526(a).


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 91694, Dec. 19, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1272.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Business Day</I> means any calendar day other than a Saturday, Sunday, or legal public holiday listed in 5 U.S.C. 6103.
</P>
<P><I>NBA Notice Date</I> means the date on which FHFA receives a new business activity notice.
</P>
<P><I>New business activity (NBA)</I> means any business activity undertaken, transacted, conducted, or engaged in by a Bank that entails material risks not previously managed by the Bank. A Bank's acceptance of a new type of advance collateral does not constitute an NBA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.2   Limitation on Bank authority to undertake new business activities.</HEAD>
<P>No Bank shall undertake an NBA except in accordance with the procedures set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.3   New business activity notice requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Prior to undertaking an NBA, a Bank shall submit a written notice of the proposed NBA that provides a thorough, meaningful, complete, and specific description of the activity such that FHFA will be able to make an informed decision regarding the proposed activity. At a minimum, the notice should include the following information:
</P>
<P>(a) A written opinion of counsel identifying the specific statutory, regulatory, or other legal authorities under which the NBA is authorized and, for submissions raising legal questions of first impression, a reasoned analysis explaining how the cited authorities can be construed to authorize the new activity;
</P>
<P>(b) A full description of the proposed activity, including, when applicable, infographics and definitions of key terms. In addition, the Bank shall indicate whether the proposed activity represents a modification to a previously approved activity in which the Bank is engaged or is an activity that FHFA has approved for any other Banks, if known to the requesting Bank, and if applicable;
</P>
<P>(c) A discussion of why the Bank proposes to engage in the new activity and how the activity supports the housing finance and community investment mission of the Bank;
</P>
<P>(d) A discussion of the risks presented by the new activity and how the Bank will manage these risks; and
</P>
<P>(e) A good faith estimate of the anticipated dollar volume of the activity, and the income and expenses associated with implementing and operating the new activity, over the initial three years of operation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.4   Review process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 30 business days of the NBA Notice Date, FHFA will take one of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Approve the proposed NBA;
</P>
<P>(2) Deny the proposed activity; or
</P>
<P>(3) Inform the Bank that the activity raises policy, legal, or supervisory issues that require further evaluation. If FHFA fails to take any of those actions by the 30th business day following the NBA Notice Date, the NBA notice shall be deemed to have been approved and the Bank may commence the activity for which the notice was submitted.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of any notice that FHFA has determined requires further evaluation, FHFA will approve or deny the notice by no later than the 80th business day following the NBA Notice Date. If FHFA fails to approve or deny a NBA notice by that date, and the Director has not extended the review period, the NBA notice shall be deemed to have been approved and the Bank may commence the activity for which the notice was submitted.
</P>
<P>(c) For purposes of calculating the review period, no days will be counted between the date that FHFA has requested additional information from the Bank pursuant to § 1272.5 and the date that the Bank responds to all questions communicated.
</P>
<P>(d) Notwithstanding anything contained in this part, the Director may extend the 80 business-day review period by an additional 60 business days if the Director determines that additional time is required to consider the notice. In such a case, FHFA will inform the Bank of any such extension before the 80th business day following the NBA Notice Date, and the Bank may not commence the NBA until FHFA has affirmatively approved the notice.
</P>
<P>(e) In considering any NBA notice, FHFA will assess whether the proposed activity will be conducted in a safe and sound manner and is consistent with the housing finance, community investment, and liquidity missions of the Banks and the cooperative nature of the Bank System. FHFA may deny an NBA notice or may approve the notice, which approval may be made subject to the Bank's compliance with any conditions that FHFA determines are appropriate to ensure that the Bank conducts the new activity in a safe and sound manner and in compliance with applicable laws or regulations and the Bank's mission.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.5   Additional information.</HEAD>
<P>FHFA may request additional information from a Bank necessary to issue a determination regarding an NBA. After an initial request for information, FHFA may make subsequent requests for information only to the extent that the information provided by the Bank does not fully respond to a previous request, the subsequent request seeks information needed to clarify the Bank's previous response, or the information provided by the Bank raises new legal, policy, or supervisory issues not evident based on the Bank's NBA notice or responses to previous requests for information. Nothing contained in this paragraph shall limit the Director's authority to request additional information from a Bank regarding an NBA for which the Director has extended the review period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.6   Examinations.</HEAD>
<P>Nothing in this part shall limit in any manner the right of FHFA to conduct any examination of any Bank relating to its implementation of an NBA, including pre- or post-implementation safety and soundness examinations, or review of contracts or other agreements between the Bank and any other party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1272.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.53.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1272.7   Approval of notices.</HEAD>
<P>The Deputy Director for Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation may approve requests from a Bank seeking approval of any NBA notice submitted in accordance with this part. The Director reserves the right to modify, rescind, or supersede any such approval granted by the Deputy Director, with such action being effective only on a prospective basis.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1273" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1273—OFFICE OF FINANCE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1431, 1440, 4511(b), 4513, 4514(a), 4526(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1273.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Audit Committee</I> means the OF Independent Directors acting as the committee established in accordance with § 1273.9 of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Chair</I> means the chairperson of the board of directors of the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Chief Executive Officer</I> or <I>CEO</I> means the chief executive officer of the Office of Finance.
</P>
<P><I>Independent Director</I> means a member of the OF board of directors who meets the qualifications set forth in § 1273.7(a)(2) of this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2328, Jan. 13, 2013; 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.2   Authority of the OF.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The OF shall enjoy such incidental powers under section 12(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1432(a)), as are necessary, convenient and proper to accomplish the efficient execution of its duties and functions pursuant to this part, including the authority to contract with a Bank or Banks for the use of Bank facilities or personnel in order to perform its functions or duties.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agent.</I> The OF, in the performance of its duties, shall have the power to act on behalf of the Banks in issuing consolidated obligations and in paying principal and interest due on the consolidated obligations, or other obligations of the Banks.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Assessments.</I> The OF shall have authority to assess the Banks for the funding of its operations in accordance with § 1273.5 of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.3   Functions of the OF.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Joint debt issuance.</I> Subject to part 1270, subparts B and C, of this chapter, and this part, the OF, as agent for the Banks, shall offer, issue, and service (including making timely payments on principal and interest due) consolidated obligations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Preparation of combined financial reports.</I> The OF shall prepare and issue the combined annual and quarterly financial reports for the Bank System in accordance with the requirements of § 1273.6(b) and appendix A of this part, using consistent accounting policies and procedures as provided in § 1273.9(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fiscal agent.</I> The OF shall function as the fiscal agent of the Banks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Financing Corporation and Resolution Funding Corporation.</I> The OF shall perform such duties and responsibilities for FICO as may be required under part 1271, subpart D, of this chapter, or for REFCORP as may be required under part 1271, subpart E, of this chapter or authorized by FHFA pursuant to section 21B(c)(6)(B) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b(c)(6)(B)).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.4   FHFA oversight.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Oversight and enforcement actions.</I> FHFA shall have such oversight authority over the OF, the OF board of directors, the officers, employees, agents, attorneys, accountants, or other OF staff as set forth in the Bank Act, the Safety and Soundness Act, and FHFA regulations issued thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Examinations.</I> Pursuant to section 20 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1440), FHFA shall examine the OF, all funds and accounts that may be established pursuant to this part 1273, and the operations and activities of the OF, as provided for in the Bank Act, the Safety and Soundness Act, or any regulations promulgated pursuant thereto.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Combined financial reports.</I> FHFA shall determine whether a combined Bank System annual or quarterly financial report complies with the standards of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.5   Funding of the OF.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Generally.</I> The Banks are responsible for jointly funding all the expenses of the OF, including the costs of indemnifying the members of the OF board of directors, the Chief Executive Officer, and other officers and employees of the OF, as provided for in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Funding policies.</I> (1) At the direction of and pursuant to policies and procedures adopted by the OF board of directors, the Banks shall periodically reimburse the OF in order to maintain sufficient operating funds under the budget approved by the OF board of directors. The OF operating funds shall be:
</P>
<P>(i) Available for expenses of the OF and the OF board of directors, according to their approved budgets; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to withdrawal by check, wire transfer or draft signed by the Chief Executive Officer or other persons designated by the OF board of directors.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Bank's respective <I>pro rata</I> share of the reimbursement described in paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall be based on a reasonable formula approved by the OF board of directors. Such formula shall be subject to the review of FHFA, and the OF board of directors shall make any changes to the formula as may be ordered by FHFA from time to time.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative funding method.</I> With the prior approval of FHFA, the OF board of directors may, by contract with a Bank or Banks, choose to be reimbursed through a fee structure, in lieu of or in addition to assessment, for services provided to the Bank or Banks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prompt reimbursement.</I> Each Bank from time to time shall promptly forward funds to the OF in an amount representing its share of the reimbursement described in paragraph (b) of this section when directed to do so by the Chief Executive Officer pursuant to the procedures of the OF board of directors.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indemnification expenses.</I> All expenses incident to indemnification of the members of the OF board of directors, the Chief Executive Officer, and other officers and employees of the OF shall be treated as an expense of the OF to be reimbursed by the Banks under the provisions of this part.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Operating funds segregated.</I> Any funds received by the OF from the Banks pursuant to this section for OF operating expenses promptly shall be deposited into one or more accounts and shall not be commingled with any proceeds from the sale of consolidated obligations in any manner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.6   Debt management duties of the OF.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Issuing and servicing of consolidated obligations.</I> The OF, as agent for the Banks, shall issue and service (including making timely payments on principal and interest due, subject to §§ 1270.9 and 1270.10 of this chapter) consolidated obligations pursuant to and in accordance with the policies and procedures established by the OF board of directors under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Combined financial reports requirements.</I> The OF, under the oversight of the Audit Committee, shall prepare and distribute the combined annual and quarterly financial reports for the Bank System in accordance with the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) The scope, form, and content of the disclosure generally shall be consistent with the requirements of the Securities and Exchange Commission Regulations S-K and S-X (17 CFR parts 229 and 210).
</P>
<P>(2) Information about each Bank shall be presented as a segment of the Bank System as if generally accepted accounting principles regarding business segment disclosure applied to the combined annual and quarterly financial reports of the Bank System, and shall be presented using consistent accounting policies and procedures as provided in § 1273.9(b) of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) The standards set forth in paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(2) of this section are subject to the exceptions set forth in Appendix A to this part.
</P>
<P>(4) The combined Bank System annual financial reports shall be filed with FHFA and distributed to each Bank and Bank member within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year. The combined Bank System quarterly financial reports shall be filed with FHFA and distributed to each Bank and Bank member within 45 days after the end of the of the first three fiscal quarters of each year.
</P>
<P>(5) The Audit Committee shall ensure that the combined Bank System annual or quarterly financial reports comply with the standards of this part.
</P>
<P>(6) The OF and the OF board of directors, including the Audit Committee, shall comply promptly with any directive of FHFA regarding the preparation, filing, amendment, or distribution of the combined Bank System annual or quarterly financial reports.
</P>
<P>(7) Nothing in this section shall create or be deemed to create any rights in any third party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital markets data.</I> The OF shall provide capital markets information concerning debt to the Banks.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>NRSROs.</I> The OF shall manage the relationships with NRSROs in connection with their rating of consolidated obligations.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Research.</I> The OF shall conduct research reasonably related to the issuance or servicing of consolidated obligations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Monitor Banks' credit exposure.</I> The OF shall timely monitor, and compile relevant data on, each Bank's and the Bank System's unsecured credit exposure to individual counterparties.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.7   Structure of the OF board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Membership.</I> The OF board of directors shall consist of part-time members as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Each of the Bank presidents, <I>ex officio,</I> provided that if the presidency of any Bank becomes vacant, the person designated by the Bank's board of directors to temporarily fulfill the duties of president of that Bank shall serve on the OF board of directors until the presidency is filled permanently; and
</P>
<P>(2) Five Independent Directors who—
</P>
<P>(i) Each shall be a citizen of the United States;
</P>
<P>(ii) As a group, shall have substantial experience in financial and accounting matters; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Shall not have any material relationship with a Bank, or the OF (directly or as a partner, shareholder, or officer of an organization), as determined under criteria set forth in a policy adopted by the OF board of directors. At a minimum, such policy shall provide that an Independent Director may not:
</P>
<P>(A) Be an officer, director, or employee of any Bank or member of a Bank, or have been an officer, director, or employee of a Bank or member of a Bank during the previous three years;
</P>
<P>(B) Be an officer or employee of the OF, or have been an officer or employee of the OF during the previous three years; or
</P>
<P>(C) Be affiliated with any consolidated obligations selling or dealer group under contract with OF, or hold shares or any other financial interest in any entity that is part of a consolidated obligations seller or dealer group in an amount greater than the lesser of $250,000 or 0.01% of the market capitalization of the seller or dealer group, or in an amount that exceeds $1,000,000 for all entities that are part of any consolidated obligations seller dealer group, combined. For purposes of this paragraph (a)(2)(iii)(C), a holding company of an entity that is part of a consolidated obligations seller or dealer group shall be deemed to be part of the consolidated obligations selling or dealer group if the assets of the holding company's subsidiaries that are part of a consolidated obligation seller or dealer group constitute 35% or more of the consolidated assets of the holding company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, each Independent Director shall serve for five-year terms (which shall be staggered so that no more than one Independent Director seat would be scheduled to become vacant in any one year), and shall be subject to removal or suspension in accordance with § 1273.4(a). An Independent Director may not serve more than two full, consecutive terms, provided that any partial term served by an Independent Director pursuant to paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall not count as a term for purposes of this restriction.
</P>
<P>(2) The OF board of directors shall fill any vacancy among the Independent Directors occurring prior to the scheduled end of a term by majority vote, subject to FHFA's review of, and non-objection to, the new Independent Director. The OF board of directors shall provide FHFA with the same biographic and background information about the new Independent Director required under paragraph (c) of this section, and FHFA shall have the same rights of non-objection to the Independent Director (and to appoint a different Independent Director) as set forth in paragraph (c) of this section. A person shall be elected (or otherwise appointed by FHFA) under this paragraph (b)(2) to serve only for the remainder of the term associated with the vacant directorship.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Election of Independent Directors.</I> The Independent Directors shall be elected by majority vote of the OF board of directors, subject to FHFA's review of, and non-objection to, each Independent Director. The OF board of directors shall provide FHFA with relevant biographic and background information, including information demonstrating that the new Independent Director meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section, at least 20 business days before the person assumes any duties as a member of the OF board of directors. If the OF board of directors, in FHFA's judgment, fails to elect a suitably qualified person, FHFA may appoint some other person who meets the requirements of paragraph (a)(2) of this section. FHFA will provide notice of its objection to a particular Independent Director prior to the date that such Director is to assume duties as a member of the OF board of directors. Such notice shall indicate whether, given FHFA's objection, FHFA intends to fill the seat through appointment or a new election should be held by the OF board of directors.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Election of Chair and Vice-Chair.</I> (1) The Chair shall be elected by majority vote of the OF board of directors from among the Independent Directors then serving on the OF board of directors, and the Vice Chair shall be elected by majority vote of the OF board of directors from among all directors.
</P>
<P>(2) The OF board of directors shall promptly inform FHFA of the election of a Chair or Vice Chair. If FHFA objects to any Chair or Vice Chair elected by the OF board of directors, FHFA shall provide written notice of its objection within 20 business days of the date that FHFA first receives the notice of the election of the Chair and or Vice Chair, and the OF board of directors must then promptly elect a new Chair or Vice Chair, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>By-laws and Committees.</I> (1) The OF board of directors shall adopt by-laws governing the manner in which the board conducts its affairs, which shall be consistent with the requirements of this part and other applicable laws and regulations as administered by FHFA. The by-laws of the board of directors shall be subject to review and approval by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the Audit Committee required under § 1273.9, the OF board of directors may establish other committees, including an Executive Committee. The duties and powers of such committee, including any powers delegated by the OF board of directors, shall be specified in the by-laws of the board of directors or the charter of the committee.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Compensation.</I> (1) The Bank presidents shall not receive any additional compensation or reimbursement as a result of their service as a director of the OF board.
</P>
<P>(2) The OF shall pay reasonable compensation and expenses to the Independent Directors in accordance with the requirements for payment of compensation and expenses to Bank directors as set forth in part 1261 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Corporate Governance and Indemnification</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> The corporate governance practices and procedures of the OF, and practices and procedures related to indemnification (including advancement of expenses) shall comply with applicable Federal law, rules, and regulations.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Election and designation of body of law.</I> (i) To the extent not inconsistent with paragraph (g)(1) of this section, the OF shall elect to follow the corporate governance and indemnification practices and procedures set forth in one of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The law of the jurisdiction in which the principal office of the OF is located;
</P>
<P>(B) The Delaware General Corporation Law (Del. Code Ann. Title 8); or
</P>
<P>(C) The Revised Model Business Corporation Act.
</P>
<P>(ii) The OF board of directors shall designate in its by-laws the body of law elected pursuant to this paragraph (g)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Indemnification.</I> Subject to paragraphs (g)(1) and (2) of this section, to the extent applicable, the OF shall indemnify (and advance the expenses of) its directors, officers, and employees under such terms and conditions as are determined by the OF board of directors. The OF shall be authorized to maintain insurance for its directors, the CEO, and any other officer or employee of the OF. Nothing in this paragraph (g)(3) shall affect any rights to indemnification (including the advancement of expenses) that a director, the CEO, or any other officer or employee of the OF had with respect to any actions, omissions, transactions, or facts occurring prior to December 2, 2016.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Delegation.</I> In addition to any delegation to a committee allowed under paragraph (e) of this section, the OF board of directors may delegate any of its authority or duties to any employee of the OF in order to enable OF to carry out its functions.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Outside staff and consultants.</I> In carrying out its duties and responsibilities, the OF board of directors, or any committee thereof, shall have authority to retain staff and outside counsel, independent accountants, or other outside consultants at the expense of the OF.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 76298, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.8   General duties of the OF board of directors.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each director shall have the duty to:
</P>
<P>(1) Carry out his or her duties as director in good faith, in a manner such director believes to be in the best interests of the OF and the Bank System, and with such care, including reasonable inquiry, as an ordinarily prudent person in a like position would use under similar circumstances;
</P>
<P>(2) Administer the affairs of the OF fairly and impartially and without discrimination in favor of or against any Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) At the time of appointment or election, or within a reasonable time thereafter, have a working familiarity with basic finance and accounting practices, including the ability to read and understand the Banks' combined balance sheets and income statements and the relevant financial statements of the OF and to ask substantive questions of management and the internal and external auditors with regard to both the combined financial statements of the Bank System and the operations and financial statements of the OF, as appropriate; and
</P>
<P>(4) Direct the operations of the OF in conformity with the requirements set forth in the Bank Act, Safety and Soundness Act, and this chapter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Meetings and quorum.</I> The OF board of directors shall conduct its business by majority vote of its members at meetings convened in accordance with its by-laws, and shall hold no fewer than six in-person meetings annually. Due notice shall be given to FHFA by the Chair prior to each meeting. A quorum, for purposes of meetings of the OF board of directors, shall require a majority of sitting board members, which must include a majority of sitting Independent Directors.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Duties regarding COs.</I> The OF board of directors shall oversee the establishment of policies regarding COs that shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Govern the frequency and timing of issuance, issue size, minimum denomination, CO concessions, underwriter qualifications, currency of issuance, interest-rate change or conversion features, call features, principal indexing features, selection and retention of outside counsel, selection of clearing organizations, and the selection and compensation of underwriters for consolidated obligations, which shall be in accordance with the requirements and limitations set forth in paragraph (c)(4) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Prohibit the issuance of COs intended to be privately placed with or sold without the participation of an underwriter to retail investors, or issued with a concession structure designed to facilitate the placement of the COs in retail accounts, unless the OF has given notice to the board of directors of each Bank describing a policy permitting such issuances, soliciting comments from each Bank's board of directors, and considering the comments received before adopting a policy permitting such issuance activities;
</P>
<P>(3) Require all broker-dealers or underwriters under contract to the OF to have and maintain adequate suitability sales practices and policies, which shall be acceptable to, and subject to review by, the OF;
</P>
<P>(4) Require that COs shall be issued efficiently and at the lowest all-in funding costs over time, consistent with—
</P>
<P>(i) Prudent risk-management practices, prudential debt parameters, short and long-term market conditions, and the Banks' role as GSEs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintaining reliable access to the short-term and long-term capital markets; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Positioning the issuance of debt to take advantage of current and future capital market opportunities.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other duties.</I> The OF board of directors shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Set policies for management and operation of the OF;
</P>
<P>(2) Approve a strategic business plan for the OF in accordance with the provisions of § 1239.14 of this chapter, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(3) Select, employ, determine the compensation for, and assign the duties and functions of a Chief Executive Officer of the OF who shall—
</P>
<P>(i) Be head of the OF and direct the implementation of the OF board of directors' policies;
</P>
<P>(ii) Serve as a member of the Directorate of the FICO, pursuant to section 21(b)(1)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441(b)(1)(A)); and
</P>
<P>(iii) Serve as a member of the Directorate of the REFCORP, pursuant to section 21B(c)(1)(A) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b(c)(1)(A)).
</P>
<P>(4) Review and approve all contracts of the OF, except for contracts for which exclusive authority is provided to the Audit Committee by paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(6) of § 1273.9; and
</P>
<P>(5) Assume any other responsibilities that may from time to time be assigned to it by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No rights created.</I> Nothing in this part shall create or be deemed to create any rights in any third party.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 76299, Nov. 2, 2016; 83 FR 52954, Oct. 19, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1273.9" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1273.9   Audit Committee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Composition.</I> The Independent Directors shall serve as the Audit Committee. The Audit Committee shall elect its chairperson from among its members. The Chairperson of the OF may also serve as chairperson of the Audit Committee, if the Audit Committee members so decide.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Responsibilities.</I> (1) The Audit Committee shall be responsible for overseeing the audit function of the OF and the preparation and the accurate and meaningful combination of information submitted by the Banks in the Bank System's combined financial reports.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of the combined financial reports, the Audit Committee shall ensure that the Banks adopt consistent accounting policies and procedures to the extent necessary for information submitted by the Banks to the OF to be combined to create accurate and meaningful combined financial reports.
</P>
<P>(3) The Audit Committee, in consultation with FHFA, may establish common accounting policies and procedures for the information submitted by the Banks to the OF for the combined financial reports where the Committee determines such information provided by the several Banks is inconsistent and that consistent policies and procedures regarding that information are necessary to create accurate and meaningful combined financial reports.
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent possible the Audit Committee shall operate consistent with the requirements pertaining to audit committee reports set forth in Item 407(d)(3) of Regulation S-K promulgated by the Securities and Exchange Commission.
</P>
<P>(5) The Audit Committee shall oversee internal audit activities, including the selection, evaluation, compensation, and, where appropriate, replacement of the internal auditor. The internal auditor shall report directly to the Audit Committee on substantive matters, and is ultimately accountable to the Audit Committee and the board of directors.
</P>
<P>(6) The Audit Committee shall have the exclusive authority to employ and contract for the services of an independent, external auditor for the Banks' annual and quarterly combined financial statements and of an independent, external auditor for OF.
</P>
<P>(7) The Audit Committee shall direct senior management to maintain the reliability and integrity of the accounting policies and financial reporting of the OF.
</P>
<P>(8) The Audit Committee shall review the basis for the OF's financial statements and the external auditor's opinion rendered with respect to such financial statements.
</P>
<P>(9) The Audit Committee shall ensure that senior management has established and is maintaining an adequate internal control system within the OF by:
</P>
<P>(i) Reviewing the OF's internal control system and the resolution of identified material weaknesses and reportable conditions in the internal control system, including the prevention or detection of management override or compromise of the internal control system; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Reviewing the programs and policies of the OF designed to ensure compliance with applicable laws, regulations, and policies and monitoring the results of these compliance efforts.
</P>
<P>(10) The Audit Committee shall review the policies and procedures established by senior management to assess and monitor implementation of the OF strategic business plan and the operating goals and objectives contained therein.
</P>
<P>(11) The Audit Committee shall provide an independent, direct channel of communication between the OF's board of directors and the internal and external auditors.
</P>
<P>(12) The Audit Committee shall conduct or authorize investigations into any matters within the Audit Committee's scope of responsibilities.
</P>
<P>(13) The Audit Committee shall report periodically its findings to the OF's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(14) The Audit Committee shall prepare written minutes of each Audit Committee meeting.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Charter.</I> (1) The Audit Committee shall adopt, and the OF board of directors shall approve, a formal written charter, consistent with the duties and authority set forth in this section, that specifies the scope of the Audit Committee's powers and responsibilities. The Audit Committee and the OF board of directors shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Review, and assess the adequacy of and, where appropriate, amend the Audit Committee charter on an annual basis; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Re-adopt and re-approve, respectively, the Audit Committee charter not less often than every three years.
</P>
<P>(2) The charter of the Audit Committee shall be subject to review and approval by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No delegation.</I> The Audit Committee may not delegate the responsibilities assigned to it under this section to any person, or to any other committee or sub-committee of the OF board of directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 76299, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.54.0.5.10.6" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1273—Exceptions to the General Disclosure Standards
</HEAD>
<P><I>A. Related-party transactions.</I> Item 404 of Regulation S-K, 17 CFR 229.404, requires the disclosure of certain relationships and related party transactions. In light of the cooperative nature of the Bank System, related-party transactions are to be expected, and a disclosure of all related-party transactions that meet the threshold would not be meaningful. Instead, the combined annual report will disclose the percent of advances to members an officer of which serves as a Bank director, and list the top ten holders of advances in the Bank System and the top five holders of advances by Bank, with a further disclosure indicating which of these members had an officer that served as a Bank director. The combined financial report will also disclose the top ten holders of advances in the Bank System by holding company, where the advances of all affiliates within a holding company are aggregated.
</P>
<P><I>B. Biographical information.</I> The biographical information required by Items 401 and 405 of Regulation S-K, 17 CFR 229.401 and 405, will be provided only for members of the OF board of directors, including the Bank presidents, the Chair and Vice-Chair of the board of directors of each Bank, and the Chief Executive Officer of OF.
</P>
<P><I>C. Compensation.</I> The information on compensation required by Item 402 of Regulation S-K, 17 CFR 229.402, will be provided only for Bank presidents and the CEO of the OF.
</P>
<P><I>D. Submission of matters to a vote of stockholders.</I> No information will be presented on matters submitted to shareholders for a vote, as otherwise required by Item 4 of the SEC's form 10-K, 17 CFR 249.310.
</P>
<P><I>E. Exhibits.</I> The exhibits required by Item 601 of Regulation S-K, 17 CFR 229.601, are not applicable and will not be provided.
</P>
<P><I>F. Per share information.</I> The statement of financial information required by Items 301 and 302 of Rule S-K, 17 CFR 229.301 and 302, is inapplicable because the shares of the Banks are subscription capital that trades at par, and the shares expand or contract with changes in member assets or advance levels.
</P>
<P><I>G. Beneficial ownership.</I> Item 403 of Rule S-K, 17 CFR 229.403, requires the disclosure of security ownership of certain beneficial owners and management. The combined financial report will provide a listing of the ten largest holders of capital stock in the Bank System and a listing of the five largest holders of capital stock by Bank. This listing will also indicate which members had an officer that served as a director of a Bank. The combined financial report will also disclose the top ten holders of Bank stock in the Bank System by holding company, where the Bank stock of all affiliates within a holding company is aggregated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23161, May 3, 2010, as amended at 81 FR 76299, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1274" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.55" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1274—FINANCIAL STATEMENTS OF THE BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 1431, 4511(b), 4513, 4526(a).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 23166, May 3, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1274.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.55.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1274.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Audit</I> means an examination of the financial statements by an independent accountant in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards for the purpose of expressing an opinion thereon.
</P>
<P><I>Audit report</I> means a document in which an independent accountant indicates the scope the audit made and sets forth an opinion regarding the financial statement taken as a whole, or an assertion to the effect that an overall opinion cannot be expressed. When an overall opinion cannot be expressed, the reasons therefor shall be stated.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 23166, May 3, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2328, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76300, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1274.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.55.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1274.2   Audit requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Bank, the OF, and the FICO shall obtain annually an independent external audit of and an audit report on its individual financial statement.
</P>
<P>(b) The OF audit committee shall obtain an audit and an audit report on the combined annual financial statements for the Bank System.
</P>
<P>(c) All audits must be conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards and in accordance with the most current government auditing standards issued by the Office of the Comptroller General of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) An independent, external auditor must meet at least twice each year with the audit committee of each Bank, the audit committee of OF, and the FICO Directorate.
</P>
<P>(e) FHFA examiners shall have unrestricted access to all auditors' work papers and to the auditors to address substantive accounting issues that may arise during the course of any audit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1274.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.55.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1274.3   Requirements to provide financial and other information to FHFA and the OF.</HEAD>
<P>In order to facilitate the preparation by the OF of combined Bank System annual and quarterly reports, each Bank shall provide to the OF in such form and within such timeframes as FHFA or the OF shall specify, all financial and other information and assistance that the OF shall request for that purpose. Nothing in this section shall contravene or be deemed to circumscribe in any manner the authority of FHFA to obtain any information from any Bank related to the preparation or review of any financial report.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1277" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1277—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK CAPITAL REQUIREMENTS, CAPITAL STOCK AND CAPITAL PLANS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1426, 1436(a), 1440, 1443, 1446, 4511, 4513, 4514, 4526, 4612.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 12755, Mar. 11, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Definitions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affiliated counterparty</I> means a counterparty of a Bank that controls, is controlled by, or is under common control with another counterparty of the Bank. For the purposes of this definition only, direct or indirect ownership (including beneficial ownership) of more than 50 percent of the voting securities or voting interests of an entity constitutes control.
</P>
<P><I>Bankruptcy remote</I> means, in the context of any asset that a Bank has posted as collateral to a counterparty, that the asset would be excluded from that counterparty's estate in receivership, insolvency, liquidation, or similar proceeding.
</P>
<P><I>Class A stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified by § 1277.20(a).
</P>
<P><I>Class B stock</I> means capital stock issued by a Bank, including subclasses, that has the characteristics specified by § 1277.20(b).
</P>
<P><I>Collateralized mortgage obligation,</I> or <I>CMO,</I> means any instrument backed or collateralized by residential mortgages or residential mortgage securities, that includes two or more tranches or classes, or is otherwise structured in any manner other than as a pass-through security.
</P>
<P><I>Commitment to make an advance or acquire a loan subject to certain drawdown</I> means a legally binding agreement that commits the Bank to make an advance or acquire a loan, at or by a specified future date.
</P>
<P><I>Credit derivative</I> means a derivative contract that transfers credit risk.
</P>
<P><I>Credit risk</I> means the risk that the market value, or estimated fair value if market value is not available, of an obligation will decline as a result of deterioration in the creditworthiness of the obligor.
</P>
<P><I>Derivatives clearing organization</I> means an organization that clears derivative contracts and is registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission as a derivatives clearing organization pursuant to section 5b(a) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1), or that the Commodity Futures Trading Commission has exempted from registration by rule or order pursuant to section 5b(h) of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1(h)), or is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as a clearing agency pursuant to section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1), or that the SEC has exempted from registration as a clearing agency under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1(k)).
</P>
<P><I>Derivative contract</I> means generally a financial contract the value of which is derived from the values of one or more underlying assets, reference rates, or indices of asset values, or credit-related events. Derivative contracts include interest rate, foreign exchange rate, equity, precious metals, commodity, and credit derivative contracts, and any other instruments that pose similar counterparty credit risks.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible master netting agreement</I> has the same meaning as set forth in § 1221.2 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Exchange rate contracts</I> include cross-currency interest-rate swaps, forward foreign exchange rate contracts, currency options purchased, and any similar instruments that give rise to similar risks.
</P>
<P><I>Former member</I> means an institution for which the membership in a Bank has been terminated but which continues to hold stock in the Bank as required by the Bank's capital plan, and includes any successor to such institution that continues to hold the stock in the Bank that had been issued to the acquired institution.
</P>
<P><I>General allowance for losses</I> means an allowance established by the Bank in accordance with GAAP for losses, but which does not include any amounts held against specific assets of the Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Government Sponsored Enterprise,</I> or <I>GSE,</I> means a United States Government-sponsored agency or instrumentality established or chartered to serve public purposes specified by the United States Congress, but whose obligations are not obligations of the United States and are not guaranteed by the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Internal cash-flow model</I> means a model developed and used by a Bank to estimate the potential evolving changes in the cash flows and market values of a portfolio for each month, extending out for a period of years, subject to a variety of plausible time paths of changes in interest rates, volatilities, and option adjusted spreads, and that incorporates assumptions about new or revolving business, including the roll-off and possible replacement of assets and liabilities as required.
</P>
<P><I>Internal market-risk model</I> means a model developed and used by a Bank to estimate the potential change in the market value of a portfolio subject to an instantaneous change in interest rates, volatilities, and option-adjusted spreads.
</P>
<P><I>Market risk</I> means the risk that the market value, or estimated fair value if market value is not available, of a Bank's portfolio will decline as a result of changes in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, or equity or commodity prices.
</P>
<P><I>Market value-at-risk</I> is the loss in the market value of a Bank's portfolio measured from a base line case, where the loss is estimated in accordance with § 1277.5.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum investment</I> means the minimum amount of stock that an institution is required to own in order to be a member of a Bank and in order to obtain advances and to engage in other business activities with the Bank in accordance with § 1277.22.
</P>
<P><I>Non-mortgage asset</I> means an asset held by a Bank other than an advance, a non-rated asset, a residential mortgage asset, a collateralized mortgage obligation, or a derivative contract.
</P>
<P><I>Non-rated asset</I> means a Bank's cash, premises, plant and equipment, and investments authorized pursuant to § 1265.3(e) and (f) of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>Operational risk</I> means the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems, or from external events.
</P>
<P><I>Permanent capital</I> means the retained earnings of a Bank, determined in accordance with GAAP, plus the amount paid-in for the Bank's Class B stock.
</P>
<P><I>Redeem or Redemption</I> means the acquisition by a Bank of its outstanding Class A or Class B stock at par value following the expiration of the six-month or five-year statutory redemption period, respectively, for the stock.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory capital requirements</I> means the minimum amounts of permanent and total capital that a Bank is required to maintain under section 6(a) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1426(a)) and any related regulations, as such requirements may be modified by the Director, or any similar requirement established for a Bank by regulation, order, written agreement or other action.
</P>
<P><I>Repurchase</I> means the acquisition by a Bank of excess stock prior to the expiration of the six-month or five-year statutory redemption period for the stock.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means a loan secured by a residential structure that contains one-to-four dwelling units, regardless of whether the structure is attached to real property. The term encompasses, among other things, loans secured by individual condominium or cooperative units and manufactured housing, whether or not the manufactured housing is considered real property under state law, and participation interests in such loans.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage asset,</I> or <I>RMA,</I> means any residential mortgage, residential mortgage pool, or residential mortgage security.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage security</I> means any instrument representing an undivided interest in a pool of residential mortgages.
</P>
<P><I>Sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract</I> means an overnight federal funds loan that is automatically renewed each day unless terminated by either the lender or the borrower.
</P>
<P><I>Total assets</I> mean the total assets of a Bank, as determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> of a Bank means the sum of permanent capital, the amounts paid-in for Class A stock, the amount of any general allowance for losses, and the amount of other instruments identified in a Bank's capital plan that the Director has determined to be available to absorb losses incurred by such Bank.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 12755, Mar. 11, 2015, as amended at 84 FR 5325, Feb. 20, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Bank Capital Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 5326, Feb. 20, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1277.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.2   Total capital requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall maintain at all times:
</P>
<P>(a) Total capital in an amount at least equal to 4.0 percent of the Bank's total assets; and
</P>
<P>(b) A leverage ratio of total capital to total assets of at least 5.0 percent of the Bank's total assets. For purposes of determining this leverage ratio, total capital shall be computed by multiplying the Bank's permanent capital by 1.5 and adding to this product all other components of total capital.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.3   Risk-based capital requirement.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall maintain at all times permanent capital in an amount at least equal to the sum of its credit risk capital requirement, its market risk capital requirement, and its operational risk capital requirement, calculated in accordance with §§ 1277.4, 1277.5, and 1277.6, respectively.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.4   Credit risk capital requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Each Bank's credit risk capital requirement shall equal the sum of the Bank's individual credit risk capital charges for all advances, residential mortgage assets, CMOs, non-mortgage assets, non-rated assets, off-balance sheet items, and derivative contracts, as calculated in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit risk capital charge for residential mortgage assets and collateralized mortgage obligations.</I> The credit risk capital charge for residential mortgages, residential mortgage pools, residential mortgage securities, and collateralized mortgage obligations shall be determined as set forth in paragraph (g) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit risk capital charge for advances, non-mortgage assets, and non-rated assets.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, each Bank's credit risk capital charge for advances, non-mortgage assets, and non-rated assets shall be equal to the amortized cost of the asset multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned to that asset pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) or (2) of this section. For any such asset carried at fair value where any change in fair value is recognized in the Bank's income, the Bank shall calculate the capital charge based on the fair value of the asset rather than its amortized cost.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Credit risk capital charge for off-balance sheet items.</I> Each Bank's credit risk capital charge for an off-balance sheet item shall be equal to the credit equivalent amount of such item, as determined pursuant to paragraph (h) of this section, multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned to that item pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section and Table 2 to this section, except that the credit risk percentage requirement applied to the credit equivalent amount for a standby letter of credit shall be that for an advance with the same remaining maturity as that of the standby letter of credit, as specified in Table 1 to this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Derivative contracts.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (e)(4) (transactions with members) and (5) (cleared transactions and foreign exchange rate contracts) of this section, the credit risk capital charge for a derivative contract entered into by a Bank shall equal, after any adjustment allowed under paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the sum of:
</P>
<P>(i) The current credit exposure for the derivative contract, calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(1) of this section, multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned to that derivative contract pursuant to Table 2 to this section, provided that a Bank shall use the credit risk percentages from the column for instruments with maturities of one year or less for all such derivative contracts; plus
</P>
<P>(ii) The potential future credit exposure for the derivative contract, calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section, multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned to that derivative contract pursuant to Table 2 to this section, where a Bank uses the actual remaining maturity of the derivative contract for the purpose of applying Table 2 to this section; plus
</P>
<P>(iii) A credit risk capital charge applicable to the undiscounted amount of collateral posted by the Bank with respect to a derivative contract that exceeds the Bank's current payment obligation under that derivative contract, where the charge equals the amount of such excess collateral multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned under Table 2 to this section for the custodian or other party that holds the collateral, and where a Bank deems the exposure to have a remaining maturity of one year or less when applying Table 2 to this section.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) A Bank may reduce the credit risk capital charge calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section by the amount of the discounted value of any collateral that is held by or on behalf of the Bank against an exposure from the derivative contract, and that satisfies the requirements of paragraph (e)(3) of this section. If the total amount of the discounted value of the collateral is less than the credit risk capital charge calculated under paragraph (e)(1) of this section for a particular derivative contract, then the credit risk capital charge for the derivative contract shall equal the amount of the initial charge that remains after having been reduced by the collateral. A Bank that uses a counterparty's pledged collateral to reduce the capital charge against a derivative contract under this provision, shall also apply a capital charge to the amount of the pledged collateral that it has used to reduce its credit exposure on the derivative contract. The amount of that capital charge shall be equal to the capital charge that would be required under paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, whichever applies to the type of collateral, as if the Bank were to own the collateral directly. In reducing the capital charge on a particular derivative contract, the Bank shall apply the discounted value of the collateral for that derivative contract in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(A) First, to reduce the current credit exposure of the derivative contract subject to the capital charge; and
</P>
<P>(B) Second, and only if the total discounted value of the collateral held exceeds the current credit exposure of the contract, any remaining amounts may be applied to reduce the amount of the potential future credit exposure of the derivative contract subject to the capital charge.
</P>
<P>(ii) If a counterparty's payment obligations to a Bank under a derivative contract are unconditionally guaranteed by a third-party, then the credit risk percentage requirement applicable to the derivative contract may be that associated with the guarantor, rather than the Bank's counterparty.
</P>
<P>(3) The credit risk capital charge may be reduced as described in paragraph (e)(2)(i) of this section for collateral held against the derivative contract exposure only if the collateral is:
</P>
<P>(i) Held by, or has been paid to, the Bank or held by an independent, third-party custodian on behalf of the Bank pursuant to a custody agreement that meets the requirements of § 1221.7(c) and (d) of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(ii) Legally available to absorb losses;
</P>
<P>(iii) Of a readily determinable value at which it can be liquidated by the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Subject to an appropriate discount to protect against price decline during the holding period and the costs likely to be incurred in the liquidation of the collateral, provided that such discount shall equal at least the minimum discount required under appendix B to part 1221 of this chapter for collateral listed in that appendix, or shall be estimated by the Bank based on appropriate assumptions about the price risks and liquidation costs for collateral not listed in appendix B to part 1221.
</P>
<P>(4) The credit risk capital charge for any derivative contracts entered into between a Bank and its members shall be calculated in accordance with paragraph (e)(1) of this section, except that the Bank shall use the credit risk percentage requirements from Table 1 to this section, which sets forth the credit risk percentage requirements for advances.
</P>
<P>(5) Notwithstanding any other provision in this paragraph (e), the credit risk capital charge for:
</P>
<P>(i) A foreign exchange rate contract (excluding gold contracts) with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less shall be zero; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A derivative contract cleared by a derivatives clearing organization shall equal 0.16 percent times the sum of the following:
</P>
<P>(A) The current credit exposure for the derivative contract, calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(1)(i) of this section;
</P>
<P>(B) The potential future credit exposure for the derivative contract calculated in accordance with paragraph (i)(2) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of collateral posted by the Bank and held by the derivatives clearing organization, clearing member, or custodian in a manner that is not bankruptcy remote, but only to the extent the amount exceeds the Bank's current credit exposure to the derivatives clearing organization.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Determination of credit risk percentage requirements</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> (i) Each Bank shall determine the credit risk percentage requirement applicable to each advance and each non-rated asset by identifying the appropriate category from Table 1 or 3 to this section, respectively, to which the advance or non-rated asset belongs. Except as provided in paragraphs (f)(2) and (3) of this section, each Bank shall determine the credit risk percentage requirement applicable to each non-mortgage asset, off-balance sheet item, and derivative contract by identifying the appropriate category set forth in Table 2 to this section to which the asset, item, or contract belongs as determined in accordance with paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section, and remaining maturity. Each Bank shall use the applicable credit risk percentage requirement to calculate the credit risk capital charge for each asset, item, or contract in accordance with paragraph (c), (d), or (e) of this section, respectively. The relevant categories and credit risk percentage requirements are provided in the following Tables 1 through 3 to this section—
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1277.4—Requirement for Advances
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maturity of advances
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage
<br/>applicable
<br/>to advances
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Advances with:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Remaining maturity &lt;=4 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.09
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Remaining maturity &gt;4 years to 7 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.23
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Remaining maturity &gt;7 years to 10 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">Remaining maturity &gt;10 years</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.51</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 1277.4—Requirement for Internally Rated Non-Mortgage Assets, Off-Balance Sheet Items, and Derivative Contracts
</P><P class="gpotbl_description">[Based on remaining contractual maturity]
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" rowspan="2" scope="col">FHFA Credit Rating
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" colspan="5" scope="col">Applicable percentage
</TH></TR><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&lt;=1 year
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;1 yr to 3 yrs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;3 yrs to 7 yrs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;7 yrs to
<br/>10 yrs
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">&gt;10 yrs
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">U.S. Government Securities</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.20</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.59</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.37</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.28</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.32
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.36</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.87</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.88</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.07</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.64</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.31</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.65</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.22</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.01
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.79</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">7.89</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.51</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9.24</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.46</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.90</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.08</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18.06</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.18</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">26.99</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">32.49
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 4em">FHFA 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 1277.4—Requirement for Non-Rated Assets
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Type of unrated asset
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Applicable
<br/>percentage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Premises, Plant and Equipment</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Investments Under 12 CFR 1265.3(e) &amp; (f)</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(ii) Each Bank shall develop a methodology to be used to assign an internal credit risk rating to each counterparty, asset, item, and contract that is subject to Table 2 to this section. The methodology shall involve an evaluation of counterparty or asset risk factors, and may incorporate, but must not rely solely on, credit ratings prepared by credit rating agencies. Each Bank shall align its various internal credit ratings to the appropriate categories of FHFA Credit Ratings included in Table 2 to this section. In doing so, FHFA Categories 7 through 1 shall include assets of progressively higher credit quality. After aligning its internal credit ratings to the appropriate categories of Table 2 to this section, each Bank shall assign each counterparty, asset, item, and contract to the appropriate FHFA Credit Rating category based on the applicable internal credit rating.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception for assets subject to a guarantee or secured by collateral.</I> (i) When determining the applicable credit risk percentage requirement from Table 1 to this section for a non-mortgage asset that is subject to an unconditional guarantee by a third-party guarantor or is secured as set forth in paragraph (f)(2)(ii) of this section, the Bank may substitute the credit risk percentage requirement associated with the guarantor or the collateral, as appropriate, for the credit risk percentage requirement associated with that portion of the asset subject to the guarantee or covered by the collateral.
</P>
<P>(ii) For purposes of paragraph (f)(2)(i) of this section, a non-mortgage asset shall be considered to be secured if the collateral is:
</P>
<P>(A) Actually held by the Bank, or an independent third-party custodian on the Bank's behalf, or, if posted by a Bank member and permitted under the Bank's collateral agreement with that member, by the Bank's member or an affiliate of that member where the term “affiliate” has the same meaning as in § 1266.1 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(B) Legally available to absorb losses;
</P>
<P>(C) Of a readily determinable value at which it can be liquidated by the Bank;
</P>
<P>(D) Held in accordance with the provisions of the Bank's member products policy established pursuant to § 1239.30 of this chapter, if the collateral has been posted by a member or an affiliate of a member; and
</P>
<P>(E) Subject to an appropriate discount to protect against price decline during the holding period and the costs likely to be incurred in the liquidation of the collateral.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for obligations of the Enterprises.</I> A Bank may use a credit risk capital charge of zero for any debt instrument or obligation issued by an Enterprise, other than a residential mortgage security or a collateralized mortgage obligation, provided that, and only for so long as, the Enterprise receives capital support or other form of direct financial assistance from the United States government that enables the Enterprise to repay those obligations.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Methodology and model review.</I> A Bank shall provide to FHFA upon request the methodology, model, and any analyses used by the Bank to assign any non-mortgage asset, off-balance sheet item, or derivative contract to an FHFA Credit Rating category. FHFA may direct a Bank to promptly revise its methodology or model to address any deficiencies identified by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit risk capital charges for residential mortgage assets</I>—(1) <I>Bank determination of credit risk percentage.</I> (i) Each Bank's credit risk capital charge for a residential mortgage, residential mortgage pool, residential mortgage security, or collateralized mortgage obligation shall be equal to the asset's amortized cost multiplied by the credit risk percentage requirement assigned to that asset pursuant to paragraph (g)(1)(ii) or (g)(2) of this section. For any such asset carried at fair value where any change in fair value is recognized in the Bank's income, the Bank shall calculate the capital charge based on the fair value of the asset rather than its amortized cost.
</P>
<P>(ii) Each Bank shall determine the credit risk percentage requirement applicable to each residential mortgage, residential mortgage pool, and residential mortgage security by identifying the appropriate FHFA RMA category set forth in the following Table 4 to this section to which the asset belongs, and shall determine the credit risk percentage requirement applicable to each collateralized mortgage obligation by identifying the appropriate FHFA CMO category set forth in Table 4 to this section to which the asset belongs, with the appropriate categories being determined in accordance with paragraph (g)(1)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(iii) Each Bank shall develop a methodology to estimate the potential future stress losses on its residential mortgages, residential mortgage pools, residential mortgage securities, and collateralized mortgage obligations, as may yet occur from the current amortized cost (or fair value) of those assets, and that converts those loss estimates into a stress loss percentage for each asset, expressed as a percentage of its amortized cost (or fair value). A Bank shall use the stress loss percentage for each asset to determine the appropriate FHFA RMA or CMO ratings category for that asset, as set forth in Table 4 to this section. A Bank shall do so by assigning each such asset to the category whose credit risk percentage requirement equals the asset's stress loss percentage, or to the category with the next highest credit risk percentage requirement. For residential mortgages and residential mortgage pools, the methodology shall involve an evaluation of the residential mortgages and residential mortgage pools and any credit enhancements or guarantees, including an assessment of the creditworthiness of the providers of such enhancements or guarantees. In the case of a residential mortgage security or collateralized mortgage obligation, the methodology shall involve an evaluation of the underlying mortgage collateral, the structure of the security, and any credit enhancements or guarantees, including an assessment of the creditworthiness of the providers of such enhancements or guarantees.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 4 to § 1277.4—Requirement for Residential Mortgage Assets and CMOs
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col"> 
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit risk
<br/>percentage
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Categories for residential mortgage assets:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.86
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.20
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">2.40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA RMA 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Categories for Collateralized Mortgage Obligations:
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.37
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">0.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1.60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">4.45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 5</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 6</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">34.00
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row" style="padding-left: 2em">FHFA CMO 7</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100.00</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) A Bank may use a credit risk capital charge of zero for any residential mortgage asset or collateralized mortgage obligation, or portion thereof, guaranteed by an Enterprise as to payment of principal and interest, provided that, and only for so long as, the Enterprise receives capital support or other form of direct financial assistance from the United States government that enables the Enterprise to repay those obligations;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank may use a credit risk capital charge of zero for any residential mortgage asset or collateralized mortgage obligation, or any portion thereof, guaranteed or insured as to payment of principal and interest by a department or agency of the United States government that is backed by the full faith and credit of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A Bank shall provide to FHFA upon request the methodology, model, and any analyses used to estimate the potential future stress losses on its residential mortgages, residential mortgage pools, residential mortgage securities, and collateralized mortgage obligations, and to determine a stress loss percentage for each such asset. FHFA may direct a Bank to promptly revise its methodology or model to address any deficiencies identified by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Calculation of credit equivalent amount for off-balance sheet items</I>—(1) <I>General requirement.</I> The credit equivalent amount for an off-balance sheet item shall be determined by an FHFA-approved model or shall be equal to the face amount of the instrument multiplied by the credit conversion factor assigned to such risk category of instruments by the following Table 5 to this section, subject to the exceptions in paragraph (h)(2) of this section.
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 5 to § 1277.4—Credit Conversion Factors for Off-Balance Sheet Items
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Instrument
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Credit
<br/>conversion
<br/>factor
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Asset sales with recourse where the credit risk remains with the Bank</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commitments to make advances subject to certain drawdown.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Commitments to acquire loans subject to certain drawdown.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Standby letters of credit</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other commitments with original maturity of over one year.
</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell"/></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Other commitments with original maturity of one year or less</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">20</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The credit conversion factor shall be zero for “Other Commitments With Original Maturity of Over One Year” and “Other Commitments With Original Maturity of One Year or Less” for which Table 5 to this section would otherwise apply credit conversion factors of 50 percent or 20 percent, respectively, if the commitments are unconditionally cancelable, or effectively provide for automatic cancellation due to the deterioration in a borrower's creditworthiness, at any time by the Bank without prior notice.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Calculation of credit exposures for derivative contracts</I>—(1) <I>Current credit exposure</I>—(i) <I>Single derivative contract.</I> The current credit exposure for derivative contracts that are not subject to an eligible master netting agreement shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) If the mark-to-market value of the contract is positive, the mark-to-market value of the contract; or
</P>
<P>(B) If the mark-to-market value of the contract is zero or negative, zero.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Derivative contracts subject to an eligible master netting agreement.</I> The current credit exposure for multiple uncleared derivative contracts executed with a single counterparty and subject to an eligible master netting agreement shall be calculated on a net basis and shall equal:
</P>
<P>(A) The net sum of all positive and negative mark-to-market values of the individual derivative contracts subject to the eligible master netting agreement, if the net sum of the mark-to-market values is positive; or
</P>
<P>(B) Zero, if the net sum of the mark-to-market values is zero or negative.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Potential future credit exposure.</I> The potential future credit exposure for derivative contracts, including derivative contracts with a negative mark-to-market value, shall be calculated:
</P>
<P>(i) Using an internal initial margin model that meets the requirements of § 1221.8 of this chapter and is approved by FHFA for use by the Bank, or using an initial margin model that has been approved under regulations similar to § 1221.8 of this chapter for use by the Bank's counterparty to calculate initial margin for those derivative contracts for which the calculation is being done; or
</P>
<P>(ii) By applying the standardized approach in appendix A to part 1221 of this chapter; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Using an initial margin model that is employed by a derivatives clearing organization.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Credit risk capital charge for non-mortgage assets hedged with credit derivatives</I>—(1) <I>Credit derivatives with a remaining maturity of one year or more.</I> The credit risk capital charge for a non-mortgage asset that is hedged with a credit derivative that has a remaining maturity of one year or more may be reduced only in accordance with paragraph (j)(3) or (4) of this section and only if the credit derivative provides substantial protection against credit losses.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Credit derivatives with a remaining maturity of less than one year.</I> The credit risk capital charge for a non-mortgage asset that is hedged with a credit derivative that has a remaining maturity of less than one year may be reduced only in accordance with paragraph (j)(3) of this section and only if the remaining maturity on the credit derivative is identical to or exceeds the remaining maturity of the hedged non-mortgage asset and the credit derivative provides substantial protection against credit losses.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Credit risk capital charge reduced to zero.</I> The credit risk capital charge for a non-mortgage asset shall be zero if a credit derivative is used to hedge the credit risk on that asset in accordance with paragraph (j)(1) or (2) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity for the credit derivative used for the hedge is identical to or exceeds the remaining maturity for the hedged non-mortgage asset, and either:
</P>
<P>(A) The non-mortgage asset referenced in the credit derivative is identical to the hedged non-mortgage asset; or
</P>
<P>(B) The non-mortgage asset referenced in the credit derivative is different from the hedged non-mortgage asset, but only if the asset referenced in the credit derivative and the hedged non-mortgage asset have been issued by the same obligor, the asset referenced in the credit derivative ranks pari passu to, or more junior than, the hedged non-mortgage asset and has the same maturity as the hedged non-mortgage asset, and cross-default clauses apply; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit risk capital charge for the credit derivative contract calculated pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section is still applied.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Capital charge reduction in certain other cases.</I> The credit risk capital charge for a non-mortgage asset hedged with a credit derivative in accordance with paragraph (j)(1) of this section shall equal the sum of the credit risk capital charges for the hedged and unhedged portion of the non-mortgage asset provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The remaining maturity for the credit derivative is less than the remaining maturity for the hedged non-mortgage asset and either:
</P>
<P>(A) The non-mortgage asset referenced in the credit derivative is identical to the hedged non-mortgage asset; or
</P>
<P>(B) The non-mortgage asset referenced in the credit derivative is different from the hedged non-mortgage asset, but only if the asset referenced in the credit derivative and the hedged non-mortgage asset have been issued by the same obligor, the asset referenced in the credit derivative ranks pari passu to, or more junior than, the hedged non-mortgage asset and has the same maturity as the hedged non-mortgage asset, and cross-default clauses apply; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The credit risk capital charge for the unhedged portion of the non-mortgage asset equals:
</P>
<P>(A) The credit risk capital charge for the non-mortgage asset, calculated as the amortized cost, or fair value, of the non-mortgage asset multiplied by that asset's credit risk percentage requirement assigned pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section where the appropriate credit rating is that for the non-mortgage asset and the appropriate maturity is the remaining maturity of the non-mortgage asset; minus
</P>
<P>(B) The credit risk capital charge for the non-mortgage asset, calculated as the amortized cost, or fair value, of the non-mortgage asset multiplied by that asset's credit risk percentage requirement assigned pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section where the appropriate credit rating is that for the non-mortgage asset but the appropriate maturity is deemed to be the remaining maturity of the credit derivative; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The credit risk capital charge for the hedged portion of the non-mortgage asset is equal to the credit risk capital charge for the credit derivative, calculated in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Frequency of calculations.</I> Each Bank shall perform all calculations required by this section at least quarterly, unless otherwise directed by FHFA, using the advances, residential mortgages, residential mortgage pools, residential mortgage securities, collateralized mortgage obligations, non-rated assets, non-mortgage assets, off-balance sheet items, and derivative contracts held by the Bank, and, if applicable, the values of, or FHFA Credit Ratings categories for, such assets, off-balance sheet items, or derivative contracts as of the close of business of the last business day of the calendar period for which the credit risk capital charge is being calculated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.5   Market risk capital requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> (1) Each Bank's market risk capital requirement shall equal the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk from movements in interest rates, foreign exchange rates, commodity prices, and equity prices that could occur during periods of market stress, where the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk is determined using an internal market-risk model that fulfills the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section and that has been approved by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank may substitute an internal cash-flow model to derive a market risk capital requirement in place of that calculated using an internal market-risk model under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank obtains FHFA approval of the internal cash-flow model and of the assumptions to be applied to the model; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bank demonstrates to FHFA that the internal cash-flow model subjects the Bank's assets and liabilities, off-balance sheet items, and derivative contracts, including related options, to a comparable degree of stress for such factors as will be required for an internal market-risk model.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Measurement of market value-at-risk under a Bank's internal market-risk model.</I> (1) Except as provided under paragraph (a)(2) of this section, each Bank shall use an internal market-risk model that estimates the market value of the Bank's assets and liabilities, off-balance sheet items, and derivative contracts, including any related options, and measures the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk of its assets and liabilities, off-balance sheet items, and derivative contracts, including related options, from all sources of the Bank's market risks, except that the Bank's model need only incorporate those risks that are material.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank's internal market-risk model may use any generally accepted measurement technique, such as variance-covariance models, historical simulations, or Monte Carlo simulations, for estimating the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk, provided that any measurement technique used must cover the Bank's material risks.
</P>
<P>(3) The measures of the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk shall include the risks arising from the non-linear price characteristics of options and the sensitivity of the market value of options to changes in the volatility of the options' underlying rates or prices.
</P>
<P>(4) The Bank's internal market-risk model shall use interest rate and market price scenarios for estimating the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk, but at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank's internal market-risk model shall provide an estimate of the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk such that the probability of a loss greater than that estimated shall be no more than one percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Bank's internal market-risk model shall incorporate scenarios that reflect changes in interest rates, interest rate volatility, option-adjusted spreads, and shape of the yield curve, and changes in market prices, equivalent to those that have been observed over 120-business day periods of market stress. For interest rates, the relevant historical observations should be drawn from the period that starts at the end of the previous month and goes back to the beginning of 1998;
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of, and specific historical observations identified by the Bank as, stress scenarios shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfactory to FHFA;
</P>
<P>(B) Representative of the periods of the greatest potential market stress given the Bank's portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(C) Comprehensive given the modeling capabilities available to the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The measure of the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk may incorporate empirical correlations among interest rates.
</P>
<P>(5) For any consolidated obligations denominated in a currency other than U.S. Dollars or linked to equity or commodity prices, each Bank shall, in addition to fulfilling the criteria of paragraph (b)(4) of this section, calculate an estimate of the market value of its portfolio at risk resulting from material foreign exchange, equity price or commodity price risk, such that, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(i) The probability of a loss greater than that estimated shall not exceed one percent;
</P>
<P>(ii) The scenarios reflect changes in foreign exchange, equity, or commodity market prices that have been observed over 120-business day periods of market stress, as determined using historical data that is from an appropriate period;
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of, and specific historical observations identified by the Bank as, stress scenarios shall be:
</P>
<P>(A) Satisfactory to FHFA;
</P>
<P>(B) Representative of the periods of the greatest potential stress given the Bank's portfolio; and
</P>
<P>(C) Comprehensive given the modeling capabilities available to the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The measure of the market value of the Bank's portfolio at risk may incorporate empirical correlations within or among foreign exchange rates, equity prices, or commodity prices.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Independent validation of Bank internal market-risk model or internal cash-flow model.</I> (1) Each Bank shall conduct an independent validation of its internal market-risk model or internal cash-flow model within the Bank that is carried out by personnel not reporting to the business line responsible for conducting business transactions for the Bank. Alternatively, the Bank may obtain independent validation by an outside party qualified to make such determinations. Validations shall be done periodically, commensurate with the risk associated with the use of the model, or as frequently as required by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) The results of such independent validations shall be reviewed by the Bank's board of directors and provided promptly to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FHFA approval of Bank internal market-risk model or internal cash-flow model.</I> (1) Each Bank shall obtain FHFA approval of an internal market-risk model or an internal cash-flow model, including subsequent material adjustments to the model made by the Bank, prior to the use of any model. Each Bank shall make such adjustments to its model as may be directed by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) A model and any material adjustments to such model that were approved by FHFA or the Federal Housing Finance Board shall be deemed to meet the requirements of paragraph (d)(1) of this section, unless such approval is revoked or amended by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Frequency of calculations.</I> Each Bank shall perform any calculations or estimates required under this section at least quarterly, unless otherwise directed by FHFA, using the assets, liabilities, and off-balance sheet items (including derivative contracts and options) held by the Bank, and if applicable, the values of any such holdings, as of the close of business of the last business day of the calendar period for which the market risk capital requirement is being calculated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.6   Operational risk capital requirement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirement.</I> Except as authorized under paragraph (b) of this section, each Bank's operational risk capital requirement shall at all times equal 30 percent of the sum of the Bank's credit risk capital requirement and market risk capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative requirements.</I> With the approval of FHFA, each Bank may have an operational risk capital requirement equal to less than 30 percent but no less than 10 percent of the sum of the Bank's credit risk capital requirement and market risk capital requirement if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank provides an alternative methodology for assessing and quantifying an operational risk capital requirement; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank obtains insurance to cover operational risk from an insurer acceptable to FHFA and on terms acceptable to FHFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.7   Limits on unsecured extensions of credit; reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Unsecured extensions of credit to a single counterparty.</I> A Bank shall not extend unsecured credit to any single counterparty (other than a GSE described in and subject to the requirements of paragraph (c) of this section) in an amount that would exceed the limits of this paragraph (a). If a third-party provides an irrevocable, unconditional guarantee of repayment of a credit (or any part thereof), the third-party guarantor may be considered the counterparty for purposes of calculating and applying the unsecured credit limits of this section with respect to the guaranteed portion of the transaction.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>General limits.</I> All unsecured extensions of credit by a Bank to a single counterparty that arise from the Bank's on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions (but excluding the amount of sales of federal funds with a maturity of one day or less and sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract) shall not exceed the product of the maximum capital exposure limit applicable to such counterparty, as determined in accordance with the following Table 1 to this section, multiplied by the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank's total capital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The counterparty's Tier 1 capital, or if Tier 1 capital is not available, total capital (in each case as defined by the counterparty's principal regulator) or some similar comparable measure identified by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Overall limits including sales of overnight federal funds.</I> All unsecured extensions of credit by a Bank to a single counterparty that arise from the Bank's on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions, including the amounts of sales of federal funds with a maturity of one day or less and sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract, shall not exceed twice the limit calculated pursuant to paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Limits for certain obligations issued by state, local, or tribal governmental agencies.</I> The limit set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, when applied to the marketable direct obligations of state, local, or tribal government units or agencies that are excluded from the prohibition against investments in whole mortgage loans or other types of whole loans, or interests in such loans, by § 1267.3(a)(4)(iii) of this chapter, shall be calculated based on the Bank's total capital and the internal credit rating assigned to the particular obligation, as determined in accordance with paragraph (a)(4) of this section. If a Bank owns series or classes of obligations issued by a particular state, local, or tribal government unit or agency, or has extended other forms of unsecured credit to such entity falling into different rating categories, the total amount of unsecured credit extended by the Bank to that government unit or agency shall not exceed the limit associated with the highest-rated obligation issued by the entity and actually purchased by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Bank determination of applicable maximum capital exposure limits.</I> A Bank shall determine the maximum capital exposure limit for each counterparty by assigning the counterparty to the appropriate FHFA Credit Rating category of Table 1 to this section, based upon the Bank's internal credit rating for that counterparty. In all cases, a Bank shall use the same FHFA Credit Rating category for a particular counterparty when determining its unsecured credit limit under this section as it would use under Table 2 to § 1277.4 for determining the risk-based capital charge for obligations issued by that counterparty under § 1277.4(f).
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1277.7—Maximum Limits on Unsecured Extensions of Credit to a Single Counter-party by FHFA Credit Rating Category
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">FHFA Credit Rating
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Maximum capital
<br/>exposure limit
<br/>(in percent)
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FHFA 1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">15
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FHFA 2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">14
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FHFA 3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">9
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FHFA 4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">FHFA 5 and Below</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">1</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Unsecured extensions of credit to affiliated counterparties</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The total amount of unsecured extensions of credit by a Bank to a group of affiliated counterparties that arise from the Bank's on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions, including sales of federal funds with a maturity of one day or less and sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract, shall not exceed 30 percent of the Bank's total capital.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Relation to individual limits.</I> The aggregate limits calculated under paragraph (b)(1) of this section shall apply in addition to the limits on extensions of unsecured credit to a single counterparty imposed by paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Special limits for certain GSEs.</I> Unsecured extensions of credit by a Bank that arise from the Bank's on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions, including from the purchase of any debt or from any sales of federal funds with a maturity of one day or less and from sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract, with a GSE that is operating with capital support or another form of direct financial assistance from the United States government that enables the GSE to repay those obligations, shall not exceed the Bank's total capital.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Extensions of unsecured credit after reduced rating.</I> If a Bank revises its internal credit rating for any counterparty or obligation, it shall assign the counterparty or obligation to the appropriate FHFA Credit Rating category based on the revised rating. If the revised internal rating results in a lower FHFA Credit Rating category, then any subsequent extensions of unsecured credit shall comply with the maximum capital exposure limit applicable to that lower rating category, but a Bank need not unwind or liquidate any existing transaction or position that complied with the limits of this section at the time it was entered. For purposes of this paragraph (d), the renewal of an existing unsecured extension of credit, including any decision not to terminate any sales of federal funds subject to a continuing contract, shall be considered a subsequent extension of unsecured credit that can be undertaken only in accordance with the lower limit.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Reporting requirements</I>—(1) <I>Total unsecured extensions of credit.</I> Each Bank shall report monthly to FHFA the amount of the Bank's total unsecured extensions of credit arising from on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions to any single counterparty or group of affiliated counterparties that exceeds 5 percent of:
</P>
<P>(i) The Bank's total capital; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The counterparty's, or affiliated counterparties' combined, Tier 1 capital, or if Tier 1 capital is not available, total capital (in each case as defined by the counterparty's principal regulator), or some similar comparable measure identified by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Total secured and unsecured extensions of credit.</I> Each Bank shall report monthly to FHFA the amount of the Bank's total secured and unsecured extensions of credit arising from on- and off-balance sheet and derivative transactions to any single counterparty or group of affiliated counterparties that exceeds 5 percent of the Bank's total assets.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extensions of credit in excess of limits.</I> A Bank shall report promptly to FHFA any extension of unsecured credit that exceeds any limit set forth in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section. In making this report, a Bank shall provide the name of the counterparty or group of affiliated counterparties to which the excess unsecured credit has been extended, the dollar amount of the applicable limit which has been exceeded, the dollar amount by which the Bank's extension of unsecured credit exceeds such limit, the dates for which the Bank was not in compliance with the limit, and a brief explanation of the circumstances that caused the limit to be exceeded.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Measurement of unsecured extensions of credit</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> For purposes of this section, unsecured extensions of credit will be measured as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) For on-balance sheet transactions (other than a derivative transaction addressed by paragraph (f)(1)(iii) of this section), an amount equal to the sum of the amortized cost of the item plus net payments due the Bank. For any such item carried at fair value where any change in fair value would be recognized in the Bank's income, the Bank shall measure the unsecured extension of credit based on the fair value of the item, rather than its amortized cost;
</P>
<P>(ii) For off-balance sheet transactions, an amount equal to the credit equivalent amount of such item, calculated in accordance with § 1277.4(h); and
</P>
<P>(iii) For derivative transactions not cleared by a derivatives clearing organization, an amount equal to the sum of:
</P>
<P>(A) The Bank's current and potential future credit exposures under the derivative contract, where those values are calculated in accordance with § 1277.4(i)(1) and (2) respectively, reduced by the amount of any collateral held by or on behalf of the Bank against the credit exposure from the derivative contract, as allowed in accordance with the requirements of § 1277.4(e)(2) and (3); and
</P>
<P>(B) The value of any collateral posted by the Bank that exceeds the current amount owed by the Bank to its counterparty under the derivative contract, where the collateral is held by a person or entity other than a third-party custodian that is acting under a custody agreement that meets the requirements of § 1221.7(c) and (d) of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Status of debt obligations purchased by the Bank.</I> Any debt obligation or debt security (other than mortgage-backed or other asset-backed securities or acquired member assets) purchased by a Bank shall be considered an unsecured extension of credit for the purposes of this section, except for:
</P>
<P>(i) Any amount owed the Bank against which the Bank holds collateral in accordance with § 1277.4(f)(2)(ii); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any amount which FHFA has determined on a case-by-case basis shall not be considered an unsecured extension of credit.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Exceptions to unsecured credit limits.</I> The following items are not subject to the limits of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Obligations of, or guaranteed by, the United States;
</P>
<P>(2) A derivative transaction accepted for clearing by a derivatives clearing organization, including collateral posted by the Bank with the derivatives clearing organization associated with that derivative transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) Any extension of credit from one Bank to another Bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) A bond issued by a state housing finance agency, if the Bank documents that the obligation in question is:
</P>
<P>(i) Principally secured by high quality mortgage loans or high quality mortgage-backed securities (or funds derived from payments on such assets or from payments from any guarantees or insurance associated with such assets);
</P>
<P>(ii) The most senior class of obligation, if the bond has more than one class; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Determined by the Bank to be rated no lower than FHFA 2, in accordance with this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.8   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall report information related to capital and other matters addressed by this part in accordance with instructions provided in the Data Reporting Manual issued by FHFA, as amended from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Bank Capital Stock</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.20   Classes of capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>The authorized capital stock of a Bank shall consist of the following instruments:
</P>
<P>(a) Class A stock, which shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a par value as determined by the board of directors of the Bank and stated in the Bank's capital plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Be issued, redeemed, and repurchased only at its stated par value; and
</P>
<P>(3) Be redeemable in cash only on six-months written notice to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Class B stock, which shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Have a par value as determined by the board of directors of the Bank and stated in the Bank's capital plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Be issued, redeemed, and repurchased only at its stated par value;
</P>
<P>(3) Be redeemable in cash only on five-years written notice to the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(4) Confer an ownership interest in the retained earnings, surplus, undivided profits, and equity reserves of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) Any one or more subclasses of Class A or Class B stock, each of which may have different rights, terms, conditions, or preferences as may be authorized in the Bank's capital plan, provided, however, that each subclass of stock shall have all of the characteristics of its respective class, as specified in paragraph (a) or (b) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.21   Issuance of capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank may issue either one or both classes of its capital stock (including subclasses), as authorized by § 1277.20, and shall not issue any other class of capital stock. A Bank shall issue its stock only to its members, or to former members to the extent those institutions are required to maintain a minimum stock investment for existing activities under the capital plan, and only in book-entry form. The Bank shall act as its own transfer agent. All capital stock shall be issued in accordance with the Bank's capital plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.22   Minimum investment in capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Bank shall require each member to maintain a minimum investment in the capital stock of the Bank, both as a condition to becoming and remaining a member of the Bank and as a condition to transacting business with the Bank or obtaining advances and other services from the Bank. The amount of the required minimum investment shall be determined in accordance with the Bank's capital plan and shall be sufficient to ensure that the Bank remains in compliance with its regulatory capital requirements. A Bank shall require each member to maintain its minimum investment for as long as the institution remains a member of the Bank and shall require each member and former member to maintain its minimum investment for as long as the institution engages in any activity with the Bank for which the capital plan requires the institution to maintain capital stock.
</P>
<P>(b) A Bank may establish the minimum investment as a percentage of the total assets of an institution, as a percentage of the advances outstanding to that institution, as a percentage of any other business activity conducted with the institution, on any other basis that is approved by the Director, or any combination thereof.
</P>
<P>(c) A Bank may require that the minimum investment requirement be satisfied through the purchase of either Class A or Class B stock, or through the purchase of one or more combinations of Class A and Class B stock that have been authorized by the board of directors of the Bank in its capital plan. A Bank, in its discretion, may establish a lower minimum investment to the extent the requirement is met through investment in Class B stock than if the requirement is met through investment in Class A stock, provided that such reduced investment provides sufficient capital for the Bank to remain in compliance with its regulatory capital requirements.
</P>
<P>(d) Each member, or if applicable, former member, of a Bank shall at all times maintain an investment in the capital stock of the Bank in an amount that is sufficient to satisfy the minimum investment required under the Bank's capital plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.23   Dividends.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A Bank may pay dividends on Class A or Class B stock, including any subclasses of such stock, only out of previously retained earnings or current net earnings, and shall declare and pay dividends only as provided by its capital plan. The capital plan may establish different dividend rates or preferences for each class or subclass of stock, which may include a dividend that tracks the economic performance of certain Bank assets, such as Acquired Member Assets. A member, including a member that has provided the Bank with a notice of intent to withdraw from membership, or a former member shall be entitled to receive any dividends that a Bank declares on its capital stock while such institution owns the stock.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Limitation on payment of dividends.</I> In no event shall a Bank declare or pay any dividend on its capital stock if after doing so the Bank would fail to meet any of its regulatory capital requirements, nor shall a Bank that is not in compliance with any of its regulatory capital requirements declare or pay any dividend on its capital stock.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.24   Liquidation, merger, or consolidation.</HEAD>
<P>The respective rights of the Class A and Class B stockholders, in the event that the Bank is liquidated, merged, or otherwise consolidated with another Bank, shall be determined in accordance with the capital plan of the Bank, provided, however, that nothing in the capital plan shall be construed to limit any rights or authority granted FHFA under the Bank Act or the Safety and Soundness Act to issue any regulation or order or to take any other action that may affect or otherwise alter the rights or privileges of stock holders in a liquidation, merger, or consolidation of a Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.25   Transfer of capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank in its capital plan may allow a member or former member to transfer any excess stock to a member of that Bank or to an institution that has been approved for membership in that Bank and that has satisfied all conditions for becoming a member, other than the purchase of the minimum amount of Bank stock that it is required to hold as a condition of membership. Any such stock transfers shall be at par value and shall be effective upon being recorded on the appropriate books and records of the Bank. The Bank may, in its capital plan, require that the transfer be approved by the Bank before such transfer can occur.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.26   Redemption and repurchase of capital stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Redemption.</I> (1) A member or former member may have its stock in a Bank redeemed by providing written notice to the Bank in accordance with this section. A member or former member shall provide six-months written notice for Class A stock and five-years written notice for Class B stock. The notice shall indicate the number of shares of Bank stock that are to be redeemed. No more than one notice of redemption may be outstanding at one time for the same shares of Bank stock. At the expiration of the applicable notice period, the Bank shall pay to the member or other institution holding the stock the stated par value of that stock in cash.
</P>
<P>(2) A member may cancel a notice of redemption by so informing the Bank in writing, and the Bank may impose a fee (to be specified in its capital plan) with respect to any cancellation of a pending notice of redemption. A request by a member (whose membership has not been terminated) to redeem specific shares of stock shall automatically be cancelled if the Bank is prevented from redeeming the member's stock by paragraph (c) of this section within five business days from the end of the expiration of the applicable redemption notice period because the member would fail to maintain its minimum investment in the stock of the Bank after such redemption. The automatic cancellation of a member's redemption request shall have the same effect as if the member had cancelled its notice to redeem stock prior to the end of the redemption notice period, and a Bank may impose a fee (to be specified in its capital plan) for automatic cancellation of a redemption request.
</P>
<P>(3) A Bank shall not be obligated to redeem its capital stock other than in accordance with this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Repurchase.</I> A Bank, in its discretion and without regard to the applicable redemption periods, may repurchase excess stock in accordance with the capital plan of that Bank. A Bank undertaking such a stock repurchase at its own initiative shall provide reasonable notice prior to repurchasing any excess stock, with the period of such notice to be specified in the Bank's capital plan, and shall pay the stated par value of that stock in cash. A member's submission of a notice of intent to withdraw from membership, or its termination of membership in any other manner, shall not, in and of itself, cause any Bank stock to be deemed excess stock for purposes of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Limitation.</I> In no event may a Bank redeem or repurchase any stock if, following the redemption or repurchase, the Bank would fail to meet its regulatory capital requirements, or if the member or former member would fail to maintain its minimum investment in the stock of the Bank, as required by § 1277.22.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.27   Other restrictions on the repurchase or redemption of Bank stock.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital impairment.</I> A Bank may not redeem or repurchase any capital stock without the prior written approval of the Director if the Director or the board of directors of the Bank has determined that the Bank has incurred or is likely to incur losses that result in or are likely to result in charges against the capital of the Bank. This prohibition shall apply even if a Bank is currently in compliance with its regulatory capital requirements, and shall remain in effect for however long the Bank continues to incur such charges or until the Director determines that such charges are not expected to continue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bank discretion to suspend redemption.</I> A Bank, upon the approval of its board of directors, or of a subcommittee thereof, may suspend redemption of stock if the Bank reasonably believes that continued redemption of stock would cause the Bank to fail to meet its regulatory capital requirements, would prevent the Bank from maintaining adequate capital against a potential risk that may not be adequately reflected in its regulatory capital requirements, or would otherwise prevent the Bank from operating in a safe and sound manner. A Bank shall notify the Director in writing within two business days of the date of the decision to suspend the redemption of stock, providing the reasons for the suspension and the Bank's strategies and time frames for addressing the conditions that led to the suspension. The Director may require the Bank to re-institute the redemption of stock. A Bank shall not repurchase any stock without the written permission of the Director during any period in which the Bank has suspended redemption of stock under this paragraph.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Bank Capital Plans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.28   Bank capital plans.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall have in place a capital plan approved by the Bank's board of directors and the Director. The capital plan shall include, at a minimum, provisions addressing the following matters:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Minimum investment.</I> (1) The capital plan shall require each member, and if applicable each former member, to purchase and maintain a minimum investment in the capital stock of the Bank and prescribe the manner for calculating the minimum investment, in accordance with § 1277.22.
</P>
<P>(2) The capital plan shall specify the amount and class (or classes) of Bank stock that an institution is required to own in order to become and remain a member of the Bank, and to obtain advances from, or to engage in other business transactions with, the Bank. If a Bank requires that the minimum investment be satisfied through the purchase of one or more combinations of Class A and Class B stock, the authorized combinations of stock shall be specified in the capital plan, which shall afford the option of satisfying the minimum investment through the purchase of any such combination of stock.
</P>
<P>(3) The capital plan shall require the board of directors of the Bank to monitor and, as necessary, to adjust, the minimum investment to ensure that outstanding stock remains sufficient for the Bank to comply with its regulatory capital requirements. The plan shall require each member or, where required by the plan, former member, to comply promptly with any adjusted minimum investment established by the board of directors of the Bank, but may allow a reasonable time to do so and may allow a reduction in outstanding business with the Bank as an alternative to purchasing additional stock.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Classes of capital stock.</I> The capital plan shall specify the class or classes of stock (including subclasses, if any) that the Bank will issue, and shall establish the par value, rights, terms, and preferences associated with each class (or subclass) of stock. A Bank may establish preferences relating to, but not limited to, the dividend, voting, or liquidation rights for each class or subclass of Bank stock. Any voting preferences established by the Bank pursuant to § 1261.6 of this chapter shall expressly state the voting rights of each class of stock with regard to the election of Bank directors. The capital plan shall provide that the owners of the Class B stock own the retained earnings, surplus, undivided profits, and equity reserves of the Bank, but shall have no right to receive any portion of those items, except through declaration of a dividend or capital distribution approved by the board of directors or through the liquidation of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Dividends.</I> The capital plan shall establish the manner in which the Bank will pay dividends, if any, on each class or subclass of stock, and shall provide that the Bank may not declare or pay any dividends if it is not in compliance with any regulatory capital requirement or if after paying the dividend it would not be in compliance with any regulatory capital requirement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Stock transactions.</I> The capital plan shall establish the criteria for the issuance, redemption, repurchase, transfer, and retirement of stock issued by the Bank. The capital plan also:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall provide that the Bank may not issue stock other than in accordance with § 1277.21;
</P>
<P>(2) Shall provide that the stock of the Bank may be issued only to and held only by the members of that Bank, and by former members to the extent necessary to meet requirements set forth in a capital plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Shall specify whether the stock of the Bank may be transferred, as allowed under § 1277.25, and, if such transfer is allowed, shall specify the procedures to effect such transfer, and provide that the transfer shall be undertaken only in accordance with § 1277.25;
</P>
<P>(4) Shall specify that the stock of the Bank may be traded only among the Bank and its members, and former members;
</P>
<P>(5) May provide for a minimum investment based on investment in Class B stock that is lower than a minimum investment based on investment in Class A stock, provided that the level of investment is sufficient for the Bank to comply with its regulatory capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) Shall specify the fee, if any, to be imposed upon cancellation of a request to redeem Bank stock or upon cancellation of a request to withdraw from membership; and
</P>
<P>(7) Shall specify the period of notice that the Bank will provide before the Bank, on its own initiative, determines to repurchase any excess Bank stock.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Termination of membership.</I> The capital plan shall address the manner in which the Bank will provide for the disposition of its capital stock that is held by institutions that terminate their membership, and the manner in which the Bank will liquidate claims against such institutions, including claims resulting from prepayment of advances prior to their stated maturity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1277.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.56.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1277.29   Amendments to a Bank's capital plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A Bank's board of directors shall approve any amendments to the Bank's capital plan and submit such amendment to the Director for approval. No such amendment may take effect until it has been approved by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of amendments for approval.</I> Any request for approval of capital plan amendments should be submitted to the Deputy Director for the Division of Federal Home Loan Bank Regulation and should include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The name of the Bank making the request and the name, title, and contact information of the official filing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The name, title and contact information of the staff member(s) whom FHFA may contact for additional information;
</P>
<P>(3) A certification by an executive officer of the Bank with knowledge of the facts that the representations made in the request are accurate and complete. The following form of certification may be used: “I hereby certify that the statements contained in the submission are true and complete to the best of my knowledge. [Name and Title]”;
</P>
<P>(4) A written, narrative description of the proposed amendments to the Bank's capital plan and a discussion of the Bank's reasons for the proposed changes;
</P>
<P>(5) The amended capital plan as approved by the Bank's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(6) A version of the Bank's capital plan showing all proposed changes to its previously approved capital plan;
</P>
<P>(7) Resolutions of the Bank's board of directors:
</P>
<P>(i) Approving the proposed capital plan amendments; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Authorizing the filing of the application for approval of the amendments and concurring in substance with the supporting documentation provided;
</P>
<P>(8) An opinion of counsel demonstrating that the proposed amendments comply with the Bank Act, FHFA regulations and any other applicable law or regulation. If the amendments would be identical in substance to provisions approved for other Banks' capital plans, a Bank's legal analysis may reference the other capital plans that contain the provisions in question;
</P>
<P>(9) An analysis of the effect of the proposed amendments, if any, on the Bank's capital levels and the Bank's ability to meet its regulatory capital requirements;
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Pro forma</I> financial statements from the end of the quarter immediately prior to the date of submission of the request for approval through at least the end of the next two years, showing the impact of the proposed changes, if any, on capital levels; and
</P>
<P>(11) A discussion of and an explanation for changes to the Bank's strategic plan, if any, which may be related to the capital plan amendments.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>FHFA consideration of the amendment.</I> The Director may approve any amendment to a Bank's capital plan as submitted or may condition approval on the Bank's compliance with certain stated conditions.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1278" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1278—VOLUNTARY MERGERS OF FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANKS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1432(a), 1446, 4511.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 72833, Nov. 28, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1278.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Constituent Bank</I> means a Bank that is proposing to merge with one or more other Banks. Each Bank entering into a merger is a Constituent Bank, regardless of whether it is also a Continuing Bank.
</P>
<P><I>Continuing Bank</I> means a Bank that will exist as the result of a merger of two or more Constituent Banks, and when used in the singular shall include the plural.
</P>
<P><I>Disclosure Statement</I> means a written document that contains, to the extent applicable, all of the items that a Bank would be required to include in a Form S-4 Registration Statement under the Securities Act of 1933 (or any successor form promulgated by the United States Securities and Exchange Commission governing disclosure required for securities issued in business combination transactions) when prepared as a prospectus as directed in Part I of the form, if the Bank were required to provide such a prospectus to its shareholders in connection with a merger.
</P>
<P><I>Effective Date</I> means the date on which the organization certificate of the Continuing Bank becomes effective as provided under § 1278.7.
</P>
<P><I>Financial Statements</I> means statements of condition, income, capital, and cash flows, with explanatory notes, in such form as the Banks are required to include in their filings made under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P><I>Merge</I> or <I>Merger</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A merger of one or more Banks into another Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) A consolidation of two or more Banks resulting in a new Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) A purchase of substantially all of the assets, and assumption of substantially all of the liabilities, of one or more Banks by another Bank or Banks; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any other business combination of two or more Banks into one or more resulting Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Record Date</I> means the date established by a Bank's board of directors for determining the members that are entitled to vote on the ratification of the merger agreement and the number of ballots that may be cast by each in the election.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[76 FR 72833, Nov. 28, 2011, as amended at 78 FR 2328, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76300, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.2   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>Any two or more Banks may merge voluntarily under authority of section 26(b) of the Bank Act, provided that each of the following requirements has been satisfied:
</P>
<P>(a) The Constituent Banks have executed a written merger agreement that satisfies all requirements of § 1278.3;
</P>
<P>(b) The Constituent Banks have jointly filed a merger application with FHFA that satisfies all requirements of § 1278.4;
</P>
<P>(c) The Director has approved the merger application in accordance with the requirements of § 1278.5;
</P>
<P>(d) The members of each Constituent Bank have ratified the merger agreement as provided under § 1278.6; and
</P>
<P>(e) The Director has determined that the Constituent Banks have satisfied all conditions imposed in connection with the approval of the merger application, and has accepted the properly executed organization certificate of the Continuing Bank, as provided under § 1278.7.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.3   Merger agreement.</HEAD>
<P>A merger of Banks under the authority of § 1278.2 shall require a written merger agreement that:
</P>
<P>(a) Has been authorized by the affirmative vote of a majority of a quorum of the board of directors of each Constituent Bank at a meeting on the record and has been executed by authorized signing officers of each Constituent Bank; and
</P>
<P>(b) Sets forth all material terms and conditions of the merger, including, without limitation, provisions addressing each of the following matters—
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed Effective Date and the proposed acquisition date for purposes of accounting for the transaction under GAAP, if that date is to be different from the Effective Date;
</P>
<P>(2) The proposed organization certificate and bylaws of the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed capital structure plan for the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(4) The proposed size and structure of the board of directors for the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(5) The formula to be used to exchange the stock of the Constituent Banks for the stock of the Continuing Bank, and a provision prohibiting the issuance of fractional shares of stock;
</P>
<P>(6) Any conditions that must be satisfied prior to the Effective Date, which must include approval by the Director and ratification by the members of the Constituent Banks;
</P>
<P>(7) A statement of the representations or warranties, if any, made or to be made by any Constituent Bank;
</P>
<P>(8) A description of the legal or accounting opinions or rulings, if any, that are required to be obtained or furnished by any party in connection with the proposed merger; and
</P>
<P>(9) A statement that the board of directors of a Constituent Bank may terminate the merger agreement before the Effective Date upon a determination that:
</P>
<P>(i) The information disclosed to members contained material errors or omissions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Material misrepresentations were made to members regarding the impact of the merger;
</P>
<P>(iii) Fraudulent activities were used to obtain members' approval; or
</P>
<P>(iv) An event occurred subsequent to the members' vote that would have a significant adverse impact on the future viability of the Continuing Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.4   Merger application.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Contents of application.</I> Any two or more Banks that wish to merge shall submit to FHFA a merger application that addresses all material aspects of the proposed merger. As provided in § 1202.8 of this chapter, a Bank may submit separately any portions of the application that it believes contain confidential or privileged trade secrets or commercial or financial information, which portions will be handled in accordance with FHFA's Freedom of Information Act regulations set forth in part 1202 of this chapter. The application shall include, at a minimum, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A written statement that includes—
</P>
<P>(i) A summary of the material features of the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(ii) The reasons for the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(iii) The effect of the proposed merger on the Constituent Banks and their members;
</P>
<P>(iv) The proposed Effective Date, the proposed acquisition date for purposes of accounting for the transaction under GAAP, if that date is to be different from the Effective Date (including the reasons for designating a different acquisition date), and the Record Date established by each Constituent Bank's board of directors;
</P>
<P>(v) If the Constituent Banks contemplate that the proposed merger will be one of two or more related transactions, a summary of the material features of any related transactions and the bearing that the consummation of, or failure to consummate, the related transactions is expected to have upon the proposed merger;
</P>
<P>(vi) If not addressed by the merger agreement, the Banks' proposal for the ultimate size and composition of the board of directors for the Continuing Bank and their plan for reducing the board to its ultimate size and composition, as well as the names of the persons proposed to serve as directors and senior executive officers of the Continuing Bank immediately after the merger;
</P>
<P>(vii) A description of all proposed material operational changes including, but not limited to, reductions in the existing staffs of the Constituent Banks (to the extent such information is known), whether and how Bank operations will be combined, and whether any Constituent Bank will continue to operate as a branch of the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(viii) Information demonstrating that the Continuing Bank will comply with all applicable capital requirements after the Effective Date;
</P>
<P>(ix) A statement explaining all officer and director indemnification provisions; and
</P>
<P>(x) An undertaking that the Constituent Banks will continue to disclose all material information, and update all items of the application, as appropriate;
</P>
<P>(2) A copy of the executed merger agreement and a certified copy of the resolution of the board of directors of each Constituent Bank authorizing the merger agreement;
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of the proposed organization certificate of the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(4) A copy of the proposed bylaws of the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(5) A copy of the proposed capital structure plan of the Continuing Bank;
</P>
<P>(6) The most recent annual audited Financial Statements, and any interim quarterly financial statements for the year-to-date, for each Constituent Bank; and
</P>
<P>(7) Pro forma Financial Statements for the Continuing Bank as of the date of the most recent statement of condition supplied under paragraph (a)(6) of this section, and forecasted pro forma Financial Statements for each of at least two years following such date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional information.</I> FHFA may require the Constituent Banks to submit any additional information FHFA deems necessary to evaluate the proposed merger. If FHFA has determined a merger application to be complete as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, FHFA may require the Constituent Banks to submit additional information only with respect to matters derived from or prompted by the materials already submitted, or matters of a material nature that were not reasonably apparent previously, including matters concealed by the Constituent Banks or relating to developments that arose after the determination of completeness. If the Constituent Banks fail to provide the additional information in a timely manner, the Director may deem the failure to provide the required information as grounds to deny the application.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Completion of application.</I> Within 30 days of the receipt of a merger application, FHFA shall determine whether the application is complete and whether FHFA has all information necessary for the Director to evaluate the proposed merger.
</P>
<P>(1) If FHFA determines that the application is complete and that it has all information necessary to evaluate the proposed merger, it shall so inform the Constituent Banks in writing.
</P>
<P>(2) If FHFA determines that the application is incomplete, or that it requires additional information in order to evaluate the application, it shall so inform the Constituent Banks in writing, and shall specify the number of days within which the Constituent Banks must provide any additional information or materials. Within 15 days of receipt of the additional information or materials, FHFA shall inform the Constituent Banks in writing whether the merger application is complete.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.5   Approval by Director.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Standards.</I> In determining whether to approve a merger of Banks under the authority of § 1278.2, the Director shall take into consideration the financial and managerial resources of the Constituent Banks, the future prospects of the Continuing Bank, and the effect of the proposed merger on the safety and soundness of the Continuing Bank and the Bank system.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination by Director.</I> After FHFA determines that a merger application is complete, as provided in § 1278.4(c), the Director shall, within 30 days, either approve or deny the merger application. An approval of a merger application may include any conditions the Director determines to be appropriate, and shall in all cases be conditioned on each Constituent Bank demonstrating that it has obtained its members' ratification of the merger agreement in accordance with the requirements of § 1278.6 by submitting to FHFA:
</P>
<P>(1) A certified copy of the members' resolution ratifying the merger agreement, on which the members cast their votes; and
</P>
<P>(2) A certification of the member vote from the Bank's corporate secretary or from an independent third party.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice.</I> If the Director approves the merger application, FHFA shall provide written notice of the approval and any conditions to each Constituent Bank, as well as to each other Bank and the Office of Finance. If the Director denies the merger application, FHFA shall provide written notice of the denial to each Constituent Bank, as well as to each other Bank and the Office of Finance, and the notice to the Constituent Banks shall include a statement of the reasons for the denial.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.6   Ratification by Bank Members.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements for member vote.</I> No merger of Banks under the authority of § 1278.2 may be consummated unless a merger agreement meeting the requirements of § 1278.3 has been ratified by the affirmative vote of the members of each Constituent Bank in a voting process that meets the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of vote.</I> Each Constituent Bank shall submit the authorized merger agreement to its members for ratification by delivering to each institution that was a member as of the Record Date—
</P>
<P>(i) A ballot that permits the member to vote for or against the ratification of the merger agreement, or to abstain from such vote; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A Disclosure Statement that establishes a closing date for the Bank's receipt of completed ballots that is no earlier than 30 days after the date that the ballot and Disclosure Statement are delivered to its members.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Voting rights and requirements.</I> In the vote to ratify the merger agreement, each member of each Constituent Bank shall be entitled to cast one vote for each share of Bank stock that the member was required to own as of the Record Date, provided that the number of votes that any member may cast shall not exceed the average number of shares of Bank stock required to be held by all members of that Bank, calculated on a district-wide basis, as of the Record Date. A member must cast all of its votes either for or against the ratification of the merger agreement, or may abstain with respect to all of its votes. Each member's vote shall be made by resolution of its governing body, either authorizing the specific vote, or delegating to an individual the authority to vote.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determination of result.</I> No Constituent Bank shall review any ballot until after the closing date established in the Disclosure Statement or include in the tabulation any ballot received after the closing date. A Constituent Bank shall tabulate the votes cast immediately after the closing date. The members of a Constituent Bank shall be considered to have ratified a merger agreement if a majority of votes cast in the election have been cast in favor of the ratification of the merger agreement. The Constituent Bank, or the Continuing Bank, as appropriate, shall retain all ballots received for at least two years after the date of the election, and shall not disclose how any member voted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Notice of result.</I> Within 10 days of the closing date, a Constituent Bank shall deliver to its members, to each Constituent Bank with which it proposes to merge, and to FHFA a statement of—
</P>
<P>(i) The total number of eligible votes;
</P>
<P>(ii) The number of members voting in the election; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The total number of votes cast both for and against ratification of the merger agreement, as well as those that were eligible to be cast by members that abstained and by members who failed to return completed ballots.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>False and misleading statements.</I> In connection with a proposed merger, no Bank, nor any director, officer, or employee thereof, shall make any statement, written or oral, which, at the time and in the light of the circumstances under which it is made, is false or misleading with respect to any material fact, or which omits to state any material fact necessary in order to make the statement not false or misleading, or necessary to correct any earlier statement that has become false or misleading.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1278.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.4.57.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1278.7   Consummation of the merger.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Post-approval submissions.</I> After the members of each Constituent Bank have voted to ratify the merger agreement, the Constituent Banks shall submit to FHFA:
</P>
<P>(1) Evidence acceptable to the Director that all conditions imposed in connection with the approval of the merger application under § 1278.5 have been satisfied, including the items specified in §§ 1278.5(b)(1) and (2); and
</P>
<P>(2) An organization certificate for the Continuing Bank, in such form as FHFA may specify, that has been executed by the individuals who will constitute the board of directors of the Continuing Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Acceptance of organization certificate.</I> Upon determining that all conditions have been satisfied and that the organization certificate meets the requirements of § 1278.7(a)(2), the Director shall accept the organization certificate of the Continuing Bank by endorsing thereon the date of acceptance and the Effective Date, which date shall be:
</P>
<P>(1) The proposed Effective Date set forth in the merger agreement or, if the merger agreement expresses the proposed Effective Date in terms of a range of dates, a date within the applicable range of dates; or
</P>
<P>(2) If the proposed Effective Date set forth in the merger agreement has passed, the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(i) The 10th business day following the date of acceptance of the organization certificate by the Director; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The last business day preceding any date specified in the merger agreement by which the merger agreement will terminate if the merger has not become effective.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effectiveness of merger.</I> After the Director has accepted the organization certificate of the Continuing Bank as provided in § 1278.7(b), and as of the commencement of the Effective Date specified on such organization certificate:
</P>
<P>(1) The Continuing Bank shall become or remain a body corporate (depending on the type of transaction) operating under such organization certificate with all powers granted to a Bank under the Bank Act;
</P>
<P>(2) The Continuing Bank shall succeed to all rights, titles, powers, privileges, books, records, assets, and liabilities of the Constituent Banks, as provided in the merger agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) The corporate existence of any Constituent Bank that is not a Continuing Bank shall cease, unless otherwise provided in the merger agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice.</I> After accepting the organization certificate for the Continuing Bank, the Director shall provide to the Constituent Banks, and to each other Bank and the Office of Finance, prompt written notice of that fact, which shall include the date of acceptance and the Effective Date of the organization certificate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.5" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER E—HOUSING GOALS AND MISSION


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1281" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1281—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANK HOUSING GOALS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430, 1430b, 1430c, 1431.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>AMA mortgage</I> means a mortgage that was purchased by a Bank under an AMA program.
</P>
<P><I>AMA program</I> has the meaning set forth in § 1268.1 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>AMA user</I> means any participating financial institution, as defined in § 1268.1 of this chapter, from which the Bank purchased at least one AMA mortgage during the year for which the housing goals are being measured.
</P>
<P><I>Balloon mortgage</I> means a mortgage providing for payments at regular intervals, with a final payment (balloon payment) that is at least 5 percent more than the periodic payments. The periodic payments may cover some or all of the periodic principal or interest. Typically, the periodic payments are level monthly payments that would fully amortize the mortgage over a stated term and the balloon payment is a single payment due after a specific period (but before the mortgage would fully amortize) and pays off or satisfies the outstanding balance of the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower income</I> means the total gross income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P><I>Community-based AMA user</I> means any AMA user whose average total assets over the three-year period culminating in the year preceding the one being measured are no greater than the applicable community-based AMA user asset cap.
</P>
<P><I>Community-based AMA user asset cap</I> means $1,224,000,000, subject to annual adjustments by FHFA, beginning in 2021, to reflect any percentage increase in the preceding year's Consumer Price Index (CPI) for all urban consumers, as published by the U.S. Department of Labor.
</P>
<P><I>Conventional mortgage</I> means a mortgage other than a mortgage as to which a Bank has the benefit of any guaranty, insurance or other obligation by the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means a calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Designated disaster area</I> means any census tract that is located in a county designated by the federal government as adversely affected by a declared major disaster administered by FEMA, where individual assistance payments were authorized by FEMA. A census tract shall be treated as a “designated disaster area” for purposes of this part beginning on the January 1 after the FEMA designation of the county, or such earlier date as determined by FHFA, and continuing through December 31 of the third full calendar year following the FEMA designation. This time period may be adjusted for a particular disaster area by notice from FHFA to the Banks.
</P>
<P><I>Dwelling unit</I> means a room or unified combination of rooms with plumbing and kitchen facilities intended for use, in whole or in part, as a dwelling by one or more persons, and includes a dwelling unit in a single-family property, multifamily property, or other residential or mixed-use property.
</P>
<P><I>Families in low-income areas</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any family that resides in a census tract in which the median income does not exceed 80 percent of the area median income;
</P>
<P>(2) Any family with an income that does not exceed area median income that resides in a minority census tract; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any family with an income that does not exceed area median income that resides in a designated disaster area.
</P>
<P><I>Family</I> means one or more individuals who occupy the same dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>FEMA</I> means the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P><I>Low-income</I> means income not in excess of 80 percent of area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Median income</I> means, with respect to an area, the unadjusted median family income for the area as determined by FHFA. FHFA will provide the Banks annually with information specifying how the median family income estimates for metropolitan and non-metropolitan areas are to be applied for purposes of determining median income.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means a metropolitan statistical area (MSA), or a portion of such an area, including Metropolitan Divisions, for which median incomes are determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Minority</I> means any individual who is included within any one or more of the following racial and ethnic categories:
</P>
<P>(1) American Indian or Alaskan Native—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America (including Central America), and who maintains tribal affiliation or community attachment;
</P>
<P>(2) Asian—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, for example, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam;
</P>
<P>(3) Black or African American—a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa;
</P>
<P>(4) Hispanic or Latino—a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race; and
</P>
<P>(5) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Minority census tract</I> means a census tract that has a minority population of at least 30 percent and a median income of less than 100 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Moderate-income</I> means income not in excess of area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a member of such classes of liens, including subordinate liens, as are commonly given or are legally effective to secure advances on, or the unpaid purchase price of, real estate under the laws of the State in which the real estate is located, or a manufactured home that is personal property under the laws of the State in which the manufactured home is located, together with the credit instruments, if any, secured thereby, and includes interests in mortgages. <I>Mortgage</I> includes a mortgage, lien, including a subordinate lien, or other security interest on the stock or membership certificate issued to a tenant-stockholder or resident-member by a cooperative housing corporation, as defined in section 216 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and on the proprietary lease, occupancy agreement, or right of tenancy in the dwelling unit of the tenant-stockholder or resident-member in such cooperative housing corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage purchase</I> means a transaction in which a Bank bought or otherwise acquired a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Non-metropolitan area</I> means a county, or a portion of a county, including those counties that comprise Micropolitan Statistical Areas, located outside any metropolitan area, for which median incomes are determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money mortgage</I> means a mortgage given to secure a loan used for the purchase of a single-family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Refinancing mortgage</I> means a mortgage undertaken by a borrower that satisfies or replaces an existing mortgage of such borrower. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(1) A renewal of a single payment obligation with no change in the original terms;
</P>
<P>(2) A reduction in the annual percentage rate of the mortgage as computed under the Truth in Lending Act, with a corresponding change in the payment schedule;
</P>
<P>(3) An agreement involving a court proceeding;
</P>
<P>(4) A workout agreement, in which a change in the payment schedule or collateral requirements is agreed to as a result of the mortgagor's default or delinquency, unless the rate is increased or the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid balance plus earned finance charges and premiums for the continuation of insurance;
</P>
<P>(5) The renewal of optional insurance purchased by the mortgagor and added to an existing mortgage; or
</P>
<P>(6) A conversion of a balloon mortgage note on a single-family property to a fully amortizing mortgage note where the Bank already owns or has an interest in the balloon note at the time of the conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Residence</I> means a property where one or more families reside.
</P>
<P><I>Seasoned mortgage</I> means a mortgage on which the date of the mortgage note is more than one year before the Bank purchased the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary residence</I> means a dwelling where the mortgagor maintains (or will maintain) a part-time place of abode and typically spends (or will spend) less than the majority of the calendar year. A person may have more than one secondary residence at a time.
</P>
<P><I>Single-family housing</I> means a residence consisting of one to four dwelling units. Single-family housing includes condominium dwelling units and dwelling units in cooperative housing projects.
</P>
<P><I>Very low-income</I> means income not in excess of 50 percent of area median income.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2328, Jan. 11, 2013; 81 FR 76300, Nov. 2, 2016; 81 FR 91690, Dec. 19, 2016; 85 FR 38050, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Housing Goals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.10   General.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to the requirements of the Bank Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1430c), this subpart establishes:
</P>
<P>(a) A prospective mortgage purchase housing goal;
</P>
<P>(b) A small member participation housing goal;
</P>
<P>(c) Requirements for measuring performance under the housing goals; and
</P>
<P>(d) Procedures for monitoring and enforcing the housing goals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 38051, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.11   Bank housing goals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Prospective mortgage purchase housing goal</I>—(1) <I>Target levels.</I> For each calendar year, the percentage of a Bank's AMA mortgages acquired during the calendar year that are for very low-income families, low-income families, or families in low-income areas must meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(i) A target level of 20 percent; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An alternative target level proposed by the Bank and approved by FHFA under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cap on low-income areas loans counted toward goal.</I> No more than 25 percent of the mortgages that are counted toward a Bank's achievement of the prospective mortgage purchase housing goal may be mortgages for families with incomes above 80 percent of area median income. Any purchases of mortgages for families with incomes above 80 percent of area median income in excess of the 25 percent cap shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals and shall be included in the denominator for the housing goal, but such mortgages shall not be included in the numerator in calculating a Bank's performance under the housing goal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Small member participation housing goal.</I> For each calendar year, the percentage of a Bank's total AMA users that are community-based AMA users must meet or exceed one of the following:
</P>
<P>(1) A target level of 50 percent;
</P>
<P>(2) A percentage that is three percentage points greater than the percentage from the preceding calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(3) An alternative target level proposed by the Bank and approved by FHFA under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Alternative target levels</I>—(1) <I>Submission of Bank requests.</I> A Bank, upon approval of its board of directors, may submit a written request to FHFA for approval of different target levels for the prospective mortgage purchase housing goal, the small member participation housing goal, or both. A Bank's request under this paragraph must include proposed target levels for three consecutive years following the calendar year in which the request is submitted. A Bank is not required to propose the same target level for each of the three years.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Content of Bank request.</I> A Bank's request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for an alternative target level must include a detailed explanation of:
</P>
<P>(i) Why the target level for the goal in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable, is infeasible;
</P>
<P>(ii) Why the Bank's proposed alternative target level is achievable; and
</P>
<P>(iii) How the Bank's proposed alternative target level will meaningfully further affordable housing mortgage lending in its district.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Frequency of Bank requests</I>—(i) <I>Three-year period.</I> A Bank may not submit a request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for an alternative target level more frequently than once every three years, except as provided in paragraphs (c)(3)(ii) or (c)(3)(iii) of this section. The deadline for submitting a request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section is September 15 of the calendar year preceding the calendar year in which the alternative target level would apply. FHFA will review each Bank request that is received by the deadline and will notify the Bank in writing if its request is approved. If FHFA does not notify a Bank that its request is approved, the Bank will remain subject to the target levels in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Exception for changes in AMA products or programs.</I> FHFA may require a Bank to submit a request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for an alternative target level to address discontinuation of an AMA product or program or approval of a new AMA product or program.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Exception for special circumstances.</I> A Bank may submit a request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for an alternative target level more frequently than once every three years if warranted given economic, operational, or other circumstances.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public comment.</I> FHFA will publish each request that is submitted under paragraph (c)(1) of this section for an alternative target level on FHFA's public website for a period of at least 30 days, to provide the public an opportunity to comment on the request. FHFA will publish each request without redactions or other changes, except that FHFA will not publish any confidential or proprietary material. A Bank must submit any material supporting its request under paragraph (c)(1) of this section that it considers to be confidential or proprietary as a separate document, clearly designated as confidential or proprietary.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 38051, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.12   General counting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Mortgage purchases financing single-family properties shall be evaluated based on the income of the mortgagors and the area median income at the time the mortgage was originated. To determine whether mortgages may be counted under a particular family income level (<I>e.g.,</I> low- or very low-income), the income of the mortgagor is compared to the median income for the area at the time the mortgage was originated, using the appropriate percentage factor provided under § 1281.1.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No double-counting.</I> A mortgage may be counted only once toward the achievement of the prospective mortgage purchase housing goal, even if it satisfies multiple criteria for the prospective mortgage purchase housing goal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application of median income.</I> For purposes of determining an area's median income under § 1281.1, the area is:
</P>
<P>(1) The metropolitan area, if the residence that secures the mortgage is in a metropolitan area; and
</P>
<P>(2) In all other areas, the county in which the property is located, except that where the State non-metropolitan median income is higher than the county's median income, the area is the State non-metropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Sampling not permitted.</I> Performance under the housing goals for each year shall be based on a tabulation of each mortgage during that year; a sampling of such purchases is not acceptable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[85 FR 38051, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.13   Special counting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FHFA shall determine whether a Bank shall receive full, partial, or no credit toward achievement of any of the housing goals for a transaction that otherwise qualifies under this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Not counted.</I> The following transactions or activities shall not be counted for purposes of the housing goals, meaning that in calculating the applicable percentage target level, they shall be excluded from both the numerator (<I>i.e.,</I> AMA mortgages acquired during the calendar year that are for very low-income families, low-income families, or families in low-income areas) and the denominator (<I>i.e.,</I> total AMA mortgages acquired during the calendar year), even if the transaction or activity would otherwise be counted under paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases of participation interests in AMA mortgages from another Bank, except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section;
</P>
<P>(2) Commitments to buy mortgages at a later date or time;
</P>
<P>(3) Options to acquire mortgages;
</P>
<P>(4) Rights of first refusal to acquire mortgages;
</P>
<P>(5) Any interests in mortgages that the Director determines, in writing, shall not be treated as interests in mortgages;
</P>
<P>(6) Mortgage purchases to the extent they finance any dwelling units that are secondary residences;
</P>
<P>(7) Single-family refinancing mortgages that result from conversion of balloon notes to fully amortizing notes, if a Bank already owns, or has an interest in, the balloon note at the time conversion occurs;
</P>
<P>(8) Purchases of subordinate lien mortgages;
</P>
<P>(9) Purchases of mortgages that were previously counted by a Bank under any current or previous housing goal within the five years immediately preceding the current performance year;
</P>
<P>(10) Purchases of mortgages where the property has not been approved for occupancy; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any combination of factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(10) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other special rules.</I> Subject to FHFA's determination of whether a Bank shall receive full, partial, or no credit for a transaction toward achievement of any of the housing goals as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the transactions and activities identified in this paragraph (c) shall be treated as mortgage purchases as described. A transaction or activity that is covered by more than one paragraph below must satisfy the requirements of each such paragraph. The mortgages from each such transaction or activity shall be included in the denominator in calculating a Bank's performance under the housing goals, and shall be included in the numerator, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Cooperative housing and condominiums.</I> The purchase by a Bank of a mortgage on a cooperative housing unit (“a share loan”) or a mortgage on a condominium unit shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Seasoned mortgages.</I> The purchase of a seasoned mortgage by a Bank shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals, except where the Bank has already counted the mortgage under any current or previous housing goal within the five years immediately preceding the current performance year.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Purchase of refinancing mortgages.</I> The purchase of a refinancing mortgage by a Bank shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals only if the refinancing is an arms-length transaction that is borrower-driven.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Non-conventional mortgages.</I> The purchase of a non-conventional single-family mortgage shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals only if the mortgage was acquired from a community-based AMA user.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>FHFA review of transactions.</I> FHFA may determine whether and how any transaction or class of transactions shall be counted for purposes of the housing goals. FHFA will notify each Bank in writing of any determination regarding the treatment of any transaction or class of transactions under the housing goals.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Mortgage participation transactions.</I> Where two or more Banks acquire a participation interest in the same mortgage simultaneously, the mortgage will be counted on a <I>pro rata</I> basis for the prospective mortgage purchase housing goal for each Bank with a participation interest.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 38052, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.14   Determination of compliance with housing goals; notice of determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination of compliance with housing goals.</I> On an annual basis, FHFA will determine each Bank's performance under each housing goal and will publish the final determinations. FHFA will publish its final determination including the numbers and percentages for each Bank's AMA purchases that meet each of the housing goals criteria, including loans to low-income families, loans to very low-income families, and loans to families in low-income areas, including by each of the defined categories. FHFA's determination will include these numbers in total and separated into purchase money mortgages, refinancing mortgages, conventional mortgages, and non-conventional mortgages.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Failure to meet a housing goal.</I> If the Director determines that a Bank has failed to meet any housing goal, the Director shall notify the Bank in writing of such preliminary determination. Any notification to a Bank of a preliminary determination under this section shall provide the Bank with an opportunity to respond in writing in accordance with the following procedures:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice.</I> The Director shall provide written notice to a Bank of a preliminary determination under this section, the reasons for such determination, and the information on which the Director based the determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response period</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> During the 30-day period beginning on the date on which notice is provided under paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the Bank may submit to the Director any written information that the Bank considers appropriate for consideration by the Director in finally determining whether such failure has occurred or whether the achievement of such goal was feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Extended period.</I> The Director may extend the period under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section for good cause for not more than 30 additional days.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Shortened period.</I> The Director may shorten the period under paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section for good cause.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Failure to respond.</I> The failure of a Bank to provide information during the 30-day period under this paragraph (b)(2), as extended or shortened, shall waive any right of the Bank to comment on the proposed determination or action of the Director.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consideration of information and final determination—</I> (i) <I>In general.</I> After the expiration of the response period under paragraph (b)(2) of this section or receipt of information provided during such period by a Bank, the Director shall issue a final determination on:
</P>
<P>(A) Whether the Bank has failed to meet the housing goal; and
</P>
<P>(B) Whether, taking into consideration market and economic conditions and the financial condition of the Bank, the achievement of the housing goal was feasible.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Considerations.</I> In making a final determination under paragraph (b)(3)(i) of this section, the Director shall take into consideration any relevant information submitted by a Bank during the response period.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 38052, June 25, 2020]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1281.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.15   Housing plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Housing plan requirement.</I> For any year after 2023, if the Director determines that a Bank has failed to meet any housing goal and that the achievement of the housing goal was feasible, the Director may require the Bank to submit a housing plan for approval by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of plan.</I> If the Director requires a housing plan, the housing plan shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Be feasible;
</P>
<P>(2) Be sufficiently specific to enable the Director to monitor compliance periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the specific actions that the Bank will take to achieve the housing goal for the next calendar year;
</P>
<P>(4) Address any additional matters relevant to the housing plan as required, in writing, by the Director; and
</P>
<P>(5) Address any alternative target levels for which the Bank has submitted a request under § 1281.11(c)(1).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline for submission.</I> The Bank shall submit the housing plan to the Director within 45 days after issuance of a notice requiring the Bank to submit a housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline for submission of a plan, in writing and for a time certain, to the extent the Director determines an extension is necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of housing plan.</I> The Director shall review and approve or disapprove a housing plan as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Approval.</I> The Director shall review each submission by a Bank, including a housing plan submitted under this section and, not later than 30 days after submission, approve or disapprove the plan or other action. The Director may extend the period for approval or disapproval for a single additional 30-day period if the Director determines it necessary. The Director shall approve any plan that the Director determines is likely to succeed, and conforms with the Bank Act, this part, and any other applicable provision of law.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Notice of approval and disapproval.</I> The Director shall provide written notice to a Bank submitting a housing plan of the approval or disapproval of the plan, which shall include the reasons for any disapproval of the plan, and of any extension of the period for approval or disapproval.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resubmission.</I> If the Director disapproves an initial housing plan submitted by a Bank, the Bank shall submit an amended plan acceptable to the Director not later than 15 days after the Director's disapproval of the initial plan; the Director may extend the deadline if the Director determines an extension is in the public interest. If the amended plan is not acceptable to the Director, the Director may afford the Bank 15 days to submit a new plan.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Enforcement of housing plan.</I> If the Director finds that a Bank has failed to meet any housing goal, and that the achievement of the housing goal was feasible, and has required the Bank to submit a housing plan under this section, the Director may issue a cease and desist order, or impose civil money penalties, if the Bank refuses to submit such a plan, fails to submit an acceptable plan, or fails to comply with the approved plan. In taking such action, the Director shall follow procedures consistent with those provided in 12 U.S.C. 4581 through 4588 and applicable provisions in part 1209 of this title with respect to actions to enforce the housing goals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 81105, Dec. 27, 2010, as amended at 85 FR 38052, June 25, 2020; 90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Reporting Requirements</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>85 FR 38052, June 25, 2020, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1281.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.58.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1281.20   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Bank must collect and submit to FHFA any data that FHFA determines to be necessary for FHFA to evaluate transactions and activities under the Bank housing goals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting for prospective mortgage purchase housing goal.</I> Each Bank must collect data on each AMA mortgage purchased by the Bank. The data must include any data elements specified by FHFA. On no less frequent than an annual basis, each Bank must submit such data to FHFA in accordance with the Data Reporting Manual.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reporting for small member participation housing goal.</I> Each Bank must collect data on AMA user asset size. On no less frequent than an annual basis, each Bank must submit such data to FHFA in accordance with the Data Reporting Manual.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Other reporting.</I> Each Bank must provide to FHFA such additional reports, information, and data as FHFA may request from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1282" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1282—ENTERPRISE HOUSING GOALS AND MISSION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4501, 4502, 4511, 4513, 4526, 4561-4566.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Statutory terms.</I> All terms defined in the Safety and Soundness Act are used in accordance with their statutory meaning unless otherwise defined in paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other terms.</I> As used in this part, the term:
</P>
<P><I>Additional Activity,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an activity in an Enterprise's Underserved Markets Plan that is not a Statutory Activity or Regulatory Activity.
</P>
<P><I>Agricultural worker,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means any person that meets the definition of an agricultural worker under a federal, state, tribal or local program.
</P>
<P><I>AHAR</I> means the Annual Housing Activities Report that an Enterprise submits to the Director under section 309(n) of the Fannie Mae Charter Act or section 307(f) of the Freddie Mac Act.
</P>
<P><I>AHAR information</I> means data or information contained in the AHAR.
</P>
<P><I>Area of concentrated poverty,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a census tract designated by HUD as a Qualified Census Tract, pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 42(d)(5)(B)(ii), or as a Racially- or Ethnically-Concentrated Area of Poverty, pursuant to 24 CFR 5.152, during any year covered by an Underserved Markets Plan or in the year prior to a Plan's effective date.
</P>
<P><I>Balloon mortgage</I> means a mortgage providing for payments at regular intervals, with a final payment (“balloon payment”) that is at least 5 percent more than the periodic payments. The periodic payments may cover some or all of the periodic principal or interest. Typically, the periodic payments are level monthly payments that would fully amortize the mortgage over a stated term and the balloon payment is a single payment due after a specified period (but before the mortgage would fully amortize) and pays off or satisfies the outstanding balance of the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Borrower income</I> means the total gross income relied on in making the credit decision.
</P>
<P><I>Charter Act</I> means the Fannie Mae Charter Act, as amended, or the Freddie Mac Act, as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Colonia,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an identifiable community that meets the definition of a colonia under a federal, State, tribal, or local program.
</P>
<P><I>Colonia census tract,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a census tract that contains a colonia.


</P>
<P><I>Community development financial institution,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, has the meaning in 12 CFR 1263.1.
</P>
<P><I>Conventional mortgage</I> means a mortgage other than a mortgage as to which an Enterprise has the benefit of any guaranty, insurance or other obligation by the United States or any of its agencies or instrumentalities.
</P>
<P><I>Day</I> means a calendar day.
</P>
<P><I>Designated disaster area</I> means any census tract that is located in a county designated by the President as adversely affected by a declared major disaster administered by FEMA under the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act (42 U.S.C. 5121 <I>et seq.</I>), where housing assistance payments were authorized by FEMA. A census tract shall be treated as a “designated disaster area” for purposes of this part beginning on the January 1 after the major disaster declaration of the county, or such earlier date as determined by FHFA, and continuing through December 31 of the third full calendar year following the major disaster declaration. This time period may be adjusted for a particular disaster area by notice from FHFA to the Enterprises.




</P>
<P><I>Dwelling unit</I> means a room or unified combination of rooms with plumbing and kitchen facilities intended for use, in whole or in part, as a dwelling by one or more persons, and includes a dwelling unit in a single-family property, multifamily property, or other residential or mixed-use property.
</P>
<P><I>Efficiency</I> means a dwelling unit having no separate bedrooms or 0 bedrooms.
</P>
<P><I>Evaluation Guidance,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means separate FHFA-prepared guidance that includes the information required under this subpart, as well as additional guidance on the Underserved Markets Plans, how the quantitative and qualitative assessments will be conducted, the role of extra credit for extra-credit eligible activities such as residential economic diversity, how final ratings will be determined, and other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P><I>Extremely low-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 30 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of rental units, income not in excess of 30 percent of area median income, with adjustments for smaller and larger families in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Families in low-income areas</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) Any family that resides in a census tract in which the median income does not exceed 80 percent of the area median income;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any family with an income that does not exceed area median income that resides in a minority census tract; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Any family with an income that does not exceed area median income that resides in a designated disaster area.
</P>
<P><I>Family</I> means one or more individuals who occupy the same dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Fannie Mae Charter Act</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1715 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Federally insured credit union,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, has the meaning in 12 U.S.C. 1752(7).
</P>
<P><I>Federally recognized Indian tribe,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, has the meaning in 25 CFR 83.1.
</P>
<P><I>FEMA</I> means the Federal Emergency Management Agency.
</P>
<P><I>FOIA</I> means the Freedom of Information Act, as amended (5 U.S.C. 552).
</P>
<P><I>Freddie Mac Act</I> means the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. 1451 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>High-needs rural population,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means any of the following populations provided the population is located in a rural area:
</P>
<P>(i) Members of a Federally recognized Indian tribe located in an Indian area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Agricultural workers.
</P>
<P><I>High-needs rural region,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means any of the following regions provided the region is located in a rural area:
</P>
<P>(i) Middle Appalachia;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Lower Mississippi Delta;
</P>
<P>(iii) A colonia census tract; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A tract located in a persistent poverty county and not included in Middle Appalachia, the Lower Mississippi Delta, or a colonia.
</P>
<P><I>High opportunity area,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means:
</P>
<P>(i) An area designated by HUD as a “Difficult Development Area,” pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 42(d)(5)(B)(iii), during any year covered by an Underserved Markets Plan or in the year prior to an Underserved Markets Plan's effective date, whose poverty rate is lower than the rate specified by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance; or
</P>
<P>(ii) An area designated by a state or local Qualified Allocation Plan as a high opportunity area and which meets a definition FHFA has identified as eligible for duty to serve credit in the Evaluation Guidance.
</P>
<P><I>HOEPA mortgage</I> means a mortgage covered by section 103(bb) of the Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act (HOEPA) (15 U.S.C. 1602(bb)), as implemented by the Bureau of Consumer Financial Protection.
</P>
<P><I>Indian area,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, has the meaning in 24 CFR 1000.10.
</P>
<P><I>Insured depository institution,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an institution whose deposits are insured under the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Lender</I> means any entity that makes, originates, sells, or services mortgages, and includes the secured creditors named in the debt obligation and document creating the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Low-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 80 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of rental units, income not in excess of 80 percent of area median income, with adjustments for smaller and larger families in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Lower Mississippi Delta,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means the Lower Mississippi Delta counties designated by Public Laws 100-460, 106-554, and 107-171, along with any future updates made by Congress.
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured home,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a manufactured home as defined in section 603(6) of the National Manufactured Housing Construction and Safety Standards Act of 1974, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 5401 <I>et seq.,</I> and implementing regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Manufactured housing community,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a tract of land under unified ownership and developed for the purposes of providing individual rental spaces for the placement of manufactured homes for residential purposes within its boundaries.
</P>
<P><I>Median income</I> means, with respect to an area, the unadjusted median family income for the area as determined by FHFA. FHFA will provide the Enterprises annually with information specifying how the median family income estimates for metropolitan and non-metropolitan areas are to be applied for purposes of determining median income.
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan area</I> means a metropolitan statistical area (MSA), or a portion of such an area, including Metropolitan Divisions, for which median incomes are determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Middle Appalachia,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means the “central” Appalachian subregion under the Appalachian Regional Commission's subregional classification of Appalachia.
</P>
<P><I>Minority</I> means any individual who is included within any one or more of the following racial and ethnic categories:
</P>
<P>(i) American Indian or Alaskan Native—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of North and South America (including Central America), and who maintains Tribal affiliation or community attachment;
</P>
<P>(ii) Asian—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of the Far East, Southeast Asia, or the Indian subcontinent, including, for example, Cambodia, China, India, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, Pakistan, the Philippine Islands, Thailand, and Vietnam;
</P>
<P>(iii) Black or African American—a person having origins in any of the black racial groups of Africa;
</P>
<P>(iv) Hispanic or Latino—a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American, or other Spanish culture or origin, regardless of race; and
</P>
<P>(v) Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander—a person having origins in any of the original peoples of Hawaii, Guam, Samoa, or other Pacific Islands.
</P>
<P><I>Minority census tract</I> means a census tract that has a minority population of at least 30 percent and a median income of less than 100 percent of the area median income.
</P>
<P><I>Mixed-income housing,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a multifamily property or development that may include or comprise single-family units that serves very low-, low-, or moderate-income families where:
</P>
<P>(i) A minimum percentage of the units are unaffordable to low-income families, or to families at higher income levels, as specified in the Evaluation Guide; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A minimum percentage of the units are affordable to low-income families, or to families at lower income levels, as specified in the Evaluation Guide.
</P>
<P><I>Moderate-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of rental units, income not in excess of area median income, with adjustments for smaller and larger families in accordance with this part.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage</I> means a member of such classes of liens, including subordinate liens, as are commonly given or are legally effective to secure advances on, or the unpaid purchase price of, real estate under the laws of the State in which the real estate is located, together with the credit instruments, if any, secured thereby, and includes interests in mortgages. “Mortgage” includes a mortgage, lien, including a subordinate lien, or other security interest on the stock or membership certificate issued to a tenant-stockholder or resident-member by a cooperative housing corporation, as defined in section 216 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and on the proprietary lease, occupancy agreement, or right of tenancy in the dwelling unit of the tenant-stockholder or resident-member in such cooperative housing corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage data</I> means data obtained by the Director from the Enterprises under section 309(m) of the Fannie Mae Charter Act and section 307(e) of the Freddie Mac Act.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage purchase</I> means a transaction in which an Enterprise bought or otherwise acquired a mortgage or an interest in a mortgage for portfolio, resale, or securitization.
</P>
<P><I>Mortgage revenue bond</I> means a tax-exempt bond or taxable bond issued by a State or local government or agency where the proceeds from the bond issue are used to finance residential housing.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily housing</I> means a residence consisting of more than four dwelling units. The term includes cooperative buildings and condominium projects.
</P>
<P><I>Non-metropolitan area</I> means a county, or a portion of a county, including those counties that comprise Micropolitan Statistical Areas, located outside any metropolitan area, for which median incomes are determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied housing</I> means single-family housing in which a mortgagor resides, including two- to four-unit owner-occupied properties where one or more units are used for rental purposes.
</P>
<P><I>Participation</I> means a fractional interest in the principal amount of a mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Persistent poverty county,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a county in a rural area that has had 20 percent or more of its population living in poverty over the past 30 years, as measured by the most recent successive decennial censuses.
</P>
<P><I>Private label security</I> means any mortgage-backed security that is neither issued nor guaranteed by Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, Ginnie Mae, or any other government agency.
</P>
<P><I>Proprietary information</I> means all mortgage data and all AHAR information that the Enterprises submit to the Director in the AHARs that contain trade secrets or privileged or confidential, commercial, or financial information that, if released, would be likely to cause substantial competitive harm.
</P>
<P><I>Public data</I> means all mortgage data and all AHAR information that the Enterprises submit to the Director in the AHARs that the Director determines are not proprietary and may appropriately be disclosed consistent with other applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P><I>Purchase money mortgage</I> means a mortgage given to secure a loan used for the purchase of a single-family residential property.
</P>
<P><I>Refinancing mortgage</I> means a mortgage undertaken by a borrower that satisfies or replaces an existing mortgage of such borrower. The term does not include:
</P>
<P>(i) A renewal of a single payment obligation with no change in the original terms;
</P>
<P>(ii) A reduction in the annual percentage rate of the mortgage as computed under the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>), with a corresponding change in the payment schedule;
</P>
<P>(iii) An agreement involving a court proceeding;
</P>
<P>(iv) A workout agreement, in which a change in the payment schedule or collateral requirements is agreed to as a result of the mortgagor's default or delinquency, unless the rate is increased or the new amount financed exceeds the unpaid balance plus earned finance charges and premiums for the continuation of insurance;
</P>
<P>(v) The renewal of optional insurance purchased by the mortgagor and added to an existing mortgage;
</P>
<P>(vi) A renegotiated balloon mortgage on a multifamily property where the balloon payment was due within 1 year after the date of the closing of the renegotiated mortgage; and
</P>
<P>(vii) A conversion of a balloon mortgage note on a single-family property to a fully amortizing mortgage note where the Enterprise already owns or has an interest in the balloon note at the time of the conversion.
</P>
<P><I>Regulatory Activity,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an activity in an Enterprise's Underserved Markets Plan that is designated as a Regulatory Activity in §§ 1282.33(c), 1282.34(d), or 1282.35(c).
</P>
<P><I>Rent</I> means the actual rent or average rent by unit size for a dwelling unit.
</P>
<P>(i) Rent is determined based on the total combined rent for all bedrooms in the dwelling unit, including fees or charges for management and maintenance services and any utility charges that are included.
</P>
<P>(A) Rent concessions shall not be considered, <I>i.e.,</I> the rent is not decreased by any rent concessions.
</P>
<P>(B) Rent is net of rental subsidies, <I>i.e.,</I> the rent is decreased by any rental subsidy.
</P>
<P>(ii) When the rent does not include all utilities, the rent shall also include:
</P>
<P>(A) The actual cost of utilities not included in the rent;
</P>
<P>(B) The nationwide average utility allowance, as issued periodically by FHFA;
</P>
<P>(C) The utility allowance established under the HUD Section 8 Program (42 U.S.C. 1437f) for the area where the property is located; or
</P>
<P>(D) The utility allowance for the area in which the property is located, as established by the state or local housing finance agency for determining the affordability of low-income housing tax credit properties under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42).
</P>
<P><I>Rental unit</I> means a dwelling unit that is not owner-occupied and is rented or available to rent.
</P>
<P><I>Residence</I> means a property where one or more families reside.
</P>
<P><I>Resident-owned manufactured housing community,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a manufactured housing community for which the terms and conditions of residency, policies, operations and management are controlled by at least 51 percent of the residents, either directly or through an entity formed under the laws of the state.
</P>
<P><I>Residential economic diversity activity,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an eligible Enterprise activity, other than an energy or water efficiency improvement activity or other activity that FHFA determines to be ineligible, in connection with mortgages on:
</P>
<P>(i) Affordable housing in a high opportunity area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Mixed-income housing in an area of concentrated poverty.
</P>
<P><I>Residential mortgage</I> means a mortgage on single-family or multifamily housing.
</P>
<P><I>Rural area,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means:
</P>
<P>(i) A census tract outside of a metropolitan statistical area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A census tract in a metropolitan statistical area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget that is:
</P>
<P>(A) Outside of the metropolitan statistical area's Urbanized Areas as designated by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) Code #1, and outside of tracts with a housing density of over 64 housing units per square mile for USDA's RUCA Code #2; or
</P>
<P>(B) A colonia census tract that does not satisfy paragraphs (i) or (ii)(A) of this definition.




</P>
<P><I>Seasoned mortgage</I> means a mortgage on which the date of the mortgage note is more than 1 year before the Enterprise purchased the mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Second mortgage</I> means any mortgage that has a lien position subordinate only to the lien of the first mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Secondary residence</I> means a dwelling where the mortgagor maintains (or will maintain) a part-time place of abode and typically spends (or will spend) less than the majority of the calendar year. A person may have more than one secondary residence at a time.
</P>
<P><I>Single-family housing</I> means a residence consisting of one to four dwelling units. Single-family housing includes condominium dwelling units and dwelling units in cooperative housing projects.
</P>
<P><I>Small financial institution,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a financial institution with less than $304 million in assets.
</P>
<P><I>Small multifamily property</I> means any multifamily property with at least 5 dwelling units but no more than 50 dwelling units.
</P>
<P><I>Small multifamily rental property,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means any property of 5 to 50 rental units.
</P>
<P><I>Statutory Activity,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means an Enterprise activity relating to housing projects under the programs set forth in 12 U.S.C. 4565(a)(1)(B) and § 1282.34(c).
</P>
<P><I>Underserved Markets Plan,</I> for purposes of subpart C of this part, means a plan prepared by an Enterprise describing the activities and objectives it will undertake to meet its duty to serve each of the three underserved markets.
</P>
<P><I>Utilities</I> means charges for electricity, piped or bottled gas, water, sewage disposal, fuel (oil, coal, kerosene, wood, solar energy, or other), and garbage and trash collection. Utilities do not include charges for subscription-based television, telephone, or internet service.
</P>
<P><I>Very low-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 50 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In the case of rental units, income not in excess of 50 percent of area median income, with adjustments for smaller and larger families in accordance with this part.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 78 FR 2328, Jan. 11, 2013; 80 FR 53430, Sept. 3, 2015; 81 FR 76300, Nov. 2, 2016; 81 FR 96292, Dec. 29, 2016; 83 FR 5899, Feb. 12, 2018; 86 FR 73657, Dec. 28, 2021; 88 FR 23563, Apr. 18, 2023; 89 FR 106275, Dec. 30, 2024]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Housing Goals</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.11   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Pursuant to the requirements of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4561-4564, 4566), this subpart establishes:
</P>
<P>(1) Three single-family owner-occupied purchase money mortgage housing goals, a single-family owner-occupied purchase money mortgage housing subgoal, a single-family refinancing mortgage housing goal, two multifamily housing goals, and a multifamily housing subgoal;




</P>
<P>(2) Requirements for measuring performance under the goals; and
</P>
<P>(3) Procedures for monitoring and enforcing the goals.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Annual goals.</I> Each housing goal shall be established by regulation no later than December 1 of the preceding year, except that any housing goal may be adjusted by regulation to reflect subsequent available data and market developments.


</P>
<P>(c) <I>Severability.</I> FHFA intends the various provisions of this part to be separate and severable from one another. If any provision of this part, or any application of a provision, is stayed or determined to be invalid or unenforceable, the remaining provisions or applications will continue in effect.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 53430, Sept. 3, 2015; 86 FR 73657, Dec. 28, 2021; 89 FR 106275, Dec. 30, 2024; 90 FR 59965, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.12   Single-family housing goals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Single-family housing goals.</I> An Enterprise shall be in compliance with a single-family housing goal if its performance under the housing goal meets or exceeds either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of the market that qualifies for the goal; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level for the goal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Size of market.</I> The size of the market for each goal shall be established annually by FHFA based on data reported pursuant to the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act for a given year. Unless otherwise adjusted by FHFA, the size of the market shall be determined based on the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) Only owner-occupied, conventional loans shall be considered;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchase money mortgages and refinancing mortgages shall only be counted for the applicable goal or goals;
</P>
<P>(3) All mortgages flagged as HOEPA loans or subordinate lien loans shall be excluded;
</P>
<P>(4) All mortgages with original principal balances above the conforming loan limits for single unit properties for the year being evaluated (rounded to the nearest $1,000) shall be excluded;
</P>
<P>(5) All mortgages with rate spreads of 150 basis points or more above the applicable average prime offer rate as reported in the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act data shall be excluded; and
</P>
<P>(6) All mortgages that are missing information necessary to determine appropriate counting under the housing goals shall be excluded.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Low-income home purchase goal.</I>

 The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of purchase money mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of mortgages for low-income families shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level, which for 2026, 2027, and 2028 shall be 21.0 percent of the total number of purchase money mortgages purchased by that Enterprise in each year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Very low-income home purchase goal.</I> The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of purchase money mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of mortgages for very low-income families shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level, which for 2026, 2027, and 2028 shall be 3.5 percent of the total number of purchase money mortgages purchased by that Enterprise in each year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Low-income areas home purchase goal.</I> The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of purchase money mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of mortgages for families in low-income areas shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) A benchmark level which shall be set annually by FHFA by notice based on the benchmark level for the low-income areas home purchase subgoal, plus an adjustment factor reflecting the additional incremental share of mortgages for moderate-income families in designated disaster areas in the most recent year for which such data is available. FHFA will make the notice available on FHFA's website, <I>www.fhfa.gov.</I>








</P>
<P>(f) <I>Low-income areas home purchase subgoal.</I> The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of purchase money mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of mortgages for families in low-income census tracts or for moderate-income families in minority census tracts shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level, which for 2026, 2027, and 2028 shall be 16.0 percent of the total number of purchase money mortgages purchased by that Enterprise in each year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Minority census tracts housing subgoal.</I> The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of purchase money mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of mortgages for moderate-income families in minority census tracts shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level, which for 2026, 2027, and 2028 shall be 21.0 percent of the total number of refinancing mortgages purchased by that Enterprise in each year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Refinancing housing goal.</I> The percentage share of each Enterprise's total purchases of refinancing mortgages on owner-occupied single-family housing that consists of refinancing mortgages for low-income families shall meet or exceed either:
</P>
<P>(1) The share of such mortgages in the market as defined in paragraph (b) of this section in each year; or
</P>
<P>(2) The benchmark level, which for 2025, 2026, and 2027 shall be 26 percent of the total number of refinancing mortgages purchased by that Enterprise in each year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 53430, Sept. 3, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 5899, Feb. 12, 2018; 85 FR 82895, Dec. 21, 2020' 86 FR 73658, Dec. 28, 2021; 89 FR 106275, Dec. 30, 2024; 90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.13   Multifamily housing goals and subgoal.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Multifamily housing goals and subgoal.</I> An Enterprise shall be in compliance with a multifamily housing goal or subgoal if its performance under the housing goal or subgoal meets or exceeds the benchmark level for the goal or subgoal, respectively.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multifamily low-income housing goal.</I> The percentage share of dwelling units in multifamily residential housing financed by mortgages purchased by each Enterprise that consists of dwelling units affordable to low-income families shall meet or exceed 61.0 percent of the total number of dwelling units in multifamily residential housing financed by mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in each year for for 2026, 2027, and 2028</P>
<P>(c) <I>Multifamily very low-income housing goal.</I> The percentage share of dwelling units in multifamily residential housing financed by mortgages purchased by each Enterprise that consists of dwelling units affordable to very low-income families shall meet or exceed 14.0 percent of the total number of dwelling units in multifamily residential housing financed by mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in each year for 2026, 2027, and 2028.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Small multifamily low-income housing subgoal.</I> The percentage share of dwelling units in small multifamily properties financed by mortgages purchased by each Enterprise that consists of dwelling units affordable to low-income families shall meet or exceed 2.0 percent of the total number of dwelling units in all multifamily residential housing financed by mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in each year for 2026, 2027, and 2028.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 106275, Dec. 30, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.14   Discretionary adjustment of housing goals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An Enterprise may petition the Director in writing during any year to reduce any goal or subgoal for that year.
</P>
<P>(b) The Director shall seek public comment on any such petition for a period of 30 days.
</P>
<P>(c) The Director shall make a determination regarding the petition within 30 days after the end of the public comment period. If the Director requests additional information from the Enterprise after the end of the public comment period, the Director may extend the period for a final determination for a single additional 15-day period.
</P>
<P>(d) The Director may reduce a goal or subgoal pursuant to a petition for reduction only if:
</P>
<P>(1) Market and economic conditions or the financial condition of the Enterprise require such a reduction; or
</P>
<P>(2) Efforts to meet the goal or subgoal would result in the constraint of liquidity, over-investment in certain market segments, or other consequences contrary to the intent of the Safety and Soundness Act or the purposes of the Charter Acts (12 U.S.C. 1716; 12 U.S.C. 1451 note).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.15   General counting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Calculating the numerator and denominator for single-family housing goals.</I> Performance under each of the single-family housing goals shall be measured using a fraction that is converted into a percentage. Neither the numerator nor the denominator shall include Enterprise transactions or activities that are not mortgage purchases as defined by FHFA or that are specifically excluded as ineligible under § 1282.16(b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The numerator.</I> The numerator of each fraction is the number of mortgage purchases of an Enterprise in a particular year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties that count toward achievement of a particular single-family housing goal.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The denominator.</I> The denominator of each fraction is the total number of mortgage purchases of an Enterprise in a particular year that finance owner-occupied single-family properties. A separate denominator shall be calculated for purchase money mortgages and for refinancing mortgages.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counting owner-occupied units.</I> (1) Mortgage purchases financing owner-occupied single-family properties shall be evaluated based on the income of the mortgagors and the area median income at the time the mortgage was originated. To determine whether mortgages may be counted under a particular family income level, <I>i.e.,</I> low- or very low-income, the income of the mortgagors is compared to the median income for the area at the time the mortgage was originated, using the appropriate percentage factor provided under § 1282.17.
</P>
<P>(2) Mortgage purchases financing owner-occupied single-family properties for which the income of the mortgagors is not available shall be included in the denominator for the single-family housing goals and subgoal, but such mortgages shall not be counted in the numerator of any single-family housing goal or subgoal.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculating the numerator and denominator for multifamily housing goals and subgoal.</I> Performance under the multifamily housing goals and subgoal shall be measured using a fraction that is converted into a percentage.



 Neither the numerator nor the denominator shall include Enterprise transactions or activities that are not mortgage purchases as defined by FHFA or that are specifically excluded as ineligible under § 1282.16(b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>The numerator.</I> The numerator of each fraction is the number of dwelling units that count toward achievement of a particular multifamily housing goal or subgoal in properties financed by mortgages purchased by an Enterprise in a particular year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>The denominator.</I> The denominator of each fraction is the total number of dwelling units in properties financed by mortgages purchased by an Enterprise in a particular year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Counting rental units</I>—(1) <I>Use of rent.</I> For purposes of counting rental units toward achievement of the multifamily housing goals and subgoal, mortgage purchases financing such units shall be evaluated based on rent and whether the rent is affordable to the income group targeted by the housing goals and subgoal. A rent is affordable if the rent does not exceed the maximum levels as provided in § 1282.19.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affordability of rents based on housing program requirements.</I> Where a multifamily property is subject to an affordability restriction under a housing program that establishes the maximum permitted income level for a tenant or a prospective tenant or the maximum permitted rent, the affordability of units in the property may be determined based on the maximum permitted income level or maximum permitted rent established under such housing program for those units. If using income, the maximum income level must be no greater than the maximum income level for each goal, adjusted for family or unit size as provided in § 1282.17 or § 1282.18, as appropriate. If using rent, the maximum rent level must be no greater than the maximum rent level for each goal, adjusted for unit size as provided in § 1282.19.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unoccupied units.</I> Anticipated rent for unoccupied units may be the market rent for similar units in the neighborhood as determined by the lender or appraiser for underwriting purposes. A unit in a multifamily property that is unoccupied because it is being used as a model unit or rental office may be counted for purposes of the multifamily housing goals and subgoal only if an Enterprise determines that the number of such units is reasonable and minimal considering the size of the multifamily property.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timeliness of information.</I> In evaluating affordability under the multifamily housing goals and subgoal, each Enterprise shall use tenant and rental information as of the time of mortgage acquisition.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Missing data or information for multifamily housing goals and subgoal.</I> (1) Rental units for which bedroom data are missing shall be considered efficiencies for purposes of calculating unit affordability.
</P>
<P>(2) When an Enterprise lacks sufficient information to determine whether a rental unit in a property securing a multifamily mortgage purchased by an Enterprise counts toward achievement of the multifamily housing goals and subgoal because rental data is not available, an Enterprise's performance with respect to such unit may be evaluated using estimated affordability information by multiplying the number of rental units with missing affordability information in properties securing multifamily mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in each census tract by the percentage of all rental dwelling units in the respective tracts that would count toward achievement of each goal and subgoal, as determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(3) The estimation methodology in paragraph (e)(2) of this section may be used up to a nationwide maximum of 5 percent of the total number of rental units in properties securing multifamily mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in the current year. Multifamily rental units with missing affordability information in excess of this maximum shall be included in the denominator for the multifamily housing goals and subgoal, but such rental units shall not be counted in the numerator of any multifamily housing goals and subgoal. Multifamily rental units with missing affordability information for which estimation information is not available shall be excluded from both the numerator and the denominator for purposes of the multifamily housing goals and subgoal.


</P>
<P>(f) <I>Credit toward multiple goals.</I> A mortgage purchase (or dwelling unit financed by such purchase) by an Enterprise in a particular year shall count toward the achievement of each housing goal for which such purchase (or dwelling unit) qualifies in that year.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Application of median income.</I> For purposes of determining an area's median income under §§ 1282.17 through 1282.19 and the definitions in § 1282.1, the area is:
</P>
<P>(1) The metropolitan area, if the property which is the subject of the mortgage is in a metropolitan area; and
</P>
<P>(2) In all other areas, the county in which the property is located, except that where the State non-metropolitan median income is higher than the county's median income, the area is the State non-metropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Sampling not permitted.</I> Performance under the housing goals for each year shall be based on a complete tabulation of mortgage purchases (or dwelling units) for that year; a sampling of such purchases (or dwelling units) is not acceptable.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 53431, Sept. 3, 2015; 83 FR 5899, Feb. 12, 2018; 86 FR 73658, Dec. 28, 2021; 87 FR 78846, Dec. 23, 2022; 89 FR 106275, Dec. 30, 2024; 90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.16   Special counting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FHFA shall determine whether an Enterprise shall receive full, partial, or no credit toward achievement of any of the housing goals for a transaction that otherwise qualifies under this part. In this determination, FHFA will consider whether a transaction or activity of the Enterprise is substantially equivalent to a mortgage purchase and either creates a new market or adds liquidity to an existing market, provided however that such mortgage purchase actually fulfills the Enterprise's purposes and is in accordance with its Charter Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Not counted.</I> The following transactions or activities shall not be counted for purposes of the housing goals and shall not be included in the numerator or the denominator in calculating either Enterprise's performance under the housing goals, even if the transaction or activity would otherwise be counted pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Equity investments in low-income housing tax credits;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchases of State and local government housing bonds except as provided in paragraph (c)(8) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases of single-family non-conventional mortgages and multifamily non-conventional mortgages, except:
</P>
<P>(i) Multifamily mortgages acquired under a risk-sharing arrangement with a Federal agency;
</P>
<P>(ii) Multifamily mortgages under other multifamily mortgage programs involving Federal guarantees, insurance or other Federal obligation where FHFA determines in writing that the financing needs addressed by the particular mortgage program are not well served and that the mortgage purchases under such program should count under the housing goals;
</P>
<P>(4) Commitments to buy mortgages at a later date or time;
</P>
<P>(5) Options to acquire mortgages;
</P>
<P>(6) Rights of first refusal to acquire mortgages;
</P>
<P>(7) Any interests in mortgages that the Director determines, in writing, shall not be treated as interests in mortgages;
</P>
<P>(8) Mortgage purchases to the extent they finance any dwelling units that are secondary residences;
</P>
<P>(9) Single-family refinancing mortgages that result from conversion of balloon notes to fully amortizing notes, if the Enterprise already owns or has an interest in the balloon note at the time conversion occurs;
</P>
<P>(10) Purchases of subordinate lien mortgages (second mortgages);
</P>
<P>(11) Purchases of mortgages or interests in mortgages that were previously counted by the Enterprise under any current or previous housing goal within the five years immediately preceding the current performance year;
</P>
<P>(12) Purchases of mortgages where the property, or any units within the property, have not been approved for occupancy;
</P>
<P>(13) Purchases of private label securities;
</P>
<P>(14) Enterprise contributions to the Housing Trust Fund (12 U.S.C. 4568) or the Capital Magnet Fund (12 U.S.C. 4569), and mortgage purchases funded with such grant amounts; and
</P>
<P>(15) Any combination of factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(14) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other special rules.</I> Subject to FHFA's determination of whether an Enterprise shall receive full, partial, or no credit for a transaction toward achievement of any of the housing goals as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, the transactions and activities identified in this paragraph (c) shall be treated as mortgage purchases as described. A transaction or activity that is covered by more than one paragraph below must satisfy the requirements of each such paragraph. The mortgages (or dwelling units, for the multifamily housing goals) from each such transaction or activity shall be included in the denominator in calculating the Enterprise's performance under the housing goals, and shall be included in the numerator, as appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Credit enhancements.</I> (i) Mortgages (or dwelling units) financed under a credit enhancement entered into by an Enterprise shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals only when:
</P>
<P>(A) The Enterprise provides a specific contractual obligation to ensure timely payment of amounts due under a mortgage or mortgages financed by the issuance of housing bonds (such bonds may be issued by any entity, including a State or local housing finance agency); and
</P>
<P>(B) The Enterprise assumes a credit risk in the transaction substantially equivalent to the risk that would have been assumed by the Enterprise if it had securitized the mortgages financed by such bonds.
</P>
<P>(ii) When an Enterprise provides a specific contractual obligation to ensure timely payment of amounts due under any mortgage originally insured by a public purpose mortgage insurance entity or fund, the Enterprise may, on a case-by-case basis, seek approval from the Director for such activities to count toward achievement of the housing goals.
</P>
<P>(2) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Risk-sharing.</I> Mortgages purchased under risk-sharing arrangements between an Enterprise and any Federal agency under which the Enterprise is responsible for a substantial amount of the risk shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Participations.</I> Participations purchased by an Enterprise shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals only when the Enterprise's participation in the mortgage is 50 percent or more.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Cooperative housing and condominiums.</I> (i) The purchase of a mortgage on a cooperative housing unit (“a share loan”) or a mortgage on a condominium unit shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals. Such a purchase shall be counted in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of single-family owner-occupied units.
</P>
<P>(ii) The purchase of a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building or a mortgage on a condominium project shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals. The purchase of a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building shall be counted in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of a multifamily rental property, except that affordability must be determined based solely on the comparable market rents used in underwriting the blanket loan. If the underwriting rents are not available, the loan shall not be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals. The purchase of a mortgage on a condominium project shall be counted in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of a multifamily rental property.
</P>
<P>(iii) Where an Enterprise purchases both a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building and share loans for units in the same building, both the mortgage on the cooperative building and the share loans shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals. Where an Enterprise purchases both a mortgage on a condominium project and mortgages on individual dwelling units in the same project, both the mortgage on the condominium project and the mortgages on individual dwelling units shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Seasoned mortgages.</I> An Enterprise's purchase of a seasoned mortgage shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals, except where the Enterprise has already counted the mortgage under any current or previous housing goal within the five years immediately preceding the current performance year.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Purchase of refinancing mortgages.</I> The purchase of a refinancing mortgage by an Enterprise shall be treated as a mortgage purchase for purposes of the housing goals only if the refinancing is an arms-length transaction that is borrower-driven.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Mortgage revenue bonds.</I> The purchase or guarantee by an Enterprise of a mortgage revenue bond issued by a State or local housing finance agency shall be treated as a purchase of the underlying mortgages for purposes of the housing goals only to the extent the Enterprise has sufficient information to determine whether the underlying mortgages or mortgage-backed securities qualify for inclusion in the numerator for one or more housing goal.
</P>
<P>(9) -(13) [Reserved]
</P>
<P>(14) <I>Seller dissolution option.</I> (i) Mortgages acquired through transactions involving seller dissolution options shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals, only when:
</P>
<P>(A) The terms of the transaction provide for a lockout period that prohibits the exercise of the dissolution option for at least one year from the date on which the transaction was entered into by the Enterprise and the seller of the mortgages; and
</P>
<P>(B) The transaction is not dissolved during the one-year minimum lockout period.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Director may grant an exception to the one-year minimum lockout period described in paragraphs (c)(14)(i)(A) and (B) of this section, in response to a written request from an Enterprise, if the Director determines that the transaction furthers the purposes of the Safety and Soundness Act and the Enterprise's Charter Act.
</P>
<P>(iii) For purposes of this paragraph (c)(14), “seller dissolution option” means an option for a seller of mortgages to the Enterprises to dissolve or otherwise cancel a mortgage purchase agreement or loan sale.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>HOEPA mortgages.</I> HOEPA mortgages shall be treated as mortgage purchases for purposes of the housing goals and shall be included in the denominator for each applicable single-family housing goal, but such mortgages shall not be counted in the numerator for any housing goal.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FHFA review of transactions.</I> FHFA may determine whether and how any transaction or class of transactions shall be counted for purposes of the housing goals, including treatment of missing data. FHFA will notify each Enterprise in writing of any determination regarding the treatment of any transaction or class of transactions under the housing goals. FHFA will make any such determinations available to the public on FHFA's Web site, <I>www.fhfa.gov.</I>
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 53432, Sept. 3, 2015; 86 FR 73658, Dec. 28, 2021]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.17" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.17   Affordability—Income level definitions—family size and income known (owner-occupied units, actual tenants, and prospective tenants).</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a dwelling unit is affordable where income information (and family size, for rental units) is known to the Enterprise, the affordability of the unit shall be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Moderate-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 100 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of persons in family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">100
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*100% plus (8% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>Low-income (80%)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 80 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of persons in family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">64
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">80
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*80% plus (6.4% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>Low-income (60%)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 60 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of persons in family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">48
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*60% plus (4.8% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Very low-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 50 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of persons in family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">40
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">50
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*50% plus (4.0% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>Extremely low-income</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied units, income not in excess of 30 percent of area median income; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental units, where the income of actual or prospective tenants is available, income not in excess of the following percentages of area median income corresponding to the following family sizes:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Number of persons in family
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">24
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">4</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">30
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">5 or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*30% plus (2.4% multiplied by the number of persons in excess of 4).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 53432, Sept. 3, 2015]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.18" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.18   Affordability—Income level definitions—family size not known (actual or prospective tenants).</HEAD>
<P>In determining whether a rental unit is affordable where family size is not known to the Enterprise, income will be adjusted using unit size, and affordability determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For moderate-income,</I> the income of prospective tenants shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">70
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">90
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*104% plus (12% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>For low-income (80%),</I> income of prospective tenants shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">56
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">60
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">72
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*83.2% plus (9.6% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>For low-income (60%),</I> income of prospective tenants shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">42
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">54
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*62.4% plus (7.2% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>For very low-income,</I> income of prospective tenants shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">35
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">37.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">45
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*52% plus (6.0% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>For extremely low-income,</I> income of prospective tenants shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*31.2% plus (3.6% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.19" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.19   Affordability—Rent level definitions—tenant income is not known.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of determining whether a rental unit is affordable where the income of the family in the dwelling unit is not known to the Enterprise, the affordability of the unit is determined based on unit size as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>For moderate-income,</I> maximum affordable rents to count as housing for moderate-income families shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">22.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">27
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*31.2% plus (3.6% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(b) <I>For low-income (80%),</I> maximum affordable rents to count as housing for low-income (80%) families shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.8
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">18
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">21.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*24.96% plus (2.88% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(c) <I>For low-income (60%),</I> maximum affordable rents to count as housing for low-income (60%) families shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">12.6
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">16.2
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*18.72% plus (2.16% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>For very low-income,</I> maximum affordable rents to count as housing for very low-income families shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">10.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">11.25
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">13.5
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">*15.6% plus (1.8% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<P>(e) <I>For extremely low-income,</I> maximum affordable rents to count as housing for extremely low-income families shall not exceed the following percentages of area median income with adjustments, depending on unit size:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Unit size
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Percentage of area
<br/>median income
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Efficiency</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.3
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">1 bedroom</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">6.75
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">2 bedrooms</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">8.1
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">3 bedrooms or more</TD><TD align="right" class="gpotbl_cell">*
</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV><DIV class="table_foot"><P class="gpotbl_note">* 9.36% plus (1.08% multiplied by the number of bedrooms in excess of 3).</P></DIV></DIV>
<CITA TYPE="N">[75 FR 55930, Sept. 14, 2010, as amended at 80 FR 53432, Sept. 3, 2015]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.20   Preliminary determination of compliance with housing goals; notice of preliminary determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Preliminary determination.</I> On an annual basis, the Director will evaluate each Enterprise's performance under each single-family housing goal and subgoal and each multifamily housing goal and subgoal.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of preliminary determination.</I> If the Director preliminarily determines that an Enterprise has failed, or that there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will fail, to meet any housing goal or subgoal, the Director will provide written notice to the Enterprise of the preliminary determination of its performance under each housing goal and subgoal established by this subpart, before public disclosure of the preliminary determination. The written notice will include the reasons for such determination, and the information on which the Director based the determination.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Response by Enterprise.</I> Any notification to an Enterprise of a preliminary determination under this section will provide the Enterprise with an opportunity to respond in writing in accordance with the procedures at 12 U.S.C. 4566(b)(1) and (2). Relevant information in a timely written response from an Enterprise will be included in the information the Director considers when making a determination of housing goals compliance under § 1282.21.</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]






</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.21   Determination of compliance with housing goals, notice of determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination.</I> On an annual basis, the Director will make a final determination of each Enterprise's performance under each single-family housing goal and subgoal and each multifamily housing goal and subgoal. The determination will address whether an Enterprise has failed, or there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will fail, to meet any housing goal or subgoal and whether the achievement of that housing goal or subgoal was or is feasible.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of determination.</I> The Director will provide each Enterprise with written notification of the determination in accordance with the procedures at 12 U.S.C. 4562(f) and 12 U.S.C. 4566(b)(3). If the Enterprise has met each of the housing goals and subgoals, the notification will provide the Enterprise with an opportunity to comment on the determination during the 30-day period beginning upon receipt of the notification by the Enterprise. If the Enterprise has failed, or there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will fail, to meet any housing goal or subgoal that FHFA determines was or is feasible, the notification will specify whether the Enterprise is required to submit a housing plan for approval under § 1282.22.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]




</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.2.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.22   Housing plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the Director determines that an Enterprise has failed, or that there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will fail, to meet any housing goal or subgoal, and that the achievement of the housing goal or subgoal was or is feasible, the Director may require the Enterprise to submit a housing plan for approval by the Director.


</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of plan.</I> If the Director requires a housing plan, the housing plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be feasible;
</P>
<P>(2) Be sufficiently specific to enable the Director to monitor compliance periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the specific actions that the Enterprise will take in a time period determined by the Director to improve the Enterprise's performance under the housing goal or subgoal; and
</P>
<P>(4) Address any additional matters relevant to the plan as required, in writing, by the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline for submission.</I> The Enterprise shall submit the housing plan to the Director within 45 days after issuance of a notice requiring the Enterprise to submit a housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline for submission of a plan, in writing and for a time certain, to the extent the Director determines an extension is necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of housing plans.</I> The Director shall review and approve or disapprove housing plans in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 4566(c)(4) and (c)(5).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resubmission.</I> If the Director disapproves an initial housing plan submitted by an Enterprise, the Enterprise shall submit an amended plan for approval or disapproval not later than 15 days after the Director's disapproval of the initial plan; the Director may extend the deadline if the Director determines an extension is in the public interest. If an amended plan is not acceptable to the Director, the Director may afford the Enterprise 15 days to submit additional amendments to its plan for approval or disapproval.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Enforcement of housing plans.</I> If the Director requires an Enterprise to submit a housing plan and the Enterprise refuses to submit such a plan, submits an unacceptable plan, or fails to comply with the plan, the Director may issue a cease and desist order or, impose civil money penalties in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 4581 through 4585 and applicable provisions in part 1209 of this title, or take any other action that the Director determines to be appropriate, consistent with the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 106276, Dec. 30, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 59966, Dec. 23, 2025]














</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Duty to Serve Underserved Markets</HEAD>

<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 96294, Dec. 29, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1282.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.31   General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This subpart sets forth the Enterprise duty to serve three underserved markets as required by section 1335 of the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4565). This subpart also establishes standards and procedures for annually evaluating and rating Enterprise compliance with the duty to serve underserved markets.
</P>
<P>(b) Nothing in this subpart permits or requires an Enterprise to engage in any activity that would otherwise be inconsistent with its Charter Act or the Safety and Soundness Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.32   Underserved Markets Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Enterprise must submit to FHFA an Underserved Markets Plan describing the activities and objectives it will undertake to meet its duty to serve each of the three underserved markets. Plan activities and objectives may cover a single year or multiple years.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Term of Plan.</I> Each Enterprise's Plan must cover a period of three years.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective date of Plans.</I> Where an underserved market in a Plan receives a Non-Objection from FHFA by December 1 of the prior year, the effective date for that underserved market in the Plan will be January 1 of the first evaluation year for which the Plan is applicable. Where an underserved market in a Plan does not receive a Non-Objection from FHFA by December 1 of the prior year, the effective date for that underserved market in the Plan will be as determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Plan content.</I>—(1) <I>Consideration of minimum number of activities.</I> The Enterprises must consider and address in their Plans a minimum number of Statutory Activities or Regulatory Activities for each underserved market. The minimum number will be determined by FHFA and stated in the Evaluation Guidance as provided for in § 1282.36(d). An Enterprise will select the specific Statutory Activities or Regulatory Activities to address in its Plan under this requirement. For the activities selected by the Enterprise, the Enterprise must address in its Plan either how it will undertake the activities and related objectives, or the reasons why it will not undertake the activities. The statutory programs in § 1282.34(c)(5) and (c)(6) are excluded for this purpose.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional Activities.</I> An Enterprise may also include in its Plan Additional Activities eligible to serve an underserved market. For the Additional Activities included by the Enterprise, the Enterprise must address in its Plan how it will undertake the activities and related objectives.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Residential economic diversity activities.</I> If an Enterprises chooses to undertake a residential economic diversity activity for extra credit under § 1282.36(c)(3), the Enterprise must describe the activity and related objectives in its Plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Objectives.</I> Each Statutory Activity, Regulatory Activity, and Additional Activity in an Enterprise's Plan must comprise one or more objectives, which are the specific action items that the Enterprises will identify for each activity. Each objective must meet all of the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Strategic.</I> Directly or indirectly maintain or increase liquidity to an underserved market;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Measurable.</I> Provide measurable benchmarks, which may include numerical targets, that enable FHFA to determine whether the Enterprise has achieved the objective;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Realistic.</I> Be calibrated so that the Enterprise has a reasonable chance of meeting the objective with appropriate effort;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Time-bound.</I> Be subject to a specific timeframe for completion by being tied to Plan calendar year evaluation periods; and
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Tied to analysis of market opportunities.</I> Be based on assessments and analyses of market opportunities in each underserved market, taking into account safety and soundness considerations.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Evaluation areas.</I> Each Plan objective must meet at least one of the evaluation areas set forth in § 1282.36(b). An Enterprise must designate in its Plan the one evaluation area under which each Plan objective will be evaluated.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Plan procedures.</I>—(1) <I>Submission of proposed Plans.</I>—(i) <I>First proposed Plan.</I> An Enterprise's first proposed Plan must be submitted to FHFA within 90 days after FHFA posts the proposed Evaluation Guidance on FHFA's Web site pursuant to § 1282.36(d)(3).
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Subsequent proposed Plans.</I> For subsequent proposed Plans after the first Plan, FHFA will provide timelines 300 days before the termination date of the Plan in effect, or a later date if additional time is necessary, for proposed Plan submission, public input periods, and Non-Objection to an underserved market in a Plan. Unless otherwise directed by FHFA, each Enterprise must submit a proposed Plan to FHFA at least 210 days before the termination date of the Enterprise's Plan in effect.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Posting of proposed Plans.</I> As soon as practical after an Enterprise submits its proposed Plan to FHFA for review, FHFA will post the proposed Plan on FHFA's Web site, with any confidential and proprietary data and information omitted.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Public input.</I>—(i) For the first proposed Plans, the public will have 60 days from the date the proposed Plans are posted on FHFA's Web site to provide input on the proposed Plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprises' subsequent proposed Plans will be available for public input pursuant to the timeframe and procedures established by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Enterprise review.</I> Each Enterprise may, in its discretion, make revisions to its proposed Plan based on the public input.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>FHFA review.</I>—(i) <I>FHFA review of first proposed Plans.</I> FHFA will review each Enterprise's first proposed Plan and inform the Enterprise of any FHFA comments on the proposed Plan within 60 days from the end of the public input period on the proposed Plan, or such additional time as may be necessary. The Enterprise must address FHFA's comments, as appropriate, through revisions to its proposed Plan pursuant to the timeframe and procedures established by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>FHFA review of subsequent proposed Plans.</I> For subsequent proposed Plans after the first proposed Plans, FHFA will establish a timeframe and procedures for FHFA review, comments, and any required Enterprise revisions.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Designation of Statutory Activity or Regulatory Activity.</I> FHFA may, in its discretion, designate in the Evaluation Guidance one Statutory Activity or Regulatory Activity in each underserved market that FHFA will significantly consider in determining whether to provide a Non-Objection to that underserved market in a proposed Plan.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>FHFA Non-Objections to underserved markets in a proposed Plan.</I> After FHFA is satisfied that all of its comments on an underserved market in a proposed Plan have been addressed, FHFA will issue a Non-Objection for that underserved market in the Plan.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effective date of an underserved market in a Plan.</I> Where an underserved market in a Plan receives a Non-Objection from FHFA by December 1 of the prior year, the effective date for that underserved market in the Plan will be January 1 of the first evaluation year for which the Plan is applicable. Where an underserved market in a Plan does not receive a Non-Objection from FHFA by December 1 of the prior year, the effective date for that underserved market in the Plan will be as determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Posting of an underserved market section in a Plan.</I> As soon as practicable after FHFA issues a Non-Objection to an underserved market in a Plan, that section of the Plan will be posted on the Enterprise's and FHFA's respective Web sites, with any confidential and proprietary data and information omitted.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Modification of a Plan.</I> At any time after implementation of a Plan, an Enterprise may request to modify its Plan during the three-year term, subject to FHFA Non-Objection of the proposed modifications. FHFA may also require an Enterprise to modify its Plan during the three-year term. FHFA and the Enterprise may seek public input on proposed modifications to a Plan if FHFA determines that public input would assist its consideration of the proposed modifications. If a Plan is modified, the modified Plan, with any confidential and proprietary information and data omitted, will be posted on the Enterprise's and FHFA's respective Web sites.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.33" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.33   Manufactured housing market.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Duty in general.</I> Each Enterprise must develop loan products and flexible underwriting guidelines to facilitate a secondary market for eligible mortgages on manufactured homes for very low-, low-, and moderate-income families. Enterprise activities under this section must serve each such income group in the year for which the Enterprise is evaluated and rated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible activities.</I> Enterprise activities eligible to be included in an Underserved Markets Plan for the manufactured housing market are activities that facilitate a secondary market for mortgages on residential properties for very low-, low-, or moderate-income families consisting of manufactured homes titled as real property or personal property; and manufactured housing communities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulatory Activities.</I> Enterprise activities related to the following are eligible to receive duty to serve credit under the manufactured housing market:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Manufactured homes titled as real property.</I> Mortgages on manufactured homes titled as real property;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Chattel.</I> Loans on manufactured homes titled as personal property, including both pilot and ongoing initiatives;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Manufactured housing communities owned by a governmental entity, nonprofit organization, or residents.</I> Mortgages on manufactured housing communities that are owned by a governmental unit or instrumentality, a nonprofit organization, or residents; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Manufactured housing communities with certain pad lease protections.</I> Manufactured housing communities with pad leases that have the following pad lease protections at a minimum, or manufactured housing communities that are subject to state or local laws requiring pad lease protections that equal or exceed the following pad lease protections:
</P>
<P>(i) One-year renewable lease term unless there is good cause for nonrenewal;
</P>
<P>(ii) Thirty-day written notice of rent increases;
</P>
<P>(iii) Five-day grace period for rent payments and right to cure defaults on rent payments;
</P>
<P>(iv) Tenant has the right to sell the manufactured home without having to first relocate it out of the community;
</P>
<P>(v) Tenant has the right to sublease or assign the pad lease for the unexpired term to the new buyer of the tenant's manufactured home without any unreasonable restraint;
</P>
<P>(vi) Tenant has the right to post “For Sale” signs;
</P>
<P>(vii) Tenant has the right to sell the manufactured home in place within a reasonable time period after eviction by the manufactured housing community owner; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Tenant has the right to receive at least 60 days advance notice of a planned sale or closure of the manufactured housing community.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional Activities.</I> An Enterprise may include in its Plan other activities to serve very low-, low-, or moderate-income families in the manufactured housing market consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, subject to FHFA determination of whether the Additional Activity is eligible to receive duty to serve credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.34" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.34   Affordable housing preservation market.</HEAD>
<P/>
<P>(a) <I>Duty in general.</I> Each Enterprise must develop loan products and flexible underwriting guidelines to facilitate a secondary market to preserve housing affordable to very low-, low-, and moderate-income families under eligible housing programs or activities. Enterprise activities under this section must serve each such income group in the year for which the Enterprise is evaluated and rated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible activities.</I> Enterprise activities eligible to be included in an Underserved Markets Plan for the affordable housing preservation market are activities that facilitate a secondary market for mortgages on residential properties for very low-, low-, or moderate-income families consisting of affordable rental housing preservation and affordable homeownership preservation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Statutory Activities.</I> Enterprise activities related to housing projects under the following programs in the Safety and Soundness Act (12 U.S.C. 4565(a)(1)(B)) are eligible to receive duty to serve credit under the affordable housing preservation market:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Section 8.</I> The project-based and tenant-based rental assistance housing programs under section 8 of the U.S. Housing Act of 1937, 42 U.S.C. 1437f;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Section 236.</I> The rental and cooperative housing program for lower income families under section 236 of the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1715z-1;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Section 221(d)(4).</I> The housing program for moderate-income and displaced families under section 221(d)(4) of the National Housing Act, 12 U.S.C. 1715l;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Section 202.</I> The supportive housing program for the elderly under section 202 of the Housing Act of 1959, 12 U.S.C. 1701q;
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Section 811.</I> The supportive housing program for persons with disabilities under section 811 of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, 42 U.S.C. 8013;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance.</I> Permanent supportive housing projects subsidized under Title IV of the McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act, 42 U.S.C. 11361, <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Section 515.</I> The rural rental housing program under section 515 of the Housing Act of 1949, 42 U.S.C. 1485;
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Low-income housing tax credits.</I> Low-income housing tax credits under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 26 U.S.C. 42; and
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Other comparable state or local affordable housing programs.</I> Other comparable affordable housing programs administered by a state or local government that preserve housing affordable to very low-, low-, and moderate-income families. An Enterprise may include in its Plan statutory programs pursuant to this paragraph (c)(9), subject to FHFA determination that the program is comparable to one of the statutory programs in this paragraph (c) in the way it provides subsidy and preserves affordable housing for the income-eligible households.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Regulatory Activities.</I> Enterprise activities related to the following are eligible to receive duty to serve credit under the affordable housing preservation market:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Financing of small multifamily rental properties.</I> Financing of small multifamily rental properties by a community development financial institution, insured depository institution, or federally insured credit union, where the entity's total assets are $10 billion or less;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Energy or water efficiency improvements on multifamily rental properties.</I> Energy or water efficiency improvements on multifamily rental properties provided there are projections made based on credible and generally accepted standards that the improvements financed by the loan will reduce energy or water consumption by the tenant or the property by at least 15 percent, and the energy or water savings generated over an improvement's expected life will exceed the cost of installation;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Energy or water efficiency improvements on single-family, first lien properties.</I> Energy or water efficiency improvements on single-family, first-lien properties, provided there are projections made based on credible and generally accepted standards that the improvements financed by the loan will reduce energy or water consumption by the homeowner, the tenant, or the property by at least 15 percent, and the utility savings generated over an improvement's expected life will exceed the cost of installation;
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Shared equity programs for affordable homeownership preservation.</I>—(i) Affordable homeownership preservation through one of the following shared equity homeownership programs:
</P>
<P>(A) Resale restriction programs administered by community land trusts, other nonprofit organizations, or state or local governments or instrumentalities; or
</P>
<P>(B) Shared appreciation loan programs administered by community land trusts, other nonprofit organizations, or state or local governments or instrumentalities that may or may not partner with a for-profit institution to invest in, originate, sell, or service shared appreciation loans.
</P>
<P>(ii) A program in paragraph (d)(4)(i) must:
</P>
<P>(A) Provide homeownership opportunities to very low-, low-, or moderate-income households;
</P>
<P>(B) Utilize a ground lease, deed restriction, subordinate loan, or similar legal mechanism that includes provisions stating that the program will keep the home affordable for subsequent very low-, low-, or moderate-income families, the affordability term is at least 30 years after recordation, a resale formula applies that limits the homeowner's proceeds upon resale, and the program administrator or its assignee has a preemptive option to purchase the homeownership unit from the homeowner at resale; and
</P>
<P>(C) Support homebuyers and homeowners to promote sustainable homeownership, including reviewing and pre-approving refinances and home equity lines of credit.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>HUD Choice Neighborhoods Initiative.</I> The HUD Choice Neighborhoods Initiative, as authorized by 42 U.S.C. 1437v;
</P>
<P>(6) <I>HUD Rental Assistance Demonstration program.</I> The HUD Rental Assistance Demonstration program, as authorized by 42 U.S.C.1437f note; and
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Purchase or rehabilitation of certain distressed properties.</I> Lending programs for the purchase or rehabilitation by very low-, low-, or moderate-income families, or by nonprofit organizations or local or tribal governments serving such families, of homes eligible for short sale, homes eligible for foreclosure sale, or properties that a lender acquires as a result of foreclosure.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Additional Activities.</I> An Enterprise may include in its Plan other activities to serve very low-, low-, or moderate-income families in the affordable housing preservation market consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, subject to FHFA determination of whether the activities are eligible to receive duty to serve credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.35" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.35   Rural markets.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Duty in general.</I> Each Enterprise must develop loan products and flexible underwriting guidelines to facilitate a secondary market for eligible mortgages on housing for very low-, low-, and moderate-income families in rural areas. Enterprise activities under this section must serve each such income group in the year for which the Enterprise is evaluated and rated.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible activities.</I> Enterprise activities eligible to be included in an Underserved Markets Plan for the rural market are activities that facilitate a secondary market for mortgages on residential properties for very low-,low-, or moderate-income families in rural areas.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Regulatory Activities.</I> Enterprise activities related to the following are eligible to receive duty to serve credit under the rural market:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>High-needs rural regions.</I> Housing in high-needs rural regions;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>High-needs rural populations.</I> Housing for high-needs rural populations;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Financing by small financial institutions of rural housing.</I> Financing by a small financial institution of housing in a rural area; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Small multifamily rental properties in rural areas.</I> Small multifamily rental properties that are located in a rural area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Additional Activities.</I> An Enterprise may include in its Plan other activities to serve very low-, low-, or moderate-income families in rural areas consistent with paragraph (b) of this section, subject to FHFA determination of whether the activities are eligible to receive duty to serve credit.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.36" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.36   Evaluations, ratings, and Evaluation Guidance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Evaluation of compliance.</I> In determining whether an Enterprise has complied with the duty to serve each underserved market, FHFA will annually evaluate and rate the Enterprise's duty to serve performance based on the Enterprise's implementation of its Underserved Markets Plan during the relevant evaluation year. FHFA's evaluation will be in accordance with separate, FHFA-prepared Evaluation Guidance as provided for in paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Evaluation areas.</I> As provided in § 1282.32(f), an Enterprise must specify in its Plan the evaluation area under which each Plan objective will be evaluated. FHFA will evaluate an Enterprise's performance of each of its Plan objectives under one of the following four evaluation areas, as designated by the Enterprise in its Plan:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Outreach.</I> The extent of the Enterprise's outreach to qualified loan sellers and other market participants in each underserved market;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Loan product.</I> The Enterprise's development of loan products, more flexible underwriting guidelines, and other innovative approaches to providing financing in each underserved market;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan purchase.</I> The volume of loan purchases by the Enterprise in each underserved market relative to the market opportunities available to the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Investments and grants.</I> The amount of the Enterprise's investments and grants in projects that assist in meeting the needs of each underserved market.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evaluation process.</I> At the end of each evaluation year, FHFA will evaluate each Enterprise's performance under its Plan based on quantitative and qualitative assessments of the Enterprise's accomplishment of the objectives for the activities under each underserved market in its Plan. Following the quantitative and qualitative assessments, FHFA may provide extra credit for extra credit-eligible residential economic diversity activities in an underserved market in a Plan, and for other extra credit-eligible activities in an underserved market in a Plan as may be designated by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Quantitative assessment.</I> FHFA will conduct a quantitative assessment which will evaluate the level of an Enterprise's accomplishment of each objective for each activity in an underserved market in its Plan, based on the level of accomplishment needed for the objectives in order to receive a passing rating for compliance with the Duty to Serve an underserved market in a Plan, as established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance. At the conclusion of the quantitative assessment for an underserved market in a Plan, FHFA will determine whether an Enterprise has passed or failed the required level of accomplishment.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Qualitative assessment.</I> FHFA will conduct a qualitative assessment which will evaluate the Enterprise's accomplishment of each objective for each activity in an underserved market in its Plan, based on the method and criteria established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance, such as how skillfully an objective was implemented, the impact of the objective, and such other criteria as FHFA may set forth in the Evaluation Guidance.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Extra credit-eligible activities.</I> FHFA may provide extra credit for extra credit-eligible residential economic diversity activities included in an underserved market in a Plan, and for other extra credit-eligible activities included in an underserved market in a Plan, where such other activities are designated by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance. FHFA will conduct its assessment of an Enterprise's accomplishment of activities that are eligible for extra credit based on the method and criteria established by FHFA in the Evaluation Guidance, such as how skillfully an objective was implemented, the impact of the objective, and such other criteria as FHFA may set forth in the Evaluation Guidance.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Ratings.</I>—(i) <I>Assignment of ratings.</I> Based on the quantitative, qualitative and extra credit assessments, FHFA will assign a rating of Exceeds, High Satisfactory, Low Satisfactory, Minimally Passing, or Fails to the Enterprise's performance for each underserved market in its Plan. A rating of Exceeds, High Satisfactory, Low Satisfactory, or Minimally Passing will constitute compliance by the Enterprise with the duty to serve that underserved market. A rating of Fails will constitute noncompliance by the Enterprise with the duty to serve that underserved market.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Ongoing Assessment of Evaluation and Rating Process.</I> FHFA will make such determinations as appropriate based on evaluation of the program's parameters and operation, pursuant to the Evaluation Guidance, regarding implementation of the evaluation and rating process.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Evaluation Guidance.</I>—(1) <I>Three-year term.</I> FHFA will prepare Evaluation Guidance for use by both Enterprises for a three-year term.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents.</I> The Evaluation Guidance will include the information required under this subpart, as well as additional guidance on Enterprise Plans, how the quantitative and qualitative assessments will be conducted, the role of extra credit, how final ratings will be determined, and other matters as may be appropriate.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Timelines for Evaluation Guidance.</I>—(i) <I>For the first Plan.</I>—(A) FHFA will provide to the Enterprises the proposed Evaluation Guidance for the first Plan within 30 days after the posting of this subpart on FHFA's Web site. FHFA will post the proposed Evaluation Guidance on FHFA's Web site as soon as practicable after providing it to the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(B) The proposed Evaluation Guidance will be available for public input for a period of 120 days following its posting on FHFA's Web site.
</P>
<P>(C) FHFA will provide the Evaluation Guidance to the Enterprises no later than the time FHFA provides comments to the Enterprises on their proposed Plans.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>For subsequent Plans.</I> FHFA will provide timelines for the Evaluation Guidance for subsequent Plans after the first Plan, including public input periods, 300 days before the termination date of the Plan in effect, or a later date if additional time is necessary.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Posting of Evaluation Guidance.</I> The final Evaluation Guidance will be posted on the Enterprises' and FHFA's respective Web sites as soon as practicable after the Evaluation Guidance is finalized.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Modification of Evaluation Guidance.</I> From time to time, FHFA may modify the Evaluation Guidance prior to or during the Evaluation Guidance's three-year term. FHFA may seek public input on proposed modifications to the Evaluation Guidance if FHFA determines that public input would assist its consideration of the proposed modifications. Modified Evaluation Guidance will be effective on January 1 of the year after the modified Evaluation Guidance is posted. FHFA will post the modified Evaluation Guidance on FHFA's Web site as soon as practicable after modified.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.37" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.37   General requirements for credit.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> FHFA will determine whether an activity included in an Enterprise's Underserved Markets Plan will receive duty to serve credit or extra credit under an underserved market in the Plan. In this determination, FHFA will consider whether the activity facilitates a secondary market for financing mortgages: On manufactured homes for very low-, low-, and moderate-income families; to preserve housing affordable to very low-, low-, and moderate-income families; and on housing for very low-, low-, and moderate-income families in rural areas. If FHFA determines that an activity will receive duty to serve credit or extra credit under an underserved market in the Plan, the activity will receive such credit under the relevant evaluation area for each underserved market it serves.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>No credit under any evaluation area.</I> Enterprise activities related to the following are not eligible to receive duty to serve credit under any evaluation area under an underserved market, even if the activity otherwise would receive credit under any other section of this subpart, except as provided in this section:
</P>
<P>(1) Contributions to the Housing Trust Fund (12 U.S.C. 4568) and the Capital Magnet Fund (12 U.S.C. 4569), and mortgage purchases funded with such grant amounts;
</P>
<P>(2) HOEPA mortgages;
</P>
<P>(3) Subordinate liens on multifamily properties, except for subordinate liens originated for energy or water efficiency improvements on multifamily rental properties that meet the requirements in § 1282.34(d)(2);
</P>
<P>(4) Subordinate liens on single-family properties, except for shared appreciation loans that satisfy all of the requirements in § 1282.34(d)(4) of this part;
</P>
<P>(5) Low-Income Housing Tax Credit equity investments in a property, except where the property is located in a rural area;
</P>
<P>(6) Permanent construction take-out loans and Additional Activities under the affordable housing preservation market, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any combination of factors in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit for certain permanent construction take-out loans and Additional Activities under the affordable housing preservation market.</I> Enterprise activities related to permanent construction take-out loans and Additional Activities under the affordable housing preservation market are eligible for duty to serve credit, provided the following requirements are met, as applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Permanent construction take-out loans.</I>—(i) The permanent construction take-out loans preserve existing subsidies on affordable housing with regulatory periods of required affordability that are at least as restrictive as the longest affordability restriction applicable to the subsidy or subsidies being preserved; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The permanent construction take-out loans are for housing developed under state or local inclusionary zoning, real estate tax abatement, or loan programs, where the property owner has agreed to restrict a portion of the units for occupancy by very low-, low-, or moderate-income families, and to restrict the rents that can be charged for those units at affordable rents to those populations, or where the property is developed for a shared equity program that meets the requirements under § 1282.34(d)(4), and where there is a regulatory agreement, recorded use restriction, or deed restriction in place that maintains affordability for the term defined by the state or local program.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional Activities.</I> Additional Activities that either:
</P>
<P>(i) Involve preserving existing subsidy where the term of affordability required for the subsidy is followed, or where there is a deed restriction for affordability for the life of the loan; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Involve preserving the affordability of properties in conjunction with state or local inclusionary zoning, real estate tax abatement, or loan programs, where a regulatory agreement, recorded use restriction, or deed restriction maintains affordability of a portion of the property's units for the term defined by the state or local program.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No credit under loan purchase evaluation area.</I> The following activities are not eligible to receive duty to serve credit under the loan purchase evaluation area, even if the activity otherwise would receive duty to serve credit under § 1282.38:
</P>
<P>(1) Purchases of mortgages to the extent they finance any dwelling units that are secondary residences;
</P>
<P>(2) Single-family refinancing mortgages that result from conversion of balloon notes to fully amortizing notes, if the Enterprise already owns or has an interest in the balloon note at the time conversion occurs;
</P>
<P>(3) Purchases of mortgages or interests in mortgages that previously received credit under any underserved market within the five years immediately preceding the current performance year;
</P>
<P>(4) Purchases of mortgages where the property or any units within the property have not been approved for occupancy;
</P>
<P>(5) Any interests in mortgages that FHFA determines will not be treated as interests in mortgages;
</P>
<P>(6) Purchases of state and local government housing bonds except as provided in § 1282.39(h); and
</P>
<P>(7) Any combination of factors in paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(6) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>FHFA review of activities or objectives.</I> FHFA may determine whether and how any activity or objective will receive duty to serve credit under an underserved market in a Plan, including treatment of missing data. FHFA will notify each Enterprise in writing of any determination regarding the treatment of any activity or objective. FHFA will make any such determinations available to the public on FHFA's Web site.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>The year in which an activity or objective will receive credit.</I> An activity or objective that FHFA determines will receive duty to serve credit under an underserved market in a Plan will receive such credit in the year in which the activity or objective is completed. FHFA may determine that credit is appropriate for an activity or objective in which an Enterprise engages, but does not complete, in a particular year, except that activities or objectives under the loan purchase evaluation area will receive credit in the year in which the Enterprise purchased the mortgage.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Credit under one evaluation area.</I> An activity or objective will receive duty to serve credit under only one evaluation area in a particular underserved market.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Credit under multiple underserved markets.</I> An activity or objective, including financing of dwelling units by an Enterprise's mortgage purchase, will receive duty to serve credit under each underserved market for which the activity or objective qualifies in that year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.38" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.38   General requirements for loan purchases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> This section applies to Enterprise mortgage purchases that may receive duty to serve credit under the loan purchase evaluation area for a particular underserved market in a Plan. Only dwelling units securing a mortgage purchased by the Enterprise in that year and not specifically excluded under § 1282.37(b) and (d) may receive credit.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Counting dwelling units.</I> Performance under the loan purchase evaluation area will be measured by counting dwelling units affordable to very low-, low-, and moderate-income families.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Credit for owner-occupied units.</I>—(1) Mortgage purchases financing owner-occupied single-family properties will be evaluated based on the income of the mortgagor(s) and the area median income at the time the mortgage was originated. To determine whether mortgages may receive duty to serve credit under a particular family income level, <I>i.e.,</I> very low-, low-, or moderate-income, the income of the mortgagor(s) is compared to the median income for the area at the time the mortgage was originated, using the appropriate percentage factor provided under § 1282.17.
</P>
<P>(2) Mortgage purchases financing owner-occupied single-family properties for which the income of the mortgagor(s) is not available will not receive duty to serve credit under the loan purchase evaluation area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Credit for rental units.</I>—(1) <I>Use of rent.</I> For Enterprise mortgage purchases financing single-family rental units and multifamily rental units, affordability is determined based on rent and whether the rent is affordable to the income groups targeted by the duty to serve. A rent is affordable if the rent does not exceed the maximum levels as provided in § 1282.19.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Affordability of rents based on housing program requirements.</I> Where a multifamily property is subject to an affordability restriction under a housing program that establishes the maximum permitted income level for a tenant or a prospective tenant or the maximum permitted rent, the affordability of units in the property may be determined based on the maximum permitted income level or maximum permitted rent established under such housing program for those units. If using income, the maximum income level must be no greater than the maximum income level for each income group targeted by the duty to serve, adjusted for family or unit size as provided in § 1282.17 or § 1282.18, as appropriate. If using rent, the maximum rent level must be no greater than the maximum rent level for each income group targeted by the duty to serve, adjusted for unit size as provided in § 1282.19.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Unoccupied units.</I> Anticipated rent for unoccupied units may be the market rent for similar units in the neighborhood as determined by the lender or appraiser for underwriting purposes. A unit in a multifamily property that is unoccupied because it is being used as a model unit or rental office may receive duty to serve credit only if the Enterprise determines that the number of such units is reasonable and minimal considering the size of the multifamily property.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timeliness of information.</I> In evaluating affordability for single-family rental properties, an Enterprise must use tenant income and area median income available at the time the mortgage was originated. For multifamily rental properties, the Enterprise must use tenant income and area median income available at the time the mortgage was acquired.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Missing data or information for rental units.</I>—(1) When calculating unit affordability, rental units for which bedroom data are missing will be considered efficiencies.
</P>
<P>(2) When an Enterprise lacks sufficient information to determine whether a rental unit in a single-family or multifamily property securing a mortgage purchased by the Enterprise receives duty to serve credit under the loan purchase evaluation area because rental data are not available, the Enterprise's performance with respect to such unit may be evaluated using estimated affordability information, except that an Enterprise may not estimate affordability of rental units for purposes of receiving extra credit for residential economic diversity activities. The estimated affordability information is calculated by multiplying the number of rental units with missing affordability information in properties securing the mortgages purchased by the Enterprise in each census tract by the percentage of all moderate-income rental dwelling units in the respective tracts, as determined by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Affordability of manufactured housing communities.</I> For an Enterprise purchase of a blanket loan on a manufactured housing community, unless otherwise determined by FHFA, the affordability of the homes in the community shall be determined using one of the methodologies in paragraphs (f)(1) or (f)(2) of this section, as applicable, except that for purposes of determining extra credit for residential economic diversity activities or objectives, the methodology in paragraph (f)(2) of this section may not be used.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Methodology for government-, nonprofit- or resident-owned manufactured housing communities.</I> For a manufactured housing community owned by a government unit or instrumentality, a nonprofit organization, or the residents, if laws or regulations governing the affordability of the community, or the community's or ownership entity's founding, chartering, governing, or financing documents, require that a certain number or percentage of the community's homes be affordable consistent with paragraph (d)(1) of this section, then any homes subject to such affordability restriction are treated as affordable.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Census tract methodology for any type of manufactured housing community.</I> For any type of manufactured housing community, except for purposes of determining extra credit for residential economic diversity activities or objectives, the affordability of the homes in the community is determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) If the median income of the census tract in which the manufactured housing community is located is less than or equal to the area median income, then all homes in the community are treated as affordable;
</P>
<P>(ii) If the median income of the census tract in which the manufactured housing community is located exceeds the area median income, then the number of homes that are treated as affordable is determined by dividing the area median income by the median income of the census tract in which the community is located and multiplying the resulting ratio by the total number of homes in the community.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Application of median income.</I>—(1) To determine an area's median income under §§ 1282.17 through 1282.19 and the definitions in § 1282.1, the area is:
</P>
<P>(i) The metropolitan area, if the property which is the subject of the mortgage is in a metropolitan area; and
</P>
<P>(ii) In all other areas, the county in which the property is located, except that where the State non-metropolitan median income is higher than the county's median income, the area is the State non-metropolitan area.
</P>
<P>(2) When an Enterprise cannot precisely determine whether a mortgage is on dwelling unit(s) located in one area, the Enterprise must determine the median income for the split area in the manner prescribed by the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council for reporting under the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (12 U.S.C. 2801 <I>et seq.</I>), if the Enterprise can determine that the mortgage is on dwelling unit(s) located in:
</P>
<P>(i) A census tract; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A census place code.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Newly available data.</I> When an Enterprise uses data to determine whether a dwelling unit may receive duty to serve credit under the loan purchase evaluation area and new data is released after the start of a calendar quarter, the Enterprise need not use the new data until the start of the following quarter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.39" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.39   Special requirements for loan purchases.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Subject to FHFA's determination of whether an activity or objective will receive duty to serve credit under a particular underserved market, the activities or objectives identified in this section will be treated as mortgage purchases as described and receive credit under the loan purchase evaluation area. An activity or objective that is covered by more than one paragraph below must satisfy the requirements of each such paragraph.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Credit enhancements.</I>—(1) Dwelling units financed under a credit enhancement entered into by an Enterprise will be treated as mortgage purchases only when:
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise provides a specific contractual obligation to ensure timely payment of amounts due under a mortgage or mortgages financed by the issuance of housing bonds (such bonds may be issued by any entity, including a State or local housing finance agency); and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise assumes a credit risk in the transaction substantially equivalent to the risk that would have been assumed by the Enterprise if it had securitized the mortgages financed by such bonds.
</P>
<P>(2) When an Enterprise provides a specific contractual obligation to ensure timely payment of amounts due under any mortgage originally insured by a public purpose mortgage insurance entity or fund, the Enterprise may, on a case-by-case basis, seek approval from the Director for such transactions to receive credit under the loan purchase evaluation area for a particular underserved market.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Risk-sharing.</I> Mortgages purchased under risk-sharing arrangements between an Enterprise and any federal agency under which the Enterprise is responsible for a substantial amount of the risk will be treated as mortgage purchases.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Participations.</I> Participations purchased by an Enterprise will be treated as mortgage purchases only when the Enterprise's participation in the mortgage is 50 percent or more.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Cooperative housing and condominiums.</I>—(1) The purchase of a mortgage on a cooperative housing unit (“a share loan”) or a mortgage on a condominium unit will be treated as a mortgage purchase. Such a purchase will receive duty to serve credit in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of single-family owner-occupied units, <I>i.e.,</I> affordability is based on the income of the mortgagor(s).
</P>
<P>(2) The purchase of a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building or a mortgage on a condominium project will be treated as a mortgage purchase. The purchase of a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building will receive duty to serve credit in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of a multifamily rental property, except that affordability must be determined based solely on the comparable market rents used in underwriting the blanket loan. If the underwriting rents are not available, the loan will not be treated as a mortgage purchase. The purchase of a mortgage on a condominium project will receive duty to serve credit in the same manner as a mortgage purchase of a multifamily rental property.
</P>
<P>(3) Where an Enterprise purchases both a blanket mortgage on a cooperative building and share loans for units in the same building, both the mortgage on the cooperative building and the share loans will be treated as mortgage purchases. Where an Enterprise purchases both a mortgage on a condominium project and mortgages on individual dwelling units in the same project, both the mortgage on the condominium project and the mortgages on individual dwelling units will be treated as mortgage purchases.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Seasoned mortgages.</I> An Enterprise's purchase of a seasoned mortgage will be treated as a mortgage purchase.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Purchase of refinancing mortgages.</I> The purchase of a refinancing mortgage by an Enterprise will be treated as a mortgage purchase only if the refinancing is an arms-length transaction that is borrower-driven.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Mortgage revenue bonds.</I> The purchase or guarantee by an Enterprise of a mortgage revenue bond issued by a state or local housing finance agency will be treated as a purchase of the underlying mortgages only to the extent the Enterprise has sufficient information to determine whether the underlying mortgages or mortgage-backed securities serve the income groups targeted by the duty to serve.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Seller dissolution option.</I>—(1) Mortgages acquired through transactions involving seller dissolution options will be treated as mortgage purchases only when:
</P>
<P>(i) The terms of the transaction provide for a lockout period that prohibits the exercise of the dissolution option for at least one year from the date on which the transaction was entered into by the Enterprise and the seller of the mortgages; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The transaction is not dissolved during the one-year minimum lockout period.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may grant an exception to the one-year minimum lockout period described in paragraphs (i)(1)(i) and (i)(1)(ii) of this section, in response to a written request from an Enterprise, if FHFA determines that the transaction furthers the purposes of the Enterprise's Charter Act and the Safety and Soundness Act.
</P>
<P>(3) For purposes of paragraph (i) of this section, “seller dissolution option” means an option for a seller of mortgages to the Enterprises to dissolve or otherwise cancel a mortgage purchase agreement or loan sale.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.40" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.40   Failure to comply.</HEAD>
<P>If the Director determines that an Enterprise has not complied with, or there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will not comply with, the duty to serve a particular underserved market in a given year and the Director determines that such compliance is or was feasible, the Director will follow the procedures in 12 U.S.C. 4566(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.41" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.41   Housing plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If the Director determines that an Enterprise did not comply with, or there is a substantial probability that an Enterprise will not comply with, the duty to serve a particular underserved market in a given year, the Director may require the Enterprise to submit a housing plan for approval by the Director.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nature of housing plan.</I> If the Director requires a housing plan, the housing plan must:
</P>
<P>(1) Be feasible;
</P>
<P>(2) Be sufficiently specific to enable the Director to monitor compliance periodically;
</P>
<P>(3) Describe the specific actions that the Enterprise will take:
</P>
<P>(i) To comply with the duty to serve a particular underserved market for the next calendar year; or
</P>
<P>(ii) To make such improvements and changes in its operations as are reasonable in the remainder of the year, if the Director determines that there is a substantial probability that the Enterprise will fail to comply with the duty to serve a particular underserved market in such year; and
</P>
<P>(4) Address any additional matters relevant to the housing plan as required, in writing, by the Director.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Deadline for submission.</I> The Enterprise must submit the housing plan to the Director within 45 days after issuance of a notice requiring the Enterprise to submit a housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline for submission of a housing plan, in writing and for a time certain, to the extent the Director determines an extension is necessary.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Review of housing plans.</I> The Director will review and approve or disapprove housing plans in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 4566(c)(4) and (c)(5).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resubmission.</I> If the Director disapproves an initial housing plan submitted by an Enterprise, the Enterprise must submit an amended housing plan acceptable to the Director not later than 15 days after the Director's disapproval of the initial housing plan. The Director may extend the deadline if the Director determines that an extension is in the public interest. If the amended housing plan is not acceptable to the Director, the Director may afford the Enterprise 15 days to submit a new housing plan.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Reporting Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.61" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.61   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart establishes data submission and reporting requirements to carry out the requirements of the Enterprises' Charter Acts and the Safety and Soundness Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.62" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.62   Mortgage reports.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Loan-level data elements.</I> To implement the data collection and submission requirements for mortgage data, and to assist the Director in monitoring the Enterprises' housing goal activities, each Enterprise shall collect and compile computerized loan-level data on each mortgage purchased in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 1456(e) and 1723a(m). The Director may, from time to time, issue a list entitled “Required Loan-level Data Elements” specifying the loan-level data elements to be collected and maintained by the Enterprises and provided to the Director. The Director may revise the list by written notice to the Enterprises.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Quarterly Mortgage Reports.</I> Each Enterprise shall submit to the Director a quarterly Mortgage Report. The fourth quarter Mortgage Report shall serve as the Annual Mortgage Report and shall be designated as such. Each Mortgage Report shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) Aggregations of the loan-level mortgage data compiled by the Enterprise under paragraph (a) of this section for year-to-date mortgage purchases, in the format specified in writing by the Director;
</P>
<P>(2) Year-to-date dollar volume, number of units, and number of mortgages on owner-occupied and rental properties purchased by the Enterprise that do, and do not, qualify under each housing goal as set forth in this part; and
</P>
<P>(3) Year-to-date computerized loan-level data consisting of the data elements required under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of Reports.</I> The Enterprises shall submit the Mortgage Report for each of the first 3 quarters of each year within 60 days of the end of the quarter. Each Enterprise shall submit its Annual Mortgage Report within 75 days after the end of the calendar year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Revisions to Reports.</I> At any time before submission of its Annual Mortgage Report, an Enterprise may revise any of its quarterly reports for that year.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Format.</I> The Enterprises shall submit to the Director computerized loan-level data with the Mortgage Report, in the format specified in writing by the Director.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.63" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.63   Annual Housing Activities Report.</HEAD>
<P>To comply with the requirements in sections 309(n) of the Fannie Mae Charter Act and 307(f) of the Freddie Mac Act and assist the Director in preparing the Director's Annual Report to Congress, each Enterprise shall submit to the Director an AHAR including the information listed in those sections of the Charter Acts. Each Enterprise shall submit such report within 75 days after the end of each calendar year, to the Director, the Committee on Financial Services of the House of Representatives, and the Committee on Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs of the Senate. Each Enterprise shall make its AHAR available to the public online and at its principal and regional offices. Before making any such report available to the public, the Enterprise may exclude from the report any information that the Director has deemed proprietary.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.64" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.64   Periodic reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each Enterprise shall provide to the Director such reports, information and data as the Director may request from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.65" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.65   Enterprise data integrity.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Certification.</I> (1) The senior officer of each Enterprise who is responsible for submitting the fourth quarter Annual Mortgage Report and the AHAR under sections 309(m) and (n) of the Fannie Mae Charter Act or sections 307(e) and (f) of the Freddie Mac Act, as applicable, or for submitting any other report(s), data or information for which certification is requested in writing by the Director, shall certify such report(s), data or information.
</P>
<P>(2) The certification shall state as follows: “To the best of my knowledge and belief, the information provided herein is true, correct and complete.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Adjustment to correct errors, omissions or discrepancies in AHAR data.</I> FHFA shall determine the official housing goal performance figure for each Enterprise under the housing goals on an annual basis. FHFA may resolve any error, omission or discrepancy by adjusting the Enterprise's official housing goal performance figure. If the Director determines that the year-end data reported by an Enterprise for a year preceding the latest year for which data on housing goals performance was reported to FHFA contained a material error, omission or discrepancy, the Director may increase the corresponding housing goal for the current year by the number of mortgages (or dwelling units) that the Director determines were overstated in the prior year's goal performance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1282.66" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.59.4.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1282.66   Enterprise reports on duty to serve.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>First and third quarter reports.</I> Each Enterprise must submit to FHFA a first and third quarter report on its activities and objectives under each underserved market in its Underserved Markets Plan for the loan purchase evaluation area. The report must include detailed year-to-date information on the Enterprise's progress towards meeting the activities and objectives in its Plan. The Enterprise must submit the first and third quarter reports to FHFA within 60 days of the end of the respective quarter.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Second quarter report.</I> Each Enterprise must submit to FHFA a second quarter report on all of the activities and objectives under each underserved market in its Underserved Markets Plan. The report must include detailed year-to-date information on the Enterprise's progress towards meeting the activities and objectives under each underserved market in its Plan, and contain narrative and summary statistical information for the Plan objectives, supported by appropriate transaction level detail. The Enterprise must submit the second quarter report to FHFA within 60 days of the end of the second quarter.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Annual report.</I> To comply with the requirements in sections 309(n) of the Fannie Mae Charter Act and 307(f) of the Freddie Mac Act and for purposes of FHFA's Annual Housing Report to Congress, each Enterprise must submit to FHFA an annual report on all of the activities and objectives under each underserved market in its Underserved Markets Plan no later than 75 days after the end of each calendar year. For each underserved market, the Enterprise's annual report must include, at a minimum: A description of the Enterprise's market opportunities for loan purchases during the evaluation year to the extent data is available; the volume of qualifying loans purchased by the Enterprise during the evaluation year; a comparison of the Enterprise's loan purchases with its loan purchases in prior years; a comparison of market opportunities with the size of the relevant markets in the past, to the extent data is available; and narrative and summary statistical information for the Plan objectives, supported by appropriate transaction level data.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public disclosure of information from reports.</I> FHFA will make public certain information from the first, second, and third quarter reports at a reasonable time after the end of the calendar year for which they apply, with any confidential and proprietary information and data omitted. FHFA will make public certain information from the annual reports at a reasonable time after receiving them from the Enterprises, with any confidential and proprietary information and data omitted. In the third year of the Underserved Markets Plans, FHFA will make public certain narrative information from the year's second quarter report, excluding data under the loan purchase evaluation area and any confidential and proprietary information and data, at a reasonable time after receiving it within the calendar year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[81 FR 96300, Dec. 29, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1290" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1290—COMMUNITY SUPPORT REQUIREMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430(g).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 30342, May 28, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1290.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Advisory Council</I> means the Advisory Council each Bank is required to establish pursuant to section 10(j)(11) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)) and part 1291 of this chapter.
</P>
<P><I>CDFI Fund</I> means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund established under section 104(a) of the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4703(a)).
</P>
<P><I>Community development financial institution or CDFI</I> means an institution that is certified as a community development financial institution by the CDFI Fund under the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>CRA</I> means the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977, as amended (12 U.S.C. 2901, <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>CRA evaluation</I> means the public disclosure portion of the CRA performance evaluation provided by a member's appropriate Federal banking agency.
</P>
<P><I>Displaced homemaker</I> means an adult who has not worked full-time, full-year in the labor force for a number of years, and during that period, worked primarily without remuneration to care for a home and family, and currently is unemployed or underemployed and is experiencing difficulty in obtaining or upgrading employment.
</P>
<P><I>First-time homebuyer</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) An individual and his or her spouse, if any, who has had no present ownership interest in a principal residence during the three-year period prior to purchase of a principal residence.
</P>
<P>(2) A displaced homemaker who, except for owning a residence with his or her spouse or residing in a residence owned by his or her spouse, meets the requirements of paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(3) A single parent who, except for owning a residence with his or her spouse or residing in a residence owned by his or her spouse, meets the requirements of paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P><I>Long-term advance</I> means an advance with a term to maturity greater than one year.
</P>
<P><I>Restriction on access to long-term advances</I> means a member may not borrow long-term advances or renew any maturing advance for a term to maturity greater than one year.
</P>
<P><I>Single parent</I> means an individual who is unmarried or legally separated from a spouse and has custody or joint custody of one or more minor children or is pregnant.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted community lending</I> means providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30342, May 28, 2015, as amended at 81 FR 76300, Nov. 2, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.2   Community support requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank notice to members.</I> By a date designated by FHFA notice pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, each Bank must provide written notice to each of its members subject to community support review that each such member must submit to FHFA a completed Community Support Statement in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. Unless instructed otherwise by FHFA, the Bank must provide to each member a blank Community Support Statement Form upon request by the member. FHFA will provide a copy of this blank form to the Bank. Upon a member's request, the Bank must provide assistance to the member in completing the Community Support Statement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Community Support Statement submission requirements.</I> Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section, in each odd-numbered year, each member must submit to FHFA a completed Community Support Statement (and any other related information FHFA may require) in accordance with the submission dates designated by FHFA notice pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section. The member's completed Community Support Statement must be executed by an appropriate senior officer of the member and must be submitted to FHFA pursuant to FHFA's submission instructions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Notice to public.</I>—(1) <I>By the Banks.</I> By a date designated by FHFA notice pursuant to paragraph (f) of this section, each Bank must provide written notice to its Advisory Council, and to interested nonprofit housing developers, community groups, and other interested parties in its district, and include a notice on its public website, of the opportunity to submit comments on the community support programs and activities of Bank members, with the name and address of each member subject to community support review, and the deadline and FHFA contact information for submission of any comments to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>By FHFA.</I> FHFA may publish a notice in the <I>Federal Register</I> notifying the public of the opportunity to submit comments on the community support programs and activities of Bank members, with the deadline and FHFA contact information for submission of any comments to FHFA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Consideration of comments.</I> In reviewing a member for compliance with the community support requirements, FHFA will take into consideration any public comments it has received concerning the member.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Non-Depository Community Development Financial Institutions.</I> A member that has been certified as a community development financial institution by the CDFI Fund, other than a member that also is an insured depository institution or a CDFI credit union (as defined in 12 CFR 1263.1), is deemed to be in compliance with the community support requirements of section 10(g) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(g)) and this part, by virtue of that certification. Such non-depository CDFIs, therefore, are not required to submit Community Support Statements to FHFA under paragraph (b) of this section and are not subject to community support review under this part.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>New Bank members.</I> A member of a Bank is not required to submit a Community Support Statement under paragraph (b) of this section if the institution has been a member of a Bank for a total of less than one year as of March 31 of the year in which submissions are due under paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Designation of submission and notice dates.</I> FHFA will designate applicable dates for each biennial review cycle via written notice to the Banks. The notice will designate the date by which FHFA will begin accepting Community Support Statements and the date by which Community Support Statements must be submitted, as well as the dates by which the Banks must notify members under paragraph (a) of this section and the public under paragraph (c)(1) of this section. FHFA's written notice to the Banks will be issued at least 90 days prior to the date by which the Banks must notify members under paragraph (a).
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 52117, Oct. 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.3   Community support standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A member subject to community support review meets the community support requirements of this part if it submits a completed Community Support Statement that demonstrates to FHFA's satisfaction that the member complies with both the CRA standard, if the member is subject to the requirements of the CRA, and the first-time homebuyer standard.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>CRA standard.</I> A member meets the CRA standard if it is subject to the requirements of the CRA and the rating in the member's most recent CRA evaluation is “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(c) <I>First-time homebuyer standard.</I> A member meets the first-time homebuyer standard if at least one of the following is satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The member is subject to the requirements of the CRA and the rating in the member's most recent CRA evaluation is “Outstanding”;
</P>
<P>(2) The member has an established record of lending to first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(3) The member has a program whereby it actively seeks to lend or support lending to first-time homebuyers, including, but not limited to, the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing special credit products with flexible underwriting standards for first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Participating in Federal, State, or local government, or nationwide homeownership lending programs that benefit, serve, or are targeted to, first-time homebuyers; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Participating in loan consortia for first-time homebuyer loans or loans that serve predominantly low- or moderate-income borrowers;
</P>
<P>(4) The member has a program whereby it actively seeks to assist or support organizations that assist potential first-time homebuyers to qualify for mortgage loans, including, but not limited to, the following—
</P>
<P>(i) Providing, participating in, or supporting special counseling programs or other homeownership education activities that benefit, serve, or are targeted to, first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing or participating in marketing plans and related outreach programs targeted to first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing technical assistance or financial support to organizations that assist first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(iv) Participating with or financially supporting community or nonprofit groups that assist first-time homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(v) Holding investments or making loans that support first-time homebuyer programs;
</P>
<P>(vi) Holding mortgage-backed securities that may include a pool of loans to low- and moderate-income homebuyers;
</P>
<P>(vii) Participating or investing in service organizations that assist credit unions in providing mortgages to first-time homebuyers or low- or moderate-income households; or
</P>
<P>(viii) Participating in a Bank Affordable Housing Program or other Bank targeted community investment or development program;
</P>
<P>(5) The member engages in other activities, not covered by paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(4) of this section, that demonstrate to FHFA's satisfaction the member's support for first-time homebuyers financing; or
</P>
<P>(6) FHFA determines that mitigating factors affect the member's ability to engage in activities to assist first-time or potential first-time homebuyers as described in paragraphs (c)(1) through (c)(5) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.4   FHFA review and decision on Community Support Statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Review by FHFA.</I> FHFA will review each member approximately once every two years for compliance with the community support requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Complete Community Support Statements.</I> A Community Support Statement is complete when a member has provided to FHFA all of the information required by this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Decision on Community Support Statements.</I> FHFA will provide written notice to the member's Bank of FHFA's determination regarding the Community Support Statement submitted by the member. A notice placing a member on probation or restricting the member's access to long-term Bank advances will identify the reasons for FHFA's determination. The Bank must promptly notify the member of FHFA's determination regarding the member's Community Support Statement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.5   Probation or restriction on member access to long-term Bank advances.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Probation.</I> FHFA will place a member on probation if the member is subject to the CRA, its most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve,” and either the member has not received any other CRA rating or its second-most recent CRA rating was “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Restriction.</I> FHFA will restrict a member's access to long-term advances if:
</P>
<P>(1) The member failed to sign its Community Support Statement submitted to FHFA pursuant to § 1290.2(b), failed to include its CRA rating in its Community Support Statement submitted to FHFA if subject to the CRA, or failed to submit a Community Support Statement at all to FHFA;
</P>
<P>(2) The member is subject to the CRA and its most recent CRA rating was “Substantial Noncompliance”;
</P>
<P>(3) The member is subject to the CRA, its most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve,” and its second-most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve”;
</P>
<P>(4) The member is subject to the CRA, its most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve,” its second-most recent CRA rating was “Substantial Noncompliance,” and its third-most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve” or “Substantial Noncompliance”; or
</P>
<P>(5) The member has not demonstrated compliance with the first-time homebuyer standard.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Effective dates.</I>—(1) <I>Probation.</I> A probationary period under § 1290.5(a) will extend until the member's appropriate Federal banking agency completes its next CRA evaluation and issues a rating for the member. Probation will take effect on the date the notice required under § 1290.4(c) is sent by FHFA to the Bank. The member will be eligible to receive long-term advances during the probationary period.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restriction.</I> A restriction on access to long-term advances will take effect 30 days after the date the notice required under § 1290.4(c) is sent by FHFA to the Bank, unless the member demonstrates compliance with the requirements of this part before the end of the 30-day period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Removing a restriction.</I>—(1) FHFA may remove a restriction on a member's access to long-term advances imposed under this section if FHFA determines that application of the restriction may adversely affect the safety and soundness of the member. A member may submit a written request to FHFA to remove a restriction on access to long-term advances under this paragraph (d)(1). The written request must include a clear and concise statement of the basis for the request and a statement that application of the restriction may adversely affect the safety and soundness of the member from the member's appropriate Federal banking agency or the member's appropriate State regulator for a member that is not subject to regulation or supervision by a Federal regulator. FHFA will consider each written request within 30 calendar days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) FHFA may remove a restriction on a member's access to long-term advances imposed under this section if FHFA determines that the member subsequently has complied with the requirements of this part. A member may submit a written request to FHFA to remove a restriction on access to long-term advances under this paragraph (d)(2). The written request must state with specificity how the member has complied with the requirements of this part. FHFA will consider each written request within 30 calendar days of receipt.
</P>
<P>(3) FHFA may remove a restriction on a member's access to long-term advances imposed under this section and place the member on probation if the member is subject to the CRA, its most recent CRA rating was “Needs to Improve,” its second-most recent CRA rating was “Substantial Noncompliance,” and either the member has not received any other CRA rating or its third-most recent CRA rating was “Outstanding” or “Satisfactory.”
</P>
<P>(4) FHFA will provide written notice to the member's Bank of any determination to remove a restriction under this paragraph (d). The Bank shall promptly notify the member of FHFA's determination to remove a restriction. FHFA's determination shall take effect on the date the notice is sent by FHFA to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Bank Affordable Housing Programs and other Bank Community Investment Cash Advance Programs.</I> A member that is subject to a restriction on access to long-term advances under this part is not eligible to participate in the Bank's Affordable Housing Program (AHP) under part 1291 of this chapter or in other Bank Community Investment Cash Advance (CICA) programs offered under part 1292 of this chapter. The restriction in this paragraph (e) does not apply to AHP or other CICA applications or funding approved before the date the restriction is imposed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30342, May 28, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 52118, Oct. 16, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.6   Bank community support programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirement.</I> Consistent with the safe and sound operation of the Bank, each Bank shall establish and maintain a community support program. A Bank's community support program shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide technical assistance to members;
</P>
<P>(2) Promote and expand affordable housing finance;
</P>
<P>(3) Identify opportunities for members to expand financial and credit services in underserved neighborhoods and communities;
</P>
<P>(4) Encourage members to increase their targeted community lending and affordable housing finance activities by providing incentives such as awards or technical assistance to nonprofit housing developers or community groups with outstanding records of participation in targeted community lending or affordable housing finance partnerships with members; and
</P>
<P>(5) Include an annual Targeted Community Lending Plan approved by the Bank's board of directors and subject to modification. The Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to a committee of the board, Bank officers, or other Bank employees the responsibility to adopt or amend the Targeted Community Lending Plan. The Targeted Community Lending Plan shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Reflect market research conducted in the Bank's district;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe how the Bank will address identified credit needs and market opportunities in the Bank's district for targeted community lending;
</P>
<P>(iii) Be developed in consultation with (and may only be amended after consultation with) its Advisory Council and with members, housing associates, and public and private economic development organizations in the Bank's district;
</P>
<P>(iv) Establish quantitative targeted community lending performance goals;
</P>
<P>(v) Identify and assess significant affordable housing needs in its district that will be addressed through its Affordable Housing Program under 12 CFR part 1291, reflecting market research conducted or obtained by the Bank; and
</P>
<P>(vi) For any Targeted Funds established by the Bank under its Affordable Housing Program, specify, from among the identified affordable housing needs, the particular affordable housing needs the Bank plans to address through such Targeted Funds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice.</I> A Bank shall provide annually to each of its members a written notice:
</P>
<P>(1) Identifying CICA programs and other Bank activities that may provide opportunities for a member to meet the community support requirements and to engage in targeted community lending; and
</P>
<P>(2) Summarizing targeted community lending and affordable housing activities undertaken by members, housing associates, nonprofit housing developers, community groups, or other entities in the Bank's district that may provide opportunities for a member to meet the community support requirements and to engage in targeted community lending.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Public access.</I> A Bank shall publish its current Targeted Community Lending Plan on its publicly available website, and shall publish any amendments to its Targeted Community Lending Plan on the website within 30 days after the date of their adoption by the Bank's board of directors and no later than the date of publication on the website of its annual Affordable Housing Program Implementation Plan (as amended). If such amendments relate to the Bank's Affordable Housing Program, the Bank shall publish them no later than the date of publication on its website of its annual Affordable Housing Program Implementation Plan (as amended). If a Bank plans to establish any Targeted Funds under its Affordable Housing Program, the Bank must publish its Targeted Community Lending Plan (as amended) on the website at least 90 days before the first day that applications may be submitted to the Targeted Fund, unless the Targeted Fund is specifically targeted to address a Federal- or State-declared disaster.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[80 FR 30342, May 28, 2015, as amended at 83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018; 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.7   Bank Advisory Council Annual Reports.</HEAD>
<P>Each Annual Report submitted by a Bank's Advisory Council to FHFA pursuant to section 10(j)(11) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)) must include an analysis of the Bank's targeted community lending and affordable housing activities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1290.8" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.60.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1290.8   Compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>From December 28, 2018 to December 31, 2020, a Bank shall comply with either prior part 1290 (in 12 CFR part 1290 (January 1, 2018 edition)) or this part 1290. On and after January 1, 2021, a Bank shall comply with this part 1290.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1291" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1291—FEDERAL HOME LOAN BANKS' AFFORDABLE HOUSING PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430(j). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Affordable</I> means that:
</P>
<P>(1) The rent charged to a household for a unit that is to be reserved for occupancy by a household with an income at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area, does not exceed 30 percent of the income of a household of the maximum income and size expected, under the commitment made in the AHP application, to occupy the unit (assuming occupancy of 1.5 persons per bedroom or 1.0 persons per unit without a separate bedroom); or
</P>
<P>(2) The rent charged to a household, for rental units subsidized with Section 8 assistance under 42 U.S.C. 1437f or subsidized under another assistance program where the rents are charged in the same way as under the Section 8 program, if the rent complied with this definition at the time of the household's initial occupancy and the household continues to be assisted through the Section 8 or another assistance program, respectively.
</P>
<P><I>AHP</I> means the Affordable Housing Program required to be established by the Banks pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 1430(j) and this part.
</P>
<P><I>AHP project</I> means a single-family or multifamily housing project for owner-occupied or rental housing that has been awarded or has received AHP subsidy under a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds.
</P>
<P><I>Cost of funds</I> means, for purposes of a subsidized advance, the estimated cost of issuing Bank System consolidated obligations with maturities comparable to that of the subsidized advance.
</P>
<P><I>Direct subsidy</I> means an AHP subsidy in the form of a direct cash payment.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible household</I> means a household that meets the income limits and other requirements specified by a Bank for its General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of owner-occupied housing, the household's income may not exceed 80 percent of the median income for the area; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of rental housing, the household's income in at least 20 percent of the units may not exceed 50 percent of the median income for the area.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible project</I> means a project eligible to receive AHP subsidy pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Extremely low-income household</I> means a household that has an income at or below 30 percent of the median income for the area, with the income limit adjusted for household size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable median income standard selected from those enumerated in the definition of “median income for the area,” unless such median income standard has no household size adjustment methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Family member</I> means any individual related to a person by blood, marriage, or adoption.
</P>
<P><I>Funding round</I> means a time period, as determined by a Bank, during which the Bank accepts AHP applications for subsidy under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds.
</P>
<P><I>General Fund</I> means a program that each Bank is required to establish and under which the Bank approves <I>(i.e.,</I> awards) applications for AHP subsidy through a competitive application scoring process and disburses the subsidy, pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Homeownership Set-Aside Program</I> means a program established by a Bank, in its discretion, under which the Bank approves (<I>i.e.,</I> awards) applications for AHP direct subsidy through a noncompetitive process developed by the Bank and disburses the subsidy, pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Household's investment</I> means the following, to the extent paid by the household and documented (in the Closing Disclosure or other settlement statement, if applicable, or elsewhere) to the Bank or its designee:
</P>
<P>(1) Reasonable and customary costs paid by the household in connection with the purchase of the unit (including real estate broker's commission, attorney's fees, and title search fees);
</P>
<P>(2) Any down payment paid in connection with the household's purchase of the unit;
</P>
<P>(3) The cost of any capital improvements made after the household's purchase of the unit until the time of the subsequent sale, transfer, assignment of title or deed, or refinancing; and
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of principal on any mortgage senior to the AHP subsidy lien or other legally enforceable AHP subsidy repayment obligation repaid by the household.
</P>
<P><I>LIHTC</I> means Low-Income Housing Tax Credits under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 42).
</P>
<P><I>Loan pool</I> means a group of mortgage or other loans meeting the requirements of this part that are purchased, pooled, and held in trust.
</P>
<P><I>Low- or moderate-income household</I> means a household that has an income of 80 percent or less of the median income for the area, with the income limit adjusted for household size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable median income standard selected from those enumerated in the definition of “median income for the area,” unless such median income standard has no household size adjustment methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Median income for the area</I> means one or more of the following median income standards as determined by a Bank, after consultation with its Advisory Council, in its AHP Implementation Plan:
</P>
<P>(1) The median income for the area, as published annually by HUD;
</P>
<P>(2) The median income for the area obtained from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicable median family income, as determined under 26 U.S.C. 143(f) (Mortgage Revenue Bonds) and published by a state agency or instrumentality;
</P>
<P>(4) The median income for the area, as published by the United States Department of Agriculture; or
</P>
<P>(5) The median income for an applicable definable geographic area, as published by a federal, state, or local government entity, and approved by FHFA, at the request of a Bank, for use under the AHP.
</P>
<P><I>Multifamily building</I> means a structure with five or more dwelling units.
</P>
<P><I>Net earnings of a Bank</I> means the net earnings of a Bank for a calendar year before declaring or paying any dividend under section 16 of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1436). For purposes of this part, “dividend” includes any dividends on capital stock subject to a redemption request even if under GAAP those dividends are treated as an “interest expense.”
</P>
<P><I>Net proceeds</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a sale, transfer, or assignment of title or deed of an AHP-assisted unit by a household during the AHP five-year retention period, the sales price minus reasonable and customary costs paid by the household in connection with the transaction (including real estate broker's commission, attorney's fees, and title search fees) and outstanding debt superior to the AHP subsidy lien or other legally enforceable AHP subsidy repayment obligation;
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a refinancing of an AHP-assisted unit by a household during the AHP five-year retention period, the principal amount of the new mortgage minus reasonable and customary costs paid by the household in connection with the transaction (including attorney's fees and title search fees) and the principal amount of the refinanced mortgage.
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied project</I> means, for purposes of a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds, one or more owner-occupied units in a single-family or multifamily building, including condominiums, cooperative housing, and manufactured housing.
</P>
<P><I>Owner-occupied unit</I> means a dwelling unit occupied by the owner of the unit. Housing with two to four dwelling units consisting of one owner-occupied unit and one or more rental units is considered a single owner-occupied unit.
</P>
<P><I>Program</I> means the Affordable Housing Program established pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P><I>Rental project</I> means, for purposes of a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds, one or more dwelling units for occupancy by households that are not owner-occupants, including overnight and emergency shelters, transitional housing for homeless households, mutual housing, single-room occupancy housing, and manufactured housing communities.
</P>
<P><I>Retention period</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Five years from closing for an AHP-assisted owner-occupied unit where the AHP subsidy is used for purchase of the unit, for purchase in conjunction with rehabilitation of the unit, or for construction of the unit; and
</P>
<P>(2) Fifteen years from the date of completion for a rental project.
</P>
<P><I>Revolving loan fund</I> means a capital fund established to make mortgage or other loans whereby loan principal is repaid into the fund and re-lent to other borrowers.
</P>
<P><I>Single-family building</I> means a structure with one to four dwelling units.
</P>
<P><I>Sponsor</I> means a not-for-profit or for-profit organization or public entity that:
</P>
<P>(1) Has an ownership interest (including any partnership interest), as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, in a rental project;
</P>
<P>(2) Is integrally involved, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, in an owner-occupied project, such as by exercising control over the planning, development, or management of the project, or by qualifying borrowers and providing or arranging financing for the owners of the units;
</P>
<P>(3) Operates a loan pool; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is a revolving loan fund.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidized advance</I> means an advance to a member at an interest rate reduced below the Bank's cost of funds by use of a subsidy.
</P>
<P><I>Subsidy</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A direct subsidy, provided that if a direct subsidy is used to write down the interest rate on a loan extended by a member, sponsor, or other party to a project, the subsidy must equal the net present value of the interest foregone from making the loan below the lender's market interest rate; or
</P>
<P>(2) The net present value of the interest revenue foregone from making a subsidized advance at a rate below the Bank's cost of funds.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted Fund</I> means a program established by a Bank, in its discretion, to address specific affordable housing needs within its district that are unmet, have proven difficult to address through its General Fund, or align with objectives identified in its strategic plan, under which the Bank approves (<I>i.e.,</I> awards) applications for AHP subsidy through a competitive application scoring process developed by the Bank and disburses the subsidy, pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Very low-income household</I> means a household that has an income at or below 50 percent of the median income for the area, with the income limit adjusted for household size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable median income standard selected from those enumerated in the definition of “median income for the area,” unless such median income standard has no household size adjustment methodology.
</P>
<P><I>Visitable</I> means, in either owner-occupied or rental housing, at least one entrance is at-grade (no steps) and approached by an accessible route such as a sidewalk, and the entrance door and all interior passage doors are at least 34 inches wide, offering 32 inches of clear passage space.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.2   Compliance dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General January 1, 2021 compliance date.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, from December 28, 2018 to December 31, 2020, a Bank shall comply with either prior part 1291 (in 12 CFR part 1291 (January 1, 2018 edition)) or this part 1291, and on and after January 1, 2021, a Bank shall comply with this part 1291.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>January 1, 2020 compliance date for owner-occupied retention agreements; exception for adoption of proxies.</I> From December 28, 2018 to December 31, 2019, a Bank shall comply with either prior § 1291.9(a)(7) (in 12 CFR part 1291 (January 1, 2018 edition)) or § 1291.15(a)(7), and on and after January 1, 2020, a Bank shall comply with § 1291.15(a)(7), except that a Bank shall comply with § 1291.15(a)(7)(ii)(B) on the date set forth in the FHFA guidance on proxies referenced therein.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Program Administration and Governance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.10" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.10   Required annual AHP contribution.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall contribute annually to its Program the greater of:
</P>
<P>(a) 10 percent of the Bank's net earnings for the previous year; or
</P>
<P>(b) That Bank's pro rata share of an aggregate of $100 million to be contributed in total by the Banks, such proration being made on the basis of the net earnings of the Banks for the previous year, except that the required annual AHP contribution for a Bank shall not exceed its net earnings in the previous year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.11" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.11   Temporary suspension of AHP contributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Request to FHFA.</I> If a Bank finds that the contributions required pursuant to § 1291.10 are contributing to the financial instability of the Bank, the Bank may apply in writing to FHFA for a temporary suspension of such contributions.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Director review</I>—(1) <I>Financial instability.</I> In determining the financial instability of a Bank, the Director shall consider such factors as:
</P>
<P>(i) Severely depressed Bank earnings;
</P>
<P>(ii) A substantial decline in Bank membership capital; and
</P>
<P>(iii) A substantial reduction in Bank advances outstanding.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Limitations on grounds for suspension.</I> The Director shall not suspend a Bank's annual AHP contributions if it determines that the Bank's reduction in earnings is due to:
</P>
<P>(i) A change in the terms of advances to members that is not justified by market conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) Inordinate operating and administrative expenses; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Mismanagement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.12" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.12   Allocation of required annual AHP contribution.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank, after consultation with its Advisory Council and pursuant to written policies adopted by the Bank's board of directors, shall meet the following requirements for allocation of its required annual AHP contribution.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>General Fund.</I> Each Bank shall allocate annually at least 50 percent of its required annual AHP contribution to provide funds to members through a General Fund established and administered by the Bank pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Homeownership Set-Aside Programs.</I> A Bank may, in its discretion, allocate annually, in the aggregate, up to the greater of $4.5 million or 35 percent of its required annual AHP contribution to provide funds to members participating in Homeownership Set-Aside Programs established and administered by the Bank pursuant to the requirements of this part, provided that at least one-third of the Bank's aggregate annual set-aside allocation to such programs is allocated to assist first-time homebuyers or households for owner-occupied rehabilitation, or a combination of both.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Targeted Funds—phase-in requirements for funding allocations.</I> Unless otherwise directed by FHFA and subject to the phase-in requirements for the number of Targeted Funds in § 1291.20(b), a Bank may, in its discretion, allocate annually, up to:
</P>
<P>(1) 20 percent, in the aggregate, of its required annual AHP contribution to any Targeted Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) 30 percent, in the aggregate, of its required annual AHP contribution to any Targeted Funds, provided that it allocated at least 20 percent, in the aggregate, of its required annual AHP contribution to one or more Targeted Funds in any preceding year; or
</P>
<P>(3) 40 percent, in the aggregate, of its required annual AHP contribution to any Targeted Funds, provided that it allocated at least 30 percent, in the aggregate, of its required annual AHP contribution to one or more Targeted Funds in any preceding year.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Acceleration of funding.</I> A Bank may, in its discretion, accelerate to its current year's Program from future required annual AHP contributions an amount up to the greater of $5 million or 20 percent of its required annual AHP contribution for the current year. The Bank may credit the amount of the accelerated contribution against required AHP contributions under this part 1291 over one or more of the subsequent five years.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No delegation.</I> A Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to a committee of the board, Bank officers, or other Bank employees the responsibility for adopting the Bank's policies for its General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.13" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.13   Targeted Community Lending Plan; AHP Implementation Plan.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Targeted Community Lending Plan</I>—(1) <I>Identification of housing needs.</I> Pursuant to the requirements of 12 CFR 1290.6(a)(5)(v) and (vi), a Bank's annual Targeted Community Lending Plan adopted under its community support program shall, among other things, identify the significant affordable housing needs in its district that will be addressed through its AHP, as well as any specific affordable housing needs it plans to address through any Targeted Funds as set forth in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public access.</I> A Bank shall publish its current Targeted Community Lending Plan on its publicly available website, and shall publish any amendments to its Targeted Community Lending Plan on the website within 30 days after the date of their adoption by the Bank's board of directors and no later than the date of publication on the website of its annual AHP Implementation Plan (as amended). If such amendments relate to the Bank's AHP, the Bank shall publish them no later than the date of publication on its website of its annual AHP Implementation Plan (as amended). If a Bank plans to establish any Targeted Funds under its AHP, the Bank must publish its Targeted Community Lending Plan (as amended) on the website at least 90 days before the first day that applications may be submitted to the Targeted Fund, unless the Targeted Fund is specifically targeted to address a Federal- or State-declared disaster.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notification of Plan amendments to FHFA.</I> A Bank shall notify FHFA of any amendments to its Targeted Community Lending Plan within 30 days after the date of their adoption by the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHP Implementation Plan.</I> Each Bank's board of directors, after consultation with its Advisory Council, shall adopt a written AHP Implementation Plan, and shall not amend the AHP Implementation Plan without first consulting its Advisory Council. The Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility for such prior consultations with the Advisory Council, and shall not delegate to a committee of the board, Bank officers, or other Bank employees the responsibility for adopting or amending the AHP Implementation Plan. The AHP Implementation Plan shall set forth, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicable median income standard or standards adopted by the Bank consistent with the definition of “median income for the area” in § 1291.1.
</P>
<P>(2) For the General Fund established by the Bank pursuant to § 1291.20(a), the Bank's requirements for the General Fund, including the Bank's scoring methodology, including its scoring tie-breaker policy adopted pursuant to §§ 1291.25(c) and 1291.28(c), and any policy on approving AHP application alternates for funding pursuant to §§ 1291.25(c)(6) and 1291.28(b).
</P>
<P>(3) For each Targeted Fund established by the Bank, if any, pursuant to § 1291.20(b), the Bank's requirements for the Targeted Fund, including the Bank's scoring methodology for each Fund, including its scoring tie-breaker policy adopted pursuant to §§ 1291.25(c) and 1291.28(c), and any policy on approving AHP application alternates for funding pursuant to §§ 1291.25(c)(6) and 1291.28(b), and the parameters adopted pursuant to § 1291.20(b)(2).
</P>
<P>(4) The Bank's policy on how it will determine under which Fund to approve an application for the same project that is submitted to more than one Fund at a Bank in a calendar year and scores high enough to be approved under each Fund, pursuant to § 1291.28(d).
</P>
<P>(5) For each Homeownership Set-Aside Program established by the Bank, if any, pursuant to § 1291.40, the Bank's requirements for the program, including the Bank's application and subsidy disbursement methodology.
</P>
<P>(6) The Bank's retention agreement requirements for projects and households under its General Fund, any Targeted Funds, and any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, pursuant to § 1291.15(a)(7) and (8), including the proxy or proxies selected by the Bank for determining a subsequent purchaser's income pursuant to FHFA guidance under § 1291.15(a)(7)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>(7) The Bank's standards for approving a relocation plan for current occupants of rental projects pursuant to § 1291.23(a)(2)(ii)(B).
</P>
<P>(8) Any optional Bank district eligibility requirements adopted by the Bank pursuant to § 1291.24(c).
</P>
<P>(9) The Bank's requirements for funding revolving loan funds, if adopted by the Bank pursuant to § 1291.31;
</P>
<P>(10) The Bank's requirements for funding loan pools, if adopted by the Bank pursuant to § 1291.32;
</P>
<P>(11) The Bank's requirements for monitoring under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs pursuant to §§ 1291.50 and 1291.51.
</P>
<P>(12) The Bank's requirements, including time limits, for re-use of repaid AHP direct subsidy in the same project, if adopted by the Bank pursuant to § 1291.64(b).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Advisory Council review.</I> Prior to the amendment of a Bank's AHP Implementation Plan, the Bank shall provide its Advisory Council an opportunity to review the document, and the Advisory Council shall provide its recommendations to the Bank's board of directors for its consideration.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notification of Plan amendments to FHFA.</I> A Bank shall notify FHFA of any amendments made to its AHP Implementation Plan within 30 days after the date of their adoption by the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Public access.</I> A Bank shall publish its current AHP Implementation Plan on its publicly available website, and shall publish any amendments to the AHP Implementation Plan on the website within 30 days after the date of their adoption by the Bank's board of directors.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.14" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.14   Advisory Councils.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Appointment.</I> (1) Each Bank's board of directors shall appoint an Advisory Council of 7 to 15 persons who reside in the Bank's district and are drawn from community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting low- and moderate-income housing, and community and not-for-profit organizations that are actively involved in providing or promoting community lending, in the district. Community organizations include for-profit organizations.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Bank shall solicit nominations for membership on the Advisory Council from community and not-for-profit organizations pursuant to a nomination process that is as broad and as participatory as possible, allowing sufficient time for responses.
</P>
<P>(3) The Bank's board of directors shall appoint Advisory Council members from a diverse range of organizations so that representatives of no one group constitute an undue proportion of the membership of the Advisory Council, giving consideration to the size of the Bank's district and the diversity of low- and moderate-income housing and community lending needs and activities within the district.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms of Advisory Council members.</I> Pursuant to policies adopted by the Bank's board of directors, Advisory Council members shall be appointed by the Bank's board of directors to serve for terms of three years, which shall be staggered to provide continuity in experience and service to the Advisory Council, except that Advisory Council members may be appointed to serve for terms of one or two years solely for purposes of reconfiguring the staggering of the three-year terms. No Advisory Council member may be appointed to serve for more than three full consecutive terms. An Advisory Council member appointed to fill a vacancy shall be appointed for the unexpired term of his or her predecessor in office.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Election of officers.</I> Each Advisory Council shall elect from among its members a chairperson, a vice chairperson, and any other officers the Advisory Council deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Duties</I>—(1) <I>Meetings with the Banks.</I> (i) The Advisory Council shall meet with representatives of the Bank's board of directors at least quarterly to provide advice on ways in which the Bank can better carry out its housing finance and community lending mission, including, but not limited to, advice on the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending programs and needs in the Bank's district, and on the use of AHP subsidies, Bank advances, and other Bank credit products for these purposes.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Advisory Council's advice shall include recommendations on:
</P>
<P>(A) The Bank's Targeted Community Lending Plan, and any amendments thereto, pursuant to 12 CFR 1290.6(a)(5)(iii);
</P>
<P>(B) The amount of AHP funds to be allocated to the Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds and Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, including how the set-aside funds should be apportioned under the one-third funding allocation requirement in § 1291.12(b);
</P>
<P>(C) The AHP Implementation Plan and any subsequent amendments thereto;
</P>
<P>(D) The Bank's scoring methodologies, related definitions, and any additional optional district eligibility requirements for the General Fund and any Targeted Funds; and
</P>
<P>(E) The eligibility requirements and any priority criteria for any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Summary of AHP applications.</I> The Bank shall comply with requests from the Advisory Council for summary information regarding AHP applications from prior funding rounds.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Annual analysis; public access.</I> (i) Each Advisory Council annually shall submit to FHFA by May 1 its analysis of the low- and moderate-income housing and community lending activity of the Bank by which it is appointed.
</P>
<P>(ii) Within 30 days after the date the Advisory Council's annual analysis is submitted to FHFA, the Bank shall publish the analysis on its publicly available website.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Expenses.</I> The Bank shall pay Advisory Council members' travel expenses, including transportation and subsistence, for each day devoted to attending meetings with representatives of the board of directors of the Bank and meetings requested by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>No delegation.</I> A Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to appoint persons as members of the Advisory Council or to meet with the Advisory Council at the quarterly meetings required by the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(11)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.15" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.15   Agreements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Agreements between Banks and members.</I> A Bank shall have in place with each member receiving an AHP subsidized advance or AHP direct subsidy an agreement or agreements containing, at a minimum, the following provisions, where applicable:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notification of member.</I> The member has been notified of the requirements of this part as they may be amended from time to time, and all Bank policies relevant to the member's approved application for AHP subsidy.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>AHP subsidy pass-through.</I> The member shall pass on the full amount of the AHP subsidy to the project or household, as applicable, for which the subsidy was approved.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Use of AHP subsidy</I>—(i) <I>Use of AHP subsidy by the member.</I> The member shall use the AHP subsidy in accordance with the terms of the member's approved application for the subsidy and the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Use of AHP subsidy by the project sponsor or owner.</I> The member shall have in place an agreement with each project sponsor or owner in which the project sponsor or owner agrees to use the AHP subsidy in accordance with the terms of the member's approved application for the subsidy and the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Repayment of AHP subsidies in case of noncompliance</I>—(i) <I>Noncompliance by the member.</I> The member shall repay AHP subsidies to the Bank in accordance with the requirements of § 1291.61.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Noncompliance by a project sponsor or owner</I>—(A) <I>Agreement.</I> The member shall have in place an agreement with each project sponsor or owner in which the project sponsor or owner agrees to repay AHP subsidies to the member or the Bank in accordance with the requirements of § 1291.60.
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Recovery of AHP subsidies.</I> The member shall recover from the project sponsor or owner and repay to the Bank AHP subsidies in accordance with the requirements of § 1291.60 (if applicable).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Project monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Monitoring by the member.</I> The member shall comply with the monitoring requirements applicable to it, as established by the Bank in its monitoring policies pursuant to §§ 1291.50 and 1291.51.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Agreement; LIHTC noncompliance notice.</I> The member shall have in place an agreement with each project sponsor and owner, in which the project sponsor and owner agree to comply with the monitoring requirements applicable to such parties, as established by the Bank in its monitoring policies pursuant to § 1291.50. The member's agreement shall also include an agreement by the project owner to provide prompt written notice to the Bank if the project also received LIHTC and the project is in material and unresolved noncompliance with the LIHTC income targeting or rent requirements at any time during the AHP 15-year retention period.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Transfer of AHP obligations</I>—(i) <I>To another member.</I> The member shall make best efforts to transfer its obligations under the approved application for AHP subsidy to another member in the event of its loss of membership in the Bank prior to the Bank's final disbursement of AHP subsidies.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>To a nonmember.</I> If, after final disbursement of AHP subsidies to the member, the member undergoes an acquisition or a consolidation resulting in a successor organization that is not a member of the Bank, the nonmember successor organization assumes the member's obligations under its approved application for AHP subsidy, and where the member received an AHP subsidized advance, the nonmember assumes such obligations until prepayment or orderly liquidation by the nonmember of the subsidized advance.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Owner-occupied units—required provisions for retention agreements.</I> The member shall ensure that where a household receives AHP subsidy for purchase, for purchase in conjunction with rehabilitation, or for construction of an owner-occupied unit, the unit is subject to a deed restriction or other legally enforceable retention agreement or mechanism requiring that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Notice.</I> The Bank, and in its discretion any designee of the Bank, shall be given notice of any sale, transfer, assignment of title or deed, or refinancing of the unit by the household occurring during the AHP five-year retention period;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Repayment of subsidy; exceptions.</I> In the case of a sale, transfer, assignment of title or deed, or refinancing of the unit by the household during the retention period, the amount of AHP subsidy calculated in accordance with paragraph (a)(7)(v) of this section shall be repaid to the Bank, unless one of the following exceptions applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The unit was assisted with a permanent mortgage loan funded by an AHP subsidized advance;
</P>
<P>(B) The subsequent purchaser, transferee, or assignee is a low- or moderate-income household, as determined by the Bank. For any sale, transfer, or assignment that occurs after the date established by FHFA in guidance on the use of proxies, the Bank or its designee shall determine the household's income using one or more proxies that are reliable indicators of the subsequent purchaser's income, which may be selected by the Bank pursuant to the FHFA guidance and shall be included in the Bank's AHP Implementation Plan, unless documentation demonstrating that household's actual income is available. The Bank or its designee is not required to request or obtain such documentation, but must use it in lieu of a proxy if available;
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the AHP subsidy that would be required to be repaid in accordance with the calculation in paragraph (a)(7)(v) of this section is $2,500 or less; or
</P>
<P>(D) Following a refinancing, the unit continues to be subject to a deed restriction or other legally enforceable retention agreement or mechanism described in this paragraph (a)(7);
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Subsidy repayments to Bank, member, or project sponsor.</I> In the case of a direct subsidy, such repayment of AHP subsidy shall be made:
</P>
<P>(A) To the Bank. If the Bank has not authorized re-use of the repaid AHP subsidy or has authorized re-use of the repaid subsidy but not retention of such repaid subsidy by the member or project sponsor pursuant to § 1291.64(b) of this part, or has authorized retention and re-use of such repaid subsidy by the member or project sponsor pursuant to such section and the repaid subsidy is not re-used in accordance with the requirements of the Bank and such section; or
</P>
<P>(B) To the member or project sponsor. To the member or project sponsor for re-use by such member or project sponsor, if the Bank has authorized retention and re-use of such subsidy by the member or project sponsor pursuant to § 1291.64(b);
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Termination of subsidy repayment obligation.</I> The obligation to repay AHP subsidy to the Bank shall terminate after any event of foreclosure, transfer by deed-in-lieu of foreclosure, an assignment of a Federal Housing Administration first mortgage to HUD, or death of the AHP-assisted homeowner; and
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Calculation of AHP subsidy repayment based on net proceeds and household's investment.</I> The Bank shall be repaid the lesser of:
</P>
<P>(A) The AHP subsidy, reduced on a pro rata basis per month until the unit is sold, transferred, or its title or deed transferred, or is refinanced, during the AHP five-year retention period; or
</P>
<P>(B) Any net proceeds from the sale, transfer, or assignment of title or deed of the unit, or the refinancing, as applicable, minus the AHP-assisted household's investment.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Rental projects—required provisions for retention agreements.</I> The member shall ensure that an AHP-assisted rental project is subject to a deed restriction or other legally enforceable retention agreement or mechanism requiring that:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Income and rent commitments.</I> The project's rental units, or applicable portion thereof, must remain occupied by and affordable for households with incomes at or below the levels committed to be served in the approved AHP application for the duration of the AHP 15-year retention period;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Notice.</I> The Bank, and in its discretion any designee of the Bank, shall be given notice of any sale, transfer, assignment of title or deed, or refinancing of the project by the project owner occurring during the retention period;
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Repayment of subsidy; exceptions.</I> In the case of a sale, transfer, assignment of title or deed, or refinancing of the project by the project owner during the retention period, the full amount of the AHP subsidy received by the project owner shall be repaid to the Bank, unless one of the following exceptions applies:
</P>
<P>(A) The project continues to be subject to a deed restriction or other legally enforceable retention agreement or mechanism incorporating the income-eligibility and affordability restrictions committed to in the approved AHP application for the duration of the AHP 15-year retention period; or
</P>
<P>(B) If authorized by the Bank, in its discretion, the households are relocated, due to the exercise of eminent domain, or for expansion of housing or services, to another property that is made subject to a deed restriction or other legally enforceable retention agreement or mechanism incorporating the income-eligibility and affordability restrictions committed to in the approved AHP application for the remainder of the AHP 15-year retention period; and
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Termination of income and rent restrictions.</I> The income-eligibility and affordability restrictions applicable to the project shall terminate after any foreclosure.
</P>
<P>(9) <I>Lending of AHP direct subsidies.</I> If a member or a project sponsor lends AHP direct subsidy to a project, any repayments of principal and payments of interest received by the member or the project sponsor must be paid forthwith to the Bank, unless the direct subsidy is being both lent and re-lent by a revolving loan fund pursuant to § 1291.31(d).
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Special provisions where members obtain AHP subsidized advances</I>—(i) <I>Repayment schedule.</I> The term of an AHP subsidized advance shall be no longer than the term of the member's loan to the project funded by the advance, and at least once in every 12-month period, the member shall be scheduled to make a principal repayment to the Bank equal to the amount scheduled to be repaid to the member on its loan to the project in that period.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Prepayment fees.</I> Upon a prepayment of an AHP subsidized advance, the Bank shall charge a prepayment fee only to the extent the Bank suffers an economic loss from the prepayment.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Treatment of loan prepayment by project.</I> If all or a portion of the loan or loans financed by an AHP subsidized advance are prepaid by the project to the member, the member may, at its option, either:
</P>
<P>(A) Repay to the Bank that portion of the advance used to make the loan or loans to the project, and be subject to a fee imposed by the Bank sufficient to compensate the Bank for any economic loss the Bank experiences in reinvesting the repaid amount at a rate of return below the cost of funds originally used by the Bank to calculate the interest rate subsidy incorporated in the advance; or
</P>
<P>(B) Continue to maintain the advance outstanding, subject to the Bank resetting the interest rate on that portion of the advance used to make the loan or loans to the project to a rate equal to the cost of funds originally used by the Bank to calculate the interest rate subsidy incorporated in the advance.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agreements between Banks and project sponsors or owners</I>—(1) <I>Repayment of subsidies.</I> A Bank may have in place an agreement with each project sponsor or owner, in which the project sponsor or owner agrees to repay AHP subsidies directly to the Bank in accordance with the requirements of § 1291.60.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Project sponsor qualifications.</I> A Bank's AHP subsidy application form and AHP subsidy disbursement form for each subsidy disbursement (or other related documents) must include a requirement for the project sponsor to provide a certification that it meets the project sponsor qualifications criteria established by the Bank and that it has not engaged in, and is not engaging in, covered misconduct as defined in FHFA's Suspended Counterparty Program regulation (12 CFR part 1227), or as defined by the Bank, provided the Bank's definition incorporates the definition in 12 CFR part 1227 at a minimum.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Application to existing AHP agreements.</I> The requirements of section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)) and the provisions of this part, as amended, are incorporated into all AHP agreements between a Bank and any member, project sponsor, or project owner receiving AHP subsidies under the General Fund and any Targeted Funds, and between a Bank and any member or unit owner under any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs. To the extent the requirements of this part are amended from time to time, such agreements are deemed to incorporate the amendments to conform to any new requirements of this part. No amendment to this part shall affect the legality of actions taken prior to the effective date of such amendment.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.16" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.16   Conflicts of interest.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Bank directors and employees.</I> (1) Each Bank's board of directors shall adopt a written policy providing that if a Bank director or employee, or such person's family member, has a financial interest in, or is a director, officer, or employee of an organization involved in, a project that is the subject of a pending or approved AHP application, the Bank director or employee shall not participate in or attempt to influence decisions by the Bank regarding the evaluation, approval, funding, monitoring, or any remedial process for such project.
</P>
<P>(2) If a Bank director or employee, or such person's family member, has a financial interest in, or is a director, officer, or employee of an organization involved in, an AHP project such that he or she is subject to the requirements in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, such person shall not participate in or attempt to influence decisions by the Bank regarding the evaluation, approval, funding, monitoring, or any remedial process for such project.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Advisory Council members.</I> (1) Each Bank's board of directors shall adopt a written policy providing that if an Advisory Council member, or such person's family member, has a financial interest in, or is a director, officer, or employee of an organization involved in, a project that is the subject of a pending or approved AHP application, the Advisory Council member shall not participate in or attempt to influence decisions by the Bank regarding the approval for such project.
</P>
<P>(2) If an Advisory Council member, or such person's family member, has a financial interest in, or is a director, officer, or employee of an organization involved in, an AHP project such that he or she is subject to the requirements in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, such person shall not participate in or attempt to influence decisions by the Bank regarding the approval for such project.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No delegation.</I> A Bank's board of directors shall not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to adopt the conflict of interest policies required by this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—General Fund and Targeted Funds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.20" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.20   Establishment of programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General Fund</I>—(1) <I>Establishment.</I> A Bank shall establish a General Fund pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> A Bank may not adopt eligibility requirements for its General Fund except as specifically authorized in this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Targeted Funds</I>—(1) <I>Establishment; number of Targeted Funds and funding allocation amounts.</I> A Bank may establish, in its discretion, up to three Targeted Funds to address specified affordable housing needs in its district pursuant to the phase-in funding allocation requirements in § 1291.12(c)(1), the following phase-in requirements for the number of Targeted Funds unless otherwise directed by FHFA, and any other applicable requirements of this part:
</P>
<P>(i) One Targeted Fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) Two Targeted Funds to be administered in the same calendar year, provided that the Bank administered at least one Targeted Fund in any preceding year; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Three Targeted Funds to be administered in the same calendar year, provided that the Bank administered at least two Targeted Funds in any preceding year.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> (i) A Bank shall adopt and implement parameters, which shall be included in its AHP Implementation Plan, for ensuring that each Targeted Fund is designed to receive sufficient numbers of applicants for the amount of AHP funds allocated to the Targeted Fund to enable the Bank to facilitate a robust competitive scoring process.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank may not adopt eligibility requirements for its Targeted Funds except as specifically authorized in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.21" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.21   Eligible applicants.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Member applicants.</I> A Bank shall accept applications for AHP subsidy under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds only from institutions that are members of the Bank at the time the application is submitted to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Project sponsor qualifications</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A project sponsor must be qualified and able to perform its responsibilities as committed to in the application for AHP subsidy funding the project.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Revolving loan fund.</I> Pursuant to written policies adopted by a Bank's board of directors, a revolving loan fund sponsor that intends to use AHP direct subsidy in accordance with § 1291.31 shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide audited financial statements that its operations are consistent with sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrate the ability to re-lend AHP subsidy repayments on a timely basis and track the use of the AHP subsidy.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Loan pool.</I> Pursuant to written policies adopted by a Bank's board of directors, a loan pool sponsor that intends to use AHP subsidy in accordance with § 1291.32 shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide evidence of sound asset/liability management practices;
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide audited financial statements that its operations are consistent with sound business practices; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrate the ability to track the use of the AHP subsidy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.22" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.22   Funding rounds; application process.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Funding rounds.</I> A Bank may accept applications from proposed projects for AHP subsidy under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds during a specified number of funding rounds each year, as determined by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Submission of applications.</I> Except as provided in § 1291.29(a), a Bank shall require applications for AHP subsidy to contain information sufficient for the Bank to:
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that the proposed AHP project meets the eligibility requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(2) Evaluate the application pursuant to the scoring methodology adopted by the Bank pursuant to §§ 1291.25, 1291.26, and 1291.27, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Review of applications submitted.</I> Except as provided in § 1291.29(b), a Bank shall review the applications for AHP subsidy to determine that the proposed AHP project meets the eligibility requirements of this part, and shall evaluate the applications pursuant to the Bank's scoring methodology adopted pursuant to §§ 1291.25, 1291.26, and 1291.27, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.23" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.23   Eligible projects.</HEAD>
<P>Projects receiving AHP subsidies pursuant to a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds must meet the following eligibility requirements:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Owner-occupied or rental housing.</I> The AHP subsidy shall be used exclusively for:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Owner-occupied housing.</I> The purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of an owner-occupied project for very low-income or low- or moderate-income households, where the housing is to be used as the household's primary residence. A household must have an income meeting the income targeting commitments in the approved AHP application at the time it is qualified by the project sponsor for participation in the project;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rental housing.</I> The purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of a rental project, where at least 20 percent of the units in the project are occupied by and affordable for very low-income households.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Projects that are not occupied.</I> For a rental project that is not occupied at the time the AHP application is submitted to the Bank for approval, a household must have an income meeting the income targeting commitments in the approved AHP application upon initial occupancy of the rental unit.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Projects that are occupied.</I> (A) Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2)(ii)(B) of this section, for a rental project involving purchase or rehabilitation that is occupied at the time the AHP application is submitted to the Bank for approval, a household must have an income meeting the income targeting commitments in the approved AHP application at the time of such submission.
</P>
<P>(B) If the project has a relocation plan for current occupants that is approved by one of its federal, state, or local government funders, or a reasonable relocation plan for current occupants that is otherwise approved by the Bank according to standards included in the Bank's AHP Implementation Plan, a household may have an income meeting the income targeting commitments upon initial occupancy of the rental unit after completion of the purchase or rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Project feasibility</I>—(1) <I>Developmental feasibility.</I> The project must be likely to be completed and occupied, based on relevant factors contained in the Bank's project feasibility guidelines, including, but not limited to, the development budget, market analysis, and project sponsor's experience in providing the requested assistance to households.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Operational feasibility of rental projects.</I> A rental project must be able to operate in a financially sound manner, in accordance with the Bank's project feasibility guidelines, as projected in the project's operating pro forma.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of AHP subsidy use.</I> Some or all of the AHP subsidy must be likely to be drawn down by the project or used by the project to procure other financing commitments within 12 months of the date of approval of the application for AHP subsidy funding the project.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention agreements</I>—(1) <I>Owner-occupied projects.</I> Each AHP-assisted unit in an owner-occupied project for which the AHP subsidy was used for purchase, for purchase in conjunction with rehabilitation, or for construction of the unit by the AHP-assisted household, is, or is committed to be, subject to a five-year retention agreement described in § 1291.15(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rental projects.</I> AHP-assisted rental projects are, or are committed to be, subject to a 15-year retention agreement as described in § 1291.15(a)(8).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Fair housing.</I> The project, as proposed, must comply with applicable federal and state laws on fair housing and housing accessibility, including, but not limited to, the Fair Housing Act, the Rehabilitation Act of 1973, the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, and the Architectural Barriers Act of 1969, and must demonstrate how the project will be affirmatively marketed.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.24" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.24   Eligible uses.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible uses of AHP subsidy.</I> AHP subsidies shall be used only for:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Owner-occupied housing.</I> The purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of owner-occupied housing.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rental housing.</I> The purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of rental housing.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Need for AHP subsidy</I>—(i) <I>Review of project development budget.</I> The project's estimated sources of funds shall equal its estimated uses of funds, as reflected in the project's development budget. The difference between the project's sources of funds (excluding AHP subsidy) and uses of funds is the project's need for AHP subsidy, which is the maximum amount of AHP subsidy the project may receive. A Bank, in its discretion, may permit a project's sources of funds to include or exclude the estimated market value of in-kind donations and voluntary professional labor or services (excluding the value of sweat equity), provided that the project's uses of funds also include or exclude, respectively, the value of such estimates.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cash sources of funds.</I> A project's cash sources of funds shall include any cash contributions by the sponsor, any cash from sources other than the sponsor, and estimates of funds the project sponsor intends to obtain from other sources but which have not yet been committed to the project. In the case of homeownership projects where the sponsor extends permanent financing to the homebuyer, the sponsor's cash contribution shall include the present value of any payments the sponsor is to receive from the buyer, which shall include any cash down payment from the buyer, plus the present value of any purchase note the sponsor holds on the unit. If the note carries a market interest rate commensurate with the credit quality of the buyer, the present value of the note equals the face value of the note. If the note carries an interest rate below the market rate, the present value of the note shall be determined using the market rate to discount the cash flows.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Cash uses.</I> A project's cash uses are the actual outlay of cash needed to pay for materials, labor, and acquisition or other costs of completing the project. Cash costs do not include in-kind donations, voluntary professional labor or services, or sweat equity.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Project costs</I>—(i) <I>In general.</I> (A) Taking into consideration the geographic location of the project, development conditions, and other non-financial household or project characteristics, a Bank shall determine that a project's costs, as reflected in the project's development budget, are reasonable, in accordance with the Bank's project cost guidelines.
</P>
<P>(B) For purposes of determining the reasonableness of a developer's fee for a project as a percentage of total development costs, a Bank may, in its discretion, include estimates of the market value of in-kind donations and volunteer professional labor or services (excluding the value of sweat equity) committed to the project as part of the total development costs.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Cost of property and services provided by a member.</I> The purchase price of property or services, as reflected in the project's development budget, sold to the project by a member providing AHP subsidy to the project, or, in the case of property, upon which such member holds a mortgage or lien, may not exceed the market value of such property or services as of the date the purchase price was agreed upon. In the case of real estate owned property sold to a project by a member providing AHP subsidy to the project, or property sold to the project upon which the member holds a mortgage or lien, the market value of such property is deemed to be the “as-is” or “as-rehabilitated” value of the property, whichever is appropriate. That value shall be reflected in an independent appraisal of the property performed by a state certified or licensed appraiser, as defined in 12 CFR 564.2(j) and (k), within 6 months prior to the date the Bank disburses AHP subsidy to the project.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Financing costs.</I> The rate of interest, points, fees, and any other charges for all loans that are made for the project in conjunction with the AHP subsidy shall not exceed a reasonable market rate of interest, points, fees, and other charges for loans of similar maturity, terms, and risk.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Counseling costs.</I> Counseling costs, provided:
</P>
<P>(i) Such costs are incurred in connection with counseling of homebuyers who actually purchase an AHP-assisted unit; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost of the counseling has not been covered by another funding source, including the member.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Refinancing.</I> Refinancing of an existing single-family or multifamily mortgage loan, provided that the refinancing produces equity proceeds and such equity proceeds up to the amount of the AHP subsidy in the project shall be used only for the purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of housing units meeting the eligibility requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Calculation of AHP subsidy.</I> (i) Where an AHP direct subsidy is provided to a project to write down the interest rate on a loan extended by a member, sponsor, or other party to a project, the net present value of the interest foregone from making the loan below the lender's market interest rate shall be calculated as of the date the application for AHP subsidy is submitted to the Bank, and subject to adjustment under § 1291.30(d).
</P>
<P>(ii) Where an AHP subsidized advance is provided to a project, the net present value of the interest revenue foregone from making a subsidized advance at a rate below the Bank's cost of funds shall be determined as of the earlier of the date of disbursement of the subsidized advance or the date prior to disbursement on which the Bank first manages the funding to support the subsidized advance through its asset/liability management system, or otherwise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibited uses of AHP subsidy.</I> AHP subsidy may not be used to pay for:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Certain prepayment fees.</I> Prepayment fees imposed by a Bank on a member for a subsidized advance that is prepaid, unless:
</P>
<P>(i) The project is in financial distress that cannot be remedied through a project modification pursuant to § 1291.29;
</P>
<P>(ii) The prepayment of the subsidized advance is necessary to retain the project's affordability and income targeting commitments;
</P>
<P>(iii) Subsequent to such prepayment, the project will continue to comply with the terms of the approved AHP application and the requirements of this part for the duration of the original retention period;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any unused AHP subsidy is returned to the Bank and made available for other AHP projects or households; and
</P>
<P>(v) The amount of AHP subsidy used for the prepayment fee may not exceed the amount of the member's prepayment fee to the Bank;
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Cancellation fees.</I> Cancellation fees and penalties imposed by a Bank on a member for a subsidized advance commitment that is canceled;
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Processing fees.</I> Processing fees charged by members for providing AHP direct subsidies to a project; or
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Reserves and certain expenses.</I> Capitalized reserves, periodic deposits to reserve accounts, operating expenses, or supportive services expenses.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Optional Bank district eligibility requirements.</I> A Bank may require a project receiving AHP subsidies to meet one or more of the following additional eligibility requirements adopted by the Bank's board of directors and included in its AHP Implementation Plan after consultation with its Advisory Council:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>AHP subsidy limits.</I> A requirement that the amount of AHP subsidy requested for the project does not exceed limits established by the Bank as to the maximum amount of AHP subsidy available per member, per project sponsor, per project, or per project unit in a single AHP funding round. Each General Fund or Targeted Fund may contain up to all four of these optional AHP subsidy limits, each of which must apply to all applicants to the specific Fund. A Bank's AHP subsidy limit per member must be the same for each of its Funds and its AHP subsidy limit per project sponsor must be the same for each of its Funds, but a Bank's AHP subsidy limit per project and per project unit may differ among the Funds.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Homebuyer or homeowner counseling.</I> A requirement that a household must complete a homebuyer or homeowner counseling program provided by, or based on one provided by, an organization recognized as experienced in homebuyer or homeowner counseling, respectively.
</P>
<P>(d)<I> Applications to multiple Funds—subsidy amount.</I> If an application for a project is submitted to more than one Fund at the same time, the application for each Fund must be for the same amount of AHP subsidy.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.25" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.25   Scoring methodologies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) <I>Written scoring methodologies.</I> A Bank shall establish a written scoring methodology for its General Fund and for any Targeted Fund setting forth the Bank's scoring point allocations as required in paragraph (a)(2) of this section, scoring criteria adopted pursuant to the requirements of §§ 1291.26 and 1291.27, as applicable, and related definitions. The scoring methodology for each Fund may be different. A Bank shall not adopt scoring points allocations or scoring criteria for its General Fund and any Targeted Funds except as specifically authorized under this paragraph (a)(1) and §§ 1291.26 and 1291.27, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scoring points allocations</I>—(i) <I>General Fund.</I> A Bank shall allocate 100 points among all of the scoring criteria adopted by the Bank for its General Fund pursuant to § 1291.26. The scoring criterion for targeting in § 1291.26(d) shall be allocated at least 20 points. The remaining scoring criteria shall be allocated at least 5 points each, except that if a Bank adopts the scoring criterion for home purchase by low- or moderate-income households in § 1291.26(c) as an optional scoring criterion, the Bank may allocate fewer than the full 5 points to it, with the remainder of such points allocated to one or a combination of the other scoring criteria in § 1291.26 other than to the scoring criterion for Bank district priorities in § 1291.26(h). If a Bank adopts a scoring criterion under its Bank district priorities for housing located in the Bank's district, the Bank may not allocate points to the scoring criterion in a way that excludes all out-of-district projects from its General Fund.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Targeted Funds.</I> A Bank shall allocate 100 points among all of the scoring criteria adopted by the Bank for each Targeted Fund pursuant to § 1291.27. A Bank may not allocate more than 50 points to any one scoring criterion for a Targeted Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fixed-point and variable-point scoring criteria.</I> A Bank shall designate each scoring criterion as either a fixed-point or a variable-point criterion, defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Fixed-point scoring criteria are those that cannot be satisfied in varying degrees and are either satisfied or not, with the total number of points allocated to the criterion awarded by the Bank to an application meeting the criterion; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Variable-point criteria are those where there are varying degrees to which an application can satisfy the criteria, with the number of points that may be awarded to an application for meeting the criterion varying, depending on the extent to which the application satisfies the criterion, based on a fixed scale or on a scale relative to the other applications being scored. A Bank shall designate the targeting scoring criterion in § 1291.26(d) as a variable-point criterion.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Satisfaction of scoring criteria.</I> A Bank shall award scoring points to applications to a particular Fund based on satisfaction of the scoring criteria in the Bank's scoring methodology for that Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Scoring tied applications.</I> A Bank shall establish and implement, as necessary, a scoring tie-breaker policy to address the case of two or more applications to its General Fund or any Targeted Fund receiving identical scores in the same AHP funding round and there is insufficient AHP subsidy to approve all of the tied applications but sufficient subsidy to approve one of them. A Bank shall meet the following requirements in establishing its scoring tie-breaker policy:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank shall consult with its Advisory Council prior to adoption of its policy;
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank shall adopt the policy in advance of an AHP funding round and include it in its AHP Implementation Plan;
</P>
<P>(3) The policy shall include the methodology used to break a scoring tie, which may differ for each Fund, and which shall be selected from the particular Fund's scoring criteria adopted in the Bank's AHP Implementation Plan;
</P>
<P>(4) The scoring tie-breaker methodology shall be reasonable, transparent, verifiable, and impartial;
</P>
<P>(5) The scoring tie-breaker methodology shall be used solely to break a scoring tie and may not affect the eligibility of the applications, including financial feasibility, or their scores and resultant rankings;
</P>
<P>(6) The Bank shall approve a tied application as an alternate pursuant to § 1291.28(b) if the application does not prevail under the scoring tie-breaker methodology, or if the application is tied with another application but requested more subsidy than the amount of AHP funds that remain to be awarded, if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding under the applicable Fund; and
</P>
<P>(7) The Bank shall document in writing its analysis and results for each use of the scoring tie-breaker methodology.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.26" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.26   Scoring criteria for the General Fund.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall adopt in its scoring methodology for its General Fund all of the following categories of scoring criteria, including at least one housing need under each of paragraphs (e), (f), and (g) of this section, except that a Bank is not required to adopt the scoring criterion for homeownership by low- or moderate-income households in paragraph (c) of this section if the Bank allocates at least 10 percent of its required annual AHP contribution to any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, and a Bank is not required to adopt the scoring criterion for Bank district priorities in paragraph (h) of this section:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Use of donated or conveyed government-owned or other properties.</I> The financing of housing using a significant proportion, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, of:
</P>
<P>(1) Land or units donated or conveyed by the federal government or any agency or instrumentality thereof; or
</P>
<P>(2) Land or units donated or conveyed by any other party for an amount significantly below the fair market value of the property, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sponsorship by a not-for-profit organization or government entity.</I> Project sponsorship by a not-for-profit organization, a state or political subdivision of a state, a state housing agency, a local housing authority, a Native American Tribe, an Alaskan Native Village, or the government entity for Native Hawaiian Home Lands.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Home purchase by low- or moderate-income households.</I> The financing of home purchases by low- or moderate-income households.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Income targeting.</I> The extent to which a project provides housing for very low- and low- or moderate-income households, as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Rental projects.</I> An application for a rental project shall be awarded the maximum number of points available under this scoring criterion if 60 percent or more of the units in the project are reserved for occupancy by households with incomes at or below 50 percent of the median income for the area. Applications for projects with less than 60 percent of the units reserved for occupancy by households with incomes at or below 50 percent of the median income for the area shall be awarded points on a declining scale based on the percentage of units in a project that are reserved for households with incomes at or below 50 percent of the median income for the area, and on the percentage of the remaining units reserved for households with incomes at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Owner-occupied projects.</I> Applications for owner-occupied projects shall be awarded points based on a declining scale to be determined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, taking into consideration percentages of units and targeted income levels.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Separate scoring.</I> For purposes of this scoring criterion, applications for owner-occupied projects and rental projects may be scored separately.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Underserved communities and populations.</I> The financing of housing for underserved communities or populations, by addressing one or more of the following specific housing needs:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Housing for homeless households.</I> The financing of rental housing, excluding overnight shelters, reserving at least 20 percent of the units for homeless households, the creation of transitional housing for homeless households permitting a minimum of 6 months occupancy, or the creation of permanent owner-occupied housing reserving at least 20 percent of the units for homeless households, with the term “homeless households” defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Housing for special needs populations.</I> The financing of housing in which at least 20 percent of the units are reserved for households with specific special needs, such as: The elderly; persons with disabilities; formerly incarcerated persons; persons recovering from physical abuse or alcohol or drug abuse; victims of domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault or stalking; persons with HIV/AIDS; or unaccompanied youth; or the financing of housing that is visitable by persons with physical disabilities who are not occupants of such housing. A Bank may, in its discretion, adopt a requirement that projects provide supportive services, or access to supportive services, for specific special needs populations identified by the Bank in order for the project to receive scoring points under this paragraph (e)(2).
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Housing for other targeted populations.</I> The financing of housing in which at least 20 percent of the units are reserved for households specifically in need of housing, such as agricultural workers, military veterans, Native Americans, households requiring large units, or kinship care households in which children are in the care of cohabitating relatives, such as grandparents, aunts or uncles, or cohabitating close family friends.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Housing in rural areas.</I> The financing of housing located in a rural area, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Rental housing for extremely low-income households.</I> The financing of rental housing in which a minimum percentage of the units, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, are reserved for extremely low-income households. Points awarded under this criterion shall be awarded in addition to any points awarded for income targeting under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, such that the points awarded to a project under this criterion and the income targeting criterion, combined, may exceed the maximum number of possible points awarded under the income targeting criterion.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Other.</I> The financing of other housing addressing specific housing needs of underserved communities or populations as FHFA may provide by guidance.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Creating economic opportunity.</I> The financing of housing that facilitates economic opportunity for the residents by addressing one or more of the following specific housing needs:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Promotion of empowerment.</I> The provision of housing in combination with a program offering services that assist residents in attaining life skills or moving toward better economic opportunities, such as: Employment; education; training; homebuyer, homeownership or tenant counseling; child care; adult daycare services; afterschool care; tutoring; health services, including mental health and behavioral health services; resident involvement in decision making affecting the creation or operation of the project; or workforce preparation and integration.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Residential economic diversity.</I> The financing of either affordable housing in a high opportunity area, or mixed-income housing in an area designated by the Bank, with those terms defined and area designated by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Other.</I> The financing of other housing that facilitates economic opportunity as FHFA may provide by guidance.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Community stability, including affordable housing preservation.</I> The promotion of community stability, such as by preserving affordable housing, rehabilitating vacant or abandoned properties, or being an integral part of a community revitalization or economic development strategy approved by a unit of state or local government or instrumentality thereof, and not displacing low- or moderate-income households, or if such displacement will occur, assuring that such households will be assisted to minimize the impact of such displacement.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bank district priorities.</I> The satisfaction of one or more housing needs in the Bank's district, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, that the Bank has not otherwise adopted under this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.27" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.27   Scoring criteria for Targeted Funds.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall adopt in its scoring methodology for each Targeted Fund established by the Bank at least three different scoring criteria, as determined by the Bank in its discretion, that allow the Bank to select applications that meet the specific affordable housing need or needs being addressed by the Targeted Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.28" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.28   Approval of AHP applications under the General Fund and Targeted Funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Approval of AHP applications.</I> Subject to the requirements in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this section, a Bank shall approve applications for AHP subsidy under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds that meet all of the applicable AHP eligibility requirements in this part in descending order, starting with the highest scoring application until the total funding amount for the particular AHP funding round, except for any amount insufficient to fund the next highest scoring application, has been approved.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHP application alternates.</I> For the General Fund and any Targeted Funds, the Bank also may, in its discretion, approve a specified number, as determined by the Bank, of the next highest scoring applications as alternates eligible for funding, and may approve any tied applications as alternates eligible for funding pursuant to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if any previously committed AHP subsidies become available, pursuant to a written policy on approving alternates for funding established by the Bank and included in the Bank's AHP Implementation Plan. If a Bank has established such a policy for approving alternates for funding and sufficient previously committed AHP subsidies become available within one year of application approval, the Bank shall approve the designated alternates for funding within that one-year period.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Tied applications.</I> (1) Where two or more applications to a General Fund or Targeted Fund have identical scores in the same AHP funding round and there is insufficient AHP subsidy to approve all of the tied applications but sufficient subsidy to approve one of them, a Bank shall approve the tied application that prevails under the Bank's scoring tie-breaker methodology in its policy adopted pursuant to § 1291.25(c).
</P>
<P>(2) A tied application that does not prevail under the Bank's scoring tie-breaker methodology, or is tied with another application but requested more subsidy than the amount of AHP funds that remain to be awarded under the Fund, shall be approved as an alternate for funding if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding under the Fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Applications to multiple Funds—approval under one Fund.</I> If an application for the same project is submitted to more than one Fund at a Bank in a calendar year and the application scores high enough to be approved under each Fund, the Bank shall approve the application under only one of the Funds pursuant to the Bank's policy established in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No delegation.</I> A Bank's board of directors may not delegate to Bank officers or other Bank employees the responsibility to approve or disapprove the AHP subsidy applications, as well as any alternates under the Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Fund if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding under such Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.29" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.29   Modifications of approved AHP applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Modification procedure.</I> If, prior to or after final disbursement of funds to a project from all funding sources, in order to remedy noncompliance or receive additional subsidy, there is or will be a change in the project that would change the score that the project application received in the AHP funding round in which it was originally scored and approved, had the changed facts been operative at that time, a Bank shall approve in writing a request for a modification to the terms of the approved application, provided that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank first requests that the project sponsor or owner make a reasonable effort to cure any noncompliance within a reasonable period of time, and the noncompliance could not be cured within a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) The project, incorporating any such changes, would meet the eligibility requirements of this part;
</P>
<P>(3) The application, as reflective of such changes, continues to score high enough to have been approved in the AHP funding round in which the application was originally scored and approved by the Bank, which is as high as the lowest ranking alternate approved for funding by the Bank if the Bank has a written policy to approve alternates for funding; and
</P>
<P>(4) There is good cause for the modification, which may not be solely remediation of noncompliance, and the analysis and justification for the modification, including why a cure of noncompliance was not successful or attempted, are documented by the Bank in writing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>AHP subsidy increases; no delegation</I>—(1) <I>AHP subsidy increases.</I> A Bank's board of directors may, in its discretion, approve or disapprove requests for modifications involving an increase in AHP subsidy in accordance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>No delegation.</I> The authority to approve or disapprove requests for modifications involving an increase in AHP subsidy shall not be delegated by the Bank's board of directors to Bank officers or other Bank employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.30" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.30   Procedures for funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disbursement of AHP subsidies to members.</I> (1) A Bank may disburse AHP subsidies only to institutions that are members of the Bank at the time they request a draw-down of the subsidies.
</P>
<P>(2) If an institution with an approved application for AHP subsidy loses its membership in a Bank, the Bank may disburse AHP subsidies to a member of such Bank to which the institution has transferred its obligations under the approved AHP application, or the Bank may disburse AHP subsidies through another Bank to a member of that Bank that has assumed the institution's obligations under the approved AHP application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Progress towards use of AHP subsidy.</I> A Bank shall establish and implement policies, including time limits, for determining whether progress is being made towards draw-down and use of AHP subsidies by approved projects, and whether to cancel AHP application approvals for lack of such progress. If a Bank cancels any AHP application approvals due to lack of such progress, the Bank shall make the AHP subsidies available for other AHP-eligible projects or households.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance upon disbursement of AHP subsidies.</I> A Bank shall establish and implement policies for determining, prior to its initial disbursement of AHP subsidy for an approved project, and prior to each subsequent disbursement, that the project meets the eligibility requirements of this part and all obligations committed to in the approved AHP application. If a Bank cancels any AHP application approvals due to noncompliance with eligibility requirements of this part, the Bank shall make the AHP subsidies available for other AHP-eligible projects or households.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Changes in approved AHP subsidy amount where a direct subsidy is used to write down prior to closing the principal amount or interest rate on a loan.</I> If a member is approved to receive AHP direct subsidy to write down prior to closing the principal amount or the interest rate on a loan to a project, and the amount of AHP subsidy required to maintain the debt service cost for the loan decreases from the amount of AHP subsidy initially approved by the Bank due to a decrease in market interest rates between the time of approval and the time the lender commits to the interest rate to finance the project, the Bank shall reduce the AHP subsidy amount accordingly. If market interest rates rise between the time of approval and the time the lender commits to the interest rate to finance the project, the Bank, in its discretion, may increase the AHP subsidy amount accordingly.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>AHP outlay adjustment.</I> If a Bank reduces the amount of AHP subsidy approved for a project, the amount of such reduction shall be returned to the Bank's AHP fund. If a Bank increases the amount of AHP subsidy approved for a project, the amount of such increase shall be drawn first from any currently uncommitted or repaid AHP subsidies and then from the Bank's required AHP contribution for the next year.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Project sponsor notification of re-use of repaid AHP direct subsidy.</I> Prior to disbursement by a project sponsor of AHP direct subsidy repaid to and retained by such project sponsor pursuant to a subsidy re-use program authorized by the Bank under § 1291.64(b), the project sponsor shall provide written notice to the member and the Bank of its intent to disburse the repaid AHP subsidy to a household satisfying the requirements of this part and the commitments made in the approved AHP application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.31" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.31   Lending and re-lending of AHP direct subsidy by revolving loan funds.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to written policies established by a Bank's board of directors after consultation with its Advisory Council, a Bank, in its discretion, may provide AHP direct subsidy under its General Fund or any Targeted Funds for eligible projects and households involving both the lending of the subsidy and subsequent lending of subsidy principal and interest repayments by a revolving loan fund, provided the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Submission of application.</I> (1) An application for AHP subsidy under this section shall include the revolving loan fund's criteria for the initial lending of the subsidy, identification of and information on a specific proposed AHP project if required in the Bank's discretion, the revolving loan fund's criteria for subsequent lending of subsidy principal and interest repayments, and any other information required by the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) The information in the application shall be sufficient for the Bank to:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Determine that the criteria for the initial lending of the subsidy, the specific proposed project if applicable, and the criteria for subsequent lending of subsidy principal and interest repayments, meet the eligibility requirements of § 1291.23; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Evaluate the criteria for the initial lending of the subsidy, and the specific proposed project if applicable, pursuant to the scoring methodology established by the Bank pursuant to §§ 1291.25, 1291.26, and 1291.27, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Review of application.</I> A Bank shall review the application for AHP subsidy to determine that the criteria for the initial lending of the subsidy, the specific proposed project if applicable, and the criteria for subsequent lending of subsidy principal and interest repayments, meet the eligibility requirements of § 1291.23, and shall evaluate the criteria for the initial lending of the subsidy and the specific proposed project, if applicable, pursuant to the scoring methodology established by the Bank pursuant to §§ 1291.25, 1291.26, and 1291.27, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial lending of subsidy.</I> (1) The revolving loan fund's initial lending of the AHP subsidy shall meet the eligibility requirements of paragraph (a) of this section, shall be to projects or households meeting the commitments in the approved application for AHP subsidy, and shall be subject to the requirements in §§ 1291.15 and 1291.50, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) If an owner-occupied unit or project funded under this paragraph (c) is in noncompliance with the commitments in the approved AHP application, or is sold or refinanced prior to the end of the applicable AHP retention period, the required amount of AHP subsidy shall be repaid to the revolving loan fund in accordance with §§ 1291.15(a)(7), 1291.15(a)(8), and 1291.60, and the revolving loan fund shall re-lend such repaid subsidy, excluding the amounts of AHP subsidy principal already repaid to the revolving loan fund, to another owner-occupied unit or project meeting the initial lending requirements of this paragraph (c) for the remainder of the retention period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Subsequent lending of AHP subsidy principal and interest repayments.</I> (1) AHP subsidy principal and interest repayments received by the revolving loan fund from the initial lending of the AHP direct subsidy shall be re-lent by the revolving loan fund in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (d), except that the revolving loan fund, in its discretion, may provide part or all of such repayments as nonrepayable grants to eligible projects in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(2) The revolving loan fund's subsequent lending of AHP subsidy principal and interest repayments shall be for the purchase, construction, or rehabilitation of owner-occupied projects for households with incomes at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area, or of rental projects where at least 20 percent of the units are occupied by and affordable for households with incomes at or below 50 percent of the median income for the area, and shall meet all other eligibility requirements of this paragraph (d).
</P>
<P>(3) A Bank may, in its discretion, require the revolving loan fund's subsequent lending of subsidy principal and interest repayments to be subject to retention period, monitoring, and recapture requirements, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Return of unused AHP subsidy.</I> The revolving loan fund shall return to the Bank any AHP subsidy that will not be used according to the requirements in this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.32" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.3.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.32   Use of AHP subsidy in loan pools.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to written policies established by a Bank's board of directors after consultation with its Advisory Council, a Bank, in its discretion, may provide AHP subsidy under its General Fund or any Targeted Funds for the origination of first mortgage or rehabilitation loans with subsidized interest rates to AHP-eligible households through a purchase commitment by an entity that will purchase and pool the loans, provided the following requirements are met:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> The loan pool sponsor's use of the AHP subsidies shall meet the requirements under this section, and shall not be used for the purpose of providing liquidity to the originator or holder of the loans, or paying the loan pool's operating or secondary market transaction costs.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Forward commitment.</I> (1) The loan pool sponsor shall purchase the loans pursuant to a forward commitment that identifies the loans to be originated with interest-rate reductions as specified in the approved application for AHP subsidy to households with incomes at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area. Both initial purchases of loans for the AHP loan pool and subsequent purchases of loans to substitute for repaid loans in the pool shall be made pursuant to the terms of such forward commitment and subject to time limits on the use of the AHP subsidy as specified by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan and the Bank's agreement with the loan pool sponsor, which shall not exceed one year from the date of approval of the AHP application.
</P>
<P>(2) As an alternative to using a forward commitment, the loan pool sponsor may purchase an initial round of loans that were not originated pursuant to an AHP-specific forward commitment, provided that the entities from which the loans were purchased are required to use the proceeds from the initial loan purchases within time limits on the use of the AHP subsidy as specified by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan and the Bank's agreement with the loan pool sponsor, which shall not exceed one year from the date of approval of the AHP application. The proceeds shall be used by such entities to assist households that are income-eligible under the approved AHP application during subsequent rounds of lending, and such assistance shall be provided in the form of a below-market AHP-subsidized interest rate as specified in the approved AHP application.
</P>
<P>(c) Each AHP-assisted owner-occupied unit and rental project receiving AHP direct subsidy or a subsidized advance shall be subject to the requirements of §§ 1291.15, 1291.50, and 1291.60, respectively.
</P>
<P>(d) Where AHP direct subsidy is being used to buy down the interest rate of a loan or loans from a member or other party, the loan pool sponsor shall use the full amount of the AHP direct subsidy to buy down the interest rate on a permanent basis at the time of closing on such loan or loans.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Homeownership Set-Aside Programs</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.40" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.40   Establishment of programs.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank may establish, in its discretion, one or more Homeownership Set-Aside Programs pursuant to the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.41" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.41   Eligible applicants.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall accept applications for AHP direct subsidy under its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs only from institutions that are members of the Bank at the time the application is submitted to the Bank.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.42" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.42   Eligibility requirements.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Programs shall meet the eligibility requirements set forth in this section. A Bank may not adopt additional eligibility requirements for its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs except for eligible households pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Member allocation criteria.</I> AHP direct subsidies shall be provided to members pursuant to allocation criteria established by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligible households.</I> Members shall provide AHP direct subsidies only to households that:
</P>
<P>(1) Have incomes at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area at the time the household is accepted for enrollment by the member in the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, with such time of enrollment by the member defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan;
</P>
<P>(2) Complete a homebuyer or homeowner counseling program provided by, or based on one provided by, an organization experienced in homebuyer or homeowner counseling, in the case of households that are first-time homebuyers; and
</P>
<P>(3) Are first-time homebuyers or households receiving AHP subsidy for owner-occupied rehabilitation, in the case of households receiving subsidy pursuant to the one-third set-aside funding allocation requirement in § 1291.12(b), and meet such other eligibility criteria that may be established by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, such as a matching funds requirement, homebuyer or homeowner counseling requirement for households that are not first-time homebuyers, or criteria that give priority for the purchase or rehabilitation of housing in particular areas or as part of a disaster relief effort.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maximum grant limit.</I> Members shall provide AHP direct subsidies to households as a grant, in an amount up to a maximum established by the Bank, not to exceed $22,000 per household, which limit shall adjust upward on an annual basis in accordance with increases in FHFA's House Price Index (HPI). In the event of a decrease in the HPI, the subsidy limit shall remain at its then-current amount until the HPI increases above the subsidy limit, at which point the subsidy limit shall adjust to that higher amount. FHFA will notify the Banks annually of the maximum subsidy limit, based on the HPI. A Bank may establish a different maximum grant limit, up to the maximum grant limit, for each Homeownership Set-Aside Program it establishes. A Bank's maximum grant limit for each such program shall be included in its AHP Implementation Plan, which limit shall apply to all households in the specific program for which it is established.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Eligible uses of AHP direct subsidy.</I> Households shall use the AHP direct subsidies to pay for down payment, closing cost, counseling, or rehabilitation assistance in connection with the household's purchase or rehabilitation of an owner-occupied unit, including a condominium or cooperative housing unit or manufactured housing, to be used as the household's primary residence.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Retention agreement.</I> An owner-occupied unit purchased, or purchased in conjunction with rehabilitation, using AHP direct subsidy, shall be subject to a five-year retention agreement described in § 1291.15(a)(7).
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Financial or other concessions.</I> The Bank may, in its discretion, require members and other lenders to provide financial or other concessions, as defined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, to households in connection with providing the AHP direct subsidy or financing to the household.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Financing costs.</I> The rate of interest, points, fees, and any other charges for all loans made in conjunction with the AHP direct subsidy shall not exceed a reasonable market rate of interest, points, fees, and other charges for loans of similar maturity, terms, and risk.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Counseling costs.</I> The AHP direct subsidies may be used to pay for counseling costs only where:
</P>
<P>(1) Such costs are incurred in connection with counseling of homebuyers who actually purchase an AHP-assisted unit; and
</P>
<P>(2) The cost of the counseling has not been covered by another funding source, including the member.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Cash back to household.</I> A member may provide cash back to a household at closing on the mortgage loan in an amount not exceeding $250, as determined by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, and a member shall use any AHP direct subsidy exceeding such amount that is beyond what is needed at closing for closing costs and the approved mortgage amount as a credit to reduce the principal of the mortgage loan or as a credit toward the household's monthly payments on the mortgage loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.43" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.43   Approval of AHP applications.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall approve applications for AHP direct subsidy under its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs in accordance with the Bank's criteria governing the allocation of funds.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.44" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.44   Procedures for funding.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Disbursement of AHP direct subsidies to members.</I> (1) A Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies under its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs only to institutions that are members of the Bank at the time they request a draw-down of the subsidies.
</P>
<P>(2) If an institution with an approved application for AHP direct subsidy loses its membership in a Bank, the Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies to a member of such Bank to which the institution has transferred its obligations under the approved AHP application, or the Bank may disburse AHP direct subsidies through another Bank to a member of that Bank that has assumed the institution's obligations under the approved AHP application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reservation of Homeownership Set-Aside Program subsidies.</I> A Bank shall establish and implement policies for reservation of set-aside subsidies for households enrolled in the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Programs. The policies shall provide that set-aside subsidies be reserved no more than two years in advance of the Bank's time limit in its AHP Implementation Plan for draw-down and use of the subsidies by the household and the reservation of subsidies be made from the allocation for the Homeownership Set-Aside Programs for the year in which the Bank makes the reservation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Progress towards use of AHP direct subsidy.</I> A Bank shall establish and implement policies, including time limits, for determining whether progress is being made towards draw-down and use of the AHP direct subsidies by eligible households, and whether to cancel AHP application approvals for lack of such progress. If a Bank cancels any AHP application approvals due to lack of such progress, it shall make the AHP direct subsidies available for other applicants for AHP direct subsidies under the Homeownership Set-Aside Programs or for other AHP-eligible projects.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Monitoring</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.50" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.50   Monitoring under the General Fund and Targeted Funds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Initial monitoring policies for owner-occupied and rental projects.</I> A Bank shall adopt written policies pursuant to which the Bank shall monitor each AHP owner-occupied project and rental project approved under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds prior to, and within a reasonable period of time after, project completion to verify, at a minimum, satisfaction of the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Satisfactory progress.</I> The Bank shall determine that:
</P>
<P>(i) The project is making satisfactory progress towards completion, in compliance with the commitments made in the approved AHP application, Bank policies, and the requirements of this part; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Following completion of the project, satisfactory progress is being made towards occupancy of the project by eligible households.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Project sponsor or owner certification, rent roll and other documentation; backup and other project documentation.</I> Within a reasonable period of time after project completion, the Bank shall review a certification from the project sponsor or owner, the project rent roll (which includes household incomes and rents), and any other documentation to verify that the project meets the following requirements, at a minimum:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) The AHP subsidies were used for eligible purposes according to the commitments made in the approved AHP application;
</P>
<P>(ii) The household incomes and rents comply with the income targeting and rent commitments made in the approved AHP application;
</P>
<P>(iii) The project's costs were reasonable in accordance with the Bank's project cost guidelines, and the AHP subsidies were necessary for the completion of the project as currently structured, as determined pursuant to § 1291.24(a)(4);
</P>
<P>(iv) Each AHP-assisted unit of an owner-occupied project and rental project is subject to an AHP retention agreement that meets the requirements of § 1291.15(a)(7) and (8), respectively; and
</P>
<P>(v) The services and activities committed in the approved AHP application have been provided.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Back-up and other project documentation.</I> The Bank's written monitoring policies shall include requirements for:
</P>
<P>(i) Bank review within a reasonable period of time after project completion of back-up project documentation regarding household incomes and rents (not including the rent roll) maintained by the project sponsor or owner, except for projects that received funds from other federal, state or local government entities whose programs meet the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section as specified in separate FHFA guidance, or projects that have also been allocated LIHTC; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Maintenance and Bank review of other project documentation in the Bank's discretion.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sampling plan.</I> The Bank shall not use a sampling plan to select the projects to be monitored under this paragraph (a), but may use a reasonable risk-based sampling plan to review the back-up project documentation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Long-term monitoring—reliance on other governmental monitoring for certain rental projects.</I> For completed AHP rental projects that also received funds from federal, state, or local government entities other than LIHTC, a Bank may, in its discretion, for purposes of long-term AHP monitoring under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds, rely on the monitoring by such entities of the income targeting and rent requirements applicable under their programs, provided that the Bank can show that:
</P>
<P>(1) The compliance profiles regarding income targeting, rent, and retention period requirements of the AHP and the other programs are substantively equivalent;
</P>
<P>(2) The entity has demonstrated and continues to demonstrate its ability to monitor the project;
</P>
<P>(3) The entity agrees to provide reports to the Bank on the project's incomes and rents for the full 15-year AHP retention period; and
</P>
<P>(4) The Bank reviews the reports from the monitoring entity to confirm that they comply with the Bank's monitoring policies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Long-term monitoring policies for rental projects.</I> In cases where a Bank does not rely on monitoring by a federal, state, or local government entity pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, pursuant to written policies established by the Bank, the Bank shall monitor completed AHP rental projects approved under its General Fund and any Targeted Funds, commencing in the second year after project completion through the AHP 15-year retention period, to verify, at a minimum, satisfaction of the requirements in this section.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Annual project sponsor or owner certifications; backup and other project documentation.</I> A Bank's written monitoring policies shall include requirements for:
</P>
<P>(i) Bank review of all annual certifications to the Bank by project sponsors or owners, other than sponsors or owners of projects that have been allocated LIHTCs, that household incomes and rents are in compliance with the commitments made in the approved AHP application during the AHP 15-year retention period, along with information on the ongoing financial viability of the project, including whether the project is current on its property taxes and loan payments, its vacancy rate, and whether it is in compliance with its commitments to other funding sources;
</P>
<P>(ii) Bank review of back-up project documentation regarding household incomes and rents, including the rent rolls, maintained by the project sponsor or owner, except for projects that also received funds from other federal, state or local government entities whose programs meet the requirements in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section as specified in separate FHFA guidance, or projects that have been allocated LIHTC, provided that the Bank shall review any LIHTC noncompliance notices received from project owners pursuant to § 1291.15(a)(5)(ii) during the AHP 15-year retention period; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Maintenance and Bank review of other project documentation in the Banks' discretion.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Risk factors and other monitoring</I>—(i) <I>Risk factors; other monitoring.</I> A Bank's written monitoring policies shall take into account risk factors such as the amount of AHP subsidy in the project, type of project, size of project, location of project, sponsor experience and performance, and any monitoring of the project provided by a federal, state, or local government entity.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Risk-based sampling plan.</I> A Bank may use a reasonable, risk-based sampling plan to select the rental projects to be monitored under this paragraph (c), and to review the back-up and any other project documentation. The risk-based sampling plan and its basis shall be in writing.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Annual adjustment of targeting commitments.</I> For purposes of determining compliance with the targeting commitments in an approved AHP application for both initial and long-term AHP monitoring purposes under a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds, such commitments shall be considered to adjust annually according to the current applicable median income data. A rental unit may continue to count toward meeting the targeting commitment of an approved AHP application as long as the rent charged to a household remains affordable, as defined in § 1291.1, for the household occupying the unit.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.51" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.51   Monitoring under Homeownership Set-Aside Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Adoption and implementation.</I> Pursuant to written policies adopted by a Bank, the Bank shall monitor compliance with the requirements of its Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, including monitoring to determine, at a minimum, whether:
</P>
<P>(1) The AHP subsidy was provided to households meeting all applicable eligibility requirements in § 1291.42(b) and the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Program policies; and
</P>
<P>(2) All other applicable eligibility requirements in § 1291.42 and the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Program policies are met, including that the AHP-assisted units are subject to retention agreements, as required under § 1291.15(a)(7), where the AHP subsidy was used for purchase of the unit, or for purchase of the unit in conjunction with rehabilitation.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Member certifications; back-up and other documentation.</I> The Bank's written monitoring policies shall include requirements for:
</P>
<P>(1) Bank review of certifications by members to the Bank, prior to disbursement of the AHP subsidy, that the subsidy will be provided in compliance with all applicable eligibility requirements in § 1291.42;
</P>
<P>(2) Bank review of back-up documentation regarding household incomes maintained by the member; and
</P>
<P>(3) Maintenance and Bank review of other documentation in the Bank's discretion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Sampling plan.</I> The Bank may use a reasonable sampling plan to select the households to be monitored, and to review the back-up and any other documentation received by the Bank, but not the member certifications required in paragraph (b) of this section. The sampling plan and its basis shall be in writing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Remedial Actions for Noncompliance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.60" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.60   Remedial actions for project noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope.</I> This section sets forth the requirements applicable to the Banks in the event of noncompliance by an AHP-assisted project with the commitments made in its application for AHP subsidies and the requirements of this part, including any use of AHP subsidy by the project sponsor or owner for purposes other than those committed to in the AHP application. This section does not apply to individual AHP-assisted households or to the sale or refinancing by such households of their homes.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Elimination of project noncompliance</I>—(1) <I>Cure.</I> In the event of project noncompliance, the Bank shall request that the project sponsor or owner make a reasonable effort to cure the noncompliance within a reasonable period of time. If the noncompliance cannot be cured within a reasonable period of time, the requirements for project modification in paragraph (b)(2) of this section shall apply. If the noncompliance is cured within a reasonable period of time, the Bank shall not require the project sponsor or owner to repay AHP subsidy to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Project modification.</I> If the project sponsor or owner cannot cure the noncompliance within a reasonable period of time, the Bank shall determine whether the circumstances of the noncompliance can be eliminated through a modification of the terms of the AHP application pursuant to § 1291.29. When the circumstances of the noncompliance can be eliminated through a modification, the Bank shall approve the modification and shall not require the project sponsor or owner to repay AHP subsidy to the Bank.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Reasonable collection efforts</I>—(1) <I>Demand for repayment.</I> If the circumstances of a project's noncompliance cannot be eliminated through a cure or modification, the Bank, or the member if delegated the responsibility, shall make a demand on the project sponsor or owner for repayment of the full amount of the AHP subsidy not used in compliance with the commitments in the AHP application or the requirements of this part (plus interest, if appropriate). If the noncompliance is occupancy by households with incomes exceeding the income-targeting commitments in the AHP application, the amount of AHP subsidy due is calculated based on the number of units in noncompliance, the length of the noncompliance, and the portion of the AHP subsidy attributable to the noncompliant units.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Settlement.</I> (i) If the demand for repayment of the full amount due is unsuccessful, the Bank, or the member if delegated the responsibility and in consultation with the Bank, shall make reasonable efforts to collect the subsidy from the project sponsor or owner, which may include settlement for less than the full amount due, taking into account factors such as the financial capacity of the project sponsor or owner, assets securing the AHP subsidy, other assets of the project sponsor or owner, the degree of culpability of the project sponsor or owner, and the extent of the Bank's or member's collection efforts.
</P>
<P>(ii) The settlement with the project sponsor or owner must be supported by sufficient documentation showing that the sum agreed to be repaid under the settlement is reasonably justified, based on the facts and circumstances of the noncompliance, including any factors in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section that were considered in reaching the settlement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.61" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.61   Recovery of subsidy for member noncompliance.</HEAD>
<P>A Bank shall recover from a member the amount of any AHP subsidy (plus interest, if appropriate) not used in compliance with the commitments in the member's AHP application or the requirements of this part as a result of the actions or omissions of the member.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.62" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.62   Bank reimbursement of AHP fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>By the Bank.</I> A Bank shall reimburse its AHP fund in the amount of any AHP subsidies (plus interest, if appropriate) not used in compliance with the commitments in an AHP application or the requirements of this part as a result of the actions or omissions of the Bank.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>By FHFA order.</I> FHFA may order a Bank to reimburse its AHP fund in an appropriate amount upon determining that:
</P>
<P>(1) The Bank has failed to reimburse its AHP fund as required under paragraph (a) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Bank has failed to recover the full amount of AHP subsidy due from a project sponsor, project owner, or member pursuant to the requirements of §§ 1291.60 and 1291.61, and has not shown that such failure is reasonably justified, considering factors such as those in § 1291.60(c)(2)(i).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.63" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.63   Suspension and debarment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>At a Bank's initiative.</I> A Bank may suspend or debar a member, project sponsor, or project owner from participation in the Program if such party shows a pattern of noncompliance, or engages in a single instance of flagrant noncompliance, with the terms of an approved application for AHP subsidy or the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>At FHFA's initiative.</I> FHFA may order a Bank to suspend or debar a member, project sponsor, or project owner from participation in the Program if such party shows a pattern of noncompliance, or engages in a single instance of flagrant noncompliance, with the terms of an approved application for AHP subsidy or the requirements of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.64" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.64   Use of repaid AHP subsidies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Use of repaid AHP subsidies for other AHP-eligible projects or households.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, amounts of AHP subsidy, including any interest, repaid to a Bank pursuant to this part shall be made available by the Bank for other AHP-eligible projects or households.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Re-use of repaid AHP direct subsidies in same project</I> AHP direct subsidy, including any interest, repaid to a member or project sponsor, as applicable, under a Bank's General Fund and any Targeted Funds may be repaid by such parties to the Bank for subsequent disbursement to and re-use by such parties, or retained by such parties for subsequent re-use, as authorized by the Bank, in its discretion, after consultation with its Advisory Council, in its AHP Implementation Plan, provided all of the following requirements are satisfied:
</P>
<P>(1) The member or the project sponsor originally provided the AHP direct subsidy as down payment, closing cost, rehabilitation, or interest rate buy down assistance to an eligible household for purchase, or for purchase in conjunction with rehabilitation, of an owner-occupied unit pursuant to an approved AHP application;
</P>
<P>(2) The AHP direct subsidy, including any interest, was repaid to the member or project sponsor as a result of a sale, transfer, or assignment of title or deed of the unit prior to the end of the retention period to a subsequent purchaser that is not a low- or moderate-income household; and
</P>
<P>(3) The repaid AHP direct subsidy is made available by the member or project sponsor, within the period of time specified by the Bank in its AHP Implementation Plan, to another AHP-eligible household for purchase, or for purchase in conjunction with rehabilitation, of an owner-occupied unit in the same project in accordance with the terms of the approved AHP application.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[83 FR 61231, Nov. 28, 2018, as amended at 87 FR 32969, June 1, 2022]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.65" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.6.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.65   Transfer of Program administration.</HEAD>
<P>Without limitation on other remedies, FHFA, upon determining that a Bank has engaged in mismanagement of its Program, may designate another Bank to administer all or a portion of the first Bank's annual AHP contribution, for the benefit of the first Bank's members, under such terms and conditions as FHFA may prescribe.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Affordable Housing Reserve Fund</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1291.70" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.61.7.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1291.70   Affordable Housing Reserve Fund.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Deposits.</I> If a Bank fails to use or commit the full amount it is required to contribute to the Program in any year pursuant to § 1291.10(a), 90 percent of the unused or uncommitted amount shall be deposited by the Bank in an Affordable Housing Reserve Fund established and administered by FHFA. The remaining 10 percent of the unused and uncommitted amount retained by the Bank should be fully used or committed by the Bank during the following year, and any remaining portion shall be deposited in the Affordable Housing Reserve Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Use or commitment of AHP funds.</I> Approval of applications for AHP funds from members sufficient to exhaust the amount a Bank is required to contribute pursuant to § 1291.10(a) shall constitute use or commitment of funds. Amounts remaining unused or uncommitted at year-end are deemed to be used or committed if, in combination with AHP funds that have been returned to the Bank or de-committed from canceled projects, they are insufficient to fund:
</P>
<P>(1) AHP application alternates in the Bank's final funding round of the year for its General Fund or any Targeted Funds, if the Bank has a policy to approve alternates for funding under such Funds;
</P>
<P>(2) Pending applications for funds under the Bank's Homeownership Set-Aside Programs, if any; and
</P>
<P>(3) Project modifications for AHP subsidy increases approved by the Bank pursuant to the requirements of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Carryover of insufficient amounts.</I> Such insufficient amounts as described in paragraph (b) of this section shall be carried over by the Bank for use or commitment in the following year in its General Fund, any Targeted Funds, or any Homeownership Set-Aside Programs.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1292" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1292—COMMUNITY INVESTMENT CASH ADVANCE PROGRAMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1430, 4511(b)(2).
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 2328, Jan. 11, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1292.1" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.1   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>As used in this part:
</P>
<P><I>Champion Community</I> means a community which developed a strategic plan and applied for designation by either the Secretary of HUD or the Secretary of the USDA as an Empowerment Zone or Enterprise Community, but was designated a Champion Community.
</P>
<P><I>CICA program or Community Investment Cash Advance program</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A Bank's AHP;
</P>
<P>(2) A Bank's CIP;
</P>
<P>(3) A Bank's RDF program or UDF program using any combination of the targeted beneficiaries and targeted income levels specified in § 1292.1 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other advance or grant program offered by a Bank using targeted beneficiaries and targeted income levels other than those specified in § 1292.1 of this part, established by the Bank with the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>Economic development projects</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Commercial, industrial, manufacturing, social service, and public facility projects and activities; and
</P>
<P>(2) Public or private infrastructure projects, such as roads, utilities, and sewers.
</P>
<P><I>Family</I> means one or more persons living in the same dwelling unit.
</P>
<P><I>Housing projects</I> means projects or activities that involve the purchase, construction, rehabilitation or refinancing (subject to § 1292.5(c) of this part) of, or predevelopment financing for:
</P>
<P>(1) Individual owner-occupied housing units, each of which is purchased or owned by a family with an income at or below the targeted income level;
</P>
<P>(2) Projects involving multiple units of owner-occupied housing in which at least 51% of the units are owned or are intended to be purchased by families with incomes at or below the targeted income level;
</P>
<P>(3) Rental housing where at least 51% of the units in the project are occupied by, or the rents are affordable to, families with incomes at or below the targeted income level; or
</P>
<P>(4) Manufactured housing parks where:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 51% of the units in the project are occupied by, or the rents are affordable to, families with incomes at or below the targeted income level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The project is located in a neighborhood with a median income at or below the targeted income level.
</P>
<P><I>Median income for the area—</I> (1) <I>Owner-occupied housing projects and economic development projects.</I> For purposes of owner-occupied housing projects and economic development projects, median income for the area means one or more of the following, as determined by the Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) The median income for the area, as published annually by HUD;
</P>
<P>(ii) The median income for the area obtained from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council;
</P>
<P>(iii) The applicable median family income, as determined under 26 U.S.C. 143(f) (Mortgage Revenue Bonds) and published by a State agency or instrumentality;
</P>
<P>(iv) The median income for the area, as published by the USDA; or
</P>
<P>(v) The median income for the area obtained from another public entity or a private source and approved by the Director, at the request of a Bank, for use under the Bank's CICA programs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Rental housing projects.</I> For purposes of rental housing projects, median income for the area means one or more of the following, as determined by the Bank:
</P>
<P>(i) The median income for the area, as published annually by HUD; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The median income for the area obtained from the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council;
</P>
<P>(iii) The median income for the area obtained from another public entity or a private source and approved by the Director, at the request of a Bank, for use under the Bank's CICA programs.
</P>
<P><I>MSA</I> means a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget.
</P>
<P><I>Neighborhood</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A census tract or block numbering area;
</P>
<P>(2) A unit of local government with a population of 25,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(3) A rural county; or
</P>
<P>(4) A geographic location designated in comprehensive plans, ordinances, or other local documents as a neighborhood, village, or similar geographic designation that is within the boundary of but does not encompass the entire area of a unit of general local government.
</P>
<P><I>Provide financing</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Originating loans;
</P>
<P>(2) Purchasing a participation interest, or providing financing to participate, in a loan consortium for CICA-eligible housing or economic development projects;
</P>
<P>(3) Making loans to entities that, in turn, make loans for CICA-eligible housing or economic development projects;
</P>
<P>(4) Purchasing mortgage revenue bonds or mortgage-backed securities, where all of the loans financed by such bonds and all of the loans backing such securities, respectively, meet the eligibility requirements of the CICA program under which the member or housing associate borrower receives funding;
</P>
<P>(5) Creating or maintaining a secondary market for loans, where all such loans are mortgage loans meeting the eligibility requirements of the CICA program under which the member or housing associate borrower receives funding;
</P>
<P>(6) Originating CICA-eligible loans within 3 months prior to receiving the CICA funding; and
</P>
<P>(7) Purchasing low-income housing tax credits.
</P>
<P><I>RDF or Rural Development Funding program</I> means an advance or grant program offered by a Bank for targeted community lending in rural areas.
</P>
<P><I>Rural area</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A unit of general local government with a population of 25,000 or less;
</P>
<P>(2) An unincorporated area outside an MSA; or
</P>
<P>(3) An unincorporated area within an MSA that qualifies for housing or economic development assistance from the USDA.
</P>
<P><I>Small business</I> means a “small business concern,” as that term is defined by section 3(a) of the Small Business Act (15 U.S.C. 632(a)) and implemented by the Small Business Administration under 13 CFR part 121, or any successor provisions.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted beneficiaries</I> means beneficiaries determined by the geographical area in which a project is located (Geographically Defined Beneficiaries), by the individuals who benefit from a project as employees or service recipients (Individual Beneficiaries), or by the nature of the project itself (Activity Beneficiaries), as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Geographically Defined Beneficiaries:
</P>
<P>(i) The project is located in a neighborhood with a median income at or below the targeted income level;
</P>
<P>(ii) The project is located in a rural Champion Community, or a rural Empowerment Zone or rural Enterprise Community, as designated by the Secretary of the USDA;
</P>
<P>(iii) The project is located in an urban Champion Community, or an urban Empowerment Zone or urban Enterprise Community, as designated by the Secretary of HUD;
</P>
<P>(iv) The project is located in an Indian area, as defined by the Native American Housing Assistance and Self-Determination Act of 1996 (25 U.S.C. 4101 <I>et seq.</I>), Alaskan Native Village, or Native Hawaiian Home Land;
</P>
<P>(v) The project is located in an area and involves a property eligible for a Brownfield Tax Credit;
</P>
<P>(vi) The project is located in an area affected by a military base closing and is a “community in the vicinity of the installation” as defined by the Department of Defense at 32 CFR part 176;
</P>
<P>(vii) The project is located in a designated community under the Community Adjustment and Investment Program as defined under 22 U.S.C. 290m-2;
</P>
<P>(viii) The project is located in a Federally declared disaster area; or
</P>
<P>(ix) The project is located in a state declared disaster area, or other area that qualifies for assistance under another Federal or State targeted economic development program, approved by FHFA.
</P>
<P>(2) Individual Beneficiaries:
</P>
<P>(i) The annual salaries for at least 51% of the permanent full- and part-time jobs, computed on a full-time equivalent basis, created or retained by the project, other than construction jobs, are at or below the targeted income level; or
</P>
<P>(ii) At least 51% of the families who otherwise benefit from (other than through employment), or are provided services by, the project have incomes at or below the targeted income level.
</P>
<P>(3) Activity Beneficiaries: Projects that qualify as small businesses.
</P>
<P>(4) Other Targeted Beneficiaries. A Bank may designate, with the prior approval of FHFA, other targeted beneficiaries for its targeted community lending.
</P>
<P>(5) Only targeted beneficiaries identified in paragraphs (1)(i) through (1)(iv), and (2)(i) and (2)(ii) of this definition are eligible for CIP advances.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted community lending</I> means providing financing for economic development projects for targeted beneficiaries.
</P>
<P><I>Targeted income level</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) For rural areas, incomes at or below 115 percent of the median income for the area, as adjusted for family size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable area median income standard or, at the option of the Bank, for a family of four;
</P>
<P>(2) For urban areas, incomes at or below 100 percent of the median income for the area, as adjusted for family size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable area median income standard or, at the option of the Bank, for a family of four;
</P>
<P>(3) For advances provided under CIP:
</P>
<P>(i) For economic development projects, incomes at or below 80 percent of the median income for the area; or
</P>
<P>(ii) For housing projects, incomes at or below 115 percent of the median income for the area, both as adjusted for family size in accordance with the methodology of the applicable area median income standard or, at the option of the Bank, for a family of four; or
</P>
<P>(4) For advances or grants provided under any other CICA program offered by a Bank, a targeted income level established by the Bank with the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P><I>UDF program or Urban Development Funding program</I> means an advance or grant program offered by a Bank for targeted community lending in urban areas.
</P>
<P><I>Urban area</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) A unit of general local government with a population of more than 25,000; or
</P>
<P>(2) An unincorporated area within an MSA that does not qualify for housing or economic development assistance from the USDA.
</P>
<P><I>USDA</I> means the United States Department of Agriculture.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.2" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.2   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>Section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)) authorizes the Banks to offer Community Investment Cash Advance (CICA) programs. This part establishes requirements for all CICA programs offered by a Bank, except for a Bank's Affordable Housing Program (AHP), which is governed specifically by part 1291 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.3" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.3   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this part is to identify targeted community lending projects that the Banks may support through the establishment of CICA programs under section 10(j)(10) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)(10)). Pursuant to this part, a Bank may offer RDF or UDF programs, or both, for targeted community lending using the targeted beneficiaries or targeted income levels specified in § 1292.1, without prior FHFA approval. A Bank also may offer other CICA programs for targeted community lending using targeted beneficiaries and targeted income levels other than those specified in § 1292.1, established by the Bank with the prior approval of FHFA. In addition, a Bank shall offer CICA programs under section 10(i) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(i)) (Community Investment Program (CIP)) and section 10(j) of the Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1430(j)) (AHP). A Bank may provide advances or grants under its CICA programs except for CIP programs, under which a Bank may only provide advances.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.4" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.4   Targeted Community Lending Plan.</HEAD>
<P>Each Bank shall develop and adopt an annual Targeted Community Lending Plan pursuant to § 1290.6 of this chapter.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.5" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.5   Community Investment Cash Advance Programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> (1) Each Bank shall offer an AHP in accordance with part 1291 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(2) Each Bank shall offer a CIP to provide financing for housing projects and for eligible targeted community lending at the appropriate targeted income levels.
</P>
<P>(3) Each Bank may offer RDF programs or UDF programs, or both, for targeted community lending using the targeted beneficiaries or targeted income levels specified in § 1292.1 of this part, without prior FHFA approval.
</P>
<P>(4) Each Bank may offer CICA programs for targeted community lending using targeted beneficiaries and targeted income levels other than those specified in § 1292.1 of this part, established by the Bank with the prior approval of FHFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Mixed-use projects.</I> (1) For projects funded under CICA programs other than CIP, involving a combination of housing projects and economic development projects, only the economic development components of the project must meet the appropriate targeted income level for the respective CICA program.
</P>
<P>(2) For projects funded under CIP, both the housing and economic development components of the project must meet the appropriate targeted income levels.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Refinancing.</I> CICA funding other than AHP may be used to refinance economic development projects and housing projects, provided that any equity proceeds of the refinancing of rental housing and manufactured housing parks are used to rehabilitate the projects or to preserve affordability for current residents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Pricing and Availability of advances</I>—(1) <I>Advances to members.</I> For CICA programs other than AHP and CIP, a Bank shall price advances to members as provided in § 1266.5 of this chapter, and may price such advances at rates below the price of advances of similar amounts, maturities and terms made pursuant to section 10(a) of the Bank Act. (12 U.S.C. 1430(a)).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Pricing of CIP advances.</I> The price of advances made under CIP shall not exceed the Bank's cost of issuing consolidated obligations of comparable maturity, taking into account reasonable administrative costs.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Pricing of AHP advances.</I> A Bank shall price advances made under AHP in accordance with parts 1266 and 1291 of this chapter.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Advances to housing associate borrowers.</I> (i) A Bank may offer advances under CICA programs to housing associate borrowers at the Bank's option, except for AHP and CIP, which are available only to members.
</P>
<P>(ii) A Bank shall price advances to housing associate borrowers as provided in § 1266.17 of this chapter, and may price such advances at rates below the price of advances of similar amounts, maturities and terms made pursuant to section 10b of the Bank Act. (12 U.S.C. 1430b).
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Pricing pass-through.</I> A Bank may require that borrowers receiving advances made under CICA programs pass through the benefit of any price reduction from regular advance pricing to their borrowers.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Discount Fund.</I> (i) A Bank may establish a Discount Fund which the Bank may use to reduce the price of CIP or other advances made under CICA programs below the advance prices provided for by this part.
</P>
<P>(ii) Price reductions made through the Discount Fund shall be made in accordance with a fair distribution scheme.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.6" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.6   Reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Bank annually shall provide to FHFA, on or before January 31, a Targeted Community Lending Plan.
</P>
<P>(b) Each Bank shall provide such other reports concerning its CICA programs as FHHA may request from time to time.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1292.7" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.62.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1292.7   Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Bank shall require the borrower to certify to the Bank that each project funded under a CICA program (other than AHP) meets the respective targeting requirements of the CICA program. Such certification shall include a description of how the project meets the requirements, and where appropriate, a statistical summary or list of incomes of the borrowers, rents for the project, or salaries of jobs created or retained.
</P>
<P>(b) For those CICA-funded projects that also receive funds from another targeted Federal economic development program that has income targeting requirements that are the same as, or more restrictive than, the targeting requirements of the applicable CICA program, the Bank shall permit the borrower to certify that compliance with the criteria of such Federal economic development program will meet the requirements of the respective CICA program.
</P>
<P>(c) Such certifications shall satisfy the Bank's obligations to document compliance with the CICA funding provisions of this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1293-1299" NODE="12:10.0.2.5.63" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1293-1299 [RESERVED]








</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XIII" NODE="12:10.0.3" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XIII—FINANCIAL STABILITY OVERSIGHT COUNCIL</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1300" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1300 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1301" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1301—FREEDOM OF INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5322; 5 U.S.C. 552.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>82 FR 55744, Nov. 24, 2017, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1301.1" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.1   General.</HEAD>
<P>This subpart contains the regulations of the Financial Stability Oversight Council (the “Council”) implementing the Freedom of Information Act (“FOIA”), 5 U.S.C. 552, as amended. These regulations set forth procedures for requesting access to records maintained by the Council. These regulations should be read together with the FOIA, which provides additional information about this topic.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.2" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.2   Information made available.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The FOIA provides for access to records developed or maintained by a Federal agency. The provisions of the FOIA are intended to assure the right of the public to information. Generally, this section divides agency records into three major categories and provides methods by which each category of records is to be made available to the public. The three major categories of records are as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Information required to be published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> (see § 1301.3);
</P>
<P>(2) Information required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format or, in the alternative, to be published and offered for sale (see § 1301.4); and
</P>
<P>(3) Information required to be made available to any member of the public upon specific request (see §§ 1301.5 through 1301.12).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Right of access.</I> Subject to the exemptions and exclusions set forth in the FOIA (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), and the regulations set forth in this subpart, any person shall be afforded access to records.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Exemptions.</I> (1) The disclosure requirements of 5 U.S.C. 552(a) do not apply to certain records which are exempt under 5 U.S.C. 552(b); nor do the disclosure requirements apply to certain records which are excluded under 5 U.S.C. 552(c).
</P>
<P>(2) The Council shall withhold records or information under the FOIA only when it reasonably foresees that disclosure would harm an interest protected by a FOIA exemption or when disclosure is prohibited by law. Whenever the Council determines that full disclosure of a requested record is not possible, the Council shall consider whether partial disclosure is possible and shall take reasonable steps to segregate and release nonexempt information. Nothing in this paragraph requires disclosure of information that is otherwise exempted from disclosure under 12 U.S.C. 552(b)(3).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.3" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.3   Publication in the Federal Register.</HEAD>
<P>Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)) and subject to the limitations provided in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1), the Council shall state, publish and maintain current in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> for the guidance of the public:
</P>
<P>(a) Descriptions of its central and field organization and the established places at which, the persons from whom, and the methods whereby, the public may obtain information, make submittals or requests, or obtain decisions;
</P>
<P>(b) Statements of the general course and method by which its functions are channeled and determined, including the nature and requirements of all formal and informal procedures available;
</P>
<P>(c) Rules of procedure, descriptions of forms available or the places at which forms may be obtained, and instructions as to the scope and contents of all papers, reports, or examinations;
</P>
<P>(d) Substantive rules of general applicability adopted as authorized by law, and statements of general policy or interpretations of general applicability formulated and adopted by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(e) Each amendment, revision, or repeal of matters referred to in paragraphs (a) through (d) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.4" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.4   Public inspection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the Council shall, in conformance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2), make available for public inspection in an electronic format, or, in the alternative, promptly publish and offer for sale:
</P>
<P>(1) Final opinions, including concurring and dissenting opinions, and orders, made in the adjudication of cases;
</P>
<P>(2) Those statements of policy and interpretations which have been adopted by the Council but which are not published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>;
</P>
<P>(3) Its administrative staff manuals and instructions to staff that affect a member of the public;
</P>
<P>(4) Copies of all records, regardless of form or format, that have been released previously to any person under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(3) and §§ 1301.5 through 1301.12, and that the Council determines have become or are likely to become the subject of subsequent requests for substantially the same records. When the Council receives three (3) or more requests for substantially the same records, then the Council shall place those requests in front of any existing processing backlog and make the released records available in the Council's public reading room and in the electronic reading room on the Council's Web site.
</P>
<P>(5) A general index of the records referred to in paragraph (a)(4) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information made available online.</I> For records required to be made available for public inspection in an electronic format pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2) and paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section, the Council shall make such records available on its Web site as soon as practicable but in any case no later than one year after such records are created.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Redaction.</I> Based upon applicable exemptions in 5 U.S.C. 552(b), the Council may redact certain information contained in any matter described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (4) of this section before making such information available for inspection or publishing it. The justification for the redaction shall be explained in writing, and the extent of such redaction shall be indicated on the portion of the record which is made available or published, unless including that indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption in 5 U.S.C. 552(b) under which the redaction is made. If technically feasible, the extent of the redaction shall be indicated at the place in the record where the redaction was made.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Public reading room.</I> The Council shall make available for public inspection in an electronic format, in a reading room or otherwise, the material described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section. Fees for duplication shall be charged in accordance with § 1301.12. The location of the Council's reading room is the Department of the Treasury's Library. The Library is located in the Freedman's Bank Building (formerly the Treasury Annex), Room 1020, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20220. For building security purposes, visitors are required to make an appointment by calling (202) 622-0990.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Indices.</I> (1) The Council shall maintain and make available for public inspection in an electronic format current indices identifying any material described in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section. In addition, the Council shall promptly publish, quarterly or more frequently, and distribute (by sale or otherwise) copies of each index or supplement unless the Council determines by order published in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> that the publication would be unnecessary and impractical, in which case the Council shall nonetheless provide copies of the index on request at a cost not to exceed the direct cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(2) The Council shall make the indices referred to in paragraphs (a)(5) and (e)(1) of this section available on its Web site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.5" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.5   Requests for Council records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except for records made available under 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(1) and (a)(2) and subject to the application of the FOIA exemptions and exclusions (5 U.S.C. 552(b) and (c)), the Council shall promptly make its records available to any person pursuant to a request that conforms to the rules and procedures of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Form and content of request.</I> A request for records of the Council shall be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) The request for records shall be made in writing and submitted by mail or via the Internet and should state, both in the request itself and on any envelope that encloses it, that it comprises a FOIA request. A request that does not explicitly state that it is a FOIA request, but clearly indicates or implies that it is a request for records, may also be processed under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(2) If a request is sent by mail, it shall be addressed and submitted as follows: FOIA Request—Financial Stability Oversight Council, U.S. Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington DC 20220. If a request is made via the Internet, it shall be submitted as set forth on the Council's Web site.
</P>
<P>(3) In order to ensure the Council's ability to respond in a timely manner, a FOIA request must describe the records that the requester seeks in sufficient detail to enable Council personnel to locate them with a reasonable amount of effort. Whenever possible, the request must include specific information about each record sought, such as the date, title or name, author, recipient, and subject matter of the record. If known, the requester must include any file designations or descriptions for the records requested. In general, a requester is encouraged to provide more specific information about the records or types of records sought to increase the likelihood that responsive records can be located.
</P>
<P>(4) The request shall include the name of and contact information for the requester, including a mailing address, telephone number, and, if available, an email address at which the Council may contact the requester regarding the request.
</P>
<P>(5) For the purpose of determining any fees that may apply to processing a request, a requester shall indicate in the request whether the requester is a commercial user, an educational institution, non-commercial scientific institution, representative of the news media, or “other” requester, as those terms are defined in § 1301.12(c), or in the alternative, state how the records released will be used. The Council shall use this information solely for the purpose of determining the appropriate fee category that applies to the requester and shall not use this information to determine whether to disclose a record in response to the request.
</P>
<P>(6) If a requester seeks a waiver or reduction of fees associated with processing a request, then the request shall include a statement to that effect, pursuant to § 1301.12(f). Any request that does not seek a waiver or reduction of fees shall constitute an agreement of the requester to pay any and all fees (of up to $25) that may apply to the request, unless or until a request for waiver is sought and granted. The requester also may specify in the request an upper limit (of not less than $25) that the requester is willing to pay to process the request.
</P>
<P>(i) Any request for waiver or reduction of fees should be filed together with or as part of the FOIA request, or at a later time prior to the Council incurring costs to process the request.
</P>
<P>(ii) A waiver request submitted after the Council incurs costs will be considered in accordance with § 1301.12(f); however, the requester must agree in writing to pay the fees already incurred if the waiver is denied.
</P>
<P>(7) If a requester seeks expedited processing of a request, then the request must include a statement to that effect as is required by § 1301.7(c).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request receipt; effect of request deficiencies.</I> The Council shall deem itself to have received a request on the date that it receives a complete request containing the information required by paragraph (b) of this section. The Council need not accept a request, process a request, or be bound by any deadlines in this subpart for processing a request that fails materially to conform to the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section. If the Council determines that it cannot process a request because the request is deficient, then the Council shall return it to the requester and advise the requester in what respect the request is deficient. The requester may then resubmit the request, which the Council shall treat as a new request. A determination by the Council that a request is deficient in any respect is not a denial of a request for records, and such determinations are not subject to appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing of request containing technical deficiency.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall not reject a request solely due to one or more technical deficiencies contained in the request. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term “technical deficiency” means an error or omission with respect to an item of information required by paragraph (b) of this section which, by itself, does not prevent that part of the request from conforming to the applicable requirement, and includes without limitation a non-material error relating to the contact information for the requester, or similar error or omission regarding the date, title or name, author, recipient, or subject matter of the record requested.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.6" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.6   Responsibility for responding to requests for Council records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> In determining which records are responsive to a request, the Council ordinarily will include only information contained in records that the Council maintains, or are in its possession and control, as of the date the Council begins its search for responsive records. If any other date is used, the Council shall inform the requester of that date.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority to grant or deny requests.</I> The records officer shall be authorized to make an initial determination to grant or deny, in whole or in part, a request for a record.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Referrals.</I> When the Council receives a request for a record or any portion of a record in its possession that originated with another agency, including but not limited to a constituent agency of the Council, it shall:
</P>
<P>(1) In the case of a record originated by a federal agency subject to the FOIA, refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that record to the originating agency to determine whether to disclose it; and
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of a record originated by a state agency, respond to the request after giving notice to the originating state agency and a reasonable opportunity to provide input or to assert any applicable privileges.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of referral.</I> Whenever the Council refers all or any part of the responsibility for responding to a request to another agency, the Council shall notify the requester of the referral and inform the requester of the name of each agency to which the request has been referred and of the part of the request that has been referred.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.7" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.7   Timing of responses to requests for Council records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Except as set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, the Council shall respond to requests according to their order of receipt.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Multitrack processing.</I> (1) The Council may establish tracks to process separately simple and complex requests. The Council may assign a request to the simple or complex track based on the amount of work and/or time needed to process the request. The Council shall process requests in each track according to the order of their receipt.
</P>
<P>(2) The Council may provide a requester in its complex track with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request to qualify for faster processing within the specified limits of the simple track(s).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requests for expedited processing.</I> (1) The Council shall respond to a request out of order and on an expedited basis whenever a requester demonstrates a compelling need for expedited processing in accordance with the requirements of this paragraph (c).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Form and content of a request for expedited processing.</I> A request for expedited processing shall be made as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) A request for expedited processing shall be made in writing or via the Internet and submitted as part of the initial request for records. When a request for records includes a request for expedited processing, both the envelope and the request itself must be clearly marked “Expedited Processing Requested.” A request for expedited processing that is not clearly so marked, but satisfies the requirements in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) and (iii) of this section, may nevertheless be granted.
</P>
<P>(ii) A request for expedited processing shall contain a statement that demonstrates a compelling need for the requester to obtain expedited processing of the requested records. A “compelling need” may be established under the standard in either paragraph (c)(2)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section by demonstrating that:
</P>
<P>(A) Failure to obtain the requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual. The requester shall fully explain the circumstances warranting such an expected threat so that the Council may make a reasoned determination that a delay in obtaining the requested records would pose such a threat; or
</P>
<P>(B) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity. A person “primarily engaged in disseminating information” does not include individuals who are engaged only incidentally in the dissemination of information. The standard of “urgency to inform” requires that the records requested pertain to a matter of current exigency to the American general public and that delaying a response to a request for records would compromise a significant recognized interest to and throughout the American general public. The requester must adequately explain the matter or activity and why the records sought are necessary to be provided on an expedited basis.
</P>
<P>(iii) The requester shall certify the written statement that purports to demonstrate a compelling need for expedited processing to be true and correct to the best of the requester's knowledge and belief. The certification must be in the form prescribed by 28 U.S.C. 1746: “I declare under penalty of perjury that the foregoing is true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief. Executed on [date].”
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Determinations of requests for expedited processing.</I> Within ten (10) calendar days of its receipt of a request for expedited processing, the Council shall decide whether to grant the request and shall notify the requester of the determination in writing.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Effect of granting expedited processing.</I> If the Council grants a request for expedited processing, then the Council shall give the expedited request priority over non-expedited requests and shall process the expedited request as soon as practicable. The Council may assign expedited requests to their own simple and complex processing tracks based upon the amount of work and/or time needed to process them. Within each such track, an expedited request shall be processed in the order of its receipt.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Appeals of denials of requests for expedited processing.</I> If the Council denies a request for expedited processing, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1301.11. The Council shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying expedited processing. The requester shall clearly mark its appeal request and any envelope that encloses it with the words “Appeal for Expedited Processing.”
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Time period for responding to requests for records.</I> Ordinarily, the Council shall have twenty (20) days (excepting Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) from when a request that satisfies the requirements of § 1301.5(b) is received by the Council to determine whether to grant or deny a request for records. The twenty-day time period set forth in this paragraph shall not be tolled by the Council except that the Council may:
</P>
<P>(1) Make one reasonable demand to the requester for clarifying information about the request and toll the twenty-day time period while it awaits the clarifying information; or
</P>
<P>(2) Toll the twenty-day time period while awaiting receipt of the requester's response to the Council's request for clarification regarding the assessment of fees.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unusual circumstances</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (e)(2) of this section, if the Council determines that, due to unusual circumstances, it cannot respond either to a request within the time period set forth in paragraph (d) of this section or to an appeal within the time period set forth in § 1301.11, the Council may extend the applicable time periods by informing the requester in writing of the unusual circumstances and of the date by which the Council expects to complete its processing of the request or appeal. Any extension or extensions of time shall not cumulatively total more than ten (10) days (exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Additional time.</I> If the Council determines that it needs additional time beyond a ten-day extension to process the request or appeal, then the Council shall notify the requester and provide the requester with an opportunity to limit the scope of the request or appeal or to arrange for an alternative time frame for processing the request or appeal or a modified request or appeal. The requester shall retain the right to define the desired scope of the request or appeal, as long as it meets the requirements contained in this part. To aid the requester, the Council shall make available its FOIA Public Liaison, who shall assist in defining the desired scope of the request, and shall notify the requester of the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(3) As used in this paragraph (e), “unusual circumstances” means, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of the particular requests:
</P>
<P>(i) The need to search for and collect the requested records from field facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request, or among two or more components or component offices having substantial subject matter interest therein.
</P>
<P>(4) Where the Council reasonably believes that multiple requests submitted by a requester, or by a group of requesters acting in concert, constitute a single request that would otherwise involve unusual circumstances, and the requests involve clearly related matters, they may be aggregated. Multiple requests involving unrelated matters will not be aggregated. The Council may disaggregate and treat as separate requests a single request that has multiple unrelated components. The Council shall notify the requester if a request is disaggregated.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.8" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.8   Responses to requests for Council records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Acknowledgement of requests.</I> Upon receipt of a request that meets the requirements of § 1301.5(b), the Council ordinarily shall assign to the request a unique tracking number and shall send an acknowledgement letter or email to the requester that contains the following information:
</P>
<P>(1) A brief description of the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicable request tracking number;
</P>
<P>(3) The date of receipt of the request, as determined in accordance with § 1301.5(c); and
</P>
<P>(4) A confirmation, with respect to any fees that may apply to the request pursuant to § 1301.12, that the requester has sought a waiver or reduction in such fees, has agreed to pay any and all applicable fees, or has specified an upper limit (of not less than $25) that the requester is willing to pay in fees to process the request.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Initial determination to grant or deny a request</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Council records officer (as designated in § 1301.6(b)) shall make initial determinations to grant or to deny in whole or in part requests for records.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Granting of request.</I> If the request is granted in full or in part, the Council shall provide the requester with a copy of the releasable records, and shall do so in the format specified by the requester to the extent that the records are readily producible by the Council in the requested format. The Council also shall send the requester a statement of the applicable fees, broken down by search, review and duplication fees, either at the time of the determination or shortly thereafter. The Council shall also advise the requester of the right to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Denial of requests.</I> If the Council determines that the request for records should be denied in whole or in part, the Council shall notify the requester in writing. The notification shall:
</P>
<P>(i) State the exemptions relied on in not granting the request;
</P>
<P>(ii) If technically feasible, indicate the volume of information redacted (including the number of pages withheld in part and in full) and the exemptions under which the redaction is made at the place in the record where such redaction is made (unless providing such indication would harm an interest protected by the exemption relied upon to deny such material);
</P>
<P>(iii) Set forth the name and title or position of the responsible official;
</P>
<P>(iv) Advise the requester of the right to administrative appeal in accordance with § 1301.11 and specify the official or office to which such appeal shall be submitted; and
</P>
<P>(v) Advise the requester of the right to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison or seek dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>No records found.</I> If it is determined, after an adequate search for records by the responsible official or his/her delegate, that no records could be located, the Council shall so notify the requester in writing. The notification letter shall advise the requester of the right to seek assistance from the FOIA Public Liaison, seek dispute resolution services offered by the Office of Government Information Services, and administratively appeal the Council's determination that no records could be located (<I>i.e.,</I> to challenge the adequacy of the Council's search for responsive records) in accordance with § 1301.11. The response shall specify the official to whom the appeal shall be submitted for review.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.9" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.9   Classified information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Referrals of requests for classified information.</I> Whenever a request is made for a record containing information that has been classified, or may be appropriate for classification, by another agency under Executive Order 13526 or any other executive order concerning the classification of records, the Council shall refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the information, should consider the information for classification, or has the primary interest in it, as appropriate. Whenever a record contains information that has been derivatively classified by the Council because it contains information classified by another agency, the Council shall refer the responsibility for responding to the request regarding that information to the agency that classified the underlying information or shall consult with that agency prior to processing the record for disclosure or withholding.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Determination of continuing need for classification of information.</I> Requests for information classified pursuant to Executive Order 13526 require the Council to review the information to determine whether it continues to warrant classification. Information which no longer warrants classification under the Executive Order's criteria shall be declassified and made available to the requester, unless the information is otherwise exempt from disclosure.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.10" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.10   Requests for business information provided to the Council.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> Business information provided to the Council by a submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a FOIA request except in accordance with this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Definitions.</I> For purposes of this section:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Business information</I> means information from a submitter that is trade secrets or other commercial or financial information that may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Submitter</I> means any person or entity from whom the Council obtains business information, directly or indirectly. The term includes corporations, state, local, and tribal governments, and foreign governments.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exemption 4</I> means Exemption 4 of the FOIA, 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Designation of business information.</I> A submitter of business information shall use good-faith efforts to designate, by appropriate markings, either at the time of submission or at a reasonable time thereafter, any portions of its submission that it considers to be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4. These designations will expire ten (10) years after the date of the submission unless the submitter on his or her own initiative requests otherwise, and provides justification for, a longer designation period.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to submitters.</I> The Council shall provide a submitter with prompt written notice of receipt of a request or appeal encompassing the business information of the submitter whenever required in accordance with paragraph (e) of this section. Such written notice shall either describe the exact nature of the business information requested or provide copies of the records or portions of records containing the business information. When a voluminous number of submitters must be notified, the Council may post or publish such notice in a place reasonably likely to accomplish such notification.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When notice is required.</I> The Council shall provide a submitter with notice of receipt of a request or appeal whenever:
</P>
<P>(1) The information has been designated in good faith by the submitter as information considered protected from disclosure under Exemption 4; or
</P>
<P>(2) The Council has reason to believe that the information may be protected from disclosure under Exemption 4 because disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause substantial competitive harm to the submitter.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Opportunity to object to disclosure.</I> (1) Through the notice described in paragraph (d) of this section, the Council shall notify the submitter in writing that the submitter shall have ten (10) days from the date of the notice (exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) to provide the Council with a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall specify all grounds for withholding any of the information under Exemption 4, including a statement of why the information is considered to be a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. In the event that the submitter fails to respond to the notice within the time specified, the submitter shall be considered to have no objection to disclosure of the information. Information provided by a submitter pursuant to this paragraph (f) may itself be subject to disclosure under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(2) When notice is given to a submitter under this section, the Council shall advise the requester that such notice has been given to the submitter. The requester shall be further advised that a delay in responding to the request may be considered a denial of access to records and that the requester may proceed with an administrative appeal or seek judicial review, if appropriate. However, the Council shall invite the requester to agree to an extension of time so that the Council may review the submitter's objection to disclosure.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of intent to disclose.</I> The Council shall consider carefully a submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information responsive to the request. If the Council decides to disclose business information over the objection of a submitter, the Council shall provide the submitter with a written notice which shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the reasons for which the submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and
</P>
<P>(3) A specified disclosure date which is not less than ten (10) days (exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) after the notice of the final decision to release the requested information has been provided to the submitter. Except as otherwise prohibited by law, notice of the final decision to release the requested information shall be forwarded to the requester at the same time.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Notice of FOIA lawsuit.</I> Whenever a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure of business information covered in paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall promptly notify the submitter.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Exception to notice requirement.</I> The notice requirements of this section shall not apply if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Council determines that the information shall not be disclosed;
</P>
<P>(2) The information lawfully has been published or otherwise made available to the public; or
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by statute (other than the FOIA) or by a regulation issued in accordance with the requirements of Executive Order 12600 (3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.11" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.11   Administrative appeals and dispute resolution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Grounds for administrative appeals.</I> A requester may appeal an initial determination of the Council, including but not limited to a determination:
</P>
<P>(1) To deny access to records in whole or in part (as provided in § 1301.8(b)(3));
</P>
<P>(2) To assign a particular fee category to the requester (as provided in § 1301.12(c));
</P>
<P>(3) To deny a request for a reduction or waiver of fees (as provided in § 1301.12(f)(7));
</P>
<P>(4) That no records could be located that are responsive to the request (as provided in § 1301.8(b)(4)); or
</P>
<P>(5) To deny a request for expedited processing (as provided in § 1301.7(c)(5)).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time limits for filing administrative appeals.</I> An appeal must be submitted within ninety (90) days of the date of the initial determination or the date of the letter transmitting the last records released, whichever is later, or, in the case of an appeal of a denial of expedited processing, within ninety (90) days of the date of the initial determination to deny expedited processing (see § 1301.7).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form and content of administrative appeals.</I> The appeal shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made in writing or, as set forth on the Council's Web site, via the Internet;
</P>
<P>(2) Be clearly marked on the appeal request and any envelope that encloses it with the words “Freedom of Information Act Appeal” and addressed to Financial Stability Oversight Council, U.S. Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., Washington, DC 20220;
</P>
<P>(3) Set forth the name of and contact information for the requester, including a mailing address, telephone number, and, if available, an email address at which the Council may contact the requester regarding the appeal;
</P>
<P>(4) Specify the date of the initial request and date of the letter of initial determination, and, where possible, enclose a copy of the initial request and the initial determination being appealed; and
</P>
<P>(5) Set forth specific grounds for the appeal.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Processing of administrative appeals.</I> Appeals shall be stamped with the date of their receipt by the office to which addressed, and shall be processed in the approximate order of their receipt. The receipt of the appeal shall be acknowledged by the Council and the requester advised of the date the appeal was received and the expected date of response.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Determinations to grant or deny administrative appeals.</I> The Chairperson of the Council or his/her designee is authorized to and shall decide whether to affirm or reverse the initial determination (in whole or in part), and shall notify the requester of this decision in writing within twenty (20) days (exclusive of Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays) after the date of receipt of the appeal, unless extended pursuant to § 1301.7(e).
</P>
<P>(1) If it is decided that the appeal is to be denied (in whole or in part) the requester shall be—
</P>
<P>(i) Notified in writing of the denial;
</P>
<P>(ii) Notified of the reasons for the denial, including the FOIA exemptions relied upon;
</P>
<P>(iii) Notified of the name and title or position of the official responsible for the determination on appeal;
</P>
<P>(iv) Provided with a statement that judicial review of the denial is available in the United States District Court for the judicial district in which the requester resides or has a principal place of business, the judicial district in which the requested records are located, or the District of Columbia in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4)(B); and
</P>
<P>(v) Provided with notification that mediation services may be available to the requester as a non-exclusive alternative to litigation through the Office of Government Information Services in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552(h)(3).
</P>
<P>(2) If the Council grants the appeal in its entirety, the Council shall so notify the requester and promptly process the request in accordance with the decision on appeal.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Dispute resolution.</I> Requesters may seek dispute resolution by contacting the FOIA Public Liaison or the Office of Government Information Services as set forth on the Council's Web site.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1301.12" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.2.0.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1301.12   Fees for processing requests for Council records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> The Council shall charge the requester for processing a request under the FOIA in the amounts and for the services set forth in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section, except if a waiver or reduction of fees is granted under paragraph (f) of this section, or if, pursuant to paragraph (e)(2) of this section, the failure of the Council to comply with certain time limits precludes it from assessing certain fees. No fees shall be charged if the amount of fees incurred in processing the request is below $25.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Fees chargeable for specific services.</I> The fees for services performed by the Council shall be imposed and collected as set forth in this paragraph (b).
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Duplicating records.</I> The Council shall charge a requester fees for the cost of copying records as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) $0.08 per page, up to 8
<FR>1/2</FR> x 14″, made by photocopy or similar process.
</P>
<P>(ii) Photographs, films, and other materials—actual cost of duplication.
</P>
<P>(iii) Other types of duplication services not mentioned above—actual cost.
</P>
<P>(iv) Material provided to a private contractor for copying shall be charged to the requester at the actual cost charged by the private contractor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Search services.</I> The Council shall charge a requester for all time spent by its employees searching for records that are responsive to a request, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of responsive information within records, even if no responsive records are found. The Council shall charge the requester fees for search time as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Searches for other than electronic records.</I> The Council shall charge for search time at the salary rate(s) (basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employee(s) who conduct the search. This charge shall also include transportation of employees and records at actual cost. Fees may be charged for search time even if the search does not yield any responsive records, or if records are exempt from disclosure.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Searches for electronic records.</I> The Council shall charge the requester for the actual direct cost of the search, including computer search time, runs, and the operator's salary. The fee for computer output shall be the actual direct cost. For a requester in the “other” category, when the cost of the search (including the operator time and the cost of operating the computer to process a request) equals the equivalent dollar amount of two hours of the salary of the person performing the search (<I>i.e.,</I> the operator), the charge for the computer search will begin.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review of records.</I> The Council shall charge a requester for time spent by its employees examining responsive records to determine whether any portions of such record are withholdable from disclosure, pursuant to the FOIA exemptions of 5 U.S.C. 552(b). The Council shall also charge a requester for time spent by its employees redacting any such withholdable information from a record and preparing a record for release to the requester. The Council shall charge a requester for time spent reviewing records at the salary rate(s) (<I>i.e.,</I> basic pay plus sixteen (16) percent) of the employees who conduct the review. Fees may be charged for review time even if records ultimately are not disclosed.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Inspection of records in the reading room.</I> Fees for all services provided shall be charged whether or not copies are made available to the requester for inspection. However, no fee shall be charged for monitoring a requester's inspection of records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Other services.</I> Other services and materials requested which are not covered by this part nor required by the FOIA are chargeable at the actual cost to the Council. Charges permitted under this paragraph may include:
</P>
<P>(i) Certifying that records are true copies; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Sending records by special methods (such as by express mail, etc.).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Fees applicable to various categories of requesters</I>—(1) <I>Generally.</I> The Council shall assess the fees set forth in paragraph (b) of this section in accordance with the requester fee categories set forth below.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Requester selection of fee category.</I> A requester shall identify, in the initial FOIA request, the purpose of the request in one of the following categories:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Commercial.</I> A commercial use request refers to a request from or on behalf of a person who seeks information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or the person on whose behalf the request is made, which can include furthering those interests through litigation. The Council may determine from the use specified in the request that the requester is a commercial user.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Educational institution.</I> This refers to a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education, which operates a program or programs of scholarly research. This includes a request from a teacher or student at any such institution making the request in connection with his or her role at the educational institution.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Non-commercial scientific institution.</I> This refers to an institution that is not operated on a “commercial” basis, as that term is defined in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section, and which is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Representative of the news media.</I> This refers to any person or entity that gathers information of potential interest to a segment of the public, uses its editorial skills to turn the raw materials into a distinct work, and distributes that work to an audience. In this paragraph (c)(2)(iv), the term “news” means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news-media entities are television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large and publishers of periodicals (but only if such entities qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase by subscription or by free distribution to the general public. These examples are not all-inclusive. Moreover, as methods of news delivery evolve (for example, the adoption of the electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunications services), such alternative media shall be considered to be news media entities. A freelance journalist shall be regarded as working for a news media entity if the journalist can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that entity, whether or not the journalist is actually employed by the entity. A publication contract would present a solid basis for such an expectation; the Council may also consider the past publication record of the requester in making such a determination.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Other requester.</I> This refers to a requester who does not fall within any of the categories described in paragraphs (c)(2)(i)-(iv) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Fees applicable to each category of requester.</I> The Council shall apply the fees set forth in this paragraph, for each category described in paragraph (c) of this section, to requests processed by the Council under the FOIA.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Commercial use.</I> A requester seeking records for commercial use shall be charged the full direct costs of searching for, reviewing, and duplicating the records they request as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section. Moreover, when a request is received for disclosure that is primarily in the commercial interest of the requester, the Council is not required to consider a request for a waiver or reduction of fees based upon the assertion that disclosure would be in the public interest. The Council may recover the cost of searching for and reviewing records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records or no records are located.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Educational and non-commercial scientific uses.</I> A requester seeking records for educational or non-commercial scientific use shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the Council shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge. To be eligible, the requester must show that the request is made in connection with the requester's role at an educational institution or is made under the auspices of a non-commercial scientific institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use, but are sought in furtherance of scholarly (if the request is from an educational institution) or scientific (if the request is from a non-commercial scientific institution) research.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>News media uses.</I> A requester seeking records under the news media use category shall be charged only for the cost of duplicating the records they request, except that the Council shall provide the requester with the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication free of charge.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Other requests.</I> A requester seeking records for any other use shall be charged the full direct cost of searching for and duplicating records that are responsive to the request, as set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, except that the Council shall provide the first one hundred (100) pages of duplication and the first two hours of search time free of charge. The Council may recover the cost of searching for records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records, or no records are located.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other circumstances when fees are not charged.</I> (1) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the Council may not charge a requester a fee for processing a FOIA request if—
</P>
<P>(i) Services were performed without charge;
</P>
<P>(ii) The cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The fees were waived or reduced in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Notwithstanding paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the Council may not charge a requester search fees or, in the case of a requester described in paragraphs (c)(2)(ii) through (iv) of this section, duplication fees if the Council fails to comply with any time limit under § 1301.7 or § 1301.11; provided that:
</P>
<P>(i) If unusual circumstances (as that term is defined in § 1301.7(e)) apply to the processing of the request and the Council has provided a timely notice to the requester in accordance with § 1301.7(e)(1), then a failure to comply with such time limit shall be excused for an additional ten days;
</P>
<P>(ii) If unusual circumstances (as that term is defined in § 1301.7(e)) apply to the processing of the request, more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to the request, the Council has provided a timely written notice to the requester in accordance with § 1301.7(e)(2), and the Council has discussed with the requester via written mail, electronic mail, or telephone (or made not less than three good-faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request in accordance with § 1301.7(e)(2), then the Council may charge a requester such fees; and
</P>
<P>(iii) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, then a failure to comply with such time limit shall be excused for the length of time provided by the court order.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Waiver or reduction of fees.</I> (1) A requester shall be entitled to receive from the Council a waiver or reduction in the fees otherwise applicable to a FOIA request whenever the requester:
</P>
<P>(i) Requests such waiver or reduction of fees in writing and submits the written request to the Council together with or as part of the FOIA request, or at a later time consistent with § 1301.5(b)(7) to process the request; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrates that the fee reduction or waiver request is in the public interest because:
</P>
<P>(A) Furnishing the information is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the government; and
</P>
<P>(B) Furnishing the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester.
</P>
<P>(2) To determine whether the requester has satisfied the requirements of paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, the Council shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) The subject of the requested records must concern identifiable operations or activities of the federal government, with a connection that is direct and clear, not remote or attenuated;
</P>
<P>(ii) The disclosable portions of the requested records must be meaningfully informative about government operations or activities in order to be “likely to contribute” to an increased public understanding of those operations or activities. The disclosure of information that already is in the public domain, in either a duplicative or a substantially identical form, would not be as likely to contribute to such understanding where nothing new would be added to the public's understanding;
</P>
<P>(iii) The disclosure must contribute to the understanding of a reasonably broad audience of persons interested in the subject, as opposed to the individual understanding of the requester. A requester's expertise in the subject area and ability and intention to effectively convey information to the public shall be considered. It shall be presumed that a representative of the news media will satisfy this consideration.
</P>
<P>(iv) The public's understanding of the subject in question, as compared to the level of public understanding existing prior to the disclosure, must be enhanced by the disclosure to a significant extent.
</P>
<P>(3) To determine whether the requester satisfies the requirement of paragraph (f)(1)(ii)(B) of this section, the Council shall consider:
</P>
<P>(i) Any commercial interest of the requester (with reference to the definition of “commercial use” in paragraph (c)(2)(i) of this section), or of any person on whose behalf the requester may be acting, that would be furthered by the requested disclosure. In the administrative process, a requester may provide explanatory information regarding this consideration; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the public interest is greater in magnitude than that of any identified commercial interest in disclosure. The Council ordinarily shall presume that, if a news media requester satisfies the public interest standard, the public interest will be the interest primarily served by disclosure to that requester. Disclosure to data brokers or others who merely compile and market government information for direct economic return shall not be presumed to primarily serve the public interest.
</P>
<P>(4) Where only some of the records to be released satisfy the requirements for a waiver or reduction of fees, a waiver or reduction shall be granted for those records.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Determination of request to reduce or waive fees.</I> The Council shall notify the requester in writing regarding its determinations to reduce or waive fees.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Effect of denying request to reduce or waive fees.</I> If the Council denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the Council shall advise the requester, in the denial notification letter, that the requester may incur fees as a result of processing the request. In the denial notification letter, the Council shall advise the requester that the Council will not proceed to process the request further unless the requester, in writing, directs the Council to do so and either agrees to pay any fees that may apply to processing the request or specifies an upper limit (of not less than $25) that the requester is willing to pay to process the request. If the Council does not receive this written direction and agreement/specification within thirty (30) days of the date of the denial notification letter, then the Council shall deem the FOIA request to be withdrawn.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Appeals of denials of requests to reduce or waive fees.</I> If the Council denies a request to reduce or waive fees, then the requester shall have the right to submit an appeal of the denial determination in accordance with § 1301.11. The Council shall communicate this appeal right as part of its written notification to the requester denying the fee reduction or waiver request. The requester shall clearly mark its appeal request and any envelope that encloses it with the words “Appeal for Fee Reduction/Waiver.”
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Notice of estimated fees; advance payments.</I> (1) When the Council estimates the fees for processing a request will exceed the limit set by the requester, and that amount is less than $250, the Council shall notify the requester of the estimated costs, broken down by search, review and duplication fees. The requester must provide an agreement to pay the estimated costs, except that the requester may reformulate the request in an attempt to reduce the estimated fees.
</P>
<P>(2) If the requester fails to state a limit and the costs are estimated to exceed $250, the requester shall be notified of the estimated costs, broken down by search, review and duplication fees, and must pay such amount prior to the processing of the request, or provide satisfactory assurance of full payment if the requester has a history of prompt payment of FOIA fees. Alternatively, the requester may reformulate the request in such a way as to constitute a request for responsive records at a reduced fee.
</P>
<P>(3) The Council reserves the right to request advance payment after a request is processed and before records are released.
</P>
<P>(4) If a requester previously has failed to pay a fee within thirty (30) calendar days of the date of the billing, the requester shall be required to pay the full amount owed plus any applicable interest, and to make an advance payment of the full amount of the estimated fee before the Council begins to process a new request or the pending request.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Form of payment.</I> Payment may be made by check or money order paid to the Treasurer of the United States.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Charging interest.</I> The Council may charge interest on any unpaid bill starting on the 31st day following the date of billing the requester. Interest charges will be assessed at the rate provided in 31 U.S.C. 3717 and will accrue from the date of the billing until payment is received by the Council. The Council will follow the provisions of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365, 96 Stat. 1749), as amended, and its administrative procedures, including the use of consumer reporting agencies, collection agencies, and offset.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Aggregating requests.</I> If the Council reasonably determines that a requester or a group of requesters acting together is attempting to divide a request into a series of requests for the purpose of avoiding fees, the Council may aggregate those requests and charge accordingly. The Council may presume that multiple requests involving related matters submitted within a thirty (30) calendar day period have been made in order to avoid fees. The Council shall not aggregate multiple requests involving unrelated matters.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1310" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1310—AUTHORITY TO REQUIRE SUPERVISION AND REGULATION OF CERTAIN NONBANK FINANCIAL COMPANIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5321; 12 U.S.C. 5322; 12 U.S.C. 5323.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>77 FR 21651, Apr. 11, 2012, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.1" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Council under sections 111, 112 and 113 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”) (12 U.S.C. 5321, 5322, and 5323).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The principal purposes of this part are to set forth the standards and procedures governing Council determinations under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5323), including whether material financial distress at a nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company, could pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States, and whether a nonbank financial company shall be supervised by the Board of Governors and shall be subject to prudential standards in accordance with title I of the Dodd-Frank Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.2" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the following meanings—
</P>
<P><I>Board of Governors.</I> The term “Board of Governors” means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Commission.</I> The term “Commission” means the Securities and Exchange Commission, except in the context of the Commodity Futures Trading Commission.
</P>
<P><I>Council.</I> The term “Council” means the Financial Stability Oversight Council.
</P>
<P><I>Federal Insurance Office.</I> The term “Federal Insurance Office” means the office established within the Department of the Treasury by section 502(a) of the Dodd-Frank Act (31 U.S.C. 301 (note)).
</P>
<P><I>Foreign nonbank financial company.</I> The term “foreign nonbank financial company” means a company (other than a company that is, or is treated in the United States as, a bank holding company) that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) “Predominantly engaged in financial activities,” as that term is defined in section 102(a)(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(a)(6)) and pursuant to any requirements for determining if a company is predominantly engaged in financial activities as established by regulation of the Board of Governors pursuant to section 102(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(b)), including through a branch in the United States.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing date.</I> The term “hearing date” means the latest of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which the Council has received all of the written materials timely submitted by a nonbank financial company for a hearing that is conducted without oral testimony pursuant to § 1310.21 or § 1310.22, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(2) The final date on which the Council or its representatives convene to hear oral testimony presented by a nonbank financial company pursuant to § 1310.21 or § 1310.22, as applicable; and
</P>
<P>(3) The date on which the Council has received all of the written materials timely submitted by a nonbank financial company to supplement any oral testimony and materials presented by the nonbank financial company pursuant to § 1310.21 or § 1310.22, as applicable.
</P>
<P><I>Member agency.</I> The term “member agency” means an agency represented by a voting member of the Council under section 111(b)(1) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5321).
</P>
<P><I>Nonbank financial company.</I> The term “nonbank financial company” means a U.S. nonbank financial company or a foreign nonbank financial company.
</P>
<P><I>Office of Financial Research.</I> The term “Office of Financial Research” means the office established within the Department of the Treasury by section 152 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5342).
</P>
<P><I>Primary financial regulatory agency.</I> The term “primary financial regulatory agency” means—
</P>
<P>(1) The appropriate Federal banking agency, with respect to institutions described in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), except to the extent that an institution is or the activities of an institution are otherwise described in paragraph (2), (3), (4), or (5) of this definition;
</P>
<P>(2) The Commission, with respect to—
</P>
<P>(i) Any broker or dealer that is registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, with respect to the activities of the broker or dealer that require the broker or dealer to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any investment company that is registered with the Commission under the Investment Company Act of 1940, with respect to the activities of the investment company that require the investment company to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any investment adviser that is registered with the Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, with respect to the investment advisory activities of such company and activities that are incidental to such advisory activities;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any clearing agency registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, with respect to the activities of the clearing agency that require the agency to be registered under such Act;
</P>
<P>(v) Any nationally recognized statistical rating organization registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(vi) Any transfer agent registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(vii) Any exchange registered as a national securities exchange with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any national securities association registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(ix) Any securities information processor registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(x) The Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board established under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;
</P>
<P>(xi) The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board established under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (15 U.S.C. 7201 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(xii) The Securities Investor Protection Corporation established under the Securities Investor Protection Act of 1970 (15 U.S.C. 78aaa <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(xiii) Any security-based swap execution facility, security-based swap data repository, security-based swap dealer or major security-based swap participant registered with the Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, with respect to the security-based swap activities of the person that require such person to be registered under such Act;
</P>
<P>(3) The Commodity Futures Trading Commission, with respect to—
</P>
<P>(i) Any futures commission merchant registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), with respect to the activities of the futures commission merchant that require the futures commission merchant to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any commodity pool operator registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), with respect to the activities of the commodity pool operator that require the commodity pool operator to be registered under that Act, or a commodity pool, as defined in that Act;
</P>
<P>(iii) Any commodity trading advisor or introducing broker registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), with respect to the activities of the commodity trading advisor or introducing broker that require the commodity trading advisor or introducing broker to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(iv) Any derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), with respect to the activities of the derivatives clearing organization that require the derivatives clearing organization to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(v) Any board of trade designated as a contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vi) Any futures association registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(vii) Any retail foreign exchange dealer registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), with respect to the activities of the retail foreign exchange dealer that require the retail foreign exchange dealer to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any swap execution facility, swap data repository, swap dealer, or major swap participant registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>) with respect to the swap activities of the person that require such person to be registered under that Act; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Any registered entity as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a), with respect to the activities of the registered entity that require the registered entity to be registered under that Act;
</P>
<P>(4) The State insurance authority of the State in which an insurance company is domiciled, with respect to the insurance activities and activities that are incidental to such insurance activities of an insurance company that is subject to supervision by the State insurance authority under State insurance law; and
</P>
<P>(5) The Federal Housing Finance Agency, with respect to Federal Home Loan Banks or the Federal Home Loan Bank System, and with respect to the Federal National Mortgage Association or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.
</P>
<P><I>Prudential standards.</I> The term “prudential standards” means enhanced supervision and regulatory standards established by the Board of Governors under section 165 of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5365).
</P>
<P><I>Significant companies.</I> The terms “significant nonbank financial company” and “significant bank holding company” have the meanings ascribed to such terms by regulation of the Board of Governors issued under section 102(a)(7) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(a)(7)).
</P>
<P><I>U.S. nonbank financial company.</I> The term “U.S. nonbank financial company” means a company (other than a bank holding company; a Farm Credit System institution chartered and subject to the provisions of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2001 <I>et seq.</I>); a national securities exchange (or parent thereof), clearing agency (or parent thereof, unless the parent is a bank holding company), security-based swap execution facility, or security-based swap data repository registered with the Commission; a board of trade designated as a contract market by the Commodity Futures Trading Commission (or parent thereof); or a derivatives clearing organization (or parent thereof, unless the parent is a bank holding company), swap execution facility, or swap data repository registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission), that is—
</P>
<P>(1) Incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; and
</P>
<P>(2) “Predominantly engaged in financial activities,” as that term is defined in section 102(a)(6) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(a)(6)), and pursuant to any requirements for determining if a company is predominantly engaged in financial activities as established by regulation of the Board of Governors pursuant to section 102(b) of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311(b)).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.3" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.3   Amendments.</HEAD>
<P>The Council shall not amend or rescind appendix A to this part without providing the public with notice and an opportunity to comment in accordance with the procedures applicable to legislative rules under 5 U.S.C. 553.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[84 FR 8959, Mar. 13, 2019]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.10" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.10   Council determinations regarding nonbank financial companies.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determinations.</I> The Council may determine that a nonbank financial company shall be supervised by the Board of Governors and shall be subject to prudential standards, in accordance with title I of the Dodd-Frank Act, if the Council determines that material financial distress at the nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company, could pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vote required.</I> Any proposed or final determination under paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council and shall not be delegated by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of the Council.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Back-up examination by the Board of Governors.</I> (1) If the Council is unable to determine whether the financial activities of a U.S. nonbank financial company, including a U.S. nonbank financial company that is owned by a foreign nonbank financial company, pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States, based on information or reports obtained by the Council under § 1310.20, including discussions with management, and publicly available information, the Council may request the Board of Governors, and the Board of Governors is authorized, to conduct an examination of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries for the sole purpose of determining whether the nonbank financial company should be supervised by the Board of Governors for purposes of title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311-5374).
</P>
<P>(2) The Council shall review the results of the examination of a nonbank financial company, including its subsidiaries, conducted by the Board of Governors under this paragraph (c) in connection with any proposed or final determination under paragraph (a) of this section with respect to the nonbank financial company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.11" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.11   Considerations in making proposed and final determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Considerations for U.S. nonbank financial companies.</I> In making a proposed or final determination under § 1310.10(a) with respect to a U.S. nonbank financial company, the Council shall consider—
</P>
<P>(1) The extent of the leverage of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent and nature of the off-balance-sheet exposures of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent and nature of the transactions and relationships of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries with other significant nonbank financial companies and significant bank holding companies;
</P>
<P>(4) The importance of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries as a source of credit for households, businesses, and State and local governments and as a source of liquidity for the United States financial system;
</P>
<P>(5) The importance of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries as a source of credit for low-income, minority, or underserved communities, and the impact that the failure of such U.S. nonbank financial company would have on the availability of credit in such communities;
</P>
<P>(6) The extent to which assets are managed rather than owned by the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries, and the extent to which ownership of assets under management is diffuse;
</P>
<P>(7) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(8) The degree to which the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries are already regulated by 1 or more primary financial regulatory agencies;
</P>
<P>(9) The amount and nature of the financial assets of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(10) The amount and types of the liabilities of the U.S. nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries, including the degree of reliance on short-term funding; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other risk-related factor that the Council deems appropriate, either by regulation or on a case-by-case basis.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Considerations for foreign nonbank financial companies.</I> In making a proposed or final determination under § 1310.10(a) with respect to a foreign nonbank financial company, the Council shall consider—
</P>
<P>(1) The extent of the leverage of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(2) The extent and nature of the United States related off-balance-sheet exposures of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent and nature of the transactions and relationships of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries with other significant nonbank financial companies and significant bank holding companies;
</P>
<P>(4) The importance of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries as a source of credit for United States households, businesses, and State and local governments and as a source of liquidity for the United States financial system;
</P>
<P>(5) The importance of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries as a source of credit for low-income, minority, or underserved communities in the United States, and the impact that the failure of such foreign nonbank financial company would have on the availability of credit in such communities;
</P>
<P>(6) The extent to which assets are managed rather than owned by the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries and the extent to which ownership of assets under management is diffuse;
</P>
<P>(7) The nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, and mix of the activities of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(8) The extent to which the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries are subject to prudential standards on a consolidated basis in the foreign nonbank financial company's home country that are administered and enforced by a comparable foreign supervisory authority;
</P>
<P>(9) The amount and nature of the United States financial assets of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries;
</P>
<P>(10) The amount and nature of the liabilities of the foreign nonbank financial company and its subsidiaries used to fund activities and operations in the United States, including the degree of reliance on short-term funding; and
</P>
<P>(11) Any other risk-related factor that the Council deems appropriate, either by regulation or on a case-by-case basis.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.12" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.12   Anti-evasion provision.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determinations.</I> In order to avoid evasion of title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311-5374) or this part, the Council, on its own initiative or at the request of the Board of Governors, may require that the financial activities of a company shall be supervised by the Board of Governors and subject to prudential standards if the Council determines that—
</P>
<P>(1) Material financial distress related to, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of, the financial activities conducted directly or indirectly by a company incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or any State or the financial activities in the United States of a company incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States would pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States, based on consideration of the factors in—
</P>
<P>(i) § 1310.11(a) if the company is incorporated or organized under the laws of the United States or any State; or
</P>
<P>(ii) § 1310.11(b) if the company is incorporated or organized in a country other than the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) The company is organized or operates in such a manner as to evade the application of title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311-5374) or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vote required.</I> Any proposed or final determination under paragraph (a) of this section shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council and shall not be delegated by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of the Council.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of covered financial activities.</I> For purposes of this section, the term “financial activities”—
</P>
<P>(1) Means activities that are financial in nature (as defined in section 4(k) of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956);
</P>
<P>(2) Includes the ownership or control of one or more insured depository institutions; and
</P>
<P>(3) Does not include internal financial activities conducted for the company or any affiliate thereof, including internal treasury, investment, and employee benefit functions.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Application of other provisions.</I> Sections 1310.20(a), 1310.20(b), 1310.20(c), 1310.20(e), 1310.21, 1310.22, and 1310.23, and the definitions referred to therein, shall apply to proposed and final determinations of the Council with respect to the financial activities of a company pursuant to this section in the same manner as such sections apply to proposed and final determinations of the Council with respect to nonbank financial companies.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Information Collection; Proposed and Final Determinations; Evidentiary Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.20" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.20   Council information collection; consultation; coordination; confidentiality.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information collection from the Office of Financial Research, member agencies, the Federal Insurance Office, and other Federal and State financial regulatory agencies.</I> The Council may receive, and may request the submission of, such data or information from the Office of Financial Research, member agencies, the Federal Insurance Office, and (acting through the Office of Financial Research, to the extent the Council determines necessary) other Federal and State financial regulatory agencies as the Council deems necessary to carry out the provisions of title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (12 U.S.C. 5311-5374) or this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Information collection from nonbank financial companies.</I> (1) The Council may, to the extent the Council determines appropriate, direct the Office of Financial Research to require the submission of periodic and other reports from any nonbank financial company, including a nonbank financial company that is being considered for a proposed or final determination under § 1310.10(a), for the purpose of assessing the extent to which a nonbank financial company poses a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(2) Before requiring the submission of reports under this paragraph (b) from any nonbank financial company that is regulated by a member agency or any primary financial regulatory agency, the Council, acting through the Office of Financial Research, shall coordinate with such agency or agencies and shall, whenever possible, rely on information available from the Office of Financial Research or such agency or agencies.
</P>
<P>(3) Before requiring the submission of reports under this paragraph (b) from a company that is a foreign nonbank financial company, the Council shall, acting through the Office of Financial Research, to the extent appropriate, consult with the appropriate foreign regulator of such foreign nonbank financial company and, whenever possible, rely on information already being collected by such foreign regulator, with English translation.
</P>
<P>(4) The Council may, to the extent the Council determines appropriate, accept the submission of any data, information, and reports voluntarily submitted by any nonbank financial company that is being considered for a proposed or final determination under § 1310.10(a), for the purpose of assessing the extent to which a nonbank financial company poses a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation.</I> The Council shall consult with the primary financial regulatory agency, if any, for each nonbank financial company or subsidiary of a nonbank financial company that is being considered for supervision by the Board of Governors under § 1310.10(a) in a timely manner before the Council makes any final determination under § 1310.10(a) with respect to such nonbank financial company.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>International coordination.</I> In exercising its duties under this part with respect to foreign nonbank financial companies and cross-border activities and markets, the Council, acting through its Chairperson or other authorized designee, shall consult with appropriate foreign regulatory authorities, to the extent appropriate.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Confidentiality</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> The Council shall maintain the confidentiality of any data, information, and reports submitted under this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Retention of privilege.</I> The submission of any non-publicly available data or information under this part shall not constitute a waiver of, or otherwise affect, any privilege arising under Federal or State law (including the rules of any Federal or State court) to which the data or information is otherwise subject.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Freedom of Information Act.</I> Section 552 of title 5, United States Code, including the exceptions thereunder, and any regulations thereunder adopted by the Council, shall apply to any data, information, and reports submitted under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.21" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.21   Proposed and final determinations; notice and opportunity for an evidentiary hearing.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Written notice of consideration of determination; submission of materials.</I> Before providing a nonbank financial company written notice of a proposed determination pursuant to paragraph (b) of this section, the Council shall provide the nonbank financial company—
</P>
<P>(1) Written notice that the Council is considering whether to make a proposed determination with respect to the nonbank financial company under § 1310.10(a);
</P>
<P>(2) An opportunity to submit written materials, within such time as the Council determines to be appropriate (which shall be not less than 30 days after the date of receipt by the nonbank financial company of the notice described in paragraph (a)(1)), to the Council to contest the Council's consideration of the nonbank financial company for a proposed determination, including materials concerning whether, in the nonbank financial company's view, material financial distress at the nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company, could pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(3) Notice when the Council deems its evidentiary record regarding such nonbank financial company to be complete.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of proposed determination.</I> If the Council determines under § 1310.10(a) that a nonbank financial company should be supervised by the Board of Governors and be subject to prudential standards, the Council shall provide to the nonbank financial company written notice of the proposed determination, including an explanation of the basis of the proposed determination and the date by which an evidentiary hearing may be requested by the nonbank financial company under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Evidentiary hearing.</I> (1) Not later than 30 days after the date of receipt by a nonbank financial company of the notice of proposed determination under paragraph (b) of this section, the nonbank financial company may request, in writing, an opportunity for a nonpublic, written or oral evidentiary hearing before the Council or its representatives to contest the proposed determination under § 1310.10(a).
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt by the Council of a timely request under paragraph (c)(1), the Council shall fix a time (not later than 30 days after the date of receipt by the Council of the request) and place at which such nonbank financial company may appear, personally or through counsel, for a nonpublic evidentiary hearing at which the nonbank financial company may submit written materials (or, at the sole discretion of the Council, oral testimony and oral argument) to contest the proposed determination under § 1310.10(a), including materials concerning whether, in the nonbank financial company's view, material financial distress at the nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company, could pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Final determination after evidentiary hearing.</I> If the nonbank financial company makes a timely request for an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall, not later than 60 days after the hearing date—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether to make a final determination under § 1310.10(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the nonbank financial company, in writing, of any final determination of the Council under § 1310.10(a), which notice shall contain a statement of the basis for the decision of the Council; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the Council makes a final determination under § 1310.10(a), publicly announce the final determination of the Council.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>No evidentiary hearing requested.</I> If a nonbank financial company does not make a timely request for an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c) of this section or notifies the Council in writing that it is not requesting an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall, not later than 10 days after the date by which the nonbank financial company could have requested a hearing under paragraph (c) of this section or 10 days after the date on which the Council receives notice from the nonbank financial company that it is not requesting an evidentiary hearing, as applicable—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether to make a final determination under § 1310.10(a);
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the nonbank financial company, in writing, of any final determination of the Council under § 1310.10(a), which notice shall contain a statement of the basis for the decision of the Council; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the Council makes a final determination under § 1310.10(a), publicly announce the final determination of the Council.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Time period for consideration.</I> (1) If the Council does not make a proposed determination under § 1310.10(a) with respect to a nonbank financial company within 180 days after the date on which the nonbank financial company receives the notice of completion of the Council's evidentiary record described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, the nonbank financial company shall not be eligible for a proposed determination under § 1310.10(a) unless the Council issues a subsequent written notice of consideration of determination under paragraph (a) of this section to such nonbank financial company.
</P>
<P>(2) This paragraph (f) shall not limit the Council's ability to issue a subsequent written notice of consideration of determination under § 1310.21(a) to any nonbank financial company that, within 180 days after the date on which such nonbank financial company received a notice described in paragraph (a)(3) of this section, does not become subject to a proposed determination under § 1310.10(a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.22" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.22   Emergency exception to § 1310.21.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Exception to § 1310.21.</I> Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in § 1310.21, the Council may waive or modify any or all of the notice and other procedural requirements of § 1310.21 with respect to a nonbank financial company if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Council determines that such waiver or modification is necessary or appropriate to prevent or mitigate threats posed by the nonbank financial company to the financial stability of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Council provides written notice of the waiver or modification under this section to the nonbank financial company as soon as practicable, but not later than 24 hours after the waiver or modification is granted. Any such notice shall set forth the manner and form for transmitting a request for an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Consultation.</I> (1) In making a determination under paragraph (a) of this section with respect to a nonbank financial company, the Council shall consult with the primary financial regulatory agency, if any, for such nonbank financial company, in such time and manner as the Council may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(2) In making a determination under paragraph (a) of this section with respect to a foreign nonbank financial company, the Council shall consult with the appropriate home country supervisor, if any, of such foreign nonbank financial company, in such time and manner as the Council may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Opportunity for evidentiary hearing.</I> (1) If the Council, pursuant to paragraph (a) of this section, waives or modifies any of the notice or other procedural requirements of § 1310.21 with respect to a nonbank financial company, the nonbank financial company may request, in writing, an opportunity for a nonpublic, written or oral evidentiary hearing before the Council or its representatives to contest such waiver or modification, not later than 10 days after the date of receipt by the nonbank financial company of the notice described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Upon receipt of a timely request for an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c)(1), the Council shall fix a time (not later than 15 days after the date of receipt by the Council of the request) and place at which the nonbank financial company may appear, personally or through counsel, for a nonpublic evidentiary hearing at which the nonbank financial company may submit written materials (or, at the sole discretion of the Council, oral testimony and oral argument) regarding the waiver or modification under this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of final determination.</I> If the nonbank financial company makes a timely request for an evidentiary hearing under paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall, not later than 30 days after the hearing date—
</P>
<P>(1) Make a final determination regarding the waiver or modification under this § 1310.22;
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the nonbank financial company, in writing, of the final determination of the Council regarding the waiver or modification under this § 1310.22, which notice shall contain a statement of the basis for the final decision of the Council; and
</P>
<P>(3) If the Council makes a final determination under § 1310.10(a), publicly announce the final determination of the Council.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Vote required.</I> Any determination of the Council under paragraph (a)(1) of this section to waive or modify any of the notice or other procedural requirements of § 1310.21 shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council and shall not be delegated by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of the Council.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1310.23" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1310.23   Council reevaluation and rescission of determinations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reevaluation and rescission.</I> The Council shall, not less frequently than annually—
</P>
<P>(1) Reevaluate each currently effective determination made under § 1310.10(a); and
</P>
<P>(2) Rescind any such determination, if the Council determines that the nonbank financial company no longer meets the standard under § 1310.10(a), taking into account the considerations in § 1310.11(a) or § 1310.11(b), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of reevaluation; submission of materials.</I> The Council shall provide written notice to each nonbank financial company subject to a currently effective determination prior to the Council's reevaluation of such determination under paragraph (a) of this section and shall provide such nonbank financial company an opportunity to submit written materials, within such time as the Council determines to be appropriate (which shall be not less than 30 days after the date of receipt by the nonbank financial company of such notice), to the Council to contest the determination, including materials concerning whether, in the nonbank financial company's view, material financial distress at the nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company, could pose a threat to the financial stability of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vote required.</I> Any determination of the Council under paragraph (a)(2) of this section to rescind a determination made with respect to a nonbank financial company shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council and shall not be delegated by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of the Council.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice of rescission.</I> If the Council rescinds a determination with respect to any nonbank financial company under paragraph (a) of this section, the Council shall notify the nonbank financial company, in writing, of such rescission and publicly announce such rescission.






</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV9 N="Appendix A" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.3.3.5.5.7" TYPE="APPENDIX">
<HEAD>Appendix A to Part 1310—Financial Stability Oversight Council Guidance for Nonbank Financial Company Determinations


</HEAD>
<HD1>I. Introduction
</HD1>
<P>Section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (the Dodd-Frank Act) 
<SU>1</SU>
<FTREF/> authorizes the Financial Stability Oversight Council (the Council) to determine that a nonbank financial company will be supervised by the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (the Federal Reserve Board) and be subject to prudential standards, in accordance with Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act, if either (1) the Council determines that material financial distress at the nonbank financial company could pose a threat to U.S. financial stability, or (2) the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the nonbank financial company could pose a threat to U.S. financial stability. Section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act lists the considerations that the Council must take into account in making a determination. This guidance supplements the Council's rule regarding nonbank financial company determinations.
<SU>2</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>1</SU> 12 U.S.C. 5323.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>2</SU> See 12 CFR part 1310.</P></FTNT>
<P>Section II of this appendix outlines a two-stage process that the Council generally expects to follow when determining whether to subject a nonbank financial company to Federal Reserve Board supervision and prudential standards.
<SU>3</SU>
<FTREF/> Section III sets forth the process the Council expects to follow in conducting reevaluations of its previous determinations.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>3</SU> The Council may waive or modify this process in its discretion if it determines that emergency circumstances exist, including if necessary or appropriate to prevent or mitigate threats posed by a nonbank financial company to U.S. financial stability in accordance with section 113(f) of the Dodd-Frank Act, 12 U.S.C. 5323(f).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>II. Process for Nonbank Financial Company Determinations
</HD1>
<P>Under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act, the Council may evaluate a nonbank financial company 
<SU>4</SU>
<FTREF/> for an entity-specific determination. This section describes the process the Council expects to follow in general for those reviews.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>4</SU> The Council intends to interpret the term “company” to include any corporation, limited liability company, partnership, business trust, association, or similar organization. See Dodd-Frank Act section 102(a)(4), 12 U.S.C. 5311(a)(4). In addition, the Council intends to interpret “nonbank financial company supervised by the Board of Governors” as including any nonbank financial company that acquires, directly or indirectly, a majority of the assets or liabilities of a company that is subject to a final determination of the Council. As a result, if a nonbank financial company subject to a final determination of the Council sells or otherwise transfers a majority of its assets or liabilities, the acquirer will succeed to, and become subject to, the Council's determination. As discussed in section III of this appendix A, a nonbank financial company that is subject to a final determination of the Council may request a reevaluation of the determination before the next required annual reevaluation, in an appropriate case. Such an acquirer can use this reevaluation process to seek a rescission of the determination upon consummation of its transaction.</P></FTNT>
<HD2>a. Overview of the Determination Process
</HD2>
<P>As described in detail below, the Council expects generally to follow a two-stage process of evaluation and analysis when evaluating a nonbank financial company under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act. During the first stage of the process (Stage 1), a nonbank financial company identified for review will be notified as provided below and subject to a preliminary analysis, based on quantitative and qualitative information available to the Council primarily through public and regulatory sources. During Stage 1, the Council will permit, but not require, the company to submit relevant information. The Council will also consult with the company's primary financial regulatory agency 
<SU>5</SU>
<FTREF/> or home country supervisor, as appropriate. This approach will enable the Council to fulfill its statutory obligation to rely whenever possible on information available through the Office of Financial Research (the OFR), Council member agencies, or the nonbank financial company's primary financial regulatory agency before requiring the submission of reports from any nonbank financial company.
<SU>6</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>5</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 2(12), 12 U.S.C. 5301(12). In each stage of the Council's process under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act, the Council may also consult with, solicit information from, or coordinate with other state or federal financial regulatory agencies that have jurisdiction over the nonbank financial company or its activities.</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>6</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 112(d)(3), 12 U.S.C. 5322(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<P>Following Stage 1, any nonbank financial company that is selected for additional review will receive notice that it is being considered for a proposed determination that the company will be supervised by the Federal Reserve Board and be subject to prudential standards under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Act (a Proposed Determination) and that the company will be subject to in-depth evaluation during the second stage of review (Stage 2). Stage 2 will also involve the evaluation of additional information collected directly from the nonbank financial company. At the end of Stage 2, the Council may consider whether to make a Proposed Determination with respect to the nonbank financial company. If the Council makes a Proposed Determination, the nonbank financial company may request a hearing in accordance with section 113(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act and § 1310.21(c) of the Council's rule regarding nonbank financial company determinations.
<SU>7</SU>
<FTREF/> After making a Proposed Determination and holding any written or oral hearing if requested, the Council may vote to make a final determination (a Final Determination).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>7</SU> See 12 CFR 1310.21(c).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>b. Stage 1: Preliminary Evaluation of Nonbank Financial Companies
</HD2>
<P>Stage 1 involves a preliminary analysis of nonbank financial companies to assess the risks they could pose to U.S. financial stability. In light of the preliminary nature of a review in Stage 1, the Council expects that not all companies reviewed in Stage 1 will proceed to Stage 2 or a Final Determination.
</P>
<HD3>Identification of Company for Review in Stage 1
</HD3>
<P>The Council may evaluate one or more individual nonbank financial companies for an entity-specific determination under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act. The Council's staff-level committees are responsible for monitoring and analyzing financial markets, financial companies, the financial system, and issues related to financial stability. These committees monitor a broad range of asset classes, institutions, and activities, as described in the Council's Analytic Framework for Financial Stability Risk Identification, Assessment, and Response (the Analytic Framework), and as reflected in the Council's annual reports. In assessing potential risks, these committees consider the vulnerabilities, types of metrics, and transmission channels described in the Analytic Framework. These committees, in the course of their duties, will monitor each sector of the financial system at least annually and will report to the Deputies Committee 
<SU>8</SU>
<FTREF/> regarding potential risks to U.S. financial stability that they identify. With respect to these monitoring and reporting activities, the Council's Systemic Risk Committee is responsible for monitoring and reporting on each financial sector, including information on identified firms and activities that may pose risks that merit further review, unless another Council committee or working group provides such updates to the Deputies Committee on a particular sector. The updates to the Deputies Committee will use applicable metrics as described in the Analytic Framework. The Deputies Committee is responsible for directing, coordinating, and overseeing the work of the Systemic Risk Committee and all of the Council's other staff-level committees and working groups in accordance with this guidance. If an identified risk relates to one or more financial companies that may merit review in the context of a potential determination under section 113, the Council may review those companies in Stage 1. Alternatively, the Deputies Committee may direct a staff-level committee or working group to further assess the identified risks, including consideration of whether the risks could be addressed by a designation under section 113 or by use of a different Council authority, such as recommendations to existing regulators. The Deputies Committee may also direct the Council's Nonbank Financial Companies Designations Committee (the Nonbank Designations Committee) 
<SU>9</SU>
<FTREF/> to conduct an initial analysis of the companies based on the risk-assessment approach described in the Analytic Framework. The purpose of such an analysis by the Nonbank Designations Committee would be to further inform the determination regarding whether one or more companies should be reviewed in Stage 1, if needed. Following any such analysis by the Nonbank Designations Committee, the Council may review one or more companies in Stage 1. Any Council committee's identification, reporting, direction, analysis, or recommendation described in this paragraph will be made in accordance with such committee's bylaws or charter.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>8</SU> The Council's Deputies Committee is composed of senior officials from each Council member and member agency. See Bylaws of the Deputies Committee of the Financial Stability Oversight Council, available at <I>https://fsoc.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>9</SU> The Nonbank Designations Committee supports the Council in fulfilling the Council's responsibilities to consider, make, and review Council determinations regarding nonbank financial companies under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act. See Charter of the Nonbank Financial Companies Designations Committee of the Financial Stability Oversight Council, available at <I>https://fsoc.gov.</I></P></FTNT>
<P>When evaluating the potential risks associated with a nonbank financial company, the Council may consider the company and its subsidiaries separately or together. This approach enables the Council to consider potential risks arising across the entire organization, while retaining the ability to make a determination regarding either the parent or any individual nonbank financial company subsidiary (or neither), depending on which entity the Council determines could pose a threat to financial stability.
</P>
<HD3>Engagement With Company and Regulators in Stage 1
</HD3>
<P>The Council will provide a notice to any nonbank financial company under review in Stage 1 no later than 60 days before the Council votes on whether to evaluate the company in Stage 2. In Stage 1, the Council will consider available public and regulatory information. In order to reduce the burdens of review on the company, the Council will not require the company to submit information during Stage 1; however, a company under review in Stage 1 may submit to the Council any information relevant to the Council's evaluation and may, upon request, meet with staff of Council members and member agencies who are leading the Council's analysis. The Council may request a page-limited summary of the company's submissions. In addition, staff representing the Council will, upon request, provide the company with a list of the primary public sources of information being considered during the Stage 1 analysis, so that the company has an opportunity to understand the information the Council may rely upon during Stage 1. In addition, during discussions in Stage 1 with the company, the Council intends for representatives of the Council to indicate to the company potential risks that have been identified in the analysis. However, any potential risks identified at this stage are preliminary and may continue to develop until the Council makes a Final Determination. Through this engagement, the Council seeks to provide the company under review an opportunity to understand the focus of the Council's analysis, which may enable the company to act to mitigate any risks to financial stability and thereby potentially avoid becoming subject to a Council determination.
</P>
<P>The Council will also consider in Stage 1 information available from relevant existing regulators of the company. Under the Dodd-Frank Act, the Council is required to consult with the primary financial regulatory agency, if any, for each nonbank financial company or subsidiary of a nonbank financial company that is being considered for a determination before the Council makes any Final Determination with respect to such company.
<SU>10</SU>
<FTREF/> For any company under review in Stage 1 that is regulated by a primary financial regulatory agency or home country supervisor, the Council will notify the regulator or supervisor that the company is under review no later than the time the company is notified. The Council will also consult with the primary financial regulatory agency, if any, of each significant subsidiary of the nonbank financial company, to the extent the Council deems appropriate in Stage 1. The Council will actively solicit the regulator's views regarding risks at the company and potential mitigants or aggravating factors. In order to enable the regulator to provide relevant information, the Council will share its preliminary views regarding potential risks at the company, if any and to the extent practicable, and request that the regulator provide information regarding those specific risks, including the extent to which the risks are adequately mitigated by factors such as existing regulation or the company's business practices. During the determination process, the Council will encourage the regulator to address any risks to U.S. financial stability using the regulator's existing authorities; if the Council believes regulators' or the company's actions have adequately addressed the potential risks to U.S. financial stability the Council has identified, the Council may discontinue its consideration of the company for a potential determination under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>10</SU> Dodd-Frank Act section 113(g), 12 U.S.C. 5323(g).</P></FTNT>
<P>Based on the preliminary evaluation in Stage 1, the Council, on a nondelegable basis, may vote to commence a more detailed analysis of the company by advancing the company to Stage 2, or it may decide not to evaluate the company further. If the Council votes not to advance a company that has been reviewed in Stage 1 to Stage 2, the Council will notify the company in writing of the Council's decision. The notice will clarify that a decision not to advance the company from Stage 1 to Stage 2 at that time does not preclude the Council from reinitiating review of the company in Stage 1.
</P>
<HD2>c. Stage 2: In-Depth Evaluation
</HD2>
<P>Stage 2 involves an in-depth evaluation of a nonbank financial company that the Council has determined merits additional review.
</P>
<P>In Stage 2, the Council will review a nonbank financial company using information collected directly from the company, through the OFR, as well as public and regulatory information. The review will focus on whether material financial distress 
<SU>11</SU>
<FTREF/> at the nonbank financial company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or mix of the activities of the company, could pose a threat to U.S. financial stability. The Analytic Framework describes the Council's approach to evaluating potential risks to U.S. financial stability, including in the context of a review under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>11</SU> The Council intends to interpret the term “material financial distress” as a nonbank financial company being in imminent danger of insolvency or defaulting on its financial obligations.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Engagement With Company and Regulators in Stage 2
</HD3>
<P>A nonbank financial company to be evaluated in Stage 2 will receive a notice (a Notice of Consideration) that the company is under consideration for a Proposed Determination. The Council also will submit to the company a request that the company provide information that the Council deems relevant to the Council's evaluation, and the nonbank financial company will be provided an opportunity to submit written materials to the Council.
<SU>12</SU>
<FTREF/> This information will generally be collected by the OFR.
<SU>13</SU>
<FTREF/> Before requiring the submission of reports from any nonbank financial company that is regulated by a Council member agency or a primary financial regulatory agency, the Council, acting through the OFR, will coordinate with such agencies and will, whenever possible, rely on information available from the OFR or such agencies. Council members and their agencies and staffs will maintain the confidentiality of such information in accordance with applicable law. During Stage 2, the company may also submit any other information that it deems relevant to the Council's evaluation. Information that may be considered by the Council includes details regarding the company's financial activities, legal structure, liabilities, counterparty exposures, resolvability, and existing regulatory oversight. Information requests likely will involve both qualitative and quantitative information. Information relevant to the Council's analysis may include confidential business information such as detailed information regarding financial assets, terms of funding arrangements, counterparty exposure or position data, strategic plans, and interaffiliate transactions.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>12</SU> See 12 CFR 1310.21(a).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>13</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 112(d), 12 U.S.C. 5322(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>The Council will make staff representing Council members available to meet with the representatives of any company that enters Stage 2, to explain the evaluation process and the framework for the Council's analysis. In addition, the Council expects that its Deputies Committee will grant a request to meet with a company in Stage 2 to allow the company to present any information or arguments it deems relevant to the Council's evaluation. If the analysis in Stage 1 has identified specific aspects of the company's operations or activities as the primary focus for the evaluation, staff will notify the company of those specific aspects, although the areas of analytic focus may change based on the ongoing analysis.
</P>
<P>During Stage 2 the Council will also seek to continue its consultation with the company's primary financial regulatory agency or home country supervisor in a timely manner before the Council makes a Proposed or Final Determination with respect to the company. The Council will continue to encourage the regulator during the determination process to address any risks to U.S. financial stability using the regulator's existing authorities; as noted above, if the Council believes regulators' or the company's actions adequately address the potential risks to U.S. financial stability the Council has identified, the Council would expect to discontinue its consideration of the company for a potential determination under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P>Before making a Proposed Determination regarding a nonbank financial company, the Council will notify the company when the Council believes that the evidentiary record regarding the company is complete.
<SU>14</SU>
<FTREF/> The Council will notify any nonbank financial company in Stage 2 if the company ceases to be considered for a determination. Any nonbank financial company that ceases to be considered at any time in the Council's determination process may be considered for a potential determination in the future at the Council's discretion, consistent with the processes described above.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>14</SU> See 12 CFR 1310.21(a)(3).</P></FTNT>
<HD2>d. Proposed and Final Determinations
</HD2>
<HD3>Proposed Determination
</HD3>
<P>Based on the analysis performed in Stage 2, a nonbank financial company may be considered for a Proposed Determination. A Proposed Determination requires a vote, on a nondelegable basis, of two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving, including an affirmative vote by the Chairperson of the Council.
<SU>15</SU>
<FTREF/> Following a Proposed Determination, the Council will issue a written notice of the Proposed Determination to the nonbank financial company, which will include an explanation of the basis of the Proposed Determination.
<SU>16</SU>
<FTREF/> Promptly after the Council votes to make a Proposed Determination regarding a company, the Council will provide the company's primary financial regulatory agency or home country supervisor with the nonpublic written explanation of the basis of the Council's Proposed Determination (subject to appropriate protections for confidential information).
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>15</SU> 12 CFR 1310.10(b).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>16</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 113(e)(1), 12 U.S.C. 5323(e)(1).</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Hearing
</HD3>
<P>A nonbank financial company that is subject to a Proposed Determination may request a nonpublic hearing to contest the Proposed Determination in accordance with section 113(e) of the Dodd-Frank Act and § 1310.21(c) of the Council's rule regarding nonbank financial company determinations.
<SU>17</SU>
<FTREF/> If the nonbank financial company requests a hearing in accordance with the procedures set forth in § 1310.21(c), the Council will set a time and place for such hearing. The Council has published hearing procedures on its website.
<SU>18</SU>
<FTREF/> In light of the statutory timeframe for conducting a hearing, and the fact that the purpose of the hearing is to benefit the company, if a company requests that the Council waive the statutory deadline for conducting the hearing, the Council may do so in appropriate circumstances.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>17</SU> See 12 CFR 1310.21(c).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>18</SU> Financial Stability Oversight Council Hearing Procedures for Proceedings Under Title I or Title VIII of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, available at <I>https://fsoc.gov</I>.</P></FTNT>
<HD3>Final Determination
</HD3>
<P>After making a Proposed Determination and holding any requested written or oral hearing, the Council, on a nondelegable basis, may, by a vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the voting members of the Council then serving (including an affirmative vote by the Chairperson of the Council), make a Final Determination that the company will be subject to supervision by the Federal Reserve Board and prudential standards. If the Council makes a Final Determination, it will provide the company with a written notice of the Council's Final Determination, including an explanation of the basis for the Council's decision.
<SU>19</SU>
<FTREF/> The Council will also provide the company's primary financial regulatory agency or home country supervisor with the nonpublic written explanation of the basis of the Council's Final Determination (subject to appropriate protections for confidential information). The Council expects that its explanation of the basis for any Final Determination will highlight the key risks that led to the determination and include guidance regarding the factors that were important in the Council's determination. When practicable and consistent with the purposes of the determination process, the Council will provide a nonbank financial company with notice of a Final Determination at least one business day before publicly announcing the determination pursuant to § 1310.21(d)(3), § 1310.21(e)(3), or § 1310.22(d)(3) of the Council's rule.
<SU>20</SU>
<FTREF/> In accordance with the Dodd-Frank Act, a nonbank financial company that is subject to a Final Determination may bring an action in U.S. district court for an order requiring that the determination be rescinded.
<SU>21</SU>
<FTREF/>
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>19</SU> Dodd-Frank Act section 113(e)(3), 12 U.S.C. 5323(e)(3); see also 12 CFR 1310.21(d)(2) and (e)(2).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>20</SU> See 12 CFR 1310.21(d)(3) and (e)(3) and 1310.22(d)(3).</P></FTNT>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>21</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 113(h), 12 U.S.C. 5323(h).</P></FTNT>
<P>The Council does not intend to publicly announce the name of any nonbank financial company that is under evaluation prior to a Final Determination with respect to such company. However, if a company that is under review in Stage 1 or Stage 2 publicly announces the status of its review by the Council, the Council intends, upon the request of a third party, to confirm the status of the company's review. In addition, the Council will publicly release the explanation of the Council's basis for any Final Determination or rescission of a determination, following such an action by the Council. The Council is subject to statutory and regulatory requirements to maintain the confidentiality of certain information submitted to it by a nonbank financial company or its regulators.
<SU>22</SU>
<FTREF/> In light of these confidentiality obligations, such confidential information will be redacted from the materials that the Council makes publicly available, although the Council does not expect to restrict a company's ability to disclose such information.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>22</SU> See Dodd-Frank Act section 112(d)(5), 12 U.S.C. 5322(d)(5); see also 12 CFR 1310.20(e).</P></FTNT>
<HD1>III. Annual Reevaluations of Nonbank Financial Company Determinations
</HD1>
<P>After the Council makes a Final Determination regarding a nonbank financial company, the Council intends to encourage the company or its regulators to take steps to mitigate the potential risks identified in the Council's written explanation of the basis for its Final Determination. Except in cases where new material risks arise over time, if the potential risks identified in writing by the Council at the time of the Final Determination and in subsequent reevaluations have been adequately addressed, generally the Council would expect to rescind its determination regarding the company.
</P>
<P>For any nonbank financial company that is subject to a Final Determination, the Council is required to reevaluate the determination at least annually, and to rescind the determination if the Council determines that the company no longer meets the statutory standards for a determination.
<SU>23</SU>
<FTREF/> The Council may also consider a request from a company for a reevaluation before the next required annual reevaluation, in the case of an extraordinary change that materially affects the Council's analysis.
</P>
<FTNT>
<P>
<SU>23</SU> Dodd-Frank Act section 113(d), 12 U.S.C. 5323(d).</P></FTNT>
<P>The Council will apply the same standards of review in its annual reevaluations as the standards for an initial determination regarding a nonbank financial company: either material financial distress at the company, or the nature, scope, size, scale, concentration, interconnectedness, or the mix of the company's activities, could pose a threat to U.S. financial stability. If the Council determines that the company does not meet either of those standards, the Council will rescind its determination.
</P>
<P>The Council's annual reevaluations will generally assess whether any material changes since the previous reevaluation and since the Final Determination justify a rescission of the determination. The Council expects that its reevaluation process will focus on whether any material changes that have taken effect—including changes at the company, changes in its markets or its regulation, changes in the impact of relevant factors, or otherwise—result in the company no longer meeting the standards for a determination. In light of the frequent reevaluations, the Council's analyses will generally focus on material changes since the Council's previous review, but the ultimate question the Council will seek to assess is whether changes in the aggregate since the Council's Final Determination regarding the company have caused the company to cease meeting either of the statutory standards for a determination.
</P>
<P>During the Council's annual reevaluation of a determination regarding a nonbank financial company, the Council will provide the company with an opportunity to meet with representatives of the Council to discuss the scope and process for the review and to present information regarding any change that may be relevant to the threat the company could pose to financial stability. In addition, during an annual reevaluation, the company may submit any written information to the Council the company deems relevant to the Council's analysis. During annual reevaluations, a company is encouraged to submit information regarding any changes related to the company's risk profile that mitigate the potential risks previously identified by the Council. Such changes could include updates regarding company restructurings, regulatory developments, market changes, or other factors. If the company or its regulators have taken steps to address the potential risks previously identified by the Council, the Council will assess whether the risks have been adequately mitigated to merit a rescission of the determination regarding the company. If the company explains in detail and in a timely manner potential changes it could make to its business to address the potential risks previously identified by the Council, representatives of the Council will endeavor to provide their feedback on the extent to which those changes may address the potential risks.
</P>
<P>If a company contests the Council's determination during the Council's annual reevaluation, the Council will vote on whether to rescind the determination and provide the company, its primary financial regulatory agency or home country supervisor, and the primary financial regulatory agency of its significant subsidiaries with a notice explaining the primary basis for any decision not to rescind the determination. If the Council does not rescind the determination, the written notice provided to the company will address the most material factors raised by the company in its submissions to the Council contesting the determination during the annual reevaluation. The written notice from the Council will also explain why the Council did not find that the company no longer met the standard for a determination under section 113 of the Dodd-Frank Act. In general, due to the sensitive, company-specific nature of its analyses in annual reevaluations, the Council generally would not publicly release the written findings that it provides to the company, although the Council does not expect to restrict a company's ability to disclose such information.
</P>
<P>Finally, the Council will provide each nonbank financial company subject to a Council determination an opportunity for an oral hearing before the Council once every five years at which the company can contest the determination.


</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[88 FR 80127, Nov. 17, 2023]


</CITA>
</DIV9>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1320" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1320—DESIGNATION OF FINANCIAL MARKET UTILITIES
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5321; 12 U.S.C. 5322; 12 U.S.C. 5463; 12 U.S.C. 5468; 12 U.S.C. 5469
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 44773, July 27, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.1" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.1   Authority and purpose.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Financial Stability Oversight Council under sections 111, 112, 804, 809, and 810 of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (“Dodd-Frank Act”) (12 U.S.C. 5321, 5322, 5463, 5468, and 5469).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this part is to set forth the standards and procedures governing the Council's designation of a financial market utility that the Council determines is, or is likely to become, systemically important.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.2" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The terms used in this part have the following meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal banking agency.</I> The term “<I>appropriate Federal banking agency”</I> has the same meaning as in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), as amended.
</P>
<P><I>Board of Governors.</I> The term “<I>Board of Governors”</I> means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.
</P>
<P><I>Council.</I> The term “<I>Council”</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council.
</P>
<P><I>Designated clearing entity.</I> The term “<I>designated clearing entity”</I> means a designated financial market utility that is a derivatives clearing organization registered under section 5b of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 7a-1) or a clearing agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission under section 17A of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78q-1).
</P>
<P><I>Designated financial market utility.</I> The term “<I>designated financial market utility”</I> means a financial market utility that the Council has designated as systemically important under § 1320.13.
</P>
<P><I>Financial institution.</I> The term “<I>financial institution”</I>—
</P>
<P>(1) Means—
</P>
<P>(i) A depository institution as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813);
</P>
<P>(ii) A branch or agency of a foreign bank, as defined in section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978 (12 U.S.C. 3101);
</P>
<P>(iii) An organization operating under section 25 or 25A of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 601-604a and 611 through 631);
</P>
<P>(iv) A credit union, as defined in section 101 of the Federal Credit Union Act (12 U.S.C. 1752);
</P>
<P>(v) A broker or dealer, as defined in section 3 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c);
</P>
<P>(vi) An investment company, as defined in section 3 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-3);
</P>
<P>(vii) An insurance company, as defined in section 2 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80a-2);
</P>
<P>(viii) An investment adviser, as defined in section 202 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-2);
</P>
<P>(ix) A futures commission merchant, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, as defined in section 1a of the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1a); and
</P>
<P>(x) Any company engaged in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity, as described in section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act of 1956 (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)).
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, securities information processors solely with respect to the activities of the entity as a securities information processor, security-based swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), or designated clearing entities, provided that the exclusions in this paragraph apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered.
</P>
<P><I>Financial market utility.</I> The term “financial market utility”—
</P>
<P>(1) Means any person that manages or operates a multilateral system for the purpose of transferring, clearing, or settling payments, securities, or other financial transactions among financial institutions or between financial institutions and the person; and
</P>
<P>(2) Does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Designated contract markets, registered futures associations, swap data repositories, and swap execution facilities registered under the Commodity Exchange Act (7 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>), or national securities exchanges, national securities associations, alternative trading systems, security-based swap data repositories, and swap data execution facilities registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78a <I>et seq.</I>), solely by reason of their providing facilities for comparison of data respecting the terms of settlement of securities or futures transactions effected on such exchange or by means of any electronic system operated or controlled by such entities, provided that the exclusions in this clause apply only with respect to the activities that require the entity to be so registered; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Any broker, dealer, transfer agent, or investment company, or any futures commission merchant, introducing broker, commodity trading advisor, or commodity pool operator, solely by reason of functions performed by such institution as part of brokerage, dealing, transfer agency, or investment company activities, or solely by reason of acting on behalf of a financial market utility or a participant therein in connection with the furnishing by the financial market utility of services to its participants or the use of services of the financial market utility by its participants, provided that services performed by such institution do not constitute critical risk management or processing functions of the financial market utility.
</P>
<P><I>Hearing date.</I> The term “hearing date” means the later of—
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which the Council receives all of the written materials timely submitted by the financial market utility for a hearing that is conducted without oral testimony; or
</P>
<P>(2) The final date on which the Council convenes for the financial market utility to present oral testimony.
</P>
<P><I>Payment, clearing, or settlement activity.</I>
</P>
<P>(1) The term “payment, clearing, or settlement activity” means an activity carried out by 1 or more financial institutions to facilitate the completion of financial transactions, but shall not include any offer or sale of a security under the Securities Act of 1933 (15 U.S.C. 77a <I>et seq.</I>), or any quotation, order entry, negotiation, or other pre-trade activity or execution activity.
</P>
<P>(2) For purposes of paragraph (1) of this definition, the term “financial transaction” includes—
</P>
<P>(i) Funds transfers;
</P>
<P>(ii) Securities contracts;
</P>
<P>(iii) Contracts of sale of a commodity for future delivery;
</P>
<P>(iv) Forward contracts;
</P>
<P>(v) Repurchase agreements;
</P>
<P>(vi) Swaps;
</P>
<P>(vii) Security-based swaps;
</P>
<P>(viii) Swap agreements;
</P>
<P>(ix) Security-based swap agreements;
</P>
<P>(x) Foreign exchange contracts;
</P>
<P>(xi) Financial derivatives contracts; and
</P>
<P>(xii) Any similar transaction that the Council determines to be a financial transaction for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P>(3) When conducted with respect to a financial transaction, payment, clearing, and settlement activities may include—
</P>
<P>(i) The calculation and communication of unsettled financial transactions between counterparties;
</P>
<P>(ii) The netting of transactions;
</P>
<P>(iii) Provision and maintenance of trade, contract, or instrument information;
</P>
<P>(iv) The management of risks and activities associated with continuing financial transactions;
</P>
<P>(v) Transmittal and storage of payment instructions;
</P>
<P>(vi) The movement of funds;
</P>
<P>(vii) The final settlement of financial transactions; and
</P>
<P>(viii) Other similar functions that the Council may determine.
</P>
<P>(4) Payment, clearing, and settlement activities shall not include public reporting of swap transactions under section 727 or 763(i) of the Dodd-Frank Act.
</P>
<P><I>Supervisory Agency.</I> (1) The term “Supervisory Agency” means the Federal agency that—
</P>
<P>(i) Has primary jurisdiction over a designated financial market utility under Federal banking, securities, or commodity futures laws as follows—
</P>
<P>(A) The Securities and Exchange Commission, with respect to a designated financial market utility that is a clearing agency registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission;
</P>
<P>(B) The Commodity Futures Trading Commission, with respect to a designated financial market utility that is a derivatives clearing organization registered with the Commodity Futures Trading Commission;
</P>
<P>(C) The appropriate Federal banking agency, with respect to a designated financial market utility that is an institution described in section 3(q) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act;
</P>
<P>(D) The Board of Governors, with respect to a designated financial market utility that is otherwise not subject to the jurisdiction of any agency listed in paragraphs (1)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this definition; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Would have primary jurisdiction over a financial market utility if the financial market utility were a designated financial market utility under paragraph (1) of this definition.
</P>
<P>(2) If a financial market utility is subject to the jurisdictional supervision of more than one agency listed in paragraph (1) of this definition, then such agencies should agree on one agency to act as the Supervisory Agency, and if such agencies cannot agree on which agency has primary jurisdiction, the Council shall decide which is the Supervisory Agency for purposes of this part.
</P>
<P><I>Systemically important and systemic importance.</I> The terms “systemically important” and “systemic importance” mean a situation where the failure of or a disruption to the functioning of a financial market utility could create, or increase, the risk of significant liquidity or credit problems spreading among financial institutions or markets and thereby threaten the stability of the financial system of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Consultations, Determinations and Hearings</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.10" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.10   Factors for consideration in designations.</HEAD>
<P>In making any proposed or final determination with respect to whether a financial market utility is, or is likely to become, systemically important under this part, the Council shall take into consideration:
</P>
<P>(a) The aggregate monetary value of transactions processed by the financial market utility, including without limitation—
</P>
<P>(1) The number of transactions processed, cleared or settled;
</P>
<P>(2) The value of transactions processed, cleared or settled; and
</P>
<P>(3) The value of other financial flows.
</P>
<P>(b) The aggregate exposure of the financial market utility to its counterparties, including without limitation—
</P>
<P>(1) Credit exposures, which includes but is not limited to potential future exposures; and
</P>
<P>(2) Liquidity exposures.
</P>
<P>(c) The relationship, interdependencies, or other interactions of the financial market utility with other financial market utilities or payment, clearing, or settlement activities, including without limitation interactions with different types of participants in those utilities or activities.
</P>
<P>(d) The effect that the failure of or a disruption to the financial market utility would have on critical markets, financial institutions, or the broader financial system, including without limitation—
</P>
<P>(1) Role of the financial market utility in the market served;
</P>
<P>(2) Availability of substitutes;
</P>
<P>(3) Concentration of participants;
</P>
<P>(4) Concentration by product type;
</P>
<P>(5) Degree of tiering; and
</P>
<P>(6) Potential impact or spillover in the event of a failure or disruption.
</P>
<P>(e) Any other factors that the Council deems appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.11" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.11   Consultation with financial market utility.</HEAD>
<P>Before providing a financial market utility notice of a proposed determination under § 1320.12, the Council shall provide the financial market utility with—
</P>
<P>(a) Written notice that the Council is considering whether to make a proposed determination with respect to the financial market utility under § 1320.13; and
</P>
<P>(b) An opportunity to submit written materials to the Council, within such time as the Council determines to be appropriate, concerning—
</P>
<P>(1) Whether the financial market utility is systemically important taking into consideration the factors set out in § 1320.10; and
</P>
<P>(2) Proposed changes by the financial market utility that could—
</P>
<P>(i) Reduce or increase the inherent systemic risk the financial market utility poses and the need for designation under § 1320.13; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Reduce or increase the appropriateness of rescission under § 1320.13.
</P>
<P>(3) The Council shall consider any written materials timely submitted by the financial market utility under this section before making a proposed determination under section 1320.13.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.12" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.12   Advance notice of proposed determination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of proposed determination and opportunity for hearing.</I> Before making any final determination on designation or rescission under § 1320.13, the Council shall propose a determination and provide the financial market utility with advance notice of the proposed determination, and proposed findings of fact supporting that determination. A proposed determination shall be made by a vote of the Council in the manner described in § 1320.13(c).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Request for hearing.</I> Within 30 calendar days from the date of any provision of notice of the proposed determination of the Council, the financial market utility may request, in writing, an opportunity for a written or oral hearing before the Council to demonstrate that the proposed designation or rescission of designation is not supported by substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Written submissions.</I> Upon receipt of a timely request, the Council shall fix a time, not more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the request, unless extended by the Council at the request of the financial market utility, and place at which the financial market utility may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials, or, at the sole discretion of the Council, oral testimony and oral argument.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.13" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.13   Council determination regarding systemic importance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Designation determination.</I> The Council shall designate a financial market utility if the Council determines that the financial market utility is, or is likely to become, systemically important.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rescission determination.</I> The Council shall rescind a designation of systemic importance for a designated financial market utility if the Council determines that the financial market utility no longer meets the standards for systemic importance.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Vote required.</I> Any determination under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section and any proposed determination under § 1320.12 shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council and must not be delegated by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the vote of not fewer than two-thirds of the members of the Council then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of the Council.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultations.</I> Before making any determination under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section or any proposed determination under § 1320.12, the Council shall consult with the relevant Supervisory Agency and the Board of Governors.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.14" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.14   Emergency exception.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Emergency exception.</I> Notwithstanding §§ 1320.11 and 1320.12, the Council may waive or modify any or all of the notice, hearing, and other requirements of §§ 1320.11 and 1320.12 with respect to a financial market utility if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Council determines that the waiver or modification is necessary to prevent or mitigate an immediate threat to the financial system posed by the financial market utility; and
</P>
<P>(2) The Council provides notice of the waiver or modification, and an explanation of the basis for the waiver or modification, to the financial market utility concerned, as soon as practicable, but not later than 24 hours after the waiver or modification.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Vote required.</I> Any determination by the Council under paragraph (a) to waive or modify any of the requirements of §§ 1320.11 and 1320.12 shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Be made by the Council; and
</P>
<P>(2) Require the affirmative vote of not fewer than two-thirds of members then serving, including the affirmative vote of the Chairperson of Council.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Request for hearing.</I> Within 10 calendar days from the date of any provision of notice of waiver or modification of the Council, the financial market utility may request, in writing, an opportunity for a written or oral hearing before the Council to demonstrate that the basis for the waiver or modification is not supported by substantial evidence.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Written submissions.</I> Upon receipt of a timely request, the Council shall fix a time, not more than 30 calendar days after receipt of the request, and place at which the financial market utility may appear, personally or through counsel, to submit written materials, or, at the sole discretion of the Counsel, oral testimony and oral argument.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification of hearing determination.</I> If a financial market utility makes a timely request for a hearing under paragraph (c) of this section, the Council shall, not later than 30 calendar days after the hearing date, notify the financial market utility of the determination of the Council, which shall include a statement of the basis for the determination of the Council.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.15" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.15   Notification of final determination regarding systemic importance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notification of final determination after a hearing.</I> Within 60 calendar days of the hearing date, the Council shall provide to the financial market utility written notification of the final determination of the Council under § 1320.13, which shall include findings of fact upon which the determination of the Council is based.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notification of final determination if no hearing.</I> If the Council does not receive a timely request for a hearing under § 1320.12, the Council shall provide the financial market utility written notification of the final determination of the Council under § 1320.13 not later than 30 calendar days after the expiration of the date by which a financial market utility could have requested a hearing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.16" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.16   Extension of time periods.</HEAD>
<P>The Council may extend any time period established in § 1320.12, § 1320.14, or § 1320.15 as the Council determines to be necessary or appropriate.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Information Collection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1320.20" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.4.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1320.20   Council information collection and coordination.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Information collection to assess systemic importance.</I> The Council may require any financial market utility to submit such information to the Council as the Council may require for the sole purpose of assessing whether the financial market utility is systemically important.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prerequisites to information collection.</I> Before requiring any financial market utility to submit information to the Council under paragraph (a) of this section, the Council shall—
</P>
<P>(1) Determine that it has reasonable cause to believe that the financial market utility is, or is likely to become, systemically important, considering the standards set out in § 1320.10; or
</P>
<P>(2) Determine that it has reasonable cause to believe that the designated financial market utility is no longer, or is no longer likely to become, systemically important, considering the standards set out in § 1320.10; and
</P>
<P>(3) Coordinate with the Supervisory Agency for the financial market utility to determine if the information is available from, or may be obtained by, the Supervisory Agency in the form, format, or detail required by the Council.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Timing of response from the appropriate Supervisory Agency.</I> If the information, reports, records, or data requested by the Council under paragraph (b)(3) of this section are not provided in full by the Supervisory Agency in less than 15 calendar days after the date on which the material is requested, the Council may request the information directly from the financial market utility with notice to the Supervisory Agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice to financial market utility of information collection requirement.</I> In requiring a financial market utility to submit information to the Council, the Council shall provide to the financial market utility the following—
</P>
<P>(1) Written notice that the Council is considering whether to make a proposed determination under § 1320.12; and
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the basis for the Council's belief under paragraphs (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1321-1399" NODE="12:10.0.3.6.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1321-1399 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XIV" NODE="12:10.0.4" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XIV—FARM CREDIT SYSTEM INSURANCE CORPORATION</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1400" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1400—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2277a-5; 12 U.S.C. 2277a-7.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>55 FR 36610, Sept. 6, 1990, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Organization and Functions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.1   Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation (Corporation) was created by sections 5.52 and 5.58 of the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (Act) to carry out the responsibilities set out in part E of title V of the Act, including insuring the timely payment of principal and interest on notes, bonds, debentures, and other obligations issued under subsection (c) or (d) of section 4.2 of the Farm Credit Act on behalf of one or more Farm Credit System banks.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.2" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.2   Board of Directors of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>The Board of Directors of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation is entrusted with the responsibility to manage the Corporation. The Board of Directors consists of the members of the Farm Credit Administration Board. The Chairman of the Corporation is elected by the members of the Board.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1400.3" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1400.3   Organization of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>Officers of the Corporation shall be appointed by the Board of Directors of the Corporation. Current information on the organization of the Corporation may be obtained from the Corporation, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia 22102-0826.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.1.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1401" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1401—EMPLOYEE RESPONSIBILITIES AND CONDUCT 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 7301; 12 U.S.C. 2277a-7. 


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV8 N="§ 1401.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.2.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1401.1   Cross-references to employee ethical conduct standards and financial disclosure regulations.</HEAD>
<P>Board members, officers, and other employees of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation are subject to the Standards of Ethical Conduct for Employees of the Executive Branch at 5 CFR part 2635, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation regulation at 5 CFR part 4001, which supplements the Executive Branch-wide Standards, and the executive branch-wide financial disclosure regulations at 5 CFR part 2634. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[60 FR 30778, June 12, 1995]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1402" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1402—RELEASING INFORMATION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.58, 5.59 of Pub. L. 92-181, 85 Stat. 583 (12 U.S.C. 2277a-7, 2277a-8); 5 U.S.C. 552; 52 FR 10012; E.O. 12600, 52 FR 23781, 3 CFR, 1987 Comp., p. 235.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 24638, May 12, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A [Reserved]</HEAD>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Availability of Records of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.10" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.10   Official records of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall, upon any request for records which reasonably describes them and is made in accordance with the provisions of this subpart, make the records available as promptly as practicable to any person, except exempt records, which include the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Records specifically authorized under criteria established by an Executive order to be kept secret in the interest of national defense or foreign policy and are in fact properly classified pursuant to such Executive order;
</P>
<P>(2) Records related solely to the internal personnel rules and practices of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, including matters which are for the guidance of agency personnel;
</P>
<P>(3) Records which are specifically exempted from disclosure by statute;
</P>
<P>(4) Trade secret, commercial, proprietary, or financial information obtained from any person or organization and privileged or confidential;
</P>
<P>(5) Inter-agency or intra-agency memorandums or letters which would not be available by law to a private party in litigation with the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation or in litigation in which the United States, as a real party in interest on behalf of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, is a party;
</P>
<P>(6) Personnel and similar files, the disclosure of which would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes, but only to the extent that the production of such law enforcement records or information:
</P>
<P>(i) Could reasonably be expected to interfere with enforcement proceedings;
</P>
<P>(ii) Would deprive a person of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication;
</P>
<P>(iii) Could reasonably be expected to constitute an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
</P>
<P>(iv) Could reasonably be expected to disclose the identity of a confidential source, including a State, local, or foreign agency or authority or any private institution which furnished information on a confidential basis, and, in the case of a record or information compiled by criminal law enforcement authority in the course of a criminal investigation or by an agency conducting a lawful national security intelligence investigation, information furnished by a confidential source;
</P>
<P>(v) Would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or prosecutions if such disclosure could reasonably be expected to risk circumvention of the law; or
</P>
<P>(vi) Could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any individual; and
</P>
<P>(8) Records of or related to examination, operation, reports of condition and performance, or reports of or related to Farm Credit System institutions and that are prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(b) Any reasonably segregable portion of a record shall be provided to any person requesting such record after deletion of the portions which are exempt under this section.
</P>
<P>(c) This section does not authorize withholding of information or limit the availability of records to the public, except as specifically stated in this section. This section is not authority to withhold information from Congress.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.11" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.11   Current index.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will make available for public inspection and copying a current index to provide identifying information as to any matter required by 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(2)(C) to be made available or published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Because of the anticipated infrequency of requests for material required to be indexed, it is determined that the publication of the index in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> is unnecessary and impracticable. However, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will provide a copy of such index to a member of the public upon request therefor at a cost not in excess of the direct cost of duplication.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.12" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.12   Identification of records requested.</HEAD>
<P>A member of the public who requests records from the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall provide a reasonable description of the records sought including, where possible, specific information as to dates, titles, and subject matter, so that such records may be located without undue search or inquiry. If a record is not identified by a reasonable description, the request therefor may be denied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.13" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.13   Request for records.</HEAD>
<P>Requests for records shall be in writing and addressed to the attention of the Freedom of Information Officer, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, McLean, Virginia 22102. A request improperly addressed will be deemed not to have been received for purposes of the 20-day time period set forth in § 1402.14(a) of this part until it is received, or would have been received, by the Freedom of Information Officer, with the exercise of due diligence by Corporation personnel. Records requested in conformance with this subpart and which are not exempt records may be received in person or by mail as specified in the request. Records to be received in person will be available for inspection or copying during business hours on a regular business day in the office of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, 1501 Farm Credit Drive, McLean, Virginia, 22102.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[62 FR 49593, Sept. 23, 1997]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.14" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.14   Response to requests for records.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Within 20 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays), or any extensions thereof as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, of the receipt of a request by the Freedom of Information Officer, the Freedom of Information Officer shall determine whether to comply with or deny such a request and transmit a written notice thereof to the requester. 
</P>
<P>(b) Within 90 days of the receipt of a notice denying, in whole or in part, a request for records, the requester may appeal the denial. The appeal shall be in writing addressed to the Chief Financial Officer, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, McLean, Virginia 22102, and both the letter and envelope shall clearly be marked “FOIA Appeal.” An appeal improperly addressed shall be deemed not to have been received for purposes of the 20-day time period set forth in paragraph (c) of this section until it is received, or would have been received with the exercise of due diligence by Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation personnel. You also have the right to seek dispute resolution services from the Corporation's FOIA Public Liaison, McLean, Virginia 22102, and the Office of Government Information Services, National Archives and Records Administration, 8601 Adelphi Road—OGIS, College Park, Maryland 20740-6001.
</P>
<P>(c) Within 20 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays), or any extension thereof as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, of the receipt of an appeal, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall act upon the appeal and place a notice of the determination thereof in writing in the mail addressed to the requester. If the determination on the appeal upholds in whole or in part the denial of the request for records, or, if a determination on the appeal has not been mailed at the end of the 20-day period or the last extension thereof, the requester is deemed to have exhausted that person's administrative remedies, giving rise to a right of review in a district court of the United States as specified in 5 U.S.C. 552(a)(4). When a determination cannot be mailed within the applicable time limit, the appeal will nevertheless be processed. In such case, upon the expiration of the time limit, the requester will be informed of the reason for the delay, of the date on which a determination may be expected to be mailed, and of that person's right to seek judicial review. The requester may be asked to forego judicial review until determination of the appeal. 
</P>
<P>(d) In “unusual circumstances,” the 20-day time limit prescribed in paragraphs (a) and (c) of this section, or both, may be extended by the Freedom of Information Officer or, in the case of an appeal, by the General Counsel, provided that the total of all extensions does not exceed 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal public holidays). Extensions shall be made by written notice to the requester setting forth the reason for the extension and the date on which a determination is expected to be dispatched. As used in this paragraph, <I>“unusual circumstances”</I> means, but only to the extent reasonably necessary to the proper processing of the request:
</P>
<P>(1) The need to search for and collect the requested records from facilities or other establishments that are separate from the office processing the request;
</P>
<P>(2) The need to search for, collect, and appropriately examine a voluminous amount of separate and distinct records which are demanded in a single request; or
</P>
<P>(3) The need for consultation, which shall be conducted with all practicable speed, with another agency having a substantial interest in the determination of the request or among two or more components of the agency having a substantial subject matter interest therein.
</P>
<P>(e) A requester may obtain, upon request, expedited processing of a request for records when the requester demonstrates a “compelling need” for the information. The Freedom of Information Officer will notify the requester within 10 calendar days after receipt of such a request whether the Corporation granted expedited processing. If expedited processing was granted, the request will be processed as soon as practicable.
</P>
<P>(1) For the purposes of this paragraph, “<I>compelling need</I>” means:
</P>
<P>(i) That a failure to obtain requested records on an expedited basis could reasonably be expected to pose an imminent threat to the life or physical safety of an individual; or
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to a request made by a person primarily engaged in disseminating information, urgency to inform the public concerning actual or alleged Federal Government activity.
</P>
<P>(2) A requester shall demonstrate a compelling need by a statement certified by the requester to be true and correct to the best of such person's knowledge and belief.
</P>
<P>(3) The procedures of this paragraph (e) for expedited processing apply to both requests for information and to administrative appeals.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 24638, May 12, 1994, as amended at 62 FR 49593, Sept. 23, 1997; 81 FR 59438, Aug. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.15" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.15   Business information.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Business information provided to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation by a business submitter shall not be disclosed pursuant to a Freedom of Information Act request except in accordance with this section. The requirements of this section shall not apply if: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation determines that the information should not be disclosed; 
</P>
<P>(2) The information lawfully has been published or otherwise made available to the public; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Disclosure of the information is required by law (other than 5 U.S.C. 552). 
</P>
<P>(b) For the purpose of this section, the following definitions shall apply. 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Business information</I> means trade secrets or other commercial or financial information. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Business submitter</I> means any person or entity which provides business information to the government. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Requester</I> means the person or entity making the Freedom of Information Act request. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Freedom of Information Officer shall, to the extent permitted by law, provide a business submitter with prompt written notice of a request encompassing its business information whenever required under paragraph (d) of this section. Such notice shall either describe the exact nature of the business information requested or provide copies of the records or portions thereof containing the business information. 
</P>
<P>(2) Whenever the Freedom of Information Officer provides a business submitter with the notice set forth in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the Freedom of Information Officer shall notify the requester that the request includes information that may arguably be exempt from disclosure under 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4) and that the person or entity who submitted the information to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation has been given the opportunity to comment on the proposed disclosure of information. 
</P>
<P>(d)(1) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall provide a business submitter with notice of a request whenever: 
</P>
<P>(i) The business submitter has in good faith designated the information as commercially or financially sensitive information; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation has reason to believe that the disclosure of the information may result in commercial or financial injury to the business submitter. 
</P>
<P>(2) Notice of a request for business information falling within paragraph (d)(1)(i) of this section shall be required for a period of not more than 10 years after the date of submission unless the business submitter requests and provides acceptable justification for a specific notice period of greater duration. 
</P>
<P>(3) Whenever possible, the business submitter's claim of confidentiality should be supported by a statement or certification by an officer or authorized representative of the business submitter that the information in question is in fact a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. 
</P>
<P>(e) Through the notice described in paragraph (c) of this section, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall, to the extent permitted by law, afford a business submitter a reasonable period within which it can provide the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation with a detailed statement of any objection to disclosure. Such statement shall specify all grounds for withholding any of the information under any exemption of the Freedom of Information Act and, in the case of the exemption provided by 5 U.S.C. 552(b)(4), shall demonstrate why the information is contended to be a trade secret or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential. Information provided by a business submitter pursuant to this paragraph may itself be subject to disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act. 
</P>
<P>(f)(1) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall consider carefully a business submitter's objections and specific grounds for nondisclosure prior to determining whether to disclose business information. Whenever the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation decides to disclose business information over the objection of a business submitter, the Freedom of Information Officer shall forward to the business submitter a written notice which shall include: 
</P>
<P>(i) A statement of the reasons for which the business submitter's disclosure objections were not sustained; 
</P>
<P>(ii) A description of the business information to be disclosed; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) A specified disclosure date. 
</P>
<P>(2) The notice of intent to disclose required by this paragraph shall be sent, to the extent permitted by law, within a reasonable number of days prior to the specified date upon which disclosure is intended. 
</P>
<P>(3) The Freedom of Information Officer shall send a copy of such disclosure notice to the requester at the same time the notice is sent to the business submitter. 
</P>
<P>(g) Whenever a requester brings suit seeking to compel disclosure of business information covered by paragraph (d) of this section, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall promptly notify the business submitter of such action. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Fees for Provision of Information</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.20" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.20   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Commercial use request</I> means a request for information that is from or on behalf of an individual or entity seeking information for a use or purpose that furthers the commercial, trade, or profit interests of the requester or on whose behalf the request is being made. To determine whether a request is properly classified as a commercial use request, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall determine the purpose for which the documents requested will be used. If the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation has reasonable cause to doubt the purpose specified in the request, for which a requester will use the records sought, or where the purpose is not clear from the request itself, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall seek additional clarification before assigning the request to a specified category. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Direct costs</I> means those expenditures the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation actually incurs in searching for and reproducing documents to respond to a request for information. In the case of a commercial use request, the term also means those expenditures the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation actually incurs in reviewing documents to respond to the request. The direct cost shall include the salary of the employee performing work (the basic rate of pay for the employee plus 16 percent of that rate to cover benefits) and the cost of operating reproduction equipment. Not included in direct costs are overhead expenses such as costs of space, and heating or lighting the facility in which the records are stored. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Educational institution</I> means a preschool, a public or private elementary or secondary school, an institution of undergraduate higher education, an institution of graduate higher education, an institution of professional education, and an institution of vocational education that operates a program or programs of scholarly research. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Noncommercial scientific institution</I> refers to an institution that is not operated on a commercial, trade, or profit basis and that is operated solely for the purpose of conducting scientific research, the results of which are not intended to promote any particular product or industry. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Representative of the news media</I> means any person actively gathering news for an entity that is organized and operated to publish or broadcast news to the public. The term <I>news</I> means information that is about current events or that would be of current interest to the public. Examples of news media entities include television or radio stations broadcasting to the public at large, and publishers of periodicals (but only in those instances when the periodicals can qualify as disseminators of “news”) who make their products available for purchase or subscription by the general public. These examples are not intended to be all-inclusive. As traditional methods of news delivery evolve (e.g., electronic dissemination of newspapers through telecommunication services), such alternative media would be included in this category. “Freelance” journalists may be regarded as working for a news organization if they can demonstrate a solid basis for expecting publication through that organization even though they are not actually employed by the organization. A publication contract would be the clearest proof that a journalist is working for a news organization, but the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may look to a requester's past publication record to determine whether a journalist is working for a news organization. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Reproduce</I> and <I>reproduction</I> mean the process of making a copy of a document necessary to respond to a request for information. Such copies take the form of paper copy, microfilm, audio-visual materials, or machine readable documentation (e.g., magnetic tape or disk), among others. The copy provided shall be in a form that is reasonably usable by requesters. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Review</I> means the process of examining documents located in response to a request for information to determine whether any portion of any document located is permitted to be withheld. It also includes processing any documents for disclosure (e.g., doing all that is necessary to prepare the documents for release). The term review does not include the time spent resolving general legal or policy issues regarding the application of exemptions. The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall only charge fees for reviewing documents in response to a commercial use request. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Search</I> includes all time spent looking for material that is responsive to a request for information, including page-by-page or line-by-line identification of material within documents. Searching for material shall be done in the most efficient and least expensive manner so as to minimize the costs of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation and the requester. For example, a line-by-line search for responsive material should not be performed when merely reproducing an entire document would be the less expensive and the faster method of complying with a request for information. Searches may be done manually or by computer using existing programming. A “search” for material that is responsive to a request should be distinguished from a “review” of material to determine whether the material is exempt from disclosure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.21" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.21   Categories of requesters—fees.</HEAD>
<P>There are four categories of requesters: Commercial use requesters; educational and noncommercial scientific institutions; representatives of the news media; and all other requesters. 
</P>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall charge fees for records requested by or on behalf of educational institutions and noncommercial scientific institutions in an amount which equals the cost of reproducing the documents responsive to the request, excluding the costs of reproducing the first 100 pages. For a request to be included in this category, requesters must show that the request being made is authorized by and under the auspices of a qualifying institution and that the records are not sought for a commercial use but are sought in furtherance of scholarly research (if the request is from an educational institution) or scientific research (if the request is from a noncommercial scientific institution). 
</P>
<P>(b) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall charge fees for records requested by representatives of the news media in an amount which equals the cost of reproducing the documents responsive to the request, excluding the costs of reproducing the first 100 pages. For a request to be included in this category, the requester must qualify as a representative of the news media and the request must not be made for a commercial use. A request for records supporting the news dissemination function of the requester shall not be considered to be a request that is for a commercial use. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall charge fees for records requested by persons or entities making a commercial use request in an amount that equals the full direct costs for searching for, reviewing for release, and reproducing the records sought. Commercial use requesters are not entitled to 2 hours of free search time nor 100 free pages of reproduction of documents. In accordance with § 1402.26, commercial use requesters may be charged the costs of searching for and reviewing records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall charge fees for records requested by persons or entities that are not classified in any of the categories listed in paragraphs (a), (b), or (c) of this section in an amount that equals the full reasonable direct cost of searching for and reproducing records that are responsive to the request, excluding the first 2 hours of search time and the cost of reproducing the first 100 pages of records. In accordance with § 1402.26, requesters in this category may be charged the cost of searching for records even if there is ultimately no disclosure of records, excluding the first 2 hours of search time. 
</P>
<P>(e) For purposes of the exceptions contained in this section on assessment of fees, the word <I>pages</I> refers to paper copies of “8
<FR>1/2</FR> × 11” or “11 × 14.” Thus, requesters are not entitled to 100 microfiche or 100 computer disks, for example. A microfiche containing the equivalent of 100 pages or a computer disk containing the equivalent of 100 pages of computer printout meets the terms of the exception. 
</P>
<P>(f) For purposes of paragraph (d) of this section, the term <I>search time</I> has as its basis, manual search. To apply this term to searches made by computer, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will determine the hourly cost of operating the central processing unit and the operator's hourly salary plus 16 percent of that rate. When the cost of search (including the operator time and the cost of operating the computer to process a request) equals the equivalent dollar amount of 2 hours of the salary of the person performing the search, i.e., the operator, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will begin assessing charges for computer search. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.22" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.22   Fees to be charged.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Generally, the fees charged for requests for records shall cover the full allowable direct costs of searching for, reproducing, and reviewing documents that are responsive to a request for information. 
</P>
<P>(b) Manual searches for records will be charged at the salary rate(s) (i.e., basic pay plus 16 percent of that rate) of the employee(s) making the search. 
</P>
<P>(c) Computer searches for records will be charged at the actual direct cost of providing the service. This will include the cost of operating the central processing unit for that portion of operating time that is directly attributable to searching for records and the operator/programmer salary apportionable to the search. A charge shall also be made for any substantial amounts of special supplies or materials used to contain, present, or make available the output of computers, based upon the prevailing levels of costs to the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation for the type and amount of such supplies of materials that are used. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to entitle any person or entity, as a right, to any services in connection with computerized records, other than services to which such person or entity may be entitled under the provisions of this subpart. 
</P>
<P>(d) Only requesters who are seeking documents for commercial use may be charged for time spent reviewing records to determine whether they are exempt from mandatory disclosure. Charges may be assessed only for the initial review; i.e., the review undertaken the first time the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation analyzes the applicability of a specific exemption to a particular record or portion of a record. Records or portions of records withheld in full under an exemption that is subsequently determined not to apply may be reviewed again to determine the applicability of other exemptions not previously considered. The costs for such a subsequent review is assessable. 
</P>
<P>(e) Records will be reproduced at a rate of $.15 per page. For copies prepared by computer, such as tapes or printouts, the requester shall be charged the actual cost, including operator time, of production of the tape or printout. For other methods of reproduction, the actual direct costs of producing the document(s) shall be charged. 
</P>
<P>(f) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will recover the full costs of providing services such as those enumerated below when it elects to provide them: 
</P>
<P>(1) Certifying that records are true copies; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Sending records by special methods such as express mail. 
</P>
<P>(g) Remittances shall be in the form either of a personal check or bank draft drawn on a bank in the United States, or a postal money order. Remittances shall be made payable to the order of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(h) We will not assess fees if we fail to comply with any time limit under the FOIA or these regulations, and have not timely notified the requester, in writing, that an unusual circumstance exists. If an unusual circumstance exists, and timely, written notice is given to the requester, we may be excused an additional 10 working days before fees are automatically waived under this paragraph (h).
</P>
<P>(i) If we determine that unusual circumstances apply and more than 5,000 pages are necessary to respond to a request, we may charge fees if we provided a timely, written notice to the requester and discussed with the requester via mail, Email, or telephone (or made at least three good faith attempts to do so) how the requester could effectively limit the scope of the request.
</P>
<P>(j) If a court has determined that exceptional circumstances exist, a failure to comply with time limits imposed by these regulations or FOIA shall be excused for the length of time provided by court order.
</P>
<P>(k) A receipt for fees paid will be given upon request. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[59 FR 24638, May 12, 1994, as amended at 81 FR 59438, Aug. 30, 2016]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.23" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.23   Waiver or reduction of fees.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may grant a waiver or reduction of fees if the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation determines that the disclosure of the information is in the public interest because it is likely to contribute significantly to public understanding of the operations or activities of the Government, and the disclosure of the information is not primarily in the commercial interest of the requester. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation will not charge fees to any requester, including commercial use requesters, if the cost of collecting a fee would be equal to or greater than the fee itself. The elements to be considered in determining the “cost of collecting a fee” are the administrative costs of receiving and recording a requester's remittance and processing the fee. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.24" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.24   Advance payments—notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Where it is anticipated that the fees chargeable will amount to more than $25 and the requester has not indicated in advance a willingness to pay fees as high as are anticipated, the requester shall be promptly notified of the amount of the anticipated fee or such portion thereof that can be readily estimated. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the anticipated fees exceed $250 and if the requester has a history of promptly paying fees charged in connection with information requests, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may obtain satisfactory assurances that the requester will fully pay the fees anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the anticipated fees exceed $250 and if the requester has no history of paying fees charged in connection with information requests, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may require an advance payment of fees in an amount up to the full amount anticipated. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the requester has previously failed to pay a fee charged within 30 days of the date of a billing for fees charged in connection with information requests, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may require the requester to pay the fees owed, plus interest, or demonstrate that the full amount owed has been paid, and require the requester to make an advance payment of the full amount of the fees anticipated before processing a new request or a pending request from that requester. 
</P>
<P>(e) The notice of the amount of an anticipated fee or a request for an advance deposit shall include an offer to the requester to confer with identified Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation personnel to attempt to reformulate the request in a manner which will meet the needs of the requester at a lower cost. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.25" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.25   Interest.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may begin charging interest on unpaid fees, starting on the 31st day following the day on which the bill for such fees was sent. Interest will not accrue if payment of the fees has been received by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, even if said payment has not been processed. Interest will accrue at the rate prescribed in section 3717 of title 31, United States Code, and will accrue from the day on which the bill for such fees was sent. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.26" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.26   Charges for unsuccessful searches or reviews.</HEAD>
<P>The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may assess charges for time spent searching for records on behalf of requesters in the categories provided for in § 1402.21 (c) and (d), even if there are no records that are responsive to the request or there is ultimately no disclosure of records. The Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may assess charges for time spent reviewing records for requesters in the category provided for in § 1402.21(c) even if the records located are determined to be exempt from disclosure. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1402.27" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.3.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1402.27   Aggregating requests.</HEAD>
<P>A requester may not file multiple requests at the same time, each seeking portions of a document or documents, solely in order to avoid payment of fees. When the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation reasonably believes that a requester, or a group of requesters acting in concert, is attempting to break a request down into a series of requests for the purpose of evading the assessment of fees, the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation may aggregate any such requests and charge accordingly. One element to be considered in determining whether a belief would be reasonable is the time period over which the requests have occurred.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1403" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1403—PRIVACY ACT REGULATIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 5.58, 5.59 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2277a-7, 2277a-8); 5 U.S.C. app. 3, 5 U.S.C. 552a. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 53084, Oct. 21, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1403.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part is published by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation pursuant to the Privacy Act of 1974 (Pub. L. 93-579, 5 U.S.C. 552a) which requires each Federal agency to promulgate rules to establish procedures for notification and disclosure to an individual of agency records pertaining to that person, and for review of such records. 
</P>
<P>(b) The records covered by this part include: 
</P>
<P>(1) Personnel and employment records maintained by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation not covered by §§ 293.101 through 293.108 of the regulations of the Office of Personnel Management (5 CFR 293.101 through 293.108); and 
</P>
<P>(2) Other records contained in record systems maintained by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) This part does not apply to any records maintained by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation in its capacity as a receiver or conservator. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.2" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purposes of this part: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation. It does not include the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation when it is acting as a receiver or a conservator; 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Individual</I> means a citizen of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence; 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Maintain</I> includes maintain, collect, use, or disseminate; 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Record</I> means any item, collection, or grouping of information about an individual that is maintained by an agency including, but not limited to, that person's education, financial transactions, medical history, and criminal or employment history, and that contains that person's name, or the identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual, such as a finger or voice print or photograph; 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Routine use</I> means, with respect to the disclosure of a record, the use of such record for a purpose that is compatible with the purpose for which it was collected; 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Statistical record</I> means a record in a system of records maintained for statistical research or reporting purposes only and not used in whole or in part in making any determination about an identifiable individual, except as provided by 13 U.S.C. 8; 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>System of records</I> means a group of any records under the control of any agency from which information is retrieved by the name of an individual or by some identifying number, symbol, or other identifying particular assigned to the individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.3" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.3   Procedures for requests pertaining to individual records in a record system.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Any present or former employee of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation seeking access to that person's official civil service records maintained by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation shall submit a request in such manner as is prescribed by the Office of Personnel Management. 
</P>
<P>(b) Individuals shall submit their requests in writing to the Privacy Act Officer, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, McLean, Virginia 22102-0826, when seeking to obtain the following information from the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation: 
</P>
<P>(1) Notification of whether the agency maintains a record pertaining to that person in a system of records; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notification of whether the agency has disclosed a record for which an accounting of disclosure is required to be maintained and made available to that person; 
</P>
<P>(3) A copy of a record pertaining to that person or the accounting of its disclosure; or 
</P>
<P>(4) The review of a record pertaining to that person or the accounting of its disclosure.
</P>
<FP>The request shall state the full name and address of the individual, and identify the system or systems of records believed to contain the information or record sought. 


</FP>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.4" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.4   Times, places, and requirements for identification of individuals making requests.</HEAD>
<P>The individual making written requests for information or records ordinarily will not be required to verify that person's identity. The signature upon such requests shall be deemed to be a certification by the requester that he or she is the individual to whom the record pertains, or the parent of a minor, or the duly appointed legal guardian of the individual to whom the record pertains. The Privacy Act Officer, however, may require such additional verification of identity in any instance in which the Privacy Act Officer deems it advisable. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.5" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.5   Disclosure of requested information to individuals.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Privacy Act Officer shall, within a reasonable period of time after the date of receipt of a request for information of records: 
</P>
<P>(1) Determine whether or not such request shall be granted; 
</P>
<P>(2) Notify the requester of the determination, and, if the request is denied, of the reasons therefor; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Notify the requester that fees for reproducing copies of records may be charged as provided in § 1403.10. 
</P>
<P>(b) If access to a record is denied because the information therein has been compiled by the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation in reasonable anticipation of a civil or criminal action proceeding, the Privacy Act Officer shall notify the requester of that person's right to judicial appeal under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g). 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If access to a record is granted, the requester shall notify the Privacy Act Officer whether the requested record is to be copied and mailed to the requester or whether the record is to be made available for personal inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) A requester who is an individual may be accompanied by an individual selected by the requester when the record is disclosed, in which case the requester may be required to furnish a written statement authorizing the discussion of the record in the presence of the accompanying person. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the record is to be made available for personal inspection, the requester shall arrange with the Privacy Act Officer a mutually agreeable time in the offices of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation for inspection of the record. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.6" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.6   Special procedures for medical records.</HEAD>
<P>Medical records in the custody of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation which are not subject to Office of Personnel Management regulations shall be disclosed either to the individual to whom they pertain or that person's authorized or legal representative or to a licensed physician named by the individual. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.7" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.7   Request for amendment to record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If, after disclosure of the requested information, an individual believes that the record is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete, that person may request in writing that the record be amended. Such a request shall be submitted to the Privacy Act Officer and shall identify the system of records and the record or information therein, a brief description of the material requested to be changed, the requested change or changes, and the reason for such change or changes. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Privacy Act Officer shall acknowledge receipt of the request within 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) and, if a determination has not been made, advise the individual when that person may expect to be advised of action taken on the request. The acknowledgment may contain a request for additional information needed to make a determination. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.8" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.8   Agency review of request for amendment of record.</HEAD>
<P>Upon receipt of a request for amendment of a record, the Privacy Act Officer shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Correct any portion of a record which the individual making the request believes is not accurate, relevant, timely, or complete and thereafter inform the individual in writing of such correction, or 
</P>
<P>(b) Inform the individual in writing of the refusal to amend the record and of the reasons therefor, and advise that the individual may appeal such determination as provided in § 1403.9. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.9" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.9   Appeal of an initial adverse determination of a request to amend a record.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Not more than 10 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) after receipt by an individual of an adverse determination on the individual's request to amend a record or otherwise, the individual may appeal to the Chief Operating Officer, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, McLean, Virginia 22102-0826. 
</P>
<P>(b) The appeal shall be by letter, mailed or delivered to the Chief Operating Officer, Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, McLean, Virginia 22102-0826. The letter shall identify the records involved in the same manner they were identified to the Privacy Act Officer, shall specify the dates of the request and adverse determination, and shall indicate the expressed basis for that determination. Also, the letter shall state briefly and succinctly the reasons why the adverse determination should be reversed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The review shall be completed and a final determination made by the Chief Operating Officer not later than 30 days (excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays) from receipt of the request for such review, unless the Chief Operating Officer extends such 30-day period for good cause. If the 30-day period is extended, the individual shall be notified of the reasons therefor. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Chief Operating Officer refuses to amend the record in accordance with the request, the individual shall be notified of the right to file a concise statement setting forth that person's disagreement with the final determination and that person's right under 5 U.S.C. 552a(g)(1)(A) to a judicial review of the final determination. 
</P>
<P>(e) If the refusal to amend a record as requested is confirmed, there shall be included in the disputed portion of the record a copy of the concise statement filed by the individual together with a concise statement of the reasons for not amending the record as requested. Such statements will be included when disclosure of the disputed record is made to persons and agencies as authorized under 5 U.S.C. 552a. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.10" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.10   Fees for providing copies of records.</HEAD>
<P>Fees for providing copies of records shall be charged in accordance with §§ 1402.22 and 1402.24 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.11" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.11   Criminal penalties.</HEAD>
<P>Section 552a(i)(3) of the Privacy Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(i)(3)) makes it a misdemeanor, subject to a maximum fine of $5,000, to knowingly and willfully request or obtain any record concerning any individual from an agency under false pretenses. Sections 552a(i) (1) and (2) of the Act (5 U.S.C. 552a(i) (1), (2)) provide penalties for violation by agency employees of the Act or regulations established thereunder. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1403.12" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.4.0.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1403.12   Exemptions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Specific.</I> Pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552a(k)(5), the investigatory material compiled for law enforcement purposes in the following system of records is exempt from subsections (c)(3), (d), (e)(1), (e)(4) (G), (H), and (I), and (f) of 5 U.S.C. 552a and from the provisions of this part:
</P>
<EXTRACT>
<FP-2>Personnel Security Files—FCSIC.</FP-2></EXTRACT>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1408" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1408—COLLECTION OF CLAIMS OWED THE UNITED STATES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Sec. 5.58 of the Farm Credit Act (12 U.S.C. 2277a-7); 31 U.S.C. 3701-3719; 5 U.S.C. 5514; 4 CFR parts 101-105; 5 CFR part 550. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>59 FR 24899, May 13, 1994, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Administrative Collection of Claims</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.1   Authority.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations of this part are issued under the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982, 31 U.S.C. 3701-3719 and 5 U.S.C. 5514, and in conformity with the joint regulations issued under that Act by the General Accounting Office and the Department of Justice (joint regulations) prescribing standards for administrative collection, compromise, suspension, and termination of agency collection actions, and referral to the General Accounting Office and to the Department of Justice for litigation of civil claims for money or property owed to the United States (4 CFR parts 101-105). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.2" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.2   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>This part applies to all claims of indebtedness due and owing to the United States and collectible under procedures authorized by the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended by the Debt Collection Act of 1982. The joint regulations and this part do not apply to conduct in violation of antitrust laws, tax claims, claims between Federal agencies, or to any claim which appears to involve fraud, presentation of a false claim, or misrepresentation on the part of the debtor or any other party having an interest in the claim, unless the Justice Department authorizes the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, pursuant to 4 CFR 101.3, to handle the claim in accordance with the provisions of 4 CFR parts 101 through 105. Additionally, this part does not apply to Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation's premiums regulations under part 1410 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.3" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this part (except where the term is defined elsewhere in this part), the following definitions shall apply:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Administrative offset</I> or <I>offset,</I> as defined in 31 U.S.C. 3701(a)(1), means withholding money payable by the United States Government to, or held by the Government for, a person to satisfy a debt the person owes the Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Agency</I> means a department, agency, or instrumentality in the executive or legislative branch of the Government. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Claim</I> or <I>debt</I> means money or property owed by a person or entity to an agency of the Federal Government. A “claim” or “debt” includes amounts due the Government from loans insured by or guaranteed by the United States and all other amounts due from fees, leases, rents, royalties, services, sales of real or personal property, overpayment, penalties, damages, interest, and fines. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Claim certification</I> means a creditor agency's written request to a paying agency to effect an administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corporation</I> means the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Creditor agency</I> means an agency to which a claim or debt is owed. 
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Debtor</I> means the person or entity owing money to the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Hearing official</I> means an individual who is responsible for reviewing a claim under § 1408.10.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Paying agency</I> means an agency of the Federal Government owing money to a debtor against which an administrative or salary offset can be effected. 
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Salary offset</I> means an administrative offset to collect a debt under 5 U.S.C. 5514 by deductions at one or more officially established pay intervals from the current pay account of a debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.4" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.4   Delegation of authority.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation official(s) designated by the Chairman of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation are authorized to perform all duties which the Chairman is authorized to perform under these regulations, the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, and the joint regulations issued under that Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.5" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.5   Responsibility for collection.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The collection of claims shall be aggressively pursued in accordance with the provisions of the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, the joint regulations issued under that Act, and these regulations. Debts owed to the United States, together with charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs, should be collected in one lump sum unless otherwise provided by law. If a debtor requests installment payments, the debtor, as requested by the Corporation, shall provide sufficient information to demonstrate that the debtor is unable to pay the debt in one lump sum. When appropriate, the Corporation shall arrange an installment payment schedule. Claims which cannot be collected directly or by administrative offset shall be either written off as administratively uncollectible or referred to the General Counsel for further consideration. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may compromise claims for money or property arising out of the activities of the Corporation, where the claim (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs) does not exceed $100,000. When the claim exceeds $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs), the authority to accept a compromise rests solely with the Department of Justice. The standards governing the compromise of claims are set forth in 4 CFR part 103. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may suspend or terminate the collection of claims which do not exceed $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs) after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections. If, after deducting the amount of any partial payments or collections, a claim exceeds $100,000 (exclusive of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs), the authority to suspend or terminate rests solely with the Department of Justice. The standards governing the suspension or termination of claim collections are set forth in 4 CFR part 104. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation shall refer claims to the Department of Justice for litigation or to the General Accounting Office (GAO) for claims arising from audit exceptions taken by the GAO to payments made by the Corporation in accordance with 4 CFR part 105. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.6" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.6   Demand for payment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A total of three progressively stronger written demands at not more than 30-day intervals should normally be made upon a debtor, unless a response or other information indicates that additional written demands would either be unnecessary or futile. When necessary to protect the Government's interest, written demands may be preceded by other appropriate actions under Federal law, including immediate referral for litigation and/or administrative offset. 
</P>
<P>(b) The initial demand for payment shall be in writing and shall inform the debtor of the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the debt, the date it was incurred, and the facts upon which the determination of indebtedness was made; 
</P>
<P>(2) The payment due date, which shall be 30 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand for payment;
</P>
<P>(3) The right of the debtor to inspect and copy the records of the agency related to the claim or to receive copies if personal inspection is impractical. The debtor shall be informed that the debtor may be assessed for the cost of copying the documents in accordance with § 1408.7; 
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the debtor to obtain a review of the Corporation's determination of indebtedness; 
</P>
<P>(5) The right of the debtor to offer to enter into a written agreement with the agency to repay the amount of the claim. The debtor shall be informed that the acceptance of such an agreement is discretionary with the agency; 
</P>
<P>(6) That charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs will be assessed against the debtor, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717, if payment is not received by the payment due date; 
</P>
<P>(7) That if the debtor has not entered into an agreement with the Corporation to pay the debt, has not requested the Corporation to review the debt, or has not paid the debt by the payment due date, the Corporation intends to collect the debt by all legally available means, which may include initiating legal action against the debtor, referring the debt to a collection agency for collection, collecting the debt by offset, or asking other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset;
</P>
<P>(8) The name and address of the Corporation official to whom the debtor shall send all correspondence relating to the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(9) Other information, as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) If, prior to, during, or after completion of the demand cycle, the Corporation determines to collect the debt by either administrative or salary offset, the Corporation shall follow, as applicable, the requirements for a Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset or a Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset set forth in § 1408.22. 
</P>
<P>(d) If no response to the initial demand for payment is received by the payment due date, the Corporation shall take further action under this part, under the Federal Claims Collection Act of 1966, as amended, under the joint regulations (4 CFR parts 101-105), or under any other applicable State or Federal law. These actions may include reports to credit bureaus, referrals to collection agencies, termination of contracts, debarment, and salary or administrative offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.7" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.7   Right to inspect and copy records.</HEAD>
<P>The debtor may inspect and copy the Corporation records related to the claim. The debtor shall give the Corporation reasonable advanced notice that he/she intends to inspect and copy the records involved. The debtor shall pay copying costs unless they are waived by the Corporation. Copying costs shall be assessed pursuant to § 1402.22 of this chapter. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.8" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.8   Right to offer to repay claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The debtor may offer to enter into a written agreement with the Corporation to repay the amount of the claim. The acceptance of such an offer and the decision to enter into such a written agreement is at the discretion of the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the debtor requests a repayment arrangement because payment of the amount due would create a financial hardship, the Corporation shall analyze the debtor's financial condition. The Corporation may enter into a written agreement with the debtor permitting the debtor to repay the debt in installments if the Corporation determines, in its sole discretion, that payment of the amount due would create an undue financial hardship for the debtor. The written agreement shall set forth the amount and frequency of installment payments and shall, in accordance with § 1408.12, provide for the imposition of charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs unless waived by the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) The written agreement may require the debtor to execute a confess-judgment note when the total amount of the deferred installments will exceed $750. The Corporation shall provide the debtor with a written explanation of the consequences of signing a confess-judgment note. The debtor shall sign a statement acknowledging receipt of the written explanation. The statement shall recite that the written explanation was read and understood before execution of the note and that the debtor signed the note knowingly and voluntarily. Documentation of these procedures will be maintained in the Corporation's file on the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.9" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.9   Right to agency review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor disputes the claim, the debtor may request a review of the Corporation's determination of the existence of the debt or of the amount of the debt. If only part of the claim is disputed, the undisputed portion should be paid by the payment due date. 
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a review, the debtor shall submit a written request for review to the Corporation official named in the initial demand letter, within 15 calendar days after receipt of the letter. The debtor's request for review shall state the basis on which the claim is disputed. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation shall promptly notify the debtor, in writing, that the Corporation has received the request for review. The Corporation shall conduct its review of the claim in accordance with § 1408.10. 
</P>
<P>(d) Upon completion of its review of the claim, the Corporation shall notify the debtor whether the Corporation's determination of the existence or amount of the debt has been sustained, amended, or canceled. The notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official pursuant to § 1408.10(e). If the Corporation's determination is sustained, this notification shall contain a provision which states that the Corporation intends to collect the debt by all legally available means, which may include initiating legal action against the debtor, referring the debt to a collection agency for collection, collecting the debt by offset, or asking other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.10" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.10   Review procedures.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Unless an oral hearing is required by § 1408.23(d), the Corporation's review shall be a review of the written record of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(b) If an oral hearing is required under § 1408.23(d) the Corporation shall provide the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for such a hearing. The oral hearing, however, shall not be an adversarial adjudication and need not take the form of a formal evidentiary hearing. All significant matters discussed at the hearing, however, will be carefully documented. 
</P>
<P>(c) Any review required by this part, whether a review of the written record or an oral hearing, shall be conducted by a hearing official. In the case of a salary offset, the hearing official shall not be under the supervision or control of the Chairman of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation may be represented by legal counsel. The debtor may represent himself or herself or may be represented by an individual of the debtor's choice and at the debtor's expense.
</P>
<P>(e) The hearing official shall issue a final written decision based on documentary evidence and, if applicable, information developed at an oral hearing. The written decision shall be issued as soon as practicable after the review but not later than 60 days after the date on which the request for review was received by the Corporation, unless the debtor requests a delay in the proceedings. A delay in the proceedings shall be granted if the hearing official determines, in his or her sole discretion, that there is good cause to grant the delay. If a delay is granted, the 60-day decision period shall be extended by the number of days by which the review was postponed.
</P>
<P>(f) Upon issuance of the written opinion, the Corporation shall promptly notify the debtor of the hearing official's decision. Said notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official pursuant to paragraph (e) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.11" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.11   Special review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) An employee subject to salary offset, under subpart C of this part, or a voluntary repayment agreement, may, at any time, request a special review by the Corporation of the amount of the salary offset or voluntary repayment, based on materially changed circumstances such as, but not limited to, catastrophic illness, divorce, death, or disability.
</P>
<P>(b) To determine whether an offset would prevent the employee from meeting essential subsistence expenses (costs incurred for food, housing, clothing, transportation, and medical care), the employee shall submit a detailed statement and supporting documents for the employee, his or her spouse, and dependents indicating:
</P>
<P>(1) Income from all sources;
</P>
<P>(2) Assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Liabilities;
</P>
<P>(4) Number of dependents;
</P>
<P>(5) Expenses for food, housing, clothing, and transportation;
</P>
<P>(6) Medical expenses; and
</P>
<P>(7) Exceptional expenses, if any.
</P>
<P>(c) If the employee requests a special review under this section, the employee shall file an alternative proposed offset or payment schedule and a statement, with supporting documents, showing why the current salary offset or payments result in an extreme financial hardship to the employee.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation shall evaluate the statement and supporting documents, and determine whether the original offset or repayment schedule imposes an undue financial hardship on the employee. The Corporation shall notify the employee in writing of such determination, including, if appropriate, a revised offset or payment schedule.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.12" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.12   Charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, the Corporation shall:
</P>
<P>(1) Assess interest on unpaid claims;
</P>
<P>(2) Assess administrative costs incurred in processing and handling overdue claims; and
</P>
<P>(3) Assess penalty charges not to exceed 6 percent a year on any part of a debt more than 90 days past due.
</P>
<P>The imposition of charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties shall be made in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717.
</P>
<P>(b)(1) Interest shall accrue from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand for payment or the Notice of Intent to Collect by either Administrative or Salary Offset if the amount of the claim is not paid within 30 days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the initial demand or notice.
</P>
<P>(2) The 30-day period may be extended on a case-by-case basis if the Corporation reasonably determines that such action is appropriate. Interest shall only accrue on the principal of the claim and the interest rate shall remain fixed for the duration of the indebtedness, except, as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, in cases where a debtor has defaulted on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, or if the Corporation reasonably determines that a higher rate is necessary to protect the interests of the United States.
</P>
<P>(c) If a debtor defaults on a repayment agreement and seeks to enter into a new agreement, the Corporation may assess a new interest rate on the unpaid claim. In addition, charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties which accrued but were not collected under the original repayment agreement shall be added to the principal of the claim to be paid under the new repayment agreement. Interest shall accrue on the entire principal balance of the claim, as adjusted to reflect any increase resulting from the addition of these charges.
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation may waive charges for interest, administrative costs, and/or penalties if it determines that:
</P>
<P>(1) The debtor is unable to pay any significant sum toward the claim within a reasonable period of time;
</P>
<P>(2) Collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, and/or penalties would jeopardize collection of the principal of the claim;
</P>
<P>(3) Collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, or penalties would be against equity and good conscience; or
</P>
<P>(4) It is otherwise in the best interest of the United States, including the situation where an installment payment agreement or offset is in effect. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.13" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.13   Contracting for collection services.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may contract for collection services in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3718 and 4 CFR 102.6 to recover debts.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.14" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.14   Reporting of credit information.</HEAD>
<P>The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may disclose to a consumer reporting agency information that an individual is responsible for a debt owed to the United States. Information will be disclosed to reporting agencies in accordance with the terms and conditions of agreements entered into between the Corporation and the reporting agencies. The terms and conditions of such agreements shall specify that all of the rights and protection afforded to the debtor under 31 U.S.C. 3711(f) have been fulfilled. The Corporation shall notify each consumer reporting agency, to which a claim was disclosed, when the debt has been satisfied.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.15" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.1.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.15   Credit report.</HEAD>
<P>In order to aid the Corporation in making appropriate determinations regarding the collection and compromise of claims; the collection of charges for interest, administrative costs, and penalties; the use of administrative offset; the use of other collection methods; and the likelihood of collecting the claim, the Corporation may institute, consistent with the provisions of the Fair Credit Reporting Act (15 U.S.C. 1681, <I>et seq.</I>), a credit investigation of the debtor immediately following a determination that the claim exists.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Administrative Offset</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.20" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.20   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The provisions of this subpart shall apply to the collection of debts by administrative [or salary] offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716, 5 U.S.C. 5514, or other statutory or common law.
</P>
<P>(b) Offset shall not be used to collect a debt more than 10 years after the Government's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect the debt were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials of the Government who were charged with the responsibility of discovering and collecting such debt.
</P>
<P>(c) Offset shall not be used with respect to:
</P>
<P>(1) Debts owed by other agencies of the United States or by any State or local government;
</P>
<P>(2) Debts arising under or payments made under the Social Security Act, the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or tariff laws of the United States; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Any case in which collection by offset of the type of debt involved is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute.
</P>
<P>(d) Unless otherwise provided by contract or law, debts or payments which are not subject to offset under 31 U.S.C. 3716 or 5 U.S.C. 5514 may be collected by offset if such collection is authorized under common law or other applicable statutory authority.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.21" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.21   Collection by offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Collection of a debt by administrative [or salary] offset shall be accomplished in accordance with the provisions of these regulations, 4 CFR 102.3, and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K. It is not necessary for the debt to be reduced to judgment or to be undisputed for offset to be used.
</P>
<P>(b) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, may determine that it is feasible to collect a debt to the United States by offset against funds payable to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(c) The feasibility of collecting a debt by offset will be determined on a case-by-case basis. This determination shall be made by considering all relevant factors, including the following: (1) The degree to which the offset can be accomplished in accordance with law. This determination should take into consideration relevant statutory, regulatory, and contractual requirements; 
</P>
<P>(2) The degree to which the Corporation is certain that its determination of the existence and amount of the debt is correct;
</P>
<P>(3) The practicality of collecting the debt by offset. The cost, in time and money, of collecting the debt by offset and the amount of money which can reasonably be expected to be recovered through offset will be relevant to this determination; and
</P>
<P>(4) Whether the use of offset will substantially interfere with or defeat the purpose of a program authorizing payments against which the offset is contemplated. For example, under a grant program in which payments are made in advance of the grantee's performance, the imposition of offset against such a payment may be inappropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) The collection of a debt by offset may not be feasible when there are circumstances which would indicate that the likelihood of collection by offset is less than probable.
</P>
<P>(e) The offset will be effected 31 days after the debtor receives a Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset (or Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset if the offset is a salary offset), or upon the expiration of a stay of offset, unless the Corporation determines under § 1408.24 that immediate action is necessary.
</P>
<P>(f) If the debtor owes more than one debt, amounts recovered through offset may be applied to them in any order. Applicable statutes of limitation would be considered before applying the amounts recovered to any debts owed. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.22" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.22   Notice requirements before offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in § 1408.24, the Corporation will provide the debtor with 30 calendar days' written notice that unpaid debt amounts shall be collected by administrative [or salary] offset (Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset) before the Corporation imposes offset against any money that is to be paid to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset shall be delivered to the debtor by hand or by mail and shall provide the following information: 
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the debt, the date it was incurred, and the facts upon which the determination of indebtedness was made; 
</P>
<P>(2) In the case of an administrative offset, the payment due date, which shall be 30 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the Notice; 
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of a salary offset: 
</P>
<P>(i) The Corporation's intention to collect the debt by means of deduction from the employee's current disposable pay account until the debt and all accumulated interest is paid in full; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The amount, frequency, proposed beginning date, and duration of the intended deductions; 
</P>
<P>(4) The right of the debtor to inspect and copy the records of the Corporation related to the claim or to receive copies if personal inspection is impractical. The debtor shall be informed that he/she shall be assessed for the cost of copying the documents in accordance with § 1408.7 of this part; 
</P>
<P>(5) The right of the debtor to obtain a review of, and to request a hearing, on the Corporation's determination of indebtedness, the propriety of collecting the debt by offset, and, in the case of salary offset, the propriety of the proposed repayment schedule (i.e., the percentage of disposable pay to be deducted each pay period). The debtor shall be informed that to obtain a review, the debtor shall deliver a written request for a review to the Corporation official named in the Notice, within 15 calendar days after the debtor's receipt of the Notice. In the case of a salary offset, the debtor shall also be informed that the review shall be conducted by an official arranged for by the Corporation who shall be a hearing official not under the control of the Chairman of the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, or an administrative law judge; 
</P>
<P>(6) That the filing of a petition for hearing within 15 calendar days after receipt of the Notice will stay the commencement of collection proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(7) That a final decision on the hearing (if one is requested) will be issued at the earliest practical date, but not later than 60 days after the filing of the written request for review unless the employee requests, and the hearing official grants, a delay in the proceedings; 
</P>
<P>(8) The right of the debtor to offer to enter into a written agreement with the Corporation to repay the amount of the claim. The debtor shall be informed that the acceptance of such an agreement is discretionary with the Corporation; 
</P>
<P>(9) That charges for interest, penalties, and administrative costs shall be assessed against the debtor, in accordance with 31 U.S.C. 3717, if payment is not received by the payment due date. The debtor shall be informed that such assessments must be made unless excused in accordance with the Federal Claims Collection Standards (4 CFR parts 103 and 104); 
</P>
<P>(10) The amount of accrued interest and the amount of any other penalties or administrative costs which may have been added to the principal debt; 
</P>
<P>(11) That if the debtor has not entered into an agreement with the Corporation to pay the debt, has not requested the Corporation to review the debt, or has not paid the debt prior to the date on which the offset is to be imposed, the Corporation intends to collect the debt by administrative [or salary] offset or by requesting other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt by offset. The debtor shall be informed that the offset shall be imposed against any funds that might become available to the debtor, until the principal debt and all accumulated interest and other charges are paid in full; 
</P>
<P>(12) The date on which the offset will be imposed, which shall be 31 calendar days from the date of mailing or hand delivery of the Notice. The debtor shall be informed that the Corporation reserves the right to impose an offset prior to this date if the Corporation determines that immediate action is necessary; 
</P>
<P>(13) That any knowingly false or frivolous statements, representations, or evidence may subject the debtor to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Penalties under the False Claims Act, 31 U.S.C. 3729 through 3731, or any other applicable statutory authority; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Criminal penalties under 18 U.S.C. 286, 287, 1001, and 1002, or any other applicable statutory authority; and, with regard to employees, 
</P>
<P>(iii) Disciplinary procedures appropriate under 5 U.S.C. chapter 75; 5 CFR part 752, or any other applicable statute or regulation; 
</P>
<P>(14) The name and address of the Corporation official to whom the debtor shall send all correspondence relating to the debt or the offset; 
</P>
<P>(15) Any other rights and remedies available to the debtor under statutes or regulations governing the program for which the collection is being made; 
</P>
<P>(16) That unless there are applicable contractual or statutory provisions to the contrary, amounts paid on or deducted for the debt, which are later waived or found not owed to the United States, will be promptly refunded to the employee; and 
</P>
<P>(17) Other information, as may be appropriate. 
</P>
<P>(c) When the procedural requirements of this section have been provided to the debtor in connection with the same debt or under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the Corporation is not required to duplicate those requirements before effecting offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.23" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.23   Right to review of claim.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the debtor disputes the claim, the debtor may request a review of the Corporation's determination of the existence of the debt, the amount of the debt, the propriety of collecting the debt by offset, and in the case of salary offset, the propriety of the proposed repayment schedule. If only part of the claim is disputed, the undisputed portion should be paid by the payment due date. 
</P>
<P>(b) To obtain a review, the debtor shall submit a written request for review to the Corporation official named in the Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative [or Salary] Offset within 15 calendar days after receipt of the notice. The debtor's written request for review shall state the basis on which the claim is disputed and shall specify whether the debtor requests an oral hearing or a review of the written record of the claim. If an oral hearing is requested, the debtor shall explain in the request why the matter cannot be resolved by a review of the documentary evidence alone. 
</P>
<P>(c) The Corporation shall promptly notify the debtor, in writing, that the Corporation has received the request for review. The Corporation shall conduct its review of the claim in accordance with § 1408.10. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation's review of the claim, under this section, shall include providing the debtor with a reasonable opportunity for an oral hearing if: 
</P>
<P>(1) An applicable statute authorizes or requires the Corporation to consider waiver of the indebtedness, the debtor requests waiver of the indebtedness, and the waiver determination turns on an issue of credibility or veracity; or 
</P>
<P>(2) The debtor requests reconsideration of the debt and the Corporation determines that the question of the indebtedness cannot be resolved by reviewing the documentary evidence; for example, when the validity of the debt turns on an issue of credibility or veracity. 
</P>
<P>(e) A debtor waives the right to a hearing and will have his or her debt offset in accordance with the proposed offset schedule if the debtor: 
</P>
<P>(1) Fails to file a written request for review within the timeframe set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, unless the Corporation determines that the delay was the result of circumstances beyond his or her control; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Fails to appear at an oral hearing of which he or she was notified unless the hearing official determines that the failure to appear was due to circumstances beyond the employee's control. 
</P>
<P>(f) Upon completion of its review of the claim, the Corporation shall notify the debtor whether the Corporation's determination of the existence or amount of the debt has been sustained, amended, or canceled. The notification shall include a copy of the written decision issued by the hearing official, pursuant to § 1408.10(e). If the Corporation's determination is sustained, this notification shall contain a provision which states that the Corporation intends to collect the debt by offset or by requesting other Federal agencies for assistance in collecting the debt. 
</P>
<P>(g) When the procedural requirements of this section have been provided to the debtor in connection with the same debt or under some other statutory or regulatory authority, the Corporation is not required to duplicate those requirements before effecting offset. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.24" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.24   Waiver of procedural requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Corporation may impose offset against a payment to be made to a debtor prior to the completion of the procedures required by this part, if: 
</P>
<P>(1) Failure to impose the offset would substantially prejudice the Government's ability to collect the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The timing of the payment against which the offset will be imposed does not reasonably permit the completion of those procedures. 
</P>
<P>(b) The procedures required by this part shall be complied with promptly after the offset is imposed. Amounts recovered by offset, which are later found not to be owed to the Government, shall be promptly refunded to the debtor. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.25" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.25   Coordinating offset with other Federal agencies.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) Any creditor agency which requests the Corporation to impose an offset against amounts owed to the debtor shall submit to the Corporation a claim certification which meets the requirements of this paragraph. The Corporation shall submit the same certification to any agency that the Corporation requests to effect an offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) The claim certification shall be in writing. It shall certify the debtor owes the debt and that all of the applicable requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 4 CFR part 102 have been met. If the intended offset is to be a salary offset, a claim certification shall instead certify that the debtor owes the debt and that the applicable requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met. 
</P>
<P>(3) A certification that the debtor owes the debt shall state the amount of the debt, the factual basis supporting the determination of indebtedness, and the date on which payment of the debt was due. A certification that the requirements of 31 U.S.C. 3716 and 4 CFR part 102 have been met shall include a statement that the debtor has been sent a Notice of Intent to Collect by Administrative Offset at least 31 calendar days prior to the date of the intended offset or a statement that pursuant to 4 CFR 102.3(b)(5) said Notice was not required to be sent. A certification that the requirements of 5 U.S.C. 5514 and 5 CFR part 550, subpart K, have been met shall include a statement that the debtor has been sent a Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset at least 31 calendar days prior to the date of the intended offset or a statement that pursuant to 4 CFR 102.3(b)(5) said Notice was not required to be sent. 
</P>
<P>(b)(1) The Corporation shall not effect an offset requested by another Federal agency without first obtaining the claim certification required by paragraph (a) of this section. If the Corporation receives an incomplete claim certification, the Corporation shall return the claim certification with notice that a claim certification which complies with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section must be submitted to the Corporation before the Corporation will consider effecting an offset. 
</P>
<P>(2) The Corporation may rely on the information contained in the claim certification provided by a requesting creditor agency. The Corporation is not authorized to review a creditor agency's determination of indebtedness. 
</P>
<P>(c) Only the creditor agency may agree to enter into an agreement with the debtor for the repayment of the claim. Only the creditor agency may agree to compromise, suspend, or terminate collection of the claim. 
</P>
<P>(d) The Corporation may decline, for good cause, a request by another agency to effect an offset. Good cause includes that the offset might disrupt, directly or indirectly, essential Corporation operations. The refusal and the reasons shall be sent in writing to the creditor agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.26" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.26   Stay of offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a)(1) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's request for inspection of agency records, the offset is stayed for 10 calendar days beyond the date set for the record inspection. 
</P>
<P>(2) When a creditor agency receives a debtor's offer to enter into a repayment agreement, the offset is stayed until the debtor is notified as to whether the proposed agreement is acceptable. 
</P>
<P>(3) When a review is conducted, the offset is stayed until the creditor agency issues a final written decision. 
</P>
<P>(b) When offset is stayed, the amount of the debt and the amount of any accrued interest or other charges will be withheld from payments to the debtor. The withheld amounts shall not be applied against the debt until the stay expires. If withheld funds are later determined not to be subject to offset, they will be promptly refunded to the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the Corporation is the creditor agency and the offset is stayed, the Corporation will immediately notify an offsetting agency to withhold the payment pending termination of the stay. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.27" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.27   Offset against amounts payable from Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund.</HEAD>
<P>The Corporation may request that monies payable to a debtor from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund be administratively offset to collect debts owed to the Corporation by the debtor. The Corporation must certify that the debtor owes the debt, the amount of the debt, and that the Corporation has complied with the requirements set forth in this part, 4 CFR 102.3, and the Office of Personnel Management regulations. The request shall be submitted to the official designated in the Office of Personnel Management regulations to receive the request. 


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Offset Against Salary</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.35" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.35   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of this subpart is to implement section 5 of the Debt Collection Act of 1982 (Pub. L. 97-365 (5 U.S.C. 5514)), which authorizes the collection of debts owed by Federal employees to the Federal Government by means of salary offsets. These regulations provide procedures for the collection of a debt owed to the Government by the imposition of a salary offset against amounts payable to a Federal employee as salary. These regulations are consistent with the regulations on salary offset published by the Office of Personnel Management, codified in 5 CFR part 550, subpart K. Since salary offset is a type of administrative offset, the requirements of subpart B also apply to salary offsets. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.36" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.36   Applicability of regulations.</HEAD>
<P>(a) These regulations apply to the following cases:
</P>
<P>(1) Where the Corporation is owed a debt by an individual currently employed by another agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) Where the Corporation is owed a debt by an individual who is currently employed by the Corporation; or 
</P>
<P>(3) Where the Corporation currently employs an individual who owes a debt to another Federal agency. Upon receipt of proper certification from the creditor agency, the Corporation will offset the debtor-employee's salary in accordance with these regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations do not apply to the following: (1) Debts or claims arising under the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended (26 U.S.C. 1 <I>et seq.</I>); the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. 301 <I>et seq.</I>); the tariff laws of the United States; or to any case where collection of a debt by salary offset is explicitly provided for or prohibited by another statute (e.g., travel advances in 5 U.S.C. 5705 and employee training expenses in 5 U.S.C. 4108). 
</P>
<P>(2) Any adjustment to pay arising from an employee's election of coverage or a change in coverage under a Federal benefits program requiring periodic deductions from pay if the amount to be recovered was accumulated over four pay periods or less. 
</P>
<P>(3) A claim which has been outstanding for more than 10 years after the creditor agency's right to collect the debt first accrued, unless facts material to the Government's right to collect were not known and could not reasonably have been known by the official or officials charged with the responsibility for discovery and collection of such debts. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.37" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.37   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>In this subpart, the following definitions shall apply: 
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Agency</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) An executive agency as defined by 5 U.S.C. 105, including the United States Postal Service and the United States Postal Rate Commission; 
</P>
<P>(2) A military department as defined in 5 U.S.C. 102; 
</P>
<P>(3) An agency or court of the judicial branch, including a court as defined in 28 U.S.C. 610, the District Court for the Northern Mariana Islands, and the Judicial Panel on Multi-district Litigation; 
</P>
<P>(4) An agency of the legislative branch, including the United States Senate and the United States House of Representatives; or 
</P>
<P>(5) Other independent establishments that are entities of the Federal Government. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Disposable pay</I> means, for an officially established pay interval, that part of current basic pay, special pay, incentive pay, retired pay, retainer pay, or, in the case of an employee not entitled to basic pay, other authorized pay remaining after the deduction of any amount required by law to be withheld. The Corporation shall allow the deductions described in 5 CFR 581.105 (b) through (f). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Employee</I> means a current employee of the Corporation or other agency, including a current member of the Armed Forces or Reserve of the Armed Forces of the United States. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Waiver</I> means the cancellation, remission, forgiveness, or nonrecovery of a debt allegedly owed by an employee to the Corporation or another agency as permitted or required by 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or any other law. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.38" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.38   Waiver requests and claims to the General Accounting Office.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations contained in this subpart do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver of an overpayment under 5 U.S.C. 5584 or 8346(b), 10 U.S.C. 2774, 32 U.S.C. 716, or in any way questioning the amount or validity of a debt by submitting a subsequent claim to the General Accounting Office in accordance with the procedures prescribed by the General Accounting Office. 
</P>
<P>(b) These regulations also do not preclude an employee from requesting a waiver pursuant to other statutory provisions pertaining to the particular debts being collected. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.39" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.39   Procedures for salary offset.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Chairman, or designee of the Chairman, shall determine the amount of an employee's disposable pay and the amount to be deducted from the employee's disposable pay at regular pay intervals. 
</P>
<P>(b) Deductions shall begin within three official pay periods following the date of mailing or delivery of the Notice of Intent to Collect by Salary Offset.
</P>
<P>(c)(1) If the amount of the debt is equal to or is less than 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay, such debt should be collected in one lump-sum deduction. 
</P>
<P>(2) If the amount of the debt is not collected in one lump-sum deduction, the debt shall be collected in installment deductions over a period of time not greater than the anticipated period of employment. The size and frequency of installment deductions will bear a reasonable relation to the size of the debt and the employee's ability to pay. However, the amount deducted from any pay period will not exceed 15 percent of the employee's disposable pay for that period, unless the employee has agreed in writing to the deduction of a greater amount. 
</P>
<P>(3) A deduction exceeding the 15-percent disposable pay limitation may be made from any final salary payment pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716 in order to liquidate the debt, whether the employee is being separated voluntarily or involuntarily. 
</P>
<P>(4) Whenever an employee subject to salary offset is separated from the Corporation and the balance of the debt cannot be liquidated by offset of the final salary check pursuant to 31 U.S.C. 3716, the Corporation may offset any later payments of any kind against the balance of the debt. 
</P>
<P>(d) In instances where two or more creditor agencies are seeking salary offsets against current employees of the Corporation or where two or more debts are owed to a single creditor agency, the Corporation, at its discretion, may determine whether one or more debts should be offset simultaneously within the 15-percent limitation. Debts owed to the Corporation should generally take precedence over debts owed to other agencies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.40" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.40   Refunds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In instances where the Corporation is the creditor agency, it shall promptly refund any amounts deducted under the authority of 5 U.S.C. 5514 when: 
</P>
<P>(1) The debt is waived or otherwise found not to be owed to the United States (unless expressly prohibited by statute or regulations); or 
</P>
<P>(2) An administrative or judicial order directs the Corporation to make a refund. 
</P>
<P>(b) Unless required or permitted by law or contract, refunds under this section shall not bear interest. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.41" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.41   Requesting current paying agency to offset salary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To request a paying agency to impose a salary offset against amounts owed to the debtor, the Corporation shall provide the paying agency with a claim certification which meets the requirements set forth in § 1408.25(a) of this part. The Corporation shall also provide the paying agency with a repayment schedule determined under the provisions of § 1408.39 or in accordance with a repayment agreement entered into with the debtor. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the employee separates from the paying agency before the debt is paid in full, the paying agency shall certify the total amount collected on the debt. A copy of this certification shall be sent to the employee and a copy shall be sent to the Corporation. If the paying agency is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it must provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount) and that the provisions of this section have been fully complied with. However, the Corporation must submit a properly certified claim to the agency responsible for making such payments before the collection can be made. 
</P>
<P>(c) When an employee transfers to another paying agency, the Corporation is not required to repeat the due process procedures set forth in 5 U.S.C. 5514 and this part to resume the collection. The Corporation shall, however, review the debt upon receiving the former paying agency's notice of the employee's transfer to make sure the collection is resumed by the new paying agency. 
</P>
<P>(d) If a special review is conducted pursuant to § 1408.11 and results in a revised offset or repayment schedule, the Corporation shall provide a new claim certification to the paying agency. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.42" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.42   Responsibility of the Corporation as the paying agency.</HEAD>
<P>(a) When the Corporation receives a claim certification from a creditor agency, deductions should be scheduled to begin at the next officially established pay interval. The Corporation shall send the debtor written notice which provides:
</P>
<P>(1) That the Corporation has received a valid claim certification from the creditor agency; 
</P>
<P>(2) The date on which salary offset will begin; 
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of the debt; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The amount of such deductions. 
</P>
<P>(b) If, after the creditor agency has submitted the claim certification to the Corporation, the employee transfers to a different agency before the debt is collected in full, the Corporation must certify the total amount collected on the debt. The Corporation shall send a copy of this certification to the creditor agency and a copy to the employee. If the Corporation is aware that the employee is entitled to payments from the Civil Service Retirement Fund and Disability Fund, or other similar payments, it shall provide written notification to the agency responsible for making such payments that the debtor owes a debt (including the amount). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1408.43" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.5.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1408.43   Nonwaiver of rights by payments.</HEAD>
<P>An employee's involuntary payment of all or any portion of a debt being collected under this subpart shall not be construed as a waiver of any rights the employee may have under 5 U.S.C. 5514 or any other provisions of a written contract or law unless there are statutory or contractual provisions to the contrary.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1410" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1410—PREMIUMS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Secs. 12 U.S.C. 2020, 2277a-4, 2277a-5, 2277a-7.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>56 FR 3201, Jan. 29, 1991, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1410.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.1   Purpose and scope.</HEAD>
<P>This part sets forth the rules for:
</P>
<P>(a) The calculation of premiums;
</P>
<P>(b) The time for payment of the premium required by sections 5.55 and 5.56 of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended;
</P>
<P>(c) Interest charges on delinquent payments;
</P>
<P>(d) The form and content of certified statements; and,
</P>
<P>(e) Documentation supporting certified statements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.2" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Average principal outstanding</I> means the average annual principal outstanding on a daily basis using balances as of the close of each day. In computing the average annual principal outstanding in this manner, the closing balance of the most recent past business day shall be the closing balance for days when an institution is closed.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Direct lending association</I> means any production credit association or any other association making direct loans under authority provided under section 7.6 of the Act, including, without limitation, agricultural credit associations and Federal land credit associations.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Government-guaranteed loans or investments</I> means loans or credits or investments, or portions of loans or credits or investments, that are guaranteed:
</P>
<P>(1) By the full faith and credit of the United States Government or any State government; or,
</P>
<P>(2) By an agency or other entity of the United States Government whose obligations are explicitly guaranteed by the United States Government; or,
</P>
<P>(3) By an agency or other entity of a State government whose obligations are explicitly guaranteed by such State government.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Insured bank</I> means any Farm Credit bank whose participation in notes, bonds, debentures, and other obligations issued under subsection (c) or (d) of section 4.2 of the Act is insured under part E of title V of the Act, including, without limitation, banks that are in or are placed in receivership or conservatorship to the extent that those banks' participation in such obligations is insured.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Loan</I> means any extension of credit or lease resulting from direct negotiations between a lender and a borrowing entity that is recorded as an asset of an insured bank, a direct lending association, or an other financing institution. The term “loan” includes loans, contracts of sale, notes receivable, and other similar obligations and lease financings. The term “loan” includes loans originated through direct negotiations between the insured bank, direct lending association, or other financing institution and a borrowing entity and loans or interests in loans purchased from another lender. Loans purchased subject to recourse shall be considered loans of the seller to the extent of the recourse.
</P>
<P>(g)(1) <I>Nonaccrual loan</I> means any loan where—
</P>
<P>(i) Any amount of outstanding principal and all past and future interest accruals, considered over the full term of the asset, are determined to be uncollectible for any reason; or,
</P>
<P>(ii) It has been classified “loss” as a result of a periodic credit evaluation and has not been charged off; or,
</P>
<P>(iii) The loan is severely past due and is not adequately secured, in process of collection, and fully collectible with respect to all principal and interest.
</P>
<P>(2) For the purposes of determining whether a loan is considered as accrual or nonaccrual under this part, all loans on which a borrowing entity, or a component of a borrowing entity, is primarily obligated to the institution shall be considered as one loan unless a review of all pertinent facts supports a reasonable determination that a particular loan constitutes an independent credit risk and such determination is adequately documented in the loan file.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Other financing institution</I> means any bank, company, institution, corporation, union, or association described in section 1.7(b)(1)(B) of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3201, Jan. 29, 1991; 56 FR 10302, Mar. 11, 1991; 74 FR 17373, Apr. 15, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.3" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.3   Calculation and reporting of premiums due.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Reporting.</I> For purposes of computing premiums, each insured bank shall, without limitation, report all information concerning the insured bank; each direct lending association that is receiving (or has received) funds provided through the insured bank; and each other financing institution that is receiving (or has received) funds provided through the insured bank; that the Corporation determines is necessary in order to compute the premiums due under the Act.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Calculating the premium payment for periods from July 1, 2008 through December 31, 2008.</I> (1) The premium payment for the 3rd Quarter 2008 (defined for purposes of this section as the period from July 1, 2008 through September 30, 2008) and the premium payment for the 4th Quarter 2008 (defined for purposes of this section as the period October 1, 2008, through December 31, 2008) shall be equal to 25 percent of the amount computed by applying the premium calculation formulas contained in sections 5.55 and 5.56 of the Act (unless reduced by the Corporation acting under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act or under paragraph (d) of this section) to the insured bank during the 3rd Quarter 2008 or 4th Quarter 2008, respectively.
</P>
<P>(2) In accord with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the premium payment for the 3rd Quarter 2008 (having been reduced by the Corporation acting under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act) shall be equal to 25 percent of the following amount:
</P>
<P>(i) The average outstanding insured obligations issued by the bank for the period, after deducting from the obligations the percentages of the guaranteed portions of loans and investments described in section 5.55(a)(2) of the Act, multiplied by 0.0015; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product obtained by multiplying—
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average principal outstanding for the period on loans made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act) that are in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The average amount outstanding for the period of other-than-temporarily impaired investments made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act);
</P>
<P>(B) By 0.0010.
</P>
<P>(3) In accord with paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the premium payment for the 4th Quarter 2008 (having been reduced by the Corporation acting under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act) shall be equal to 25 percent of the following amount:
</P>
<P>(i) The average outstanding insured obligations issued by the bank for the period, after deducting from the obligations the percentages of the guaranteed portions of loans and investments described in section 5.55(a)(2) of the Act, multiplied by 0.0018; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product obtained by multiplying—
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average principal outstanding for the period on loans made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act) that are in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The average amount outstanding for the period of other-than-temporarily impaired investments made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act);
</P>
<P>(B) By 0.0010.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculating the premium payment for periods in 2009 and subsequent years.</I> (1) The premium payment for periods in calendar year 2009 and subsequent years shall be equal to the amount computed by applying the premium calculation formulas contained in sections 5.55 and 5.56 of the Act (unless reduced by the Corporation acting under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act or under paragraph (d) of this section) to the insured bank during the period.
</P>
<P>(2) In accord with paragraph (c)(1) of this section, the premium payment for the period shall (unless reduced by the Corporation acting under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act or under paragraph (d) of this section) be equal to:
</P>
<P>(i) The average outstanding insured obligations issued by the bank for the period, after deducting from the obligations the percentages of the guaranteed portions of loans and investments described in section 5.55(a)(2), multiplied by 0.0020; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The product obtained by multiplying—
</P>
<P>(A) The sum of—
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The average principal outstanding for the period on loans made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act) that are in nonaccrual status; and
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) The average amount outstanding for the period of other than temporarily impaired investments made by the bank (computed in accord with section 5.55 of the Act);
</P>
<P>(B) By 0.0010.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secure base amount</I>. In addition to the Corporation's authority to reduce premiums under section 5.55(a)(3) of the Act, upon reaching the secure base amount determined by the Corporation in accordance with section 5.55 of the Act, the annual premium to be paid by each insured bank, computed in accordance with paragraphs (b) and (c) of this section, shall be reduced by a percentage determined by the Corporation so that the aggregate of the premiums payable by all of the Farm Credit banks for the following calendar year is sufficient to ensure that the Insurance Fund balance is maintained at not less than the secure base amount. The Corporation shall announce any such percentage no later than December 31 of the year prior to the January in which such premiums are to be paid.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[74 FR 17373, Apr. 15, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.4" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.4   Payment of premiums.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Payments.</I> Each insured bank shall pay to the Corporation the amount of the premium due to the Corporation computed in accordance with sections 5.55 and 5.56 of the Act, and § 1410.3 of this part, and shown on its certified statement, at the time the statement is filed. Certified statements shall be considered to have been filed and payments made in a timely manner if they are received on or before January 31 following the end of the calendar year on which the certified statement is based.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Premiums as obligations of insured banks.</I> Premiums required to be paid by § 1410.3 are obligations of the insured banks, and are to be paid at the times required by this section, regardless of whether the insured bank has assessed and collected any assessments under section 1.12 of the Act.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3201, Jan. 29, 1991; 56 FR 10302, Mar. 11, 1991; 74 FR 17374, Apr. 15, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.5" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.5   Delinquent premium payments and premium overpayments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Delinquent payments.</I> Each insured bank shall pay to the Corporation interest on delinquent premium payments. All premiums will be considered delinquent if they are received after the time for payment specified in § 1410.4 of this part, including late payments caused by bank errors in the certified statement. The interest rate will be the United States Treasury Department's current value of funds rate, which is issued under the Treasury Fiscal Requirements Manual (TFRM rate) and published quarterly in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The interest rate will be determined as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Current year.</I> (i) For delinquent days occurring on or prior to March 31, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published in the preceding December.
</P>
<P>(ii) For delinquent days occurring from April 1 to June 30, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published in March for the second quarter of the year.
</P>
<P>(iii) For delinquent days occurring from July 1 to September 30, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published in June for the third quarter.
</P>
<P>(iv) For delinquent days occurring from October 1 to December 31, the rate will be the TFRM rate that is published in September for the fourth quarter.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Prior years.</I> The interest will be calculated quarterly and compounded annually at the rates applicable for each quarter as issued under the TFRM. For the initial year, the rate will be applied to the gross amount of the delinquent payment. For each additional year or portion thereof the rate will be applied to the net amount of the delinquent payment after it has been reduced by any premium credit under paragraph (c) of this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Other rights and remedies.</I> Payment of the interest specified in paragraph (a) of this section does not affect any other rights and remedies available to the Corporation.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Overpayments.</I> To the extent that any payment by a bank exceeds the required amount:
</P>
<P>(1) The excess shall be credited against future premium payments by the bank which overpaid; or,
</P>
<P>(2)(i) Upon written request to the Corporation by the bank which overpaid, the excess shall be refunded to the bank within 30 days of receipt of the written request; and
</P>
<P>(ii) If the Corporation fails to make a refund within such 30-day period, and the Corporation determines that a refund is in order, the Corporation shall pay to the bank interest on the amount of the overpayment, from the end of such 30-day period through the date the refund is issued.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.6" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.6   Certified statements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Forms.</I> The certified statements required to be filed by insured banks under the provisions of section 5.56 of the Act shall be filed with the Corporation. The certified statement forms will be furnished to all insured banks by, or may be obtained from, the Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Amendments to certified statements.</I> In the event of an amendment or correction of a previously submitted certified statement, the amending insured bank shall resubmit to the Corporation the appropriate certified statement along with a letter of explanation regarding the amendment or correction.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[56 FR 3201, Jan. 29, 1991, as amended at 56 FR 57233, Nov. 8, 1991; 74 FR 17374, Apr. 15, 2009]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1410.7" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.6.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1410.7   Documentation.</HEAD>
<P>Each insured bank shall:
</P>
<P>(a) Prepare and maintain accurate and complete records as necessary to prepare certified statements, including, but not limited to, records relating to the loans of each direct lending association and other financing institution that are able to make such loans because they are receiving, or have received, funding from the insured bank.
</P>
<P>(b) Prepare and maintain on its premises books and records in such a manner as to facilitate reconciliation with certified statements prepared from them.
</P>
<P>(c) Maintain in its books and records documentation supporting its certified statement for a period no less than 5 years following the date of each certified statement, unless the bank shall have requested in writing, and the Corporation shall have granted to the bank, written permission to dispose of such documentation prior to the expiration of 5 years.
</P>
<P>(d) Make all records and any supporting documentation available, without limitation, to Corporation officials upon request.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1411" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1411—RULES OF PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2277a-7(10), 2277a-14(c) and (d); 28 U.S.C. 2461 <I>note.</I>


</PSPACE></AUTH>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.7.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Rules and Procedures for Assessment and Collection of Civil Money Penalties</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1411.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.7.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1411.1   Inflation adjustment of civil money penalties for failure to file a certified statement, pay any premium required or obtain approval before employment of persons convicted of criminal offenses.</HEAD>
<P>In accordance with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990, as amended, a civil money penalty imposed pursuant to section 5.65(c) or (d) of the Farm Credit Act of 1971, as amended, shall not exceed $264 per day for each day the violation continues.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[90 FR 2922, Jan. 14, 2025]










</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1412" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1412—GOLDEN PARACHUTE AND INDEMNIFICATION PAYMENTS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 2277a-10b.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>71 FR 7405, Feb. 13, 2006, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1412.1" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.1   Scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) This part limits and/or prohibits, in certain circumstances, the ability of Farm Credit System (System) institutions, their service corporations, subsidiaries and affiliates from making golden parachute and indemnification payments to institution-related parties (IRPs).
</P>
<P>(b) This part applies to System institutions in a troubled condition that seek to make golden parachute payments to their IRPs.
</P>
<P>(c) The limitations on indemnification payments apply to all System institutions, their service corporations, subsidiaries and affiliates regardless of their financial health.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.2" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> or <I>Farm Credit Act</I> means Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12 U.S.C. 2002(a)), as amended by the Farm Credit System Reform Act of 1996, amending 12 U.S.C. 2277a-10.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Farm Credit System institution</I> or <I>System institution</I> means any “institution” enumerated in section 1.2 of the Act including, but not limited to, associations, banks, service corporations, the Federal Farm Credit Banks Funding Corporation, the Farm Credit Leasing Services Corporation and their subsidiaries and affiliates, as well as, the Federal Agricultural Mortgage Corporation and its subsidiaries and affiliates, as described in 12 U.S.C. 2279aa-1(a).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Benefit plan</I> means any plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement which is an “employee welfare benefit plan” as that term is defined in section 3(1) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, as amended (29 U.S.C. 1002(1)), or other usual and customary plans such as dependent care, tuition reimbursement, group legal services or other benefits provided under a cafeteria plan sponsored by the System institution; provided however, that such term shall not include any plan intended to be subject to paragraph (f)(2)(iii), (vii) and (viii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bona fide deferred compensation plan or arrangement</I> means any plan, contract, agreement or other arrangement whereby:
</P>
<P>(1) An IRP voluntarily elects to defer all or a portion of the reasonable compensation, wages or fees paid for services rendered which otherwise would have been paid to such party at the time the services were rendered (including a plan that provides for the crediting of a reasonable investment return on such elective deferrals) and the System institution either:
</P>
<P>(i) Recognizes compensation expense and accrues a liability for the benefit payments according to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Segregates or otherwise sets aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan and other benefits, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the System institution's creditors in the case of insolvency; or
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution establishes a nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plan, other than an elective deferral plan described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) Primarily for the purpose of providing benefits for certain IRPs in excess of the limitations on contributions and benefits imposed by sections 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g) or any other applicable provision of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 415, 401(a)(17), 402(g)); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Primarily for the purpose of providing supplemental retirement benefits or other deferred compensation for a select group of directors, management or highly compensated employees (excluding severance payments described in paragraph (f)(2)(v) of this section and permissible golden parachute payments described in § 1412.5); and
</P>
<P>(3) In the case of any nonqualified deferred compensation or supplemental retirement plans as described in paragraphs (d)(1) and (2) of this section, the following requirements shall apply:
</P>
<P>(i) The plan was in effect at least 1 year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is made in accordance with the terms of the plan as in effect no later than 1 year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section and in accordance with any amendments to such plan during such 1 year period that do not increase the benefits payable thereunder;
</P>
<P>(iii) The IRP has a vested right, as defined under the applicable plan document, at the time of termination of employment to payments under such plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Benefits under such plan are accrued each period only for current or prior service rendered to the employer (except that an allowance may be made for service with a predecessor employer);
</P>
<P>(v) Any payment made pursuant to such plan is not based on any discretionary acceleration of vesting or accrual of benefits which occurs at any time later than 1 year prior to any of the events described in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section;
</P>
<P>(vi) The System institution has previously recognized compensation expense and accrued a liability for the benefit payments according to GAAP or segregated or otherwise set aside assets in a trust which may only be used to pay plan benefits, except that the assets of such trust may be available to satisfy claims of the System institution's creditors in the case of insolvency; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Payments pursuant to such plans shall not be in excess of the accrued liability computed in accordance with GAAP.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Corporation or FCSIC</I> mean the Farm Credit System Insurance Corporation, in its corporate capacity.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Golden parachute payment.</I> (1) The term “golden parachute payment” means any payment (or any agreement to make any payment) in the nature of compensation by any System institution for the benefit of any current or former IRP pursuant to an obligation of such System institution that:
</P>
<P>(i) Is contingent on the termination of such party's primary employment or relationship with the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is received on or after, or is made in contemplation of, any of the following events:
</P>
<P>(A) The insolvency (or similar event) of the System institution which is making the payment or bankruptcy or insolvency (or similar event) of the service corporation, subsidiary or affiliate which is making the payment; or
</P>
<P>(B) The System institution is assigned a composite rating of 4 or 5 by the FCA; or
</P>
<P>(C) The appointment of any conservator or receiver for such System institution; or
</P>
<P>(D) A determination by the Corporation, that the System institution is in a troubled condition, as defined in paragraph (m) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is payable to an IRP whose employment by or relationship with a System institution is terminated at a time when the System institution by which the IRP is employed or related satisfies any of the conditions enumerated in paragraphs (f)(1)(ii)(A) through (D) of this section, or in contemplation of any of these conditions.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> The term “golden parachute payment” shall not include:
</P>
<P>(i) Any payment made pursuant to a pension or retirement plan which is qualified (or is intended within a reasonable period of time to be qualified) under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401); or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any payment made pursuant to a benefit plan as that term is defined in paragraph (c) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any payment made pursuant to a “bona fide” deferred compensation plan or arrangement as defined in paragraph (d) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Any payment made by reason of death or by reason of termination caused by the disability of IRP; or
</P>
<P>(v) Any severance or similar payment which is required to be made pursuant to a state statute or foreign law which is applicable to all employers within the appropriate jurisdiction (with the exception of employers that may be exempt due to their small number of employees or other similar criteria); or
</P>
<P>(vi) Any other payment which the Corporation determines to be permissible in accordance with § 1412.6, on permissible indemnification payments; or
</P>
<P>(vii) Any payment made pursuant to a nondiscriminatory severance pay plan or arrangement that provides for payment of severance benefits to all eligible employees upon involuntary termination other than for cause, voluntary resignation, or early retirement. Furthermore, such severance pay plan or arrangement shall not have been adopted or modified to increase the amount or scope of severance benefits at a time when the System institution was in a condition specified in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section or in contemplation of such a condition without the prior written consent of the FCA; or in lieu of a payment made pursuant to this paragraph;
</P>
<P>(viii) Any payment made pursuant to a severance pay plan or arrangement that provides severance benefits upon involuntary termination other than for cause, voluntary resignation, or early retirement. No employee shall receive any payment under this subpart which exceeds the base compensation paid to such employee during the 12 months (or longer period or greater benefit as the Corporation shall consent to) immediately proceeding termination of employment. Furthermore, such severance pay plan or arrangement shall not have been adopted or modified to increase the amount or the scope of the severance benefits at a time when the System institution was in a condition specified in paragraph (f)(1)(ii) of this section or in contemplation of such a condition without the written approval of the FCA.
</P>
<P>(g) The <I>FCA</I> means the Farm Credit Administration.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Institution-related party (IRP)</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any director, officer, employee, or controlling stockholder (other than another Farm Credit System institution) of, or agent for a System institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Any stockholder (other than another Farm Credit System institution), consultant, joint venture partner, and any other person as determined by the FCA (by regulation or case-by-case) who participates in the conduct of the affairs of a System institution; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any independent contractor (including any attorney, appraiser, or accountant) who knowingly or recklessly participates in any violation of any law or regulation, any breach of fiduciary duty, or any unsafe or unsound practice, which caused or is likely to cause more than a minimal financial loss to, or a significant adverse effect on, the System institution.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Liability or legal expense</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any legal or other professional fees and expenses incurred in connection with any claim, proceeding, or action;
</P>
<P>(2) The amount of, and any cost incurred in connection with, any settlement of any claim, proceeding, or actions; and
</P>
<P>(3) The amount of, any cost incurred in connection with, any judgment or penalty imposed with respect to any claim, processing, or action.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Nondiscriminatory</I> means that the plan, contract or arrangement in question applies to all employees of a System institution who meet reasonable and customary eligibility requirements applicable to all employees, such as minimum length of service requirements. A nondiscriminatory plan, contract or arrangement may provide different benefits based only on objective criteria such as salary, total compensation, length of service, job grade or classification, which are applied on a proportionate basis, with a modest disparity in severance benefits relating to any one criterion of 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Payment</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any direct or indirect transfer of any funds or any asset;
</P>
<P>(2) Any forgiveness of any debt or other obligation;
</P>
<P>(3) The conferring of benefits in the nature of compensation, including but not limited to stock options and stock appreciation rights; or
</P>
<P>(4) Any segregation of any funds or assets, the establishment or funding of any trust or the purchase of or arrangement for any letter of credit or other instrument, for the purpose of making, or pursuant to any agreement to make, any payment on or after the date on which such funds or assets are segregated, or at the time of or after such trust is established or letter of credit or other instrument is made available, without regard to whether the obligation to make such payment is contingent on:
</P>
<P>(i) The determination, after such date, of the liability for the payment of such amount; or
</P>
<P>(ii) The liquidation, after such date, of the amount of such payment.
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Prohibited indemnification payment.</I> (1) The term “prohibited indemnification payment” means any payment (or any agreement or arrangement to make any payment) by any System institution for the benefit of any person who is or was an IRP of such System institution, to pay or reimburse such person for any civil money penalty or judgment resulting from any administrative or civil action instituted by the FCA, or any other liability or legal expense with regard to any administrative proceeding or civil action instituted by the FCA which results in a final order or settlement pursuant to which such person:
</P>
<P>(i) Is assessed a civil money penalty;
</P>
<P>(ii) Is removed from office or prohibited from participating in the conduct of the affairs of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is required to cease and desist from or take any affirmative action with respect to such institution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exceptions.</I> (i) The term “prohibited indemnification” payment shall not include any reasonable payment by a System institution which is used to purchase any commercial insurance policy or fidelity bond, provided that such insurance policy or bond shall not be used to pay or reimburse an IRP for the cost of any judgment or civil money penalty assessed against such person in an administrative proceeding or civil action commenced by the FCA, but may pay any legal or professional expenses incurred in connection with such proceeding or action or the amount of any restitution to the System institution or receiver.
</P>
<P>(ii) The term “prohibited indemnification payment” shall not include any reasonable payment by a System institution that represents partial indemnification for legal or professional expenses specifically attributable to particular charges for which there has been a formal and final adjudication or finding in connection with a settlement that the IRP has not violated certain FCA laws or regulations or has not engaged in certain unsafe or unsound practices or breaches of fiduciary duty, unless the administrative action or civil proceedings has resulted in a final prohibition order against the IRP.
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Troubled condition</I> means a System institution that:
</P>
<P>(1) Is subject to a cease-and-desist order or written agreement issued by the FCA that requires action to improve the financial condition of the System institution or is subject to a proceeding initiated by the FCA which contemplates the issuance of an order that requires action to improve the financial condition of the institution, unless otherwise informed in writing by the FCA; or
</P>
<P>(2) Is unable to make a timely payment of principal or interest on any insured obligation (as defined in section 5.51(3) of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2277a(3)); or
</P>
<P>(3) Is receiving assistance as described in section 5.61 of the Farm Credit Act, 12 U.S.C. 2277a-10; or
</P>
<P>(4) Is unable to make timely payment of principal or interest on debt obligations issued under the authority of section 8.6(e)(2) of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2279aa-6(e)(2) or is unable to fulfill the guarantee obligations provided under section 8.6 of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2279aa-6; or
</P>
<P>(5) Is informed in writing by the Corporation that it is in a “troubled condition” for purposes of the requirements of this subpart on the basis of the System institution's most recent report of condition or report of examination or other information available to the Corporation.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.3" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.3   Golden parachute payments prohibited.</HEAD>
<P>No System institution shall make or agree to make any golden parachute payment, except as provided in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.4" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.4   Prohibited indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>No System institution shall make or agree to make any prohibited indemnification payment, except as provided in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.5" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.5   Permissible golden parachute payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A System institution may agree to make or may make a golden parachute payment if and to the extent that:
</P>
<P>(1) The FCA, with the written concurrence of the Corporation, determines that such a payment or agreement is permissible; or
</P>
<P>(2) Such an agreement is made in order to hire a person to become an IRP either at a time when the System institution satisfies or in an effort to prevent it from imminently satisfying any of the criteria set forth in § 1412.2(f)(1)(ii), and the FCA and the Corporation consent in writing to the amount and terms of the golden parachute payment. Such consent by the Corporation and the FCA shall not improve the IRP's position in the event of the insolvency of the institution since such consent can neither bind a receiver nor affect the provability of receivership claims. In the event that the institution is placed into receivership or conservatorship, the Corporation and/or the FCA shall not be obligated to pay the promised golden parachute and the IRP shall not be accorded preferential treatment on the basis of such prior approval; or
</P>
<P>(3) Such a payment is made pursuant to an agreement which provides for a reasonable severance payment, not to exceed 18-months' salary, to an IRP in the event of a change in control of the System institution; <I>provided, however,</I> that the System institution shall obtain the consent of the FCA prior to making such a payment and this paragraph (a)(3) shall not apply to any change in control of System institution which results from an assisted transaction as described in section 5.61 of the Farm Credit Act; 12 U.S.C. 2277a-10 or the System institution being placed into conservatorship or receivership; and
</P>
<P>(4) A System institution or IRP making a request pursuant to paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section shall demonstrate that it is not aware of any information, evidence, documents or other materials which would indicate that there is a reasonable basis to believe, at the time such payment is proposed to be made, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The IRP has committed any fraudulent act or omission, breach of trust or fiduciary duty, or insider abuse with regard to the System institution that has had or is likely to have a material adverse effect on the institution;
</P>
<P>(ii) The IRP is substantially responsible for the insolvency of, the appointment of a conservator or receiver for, or the troubled condition, as defined by applicable regulations concerning the System institution;
</P>
<P>(iii) The IRP has materially violated any applicable Federal or state law or regulation that has had or is likely to have a material effect on the System institution; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The IRP has violated or conspired to violate section 215, 657, 1006, 1014, or 1344 of title 18 of the United States Code or section 1341 or 1343 of such title affecting a Farm Credit System institution.
</P>
<P>(b) In making a determination under paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section the FCA and the Corporation may consider:
</P>
<P>(1) Whether, and to what degree, the IRP was in a position of managerial or fiduciary responsibility;
</P>
<P>(2) The length of time the IRP was affiliated with the System institution, and the degree to which the proposed payment represents reasonable compensation earned over the period of employment and reasonable payment for services rendered; and
</P>
<P>(3) Any other factors or circumstances which would indicate that the proposed payment would be contrary to the intent of the Act or this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.6" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.6   Permissible indemnification payments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A System institution may make or agree to make reasonable indemnification payments to an IRP with respect to an administrative proceeding or civil action initiated by the FCA if:
</P>
<P>(1) The System institution's board of directors, in good faith, determines in writing after due investigation and consideration that the IRP acted in good faith and in a manner he/she believed to be in the best interests of the institution;
</P>
<P>(2) The System institution's board of directors, in good faith, determines in writing after due investigation and consideration that the payment of such expenses will not materially adversely affect the institution's safety and soundness;
</P>
<P>(3) The indemnification payments do not constitute prohibited indemnification payments as that term is defined in § 1412.2(l); and
</P>
<P>(4) The IRP agrees in writing to reimburse the System institution, to the extent not covered by payments from insurance or bonds purchased pursuant to § 1412.2(l)(2), for that portion of the advanced indemnification payments which subsequently become prohibited indemnification payments, as defined herein.
</P>
<P>(b) An IRP requesting indemnification payments shall not participate in any way in the board's discussion and approval of such payments; <I>provided, however,</I> that such IRP may present his/her request to the board and respond to any inquiries from the board concerning his/her involvement in the circumstances giving rise to the administrative proceeding or civil action.
</P>
<P>(c) In the event that a majority of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the remaining members of the board may authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the remaining members of the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions delineated in paragraph (a) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel opines that said conditions have been met, the remaining members of the board of directors may rely on such opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification.
</P>
<P>(d) In the event that all of the members of the board of directors are named as respondents in an administrative proceeding or civil action and request indemnification, the board shall authorize independent legal counsel to review the indemnification request and provide the board with a written opinion of counsel as to whether the conditions delineated in paragraph (a) of this section have been met. If independent legal counsel opines that said conditions have been met, the board of directors may rely on such opinion in authorizing the requested indemnification.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.7" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.7   Filing instructions.</HEAD>
<P>Requests to make excess nondiscriminatory severance plan payments and permitted golden parachute payments shall be submitted in writing to the FCA and the Corporation. The request shall be in letter form and shall contain all relevant factual information as well as the reasons why such approval should be granted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1412.8" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.8.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1412.8   Application in the event of receivership.</HEAD>
<P>The provisions of this part or any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by the Corporation (in its corporate capacity), shall not in any way bind any receiver of a failed System institution. Any consent or approval granted under the provisions of this part by the Corporation or the FCA shall not in any way obligate such agency or receiver to pay any claim or obligation pursuant to any golden parachute, severance, indemnification or other agreement. Claims for employee welfare benefits or other benefits which are contingent, even if otherwise vested, when the Corporation is appointed as receiver for any System institution, including any contingency for termination of employment, are not provable claims or actual, direct compensatory damage claims against such receiver. Nothing in this part may be construed to permit the payment of salary or any liability or legal expense of any IRP contrary to 12 U.S.C. 2277a-10b(d).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1413-1499" NODE="12:10.0.4.6.9" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1413-1499 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XV" NODE="12:10.0.5" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XV—DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.5.6" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—GENERAL PROVISIONS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1500" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1500—MERCHANT BANKING INVESTMENTS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1843(k). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>Reg. Y, 66 FR 8489, Jan. 31, 2001, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1500.1" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.1   What type of investments are permitted by this part, and under what conditions may they be made?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What types of investments are permitted by this part?</I> Section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) and this part authorize a financial holding company, directly or indirectly and as principal or on behalf of one or more persons, to acquire or control any amount of shares, assets or ownership interests of a company or other entity that is engaged in any activity not otherwise authorized for the financial holding company under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act. For purposes of this part, shares, assets or ownership interests acquired or controlled under section 4(k)(4)(H) and this part are referred to as “merchant banking investments.” A financial holding company may not directly or indirectly acquire or control any merchant banking investment except in compliance with the requirements of this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Must the investment be a bona fide merchant banking investment?</I> The acquisition or control of shares, assets or ownership interests under this part is not permitted unless it is part of a bona fide underwriting or merchant or investment banking activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What types of ownership interests may be acquired?</I> Shares, assets or ownership interests of a company or other entity include any debt or equity security, warrant, option, partnership interest, trust certificate or other instrument representing an ownership interest in the company or entity, whether voting or nonvoting. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Where in a financial holding company may merchant banking investments be made?</I> A financial holding company and any subsidiary (other than a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution) may acquire or control merchant banking investments. A financial holding company and its subsidiaries may not acquire or control merchant banking investments on behalf of a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>May assets other than shares be held directly?</I> A financial holding company may not under this part acquire or control assets, other than debt or equity securities or other ownership interests in a company, unless: 
</P>
<P>(1) The assets are held by or promptly transferred to a portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(2) The portfolio company maintains policies, books and records, accounts, and other indicia of corporate, partnership or limited liability organization and operation that are separate from the financial holding company and limit the legal liability of the financial holding company for obligations of the portfolio company; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The portfolio company has management that is separate from the financial holding company to the extent required by § 1500.2.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>What type of affiliate is required for a financial holding company to make merchant banking investments?</I> A financial holding company may not acquire or control merchant banking investments under this part unless the financial holding company qualifies under at least one of the following paragraphs: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Securities affiliate.</I> The financial holding company is or has an affiliate that is registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (15 U.S.C. 78c, 78o, 78o-4) as: 
</P>
<P>(i) A broker or dealer; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) A municipal securities dealer, including a separately identifiable department or division of a bank that is registered as a municipal securities dealer. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Insurance affiliate with an investment adviser affiliate.</I> The financial holding company controls: 
</P>
<P>(i) An insurance company that is predominantly engaged in underwriting life, accident and health, or property and casualty insurance (other than credit-related insurance), or providing and issuing annuities; and
</P>
<P>(ii) A company that: 
</P>
<P>(A) Is registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission as an investment adviser under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (15 U.S.C. 80b-1 <I>et seq.</I>); and
</P>
<P>(B) Provides investment advice to an insurance company. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.2" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.2   What are the limitations on managing or operating a portfolio company held as a merchant banking investment?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>May a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I> Except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section, a financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate any portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>When does a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a company?</I>—(1) <I>Examples of routine management or operation</I>—(i) <I>Executive officer interlocks at the portfolio company.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any director, officer or employee of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an executive officer of the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Interlocks by executive officers of the financial holding company</I>—(A) <I>Prohibition.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any executive officer of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an officer or employee of the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Definition.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section, the term “financial holding company” includes the financial holding company and only the following subsidiaries of the financial holding company: 
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A securities broker or dealer registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; 
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A depository institution; 
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) An affiliate that engages in merchant banking activities under this part or insurance company investment activities under section 4(k)(4)(I) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(I)); 
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) A small business investment company (as defined in section 302(b) of the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 682(b)) controlled by the financial holding company or by any depository institution controlled by the financial holding company; and 
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) Any other affiliate that engages in significant equity investment activities that are subject to a special capital charge under the capital adequacy rules or guidelines of the Board. 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Covenants regarding ordinary course of business.</I> A financial holding company routinely manages or operates a portfolio company if any covenant or other contractual arrangement exists between the financial holding company and the portfolio company that would restrict the portfolio company's ability to make routine business decisions, such as entering into transactions in the ordinary course of business or hiring officers or employees other than executive officers. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Presumptions of routine management or operation.</I> A financial holding company is presumed to routinely manage or operate a portfolio company if: 
</P>
<P>(i) Any director, officer, or employee of the financial holding company serves as or has the responsibilities of an officer (other than an executive officer) or employee of the portfolio company; or 
</P>
<P>(ii) Any officer or employee of the portfolio company is supervised by any director, officer, or employee of the financial holding company (other than in that individual's capacity as a director of the portfolio company). 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How may a financial holding company rebut a presumption that it is routinely managing or operating a portfolio company?</I> A financial holding company may rebut a presumption that it is routinely managing or operating a portfolio company under paragraph (b)(2) of this section by presenting information to the Board demonstrating to the Board's satisfaction that the financial holding company is not routinely managing or operating the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What arrangements do not involve routinely managing or operating a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>Director representation at portfolio companies.</I> A financial holding company may select any or all of the directors of a portfolio company or have one or more of its directors, officers, or employees serve as directors of a portfolio company if: 
</P>
<P>(i) The portfolio company employs officers and employees responsible for routinely managing and operating the company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The financial holding company does not routinely manage or operate the portfolio company, except as permitted in paragraph (e) of this section. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Covenants or other provisions regarding extraordinary events.</I> A financial holding company may, by virtue of covenants or other written agreements with a portfolio company, restrict the ability of the portfolio company, or require the portfolio company to consult with or obtain the approval of the financial holding company, to take actions outside of the ordinary course of the business of the portfolio company. Examples of the types of actions that may be subject to these types of covenants or agreements include, but are not limited to, the following: 
</P>
<P>(i) The acquisition of significant assets or control of another company by the portfolio company or any of its subsidiaries; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Removal or selection of an independent accountant or auditor or investment banker by the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Significant changes to the business plan or accounting methods or policies of the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Removal or replacement of any or all of the executive officers of the portfolio company; 
</P>
<P>(v) The redemption, authorization or issuance of any equity or debt securities (including options, warrants or convertible shares) of the portfolio company or any borrowing by the portfolio company outside of the ordinary course of business; 
</P>
<P>(vi) The amendment of the articles of incorporation or by-laws (or similar governing documents) of the portfolio company; and
</P>
<P>(vii) The sale, merger, consolidation, spin-off, recapitalization, liquidation, dissolution or sale of substantially all of the assets of the portfolio company or any of its significant subsidiaries. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Providing advisory and underwriting services to, and having consultations with, a portfolio company.</I> A financial holding company may: 
</P>
<P>(i) Provide financial, investment and management consulting advice to a portfolio company in a manner consistent with and subject to any restrictions on such activities contained in § 225.28(b)(6) or § 225.86(b)(1) of the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR 225.28(b)(6) and 225.86(b)(1)); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide assistance to a portfolio company in connection with the underwriting or private placement of its securities, including acting as the underwriter or placement agent for such securities; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Meet with the officers or employees of a portfolio company to monitor or provide advice with respect to the portfolio company's performance or activities. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>When may a financial holding company routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>Special circumstances required.</I> A financial holding company may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company only when intervention by the financial holding company is necessary or required to obtain a reasonable return on the financial holding company's investment in the portfolio company upon resale or other disposition of the investment, such as to avoid or address a significant operating loss or in connection with a loss of senior management at the portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration Limited.</I> A financial holding company may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company only for the period of time as may be necessary to address the cause of the financial holding company's involvement, to obtain suitable alternative management arrangements, to dispose of the investment, or to otherwise obtain a reasonable return upon the resale or disposition of the investment. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Notice required for extended involvement.</I> A financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company for a period greater than nine months without prior written notice to the Board. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Documentation required.</I> A financial holding company must maintain and make available to the Board upon request a written record describing its involvement in routinely managing or operating a portfolio company. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>May a depository institution or its subsidiary routinely manage or operate a portfolio company?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A depository institution and a subsidiary of a depository institution may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company in which an affiliated company owns or controls an interest under this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Definition applying provisions governing routine management or operation.</I> For purposes of this section other than paragraph (e) and for purposes of § 1500.4(d), a financial holding company includes a depository institution controlled by the financial holding company and a subsidiary of such a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Exception for certain subsidiaries of depository institutions.</I> For purposes of paragraph (e) of this section, a financial holding company includes a financial subsidiary held in accordance with section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) or section 46 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1831w), and a subsidiary that is a small business investment company and that is held in accordance with the Small Business Investment Act (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et seq.</I>), and such a subsidiary may, in accordance with the limitations set forth in this section, routinely manage or operate a portfolio company in which an affiliated company owns or controls an interest under this part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.3" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.3   What are the holding periods permitted for merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Must investments be made for resale?</I> A financial holding company may own or control shares, assets and ownership interests pursuant to this part only for a period of time to enable the sale or disposition thereof on a reasonable basis consistent with the financial viability of the financial holding company's merchant banking investment activities. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What period of time is generally permitted for holding merchant banking investments?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> Except as provided in this section or § 1500.4, a financial holding company may not, directly or indirectly, own, control or hold any share, asset or ownership interest pursuant to this part for a period that exceeds 10 years. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Ownership interests acquired from or transferred to companies held under this part.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, shares, assets or ownership interests—
</P>
<P>(i) Acquired by a financial holding company from a company in which the financial holding company held an interest under this part will be considered to have been acquired by the financial holding company on the date that the share, asset or ownership interest was acquired by the company; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Acquired by a company from a financial holding company will be considered to have been acquired by the company on the date that the share, asset or ownership interest was acquired by the financial holding company if—
</P>
<P>(A) The financial holding company held the share, asset, or ownership interest under this part; and
</P>
<P>(B) The financial holding company holds an interest in the acquiring company under this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Interests previously held by a financial holding company under limited authority.</I> For purposes of paragraph (b)(1) of this section, any shares, assets, or ownership interests previously owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by a financial holding company under any other provision of the Federal banking laws that imposes a limited holding period will if acquired under this part be considered to have been acquired by the financial holding company under this part on the date the financial holding company first acquired ownership or control of the shares, assets or ownership interests under such other provision of law. For purposes of this paragraph (b)(3), a financial holding company includes a depository institution controlled by the financial holding company and any subsidiary of such a depository institution. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Approval required to hold interests held in excess of time limit.</I> A financial holding company may seek Board approval to own, control or hold shares, assets or ownership interests of a company under this part for a period that exceeds the period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section. A request for approval must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Be submitted to the Board at least 90 days prior to the expiration of the applicable time period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide the reasons for the request, including information that addresses the factors in paragraph (b)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Explain the financial holding company's plan for divesting the shares, assets or ownership interests. 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Factors governing Board determinations.</I> In reviewing any proposal under paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the Board may consider all the facts and circumstances related to the investment, including: 
</P>
<P>(i) The cost to the financial holding company of disposing of the investment within the applicable period; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The total exposure of the financial holding company to the company and the risks that disposing of the investment may pose to the financial holding company; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Market conditions; 
</P>
<P>(iv) The nature of the portfolio company's business; 
</P>
<P>(v) The extent and history of involvement by the financial holding company in the management and operations of the company; and
</P>
<P>(vi) The average holding period of the financial holding company's merchant banking investments. 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Restrictions applicable to investments held beyond time period.</I> A financial holding company that directly or indirectly owns, controls or holds any share, asset or ownership interest of a company under this part for a total period that exceeds the period specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section must—
</P>
<P>(i) For purposes of determining the financial holding company's regulatory capital, apply to the financial holding company's adjusted carrying value of such shares, assets, or ownership interests a capital charge determined by the Board that must be: 
</P>
<P>(A) Higher than the maximum marginal Tier 1 capital charge applicable under the Board's capital adequacy rules or guidelines (<I>see</I> 12 CFR 225 appendix A) to merchant banking investments held by that financial holding company; and
</P>
<P>(B) In no event less than 25 percent of the adjusted carrying value of the investment; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Abide by any other restrictions that the Board may impose in connection with granting approval under paragraph (b)(4) of this section. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.4" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.4   How are investments in private equity funds treated under this part?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What is a private equity fund?</I> For purposes of this part, a “private equity fund” is any company that: 
</P>
<P>(1) Is formed for the purpose of and is engaged exclusively in the business of investing in shares, assets, and ownership interests of financial and nonfinancial companies for resale or other disposition; 
</P>
<P>(2) Is not an operating company; 
</P>
<P>(3) No more than 25 percent of the total equity of which is held, owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by the financial holding company and its directors, officers, employees and principal shareholders; 
</P>
<P>(4) Has a maximum term of not more than 15 years; and
</P>
<P>(5) Is not formed or operated for the purpose of making investments inconsistent with the authority granted under section 4(k)(4)(H) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)(H)) or evading the limitations governing merchant banking investments contained in this part. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What form may a private equity fund take?</I> A private equity fund may be a corporation, partnership, limited liability company or other type of company that issues ownership interests in any form. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is the holding period permitted for interests in private equity funds?</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> A financial holding company may own, control or hold any interest in a private equity fund under this part and any interest in a portfolio company that is owned or controlled by a private equity fund in which the financial holding company owns or controls any interest under this part for the duration of the fund, up to a maximum of 15 years. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request to hold interest for longer period.</I> A financial holding company may seek Board approval to own, control or hold an interest in or held through a private equity fund for a period longer than the duration of the fund in accordance with § 1500.3(b) of this part. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Application of rules.</I> The rules described in § 1500.3(b)(2) and (3) governing holding periods of interests acquired, transferred or previously held by a financial holding company apply to interests in, held through, or acquired from a private equity fund. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>How do the restrictions on routine management and operation apply to private equity funds and investments held through a private equity fund?</I>—(1) Portfolio companies held through a private equity fund. A financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company that is owned or controlled by a private equity fund in which the financial holding company owns or controls any interest under this part, except as permitted under § 1500.2(e). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Private equity funds controlled by a financial holding company.</I> A private equity fund that is controlled by a financial holding company may not routinely manage or operate a portfolio company, except as permitted under § 1500.2(e). 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Private equity funds that are not controlled by a financial holding company.</I> A private equity fund may routinely manage or operate a portfolio company so long as no financial holding company controls the private equity fund or as permitted under § 1500.2(e). 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>When does a financial holding company control a private equity fund?</I> A financial holding company controls a private equity fund for purposes of this part if the financial holding company, including any director, officer, employee or principal shareholder of the financial holding company: 
</P>
<P>(i) Serves as a general partner, managing member, or trustee of the private equity fund (or serves in a similar role with respect to the private equity fund); 
</P>
<P>(ii) Owns or controls 25 percent or more of any class of voting shares or similar interests in the private equity fund; 
</P>
<P>(iii) In any manner selects, controls or constitutes a majority of the directors, trustees or management of the private equity fund; or
</P>
<P>(iv) Owns or controls more than 5 percent of any class of voting shares or similar interests in the private equity fund and is the investment adviser to the fund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.5" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.5   What aggregate thresholds apply to merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general.</I> A financial holding company may not, without Board approval, directly or indirectly acquire any additional shares, assets or ownership interests under this part or make any additional capital contribution to any company the shares, assets or ownership interests of which are held by the financial holding company under this part if the aggregate carrying value of all merchant banking investments held by the financial holding company under this part exceeds: 
</P>
<P>(1) 30 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company; or 
</P>
<P>(2) After excluding interests in private equity funds, 20 percent of the Tier 1 capital of the financial holding company 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>How do these thresholds apply to a private equity fund?</I> Paragraph (a) of this section applies to the interest acquired or controlled by the financial holding company under this part in a private equity fund. Paragraph (a) of this section does not apply to any interest in a company held by a private equity fund or to any interest held by a person that is not affiliated with the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>How long do these thresholds remain in effect?</I> This § 1500.5 shall cease to be effective on the date that a final rule issued by the Board that specifically addresses the appropriate regulatory capital treatment of merchant banking investments becomes effective. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.6" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.6   What risk management, record keeping and reporting policies are required to make merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What internal controls and records are necessary?</I>—(1) <I>General.</I> A financial holding company, including a private equity fund controlled by a financial holding company, that makes investments under this part must establish and maintain policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to conduct, monitor and manage such investment activities and the risks associated with such investment activities in a safe and sound manner, including policies, procedures, records and systems reasonably designed to: 
</P>
<P>(i) Monitor and assess the carrying value, market value and performance of each investment and the aggregate portfolio;
</P>
<P>(ii) Identify and manage the market, credit, concentration and other risks associated with such investments; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Identify, monitor and assess the terms, amounts and risks arising from transactions and relationships (including contingent fees or contingent interests) with each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this part; 
</P>
<P>(iv) Ensure the maintenance of corporate separateness between the financial holding company and each company in which the financial holding company holds an interest under this part and protect the financial holding company and its depository institution subsidiaries from legal liability for the operations conducted and financial obligations of each such company; and
</P>
<P>(v) Ensure compliance with this part. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Availability of records.</I> A financial holding company must make the policies, procedures and records required by paragraph (a)(1) of this section available to the Board or the appropriate Reserve Bank upon request. 
</P>
<P>(b) Certain additional recordkeeping and reporting requirements for merchant banking investments are set forth in the Board's Regulation Y, 12 CFR 225.175. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.7" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.7   How do the statutory cross marketing and sections 23A and B limitations apply to merchant banking investments?</HEAD>
<P>Certain cross-marketing limitations and limitations under sections 23A and 23B of the Federal Reserve Act (12 U.S.C. 371c, 371c-1) applicable to merchant banking investments are set forth in the Board's Regulation Y, 12 CFR 225.176. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1500.8" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.1.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1500.8   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>What do references to a financial holding company include?</I>—(1) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the term “financial holding company” as used in this part means the financial holding company and all of its subsidiaries, including a private equity fund or other fund controlled by the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(2) Except as otherwise expressly provided, the term “financial holding company” does not include a depository institution or subsidiary of a depository institution or any portfolio company controlled directly or indirectly by the financial holding company. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What do references to a depository institution include?</I> For purposes of this part, the term “depository institution” includes a U.S. branch or agency of a foreign bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What is a portfolio company?</I> A portfolio company is any company or entity: 
</P>
<P>(1) That is engaged in any activity not authorized for the financial holding company under section 4 of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843); and
</P>
<P>(2) Any shares, assets or ownership interests of which are held, owned or controlled directly or indirectly by the financial holding company pursuant to this part, including through a private equity fund that the financial holding company controls. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Who are the executive officers of a company?</I>—(1) An executive officer of a company is any person who participates or has the authority to participate (other than in the capacity as a director) in major policymaking functions of the company, whether or not the officer has an official title, the title designates the officer as an assistant, or the officer serves without salary or other compensation. 
</P>
<P>(2) The term “executive officer” does not include—
</P>
<P>(i) Any person, including a person with an official title, who may exercise a certain measure of discretion in the performance of his duties, including the discretion to make decisions in the ordinary course of the company's business, but who does not participate in the determination of major policies of the company and whose decisions are limited by policy standards fixed by senior management of the company; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any person who is excluded from participating (other than in the capacity of a director) in major policymaking functions of the company by resolution of the board of directors or by the bylaws of the company and who does not in fact participate in such policymaking functions. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>What is the Board?</I> The Board means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>How are other terms that are used in this part defined?</I> Unless otherwise defined in this part, all terms used have the meanings given such terms in the Board's Regulation Y (12 CFR Part 225).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1501" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1501—FINANCIAL SUBSIDIARIES 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>Section 5136A of the Revised Statutes of the United States (12 U.S.C. 24a). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 14821, Mar. 20, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1501.1" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.2.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1501.1   How do you request the Secretary to determine that an activity is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requests regarding activities that may be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity.</I> A national bank or other interested party may request the Secretary to determine that an activity not defined to be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity in Section 4(k)(4) of the Bank Holding Company Act (12 U.S.C. 1843(k)(4)), is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>What information must the request contain?</I> A request submitted under this section must be in writing and must: 
</P>
<P>(1) Identify and define the activity for which the determination is sought, specifically describing what the activity would involve and how the activity would be conducted; 
</P>
<P>(2) Explain in detail why the activity should be considered financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity; and 
</P>
<P>(3) Provide information supporting the requested determination and any other information required by the Secretary concerning the proposed activity. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>What factors will the Secretary take into account in making his determination?</I> (1) Section 121 of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) (Public Law 106-102, 113 Stat. 1373) requires the Secretary to take into account the following factors in making his determination: 
</P>
<P>(i) The purposes of section 5136A of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) and the GLBA; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Changes or reasonably expected changes in the marketplace in which banks compete; 
</P>
<P>(iii) Changes or reasonably expected changes in the technology for delivering financial services; and 
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the activity is necessary or appropriate to allow a bank and the subsidiaries of a bank to— 
</P>
<P>(A) Compete effectively with any company seeking to provide financial services in the United States; 
</P>
<P>(B) Efficiently deliver information and services that are financial in nature through the use of technological means, including any application necessary to protect the security or efficacy of systems for the transmission of data or financial transactions; and 
</P>
<P>(C) Offer customers any available or emerging technological means for using financial services or for the document imaging of data. 
</P>
<P>(2) Because the Secretary is required to consider the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section in making his determination, any request should address the factors in paragraph (c)(1) of this section. The Secretary may also consider other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>What action will the Secretary take after receiving a request?</I>—(1) <I>Consultation with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board).</I> Upon receiving the request, the Secretary will send a copy to the Board and consult with the Board in accordance with section 5136A(b)(1)(B)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 5136A(b)(1)(B)(i)). 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Public notice.</I> The Secretary may, as appropriate and after consultation with the Board, publish a description of the proposal in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> with a request for public comment. 
</P>
<P>(e) <I>How and when will the Secretary act on a request?</I> In the case of each request, the Secretary: 
</P>
<P>(1) Will inform the requester of the Secretary's final determination regarding the requested activity; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Will endeavor to inform the requester of the Secretary's final determination within 60 days of completion of both the consultative process described in paragraph (d)(1) of this section and the public comment period, if any. 
</P>
<P>(f) <I>What must a national bank do in order for a financial subsidiary to engage in activities that the Secretary has determined are financial in nature or incidental to financial activities?</I> Once the Secretary determines that an activity is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity (either in accordance with this section or after evaluation of a proposal raised by the Board under section 5136A(b)(1)(B)(ii) of the Revised Statutes), a financial subsidiary may engage in the activity subject to the requirements of 12 CFR part 5 and in accordance with any terms or conditions established by the Secretary in connection with authorizing the activity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1501.2" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.2.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1501.2   What activities has the Secretary determined to be financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Activities permitted under section 5136A(b)(3) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(b)(3)).</I> (1) The following types of activities are financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity when conducted pursuant to a determination by the Secretary under paragraph (a)(2) of this section: 
</P>
<P>(i) Lending, exchanging, transferring, investing for others, or safeguarding financial assets other than money or securities; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Providing any device or other instrumentality for transferring money or other financial assets; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Arranging, effecting, or facilitating financial transactions for the account of third parties. 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review of specific activities—</I> (i) <I>Is a specific request required?</I> A financial subsidiary that wishes to engage on the basis of paragraph (a)(1) of this section in an activity that is not otherwise permissible for a financial subsidiary must obtain a determination from the Secretary that the activity is permitted under paragraph (a)(1). 
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Consultation with the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System.</I> After receiving a request under this section, the Secretary will provide the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System (Board) with a copy of the request and consult with the Board in accordance with section 5136A(b)(1)(B)(i) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(b)(1)(B)(i)). 
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Secretary action on requests.</I> After consultation with the Board, the Secretary will promptly make a written determination regarding whether the specific activity described in the request is included in an activity category listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and is therefore either financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>What factors will the Secretary consider?</I> In evaluating a request made under this section, the Secretary will take into account the factors listed in section 5136A(b)(2) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a(b)(2)) that the Secretary must consider when determining whether an activity is financial in nature or incidental to a financial activity. 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>What information must the request contain?</I> Any request by financial subsidiary under this section must be in writing and must: 
</P>
<P>(i) Identify and define the activity for which the determination is sought, specifically describing what the activity would involve and how the activity would be conducted; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) Provide information supporting the requested determination, including information regarding how the proposed activity falls into one of the categories listed in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, and any other information required by the Secretary concerning the proposed activity. 
</P>
<P>(b) [Reserved]
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 260, Jan. 3, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1501.3" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.2.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1501.3   Comparable ratings requirement for national banks among the second 50 largest insured banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Scope and purpose.</I> Section 5136A of the Revised Statutes permits a national bank that is within the second 50 largest insured banks to own or control a financial subsidiary only if, among other requirements, the bank satisfies the eligible debt requirement set forth in section 5136A or an alternative criteria jointly established by the Secretary of the Treasury and the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System. This section establishes the alternative criteria that a national bank among the second 50 largest insured banks may meet, which criteria is comparable to and consistent with the purposes of the eligible debt requirement established by section 5136A. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Alternative criteria.</I> A national bank satisfies the alternative criteria referenced in Section 5136A(a)(2)(E) of the Revised Statutes (12 U.S.C. 24a) and 12 CFR 5.39(g)(3) if the bank has a current long-term issuer credit rating from at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization that is within the three highest investment grade rating categories used by the organization. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Definition of long-term issuer credit rating.</I> A “long-term issuer credit rating” is a written opinion issued by a nationally recognized statistical rating organization of the bank's overall capacity and willingness to pay on a timely basis its unsecured, dollar-denominated financial obligations maturing in not less than one year.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[66 FR 8750, Feb. 2, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1502-1503" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1502-1503 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1505-1507" NODE="12:10.0.5.6.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1505-1507 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.5.7" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B—RESOLUTION FUNDING CORPORATION 


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1510" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1510—RESOLUTION FUNDING CORPORATION OPERATIONS 
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1441b; Sec. 14(d), Pub. L. 105-216, 112 Stat. 910. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>65 FR 12069, Mar. 8, 2000, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1510.1" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.1   Authority, purpose, and scope.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued under the authority of section 14(d) of the Homeowners Protection Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-216, 112 Stat. 910) and section 21B(l) of the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1441b(l)). 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope.</I> The purpose of this part is to provide direction to the Funding Corporation in carrying out its statutory mandate to make interest payments on its outstanding debt obligations. This part also provides direction to the Funding Corporation regarding funding the administrative costs of its operations. This part does not provide direction to the Funding Corporation, however, on activities that the Funding Corporation is authorized to carry out under the Act, but that it previously has completed or is not likely to undertake in the future, such as raising capital and issuing obligations. Although the Funding Corporation continues to have statutory authority to undertake these activities, the circumstances under which it would do so are limited. If such circumstances were to arise, the Secretary has the authority to provide any necessary direction to the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority of the Funding Corporation.</I> The Funding Corporation may exercise all authority granted to it by the Act in accordance with its bylaws, whether or not specifically implemented by regulation, subject to the requirements of this part and such other regulations, orders and directions as the Secretary may prescribe. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.2" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.2   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>The following definitions apply to terms used in this part unless the context requires otherwise: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 1421 <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Administrative expenses</I> means costs incurred as necessary to carry out the functions of the Funding Corporation, including custodian fees, but does not include any interest on obligations.
</P>
<P><I>Bank</I> means a Federal Home Loan Bank established under the authority of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Custodian fee</I> means any fee incurred by the Funding Corporation in connection with the transfer of any security to, or the maintenance of any security in, the Funding Corporation Principal Fund and any other expense incurred in connection with the establishment or maintenance of the Funding Corporation Principal Fund. 
</P>
<P><I>Directorate</I> means the Directorate of the Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 21B(c) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 1421b(c)). 
</P>
<P><I>FDIC</I> means the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation established pursuant to section 1 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811, <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Finance Board</I> means the Federal Housing Finance Board established pursuant to section 2A(a)(1) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>FSLIC Resolution Fund</I> means the Federal Savings and Loan Insurance Corporation Resolution Fund established pursuant to section 11A(a)(1) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1811, <I>et seq.</I>). 
</P>
<P><I>Funding Corporation</I> means the Resolution Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 21B(b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Funding Corporation Principal Fund</I> means the separate account established under section 21B(g)(2) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Interest payment due date</I> means the date on which the next quarterly interest payments on obligations are due. 
</P>
<P><I>Net earnings</I> means net earnings after deducting expenses relating to section 10(j) of the Act (Affordable Housing Program) and operating expenses, but without reduction for chargeoffs and payments to fund interest payments on obligations. 
</P>
<P><I>Obligations</I> means bonds issued by the Funding Corporation under section 21B(f) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>RTC</I> means the Resolution Trust Corporation established pursuant to section 21A(b)(1)(A) of the Act and which terminated on December 31, 1995, pursuant to section 21A(m) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Secretary</I> means the Secretary of the Treasury or the designee of the Secretary of the Treasury. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.3" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.3   How does the Funding Corporation pay administrative expenses?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Directorate proposes a budget.</I> By November 15 of each year, the Directorate must approve and submit to the Secretary a proposed budget for the administrative expenses of the Funding Corporation for the following year. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Secretary approves the budget.</I> The Funding Corporation's budget is subject to the Secretary's prior approval. The proposed budget submitted by the Directorate shall be deemed to be approved by the Secretary unless the Secretary disapproves it within 45 days of the date submitted. The Funding Corporation must transmit a copy of the approved budget to each Bank. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Budget changes must be approved by the Secretary.</I> If the Funding Corporation projects or anticipates incurring expenses exceeding its approved budget, the Directorate must submit an amended budget to the Secretary for approval. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The Funding Corporation collects funds from the Banks to pay its administrative expenses.</I> At least semiannually, the Funding Corporation must request that each Bank submit within 10 business days of the request payment for a portion of the administrative expenses in the Funding Corporation's budget for the current calendar year. The amount of each Bank's payment must be pro rated according to the percentage of the total outstanding Funding Corporation capital stock owned by the Bank. The Funding Corporation must adjust the amount of each Bank's payment as necessary to reflect differences between aggregate projected and actual administrative expenses incurred during the calendar year and to reflect any changes in estimated aggregate administrative expenses for the coming period. The Funding Corporation must not request payments from the Banks that, in the aggregate, exceed the administrative expenses in the Funding Corporation's approved budget. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.4" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.4   Who may act as the depositary and fiscal agent for the Funding Corporation?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>In general, the Federal Reserve Banks.</I> The Funding Corporation must use one or more Federal Reserve Banks as depositaries for or fiscal agents or custodians of the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>For administrative accounts, insured depository institutions.</I> Subject to approval by the Secretary, the Funding Corporation may establish demand deposit accounts at one or more federally insured depository institutions for the management of funds used to pay administrative expenses. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.5" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.5   How does the Funding Corporation make interest payments on its obligations?</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>The Funding Corporation must obtain funds from up to four sources.</I> The Funding Corporation must pay the interest due on its obligations with funds it obtains from the following sources and in the following order: 
</P>
<P>(1) Earnings on assets of the Funding Corporation not invested in the Funding Corporation Principal Fund. 
</P>
<P>(2) To the extent funds identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are insufficient, the Funding Corporation must obtain from each Bank in each calendar year payments totaling 20 percent of the net earnings of the Bank. The Funding Corporation must not obtain funds from a Bank under this paragraph after the date upon which the term of the Bank's payment obligation has ended, as determined by the Finance Board pursuant to section 21B(f)(2)(C)(iii) of the Act. 
</P>
<P>(3) To the extent funds identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are insufficient, the Funding Corporation must obtain from the FSLIC Resolution Fund amounts available from any net proceeds from the sale of assets received from the RTC by the FSLIC Resolution Fund. 
</P>
<P>(4) To the extent that funds from the sources identified in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section are insufficient, the Funding Corporation must obtain from the Secretary the additional amount due. 
</P>
<P>(b) <I>The Funding Corporation must obtain projections of funds availability from the Banks and the FSLIC Resolution Fund.</I> Not later than March 15, June 15, September 15, and December 15 of each year: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Funding Corporation must obtain from each Bank a statement signed by an officer of such Bank containing sufficient information on the Banks net earnings to enable the Funding Corporation to make quarterly projections of funds available from the Bank for the current quarter and the next three quarters; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Funding Corporation must obtain from an authorized representative of the FSLIC Resolution Fund projections of the amount of funds available in the current quarter and the next three quarters from the net proceeds from the sale of received from the RTC. 
</P>
<P>(c) <I>The Funding Corporation must report funding projections to the Secretary.</I> Not later than March 20, June 20, September 20, and December 20 of each year, the Funding Corporation must submit to the Secretary a report containing: 
</P>
<P>(1) The aggregate amounts of each of the next four quarterly interest payments due on obligations; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The amounts projected to be available to fund such payments from: 
</P>
<P>(i) Earnings on assets of the Funding Corporation not invested in the Funding Corporation Principal Fund; 
</P>
<P>(ii) Payments from the Banks; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) Funds transferred from the FSLIC Resolution Fund. 
</P>
<P>(d) <I>The Funding Corporation must request funds from the Banks, the FSLIC Resolution Fund, and the Secretary</I>—(1) <I>Requests to the Banks.</I> Not less than four business days prior to the interest payment due date, the Funding Corporation must obtain from each Bank a report of its actual net earnings for the prior quarter and notify each Bank in writing of the interest payment due date and the amount of the payment due from the Bank. To the extent funds identified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section are insufficient to pay the interest due, the amount of each Bank's payment must be 20 percent of the Bank's actual quarterly net earnings, taking into account any adjustment to the Bank's earnings for any previous quarters. The Funding Corporation must request the Bank to provide payment through wiring immediately available and finally collected funds to the Funding Corporation no later than the interest payment due date.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Request to the FSLIC Resolution Fund.</I> On the day the Funding Corporation notifies the Banks of the payments due from them under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the Funding Corporation must:
</P>
<P>(i) Notify the FSLIC Resolution Fund in writing of:
</P>
<P>(A) The interest payment due date;
</P>
<P>(B) The aggregate amount of the quarterly interest payment due on that date; and
</P>
<P>(C) The amount of the quarterly interest payment that will be funded by earnings on assets of the Funding Corporation not invested in the Funding Corporation Principal Fund and payments due from the Banks; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Request that the FSLIC Resolution Fund transfer to the Funding Corporation by noon on the third business day prior to the interest payment due date any funds available from the net proceeds from the sale of assets received from the RTC, to the extent funds identified in paragraphs (a)(1) and (2) of this section are insufficient to pay the interest due.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Request to the Secretary.</I> No less than three business days prior to the interest payment due date, the Funding Corporation must request payment from the Secretary by providing a certification, in a form satisfactory to the Secretary, stating the total amounts of the quarterly interest payment to be paid by the Funding Corporation from sources other than the Secretary and the amounts necessary to make up the deficiency. Any amount paid by the Secretary becomes a liability of the Funding Corporation to be repaid to the Secretary upon the dissolution of the Funding Corporation, to the extent of its remaining assets.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[65 FR 12069, Mar. 8, 2000, as amended at 66 FR 47071, Sept. 11, 2001]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.6" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.6   What must the Funding Corporation do with surplus funds?</HEAD>
<P>If the Funding Corporation has funds that are not needed for current interest payments on obligations, it must invest the funds in obligations of the United States issued by the Secretary, in accordance with an investment policy approved by the Secretary. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.7" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.7   What are the Funding Corporation's reporting requirements?</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the budget submission required by § 1510.3 and the funding projection reports required by § 1510.5, the Funding Corporation must prepare such reports as the Secretary may require, including reports necessary to assist the Secretary in making the annual report to Congress and the President on the Funding Corporation under section 21B(i) of the Act. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1510.8" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.5.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1510.8   What are the audit requirements for the Funding Corporation?</HEAD>
<P>The Funding Corporation must obtain an audit of its books and records by an independent external auditor at least annually.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1511" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1511—BOOK-ENTRY PROCEDURE
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1441b. 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>61 FR 66875, Dec. 19, 1996, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1511.0" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.0   Applicability.</HEAD>
<P>The regulations in this part apply to Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.1" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.1   Definitions of terms.</HEAD>
<P>In this part, unless the context indicates otherwise: 
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Federal Home Loan Bank Act as amended (12 U.S.C. 1421 <I>et seq.</I>).
</P>
<P><I>Adverse Claim</I> means a claim that a claimant has a property interest in a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security and that it is a violation of the rights of the claimant for another Person to hold, transfer, or deal with the Book-entry Funding Corporation Security. 
</P>
<P><I>Book-entry Funding Corporation Security</I> means a Funding Corporation Security in book-entry form that is issued or maintained in the Book-entry System. Solely for the purposes of this Part, it also means the separate interest and principal components of a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security if such security has been divided into such components as authorized by the Securities Documentation and the components are maintained separately on the books of one or more Federal Reserve Banks. 
</P>
<P><I>Book-entry System</I> means the automated book-entry system operated by the Federal Reserve Banks acting as the fiscal agent for the Funding Corporation, on which Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities are issued, recorded, transferred and maintained in book-entry form.
</P>
<P><I>Entitlement Holder</I> means a Person to whose account an interest in a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security is credited on the records of a Securities Intermediary. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank or Reserve Bank</I> means a Federal Reserve Bank or Branch. 
</P>
<P><I>Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular</I> means the publication issued by each Federal Reserve Bank that sets forth the terms and conditions under which the Reserve Bank maintains book-entry Securities accounts (including Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities) and transfers book-entry Securities (including Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities). 
</P>
<P><I>Funding Corporation</I> means the Resolution Funding Corporation established pursuant to section 21B(b) of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Funding Corporation Security</I> or <I>Security</I> means a Funding Corporation bond, note, debenture and similar obligations issued under section 21B of the Act. 
</P>
<P><I>Funds Account</I> means a reserve and/or clearing account at a Federal Reserve Bank to which debits or credits are posted for transfers against payment, book-entry securities transaction fees, or principal and interest payments. 
</P>
<P><I>Participant</I> means a Person that maintains a Participant's Securities Account with a Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P><I>Participant's Securities Account</I> means an account in the name of a Participant at a Federal Reserve Bank to which Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities held for a Participant are or may be credited. 
</P>
<P><I>Person</I> means and includes an individual, corporation, company, governmental entity, association, firm, partnership, trust, estate, representative, and any other similar organization, but does not mean or include the United States, the Funding Corporation, or a Federal Reserve Bank. 
</P>
<P><I>Revised Article 8</I> means Uniform Commercial Code, Revised Article 8, Investment Securities (with Conforming and Miscellaneous Amendments to Articles 1, 3, 4, 5, 9, and 10) 1994 Official Text. Revised Article 8 of the Uniform Commercial Code is incorporated by reference in this Part pursuant to 5 U.S.C. 552(a) and 1 CFR Part 51. Article 8 was adopted by the American Law Institute and the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State laws and approved by the American Bar Association on February 14, 1995. Copies of this publication are available from the Executive Office of the American Law Institute, 4025 Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, PA 19104, and the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws, 676 North St. Clair Street, Suite 1700, Chicago, IL 60611. Copies are also available for public inspection at the Department of the Treasury Library, Room 5030, main Treasury Building, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW., Washington DC 20220, or at the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA). For information on the availability of this material at NARA, call 202-741-6030, or go to: <I>http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Securities Documentation</I> means the applicable offering circular, supplement, or other documents establishing the terms of a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security. 
</P>
<P><I>Securities Intermediary</I> means: 
</P>
<P>(1) A Person that is registered as a “clearing agency” under the Federal securities laws; a Federal Reserve Bank; any other Person that provides clearance or settlement services with respect to a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security that would require it to register as a clearing agency under the Federal securities laws but for an exclusion or exemption from the registration requirement, if its activities as a clearing corporation, including promulgation of rules, are subject to regulation by a Federal or State governmental authority; or 
</P>
<P>(2) A Person (other than an individual, unless such individual is registered as a broker or dealer under the federal securities laws) including a bank or broker, that in the ordinary course of its business maintains securities accounts for others and is acting in that capacity. 
</P>
<P><I>Security Entitlement</I> means the rights and property interest of an Entitlement Holder with respect to a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security. 
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, or any other territory or possession of the United States. 
</P>
<P><I>Transfer message</I> means an instruction of a Participant to a Federal Reserve Bank to effect a transfer of a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security, as set forth in Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars. 
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[61 FR 66875, Dec. 19, 1996, as amended at 69 FR 18803, Apr. 9, 2004]


</CITA>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.2" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.2   Law governing rights and obligations of the Funding Corporation and Federal Reserve Banks; rights of any Person against the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the following are governed solely by the regulations contained in this part 1511, the Securities Documentation and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars:
</P>
<P>(1) The rights and obligations of the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A Book-entry Funding Corporation Security or Security Entitlement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Funding Corporation Securities; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The rights of any Person, including a Participant, against the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks with respect to: 
</P>
<P>(i) A Book-entry Funding Corporation Security or Security Entitlement; and 
</P>
<P>(ii) The operation of the Book-entry System as it applies to Funding Corporation Securities. 
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Participant and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1511.4(c)(1), is governed by the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction where the head office of the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the Participant's Securities Account is located. A security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank from a Person that is not a Participant, and that is not recorded on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to § 1511.4(c)(1), is governed by the law determined in the manner specified in § 1511.3. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the jurisdiction specified in the first sentence of paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted Revised Article 8 (incorporated by reference, see § 1511.1), then the law specified in paragraph (b) shall be the law of that State as though Revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.3" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.3   Law governing other interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) To the extent not inconsistent with the regulations in this part, the law (not including the conflict-of-law rules) of a Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction governs: 
</P>
<P>(1) The acquisition of a Security Entitlement from the Securities Intermediary; 
</P>
<P>(2) The rights and duties of the Securities Intermediary and Entitlement Holder arising out of a Security Entitlement; 
</P>
<P>(3) Whether the Securities Intermediary owes any duties to an adverse claimant to a Security Entitlement; 
</P>
<P>(4) Whether an Adverse Claim can be asserted against a Person who acquires a Security Entitlement from the Securities Intermediary or a Person who purchases a Security Entitlement or interest therein from an Entitlement Holder; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c) of this section, the perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection and priority of a security interest in a Security Entitlement. 
</P>
<P>(b) The following rules determine a “Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction” for purposes of this section: 
</P>
<P>(1) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder specifies that it is governed by the law of a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(2) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify the governing law as provided in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, but expressly specifies that the securities account is maintained at an office in a particular jurisdiction, that jurisdiction is the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction. 
</P>
<P>(3) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section, the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the office identified in an account statement as the office serving the Entitlement Holder's account. 
</P>
<P>(4) If an agreement between the Securities Intermediary and its Entitlement Holder does not specify a jurisdiction as provided in paragraph (b)(1) or (b)(2) of this section and an account statement does not identify an office serving the Entitlement Holder's account as provided in paragraph (b)(3) of this section, the Securities Intermediary's jurisdiction is the jurisdiction in which is located the chief executive office of the Securities Intermediary. 
</P>
<P>(c) Notwithstanding the general rule in paragraph (a)(5) of this section, the law (but not the conflict-of-law rules) of the jurisdiction in which the Person creating a security interest is located governs whether and how the security interest may be perfected automatically or by filing a financing statement. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the jurisdiction specified in paragraph (b) of this section is a State that has not adopted Revised Article 8 (incorporated by reference, see § 1511.1), then the law for the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section shall be the law of that State as though Revised Article 8 had been adopted by that State. For purposes of the application of the matters specified in paragraph (a) of this section, the Federal Reserve Bank maintaining the Securities Account is a clearing corporation, and the Participant's interest in a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security is a Security Entitlement. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.4" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.4   Creation of Participant's Security Entitlement; security interests.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Participant's Security Entitlement is created when a Federal Reserve Bank indicates by book-entry that a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security has been credited to a Participant's Securities Account. 
</P>
<P>(b) A security interest in a Security Entitlement of a Participant in favor of the United States to secure deposits of public money, including without limitation deposits to the Treasury tax and loan accounts, or other security interest in favor of the United States that is required by Federal statute, regulation, or agreement, and that is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank is thereby effected and perfected, and has priority over any other interest in the securities. Where a security interest in favor of the United States in a Security Entitlement of a Participant is marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank, such Reserve Bank may rely, and is protected in relying, exclusively on the order of an authorized representative of the United States directing the transfer of the security. For purposes of this paragraph, an “authorized representative of the United States” is the official designated in the applicable regulations or agreement to which a Federal Reserve Bank is a party, governing the security interest. 
</P>
<P>(c)(1) The Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks have no obligation to agree to act on behalf of any Person or to recognize the interest of any transferee of a security interest or other limited interest in favor of any Person except to the extent of any specific requirement of Federal law or regulation or to the extent set forth in any specific agreement with the Federal Reserve Bank on whose books the interest of the Participant is recorded. To the extent required by such law or regulation or set forth in an agreement with a Federal Reserve Bank, or the Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular, a security interest in a Security Entitlement that is in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, the Funding Corporation, or a Person may be created and perfected by a Federal Reserve Bank marking its books to record the security interest. Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement marked on the books of a Federal Reserve Bank shall have priority over any other interest in the securities. 
</P>
<P>(2) In addition to the method provided in paragraph (c)(1) of this section, a security interest in a Security Entitlement, including a security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank, may be perfected by any method by which a security interest may be perfected under applicable law as described in § 1511.2(b) or § 1511.3. The perfection, effect of perfection or non-perfection and priority of a security interest are governed by such applicable law. A security interest in favor of a Federal Reserve Bank shall be treated as a security interest in favor of a clearing corporation in all respects under such law, including with respect to the effect of perfection and priority of such security interest. A Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circular shall be treated as a rule adopted by a clearing corporation for such purposes. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.5" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.5   Obligations of Funding Corporation; no adverse claims.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Except in the case of a security interest in favor of the United States or a Federal Reserve Bank or otherwise as provided in § 1511.4(c)(1), for the purposes of this part 1511, the Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks shall treat the Participant to whose Securities Account an interest in a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security has been credited as the Person exclusively entitled to issue a Transfer Message, to receive interest and other payments with respect thereof and otherwise to exercise all the rights and powers with respect to such Security, notwithstanding any information or notice to the contrary. Neither the Federal Reserve Banks nor the Funding Corporation is liable to a Person asserting or having an Adverse Claim to a Security Entitlement or to a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security in a Participant's Securities Account, including any such claim arising as a result of the transfer or disposition of a Book-entry Funding Corporation Security by a Federal Reserve Bank pursuant to a Transfer Message that the Federal Reserve Bank reasonably believes to be genuine. 
</P>
<P>(b) The obligation of the Funding Corporation to make payments of interest and principal with respect to Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities is discharged at the time payment in the appropriate amount is made as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) Interest on Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities is either credited by a Federal Reserve Bank to a Funds Account maintained at such Bank or otherwise paid as directed by the Participant. 
</P>
<P>(2) Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities are redeemed in accordance with their terms by a Federal Reserve Bank withdrawing the securities from the Participant's Securities Account in which they are maintained and by either crediting the amount of the redemption proceeds, including both principal and interest where applicable, to a Funds Account at such Bank or otherwise paying such principal and interest, as directed by the Participant. The principal of such Securities shall be paid using the proceeds of the noninterest bearing instruments maintained by the Funding Corporation for such purpose. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.6" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.6   Authority of Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Federal Reserve Bank is hereby authorized as fiscal agent of the Funding Corporation to perform functions with respect to the issuance of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities offered and sold by the Funding Corporation, in accordance with the Securities Documentation, and Federal Reserve Bank Operating Circulars; to service and maintain Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities in accounts established for such purposes; to make payments of principal and interest with respect to such Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities as directed by the Funding Corporation; to effect transfer of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities between Participants' Securities Accounts as directed by the Participants; and to perform such other duties as fiscal agent as may be requested by the Funding Corporation. 
</P>
<P>(b) Each Federal Reserve Bank may issue Operating Circulars not inconsistent with this Part, governing the details of its handling of Book-entry Funding Corporation Securities, Security Entitlements, and the operation of the Book-Entry System under this Part. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.7" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.7   Liability of the Funding Corporation and Federal Reserve Banks.</HEAD>
<P>The Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks may rely on the information provided in a Transfer Message, or other documentation, and are not required to verify the information. The Funding Corporation and the Federal Reserve Banks shall not be liable for any action taken in accordance with the information set out in a Transfer Message, other documentation, or evidence submitted in support thereof. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1511.8" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.6.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1511.8   Notice of attachment.</HEAD>
<P>The interest of a debtor in a Security Entitlement may be reached by a creditor only by legal process upon the Securities Intermediary with whom the debtor's securities account is maintained, except where a Security Entitlement is maintained in the name of a secured party, in which case the debtor's interest may be reached by legal process upon the secured party. The regulations in this part do not purport to establish whether a Federal Reserve Bank is required to honor an order or other notice of attachment in any particular case or class of cases.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1512-1599" NODE="12:10.0.5.7.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1512-1599 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVI" NODE="12:10.0.6" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVI—OFFICE OF FINANCIAL RESEARCH, DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1600" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1600—ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS OF THE OFFICE OF FINANCIAL RESEARCH
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>5 U.S.C. 301, 7301, 31 U.S.C. 321, the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act (Dodd-Frank) (Pub. L. 111-203); E.O. 12674, 3 CFR, 1989 Comp., p. 215, as modified by E.O. 12731, 3 CFR, 1990 Comp., p. 306.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>76 FR 60708, Sept. 30, 2011, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1600.1" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.1.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1600.1   Standards of ethical conduct.</HEAD>
<P>This section applies to the employees of the Office of Financial Research and is in addition to 5 CFR 3101.101-104, and 31 CFR part 0:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions</I>—For purposes of this subpart:
</P>
<P>(1) “Business confidential information” shall include trade secret or other formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of information which is not generally known or reasonably ascertainable, by which a business can obtain an economic advantage over competitors or customers. This shall include non-public position and transaction data, as well as data provided to supervisors or regulators that is unpublished.
</P>
<P>(2) “Position data” is defined as:
</P>
<P>(i) Data on financial assets or liabilities held on the balance sheet of a financial company, where positions are created or changed by the execution of a financial transaction; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Includes information that identifies counterparties, the valuation by the financial company of the position, and information that makes possible an independent valuation of the position.
</P>
<P>(3) “Transaction data” is defined as the structure and legal description of a financial contract, with sufficient detail to describe the rights and obligations between counterparties and make possible an independent valuation.
</P>
<P>(4) “Micro-level data” is defined as information specific to an individual transaction or position.
</P>
<P>(5) “Masked data” is defined as data that has been altered to prevent attribution to a particular financial company.
</P>
<P>(6) “Financial company” has the same meaning given to such term in title II of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, 12 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.</I> (2010), and includes an insured depository institution and an insurance company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>One-year post-employment restriction.</I> (1) A current or former employee of the Office of Financial Research who has had access to the transaction or position data or business confidential information maintained by the Data Center about financial entities required to report to the Office may not, within one year after last having had access in the course of official duties to such transaction or position data or business confidential information, be employed by or provide advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(2) A current or former employee of the Office of Financial Research who has had limited access to the transaction or position data or business confidential information maintained by the Data Center about financial entities required to report to the Office may request a written waiver pursuant to paragraph (c) of this section from the Designated Agency Ethics Official to be employed by or provide advice or consulting services to a financial company, provided that the issuance of the waiver would not compromise any data or business confidential information.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waivers</I>—The post-employment restrictions set forth in section 152(g) of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act may be waived in whole or in part for an employee with limited access to the transaction or position data or business confidential information maintained by the Data Center if—
</P>
<P>(1) The Designated Agency Ethics Official, in consultation with the Director of the Office of Financial Research or the Department's General Counsel in instances where consultation with the Director poses a conflict or the Director's position is vacant, determines in writing that such waiver is unlikely to compromise any financial company's business confidential information, unfairly advantage or disadvantage any financial company, or affect the integrity or effectiveness of the Office of Financial Research.
</P>
<P>(2) Relevant factors to be considered by the Designated Agency Ethics Official and the Director or General Counsel include—
</P>
<P>(i) The nature and importance of the employee's position and the degree to which the employee had access to non-public or business confidential data for the purpose of analysis, standardization, or performing applied research or essential long-term research;
</P>
<P>(ii) Whether the information to which the employee had access revealed positions or transactions of an individual financial company;
</P>
<P>(iii) Whether the data, especially position data, remains sensitive considering changing circumstances or the passage of time;
</P>
<P>(iv) Whether the employee had access to micro-level data, as compared to aggregated information;
</P>
<P>(v) If the employee had access to micro-level data, whether it was sufficiently masked or coded to protect the identity of the provider or the subject financial company;
</P>
<P>(vi) Whether the information to which the employee had access would provide a financial company employer with a competitive commercial advantage;
</P>
<P>(vii) Whether the financial company employer has made a satisfactory representation that it has adopted screening measures which will effectively prevent a potential employee from sharing any transaction or position data or business confidential information acquired at the Office of Financial Research one year prior to accepting employment with the company;
</P>
<P>(viii) Whether granting the waiver would affect the willingness of a financial company to continue to provide transaction or position data or business confidential information to the Office; and
</P>
<P>(ix) Whether the proposed employment would create an appearance of impropriety or would otherwise adversely affect the interests of the government or compromise the integrity of the office.
</P>
<P>(d) The following examples are illustrative of how the OFR post-employment prohibitions would apply under certain circumstances:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Example 1.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a business data manager and such employee has no access to the transaction or position data maintained by the Data Center or other business confidential information about financial entities required to report to OFR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of their employment by OFR, such employee would not be prohibited from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Example 2.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a data analyst and such employee has access to transaction or position data across all sectors maintained by the Data Center or other business confidential information about specific financial entities required to report to OFR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of their employment by OFR, such employee would be prohibited, for a period of one year immediately after leaving OFR, from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Example 3.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a data analyst and such employee has access to transaction or position data across all sectors maintained by the Data Center or other business confidential information about specific financial entities required to report to OFR. Employee last had access to such data six months before termination of her employment at OFR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of employment by OFR, such employee would be prohibited, for a period of six months immediately after leaving OFR, from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Example 4.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a researcher and such employee has access only to “aggregated” or “masked” transaction or position data maintained by the Data Center or other business confidential information about financial entities required to report to OFR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of their employment by OFR, such employee would not be prohibited from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Example 5.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a data analyst and such employee has access to transaction or position data maintained by the Data Center or other business confidential information <I>relating to a particular sector (i.e. banking).</I>
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of employment by OFR, such employee would be prohibited, for a period of one year immediately after leaving OFR, from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company <I>in that particular sector (i.e. banking)</I> where such employment or services involves employment or advice or consulting services, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office. Such employee would be granted a waiver to work in other designated sectors immediately after leaving OFR.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Example 6.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs a data analyst and such employee has access to business confidential information in an area where data, such as equity mutual fund holdings, changes frequently. Employee last had access to such data six months before termination of her employment at OFR and, because of portfolio turnover, there is no risk of compromising business confidential information.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of their employment by OFR, such employee would not be prohibited from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.
</P>
<P>(7) <I>Example 7.</I> (i) Fact pattern: OFR employs an information technology specialist and such employee has access only to “masked” transaction or position data maintained by the Data Center or other “masked” business confidential information about specific financial entities required to report to OFR.
</P>
<P>(ii) Designated Agency Ethics Official's Determination: Upon termination of their employment by OFR, such employee would not be prohibited from being employed by or providing advice or consulting services to a financial company, regardless of whether that financial company is required to report to the Office.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1601-1609" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1601-1609 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1610" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1610—REGULATORY DATA COLLECTIONS
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 5343 and 5344.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>84 FR 4984, Feb. 20, 2019, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Collections Generally</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.1" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.1   General authority.</HEAD>
<P>The collections under this part are made pursuant to the authority contained in 12 U.S.C. 5343(a) and (c)(1) and 5344(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.2" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.2   General definitions.</HEAD>
<P><I>Council</I> means the Financial Stability Oversight Council.
</P>
<P><I>Legal Entity Identifier</I> or LEI for an entity means the global legal entity identifier maintained for such entity by a utility accredited by the Global LEI Foundation or by a utility endorsed by the Regulatory Oversight Committee that satisfies the standards implemented by the Global LEI Foundation. As used in this definition:
</P>
<P>(1) Regulatory Oversight Committee means the Regulatory Oversight Committee (of the Global LEI System), whose charter was set forth by the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors of the Group of Twenty and the Financial Stability Board, or any successor thereof; and
</P>
<P>(2) Global LEI Foundation means the not-for-profit organization organized under Swiss law by the Financial Stability Board in 2014, or any successor thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Office</I> means the U.S. Department of the Treasury's Office of Financial Research.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.3" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.3   Treatment of collected information.</HEAD>
<P>The Office will treat any financial transaction data or position data submitted to the Data Center under this part in accordance with the relevant provisions of law, including 12 U.S.C. 5343(b) and 5344(b).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1610.4-1610.9" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1610.4-1610.9   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Specific Collections</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.10" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.10   Centrally cleared repurchase agreement data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Central counterparty</I> means a clearing agency that interposes itself between the counterparties to transactions, acting functionally as the buyer to every seller and the seller to every buyer.
</P>
<P><I>Clearing agency</I> has the same meaning as set forth in 15 U.S.C. 78c(a)(23).
</P>
<P><I>Covered reporter</I> means any central counterparty for repurchase agreement transactions that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; provided, however, that any covered reporter shall cease to be a covered reporter only if it does not meet the dollar threshold specified in paragraph (b)(2) for at least four consecutive calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>General collateral trade</I> means a repurchase agreement transaction in which the trade reported to the central counterparty is for a category of securities as opposed to a specific security.
</P>
<P><I>Repurchase agreement transaction</I> or transaction means an agreement of a counterparty to transfer securities to another counterparty in exchange for the receipt of cash, and the simultaneous agreement of the former counterparty to later reacquire the same securities (or any subsequently substituted securities) from that same counterparty in exchange for the payment of cash; or an agreement of a counterparty to acquire securities from another counterparty in exchange for the payment of cash, and the simultaneous agreement of the former party to later transfer back the same securities (or any subsequently substituted securities) to the latter counterparty in exchange for the receipt of cash.
</P>
<P><I>Specific-security trade</I> means a repurchase agreement transaction where the trade as reported to the central counterparty is for a mutually agreed upon specific security.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this data collection is to require the reporting of certain information to the Office about repurchase agreement transactions cleared through a central counterparty. The information will be used by the Office to support the Council and Council member agencies by facilitating financial stability monitoring including research consistent with support of the Council and its member agencies, and to support the calculation of certain reference rates.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope of application.</I> Reporting under this Section is required by any central counterparty for repurchase agreement transactions that meets the definition of financial company set forth in 12 U.S.C. 5341(2) and whose average daily total open commitments in repurchase agreement contracts (gross cash positions prior to netting) across all services over all business days during the prior calendar quarter is at least $50 billion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data required.</I> (1) Covered reporters shall report trade and collateral information on all repurchase agreement transactions cleared through any of its services, subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in accordance with the prescribed reporting format in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered reporters shall only report trade and collateral information with respect to any repurchase agreement transaction for which there is a current or future delivery obligation as of the file observation date, including forward-starting transactions.
</P>
<P>(3) Covered reporters shall submit the following data elements for all general collateral trades:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to § 1610.10<E T="01">(c)</E>—General Collateral Trades
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data element
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">File Observation Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The observation date of the file (typically one business day before the day the file is submitted).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Covered Reporter LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the covered reporter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transaction ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Respondent-generated unique transaction identifier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Submission Timestamp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Time that trade is first submitted to clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Match Timestamp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Time that trade is matched by clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Asset Class Identifier Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asset class identifier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Asset Class Identifier Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of securities identifier used (the numbering system to which the identifier belongs).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the of the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Start Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The start date of the repurchase agreement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">End Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The date the repurchase agreement matures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The repurchase agreement rate, expressed as an annual percentage rate on an actual/360-day basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Principal</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash borrowed or lent.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Optionality</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The type of optionality, if any, in the repurchase agreement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minimum Maturity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The earliest possible date on which the transaction could end in accordance with its contractual terms (taking into account optionality).</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(4) Covered reporters shall submit the following data elements on the collateral delivered against net general collateral exposures for all general collateral trades:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 2 to § 1610.10<E T="01">(c)</E>—General Collateral Net Exposure
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data element
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">File Observation Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The observation date of the file (typically one business day before the day the file is submitted).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Covered Reporter LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the covered reporter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Clearing Member LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the direct clearing member of the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Clearing Member Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the direct clearing member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Direct Clearing Member Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the direct clearing member.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transaction Side</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicates the side of the transaction: Collateral was received by or delivered from the covered reporter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Identifier Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identifier of securities transferred.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Identifier Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of securities identifier used (the numbering system to which the identifier belongs).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Par value or quantity (as applicable) of securities transferred.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The market value as of most recent valuation of securities transferred, including accrued interest.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(5) Covered reporters shall submit the following data elements for all specific-security trades:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 3 to § 1610.10<E T="01">(c)</E>—Specific-Security Trades
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data element
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">File Observation Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The observation date of the file (typically one business day before the day the file is submitted).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Covered Reporter LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the covered reporter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transaction ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Respondent-generated unique transaction identifier.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the cash provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the of the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Direct Clearing Member Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the direct clearing member through which the cash provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the securities provider.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Direct Clearing Member Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the direct clearing member through which the securities provider accessed the clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker Name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Broker Internal Identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned by the covered reporter to the broker.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Submission Timestamp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Time that trade is first submitted to clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Match Timestamp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Time that trade is matched by clearing service.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Start Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The start date of the repurchase agreement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">End Date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The date when the repurchase agreement matures; the close leg settlement date.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Optionality</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The type of optionality, if any.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minimum Maturity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The earliest possible date on which the transaction could end in accordance with its contractual terms (taking into account optionality).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Security Identifier Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Identifier of pledged security.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Identifier Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of securities identifier used (the numbering system to which the identifier belongs).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Par value or quantity (as applicable) of securities transferred.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substitution Collateral Identifier Value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Asset class identifier or no substitution.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Substitution Collateral Identifier Type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Type of securities identifier used (the numbering system to which the identifier belongs).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Start Leg Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash transferred by the cash provider on the open leg of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Start Leg Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash received by the securities provider on the open leg of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The rate of interest received by the cash provider, expressed as an annual percentage rate on an actual/360-day basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The rate of interest paid by the securities provider, expressed as an annual percentage rate on an actual/360-day basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash Provider Close Leg Settlement Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash received by the cash provider on the close leg of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities Provider Close Leg Settlement Amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash paid by the securities provider on the close leg of the transaction.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting process and collection agent.</I> The Office may designate a collection agent for the data reporting. Covered reporters shall submit the required data for each business day by 6:00 a.m. Eastern time on the following business day.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance.</I> (1) Any central counterparty that is a covered reporter as of the effective date of this Section shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this Section in the following manner:
</P>
<P>(i) Subject to paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, a covered reporter shall begin reporting all data elements required to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (c)(5) of this section within 180 days after April 22, 2019.
</P>
<P>(ii) Subject to paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section, a covered reporter shall begin reporting all data elements required to be submitted pursuant to paragraphs (c)(3) and (4) of this section within 240 days after April 22, 2019.
</P>
<P>(iii) If a covered reporter is able to effect a rulemaking through the Securities and Exchange Commission requiring each direct clearing member, counterparty, and broker associated with a repurchase agreement transaction to obtain an LEI and provide it to the covered reporter, the covered reporter shall begin reporting all data elements requiring an LEI other than its own pursuant to paragraphs (c)(3) through (5) of this section by the later of the effective date of its rulemaking, or 420 days April 22, 2019, and continue to report all data elements requiring a legal name or internal identifier until 365 days after the date the covered reporter begins reporting all data elements requiring an LEI pursuant to this section. If a covered reporter is unable to effect such a rulemaking, the covered reporter is not required to report any data elements requiring an LEI other than its own pursuant to paragraphs (c)(3) through (5) of this section, except, if available, the LEI for any direct clearing member, counterparty, or broker associated with a repurchase agreement transaction that has an LEI, and shall report all data elements requiring a legal name or internal identifier in any report submitted under this section regardless of whether the relevant entity has an LEI. A covered reporter shall report its own LEI in accordance with the schedules set forth in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(2) The first submission by any central counterparty that is a covered reporter as of the effective date of this Section shall be submitted on the first business day after the applicable compliance date under paragraph (e)(1) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 1 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(2):</HED>
<P>For example, if this section became effective on March 20, 2019, a central counterparty that meets the dollar threshold specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for the calendar quarter ending December 31, 2018, would be required to submit its first report under paragraph (e)(1)(i) of this section on the first business day after September 16, 2019, its first report under paragraph (e)(1)(ii) of this section on November 15, 2019, and its first report with data elements requiring an LEI (other than that of the covered reporter) on May 13, 2020 (if the covered reporter effected the rulemaking described in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section).</P></NOTE>
<P>(3) Any central counterparty that becomes a covered reporter after the effective date of this Section shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this Section beginning on the later of the schedule set forth in paragraphs (e)(1)(i) through (iii) of this section or the first business day of the third calendar quarter following the calendar quarter in which such central counterparty meets the dollar threshold specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
</P>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 2 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>For example, if this section became effective on March 20, 2019, a central counterparty that first meets the dollar threshold specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for the calendar quarter ending June 30, 2019, would be required to submit its first report under paragraphs (e)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section on January 2, 2020, and its first report with data elements requiring an LEI (other than that of the covered reporter) on May 13, 2020 (if the covered reporter effected the rulemaking described in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) of this section by May 13, 2020).</P></NOTE>
<NOTE>
<HED>Note 3 to paragraph (<E T="01">e</E>)(3):</HED>
<P>For example, if this section became effective on March 20, 2019, a central counterparty that first met the dollar threshold specified in paragraph (b)(2) for the calendar quarter ending June 30, 2020, would be required to comply with all of the reporting requirements under this section on January 2, 2021 (and would continue to be required to report all data elements requiring a legal name or internal identifier for at least 365 days after the effective date of the covered reporter's rulemaking described in paragraph (e)(1)(iii) if such effective date occurred after January 2, 2021).</P></NOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1610.11" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.3.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1610.11   Non-centrally Cleared Bilateral Repurchase Agreement Data.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Definitions.</I> The terms used in this section have the following meanings:
</P>
<P><I>Business day</I> is the period beginning at 6 p.m. Eastern Time on any day that the Fedwire Funds Service is open to 6 p.m. Eastern Time on the next day that the Fedwire Funds Service is open.
</P>
<P><I>Covered reporter</I> means any financial company that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2) of this section; provided, however, that any covered reporter shall cease to be a covered reporter only if it does not meet the dollar thresholds specified in paragraph (b)(2) of this section for at least four consecutive calendar quarters.
</P>
<P><I>File observation date</I> means the date on which any business day ends.
</P>
<P><I>Financial company</I> has the same meaning as in 12 U.S.C. 5341(2).
</P>
<P><I>Government securities broker</I> means any financial company registered as a government securities broker under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P><I>Government securities dealer</I> means any financial company registered as a government securities dealer under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P><I>Investment adviser</I> means any financial company registered as an investment adviser with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.
</P>
<P><I>Non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transaction</I> means an agreement of one party to sell securities to a second party in exchange for the receipt of cash, and the simultaneous agreement of the former party to later reacquire the same securities (or any subsequently substituted securities) from that same second party in exchange for the payment of cash; or an agreement of a party to acquire securities from a second party in exchange for the payment of cash, and the simultaneous agreement of the former party to later transfer back the same securities (or any subsequently substituted securities) to the latter party in exchange for the receipt of cash. The agreement does not involve a tri-party custodian and is not cleared with a central counterparty. This definition includes, but is not limited to, transactions that are executed under a Master Repurchase Agreement (MRA) or Global Master Repurchase Agreement (GMRA), or which are agreed to by the parties as subject to the provisions of 11 U.S.C. 559. Notwithstanding the above, transactions conducted under a Securities Lending Agreement (SLA) or a Master Securities Lending Agreement (MSLA) are not considered repurchase agreements, nor are repurchase agreements arising from either participation in a commercial mortgage loan or the initial securitization of a residential mortgage loan.
</P>
<P><I>Outstanding commitment</I> means the amount of financial obligations entered into pursuant to any repurchase agreement that opens on any business day or is outstanding as of the end of any business day, including transactions which both opened and closed on the same business day. These financial obligations include all of those that exist prior to netting.
</P>
<P><I>Securities broker</I> means any financial company registered as a broker with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P><I>Securities dealer</I> means any financial company registered as a dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Purpose and scope</I>—(1) <I>Purpose.</I> The purpose of this data collection is to require the reporting of certain information to the Office about non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transactions. The information will be used by the Office to fulfill its responsibilities under Title I of the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, including support of the Council and Council member agencies by facilitating financial stability monitoring and research consistent with support of the Council and its member agencies.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Scope of application.</I> Reporting under this section is required by any financial company that participates in a non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transaction and that is:
</P>
<P>(i) A securities broker, securities dealer, government securities broker, or government securities dealer whose average daily outstanding commitments to borrow cash and extend guarantees in non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transactions with counterparties over all business days during the prior calendar quarter is at least $10 billion, or
</P>
<P>(ii) Any other financial company with over $1 billion in assets or assets under management whose average daily outstanding commitments to borrow cash and extend guarantees in non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transactions, including commitments of all funds for which the company serves as an investment adviser, with counterparties that are not securities brokers, securities dealers, government securities brokers, or government securities dealers over all business days during the prior calendar quarter is at least $10 billion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Data required.</I> (1) Covered reporters shall report trade and collateral information on all non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transactions, subject to paragraph (c)(2) of this section, in accordance with the prescribed reporting format in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) Covered reporters shall only report trade and collateral information with respect to any non-centrally cleared bilateral repurchase agreement transaction which opens on, or is outstanding at any time during the business day, including transactions which both opened and closed during the business day.
</P>
<P>(3) Covered reporters shall submit the following data elements for all transactions:
</P>
<DIV width="100%"><DIV class="table_head"><P class="gpotbl_title">Table 1 to Paragraph <E T="01">(c)(3)</E>
</P></DIV><DIV class="gpotbl_div"><TABLE border="1" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1" class="gpotbl_table" frame="void" width="100%"><TR><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Data element
</TH><TH class="gpotbl_colhed" scope="col">Explanation
</TH></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">File observation date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The date on which the business day ends.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Covered reporter LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the covered reporter.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash lender LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the cash lender.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash lender name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the cash lender.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash borrower name</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The legal name of the cash borrower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash borrower LEI</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The Legal Entity Identifier of the cash borrower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Guarantee</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">Indicator for whether the covered reporter issued a guarantee with respect to the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Transaction ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The covered reporter-generated unique transaction identifier in an alphanumeric string format.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Unique transaction ID</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">If available, the Unique Transaction Identifier (UTI).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trading platform</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">For transactions arranged using an outside vendor's platform, the provider of the platform.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Trade timestamp</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The timestamp that the trade became an obligation of the covered reporter or the covered reporter's affiliate or subsidiary.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Start date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The start date of the repo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">End date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The date the repo matures.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Minimum maturity date</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The earliest possible date on which the transaction could end in accordance with its contractual terms (taking into account optionality).
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash lender internal identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned to the cash lender by the covered reporter, if the covered reporter is not the cash lender.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Cash borrower internal identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The internal identifier assigned to the cash borrower by the covered reporter, if the covered reporter is not the cash borrower.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Start leg amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash transferred to the cash borrower on the open leg of the transaction at the inception of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Close leg amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash to be transferred by the cash borrower on the end date of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Current cash amount</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The amount of cash to be transferred by the cash borrower, inclusive of principal, accrued interest and other adjustments, as of the end of the business day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Start leg currency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The currency which is used in the Start leg amount field.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Rate</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The rate of interest paid by the cash borrower on the transaction, expressed as an annual percentage rate on an actual/360-day basis.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Floating rate benchmark</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The name of the benchmark interest rate upon which the transaction is based.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Floating rate reset frequency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The time period, in calendar days, describing the frequency of the floating rate resets.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Spread</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The contractual spread over (or below) the benchmark rate referenced in the repurchase agreement.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities identifier type</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The identifier type for the securities transferred between cash borrower and cash lender.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Security identifier</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The identifier of securities transferred between the cash borrower and the cash lender in the repo.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities quantity</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The number of units (e.g., shares, bonds, bills, notes) transferred to the cash lender as of the end of the business day.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities value</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The market value of the transferred securities as of the end of the business day, inclusive of accrued interest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities value at inception</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The market value of the transferred securities at the inception of the transaction, inclusive of accrued interest.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Securities value currency</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The currency used in the Securities value and Securities value at inception fields.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Haircut</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The difference between the market value of the transferred securities and the purchase price paid at the inception of the transaction.
</TD></TR><TR><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell" scope="row">Special instructions, notes, or comments</TD><TD align="left" class="gpotbl_cell">The covered reporter may characterize any detail of the transaction with special instructions, notes, or comments.</TD></TR></TABLE></DIV></DIV>
<P>(d) <I>Reporting process.</I> Covered reporters shall submit the required data for each business day by 11 a.m. Eastern Time on the following business day. The Office may either collect the data itself or designate a collection agent for that purpose.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Compliance date.</I> (1) Any financial company that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section as of July 5, 2024 shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this section 150 days after July 5, 2024. Any such covered reporter's first submission shall be submitted on the first business day after such compliance date.
</P>
<P>(2) Any financial company that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section as of July 5, 2024 shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this section 360 days after July 5, 2024. Any such covered reporter's first submission shall be submitted on the first business day after such compliance date.
</P>
<P>(3) Any financial company not described in paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(i) of this section after July 5, 2024 shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this section 150 days after the last day of the calendar quarter in which such financial company becomes a covered reporter.
</P>
<P>(4) Any financial company not described in paragraph (e)(1) or (2) of this section that meets the criteria set forth in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section after July 5, 2024 shall comply with the reporting requirements pursuant to this section 360 days after the last day of the calendar quarter in which such financial company becomes a covered reporter.
</P>
<CITA TYPE="N">[89 FR 37107, May 6, 2024, as amended at 90 FR 14413, Apr. 2, 2025]


</CITA>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1611-1699" NODE="12:10.0.6.8.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1611-1699 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVII" NODE="12:10.0.7" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVII—OFFICE OF FEDERAL HOUSING ENTERPRISE OVERSIGHT, DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND URBAN DEVELOPMENT</HEAD>

<DIV4 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.7.8" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER A—OFHEO ORGANIZATION AND FUNCTIONS [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="B [RESERVED]   " NODE="12:10.0.7.9" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER B [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV4>


<DIV4 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.7.10" TYPE="SUBCHAP">
<HEAD>SUBCHAPTER C—SAFETY AND SOUNDNESS


</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1700-1709" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1700-1709 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1777" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1777—PROMPT CORRECTIVE ACTION
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1452(b)(2), 1456(c), 1718(c)(2), 1723a(k), 4513(a), 4513(b), 4514, 4517, 4611-4619, 4622, 4623, 4631, 4635.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>67 FR 3598, Jan. 25, 2002, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1777.1" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.1   Authority, purpose, scope, and implementation dates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Authority.</I> This part is issued by the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO) pursuant to sections 1313, 1371, 1372, and 1376 of the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act (1992 Act) (12 U.S.C. 4513, 4631, 4632, and 4636). These provisions broadly authorize OFHEO to take such actions as are deemed appropriate by the Director of OFHEO to ensure that the Federal National Mortgage Association and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (collectively, the Enterprises) maintain adequate capital and operate in a safe and sound manner.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Authority, purpose and scope of subpart A.</I> In addition to the authority set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, subpart A of this part is also issued pursuant to section 1314 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4514), section 307(c) of the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act (12 U.S.C. 1456(c)), and section 309(k) of the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act (12 U.S.C. 1723a(k)), requiring each Enterprise to submit such reports to OFHEO as the Director of OFHEO determines, in his or her judgment, are necessary to carry out the purposes of the 1992 Act. Subpart A of this part is also issued in reliance on section 1317 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4517) authorizing OFHEO to conduct examinations of the Enterprises. The purpose of subpart A of this part is to set forth a framework of early intervention supervisory measures, other than formal enforcement actions, that OFHEO may take to address emerging developments that merit supervisory review to ensure they do not pose a current or future threat to the safety and soundness of an Enterprise. OFHEO's initiation of procedures under subpart A does not necessarily indicate that any unsound condition exists. The supervisory responses enumerated in § 1777.11 do not constitute orders under the 1992 Act for purposes of sections 1371 and 1376 thereof (12 U.S.C. 4631 and 4636).
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Authority, purpose, and scope of subpart B.</I> In addition to the authority set forth in paragraph (a) of this section, subpart B of this part is also issued pursuant to subtitle B of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4611 through 4623), section 303(b)(2) of the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation Act (12 U.S.C. 1452(b)(2)), and section 303(c)(2) of the Federal National Mortgage Association Charter Act (12 U.S.C. 1718(c)(2)). These provisions authorize OFHEO to administer certain capital requirements for the Enterprises, to classify the capital of the Enterprises based on capital levels specified in the 1992 Act, and, in appropriate circumstances, to exercise discretion to reclassify an Enterprise into a lower capital category. Under these provisions, there are also automatic consequences for an Enterprise that is not classified as adequately capitalized, as well as discretionary authority for OFHEO to require an Enterprise to take remedial actions. Subpart B implements the provisions of sections 1364 through 1368, 1369(b) through (e), 1369C, and 1369D of the 1992 Act as they apply to the Enterprises (12 U.S.C. 4614 through 4618, 4619(b) through (e), 4622 and 4623). The principal purposes of subpart B are to identify the capital measures and capital levels that OFHEO uses in determining the capital classification of an Enterprise; to set out the procedures OFHEO uses in determining such capital classifications; to establish procedures for submission and review of capital restoration plans of an Enterprise that is not classified as adequately capitalized; and to establish procedures under which OFHEO issues orders pursuant to section 1366(b)(1) through (4) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4616(b)(1) through (4)).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Effective dates of capital classifications.</I> Section 1364 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4614(d)) directs OFHEO to determine capital classifications for the Enterprises by reference to two capital standards, consisting of the minimum or critical capital level on the one hand, and the risk-based capital level on the other. Section 1364(d) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4614(d)) excludes consideration of whether the Enterprises meet the risk-based capital level in determining capital classifications or reclassifications under 1364, until one year after the effective date of OFHEO's regulation implementing OFHEO's risk-based capital test (issued under section 1361(e) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4611(e)), until such time, section 1364(d) provides that an Enterprise is to be classified as adequately capitalized so long as it meets the minimum capital level. Subpart B contains a currently effective set of capital classifications omitting consideration of the risk-based capital level, as well as another set of capital classifications which will take effect, and displace the current set of capital classifications, on September 13, 2002 that is, one year after the effective date of OFHEO's risk-based capital rule published at 66 FR 47730, September 13, 2001.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.2" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.2   Preservation of other authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Supervisory standards.</I> Notwithstanding the existence of procedures in § 1777.10 for the Director of OFHEO to designate certain developments for supervisory response under subpart A of this part, nothing in this part in any way limits the authority of OFHEO otherwise to take such actions with respect to any issue as is deemed appropriate by the Director of OFHEO to ensure that the Enterprises maintain adequate capital, operate in a safe and sound manner, and comply with the 1992 Act and regulations, orders, and agreements thereunder.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital floor.</I> Classification of an Enterprise as adequately capitalized in accordance with subtitle B of the 1992 Act and subpart B of this part indicates that the Enterprise meets the capital levels under sections 1361 and 1362 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4611 and 4612) and regulations promulgated thereunder as of the times specified in the classification determination. Nothing in subpart B of this part or subtitle B of the 1992 Act limits OFHEO's authority otherwise to address circumstances that would require additional capital through regulations, orders, notices, guidance, or other actions.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Form of supervisory action or response.</I> In addition to the supervisory responses contemplated under subpart A of this part, and the authority to classify and reclassify the Enterprises, to issue orders, and to appoint conservators under subpart B of this part, the 1992 Act grants OFHEO broad discretion to take such other supervisory actions as may be deemed by OFHEO to be appropriate, including issuing temporary and permanent cease and desist orders, imposing civil money penalties, appointing a conservator under section 1369(a)(1) through (2) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4619(a)(1) through (2)), entering into a written agreement the violation of which is actionable through enforcement proceedings, or entering into any other formal or informal agreement with an Enterprise. Neither the 1992 Act nor this part in any way limit OFHEO's discretion over the selection of the type of these actions, and the selection of one type of action under this part or under these other statutory authorities, or a combination thereof, does not foreclose OFHEO from pursuing any other action.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.3" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.3   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following definitions will apply:
</P>
<P><I>1992 Act</I> means the Federal Housing Enterprises Financial Safety and Soundness Act, 12 U.S.C. 4501 <I>et seq.</I>
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means an entity that controls an Enterprise, is controlled by an Enterprise, or is under common control with an Enterprise.
</P>
<P><I>Capital distribution</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Any dividend or other distribution in cash or in kind made with respect to any shares of, or other ownership interest in, an Enterprise, except a dividend consisting only of shares of the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any payment made by an Enterprise to repurchase, redeem, retire, or otherwise acquire any of its shares or other ownership interests, including any extension of credit made to finance an acquisition by the Enterprise of such shares or other ownership interests, except to the extent the Enterprise makes a payment to repurchase its shares for the purpose of fulfilling an obligation of the Enterprise under an employee stock ownership plan that is qualified under section 401 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 401 <I>et seq.</I>) or any substantially equivalent plan as determined by the Director of OFHEO in writing in advance.
</P>
<P><I>Core capital</I> has the same meaning as provided in 12 CFR 1750.2.
</P>
<P><I>Critical capital level</I> means the amount of core capital that is equal to the sum of one half of the amount determined under 12 CFR 1750.4(a)(1) and five-ninths of the amounts determined under 12 CFR 1750.4(a)(2) through 1750.4(a)(7).
</P>
<P><I>Enterprise</I> means the Federal National Mortgage Association and any affiliate thereof, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation and any affiliate thereof.
</P>
<P><I>Minimum capital level</I> means the minimum amount of core capital specified for an Enterprise pursuant to section 1362 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4612), as determined under 12 CFR 1750.4.
</P>
<P><I>OFHEO</I> means the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight.
</P>
<P><I>Risk-based capital level</I> means the amount of total capital specified for an Enterprise pursuant to section 1361 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4611), as determined under OFHEO's regulations implementing section 1361.
</P>
<P><I>Total capital</I> has the same meaning as provided at 12 CFR 1750.11(n).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—Prompt Supervisory Response</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.10" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.10   Developments prompting supervisory response.</HEAD>
<P>In the event of any of the following developments, OFHEO shall undertake one of the supervisory responses enumerated in § 1777.11, or a combination thereof:
</P>
<P>(a) OFHEO's national House Price Index (HPI) for the most recent quarter is more than two percent less than the national HPI four quarters previously, or for any Census Division or Divisions in which are located properties securing more than 25 percent of single-family mortgages owned or securing securities guaranteed by an enterprise, the HPI for the most recent quarter for such Division or Divisions is more than five percent less than the HPI for that Division or Divisions four quarters previously;
</P>
<P>(b) An Enterprise's publicly reported net income for the most recent calendar quarter is less than one-half of its average quarterly net income for any four-quarter period during the prior eight quarters;
</P>
<P>(c) An Enterprise's publicly reported net interest margin (NIM) for the most recent quarter is less than one-half of its average NIM for any four-quarter period during the prior eight quarters;
</P>
<P>(d) For single-family mortgage loans owned or securities by an Enterprise that are delinquent ninety days or more or in foreclosure, the proportion of such loans in the most recent quarter has increased more than one percentage point compared to the lowest proportion of such loans in any of the prior four quarters; or
</P>
<P>(e) Any other development, including conduct of an activity by an Enterprise, that OFHEO determines in its discretion presents a risk to the safety and soundness of the Enterprise or a possible violation of applicable law, regulation, or order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.11" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.11   Supervisory response.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Level I supervisory response</I>—(1) <I>Supervisory letter.</I> Not later than five business days after OFHEO determines that a development enumerated in § 1777.10 has transpired, OFHEO shall deliver a supervisory letter alerting the chief executive officer or the board of directors of the Enterprise to OFHEO's determination.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of supervisory letter.</I> The supervisory letter shall notify the Enterprise that, pursuant to this subpart, OFHEO is commencing review of a potentially adverse development. As is appropriate under the particular circumstances and the nature of the potentially adverse development, the letter may direct the Enterprise to undertake one or more of the following actions, as of such time as OFHEO directs:
</P>
<P>(i) Provide OFHEO with any relevant information known to the Enterprise about the potentially adverse development, in such format as OFHEO directs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Respond to specific questions and concerns that OFHEO poses about the potentially adverse development; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Take appropriate action.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review; further action.</I> Based on the Enterprise's response to the supervisory letter and consideration of other relevant factors, OFHEO shall promptly determine whether the Level I supervisory response is adequate to resolve any supervisory issues implicated by the potentially adverse development, or whether additional supervisory response under this section is warranted.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Sequence of supervisory responses.</I> The Level II through Level IV supervisory responses in paragraphs (b) through (d) of this section may be carried out in any sequence, including simultaneous performance of two or more such responses. OFHEO may also carry out one or more such responses simultaneously with a Level I supervisory response pursuant to this paragraph (a).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Level II supervisory response</I>—(1) <I>Special review.</I> In addition to any other supervisory response described in this section, OFHEO may conduct a special review of an Enterprise in order to assess the impact of the potentially adverse development on the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review; further action.</I> Based on the results of the special review and consideration of other factors deemed by OFHEO to be relevant, OFHEO shall promptly determine whether additional supervisory response under this section is warranted.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Level III supervisory response</I>—(1) <I>Action plan.</I> In addition to any other supervisory response described in this section, OFHEO may direct the Enterprise to prepare and submit an action plan to OFHEO, in such format and at such time as OFHEO directs.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Contents of action plan.</I> Such action plan shall include, subject to additional direction by OFHEO, the following:
</P>
<P>(i) In the case of any potentially adverse development arising from conditions or practices internal to the Enterprise, any relevant information known to the Enterprise about the circumstances that led to the potentially adverse development;
</P>
<P>(ii) An assessment of likely consequences that the potentially adverse development may have for the Enterprise; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The proposed course of action the Enterprise will undertake in response to the potentially adverse development, including an explanation as to why such approach is preferred to any other alternative actions by the Enterprise and how such approach will address the concerns of OFHEO.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Review; further action.</I> If OFHEO in its discretion determines that the information, assessment, or proposed course of action contained in the action plan is incomplete or inadequate, OFHEO shall promptly direct the Enterprise to correct such deficiencies to the extent OFHEO determines such corrections will aid in resolving supervisory issues implicated by the potentially adverse development, and will promptly determine whether additional supervisory response under this section is warranted.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Level IV supervisory response</I>—(1) <I>Notice to show cause.</I> In addition to any other supervisory response described in this section, OFHEO may issue written notice to the chief executive officer or the board of directors of the Enterprise directing the Enterprise to show cause, on or before the date specified in the notice, why OFHEO should not issue one or more of the following:
</P>
<P>(i) A notice of charges to the Enterprise under section 1371 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4631) and the procedures in 12 CFR part 1780 commencing an action to order the Enterprise to cease and desist conduct, conditions, or violations specified in the notice to show cause;
</P>
<P>(ii) A temporary order to the Enterprise under section 1372 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4632) and the procedures in 12 CFR part 1780 to cease and desist from, and take affirmative actions to prevent or remedy harm from, conduct, conditions, or violations specified in the notice to show cause;
</P>
<P>(iii) A notice of charges under section 1376 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4636) and the procedures in 12 CFR part 1780 commencing imposition of a civil money penalty against the Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(iv) A notice of discretionary reclassification of the Enterprise's capital classification under section 1364(b) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4614(b)) and subpart B of this part.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Review; further action.</I> Based on the Enterprise's response to the notice to show cause and consideration of other relevant factors, OFHEO shall promptly determine whether to commence the actions described in the notice, and whether additional supervisory response under this section is warranted.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.12" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.12   Other supervisory action.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding the pendency or completion of one or more supervisory responses described in § 1777.11, OFHEO may at any time undertake additional supervisory steps and actions in the form of any informal or formal supervisory tool available to OFHEO under the 1992 Act, including, but not limited to, issuing guidance or directives under section 1313 (12 U.S.C. 4513), requiring reports under section 1314 (12 U.S.C. 4514), conducting other examinations under section 1317 (12 U.S.C. 4517), issuing discretionary reclassification under section 1364 (12 U.S.C. 4614), initiating discretionary action under section 1366(b) (12 U.S.C. 4616(b)), appointing a conservator under section 1369(a) (12 U.S.C. 4619(a)), or initiating administrative enforcement action under sections 1371, 1372, and 1376 (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632 and 4636). In addition, OFHEO may take any such steps or actions with respect to an Enterprise that fails to make a submission or comply with a directive as required by § 1777.11, or to address an Enterprise's failure to implement an appropriate action in response to a supervisory letter or under an action plan under § 1777.11.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Capital Classifications and Orders Under Section 1366 of the 1992 Act</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.20" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.20   Capital classifications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital classifications after the effective date of section 1365 of the 1992 Act.</I> The capital classification of an Enterprise for purposes of subpart B of this part is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adequately capitalized.</I> Except as otherwise provided under paragraph (a)(5) of this section, an Enterprise will be classified as adequately capitalized if the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds total capital equaling or exceeding the risk-based capital level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital equaling or exceeding the minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Undercapitalized.</I> Except as otherwise provided under paragraph (a)(5) of this section or § 1777.23(c) or § 1777.23(h), an Enterprise will be classified as undercapitalized if the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds total capital less than the risk-based capital level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital equaling or exceeding the minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Significantly undercapitalized.</I> Except as otherwise provided under paragraph (a)(5) of this section or § 1777.23(c) or § 1777.23(h), an Enterprise will be classified as significantly undercapitalized if the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital less than the minimum capital level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital equaling or exceeding the critical capital level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Critically undercapitalized.</I> An Enterprise will be classified as critically undercapitalized if, as of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, the Enterprise holds core capital less than the critical capital level.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Discretionary reclassification—determination to reclassify.</I> If OFHEO determines in writing that an Enterprise is engaging in action or inaction (including a failure to respond appropriately to changes in circumstances or unforeseen events) that could result in a rapid depletion of core capital, or that the value of property subject to mortgages held or securitized by the Enterprise has decreased significantly, or that reclassification is otherwise deemed necessary to ensure that the Enterprise holds adequate capital and operates safely, OFHEO may reclassify the Enterprise as:
</P>
<P>(i) Undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as adequately capitalized;
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Critically undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Duration of reclassification; successive reclassifications.</I> (1) A reclassification of an Enterprise based on action, inaction, or conditions under paragraph (a)(5) or (c)(5) of this section shall be considered in the determination of each subsequent capital classification of the Enterprise, and shall only cease being considered in the determination of the Enterprise's capital classification after OFHEO determines that the action, inaction or condition upon which the reclassification was based has ceased or been eliminated and remedied to OFHEO's satisfaction.
</P>
<P>(2) If the action, inaction, or condition upon which a reclassification was based under paragraph (a)(5) or (c)(5) of this section has not ceased or been eliminated and remedied to OFHEO's satisfaction within such reasonable time as is determined by OFHEO to be appropriate, OFHEO may consider such failure to be the basis for additional reclassification under such paragraph (a)(5) or (c)(5) of this section into a lower capital classification.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Capital classifications before the effective date of section 1365 of the 1992 Act.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this section, until September 13, 2002, the capital classification of an Enterprise for purposes of subpart B of this part is as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Adequately capitalized.</I> Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c)(5) of this section, an Enterprise will be classified as adequately capitalized if the Enterprise, as of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital equaling or exceeding the minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Undercapitalized.</I> An Enterprise will be classified as undercapitalized if the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, holds core capital equaling or exceeding the minimum capital level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Is reclassified as undercapitalized by OFHEO under paragraph (c)(5) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Significantly undercapitalized.</I> Except as otherwise provided under paragraph (c)(5) of this section or § 1777.23(c) or § 1777.23(h), an Enterprise will be classified as significantly undercapitalized if the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, held core capital less than the minimum capital level; and
</P>
<P>(ii) As of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, held core capital equaling or exceeding the critical capital level.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Critically undercapitalized.</I> An Enterprise will be classified as critically undercapitalized if, as of the date specified in the notice of proposed capital classification, the Enterprise held core capital less than the critical capital level.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Discretionary reclassification.</I> If OFHEO determines in writing that an Enterprise is engaging in action or inaction (including a failure to respond appropriately to changes in circumstances or unforeseen events) that could result a rapid depletion of core capital, or that the value of the property subject to mortgages held or securitized by the Enterprise has decreased significantly or that reclassification is deemed necessary to ensure that the Enterprise holds adequate capital and operates safely, OFHEO may reclassify the Enterprise as:
</P>
<P>(i) Undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as adequately capitalized:
</P>
<P>(ii) Significantly undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Critically undercapitalized if the Enterprise is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Prior approvals.</I> In making a determination to reclassify an Enterprise under paragraph (a)(5) or (c)(5) of this section, OFHEO will not base its decision to reclassify solely on action or inaction that previously was given specific approval by the Director of OFHEO in connection with the Director's approval of the Enterprise's capital restoration plan under section 1369C of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4622), or of a written agreement with the Enterprise that is enforceable in accordance with section 1371 of the 1992 Act.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.21" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.21   Notice of capital category, and adjustments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of capital classification.</I> OFHEO will classify each Enterprise according to the capital classifications in § 1777.20(a) or § 1777.20(c) on at least a quarterly basis. OFHEO may classify an Enterprise according to the capital classifications in § 1777.20(a) or § 1777.20(c), or reclassify an Enterprise as set out in § 1777.20(a)(5), § 1777.20(c)(5), § 1777.23(c), or § 1777.23(h), at such other times as OFHEO deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Notice of proposed capital classification.</I> (i) Before OFHEO classifies or reclassifies an Enterprise, OFHEO will provide the Enterprise with written notice containing the proposed capital classification, the information upon which the proposed classification is based, and the reason for the proposed classification.
</P>
<P>(ii) Notices proposing to classify or reclassify an Enterprise as undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized may be combined with a notice that OFHEO may further reclassify the Enterprise under § 1777.23(c), without additional notice.
</P>
<P>(iii) Notices proposing to classify or reclassify an Enterprise as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized may be combined with a notice under § 1777.24 that OFHEO intends to issue an order under section 1366 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4616).
</P>
<P>(iv) Notices proposing to classify an Enterprise as undercapitalized or significantly undercapitalized may be combined with a notice proposing to simultaneously reclassify the Enterprise under § 1777.20(a)(5) or § 1777.20(c)(5).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Response by the Enterprise.</I> The Enterprise may submit a response to OFHEO containing information for OFHEO's consideration in classifying or reclassifying the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(i) The Enterprise may, within thirty calendar days from receipt of a notice of proposed capital classification, submit a response to OFHEO, unless OFHEO determines the condition of the Enterprise requires a shorter period or the Enterprise consents to a shorter period.
</P>
<P>(ii) The Enterprise's response period may be extended for up to an additional thirty calendar days if OFHEO determines there is good cause for such extension.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Enterprise's failure to submit a response during the response period (as extended or shortened, if applicable) shall waive any right of the Enterprise to comment on or object to the proposed capital classification.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Classification determination and written notice of capital classification.</I> After the Enterprise has submitted its response under paragraph (a)(2) of this section or the response period (as extended or shortened, if applicable) has expired, whichever occurs first, OFHEO will make its determination of the Enterprise's capital classification, taking into consideration such relevant information as is provided by the Enterprise in its response, if any, under paragraph (a)(2) of this section. OFHEO will provide the Enterprise with a written notice of capital classification, which shall include a description of the basis for OFHEO's determination.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Timing.</I> OFHEO may, in its discretion, issue a notice of proposed capital classification to an Enterprise at any time. If a notice of proposed classification is pending (under the process set out in paragraphs (a)(1) through (3) of this section) at that time, OFHEO may, in its discretion, specify whether the subsequent notice of proposed capital classification supersedes the pending notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Developments warranting possible change to capital classification</I>—(1) <I>Notice to OFHEO.</I> An Enterprise shall promptly provide OFHEO with written notice of any material development that would result in the Enterprise's core or total capital to fall to a point causing the Enterprise to be placed in a lower capital classification than the capital classification assigned to the Enterprise in its most recent notice of capital classification from OFHEO, or than is proposed to be assigned in the Enterprise's most recent notice of proposed capital classification from OFHEO. The Enterprise shall deliver such notice to OFHEO no later than ten calendar days after the Enterprise becomes aware of such development.
</P>
<P>(2) OFHEO, in its discretion, will determine whether to issue a new notice of proposed capital classification under paragraph (a) of this section, based on OFHEO's review of the notice under paragraph (b)(1) of this section from the Enterprise and any other information deemed relevant by OFHEO.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.22" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.22   Limitation on capital distributions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Capital distributions in general.</I> An Enterprise shall make no capital distribution that would decrease the total capital of the Enterprise to an amount less than the risk-based capital level or the core capital of the Enterprise to an amount less than the minimum capital level without the prior written approval of OFHEO.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Capital distributions by an Enterprise that is not adequately capitalized</I>—(1) <I>Prohibited distributions.</I> An Enterprise that is not classified as adequately capitalized shall make no capital distribution that would result in the Enterprise being classified into a lower capital classification than the one to which it is classified at the time of such distribution.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Restricted distributions.</I> An Enterprise classified as significantly or critically undercapitalized shall make no capital distribution without the prior written approval of OFHEO. OFHEO may grant a request for such a capital distribution only if OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that the distribution:
</P>
<P>(i) Will enhance the ability of the Enterprise to meet the risk-based capital level and the minimum capital level promptly;
</P>
<P>(ii) Will contribute to the long-term financial safety and soundness of the Enterprise; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Is otherwise in the public interest.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.23" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.23   Capital restoration plans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Schedule for filing plans</I>—(1) <I>In general.</I> An Enterprise shall file a capital restoration plan in writing with OFHEO within ten days of receiving a notice of capital classification under § 1777.21(a)(3) stating that the Enterprise is classified as undercapitalized, significantly undercapitalized, or critically undercapitalized, unless OFHEO in its discretion determines an extension of the ten-day period is necessary and provides the Enterprise with written notice of the date the plan is due.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Successive capital classifications.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (a)(1) of this section, an Enterprise that has already submitted and is operating under a capital restoration plan approved by OFHEO under this part is not required to submit an additional capital restoration plan based on a subsequent notice of capital classification, unless OFHEO notifies the Enterprise that it must submit a new or amended capital restoration plan. An Enterprise that receives such a notice to submit a new or amended capital restoration plan shall file in writing with OFHEO a complete plan that is responsive to the terms of and within the deadline specified in such notice.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Contents of capital restoration plan.</I> (1) The capital restoration plan submitted under paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section shall:
</P>
<P>(i) Specify the level of capital the Enterprise will achieve and maintain;
</P>
<P>(ii) Describe the actions that the Enterprise will take to become classified as adequately capitalized;
</P>
<P>(iii) Establish a schedule for completing the actions set forth in the plan;
</P>
<P>(iv) Specify the types and levels of activities (including existing and new programs) in which the Enterprise will engage during the term of the plan;
</P>
<P>(v) Describe the actions that the Enterprise will take to comply with any mandatory or discretionary requirements to be imposed under Subtitle B of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4611 through 4623) or subpart B of this part;
</P>
<P>(vi) To the extent the Enterprise is required to submit or revise a capital restoration plan as the result of a reclassification of the Enterprise under § 1777.20(a)(5) or § 1777.20(c)(5), describe the steps the Enterprise will take to cease or eliminate and remedy the action, inaction, or conditions that caused the reclassification; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Provide any other information or discuss any other issues as instructed by OFHEO.
</P>
<P>(2) The plan shall include a declaration by the chief executive officer, treasurer, or other officer designated by the Board of Directors of the Enterprise to make such declaration, that the material contained in the plan is true and correct to the best of such officer's knowledge and belief.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Failure to submit</I>—(1) <I>Failure to submit; submission of unacceptable plan.</I> If, upon the expiration of the period provided in paragraph (a)(1) or (2) of this section for an Enterprise to submit a capital restoration plan, an Enterprise fails to comply with the requirement to file a complete capital restoration plan, or if the capital restoration plan is disapproved after review under paragraph (d) of this section, OFHEO may, in accordance with § 1777.21(a)(1)(ii) without additional notice, reclassify the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(i) As significantly undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(ii) As critically undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Duration of reclassification.</I> An Enterprise's failure to submit an approved capital restoration plan as described in paragraph (c)(1) of this section shall continue to be grounds for reclassification at each subsequent capital classification of the Enterprise, and shall only cease being considered grounds for reclassification after the Enterprise files a capital restoration plan that receives OFHEO's approval under paragraph (d) of this section.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Successive reclassifications.</I> If an Enterprise has not remedied its failure to file a complete capital restoration plan or an acceptable capital restoration plan within such period as is determined by OFHEO to be appropriate, OFHEO may consider such failure to be the basis for additional reclassification under paragraph (c)(1) of this section into a lower capital classification. Such reclassification may be made without additional notice in accordance with § 1777.21(a)(1)(ii).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Order approving or disapproving plan.</I> Not later than thirty calendar days after receipt of the Enterprise's complete or amended capital restoration plan under this section (subject to extension upon written notice to the Enterprise for an additional thirty calendar days as OFHEO deems necessary), OFHEO shall issue an order to the Enterprise approving or disapproving the plan. An order disapproving a plan shall include the reasons therefore.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Resubmission.</I> An Enterprise that receives an order disapproving its capital restoration plan shall submit an amended capital plan acceptable to OFHEO within thirty calendar days of the date of such order, or a longer period if OFHEO determines an extension is in the public interest.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Amendment.</I> An Enterprise that has received an order approving its capital restoration plan may amend the capital restoration plan only after written notice to OFHEO and OFHEO's written approval of the modification. Pending OFHEO's review and approval of the amendment in OFHEO's discretion, the Enterprise shall continue to implement the capital restoration plan under the original approval order.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Termination</I>—(1) <I>Termination under the terms of the plan.</I> An Enterprise that has received an order approving its capital restoration plan remains bound by each of its obligations under the plan until each such obligation terminates under express terms of the plan itself identifying a date, event, or condition upon which such obligation shall terminate.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Termination orders.</I> To the extent the plan does not include such express terms for any obligation thereunder, the Enterprise's obligation continues until OFHEO issues an order terminating such obligation under the plan. The Enterprise may also submit a written request to OFHEO seeking termination of such obligations. OFHEO will approve termination of such obligation to the extent that OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that the obligation's purpose under the plan has been fulfilled and that termination of the obligation is consistent with the overall safety and soundness of the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Implementation</I>—(1) An Enterprise that has received an order approving its capital restoration plan is required to implement the plan.
</P>
<P>(i) If OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that an Enterprise has failed to make, in good faith, reasonable efforts necessary to comply with the capital restoration plan and fulfill the schedule thereunder, OFHEO may reclassify the Enterprise:
</P>
<P>(A) As significantly undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as undercapitalized; or
</P>
<P>(B) As critically undercapitalized if it is otherwise classified as significantly undercapitalized.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Duration of reclassification.</I> An Enterprise's failure to implement an approved capital restoration plan as described in paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section shall continue to be grounds for reclassification at each subsequent capital classification of the Enterprise, and shall only cease being considered grounds for reclassification after OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that the Enterprise is making such efforts as are reasonably necessary to comply with the capital restoration plan and fulfill the schedule thereunder.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Successive reclassifications.</I> If an Enterprise has not remedied its failure to implement an approved capital restoration plan within such period as is determined by OFHEO to be appropriate, OFHEO may consider such failure to be the basis for additional reclassification under paragraph (h)(1)(i) of this section into a lower capital classification.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrative enforcement action.</I> A capital plan that has received an approval order from OFHEO under this section shall constitute an order under the 1992 Act. An Enterprise, regardless of its capital classification, as well as its executive officers, and directors may be subject to action by OFHEO under sections 1371, 1372, and 1376 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, and 4636) and 12 CFR part 1780 for failure to comply with such plan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.24" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.24   Notice of intent to issue an order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Orders under section 1366 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4616).</I> In addition to any other action taken under this part, part 1780 of this chapter, or any other applicable authority, OFHEO may, in its discretion, issue an order to an Enterprise that is classified as significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized, or is in conservatorship, directing the Enterprise to take one or more of the following actions:
</P>
<P>(1) Limit any increase in, or reduce, any obligations of the Enterprise, including off-balance sheet obligations;
</P>
<P>(2) Limit or eliminate growth of the Enterprise's assets or reduce the amount of the Enterprise's assets;
</P>
<P>(3) Acquire new capital, in such form and amount as determined by OFHEO; or
</P>
<P>(4) Terminate, reduce, or modify any activity of the Enterprise that OFHEO determines creates excessive risk to the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Notice of intent to issue an order.</I> Before OFHEO issues an order to an Enterprise pursuant to section 1366 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4616), OFHEO will provide the Enterprise with written notice containing the proposed order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Contents of notice.</I> A notice of intent to issue an order under this subpart shall include:
</P>
<P>(1) A statement of the Enterprise's capital classification and its minimum capital level or critical capital level, and its risk-based capital level;
</P>
<P>(2) A description of the restrictions, prohibitions, or affirmative actions that OFHEO proposes to impose or require; and
</P>
<P>(3) The proposed date when such restrictions or prohibitions would become effective or the proposed date for the commencement and/or completion of the affirmative actions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.25" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.25   Response to notice.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Content of response.</I> The Enterprise may submit a response to OFHEO containing information for OFHEO's consideration in connection with the proposed order. The response should include, but is in no way limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Any relevant information, mitigating circumstances, documentation, or other information the Enterprise wishes OFHEO to consider in support of the Enterprise's position regarding the proposed order; and
</P>
<P>(2) Any recommended modification to the proposed order, and justification thereof.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Time to respond.</I> The Enterprise may, within thirty calendar days after receipt of the notice of proposed order, submit a response to OFHEO, unless OFHEO determines a shorter period to be appropriate or the Enterprise consents to a shorter period. OFHEO may extend the Enterprise's response period for up to an additional thirty calendar days if OFHEO determines, in its discretion, that there is good cause for such extension.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Waiver and consent.</I> The Enterprise's failure to submit a response during the response period (as extended or shortened, if applicable) shall waive any right of the Enterprise to comment on or object to the proposed order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.26" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.26   Final notice of order.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Determination and notice.</I> After the Enterprise has submitted its response under § 1777.25 or the response period (as extended or shortened, if applicable) has expired, whichever occurs first, OFHEO will determine, in its discretion, whether to take into consideration such relevant information as is provided by the Enterprise in its response, if any, under § 1777.25. OFHEO will provide the Enterprise with a written final notice of any order issued by OFHEO under this subpart, which is to include a description of the basis for OFHEO's determination.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Termination or modification.</I> An Enterprise that has received an order under paragraph (a) of this section remains subject to each provision of the order until each such provision terminates under the express terms of the order. The Enterprise may submit a written request to OFHEO seeking modification or termination of one or more provisions of the order. Pending OFHEO's review and approval, in OFHEO's discretion of the Enterprise's request, the Enterprise shall remain subject to the provisions of the order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement of order</I>—(1) <I>Judicial enforcement.</I> An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section is an order for purposes of section 1375 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4635). An Enterprise in any capital classification may be subject to enforcement of such order in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia pursuant to such section.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Administrative enforcement.</I> An order issued under paragraph (a) of this section constitutes an order under the 1992 Act. An Enterprise, regardless of its capital classification, as well as its executive officers and directors may be subject to action by OFHEO under sections 1371, 1372, and 1376 of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4631, 4632, and 4636) and 12 CFR part 1780 for failure to comply with such order.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.27" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.27   Exhaustion and review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Judicial review</I>—(1) <I>Review of certain actions.</I> An Enterprise that is not classified as critically undercapitalized may seek judicial review of a final notice of capital classification issued pursuant to § 1777.21(a)(3) or a final notice of order issued pursuant to § 1777.26(a) in accordance with section 1369D of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4623)
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other review barred.</I> Except as set out in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, or review of conservatorship appointments to the limited extent provided in section 1369(b) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4619(b)) and § 1777.28(c), no court shall have jurisdiction to affect, by injunction or otherwise, the issuance or effectiveness of a capital classification or any other action of OFHEO pursuant to this subpart B, as provided in section 1369D of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4623).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Exhaustion of administrative remedies.</I> In connection with any issue for which an Enterprise seeks judicial review in connection with an action described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the Enterprise must have first exhausted its administrative remedies, by presenting all its objections, arguments, and information relating to such issue for OFHEO's consideration pursuant to § 1777.21(a)(2), as part of the Enterprise's response to OFHEO's notice of capital classification, or pursuant to § 1777.25, as part of the Enterprise's response to OFHEO's notice of intent to issue an order.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>No stay pending review.</I> The commencement of proceedings for judicial review of a final capital classification or order as described in paragraph (a)(1) of this section shall not operate as a stay thereof.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1777.28" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.2.2.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1777.28   Appointment of conservator for a significantly undercapitalized or critically undercapitalized Enterprise.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Significantly undercapitalized Enterprise.</I> At any time after an Enterprise is classified as significantly undercapitalized, OFHEO may issue an order appointing a conservator for the Enterprise upon determining that:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of core capital of the Enterprise is less than the minimum capital level; and
</P>
<P>(2) The alternative remedies available to OFHEO under the 1992 Act are not satisfactory.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Critically undercapitalized Enterprise</I>—(1) <I>Appointment upon classification.</I> Not later than thirty days after issuing a final notice of capital classification pursuant to § 1777.21(a)(3) classifying an Enterprise as significantly undercapitalized, OFHEO shall issue an order appointing a conservator for the Enterprise.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Exception.</I> Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1) of this section, OFHEO may determine not to appoint a conservator if OFHEO makes a written finding, with the written concurrence of the Secretary of the Treasury, that:
</P>
<P>(i) The appointment of a conservator would have serious adverse effects on economic conditions of national financial markets or on the financial stability of the housing finance market; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The public interest would be better served by taking some other enforcement action authorized under this title.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Judicial review.</I> An Enterprise for which a conservator has been appointed pursuant to paragraph (a) or (b) of this section may seek judicial review of the appointment in accordance with section 1369(b) of the 1992 Act (12 U.S.C. 4619(b)). Except as provided therein, no court may take any action regarding the removal of a conservator or otherwise restrain or affect the exercise of the powers or functions of a conservator.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Termination</I>—(1) <I>Upon reaching the minimum capital level.</I> OFHEO will issue an order terminating a conservatorship appointment under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section upon a determination that the Enterprise has maintained an amount of core capital that is equal to or exceeds the minimum capital level.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>In OFHEO's discretion.</I> OFHEO may, in its discretion, issue an order terminating a conservatorship appointment under paragraph (a) or (b) of this section upon a determination that such termination order is in the public interest and may safely be accomplished.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1778-1799" NODE="12:10.0.7.10.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1778-1799 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV4>

</DIV3>


<DIV3 N="XVIII" NODE="12:10.0.8" TYPE="CHAPTER">

<HEAD> CHAPTER XVIII—COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS FUND, DEPARTMENT OF THE TREASURY</HEAD>

<DIV5 N="1800-1804" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.1" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1800-1804 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1805" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1805—COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4703, 4703 note, 4710, 4717; and 31 U.S.C. 321.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>80 FR 52382, Aug. 31, 2015, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.100" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFI) Program is to promote economic revitalization and community development through investment in and assistance to Community Development Financial Institutions.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.101" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.101   Summary.</HEAD>
<P>Through the Community Development Financial Institutions Program, the CDFI Fund provides financial and technical assistance to Recipients selected by the CDFI Fund in order to enhance their ability to provide Financial Products, Financial Services and Development Services to and in their Target Markets. Each Recipient must serve an Investment Area(s), a Targeted Population(s), or both. The CDFI Fund will select Recipients to receive financial or technical assistance through a merit-based, qualitative application process. Each Recipient must enter into an Assistance Agreement that requires it to achieve specific performance goals and abide by other terms and conditions pertinent to any assistance received under this part, as well as the Uniform Requirements, as applicable. All CDFI Program awards shall be made subject to funding availability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.102" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.102   Relationship to other CDFI Fund programs.</HEAD>
<P>Restrictions on applying for, receiving, and using CDFI Program awards in conjunction with awards under other programs administered by the CDFI Fund (including, but not limited to, the Bank Enterprise Award Program, the Capital Magnet Fund, the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, the Native American CDFI Assistance (NACA) Program, and the New Markets Tax Credit Program) are as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability, Notice of Guarantee Availability, or Notice of Allocation Availability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.103" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.103   Recipient not instrumentality.</HEAD>
<P>No Recipient (or its Community Partner) shall be deemed to be an agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.104" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.104   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part, the following terms shall have the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et se.</I>);
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any company or entity that Controls, is Controlled by, or is under common Control with another company;
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any entity submitting an application for CDFI Program assistance or funding under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(q)), and includes, with respect to Insured Credit Unions, the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate State Agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of a State that regulates and/or insures the member accounts of a State-Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P><I>Assistance Agreement</I> means a formal agreement between the CDFI Fund and a Recipient, which agreement specifies the terms and conditions of assistance under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institution</I> (or <I>CDFI</I>) means an entity currently meeting the requirements described in § 1805.201;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund</I> (or <I>CDFI Fund</I>) means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund established pursuant to section 104(a) (12 U.S.C. 4703(a)) of the Act;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institution Intermediary</I> (or <I>CDFI Intermediary</I>) means an entity that meets the CDFI Program eligibility requirements described in § 1805.200 and whose primary business activity is the provision of Financial Products to CDFIs and/or emerging CDFIs;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institutions Program</I> (or <I>CDFI Program</I>) means the program authorized by sections 105-108 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 4704-4707) and implemented under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Community Facility</I> means a facility where health care, childcare, educational, cultural, or social services are provided;
</P>
<P><I>Community-Governed</I> means an entity in which the residents of an Investment Area(s) or members of a Targeted Population(s) represent greater than 50 percent of the governing body;
</P>
<P><I>Community-Owned</I> means an entity in which the residents of an Investment Area(s) or members of a Targeted Population(s) have an aggregate ownership interest of greater than 50 percent;
</P>
<P><I>Community Partner</I> means a person (other than an individual) that provides loans, Equity Investments, or Development Services and enters into a Community Partnership with an Applicant or a Recipient. A Community Partner may include a Depository Institution Holding Company, an Insured Depository Institution, an Insured Credit Union, a State-Insured Credit Union, a non-profit or for-profit organization, a State or local government entity, a quasi-government entity, or an investment company authorized pursuant to the Small Business Investment Act of 1958 (15 U.S.C. 661 <I>et se.</I>);
</P>
<P><I>Community Partnership</I> means an agreement between an Applicant or Recipient and a Community Partner to provide collaboratively Financial Products and/or Financial Services or Development Services to an Investment Area(s) or a Targeted Population(s);
</P>
<P><I>Comprehensive Business Plan</I> means a document, covering not less than the next five years, that demonstrates that the Applicant will be properly managed and will have the capacity to operate as a CDFI that will not be dependent upon assistance from the CDFI Fund for continued viability, and that meets the requirements described in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability;
</P>
<P><I>Control or Controlling</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of Voting Securities of any company, directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of any company; or
</P>
<P>(3) Power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management, credit or investment decisions, or policies of any company.
</P>
<P><I>Depository Institution Holding Company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company as defined in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(w)(1));
</P>
<P><I>Development Services</I> means activities undertaken by a CDFI, its Affiliate or contractor that promote community development and shall prepare or assist current or potential borrowers or investees to use the CDFI's Financial Products or Financial Services. For example, such activities include, financial or credit counseling; homeownership counseling; and business planning and management assistance;
</P>
<P><I>Equity Investment</I> means an investment made by a CDFI that, in the judgment of the CDFI Fund, supports or enhances activities serving the CDFI's Investment Area(s) or a Targeted Population(s). Such investments must be made through an arms-length transaction with a third party that does not have a relationship with the CDFI as an Affiliate. Equity Investments may comprise a stock purchase, a purchase of a partnership interest, a purchase of a limited liability company membership interest, a loan made on such terms that it has sufficient characteristics of equity (and is considered as such by the CDFI Fund); a purchase of secondary capital, or any other investment deemed by the CDFI Fund to be an Equity Investment;
</P>
<P><I>Financial Products</I> means loans, Equity Investments and similar financing activities (as determined by the CDFI Fund) including the purchase of loans originated by certified CDFIs and the provision of loan guarantees; in the case of CDFI Intermediaries, Financial Products may also include loans to CDFIs and/or emerging CDFIs and deposits in Insured Credit Union CDFIs, emerging Insured Credit Union CDFIs, and/or State-Insured Credit Union CDFIs;
</P>
<P><I>Financial Services</I> means providing checking, savings accounts, check cashing, money orders, certified checks, automated teller machines, deposit taking, safe deposit box services, and other similar services;
</P>
<P><I>Indian Reservation</I> means any geographic area that meets the requirements of section 4(10) of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978 (25 U.S.C. 1903(10)), and shall include: land held by incorporated Native groups, regional corporations, and village corporations, as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1602); public domain Indian allotments; and former Indian reservations in the State of Oklahoma;
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe, band, pueblo, nation, or other organized group or community, including any Alaska Native village or regional or village corporation, as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et se.</I>). Each such Indian Tribe must be recognized as eligible for special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their status as Indians;
</P>
<P><I>Insider</I> means any director, officer, employee, principal shareholder (owning, individually or in combination with family members, five percent or more of any class of stock), or agent (or any family member or business partner of any of the above) of any Applicant, Subsidiary, Affiliate, or Community Partner;
</P>
<P><I>Insured CDFI</I> means a CDFI that is an Insured Depository Institution or an Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P><I>Insured Credit Union</I> means any credit union, the member accounts of which are insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund;
</P>
<P><I>Insured Depository Institution</I> means any bank or thrift, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P><I>Investment Area</I> means a geographic area meeting the requirements of § 1805.201(b)(3);
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income</I> means income, adjusted for family size, of not more than:
</P>
<P>(1) For Metropolitan Areas, 80 percent of the area median family income; and
</P>
<P>(2) For non-Metropolitan Areas, the greater of:
</P>
<P>(i) 80 percent of the area median family income; or
</P>
<P>(ii) 80 percent of the statewide non-Metropolitan Area median family income;
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Area</I> means an area designated as such by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e) and 31 U.S.C. 1104(d) and Executive Order 10253 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 758), as amended;
</P>
<P><I>Non-Regulated CDFI</I> means any entity meeting the eligibility requirements described in § 1805.200 and that is not a Depository Institution Holding Company, Insured Depository Institution, Insured Credit Union, or State-Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P><I>Nonvoting Securities or Nonvoting Shares.</I> Preferred shares, limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests are Nonvoting Securities if:
</P>
<P>(1) Any voting rights associated with the shares or interest are limited solely to the type customarily provided by statute with regard to matters that would significantly and adversely affect the rights or preferences of the security or other interest, such as the issuance of additional amounts or classes of senior securities, the modification of the terms of the security or interest, the dissolution of the issuing company, or the payment of dividends by the issuing company when preferred dividends are in arrears:
</P>
<P>(2) The shares or interest represent an essentially passive investment or financing device and do not otherwise provide the holder with control over the issuing company; and
</P>
<P>(3) The shares or interest do not entitle the holder, by statute, charter, or in any manner, to select or to vote for the selection of directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions) of the issuing company.
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means an Applicant selected by the CDFI Fund to receive assistance pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands;
</P>
<P><I>State-Insured Credit Union</I> means any credit union that is regulated by, and/or the member accounts of which are insured by, a State agency or instrumentality;
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means any company that is owned or Controlled directly or indirectly by another company and includes any service corporation owned in whole or part by an Insured Depository Institution or any Subsidiary of such a service corporation, except as provided in § 1805.200(b)(4);
</P>
<P><I>Targeted Population</I> means individuals or an identifiable group of individuals meeting the requirements of § 1805.201(b)(3);
</P>
<P><I>Target Market</I> means an Investment Area(s) and/or a Targeted Population(s);
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Requirements</I> means the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR part 1000), which is the Department of the Treasury's codification of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) government-wide framework for grants management at 2 CFR part 200;
</P>
<P><I>Voting Securities</I> means shares of common or preferred stock, general or limited partnership shares or interests, or similar interests if the shares or interest, by statute, charter, or in any manner, entitle the holder:
</P>
<P>(1) To vote for or select directors, trustees, or partners (or persons exercising similar functions of the issuing company); or
</P>
<P>(2) To vote on or to direct the conduct of the operations or other significant policies of the issuing company.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.105" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.105   Uniform Requirements; Waiver authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Uniform Requirements.</I> The Uniform Requirements will be applied to all awards made pursuant to this part, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver authority.</I> The CDFI Fund may waive any requirement of this part that is not required by law upon a determination of good cause. Each such waiver shall be in writing and supported by a statement of the facts and the grounds forming the basis of the waiver. For a waiver in an individual case, the CDFI Fund must determine that application of the requirement to be waived would adversely affect the achievement of the purposes of the Act. For waivers of general applicability, the CDFI Fund will publish notification of granted waivers in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.106" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.106   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collection of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned applicable, approved OMB Control Numbers associated with the CDFI Fund under 1559.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.200" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.200   Applicant eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> (1) An entity that meets the requirements described in § 1805.201(b) and paragraph (b) of this section will be considered a CDFI and, subject to paragraph (a)(3) of this section, will be eligible to apply for assistance under this part.
</P>
<P>(2)(i) An entity that proposes to become a CDFI is eligible to apply for assistance under this part if the CDFI Fund:
</P>
<P>(A) Receives a complete application for certification from the entity within the time period set forth in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability; and
</P>
<P>(B) Determines that such entity's application materials provide a realistic course of action to ensure that it will meet the requirements described in § 1805.201(b) and paragraph (b) of this section within the period set forth in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CDFI Fund will not, however, make a payment of any financial assistance to such an entity before or unless it meets the requirements described in this section. Moreover, notwithstanding paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2)(i)(B) of this section, the CDFI Fund reserves the right to require an entity to have been certified as described in § 1805.201(a) prior to its submission of an application for assistance, as set forth in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability.
</P>
<P>(3) The CDFI Fund shall require an entity to meet any additional eligibility requirements that the CDFI Fund deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(4) The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, shall determine whether an entity fulfills the requirements set forth in this section and § 1805.201(b).
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Provisions applicable to Depository Institution Holding Companies and Insured Depository Institutions.</I> (1) A Depository Institution Holding Company may qualify as a CDFI only if it and its Affiliates collectively satisfy the requirements described in this section.
</P>
<P>(2) No Affiliate of a Depository Institution Holding Company may qualify as a CDFI unless the holding company and all of its Affiliates collectively meet the requirements described in this section.
</P>
<P>(3) No Subsidiary of an Insured Depository Institution may qualify as a CDFI if the Insured Depository Institution and its Subsidiaries do not collectively meet the requirements described in this section.
</P>
<P>(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (b)(1) through (3) of this section, an entity will be considered to be a Subsidiary of any Insured Depository Institution or Depository Institution Holding Company that controls 25 percent or more of any class of the entity's voting shares, or otherwise controls, in any manner, the election of a majority of directors of the entity.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.201" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.201   Certification as a Community Development Financial Institution.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An entity may apply to the CDFI Fund for certification that it meets the CDFI eligibility requirements regardless of whether it is seeking financial or technical assistance from the CDFI Fund. Entities seeking such certification shall provide the information set forth in the application for certification. Certification by the CDFI Fund will verify that the entity meets the CDFI eligibility requirements. However, such certification shall not constitute an opinion by the CDFI Fund as to the financial viability of the CDFI or that the CDFI will be selected to receive an award from the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, shall have the right to decertify a certified entity after a determination that the eligibility requirements of paragraph (b) of this section or § 1805.200(b) are no longer met.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility verification.</I> An entity shall demonstrate whether it meets the eligibility requirements described in this paragraph (b) by providing the information described in the application for certification demonstrating that the entity meets the eligibility requirements described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (6) of this section. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, shall determine whether an entity has satisfied the requirements of this paragraph.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Primary mission.</I> A CDFI must have a primary mission of promoting community development. In determining whether an entity has such a primary mission, the CDFI Fund will consider whether the activities of the entity are purposefully directed toward improving the social and/or economic conditions of underserved people (which may include Low-Income persons or persons who lack adequate access to capital and/or Financial Services) and/or residents of economically distressed communities (which may include Investment Areas).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Financing entity.</I> (i) A CDFI shall be an entity whose predominant business activity is the provision, in arms-length transactions, of Financial Products and/or Financial Services. An entity may demonstrate that it meets this requirement if it is a(n):
</P>
<P>(A) Depository Institution Holding Company;
</P>
<P>(B) Insured Depository Institution, Insured Credit Union, or State-Insured Credit Union; or
</P>
<P>(C) Organization that is deemed by the CDFI Fund to have such a predominant business activity as a result of analysis of its financial statements, organizing documents, and any other information required to be submitted as part of its certification application. In conducting such analysis, the CDFI Fund may take into consideration an entity's total assets and its use of personnel.
</P>
<P>(ii) For the sole purpose of participating as an Eligible CDFI in the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program (see 12 CFR1808), an Affiliate of a Controlling CDFI may be deemed to meet the financing entity requirement of this section by relying on the CDFI Fund's determination that the Controlling CDFI has met said requirement; provided, however, that the CDFI Fund reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to set additional parameters and restrictions on such, which parameters and restrictions shall be set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability for a CDFI Bond Guarantee Program application round.
</P>
<P>(iii) Further, for the sole purpose of participating as an Eligible CDFI in the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, the provision of Financial Products, Development Services, and/or other similar financing by an Affiliate of a Controlling CDFI need not be arms-length if such transaction is by and between the Affiliate and the Controlling CDFI, pursuant to an operating agreement that includes management and ownership provisions and is in form and substance acceptable to the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Target Market</I>—(i) <I>General.</I> A CDFI must serve a Target Market by virtue of serving one or more Investment Areas and/or Targeted Populations. An entity may demonstrate that it meets this requirement by demonstrating that it provides Financial Products and/or Financial Services in an Investment Areas and/or Targeted Populations as described in this section. An Investment Area shall meet specific geographic and other criteria described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii) of this section, and a Targeted Population shall meet the criteria described in paragraph (b)(3)(iii) of this section.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Investment Area</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> A geographic area will be considered eligible for designation as an Investment Area if it:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) Is entirely located within the geographic boundaries of the United States (which shall encompass any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands); and either
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) Meets at least one of the objective criteria of economic distress as set forth in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(D) of this section and has significant unmet needs for loans, Equity Investments, Financial Products or Financial Services as described in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(E) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) Encompasses (<I>i.e.,</I> wholly consists of) or is wholly located within an Empowerment Zone or Enterprise Community designated under section 1391 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 1391).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Geographic units.</I> Subject to the remainder of this paragraph (B), an Investment Area shall consist of a geographic unit that is a county (or equivalent area), minor civil division that is a unit of local government, incorporated place, census tract, or Indian Reservation. However, geographic units in Metropolitan Areas that are used to comprise an Investment Area shall be limited to census tracts, and Indian Reservations. An entity may designate one or more Investment Areas as part of a single certification application.
</P>
<P>(C) <I>Designation.</I> An entity may designate an Investment Area by selecting:
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) A geographic unit(s) that individually meets one of the criteria in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(D) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) A group of contiguous geographic units that together meet one of the criteria in paragraph (b)(3)(ii)(D) of this section, provided that the combined population residing within individual geographic units not meeting any such criteria does not exceed 15 percent of the total population of the entire Investment Area.
</P>
<P>(D) <I>Distress criteria.</I> An Investment Area (or the units that comprise an area) must meet at least one of the following objective criteria of economic distress (as reported in the most recently completed decennial census published by the U.S. Bureau of the Census):
</P>
<P>(<I>1</I>) The percentage of the population living in poverty is at least 20 percent;
</P>
<P>(<I>2</I>) In the case of an Investment Area located:
</P>
<P>(<I>i</I>) Within a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the Metropolitan Area median family income or the national Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater; or
</P>
<P>(<I>ii</I>) Outside of a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the statewide non-Metropolitan Area median family income or the national non-Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(<I>3</I>) The unemployment rate is at least 1.5 times the national average;
</P>
<P>(<I>4</I>) In counties located outside of a Metropolitan Area, the county population loss during the period between the most recent decennial census and the previous decennial census is at least 10 percent; or
</P>
<P>(<I>5</I>) In counties located outside of a Metropolitan Area, the county net migration loss during the five-year period preceding the most recent decennial census is at least five percent.
</P>
<P>(E) <I>Unmet needs.</I> An Investment Area will be deemed to have significant unmet needs for loans or Equity Investments if a narrative analysis provided by the entity demonstrates a pattern of unmet needs for Financial Products or Financial Services within such area.
</P>
<P>(F) <I>Serving Investment Areas.</I> An entity may serve an Investment Area directly or through borrowers or investees that serve the Investment Area.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Targeted Population</I>—(A) <I>General.</I> Targeted Population shall mean individuals, or an identifiable group of individuals, who are Low-Income persons or lack adequate access to Financial Products or Financial Services in the entity's Target Market. The members of a Targeted Population shall reside within the boundaries of the United States (which shall encompass any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands).
</P>
<P>(B) <I>Serving Targeted Populations.</I> An entity may serve the members of a Targeted Population directly or indirectly or through borrowers or investees that directly serve such members.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Development Services.</I> A CDFI directly, through an Affiliate, or through a contract with another provider, must have a track record of providing Development Services in conjunction with its Financial Products and/or Financial Services. An entity applying for CDFI certification must demonstrate that it meets this requirement.
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Accountability.</I> A CDFI must maintain accountability to residents of its Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s) through representation on its governing board and/or advisory board(s). An entity applying for CDFI certification must demonstrate that it meets this requirement.
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Non-government.</I> A CDFI shall not be an agency or instrumentality of the United States, or any State or political subdivision thereof. An entity applying for CDFI certification must demonstrate that it meets this requirement. An entity that is created by, or that receives substantial assistance from, one or more government entities may be a CDFI provided it is not Controlled by such entities and maintains independent decision-making power over its activities.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Records and Review.</I> The CDFI Fund will review a CDFI's certification status from time to time, as deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund, to ensure that it meets the certification requirements of this section, as well as review its organizational capacity, lending activity, community impacts, and such other information that the CDFI Fund deems appropriate. Upon request, a CDFI shall provide such information and documentation to the CDFI Fund as is necessary to undertake such review.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Use of Funds/Eligible Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.300" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.300   Purposes of financial assistance.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund may provide financial assistance through investment instruments described under subpart D of this part. Such financial assistance is intended to increase available capital and enhance the ability of a Recipient to provide Financial Products, Financial Services, and Development Services.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.301" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.301   Eligible activities.</HEAD>
<P>Recipients may use financial assistance provided under this part to serve Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s) by developing or supporting, through lending, investing, enhancing liquidity, or other means of finance:
</P>
<P>(a) Commercial facilities that promote revitalization, community stability or job creation or retention;
</P>
<P>(b) Businesses that:
</P>
<P>(1) Provide jobs for Low-Income persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Are owned by Low-Income persons; or
</P>
<P>(3) Increase the availability of products and services to Low-Income persons;
</P>
<P>(c) Community Facilities;
</P>
<P>(d) The provision of Financial Services;
</P>
<P>(e) Housing that is principally affordable to Low-Income persons, except that assistance used to facilitate homeownership shall only be used for services and lending products that serve Low-Income persons and that:
</P>
<P>(1) Are not provided by other lenders in the area; or
</P>
<P>(2) Complement the services and lending products provided by other lenders that serve the Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s);
</P>
<P>(f) The provision of consumer loans (a loan to one or more individuals for household, family, or other personal expenditures); or
</P>
<P>(g) Other businesses or activities as requested by the Applicant and deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.302" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.302   Restrictions on use of assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Recipient shall use assistance provided by the CDFI Fund and its corresponding matching funds only for the eligible activities approved by the CDFI Fund and described in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) A Recipient may not distribute assistance to an Affiliate without the CDFI Fund's consent.
</P>
<P>(c) Assistance provided upon approval of an application involving a Community Partnership shall only be distributed to the Recipient and shall not be used to fund any activities carried out by a Community Partner or an Affiliate of a Community Partner.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.303" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.303   Technical assistance.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The CDFI Fund may provide technical assistance to build the capacity of a CDFI or an entity that proposes to become a CDFI. Such technical assistance may include: training for management and other personnel; development of programs, products and services; improving financial management and internal operations; enhancing a CDFI's community impact; or other activities deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may provide technical assistance in amounts or under terms and conditions that are different from those requested by an Applicant or Recipient. The CDFI Fund may not provide any technical assistance funding to an Applicant for the purpose of assisting in the preparation of an application for federal assistance. The CDFI Fund may provide technical assistance to a CDFI directly, through grants, or by contracting with organizations that possess the appropriate expertise.
</P>
<P>(b) The CDFI Fund may provide technical assistance regardless of whether the Recipient also receives financial assistance under this part. Technical assistance provided pursuant to this part is subject to the assistance limits described in § 1805.402.
</P>
<P>(c) An Applicant seeking technical assistance must meet the eligibility requirements described in § 1805.200 and submit an application as described in § 1805.600.
</P>
<P>(d) Applicants for technical assistance pursuant to this part will be evaluated pursuant to the merit-based qualitative review criteria in subpart G of this part, except as otherwise may be provided in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability. In addition, the requirements for matching funds are not applicable to technical assistance requests.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Investment Instruments</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.400" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.400   Investment instruments—general.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund will provide financial assistance to a Recipient through one or more of the investment instruments described in § 1805.401, and under such terms and conditions as described in this subpart D. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may provide financial assistance in amounts, through investment instruments, or under rates, terms and conditions that are different from those requested by an Applicant.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.401" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.401   Forms of investment instruments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Equity.</I> The CDFI Fund may make non-voting equity investments in a Recipient, including, without limitation, the purchase of non-voting stock. Such stock shall be transferable and, in the discretion of the CDFI Fund, may provide for convertibility to voting stock upon transfer. The CDFI Fund shall not own more than 50 percent of the equity of a Recipient and shall not control its operations.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Grants.</I> The CDFI Fund may award grants.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Loans.</I> The CDFI Fund may make loans, if and as permitted by applicable law and regulation.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Deposits and credit union shares.</I> The CDFI Fund may make deposits (which shall include credit union shares) in Insured CDFIs and State-Insured Credit Unions. Deposits in an Insured CDFI or a State-Insured Credit Union shall not be subject to any requirement for collateral or security.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.402" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.402   Assistance limits.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section, the Fund may not provide, pursuant to this part, more than $5 million, in the aggregate, in financial and technical assistance to a Recipient and its Subsidiaries and Affiliates during any three-year period.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Additional amounts.</I> If a Recipient proposes to establish a new Subsidiary or Affiliate to serve an Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s) outside of any State, and outside of any Metropolitan Area, currently served by the Recipient or its Subsidiaries or Affiliates, the Recipient may receive additional assistance pursuant to this Part up to a maximum of $3.75 million during the same three-year period. Such additional assistance:
</P>
<P>(1) Shall be used only to finance activities in the new or expanded Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s); and
</P>
<P>(2) Must be distributed to a new Subsidiary or Affiliate that meets the eligibility requirements described in § 1805.200 and is selected for assistance pursuant to subpart G of this part.
</P>
<P>(c) A Recipient may receive the assistance described in paragraph (b) of this section only if no other application to serve substantially the same Investment Area(s) or Targeted Population(s) that meets the requirements of § 1805.701(a) was submitted to the CDFI Fund prior to the receipt of the application of said Recipient and within the current funding round.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.403" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.403   Authority to sell.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund may, at any time, sell its equity investments and loans, provided the CDFI Fund shall retain the authority to enforce the provisions of the Assistance Agreement until the performance goals specified therein have been met.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Matching Funds Requirements</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.500" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.500   Matching funds—general.</HEAD>
<P>All financial assistance awarded under this part shall be matched with funds from sources other than the Federal government. Except as provided in § 1805.502, such matching funds shall be provided on the basis of not less than one dollar for each dollar provided by the CDFI Fund. Funds that have been used to satisfy a legal requirement for obtaining funds under either the CDFI Program or another Federal grant or award program may not be used to satisfy the matching requirements described in this section. Community Development Block Grant Program and other funds provided pursuant to the Housing and Community Development Act of 1974, as amended (42 U.S.C. 5301 <I>et seq.</I>), shall be considered Federal government funds and shall not be used to meet the matching requirements. Matching funds shall be used as provided in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability and/or the corresponding Assistance Agreement. Funds that are used prior to the execution of the Assistance Agreement may nevertheless qualify as matching funds provided they were used as provided in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability and/or Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.501" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.501   Comparability of form and value.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Matching funds shall be at least comparable in form (<I>e.g.,</I> equity investments, deposits, credit union shares, loans and grants) and value to financial assistance provided by the CDFI Fund (except as provided in § 1805.502). The CDFI Fund shall have the discretion to determine whether matching funds pledged are comparable in form and value to the financial assistance requested.
</P>
<P>(b) In the case of a Recipient that raises matching funds from more than one source, through different investment instruments, or under varying terms and conditions, the CDFI Fund may provide financial assistance in a manner that represents the combined characteristics of such instruments.
</P>
<P>(c) A Recipient may meet all or part of its matching requirements by committing available earnings retained from its operations.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.502" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.502   Severe constraints waiver.</HEAD>
<P>(a) In the case of an Applicant with severe constraints on available sources of matching funds, the CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may permit such Applicant to comply with the matching requirements by:
</P>
<P>(1) Reducing such requirements by up to 50 percent; or
</P>
<P>(2) Permitting an Applicant to provide matching funds in a form to be determined at the discretion of the CDFI Fund, if such an Applicant:
</P>
<P>(i) Has total assets of less than $100,000;
</P>
<P>(ii) Serves an area that is not a Metropolitan Area; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Is not requesting more than $25,000 in assistance.
</P>
<P>(b) Not more than 25 percent of the total funds available for obligation under this part in any fiscal year may be matched as described in paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(c) The terms of the severe constraints waiver shall be provided in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability and Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.503" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.503   Time frame for raising match.</HEAD>
<P>Applicants and Recipients shall satisfy matching funds requirements within the period set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability and/or the corresponding Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.504" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.504   Retained earnings.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An Applicant or Recipient may use its retained earnings to match a request for a financial assistance grant from the CDFI Fund. An Applicant or Recipient that proposes to meet all or a portion of its matching funds requirements by committing available retained earnings from its operations shall be subject to the restrictions described in this section. Retained earnings shall be calculated as directed by the CDFI Fund in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability, the financial assistance application, and/or related guidance materials. The CDFI Fund shall make the final determination of the eligible amount of retained earnings that an Applicant or Recipient has available as matching funds.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Applicants other than Insured Credit Unions, State-Insured Credit Unions and Insured Depository Institutions.</I> In the case of an Applicant or Recipient that is not an Insured Credit Union, State-Insured Credit Union or Insured Depository Institution, retained earnings that may be used for matching funds purposes shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(1) The increase in retained earnings (meaning, for purposes of § 1805.504(b), revenue minus expenses less any dividend payments) that has occurred over the Applicant's or Recipient's fiscal year as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability; or
</P>
<P>(2) The annual average of such increases that occurred over the Applicant's or Recipient's three consecutive fiscal years as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Insured Credit Unions, State-Insured Credit Unions, and Insured Depository Institutions.</I> (1) In the case of an Applicant or Recipient that is an Insured Credit Union, State-Insured Credit Union or Insured Depository Institution, retained earnings that may be used for matching funds purposes shall consist of:
</P>
<P>(i) The increase in retained earnings that has occurred over the Applicant's or Recipient's fiscal year as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability;
</P>
<P>(ii) The annual average of such increases that has occurred over the Applicant's or Recipient's three consecutive fiscal years as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability; or
</P>
<P>(iii) The entire retained earnings that have been accumulated since the inception of the Applicant or Recipient, provided that the Assistance Agreement shall require that:
</P>
<P>(A) The Recipient shall increase its member shares, non-member shares, outstanding loans and/or other measurable activity as defined in and by an amount that is set forth in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability;
</P>
<P>(B) Such increase must be achieved by a date certain set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability;
</P>
<P>(C) The level from which the achievement of said increases will be measured will be as of the date set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability; and
</P>
<P>(D) Financial assistance shall be paid by the CDFI Fund only as the amount of increases described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii)(A) of this section is achieved.
</P>
<P>(2) The CDFI Fund will allow an Applicant or Recipient to utilize the option described in paragraph (c)(1)(iii) of this section for matching funds only if it determines, in its sole discretion, that the Applicant or Recipient will have a high probability of success in achieving said increases to the specified amounts.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Applications for Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.600" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.600   Notice of Funds Availability.</HEAD>
<P>Each Applicant shall submit an application for financial or technical assistance under this part in accordance with the applicable Notice of Funds Availability published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The Notice of Funds Availability will advise prospective Applicants on how to obtain an application packet and will establish deadlines and other requirements. The Notice of Funds Availability may specify the application scoring criteria and any limitations, special rules, procedures, and restrictions for a particular funding round. After receipt of an application, the CDFI Fund may request clarifying or technical information on the materials submitted as part of such application.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Evaluation and Selection of Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.700" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.7.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.700   Evaluation and selection—general.</HEAD>
<P>Applicants will be evaluated and selected, at the sole discretion of the CDFI Fund, to receive assistance based on a review process that may include an interview(s) and/or site visit(s) and that is intended to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that Applicants are evaluated on a merit basis and in a fair and consistent manner;
</P>
<P>(b) Consider the unique characteristics of Applicants that vary by institution type, total asset size, stage of organizational development, markets served, products and services provided, and location;
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that each Recipient can successfully meet the goals of its Comprehensive Business Plan and achieve community development impact;
</P>
<P>(d) Ensure that Recipients represent a geographically diverse group of Recipients serving Metropolitan Areas, non-Metropolitan Areas, and Indian Reservations from different regions of the United States; and
</P>
<P>(e) Consider other factors as described in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.701" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.7.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.701   Evaluation of applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility and completeness.</I> An Applicant will not be eligible to receive assistance pursuant to this part if it fails to meet the eligibility requirements described in § 1805.200 or if it has not submitted complete application materials. For the purposes of this paragraph (a), the CDFI Fund reserves the right to request additional information from the Applicant, if the CDFI Fund deems it appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantive review.</I> In evaluating and selecting applications to receive assistance, the CDFI Fund will evaluate the feasibility of the Applicant's Comprehensive Business Plan goals, the likelihood of the Applicant meeting such goals, and the likelihood of the Applicant achieving its proposed community development impacts, by considering factors such as:
</P>
<P>(1) Community development track record, including, in the case of an Applicant with a prior history of serving a Target Market, the extent of success in serving such Target Market and whether it will expand its operations into a new Investment Area or serve a new Targeted Population, offer more Development Services, Financial Products and/or Financial Services, or increase the volume of its current business;
</P>
<P>(2) Operational capacity and risk mitigation strategies;
</P>
<P>(3) Financial track record and strength;
</P>
<P>(4) Capacity, skills, experience and background of the management team;
</P>
<P>(5) Understanding of its market context, including an analysis of the needs of the Investment Area or Targeted Population and a strategy for how the Applicant will attempt to meet those needs; such analysis of current and prospective customers will include the extent of economic distress within the designated Investment Area(s) or the extent of need within the designated Targeted Population(s), as those factors are measured by objective criteria, the extent of need for Loans, Equity Investments, Financial Products, Financial Services and Development Services within the designated Target Market, and the extent of demand within the Target Market for the Applicant's products and services;
</P>
<P>(6) Program design and implementation plan, including: A plan to coordinate use of a financial assistance award with existing Federal State, local and Tribal government assistance programs, and private sector financial services; A description of how the Applicant will coordinate with community organizations and financial institutions which will provide equity investments, loans, secondary markets, or other services to the Investment Area or Targeted Population; an assessment of its products and services, marketing and outreach efforts, delivery strategy, and coordination with other institutions and/or a Community Partner, or participation in a secondary market for purposes of increasing the Applicant's resources. In the case of an Applicant submitting an application with a Community Partner, the CDFI Fund will evaluate: the extent to which the Community Partner will participate in carrying out the activities of the Community Partnership; the extent to which the Community Partner will enhance the likelihood of success of the Comprehensive Business Plan; and the extent to which service to the designated Target Market will be better performed by a Community Partnership than by the Applicant alone;
</P>
<P>(7) Projections for financial performance, capitalization and the raising of needed external resources, including a detailed description of the Applicant's plans and likely sources of funds to match the amount of financial assistance requested from the CDFI Fund, the amount of firm commitments and matching funds in hand to meet or exceed the matching funds requirements and, if applicable, the likely success of the plan for raising the balance of the matching funds in a timely manner, the extent to which the matching funds are, or will be, derived from private sources, and whether an Applicant is, or will become, an Insured CDFI or a State-Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P>(8) Projections for community development impact, including the extent to which an Applicant will concentrate its activities on serving its Target Market(s), the extent of support from the designated Target Market, the extent to which an Applicant is, or will be, Community-Owned or Community-Governed, and the extent to which the activities proposed in the Comprehensive Business Plan are consistent with existing economic, community, and housing development plans adopted by or applicable to the Investment Area or Targeted Population and will expand economic opportunities or promote community development within the designated Target Market;
</P>
<P>(9) The extent of need for the CDFI Fund's assistance, as demonstrated by the extent of economic distress in the Applicant's Target Market and the extent to which the Applicant needs the CDFI Fund's assistance to carry out its Comprehensive Business Plan;
</P>
<P>(10) In the case of an Applicant that has previously received assistance under the CDFI Program, the CDFI Fund also will consider the Applicant's level of success in meeting its performance goals, financial soundness covenants (if applicable), and other requirements contained in the previously negotiated and executed Assistance Agreement(s) with the CDFI Fund, the unexpended balance of assistance, and whether the Applicant will, with additional assistance from the CDFI Fund, expand its operations into a new Target Market, offer more products or services, and/or increase the volume of its activities; and
</P>
<P>(11) The CDFI Fund may consider any other factors, as it deems appropriate, in reviewing an application as set forth in an applicable Notice of Funds Availability.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Consultation with Appropriate Federal Banking Agencies.</I> The CDFI Fund will consult with, and consider the views of, the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency prior to providing assistance to:
</P>
<P>(1) An Insured CDFI;
</P>
<P>(2) A CDFI that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency; or
</P>
<P>(3) A CDFI that has as its Community Partner an institution that is examined by, or subject to, the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultation with Appropriate State Agencies.</I> Prior to providing assistance to a State-Insured Credit Union, the CDFI Fund may consult with, and consider the views of, the Appropriate State Agency.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recipient selection.</I> The CDFI Fund will select Recipients based on the criteria described in paragraph (b) of this section and any other criteria set forth in this part or the applicable Notice of Funds Availability.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Terms and Conditions of Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.800" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.800   Safety and soundness.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Regulated institutions.</I> Nothing in this part, or in an Assistance Agreement, shall affect any authority of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency to supervise and regulate any institution or company.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Non-Regulated CDFIs.</I> The CDFI Fund will, to the maximum extent practicable, ensure that Recipients that are Non-Regulated CDFIs are financially and managerially sound and maintain appropriate internal controls.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.801" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.801   Assistance Agreement; sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Prior to providing any Financial or Technical Assistance, the CDFI Fund and a Recipient shall execute an Assistance Agreement that requires a Recipient to comply with performance goals and abide by other terms and conditions of assistance. Such performance goals may be modified at any time by mutual consent of the CDFI Fund and a Recipient or as provided in paragraph (c) of this section. If a Community Partner or an Affiliate is part of an application that is selected for assistance, such partner must be a party to the Assistance Agreement, if deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) A Recipient shall comply with performance goals that have been established or negotiated with the CDFI Fund and which are based upon the Comprehensive Business Plan submitted as part of the Recipient's application. Such performance goals may include measures that require a Recipient to:
</P>
<P>(1) Be financially sound;
</P>
<P>(2) Be managerially sound;
</P>
<P>(3) Maintain appropriate internal controls; and/or
</P>
<P>(4) Achieve specific lending, investment, and development service objectives.
</P>
<FP>Performance goals for Insured CDFIs shall be determined in consultation with the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, as applicable. Such goals shall be incorporated in, and enforced under, the Recipient's Assistance Agreement. Performance goals for State-Insured Credit Unions may be determined in consultation with the Appropriate State Agency, if deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund.
</FP>
<P>(c) The Assistance Agreement shall provide that, in the event of fraud, mismanagement, noncompliance with the Act and the CDFI Fund's regulations, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the Assistance Agreement on the part of the Recipient (or the Community Partner, if applicable), the CDFI Fund, in its discretion, may:
</P>
<P>(1) Require changes in the performance goals set forth in the Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Require changes in the Recipient's Comprehensive Business Plan;
</P>
<P>(3) Revoke approval of the Recipient's application;
</P>
<P>(4) Reduce or terminate the Recipient's assistance;
</P>
<P>(5) Require repayment of any assistance that has been distributed to the Recipient;
</P>
<P>(6) Bar the Recipient from reapplying for any assistance from the CDFI Fund; or
</P>
<P>(7) Take such other actions as the CDFI Fund deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(d) In the case of an Insured CDFI, the Assistance Agreement shall provide that the provisions of the Act, this part, and the Assistance Agreement shall be enforceable under 12 U.S.C. 1818 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, as applicable, and that any violation of such provisions shall be treated as a violation of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. Nothing in this paragraph (d) precludes the CDFI Fund from directly enforcing the Assistance Agreement as provided for under the terms of the Act.
</P>
<P>(e) The CDFI Fund shall notify the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency before imposing any sanctions on an Insured CDFI or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of that agency. The CDFI Fund shall not impose a sanction described in paragraph (c) of this section if the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, in writing, and to the satisfaction of the CDFI Fund, not later than 30 calendar days after receiving notice from the CDFI Fund:
</P>
<P>(1) Objects to the proposed sanction;
</P>
<P>(2) Determines that the sanction would:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a material adverse effect on the safety and soundness of the institution; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Impede or interfere with an enforcement action against that institution by that agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Proposes a comparable alternative action; and
</P>
<P>(4) Specifically explains:
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for the determination under paragraph (e)(2) of this section and, if appropriate, provides documentation to support the determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) How the alternative action suggested pursuant to paragraph (e)(3) of this section would be as effective as the sanction proposed by the CDFI Fund in securing compliance and deterring future noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(f) In reviewing the performance of a Recipient in which its Investment Area(s) includes an Indian Reservation or Targeted Population(s) includes an Indian Tribe, the CDFI Fund shall consult with, and seek input from, the appropriate tribal government.
</P>
<P>(g) Prior to imposing any sanctions pursuant to this section or an Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund shall, to the maximum extent practicable, provide the Recipient (or the Community Partner, if applicable) with written notice of the proposed sanction and an opportunity to comment. Nothing in this section, however, shall provide a Recipient or Community Partner with the right to any formal or informal hearing or comparable proceeding not otherwise required by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.802" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.802   Payment of funds.</HEAD>
<P>Assistance provided pursuant to this part may be provided in a lump sum or over a period of time, as determined appropriate by the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund shall not provide any assistance under this part until a Recipient has satisfied any required conditions set forth in its Assistance Agreement and, if the Recipient is to receive financial assistance, the Recipient has secured in-hand and/or firm commitments for the matching funds required for such assistance pursuant to the applicable Notice of Funds Availability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.803" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.803   Data collection and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data—General.</I> A Recipient shall maintain such records as may be prescribed by the CDFI Fund that are necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose the manner in which CDFI Fund assistance is used;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this part and an Assistance Agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate the impact of the CDFI Program.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Customer profiles.</I> A Recipient (and a Community Partner, if appropriate) shall compile such data on the gender, race, ethnicity, national origin, or other information on individuals that utilize its products and services as the CDFI Fund shall prescribe in an Assistance Agreement. Such data will be used to determine whether residents of Investment Area(s) or members of Targeted Population(s) are adequately served and to evaluate the impact of the CDFI Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to records.</I> A Recipient (and a Community Partner, if appropriate) must submit such financial and activity reports, records, statements, and documents at such times, in such forms, and accompanied by such reporting data, as required by the CDFI Fund or the Department of the Treasury to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part and to evaluate the impact of the CDFI Program. The United States Government, including the Department of the Treasury, the Comptroller General, and their duly authorized representatives, shall have full and free access to the Recipient's offices and facilities and all books, documents, records, and financial statements relating to use of Federal funds and may copy such documents as they deem appropriate. The CDFI Fund, if it deems appropriate, may prescribe access to record requirements for entities that are borrowers of, or that receive investments from a Recipient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of records.</I> A Recipient shall comply with all record retention requirements as set forth in the Uniform Requirements (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data collection and reporting.</I> Each Recipient shall submit to the CDFI Fund information and documentation that will permit the CDFI Fund to review the Recipient's progress (and the progress of its Affiliates, Subsidiaries, and/or Community Partners, if appropriate) in implementing its Comprehensive Business Plan and satisfying the terms and conditions of its Assistance Agreement. The information and documentation shall include, but not be limited to, an audit and an annual report, which shall comprise the following components:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Audits and Audited Financial Statements.</I> (i) All non-profit organizations that are required to have their financial statements audited pursuant to the Uniform Requirements, must submit their single-audits no later than nine months after the end of the Recipient's fiscal year. Non-profit organizations (excluding Insured CDFIs and State-Insured Credit Unions) that are not required to have financial statements audited pursuant to the Uniform Requirements, must submit to the CDFI Fund a statement signed by the Recipient's Authorized Representative or certified public accountant, asserting that the Recipient is not required to have a single audit pursuant to the Uniform Requirements as indicated in the Assistance Agreement. In such instances, the CDFI Fund may require additional audits to be performed as stated in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability.
</P>
<P>(ii) For-profit organizations (excluding Insured CDFIs and State-Insured Credit Unions) must submit to the CDFI Fund financial statements audited in conformity with generally accepted auditing standards as promulgated by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants, no later than six months after the end of the Recipient's fiscal year.
</P>
<P>(iii) Insured CDFIs are not required to submit financial statements to the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund will obtain the necessary information from publicly available sources. State-Insured Credit Unions must submit to the CDFI Fund copies of the financial statements that they submit to the Appropriate State Agency.
</P>
<P>(iv) If multiple for-profit organizations sign the Assistance Agreement: The Recipient may submit combined financial statements and footnotes for the Recipient and other entities that signed the Assistance Agreement as long as the financial statements of each signatory are shown separately (for example, in combining financial statements).
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual Report.</I> (i) Each Recipient shall submit to the CDFI Fund a performance and financial report at the times that shall be specified in the Assistance Agreement (Annual Report). The Annual Report consists of several components which may include, but are not limited to, an institution level report, transaction level report, use of financial or technical assistance report, explanation of any Recipient noncompliance, and shareholder report. The Annual Report components shall be specified and described in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CDFI Fund will use the Annual Report to collect data to assess the Recipient's compliance with its Performance Goals and the impact of the CDFI Program and the CDFI industry.
</P>
<P>(iii) Recipients are responsible for the timely and complete submission of the Annual Report, even if all or a portion of the documents actually are completed by another entity or signatory to the Assistance Agreement. If such other entities or signatories are required to provide Annual Reports, or other documentation that the CDFI Fund may require, the Recipient is responsible for ensuring that the information is submitted timely and complete. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact such additional signatories to the Assistance Agreement and require that additional information and documentation be provided.
</P>
<P>(3) The CDFI Fund's review of the progress of an Insured CDFI, a Depository Institution Holding Company or a State-Insured Credit Union in implementing its Comprehensive Business Plan and satisfying the terms and conditions of its Assistance Agreement may also include information from the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Public Access.</I> The CDFI Fund shall make reports described in this section available for public inspection after deleting or redacting any materials necessary to protect privacy or proprietary interests.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Exchange of information with Appropriate Federal Banking Agencies and Appropriate State Agencies.</I> (1) Except as provided in paragraph (f)(4) of this section, prior to directly requesting information from or imposing reporting or record keeping requirements on an Insured CDFI or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, the CDFI Fund shall consult with the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency to determine if the information requested is available from or may be obtained by such agency in the form, format, and detail required by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(2) If the information, reports, or records requested by the CDFI Fund pursuant to paragraph (f)(1) of this section are not provided by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency within 15 calendar days after the date on which the material is requested, the CDFI Fund may request the information from or impose the record keeping or reporting requirements directly on such institutions with notice to the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency.
</P>
<P>(3) The CDFI Fund shall use any information provided by an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency under this section to the extent practicable to eliminate duplicative requests for information and reports from, and record keeping by, an Insured CDFI, State-Insured Credit Union or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency.
</P>
<P>(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (f)(1) and (2) of this section, the CDFI Fund may require an Insured CDFI, State-Insured Credit Union, or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency to provide information with respect to the institution's implementation of its Comprehensive Business Plan or compliance with the terms of its Assistance Agreement, after providing notice to the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(5) Nothing in this part shall be construed to permit the CDFI Fund to require an Insured CDFI, State-Insured Credit Union, or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency to obtain, maintain, or furnish an examination report of any Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, or records contained in or related to such report.
</P>
<P>(6) The CDFI Fund and the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency shall promptly notify each other of material concerns about a Recipient that is an Insured CDFI or that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, and share appropriate information relating to such concerns.
</P>
<P>(7) Neither the CDFI Fund nor the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency (or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be) shall disclose confidential information obtained pursuant to this section from any party without the written consent of that party.
</P>
<P>(8) The CDFI Fund, the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency (or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be), and any other party providing information under this paragraph (f) shall not be deemed to have waived any privilege applicable to the any information or data, or any portion thereof, by providing such information or data to the other party or by permitting such data or information, or any copies or portions thereof, to be used by the other party.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.804" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.804   Information.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund and each Appropriate Federal Banking Agency shall cooperate and respond to requests from each other and from other Appropriate Federal Banking Agencies in a manner that ensures the safety and soundness of Insured CDFIs or other institution that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.805" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.805   Compliance with government requirements.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its responsibilities pursuant to an Assistance Agreement, the Recipient shall comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, regulations, and ordinances, OMB Circulars, and Executive Orders. Furthermore, Recipients must comply with the CDFI Fund's Environmental Quality Regulations (12 CFR part 1815) as well as all other federal environmental requirements applicable to federal awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.806" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.806   Conflict of interest requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provision of credit to Insiders.</I> (1) A Recipient that is a Non-Regulated CDFI may not use any monies provided to it by the CDFI Fund to make any credit (including loans and Equity Investments) available to an Insider, unless it meets the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The credit must be provided pursuant to standard underwriting procedures, terms and conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Insider receiving the credit, and any family member or business partner thereof, shall not participate in any way in the decision making regarding such credit;
</P>
<P>(iii) The board of directors or other governing body of the Recipient shall approve the extension of the credit; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The credit must be provided in accordance with a policy regarding credit to Insiders that has been approved in advance by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(2) A Recipient that is an Insured CDFI, a Depository Institution Holding Company or a State-Insured Credit Union shall comply with the restrictions on Insider activities and any comparable restrictions established by its Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Recipient standards of conduct.</I> A Recipient that is a Non-Regulated CDFI shall maintain a code or standards of conduct acceptable to the CDFI Fund that shall govern the performance of its Insiders engaged in the awarding and administration of any credit (including loans and Equity Investments) and contracts using monies from the CDFI Fund. No Insider of a Recipient shall solicit or accept gratuities, favors, or anything of monetary value from any actual or potential borrowers, owners, or contractors for such credit or contracts. Such policies shall provide for disciplinary actions to be applied for violation of the standards by the Recipient's Insiders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.807" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.807   Lobbying restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>No assistance made available under this part may be expended by a Recipient to pay any person to influence or attempt to influence any agency, elected official, officer or employee of a State or local government in connection with the making, award, extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any State or local government contract, grant, loan or cooperative agreement as such terms are defined in 31 U.S.C. 1352.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.808" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.808   Criminal provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The criminal provisions of 18 U.S.C. 657 regarding embezzlement or misappropriation of funds are applicable to all Recipients and Insiders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.809" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.809   CDFI Fund deemed not to control.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund shall not be deemed to Control a Recipient by reason of any assistance provided under the Act for the purpose of any applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.810" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.810   Limitation on liability.</HEAD>
<P>The liability of the CDFI Fund and the United States Government arising out of any assistance to a CDFI in accordance with this part shall be limited to the amount of the investment in the CDFI. The CDFI Fund shall be exempt from any assessments and other liabilities that may be imposed on controlling or principal shareholders by any Federal law or the law of any State. Nothing in this section shall affect the application of any Federal tax law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1805.811" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.2.8.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1805.811   Fraud, waste and abuse.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who becomes aware of the existence or apparent existence of fraud, waste, or abuse of assistance provided under this part should report such incidences to the Office of Inspector General of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1806" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1806—BANK ENTERPRISE AWARD PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 1834a, 4703, 4703 note, 4713, 4717; 31 U.S.C. 321.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>81 FR 52743, Aug. 10, 2016, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.100" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the Bank Enterprise Award (BEA) Program is to provide grants to Insured Depository Institutions that provide financial and technical assistance to Community Development Financial Institutions and increase their activities in Distressed Communities.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.101" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.101   Summary.</HEAD>
<P>Through the BEA Program, the CDFI Fund will provide monetary awards in the form of grants to Applicants selected by the CDFI Fund that increase their investments in or provide other support of CDFIs, increase their lending and investment activities in Distressed Communities, or increase their provision of certain services and assistance. Distressed Communities must meet minimum geographic, poverty, and unemployment criteria. Applicants are selected to receive BEA Program Awards through a merit-based, competitive application process. The amount of a BEA Program Award is based on the increase in Qualified Activities that are carried out by the Applicant during the Assessment Period. BEA Program Awards are disbursed by the CDFI Fund after the Recipient has successfully completed projected Qualified Activities. Each Recipient will enter into an Award Agreement, which will require it to abide by terms and conditions pertinent to any assistance received under this part, including the requirement that BEA Program Award proceeds must be used for Eligible Activities, and in accordance with the Uniform Administrative Requirements, as applicable. All BEA Program Awards are made subject to funding availability.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.102" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.102   Relationship to other CDFI Fund programs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Restrictions using BEA Program Award in conjunction with other awards.</I> (1) Restrictions are in place on applying for, receiving, and using BEA Program Awards in conjunction with awards under other programs administered by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(2) Other programs include, but not limited to, the Capital Magnet Fund, the CDFI Program, the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, the Native American CDFI Assistance Program, and the New Markets Tax Credit Program, are as set forth in the applicable notice of funding opportunity or Notice of Allocation Availability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Prohibition against double funding.</I> (1) Qualified Activities may not include transactions funded in whole or in part with award proceeds from another CDFI Fund program or Federal program.
</P>
<P>(2) An Applicant that is a CDFI may not receive a BEA Program Award, either directly or through a community partnership if it has:
</P>
<P>(i) Received a CDFI Program award within the preceding 12-month period, or has a CDFI Program application pending; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Ever received a CDFI Program award based on the same activity during the same semiannual period for which the institution seeks a BEA Program Award.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.103" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.103   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, the following terms shall have the following definitions:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, as amended (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing Development Loan</I> means origination of a loan to finance the acquisition, construction, and/or development of single- or multi-family residential real property, where at least 60 percent of the units in such property are affordable, as may be defined in the applicable NOFA, to Eligible Residents who meet Low- and Moderate-Income requirements;
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing Loan</I> means origination of a loan to finance the purchase or improvement of the borrower's primary residence, and that is secured by such property, where such borrower is an Eligible Resident who meets Low- and Moderate-Income requirements. Affordable Housing Loan may also refer to second (or otherwise subordinated) liens or “soft second” mortgages and other similar types of down payment assistance loans, but may not necessarily be secured by such property originated for the purpose of facilitating the purchase or improvement of the borrower's primary residence, where such borrower is an Eligible Resident who meets Low- and Moderate-Income requirements;
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any insured depository institution (as defined in section 3(c)(2) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813)) that is applying for a Bank Enterprise Award;
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813);
</P>
<P><I>Assessment Period</I> means an annual or semi-annual period specified in the applicable NOFA in which an Applicant will carry out, or has carried out, Qualified Activities;
</P>
<P><I>Award Agreement</I> means a formal agreement between the CDFI Fund and a Recipient pursuant to § 1806.500;
</P>
<P><I>Bank Enterprise Award</I> (or <I>BEA Program Award</I>) means an award made to an Applicant pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P><I>Bank Enterprise Award Program</I> (or <I>BEA Program</I>) means the program authorized by section 114 of the Act and implemented under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Baseline Period</I> means an annual or a semi-annual period specified in the applicable NOFA, in which an Applicant has previously carried out Qualified Activities;
</P>
<P><I>CDFI Partner</I> means a CDFI that has been provided assistance in the form of CDFI Related Activities by an unaffiliated Applicant;
</P>
<P><I>CDFI Related Activities</I> means Equity Investments, Equity-Like Loans and CDFI Support Activities;
</P>
<P><I>CDFI Support Activity</I> means assistance provided by an Applicant or its Subsidiary to a CDFI that meets criteria set forth by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA and that is Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community, in the form of the origination of a loan, Technical Assistance, or deposits, as further specified in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Commercial Loans and Investments</I> means the following lending activity types: Affordable Housing Development Loans and related Project Investments; Small Business Loans and related Project Investments; and Commercial Real Estate Loans and related Project Investments;
</P>
<P><I>Commercial Real Estate Loan</I> means an origination of a loan (other than an Affordable Housing Development Loan or Affordable Housing Loan) that is secured by real estate and used to finance the acquisition or rehabilitation of a building in a Distressed Community, or the acquisition, construction and or development of property in a Distressed Community, used for commercial purposes;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institution</I> (or <I>CDFI</I>) means an entity that has been certified as a CDFI by the CDFI Fund as of the date specified in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund</I> (or <I>CDFI Fund</I>) means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund established pursuant to section 104(a)(12 U.S.C. 4703(a)) of the Act;
</P>
<P><I>Community Services</I> means the following forms of assistance provided by officers, employees or agents (contractual or otherwise) of the Applicant:
</P>
<P>(1) Provision of Technical Assistance and financial education to Eligible Residents regarding managing their personal finances;
</P>
<P>(2) Provision of Technical Assistance and consulting services to newly formed small businesses and nonprofit organizations located in the Distressed Community;
</P>
<P>(3) Provision of Technical Assistance and financial education to, or servicing the loans of, homeowners who are Eligible Residents and meet Low- and Moderate-Income requirements; and
</P>
<P>(4) Other services provided to Eligible Residents who meet Low- and Moderate-Income requirements or enterprises that are Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community, as deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund, and other comparable services as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Consumer Loans</I> means the following lending activity types: Affordable Housing Loans; Education Loans; Home Improvement Loans; and Small Dollar Consumer Loans;
</P>
<P><I>Deposit Liabilities</I> means time or savings deposits or demand deposits. Any such deposit must be accepted from Eligible Residents at the offices of the Applicant or of the Subsidiary of the Applicant and located in the Distressed Community. Deposit Liabilities may only include deposits held by individuals in transaction accounts (<I>e.g.,</I> demand deposits, negotiable order of withdrawal accounts, automated transfer service accounts, and telephone or preauthorized transfer accounts) or non-transaction accounts (<I>e.g.,</I> money market deposit accounts, other savings deposits, and all time deposits), as defined by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency;
</P>
<P><I>Development Service Activities</I> means activities that promote community development and are integral to the Applicant's provision of financial products and Financial Services. Such services shall prepare or assist current or potential borrowers or investees to utilize the financial products or Financial Services of the Applicant. Development Service Activities include financial or credit counseling to individuals for the purpose of facilitating home ownership, promoting self-employment, or enhancing consumer financial management skills; or technical assistance to borrowers or investees for the purpose of enhancing business planning, marketing, management, financial management skills, and other comparable services as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P><I>Distressed Community</I> means a geographically defined community that meets the minimum area eligibility requirements specified in § 1806.401 and such additional criteria as may be set forth in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Distressed Community Financing Activities</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Consumer Loans; or
</P>
<P>(2) Commercial Loans and Investments;
</P>
<P><I>Education Loan</I> means an advance of funds to a student who is an Eligible Resident who meets Low- and Moderate-Income requirements for the purpose of financing a college or vocational education;
</P>
<P><I>Electronic Transfer Account</I> (or <I>ETA</I>) means an account that meets the following requirements, and with respect to which the Applicant has satisfied the requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Be an individually owned account at a Federally insured financial institution;
</P>
<P>(2) Be available to any individual who receives a Federal benefit, wage, salary, or retirement payment;
</P>
<P>(3) Accept electronic Federal benefit, wage, salary, and retirement payments and such other deposits as a financial institution agrees to permit;
</P>
<P>(4) Be subject to a maximum price of $3.00 per month;
</P>
<P>(5) Have a minimum of four cash withdrawals and four balance inquiries per month, to be included in the monthly fee, through:
</P>
<P>(i) The financial institution's proprietary (on-us) automated teller machines (ATMs);
</P>
<P>(ii) Over-the-counter transactions at the main office or a branch of the financial institution; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Any combination of on-us ATM access and over-the-counter access at the option of the financial institution;
</P>
<P>(6) Provide the same consumer protections that are available to other account holders at the financial institution, including, for accounts that provide electronic access, Regulation E (12 CFR part 205) protections regarding disclosure, limitations on liability, procedures for reporting lost or stolen cards, and procedures for error resolution;
</P>
<P>(7) For financial institutions that are members of an on-line point-of-sale (POS) network, allow on-line POS purchases, cash withdrawals, and cash back with purchases at no additional charge by the financial institution offering the ETA;
</P>
<P>(8) Require no minimum balance, except as required by Federal or State law;
</P>
<P>(9) At the option of the financial institution, be either an interest-bearing or a non-interest-bearing account; and
</P>
<P>(10) Provide a monthly statement.
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Activities</I> means CDFI Related Activities, Distressed Community Financing Activities, and Service Activities, and as further described in the applicable NOFA and the Award Agreement;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Resident</I> means an individual who resides in a Distressed Community;
</P>
<P><I>Equity Investment</I> means financial assistance provided by an Applicant or its Subsidiary to a CDFI, which CDFI meets such criteria as set forth in the applicable NOFA, in the form of a grant, a stock purchase, a purchase of a partnership interest, a purchase of a limited liability company membership interest, or any other investment deemed to be an Equity Investment by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P><I>Equity-Like Loan</I> means a loan provided by an Applicant or its Subsidiary to a CDFI, and made on such terms that it has characteristics of an Equity Investment that meets such criteria as set forth in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Financial Services</I> means check-cashing, providing money orders and certified checks, automated teller machines, safe deposit boxes, new branches, and other comparable services as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA, that are provided by the Applicant to Eligible Residents or enterprises that are Integrally Involved in the Distressed Community;
</P>
<P><I>Geographic Units</I> means counties (or equivalent areas), incorporated places, minor civil divisions that are units of local government, census tracts, block numbering areas, block groups, and Indian Areas or Native American Areas (as each is defined by the U.S. Bureau of the Census), or other areas deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P><I>Home Improvement Loan</I> means an advance of funds, either unsecured or secured by a one-to-four family residential property, the proceeds of which are used to improve the borrower's primary residence, where such borrower is an Eligible Resident who meets Low- and Moderate-Income requirements;
</P>
<P><I>Indian Reservation</I> means a geographic area that meets the requirements of section 4(10) of the Indian Child Welfare Act of 1978 (25 U.S.C. 1903(10)), and shall include land held by incorporated Native groups, regional corporations, and village corporations, as defined in and pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>), public domain Indian allotments, and former Indian Reservations in the State of Oklahoma;
</P>
<P><I>Individual Development Account</I> (or <I>IDA</I>) means a special savings account that matches the deposits of Eligible Residents who meet Low- and Moderate-Income requirements individuals and that enables such individuals to save money for a particular financial goal including, but not limited to, and as determined by the CDFI Fund: buying a home, paying for post-secondary education, or starting or expanding a small business;
</P>
<P><I>Insured Depository Institution</I> means any bank or thrift, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;
</P>
<P><I>Integrally Involved</I> means, for a CDFI Partner, having provided or transacted the percentage of financial transactions or dollars (<I>i.e.,</I> loans or Equity Investments), or Development Service Activities, in the Distressed Community identified by the Applicant or the CDFI Partner, as applicable, or having attained the percentage of market share for a particular product in a Distressed Community, set forth in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Low- and Moderate-Income or Low- and Moderate-Income requirements</I> means borrower income that does not exceed 80 percent of the median income of the area involved, according to the U.S. Census Bureau data, set forth in the Applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Area</I> means an area designated as such (as of the date of the BEA Program application) by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e)(3), 31 U.S.C. 1104(d), and Executive Order 10253 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 758), as amended;
</P>
<P><I>Notice of Funding Availability</I> (or <I>NOFA</I>) means the public notice of funding opportunity that announces the availability of BEA Program Award funds for a particular funding round and that advises prospective Applicants with respect to obtaining application materials, establishes application submission deadlines, and establishes other requirements or restrictions applicable for the particular funding round;
</P>
<P><I>Priority Factor</I> means a numeric value assigned to the following, as established by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA:
</P>
<P>(1) Each subcategory within the Distressed Community Financing Activities category of Qualified Activities; or
</P>
<P>(2) Each activity-type within the Service Activities and CDFI Related Activities categories of Qualified Activities.
</P>
<P>(3) A priority factor represents the CDFI Fund's assessment of the degree of difficulty, the extent of innovation, and the extent of benefits accruing to the Distressed Community for each type of activity;
</P>
<P><I>Project Investment</I> means providing financial assistance in the form of a purchase of stock, limited partnership interest, other ownership instrument, or a grant to an entity that is Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community and formed for the sole purpose of engaging in a project or activity (approved by the CDFI Fund), including Affordable Housing Development Loans, Affordable Housing Loans, Commercial Real Estate Loans, and Small Business Loans;
</P>
<P><I>Qualified Activities</I> means CDFI Related Activities, Distressed Community Financing Activities, and Service Activities;
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means an Applicant that receives a BEA Program Award pursuant to this part and the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Service Activities</I> means the following activities: Deposit Liabilities; Financial Services; Community Services; Targeted Financial Services; and Targeted Retail Savings/Investment Products;
</P>
<P><I>Small Business Loan</I> means an origination of a loan used for commercial or industrial activities (other than an Affordable Housing Loan, Affordable Housing Development Loan, Commercial Real Estate Loan, Home Improvement Loan) to a business or farm that meets the size eligibility standards of the Small Business Administration's Development Company or Small Business Investment Company programs (13 CFR 121.301) and is located in a Distressed Community;
</P>
<P><I>Small Dollar Consumer Loan</I> means affordable consumer lending products that serve as available alternatives in the marketplace for individuals who are Eligible Residents who meet Low- and Moderate-Income requirements and meet criteria further specified in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means any State of the United States, the District of Columbia or any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Virgin Islands, and the Northern Mariana Islands;
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, except that a CDFI shall not be considered a Subsidiary of any Insured Depository Institution or any depository institution holding company that controls less than 25 percent of any class of the voting shares of such corporation and does not otherwise control, in any manner, the election of a majority of directors of the corporation;
</P>
<P><I>Targeted Financial Services</I> means ETAs, IDAs, and such other banking products targeted to Eligible Residents, as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Targeted Retail Savings/Investment Products</I> means certificates of deposit, mutual funds, life insurance, and other similar savings or investment vehicles targeted to Eligible Residents, as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Technical Assistance</I> means the provision of consulting services, resources, training, and other nonmonetary support relating to an organization, individual, or operation of a trade or business, as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA; and
</P>
<P><I>Unit of General Local Government</I> means any city, county town, township, parish, village, or other general-purpose political subdivision of a State or Commonwealth of the United States, or general-purpose subdivision thereof, and the District of Columbia.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.104" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.104   Uniform Administrative Requirements; waiver authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Uniform Administrative Requirements.</I> The Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (Uniform Administrative Requirements), codified by the Department of the Treasury at 2 CFR part 1000, apply to awards, regardless of type of award Recipient, made pursuant to this part.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Waiver authority.</I> The CDFI Fund may waive any requirement of this part that is not required by law, upon a determination of good cause. Each such waiver will be in writing and supported by a statement of the facts and grounds forming the basis of the waiver. For a waiver in any individual case, the CDFI Fund must determine that application of the requirement to be waived would adversely affect the achievement of the purposes of the Act. For waivers of general applicability, the CDFI Fund will publish notification of granted waivers in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.105" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.105   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collections of information contained in this part have been reviewed and approved by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) in accordance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 and assigned the applicable, approved OMB Control Numbers associated with the CDFI Fund under 1559.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.200" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.200   Applicant eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>An entity that is an Insured Depository Institution is eligible to apply for a BEA Program Award if the CDFI Fund receives a complete BEA Program Award application by the deadline set forth in the applicable Notice of Funding Availability (NOFA). Additional eligibility requirements are set forth in the applicable NOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Use of Funds/Eligible Activities</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.300" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.300   Eligible Activities.</HEAD>
<P>Recipients of BEA Program Awards must use their payments for the following Eligible Activities:
</P>
<P>(a) CDFI Related Activities;
</P>
<P>(b) Distressed Community Financing Activities; and
</P>
<P>(c) Service Activities, and to comply with the Uniform Administrative Requirements as further described in the applicable NOFA and the Award Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.301" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.301   Restrictions of use of award.</HEAD>
<P>A Recipient may not distribute BEA Program Award funds to an Affiliate without the CDFI Fund's prior written consent.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Award Determinations</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.400" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.400   General.</HEAD>
<P>The amount of a BEA Program Award shall be based on the Applicant's increases in Qualified Activities from the Baseline Period to the Assessment Period, as set forth in the applicable NOFA. When determining this increase, Applicants must consider all BEA Qualified Activities and all BEA qualified census tracts, as it relates to a given subcategory or activity type, as applicable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.401" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.401   Community eligibility and designation.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> If an Applicant reports that it has provided or engaged in Service Activities or Distressed Community Financing Activities, the Applicant shall identify one or more Distressed Communities in which it has provided or engaged in such activities. The Applicant may identify different Distressed Communities for each category or subcategory of activity. If an Applicant reports that it has provided or engaged in CDFI Support Activities, the Applicant shall provide evidence that the CDFI that the Applicant supported is Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community, as specified in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum area and eligibility requirements.</I> A Distressed Community must meet the following minimum area and eligibility requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Minimum area requirements.</I> A Distressed Community:
</P>
<P>(i) Must be an area that is located within the jurisdiction of one (1) Unit of General Local Government;
</P>
<P>(ii) The boundaries of the area must be contiguous; and
</P>
<P>(iii) The area must:
</P>
<P>(A) Have a population, as determined by the most recent U.S. Bureau of the Census data available, of not less than 4,000 if any portion of the area is located within a Metropolitan Area with a population of 50,000 or greater; or
</P>
<P>(B) Have a population, as determined by the most recent U.S. Bureau of the Census data available, of not less than 1,000 in any other case; or
</P>
<P>(C) Be located entirely within an Indian Reservation.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Eligibility requirements.</I> A Distressed Community must be a geographic area where:
</P>
<P>(i) At least 30 percent of the Eligible Residents have incomes that are less than the national poverty level, as published by the U.S. Bureau of the Census or in other sources as set forth in guidance issued by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(ii) The unemployment rate is at least 1.5 times greater than the national average, as determined by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' most recently published data, including estimates of unemployment developed using the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' Census-Share calculation method, or in other sources as set forth in guidance issued by the CDFI Fund; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Such additional requirements as may be specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Area designation.</I> An Applicant shall designate an area as a Distressed Community by:
</P>
<P>(1) Selecting Geographic Units which individually meet the minimum area and eligibility requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section; or
</P>
<P>(2) Selecting two or more Geographic Units which, in the aggregate, meet the minimum area and eligibility requirements set forth in paragraph (b) of this section, provided that no Geographic Unit selected by the Applicant within the area has a poverty rate of less than 20 percent.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Designation.</I> The CDFI Fund will provide a prospective Applicant with data and other information to help it identify areas eligible to be designated as a Distressed Community. If requested, applicants shall submit designation materials as instructed in the applicable NOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.402" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.402   Measuring and reporting Qualified Activities.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An Applicant may receive a BEA Program Award for engaging in any of the following categories of Qualified Activities during an Assessment Period: CDFI Related Activities, Distressed Community Financing Activities, or Service Activities. The CDFI Fund may further qualify such Qualified Activities in the applicable NOFA, including such additional geographic and transaction size limitations as the CDFI Fund deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Reporting Qualified Activities.</I> An Applicant should report only its Qualified Activities for the category or subcategory for which it is seeking a BEA Program Award.
</P>
<P>(1) If an Applicant elects to apply for an award in the CDFI Related Activities category, it may elect to report on one or both types of activities within the CDFI Related Activities category.
</P>
<P>(2) If an Applicant elects to apply for an award in the Distressed Community Financing Activities category, the Applicant must report on the following subcategories:
</P>
<P>(i) Aggregate Consumer Loans; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Aggregate Commercial Loans and Investments; or
</P>
<P>(iii) Both paragraphs (b)(2)(i) and (ii) separately; unless the Applicant provides a reasonable explanation, acceptable to the CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, as to why the Applicant cannot report on aggregated activities in such subcategories.
</P>
<P>(3) If an Applicant elects to apply for an award in the Service Activities category, it may elect to report on one or more types of activities within the Service Activities category.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Area served.</I> CDFI Related Activities must be provided to a CDFI. CDFI Partners that are the recipients of CDFI Support Activities must demonstrate that they are Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community. Service Activities and Distressed Community Financing Activities must serve a Distressed Community. An activity is considered to serve a Distressed Community if it is:
</P>
<P>(1) Undertaken in the Distressed Community; or
</P>
<P>(2) Provided to Eligible Residents or enterprises that are Integrally Involved in the Distressed Community.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Certain limitations on Qualified Activities.</I> Activities funded with the proceeds of Federal funding or tax credit programs are ineligible for purposes of calculating or receiving a Bank Enterprise Award. Please see the applicable NOFA for each funding round's limitations on Qualified Activities. Qualified Activities shall not include loans to or investments in those business types set forth in the Uniform Administrative Requirements.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Measuring the value of Qualified Activities.</I> Subject to such additional or alternative valuations as the CDFI Fund may specify in the applicable NOFA, the CDFI Fund will assess the value of:
</P>
<P>(1) Equity Investments, Equity-Like Loans, loans, grants and certificates of deposits, at the original amount of such Equity Investments, Equity-Like Loans, loans, grants or certificates of deposits. Where a certificate of deposit matures and is then rolled over during the Baseline Period or the Assessment Period, as applicable, the CDFI Fund will assess the value of the full amount of the rolled-over deposit. Where an existing loan is refinanced (meaning, a new loan is originated to pay off an existing loan, whether or not there is a change in the applicable loan terms), the CDFI Fund will only assess the value of any increase in the principal amount of the refinanced loan;
</P>
<P>(2) Project Investments at the original amount of the purchase of stock, limited partnership interest, other ownership interest, or grant;
</P>
<P>(3) Deposit Liabilities at the dollar amount deposited as measured by comparing the net change in the amount of applicable funds on deposit at the Applicant during the Baseline Period with the net change in the amount of applicable funds on deposit at the Applicant during the Assessment Period, as described in paragraphs (e)(3)(i) and (ii) of this section:
</P>
<P>(i) The Applicant shall calculate the net change in deposits during the Baseline Period by comparing the amount of applicable funds on deposit at the close of business the day before the beginning of the Baseline Period and at the close of business on the last day of the Baseline Period; and
</P>
<P>(ii) The Applicant shall calculate the net change in such deposits during the Assessment Period by comparing the amount of applicable funds on deposit at the close of business the day before the beginning of the Assessment Period and at the close of business on the last day of the Assessment Period;
</P>
<P>(4) Financial Services and Targeted Financial Services based on the predetermined amounts as set forth by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA; and
</P>
<P>(5) Financial Services (other than those for which the CDFI Fund has established a predetermined value), Community Services, and CDFI Support Activities consisting of Technical Assistance based on the administrative costs of providing such services.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Closed transactions.</I> A transaction shall be considered to have been closed and carried out during the Baseline Period or the Assessment Period if the documentation evidencing the transaction:
</P>
<P>(1) Is executed on a date within the applicable Baseline Period or Assessment Period, respectively; and
</P>
<P>(2) Constitutes a legally binding agreement between the Applicant and a borrower or investee, which agreement specifies the final terms and conditions of the transaction, except that any contingencies included in the final agreement must be typical of such transaction and acceptable (both in the judgment of the CDFI Fund); and
</P>
<P>(3) An initial cash disbursement of loan or investment proceeds has occurred in a manner that is consistent with customary business practices and is reasonable given the nature of the transaction (as determined by the CDFI Fund), unless it is normal business practice to make no initial disbursement at closing and the Applicant demonstrates that the borrower has access to the proceeds, subject to reasonable conditions as may be determined by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Reporting period.</I> An Applicant must only measure the amount of a Qualified Activity that it reasonably expects to disburse to an investee, borrower, or other recipient within one year of the end of the applicable Assessment Period, or such other period as may be set forth by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.403" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.403   Estimated award amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> An Applicant must calculate and submit to the CDFI Fund an estimated award amount as part of its BEA Program Award application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Award percentages.</I> The CDFI Fund will establish the award percentage for each category and subcategory of Qualified Activities in the applicable NOFA. Applicable award percentages for Qualified Activities undertaken by Applicants that are CDFIs will be equal to three times the award percentages for Qualified Activities undertaken by Applicants that are not CDFIs.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Calculating the estimated award amount for Qualified Activities.</I> (1) The estimated award amount for the CDFI Related Activities category will be equal to the applicable award percentage of the net increase in each activity-type (<I>i.e.,</I> Equity Investments/Equity Like-Loans; and CDFI Support Activities) under the CDFI Related Activities category between the Baseline Period and Assessment Period.
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated award amount for the Distressed Community Financing Activities category will be equal to the applicable award percentage of the weighted value of each subcategory of Distressed Community Financing Activities (<I>i.e.,</I> Consumer Loans; and Commercial Loans and Investments) between the Baseline Period and Assessment Period. The weighted value of the applicable subcategories shall be calculated by:
</P>
<P>(i) Subtracting the Baseline Period value of such subcategory from the Assessment Period value of such subcategory to yield a difference; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplying the difference by the applicable Priority Factor (as set forth in the applicable NOFA).
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated award amount for the Service Activities category will be equal to the applicable award percentage of the weighted value of each activity type between the Baseline Period and Assessment Period. The weighted value of the applicable activity type shall be calculated by:
</P>
<P>(i) Subtracting the Baseline Period value of such Qualified Activity from the Assessment Period value of such Qualified Activity to yield a difference; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Multiplying the difference by the applicable Priority Factor (as set forth in the applicable NOFA).
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Estimated award eligibility review.</I> The CDFI Fund will determine the eligibility of each transaction for which an Applicant has applied for a BEA Program Award. Based upon this review, the CDFI Fund will calculate the actual award amount for which such Applicant is eligible.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.404" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.404   Selection process; actual award amounts.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Sufficient funds available to cover estimated awards.</I> All BEA Program Awards are subject to the availability of funds. If the amount of appropriated funds available during a funding round is sufficient to cover all estimated award amounts for which Applicants are eligible, in the CDFI Fund's determination, and an Applicant meets all of the program requirements specified in this part, then such Applicant shall receive an actual award amount that is calculated by the CDFI Fund in the manner specified in § 1806.403.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Insufficient funds available to cover estimated awards.</I> If the amount of funds available during a funding round is insufficient to cover all estimated award amounts for which Applicants are eligible, in the CDFI Fund's determination, then the CDFI Fund will select Recipients and determine actual award amounts based on the process described in paragraph (c) of this section and any established maximum dollar amount of awards that may be awarded for the Distressed Community Financing Activities subcategories, as described in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Priority of awards.</I> In circumstances where there are insufficient funds to cover estimated awards, the CDFI Fund will rank Applicants based on whether the Applicant is a CDFI or a non-CDFI, and in each category of Qualified Activity (<I>e.g.,</I> Service Activities) according to the priorities described in this paragraph (c). Selections within each priority category will be based on the Applicants' relative rankings within each category, and based on whether the Applicant is a CDFI or a non-CDFI, subject to the availability of funds.
</P>
<P>(1) <I>First priority.</I> If the amount of funds available during a funding round is insufficient for all estimated award amounts, first priority will be given to CDFI Applicants that engaged in CDFI Related Activities, followed by non-CDFI Applicants that engaged in CDFI Related Activities ranked in the ratio as set forth in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Second priority.</I> If the amount of funds available during a funding round is sufficient for all first priority Applicants but insufficient for all remaining estimated award amounts, second priority will be given to CDFI Applicants that engaged in Distressed Community Financing Activities, followed by non-CDFI Applicants that engaged in Distressed Community Financing Activities, ranked in the ratio as set forth in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Third priority.</I> If the amount of funds available during a funding round is sufficient for all first and second priority Applicants, but insufficient for all remaining estimated award amounts, third priority will be given to CDFI Applicants that engaged in Service Activities, followed by non-CDFI Applicants that engaged in Service Activities, ranked in the ratio as set forth in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Calculating actual award amounts.</I> The CDFI Fund will determine actual award amounts based upon the availability of funds, increases in Qualified Activities from the Baseline to the Assessment Period, and an Applicant's priority ranking. If an Applicant receives an award for more than one priority category described in this section, the CDFI Fund will combine the award amounts into a single BEA Program Award.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Unobligated or deobligated funds.</I> The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may use any deobligated funds or funds not obligated during a funding round:
</P>
<P>(1) To select Applicants not previously selected, using the calculation and selection process contained in this part;
</P>
<P>(2) To make additional monies available for a subsequent funding round; or
</P>
<P>(3) As otherwise authorized by the Act.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Limitation.</I> The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, may deny or limit the amount of a BEA Program Award for any reason.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.405" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.4.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.405   Applications for BEA Program Awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Notice of funding availability; applications.</I> Applicants must submit applications for BEA Program Awards in accordance with this section and the applicable NOFA. An Applicant's application must demonstrate a realistic course of action to ensure that it will meet the requirements described in subpart D of this part within the period set forth in the applicable NOFA. Detailed application content requirements are found in the related application and applicable NOFA. The CDFI Fund will not disburse an award to an Applicant before it meets the eligibility requirements described in the applicable NOFA. The CDFI Fund shall require an Applicant to meet any additional eligibility requirements that the CDFI Fund deems appropriate. After receipt of an application, the CDFI Fund may request clarifying or technical information related to materials submitted as part of such application and/or to verify that Qualified Activities were carried out in the manner prescribed in this part. The CDFI Fund, in its sole discretion, shall determine whether an applicant fulfills the requirements set for forth in this part and the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application contents.</I> An application for a BEA Program Award must contain:
</P>
<P>(1) A completed electronic application module that reports the increases in Qualified Activities actually carried out during the Assessment Period as compared to those carried out during the Baseline Period. If an Applicant has merged with another institution during the Assessment Period, it must determine the Baseline Period amounts and Assessment Period amounts of the Qualified Activities of the merged institutions, and report the increase;
</P>
<P>(2) An electronic application module which includes transactions to be considered for award calculation purposes. The transactions will include Qualified Activities that were closed during the Assessment Period. Applicants shall describe the original amount, census tract served (if applicable), dates of execution, initial disbursement, and final disbursement of the instrument for each transaction;
</P>
<P>(3) Documentation of Qualified Activities that meets the required thresholds and conditions described in § 1806.402(f) and the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P>(4) Information necessary for the CDFI Fund to complete its environmental review requirements pursuant to part 1815 of this chapter;
</P>
<P>(5) Certifications, as described in the applicable NOFA and BEA Program Award application, that the information provided to the CDFI Fund is true and accurate and that the Applicant will comply with all relevant provisions of this chapter and all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, ordinances, regulations, policies, guidelines, and requirements;
</P>
<P>(6) In the case of an Applicant that engaged in Service Activities, or Distressed Community Financing Activities, the Applicant must confirm, by submitting documentation as described in the applicable NOFA and BEA Program application, the Service Activities or Distressed Community Financing Activities were provided to:
</P>
<P>(i) Eligible Residents; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A business located in a Distressed Community.
</P>
<P>(7) Information that indicates that each CDFI to which an Applicant has provided CDFI Support Activities is Integrally Involved in a Distressed Community, as described in the applicable NOFA and BEA Program application; and
</P>
<P>(8) Any other information requested by the CDFI Fund, or specified by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA or the BEA Program application, in order to document or otherwise assess the validity of information provided by the Applicant to the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Terms and Conditions of Assistance</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.500" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.500   Award Agreement; sanctions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After the CDFI Fund selects a Recipient, the CDFI Fund and the Recipient will enter into an Award Agreement. In addition to the requirements of the Uniform Administrative Requirements, the Award Agreement will require that the Recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Must carry out its Eligible Activities in accordance with applicable law, the approved BEA Program application, and all other applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(2) Must comply with such other terms and conditions that the CDFI Fund may establish;
</P>
<P>(3) Will not receive any BEA Program Award payment until the CDFI Fund has determined that the Recipient has fulfilled all applicable requirements;
</P>
<P>(4) Must comply with performance goals that have been established by the CDFI Fund. Such performance goals will include measures that require the Recipient to use its BEA Program Award funds for Eligible Activities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Must comply with all data collection and reporting requirements. Each Recipient must submit to the CDFI Fund such information and documentation that will permit the CDFI Fund to review the Recipient's progress in satisfying the terms and conditions of its Award Agreement, including:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Annual report.</I> Each Recipient shall submit to the CDFI Fund at least annually and within 90 days after the end of each year of the Recipient's performance period, an annual report that will provide data that, among other things, demonstrates the Recipient's compliance with its performance goals (including a description of any noncompliance), its uses of the BEA Program Award funds, and the impact of the BEA Program and the CDFI industry. Recipients are responsible for the timely and complete submission of the annual report.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Financial statement.</I> A Recipient is not required to submit its financial statement to the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund may obtain the necessary information from publicly available sources.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Sanctions.</I> In the event of any fraud, misrepresentation, or noncompliance with the terms of the Award Agreement by the Recipient, the CDFI Fund may terminate, reduce, or recapture the award, bar the Recipient and/or its Affiliates from applying for an award from the CDFI Fund for a period to be decided by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion, and pursue any other available legal remedies.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Compliance with other CDFI Fund awards.</I> In the event that an Applicant, Recipient, or its Subsidiary or Affiliate is not in compliance, as determined by the CDFI Fund, with the terms and conditions of any CDFI Fund award, the CDFI Fund may, in its sole discretion, bar said Applicant or Recipient from applying for future BEA Program Awards or withhold payment (either initial or subsequent) of BEA Program Award funds.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Notice.</I> Prior to imposing any sanctions pursuant to this section or an Award Agreement, the CDFI Fund will provide the Recipient with written notice of the proposed sanction and an opportunity to respond. Nothing in this section, however, will provide a Recipient with the right to any formal or informal hearing or comparable proceeding not otherwise required by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.501" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.501   Compliance with government requirements.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its responsibilities pursuant to an Award Agreement, the Recipient must comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, regulations (including but not limited to the Uniform Administrative Requirements, ordinances, and Executive Orders).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.502" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.502   Fraud, waste, and abuse.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who becomes aware of the existence or apparent existence of fraud, waste, or abuse of assistance provided under this part should report such incidences to the Office of Inspector General of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.503" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.503   Books of account, records, and government access.</HEAD>
<P>(a) A Recipient shall submit such financial and activity reports, records, statements, and documents at such times, in such forms, and accompanied by such supporting data, as required by the CDFI Fund and the U.S. Department of the Treasury to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part. The United States Government, including the U.S. Department of the Treasury, the Comptroller General, and its duly authorized representatives, shall have full and free access to the Recipient's offices and facilities, and all books, documents, records, and financial statements relevant to the award of the Federal funds and may copy such documents as they deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) The Award Agreement provides that the provisions of the Act, this part, and the Award Agreement are enforceable under 12 U.S.C. 1818 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, as applicable, and that any violation of such provisions shall be treated as a violation of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act. Nothing in this paragraph (b) precludes the CDFI Fund from directly enforcing the Award Agreement as provided for under the terms of the Act.
</P>
<P>(c) The CDFI Fund will notify the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency before imposing any sanctions on a Recipient that is examined by or subject to the reporting requirements of that agency. The CDFI Fund will not impose a sanction described in § 1806.500(b) if the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency, in writing, not later than 30 calendar days after receiving notice from the CDFI Fund:
</P>
<P>(1) Objects to the proposed sanction;
</P>
<P>(2) Determines that the sanction would:
</P>
<P>(i) Have a material adverse effect on the safety and soundness of the Recipient; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Impede or interfere with an enforcement action against that Recipient by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency;
</P>
<P>(3) Proposes a comparable alternative action; and
</P>
<P>(4) Specifically explains:
</P>
<P>(i) The basis for the determination under paragraph (c)(2) of this section and, if appropriate, provides documentation to support the determination; and
</P>
<P>(ii) How the alternative action suggested pursuant to paragraph (c)(3) of this section would be as effective as the sanction proposed by the CDFI Fund in securing compliance and deterring future noncompliance.
</P>
<P>(d) Prior to imposing any sanctions pursuant to this section or an Award Agreement, the CDFI Fund shall, to the maximum extent practicable, provide the Recipient with written notice of the proposed sanction and an opportunity to comment. Nothing in this section, however, shall provide a Recipient to any formal or informal hearing or comparable proceeding not otherwise required by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1806.504" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.3.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1806.504   Retention of records.</HEAD>
<P>A Recipient must comply with all record retention requirements as set forth in the Uniform Administrative Requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1807" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1807—CAPITAL MAGNET FUND
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4569.


</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>89 FR 53015, June 25, 2024, unless otherwise noted.




</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.100" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the Capital Magnet Fund (CMF) is to attract private capital for and increase investment in Affordable Housing Activities and related Economic Development Activities in every State of the United States, the District of Columbia, or territories of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.101" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.101   Summary.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Through the CMF, the CDFI Fund competitively awards grants to Certified CDFIs and qualified Nonprofit Organizations to leverage dollars for:
</P>
<P>(1) The Development, Preservation, Rehabilitation or Purchase of Affordable Housing primarily for Low-Income Families; and
</P>
<P>(2) The financing of Economic Development Activities.
</P>
<P>(b) The CDFI Fund selects Recipients to receive CMF Awards through a competitive Application process. CMF Awards may only be used for Eligible Uses set forth in subpart C of this part. Each Recipient will enter into an Assistance Agreement that will require it to leverage the CMF Award amount and abide by other terms and conditions pertinent to any assistance received under this part.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.102" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.102   Relationship to other CDFI Fund programs.</HEAD>
<P>Restrictions on applying for, receiving, and using the CMF Awards in conjunction with awards under other programs administered by the CDFI Fund are set forth in the applicable funding notice.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.103" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.103   Recipient not instrumentality.</HEAD>
<P>No Recipient shall be deemed to be an agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.104" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.104   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For the purpose of this part:
</P>
<P><I>Act</I> means the Housing and Economic Recovery Act of 2008, as amended, Public Law 110-289, section 1131;
</P>
<P><I>Affiliate</I> means any entity that Controls, is Controlled by, or is under common Control with, an entity;
</P>
<P><I>Affordability Period</I> means a period of at least 10 years or other longer time period in the applicable NOFA issued by the CDFI Fund, during which time the Recipient must ensure the affordability requirements set forth herein and/or the Assistance Agreement are met for each Project;
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing</I> means housing that meets the requirements set forth in subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing Activities</I> means the Development, Preservation, Rehabilitation, and/or Purchase of Affordable Housing or Secondary Market Mortgage Purchase;
</P>
<P><I>Affordable Housing Fund</I> means an investment fund consisting of the CMF Award and any Leveraged Capital that the Recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Manages and makes investment decisions for; and
</P>
<P>(2) Uses to finance Affordable Housing Activities in any combination of debt, grant, or equity investments, which does not include the purchase of stock, securities, or the buy-out of partnership interests;
</P>
<P><I>Applicant</I> means any entity submitting an Application for a CMF Award;
</P>
<P><I>Application</I> means the CDFI Fund's CMF application form, including any written or verbal information in connection therewith and any exhibits, attachments, appendices and/or written or verbal supplements thereto, submitted by an Applicant to the CDFI Fund, in response to the applicable Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA);
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q), and includes, with respect to Insured Credit Unions, the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P><I>Appropriate State Agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of a State that regulates and/or insures the member accounts of a State-Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P><I>Assistance Agreement</I> means a formal, written agreement between the CDFI Fund and a Recipient that specifies the terms and conditions of assistance under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Capital Magnet Fund (or CMF)</I> means the program authorized by the Act and implemented under this part;
</P>
<P><I>Certified Community Development Financial Institution (or Certified CDFI)</I> means an entity that has been determined by the CDFI Fund to meet the certification requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201;
</P>
<P><I>CMF Award</I> means the financial assistance in the form of a grant made by the CDFI Fund to a Recipient pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P><I>CMF Unit</I> means
</P>
<P>(1) A single residential unit of Housing financed or supported with a CMF Award, rented or owned by a Family, with dedicated kitchen and bath facilities that meets the requirements of subparts D and E, as applicable; or
</P>
<P>(2) A single-room occupancy (SRO) unit, a group home, or an assisted living facility with shared common kitchen and bath facilities accompanied by an individual lease for each tenant that meets the requirements of subparts D and E of this part;
</P>
<P><I>Committed for Use</I> means as set forth in § 1807.501, that the Recipient is able to demonstrate, in written form and substance that is acceptable to the CDFI Fund, a commitment for Eligible Use of the CMF Award;
</P>
<P><I>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund (or CDFI Fund)</I> means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, the U.S. Department of the Treasury, established pursuant to the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994, as amended, 12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P><I>Community Service Facility</I> means the physical structure in which service programs directly benefit nearby residents of any affordable housing. These service programs serve residents of affordable housing and include, but are not limited to, health care, childcare, educational programs including literacy and after school programs, job training, food and nutrition services, arts, and/or social services, as further set forth in the Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P><I>Concerted Strategy</I> means a formal planning document that evidences the connection between Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities. Such documents include, but are not limited to, a comprehensive, consolidated, or redevelopment plan, or some other local or regional planning document adopted or approved by the jurisdiction;
</P>
<P><I>Control</I> means:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control, or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of Voting Securities of any company, directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons;
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of any company; or
</P>
<P>(3) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence over the management, credit or investment decisions, or policies of any company;
</P>
<P><I>Depository Institution Holding Company</I> means a bank holding company or a savings and loan holding company as each are defined in the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(w);
</P>
<P><I>Development</I> means any combination of the following activities: Land acquisition, demolition of existing facilities, and construction of new facilities, which may include site improvement, utilities development and rehabilitation of utilities, necessary infrastructure, utility services, conversion, and other related activities resulting in Affordable Housing;
</P>
<P><I>Direct Administrative Expenses</I> as described in 2 CFR 200.413 of the Uniform Administrative Requirements, means direct costs incurred by the Recipient, related to the financing and/or in support of Projects;
</P>
<P><I>Economic Development Activity</I> means the development, preservation, acquisition and/or rehabilitation of Community Service Facilities and/or other physical structures in which businesses operate in order to implement a Concerted Strategy to stabilize, sustain, or revitalize communities and neighborhoods physically proximate to any affordable housing benefiting a Low-Income Area or Underserved Rural Area, subject to subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P><I>Economic Development Activity Fund</I> means an investment fund consisting of the CMF Award and any Leveraged Capital that the Recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Manages and makes investment decisions for; and
</P>
<P>(2) Uses to finance Economic Development Activities in any combination of debt, grant, or equity, which does not include the purchase of stock, securities, or the buy-out of partnership interests;
</P>
<P><I>Effective Date</I> means the date that the Assistance Agreement is effective; such date is determined by the CDFI Fund after the Recipient has returned an executed Assistance Agreement, along with all required supporting documentation, including an opinion from its legal counsel, if required;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible-Income</I> means having, in the case of owner-occupied or rental Housing units, annual income at 120 percent or below of the area median income, adjusted for Family size, in the same manner as HUD makes these adjustments for its other published income limits;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Project Costs</I> means all eligible development, financing, refinancing, acquisition, relocation, loan loss reserve, guarantee, predevelopment, and related soft costs incurred in the achievement of Project Completion, as described in the Assistance Agreement, paid using a CMF Award and any Leveraged Capital;
</P>
<P><I>Eligible Uses</I> means allowable uses of the CMF Award set forth in § 1807.301;
</P>
<P><I>Extremely Low-Income</I> means, in the case of owner-occupied or rental Housing units, having income at 30 percent or below of the area median income, adjusted for Family size, as determined by HUD, except that HUD may establish income ceilings higher or lower than 30 percent of the median for the area on the basis of HUD findings that such variations are necessary because of prevailing levels of construction costs or fair market rents, or unusually high or low incomes;
</P>
<P><I>Family</I> means a household of one or more persons living in the same dwelling unit. All persons in a household who are related by birth, marriage or adoption are regarded as members of the Family. A Family may also include individuals living in a household who are not related to each other;
</P>
<P><I>Feasibility Determination Expenses</I> mean direct costs, as defined by the Uniform Administrative Requirements, and incurred by the Recipient to determine the feasibility of potential Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities to implement the CMF Award. These costs must be incurred before Project Commitment. Costs designated as Feasibility Determination Expenses cannot be deemed as Eligible Project Costs. Such expenses may include, but are not limited to, preliminary market studies, engineering, architectural analyses, financial feasibility analyses, and other costs as further detailed in the Assistance Agreement and guidance provided by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P><I>Homebuyer</I> means a Family that does not currently own any Single-family housing or is in the process of selling and replacing their primary residence. A Homebuyer may not own any other Single-family housing or Multi-family housing. Notwithstanding this definition, a Homebuyer includes a Family that owns a manufactured housing unit and is in the process of replacing or refinancing it, or owns a manufactured housing unit as part of the conversion of a manufactured housing park to a tenant-owned park or cooperative;
</P>
<P><I>HOME Program</I> means the HOME Investment Partnership Program established by the HOME Investment Partnerships Act under title II of the Cranston-Gonzalez National Affordable Housing Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 12701 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P><I>Homeownership</I> means ownership interest in a home in fee simple, or by condominium, cooperative, mutual housing, or ground lease title interest, as allowed under State law, in one- to four-unit Single-family housing, or ownership of a manufactured housing unit. The ownership interest is subject to the following additional requirements:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership interest may not merely consist of a right of possession under a contract for deed, installment contract, or land contract pursuant to which the deed is not given until the final payment is made; and
</P>
<P>(2) Ownership interest is subject to the restrictions on affordability permitted under the Assistance Agreement and this part; mortgages, deeds of trust, or other liens or instruments securing debt on the property; or any other restrictions or encumbrances that do not impair the good and marketable nature of title to the ownership interest;
</P>
<P><I>Homeownership Program</I> means an affordable housing program established by a Recipient for the purpose of providing direct financing or grants to Homebuyers to purchase Single-family housing. The Project Commitment requirements of § 1807.501 are satisfied if the board of directors of the Recipient makes a Project Commitment of the CMF Award to the Homeownership Program by resolution in a form and substance acceptable to the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P><I>Housing</I> means Single-family and Multi-family residential units including, but not limited to, manufactured housing, permanent supportive housing, single-room occupancy (SRO) housing, assisted living, and group homes that are permanent in nature and not temporary, short term, transitional, or a dormitory, as further set forth by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P><I>HUD</I> means the Department of Housing and Urban Development established under the Department of Housing and Urban Development Act of 1965, 42 U.S.C. 3532 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P><I>Indian Tribe</I> means any Indian Tribe, band, pueblo, nation, or other organized group or community, including any Alaska Native village or regional or village corporation, as defined in or established pursuant to the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (43 U.S.C. 1601 <I>et seq.</I>). Each such Indian Tribe must be recognized as eligible for special programs and services provided by the United States to Indians because of their status as Indians;
</P>
<P><I>Insured CDFI</I> means a Certified CDFI that is an Insured Depository Institution or an Insured Credit Union;
</P>
<P><I>Insured Credit Union</I> means any credit union, the member accounts of which are insured by the National Credit Union Share Insurance Fund by the National Credit Union Administration pursuant to authority granted in 12 U.S.C. 1783 <I>et seq.;</I>
</P>
<P><I>Insured Depository Institution</I> means any bank or thrift, the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation pursuant to authority granted in 12 U.S.C. 1813(c)(2);
</P>
<P><I>Investment Period</I> means the period beginning with the Effective Date and ending on the fifth year anniversary of the Effective Date, or such other period as may be established by the CDFI Fund in the Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P><I>Leveraged Capital</I> means capital raised to finance the costs for Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities that exceeds the dollar amount of the CMF Award, as further described in § 1807.500;
</P>
<P><I>Loan Guarantee</I> means the Recipient's use of the CMF Award to support an agreement to indemnify the holder of a loan for all or a portion of the unpaid principal balance in case of default by the borrower. The proceeds of the loan that is guaranteed with the CMF Award must be used for Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities;
</P>
<P><I>Loan Loss Reserves</I> means proceeds from the CMF Award that the Recipient will set aside in the form of cash reserves, or through accounting-based accrual reserves, to cover losses on loans, accounts, and notes receivable for Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities, or for related purposes that the CDFI Fund deems appropriate;
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income</I> means, in the case of owner-occupied or rental Housing units, having income at 80 percent or below of the area median income, adjusted for Family size, as determined by HUD, except that HUD may establish income ceilings higher or lower than 80 percent of the median for the area on the basis of HUD findings that such variations are necessary because of prevailing levels of construction costs or fair market rents, or unusually high or low Family incomes;
</P>
<P><I>Low-Income Area (or LIA)</I> means a census tract in which the median family income does not exceed 80 percent of the area median family income. With respect to a census tract located within a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the Metropolitan Area median family income or the national Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater. In the case of a census tract located outside of a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the statewide Non-Metropolitan Area median family income or the national Non-Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater;
</P>
<P><I>Low Income Housing Tax Credits (or LIHTCs)</I> means credits against income tax under section 42 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, 26 U.S.C. 42;
</P>
<P><I>Metropolitan Area</I> means an area designated as such by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e) and 31 U.S.C. 1104(d) and Executive Order 10253 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 758), as amended, and as made available by the CDFI Fund for a specific Application funding round;
</P>
<P><I>Multi-family housing</I> means residential properties consisting of five or more dwelling units, such as a condominium unit, cooperative unit, or an apartment;
</P>
<P><I>Non-Metropolitan Area</I> means counties that are designated as Non-Metropolitan Counties by the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e) and 31 U.S.C. 1104(d) and Executive Order 10253 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 758), as amended, and as made available by the CDFI Fund for a specific Application funding round;
</P>
<P><I>Nonprofit Organization</I> means any corporation, trust, association, cooperative, or other organization that is:
</P>
<P>(1) Designated as a nonprofit or not-for-profit entity under the laws of the organization's State or Indian Tribe of formation;
</P>
<P>(2) Exempt from Federal income taxation pursuant to section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, with the exception of organizations affiliated with Indian Tribes; and
</P>
<P>(3) Able to demonstrate, as set forth in the NOFA, that a share of its total assets is dedicated to the development or management of affordable housing;
</P>
<P><I>Payment</I> means the transmission of CMF Award dollars from the CDFI Fund to the Recipient;
</P>
<P><I>Permanent Housing</I> means Housing that is owned or is rented under a written lease with an initial lease term of six months or more;
</P>
<P><I>Preservation</I> means the acquisition, refinancing, recapitalization, of existing Multi-family rental housing or Single-family housing, with or without Rehabilitation, to create, maintain, or extend the affordability requirement as provided in subpart D of this part. Preservation may include the refinancing of owner-occupied Single-family housing or Multi-family rental housing to extend the existing affordability restrictions set to expire during the Investment Period, or other timeline as defined by the CDFI Fund, by at least an additional 10-year Affordability Period or as set forth in the Assistance Agreement. Preservation may also include the imposition of a new Affordability Period on Housing not currently subject to affordability restrictions;
</P>
<P><I>Presumptively Compliant</I> or <I>Presumptive Compliance</I> means certain rules, requirements and designations under other Federal housing programs that the CDFI Fund deems to meet certain CMF requirements;
</P>
<P><I>Program Income</I> means gross income as described in 2 CFR part 200 and as further specified in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P><I>Project</I> means a specific Affordable Housing Activity, Economic Development Activity, or Homeownership Program the Recipient uses its CMF Award to finance or support, resulting in Project Completion;
</P>
<P><I>Project Commitment</I> means that the Recipient is able to demonstrate, in written form and substance that is acceptable to the CDFI Fund, a commitment to a Project as set forth in § 1807.501;
</P>
<P><I>Project Completion</I> means that all of the requirements set forth at § 1807.503 for a Project have been met;
</P>
<P><I>Purchase</I> means to use a CMF Award to provide financing to:
</P>
<P>(1) A Family for Homeownership that meet the qualifications set forth in subparts D and E; or
</P>
<P>(2) A developer or project sponsor for the acquisition of rental Housing that must meet the qualifications set forth in subparts D and E of this part;
</P>
<P><I>Recipient</I> means an Applicant selected by the CDFI Fund to receive a CMF Award pursuant to this part;
</P>
<P><I>Rehabilitation</I> means any repairs and/or capital improvements that contribute to the long-term preservation, current building code compliance, habitability, sustainability, or energy efficiency of Affordable Housing;
</P>
<P><I>Revolving Loan Fund</I> means an investment fund consisting of the CMF Award and any Leveraged Capital that the Recipient:
</P>
<P>(1) Manages and approves lending decisions for; and
</P>
<P>(2) Uses to finance Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities wherein the repayments on such loans are used to finance additional loans;
</P>
<P><I>Risk-Sharing Loan</I> means loans consisting of the CMF Award and any Leveraged Capital made for Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities in which the risk of borrower default is shared by the Recipient with other lenders (<I>e.g.,</I> participation loans);
</P>
<P><I>Rural Area</I> means a census tract that meets the definition of Rural Area per 12 CFR 1282.1 (Enterprise Duty To Serve Final Rule) that is: A census tract outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget; or A census tract in a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget that is outside of the Metropolitan Statistical Area's Urbanized Areas, as designated by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) Code #1, and outside of tracts with a housing density of over 64 housing units per square mile for USDA's RUCA Code #2;
</P>
<P><I>Secondary Market Mortgage</I> means a mortgage:
</P>
<P>(1) Originated by a qualified third party lender as defined in guidance by the CDFI Fund and purchased by the Recipient in 12 months or less from the date of its origination using a CMF Award and evidenced by an agreement that meets subparts C, D and E of this part;
</P>
<P>(2) For which the source of the origination is not the CMF Award; and
</P>
<P>(3) That would not have been originated but for the Recipient's Secondary Market Mortgage Purchase;
</P>
<P><I>Secondary Market Mortgage Purchase</I> means the purchase of a Secondary Market Mortgage;
</P>
<P><I>Service Area</I> means the geographic area in which the Applicant proposes to use the CMF Award, and the geographic area approved by the CDFI Fund in which the Recipient must use the CMF Award as set forth in its Assistance Agreement. Service Area may include a national Service Area for Rural Areas and additional areas that may be defined by the CDFI Fund in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P><I>Single-family housing</I> means a one- to four- unit Family residence, a condominium unit, a cooperative unit, mutual housing, a manufactured housing unit only, or the combination of a manufactured housing unit and lot;
</P>
<P><I>State</I> means the states of the United States, the District of Columbia, or any territory of the United States;
</P>
<P><I>State-Insured Credit Union</I> means any credit union that is regulated by, and/or the member accounts of which are insured by, a State agency or instrumentality;
</P>
<P><I>Subsidiary</I> means any company that is majority owned, or Controlled directly, or indirectly, by another company. For purposes of ownership, a Subsidiary's parent company possesses more than 50 percent ownership of the Subsidiary;
</P>
<P><I>Underserved Rural Area</I> means all Rural Areas as defined as a census tract that meets the definition of Rural Area per 12 CFR 1282.1 (Enterprise Duty To Serve Final Rule) that is: A census tract outside of a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget; or A census tract in a Metropolitan Statistical Area as designated by the Office of Management and Budget that is outside of the Metropolitan Statistical Area's Urbanized Areas, as designated by the U.S. Department of Agriculture's (USDA) Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) Code #1, and outside of tracts with a housing density of over 64 housing units per square mile for USDA's RUCA Code #2;
</P>
<P><I>Uniform Administrative Requirements</I> means the Uniform Administrative Requirements, Cost Principles, and Audit Requirements for Federal Awards (2 CFR part 200);
</P>
<P><I>Very Low-Income</I> means, in the case of owner-occupied or rental Housing, having income at 60 percent or below of the area median income, with adjustments for Family size, as determined by HUD, except that HUD may establish income ceilings higher or lower than 60 percent of the median for the area on the basis of HUD findings that such variations are necessary because of prevailing levels of construction costs or fair market rents, or unusually high or low Family incomes;


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.105" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.105   Waiver authority.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund may waive any requirement of this part that is not required by law upon a determination of good cause. Each such waiver shall be in writing and supported by a statement of the facts and the grounds forming the basis of the waiver. For a waiver in an individual case, the CDFI Fund must determine that application of the requirement to be waived would not adversely affect achieving the purposes of the Act. For waivers of general applicability, the CDFI Fund will publish notification of granted waivers in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E>.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.106" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.106   Presumptive Compliance with Other Federal Programs.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund may deem certain other Federal program requirements, designations and/or reporting criteria as being Presumptively Compliant with any of the CMF program requirements set forth herein. Recipients participating in and meeting the program requirements of such designated Federal programs may be deemed compliant with certain CMF program requirements, as provided for in the Assistance Agreement or other CDFI Fund guidance and materials.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.107" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.1.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.107   Applicability of regulations for CMF Awards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The regulations of this part are applicable for all uncommitted funds from prior CMF Awards issued as of June 25, 2024, as well as all CMF Awards made pursuant to all Notices of Funds Availability published after June 25, 2024.
</P>
<P>(b) The definition of “Nonprofit Organization” is applicable to any Notice of Funds Availability published on or after January 1, 2026; until that time, the definition of “Nonprofit Organization” in § 1807.104 of the 2016 interim rule remains in effect.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.200" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.200   Applicant eligibility.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General requirements.</I> An Applicant will be deemed eligible to apply for a CMF Award if it is:
</P>
<P>(1) A Certified CDFI. An entity may meet the requirements described in this paragraph (a)(1) if it is:
</P>
<P>(i) A Certified CDFI, as set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201;
</P>
<P>(ii) A Certified CDFI that has been in existence as a legally formed entity as set forth in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA); or
</P>
<P>(2) A Nonprofit Organization having as one of its principal purposes, the development or management of affordable housing. A Nonprofit Organization may meet the requirements described in this paragraph (a)(2) if it:
</P>
<P>(i) Has been in existence as a legally formed entity as set forth in the applicable NOFA;
</P>
<P>(ii) Demonstrates, through articles of incorporation, by-laws, or other board- approved documents, that the development or management of affordable housing are among its principal purposes; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Demonstrates, by providing information described in the Application, NOFA, and/or supplemental information, as may be requested by the CDFI Fund, that a certain percentage, set forth in the applicable NOFA, of the Applicant's total assets are dedicated to the development or management of affordable housing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility verification.</I> An Applicant shall demonstrate that it meets the eligibility requirements described in paragraph (a)(2) of this section by providing information described in the Application, NOFA, and/or supplemental information, as may be requested by the CDFI Fund. For an Applicant seeking eligibility under paragraph (a)(1) of this section, the CDFI Fund will verify that the Applicant is a Certified CDFI as described in the applicable NOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.201-1807.299" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.201-1807.299   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Eligible Purposes; Eligible Uses; Restrictions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.300" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.300   Eligible purposes.</HEAD>
<P>Each Recipient must use its CMF Award for the Eligible Uses described in § 1807.301 so long as such Eligible Uses increase private capital for and increase investment in:
</P>
<P>(a) Development, Preservation, Rehabilitation, and/or Purchase of Affordable Housing for primarily Extremely Low-Income, Very Low-Income, and Low-Income Families; and
</P>
<P>(b) Economic Development Activities, as further described in § 1807.403, which stabilize, sustain, or revitalize communities and neighborhoods and must be: located in a Low-Income Area or Underserved Rural Area; undertaken in conjunction with any affordable housing that is authorized as such under applicable local, State or Federal housing program laws, and reasonably available to, physically proximate to, and beneficial to residents of affordable housing.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.301" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.301   Eligible Uses.</HEAD>
<P>The Recipient must use its CMF Award to finance and support Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities through the following Eligible Uses:
</P>
<P>(a) To capitalize Loan Loss Reserves;
</P>
<P>(b) To capitalize a Revolving Loan Fund;
</P>
<P>(c) To capitalize an Affordable Housing Fund;
</P>
<P>(d) To capitalize an Economic Development Activity Fund;
</P>
<P>(e) To make Risk-Sharing Loans; and
</P>
<P>(f) To provide Loan Guarantees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.302" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.302   Restrictions on use of a CMF Award.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Recipient may not use its CMF Award for the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Political activities;
</P>
<P>(2) Advocacy;
</P>
<P>(3) Lobbying, whether directly or through other parties;
</P>
<P>(4) Counseling services (including Homebuyer or financial counseling);
</P>
<P>(5) Travel expenses;
</P>
<P>(6) Preparing or providing advice on tax returns;
</P>
<P>(7) Emergency shelters (including shelters for disaster victims);
</P>
<P>(8) Nursing homes;
</P>
<P>(9) Convalescent homes;
</P>
<P>(10) Residential treatment facilities;
</P>
<P>(11) Correctional facilities; or
</P>
<P>(12) Dormitories.
</P>
<P>(b) The Recipient shall not use the CMF Award to finance or support Projects that include:
</P>
<P>(1) The operation of any private or commercial golf course, country club, massage parlor, hot tub facility, suntan facility, racetrack or other facility used for gambling, or any store the principal business of which is the sale of alcoholic beverages for consumption off premises, or any of the businesses of activities set forth in 13 CFR 120.110(c) through (p), or any other businesses deemed inconsistent with the general purpose the Riegle Community Development and Regulatory Improvement Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>); or
</P>
<P>(2) Farming activities (within the meaning of the Internal Revenue Code (IRC) section 2032A(e)(5)(A) or (B)), if, as of the close of the taxable year of the taxpayer conducting such trade or business, the sum of the aggregate unadjusted bases (or, if greater, the fair market value) of the assets owned by the taxpayer that are used in such a trade or business, and the aggregate value of the assets leased by the taxpayer that are used in such trade or business, exceeds $500,000.
</P>
<P>(c) For each individual CMF Award, the Recipient may not use more than 30 percent of its CMF Award for Economic Development Activities, if such use is approved in its applicable Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(d) Any Recipient that uses its CMF Award for a Loan Guarantee or Loan Loss Reserves must ensure that loan(s) made pursuant to a Loan Guarantee or Loan Loss Reserves finance Affordable Housing Activities and/or Economic Development Activities. The Affordable Housing resulting from the Recipient's Loan Guarantee or Loan Loss Reserve shall be tracked during the Affordability Period for compliance with the affordability requirements as set forth in subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(e) If loans that are made pursuant to a Loan Guarantee or Loan Loss Reserves are repaid during the Investment Period, the Recipient must use the funds made available by the loan repayment as Program Income as set forth in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(f) The Recipient may use its CMF Award for Direct Administrative Expenses or Feasibility Determination Expenses at amounts set forth in the applicable NOFA and corresponding Assistance Agreement. Neither Direct Administrative Expenses nor Feasibility Determination Expenses can be attributable to Eligible Project Costs for a Project.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.303" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.303   Authorized uses of Program Income.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Program Income earned in the form of principal and equity repayments must be used by the Recipient in the manner further set forth in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Program Income earned in the form of interest payments, and all other forms of Program Income (except for that which is earned as described in paragraph (a) of this section), must be used by the Recipient as set forth in the Assistance Agreement and in accordance with 2 CFR part 200.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Qualification as Affordable Housing</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.400" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.400   Affordable Housing—General.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For any amount of the CMF Award used for Affordable Housing Activities, 100 percent of such Eligible Project Costs must be attributable to Affordable Housing, meaning that the Affordable Housing complies with the affordability qualifications set forth in this subpart for Eligible-Income Families. Further, as a subset of said 100 percent, greater than 50 percent of the Eligible Project Costs must be attributable to Affordable Housing that comply with the affordability qualifications set forth in this subpart for Low-Income, Very Low-Income, or Extremely Low-Income Families, or as further set forth in the applicable NOFA and/or Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) Affordable Housing must be Permanent Housing.
</P>
<P>(c) All the occupants of the Affordable Housing must not be full-time students unless they are:
</P>
<P>(1) Married students who file a joint tax return;
</P>
<P>(2) Students who receive assistance under Title IV of the Social Security Act;
</P>
<P>(3) Students enrolled in a job training program;
</P>
<P>(4) Students who are single parents with children who are their dependents, as defined in IRC sec. 152;
</P>
<P>(5) Students who previously were part of a foster care program; or
</P>
<P>(6) Meet other criteria specified by the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.401" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.401   Affordable Housing—Rental Housing.</HEAD>
<P>To qualify as Affordable Housing, each rental Multi-family housing Project financed with a CMF Award must have at least 20 percent of the units rent-restricted to any combination of Low-Income, Very Low-Income, or Extremely Low-Income Families and must comply with the rent limits as set forth in the applicable NOFA and Assistance Agreement in any CMF funding round. The CDFI Fund may require a greater percentage of the units per Project to be income-targeted and/or require a specific targeted income commitment in any given CMF round, as set forth in the applicable NOFA and Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Rent limitations.</I> The gross rent limits for Affordable Housing are further specified in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nondiscrimination against rental assistance subsidy holders.</I> The Recipient shall require that the owner of a rental unit cannot refuse to lease the unit to a Section 8 Program certificate or voucher holder (24 CFR part 982, Section 8 Tenant-Based Assistance: Unified Rule for Tenant-Based Assistance under the Section 8 Rental Certificate Program and the Section 8 Rental Voucher Program) or to the holder of a comparable document evidencing participation in a HOME tenant-based rental assistance program because of the status of the prospective tenant as a holder of such certificate, voucher, or comparable HOME tenant-based assistance document.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Initial rent schedule and utility allowances.</I> The Recipient shall ensure that utility allowances and submetering rules are consistent with regulations concerning utility allowances and submetering in buildings that are subject to gross rent restrictions as set forth in the Assistance Agreement and under IRC sec. 42(g)(2), as applicable.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Periods of affordability.</I> Housing under this section must meet the affordability requirements during the Affordability Period. The affordability requirements apply without regard to the term of any loan or mortgage or the transfer of ownership and must be imposed by deed restrictions, covenants running with the land, or other recording instruments. Upon receipt of a written approval from the CDFI Fund, a Recipient may use a different recording instrument as provided for in the Assistance Agreement. The affordability restrictions are allowed to terminate upon foreclosure or transfer in lieu of foreclosure. To the extent allowed under State law, in the event of a sale of property at foreclosure, transfer in lieu of foreclosure, short sale or other types of disposition, proceeds available to pay off a mortgage financed with a CMF Award shall be treated as Program Income.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Standard lease terms and conditions.</I> All tenants occupying rental CMF Units shall be required to enter into a written lease or rental agreement setting forth the terms and requirements which are, but not limited to, compliance with applicable State and local law.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Tenant income determination.</I> (1) At the time of each initial lease and occupancy, the tenant income shall be determined to ascertain income eligibility. During the Affordability Period, the existing tenant income shall be re-examined in a manner as set forth in the Assistance Agreement. Tenant income examination and verification are ultimately the responsibility of the Recipient. Tenant income shall include income from all Family members. The Recipient must require the Project owner to obtain information on rents and occupancy of Affordable Housing financed or supported with a CMF Award in order to demonstrate compliance with this section.
</P>
<P>(2) One of the following two definitions of “annual income” must be used to determine whether a Family is income-eligible:
</P>
<P>(i) Adjusted gross income as defined for purposes of reporting under Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form 1040 series for individual Federal annual income tax purposes; or
</P>
<P>(ii) Annual Income as defined at 24 CFR 5.609 (except that when determining the income of a homeowner for an owner-occupied Rehabilitation Project, the value of the homeowner's principal residence may be excluded from the calculation of “Net Family Assets,” as defined in 24 CFR 5.603).
</P>
<P>(3) The CDFI Fund reserves the right to deem certain government programs, under which a Family is a recipient, as income eligible for purposes of meeting the tenant income requirements under this section.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Over-income tenants.</I> (1) CMF Units continue to qualify as Affordable Housing despite a temporary noncompliance caused by increases in the incomes of existing tenants if actions satisfactory to the CDFI Fund are being taken to ensure that all vacancies are filled in accordance with this section until the noncompliance is corrected.
</P>
<P>(2) The maximum rent for tenants whose incomes no longer qualify is either 30 percent of the Family's annual income, or the amount payable by the tenants under State or local law, whichever is less; however, tenants whose income exceeds the Eligible-Income level are not required to pay rent in excess of the market rent for comparable, unassisted units in the neighborhood.
</P>
<P>(3) If the income of a tenant of a CMF Unit no longer qualifies, the Recipient may designate another unit within the Project as a rent-restricted replacement unit that meets the affordability qualifications for the same income category as the original unit, as further set forth in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement. If there is not an available replacement unit, the Recipient must fill the first available vacancy with a tenant that meets the affordability qualifications for the same income category of the original unit as necessary to maintain compliance with the CMF requirements and the Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.402" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.4.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.402   Affordable Housing—Homeownership.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Purchase with or without Rehabilitation.</I> (1) A Recipient that uses the CMF Award to finance or support the Purchase of Housing by a qualified Homebuyer must ensure that the Housing and Homebuyer meet the affordability requirements of this subpart as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Single-family housing.</I> The Housing must be a Single-family housing.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Purchase price limits.</I> The Single-family housing does not exceed the purchase price limits for the area under the HUD FHA Section 203(b) Mortgage Insurance Program, or any other index designated by the CDFI Fund as set forth in the applicable Assistance Agreement; the related mortgage must be originated based upon an assessment of whether the Homebuyer can repay the loan based on terms and conditions that are transparent and understandable to the Homebuyer, and the mortgage is affordable to the Homebuyer over the life of the loan.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Qualifying Homebuyer.</I> The Single-family housing must be purchased by a qualifying Homebuyer.
</P>
<P>(iv) <I>Eligible-Income requirements.</I> A qualifying Homebuyer must have a household income at no greater than Eligible-Income. To determine whether a Homebuyer qualifies as Eligible Income (or at any other income level specified in the Assistance Agreement) under this section, the Recipient must use the Homebuyer's adjusted gross income as defined under Internal Revenue Service (IRS) Form 1040 series for individual Federal annual income tax reporting purposes, or other methodology for determining income eligibility as provided in the Assistance Agreement. Homebuyers of one- to four- unit Single-family housing may rent the additional unit(s) as Permanent Housing if at least one unit is maintained as the principal residence of the Homebuyer.
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Periods of affordability.</I> Single-family housing under this section must become the principal residence of the Homebuyer at the time of Purchase and is subject to the affordability requirements during the Affordability Period and as further set forth in § 1807.402(a)(1)(vi). The Affordability Period does not apply to additional units rented as Permanent Housing, as described in § 1807.402(a)(1)(iv).
</P>
<P>(vi) <I>Resale.</I> To ensure that the CMF Awards are being used for qualifying Families during the Affordability Period, recoupment, replacement, and/or resale strategies must be established and imposed by the Recipient. A recoupment, replacement, and/or resale strategy must ensure that:
</P>
<P>(A) In the event the qualifying Family sells the Housing in five years or less from the date of Purchase, the Housing must be sold to an Eligible-Income Family meeting the qualifications set forth in § 1807.402. Otherwise, the CMF Award investment must be recouped by the Recipient and the Housing replaced with a replacement unit to satisfy the affordability requirement for the remainder of the Affordability Period. If the Housing is replaced, the replacement unit must be sold to an Eligible-Income Family and must also meet the qualifications set forth in § 1807.402.
</P>
<P>(B) In the event the qualifying Family sells the Housing any time after five years from the date of Purchase but before the end of the Affordability Period, the Housing must either be sold to a new Eligible-Income Family or, if the Housing is not sold to an Eligible-Income Family, the CMF investment must be recouped as Program Income in a proportional amount from net sale proceeds, as further set forth in the Assistance Agreement. If the Housing is not sold to an Eligible-Income Family after the five-year anniversary of the Purchase date and the Recipient recoups a proportional amount of the CMF Awards as Program Income, the Recipient is not required to replace the sold Housing with a replacement unit.
</P>
<P>(2) The Recipient may design and implement its own recoupment, replacement, and/or resale strategy, subject to the requirements of § 1807.402(a)(1)(vi) to maintain compliance with the CMF requirements and the Assistance Agreement. Deed restrictions, covenants running with the land, or other similar instruments may be used as the mechanism to impose a strategy. The Recipient shall report to the CDFI Fund the event of resale and/or recoupment and redeployment of the CMF Award, or an equivalent amount, in the manner described in the Assistance Agreement or other guidance issued by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) The affordability restrictions are allowed to terminate upon occurrence of any of the following termination events: foreclosure, transfer in lieu of foreclosure, or assignment of an FHA-insured mortgage to HUD. The termination of the affordability restrictions pursuant to any of the aforementioned terminating events will result in the Housing no longer being subject to a recoupment, replacement, and/or resale strategy as previously imposed by the Recipient. The Recipient may use purchase options, rights of first refusal or other preemptive rights to purchase the Housing before foreclosure to preserve affordability. The affordability restrictions shall be revived according to the original terms if, during the original Affordability Period, the owner of record before the termination event obtains an ownership interest in the Housing.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rehabilitation not involving purchase.</I> Single-family housing that is currently owned by a qualifying Family, as set forth in § 1807.400, qualifies as Affordable Housing if it meets the following requirements of this paragraph (b):
</P>
<P>(1) The estimated value of the Single-family housing, after Rehabilitation, does not exceed the purchase price limits for the area, as used in the HUD FHA Section 203(b) Mortgage Insurance Program, or any other index designated by the CDFI Fund. The underlying mortgage(s) should be affordable for the Homebuyer;
</P>
<P>(2) The Single-family housing is owned by a qualifying Family as set forth in § 1807.400 and is the only principal residence of the Family at the time of Project Commitment and remains the principal residence of the Family throughout the Affordability Period as described in paragraph (b)(3) of this section;
</P>
<P>(3) Single-family housing under this paragraph (b) must meet the affordability requirements during the Affordability Period upon Project Completion or meet the recoupment, replacement, and/or resale provisions of paragraph (a)(5) of this section; and
</P>
<P>(4) Single-family housing under this paragraph (b) currently owned by a qualifying Family may be rehabilitated to convert a portion of the Housing into one to three permanent additional units, each with a separate means of ingress/egress, kitchen, sleeping area, bathing area, and bathroom facilities, independent of the primary dwelling. The additional units may be rented as Permanent Housing as long as the primary dwelling remains the principal residence of the Family. While the Affordability Period applies to the primary dwelling, it does not apply to the additional units discussed in this section.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Ownership interest.</I> The owner must meet the definition of Homebuyer and the ownership in the Single-family housing assisted under this section must meet the definition of Homeownership as defined in § 1807.104.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>New construction without Purchase.</I> Newly constructed Single-family housing that is built on property currently owned by a Family that will occupy the Single-family housing upon Project Completion, qualifies as Affordable Housing if it meets the requirements under paragraph (a) of this section.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Converting rental units to Homeownership units for existing tenants.</I> Rental CMF Units may be converted to Homeownership units by selling, donating, or otherwise conveying the units to the existing tenants only under an existing documented rent-to-own program to enable the tenants to become Homebuyers in accordance with the requirements of this section. The Homeownership units are subject to a minimum period of affordability equal to the remaining rental Affordability Period, as further specified in the Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.403" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.4.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.403   Economic Development Activities.</HEAD>
<P>A CMF Award used for Economic Development Activities must stabilize, sustain, or revitalize communities and neighborhoods to meet the requirements set forth herein. For each individual CMF Award round, the Recipient may use no more than 30 percent of its CMF Award for Economic Development Activities, if such use is approved in its applicable Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible uses.</I> A Recipient may use its Economic Development Activity Fund to finance and/or support Economic Development Activities through any Eligible Use pursuant to § 1807.301 except for Affordable Housing Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Minimum use Term.</I> Community Service Facilities or physical structures resulting from Economic Development Activities must be used for allowable Economic Development Activities for a minimum of three years commencing with Project Completion.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Concerted strategy.</I> Economic Development Activities must complement and be undertaken as part of a Concerted Strategy that includes, but is not limited to, education, employment, transportation, financial services, commercial goods and services and other opportunities in a Low-Income Area or Underserved Rural Area.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>In Conjunction with Affordable Housing Activities.</I> Economic Development Activities must be:
</P>
<P>(1) Located in a Low-Income Area or Underserved Rural Area;
</P>
<P>(2) Undertaken in conjunction with any affordable housing that is subject to or authorized by local, State or Federal laws; and
</P>
<P>(3) Reasonably available, physically proximate, and benefit residents of such affordable housing. For a Metropolitan Area, the Economic Development Activities must be located within the same census tract or within one mile of such affordable housing. For a Non-Metropolitan Area, Economic Development Activities must be located within the same county, township, or village, or within 10 miles of such affordable housing.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Leveraged Capital; Eligible Project Costs; Commitments; Project Completion</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.500" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.500   Leveraged Capital; Eligible Project Costs.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible project costs.</I> Excluding both the total amount of Direct Administrative Expenses and Feasibility Determination Expenses, each CMF Award must result in Eligible Project Costs that equals at least 10 times the amount of the CMF Award, or some higher standard established by the CDFI Fund in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement. Such Eligible Project Costs must be for Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities, as set forth in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Leveraged capital.</I> (1) The applicable NOFA and/or the Assistance Agreement may set forth a required multiplier of Leveraged Capital that must be funded by private, non-governmental sources.
</P>
<P>(2) The Recipient must report to the CDFI Fund the amount of Leveraged Capital, with the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(i) No costs attributable to prohibited uses, as set forth in § 1807.302(a) and (b), may be reported as Leveraged Capital;
</P>
<P>(ii) All uses of Leveraged Capital to finance and/or support Affordable Housing Activities shall comply with §§ 1807.400, 1807.401 and 1807.402, and as further described in the Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P>(iii) All uses of Leveraged Capital to finance and/or support Economic Development Activities shall comply with § 1807.403, and as further described in the Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.501" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.501   Commitments.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The CMF Award must be Committed for Use by the Recipient to one or more Eligible Uses as provided in § 1807.301 within two years from the Effective Date of the CMF Award, as such date designated in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(b) The Recipient must achieve Project Commitment of the entire CMF Award within three years from the Effective Date of the CMF Award as designated in the Recipient's Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) The Recipient must evidence a Project Commitment with a written, legally binding agreement to invest in a Project by providing the CMF Award proceeds to the qualifying Family, developer or project sponsor in which:
</P>
<P>(1) Construction on real estate can reasonably be expected to start within 12 months of the Project Commitment agreement date; or
</P>
<P>(2) Property title on real estate will be transferred within six months of the Project Commitment agreement date; or
</P>
<P>(3) Construction schedule on real estate ensures Project Completion within five years of a date specified in the Assistance Agreement; or
</P>
<P>(4) The Recipient has entered into a Secondary Market Mortgage Purchase agreement with a third-party lender to purchase the qualified mortgages and the subject mortgages would not otherwise have been originated by the third-party lender absent that agreement; or
</P>
<P>(5) A commitment for a qualified Homeownership Program has been made by the action of the Recipient's Board of Directors; or
</P>
<P>(6) The Recipient has entered into a Loan Guarantee agreement or has established a cash reserve, escrow, or accounting-based accrual reserve with a lender or investor for a Loan Loss Reserve.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.502" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.502   CMF Award limits.</HEAD>
<P>An eligible Applicant and its Subsidiaries and Affiliates may not be awarded more than 15 percent of the aggregate funds available for the CMF Awards during any year.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.503" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.503   Project Completion; Property standards.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Upon Project Completion, the Project must be placed into service by the date designated in the Assistance Agreement. Project Completion for Affordable Housing Activities and Economic Development Activities occurs, as determined by the CDFI Fund, when:
</P>
<P>(1) All necessary title transfer requirements and construction work have been performed;
</P>
<P>(2) The property standards of paragraph (b) of this section have been met;
</P>
<P>(3) The final drawdown of the CMF Award has been made to the project sponsor or developer;
</P>
<P>(4) For Preservation, the refinancing of the loan is closed and the underlying real estate is in compliance with all CMF requirements and, if applicable, Rehabilitation is completed and the requirements set forth in this paragraph (a) are achieved;
</P>
<P>(5) For qualified Secondary Market Mortgage Purchase, the loan purchase transaction is complete, all CMF Secondary Market Mortgage requirements are met, and the CMF Award is disbursed to the lender (<I>i.e.,</I> seller of the loan);
</P>
<P>(6) For Loan Loss Reserves, the Loan Loss Reserve is established and the CMF Award is disbursed to an escrow, cash reserve, or obligated to an accounting-based accrual reserve to secure loans for Affordable Housing or Economic Development Activities that meet the requirements of subpart D of this part;
</P>
<P>(7) For Loan Loss Guarantees, the Loan Guarantee is executed guaranteeing loans for Affordable Housing or Economic Development Activities that meet the requirements of subpart D of this part.
</P>
<P>(b) By the Project Completion date, the Project must meet the requirements of this part, including the following property standards:
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Code requirements.</I> Projects that are constructed or Rehabilitated with a CMF Award must meet all applicable State and local codes, Rehabilitation standards, ordinances, and zoning requirements at the time of Project Completion or, in the absence of a State or local building code, the International Residential Code or International Building Code (as applicable) of the International Code Council.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Other requirements.</I> In addition, Projects must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Accessibility.</I> The Project must meet all applicable accessibility requirements set forth at 24 CFR part 8, which implements section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 U.S.C. 794), and Titles II and III of the Americans with Disabilities Act (42 U.S.C. 12131 through 12189) implemented at 28 CFR parts 35 and 36, as applicable. Multi-family housing must meet all applicable design and construction requirements set forth in 24 CFR 100.205 which implement Title VIII of the Civil Rights Act of 1968 (Fair Housing Act)(42 U.S.C. 3601-3619). Those design and construction requirements are the same rules that apply to “covered multifamily dwellings,” as defined in 24 CFR 100.201.
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Disaster mitigation.</I> The Project must meet all applicable State and local codes, ordinances, or other disaster mitigation requirements (<I>e.g.,</I> earthquake, hurricanes, flooding, wild fires), or other requirements as the Department of Housing and Urban Development has established in 24 CFR part 93.
</P>
<P>(iii) <I>Lead-based paint.</I> The Project must meet all applicable lead-based paint requirements, including those set forth in 24 CFR part 35.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Rehabilitation standards.</I> In addition, all Rehabilitation Projects must meet the following requirements:
</P>
<P>(i) For rental Housing, if the remaining useful life of one or more major systems is less than the Affordability Period, the Recipient must ensure that, at Project Completion, the developer or Project sponsor establishes a replacement reserve and that monthly payments are made to the reserve that are adequate to repair or replace the systems as needed. Major systems include: structural support; roofing; cladding and weatherproofing (<I>e.g.,</I> windows, doors, siding, gutters); plumbing; electrical; heating, ventilation, and air conditioning.
</P>
<P>(ii) For Homeownership Single-family housing, the Recipient must ensure that, at Project Completion, the Housing is decent, safe, sanitary, and in good repair. The Recipient must ensure that timely corrective and remedial actions are taken to address identified life-threatening deficiencies.
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Manufactured housing.</I> All manufactured housing must meet the Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards set forth in 24 CFR part 3280. These standards preempt State and local laws or codes, which are not identical to the Federal standards for the new construction of manufactured housing. The installation of all manufactured housing units must comply with applicable State and local laws or codes. In the absence of such laws or codes, the installation must comply with the manufacturer's written instructions for installation of manufactured housing units. Manufactured housing that is rehabilitated using a CMF Award must meet the requirements set out in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Tracking Funds; Uniform Administrative Requirements; Nature of Funds</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.600" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.600   Tracking funds.</HEAD>
<P>The Recipient shall develop and maintain an internal tracking and reporting system that ensures that the CMF Award is used in accordance with this part and the Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.601" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.6.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.601   Uniform Administrative Requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Uniform Administrative Requirements apply to all CMF Awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.602" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.6.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.602   Nature of funds.</HEAD>
<P>CMF Awards are Federal financial assistance with regard to the application of Federal civil rights laws.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="G" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.7" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart G—Notice of Funds Availability; Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.700" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.7.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.700   Notice of funds availability.</HEAD>
<P>Each Applicant must submit a CMF Award Application in accordance with the applicable Notice of Funds Availability (NOFA) published in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> The NOFA will advise prospective Applicants on how to obtain and complete an Application and will establish deadlines and other requirements. The NOFA will specify Application evaluation factors and any limitations, special rules, procedures, and restrictions for a particular Application round. After receipt of an Application, the CDFI Fund may request clarifying or technical information on the materials submitted as part of the Application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§§ 1807.701-1807.799" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.7.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§§ 1807.701-1807.799   [Reserved]</HEAD>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="H" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.8" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart H—Evaluation and Selection of Applications</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.800" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.8.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.800   Evaluation and selection—general.</HEAD>
<P>Each Applicant will be evaluated and selected, at the sole discretion of the CDFI Fund, to receive a CMF Award based on a review process that will include a paper or electronic Application, and may include an interview(s) and/or site visit(s), and that is intended to:
</P>
<P>(a) Ensure that Applicants are evaluated in a fair and consistent manner based on the criteria outlined in the NOFA;
</P>
<P>(b) Ensure that each Recipient can successfully meet its performance goals and achieve Affordable Housing Activity and Economic Development Activity impacts;
</P>
<P>(c) Ensure that Recipients represent a geographically diverse group of Applicants serving Metropolitan Areas and Rural Areas across the United States to address economic distress. Criteria of economic distress may include:
</P>
<P>(1) The percentage of Low-Income Families or the extent of poverty;
</P>
<P>(2) The rate of unemployment or underemployment;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent of disinvestment;
</P>
<P>(4) Economic Development Activities that target Extremely Low-Income, Very Low-Income, and Low-Income Families within the Recipient's Service Area; and
</P>
<P>(5) Any other criteria the CDFI Fund shall set forth in the applicable NOFA; and
</P>
<P>(d) Take into consideration other factors as set forth in the applicable NOFA.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.801" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.8.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.801   Evaluation of Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligibility and completeness.</I> An Applicant will not be eligible to receive a CMF Award if it fails to meet the eligibility requirements described in § 1807.200 and in the applicable NOFA, or if the Applicant has not submitted complete Application materials. For the purposes of this paragraph (a), the CDFI Fund reserves the right to request additional information from the Applicant, if the CDFI Fund deems it appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Substantive review.</I> In evaluating and selecting Applications to receive assistance, the CDFI Fund will evaluate the Applicant's likelihood of success in meeting the factors set forth in the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Other factors.</I> The CDFI Fund may consider any other factors that it deems appropriate in reviewing an Application, as set forth in the applicable NOFA, the Application and related guidance materials.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Consultation with appropriate regulatory agencies.</I> In the case of an Applicant that is a Federally regulated financial institution, the CDFI Fund may consult with the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency prior to making a final award decision and prior to entering into an Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Recipient selection.</I> The CDFI Fund will select Recipients based on the criteria described in paragraph (b) of this section and any other criteria set forth in this part.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="I" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart I—Terms and Conditions of a CMF Award</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.900" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.900   Assistance agreement.</HEAD>
<P>(a) Each Applicant that is selected to receive a CMF Award must enter into an Assistance Agreement with the CDFI Fund. The Assistance Agreement will set forth certain required terms and conditions for the CMF Award that may include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The amount of the CMF Award;
</P>
<P>(2) The approved Eligible Uses of the CMF Award;
</P>
<P>(3) The approved Service Area;
</P>
<P>(4) The time period by which the CMF Award proceeds must be Committed for Use;
</P>
<P>(5) The required documentation to evidence Project Completion; and
</P>
<P>(6) Performance goals that have been established by the CDFI Fund pursuant to this part, the NOFA, and the Recipient's Application.
</P>
<P>(b) The Assistance Agreement shall provide that, in the event of fraud, mismanagement, noncompliance with the Act or these regulations, or noncompliance with the terms and conditions of the Assistance Agreement, on the part of the Recipient, the CDFI Fund, in its discretion, may make a determination to:
</P>
<P>(1) Require changes in the performance goals set forth in the Assistance Agreement;
</P>
<P>(2) Revoke approval of the Recipient's Application;
</P>
<P>(3) Reduce or terminate the CMF Award;
</P>
<P>(4) Require repayment of any CMF Award that have been paid to the Recipient;
</P>
<P>(5) Bar the Recipient from applying for any assistance from the CDFI Fund; or
</P>
<P>(6) Take such other actions as the CDFI Fund deems appropriate or as set forth in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(c) Prior to making a determination that the Recipient has failed to comply substantially with the Act or these regulations or an Assistance Agreement, the CDFI Fund shall provide the Recipient with reasonable notice and opportunity to cure any instances of noncompliance.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.901" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.901   Payment of funds.</HEAD>
<P>CMF Awards provided pursuant to this part may be provided in a lump sum payment or in some other manner, as determined appropriate by the CDFI Fund. The CDFI Fund shall not provide any Payment under this part until a Recipient has satisfied all conditions set forth in the applicable NOFA and Assistance Agreement.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.902" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.902   Data collection and reporting.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Data; general.</I> The Recipient must maintain such records as may be prescribed by the CDFI Fund that are necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose the manner in which the CMF Award is used, including providing documentation to demonstrate Project Completion;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this part and the Assistance Agreement; and
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate the impact of the CMF Award.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Beneficiary demographics data.</I> The Recipient may be required to compile such data on the gender, race, ethnicity, national origin, or other information on individuals that are benefiting from the CMF Award, as the CDFI Fund shall prescribe in the Assistance Agreement. Such data will be used to determine whether residents of the Recipient's Service Area are adequately served and to evaluate the impact of the CMF Award.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to records.</I> The Recipient must submit financial and activity reports, records, statements, and documents at such times, in such forms, and accompanied by such reporting data, as required by the CDFI Fund or the U.S. Department of the Treasury to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part and to evaluate the impact of the CMF Award. The United States Government, including the U.S. Department of the Treasury, the Comptroller General, and their duly authorized representatives, shall have full and free access to the Recipient's offices and facilities and all books, documents, records, and financial statements relating to use of Federal funds and may copy such documents as they deem appropriate and audit or provide for an audit at least annually. The CDFI Fund, if it deems appropriate, may prescribe access to record requirements for entities that receive a CMF Award from the Recipient.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of records.</I> The Recipient shall comply with all applicable record retention requirements set forth in the Uniform Administrative Requirements (as applicable), the Assistance Agreement and the applicable NOFA.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data collection and reporting</I>—(1) <I>Financial reporting.</I> (i) All nonprofit organization Recipients that are required to have their financial statements audited pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Requirements, must submit their single-audits by a time set forth in the applicable NOFA or Assistance Agreement. Nonprofit organization Recipients (excluding Insured CDFIs and State-Insured Credit Unions) that are not required to have financial statements audited pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Requirements, must submit to the CDFI Fund a statement signed by the Recipient's authorized representative or certified public accountant, asserting that the Recipient is not required to have a single-audit pursuant to the Uniform Administrative Requirements as indicated in the Assistance Agreement. In such instances, the CDFI Fund may require additional audits to be performed and/or submitted to the CDFI Fund as stated in the applicable Notice of Funds Availability and Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) For-profit Recipients (excluding Insured CDFIs and State-Insured Credit Unions) must submit to the CDFI Fund financial statements audited in conformity with generally accepted auditing standards as promulgated by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants by a time set forth in the applicable NOFA or Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(iii) Regulated financial institutions (Insured Depository Institutions, Depository Institution Holding Companies, and Insured Credit Unions), including regulated nonprofit organizations, must submit to the CDFI Fund financial statements audited in conformity with generally accepted auditing standards as promulgated by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants by a time set forth in the applicable NOFA or Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Annual report.</I> (i) The Recipient shall submit a performance and financial report that shall be specified in the Assistance Agreement (annual report). The annual report consists of several components which may include, but are not limited to, a report on performance goals and measures, explanation of any Recipient noncompliance, and such other information as may be required by the CDFI Fund. The annual report components shall be specified and described in the Assistance Agreement.
</P>
<P>(ii) The CDFI Fund will use the annual report to collect data to assess the Recipient's compliance with its performance goals and the impact of the CMF and the CDFI industry.
</P>
<P>(iii) The Recipient is responsible for the timely and complete submission of the annual report, even if all or a portion of the documents actually are completed by another entity. If such other entities are required to provide information for the annual report, or such other documentation that the CDFI Fund might require, the Recipient is responsible for ensuring that the information is submitted timely and complete. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact such other entities and require that additional information and documentation be provided.
</P>
<P>(iv) The CDFI Fund's review of the compliance of an Insured CDFI, a Depository Institution Holding Company or a State-Insured Credit Union with the terms and conditions of its Assistance Agreement may also include information from the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.903" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.903   Compliance with government requirements.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its responsibilities pursuant to an Assistance Agreement, the Recipient shall comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, regulations, and ordinances, Uniform Administrative Requirements, and Executive Orders. Furthermore, Recipients must comply with the CDFI Fund's environmental quality regulations (12 CFR part 1815), as well as all other Federal environmental requirements applicable to Federal awards.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.904" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.904   Lobbying restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>No CMF Award may be expended by a Recipient to pay any person to influence or attempt to influence any agency, elected official, officer or employee of a State or local government in connection with the making, award, extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any State or local government contract, grant, loan or cooperative agreement as such terms are defined in 31 U.S.C. 1352.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.905" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.905   Criminal provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The criminal provisions of 18 U.S.C. 657 regarding embezzlement or misappropriation of funds are applicable to all Recipients and insiders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.906" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.906   CDFI Fund deemed not to control.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund shall not be deemed to control a Recipient by reason of any CMF Award provided under the Act for the purpose of any applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.907" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.907   Limitation on liability.</HEAD>
<P>The liability of the CDFI Fund and the United States Government arising out of any CMF Award shall be limited to the amount of the CMF Award. The CDFI Fund shall be exempt from any assessments and other liabilities that may be imposed on controlling or principal shareholders by any Federal law or the law of any State. Nothing in this section shall affect the application of any Federal tax law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1807.908" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.4.9.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1807.908   Fraud, waste and abuse.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who becomes aware of the existence or apparent existence of fraud, waste or abuse of a CMF Award should report such incidences to the Office of Inspector General of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.








</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1808" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1808—COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS BOND GUARANTEE PROGRAM
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>The Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-240, §§ 1134 and 1703; 12 U.S.C. 4713a.
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>78 FR 8310, Feb. 5, 2013, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV6 N="A" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart A—General Provisions</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.100" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.100   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>The purpose of the Community Development Financial Institutions (CDFI) Bond Guarantee Program is to support CDFI lending by providing Guarantees for Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue for Eligible Community or Economic Development Purposes, as authorized by sections 1134 and 1703 of the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010 (Pub. L. 111-240; 12 U.S.C. 4713a).


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.101" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.101   Summary.</HEAD>
<P>This section provides a summary overview of certain key provisions of the interim rule, the detailed requirements of which are set forth in subsequent subparts.
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Guarantee.</I> Through the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, the Guarantor will provide a Guarantee for Bonds issued by Qualified Issuers as part of a Bond Issue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bonds.</I> Pursuant to the Act at 12 U.S.C. 4713a(e), a Bond Issue shall comprise Bonds having a minimum aggregate principal amount of $100,000,000 and a maximum aggregate principal amount of $1,000,000,000. The principal amount of each Bond (or series of Bonds) shall not be less than $10,000,000. A Bond Rate for each advance of funds under a Bond will be established by the Bond Purchaser as of the date of the respective advance, as provided in the Bond.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Bond Loans to Eligible CDFIs.</I> The Qualified Issuer will use Bond Proceeds to make Bond Loans to Eligible CDFIs for Eligible Purposes, as those terms are defined in section 1808.102. The CDFI Fund will evaluate each Eligible CDFI using standard Bond Loan Requirements to assess their creditworthiness and capacity to receive a Bond Loan. Each Eligible CDFI may borrow a Bond Loan in an amount that is at least $10,000,000. The Bond Loan Rate shall be the same as the Bond Rate on the particular advance of funds under the Bond that funds the Bond Loan. The aggregate of the principal amounts of the Bond Loans must not exceed the maximum principal amount of the corresponding Bond Issue. The Qualified Issuer must execute Bond Loan documents for 100 percent of the principal amount of each Bond on the Bond Issue Date. Bond Loan proceeds may not be drawn down from the Qualified Issuer until the Eligible CDFI has an immediate use for the Bond Loan proceeds. Five percent, or such other amount that is determined by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion, of Bond Loan proceeds may be used by an Eligible CDFI to capitalize Loan Loss Reserves.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secondary Loans to Secondary Borrowers.</I> If the Eligible CDFI uses Bond Loan proceeds to make Secondary Loans, the Eligible CDFI must execute Secondary Loan documents (in the form of promissory notes) with Secondary Borrowers as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) Not later than 12 months after the Bond Issue Date, Secondary Loan documents representing at least 50 percent of such Eligible CDFI's Bond Loan proceeds allocated for Secondary Loans; and
</P>
<P>(2) Not later than 24 months after the Bond Issue Date, Secondary Loan documents representing 100 percent of such Eligible CDFI's Bond Loan proceeds allocated for Secondary Loans (excluding any amounts used for payment of Bond Issuance Fees pursuant to section 1808.304(b)).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> Bonds, Bond Loans and Secondary Loans shall have terms and conditions as set forth in Subpart F of this interim rule including at a minimum, that:
</P>
<P>(1) Each Bond shall be a nonrecourse obligation of the Qualified Issuer, payable solely from amounts available pursuant to the Bond Documents. Each promissory note evidencing a Bond Loan shall be a general recourse obligation of the Eligible CDFI and secured by a first lien on collateral. Each Secondary Loan shall be secured by a first lien on collateral and payable solely from amounts available pursuant to the Secondary Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(2) The maturity date of a Bond shall not be later than 30 years after the Bond Issue Date. The maturity date of Bond Loans and Secondary Loans may be earlier than, but may not be later than, the maturity date of the corresponding Bond;
</P>
<P>(3) The Bonds shall be purchased by the Bond Purchaser on terms and conditions that are satisfactory to the Bond Purchaser, the Guarantor, and the CDFI Fund (under specific requirements set forth in § 1808.302 and the Bond Documents); and
</P>
<P>(4) The Guarantor shall guarantee payments on Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue in such forms and on such terms and conditions and subject to such covenants, representations, warranties and requirements (including requirements for audits) as set forth in this interim rule in Subpart F. These requirements may be expanded upon through the program's Notice of Guarantee Availability, the Bond Documents, and the Bond Loan documents. The Qualified Issuer shall enter into the applicable Bond Documents to evidence its acceptance of the terms and conditions of the Guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.102" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>For purposes of this part, capitalized terms used herein and not defined elsewhere are defined as follows:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Act</I> means the Small Business Jobs Act of 2010, Pub. L. 111-240, sections 1134 and 1703, 12 U.S.C. 4713a;
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Affiliate</I> means any entity that Controls, is Controlled by, or is under common Control with, another entity. Control is defined as:
</P>
<P>(1) Ownership, control or power to vote 25 percent or more of the outstanding shares of any class of Voting Securities (as that term is defined in 12 CFR 1805.104(mm)) of any legal entity, directly or indirectly or acting through one or more other persons; or
</P>
<P>(2) Control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, trustees, or general partners (or individuals exercising similar functions) of any legal entity; or
</P>
<P>(3) The power to exercise, directly or indirectly, a controlling influence, as determined by the CDFI Fund, over the management, credit decisions, investment decisions, or policies of any legal entity;
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Agency Administrative Fee</I> means a fee in an amount equal to 10 basis points (0.1 percent) of the amount of the unpaid principal of the Bond Issue, payable annually to the CDFI Fund by a Qualified Issuer;
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Agreement to Guarantee</I> means the written agreement between the Guarantor and the Qualified Issuer which sets forth the terms and conditions on which the Guarantor will provide the Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Appropriate Federal Banking Agency</I> has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act, 12 U.S.C. 1813(q), and includes, with respect to an Insured Credit Union (as such term is defined in 12 CFR 1805.104(bb)), the National Credit Union Administration;
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Appropriate State Agency</I> means an agency or instrumentality of a State that regulates and/or insures the member accounts of a State-Insured Credit Union (as such term is defined in 12 CFR 1805.104(e));
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Bond</I> means a security in the form of a draw-down bond or note issued by the Qualified Issuer, with each advance of funds thereunder bearing interest at an applicable Bond Rate established by the Bond Purchaser in accordance with section 1808.300 of this part, and sold to the Bond Purchaser, the proceeds of which will be used for Eligible Purposes, and which benefit from a Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Bond Documents</I> mean, for each Bond, the respective Bond, Bond Trust Indenture, Agreement to Guarantee, Bond purchase agreement, and all other instruments and documentation pertaining to the issuance of the Bond;
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Bond Issuance Fees</I> mean amounts paid by an Eligible CDFI for reasonable and appropriate expenses, administrative costs, and fees for services incurred in connection with the issuance of the Bond (but not including the Agency Administrative Fee) and the making of the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Bond Issue</I> means at least $100,000,000, and no more than $1,000,000,000, in aggregate principal amount of Bonds secured by a single Guarantee; each Bond (or series of Bonds) in the Bond Issue being in the minimum principal amount of at least $10,000,000;
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Bond Issue Date</I> means the date on which the Bond is deemed to be issued or originated;
</P>
<P>(l) <I>Bond Loan</I> means a loan of Bond Proceeds by a Qualified Issuer to an Eligible CDFI. A Bond Loan must be in an initial principal amount that is not less than $10,000,000, and Bond Loan proceeds must be used for Eligible Purposes;
</P>
<P>(m) <I>Bond Loan Payment Default Rate</I> means, in the event of a Bond Loan payment default, the applicable interest rate on any overdue amount from its due date to the date of actual payment and shall be calculated in the same manner as a late charge rate is calculated in the underlying Bond;
</P>
<P>(n) <I>Bond Loan Rate</I> means the rate of interest for each advance of funds under a Bond Loan, which shall be the same as the Bond Rate;
</P>
<P>(o) <I>Bond Loan Requirements</I> means the credit criteria, established by the CDFI Fund, for assessing the creditworthiness and capacity of each Eligible CDFI applicant to receive a Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(p) <I>Bond Proceeds</I> means the funds that are advanced by the Bond Purchaser to the Qualified Issuer under a Bond;
</P>
<P>(q) <I>Bond Purchaser (or Bondholder)</I> means the Federal Financing Bank, the body corporate and instrumentality of the Federal Government created by the Federal Financing Bank Act of 1973 (12 U.S.C. 2281 <I>et seq.</I>);
</P>
<P>(r) <I>Bond Rate</I> means the rate of interest for each advance of funds under a Bond;
</P>
<P>(s) <I>Bond Trust Indenture</I> means the agreement between the Qualified Issuer and the Master Servicer/Trustee that sets forth the rights, duties, responsibilities and remedies of the Qualified Issuer and Master Servicer/Trustee with respect to the Bonds, to include responsibilities regarding the management of the collateral, the management of the funds and accounts, the repayment and redemption of the Bonds, and the circumstances and processes surrounding any default;
</P>
<P>(t) <I>Capital Distribution Plan</I> means the component of the Guarantee Application that demonstrates the Qualified Issuer's comprehensive plan for lending, disbursing, servicing, and monitoring each Bond Loan and that meets the requirements of § 1808.401 of this interim rule and such other requirements as may be designated in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability. The Capital Distribution Plan includes, among other components (specified in § 1808.401 of this interim rule), a Statement of Proposed Sources and Uses of Funds, and shall include one or more Secondary Capital Distribution Plans;
</P>
<P>(u) <I>CDFI Bond Guarantee Program (or Program)</I> means the program of providing Guarantees for Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue by Qualified Issuers to make Bond Loans to Eligible CDFIs for Eligible Purposes, as authorized by subsections 1134 and 1703 of the Act (12 U.S.C. 4713a), and implemented under this part;
</P>
<P>(v) <I>Certified Community Development Financial Institution (or Certified CDFI</I>) means a financing entity that has a primary mission of promoting community development and that has been certified by the CDFI Fund as meeting the eligibility requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201;
</P>
<P>(w) <I>Community Development Financial Institutions Fund (or CDFI Fund</I>) means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, a wholly owned government corporation within the U.S. Department of the Treasury, established under the Riegle Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act of 1994 (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>), as amended;
</P>
<P>(x) <I>Credit Enhancement</I> means such instrument or document proffered by an Eligible CDFI to enhance the credit quality of a Bond and/or Bond Loan. Credit Enhancements may include, but are not limited to, pledges of financial resources and lines and letters of credit issued by: an Eligible CDFI; an Affiliate; a regulated financial institution; a foundation; or another entity. The Risk-Share Pool is not a form of Credit Enhancement;
</P>
<P>(y) <I>Department Opinion</I> means an internal opinion by the CDFI Fund regarding compliance by the Qualified Issuer with the requirements for approval of a Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(z) <I>Designated Bonding Authority (or DBA)</I> means a Qualified Issuer selected by the CDFI Fund to issue Bonds on behalf of certain Eligible CDFIs and make Bond Loans to such Eligible CDFIs, pursuant to this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(aa) <I>Eligible Community Development Financial Institution (or Eligible CDFI)</I> means a Certified CDFI that has submitted an application to a Qualified Issuer for a Bond Loan, has been deemed creditworthy based on the Bond Loan Requirements, and has received a Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(bb) <I>Eligible Community or Economic Development Purpose (or Eligible Purpose)</I> means the allowable uses of Bond Proceeds and Bond Loan proceeds, which includes financing or Refinancing for community or economic development purposes described in 12 U.S.C. 4707(b), including but not limited to community or economic development purposes in Low-Income Areas or Underserved Rural Areas, as deemed eligible by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion; Bond Issuance Fees in an amount not to exceed one percent of Bond Loan proceeds; and capitalization of Loan Loss Reserves in an amount that is up to five percent of the par amount of the Bond Loan, or such other amount that is determined by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion;
</P>
<P>(cc) <I>Guarantee</I> means the guarantee by the Guarantor, pursuant to an Agreement to Guarantee, of the repayment of 100 percent of the Verifiable Losses of Principal, Interest, and Call Premium, if any, on the corresponding Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue; each Guarantee shall be for a Bond Issue of at least $100,000,000, plus the related interest and call premiums;
</P>
<P>(dd) <I>Guarantee Application</I> means the application document that a Qualified Issuer submits in order to apply for a Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(ee) <I>Guarantor</I> means the Secretary of the Treasury or the Secretary's designee;
</P>
<P>(ff) <I>Investment Area</I> means a geographic area meeting the requirements of 12 CFR 1805.201(b)(3)(ii);
</P>
<P>(gg) <I>Loan Loss Reserves</I> means the use of Bond Loan proceeds (secured by a Principal Loss Collateral Provision) for a set aside in the form of cash reserves that serve as a safeguard to protect the Eligible CDFI against future losses for any loans for community or economic development purposes described in 12 U.S.C. 4707 (b), including community or economic development purposes in Low-Income Areas or Underserved Rural Areas, within the Eligible CDFI's portfolio;
</P>
<P>(hh) <I>Low-Income</I> means an income, adjusted for family size, of not more than: (1) for Metropolitan Areas, 80 percent of the area median family income; and (2) for non-Metropolitan Areas, the greater of: (1) 80 percent of the area median family income; or (2) 80 percent of the Statewide non-Metropolitan Area median family income;
</P>
<P>(ii) <I>Low-Income Area</I> means a census tract or block numbering area in which the median income does not exceed 80 percent of the median income for the area in which such census tract or block numbering area is located. With respect to a census tract or block numbering area located within a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the Metropolitan Area median family income or the national Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater. In the case of a census tract or block numbering area located outside of a Metropolitan Area, the median family income shall be at or below 80 percent of the statewide non-Metropolitan Area median family income or the national non-Metropolitan Area median family income, whichever is greater;
</P>
<P>(jj) <I>Master Servicer/Trustee</I> means a third party trust company or financial institution that is in the business of administering facilities similar to the Bonds and Bond Loans, has been deemed acceptable by the CDFI Fund, and whose duties include, among others, exercising fiduciary powers to enforce the terms of Bonds and Bond Loans pursuant to the Bond Trust Indenture entered into by and between the Master Servicer/Trustee and the Qualified Issuer, overseeing the activities of Servicers, and facilitating Bond principal and interest payments to the Bond Purchaser;
</P>
<P>(kk) <I>Metropolitan Area</I> means an area that contains an urban core based statistical area of 50,000 or more population and is designated as such by the Office of Management and Budget pursuant to 44 U.S.C. 3504(e), 31 U.S.C. 1104(d) and Executive Order 10253 (3 CFR, 1949-1953 Comp., p. 758), as amended;
</P>
<P>(ll) <I>Notice of Guarantee Availability (or NOGA)</I> means the notice, published by the CDFI Fund, that announces to all interested parties the opportunity to submit Qualified Issuer Applications and Guarantee Applications pursuant sections 1808.400 and 1808.401 of this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(mm) <I>Principal Loss Collateral Provision</I> means a cash or cash equivalent guarantee or facility provided in lieu of pledged collateral set forth in the Bond Documents and Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(nn) <I>Program Administrator</I> means the Qualified Issuer, or an entity designated by the Qualified Issuer and approved by the CDFI Fund, that performs certain administrative duties related to application preparation, compliance monitoring, and reporting, as well as other duties set forth under section 1808.606 of this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(oo) <I>Qualified Issuer</I> means a Certified CDFI, or any entity designated by a Certified CDFI to issue Bonds on its behalf, that meets the qualification requirements set forth in section 1808.200 of this interim rule, and that has been approved as such by the CDFI Fund pursuant to review and evaluation of the Qualified Issuer Application;
</P>
<P>(pp) <I>Qualified Issuer Application</I> means the application document that a Certified CDFI (or any entity designated by a Certified CDFI to issue Bonds on its behalf) submits to the CDFI Fund in order to be approved as a Qualified Issuer prior to, or simultaneously with, a Guarantee Application;
</P>
<P>(qq) <I>Qualified Secondary Loan Receivable</I> means payment receivables from the Secondary Loan(s) relating to the corresponding Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(rr) <I>Refinance (or Refinancing)</I> means the use of Bond Proceeds to refinance an Eligible CDFI's or Secondary Borrower's existing loan, which must have been used for an Eligible Purpose;
</P>
<P>(ss) <I>Relending Fund</I> means the fund maintained by the Master Servicer/Trustee to allow an Eligible CDFI to relend Secondary Loan repayments for Eligible Purposes, not to exceed 10 percent of the principal amount outstanding of the Bonds, minus the Risk Share Pool; the Relending Fund will include a Relending Account for each Bond Issue; and each Relending Account will include a Relending Subaccount for each Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(tt) <I>Risk-Share Pool</I> means an account maintained by the Master Servicer/Trustee throughout the term of a Guarantee to cover losses before the Guarantee is exercised; the Risk-Share Pool is capitalized by pro rata payments equal to three percent of the amount disbursed on the Bonds from all Eligible CDFIs within a Bond Issue; payments must be funded at each disbursement under the Bond and associated Bond Loan; amounts in the Risk-Share Pool will not be returned to the Eligible CDFIs until maturity of all of the Bonds, and termination of all Bond Loans, within a Bond Issue;
</P>
<P>(uu) <I>Secondary Borrower</I> means an entity that has made application to the Eligible CDFI for a Secondary Loan, been deemed creditworthy by the Eligible CDFI, meets the criteria set forth in the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements to receive a Secondary Loan, and has received a Secondary Loan;
</P>
<P>(vv) <I>Secondary Capital Distribution Plan</I> means the component of the Capital Distribution Plan that pertains to the making of Secondary Loans, demonstrates the Eligible CDFI's comprehensive plan for lending, disbursing, servicing and monitoring Secondary Loans, includes a description of how the proposed Secondary Loan will meet Eligible Purposes and meets such other the requirements as may be designated in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability;
</P>
<P>(ww) <I>Secondary Loan</I> means the use of Bond Loan proceeds by an Eligible CDFI to finance or Refinance a loan to a Secondary Borrower for Eligible Purposes, which meets the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements;
</P>
<P>(xx) <I>Secondary Loan Requirements</I> mean the minimum required criteria used by each Eligible CDFI (in addition to the Eligible CDFI's underwriting criteria) to evaluate a request by a Secondary Borrower applicant for a Secondary Loan. The Secondary Loan Requirements will be established by the CDFI Fund and incorporated into the Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(yy) <I>Servicer</I> means the Qualified Issuer, or an entity designated by the Qualified Issuer and approved by the CDFI Fund, to perform various Bond Loan servicing duties, as set forth in this part;
</P>
<P>(zz) <I>Special Servicer</I> means the Master Servicer/Trustee, or an entity designated by the Master Servicer/Trustee and approved by the CDFI Fund, that performs certain administrative duties related to the restructuring of Bond Loans that are in or about to enter into an event of default as well as other duties set forth under section 1808.606(d) of this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(aaa) <I>State</I> means any of the States of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, the Commonwealth of the Northern Mariana Island, Guam, the Virgin Islands, American Samoa, the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, and any other territory of the United States;
</P>
<P>(bbb) <I>Statement of Proposed Sources and Uses of Funds</I> means the component of the Guarantee Application that describes the proposed uses of Bond Proceeds and the proposed sources of funds to repay principal and interest on the Bonds and the Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(ccc) <I>Targeted Population</I> means individuals or an identifiable group of individuals who are Low-Income persons or lack adequate access to Financial Products or Financial Services and meet the requirements of 12 CFR 1805.201(b)(3)(iii);
</P>
<P>(ddd) <I>Trust Estate</I> means the Bond Loan agreement and promissory notes evidencing the Bond Loan, all funds and accounts related to the Bonds and held by the Master Servicer/Trustee pursuant to the Bond Trust Indenture including, but not limited to, the Revenue Accounts and the Relending Accounts (as such terms are defined in subsection 1808.606(f)), and any additional collateral pledged directly by the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(eee) <I>Underserved Rural Area</I> means an area that has significant unmet needs for loans, Equity Investments, or Financial Services (as those terms are defined in 12 CFR 1805.104) and is not contained within either a Consolidated Metropolitan Statistical Areas (CMSA) or Primary Metropolitan Statistical Areas (PMSA), as such areas are defined in OMB Bulletin No. 99-04 (Revised Statistical Definitions of Metropolitan Areas (MAs) and Guidance on Uses of MA Definitions); and
</P>
<P>(fff) <I>Verifiable Losses of Principal, Interest, and Call Premium</I> means any portion of required debt payments related to or arising out of a Bond and Bond Loan, or the enforcement of either of them, that the Qualified Issuer is unable satisfy.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.103" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.103   Participant not instrumentality.</HEAD>
<P>No participant in the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program shall be deemed to be an agency, department, or instrumentality of the United States.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.104" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.104   Deviations.</HEAD>
<P>To the extent that such requirements are not specified by statute, the Secretary of the Treasury in consultation with the Office of Management and Budget, may authorize deviations on an individual or general basis from the requirements of this interim rule upon a finding that such deviation is essential to program objectives, and the special circumstances stated in the proposal make such deviation clearly in the best interest of the Federal Government. All proposals must be in writing and supported by a statement of the facts and the grounds forming the basis of the deviation. For deviations of general applicability, after a determination is made by the Secretary of the Treasury based on the deviation proposal, the CDFI Fund must publish notification of granted deviations in the <E T="04">Federal Register.</E> Any deviation that was not captured in the original credit subsidy cost estimate will require either additional fees, or discretionary appropriations to cover the cost.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.105" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.105   Relationship to other CDFI Fund programs.</HEAD>
<P>Award funds received under any other CDFI Fund program cannot be used by any participant, including Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs and Secondary Borrowers, to pay principal, interest, fees, administrative costs, or issuance costs (including Bond Issuance Fees) related to the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, or to fund the Risk-Share Pool.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.106" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.1.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.106   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collection of information requirements in this part are subject to the review of the Office of Management and Budget (OMB).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="B" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.2" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart B—Eligibility</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.200" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.2.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.200   Qualified Issuers.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Requirements and qualifications.</I> An applicant shall be deemed a Qualified Issuer if it is determined, in writing by the CDFI Fund, to meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(1) The applicant must be a Certified CDFI, or an entity designated by a Certified CDFI to issue Bonds on its behalf;
</P>
<P>(2) The applicant must have appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience, or otherwise be qualified to issue Bonds for Eligible Purposes;
</P>
<P>(3) The applicant must have appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience, or otherwise be qualified to make Bond Loans for Eligible Purposes;
</P>
<P>(4) The applicant must have appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience to serve or have identified qualified entities that will serve as its Program Administrator and Servicer; and
</P>
<P>(5) The applicant must meet such other criteria as may be required by the CDFI Fund pursuant to this interim rule and the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Approval.</I> The designation of an applicant as a Qualified Issuer does not ensure that the Guarantor will approve a Guarantee Application or issue a Guarantee. In order for the Guarantor to approve a Qualified Issuer's Guarantee Application, the Qualified Issuer must meet all applicable Guarantee Application requirements including, but not limited to, creditworthiness and other requirements.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Qualified Issuer responsibilities.</I> The responsibilities of a Qualified Issuer shall include, but are not limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Preparing and submitting the Guarantee Application on behalf of Eligible CDFI applicants that designated it to serve as Qualified Issuer, including providing any additional information needed for review by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(2) During the CDFI Fund's review and evaluation of the Guarantee Application, serving as primary point of contact between the CDFI Fund and the Eligible CDFI applicants that designated the Qualified Issuer to serve on their behalf;
</P>
<P>(3) Issuing the Bond for purchase by the Bond Purchaser;
</P>
<P>(4) Making Bond Loans to Eligible CDFIs, ensuring that 100 percent of Bond Proceeds are used to make Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(5) Charging interest on the Bond Loans as set forth in this interim rule and Bond Loan documents, and providing for such a schedule of repayment of Bond Loans as will, upon the timely repayment of the Bond Loans, provide adequate and timely funds for the payment of principal and interest on the Bonds;
</P>
<P>(6) During the duration of the Bonds and the Bond Loans, serving as primary point of contact between the CDFI Fund and Eligible CDFIs;
</P>
<P>(7) Overseeing the work of, or serving in the capacity of, the Program Administrator and Servicer;
</P>
<P>(8) Enforcing the terms and requirements of the Bond Trust Indenture including, but not limited to: ensuring the repayment of Bond Loans in a timely manner pursuant to the terms of Bond Loan documents; assigning delinquent Bond Loans to the Guarantor upon demand by the CDFI Fund or the Guarantor; and ensuring that the Master Servicer/Trustee establishes and maintains the Risk-Share Pool throughout the term of the Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(9) Reviewing collateral and Credit Enhancement requirements for each Bond Loan and providing information on such collateral and Credit Enhancement, as requested, to the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(10) Making payment of the Agency Administrative Fee to the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(11) Submitting all required reports and additional documentation (including reconciling financial data and Capital Distribution Plan updates, as necessary); and
</P>
<P>(12) Such other duties and responsibilities as the CDFI Fund, the Guarantor, or the Bondholder may require.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Bond Issuance Fees.</I> The Qualified Issuer may charge Bond Issuance Fees and all fees reasonable and necessary for administering and servicing the Bonds or the Bond Loans, post issuance, to Eligible CDFIs.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Restriction.</I> A Qualified Issuer may not receive a Bond Loan under any Bond Issuance for which it serves as a Qualified Issuer.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.201" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.2.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.201   Designated Bonding Authority.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> In its sole discretion, the CDFI Fund may solicit Qualified Issuer Applications from entities proposing to serve as the Designated Bonding Authority (DBA). The CDFI Bond Guarantee Program shall only have one DBA at any given time. In order to be selected to serve as the DBA, the entity must meet all qualifications of a Qualified Issuer set forth in section 1808.200 of this interim rule; additional qualifications may be set forth in the applicable NOGA as determined by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Selection.</I> The DBA will serve as a CDFI Fund-selected Qualified Issuer and designated Qualified Issuer for Eligible CDFIs that do not elect to designate another Qualified Issuer. The DBA will prepare and submit a Guarantee Application on behalf of such Eligible CDFI applicants, in accordance with such criteria set forth in this interim rule, the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability and the Qualified Issuer Application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.202" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.2.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.202   Eligible CDFIs.</HEAD>
<P>Each Eligible CDFI applicant seeking a Bond Loan must meet the following criteria:
</P>
<P>(a) Be certified by the CDFI Fund as meeting the eligibility requirements set forth in 12 CFR 1805.201;
</P>
<P>(b) Have the appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience, or otherwise be qualified to use the proceeds of Bond Loans for Eligible Purposes; and
</P>
<P>(c) Meet such other criteria and requirements set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability, the Guarantee Application, the Bond Loan Requirements, related Bond and Bond Loan documents, and such other requirements of the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="C" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart C—Interest Rates; Terms and Conditions of Bonds, Bond Loans, and Secondary Loans</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.300" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.300   Interest rates.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Interest rates.</I> (1) A Bond Rate will be established by the Bond Purchaser as of the date of the respective advance of funds, as provided in the Bond. The Bond Rate for each advance of funds must be fixed and consistent with Federal credit policies outlined in OMB Circular A-129. The FFB, as Bond Purchaser, will set rates to the borrower pursuant to section 6(b) of the Federal Financing Bank Act (12 U.S.C. 2285(b)) and the FFB Lending Policy. This rate will be indexed to the appropriate Treasury rate based on the Treasury yield curve and include a spread to be determined by the Bond Purchaser; variable Bond Rates are not permitted.
</P>
<P>(2) Interest on each advance of funds under a Bond shall be computed as provided in the Bond.
</P>
<P>(3) A principal and interest payment schedule will be determined and provided to the Qualified Issuer for each advance of funds under a Bond, based on the Bond Rate established for the respective advance. The final principal and interest payment schedule for amounts due under a Bond will be the aggregation of the individual principal and interest payment schedules for all advances of funds under the Bond.
</P>
<P>(4) The Bond Loan Rate shall be the same as the Bond Rate on the particular advance of funds under the Bond that funds the Bond Loan.
</P>
<P>(5) The rate of interest for each Secondary Loan shall be established by the Eligible CDFI in accordance with subsection 1808.307(c), and may be subject to limitations specified in the applicable NOGA.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bond Loan payment default interest rate.</I> In the event of a payment default on a Bond Loan, the Eligible CDFI shall pay interest on any overdue amount from its due date to the date of actual payment at the Bond Loan Payment Default Rate. The Bond Loan Payment Default Rate shall be calculated in the same manner as a late charge is calculated under the underlying Bond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.301" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.301   Eligible uses of Bond Proceeds.</HEAD>
<P>Bond Proceeds must be used by a Qualified Issuer to finance Bond Loans or Refinance loans to Eligible CDFIs for Eligible Purposes as defined in section 1808.102 of this interim rule. A Qualified Issuer that is also a Certified CDFI may not finance a Bond Loan to itself or refinance its own loan. One hundred percent of the principal amount of each Bond must be used to make Bond Loans. As a Bond Loan is repaid, such repaid Bond Loan proceeds in excess of those required for debt service payments on the Bond must be used to repay the Bond or held in the Relending Account and used for additional Secondary Loans, to the extent authorized under § 1808.308.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.302" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.302   Bond terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maturity date.</I> As required by 12 U.S.C. 4713a(e)(1)(D), the maturity date of a Bond shall not be later than 30 years after the Bond Issue Date. The maturity date for any advance of funds under a Bond shall not be later than the maturity date of the Bond.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Nonrecourse obligation.</I> Each Bond shall be a nonrecourse obligation of the Qualified Issuer, payable solely from amounts available pursuant to the Bond Documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Terms.</I> The Bonds may contain only terms that are consistent with the lending policies and terms of the Bond Purchaser.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>No subordination.</I> The Bonds or Bond Loans may not be subordinated to any new or existing liability and effective subordination of the Bonds or Bond Loans to tax-exempt obligations will render the Guarantee void, in accordance with OMB Circular No. A-129 (Policies for Federal Credit Programs and Non-Tax Receivables) and applicable provisions of the Internal Revenue Code.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Other limitations.</I> The CDFI Fund may impose other limitations as appropriate to administer the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program including, but not limited to, requiring Qualified Issuers to obtain Credit Enhancement to safeguard against the risk of default.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Terms for Bond issuance and disbursement of Bond Proceeds.</I> (1) The Qualified Issuer must execute Bond Loan documents for 100 percent of the principal amount of each Bond on the Bond Issue Date. There will be an annual assessment to determine whether the Qualified Issuer is subject to the repayment provision established in 12 U.S.C. 4713a(c)(4). Terms and conditions for the annual assessment will be set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability.
</P>
<P>(2) Disbursements of Bond Proceeds to the Qualified Issuer shall be made pursuant to an advance request process established by the Bond Purchaser and the CDFI Fund under which the Qualified Issuer shall request an advance of funds under a Bond.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Amortization of Bond.</I> The principal amount of each advance of funds under a Bond shall amortize in level debt service payments of principal and interest, which payments shall be due either quarterly or semi-annually, as determined by the Qualified Issuer and the Bond Purchaser, and which shall begin on the first principal payment date specified in the Bond, as determined by the Qualified Issuer and the Bond Purchaser. Prior to the first principal payment date, interest accrued shall be due on the payment dates specified in the Bond, as determined by the Qualified Issuer and the Bond Purchaser.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Optional prepayment of Bonds.</I> All or a portion of any advance of funds under a Bond, or the Bond in its entirety, may be prepaid by the Qualified Issuer at any time. Any partial prepayment of an advance shall be in an amount equal to at least $100,000 of principal. Each partial prepayment of an advance of funds under a Bond shall be applied in the manner set forth in the Bond. Any partial or full prepayment of an advance of funds under a Bond shall be subject to the payment of a prepayment price, as provided in the Bond Documents.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Mandatory prepayment of Bonds.</I> (1) Any Bond shall be subject to mandatory prepayment if Bond Loans or Secondary Loans are not made in a timely manner, as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) On the Calculation Date (as defined in subsection 1808.308(e)) of each year, any amount retained in the Relending Subaccount that exceeds the Relending Subaccount Maximum (as defined in subsection 1808.308(d)) by $100,000 or more shall be applied to prepay Bonds on the next succeeding payment date.
</P>
<P>(ii) Any amounts derived from the liquidation of collateral from the Bond Loan and/or Secondary Loan in connection with the exercise by the Guarantor, the Qualified Issuer or the Bondholder of remedies upon default of the Bond Loan shall be applied, immediately upon liquidation, in the following order (inclusive of reasonable fees and expenses associated therewith):
</P>
<P>(A) To the repayment of any amounts drawn under the Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(B) To the prepayment of Bonds, in a like amount;
</P>
<P>(C) To the replenishment of any funds drawn from the Risk-Share Pool Fund; and
</P>
<P>(D) To the Eligible CDFI for application in accordance with the Secondary Loan documents.
</P>
<P>(2) When an amount is required to be applied as a mandatory prepayment of Bonds, the Qualified Issuer may select which advances of funds under a Bond are to be prepaid. Any amount applied as a partial prepayment of an advance under a Bond shall be applied as provided in the Bond. Any partial or full prepayment of an advance of funds under a Bond shall be subject to the payment of a prepayment price, as provided in the Bond Documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.303" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.303   Risk-Share Pool.</HEAD>
<P>The Master Servicer/Trustee, on behalf of the Qualified Issuer and for the benefit of the Bondholder, shall establish a Risk-Share Pool that is funded at each disbursement of the Bond Loan proceeds by payment from each Eligible CDFI in accordance with 12 U.S.C. 4713a(d). The Risk-Share Pool must remain in place throughout the term of the Guarantee. Amounts in the Risk Share Pool Fund will not be returned to Eligible CDFIs until maturity of all of the Bonds, and termination of all of the Bond Loans, within a Bond Issue.
</P>
<P>(a) At each disbursement of the Bond Loan proceeds, each Eligible CDFI shall deposit an amount that is equal to three percent of the disbursement, for a total of three percent of the guaranteed amount outstanding of the Bond, from monies other than Bond Loan proceeds, into the applicable subaccount of the Risk-Share Pool Fund. Such monies shall remain in said account throughout the term of the Bond.
</P>
<P>(b) Any interest on a Bond Loan in excess of the Bond Loan Rate derived by the Qualified Issuer during any period during which the Bond Loan Payment Default Rate applies shall also be deposited in the Risk-Share Pool Fund.
</P>
<P>(c) The Risk-Share Pool Fund shall be applied by the Master Servicer/Trustee to payments of debt service on the Bond Issue in the event that the Eligible CDFI defaults in the corresponding payment of debt service on the Bond Loan. The defaulted Eligible CDFI's deposit shall be applied first to any such payment of debt service. After depletion of the defaulted Eligible CDFI's deposit, each remaining Eligible CDFI's deposit shall be applied prorata to any such payment of debt service. Monies on deposit in the Risk-Share Pool Fund shall be applied to such payments and shall be depleted in full prior to any draw on the Guarantee.
</P>
<P>(d) Eligible CDFIs (excluding the Eligible CDFI in default and responsible for a draw) shall not be required to replenish the Risk-Share Pool Fund in the event of a draw.
</P>
<P>(e) The Risk Share Pool deposit shall be sufficient collateral to secure any draw on Bond Loan proceeds related to the costs of issuance pursuant to 1808.304(b).
</P>
<P>(f) In the event of a payment default on the Bond Loan by an Eligible CDFI, the Qualified Issuer shall notify the CDFI Fund and request permission to draw from the Risk-Share Pool to cover any default of principal and interest payments due to the Bond Purchaser.
</P>
<P>(g) Amounts in the Risk Share Pool Fund will not be returned to Eligible CDFIs until maturity of all of the Bonds, and termination of all of the Bond Loans, within a Bond Issue. Upon maturity of all of the Bonds, and termination of the Bond Loans, within a Bond Issue, the pro rata amount of each Eligible CDFI's payments in the Risk-Share Pool shall be returned to each Eligible CDFI; provided however, that such Eligible CDFI has properly replenished any draws on the Risk-Share Pool attributed to nonpayment of its Bond Loan and the corresponding Bond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.304" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.304   Eligible uses of Bond Loan proceeds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible uses.</I> Bond Loan proceeds shall be only used for Eligible Purposes, to prefund one monthly installment of Bond Loan payments, and to pay Bond Issuance Fees. As a Bond Loan is repaid, such repaid Bond Loan proceeds must be held in the Relending Account and used for additional Secondary Loans, to the extent authorized under § 1808.308.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bond Issuance Fees.</I> (1) Amounts not to exceed one percent of Bond Loan proceeds may be applied to pay Bond Issuance Fees. Bond Loan proceeds that are used to pay Bond Issuance Fees shall be applied in the following order of priority:
</P>
<P>(i) To pay reasonable transaction fees and expenses of the Qualified Issuer, its advisors and consultants, related to the Bond issuance (but not including any salaries or administrative costs of the Qualified Issuer unrelated to the Bond issuance);
</P>
<P>(ii) To pay reasonable transaction fees and expenses of the Master Servicer/Trustee, its advisors and consultants, related to the Bond issuance; and
</P>
<P>(iii) To pay reasonable transaction fees and expenses of the Eligible CDFI, its advisors and consultants, related to the making of the Bond Loan.
</P>
<P>(2) Any fees and expenses arising out of each transaction which, in the aggregate, exceed the one percent limit on Bond Issuance Fees payable from Bond Loan proceeds must be paid by the Eligible CDFI from monies other than Bond Loan proceeds.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Prefunding of Bond Loan payments.</I> Bond Loan proceeds may be used to prefund one monthly installment of Bond Loan payments.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.305" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.305   Bond Loan terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Maturity date.</I> The maturity date of a Bond Loan shall not be later than 30 years after the Bond Issue Date. The maturity date of Bond Loans may be earlier than, but may not be later than, the maturity date of the corresponding Bond.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Bond Loan general recourse obligation; Collateral.</I> (1) The Bond Loan shall be a general recourse obligation of the Eligible CDFI.
</P>
<P>(2) The Bond Loan shall be further secured by a first lien of the Master Servicer/Trustee, on behalf of the Bondholder, on:
</P>
<P>(i) The Trust Estate;
</P>
<P>(ii) Qualified Secondary Loan Receivables; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Either:
</P>
<P>(A) An assignment of the Secondary Loan collateral (other than a Principal Loss Collateral Provision) from the Eligible CDFI to the Master Servicer/Trustee; or
</P>
<P>(B) Provision of a Principal Loss Collateral Provision for the benefit of the Master Servicer/Trustee, in accordance with the Bond Loan Requirements and the Secondary Loan Requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) The CDFI Fund may, in its sole discretion, approve alternative forms of Bond Loan collateral.
</P>
<P>(4) A parity first lien on pledged collateral may be accepted, in the sole discretion of the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(5) If any collateral becomes non-performing during the term of the Bond Loan, the Guarantor may require the applicable Eligible CDFI to substitute other collateral that is of equal quality to the initial collateral, when performing, acceptable to the Guarantor in its sole discretion.
</P>
<P>(6) An Eligible CDFI's parent organization, Affiliate, or an entity that is related to the Eligible CDFI through its management structure, may assume limited recourse obligation for the Bond Loan if it provides Credit Enhancement and/or pledges financial resources or such other financial support or risk mitigation that would enhance the Eligible CDFI's creditworthiness and its ability to repay the Bond Loan, thereby decreasing the risk underlying the Guarantee.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Disbursement of Bond Loan proceeds.</I> (1) Bond Loans shall be draw-down loans. Disbursements of Bond Loan proceeds to the Eligible CDFI shall be made pursuant to a requisition process established by the Bond Purchaser and the CDFI Fund, which shall include a process by which the Qualified Issuer shall request an advance from the Bondholder under the Bond and a process by which the Eligible CDFI shall request disbursement from the Qualified Issuer.
</P>
<P>(2) Each requisition shall be accompanied by invoices and certifications by the Eligible CDFI (and the Secondary Borrower, if applicable) as to expenditure of proceeds for Eligible Purposes.
</P>
<P>(3) No Bond Loan proceeds may be disbursed later than 60 months after the Bond Issue Date. Any Bond Loan proceeds not disbursed will have been forfeited by the Eligible CDFI.
</P>
<P>(4) Disbursements to capitalize the Eligible CDFI's Loan Loss Reserves shall be made pursuant to a requisition process established by the Qualified Issuer and the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Amortization of Bond Loan.</I> Each Bond Loan shall amortize in the same manner as the corresponding Bond; provided that principal and/or interest on each Bond Loan shall be payable to the Qualified Issuer in monthly installments based on the required quarterly or semi-annual installments, as applicable, due on the corresponding Bond; provided further, that each Eligible CDFI shall prefund one monthly payment installment not later than the thirtieth day prior to the first payment date of the corresponding Bond so that on the thirtieth day prior to such Bond payment date, the Eligible CDFI shall have paid in full all amounts due on the Bond payment date.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Optional prepayment of Bond Loan.</I> The Bond Loan shall be subject to prepayment, in whole or in part, at the option of the Eligible CDFI in accordance with the optional prepayment provisions of the corresponding Bond (including the required prepayment minimums of $100,000) and shall be subject to the payment of a prepayment price, as determined by the Bondholder in accordance with the corresponding Bond.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mandatory prepayment of Bond Loan.</I> The Bond Loan shall be subject to mandatory prepayment by the Eligible CDFI in accordance with the mandatory prepayment provisions of the corresponding Bond.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.306" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.306   Conditions precedent to Bond and Bond Loan.</HEAD>
<P>The ability of the Qualified Issuer to issue a Bond and make a Bond Loan shall be subject to the satisfaction of the following conditions precedent:
</P>
<P>(a) Evidence satisfactory to the Qualified Issuer that the Eligible CDFI will comply with the terms and conditions of the Bond Loan documents, including repayment of the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(b) Evidence satisfactory to the Qualified Issuer, the Guarantor, and the CDFI Fund that the Eligible CDFI has the authority to enter into the Bond Loan, has secured the Credit Enhancement, if any, demonstrated a reasonable prospect of repayment of the Bond Loan, and pledged the collateral (including executed security documents, UCC-1 financing statements or mortgages, as applicable);
</P>
<P>(c) A Guarantee Application that has been approved by the Guarantor;
</P>
<P>(d) A satisfactory credit review by the CDFI Fund and in compliance with the Bond Loan Requirements, including submission of complete and accurate Guarantee Application materials, submitted in a timely manner, demonstrating the Eligible CDFI's ability to repay the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(e) Opinions of legal counsel to the Qualified Issuer and the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(f) Executed Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(g) Organizational documents of the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(h) Certifications by the Qualified Issuer and Eligible CDFIs that Bond Proceeds and Bond Loan proceeds will not be used for lobbying by recipients of Federal loans or guarantees;
</P>
<P>(i) A statement that no default, event of default, or due and unsatisfied liability has occurred and is continuing with respect to any obligations of the Qualified Issuer and each Eligible CDFI to the CDFI Fund, the Guarantor, the Bond Purchaser, the U.S. Internal Revenue Service, or any other agency, authority or instrumentality of the Federal Government; and
</P>
<P>(j) Any other conditions precedent set forth in the Bond Loan documents, including documentation that any credit enhancements have been secured by the Eligible CDFI.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.307" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.307   Secondary Loan Eligible Purposes; Terms and conditions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Eligible Purposes.</I> Eligible CDFIs must make Secondary Loans for Eligible Purposes. Secondary Loan proceeds may not be used to capitalize loan loss reserves.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Making Secondary Loans.</I> (1) If the Eligible CDFI uses Bond Loan proceeds to make Secondary Loans, the Eligible CDFI must execute Secondary Loan documents (in the form of promissory notes) with Secondary Borrowers as follows:
</P>
<P>(i) Not later than 12 months after the Bond Issue Date, Secondary Loan documents representing at least 50 percent of the Eligible CDFIs' Bond Loan proceeds allocated for Secondary Loans; and
</P>
<P>(ii) Not later than 24 months after the Bond Issue Date, Secondary Loan documents representing 100 percent of the Eligible CDFIs' Bond Loan proceeds allocated for Secondary Loans (excluding any amounts used for payment of Bond Issuance Fees pursuant to section 1808.304(b)).
</P>
<P>(2) In the event that the Eligible CDFI does not comply with the foregoing requirements of paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section, the available Bond Loan proceeds at the end of the applicable period shall be reduced by an amount equal to the difference between the amount required by paragraphs (b)(1)(i) and (ii) minus the amount previously committed to the Secondary Loans in the applicable period. Consistent with the corresponding Bond Loan, the Secondary Loans shall be drawn down by the Secondary Borrowers upon demonstration of an Eligible Purpose.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Secondary Loan interest rate.</I> The rate of interest with respect to each Secondary Loan shall be determined by each Eligible CDFI in accordance with the following limitations:
</P>
<P>(1) With respect to each Secondary Loan, the Eligible CDFI will be required to propose to the CDFI Fund:
</P>
<P>(i) A minimum and maximum spread over the corresponding Bond Loan Rate which will represent the standard minimum and maximum interest rate (Minimum Secondary Loan Rate and Maximum Secondary Loan Rate, respectively); and
</P>
<P>(ii) A maximum spread over the Maximum Secondary Loan Rate in event of a Secondary Loan default (Maximum Secondary Loan Default Spread).
</P>
<P>(2) The CDFI Fund reserves the right to evaluate, approve, modify, or disapprove the proposed Minimum Secondary Loan Rate, Maximum Secondary Loan Rate, and Maximum Secondary Loan Default Spread before approving any Guarantee Application.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Secondary Loan default rate.</I> The Eligible CDFI may charge a default rate on the Secondary Loan so long as such rate does not exceed the Maximum Secondary Rate, plus the Maximum Secondary Loan Default Spread.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Secondary Loan maturity.</I> The maturity date with respect to the Secondary Loan shall be in accordance with the requirements of the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements. The maturity date of Secondary Loans may be earlier than, but may not be later than, the maturity date of the corresponding Bond.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Secondary Loan collateral.</I> (1) The Secondary Loan shall be payable from amounts made available pursuant to the Secondary Loan documents, and secured by:
</P>
<P>(i) A first lien of the Eligible CDFI on pledged collateral in an amount that is consistent with the loan-to-value ratio requirements set forth in the Secondary Loan Requirements; or
</P>
<P>(ii) A Principal Loss Collateral Provision for the benefit of the Master Servicer/Trustee, in accordance with the Bond Loan Requirements and the Secondary Loan Requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified Secondary Loan Receivables may be used as collateral; provided however, that such collateral is secured by a first lien on the Secondary Loan collateral in accordance with the Bond Loan Requirements and the Secondary Loan Requirements, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(3) A parity first lien on pledged collateral may be accepted, in the sole discretion of the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Commitments for Secondary Loans.</I> Each proposed Secondary Loan shall be approved by the credit committee of the Eligible CDFI or its equivalent, in accordance with the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements and the Eligible CDFI's own underwriting requirements.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Disbursement of Secondary Loan proceeds.</I> (1) Consistent with the corresponding Bond Loan, Secondary Loans shall be draw-down loans. Disbursements of Secondary Loan proceeds to the Secondary Borrower shall be made pursuant to a requisition process established by the Qualified Issuer and the CDFI Fund and shall mirror the requirements for the disbursement of Bond Proceeds.
</P>
<P>(2) Each requisition shall be accompanied by invoices and certifications by the Secondary Borrower as to expenditure of proceeds for Eligible Purposes. The Eligible CDFI must also attest that the Secondary Loan conforms to the requirements set forth in the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements. In the case of Refinancings, the Eligible CDFI must also attest that the original loan was used for an Eligible Purpose.
</P>
<P>(3) Secondary Loan proceeds shall be disbursed in accordance with the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements which shall set forth, among other requirements, that Secondary Loan disbursements shall be made in accordance with commercially reasonable standards and timeframes for disbursement based on the nature of the Eligible Purposes. The Secondary Loan Requirements shall also specify what constitutes a commercially reasonable timeframe for disbursement in connection with specific types of Eligible Purposes. Notwithstanding the foregoing, each Eligible CDFI shall propose a timeframe for disbursement in connection with each Secondary Loan, which timeframe shall be subject to the requirements set forth in the Secondary Loan Requirements.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Amortization of Secondary Loans.</I> Secondary Loans shall amortize as determined by the Eligible CDFI; provided that Secondary Loan amortization installments shall conform to the requirements of the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements.
</P>
<P>(j) <I>Prepayment of Secondary Loans.</I> Secondary Loans shall be subject to prepayment as determined by the Eligible CDFI; provided that the Secondary Loan documents may provide for modification of Secondary Loan terms (so long as such modification does not affect the corresponding Bond or Bond Loan) and shall provide for mandatory prepayment of the Secondary Loan from liquidation of collateral upon the exercise of default remedies by the Eligible CDFI, the Qualified Issuer or the Guarantor as required by the Bond, the Bond Loan documents, or the Agreement to Guarantee, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(k) <I>Repayment of Secondary Loans.</I> As Secondary Loans are repaid, the Eligible CDFI may, through the Relending Fund, Refinance and substitute as collateral for the Bond Loan other loan(s) for Eligible Purposes that meet the required Secondary Loan Requirements, provided that the Eligible CDFI makes Bond Loan payments as required. If the outstanding principal balance of the Bond Loan exceeds the outstanding principal balance of the Bond Loan in use for the Eligible Purposes, the Eligible CDFI shall repay the difference, which shall be deposited in the Relending Account, and credited to the corresponding Relending Subaccount.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.308" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.308   Relending Fund; Relending Account.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> As Bond Loans are repaid, such amounts in excess of those required for debt service payments on the Bonds may be held in the Relending Account and used for additional Secondary Loans, to the extent authorized in this section.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Application of funds to Secondary Loans.</I> Amounts on deposit in the Relending Account shall be applied by the Eligible CDFI to make additional Secondary Loans, the term of which shall not exceed the maturity of the Bond.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Requirements of Secondary Loans from Relending Account.</I> Secondary Loans made from the Relending Account shall meet all the requirements of the Secondary Loan Requirements, and conform to the following additional conditions:
</P>
<P>(1) The Qualified Issuer has received and approved a Bond Loan commitment request submitted by the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(2) No material event has occurred and is continuing or is threatened at the Eligible CDFI level or Qualified Issuer level that adversely affects the Eligible CDFI, the Bond or the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(3) No Eligible CDFI event of default has occurred and is continuing with respect to the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(4) No Qualified Issuer event of default has occurred and is continuing with respect to the Bond;
</P>
<P>(5) There exists no unreplenished draw on the Risk-Share Pool Fund by the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(6) The maturity of Secondary Loans made from the Relending Fund shall not extend beyond the maturity date of the corresponding Bond; and
</P>
<P>(7) Any other conditions set forth in this interim rule, the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability, the Secondary Loan Requirements or the Bond Loan documents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Relending Subaccounts.</I> The balance of each subaccount of the Relending Fund (each a Relending Subaccount) shall not equal more than 10 percent of the principal amount outstanding of the Bond Loan, minus the prorata share of the Risk-Share Pool, as of the Calculation Date (the Relending Subaccount Maximum).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Notification Date.</I> For purposes of this section, Notification Date means the date on which the Master Servicer/Trustee notifies the Eligible CDFI that the balance in the applicable Relending Subaccount exceeds the applicable Relending Subaccount Maximum. Calculation Date means, following the Notification Date, the earlier of:
</P>
<P>(1) The date on which the balance in such Relending Subaccount becomes less than or equal to the applicable Relending Subaccount Maximum, or
</P>
<P>(2) Six months following the Notification Date.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Mandatory redemption.</I> Any amounts retained in the Relending Subaccount that exceeds the Relending Subaccount Maximum by $100,000 or more as of the applicable Calculation Date shall be transferred to the Redemption Account of the Debt Service Fund (as defined in § 1808.606(f)) to effectuate a mandatory redemption of the corresponding Bond in accordance with the terms of the Bond Trust Indenture. The determination of the actual amount on deposit on any Calculation Date shall exclude amounts then obligated pursuant to any executed promissory notes, whether then disbursed or undisbursed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.309" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.3.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.309   Restrictions on uses of Bond Proceeds and Bond Loan proceeds.</HEAD>
<P>Pursuant to 12 U.S.C. 47123a(c)(5), Bond Loan proceeds shall not be used for:
</P>
<P>(a) Political activities;
</P>
<P>(b) Lobbying, whether directly or through other parties;
</P>
<P>(c) Outreach;
</P>
<P>(d) Counseling services;
</P>
<P>(e) Travel expenses;
</P>
<P>(f) For the salaries or administrative costs of the Qualified Issuer or any recipients of Bond Proceeds, other than those costs covered by Bond Issuance Fees;
</P>
<P>(g) To fund the Risk-Share Pool;
</P>
<P>(h) To pay fees other than Bond Issuance Fees; or
</P>
<P>(i) Any other use as may be specified in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="D" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.4" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart D—Applications for Guarantee and Qualified Issuer</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.400" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.4.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.400   Notice of Guarantee Availability.</HEAD>
<P>Interested parties will be invited to submit Qualified Issuer Applications and Guarantee Applications in accordance with this interim rule and the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability. The NOGA will set forth application and eligibility requirements for an entity that wishes to be designated as a Qualified Issuer (including, in the CDFI Fund's sole discretion, the Designated Bonding Authority) and a Qualified Issuer that wishes to be approved to receive a Guarantee. The NOGA may also contain eligibility requirements, application procedures, and additional terms and conditions for entities wishing to serve as Servicers, Program Administrators, and other roles as may be determined by the CDFI Fund. The NOGA will advise interested parties on how to apply and will establish criteria, deadlines, and other Qualified Issuer and Guarantee Application requirements, including specifying any additional terms and conditions, limitations, special rules, procedures, and restrictions for a given application period.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.401" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.4.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.401   Application requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Qualified Issuer Application.</I> A Qualified Issuer applicant shall provide all required information in its Qualified Issuer Application to establish that it meets all criteria for designation as a Qualified Issuer and can carry out all Qualified Issuer responsibilities and requirements including, but not limited to, information that demonstrates that the applicant has the appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience and is qualified to make, administer and service Bond Loans for Eligible Purposes. After receipt of a Qualified Issuer Application, the CDFI Fund may request additional information and clarifying or technical information on the materials submitted as part of the Qualified Issuer Application. The CDFI Fund will provide the template for the Qualified Issuer Application.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Guarantee Application.</I> (1) A Qualified Issuer shall provide all required information in its Guarantee Application to establish that it meets all criteria set forth in this interim rule to receive a Guarantee and can carry out all Guarantee requirements including, but not limited to, information that demonstrates that the Qualified Issuer has the appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience and is qualified to make, administer and service Bond Loans for Eligible Purposes. The Guarantee Application shall include a Capital Distribution Plan and a Secondary Capital Distribution Plan for each potential Eligible CDFI, as well as any other requirements set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability or as may be required by the CDFI Fund in its sole discretion for the evaluation and selection of Guarantee applicants. After receipt of a Guarantee Application, the CDFI Fund may request additional information and clarifying or technical information on the materials submitted as part of the Guarantee Application. The CDFI Fund will provide the template for the Guarantee Application.
</P>
<P>(2) The Capital Distribution Plan shall include, but not be limited to, the following information:
</P>
<P>(i) Statement of Proposed Sources and Uses of Funds;
</P>
<P>(ii) For the Qualified Issuer and each Certified CDFI seeking a Bond Loan, an organizational capacity statement, a plan that describes how the proposed Bond Loan will meet Eligible Purposes, and a description of Credit Enhancement, if any;
</P>
<P>(iii) A Secondary Capital Distribution Plan, if applicable; and
</P>
<P>(iv) Assurances and certifications that not less than 100 percent of the principal amount of Bonds will be used to make Bond Loans for Eligible Purposes beginning on the Bond Issue Date, and that Secondary Loans shall be made as set forth in subsection 1808.307(b).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="E" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart E—Evaluation and Selection</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.500" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.500   Evaluation of Qualified Issuer Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Each Qualified Issuer Application will be evaluated by the CDFI Fund and, if acceptable, the applicant will be designated as a Qualified Issuer, at the sole discretion of the CDFI Fund. The Qualified Issuer Application review and evaluation process will be based on established standard operating procedures, which may include interviews of applicants and/or site visits to applicants conducted by the CDFI Fund. Through the application review process, the CDFI Fund will evaluate Qualified Issuer applicants on a merit basis and in a fair and consistent manner. Each Qualified Issuer applicant will be reviewed on its ability to successfully implement the activities proposed in its Qualified Issuer Application and carry out the responsibilities of a Qualified Issuer over the life of the Bond. The CDFI Fund will periodically reevaluate the Qualified Issuer over the life of the Bond to ensure it meets the performance standards over the life of the facilities.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility and completeness.</I> A Qualified Issuer applicant will not be eligible to be designated as a Qualified Issuer if it fails to meet the eligibility requirements described in § 1808.200 of this part and the applicable NOGA, or if it has not submitted complete and timely Qualified Issuer Application materials. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to request additional information from the Qualified Issuer applicant, as the CDFI Fund deems appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substantive review.</I> When evaluating Qualified Issuer Applications and selecting applicants to be designated as Qualified Issuers, the CDFI Fund will apply the criteria set forth in the Act at 12 U.S.C. 4713a(a)(8), this interim rule, and the applicable NOGA including, but not limited to, the following evaluation factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the Qualified Issuer Application demonstrates that the applicant possesses the appropriate expertise, capacity and experience, or other qualifications to manage the Bond Issue on the terms and conditions set forth in this interim rule and the applicable NOGA;
</P>
<P>(2) The expertise and experience of its Program Administrator and Servicers;
</P>
<P>(3) The Qualified Issuer applicant's demonstrated performance of financially sound business practices relative to the industry norm for bond issuers, as evidenced by reports of Appropriate Federal Banking Agencies, Appropriate State Agencies, and/or auditors;
</P>
<P>(4) Information that demonstrates the applicant, its Program Administrator and Servicers have the appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience or otherwise be qualified to originate, underwrite, service and monitor loan portfolios that serve Eligible Purposes and are targeted toward Low-Income and Underserved Rural Areas; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such other criteria that the CDFI Fund deems appropriate for purposes of evaluating the merits of a Qualified Issuer Application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.501" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.501   Evaluation of Guarantee Applications.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> After being designated as a Qualified Issuer, the Qualified Issuer may submit a Guarantee Application, seeking authority to issue Bonds and receive a Guarantee on the proposed Bond Issue. A successful Guarantee Application must:
</P>
<P>(1) Demonstrate that the Qualified Issuer and the proposed Eligible CDFIs have a feasible plan to successfully repay the Bond (including principal, interest, and call premium) and Bond Loans according to their respective terms, to the satisfaction of the CDFI Fund; and
</P>
<P>(2) Meet any other requirements deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund and the Guarantor.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Eligibility and completeness.</I> A Qualified Issuer will not be eligible to receive a Guarantee if it fails to meet the eligibility requirements set forth in § 1808.200 of this part and the applicable NOGA, or if it has not submitted complete and timely Guarantee Application materials. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to request additional information from the Qualified Issuer, or to reject a Guarantee Application as the CDFI Fund may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Substantive review.</I> In evaluating Guarantee Applications and selecting a Qualified Issuer to receive a Guarantee, the CDFI Fund and the Guarantor will apply the criteria set forth in this interim rule and the applicable NOGA including, but not limited to, the following evaluation factors:
</P>
<P>(1) The extent to which the Guarantee Application proposes strategies that demonstrate the Qualified Issuer's ability to implement the Capital Distribution Plan;
</P>
<P>(2) The adequacy of proposed risk mitigation provisions designed to protect the financial interests of the Federal Government based on information that includes, but is not limited to: the amount and quality of any Credit Enhancements; the amount and quality of any other financial resources to be pledged or risk mitigation to be provided by an Affiliate to the Eligible CDFI through its management structure, that will assume limited obligation for the Bond Loan and enhance the Eligible CDFI's creditworthiness and its ability to repay the Bond Loan; and the provision for an orderly retirement of principal;
</P>
<P>(3) The extent to which the Guarantee Application demonstrates that the Qualified Issuer possesses the appropriate expertise, capacity and experience, or other qualifications to manage the Bond Issue on the terms and conditions set forth in this interim rule and the applicable NOGA;
</P>
<P>(4) The Qualified Issuer's demonstrated performance of financially sound business practices relative to the industry norm for bond issuers, as evidenced by financial audits and reports of Appropriate Federal Banking Agencies, Appropriate State Agencies, independent regulators, or auditors;
</P>
<P>(5) Information that demonstrates that the Qualified Issuer has the appropriate expertise, capacity, and experience or is otherwise qualified to make, service and monitor Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(6) The extent to which the proposed Bond Loans are likely to serve Low-Income Areas or Underserved Rural Areas; and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other criteria that the CDFI Fund and the Guarantor deem appropriate for purposes of evaluating the merits of a Guarantee Application.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.502" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.502   Evaluation of Designated Bonding Authority Applications.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to the evaluation criteria for Qualified Issuers set forth above, DBA applicants must demonstrate the existence of resources to perform functions of the DBA as set forth in section 1808.201 and meet any other criteria set forth in the applicable NOGA and that may be required by the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.503" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.503   Consultation with Appropriate Regulatory Agencies.</HEAD>
<P>In the case of any CDFI Bond Guarantee Program applicant that is a Federally regulated financial institution (or an Affiliate thereof), the CDFI Fund may consult with the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency prior to designating the applicant as a Qualified Issuer, Servicer, Master Servicer/Trustee, Program Administrator or other role, making a final Guarantee commitment, issuing a Guarantee, and/or entering into an Agreement to Guarantee. The CDFI Fund also reserves the right, in its sole discretion, to consult with the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency and Appropriate State Agency with respect to any Eligible CDFI that is proposed to receive a Bond Loan or any Secondary Borrower that is proposed to receive a Secondary Loan.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.504" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.5.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.504   Selection of Qualified Issuers; Approval for Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Designation of an applicant as a Qualified Issuer shall be based on the foregoing evaluation criteria and processes, and any other requirements or processes that may be set forth in the applicable NOGA. An applicant may simultaneously apply for Qualified Issuer designation and a Guarantee; however, the entity must be designated as a Qualified Issuer before being selected to receive a Guarantee.
</P>
<P>(b) The Guarantor will determine whether a Qualified Issuer will be authorized to issue Bonds and receive a Guarantee based on the foregoing evaluation criteria and processes, and any other requirements or processes set forth in the applicable NOGA.
</P>
<P>(1) Not later than 30 days after receipt of a complete Guarantee Application (or 30 days after designation as a Qualified Issuer, if submitting simultaneous applications) by a Qualified Issuer, the CDFI Fund shall provide an internal Department Opinion regarding compliance by the Qualified Issuer with the requirements of the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program.
</P>
<P>(2) The Guarantor shall approve or deny a Guarantee Application no later than 90 days after receipt of a complete Guarantee Application, and all other required information by the CDFI Fund or the Guarantor with respect to a request for such Guarantee.
</P>
<P>(c) The Guarantor may limit the number of Guarantees made per year or Guarantee Applications accepted to ensure that a sufficient examination of Guarantee Applications is conducted.
</P>
<P>(d) The CDFI Fund shall notify the Qualified Issuer in writing of the Guarantor's approval or disapproval of a Guarantee Application.
</P>
<P>(e) The Guarantor reserves the sole discretion to approve a Guarantee Application for a Guarantee amount that is less than that which is requested.
</P>
<P>(f) In the event that there are material changes after submission of a Guarantee Application (including, but not limited to, a revision of the Capital Distribution Plan or a change in the Certified CDFIs that are proposed for receiving Bond Loans) prior to or after the designation as a Qualified Issuer or approval of a Guarantee Application or Guarantee, the Qualified Issuer or Guarantee applicant must notify the CDFI Fund of such material changes information in a timely and complete manner. The Guarantor will evaluate such material changes, along with the Guarantee Application, to approve or deny the Guarantee Application and/or determine whether to modify the terms and conditions of the Guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>


<DIV6 N="F" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6" TYPE="SUBPART">
<HEAD>Subpart F—Terms and Conditions of Guarantee</HEAD>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.600" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.600   Full faith and credit and incontestability of Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>The full faith and credit of the Federal Government is pledged to the payment of all Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue with respect to Verifiable Losses of Principal, Interest, and Call Premium. An executed Guarantee shall be conclusive evidence that: the Guarantee has been properly authorized; the underlying Bond qualified for such Guarantee; and, but for fraud or material misrepresentation, such Guarantee will be presumed to be legally valid, binding, and enforceable.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.601" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.601   Assignment and transfer of Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>The Guarantee shall be fully assignable and transferrable to the capital markets, on terms and conditions that are consistent with comparable bonds guaranteed by the Federal Government and satisfactory to the Guarantor and the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.602" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.602   Offer of Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>Upon approval of the Guarantee Application, the Qualified Issuer will receive from the Guarantor an offer of Guarantee that will set forth certain required terms and conditions to be fulfilled prior to issuance of the Guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.603" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.603   Issuance of Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Conditions precedent.</I> The commitment of the Guarantor to issue a Guarantee shall be subject to conditions precedent that are usual and customary for financings of this type or otherwise deemed appropriate by the Guarantor including, but not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The conditions precedent to the Bond Issue and the making of the Bond Loan have been satisfied, including a credit review that indicates a reasonable prospect of repayment as demonstrated by the CDFI Fund's analysis of the cash flow and collateral provisions of the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(2) The Qualified Issuer shall have submitted to the CDFI Fund a complete Guarantee Application, containing all required information relating to the Bond and the Bond Loan, as required by the Guarantor;
</P>
<P>(3) There have been no material changes to the Bond and Bond Loan documents from the forms thereof approved by the Guarantor and the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(4) The Bond Purchaser and the Qualified Issuer shall have executed a Bond Purchase Agreement; and
</P>
<P>(5) Such additional information or documents as may be required by the CDFI Fund, the Guarantor, or the Bond Purchaser.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Rescission of approval.</I> The Guarantor, in its sole discretion, may rescind its approval of a Guarantee Application if:
</P>
<P>(1) The Guarantor or the CDFI Fund determines that the Qualified Issuer cannot, or is unwilling to, provide adequate documentation and proof of compliance with paragraph (a) of this section within the time provided for in the offer of Guarantee, or
</P>
<P>(2) The Guarantor or the CDFI Fund determines, in its sole discretion, that the Qualified Issuer no longer meets applicable CDFI Bond Guarantee Program criteria and requirements.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.604" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.604   Agreement to Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> The Qualified Issuer must enter into an Agreement to Guarantee that sets forth the terms and conditions on which the Guarantor will provide the Guarantee of the Bonds issued as part of a Bond Issue.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Terms and conditions.</I> The terms and conditions of the Agreement to Guarantee may include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) The form and amount of Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(2) Any prohibited amendments of Bond Documents or limitations on transfer of the Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(3) Terms and conditions of the Risk-Share Pool and any Credit Enhancement that may be required by the CDFI Fund and the Guarantor;
</P>
<P>(4) Provisions regarding the Agency Administrative Fee;
</P>
<P>(5) Representations and warranties of the Qualified Issuer;
</P>
<P>(6) Pledged security;
</P>
<P>(7) Financial covenants;
</P>
<P>(8) Events of default and remedies;
</P>
<P>(9) Assignment of Bond Loans to the Guarantor;
</P>
<P>(10) Guarantor payment does not discharge Qualified Issuer; subrogation;
</P>
<P>(11) Undertakings for the benefit of the Bondholder including: notices, registration, prohibited amendments, prohibited transfers, and indemnification;
</P>
<P>(12) Governing law;
</P>
<P>(13) Terms and conditions of Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(14) Prohibition against subordination; and
</P>
<P>(15) Such other matters as the Guarantor or the CDFI Fund may deem necessary or appropriate.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Access to funds.</I> In the event that the Qualified Issuer does not execute Bond Loan agreements for 100 percent of the Bond principal on the Bond Issue Date, the Qualified Issuer will have no further access to the amount of funds for which Bond Loan agreements were not executed.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.605" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.605   Agency Administrative Fee.</HEAD>
<P>The Qualified Issuer shall pay the CDFI Fund annually a fee equal to 10 basis points (0.1 percent) of the amount of the unpaid principal of the Bond(s). The initial Agency Administrative Fee must be paid in full as a condition to closing any Agreement to Guarantee, no later than the effective date of the Agreement to Guarantee.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.606" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.606   Program Administrator; Servicer; Master Servicer/Trustee.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>General.</I> Bond Loans shall be overseen by qualified Program Administrators, Servicers, and a Master Servicer/Trustee. For purposes of maximizing efficiencies and minimizing costs, Program Administrator and Servicer duties may be consolidated and performed by Qualified Issuers.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Program Administrator—</I> (1) <I>Duties.</I> The duties of a Program Administrator, which may be performed by the Qualified Issuer, shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Approving and qualifying Eligible CDFI applications for participation in the Guarantee Application;
</P>
<P>(ii) Bond and Bond Loan packaging;
</P>
<P>(iii) Reviewing and approving Secondary Loan commitments from Eligible CDFIs for funds from the Bondholder or the Relending Account based on the Secondary Loan Requirements;
</P>
<P>(iv) Compliance monitoring of Bond Loans and Secondary Loans;
</P>
<P>(v) Preparing and submitting reports required by this interim rule; and
</P>
<P>(vi) All other duties and related services that are customarily expected of a Program Administrator, and as may be required by the CDFI Fund or the Guarantor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection.</I> There shall be one Program Administrator for each Bond Issue. The Qualified Issuer applicant shall provide, in its Qualified Issuer Application, information on its proposed Program Administrator that demonstrates the appropriate expertise, capacity and experience, as well as any additional information that may be required to meet the criteria set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability, including, but not limited to, information on the entity's management and organization, loan administration, and financial capability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees and expenses.</I> The Program Administrator's administrative fees and expenses shall be paid by the Eligible CDFI in accordance with applicable financing documents.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Servicer—</I> (1) <I>Duties.</I> The duties of a Servicer, which may be performed by the Qualified Issuer, shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Billing and collecting Bond Loan payments from Eligible CDFIs;
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiating collection activities on past-due Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(iii) Transferring Bond Loan payments to the respective funds and accounts managed by the Master Servicer/Trustee;
</P>
<P>(iv) Bond Loan administration and servicing;
</P>
<P>(v) Systematic and timely reporting of Bond Loan performance through remittance and servicing reports, and providing such reports as may be required by this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(vi) Proper measurement of annual outstanding Bond Loan requirements; and
</P>
<P>(vii) All other duties and related services that are customarily expected of Servicers, and as may be required by the CDFI Fund or the Guarantor.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection.</I> There shall be one Servicer for each Bond Issue. Each Qualified Issuer applicant shall provide, in its Qualified Issuer Application, information on its proposed Servicer that demonstrates the appropriate expertise, capacity and experience, as well as any additional information that as may be required to meet the criteria set forth in the applicable Notice of Guarantee Availability including, but not limited to, information on the entity's management and organization, loan servicing, and financial capability.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees and expenses.</I> The Servicer's administrative fees and expenses for each Bond Issue shall be paid by the associated Eligible CDFIs in accordance with applicable financing documents.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Special Servicer—</I> (1) <I>Duties.</I> The duties of the Special Servicer shall be performed by the Master Servicer/Trustee and shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Negotiating the restructuring of Bond Loans that are in or about to enter into an event of Default;
</P>
<P>(ii) Initiating foreclosure action and appointing a receiver; and
</P>
<P>(iii) Enforcing deficiency judgments.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Evaluation.</I>The Master Servicer/Trustee applicant shall provide, in its Master Servicer/Trustee application, information on its proposed Special Servicer capabilities and experience. These capabilities may be performed by the Master Servicer/Trustee or an entity designated by the Master Servicer/Trustee. The CDFI Fund shall evaluate the Master Servicer/Trustee applicant's or its designee's ability to perform the duties of Special Servicer based on the capacity and experience in the following areas:
</P>
<P>(i) Restructuring, recovery, and foreclosure of loans that are similar to Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial strength and capacity;
</P>
<P>(iii) Managing regional or national intake, processing, or servicing operational systems and infrastructure of loans that are similar to Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(iv) Managing regional or national originator communication systems and infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(v) Developing and implementing training and other risk management strategies on a regional or national basis;
</P>
<P>(vi) Compliance monitoring and reporting; and
</P>
<P>(vii) Such other criteria that may be required by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees and expenses.</I> The Bond Trust Indenture will outline the Special Servicer's administrative fees and expenses; these fees shall be paid by the Eligible CDFI in accordance with the Bond Trust Indenture and related documents.
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Master Servicer/Trustee—</I> (1) <I>Duties.</I> The duties of the Master Servicer/Trustee shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) The fiduciary power to enforce the terms of Bonds and the Bond Loans pursuant to the Bond Trust Indenture;
</P>
<P>(ii) Establishing and managing the funds and accounts set forth in this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(iii) Providing such reports as required;
</P>
<P>(iv) Overseeing the activities of Servicers and managing loan administration;
</P>
<P>(v) Servicing and monitoring of Bond Issues with respect to repayment obligations to the Bondholder and the terms of the Agreement to Guarantee;
</P>
<P>(vi) Tracking the movement of funds between the accounts of the Master Servicer/Trustee and all Servicers;
</P>
<P>(vii) Ensuring orderly receipt of the monthly remittance and servicing reports of the Servicers;
</P>
<P>(viii) Monitoring collection and foreclosure actions;
</P>
<P>(ix) Aggregating the reporting and distribution of funds to the Qualified Issuer, CDFI Fund, and the Bondholder, as necessary;
</P>
<P>(x) Removing and replacing Servicers, as necessary;
</P>
<P>(xi) Performing systematic and timely reporting of Bond Loan performance compiled from Servicers' reports, and providing such reports as required in this interim rule;
</P>
<P>(xii) Ensuring proper distribution of funds to Eligible CDFIs, servicing the Bonds, and repayment to the Bondholder; and
</P>
<P>(xiii) All other duties and related services that are customarily expected of a Master Servicer/Trustee, and as may be required by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Selection.</I> There shall be one Master Servicer/Trustee for the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program. The CDFI Fund shall solicit applications and make a selection of a Master Servicer/Trustee based on the capacity and experience of the applicant in the areas set forth in paragraph (a)(1) of this section and in the following paragraphs (a)(2)(i) through (vi):
</P>
<P>(i) Administration, servicing, and monitoring of loans that are similar to Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(ii) Financial strength and capacity;
</P>
<P>(ii) Managing regional or national intake, processing, or servicing operational systems and infrastructure of loans that are similar to Bond Loans;
</P>
<P>(iii) Managing regional or national originator communication systems and infrastructure;
</P>
<P>(iv) Developing and implementing training and other risk management strategies on a regional or national basis;
</P>
<P>(v) Compliance monitoring and reporting; and
</P>
<P>(vi) Such other criteria that may be required by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(3) <I>Fees and expenses.</I> The Master Servicer/Trustee's administrative fees and expenses shall be paid by the Eligible CDFI in accordance with the Bond Trust Indenture and related documents.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Funds and accounts.</I> The following funds shall be established by the Master Servicer/Trustee at the time of execution of the Bond Trust Indenture, on behalf of the Qualified Issuer and for the benefit of the Bondholder. On the Bond Issue Date, separate accounts shall be established therein for each Bond and, furthermore, within each account there shall be established a subaccount for each Bond Loan on the date of the closing of each Bond Loan:
</P>
<P>(1) The Project Fund, and therein a Project Account for each Bond: All disbursements of Bond Proceeds from the Bondholder pursuant to the requisition processes shall be deposited in the applicable Project Account or Subaccount, and the Master Servicer/Trustee shall disburse advances with respect to the Bond Loan to the Eligible CDFI therefrom;
</P>
<P>(2) The Revenue Fund, and therein a Revenue Account for each Bond: All payments of debt service or prepayments on the Bond Loan pursuant to the Bond Loan documents, other payments by the Eligible CDFI pursuant to the Bond Loan documents, and any investment income derived from the corresponding accounts or subaccounts in the Debt Service Fund shall be deposited in the accounts and subaccounts of the Revenue Fund;
</P>
<P>(3) The Debt Service Fund, and therein an Interest Account, a Principal Account and a Redemption Account for each Bond: Not later than 30 days prior to a Bond payment date, the Master Servicer/Trustee shall make the following transfers from the applicable account or subaccount of the Revenue Fund:
</P>
<P>(i) All scheduled payments (amortization installments or at maturity) of principal received from the Eligible CDFI on the Bond Loan shall be transferred to the Principal Account or Subaccount;
</P>
<P>(ii) All scheduled payments (amortization installments or at maturity) of interest received from the Eligible CDFI on the Bond Loan shall be transferred to the Interest Account or Subaccount; and
</P>
<P>(iii) All prepayments of principal, interest and premium, if any, received from the Eligible CDFI on the Bond Loan shall be transferred to the Redemption Account or Subaccount;
</P>
<P>(4) The Administrative Fees Fund, and therein an Administrative Fees Account for each Bond: All fees necessary for administering and servicing the Bond or the Bond Loan (including the Agency Administrative Fee and Bond Issuance Fees), payable by the Eligible CDFI pursuant to the Bond Loan documents, shall be deposited in the applicable account or subaccount of the Administrative Fees Fund and, thereafter, shall be disbursed by the Master Servicer/Trustee to the subject recipient in accordance with the terms of each such payment;
</P>
<P>(5) The Risk-Share Pool Fund, and therein a Risk-Share Pool Account for each Bond, in accordance with § 1808.303 of this part;
</P>
<P>(6) The Relending Fund, and therein a Relending Account for each Bond, in accordance with § 1808.308 of this part; and
</P>
<P>(7) Such other funds and accounts as may be required by the CDFI Fund and the Qualified Issuer in connection with a Bond Issue, Bond or Bond Loan.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Other funds and accounts.</I> The Master Servicer/Trustee shall be permitted to establish such other funds and accounts as deemed necessary to administer the requirements of the Bond Trust Indenture. Each account shall be designated by the name of the applicable Bond and each subaccount shall be designated by the name of the applicable Bond Loan.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>No commingling of funds.</I> No commingling of monies shall be permitted between accounts or subaccounts.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Permitted investments.</I> Monies on deposit in the Revenue Fund, the Debt Service Fund, the Risk-Share Pool Fund, the Relending Fund, if invested, shall be invested in U.S. Treasury securities with maturities that do not exceed the dates on which monies will be required for anticipated purposes and may be sold to the extent funds are needed sooner than anticipated. All interest shall be credited to the relevant account in the relevant fund.
</P>
<EDNOTE>
<HED>Editorial Note:</HED><PSPACE>At 78 FR 8310, Feb. 5, 2013, part 1808 was added with two paragraphs (e)(2)(ii) in § 1808.606.</PSPACE></EDNOTE>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.607" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.607   Representations and warranties of Qualified Issuer with respect to Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>The Qualified Issuer shall represent and warrant to the Guarantor, at the execution of any Agreement to Guarantee to which it is a party and thereafter at the closing of any Bond Loan and the issuance of any Bond, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The Qualified Issuer is duly organized, validly existing and in good standing in its State of organization with the power and authority to enter into the agreements and consummate the transactions thereby contemplated;
</P>
<P>(b) The information contained in the Qualified Issuer Application is true and correct;
</P>
<P>(c) The Bonds, when executed, are and will be duly authorized, executed, valid, binding and enforceable obligations of the Qualified Issuer;
</P>
<P>(d) Except as disclosed to the Guarantor, no claim or litigation is pending or threatened which would materially adversely affect the Qualified Issuer's ability to consummate the transactions contemplated by the Agreement to Guarantee, the Bond, or the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(e) The consummation of the transactions contemplated by the Agreement to Guarantee, the Bond, and the Bond Loan will not conflict with or constitute an event of default under any law or agreement to which the Qualified Issuer is subject;
</P>
<P>(f) No authorization, approval or consent of a governmental authority is necessary on the part of the Qualified Issuer to consummate the transactions contemplated by the Bond or the Bond Loan which has not been obtained;
</P>
<P>(g) No funds from any other CDFI Fund program are being used to pay principal, interest, fees, administrative costs, or issuance costs (including Bond Issuance Fees) related to the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, or to fund the Risk-Share Pool; and
</P>
<P>(h) Any other representation or warranty deemed appropriate by the Guarantor, the CDFI Fund or the Bond Purchaser.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.608" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.608   Representations and warranties of Eligible CDFI with respect to each Bond Loan.</HEAD>
<P>The Eligible CDFI shall represent and warrant to the Qualified Issuer, at the execution of each set of Bond Loan documents and, thereafter, until repayment in full of such Bond Loan, the following:
</P>
<P>(a) The performance by the Eligible CDFI under the Bond Loan documents is duly authorized, does not require consent or approval of any governmental authority not already obtained, does not constitute a default of any law or agreement to which the Eligible CDFI is subject, will not result in the imposition of any lien (other than pursuant to the Bond Loan), and constitutes a valid, binding and enforceable obligation of the Eligible CDFI;
</P>
<P>(b) The information provided by the Eligible CDFI fairly represents the financial position (in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles), experience and capacity of the Eligible CDFI, and there have been no material adverse changes in the Eligible CDFI's financial condition since the date of such financial information;
</P>
<P>(c) No claim or litigation is pending or threatened which would materially adversely affect the Eligible CDFI's ability to consummate the transactions contemplated by the Bond Loan, or repay the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(d) No event of default or other material event which could become an event of default has occurred and is continuing;
</P>
<P>(e) The Eligible CDFI has filed all Federal, State and local tax returns required and paid all liabilities in connection therewith;
</P>
<P>(f) The Eligible CDFI has good and marketable title to the collateral;
</P>
<P>(g) The Bond Loan will be applied to Eligible Purposes;
</P>
<P>(h) The information provided in the Guarantee Application is true and accurate;
</P>
<P>(i) No default, event of default or due and unsatisfied liability has occurred and is continuing with respect to any obligations of the Eligible CDFI to the Guarantor, the CDFI Fund, the Bond Purchaser, the U. S. Internal Revenue Service, or any other agency, authority or instrumentality of the Federal Government;
</P>
<P>(j) No funds from any other CDFI Fund program are being used to pay principal, interest, fees, administrative costs, or issuance costs (including Bond Issuance Fees) related to the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, or to fund the Risk-Share Pool; and
</P>
<P>(k) Any other representations and warranties set forth in the Bond Loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.609" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.609   Representations and warranties of Secondary Borrower.</HEAD>
<P>Each Secondary Borrower shall make identical representations and warranties as the Eligible CDFI and shall make specific representations and warranties with respect to the collateral and the project that is proposed to be financed by the Secondary Loan, upon which the Eligible CDFI, the Qualified Issuer, the Bondholder, the Guarantor, and the CDFI Fund may rely. These representation and warranties shall be to the satisfaction of the Guarantor and the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.610" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.610   Covenants of Qualified Issuer with respect to Guarantee.</HEAD>
<P>The Qualified Issuer shall covenant in the Agreement to Guarantee that it will:
</P>
<P>(a) Furnish to the CDFI Fund, at the Qualified Issuer's expense, all annual and periodic financial reporting as described in § 1808.619 of this part;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain books and records related to each Bond Loan, the collateral and the project that is to be financed by Bond Proceeds, and allow inspection thereof;
</P>
<P>(c) Preserve its corporate existence and Certified CDFI status, if applicable;
</P>
<P>(d) Comply with all laws to which it is subject;
</P>
<P>(e) Maintain its solvency;
</P>
<P>(f) To the extent it assigns any of its obligations under the agreement to an Affiliate, guarantee performance of such obligations;
</P>
<P>(g) Allow audits and investigations by the CDFI Fund, the Treasury Inspector General, the Comptroller General, or such other Federal Government offices as may be designated by the Guarantor or the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(h) Provide such reports as required in § 1808.619 of this part;
</P>
<P>(i) Make, execute and deliver such instruments as the Guarantor or the CDFI Fund may reasonably request;
</P>
<P>(j) Sign and certify as true and correct all Bond Documents and Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(k) Not amend or modify any agreement related to the Bond without the consent of the Bondholder, the Guarantor, or the CDFI Fund, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(l) Comply with the terms and conditions of the Agreement to Guarantee, the Bond Trust Indenture, and the Bond and Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(m) Immediately notify the Guarantor and the CDFI Fund of any material change or event that affects any representation, warranty or covenant of the Guarantee, Bond or Bond Loan documents;
</P>
<P>(n) Pay and discharge all Federal, State and local taxes; andand
</P>
<P>(o) Comply with all other covenants set forth in the Bond Documents and Bond Loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.611" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.611   Covenants of Eligible CDFI with respect to Bond and each Bond Loan.</HEAD>
<P>The Eligible CDFI shall covenant in the Bond Loan agreement that it will:
</P>
<P>(a) Furnish to the Qualified Issuer, at the Eligible CDFI's expense, certain annual and periodic financial and performance reporting;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain books and records related to the Bond Loan and Secondary Loans, the collateral and the project that is to be financed by Bond Loan proceeds, and allow inspection thereof;
</P>
<P>(c) Preserve its corporate existence and Certified CDFI status;
</P>
<P>(d) Comply with all laws to which it is subject;
</P>
<P>(e) Maintain insurance, as required by the Qualified Issuer, against such risks as would customarily be maintained by commercially reasonable companies in a similar line of business;
</P>
<P>(f) Pay and discharge all Federal, State and local taxes;
</P>
<P>(g) Ensure proper use of proceeds of the Bond Loan;
</P>
<P>(h) Pay all required administrative expenses;
</P>
<P>(i) Indemnify the Guarantor, the CDFI Fund, the Qualified Issuer and the Master Servicer/Trustee and their Affiliates;
</P>
<P>(j) Collaterally assign all rights, title, and interest in and to Secondary Loan collateral to the Master Servicer/Trustee;
</P>
<P>(k) Maintain the collateral;
</P>
<P>(l) Enforce the covenants against the Secondary Borrowers;
</P>
<P>(m) Be bound, to the extent applicable, to provisions of the Bond Trust Indenture;
</P>
<P>(n) Periodically, as directed by the CDFI Fund, furnish certain information designed to measure the impacts of the Bond Loan and the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program;
</P>
<P>(o) Periodically, as directed by the CDFI Fund, furnish to the Qualified Issuer and/or the CDFI Fund updates to the Capital Distribution Plan; and
</P>
<P>(p) Comply with all other representations and warranties set forth in the Bond Loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.612" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.612   Specific financial covenants of Eligible CDFI.</HEAD>
<P>The Eligible CDFI shall covenant in Bond Loan documents that it will comply with specific financial requirements as required by the Guarantor and the CDFI Fund. Such financial requirements will be determined based upon the quantity and the character of the existing loan facilities of the Eligible CDFI, among other factors. The specific financial covenants may include, but are not limited to, one or more of the following measures: consolidated net asset ratio; consolidated unrestricted net asset ratio; and minimum available liquidity (or, in the case of Eligible CDFIs that are regulated financial institutions, such ratios and information as may be required by the applicable Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency). The specific financial requirements shall be measured based upon such Eligible CDFI's financial statements prepared in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles and consistent with historically applied accounting policies and practices.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.613" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.613   Negative covenants of Eligible CDFI.</HEAD>
<P>The Eligible CDFI will covenant in Bond Loan documents that it will comply with certain negative covenants, as required by the CDFI Fund including, but not limited to, that it will:
</P>
<P>(a) Not incur or issue additional long-term or short-term debt to the extent that the incurrence of such additional debt would violate the specific financial covenants of such Eligible CDFI under the Bond Loan; and
</P>
<P>(b) Not permit liens on all or any part of the Bond Loan collateral, except as permitted pursuant to the Bond Loan documents, and only then to the extent consistent with the applicable laws and regulations governing the Bond Loan and as approved by the CDFI Fund.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.614" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.614   Covenants of Secondary Borrower with respect to Secondary Loan.</HEAD>
<P>In addition to making specific representations and warranties with respect to the collateral and the project being financed by the Secondary Loan proceeds, each Secondary Borrower shall covenant in the Secondary Loan agreement that it will:
</P>
<P>(a) Periodically, as directed by the Eligible CDFI, furnish to the Eligible CDFI certain annual and periodic financial and performance reporting;
</P>
<P>(b) Maintain books and records related to the Secondary Loan, the collateral and the project that is to be financed by Bond Loan proceeds, and allow inspection thereof;
</P>
<P>(c) Preserve its corporate existence, as applicable;
</P>
<P>(d) Comply with all laws to which it is subject;
</P>
<P>(e) Maintain insurance, as directed by the Eligible CDFI, against such risks as would customarily be maintained by commercially reasonable companies in a similar line of business;
</P>
<P>(f) Pay and discharge all Federal, State and local taxes;
</P>
<P>(g) Ensure proper use of proceeds of the Secondary Loan;
</P>
<P>(h) Maintain the collateral;
</P>
<P>(i) Periodically, as directed by the Eligible CDFI, furnish to the Eligible CDFI certain information designed to measure the impacts of the Bond Loan and the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program; and
</P>
<P>(j) Comply with all other representations and warranties set forth in the Secondary Loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.615" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.615   Negative covenants of Secondary Borrower.</HEAD>
<P>Any additional debt of the Secondary Borrower shall be in accordance with the requirements set forth in the applicable Secondary Loan Requirements and the Secondary Loan agreement, and may include, but shall not be limited to, that:
</P>
<P>(a) The Secondary Borrower will not incur or issue additional long-term or short-term debt payable from and having a lien on all or a portion of the Secondary Loan collateral that is
</P>
<P>(1) Equally and ratably secured; or
</P>
<P>(2) Superior or senior to the lien thereon of the Secondary Loan as more specifically set forth in the Secondary Loan agreement; and
</P>
<P>(b) So long as no event of default has occurred and is continuing, the Secondary Borrower may, subject to the approval of the Eligible CDFI, incur or issue at any time additional debt payable from and having a lien on all or a portion of the Secondary Loan collateral that is subordinate or junior to the lien thereon of the Secondary Loan and enter into subordinate credit facility agreements, provided that no events of default have occurred and are continuing under the Secondary Loan documents or any parity senior loan documents and that such debt meets the requirements set forth in paragraph (a) of this section.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.616" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.17" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.616   Events of default and remedies with respect to Bonds.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Events of default.</I> An event of default with respect to any Bond shall include, but not be limited to:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonpayment of interest or the Agency Administrative Fee when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonpayment of principal or prepayment price when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(3) The use of Bond Proceeds for any purpose other than an Eligible Purpose; and
</P>
<P>(4) Any other events of default set forth in the Bond or the Bond Trust Indenture.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Default of other Bonds.</I> An event of default under one Bond shall not constitute an event of default under another Bond.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Remedies.</I> Pursuant to the Agreement to Guarantee and the Bond Trust Indenture, remedies upon an event of default shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Declaring the entire amount of unpaid principal and interest on the applicable Bond immediately due and payable; and
</P>
<P>(2) Exercising all remedies available under the applicable Agreement to Guarantee and the Bond Trust Indenture.
</P>
<P>(d) Notice and comment. Prior to imposing any remedies pursuant to this section or the Agreement to Guarantee, the Guarantor shall, to the maximum extent practicable, provide the Qualified Issuer with written notice of the proposed sanction and an opportunity to comment. Nothing in this section, however, shall provide a Qualified Issuer the right to any formal or informal hearing or comparable proceeding not otherwise required by law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.617" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.18" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.617   Events of default and remedies with respect to Bond Loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Events of default.</I> The following shall constitute an event of default with respect to each Bond Loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonpayment of interest when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonpayment of principal or prepayment price when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(3) Failure of the Eligible CDFI to perform any condition or covenant under any Bond Loan document;
</P>
<P>(4) Any representation or warranty of the Eligible CDFI made in connection with the Guarantee Application or the Bond Loan is false or incorrect in any material respect;
</P>
<P>(5) Principal or interest on any indebtedness of the Eligible CDFI or any subsidiary of the Eligible CDFI in excess of $100,000 is not paid when due (subject to a cure period);
</P>
<P>(6) The holder of any junior or parity lien on collateral institutes a proceeding to enforce a lien on the collateral;
</P>
<P>(7) The Eligible CDFI files bankruptcy or consents to the appointment of a receiver or trustee for itself or the collateral;
</P>
<P>(8) Any money judgment is filed against the Eligible CDFI and remains unvacated for a period of 60 days from filing;
</P>
<P>(9) The use of Bond Loan proceeds for any purpose other than an Eligible Purpose; or
</P>
<P>(10) Any other events of default set forth in the Bond Loan documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Remedies.</I> Remedies of the Qualified Issuer upon an event of default include, but are not limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Declaring the entire amount of unpaid principal and interest on the applicable Bond Loan immediately due and payable;
</P>
<P>(2) Applying for appointment of a receiver or trustee for the collateral;
</P>
<P>(3) At the direction of the Guarantor, terminating the Bond Loan agreement, declaring the entire amount of unpaid principal and interest on the applicable Bond Loan immediately due and payable; and
</P>
<P>(4) Exercising all remedies available under the applicable Bond Loan agreement, including declaring the Bond Loan Payment Default Rate in effect.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Enforcement rights.</I> The Guarantor reserves all rights to enforce remedies upon an event of default.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.618" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.19" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.618   Events of default and remedies with respect to Secondary Loans.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Events of default.</I> The following shall constitute an event of default with respect to each Secondary Loan:
</P>
<P>(1) Nonpayment of interest when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(2) Nonpayment of principal when due and payable;
</P>
<P>(3) Failure of the Secondary Borrower to perform any condition or covenant under any Secondary Loan document;
</P>
<P>(4) Any representation or warranty of the Secondary Borrower made in connection with the Secondary Loan application or the Secondary Loan documents is false or incorrect in any material respect;
</P>
<P>(5) Principal or interest on any indebtedness of the Secondary Borrower or any subsidiary of the Secondary Borrower in excess of $100,000 is not paid when due (subject to a cure period);
</P>
<P>(6) The holder of any junior or parity lien on collateral institutes a proceeding to enforce a lien on the collateral;
</P>
<P>(7) The Secondary Borrower files bankruptcy or consents to the appointment of a receiver or trustee for itself or the collateral;
</P>
<P>(8) Any money judgment is filed against the Secondary Borrower and remains unvacated for a period of 60 days from filing; or
</P>
<P>(9) Any other events of default set forth in the Secondary Loan documents.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Remedies.</I> The Qualified Issuer and the Guarantor will reserve certain rights to enforce (or direct enforcement of) remedies upon an event of default under the Secondary Loan documents.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.619" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.20" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.619   Reporting requirements.</HEAD>
<P>The Bond Documents and Bond Loan documents shall specify such monitoring and financial reporting requirements as deemed appropriate by the CDFI Fund including, but not limited to the following:
</P>
<P>(a) <I>Data—General.</I> As long as the Bonds remain outstanding, a Qualified Issuer shall provide such reports and shall maintain such records as may be prescribed by the CDFI Fund that are necessary to:
</P>
<P>(1) Disclose the manner in which Bond Proceeds are used, including providing documentation to demonstrate proceeds of the Bond Loans were used for Eligible Purposes;
</P>
<P>(2) Demonstrate compliance with the requirements of this part and the Bond Documents;
</P>
<P>(3) Evaluate the impact of the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program;
</P>
<P>(4) Ensure the Qualified Issuer meets the performance standards over the life of the facilities; and
</P>
<P>(5) Accomplish such other purposes that the CDFI Fund may deem appropriate.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Customer profiles.</I> The Qualified Issuer shall require each Eligible CDFI to compile such data on the gender, race, ethnicity, national origin, or other information on individuals and entities that utilize its products and services as the CDFI Fund shall prescribe and as is permissible under applicable law. In general, such data will be used to determine whether residents of Investment Area(s) or members of Targeted Population(s) are adequately served and to evaluate the impact of the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program.
</P>
<P>(c) <I>Audits; Access to records.</I> (1) The CDFI Fund may, if it deems appropriate, audit Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, Program Administrators, Servicers, and/or the Master Servicer/Trustee, or provide for or require an audit, at least annually. Portfolio management and loan monitoring will also employ risk-based, on-site verification of the Eligible CDFI's lending activities to Secondary Borrowers and compliance with the terms in Secondary Lending Requirements.
</P>
<P>(2) Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, Program Administrators, Servicers, the Master Servicer/Trustee, as applicable, must submit such financial and activity reports, records, statements, and documents at such times, in such forms, and accompanied by such reporting data, as required by the CDFI Fund to ensure compliance with the requirements of this interim rule and to evaluate the impact of the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program.
</P>
<P>(3) The Federal Government, including the U.S. Department of the Treasury, the Comptroller General, and their duly authorized representatives, shall have full and free access to such entities' offices and facilities and all books, documents, records, and financial statements relating to the Guarantee and may copy such documents as they deem appropriate
</P>
<P>(4) The CDFI Fund, if it deems appropriate, may prescribe audit and access to record requirements for Eligible CDFIs and Secondary Borrowers.
</P>
<P>(d) <I>Retention of records.</I> Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, Program Administrators, the Master Servicer/Trustee, and Servicers shall comply with all record retention requirements as set forth in OMB Circular A-110 (as applicable).
</P>
<P>(e) <I>Data collection and reporting.</I> Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, the Program Administrator, the Master Servicer/Trustee, and Servicers, as applicable, shall submit to the CDFI Fund, monthly, quarterly, and annually, as specified in the Bond Documents, and as long as the Bond shall remain outstanding, such information and documentation that will permit the CDFI Fund to review compliance with the Capital Distribution Plan and the terms and conditions of the Bond Documents, and to perform adequate portfolio management and loan monitoring. The information and documentation may include, but not be limited to, the following:
</P>
<P>(1) Financial statements, including but not limited to:
</P>
<P>(i) Annual financial statements for the Qualified Issuer and each Eligible CDFI that have been audited in conformity with generally accepted auditing principles; and
</P>
<P>(ii) With respect to any nonprofit Qualified Issuer and any Eligible CDFI that is required to have its financial statements audited pursuant to OMB Circular A-133 Audits of States, Local Governments and Non-Profit Organizations, annual A-133 audited financial statements. Non-profit Qualified Issuers and Eligible CDFIs that are not required to have financial statements audited pursuant to OMB Circular A-133 must submit to the CDFI Fund a statement signed by the Qualified Issuer or Eligible CDFI's authorized representative or certified public accountant, asserting that a single audit pursuant OMB Circular A-133 is not required;
</P>
<P>(2) Pro forma projection of the Qualified Issuer's and Eligible CDFI's respective balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows over the ensuing five years, or such other time period as specified by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(3) Such institution-level and transaction-level reports as may be required by the CDFI Fund;
</P>
<P>(4) Information necessary to measure the financial condition of the Eligible CDFI. This includes, but is not limited to, measuring solvency by collecting data on fixed charge coverage, capital adequacy, debt coverage, and measuring liquidity by collecting data on core financial ratios, including current ratios, quick ratios, working capital, and operating liquidity ratio. This will also include credit reporting, financial statement analysis, trend analysis of financial conditions, market valuation, loan performance (30/60/90 payment history) of Bond Loans and Secondary Loans, valuation and eligibility of Secondary Loan collateral, and management and organization changes;
</P>
<P>(5) Information necessary to assess Program impact performance and outcome measures, including information necessary to evaluate the credit-worthiness of loan applicants; and
</P>
<P>(6) Other such information and reports as may be requested by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(f) <I>Qualified Issuer reports.</I> Qualified Issuers are responsible for the timely and complete submission of all required information and reports, even if all or a portion of the documents actually are completed by the Eligible CDFI. The CDFI Fund reserves the right to contact the Qualified Issuer or Eligible CDFI and require that additional information and documentation be provided.
</P>
<P>(g) <I>Regulator information.</I> The CDFI Fund's review of a regulated Qualified Issuer's or regulated Eligible CDFI's performance or compliance with the Bond Documents may also include information provided by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as the case may be.
</P>
<P>(h) <I>Public inspection.</I> The CDFI Fund shall make reports described in this section available for public inspection after deleting any materials necessary to protect privacy or proprietary interests pursuant to all applicable laws and regulations.
</P>
<P>(i) <I>Availability of referenced publications.</I> The publications referenced in this section are available as follows:
</P>
<P>(1) OMB Circulars may be obtained from the Office of Administration, Publications Office, 725 17th Street NW., Room 2200, New Executive Office Building, Washington, DC 20503 or on the Internet (<I>http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/grants_circulars/</I>); and
</P>
<P>(2) Government Accountability Office materials may be obtained from GAO Distribution, 700 4th Street NW., Suite 1100, Washington, DC 20548.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.620" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.21" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.620   Investments in Guaranteed Bonds ineligible for Community Reinvestment Act Purposes.</HEAD>
<P>Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any investment by a financial institution in Bonds shall not be taken into account in assessing the record of such institution for purposes of the Community Reinvestment Act of 1977 (12 U.S.C. 2901). Other forms of participation by financial institutions in CDFI Bond Guarantee Program transactions may be eligible for inclusion in Community Reinvestment Act records to the extent permitted by the Appropriate Federal Banking Agency.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.621" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.22" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.621   Conflict of interest requirements.</HEAD>
<P>(a) <I>Provision of Bond Loans or Secondary Loans to Affiliates.</I> (1) A Qualified Issuer or Eligible CDFI that is not regulated by an Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency may not use any Bond Proceeds or Bond Loan proceeds to make any Bond Loans or Secondary Loans available to an Affiliate unless it meets the following restrictions:
</P>
<P>(i) The loan must be provided pursuant to standard underwriting procedures, terms and conditions;
</P>
<P>(ii) The Affiliate receiving the loan shall not participate in any way in the decision-making regarding such loan;
</P>
<P>(iii) The board of directors or other governing body of the lender shall approve the extension of the loan; and
</P>
<P>(iv) The loan must be provided in accordance with a policy regarding credit to Affiliates that has been approved in advance by the CDFI Fund.
</P>
<P>(2) A Qualified Issuer or Eligible CDFI that is an Insured CDFI, a Depository Institution Holding Company or a State-Insured Credit Union (as such terms are defined in 12 CFR 1805.104) shall comply with the restrictions on insider activities and any comparable restrictions established by its Appropriate Federal Banking Agency or Appropriate State Agency, as applicable.
</P>
<P>(b) <I>Standards of conduct.</I> Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, Program Administrators, the Master Servicer, and Servicers shall maintain a code or standards of conduct acceptable to the CDFI Fund that govern the performance of employees engaged in the awarding and administration of any loan. No employee of a Qualified Issuer, Eligible CDFI, Program Administrators, the Master Servicer, and Servicer shall solicit or accept gratuities, favors or anything of monetary value from any actual or potential borrowers for such loans. Such policies shall provide for disciplinary actions to be applied for violation of the standards by employees.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.622" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.23" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.622   Compliance with government requirements.</HEAD>
<P>In carrying out its responsibilities pursuant to any agreements associated with the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program, all Qualified Issuers, Eligible CDFIs, Program Administrators, Servicers, and the Master Servicer/Trustee shall comply with all applicable Federal, State, and local laws, regulations, and ordinances, OMB Circulars, and Executive Orders, including restrictions on lending to entities with delinquent Federal debt.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.623" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.24" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.623   Lobbying restrictions.</HEAD>
<P>No fees or funds made available under this part may be expended by a party to pay any person to influence or attempt to influence any agency, elected official, officer or employee of a State or local government in connection with the making, award, extension, continuation, renewal, amendment, or modification of any State or local government contract, grant, loan or cooperative agreement as such terms are defined in 31 U.S.C. 1352.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.624" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.25" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.624   Criminal provisions.</HEAD>
<P>The criminal provisions of 18 U.S.C. 657 regarding embezzlement or misappropriation of funds are applicable to all CDFI Bond Guarantee Program participants and insiders.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.625" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.26" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.625   CDFI Fund deemed not to control.</HEAD>
<P>The CDFI Fund shall not be deemed to control a CDFI Bond Guarantee Program participant by reason of any Guarantee provided under the Act for the purpose of any applicable law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.626" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.27" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.626   Limitation on liability.</HEAD>
<P>The liability of the Federal Government arising out of any fees or funds obtained by a CDFI Bond Guarantee Program participant in accordance with this interim rule shall be limited to the amount of the fees or funds obtained by the CDFI Bond Guarantee Program participant. The Federal Government shall be exempt from any assessments and other liabilities that may be imposed on controlling or principal shareholders by any Federal law or the law of any State. Nothing in this section shall affect the application of any Federal tax law.


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1808.627" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.5.6.5.28" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1808.627   Fraud, waste and abuse.</HEAD>
<P>Any person who becomes aware of the existence or apparent existence of fraud, waste or abuse of any Guarantee, Bond, Bond Loan or Secondary Loan provided under this interim rule must report such incidents to the Office of Inspector General of the U.S. Department of the Treasury.


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV6>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1815" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PART 1815—ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY
</HEAD>
<AUTH>
<HED>Authority:</HED><PSPACE>12 U.S.C. 4703, 4717; 42 U.S.C. 4332; Chapter X, Pub L. 104-19, 109 Stat. 237 (12 U.S.C. 4703 note). 
</PSPACE></AUTH>
<SOURCE>
<HED>Source:</HED><PSPACE>60 FR 54130, Oct. 19, 1995, unless otherwise noted.


</PSPACE></SOURCE>

<DIV8 N="§ 1815.100" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.1" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.100   Policy.</HEAD>
<P>The Community Development Financial Institution Fund's policy is to ensure that environmental factors and concerns are given appropriate consideration in decisions and actions by the Fund and to reduce any possible adverse effects of Fund decisions and actions upon the quality of the human environment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.101" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.2" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.101   Purpose.</HEAD>
<P>This part supplements Council on Environmental Quality regulations for implementing the procedural provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969, as amended, and describe how the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund intends to consider environmental factors and concerns in the Fund's decisionmaking process. This part applies only to the Fund and not to any other bureau, office or organization within the Department of the Treasury. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.102" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.3" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.102   Definitions.</HEAD>
<P>(a) For the purpose of this part: 
</P>
<P>(1) <I>Act</I> means the Community Development Banking and Financial Institutions Act (12 U.S.C. 4701 <I>et seq.</I>); 
</P>
<P>(2) <I>Application</I> means a request for assistance from the Fund submitted pursuant to parts 1805 or 1806 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(3) <I>CEQ regulations</I> means the regulations for implementing the procedural provisions of the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 as promulgated by the Council on Environmental Quality, Executive Office of the President, appearing at 40 CFR parts 1500-1508 and to which this part is a supplement; 
</P>
<P>(4) <I>Comprehensive Business Plan</I> means a document submitted as part of an Application pursuant to part 1805 of this chapter which describes an organization's proposed process for offering products or services to a particular market, including organizational requirements needed to serve that market effectively; 
</P>
<P>(5) <I>Consumer Loans</I> means loans to one or more individuals for household, family or other personal expenditures; 
</P>
<P>(6) <I>Decisionmaker</I> means the Director of the Fund, unless an appropriate delegation of authority has been made; 
</P>
<P>(7) <I>EIS</I> means an environmental impact statement as defined in 40 CFR 1508.11 of the CEQ regulations; 
</P>
<P>(8) <I>Fund</I> means the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, established under section 104(a) of the Act (12 U.S.C. 4703(a)); 
</P>
<P>(9) <I>NEPA</I> means the National Environmental Policy Act, as amended, 42 U.S.C. 4321-4335; and 
</P>
<P>(10) <I>Project</I> means all closely related actions relating to a specific site. 
</P>
<P>(b) Other terms used in this part are defined in 40 CFR part 1508 of the CEQ regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.103" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.4" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.103   Designation of responsible Fund official.</HEAD>
<P>The Director of the Fund is the designated Fund official responsible for implementation and operation of the Fund's policies and procedures on environmental quality and control. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.104" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.5" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.104   Specific responsibilities of the designated Fund official.</HEAD>
<P>The designated Fund official shall: 
</P>
<P>(a) Coordinate the formulation and revision of Fund policies and procedures on matters pertaining to environmental quality and control; 
</P>
<P>(b) Establish and maintain working relationships with relevant government agencies (including Federal, state and local) concerned with environmental matters; 
</P>
<P>(c) Develop procedures within the Fund's planning and decisionmaking processes to ensure that environmental factors are properly considered in all proposals and decisions in accordance with this part; 
</P>
<P>(d) Develop, monitor, and review the Fund's implementation of standards, procedures, and working relationships for protection and enhancement of environmental quality and compliance with applicable laws and regulations; 
</P>
<P>(e) Monitor processes to ensure that the Fund's procedures regarding consideration of environmental quality are achieving their intended purposes; 
</P>
<P>(f) Advise the officers and employees of the Fund of technical and management requirements of environmental analysis, of appropriate expertise available, and, with the assistance of the Department of the Treasury's Office of the General Counsel, of relevant legal developments; 
</P>
<P>(g) Monitor the consideration and documentation of the environmental aspects of Fund planning and decisionmaking processes by appropriate officers and employees of the Fund; 
</P>
<P>(h) Ensure that all environmental assessments and, where required, all EISs are prepared in accordance with the appropriate regulations adopted by the Council on Environmental Quality and the Fund; 
</P>
<P>(i) Ensure that, as required, a legislative EIS is submitted with all proposed legislation; 
</P>
<P>(j) Consolidate and transmit to appropriate parties the Fund's comments on EISs and other environmental reports prepared by other agencies; 
</P>
<P>(k) Acquire information and prepare appropriate reports on environmental matters required of the Fund; and 
</P>
<P>(l) Coordinate the Fund's efforts to make available to other parties information and advice on the Fund's policies for protecting and enhancing the quality of the environment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.105" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.6" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.105   Major decision points.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The possible environmental effects of an Application, including any Comprehensive Business Plan, must be considered along with technical, economic, and other factors throughout the decisionmaking process. For most Fund actions there are two distinct stages in the decisionmaking process: 
</P>
<P>(1) Preliminary approval stage, at which point applications are selected for funding; and 
</P>
<P>(2) Final approval and funding stage. 
</P>
<P>(b) Environmental review shall be integrated into the decisionmaking process of the Fund as follows: 
</P>
<P>(1) During the preliminary approval stage, the designated Fund official shall determine whether the Application proposes actions which are categorically excluded, or normally require an environmental assessment or an EIS; 
</P>
<P>(2) If the designated Fund official determines that the Application proposes actions which normally require an environmental assessment or an EIS, the applicant shall be informed that the final approval and funding, in addition to any other conditions, is contingent upon: 
</P>
<P>(i) The applicant supplying to the Fund all information necessary for the Fund to perform or have performed any environmental review required by this part; 
</P>
<P>(ii) The applicant not using any Fund financial assistance to perform any of such proposed actions in the Application that affect the physical environment until Fund approval is received; and 
</P>
<P>(iii) The outcome of the environmental review required by this part; 
</P>
<P>(3) The Fund will perform or have performed the environmental reviews required by this part; 
</P>
<P>(4) A preliminary approval of an Application may be withdrawn or further conditions may be imposed based upon the outcome of an environmental review required by this part; and 
</P>
<P>(5) If the designated Fund official determines that the Application proposes actions that require an environmental assessment or an EIS, the environmental assessment and/or EIS must be completed and circulated prior to the use of Federal funds for any activity that triggers the need for an environmental assessment and/or EIS. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.106" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.7" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.106   Supplemental environmental review.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The designated Fund official shall determine whether the proposed actions in the Application are sufficiently definite to perform a meaningful environmental review during the preliminary approval stage. 
</P>
<P>(b) If the designated Fund official determines that the Application is sufficiently definite to perform a meaningful environmental review during the preliminary approval stage, no conditions for supplemental environmental review shall be imposed. 
</P>
<P>(c) If the designated Fund official determines that the Application, or any part of the Application, is not sufficiently definite to complete a meaningful environmental review during the preliminary approval stage, the Fund shall require a supplemental environmental review prior to the taking of any action directly using Fund financial assistance that is not categorically excluded from environmental review or for which an environmental assessment or EIS has not been approved by the Fund. The applicant shall notify the designated Fund official when proposing any action requiring a supplemental environmental review and shall supply to the Fund all information necessary for the Fund to perform the supplemental environmental review. The Fund shall perform or have performed such a supplemental environmental review. The applicant shall not use any Fund financial assistance to perform any of the proposed actions requiring a supplemental environmental review that affect the physical environment until Fund approval for such action is received. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.107" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.8" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.107   Determination of review requirement.</HEAD>
<P>In deciding whether to prepare an EIS, the designated Fund official shall determine whether the proposal is one that normally: 
</P>
<P>(a) Requires an EIS; 
</P>
<P>(b) Requires an environmental assessment, but not necessarily an EIS; or 
</P>
<P>(c) Does not require either an EIS or an environmental assessment (categorical exclusion). 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.108" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.9" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.108   Actions that normally require an EIS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If necessary, the Fund shall perform or have performed an environmental assessment to determine if an Application, or any portion of an Application, requires an EIS. However, it may be readily apparent that a proposed action in an Application will have a significant impact on the environment; in such cases, an environmental assessment is not required and the Fund shall immediately begin to prepare, or have prepared, an EIS. 
</P>
<P>(b) An EIS normally is required where an Application proposes to directly use financial assistance from the Fund for any Project that would: 
</P>
<P>(1) Remove, demolish, convert, or substantially rehabilitate 2,500 or more existing housing units, or would result in the construction or installation of 2,500 or more new housing units, or which would provide sites for 2,500 or more new housing units; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Remove, demolish, convert, or substantially rehabilitate 1,500,000 square feet or more of commercial space, or would result in the construction or installation of 1,500,000 square feet or more of new commercial space, or which would provide sites for 1,500,000 square feet or more of new commercial space. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.109" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.10" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.109   Preparation of an EIS.</HEAD>
<P>(a) If the Fund determines that an EIS should be prepared, it shall publish a notice of intent in the <E T="04">Federal Register</E> in accordance with 40 CFR 1501.7 and 1508.22 of the CEQ regulations. After publishing the notice of intent, the Fund shall begin to prepare or have prepared the EIS. Procedures for preparing the EIS are set forth in 40 CFR part 1502 of the CEQ regulations. 
</P>
<P>(b) The Fund may supplement a draft or final EIS at any time. The Fund shall prepare or have prepared a supplement to either the draft or final EIS when: 
</P>
<P>(1) Substantial changes are proposed to an action contained in the draft or final EIS that are relevant to environmental concerns or there are significant new circumstances or information relevant to environmental concerns and bearing on the proposed action or its impacts; or 
</P>
<P>(2) Actions are proposed which relate or are similar to other action(s) taken or proposed and that together have a cumulatively significant impact on the environment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.110" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.11" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.110   Categorical exclusion.</HEAD>
<P>The CEQ regulations provide for the categorical exclusion of actions that do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment (40 CFR 1508.4). Therefore, neither an environmental assessment nor an EIS is required for such actions. An action which falls into one of the categories below may still require the preparation of an EIS or environmental assessment if the designated Fund official determines it meets the criteria stated in § 1815.109 or involves extraordinary circumstances that may have a significant environmental effect. The Fund has determined the following categorical exclusions: 
</P>
<P>(a) Actions directly related to the administration or operation of the Fund (e.g. personnel actions, including, but not limited to, staff recruitment and training; purchase of goods and services for the Fund, including, but not limited to, furnishings, equipment, supplies and services; space acquisition; property management; and security); 
</P>
<P>(b) Actions directly related to and implementing proposals for which an environmental assessment or an environmental assessment and EIS have been prepared; 
</P>
<P>(c) Actions directly related to the granting or receipt of Bank Enterprise Act awards pursuant to part 1806 of this chapter; 
</P>
<P>(d) Actions directly related to training and/or technical assistance; 
</P>
<P>(e) Projects for the acquisition, disposition, rehabilitation and/or modernization of 500 existing housing units or less when all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) Unit density is not increased more than 20 percent; 
</P>
<P>(2) The Project does not involve changes in land use from nonresidential to residential; 
</P>
<P>(3) The estimated cost of rehabilitation is less than 75 percent of the total estimated cost of replacement after rehabilitation; and 
</P>
<P>(4) The Project does not involve the demolition of one or more buildings containing the primary use served by the project that, together, have more than 20 percent of the square footage of the Project; 
</P>
<P>(f) Projects for the construction of 200 housing units or less when all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Project does not involve changes in existing land use from nonresidential to residential; and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Project does not involve the demolition of one or more buildings containing the primary use served by the project that, together, have more than 20 percent of the square footage of the Project; 
</P>
<P>(g) Projects for the acquisition, disposition, rehabilitation and/or modernization of 200,000 square feet or less of existing commercial space when all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Project does not involve changes in existing land use from residential to nonresidential; 
</P>
<P>(2) The estimated cost of rehabilitation is less than 75 percent of the total estimated cost of replacement after rehabilitation; and 
</P>
<P>(3) The Project does not involve the demolition of more than 10,000 square feet of commercial space containing the primary use served by the Project; 
</P>
<P>(h) Projects for the construction of 100,000 square feet or less of commercial space when all the following conditions are met: 
</P>
<P>(1) The Project does not involve changes in existing land use from residential to nonresidential: and 
</P>
<P>(2) The Project does not involve the demolition of more than 10,000 square feet of commercial space containing the primary use served by the Project; 
</P>
<P>(i) Projects for the acquisition of an existing structure, provided that the property to be acquired is in place and will be retained in the same use; 
</P>
<P>(j) Projects involving Fund financial assistance of $1,000,000 or less; 
</P>
<P>(k) Actions directly related to the provision of residential tenant-based rental assistance, Consumer Loans, health care, child care, educational, cultural and/or social services; 
</P>
<P>(l) Actions involving Fund financial assistance that is used to increase the permanent capital and/or liquidity of an applicant; 
</P>
<P>(m) Actions where no use of Federal funds is involved in the activity or Project; and 
</P>
<P>(n) Actions directly related to the provision of working capital, the acquisition of machinery and equipment or the purchase of inventory, raw materials or supplies. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.111" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.12" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.111   Actions that require an environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>If a Project or action is not one that normally requires an EIS and does not qualify for categorical exclusion, the Fund shall prepare, or have prepared, an environmental assessment. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.112" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.13" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.112   Preparation of an environmental assessment.</HEAD>
<P>(a) The Fund shall begin the preparation of an environmental assessment as early as possible after the designated Fund official has determined that it is required. The Fund may prepare an environmental assessment at any time to assist planning and decisionmaking. 
</P>
<P>(b) An environmental assessment is a concise public document used to determine whether to prepare an EIS. An environmental assessment aids in complying with the NEPA when no EIS is necessary, and it facilitates the preparation of an EIS, if one is necessary. The environmental assessment shall contain brief discussions of the following topics: 
</P>
<P>(1) Purpose and need for the proposed action; 
</P>
<P>(2) Description of the proposed action; 
</P>
<P>(3) Alternatives considered, including the no action alternative; 
</P>
<P>(4) Environmental effects of the proposed action and alternative actions; and 
</P>
<P>(5) Listing of agencies, organizations or persons consulted. 
</P>
<P>(c) The most important or significant environmental consequences and effects on the areas listed below should be addressed in the environmental assessment. Only those areas which are specifically relevant to the particular proposal should be addressed. Those areas should be addressed in as much detail as is necessary to allow an analysis of the alternatives and the proposal. The areas to be considered are the following: 
</P>
<P>(1) Natural/ecological features (such as floodplain, wetlands, coastal zones, wildlife refuges, and endangered species); 
</P>
<P>(2) Air quality; 
</P>
<P>(3) Sound levels; 
</P>
<P>(4) Water supply, wastewater treatment and water runoff; 
</P>
<P>(5) Energy requirements and conservation; 
</P>
<P>(6) Solid waste; 
</P>
<P>(7) Transportation; 
</P>
<P>(8) Community facilities and services; 
</P>
<P>(9) Social and economic; 
</P>
<P>(10) Historic and aesthetic; and 
</P>
<P>(11) Other relevant factors. 
</P>
<P>(d) If the Fund completes an environmental assessment and determines that an EIS is not required, then the Fund shall prepare a finding of no significant impact. The finding of no significant impact shall be made available to the public by the Fund as specified in 40 CFR 1506.6 of the CEQ regulations. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.113" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.14" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.113   Public involvement.</HEAD>
<P>All information collected by the Fund pursuant to this part shall be available to the public consistent with the CEQ regulations. Interested persons may obtain information concerning any pending EIS or any other element of the environmental review process of the Fund by contacting the Community Development Financial Institutions Fund, Department of the Treasury, 1500 Pennsylvania Avenue NW., room 5116, Washington, DC 20220, or such other contact entity designated by the Fund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.114" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.15" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.114   Fund decisionmaking procedures.</HEAD>
<P>To ensure that at major decisionmaking points all relevant environmental concerns are considered by the Decisionmaker, the following procedures are established: 
</P>
<P>(a) An environmental document, i.e., the EIS, environmental assessment, finding of no significant impact, or notice of intent, in addition to being prepared at the earliest point in the decisionmaking process, shall accompany the relevant proposal or action through the Fund's decisionmaking process to ensure adequate consideration of environmental factors; 
</P>
<P>(b) The Decisionmaker shall consider in its decisionmaking process only those alternatives discussed in the relevant environmental documents. Also, where an EIS has been prepared, the decisionmaker shall consider all comments received during any comment process and all alternatives described in the EIS. A written record of the consideration of alternatives during the decisionmaking process shall be maintained; and 
</P>
<P>(c) Any environmental document prepared for a proposal or action shall be made part of the record of any formal rulemaking by the Fund. 


</P>
</DIV8>


<DIV8 N="§ 1815.115" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.6.0.5.16" TYPE="SECTION">
<HEAD>§ 1815.115   OMB control number.</HEAD>
<P>The collection of information requirements in this part have been approved by the Office of Management and Budget and assigned OMB control number 1505-0153 (expires September 30, 1998).


</P>
</DIV8>

</DIV5>


<DIV5 N="1816-1899" NODE="12:10.0.8.11.7" TYPE="PART">
<HEAD>PARTS 1816-1899 [RESERVED]


</HEAD>
</DIV5>

</DIV3>

</DIV1>

</ECFRBRWS>
</BODY>
</TEXT>
</DLPSTEXTCLASS>
